(6001CMD30300123006) *6001CMD30300123006* Test Pattern

English

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MINOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 19-07-2023

PRE-MEDICAL_NURTURE_PHASE- I & II_WD-Evening & W-End Batch_IT-3

Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 28 pages.

Q2 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and
fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Biology-I and Biology-II). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be
evaluated.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one
mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
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Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules and Regulations of this examination.
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whether such candidate (having a physical limitation to write) uses the facility of scribe or not.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) :

Form Number : in figures
: in words
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Candidate's Signature : Invigilator's Signature :
 2 English

Topic : Kinematics (Motion along a straight line and Motion in a plane) (Graphical Section to Oblique
Projection From Height)

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 6. The ratio of the distances traversed, in

successive intervals of time by a body falling
1. A body dropped from a tower reaches the ground from rest, are
in 5s. The height of the tower is about : (1) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 : ..................
(1) 80 m (2) 125 m (2) 2 : 4 : 6 : 8 : 10 : .................
(3) 160 m (4) 40 m (3) 1 : 4 : 7 : 10 : 13 : ................
2. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level (4) None of these
of water is h below the top of the well. If v is
velocity of sound, the time T after which the 7. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. The ball was
splash is heard is given by. observed at a height h twice with a time interval
(2)
Δ t. The initial velocity of the ball is
(1) 2h 2h h
T=
v
T =√
g
+
v (1) √ Δ
8gh + (g t)
2
(2)
√
2gh + (
Δ
g t 2
)
2
(3) 2h h (4) h 2h
8gh + (2g Δ t)
T =√ + T =√ + (3)
v g 2g v √
2 (4) √ 2gh
3. Three different objects of masses m1, m2 and 8. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with 40
m3 are allowed to fall from rest and from the m/s. its velocity after three seconds will be :
same point 'O' along three different frictionless
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
paths. The speeds of the three objects on
reaching the grounds, will be in the ratio of :- (3) 30 m/s (4) 40 m/s
(1) m1 : m2 : m3 (2) m1 : 2m2 : 3m3 9. A ball is thrown upward with a velocity of 50
1 1 1
m/s. It will reach the ground after :-
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 (4) : :
m1 m2 m3 (1) 10 s (2) 20 s
4. A body falling from height 'h' takes t1 time to (3) 5 s (4) 40 s
reach the ground. The time taken to cover the
th 10. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed
1
first ( ) of the height is : u, the distance covered during the last 't' seconds
4
t1 t2
of its ascent is :-
(1) t2 = (2) t2 =
√ 2 √ 2 (1) ut (2) 1 2
gt
t1 2
(3) t2 = (4) None of these
2 (3) 1 2 (4) (u + gt)t
ut − gt
2
5. An object is dropped vertically down on earth.
The change in its speed after falling through a
distance 2d from its highest point is
(1) mgd (2) √ 2gd

(3) (4) mg
2√gd 2√
d

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11. A person walks along an east-west street and a 14. Which of the following velocity-time graphs
graph of his displacement from home is shown in represent uniformly acceleration motion ?
figure. His average speed for the whole time (2)
interval is (1)

(3) (4)

(1) 0 (2) 23 m/s

15. The v-t graph of linear motion of a particle starts
(3) 8 m/s (4) None of these its motion from origin is shown in adjoining
12. Which one of the following curves do not figure. The distance of particle from origin after
represent motion in one dimension :- 8 sec. is :-
(1) (2)

(3) (4) (1) 18 meters (2) 16 meters

16.
13. A particle is moving in a straight line y=3x. Its
velocity time graph is shown in figure. Its speed
is minimum at t = ....................
(3) 8 meters (4) 6 meters
A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration at
time t = 0 is 5 m/s2 which varies with time as
shown in the figure. The maximum speed of the
particle will be :

(1) 7.5 m/s (2) 15 m/s

(1) 2s (2) 4s (3) 6s (4) 8s
(3) 20 m/s (4) 37.5 m/s

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17. A particle starts from rest, its acceleration-time 19. In the graph shown is fig. time is plotted along x-
graph is shown in figure. axis. Which quantity associated with a projectile
motion is plotted along the y - axis ?

(1) Kinetic energy

(2) Momentum
Find out velocity at t = 4 sec
(3) Horizontal velocity
(1) 20 m/s (2) 30 m/s
(4) None of the above
(3) 40 m/s (4) None of these
20. If a projectile is fired at an angle θ to the vertical
18. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d
with velocity u, then maximum height attained is
above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces
given by :
up vertically to a height d/2. Neglecting
subsequent motion and air resistance. The graph (1) u2 cos θ (2) u2 sin2 θ
according to which its velocity V varies with the 2g 2g
height h above the ground is :- (3) u2 sin2 θ (4) u2 cos2 θ
g 2g
(1) (2)
21. Two projectiles are projected with velocity vA,
vB at angles θ A (from horizontal) and θ B (from
vertical) as shown in the figure below, such that
vA > vB but having same horizontal component
of velocity. Which of the following can not be
correct ?

(3) (4)

(1) TA > TB (2) HA > HB

(3) RA > RB (4) RB > RA

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22. The angle which the velocity vector of a 27. A plane is flying horizontally at 98 3m/s and √

projectile, will make with the vertical after time t releases an object which reaches the ground in
of its being thrown with a velocity v at an angle 10 s. The angle made by it with horizontal while
θ to the horizontal, is : hitting the ground is :
(1) θ (1) 55º (2) 45º (3) 60º (4) 30º
(2) tan−1 (
θ )
28. The horizontal range and the maximum height of
t a projectile are equal. The angle of projection of
(3) tan−1 (
v cos θ the projectile is :-
θ
v sin − gt
)

(1) θ = tan −1
(2) θ = 45º
v sin θ − gt
(2)
(4)
v cos θ
tan−1 (
θ = tan θ = tan
)
(3) 1 −1
−1
( ) (4) (4)
4
23. A projectile is thrown from a point in a
horizontal plane such that it's horizontal and 29. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A
vertical velocity components are 9.8 m/s and 4.9 is 2i^ + 3j^ m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point B
( )

m/s respectively. Its horizontal range is : is :-

(1) 4.9 m (2) 9.8 m (3) 19.6 m (4) 39.2 m
24. gx2
The equation of a projectile is y = x − . The
2
angle of projection is :
(1) 30º (2) 60º (3) 45º (4) None
25. A body is projected at an angle θ with (1) ^ ^
2i + 3j (2) ^
−2i − 3j
^

horizontal, another body is projected with the (3) −2i^ + 3j^ (4) 2i^ − 3j^
same speed at an angle θ with the vertical then
the ratio of maximum height is :- 30. A particle is thrown with velocity u making an
angle θ with the vertical. It just crosses the top
(1) 1 : 1 (2) θ
tan2 : 1
of two poles each of height h after 1 s and 3 s
(3) 1 : cot θ (4) None of these respectively. The maximum height of projectile
26. A particle is projected horizontally with a speed is g = 9.8 m/s2 −
[ ]

20
of m/s, from some height at t = 0. At what
√ 3
time will its velocity make 30º angle with the
initial velocity

(1) 9.8 m (2) 19.6 m

(3) 39.2 m (4) 4.9 m

(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec

(3) 1.5 sec (4) 2/3 sec
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31. Co-ordinate of moving particle at any time t are SECTION-B ( PHYSICS )

given by x = 2t2, y = 5 t2 . Here x and y are in
2 36. A ball is thrown upwards from the foot of a
meter and t is in seconds. Its speed at t = 1 sec is -
tower. The ball crosses the top of tower twice
(1) 3 m/s (2) 4 m/s (3) 5 m/s (4) √ 41 m/s after an interval of 4 seconds and the ball reaches
32. A particle moves along the parabolic path y = ax2 in ground after 8 seconds. Then the height of tower
such a way that the x-component of the velocity in meters is : (g = 10 m/s2)
remains constant say c. The acceleration of particle. (1) 30 m (2) 450 m
^ ^
(1) ack (2) 2ac2 ^j (3) ac2 k (4) a2 cj^ (3) 50 m (4) 60 m
33. A particle is falling freely under gravity. In first t 37. A person throws balls into air vertically upwards
second it covers distance d1 and in the next t at regular intervals of time of one second. The
second it covers distance d2, then t is given by : next ball is thrown when the velocity of the ball
(1) (2) thrown earlier becomes zero. The height to
d2 + d1 2 (d2 + d1 )
√
g
√
which the balls rise is : (Assume, g = 10 ms – 2)
g
(3) (4) 2 (d2 − d1 )
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m
√
d2 − d1 √

g g (3) 7.5 m (4) 20 m

34. A ball is released from point A. During its 38. A ball is thrown upwards with a speed of 40 m/s.
motion ball takes two seconds from B to C. Find When the speed becomes half of the initial
the time taken by ball from A to C. speed, gravity is switched off for next 2 second.
After that gravity is again switched on but
magnitude of gravity is doubled. The total
distance travelled by the ball from t = 0 to the
time it reaches the maximum height is :-
(1) 55 m (2) 110 m
(3) 145 m (4) 165 m
39. A particle projected vertically upwards with a
velocity u from a point O. When it returns to the
point of projection.
(1) 4 s (2) 5 s (3) 6 s (4) 7 s
(1) Its average speed is u/2
35. A body is thrown up vertically with 100 m/sec. It (2) Average speed is u
travels a distance 5 m in last second of it's
journey while going up, (before coming to rest (3) Average speed is zero
momentarily). If it is thrown up by 500 m/s, how (4) None of these
much distance it travels in last second of journey
while going up.
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m
(3) 15 m (4) 20 m
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40. For a particle moving along x-axis, speed must 44. Assertion : Projectile motion always follows
be increasing for the following graph : parabolic path
(1) Reason : Because acceleration is uniform
(2)
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & reason are true but
Reason is not correct explanation of the
(3) (4)
Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
45. Assertion : Area between v – t graph is equal to
41. Position-time graph is given find average speed displacement
in time t = 0 and t = 15 sec is :- Reason : ∫ vdt = Δs
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & reason are true but
Reason is not correct explanation of the
Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(1) 5 m/s (2) 5 (4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
m/s
3
2
46. Assertion : Height travelled by particle is last "t"
(3) 2 m/s (4) m/s
3 time of upward journey is 1 gt2
2
42. If ball is thrown from some height at an angle Reason : From maximum height to height full in
with horizontal, for maximum horizontal range 1 2 1 2
next "t" time is h = o t + gt = gt
the angle of projection should be 2 2

(1) Zero (2) 45º (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) >45º (4) <45º Assertion
43. A cricket ball is thrown by a player at a speed of (2) If both Assertion & reason are true but
20 m/s in a direction 30º above the horizontal. Reason is not correct explanation of the
The maximum height attained by the ball during Assertion
its motion is : (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(1) 5 m (2) 10 m
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
(3) 20 m (4) 25 m
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47. Assertion : Velocity of projectile at maximum 48. Assertion : During projectile motion horizontal
height is zero component of velocity remains constant
Reason : Acceleration is downwards so during Reason : Horizontal component of acceleration is
motion speed always decreases zero
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of the reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & reason are true but (2) If both Assertion & reason are true but
Reason is not correct explanation of the Reason is not correct explanation of the
Assertion Assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false (4) If both Assertion & Reason are false
49. Path of trajactory of projectile is
x2
y=x−( ) , angle of projection
50
(1) 30 (2) 45º
(3) 60º (4) All
50. Time to reach at maximum height for projectile
is
(1) uy (2) uy 2uy
g g g
(3) 2uy (4) 2ux
g g

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Topic : Periodic Table, Chemical Bonding (up to VBT)

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 58. In going from left to right in a period:

(1) The basic nature of the oxides increases
51. What is the atomic number of last member of the
seventh period of the extended form of periodic (2) Acidic nature decreases of oxides
table? (3) The basic nature of the oxides decreases
(1) 116 (2) 118 (4) No gradation in the nature of oxides is
(3) 120 (4) 122 observed
52. An element 'X' with atomic number 114 has 59. The correct order of relative stability of half
recently been discovered. Its IUPAC name is: filled and completely filled shells is:
(1) Eka - lead (2) Ununfortium (1) p3 < d 5 < d 10 < p6

(3) Ununquadium (4) Bohrium (2) d 5 > p3 > d 10 < p6

53. The process requiring absorption of energy is: (3) p3 < d 10 < d 5 < p6

(1) F → F− (2) H → H− (4) d 5 < p3 < d 10 < p6

(3) Cl → Cl− (4) N → N− 60. Increasing order of negative electron gain

enthalpy is:
54. In the following the element with the highest
ionisation energy is: (1) N < O < Cl < Al (2) O < N < Al < Cl
(1) [Ne] 3s2 3p1 (2) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 (3) N < Al < O < Cl (4) Cl < N < O < Al
(3) [Ne] 3s2 3p2 (4) [Ne] 3s2 3p4 61. Among the isoelectronic species, K+, S2-, Cl- and
Ca2+ the radii of the ions decrease as:
55. The second ionization energy is maximum for:
(1) Ca2+ > K + > Cl− > S 2−
(1) Boron (2) Beryllium
(2) Cl− > S 2− > K + > Ca2+
(3) Magnesium (4) Aluminium
(3) S 2− > Cl− > K + > Ca2+
56. The set representing the correct order of first
ionisation enthalpy is: (4) K + > Ca2+ > S 2− > Cl−

(1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca 62. Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic.
Then:
(3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C
(1) Their sizes are same
57. The correct order of atomic radii is:
(2) Cl− ion is bigger than K+ ion
(1) Na < Be < B
− 2− 3−
(3) K+ ion is relatively bigger
(2) F <O <N
(4) Their sizes depend on other cation and
(3) Na < Li < K
anion
(4) F e3+ < F e2+ < F e4+

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63. Which of the following orders regarding 68. Assertion (A): F atom has a less electron affinity
ionization energy is correct? than chlorine.
(1) N > O > F (2) N < O < F Reason (R): Additional electrons are repelled
more effectively by 3p electrons in Cl atom than
(3) N > O < F (4) N < O > F by 2p electrons in F atom.
64. The electron gain enthalpy values of elements A, (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
B, C and D are respectively and Reason is the correct explanation of the
−135, −60, −200 and − 348 kJ mol−1 . The Assertion.
outer electronic configuration of B is:
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
(1) 3s23p5 (2) 3s23p4 and Reason is not the correct explanation of
(3) 3s23p3 (4) 3s23p2 Assertion.
65. The set representing the correct order of ionic (3) If Assertion is correct and Reason is
radius is: incorrect.
(1) Li+ > Be2+ > Na+ > Mg 2+ (4) If both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(2) Na+ > Li+ > Mg 2+ > Be2+ 69. Assertion (A): The ionic size of Mg2+ is larger
than Al3+.
(3) Li+ > Na+ > Mg 2+ > Be2+
Reason (R): In isoelectronic species, greater the
(4) Mg 2+ > Be2+ > Li+ > Na+ nuclear charge, less is the size.
66. The element with atomic number 35 belongs to: (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
(1) d - block (2) f - block and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) p - block (4) s - block
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
67. Assertion (A): Helium and beryllium have and Reason is not the correct explanation of
similar outer electronic configuration ns2. Assertion.
Reason (R): Both are chemically inert.
(3) If Assertion is correct and Reason is
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct incorrect.
and Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion. (4) If both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct 70. Considering the elements B, C, N, F and Na, the
and Reason is not the correct explanation of correct order of their non-metallic character is:
Assertion. (1) B > C > Na > N > F
(3) If Assertion is correct and Reason is (2) Na > C > B > N > F
incorrect.
(3) F > N > C > B > Na
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
(4) F > N > C > Na > B

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71. The five successive enthalpies of an element are 79. The formula for effective nuclear charge is (if σ
800, 2427, 3658, 25024 and 32824 kJ mol-1. The is screening constant)
number of valence electrons in the element is: (1) Z− σ (2) Z+ σ (3) Z σ −1 (4) Z σ
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 80. In which of the following process energy is
72. Aluminium is diagonally related to: liberated:-
(1) Li (2) Si (3) Be (4) B (1) Cl → Cl+ + e− (2) HCl → H + + Cl−

73. Amongt the following elements (whose (3) Cl + e− → Cl− (4) O− + e− → O−2
electronic configurations are given below) the 81. Element of which atomic number has highest
one having highest metallic nature is: electron affinity:-
(1) [Ne] 3s23p4 (2) [Ne] 3s23p3 (1) 35 (2) 17 (3) 9 (4) 53
(3) [Ne] 3s23p5 (4) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 82. Second electron affinity of an element is:-
74. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide? (1) Always exothermic - first
(1) MgO (2) Al2O3 (2) Endothermic for few elements
(3) SiO2 (4) P2O5 (3) Exothermic for few elements
75. Which of the following ions is most unlikely to (4) Always endothermic
exist?
83. Period & Group no.of atomic no. 50 are
(1) Li− (2) Br− (3) Cl− (4) F−
respectively
76. The element having very high ionization (1) 4th, 14th (2) 5th, 13th
enthalpy but zero electron gain enthalpy is:
(3) 5th, 14th (4) 4th, 13th
(1) H (2) F (3) He (4) Be
84. Which are correct match:-
77. The first ionization potential of Mg, Al, P and S
(a) Eka silicon - Be
follows the order (b) Eka aluminium - Ga
(1) Mg < Al < P < S (2) Al < Mg < P < S (c) Eka manganese - Tc
(3) Al < Mg < S < P (4) Mg < Al < S < P (d) Eka scandium - B
78. Which statement is false:- (1) b, c (2) a, b, d (3) a, d (4) All

(1) Screening effect increases down the group 85. Atomic wt. of P is 31 and Sb is 120. What will
be the atomic wt. of As, as per Dobereiner triad
(2) Zeff decreases down the group rule:-
(3) Zeff increases in a period (1) 151 (2) 75.5
(4) All (3) 89.5 (4) Unpredictable

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SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) 92. Which of the following is affected by stable

configuration of an atom:-
86. Consider the following statements: (a) Electronegativity (b) Ionisation potential
σ
I. A sigma ( ) bond is formed when two s- (c) Electron affinity
orbitals overlap Correct answer is:-
π
II. A pi( ) bond is formed when two p-orbitals (1) Only electronegativity
axially overlap
σ
III. A - bond is weaker than - bond π (2) Only ionisation potential
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (3) Electron affinity and ionisation potential
(1) I and II (2) II and III (4) All of the above
(3) I alone (4) II alone 93. Arrange the elements in increasing order of
87. Which overlapping is involved in HCl atomic radius Na, Rb, K, Mg:-
molecule:- (1) Na, K, Mg, Rb (2) K, Na, Mg, Rb
(1) s-s overlap (2) p-p overlap (3) Mg, Na, K, Rb (4) Rb, K, Mg, Na
(3) s-d overlap (4) s-p overlap 94. Which of the following pairs of elements have
88. Which of the following bonds is strongest ? almost similar atomic radii:-
(1) 1s - 1s (2) 2p - 2p (1) Zr, Hf (2) Mo, W (3) Co, Ni (4) All
(3) 2s - 2p (4) 1s - 2p 95. For the element X, student Mansi measured its
89. Number of σ and π bonds present in
radius as 102 nm, student Rohit as 203nm. and
Ankur as 100nm. using same apparatus. Their
CH3 − CH = CH − C ≡ CH are -
teacher explained that measurements were
(1) 10 σ, 3π (2) 10 σ, 2π correct by saying that recorded values by three
(3) 9 σ, 2π (4) 8 σ, 3π students were:-
90. In a triple bond there is sharing of:- (1) Crystal, van der Waal's and Covalent radii
(1) 3-electrons (2) 4-electrons (2) Covalent, crystal and van der Waal's radii
(3) 7-electrons (4) 6-electrons (3) Van der Waal's, ionic and covalent radii
91. The electron affinity (4) None is correct.
(1) Of carbon is greater than oxygen 96. Screening effect is not observed in:-
(2) Of fluorine is less than iodine (1) He+ (2) Li+2
(3) Of fluorine is greater than Chlorine (3) H (4) All of these
(4) Of sulphur is greater than oxygen

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97. Assertion (A): Helium atom has highest
ionisation energy among all the elements.
Reason (R): Helium is smallest atom among all
the elements.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(3) If assertion is true but the reason is false
13
99. Assertion (A): Na+ and Al3+ are isoelectronic but
ionic radius of Al3+ is less than that of Na+.
Reason (R): The magnitude of effective nuclear
charge on the outershell electrons in Al3+ is
greater than that in Na+.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion

(4) If assertion is false but the reason is true (3) If assertion is true but the reason is false

98. Assertion(A): The electron gain enthalpy of N is (4) If assertion is false but the reason is true
+ve while that of P is -ve. 100. Most basic oxide is ?
Reason (R): Smaller atomic size and half filled (1) Cl2O7 (2) N2O5
confi of N in which there is a considerable
electron-electron repulsion and hence the (3) BeO (4) Na2O
additional electron is not accepted easily.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
(3) If assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If assertion is false but the reason is true

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Topic : Living World

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 105. True regeneration is observed in :-

(1) Human (2) Planaria
101. Given below are two statements.
Assertion (A): Botanical gardens are sites of ex- (3) Lizard (4) Star fish
situ conservation and used as taxonomical aids. 106. The property of self consciousness is observed in
Reason (R): All taxonomical aids consist of ______
living beings only.
(1) Non vertebrates (2) Vertebrates
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
(3) Human beings (4) All mammals
a correct explanation of (A)
107. Find the incorrect statement from the following
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(1) The living world comprises an amazing
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
diversity of living organisms
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(2) Societies indulged in anthropocentric view
correct explanation of (A)
could register limited progress in biology
102. Biology can-be defined as :
(3) In majoring of higher animals and plants
(1) Science of life forms and living processes growth and reproduction are mutually
(2) Story of life on earth inclusive events
(3) Story of evolution of living organisms on (4) Increase in mass and increase in number of
earth individuals are twin characteristics of
growth
(4) All of the above
108. Consider the following characteristics :
103. How many of the following are features of living (A) Growth
organisms ? (B) Reproduction
Growth, Reproduction, Cellular organization, (C) Consciousness
Metabolism (D) Cellular Organisation
(1) Two (2) Four Which of the above features are not defining
(3) One (4) Three properties of living organisms ?

104. Non-living things : (1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C

(1) Show extrinsic growth (3) C, D (4) A, B

(2) Show extrinsic as well as intrinsic growth 109. Properties of tissues are :

(3) Can perform metabolism (1) Present in constituent cells

(4) Show intrinsic growth (2) Present in constituent cell organelles

(3) Present in molecular components of cell
(4) Arise as a result of interactions among the
constituent cells

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110. Assertion: All living organism present, past and
future are linked to one another.
Reason: All organism share common genetic
material, but to varying degrees
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not a correct explanation of
the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
111. _________ is the term used to denote the
condition, in which a metabolic reaction is
demonstrated outside the body of living
organism i.e., test tube.
(1) in-vivo (2) in-vitro
(3) ex-situ (4) in-situ
112. In unicellular organisms reproduction occurs by :
(1) Increase in the number of cells
(2) Increase in the mass of cells
(3) Fragmentation
(4) Only sexual reproduction
113. The number of species that are known and
described are _________
(1) 1.7-1.8 billion (2) 1.7-1.8 million
(3) 1.2-1.3 million (4) 17-18 million
114. The Biological concept of species given by Mayr
is based on -
(1) Morphological characters
(2) Method of Reproduction
(3) Vegetative and reproductive characters
(4) Inter breeding
15
115. Modern taxonomists use :-
(1) Cytological informations
(2) Phytochemistry
(3) Developmental studies
(4) All of these
116. ‘Systematics’ includes
(1) Identification and nomenclature only
(2) Identification, nomenclature and
classification only
(3) Identification, nomenclature, classification
and phylogeny
(4) Nomenclature and classification only
117. The term 'taxon' means :
(1) Plant or animal group included in a
category
(2) Taxonomy
(3) Kingdom
(4) All of the above
118. Assertion : Animals, mammals and dogs
represent taxa at different levels.
Reason : Plants and wheat are taxa at same
level.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True &
Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

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119. Reproduction is not considered as defining 124. Biodiversity means :-

characteristic of living organisms, Because (1) Number & types of plants present on earth
(1) Some non-living objects also capable of (2) Number & types of animals present on
replicating themselves earth
(2) Some living organisms do not reproduce (3) Number and types of kingdoms
(3) No living organism is capable of (4) Number & types of living organisms
reproducing by itself present on earth
(4) Growth and reproduction are mutually 125. Artificial classification on the basis of stamens
exclusive events was given by ?
120. Who wrote the book "Sytema Naturae" ? (1) John Ray
(1) Carolus Linnaeus (2) Charles Darwin (2) Earnst Mayr
(3) Aristotle (4) Leeuwenhoek (3) Linnaeus
121. Term systematics was derived from ––––––
A – (4) Bentham & Hooker
language word, 'systema' which means
126. For plants scientific names are based on agreed
B
–––––– –:
principles and criteria, which are provided in :
(1) A - Greek,
B - Evolutionary classification (1) ICBN (2) ICZN
(2) A - Latin, (3) ICNB (4) ICC
B - Systematic arrangement of organisms 127. In a biological name - Mangifera indica Linn.,
(3) A - English, B - Taxonomy of organism Linn indicates :
(4) A - Latin, B - Morphology of organism (1) Author (2) Breed
122. Organisms in the list given below, belonged to (3) Variety (4) Subspecies
how many different Genera and Species ? 128. Which of the following statements regarding the
Potato, Brinjal, Lion, Leopard, makoi, Tiger universal rules of biological nomenclature is
(1) 3 and 3 respectively incorrect?
(2) 2 and 6 respectively (1) The specific name starts with capital letter
and generic name with small letter.
(3) 6 and 6 respectively
(2) Biological names are either derived from
(4) 1 and 6 respectively latin language or latinised.
123. Each different kind of organism present on earth (3) Both the words in a biological name, when
represents a ___________ hand written are underlined saperately or
(1) Species (2) Genus printed in italics to indicate their latin
(3) Population (4) Community origin.
(4) Tautonyms are not acceptable in ICBN.

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129. According to binomial nomenclature, the correct
way to print the scientific name of Mango is
(1) Mangifera Indica Linn.
(2) Mangifera Indica
(3) Mangifera indica Linnaeus
(4) Mangifera indica Linn.
130. Organisms of which of the following categories
have less number of similarities as compared to
order ?
(1) Genus (2) Division
(3) Species (4) Family
131. Study the following statements carefully :-
(A) A genus is group of related species which
have less characters in common in comparision
to species of other genera.
(B) A family is a group of different species
present in a given area
(C) Genus is an aggregate of closely related
species
(D) An order is a group of related families
having less similarities in comparison to genus
and species.
How many statements are correct ?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) Four
132. Match the column-I with column-II and choose
the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Genus) (Order)
i. Mangifera a Poales
ii. Musca b Primata
iii. Triticum c Sapindales
iv. Homo d Diptera
(1) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
(2) i - c, ii - d, iii - b, iv - a
(3) i - c, ii - d, iii - a, iv - b
(4) i - d, ii - c, iii - b, iv - a
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133. When we go higher from species to kingdom in
taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common
characters goes on :
(1) Increase
(2) First decrease then increase
(3) Decrease
(4) Either decrease or increase
134. How many of the following statements are
correct?
(a) Each genus may have one or more than one
specific Epithet.
(b) Families are characterised on the basis of
both vegetative and reproductive features of
plant species
(c) Monkey, gorilla and gibbon are placed in
class mammalia along with cats and dogs
(d) Systematics do not consider evolutionary
relationships between organisms
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
135. A housefly belong to which genus, family and
order ?
(1) Domestica, Diptera and Musca respectively
(2) Muscidae, Diptera and Musca respectively
(3) Muscidae, Diptera and Domestica
respectively
(4) Musca, Muscidae, Diptera respectively
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SECTION-B ( BOTANY ) 140. ‘Animals’, ‘Mammals’, ‘wheat’, ‘dogs’,

represent :-
136. Assertion: Cytotaxonomy is based on cytological (1) Categories
information like chromosome number, structure
and behaviour. (2) Catalogues
Reason: Cytotaxonomy is based on chemical (3) Taxa at different levels
constituents of the plants.
(4) Taxa at same levels
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and
141. Identify the correct option regarding Mangifera
reason is a correct explanation of the
indica (mango) :
assertion.
Family Order Class
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not a correct explanation of the 1 Anacardiaceae Sapindales Dicotyledonae
assertion. 2 Sapindales Anacardiaceae Dicotyledonae
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false 3 Anacardiaceae Sapindales Monocotyledonae
(4) Both assertion & reason are false. 4 Sapindales Anacardiaceae Monocotyledonae
137. Common characters are maximum between :-
(1) Brinjal and potato 142. Select true statement for herbaria ?

(2) Mango and rice (1) Repository of herbarium sheets

(3) Rice and wheat (2) Quick referral system

(4) Pea and potato (3) Dried specimens of plants are preserved

138. Which of the following taxonomic categories (4) All of the above
contains the actual account of habitat and 143. An important function of botanical garden is ?
distribution of plants of a given area ? (1) For recreation
(1) Manual (2) Key (2) In-situ conservation strategy
(3) Flora (4) Monograph (3) Plants are grown for identification purpose
139. Taxonomic hierarchy refers to : (4) To conduct breeding experiments on plants
(1) Stepwise arrangement of taxonomic
categories for classification of plants and
animals.
(2) A group of senior taxonomists who decide
the nomenclature of plants and animals.
(3) A list of botanists or zoologists who have
worked on taxonomy of a species or group
(4) Classification of species based on fossil
records

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144. Match the following column I with column II 147. Match column I, II and III and choose the correct
and choose the correct answer answer :
Column I Column I Column II
Column II Column III
(Types of (Taxonomic (Storage
(Special feature) (Feature)
taxonomy) aid) form)
Numerical Phylogenetic quick
a. i. living
taxonomy classification (1) Herbarium (a) (i) referral
form
Chromosome system
number, dead each plant
b. Cladistics ii. (2) Museum (b) (ii)
structure and form is labelled
behaviour preserved
Involves Zoological dried plant and
Natural (3) (c) (iii)
c. iii. computers park form animal
classification
and numbers specimens
d. Cytotaxonomy iv. Gross morphology to learn
about food
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii Botanical
(4) (iv) habit and
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii garden
behaviour
145. A standard herbarium sheet measures about :- of animals
(1) 25 cm × 43 cm (1) 1 - a - i ; 2 - b - ii ; 3 - c - i ; 4 - a - iv
(2) 20 cm × 45 cm (2) 1 - c - iv ; 2 - b - iii ; 3 - b - ii ; 4 - a - i
(3) 11.5 cm × 16.5 inches (3) 1 - a - i ; 2 - c - ii ; 3 - a - iv ; 4 - a - i
(4) 29 cm × 41 inches (4) 1 - c - i ; 2 - b - iii ; 3 - a - iv ; 4 - a - ii
146. Which of the following statements are true with 148. In which of the following options A, B and C are
reference to taxonomical aids? correctly matched ?
I. Separate taxonomic keys are required for each A B C
taxonomic category (1) Mammals Pinning Museum
II. Flora contain information of any one taxon
III. Each statement in the key is called couplet (2) Birds Stuffing Herbarium
IV. Keys are used for identification of plants and Insect Zoological
(3) Insects
animals boxes parks
(1) I and II (2) I and IV (4) Mammals Stuffing Museum
(3) I and III (4) III and IV

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149. Which one of following option is incorrect with 150. Fungi multiply and spread easily by the
respect to the given diagramatic sketch ? formation of millions of __________
(1) Asexual spores (2) Pollen grains
(3) Sexual spores (4) Gametes

(1) quick referral system in taxonomical

studies.
(2) A store house of collected plant specimens
that are dried, pressed and preserved on
sheets.
(3) A museum
(4) Herbarium

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Topic : Animal Kingdom (Phylum Arthropoda to Class Mammalia)

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 156. Identify the following animals and their classes
and select the correct option?
151. Complete the analogy
Labeo : Cycloid scales : : ________ : Placoid
scales
(1) Scoliodon (2) Clarias
(3) Hippocampus (4) Catla
152. Presence of which of the following general
feature is not a mammalian feature?
(1) Diaphragm (2) Ear pinna (1) A = Salamandra; Class : Amphibia
(3) Body hair (4) Crop B = Chelone; Class : Reptilia
C = Pteropus; Class : Mammalia
153. Read the following statements A and B and
choose the correct answer. (2) A = Lizard; Class : Reptilia
Statement A : All gnathostomes are vertebrates B = Chelone; Class : Reptilia
but all vertebrates are not Gnathostomes C = Psittacula; Class : Aves
Statement B : All vertebrates are chordates but (3) A = Chameleon; Class : Reptilia
all chordates are not vertebrates B = Ornithorhynchus.; Class Mammalia
(1) Only statement A is correct C = Salamandra; Class Amphibia
(2) Only statement B is correct (4) A = Salamandra; Class Amphibia
B = Ornithorhynchus.; Class Mammalia
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
C = Chameleon; Class : Reptilia
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
157. Read following statements A and B and choose
154. Which of the following animals exhibits bilateral the correct answer.
symmetry in larval stage and radial symmetry in Statement-A : Hemichordates have segmented
adult stage? worm like body with proboscis, collar and trunk.
(1) Cuttle fish (2) Star fish Statement-B : In Aves, forelimbs generally have
scales and are modified for clasping tree
(3) Jelly fish (4) Hag fish branches.
155. Second largest phylum in Kingdom Animalia is (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(1) Annelida (2) Arthropoda (2) Only statement A is incorrect
(3) Mollusca (4) Chordata (3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
158. Stomochord (Buccal diverticulum) is present in
(1) Pheretima (2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Balanoglossus (4) Asterias
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159. Incorrect statement for Hemichordates 163. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water
(1) Circulatory system is of closed type and whose ammocoete larvae after
metamorphosis return to the ocean is
(2) Respiration through gills
(1) Myxine (2) Neomycine
(3) Reproduction is sexual
(3) Petromyzon (4) Amphioxus
(4) Enterocoelomate
164. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
160. Given below is the chart of classification of characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive
chordata in which some group are left as blank system
and represented through alphabates A, B and C.
Identify A, B and C and select the correct option (1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia
? (3) Aves (4) Osteichthyes
165. Which class shows correct match ?
(1) Mammalia - Protopterus, Canis, Exocoetus
(2) Aves-Corvus, Psittacula, Macropus
(3) Reptilia-Crocodilus, Bungarus, Chelone
(4) Amphibia-Salpa, Scoliodon, Catla
166. Which of the following animals is not
viviparous?
(1) Flying fox (Bat) (2) Elephant
(1) A = Protochordata, B = Agnatha, C =
Tetrapoda (3) Platypus (4) Whale
(2) A = Vertebrata, B = Agnatha, C = 167. Identify chordate characters (a to d) as shown in
Tetrapoda the figure.
(3) A = Vertebrata, B = Cephalochordata, C -
Tetrapoda
(4) A = Craniata, B = Vertebrata, C = Agnatha
161. Which of the following are to cold blooded
animals ?
(A) Chondrichthyes (B) Amphibia
(C) Aves (D) Mammalia
(1) A and C (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) A and B
162. Circular and suctorial mouth is present in
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Labeo (2) Petromyzon
(3) Scoliodon (4) All of these

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168. Statement 1 : Bats and whales are classified as 171. A: Fertilization is usually internal in
Mammals Osteichthyes.
Statement 2 : Bats and whales have four B : They are mostly oviparous
chambered heart (1) Both statements are correct
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given (2) Both statements are incorrect
below (3) Only statement A is correct
(1) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 (4) Only statement B is correct
are incorrect
172. Besides Annelida and Arthropoda, the
(2) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 metamerism is exhibited by
is incorrect
(1) Acanthocephala (2) Chordata
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2
(3) Mollusca (4) Cestoda.
is correct
173. Complete the analogy Malpighian tubules:
(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2
Excretion: Radula:________
are correct
(1) Defence (2) Feeding
169. Identify the statements (i to v) as true (T) or false
' (F) w.r.t. class Amphibia : (3) Locomotion (4) Chemosensory
(i) Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive 174. Match the following columns and select the
tracts open into a common chamber called cloaca correct option:
(ii) Heart is three chambered - two ventricles and Column-I Column-II
one auricle
(iii) Sexes are separate a. 6-15 pairs of gill slits i. Trygon
(iv) Fertilization is external Heterocercal caudal
b. ii. Cyclostomes
(v) They are oviparous with direct development fin
c. Air Bladder iii. Chondrichthyes
d. Poison sting iv. Osteichthyes

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

170. Choose the group of animals which belong to
Urochordata:
(1) Ascidia, Branchiostoma, Salpa
(2) Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum
(3) Ascidia, Salpa, Petromyzon
(4) Salpa, Doliolum, Trygon

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175. An important characteristic that Hemichordates 180. Which of the following is the feature of water
share with Chordates is vascular system in Echinoderms?
(1) Ventral tubular nerve cord (1) Locomotion
(2) Pharynx with gill slits (2) Respiration
(3) Pharynx without gill slits (3) Capture and transport of food
(4) Absence of notochord (4) All of these
176. Choose the correct statement: 181. Identify the correct characteristic feature shown
(1) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart by the given figure?

(2) All pisces have gills covered by an

operculum
(3) All mammals are viviparous
(4) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and
paired fins
177. One of the representatives of phylum arthropoda (1) Diploblastic in nature
is (2) Having radial symmetrical body
(1) Flying fish (2) Cuttle fish (3) Monoecious with direct development.
(3) Silver fish (4) Puffer fish (4) Presence of sensory tentacles on anterior
178. Choose the incorrect statement for phylum head region.
Mollusca 182. Which of the following phylum is being
(1) Body is covered by a calcareous shell and described by the given statements?
unsegmented (i) They are bilaterally symmetrical,triploblastic,
segmented and coelomate animals.
(2) Feather like gills present for excretion and (ii) The body consists of head, thorax, abdomen
respiration and have jointed appendages.
(3) The anterior head region has sensory (iii) Circulatory system is of open type.
tentacles (iv) Excretion takes place through malphigian
(4) Mostly terrestrial, triploblastic and tubules
acoelomates (1) Arthropoda (2) Annelida
179. Choose the incorrect subphylum of Phylum (3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata
Chordata
183. In which of the phylum, excretory organ like
(1) Hemichordata (2) Vertebrata proboscis gland is present?
(3) Cephalochordata (4) Urochordata (1) Hemichordata (2) Chordata
(3) Echinodermata (4) Annelida

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184. Which of the following is not a chordate 189. Which one of the following organisms bears
character? hollow and pneumatic long bones?
(1) Presence of paired pharyngeal gill slits (1) Neophron (2) Hemidactylus
(2) Ventral heart (3) Macropus (4) Ornithorhynchus
(3) Solid and ventral nerve cord 190. Air bladder is found in
(4) Presence of post-anal tail (1) Aves (2) Cyclostomata
185. Which of the following belong to phylum (3) Chondrichthyes (4) Osteichthyes
arthropoda?
191. Animals of which phylum contains open
(1) Bombyx and Apis circulatory system?
(2) Laccifer and Anopheles (1) Arthropoda (2) Annelida
(3) Locusta and Limulus (3) Hemichordata (4) Both (1) & (3)
(4) All of the above 192. Choose a limbless amphibian from the list given
SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY ) below.
(1) Salamandra (2) Necturus
186. Which of the following is a living fossil?
(3) Ichthyyophis (4) Toad
(1) Balanoglossus (2) Echinus
193. Consider the following statements:
(3) Ancylostoma (4) Limulus A. Protochordates are exclusively marine
187. Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates B. In cephalochordates, Notochord extends from
Reason (R) : Vertebrates posses notochord head to tail region
during the embryonic period C. In urochordates, Notochord is present only in
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not larval tail
the correct explanation of (A) D. Cranium and vertebral column are bony in
cyclostomes
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(1) A alone (2) B, C and D
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (3) A, B and C (4) All

188. Assertion (A) : All mammals are not viviparous 194. In which animals mouth is ventral & anus is
Reason (R) : All mammals show external dorsal?
fertilisation (1) Sea cucumber (2) Chiton
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (3) Saccoglossus (4) Logilo
the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
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195. In chordates the notochord is 199. Match the following columns and select the
(1) M​​esodermal and dorsal to the nerve cord correct option:
Column-I Column-II
(2) Mesodermal and ventral to the nerve cord
a. Aptenodytes i. Flying fox
(3) Endodermal and dorsal to the the nerve
cord b. Pteropus ii. Angel fish
(4) Endodermal and ventral to the nerve cord c. Pterophyllum iii. Lamprey

196. Which of the following is a correct feature for
animal ?
200. Select the incorrect statements with respect to
(1) It has four pairs of gills without operculum
(2) It has claspers
d. Petromyzon iv. Penguin
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
cyclostomes
a. They lack scales and paired fins
b. They have circular mouth with jaws
c. They bear 6-15 pairs of gills
d. They migrate to deep sea for spawning
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:

(3) Heart is three chambered (1) a and b only (2) b and c only

(4) It has air bladder (3) a and d only (4) b and d only

197. Branchiostoma is a
(1) Cephalochordate (2) Cyclostome
(3) Hemichordate (4) Urochordate
198. The members of which are exclusively marine ?
a. Ctenophora
b. Echinodermata
c. Protochordata
(1) Only a (2) Only b
(3) Only a and b (4) a, b and c

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