[

DATS - 2024
TEST No. # 27 FULL TEST (FT-01) TEST ID – 230210591
TIME: 200 MINS. MAXIMUM MARKS: 720 DATE: 20-03-2024
TEST SYLLABUS BOOKLET CODE
PHYSICS: Full Syllabus
CHEMISTRY: Full Syllabus
BIOLOGY: Full Syllabus B
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball point Pen. Use of
pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. This test consists of Physics, Chemistry, Biology questions with equal weightage of marks.
3. There are three parts in the question paper, consisting Part-I Physics (Q. No. 1 to 50), Part-II Chemistry (Q.
No. 51 to 100) and Part-III (101 - 200). Each part is divided into two sections, Section-A consists of 35
multiple choice questions & section-B consists of 15 Multiple choice questions, out of these 15 questions
candidates can choose to attempt any 10 questions.
Part Subject Section Question Attempts
A 1 to 35 Answer all Question
I Physics
B 36 to 50 Answer any 10 questions only
A 51 to 85 Answer all Question
II Chemistry
B 86 to 100 Answer any 10 questions only
Biology A 101 to 135 Answer all Question
Part-1 B 136 to 150 Answer any 10 Questions only
III
Biology A 151 to 185 Answer all Question
Part-2 B 186 to 200 Answer any 10 Questions only

4. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question. For each question 4
marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect and zero mark will be
awarded for unattempt.
5. The Test ID for this Test is given at the top of Question Booklet, kindly Mark TEST ID in the OMR/Answer
Sheet carefully, if not given kindly consult Invigilator.
6. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the OMR /Answer Sheet.

Student Roll No.:

Student’s Name:

Invigilator’s Signature
DATS – NEET (UG) 2024 FT-01 / 20-03-2024
I - PHYSICS
Section-A between these two. The lowest resonant
1. If 𝐴 = 3𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 9𝑘̂ is perpendicular to 𝐵 = frequency for this strig is
2𝑗̂ − 6𝑗̂ + 𝛼𝑘̂, then the value of 𝛼 is (a) 10.5 Hz (b) 105 Hz
(a) − 2
1
(b)
3 (c) 155 Hz (d) 205 Hz
2 5. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track
4 4
(c) (d) − 3 of radius 10 m with a constant speed of
3
2. A 800 kg car takes a round turn of radius 40 10 m/s. A bob is suspended from the roof of
m with velocity of 18 km/h. the centripetal the car by a light wire of length 1.0 m. The
force is: angle made by the wire with the vertical is
𝜋 𝜋
(a) 250 N (b) 750 N (a) 4 (b) 6
(c) 500 N (d) 1000 N 𝜋
(c) (d) 0°
3. A block of mass 2 kg is released from A on a 3

rough track that is one quadrant of a circle of
radius 1 m. It slides down the track and
reaches B with a speed of 4m/s and finally
stops at C at a distance of 3 m from B. the
work done against the force of frictions is:
(a) 2 Joule (b) 5 Joule
(c) 10 Joule (d) 20 Joule
4. A string is stretched between fixed points
separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to have
resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz.
There are no other resonant frequencies
Space for Rough work
6. An astronaut on a strange planet finds that
acceleration due to gravity is twice as that on
the surface of earth. Which of the following
could explain this?
(a) Both the mass and radius of the planet are
half as that of earth
(b) Radius of the planet is half as that of
earth, but the mass is the same as that of
earth
(c) Both the mass and radius of the planet are
twice as that of earth
(d) Mass of the planet is half as that of earth,
but radius is as that of earth.
7. Statement I: Position of centre of mass is
independent of the reference frame.
Statement II: Principle of conservation of
momentum holds true for all kinds of
collisions.

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(a) Statement I is correct and Statement II is (b) 𝑥 = 0 is unstable and 𝑥 = 1 is stable
incorrect. (c) 𝑥 = 0 is stable and 𝑥 = 1 is stable
(b) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is (d) 𝑥 = 0 is unstable and 𝑥 = 1 is unstable
correct. 12. Assertion: For the formation of stationary
(c) Both Statements are correct. waves the medium must be bounded having
(d) Both Statements are incorrect. definite boundaries.
8. Dimensional formula for the universal Reason: In the stationary wave, some
gravitational constant G is. particles of the medium remain permanently
(a) [𝑀−1 𝐿2 𝑇 −2 ] (b) [𝑀0 𝐿0 𝑇 0 ] at arrest.
(c) [𝑀−1 𝐿3 𝑇 −2 ] (d) [𝑀−1 𝐿3 𝑇 −1 ] (a) Both assertion and reason are true and the
9. In a lift moving up with an acceleration of 10 reason is the correct explanation of
𝑚𝑠 −2, a ball is dropped from a height of 2.5 assertion.
m. the time taken by the ball to reach the floor (b) Both assertion and reason are true and the
of the lift is _______ . reason is not the correct explanation of
(𝑔 = 10 𝑚𝑠 −2 ) assertion.
(a) 0.3 𝑠 (b) 0.5 𝑠 (c) Assertion is true and the reason is false.
(c) 0.8 𝑠 (d) 0.4 𝑠 (d) Assertion is false and the reason is true.
10. Three blocks of masses 𝑚1 , 𝑚2 and 𝑚3 13. Three identical spheres each of mass 1 kg are
connected by massless strings, as shown, on a placed touching one another with their centres
frictionless table. They are pulled with a force in a straight line. Their centres are marked as
𝑇3 = 60 𝑁. If 𝑚1 = 10 𝑘𝑔, 𝑚2 = 6 𝑘𝑔 and A, B, C respectively. The distance of centre of
𝑚3 = 4 𝑘𝑔, the tension 𝑇2 will be: mass of the system from A is
𝐴𝐵+𝐴𝐶 𝐴𝐵+𝐵𝐶
(a) (b)
2 2
𝐴𝐶−𝐴𝐵 𝐴𝐵+𝐴𝐶
(c) (d)
3 3
14. The time period of a satellite of earth is 6
(a) 20 N (b) 40 N hours. If the separation between the earth and
(c) 32 N (d) 48 N the satellite is increased to 4 times the
11. The potential; energy of an object is given by previous value, the new time period will
𝑈(𝑥) = 3𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 3 , where 𝑈 is in joules and become.
(a) 64 hr (b) 48 hr
𝑥 is in meters.
(c) 24 hr (d) 12 hr
(a) 𝑥 = 0 is stable and 𝑥 = 1 is unstable
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15. Figure shows a copper rod joined to a steel 19. The ratio of rotational and translational
rod. The rods have equal length and equal kinetic energies of a solid sphere is:
cross sectional area. The free end of the 2 2
(a) (b)
9 7
copper rod is kept at 0°C and that of steel rod 2 7
(c) (d) 2
is kept at 100°C. Find the temperature of the 5
junction of the rod. 20. A simple pendulum is oscillating with
Conductivity of copper = 390 𝑊/𝑚°𝐶 amplitude A and angular frequency 𝜔 . At
Conductivity of steel= 46 𝑊/𝑚°𝐶, displacement 𝑥 from mean position, the ratio
0°C Copper Steel 100°C of kinetic energy to potential energy is:
𝑥2 𝑥 2 −𝐴2
(a) (b)
𝐴2 −𝑥 2 𝑥2
(a) 18.01°C (b) 26°C 𝐴2 −𝑥 2 𝐴−𝑥
(c) (d)
(c) 10.6°C (d) 20°C 𝑥2 𝑥
16. 3 mole of an ideal gas at a temperature of 21. If the radius of a star is R and it acts as a black
27°C are mixed with 2 mole of an ideal gas at body, what would be the temperature of the
a temperature 227°C determine the star, in which the rate of energy production is
equilibrium temperature of the mixture, Q?
assuming no lass of energy. (a) 𝑄/4𝜋𝑅 2 𝜎 (b) (𝑄/4𝜋𝑅 2 𝜎)−1/2
(a) 327°C (b) 107°C (c) (4𝜋𝑅 2 𝑄/𝜎)1/4 (d) (𝑄/4𝜋𝑅 2 𝜎)1/4
(c) 318°C (d) 410°C 22. The kinetic energy of a revolving satellite
17. Two waves of wavelength 99 cm and 100 cm (mass 𝑚) at a height equal to thrice the radius
both travelling with velocity 495 m/s are earth (𝑅).
made to interfere. The number of beats 𝑚𝑔𝑅 𝑚𝑔𝑅
(a) (b)
8 16
produced by them per second is: 𝑚𝑔𝑅 𝑚𝑔𝑅
(c) (d)
(a) 1 (b) 4 2 4
(c) 5 (d) 8 23. Assertion: Two balls of different masses are
18. A body starts from rest and moves with thrown vertically upward with the same
constant acceleration for 𝑡 𝑠𝑒𝑐 . It travels 𝑥1 speed. They will pass through their point of
distance in first half of time and 𝑥2 distance in projection in a downward direction with the
next half of time, then: same speed.
(a) 𝑥2 = 𝑥1 (b) 𝑥2 = 2𝑥1
(c) 𝑥2 = 3𝑥1 (d) 𝑥2 = 4𝑥1

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Reason: The maximum height of downward
velocity attained at the point of projection are
independent of the mass of the ball.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and the reason is true.
24. Bernoulli’s equation is conservation of
(a) Energy
(b) Momentum
(c) Angular momentum
(d) Mass
25. A man goes 10 km downstream in 2 hrs and
30 km upstream in 10 hrs. How much time
will he take to swim 40 km in still water
(a) 8 hrs (b) 10 hrs
FT-01 / 20-03-2024
Reason: The magnitude of frictional force
depends on the nature of the two surfaces in
contact.
(a) Both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(b) Both the assertion and the reason are true
and the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is
false.
(d) the assertion is false but the reason is true.
28. Two bodies A and B of equal mass are
suspended from two separate massless springs
of force constant 𝑘1 and 𝑘2 , respectively. The
bodies oscillate vertically such that their
maximum velocities are equal. The ratio of
the amplitudes of body A to that of body B is
𝑘 𝑘2
(a) √𝑘2 (b)
1 𝑘1

(c) 12 hrs (d) 6 hrs 𝑘1 𝑘

(c) (d) √𝑘1
26. A string of length 𝐿 and force constant 𝐾 is 𝑘2 2

stretched to obtain extension 𝑙 . It is further 29. A planet revolves around the sun in an
stretched to obtain extension 𝑙1 . The work elliptical orbit. The linear speed of the planet
down in second stretching is will be maximum at
1 1
(a) 𝐾𝑙1 (2𝑙 + 𝑙1 ) (b) 2 𝐾𝑙12
2
1 1
(c) 𝐾𝑙(𝑙 2 + 𝑙12 ) (d) 2 𝐾𝑙1 (𝑙 + 2𝑙1 )
2
27. Assertion: It is easier to pull a heavy object
that to push it on a level ground. (a) D (b) B
(c) A (d) C

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30. A mass of 20 𝑘𝑔 is suspended from a spring Column-I Column-II
balance. It is pulled aside by a horizontal A. The initial velocity of P. 𝑎
string so that it makes an angle of 60° with the projection 𝑏
vertical. The new reading of the balance is B. The horizontal range Q.
2
(a) 20 𝑘𝑔 − 𝑤𝑡 (b) 40 𝑘𝑔 − 𝑤𝑡 of projectile 𝑎√
𝑏𝑔
(c) 10√3𝑘𝑔 − 𝑤𝑡 (d) 20√3𝑘𝑔 − 𝑤𝑡
31. The bob of a simple pendulum performs SHM C. The maximum vertical R. 𝑎2
with period T in air and with period 𝑇1 in height attained by 4𝑏
projectile
water. Relation between 𝑇 and 𝑇1 is (neglect
D. The time of flight of S.
friction due to water) density of the material 𝑔(1 + 𝑎2 )
9 projectile √
of the bob = 8 × 103 𝑘𝑔 𝑚−3 density of water 2𝑏
= 1 𝑔 𝑐𝑐 −1 . (a) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(a) 𝑇1 = 3𝑇 (b) 𝑇1 = 2𝑇 (b) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
𝑇 (c) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(c) 𝑇1 = 𝑇 (d) 𝑇1 = 2
(d) A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
32. Statement I: Work done in moving a body
34. A capillary tube is dipped in water as shown
over a closed loop is zero for every force in
in the figure. If 𝑃𝐴 and 𝑃𝐵 are pressure at 𝐴
nature.
and 𝐵 respectively then:
Statement II: If momentum of a body
increases by 50%, its kinetic energy will
increase by 125%.
(a) Statement I is correct and Statement II is
incorrect.
(b) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
correct.
(c) Both Statement are correct.
(d) Both Statements are incorrect.
(a) 𝑃𝐴 = 𝑃𝐵 = 𝑃𝑂
33. The equation of motion of a projectile is 𝑦 =
(b) 𝑃𝐴 < 𝑃0 , 𝑃𝐵 > 𝑃𝑂
𝑎𝑥 − 𝑏𝑥 2 , where a and b are constants of
(c) 𝑃𝐴 < 𝑃0 , 𝑃𝐵 = 𝑃0
motion. Match the quantities in Column-I
(d) 𝑃𝐴 = 𝑃𝑂 , 𝑃𝐵 > 𝑃0
with the relations in Column-II

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35. Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds 39. A particle is dropped from rest from a height
in the ratio 1: √2 acquired the same heights. If ℎ0 on a horizontal floor. The coefficient of
A is thrown at an angle of 45° with the restitution between the floor and particle is e.
horizontal, the angle of projection of B will be maximum height attained by the particle after
(a) 0° (b) 60° first collision is:
(c) 30° (d) 45° (a) 𝑒ℎ0 (b) 𝑒 2 ℎ0
(c) 𝑒 3 ℎ0 (d) 𝑒 4 ℎ0
Section-B
40. A uniform rod of length ℓ and 𝑚 has a point
36. The angle turned by a body undergoing
mass 𝑚 at its one end B (see figure). The
circular motion depends on times as 𝜃 = 𝜃0 +
rod is free to rotate in vertical plane about
𝜃1 𝑡 + 𝜃2 𝑡 2 , then ratio of angular acceleration
A. The rod, initially in horizontal position is
and initial angular velocity is:
2𝜃2 𝜃2 released. The initial angular acceleration of
(a) (b) rod about A is.
𝜃1 𝜃1
(c) 𝜃1 /2𝜃2 (d) Zero
37. A large open tank containing water has two
holes to its wall. A square hole of side 𝑎 is
made at a depth 𝑦 and a circular hole of radius
𝑟 is made at a depth 16𝑦 from the surface of
water. If equal amount of water comes out
through both the holes per second, then the 9𝑔 8𝑔
relation between r and a will be (a) (b)
8𝑙 9𝑙
𝑎 𝑎 3𝑔 2𝑔
(a) 𝑟 = 2 𝜋 (b) 𝑟 = 2𝜋 (c) (d) 3 𝑙
√ 2𝑙
2𝑎 2𝑎 41. A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the figure
(c) 𝑟 = (d) 𝑟 =
𝜋 √𝜋
P-V diagram. Which of the following curves
38. A force of magnitude of 45 N directed at
represent the same process.
an angle of 37° above the horizontal moves a
10-kg crate along a horizontal surface at
constant velocity. How much work is done by
this force in moving the crate by a distance of
15 m?
(a) Zero joules (b) 540 J
(c) 300 J (d) 170 J
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rest then common speed 𝑣 of the blocks when
they moved a distance 2𝑚 is (Take 𝑚1 =
(a) 6 𝑘𝑔, 𝑚2 = 4𝑘𝑔, 𝑔 = 10 𝑚𝑠 −2 ).

(b)

(a) 2 𝑚𝑠 −1 (b) 2√2 𝑚𝑠 −1

(c) 1 𝑚𝑠 −1 (d) √2 𝑚𝑠 −1
(c) 44. The average force that is necessary to stop a
hammer with 25 N𝑠 −1 momentum in 0.05 𝑠
is
(a) 500 𝑁 (b) 125 𝑁
(c) 50 𝑁 (d) 25 𝑁
45. Load versus elongation graph for two wires A
(d)
and B of same lengths and made of same
material is shown. Ratio of radii of wire A to
that of wire AB is
42. A force of (2𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 4𝑘̂)𝑁 acts on a body
for 4 sec and produces a displacement of
(4𝑖̂ + 4𝑗̂ + 5𝑘̂)𝑚. The power used is:
(a) 11.5 W (b) 9.5 W
(c) 17.5 W (d) 16.5 W
43. Two blocks are connected by an ideal long
string passing over an ideal fixed pulley as
shown in figure. If the system is released from (a) 1 ∶ 1 (b) 1 ∶ 3
(c) √3 ∶ 1 (d) 1 ∶ √3
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46. A conical pendulum is moving in a circle with 48. A body of mass 4 kg is at rest on a horizontal
angular velocity  was shown. If tension in table. The coefficient of friction between the
the string is 𝑇, which of following equation is body and the table is 0.2, A horizontal force
correct? of 6N is applied on the body. The acceleration
of body is.
(a) 0 𝑚/𝑠 2 (b) 0.5 𝑚/𝑠 2
(c) 1.5 𝑚/𝑠 2 (d) 2 𝑚/𝑠 2
49. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc
about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and
(a) 𝑇 = 𝑚𝜔2 ℓ (b) 𝑇𝑠𝑖𝑛 = 𝑚𝜔2 ℓ passing through a point on its rim will be
(c) 𝑇 = 𝑚𝑔 𝑐𝑜𝑠 (d) 𝑇 = 𝑚𝜔2 ℓ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (a) 5 𝐼 (b) 3 𝐼
47. The torque acting on the wheel about centre is (c) 6 𝐼 (d) 4 𝐼
50. A soap bubble of radius 𝑟1 sis placed on
another soap bubble of radius 𝑟2 (𝑟1 < 𝑟2 ) .
The radius R of the soapy film separating the
two bubbles is:
(a) 𝑟1 + 𝑟2 (b) √𝑟12 + 𝑟22
𝑟 𝑟1
(a) 5 𝑁 − 𝑚 (b) 6 𝑁 − 𝑚 (c) √𝑟13 + 𝑟23 (d) 𝑟 2
2−𝑟1
(c) 8 𝑁 − 𝑚 (d) 4 𝑁 − 𝑚

II - CHEMISTRY
Section-A 52. Which compound on reductive ozonolysis
51. The oxidation state of central carbon atom in gives propanone as one of the product?
𝐶3 𝑂2 is
(a) +2 (b) 0
(c) +4 (d) +3

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53. 1 mol of an ideal gas expanded reversibly
from 10 L to 100 L at 27°C. Work done
involved in the process is
(a) –11.5 kJ (b) –5.74 kJ
(c) –57.4 kJ (d) –109.8 kJ
54. Correct order of bond order is
(a) 𝑂2 > 𝑂2− > 𝑂2+ (b) 𝑂2− > 𝑂2 > 𝑂2+
(c) 𝑂2+ > 𝑂2 > 𝑂2− (d) 𝑂2 > 𝑂2+ > 𝑂2−
55. Molarity of 6% (w/v) glucose solution will be 60. Shape of 𝐼𝐶𝑙3 molecule is
𝑀 (a) Pyramidal (b) Trigonal planar
(a) 1 M (b) 3 (c) Tetrahedral (d) Bent T-shape
𝑀 𝑀
(c) (d) 61. Which of the following pair can act as a
4 6
56. Which of the following elements will have the buffer solution?
highest number of unpaired electrons in (a) 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙
ground state? (b) 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝑁𝑎
(a) Cr (b) Mn (c) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙
(c) V (d) Fe (d) 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝑁𝑎 + 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
57. The correct relation for Heisenberg’s 62. The total number of electrons that can be
uncertainty principle is represented by accommodate in an orbital having 𝑛 = 2 and
ℎ ℎ
(a) 𝛥𝑥 × 𝛥𝑝𝑥 ≤ 4𝜋 (b) 𝛥𝑥 × 𝛥𝑝𝑥 ≥ 2𝜋 ℓ = 1 is
ℎ ℎ (a) 14 (b) 10
(c) 𝛥𝑥 × 𝛥𝑝𝑥 ≤ 2𝜋 (d) 𝛥𝑥 × 𝛥𝑝𝑥 ≥ 4𝜋
(c) 6 (d) 2
58. The correct order of decreasing ionic size is
63. Major product obtained by the reaction of
(a) 𝑁 3− > 𝐹 − > 𝑀𝑔2+
1-butene with Baeyer’s reagent is
(b) 𝑁𝑎+ > 𝐹 − > 𝑂2−
(c) 𝐹 − > 𝑂2− > 𝑁𝑎+
(d) 𝑀𝑔2+ > 𝑁 3− > 𝐹 −
59. The species which does not show
hyperconjugation is 64. In which of the following compounds, 180°
bond angle is not present?
(a) 𝑋𝑒𝐹4 (b) 𝑃𝐶𝑙5
(c) 𝑆𝐹6 (d) 𝐶𝑙𝐹3

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65. Average atomic mass of an element ‘A’ that (c) 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐻𝑃𝑂42−
exists as two isotopes 20A and 22A with the (d) 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐻𝑃𝑂42−
percentage abundance of 80% and 20% 70. Maximum dipole moment among the
respectively will be following is of
(a) 21.6 u (b) 20.4 u (a) 𝑁𝐻3 (b) 𝑁𝐹3
(c) 20.2 u (d) 21.8 u (c) 𝐶𝐶𝑙4 (d) 𝐶𝐻𝐶𝑙3
66. Major product obtained in the below reaction 71. The oxidation numbers of four sulphur atoms
will be in 𝑆4 𝑂62− are
(a) +6, +6, −2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 − 2
(b) +5, 0,0, 𝑎𝑛𝑑 + 5
(c) 0, 0, +2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 + 2
(d) +4, +2, +2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 + 4
72. Intensive property among the following is
(a) Resistance (b) Refractive index
(c) Mass (d) Volume
73. Hybridisation of 𝐶1 and 𝐶_2 carbon in the
following molecule are respectively

(a) 𝑠𝑝3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑠𝑝2 (b) 𝑠𝑝2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑠𝑝

67. The angular momentum of an electron in 3rd (c) 𝑠𝑝 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑠𝑝2 (d) 𝑠𝑝2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑠𝑝2
shell is 74. IUPAC name of compound given below is
(a) 2ℎ (b) 3ℎ
(c) 1.5ℎ (d) ℎ
68. Which among the following species can not
show disproportionation reaction?
(a) 𝑆2 𝐶𝑙2 (b) 𝑆𝑂2
(c) 𝑆𝐶𝑙2 (d) 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4
69. Conjugate acid and base for 𝐻2 𝑃𝑂4− ion (a) 1-Bromo-3-methyl-4-chlorocyclohexane
respectively are (b) 1-Bromo-4-chloro-3-methylcyclohexane
(a) 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 and 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂2 (c) 4-Bromo-3-methyl-1-chlorocyclohexane
(b) 𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 and 𝑃𝑂43− (d) 4-Bromo-1-chloro-3-methylcyclohexane

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75. The correct order of decreasing energy of 81. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction
orbitals for 𝐵𝑒 atom is 𝑁2 (𝑔) + 3𝐻2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔) is 𝑥 then the
(a) 3𝑑 > 5𝑝 > 4𝑠 (b) 3𝑑 > 4𝑠 > 5𝑝 equilibrium constant for the reaction
(c) 5𝑝 > 3𝑑 > 4𝑠 (d) 4𝑝 > 4𝑠 > 3𝑑 1 3
𝑁𝐻3 (𝑔) ⇌ 2 𝑁2 (𝑔) + 2 𝐻2 (𝑔) will be
76. Eka-silicon and eka-aluminium respectively 𝑥
are also known as (a) √𝑥 (b) 2
1
(a) In and Sn (c) 2𝑥 (d)
√𝑥
(b) Ge and Ga
(c) Sn and In 82. Empirical formula of a hydrocarbon that
(d) Ga and Ge contains 20% ‘𝐻’ by mass will be
77. Which hydrocarbon cannot be prepared by (a) 𝐶𝐻 (b) 𝐶𝐻2
Kolbe’s electrolytic method? (c) 𝐶𝐻3 (d) 𝐶𝐻4
(a) n-Butane (b) Ethane 83. The correct order of increasing negative
(c) Methane (d) Ethene electron gain enthalpy of the given elements is
78. 𝐾𝑃 is equal 𝐾𝐶 for which of the following (a) 𝐹 < 𝐶𝑙 < 𝐵𝑟 < 𝐼
equilibrium? (b) 𝐶𝑙 < 𝐵𝑟 < 𝐹 < 𝐼
(c) 𝐼 < 𝐵𝑟 < 𝐹 < 𝐶𝑙
(d) 𝐼 < 𝐵𝑟 < 𝐶𝑙 < 𝐹
84. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Ga is larger in size than Al.
Statement II: The 3d electrons of Ga has
poor screening effect.
79. Which of the following pair of 𝑑-orbitals has In the light of the above statements, choose
zero electron density along the axis? the correct answer from the options given
(a) 𝑑𝑥𝑦 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑑𝑥 2 −𝑦 2 (b) 𝑑𝑦𝑧 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑑𝑧 2 below.
(c) 𝑑𝑥 2 −𝑦 2 and 𝑑𝑧 2 (d) 𝑑𝑥𝑦 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑑𝑦𝑧 (a) Statement I is correct and statement II is
80. The compound which liberates hydrogen gas incorrect
on reaction with sodium metal is (b) Both statement I and II are correct
(a) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶𝐻 (c) Both statement I and II are incorrect
(b) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶 ≡ 𝐶 − 𝐶𝐻3 (d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
(c) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻2 Correct
(d) 𝐶𝐻3 − 𝐶𝐻 = 𝐶𝐻 − 𝐶𝐻3

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85. Statement-I: 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 acts as self-indicator. The correct statement(s) is/are
Statement-II: 𝐾2 𝐶𝑟2 𝑂7 is not used as a (a) (A) and (B) only (b) (A) only
selfindicator. (c) (B) only (d) (A), (B) and (C)
In the light of above statements choose the 89. The bond dissociation energies of 𝑋2 , 𝑌2 and
correct option. 𝑋𝑌 are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 4. ΔH for the
(a) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is formation of 𝑋𝑌 is – 450 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 –1 . The bond
incorrect dissociation energy of 𝑋2 will be
(b) Statement-I and statement-II both are (a) 400 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 –1 (b) 900 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 –1
correct (c) 300 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 –1 (d) 150 𝑘𝐽 𝑚𝑜𝑙 –1
(c) Statement-I and statement-II both are 90. The correct order of decreasing priority of the
incorrect given functional groups in IUPAC
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is nomenclature is
correct (a) −𝑆𝑂3 𝐻 > −𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > −𝐶𝑂𝑁𝐻2 > −𝐶𝑂𝐶𝑙
(b) −𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > −𝑆𝑂3 𝐻 > −𝐶𝑂𝐶𝑙 > −𝐶𝑂𝑁𝐻2
Section-B (c) −𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > −𝑆𝑂3 𝐻 > −𝐶𝑂𝑁𝐻2 > −𝐶𝑂𝐶𝑙
86. Molar solubility of 𝑍𝑛(𝑂𝐻)2 in 0.1 M NaOH (d) −𝑆𝑂3 𝐻 > −𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 > −𝐶𝑂𝐶𝑙 > −𝐶𝑂𝑁𝐻2
91. pH of the solution made by mixing 200 ml of
solution is (𝐾𝑠𝑝 𝑍𝑛(𝑂𝐻)2 = 1 × 10−15 )
0.1 M 𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 and 100 ml of 0.1 M 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
(a) 10−9 𝑀 (b) 10−13 𝑀
solution is
(c) 10−14 𝑀 (d) 10−15 𝑀
(𝑝𝐾𝑎 (𝐶𝐻3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻) = 4.7)
87. Lewis acidity of boron halides decreases in (a) 4.7 (b) 9.3
the sequence (c) 2.3 (d) 11.7
(a) 𝐵𝐹3 > 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 > 𝐵𝐵𝑟3 92. Mole fraction of urea in 5 m aqueous solution
(b) 𝐵𝐵𝑟3 > 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 > 𝐵𝐹3 will be
(c) 𝐵𝐹3 > 𝐵𝐵𝑟3 > 𝐵𝐶𝑙3 10 20
(a) 121 (b) 121
(d) 𝐵𝐵𝑟3 > 𝐵𝐹3 > 𝐵𝐶𝑙3
25 10
88. Consider the following statements (c) 121 (d) 111
A. Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic in 93. Which of the following is a Transuranium
nature. element?
B. Pyrole is a heterocyclic aromatic (a) Tb (b) W
compound. (c) Th (d) Np
C. Naphthalene and anthracene contain 14 and
10 𝜋 electrons respectively.
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94. The compound which on hydrogenation will 98. Most stable carbanion among the following is
liberate highest amount of energy is

95. In Carius method of estimation of halogen,

0.5 g of an organic compound gave 0.564 g of
𝐴𝑔𝐵𝑟. Percentage of bromine present in the
organic compound is
(a) 16% (b) 64%
(c) 36% (d) 48%
96. For the reaction, 𝐴(𝑔) → 2𝐵(𝑔) 99. Assuming 𝑥 axis as internuclear axis, which
ΔU=2 kcal, ΔS=15 cal 𝐾 −1 at 300 K of the following will show zero overlap?
ΔG for the above reaction is (a) 2𝑠 + 2𝑝𝑥 (b) 2𝑠 + 2𝑠
(c) 2𝑝𝑦 + 2𝑝𝑦 (d) 2𝑝𝑥 + 2𝑝𝑦
(a) -1.5 kcal 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 (b) −1.9 kcal 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
100. During estimation of nitrogen present in an
(c) −3.5 kcal 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1 (d) −3.8 kcal 𝑚𝑜𝑙 −1
organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the
97. Minimum molar mass of a protein that contain
ammonia evolved from 1.0 g of the compound
0.7% by mass of nitrogen will be
was neutralised by 15 mL of 1 M 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4
(a) 1000 u (b) 2000 u
solution. The percentage of nitrogen present
(c) 4000 u (d) 3000 u
in the compound is
(a) 28% (b) 36%
(c) 42% (d) 54%

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III – BIOLOGY (PART - 1)

Section-A (b) buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, crop,
101. Dorsally and ventrally sclerites are known as stomach, intestine, rectum, cloaca
(a) sternites on both sides (c) buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus,
(b) tergites on both side stomach, intestine, rectum, cloaca
(c) tergites, sternites (d) none of these
(d) sternites, tergites
107. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
102. Which of the following statements are not true
options given
about head of cockroach:
Statement 1: frogs shows aestivation and
(a) Head lies anteriorly at right angles to the
hibernation
longitudinal body axis
Statement 2: the female frogs can be
(b) head is formed by fusion of 5 segments
distinguished by the presence of sound
and mobile in all directions due to flexible
producing vocal sac which are absent in male
neck
frogs
(c) Head capsule bears a pair of compound
(a) Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect
eye
(b) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
(d) all are true
incorrect
103. Which of the following is not true in
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is
cockroaches
correct
(a) eyes consist of about 2000 hexagonal
(d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are
ommatidia
incorrect
(b) Vision on cpckroach is known as mosaic
108. Heart of frog have how many ventricle and
vision
atrium
(c) mosaic vision is with less sensitivity and
(a) 2, 2 (b) 2, 1
more resolution
(c) 1, 1 (d) none of these
(d) Cockroach have nocturnal vision
109. Why the determination of relationship
104. In female cockroach ovaries are present
becomes more complex in higher taxonomic
laterally in _____ segments
(a) 5 – 7th (b) 2nd – 6th categories
(c) 8 – 10 th
(d) 9 – 11th (a) Number of common characters goes on
105. Assertion: Frog has short alimentary canal. decreasing in lower taxa
Reason: Frogs are carnivores. (b)Number of common characters goes on
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and decreasing in higher taxa
Reason is the correct explanation of (c) Because classification itself is very difficult
Assertion. process
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but (d)Number of common characters goes on
Reason is not the correct explanation of increasing in higher taxa
Assertion. 110. In given following option which scientific
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. name is not correct :-
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false. (a) Brassica Oleracea
106. The correct order of parts of alimentary canal (b) Magnifera indica Linn
of frog are (c) Naja naja
(a) buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, (d) Homo sapiens
gizzard, stomach, intestine, rectum, cloaca

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111. Cytotaxonomy includes study of - 116. Ustilago and puccinia belongs to
(a) Chromosome structure (a) Ascomycetes
(b) Number of chemicals (b) Basidiomycetes
(c) Chemical composition of nucleus (c) Zygomycetes
(d) Type of nucleic acid of ribosome (d) Deuteromycetes
112. Choose incorrect statement about virus : 117. Heterocyst occurs in
I. Some virus have both DNA and RNA (a) Nostoc (b) Anabaena
II. Viruses are facultative parasite (c) Euglena (d) Both a and b
III. Animal viruses always have SS DNA and 118. Main criteria for classification used by R.H.
DS DNA
Whittaker are :
IV. Capsid in capsomere shows helical,
(a) Cell structure and body organisation
polyhedral, Geometric symmetry
(b) Mode of nutrition and reproduction
V. W.M. Stanley named virus means
(c) Phylogenetic relationships
poisonous fluid
(d) All of these
(a) Only I, II, III (b) Only II, IV
119. Select the incorrect match
(c) Only III, IV, V (d) I, II, III, IV, V
(a) Antipodal cells: Degenerate after
113. Which is the correct matching set:
Column-I Column-II fertilization
A. Saprophytic protist i. Chrysophytes (b) Wolffia: Smallest gymnosperm
B. Golden algae ii. Slime moulds (c) Sequoia: Largest gymnosperm
C. Ciliated protozoan iii. Dinoflagellates (d) Chara: Green alga
D. Protists having two flagella iv. Paramecium 120. Endosperm of gymnosperms is:
(a) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (a) Is triploid
(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (b) Is called embryo sac
(c) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (c) Is formed after fertilization
(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (d) Is female gametophyte
114. Following are some characteristics of a 121. Sphagnums possesses:
specific group. Considered the characters and (a) Two types of spores
identify the respective group : (b) Free living sporophyte
i. Majority of them are fresh water (c) Great water absorbing capacity
ii. Instead of cell wall, protein layar present (d) Unicellular gemma cups
iii. Two flagella present 122. Brown algae differ from green algae as the
(a) Chrysophyta former have:
(b) Slime moulds (a) Chlorophyll a
(c) Euglenoids (b) Pyrenoids
(d) Mycoplasma (c) Cellulosic cell wall
115. Match the following column 1 with column 2 (d) Hydrocolloid covering outside their cell
Column - 1 Column - 2 wall
A. R.H. Whittaker i. Chrysophytes 123. Select the plant which lacks seeds well as
B. Chlorella ii. Nostoc vascular tissues.
C. Heterocyst iii. Algae (a) Riccia (b) Cedrus
D. Golden algae iv. 1969 (c) Pteris (d) Cycas
A B C D 124. When only a single plane passing through the
(a) iv ii iii i central axis of body and divides the animal
(b) iv iii ii i into two identical halves. It is called as _____.
(c) ii iii iv i (a) Asymmetry (b) Radial symmetry
(d) iii iv i ii (c) Bilateral symmetry (d) Biradial symmetry
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125. Statement-I : Any plane passing through the (a) Pila, Octopus, Balanoglossus
central axis of the body divides the organism (b) Pila, Pinctada, Sepia
into two identical halves, it is called Radial (c) Pila, Asterias, Ophiura
symmetry (d) Saccoglossus, Loligo, Octopus
Statement-II : Coelenterates, ctenophores 132. How many of the characters given below are
and Echinoderms have this kind of body plan. related with the diagram
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
& the Statement-II is a correct explanation
of the Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
but the Statement-II is not a correct
(A) Second largest phylum of animal
explanation of the Statement-I.
kingdom.
(c) Statement-I is true but the Statement-II is
(B) Tissue level of organisation.
false (C) Bilateral symmetry.
(d) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(D) Body is covered with calcareous shell.
false
(E) Triploblastic animals.
126. Statement-I : Most of the roundworms show
(a) Only one, B
sexual dimorphism. (b) Two B, E
Statement-II : Male Ascaris is longer than
(c) Three A, D, E
female Ascaris.
(d) Four A, B, C, E
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
133. Single active cotyledon of maize grain is
incorrect (a) Scutellum (b) Kernel
(b) Both Statement I and II are correct
(c) Perisperm (d) Epiblast
(c) Both Statement I and II are incorrect
134. Bilateral symmetry is found in the flowers of
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(a) Brassica (b) Cassia
correct
(c) Capsicum (d) Datura
127. Which group of phyla has open type of
135. A well developed tap root system is seen in
circulatory system
(a) Maize (b) Mustard
(a) Annelida & Arthropoda
(c) Sweet Potato (d) Sugarcane
(b) Annelida & Mollusca
(c) Mollusca & Arthropoda Section-B
(d) Annelida & Chordata 136. The inflorescence found in sunflower is
128. The umbrella shape and free swimming form (a) Umbel (b) Corymb
of coelenterate reproduced by sexual (c) Capitulum (d) Catkin
reproduction is 137. Which is correct pair for edible part of plant?
(a) Polyp (b) Medusa (a) Mango – Endocarp
(c) Both a & b (d) None of these (b) Litchi – Thalamus
129. All animals of which phylum are exclusively (c) Coconut – Endosperm
marine: (d) Guava – Aril
(a) Mollusca (b) Ctenophora 138. Read the following statements (A → E) and
(c) Echinodermata (d) Both b and c answer as asked next to them :-
130. Flame cell is found in which phylum A. A bud is present in the axil of leaflets of
(a) Platyhelminthes (b) Ctenophora Neem.
(c) Annelida (d) Coelentrata B. Leaflets are attached at a common point
131. Which of the following animals belong to the i.e., at the tip of petiole in Neem.
same phylum?
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C. In Maize the leaf base expands into a (a) Dicot stem (b) Dicot root
sheath covering the stem partially or (c) Monocot root (d) All of these
wholly. 145. Function of Thymus is:
D. In Calotropis more than two leaves arise at (a) Growth
a node and form a whorl. (b) Immunity
E. Half inferior ovary is present in Plum. (c) Formation of RBC’s
How many of above statements are correct? (d) Emergency hormone
146. Which of following is not a protein hormone?
(a) Three (b) Four
(a) PTH (b) MSH
(c) Five (d) Two
(c) ADH (d) Estradiol
139. Bulliform cells are found: 147. Hormone prolactin is secreted by:
(a) in grasses (a) thyroid
(b) at adaxial surface of grass leaf (b) hypothalamus
(c) at abaxial surface of leaf (c) anterior pituitary
(d) a and b (d) posterior pituitary
148. The adrenal cortex can be divided into three
140. Xylem & phloem arranged in an alternate
layers. The arrangement of these layers from
manner on different radii, the arrangement is
outer to inner side is:
called
(a) Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and
(a) Radial (b) Conjoint
zona reticularis.
(c) Both a and b (d) Conjuctive (b) Zona reticularis, zona fasciculata and zona
141. Select the incorrect statement in the glomerulosa
followings: (c) Zona glomerulosa, zona reticularis, zona
(a) Open conjoint, collateral or bicollateral fasciculata
vascular bundles found in monocot stem (d) Zona fasciculata, zona glomerulosa, zona
reticularis
(b) All the tissues on the innerside of the
149. Assertion (A): Diabetes insipidus is marked
endodermis such as pericycle, vascular
by excessive urination and too much thirst of
bundles and pith in dicot root consitute the
water.
stele
Reason (R): Anti-Diuretic Hormone (ADH)
(c) Polyarch vascular bundles found in is secreted by the posterior lobe of pituitary
monocot root gland.
(d) Phloem parenchyma is absent in monocot (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
stem correct Explanation of (A)
142. Large number of vascular bundle found in (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
monocot stem each surrounded by :
(c) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(a) Collenchymatous multilayered sheath (d) Both (A) and (R) are false
(b) Parenchymatous single layered sheath 150. Which is correct statement:
(c) Sclarenchymatous bundle sheath A- Muscle contraction is a passive process
(d) Both a and b B- Muscles of intestine are involuntary in
143. The chief water containing cavities are nature
present in: C- Fascia is a layer of connective tissue
(a) Monocotyledonous stem D- Muscle bundle is called as sarcomere
(b) Dicotyledonous stem only (a) A and B only (b) B and C only
(c) Monocot root only (c) A, B and D (d) B, C and D
(d) Dicot root only
144. Semilunar patches of sclerenchyma are found
in

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DATS – NEET (UG) 2024 FT-01 / 20-03-2024

III – BIOLOGY (PART - 2)

Section-A 159. Read the following statements (i-v) and
151. During contraction of skeletal muscle, Ca2+ answer the question which follows them.
bind to: (i) Wall of artery and vein consists of three
(a) Myosin (b) Troponin layers.
(c) Tropomyosin (d) Myosin ATPase (ii) Tunica intima of blood vessels consists of
152. Pelvic girdle consists of : collagen fibres.
(a) Ilium only (iii) Tunica media of blood vessels consists of
(b) Ilium and ischium only smooth muscles and elastic fibres.
(c) Ischium and pubis only (iv) Tunica media is thinner in the veins in
(d) Ilium, ischium and pubis comparisons to arteries.
153. Which one of the following remains constant (v) Open circulatory system is present in
after muscle contraction? arthropods and most of annelids.
(a) A-Band How many of the above statements are
correct?
(b) Length of the actin filament
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Length of the myosin filament
(c) Three (d) Four
(d) All of these
160. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. animals, their
154. In human body, which one of the following is
main respiratory structures and taxon in which
anatomically correct:
they are placed.
(a) Floating ribs – 2 pairs
Animal Respiratory Taxon
(b) Collar bones – 3 pairs
structure
(c) Salivary gland – 1 pair
A. earthworm Moist cuticle Annelida
(d) Cranial nerves – 10 pairs
B. Cockroach Tracheal tubes Arthropoda
155. The cerebrum is longitudinally divided into
C. Rohu Gills Chordata
two halves that are connected by :
D. Pigeon Air sacs Aves
(a) Cerebrum
(a) A (b) B
(b) Corpus callosum
(c) C (d) D
(c) Thalamus
161. A chemosensitive area in medulla, located
(d) Hypothalamus
adjacent to rhythm centre is primarily
156. Myelinated nerve fibres are found in : sensitive to:
(a) Spinal nerves (b) cranial nerves (a) pO2 in arterial blood
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) ANS (b) pCO2 in venous blood
157. The correct sequence of meninges from inner (c) pCO2 in arterial blood
to outer side is : (d) pO2 in venous blood
(a) Piamater → duramater → arachnoid 162. Match the following and select the correct
(b) Arachnoid → duramater → Piamater option.
(c) Arachnoid → Piamater → duramater Column-I Column-II
(d) Piamater → arachnoid → duramater (Leucocytes) (% in total WBC count)
158. Nissl’s granules are present in : A. Neutrophils (i) 2-3%
(a) Cyton (b) Axon B. Basophils (ii) 60-65%
(c) Dendron (d) Both a and c C. Monocytes (iii) 0.5-1%
D. Eosinophils (iv) 6-8%

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(a) A-(i), B-(ii) , C-(iii), D-(iv)
(b) A-(ii), B-(i) , C-(iii), D-(iv)
(c) A-(ii), B-(iii) , C-(i), D-(iv)
(d) A-(ii), B-(iii) , C-(iv), D-(i)
163. Select a membrane that is not a part of the
diffusion membrane.
(a) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli
(b) Endothelium of alveolar capillaries.
(c) Cellular basement membrane between
above two layers.
(d) Acellular basement substance between
squamous epithelium of alveoli &
capillaries.
164. The opening between right atrium and right
ventricle is guarded by:
(a) Tricuspid valve (b) Mitral valve
(c) Bicuspid valve (d) Eustachian valve
165. Transport of CO2 in blood occurs in dissolved
form in plasma, in the form of
carbarminohemoglobin and as bicarbonates.
The approximate proportion of CO2 in
different forms respectively is
(a) 7%, 70%, 10% (b) 7%, 70%, 23%
(c) 10%, 70%, 7% (d) 7%, 23%, 70%
166. Cardiac disorder which is characterised by
sudden damage to heart muscles due to
inadequate blood supply is
(a) Heart attack (b) Heart failure
(c) Cardiac arrest (d) Heart block
167. A: The cardiac output of an athlete will be
more during exercise compared to that of an
ordinary man.
R: Cardiac output is based on the body’s
ability to Alter the stroke volume as well as
the heart rate.
(a) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) Assertion is true statement but Reason is
false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statement.
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168. Rh incompatibility can possible occur in
subsequent pregnancy in which of the
following cases?
(a) Rh+ female and Rh− male, feotus Rh−ve
(b) Rh− female and Rh− male, feotus Rh−ve
(c) Rh+ female and Rh+ male, feotus Rh−ve
(d) Rh− female and Rh+ male, feotus Rh+ve
169. In prokaryotes plasma membrane is
(a) Selectively permeable
(b) Interacts with outside world
(c) Structurally like eukaryotes
(d) All of these
170. What is a tonoplast
(a) Outer membrane of mitochondria
(b) Inner membrane of chloroplast
(c) Membrane boundary of the vacuole of
plant cells
(d) Cell membrane of a plant cell
171. Correct sequence of layers of bacterial cell
envelope from outward to inward is
(a) Cell wall → Glycocalyx → Cell
membrane
(b) Cell membrane → Glycocalyx → Cell
wall
(c) Glycocalyx → Cell wall → Cell
membrane
(d) Glycocalyx → Cell membrane → Cell
wall
172. Lipids are arranged within the membrane
with:
(a) Polar heads toward inner side and the
hydrophobic tails toward outerside
(b) Both heads and tails toward outerside
(c) Heads toward outerside and tail towards
inside
(d) Both heads and tails towards innerside
173. Mechanical support, enzyme circulation,
protein synthesis and detoxification of drugs
are the function of :
(a) Dictyosomes (b) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes (d) ER.
174. How many meiotic division would be
required to produced 101 female gametophyte
in angiosperms
(a) 26 (b) 101
(c) 127 (d) 202
P-20
 DATS – NEET (UG) 2024 FT-01 / 20-03-2024
175. In oocytes of some vertebrates which stage 185. Juxtaglomerular apparatus is formed by
can last for months or years cellular modifications of:
(a) Diplotene (b) Pachytene (a) PCT and efferent arteriole
(c) Diakinesis (d) None of these (b) DCT and efferent arteriole
176. Most of the organelle duplication occurs (c) DCT and afferent arteriole
(d) PCT and afferent arteriole
during
(a) G1-phase (b) S-phase Section-B
(c) G2-phase (d) M-phase
177. Crossing over is 186. Facultative reabsorption of water occurs in the
(a) Non-enzyme mediated process last part of nephron under the influence of
(b) Not exchange of genetic material which hormone?
(c) An enzyme mediated process (a) ANF
(d) None of the above (b) Rennin
(c) ADH
178. Yeast cell divides once in approximately
(d) Epinephrine
every 187. Select the set of ureotelic animals.
(a) 90 minutes (b) 9 minutes (a) Bony fishes, aquatic amphibians, aquatic
(c) 24 hours (d) 24 days insects
179. An egg cell has 5 Pg of DNA in its nucleus. (b) Marine fishes, terrestrial amphibians,
How much amount of DNA will be in this mammals
animal at the end of G2 phase mitosis: (c) Mammals land snails, insects
(a) 2.5 Pg (b) 10 Pg (d) Reptiles, birds and mammals
(c) 5 Pg (d) 20 Pg 188. Presence of glucose and ketone bodies in
180. Choose the correct option to complete the urine is indicative of
analogy. (a) Tetany (b) Myasthenia gravis
Reducing sugar : Glucose : : Non-reducing (c) Jaundice (d) Diabetes Mellitus
sugar : _____ 189. What will be the additional number of ATP
(a) Fructose (b) Galactose molecules used during synthesis of one
(c) Sucrose (d) Lactose molecule of glucose in sugarcane than
181. Concanavalin A is a/an tomato?
(a) Pigment (b) Alkaloid (a) 18 (b) 12
(c) Toxin (d) Lectin (c) 30 (d) 24
182. To perform a chemical analysis, which of the
following chemicals is primarily used to grind 190. Photosynthesis is important due to which of
a living tissue? the following two reasons?
(a) 𝐶𝑙3 𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (b) 𝐶𝑙2 𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻2 (A) It is the primary cause of water formation
(c) 𝐶𝑙3 𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 (d) 𝐶𝑙2 𝐶𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻2 in plants.
183. The polysaccharide present in the exoskeleton (B) It is the way to purify water.
(C) It is primary source of food on earth.
of arthropods is made up of the monomeric (D) It is responsible for the release of oxygen
unit called into the atmosphere.
(a) N-acetyl galactosamine (a) (A) & (B)
(b) N-acetyl glucosamine (b) (B) & (D)
(c) Fructose (c) (A) & (C)
(d) Glucose (d) (C) & (D)
184. Choose the phospholipid:
(a) Glycerol (b) Cholesterol
(c) Lecithin (d) Alanine
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191. Match the following columns. (a) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
Column I Column II (b) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
A. Joseph Pristley (I) Experimented on (c) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
Cladophora
B. T. W. Engelmann (II) Experimented on (d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
Hydrilla 197. Match the column I and II
C. Cornelius van (III) Showed that chlorophyll
Niel is located in chloroplasts Column-I Column-II
D. Julius von Sachs (IV) Discovered oxygen (Hormone) (Function)
E. Jan Ingenhousz (V) Inferred that source of A Auxin i Fruit ripening
evolved O2 is water
during photosynthesis B Cytokinin ii Phototropism
C Abscisic iii Over come apical
(a) A(IV), B(I), C(V), D(III), E(II)
dominance
(b) A(IV), B(V), C(I), D(II), E(III)
(c) A(V), B(IV), C(I), D(III), E(II) D Ethylene iv Inhibit seed germination
(d) A(V), B(I), C(IV), D(II), E(III) (a) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
192. Select the odd one out w.r.t. the plant factors, (b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
affecting photosynthesis. (c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(a) Internal CO2 concentration
(d) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(b) Amount of chlorophyll
(c) Orientation of leaves 198. Which hormone is recognized for it’s growth
(d) Sunlight and temperature promoting as well as growth inhibiting role?
193. What is the maximum concentration of (a) Ethylene (b) Cytokinin
alcohol in beverages that are naturally (c) ABA (d) Auxin
fermented: 199. Spraying sugarcane with gibberellins
(a) 12% (b) 40% increases the yield by as much as 20 tonnes
(c) 20% (d) 70% per acre GA performs it:
194. End product of fermentation are: (a) By improving the quality of fruit
(a) C2H5OH & O2 (b) C2H5OH & CO2 (b) By making plants with rosette habit
(c) CO2 & O2 (d) CO2 & pyruvate (c) By intermodal elongation
195. Respiratory pathway is best defined as: (d) By delaying senescence
(a) Catabolic pathway 200. Which of the following events in plants is/are
(b) Anabolic pathway affected by interaction of more than one
(c) Amphibolic pathway PGR?
(d) Physicochemical process (a) Apical dominance
196. Match the following (b) Abscission and senescence
Column-I Column-II (c) Dormancy in seeds/buds
(substrate) (R.Q.) (d) All of the above
A. Carbohydrate i. >1
B. Organic acid ii. <1
C. Proteins iii. Equal to 1
D. Anaerobic iv 
respiration

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 XII-Reg. (TEST PAPER) Dated: 06.11.2022 7300666551

NEET Answer Key Test-27 (20-03-2024) (TEST ID: 230210591)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C C D A C C B D A B D B C B C C C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A A A B A B A C B A B C B C A A B B A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A D A A D A C A C D B C B C B A D A D D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
D D C D B B B D D A B B B D C B C C D A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
D C C D B B B A B B A A D A D B B C D C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C B B B A C B D B A A D A C B B D D B D
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
C D A C A A C B D A B C A B B C C D D A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A C A A B D C A B B B D D A B C D D C D
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
C D C A D A A D D C C C D B A A C A D C
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
D A B C C C B D B D A D A B C A D A C D

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