Techonogy and General PDF

TECHNOLOGY PAPERS
1. Who should have access to the WPS?

NDT operators
Inspectors only
Welders only
Welders and inspectors
2. How do we determine what the correct weld preparation (root gap, root face, included angle)
should be?
By consulting the WPSs
The fabrication drawing will give all the information
The welder will decide
The inspector will recommend what is suitable
3. How are the length of tack welds during assembly and fit-up determined?
By the welder as they have extensive knowledge
The fabrication specification will give minimum tack length requirements
The fabrication drawing will give all the information
Any length of tack weld will do for assembly
4. Is it always necessary to preheat the base material before welding?

Not on sunny day
Only in accordance with the WPS
If the equipment is available it must be used
If using cellulosic rods these will provide enough heat
5. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before welding?

The welding consumables
The weld root gap
PWHT temperature range
The weld preparation
6. What does the term WPS mean?

Weld productivity specification
Welding production scheme
Welding Procedure Specifications
Work Productivity standards
7. Which standard is used for the basic requirements for visual inspection?
BS EN 17637
API 1104
BS EN 7079
BS EN 4515
8. Who is responsibilities for site safety?

Site engineer
Welding supervisor
An approved inspector
Everyone
9. Is it permissible to allow welding to be carried out in bad weather?

Never
Yes as long as there is adequate protection from the poor weather conditions
Yes a long as basic low hydrogen welding electrodes are used
Yes as long as the welder is prepared to work in the rain
10. Who has the responsibility of ensuring the welder is using the correct consumables during
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fabrication?
The Q/A department
Store man and the welder
Welding Engineering
The welder and the welding inspector
11. When would you measure the interpass temperature?

The highest temperature recorded in the welded joint immediately prior to depositing
the next run
Immediately prior to commencing the first pass
When the welding is complete
Only required if the heat input is lower than that specified in WPS
12. During root welding, which if the following would be the main cause of burn through?
The current is too high
The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS
Preheat not used
Root face is too large
13. You notice the welders are adjusting the current on the welding set, is the allowable?
Never
The welder has the final say on voltage and current
Only if the current is within the range recorded on the WPS
As long as the welder has approval from the welding foreman
14. What course of action should be taken upon finding a welder using incorrect welding
consumables?
Report the incident and record all relevant information
Allow welding to proceed if the workmanship is good
None if the tensile strength of the consumable is the same as the approved one
Change the electrode for the correct type and continue welding
15. What is the maximum OCV allowable to initiate an arc when using AC current?
1000V
10V
90V
900V
16. Why is the OCV capped at the voltage setting?

To save electricity
To prevent exploding of consumables
Allow smooth transition into welding voltage range
To reduce the risk of fatality
17. What information should be recorded as a minimum, on completed production weld?

Size and type of electrode used
Welding supervisor’s name
Welder’s identification, date and weld number
Welding inspector name
18. What is meant by the term PWHT?

Pipe weld heat treatment
Pre weld heat treatment
Post weld hydrogen tearing
Post weld heat treatment
19. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a cross country pipeline
be important?
It is the most difficult area to weld
It is the dirtiest part of the pipe as it is near the ground
Welders always forget to weld the bottom
It is the most difficult area to radiograph
20. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on completion?
The contractor’s inspector
Site manager
The welder
The client’s inspector or certifying authority
21. Why is it essential to clean the excess weld metal on completion of the production weld?
So it can be ready for painting
To remove any rust
To ensure it is suitably clean for visual inspection and NDT
To remove slag from the undercut
22. To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the surface to the eye
should be maximum of?
200mm
600mm
60mm
6000mm
23. Who should select the specific welds for NDT, to cover the 10% contractual percentage
required by the specification/code?
Anyone can select the welds as its just a random choice
The welder as he knows which welds are likely to produce the least defects
This will be referenced in the inspection and test plan
Nobody, as welding is always carried out to a high standard the use of the percentage NDT is of no
real value
24. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observation were made. The
specimen CSA was recorded as 25mm x 12mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as
150kN. What is the UTS?
50kN/mm2
5500N/mm2
500N/mm2
50N/mm2
25. In a transverse weld tensile test, if the break was in the weld metal, the sample would be:
Rejected
Retested
Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of the plate
Acceptable if the UTS is between 80-90% of specified UTS of the plate
26. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the test the
increased gauge length was 60mm, what is the elongation percentage?
%A is 50
%A is 20
%A is 29
%A is 36
27. Some codes require the excess weld metal (weld cap) on cross weld joint tensile specimens to
be flush, this is because:
Flushed caps will always break in the weld metal area
This is to remove any porosity in the excess weld metal (weld cap)
It is easier to calculate the cross sectional area of the joint when flushed
Flushed caps have fewer stress raisers and therefore give a more accurate result
28. In welder qualification testing of 20mm plates, why are side bends used instead of root and face
bends?
They are easier to produce
The testing equipment can not handle thick root/face bends
Root defects are not important for welder qualification
They give more accurate indications
29. Mechanical tests are divided in two areas, identify these from the list below:
When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was found to be 175 degree. The
testing specification calls for the sample to have been formed through 180 degree.
The bends should be considered as failed
They should be bent to 180 degree re-examined
They should be acceptable as the reduction in angle is due to material spring back
They should be rejected as the angle is not close enough to be acceptable.
30. Charpy testing is carried out on a welding procedure test plate because?
It gives an indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z direction)
The impact test results can be used to verify that the material has not been adversely affected by
the heat of the welding
It give an indication of the materials elongation properties
It give a quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualification tets
31. Charpy impact tests allowing a flat but rough surface after the completed test, this would
indicate which type of failure?
Fatigue
Ductile
Fatigue to ductile
Brittle
32. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding
electrode used was a basic type, 5mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of the
runs was 220 amps, 21 volts, using DC+ve polarity and a ROL of 270mm per minute. What would
be the arc energy?
Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
1.54 kJ/mm
1.026kJ/mm
2.82kJ/mm
33. When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?

20V
50V
90V
240V
34. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the power source was change from
DC+ve to AC?
None
It would have been easier for the welder to strike the arc
It would be slightly increase the depth of penetration
It would slightly decrease the depth of penetration
35. What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC+ve to DC-ve?
None
Greater deposition rate
Greater penetration
Less deposition rate
36. Would you consider which of the following processes uses a flat characteristic?
MAG (GMAW)
MMA (SMAW)
TIG (GTAW)
SAW using greater than 1000 amps
37. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 50mm in thickness for basic electrodes require
any pre-treatment before use?
None if they were in a vacuum pack
None if they were used in a factory
Heat to 500degree C for 2 hours is used outside
Baked at 150degree C for 4 hours prior to use
38. Which of the following defects are not associated with MMA (SMAW) welding process?
Isolated pores
Lack of fusion
Undercut
Tungsten inclusions
39. Slag line found in MMA welds are usually associated with:
The voltage being too low
The open circuit current being too hight
Improper cleaning between weld runs
Low open circuit voltage
40. With which of the following NDE processes is it possible to detect both surface and slight sub-
surface detect up to 2mm below the surface.
Visual
Dye penetration
Magnetic particle using DC
Magnetic particle using AC
41. For MPI using the prods method, which of the following statements is true:
It may cause arc damaged on the specimen material surface
It requires fewer operators therefore is easier
It can be used with ferrite and non-ferrite materials
It is quicker than using a yoke type electromagnet
42. With the DPI method of inspection, after the contact time has elapsed the dye should be
removed by:
Spraying the surface with the remover till all dye has gone then wipe with a clean cloth
Spraying with the developer the wiping with a cloth
Wipe clean, using a clean cloth soaked in the solvent remover
It does not matter how it is done as long as all traces of dye are removed
43. Which of the following commonly used radioactive isotopes has the longest half life?
Iridium 192
Cobalt 60
Thulium 170
Ytterbium 169
44. A 300mm diameter pipe, 8mm wall thickness is to be radiographed using the double wall single
image technique. The source to be used is iridium-192. Which if the following statement is true?
It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended
It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in the instance
There are not problem with the technique
Only the double wall, double image technique should be used with iridium
45. Half life is a term used to describe

The penetrating ability a gamma source
Half the total time a gamma source will be useful
The time taken for the gamma source to reduce its strength be half
The rate of decay of an X-ray tube
46. What is the greatest disadvantage of radiographic inspection?

Its inability to size defect accurately
The physical size of the equipment
The skill level of the inspectors
The harmful effects of ionizing radiation
47. Which of the following defects are unlikely to be detected by normal radiographic techniques?
Intergranular corrosion cracking
Porosity
Slag
Lack of penetration
48. For ultrasonic testing, which of the following statements is true?

It is easy to identify all defects
The equipment should be calibrated before use
The equipment can’t be automated
Sound waves will not travel through copper
49. Hydrogen cracking is considered a cold crack as it will not form till the weldment cools to below:
500 0C
3000C
3000F
7300C
50. Inspection for hydrogen cracking is often specified to be done between 48 to 75 hours after
completion of the weld, this is because?
The stress level will have reduced by then
Applying a stress relief heat treatment after welding
Avoiding stress concentrations
It is the maximum time it takes for all the H2 to diffuse out of the weld
51. At what level is H2 considered to be more critical in cracking?

Less than 5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
Between 5 and 10ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
Between 10 and 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
Over 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
52. Which of the following electrode types would produce the highest levels of hydrogen?
Basic electrode when baked correctly
Cellulose in a sealed tin
Rutile
Heavy rutile
53. Assuming the same materials and welding procedure were used, which of the following
situation would require the highest preheat?
Butt weld in 30mm plate
Tee joint but weld in 20mm plate
Tee joint fillet weld in 20mm plate
Cruciform joint in 20mm plate
54. In general term which is the following would require the highest preheat if all other factor were
the same as per ISO BS EN 1011?
MMA weld with cellulose electrodes
MMA weld with rutile electrodes
MMA weld with basic electrodes
MAG weld with solid wire
55. Which of the following microstructures is critical to the likely formation of hydrogen cracks?
Austenite
Ferrite
Pearlite
Martensitic
56. Basic electrodes are often sold vacuum packed. The reason is:
They have been packed at the manufacturers at a hydrogen level less than 5ml per 100g of
weld metal deposited
They are mass produced which makes there electrodes cheap
They require less baking time after removal from the packet
They are formulated that once open they will pick up no more moisture
57. On inspecting a completed weld which has charpy impact requirements some small areas of
undercut have been found. The welder says he can quickly put this right by depositing a thin narrow
bead along the undercut. In the situation would you?
Agree to go ahead with no preheat as the weld is so small
Agree to go ahead with the same preheat as the original weld
Agree to go ahead with a preheat 50 degree C below original
Only allow the welder to cosmetically blend out the undercut
58. With regards to Lamellar tearing, a buttering layer will:

Improve ductility
Disperse heat
Improve toughness
Improve hardness
59. Lamellar tearing can be detected by which of the following NDE methods?
Radiography
Ultrasonic
Eddy current
MPI using AC
60. A fatigue fracture can be identified (from examination of the fracture …):
The presence of beach marks
The presence of plastic deformation
Being rough and torn
Being flat and rough
Technology Multiple Choice 1
1. How could arc blow be avoided?
A) Use A.C.
B) Use D.C.+
C) Use D.C.-
D) Increase travel speed
2. During a transverse tensile test, the first stage the specimen goes through is known as:
A) Plastic stage
B) Elastic stage
C) Deformed stage
D) UTS stage
3. Which of the following joint designs is preferred in cyclic loading condition?

A) View A
B) View B
C) View C
D) View D
View A View B View C View D
4. The WPS calls for a root gap to be between 2 and 3mm, the actual measured gap is 4mm, what course
of action would you take?
A) Accept it as its only 1mm.
B) Reject it.
C) The welder will decide, if it fails it will be his problem.
D) The welder insists he can weld the butt joint easily so let him go ahead.
5. Which Tungsten electrode is usually used to weld Aluminum?
A) Zirconiated
B) Thoriated
C) Large diameter
D) Pointed electrodes
6. A procedure is a document which:
A) Specifies the way to carry out an activity or a process
B) Provides binding legislative rules that are adopted by an authority
C) Specifies which resources shall be applied by whom and when, to a specific project, product, process or
contract
D) A written and verbal description of the precise steps to be followed
7. Which one of these statements is true concerning solidification cracking?
A) Only occurs in MMA welding
B) Increased depth to width ratio will increase stress
C) Never occurs in MIG/MAG welding
D) All of the above
8. Which one of these tests would most probably be used for welder qualification on a plate butt weld using
13mm low carbon steel
A) CTOD
B) Nick break test
C) Fracture fillet test
D) IZOD
9. An arc strike on a high carbon steel plate is likely to have the following microstructure beneath its
surface
A) Austenite
B) Martensite
C) Ferrite
D) Pearlite
10. If the torch was trailing when using the MIG/MAG process, which of the following appearances of
the weld is most likely to be observed during visual inspection?
A) No undercut and shallow penetration
B) Severe undercut and deep penetration
C) Moderate undercut and penetration
D) Minimum undercut and excess weld metal
11. The welders have increased the electrode stickout length of the SAW set, what would be the effect
on the weld?
A) No effect.
B) The weld width would be narrower.
C) Penetration will be increased.
D) The deposition rate would be greater if wire feed rate is increased also.
12. Who should have access to the WPQRs?
A) NDT operators.
B) Inspectors only.
C) Welders only.
D) Welding engineer.
13. Half life is a term used to describe
A) The penetrating ability a gamma source
B) Half the total time a gamma source will be useful
C) The time taken for the gamma source to reduce its strength to a half
D) The rate of decay of an X-ray tube
14. A typical minimum OCV requirements for MMA (111) using basic electrodes would be:
A) 70 Volts
B) 40 Volts
C) 100 Volts
D) 20 Volts
15. Why is the OCV voltage capped at certain level?
A) Save electricity
B) Reduce the risk of fatality
C) Prevent exploding of the consumable
D) Allow smooth transition into welding voltage range
16. Austenitic stainless steels are not susceptible to HIC because:
A) They are non-magnetic
B) They are stainless and contain chromium
C) They don't harden during heating and cooling
D) They are highly ductile
17. Which type of weld would you associate with the joint below?
A) A plug weld in a T joint
B) A spot weld is an edge joint
C) A fillet weld in a corner joint
D) An edge weld in a lap joint
18. In a martensitic grain structure which of the following mechanical properties would be more likely to
increase?
A) Ductility
B) Hardness
C) Softness
D) Toughness
19. Who should select the specific welds for NDT, to cover the 10% contractual percentage required
by the specification Code?
A) Anyone can select the welds as its just a random choice
B) The welder as he known which welds are likely to produce the least defects
C) This will be referenced in the inspection and test plan
D) Nobody, as welding is always carried out to a high standard the use of percentage NDT is of no
real value
20. To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the surface to the eye should be a
maximum of?
A) 200mm
B) 600mm
C) 60mm
D) 6000mm
21. Which of the following defects are unlikely to be detected by normal radiographic techniques?
A) Intergranular corrosion cracking
B) Porosity
C) Slag
D) Lack of penetration
22. To prevent hydrogen cracking which of the following would require the lowest preheat if all other
factors were the same as per ISO BS EN 1011?
A) MMA welding with cellulosic coated electrode
B) MMA welding with rutile coated electrode
C) MMA welding with heavy rutile coated electrode
D) MMA welding with solid
23. Which BS EN standard is used for welding symbols on drawings?
A) BS EN 970.
B) BS EN 287.
C) BS EN 22553.
D) BS EN 4515.
24. The higher the alloy content of steels:
A) The lower the tendency for HIC to occur
B) The higher the tendency for HIC to occur
C) High alloy steels do not influence HIC susceptibility
D) None of the above
25. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the test the increased
gauge length was 65mm, what is the elongation percentage?
A) % A is 40
B) % A is 60
C) % A is 30
D) % A is 36
33. A high level of surface cleaning is important prior to penetrant testing in order to
A) Reduce the amount of penetrant used.
B) Reduce the level of false indications.
C) Ensure a good bond for the developer
D) Improve the viscosity of the penetrant
34. A typical minimum OCV requirement for MMA(111) using either rutile or cellulosic electrode would be;
A) 40 Volts
B) 120 Volts
C) 100 Volts
D) 50 Volts
35. The main problem with solution treatment of stainless steel is that
A) Controlling the rate of the temperature rise
B) Controlling the cooling rate
C) The length of the "soak" period
D) High risk of distortion
36. An advantage of the MMA (111) welding process is that it
A) Has higher current density than SAW (121) welding
B) Has a very is large of consumables for most welding applications
C) No core wire is lost during the process
D) Requires a lower skill level than other manual forms of welding
37. While inspecting a weld on a 100mm thick carbon steel plate with a tolerance of ±5mm you notice
the weld is visually acceptable, however the parent material has several arc strikes present adjacent
to the weld approximately 3mm deep, what course of action would you like?
A) None I am only inspecting the weld
B) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth
C) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth by MPI
D) High carbon steel is not susceptible to cracking so I would weld over the arc strikes then blend
them
38. When reviewing a radiograph of a weld made by the MAG(GMAW) process, you notice a very bright
white inclusion in the weld, which of the following best describes this indication:
A) Tungsten inclusion
B) Spatter on the cap
C) Copper inclusion
D) It is most likely to be a film mark
39. What unit of measurement is used for Charpy impact testing?
A) Joules
B) Nmm²
C) KJ
D) VPN
A) Iridium 192
B) Cobalt 60
C) Thulium 170
D) Ytterblum 169
41. Which process uses a constant current electrical characteristic
A) MIG/MAG
B) MMA
C) FCAW
D) All processes use this
42. Using the MMA process, which polarity produces the greatest penetration?
A) A.C
B) D.C
C) D.C+
D) Depends on electrode size
43. Which of the following would be most unlikely to be found in a butt welded joint using the conventional
radiographic method of NDT?
A) Linear elongated slag inclusions in the root (wagon tracks)
B) Burn through
C) Lack of sidewall fusion
D) An elongated gas cavity
44. The welders have increased the voltage on the SAW set, what would be the effect on the weld appearance?
A) No effect.
B) The weld width would be narrower.
C) Penetration will be increased
D) The weld width would be wider.
45. Heat input can be altered from the original procedure according to EN 1011, but by new much?
A) +10%
B) +20%
C) +25%
D) +30%
46. A maximum interpass temperature is generally given to control
A) High HAZ hardness
B) Low HAZ toughness
C) Lack of inter-run fusion
D) Excess levels of penetration
47. When transverse tensile testing a welded joint the excess weld metal is often removed. This action is
done to:
A) Allow the test piece to fit accurately into the equipment
B) Reduce stress concentrations to the weld toes.
C) Allow strain gauges to be placed over the weld face area.
D) Allow weld metal ductility to be measured.
48. Charpy impact tests show a 50% rough torn surface and a 50% flat crystalline surface after the completed
test, this would indicate which type of failure?
A) Fatigue to brittle.
B) Ductile to brittle
C) Ductile with gross yielding
D) Fatigue to ductile
49. A STRA test is carried out to determine which of the following?
A) A quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualification tests
B) The test results can be used to verity that the material has not been adversely mechanically damaged by
the heat during welding
C) An indication of the material' elongation properties
D) An indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z direction)
50. Due to the high heating effect in the electrode when TIG welding(141) with AC it is important that a
tungsten electrode used for AC welding is:
A) Ground to a fine vertex angle of <30˚ before welding
B) Used straight from the packet without any grinding
C) Lightly ground to a slight chamfer (corners only removed.)
D) Used without grinding and baked at 300˚C for an hour before use.
51. An advantage of the SAW process is that:
A) It can be used in the vertical down (PG) position
B) Little or no ozone or UV light is produced/emitted
C) It is not affected by arc blow
D) It is not prone to solidification cracking
52. When welding vertically up with the MMA process weaving is sometimes restricted to 2.5 x electrode
diameter, this restriction is mainly applied to
A) Reduce the overall width of the weld
B) Limit the heat input into the joint
C) Reduce the number of electrodes used in the joint
D) Reduce the time required to finish the weld
53. A post weld heat-treatment may also be of benefit in minimizing the risk of weld decay. This heat
treatment would be called:
A) Stress relief
B) Normalizing
C) Quench and Tempering
D) Solution treatment over 1000˚C
54. After PWHT, it has been noticed that a repair must be carried out. How should this be done?
A) With the minimum amount of heat input.
B) Welded, checked and PWHT again.
C) Defect removed via non-thermal process then checked.
D) Welded and allowed to cool in air.
55. What does the term WPQR mean?
A) Weld productivity quality review
B) Weld production quality requirements
C) welding procedure qualification record
D) Work production quality review
56. Which of the following electrode types would produce the lowest of hydrogen?
A) Cellulose coated electrodes sealed in a tin immediately after manufacture
B) Basic coated electrodes when baked correctly immediately prior to use
C) Rutile coated electrodes when dried at 150˚C prior to use
D) Heavy rutile coated electrodes when dried at 180˚C for 2 hours prior to use
57. With regards to Lamellar tearing, a buttering layer will:
A) Improve ductility
B) Disperse heat
C) Improve toughness
D) Improve hardness
58. Why is it sometimes necessary to preheat the base material before welding?
A) Remove oil and grease
B) Remove moisture from the inside of the material.
C) Prevent the possible risk of cracking
D) Not required if using cellulosic electrodes, as these will provide enough heat.
59. What is the recommended minimum range of illumination required by EN Standard for inspection of a
welded surface?
A) 90-120 lux
B) 150-250 lux
C) 350-500 lux
D) 35-50 lux
60. While making a symbol for a symmetrical fillet weld.
A) the size does not need not be mentioned.
B) the length can be mentioned to the left of the symbol
C) the finish is assumed to be flat.
D) the broken line can be omitted.
Technology Multiple Choice Exam 2
1. The purpose of a hot pass is to:
A) Improve fusion
B) Improve profile
C) Remove hydrogen
D) Remove Sulphur
2. Which of the following processes uses a flat characteristic?

A) MAG (GMAW)
B) Oxy-fuel gas welding
C) Resistance spot welding
D) SAW using more than 1000 amps
3. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 100mm in thickness would basic electrodes require any
pre-treatment before use?
A) None if they were in a vacuum pack opened 8 hours prior to use
B) None if they were in a sealed vacuum pack prior to use
C) Heat to 500˚C for 2 hours if used outside
D) Baked at 150˚C for 4 hours prior to use
4. Standard on the same subject approved by different standardizing bodies, that establish inter -
changeability of products, processes and services, or mutual understanding of test results or
information provided according to these standards are called:
A) Codes of practice
B) Harmonized standards
C) Quality plan
D) Quality management systems
5. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 120mm in thickness would the basic electrodes require any
A) None if they were in a vacuum pack
B) None if they were used in a factory
C) Heat to 500˚C for 2 hours if used outside
6. Which of the following is NOT a quantitative test?

A) Root bend
B) Macro hardness
C) Charpy
D) Tensile
7. When would you measure the minimum preheat temperature?
A) On completion of each pass
B) Immediately prior to commencing the first pass and subsequent passes
C) When the welding is complete
D) Minimum preheat temperature measurement is only required if the heat input is lower than that
specified in WPS
8. When SAW welding using twin wires with separate power supplies what should the electrical
characteristics be?
A) Both wires DC+ve
B) Both wires AC
C) The lead wire DC+ve polarity followed by the trailing wire using a AC polarity
D) Both wires DC-ve
9. What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC-ve to DC+ve when MMA (SMAW)
welding?
A) More penetration
B) None
C) Greater deposition rate
D) Less penetration
10. Voltage and amperage meters have been removed from MIG/MAG (GMAW) equipment making calibration
invalid, the equipment should be:
A) Quarantined
B) Only used for tack welds
C) Only used if validated
D) Monitored closely by the welding inspector for amperage and voltage
11. Why is it essential to clean the weld area on completion of the production weld?
A) So it can be ready for painting
B) To remove ant test
C) To ensure it is suitably clean for visual inspection and NDT
D) To remove slag from the undercut
12. An 80mm diameter pipe, 10mm wall thickness is to be radiographed using the double wall single
imagine technique. The source to be used is iridium. Which of the following statements is true?
A) It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended
B) It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
C) There in no problem with the technique
D) The preferred method is the double wall, double image technique
13. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observation were made. The specimen CSA
was recorded as 40mm X 20mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as 190kN. What is the UTS
A) 237.5kN/mm2
B) 247.5N/mm2
C) 24.5N/mm2
D) 237.5N/mm2
14. What is the most important information that the welding inspector should enter on an electrode vacuum pack
at the point of breaking the vacuum?
A) Welder's name.
B) Weld ID number
C) Air humidity content
D) Time and date of opening
15. Which of the following defects is usually associated with MAG (GMAW) welding process when using Dip
Transfer?
A) Centreline cracking
B) Lack of side wall fusing
C) Undercut
D) Tungsten inclusions
16. Weld decay can be minimised specifying a steel with:

A) higher carbon level
B) higher caromium level
C) lower carbon level
D) lower caromium level
17. Which welding process and mode is more susceptible to lack of sidewall fusion?
A) MAG Dip
B) SAW DC +
C) MAG Spray
D) TIG Pulsed
18. The welding procedure calls for a minimum of 50˚C preheat: you notice the welder is using an
oxy-acetylene cutting torch to preheat butt weld joint, what course of action would you take?
A) I would check the preheat with a temperature indicating crayon (tempelstick) to ensure it is correct
B) I would stop him and insist he used an approved method which is nominated on the WPS
C) It is acceptable to use this method of applying preheat so there is no problem
D) As long as he had a neutral flame it would be acceptable
19. During root welding. Which of the following would be the main cause of excess penetration?
A) The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS
B) Preheat not used
C) The current is too high
D) Root face is too large
20. Asymmetrical weld symbols to EN 22553 are:

A) The same both sides of the arrow
B) Different each side of the arrow
C) Show fillet welds only
D) Show butt welds only
21. What information should be recorded as a minimum on a completed production weld?

A) Size and type of electrode used
B) Welding supervisor's name
C) Welder's identification, date and weld number
D) Welding inspectors name
22. A 'weld all around' symbol is not required when:

A) Indicating a circumferential joint
B) Indicating a pipe to pipe butt weld
C) Indicating a nozzle to shell weld
D) All of the above
23. What would be the most likely SAW flux type for welding medium carbon steel which requires impact
testing:
A) Callulosic
B) Rutile
C) Fused
D) Agglomerated
24. Which one of these statements is true concerning lamellar tearing?
A) As material gets thicker the ductility decreases
B) As materials gets thicker the resistance to Lamellar tearing improves
C) As materials gets thicker the ductility improves
D) Thick materials don't suffer from Lamellar tearing
25. Which of the following defects are not associated with the SAW process?
A) Centreline cracking
B) Chevron cracking
C) Copper inclusions
26. Clustered porosity found internally in the body of an MMA weld is usually associated with:
A) Poor inter-pass cleaning
B) The open circuit current being too high
C) Poor stop start technique or damp electrode coating
D) Low open circuit voltage
27. In which of the following modes of transfer is inductance usually a variable parameter in solid wire
welding(135)?
A) Dip transfer
B) Spray transfer
C) Pulse transfer
D) Globular transfer
28. What are the three metal transfer modes when using MIG/MAG(OSMAW)?
A) Dip, drop and drag
B) Trailing, vertical, and leading
C) Pulse, dip and flood
D) Dip, spray and pulse
29. A 300mm diameter pipe, 10mm wall thickness is to be radiographically tested using the double wall
single image technique (DWSI). the source to be used is Iridium 192. Which of the following
statements is true?
A) It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended
B) It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
C) There is no problem with the technique
D) Only the double wall, double image technique should be used with Iridium
30. Solidification cracking occurs:
A) In the HAZ
B) In the parent metal
C) In the weld
D) All of the above
31. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observations were made. The specimen CSA
was recorded as 30mm × 20mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as 200kN. What is the UTS?
A) 33 kN/mm2
B) 333 N/mm2
C) 3333 N/mm2
D) 33 N/mm2
32. At what level is residual stress a problem when trying to minimize the risk of H2 cracking?
A) The stress levels have no influence on H2 cracking
B) The stress levels will need to be between 30 to 40% of the material yield stress
C) The stress levels will need to be greater than 50% of the material yield stress
D) The stress levels will need to be greater than 75% of material UTS
33. The similarities between BS EN 22553 and AWS A2.4 in depicting welding symbols are:
A) Both have the same rule for depicting "weld all around"
B) Both have the same rule for depicting the "other side"
C) Both have the same rule for depicting "sequence of operations"
D) Both have the same method for depicting "welding processes"
34. Which is the most accurate method of ensuring that the correct preheat is applied?
A) Measure it with heat sensitive crayons (tempilsticks)
B) Using a calibrated digital thermometer
C) Using heat treatment equipment with thermocouples attached and a chart recorder
D) Temperature measuring paint
35. Hydrogen cracking is considered a cold crack as it will not form until the weldment cools to below:
A) 500℃
B) 300℃
C) 300℉
D) 730℃
36. Is it permissible to allow a welder to carry out a MMA (SMAW) welding procedure test if he is not
qualified?
A) No
B) Yes as long as the Welding Engineer is happy to allow it
C) Yes as long as he has a TIG (GTAW) qualification
D) Yes as long as no NDT is required on the finished weld
37. When using DC-ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?
A) 10-40V
B) 50-90V
C) 100-400V
D) 200-240V
38. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 20mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding electrode
used was a basic type, 4mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of the runs was
185 amps, 24 volts, using AC polarity, and an ROL of 145mm/min. What would be the arc energy?
A) Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
B) 1.8 kJ/mm
C) 2.9 kJ/mm
D) 0.96 kJ/mm
39. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was changed from DC -ve to
AC?
A) None
B) Higher deposition rates
C) There would be more penetration or a slight decrease in deposition rate
D) The arc would become unstable
40. In a cross joint tensile test the following observations were made: Specimen width: 20mm, Material
thickness: 20mm, Max Load: 180kN, Break position: Parent Plate. What is the UTS?
A) 45 KN/ ㎟
B) 450 N/ ㎟
C) 39 KN/ ㎟
D) 39 N/ ㎟
41. In a transverse tensile test, if the break was in the weld metal, the sample would be:
A) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of the plate
B) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified welding consumable UTS but below
the minimum UTS of the parent material
C) Rejected
D) Retested
42. The ease in which materials can be welded together is termed?
A) Weldability
B) Jointability
C) Bonding
D) All of the above
43. Charpy impact tests showing a rough torn surface after the completed test would indicate which types of
failure?
A) Fatigue
B) Ductile
C) Fatigue to ductile
D) Brittle
44. One of the advantages of ultrasonic inspection in relation to radiographic testing is:
A) Access is generally only required from one side (surface) of the component being tested
B) The designated work area must be closed off by barriers, therefore safety is increased
C) Thin materials can be easily examined
D) A permanent image of the defect can be obtained
45. With which of the following NDE processes will BEST detect internal lack of side wall fusion on
a MAG(GMAW) weld.
A) Visual
B) Dye penetrant
C) Ultrasonic
D) Radiography
46. With the DPI method of inspection, after the contact time has elapsed the dye should be removed
by:
A) Spraying the surface with the remover till all dye has gone then wipe with a clean cloth
B) Spraying with the developer then wiping with a cloth
C) Wipe clean, using a lint free cloth soaked in a solvent remover
D) It doesn't matter how it is done as long as all traces of dye are removed
47. Which of the following would you not need to check in a welding consumable store?
A) The oven temperatures
B) Quarantined consumables
C) Calibration of the oven
D) The humidity
48. Prior to production welding commencing you notice that the drawing has been revised and now include a
pipe with a wall thickness of 30mm, your WPS only covers wall thickness of 28mm, what course of
action would you follow?
A) Continue with production welding as the difference is less than 10%
B) Apply for a concession to change the thickness to permit the welding on the 30mm wall thick pipe
C) Change the range on the WPS to 30mm and allow welding to commence
D) Allow welding to commence then apply for a concession
49. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on completion?
A) The contractor's inspector
B) Site manager
C) The welder
D) The client's inspector or certifying authority
50. Which one of these joints would be more susceptible to Lamellar tearing
A) U butt
B) Vee butt
C) Double butt
D) Compound weld
51. In general terms which of the following would require the highest preheat if all other factors were the
same as per ISO BS EN 1011?
A) MMA weld with cellulosic electrodes
B) MMA weld with rutile electrodes
C) MMA weld with basic electrodes
D) MAG weld with solid wire
52. Which of the following microstructures is critical to the likely formation of hydrogen cracks?
A) Austenite
B) Ferrite
C) Pearlite
D) Martensite
53. When examining a completed macro test, the recorded hardness figures were 5HV points over the
maximum permitted what would your course of action be?
A) Apply for a concession
B) Reject the whole procedure
C) Request a retest
D) Accept it as it is only just over the permitted value
A) % A is 40
B) % A is 60
C) % A is 30
D) % A is 36
55. Which of the following is a quantitative test:
A) Bend test
B) Macro
C) Tensile test
D) Radiography
56. What is a typical carbon equivalent for carbon manganese steel? (Sao Ce lại có đơn vị là %?)
A) 4%
B) 0.40%
C) 0.5%
D) 0.12%
57. During root welding, which of the following would be the main cause of lack of root penetration?
A) The root gap is too large in accordance with WPS
B) Preheat was not used
C) The current is too low
D) Root face is too small
58. At what level is the hardness value a problem when trying to minimise the risk of H2 cracking?
A) 270 to 290HV
B) 300 to 350HV
C) 100 to 150HV
D) 160 to 200HV
59. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a cross country pipeline be
important?
A) It is the most difficult area to weld
B) It is the dirtiest part of pipe as it is near the ground
C) Welders always forget to weld bottom
D) It is the most difficult area to radiograph
60. Weld decay may be minimized by adding elements called stabilisers. These may be:
A) Vanadium/ Titanium
B) Titanium/ Niobium
C) Niobium/ Vanadium
D) Vanadium/ Titanium/ Niobium
Technology Multiple Choice Exam 3
1. Would you consider using a 5mm electrode for vertical up root runs in a 6G (H-L045) fixed position
pipe?
A) Yes, it is compatible
B) Yes, but this would depend upon the welder skill.
C) No, it is not the most suitable electrode coating type.
D) No, the electrode should have been smaller in diameter.
2. A document that is established by consensus and approved by a recognized body and provides, for
common and repeated use, guidelines, rules, characteristics for activities or their results, aimed at the
achievement of the optimum degree of order in a given context is called:
A) Normative document
B) Regulation
C) Specification
D) Standard
3. Which of the following defects are not associated with the MMA(SMAW) welding process?
A) Isolated pores
B) Lack of fusion
C) Undercut
4. In SAW at higher currents or in the case multiple electrode systems, AC is often preferred to:
A) Avoid the problem of lack of fusion
B) Avoid the problem of excess penetration
C) Avoid the problem of arc blow
D) Avoid the problem of dilution
5. On some applications (i.e cladding operations) by SAW, DC electrode negative is needed to:
A) Reduce penetration and dilution
B) Increase penetration and dilution
C) Reduce penetration and increase dilution
D) Increase penetration and reduce dilution
6. What is the mode of metal transfer for the TIG (GTAW) welding process?
A) Spray transfer
B) Globular transfer
C) Dip transfer
D) None of the above.
7. What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC+ve to DC-ve?
A) None
B) Greater deposition rate
C) Greater penetration
D) Less deposition rate
8. You notice that a welder is using an unapproved WPS for production tack welding carbon steel, what
action would you take?
A) Have the tacks removed and MPI the weld preparation for cracking
B) Nothing as it is only tack welds and they will probably be removed anyway
C) Nothing as long as the WPS covered the material type, wall thickness and diameter
D) Give him the correct approved one and allow him to continue as long as the welding consumables
were the connect type
9. In welder qualification testing of 20mm plates, why are side bends used instead of root and face bends?
A) They are easier to produce
B) The testing equipment can not handle thick roor/face bends
C) Root defects are not important for welder qualification
D) They give more accurate indications.
10. Mechanical tests are divided in to two areas, identify these from the list below:
A) Destructive and non-destructive tests
B) Quantitative and qualitative.
C) Visual and mechanical
D) Quantitative and visual
11. While inspecting a weld on a 100mm thick high carbon steel plate with a tolerance of ±5mm you
notice the weld is visually acceptable, however the parent material has several arc strikes present
adjacent to the weld approximately 3mm deep, what course of action would you take?
A) None I am only inspecting the weld
B) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth
C) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth followed by MPI
D) High carbon steel is not susceptible to cracking so I would weld over the arc strikes then blend
them
12. When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was found to be 185˚. The
testing specification calls for the sample to have been formed through 180˚.
A) They should be acceptable as the standard refecs to minimum forming angle.
B) The bends should be considered as failed
C) New bends should be produced and bent to 180˚ then re-examined.
D) They should be rejected as the angle is not close enough to be acceptable.
13. In welder qualification testing of 45mm thick plates, why are side bends used instead of root and
face bends?
A) They are easier to produce
B) The testing equipment cannot handle thick root/face bends
C) Root defects are not important for welder qualification
D) They give more accurate indications
14. For the structure termed martensite to from in a C-Mn Steel it must first be heated to:
A) Just below its lower critical temperature and rapidly cooled.
B) A maximum temperature of 550˚C then rapidly cooled.
C) Above its upper critical temperature and slowly furnace cooled.
D) A full transformation to austenite than rapidly cooled.
15. A main element involved in solidification cracking is
A) Chrome
B) Molybdenum
C) Sulphur
D) Silica
16. Preheats are used on steel joints of high hardenability mainly to:
A) Slow the cooling rate of the steel.
B) Remove surface moisture from the joint.
C) Reduce the formation of surface oxides.
D) Increase the diffusion rate of hydrogen into the HAZ.
17. Weld decay will cause which of the following problems:
A) a reduced resistance to corrosion
B) a lower tensite strength
C) the toughness is reduced
D) the hardness will increase
18. Why is it essential to clean the surrounding parent metal adjacent to the weld metal made by MMA(SMAW)
which is to be ultrasonically tested?
A) Sound waves will not travel through paint
B) Remove any rust.
C) The spatter will impede the contact of the probe and the parent material surface.
D) Spatter will reflect the backwall echo signal and give spurious indications.
19. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before welding?
A) The welding consumables
B) The welder qualification
C) Calibration of the welding equipment
D) The workshop humidity
20. According to AWS A2.4, where does the symbol go for welding on the arrow side?
A) Below solid line
B) Above solid line
C) Depends on the joint
D) Always weld where the arrow is pointing
21. In depicting intermittent fillet welds, BS EN 22553 and AWS 2.4 differ in:
A) The way in which staggering is shown
B) The pitch distance definition
C) Both the above
22. Root and Face bends from an 8mm thick butt require testing. The specimens are cut to 20mm wide.
The code calls for a 4t bend. Which one of the following former should be selected for the testing.
A) 80mm redius
B) 80mm diameter
C) 32mm radius
D) 32mm diameter
23. One of the factors used to avoid HAZ hydrogen cracking is to reduce the influence of hydrogen by
checking the amount of moisture present in the shielding gas by means of the dew point temperature. The
dew point temperature should be:
A) above 5˚C
B) below -60˚C
C) below -30˚C
D) above 27˚C
24. Some codes require the excess weld metal (weld cap) on cross weld joint tensile specimens to be
flush this is because:
A) Flushed caps will always break in the weld metal area
B) This is to remove any porosity in the excess weld metal (weld cap)
C) It is easier to calculate the cross sectional area of the joint when flushed
D) Flushed caps have fewer stress raisers and therefore give a more accurate result
A) Iridium 192
B) Cobalt 60
C) Thulium 170
D) Ytterbium 169
26. Which one of these statements us true concerning solidification cracking?
A) Only occurs in MMA welding
B) Increased depth to width ratio will increase stress
C) Never occurs in MIG/MAG welding
D) All of the above
27. Is it always necessary to preheat the base material before welding?
A) Not on a sunny day
B) Only in accordance with the WPS
C) If the equipment is available it must be used
D) If using cellulosic rods these will provide enough heat
28. What does the term WPS mean?
A) Weld productivity specification
B) Weld production scheme
C) Welding procedure specifications
D) Work productivity standard
29. Cross sectional area dimensions are shown according to EN 22553:
A) To the left of the symbol
B) To the right of the symbol
C) Under the reference line
D) In the tall at the end of the symbol
30, You find several unacceptable welds and reject them, the welding supervisor resist they are acceptable, he
signs them off and requests NDT, what action would you take?
A) Nothing as he is a welding supervisor and knows a great deal about welding
B) Raise the issue with the QC department supervisor
C) It is not my problem as he has signed them off so I will not be blamed.
D) Look at the NDT results and if they look reasonable I would accept them.
31. How is preheat for tack welds during assembly and fit up determines?
A) By the welders as they have extensive knowledge
B) The fabrication specification/WPS will give the requirements
C) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
D) Any temperature will do as it is only a tack weld
32. During inspection of a fillet weld you notice slag in the toes of the weld, what action will you take?
A) As a fillet weld does not need to be strong slag will not be a problem
B) Measure the slag if it is less than 3mm it will not be a problem
C) Have the welder remove the slag as this could mask any discontinuities
D) Tell the welder to leave the slag in as it will add strength to the fillet weld
33. In a transverse WELD tensile test, if the break was in the Parent material, the sample would be:
A) Rejected
B) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of the plate
C) Retested
D) Acceptable if the UTS is between 80-90% of the specified UTS of the plate
34. Charpy testing is carried out on a welding procedure test plate because?
A) It give an indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z direction)
B) The impact test results can be used to verify that the material has not been adversely affected
by the heat of the welding
C) it give an indication of the materials elongation properties
D) It gives a quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualification tests.
35. When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was found to be 175˚. The
testing specification calls for the sample to have been formed through 180˚
A) The bends should be considered as failed
B) They should be bent to 180˚ then re-examined
C) They should be acceptable as the reduction in angle is due to material spring back
D) They should be rejected as the angle is not close to be acceptable
36. Which one of these elongation values would be more susceptible to lamellar tearing?
A) Greater than 20%
B) Less than 20%
C) 30% and above
D) They would all be susceptible
37. Lamellar tearing is a problem in steels which is always associated with
A) Sensitization in the HAZ
B) Low through thickness ductility
C) Hydrogen levels above 15ml/100g of weld metal
D) Rapid cooling from above the upper critical
38. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was changed from DC+ to AC
A) None
B) Lower deposition rate
C) It would be less penetration or a slight increase in deposition rate
D) The arc would become unstable
39. When reviewing a radiograph of a weld made by the MAG (GMAW) process, you notice white inclusion in
the weld, which of the following best describes this indication:
A) Tungsten inclusion
B) Spatter on the cap
C) Copper inclusion
D) It is most likely to be a film mark
40. What is the greatest disadvantage of radiographic inspection?
A) Its inability to size defects accurately
B) The physical size of the equipment
C) The skill level of the operators
D) The harmful effects of ionising radiation
41. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 90mm in thickness would the basic electrode any
A) None if they were in a vacuum pack
B) None if they were used in a factory
C) Heat 50 500˚C for 2 hours if used outside
42. With which of the following NDE processes is it possible to detect both surface and slight defects up to 2 mm
below the surface
A) al
B) Dye penetrant
C) Magnetic particle using DC
D) Magnetic particle using AC
43. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding electrode
used was a basic type. 5mm diameter. The measures welding parameters for one of the ???? was
220amps, 21 volts, using DC+ve polarity, and a ROL of 270mm per min. What would be the arc
energy?
A) Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
B) 1.54KJ/mm
C) 1.026KJ/mm
D) 2.82KJ/mm
44. When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?
A) 10-40V
B) 50-90V
C) 100-140V
D) 200-240V
45. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was changed from DC+ve
to AC
A) None
B) It would have been easier for the welder to strike the arc.
C) It would slightly increase the depth of penetration
D) It would give less penetration
46. You find out that the contractor has carried out radiography as per the 10% contractual percentage
required by the specification/Code. The specification also insists that an additional 2 welds are
rediographed for every weld that has failed. One of the pipe spools had an unacceptable defect which
the contractor has ignored and radiographed another weld in its place which is acceptable, what would
your course of action be?
A) As long as the other radiographed butt weld is acceptable its OK as the 10% contractual percentage
required by the specification/Code has been satisfied
B) This is usual practice as 10% NDT is not really important
C) Review the original failed weld and insist that they have the additional 2 welds radiographed
D) Review the original failed weld and have it repaired, radiographed, then I would insist that they
have an additional 2 welds radiographed
47. During post weld heat treatment what is the sequence for the PWHT chart?
A) Restricted heating rate, soak time, unrestricted cooling rate
B) Unrestricted heating rate, restricted heating rate, soak time, restricted cooling rate,
unrestricted coolding rate
C) Unresticted heating rate, soak time, resticted cooling rate
D) Restricted heating rate, unstricted heating rate, soak time, restricted cooling rate, unstricted cooling rate
48. Hydrogen induced cold cracking (HICC) is often referred to by other names that describe various
characteristics of hydrogen cracks, which one of the following would not be a correct term as applied
to HICC?
A) Cold cracking
B) Delayed cracking
C) Under-bead cracking
D) Stepped like cracking
49. Who has the responsibility of ensuring the welder is using the correct polarity during welding?
A) The welder and the welding inspector
B) Store man and the welder
C) Welding Engineer
D) The Q/A department
50. Is it permissible to allow a trainee welder to carry out production welding?
A) Never
B) Yes, as long as the supervisor is happy with his workmanship standard
C) Yes, as long as he has the approved qualification to cover the intended scope of work
D) Yes, as long as no NDT is required on the finished weld
51. Inspection for hydrogen cracking is often specified to be done between 48 to 72hrs after completed
the weld, this is because?
A) The stress level will have reduced by then
B) It is the maximum time it takes for all the H2 to diffuse out of the weld
C) Usually after 48hrs such cracking is unlikely to occur
D) It is to ensure the weld has properly cooed down to ambient temperature
52. Which of the following electrode types would produce the highest levels of hydrogen?
A) Basic electrode when baked correctly
B) Cellulose in a sealed tin
C) Rutile
D) Heavy rutile
53. At what level is H2 considered to be more critical in cracking?
A) Less than 5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
B) Between 5 and 10ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
C) Between 10 and 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
D) Over 15ml per 100g or weld metal deposited
54. What is a typical arc voltage setting when welding with the TIG (GTAW) process? A)
18-20V
B) 24-26V
C) 10-12V
D) 70-90V
55. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm Thick impact tested steel plate. The weld used was
a basic type, 5mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of 220amps, 24volts,
using DC+ve polarity, and a ROL of 180mm per min. What would be ????
A) Insufficient information given to calculate the Arc energy.
B) 1.9KJ/mm
C) 1.87KJ/mm
D) 2.0KJ/mm
56. Slag lines found in MMA welds are usually associated with:
A) The voltage being too low
B) The open circuit current being too high
C) Improper cleaning between weld runs
D) Low open circuit voltage
57. In a shop floor scenario you are faced with a problem of a consistent porosity in all the welds what
would be your course of action?
A) Check the consumable issue, handling procedures
B) Check the welding machine, set up and parameters
C) Check the welder
D) All of the above
58. Who determines what the correct weld preparation (root cap, root face, included angle) should be?
A) The welding engineer
B) The welding supervisor
C) The welder will decide
D) The inspector will recommend what is suitable
59. The temperature at which chromium carbides are formed in Austenitic stainless steel is approximately
between?
A) 350-550˚C
B) 600-850˚C
C) 800-1050˚C
D) 1050-1500˚C
60. Sensitisation is a term applied to the formation of which intermetallic compound at the grain boundaries in the
HAZ of austenitic stainless steels?
A) Chromium carbide
B) Titanium carbide
C) Nioblum Carbide
D) Molibdenum carbide.
Exam 4
1. What is meant by operating factor (O/F) in welding
A) The safety value given as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
B) The specific current at 60% and 100% in a given time i.e. 305A 60% and 300A 100%
C) The rate of weld progression
D) The arc time in hours divided by the total hours worked or the welding process is operated
2. Surface breaking solidification cracks can be detected by:

A) Radiography
B) Ultrasonic testing
C) Visual inspection
D) All the above
3. In TIG (pulsed) welding which parameters can be adjusted?

A) Pulse peak current
B) Pulse frequency
C) Pulse duration
D) All the above
4. In the MMA process the effect of polarity on welding may be described as:
A) Electrode positive (DCEP/DC+) results in an increase in the depth of the weld penetration
B) Electrode negative (DCEN/DC-) results in decreased depth of weld penetration
C) Electrode alternative (AC) results in the arc is equal.
D) All the above
5. Submerged arc welding is noted for its ability to employ high weld currents owing to the properties a
functions of the flux. Generally what polarity is used up to about 1000A?
A) AC
B) DC electrode negative
C) DC electrode positive & negative
D) DC electrode positive
6. What is the significance of OCV in MMA welding using a transformer?

A) There is no significance
B) It helps in arc initiation
C) It decides the current
D) It decides the depth of penetration
7. Regarding the operating factors (O/F) for MMA and MIG/MAG which one is correct?
A) MMA has a low O/F of approximately 30%
B) Manual semi-automatic MIG/MAG O/F is approximately 60%
C) Fully automated MIG/MAG O/F is I the region of 90%
D) All of above
8. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observations were made. The specimen
CSA was recorded as 25mm × 12mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as 150kN. What is the
UTS?
A) 50 kN/mm2
B) 5500 N/mm2
C) 500 N/mm2
D) 50 N/mm2
A) %A is 50
B) %A is 20
C) %A is 29
D) %A is 36
10. X-ray used in the industrial radiography of welds generally have photon energies in the range of:
A) 30keV up to 20MeV
B) 300kV up to 400kV
C) 3MeV up to 20MeV
D) 3kV up to 20kV
11. In which method may the grain size be an important factor?
A) Liquid penetrant testing
B) Magnetic particle testing
C) Ultrasonic testing
D) Radiographic testing
12. Which statement below best describes lateral expansion with respects to the increase in width of
back of the specimen behind the notch in an impact toughness test?
A) Non lateral expansion ductile fracture
B) The larger the value the less tough the specimen
C) The larger the value the tougher the specimen
D) High lateral expansion brittle fracture
13. In mechanical testing the term 'necking' is used when:

A) The elastic region is reached
B) When the pendulum strikes the sample
C) When the cross sectional area is reduced
D) When 180° is reached
14. How are the lengths of tack welds during assembly and fit up determined?
A) By the welders as they have extensive knowledge
B) The fabrication specification will give minimum tack length requirements
C) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
D) Any length of tack weld will do for assembly
15. Magnetic particle testing id applicable only to ferromagnetic materials which are at a temperature
below the.
A) curie point (about 950℃)
B) curie point (about 65 Deg. C)
C) curie point (about 150℃)
D) curie point (about 450℃)
16. A welder's qualification begins from the date of welding of the test piece. The European Standard
allows a qualification certificate to remain valid for a period of two years, provided that:
A) The welding co-ordinator or other responsible person can confirm that the welder has been working
within the initial range of qualification.
B) Working within the initial qualification range is confirmed every six months
C) Both A & B
D) Since they have passed the performance test, their certificate will be valid for 2 years and no more
assessment is required.
17. Which of the following could be used to minimise the occurrence of solidification cracks in steels
welds?
A) Increase sulphur levels to a minimum of 0.5%.
B) Reduce the dilution into the base metal.
C) Increase carbon content in the weld metal.
D) Reduce the manganese content in the weld metal.
18. In a heavy plate fabrication where S is residual @ 0.3%, which may cause problems in the welded
joint, additions of Mn may be added to prevent.
A) Laminations in the plate through thickness.
B) Stress corrosion cracks
C) Manganess sulphides (MnS)
D) Solidification cracking
19. A homogeneous welded joint is a:

A) Welded joint in which the weld metal and parent material have no significant differences in mechanical
properties and/or chemical composition.
B) Welded joint in which the weld metal and parent material have significant differences in mechanical
properties and/or chemical composition.
C) Welded joint in which the parent materials have significant differences in mechanical properties and/or
chemical composition.
D) Welded joint made without filler metal
20. The similarities between BS EN 22553 and AWS A2.4 in depicting welding symbols are:
A) Both have the same rule for depicting "weld all around"
B) Both have the same rule for depicting the "other side"
C) Both have the same rule for depicting "sequence of operations"
D) Both have the same method for depicting "welding processes"
21. Asymmetrical weld symbols to EN 22553 are:
A) The same both sides of the arrow
B) Different each side of the arrow
C) Show fillet welds only
D) Show butt welds only
22. The Welding Superintendent before welding has asked for UT examination (longitudinal wave) on a
100mm each side of the intended weld, what is the most probable reason for this?
A) To check the grain structure of the base material
B) To check for any side in the base material
C) To check the material has not been process hardened
D) To check for any laminations in the base material
23. With respect to preheat and inter-pass temperatures, which of the following is true?
A) Preheat is higher than the inter-pass temperature
B) Inter-pass temperature is higher than the preheat temperature
C) Inter-pass temperature is always the minimum
D) Preheat temperature is always the maximum
24. Lamellar tears in steel weldments may only be formed when:

A) Using deep penetration welding processes (high current density).
B) High levels of stresses act in the short transverse direction in the steel.
C) Martensite has formed in the weld HAZ.
D) Low melting point iron sulphide (FeS) has formed in the fusion zone.
25. Which test from below measures the material property known as 'fracture toughness':
A) CTOD test
B) Fillet weld fracture test
C) Impact test
D) Nick-break test
26. Usually liquid penetrant testing is applicable at a temperature range of approximately

A) 0℃ ~ 100℃
B) -5℃ ~ 90℃
C) -20℃ ~ 60℃
D) 5℃ ~ 60℃
27. After welding is completed the inspector would assess which of the following:
A) Weld contour
B) Weld width
C) Weld profile
D) All of the above
28. Who or what determines the necessity of a post weld heat treatment?
A) Senior welding inspector and WPS
B) Welding inspector and WPQR
C) Welding supervisor and PQT
D) Welding engineer and code requirements
29. According to EN 22553, if the symbol is on the identification line, where does the weld go?
A) On both sides
B) On the arrow side
C) Opposite arrow side
D) It dose not matter
30. On inspecting a completed 150mm OD pipe weld some small smooth, shallow areas of undercut have
been found < 0.25mm deep. The welder says he can quickly put this right by depositing a thin
narrow bead along the undercut. In this situation would you?
A) Agree to go ahead with no preheat as the weld is so small
B) Only allow the welder to cosmetically blend out the undercut providing the wall thickness remains
within the specification tolerances.
C) Agree to go ahead with a preheat 50℃ above original.
D) Cut out the joint and re-weld
31. Before welding components the welder's qualifications need to be checked, do those welders that
are going to weld temporary handling attachments also need to have taken performance qualification test?
A) No, if they will be removed
B) Yes, even if they will be removed
C) It depends on the material
D) Only those who will work on pressure parts need to take the test
32. Before and during welding in the cleaning stage which statements from below would you consider are
correct?
A) Only stainless steel brushes and tools shall be used on stainless steels
B) Only stainless steel brushes and tools shall be used on nickel and non-ferrous steels
C) Grinding discs containing sulphur (iron sulphite) shall not be used on stainless steels
D) All of the above
33. Before welding components the welder's qualifications need to be checked, does a tack welder also
need to do a performance qualification test?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only piping tack welders shall take the test
D) Only those working on pressure parts shall take the test
34. Lamellar tearing can be detected by which of the following NDE methods?
A) Radiography
B) Ultrasonic
C) Eddy current
D) MPI using AC
35. Of the following heat treatments which will be the most effective in reducing the chances of HAZ?
A) Stress relieving after 6 days
B) Post heating and stress relieving after one day
C) Post heating and immediate stress relieving
D) Post heating
36. HIC is usually delayed because:

A) There is a specific time gap between completion of welding and cracking
B) The diffusion of hydrogen atoms takes time to build pressure which leads to cracking
C) Formation of new phases takes time
D) The strength of the weld metal changes with time
37. GTAW water cooled torches should be used when the amperage exceeds:
A) 50A
B) 100A
C) 150A
D) 200A
38. Bend tests are used for which of the following?

A) To check tensile strength and fusion
B) To check yield strength and fusion
C) To check ductility and fusion
D) To check yield strength and ductility
39. In a transverse tensile test if the test piece breaks in the weld metal it is:
A) Rejected
B) Acceptable provided the calculated strength is not less than the minimum tensile strength specified
C) Acceptable
D) Acceptable provided the calculated strength is above 95% of the minimum base metal strength
40. The test method for assessing resistance to brittle fracture, by measuring the energy to initiate and
propagate a crack from a sharp notch in a standard sized specimen is called:
A) An impact toughness test
B) A transverse tensile test
C) A hardness test
D) An all-weld tensile test
41. By which of the following welding processes can autogenous welding NOT be achieved?
A) TIG
B) Plasma
C) Oxy-fuel gas welding
D) SAW
42. Which statement from below is NOT true concerning fracture tests?
A) It is a test method that can be used for welder qualification testing
B) It is a test method that can be used for welding procedure qualification
C) The quality/soundness of a fillet weld can be assessed
D) This method may be specified by application standards as an alternative to macroscopic examination.
43. To prevent excess weld metal in SMAW/SAW the polarity used should be:
A) DCEP
B) DCEN
C) AC
D) Polarity doesn't have any effect
44. Generally in brazing the melting point of the filler metal is above but always below the
melting temperature of the parent material.
A) 350˚C
B) 550˚C
C) 450˚C
D) 250˚C
45. What is duty cycle?

A) A productivity value given as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
B) A safety value as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
C) A quality value given as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
D) The percentage (%) of arc time in a time span
46. Weld decay occurs in which of the following steel types

A) Carbon/Manganese
B) Low Alloy
C) Any stainless steels
D) Austenitic stainless steels
47. During welding, you observe that the welder is weaving excessively high. What mechanical property is
moat likely to deteriorate because of this?
A) Percentage elongation
B) Impact properties
C) Chemical composition
D) All of the above
48. What is a hot pass?
A) The pass made before root pass
B) The pass made with higher preheat
C) The pass made in the final layers
D) The pass made immediately after the root pass
49. A number of changes and deviations have happened during the fabrication of a component, how will
they be indicated to every one for future reference?
A) By verbal communication
B) By written communication
C) By incorporating them in the 'as-built' drawings
D) No need to mention these changes to every one as they are insignificant
50. One way to reduce the chances of hydrogen cracking is by:

A) Using an E 7018 on a short arc length
B) Using an E 6010 electrode
C) Using an E 7018 on a long arc length
D) None of the above will reduce the chances of hydrogen cracking
51. In which material from below will hydrogen cracking not happen?
A) Carbon steel
B) Carbon Manganese Steel
C) Ferritic Steel
D) Nickel Alloys
52. Which grain structure from below is most susceptible to hydrogen cracking?
A) Ferrite
B) Bainite
C) Martensite
D) Pearlite
53. The width to depth ratio of the weld bead is generally naturally higher in which of the following
weld processes?
A) Plasma
B) Electron beam welding
C) MMA
D) GTAW
54. The welding technique in which the electrode points to the opposite direction of welding is called?
A) Forehand technique
B) Backhand technique
C) Back step sequence
D) Push technique
55. Productivity in the GTAW process can be increased by:
A) Hybrid welding
B) Using carbon dioxide gas mixtures with argon
C) Hot wire additions
D) All the above
56. One of the duties of the Visual/Welding inspector is to carry out materials inspection. Looking below
where/when may the inspector be required to carry out materials inspection:
A) At the plate or pipe mill
B) During fabrication or construction of the material
C) After installation of material, usually during a planned maintenance programme, outage or shutdown
D) All of above
57. You have notices several times that a certain welder is having his welds rejected due to profile,
what course of action would you take?
A) None
B) None as long as they pass the radiography
C) Dismiss the welder
D) Suggest a period of retraining followed by a requalification test
58. Which statement from below is NOT true concerning weld decay?
A) It is also known as inter-granular corrosion
B) It causes transverse cracking in the weld HAZ
C) It may occur in austenitic stainless steels
D) It is also known as knife line attack
59. Which of the following IS true?
A) If run out length reduce heat input decreases
B) If run out length increases heat input increases
C) If weaving is reduced heat input increases
60. Which of the following processes is most prone to solidification cracks?
A) MMA with basic coated electrodes.
B) MMA with rutile coated electrodes.
C) TIG
D) SAW
GENERAL PAPER (PART 1)
1. An MMA electrode which is classified as an E6013 (according to AWS 5.1) is a:

Basic type
Cellulose type
Rutile type
Thick coated iron powder type
2. Which polarity is normally used for GTAW welding of aluminum?

AC
DC electrode negative
DC electrode positive
It would make little difference which was used
3. A code gives the acceptance standard for excess weld metal “h” as h<=1mm+0.1b, max.
5mm; which “b” is the width of the weld cap. For which of the following situations is the excess
weld metal acceptable?
b = 15 h = 3.0
b = 22 h = 3.0
b = 28 h = 4.0
b = 40 h = 5.4
4. A fillet weld has a design throat thickness of 8mm. That is the minimum leg length that is
required?
5.6mm
11.2mm
11.8mm
It can not be determined from the information given
5. The number 111 is shown at the tall-end of a weld symbol reference line. According to BS
EN ISO 2553. What does this number indicate?
Welding process
Type of welding electrode
Welding position
Total weld length
6. Which of the following alloying elements is used mainly to improve the toughness of steels?
Chromium
Manganese
Sulphur
Carbon
7. When MIG/MAG welding, wire feed speed is proportional to:

Travel speed
Welding current
Arc length
Inductance
8. An electrode is classified to BS EN 499 as E 35 3 B. What does 35 ?

350 N/mm2 yield strength
35 Joules @-30degree C
35N/mm2 tensile strength
35ksi tensile strength
9. A large diameter pipe with a wall thickness of 10mm is to be used for a cross country
pipeline. Which electrode type could be used to combine high welding speed and deep
penetration?
Basic covered
Cellulosic covered
Rutile covered
Iron power loaded
10. Which NDT method is associated with the use of a yoke?

Radiographic testing
Helium leak testing
Magnetic particle testing
Ultrasonic testing
11. A transverse tensile test piece from a weld joint will give the:
Tensile strength of the weld
Tensile strength of the joint
Stress/strain characteristics of the weld
Stress/strain characteristic of the joint
12. Weldments in carbon-manganese steels, made by low heat input welding may shown
Greater ductility
Higher distortion
Higher dilution
Higher hardness
13. When measuring arc length voltage, where should be measure at

Across the terminals of the power source
Across the arc and as near practical to the arc
Across the power source positive terminal and earth cable
It does not matter – anywhere in the circuit
14. A drawing with symbols to ISO 2553 will show a 5mm leg fillet by which of the following:
a5
t5
z5
5z
15. Using a stabilized stainless steel will reduce the risk of:
Excessive distortion
Weld decay
Formation of iron-sulphides
Sour service cracking
16. Standard oxy-fuel gas cutting equipment can be applied to:

Aluminum alloys
Carbon steel
Austenitic stainless steel
Copper
17. Which of the following types of imperfection is generally considered to be the most
serious?
Surface breaking planar
Root concavity
Buried planar
Surface breaking non-planar
18. Weldment in carbon-manganese steels, made using a heat input higher than the maximum
specified by the WPS, may show:
Higher integrity
Lower distortion
Lower toughness
Higher hardness
19. The output characteristic of typical GMAW set is

Constant voltage
Constant current
Drooping
Pulsing
20. Which of the following standards is concerned with welder approval?

BS EN 499
BS EN 288
BS EN 22553
BS EN ISO 9606
21. A long centerline crack has been detected in a submerged arc weld bead this may be due
to
Use of a high manganese filler wire
Use of a damp flux
Weld bead is deep and narrow
Use of too high voltage
22. A steel designated as “Z” quality will have:

Through-thickness ductility values > 20%
Through- thickness ductility values <20%
Been specially heat treated
Zirconium added to improve weldability
23. The penetrating power of an X-ray set is expressed in:

Curies
kV
IQI values
The number after the isotope type
24. The included angle used for MMA welding of a 15mm thick steel single V butt joint is most
likely to be:
35 Deg.
120 Deg.
70 Deg.
90 Deg.
25. Which of the following is not a fusion welding process?

Friction welding
Gas tungsten arc welding
Resistance welding
Laser welding
26. A typical baking temperature for basic low hydrogen electrodes is:
120 Deg. C.
350 Deg. C.
500 Deg. C.
200 Deg. C.
27. Burn through may occur because the:

Current is too high.
Root gap is too small.
Root face is too small.
Current is too low.
28. Which of the following defects will have the more severe effect on the load-bearing
capacity of a weld?
Undercut.
Incompletely filled groove.
Irregular width.
Excess penetration.
29. While inspecting a weld on a 100mm thick high carbon steel plate with a … the weld is
visually acceptable, however the parent material has severse … the weld approximately 3mm
deep, what course of action would you …
None, I am only inspecting the weld.
Recommend that the area be dressed smooth.
Recommend that the area be dressed smooth followed by MPI.
High carbon steel is not susceptible to cracking so I would weld over …
30. Which of these statements are true concerning Lamellar tearing?

As hydrogen levels increase lamellar tearing is more likely.
As material thickness increases ductility decreases making Lamellar tearing more likely.
Lamellar tearing occurs in the HAZ.
Lamellar tearing affects all joint types.
Technical
1. Any symbol placed on the reference line to EN 22553, ….. the joint is …. Completed where?
a. Other side
b. Arrow side
c. Both side
d. Depends on the joint type
2. Tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding

a. General requires protection against contamination via a …. Flux
b. General uses a consumable electrode
c. Can be used on both DC and AC current for all material types
d. Is not normally used for welding 316L steel.
3. The preheat temperature is:

a. The temperature above which welding can not be done.
b. The temperature below which welding can be done
c. The minimum temperature above which welding can be done
d. None of the above
4. During welding, you observe that the welder is weaving exceed …. properly is most likely to deteriorate
because of this?
a. Percentage elongation
b. Impact property
c. Chemical composition
d. All of the above
5. In which position would weaving most likely be done?

a. PC
b. PB
c. PF (lowest heat input)
d. PD
5. As a general rule, as the tensile strength increase?

a. Ductility increase
b. Ductility reduces
c. No change in ductility
d. Elongation increases.
7. Are welders permitted to adjust the welding current during the welding operation?
a. Yes current selection is up to the welder if the welder is qualified
b. No current selection is up to the welding operations
c. No the current must never be alternated
9. Transition range
a. Is the point between yield and UTS
b. Is the range between the lowest interpass temperature and highest interpass temperature where welding
can take place.
c. Is a range plot in Charpy impact testing.
d. Is the range curve for hardness testing.
10. Joules are used as the unit of measurement

a. For arc force in MMA welding
b. Energy absorbed during impact testing
c. Energy used break a charpy specimen
d. The force applied to a bend specimen
11. Highest hydrogen levels would be found in?

a. A weld carried out with an E6013 electrode.
b. A weld carried out with an E6011 electrode.
c. A weld carried out with an E8018 electrode.
d. A weld carried out with an E43 1Ni 2 RR electrode.
12. Preheating
a. Is always carried out around 200 deg C
b. Not greater than 50 deg. C
c. Is not generally required on medium carbon steels.
d. Delays cooling and improves fusion.
13. Bend tests

a. Require complex testing equipment.
b. May be used for the purpose of welding approval.
c. May be used for the purpose of welding procedure approval.
d. Both b and c.
18. Interpass temperature

a. Exceeding the maximum interpass temperature
19. Weld decay

a. Is caused by excessive amount of iron in the material
b. Can be minimized by specifying steel with lower carbon levels
c. Can be minimized by specifying with lower amounts of sulphur
d. Both a and b
24. Lamellar tearing is most suitable in:

a. Highly resistance full penetration T joint, Z classified material
b. Highly resistance full penetration double V butts on thick section plates
c. Highly resistance compound joints
d. both a and c.
25. Preheating
a. Increase weld zone yield strength and remove moisture.
b. Increase weld zone toughness and remove hydrogen.
c. Reduce weld zone UTS value and remove hydrogen.
d. None of the above.
26. TIG welding

a. Zirconiated electrodes are generally used for the welding of Aluminium.
b. Zirconiated electrodes are generally used for the welding of Aluminium on DC- current only.
c. Zirconiated electrodes are to be used on all weldable material except the high alloy.
d. Zirconiated electrodes are regularly used on all weldable materials.
27. NDT
a. Prods are associated with the MPI methods
b. Prods are associated with the UT methods
c. Prods are not associated with any NDT methods
d. Prods are commonly used for the inspection of welds.
28. Arc strikes
a. Can lead to hard and brittle spots
b. Can cause a reduction in area
c. May lead to cracking
d. All of above
30. During welding you observe excess spatter.

a. wrong polarity
b. Damp electrodes
c. High current
d. All of the above
31. Which of the following detects are not associated with the SAW process?
a. Centreline cracking
b. Chevron cracking
c. Copper inclusion
d. Tungsten inclusions
32. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of country pipe?
a. It is the most difficult area to weld
b. It is the difficult part of the pipe as it is near the ground
c. Welder always forget to weld the bottom
d. It is the most difficult area to radiograph
33. Weld sensitisation will cause which of the following problems?

a. A reduced resistance to corrosion
b. A lower tensile strength
c. Reduced toughness
d. Increase hardness
37. Solidification cracking in carbon steel can be prevented by?

a. Reducing the level of carbon in the weld metal
b. Using heavy tacks and restraints during welding
c. Doing a PWHT
39. Stabilisation of austenitic stainless steel mean:

a. Heat treatment the stainless steel at annealing temperature.
b. Adding Titanium and Niobium
c. To increase Ni in the compositions
40. What are the different between BS EN 2553 and AWS A2.4 in depositing welding symbols?
a. Both have same rule for depositing weld all around
b. Both have same rule for depositing weld the other side
c. Both have same rule for depositing sequence of operation
d. Both have same rule for depositing welding processes
41. In weldability of carbon steel which of the following statement is true?

a. Joint configuration influences weldability
b. Increasing carbon content makes welding easier
c. Thicker plates can be welded easier than thinner plates
d. Both a and c
43. When marking a symbol for a symmetrical weld (EN 22553)
a. The weld size not be mentioned
b. The length can be mentioned to the left of the symbol
c. The finish is associated with flat
d. The broken line can be omitted
44. Which the following is true?

a. Plug weld are in T joints
b. Spot weld are in edge joints
c. Fillet weld are in corner joints
d. Edge weld are in lap joints
45. Clustered porosity joint internally in the body ò an MMA weld is usually associated with?
a. Poor interrun pass cleaning
b. The open circuit current being to high
c. Poor stop start technique or damaged electrode coating
d. Low open circuit voltage
46. As the carbon percentage increase in plain carbon steel, which of the following is true?
a. Tensile strength decreases
b. Yield strength is not affected
c. Toughness decreases
d. Hardness decreases
47. Which of the following electrode type weld produce the lowest levels hydrogen?
a. Cellulose coated electrode sealed in a tin immediately after manufacture
b. Basic coated electrodes when baked correct immediately prior to use
c. Rutile coated electrodes when dried at 100 deg. C prior to use
d. Heavy rutile coated electrodes when dried at 180 deg. C for 2 hours prior to use
48. FCAW welding with active gas

a. 131
b. 135
c. 136
d. 137
GENERAL
1. According to AWS A5.1 an iron powder electrode has which of the following designations?
a. E6013
b. E7018
c. E7024
d. E6010
2. The main reason for qualifying a welding procedure is to ensure the:

a. Weld contains no defects.
b. Joint has correct mechanical properties.
c. Weld has a good appearance.
d. Welding process is correct.
3. MMA electrodes showing a light coating of rust on the core wire, should be?
a. Wire brushed to remove the rust.
b. Baked according to manufacturer’s instructions
c. Be placed in quarantine.
d. Solvent cleaned.
4. One purpose of the slope-in control in TIG welding is to:

a. Aid fusion
b. Avoid start
c. Prevent them
d. Stabilise the arc
5. During PWHT it is important to control rate of heating and cooling in C-Mn steel.
a. Ensure the surface does not oxidise
b. Solution the grain structure
c. Minimise distortion
d. Reduce surface pressure
6. Which method of inspection is used to detect buried planar defect in the…

a. Radiography
b. Fluorescent penetration detection.
c. MPI
d. UT
7. The main objective of fillet fracture tests is to:

a. Access penetration and fusion
b. Access fracture toughness.
c. Access hardness values
d. Access stop start porosity levels.
8. The most common type of service failure caused by overloading is:

a. Stress corrosion.
b. Fatigue.
c. Ductile.
d. Brittle.
9. In MMA electrode with a part of the flux coating missing, is most likely … which of the following
imperfections:
a. Slag inclusion
b. Cluster porosity
c. Underfill
d. Lack of penetration
10. Which of the following material is most susceptible to hydrogen cracking?

a. Aluminium
b. 316
c. C-Mn steel
d. HSLA
11. Which of the following units is used in hardness testing?

a. Newton mm
b. Vickers
c. Joules
d. MPA
12. Which of the following is added to steel for grain refinement?
a. Aluminium
b. Silicon
c. Carbon
d. Manganese
13. Overlap at the toe of butt weld using process 135, may be caused by
a. Voltage and current balanced
b. The dropping characteristic
c. The current being too low
d. Current too high
(Note: increase current, increase burn off electrode, decrease arc voltage, make narrow bead and high
profile)
14. Arc strike are often problem on fabrication because of they can:
a. Increase toughness
b. Form hard spots
c. Cause problem with coating
d. Lower hardness
15. In accordance with BS EN ISO 13916 the recommended positions for checking preheat and preheat
maintenance temperature on a butt weld less than 50 mm thick is?
a. 75 mm from the bevel angle on both sides of joint
b. 150 mm from the bevel angle on both sides of joint
c. 50 mm from the bevel angle on both sides of joint
d. 20 mm from the bevel angle on both sides of joint
16. In MMA welding, arc length is controlled by the:

a. Main voltage.
b. OCV.
c. Constant voltage power source
d. Length of the arc.
16. Weld decay

a. Can be prevented by using Titanium backing bar
b. Only happens in martensite stainless steel
c. Is a result of Niobium carbide formation
d. Is a result of Chromium Carbide formation
17. Which of the following statements is true?

a. DC can only be used on SAW.
b. AC and DC can be used for welding with SAW.
c. DC is only used for MMA welding.
d. AC is only used for TIG only.
18. When doing visual inspection a weld the following is most likely be required?
a. Access to the ITPs
b. Access to the PQRs
c. Access to the QA manual.
d. Access to NDT reports.
18. Cathodic cleaning is used to remove?

a. Sign weaves
b. Oxides
c. Surface inclusions
d. Low melting point compounds
19. Which weld symbol is corrected to BS EN 22553 for a 7mm leg length fillet weld?
a. z7
b. 7z
c. s7
d. 7a
19. When TG welding the methods of initiation could be?

a. Lift arc
b. High frequency
c. Constant
d. Both a and b
20. As the Kv energy of an X-ray set is increased the:

a. Penetrating power will increase.
b. Image quality will be higher
c. More exposure time will be needed
d. Weave length of the energy will be longer
21. Which type of MMA electrode give deepest penetration

a. Iron power DC-
b. Rutile AC
c. Cellulose DC-
d. Cellulose DC+
22. What does the high frequency do in TIG welding?

a. Control the current
b. Help tungsten contaminations
c. Creates arc initiation
d. Improve the duty cycle
23. Ultraviolet and infrared radiation, produced during arc welding may:
a. Improve penetration in MIG welding
b. Cause arc eye
c. Improve arc control in TIG welding
d. Affects the mode of metal transfer.
24. Which of the following types of destructive test is sometimes used for welder qualification testing?
a. Fillet fracture test.
b. CTOD test.
c. Hardness test
d. Impact test
25. An underfilled groove is also known as:

a. Excess penetration ….
b. Lack of penetration…
c. Lack of weld…
d. Incomplete filled…
26. The directions of shrinkage on a welded joint are:

a. Transverse and diagonal
b. Transverse, short transverse and longitudinal
c. Transverse, short diagonal and longitudinal
d. Angular, diagonal and transgranular.
27. The term MAP relates to which of the following NDT processes?
a. Ultrasonic
b. Magnetic particle
c. Radiography
d. Fluorescent particle
28. MIG/MAG welding has a tendency to give lack of sidewall fusion when using?
a. Dip transfer
b. Globular transfer
c. Pulse transfer
d. Spray transfer
29. A weld joint between two dissimilar material types is known as a:

a. Transition weld
b. Misalignment weld
c. Asymmetrical joint
d. Compound weld
30. Which one of these mechanical tests is classified as quantitative?

a. Fracture
b. Tensile
c. Bend
d. Nick break

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TECHNOLOGY PAPERS

1. Who should have access to the WPS?

4. Is it always necessary to preheat the base material before welding?

5. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before welding?

6. What does the term WPS mean?

8. Who is responsibilities for site safety?

9. Is it permissible to allow welding to be carried out in bad weather?

11. When would you measure the interpass temperature?

16. Why is the OCV capped at the voltage setting?

17. What information should be recorded as a minimum, on completed production weld?

18. What is meant by the term PWHT?

33. When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?

45. Half life is a term used to describe

46. What is the greatest disadvantage of radiographic inspection?

48. For ultrasonic testing, which of the following statements is true?

51. At what level is H2 considered to be more critical in cracking?

58. With regards to Lamellar tearing, a buttering layer will:

3. Which of the following joint designs is preferred in cyclic loading condition?

View A View B View C View D

2. Which of the following processes uses a flat characteristic?

6. Which of the following is NOT a quantitative test?

16. Weld decay can be minimised specifying a steel with:

20. Asymmetrical weld symbols to EN 22553 are:

21. What information should be recorded as a minimum on a completed production weld?

22. A 'weld all around' symbol is not required when:

2. Surface breaking solidification cracks can be detected by:

3. In TIG (pulsed) welding which parameters can be adjusted?

6. What is the significance of OCV in MMA welding using a transformer?

13. In mechanical testing the term 'necking' is used when:

19. A homogeneous welded joint is a:

24. Lamellar tears in steel weldments may only be formed when:

26. Usually liquid penetrant testing is applicable at a temperature range of approximately

36. HIC is usually delayed because:

38. Bend tests are used for which of the following?

45. What is duty cycle?

46. Weld decay occurs in which of the following steel types

50. One way to reduce the chances of hydrogen cracking is by:

1. An MMA electrode which is classified as an E6013 (according to AWS 5.1) is a:

2. Which polarity is normally used for GTAW welding of aluminum?

7. When MIG/MAG welding, wire feed speed is proportional to:

8. An electrode is classified to BS EN 499 as E 35 3 B. What does 35 ?

10. Which NDT method is associated with the use of a yoke?

13. When measuring arc length voltage, where should be measure at

16. Standard oxy-fuel gas cutting equipment can be applied to:

19. The output characteristic of typical GMAW set is

20. Which of the following standards is concerned with welder approval?

22. A steel designated as “Z” quality will have:

23. The penetrating power of an X-ray set is expressed in:

25. Which of the following is not a fusion welding process?

27. Burn through may occur because the:

30. Which of these statements are true concerning Lamellar tearing?

2. Tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding

3. The preheat temperature is:

5. In which position would weaving most likely be done?

5. As a general rule, as the tensile strength increase?

10. Joules are used as the unit of measurement

11. Highest hydrogen levels would be found in?

13. Bend tests

18. Interpass temperature

19. Weld decay

24. Lamellar tearing is most suitable in:

26. TIG welding

30. During welding you observe excess spatter.