Q1.Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole p is placed as shown.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The dipole will not experience any force.

B. The dipole will experience a force towards right.

C. The dipole will experience a force towards left.

D. The dipole will experience a force upwards.

Answer: C.

Explanation: The space between the electric field lines is increasing , here from left t right and
its characteristics states that , strength of electric field decreases with the increase in the space
between electric field lines .as a result force on charges also decreases from left to right.
Thus , the force on charge – is greater than the force on charge +q in turn dipole will experience
a force towards left.

Q2.The Electric field at a point is

A. always continuous and discontinuous if there is a charge at that point.

B. continuous if there is no charge at that point and discontinuous if there is a charge at that
point.

C. always continuous and discontinuous only if there is a negative charge at that point.
D. always continuous and discontinuous if there is a charge at that point.

Answer: B

Explanation: The electric field due to a charge Q at a point in space may be defined as the force
that a unit positive charge would experience if placed at that pint . thus electric field due to the
charge Q will be continuous , if there is n charge at that pint .it will be discontinuous if there is a
charge at that point.

Q3.A metallic spherical shell has an inner radius R1 and outer radius R2. A charge
Q is placed at the centre of the spherical cavity. What will be surface charge density
on the inner surface?
𝑄 −𝑄
A. 2 B. 4𝜋𝑅 2
4𝜋𝑅1 1

𝑄 𝑄
C. 4𝜋𝑅 2
D. − 4𝜋𝑅 2
2 2

Answer: B

Explanation: Here the charge placed at the centre of the spherical cavity is positively charged.
So the charge created at the inner surface of the sphere , due to induction will be –Q and due to
this charge created at outer surface of the sphere is +Q
Therefore surface charge density on the inner surface is
−𝑄
=
4𝜋𝑅1 2

Q4.The current in the arm CD of the circuit will be

A. i1+i2 B. i2+i3

C. i1+i3 D. i1–i2+i3

Answer: B

Explanation: By Kirchhoff’s first law, current in branch CD will be i2+i3.

Q5.The bulbs A, B and C are connected as shown in the figure given below. The
bulbs B and C are identical. If the bulb C is fused then:

A. Both A and B will glow more brightly

B. Both A and B will glow less brightly

C. A will glow less brightly and B will glow more brightly

D. A will glow more brightly and B will glow less brightly

Answer: C

Explanation: When C gets fused then the overall resistance of the circuit increases and the
current through A gets reduced due to which it gets dimmer. Also, the current passing through
bulb B will increase so it will glow brighter.

Q6.A cylindrical wire is stretched to increase its length b 10 %. What is the

percentage increase in resistance?

A. 10% B. 41%
C. 1% D. 21%

Answer: D

Explanation:

10
𝐿𝑒𝑡𝑙𝑏𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒. 𝑇ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑖𝑠 𝑙 × = 0.1 𝑙.
100
𝑆𝑜, 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 𝑎𝑓𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑖𝑠 𝑙’ = 𝑙 + 0.1𝑙 = 1.1𝑙.
𝑆𝑢𝑝𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑒 𝐴 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎𝑓𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑖𝑡 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒𝑠 𝑡𝑜 𝐴’, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒
𝐴 𝑙′
𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑙𝑙 𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑎𝑖𝑛 𝑢𝑛𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒𝑑. 𝑆𝑜, 𝐴 𝑙 = 𝐴’ 𝑙’ ⇒ = = 1.1
𝐴′ 𝑙
𝐼𝑓 𝜌 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 𝑏𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒
𝑙 𝑙′
𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑖𝑠 𝑅 = 𝜌( ) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎𝑓𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑖𝑠 𝑅′ = 𝜌( )
𝐴 𝐴′
𝑅′ 𝑙′ 𝐴 𝑙′ 𝐴
∴ = ×  putting values of  × = 1.1 × 1.1 = 1.21.
𝑅 𝑙 𝐴′ 𝑙 𝐴′
𝑅′ − 𝑅 𝑅′
Hence, percentage increase in resistance is:  × 100 = ( − 1) × 100 = (1.21 − 1) × 100 = 21%.
𝑅 𝑅

Q7.A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.2%. What is the percentage change in its
resistivity?

A. 0.4 % B. 2.0 %

C. 4.0 % D. None of these

Answer: D

Explanation: There will be no change in its resistivity because resistivity of a material depends
on nature of the material and temperature of its surroundings.

Q8.A steel wire is stretched to make it 0.2% longer. What is the percentage change
in its resistance?

A. 4% B. 0.4 %

C. 2 % D. 0.2 %

Answer: B

Explanation: Let m be the mass of wire having length l, are of cross section A and density D.
 𝑚
∴ 𝑚 = 𝐴𝑙𝐷  ⇒ 𝐴 = .
𝑙𝐷
𝑙
𝐼𝑓 𝑅 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑛𝑑𝜌 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑅 = 𝜌
𝐴
𝑙
𝑅=𝜌
𝐴
𝑙2 𝐷
⇒𝑅=𝜌   ⇒ 𝑅 = 𝑙2 (constant)
𝑚
𝑑𝑅 2𝑑𝑙
∴  =   
V 𝑙
𝑑𝑅 2𝑑𝑙
⇒  Percentage increase in resistance  =   × 100 = × 100
𝑅 𝑙
𝑑𝑅 2 × 0.2
⇒  Percentage increase in resistance  =   × 100 = × 100 = 0.4%.
𝑅 100

Q9.V−I graph for a metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 and T2 is shown below.The correct
relation between T1 and T2 is:

A. T1< T2 B. T1= T2

C. T1> T2 D. None of these

Answer: A

Explanation:
As the resistance,R=V/iLet I1 and I2 be the current at temperature T1 and T2.From the graph, if I1
>I2, then R1<R2.As, R∝ T1 therefore, T1<T2. Therefore, T2 is greater than T1.

Q10.The figure given below represents a part of closed circuit. The potential
difference between X and Y is

A. 3V B. 6V

C. 9V D. 12V

Answer: C

Explanation: Potential difference across 2Ω = 2 ampere ×2 ohm = 4V. Potential difference across
1Ω = 1 ohm ×2 ampere = 2 V.

Applying Kirchhoff’s law, we have

VX−(2×2)−3−(2×1)=VY⇒VX−VY=9 V.
Q11.A steel wire of resistance Ro is stretched till its length is increased to n times of
its original length. Its new resistance is

A. Ro B. n Ro

C. n2Ro D. Ro/n

Answer: C

Explanation:

𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑙𝑜 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴𝑜 𝑏𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑔𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 ℎ𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦𝜌, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒
𝑙𝑜
𝑅=𝜌 .
𝐴𝑜
𝐼𝑓 𝑙 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐴 𝑏𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 𝑎𝑓𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑐ℎ𝑒𝑑 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛, 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑖𝑠
𝑙
𝑅=𝜌 .
𝐴
𝐴𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑖𝑟𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒, 𝑙𝑜 𝐴𝑜 = 𝑙𝐴   ⇒ 𝑙𝑜 𝐴𝑜 = (𝑛𝑙𝑜 )𝐴   or 𝐴 = 𝐴𝑜 /𝑛
𝑙 𝑛𝑙𝑜 𝜌𝑙
𝑁𝑜𝑤, 𝑅 = 𝜌 = 𝜌 = 𝑛2 ( ) = 𝑛2 𝑅𝑜 .
𝐴 𝐴𝑜 /𝑛 𝐴

Q12.A current (i) is flowing through a resistance (R) connected to a primary cell. If
resistance connected is reduced to half of its original value then, the new current
through the resistance is

A. 2 I Bi

C. greater than 2 I D. less than 2 i

Answer: D

Explanation: Let r is the internal resistance of the cell.

 𝐸 𝐸
𝑇ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑖𝑡, 𝑖 =   ⇒ 2𝑖 = 2( )
𝑅+𝑟 𝑅+𝑟
𝐸
𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑖𝑠 𝑟𝑒𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑜 ℎ𝑎𝑙𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡, 𝑖′ =
(𝑅⁄2) + 𝑟
𝐸
⇒ 𝑖′ =
𝑅
( ⁄2) + 𝑟
2𝐸
⇒ 𝑖′ =   < 2𝑖.
𝑅 + 2𝑟

Q13.Charge flowing through the wire depends on time as,q= 3t2+ 2t+ 5. The current flowing through
the wire in 1 second is:Charge flowing through the wire depends on time as,q= 3t2+ 2t+ 5. Th
e current flowing through the wire in 1 second is:

A. 2 ampere B. 3 ampere

C. 4 ampere D. 6 ampere

Answer: D
Explanation:
𝑑𝑞 𝑑
Current 𝑖 = = (3𝑡 2 + 2𝑡 + 5) = 6𝑡 + 2
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑞
⇒ ( )𝑡= 1sec = 6 ampere
𝑑𝑡

Q14.The magnetic field of Earth can be modeled by that of a point dipole placed at
the centre of the Earth. The dipole axis makes an angle of 11.3° with the axis of
Earth. At Mumbai, declination is nearly zero. Then,

A. the declination varies between 11.3° W to 11.3° E.

B. the least declination is 0°.

C. the plane defined by dipole axis and Earth axis passes through Greenwich.

D. declination averaged over Earth must be always negative.

Answer: A
Explanation: For the earth’s magnetism, the magnetic field lines of the earth resemble that of a
hypothetical magnetic dipole located at the centre of earth. The axis f the dipole doesn’t
coincide with the axis of rotating of the earth but is presently tilted by approximately 11.3° with
respect t the later. This results in two situations.
And hence the declination varies between 11.3° W to 11.3° E

Q15.In a permanent magnet at room temperature

A. magnetic moment of each molecule is zero.

B. the individual molecules have non-zero magnetic moment which are all perfectly aligned.

C. domains are partially aligned.

D. domains are all perfectly aligned.

Answer: D
Explanation: As we know a permanent magnet is a substance which at room temperature
retains ferromagnetic property for a long period of time.
The individual atoms in a ferromagnetic material possess a dipole moment as in a paramagnetic
material. However, they interact with ne another in such a way that they spontaneously align
themselves in a common direction over a macroscopic volume called domain. thus we can say
that in a permanent magnet at room temperature, domains are all perfectly aligned

Q16.Consider the two idealized systems: (i) a parallel plate capacitor with large
plates and small separation and (ii) a long solenoid of length L >> R, radius of cross-
section. In (i) E is ideally treated as a constant between plates and zero outside. In
(ii) magnetic field is constant inside the solenoid and zero outside. These idealized
assumptions, however, contradict fundamental laws as below:

A. case (i) contradicts Gauss’s law for electrostatic fields.

B. case (ii) contradicts Gauss’s law for magnetic fields.

C. case (i) agrees with ∮sE.ds=0

D. case (ii) contradicts en ∮SH.ds= Ien

Answer: B
Explanation: As gauss law states,
𝑞
∮ 𝐸. 𝑑𝑠 =
𝜀0
𝑆

For electrostatic field .it does not contradict for electrostatic fields as the electric filed lines d not
form continuous closed path.
According to Gauss law in magnetic field∮𝑆 𝐸. 𝑑𝑠 = 0It contradicts for magnetic field , because
there is a magnetic field inside the solenoid and no filed outside the solenoid carrying current
but the magnetic field lines form the closed path.

Q17.S is the surface of a lump of magnetic material.

A. Lines of B are necessarily continuous across S and Lines of H cannot all be continuous
across S.

B. Some lines of B must be discontinuous across S and Lines of H cannot all be continuous
across S.

C. Lines of B are necessarily continuous across S and Lines of H are necessarily

continuous across S.

D. Some lines of B must be discontinuous across S and Lines of H are necessarily

continuous across S.

Answer: A
Explanation: Magnetic filled lines for magnetic induction (B) form continuous lines. So lines of B
are necessarily continuous across S.
Also, magnetic intensity (H) varies for inside and outside the lump .S lines f H cannot all be
continuous across S.

Q18.The primary origin(s) of magnetism lies in

A. atomic currents and intrinsic spin of electron.

B. Pauli exclusion principle and intrinsic spin of electron.

C. polar nature of molecules and intrinsic spin of electron.

D. atomic currents and polar nature of molecules

Answer: A
Explanation: The primary origin of magnetism is in fact that the electrons are revolving and
spinning abut nucleus of an atom, which gives rise to current called atomic current This atomic
currents gives rise to magnetism. The revolving and spinning about nucleus f an atom is called
intrinsic spin f electron

Q19.A permanent magnet in the shape of a thin cylinder of length 10 cm has M =

106 A/m. Calculate the magnetization current IM.

A. 103 A B. 105 A
C. 107 A D. 108 A

Answer: B
Explanation: Given M (intensity of magnetization) = 106 A/m
L(length) =10 cm =10 ×10-2 m =0.1 m
Im =magnetization current
We know that
𝐼𝑚
𝑀=
𝑙
⇒ 𝐼𝑚 = 𝑀 × 𝑙
⇒ 𝐼𝑚 = 106 × 0.1 = 105 𝐴

Q20.A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetization of 8 Am–1 when placed in an

external magnetic field of 0.6T at a temperature of 4K. When the same sample is
placed in an external magnetic field of 0.2 T at a temperature of 16 K, the
magnetization will be

A. 32 /3 Am-1 B. 2/3 Am–1

C. 6 Am–1 D. 2.4 Am–1 .

Answer: B

Explanation: As Curie law explains, we can deduce a formula for the relation between
magnetic field induction, temperature and magnetization

Q21.The output of a step-down transformer is measured to be 24 V when

connected to a 12 watt light bulb. The value of the peak current is

A. 1/2√A B. 2–√A..

C. 2 A. D. 2√2A.
Answer: A

Explanation: Secondary voltage Vs=24V

Power associated with secondary Ps=12W

𝑃𝑠 12 1
𝐼𝑠 = = = 𝐴 = 0.5𝐴
𝑉𝑠 24 2
Peak value of current in the secondary
 1
𝐼0 = 𝐼𝑠 √2 = (0.5)(1.414) = (0.707) = 𝐴
√2

Q22.As the frequency of an ac circuit increases, the current first increases and
then decreases. What combination of circuit elements is most likely to comprise
the circuit?
(i) Inductor and capacitor.
(ii) Resistor and inductor.
(iii) Resistor and capacitor.
(iv) Resistor, inductor and capacitor.

A. i, ii B. i, iii

C. ii, iv D. i, iv
Answer: D
Explanation:

𝑅𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑎𝑛 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝐿 𝑖𝑠 𝑋𝐿 = 2𝜋𝑣𝐿 𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑣 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝐴𝐶 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑖𝑡.

1
𝑋𝑐 = 𝑅𝑒𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑖𝑡 =
2𝜋𝑣𝐶
𝑂𝑛 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 𝑣 , 𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑙𝑦 𝑋𝑙 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑋𝐶 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑒𝑠
𝐹𝑜𝑟 𝑎 𝐿 − 𝐶 − 𝑅 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑖𝑡
𝑍 = 𝑖𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑖𝑡
𝑍 = √𝑅2 + (𝑋𝐿 − 𝑋𝐶 )2
= 𝑍 = √𝑅2 + (𝑋𝐿 − 𝑋𝐶 )2

1 2
= 𝑍 = √𝑅2 + (2𝜋𝑣𝐿 − )
2𝜋𝑣𝐶
As frequency v increases, Z decreses and at certain value f frequency knwn as resonant frequ
ency(vo),impedence Z is minimum that is Zmin=R current varies inversely with impedence an
d atZmincurrent is maximum.

Q23.In an alternating current circuit consisting of elements in series, the current

increases on increasing the frequency of supply. Which of the following elements
are likely to constitute the circuit ?
(i) Only resistor.
(ii) Resistor and an inductor.
(iii) Resistor and a capacitor.
(iv) Only a capacitor.

A. i, ii

B. I, iii

C. iii, iv

D. ii, iv
Answer: C
Explanation: According to the question, the current increases n increasing the frequency of
supply. Hence the reactance of the circuit must be decrease as increasing frequency
For a capacitive circuit
1 1
𝑋𝐶 = =
𝜔𝐶 2𝜋𝐶
Clearly when frequency increases, XC decreases
1
For R-C circuit 𝑋 = √𝑅 2 + (𝜔𝐶 )2 When frequency increases X decreases.

Q24.Electrical energy is transmitted over large distances at high alternating

voltages. Which of the following statement is not correct?

A. For a given power level, there is a lower current.

B. Lower current implies less power loss.

C. Transmission lines can be made thinner.

D. It is easy to reduce the voltage at the receiving end using step-down

transformers.
Answer: C
Explanation: We have to transmit energy (power) over large distances at hign alternating
voltages, so current flowing through the wires will be low because for a given power (P)
P=Erms ×Irms,
Irms is low when Erms is high
Power loss =I2rmsR=low
Now at the receiving end high voltage is reduced by using step down transformers.
Q25.When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the capacitor C

A. the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V and the charge on the plates is
in phase with the applied voltage

B. the current is in phase with the applied voltage and power delivered to the
capacitor is zero.

C. the charge on the plates is in phase with the applied voltage and power
delivered to the capacitor is zero.

D. the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V and power delivered to the
capacitor is zero.
Answer: C
Explanation: When the AC voltage is applied too the capacitor , the plate connected to the
positive terminal will be at higher potential and the plate connected to the negative terminal is at
lower potential. The plate with positive charge will be at higher potential and the plate with
negative charge will be at lower potential. So, we can say that the charge isin phase with the
applied voltage.

Q26.If a LC circuit is considered analogous to a harmonically oscillating spring

block system, which energy of the LC circuit would be analogous to potential
energy ?
1
A. 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 2 𝐶𝑉 2

B. electrostatic energy
1
C. 𝑀𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 2 𝐿𝐼 2

D. Magnetic energy LI
Answer: A
Explanation: If a LC circuit is considered analogous to a harmonically oscillating spring block
1
system.The electrostatic energy 𝐶𝑉 2 is analogous to potential energy.
2

Q27.The alternating current in a circuit is described by the graph shown in Fig.

What is Irms in this graph.

A. 2A

B. 1.8A

C. 1.6A

D. 0.8A
Answer: C
Explanation:
𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡
12 + 22
𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 =√
2

5
⇒ 𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √ = 1.58𝐴 = 1.6𝐴
2

Q28.If the rms current in a 50 Hz ac circuit is 5 A, the value of the current 1/300
seconds after its value becomes zero is

A. 5√2𝐴
 3
B. 5√ 𝐴
2

C. 5/6 𝐴

D. 5/√2𝐴
Answer: B
Explanation:
𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, 𝑣 = 50𝐻𝑧
𝐼 𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 5𝐴
𝑇 = 1/330 𝑠
𝑊𝑒 ℎ𝑎𝑣𝑒 𝑡𝑜 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑑 𝐼(𝑡)
𝐼𝑜 = 𝑃𝑒𝑎𝑘 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 = √2, 𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √2 × 5 = 5√2𝐴
1
𝐼 = 𝐼0 sin𝜔𝑡 = 5√2sin2𝜋𝑣𝑡 = 5√2sin2𝜋 × 50 ×
300
𝜋
= 5√2sin
3
√3
= 5√2 ×
2
3
= 5√
2

Q29.An inductor of reactance 1 Ω and a resistor of 2 Ω are connected in series to

the terminals of a 6 V (rms) a.c. source. The power dissipated in the circuit is

A. 8 W.

B. 12 W.

C. 14.4 W.

D. 18 W.
Answer: C
Explanation:
 𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑋𝐿 = 1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅 = 2
𝐸𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 6𝑉 ,
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑝𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑖𝑡
𝐼0 𝐸𝑟𝑚𝑠
𝑟𝑚𝑠 = =
√2 𝑍
𝑍 = √𝑅 2 + 𝑋𝐿 2

𝑍 = √4 + 1 = √5
6
𝐼𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 𝐴
√5
𝑅 2
cos𝜙 = =
𝑍 √5
6 2
𝑃𝑎𝑣 = 6 × ×
√5 √5
72
= = 14.4𝑊
5

Q30.There are certain material developed in laboratories which have a negative

refractive index A ray incident from air (medium 1) into such a medium (medium
2) shall follow a path given by

A.

B.
C.

D.
Answer: A
Explanation: The negative refractive metamaterials are those in which incident ray from air
(Medium 1) to them refract r bend differently to that of positive refractive index medium.

Q31.The phenomena involved in the reflection of radiowaves by ionosphere is

similar to

A. reflection of light by a plane mirror.

B. total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage.

C. dispersion of light by water molecules during the formation of a rainbow.

D. scattering of light by the particles of air.

Answer: B
Explanation: The phenomenon involved in the reflection of radioowaves by ionosphere is
similar to total internal reflection of light in air during a mirage i.e. angle of incidence is greater
than critical angle.

Q32.The direction of ray of light incident on a concave mirror is shown by PQ

while directions in which the ray would travel after reflection is shown by four
rays marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 . Which of the four rays correctly shows the direction of
reflected ray?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4
Answer: B
Explanation: The PQ ray of light passes through focus F and incident n the concave mirror ,
after relcetion, should become parallel to the principal axius and shown by ray 2 in the figure.

Q33.A car is moving with at a constant speed of 60 km h–1 on a straight road.

Looking at the rear view mirror, the driver finds that the car following him is at a
distance of 100 m and is approaching with a speed of 5 km h –1. In order to keep
track of the car in the rear, the driver begins to glance alternatively at the rear
and side mirror of his car after every 2 s till the other car overtakes. If the two cars
were maintaining their speeds, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

A. The speed of the car in the rear is 65 km h–1.

B. In the side mirror the car in the rear would appear to approach with a speed of
5 km h–1 to the driver of the leading car.
C. In the rear view mirror the speed of the approaching car would appear to
decrease as the distance between the cars decreases.

D. In the side mirror, the speed of the approaching car would appear to increase
as the distance between the cars decreases.
Answer: D
Explanation: The speed of the image of the car would appear too in crease as the distance
between the car increase.

Q34.The radius of curvature of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens is 20 cm.

If the refractive index of the material of the lens be 1.5, it will

A. act as a convex lens only for the objects that lie on its curved side.

B. act as a concave lens for the objects that lie on its curved side.

C. act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies.

D. act as a concave lens irrespective of side on which the object lies.

Answer: C
Explanation: Here R= 20 cm , μ = 1,
On substituting the values in
𝑅
𝑓=
𝜇−1
20
=
1.5 − 1
= 40𝑐𝑚
The lens is oof converging nature as f > 0. Therefore , lens act as a convex lens irrespective of
the side on which the object lies.

Q35.Consider an extended object immersed in water contained in a plane trough.

When seen from close to the edge of the trough the object looks distorted
because
(i) the apparent depth of the points close to the edge are nearer the surface of
the water compared to the points away from the edge.
(ii) the angle subtended by the image of the object at the eye is smaller than the
actual angle subtended by the object in air.
(iii) some of the points of the object far away from the edge may not be visible
because of total internal reflection.
(iv) water in a trough acts as a lens and magnifies the object.

A. i, ii , iv

B. i, ii ,iii

C. iii, iv

D. i, iii, iv
Answer: B
Explanation: When emerged object is seen from close to the edge f the trough the object loks
distorted because the apparent depth of the points close to the edge are nearer the surface of
water compared to the pin ts away from the edge.
The angle subtended by the image f the object at the eye is smaller than the actual angle
subtended by the bject in air and some of the points of the object far away from the edge may
not be visible because f total internal reflection.

Q36.A rectangular block of glass ABCD has a refractive index 1.6.A pin is placed
midway on the face AB (Fig.). When observed from the face AD, the pin shall

A. appear to be near A.

B. appear to be near D.
C. appear to be at the centre of AD.

D. not be seen at all.

Answer: D
1
Explanation: For μ = 1.6, the critical angle𝜇 = sin𝐶, we have C = 38.7°, when viewed from AD
as long as angle of incidence on AD of the ray emanating from pin is greater than the critical
angle, the light suffers froom total internal reflection and cannot be seen through AD.

Q37.A ray of light incident at an angle θ on a refracting face of a prism emerges

from the other face normally. If the angle of the prism is 5° and the prism is made
of a material of refractive index 1.5, the angle of incidence is:

A. 7.5°.

B. 5°.

C. 15°.

D. 2.5°.
Answer: A
Explanation: Since deviation,
𝛿 = (𝜇 − 1)𝐴
⇒ 𝛿 = (1.5 − 1) × 50 = 2.50
By geometry, angle of refraction by first surface is 5°

𝐵𝑢𝑡 𝛿 = 𝜃 − 𝑟,
𝑠𝑜 𝑤𝑒 ℎ𝑎𝑣𝑒
2.50 = 𝜃 − 50
⇒ 𝜃 = 7.50

Q38.A magnifying glass is used, as the object to be viewed can be brought closer
to the eye than the normal near point. This results in
(i) a larger angle to be subtended by the object at the eye and hence viewed in
greater detail.
(ii) the formation of a virtual erect image.
(iii) increase in the field of view.
(iv) infinite magnification at the near point.

A. i, ii

B. i, iii

C. iii, iv

D. i , iv
Answer: A
Explanation: A magnifying glass is used , as the object to be viewed can be brought closer to
the eye than the normal near pint. This results in a larger angle to be subtended by the object at
the eye and hence , viewed in greater detail .Moreover , the formation of a virtual erect and
enlarged image, takes place.

Q39.The energy of photon is equal to the K.E. of a proton. The energy of the photon is E. Le
tλ1 be thede−Broglie wavelength of the proton and λ2 be the wavelength of the photon. The r
atio λ1/λ2 is proportional to

A. Eo

B. E1/2

C. E−1

D. E−1/2

Answer: B
Explanation:
1 2
1 𝑚2 𝑣 2
𝐹𝑜𝑟 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛, 𝐸 = 𝑚𝑣 =
2 2 𝑚
𝑜𝑟 𝑚𝑣 = √2𝑚𝐸
ℎ𝑐 ℎ
𝜆1 = =−
𝑚𝑣 √2𝑚𝐸
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
𝐹𝑜𝑟 𝑝ℎ𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛𝐸 = ℎ𝑣2 = 𝑜𝑟 𝜆2 =
𝜆2 𝐸
𝜆1 ℎ/√2𝑚𝐸 𝐸
∴ = ∝ = 𝐸1/2
𝜆2 ℎ𝑐/𝐸 √𝐸
Q40.A deuteron moving with velocity 2v and an alpha particle moving with
velocity v, what is the ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with it?
A. 1:1

B. 1:2

C. 2:1

D. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation: Let m be the mass of a proton or neutron
Deuteron is a particle having one proton and one neutron.
Therefore, mass of deuteron = twice the mass of proton or neutron = 2m.
Alpha particle is a particle having two protons and two neutrons. Therefore, mass of alpha
particle = four times the mass of nucleon = 4m.
De-Broglie wavelength associated with deuteron moving with velocity 2v is
ℎ ℎ
𝜆1 = = … . (𝑖)
2𝑚 × 𝑣 4𝑚𝑣
ℎ
De-Broglie wavelength associated with alpha particle moving with velocity v is𝜆2 = 4𝑚𝑣 … . (𝑖𝑖)

𝜆1
∴ = 1 𝑜𝑟 𝜆1 : 𝜆2 = 1: 1
𝜆2

Q41.The de−Broglie wavelength associated with a small particle changes by 0.25% if its mo
mentumis changed by p0. The initial momentum was

A. 100p0

B. 400p0

C. 401p0

D. 40p0

Answer: C
Explanation:
 ℎ
We know that, 𝜆 =
… . (𝑖)
𝑝
𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑝𝑜 𝑏𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑢𝑚 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑝 𝑏𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑚𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑢𝑚, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑎𝑐𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛,
0.25 ℎ
(𝜆 + 𝜆) =
100 (𝑝 − 𝑝0 )
100.25𝜆 ℎ
𝑂𝑟 = … . (𝑖𝑖)
100 𝑝 − 𝑝0
𝐹𝑟𝑜𝑚 … (𝑖) 𝑎𝑛𝑑 … (𝑖𝑖),
100.25 𝑝
∴ =
100 𝑝 − 𝑝0
⇒ 𝑝 = 401 𝑝0 .

Q42.If v is frequency,is the wavelength v¯ is the wave number then, the energy of a photon
can be represented by

A. hλ

B. hcv¯

C. hcλ

D. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation:
¯ ¯
𝑊𝑎𝑣𝑒 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑣 = 1/𝑣
ℎ𝑐 ¯
𝐸𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑎 𝑝ℎ𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛 = ℎ𝑣 = = ℎ𝑐𝑣
𝜆

Q43.The heavier of the two particles has smaller de-Broglie wavelength, if the two
particles
A. move with same speed

B. move with the same kinetic energy

C. have fallen through the same height

D. All of these

Answer: D
Explanation:
ℎ 1
𝐴𝑠, 𝜆 = , 𝑖𝑓 𝑣 𝑖𝑠 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛, 𝜆 ∝ .
𝑚𝑣 𝑚
ℎ 1
𝐴𝑠 𝜆 = , 𝑖𝑓 𝐸 𝑖𝑠 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝜆 ∝ .
√2𝑚𝐸 √𝑚
When two bodies fall from a same height, both acquire equal velocity (v), so the will be less for
heavier particle.

Q44.λe, λpand λαare the de−Broglie wavelength of an electron, proton and α−particle. If all a
re accelerated by same potential, then

A. λe< λp< λα

B. λe< λp> λα

C. λe> λp> λα

D. λe= λp< λα

Answer: C
Explanation: De-Broglie wavelength (λ) of charge particle having charge (q), mass (m)
accelerated
ℎ 1
𝜆= ⇒𝜆∝ .
√2𝑚𝑞𝑉 √𝑚𝑞
ℎ 1
𝜆= ⇒𝜆∝
√2𝑚𝑞𝑉 √𝑚𝑞
1 1 1
through potential difference V is given by ∴ 𝜆𝑒 : 𝜆𝑝 : 𝜆𝛼 = : :
√𝑚𝑒 𝑞𝑒 √𝑚𝑝 𝑞𝑝 √𝑚𝛼 𝑞𝛼
1 1 1
⇒∴ 𝜆𝑒 : 𝜆𝑝 : 𝜆𝛼 = : :
√(𝑚𝑝 /1840) × 𝑒 √𝑚𝑝 × 𝑒 √4𝑚𝑝 × 2𝑒
∴ 𝜆𝑒 > 𝜆𝑝 > 𝜆𝛼 .
Q45.The number of beta particles emitted by a radioactive substance is twice the
number of alpha particles emitted by it. The resulting daughter is an

A. isobar of parent

B. isomer of parent

C. isotone of parent

D. isotope of parent
Answer: D
Explanation: With emission of one α particle decreases the charge number by 2 and emission
of two β particles increases he charge number by 2. Therefore, charge number or atomic
number after emission of one α particle and two β particles remains the same. Hence the
resulting daughter must be an isotope of the parent involving decrease in mass number by 4.

Q46.In a sample off radioactive substance, what percentage decays in one mean
life time?

A. 70 %

B. 63.2 %

C. 45.8 %

D. 23%
Answer: B
Explanation:
1
𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, 𝑡 = 𝜏 = ,
𝜆
𝑁 1 1
⇒ = 𝑒 −𝜆𝑡 = 𝑒 −1 = = = 0.36
𝑁0 𝑒 2.72
𝐹𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑑𝑒𝑐𝑎𝑦𝑒𝑑% = 1 − 0.36 = 0.64 = 64%

Q47.The binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus is E1 and that for the daughter nuclei is
E2.Then

A. E1> E2
B. E2> E2

C. E1= 2E2

D. E2= 2E1
Answer: B
Explanation: When a heavy nucleus of higher mass number (less stable) splits into two lighter
nuclei the daughter nucleus is of less mass number and becomes more stable, having more
binding energy per nucleon. Therefore, E2 > E1

Q48.
If,mass of 20Ca40= 39.962589 u Mass of proton = 1.007825 u,Mass of neutron=1.0086
65 u and 1 u=931 MeV/c2, then find the binding energy per nucleon of 20Ca40 nucleus.

A. 2.5 MeV/c2

B. 5.2 MeV/c2

C. 10.2 MeV/c2

D. 15.1 MeV/c2

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
𝑇ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑎𝑟𝑒 20 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 20 𝑛𝑒𝑢𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑠 𝑖𝑛 20 𝐶𝑎40
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑒𝑐𝑡 (𝛥𝑚) = 20 × 1.0007825 + 20 × 1.008665 − 39.962589 = 0.226361 𝑢 = 210.742 𝑀𝑒𝑉/𝑐 2 .
𝐵. 𝐸. 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑛𝑢𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑜𝑛 = 210.742/40 = 5.268 𝑀𝑒𝑉/𝑐 2 .

Q49.Two different radioactive elements with half livesT1 and T2 have N1 and N2

(undecayed) atomsrespectively present at a given instant. The ratio of their activit

ies at this instant is:
𝑁2
A. ( )
𝑁1

𝑁2 𝑇
B. ( )( 2 )
𝑁1 𝑇1
 𝑁1 𝑇
C. ( )( 1 )
𝑁2 𝑇2

𝑁1 𝑇
D. ( )( 2 )
𝑁2 𝑇1

Answer: D
Explanation:
𝑑𝑁 0.693𝑁 0.693𝑁1 0.693𝑁2
𝑊𝑒 𝑘𝑛𝑜𝑤 𝐴 = = 𝜆𝑁 =      ∴      𝐴1 =     𝑎𝑛𝑑    𝐴2 =
𝑑𝑡 𝑇 𝑇1 𝑇2
𝐴1 𝑁1 𝑇2 𝑁1 𝑇2
= × = ( )( )
𝐴2 𝑇1 𝑁2 𝑁2 𝑇1

Q50.The binding energy per nucleon for 6C12is 7.68 MeV/N and that for 6C13is 7.47
MeV/N. The energy required to remove a neutron from 6C13 is

A. 2.13 MeV

B. 3.12 MeV

C. 4.95 MeV

D. 8.25 MeV
Answer: C
Explanation:
Total B.E. for6C12= 12×7.68 = 92.16 MeVtotal B.E. of 6C13=13×7.47=97.11 MeVAs 6C13has one
excess neutron than 6C12
Energy required to remove a neutron= 97.11−92.16 = 4.95  MeV

Q51.The ratio of kWh to MeV is of the order of:

A. 1010

B. 1012

C. 1019
D. 10211021
Answer: C

Q52.Modulation is the process of superposing

A. high frequency audio signal on low frequency audio signal

B. high frequency message signal on low frequency audio waves

C. low frequency message signal on high frequency waves

D. low frequency radio signal on high frequency audio waves

Answer: C
Explanation: Modulation is the process of superposing the low frequency audio signal on high
frequency wave.

Q53.The circuit diagram of an AM demodulator is given below. The correct

relation between carrier frequency (f ) and RC for best quality demodulation is:

A. RC = 1/f

B. RC < 1/f

C. RC 1/f

D. RC >> 1/f
Answer: D
 1 1
Explanation: For best quality demodulation, << 𝑅𝐶  𝑜𝑟  𝑅𝐶  >>   .
𝑓 𝑓

Q54.If both the length of an antenna and the wave length of the signal to be
transmitted are doubled, the power radiated by the antenna

A. is doubled
B. is halved
C. increases 16 times
D. remains constant

Answer: Option D
Explanation: Power radiated by the antenna is proportional to (l/λ)2.
When both, the length of the antenna l and wavelength of the signal λ are doubled then remains
Unchanged. So, the power radiated by antenna will remain unchanged.

Q55.Which mode of communication is/are not employed for the transmission of

T.V. signals?

A. Ground wave propagation

B. Sky wave propagation

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of these
Answer: C
Explanation: The mode of communication used for T.V. signals transmission is either space
wave propagation, i.e., line of sight propagation or satellite communication.

Q56.A transmitting antenna at the top of a tower has a height 3200 cm and that
of the receiving antenna is 5000 cm. The maximum distance between them for
satisfactory communication in line of sight mode is:

(Radius of earth =6.4×106m)(Radius of earth =6.4×106m)

A. 1.5 × 103m
B. 5.5 × 103m

C. 4.5 × 103m

D. 4.5 × 104m
Answer: D
Explanation: Given.,
height of tower  =   ℎ 𝑇 = 32 m ;  height of receiving antenna  =   ℎ𝑅   =  50m ;  𝑅  =  6. 4 × 106 m
maximum distance  = 𝑑𝑚 = √2𝑅ℎ 𝑇 + √2𝑅ℎ𝑅 = √2 × 6.4 × 106 × 32 × √2 × 6.4 × 106 × 50   = 4.5 × 104 m.

Q57.A message signal of frequency 10 kHz and peak voltage 10 volt is used to
modulate a carrier of frequency 1 MHz and peak voltage 20 volt. The correct
values of modulation index (μ), upper side band (USB) and lower side band (LSB)
is:

A. μ = 0.3, USB = 1010 kHz, LSB = 990 kHz

B. μ = 0.3, USB = 1010 kHz, LSB = 900 kHz

C. μ = 0.9, USB = 1000 kHz, LSB = 900 kHz

D. μ = 0.5, USB = 1010 kHz, LSB = 990 kHz
Answer: D
Explanation:
𝑣m = 10k Hz, 𝐴m = 10V
𝑣c = 1MHz  = 1000 kHz, 𝐴c = 20V
Am 10
Given, 𝑀𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑥, μ  = = = 0.5.
Ac 20
𝑇ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒 𝑏𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑠 𝑎𝑟𝑒: USB  =   𝑣c + 𝑣m = 1000 + 10  =  1010 kHz
LSB  =   𝑣c − 𝑣m = 1000 − 10  =  990 kHz

Q58.What is the length of quarter wave antenna for transmission frequency of 20

MHz?

A. 1.75 m
B. 2.22 m
C. 3.75 m
D. 7.2 m

Answer: C
𝜆 1 𝑐 1 3×108
Explanation: Length of quarter wave antenna,  𝑙 = 4 = 4 (𝑣) = 4 × ( ) = 3.75 m.
20×106

Q59.A 100 m long antenna is mounted on a 500 m tall building. The complex can
become a transmission tower for waves with

A. ~ 400 m

B. ~ 25 m

C. ~ 150 m

D. ~ 2400 m
Answer: A
𝑙 = 100𝑚, 𝜆 =?
Explanation: According to the question, 𝜆
𝐴𝑠, 𝑙 = ⇒ 𝜆 = 4𝑙 = 4 × 100 = 400𝑚.
4

Q60.A message signal of frequency ωm is superposed on a carrier wave of frequency ωc to

get an amplitude modulated wave (AM). The frequency of the AM wave will be

A. Wm

B. Wc
𝜔𝑐 +𝜔𝑚
C.
2
𝜔𝑐 −𝜔𝑚
D.
2

Answer: B
Explanation: In amplitude modulation the frequency of modulated wave is equal to the
frequency of carrier wave.

Q61.I-V characteristics of four devices are shown in figure given below. The
device which can be used for modulation is:

A.

B.

C.
D. All of these
Answer: B
Explanation: In the given question, option of graph (a) represents Ideal modulation related to
triode valve for linear plate modulation.
Graph (b) represents square law diode modulation.
Graph (c) represents constant current source.
Graph (d) represents part of its as square law modulation.
Thus, for modulation only (b) can be used.

Q62.Three different capacitors are connected in series. Then:

A. They will have equal charges

B. They will have same potential

C. Both 1 & 2

D. None of these
Answer: A
Explanation: When three capacitors are connected in series then the charge in each capacitor
is same.

Q63.If Q is the charge on the capacitor and E is the electric field intensity
between the plates, then the force between the plates of a capacitor is

A. QE

B. 2QE

C. QE/2
D. QE/4
Answer: A
Explanation: If Q is the charge on the capacitor and E is the electric field intensity between the
plates, then the force between the plates of a capacitor is equal to QE/2.

Q64.An infinite plane sheet of charge density 10−8C m−2is held in air. In the vicinity o
f the sheet, find the distance between two equipotential surfaces whose potential differ
ence is 5 V?

A. 5.89 mm

B. 8.85 mm

C. 9.85 mm

D. 2.9 mm
Answer: B
Explanation: The magnitude of electric field just outside a sheet of charge density σ placed in
𝜎
vaccum is given by𝐸 = . If two equipotential surfaces are placed at a distance ∆x apart, and
2∈𝑜
∆V is the potential difference between them, then the magnitude of electric field between them
is given by:
𝛥𝑉 𝛥𝑉 𝛥𝑉
|𝐸| =  or 𝛥𝑥 =  or 𝛥𝑥 = 𝜎
𝛥𝑥 |𝐸| ⁄2𝜀 𝑜
𝛥𝑉 𝛥𝑉 𝛥𝑉
|𝐸| =  or 𝛥𝑥 = or 𝛥𝑥 𝜎
𝛥𝑥 |𝐸| ⁄2𝜀 𝑜
−12
2𝜀𝑜 𝛥𝑉 2 × 8.85 × 10 ×5
⇒ 𝛥𝑥 = = = 8.85  × 10−3  m  =  8.85 mm
𝜎 10−8
Q65.The equivalent capacity of the combination shown in the figure is: (given C1
= C2 = C3 = C)

A. 2C

B. C

C. C/2

D. None of these

Answer: A
Explanation: The capacitor C3 is useless because potential difference across this capacitor is
zero. The figure obtained after simplification is shown below:

Now, C1 and C2 are connected in parallel to their equivalent capacitance is C1 + C2 = C + C =

2C.

Q66.A regular hexagon of 0.1 m has a charge 1 μ C at each of its vertices. What is
the value of electric potential at the center of the hexagon?

A. 3 × 107V

B. 2.7 × 107V

C. 9 × 107

D. None of these
Answer: B
Explanation: The distance of the centre O of the hexagon from each of its vertices is the same
as the side r of the hexagon.

q
𝑇ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑜𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑖𝑛𝑡 𝑂 𝑑𝑢𝑒 𝑡𝑜 𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒 𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑏𝑦: V  =  6 ( )
4𝜋𝜀o 𝑟
𝐻𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑞 = 5 × 10−6 𝐶, 𝑟 = 0.1 𝑚
(9 × 109 ) × (5 × 10−6 )
V  =  6( ) = 2.7 × 106  V
0.1

Q67.What is the equivalent capacitance of the arrangement of the capacitors

shown below?

A. 3 μF
1
B.  𝜇F
3
C. 1 μF

D. 1.5 μF
Answer: A
Explanation: All the three capacitors in the arrangement given in question are connected in
parallel. Hence, their equivalent capacitance is 1 µF + 1 µF + 1 µF = 3 µF.

Q68.Three capacitors each of capacity 4 µF are to be connected in such a way

that the effective capacitance is 6 µF. This can be done by:

A. Connecting all of them in series

B. Connecting all of them in parallel

C. Connecting two in series and one in parallel

D. Connecting two in parallel and one in series

Answer: C
Explanation: When two 4 µF capacitors are connected in series then their equivalent
4×4 16
capacitance is given by Cs = = = 2𝜇F.
4+4 8
When their combination is connected by 4 µF in parallel then their equivalent capacitance is
given by: Cs + 4 µF = 2 µF + 4 µF = 6 µF.
Q69.The equivalent capacitances of Fig (1) and Fig (2) given below are:

A. 2 μF, 1 μF

B. 1 μF, 1 μF

C. 1 μF, 2 μF

D. 2 μF, 2 μF
Answer: A
Explanation: The arrangement shown in Fig (1) is not a balanced Wheatstone bridge whereas
the arrangement shown in Fig (2) is a balanced Wheatstone bridge.
So, the equivalent circuit of both the figure is shown below:
By simplifying the equivalent capacitance of Fig (1) is 2µF and equivalent capacitance of Fig (2)
is 1µF.

Q70.If there are n capacitors each of capacitance C are connected in parallel to a

voltage source of V, then the total energy stored is equal to:

A. CV

B. CV2
1
C. 𝐶𝑉 2
2𝑛

1
D. 2 𝑛𝐶𝑉2

Answer: D
Explanation: When n capacitors are connected in parallel then their equivalent capacitance is:
C + C + C… n times = nC.
1 1
Energy stored in the capacitor is  =   (𝑛C)V 2 = 𝑛CV 2 .
2 2

Q71.If a particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field, then

A. its momentum changes but total energy remains same

B. both momentum and total energy remains the same

C. its total energy changes but momentum remains same

D. both momentum and total energy will change

Answer: A
Explanation: If a particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field, then its momentum changes but
total energy remains same.

Q72.A length of wire carries a steady current. It is bent first to form a circular
plane coil of one turn. The same length is now bent more sharply to give a double
loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field produced at the centre produced by
same current is:

A. unaltered

B. a half of its initial value

C. a quarter of its initial value

D. four times of its first value

Answer: D
Explanation:
𝑴𝒂𝒈𝒏𝒆𝒕𝒊𝒄 𝒇𝒊𝒆𝒍𝒅 𝒂𝒕 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒄𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒓𝒆 𝒐𝒇 𝒏 𝒕𝒖𝒓𝒏 𝒄𝒊𝒓𝒄𝒖𝒍𝒂𝒓 𝒄𝒐𝒊𝒍 𝒄𝒂𝒓𝒓𝒚𝒊𝒏𝒈 𝒂 𝒄𝒖𝒓𝒓𝒆𝒏𝒕 𝒊, 𝒓𝒂𝒅𝒊𝒖𝒔 𝒓 𝒘𝒊𝒍𝒍 𝒃𝒆,
𝝁𝒐 𝟐𝝅𝒏𝒊 𝒏
𝑩=   ⇒  𝑩 ∝
𝟒𝝅 𝒓 𝒓
𝑾𝒉𝒆𝒏 𝒄𝒐𝒊𝒍 𝒉𝒂𝒔 𝒕𝒖𝒓𝒏𝒔 𝒏𝟏 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒓𝒂𝒅𝒊𝒖𝒔 𝒓𝟏 𝒕𝒉𝒆𝒏
𝒏𝟏 𝑩𝟏 𝒏𝟏 𝒓 𝟐×𝒓
𝑩∝ .     ∴ = × = 𝒓⁄ = 𝟒 𝐨𝐫 𝐁𝟏 = 𝟒𝑩.
𝒓𝟏 𝑩 𝒓𝟏 𝒏 𝟐

Q73.A conductor carrying a current i is shown in the figure given below. The
magnetic induction at the centre O is:

𝜇𝑜 𝑖
A.
2𝜋𝑟

𝜇𝑜 𝑖
B.
2𝑟

C. ∞

D. 0
Answer: D
Explanation: The magnetic field due to current through upper semicircular conductor is equal
and opposite to that of current through the lower semi-circular conductor. Therefore, resultant
magnetic field at O is zero.

Q74.To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, we connect

A. high resistance in series

B. high resistance in parallel

C. low resistance in parallel

D. low resistance in series

Answer: C
Explanation: In order to convert a Galvanometer into an Ammeter, a very low resistance known
as "shunt" resistance is connected in parallel to Galvanometer. Value of shunt is so adjusted
that most of the current passes through the shunt.

Q75.An alpha particle is moving in a magnetic field of (3iˆ+2jˆ) tesla with a velocity
of (5×105)iˆ m/s. The magnetic force acting on the particle will be:

A. 3.2×10−3C kˆ

B. 2×10−3C iˆ

C. 2.3×10−3C iˆ

D. 5.1×10−3C iˆ
Answer: A
Explanation:
^ ^ ^
→ → → ^ ^ ^     𝒊           𝒋       𝒌 ^
𝑭 = 𝒒(𝒗 × 𝑩) = 𝒒[(𝟑𝒊 + 𝟐𝒋) × (𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟓 𝒊)] = 𝒒|    𝟑           𝟐        𝟎 | = −𝟏𝟎𝟔 𝒒𝒌
𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟓        𝟎        𝟎
𝑪𝒉𝒂𝒓𝒈𝒆 𝒐𝒏 𝒂𝒍𝒑𝒉𝒂 𝒑𝒂𝒓𝒕𝒊𝒄𝒍𝒆 𝒊𝒔 𝟐 𝒕𝒊𝒎𝒆𝒔 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒄𝒉𝒂𝒓𝒈𝒆 𝒐𝒏 𝒑𝒓𝒐𝒕𝒐𝒏 𝒊. 𝒆. 𝒒 = 𝟐 × (𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗 ) 𝑪
→ ^ ^
⇒ 𝑭 = − (𝟏𝟎𝟔 ) × (𝟏. 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟗 ) 𝒌   =  𝟑. 𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 𝐂 𝒌.
Q76.If a charge particle at rest experiences no electromagnetic force, then

A. the magnetic field must be zero

B. the electric field must be zero

C. the electric field may or may not be zero

D. magnetic field may or may not be zero

Answer: D
Explanation: If a charged particle is moving parallel to the direction of magnetic field, it
experiences no force. The charged particle in an electric field always experiences a force in an
electric field always experiences a force in whatever direction may be moving.

Q78.A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 900 Ω. What should be the
resistance of shunt in order to send only 10% of the main current through
galvanometer?

A. 50 Ω

B. 45 Ω

C. 90 Ω

D. 100 Ω
Answer: D
Explanation:
𝐿𝑒𝑡 𝑚𝑎𝑖𝑛 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑏𝑒 𝐼, 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ 𝑔𝑎𝑙𝑣𝑎𝑛𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑏𝑒 𝐼𝑔 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ 𝑠ℎ𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑏𝑒
𝐼𝑠 .
𝐼𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝐼𝑔 = 10% 𝑜𝑓 𝐼 = 0.1 𝐼.
𝑇ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒, 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ 𝑠ℎ𝑢𝑛𝑡 = 𝐼𝑠 = 𝐼 − 𝐼𝑔 = 𝐼 − 0.1𝐼 = 0.9𝐼.
𝐼𝑓 𝑆 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐺 𝑏𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑠ℎ𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑔𝑎𝑙𝑣𝑎𝑛𝑜𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑦 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛,
𝐼𝑔 𝐺 0.1𝐼 × 900
𝑆= = = 100𝛺.
𝐼𝑠 0.9𝐼
Q79.A current of 1 ampere is flowing in the sides of an equilateral triangle of side 4.5
× 10−2m. What is the magnitude of magnetic field at the centre of the triangle?

A. 9×10−5 Tesla

B. 5×10−5 Tesla

C. 2×10−5 Tesla

D. 4×10−5 Tesla

Answer: D
Explanation: The situation given in question is shown in the figure given below:

Point O is the centroid of the triangle. The magnetic field induction at the centroid of the triangle
due to current through the side BC of the triangle is:
𝜇𝑜 𝐼
𝐵1 = (sin𝜃1 + sin𝜃2 ).
4𝜋 𝑂𝐷
Net magnetic field induction at O due to current through all the three sides of a triangle will be

𝜇𝑜 𝐼
𝐵 = 3𝐵1 = 3[ (sin𝜃1 + sin𝜃2 )]  . . . . (𝑖)
4𝜋 𝑂𝐷
(4.5 × 10−2)⁄ −2
Given,  𝐼 = 1 𝐴, 𝜃1 = 𝜃2 = 60o  and 𝑂𝐷 = [𝐵𝐷⁄ ] = 2 = 4.5 × 10
tan60o √3 2√3
Putting these values in equation …(i) we have:
∣∣B∣∣=4×10−5 Tesla.
Q80.In the figure given below a long wire is placed parallel to one of the side of
the conducting loop. The wire is in the plane of the loop. If a current I is
established in wire and the conductor as shown below then the loop will

A. remains stationary

B. move away from the wire

C. move towards from the wire

D. rotate about an axis parallel to the wire

Answer: C
Explanation: Two parallel wire carrying currents in same direction will attract each other
whereas two parallel wires carrying current in opposite direction will repel each other.
Also, the force of attraction and repulsion F∝1/r, here r is the distance between the wires.
Now, the force of attraction on the near side of the loop will be attractive and more than the
force of repulsion on the away side of the loop. Hence, loop will move towards the wire.

Q81.A square shape conductor of length X and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform
velocity(v→) perpendicular to one of its sided. A uniform magnetic field (B→)in the direction pointi
ng perpendicular and into the plane of the loop exists everywhere, as shown in the figure given below
. The current induced in the loop is:

A. 0

B. (vBX/R) in clockwise direction
C. (2vBX/R) in anti-clockwise direction

D. (2vBX/R) in clockwise direction
Answer: A
Explanation: As the magnetic field in uniform everywhere, so change in magnetic flux linked
with the coil is zero.
Therefore, emf induced in the coil is zero.

Q82.Two circulars coil, one of small radiusr1and other of very large radius r2 are plac
ed co−axially with centres coinciding. The mutual inductance of the arrangement is:
2
𝜇𝑜 𝜋𝑟1
A. 2𝑟2

𝜇𝑜 𝜋𝑟2 2
B
2
2
𝜇𝑜 𝜋𝑟1
C. 2

D. None of these
Answer: A
Explanation:
𝐼𝑓 𝑎 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑣𝑎𝑟𝑦𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝐼2 𝑖𝑠 𝑚𝑎𝑑𝑒 𝑡𝑜 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑐𝑜𝑖𝑙.
𝜇𝑜 𝐼2
Then, the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is B2 = .
2𝑟2
𝑇ℎ𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑜𝑖𝑙 𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑑 𝑐𝑜 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑦 ℎ𝑎𝑠 𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑦 𝑠𝑚𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒 𝐵2 𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑎𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
𝑜𝑣𝑒𝑟 𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑐𝑟𝑜𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑎𝑟𝑒. 𝑆𝑜, 𝑓𝑙𝑢𝑥 𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑖𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑟 𝑐𝑜𝑖𝑙 𝑖𝑠:
𝜇𝑜 𝐼2 𝜇𝑜 𝜋𝑟1 2
𝜙1 = 𝜋𝑟1 2 𝐵2 = 𝜋𝑟1 2   ⇒ 𝜙1 = ( )𝐼2 = 𝑀12 𝐼2
2𝑟2 2𝑟2
𝜇𝑜 𝜋𝑟1 2
Therefore, coefficient of mutual inductance = 𝑀12 = 𝑀21 = ( ).
2𝑟2
Q83.Three inductors are connected as shown in the figure given below.
What is its equivalent inductance?

A. 0.5 H

B. 1 H

C. 1.5 H

D. 2 H
Answer: B
Explanation:
When two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in parallel then their equivalent inductance Lp is given 𝑏𝑦:
1 1 1
= + .
𝐿𝑝 𝐿1 𝐿2
When two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in series then their equivalent inductance Ls is given by:
𝐿𝑠 = 𝐿1 + 𝐿2 .
𝐼𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑖𝑡, 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 0.5 𝐻 𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒,
1 1 1 2 2
= + = + = 4 H.
𝐿𝑝 0.5 0.5 1 1
𝑇ℎ𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑏𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 0.75 𝐻 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒, 𝐿𝑠 = 0.75 + 0.25 = 1.0 H.

Q84.A copper rod of length l rotates about its end with angular velocity
ω in a uniform magnetic filed B. What is the magnitude of emf
developed between the ends of the rod?

A. BωL2

B. (BωL2)/2
C. (BωL)/2

D. None of these
Answer: B
Explanation:
𝐴𝑆 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑜𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ𝑙𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑏𝑜𝑢𝑡 𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑒𝑛𝑑 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛, 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑖𝑡 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡𝑠 𝑖𝑠, 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑙2 .
𝑇ℎ𝑒 𝑓𝑙𝑢𝑥 𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑘𝑒𝑑 𝑤𝑖𝑡ℎ 𝑡ℎ𝑖𝑠 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎, 𝑑𝜙 = 𝐵𝜋𝑙2
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 𝑡𝑜 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 = 𝑑𝑡 = 2𝜋/𝜔
d𝜙 𝛥𝜙 𝐵𝜋𝑙2 1
Now induced emf, |𝑒| =  or  = = 𝐵𝜔𝑙2 .
𝑑𝑡 2𝜋
𝛥𝑡 ( ⁄𝜔) 2

Q85.A circular conducting coil with radius r and resistance R is placed

with its plane perpendicular to a magnetic field varying with time as
B = B0 sinωt. What is the expression for induced current in the loop?
𝜔2 𝜋𝑟 2 𝐵𝑜 cos𝜔𝑡
A.
𝑅
2 𝐵 cos𝜔𝑡
B. −𝜔𝜋𝑟 𝑅
𝑜

2 𝐵 cos𝜔𝑡
C. 𝜔𝜋𝑟 𝑜
2
𝑅
2 𝜋𝑟2 𝐵 cos𝜔𝑡
D. 𝜔 𝑜
2
𝑅

Answer: B
→ →
𝐀𝐬,  𝐟𝐥𝐮𝐱 𝐭𝐡𝐫𝐨𝐮𝐠𝐡 𝐭𝐡𝐞 𝐜𝐨𝐢𝐥  =  𝝓  =   𝐁 . 𝐀   =  𝑩𝑨𝐜𝐨𝐬𝜽
𝐇𝐞𝐫𝐞, 𝜽  =   𝟎𝐨 𝐭𝐡𝐞𝐫𝐞𝐟𝐨𝐫𝐞, 𝝓 = 𝑩𝑨𝐜𝐨𝐬𝟎𝒐   = 𝑩𝑨.
Explanation: ∴  𝐞𝐦𝐟 𝐢𝐧𝐝𝐮𝐜𝐞𝐝  =  𝒆  =   − 𝒅𝝓 = − 𝒅(𝑨𝑩𝒐 𝐬𝐢𝐧𝝎𝒕) = −𝑨𝑩 𝒅(𝐬𝐢𝐧𝝎𝒕) = 𝝎𝑨𝑩 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝝎𝒕
𝒅𝒕 𝒅𝒕 𝒐 𝒐𝒅𝒕
𝐢𝐧𝐝𝐮𝐜𝐞𝐝 𝐞𝐦𝐟 −𝝎𝑨𝑩𝒐 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝝎𝒕 −𝝎𝝅𝒂𝟐 𝑩𝒐 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝝎𝒕
𝐈𝐧𝐝𝐮𝐜𝐞𝐝 𝐜𝐮𝐫𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐭 =   = =
𝐫𝐞𝐬𝐢𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐧𝐜𝐞 𝑹 𝑹
Q86.The equivalent inductance of the circuit shown in the figure given
below is

A. 1 H

B. 2 H

C. 3 H

D. 4 H
Answer: A
Explanation:
𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑡𝑤𝑜 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠 𝐿1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐿2 𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑟 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐tan𝑐𝑒 𝐿𝑝 𝑖𝑠 𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛
1 1 1
𝑏𝑦: 𝐿 = 𝐿 + 𝐿 .
𝑝 1 2
𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑡𝑤𝑜 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠 𝐿1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐿2 𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑒𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑖𝑟 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 inductance 𝐿𝑠 𝑖𝑠 𝑔𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛 𝑏𝑦:
𝐿𝑠 = 𝐿1 + 𝐿2 .
𝐴𝑙𝑙 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑒𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑖𝑡 𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑛𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙 𝑡𝑜 𝑒𝑎𝑐ℎ 𝑜𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑒 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡
1 1 1 1
inductance 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑢𝑖𝑡 𝑖𝑠, 𝐿 =   3 + 3 + 3    ⇒ 𝐿𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 1 𝐻.
𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡

Q87.A metal plate is getting heated. Which of the following reason is

correct?
A. a direct current is passing

B. it is placed in a time varying magnetic field

C. an alternating or direct current is passing through the plate

D. all of these
Answer: D
Explanation: When electricity is passed through a metal plate then heat will be produced.
The current may be direct current, alternating current or induced current due to time varying
magnetic field.

Q88.A square of sideLmeters lies in the x−y plane in a region, where the magnetic fie
ld is given by, B →= Bo(2iˆ+3jˆ+4kˆ) T,where Bo is constant. The magnitude of flux p
assing through the square is

A. BoL2 Wb

B. 2BoL2 Wb

C. 3BoL2 Wb

D. 4BoL2 Wb

Answer: D
Explanation:
→ ^ ^ ^ → ^
2
𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, 𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑, B   =   Bo (2𝑖 + 3𝑗 + 4𝑘) T, area vector = A = 𝐿 𝑘
→ → → ^ ^ ^ ^
Now flux,  𝜙 = 𝐵. 𝐴 = B   =   Bo (2𝑖 + 3𝑗 + 4𝑘). 𝐿2 𝑘   = 4Bo 𝐿2 .

Q89.The value of mutual inductance of two coils is 1.5 Henry. If the current in prima
ry circuit is raisedto 5 ampere in 10−3seconds after closing the circuit then, the emf ind
uced in the secondary will be:

A. 7.5×102V

B. 1.5×103V

C. 2×102V

D. 1.5×10−2V
Answer: A
Explanation:
𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, 𝑚𝑢𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 = 1.5 𝐻𝑒𝑛𝑟𝑦, 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑖𝑠 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑦 = 𝑑𝐼 = 5 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒, 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 = 𝑑𝑡 = 10−3 𝑠𝑒𝑐,
𝑒𝑚𝑓 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑒𝑑 =?
𝑑𝐼 5
𝐴𝑠, emf indcued  =  𝑀 𝑑𝑡   =  1.5 × 10−3 = 7.5 × 103 V.

Q90.What is the SI unit of magnetic flux?

A. Volt metre−1

B. Maxwell

C. Henry

D. Weber

Answer: D
Explanation: SI unit of magnetic flux is Weber.

Q91.The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are:

A. in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other

B. in opposite phase and parallel to each other

C. in phase and perpendicular to each other

D. in phase and parallel to each other

Answer: C
Explanation: In electromagnetic wave, electric and magnetic field are in phase and
perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the
electromagnetic wave.

Q92.The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity ∈0and per

meability μ0 is given by
 ∈0
A. √
𝜇0

B. √𝜇0 ∈0

1
C.
√𝜇0 ∈0

𝜇
D. √∈0
0

Answer: C
Explanation:
𝑇ℎ𝑒 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑚𝑎𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑡𝑖𝑐 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑣𝑎𝑐𝑢𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑖𝑡𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦 ∈0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑏𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝜇0 𝑖𝑠 𝑐
1
= .
√𝜇0 ∈0

Q93.Ifμ0 be the permeability and k0, the dielectric constant of a medium, its refractiv
e index is given by
1
A.
√𝜇0 𝑘0

1
B.
𝜇0 𝑘0

C. √𝜇0 𝑘0

D. 𝜇0 𝑘0
Answer: C
Explanation
Q94.A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface.
The wave delivers momentum p and energy E. Then
A. p≠0,E≠0

B. p=0,E=0

C. p=0,E≠0

D. p≠0,E=0
Answer: A
Explanation: When plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface, the wave
delivers some momentum and energy to the surface and hence p≠0 and E≠0.

Q95.Find the order of frequency of electromagnetic wave which is best

suited to observe a particle having radius 3×10−4cm?

A. 1011Hz

B. 1012Hz

C. 1013Hz

D. 1014Hz
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q96.When a plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum, the
average electric energy density is given
by (here E0 is the amplitude of the electric field of the wave)
2
A. ∈0 𝐸0
1 2
B. ∈0 𝐸0
2

2
C. 2 ∈0 𝐸0
2
D. 14 ∈0 𝐸0

Answer: D
Explanation: The average electric energy density of plane electromagnetic wave traveling in
vacuum is
1 1 1
𝑢𝐸 = ∈ 𝐸2 = ∈0 (𝐸0 /√2)2 = ∈0 𝐸0 2
.
2 0 𝑟𝑚𝑠
2 4

Q97.If a 100 watt bulb acts as a point source and has 2.5% efficiency,
then find the intensity of this bulb at a distance of 3 m?
A. 2.22 Wm−2

B. 0.22 Wm−2

C. 0.022 Wm−2

D. 4.4 Wm−2
Answer: C.
𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚/𝒕𝒊𝒎𝒆 𝒑𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓
𝑰𝒏𝒕𝒆𝒏𝒔𝒊𝒕𝒚, 𝑰 = =
𝒂𝒓𝒆𝒂 𝒂𝒓𝒆𝒂
Explanation: (𝟏𝟎𝟎×𝟐.𝟓/𝟏𝟎𝟎) 𝟐
= = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟐 𝐖/𝐦 .
𝟒𝝅(𝟑)𝟐

Q98.The magnetic filed in a plane e.m. wave is given by By

= 2×10−7sin (0.5×103x+1.5×1011t).
This electromagnetic wave is
A. a visible light

B. an infrared wave

C. a radiowave

D. a microwave

Answer: D
Explanation:

Q99.Consider sunlight incident on a slit of width 104 A. The image seen through
the slit shall

A. be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the center.

B. a bright slit white at the center diffusing to zero intensities at the edges.

C. a bright slit white at the center diffusing to regions of different colours.

D. only be a diffused slit white in colour.

Answer: Option A
Explanation: Given ,width of the slit =104 A=104× 10-10 =10-6 =1m
Wavelength f (visible) sunlight varies from 4000 A to 8000 A
As the width of slit is comparable to that of wavelength, hence diffracting occurs with maxima at
centre. So, at the centre all colors appear i.e mixing of colors form white patch at the centre.
Q100.Figure shows a standard two slit arrangement with slits S1, S2. P1, P2 are
the two minima points on either side of P .

At P2 on the screen, there is a hole and behind P2 is a second 2- slit arrangement

with slits S3, S4 and a second screen behind them.

A. There would be no interference pattern on the second screen but it would be

lighted.

B. The second screen would be totally dark.

C. There would be a single bright point on the second screen.

D. There would be a regular two slit pattern on the second screen.

Answer: D
Explanation: According to question , there is a hole at point P2. From Huygen’s principle, wave
will propagates from the surces S1 and S2. Each point on screen will acts as secondary sources
of wavelets.
Now , there is a hole at pint P2 (minima).The hole will act as a source of fresh light fr the slits S3
and S4
Therefore, there will be a regular two slit pattern on the second screen.

Q101.Consider sunlight incident on a pinhole of width 103A. The image of the

pinhole seen on a screen shall be

A. a sharp white ring and diffused coloured region around a sharp central white
spot.
B. different from a geometrical image and diffused coloured region around a
sharp central white spot.

C. a sharp white ring and a diffused central spot, white in colour.

D. different from a geometrical image and a diffused central spot, white in colour.

Answer: B
Explanation: Given width of pinhole =103 Armstrong =1000A
We know that the wavelength of sunlight ranges from 4000 Armstrong to 8000 Armstrong.
Clearly wavelength is less than width of the slit.
Hence light is diffracted from the hole. Due to diffraction from the slit, the image formed n the
screen will be different from geometrical image.

Q102.The human eye has an approximate angular resolution of φ =5.8×10–4 rad

and a typical photoprinter prints a minimum of 300 dpi (dots per inch, 1 inch =
2.54 cm). At what minimal distance z should a printed page be held so that one
does not see the individual dots.

A. 10.5 cm

B. 12.5 cm.

C. 14.5 cm

D. 17.5 cm
Answer: C
Explanation: Given angular resolution of human eye φ =5.8×10–4 rad
And printer prints 300 dots per inch.
The linear distance between two dots is
2.54
𝑙= 𝑐𝑚
300
= 0.84 × 10−2 𝑐𝑚
At a distance df z cm , this subtends an angle
 𝑙
𝜙=
𝑧
𝑙
⇒𝑧=
𝜙
0.84 × 10−2
⇒𝑧= 𝑐𝑚
5.8 × 10−4
⇒ 14.5 𝑐𝑚

Q103.Consider the diffraction patern for a small pinhole. As the size of the hole is
increased

A. the size decreases and the intensity increases.

B. the size increases and the intensity decreases

C. the size increases and the intensity increases.

D. the size decreases and the intensity decreases.

Answer: A
Explanation: When a decreases w increases
S size decreases
Now light energy is distributed over a small area and intensity is inversely proportional t area , s
as area is decreasing , intensity increases.

Q104.For light diverging from a point source

A. the wave front is spherical and the intensity decreases in proportion to the
distance squared

B. the wave front is parabolic and the intensity decreases in proportion to the
distance squared.

C. the wave front is parabolic and the intensity at the wave front does not depend
on the distance.
D. the wave front is spherical and the intensity at the wave front does not depend
on the distance.
Answer: A
Explanation: Due to the point source , light propagates in all directions symmetrically and
hence , wavefront will be spherical as shown in diagram.
If power of the source is P, then intensity of the source will be
𝑃
𝐼=
4𝜋𝑟 2
Where r is the radius of wavefront at any time.

Q105.For the same objective, find the ratio of the least separation between two
points to be distinguished by a microscope for light of 5000A o and electrons
accelerated through 100V used as the illuminating substance.

A. 0.2×10-3

B. 0.4×10-3.

C. 0.6×10-3

D. 0.7×10-3

Answer: A
Explanation:
 𝑊𝑒 𝑘𝑛𝑜𝑤 𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡
1 2sin𝛽 1.22𝜆
𝑅𝑒𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = = ⇒ 𝑑min =
𝑑 1.22𝜆 2sin𝛽
𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝜆 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑏𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑑 𝑏𝑦 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝑎𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑜𝑏𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
𝐹𝑜𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 5500 𝐴𝑟𝑚𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑔
1.22 × 5500 × 10−10
𝑑min =
2sin𝛽
𝐹𝑟 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑛𝑠 𝑎𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ 100𝑉, 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑑𝑒 − 𝐵𝑟𝑜𝑔𝑙𝑖𝑒 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ
12.27 12.27
𝜆= = = 0.12 × 10−9 𝑚
√𝑉 √100
𝑇ℎ𝑖𝑠 𝑖𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑖𝑒𝑠
′
1.22 × 0.12 × 10−9
𝑑 min =
2sin𝛽
𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑠𝑡 𝑠𝑒𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
1.22 × 0.12 × 10−9
′
𝑑 min 2sin𝛽
= = 0.2 × 10−3
𝑑min ′ 1.22 × 5000 × 10−10
𝑑 min =
2sin𝛽

Q106.The energy level for an electron in a certain atom is shown in the figure
given below. Which of the transition shown in the figure represents the emission
of a photon with maximum energy?

A. I
B. II

C. III

D. IV

Answer: C
Explanation: The photon emitted is with maximum energy in case of transition III.
−13.6 −13.6
𝐸 = 𝐸2 − 𝐸1 = −
22 12
= 10.2 𝑒𝑉

Q107.The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like atom results

in ultra = violet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition
from.

A. 3 – 2

B. 2 – 1

C. 4 – 2

D. 5 – 4
Answer: D
𝟏 𝟏
Explanation: 𝑰𝒏𝒇𝒓𝒂 𝒓𝒆𝒅 𝒄𝒐𝒓𝒓𝒆𝒔𝒑𝒐𝒏𝒅𝒔 𝒕𝒐 𝒕𝒉𝒆 𝒍𝒆𝒂𝒔𝒕 𝒗𝒂𝒍𝒖𝒆 𝒐𝒇( 𝟐 − 𝟐 ). 𝑯𝒆𝒓𝒆, 𝒊𝒕 𝒊𝒔 𝟓 – 𝟒.
𝒏𝟏 𝒏𝟐

Q108.The total energy of electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom is – 13.6
e V. What is the K.E. of this electron in first excited state?

A. 13.6 eV

B. 6.8 eV

C. 1.7 eV

D. 3.4 eV

Answer: D
Explanation: Total energy = P.E. + K.E.
‒13.6 eV = ‒ 2KE + KE = ‒ K. E
∴ KE = + 13.6 eV
In first excited state, n = 2
13.6
∴ 𝐾. 𝐸. = eV = 3.4 𝑒𝑉.
22

Q109.The energy of an electron in nth orbit of hydrogen atom is 13.6/n2eV. Energy r

equired to excite thee electron from the first orbit to the third orbit is

A. 10.2 J

B. 12.09 J

C. 12.09 eV

D. 13.6 eV

Answer: C
−𝟏𝟑.𝟔 𝟏𝟑.𝟔
Explanation: 𝑬 = 𝑬𝟑 − 𝑬𝟏 = 𝟐 − ( 𝟐 ) = 𝟏𝟐. 𝟎𝟗 𝐞𝐕
𝟏 𝟏

Q110.Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excite
d state and then fromsecond excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the wavelen
gth λ1:λ2 emitted in the two cases is

A. 2.8

B. 1.2

C. 4.8

D. 3.6
Answer: A
Explanation: When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from 3rd excited state to second excited
state:
ℎ𝑐 1 1
= 𝐸3 − 𝐸4 = 13.6[ 2 − 2 ]
𝜆1 3 4
7
= 13.6 × … . . (𝑖)
144
When electron jumps from second excited state to first excited state,
ℎ𝑐 1 1
= 𝐸2 − 𝐸3 = 13.6[ 2 − 2 ]
𝜆2 2 3
5
= 13.6 × … . . (𝑖𝑖)
36
𝐷𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑑𝑒 … (𝑖𝑖) 𝑏𝑦 … (𝑖),
𝜆1 5/36 20
= = = 2.8.
𝜆2 7/144 7

Q111.The impact parameter b, for scattering of α particles by 180° is

A. 0
1
B.
4

1
C.
16

D. 1
Answer: A
Explanation: The impact parameter b is zero, for scattering of α particles by 180°.

Q112.Which level of the doubly ionized lithium has the same energy as the
ground state energy of the hydrogen atom?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4
Answer: C
𝒁𝟐
𝑨𝒔, 𝒕𝒐𝒕𝒂𝒍 𝒆𝒏𝒆𝒓𝒈𝒚 𝒐𝒇 𝒆𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒕𝒓𝒐𝒏 𝒊𝒏 𝒏𝒕𝒉 𝒐𝒓𝒃𝒊𝒕 𝒊𝒔 𝒈𝒊𝒗𝒆𝒏 𝒃𝒚: 𝑬 ∝
𝒏𝟐
𝐆𝐢𝐯𝐞𝐧, [𝑬]𝑳𝒊 = [𝑬]𝑯
Explanation: 𝒁𝟐 𝒁𝟐
⇒| 𝟐
| =| |
𝒏 𝑳𝒊 𝒏𝟐 𝑯
𝟗 𝟏 𝟐
⇒ = 𝒐𝒓 𝒏 =𝟗 𝒐𝒓 𝒏 = 𝟑.
𝒏𝟐 𝟏
Q113.The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. The kinetic and
potential energies of the electron in this state are

A. 13.6 eV and 27.2 eV respectively

B. ‒ 13.6 eV and ‒ 27.2 eV respectively

C. 13.6 eV and ‒ 27.2 eV respectively

D. 27.2 eV and 13.6 eV

Answer: C
Explanation: Total energy, E = ‒13.6 eV
Kinetic energy, = ‒E = ‒ (‒13.6 eV) = 13.6 eV
Potential energy = ‒ 2 × Kinetic energy = ‒2 13.6 = ‒ 27.2 eV

Q114.Taking the Bohr radius as ao= 53 pm, the radius of Li++ion in its ground state,
on the basis of Bhor’s model, will be approximately

A. 51 pm

B. 27 pm

C. 18 pm

D. 13 pm

Answer: C
𝑾𝒆 𝒌𝒏𝒐𝒘 𝒕𝒉𝒂𝒕, 𝒊𝒏 𝑩𝒐𝒉𝒓’𝒔 𝒎𝒐𝒅𝒆𝒍,
𝒏𝟐 𝒉𝟐 𝒏𝟐
𝑹𝒂𝒅𝒊𝒖𝒔, 𝒓 = = 𝒂𝟎
𝟒𝝅𝟐 𝒎𝑲𝒁𝒆𝟐 𝒁
Explanation: 𝐅𝐨𝐫 𝑳𝒊++ 𝒊𝒐𝒏, 𝒁 = 𝟑 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝒏 = 𝟏𝐟𝐨𝐫 𝐠𝐫𝐨𝐮𝐧𝐝 𝐬𝐭𝐚𝐭𝐞
𝑵𝒐𝒘, 𝒘𝒆 𝒉𝒂𝒗𝒆, 𝒂𝟎 = 𝟓𝟑 𝒑𝒎 (𝒈𝒊𝒗𝒆𝒏)
𝟓𝟑×𝟏𝟐
∴ 𝒓= = 𝟏𝟖 𝐩𝐦.
𝟑

Q115.The simple Bohr model can not be directly applied to calculate the energy
levels of an atom with many electrons. This is because
A. of the electrons not being subject to a central force

B. of the electrons colliding with each other

C. of screening effects

D. the force between the nucleus and an electron will no longer be given by
Coulomb’s law

Answer: A
Explanation: The simple Bohr model cannot be directly applied to calculate energy levels of an
atom with many electrons because electrons experience force due to electrons in neighbouring
electrons in different shells.

Q116.A p-n junction is fabricated from a semiconductor with band gap

of 3.0 eV. The wavelength of the radiation which it can detect is

A. 600 nm

B. 400 nm

C. Both of these

D. None of these

Answer: B
Explanation:
ℎ𝑐
𝐸= 𝜆
6.6×10−34 ×3×108
= 600×10−9 ×1.6×10−19  eV  = 2.06 eV
𝐴𝑠, 𝐸 < 𝐸𝑔 (3.0 eV), 𝑠𝑜 𝑝 − 𝑛 𝑗𝑢𝑛𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑐𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑜𝑡 𝑑𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 600 𝑛𝑚.
𝑆𝑖𝑚𝑖𝑙𝑎𝑟𝑙𝑦 𝑖𝑓 𝑤𝑒 𝑐𝑎𝑙𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 ℎ𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ 𝜆 = 400 𝑛𝑚 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛, 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦,
𝐸 = 3.1 𝑒𝑉 > 3.0 𝑒𝑉. 𝐼𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑎𝑠𝑒𝐸 > 𝐸𝑔 , 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑝 − 𝑛 𝑗𝑢𝑛𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑐𝑎𝑛 𝑑𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ
400 𝑛𝑚.

Q117.In a transistor connected in a common emitter mode Rc=4kΩ ; Ic=1 mA  and Ib

=20μA then,the voltage gain is
A. 100

B. 200

C. 300

D. 400

Answer: B
𝜷 = 𝑰𝒄 /𝑰𝒃 = 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 /(𝟐𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟔 ) = 𝟓𝟎 ;
Explanation: 𝑹𝒄 𝟒𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝑽𝒐𝒍𝒕𝒂𝒈𝒆 𝒈𝒂𝒊𝒏, 𝑨𝒗 = 𝜷 = 𝟓𝟎 × = 𝟐𝟎𝟎.
𝑹𝒊 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎

Q118.The forbidden energy band gap in conductors, semiconductors and insulators a

re EG1,EG2 and EG3 respectively. The correct relation is:

A. EG3 > EG2> EG1

B. EG3 < EG2> EG1
C. EG3 > EG2> EG1
D. EG3< EG2< EG1

Answer: C
Explanation: The correct relation is: EG3 > EG2> EG1.

Q119.In a common base circuit, the current gain is 0.96. If the base
current is 60 μA, the emitter current and collector current
A. 2 mA

B. 4 mA

C. 2.2 mA

D. 1.4 mA
Answer: D
 𝐆𝐢𝐯𝐞𝐧 𝐜𝐮𝐫𝐫𝐞𝐧𝐭 𝐠𝐚𝐢𝐧,  𝜶 = 𝟎. 𝟗𝟔
𝑰𝒄 (𝑰𝒆 −𝑰𝒃 )
𝜶= =
𝑰𝒆 𝑰𝒆
Explanation: 𝑰𝒃 𝟔𝟎 𝟔𝟎
⇒ 𝑰𝒃 = 𝑰𝒆 − 𝜶𝑰𝒆 = (𝟏 − 𝜶)𝑰𝒆    𝒐𝒓   𝑰𝒆 = = = = 𝟏𝟓𝟎𝟎𝝁𝑨 = 𝟏. 𝟓 𝒎𝑨
𝟏−𝜶 𝟏−𝟎.𝟗𝟔 𝟎.𝟎𝟒
⇒ 𝑰𝒄 = 𝑰𝒆 − 𝑰𝒃 = 𝟏𝟓𝟎𝟎 − 𝟔𝟎 = 𝟏𝟒𝟒𝟎𝝁𝑨 = 𝟏. 𝟒𝟒 𝒎𝑨

Q120.A common emitter amplifier is designed with n-p-n transistor .

The input impedance is 1kΩ and load is 10KΩ . The voltage gain will be

A. 9.9

B. 99

C. 990

D. 9900

Answer: C
𝑹𝟎 𝜶 𝑹𝟎
𝑽𝒐𝒍𝒕𝒂𝒈𝒆 𝒈𝒂𝒊𝒏, 𝑨𝒗 = 𝜷 =( )
𝑹𝒊 𝟏−𝜶 𝑹𝒊
Explanation: 𝟎.𝟗𝟗 𝟏𝟎𝒌𝜴
=( )( ) = 𝟗𝟗𝟎.
𝟏−𝟎.𝟗𝟗 𝟏𝒌𝜴