Professional Documents
Culture Documents
MCQ Pharmacy
MCQ Pharmacy
27- Otitis media is an ear infection normally caused by S. pneumoniae and may be best treated by:
a) Amoxicillin
b) Penicillin V
c) Ampicillin
d) Amoxicillin clavulanate
e) Oxacillin
28- First line treatment for UTI-Urinary Tract Infection may include:
a) Sulfametoxazole + Trimetoprim
b) Amoxicillin clavulanate
c) Penicillin procaine
d) Erythromycin
e) All are very effective in treating UTI
29- Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy?
a) Penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin and metronidazole
b) Clarithromycin, amoxicillin, omeprazole and metronidazole
c) Clarithromycin, azithromycin and lansoprazole
d) Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only
e) Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.
30- Treatment of large intestine infection mainly caused by food intoxication may include:
I- Lots of fluids
II- Ciprofloxacin
III- Metronidazole
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
31- Colitis associated with antibiotic use can best be treated by:
a) Cephalosporins
b) Macrolides
c) Aminoglycosides
d) Vancomycin
e) Penicillin
32- Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include:
I- Broad-spectrum penicillins
II- Cephalosporins
III- Clindamycin
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
33- Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a
person infected with Plasmodium vivax is:
a) Quinine
b) Pyrimethamine
c) Sulfadoxine
d) Primaquine
e) Quinidine
34- Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria. Which of the following drugs or combination should be
more appropriate for this patient?
a) Atovaquone only
b) Chloroquine and primaquine
c) Quinine and doxacycline
d) Mefloquine
e) C and D are correct
35- Correct statements regarding antibiotics may include:
a) Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill or inhibit bacterial growth
b) Drugs derivated from natural source that can kill or inhibit bacteria growth
c) Drug with ability only to kill bacteria
d) Drug with ability only to inhibit bacterial growth
e) All are wrong regarding antibiotics
36- Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill bacteria is normally called:
a) Bacteriostatic antibiotic
b) Bactericidal antibiotic
c) Bactericidal antimicrobial
d) Bacteriostatic antimicrobial
e) Bacteriostatic bactericidal antimicrobial
37- Antiviral drugs act in many different ways, they can be classified in:
a) RNA inhibitors only
b) DNA inhibitors only
c) RNA and DNA inhibitors
d) Protease inhibitors
e) All are correct
38- Examples of very narrow spectrum penicillins include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) Amoxicillin
b) Nafcillin
c) Methicillin
d) Oxacillin
e) All are very narrow spectrum penicillins
39- Examples of extended spectrum penicillin may include:
a) Amoxicillin
b) Ampicillin
c) Cloxacillin
d) Carbenicillin
e) Dicloxacillin
40- Resistance is the major problem with penicillins due to ability of bacteria to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates
the drug. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with -lactamase inhibitors.
Examples of -lactamase inhibitors is/are:
I- Clavulanic acid
II- Sulbactam
III- Tazobactam
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
41- Correct statements regarding CEPHALOSPORINS include:
I- Bactericidal antimicrobial
II- Derivated from natural source: Cephalosporium acremonium
III- Broad-spectrum agent
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
42- Example of fourth generation cephalosporin includes:
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Cefipime
c) Cefixime
d) Cefotaxime
e) Cefoxitin
43- Correct statement regarding the mechanism of action of Vancomycin may include:
a) Inhibit release of tRNA bound to peptyl site after peptide bond formation
b) Inhibit peptide bound formation between acylaminoacids bound to the peptyl and acceptor site
c) Inhibit stage II of cell wall synthesis preventing polymerization of the linear peptideoglycan
d) Inhibit DNA gyrase in the bacteria
e) Bind to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular *******s
44- Which of the following is one of the most common side effects of vancomycin?
a) Ototoxicity
b) Disulfiram like side effect
c) Diarrhea
d) Weight gain
e) Hallucinations
45- All of the following are narrow spectrum protein synthesis inhibitors, EXCEPT:
a) Erythromycin
b) Azithromycin
c) Clarithromycin
d) Tetracycline
e) Clindamycin
46- Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tetracycline?
a) Alteration in gut flora
b) Disulfiram like reactions
c) Teeth permanent discoloration
d) Fanconi like syndrome
e) Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
47- Which of the following agents can be classified as macrolide antibiotics?
I- Azithromycin
II- Clarithromycin
III- Erythromycin
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
48- Wrong statement regarding MACROLIDES ANTIBIOTICS include:
a) Used in both gram-positive and gram-negative infections
b) Used as an alternative to penicillin when patient has allergy to penicillins
c) Inhibit cell wall synthesis of microorganisms
d) Increase gastric motility causing cramps and diarrhea as major side effect
e) Very safe for children
49- All of the following are examples of aminoglycosides drugs, EXCEPT:
a) Nystatin
b) Gentamicin
c) Amikacin
d) Streptomycin
e) Garamycin
50- Which of the following is an anti-infective agent with lowest therapeutic index?
a) Macrolide
b) Cephalosporins
c) Cloramphenicol
d) Aminoglycosides
e) Antifungal agents
51- Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of:
a) PABA
b) Folic acid
c) Vitamin K
d) Cyanide
e) Nalidixic acid
52- Which of the following best classify metronidazole?
a) Antiprotozoa
b) Antibiotic
c) Antifungal
d) Antiviral
e) Antimicrobial
53- Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include:
I- Isoniazid
II- Rifampin
III- Ethambutol
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
54- Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include:
a) Niclosamide
b) Prazinquatel
c) Mebendazole
d) Dapsone
e) Thiabendazole
65- Which of the following is an antiviral drug used in the treatment of AIDS-HIV?
I- Acyclovir
II- Zidovudine
III- Stavudine
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
66- Bacterial resistance to an antibiotic may occurs due to:
I- Mutation
II- Adaptation
III- Gene transfer
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
67- The effectiveness of VANCOMYCIN is seen ONLY in:
a) Virus
b) Gram-negative bacterias
c) Gram-positive bacterias
d) Both gram-positive and negative bacterias
e) Plasmodium
68- Protein synthesis inhibitors may bind to:
a) 30s ribosomal subunit only
b) 50s ribosomal subunit only
c) 70s ribosomal subunit only
d) 30s and 50s and 70s ribosomal subunits
e) 30s and 70s ribosomal subunits
69- Broad-spectrum antibiotic that may cause severe impairment of bone marrow include which of the following agents?
a) Tetracycline
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Vancomycin
d) Cloramphenicol
e) Clindamycin
70- Which of the following agent is classified as lincosamide antibiotic?
a) Tetracycline
b) Aminoglycosides
c) Vancomycin
d) Cloramphenicol
e) Clindamycin
ANSWERS
1- B
2- E
15- A
16- B
29- B
30- E
43- C
44- A
57- E
58- C
3- E
17- C
31- D
45- D
59- C
4- B
18- E
32- E
46- B
60- B
5- C
19- D
33- D
47- E
61- D
6- A
20- E
34- E
48- C
62- C
7- D
21- E
35- B
49- A
63- B
BIOCHEMISTRY
1-Glycine reaction is normally mediated by:
a) Acetyl Coenzyme A
b) UDP Glucoronyl tranferase
c) PAPS- Phosphoadenosine-5-Phosphosulfate
d) Sulfotranferase
e) GST-Glutathione S-Transferase
2- Abundant element in the interstitial fluid may include:
a) Potassium
b) Sodium
c) Magnesium
d) Calcium
e) Chloro
8- B
22- E
36- C
50- D
64- B
9- B
23- A
37- E
51- E
65- D
10- E
24- C
38- A
52- A
66- E
11- B
25- E
39- D
53- E
67- C
12- C
26- B
40- E
54- B
68- D
13- E
27- D
41- D
55- D
69- D
14- D
28- A
42- B
56- C
70- E
51- Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism?
a) Maltase
b) Sucrose
c) Glucose
d) Cellulose
e) Frutose
52- Heparin synthesized in the body and can be classified as:
a) Monosaccharideo
b) Polysaccharide
c) Disaccharide
d) Oligosaccharide
e) Amino acid
53- Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide:
a) Glucose + frutose
b) Glucose + glucose
c) Glucose + galactose
d) Frutose + frutose
e) Galactose + galactose
54- Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of one group to other group is called:
a) Oxidoreductase enzymes
b) Transferase enzymes
c) Hydrolyses enzymes
d) Isomerasis enzymes
e) Lyasis enzymes
55- Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by:
I- Consume of energy
II- Release stored energy from carbohydrates
III-Glycogenolysis is an example of carbohydrates catabolism reaction
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
56- The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Krebs cycle metabolites is an anabolic process
called:
a) Glycogenolysis
b) Glycolysis
c) Glycogenesis
d) Gluconeogenesis
e) None of the above
57- GLYCOGENESIS is a process characterized by:
a) The breakdown of glycogen into glucose
b) The transformation of glucose to glycogen
c) The breakdown of sugar into pyruvate
d) The breakdown of sugar into lactate
e) The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources
58- Which of the following reactions is controlled by the pancreatic hormone INSULIN?
a) Glycogenolysis
b) Glycolysis
c) Glycogenesis
d) Gluconeogenesis
e) Anaerobic glycolysis
59- Correct statements regarding RNA messenger may include:
a) Carrier activated aminoacids to the ribosome
b) Specifies aminoacids sequence templant for protein synthesis
c) Enable DNA fragments to be joined
d) Synthesize RNA
e) Carrier the genetic information for all the other cells
60- Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin:
a) Iron
b) Zinc
c) Cobalt
d) Magnesium
e) Calcium
4- C : DNA ligase is an enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined.
5- E : All, RNA transferase, RNA mensager and RNA ribosome are types of RNAs.
6- C : All vitamins B and vitamin C are water-soluble.
7- C : Vitamin A, D, E and K are fat-soluble vitamins.
8- A : Iron is the most abundant metal ion in human body.
9- B : Normal potassium serum in human body range between 3.5 to 5.0mEq/L.
10- C : Normal sodium serum in human body range between 135 to 147mEq/L
11- D : The most essential vitamin for breast-feed babies is vitamin D.
12- A : Insulin is a hormone that acts on cell wall
13- D : Folic acid is a vitamin B9 that has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity based on its pteridine ring.
14- A : Proteins are formed by a reaction between amino acids called condensation between peptid bonds.
15- C : Bradykinin is the strongest endogenous analgesic-pain producer in human body.
16- B : Vitamin A is formed from retinoic acid that is formed from beta-carotene.
17- E : Enzymes are biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions that maintain human life
process, and accelerate reactions by lowering the energy of the transition state.
18- E : Enzymes are proteins or biological catalysts responsible for supporting almost all of the chemical reactions. They are called
catalyst because are never altered during a reaction. Michaelis-Menten theory describes the enzymatic reactions.
19- A: Zwintter ion is a neutral ion with two charges, positive and negative, that reacts neutrally with a substrate.
20- D : Mutation is a permanent transmissible change in the genetic material, usually in a single gene.
21- C : Uracil is only present in RNAs.
22- A : The codon sequence Adenine-Guanine-Cytosine-Uracil is seen in RNAs only. DNAs differ only in the presence of Thiamine
instead of uracil.
23- B : Endoplasmic reticulum is a shaped network present in the cell between nucleus and cell wall.
24- E : The Michaelis-Menten equation-Enzymatic reactions will appears ZERO order when Km approaches Vmax and FIRST order
when the substrate concentration is smaller than Km.
25-B : Vitamin D3 man be classified as hormone
26- A: Vitamin C does not interfere with absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver.
27- B : Glycerol and fatty acids are the end products of hydrolysis of fixed oils.
28- C : Lecithin is a phospholipid
29- C : Addition of competitive inhibitor in an enzymatic reaction does not alter the rate of reaction.
30- D : Pyruvic acid is the end product of anaerobic reactions
31- C : CO2 and H2O are the end products of aerobic reactions.
32- C : Histadiol, cysteine, aspartame and glutamine are examples of non-essential amino acids
33- E : Glycine is not an essential amino acid.
34- B : Urea is the end product of proteins.
35- C: Purine is the end product of uric acid.
36- E: Enzymes of Krebs cycle, enzymes of respiratory pathway as well cytochrome oxidase and enzymes of fatty acid cycle are
present in the mitochondria structure of the cell.
37- D : Glucose is the main carbohydrate present in the human blood.
38- B : Jenus green is a laboratory test that detects the presence of mitochondria in the living cell
39- A: Maltase and cellulose are both carbohydrates not synthesized during human metabolism, however maltase is disaccharide and
cellulose is a polysaccharide carbohydrate.
40- C: -carotene is the precursor of vitamin A. The transformation reaction happens in the liver by oxidation.
41- E : Keratin is a scleroprotein that also can be called albuminoid.
42- B : The metabolic degradation of hemoglobin takes place principally in reticulum Endothelial.
43- E : The degradation of hemoglobin in mammal involve formation of bile pigments, formation of urobilinogen, formation of
biliverdin and non-oxidative cleavage of phorphirin ring
44- A : The non-protein portion of hemoglobin consists of ferrous complex of protophorphirin IX.
45- D : Glycin is a non-essential amino acid and important precursor of hemoglobin.
46- C : ATP-Creatine phosphokinase reaction is the most important enzymatic reaction in muscular contraction.
47- E : Protein derivative products are very sensible and may suffer disnaturation by exposure to air, shaking, increase in temperature
and addition of chemical reagents in.
48- A: DNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for the synthesis of DNA.
49- B : Thiamine is the only pyrimidine base not present in RNA sequence; thiamine is only present in DNAs molecule.
50- C : Potassium is the most predominant intracellular element while sodium is the most predominant extracellular element.
51- D: Maltase and cellulose are both carbohydrates not synthesized during human metabolism, however maltase is disaccharide and
cellulose is a polysaccharide carbohydrate.
52- B: Heparin is a polysaccharide carbohydrate naturally synthesized in the body.
53- A: Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide, glucose and fructose
54- B: Transferase enzymes catalyzes reactions involved in the transfer of one group to other group
55- D : Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by release of energy stored from carbohydrates. Glycogenolysis and
glycolysis are examples of carbohydrates catabolism reaction
56- D : Gluconeogenesis is the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates sources such as lactate and Krebs cycle metabolites is an
anabolic process called.
57- B: Glycogenesis is the transformation of glucose to glycogen. It happens in the liver and skeletal muscle from glucose consumed in
the diet its synthesis is controlled by the pancreatic hormone insulin
58- C : Glycogenesis is an anabolic reaction that transforms glucose to glycogen in the liver and it is controlled by insulin.
59- B: RNA messenger specifies amino acids sequence templant for protein synthesis.
60- C: B12-cyanocobalamin has a cobalt molecule in the center of its structural molecule.
61- A: Beriberi is caused by deficiency of thiamine.
62- B: Folic acid is one of the most important vitamin to be taken by women that is planning to get pregnant, during pregnancy and in
breast-feeding.
63- C : Niacin is derivate from the amino acid tryptophan.
64- B : Folic acid is a vitamin that has its chemical structure similar to PABA structure.
65- A: Cyanocobalamin is not properly absorbed from the gastro intestinal tract therefore it requires an intrinsic factor to be carried
out to ileum in order to suffer absorption from the small intestine
66- C: Vitamin C is the precursor of collagen synthesis.
67- E: Vitamin E is a lipid soluble vitamin stored in adipose tissues and well absorbed from the small intestine. It is widely used in
pharmaceutical formulations as antioxidant agent
68- A: Nucleotides are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids.
69- C: Proteins are formed from amino acids by condensation of peptide bond
Biomedical Sciences
1 Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:
a. pyrimidine ring.
b. purine ring.
c. pyrazine ring.
d. pteridine ring.
e. pyridine ring.
2 Enkephalins are peptides that:
a. have narcotic antagonist activity.
b. exert actions resembling those of opiates.
c. are found only in the central nervous system.
d. cause blood vessel wall relaxation.
e. transmit pain impulses.
3 ?-Carotene is the precursor of:
a. retinol.
b. thiamine.
c. calciferol.
d. riboflavin.
e. retinoic acid.
4 An enzyme is:
a. an oligopeptide.
b. a nucleic acid.
c. unable to hydrolyse polysaccharides.
d. a catalyst.
e. changed chemically in a reaction.
5 Diphtheria is caused by:
a. Plasmodium.
b. Vibrio.
c. Shigella.
d. Neisseria.
e. Corynebacterium.
6 Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver:
a. haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein.
b. mesenteric vein ? portal vein.
c. haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava.
d. mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery.
e. gastric vein ? hepatic vein.
7 The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the:
I jejunum.
II ileum.
III duodenum.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
8 Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of:
a. acetylcholine in the motor cortex.
b. noradrenaline in the spinal motor neurons.
c. gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in inhibitory pathways.
d. dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway.
e. serotonin in the brain stem.
9 In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"?
I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle
II Celiac ganglia
III Circular muscles of the iris
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
10 The blood volume of the average adult is approximately:
a. 5 L.
b. 10 L.
c. 15 L.
d. 20 L.
e. 25 L.
11 Diseases which are viral infections include:
I poliomyelitis.
II rabies.
III Legionnaires' disease.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
12 Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:
I Escherichia coli.
II Haemophilus influenzae.
III Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
13 Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) is:
I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.
II found primarily in interneurons.
III synthesized from glycine.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
14 All of the following statements are true regarding chronic inflammation, EXCEPT:
a. it may develop as a granulomatous inflammation.
b. it may be caused by persistent infections such as tuberculosis.
c. it may occur with autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
d. large numbers of macrophages are found in the infiltrate.
e. lymphocytes and eosinophils are rarely involved in its development.
Pharmaceutical Sciences
15 If the pKa of phenobarbital is 7.4, what approximate fraction of the drug would be ionized at pH 8.4?
a. 10%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 90%
e. 100%
16 All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT:
a. there is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials.
b. the liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature.
c. the solute usually forms an amorphous glass.
d. the eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution.
e. water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation.
17 In cardiovascular physiology, LaPlace's law relates the tension achieved in a blood vessel wall to:
I the length of the vessel.
II the radius of vessel.
III the intraluminal pressure.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
18 Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if the drug:
a. is basic.
b. is protein bound.
c. is acidic but not protein bound.
d. has a small volume of distribution.
e. has a large volume of distribution.
19 Mercapturic acid derivatives in phase II metabolism can result from reactions of:
a. glutathione conjugates.
b. glucuronide conjugates.
c. glycine conjugates.
d. glutamate conjugates.
e. sulfate conjugates.
20 Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the:
a. calcium ion channel.
b. sodium ion channel.
c. potassium ion channel.
d. chloride ion channel.
e. nicotinic ion channel.
21 Atropine is the primary example of an important class of muscarinic antagonists which are esters of tropic acid and which contain:
a. aniline and piperidine rings.
b. aniline and piperazine rings.
c. aniline and pyrrolidine rings.
d. pyrrolidine and piperazine rings.
e. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings.
22 Carbon monoxide binds to:
I hemoglobin.
II myoglobin.
III cytochrome oxidase.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
23 Antioxidants, which mechanistically act as reducing agents, include:
I ascorbic acid.
II sodium bisulfite.
III citric acid.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
24 Diazepam Injection U.S.P
Diazepam 5 mg/ml
Ethanol 10%
Propylene glycol 40%
Benzyl alcohol 1.5%
Water for Injection qs 100%
In the formulation given above, the following ingredient(s) function(s) as a cosolvent(s):
I ethanol.
II propylene glycol.
III benzyl alcohol.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
25 Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfanilamides. They are present in these
structures specifically because of their:
a. sizes and shapes.
b. tautomeric activities.
c. enzymatic activities.
d. electron-donating effects.
e. electron-withdrawing effects.
26 The Michaelis-Menten equation will appear first order:
a. when the substrate concentration is much smaller than Km.
b. when Km is much smaller than the substrate concentration.
c. when Vmax is much smaller than Km.
d. when Vmax is much larger than Km.
e. when Km approaches Vmax.
27 With respect to bio*****alence, the parameter Cmax is:
a. affected by the extent of absorption only.
b. affected by the rate of absorption only.
c. affected by neither rate nor extent of absorption.
d. affected by both rate and extent of absorption.
e. the only significant parameter.
28 Which of the hydroxyls in the compound above is a tertiary alcohol?
a. Hydroxyl 1
b. Hydroxyl 2
c. Hydroxyl 3
d. Hydroxyl 4
e. Hydroxyls 1 and 2
29 The above structures are related to one another as:
a. bioisosteres.
b. enantiomers.
c. homologs.
d. rotamers.
e. positional (structural) isomers.
30 Five subjects given a single IV dose of a drug have the following elimination half-lives: 3, 9, 6, 5 and 4 h (hours). The mean
half-life is:
a. 4.0 h.
b. 5.0 h.
c. 5.4 h.
d. 5.8 h.
e. 6.0 h.
31 Reasons for using coatings on tablets include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. to mask the taste of the drug.
b. to mask the odor of the drug.
c. to improve the appearance of the tablet.
d. to increase the drug's release rate.
e. to protect the drug from stomach acid.
32 Which of the following factors would be important in determining the concentration of drug that would be reached in the
cerebrospinal fluid for treatment of meningitis?
I Oil/water partition coefficient
II Binding to plasma protein
III pKa of the drug
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
33 Which of the following terms indicates a loss of moisture?
a. Deliquescence
b. Efflorescence
c. Hygroscopicity
d. Polymorphism
e. Condensation
34 Physicochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include:
I the partition coefficient of the drug molecule.
II the presence of surfactants in the formulation.
III the type of ointment base.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
35 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding tablet formulation?
a. Diluents are fillers to add bulk to the tablet.
b. Lubricants help the patient to swallow the tablet more easily.
c. Binding agents may be added dry or in solution.
d. Disintegrants draw water into the tablet causing it to burst.
e. Glidants promote the flow of materials during compression.
36 Structure-activity studies of cholinergic drugs indicate that:
I maximum activity is achieved when the quaternary nitrogen is three carbons removed from the ester oxo group.
II structures which display a quasi-ring conformation exhibit muscarinic activity.
III one methyl group of the trimethylammonium group can be replaced by an ethyl group with only slight loss of activity.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
37 Which of the following is an azo dye?
a. Hexachlorophene
b. Nitrofurantoin
c. Methenamine
d. Phenazopyridine
e. Nalidixic acid
38 If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10 mL/min then one may
assume that:
a. the drug is extensively metabolized.
b. greater than normal drug accumulation would occur in patients with
moderate renal failure.
c. entero-hepatic recycling is significant.
d. the drug is not bound to plasma proteins.
e. the drug is concentrated in adipose tissue.
39 Approximately 50% of dicloxacillin is excreted unchanged in the urine. If the normal dosage schedule for dicloxacillin is 125 mg
q6h, a patient with renal function 20% of normal should receive:
a. 25 mg q6h.
b. 31.25 mg q6h.
c. 62.5 mg q6h.
d. 75 mg q6h.
e. 125 mg q12h.
40 Select the drug whose major metabolites have therapeutically significant pharmacological activity:
a. oxazepam.
b. nitrazepam.
c. diazepam.
d. triazolam.
e. clonazepam.
41 The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. Identify the site which would be most
susceptible to hydrolysis.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
42 Biceps muscles are part of:
I the arm.
II the thigh.
III the rib cage.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
61 Dorzolamide:
I has a sulfonylurea structure.
II has carbonic anhydrase inhibitor activity.
III is useful in the treatment of glaucoma.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
62 True statements regarding transcription include which of the following?
I The enzyme responsible for initiating transcription is RNA polymerase.
II The genetic information contained in the nucleotide sequence of mRNA is translated into a protein structure.
III The information carried in the gene sequence is transferred toRNA.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
63 Which of the following agents may cause pulmonary toxicity?
I Amiodarone
II Bleomycin
III Ramipril
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
64 An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor for which both renal elimination and metabolism are important in the
elimination of the drug and its active metabolites is:
a. enalapril.
b. fosinopril.
c. lisinopril.
d. quinapril.
e. ramipril.
65 Which of the following agents is NOT associated with the toxic effect of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
a. Warfarin
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Amoxicillin
d. Phenobarbital
e. Lamotrigine
66 Once daily dosing of aminoglycosides is effective due to:
a. prolonged residence of the antibiotic in the body.
b. post-antimicrobial effect.
c. enhanced tissue accumulation.
d. reduced renal clearance.
e. higher peak-trough differences.
67 The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful
in the identification of compounds of unknown structure is called:
a. atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI).
b. chemical ionization (CI).
c. electron impact (EI) ionization.
d. electrospray ionization (ESI).
e. fast atom bombardment (FAB) ionization.
Pharmacy Practice
68 The ethical principle of veracity requires that:
a. we respect the rights of others to make choices.
b. we act with honesty, without deception.
c. we avoid, remove or prevent harm.
d. we do good to patients.
e. we act with fairness.
69 MT, a pharmacy technician, has worked in a community pharmacy for 5 years. He is well-trained and welcomes new learning
opportunities. His manager, now wanting to delegate a new technical project to him, should:
I discuss suggested steps to accomplish the project.
II negotiate a time schedule for completion of the project.
III provide support and followup as required.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
70 Which of the following antacids has cathartic side-effects?
a. Calcium carbonate
b. Dihydroxyaluminum sodium carbonate
c. Magnesium hydroxide
d. Calcium sulfate
e. Aluminum silicate
71 Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. fluid retention.
b. headache.
c. hypertension.
d. constipation.
e. depression.
72 In deciding what drugs are appropriate for its formulary, the hospital must consider a drug's efficacy, associated workload, and
acquisition cost. Several new antifungal IV drugs (drug A, drug B, drug C, and drug D), all with equal efficacy, have recently become
available. Currently the hospital stocks drug E, which has been available for several years. Data for the medications is as follows:
DrugCost/DayDosing FrequencyTreatment Duration (days)A$2.50QID14B$2.25once daily14C$5.00BID7D$2.25BID7E$2 .25QID7 The
most appropriate choice for the hospital is:
a. Drug A.
b. Drug B.
c. Drug C.
d. Drug D.
e. Drug E.
73 When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of nitrate tolerance, true statements include:
I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate.
II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on
metoprolol.
III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of
nitrate medication.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
74 Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of Rx drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year?
a. Balance sheet
b. Statement of investments
c. Statement of changes in financial position
d. Income statement
e. Statement of equity
75 The Latin abbreviation for "before meals" is:
a. ac.
b. aa.
c. pc.
d. ic.
e. cc.
76 Erythromycin:
I is effective against gram-positive cocci.
II is a macrolide antibiotic.
III can increase gastrointestinal tract motility.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
77 Aerosol OT (AOT) is used in veterinary medicine as a laxative. If 250 g of AOT is dissolved in 1 000 mL of glycerin (density of glycerin
is 1.25 g/mL), the concentration of AOT in the solution is:
a. 12.5% w/w.
b. 16.7% w/w.
c. 20.0% w/w.
d. 23.8% w/w.
e. 25.0% w/w.
78 Water used for reconstitution of an additive for a large volume parenteral should be:
a. sterile water.
b. distilled water.
c. Bacteriostatic Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard).
d. Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard).
e. Sterile Water for Injection (United States Pharmacopeial standard).
79 The style of management in which the owner of a pharmacy emphasizes the development of detailed policies and written
procedures for employees to observe at all times is referred to as:
a. autocratic.
b. bureaucratic.
c. participative.
d. benevolent.
e. consultative
.
80 The shock and airway edema of anaphylaxis are best treated with:
a. salbutamol.
b. diphenhydramine.
c. adrenaline.
d. acetazolamide.
e. aminophylline.
81 Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n):
a. analgesic agent.
b. antipyretic agent.
c. anti-inflammatory agent.
d. agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid.
e. uricosuric agent
.
82 In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, the salicylates:
a. stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement.
b. specifically reverse the cause of the disease.
c. provide only analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects.
d. are effective because they are uricosuric agents.
e. are more effective when given with allopurinol.
83 Prednisone may produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
a. skeletal muscle weakness.
b. hypoglycemia.
c. sodium retention.
d. peptic ulceration.
e. lowered resistance to infection.
84 In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 2 years, the desired clinical outcome (i.e. prevention of a
serious cardiovascular event) with a new drug is achieved in 25% of the study sample. In the patients who receive a placebo, only 15%
obtain the same clinical benefit. The relative risk reduction achieved with the new drug over the study period is:
a. 10%.
b. 15%.
c. 25%.
d. 40%.
e. 50%.
85 In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in
leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45%
experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3
years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:
a. 15.
b. 20.
c. 150.
d. 200.
e. 2000.
86 The pharmacist fills a prescription for sumatriptan 100 mg tablets for a migraine patient. Appropriate information to provide to the
patient includes which of the following?
a. If the sumatriptan does not relieve the headache within four hours, ergotamine may be used.
b. If no relief is achieved in two hours, sumatriptan may be repeated.
c. If headache is relieved but another headache occurs eight hours later, sumatriptan may be used for the 2nd headache.
d. The maximum dosage in any 24 hour period is six tablets.
e. If relief is not achieved, no other medication can be used for 24 hours.
87 Auxiliary labels which should be used on cotrimoxazole suspension include which of the following?
I Shake well before using.
II Take with plenty of fluids.
III Exposure to sunlight may cause adverse reactions.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
88 A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication:
a. in the refrigerator.
b. in a plastic vial with a childproof cap.
c. with the original cotton.
d. in an amber glass bottle with a metal cap.
e. in a warm, dry place.
89 Factors that determine bio*****alence of two brands of a drug include:
I the taste of the preparations.
II the physical appearance of the preparations.
III pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparations.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
90
Rx Timolol 0.25% drops
Mitte: 15 mL
Sig: gtt. i o.d. BID
On the prescription label the instructions to the patient should read:
a. apply one drop into both eyes twice daily.
b. instil one drop into the left eye twice daily.
c. instil one drop into the right eye twice daily.
d. shake well and instil one drop into the left eye twice daily.
e. shake well and instil one drop into the right ear twice daily.
91 Following the ethical principle of nonmaleficence requires that pharmacists:
a. respect the rights of patients to make choices.
b. do good to patients, placing the benefit of the patient above all
else.
c. avoid, remove or prevent harm from people.
d. act with fairness, allowing people access to pharmacy care.
e. act with honesty, without deception.
92 Dopamine is useful in the treatment of cardiogenic shock because it:
I selectively dilates renal and mesenteric vascular beds.
II does not induce peripheral vasoconstriction.
III decreases the force of myocardial contraction.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
93 The following prescription is received in a community pharmacy:
Losec 20 mg
S: Take 1 tab BID
M: 2 weeks
Which of the following is correct labelling for this prescription?
a. Take one tablet twice weekly (28 tablets).
b. Take one tablet twice weekly (4 tablets).
c. Take two tablets twice daily (56 tablets).
d. Take one tablet twice daily (28 tablets).
e. Take one tablet twice daily (14 tablets)
The next section includes an EXAMPLE OF THE CASE SCENARIO FORMAT, in which there are two or more questions in sequence, that
are related to the patient information provided in the (bolded) stem shown at the top of the case.
When choosing your response to questions in the case scenario format, you must base your choice on the patient-specific information
presented in the case.
Questions 94 to 96 inclusive refer to the following:
SM is a 34 year old female, while vacationing in Mexico, began prophylactic treatment for Travellers' Diarrhea. Shortly thereafter she
complained of a feeling of fullness in her ears, black stools and a black tongue. SMs previous history includes an allergy to sulfonamides.
94 Which of the following drugs could be the cause of SM's complaints?
a. Bismuth subsalicylate
b. Cotrimoxazole
c. Doxycycline
d. Amoxicillin
e. Loperamide
95 Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea include:
I Bacteroides fragilis.
II Escherichia coli.
III Shigella sp.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
96 Drugs shown to be effective in the prevention of Travellers' Diarrhea, which might have been prescribed for SM include:
I doxycycline.
II cotrimoxazole.
III amoxicillin.
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III
Answers
1*d
15*d
29*c
43*c
57*b
71*d
85*e
2*b
16*d
30*c
44*d
58*c
72*d
86*c
3*a
17*d
31*d
45*d
59*a
73*b
87*e
4*d
18*a
32*e
46*d
60*d
74*d
88*d
5*e
19*a
33*b
47*e
61*d
75*a
89*b
6*b
20*b
34*e
48*c
62*e
76*e
90*c
7*e
21*e
35*b
49*e
63*c
77*b
91*c
8*d
22*e
36*d
50*d
64*b
78*e
92*a
9*b
23*c
37*d
51*a
65*c
79*b
93*d
10*a
24*c
38*a
52*b
66*b
80*c
94*a
11*c
25*e
39*d
53*c
67*c
81*e
95*d
12*d
26*a
40*c
54*a
68*b
82*c
96*a
13*c
27*d
41*c
55*c
69*e
83*b
14*e
28*b
42*c
56*b
70*c
84*d
4- Calcitonin is mainly classified as hormone liberated by thyroid gland. Which stimulate the release of calcitonin?
a) Hypercalcemia
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hypophosphatemia
d) Hyperphosphatemia
e) High concentration of Vit. D
5- Which of the following statements is/are right regarding CALCITONIN
I- It secretion is normally stimulated during feeding, particularly of high calcium meals
II- Prevents hypercalcemia by inhibiting the transport of Ca intro extra cellular fluid and by increasing the renal clearance of
calcium
III- It is a vitamin D derivative
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
6- The level of which drug should be adjusted during treatment with allopurinol
I- Mercapturic acid
II- Theophillin
III- Anticoagulants
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
7- Uricosuric agents are used in gout treatment by inhibiting the uric acid re-absorption in the proximal tubules, the best example of
a uricosuric agent is:
a) Allopurinol
b) sulphinpyrazone
c) Indomethacin
d) Penicillamine
e) Methotrexate
8- An oral chelating agent used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is:
a) Allopurinol
b) Sulphinpyrazone
c) Indomethacin
d) Penicillamine
e) Methotrexate
9- In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis the salicylates:
a) Stop and often reverse the progressive joint involvement
b) Specifically reverse the cause of the disease
c) Provide only analgesic effect
d) Are effective because they are uricosuric agents
e) Are more effective when given with allopurinol
10- Importance of Vitamin D in osteoporosis:
I- Increase the absorption of calcium from the small intestine
II- The best vitamin D analog to treat osteoporosis is calcitriol
III- Antacids containing aluminum and magnesium may interfere with proper activity of vitamin D.
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
11- Drug that inhibits xanthine oxidase and affect the metabolism of 6-mercaptopurine:
a) Sulfinpyrazone
b) Allopurinol
c) Penicillamine
d) Purinethol
e) Celecoxib
10- E: Osteoporosis is characterized by the loss of bone mass. Vitamin D supplements have been used in the treatment of
osteoporosis because vitamin D increases the absorption of calcium that is essential to reduce bone loss. Antacids interact with vitamin D
in many ways, magnesium containing antacids may lead to hypermagnesemia and aluminum containing antacids have its levels increased
leading to aluminum bone toxicity when currently used with vitamin D.
11- B: Allopurinol inhibit xanthine oxidase enzyme therefore the conversion of 6-mercaptopurine to uric acid inhibiting the uric acid
synthesis-formation
12- C: Pannus is an inflammatory exudates overlying the lining layer of synovial cells on the inside of a joint, usually occurring in
patients with rheumatoid arthritis or related articular rheumatisms, and sometimes resulting in fibrous ankylosis of the joints.
13- A: Intra-articular is normally referred to a kind of injection given within a joint.
14- E: Colchicine may cause false-positive test results of red blood cells-RBC and hemoglobin in urine. It may also cause decrease in
platelet count.
15- D: Cochicine is only used in gout treatment. It has no effect on uric acid therefore it is used just in the acute treatment of gout by
inhibiting the migration of leukocytes, phagocytes and leukotrienes B4 to the affected joint.
16- A: Indomethacin is a potent NSAID that inhibits the acute gout arthritis inflammation by inhibition of prostaglandin formation and
inhibition of crystals phagocytes by macrophages.
17- B: Allopurinol is a purine derivative working as xanthine oxidase enzyme inhibitor responsible for the conversion of 6mercaptopurine to uric acid.
18- E: The gout disease is normally controlled by three different mechanisms: 1- Control the inflammatory response by inhibition of
leukocytes, macrophages and leukotrienes migration to the affected joint. 2- Increase the renal clearance of uric acid by inhibiting the
reabsorption of uric acid by the kidney and 3- Reduce the conversion of 6-mercaptopurine to uric acid by inhibition of the enzyme
xanthine oxidase.
19- C: Gout is a group of disorders of purine and pyrimidine metabolism. It is manifested by hyperuricemia, recurrent characteristic
arthritis induced by deposit of crystals in and around the joint of the extremities, which may lead to destruction and severe crippling of
joints.
20- A: Main side effects of allopurinol therapy include: Steven-Johnsons hypersensitivity rashes reactions, gastro-intestinal
intolerance, peripheral neuritis and necrotizing vasculitis.
21- E: Estrogen is widely used to prevent bone loss after menopause. Estrogen can enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss
but does not increase bone mass that has already been lost.
22- B: Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by the loss of bone mass. It is the most common of the metabolic bone diseases and is an
important cause of morbidity in elderly.
23- D: Cloroquine and primaquine are normally used together only in the treatment and prevention of malaria. Quinine and
hydroxycloroquine are antimalarial agents and alternatively used in prophylaxis and treatment of muscle cramps leg and rheumatoid
arthritis respectively.
24- A: Methotrexate is a Disease-Modifying rheumatoid arthritis agent normally used orally, 7.5mg once a week or 2.5mg every
12hours for 3 doses given as a course once weekly, increased 15mg per week after 6 weeks, if necessary.
25- B: In the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis penicillamine should be administrated in an empty stomach. Improvement of the
condition may take up to 2 to 3 months of therapy
26- C: Gould therapy would be the best choice for this particular patient because the other drugs may have cross-sensitivity with
aspirin and/or induce brochospasm.
27- B: Diflunisal is a NSAID used for both acute and chronic anti-inflammatory treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
1. Antidiuretic characterized for the decrease of Na+,K+ and Cl-.
a. Acetazolamide
b. spirinolactone
c. hydrochlorthiazide
d. furosemide
e. triamterene
2. Antithrombolytic agents are contraindicated in:
a. Myocardial Infarction
b. bleeding from the GIT
c. hyperchloremic patient
3.Patient with renal failure and normal liver function is showing sensitibility to the drug, this means that:
a. high accumulation of metabolite
b. high concentration of drug protein
c. high VD
d. high concentration of drug in systemic circulation
e. high accumulation of drugs in tissues
4. Normal osmotic blood pressure in a healthy adult is:
a. 280 mosm/L
b. 280 Osm/L
c. 280 mOsm/mL
d.280 Osm/mL
e. 280 mOsm/100 mL
Q65.in left ventricular failure he max blood supply goes to which organism?
Ans.lungs
Q66.which is the ophthalmic antioxidant?
Ans? See leonshargel otc cahper of eye and ear an memorise all the antioxidants use din eye preparartion.
Q67.which hormone does not secrete the secretion in stomach?
Q68.structure similarity between clozapine and chlorpromazine?
Q69.which is the contraindication of metformin?
Q70.what is isotonic solution?
Q71.which is the precursor of platelets?
Ans. Megakereblast
Q72.what is the life span of platelets?
Ans.7-11 days
Q73.problem on inventory turn over?
Q74.problems on isotonacity?
Q75.which is not a metabolizing enzyme?
Q76.which statement is true regarding loading dose?
Ans. To achieve steady state concentration
Q77.counceling of ant scabies drugs?
Q78.which statement is true regarding aids?
Q79.which statement is used to see the profitibilty of pharmacy?
Ans. Income statement
Q80.during absolute refractory condition heart muscles does not respond?
Ans. Any stimuli
Q81.which is the main organism of uti during pregnancy?
Ans. Ecoli
Q82. what is the treatment?
Ans. Flouroquinolone.
Q83.pyouria and bacteuria causes?
Ans uti
Q84.causes of bed sores?
Ans.pressuer atrophy
Q85.what is another name of herpes simplex virus?
Ans. Shingles
Q86.what do u mean by pharmacoeconomic?
Q87.edta is used in which toxicity?
Ans.lead
Q88.which is used in propellants?
Q89.bezylconium chloride is used as eye?
Ans.preservative
Q90.which is the shortest acting bzd?
Ans. Triazolam
Q91.bzd and barbiturates acts on which receptor?
Ans bzd receptors
Fast TIPS
1.An enzyme is a substance which acts as a catalyst.
2.A substance found commonly in fermented foods which can be toxic when MAO inhibitors are used is tyramine.
3.MAO is classified as an enzyme.
4.The anticonvulsant carbamazepine interferes with thyroid function test.
5.An excess of nitrogenous waste in the blood causes azotemia.
6.Vitamin C may give a false + glucose with Tees Tape.
7.The heat labile factor in the vitamin B complex is thiamine.
8.Vitamin K is necessary for formation of prothrombin.
9.The average life of a red blood cell is about 4 months.
10.The precursor of vitamin A are carotenes.
11.The feeding of vitamin B12 to pernicious anemia patients overcomes the lack of extrinsic factor.
12.Vitamin E is used occasionally as an antioxidant.
13.Death due to cyanide poisoning results from cyanide inhibiting cytochrome oxidase.
14.Phenobarbital stimulates hepatic microsomal enzymes.
15.Vitamin D has a structure similar to the steroids.
16.End product of anaerobic respiration is lactic acid.
17.Mitochondria is the power house of the cell.
18.The major hallucinogenic component of marijuana is tetrahydrocanabinol(THC).
19.Coenzyme A or aryl transferase is involved in glycine conjugation.
20.GABA functions as a neurotransmitter.
21.Inositol triphosphate can act as second messenger.
22.Myxedema is a malfunction of thyroid.
23.The effect of vasopressin on the kidney is that it is antidiuretic.
24.Absence of antidiuretic hormone in the body causes diabetes insipidus.
25.The enzymes involved in ethanol metabolism are primarily alcohol dehydrogenase.
26.The end product of purine metabolism is primarily uric acid.
27.Vitamins act as coenzyme for metabolic processes.
28.Uracil is not found in DNA molecule.
29.Ketone bodies accumulate due to long or acute starvation and hypoglycemia.
30.The rich source of vitamin A is fish liver oil.
31.Vitamin D3 acts as a hormone.
32.The Michaelis Menten equation will appear first order when the substance concentration is much smaller than Km.
33.Concentration of a drug is helpful in calculating volume of distribution.
34.During constant rate of intravenous infusion at steady state condition, rate of elimination equals constant rate of infusion.
35.Metabolism of a drug which is mainly metabolized in liver depends on intrinsic clearance and blood flow.
36.Rate of elimination is decreased by increased renal reabsorption.
37.The relative bioavailability of a drug product can be determined by comparing AUCs and total drug urinary excretion.
38.Drug products can also be evaluated by comparing curves of serum concentration vs time. The most important parameters for
comparison that can be obtained from such curves are peak concentration, time of peak concentration and total AUC.
39.The area under the serum concentration time curve represents the amount of the drug absorbed.
40.The excretion of a weakly acidic drug (eg, pKa of 3.5) will be more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine because the drug will
exist primarily in the ionized form, which cannot be easily reabsorbed.
41.If a fixed dose of a drug that is eliminated by first order kinetics is administered at regular intervals, the time required to achieve a
steady state plasma level depends only on the half life of the drug.
42.The volume of distribution of a drug is a mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in the body and the
concentration of drug in the blood.
43.If a drug appears in the feces after oral administration, parenteral administration of the drug may determine the contribution of
the biliary system to the amount of drug in the feces.
44.Low clearance drugs are affected by increase in plasma protein binding by slow process.
45.Rate of reaction for first order kinetic is dc/dt = -kc.
46.To maximize its bioavailability, pencillin G should be given on an empty stomach 1 hour before meal.
47.Biological half life does not influence the rate of absorption from solutions to any significant extent.
48.According to pharmacokinetics degradation of insulin occurs in the liver.
49.In 3 months old Jamey Scott, bilirubin is 99.9% bound to plasma proteins when the attending total plasma bilrubin concentration is
9mmol/L (0.5 mg/L). This means that 0.1% of total plasma bilirubin is not protein bound.
50.Binding to plasma protein, o/w partition coefficient and pKa of the drug are important factors in determining the concentration of
drug which would be reached in the CSF treatment of meningitis.
51.Physiochemical factors affecting the rate and extent of percutaneous drug absorption include the partition coefficient of the drug
molecule, the presence of surfactants in the formulation and the type of ointment base.
52.If the total body clearance of a drug is 200 mL/min in a normal healthy adult and the renal clearance is 10ml/min then one may
assume that the drug is extensively metabolized.
53.A drug replaced from protein binding undergoes metabolism, shows pharmacological effect and good renal clearance.
54.Drug excreted by tubular excretion is penicillin.
55.Concentration of a drug in breast milk exceeds that in plasma, if the drug is basic.
56.With respect to bio*****alance, the parameter Cmax is affected by both rate and extent of absorption.
57.Most drugs are metabolized or eliminated from the body by first order kinetics. This implies that the amount of drug metabolized
or eliminated changes with time and is dependently only on the concentration of drug in the blood.
58.The difference between peak and trough concentrations is greatest when a drug is given at dosing intervals much longer than the
half life.
59.Nitrites (organic cyanides) are hydrolyzed to acids when they are heated with aqueous base or acids.
60.The reaction between phenol and aqueous solution of NaOH is considered acid base reaction.
61.Hexaresorcinol of larger particle size is better than resorcinol.
62.In HPLC, stationary phase is non polar and mobile phase is polar.
63.Ammonium chloride is an example of acidifying agent.
64.1 methyl cyclopentane is not an isomer of hexane.
65.F test, Chi square test and Latin square are statistical techniques for clinical trials.
66.In gravimetric analysis, the purpose of carrying out a chemical reaction to form an insoluble derivative which is then filtered off,
dried and weighed is to ensure that certain potential impurities remain behind in solution.
67.In paper chromatography, the cellulose fibers have a strong affinity for the water in the solvent system and have a weak affinity for
the organic solvent in the solvent system.
68.If the mean, mode and median are same the population is uniformly distributed.
69.Pyconometer is an instrument which measure weight of the same volume of different liquids.
70.Two solids melting at room temperature are eutectics.
71.From the original dye N dealkylation metabolism occurs.
72.In a gravimetric analysis, pH is adjusted to avoid the precipitation of impurities and facilitate maximum precipitation.
73.Amorphous means no specific size and shape.
74.Dimethyl formamide is used in the assay of non aqueous titration of sulfonamides.
75.Co precipitate occurs by adding rapidly precipitant.
76.Potency of penicillin is expressed in international of units per mg.
77.NH4 + OH- = NH3 + H2O, is an example of neutralization.
78.CH3CH2NH is more amphiprotic.
79.Order of dissociation in water is COO->COOH->OCH3>CH3.
80.Primary amine undergoes acetylation.
81.Absorption of water is increased by adding a solvent & the process is called partition coefficient.
82.Much of formation of prodrugs is by bioactivation.
83.Free radicals are H2O2, O2 and OH.
84.2 butene has geometric isomerism.
85.Two immiscible layers are separated by fractional distillation.
86.The molecular structure of clonidine contains a heterocyclic ring which is best described as imidazoline.
87.Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the pteridine ring.
88.H2C = CH- is called a vinyl group.
89.Both isoxazole and oxazole rings are found as substituents in some bacteriostatic sulfonamides. They are present in these
structures specifically because of their electron withdrawing effects.
90.Phenazopyridine is an azo dye.
91.A carbon atom that has four different groups attached to it is an asymmetric carbon atom.
92.Structurally, caffeine belongs to a class of nitrogen bases called purines.
93.Nicotine is a nitrogen containing base with two types of heterocyclic rings, a pyridine and pyrrolidine.
94.The equation for a straight line is a = mx + b. M represents the slope of the line.
95.Structure activity relationship of antihistaminic must have terminal tertiary amine and hydrocarbon must have one or more than
one aryl or hetero aryl group or its *****alent.
96.Disintegration of dx/x is lnx.
97.lne-x is x.
98.Ninhydrin is used to identify amino acids.
99.Conformational isomer means rotation around a single bond.
100.If pKa of phenobarbitone is 7.4, 90% of the drug will be ionized at pH 8.4.
101.The reaction R CONH R = RCOOH + NH2R, is called deamination.
102.The temperature above which all the concentrations of a solute are soluble in water is called critical solution temperature.
103.Azeotropic mixture of two volatile liquids in which the azeotrope has a higher vapor pressure than the individual component,
then azeotrope will distill faster.
104.99mTc does not eliminate from the lungs in 30 days.
105.In sulfonamide titration the role of dimethyl formamide is basic solvent.
106.Cellulose retains water in paper chromatography.
107.In TLC, organic phase is moving and silica gel is stationary.
108.In statistics, when the mean, median and mode are the same, the distribution is called normal.
109.In statistics, if 95% is standard deviation, the error is 2.5.
110.When atmospheric pressure is equal to the vapor pressure it is called boiling point.
111.A line parallel with X axis will have zero slope.
112.The error is always smaller than the standard deviation.
113.In TLC, organic phase is moving and silica gel is stationary.
114.For a radio isotope to be useful as an scanning agent, transmission must be gamma rays.
115.HPLC resolute means scanning of one analyte from others in substance mixture.
116.In HPLC particle size affect resolute.
117.Mechanism of resolution of organic solvent in TLC depends on capillary action.
118.In paper chromatography cellulose fibers have increase affinity for water and decrease affinity for organic solvents.
119.Benzodiazepine can be metabolized by reduction.
120.Aromatic amines and hydrazides are metabolized by acetylation.
121.Capacity of a buffer to resist, change in pH upon addition of strong acid or base is due to common ion effect.
122.At excited state Boron is 1s2, 2s1, 2p1.
123.Cyclohexane is not an isomer of hexane.
124.2 butene gives cis trans isomerism.
125.Superimposible is not true about optical isomers.
126.Capillary action takes place in TLC.
127.In assay of amphetamine in plasma it can be extracted by ether.
128.In assay of epinephrine HCl, tablet is crushed, dissolved in HCl, filter to extract to form base, methylene chloride is added and
before extraction 0.1 NaOH is added.
129.Dipole bond does not exist in ester ester linkage.
130.Hydrolysis of fixed oil gives glycerol + free fatty acids.
131.Electrophoresis is used to separate proteins amino acids.
132.Pyridium is an azo dye.
133.Soap is a form of sodium salt of fatty acid.
134.Most of the local anesthetics are esters of p aminobenzoic acid.
135.Determination of iodine value depends upon addition of iodine at the double bond of fatty acids.
136.Most of the local anesthetics are esters of p aminobenzoic acid.
137.The rate of zero order reactions is independent of concentration.
138.Enantiomorphs are two isomers that rotate plane polarized light equal amounts in the opposite direction.
139.Iodine is used in Lugols solution.
140.Zinc undecylenate is used in Desenex.
141.Zirconium salt is used in Ziradryl.
142.Glyceryl guaiacolate is used in Robitussin.
143.Boric acid is used in Collyrium.
144.Grignard reagent usually contains Mg.
145.In HIV, CD4 can be detected in blood of patients, macrophages and monocytes act as reservoir for virus to protect it from body
immune system and T cells are destroyed.
146.Clostridium and enterobacter are example of anaerobic organisms.
147.Limulus amebecyte is a pyrogen test.
148.Difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria is gram +ve. stains blue and have teichoic acid in their cell wall
while gram negative bacteria stains red.
149.Mycoplasma are resistant to antibiotic penicillin because it has no cell wall.
150.In UTI, organism is isolated after taking mid stream urine.
151.Nosocomial infection can be prevented by using aseptic procedures.
152.Organism of Nosocomial infection is Klebsiella pneumoniae.
153.Cell membrane is a common damage to both human and bacterial cells with the use of antibiotics.
219.Possible cause of secondary hypertension include renal disease, oral decongestant and fenfluramine.
220.Graves disease may be characterized by hyperthyroidism.
221.Gamma globulin is a protein fraction of the blood.
222.Crohns disease is a disease of the colon.
223.Progressive fibrosis and scarring of the liver are known as cirrhosis.
224.Major constituents of bile are micelles.
225.Hodgkins disease is usually centered in the lymphatic system.
226.Rods are responsible for night vision.
227.Addisons disease is caused by dysfunction of adrenal cortex.
228.Fibrinogen is synthesized mainly in the liver.
229.The effect of the antidiuretic hormone is to increase the rate of resorption of water by the kidney.
230.An endocrine gland that plays an important role in calcium metabolism is parathyroid.
231.A major factor in control of sodium excretion by the kidney is aldosterone.
232.Melanin and smooth muscle are not found in dermis.
233.Edema is the excessive accumulation of the watery fluid in the tissues.
234.Coronary artery receives blood from aorta.
235.A substance that naturally occurs in the body is called endogenous.
236.Colon has the most basic pH.
237.Intrinsic factor is present in parietal cells of blood.
238.Ascites means peritoneal retention of fluid.
239.Schiatic nerve supplies muscles to the calf and back of thigh, skin of lower calf and the upper surface of foot.
240.Epistaxis is bleeding of nose.
241.Glutathione protects cell integrity.
242.Causes of tachycardia are increased temperature, stimulation of heart autonomous nerves and toxic condition.
243.In the post menopausal therapy, conjugated esterogen carry the risk of endometrial cancer.
244.Arrythmia with respiration and inspiration is called paroxysmal arrythmia.
245.When left ventricle valve has been blocked, lungs get more blood.
246.Hernia is a protrusion of the peritonium.
247.Compared to interstitial fluid, plasma has higher concentration of protein.
248.Onset of CHF (left) is manifested by accumulation of blood in lungs.
249.CHF (right) is manifested by blood accumulation in vena cava.
250.In a cell network runs throughout the cytoplasm responsible for enzymatic reaction is endoplasmic reticulum.
251.Parietal cell intrinsic factor is vitamin B12.
252.In organ transplant, the rejection is due to infiltration of T cells.
253.Normal blood flowing through the body contains prothrombin.
254.Structure of intestine consists of jegenum, ileum and duodenum.
255.Liver receives maximum cardiac output (27%) at rest.
256.Adrenal gland does not secrete in GIT.
257.The brain receives most of the blood supply from internal carotid artery.
258.50% of the normal blood plasma protein is albumin.
259.Skeletal muscle is not included in dermis.
260.During inspiration low blood pressure is in vena cava.
261.Signs and symptoms of tardive dyskinesia are oral buccal signs.
262.Epilepsy is the result of GABA deficiency.
263.Thyroid is not a part of lymphatic system.
264.Gravida is the number of times someone has become pregnant.
265.Methyl alcohol causes toxicity to retina.
266.Greater absorption in small intestine than in stomach is due to greater surface area.
267.Urine, skin and sweat glands help in regulating the body temperature.
268.Hemorrhage, ascites and jaundice are complications of cirrhosis.
269.Nerves in the human body that transmit their impulses by releasing ACh are known as cholinergic nerves.
270.Insulin has a pharmacodynamic effect at cell surface due to interaction with receptors.
271.A drug used to treat delirium tremens is chlordiazepoxide.
272.Pyrivenum is an antehelmintic.
273.Allopurinol must be used with care with mercaptopurine.
274.Prostaglandins and Tamoxifen are used to terminate pregnancy.
275.Antineoplastic drugs are given by i.m. and i.v. routes in chemotherapy.
276.Piroxicam decreases prostaglandin synthesis.
277.Addiction does not occur in case of antitussive doses of codeine.
278.Cortisone is a modified antirheumatic drug.
279.Giving a vasoconstrictor one hour before introducing anesthesia means; decrease blood supply enhance long action of
anesthesia, decrease side effects and give smoother and good induction of anesthesia.
280.Losartan, is an Angiotensin II receptor inhibitor, inhibits, both the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone secreting effects. It is used in
mold to mild hypertension and contraindicated in pregnancy.
281.Oxazepam is an intermediate acting benzodiazepine.
282.Nalbuphine produces opioid withdrawal symptoms if given to morphine dependent patients.
283.Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine antagonist acts on GABAA receptor.
284.Benzodiazepine acts on GABAA receptor.
285.Sumatriptan is a serotonin agonist act by 5 HT cell membrane receptor type, having side effects like dizziness, muscle weakness
or neck membrane.
286.Celebrex (Celecoxib) is a NSAID drug acts by inhibiting cyclooxygenase II.
550.Heme group and oxidation is a similarity between hemoglobin and cytochrome molecule.
551.Permanent alveolar destruction occurs in emphysema.
552.The excretion of a weak acid is increased by NaHCO3.
553.Causes of hypercalcemia are hyperthyroidism, Pagets diseae, thiazide diuretics, vitamin D intoxication and excessive calcium
intake.
554.Zafirlukast is a leukotriene antagonist and used for asthma.
555.Hashimotos thyroiditis (autoimmune disease) is hypothyroidism.
556.W/O emulsion have 1 9 HLB.
557.Salicylaism is a side effect at the dose of inflammation.
558. Calcium reabsorption in distil convulated tubule is due to parathyroid hormone.
559.If a drug is 90% protein bound, an increase in the dose will effect in accumulation in the body.
560. Buffers are usually prepared by weak acid and salt of a weak acid or weak base and salt of the weak base.
561.Glutathione is a cell stabilizer enzyme.
562.Loop diuretics act on the ascending loop of Henle, inhibiting the transport of NaCl out of the tubules into the interstitial tissue.
563.Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic.
564.A patient comes to the pharmacy taking metformin 500 mg and ask pharmacist about the dose reduction. Pharmacist will advise
patient to keep taking this medication and refer patient to physician before making any decision.
565.Horizontal HEPA filters are used in laminar flow for the preparation of cancerous drugs.
566.Amitryptilline and imipramine are also used in nocturnal child enuresis.
567.Prolong treatment adverse effect like pulmonary fibrosis is because of Idoxuridine.
568.Vitamin E is used as solvent in oily injection.
569.Alprastidil (PGE2) is used for erectile dysfunction.
570.Aldosterone secretion is controlled by ACTH.
571.Peripheral edema is a result of right ventricular failure.
572.Pannus is a particular indication of arthritis.
573.Mechanism of action of simvastatin is inhibition of HMG CoA reductase inhibitor.
574.Cholestyramine is a bile acid resin positively charged ammonium polymers.
575.Cholestyramine acts by binding negatively charged bile acids in the small intestine forming insoluble complexes that then
excreted in feces.
576.Bleomycin causes pulmonary fibrosis.
577.Etidronate (Didronel) is a biphosphonate, used for malignancy associated with hypercalcemia, Pagets disease and osteoporosis.
578.Pharmacist will refer patient in blurred vision.
579.Mutagensis is change in DNA, find rapidly in dividing cells and a change in genotype.
580.Advantages of sustained release tablets are compliance to patients and decreased side effects.
581.Morphine is a drug of choice in myocardial infarction.
582.Epinephrine and norepinephrine cause hyperglycemia by increased glycogenolysis, increased glucagons secretion and decreased
insulin secretion.
583.Adrenal gland, parotid gland, bile duct and ******* of the stomach all fall in the duodenum.
584.Maxillary bone, ethmoid bone, frontal bone and occipital bone all are skull bone.
585.Pelvis, ischium and pubis are all pelvic bone.
586.Long use of hydrocortisone cause decrease resistance to disease, glucose intolerance and hypokelemia.
587.Acarbose (Precose) is an alpha glucosidiase inhibitor, inhibits post prandial rise of blood glucose and decrease absorption of
starch in the intestine.
588.Retinoic acid (Vitamin A) is used in acne.
589.Oral contraceptives cannot be given in liver dysfunction, seizure epilepsy, deep vein thrombosis, breast cancer and pregnancy.
590.The name of blind spot is optic disk.
591.Pancreatic cells are a, b and d cells.
592.Nitroglycerin and isorbide cause venous pooling.
593.Calamine lotion (8%) is used to treat poison ivy.
594.A decrese in ADH means increase thirst and polyurea.
595.Bradykinin, histamin, leukotriene, PGs and interleukin 1 are algesic.
596.Antidiuretic hormone is secreted from posterior pituitary.
597.Methionine is an essential amino acid.
598.Epidermal cells when exposed to UV radiation convert a steroid related to cholesterol into vitamin D3. This product is absorbed
and after processing released from liver.
599.Deficiency of vitamin D causes rickets and and its effects increase in presence of vitamin C.
600.Diazepam has active metabolite (half life 8 hours), its long use then stopping cause seizures and it changes the normal sleep
pattern.
601.Preanesthetic medication means smooth induction of anesthesia, relieve anxiety and prevention of post operative
complications.
602.Oral iron preparations are normally preferred.
603.By pass is not a condition of heart inflammation.
604.Extravasation means escape or discharge (blood) from a vessel into the tissue.
605.In digoxin, the death is due to left ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation.
606.Sinusitis is caused by Hemoph. Influenza and Strept. Pneumonia.
607.In chemotherapy of cancer, the routes of administration are I.M., I.V. and oral.
608.Toxicity of paracetamol is due to active metabolite (N acetyl p benzoquinone).
609.In paracetamol (acetaminophen) toxicity, after giving N acetylcysteine, the mortality is safe and can be waited for 10 12 hours.
610.Calamine contains combination of magnesium or zinc with ferric oxide.
611.The best method to instill eye drops is to pour drops in lower sac.
612.Creatinine in plasma is detected in renal functional test.
NOTES
The physician prescribed prednisolone 40 mg stat & taper 5 mg daily .how long the therapy will last(8 days)
Which medicine should be taken in empty stomach (sucralfate)
POS means (point of sale)
Transition metal is (Cu /Co)
Which artery supplies blood to brain (internal carotid & Vertebral)
Which drug doesnt causes opoid withdrawal syndrome (Nalbuphene)
DIN(drug identification number)
questions related to dispencing of schedule drugs
paralex of liquid may be minimized by seeing it straight to the level of eye
UTI of women(what should pharmacist do in councilling)
numerical on inventory turn over
AT II receptor anatomist is LOSATAN
which organism causes UTI(gram- bacilli)
endocarditis caused by stphyllococus aureaus
1,3-dihyrdo pyridine is nifidipine
bed sores are caused by pressure atrophy
structure of bethancol & carbacol(difference)
structure difference b/w amphetamine and dopamine
short acting anesthetic is thiopental
sumatriptan is indole derivative
sumatriptan is 5HT1-receptor antagonist
antidote for Alprazolam is Flumazanil
antidote for cabon monoxide is Oxygen
ninhydrin is used for detection of amino acids
which drug inhibit lipoxygenase pathway(Zafirlukast)
Nosocomial infection is caused by staphylocus aureas
clymada infection in Canada (in childrens eye)
Mg stereate is used as a glidient / lubricant
question son marketing of drugs
which drug is used for prophylaxis of TB(isoniazid)
Ca++ is absorbed by the distal tubules
in metabolic acidosis the level of bicarbonate is increase
hasimoto disease is hypothyroidism
I131 is used for screening of Hypothyroidism
Parkinson disese caused by decrease in the level of dopamine
trituration is particle size reduction
pulverization with intervention is used to reduce the particle size of camphor
non allergic asthma is caused by exercise
angina s aggravated by coitus
hypertensive crises caused by MAO inhibitor
amphotericin B is hydrophilic
interaction of sildefanil and Tylenol
which drug is not aminoglycoside( Vancomycin)
diabetis test is glycosylated Hb
RESPIRATORY COMPLICATIONS
1- Patient has a relevant increase in his asthma symptoms due to environmental allergies. He is currently having salbutamol and
fluticasone inhalers. What would you advise as an adjunct medication to treat his symptoms?
a) Oral corticosteroids
b) Higher dose of corticosteroid inhalers
c) Salmeterol
d) Sodium cromoglycate
e) Anticholinergic agents
2- Treatment of smoke withdrawal symptoms may include which of the following?
I- Nicorette
II- Nicoderm
III- Zyban
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
3- Which of the following vitamins is depleted in the blood by smoke?
a) Vitamin C
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin E
d) Vitamin D
e) Vitamin A
4- Condition characterized by a reversible form of airflow obstruction is known as:
a) Aneurism
b) Emphesema
c) Embolism
d) Cirrhose
e) Jaundice
5- Advantages of nasal route over oral route absorption of drugs may include:
I- Nasal route has a higher surface area
II- Nasal route has more blood vessels
III- Nasal route has a higher onset of absorption
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
6- Which is not a drug used for smoke cessation?
a) Nicotine polacrilex
b) Transdermal nicotine patches
c) Nicotine sublingual tablets
d) Bupropion
e) Buspirone
7- Example of leukotriene antagonist drug include:
a) Salbutamol
b) Ipratropium
c) Zafirlukast
d) Montelukast
e) C and D are right
8- Which reaction can ozone cause in the lungs?
a) Oxidation
b) Hydration
c) Reduction
d) Complexation
e) Hydrolysis
9- Correct statements regarding glossitis include which of the following?
I- Inflammation of the tongue
II- Characterized by presence of pinkish-red central lesions on the dorsal surface of the tongue
III- It can be a chronic condition of the tongue seen in pernicious anemia.
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
10- Intal-Sodium cromoglycate is characterized by which of the following statements?
I- Non-steroidal drug with anti-inflammatory proprieties
II- They can be used in prophylaxis of asthma and allergic rhinitis
III Used in asthma only
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and III only
e) All are correct
11- Drug of choice in the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may include:
a) Salbutamol
b) Ipratropium
c) Salmereol
d) Sodium cromoglycate
e) Fluticasone
12- Chronic progressive lower airway destruction causing reduced pulmonary inspiration and expiratory capacity is known as:
a) Asthma
b) Bronchitis
c) GERD
d) COPD
e) CHF
13- Asthma is a condition of respiratory tract that may be aggravated by:
a) Allergens
b) Cold weather
c) Execise
d) Emotion
e) All are correct
24- Best drug used in the prevention of exercise-induced asthma may include:
a) Long acting 2-agonists
b) Short acting 2-agonists
c) Anticholinergics
d) Leukotriene modifiers
e) Corticoids
25- All are 2-agonists used as brochodilators in the treatment of bronchospasm, EXCEPT:
a) Albuterol
b) Salmeterol
c) Terbutaline
d) Pindolol
e) Levalbuterol
26- Example of methyl xanthine used in the treatment of respiratory complications include:
a) Theophyllin
b) Terbutaline
c) Ipratropium
d) Zafirlukast
e) Salmeterol
15- E: Severe intermittent asthma treatment is best done by short and long-acting -agonists plus inhaled and oral corticosteroids.
16- C: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic drug that be used in adjunct treatment of asthma.
17- B: Destructive changes in the alveolar walls are characteristics of a respiratory complication called Emphysema
18- A: Mainly symptoms of asthma are: Wheezing, shortness of breathing, chest tightness, cough, tachycardia, tachypnea and pulses
paradoxus.
19- C: Albuterol is the fastest acting -agonist used in the treatment of bronchocostriction emergencies-asthma.
20- E: Salbutamol is a fast acting -agonist and considered the drug of choice in all kind of asthma.
21- D: The use of corticosteroids in asthma suppresses the inflammatory response and decreases the airway hyperesponsiveness by
decreasing the production of inflammatory mediators and mucus production.
22- B: Sodium cromoglycanate is an anti-inflammatory, antiallergenic and mast cell stabilizer drug.
23- B: Xanthine oxidase inhibitor is mainly used in the treatment of gout.
24- B: Salbutamol, a fast acting -agonist, is the most effective drug in the prevention of exercise-induced asthma.
25- D: Pindolol is a -blocker used mainly in the treatment of hypertension.
26- A: Ipratropium is an anticholinergic drug used in COPD as the drug of choice.
27- C: Cysteinyl leukotrienes are products of arachidonic acid metabolism. Leukotriene modifiers drugs inhibit leukotriene synthesis by
inhibiting 5-lipoxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of arachidonic acid to leukotriene.
28- D: Leukotriene modifiers are approved for oral prophylaxis and chronic treatment of asthma.
29- E: Nedocromil sodium is the new relative cromolyn like drug acting in a very similar way as sodium cromoglycanate does.
TOXICOLOGY
1.Antidote for mercury may include
a)Dimercaprol
b)EDTA
c)Detoroximine
d)Naloxone
e)succimer
2.Which of the ff is benzodiazepine antagonist
a)naloxone
b)physostigmine
c)flumazenil
d)naltrexone
e)penicillamine
3.What would be the best treatment for cyanide poisoning
a)antivena
b)sodium thiosulfate
c)acetylcycteine
d)oxygen therapy
e)sadium bicarbonate
4.carbon monoxide can be highly toxic because it can easily binds with
I.hemoglobin
II.myoglobin
III.cytochrome oxidase
a)I only
b)III only
c)I & II
d)II & III
e)All of the above
5.Acetaminophen toxicity most well known complication is
a)cardiovascular failure
b)pulmonary edema
c)CNS lethargy
d)Liver necrosis
e)Sedation
6.Salicylate poisoning treatment include which of the following
I.Alkalinizaiton of urine with sadium bicarbonate
II.Decontamination with syrup of IPECAC until 30 mins overdose
III.Charcoal every 6 hours
a) I only
b)III only
c)I & II
d)II & III
e)All of the above
2C
18B
34B
3B
19B
35A
4E
20D
36E
5D
21A
37E
6E
22B
38E
7C
23E
39C
8E
24E
9C
25E
10D
26E
11A
27C
12E
28E
13C
29B
14E
30A
15E
31D
16A
32C