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UNIVERYSITY OF LANGUES AND INTERNATIONAL STUDIES

FACULTY OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEACHER EDUCATION

SYLLABUS DESIGN
FINAL SUBMISSION
Group 4
Tran Ho Quoc Khanh
Nguyen Thi Thu Huyen
Nguyen Thi Tinh
Bui Mai Thuong
Nguyen Ngoc Tram
Tran Thi Hai Yen

May 5, 2016

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Table of Contents
Part A: The syllabus 1
1. Lecturer/Teacher 2
2. Course summary 2
3. Course objectives 2
4. Course materials 2
5. Course description 3
6. Course policy 5
7. Timeline for assignment and submission 5
8. Test description 6
Marking rubrics for writing task 7
Part B: Related documents 9
Questionaire 10
Interpretation of questionaire results 14
Materials evaluation 18
Sample final test 21

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PART A: THE SYLLABUS

1
1.Lecturer / teacher:
- Mr. Nguyen Van A
- Lecturer of ULIS - experienced in teaching techniques of doing VSTEP test (3C, 4C)
- 8.0 IELTS – 112 TOEFL
Email: anguyen.ulis@gmail.com – Contact number: 0912345678
2. Course summary:
- Course duration: 2.5 months (2 hours/lesson. 2 lesson/week)
- Main content covered in the course: Reading and writing.
- Students are required to have:
+ Level of English: A2-B1 (Students have passed General English 1, 2, 3 in 3 semesters)
+ Age: 3rd year and 4th year students.
+ Needs: Pass the VSTEP B1 test
3. Course objectives:
By the end of the course, students will be able to:
 acknowledge structures and language of each type of exercise.
 improve the quality and quantity of writing Ss produce under time pressure.
 improve VSTEP test-taking skills and strategies in each section of the test.
 feel familiar with and more comfortable with test situations.
 understand the scoring procedures for the exam so that you can interpret your own test scores.
4. Course materials:
- Core materials:
Broukal, M. (1994). The Heinle & Heinle Toefl Test Assistant: Reading. Heinle
Dyczok, H. (2006). Building Reading Skills.
Evans, V. & Gray, E. (2000). Successful Writing - Intermediate. Express Publishing UK Ltd
Kim, Y. (2014). The Best Preparation for IELTS Writing by Young Kim. Young Kim.
- Supplementary materials:
Arco, T. (2006).Peterson’s Master TOEFL Reading Skills. Arco.
Charle, J. (2008). Ielts Write Right. Jiatao University Press.
Gallagher, N. (2005).Delta's Key to the Next Generation TOEFL Test. Delta Publishing
Company.
Xia, W. (2012). 15 Days practice for ielts writing.
Zemach, D. & Rumisek, L. A. (2005). Academic Writing from Paragraph to Essay. Macmillan.

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5. Course description

Session Main content In-class material Take-home


assignments
1  Diagnostic test Introduction to VSTEP Read the materials and
 Ice-breaking Book prepare for the next
 Introduce the main contents of the course and schedule session.
 Set the rules of the course
2  Introduce the structure of VSTEP writing paper Evan & Gray (2000), pp. Exercise 6, 7 (p.19)
Week 1

 Understanding the marking scheme (Task Response, 16-19


Coherence and Cohesion, Lexical Resource and
Grammatical Range and Accuracy)
 Letter writing
 Outline of a letter
 Opening and closing
 Purpose statement
1  Introduce the structure of VSTEP reading paper Broukal (1994) pp. 37 – 42 Exercise 1-3 (p.33-35)
 Reading for main ideas Peterson’s Master
 How to recognize main ideas TOEFL Reading
Week 2

 Tips for main ideas Skills


 Practice
2  Informal letter Evan & Gray (2000), pp. Exercise 17- 18 (p 25)
20 – 25 Successful Writing –
Intermediate
1  Reading for specific details Broukal (1994) pp. 3 – 8 Exercise 6 (p.47)
 How to recognize specific details Peterson’s Master
 Tips for specific details TOEFL Reading
Week 3

 Practice Skills
2  Formal letter Evan & Gray (2000), pp. Exercise 18 (p 35)
26 – 35 Successful Writing -
Intermediate
Week 4

1  Reading for negative details Dyczok (2006) pp. 71 Quiz 1 p.50 Delta's
 How to recognize negative details Key to the Next
Generation TOEFL
3
 Tips for negative details Test
 Practice
2  Mid-term test
1  Reading for pronoun referent Dyczok (2006) pp. 45 – 49 Quiz 2 p.54 Delta's
 How to recognize pronoun referent Key to the Next
 Tips for pronoun referent Generation TOEFL
 Practice Test
Week 5

2  Overview of task 2 Xia, W (2012) pp. 91-98 Exercise 6 p. 19.


 General requirements of the task Zemach, D. &Rumisek, L. Academic writing
 Types of essays A. (2005) pp. 11-24 from paragraph to
 Paragraph writing essay.
 Structure of a paragraph
 Developing a paragraph
1  Reading for inference Dyczok (2006) pp. 30 – 34 Quiz 5&6 p.116,119
 How to recognize inference Delta's Key to the
 Tips for inference Next Generation
Week 6

 Practice TOEFL Test


2  Essay writing: Zemach, D. & Rumisek, L. Exercise 14 (p 24)
 Structure of an essay A. (2005) pp. 56-77 Academic Writing
 Outlining an essay from Paragraph to
 Introduction and conclusion Essay
1  Vocabulary in context Dyczok (2006) pp. 1 – 6 Quiz 3&4 p.81,84
 How to recognize vocabulary in context Delta's Key to the
 Tips for vocabulary in context Next Generation
Week 7

 Practice TOEFL Test


2  Agree or disagree essay Kim, Y. (2014) pp. 137- Exercise 12 (p 152)
152 The Best Preparation
for IELTS Writing by
Young Kim

Week 8

1 Paraphrasing Dyczok (2006) pp. 50 – 53 Quiz 7&8 p.149,154


 How to recognize paraphrasing Delta's Key to the
 Tips for paraphrasing Next Generation
 Practice TOEFL Test

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2  Advantages and disadvantages essay Kim, Y. (2014) pp. 153- Exercise 15 (p 170)
170 The Best Preparation
for IELTS Writing by
Young Kim
 Organization (Coherence) Dyczok (2006) pp. 65 – 66 Quiz 9&10 p.188,192
 How to recognize coherence Delta's Key to the
 Tips for coherence Next Generation
Week 9

 Practice TOEFL Test


 To what extent essay Kim, Y. (2014) pp. 171- Exercise 13 (p 188)
188 The Best Preparation
for IELTS Writing by
Young Kim
1  Opinions essay Kim, Y. (2014) pp. 189- Exercise 15- 16 (p
207 207)
Week 10

The Best Preparation


for IELTS Writing by
Young Kim
2  Final test

6. Course policy
 Students are required to fully and actively participate in the lessions, prepare and finish home assignment and continous assessment
tasks as stated in the course guide and by the teachers.
 Students and teahers are to attend the class on time.

7. Timeline for assignment and submission


Assignments and assessment Time
Diagnostic test Session 1.1
Progress test Session 4.2
Final test Session 10.2
Weekly writing task Session 2 of week 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 9 and
session 10.a

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8. Instrument’s description

Format of the Reading Writing


VSTEP test
Time 60 minutes 60 minutes
Number of 4 reading passages: 40 multiple 2 writing tasks
questions questions
Tasks Ss read 4 passages about different Task 1: write a leter/email about 120
issues from 1900-2050 words. They words.
have to circle the correct answer for Task 2: write an essay about 250
each question. words.
The first reading passage is about
everyday life with approximately 450
words including 10 questions to assess
B1-B2 reading skill
The second reading passage is about
natural science or social science
approximately 450 words including 10
questions to assess B1-C1 reading skill.
The third reading passage is about
natural science or other specific fields
with approximately 450 words
including 10 questions to assess B1-C1
reading skill.
The fourth reading passage is about
specific subjects or literature with
approximately 550 words including 10
questions to assess B1-C2 reading skill.
Purposes Assess Ss’s reading skills with Assess Ss’s ability of writing
different level of difficulties (B1-C1): interactively and productively.
reading for main ideas, reading for
specific details, reading for negative
details, reading for inference, reading
for pronoun referent, vocabulary in
context, paraphrasing...

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Marking rubrics for writing task
Grammatical range and
Score Task achievement Coherence and cohesion Lexical resource
accuracy
• Uses a wide range of
• Fully satisfies all the • Uses cohesion in such a way • Uses a wide range of
vocabulary with very natural
requirements of the task that it attracts no attention • structures with full flexibility
10 and sophisticated control of
• Clearly presents a fully Skilfully manages and accuracy; rare minor errors
lexical features; rare minor
developed response paragraphing occur only as ‘slips’
errors occur only as ‘slips’
9 Shared criteria between band 8 and 10
• Covers the requirements of • Uses a sufficient range of
the task Logically organises vocabulary to allow some • Uses a variety of complex
• Presents a clear purpose, with information and ideas; there is flexibility and precision structures
the tone consistent and clear progression throughout • Uses less common lexical • Produces frequent error-free
8 appropriate • Uses a range of cohesive items with some awareness of sentences
• Clearly presents and devices appropriately although style and collocation • Has good control of grammar
highlights key features / bullet there may be some • May produce occasional and punctuation but may make
points but could be more fully under-/over-use errors in word choice, spelling a few errors
extended and/or word formation
7 Shared criteria between band 6 and 8
• Generally addresses the task;
the format may be • Presents information with • Uses only a limited range of
inappropriate in places some organisation but there • Uses a limited range of structures
• (General training) may may be a lack of overall vocabulary, but this is • Attempts complex sentences
present a purpose for the letter progression minimally adequate for the but these tend to be less
that is unclear at times; the • Makes inadequate, inaccurate task accurate than simple sentences
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tone may be variable and or over-use of cohesive • May make noticeable errors • May make frequent
sometimes inappropriate devices in spelling and/or word grammatical errors and
• Presents, but inadequately • May be repetitive because of formation that may cause some punctuation may be faulty;
covers, key features / bullet lack of referencing and difficulty for the reader errors can cause some
points; there may be a substitution difficulty for the reader
tendency to focus on details

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5 Shared criteria between band 4 and 6
• Fails to address the task, • Does not organise ideas • Uses only a very limited
which may have been logically range of words and • Attempts sentence forms but
completely misunderstood • May use a very limited range expressions with very limited errors in grammar and
4
• Presents limited ideas which of cohesive devices, and those control of word formation punctuation predominate and
may be largely irrelevant/ used may not indicate a logical and/or spelling; errors may distort the meaning
repetitive relationship between ideas severely distort the message
3 Shared criteria between band 2 and 4
• Uses an extremely limited
• Answer is barely related to • Has very little control of range of vocabulary; • Cannot use sentence forms
2
the task organisational features essentially no control of word except in memorised phrases
formation and/or spelling
• Answer is completely • Fails to communicate any • Can only use a few isolated • Cannot use sentence forms at
1
unrelated to the task message words all
• Does not attend
0
• Does not attempt the task in any way
• Writes a totally memorised response

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PART B: APPENDICES

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NEEDS ANALYSIS QUESTIONNAIRE FOR VSTEP B1 COURSE
Subject: Students in VNU who do not major in English.

The purpose of this questionnaire is to fully understand learners' needs on the course of Developing
Reading and Writing skills for B1 VSTEP test. Please truly take time to fill in all the questions. Your
information will be strictly kept confidential.

Name:…………………………………………Age:………
School:……………………………………………………..
Phone number:……………………………………………..
Email address:……………………………………………..

1. Have you ever taken the VSTEP test?


 Yes
 No
If yes, what score did you get in that test? ____

2. What is your main reasons for taking the VSTEP test?


 To graduate from university.
 To get a job.
 To communicate.
 To get further education
 To teach English
 Other:..............................(Please specify)

3. How do you evaluate your interests in learning English? Circle the number that shows your
opinion.
1 2 3 4 5
Very low Very high

4. On a scale from very easy to very difficult, how would you rate the following question types?
Choose the number that shows your opinion.

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Reading Very Difficult Neutral Easy Very easy
difficult

Main ideas/Gist 1 2 3 4 5
Facts/Details 1 2 3 4 5

Negative facts/details 1 2 3 4 5

Reference 1 2 3 4 5

Vocabulary 1 2 3 4 5

Inference 1 2 3 4 5

Purpose 1 2 3 4 5

Paraphrase 1 2 3 4 5
Coherence 1 2 3 4 5
Summarizing 1 2 3 4 5
Categorizing 1 2 3 4 5
Others (Please specify: 1 2 3 4 5
……………………………
…………………..)

Writing Very Difficult Neutral Easy Very easy


difficult

Informal letter to a friend/a 1 2 3 4 5


family member v…v…

Formal letter to a stranger 1 2 3 4 5


person or an official

Argumentative essay 1 2 3 4 5

Both sides (discussive) 1 2 3 4 5

Problems and solutions 1 2 3 4 5

Causes and solutions 1 2 3 4 5


Effects and solutions 1 2 3 4 5
Others (Please specify: 1 2 3 4 5
……………………………
….)

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5. What are your difficulties in practicing reading and writing English? Mark the number that
shows the frequency in encoutering these difficulties.
No Difficulties Never Rarely Sometimes Ofte Always
n
Reading
1 Too many new words 1 2 3 4 5
2 Missing key words 1 2 3 4 5
3 Length of text 1 2 3 4 5
4 Time restriction 1 2 3 4 5
Writing
4 Grammar mistakes 1 2 3 4 5
5 Sentence error 1 2 3 4 5
6 Lack of ideas 1 2 3 4 5
7 Poor idea organization 1 2 3 4 5
8 Lack of linking words 1 2 3 4 5
9 Lack of vocabulary 1 2 3 4 5
10 Inappropriate word choice 1 2 3 4 5
11 Unfulfillment of the task 1 2 3 4 5

6. Which of the following teaching ways are you used to? You can choose more than one option.
Reading  Skim the texts and identify new vocabulary
 Translate the texts into Vietnamese
 Focus on practicing skills
Writing  Teacher provides topics and the outline of each topic.
 Teacher provides samples to analyze.
 Teacher provides structure of each type of writing and let students practice
some topics.

7. Which language(s) do you prefer to use in class (with teacher and classmates)?
 English only
 Vietnamese only
 Both English and Vietnamese

8. Do you want to learn at weekdays or at weekends?


 At weekdays
 At weekends
 Both are OK

9. What time of the day do you want to learn?


 In the morning
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 In the afternoon
 In the evening

10. How often do you are willing to learn?


 Once a week
 Twice a week
 Others. Please specify:……………………

11. How long do you want each lesson to last? …….. (minutes)

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QUESTIONAIRE ANALYSIS
1. Target situation analysis
Reasons for taking VSTEP
Get further education
Communicate
Get a job
Graduate from Uni
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
 How will language be used: in the VSTEP test
 Level: B1
 Who will the learner use the language with?
o non-native speakers
o level of knowledge of receiver: BA & student
o relationship:
 Where will the language be used?
o human context: alone
o linguistic context: in own country
 When will the language be used?
o subsequently
o in small amount
2. Learning needs analysis
a. Why are the learners taking the course?
 Optional course
 Apparent needs (89% need to achieve B1 to graduate from university)
 Attitude: positive
8
6
Strongly disagree
4 Disagree
Neutral
2
Agree
0 Strongly agree
To take To To fulfill To fulfill To follow For Because
the exam express your your the trend cultural of
yourself parents’ teachers’ reasons interests
wish wish in English

b. How do the learners learn?


 90% have NOT taken the test
 Concept of learning and teaching: test-oriented
 Language used: both English and Vietnamese
 Methodology:

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Preferred methods Familiar methods

Focus on practicing skills Focus on practicing skills

Translate the texts into Vietnamese Translate the texts into Vietnamese

Skim the texts and identify new vocabulary Skim the texts and identify new vocabulary

0 20 40 60 80 100 0 20 40 60 80
The most familiar and preferred way of teaching reading: Skimming the text and identify new
vocabulary

Familiar methods Preferred methods

Teacher provides structure of each type of writing and let students practice some topics Teacher provides structure of each type of writing and let students practice some topics

Teacher provides samples to analyze Teacher provides samples to analyze

Teacher provides topics and the outline of each topic Teacher provides topics and the outline of each topic

0 20 40 60 80100 0 20 40 60 80100
The most familiar and preferred way of teaching writing: Teachers provides structure of each type
of writing and let students practice some topics

c. Materials:
 Reading: TOEFL, FCE, CAE
 Writing: FCE, General IELTS
 Aids: Focus on taking test
 No opportunity for out of class activities

d. Learners:
After learning the results of questionaire and interviews, we realized that all of the students
surveyed have already known the form of reading and writing part of VSTEP test. And their interests
in learning English is average; however, some students have quite low interests.
40
30
20
10
0
Very
low Very
high

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- Needs for practicing question types
6 6
5 4
2
4
0 Not necessary
3 Not necessary Slightly necessary
Neutral
2 Slightly necessary Necessary
Neutral Very necessary
1 Necessary
0 Very necessary

READING WRITING
Mean: 3.96 (4.03 – Reading, 3.9 – Writing)
 Generally, the targeted students need to work on different kinds of exercises, especially on
inference questions in reading and discussive writing.

- Needs for improving sub-skills


6
4
2
Not necessary
0
Slightly necessary
Neutral
Necessary
Very necessary

READING
6
3
Not necessary
0
Slightly necessary
Neutral
Necessary
Very necessary

WRITING
No sub-skill is considered unnecessary or slightly necessary
Students show that they have to improve all sub-skills, especially inferring meaning in reading part
and accuracy in grammar in writing part
- Present difficulties encountered

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6
4 Never
Rarely
2
Sometimes
0 Often
Too many Length of text Time Always
new words restriction

READING
8
6
4
Never
2
Rarely
0 Sometimes
s y s on ds r Often
ke ar ea or ro
a ul id ti er
ist a b f iza w e Always
rm oc c ko g a n
kin
g
nc
m
a
ofv La or il n nt
e
am c k ea of Se
Gr La r id ck
o La
Po

WRITING
Students encounter all surveyed difficulties.
- The most frequent of reading: too many new words
- The most frequent of writing: lack of vocabulary

3. Interpretations
Overall, students strongly want to achieve B1 VSTEP so that they are able to graduate from
university. Their most familiar and preferred way of teaching reading is skim the text and underline
new words. Since it is not an effective way of reading for the test, teachers are expected to orient
them to learn reading skills like skimming or scanning. Their most familiar and preferred way of
teaching writing is by being provided with structure of each type of writing and let students practice
some topics, which is the suitable method for learning writing.

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Materials evaluation
The materials are evaluated based on the Alan Cunningworth’s checklist for textbook evaluation.
(See pg. 20)

1. The Heinle & Heinle Toefl Test Assistant: Reading – By Milada Broukal (1994)
Strengths:
 The book contains 5 chapters introducing the test question types and 5 practice tests for
students to have further self-practice.
 Each chapter is divided in 3 parts: introducing question type, detail instruction on how to deal
with each question type and practice.  the material is systematically structured so that it is
easy for learners to understand and master the instructed skills and tips.
 The reading passages in the introduction part is provided with pre-reading questions to
provide background information and set the scene for the reading text, as well as to raise
learners’ interests.
 There are a considerable number of reading texts for learners and teachers to exploit.

Weaknesses:
 The book only focuses on reading skills, abandoning other aspects of language like grammar
and vocabulary.
 The reading materials are not usable for teaching writing skills. (not able to work as the input
materials for writing outputs)
 The book does not provide teacher’s manual and other activities for learning.

Solutions:
 Since reading, along with writing, skills are the focal point of the course, learners are required
to reach a certain level of English competencies (with acceptable grammar and vocabulary
range) before attending the course. And during the course, teachers are encouraged to help
learners improve their grammar and vocabulary range.
 The course designers/teachers should work together to design a suggested activies for teachers
to use them in class. Besides, teachers are encouraged to be creative in their teaching.

2. Building Reading Skills.


Strengths:
 This material is divided into separate question types, so it is easy for learners and teachers to
follow.
 Each section of this material includes one part of explaining how to recognize the type of
question and strategies for it and the following part of exerckses; as a result, learners can
focus on the development of reading skills and strategies and have chance to practice
immediately.
 The number of reading passages for practicing is sufficient.
 The texts are extracted from authentic sources such as real reading tests.
 Topics of the text is various, familiar and interesting for learners.
Weaknesses:
 It is lack of several types of reading question in VSTEP test.
 There are some unnecessary sections that do not relate to the test.
 The material is published in 2006; therefore, topics in reading passages are not really update
and currently concerned.

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 There is no reading passage about recent Vietnam and our area's issues.
Solutions:
 Teachers only choose relevant and necessary sections according to the content of the course,
then combine with other materials.
 Teachers have to prepare supplementary reading passages which mention current problems in
Vietnam, in our area and all over the world.
3. Successful Writing – Intermediate by Virginia Evan
Strengths
 States different types of writing letters in task 1
 Has a clear structure which is suitable for teaching writing
+ General instruction of types of writing letter
+ Detail instruction of each type (sample writing, sample analysis (forms, suggested
structures, words and phrases), writing question, idea brainstorming
 Provides intermediate vocabulary and structures which fit the level students desire to reach
 Gives specific information of the written form (punctuation, spelling, layout, …)
Weaknesses and solutions:
 Pays more attention to give instructions of vocabulary and structures of each writing type, and
students don’t have chance to practice writing a particular task . Almost all of the writing
tasks in this book are fill-in the gaps or rearrange the provided sentences.
Thus, they also aren’t encouraged to review and edit their written work
 In our course, teacher lets students practice writing in class and have peer check activity,
so they can review and edit their work as well as learn from their partner’s writing

4. The Best Preparation for IELTS Writing by Young Kim


Strengths:
 Different types of essay are stated to be relevant with the writing task 2.
 Detailed steps are organized to guide Ss to the process of writing effectively.
 Examples for each step of writing are shown.
 Structures for each type of writing are provided.
 Ideas/arguments are available.
 Model answers and practice tests for each topic and each type of essay are designed
appropriately.
Weaknesses and solutions:
 The model answers are not analyzed so that Ss can learn from them. Solution: Design
activities based on the model answer to develop writing skills; List out vocabulary and
grammar points so that Ss can learn effectively.
 The book tend to focus on the steps and the ideas of the essay but ignore vocabulary, grammar
and punctuality. Solution: Provide vocabulary, grammar points and punctuality sections.

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Allan Cunningsworth’s checklist for materials evaluation (extract)
Checklist for reading (pg73)
 Are reading passages and associated activities suitable for your students' levels, interests, etc?
Is there sufficient reading material?
 Is the reading text used for introducing new language items (grammar and vocabulary),
consolidating language work, etc?
 Is there a focus on the development of reading skills and strategies?
 Is the reading material linked to other skills work?
 Is there emphasis on reading for pleasure and for intellectual satisfaction?
 How many reading texts are there, and how frequently do they occur?
 How early on in the course (at elementary level) do reading texts start to appear?
 How long are the texts? Do they encourage intensive/extensive reading?
 How authentic are the texts?
 Is the subject matter appropriate (interesting, challenging, topical, varied, culturally acceptable,
unlikely to date)?
 What text types (genres) are used? Are they appropriate?
 Are the texts complete or gapped?
 Does the material help comprehension by, for example, setting the scene, providing background
information, giving pre-reading questions?
 What kind of comprehension questions are asked: literal (surface) questions, discourse-
processing questions, inference questions?
 To what extent does the material involve the learner's knowledge system (knowledge of the
world)?

Checklist for writing (pg 80)

 How does the material handle controlled writing, guided writing and free or semi-free writing?
 Is there appropriate progression and variety of task?
 Are the conventions of different sorts of writing taught? If so, which ones, and how are they
presented?
 Is there emphasis on the style of written English? At advanced level, is there attention to
different styles according to text type?
 Is attention given to the language resources specific to the written form, such as punctuation,
spelling, layout, etc?
 How much emphasis is there on accuracy?
 Are learners encouraged to review and edit their written work?
 Is a readership identified for writing activities?
 Are writing activities suitable in terms of amount of guidance/control, degree of accuracy,
organization of longer pieces of writing (eg paragraphing) and use of appropriate styles?

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SAMPLE FINAL TEST
PHẦN 1: ĐỌC HIỂU – VSTEP

Thời gian: 60 phút

Số câu hỏi: 40

Direction: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10
questions about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D to each
question. You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions.

PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10


The modern age is an age of electricity. People are so used to electric lights, radio, televisions, and
telephones that it is hard to imagine what life would be like without them. When there is a power
failure, people grope about in flickering candlelight. Cars hesitate in the streets because there are no
traffic lights to guide them, and food spoils in silent refrigerators.

People began to understand how electricity works only a little more than two centuries ago, while
nature has apparently been experimenting in this field for millions of years. Scientists are discovering
more and more that the living world may hold many interesting secrets of electricity that could
benefit humanity.

All living cells sent out tiny pulses of electricity. As the heart beats, it send out pulses of recorded
electricity; they form an electrocardiogram, which a doctor can study to determine how well the heart
is working. The brain, too, sends out brain waves of electricity, which can be recorded in an
electroencephalogram. The electric currents generated by most living cells are extremely small-of-ten
so small that sensitive instruments are needed to record them. But in some animals, certain muscle
cells have become so specialized as electrical generators that they do not work as muscle cells at all.
When large numbers of these cells are linked together, the effects can be astonishing.

The electric eel is an amazing storage battery. It can send a jolt of as much as eight hundred volts of
electricity through the water in which it lives. An electric house current is only one hundred twenty
volts.) As many as four fifths of all the cells in the electric eel’s body are specialized for generating
electricity, and the strength of the shock it can deliver corresponds roughly to the length of its body.

1. What is the primarily concerned of the passage? 

A. Electric eels are potentially dangerous 

B. Biology and electricity appear to be closely related 


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C. People would be at a loss without electricity

D. Scientists still have much to discover about electricity

2. The author mentions all of the following as results of a blackout EXCEPT: 

A. refrigerated food items may go bad

B. traffic lights do not work

C. people must rely on candlelight

D. elevators and escalators do not function

3. What can the world hesitatein the first paragraph be best replace by?

A. crash C. be uncertain

B. stop D. be fast

4. How many volts of electricity can an electric eel emit?

A. 1,000

B. 800

C. 200

D. 120

5. The pronoun "it" in the third paragraph refers to

A. electricity C. living cells

B. the heart  D. a doctor

6. The word “four fifth” in the last paragraph means

A. 45 C. 4/5

B. 54 D. 5/4

7. What can the word tiny in the third paragraph be best replaced by?

A. huge C. dangerous

B. strong D. very small

8. Why does the author mention electric eels?

A. to warm the read to stay away from them.

B. to compare their voltage to that used in houses.


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C. to give an example of a living electrical generator.

D. to describe a new source of electrical power.

9. It can be inferred from the passage that the longer an eel is the

A. more beneficial it will be to science

B. more powerful will be its electrical charge

C. easier it will be to find

D. tougher it will be to eat

10. From the sentence “All living cells sent out tiny pulses of electricity”, we can infer that

A. Electric pulses of animals are dangerous for themselves

B. Very tiny animals like mosquitoes do not have

C. A dead elephant still have electric pulses

D. A fly has pulses electricity.

E.

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PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20

Most people can remember a phone number for up to thirty seconds. When this short amount of time
elapses, however, the numbers are erased from the memory. How did the information get there in the
first place? Information that makes its way to the short term memory (STM) does so via the sensory
storage area. The brain has a filter which only allows stimuli that is of immediate interest to pass on
to the STM, also known as the working memory.
There is much debate about the capacity and duration of the short term memory. The most accepted
theory comes from George A. Miller, a cognitive psychologist who suggested that humans can
remember approximately seven chunks of information. [A] chunk is defined as a meaningful unit of
information, such as a word or name rather than just a letter or number. Modern theorists suggest that
one can increase the capacity of the short term memory by chunking, or classifying similar
information together. By organizing information, one can optimize the STM, and improve the
chances of a memory being passed on to long term storage. [B]
When making a conscious effort to memorize something, such as information for an exam, many
people engage in "rote rehearsal". By repeating something over and over again, one is able to keep a
memory alive. Unfortunately, this type of memory maintenance only succeeds if there are no
interruptions. As soon as a person stops rehearsing the information, it has the tendency to disappear.
When a pen and paper are not handy, people often attempt to remember a phone number by repeating
it aloud. If the doorbell rings or the dog barks to come in before a person has the opportunity to make
a phone call, he will likely forget the number instantly. [C] Therefore, rote rehearsal is not an
efficient way to pass information from the short term to long term memory. A better way is to
practice "elaborate rehearsal". This involves assigning semantic meaning to a piece of information
so that it can be filed along with other pre-existing long term memories.

Encoding information semantically also makes it more retrievable. Retrieving information can be
done by recognition or recall. Humans can easily recall memories that are stored in the long term
memory and used often; however, if a memory seems to be forgotten, it may eventually be
retrieved by prompting. The more cues a person is given (such as pictures), the more likely a
memory can be retrieved. This is why multiple choice tests are often used for subjects that require a
lot of memorization.

11. According to the passage, how do memories get transferred to the STM?

A. They revert from the long term memory.


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B. They are filtered from the sensory storage area.

C. They get chunked when they enter the brain.

D. They enter via the nervous system.

12. The word elapses in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to:

A. passes C. appears

B. adds up D. continues

13. All of the following are mentioned as places in which memories are stored EXCEPT the:

A. STM

B. long term memory

C. sensory storage area

D. maintenance area

14. Why does the author mention a dog's bark?

A. To give an example of a type of memory

B. To provide a type of interruption

C. To prove that dogs have better memories than humans

D. To compare another sound that is loud like a doorbell

15. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?

For example, a reader engages in elaborate rehearsal when he brings prior knowledge of a
subject to a text

A. [A]

B. [B]

C. [C]

D. [D]

16. How do theorists believe a person can remember more information in a short time?

A. By organizing it

B. By repeating it

C. By giving it a name

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D. By drawing it

17. The author believes that rote rotation is

A. the best way to remember something

B. more efficient than chunking

C. ineffective in the long run

D. an unnecessary interruption

18. The word itin the last paragraph refers to

A. Encoding C. Semantics

B. STM D. Information

19. The word elaboratein the paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

A. complex C. pretty

B. efficient D. regular

20. Which of the following best provides the important information in the bold sentence from the
passage.

A. Prompting is the easiest way to retrieve short term memory after an extended period of time.

B. A memory can be retrieved by prompting, in a case where it has been rarely used.

C. It's easier to remember short term memories than long term memories due to regular prompts.

D. Recalling a long term memory that is often used is easy, while forgotten memories often
require prompting.

PASSAGE 3 – Questions 21-30

The Creators of Grammar

No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing word
sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny
variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken
place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in
meaning. Nor is this complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-
called 'primitive' tribes have clever grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for

26
example, can distinguish between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person
and I'. In English, all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is
universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question
which has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar?

At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is
created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its emergence.
Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but
in order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs
to observe how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.

Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves from
a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's rule. Since they had
no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a make-shift language called a pidgin.
Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in the way
of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and
who did what to whom. [A] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning
understood. [B] Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for
a group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother tongue. [C] Slave
children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they adapted their words to
create a new, expressive language. [D] Complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins are
termed creoles, and they are invented by children.

Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages are not
simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken
languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such
language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from
each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were
taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own
sign system, using the gestures that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the
signs differently, and there was no consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school
later, when this inventive sign system was already around, developed a quite different sign language.
Although it was based on the signs of the older children, the younger children's language was more

27
fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range of grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is
more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born.

Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles at first. The
English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It ended' may once have been 'It
end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly created by
children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life
when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create
logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.

21. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?

A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures
B. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar
C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language

22. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?

A. It contained complex grammar.


B. It was based on many different languages.
C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.
D. D. It was created by the land-owners.

23. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT

A. The language has been created since 1979.


B. The language is based on speech and lip reading.
C. The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
D. The language was perfected by younger children.

24. In which space (marked A, B, C and D in the passage) will the following sentence fit?

It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the
pidgin language, nor the language of the colonizers.

A. [A]
B. [B]

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C. [C]
D. [D]

25. From scratch in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:

A. from the very beginning


B. in simple cultures
C. by copying something else
D. by using written information

26. Make-shift in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:

A. complicated and expressive


B. simple and temporary
C. extensive and diverse
D. private and personal

27. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?

Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.

A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar.
B. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.
C. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain a
little.
D. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.

28. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT:

A. All children used the same gestures to show meaning.


B. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
C. The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.

29. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?

A. English was probably once a creole.


B. The English past tense system is inaccurate.
C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children.
29
D. Children say English past tenses differently from adults.

30. Look at the word in consistent paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by which of the
following?

A. Natural C. imaginable
B. predictable D. uniform

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PASSAGE 4 – Questions 31-40

CLOUD FORMATION

Water vapor is an invisible gas, but its condensation and deposition products - water droplets and ice
crystals - are visible to us as clouds. A cloud is an aggregate of tiny water droplets or ice crystals
suspended in the atmosphere above the earth’s surface, the visible indication of condensation and
deposition of water vapor within the atmosphere.

Laboratory studies have demonstrated that in clean air - air free of dust and other particles -
condensation or deposition of water vapor requires supersaturated conditions, that is, a relative
humidity greater than 100 percent. When humid air is cooled, usually by convection, unequal
heating of the ground surface creates rising air currents. As the air ascends, it expands and cools.
Eventually it reaches its dew point, the temperature at which the invisible water vapor in the air
condenses into a collection of water droplets. From the ground, we see these tiny particles as a cloud.
If the droplets continue to acquire moisture and grow large enough, they fall from the cloud as rain.

Clouds occur in a wide variety of forms because they are shaped by many processes operating in the
atmosphere. In fact, monitoring changes in clouds and cloud cover often will provide clues about
future weather. British naturalist Luke Howard was among the first to devise a system for grouping
clouds. Formulated in 1803, the essentials of Howard’s classification scheme are still in use today.
Contemporary weather forecasters still divide clouds into two main groups: heaped clouds, resulting
from rising unstable air currents; and layered clouds, resulting from stable air.

Clouds are also classified according to their appearance, their altitude, and by whether or not they
produce precipitation. Based on appearance, the simplest distinction is among cumulus, stratus, and
cirrus clouds. Cumulus clouds occur as heaps or puffs, stratus clouds are layered, and cirrus clouds
look like threads. Based on altitude, the most common clouds in the troposphere are grouped into
four families: low clouds, middle clouds, high clouds, and clouds exhibiting vertical development.
Low, middle, and high clouds are produced by gentle uplift of air over broad areas. Those with
vertical development generally cover smaller areas and are associated with much more vigorous
uplift.

Cumulus clouds are dense, white, heaped clouds capped with a cauliflower-like dome created by
convection. Low-level cumulus clouds are detached from one another and generally have well-
31
defined bases. Their outlines are sharp, and they often develop vertically in the form of rising puffs,
mounds, domes, or towers. The sunlit parts are brilliant white; the base is relatively dark and roughly
horizontal.

Stratus, or layered, clouds grow from top to bottom in wide sheets, or strata, with minimal vertical
and extended horizontal dimensions. These clouds spread laterally to form layers that sometimes
cover the entire sky, to the horizon and beyond, like a formless blanket. The air is stable, with little or
no convection present. While cumulus and stratus clouds generally form at low or middle altitudes, a
third type of cloud forms at high altitudes. [A] Cirrus clouds are detached clouds that take the form of
delicate white filaments, strands, or hooks. These clouds can be seen at close hand from the window
of a jet plane flying above 25,000 feet. [B] When viewed from the ground, bands of threadlike cirrus
clouds often seem to emerge from a single point on the western horizon and spread across the entire
sky. Cirrus clouds are composed almost exclusively of ice crystals. [C] Their fibrous appearance
results from the wind “stretching” streamers of falling ice particles into feathery strands called
“mares’ tails.” [D] Snow crystals may fall from thicker, darker cirrus clouds, but they usually
evaporate in the drier air below the cloud.

31. The word “suspended” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to

A. Freezing
B. Hanging
C. Hiding
D. dripping

32. What happens at the dew point?

A. Cool air starts to fall.


B. The ground becomes warmer.
C. Water vapor condenses.
D. Rain change to snow.

33. Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in
paragraph 2? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.

32
“Laboratory studies have demonstrated that in clean air - air free of dust and other particles -
condensation or deposition of water vapor requires supersaturated conditions, that is, a relative
humidity greater than 100 percent”

A. Research shows that the formation of clouds in clean air depends on a relative humidity of
over 100 percent.
B. A relative humidity of more than 100 percent can occur only when the air is clean and dust-
free.
C. Scientists have been able to stimulate the formation of clouds in the laboratory with a success
rate of 100 percent.
D. If the air contains no dust particles, water vapor will condense and create extremely humid
weather conditions.

34. Why does the author mention “Luke Howard” in paragraph 3?

A. To name the first scientist who could predict the weather


B. To describe the biography of a famous British naturalist
C. To identify the inventor of our system for classifying clouds
D. To give an example of an idea that was not accepted at first

35. The word “Those” in paragraph 4 refers to:

A. Threads
B. Areas
C. Clouds
D. Families

36. The word “sharp” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to:

A. invisible
B. distinct
C. frozen
D. straight

37. Look at the four letters [A], [B], [C] and [D], which indicate where the sentence “These strands
often warn of the approach of a warm front signaling the advance of a storm system.” could be
added to the passage. Where would the sentence best fit?

33
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]

38. It can be inferred from the passage that stratus clouds:

A. are sometimes very difficult to identity


B. form layers above other clouds in the sky
C. differ from cumulus clouds in appearance
D. are likely to produce precipitation

39. The word “fibrous” in paragraph 7 is closest in meaning to:

A. Layered
B. Threadlike
C. Dark
D. Changing

40. Cumulus clouds are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. horizontal base
B. stable airs
C. low altitude
D. dome-like to

34
PHẦN 2: VIẾT – VSTEP

Thời gian: 60 phút

Số câu hỏi: 2

TASK 1

You should spend 20 minutes on this task.

You have recently moved to a different house.

Write a letter to an English-speaking friend. In your letter:

 Explain why you have moved

 Describe the new house

 Invite your friend to come and visit

You should write at least 120 words. You do not need to include your name and addresses. Your
respond will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.

TASK 2

You should spend about 40 minute on this task.

Some people think that human needs for farmland, housing and industry are more important
than saving land for endangered animals. Do you agree or disagree with this point of view. Use
specific reasons and examples to support your choice? 

You should write at least 250 words. Your respond will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment,
Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.

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