PHYSIOLOGY

1-which of the following is the binging site of Ca in smooth muscle?

A) Calmodulin
B) Sarcoplasma
C) Troponin
D) Sarcolemma
E) Tropomyosin
2-which of the following enzyme catalyzes the breakdown of acetylcholine (Ach)?
A) Choline acetyltransferase
B) Acetylcholine-H+(Ach-H+) exchanger
C) Acetyl-coenzyme A
D) Amino acid decarboxylase
E) Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)
3-which one of the following receptors type is dominantly located on cardiac tissue
?
A) Beta 2 receptors
B) Alpha receptors
C) Nicotinic receptors
D) Beta 1 receptors
E) Muscarinic receptors
4-All of the following occur during the contraction of a sarcomere except…
A) Z lines mover closer together
B) Shortening of I band
C) Shortening of A band
D) Thin filaments slide toward M line
E) Shortening of H band
5-which one of the following cranial nerve is responsible from hearing and balance
A) IX
B) VII
C) V
D) VIII
E) VI
6-which of the following is the area of the attachment of action filaments?
A) H band
B) Z line
C) A band
D) I band
E) M line
7-which type of receptors are located in the motor end plate of muscle fiber?
A) Nicotinic
B) Alpha 2 adrenerjic
C) Alpha 1 adrenerjic
D) Muscarinic
E) Beta 1 adrenerjic
8-which of the following structures is the site in smooth muscle where
miyofilaments are attached ?
A) Troponin
B) T tubules
C) Caveola
D) Calmodulin
E) Dense bodies
9-which one of the following cranial nerves is not a mixed nerve?
A) X
B) VII
C) III
D) IX
E) V
10-How many pairs of spinal nerves are found in the cervical region?
A) 12
B) 8
C) 5
D) 11
E) 7
11-protein kinase C is activated by which of the following ?
A) Diacylglycerol
B) Phospholipase C
C) Adenyl cyclase
D) Inositol triphosphate
E) Phospholipase A
12-which of the following cranial nerve /nerves are called as eye movers?
I. 2
II. 3
III. 4
IV. 5
V. 6
A) II,III,V
B) II,III,IV
C) I,II
D) III,IV,V
E) II,III
13-which one of the following neurotransmitters is inhibitory in the spinal cord
level?
A) Ach
B) Aspartate
C) GABA
D) Glycine
E) Glutamate
14-which type of the following drugs causes primarly bronchodilation?
A) Beta 2 antagonist
B) Beta 1 agonist
C) Alpha 1 agonist
D) Beta 2 agonist
E) Alpha 1 antagonist
15-which of the followings is responsible from smooth muscle contraction?
A) L-Carnitie
B) Myosin kinase
C) Phospholipase A
D) Myosin phosphatase
E) Creatin kinase
16-which type of the following receptors stimulation primarly increases heart rate?
A) Muscarinic
B) Beta 1 adrenrjic
C) Alpha 1 adernerjic
D) Beta 2 adrenrjic
E) Alpha 2 adrenerjic
17-which of the following is the effector protein that converts ATP to AMP in
cyclic AMP pathway?
A) G protein
B) Phospholipase A
C) Protein kinase
D) Phospholipase C
E) Adeny cyclase
BIOCHEMISTRY
18- In the absence of which vitamin , proline amino acid of collagen can not be
hydroxylated ?
A) B 1
B) D
C) E
D) C
E) A
19-glycosaminoglycans are linear polysaccharides of repeating
disaccharides.which glycosaminoglycan is synthesized in the cell
A) Keratin sulfate
B) Hyaluronic acid
C) Heparin
D) Dermatan sulfate
E) Heparan sulfate
20-The functional unit of mature glycogen is tropocollagen .which structure is
found between these units?
A) Hydrophobic interaction
B) Hydroxypyridinium
C) Desmosine
D) Hydrogen bonds
E) Fibrillin network
HISTOLOGY / EMBRYOLOGY
21- below are the structures together with a germ layer . please identify the
incorrect association
A) Epithelial linings of the respiratory tract-endoderm
B) Bones –mesoderm
C) Epithelial linings of the digestive tract – endoderm
D) Kidneys – endoderm (mesoderm)
E) Epidermis – ectoderm
22-what distinguishes cartilage from most other connective tissues ?
A) It function in mechanical support
B) It lack blood vessels
C) Its extracellular matrix is rich in collagen
D) Its predominant cell type secretes fibers and proteoglycans
E) Its predominant cell type is a mesenchymal derivative
23-which of the following is a permanent resident cell of connective tissue ?
A) Monocyte
B) Lymphocyte
C) Plasma cell
D) Fibroblast
E) Neutrophil
24-which one of the following is not seen in an embryo during the second week?
A) Mesoderm
B) Amniotic sac
C) Cytotrophoblast
D) Yolk sac
E) Syncythiotrophoblast
25-please define the correct sequence of the processes of the embryonic period
given below . which of them takes plase lastly?
A) Development of notochord
B) Folding of the embryo
C) Differentiation of three germ layers
D) Formation of a flat bilaminar disc
E) Appearance of the primitive streak
26-which one of the following statements is characteristics of osteocytes ?
A) They secrete the matrix material called osteoid
B) They are responsible for bone resorption and remodeling
C) They communicate via gap junctions between their processes
D) They give rise to osteoclast
E) They are immature bone cells
27-this section is taken from spleen . please define the type of connective tissue ….
As:
28-which characteristics is unique to cardiac muscle?
A) Lack T-tubules
B) Connected by intercalated discs
C) Contain centrally located nuclei
D) Multinucleated
E) Striated
29-The given type of tissue is characterized by the predominance of irregularly
orientated type I collagen fibers over ground substance
Accordingly this section might be taken from?
A) Whartons jelly
B) Lamina propria of the digestive tract
C) Dermis
D) Ligament
E) Tendon

30-what is the name of this tissue ..

As:

31-when dose the fetal period begin?

A) 16 weeks after fertilization
B) 9 weeks after fertilization
C) 3 weeks after fertilization
D) 12 weeks after fertilization
E) 4 weeks after fertilization
32-This section stained with verhoeff , is taken from epiglottis . please define the
type of tissue ….

As:

33-bone formation begins in ossification centers within the condensed

mesenchyme
-this type of bone formation dose not depend on a pre-existing cartilage model
Which type of bone formation is defined above /
A) Trabecular bone formation
B) Endochondral bone formation
C) Intermembranous bone formation
D) Cancellous bone formation
E) Extramembraneous bone formation
34-which of the following cell of epidermis has a role in immune reaction?
A) Tactile cells
B) Keratinocytes
C) Langerhans cells
D) Merkel cells
E) Melanocytes
35-………..during pregnancy is associated with a syndrome that is the leading
cause of preventable mental retardation . please fill the blank
A) Caffeine
B) Tetracycline
C) Cigarette smoking
D) Thalidomide
E) Alcohol
36-which of the following is a microscopic feature of smooth muscle?
A) Triads
B) Dense bodies
C) Cross-striations
D) Cells in branching arrangement
E) T tubules
37-which of the following is not a component of the mature placental barrier ?
A) Umbilical cord
B) Cytotrophoblast
C) Capillary endothelium of the tertiary villus
D) Syncytiotrophoblast
E) Connective tissue core
38-please define the type of the tissue …..
As:
BIOPHYSICS
39-which of the following sympotoms is characteristic of the neuromuscular /
cerebrovascular syndrome ?
A. Nausea
B. Vomiting
C. Disorientation
D. Diarrhea
E. Erythema
A) Erythema
B) Disorientation
C) Nausea
D) Diarrhea
E) Vomiting
40-A person working on a radioactive sample has received a wholebody dose of
0.1 mGy from protons with quality factor of 10.0.2 mGy from alpha rays with
quality factor of 20 and 100 mGy from gamma rays with quality factor of .what is
the wholebody dose equivalent in mSv?
A) 105.0 mSv
B) 50.3 mSv
C) 5.0 mSv
D) 55.0 mSv
E) 20.4 mSv
41-which of the following statements are correct ?
I. The source of the binding energy is the difference between the calculated
mass of the nuclear particules and the measured mass of the nucleus
II. Binding energy balances the force of the coulomb force between the
protons in the stable nuclei
III. Nuclei with an N/Z ratio greater that the stable condition has lower
binding energy compared to the coulomb force
A) I.III
B) Only III
C) Only I
D) I.II
E) Only II
42-which of the following statements are the mine reasons for the usage of
relatively low energy electromagnetic waves within the range of the photoelectric
absorption in the X-ray radiography?
I. The probability of the photoelectric absorption depends on the electron
density of the tissue
II. The probability of the photoelectric absorption is highest when the
photon energy is just equal to or slightly higher than binding energy of
the electrons
III. The probability of the photoelectric absorption depends on the atomic
number of the tissue
A) II.III
B) I.II
C) Only I
D) I.III
E) Only III
43-which of the following measures are taken to decrease the intensity of the
radioactive rays in order to decrease the hazardous effects of ionization radiation?
I. Shorting the exposure duration
II. Using shielding material
III. Increasing the distance from the source
A) II.III
B) I.II
C) Only I
D) I.III
E) Only II
44-which of the following statements is not correct?
A) Medium absorbs more energy (LET) as the specific ionization increases
B) Specific ionization of the negatrons increases as the density of the medium
increases
C) Specific ionization defines the number of ions pairs formed in the medium
per unit length of the particle type radiation
D) Specific ionization of the alpha particles is high in the tissue than that in air
E) Specific ionization of negatrons increases as the velocity of the
negatrons increases
45-the exposure dose of gama rays from a sample of 226Ra at 40 cm is 90 mR/hr
.what thickness of lead shield would decrease the exposure dose from 90 mR/hr to
the permissible dose of 2.5 mR/hr ? the attenuation coefficient for the gamma rays
from 226Ra is approximately 0.4 (1/cm )lead .(In 2.5=0.9 : In 90=4.5 : In 0.027=-
3.6 )
A) 4.5 cm
B) 6.5 cm
C) 11.3 cm
D) 5.0 cm
E) 9.0 cm
46-which of the mechanisms given below are the main mechanisms related to the
production of X-rays in the X Ray tubes?
I. Brehmstrahlung radiation
II. Characteristic X-Rays
III. Pair production
IV. Compton scattering
A) II.III.IV
B) I.II
C) Only I
D) I.II.III
E) Only II
47.the specific gamma ray constant for the gamma rays from 11C is approximately
6 R/MCi.hr at 1 cm. what is the exposure dose 60 cm away from a sample of 11C
with an activity 40 mCi?
A) 0.01 R/hr
B) 0.06 R/hr
C) 4.2 R/hr
D) 0.04 R/hr
E) 1.0 R/hr
BEHAVIOURAL SCIENCES
48- A 50 year-old male patient was brought to the emergency room with the
complaint of amnesia . it has been learned that the patient has been amnesia for 1
week and has become a very courageous person while being a coward . it has been
said that he stopped interested in his violin for a week .which he was very
interested in . No pathology was detected in executive function . No motor or
sensory loss was detected . what is the possible affected cranial area of the patient?
A) Cerebellum
B) Temporal lobe
C) Frontal lobe
D) Occipital lobe
E) Paraietal lobe
49-which of the information given below about neurotransmitters is correct?
1. If the postsynaptic receptor is blocked by any drug .an antagonist effect
occurs
2. If the storage of the neurotransmitter in the vesicle is blocked by any drug
.agonist effect occurs
3. Agonist effect occurs if the drug blocks the reuptake of the neurotransmitter
from the synaptic gap
4. Inhibition of the reabsorption of the neurotransmitter from the presynaptic
membrane creates an antagonist effect
5. A drug that enhances the synthesis of the neurotransmitter produces an
agonist effect
A) 1.3.4.5
B) 2.4.5
C) 1.2.3.4.
D) 1.2.3.5
E) 1.3.5
50-which one is true about sensation and perception?
1. Perception detects stimuli from the body or environment
2. Sensory adaptation is decreased responsiveness to stimuli due to constant
stimulation
3. Texture gradient is a component of perceptual constancy
4. Size and shape constancy are related to depth perception
5. Cocktail-party effect is a form of selective attention
6. Lineer perspective is a component of depth perception
A) 2.3.4.5.6
B) 2.3.5.6
C) 1.3.4.6
D) 1.2.5.6
E) 2.5.6
51-During examination of the first patient while the doctor is working in the
emergency room , another patients relatives comes to the emergency room and
starts shouting and insulting to the doctor . Confusion prevails in the emergency
room . the second patient starts to feel restless due to the fact that his examination
turn is still absent due to these events and gets angry sneakingly .the third patient
dose not react at all and cries shyly . the first patient tries to calm the insulted
physician . Another physician comes and calms the other patients and says the
everyone will be examined in turn . which may be correct about their behavior
style?
A) Behavior style of the third patient tends to be anxious and shows low-
esteem
B) First patient shows non-assertive behavior style
C) The person who insults the doctor tends to behave in a way that will draw
his anger from other people , not from his source
D) Doctor who calms patient down behaves manipulatively
E) The second patient tends to look for someone to blame her all the time as a
behavior style
 52-A 40 year-old male patient was brought to emergency room by attempting
suicide due to drinking medication . Three empty medicine boxes were found
next to him . According to the information received from his family . it was
learned that he left his job 1 month ago .lived alone .He has used alcohol 3
bottle beer/week . in his family history . it was reported that his sister had
attempted suicide. What is the non-high risk factor when evaluating the suicide
risk of this patient?
A) Marital status
B) Gender
C) Occupation
D) Alcohol use
E) Family history
MEDICALL BIOLOGY
53-which of the following can not be said according to the Hardy-Weinberg law?
A) Migration can not be observed in population
B) The population has limited size
C) All genotypes have equal survival rate and equal reproductive success
D) Individuals in the population match randomly
E) There are no mutations to create a new allele or to convert one to another
54-What did Mendel use to confirm the results of his first and second law?
A) Dihybrid cross
B) Backcross
C) Selfcross
D) Monohybrid cross
E) Parental cross
55-An infection that appears to be inherited is an example of
A) Epistasis
B) Phenocopy
C) Mitochondrial inheritance
D) Pleiotropy
E) Genetic heterogeneity
56-if the ellelic frequency of A is 0.6 . what are the genotypic frequencies of
AA.Aa and aa?
A) AA=0.36 Aa=0.48 aa=0.16
57-what is the most likely mode of inheritance for the pedigree below?
A) Mitochondrial inheritance
B) X-linked dominant
C) Autosomal dominant
D) X-linked recessive
E) Autosomal recessive

58-which of the following disorders is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern?

A) Phenylketonuria
B) Fragile X syndrome
C) Huntington disease
D) Cyctic fibrosis
E) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
59-which of the following/s is/are a feature that distinguishes polygenic diseases
from monogenic diseases?
I. Mendelian inheritance pattern
II. Pathogenic variants in multiple genes
III. Different intermediate characteristics can be observed as a result
A) II.III
B) Only III
C) Only I
D) I.III
E) Only II
60-which of the following is/are not suitable for continuous varitions?
I. They tend to be qualitative
II. Environment has significant effect
III. There isn’t a complete range of measurments from one extreme to the
other
A) I.II
B) Only III
C) Only I
D) I.III
E) Only II
61-Which of the following is monogenic disorder ?
A) Neural tube defect
B) Type one diabetes
C) Hypertension
D) Migraine
E) Haemophilia
62-Human ABO blood type is an example of
A) Complete dominance
B) Pleiotropy
C) Epistasis
D) Incomplete dominance
E) Codominance
ANATOMY
63-which of the followings cannot be included into cubital fossa content list?
A) Radial artery
B) Musculocutaneous nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Median nerve
E) Bicipital tendon
64-which of the following nerves is a branch of brachial plexus from trunks level?
A) Dorsal scapular nerve
B) Lateral pectoral nerve
C) Thoracodorsal nerve
D) Suprascapular nerve
E) Medial pectoral nerve
65-which of the structures following is placed most superficially in cubital fossa?
A) Superficial branch of radial nerve
B) Ulnar nerve
C) Median nerve
D) Deep branch of radial nerve
E) Median cubital vein
66-which of the following is not correct for axillary borders?
A) Posterior wall formed by the suprascapularis (subscapularis)
B) Medial wall consists of the serratus anterior
C) Apex is formed by lateral border of the first rib
D) Anterior wall pectoralis major
E) Lateral wall formed by intertubercular groove of the humerus
67-which of the following forearm muscle is different from the others ?
A) Extensor digiti minimi
B) Brachioradialis
C) Extensor carpi radialis longus
D) Extensor digitorum
E) Extensor carpi radialis brevis
68-write the name of the muscle in the picture
An: peroneus longus

69-which of the following hand muscles is having dual innervation /

A) Flexor digiti minimi brevis
B) Dorsal interossei
C) Palmaris brevis
D) Lumbricals
E) Adductor pollicis
70-A bicycle driver falls down on his left leg .which of the following cannot be a
physical sign?
A) Loss of sensation between great and second toe
B) Little finger can be extended
C) Patient cannot stand on heels
D) Loss of sensation lateral proximal leg
E) Great toe cannot be extended

71-which of the followings is not correct about the quadrangular space?

A) Axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery
B) Lateral border – surgical neck of humerus
C) Superior border – subscapularis and teres minor
D) Medially border – long head of triceps brachii
E) Inferior border – teres minor >> teres major
72-If a drop shoulder is detected on the marked side . which muscle should be
considered to have a lesion?
As: trapezius muscle

73-Can”s grandpa made a motorbike accident and injured his right elbow . He tells
you that his right hand , palmar side thumb , 2nd and 3rd fingers are nimb . Also he
cannot turn keys to open doors and cannot flex 2nd and 3rd fingers . Your most
likely diagnose would be:
A) Lesion is at lateral epicondyle of humerus
B) Lesion of the radial nerve
C) Lesion of the median nerve
D) Medial two lumbricals are impaired
E) Lesion of the ulnar nerve
74-which of the following muscle – fascicle pairing is correct ?
A) Tibialis anterior m – parallel
B) Rectus femoris m – unipennate
C) Internal Abdominal m – fusiform
D) Deltoid m – multipennate
E) Extensor digital m – parallel
75-which of the following muscle name – action – innervation strings is correct ?
A) Quadratus plantae – Assists in flexion of PIP joints – Lateral plantar nerve
B) Flexor digitorum brevis – flexes digits at the DIP joint – medial plantar
nerve >x
C) Extensor digitorum brevis – extending the lateral four toes – deep fibular
nerve >x
D) Abductor digiti minimi – Abducts and extends the 5th digit – lateral plantar
nerve >x
E) Abductor Hallucis – Abducts and extends the great toe – medial plantar
nerve >x
76-which of the followings is the third structure from anterior to posterior at
medial malleolus?
A) Posterior tibial artery
B) Flexor digitorum longus
C) Tibialis posterior
D) Tibialis posterior
E) Tibial nerve
F) Tibiallis anterior
77-write the name of the marked ligament
As: anular ligament

78-while performing CSF puncture , write the name of the marked ligament that
should be crossed in the 2nd row after the skin and subcutaneous tissue
As: interspinal ligament
79-your patient is basketball player and right after a harsh game he comes to you
and complaints about a certain degree weakness of abduction of his right arm and
paresthesia on the lateral side of his same shoulder . According to your initial
diagnose which of the following strings is correct?
A) Banckart lesion of posterior labrum with radial nerve damge
B) Hill-sachs fracture (posterolateral humeral head ) and axillary nerve
damage
C) Hill-sachs fracture (anterolateral humeral head ) and axillary nerve damage
D) Banckart lesion of posterior labrum with axillary nerve damage
E) Hill-sachs fracture (posterolateral humeral head ) and radial nerve damage
80-which of the following is not correct?
A) Pes planus – no longitudinal arches
B) Transvers arch – Tibialis posterior
C) Medial longitudinal arch – Tibialis anterior
D) Pes cavus – high lateral longitudinal arch >>it must be (medial)
E) Lateral longitudinal – Fibularis longus
81-Your young age patient complaints about come-and-go type on-going swelling
.health and pain antero-inferior to his patella . while left is normal ,his right knee
was hot and sensitive in physical examination . his body mass index is under 20
and he is normal in between painful episodes . which of the following can be your
best assumption of his job?
A) A Caucasin folk Dancer
B) A swimmer
C) A Banker
D) A priest
E) A teacher
82-which of the following definitions about main properties of the muscle tissue
correct?
A) Conductivity – Ability to conduct action potential
B) Extensibility – Ability of a muscle to be contracted
C) Excitability – Ability to respond to a stimuli
D) Elasticity – Ability to contract most
E) Contractibility – Ability to relaxation
 83-write the name of the muscle in the picture
As: Teres minor

84-A quick way to check the function a one of the nerves of the leg is to pinch
the skin between the great toe and 2nd toe . which nerve are you checking?
I. Deep peroneal

85-The roots of the brachial plexus actually are ..

A) Anterior rami of spinal nerves

86-which of the following muscles can be a thenar group muscles?

A) Adductor pollicis
B) Flexor pollicis brevis
C) Opponens digiti minimi
D) Palmaris brevis
E) Abductor pollicis longus
87-write the name of the marked joint
As: Zygapophyseal joint
88-which of the following forearm muscles origin is related with the interosseous
membrane ?
A) Flexor carpi radialis
B) Pronator teres
C) Flexor digitorum profundus
D) Pronator quadratus
E) Flexor digitorm superficialis
89-In the examination of a fifty-year –old female patient who underwent radical
mastectomy . her arm had a problem with abduction between 90-180 degree and
her scapula moved away from the thorax to the back as shown in the picture below
. the doctor who performed the examination has been suspected which of the
following nerves may have accidentlly damaged during the operation/
A) Long thoracic nerve

90-which of the following is correct for muscles supplied by deep peroneal nerve ?
I. Tibialis anterior
II. Peroneus tertius

91-which of the following is not a characteristic of a synovial joint ?

A) Surrounding ligaments
B) Synovial membrane made of dense connective tissue
C) End of opposing bones covered by articular cartilage
D) Synovial fluid
E) Joint cavity enclosed by an articular capsule
92-which of the following is correct about the carpal tunnel ?
A) Ulnar nerve only deep branch is included to tunnel
B) Contains 9 tendons including flexor carpi radialis tendon
C) Carpal Arch is formed laterally by the hook of the hamate
D) Flexor pollicis longus tendon is close to trapezium bone
E) Flexor retinaculum is a connective tissue which forms the floor of the carpal
tunnel
93-which of the following is not one of the functions of adductor magnus muscle?
A) Flexion
B) Extension
C) Medial rotation
D) Lateral rotation
E) Abduction
94-which of the followings is correct for branches of lumbar plexus?
A) Obturator nerve
B) Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
95-which of the following muscle name – layer – function – innervation strings is
correct?
A) Flexor carpi Radialis – superficial – flexion , abduction – Median nerve
96-which of the following structure contributes to borders of anatomical snuffbox?
A) Radial nerve
B) Extensor pollicis longus tnd
C) Abductor pollicis brevis tnd
D) Radial artery
E) Extensor indicis proprius tnd
97-which of the following muscle is not paralyzed in Erbs palsy?
A) Triceps brachii
B) Subclavius
C) Supraspinatus
D) Biceps brachii
E) Infraspinatus
98-while playing football little can falls on to his right arm , cries and goes to home
.Next morning his right arm becomes swollen , red and painful to move , also can
cannot extended his hand . what would be your most likely diagnose?
A) Supracondylar fracture of ulna
B) Humerus fracture at lateral epicondyle
C) Humerus fracture at neck of humerus
D) Humerus fracture at spiral groove
E) Humerus fracture at medial epicondyle
99-which of the following sets defines the Monteggia lesion?
A) Proximal ulnar fracture and proximal radial head dislocation
100-which of the following is not the aetiology of Achilles tendinopathy?
A) Footwear
B) Body height
C) Tendon vascularity
D) Pes planus
E) Gastrocnemius-soleus dysfunction