SLE 6th Plus Edition 2003-2014 (DR - Mohmmed) Final

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1.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The periodontium comprise which of the following tissues:

Gingiva and the PDL.
Gingival, PDL, and alveolar bone.
Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone, and cementum. ***
Gingival, PDL, alveolar bone, cementum, and enamel.
* The periodontal tissues = the periodontium consist of:

Gingiva or gums - Periodontal ligament(PDL) - Alveolar bone - Cementum.
Carranza's Clinical Periodonyology 11Ed 2012- Page 11
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The following chemically bonds to the tooth:

Composite resin.
Dental sealants.
Glass ionomer cement. ***
All of the above.
* Also, zinc polycarboxylate cement bonds chemically.

* BUT, composite resins, compomers & dental sealants bond
micromechanically ( mechanically ) ( bores by acid etching ). * BUT, amalgam
and zinc phosphate cement bond mechanically.
3.
a.
b.
c.
d.
In countries with higher annual population growth rates, the need for
community based preventive programs would be greater for:
OR
Communities with high annual population growth need education about:
Dental caries. ***
Periodontal disease.
Dentofacial anomalies.
Dental fluorosis.
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope:

Hypoglycemia.
Mild hyperglycemia.
Anti hypertensive drugs with ganglionic blocking agent.
Anti depressant therapy.
All of the above.
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005) page 303

* These include strokes, corticosteroid insufficiency, drug interactions,
epileptic fit, vaso-vagal shock, heart block & hypoglycaemia.
5.
whats the first sign of Syncope:

a) Paleness. *** ( ) .
b) Nose bleeding (epistaxis(.
c) Miosis.
6.
a.
b.
c.
Most frequent cause of fainting in dental office:

Vaso-vagal shock. ***
Diabetes.
Fear.
vaso-vagal syncope
"dental decks 1909" .
7.
Loss of consciousness,most frequent cause:

a.
Syncope.
b.
CO2 increase.
* The most common cause of loss of consciousness in the dental office is
syncope.
8.
Orthognathic ridge relationship (class II) presents several problems which

should be taken into consideration when constructing complete denture
prosthesis. These include all except:
a.
Require minimum interocclusal distance. ***
b.
Have a great range of jaw movement.
c.
Require careful occlusion, usually cuspless teeth are indicated.
Complete Denture 17th Ed page 16
Orthognathic Ridge Relationship:
Class II or retrognathic : is usually difficult as the patient looks toothy, often
holds the mandible forward to improve appearance with subsequent TMJ
problems, usually have a great range of jaw movements in function, require
careful occlusion, and usually needs a large interocclusal distance.
Class III or prognathic : is usually easier. It requires a minimum of
interocclusal distance.
9.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Class III jaw relation in edentulous Pt.:

It will affect size of maxillary teeth.
Affect retention of lower denture.
Affect esthetic and arrangement of maxillary denture.
All of the above. ***
10.
Planning centric occlusion for complete denture, it is advisable to have:

a.
1-2 mm of vertical and horizontal overlap of upper and lower anterior
teeth with no contact. ***
b.
Definite tooth contact of upper and lower anterior teeth in order to
facilitate the use of anterior teeth for incision.
11. The posterior extension of maxillary complete denture can be detected by

a.
the followings except:

Hamular notch.
b.
c.
Fovea palatine. ***

Vibrating line.
12. The distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base is
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
dictated by the:
Tuberosity.
Fovea palatine.
Maxillary tori.
Vibrating line. ***
Posterior palatal seal.
Heartwell 5th ed - page 224
* Vibrating line determines the posterior extension of the posterior palatal
seal.
13. Vibrating line:

a.
b.
Between hard & soft palates.

Between mobile and non mobile soft tissues. ***
14. Oral surgeon put his finger on the nose of the patient and the patient
asked to blow. This done to check:
a. anterior extention of posterior palatal seal. ***
b. lateral extension of posterior palatal seal.
c. posterior extension of posterior palatal seal.
d. glandular opening.
15. Pt. Presented after insertion of complete denture complaining of

dysphagia and ulcers what is the cause of dysphagia?
a.over extended. ***
b.over post dammed.
c.under extended.
d.under post dammed.
16. Pt. with denture has swallowing problem and sore throat. The problem is:
a.
b.
c.

Posterior over extension at distal palatal end. ***
Over extension of lingual.
Over extension of hamular notch.
17. Nausea is a complaint that a new denture wearer might encounter. It may
a.
b.
c.
d.
result from:
Thick posterior border.
Denture under extended.
Denture slightly over extended.
a & b are correct. ***
18. After insertion of complete denture, Pt. came complaining from pain in
a.
b.
c.
d.
TMJ and tenderness of muscle with difficulty in swallowing, this could be due
to:
High vertical dimension. ***
Low vertical dimension.
Thick denture base.
Over extended denture base.
Dental Decks - page 398
19. Most common complete denture post insertion complaint after 24 hrs.:
a. Rough.
b. Overextension causing laceration. ***
irritation and ulceration or injury ).
c. Pt. not to use new vertical dimension.
( or: Overextension causing tissue
20. Which palatal form is more retentive and offers better stability to
complete denture:
a. V shaped.
b. Wide palate.
c. U shaped.***
d. Flat palate.
21. All relate to retention of maxillary complete denture except:

a.
b.
Tongue movement. ***

Type of saliva.
22. Best instrument to locate vibrating line, it is:

T-burnisher. ***
23. We can use for palatal posterior seal:

1. Le jao carver.
2. Kingsley scraper. ***
24. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
a.
Failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival

sulcus.
b.
Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth.
c.
Lack of attention to tooth shape, position, and contacts. ***
d.
Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulcus, and marginal ridges.
25. An examination of the edentulous mouth of an aged Pt. who has wore
maxillary complete dentures for many years against six mandibular teeth
would probably show:
a.
Cystic degeneration of the foramina of the anterior palatine nerve.
b.
Loss of osseous structure in the anterior maxillary arch. ***
c.
Flabby ridge tissue in the posterior maxillary arch.
d.
Insufficient interocclusal distance.

Dental decks - page 390
26. Dental carries is an endemic disease, means that the disease is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.

Is habitually present in human population. .
Affect large number of countries simultaneously.
Exhibit a seasonal pattern.
27. Pt. on treatment with steroids are placed on antibiotic after oral surgical
a.
b.
c.
d.
procedure because:
The Pt. is more susceptible to infection. ***
Antibiotics are synergistic to steroids.
Antibiotics inhibit herksheimer reaction.
Antibiotics protect the Pt. from steroid depletion.
28. The post operative complication after the removal of impacted third molar
is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Secondary hemorrhage.
Swelling.
Pain.
Alveolar osteitis.
29. If the oral tissues are inflamed and traumatized, impression for making a
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
new denture:
Should be started immediately in order to prevent further deterioration.
The occlusion of the existing denture is adjusted, and tissue condition

material is applied, and periodically replaced until the tissues are recovered,
then making impression takes place. ***.
The Pt. is cautioned to remove the denture out at night.
a & b are correct.
All of the above are correct.
30. Polyether impression materials:

a.
b.
c.
Are less stable dimensionally than polysulfide rubber.

Are less stiff than polysulfide rubber.
Can absorb water and swell if stored in water. ***
31. The indication for the use of lingual plate major connector includes:
a.
b.
c.
d.
For the purpose of retention.

When the lingual frenum is high or when there is a shallow lingual sulcus.
To prevent the movement of mandibular anterior teeth.
Dental decks 641
Contraindications for the use of lingual plate major connector : Crowding of *

. lower anterior teeth
32. Lingual plate:

a. Shallow sulcus.
b. Mobile anterior teeth.
c. Deep sulcus.
d. a+b ***
e. All of above.
Dental decks 641
33. Lingual bar contraindication except :

a- shallow lingual sulcus.
b- long lingual frenum.
c- Too crowded lower anterior teeth. ***
d- Mobile anterior teeth.
34. Lingual bar indication:

a- short lingual frenum.
b- deep lingual sulcus.
c- too crowded lower anterior teeth.
d- all of the above. ***
35. In class I partially edentulous lower arch, selection of major connector

a.
b.
c.
d.
depends on:
Height of lingual attachment.
Mandibular tori.
Periodontal condition of remaining teeth.
36. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Abutment teeth are not carious.

An abutment tooth is inclined 15 degrees but otherwise sound.
There is considerable resorption of the residual ridges. ***
Crown of the abutment teeth are extremely long owing to gingival
recession.
37. In registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous

a.
b.
c.
d.
patient. The physiological rest dimension:

Equals the vertical dimension of occlusion.
May be exceeded if the appearance of the patient is enhanced.
Is of little importance as it is subject to variations.
Must always be greater than vertical dimension of occlusion. ***
.
38. Three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distal extension mandibular

removable partial denture, a Pt. complained of
a sensitive abutment
tooth, clinical examination reveals sensitivity to percussion of the tooth, the
most likely cause is:
a.
Defective occlusion. *** ( occlusal trauma ).
b.
Exposed dentine at the bottom of the occlusal rest seats.
c.
Galvanic action between the framework and an amalgam restoration in the
abutment tooth.
39. Pt. with lower complete denture, intraoral examination shows slightly
elevated lesion with confirmed border, Pt. history of ill fitting denture. It is
treated by:
a.
Immediate surgical removal.
b.
Instruct Pt. not to use denture for 3 weeks then follow up. ***
c.
Reassure Pt. and no need for treatment.
40. Examination of residual ridge for edentulous Pt. before construction of

a.
b.
denture determines stability, support and retention related to the ridge:

True. ***
False.
41. Upon examination of alveolar ridge of elderly Pt. for construction of lower
a.
b.
c.
denture, easily displaceable tissue is seen in the crest of ridge. Management:

Minor surgery is needed.
Inform the Pt. that retention of denture will decrease.
Special impression technique is required. ***
Questions and Answers :
42. In recording man-max relation, the best material used without producing
a.
b.
c.
pressure is:
Wax.
Compound.
Bite registration paste. ***
( Zinc oxide & eugenol paste ).
43. The posterior seal in the upper complete denture serves the following
functions:
It reduces pt. discomfort when contact occurs between the dorsum of the
tongue and the posterior end of the denture base.
b.
Retention of the maxillary denture.
c.
It compensates for dimensional changes which occur in the acrylic denture
base during processing.
d.
b & c are correct. ***
a.
44. Function of post dam:
( PPS )
a. Prevents tongue from palate touch increase comfort.
b. increases retention
c. to compensate acrylic dimension.
d. all.

45. In recording jaw relation, best to use:

a.
Occlusal rim with record base. ***

* ( record base = base plate ) in recording jaw relation = recording
maxillomandibular relation and arrangement of the teeth.
b.
Occlusal rim with base wax.
c.
Occlusal rim with nacial frame.
46. During 3/4 crown preparation on premolar, bur used to add retentive
grooves is:
a. Radial fissure.
b. Tapered fissure. ***
47. The goal of construction of occlusion rims is:

1.
To obtain the occlusal plane, vertical dimension, tentative centric relation,

face low transfer & placement of the teeth. ***
2.
To obtain the protrusive condylar guidance.
3.
To obtain the lateral condylar posts and incisal guide.
4.
None.
48. A temporary form representing the base of a denture which is used for
making maxillo-manibular ( jaw ) relative record for arranging teeth or for

trail insertion in the mouth is:
1. Bite rims.
2. Custom tray.
3. Set up.
4. Base plate. *** (= record base)
49. To recheck centric relation in complete denture:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Ask Pt. to open and close.

Ask Pt. to place tip of tongue in posterior area and close. ***
To wet his lip and tongue.
All of the above.
50. In Recent years, there has been an evidence that the prevalence and
intensity of the caries attack has been diminished in the more economically
developed countries, mainly because of the wide spread use of:
OR
In recent years, caries reduced in developed countries mainly due to:
OR
Cost effective method to prevent dental caries:
a. Water fluoridation. ***
b. Fluoride toothpaste.
c. Dental health education programs.
D. Individualized oral hygiene care.
E. a & c.
Dental decks pedo 2004- Page 148
% 60 -50 *
51. In terms of caries prevention, the most effective and most cost effective
method is:
a.
Community based programs. *** ( Artificial water fluoridation ).
b. Individually based programs.
c. Private based programs.
52. The effects of natural fluoride versus added fluoride in reducing dental
a.
b.
c.
caries as it relates to the concentration are:

Greater.
Less. ***
The same.
) ( )
(
53. When does child should be first exposed for using tooth brush:
a.
b.
c.
d.
As eruption of first tooth. ***

One year old.
Two years old.
Primary school year.
54. When a child must first exposed to the use of the tooth brush:
a- Of age of 2 years.
b- Of age of 4 years.
c- After eruption of primary teeth. *** (or Immediately after eruption of first
tooth)
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005) - page 25
* Brushing using a fluoride toothpaste should start as soon as the first teeth
erupts ( about 6 months of age ). Parents should supervise brushing up to at
least 7 yrs of age to avoid over-ingestion of toothpaste and ensure adequate
plaque removal.
55. When tooth paste is used, the child is advised:

a- Not swallow. ***
b- swallow a small amount.

c- do not rinse.
d- none.
56. Fluoridated toothpaste for 3 years child is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Recommended. ***
Not recommended.
Common.
Toxic
Non of above.
* Fluoridated toothpaste for 3 years child is recommended but under
supervision in small pea-sized amount. .
National Fluoride Information Centre - Guide to Fluoride
57. Fluoride which we use in the clinic doesnt cause fluorosis because:
a.
b.
c.
d.
It's not the same fluoride that cause fluorosis.

Teeth already calcified. ***
Calcium in the mouth counter.
Saliva wasnt out.
58. Mentally ill child, the best way to apply fluoride:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Acidulated phosphate fluoride.

Natural sodium fluoride.
Fluoride varnish. ***
Stannous fluoride.
59. Type of professionally applied fluoride for mentally retarded pt.:

1. Neutral sodium fluoride.
2. Stannous fluoride.
3. Acidulated fluoride solutions.
.Flouridr varnish :*
60. Type of professionally applied fluoride for mentally retarded pt.:

OR flouride application for mentally retarded p.t:
1. Neutral sodium fluoride.
2. Stannous fluoride.
3. Acidulated fluoride solution.
4. Fluoride varnish. ***
61. Fluoride decreases dental caries by remineralization of enamel:

a.
b.
True. ***
False.
62. Person drinking fluoridated water, using toothbrush with fluoride, rinsing
with fluoride mouthwash, then no need to put pit and fissure sealants in his
permanent teeth:
a.
True.
b.
False. ***
63. Dental fluorosis:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Is indicative of systemic fluorosis. ***

Can be contracted at any age.
Becomes less noticeable with age.
Is reversible.
Is largely preventable.
64. Fluorides are most anticaries effective when:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Incorporated in the tooth enamel. ***

Present in the blood stream.
Present in the plaque and tissue fluids bathing the newly erupted tooth.
Present in the ingested foods.
Present on the intraoral mucous membranes.
65. Fluoride is not taken up systemically from which of the following sources:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Water.
Food.
Dentifrices. .
Topical applications of fluoride. ***.
66. Fluoride reduces caries activity by:
a. Reduces bacterial adhesion and carbohydrate storage (antimicrobial

activity). .
b. Enhances the precipitation of insoluble fluoroapitite into the tooth
structure. .
c. Fluoride enhances remineralization of the noncavitated carious lesions.
.
d. All of the above.
e. b & c. ***
Dental decks 2228 :
Dental decks 2232
. *
67. Optima water fluoridation:

a) 1-1.5 mg\liter. ***
b) 0.2-0.5 mg\liter.
C) 2-3 mg\liter

a) 1 mg\liter. ***
C) 2-3 mg\liter
d) 0.5 mg\liter

a) 0.5 0.8 mg\liter. ***
C) 2-3 mg\liter
d) 1-5 mg\liter
Oxford Handbook of Clinic Dentistry 5Ed 2009 Page 30-31
Sturdevant's Art & Science of Operative Dentistry 6Ed 2013 Ch2 - Fluoride
Exposure
The optimal fluoride level for public water supplies is 0.7 milligrams of
fluoride per liter of wate
(. )1mg/liter 1.2ppm-1-0.7
. *
45 :
70. Acidulated phosphate fluoride (APF):

a- 1% fluoride ions
b- 1.23%. ***
(F = 12.3 mg/ml)
c- 2%.
d- 2.23%.
Oxford Handbook of Clinic Dentistry 5Ed 2009 Page 29
71.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Actual destruction of micro-organisms in the root canal is attributed

mainly to:
Proper antibiotic thereby.
Effective use of medicament.
Mechanical preparation and irrigation of the canal. ***
None of the above.
72. A tooth very painful to percussion, doesnt respond to heat, cold or the
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
electric pulp tester. The most probable diagnosis is:

OR
20 years old male pt. came with severe pain on chewing related to lower
molars. Intraoral examination reveals no caries, good oral hygiene, no
change in radiograph. Pt. gives history of bridge cementation 3 days ago.
Diagnosis:
Reversible pulpitis.
Irreversible pulpitis.
Acute apical periodontitis. ***
Pulp Necrosis.
None of the above
73. During post insertion examination of a 3 unit ceramometal fixed partial

denture. One of the retainers showed chipping of porcelain at the
ceramometal junction. In order to avoid the problem the dentist must:
a.
Reduce the metal to 0.3 mm.
b.
c.
d.
Have uniform porcelain thickness.

Have occlusion on metal.
Keep porcelain metal junction away from centric contacts. ***
74. What is a Pier abutment?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Single tooth holding one pontic.

A tooth that supports a removable partial denture.
All of the above.
None of the above. ***
75. A pier abutment is :

a.
b.
c.
d.
Periodontally weak abutment.

Edentulous space on both sides of the abutment. ***
Edentulous space on one sides of the abutment.
Abutment tooth away from the edentulous space.
76. Which are the ways in which the proximal contacts can be checked?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Use a pencil.
Use a shim stock.
Use a silicone checker.
Use a dental floss.
Only b & d. ***
77. The incisal reduction for a metal ceramic restoration should be:
a.
1.5 mm.
b.
2 mm. ***
c.
3 mm.
d.
4 mm.
Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics
78. The occlusal reduction for an all metal veneer crown should:
a.
Be as flat as possible to enable an easy fabrication of occlusion anatomy.
b.
Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance rating from 1 to 1.5 mm .
with the opposing dentition. ***
c.
Follow the occlusal morphology with a clearance of no more than 0.5 mm
with the opposing dentition.
d.
Be the last step in the tooth preparation.
79. Gingival retraction is done:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
To temporarily expose the finish margin of a preparation.

To accurately record the finish margin of a portion of uncut tooth surface
apical to the margin in the final impression.
Even in the presence of a gingival inflammation.
By various methods but the most common one is the use of retraction
cord.
a and b.
a, b and c.
g.
a, b and d. ***
80. Regarding tissue retraction around tooth:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
Short duration of retraction of gingival margin during preparation of

finishing line.
Retraction of gingival margin during taking final impression to take all
details of unprepared finish line.
Usually retracted severely inflamed gingival margin.
Retraction of gingival margin can be done by many ways one of them is
retraction cord.
a, b and c.
b, c and d.
a and d. ***
81. Loose enamel rods at the gingival floor of a class II amalgam cavity should
a.
b.
c.
d.
be removed using :
Straight chisel.
Hatchet.
Gingival curetla.
Gingival marginal trimmer. ***

Art and science of operative dentistry 2000 page 315
82. Removal of undermined enamel in Class II cavity is done by :

A) Chisel. *** ( Binangled chisel )
B) Angle former
C) Excavator
83. Hand instrument which we used to make internal angles retentive grooves
and preparation of cavity walls in the cavity is:
Angle former. *** (To shape line and point angels inter a cavity giving
retention)
b.
Chisel
c.
File
d.
Enamel hatched
a.

FUNDAMENTALS OF OPEERITIVE DENTISTRY page 318
84. What is the cavo-surface angle of prep. for amalgam restoration:

a.
b.
c.
d.
30 degree
60 degree
90 degree ***
130 degree.
Principles of OPERATIVE DENTISTRY
. 90 - 70 *
.
85. To provide maximum strength of amalgam restoration the cavo-surface

1.
angles should:
Approach 75
with outer surface.
2.
Approach 90 with outer surface.
3.
4.
a)
Be supported by sound dentine.

Be located in area free of occlusal stress.
2+3+4. ***
86. Which of the following materials has been shown to simulate reparative
a.
b.
c.
d.
dentine formation most effectively when applied to the pulpal wall of a very
deep cavity:
Copalite varnish.
Calcium hydroxide preparation. ***
Zinc phosphate cement.
Anhydrous class inomer cement.
87. Calcium hydroxide is best pulp capping material because:

1.
2.
3.
It has best seal over pulp.

It is alkaline + less irritating to pulp.
It induces reparation dentine formation. ***
88. patient came to dentist after previous stressful procedure complaining of

burning & discomfort of his lip on examination u found lesions on the palate,
diagnosis is:
- contact dermatitis
- allergy
- aphthous ulcer
- herpes simplex ( herpetic gingivostomatitis ) ***
89. patient came to you with multiple vesicles on the attached gingiva in the
a.
b.
c.
d.
area of upper anteriors after having extensive dental treatment the day
before, what is the possible cause of the ulcers?
recurrent aphthous ulcer
recurrent herpes gingivostomatitis***
allergic stomatitis
mucositis
90. Aphthous ulcer, compared with herpes ulcer is:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
* Compared to herpetic ulcers, aphthous ulcers are:

More characteristic in histology.
Leaves scar.
Less response to stress.
Small size
Occurs in lining mucosa. ***
91. Syphilis first appearance:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Multiple vesicle.
Erythematous reaction.
Ulcer. ***
Bullae.
92. Child with vesicles on the hard palate with history of malaise for 3 days
what is the possible diagnosis:
1/ herpes simplex. ***
2/ erythema multiform
140
herpes simplex ) (
93. Which virus is present in the patient's mouth all his Life?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Herpes Simplex
Herpes zoster
Varecilla Virus
None of the above ***
* Herpes Simplex: Cold sores are caused by Herpes Simplex Virus.Once

infected, they plague ) ( the patients body for life.
.Herpes Simplex (HSV1) * ) (
94. Clinical failure of the amalgam restoration usually occurs from:

a.
b.
c.
d.
Improper cavity preparation.

Faulty manipulation.
Both of the above***
None of the above
95. It has been proven that amalgam restoration has the following
a.
b.
characteristics:
Micro leakage decrease with aging of the amalgam restoration.
It is the least techniques sensitive of all current direct restorations.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
High dimensional changes.

a, b and c.
a and c.
a and b. ***
b only.
Art and science of operative dentistry 2000, Page 156 - 169
96. When polishing the amalgam restoration:

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste.

Wait 24 hours.
a and b. ***
b only.
a only.
97. Maximum time elapsed before condensation of amalgam after titration:

a.
b.
c.
1minute.
3minutes. ***
9minutes.
98. After amalgam titrations, the mix should be placed within :

a.
b.
c.
d.
1 min.
3 min. ***
5 min.
10 min.
99. MOD amalgam restoration with deep mesial box, Pt. come with pain
a.
b.
c.
d.
related to it after 1 month due to:

Pulp involvement. ***
Supraocclusion.
Upon contact.
Gingival recession.
100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reduction in amalgam restoration should be:

1 - 1.5 mm.
1.5 - 2 mm. ***
2 - 3 mm.
3 - 5 mm.
Art and science of operative dentistry 2000, page 659
101.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Depth of amalgam restoration should be:

1 1.5 mm.
1.5 2 mm. ***
2 3 mm.
3 5 mm.
102.
Silicate cement:
a.
b.
c.
d.
First tooth colored restoration.

It can be used as permanent filling.
It contains 15 % fluoride.
a and c. ***
Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry page 475
Silicate cement is the first translucent filling material, was introduced in
1878 by Fletcher in England.
dental material & thier selection2002
% 25 -12
Dental Decks part2 2007-2008 - page2066
ZOE,reinforced ZOE, ZOE-EBA, Silicate and zinc phosphate cements are no
longer used as permanently cement restorations .
103.
a.
b.
c.
Treatment of gingival trauma from faulty oral hygiene is mainly:

To advice the patient to change their faulty habits immediately ***
Reassure the patient that it will disappear by it self.
To buy a new brush.
104.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following statement is true regarding dental calculus:

It is composed entirely of inorganic material.
It is dens in nature and has a rough surface.
It is mineralized dental plaque.
All of the above.
b & c only. ***
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Overhanging restoration margins should be removed because:

It provides ideal location for plaque accumulation.
It tears the gingival fibers leading to attachment loss.
Stimulate inflammatory reaction directly.
Its removal permits more effective plaque control.
a & d. ***
106.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Main use of dental floss:

Remove calculus.
Remove over hang.
Remove bacterial plaque.
Remove food debris.
107.
What is the benefit of rinsing the mouth with water:

A) Plaque removal
B) calculus removal
C) washing the food debris. ***
108.
a.
b.
What is the benefit of rinsing the mouth with water:
Plaque removal
Prevent the formation of plaque.
c.
Dilute the concentration of bacteria
109.
The water rins devices for periodontal therapy has a main goal which
is:
a- remove plaque
b- prevent plaque attachment
c- dilute bacterial toxin
d- remove dental pocket
110.
One of these is less exposed to extensive dental caries:

a- Obes, malnourished
b- Pt. has xerostomia
c- Less plaque score. ***
111.
Calculus induces further periodontal lesion due to:

a) Directly stimulates inflammation
b) more plaque adhere to it. ***
c) irritate the gingiva
112.
Missing lower six and tilted 7:

a- Uprighting of molar by orthodontics. ***
b- Proximal half crown.
c- Telescope crown.
d- Non rigid connector.

Oxford handbook, 3rd edition, page 303
113.
Floss used to:

a. Remove interproximal plaque. ***
b. Remove overhangs.
c. Stimulate gingival.
114.
Plaque consists of:

a. Bacteria
b. Inorganic material
c. Food
115.
a.
b.
c.
d.
To prevent perio problem, most effective method is:

Community program.
Removal of plaque. ***
Patient education.
Water floridation
116.
Length of pins must be equals in both tooth and restoration by a

depth of:
a.
1 mm.
b.
2 mm. ***
c.
d.
3 mm.
4 mm.
117.
a.
b.
Calcium channel blockers cause increase saliva secretion:
True.
False. ***
118.
a.
b.
c.
RCT contraindicated in:

Vertical fracture of root. ***
Diabetic Pt.
Periodontally involved teeth.
119.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What can we use under composite restoration:

Ca (oh). ***
ZOE.
ZINC phosphate cement.
a and c
120.
Gutta percha contains mainly:

a. gutta percha 20%.
b. zinc oxide 66%. ***
121.
a.
b.
Component of gutta percha:

50% Gp & 50% ZOE.
20% Gp & 70% ZOE. ***
Cohen's Pathway of The Pulp 10th Ed 2011, Page 363
Gutta percha cones consist of :
Matrix Gutta percha: 20%
filler Zinc oxide: 65%
Radiopacifier heavy metal sulfates: 10%
Plasticizer waxes and resins: 5%
Ingles Endodontics 6Ed 2008, Page 1020
G.P: 18-22%
Zinc oxide filler: 59-76%
Radiopacifier heavy metal sulfate: 1-18%
Plasticizer wax & resins: 1-4%
122.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Single rooted anterior tooth has endodontic treatment is best

treated by: (If a substantial amount of coronal structure is missing)
Casted post and core. ***
Performed post and composite.
Performed post and amalgam.
Composite post and core
123.
Post fracture decreases with:

prefabricated post
ready made post
casted post. ***
metal post
124.
Teeth with RCT and you want to use post, which post is the least
cause to tooth fracture :
1. Ready made post.
2. Casted post.
3. Fiber post. ***
4. Prefabricated post.
Single rooted

125.
During post removal the first thing to do is:

A) Remove the G.P
B) Remove all the old restoration, undermined enamel & caries. ***
C) Insertion of post immediately
126.
For root canal treated tooth u choose to put post & amalgam this
depends on:
1. Remaining coronal structure.***
2. Root divergence.
3. Presence of wide root.
4. Others
127.
Post length increasing will:

increase retention. ***
increase resistance.
increase strength of restoration.
128.
a.
b.
c.
For post preparation we should leave mm of GP:
2mm
10mm
5mm. ***
( 4 5 mm. )
Post and core - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia :
129.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following endodontic failure may be retreated only with

surgery:
Missed major canal.
Persistent interappointment pain.
Post and core. ***
Short canal filling.
130.
a.
b.
Which of the following failure may be treated nonsurgically:

Post filling that has removed. ***
Severe apical perforation.
c.
Very narrow canal with a periapical lesion and the apex can not be
reached.
d.
None of the above.
131.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
In post and core preparation must:

Extend to contrabevel.
Extend to full length tooth preparation.
Take same shape of natural tooth.
Take shape of preparation abutment.
a & d. ***
a & b.
d & c.
b & c.
132.
a.
b.
c.
After RCT, for insertion of post dowel:

Post applied pressure.
Post should be lose.
Insert it without pressure but with retention. ***
133.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Amount of GP should after post preparation:

1 mm.
4-5 mm.
10 mm.
None of the above.
134.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
Post retention depends on:

Post length.
Post diameter.
Post texture.
Core shape.
Design of the preparation.
a and b
a, b and c.
All of the above.
135.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The best restoration for max. central incisor that has received RCT
through conservatively prepared access opening would be:
Post-retained metal-ceramic crown.
Post-retained porcelain jacket crown.
Composite resin. ***
None of the above.
136.
One of anatomical land marks ( in determining the posterior

occlusal plane during denture construction ) is :
a.
Ala tragus line. ***
b.
Ala orbital.
c.
Frank fort plane.
137.
The PH of the calcium hydroxide is:

5.5
7.5
12 *** (12.5)
19
a.
b.
c.
d.
138.
Hyperemia results in:

Trauma of occlusion.
Pain of short duration.
Radiographic changes.
All of above.
a.
b.
c.
d.
139.
Tooth had trauma resulted in hyperemia?

a) pain increased with cold
b) reverible condition
c) pain of short duration
d) b and c
e) all
140.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The x- ray of choice to detect the proximal caries of the anterior
teeth is:
Periapical x-ray.
Bitewing x-ray.
Occlusal x-ray.
None of the above.
141.
In primary teeth, pathologic changes in radiographs are always seen
in:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Periapical area.
Furcation area. ***
Alveolar crest.
At base of developing teeth.
142.
Pulpities in decidous teeth in radiograph seen related to

a.furcation. ***
b.apex of root
c.lateral to root
143.
1.
2.
3.
In deciduous tooth the first radiographic changes will be seen in:

Bifurcation area.
Apical area.
External root resoption.
*
( External root resoption (
144.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Eruption cyst "Eruption hematoma" can be treated by:

No treatment. ***
Immediate incision.
Complete uncoverage
Observe for one week then incise
Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlation,3rd Ed, Page 296

No treatment is needed because the tooth erupts through the lesion.
145.
a.
b.
c.
d.
After trauma a tooth becomes yellowish in color, this is due to:

Necrotic pulp.
Pulp is partially or completely obliterated.
Hemorrhage in the pulp.
Principles and Practice of Endodontics (Torabinejad) Page 45
yellowish= pulp stone , partial or complete obliteration
Red = haemorrhage
gray = necrosis
146.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Step deformity of the mandibular body fracture may due to:

Forward pull of lateral pterygoid muscle.
Upward pull of masseter and temporalis. ***
Toward pull of medial pterygoid muscle.
Downward pull of geniohyoid and myalohyoid.
147.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the copper ratio that eliminates gamma phase 2:

2% copper
4% copper
10 % copper
13 % copper ***
148.
abcd-
To prevent discoloration under amalgam filling:

use Zn phosphate box
use cavity varnish. ***
(to prevent mercury leakage to dentin tubuls)
wash the cavity with NaOCL b4 filling
use the correct amalgam-alloy ratio
149.
a.
b.
c.
Inorganic materials in bone compromise:

65%. ***
25%
10%
d.
95%
150.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Polishing bur have:

Less than 6 blades.
6-7 blades.
10-12 blades.
More than 12 blades. (Carbide bur blades)
151.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pain during injection of local anesthesia in children could be

minimized by:
Slowly injection.
Talking to the child during injection.
Using long needle.
a and b. ***
152.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Rubber dam is contraindicated in:

OR With children rubber dam not use with:
Pt. with obstructive nose. ***
Mentally retarded Pt.
Handicapped and Uncooperative child.
Patient with fixed orthoappliance.
Hyperactive patient
a and b.
153.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most common type of biopsy used in oral cavity is:

Excisional biopsy.
Incisional biopsy. ***
* Also called : traditional or conventional biopsy.
Aspiration through needle.
Punch biopsy.
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry 5th Ed 2009, Page 373
the common type is Incisional biopsy e.g. Fine-needle aspiration, punch
biopsy and Trephines, True cut needle aspiration.
154.
a.
b.
c.
In maxillary 1st molar 4th canal is found in:

MB canal. ***
DB canal.
Palatal root.
155.
a.
b.
c.
Formocresol used in:

Full concentration.
5th concentration.
One fifth concentration. ***
156.
a.
b.
c.
5/1 :
Formocresol when used should be:

Full Saturated.
Half saturated.
Fifth saturated.
d.

Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent 9Ed 2011 (McDonald)- Page 352
Formocresol 1:5 concentration is a safer medicament
Cohen's Pathway of the pulp 10Ed 2011, Page 824-826
Application of 1:5 dilute formocresol solution for 5 minutes
Application of 15% ferric sulfate solution for 15 seconds
Application of Mineraltrioxide aggregate MTA
Formulation of a One-Fifth Dilution
of Formocresol Solution
1 part Buckleys formocresol solution is mixed with:
1 part distilled water and 3 parts glycerin.
Formulation of Full-Strength Buckleys Formocresol
Formaldehyde 19%
Tricresol 35%
Glycerin 15%
Water 31%
157.
10 years old child presents with bilateral swelling of submandibular

area, what could be the disease:
a.
Fibrous dysphasia.
b.
Cherubism ***
c.
Polymorphic adenoma.
White and pharaoh,oral radiology principles and interpretation,4th,462
Cherubism : the most common presenting sign is a painless, firm, bilateral
enlargement of the lower face.
It develops in early childhood.
158.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pt. complains from pain in 45 which had gold onlay. The pain could
be due to:
Chemicals from cement.
High thermal conductivity of gold. ***
Related to periodontal ligament.
Cracked tooth or fractured surface.
159.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The irrigation solution is good because:

Lubricate the canals.
Flushes the debris.
None of the above.
http://medind.nic.in/eaa/t03/i2/eaat03i2p19.pdf
160.
a.
b.
Which is most common:

Cleft lip.
Cleft palate.
c.
Bifid tongue.
d.
Cleft lip and palate. ***
(Most common & most complicated)
Petersons Oral & Maxillofacial, surgery page 841
Clefts of the upper lip and palate are the most common major congenital
craniofacial abnormality.
Atlas of Oral Diseases in Children
Cleft lip and palate are more common together than is cleft lip alone.
161.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Which cranial nerve that petrous part of temporal bone houses:
OR
Pass throw parotid gland:
OR
The nerve which supplies the tongue and may be anesthetized during nerve
block injection:
V.
(5 = Trigeminal n).
VII. (7 = Facial n). ***
X.
(10 = Vagus n.(
VIII. (8 = Vestibalcochealer n).
IX.
(9 = Glossopharyngeal n).
XII
(12= Hypoglossal n).
Dental decks 1904
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Facial_nerve
If needle placed too posteriorly, anaesthetic may be put into parotid gland
(dangerous systemic effects) or paralyse facial N. , resulting in Bells Palsy.like symptoms
If needle placed too medially, medial pterygoid muscle can be injected,
.resulting in trismus
The sphenomandibular ligament is most often damaged in an inferior
alveolar nerve block
162.
a.
b.
c.
21 years old Pt. with pathological exposure in 35. Management:

Direct pulp capping.
Indirect pulp capping.
Root canal treatment. ***
163.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hypercementosis:
Occur in Pajet disease.
Difficult to extract.
Bulbous root.
All the above. ***
Dental secrets page 256
Hypercementosis increases the difficulty of tooth removal.
164.
a.
b.
c.
For onlay preparation, reduction of functioning cusp should be:

1.5 mm. ***
2 mm.
1 mm.
Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics + Dental Decks - page 2122
165.
a.
b.
c.
Thickness of porcelain should be:

0.3 - 0.5 mm.
0.05 - 0.15 mm.
0.5 - 1.5 mm. ***

The necessary thickness of the metal substucture is 0.5 mm.
The minimal porcelain thickness is 1.0 - 1.5 mm.
:
166.
Thickness of porcelain should be:

a.
0.3 - 0.5 mm.
b.
0.05 - 0.15 cm. *** = 0.5 1.5 mm.
*
.
c.
0.5 - 1.5 cm.
167.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Class II composite resin is lined by:

G.I. ***
Reinforced ZOE.
ZOE with epoxy cement.
Cavity varnish.
168.
a.
b.
Occlusal plane is:

Above the level of the tongue.
Below the level of the tongue. ***
mcqs in Dentistry
the tongue rests on the occlusal surface
169.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1.
2. ***
5.
7.
170.
a.
b.
c.
Lateral pterygoid muscle has how many origin:
Embryo becomes fetus in:

1st week
1st month.
2nd month.
d.
3rd month. ***
171.
a.
b.
c.
d.
All are single bone in the skull EXCEPT:

Lacrimal. ***
Occipital.
Sphenoid.
Parietal.
172.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The scientific evidence in dictating that oral lichen planus is a

"premalignant lesion" is:
Very strong
Non-existent
Moderately strong
Weak. ***
Rare malignant transformation ( 0.5 3% ) .
173.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Oral lesions of lichen planus usually appear as:

White striae. *** " Wickham striae"
Red plaque.
Shallow ulcers.
Papillary projections.
Builae.
174.
The oral lesions of the lichen planus:

Are usually painful.
Rarely appear before lesion elsewhere on the body.
May be part of a syndrome in which lesions also appear on the skin,
conjunctiva and genitalia. ***
d.
Often appear in nervous, high-strung individuals.
e.
Heals with scarring.
a.
b.
c.
175.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
All of the following are oral features of acquired immunodeficiency

syndrome AIDS EXCEPT:
Candidiasis.
Erythema multiform. ***
Hairy leukoplakia.
Rapidly progressing periodontitis.
Kaposi's sarcoma.
) ( Erythema multiform Non of the
above
176.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Hairy trichoglossia may be caused by:

Broad spectrum antibiotic.
H2O2 mouth wash. (Hydrogen peroxide = (H2O2) )
Systemic steroid.
Heavy smokers.
"Dental Secrets 2Ed" :

.
177.
a.
b.
c.
d.
In hairy tongue, which taste buds increase in length:

Filli form. ***
Fungi form.
Foliate.
Circumvallates.
178.
a.
b.
c.
Coronal suture is between:

Occipital and temporal bone.
Frontal and parietal bones. ***
Occipital and tympanic bone.
179.
a.
b.
c.
During instrumentation, sudden disappear of root canal due to:

Bifurcation of main canal. ***
Apical perforation.
Calcification.
Dental decks 154
180.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Space loose occurs in:

Proximal caries.
Early extraction.
Ankylosis.
181.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the number of pharyngeal "branchial" arches:
4.
5.
6. ***
7.
"Anatomy of the Human Body " :
182.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the name of first pharyngeal "branchial" arch:

Maxillary.
Mandibular. ***
Thyroid
hyoid
183.
Stomodeum and fugi separated by:

1/ buccopharyngeal arch.
( buccopharyngeal membrane ).
2/ ectodermal cleft
*The stomodeum is separated from the anterior end of the fore-gut by the
buccopharyngeal membrane.
184.
In cavity preparation, the width of the cavity is:
a.
b.
c.
1/2 inter cuspal distance.

1/3 inter cuspal distance. ***
2/3 inter cuspal distance.
185.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Polyvinyl siloxanes compared with polysulfide:

Can be poured more than once.
Can be poured after 7 days.
Less dimensional stability.
a and b. ***
186.
The most accurate impression material for making impression of an

oral cavity is:
The best material for taking impression for full veneer crowns:
a- Irreversible hydrocolloid (Alginate) (the least accurate imp. mat.).
b- condensation type silicon.
c- polyvinyl siloxanes. *** (Addtional silicon type)
d- poly sulfide.
187.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hand over mouth technique is used in management of which child:

Mentally retarded.
Positive resistance.
Uncooperative.
Hysterical. ***
188.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pits and fissures sealants are indicated in:

Deep Pits and fissures.
Newly erupted teeth.
Proximal caries.
a and b. ***
189.
Pit and fissure sealants are indicated to prevent dental caries in pits
and fissures:
a.
In primary teeth
b.
In permanent teeth
c.
a & b. ***
190.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The rationale for pit-and-fissure sealants in caries prevention is that
they:
Increase the tooth resistance to dental caries.
Act as a barrier between the sealed sites and the oral environment. ***
Have anti-microbial effect on the bacteria.
None of the above answers is correct.
191.
a.
Teeth that have lost pits and fissure sealant show:

The same susceptibility to caries as teeth that have not been sealed.
b.
c.
d.
Higher susceptibility than non sealed teeth.

Lower susceptibility than non sealed teeth. ***
The same susceptibility as teeth with full retained sealant.
Primary Preventive Dentistry - 6th Ed (2004)
Teeth that have been sealed and then have lost the sealant have had fewer
lesions than control teeth.This is possibly due to the presence of tags that
are retained in the enamel after the bulk of the sealant has been sheared
from the tooth surface. When the resin sealant flows over the prepared
surface, it penetrates the finger-like depressions created by the etching
solution. These projections of resin into the etched areas are called tags.
192.
20 yr old p.t all his first molars carious and suspected pit and fissure
areas of the second molars. Treatment plan:
a. Restore all first molars and observe second molars.
B. Restore all first molars and topical fluoride on second molars.
C. Restore all first molars and seal pits and fissures of second molars. ***
d. Restore first and second molars with composite.
E. Restore first and second molars with amalgam.
193.
Most tooth surface affected by caries:

a) Pit and fissure. ***
b) Root surface.
C) Proximal surface.
194.
Pit & fissure least effective with:

a/ tweny-four month year.
( 2 years ).
b/ primary molar.
c/ 2nd primary molar.
d/ 5 years old child.

*Age range for application of pit and fissures sealants is as follows :
3-4 years of age for the primary molar

6-7 years of age for first permanent molar
11-13 years of age for second permanent molars and the premolars.
195.
Procedure done before applying pit & fissure sealant:

a- Acid etch by phosphoric acid. ***
b- floride
Dental Decks - Page 2224
196.
Success of pit & fissure sealants is affected mainly by:

1) increased time of etching
2) contamination of oral saliva. ***
3) salivary flow rate.

4) proper fissure sealant.
197.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Management of knife edge ridge in complete denture:

Reline with resilient material.
Maximum coverage. ***
Wide occlusal label.
All of the above.
Dental Decks
198.
a.
b.
c.
The antibiotic of choice in pregnant:

Metronidazole.
Penicillin. ***
Tetracycline.
199.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Verrucous carcinoma:
Malignant. ***
Benign.
Hyperplastic
Non of above
200.
a.
b.
c.
Suture commonly used in oral cavity:

Black silk. ***
Cat gut.
Chromic.
The most commonly used suture for oral cavity is 3-0 black silk.
201.
a.
b.
In combined endo-perio problem:

Start with endodontic IX. ***
Start with periodontic IX.
202.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tooth fracture during extraction may be occur due to:

Non vital tooth.
Diabetic Pt.
Improper holding by forceps.
a and c. ***
203.
a.
b.
c.
Caries consists of:

Bacteria. ***
Fluid.
Epithelial cells.
204.
a.
b.
c.
Amount of reduction in PFM crown: porcelain fused to metal

1.5 - 2. ***
1.7 - 2.
2 - 5.
205.
a.
b.
c.
d.
AH26 is root canal sealer consists of:
ZOE.
Epoxy resin. ***
Steroids
all of the above
206.
Patient comes to your clinic complaining that the denture become

tight, during examination you notice nothing, but when the patient stand you
notice that his legs are bowing (curved). What you suspect:
OR
Pt. came with prominence in the forehead and the potassium sulfate level
increased with curved legs and enlarged mandible and maxilla:
Hypercementosis and ankylosis are seen in:
A)
Pagets disease. ***
B)
monocytic fibrous dysplasia.
C)
hyperparathirodism.
207.
The most prevalent primary molar relationship:

a- Flush terminal plane. ***
b- mesial step terminal plane.
c- distal step terminal plane.
208.
a.
b.
c.
In primary teeth. The ideal occlusal scheme is:

Flush terminal.
Mesial step. ***
Distal step.
209.
a.
b.
When you give a child a gift for a good behavior this is called:
Positive reinforcement. ***
Negative reinforcement.
210.
In distal extension RPD. during relining, occlusal rest was not

seated:
a.
Remove impression and repeat it. ***
b.
Continue and seat it after relining.
c.
Use impression compound.
211.
After taking alginate impression:
a.
b.
Wash with water and spray with sodium hydrochloride for 10 sec.
Same but wait 5-10 min. and then put in sealed plastic bag. ***
212.
a.
b.
Many parts of bones are originally cartilaginous that replaced by
bone:
True. ***
False.
213.
a.
b.
Buccal object role in dental treatment of maxillary teeth:

MB root appears distal to P if cone is directed M to D.
DB root appears mesial to P if cone is directed M to D.
mesial
buccal object distally
lingual object mesially

214.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Occlusal plane should be:

Parallel to interpupillary line.
Parallel to ala tragus line.
At least tongue is just above occlusal plane.
215.
Pt. comes for check up, no complaining, after radiograph u see well
circumscribed radiolucent area related to mandibular molar & the periphery
was radiopaque which not well defined border the diagnosis is:
1. Simple (Traumatic) bone cyst. *** OR Called unicameral bone cyst
216.
Scallopped border above inferior alveolar canal between roots of

mandibular molars, this lesion is:
a)
Solitary cyst.
b)
Aneurysmal bone cyst.
c)
Traumatic bone cyst. *** ( = simple bone cyst = unicameral bone
cyst).
217.
Cyst between roots of mandibular molars, above the mandibular

canal has Scallopped border above inferior alveolar canal, on inspiration
straw like exudate, the teeth were vital, no periodontal involvment this
lesion is:
a. Static bone cyst
b. Stafne bone cyst
c. Aneurismal bone cyst
d. Unicameral bone cyst.***
Unicameral bone cysts = traumatic bone cyst = simple bone cyst =

solitary bone cyst= hemorrhagic bone cyst = progressive bone cyst =
idiopathic bone cyst = Idiopathic bone cavity .
218.
a.
b.
c.
Radiographic radioulucency in the interradicular area:

Invasion of furcation.
Periodontal abcess.
Periodontal cyst.
( radicular cyst ) ( periapical cyst ) .
Oral RadiologyY 5th Ed Page 321
219.
Mental foramen appears in radiograph as radiolucent round area in

the area of:
a.
Mandibular premolars. ***
b.
Mandibular incisors.
c.
Maxillary canine.
220.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Radiographic diagnosis of a well-defined, unilocular radiolucent area

between vital mandibular bicuspias is more likely to be:
Residual cyst.
The mental foramen. ***
A radicular cyst.
Osteoporosis.
None of the above.
221.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which cyst is not radiolucent?

Globulomaxillary cyst.
Follicular cyst.
( = Dentigerous cyst )
Dentigerous cyst.
( = Follicular cyst )
Non of the above.***
All cysts are radiograohically radiolucent.
222.
Cyst in x- ray:
1. Radiolucent with bone expansion.
2. Radiolucent with bone resorption. ***
"MASTER DENTISTRY- Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Radilolgy, Pathology and
Oral Medicine Page 149"
* Cyst growth :
Several mechanisms are described for cyst growth, including:
Epithelial proliferation.
Internal hydraulic pressure.
Bone resorption.
223.
Which of the following lesions has more tendency to show well

defined multilocular radiolucency:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Lateral periodontal cyst.

Squamous cell carcinoma of jaw bones.
Primordial cyst.
Ameloblastoma. ***
Osteomylitis of the mandible.
224.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Radiographic diagnosis of bone destructive in the mandible without

evidence of bone formation is:
Osteomyelitis.
Malignancy. ***
Fracture.
osteoradionecrosis.
225.
A 60 years man has been treated for

a squamous cell
carcinoma by radical radiotherapy. He has a history of chronic alcoholism and
was a heavy smoker. 6 years after treatment, he develops a painful ulcer in
the alveolar mucosa in the treated area following minor trauma. His pain
worsens and the bone became progressively exposed. He is treated by a
partial mandibular resection with graft. The diagnosis is:
a. Acute osteomylitis
b. Gerre's osteomylitis
c. Osteoradionecrosis ***
d. Chronic osteomylitis
226.
Osteoradionecrosis is more in:

a. Maxilla
b. Mandible. ***
c. No difference
227.
Radiographic diagnosis of bilateral expansible radiopaque areas in

the canine premolar region of the mandible is:
a.
Hematoma.
b. Remaining roots.
c.
Tours mandibularis. ***
d. Internal oplique ridge.
e.
Genial tubercle.
228.
a.
b.
c.
In radiographs, which disease causes multiple radiolucencies:

Hypothyroidism.
Hyperparathyroidism. ***
Ricket disease.
229.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The following are multilocular radiolucencies in x-ray EXCEPT:

Ameloblastoma.
Odontogenic keratocyst.
Adenomatoid odontogenic cyst. ***
Myxoma.
230.
33 years old female Pt. comes with slow growing swelling in the
angle of the mandible. Radiograph shows radiopaque with radiolucent border
diagnosis:
a.
Osteoma.
b.
Osteosarcoma.
c.
Cementoblatoma. ***
231.
Female with swelling in left of mandible, slowly increasing,

radiopaque surrounded by radiolucent band:
a. Osteoma.
b. Ossifying fibroma.
c. Cementoblastoma. ***
d. Osteosarcoma.
232.
Patient came to your clinic with severe pain, on x-ray the right side
of the mandible has radiolucency with a radiopaque border that resembles
the sunshine rays. Your diagnosis is :
A) Ossifying fibroma
B) Osteosarcoma. ***
C) Acute osteomyelitis
233.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most common type of malignant bone tumor of the jaws is:
Osteochondrosarcoma.
Osteosarcoma. ***
Leiomyosarcoma.
Chondrosarcoma.
"Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlation "
: Chondrosarcoma
234.
Child 12 years old with swelling in the mandibular premolars area,

first premolar clinically missing, in X-ray examination we found radiolucent is
cover the pericoronal part of the 3rd molar is:
OR
Young pt. came without any complain. During routine X-ray appears between
the two lower molars lesion diameter about 2mm. & extend laterally with
irregular shape. Whats the type of cyst:
OR
Young with swelling in the mandible ( # 6 7 -8) area, 3rd molar clinically
missed, in X-ray examination we found Radiolucent is cover the pericoronal
part of the 3rd molar DIAGNOSIS :
OR
Radiolucent are cover the pericornal part of the 3rd molar is:
1. Dentigerous cyst. ***
235.
Osteomyelitis more common in:

a. Maxilla
b. Mandible ***
c. Zygoma
d. Nasal septum
e. Condyle
236.
Diabetic patient came to clinic with pain, swelling & enlarged

mandible, on radiograph it showed moth eaten appearance, your diagnosis
is:
a) Acute osteomyelitis.
b) Chronic suppurative osteomyelitis.
c) Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis.
d) Diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis. (cotton wool appearance).
237.
Patient suffering from pain in the area of the mandibular molars with
paresthesia ( numbness ) in the lower lip. By clinical and radiographic
examination your diagnosis:
A) Acute osteomyelitis. ***
238.
The x-ray shows scattered radiopaque line in the mandible jaw, the
diagnosis will be:
A- Paget disease. ***
B- Garres syndrome
C- Fibrous dysplasia
D- Osteosarcoma
239.
Pt. came with fracture because of blow in the right side of his face.
He has ecchymosis around the orbit in the right side only and subjunctional
bleeding in the maxillary buccal vestible with limited mouth open what is ur
diagnosis?
A- le fort 1
b- lofort 2
c- lefort 3
D- zygomatic fracture. ***
240.
Moon face appearance is not present in:

a. Le fort I.
B. Le fort II.
C. Le fort III
d. Zygomatic complex. ***
e. Le fort II and Le fort III.
Bhatia's Dentogist : mcqs in Dentistry (Clinical Sciences) with Explanatory

Answers.
241.
Open bite is seen in:

a: lefort 2
b: unilateral condyle fracture
c: bilateral condyle fracture ***
242.
What is the first sign if there is fracture in the face ..
:
1. Fluid paranasal.
2. Diastic suture.
3. Overlap of bone.
4. All the above. ***
243.
a.
b.
c.
By aging, pulp tissue will:

OR Pulp with age:
Decrease collagen fibers.
Increase cellularity and vascularity.
Decrease pulp chamber size. ***
244.
Complete blood count "CBC" is a laboratory test important in

dentistry:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
245.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Diagnosis prior to RCT should always be based on:

Good medical and dental history.
Proper clinical examination.
Result of pulp vitality test.
A periapical radiographs.
246.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the followin used to disinfect gutta percha:

Boiling.
Autoclave.
Chemical solutions "Agents" ***
( Naocl ).
Dry heat sterilization.
247.
abc-
To disinfect gutta percha points use:
H2O2
5.2% Naocl
a&b
Endodontics 4th Ed, Page 126-128

* The primary GP points selected should be sterilized with Naocl, H2O2 or
Chlorhexidine.
248.
Most convenient and effective form of sterilization of dental

instruments:
a. Boiling.
b. Autoclave. ***
249.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The role of good sterilization:

Washing, inspection, autoclave, drying, storage. ***
Inspection, autoclave, drying, storage.
Autoclave, drying, storage.
Autoclave is enough.
250.
Protocol of sterilization:
Initial cleaning, inspection, cleaning, sterilization, storage. ***
251.
Autoclave relative to 100f dry oven:

a) the same time
b) slightly higher time
c) considerable higher time
d) Less time. ***
252.
What is the type of sterizliation applied on ligation/fixation wires:

A) Autoclave. ***
253.
Why the moisture heat sterilization (autoclave) is better than dry

heat sterilization (oven) :
A) Makes the instruments less rusty and blunt
B) Needs more time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane
C) Needs less time and affects the proteins of the cell membrane. ***
254.
AUTOCLAVE PRINCIPLE:
a. Breaks the protein cell membrane at moderately low temp. ***
b. Breaks the protein cell membrane at very high temp.
255.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which one of the following is a disadvantage of autoclaving

endodontics instruments:
It can dull the sharp edges of instruments. ***
All forms of bacteria are not destroyed by it.
Compared to other technique it takes too long to sterilize.
None of the above.
"Dental Secrets"
: ( )
.
256.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The radiographic criteria used for evaluating the success of

endodontic therapy:
Reduction of the size of the periapical lesion. ***
No response to percussion and palpation test.
Extension of the sealer cement through lateral canals.
None of the above.
257.
a.
b.
c.
d.
If the maxillary first molar is found to have four canals, the fourth
canal is likely found:
In the disto-buccal root.
In the mesio-buccal root. ***
In the palatal root.
None of the above.
258.
What is the basis for current endodontic therapy of a periapical
lesion:
Due to rich collateral circulation system, the perpical area usually heals
despite the condition of the root canal.
b.
If the source of periapical irritation is removed, the potential for periapical
healing is good. ***
c.
Strong intracanal medications are required to sterilized the canal and
periapical area to promote healing.
d.
Periapical lesions, especially apical cyst, must be treated by surgical
intervention.
a.
259.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
To enhance strength properties of ceramometal restoration, it is

important to:
Avoid sharp or acute angles in the metal structure.
Build up thick layer of porcelain.
Porcelain should be of uniform thickness and any defect of the preparation
should be compensated by the metal substructure.
Compensate any defect in the preparation equally by porcelain and metal
substructure.
a and b are correct.
a and c are correct. ***
b and d are correct.
Shillingburg 3rd Ed, Page 457
260.
Endodontically treated 2nd maxillary premolar with moderate M & D

caries is best restored by:
OR
The best method to protect teeth that underwent bicuspidization procedure
from fracture:
OR
Old pt. came to replace all old amalgam filling he had sever occlusal
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
attriation the best replacement is:

OR
Female came needing endodontic for central insicor, and has composite
restorations in the mesial and distal walls and has attrition in the insicial
edge the best restoration:
Amalgam.
Composite
3/4 crown.
Full crown. ***
Metal crown.
splint with composite
orthodontic splint
Dental decks page 273
261.
HBV can be transmitted by transplacenta:

True. ***
False.
a.
b.
262.
1.
2.
3.
4.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bleeding of the socket following tooth extraction:

Is always a capillary bleeding in nature.
Takes not less than half day in normal individual.
Is always favorable if it is primary type.
Can be due to the presence of a nutrient vessel.
1 and 2 are correct.
1, 2 and 3 are correct.
1, 3 and 4 are correct. ***
All are correct.
263.
a.
b.
In sickle cell anemia, O2 is decreased in oral mucosa:

True. ***
False.
264.
Destruction of RBC may cause anemia and it is due to defect in cell

membrane:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
265.
a.
b.
Immunofluorecent test and biopsy are used to diagnosis pemphigus:

True. ***
False.
266.
Selection of shade for composite is done:

* Shade guide:
a.
Under light
b.
After drying tooth and isolation with rubber dam.
c.
Dry tooth
d.
None of the above.
267.
Measuring blood pressure is one of vital signs important in medical

compromised:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
268.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Most commonly, after placement of amalgam restoration Pt.

complains from pain with:
*Patient with amalgam usually complains of pain with:
Hot.
Cold. ***
Occlusal pressure.
Galvanic shock.
Sweet.
269.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Management of tuberosity fracture during extraction of maxillary

molar is:
Replace and suture. ***
Remove and suture with primary heal.
Replace and suture intra alveolar by wire.
Remove and leave to heal.
Dental decks 1954
* If the tuberosity is fractured but intact, it should be manually repositioned
and stabilized by sutures.
270.
During maxillary 3rd molar extraction the tuberosity fractured. It

was firmly attached to the tooth and cannot be separated. What is the
management:
a) Remove it with the tooth.
B) Splint the tooth to the 2nd molar then re-extracted after 6 weeks.
C) Suture.
271.
After extraction a molar you found a hard tissue at the furcation like
pearl . what is it:
OR
Tooth # 36 planned to extraction on x-ray no PDL after extraction u found
lesion like pearl on furcation whats the lesion:
a. Enamel pearl***
b. Enostosis
c. Hypercementosis
272.
Microbial virulent produced by root bacteria is collagenase from

spirochete:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
273.
Bacteria in endodontic pathosis mostly is:

Porphyromonas endodontalis obligate anaerobic. ***
Streptococcus mutans.
Streptococcus anaerobic.
a.
b.
c.
274.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Bacteria in root canal pathosis:

Mixed anaerobe and aerobe. ***
Single obligate anaerobe.
Aerobic.
None of the above.
Dental Pulp 2002, Page 294
275.
Calcium hydroxide is used in deep cavity because it is:

Simulate formation of 2nd dentine. ***
Not irritant to the pulp.
For thermal isolation.
a.
b.
c.
276.
Use of miswak and toothbrush:

Toothbrush after meals and miswak at prayer time and when out of home.
a.
***
b.
c.
Miswak and toothbrush must be used together.

Use the miswak only when they can not afford to buy the toothbrush and
toothpaste.
d.
Not use the miswak and use the toothbrush instead.
277.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Oral diaphragm consists mainly of:

Or ( )
Muscle that form floor of the mouth:
Tongue.
Geniohyoid muscle.
Digastric muscle.
Mylohyoid muscle. ***
Prosthodontic Treatment For Edentulous Patients 12Ed 2004, Page 239
278.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Occlusal rest function:

To resist lateral chewing movement.
To resist vertical forces. ***
Stability.
Retention.
279.
The retainer of rubber dam:

OR
In placement of rubber dam:
a) Four points of contact 2 buccally and 2 lingually without rocking. ***
b) 4 points of contact 2 buccally and 2 lingually above the height of contour.
c) 4 points of contact 2 mesially and 2 distally.

d) 2 points one buccally and one lingually
280.
a.
b.
c.
Chronic suppurative periodontitis:

Pt. complains from moderate pain.
Fistula with drain. ***
Pulp polyp is open coronal carious lesion.
281.
a.
b.
c.
Acute periodontal abscess:

Fistula present.
Swelling enlargement in tooth site. ***
None of the above.
282.
Masseter muscle extends from lower border of zygomatic arch to

lateral border of ramus and angel of the mandible:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
283.
Extend of temporalis behind infratemporal fossa of temporal bone

insert in coronoid process:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
284.
a.
b.
Main arterial supply in face is facial artery and superficial temporal
artery:
True. ***
False.
285.
Mandible is the 1st bone calcified in skull but clavicles start first but
in same embryological time:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
286.
a.
b.
Mandible formed before frontal bone:

True.***
False.
287.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Maxilla is formed:
before mandible
same with mandible
slightly after mandible. ***
none of the above
288.
Development of maxillary process and medial frontal process in

medial elongation of central portion:
a.
True.
b.
False. ***
289.
Some bones are formed by endochondral ossification like long bone,

flat bone by intramembranous ossification and some bones by endochondral
and intramembranous ossification:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
Flat bone grows by intramembranous ossification.
Long & short & Irregular bone grow by endochondral ossification
290.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Facial nerve supply:

Masseter muscle.
Temporal muscle.
Buccinator muscle. ***
Mylohyoid muscle.
291.
a.
b.
Muscles of facial expressions are all innervated by facial nerve:

True. ***
False.
292.
Upon giving a lower mandible anaesthesia, you notice the patients

eye, cheek and corner of the lip are uncontrolled , whats the reason :
A) Paresthesia of the facial nerve. ***
293.
While performing cranial nerve examination you notice that the

patient is unable to raise his eyebrows, hold eyelids closed, symmetrically
smile or evert his lower lip. This may indicate:
a. Trigeminal nerve problem.
B. Facial nerve problem.***
C. Oculomotor nerve problem.
D. Trochlear nerve problem.
E. All of the above.
294.
Dentin permeability:
1- decreases with the increase of cavity preparation.
2- Increase when sclerotic dentin develops under a carious lesion.
3- Increase with smear layer.
4- Bacterial toxins can pass through before the actual penetration of
bacteria. ***
295.
1- Decreases with the increase of cavity preparation.
2- Increase when sclerotic dentin develops under a carious lesion.
3- Increase with smear layer.

4- Decrease in prescence of sclerotic dentin under caries lesion.
Art & Science:
Increase with the increase of cavity preparation.
Decrease when sclerotic dentin develops under a carious lesion.
Decrease with smear layer.
296.
Tooth brushing and dental floss help in community prevention of

periodontal disease:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
297.
a.
b.
c.
The most prominent cell in acute inflammation is:

Lymphocyst.
Plasma cell.
PMN. ***
298.
a.
b.
c.
Cell of chronic inflammation:

Lymphocyte. ***
PMN.
Neutrophil.
299.
a.
b.
c.
Dentist must:
Treat Pt. medically.
Prescribe medication to Pt. with medical problem.
Do clinical examination, take medical history and evaluate the medical
state.***
300.
After patient came to your clinic and gave

you the symptoms
and history and complain, whats your next step in treatment :
A) Clinical examination. ***
B) Start the treatment
C) Radiographic examination
D) Restore the teeth
301.
a.
b.
Reparative dentine:
Same like secondary dentine.
Happen as site if irritation. ***
302.
a.
b.
Reparative dentine:
2 dentine.
Formed as dentine bridge above the pulp. ***
nd
c.
d.
Highly tubular dentine and it is detective from 1 st dentine.

Sclerosing dentine with less permeability.
303.
a.
b.
c.
Physiological reaction of edema on vital pulp:

Decrease tissue fluid by decompression of blood vessel.
Increase blood preasure. ***
Necrosis of pulp due to hyperoxia and anaryxia.
304.
Microabscess on vital pulp: starts necrosis of small part and sequela

of destruction cycle and full repair:
a.
True.
b.
False. ***
"Dental pulp 2002 " :
305.
a.
b.
Amalgam tattoo is an oral pigmentation lesion:

True. ***
False.
306.
a.
b.
Oral and perioral cysts formed from epithelial rests of serres:
True.
False. ***
( formed from epithelial rests of malassez ).
307.
Cementum contains cell like bone. It is yellow in color in vital,

extracted or avulsed tooth. But in non vital tooth, its color is dark:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
308.
a.
b.
c.
Dentine composition:
60-65 % inorganic by wgt. ( 70 % inorganic by volume ). ***
25% water by wgt. (13% water by volume).
43% organic by wgt. (20% organic by volume).
309.
The primary direction for spread of infection in the mandible is to

submental lymph node:
a.
True.
b.
False. ***
( submandibular lymph nodes ).
310.
a.
b.
c.
d.
7 days after amalgam restoration Pt. came complaining of pain

during putting spoon on the restored tooth because:
* OR Filling amalgam in the first madibular molar when touch the spoon there
is a pain the reason is:
Broken amalgam.
Galvanic action. ***
311.
a.
b.
DNA only infect human but RNA doesn't infect human:

True.
False. ***
312.
a.
b.
Artificial teeth best to be selected by:

Preextraction cord. ***
Postextraction cord.
313.
a.
b.
c.
In full gold crown, to prevent future gingival recession:

Make the tooth form gold at gingival one third. ***
Make the tooth form gold at gingival one fifth.
Make the tooth form gold at gingival one half.
314.
a.
b.
c.
Subgingival scaling and root planning is done by:

Gracey Curette. ***
Hoe.
Chisel.
315.
Paraesthesia of lower lip after surgical removal of lower 8 is due to

the irritation of inferior alveolar nerve:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
316.
The aim of conditioning agent on dentine before GI cement is to

remove smear layer:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
317.
a.
b.
Compomer releases fluoride as GI :

True.
False. ***
*
.
318.
Barbed broach in endodontic is used for pulp examination in straight

canals:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
319.
a.
b.
Fixed partial prosthesis is more successful in:

Single tooth missing. ***
Multiple missing teeth.
320.
Best pontic is:

Ridge lap.
Hygiene. ***
Saddle.
a.
b.
c.
321.
Pt. feels pain of short duration after class II restoration. Diagnosis
is:
a.
b.
c.
Reversible pulpitis (hyperemia). ***

Periodontitis.
322.
a.
b.
Radiotherapy increases caries by decreasing salivary secration:

True. ***
False.
323.
In the preparation of cavity class II, for restoration with composite

resin all cavosurface angles should be:
a.
Well rounded. ***
b. Right angles.
c.
Acute angles.
d. Obtuse angles.
324.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
A class IV composite resin restoration should be finished with a:

*The best finished composite surface is achieved by:
No. 330 Tungsten carbide bur.
Mounted stone.
12- fluted carbide bur. *** ( Carbid finishing bur ).
Coarse diamond point.
Daimond bur
Matrix band with no additional finish
* The 12-fluted carbide burs have traditionally been used to perform gross
finishing of resin composites.
325.
1.
2.
3.
In class 5 composite restorations a layer of bonding agent is applied:

Following removal of cement then cured. ***
Following removal of cement and not cured.
Cured then remove cement.
326.
a.
b.
After class V GI restoration removal of a thin flush of GI is done by:
Scaller or knife immediately.

Finishing stone immediately.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
Scale or knife later.

Finishing stone later.
a + b.
a + d. ***
a+c
d+c
327.
After class V GI restoration removal of a thin flush of GI is done by:

a. Scaller or knife in the same visit .
b. Finishing stone in the same visit.
c. Scale or knife next visit .
d. Finishing stone next visit.
e. a + b.
f. a + d.
g. b + c .
h. d + c .
328.
After finish class V glass ionomer cement we do finishing with:

1. Pumice slurry.
2. Aluminum-oxide disc.
3
329.
Indirect composite inlay has the following advantages over the

direct composite EXCEPT:
a.
Efficient polymerization.
b. Good contact proximally.
c.
Gingival seal.
d. Good retention. ***
330.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Indirect composite inlay has the following advantages over the

direct composite EXCEPT:
Efficient polymerization.
Good contact proximally.
Gingival seal.
Price. ***
331.
1/
2/
3/
4/
Indirect composite inlay overcomes the direct composite by:

insusffition polymerization
good contact proximaly
gingival seal
good retention
a/ 1-2-4
b/ 1-2-3. ***
c/ 4-3
332.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A glossy finish is best retained on a:

Microfilled composite resin restoration. ***
Macrofilled resin restoration.
Hybrid composite resin restoration.
Fiber reinforced composite resin restoration
Dental decks 2 page 2100

* Microfill (fine particle composite) 0.01 - 0.1 develops the smoothest finish.
Fundamentals of operative dentistry, a contemporary approach, 2nd edition,
Page 237
* Microfilled resin composite can be polished to the highest luster and the
smoothest surface of all the resin composites.
333.
a.
b.
c.
Composite for posterior teeth:

Microfilled + fine filler.
Macroflled + rough filler.
Hybrid + rough filler. ***
334.
a.
b.
Check bite of retainer by:

Paste. ***
Impression.
335.
a.
b.
c.
Mastoid process is a part of:

Temporal bone. ***
Parietal bone.
Occipital bone.
336.
a.
b.
Parotid duct opens opposite in 2nd Mandibular molars:
True.
False. ***
337.
parotid duct is opposite to:

a. maxilary premolar
b. maxilary 1st molar
c. maxilary 2nd molar ***
d. mandibular 1st molar
338.
a.
b.
Palate consists of:

Palatine and sphenoid bone.
Palatine and maxillary bone. ***
c.
Palatine and zygomatic bone.
339.
Hard palate consists of the following:

A. Palatal maxillray process & Ethmoid bone
B. Palatal maxillary process & Sphenoid bone
C. Palatal maxillary process & Palatine bone. ***
D. Palatal maxillary process & Temporal bone
340.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The most important microorganism in dental caries is:

Q:Most common bacteria causing caries:
Q:Organism that initiates caries:
Q:The organism that not found (or rarely found) in newborn mouth:
Q:Baby born without which bacteria:
Q:For a newly erupted tooth, the most bacteria found around the tooth is:
Streptococcus mutant. ***
Streptococcus salivarius.
Spirochaeta.
e-coil.
Skin bacteria.
341.
a.
b.
c.
Emergency endodontic should not be started before:

Establishing the pain.
Check restorability of the tooth.
Establishing the diagnosis. ***
1. * ) (
342.
Selection of type of major connector in partial denture is

determined:
a.
During examination.
b.
During diagnosis and planning. ***
c.
During bite registration.
343.
a.
b.
White polycarbonate are temporary crowns used for anterior teeth:

True. ***
( in deciduous anterior teeth ).
False.
344.
a.
b.
c.
For etching 15 sec. for composite restoration use:

37% phosphoric acid. ***
15% fluoric acid.
3% sulfuric acid.
345.
Nerve impulse stops when injection local anesthesia:
a.
b.
True. ***
False.
346.
a.
b.
c.
The most common benign tumor in oral cavity is:

Fibroma. ***
Papilloma.
Lipoma.
Dental Decks : page 1030-1039

Fibroma: is the most common benign soft tissue tumor seen in oral cavity. It
is characteristically a dome-shaped lesion
347.
a.
b.
Pulp chamber in lower 1st molar is mesially located:

True. ***
False.
"Endodontics Problem solving in clinical practice 2002 " :
348.
a.
b.
c.
Radiopacity at the apex of a tooth with chronic pulpitis:

Condensing osteitis
( chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis ). ***
Cemental dysplasia.
Perapical granuloma.
( radiolucency ).
349.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Patient with radiopacity in the periapical area of 1st mandibular

molar with a wide carious lesion and a bad periodontal condition is:
OR
Radiopacity at the apex of a tooth with deep carious lesion related to lateral
surface of root :
Condensing osteitis ( chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis ). ***
Cemental dysplasia.
Perapical granuloma.
( radiolucency ).
Hypercementosis
350.
a.
b.
c.
Radiopacity attached to root of mandibular molar:

Ossifying fibroma.
Hypercementosis. ***
Periapical cemental dysplasia.
351.
a.
b.
Extra canal if present in mandibular incisor will be:

Lingual. ***
Distal.
"Endodontics Problem solving in clinical practice 2002 " :
% 45 *
. % 60 .
352.
The access opening in lower incisor:
a.
b.
c.
Round.
Oval. ***
Triangular.
353.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The accesses opening for a maxillary premolar is most frequently:

Oval. ***
Square.
Triangular.
None of the above.
354.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The correct access cavity preparation for the mandibular second

molar is:
Oval.
Quadrilateral.
Round.
Triangular.
: .. NBDE part II *
:Upper
central : triangular
lateral: ovoid
canine: ovoid
first premolar: ovoid
second premolar: ovoid
first molar: triangle
second molar triangle
:Lower
central: ovoid
lateral ; ovoid
canine: ovoid
first premolar: ovoid
second premolar : ovoid
first molar: triangle or trapezoid
second molar: triangle or trapezoid
355.
Acute periapical cyst and acute periodontal cyst are differentiated

by:
*We distinguish between periapical and periodontal abscess:
a.
Vitality test. *** (Vitality of the pulp)
b.
Radiograph. (X-Ray examination)
c.
Clinical examination.
356.
a.
b.
c.
Acute periapical abscess associated with:

Swelling. ***
Widening of PDL.
Pus discharge.
357.
a.
b.
The most common cause of endodontic pathosis is bacteria:

True. ***
False.
358.
a.
b.
c.
Palatal canal in upper molars is curved:

Buccally. ***
Palatally.
Distally.
359.
a.
b.
c.
d.
If tooth or root is pushed during surgical extraction into max. sinus:

Leave it and inform the Pt.
Remove it as soon as possible. ***
Follow the Pt for 3 months.
None of the above.
360.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
Difference between Gracey and universal curette:

Section of gracey is hemicircular and in universal triangular.
Gracey has one cutting edge while universal has two.
Gracey used for cutting in specific area while universal is in any area.
Universal 90 not offset, gracey 60 offset.
a and d
a, b and c.
b, c and d.
361.
a.
b.
c.
Cause of fracture of occlusal rest:

Shallow preparation in marginal ridge. ***
Extension of rest to central fossa.
Improper centric relation.
362.
Child came to the clinic with amalgam restoration fracture at

isthmus portion, this fracture due to:
a) Wide preparation at isthmus.
b) High occlusal.
C) shallow preparation. ***
D) Constricted isthmus.
( Constricted = Narrow ).
363.
After class II amalgum fill, broken is happen in isthmus area why:

A. Over high of filling vertically.***
B. Over flair cavosurface angle or edge.

C. Unproper mixed fill.
364.
a.
b.
c.
The cause of fracture in amalgam class II restoration is:

Thin thickness at the marginal ridge. ***
Wide flared cavity.
Deep cavity.
* :
Narrow (constricted ) & deep isthmus preparation and no high
. occlusal amalgam

.isthmus portion
365.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Bridge returns to dentist from lab with different degree of color

although the shade is the same, the cause:
OR
You sent shade of PFM, technician gives you different color with same shade:
Thin metal framework.
Different thickness of porcelain. *** (Not uniform thickness of porcelain)
Thick opaque.
thin opaque.
thick metal.
thin porcelain.
:
Increased porcelain thickness. *** ( or thick porcelain ).
366.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Complete denture poorly fit and inadequate interocclusal relation:

Relining.
Rebasing.
New denture. ***
None of the above.
367.
a.
b.
c.
Small caries confined to enamel:

Preventive measure.
Amalgam filling. ***
Keep under observation.
368.
a.
b.
In enamel caries passing half of enamel:

Leave it.
Restoration. ***
369.
Currently the only effective preventive measure for periodontal

disesse (a part from limited use of antiseptic solutions) is:
a.
Regular and rough removal of dental plaque. ***
b.
Salt flouridation
c.
Dental health education.
370.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Dental caries:
Is a transmissible disease
Is world wide in distribution but uneven in intensity.
Can be prevented
None of the above.
371.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
At which location in enamel is the density of enamel crystals is
lowest:
Prismless enamel.
DEJ. ***
Center of enamel Prisms.
Edge of enamel Prisms.
Facial enamel.
Sturdenvant 4th edition - page 17
* The density of enamel decrases from the surface to the DEJ.
372.
a.
b.
c.
Rampant caries in adult in anterior teeth restored by:

Glass ionomer. ***
ZOE.
Amalgam.
373.
a.
b.
The 1st cervical vertebrae is:

Atlas. ***
Axis.
Atlas 2 - Axis 3 - Longus colli 4 - 5 - 6 - 7- prominens - 1 : *
374.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Most of dentine bonding material need conditioning time:
OR
The ETCHANT of most dentine bonding systems applied for:
15 sec.
30 sec.
40 sec.
60 sec.
375.
Time of curing of dentine:
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
15
30
60
sec.
sec.
sec.
sec.
376.
a.
b.
c.
Light curing time for simple shallow class III composite:

10 sec.
15 sec.
20 sec.
377.
a.
b.
Cartilaginous joints in the body affect bone growth:

True. ***
False.
378.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cavity varnish should be applied at least in:

One layer.
Two layers. ***
Three layers.
Four layers.
379.
a.
b.
c.
Geographic tongue is seen in Pt. with:

Diabetes. ***
Iron deficiency anemia.
Pemphigus.
380.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Geographic tongue is always accompanied in patient with:
Diabetes.
Erythema multiform.
Iron deficiency.
Psoriasis. *** .
burning sensation B
381.
A 21 years old patient who has iron deficiency anemia, difficulty in

swallowing, with examination of barium sulphate, you found:
A. Geographical tongue.
B. Burning mouth syndrome.
C. Plummer vinson syndrome. *** ( Patterson brown Kelly syndrome ).
D. Diabetic patient.
382.
Pt. came to the clinic complaining from soreness in the tongue and
sore throat the diagnosis is:
a) Burning mouth syndrome. *** ( burning tongue syndrome ).
b) Geographical tongue
c) Fissure tongue.
383.
Burning mouth syndrome is a chronic disorder typically

characterized by each of the following EXCEPT:
a.
Mucosal lesion. *** ) (
* Its a mucosal pain not a mucosal inflammation or a mucosal lesion.
b.
c.
d.
Burning pain in multiple oral sites.

Pain similar in intensity to toothache pain.
Persistent altered taste perception.
384.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is the most likely potential cause of BMS

( Burning mouth syndrome ):
:
Denture allergy.
Salivary dysfunction. ( Decreased salivary flow = Xerostomia ).
Neural dysfunction. *** .
Menopausal changes.
Oral and Maxillofacial Medicine 3Ed 2013 Scully, Page 38
http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Burning_mouth_syndrome
385.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following represents the best pharmacologic therapy
for BMS:
Antidepressant agents.
Corticosteroids.
Anxiolytic agents.
There is no therapy of proven general efficacy. ***
386.
Diabetic Pt. with ill fit denture, examination of residential ridge

helps to:
a.
Determine the need for tissue conditioning and surgery. ***
b.
Determine occlusal height.
c.
Determine vertical dimension of occlusion.
387.
Handicapped Pt. with lesion in central nervous system appears to

have different type of disorder in movement and procedure:
a.
Seizure.
b.
Cerebral palsy. ***
c.
Learning disability.
McDonald, 7th Ed, page 585
388.
a.
b.
To obturate the canal the most important step is:

Cleaning and shaping of the canal. ***
Irrigation of the canal.
389.
Aim to shape apical 3rd of the root:

a) widening apex.
b) Permit irrigation to reach apical 3rd. ***
c) permit GP to fill.
d) For good sealer achieve.
( ) . .
390.
a.
b.
c.
The most important in RCT is seal:

Apical 1/3. ***
Middle 1/3.
Cervical 1/3.
391.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
During placement of amalgam pins, the number of pins per cusp is:
pin. ***
pins.
pins.
pins.
392.
a.
b.
c.
The amount of L.A in 2% lidocaine with 1/100000 adrenaline is:

0.01mg.
0.02mg.
36 mg. ***
393.
How many mg. of adrenalin in cartridge 1.8 cc of 2 % Xylocine:

a- 1.8 mg
b- 0.18 mg
c- 0.36 mg
d- 3.6 mg
e- 0.018 mg. ***
394.
a.
b.
c.
What is the amount in mg. in 1.8 ml. of xylocain:

20 mg/ml
1.8 mg/ml
36 mg. ***
395.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most common odontogenic cysts in the jaws are:

The most common endodontic cyst is:
Most common cyst in oral cavity:
Radicular cyst. *** (=periapical cyst =apical radicular (periodontal) cyst).
Peridontal cyst
( = lateral periodontal cyst )
Keratocyst.
Acute apical periodontitis.
396.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
Pt. complains from severe spontaneous pain related to upper 6. It

responds to vitality test no pain on percussion, diagnosis is:
* Pt. comes with pain tooth 3# When drink hot tea. Pain continuous for 10
minutes diagnosis:
* Pt. came with pain awaken her from sleep 20 am. and could'nt sleep later:
* Spontaneous pulpal pain is indicative of:
* Acute exacerbation of chronic pulpitis:
Irreversible pulpitis. ***
Acute apical periodotitis.
Periodontal pain
Neurotic pulp
Atrophic pulp
hyperplastic pulp
397.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most common complication after extraction for diabetic Pt. is:
Infection. ***
Severe bleeding.
Oedema.
All of the above.
398.
a.
b.
c.
Lateral canal is detected by:

Radiograph. ***
Tactile sensation.
By clinical examination.
399.
Contact area is in incisal/occlusal 1/3 in which tooth:

* In which teeth the contact is at the incisal edge:
a.
Mandibular incisors. *** (Lower Ant.Teeth)
b.
Mandibular molars.
c.
Maxillary molars.
400.
a.
b.
c.
Incipient caries is diagnosed by:

Fiber optic light. ***
( and dyes ).
Tactile examination.
X-ray film.
401.
a.
b.
c.
Disinfection of GP is done by:

Autoclave.
Dry heat.
Sodium hypochlorite. ***
402.
a.
b.
c.
Periodontal ligament fibers in the middle third of the root is:

Oblique. ***
Horizontal.
Transeptal.
403.
To detect interproximal caries in primary teeth, the best film is:

a.
Periapical.
b.
Bitewing. ***

.
c.
Occlusal.
404.
a.
b.
c.
Pt. with missing lower right 1st molar for long time you'll find:
Mesial drifting of lower right 2nd molar. ***
Intrusion of upper right 1st molar.
Over eruption of lower right 2nd molar.
405.
a.
b.
c.
Over erupted upper right 1st molar will be managed by: EXCEPT:
Intruded easily orthodontically. ***
Crowing.
Adjustment of occlusion.
406.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
Over erupted upper right 1st molar will be managed by:

Intruded easily orthodontically.
Crowing.
Adjustment of occlusion.
In severe cases may be extracted.
a, b & c
b, c & d ****
a, b & d
a, c & d
407.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Over erupting tooth can be treated by:

Crowning after endo.
Ortho intrusion.
Extraction.
1 and 2.
All the above. ***
408.
a.
b.
c.
Broken instrument during RCT, best prognosis if broken at:

Apical 1/3. ***
Middle 1/3.
Cervical 1/3.
409.
a.
b.
c.
Pulp stone:
Cause discomfort and pain.
Free in pulp chamber. ***
None of the above.
410.
Pulp stone can be the following EXCEPT:

a) present freely in the pulp.
b) Cause discomfort & pain to the patient. ***
c) In radiographs, small spheroidal radiopaque.
d) False stone occurs due to dystrophic dentin.
Pathway of the pulp 9ed 1st part page 219
411.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1.3
1.7
0.8
2.2
The amount of facial reduction in PFM crown:

( 1.5 2 mm. ).
412.
A tooth with 25 degrees inclination could be used as abutment:

True. *** ( 15 - 25 degrees inclination of a tooth can be used as an
abutment ).
b.
False.
a.
413.
Intercellular movement of PMN leukocytes is called migration:

a.
True. ***
b.
False.
414.
a.
b.
In onlay, stopping of cusp is 1.5 - 2 mm.:

True. ***
False.
415.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Among the reasons that molar teeth are more difficult to treat
endodontically than anterior teeth:
Molar have more complex canal configuration.
Molar tend to have greater canal curvature.
a and b. ***
None of the above.
416.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Gingival hyperplasia related to phenytoin therapy is:

Most common on lingual surface.
Most common in older Pt.
Strongly related to phenytoin dosage.
Strongly related to poor oral hygiene. ***
417.
a.
b.
Type I diabetes mellitus can be characterized as:

Non-insulin-dependent.
Adult- onset.
c.
d.
Ketosis-prone. ***
Accompanied by normal cell activity.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Diabetes_mellitus_type_1
418.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following statement is true for the reported

relationship of periodontal disease and diabetes mellitus:
The reported incidence of periodontal disease in the diabetes is less than
that for non diabetic.
Pts. with history of diabetes of less than 10 years have more periodontal
disease destruction than those with history of longer than 10 years.
The prevalence of periodontal disease increases with the advancing age of
the diabetic. ***
The prevalence of periodontal disease increases with the better metabolic
coronal of the diabetic state.
419.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The spontaneous production of an electric current resulting from

two dissimilar metals in the oral cavity is called:
Nuclear reaction.
Galvanic action. ***
Precipitation reaction.
Thermodynamics.
Fission.
420.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The first step in diagnostic work up is obtaining the:

Medical history.
Present complaint. ***
Biographical data.
Restorative history.
Traumatic history.
421.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The
The
The
The
422.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The basic difference between K files and reamers is:

number of spirals or flutes per unit length.
geometric cross section. .
depth of flutes.
direction of the spirals.
In case of traumatic intrusion of young permanent incisor, the

treatment of choice is:
Surgical repositioning of intruded tooth and splinting.
To wait for re eruption of the intruded tooth during months. ***
Slow orthodontic extrusion using light force.
Only antibiotic prescription and wait for eruption. ***
http://www.dentaltraumaguide.org/permanent_intrusion_treatment.aspx
"Dental Secrets"
10
.
antibiotic
423.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Best treatment of choice for carious exposure of a primary molar in

a 3 years old child who complains of toothache during and after food taking:
Direct pulp capping with caoh.
Direct pulp capping with zao paste.
Formocresol pulpotomy. ***
Caoh pulpotomy.
First Aid for the NBDE Part II 2008, Page 181
the reason why pulp capping is not used on primary tooth is the alkaline of
PH of ca(oh)2 or MTA can irritate the pulp and induced internal resorption
but in permanent teeth High PH induces reparative dentine formation.
424.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following statement about the mechanism of action for

denture adhesive is not correct:
It depends in part on physical force and viscosity. ***
Carboxyl group provides bio adhesion.
Greater water solubility increases duration of adhesion.
Zinc salts have been associated with stronger longer adhesion.
.
.
425.
a.
b.
c.
d.
One week after filling of class II restoration, the Pt. presents with a
complain of tenderness on mastication and bleeding from the gingiva. The
dentist should initially:
Check the occlusion.
Check the contract area. ***
Consider the probability of hyperemia.
Explain to the Pt. that the retainer irritated the surrounding soft tissue
and prescribe an analgesic and warm oral rinse.
426.
a.
b.
c.
d.
It is recommended to avoid an intraligamental injection when the

planned dental treatment is:
Pulp extirpation.
Pulpotomy. ***
Full crown preparation.
a and b.
427.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The root canal treated teeth has the best prognosis when the root
canal is instrumented and obturated:
To the radiograph apex.
1 mm. beyond the radiograph apex.
1-2 mm. short of the radiograph apex. ***
3-4 mm. short of the radiograph apex.
"Clinical Endodontics TRONSTAD " :
428.
Which of the following would be clinically unacceptable as a primary

of isolating a tooth for sealant placement:
a.
Cotton roll.
b.
Rubber dam.
c.
Vac-ejector moisture control system.
d.
429.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which one of the following is least likely to contribute to bad oral

breath:
Denture.***
Faulty restoration.
Carious lesions.
430.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of dentinal

hypersensitivity:
It is one of the most successfully treated chronic dental problems. ***
Its prevalence range from 8 to 30 %.
The majority of the Pts. who experience it are from 20 to 40 years of age.
One source of the irritation that leads to hypersensitivity is improper
tooth brushing.
Art and science of operative dentistry 2000 :
* Dentin hypersensitivity is a common clinical condition that is difficult to
treat because the treatment outcome is not consistently successful.
431.
Hypersensitivity is due to:

A- Exposed dentine with opened dentinal tubules. ***
B- Obliterated dentinal tubule.
432.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most common form of oral ulcerative disease is:

HSV.
Major aphthous ulcer.
Bahjet disease.
Minor aphthous ulcer. ***
433.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The majority of primary herpetic infections are:

Symptomatic.
Asymptomatic. *** ( not painful ).
Proceeded by fever.
Accompanied by gingival erythema.
a, c and d.
434.
The function of the anterior teeth is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Disarticulate the posterior teeth.

Incise food. ***
Prevent attrition.
Prevent food impaction.
435.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
In geriatric Pt., cementum on the root end will:

Become thinned and almost non existent.
Become thicker and irregular. ***
Render apex to locater useless.
Often not be seen on the radiograph.
Indicate pathosis.
436.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Tobacco should be considered a risk factor when planning treatment

for Pt. who require:
Implants.
Periodontal surgery.
Oral surgery.
Esthetic treatment.
437.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Pulpal pain may not be referred from:

The right maxilla to the left maxilla. ***
The third molar to the ear.
A max. molar to the sinus.
An incompletely fractured tooth.
A max. cuspid to ear.
438.
a.
b.
c.
Internal Resorption:
Painful.
Seldom differentiated external resorption.
Can occur in primary teeth. ***
439.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Primary teeth had trauma, tooth change in color becomes white

yellowish, what should you tell the parents:
Pulp is dead.
Inflammation of pulp.
Calcification of dentin.
b & c. ***
407 36 " Principles and Practice of Endodontics WALTON " :
440.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Teeth that are discolored as a result of internal resorption of the

pulp may turn:
Yellow.
Dark brown.
Pink. ***
Green.
441.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Treatment of internal resorption involves:

Complete extirpation of the pulp to arrest the resorption process. ***
Enlarging the canal apical to the resorbed area for better access.
Utilizing a silver cone and sealer to fill the irregularities in the resorbed
area.
Filling the canal and defect with amalgam.
Sealing sodium hypochlorite in the canal to remove the inflammatory
tissue necrotic in the area of the resorption.
Clinical Endodontics textbook TRONSTAD page 150
* The treatment of choice is complete extirpation of the pulp to arrest the
resorption process then pack the canal with calcium hydroxide paste. By the
next visit, the calcium hydroxide necrotized any remaining tissues in the
canal and the necrotic remnants are readily removed by irrigation with
sodium hypochlorite and complete RCT.
442.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Sensitivity to palpation and percussion indicates:

Neurotic pulp.
Hyperplastic pulpitis.
Inflammation of the periradicular tissues. ***
443.
Trauma leads to fracture in the root between middle and apical
thirds:
a) Poor prognosis.
b) Good prognosis. ***
* Fracture in the root between middle and apical thirds ( apical third
fractures ) has the best prognosis.
* Fracture in the root between middle and cervical thirds ( coronal third
fractures ) has the poorest prognosis.
444.
Tooth with a fracture between the apical and the middle thirds,
what's your management:
a) RCT for the coronal part only. ***
b) RCT for both.
c) Splint the two parts together.
:126
6-4 :
.
. :
. .
.Fracture of the apical third not need a treatment
Fracture between the middle and apical thirds needs RCT for the coronal part
.only
Fracture between the middle and cervical thirds needs RCT for the coronal
.part only and a splint for 4 6 weeks
445.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Transverse fracture of developing teeth in the mixed dentition can

be managed by:
Forced eruption. ***
Extraction and placement of a removable partial denture.
Placement of single tooth.
All of the above.
446.
Pt. presented to u with trauma of the central incisor with open apex,
clinical examination revealed cut of blood supply to the tooth what is the
next step:
1- extraction.
2- endo.
3- observe over time. *** .
447.
Child came to u with gray discolouration of the deciduous incisor

also on radiographic exam, there is dilation of follicle of the permanent
successor what will u do:
1- Extract the decidous tooth.
2- Start endo.
3- Observe over time
448.
pt. came with class IV he had tooth trauma & he brought the
fracture segment & on examination u found that the pulp is not exposed &
only u can see dentine, how u manage:
A- To get rid of the fragment & fill with composite.
B- To reattach the fragment with composite and later cover with veneer. ***
C- others.
449.
Adult 20 years male with soft tissue & dental trauma reveals severe
pain in soft tissues with loss of epithelial layers and anterior upper centrals
are intruded the diagnosis is:
a- abrasion with luxation
b- errosion with sub luxation
c- Laceration with luxation (traumatic ulceration with luxation) ***
d- ulceration with subluxation
450.
Apexification is procedure that:

a.
Finds the most apical stop of the guttpercha in RCT.
b.
Induces the formation of a mineral barrier in the apical region of
incompletely root. ***
c.
Is new in the endodontic field.
d.
Involves the surgical removal of the apical region of the root and
placement of a retrograde filling material.
451.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The preferred material used in apexification is:

Zinc phosphate cement.
Zinc polycarboxylate cement.
Calcium hydroxide. ***
Dycal.
452.
What is the time between the first onset of HIV virus and the
appearance of acute symptoms :
a) 1-5 years.
b) 9 - 11 years. ***
c) No specific time is known.
453.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
What is the estimated incubation period of HIV infection:
4 weeks.
6 months.
3 years.
6 years.
10 years. ***
454.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hydrogen peroxide is the ideal bleaching agent because:

It bleaches effectively at natural ph.
It bleaches faster than carbamide peroxide.
Protection for sensitive tissues can be incorporated into the hydrogen gel.
455.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The most common cause of the angina is:

Stress.
Renal disease.
Arteriosclerotic plaques of the coronary vessels. ***
Hypoglycemia.
Hypertension.
456.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following drugs is completely effective in eliminating

angina episode:
* completely effective in eliminating = treatment .
Propranolol.
Nifedipine.
Diltiazem. *** . ( )
Transdermal nitroglycerin. *** .
None of the above.
Diltiazem : for treatment .
Transdermal nitroglycerin : for prevention .
457.
a.
b.
c.
d.
CPR :
Is best performed in the dental chair.
Should be performed on all patients experiencing chest pain.
Is more efficient when using a full mask, delivering 100% oxygen than with
the mouth to mouth technique. ***
Is beyond the medico legal responsibility of the practicing dentist.
458.
Which statement concerning sensitive teeth is false:

Small dentin exposure can result in sensitivity.
The extent of dental hard tissue loss always correlates with
a.
b.
sensitivity.
***
c.
d.
A wide variety of clinical condition can cause teeth to become sensitive.

Oral hygiene habits and diet can contribute to clinical sensitivity
problems.

459.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Droplet nuclei containing mycobacterium tuberculosis:

Do not cause infection.
Settle out of room air quickly.
Do not spread widely in the building.
Remain airborne for prolonged period. ***
460.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most common activity associated with percutaneous injury of

the dentist is:
Suturing.
Anesthesia injection. ***
Handpiece dig.
Trimming impressions.
461.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most common location of percutaneous injury among dentists is:

Hand. ***
Face.
Elbow.
Arm.
462.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The normal response of a vital pulp to the thermal testing is:

No response.
Lingering painful response.
Hypersensitive painful response.
Painful response that disappears soon after stimulus is removed. ***
463.
The normal response of an inflamed pulp to the thermal testing is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
No response.
Lingering painful response. *** .
Hypersensitive painful response.
Painful response that disappears soon after stimulus is removed.
464.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The normal response of a vital pulp to the electric pulp testing is:
No response.
Higher than that of the control teeth.
Lower than that of the control teeth.
In a range similar to that of the control teeth. ***
465.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Asymptomatic (not painful) tooth has a necrotic pulp, a broken

lamina dura, and circumscribed radiolucency of long duration. The
periradicular diagnosis:
OR
Patient during recurrent normal check he had different sense on percussion
on his tooth and X-ray widening lamina dura apical 3rd:
Chronic apical periodontitis. ***
Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis.
Chornic apical abscess
Acute apical abscess.
466.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A Pt. with severe periradicular pain has a necrotic pulp, a broken

lamina dura, and circumscribed radiolucency of long duration. The
periradicular diagnosis:
Chronic apical periodontitis.
Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis. ***
Abscess.
467.
Patient came to your clinic with dull pain in the #6,no response to
the pulp tester, in radiographs it shows 3mm of radiolucency at the apex of
the root. Diagnosis is:
a) Chronic apical periodontitis.
b) Acute apical periodontitis.
c) Acute periodontitis with abscess.
d) Chronic apical abscess. ***
468.
A Pt. present in severe pain. The periapical area over the involved
tooth is inflamed and swollen. The tooth is mobile and depressible in its
socket with a diffused radiolucency. The diagnosis is:
a.
b.
Chronic apical periodontitis.
c.
d.
Acute exacerbation of chronic apical periodontitis.

Abscess. ***
469.
Reduction of mandibular fracture is defined as:

a.
Nonalignment and separation of the fracture segments.
b.
Realignment of fracture segments. *** .
c.
Holding of the fracture segments in place.
( fixation (
d.
Screw and bone places.
e.
Internal fixation.
470.
Wiring the upper and lower teeth together is called:

* Wiring the maxilla ( upper jaw ) and mandible ( lower jaw ) together is
called:
a.
b.
c.
Internal fixation.
An open reduction.
Intermaxillary fixation. *** ( maxillomandibular fixation MMF )
wiring the jaw shut ).
d.
Displacement.
e.
External fixation.
http://nyp.org/health/intermaxillary-rigid-fixation.html
471.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The incidence of nerve damage after third molar surgery is

estimated to be:
5 % or less. ***
10 % to 15 %.
15 % to 20 %
20 % to 25 %.
472.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The least likely mechanism for the nerve damage is:
Direct needle trauma.

Intraneural haematoma formation.
Local anesthetic toxicity. ***
Stretching and binding of the nerve.
473.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is the cause of immediate type allergic

reaction to latex products:
Accelerator.
Antioxidants.
Latex protein. ***
Nickel.
474.
Which of the following is the longest in the dental arch:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Maxilliary central incisor.

Maxilliary second premolar.
Mandibular canine.
Maxilliary canine. ***
475.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Chlorhexidine is used as mouth wash in the concentration of:

0.1 - 0.2% ***
1 - 2%
5 - 10%
20%
476.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Traumatically fractured crown of central incisor in an 8-years-old

child with pulp exposure ( more than 1 mm. ) half hour ago, medical history is
non- contributory and the tooth is not displaced. What is your management:
Endodontics-pulpectomy and obturation.
Direct pulp cap with caoh and composite.
Caoh pulpotomy.
Total extirpation of pulp and caoh.
( apexification ).
477.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The use of the rubber dam in endodontics is:

Frequently required.
An established rule. ***
Not required.
Time consuming.
Dictated by Pt. comfort.
478.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dentine hypersensitivity is best relieved or controlled by:

Using efficient cooling system.
Blocking exposed tubules on the dentin surface. ***
Opening tubules to permit release of intrapulpal pressure.
Applying anti inflammatory agent to exposed dentin.
479.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Pt. came to ur clinic has a painless ulcer on the lip , which begin last
6 weeks as elevated border with deep center ulcer developed very quickly
during first 4 weeks then ( slowly growing or stop growing ) have no history
of truma but the pt. works outside under exposure of the sun. Biobsy reveals
PMN & acanthotic exudate, what is the diagnosis:
OR
Which of the following is a benign epithelial neoplasm:
Rhabdomyoma.
Fibroma.
Lipoma.
Granular cell tumor.
Keratoacanthoma. ***
Journal of Applied Oral Science

* Keratoacanthoma : is defined as a benign epithelial neoplasm.
480.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The function of the periodontal ligament includes:

Mechanical function.
Formative function.
Nutritive function.
Sensory function.
Clinical periodontology 9th edition page 39
481.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ankylosis:
No PDL.
Caused by trauma.
Extracted surgically.
482.
a.
b.
c.
The following are types of hamartoma EXCEPT:

Cementoblastoma. ***.
Compound odontoma.
Complex odontoma.
483.
A child came to the clinic with continuous involuntary movement of

his head and extremities and difficulty in vocal communication. The condition
is described as:
a.
Epilepsy.
b.
Cerebral palsy. ***
484.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is
called:
Osmosis. ***
Active transport.
Filtration.
Diffusion.
* Osmosis : is the net movement of water across a selectively permeable
membrane driven by a difference in solute concentrations on the two sides of
the membrane.
485.
a.
b.
c.
Cell that can give more than one type:

Fibroblast.
Odontoblast.
Mesenchymal cell. ***
486.
High rate of fractures at canine area in the mandible due to:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Change direction of forces occruing here.

Long canine root. ***
Lower border is thin in this area.
Alveolus is thin in this area.
Surgery: Basic Science and Clinical Evidence By Jeffrey A. Norton - Page 2013
* The mental foramen and the long roots of the canine teeth as well as
impacted 3rd molars create points of weakness that are particularly prone to
fracture.
487.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
Non odontogenic Lesion similar to endo Lesion:

Hyperparathyroidism.
Initial stage of cemental dysplasia. ***
Ossifying Fibroma.
Dentigerous cyst.
Ameloblastoma.
Lateral periodontal cyst.
Myxoma & hemangioma.
488.
a.
b.
c.
Infection is more dangerous in children than adult because:

Marrow spaces are wide. ***
Affect growth centre.
Hypocalcification in enamel.
489.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The common disease affecting the submandibular salivary gland is:

Salivary calculi. ***
Pleomorphic adenomas.
Viral sialoadenitis.
Infected sialoadenitis.
490.
Which most common salivary gland neoplasm:

A. Pleomorphic adenoma. ***
Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlation 3rd edition - Page 239
* Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common benign tumor of the major and
minor salivary glands.
*Affect Parotid gland in 80% of total diseases that affect salivary glands &
ducts.
491.
Ranula is associated with which salivary gland:

a- submandiular gland.
b- sublingual gland. ***
EAOM - OBSTRUCTIVE SALIVARY DISEASE [Notizia-89]
* Ranula is a similar cyst arising in the floor of mouth from the sublingual
gland.
492.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ranula can be treated by:

Excision.
Cauterization.
Incision.
Marsupialization. ***
Cawsons Essentials of Oral Pathology and Oral Medicine 8Ed 2008 Page 293
Treatment is preferably by marsupialisation with removal of the related
gland, A simple incision leads to recurrence, and enucleation is difficult
because of the very thin wall
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry 5Ed 2009 Page 377
Rx. (treatment): excision of cyst and associated sublingual gland
Atlas of Oral and Maxillofacial Histopathology 2012 page 58
Excision with removal of the involved minor salivary glands. Recurrence can
occur if the ducts
of the remaining glands are severed during the procedure.
Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlation 6Ed 2012, Page 189
minor salivary glands, treatment consists of removal of both the mucus
retention cyst and the associated gland.
If a duct is surgically entered, special precautions (marsupialization/cannula)
are used to aid the healing process
Textbook of Oral Medicine 2Ed 2010 Page 654
Surgical excisionthey are best treated by surgical excision including a
portion of the surrounding tissues.
Partial excision with marsupializationthe major part of the cyst wall
together with its overlying mucus membrane is excised.
A Colour Handbook Oral Medicine 2Ed 2012
Mucoceles are treated by surgical excision to include the lesion and the
adjacent minor salivary glands
Head and Neck Pathology 2Ed 2013 by John R. Goldblum Page 232
Complete excision, including minor salivary gland, usually is adequate
Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent 9Ed 2011,Page 132
Lesions are usually treated by marsupialization, with occasional recurrence
being noted. Chronic recurrence may require excision of the entire involved
gland.
Contemporary oral and maxillofacial surgery, 6th Ed 2014,Page 410
* The usual treatment of ranula is marsupialization.
* The preferred ttt. for recurrent or persistent ranula is excision of the ranula
and sublingual gland.
493.
Solitary bone cyst management:

a. Anti-inflammatory and follow up.
b. Curettage and close. ***
c. Marsupialization and antibiotic
d. No active management.
494.
For the ceramometal restorations, the type of finish line is:
a.
b.
Chamfer.
Beveled shoulder. ***
Shillingburg 3rd Ed, Page 151
There was difference between shoulder bevel & shoulder , so it recommended
to use shoulder bevel finish line in the metal ceramic restoration
http://scialert.net/fulltext/?doi=jms.2008.665.668&org=11
495.
a.
b.
c.
Benefits of opaque porcelain layer:

Bonding the metal structure.
Initiating the color.
a & b. ***
496.
Radiographic examination in impacted teeth is useful to

demonstrate:
a.
Proximity of the roots to the adjacent anatomical structures.
b.
Associated pathology.
c.
497.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Epidemiology can be defined as:

A study of special areas of the skin.
The study of the distribution and determinant of disease in man. ***
Study of biological animals.
Study of disease in research laboratory.
498.
a.
b.
c.
Which of the following spaces are bilaterally involved in Ludwig's
angina?
Submandibular + masticatory spaces.
Sublingual + Lat.Pha.space.
Submandibular + sublingual + submental. ***
499.
a.
b.
When you do amalgam finishing:

Immediately.
24 hours later. ***
500.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
When polishing amalgam restoration:

Avoid heat generation by using wet polishing paste.
Wait for 24 hours.
a & b. ***
a only
b only
501.
a.
b.
c.
The roof of mandibular ( glenoid ) fossa consists of:

Thin compact bone. ***
Spongy bone.
Cancellous bone.
502.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Neoplasm that spread by lymphatic from the angle of the mouth

reaches the:
Preauricular lymph nodes.
Mental lymph nodes.
Submandibular Lymph nodes. *** ( and submental lymph nodes ).
Pterygoid plexus.
Jugulo-digastric nodes.
503.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Aplastic anemia is caused by:

Tetracycline.
Penicillin.
Erythromycin.
Sulfonamide. ***
504.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Odontogenic infection can cause least complication:

Pulmonary abscess.
Peritonitis.
Prosthetic valve infection.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis. ***
Dental Secrets page 260
505.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis not manifested as:

a. infra orbital syndrome.
b. Syncope due to atrial obliteration. ***
c. eye exophthalmos.
Dental Secrets page 263
* Cavernous sinus thrombosis: Patients present with eye exophthalmos,
orbital swelling, neurologic signs and fever.
506.
After u inject L.A for 2nd. max. molar pt. becomes colorless with
external swelling its due to :
1/ facial artery.
2/ plexus vein. ***
3/ Posterior alveolar nerve.
Hand Book Local Anasthesia page 168
* Hematoma is commonly produced by inserting the needle too far
posteriorly into the pterygoid plexus of veins. Also, the maxillary artery me
be perforated.
507.
a.
b.
Endomethasone is a root canal sealer that:

Dissolves in fluid so it weakens the root canal filling.
Very toxic containing formaldehyde.
c.
d.
Contains corticosteroids.
All the above. ***
508.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cause that master G.P not reach working length although it is the
same size of last file:
Dentin debris.
( Dentin chips ).
Ledge formation.
( in root canal ).
a & b. ***
None of the above
Endodontics Problem solving in clinical practice 2002 page 135
509.
a.
b.
c.
Small access opening in upper centeral incisor leads to:

Complete removal of the pulp.
Incomplete removal of the pulp. ***
Conservative restoration.
510.
a.
b.
c.
How can you prevent dental hypersensitivity:

Restoration by adhesion. ***
Controlled by alcohol.
Put sedative medication.
511.
a.
b.
U-shaped radiopaque structure in the upper 1st molar x-ray is:

The zygomatic process. ***
Maxillary sinus wall
Dental Radiographic Diagnosis by Dr. Thunthy - page 44

And Dental Decks page 150
512.
Loss of sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is related to

paralysis of:
a.
Lingual nerve. ***
b.
Hypoglossal nerve.
c.
Chorda tympani nerve.
Dental Decks
* For tha ant. 2/3: lingual n. for the sensation & chorda tympani n. for the
taste.
* For the post. 1/3: both taste & sensation by glossopharngeal n.
513.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The choice of local anesthesia depends on:

Diameter of the nerve
Structure of the bone
Number of branches
Type of L.A agent chemistry. *** ( Chemical composition of anesthesia ) .
514.
Choice of local anesthesia technique influenced by:

a) Chemical composition of anesthesia.
B) The location of the nerve.
C) Bone structure. ***
( If its a maxilla or a mandible ).
* The bone of the maxilla is more porous than that of the mandible, so it can
be infiltrated anywhere.
515.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Mandibular foramen in young children is:
OR
When you want to give Inf.Alveolar block for a child you have to take
attention that the mandibular foramen is:
At level of occlusal plane.
Above the level of occlusal plane.
Anterior the level of occlusal plane.
Below the level of occlusal plane. ***
PAEDIATRIC DENTISTRY - 3rd Ed. (2005) page 98
In children, the mandibular foramen is low in relation to the occlusal plane.
*

( )
The mandibular foramen was located 4.12 mm. below the occlusal plane at *
the age of 3 years. It subsequently moved upward with age. By the age of 9
years, it had reached approximately the same level as the occlusal plane. The
foramen continued to move upward to 4.16 mm. above the occlusal plane in
.the adult group
516.
a.
b.
c.
d.
When you give inferior dental block for pedo Pt. the angulations for
the needle:
7 mm below the occlusal plane.
5 mm below the occlusal plane.
7 mm above the occlusal plane.
At the occlusal plane. ***
Pediatric dentistry infancy through adolescence, pinkham, 3rd edition, page
416
* Needle must be inserted at the level of occlusal plane.
And McDnald 7th ed page 285
* The mandibular foramen is situated at a level lower than the occlusal plane
of the primary teeth, so the injection must be made slightly lower and more
posteriorly than for an adult patient.
517.
The cell primary site of ATP production is:

OR The organelle most directly involved in cellular aerobic respiration is:
a.
Mitochondria. ***
b.
c.
d.
Lysosomes.
Nucleus.
Vacuoles.
518.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The organelle most closely associated with the manufacture of

proteins within the cell:
Ribosome. ***
Lysosome.
Nucleolus.
Cell wall.
Cell membrane.
519.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The packing and sorting of protein is the function of:

Endoplasmic reticulum.
Golgi apparatus. ***
Mitochondria.
Nucleus.
520.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The process of attraction of neutrophils to a site of local tissue

injury is called:
Phagocytosis.
Diapedesis.
Chemotaxis. ***
Epistaxis.
521.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The process of cell engulfing particle is called:

Endocytosis.
Exocytosis.
Phagocytosis. ***
Pinocytosis.
522.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Action of Histamine:
Vasodilatation.
Permeability.
Chemokinesis.
Bronchoconstriction.
e. All of the obove.
523.
a.
b.
Cholesterol crystals are found in:

Keratocyst. ***
Periodontal cyst.
http://ses.library.usyd.edu.au/bitst...z%20Iqubal.pdf
* Cholesterol crystals are found in many odontogenic cysts including
radicular cysts, dentigerous cysts and keratocysts.
524.
a.
b.
Most commonly dentigerous cysts are associated with:

Unerupted permanent maxillary canines.
Unerupted mandibular 3rd molars. ***
Bilateral Dentigerous Cysts - Report of an Unusual Case and Review of the

Literature
Although dentigerous cysts may involve any tooth, the mandibular

third molars are the most commonly affected.
525.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Histopathologically, dentigerous cyst lining epithelium may be:

Cuboidal in type.
Stratified squamous in type. ***
Reduced enamel epithelium.
All of the above.
Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlation,3 rd Ed,Page 294 :
526.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Thyroglossal duct cysts:

Are only found in the posterior tongue.
Clinically present in the lateral neck tissue.
May be found anywhere along the pathway of the embryonic thyroglossal
duct. ***
Are sometimes called lympho-epithelial cysts.
Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlation,3rd edition, Page 316
527.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unilateral swelling and slowly progressing lesion on the left side of

the mandible. This could be:
Osteoma.
Cementoblastoma.
Ossifying Fibroma. ***
Osteo-sarcoma.
Oral pathology clinical pathologic correlation, 3rd edition, Page 357
528.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tooth germs of primary teeth arise from:

Dental lamina. ***
Dental follicle.
Enamel organ.
Epithelial cell of malassez.
529.
Tooth germ = Tooth bud.

Tooth germs of permanent teeth arise from dental lamina.
Apical periodontal cyst arises from:
a.
b.
Hertwig sheath.
Epithelial cell rest of malassez. ***
530.
Formation of Lateral periodontal cyst due to:

Nasolacrimal cyst.
Hertiwig's epithelial root sheath
Epithelial rest of malassaz.
Peals of serres
the epithelial rests or glans of serres
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
531.
Which is the most likely cause of periodontal cyst?

Cell rest of Malassez. ***
Cell rest of serss.
Cell of Hertwig sheath.
a.
b.
c.
532.
Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa:

Always originates within the surface epithelium.
Mostly originates within the surface epithelium. ***
Always originates from nevus cells in the connective tissue.
Always originates from langerhans cells within epithelium.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Primary malignant melanoma of the oral mucosa originates within

the epithelial-connective tissue interface ( within surface epithelium and
connective tissue ).
* :
Mostly originates within the surface epithelium. Or
Mostly originates within the connective tissue.
533.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Histopathologically, adenoid cystic carcinoma is characterized by

islands of:
Basophilic islands of tumor cells that are intermingled with areas of
pseudocartilage.

Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "Swiss cheese" appearance. ***
Basophilic islands of tumor cells having a "Swiss cheese" appearance and
evidence of serous acini.
Basophilic islands of tumor cells contain mucin & normal acini.
534.
The risk of malignant change being present in epithelium is greatest
in:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Homogenous leukoplakia.
Erythroplakia. ***
Chronic hyperplasic candidiasis.
Speckled leukoplakia.
* Erythroplakia should be viewed as a more serious lesion because of
a significantly higher percentage of malignancies associated with it.
535.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The term acanthosis refers to:

A decreased production of keratin.
An increased production of keratin.
An increased thickness of the prickle cell zone. ***
None of the above.

536.
a.
b.
c.
d.
(stratum spinosum).
The most common malignant tumors of the minor salivary glands
are:
Adenoid cystic carcinoma and adenocarcinoma. ***
Adenoid cystic carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma.
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma. **
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and polymorphous low grade adenocarcinoma.
Because Mucoepidermoid is malignant tumor common of Major salivary
glands
Arch Otolaryngol Head Neck Surg -- Malignant Minor Salivary Gland Tumors of
the Larynx, July 2006, Ganly et al. 132 (7): 767
The most common malignant minor salivary gland tumors are

mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma.
537.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve leaves the skull through:

Foramen rotundum.
Foramen ovale. ***
Superior orbital fissure.
Inferior orbital fissure.
Jugular foramen.
538.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
Foramen ovale is in the following bone:

* The optic foramen canal is a part of:
*Optic nerve coming from which bone:
Temporal bone.
Occipital bone.
Sphenoid bone. ***
Esthmoid bone.
Frontal bone.
Palatel.
539.
The inferior alveolar nerve is branch of:

1. Mandibular nerve.***
2. Posterior mandibular alveolar nerve.
3. Anterior mandibular alveolar nerve.
540.
The following structures open into the middle meatus:
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
i.
Nasolacrimal duct.
Posterior ethmoidal sinus.
Maxillary sinus.
Sphenoid sinus.
Anterior ethmoidal sinus.
a, b & d.
a & b.
c & e. ***
All of the above
(Maxillary sinus, anterior ethmoidal sinus and middle ethmoidal sinus).
541.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Ligaments associated with TMJ:

Tempromandibular.
Sphenomandibular.
Stylomandibular.
542.
Location to give inferior alveolar nerve block the landmarks are:

1/ pterygomandibular raphe.
2/ cronoid notch.
3/ All of the above. ***
543.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The following cavity bases are moisture sensitive:
Polycarboxylate.
Zinc phosphate.
GI cement. ***
ZOE.
a, c.
544.
Which of the following types of base materials can be placed in

contact with polymethyl methaacrylate & not inhibit the polymerization of
the resin:
a.
ZOE.
b. GI cement.
c.
Zn phosphate cement.
d. Varnish.
e.
b, c. ***
Dental Decks - page 2076 - 2102
545.
a.
b.
c.
Cement which contains fluoride:

GI. ***
ZOE.
Reinforced ZOE.
d.
Polycarboxylate cement.
546.
Marginal deterioration of amalgam restoration should be due to:

a.
No enough bulk of dentine.
b. Corrosion.
c.
Over carving.
d. Improper manipulation of amalgam.
e.
a and b.
f.
c and d.
g. All the above. ***
h. b, c and d.
Marginal deterioration = Marginal degradation = Marginal ditching =

Marginal crevicing.
547.
A restoration of anterior teeth with RCT, abraded incisal edge &

small Mesial & Distal caries is by:
a.
Ceramometal crown. ***
b. Composite laminated.
c.
Veneer.
d. None of the above.
548.
a.
b.
c.
The powder for GI cement contains:

Sio2, Al2O3, CaF2. ***
Sio2, Zno, barium sulphate.
None of the above.
549.
The body secrets antibody against antigen using which cells:

* Body defends itself by antibodies from:
* Cell that produce antibodies:
a.
T lymphocyte
b.
B lymphocyte
c.
Palasma cell
550.
a.
b.
In diabetic patient, periodontium affected by which cells:

Neutrophil. Called PMN
Macrophages.
551.
When take an x-ray to pregnant lady, we use all of these methods

EXCEPT:
a.
Digital x-ray.
b. High sensitive film.
c.
Paralleling tech (long cone) 16 inch.
d. Bisecting angle (short cone) 8 inch. ***
e.
Lead apron with thyroid collar.
552.
a.
6 feets away in 90 - 135 angle.
553.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cause of angular cheilitis:
Loss vertical dimension and Pt. have complete denture. ***

Autoimmune factors.
Dental secrets & " " "
"Atlas Of Oral Medicine "
557.
a.
b.
c.
In a study, it should:
Protect against role of the statistician.

Protect against legal risks.
Protect against physical risks.
556.
a.
b.
Proximal caries confined to enamel:
Prevention.
Observation.
Restore with GI.
555.
a.
b.
c.
Proximal caries should be opened when:
Confined within enamel.

Pass DE junction.
Dentin laterally.
Sturdevant's Art & science of operative Dentistry
Carise increase when reach DEJ
554.
a.
b.
c.
When take x-ray we should stand:
Ugly duckling stage:
9-11 years old.

13-15 years old.
7-9 years old.
558.
Eruption of primary dentition starts from:
1.
2.
3.
6-7 months. ***

1 year.
9 months.
559.
a.
b.
c.
d.
( primary central incisors "A" ).
All are irrigation for canals EXCEPT:
Saline.
Hydrogen peroxide.
Naocl.
RC prep. ***
560.
a.
b.
In community diagnosis and treatment program:

Water flouridation.
Diagnose, prevent and treat. ***
561.
a.
b.
c.
Porcelain shrinkage after firing:

1-5 %.
5-10 %.
10-20 %.
Oxford,Page 783: 30-40%
562.
The cement under MOD amalgam have this character:

High modulus of elasticity. *** ( high stiffness )
Low modulus of elasticity.
( low stiffness )
The high modulus of elasticity prevents bonding and decreases tensile
strength.
d.
Both a & c.
a.
b.
c.
oxford, Page 753

"Sturdevant's Art & Science of Operative Dentistry" Page 479
563.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Examination of Pt. health by the dentist:

To know the patients health.
To know what medications to give.
To know general health data.
564.
1.
2.
a.
b.
c.
d.
2 statements true or false:

RCT abutment of FPD has higher risk for fracture.
Abutment which has RCT in cantilever FPD has higher susceptibility to
fracture.
1st is true,2nd is false
1st is false, 2nd is true. ***
Both are false
Both are true.
565.
Both glass ionomer & polycarpoxylate cement contain:

a.
Polyacrylic acid. ***
b.
ZOE powder.
Churchill's Pocket Books Clinical Dentistry 3 rd Ed 2007, Page 124-129
566.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Factors delay healing of wound:

Infection.
Torn wound edges.
Strain.
567.
a.
b.
Factor interferes with healing:

Poor suturing.
Infection. ***

* Healing occurs more rapidly with a lower risk of infection.
568.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dry socket happens after:
24 h.
3 5 days. ***
1 week.
2 weeks.
569.
Avulsion more important factor that affects reimplantation:

a.
Contaminated roots.
b.
Time since the avulsion.
: Dental secrets
570.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Dentinogenesis imperfecta have all EXCEPT:

Broken enamel.
Blue sclera.
Broken bone.
Supernumerary teeth. ***
571.
Generalized gray discoloration in a 28 years old patients teeth, with

blue sclera and an enlarged pulp chambers and short roots, and multiple
fractures in enamel, the diagnosis is :
OR
X- ray shows large pulp chamber, thin dentine layer and enamel:
A) Dentinogenesis Imperfecta. ***
B) Amelogenesis Imperfecta.
572.
30 years old pt. came to the clinic with brownish discoloration of all
his teeth (intrinsic discoloration) & yellowish in U/V light, the most likely
cause is:
1/ flourosis.
2/ tetracycline. ***
3/ amelogensis imperfecta.
4/ dentogensis imperfectea.
573.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Most sign of fracture of mandible:

Nose bleeding.
Malocclusion. ***
Exophthalmos.
Parasthesia of infraorbital nerve distribution
mcqs In Dentistry
The mandible fracture Associated with Malocclusion,tongue and sublingual
Bleeding, Numbness of Inf. Aleovlar nerve, Paraesthesia of lower lip or chin
574.
What supply the gingival buccal tissue of premolars, canines and

incisors:
a.
Long buccal nerve.
b.
Inferior alveolar nerve. *** ( innervates the mandibular molars, premolars,
canines and incisors ).
c.
Superior alveolar nerve. ( innervates the maxillary molars by posterior
superior alveolar nerve, innervates the maxillary premolars by middle
superior alveolar nerve and innervates the maxillary canines and incisors by
anterior superior alveolar nerve ).
575.
Drainage of tip of the tongue:

a.
Submandibular lymph nodes. ( Drain lateral parts right&left sides of
anterior 2/3rd of the tongue ).
b.
Submental lymph nodes. ***
Oral pathology Regezi 3rd edition - page 72
576.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cementum in cervical 2/3 has:

Acellular intrinsic fiber.
Acellular extrinsic fiber. ***
Cellular mixed fibers.
Intermediate cementum.
577.
a.
b.
c.
Pins are inserted into:

Enamel.
Dentin. ***
Enamel and dentin (DEJ).
Periodontology PAGE 15 :
d.
Any of the above .

Dental secrets :
. 1 2
578.
a.
b.
c.
d.
After etch enamel and bond it with 5th generation the strength is ?
5-10 Mp.
25 Mp. ***
30 Mp.
100 Mp.
.But, dentin strength becomes 35 Mp *
579.
Composite restoration that was matching in shade, after one week it

became much light. The reason could be:
a.
Light started photoinitation.
b.
Absorption water.
c.
Shade selected after rubber dam. ***
580.
a.
b.
c.
Disadvantages of digital x-ray EXCEPT:

Large disk space storage.
Clarity and resolution. *** ( Advantages ).
Expensive.
.
581.
a.
b.
c.
Treatment of fungal infections:

Penicillin.
Tetracyclin.
Nystatin. ***
Oral thrush ( fungal infection in the
Dental Decks - page 2454 :

mouth )
582.
a.
b.
Properties of ideal endo obturation material are all EXCEPT:

Biocompatible.
Radiolucent. *** .
583.
a.
b.
Most difficult of extract:

Mand. 3rd molar with mesioangular fused roots.
Mand. 3rd molar with distoangular angulation with divergent curved roots.
***
Wisdom tooth - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
* Typically distoangular impactions are the easiest to extract in the maxilla
and most difficult to extract in the mandible, while mesioangular impactions
are the most difficult to extract in the maxilla and easiest to extract in the
mandible.
584.
Pt. has hyperventilation in clinic. Most cause:

* Hyperventilation in dental office:
a.
Reduced (Low) CO2.
b.
Increase (High) CO2.
c.
Anxiety. ***
585.
a.
Very important part in endo treatment:

Complete debridement of the canal. ***
586.
a.
b.
Perio endo lesion the primary treatment:

Endo treatment. ***
Deep scaling and root planning.
587.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Local Contraindication to extraction:

Cardiac pt.
Tooth in the malignant tumor
Pt. recent received radiotherapy.
Both B & C ***
Dental secrets
588.
a.
b.
Base of the flap should be wide for:

Healing.
Better blood supply to the wound.
Dental decks 1754

* Flap design should ensure adequate blood supply so, the base of the flap
should be larger than the apex.
589.
a.
b.
c.
Supra calculus all true EXCEPT:

Hard and rough. *** ( in subgingival calculus ).
Easy to detach.
Has component of saliva.
Supra calculus = Supragingival calculus .
.
590.
a.
b.
c.
Thickness of luting cement:

100 micrometer.
40 micrometer. ***
( 12 - 25 micrometer ).
1mm.
:Dental Decks Part 2, 2007-2008 page 2072
.The maximum allowable thickness is 25 m (ADA specification) *
Dental Cements:
.microns film thickness is ideally suited for luting applications 12 *
591.
Zinc phosphate cement:
a.
b.
Mechanical attachment. ***

Chemical attachment.
592.
a.
b.
c.
Traditional Glass ionomer:

Mechanical bonding.
Acid-base reaction. ***
( chemical bonding ).
Mechanical chemical bonding.
: Dental Decks - page 2060
.
593.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pontic design of an FPD:

Same size buccolingually of the missing tooth.
Smaller than missing tooth buccolingually. ***
Wider buccolingually.
None of the above.
594.
a.
b.
c.
False negative response of an electric pulp test given:

After trauma. ***
In teenager.
_ :
. _
595.
a.
b.
c.
Young with open apex, examination test:

Reliable.
Non reliable. ***
None of the above.
.
596.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Best media for the avulsed tooth:

Tap water.
HBSS. ***
( Hank's balanced salt solution ).
Saliva.
Milk.
Dental secrets :
Viaspan
.
597.
Rigid palatal strap major connector. The material of construction is:

A. cr-co *** or co-cr (chrome-cobalt or cobalt-chromium).
B. Gold alloy.
C. wrought wire.
598.
The use of low speed hand piece in removal of soft caries in children
is better than high speed because:
a. less vibration.
b. less pulp exposure. ***

c. better than high speed.
599.
Progression of initial caries to cavitations takes 18 months this

based on:
a. streptococci mutans initiate caries.
b. lactobacilli progress caries. ***
600.
The vertical fracture of the tooth detected by:

A. Periodontal pocket. ***
B. Radiographically.
C. Vertical percussion.
Dental Decks - page 135 :
1. Fiber optic light.
2. Persistent periodontal defects ( periodontal pocket ).
3. Radiographs rarely show vertical fractures difficultly.
It is recognized clinically because a periodontal pocket forms along

the fracture line.
601.
Principle of elevator use all of the following EXCEPT:

1) Wheel and axle.
2) Wedging the socket wall. ***
3) Wedging.
4) Lever.
Textbook for General and Oral Surgery page 193
602.
To kill HIV use all of the following EXCEPT:

OR
The least way to kill HIV or AIDs is:
OR
The least effective method to kill the HIV is through:
A. Sodium hypochlorite "Naocl". very effective
B. Ultraviolet chamber. *** ( Ultraviolet light ).
C. Autoclave.
D. Chemoclave.
Non of the above *
.
603.
Pain of short duration with hot and cold:

A. Dentin sensitivity. ***
B. irriversible pulpitis.
C. chronic pulpitis.
D. apical periodontitis.
604.
When do we do incision and drainage?

A. Indurated diffuse swelling.
b. Sinus tract.
c. Chronic apical periodontitis. ***
605.
Pregnant lady needs oral surgery:

a. Needs prophylactic antibiotic.
B. Needs under GA.
c. Needs steroid cover.
d. None of the above. ***
606.
When do we give antibiotic:

a. Widespread rapid infection.
b. Compromised host defence.
c. a&b. ***
607.
Tooth requires RCT with bone resorption. Terminate RCT at:

a. Radiographic apex.
b. 0.5-1 mm. short of radiographic apex. ***
c. 0.5-1 mm. beyond radiographic apex.
Color atlas of endodontics page 54
Some researchers suggest calculating the working length 1 mm.

short of the radiographic apex with normal apical anatomy, 1.5 mm. short
with bone but no root resorption, and 2 mm. short with bone and root
resorption.
608.
Incipient caries:
a. Surface zone is relatively unaffected. ***
b. The surface zone is the largest portion with the highest pore volume.
c. Tooth preparation and composite is the best treatment.
d. Pulpal reaction is not possible.
e. Caries progress in enamel faster than dentin.
Dental decks 2080
* Surface zone relatively unaffected by the carious attack.
609.
Important factor in long term success of perio treatment:

a. Skill of the operator.
b. Perio maintenance.
610.
Which causes gingival enlargement:

A. Cyclosporines. *** ( Nefidipine ).
B.
611.
Pedo use rubber dam for:

a. Improve visibility and access.
b. Lowers risk of swallowing.
c. Sterile field.
d. a & b. ***
612.
Root most commonly pushed in max. sinus:

a. Buccal of 7.
b. Palatal of 6. ***
c. Palatal of 7.
d. Buccal of 6.
e. Distal of 6 & 7.
Dental decks 1816
The palatal root of the maxillary first molar is most often dislodged
into the maxillary sinus during an extraction procedure.
613.
If tooth or root is pushed during surgical extraction into maxillary
sinus:
a) Leave it and inform the patient.
b) Remove it as soon as possible. ***
c) Follow the patient for 3 months.
d) None of the above.
614.
Cementum is formed from:

a. Cementoblasts. ***
b. Fibroblasts.
c. Cementicles.
615.
Avulsed teeth stored in:

a. Milk. ***
b. Water.
616.
a.
b.
c.
The best media for keeping the avulsed teeth is:

Water in the same temperature of room.
Milk in the same temperature of room.
Cold water.
d.
Cold milk.***
617.
The depth of cavity prep. for composite in posterior:

a. Limited to enamel.
b. 0.5 mm. in dentin.
c. Depends on caries extension. ***
d. Depends on tooth discoloration.
e. 0.2 mm. in dentin.
618.
Factors that make impaction surgery more difficult:

a. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused
conical roots.
B. Mesioangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and curved
roots.
C. Distoangular position, large follicle, wide periodontal ligament and fused
conical roots
d. Distoangular position, thin follicle, narrow periodontal ligament and
divergent curved roots. ***
E. Soft tissue impaction, separated from second molar and inferior alveolar
nerve.
619.
Which scalpel below is universally used for oral surgical

procedures?
OR
Most used scalpel in oral surgery:
A. Number 2 blade.
B. Number 6 blade.
C. Number 10 blade.
D. Number 12 blade.
E. Number 15 blade. *** (Bard Parker)
620.
Main disadvantage of chlorhexidine:

a. Staining. ***
b. Burning sensation.
c. Altered taste.
*
.
621.
The radiograph shows condylar head orientation and facial

symmetry:
OR
The best way of radiograph shows displacement of mandibular condyle:
OR
Pt. presented with vehicle accident u suspect presence of bilateral condylar
fracture what is the best view to diagnose condylar fracture:
a. Submentovertex.
b. Reverse towne. ***
c. Occiptomental
d. Lateral oblique 30 degree.
"US Army medical course - Dental Radiography page 376"
Dental Decks
Reverse towne is used for fractures of condylar neck & ramus areas
622.
What kinds of radiographs which we do not use for TMJ. movements?

a- Transcranial.
b- Computerized tomography.
c- Conventional tomography.
d- Arthrography.
623.
To check a perforation in the desk of the TMJ. we need:

*To check TMJ. range of movement:
A) Cranial imagery.
B) Arthrography. ***
(CT after injection of a high contrast fluid).
C) Traditional tomography.
D) Computerized tomography.
Churchill's Pocketbooks Clinical Dentistry 3Ed 2007, Page 49
Arthrography to determine the disc position & detect disc perforation &
adhesion.
but it's not comfortable for pt. and has largely replaced by MRI
624.
Zinc phosphate cement and polycarboxylate cement both have:

a. Zinc oxide particles. ***
b. Silica quartz particles.
c. Polyarcyilic acid.
d. Phosphoric acid.
Churchill's Pocketbooks Clinical Dentistry 3Ed 2007, Page 129
625.
Pedo, has trauma in 11, half an hour ago, with slight apical
exposure, open apex, treatment is:
a. Pulpotomy with formacresol.
b. Apexification.
c. DPC. (Direct pulp capping).
d. Extraction.
626.
Which intracanal medicament causes protein coagulation:

a. Formocresol. ***
b. Naocl.
c. Hydrogen peroxide.

627.
GIC. compared to composite:

a. Increase linear coefficient of thermal expansion.
B. More wear resistant.

c. Less soluble.
d. Polymerization shrinkage. ***
( less in GIC. ).
GIC: less thermal expansion & less wear resistance & more water resorbable
less microleakage (shrinkage) because it fused chemically to tooth wall
628.
Pt. with severe pain in lower left mandibular molar, examination

positive pulp test & percussion test, no radiographic abnormality, right side
have recent FPD in upper:
a. Chronic apical periodontits.
b. Actue apical periodontitis. ***
c. Apical abcess.
d. None of the above.
629.
a.
b.
c.
d.
6 years old child have 74 and 84 extracted best space maintainer is:
Lingual arch. ***
Bilateral band and loop.
Bilateral distal shoe.
No need for space maintainer.
630.
6 years old child lost his upper right 1st molar, arrangement:
* Pedo, lost 75, sm.:
* 5 years old patient lost his primary first maxillary molar the best retainer is:
a.
Band and loop. ***
b.
Crown and loop.
c.
Lingual arch.
d.
Nance appliance.

band & loop 6
crown & loop
631.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Band and loop space maintainer is most suitable for the

maintenance of space after premature loss of:
A single primary molar. ***
Two primary molars.
A canine and a lateral incisor.
All of the above.
632.
6 years child with bilateral loss of deciduous molars & the anterior
teeth not erupted yet, the space maintainer for choice is:
a- lingual arch.
B- Bilateral band and loop.
c- Bilateral band and loop with distal shoe.
d- Removable partial denture. ***
633.
Lower anterior teeth labial mucosa supplied by:

a. Mental nerve. ***
b. Inferior dental nerve.
C. Buccal nerve.
634.
Buccal branch of trigeminal is:

a. Sensory. ***
b. Motor.
c. Psychomotor.
d. Sensory and motor.
635.
Buccal branch of facial is:

a. Sensory.
b. Motor. ***
c. Mixed.
636.
Dentine permeability increases:

a. Coronal less than root dentine. ***
b. Permeability increases toward DEJ.
C. Permeability increases toward bcj.
637.
Which material has best biocompatibility Intraorally:

a. Cobalt chromium.
b. Titanium. ***
c. Nickle chromium.
d. Gold Palladium.
638.
Porcelain teeth in complete denture opposing natural teeth are not

preferred due to:
a. Increase occlusal load on natural teeth.
b. Wear of natural teeth. ***
c. Clicking during mastication.
639.
Which of following restorations more likely to cause wear to

opposing:
a. Composite.
b. Gold.
c. Porcelain. ***
d. Amalgam.
640.
In restoring lost tooth, which is least important:

a. Esthetic.
b. Pt. demand. ***
c. Function.
d. Arch integrity and occlusal stability.
641.
Enamel tufts are:

a. Extensions of odontoblasts in the DEJ.
b. Enamel rods change their direction.
c. Enamel rods get crowded. ***
"Enamel tufts - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia "
642.
In clinical research:
a. No different between Blind or double blind.
b. Needs control.
c. Includes need of intervention. ***
d. Offers no benefits to subject at risk.
643.
One of the main causes of malocclusion:

a. Premature loss of primary teeth. ***
644.
a.
b.
Squamous cell carcinoma is derived from:

Epithelial tissue. ***
Connective tissue.
645.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Most common site of squamous cell carcinoma:

Postero-lateral border of tongue.
Floor of the mouth.
Buccal mucosa.
Lip.
Skin.
646.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Most common site of oral squamous cell carcinoma:

Postero-lateral border of tongue. ***
Floor of the mouth.
Buccal mucosa.
Lip.
Skin.
Dental Secrets - page 35 :
The posterior lateral and ventral surfaces of the tongue are the most
common sites of intraoral cancer.
647.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The majority of introral squamous cell carcinomas are histologically:

Poorly differentiated.
Well moderately differentiated. *** ( moderately differentiated )
Spindle cell in type.
Carcinoma in situation.
648.
a.
Squamous cell carcinoma is multifactorial:

True. ***
b.
False.
649.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Early squamous cell carcinoma of oral cavity presents as:

Vesicle.
Sessile mass.
An ulcer.
( Later changes ). .
Red plaque. *** ( Early appearance ) .
A white cauliflower like lesion.
650.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Firm, fixed neck nodes are most to be detected in association with:

An ameloblastoma.
A basal cell carcinoma.
An odontogenic fibroma.
A squamous cell carcinoma. ***
651.
Stage Ib disease of squamous cell carcinoma:

a- T1 NO MO
( Stage IA disease >T1 NO MO ).
b- T3 NO MO
c- T2 NO MO. ***
( Stage IB disease >T2 NO MO ).
d- T4 NO MO
652.
File #40 means:

a. 0.40 is the diameter at D0 . ***
b. 0.40 is from d1 to d16.
Cohen's Pathways of the Pulp 10Ed 2011, Page 240
Endodontics Principle & Practice 4Ed 2009 (Torabinejad), Page 208
653.
Cause of radicular cyst:

a. Non vital tooth. ***
b. Vital tooth.
654.
Minimum thickness of noble metal crown:

a- 0.1 mm.
b- 0.5 mm. ***

c- 1 mm.
d- 2 mm.
655.
To locate the canal orifice use:

a- Barite probe.
b- Endo spreader.
c- Endo file with curved tip.
d- Round bur.
Also, endodontic explorer is used to search for canal orifices.
or by Curved file or Micro-openers.
656.
A-
Healing by secondary intention causes:

A space between the edges filled by fibrous tissue.
b- Leading to scar formation.
d- A and b. ***
657.
Contraindications for endo treatment EXCEPT:

A-non strategic tooth. ( )
B-non restorable teeth.
C-vertical fracture teeth.
D-tooth with large periapical lesion. ***
658.
1.
Arrange the steps:
ca(oh)2 placing _ varnish _ base _ amalgam.

2. ca(oh)2 placing _ base _ varnish _ amalgam. ***
659.
Soft palate falls abruptly facilitate recording post dam.

falls gradually make recording post dam difficult.
A. two statements true.
B. two false. ***
C. first true, second false.
D. first false, second true.
2006 " " :
660.
Caries progress in children more than adult due to:

A. difference in ph.
B. generalized dentin sclerosing by age. ***
C. increasing in organic content of tubular dentin by age.
661.
Osteogensis during endodontic surgery aimed to prevent:

A. fibrous in growth. ***
B. growth factor.
C. formation of blood.
662.
60 years old patient needs to make complete denture with thick

labial frenum with wide base. The operation:
A. Vestibuloplasty. ***
B. Z-plasty.
C. Subperiostum incision.
D. Deepmucoperiosteum incision.
"Peterson's Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 2nd Ed 2004 page
173"
* Z-plasty is effective for narrow frenum attachments. But, Vestibuloplasty is
often indicated for frenum attachments with wide base.
663.
In 6 weeks of intrauterine life, the development starts. The oral

epithelium is stratified squamous epithelium will thickened and gives dental
lamina:
a- true. ***
b- false.

* The development of dental lamina occurs in 6 weeks of intrauterine life.
664.
Retention of amalgam depends on:

a- Amalgam bond.
b- Convergency of walls oclusally. *** /______\

c- Divergency of walls oclusally.
\_______/
d- Retentive pins.
Bhatia's Dentogist: mcqs in Dentistry.
665.
Energy absorbed by the point of fracture called:

a- Ultimate strength.
b- Elastic limit.
c- Toughness. ***
d- Brittleness.
666.
Mix in walking non vital bleaching:

a- H2O2 with phosphoric acid gel.
B- Superexol with sodium perborate.
c- Superexol with calcium hydroxide.
d- H2O2 with sodium perborate. ***
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005).
Churchill's Pocketbook Clinical Dentistry 3rd Ed 2007,Page 286
combine 35% hydrogen peroxide with sodium perborate to give thick
consistency
667.
Since composite tooth preparation should be conservative so the
design:
a- Amalgam in moderate and large cavities.
b- Beveled amalgam margines.
c- Conservative restorations. ***
. ( ( :
( ).
668.
Preparation of all incipient cavity within enamel

acquired pellicle:
a- Structures a layer protects tooth. *** .
b- Aids in remineralization.
669.
The most affect tooth in nurse bottle feeding:

a- lower molars.
b- upper molars.
c- Max. incisor. ***
d- mand. Incisor.
670.
Most impacted tooth is:

Most common tooth which needs surgical extraction:
a- Mandible third molar "8" .***
b- Max. 2nd
c- Upper canine.
d- Premolars.
671.
Patient is diagnosed for ceramometal full veneer. You plan to use

epoxy resin, what's the best impression material to be used :
*The impression material of choice when we want to take impression for
epoxy resin pin is:
A. Polyether. *** ( polyvinyl siloxane is the best then polyether ).
B. Polysulfide.
C. Agar agar.
D. Irreversible hydrocolloid. ( = Alginate ).
Certain impression materials , polysulphide and hydrocolloid are not
compatible with epoxy resin , however, good result are achieved with silicone
and polyether.
672.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
what is the most unfavorable impression material by the patient due

to bad taste:
OR Impression material causes bad taste to patient:
Agar.
Additional silicone.
Polyether.
Polysulfide.***
Alginate
Dental terminology
( ) .
673.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The impression used for preliminary impressions or study casts is:

* What is the least accurate imperession material:
Agar agar.
Silicon.
Alginate. *** ( = Irreversible hydrocolloid ).
None.
674.
1223-
Irrigant that kills e-faecalis:

NaoH.
( not NaoCL (
MTAD. ***
saline.
chlorohexidine.
675.
1223-
Irrigant that kills e-faecalis:

NaoH. ( not NaoCL )
MTA. ***
saline.
chlorohexidine.
:
* Sodium hypochlorite = Naocl not Naoh.
MTAD is more effective than Naocl in killing E. faecalis.

Naocl is more effective than MTA in killing E. faecalis.
Also, Chlorhexidine can kill E. faecalis
676.
During the orthodontist removes orthodontic braces he noticed

white hypocalcific lesion around the brackets what to do:
1- micro-abration and application of pumice then fluoride application. ***

2- composite resin.
4- leave and observe.
677.
Amount of daily wear of amalgam ingested in the body:

* Daily wear of amalgam:
a. 1-3 gs/day of mercury . "gs = micrograms"
b. 10 15 gs /day of mercury.
c. 25 gs /day of mercury.
678.
Weeping canal we use:

1- G.P
2- CaoH2 ***
3- Formocresol
The Treatment of weeping canals is: CaOH
Clinical Endodontics textbook TRONSTAD page 224
* In weeping canal, the apical part of the canal not dried properly. The
right therapy is a discontinuation of the use of the tissue-irritating
antiseptics followed by 23 weeks of calcium hydroxide in the root canal. The
chemically-induced exudation will then have stopped and the root canal can
be dried and obturated.
3 2 Caoh
679.
The easiest endo retreatment in:

a- Over obturation w GP.
b- Under obturation w GP.
c- Weeping canals. ***
d- Obturated w silver cone.

680.
1.
2.
Tug back refers to:

Retention of GP inside the canal. ***
Fluidity of GP.
http://www.endomail.com/articles/asd28fitting.html
681.
Cracked enamel best Dx by:

a. Dye. ***
682.
How can test crack tooth?

A. X-ray
B. electric test
C. ethyle dye test. ***
D. vitality test
683.
Method of detection of cracked teeth :

A) Horizontal percussion.
B) Vertical percussion.
C) Electric pulp test.
D) Transillumination.*** (Fibreoptic "FOTI")( Visible light test ).
684.
Cracked tooth syndrome is best diagnosed by?

A. Radiograph.
b. Subjective symptoms and horizontal percussion.
c. Palpation and vertical percussion.
d. Pulp testing.
Pickard's Manual of Operative Dentistry 8TH Ed OXFORD - Page 213
685.
Atropine :
A- Dries secretion such saliva. ***
B- Depresses the pulse rate.
c- Causes central nervous system depression.
686.
1234-
Drug used to increase saliva is:

anticholinergic.
cholinergic. ***
antidiabetic.
anticorticosteroid.
687.
In order to decrease the gastric secretion:

a. histamine A antigen equivalent.
b. histamine B antigen equivalent.
c. anticholinergic. ***
d. adrenal steroids.
688.
Pt. with complete denture come to your clinic, complaint from his
dry mouth, the proper medicine is:
1. Antidiabetic medicine.
2. Anticholenergic.
3. Steroid.
4. cholinergic. ***
689.
Drug used to decrease saliva during impression taking is:

1. Cholinergic.
2. Anticholinergic. ***
3. Antidiabetic.
4. Anticorticosteroid.
( Atropine ).
690.
Probe used to detect furcation:

1- Nabers probe. *** .
691.
Patient with pain on 15 and this tooth undergo with RCT but he still
has pain on percussion,what u suspect?
OR
During endo pt. is complaining of pain with percussion what is the cause
(what u suspect):
OR
During doing RCT, pt. complains from pain during percussion due to:
1- Primary apical periodontitis.
2- secondery apical periodontitis.
3- over instrumentation. ***
4- over medication.
5- Impact debris fragment.
692.
Pt.on long term antibiotic came with systemic candida:

1- amphotrecin.
2- Fluconazol. ***
3- nystatin.
693.
Systemic candida in pt. with AIDs what is the best medicine :

a- amphotrecin B
b- fluconazol. ***
694.
Candida infection is a frequent cause of:

A. Burning mouth. ***
695.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which one of the following was the most frequently reason for
replacement of a molar restoration with larger restoration:
New caries.
Recurrent caries.
Faulty restoration.
696.
Lesion at junction between hard and soft palate and surrounded with
psudoepithelium and hyperplasia in salivary gland:
A. Necrotizing sialometaplasia. ***
B. Squamus cell carcinoma.
http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S1741940905001019
697.
A child at dentition age is suffering from:

a) Diarrhea.
b) Sleep disorders.
c) Increased salivation. ***
* : 49
.
698.
When restoring asymptomatic healthy tooth with amalgam, the

normal physiologic symptom after that is:
a. Pain on hot.
b. Pain on cold. ***
c. Pain on biting.
d. Pain on sweet.
699.
Sharp pain is due to which type of fibers?

A. A fibers. ***
B. B fibers.
C. C fibers.
* A- delta fibers: transmit sharp pain.
* C- fibers: transmit dull or aching pain.
700.
Minimal facial reduction when preparing for veneers:

a. 0.3 mm.
b. 0.3 - 0.5 mm. ***
c. 1 - 1.5 mm.
Facial veneers reduction is 0.5-0.7 mm
701.
After u did RCT to your pt. he came back to the clinic after few days
with sever pain on biting, you did x-ray and it revealed that the RCT filling is
very good, but u saw radiopaque, thin ( film like ) spot on the lateral border
of the root what is the most probable diagnosis?
A) Accessory canal.
B) Vertical root canal fracture. ***
C) Perforation
702.
Patient suffering from a cracked enamel, his chief complain is pain
on :
A) Hot stimuli.
B) Cold stimuli.
C) A & B. ***
D) Electric test.
703.
Patient came complaining of severe pain on biting, related to a

certain tooth. Upon examination no pulpal or periodontal findings, and pulpal
vitality is positive, your Dx:
1) cracked tooth syndrome.***
( )
704.
The best method for tooth brush is bass method because:

It enters to interproximal area.
Can be used by patient with gingival recession and it rotainary advice to
all types of patients.
1.
The both sentences are correct. ***
2.
The first sentence is correct and the second is wrong.
http://www.oralcareshop.com/bass-method.htm
a.
b.
705.
Bass brushing has the advantage of the bristles enters in the

cervical area, and it is recommended for all patients:
a) both statements are true. ***
b) both statements are false.
c) first is true, second is wrong.
d) first is wrong, second is true.
Caranza periodontology page 658:
* Bass method advantages:
- It concentrates the cleaning action on the cervical and interproximal
portions of the teeth.
- The Bass technique is efficient and can be recommended for any patient
with or without periodontal involvement.
706.
Patient comes to you with edematous gingiva, inflamed, loss of

gingival contour and recession, what's the best tooth brushing technique?
A. Modified bass.
b. Modified stillman. ***
c. Charter.
d. Scrub.
Dentogist MCQs in Dentistry:
* The brushing technique which is recommended after periodontal surgery is
Charter.
* The brushing technique which is recommended for areas with progression
gingival recession is modified stillman.
707.
Pt. have unilateral fracture of left condyle, the mandible will:

* Unilateral fracture of left condyle the mandible will:
a) deviate to the left side. ***
b) deviate to the right side.
c) no deviate.
dental decks 2004
The mandible will always deviate to the side of injury or fracture.
708.
Pt. came after 24 months of tooth replantation which had ankylosis

with no root resorption. It most likely to develop root resorption in:
1/
2/
3/
4/
reduce greatly. ***

increase.
after 2 years.
after 4 years.
136
%80 % 35-6
%16-13
709.
1/
2/
3/
4/
Tracing of GP used for:

source of periapical pathosis. ***
acute periapical periodontitis.
periodontal abscess.
none.
710.
Isolated pocket in:

A- vertical root fracture.
B- palatogingival groove.
C- endo origin lesion.
D- all. ***
711.
After bleaching a tooth, we want to restore the tooth with composite

resin, we dont want to compromise the bonding, we wait for:
a) 24 hours.
b) a week. ***
c) choose a different material.
" Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials Theory, Practice, and Cases (3rd Ed
2009)"
* Esthetic restoration of teeth should be delayed for 2 weeks after the
completion of tooth whitening ( bleaching ).
. *
712.
Three years old pt., has anodontia ( no teeth at all ), what would you
do:
a) full denture. ***
b) implant.
c) space maitainer.
d) no intervention.
"PAEDIATRIC DENTISTRY - 3rd Ed. (2005)" page 294
In cases of anodontia, full dentures are required from about 3 years

of age, with the possibility of implant support for prostheses in adulthood.
713.
Treacher collins syndrome characterized by :

A-Prognatheic of mandible.
B-No hearing loss.
C-Upward sluing of eye.

D-Malar Bone NOT well formed or absent. ***
* Malar bone = Zygomatic bone = Cheek bone.
* Treacher Collins syndrome = mandibulofacial dysostosis.
face fish like due to underdeveloped cheek bone, down sluing of eye
retrognathic of mandible, fissure palatal, open bite, hearing loss
714.
Patient presents with deficiency at the malar bone, open bite,

normal mental abilities:
1- Treacher collins. ***
( mandibulofacial dysostosis ).
2- Cleidocranial dysplasia.
3- Eagle syndrome.
715.
When removing lower second molar:

a- occlusal plane perpendicular to the floor.
b- Buccolingual direction to dilate socket. ***
c- mesial then lingual.
716.
Stock trays compared to custom trays for a removable partial

denture impression:
A. Custom trays less effective than stock trays.
B. Custom trays can record an alginate impression as well as elastomeric
impression.
C. Custom trays provide even thickness of impression material. ***
D. All of the above.
717.
Which type of burs is the least in heat generation:

a) Diamond.
b) Carbide. *** ( tungsten carbide ).
c) titanium.
d) Steel bur.
718.
Pt. wears complete denture for 10 years & now he has cancer in the
floor of the mouth. What is the first question that the dentist should ask:
a- does your denture is ill-fitted
b- smoking. *** ( 80 % of the cancer of the floor of the mouth is caused by
smoking ).
c- Alcohol.
d- Does your denture impinge the o.mucosa. ( traumatic cause ).
Screening Oral Cancer - Prepared by Bruce F. Barker, D.D.S. and Gerry J.
Barker, R.D.H., M.A. AND
University of Missouri-Kansas City School of
Dentistry.
719.
Secondary dentin occurs due to:

a- occlusal trauma.
b- recurrent caries.
c- attrition dentin.
d- all of the above. ***
720.
All of these are ways to give L.A with less pain EXCEPT:
a- Give it slowly.
b- Stretch the muscle.
c- Topical anesthesia.
d- The needle size over than 25 gauge. ***
721.
How much subgingivally do you go with the band in class II

restorations:
A) 0.5 1 mm. ***
B) 1 2 mm.
C) 2 3 mm.
722.
The matrix band should be above the adjacent tooth occlusal surface
by:
a. 1 - 2mm. ***
b. 2 - 3mm.
c. 2.5 - 3.5mm.
d. below to it.
Textbook of operative dentistry- with MCQs page 139
723.
A female patient came to your clinic with dry lips and mouth and
bilateral submandibular oedema and ocular dryness. Diagnosis is:
a) Polymorphic adenoma.
b) sialitis.***
:
Sjgren's syndrome = "Sicca syndrome".
724.
The compression / relaxation cycle of external cardiac compression

should be repeated:
a- 2 times / second.
b- 60 times / minute.
c- 76 times / second.
d- 100 times / minute. ***
725.
One of the primary considerations in the treatment of fractures of

the jaw is:
a- to obtain and maintain proper occlusion.***

b- test teeth mobility.
c- vitality.
d- embedded foreign bodies.
726.
A child patient undergone pulpotomy in your clinic in 1st primary

molar. Next day the patient returned with ulcer on the right side of the lip,
your diagnosis is:
a) Apthosis.
b) Zonal herpes.
c) traumatic ulcer.***
727.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Bitewing x-Ray is used to diagnose all EXCEPT:

Proximal caries.
Secondary caries.
Gingival status.
Periapical abscess.***
728.
We can use under the composite restoration:

1. Varnish.
2. Zinc oxide eugenol.
3. Ca (OH)2.
4. Zinc phosphate cement.
A. 1+2.
B. 2+3.
C. 3+4***
D. 2+4.

.
729.
A patient complaining from a severe oedema in the lower jaw that

increases in size upon eating, diagnosis is:
a) salivary gland. *** ( submandibular salivary gland ).
730.
A patient that wasnt anaesthetized well in his 1st visit, next day he
returns with a limited mouth opening ( trismus ) He must be anaesthized,
whats the technique to be used:
a) Williams technique.
b) vazirani-akinosi technique *** (Berchers technique)
. - :
.Vazirani-akinosi technique: a closed mouth injection technique *
731.
At which of the following locations on a mandibular molar do you

complete the excavation of caries first:
a- axial walls.
b- Pulpal floor over the mesial pulp horns.
c- Peripheral caries. ***
d- All of the above are correct.
Oxford, Page 301
It is generally advised to start carious dentin excavation from the periphery *
towards the center of the lesion to minimize the risk of infection in case of
.accidental pulp exposure. Larger burs are recommended for this reason
732.
CMCP contains phenol in concentration:

a- 0.5 %.
b- 35 %. ***
c- 65 %.
d- 5 %.
CMCP= Camphorated MonoChloroPhenol used as RCT disinfection
contain: p-Chlorophenol 35%, Camphor 65%
733.
Dentist provided bleaching which also known as ( home bleaching )

contains:
a- 35 - 50 % hydrogen peroxide.
b- 5 - 22 % carbamide peroxide. ***
* A solution of 10 % carbamide peroxide in a soft splint is required for home
bleaching.
734.
Thermomechanical technique of obturation is:

A) Thermafil.
B) Obtura.
C) Ultrafil.
D) Mcspadden. *** ( Source : Endodontic obturation materials ).
735.
What is the disadvantages of mcspadden technique in obturation:

A. requires much practice to perfect. ***
736.
What are the disadvantages of mcspadden technique in obturation:

a) Increase time.
B) Increase steps.
C) Difficult in curved canals. *** ( and overfilling occurs ).
D) All the above.

Endodontic Obturation
737.
Dental student using thermoplastized G.P. What is the main problem

he may face: .
1- Extrusion of G.P. from the canal. ***
( overfilling occurs ). .
2- Inability to fill the proper length.
3- Failure to use maser cone at proper length.
4- Ledge.
* But, this method can be used in curved canals.
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005)- page 177
738.
65 years old black man wants to have very white teeth in his new
denture what should the dentist do:
a- Put the white teeth
b- Show the patient the suitable color first then show him the white one.
c- Convince him by showing him other patients photos. ***
d- Tell him firmly that his teeth color are good.
Or
- Do not show white teeth
Complete Denture 17th Ed page 73-74
Often a short informative talk using some of the tooth manufacturer's (or
preferably your own) "before and after" photos can be very effective in
motivating patients to accept a more natural tooth selection.
SHADE SELECTION:
The shade is selected with the Portrait shade guide. There are 24 shades;
enough to fulfill the color requirement of any denture patient. The large
selection seems confusing but you will soon note that certain shades will be
used the most. Shades A,B,C, & D (16) are the most useful and are called
characterized shades as they are a subtle mix of many shades. The last 8 are
the Bioform shades, B59-882, and are not characterized and do not look as
natural. They are included as Bioform teeth and shades have been sold for
many years and it's often necessary to match them.

For youthful patients, use lighter shades with a bluish incisal.
For older patients, use a darker shade with mostly body color.
If the patient has dark hair, brown eyes, and dark skin, darker shades with
more yellow and brown will look more natural. 'This rule does not apply for
Black patients as they often have very white teeth.
4.
If the patient has blue eyes and fair skin, use lighter shades with more
gray.
1.
2.
3.
5.
Consider the patient's desires: Many patients have very definite ideas on
tooth color and will often not accept the above guidelines. Don't let the
patient get a hold of the shade guide; many will select the pearly white A1 !!
Select a shade that you think is suitable and let them make the final choice.
6.
Consider the patient's old denture. Do they like the color of the teeth? If
they think the color of the old dentures teeth were satisfactory, match them
closely. Keep in mind that teeth discolor and other manufacture's shades may
be somewhat different.
:

" "

.

.

.
739.
During clinical examination the patient had pain when the exposed
root dentin is touched due to:
*Pt. presented to u having root recession he has pain when putting probe
gently on the root what is the diagnosis:
a. Dentin hypersensitivity. ***
b. Reversible pulpitis.
c. Irreversible pulpitis.
d. Apical Periodontitis.
740.
The patient has dull pain and swelling and the periapical x-ray shows
apical radiolucency your diagnosis will be:
a- Acute periodontal abscess
b- Chronic periodontal abscess with swelling. ***
741.
All these show honeycombed bone radiographically EXCEPT:

a- Ameloblastoma.
b- Odontogenic myxoma cyst.
c- Odontogenic keratocyst.
d- Adenomatoid tumor. ***
Source : http://www.head-face-med.com/content/1/1/3
742.
Flouride amount in water should be:

a- 0.2 - 0.5 mg/liter.
b- 1 - 5 mg/liter.
c- 1 - 2 mg/liter. ***
d- 0.1 - 0.2 mg/liter
743.
a.
b.
c.
d.
For children considered to be at high risk of caries and who live in

areas with water supplies containing less than 0.3 ppm:
0.25 mg. F per day age 6 months to 3 yrs.
0.5 mg. F per day from 3 - 6 yrs.
1 mg. F per day more than 6 yrs.
All of above. ***
744.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3 years old pt., water fluoridation 0.2 ppm what is the preventive
treatment:
0.25 mg. fluoride tablet. ***
1 mg. fluoride tablet.
Fluoridated mouth wash.
Sealant.
745.
The powered toothbrush invented in:
a- 1929.
b- 1939. ***
c- 1959.
d- 1969.
http://www.6moo7.com/vb/showthread.php?t=16782
746.
The most superior way to test the vitality of the tooth with:
A- Ice pack.
B- Chloroethyl
C- Endo special ice. *** (Spray)
D- Cold water spray.
Q: Best Cold Test for Pulp: Endodontic ice spray
http://www.realworldendo.com/eng/lib_diagnosis_procedures.html
* Cold test by Endo Ice and percussion test are the two most important
tests in vitality diagnosis.
747.
Mucocele The best ttt. is:

a- Radiation
b- Excision. ***
c- Chemotherapy
d- Cauterization
e- Leave it
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry 5Ed 2009 page 376
Rx. excision with associated damaged gland and duct
748.
8 years old came with fractured maxillary incisor tooth with incipient
exposed pulp after 30 minutes of the trauma, whats the
suitable ttt.:
* 8 years old pt. had trauma to 8 presented after 30 minute of injury, he had
crown fracture with incipient pulp exposure what u do:
a- Pulpatomy.
b- Direct pulp capping. ***
c- Pulpectomy.
d- Apexification.
749.
pt. came to dental clinic having a haemological problem after lab

test they found that factor VIII ( 8 ) is less 10 % whats the diagnosis:
a- Hemophilia A. ***
b- Hemophilia B.
(Defect in factor IX (9) : hemophilia B = Chrismas Disease).
750.
All these are contraindicated to RCT EXCEPT:

a- Non restorable tooth.
b- Vertical root fracture.
c- Tooth with insufficient tissue support.
d- Pt. who has diabetes or hypertension.
751.
Sharpening the curette and sickle, the cutting edge should be at
angle:
a- 50-60
b- 70-80. ***
c- 80-90
d- 60-70
752.
Avulsed tooth is washed with tap water, it should be replaced again:

a- Immediately. ***
b- After 2 hours.
c- 24 hrs.
753.
10 yrs old child, who is unable to differentiate the colors, and cant
tell his name or address. He is acting like:
OR
child 8 years old Patient with separation, he is unable to name color or his
name, this stage likely to be:
a. 3 years old. ***
b. 4 years old.
c. 10 years old.
754.
Patient with complete denture pronouncing F as a V:

A. Anterior teeth are upward from lip line. ***
B. Maxillary anterior teeth had placed too far from superiorly and anteriorly
***
Dental decks II - page 396
* Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far from

superiorly and anteriorly may result in difficulty in pronouncing F and V
sounds.
755.
pt. have a complete denture came to the clinic, tell you no complaint
in the talking or chewing, but when you exam him, you see the upper lip like
too long, deficient in the margins of the lip, reason is?
A) Deficiency in the vertical dimensional.
b) Anterior upper teeth are short. ***
c) Deficient in vit. B.
756.
Child has a habit of finger sucking and starts to show orodental

changes, the child needs:
a- Early appliance. ***
b- Psychological therapy.
c- Rewarding therapy.
d- Punishment.
757.
Knife ridge should be ttt. with:

1/ relining soft material.
2/ maximum coverage of flange. ***
3/ wide occlusal table.
4/ all.
758.
Child 3 years old came to clinic after falling on his chin, you found
that the primary incisor entered the follicle of the permanent incisor what
you will do:
A) Surgical removal of the follicle.
B) Leave it.
C) Surgical removal of the primary incisor. ***
* If the intruded primary incisor is contanting the permenant tooth bud, the
primary tooth should be extracted.
759.
Tongue develops from:

1/ Mandibular arch & tuberculum impar. ***
2/ 1st branchial arch.
760.
Perforation during endo space preparation what is the most surface

of distal root of lower molar will have tendency of perforation:
1/ Mesial surface. ***
2/ Distal surface.
3/ Buccal surface.
4/ Lingual surface.
761.
1/
2/
3/
4/
Crown and root perforation:

respond to MTA.
use matrix with hydroxyapatite and seal with G.I.
1 & 2. ***
root canal filling.
762.
Acceptable theory for dental pain:

1/ hydrodynamic. ***
2/ fluid movement.
3/ direct transduction.
* The most accepted theory to explain the unusual sensitivity and response
of exposed root surfaces to various stimuli is the hydrodynamic theory.
"Art and science of operative dentistry 2000" PAGE 257
* Most authorities agree that the hydrodynamic theory best explains dentin
hypersensitivity.
763.
While u were preparing a canal u did a ledge, then u used EDTA with
the file, this may lead to:
a. perforation of the strip.
764.
1/
2/
3/
4/
Removing of dentine in dangerous zone to cementum is:

perforation.
( Apical perforation ).
ledge.
stripping. *** ( Lateral perforation ).
zipping.
Stripping is a lateral perforation caused by over instrumentation

through a thin wall ( danger zone ) in the root.
765.
Follow up of RCT after 3 years, RCT failed best treatment is to:

a) Extraction of the tooth.
b) Redo the RCT . ***
( Redo = Retreatment ).
c) Apicectomy.
766.
Acute abscess is:

a) Cavity lined by epithelium.
( by pyogenic membrane ).
B) Cavity containing blood cells.
C) Cavity containing pus cells. ***
d) Cavity containing fluid.
MASTER DENTISTRY- Oral and Maxillofacial, Surgery, Radilolgy, Pathology and

Oral Medicine:
Acute abscess is a pathological cavity filled with pus and lined by a *
.pyogenic membrane
767.
The most close tooth to the maxillary sinus:

a) maxillary 1st molar. ***
768.
Mechanochemical preparation during RCT mainly aims to:

1) Widening of the apex.
2) Master cone reaches the radiographic apex.
3) Proper debridement of the apical part of the canal. ***
769.
Master cone doesn't reach the apex:

1) Ledge.
2) Residual remenants. ( Debris ).
3) 1 & 2. ***
770.
Child patient with obliteration in the central permanent incisor.

What will you do:
a. RCT.
b. pulpotomy.
c. pulpectomy.
d. Careful monitoring. ***
771.
At which temperature that gutta percha reaches the alpha temp.:

a- 42 - 48 c ***
b- 50 - 60
c- 70 - 80
d- 100c
772.
After completion of orthodontic treatment he came complaining of

pain in 11, radiograph show absorption in the middle third of the root of 11
what is the proper management:
a. Apply CaoH at the site of resorption. ******
b. Do RCT in a single visit.
c. Extract the tooth & reimplant it.
d. Extract the tooth & do implantation.
Dental decks part 2 page236
* External inflamatory root resorption, this type of external resorption is
rapidly progressive and will continue if treatement is not started
immediately. The resorption process can be stopped by immeditae root canal
treatment with calcium hydroxide paste.
* The etiology of external resorption : excessive orthodontie forces,

periradicular inflammation, dental trauma or impacted teeth.
773.
Patient that has a central incisor with severe resorption and who's
going through an ortho treatment that is going to make him extract the
premolars, which of the following won't be present in the treatment plan:
a. RPD.
b. implant.
c. Maryland bridge.
d. autoimplant of the premolars. ******
*
.
()
774.
The aim of treatment maintenance is:

A) Prevent secondary infection. ***
B) Check tissue response.
775.
The aim of maintaining therpy is:

a- Prevent recurrent disease. ***
b- Check tissue response.
776.
Provisional restoration for metal ceramic abutment is:
OR
Best provisional coverage for anterior teeth is:
a) aluminum sheet.
b) stainless steel crown.
c) ZnO.
d) Tooth colored polycarbonate crown. ***
777.
Dr. black ( GV. black ) periodontal instrument classification:

A. study what the number represents in the instrument formula. ***
778.
a.
b.
c.
d.
For g.v black classification study what the number refers to

angulation?
Number 1
Number 2
Number 3 ***
Number 4
* For g.v black classification study what the number represents in the
instrument formula : ( one for width, one for length and one for angulation ).
* 1st: Width of blade, 2nd: Length of the blade and

angle of cutting edge.
3rd: Angle of blade and
779.
An adult had an accident, maxillary central incisors intruded, lip is

painful with superficial wound what is the traumas classification:
a) luxation. ***
b) subluxation.
c) laceration.
d) abrasion.
e) contusion.
Handbook of dental trauma 2001- page 73
780.
Schick test is an intradermal test for determination of susceptibility
to:
a.
b.
c.
Diphtheria hypersensitivity. ***

Tuberculosis hypersensitivity.
??? lepsron.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schick_test
781.
In a curved root u bent a file by:

A. Put gauze on the file & bend it by hand. ***
b. Bend the file by pliers.
c by bare finger.
d. By twist.
. : *
782.
Father for child 12 years pt. asked you about the age for the
amalgam restoration of his child, you tell him:
a) 2 years.
b) 9 years.
c) 2 decades. *** ( = 20 years ).
15 20 years .
d) All life.
* Complex amalgam restoration with pins: its reported that 72 % of amalgam
restorations survived for 15 years, including those with cusp coverage.
. 20 *
783.
1.
2.
Cleft lip is resulted from incomplete union of:

Tow maxillary arches.
Maxillary arches and nasal process.***
784.
Arrange the steps of cleft palate management:

1. Measures to adjust speech.
2. Establish way for nursing and feeding.
3. Cosmetic closure.
4. Prevent collapse of two halves.
A. 2 4 1 3.
785.
Time of PT, PTT:

a) 11 - 15 seconds, 25 - 40 seconds. ***
PT = 12-14 sec , PTT = 30 -40 sec , Bleeding T = 8> min
786.
When extracting all maxillary teeth the correct order is:

a) 87654321
b) 87542163. ***
c) 12345678
Dentogist MCQs in Dentistry:
* The first maxillary molar and canine are key pillars of maxilla and
most firm teeth of the arch, once their adjacent teeth are removed they can
be easily luxated and extracted rathar than when these are tried to be
removed first.
787.
For a patient that is on a corticosteroid therapy, upon oral surgery,

the patient is given:
A) 100 - 200 mg. hydrocortisone. ***
B) 400 - 600 mg. prednisone.
788.
Patient under corticosteroid therapy, he will undergo surgical

extraction of third molar. what will you give to avoid adrenal crisis:
a- Dixamethasone(4 mg IV) ( better as it has a long duration of action ).
b- Methyl prednisolone ( 40 mg IV)
c- Hydrocortisone sodium sulfide (40 50mg)
d- Hydrocortisone sodium succinate (100 200 mg)***
789.
Patient with lupus erythematous and under cortisone, he needs to

surgical extraction of a tooth. What should the surgeon instructs the patient:
a) Take half of the cortisone dose at the day of operation.
B) Double the cortisone dose at the day of operation.***
c) Take half of the cortisone dose day before and at the day of operation and
day after.
D) Double the cortisone dose day before and at the day of operation and day
after.
790.
The right corticosteroid daily dose for pemphigus vulgaris is:

a- 1 - 2 g/kg/daily.
b- 1 - 2 mg.
c- 10 mg.
d- 50-100mg hydrocortisone. *** (max. is 120mg. daily prednisone)
Tyldesley's Oral Medicine, 5th Edition page 132
:
791.
The right corticosteroid daily dose for pemphigus vulgaris is:

a- 1 - 2 g/kg/daily.
b- 1-2 mg/kg/daily.*** ( ( 120 100
(max. is 120
mg. daily prednisone).
c- 10 mg/kg/daily.
d- 50 - 100 mg/kg/daily hydrocortisone.
792.
The following are indications of outpatient general anesthesia
EXCEPT:
a) ASA categories 1 & 2.
b) The very young child.
c) Cost increase. ***
d) Patient admitted and discharge the same day.
793.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The primary source of retention of porcelain veneer:

mechanical retention from undercut.
mechanical retention from secondary retentive features.
chemical bond by saline coupling agent.
micromechanical bond from itching of enamel and porcelain. ***
794.
A removable partial denture patient, Class II Kennedy classification.

The last tooth on the left side is the 2nd premolar which has a distal caries.
Whats the type of the clasp you will use for this premolar:
a) gingivally approaching clasp. ***
b) ring clasp.
795.
A 55 years old patient with multi-extraction teeth, after extraction

what will you do first:
a) Suturing.
B) Primary closure should be obtained if there is no sufficient tissue.
C) Alveoplasty should be done in all cases. ***
.
796.
Child with traumatized lip, no tooth mobility, what will you do first:
a) Radiograph to check if there is foreign body. ***
b) Refer to the physician for sensitivity test.

797.
2nd maxillary premolar contact area:

a) Middle of the middle third with buccal embrasure wider than lingual
embrasure.
B) Middle of the middle third with lingual embrasure wider than buccal
embrasure. ***
c) Cervical to the incisal third.
798.
Patient comes to the clinic with ill-fitting denture, during

examination you notice white small elevation on the crest of the lower ridge,
what will you tell the patient:
a) This lesion needs no concern and he should not worry.
B) The patient should not wear the denture for 2 weeks then follow up. ***
799.
How do you know if there are 2 canals in the same root:

OR
Best way to detect presence of 2 canals:
a) Radiographically with 2 files inside the root. ***
(putting 2 files & take X-ray)
b) The orifices are close to each other.
800.
Hunter Schreger bands "HSB" are white and dark lines that appear
in:
a) Enamel when view in horizontal ground.
B) Enamel when view in longitudinal ground. ***
c) Dentin when view in horizontal ground.
D) Dentin when view in longitudinal ground.
801.
Patient complains from pain in TMJ. During examination you noticed

that during opening of the mouth mandible is deviate to the right side with
left extruded. Diagnosis is:
a) Condylar displacement with reduction.
B) Condylar displacement without reduction. ***
802.
Pt. Presented to u complain of click during open and close. Thers is

no facial asymmetry EXCEPT when opening. What is the diagnosis:
1- internal derangement with reduction. ***
2- internal derangement without reduction.
3- Reumatoid arthritis.
Streptococcus activity detected by:

a) Fermentation. ***
B) Catalase.
latex agglutination (LA) test is can be useful for the detection of mutans
streptococci in dental plaque and also as a caries-activity test
District Laboratory Practice Tropical Countries, page 64
Catalase test
This test is used to differentiate those bacteria that prodce the enzyme
catalase as staphylococci from non-catalase producing bacteria such as
streptococci.
http://microbewiki.kenyon.edu/index.php/Streptococcus_mutans
803.
Cleidocranial dysostosis characteristics:

a) Supernumerary teeth.
b) Clavicle problems.
c) Delayed closure of fontanelles. ( )
d) All of above. ***
http://health.nytimes.com/health/guides/disease/cleidocranialdysostosis/overview.html#Symptoms
804.
To hasten Zinc oxide cement, you add:

a) Zinc sulfide.
B) Barium sulfide.
C) Zinc acetate. ***
D) Barium chloride.
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry 4th Ed. (2005), Page 770
"Journal of Dental Research"
805.
Child with mental disorder suffers from orofacial trauma, brought to

the hospital by his parents, the child is panic and Irritable , the
treatment should done under:
a) Local anesthesia.
B) General anesthesia.***
C) Gas sedation.
D) Intravenous sedation.
806.
Fracture before 1 year of upper central incisor reach the pulp in 8

year old child. How will you manage this case:
a) RCT.
B) Apexification. ***
c) Direct pulp capping
d) Indirect pulp capping.
:
807.
8 years old child came to your clinic with trauma to upper central
incisor with pulp exposure and extencive pulp bleeding your treatment will
be:
a. direct pulp capping.
b. pulpectomy with gutta percha filling.
c. apexification.
d. pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide. ***
808.
10 years pt. came with necrotic pulp in upper central with root apex
not close yet best treatment:
OR
child 10 years came with trauma on the centeral incisor from year ago, and
have discoloring on it, in the examination, no vitality in this tooth, and in the
x-ray there is fracture from the edge of the incisal to the pulp, and wide open
apex the best treatment
a. Capping.
b. Calcific barrier. *** ( Apexfication ) , (Calcification)
c. apexfication with gutta percha filling.
d. RCT with gutta percha.
e. Extraction
809.
To remove a broken periodontal instrument from the gingival sulcus:
a) Schwartz Periotriever. ***
810.
a.
b.
c.
d.
An 18 years old Pt. presents complaining of pain, bad breath and

bleeding gingiva. This began over the weakened while studying for the final
exam. The Pt. may have which of the following conditions:
Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. *** ( ANUG ).
Rapidly progressive periodontitis
Desquamative gingivitis.
Acute periodontal cyst.
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/u...supplip114.pdf
811.
Gingival condition occurs in young adult has good oral hygiene was
weakened:
OR
Student came to clinic with severe pain, interdental papilla is inflamed,
student has exams, heavy smoker, poor nutrition:
A. ANUG. ***
B. desqumative gingivitis.
C. periodontitis.
D. gingivitis.
812.
Differences between ANUG and AHGS is: Acute (primary) herpetic

gingivostomatitis
a.
ANUG occurs in dental papilla while AHGS diffuse erythematous inflamed
gingiva.
b.
ANUG occurs during young adult and AHGS in children.
c.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Acute_necrotizing_ulcerative_gingivitis#Signs_an
d_symptoms
813.
The rows show truth, the column shows test result:

a) Cell A has true positive sample.***
B) Cell A has true negative sample.
C) Cell A has false positive sample.
D) Cell A has false negative sample.
814.
Distinguishing between right & left canines can be determined:

a. because distal concavities are larger. ***
b. with a line bisecting the facial surface the tip lies distally.
c. others.
*
.
815.
The best way to remove silver point:

a) Stieglitz pliers. *** (Henry Schein)
c) Ultrasonic tips.
d) H files.
e) Hatchet.
816.
Pt. complain of pain and X-Ray show periapical abcess and your
decision was retreatment, When u remove filling, the canals was obturated
with silver points what the best material to remove:

OR
The best way to remove silver point:
a) Pliers and hemostate. ***
c) Ultrasonic tips.
d) H files.
817.
Isolation period of chicken box should be:

A- after appear of rach by week.
B- untill vesicle becomes crusted. *** .
C- until carter stage is last.
Dental decks - page1308
818.
In fixed Partial denture u use GIC for cemntation what best to do:
A-remove smear layer by acid to increase adhesion.
B-do not varnish because it affects adhesion. ***
C-mixed slowly on small area untill becomes creamy.
D-remove excess when it in dough stage.
"Contemporary Fixed Prosthodontics ROSENSTIEL page 772"
819.
Child has tooth which has no mobility but has luxation best
treatment:
A. Acrylic splint.
B. Flexible fixation. *** ( Non rigid physiological splinting ).
C. Rigid fixation.
Handbook of dental trauma 2001 page 71
* Luxation with immobilization treatment: Non-rigid(physiological) splinting
should be applied for a period of no more than 2 weeks.
820.
To drain submandibular abscess:

A) Intraorally through the mylohyoid muscles.
B) Extraorally under the chin.
C) Extraorally at the most purulent site.

D) Extraorally at the lower border of the mandible. ***
"Oral and maxillofacial surgery - Jonathan Pedlar page96"
821.
Scale to measure marginal deterioration:

1. Mahler scale. ***
2. Color analogues scale.

"Art & Science - Page 158"
822.
Streptococcus mutans cause caries & this disease is?

1/ epidemic.
2/ endemic. ***
3/ isolated.
Q:Mutant streptococci is : endemic
823.
One of these has no effect on the life span of handpiece:

a- Low Air in the compressor. ***
b- Trauma to the head of the hand piece.
c- Pressure during operating.
824.
Advantage of Wrought Wire in RPD over Cast Wire:

a- Less irritation to the abutment.***
825.
Why we use acrylic more than complete metal palate in complete
denture:
A- Cant do relining for the metal. ***
826.
Relining of denture:
A- remove all or part of fitting surface of the denture and add acrylic.
B- add acrylic to the base of the denture to increase vertical dimension. ***

827.
Rebasing of Complete Denture means:

a- Addition or change in the fitting surface.
b- Increasing the vertical dimension.
c- Change all the fitting surface. ***
401 :
.Rebasing is replacement of most or all of the denture base *

828.
When do class I preparation of posterior tooth for Composite

Restoration:
a- remove caries only. ***

b- extend 2mm in dentin.
829.
Color Stability is better in:

a- Porcelain. ***
b- Composite.
c- GIC.
830.
When all the teeth are missing EXCEPT the

according to kennedy classifications it is:
a- Class I modification 1. ***
2 canines,
831.
Antibiotics are most used in cases of:

a- Acute localized lesion.
b- Diffuse, highly progressing lesion. ***
832.
Patient un-cooperation can result fault in operation Technical faults

only are related to patient factor:
A. True.
B. False. ***
1st state true
2nd state false
833.
Bone graft material from site to another site in the same person:
a- allograft. (Allogenic or homograft)
b- autograft. ***( autotransplant )
c- alloplast.
d- Xenograft ( ) .
http://www.medterms.com/script/main/art.asp?articlekey=40486
834.
Ester type of local anathsesia metabolized by:

a- liver only.
b- kidney.
c- lung.
d- plasma. ***
835.
where does the breakdown of lidocaine

A) kidneys.
B) Liver. ***
836.
occurs :
Patency filing:
a- push the file apically to remove any block at the apex. ***
b- rotate the file circumferentially at the walls to remove any block of lateral
canals.
c- rotary files circumferentially at the walls to remove any block of lateral
canals.
d- file with bleaching agent.
837.
Best stress transfer under amalgam:

a- with thin base layer.
b- with thick base layer. ***
c- If put on sound dentin.
838.
Tooth with full crown need RCT, you did the RCT through the crown,
what is the best restoration to maintain the resistance of the crown:
A)
Glass ionomer resin with definite restoration.
B)
Amalgam.
839.
5 years old pt. had extraction of the lower primary molar & he had
fracture of the apex of the tooth what is the best ttt.:
1/ aggressive remove.
2/ visualization & remove.
3/ visualization & leave. *** Permanent bud
840.
7 years or (Boy) came to the clinic in the right maxillary central

incisor with large pulp exposure:
1/ pulpectomy with Ca(OH)2.
2/ pulptomy with Ca(OH)2. ***
3/ Direct pulp capping.
4/ leave it.
841.
Child has bruxism to be treated with:

a. sedative.
b. cusp capping.
c. vinyl plastic bite guard. ***
"Dentistry for Child and Adolescent - Page 646"
* A vinyl plastic bite guard ( Night Guard for children & adults ) : that covers
the occlusal surfaces of all teeth plus 2 mm. of the buccal and lingual
surfaces can be worn at night to prevent continuing abrasion due to bruxism.
The occlusal surface of the bite guard should be flat to avoid occlusal
interferences.
842.
Avulsed tooth:
1/ splint (7-14) days. ***
2/ or (3- 14) weeks.
843.
Proxy brush with which type of furcation:

A. Furcation Grade I.
B. Furcation Grade II.

C. Furcation Grade III. ***
D. Furcation Grade IV.
844.
Instrument used for wax grooving for a die in FPD:

* Instrument we use to make groove in the wax is:
A. PKT no1
B. PKT no3
C. Spoon excavator. ***
D. Burnisher.
845.
After u did upper& lower complete denture for old pt. He came back
to the clinic next day complaining of uncomfort with the denture. After u
recheck, no pain, good occlusion, good pronunciations, but u notice
beginning of inflammation in the gum and outer margins of the lips, u will
think this is due to:
1- Xerostomia. ***
2- Vit-B deficiency.
3- Scleroedema.
846.
Patient comes to your clinic with complete denture for routine visit
no complaining during speech or swallowing or opening the mouth just
glossitis, angular cheilitis and discomfort increasing while day:
a.
Vitamin B deficiency. *** (= Riboflavin deficiency ).
b.
Xerostomia.
c.
Scleroedema.

847.
Patient with leukemia, absolute neutrophilic count is 1700 what oral

surgeon should do:
a. go on the manager.
b. as usual pt. ***
c. postpone another day.
d. work with prophylactic antibiotic.
e. platelets transfusion.
.
848.
Child came to your clinic have leukaemia number of neutrophils are

(1400) want to extract his primary central incisor will you treat him:
OR
Child came to your clinic have leukaemia number of neutrophils are less than
(1500) want to extract his primary central incisor will you treat him:
a. as usual pt.
b. give prophylactic antibiotic. ***
c. gives platelets before extraction.

d. do not extract.
.
*Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC) > 1500 Neutrophils/mm3.
* In leukemia, dental treatment should only be performed if the absolute
neutrophil count (ANC) exceeds 1000 and if the platelet count at least
50000 . And prophylactic antibiotic coverage should be provided in
consultation with the pt.s oncologist.
Dental surgical procedures and administration of local anesthetic blocks
should be avoided during periods of thrombocytopenia ( it means that the
platelet count is less than 50000 ) .
A platelet transfusion may be needed if the platelet count is less than
50000 .
q:Patient with leukemia, absolute neutrophilic count is 1700 what oral
: surgeon should do
A. Go on the manover
.B. Postpone another day
.C. Work with prophylactic antibiotic
.D. as usual pt :
.E. Platelets transfusion
849.
Galvanic shock:
a. Put separating medium.
b. Wait. ***
c. put varnish.
Galvenic shock: it gradually disappears in a few days.
850.
8 years old child suffered from a trauma at the TMJ region as infant
complaining now from limitation in movement of the mandible. Diagnosis is:
a) Subluxation.
b) Ankylosis. ***
851.
Generalised lymphadenopathy seen in:

a- Infection.
b- Lymphocytic leukemia.
c- HIV.
d- Pernicious anemia.
A. a+b
B. a+b+c. ***
C. only d
D. b+d
* Causes of generalized lymphadenopathy:
1) Infection.
2)
3)
4)
5)
Hepatitis & AIDS ( HIV ).

Tuberculosis & 2ry syphilis.
Malignant: Leukaemia, Lymphoma & carcinoma.
Hyperthyroidism.
852.
Contraindication of gingivectomy:
a- periodontal abscess. ***
853.
Surgical interference with edentulous ridge for:

a- good retention, stability and continuous uniform alveolar ridge. ***
854.
The tip of size 20 endo file is:

A- 0.02 mm.
B- 0.20 mm. ***
Cohen's Pathway of the Pulp 10th Ed 2011, Page 239-240
There's different between tip & tapering
The taper of instruments is designed to be a 0.02mm
taper namely a diameter-increase by 0.02 mm for each mm of length,
starting at the tip.
Tapering of ISO standardization is 0.02mm
But the Tip of file = D0
For File 20 yellow in color
D0=0.20mm
D16= 0.52mm
855.
Bonding agent for enamel we use:

A- Unfilled resin. ***
B- primer & adhesive bonding agent.
C- Resin dissolves in acetone or alcohol.
D- Primer with resin modified glass ionomer.
856.
We redo high copper amalgam restoration when we have:

a- Amalgam with proximal marginal defect. *** food accumulation
b- Open margin less than 0.5 mm.
857.
Thickness of amalgam in complex amalgam restoration in cusp tip

area:
A- 0.5 mm.
B- 1 - 1.5 mm.
C- 1.5 - 2 mm.
D- 2 - 3 mm. ***
Working cusp reduction for amalgam is 2.5 - 3 mm.
858.
For cavity class II amalgam restoration in

premolar, the best matrix to be used:
A) Tofflemire matrix. ***
B) Mylar matrix.
C) Gold matrix.
D) Celluloid strips.
2nd maxillary
Summery of Operative dentistry page 220
859.
Cast with (+ve) bubbles because of:

A- Mixing stone.
B- Voids in impression when taken by the dentist. ***
C- Pouring.
D- Using warm water when mixing stone.
860.
Which of the following non- absorbable suture:

A. Plain catgut.
B. Chromic catgut.
C. Silk .***
D. All the above.
Dental Decks - page 1774.
861.
Most important criteria for full ceramic FPD:

A- High compressive strength. ***
B- High tensile strength.
Restorative dental materials 2002 page 5
* Because ceramics are stronger in compression than in tension, this
property provides increased resistance to shattering.
862.
Reciprocal arm in RPD helps to resist the force applied by which
parts:
A- retentive arm. ***
B- guide plane
863.
Patient who has un-modified class II kennedy classification, with

good periodontal condition and no carious lesion the best clasp to use on the
other side ( teeth side ):
a) reciprocal clasp. ( aker's clasp ). ***
b) ring clasp.
c) embrasure clasp.
d) gingivally approaching clasp.
864.
Pt. needs complete denture u take impression with irreversible

hydrocolloid ( alginate ) & poured it after late more than 15 min. the cast
appears short & chalky the reason is:
a. Dehydration of the impression. ***
( ) .
b. Expansion of the impression.
c. Immerse the impression in a chemical solution.
Oxford
865.
A completely edentulous patient, the dentist delivers a denture in

the 1st day normally, 2nd day the patient returns unable to wear the denture
again, the cause is:
OR
After insertion of immediate complete denture, pt. removes denture at night
next day he couldn`t wearing it and came to you, why this is happened:
.a. relife
.b. Swelling and inflammation after extraction
c. lack of skill for the patient to put the denture
d. Lack of frenum areas of the complete denture
866.
Over extended GP should removed using:

a- Ultrasonic vibrating.
b- Dissolving agent.
C-Rotary or round bur.
d- Surgery. ***
867.
Sterilization means killing:

a- Bacteria and virus.
b- Bacteria, virus, fungi and bacteria spores and protozoa. ***
C- Bacteria and fungus
d- virus and bacteria spores
868.
Killing of bacteria is:

A- Bacteriostatic.
B- Bactericidal. ***
869.
The most technique use with children:

A- TSD. ***
( Tell - Show - Do ).
B- Hand over mouth.
C- Punishment.
* .
870.
Chronic pericoronitis:
A- Difficult mouth opening.
B- Halitosis.
C- All of the above. ***
871.
Safe months to treat pregnant ladies:
A- 1 - 3
B- 4 - 6. *** (2nd trimester)
C-7 - 9.
872.
Mandibular 1st permanent molar looks in morphology as:

a- primary 1st mand. molar.
b- primary 2nd mand. molar. ***
c- primary 1st max molar.
d- primary 2nd max molar.
873.
Material which used for flasking complete denture:

a- plaster. ***
b- Stone.
c- Refractory.
. a & b
http://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?
hl=ar&site=webhp&gs_sm=e&gs_upl=5765l18572l0l19897l1l1l0l0l0l0l0l0ll0l0
&safe=active&q=cache:o2F1_V_B6LAJ
874.
Ideal properties of RC filling material is the following EXCEPT:

a) Radiolucent in radiograph. ***
b) Not irritate the surrounding tissue.
c) Easily removable when retreatment is necessary.
d) Stable and less dimensional change after insertion.
875.
The best method for core build up is:

1. Amalgam. ***
2. Compomer.
3. Glass ionomer.
http://dfd.atauni.edu.tr/UploadsCild/files/2007-1/2007_1_4%20.pdf
876.
Best core material receiving a crown on molar:

a) Amalgam. ***
b) reinforced glass ionomer.
d) composite.
Fundamentals of fixed prosthodontics page 185
877.
Most common site which drain pus is:

a) Mandibular central incisors.
b) Mandibular canines.
c) Mandibular first molar. ***
878.
When removing moist carious dentin which exposes the pulp, dentist
should:
1- Do direct pulp cap.
2- Do indirect pulp cap.
3- Prepare for endo. ***
"Dental secrets page 167"
"Dental pulp 2002 page 335"
879.
In prevention of dental caries, the promotion of a healthy diet is:

1- low effective measure.
2- Moderately effective measure.
3- High effective measure. ***
4- Mandatory measure.
880.
Treatment of cervical caries in old patients with a temporary

restoration is best done by:
a) Glass ionomer. *** due to its chemichal bond & fluoride release
b) Composite resitn.
c) Amalgam.
881.
Most used sugar substitute:

a) Sorbitol.
b) Mannitol.
c) Insulin.
d) Xylitol. ***
.Xylitol is a "tooth-friendly" and non fermentable sugar *
%40 ,

882.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What the influence of xylitol:

It causes caries.
Safe to the teeth. ***
Increase saliva.
Decrease saliva.
883.
The infection will spread cervically in infection from:

a- lower incisors.
b- lower premolars.
c- lower 2nd and 3rd molars. ***
d- upper incsisors.
884.
In hypertension patient, the history is important to detect the

severity:
a. true. ***
b. false.
885.
In inflamed mucosa due to wearing denture, when do new denture:

a- immediately.
b- after week.
c- Put tissue conditioning material and wait until the tissue heals and take
impression after 2 weeks. ***
886.
Forceps to hold flap when suturing:

A. Adsons. ***
Oral Surgery page 46
Adson forceps: used in anterior areas.
887.
Pulp oedema:
1- has no effect on vascular system.
2- fluid is compressed in the vessels limiting the intercellular pressure.
3- Interstitial pressure increased due to increased vascularity. ***

4- causes necrosis of the pulp tissues.
888.
Master cone doesn't reach the apex:

a. ledge.
b. residual remnants.
c. a & b. ***
889.
Pterygomandibular raphe:
a. Insertion & origin.
b. muscles.
c. should be medial to the injection.
d. all of the above. ***
890.
The divergence should be mesiodistally for

an amalgam
restoration:
a. no it should be convergent.
b. if the remaining proximal marginal ridge = 1.6 mm.
c. if the remaining proximal marginal ridge only > 1.6mm.
d. if the remaining proximal marginal ridge only < 1.6mm. ***
if thickness of mesial & distal margine less than 1.6mm for premolar & less
than 2mm for molar then should do divergence between them during
preparation to make enough thickness for amalgam to support enamel from
broken
891.
Patient had anaphylactic shock due to penicillin injection, what's the

most important in the emergency treatment to do:

a. 200 mg hydrocortisone intravenous.
b. 0.5 mg epinephrine of 1/10000 intravenous.
c. adrenaline of 1/1000 intramuscular. *** (IM)
Management
Place pt. in supine with legs raised if possible & give
0.5ml of 1:1000 adrenaline IM or SC (subcutaneous), Repeat after 15 mins
until improved.
Do not give IV in this concentration as it will induce ventricular fibrillation
Up to 500 mg of hydrocortisone IV
Up to 20 mg of chlorpheniramine slowly IV (if available)
O2 by mask
:
% 2
1/1000 %0.5 - 0.1
892.
Bronchial asthma epinephrine concentration subcutaneously:
A) 1/1000. ***
B) 1/10000
C) 1/100000
Dental Secret Page 50
893.
Which is contraindicated to the general anaesthia:

a. patient with an advanced medical condition like cardiac. ***
b. down's syndrome patient.
c. child with multiple carious lesion in most of his dentition.
d. child who needs dental care, but who's uncooperative, fearfuletc.
894.
Continuous condensation technique in GP filling is:

a. obtura I.
b. obtura II.
c. ultrafill.
d. System B. ***
.
895.
Best material for major connector:

a. Gold wrought wire.
b. Chrome cobalt. *** ( CR-CO ) Cobalt chromium ( CO-CR ) .
c. gold palladium.
d. titanium.
896.
Central incisor receiving a full ceramic restoration during finishing of

shoulder finish line subgingivally, what is the type of preferred bur:
A. Diamond end cutting.
897.
In a class III composite with a liner underneath, what's the best to
use:
a. Light cured GI. ***
b. ZOE.
c. Reinforced ZOE.
898.
Outline of 2nd Mandibular molar access opening:

A. Triangular with the base mesially.***
899.
The outline form of maxillary molar access opening is triangular. The

base of triangle is directed toward :
A) Buccal. ***
B) Palatal
C) Mesial
D) Distal
900.
After usage of sharp scalpels, needles what's the best management:

1) throw in a special container of sharp instruments. ***
( Sharp container ).
2) sterilize and reuse.
3) through in ordinary plastic waste basket.
901.
Sharpening of hand instrument mounted air driven better than

unmounted due to:
A) Fine grit. ***
B) Sterilization.
C) Ability to curve instrument.
Mounted-stone technique is 2nd technique for sharpening dental instrument
useful with curved or irregular shaped nibs,cylindrical shape, has fine grit,
use with straight hand piece.
Mandrel mounted stone made of 2 materials:
a. Arkansas stone
b.ruby stone (sand stone):composed of aluminum oxide, coarse, has rapid
cutting ability, used with dull instrument.
902.
Unmounted sharpening instruments are better than mounted

because:
a. has finer grit.
b. don't alter the bevel of the instrument.
c. easier to sterilize.
d. less particles of the instruments are removed.***cut less of the blade

"Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials: Theory, Practice, and Cases, 3rd Edition"
Unmounted stones are preferred as they are kinder on *
.instrument by removing less metal in the sharpening process
903.
Pt. came to the clinic with a lesion confined to the middle of the hard
palat, on the clinical examination the lesion is fluctuant & tender. On the
X-ray radiolucent area between the two central incisors roots. The diagnosis
will be:
OR
Pt. came to the clinic complaining from pain related to swelling on maxillary
central incisor area with vital to under percussion:
1/ periapical cyst.
2/ incisive cyst. *** ( incisive canal cyst ). ( nasopalatine duct cyst ).
3/ globulomaxillary cyst.
4/ aneurysmal bone cyst.
http://radiopaedia.org/articles/incisive-canal-cyst
904.
The percentage of simple caries located in the outer wall of the

dentin (proximal sides of the tooth) which left without cavitations is around:
1- 10%
2- 30%
3- 60% ***
4- 90%
Art & Science of Perative Dentistry Page 102
* Approximately 60% of teeth with radiographic proximal lesions in the outer

half of dentin are likely to be noncavitated.
905.
Irrigation solution for RCT, when there is infection and draining from
the canal is:
a) Sodium hypochlorite.
b) Iodine potassium.
c) Sodium hypochlorite and iodine potassium. ***
"Pocket Atlas of Endodontics page 154"
Iodine potassium is good antiseptics with good tissue biocompatibility
Betadine is commercially available product.
.
906.
Irrigation solution for RCT, when there is infection and draining from
the canal is:
a) Sodium hypochlorite.
b) Iodine potassium.
c) Sodium hypochlorite and H2O2. ***
d) Normal saline (Nacl)
907.
Trigeminal neuralgia treated by carbamazepine, the max. dose per

day divided in doses is:
A- 200 mg.
B- 500mg.
C- 1000mg.
D- 1200mg. ***
Carbamazepine Dosage Drugs.com
Daily dose: 600-1200 mg
is a tricyclic anticonvulsant and analgesic C15H12N2O used in the treatment of
trigeminal neuralgia and epilepsy
Mechanism: Block Na channels
Adver effects: Liver toxicity-blood dyscrasia- induction of cytochrome P-450.
908.
10 years child with congenital heart disease came for extraction of

his lower 1st molar, the antibiotic of choice for prevention of infective
endocarditis is:
a- Ampicillin 30 mg /kg orally 1hour before procedure.
b- cephalexin 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure.
c- clindamycin 20mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure.
d- Amoxicillin 50mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure. ***
Dental secrets:
.Amoxicillin 2 gm orally 1 hr. before procedure *
.Or also, ampicillin 50 mg/kg IM or IV 1hour before procedure
In patients that allergic to ampicillin or penicillin

give clindamycin 20mg/kg orally 1hour before procedure
909.
What is uses of microscope?

A. To see metabolic.
B. To see live cells. ***
C. To see dead cells.
910.
Patient has a palatal torus between hard & soft palates, the major
connector of choice:
a. Anterior-posterior palatal strap.
b. U shaped. *** (horseshoe)
c. posterior palatal strap.
d. full palatal strap
911.
White lesion bilaterally on cheek & other member in the family has
it:
a. leukoplakia.
b. white sponge nevus. ***(Cannon's disease) Hereditary disease
c. others.
"Burket- Oral medicine"
912.
Pt. construct for him a complete denture after few days he came to u
complaining from pain & white spots on the residual ridge do relief in that
area & give him ointment & after few days he came again complaining the
same but in another area the main cause is :
a. Uneven pressure on the crest of alveolar ridge. ***
b. Increase vertical dimension.
913.
After final inlay cementation and before complete setting of cement

we should:
a- remove occlusal interferences.
b- Burnishing of peripheries of restoration for more adaptation. ***
c- lowering occlusal surface.
Pickard's Manual of Operative Dentistry 8th Ed , Page 186
914.
Pt. with renal dialysis the best time of dental ttt. is:
a- 1 day before dialysis.
b- 1 day after dialysis. ***
c- 1week after dialysis.
Pt. receive dialysis 3 times/week, Dental ttt. should done 1 day after dialysis
to prevent bleeding difficulties, also we can't do surgery in the same day of

dialysis due to presence of heparin in blood.
915.
Child has dental caries in 3 or 4 surfaces of his first primary molar

we will replace them with:
A. preformed metal crown. *** ( = Stainless steel crown ).
B. porcelain crown.
C. amalgam crown.
D. composite restoration.
916.
Electro surgery rate:

a. 1.5 7.5 millions cycle per seconds. ***
b. 7.5 10 millions cycle per seconds.
c. 10 25 millions cycle per seconds.
d. 30 millions cycle per seconds.
Caranza periodontology page 582
917.
9 years old Pt. came to the clinic after he has an accident. X-ray
revealed bilateral fracture of the condyles. Mandible movements are normal
in all directions. What is your treatment?
1. Inter maxillary mandibular fixation.
2. Fixed IMF for 6 weeks.
3. Inter mandibular fixation.
4. No treatment is performed only anti inflammatory drugs and observation.
***
918.
6 years old patient received trauma in his maxillary primary incisor,

the tooth is intruded. The permanent incisors are expected to have:
a. Displacement.
b. Malformation.
c. Cracks in enamel.
d. Yellowish or whitish discoloration.*** (with hypoplasia)
Atlas Of Oral Medicine page 151
Enamel hypoplasia : due to trauma or infections of developing teeth.
919.
Head and neck nevi with multi lesion is:

1/ Eagle syndrome.
2/ Albright syndrome. ***
3/ Apert syndrome
4/ congential melanotic nevi.
Oxford Page 795
920.
Avulsed teeth with replantation, dentist evaluates prognosis with :

1/ flexible wire.
2/ ridge wire.
3/ in follow-up pd. wire.
http://www.doctorspiller.com/avulsed_teeth.htm
.The ideal splint for avulsed teeth is a flexible splint *
921.
Pt. needs complete denture, when u did the examination u notice

the maxillary tuberosity will interfere with denture:
1/ need no. 12 blade for extension. ***
2/ partial thickness flap extend buccal & palatal.
3/ suture under tension.
Peterson's Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 2nd Ed 2004 page
169
922.
For recording of vertical dimension we use:

a. Willis Gauge. *** ( or : another method: Two dots technique ).
b. Caliper.
c. Face bow.
923.
What name of bur used in proximal surface of laminate veneer?

A. Radial.
B. Dimound. ***
C. Fissure.
http://www.brasselerusa.com/documents/Nixon_Porcelain%20Veneer
%20II.pdf
924.
What name of bur use in facial surface of veneer?

A. Dimond. *** (Round end)
B. Fissure.
http://www.brasselerusa.com/products/display.cfm?zoom=diamonds&id=38
925.
Pacifier habit what you see in his mouth 7 years old pt.?
a. Anterior Open bite, Posterior crossbite ***
b. Anterior open bite with expansion max.bone
c. Move incisal to labial
d. crossbite
Dentistry for child and adolescent:

* Children who were pacifier users were significantly more likely to show
open bite, posterior crossbite and increased overjet.
926.
In the pulp:
1. Cell rich zone contains fibroblasts.
2. Cell free zone contains capillaries and nerve networks.
3. Odonotbalstic layer contains odontoblasts.
. Dental Decks - page 226
927.
What type pontic design would you do in

a patient with a
high esthetic demand when preparing teeth number 9 11 for a F P D:
a- Ridge lap or saddle pontic.
b- An ovate pontic.
c- Modified ridge lab pontic. ***
928.
Design of anterior pontic:

a- Modified ridge lab. ***
b- saddle.
c- Hygienic.
929.
Skeletal bone of skull develops from :

a- Neurocranium ossification.
b- Intramembranous ossification.
c- Endochondral ossification. ***
Dental decks 287
* Endochondral ossification : Short bone and long bone and bones of skull
( ethmoid, sphenoid and temporal bones ).
* Intramembranous ossification: Flat bone.
930.
a.
b.
c.
Skeletal face is from:
Neural crest. ***

Paraxial mesoderm.
Lateral plate mesoderm.
Sadler's Langman's Medical Embryology
931.
Glenoid fossa is found in:

1/ orbital cavity.
2/ nasal cavity.
3/ middle cranial fossa.
4/ Temporal bone. ***
Anatomy of the Human Body - Henry Gray page 82
Glenoid fossa = Mandibular fossa.
* The mandibular fossa: is a depression in the temporal bone.
932.
1/
2/
3/
4/
The spread of odontogenic infection is based on:

host defense.
virulent of microorganism.
No. of bacteria.
All. ***
933.
3rd generation of apexo locator:

Uses with all pts.
Needs more research.
Increases chair time.
Decreases radiographic film need. ***
a.
b.
c.
d.
934.
1/
2/
3/
4/
1
2
4
6
pt. taken heparin he should do surgery after :

Hrs.
Hrs.
Hrs.
Hrs. ***
935.
Twins came to your clinic during routine examination, you found

great change behaviour between both of them this due to:
A) Hereditary.
B) Environment. ***
C) Maturation.
D) Gender
E) None
Dentistry for child and adolescent:
* The differences between monozygotic twins result from
environmental differences whereas those between dizygotic twins
result from differences in both environment and heredity.
http://social.jrank.org/pages/666/Twin-Studies.html
936.
Epileptic patient you will not give him :

A) Aspirin.
B) Azoles.
C) Metronidazole. *** ( Flagyl ).
D) All of the above
937.
Dilantin ( phenytoin ) dont give with :

A) Aspirin.
B) Azoles.
C) Metronidazole*** ( Flagyl ).
D) All of the above
938.
Pregnant 25 years, bleeding on probing, location on papilla of

anterior area of the maxilla, isolated :
A) Giant cell granuloma
B) Pyogenic granuloma. *** ( pregnancy epulis ).
939.
Porcelain, highly esthetic, anterior maxilla area, we choose:
OR
Pt. has discoloration on his Max. Ant. central incisors, and u planning to do
veneer for him. Which type of porcelain has high easthetic ?
a. In ceram. ***
b. Dicor glass reinforced risen.
c. Impress.
Fundamentals of fixed prosthodontics Page 436
940.
A)
The highest strength in porcelain:

ZR ( zircon ) reinforced in ceram. ***
941.
Amalgam pain after restoration due to:

A) Phase 2 gamma.
B) Phase 1 gamma.
C) Zinc containing alloy. ***
D) Admix alloy.
942.
Zinc if added to amalgam:

a. Increases moisture sensitivity and causes expansion. ***
b. Increases marginal integrity and longevity than zinc free amalgam.
c. a+ b.

943.
Endocrine and exocrine gland is :

A) Pancreas. ***
B) Pituitary gland.
C) Thyroid gland.
D) Salivary gland.
E) Sweat gland.
Pancreas:
Endocrine gland producing hormones: e.g. insulin,glucagon,andsomatostatin.

Exocrine gland producing digestive enzymes pass to small intestine.
944.
Saline coupling agent for wetting wall of pulp:

1- decreases wall tension. ***
2- increases wall tension.
945.
In endo, one of sealer property is to be flowable (or wetability) to

enhance this quality we can mix it with a material that have:
a.
Low surface tension. ***
b.
High surface tension.
946.
Saline coupling agent:

1/ used with porcelain to enhance wetability of bonding. ***
2/ used with tooth and porcelain.
947.
For discharged sharp instrument ( blades, needle tips, wedges,etc)

put in :
A) dicharged paper basket.
B) designed sharp instrument special container. ***
C) disinfectant in autoclave then throw.
D) put it in multifoil.
948.
Female patient came to your clinic with continous severe pain

related to 1st maxillary molar. After examination dentist diagnose the tooth is
carious and has irreversible pulpitis. He decides to do RCT. After enough time
for anesthesia, Patient wont allow the dentist to touch the tooth due to
severe pain. Dentist should:
A) Give another appointment to the patient with description of antibiotics.
***
B) Extraction.
C) Intra-pulpal anaesthia.
949.
32 years old patient came to your dental office, suffering from a bad
odour and taste from his mouth. By examination patient has an anterior
mandibular 3 units bridge that bubbles upon applying water spray and slight
pressure. Cause:
A) Broken abutment.
B) Food impaction underneath the pontic.
C) Separation between the abutment and the retainer. *** ( Dissolving of
cement / microleakage ).
950.
Patient complaining from pain in the floor of the mouth ( beneath

the lower jaw ) your diagnosis is related to the salivary glands, whats the
best x-ray to help you:
OR
Patient complains from swelling in submandibular, swelling increase when
patient eating and swallowing only what type of x ray use to diagnosis:
A) panoramic x-ray.
B) occlusal.
C) Sialography. *** (Specialized radiograph for the Salivary gland
disorders ).
951.
Distal surface for first upper premolar, contact with the neighboring
teeth:
A) in the middle with buccal vastness wider than lingual one.
B) in the middle with lingual vastness wider than buccal one. ***
952.
The movement of polymorphic cells in the gaps of intracellular to the

blood capillary outside it called:
A) Porosity.
B) Slinking.
C) Diapedesis. ***
Wikipedia
953.
Child with cleft palate and cleft lip with anodontia due to:
a- Van Der Woude syndrome. ***
b- Treacher Collins syndrome.
c- Paget disease.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Van_der_Woude_syndrome
954.
Which of the following canals in # 14 is most difficult to locate:

a- palatal.
b- Distobuccal.
c- Mesiobuccal. ***
d- All of above.
955.
Which condition is an apical lesion that develop acute exacerbation

of chronic apical abscess:
a- Granuloma.
b- Phoenix abscess. ***
c- Cyst.
d- Non of above.
956.
Which tooth requires special attention when preparing the occlusal

aspect for restoration:
a- lower 2nd molar.
b- lower 1st premolar.*** because lingual cusp longer than buccal
c- lower 2nd premolar.
d- upper 1st molar.
957.
Pt. came to u with coloration bluish or greenish black in the gingival

margins, He said that he has gastrointestinal problem. This is caused by:
a- mercury.
b- lead.
c- Bismuth. ***
d- arsen.
.
.
.
958.
How can u repair fractured rest ( in the place where it passes over
the marginal ridge of the tooth ) in removable partial denture?
A- Spot welding.
b- Electric soldering. ***
c- Industrial brazing.
959.
Sealer is used in RCT to:

1- Fill the voids. *** .
2- Increase strength of RC filling.
3- Disinfect the canal.
960.
Child patient presented with swelling in the buccal and palatal

maxillary anterior area two days ago, the pathology of the lesion there is a
giant cell, what is the diagnosis:
1. Giant granuloma. *** ( Giant cell granuloma ).
2. Hemangioma.
http://www.turkishjournalpediatrics.org/?fullTextId=227&lang=eng
961.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Child with anodontia and loss of body hair, the diagnosis is:
Down's syndrome.
Ectodermal dysplasia. ***
Fructose.
Diabetic.
962.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Cavity etching before applying GIC is:

Polyacrylic acid 10 seconds. ***
Polyacrylic acid 60 seconds.
Phosphoric acid 10 seconds.
Phosphoric acid 60 seconds.
963.
To increse retention of GIC u should use:

a- 37% polyacrylic acid for 15 seconds.
b- 35% polyacrylic acid for 10 seconds.
c- 10% polyacrylic acid for 10 seconds. ***
d- 10% polyacrylic acid for 15 seconds.
a,b
a,d
c,d
c only. ***
d only
For GIC, etching is more better to done by 10% polyacrylic acid for
10 seconds for enamel and dentin ( note: GIC contains polyacrylic acid ).
For Composite, etching is more better to done by 37%
orthophosphoric or phosphoric acid for 20 seconds on enamel but for 10

seconds on dentin.
964.
Surgery for ridges aims to:

1. Vertical dimension.
2. Speech.
3. Modify ridge for stability. ***
965.
Patient with warfarin treatment and you want to do surgery, when

you can do:
1. When PTT is 1 1.5 INR on the same day.
2. When PTT is 2 2.5 INR on the same day.
3. When PT is 1 1.5 INR on the same day.
4. When PT is 2 2.5 INR on the same day. ***
Dental secrets Page 38
966.
Patient with pain on the upper right area, and the patient can not
tell the tooth causes the pain, what is the least reliable way to do test pulp:
1. Cold test.
2. Hot test.
3. Electric test. ***
4. Stimulation the dentine.
967.
Pt. have denture, after 5 years he complains of ulcer and

inflammation in lower buccal vestibule. What is the diagnosis:
1/ Hypertrophic frenum. ***

2/ Epulis fissuratum.
968.
Patient presented to you after fitting the immediate denture 5 10

months, complaining pain and over tissue in the mandibular, what is the
diagnosis:
1. Epulis fissuratum. ***
2. Hypertrophic frenum.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epulis_fissuratum
969.
Main reason for surgical pocket therapy:

a. Expose the roots for scaling and root planning. ***
b. Remove supragingival calculus.
970.
Biological width:
a. 1 mm.
b. 2mm. ***
c. 3mm.
d. 4mm.
971.
A.
Biological depth:
Crestal bone to gingival sulcus. ***
972.
Periodontal attachment contains:

A. Epithilum, sulcus & connective tissue. ***
973.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Periodontally involved root surface must be root planed to:

Remove the attached plaque and calculus.
Remove the necrotic cementum.
Change the root surface to become biocompatible.
All of the above.
a & b only. ***
http://www.asnanak.net/ar/article.php?sid=152 : Periodontal debridement.
974.
a.
b.
c.
Best measurement of periodontitis by:
Pocket depth.
Bleeding.
Attachment level. ***
Oxford, Page 120
( Attachment loss ).
975.
The tissue response to oral hygiene instructions is detected by:

a- Probe pocket depth.
b- Less bleeding on propping . ***
Oxford, Page 120
976.
a.
After scaling and root planning healing occurs by:

Long junctional epithelium. *** = ( created)
b.
c.
d.
New attachment.
New bone and connective tissue formation.
New attached periodontal ligament fibers.
977.
a.
b.
c.
d.
During examination 34 show gingival recession buccally, the least

correct reason is:
.
Frenum attachment.
Pt. is right hand brushe.
Occlusal force.
Inadequate gingiva.
978.
Periodontal pocket differs most significantly from gingival pocket

with respect to:
a. Depth.
b. Tendency to bleed on gentle probing.
c. The location of the bone of the pocket.
d. All of the above.
* To have a true periodontal pocket, a probing measurement
be 4 mm. or more .
* Normal gingival depth is 1 - 3 mm.
should
979.
All of these are right ways to handle the instrument EXCEPT:

A- Modified pen handle.
b- Inverted pen.
c- Pen handle. ***
d- Palm and thumb.
* There are four grasps used with the hand instruments: Modified pen,
Inverted pen, Palm and thumb, Modified palm and thumb.
980.
Amalgam is used in extensive cavities :

a- When the cusp is supported by dentine and proper retentive preparation.
b- When cusps lost and thin supported wall. ***
c- When one cusp is lost and need to apply restoration to replace it.
981.
What is the most factor encouraging dental caries:

OR
Most common cause of caries:
OR
Incipient caries in the old patients is MOSTLY due to:
A) Xerostomia. ***
B) Hypocalcification.
C) Smoking.
D) Diet sugar consumption.

E) Saliva
982.
The best definition to odontoblast:

a- Its subadjacent to predentine & odontoblastic process. ***
b- Odontoblast cell is more in the cellular pulp than radicular.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pulp_(tooth)
983.
The last sensation which disappears after local anesthesia:
A- Pain.
b- Deep pressure. ***
c- Temperature.
http://www.scribd.com/doc/17106080/Local-Anesthetics
984.
Wax inlay which type contain in much gradient:

OR The kind of onlay wax used in cast:
a) Paraffin wax. ***
b) Bee wax.
985.
While RCT if u penetrate the furcation area of roots what u will do?
a. Mineral Trioxide Aggregate ( MTA ). ***
b. Caoh.
c. formocresol.
986.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The mineral trioxide aggregate ( MTA ) is best material for:

Indirect pulp capping. ( Direct pulp capping ) :
Apexogenesis.
Apexofication.
Root canal obturation.
all except a. ***
(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mineral_trioxide_aggregate )
q=cache:r5DcCNJhBZIJ:www.drpulp.com/2011/05/use-mta-in-your-endodonticcases.html+best+use+of+mta&cd=7&hl=ar&ct=clnk&gl=sa&client=firefox-a
Direct Pulp Capping / Apexification / Perforation: MTA
Internal&External Resportion / Root End Filling
:
http://books.google.com/books?id=zMa...regate&f=false
987.
The fundamental rule in the endodontic emergencies is:

a. control pain by inflammatory non steroid.
b. diagnosis is certain. ***
988.
Female pt. comes with endo treated upper central with M & D caries
and have incisal abrasion. Porcelain veneer is planned with modification to
cover incisal edge. Veneer should end:
a. fourth lingualy 0.5 mm before centric occlusal. ***
b. fourth 1.5 mm before centric occlusion.
c. fifth 1.5 mm before centric occlusion.
989.
Pt. comes with siuns u make GP tracing & take radiograph the GP
appears in lateral surface of the root:
a. periodontal abscess.
b. periodontitis.
c. lateral acessory canal.
990.
Technique of endo fill where we use continuous condensation:

a. vertical condensation. ***
Principles and Practice of Endodontics WALTON Page 273
991.
Post graduated student uses MTA the prognosis depends on prevent:

a. immediate suture.
b. disturbance during closure of wound. ***
c. using a flab.
992.
The cause of black cast which prevents pickling due to:

a. over heat. ***
b. contaminate with gas.
c. incomplete casting.
993.
Pt. takes 40mg cortisone in day of procedure:

a. double the dose in the day of procedure. ***
b. double the dose in the day of procedure & day after.
c. stop the medication.
994.
What is the dominant type of fibers found in cementum:

A) longitudinal.
B) Circular.
C) Sharpey's fiber. ***
995.
Fibers which completely embedded in cementation and pass from

cementation of one tooth to the cementation of adjacent tooth is:

1. Sharpey's fiber.
2. Transseptal fibers. ***
3. Longitudinal fibers.
996.
What is the main function of impression tray holes :

A) Fixing the Impression material. ***
997.
A Tailor is presented to your dental office, whats the most

common feature to be found in his teeth upon examination :
A) Attrition.
B) Abrasion. ***
C) Erosion.
D) Abfraction
998.
Abrasion of enamel and root surfaces may result from the long term
use of:
A. hard toothbrush.
B. Tooth abrasive toothpaste or powder.
C. Vigorous use of the toothbrush.
D. A and B only.
E. A, B and C. ***
999.
Patient came to your clinic complaining of pain, upon examination

you cant find a cause. Whats the next logical step to do in investigation:
A) Panoramic X-Ray. ***
B) CT Scan.
C) MRI.
D) Regular tomography.
1000.
Contraindications of implant EXCEPT:

1. many dental caries. ***
2. malignancy.
3. radiation therapy.
1001.
Dental implants are successfully with min. failure:

a- premaxilla area in the upper arch.
b- Posterior area of the maxillary arch. ( max. failure ).
c- Mandible between the mental foramens. ***
d- Buccal shelf of the mandible.
Dental secrets
1002.
Whats the best implant type allowing osseointegration:

A)
Root-form endosseous implant. ***
1003.
The indications of implantation:

1. Diabetic patient.
2. Loss of one tooth only with the adjecent teeth. ***
1004.
what medical condition should prevent the dentist from practicing

dentistry :
A) Diabetes.
B) Hypertension.
C) Influenza. ***
D) Headache.
1005.
patient complaining of Xerostomia & frequent going to the toilet at

night:
A)
Diabetes Mellitus. ***
1006.
which of the following materials is not

agent :
A) Oxidized cellulose.
B) Gelvon.
Gelfoam gelatin :
C) Zinc oxide. ***
a hemostatic
1007.
Patient suffering from a submandibular gland abscess, dentist made

a stab incision and is fixing
a rubber drain to evacuate the pus, the drain
is sutured to :
A) Intra-oral between the myeloid muscles.
B) Extraorally from the most fluctant point. *** OR (From angle of the
mandible)
C) Extraorally under the chin.
1008.
what is the concept of Pro-taper system:

A) Step down tech.
B) Step back tech.
C) Crown down tech. ***
1009.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Labial reduction for porcelain metal restoration must be:
OR
Preparation of tooth for metal ceramic restoration should be done in:
One plane for aesthetic.
Two planes by follow the morphology. ***
0.8 All.
Parallel to axial wall of the teeth
1010.
preparation for labial surface in one plane in the preparation for

metal crown is:
A) More retentive.
B) Less retentive. ***
c) Less cutting of tissues .
1011.
Upon opening an incision in a periapical abscess in a lower 1st molar,

you open :
A) The most bottom of the abscess. *** ( Intraorally ).
B) The most necrotic part of the abscess.
C) Extraoral.
1012.
Whats the test used for HIV:

A. Elisa. *** ( called also : EIA ).
1013.
Neonate 2 years old has a lesion on the centrum of the tongue with
the eruption of the 1st tooth:
A) Riga-fede disease. *** ( sublingual traumatic ulceration ).
Mosby Medical Dictionary.
granuloma of frenulum linguae

, -

Which of the following conditions is highly indicated for the short therapy of
DOTS and is directly observed once in the clinic:
A) Tuberculosis. *** ( )
B) HIV.
C) H1N1.
D) Mental illness.
1014.
At the begining of the operation day in the clinic, you should start
the water/air spray for three minutes in order to get rid of which type of
microorganisms:
A) Streptococcus mutans.
B) Streptococcus salivarius. ***
1015.
The main link between the pulp and periodontium is:
A. Apical foramen. ***

B. Dentinal tubules.
C. Accessory canals.
D. PDL.
1016.
Patient came with severe pain related to right 1st mandibular molar,
there's no swelling related, pulp test is negative, no evidence in radiograph.
Diagnosis:
A. Irreversible pulpitis.
B. Acute periodontal abscess. ***
C. Suppurative periodontal abscess.
1017.
Which of the following teeth has a contact area between the incisal (
occlusal ) third and middle third:
A. 1st maxillary premolar.
B. 1st mandibular premolar. ***
C. 1st maxillary molar.
D. Central mandible Incisor.
Textbook of Dental and Oral Anatomy Physiology and Occlusion page 110
1018.
A pt. came to your clinic after examination you found deformity in

the neck and collarbones and supernumerary of teeth what is the
diagnosis :
a.
Cleidocranial dysostosis.***
b.
Amelogensis imperfecta.
1019.
Pt. with complete denture complains from tightness of denture in

morning then becomes good this due to:
A) Relif of denture.*** ( because there may be pressure points or
areas that the tissues will try to adapte to it throughout the day ).
B) Lack of cheeck elastisty.
C) Poor post dam.
1020.
Old pt. comes with set of compelete denture with tight denture in
morning and become loose later in a day what is the cause:
a. lack of posterior palatal seal.
b. deflecting of occlusion.
.
c. excessive relining of denture.***
d. inelasticity of cheek.
1021.
A border line diabetic pt. came with denture stomatitis you find
abundant debris in the tissue surface area of the denture, the proper
management is:
A. Systemic antibiotic.
B. Topical antifungal. ***
C. Systemic antifungal.
D. Topical antibiotic.
1022.
Pain in central incisors from:

A. Central & lateral incisors. ***
B. Lateral & canine.
C. Canine & premolar.
D. Premolar & molar.
1023.
To treat non vital tooth with open apex when doing access opening
with gates glidden bur take care to : :
A. Remove all dentin.
B. Remove minimal dentine. ***
.
C. Follow conservative method.

1024.
To treat non vital tooth with open apex when doing access opening
with gates glidden drills take care to avoid: :
a.
Remove all dentin. ***
.
b.
Remove minimal dentine. .
c.
Follow conservative method.
1025.
20 years old pt. have avulsed tooth for 60 min. the management to
return vascularity of the tooth:
A. Scrap the surface of the root.
B. Place the tooth in sodium sulfide of X %.
C. Place it in sodium chloride then sodium sulfide. ***
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005) page 73:
1026.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The peripheries of the custom tray should be under extended to all

border and clearance from the frenum areas:
2mm. ***
4mm.
6mm.
8mm.
1027.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The goal of making the peripheries of the custom tray under

extended to all bordered clearance from the frenum areas:
To give enough space for the used impression materials to allow border
molding the tray. ***
To give enough space for the die spacer.
To give enough space for the cementation materials.
None.
1028.
The base plate could be made by:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Acrylic plate.
Ceramic plate.
Wax plate.
1 and 3. ***
1029.
The vertical height of the maxillary occlusion rim from the reflection
of the cast is:
1.
12mm.
2.
22mm. *** (2.2cm.)
3.
32mm.
4.
42mm.
1030.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The anterior width of the maxillary occlusion rim is:

5mm. ***
(0.5 cm.)
10mm.
15mm.
20mm.
1031.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The posterior width of the maxillary occlusion rim:

8-10mm. *** (0.8 - 1 cm.)
8-15mm.
10-15mm.
15-20mm.
1032.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The anterior height of the mandibular occlusion rim is:
6mm.
16mm. ***
26mm.
36mm.
( 1.5 cm. )
1033.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The posterior height of mandibular occlusion rim is:

Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of retro molar pad. ***
Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of the frenum areas.
Equal to the point representing 1/2 of the height of the alveolar ridge.
None.
1034.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Record the occlusal plane in order to:

To determine the amount of space between the mandible and the maxilla
which will be occupied by artificial teeth.
To determine vertical and horizontal levels of the teeth.
a and b. ***
None.
1035.
The protrusive condylar guidance should be set on the

articulator at:
a.
30 35 degree.
( 30 40 degree ).
b.
50 degree.
c.
60 degree.
e. 70 degree.
1036.
a.
b.
c.
d.
OR
The incisal guide should be set on the articulator at articulator at:
Zero degree.
20 degree.
40 degree.
None.
1037.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The lateral condylar posts should be set on the articulator at:
The primary goal of anterior tooth selection is:
OR
The primary role of the anterior teeth on a denture is:
To provide good functional requirements.
To satisfy esthetic requirements. ***
To let the patient feel comfortable.
None.
1038.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The primary goal of posterior tooth selection is:

To provide good functional requirements. ***
To satisfy esthetic requirements.
To satisfy psychological requirements.
None.
1039.
a.
b.
c.
d.
You need.to get the teeth shade:

Shade guide. ***
Incisal guide.
Acrylic teeth.
Porcelain teeth.
1040.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The teeth materials are:

Acrylic teeth.
Porcelain teeth.
a and b. ***
None.
1041.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The width of the lower teeth is:

1/2 of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship.
1/3 of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship.
3/4 of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal jaw relationship. ***
None.
1042.
Generally posterior teeth are classified into:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Anatomy (cusp) teeth.

Non-anatomy (cuspless) teeth or flat.
a and b. ***
None.
1043.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The process of positioning or arranging teeth on the denture base is
termed:
Casting.
Investing.
Setting up. ***
Flasking.
1044.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Important functions must be considered when arranging anterior

teeth:
Aesthetics.
Incision.
Phonetics.
All.
1045.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which surface of the central incisor that contacts the median line:
Distal.
Mesial. ***
Buccal.
Lingual.
1046.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The incisal edge of the maxillary lateral incisor is..above and

parallel to the occlusal plane:
1/2 mm.
1 mm. ***
2 mm.
3 mm.
1047.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The long axis of the maxillary cuspid is inclined slightly to the:

Mesial.
Distal.
Buccal.
Lingual.
1048.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The long axis of the maxillary first molar is inclined to:

Buccal. *** ( when viewed from the front ).
Mesial.
Distal. ( when viewed from the side ).
Lingual.
1049.
It is called .. when the occlusal surfaces of the right and left

posterior teeth are on the same level:
1.
Vertical plane.
2.
3.
4.
Horizontal plane. ***

Compensating curve.
All.
1050.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The . of the maxillary first bicuspid is raised approximately 1/2

mm. of the occlusal plane:
Buccal cusp.
Lingual cusp. ***
Mesial surface.
All.
1051.
1.
2.
3.
4.
All maxillary posterior teeth touch the occlusal plane EXCEPT:

1st bicuspid.
2nd bicuspid.
1st molar.
2nd molar. ***
1052.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The distance between the lingual surfaces of the maxillary anterior

teeth and the labial surfaces of the mandibular anterior teeth is:
Vertical overlap ( overbite ).
Horizontal overlap ( overjet ). ***
Occlusal plane.
All.
1053.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The distance between the incisal edges of the maxillary and

mandibular anterior teeth is:
Horizontal overlap ( overjet ).
Vertical overlap ( overbite ). ***
Occlusal plane.
All.
1054.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The average distance between the lingual surface of the maxillary

anterior teeth and the buccal surface of the mandibular anterior teeth is:
( Horizontal overlap overjet ) :
1/2mm.
1mm.
2mm. ***
3mm.
* An ideal bite has an overjet of 1 3 mm. and an overbite of 1 3 mm.
* Horizontal overlap overjet and Vertical overlap overbite is 1 - 3 mm.
1055.
Which tooth of the mandibular anterior teeth that touch the lingual
surface of the maxillary anterior teeth in normal centric relation?
1.
Central incisor.
2.
Lateral incisor.
3.
4.
Cuspid (Canine). ***

None.
1056.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The
The
The
The
The mesial surface of the mandibular lateral incisor contacts:

mesial surface of the central incisor.
distal surface of the central incisor. ***
mesial surface of the cuspid.
distal surface of the cuspid.
1057.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The tip of cusp of the mandibular cuspid is 1mm above the occlusal
plane to establish . of the maxillary anteriors :
Horizontal overlap.
Occlusal plane.
Vertical overlap. ***
All.
1058.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The relation involves the movement of the mandible to the side

either right or left in which the act of mastication is to be accomplished.
Therefore the side to which the mandible moves is called:
Balancing side.
Working side. ***
Compensating side.
All.
1059.
1.
2.
3.
4.
When the mandible moves to the working side, the opposite side
cusp to cusp contacts in order to balance stresses of mastication. This
relation is called:
Working relation.
Balancing relation. *** ( Balancing side ).
Occlusal relation.
None.
1060.
1.
2.
3.
4.
In order to distribute the primary forces of mastication, to fall within

the base of the denture, the mandibular teeth are set:
On the buccal edge of the ridge.
On the lingual edge of the ridge.
On the crest of the ridge. ***
All.
1061.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The mandibular posterior tooth that has no contact with any

maxillary teeth during the balancing occlusion is:
First bicuspid. ***
Second bicuspid.
First molar.
Second molar.
1062.
The used device in flasking procedure is called:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Articulator.
Separating medium.
Flask. ***
None.
1063.
1.
2.
3.
4.
We vaseline the inner surface of the flasks all rounds:

To help in the packing procedure.
To separate the models ( casts ) safety. ***
1 and 2.
None.
1064.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The procedure that follows the flasking procedure is called:

Polishing.
Deflasking.
Packing. ***
Curing the acrylic.
1065.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
Teeth selection in setting up is based on these factors:

Shade of the teeth.
Size and shape of the teeth.
Angle of the teeth.
1 and 2. ***
All the above.
1066.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Direct pulp capping is done in:

Primary molar.
Primary incisor.
Permanent molar. ***
None of the above.
1067.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Indirect pulp capping is done in:

Primary molar.
Premolar and molar.
Incisors.
All the above. *** non of the above
Indirect capping indicated in permanent teeth with immature apices.
1068.
What do we use as temporary filling material in anterior region when

aesthetic is important:
1.
Composite.
2.
Glass ionemer cement. *** (GIC)
3.
Zinc oxide eugenol.
1069.
The maximum dose of x-ray exposure dose for radiographic

technique:
1.
2.
3.
4.
100 milli roentgens per week. *** ( 0.1 Rem per week ).
10 roentgens per week.
Person who works near radiation can be exposed in one year to a maximum
dose of 5 Rem.
1070.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Acute periapical abscess characterized by:

Varying degree of pain.
Varying degree of swelling.
Some time not shown on the radiograph.
All the above. ***
1071.
1.
2.
3.
4.
10
20
15
25
It is preferable to be the length of the handle of the custom tray:

mm.
mm.
mm. *** (1.5 cm)
mm.
1072.
1.
2.
3.
4.
is the art and science of functional, anatomic and cosmetic

reconstruction of missing or defective parts in the maxilla, mandible or face
by the use of non living substances:
Complete denture.
Maxillofacial prostheses. ***
Orthodontics.
Partial denture.
1073.
1.
2.
3.
4.
.. Is the one that provides application and device to restore

aesthetic and functional requirements to patients with maxillofacial defects:
Endodontist.
Pedodontist.
Maxillofacial prosthodontist. ***
Peridontist.
1074.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The objectives of maxillofacial prosthetics:

Aesthetic.
Functions.
Protect the tissues.
All. ***
1075.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The type of maxillofacial defects:

Congenital defects.
Acquired defects.
Developmental defects.
All. ***
1076.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Cleft palate, cleft lip, missing ear, prognathism are:

Acquired defects.
Congenital defects. ***
Developments defects.
None.
1077.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Accidents, surgery, pathology are:

Acquired defects. ***
Developments defects.
Congenital defects.
None.
1078.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Extra-oral restorations are:

Radium shield.
Ear plugs for hearing.
Missing eye, missing nose or ear. ***
All.
1079.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Lost part of maxilla or mandible with the facial structures is

classified by:
Intra-oral restorations.
Extra-oral restorations.
Combined intra-oral and extra-oral restorations. ***
All.
1080.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The lack of continuity of the roof of the mouth through the whole or
part of its length in the form of fissure extending anterioposteriorly is:
Obturator.
Splint.
Stent.
Congenital cleft palate. ***
1081.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The factors that influence the induction of cleft palate:

Hereditary.
Environmental.
1 and 2. ***
None.
1082.
1.
2.
3.
4.
A prosthesis used to close a congenital or acquired opening in the

palate is:
Stent.
Splint.
Obturator. ***
None.
1083.
1.
2.
3.
4.
.. are appliances used for immobilization of fragments of broken

parts of jaw bones in their original position until repair takes place?
Splints. ***
Stents.
Obturators.
Speech aids.
1084.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The prepared surface of an abutment to receive the rest is called:

Minor connecter.
Major connecter.
Rest seat. ***
None.
1085.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The part of a removable partial denture that contacts a tooth it

affords primarily vertical support is called:
Minor connecter.
Major connecter.
Rest. ***
None.
1086.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The part of a removable partial denture is:

Rests.
Major connecters.
Retainers.
All. ***
1087.
1.
2.
3.
4.
A rigid part of the partial denture casting that unites the rests and
another part of the prosthesis to the opposite side of the arch is called:
Minor connecter.
Major connecter. ***
Retainer.
Rest.
1088.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The part of a removable denture that forms

a structure of metal
struts that engages and unites the metal casting with the resin
forming the denture base is called:
Minor connecter.
Major connecter.
Denture base connecter. ***
Retainer.
1089.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The rests are classified into:

Anterior rests.
Posterior rests.
1 and 2. ***
None.
1090.
The surveyor instrument consists of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Vertical arm.
Cast platform or table.
Small analysis rod.
All. ***
1091.
The primary guiding surface that determines the insertion for the
partial denture is:
1.
The tooth surface opposite to the edentulous areas.
2.
The tooth surface adjacent to the edentulous areas. ***
3.
None.
1092.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The one who is supposed to give the correct design of the removable
partial denture:
Prosthodontist. ***
Technician.
Assistant.
None.
1093.
1.
2.
3.
4.
To fabricate a removable partial casting requires making a second

cast of high-heat investment material this cast is called:
Study cast.
Master cast.
Refractory cast. *** ( )
All.
1094.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Kennedy divided all partial edentulous arches:

Two main types.
Three main types.
Four main types. ***
Five main types.
1095.
1.
2.
3.
4.
According to the Kennedy's classification, the bilateral edentulous

areas located posterior to the remaining natural teeth is:
Class one. ***
Class two.
Class three.
Class four.
1096.
1.
2.
3.
4.
According to the Kennedy's classification, unilateral edentulous area

with natural teeth remaining both anterior and posterior is:
Class one.
Class two.
Class three. ***
Class four.
1097.
We should select the shade for a composite resin ( or porcelain )

utilizing:
1.
Bright light. ( ) .
2.
3.
4.
Dry shade guide.

Dry tooth isolated by the rubber dam.
None of the above are correct. ***
1098.
1.
2.
3.
4th canal in upper first molar is found:

Lingual to MBC. ***
Buccal to MBC.
Distal to MBC.
1099.
1.
2.
3.
4.
To get file size 24, the following length should be cut from file size
20:
1mm.
2mm. ***
3mm.
4mm.
tip 2 ,
tapped .. ..
1 ( tip ) 22 ,
2
24 ,
2
1100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Red color endo file acccording ADA:
20 (yellow)
25. *** (Red)
30 (Blue)
35 (Green)
1101.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
a)
b)
c)
d)
The following canals may be found in an upper molar:

Mesio-buccal.
Disto-buccal.
Mesio-palatal. ( MB2 ).
Disto-lingual.
Palatal.
1+2+4.
1+2+4+5.
2+3+4+5.
1+2+3+5. ***
1102.
Patient needs fixed bridge after you check in mouth of the patient
see change color of bridge to cloudy to milky what causes?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Excessive fired. ***

Reduced fired.
Excessive moisture.
Increased poursity.
Dental Decks2 - Page 712
* When porcelain is fired too many times it appears as a milky state and
makes glazing is very difficult.
1103.
The ideal crown to root ratio of a tooth be utilized as abridge

abutment is:
a- 3:1.
b- 2:1.
c- 1:2. ***
d- 1:1.
Dental Decks
1104.
First step in ttt. of abused tissue in patient with existing denture is

to:
A. Educate the patient. ***
1105.
pt. has a lesion in tongue which suffering from scar & fever, the
lesion when removed leave bleeding area under it, diagnosis is:
a.
Leukoplakia.
b.
Candida.
c.
ulcer.
1106.
Food low cariogenic affects the following should be characteristic:

1/ contain protein.
2/ PH low than 3.
3/ contains minerals. .
4/ Bufferin and antibacterial
http://www.adha.org/CE_courses/course7/table4.htm
1107.
a.
b.
c.
d.
When resection the tip of root in apicectomy, the cut shoud be:
Perpendicular to the long axis of tooth.
Parallel to long axis.
Acute angle.

Obtuse angle.

When do resection it's should be Perpendicular to the long axis of tooth
OR should be 45 degree.
1108.
with:
Child patient with painful herpes simplex the treatment is acyclovir
abc-
Vit. C.
Local anesthesia with multivitamins.***(Vitamines C, A , E)
Local anesthesia with protein.
335
1109.
Adding of surfactant to irrigation solution during RCT to increase

wettability of canal walls by:
a- lowering surface tension. ***
b- increasing surface tension.
c- Passing through dentinal tubules.
Surfactant - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Surfactant:
1110.
The function of post:

a. provides retention for a crown.
b. enhances the strength of the tooth.
c. provides retention for a core. ***
d. provides the root canal sealing.
1111.
patient comes with severe stained anterior central left maxillary

incisor with small distal caries & lost incisal edge treated by:
a.
Full ceramic restoration. ***
1112.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The ideal post drill for most posterior teeth is:

gates glidden size 3
peeso drill size 3-6
profile size 60-70
peeso drill size 2-3 ***
ENDODONTICS 5th Edition page 924
1113.
The decision to retreat substandard endodontics shoud be

based on:
1- Radiographic evaluation of the endodontic treatment
quality. ***
2-periapical pathology.
3- patient symptoms.
4- physical exploration of the root canal type and quality seal.
5- restorative treatment plan.
1114.
The most common injuries in child is:

a. Avulsed tooth.
b. Root.
c. Intrusion of the tooth inside the socket wall.
1115.
Child with previous history of minor trauma with excessive bleeding

we do test, the result is prolonged PT & slightly increase clotting time &
..test is +ve, the diagnosis is:
a. Hemophelia b.
Hemophelia A or B
(unaffected PT , prolonged PPT ).
b. thrombocytopenia.
.(unaffected PT , prolonged bleeding time)
*** .c. Vit.K deficiency
.(prolonged PT , trauma & excessive bleeding)
1116.
pt. came to your clinic complaining from his gingiva which bleed alot
with any little pressure, on clinical examination u found pinpoint purple dots
and general rash like of ecchymosis on his body laboratory finding : highly
decrease in platlets (slightly less than 25000 ) have a history of ecchymosis
and bruising all over his body :
a.
thrombocytopenic purpura.***
:
Normal platelets count is: 150,000 450,000
1117.
The best test for vitality of crowned tooth is:
OR
Testing a tooth with PFM with:
A. Cold with rubber dam. *** ( or hot : thermal testing ).
B. Cold test.
D. Cold & Hot test.
1118.
Nitrous oxide interferences with:
OR
Over exposure of nitrous oxide inhibits metabolism of vitamin:
A. Vit B12 ***
B. Vit B6
C. Vit A
D. Vit C
1119.
Salivary gland role in maintaining tooth and bacteria integrity on the

oral cavity is done by:
a- Bacterial clearance.
b- Remineralization.
c- Buffering and direct anti-bacterial role. ***
d- Bacterial clearance and reminerlization.
1120.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
physiolgical activity of local anesthesia:
Lipid solubility of unionized form. ***

Diffusbility.
Affinity for rotien bendin.
Percent ionizing at physiologic pH.
Vasodilition properties.
1121.
abcd-
what is the form of local anesthesia when enters the nerve tissues:
lipid soluble ionized form.
lipid soluble non-ionized. ***
water soluble ionized.
water soluble nonionized.
:
hl=ar&site=&btnK=&gs_sm=&gs_upl=&safe=active&q=cache:SbzBndI3vQUJ:
http://nursingpharmacology.info/Central/Local_Anes/LAobj1.htm+lipid+solubil
ity+of+unionized+form&ct=clnk
1122.
Intraosseous injection of local anesthesia to lower molar:

a. Perforate the bone mesial to the tooth.
.
b. Give one with 1:50000 epinipherine.
c. Give 1/4 to 1/5 of the cartridge. *** .
d. Ask the pt. if he has numbness in his lower lip after injection.
1123.
re implant of avulsed tooth, what you do:

A- Optimal reposition and fixed splint.
B- Optimal reposition and flexable splint. ***
C- Observe.
D- Watch with splint periodontally.
:Avulsed tooth *
Splint tooth in position with ( preferably ) a flexible splint. Have patient bite
into occlusion to be certain that the position is correct before applying the
.splint. The splint will be kept in place for about one week
1124.
The following drug for angina pt. except:

Propranolol .1
NSAIDs. *** (Non steroid Anti-inflammatory drugs) .2
1125.
1.
2.
3.
4.
The Ideal form for the wall of root during RCT is:
flaring toward the occlusion surface. ***
convergent toward occlusion surface
parallel toward occlusion surface
angularity toward occlusion surface
1126.
Thermal pulp test principle of:

1/ blood supply of pulp.
2/ nerve supply of pulp. *** ( AS nerve fibers of pulp ).
3/ AO fibers.
1127.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rideal-Walker test is the test for detecting activity of:

Disinfection. ***
Antibiotics.
Sterealization by dry heat.
Sterealization by wet heat.
1128.
When do tooth formation start in fetus:

1. between 5th and 6th week. *** (in Bell's Stage)
1129.
Die ditching means:

a) Carving apical to finish line.
b) Carving coronal to finish line.
c) Mark finish line with red pen.
1130.
When esthetic is important, posterior class I composite is done in:

a. Subgingival box.
b. Bad oral hygiene.
c. Contact free area.
d. Class I without central contact.
1131.
Child 10 years old came to the clinic with periodontitis associated

with the 1ry & 2ry dentitions with severe generalized bone destruction and
calcification on the general examination hyperkeratosis of hands & feet is
noticed the diagnosis is:
a. Hypophosphotasia.
b. Prepuberty periodontitis.
c. Papillon lefevre syndrome. ***
d. Juvenile periodontitis.
Oxford Handbook 4th

: -

1132.
pt. with palmar plantar keratosis and periodontitis in permanent

dentition is likely to has:
a. papillon lefevre syndrome. ***
b. downs syndrome.
c. leukemia.
d. hypophosphatesia.
1133.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Early exfoliation of deciduous teeth is seen in:
papillon-lefevre syndrome. ***

Peter-killy syndrome.
Pierre robin syndrome.
Non of the obove.
1134.
While taking X-ray for upper right first premolar with two equal
roots using mesial slob, its lingual root will move [comparing to the
zygomatic process]:
OR
When take x-ray in upper premolar to locate lingual root using mesial shift it
will appear:
A. Distal.
B. Mesial. ***
C. Buccal.
D. Lingual.
1135.
Maternal immunity that passed from mother to the fetus through the
placenta, IgG & IgA is considered: ( )
a- Natural passive immunity. *** or: Natural acquired passive immunity.
b- Natural active immunity.
c- Acquired passive immunity.
d- Acquired active immunity.
1136.
When u want to make immediate complete denture after extraction

all teeth what the type of suture u will use:
a.
Horizontal mattress suture.
b.
Vertical mattress suture.
c. Interrupted suture.
d. Continous locked suture. ***
1137.
Smear layer composed of:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Dentine debris.
Inorganic particles.
Bacteria.
All the above. ***
Dental secrets.
1138.
During making filing by NiTi it gets fractured due the property of:
OR
While dentist making biomechanical preparation by using NiTi file it broken
this is because the property of:
a- Rigidity and memory.
b- Elasticity and memory
c- Axial fatigue. ***
d- tarnish.
Fracture of NiTi rotary files is due to the cyclic fatigue and torsional *
.stresses ( b or c )
:Basic Dental Biomaterials Sciense
1139.
Child has blue swelling on gingiva with no sysmptoms just heavy

saliva, what is ur diagnosis:
A. Eruption hematoma.***
1140.
After remove impacted 3rd lower molar, there is parasthesia why?

a. irritating the nerve during extraction.***
b. broke mandible.
1141.
The test for testing the bur in which all the blades of the burs pass
through 1 point called:
a. Runout. ***
b. Concentricity.
c. Runout and concentricity.
d. None of above.
Runout: is dynamic test measuring accuracy which all blade tips pass
throough a single point.
Art & Science 2000,Page 335
1142.
Mobility in midface with step deformity in frontzygomatic suture.

Diagnosis:
A.
Lefort II.
B.
Lefort III. ***
C.
Bilateral zygomatic complex fracture.
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry 4th Ed 2005
1143.
Two weeks baby born with 2 anterior teeth which is highly mobile,
and his mother have no problem or discomfort during nursing him what is ur
managemnt :
a. do not do anything as the baby have no problem during feeding.
b. do not do anything as the mother don`t feel discomfort.
c. U must extract as soon as possible to avoid accident inhalation of them. ***

(because those are natal teeth)
d. Do nothing, it will shell by it self.
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry 4th Ed
1144.
Most common cause of chipped porcelain in PFM:

a- Thin layer of metal.
b- Thin layer of porcelain.
c- Centric occlusal contact at the junction of porcelain and metal. ***
1145.
The forces action through a FPD on the abutment tooth should be

directed:
1- As far as possible at right angles to the long axes of the teeth.
2- Parallel to the long axes of the teeth.
3- By decreasing the facio-lingual dimension of the pontic.
4- By decreasing the mesio-lingual dimension of the pontic.
5- In a mesial direction so that teeth nearer the midline will offer additional
support.
a. 1+3+4
b.1+2+5
c. 1+4+5
d. 2+3
e. 2+4
f. 2+5
1146.
Which not compatible to the pulp:
A- GIC.
B- Zinc phosphate cement. ***
C- Zinc polycarboxylate cement.
1147.
The working time of zinc phosphate cement is shortened ( decreased

) by:
a- concentrating the acid.
b- Warming of glass slab. ***
c- Incremental mixing of powder.
d- all of the above.
1148.
Most abrasive contact:

a- tooth to tooth.
b- Porcelain to tooth. ***
c- gold to tooth.
1149.
Length of post:
a- 1/2 root.
b- 2/3 root.
c- 1/2 root containing in bone.
d- As much longer and leave 4 mm. apical seal. ***
1150.
Concentrating of acid used in etching porcelain veneer:

a- 9.6 % hydrofluoric acid. *** .
b- 35 % phosphoric acid.
c- 37 % phosphoric acid.
d- 37 % hydrflouric acid.
1151.
Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far

superiorly and anteriorly might result in difficulty in pronouncing:
a) f and v sounds. ***
b) d and t sounds.
c) s and th sounds.
d) most vowels.
1152.
An advantage of rubber-base impression material over reversible

hydrocolloid material (e.g agar) is that rubber base impression material:
a) will displace soft tissue.
b) Requires less armamentarium.
c) is significantly more accurate. ***
d) is more accurate if saliva, mucous or blood is present.
1153.
In a clinical research trial we primarly need to :

a. Get written subject in the patient's own native language. ***
.
b) Verbally write subject briefly.
c) Tell patients that they are part of study
1154.
Radiolucent structure occupied by a radiopaque structure that forms

a mass of disorganized arrangement of odontogenic tissue:
a. Complex odontoma. *** .
b. Calcifying Epithelial Odontogenic Cyst.
c. Compound odontoma .
Oxford 4th edition
1155.
Which of these canal irrigants is unable to kill E. feacalis :

A. NaOH. *** ( not Naocl (
B. MTA.
C. Chlorhexidine.
1156.
The least effective irrigant against E. feacalis :

a) sodium hypochlorite. ( Naocl ).
b) Tetracycline. .
c) Iodine. *** .
d) Chlorohexidine.
1157.
in Root end resection, what is the conditioning:

a. Citric acid. ( )
b. tetracyclin.
c. EDTA.
1158.
During endodontic surgery the irrigation solution used is:

a. Saline. ***
b. EDTA.
c. Naocl.
1159.
Edentulous pt. class II kenndy classification 2nd premolar used as

abutment when we serving we found mesial undercut what is the proper
clasp used:
1/ wrought wire with round cross section. ***
2/ wrought wire with half round cross section.
3/ cast clasp with round cross section.
4/ cast clasp with half cross section.
1160.
Balanced occlusion in complete denture helps in:

A. retention.
B. stability. ***
1161.
After a trauma on a primary tooth what is the least possibility?

A. changes in the permanent tooth enamel color. ***
B. changes the primary tooth color.
C. apex pathology on primary tooth.
1162.
In case of infiltration anesthesia we give:

a) submucosal. ***
b) intraosseous.
c) subperiosteal.
d) none.
1163.
The patient who has not breakfast, we never give him anesthesia
because:
a) hyperglycemia.
b) hypoglycemia. *** .
c) increased heart rate.
d) hypertension.
1164.
Gingivitis means:
a) Inflammation of the periodontal ligaments.
b) Inflammation of the bone.
c) Inflammation of the gingiva. ***
d) Inflammation of the tongue.
1165.
Patient is suffering a pain during sleep the diagnosis is:

a) Inflammation of dentin.
b) Inflammation of enamel.
c) Inflammation of cementum.
d) Inflammation of pulp.
1166.
Permanent restoration is:

a) Calcium hydroxide.
b) Amalgam. ***
c) Alginate.
d) Zinc oxide eugenol.
1167.
Composite is used mainly for:

a) Anterior teeth. ***
b) Posterior.
c) a+b.
d) None.
1168.
For injection local anesthesia in the lower jaw we use:

a) Short needle.
b) Long needle. ***
c) None.
1169.
In case of advanced upper jaw to the lower jaw this is called:

a) Angle class I
b) Angle class II. ***
c) Angle class III
d) All of the above
1170.
The best method for brushing:

a) vertical.
b) Horizontal.
c) Bass sulcular method. *** ( Bass method ).
d) All of the above.
1171.
Apicectomy means:
a) Surgical removal of the apical portion of the root. ***
b) Removal of one or more roots.
c) The root and the crown are cut lengthwise.
d) None.
1172.
The instruments for examination are:

a) Probe and tweezer.
b) Mirror.
c) a + b. ***
d) Amalgamator.
1173.
Panorama x-ray is used for:

a) Periapical tissues.
b) Interproximal caries.
c) Giving complete picture for upper and lower jaws. ***
d) None.
1174.
Adrenaline is added to local anesthesia for:

a- Increasing the respiratory rate.
b- Prolonging the effect of local anesthesia. ***
c- Increasing the bleeding.
d- None.
1175.
is a white lesion:
a- Lichen planus. ***
b- Cancer.
c- Heamatoma.
d- None.
1176.
Fordyce's spots is on:

a- Tongue.
b- Oral mucosa. ***
c- Upper lip.
d- Throat.
1177.
is an anticoagulant agent:
a- Aspirin.
b- Heparin. ***
c- Paracetamol.
d- Evex.
Heparin: give in every 6 hrs and work on PTT
1178.
Duct of submandibular gland is:
a- Wharton. ***
b- Bartholin.
c- Barvenous.
d- Stensen.
( Duct of parotid gland ).
1179.
Leukoplakia is present on:

a- The mouth. ***
b- Eye.
c- Heart.
d- Lungs.
Leukoplakia: A white spot or patch in the mouth.
1180.
Cranial nerves are:

a- 12 nerves. *** ( Twelve pairs of cranial nerves ). . 12
b- 14 nerve.
c- 10 nerve.
d- 16 nerve.
1181.
According to two digits system, 42 means:

a- lower right lateral incisor. ***
b- upper left lateral incisor.
c- upper right lateral incisor.
d- none.
1182.
According to the universal system, 6 means:

a- upper left first molar.
b- lower left first molar.
c- lower right first molar.
d- None. ***
* Number 6 refers to upper right canine.
1183.
A preventive agent is:

a- Composite.
b- Glassionomer.
c- Fluoride. ***
d- Zinc oxide eugenol.
1184.
One of the following releases fluorides:

a- Composite.
b- Glassionomer. ***
c- Fluoride.
d- Zinc oxide eugenol.
1185.
Dental plaque is formed after:
a- 6 hours. ***
b- 12 hours.
c- 24 hours.
d- 48 hours.
1186.
Tooth paste with fluoride is:

a- Systemic application.
b- Topical application. ***
c- a+b.
d- None.
1187.
abcd-
Fluoride in water it concentrates:

2 ppm.
1 ppm. *** ( 1 gram of flouride dissolved in 1 million grams of water ).
3 ppm.
None.
1188.
Too much ingestion of fluoride may lead to:

a- Dental caries.
b- Dental fluorosis. ***
c- Gingivitis.
d- None.
1189.
abcd-
Deficiency of vitamin C leads to:

Scurvy. ***
Anemia. ( Deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to pernecious anemia ).
Rickets.
Defect in blood clotting.
1190.
Deficiency of vitamin K leads to:

a- Scurvy.
b- Anemia.
c- Rickets.
d- Defect in blood clotting. *** ( ) .
1191.
Deficiency of vitamin D leads to:

a- Scurvy.
b- Anemia.
c- Rickets. *** ( ) .
d- Defect in blood clotting.
1192.
At which age will a child have 12 permanent and 12 primary teeth:

A. None of the above. 9 10 .
1193.
a.
Medicine ethics aim to:

The dentist should study to know patient psychology.
b.
Not to compromise or undermine ability to treat patient in community as

professional.
c.
Ability to make decision.
d.
All of above. ***
1194.
During surgery firmly handle forceps of flap tissue :

A) stillis forceps.
b) Adison forceps. ***
1195.
Lymphadenopathy due to :
a) Infection.
b) Lymphocytic leukemia.
c) HIV.
d) Pernicious aneamia.
e) a,b and c. ***
1196.
The aim from prosthetic surgery:

A) Increase stability, retention & ridge dimension. ***
b) Increase vertical dimension.
c) Esthetic anterior.
1197.
Composite can be done in:

a) Conservative class one. ***
b) Uncontrolled application class 2 proximal.
c) Deep gingival margin .
1198.
EPOXY RESIN: ( Endo sealer )

A. contains formaldehyde toxic.
B. contains corticosteroids.
C. resorbable so it weakens the endofill.
D. all. ***
1199.
Extra canal in upper 6 presents in which root :

A) MB root. ***
B) DB root.
C) Palatal root.
1200.
In case of internal resorption your ttt is :

OR Immature tooth with external apical third resorption:
a) Ca(OH)2 application. ***
b) Formocresol medicament.
c) Zinoxide eugenol.
d) Apexofication & GP filling.
1201.
In primary tooth for restoration before putting the filling u put:
a. base.
b. calcium hydroxide.
c. varnish.
d. you put the filling after proper cleaning and drying. ***
1202.
A child with thumb sucking habit he will develop:

a. Anterior openbite and posterior crossbite. ***
1203.
Colour of normal gingiva is interplay between:

a. Keratin- vascularity melanin- epithelial thickness. ***

1204.
a.
During mentoplasty, doctor should take care for injury of what
nerve:
Lower branch of the facial nerve. ***
Mentoplasty: is a chin reduction surgery.
1205.
Amputation means:
a) Surgical removal of the apical portion of the root. ( Apicectomy ).
b) Removal of one or more roots. ***
c) The root and the crown are cut lengthwise.
d) None.
* Amputation is also called : Radisectomy.
1206.
Hemisection means:
a) Surgical removal of the apical portion of the root. ( Apicectomy ).
b) Removal of one or more roots. ( Amputation ).
c) The root and the crown are cut lengthwise. ***
d) None.
http://www.simplestepsdental.com/SS/ihtSS/r.==/st.32226/t.31470/pr.3.html
* Hemisection: is the process of cutting a tooth with two roots in half. Each
half tooth consists of half the crown ( top of the tooth ) and one root.
1207.
For treatment of pericoronitis:

a- Extraction of the tooth.
b- Analgesic + sterility + antibiotic. ***
c- Cleaning with concentrated phenol.

d- None.
http://www.webmd.com/oral-health/guide/pericoronitis
( ).
1208.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Outline of Pericoronitis treatment may include:

Mouth wash and irrigation.
Extraction of the opposing tooth.
Surgical removal of the causative tooth.
All the above. ***
1209.
Attrition may be caused by:

a- Friction due to pipe.
b- Friction during sleep. *** ( Bruxism or clenching ).
c- Gastric acid.
d- None.
1210.
Sterilization in dry oven:

a- one hour at 160 c. ( one hour at 170 c ).
b- 90 minutes at 160 c.
c- two hours at 160 c. ***
d- None.
* Sterilization in dry oven: two hours at 160 c or one hour at 170 c.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dry_heat_sterilization
Dry heat 1hr at 340 F (171 c)
Dry heat 2hrs at 320 F (160 c)
Rapid heat transfer at 375 F (191 c) 6 min for unwrapped
12 min for wrapped
1211.
The roots of the following teeth are closely related to the maxillary
sinus:
a- Canine and upper premolar.
b- Lower molar.
c- Upper molar and premolar. ***
d- None.
1212.
Patient positions are:

a- Upright position.
b- Supine position.
c- Subsupine position.
* b & c are called: Reclined positions.
d- All of the above. ***
1213.
For the right handed dentist seated to the right of the patient, the
operator zone is between:
a- 8 and 11 o'clock. ***
b- 2 and 4 o'clock .
c- 11 to 2 o'clock .
1214.
For right handed dentist, the static zone is between:

a- 8 - 11 o'clock.
b- 11 - 2 o'clock. ***
c- 2 - 4 o'clock.
1215.
For right handed dentist, the assistant's zone is between:

a- 8 - 11 o'clock.
b- 11 - 2 o'clock.
c- 2 - 4 o'clock. ***
1216.
For right handed dentist, the transfer zone is between:

a- 8 - 11 o'clock.
b- 4 - 8 o'clock. ***
c- 2 - 4 o'clock.
* For right handed dentist,
1. Operator Zone :
8 _ 11 oclock.
2. Static Zone :
11 _ 2 oclock.
3. Assistant Zone :
2 _ 4 oclock.
4. Transfer Zone :
4 _ 8 oclock.
http://books.google.com.sa/books?id=r3E1SujL9IC&pg=PA253&lpg=PA253&dq=For+right+handed+dentist,+the+assistant
%27s+zone+is+between&source=bl&ots=ezPvo5shjX&sig=Isq3hROR_2emyi1
DiodlawaTx6g&hl=ar&sa=X&ei=96guT7yQMsbpObiZvIMO&ved=0CCoQ6AEwA
Q#v=onepage&q=For%20right%20handed%20dentist%2C%20the
%20assistant%27s%20zone%20is%20between&f=false
1217.
Burs is:
a- Critical items. ***
b- Semi critical.
c- Non critical.
d- All of the above.
q=cache:qpsH2UFMqxgJ:www.alivetek.com/portfolio_loader.php%3Fobjectid
%3D275+cemi+cretical+instrument+in+dentistry&cd=3&hl=ar&ct=clnk&gl=
sa&client=firefox-a
1218.
Mouth mirror is:

a- critical items.
b- semi critical. ***
c- non critical.
q=cache:qpsH2UFMqxgJ:www.alivetek.com/portfolio_loader.php%3Fobjectid
%3D275+cemi+cretical+instrument+in+dentistry&cd=3&hl=ar&ct=clnk&gl=
sa&client=firefox-a
1219.
Saliva ejector is placed:

a- At the side of working.
b- Under the tongue.
c- Opposite the working side.
d- b + c. **
1220.
HVE is placed:
HVE is: High Volume Evacuator
a- At the side of working. ***
b- Under the tongue.
c- Opposite the working side.
d- b+c.
1221.
Grasping the HVE is by:

a- Thumb to nose grasp.
b- Pen grasp.
c- a+b. ***
d- none.
1222.
Carbohydrate is digested in:

a- mouth. *** .
b- small intestine.
c- large intestine.
d- none.
1223.
Carbohydrate is essential for:

a- Building the body.
b- Supplying the body with energy. ***
c- a+b.
d- none.
1224.
The following factors affect the health:

1- hereditary.
2- environment.
3- social and economic factors.
4- family welfare. /
A) 1+2
B) 1+2+4
C) 1+2+3
D) All of the above. ***
1225.
Diagnostic cast wax up helps in:

a- Predicts the result of treatment.
b- Explains the treatment plan to patient.
c- All of the above. ***
1226.
In mean of compressive strength and tensile strength which is

strongest:
a- Resin cement. *** :
b- zinc phosphate.
c- G.I.
Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials Theory, Practice, and Cases 4Ed 2013,
Page 105
Resin cement Originally they had a very high film thickness.
1227.
Shoulder is the finish line of choice for:

a- full veneer.
b- PFM. ***
c- crown.
Indication of shoulder finish line : metal ceramic crown & complete ceramic
crown.
Clinical procedure ch.7 principle of tooth preperation.
1228.
Which of the following characteristics of inlay wax is its major

disadvantage:
a) Flow.
b) Rigidity.
c) Hardness.
d) High thermal expansion. ***
http://books.google.com.sa/books?
id=SdOOEbeyNVkC&pg=PA90&dq=major+disadvantage+of+inlay+wax&hl=ar
&sa=X&ei=YYUyT_eMJonpObfzkYIH&ved=0CDIQuwUwAA#v=onepage&q=maj
or%20disadvantage%20of%20inlay%20wax&f=false
1229.
As the gold content of a dental solder, decreases the:

a) Hardness decreases.
b) Ductility increases.
c) Corrosion resistance decreases .
d) Ultimate tensile strength decreases.

1230.
The most ductile and malleable metal is:

a) Sliver.
b) Gold .*** .
c) Copper.
d) Platinum.
1231.
In processing an acrylic denture in a water bath, a proper heating

cycle is desired because of the possibility of:
a) warpage.
b) Shrinkage of the denture.
c) Porosity due to boiling of the monomer.***
d) crazing of the denture base around necks of the teeth.
https://docs.google.com/viewer?
a=v&q=cache:xG62SI0KMBMJ:dent.kufauniv.com/teaching/raja%27a/New
%2520Folder/Processing%2520the
%2520denture.pdf+In+processing+an+acrylic+denture+in+a+water+bath,
+a+proper+heating+cycle+is+desired+because+of+the+possibility+of&hl=a
r&gl=sa&pid=bl&srcid=ADGEESjqq9L2GWyZc5CJlDO90mKIsIZxqWVh2DY7hW
WM1OqHv9VEqk0MHl_wj9OC78UM_X-QLv1GBCTQXEnWY44Tcq4BNj_DV44vLOBsMpdEKJayPmbZCXCJvynmGIJHtExHFg3GQTB&sig=
AHIEtbQRTzSHZvC7xHX3vQ7NmlQAVaypbQ
page6
1232.
Elastic impression material is:

a) Rubber. ***
b) Plaster.
c) Zinc oxide.
d) Compound.
http://denture.tv/elastic-non-impression-materials/
1233.
Alginate contains calcium sulfate in concentration of:

a) 40 %.
b) 50 %.
c) 12 %. ( 8 16 % ).
d) None.
Calcium sulfate is a reactor found in alginate in 12 %.
Calcium sulfate dehydrate is reactor, react with sodium alginate to form an
insoluble calcium alginate gel in 14%.
1234.
In an alginate impression material, tri sodium phosphate is the:
a) filler.
b) Reactor.
c) Retarder. ***
d) accelerator.
Sodium phosphate is a retarder found in alginate in 2 %. Control setting
time (fast or slow)
https://docs.google.com/viewer?
a=v&q=cache:K7vsQj9Uw1oJ:airforcemedicine.afms.mil/idc/groups/public/doc
uments/afms/ctb_108334.pdf+In+an+alginate+impression+material,
+trisodium+phosphate+is+the&hl=ar&gl=sa&pid=bl&srcid=ADGEESjwMO48
dImoJLW_qVgPuudR0HJC0tyofQ6H-T-SoncPgUU9R_CEJEJfEYPXdx4ynCIrNx3eaFcJLL6F10LCYptsM0bYrO31EXdPU5c4LoQfENlR90mpc
BtM9jSjBgFVtcQQeFo&sig=AHIEtbT1PTIFi8AINPfZJo40LChZy6ukjQ
page 4
1235.
The principal function of an indirect retainer is to:

a) stabilize against lateral movement.
b) Prevent settling of the major connector.
c) Minimize movement of the base away from supporting tissue. ***
d) Restrict tissue ward movement of the distal extension base of the partial
denture.
1236.
Child 8 years old hearing loss, flush around his mouth and notches in
incisors and bolbous molars What is your diagnosis?
OR
8 years Patient came to your clinic has impaired hearing, upon examination
his mouth you found copper color lesion, notched incisor and mass on the
occlusal surface of the molars. This patient has :
a) Gardner syndrome.
b) Congenital syphilis. ***
1237.
Nicotinic stomatitis :(Pipe-Smokers' palate)

a) acanthosis with keratin. ***
b) palate hyperplasia
b) prickle cell like shape prominent bases.
Burket's Oral Medicine 11Ed 2008, Page 101
smokers palate is characterized by hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, and a mild
subepithelial inflammation. prevalence 0.1-2.5% appear more in men and
palate
Acanthosis: disease of the prickle cell layer of the skin, where warts appear on the
skin or inside the mouth
1238.
On radiograph, onion skin appearance and under microscope

there is glycogen:
a- Osteosarcoma. (sunburst appearance)
b- Ewing's sarcoma. *** (onion skinning)
1239.
Using a larger file while reducing the length in endodontics is called:

A. Step back. ***
http://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:xOLTTilJgAJ:www.maillefer.com/html/filetechniques.html+using+a+larger+file+w
hile+reducing+the+length+in+endodontics&cd=3&hl=ar&ct=clnk&gl=sa&cli
ent=firefox-a
Using a larger file while reducing the length in endodontics is called

a Step back technique.
Using a smaller file to reach the apex in endodontics is called a
Crown down technique. .
1240.
a.
What is the name of the instrument used to diagnose halitosis:

Halimeter. ***
q=cache:8xhFmsCI2KwJ:www.scielo.br/scielo.php%3Fpid%3DS003472992007000600015%26script%3Dsci_arttext%26tlng
%3Den+instument+used+to+diagnose+halitosis&cd=1&hl=ar&ct=clnk&gl=s
a&client=firefox-a
1241.
You examined a child and found that the distal part of the upper
primary molar is located mesial to the distal outline of the lower primary
molar. This is called:

a. distal step. ***
b. mesial step.
* Distal step: Mandibular terminal plane is distal to Maxillary terminal plane.
* Mesial step: Mandibular terminal plane is mesial to Maxillary terminal
plane.
Review the NBDE part 2 section 5, page 150
1242.
what the name of the depressions present on molars in the middle

and between the cusps:
a.
Developmental grooves. ***
1243.
Patient had enamel and dentin hypoplasia your ttt.:

a) Porcelain crowns. ***
b) Splinting with composite.
c) Composite bridge.
1244.
Patient had bulimia and had lesion in palatal

surface in upper teeth with recurrent vomiting. What is the type of lesion :
a) Attrition.
b) Abrasion.
c) Erosion. ***
http://www.3dmouth.org/2/2_5.cfm
1245.
Parotitis with purulent exudate, what you will do:

A. Immediate coverage with antibiotic 7 days.
B. delay selection antibiotics until know culture result.
C. antiviral drug.
D. gives patint wide spectrum antibiotic until result of lab culture. ***
(Give antibiotic and make culture to know bacteria and antibiotic sensitivity)

http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/882461-treatment
Parotitis: Inflammation of the parotid glands. A classic feature of mumps.
1246.
Pt. came to u needing upper partial denture class II kinnedy

classification, he has palatal defect
( torus palatinus ) preferable partial
denture with:
a- horseshoe. ( large torus palatinus ( :
b- Palatal bar.
c- Anterio posterior palatal bar. ***
:
Anterio posterior palatal strap.
.
* :
Torus palatinus
:
1) The best major connector is: Anterio posterior palatal bar that used in
classes i, ii & iv. The next preferable major connector is: Anterio posterior
palatal strap that used in classes ii & iv.
2) Horseshoe major connector: Is the least accurate so its the least
preferable major connector but its used in any class when torus palatinus
prohibits other connectors as it extends to the
posterior limit of the hard palate ( large torus palatinus ).
Maxillary major connectors:
1. Post. palatal strap
2. U-shaped (Horseshoe)
3. Ant. Post. palatal strap
4. full palatal plate
1247.
One of the main features of acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the

ulcers are confined to the attached gingival and hard palate:
a.
True. ***
b.
False.
Visicles become ulcers found in attached gingiva and hard palate.
1248. Pt. came with bristles even on mucous membrane, u asked for
immune test:
a. pemphigus.
b. bullous pemphigoid. ***
c. lichen planus.
1249.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cheek biting in lower denture can occur if:

Occlusal plane above tongue.
Occlusal plane below tongue.
Occlusal plane at lower lip.
Complete Denture 17th Ed.:

* Cheek biting: is the most common and is mainly due to inadequate overjet.
Solution: Increase the overjet by reducing the buccal of the lower posterior
teeth.
1250.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Permeability of dentine:
Bacterial product go through it.
Decrease by smear layer.
Allow bacteria to go in.
All of above. ***
1251.
Gracey 13/14:
a. Mesial posterior.
b. Distal posterior. ***
1252.
Each of the following is correct EXCEPT which one:

Bad breath appears to be largely bacteria in origin.
Bad breath originating from the gastrointestinal tract is quite common.
Self-perceptions of bad breath appear to be unreliable.
.
d.
Fear of having bad breath may be a severe problem for some people. ***
( its a severe problem for many people not some people ).

.
a.
b.
c.
Because it's difficult to rate your own breath, many people worry *
.excessively about their breath even though they have little or no mouth odor
http://www.mayoclinic.com/health/badbreath/DS00025/DSECTION=symptoms
1253.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
When using the buccal object rule in horizontal angulation, the

lingual object in relation to the buccal object:
Move away from the x-ray tube head.
Move with the x-ray tube head. ***
Move in an inferior direction from the x-ray tube head.
Move in a superior direction from the x-ray tube head.
None of the above.
If the object appears to move in the same direction as the x-ray tube, it is in
the lingual aspect.
.1254
:Radiographic evaluation in extraction

.A. Relationship of associated vital structures
.B. Root configuration and surrounding bone condition
.C. Access to the tooth, crown condition and tooth mobility
.D. All of the above
*** .E. A & B
1255.
Radiographic evaluation in extraction EXCEPT:

A. Relationship of associated vital structures.
B. Root configuration and surrounding bone condition.
C. Access to the tooth, crown condition and tooth mobility. ***
E. A & B.
1256.
Odontogenic tumors:
a. Arise from dental tissues. ***
b. Can turn malignant but rarely.
c. Have specific radiographic features.
1257.
Prophylactic antibiotic needed in:

A. Anesthesia not interaligamentary.
B. Suture removal.
C. Routine tooth brushing.
D. Orthodontic band. ***
"Dental secrets"
1258.
Electric pulp tester on the young is not accurate because:

a) Late appearance of Fibers A. ***
b) Late appearance of Fibers C.
c) Early appearance of fibers A.
d) Early appearance of fibers C.
" Pathway Of Pulp 6th edition page 314"

1259.
A patient that had a class II amalgam restoration, next day he

returns complaining of discomfort at the site of the restoration,
radiographically an overhanging amalgam is present. This is due to:
a) lack of matrix usage.
b) Improper wedging. ***
c) No burnishing for amalgam
1260.
Occlusal splint device:

1/ used during increase vertical dimension.
2/ alleviate muscle of mastication. ***.
3/ occlusal plane CR/CO.
4/ All.
http://www.scdlab.com/occlusal-splints
1261.
Child with late primary dentition has calculus and gingival recession
related to upper molar what is the diagnosis:
1. Periodontitis.
2. Local aggressive Periodontitis.
3. Viral infection.
1262.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Histopathologically, early verrucous carcinomas:

Have characteristic microscopic features. ***
Can be confused with acute hypertrophic candidiasis.
Can be confused with lichen planus.
Can be confused with chronic hypertrophic candidiasis.
1263.
pt. came with multiple cyst on his scalp and neck and
osteomas multiple on his mandible side, what is the diagnosis:
a.
Gardner's syndrome. ***
b. cleidocranial dysplasia.
c. ectodermal dystosis.
d. oesteogenesis imperfecta.
Burket's Oral Medicine 11Ed 2008, Page 151
Benign Non-odontogenic Tumors of the Jaws
Osteomas & Gardner's syndrome
Patients with Gardners syndrome develop multiple osteomas of the maxilla
and
mandible, colonic polyps, supernumerary teeth, impacted teeth, skin cysts,
and fibrous tumors of the skin
1264.
Diabatic pt. with multiple nevi on the neck and the scalp, and
multiple jaw cysts, ur diagnosis will be:
a. Eagle syndrome.
b. Gorlin Goltz syndrome. *** ( Basal cell nevus syndrome ).
c. Pierre Robin syndrome.
d. Non of the above.
1265.
A reline for a complete denture is contraindicated when:

a) There is extreme over closure of the vertical diamention.
b) Centric occlusion and centric relation do not coincide.
c) The denture contains a broken tooth.
d) There is resorption of the ridge.
1266.
Complete re-epithelization after surgery occurs after:

a. 1-5 days.
b. 10-15 days.
c. 17-21 days.
1267.
Low sag factor in a metal-ceramic FPD causes:

1- Flow of metal under functional load.
2- High abrasion resistance.
3- Less deformation of bridge during firing. ***
4- Poor metal-ceramic bond strength.
5- Contamination of porcelain.
http://books.google.com.sa/books?
id=SdOOEbeyNVkC&pg=PA10&lpg=PA10&dq=ways+do+surface+characterist
ics+of+porcelain+affect+the+perceived+from+of+the+final+restoration&so
urce=bl&ots=Avnk7fOnj&sig=jQvaBjOH_3VUoXLaDDV6pB2uHVs&hl=ar&sa=X&ei=qUsxT8jQG9CXOpj
7mdsG&ved=0CCsQ6AEwAQ#v=snippet&q=low%20sag%20factor
%20&f=false
1268.
Nickel-chromium allergic from dentures appears more in:
a) Male.
b) Female. ***
c) Equal.
1269.
We put the pin very close to line angle because this area:
A- less material of restoration need.
B- Intiate dentin caries.
C- need less condensation of material.
D- Great bulk of dentin. ***
1270.
Best root canal material primary central incisor:

a- iodoform. ***
b- Guttapercha.
c- Formacresol.
* Iodoform, Ca(oH)2 and ZOE are root canal materials for the primary teeth
but iodoform and ca(oh)2 are more better than ZOE.
1271.
HBV disinfection:
iodophors and hypocloride.
formaldahide.
Dettol / 100% ethyl alcohol.
Ethyl dioxide gas.
1+2. ***
1+2+3.
3+4.
2+3.
HBV = Hepatitis B Virus
* Iodophors and hypocloride, formaldahide and 80 % ethyl alcohol.
1)
2)
3)
4)
a.
b.
c.
d.
1272.
Filling in RCT must finish:

a- Exactly up the radiographic apex.
b- Few millimeters before apex.
c- At the half distance between apex and the pulp chamber.
d- Filling the pulp chamber.
1273.
initial step to do post and core in RCT tooth is:

A. remove gutta bercha by hot.
B. by cleaning cavity of caries and remove old filling. ***
C. immediat insertion.
D. gates glidden drill.
1274.
How can remove a hard discolored dentine:

a. Excavator.
b. Stainless steel burs with low speed.
c. Very low speed.
d. High speed carbide burs. ***
1275.
Class II amalgam restoration with deep caries the patient comes

with localized pain related to it after one month or "3 months" due to:
OR
Patient returned to you after 1 month from doing amalgam filling with
definite severe pain, due to:
a) unidentified pulp horn exposure.
b) Over occlusion.
c) Moisture contamination during the restoration. *** due to amalgam
expansion
d) supra calculus.
30-3 : .
1276.
A child with caries in the incisors we call this caries:

a. Rampant caries.
b. Nursing caries. ***
c. Children caries.
1277.
pt. during routinly cheeck up need preventive treatment pit&

fissure sealant, upon examination the dentist found small caries lesion & he
decised to do a small preparation and do restoration for this pt. these can be
called:
A. pit & fissure seleant.
B. Preventive restoration.
C. Conservative restoration. ***
1278.
Pt. has bad oral hygiene and missing the right and left lateral
incisors what ttt.:
Implant. (contra indication with bad.OH)
RPD. *** (can remove by Pt. to clean around abutment & under pontic)
Conventional FPD. (not easy to clean)
Maryland bridge. (indication with good oral hygiene Pt.)
1279.
Cement appears in radiograph like caries and cannot distinguish

from it:
a) Calcium hydroxide include hydroxyl group. ***
b) Zinc phosphate.
c) Glass ionomer.
e) Zinc polycarboxlate.
f) None of above.
* Calcium hydroxide ( cement ) & Composite ( restoration ).
1280.
The most common cause of dry mouth in adult patients is:
.1
.2
.3
.4
a.
b.
c.
d.
Tranquillizer.
Anti-histaminics. *** ( )
Insulin.
Birth control pills.
1281.
8 years child came without complaint while routine exam you found
obliteration of canal in maxillary central incisor what u will do:
a. Extraction.
b. RCT.
c. Pulpotomy.
d. None of above. ***
1282.
All are participating in the determination of the posterior extension

of the maxillary denture
( posterior palatal extension )
EXCEPT:
A. vibrating line.
B. Hamular notch.
C. Fovae palatine.
D. Retromolar (pads) areas. ***
1283.
a.
b.
c.
d.
To a great extent, the forces occurring through a removable partial

denture can be widely distributed and minimized by the following methods
(lower RPD):
Proper location of the occlusal rests.
Selection of lingual bar major connector.
Developing balanced occlusion.
1284.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Which of the following may cause gingival enlargement:

Phenytoin. ( Dilantin ). *** 50-60%
Cyclosporine. 20-30%
Nifedipine. ( a calcium channel blocker ). 20%
Aspirin.
None of the above.
The highest incidence of drug induced gingival hyperplasia (gingival
enlargement) is reported to phenytoin ( Dilantin ).
Phenytoin: is Anticonvulsats (Anti-Epileptic)
1285.
Pt. came to u with sublingual space infection, change in color of

mucosa of floor of the mouth. The tongue is stilly elevated haw u will do
incision for drainage:
a. Extra orally parallel to lower border of the mandible.
b. Intraorally parallel to wharton's duct. ***
c. Intraorally between mylo-hyoid muscle.
1286.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reliability of the measurements reflects that property of the

measurements which: :
Measures what is intended to be measured. .
Produces repeatedly the same results under a variety of conditions.
.
Detects reasonably small shifts in either direction, in group condition.
.
1287.
You extract tooth with large amalgam restoration, how to manage

the extracted tooth:
1. Autoclave and deep buried.
2. Sharp container.
3. Ordinary waste container.
4. Office container.
5. Container Designed not to be burned ***
Basic guide to Dental Instrument 1Ed 2006, Page 55 & 96
Items suitable for disposal in Sharp containers include: scalpels, matrix
bands, needles, carpules, orthodontic wires, burs and endodontic files.
(.)

.
.

.
1288.
Polysulfide impression material:

a. Should be poured within 1 hour. *** (or immediately) or in 1st hr
b. Should be poured within 12 hours.
c. can be poured after 24 hours.
d. can be poured after 6-8 hours.
1289.
To plan the line-angles in the proximal cavity in a class II you use:

A. Straight chisel.
B. Bin-angled chisel.
C. Enamel hatchet. *** ( Bi-beveled hatched ) :
d. Beveled chisel.
Enamel hatched is used for planning enamel and dentin during cavity
.preparation
: Round bur
All internal line angles should be rounded to reduce internal stresses.

Removing caries with a large diameter round bur automatically produces the
desired shape.
1290.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following burs would you prefer to use preparing a slot
for the relation of an extensive amalgam restoration on maxillary molar:
( slot preparation = class II preparation ).
Number 5 round bur.
Number 56 fissure bur.
Number 556 fissure bur.
Number 35 cone bur. *** ( or No. 33 1/2 inverted cone bur ).
Operative Dentistrey A Partical Guide to Recent Innovations, Page 43
1291.
Acyclovir dose for treatment of herpes:

a) 200 mg / 5 times a day. *** ( orally for 7 days ).
b) 200 mg / 4 times a day.
c) 400 mg / 4 times a day.
d) 800 mg / 4 times a day.
In case of immunodeficiency double the dose to 400 mg
Burket's Oral Medicine 11th Ed 2008, Page 36-37
Oral ACV 200 to 400 mg five times a day will shorten healing time
Cawsons Essentials of Oral Pathology and Oral Medicine 8Ed 2008, Page 208
aciclovir (200-400 mg/day by mouth for 7 days).
1292.
12a.
b.
c.
d.
The functions of cement bases are:

To act like a barrier against acids or thermal shocks. -
The minimal thickness, which is required, is 0.5 mm of base.
All.
None of the above.
1 only. ***
2 only.
Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry, 4th edition - page 171
.Cement bases are typically 1 to 2 mm *
1293.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Early loss of anterior tooth:

Affects phonetics.
Affects esthetics.
Causes space loss.
A and b.
All the above. ***

1294.
Intraosseous cyst in radiograph appears:

1/ multiradiolucent may or not expand to cortical bone. ***
2/ radiopaque may or not expand to cortical bone.
3/ multiradiolucent may with resorption of cortical bone.

4/ radiopaque may with resoption of cortical bone.
1295.
Type of autoclave used:

a- Hot oven outoclave.
b- Class b autoclave. ***
c- Class s autoclave.
d- Class d autoclave.
1296.
Open margin in crown could be due to:

a- proximal contact.
b- Failure to demargination of wax.
c- Die spacer in the margin.
d- All of above. ***
1297.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Crown with open margin can be due to:

Putting die space on finishing line.
Waxing not covering all crown preparation.
Over contouring of crown prevents seating during insertion.
1298.
18 year old Pt. suffer of sever inflammation in attaced gingiva and

tired and has psychological stress in his life:
A. Aphthous ulcer.
B. Recurrent herpes ulcer.
C. Allergic stomatitis.
1299.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
The most desirable finished surface composite resin can be provided

by:
OR
Best finishing of composite done by:
White stones.
Hand instrument.
Carbid finishing burs. ***
Diamond finish burs.
Celluloid matrix band.
1300.
Child with 7 years old when extrction of lower frist molar the tip of
root is fracture in the socket how to manengment :
a- leave it if the mother n't complaine during feeding.
b- Should be removed by file. ***
c- take x-ray to insure if n't swallwed or in respiratory.
1301.
a.
b.
How many canals can be present in mandibular second molars:

1, 2, 3 or 4. ***
2, 3 or 4.
c.
d.
1
2
3
4
3 or 4.
3.
canal present but rarley
canals found in 6%
canals found in 90%
canals found in 4%
1302.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The most common immediate treatment reported for fractured teeth
was:
25%. ***
50%.
82%.
95%.
1303.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the proper cavity preparation for V-shaped cervical erosion

lesion to be restored with glass ionomer cement:
Cervical groove, incisal groove.
Cervical groove, incisal bevel. ( make a bevel in composite
restorations ).
4 retention points, 90 margin.
No mechanical preparation is necessary. *** ( no bevels in glass ionomer
cement restorations ).
1304.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
If the initial working length film shows the tip of a file to be greater
than 1 mm from the ideal location, the clinician should:
Correct the length and begin instrumentation.
Move the file to 1 mm short of the ideal length and expose a film.
Interpolate the variance, correct the position of the stop to this distance,
and expose the film.
Confirm the working length with an apex locator.
Position the file at the root apex and expose a film.
1305.
Trauma caused fracture of the root at junction between middle and

cervical thirds:
A) Do endo for coronal part only.
B) RCT for both.
C) Leave.
D) Extraction.
E) Splint the two parts together. ***
1306.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pt. with a history of subacute bacterial endocarditis is a medical

problem in a surgery because of the possibility of:
Bacteremia.
Septicemia.
Hypertension.
Mitral stenosis.
e.
Auricular fibrillation. " "

A. a, b and d. ***
b. All of the above.
1307.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Blood supply of the palate is from:

Greater palatine artery.
Lesser palatine artery.
Facial artery.
Long sphenopalatine artery.
Anatomizing braches from all of the above EXCEPT C. ***

1308.
Epithelial cells:
a. Rest of malassez decrease with age. ***
b. Rest of malassez increase with age.
c. Hertwig sheath entirely disappear after dentinogenesis.
d. Epithelial remnants could proliferate to periapical granuloma.
1309.
The type of cement which give retention to crown:

a- Zn phosphate.
b- Zn polycarpoxylate.
c- Resin. *** ( Resin cement gives the best retention to crown ).
d- Resin modified glass ionomer.
1310.
Ethics of the study include all of the following EXCEPT:

:
a.
Privacy of all subjects.
b.
Informed consent may be required or not.
( ) . .
c.
refuse if the subject not take part of the study.
.
1311.
Provisional luting cement:

a.
Prevents restoration from dislodgement. *** .
b.
Sealing.
Planning and Making Crown and Bridges page 134
1312.
a.
b.
Maryland bridge:
Use with young.
To replace single missing tooth. ***
1313.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Maryland bridges depend upon:

Chemical retention.
Indirect retention.
Micromechanical retention. *** ( Cemented by acid etch & resin ).
None of the obove.
1314.
Composite restoration follow up after 2 years showed stained

margin:
a. Stress from polymerization shrinkage.
b. Hydrolic destruction on bond.
.... :
C. Marginal leakage or micro leakage. ***
Art & Science :
1315.
a.
High copper amalgam prevents:

Marginal leakage. ***
1316.
Digital radiography is a technique that shows transition from white

to black. Its main advantage is the ability to manipulate the image by
computer:
a. 1st T, 2nd F.
b. 1st F, 2nd T.
c. Both T. ***
d. Both F.
: .
1317.
The imaging showing disk position and morphology and TMJ bone:
a. MRI. *** (MRI = Magnetic resonance imaging)
b. CT.
c. ARTHROGRAPHY.
d. Plain radiograph.
e. Plain tomography.
1318.
Enamel:
a. Repair by ameloblasts.
b. Permeability reduces with age. ***
c. Permeability increases with age.
d. Permeable to some ions.
b b & d
.
1319.
Upper teeth palatal mucosa supplied by:

a. Nasopalatine.
b. Anterior palatine.
c. Both. ***
d. Post superior alveolar nerve.
1320.
Indirect retainers mostly needed:

a. Class VI.
b. Class I. *** ( Class I, II & IV ).
c. Class III.
d. Class III with modification.

Oxford Handbook 5th Ed 2009, page 303
1321.
Periapical X-ray for immature tooth is:

A. Generally conclusive. ***
B. Simply inconclusive.
C. Should be compered with another types.
1322.
Child patient takes sedation before appointment and presents with

physical volt. What should dentist do:

A. conscious sedation.
B. Redo sedation.
C. Tie with Bapoose board.
D. Tie in unite with bandage.
1323.
Caries detection dye composed mainly of:

a- 0.5% acid fuchsin.
b- 0.5% basic fuchsin.
c- Propylene glycol. ***
Paediatric Dentistry 3rd Ed (2005), Page 165 : 0.5% basic fuchsin.
Dental pulp 2002" + "Operative Dentistry" : propylene glycol.
Basic fuchsin dye at 0.5 percent solution, in combination with propylene
glycol, has been used as a disclosing solution for carious dentin
http://medical-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/basic+fuchsin
basic fuchsin
a histological stain, a mixture of pararosaniline, rosaniline and magenta II.
Also, a mixture of rosaniline and pararosaniline hydrochlorides used as a
local anti-infective
1324.
1/
2/
3/
4/
When increase vertical dimension you have to:

increase minimal need.
construct anterior teeth first then posterior teeth.
use provisional crown for 2 months. ***
all.
1325.
Treacher collins syndrome is mainly:
1/ Mandibular retrognathia. *** ( 80 % of cases ).

2/ Loss of hearing.
( 50 % of cases ).
Oxford Handbook
1326.
Contents of the anaesthesia carpule:

A) Lidocaine + epinephrine + ringers liquid. ***
B) Lidocaine + epinephrine + distilled water.

C) Lidocaine + epinephrine only.
"page 92"Hand Book of Local Anesthesia :
. ) ( :

Local anesthetic drug - vasopressor - Ringers liquid (nacl)
distilled water - preservative substance (methylparaben)
preservative for vasopressor .
http://faculty.ksu.edu.sa/hkhalil/Do...c%20agents.pdf
1327.
Distal fissure of premolar contact oppose:

a- Middle of the middle third & buccal fissure is wider than lingual.
b- Cervical line & lingual fissure is wider than buccal.
c- Middle of the middle third & vice versa.
d- Cervical of the middle third & vice versa. ***
1328.
You make ledge in the canal. You want to correct this. What is the
most complication occur in this step:
a. Creation false canal.
b. Apical zip.
c. Stripping. *** ( = lateral perforation ).
d. perforation. ( = apical perforation ).
1329.
To prevent gingival injury place the margin of the retainer:

A. At the level of gingival crest.
B. Above gingival crest.
C. Apical to gingival crest 1 mm.
d. Apical to gingival crest 0.5 mm.
Fundamentals of Fixed Prosthodontics 3rd Ed, page 132
Preservation of the Periodontium
1330.
How can you alter the setting time for alginate:

a) Alter powder water ratio. ***
b) Alter water ratio.
c) We cant alter it.
d) By accelerated addition.
*
.Alter water temperature
1331.
How can you alter the setting time for alginate:

a) Alter ratio powder water.
b) Alter water temperature. *** .
1332.
Whats the reason of the wax shrinkage upon fabrication of the

bridge/crown:
A. Solidification shrinkage. ***
1333.
You should treat ANUG until the disease completely removed.

Otherwise, it will change to necrotic ulcerative gingivitis:
A) Both sentences are true. ***
B) Both sentences are false.
C) 1st true, 2nd false.
D) 1st false, 2nd true.
1334.
Studies show that complete remineralization of surface of an

accidentally etched enamel:
a- never occur.
b- after hours.
c- after weeks.
d- after months. ***
1335.
Inlay waxs must invested fast because of flow and quickly deformity
of dimension this property due to:
OR
Wax properties are:
a. Slow flow.
b. Internal stress. ***
c. Expansion.
1336.
Teenager boy with occlusal wear the best ttt. is:

1/ remove the occlusal.
2/ teeth capping. (teeth capping= dental crwon)
3/ restoration.
1337.
In FPD in upper posterior teeth we should have gingival embrasure

space to have healthy gingival so the contact:
a- In the middle. ***
b- Depend in the opposing occlusion.
c- Occlusally As far as you can.
1338.
Complex amalgam restoration when to do it:

A- Weak cusp with undermined enamel. ***
B- Bevel and contra bevel.
C- Weak cusp should strengthen it by resin.
1339.
Most important sealer criteria to be success:

A- High viscosity.
B- High retention.
C- High strength.
D- can add colorant.
E- High resilience. ***
1340.
Discoloration of endo treated teeth:

a- Hemorrhage after trauma.
b- Incomplete remove GP from the pulp chamber.
c - Incomplete removal of pulp tissue.
Pocket Atlas of Endodontics Page 88-178
Pathway of the pulp 9Ed Page 231
1341.
The nasopalatine bone forms a triangle will be parallel to an

imaginary lines extended between cemento-enamel junctions of adjacent
teeth:
a. True. ***
b. False.
1342.
7 years patient came with untreared truma to tooth that became

yellow in colour what you should tell the parents:
a. pulp is dead.
b. pulp became calcified.
c. the tooth will absorb normally.
1. a and b.
2. a and c.
3. all of the above.
1343.
The needle holder used in suturing of lower third molar:

A. Curved hemostat. ***
B. Allis forceps.
C. Adson forceps.
D. Regular tweezers.
1344.
Instrument which use for grasping a tissue when remove thick

epulis fissuratum:
OR
What is the forceps used to grasp Epulis Fissuratum during surgical
procedure:
a- Allis forceps. ***
b- Addison forcep.
c- Curved hemostat.
d- Stilli forceps
1345.
The favored relationship in case of fabrication of a lower class 1 RPD

opposing a natural dentition is:
1- prognathism. ***
2- working side.
3- balancing side.
4- none of the above.
1346.
pt. with renal transplantation came with white elevated lesion on

tongue no history of smoking or tobacco chewing diagnosis is:
a- Candidiasis. ***
B- iatrogenic lesion.
c- Hyperkeratosis.
D- Stomatitis.
Pocket atlas of oral diseases
* Oral candidiasis is a frequent oral lesion in renal transplant patients.
.
* Uremic stomatitis is a rare disorder that may occur in patients with acute or
chronic renal failure. .
1347.
Patient 5 years old with denture has a severe gag reflex, upon
history he says he had the same symptoms in the first few days of the
denture delievery and it went all alone:
a. patient has severe gag reflex.
b. patient has underlying systemic condition.
c. Denture is overextended. ***
* Bone resorpion of the lower ridge leads to overextension of the distolingual
area of the lower denture (Palatoglossus Muscle) .
1348.
Immature tooth has less sensation to cold & hot due to:
OR
Electric pulp tester on the young is not accurate because:
1. Short root.
2. Incomplete innervations. ***
3. Wide pulp chamber.
1349.
In centric occlusion is normal but in eccentric occlusion the lower

ant. teeth & upper ant. teeth interfere with contact what should be do:
1/ reduction of mand. incisors.
3/ reduction of lingual inclination of max. incisiors.
1350.
Premature contact between upper and lower ant. teeth in eccentric

occlusion while there is absolutely no contact on the centric occlusion. So the
management is by grinding of:
A- incisal edge of ant. max. teeth.

B- Incisal edge of ant. man. teeth.
C- Inclination of Ant. max. teeth lingually.
D- Inclination of ant man teeth.
1351.
Instrument used to remove dark color in dentin:

A. Round stone bur with low speed.
B. Round diamond bur with low speed.
C. Large excavator. ***
D. Carbide bur with high speed.
Dark color in dentin remove with Large excavator
But, the hard caries in dentine remove with carbide bur low or high speed
1352.
Patient feels severe pain in upper mouth, pain is radiated to eye and
ear, after you check no caries when you pressure on maxillry premolar he
feels pain. In x-ray no change what dignosis?
a. Acute apical periodontits.
b. maxilary sinusitis. ***
c. canine space infection.
d. dentoalveolar infection.
1353.
Class III crown fracture in child patient the type of pontic:

a. ovate. *** ( highly esthetic used in class II & III crown fractures).
b. egg shaped.
c. hygienic.
d. ridge lap.
1354.
What is the test name for detecting the virulent of bacteria:

a- Hemolysis.
B- Catalase. ***
:

1355.
Which design first in the study cast of RPD with a lingual bar major
connector:
A. The lower border of lingual bar major connector.
B. The upper border of lingual bar.
C. Indirect rest and rest seat. ***
.
1356.
Naocl is used in RCT:

A. Oxidative effect.
B. irrigant solution of choice.
C. efficacy increasing with diluting.
D. Better result when used combined with alcohol.
Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry, 4th Ed 2005, Page 172
1357.
1.
2.
3.
4.
It
It
It
It
Receiving the impression after removal from the mouth directly:

must be disinfected immediately. ***
must be poured immediately.
must be mounted immediately.
must be left for minutes.
1358.
1.
2.
3.
Retentive grooves:
Always axiobuccal and axiolingual.
Prevent lateral displacement of restoration. ***
Is axiopulpal and axiogingival.
1359.
Tooth number 26, had a root canal treatment since two years, upon
x-ray you found a radiolucency with bone resorption along one of the roots:
a. Ca(OH)2.
b. resection of the whole root (

c. redo RCT.
d. periodontal currettage. )
( .
1360.
If you do mouth wash by 10% glucose, the PH can be read from the
curve:
A. The PH in dental plaque after the mouth rinse (mouth wash) with 10 %
. glucose changes but the high PH is 6.5 7
1361.
1362.
pt. have trauma in upper central incisor the tooth and the alveolar
bone move as one piece, in examination intraorally x-ray you will see :
.a. gap between the apex of root and alveolar bone
*** .b. definite line of fracture
.c. no apear in x-ray
1363.
Yellow-brown hypomineralization of enamel with or without

hypoplasia can be treated by:
A. Acid-pumice microabrasion. ***
1364.
3 months baby had black-blue discolured rapid growing swelling, the

x-ray shows unilocular radiolucency and displaced tooth bud, is it:
OR
Child 2 years old came to your clinic with his parents, he has bony lesion
bluish-black in color, the most probable diagnosis is:
a. aneurysmal bone cyst.
b. Melanotic neuroectodermal tumour. ***
c. ameloblastic fibroma.
d. Gaint cell granuloma
-
1365.
What first treatment of thumb sucking?

a. counseling therapy.
b. rewarding therapy. *** .
1366.
A 7 years child has a habit of finger or thumb sucking what is the

management or best way to start a therapy with:
a. Rewarding therapy.
b. Counseling therapy. ***
.
c. Punishment.
d. Remaindering therapy.
e. Nothing
1367.
Glass ionomer : (GIC)

a) introduction 1970. ( in 1972 ).
b) needs dry field when application. ***
c) both.
d) none of the above.
1368.
Which one of the conditions would delay a dentist's decision of

taking full mouth X-ray examination?
a. pregnancy.
b. patient had full mouth examination by X-ray 6 months ago.
c. patient will receive radiotherapy next week.
d. patient had CT examination last week. ***
1369.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
the:
Mesio-buccal canal. ***
Disto-buccal canal.
Palatal canal.
Disto-palatal canal.
Mesio-palatal canal.
1370.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The narrowest canal found in a three root maxillary first molar is
which part of root canal diameter is the smallest:
OR
What is the smallest area in root canal:
Radigraphical apex.
Apical foramin.
Apical constriction. *** ( Cementodentinal junction )
Cementoenamel junction.
Cementum Apical constriction

with dentin
1371.
To record the vertical dimension in order to:

To determine the amount of space between the mandible and the maxilla
which will be occupied by an artificial teeth. ***
b.
To determine vertical and horizontal level of the teeth. (Used to determine
the centric relation)
c.
a and b.
d.
None.
a.
1372.
TB patient in active stage (sputum ) when we do treatment :
a.
Emergency case.*** ( send him to emergency dental care in a hospital)

* If tuberculosis is inactive, you can do dental treatment.
b.
With rubber dam.
c.
With mask.
d.
Postpone the treatment.
1373.
When root perforation we close it by:

A- G.I.
B- Caoh. ***
( MTA is the best material ).
C- Silver point.
D- Composite.
Ca(oH)2 MTA

1374.
1234-
Irrigation solution for RCT causes protein coagulation is:

Sodium hypochlorite.
Iodine potassium.
Formocresol.

1375.
Selection of shade for porcelain is done EXCEPT:

a) Before preparation.
b) We must rest the eye by looking to a yellow color. ***
c) We must look to the tooth only 5 sec.
1376.
6 years child in routine examination, explorer
hang in the pit of 2nd molar, other teeth free dental caries what is the
management:
fluoride gel application. -a
fissure sealant. ***-b
restore it with amalgam restoration.-c
.d- restore it with composite restoration
1377.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Parotid malignancy shows perineural spread is seen as:

Warthons path.
Ductal papilloma.
Polymorphic adenoma.
Adenoid cystic carcinoma. ***
1378.
Salivary gland disease (tumor) with perineural invasion :

1. pleomorphic adenoma.
2. Adenocyctic carcinoma. ( Adenoid cystic carcinoma ). ***
1379.
we want to do a maxillary PD to a patient using anterior-posterior

strap, we want it to be rigid,we use:
agold.
bcast gold.
cco-cr. *** (cobalt-chromium)
1380.
The degree of taper for crown preparation:

a. 3 - 5. ***
b. 15.
Taper (total occlusal convergence) ideal is 3-6 degrees, the more parallel the
walls of the preparation, the better retension and resistance form
1381.
Amalgam filling opposite gold onlay and cause pain what should you
do:
1. Change the filling. *** (but we should wait and observe if pain gone then
we should do nothing , if pain presents change filling)
2. Exo.
3. varnish apply.
4. apply medium separator.
1382.
P.t have porcelain in upper tooth what you should make in the
opposite tooth:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Porcelain
Porcelain with occlusion surface of gold
Acrylic with gold
hard acrylic
1383.
Patint with haemophelia what is the additional anaesthetic

procedure used with him?
A. Intraligmentary technique, intraosseous technique and intrapappillary
technique. ***
1384.
What is the material which we use after apicectomy?

filling material )
a. Citric acid.
b. EDTA.
c. Tetracycline.
( retrograde
1385.
temprature that damage the bone during implant procedure:

A. If temperature is raised in the bone to 47C for more than 1 minute. ***
Bone cell will be damaged irreversibly causing excessive resorption and
osseointegration failure.
1386.
a.
b.
c.
hemiseptal fracture:
( hemiseptum defect ):
Horizontal recession - one wall fracture. ***
Horizontal recession - two walls fracture.
Horizontal recession - three walls fracture.
1387.
Maximum porcelain thickness: (Full porcelain)

A. 1.5 mm. ***
1388.
High mylohyoid crest in patient for complete denture, the surgeon

must avoid vital structure which is:
(during preprosthetic surgery of mylohyoid ridge reduction)
a.
Lingual nerve. ***
1389.
In the normal tissues, the basal cell layer adheres to:

A. Prickle cell layer ( Suprabasal cell layer ). ***
1390.
3 years old pt. came to clinic with his parents he has asymptomatic
swelling bluish in color fluctuant in midline of palatal raphe, diagnosis
is :
a- Bohn's nodules. :
(away from the palatal raphe )
(or on buccal and lingual surfaces of alveolar bone ).
( )
b- Herps semplex virus.

c- Lymphepithelial cyst.
d- Gingival cyst. ( on the crest of alveolar bone ).

E. Epstein's pearls. *** ( in the midpalatal raphe ).

1391.
Mandibular foramen is:

A. Above occlusal plane in elderly people.
B. At the occlusal plane in adult.
C. Below the occlusal plane in children.
D. All of the above. ***
1392.
Dentin etching often takes:

a. 15 sec. ***
b. 30 sec. ( for enamel )
c. 45 sec.
d. 60 sec.
1393.
Preparation to small occlusal cavity to premolar the width of cavity
is :
a. 1/4 inter cuspal distance. *** ( for small or conservative cavities).
b. 1/2 inter cuspal distance.
c. 1/5 inter cuspal distance.
d. 3/5 inter cuspal distance.
* 1/3 intercuspal distance:for large (not conservative) cavities.
1394.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pt. of HBV came to ur clinic and during dental procedures have a

sever Injury and bleeds alot, what is ur management:
1. Squeeze the wound but dont scrub.
2. Wash the wound with water and put waterproofer plaster
.
3. Assess the virulent of the pt. and refer him for infectous disease consltant.

4. Ask him to apply pressure on the wound to stop bleeding.
1+2+3. ***
1+4.
1+2+4.
3+4.
HBV = Hepatitis B virus.
1395.
Tissue displacement for making an impression is improved by:

1. Removing sufficient tooth substance subgingivally.
2. Improving the health of the gingival tissue before the preparation.
a.
b.
c.
d.
3. Using reversible hydrocolloid rather than polysulphide rubber silicon or

polyether impression material.
1+2. ***
1+3.
2+3.
All of the above.
1396.
An elastic impression for a full crown would be inaccurate when:
a.
b.
Free gingival obliterated a part of preparation.

A small amount of saliva was on part of the preparation when the
impression being made.
c.
Both of the above. ***
d.
Undercuts was present.
1397.
a.
b.
c.
d.
For best impression of prepared tooth with elastic impression

material, the prepared tooth should be:
Very dry.
Free of surface moisture. ***
A thin layer of saliva shouls be there.
Cover with surface tension reducing agent.
1398.
Ring liner is used as a lining in a casting to:

a- Insulate against the thermal conductivity.
b- Allow for expansion of the investment.
c- Prevent fracture of the investment during heating.
d- Facilitate removal of the investment after casting.
e- All of the above. ***
1399.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Wax patterns should be invested soon because:
The wax exhibits shrinkage.

Becomes brittle.
Subjected to fracture.
The wax has memory and begins to distort. ***
1400.
Heating gypsum casting investments above

1300F in the presence of carbon results in:
a- Fine grain size.
b- Shrinkage porosity.
c- Oxidation of castings.
d- Sulfur gases being released. *** ( and blacking of cast ).

( )1300
***
***
1300F = 704C.
Presence of carbon in gypsum investment causes
gypsum.
increasing strength of
1401.
In articulator, incisal guidance represents:

a- Horizontal guidance.
b- Condylar guidance.
c- Equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap. ***
1402.
( of anterior teeth ).
The most accurate impression least distortion if poured after 24
hours:
a- Polyether.
b- Silicone. *** ( Additional Silicone = polyvinyl siloxanes ).
c- Reversible hydrocolloids in humidor.
d- Compound impression.
1403.
Post should set passively in root canal and crown should set with
slight resistance:
a- Both statement are false.
b- Both statement are true.
c- First statement is true and second is false.
d- First statement is false and seconds statement is true.
* Post may set in root canal total passively but crown should give resistance
and retention.
1404.
In the metal-ceramic technique, the bond between porcelain and the

noble-metal alloy is dependant on the:
1- Proper matching of coefficients of thermal expansion of metal and
porcelain.
2- Formation of base-metal oxides.

3- Formation of noble-metal oxides.
4- Surface roughness of the alloy.
5- Adhesion
1. 1 and 2. ***
1405.
In casting the substructure for a metal ceramic restoration, it is

necessary to use:
1- Gypsum -bonded investment.
2- Phosphate- bonded investment. ***
3- Gas-air torch.
4- Crucible which has not been used for other gold alloy.
1406.
In order to maintain the health of the tissue beneath a pontic, it is

desirable to:
1- Scrape the ridge area on the cast and use gold for the ridge contact.
2- Scrape the ridge area on the cast and use porcelain for the ridge contact.
3- Have passive contact with ridge tissue when the restoration is placed in
the mouth.
4- Have slight blanching of the ridge tissue when the restoration in the
mouth.
5- Have minimal tissue coverage.
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 5
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
e. 3 and 5. ***
f. 4 and 5
1407.
The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is:

a- Moisture contamination.
b- Excessive firing temperature.
c- Excessive condensation of the porcelain.
d- Inadequate condensation of the porcelain. ***
1408.
Cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion

resistance is:
a- Silver.
b- Nickel.
C- Cobalt.
d- Chromium. *** .
e- Tungsten.
1409.
Three weeks after insertion FPD, marked discomfort to heat and cold
occurs there are no other symptoms. The most likely cause is:
a- Gingival recession.
b- Unseating of the FPD.
c- Deflective occlusal contact.
d- Torsional forces on one abutment tooth.
e- Incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared aboutment teeth.
1410.
A permanently cemented FPD may become loose because of:

a- Insufficient retention in the abutment preparation.
b- Deformation of the metal casting on the abutment.
c- Lack of embrasure space.
d- Torque.
e- Passive contact of the pontic to the ridge lap.
A. a,b
B. a,b,d
C. b,d,e
D. c,d,e
E. d,e
1411.
From properly mounted diagnostic casts, determination can made

for fixed prosthodontic treatment planning concerning:
a- axial alignment of the abutment teeth.
b- Physical condition of the abutment teeth.
c- Gingival tissue contour and pocket depth.
d- Tentative design of abutment preparation.
A. a only.
B. a, b. c.
C. a, b & d. ***
D. b ,c, d.
E. all of the above.
1412.
Which following condition in a FPD could cause porcelain bonded to

metal to loosen (fractured/separated):
a- removal of 0.7mm of bulk from facial surface of the abutment teeth.
b- Contamination of the metal framework ( metal coping ). ***
c- Baking the facing too rapidly.
d- Insufficient mechanical locks.
e- a,b.
f- a,b,c.
g- b,c.
h- b,c,d. ***
i- d only.
j- all of the above.
1413.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The porcelain metal bond is :
Chemical.
Mechanical.
a & b. *** .
None of the above.
1414.
A patient is missing a mandibular first molar, the maxillary molar has

extruded approximately 2.8 mm into the space, periodontally is acceptable.
Restoring satisfactory occlusion with FPD will require:
a- extraction of maxillary molar.
b- Reducing and restoring the maxillary molar to normal occlusal plane. ***
c- reducing and polishing the maxillary molar to normal occlusal plane.
d- none of the above.no ttt indication.
1415.
Which the following applies when selecting a shade for metalceramic restoration:
a- it is a better select a shade with too low a value than too high a value if
staining to be improve the match.
b- it is a better to select a shade with too high a value than too low a value if
staining is not to be used to improve match.
c- The basic shade selected should be that of the middle third of tooth to be
matched.
d- None of the above.
1416.
To select shade of porcelain:

a) one light.
( Under different light sources ).
b) Before preparation.
c) Wet tooth.
d) Shade guide must be wet.
C. b,c,d. ***
1417.
Cement producing mechanical bond with gold alloy:
A- GIC.
B- Zinc phosphate cement. ***
C- Zinc polycarboxylate cement. (Chemical bond)
D- All of the above.
1418.
All expect one are present in Zinc phosphate cement liquid:

a- Water.
b- H2SO4.
c- H3PO4. (38%)
d- ALPO4.
First Aid for The NBDE Part II 2008, Page 80
Zinc Phosphate Liquid are: H3PO4 38% , H2O 32%
1419.
The strength of Zinc phosphate cement is increased by increase

powder/liquid ratio:
a- true. ***
b- false.
Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials Theory,Practice,and Cases 4Ed 2013,Page
98
The higher the powder/liquid ratio, the greater the strength, the lower the
solubility and in general the better the cement on the other hand, working
time increase and viscosity increase.
1420.
Zinc polycarboxylate cement is better than zinc phosphate cement
in:
a- Compressive strength.
b- Low solubility.
c- Film thickness.
d- Adhesion to enamel. *** ( Chemical bond & Biocompatible ).
Clinical Aspects of Dental Materials Theory,Practice,& Cases 4Ed 2013,Page
104
Polycarboxylate cement bonds to tooth structure and this results in very
little leakage It is not as acidic as zinc phosphate cement, is very
biocompatible.
1421.
To create space for cement:

a- Die space. ***
b- Roughen of metal and tooth.
c- Investment expansion
( Increase investment expansion ).
d- Electro.
1422.
Patient with sensitivity may be due to:

a- crack. ***
b- gap between tooth and restoration.
1423.
In soldering PFM FPD, greenish staining on porcelain without effect

glazing this staining due to:
a- over heating firing. *** ( leading to silver releases from metal )
b- flux. ( )
c- Investment contact.
1424.
During try in and rocking FPD, what will do:

a- Gap will fill with cement.
b- Adjust tooth preparation.
c- Adjust metal and disconnect and soldering. ***
1425.
Cause of fracture porcelain bonding to metal:

a- thick opaque.
b- Occlusion on junction of porcelain and metal. ***
1426.
Most acceptable theory of bonding porcelain and noble metal:

a- formation of base metal oxide. ***
b- formation of noble metal oxide.
c- Adhesion.
1427.
When porcelain is baked ( ) against metal, it should

possess a:
a) high fusion expansion.
b) high fusion temperature .
c) Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than but close to, that of the
metal. ***
d) linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than but close to that of
metal.
1428.
Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of

transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function of the:
a) concentration of the fillers and plasticizers.
b) percentage of composition by weight of water.
c) concentration of potassium sulfate.
d) Temperature. ***
Sol. = Solution
1429.
The principal feature of a sealant that is required for success is:

a) High viscosity.
b) Adequate retention. ***
c) An added colorant to make the appearance slightly different from occlusal
enamel.
d) High strength .
1430.
The retention of a pin:

a) increases as the diameter of the pin increases. ***
b) Increases as the diameter of the pin decreases.
c) Decreases as the diameter of the pin increases.
d) The retension of a pin has nothing to do with the diameter of the pin.
1431.
In which of the following properties does a type IV partial denture

gold alloy exceed a base-metal partial denture alloy in numerical
value :
a) hardness.
b) Specific gravity. ***
c) casting shrinkage.
d) Fusion temperature .
Base metal alloy better thank gold alloy in:
1.Hight strength & rigidity 2. wrought wire clasp
1432.
Within practical limits, when the water/powder ratio is increased

beyond the recommended amount in mixing plaster ( or gypsum ) :
.
a) Setting time is increased.
b) Setting expansion is decreased.
c) Compressive strength is decreased.
d) All of the above. ***
1433.
An overload of the mucosa will occur if the:

a) teeth used for replacement are non-anatomic .
b) Bases covering the area are too small in outline. *** ( Or : denture bases
are underextended ).
c) Bases covering the area are too large in outline.
d) Bases covering the area are overextended distally.
1434.
Overextension of a mandibular denture base in distobuccal area

will cause dislodgement of the denture during function as the result of the
action of the:
a) masseter muscle. ***
b) buccinator muscle.
c) pterygomandibular raphe.
d) lateral tendon of temporalis muscle.
distolingual superior constrictor M
1435.
The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown

prepration is that:
a) it is dull knife edge.
b) its position is subgingival.
c) Its position is supragingival. ***

d) its position be easily discernible.
1436.
A thin application of cavity varnish over the cut surface of a

prepared tooth just prior to the cementation of a crown or a bridge with zinc
phosphate cement will:
a) Impede the seating of the restoration.
b) Insulate the tooth against thermal change.
c) Increase the possibility of thermal sensitivity.
d) Reduce the possibility of irritation of the pulp. ***
1437.
Metal-ceramic restorations may fail due to fracture of ceramic

material. This can best be avoided if:
a) occlusal forces are minimal.
b) the metal is not over 0.5 mm thick.
c) the ceramic material is at least 1.5 mm thick.
d) The casting designed to reduce stress concentration in the ceramic
material.
1438.
For a removable partial denture, the lack of indirect retention would

be manifested by:
a) tissue ward movement of the distal extension base of the prosthesis.
b) Movement away from the tissue of the extension base of the prosthesis.
***
c) Settling of the major connector of the prosthesis.
d) Lateral and medial movement of the extension base of the prosthesis.
1439.
The posterior palatal bar should be placed in a relationship:

a) To incorporate the hamular notch on each side.
b) Which is anterior to the junction of the movable and immovable soft
palate.
c) Which is posterior to the junction of the movable and immovable soft
palate. ( posterior to the vibrating line ).
d) Extending from one hamular notch to the other hamular notch across the
fovea palatinae.
https://www.facebook.com/groups/Prometric.GP/search/?
query=posterior%20palatal%20bar%20should%20be%20placed
%20in%20%20a%20relationship
1440.
Most elicit painful area is:

a) Gingival wall.
b) Proximal wall.
c) Pulpal wall. ***

d) None of the above.
1441.
Success of implant is 55 % in maxilla and 60 % in mandible:

a) Both true.
b) Both false. ***
c) first statement true and second is false.
d) first statement false and second is true.
% 98 .
1442.
Most common type of porcelain in dentistry:

a) High fusion.
b) Medium fusion.
c) Low fusion. *** ( low fusion or ultra low fusion ).
1443.
Casting shrinkage of gold alloy IV related to:

a) Thermal expansion. ( Compensates the casting shrinkage of gold
alloys ).
b) Coefficient of thermal expansion.
c) None of the above. ***
( The cause is: thermal contraction )
1444.
Most common occurs due to denture:

a) Sore spots. *** ( = Traumatic ulcers ).
b) Angular chelitis.
1445.
Reversible hydrocolloid properties: ( Agar agar ):

a) hydration. ***
) Hydrophilic:)
b) dehydration.
1446.
Radiation stent used to locate the proper position of implant.

Surgical stent makes some modifications to use as radiation stent:
a. Both true.
b. Both false. ***
c. First true, second false.
d. First false, second true.
* Surgical stent is used to locate the proper position of implant.
* Surgical stent does nt used as a radiation stent.
1447.
Fiber composite FPD used for: ( Fiber post(

a) posterior teeth. *** (and anterior teeth)
b) Patient have allergic for metal.

c) None of the above.
( metal post (
1448.
Implant absolute not used for:

a) patient takes radiotherapy.
b) Smoking.
c) None of the above. ***
1449.
Patient takes radiation needing implant:

a) wait 6 months. ***
b) cessation of smoking.
c) None of the above.
d) Both of the above
1450.
Path of preparation depends on:

a) Esthetic.
b) Contour.
c) Pulpal wall.
D. All of the above
1451.
Sequence of colour shade:

a) Chroma, hue, value.
b) Hue, chroma, value.
c) Value, chroma, hue. ***
*Value is determined first followed by chroma then hue.
Munsell Colour System:
Value: Brightness (lightness or darkness)
Chroma: Intensity (the amount of the hue)
Hue: the actual color (e.g. red, yellow, ..etc)
1452.
aabd-
Crowns are to be placed on abutment teeth for a PD, then:

Wax pattern contours should be surveyed. ***
Crowns should be placed prior to surveying for clasp design.
Wax pattern should carved to the original morphology.
All of the above.
1453.
Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made, it is

necessary to determine:
a- The axial center of opening-closing rotation peoples.
b- The inclination of each condoyle.
c- The physiologic rest position.
d- Centric relation.
e- All of the above.
1454.
The non-rigid connector may be used in FPD in those cases

involving:
a- Long span bridges replacing two or more teeth.
b- Short span bridges replacing one missing tooth where the prepared
abutment teeth are not in parallel alignment. ***
c- Long span bridges opposing a mucosa- borne partial denture where the
anterior retainer of the bridge strikes an opposing natural tooth, but the
distal portion of the bridge is in occlusion with the removable partial
denture.
d- Long or short span bridges where one of the abutment teeth has limited
periodontal support.
1455.
Splinting of several teeth together as abutments for a FPD is done
to:
a- Distribute occlusal load. ***
(And resist lateral forces).
b- Facilitate plaque control.
c- Improve retention of the prosthesis.
d- Preserve remaining alveolar support.
E- Assure optimum design of embrasure.
1456.
Advantage of shoulder finishing line is:

a- It provides enough thickness of porcelain. ***
b- Make the margin of restoration obvious in impression.
c- Assist the technician to locate the finish line on the die.

1457.
Regarding gingival retraction, the following are true except one is

false, the false is:
a- Retraction by electro-surgery is contraindicated for patient with cardiac
pacemaker. .
b- It can be done by chemical, mechanical, and electrosurgery.
c- Retraction cord impregnated in epinephrine is the best for all cases.
.
d- Retraction cord can't be used in severely inflamed gingival.
Epinephrine 0.1, 0.8%: cause vasoconstriction & contraindication for cardic
PT.
1458.
The most important property of cement for durable restoration:
a- Low co-efficient of thermal expansion.

b- Compressive strength. ***
c- Solubility in oral fluids.
. Resistance to solubility in oral fluids *
1459.
The most retentive pin is:

a- Cemented pins.
b- Self threaded. ***
c- Fictional type.
1460.
The least preferable abutment for FPD is:

a- Rotated and tipped tooth.
b- Endodontically treated tooth.
c- A tooth with short tapered root and long clinical crown. ***
d- A tooth with little remaining tooth structure.
1461.
The use of amalgam post-core depends on:

a- Remaining tooth structure. ***
b- Width of root canal.
1462.
Correct incisal and gingival color of metal-ceramic restoration, the

color may be modified by:
1- Use of stains.
2- Use of stained porcelain.
3- Re-firing at high temperature.
4- Changing the light reflection by grinding and re-polishing.
a. 1 only.
b. 1 and 2 only. ***
c. 1,2 and 3.
d. 2 only.
e. 2 and 3 only.
f. 4 only.
1463.
In which of the following ways do surface characteristics of porcelain

affect the perceived form of the final restoration?

1- A surface smoother than normal will give the impression of a larger size.
2- Horizontal highlights suggest increased length.
3- Vertical highlights give an illusion of width.
4- Changes in contour and resulting highlights can be used to alter the

apparent long axis tooth.
a. 1,2 and 3.
b. 1,3 and 4.
c. 1 and 4 only. ***
d. 3 and 4 only.
e. All of the above.
1464.
Which of the following contribute to the bonding of dental porcelain

to metal casting alloys?
1- Metallic bonds.
2- Chemical bonding.
3- Adhesive bonds.
4- Mechanical bonding.
a. 1 and 2 only.
b. 1,2 and 4.
c. 1,3 and 4.
d. 2 and 4 only. ***
e. 3 and 4 only.
f. All of the above.
1465.
In an ideal centric occlusion, the mesio-facial cusp of the permanent

maxillary first molar opposes the:
a- Central fossa of the mandibular first molar.
b- Mesial fossa of the mandibular first molar.
c- Facial embrasure between mandibular second premolar and first molar.
d- Sulcus of the disto-facial groove of the mandibular first molar.
e- Sulcus of the mesio-facial groove of the mandibular first molar. ***
1466.
In children pulp damage is less frequent than in adults due to :

a- Minor subluxation doesn't cut the blood supply.
b- More hemoglobin content in children.
c- Less nutritional deficiences.
1467.
Which of these is used for gingival contouring

gingivectomy ):
A. PK.2
B. PK.4
C. Bard Parker. *** ( surgical blades no. 11 & 12 ).
1468.
To increase the retention of full crown for a short molar:

a. Use zinc phosphate.
b. Retintive vertical groove. ***
c. Shoulder finish line.
1469.
Pt. infected by anthrax , after examination, doctor

should disinfect with:
a. 12 % cholorihexiden.
b. Antibacterial hand scrub.
c. Non antimicrobial soap. *** ( Wash your hands with soap and water ).
.
. Chlorine dioxide
1470.
8 yr old pt. swollowed 10ml of 10% flouride, what the immediate
action:
a. Ingest milk. ***
b. Hospitalization.
1471.
Decrease the polymerization shrinkage of composite by :

a. Incremental placement with increase time of curing.
b. Incremental placement with high intensity light cure. ***

1472.
Pt. with sialolithiasis we want to take x-ray with ordinary

film in order show the stone we should:
a. Take x-ray in the same way as usual. ***
b. Increase the intensity of x-ray.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sialography
1473.
Retrograde filling is indicated in what condition:

a. Max. central incisor with good filling with 9mm radiolucency. ***
( Apicectomy : )
b. Max. premolar with post and core buccal root with 4 mm short filling and
radiolucency at the apex but the palatal root with good filling.
c. 1st molar with MBR and DBR short filling and platal root with fracture
instrument.
1474.
Apicectomy what is the right statement:

1. Incisor with an adequate RCT and 9mm lesion. ***
2. Lateral incisor with good condensing RCT but swelling and pain 14 day
after the treatment, the tooth asymptom before the obturation.

3. First upper premolar with lesion on the buccal root.
1475.
2 walls defect in perio what is the best graft to treat this defect:
a. Cortical freeze dried bone allograft. *** .
b. Cancellous freeze dried bone allograft.
c. All are the same. .
1476.
Test for determinig the efficiency of sterilizing agent is:
a. Fungi.
b. Virus.
c. Bacteria.
d. Bacterial spores. ***
1477.
Which of the following doesn't has damage effect on hand piece:

A. Apply great pressure during use.
B. Infrequent moisturization. *** .
C. Fall down of the head of the hand piece.
1478.
Pt. with lesion in the posterior of the tongue we want to take

excisional biopsy how to pull the tongue forward:
A. mennesota tongue retractor.
B. mirror handle.
C. Towel clip. *** ( )
Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 3Ed 2012, Page 52
The tongue forceps are of two types:
1. Swab Holder: It may cause damage to the tongue
2. Towel clip: better than the swab holding variety as the tongue is
traumatized at only one point.
1479.
Pedo pt. with extremely ve behavior, to restrain the extremity:

A. use mouth prope.
B. Belt.
C. Board. *** ( Papoose Board ). ( )

Dentistry for the Child and Adolescent 9Ed 2011, Page 468
The following are commonly used for protective stabilization:
Body
Papoose Board (Olympic Medical Corp., Seattle, Wash)
Triangular sheet
Pedi-Wrap (The MediKid Co., Hemet, Calif)
Beanbag dental chair insert

Safety belt
Extra assistant
Extremities
Posey straps (Posey Co., Arcadia, Calif)
Velcro straps
Towel and tape
Extra assistant
Head
Forearm-body support
Head positioner
Plastic bowl
Extra assistant
1480.
During anathesia what's true:

A. The needle should be inserted before cartridge.
B. The needle cap is inserted before the stopper.
C. Excessive force should be applied to allow insertion of the cartridge into
the harpoon.
1481.
Vasoconstrictors are:
a) Lidocaine.
b) Adrenaline. ***
d) Sulpha.
c) All of the above.
1482.
When we extract roots we start with:

a) Forceps.
b) Periosteal elevators. (Used for reflecting the mucoperisosteal flap)
c) Elevators. ***
d) Needles.
Contemporary Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 6Ed 2014, Page 76 -68
Periosteal elevator: used for elevating mucoperiosteum
Textbook of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 3Ed 2012, Page 62
Elevators used to luxate the teeth from the socket prior to application of the
forceps
Periosteal elevators: used for reflecting the mucoperiosteal flap
1483.
In case of bad odor in the entrance of the pulp we:

a) Extract the tooth.
b) Remove the pulp.
c) R.C.T *** .
d) None.

1484.
Insulin is a medicine for:
a) Hypertension.
b) Cardiac diseases.
c) Diabetes. ***
d) Decrease in platelet count.
1485.
In case of infiltration we give:

a) Anti inflammatory.
b) Antibiotic.
c) a and b.
d) None. ***
1486.
For the mandible we prefer:

a) Infiltration.
b) Block. ***
c) Intraossous.
d) None.
1487.
Phosphoric acid is applied for:

a) 10-20 seconds.
b) 30-45 seconds.
c) 20-30 seconds.
d) None.
1488.
The lower teeth are supplied with:

a) Maxillary nerve.
b) Infra orbital nerve.
c) Mandibular nerve. ***
1489.
The main cause of inflammation of gingiva ( gingivitis ):

a) Smoking.
b) Calculus.
c) Bacteria. *** ( OR: Bacterial plaque ).
d) Fluoride.
1490.
The pregnant woman is suffering from:

a) Gingival recession.
b) Pregnant granuloma. ***
c) Periapical abscess.
d) None.
1491.
a- 17
b- 18
c- 19
d- 20
Muscles of the tongue are:

***
1492.
Sterilization in autoclave:
a- 20-30 minutes at 121 c.
b- 2-10 minutes at 134 c.
c- a+b. ***
d- None.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Autoclave
First Aid for the NBDE Part II, Page 339
Sterilization Autoclave 30min at 250 F (121 C) at 15 psi
Sterilization Autoclave 3min at 134 C
1493.
Crossbite means:
a- Upper teeth occlude inside the lower teeth. ***
lingual to the lower teeth ).
b- Upper teeth occlude outside the lower.
c- a and b.
d- None.
( Upper teeth occlude
1494.
The efficiency of the autoclave is decreased due to:

a- Sterilization without cleaning the instruments.
b- Over loading.
c- Dry blood on the instruments.
d- All of the above. ***
1495.
The food which build new cells:

a- Carbohydrates.
b- Proteins. ***
c- Fats.
d- Minerals.
1496.
Brushing of the anterior teeth from the lingual side is:

a- Vertical.
b- Horizontal.
c- Oblique. ***
d- None.
1497.
When we delay the cleaning and sterilization of instruments we put
it in:
a- Holding solution. *** ( detergent or water )
b- Sodium hypochlorite.
c- a+b.
d- None.
1498.
Before doing vitality pulp test, the tooth must be:

a- Moist.
b- Dry. ***
c- Moist or dry not affect.
d- None.
1499.
One plane labial reduction leads to:

A. Overcounterd crown.
B. Improved retention.
C. Occlusal disharmony.
1500.
Patient 3 years old had injury in the primary teeth, the permanent
teeth are rarely undergo to:
A. Micro abrasion in the enamel.
B. Discoloration.
C. Dilaceration.
D. Partially stoppage of the root formation. ***
1501.
Galgavin-vermilion formula used in:

A. Calculation of flouride in water according to temperature.
1502.
The punch hole in the rubber dam for a child is:
a. small.
b. medium.
.
c. large.
d. the hole size isn't important.
* Use the larger holes for the posterior teeth and smaller holes for anterior
teeth, but use the largest hole than normal on the punch for the tooth to
receive the rubber dam retainer.
* But, a size 5 X 5 inch medium gauge rubber dam is best suited for use in
children. .
. : *
1503.
The reason of separation or fracture of opaque layer in ceramo metal

crown in gold:
a. Technique not using conditioning material on opaque layer.
b. Contact of occluion on opaque layer. *** ( due to thick opaque layer ).
1504.
Patient had intrinsic stain in anteriors you decide to put full veneer
crowns porcelain fused to metal had irreversible pulpitis, you decide to make
RCT and make access opening from palatal side.
What is the most appropriate filling to do will not disturb the crown
cementation:
A) Reinforced cement and any appropriate filling. ***
b) Towl.
c) pin amalgam seal.
1505.
When we can put composite restoration in recently bleached tooth :

A. After 1 week. ***
1506.
In prefabricated twisted pin in amalgam it should be go equaly into

dentine alloy :
a. one mm.
b. two to three mm. ***
c. five mm.
d. only in enamel.
1507.
a.
b.
c.
Inferior orbital fissure located:

Lateral wall & floor of of orbit. *** ( between them ).
The medial part of orbit.
Between the two wings of sphenoid.
1508.
In standard instrument for proper work the cutting edge should be:
a. perpendicular to the handle. ***
( cutting edge of the blade is at a right
angle to the handle of the instrument ).
b. parallel to the handle.
c. acute angle.
d. inverted angle.
1509.
Which of the following not considered type of healing of fractured
root:
a. healing by bone deposition in proximity.
b. healing by cementium deposition in proximity.
c. healing by cementium and soft tissue in proximity.
d. healing by soft tissue inflammation in proximity. ***
( healing by granulation tissue ).
1510.
6 years old came to u with carious lower molar sinus drainage:

a. Pulp pathosis. ***
1511.
symptoms of congenital syphilis:

A. Deafness, notch incisor, bolbous cuspless molar and oral pigmentation. ***
1512.
Treatment of grade 2 furcation involvement:

A. Scalling, tooth planning, bone grafts with guided tissue regeneration GTR.
***
1513.
a.
Stephan curve for plaque:

Rapid drop under critical ph 5.5 followed by slowly raise. ***
1514.
Patients with high caries activity have low PH and the PH falls on the
lower level:
a.
Carbohydrate retained to the tooth has prolonged effect.
b. After rinsing by 10 % glucose, the PH falls within 2 3 minutes below the

critical level of PH and remain for about 30 50 minutes. ***
c. Fall the PH below the critical level of PH, the enamel can be remineralized.
1515.
1.
2.
3.
4.
For the prevention of mercury toxicity in the clinic put it in:

Water.
Sodium chloride.
The appearance of radial.
Fixer of radial. ***
1516.
21 years old pt. has submandiular space infection swelling in 36 area

and 38 is missing on radiograph he has radioloucency extend in 36,37,38
area with septal tubercula and root resorption:
A. Keratocyst.
B. Ameloplastoma.
C. Dentegerous cyst.
1517.
Pt. has high mastication forces has caries on posterior teeth and he
want only esthetic restoration:
a. Composite with beveled margins.
b. Composite without beveled margins. ***
c. Light cured GI.
d. Zinc phosphate cement.
1518.
Anomalis during initiation and profilration of tooth germ will lead to:
a. Amelogenasis imberfecta.
b. Dentinogenasis imberfecta.
c. Dentinal dysplasia.
d. Oligodontia. ***
1519.
Autoclaving technique is depending on:

A. Dry heat.
B. Steam heat. ***
C. Chemicals.
1520.
Radiographically interdental bone appears perpendicular to the

CEJ,if the CEJ of many number of adjacent teeth are not in the same level, the
interdental bone will appear or create angulations, the both statements are:
a- First true.
b- Both true.
c- Both false.
d- Second true.
1521.
Blade of periodontal instrument should be:

A- Perpindicular to long axis.
B- Parallel to long axis.
C- Perpendicular to shank.
90 80-70
1522.
Patient has ulcers on the cheek and lip and has bull's eye lesion
(target) with surrounded odema and erythema on the hand and foot.
Whats your diagnosis:
A- herpetic ulcer.
B- bollus pemphigoid.
C- erythema multiform. ***
D- Behget's disease.
1523.
A 45 years old patient with badly broken upper second molar which
will be extracted. After the dentist injected the local anesthesia, patient
complaints from nausea & blood perssure became 100/70 . When
dentist asks the patient about his medical condition he informs dentist that
he is under ttt. of osteoarthritis.
?What is the cause of this condition
.Hypotension .1
.Bronchial asthma .2
*** .Adrenal insufficiency .3
. 3
1524.
a.
b.
c.
Compomer restorative materials are:

Glass ionomer with polymer components.
Resin systems with fluoride containing glasses. ***
Composite resin for cervical restorations only.
1525.
Balanced occlusion refers to:

a.
The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in
centric occlusion only.
b.
The type of occlusion which allows simultaneous contact of the teeth in
centric and eccentric jaw positions. *** .
c.
A type of occlusion which is similar to the occlusion of the natural teeth.
1526.
Fractured tooth to alveolar crest, what's the best way to produce

ferrule effect:
A) Restore with amalgam core sub-gingivally. ***
b) Crown lengthening.
c) Extrusion with orthodontics.
1527.
:
1- .
2- . *** ( Enamel will absorb the fluoride ).
- 3 .
4- .
1528.
Sequence of treatment planning:

A. Opertive, endo, perio, surgery and ortho.
B. Endo, perio, operative, surgery and ortho.
C. Perio, endo, operative, surgery and ortho.
D. B & C.
1529.
During the designing of a partial denture (lingual bar) in the lower

arch for a a patient what will u start with:
a- the upper border of the bar.***
b- inferior border of the bar.
c- designing the rest seats location.
d- extension of the denture base
1530.
A child with trauma and swollen lip for the last few days, no pain and
teeth are good, what will u do next:
a- take an x-ray of the lip to exclude any foreign object.
b- cold packs to manage the swelling.
c- anti inflammatory drugs.
1531.
When you do RCT and you want to prescribe an antibiotic. What's

the drug of choice:
A- clindamycine.
B- erythromycin.
C- penicillin.
D- metronidazol.
But, in the difficult cases: a combination of penicillin and metronidazol *
.should be taken
nd
.The 2 choice is clindamycin and also given if theres a penicillin allergy *
1532.
Child 10 years old came to you with truma on maxillary central

incisor (before 36 hours) and has large pulp exposure. What will you do:
A- pulpectomy with calcium hydroxide.
B- pulpotomy with calcium hydroxide.
C- direct pulp capping.
D- extraction.
1533.
Child 3 years old with congenital heart disease and has deep caries
with diffuse abscess and he transfered to hospital for special management.
What they will give the child before start:
A- endocarditis prophilaxis.
B- intravenous antibiotic.
1534.
1234-
Apical foramen:
content in the apex of root.
detected by apexolocator.
in the lateral canal.
releted to orifice.
1535.
All these materials are used in the impression for partial denture
with distal extention except:
1- plastic pearl.
2- elastic.
3- silicon.
4- ZOE.
1536.
1234-
All these causes xerostomia except:

antidepressant agent.
complete denture.
radiotherapy.
defect in salivary gland.
Non of the above *
. 2
1537.
Why we use caoh between visits in RCT:

1- antibacterial.
2- formation hard tissue.
3- primary seal.
4 - resorption pathology.
1538.
The ratio of organic to inorganic material is approximately the same
in:
a- cementum and dentin.
b- compact bone and cementum.
c- spongy bone and dentin.
d- alveolar compact bone and spongy bone.
e- all of the above.
1539.
What can not diagnosed by radiography:

a- proximal caries
b- Abscesses
c- Sever gingivitis
1540.
which of the following events occurs during dentinogenesis:

A. Odontoblasts become long cuboidal. ***
B. The matrix and proteoglycans maturate with collagen fibers.
1541.
Frankel appliance is used in:

A. Prevent oral habit.
B. Prevent cross bite. ***
* Frankel appliance is an orthodontic appliance used to prevent cross bite
and treat classes I, II or III malocclusions.
1542.
Enamel rods form the main structure of enamel, they extend from
the DEJ toward the dental pulp:
a. true.
b. false. ***
* Enamel rods ( enamel prisms ) form the main structure of the enamel. Its
the basic and the largest structural elements of the enamel. These rods
extend from the dentinoenamel junction DEJ toward the enamel.
1543.
8 years old child present to the clinic with a fractured crown of

upper central incisor and the pulp is slightly exposed and bleeds
superficially, Rx:
1- direct pulp cap.
2- pulpectomy.
3- pulpotomy. ***
4- apexification.
1544.
Fracture upper central incisor in 8 years old child with pulp

exposure, management is:
a. Apixification.
b. Pulpotomy. ***
c. RCT.
1545.
When removing moist ( soft ) carious dentin which exposes the

pulp , dentist should:
a. do direct pulp cap.
b. do indirect pulp cap.
c. prepare for endo. ***
1546.
Treatment of a periodontal abscess caused by a foreign body is:

1- gingivectomy.
2- antibiotics.
3- elimination of the pocket.
4- none of the above. ***
* Treatment of a periodontal abscess caused by a foreign body is: elimination
of the causative factor thats the foreign body.
1547.
1234-
Stainless steel pins are used mainly in amalgam to enhance:

retention. ***
strength.
resistance form.
all of the above.
1548.
Stainless steel pin is used in amalgam for:

a. Increase retention.
b. Increase resistance.
a. Increase strength.
b. a and b. ***
Pins increase both retention and resistance forms
but mainly the retention.
Post
1549.
Buccal frenum:
a- the oral activities in this area are horizontal as well as vertical so wider
clearance is usually needed.
b- it is usually in the areas of the first premolars.
c- the center of the denture will be a little narrow in this area due to the
activity of the levator anguli muscle.
d- the center of the denture will be a little narrow in this area due to the
activity of the depressor anguli muscle.
e- a, b and d. ***
f- a, b and c.
1550.
The finishing line form on prepared tooth for metal ceramic crowns
should be:
a- sharp internal line angle f.l.
b- marginal step f.l.
c- feather edge f.l.
d- chamfer, shoulder, or shoulder beveld f.l. ***
1551.
Which one of the following impression materials is inelastic ( rigid ),

sets by acid base reaction:
a- impression plaster.
b- zinc oxide eugenol. ***
c- alginate.
e- thiokol rubber.
* Zinc oxide eugenol impression material: is inelastic ( rigid ) material and its
setting is done by a chemical reaction (acid base reaction).
1552.
Optimal & minimum crown root ratio and minimal acceptable ratio
is:
a- 1:1 and 2:3 respictivly.
b- irrelevant as long as there is no mobility.
c- 3:2 and 1:1 respectively.

d- 2:3 and 1:1 respictively. ***
e- irrelevant as long as ants law satisefied.
Ideal 1:2 , optimal 2:3 , minimum 1:1
ideal 1-2
optimum 2-3
normal 1-1.5
acceptable 1-1
1553.
The ideal crown to root ratio of a tooth be utilized as a bridge

abutment is:
a- 3:1
b- 2:1
c- 1:2 ***
d- 1:1
1554.
Important part of the distal extention RPD that maintains the

stability:
A- Retentive arm.
B- Reciprocal arm.
C- Occlusal rest.
D- Denture base. ***
1555.
The distal extention RPD receives its suppot:

A. From terminal abutments.
B. Mostly from residual ridge. ***
C. Equally from abutments and residual ridges.
D. Exclusively from residual ridge.
E. Denture base.
1556.
The retraction cord displaces the tissue:

a- laterally.
b- apically.
c- apically and laterally. ***
* The retraction cord displaces the tissue apically and laterally 0.5 mm away
from tooth preparation.
1557.
Chemomechanical tissue retraction:

A. Displaces the gingival tissue laterally. ***
B. Displaces the gingival tissue apically.
C. Causes shrinkage of gingival tissue.
D. Causes tearing of gingival tissue attachment.
*
Chemomechanical tissue retraction = Chemomechanical retraction cord.
1558.
Which of impression materials has syneresis:

A. Alginate. ***
B. Agar agar.
C. Silicons.
Syneresis and impitition:
occur in both alginate and agar agar but its more in alginate.
.
1559.
Which one of the following materials undergoes syneresis?

a. Alginate. ***
b. Rubber Base.
c. Polyether.
d. Impression Compound.
e. Silicone Rubber.
1560.
Which one of the following impression materials is elastic, sets by a

physical reaction, and is subject to syneresis and imbibition?
a. Irreversible Hydrocolloid.
b. Reversible Hydrocolloid. ***
c. Polysulfide Rubber.
d. Condensation Silicone.
e. Polyether.
1561.
Which material undergoes to hysteresis:

A. Irreversible hydrocolloid.
B. Reversible hydrocolloid. ***
C. Impresssion plaster.
D. Metallic oxide paste.
Reversible hydrocolloid = agar agar.
Irreversible hydrocolloid = alginate.
Reversible and Irreversible hydrocolloids ( agar agar and alginate ) are
elastic impression materials and have the properties of syneresis and
imbibition.
But the difference between them:
Agar agar sets by a physical reaction and this reaction is reversible.
Alginate sets by a chemical reaction and this reaction is irreversible.
Syneresis and imbibition are more in alginate than in agar agar.
Only, agar agar has the property of hysteresis.
Alginate is the least accurate impression material.
1562.
Which is the least accurate impression material:

A. Agar agar.
B. Alginate. ***
C. Compound.
D. Silicone.
1563.
Which is the most accurate impression material:

A. Agar agar.
B. Alginate.
C. Compound.
D. Silicone. ***
* Silicone = Additional type silicone = Polyvinyl siloxane .
1564.
Zinc phosphate cement thickness to be between:

a- 13 - 35 um.
b- 25 - 40 um. ***
c- 60 - 100 um.
d- Thickness acceptable is not specified.
* The maximum thickness for a type I zinc phosphate cement is 25 um.
* The maximum thickness of a type II zinc phosphate cement is 40 um.
* But, the thickness of zinc phosphate cement to provide effective thermal
insulation ( zinc phosphate cement base ) should be between 0.5 1 mm.
1565.
Denture pressure on the papilla can cause:

a- parathesia.
b- pain.
c- burning sensation.
d- relief should be provided.
e- all of the above. ***
1566.
The most common difficulty associated with patients suffering from

neuromascular disorders in construction of complete denture is:
a- recording jaw relation. ***
b- difficult in impression making.
c- difficult in arrangement of posterior teeth.
d- difficult in border molding the impression.
1567.
Immediate denture serves many of the following except one:

a- maintanance of the patient appearance.
b- improving the appearance of the patient.
c- restoring adequate function of proprioception.
d- less ridge resorption occurs.
the proprioceptor = receptor in the periodontal ligament which can not be restored
after tooth extraction
1568.
Etiology of subpontic osseous hyperplasia: ( OR subpontic

exostosis )
a- Chronic irritation.
b- Exessive functional stresses. ***
..

* Subpontic osseous hyperplasia: developed more in posterior mandibular
bridge.
Etiology of subpontic osseous hyperplasia:
1. Chronic gingival irritation.
2. Exessive functional stresses.
1569.
Constituant of alginate which is insoluble is:

a- calcium alginate. ***
b- sodium alginate.
c- sodium sulfate.
1570.
The most common type of odontogenic cyst is the:
OR
The most common type of inflammatory odontogenic cyst is:
A. Dentegirous cyst.
B. Periapical cyst. ***
C. Odontogenic keratocyst.
D. Residual cyst.
* Periapical cyst = Radicular cyst = Dental cyst.
1571.
The most common type of developmental odontogenic cyst is the:

A. Dentegirous cyst. ***
B. Periapical cyst.
C. Odontogenic keratocyst.
D. Residual cyst.
* The most common odontogenic cyst is the periapical cyst
(radicular cyst / dental cyst).
* The second most common odontogenic cyst is the dentigerous cyst
(follicular cyst).
* The third most common odontogenic cyst is the keratocyst
(primordial cyst).

SLE 6th Plus Edition 2003-2014 (DR - Mohmmed) Final

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...

The periodontium comprise which of the following tissues:

* The periodontal tissues = the periodontium consist of:

The following chemically bonds to the tooth:

* Also, zinc polycarboxylate cement bonds chemically.

The following medical conditions may precipitate a syncope:

Oxford Handbook of Clinical Dentistry - 4th Ed. (2005) page 303

whats the first sign of Syncope:

Most frequent cause of fainting in dental office:

Loss of consciousness,most frequent cause:

Orthognathic ridge relationship (class II) presents several problems which

Class III jaw relation in edentulous Pt.:

Planning centric occlusion for complete denture, it is advisable to have:

11. The posterior extension of maxillary complete denture can be detected by

the followings except:

Fovea palatine. ***

13. Vibrating line:

Between hard & soft palates.

15. Pt. Presented after insertion of complete denture complaining of

( or: Overextension causing tissue

21. All relate to retention of maxillary complete denture except:

Tongue movement. ***

22. Best instrument to locate vibrating line, it is:

23. We can use for palatal posterior seal:

Failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival

Insufficient interocclusal distance.

Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.

The occlusion of the existing denture is adjusted, and tissue condition

30. Polyether impression materials:

Are less stable dimensionally than polysulfide rubber.

For the purpose of retention.

Contraindications for the use of lingual plate major connector : Crowding of *

32. Lingual plate:

33. Lingual bar contraindication except :

34. Lingual bar indication:

35. In class I partially edentulous lower arch, selection of major connector

36. An anterior fixed partial denture is contraindicated when:

Abutment teeth are not carious.

37. In registering the vertical dimension of occlusion for the edentulous

patient. The physiological rest dimension:

38. Three weeks after delivery of a unilateral distal extension mandibular

40. Examination of residual ridge for edentulous Pt. before construction of

denture determines stability, support and retention related to the ridge:

denture, easily displaceable tissue is seen in the crest of ridge. Management:

( Zinc oxide & eugenol paste ).

44. Function of post dam:

45. In recording jaw relation, best to use:

Occlusal rim with record base. ***

47. The goal of construction of occlusion rims is:

To obtain the occlusal plane, vertical dimension, tentative centric relation,

making maxillo-manibular ( jaw ) relative record for arranging teeth or for

49. To recheck centric relation in complete denture:

Ask Pt. to open and close.

caries as it relates to the concentration are:

As eruption of first tooth. ***

55. When tooth paste is used, the child is advised:

b- swallow a small amount.

56. Fluoridated toothpaste for 3 years child is:

It's not the same fluoride that cause fluorosis.

58. Mentally ill child, the best way to apply fluoride:

Acidulated phosphate fluoride.

59. Type of professionally applied fluoride for mentally retarded pt.:

60. Type of professionally applied fluoride for mentally retarded pt.: