FINAL TEST SERIES

Subject: PCM Topic: JEE-24-FTSA-1-Paper I (Full Course) Batch : JEE-24, 3Yr24

Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Test No: 1–PI
Date of Test: 05/03/2024 Maximum Marks: 180

Note :
(i) In Part A there are 6 questions.
(ii) Each question has Four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE or MORE THAN ONE of
these four option(s) is(are) correct.
(iii) For each questions, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
- Full Marks : +4 if All correct options are chosen and no incorrect option is chosen.
- Partial Marks : +1 for EACH correct option provided no incorrect option is marked.
- zero Marks : 0 if none of the option(s) is marked.
- negative Marks : -2 if ONE or MORE incorrect option(s) is/are chosen.
(iv) For Example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, marked all these
three will result in +4 marks ; marked only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks and marked
(A) and (B) will result in –2 marks, as a wrong options is also marked.

PHYSICS
NOTE: There are 18 questions in this part.
(A) Multiple Correct Option : 6 × 4 = 24 (4R - 2W) + 1P
(B) Paragraphs : 4 × 3 = 12 (3R - 1W)
(C) Numerical Value Type : 8 × 3 = 24 (3R – 0W)

PART : A (6 × 4 = 24 Marks) (4R – 2W)

CHOOSE THE ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS:
Q.1) A spherical surface separates air & medium for which 1.615 for violet and 1.600 for
red color. A paraxial beam parallel to optic axis is incident on the surface as shown. The
distance between point of convergence for violet and red color is f .

air 10cm

(A) f 0.41 cm
(B) Point of convergence for red is closer to optical centre than that for violet.
(C) Point of convergence for violet is closer to optical centre than that for red.
(D) f 0.84 cm

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 1

Q.2) A cubic frame is made of 12 rods each of mass m and length .

23 2
(A) The moment of inertia of the cube about its face diagonal (BD) is m .
3
(B) The moment of inertia of the cube about an axis passing through the center of cube and
14
perpendicular to one of the face (HI) is m 2.
3
32
(C) The moment of inertia of the cube about one of the side of cube (AB) is m 2.
3
(D) The moment of inertia of the cube about an axis passing through the center of the face
23
and the midpoint of the one of the side (JK) is m 2.
6
Q.3) A smooth sphere of mass 1 kg is tied to a fixed point by an inextensible string and
suspended from the roof. Another identical sphere impinges directly on it with speed
5 m/sec in a direction making an acute angle 30° with the string. Co-efficient of restitution is
1
.
2

A 30

(A) Speed of sphere B just after collision is 3 m/s.

(B) Speed of sphere A just after collision is 2 m/s.
(C) Impulse due to normal force between two spheres during collision is 6 N-S
(D) Impulse due to tension in string during collision is 3 N-S.

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 2

Q.4) Rank the magnitude of B d for the closed paths shown in figure from the smallest to

largest.

2A d

b
a

2A 3A

(A) a, b, c, d (B) a, b, d, c (C) a, d, c, b (D) a, c, b, d

Q.5) A point charge q is placed at origin. The electrostatic energy stored in the space around the
point charge in various volumes as mentioned in listed in options below. Choose the correct
option(s) below.
q2a3
(A) A small cube with edge size a(a r) placed at (r, 0, 0) has 2 4
amount of
32 0r

energy.
q2a3
(B) A small cube with edge size a(a r) placed at (r, 0, 0) has 2 4
amount of
16 0r

energy
q2
(C) Energy stored in volume given by a2 x2 y2 z2 4a2 is
16 0a

q2
(D) Energy stored in volume given by a2 x2 y2 z2 4a2 is
32 0a

Q.6) A string of mass 0.2 kg and length 2m is tied at two ends to fixed supports under a tension
of 10 N. A point P on the string is found to travel from one extreme to other in 0.1s. Taking
one end as x 0 and the other end x 2 m and t 0 as the time when P is at rest.
(Position of P is x) The correct statements will be :-
(A) For 0 t 0.1 s , energy flows across P in positive x-direction for 0 x 1m
(B) For 0 t 0.05 s energy flows across P in negative x-direction for 0 x 1m
(C) At t 0.05 s , rate of energy flow through P is zero for x 0.5 m
(D) At t 0.1 s , rate of energy flow through P for all values of x is zero.

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 3

 PART : B (4 × 3 = 12 Marks) (3R – 1W)
READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT OPTION:
PASSAGE-1: (Q. NO. 7 & 8)
Nuclear binding energy varies from nucleus to nucleus, it is necessary to compare the
binding energy per nucleon basis. If we find binding energy per nucleon for a given element
it can be given as binding energy divided by the nucleon number A as
E mc 2
(BE)N
A A
We can define binding energy per nucleon theoretically as the amount of energy needed to
remove a nucleon from nucleus of an element.
Q.7) The binding energy of deuteron (12 H) is 1.15 MeV per nucleon and an alpha particle (24 He)
has a binding energy of 7.1 MeV per nucleon. Then in the reaction
2 2 4
1 H 1H 2He Q
the energy Q released is :
(A) 1 MeV (B) 11.9 MeV (C) 23.8 MeV (D) 931 MeV
Q.8) What is the energy released in the fission reaction
236 117 117 1
92 U 46 X 46 Y 2 0n
236
given that the energy per nucleon of X and Y is 8.5 MeV and that of 92 U is 7.6 MeV?
(A) 176.2 MeV (B) 183.7 MeV (C) 195.4 MeV (D) 208.6 MeV

PASSAGE-2: (Q. NO. 9 & 10)

An electromagnetic wave can be represented by E A sin (kx t ) , where E is electric
field associated with wave. According this equation, for any value of x, E remains sinusoidal
for t . Obviously this corresponds to an idealised situation because radiation from
ordinary source consists of finite size wavetrains. In general, electric field remains
sinusoidal only for times of order C , which is called coherence time. In simpler language it
means that for times of order C , a wave will have a definite phase. The finite value of
coherence time could be due to many factors, for example if radiating atom undergoes
collision with another atom then wave train undergoes an abrupt phase change or due to
the fact that an atom responsible for emitting radiation has a finite life time in the energy
level from which it drops to lower energy level, while radiating. Concept of coherence time
can be easily understood using young's double slit experiment. Let interference pattern is
observed around point P at time t, due to superposition of waves emanting from S1 and S2
r1 r
at times t and t 2 respectively, where r1 and r2 are the distance S1 P & S2 P .
c c
r2 r1 8
Obviously if c , {where c 3 10 m / s } then, wavetrain arriving at point P from
c
S1 & S2 will have a definite phase relationship and an interference pattern of good contrast
will be obtained.

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 4

Q.9) Which of the following statements is incorrect in the diagram given :-
(A) Central fringe (near O) will always have a good contrast.
(B) As we move on the screen towards higher orders, contrast will become poorer.
(C) If we move S, parallel to S1S2 there will be no change in contrast of fringes on screen
around O.
(D) If we move on screen away from O, fringes will disappear beyond a certain limit.
Q.10) If coherence time is of order 10 10 second and screen is placed at a very large distance
from slits in the given figure, then :-
(A) For d 0.3 cm , we will not get any fringes on screen (except central maxima)
(B) For d 0.3 cm we will get fringes on a large part of screen.
(C) For d 3 cm we will get fringes on entire screen.
(D) We will get fringes on entire screen, irrespective of value of d.

PART : C (8 × 3 = 24 Marks) (3R - 0W)

NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS :
Q.11) A rod of length 1m rotates about one of its end points with an angular velocity 2 rad/sec in a
plane perpendicular to the magnetic field B 2T as shown in the figure. Then find
magnitude of electric field (in SI unit) at the mid point of the rod.

Q.12) A steel rod at 25°C is bolted at both ends and then cooled. By how many °C should the rod
be cooled so that it will rupture? Assume that till rupture, Hooke’s law is obeyed.
( steel 10 10 6 / C , Y 2 1011 N / m2 and b (breaking stress of steel rod)
4 108 N / m2 )
Q.13) The velocity distribution in a viscous flow over a plate is given by u 4y y2 for y 2m
where u velocity in m/s at a point distant y from the plate. If the coefficient of dynamic
viscosity is 1.5 Pa.s. Determine the shear stress at y 1 m (SI units)
Q.14) In the figure shown water is filled in the cylindrical tank of cross-sectional area 100 cm2 up
to a height of 10 cm. The mass of the thin, tight fitting and frictionless piston is 100 kg. The
small hole in the piston has area 2 2 mm2 . Due to weight of the piston water spurts
upwards in a jet from the hole. Find the time (in sec.) in which the tank becomes empty.
(Assume that spurted water does not fall back on piston)

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 5

Q.15) A battery of emf E0 12.5 V is connected across a 4m long uniform wire having resistance
4 / m . Two cell of small EMFs 1 2 V and 2 4 V having internal resistance 2 and
6 respectively are connected as shown in the figure. If galvanometer shows no deflection
at the point N, the distance of point N (in m) from the point A is equal to :
E0 R 4

A B
1 r1

G
2
r2

Q.16) If the block shown in figure is displaced slightly and released, find the time period of
Pm
oscillations of the blocks is found to be 2 . Find P.
K

Q.17) A boat travel, between two points A and B on the opposite banks of a river (figure), always
following the line AB. The distance S between points A and B is 240 m. The velocity of the
river flow vr 2 2 m /s is constant over the entire width of the river. The line AB makes an
45 with the direction of the current. The boat moves to cover the distance AB and back
in a time t 2 3 min . The angle remains the same during the passage from A to B and
from B to A. With what velocity ub should the boat travel?

Q.18) At an instant t 0 , Block A of mass 1 kg is moving with speed 8 m/s towards right on rough
surface of block B of mass 3 kg. Block B, which is placed on smooth horizontal surface is
moving with speed 4 m/s towards right at same instant ( t 0 ). The net work done against
the frictional force in long time is (block A will not fall from block B)


JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 6
 CHEMISTRY
NOTE: There are 18 questions in this part.
(A) Multiple Correct Option : 6 × 4 = 24 (4R - 2W) + 1P
(B) Paragraphs : 4 × 3 = 12 (3R - 1W)
(C) Numerical Value Type : 8 × 3 = 24 (3R – 0W)

PART : A (6 × 4 = 24 Marks) (4R – 2W)

CHOOSE THE ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS:
SOCl2 C2H5OH
"X"
Δ D2
Q.19) Isomeric alkenes " Y " Isomeric product.
Pt
OH
(X Y) is :
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
Q.20) Which is best graphical representation of atomic radius for 3d series elements.

r r
(A) (B)

z z

r r
(C) (D)

z z
Q.21) Which is/are correct statements?
(A) AgBr shows Frenkel defect as well as schottky defect.
(B) Density may be increase due to impurity defect.
(C) End centred cubic unit cell does not exist in nature
(D) Orthorhombic crystal system has three bravias lattices.

Q.22) A (I) (II) (III) (IV)

Which of the reactant will formed optically active product after reductive ozonolysis.
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
Q.23) Which process of metal purification is also associated with distillation of metal
(A) Parke's process (B) Amalgamation
(C) Polling (D) Puddling process

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 7

Q.24) Acetone and carbon disulphide form binary liquid solution showing positive deviation from
Raoult’s law with a maxima in PT vs X graph. The normal boiling point ( Tb ) of pure acetone
is less than that of pure CS2 . Pick out the incorrect statements among the following.
(A) Boiling temperature of mixture is always less than boiling temperature of acetone.
(B) Boiling temperature of Azeotropic mixture is less than boiling temperature of pure CS2
(C) When a small amount CS2 is added to excess of acetone boiling point of Resulting
mixture increases.
(D) A mixture of CS2 and CH3COCH3 can be completely separated by simple fractional
distillation.

PART : B (4 × 3 = 12 Marks) (3R – 1W)

READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT OPTION:.
PASSAGE-1: (Q. NO. 25 & 26)
Observe the following reaction sequence and give answers to questions given below :
O
CH3
AlCl3 Zn/Hg (i) SOCl2
V O W X (ii) AlCl3
Y
HCl
major

O
methyl succinic
anhydride
Cr2O3 Al2O3
n Hexane 500 C V

Q.25) Identify (Y) :

CH3

(A) (B)
CH3
O O
CH3
CH3

(C) (D)
O
O CH3

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 8

 O3 , Zn Conc.KOH
Q.26) If (V) (R) (S) , Identify (S)
H2O

COO K CO2K COO K CH2O K

| | | |
(A) CH OH (B) CHO (C) COO K (D) CH2O K
2

PASSAGE-2: (Q. NO. 27 & 28)

The atomic orbitals combine to form new set of equivalent orbitals known as hybrid orbitals.
Unlike pure orbitals, the hybrid orbitals are used in bond formation. The phenomenon is
known as hybridization which can be defined as the process of intermixing of the orbitals of
slightly different energies in the formation of new set of orbitals of equivalent energies.
Q.27) Which molecule is non planar as well as polar
(A) IF (B) IF3 (C) IF5 (D) IF7

Q.28) Which molecule is having same electronic geometry as well as molecular geometry
(A) NCl3 (B) PCl5 (C) SF4 (D) XeF4

PART : C (8 × 3 = 24 Marks) (3R - 0W)

NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS :
Q.29) Pt, H2 (1 bar) | 1M NaA (aq) || 10 x M HCl(aq)| H2 (2 bar) , Pt

If emf of above cell is 0.441. What is the value of x?

(Given : 2.303 RT / F 0.06 ; log2 0.3 ) ( pKa (HA) 5)

Q.30) How many of the following statements regarding kinetics of a chemical reaction are correct.

(i) The probability of collision of three or more molecules with proper orientation at same
time is very rare that’s why reactions having molecularity three or more are very rare.
(ii) In a second order reaction the number of reactant can be one but the rate will be
proportional to the square of its concentration.
(iii) The rate of a chemical reaction at any time is always proportional to the initial
concentration of the reactant molecules raised to the power equal to their order.
(iv) The rate of a chemical reaction also depends upon the strength of bond of reactant
molecules and the number of bond to be broken.
(v) The total kinetic energy of the colliding molecules must be greater than some minimum
value.
(vi) The colliding particles must be properly oriented in space when they collide.

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 9

Q.31) x number of optically pure aldehyde or ketone having molecular formula of C5H10O give
chiral alcohol but not racemic mixture with NaBH4 / CH3 —OH . (Consider enantiomer
separately).
Q.32) How many of the following compound(s) give precipitate with solution of chrome alum.
(i) BaCl2 (ii) Na2CO3 (iii) (NH4 )2 S (iv) Excess NaOH

Q.33) 1 mole of an ideal gas initially present in a 2L insulated cylinder at 300 K is allowed to
expand against vaccum to 8 L. then | Gsys | in calories will be [ln2 0.7]

Q.34) N
|
H
Number of CH3 I consumed during the following reaction. In which Hoffmann exhaustive

elimination take place.

Warm
Q.35) For balanced chemical reaction : ' X' NH3 (g) ' Y 'Cl2O ..... 6NH4Cl .......
excess

find the value of expression | X Y | .

Where ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are number of moles of NH3 and Cl2O respectively required to produce
six moles of NH4Cl .
Q.36) One mole of a real gas obeys P(Vm b) RT ; where ‘b’ and ‘R’ are constants with usual

meanings. If occupied volume of the gas is ‘10 b’ then the compressibility factor of gas will
be :


MATHEMATICS
NOTE: There are 18 questions in this part.
(A) Multiple Correct Option : 6 × 4 = 24 (4R - 2W) + 1P
(B) Paragraphs : 4 × 3 = 12 (3R - 1W)
(C) Numerical Value Type : 8 × 3 = 24 (3R – 0W)

PART : A (6 × 4 = 24 Marks) (4R – 2W)

CHOOSE THE ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS:
Q.37) Consider the planes P1 : 2x y z 4 0 , P2 : y z 4 0 and P3 : 3x 2y z 8 0 . Let
L1 , L2 , L3 be the lines of intersection of the planes P2 and P3 , P3 and P1 , and P1 , and P2
respectively. Then,
(A) Atleast two of the lines L1 , L2 and L3 are non-parallel
(B) Atleast two of the lines L1 , L2 and L3 are parallel
(C) The three planes intersect in a line
(D) The three planes form a triangular prism

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 10

Q.38) Let f ( x ) be a differentiable function for x 1 and f (0) 1, f '(0) 0 also
f '( x )(1 f ( x )) 1 x then
(A) f '( x ) 0 x 0 (B) f '( x ) 0 x 0
(C) f ( x ) 1 x 0 (D) f ( x ) 1 x 0
Q.39) If the quadratic equation x 2 2 ax b (a 1) 0 has real roots for all real values of a and b,
then which of the following is/are correct?
(A) Greatest value of b is 4 (B) No such value of b is possible
(C) Least value of b is 0 (D) b can be any integer
a ib
Q.40) Suppose three real numbers a, b, c are in G.P. Let z , then
c ib
ib ia ia
(A) z (B) z (C) z (D) z 0
c b c
5 25 9
Q.41) In ABC , if B sec 1 cos ec 1 5 , C cos ec 1 cot 1 and c 3.
4 7 13
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(where all symbols used have their usual meanings in a triangle)
(A) tan A , tanB , tanC are in arithmetic progression.
(B) Inradius the triangle is irrational
(C) Area of ABC is rational
(D) Semiperimeter is rational
/2n /2n
Q.42) Let n(sin x ) dx an , n(cos x ) dx bn , then
0 0

(A) a1 b1 n2 (B) a2 b2 n2
2
(C) a2 b2 n2 (D) a1 b1 n2
2 4

PART : B (4 × 3 = 12 Marks) (3R – 1W)

READ THE FOLLOWING PASSAGE AND CHOOSE THE CORRECT OPTION:.
PASSAGE-1: (Q. NO. 43 & 44)
Let f ( x ) be a polynomial with positive leading coefficient satisfying f (0) 0 &
x
f (f ( x )) x f (t ) dt x R.
0
Q.43) Two perpendicular tangents to the curve y f ( x ) will intersect on the curve/line
1 3 3x
(A) x 2 y2 3 (B) y (D) y 2
(C) y
4 3 4 16
Q.44) If a line having slope 1 and passing through ( , 0) neither cuts nor touches the curve
y f ( x ) , then the value of must lie in the interval.
3 3 3 3
(A) (0, ) (B) , (C) , (D) ,
4 4 4

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 11

 PASSAGE-2: (Q. NO. 45 & 46)
Let A and B are two square matrix of order 2 2 , where det ( A) 1, det (B) 2 , then
Q.45) Find det( A B) det( A B) , R:
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 2
1 (D) None of these
Q.46) Find det( A B) det( A B) , R:
2 2
(A) (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) None of these

PART : C (8 × 3 = 24 Marks) (3R - 0W)

NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS :
Q.47) Find the distance of the point iˆ 2 ˆj 3kˆ from the plane r (iˆ jˆ kˆ ) 5 measured parallel
to the vector 2iˆ 3 jˆ 6kˆ .
Q.48) Number of values of 'p' for which the equation, ( p2 3p 2) x 2 ( p2 5p 4) x p p2 0
possess more than two roots, is?
x2 y2
Q.49) Area of triangle formed by the asymptotes and any tangent to 1 is 36 sq. units,
a2 b2
where a & b are integers, then number of such hyperbolas is?
Q.50) From an external point P, two tangents are drawn to the parabola x 2 8y . If chord of
2 2
contact of these tangents is tangential to the circle x y 4 , then locus of P will be a
hyperbola length of whose transverse axis is?
Q.51) All the face cards from a pack of 52 playing cards are removed. From the remaining pack
half of the cards are randomly removed without looking at them and then randomly drawn
two cards simultaneously from the remaining. If the probability that, two cards drawn are
p (38 C20 )
both aces, is 40 , then the value of p is ?
C20 20 C2
4x 1
Q.52) Normal to the curve y f (x) at (1, 1) is 3x 4y 7 . Also f ( x ) for x 1 and
3
4x 1
f (x) for x 1 . where f ( x ) is twice differentiable everywhere in its domain.
3
3f '( x ) 2 f ( x ) 2 x
Evaluate lim .
x 1 f (x) x2
Q.53) If a, b, c be three natural numbers in A.P. and a b c 30 , then the possible number of
values of a, b, c is?
Q.54) If the co-efficient of x 4 in the expansion of (1 x 2x 2 )12 is n 2
Cr 1 r n 1
Cr n
Cr , then
the coefficient of x r in the expansion of (1 x )n /2 is



JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 12

 FINAL TEST SERIES
Subject: PCM Topic: JEE-24-FTSA-1-Paper I (Full Course) Batch : JEE-24, 3Yr24
Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Test No: 1–PI
Date of Test: 05/03/2024 Maximum Marks: 180

Provisional Answer Key

Physics Chemistry Maths

1. AC 19. D 37. BC
2. ABC 20. B 38. AC
3. AC 21. ABC 39. AC
4. B 22. BCD 40. AB
5. AC 23. AB 41. ABC
6. CD 24. ACD 42. AB
7. C 25. A 43. C
8. C 26. A 44. B
9. C 27. C 45. C
10. B 28. B 46. C
11. 2 29. 2 47. 7
12. 200 30. 5 48. 1
13. 3 31. 2 49. 9
14. 25 32. 3 50. 4
15. 1 33. 840 51. 6
16. 3 34. 3 52. 7
17. 4 35. 7 53. 19
18. 6 36. 1.11 54. 20

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper I 1

 FINAL TEST SERIES
Subject: PCM Topic: JEE-24-FTSA-1-Paper II (Full Course) Batch : JEE-24, 3Yr24
Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Test No: 1–PII
Date of Test: 05/03/2024 Maximum Marks: 180

Note :
(i) In Part A there are 6 questions.
(ii) Each question has Four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE or MORE THAN ONE of
these four option(s) is(are) correct.
(iii) For each questions, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
- Full Marks : +4 if All correct options are chosen and no incorrect option is chosen.
- Partial Marks : +1 for EACH correct option provided no incorrect option is marked.
- zero Marks : 0 if none of the option(s) is marked.
- negative Marks : -2 if ONE or MORE incorrect option(s) is/are chosen.
(iv) For Example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, marked all these
three will result in +4 marks ; marked only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks and marked
(A) and (B) will result in –2 marks, as a wrong options is also marked.

PHYSICS
NOTE: There are 18 questions in this part.
(A) Multiple Correct Option : 06 × 4 = 24 (4R - 2W) + 1P
(B) Match the Column : 04 × 3 = 12 (3R - 1W)
(C) Numerical Value Type : 08 × 3 = 24 (3R - 0W)

PART : A (06 × 4 = 24 Marks) (4R – 2W)

CHOOSE THE ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS:

Q.1) If a liquid rises to the same height in two capillaries of the same material at the same
temperature
(A) the weight of liquid in both capillaires must be equal
(B) the radius of meniscus must be equal
(C) the capillaires must be cylindrical and vertical
(D) the hydrostatic pressure at the base of capillaires must be same

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 1

Q.2) A small charged bead can slide on a circular frictionless, insulating wire frame. A point like
dipole is fixed at the centre of circle, dipole moment is p . Initially the bead is on the plane of

symmetry of the dipole. Bead is released from rest. Ignore the effect of gravity. Mark the
correct option

r
Charged bead
p mass m
charge Q

Dipole
Qpcos
(A) Magnitude of velocity of bead as function of its angular position is
2 0 mr 2

(B) Normal force exerted by the string on bead is zero at all points
(C) If the wire frame were not present bead executes circular motion and returns to initial
point after tracing a complete circle.
(D) Bead would move along a circular path until it reached the opposite its starting position
and then executes periodic motion
Q.3) A point charge q 6 C is moving in a straight line with a velocity v 5 104 i (m/s). When

charge is at the location P (3m, 4m, 0) choose the correct statements about the electric &
magnetic field produced by the charge at the origin.
10
(A) Magnitude of magnetic field is 9.6 10 T
(B) Magnitude field is in –z direction
(C) Electric field is varying with time
(D) Magnitude field is decreasing (with time) in magnitude
Q.4) Two cars X and Y are moving with speed 15 m/s and 11 m/s respectively in opposite
directions approaching each other from far. The driver in car X blows a horn which has
components of frequencies ranging from 650 Hz to 800 Hz. The band width of frequencies
is thus 150 Hz, speed of sound is 340 m/s. The correct statement (s) for observer in car Y
is :-
(A) the bandwidth of frequencies is 150 Hz
(B) The bandwidth of frequencies is 162 Hz
(C) Speed of sound of horn is 351 m/s
(D) Speed of sound of horn is 329 m/s

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 2

Q.5) Two beads of mass m are positioned at the top of a frictionless hoop of mass M and radius
R, which stands vertically on ground. The beads are now given tiny kicks, and they slide
down the hoop, one to the right and one to the left, as shown in figure. Then choose the
correct options

m m

(A) The contact force from the ground immediately after the tiny kicks on the hoop is
(M + 2m)g
(B) The contact force from the ground on the hoop is (M + 2m)g at the instant when radius
vector makes an angle of cos 1(2/3) with the upward vertical.
m
(C) The smallest value of for which the hoop will rise off the ground at some time during
M
3
the motion is .
2
(D) The hoop will never rise off the ground irrespective of the values of m and M.
3
Q.6) Figure shows a two branched parallel circuit with RA 10 , L H, RB 20
10
3
C mF . Current in L RA is I1 and in C RB is I2 and main current is I
2
I1 R A XL

XC
I2 RB

~
I
200 2 sin(100t)V
(A) Phase difference between I1 and I2 is 90°
(B) At some instant current in L RA is 10A . At the same instant current in C RB branch

will be 5 3A
(C) At some instant I1 is 10 2 A then at this instant I will be 10 2A

(D) Power dissipated in the circuit is 2121.3 W

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 3

 PART : B (4 × 3 = 12 Marks) (3R – 1W)

MATCH THE COLUMNS : (CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION )

Q.7) The arrangement is kept in a vertical plane and all masses are released from rest with
strings taut. In Column-I different values of masses are given. Match with corresponding
parameters in Column-II. Symbols have their meanings. Pulleys and strings are ideal.

T2
T1 m4
m2
m3
m1 T3

Column-I Column-II
m1 m2 m3 m4

(a) 2m m 3m 4m (p) a1 a3

(b) m 2m 4m 3m (q) T1 T2

(c) m 2m 3m 4m (r) T2 T1

(d) 4m 3m 2m M (s) a1 a3

(t) T3 0

(A) (a) p, r; (b) r, s; (c) s, t; (d) p, t (B) (a) p, r; (b) r,s, t; (c) r, s, t; (d) t
(C) (a) r, s; (b) r, s; (c) p, t,t; (d) q, r, s (D) (a) r, s; (b) q,s,t; (c) p, r; (d) s

Q.8) Two light rods of length 1 m each are hinged together as shown in figure. Rod AB makes
and angle with vertical while rod BC makes an angle with horizontal. End C of rod BC

remains in contact with horizontal. Rod AB is rotated with constant angular velocity
1 rad/s in clockwise direction. At the instant when 30 and 30 match the

variables in Column-I with values in Column-II

A

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 4

 Column-I Column-II
(a) Angular velocity of rod BC in rad/s (p) (3 3 1)
3 3

(b) Velocity of block D in m/s (q) ( 3 1)

6

Magnitude of angular acceleration of rod BC in rad/s2 1

(c) (r)
3

(d) Acceleration of point B in m/s2 (s) 1

(A) (a) s; (b) p; (c) q; (d) r (B) (a) p; (b) s; (c) r; (d) q
(C) (a) r; (b) r; (c) p; (d) s (D) (a) r; (b) q ; (c) s; (d) p

Q.9) Consider a system of five large conducting plates of area A. The charge on plate 1, 2, 3, 4,
5 are given as Q, 2Q, 3Q, 4Q and 5Q respectively. Initially the two switches are opened.
Area of each plate is A. The distance between every successive plate is very small equal to
d.

Column-I Column-II
(a) The charge on surface b is (p) 9 Qd
2 A 0

(b) The potential difference between plate 2 and 3 (q) 0.6 Q

(V2 V3 ) is

Now both the switches S1 and S2 are closed

simultaneously. Now Consider a new steady state.
(c) The charge on surface b is (r) 1.3 Q

(d) The charge on surface f is (s) None of these

(A) (a) s; (b) r; (c) p; (d) s (B) (a) q ; (b) s; (c) r ; (d) q
(C) (a) s ; (b) p ; (c) r ; (d) s (D) (a) s; (b) p; (c) r; (d) q

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 5

Q.10) Phase space diagrams are useful tools in analysing all kinds of dynamical problems. They
are especially useful in studying the changes in motion as initial position and momentum
are changed. Here we consider some simple dynamical systems for which phase space is a
plane in which position is plotted along horizontal axis and momentum is plotted along
vertical axis. The phase space diagram is x (t) vs. p(t) curve in this plane. The arrow on the
curve indicates the time flow. For example, the phase space diagram for a particle moving
with constant velocity is a straight line as shown in the figure. Similarly we may also plot
momentum of a pendulum versus (with sign convention shown in figure (b)).
Momentum

Position

Figure (a)
Figure (b) shows phase diagram of motion of simple pendulum (momentum P versus
angle ). Choose potential energy level at the lowest point of the pendulum. E represents
total energy of simple pendulum. Pendulum has a point mass connected with light rod.

Figure (b)
Column-I Column-II
(a) Phase diagram a (p) E 2 mg
(b) Phase diagram b (q) E 2 mg
(c) Phase diagram c (r) May perform periodic and oscillatory motion
(d) Phase diagram d (s) May represent SHM
(t) May represent angular velocity versus for
a pendulum bob
(A) (a) p, r, s, t ; (b) p, r, s, t ; (c) q, t ; (d) q, t
(B) (a) p, s, t; (b) p, r,s, t; (c) p, t ; (d) p, t
(C) (a) s, t; (b) p, r,s, t; (c) p,s,t ; (d) q, t
(D) (a) q, s, t; (b) r,s, t; (c) r,s ; (d) p, r, t

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 6

 PART : C (8 × 3 = 24 Marks) (3R – 0W)
NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS:
Q.11) In YDSE experiment two thin transparent sheets are used in front of the slits S1 and S2 ,
one of the thin sheet has refractive index 1 1.6 and other has 2 1.4 . If both sheets
t1 t 2
have average thickness the central maxima is at 5 mm from center O. Now the
2

sheets are replaced by two sheets of same 2

material of refractive index
but 1
2
having thickness t1 and t 2 now central maxima is observed at a distance of 8mm from
t1
center O. For t1 t 2 find the ratio . (in nearest integer) Given d 1mm, D 1m
t2
Q.12) Two solid spheres of same metal but of mass M and 8 M fall simultaneously on a viscous
liquid and their terminal velocities are v and nv, then find the value of n.
2
Q.13) A highly conducting cylinder that has cross-sectional area of 100 cm and 50 cm deep is
filled with air at 21°C and 1.00 atm figure (a). A 20 kg piston is now lowered into the
cylinder, compressing the air trapped inside figure (b). Finally a 80 kg man stands on the
piston, further compressing the air, which remains at 21°C figure (c). What temperature T
(in °C) (in nearest integer) should the gas be maintained to raise the piston and the man
back to hi . Take g 10 m /s2

Q.14) An object of mass m 8 kg rests on an inclined plane that makes angle 45 with the
horizontal floor. What minimum force (in N), parallel to the base of the incline must be
applied to the object in order to begin to move it along the plane parallel to the floor as
shown? The coefficient of static friction between the object and the plane is s 1.25. (Take
g 10 m / s2 )

Q.15) A 3.5 V mobile phone battery can produce 1A of current for 1 hour. This can be charged
using a square solar panel 25 cm on each side. Assuming an efficiency of 10% and an
incident solar power of 1kWm–2. If t (minutes) is the time needed to charge the battery. Find
the value of 5t.

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 7

Q.16) A parallel plate condenser, with plate area A and distance between plates d, is filled with a
medium whose permittivity varies as ;
d
(x) 0 0 x/d 0 x
2
(d x) d
(x) 0 0 x d.
d 2
x is the distance from one of the plates. For what value of would the capacity of the
1
condenser be times that when it is completely filled with a uniform dielectric having
2 n2
dielectric constant ?
Q.17) Section of a refracting surface is shown in figure. The section is symmetrical about x axis.
Refractive index of medium on right of the surface is n with respect to the medium on left of
the surface. Parallel monochromatic light rays are incident on the surface as shown in figure
and the refracted rays are focused at F at a distance f from origin O of the co-ordinate
system shown in figure. The equation y(x) of shape of the section shown in found to be
(n2 1)x2 n2 y2 Bn(n 1) fx 0 Find B.

Q.18) In the determination of Young‟s modulus by using Searle‟s method, a wire of length L 2m
and diameter d 0.5 mm is used. For a load M 2.5 kg , an extension 0.25 mm in the
length of the wire is observed. Quantities d and are measured using a screw gauge and a
micrometer, respectively. They have the same pitch of 0.5 mm. The number of divisions on
their circular scale is 100. The length of wire, acceleration due to gravity and mass M are
known exactly. The percentage error in measurement of the Young‟s modulus is_________


CHEMISTRY
NOTE: There are 18 questions in this part.
(A) Multiple Correct Option : 06 × 4 = 24 (4R - 2W) + 1P
(B) Match the Column : 04 × 3 = 12 (3R - 1W)
(C) Numerical Value Type : 08 × 3 = 24 (3R - 0W)

PART : A (06 × 4 = 24 Marks) (4R – 2W)

CHOOSE THE ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS:
Q.19) Correct statement:
(A) Starch is the plant storage of carbohydrate
(B) Natural rubber is the trans-polymer.
(C) Nylon show positive Lassigne test with Na metal
(D) Bakelite is phenol-acetaldehyde resin.

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 8

Q.20) Consider the following values of I.E. (eV) for elements W and X:
Element I.E.1 I.E.2 I.E.3 I.E.4

W 10.5 15.5 24.9 79.8

X 8 14.8 78.9 105.8

Other two element Y and Z have outer electronic configuration ns2np4 and ns2np5
respectively. Then according to given information which of the following compound(s) is/are
not possible.
(A) W2 Y3 (B) X2 Y3 (C) WZ2 (D) XZ2
Q.21) (I) Na O2 major product
excess

(II) K O2 ?
excess

(III) O2 PtF6 red compound prepared by Neil bartlett.

Select correct for above reactions
(A) Electron population in p* molecular orbitals of O2 is increase in (I) and (II)
(B) Electron population in p* molecular orbitals of O2 is decreases in (III)
(C) bond order of O O bond is lowest in product of IIIrd reaction
(D) Fractional O O bond order is observed in product of Ist reaction.
Q.22) Which of the following polymer is/are Biodegrabable?
(A) ( CH2 C CH CH2 ) n
|
Cl
CN
|
(B) (CH2 CH CH CH2 CH2 C H) n
(C) (O CH CH2 C O CH CH2 C) n
| || | ||
CH3 O CH2CH3 O
H H O O
| | || ||
(D) (N (CH2 ) 6 N C (CH2 ) 4 C) n
Q.23) Select correct statement (s)
(A) Plaster of paris is a hemihydrate of CaSO4 obtained by heating the gypsum around
300K.
(B) Sodium carbonate is used in hard-water softening.
(C) Sodium peroxide reacts with cold water giving hydrogen peroxide
(D) The mobilities of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solutions are
Li Na K Rb Cs

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 9

Q.24) In a hypothetical solid “C” atoms forming cubical closed packed lattice. “A” atoms occupy all
tetrahedral void and “B” atoms occupy all octahedral voids. There is no distortion in ccp
lattice. Fraction of body diagonal not covered up by atoms is : :
(A) 0.76 (B) 0.24 (C) 0.68 (D) 0.12

PART : B (04 × 3 = 12 Marks) (3R – 1W)

MATCH THE COLUMN : (CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION )

Q.25)
Column-I Column-II
(a) O (p) Disproportionation reaction with OH
||
CH3 C H
(b) O (q) Condensation reaction with OH
||
H C H
(c) O (r) Silver mirror test
||
CH3 C CH3
(d) O (s) Haloform test
||
C H

(A) (a) p,r; (b) q,s; (c) p,r; (d) q,r

(B) (a) q,r,s; (b) p,s; (c) q,r; (d) p,r
(C) (a) r,s; (b) q,s; (c) p,q,r; (d) p,q,r
(D) (a) p,q,r; (b) q,r; (c) r,s; (d) q,r

Q.26) MATCH THE COLUMN:

Column-I Column-II
(a) Fe n (p) (For n 0) , forms white ppt with dil. HCl.
(b) Cun (q) (For n 2 ), forms coloured ppt with excess of NaOH solution.
(c) Hgn (r) (For n 0) , N2O gas will be released with dil. HNO3 .
(d) Pbn (s) (For n 2 ), Forms soluble complex with excess of NH3 solution.
(t) (For n 2 ) forms black ppt on passing H2S gas in its aqueous
(A) (a) q,r ; (b) q, s, t ; (c) q, t ; (d) p, t
(B) (a) p,q,r ; (b) r, t ; (c) p, q, t ; (d) q, s, t
(C) (a) p, s ; (b) q, s ; (c) r,t ; (d) p, r
(D) (a) q, s,t ; (b) q, r,t ; (c) p,t ;(d) p, s,t

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 10

Q.27) Complete the following reactions identify the major products and apply a chemical test to
distinguish between following pairs:
Column-I (Pairs) Column-II (Chemical
Test)
(a) J and M (p) Na-metal
(b) J and K (q) NaOI
(c) K and M (r) 2, 4-DNP
(d) L and M (s) NaHSO3

Reactions are as follows

(i) CO2
J
(ii) NH4Cl
(i) CH3CN
K
(ii) H3O
CH3MgBr
CH3OH / H
L
(i) CH2O
M
(ii) H3O

(A) (a) r;(b) q;(c) p;(d) s (B) (a) q; (b) r; (c) s; (d) p
(C) (a) q; (b) p; (c) r; (d) s (D) (a) p; (b) q; (c) s; (d) r

Q.28) MATCH THE COLUMN:

Column-I Column-II
(a) NH2 (p) Carbonion is intermediate
CHCl3
KOH/

(b) O (q) Carbene is intermediate

H ||
KOBr
C NH2
D
(c) O H (r) Product containing N-atom

(i) CHCl3 /NaOH

(ii) H

(d) H3C OH (s) Cyanide or isocyanide is product

H2SO4
C N
H
(A) (a) p,r,s;(b) r,s;(c) q,r;(d) q,r,s
(B) (a) p,q,r,s; (b) r; (c) p, q; (d) r,s
(C) (a) q; (b) p,r,s; (c) q,r;(d) p,q
(D) (a) r,s;(b) r,s;(c) q,r;(d) q,r

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 11

 PART : C (8 × 3 = 24 Marks) (3R – 0W)

NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS:

(Answer Should Be Nearest Integer)
Q.29) Find total number of species in which incoming electron enters into H.O.M.O.
H2, Li2, B2, C2, N2, O2, F2, Na 2, S2, Cl2
Q.30) 40 ml of 0.05 M solution of sodium sesquicarbonate (Na2CO3.NaHCO3.2H2O) is titrated
against 0.05 M HCl. “X” ml of HCl is used when phenolphthalein is the indicator and “Y” , ml
of HCl is used when methyl orange is the indicator in two separate titrations. Hence, value
(Y X)
of is
10
600
Q.31) Following reaction takes place at K temperature.
2.303 0.8314
H2 (g) 2Ag (aq) 2Ag (s) 2H (aq)
PH2 1.0 bar, [Ag ] 10 6 M, [H ] 10 3 M, fG (Ag ,aq) 75kJ mol 1

r G (in kJ)
Calculate z. where z
19
Q.32) Select the number of ores for which roasting process is applied during metallurgy.
Argentite, Copper pyrites, Galena, Zinc blende, Chalcocite
X
Q.33) In the saturated aqueous solution of PbCl2 the freezing point decreases by C then
100
„X‟ is: (Given k sp of PbCl2 4 10 6 , K f,water 2k kg / mole )
Q.34) Total number of compounds which are soluble in a hot aqueous NaOH are:
(i) Salicyclic acid (ii) Aspirine (iii) Formic acid
(iv) Acetic acid (v) Succinic anhydride (vi) Cyclohexanone
(vii) Benzene sulphonamide (viii) Cyclohexene
Q.35) In how many compounds intermolecular H-bonding will exist.
OH OH OH
(i) CHO (ii) Cl (iii) CN

O
SH || O H
H C
(iv) C (vi)
(v) O O
|| ||
OH
C C O
C
H
||
CH3 O
Q.36) A sample of H-atoms containing all the atoms in a particular excited state, absorb radiations
of a particular wave length by which the atoms get excited to another excited state. When
the atoms finally de-excite to the ground state, they emit radiations of 15 different
wavelength. Out of these 15 radiations, 5 have wavelengths shorter than the absorbed
radiation and 9 have wavelength longer than the absorbed radiation. What is the initial
excited state of atoms?


JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 12

 MATHEMATICS
NOTE: There are 18 questions in this part.
(A) Multiple Correct Option : 06 × 4 = 24 (4R - 2W) + 1P
(B) Match the Column : 04 × 3 = 12 (3R - 1W)
(C) Numerical Value Type : 08 × 3 = 24 (3R - 0W)

PART : A (06 × 4 = 24 Marks) (4R – 2W)

CHOOSE THE ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTIONS:
7
max{f (t ),1 t x }, if1 x
2 . Which is
Q.37) Let f (x) 2x 3 15x 2 36x 23 and g ( x )
7
12 2 x, if x 6
2
correct about g ( x )

(A) Continuous everywhere (B) Differentiable everywhere

(C) has greatest value 5 (D) None of these
Q.38) For distinct complex numbers z1, z2,...., zn ,(n 2) the value of
2 2 2
z2 z1 z3 z2 ..... zn zn 1
2
can not be less than
zn z1
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
n 1 n n 1 n 2
Q.39) Equation(s) of possible common tangents to y 2 8( x 3) and x 2 8( y 3) is/are :
(A) x 1 y (B) 2x y 5 (C) x 2y 5 0 (D) None of these
x y z 1
Q.40) If the line intersects line 3 2 x 3(1 2 )y z 3 (6 2 x 3(1 2 )y 2z )
1 2 3 2
then point ( , , 1) lies on the plane
(A) 2x y z 4 (B) x y z 2 (C) x 2y 0 (D) 2x y 0

x2 x2
Q.41) Let e dx a and In x ne dx, n N , then
0 0
n 1 (n 1)!
(A) In In 2 a , if n is even (B) In
2 n 1 n 2
2 !
2
1 n 2 (n 1)!
(C) In ! a, if n is even (D) In , if n is even
2 2 n 1 n 2
2 !
2
C
Q.42) In ABC (with usual notation), if cos A cos B 4 sin2 , then which of the following hold (s)
2
good?
A B A B
(A) cot cot 2 (B) cot cot 3
2 2 2 2
(C) a, c, b are in A.P. (D) a, b, c are in G.P.

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 13

 PART : B (4 × 3 = 12 Marks) (3R – 1W)
MATCH THE COLUMN : (CHOOSE THE SINGLE CORRECT OPTION )
Q.43) Match the following Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(a) If A [a ] and a i 2 2
j , then A is (p) Singular
ij 3 3 ij
(b) A [aij ]3 and aij 3i j , then A is (q) Skew-symmetric
3
(c) A [aij ]3 and aij i2 j 2 , then A is (r) symmetric
3
(d) 2 2 4 (s) idempotent
A 1 3 4 , then A is
1 2 3
(A) (a) r; (b) p; (c) p; (d) q (B) (a) r; (b) q; (c) p; (d) p
(C) (a) p; (b) q; (c) r; (d) s (D) (a) r; (b) p; (c) q; (d) p
Q.44) Column-I with Column-II (where [.] denotes GIF and {.} denotes fractional part function)
Column-I Column-II
(a) | x 2| (p) 0
[loge x ], 1 x 3 {2}
For f ( x ) x 2
7
{ x 2 }, 3 x
2
Number of points of discontinuity is
(b) 1 (q) 5
1 x
For f ( x ) 2 sin e if x 0 number of points of
x
0 if x 0
extremum is
(c) Number of points where f ( x ) max {| 3 x 2 |, 3 x 3 } is (r) 2
not differentiable
(d) 1 (s) 1
2 lim x 2 1 2 3 .... , where [x] represents GIF
x 0 |x|
(A) (a) q; (b) p; (c) s; (d) r (B) (a) q; (b) r; (c) p; (d) s
(C) (a) q; (b) s; (c) r; (d) s (D) (a) p; (b) q; (c) r; (d) s
Q.45) Match the following :
Column-I Column-II
(a) 1 1
If sin |cos x | cos |sin x | a has atleast one (p) {0}
solution , then the exhaustive set in which „a‟ can lie
(b) (q) 3
If equation sin 1 x cos 1 x 2 1 tan 1 tan y a ,
has atleast one solution, then the exhaustive set 2 2
in which „a‟ can lie
(c) (r)
If |sin 1 |sin x || |tan 1 |tan x || 2 a has 0,
atleast one solution, then the exhaustive set in 2
which „a‟ can lie
(d) (s)
sin 1( x 2 y 2 ) tan 1 4y 2 1 sec 1 x a, then
the exhaustive set in which „a‟ can lie
(A) (a) p; (b) q; (c) s; (d) r (B) (a) p; (b) s; (c) r; (d) q
(C) (a) q; (b) p; (c) s; (d) r (D) (a) p; (b) q; (c) r; (d) s

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 14

Q.46) Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(a) Vertices of a triangle are (1, 2) (3, 4) & (2, 4) (p) 7
(b) Equation of sides of a triangle are x y 3 , (q) Triangle is
3x 5y 7 0 and x 3y 1 0 obtuse angled
(c) Orthocenter and circumcenter are on different half (r) (1, 1) lies inside
plane w.r.t larger side the triangle
(d) Equations of sides of a triangle are, (s) Centroid lies on
3x 4y 13 0,8x 11y 33 0 & 2x 3y 0 3y = 2
(A) (a) q; (b) r; (c) q; (d) s
(B) (a) q,s; (b) q,r; (c) q; (d) p,s
(C) (a) q, s; (b) q, r, s; (c) q; (d) p, q
(D) (a) q , s; (b) s; (c) q; (d) p, q, s

PART : C (08 × 3 = 24 Marks) (3R – 0W)

NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE QUESTIONS:
Q.47) The value of the expression n 1C2 2(2C2 3 C2 4 C2 ...... n C2 ), for n 6 is
Q.48) A sequence is obtained by deleting all perfect squares from set of natural number. The
remainder when the 2003rd term of new sequence is divided by 2048, is?
2
d 2f ( x ) df ( x )
Q.49) Let 2(f ( x ))2 f (x) 0 and f (0) f (1) 1. Area of region bounded by
dx 2 dx
e1/ a 1
y 0, x 0, x 1 and y , then „a‟ is?
(2x 1)f ( x ) is 2
e1/ a
Q.50) Two boys A and B find the jumble of n ropes lying on the floor. Each takes hold of one loose
1
end randomly. If the probability that they are both holding the same rope is then the
101
number of ropes is equal to?
Q.51) A circle of radius r 4 units is inscribed in an equilateral triangle ABC, then an equilateral
triangle is inscribed in the circle, a circle again is inscribed in the later triangle and so on. In
this way the process continues infinitely. If r, x1, x2,....., xn ,.... be the radii of these circle
respectively, then the sum of radii of all the circles x1 x2 x3 ..... is equals to
Q.52) A trapezium is inscribed in the parabola y 2 4 x such that its diagonals pass through the
25
focus and are of length units. If area of this trapezium is A, then 4A is?
4
Q.53) If , are the roots of the quadratic equation, x 2 2p( x 4) 15 0 , then the greatest
integer p for which one root is less than 1 and the other root is greater than 2 is?
Q.54) Let A, B, C be vectors of length 3, 4, 5 respectively. Let A be perpendicular to B C, B is
perpendicular to C A and C is perpendicular to A B and if the length of vector A B C
is k 2 then find the value of k


JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 15

 FINAL TEST SERIES
Subject: PCM Topic: JEE-24-FTSA-1-Paper II (Full Course) Batch : JEE-24, 3Yr24
Time Allowed: 3 Hrs. Test No: 1–PII
Date of Test: 05/03/2024 Maximum Marks: 180

Provisional Answer Key

Physics Chemistry Maths
1. ABD 19. AC 37. AC
2. ABD 20. BC 38. ABCD
3. ABCD 21. AB 39. ABC
4. BC 22. C 40. ABC
5. AC 23. BC 41. AB
6. AB 24. B 42. BC
7. B 25. B 43. D
8. C 26. A 44. C
9. C 27. B 45. D
10. A 28. B 46. C
11. 2 29. 3 47. 91
12. 4 30. 8 48. 0
13. 217 31. 6 49. 4
14. 15 32. 4 50. 51
15. 168 33. 6 51. 4
16. 2 34. 6 52. 75
17. 2 35. 5 53. 2
18. 4 36. 1 54. 5

JEE 24, 3Yr24-FTSA-1-Paper II 1