Professional Documents
Culture Documents
NEET 2018 Aakash Solution Code NN PDF
NEET 2018 Aakash Solution Code NN PDF
NN
HLAAC
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2018
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question carries
4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response,
one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
2. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
4. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before
leaving the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
5. The CODE for this Booklet is NN.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her
seat.
9. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and
Regulations of this examination.
11. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
12. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet
in the Attendance Sheet.
1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
v1 = –24 cm Answer ( 4 )
When object is displaced by 20 cm towards S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be
mirror. normally incident on silvered face.
2
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
(20 0)
IC
30° 4 103
60°
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA
M
i 30° Vi = VBE + IBRB
Vi = 0 + IBRB
20 = IB × 500 × 103
2
20
IB 40 A
Applying Snell's law at M, 500 103
IC 25 103
sin i 2 125
Ib 40 106
sin30 1
6. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
1 due to heating
sin i 2
2 (1) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of
p-n junction
1
sin i i.e. i = 45° (2) Affects only reverse resistance
2
(3) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
5. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
(4) Affects only forward resistance
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
values of IB, IC and are given by Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs
20 V will increase, so overall resistance of diode
will change.
RC 4 k
Due to which forward biasing and reversed
C
RB biasing both are changed.
Vi
500 k B 7. In the combination of the following gates the
E output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
and B as
A
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA, = 125 B
Y
(2) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA, = 250
(3) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA, = 250
(4) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA, = 200 (1) A B
Answer ( 1 ) (2) A B
S o l . VBE = 0
(3) A B A B
VCE = 0
(4) A B A B
Vb = 0
Answer ( 4 )
20 V
A
IC Sol. A AB
RC = 4 k
B
RB B Y
Vi Vb A
Ib 500 k
AB
B
Y (A B A B)
3
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
4
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
1 Answer ( 2 )
S o l . E W0 mv2
2 S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength
1 h
h(20 ) h0 mv12 0 ...(i)
2 mV0
1
h0 mv12 …(i) E0
2
1 V0
h(50 ) h0 mv22 F
2
1 Acceleration of electron
4h0 mv22 …(ii)
2 eE0
a
Divide (i) by (ii), m
1 v12 Velocity after time ‘t’
4 v22 eE0
V V0 t
m
v1 1
h h
v2 2 So,
mV eE
13. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10 m V0 0 t
minutes. If initially there are 600 number of m
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the h 0
…(ii)
disintegration of 450 nuclei is eE0 eE0
mV0 1 t 1 t
(1) 15 (2) 20 mV0 mV0
(3) 30 (4) 10 Divide (ii) by (i),
Answer ( 2 )
0
S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150
eE0
n 1 t
N 1 mV0
N0 2 15. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
t of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
150 1 t 1/2 atom, is
600 2 (1) 1 : –2 (2) 1 : 1
t
2 (3) 2 : –1 (4) 1 : –1
1 1 t 1/2
2 2 Answer ( 4 )
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10 S o l . KE = –(total energy)
= 20 minute So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
14. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity 16. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in
a glass tube. The length of the air column in
V V0 ˆi (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm
E –E0 ˆi (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its
of column length. If the frequency of the
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de- tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in
Broglie wavelength at time t is air at 27ºC is
(1) 0 (1) 300 m/s (2) 330 m/s
0
(3) 350 m/s (4) 339 m/s
(2) 1 eE0
t Answer ( 4 )
mV0 S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]
(3) 0t
= 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
eE0 = 339.2 ms–1
(4) 0 1 t
mV0 = 339 m/s
5
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
17. The electrostatic force between the metal ∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor smaller time.
C having a charge Q and area A, is
20. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
(1) Inversely proportional to the distance elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
between the plates and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
(2) Independent of the distance between the the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
plates at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
(3) Proportional to the square root of the figure. Then
distance between the plates
(4) Linearly proportional to the distance B
between the plates
Answer ( 2 ) A C
S
S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant
Q2
Fplate (1) KB > KA > KC
2A0
F is Independent of the distance between (2) KA < KB < KC
plates.
(3) KB < KA < KC
18. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
sufficiently high building and is moving freely (4) KA > KB > KC
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. Answer ( 4 )
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum
Sol. B
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean VC
position. The time period of oscillation is perihelion
A C
(1) 1 s (2) 2 s S
aphelion
(3) 2 s (4) s VA
6
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
22. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller S o l . For equilibrium,
°
and the universal gravitational constant were B 30
mg sin30 Il Bcos 30 s
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the co
following is not correct? mg llB
I
lB
tan30
30° 30° llB
(1) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change n
si
0.5 9.8 g
(2) Raindrops will fall faster 11.32 A m 30°
0.25 3
(3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
Earth would decrease 25. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
resistor 50 are connected in series across
(4) Walking on the ground would become a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
more difficult loss in the circuit is
Answer ( 1 ) (1) 1.13 W (2) 0.79 W
7
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
2 2 (2) 26.8%
(1) (2)
7 5 (3) 6.25%
(4) 20%
1 2
(3) (4) Answer ( 2 )
3 3
Answer ( 2 ) T
S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine, 1 2
S o l . Given process is isobaric T1
T2 : Sink temperature
dQ n Cp dT
T1 : Source temperature
5 T
dQ n R dT % 1 2 100
2 T1
dW P dV = n RdT
273
1 100
dW nRdT 2 373
Required ratio
dQ 5 5
n R dT
2 100
100 26.8%
373
29. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed 31. At what temperature will the rms speed of
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
pipe is (Given :
(1) 16 cm Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg
(2) 13.2 cm Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
(3) 12.5 cm (1) 1.254 × 104 K (2) 2.508 × 104 K
(4) 8 cm (3) 5.016 × 104 K (4) 8.360 × 104 K
Answer ( 2 ) Answer ( 4 )
8
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
T = 8.360 × 104 K
0.21 …(ii)
d
32. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a
plane surface of a material of refractive index
0.20 d
''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is Dividing we get, 0.21 2 mm
found that the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other. Which of the
d = 1.9 mm
following options is correct for this situation?
34. An astronomical refracting telescope will
1
1
(1) i tan have large angular magnification and high
angular resolution, when it has an objective
(2) Reflected light is polarised with its lens of
electric vector parallel to the plane of (1) Small focal length and small diameter
incidence
(2) Small focal length and large diameter
1
1
(3) i sin (3) Large focal length and large diameter
(4) Large focal length and small diameter
(4) Reflected light is polarised with its
electric vector perpendicular to the plane Answer ( 3 )
of incidence
f0
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
fE
S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised So, focal length of objective lens should be
with electric field vector perpendicular to the large.
plane of incidence.
D
Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22
9
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
2 1
(3) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
= : :1
5 2 (4) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
Answer ( 4 )
= 4 : 5 : 10
S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%
WC > WB > WA Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
10
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
40. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, 42. A toy car with charge q moves on a
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' frictionless horizontal plane surface under
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn the influence of a uniform
electric field E .
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
parallel to the same battery. Then the current from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of that instant the direction of the field is
'n' is reversed. The car continues to move for two
(1) 9 (2) 10 more seconds under the influence of this field.
(3) 20 (4) 11 The average velocity and the average speed
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
Answer ( 2 )
respectively
E
Sol. I ...(i)
nR R (1) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
E
10 I ...(ii) (2) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
R
R
n (3) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s
Dividing (ii) by (i),
(n 1)R (4) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
10
1
n 1 R Answer ( 4 )
After solving the equation, n = 10 Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a
t=2
41. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' C
t=3 –a
each) which are connected in series. The
–1
terminals of the battery are short-circuited v = –6 ms
and the current I is measured. Which of the
graphs shows the correct relationship 60
between I and n? Acceleration a 6 ms2
1
For t = 0 to t = 1 s,
I I
1
(1) (2) S1 6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
2
O O
n n For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,
1
I I S2 6.1 6(1)2 3 m ...(ii)
2
(3) (4) For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
O O
n n 1
Answer ( 2 ) S3 0 6(1)2 3 m ...(iii)
2
n
Sol. I Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
nr r
So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
3
I Average velocity 1 ms 1
3
9
Average speed 3 ms 1
O 3
n
11
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
A Answer ( 1 )
m
S o l . Diameter of the ball
a = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
C B = 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
= 0.529 cm
g
(2) a
cosec 45. The moment of the force, F 4iˆ 5 ˆj 6kˆ at
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
(3) a = g cos by
Answer ( 1 )
ma N sin
(pseudo) Sol. Y
mg a
F
In non-inertial frame, A r r0
P
N sin = ma ...(i)
r0
r
N cos = mg ...(ii)
a O X
tan
g
(r r0 ) F ...(i)
a = g tan ˆ (2iˆ 2 ˆj 2k)
r r0 (2iˆ 0ˆj 3k) ˆ
44. A student measured the diameter of a small
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
zero of circular scale division coincides with ˆi ˆj kˆ
25 divisions above the reference level. If
0 2 1 7iˆ 4 ˆj 8kˆ
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
the correct diameter of the ball is 4 5 6
12
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
46. Which of the following hormones can play a S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls
significant role in osteoporosis? all emotions in our body but not movements.
(1) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin 49. The transparent lens in the human eye is held
in its place by
(2) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(1) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary
(3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
body
(4) Progesterone and Aldosterone (2) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
Answer ( 3 ) (3) smooth muscles attached to the iris
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast (4) ligaments attached to the iris
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
Answer ( 2 )
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
estrogen. Parathormone promotes S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood. suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary
Excessive activity of parathormone causes body.
demineralisation leading to osteoporosis. 50. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
47. Which of the following is an amino acid from
derived hormone? (1) ectoderm and endoderm
52. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ 55. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
of evolution is
(1) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(1) Minor mutations
(2) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted. (2) Multiple step mutations
(3) Phenotypic variations
(3) is an IUD.
(4) Saltation
(4) increases the concentration of estrogen
and prevents ovulation in females. Answer ( 4 )
S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
Answer ( 2 )
Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
pill. It contains centchroman and its saltation.
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
56. All of the following are part of an operon
Receptor modulation.
except
53. The difference between spermiogenesis and (1) a promoter (2) an operator
spermiation is
(3) an enhancer (4) structural genes
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
Answer ( 3 )
formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
are released from sertoli cells into the Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
cavity of seminiferous tubules. eukaryotes.
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
while in spermiation spermatozoa are 57. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
formed. strand of a gene. What will be the
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
mRNA?
sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation (1) UCCAUAGCGUA
spermatozoa are formed. (2) AGGUAUCGCAU
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are (3) ACCUAUGCGAU
formed, while in spermiation spermatids (4) UGGTUTCGCAT
are formed. Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 ) S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
spermatids into spermatozoa whereas ‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
spermiation is the release of the sperms from 58. Match the items given in Column I with those
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous in Column II and select the correct option
tubule. given below :
54. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of Column I Column II
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
inherited by endometrial
(1) Both sons and daughters lining
(2) Only daughters b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
(3) Only grandchildren c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
(4) Only sons a b c
Answer ( 1 ) (1) iii i ii
Sol. • Woman is a carrier (2) iii ii i
• Both son & daughter inherit (3) ii iii i
X–chromosome (4) i iii ii
• Although only son be the diseased Answer ( 3 )
14
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start 62. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
developing, hence, called follicular phase. disease?
Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase (1) Vitiligo
mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
(2) Psoriasis
by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
the endometrium maintained by (3) Alzheimer's disease
progesterone. (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
Menstruation occurs due to decline in Answer ( 3 )
progesterone level and involves breakdown of
S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune
overgrown endometrial lining.
disorder in which antibodies are produced
59. In which disease does mosquito transmitted against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also
lymphatic vessels?
characterised as autoimmune disorder.
(1) Amoebiasis
Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
(2) Elephantiasis or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
(3) Ringworm disease autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
(4) Ascariasis due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
acetylcholine.
Answer ( 2 )
63. Which of the following characteristics
S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm, represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by humans?
Culex mosquito.
a. Dominance
60. Among the following sets of examples for
divergent evolution, select the incorrect b. Co-dominance
option : c. Multiple allele
(1) Eye of octopus, bat and man
d. Incomplete dominance
(2) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
e. Polygenic inheritance
(3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(1) a, c and e (2) b, c and e
(4) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
Answer ( 1 ) (3) b, d and e (4) a, b and c
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same Answer ( 4 )
structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of Sol. IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive
vertebrates which have developed along relationship
different directions due to adaptation to
IAIB - Codominance
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
and man are examples of analogous organs IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
showing convergent evolution. forms of a gene
61. The similarity of bone structure in the (multiple allelism)
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example 64. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
of nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(1) Adaptive radiation (1) Vitamin E
(2) Homology (2) Vitamin D
(3) Convergent evolution
(3) Vitamin B12
(4) Analogy
(4) Vitamin A
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in Sol. Curd is more nourishing than milk.
different way as per their adaptation, hence It has enriched presence of vitamins
example of homology. specially Vit-B12.
15
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
65. Match the items given in Column I with those 68. In a growing population of a country,
in Column II and select the correct option (1) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
given below : the reproductive individuals.
Column-I Column-II (2) pre-reproductive individuals are more
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation than the reproductive individuals.
(3) reproductive and pre-reproductive
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
individuals are equal in number.
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
(4) reproductive individuals are less than the
enrichment
post-reproductive individuals.
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal Answer ( 2 )
a b c d S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
(1) i ii iv iii the younger population size is larger than the
reproductive group, the population will be an
(2) ii i iii iv
increasing population.
(3) iii iv i ii
69. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
(4) i iii iv ii the drug “Smack”?
Answer ( 3 ) (1) Leaves (2) Flowers
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient (3) Roots (4) Latex
enrichment Answer ( 4 )
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation formed by acetylation of morphine. It is
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation Poppy plant.
66. Which one of the following population 70. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
interactions is widely used in medical science help in erythropoiesis?
for the production of antibiotics? (1) Parietal cells (2) Chief cells
(1) Amensalism (3) Goblet cells (4) Mucous cells
(2) Commensalism Answer ( 1 )
(3) Parasitism S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and
(4) Mutualism intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
Answer ( 1 ) be absorbed easily and used during
S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –) erythropoiesis.
Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
harm other microbes (eg : pernicious anaemia.
Staphylococcus) 71. Match the items given in Column I with those
It has no effect on Penicillium or the in Column II and select the correct option
organism which produces it. given below :
Column I Column II
67. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
conservation’ except a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
(1) Seed banks b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
c. Albumin (iii) Defence
(2) Wildlife safari parks
mechanism
(3) Botanical gardens
a b c
(4) Sacred groves (1) (ii) (iii) (i)
Answer ( 4 ) (2) (iii) (ii) (i)
Sol. Sacred groves – in-situ conservation. (3) (i) (iii) (ii)
Represent pristine forest patch as (4) (i) (ii) (iii)
protected by Tribal groups. Answer ( 1 )
16
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during Sol. Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
coagulation. These strands forms a network many folds in the sarcoplasm.
and the meshes of which are occupied by Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot. (troponin "C") which is masking the active
site on actin filament and displaces the
Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
sub-unit of troponin.
of plasma proteins which means globulins are
involved in defence mechanisms. Once the active site is exposed, head of
the myosin attaches and initiate
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly contraction by sliding the actin over
responsible for BCOP. myosin.
72. Which of the following is an occupational 74. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
respiratory disorder? (1) Free ribosomes and RER
(1) Emphysema (2) Proteins and lipids
17
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
77. Which of the following terms describe human S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
dentition? having two types of nuclei.
(1) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
(2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont macronucleus & micronucleus.
(3) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont 81. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
characterized by crop and gizzard in its
(4) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
digestive system
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Osteichthyes
S o l . In humans, dentition is
(2) Amphibia
Thecodont : Teeth are present in the
(3) Aves
sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
(4) Reptilia
Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are Answer ( 3 )
replaced by a set of permanent or adult S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional
teeth. chambers in their digestive system as crop
Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists and Gizzard.
of different types of teeth namely incisors, Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
canine, premolars and molars.
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
78. Which of the following events does not occur
crush food grain.
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?
82. Which one of these animals is not a
(1) Phospholipid synthesis
homeotherm?
(2) Protein folding
(1) Psittacula
(3) Cleavage of signal peptide
(2) Macropus
(4) Protein glycosylation
(3) Camelus
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Chelone
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are Answer ( 4 )
involved in lipid synthesis. S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
79. Many ribosomes may associate with a single constant body temperature, irrespective of
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide surrounding temperature.
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
termed as
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
(1) Nucleosome (2) Polysome which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
(3) Plastidome (4) Polyhedral bodies 83. Which of the following features is used to
Answer ( 2 ) identify a male cockroach from a female
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many cockroach?
ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to (1) Presence of anal cerci
formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or (2) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
ergasomes. 9th abdominal segment
80. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in (3) Forewings with darker tegmina
(1) having two types of nuclei
(4) Presence of caudal styles
(2) using flagella for locomotion
Answer ( 4 )
(3) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
(4) having a contractile vacuole for removing styles which are absent in females.
excess water
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
Answer ( 1 ) segment in male cockroach.
18
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
20
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
93. Plants having little or no secondary growth S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
are for storage of food
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial • Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
and inner tangential wall. are not possible, as the data depicts
primary producer is less than primary
• It is suberin rich. consumer and this is less than secondary
consumers.
96. Sweet potato is a modified
99. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
(1) Rhizome
(1) 22nd April
(2) Stem
(2) 5th June
(3) Tap root (3) 16th September
(4) Adventitious root (4) 21st April
Answer ( 4 ) Answer (3)
21
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
22
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
106. Which one is wrongly matched? 108. Which one of the following plants shows a
(1) Unicellular organism – Chlorella very close relationship with a species of moth,
where none of the two can complete its life
(2) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
cycle without the other?
(3) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(1) Viola (2) Hydrilla
(4) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(3) Banana (4) Yucca
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a
where asexual spores and gametes are
species of moth i.e. Pronuba.
non-motile or non-flagellated.
109. Pollen grains can be stored for several years
• Other options (1, 3 & 4) are correctly
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
matched
(1) –160°C
107. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option (2) –120°C
given below: (3) –196°C
Column I Column II (4) –80°C
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a Answer ( 3 )
collection of preserved
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years
plants and animals
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates (Cryopreservation)
methodically all the
110. In which of the following forms is iron
species found in an area
absorbed by plants?
with brief description
aiding identification (1) Both ferric and ferrous
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried (2) Ferric
and pressed plant (3) Free element
specimens mounted on (4) Ferrous
sheets are kept
Answer ( 2 * )
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a
list of characters and S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
their alternates which ions. (According to NCERT)
are helpful in *Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
identification of various Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
taxa. 111. Which of the following elements is responsible
a b c d for maintaining turgor in cells?
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (1) Calcium (2) Magnesium
(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (3) Potassium (4) Sodium
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Answer ( 3 )
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of
Answer ( 1 ) cells.
23
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote 126. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
(unicellular fungi) matched?
Mycobacterium – a bacterium (1) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria. (2) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
123. Offsets are produced by (3) XO type sex : Grasshopper
(1) Parthenogenesis (2) Meiotic divisions determination
(4) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(3) Parthenocarpy (4) Mitotic divisions
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by
S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed pleiotropic gene.
by mitosis.
Other options (1, 3 & 4) are correctly
– Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic matched.
cells.
127. Select the correct match
– Parthenogenesis is the formation of (1) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon
embryo from ovum or egg without
Jacques Monod
fertilisation.
(2) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus
– Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
fertilisation, (generally seedless) pneumoniae
(3) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum
124. Select the correct statement
and F. Stahl
(1) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
(4) Alfred Hershey and - TMV
(2) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
Martha Chase
(3) Spliceosomes take part in translation
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Punnett square was developed by a British
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed
scientist model of gene regulation known as operon
Answer ( 4 ) model/lac operon.
S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British – Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. technique.
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl. and trademark office that was actually been
130. Which of the following is commonly used as a derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in The diversity of rice in India is one of the
human lymphocytes? richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
(1) pBR 322 (2) Retrovirus of Basmati are grown in India.
(3) phage (4) Ti plasmid Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
varieties and claimed as an invention or a
Answer ( 2 )
novelty.
S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
introducing a DNA fragment in human Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
lymphocyte. of wheat.
Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of 134. In India, the organisation responsible for
patient are grown in culture outside the body, assessing the safety of introducing
a functional gene is introduced by using a genetically modified organisms for public use
retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte. is
131. Select the correct match (1) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(GEAC)
(1) G. Mendel - Transformation
(2) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(2) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(3) Research Committee on Genetic
(3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
Manipulation (RCGM)
(4) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
(4) Council for Scientific and Industrial
Answer ( 2 )
Research (CSIR)
S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
Answer ( 1 )
acid.
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation
132. Use of bioresources by multinational
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal
companies and organisations without
Committee) which will make decisions
authorisation from the concerned country and
regarding the validity of GM research and
its people is called
safety of introducing GM-organism for public
(1) Bioexploitation (2) Bio-infringement services. (Direct from NCERT).
(3) Biodegradation (4) Biopiracy 135. The correct order of steps in Polymerase
Answer ( 4 ) Chain Reaction (PCR) is
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use (1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
of bioresources by multinational companies
(2) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
and other organisation without proper
authorisation from the countries and people (3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
concerned with compensatory payment (4) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT).
Answer ( 1 )
133. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
foreign company, though such varieties have
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.
been present in India for a long time. This is
related to Each cycle has three steps
(1) Basmati (2) Co-667 (i) Denaturation
(3) Lerma Rojo (4) Sharbati Sonora (ii) Primer annealing
Answer ( 1 ) (iii) Extension of primer
26
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
136. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the 137. Which of the following compounds can form a
following sequence of reactions: zwitterion?
Anhydrous
(1) Glycine (2) Aniline
AlCl3 (3) Benzoic acid (4) Acetanilide
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl
Answer ( 1 )
(i) O2
P (ii) H3O+/
Q+R Sol.
–
H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
(Zwitterion form)
P Q R
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
OH H2N – CH2 – COO–
CH(CH3)2
138. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
(1) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(1) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO (2) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
, , CH3CH2 – OH
(3) Square planar geometry and
(2)
paramagnetic
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
CH(CH3)2 OH
, , CH3CH(OH)CH3
Answer ( 4 )
(3)
S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2
Answer ( 1 ) ×× ×× ×× ××
Cl CO CO CO CO
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be
3 2 2 Al
sp 3 and thus the complex would be
Cl Cl diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.
1, 2–H
CO
+ + –
Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
(Incipient carbocation)
Cl Ni
CO
– OC
AlCl3
Now, CO
139. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
CH3
(1) Dinuclear (2) Tetranuclear
CH – CH3
(3) Trinuclear (4) Mononuclear
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
Answer ( 4 )
27
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
140. Match the metal ions given in Column I with 142. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given transition and paramagnetism as well?
in Column II and assign the correct code : (1) MnO42– (2) CrO42–
Column I Column II
(3) MnO4– (4) Cr2O72–
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM Answer ( 1 )
28
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
145. Which of the following is correct with respect 148. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl) different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
different concentrations :
(1) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(2) – NH2 < – OR < – F M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
(3) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(4) – NR2 < – OR < – F M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
Answer ( 2 * ) 10 10
S o l . –I effect increases on increasing
M M
electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F.
*Most appropriate Answer is option (2), M M
however option (4) may also be correct answer. d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
146. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(Ksp) will be (1) c (2) b
147. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 (1) The sign of charge on the ion alone
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and (2) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
3.59, which one of the following gases is most alone
easily liquefied?
(3) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
(1) CO2 the ion
(2) NH3 (4) Size of the ion alone
(3) O2 Answer ( 3 )
(4) H2 Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using
an electrolyte depends on the charge
Answer ( 2 )
present (positive or negative) on colloidal
Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies particles as well as on its size.
intermolecular forces of attraction.
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be depends on the magnitude of charge
the liquefaction of gas. present on effective ion of electrolyte.
29
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
150. Which of the following statements is not true 154. The correct order of N-compounds in its
for halogens? decreasing order of oxidation states is
(1) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
enthalpy (1) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
(2) All form monobasic oxyacids (2) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(3) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
states (3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(4) All are oxidizing agents (4) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as
5 2 0 –3
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
3 4
HOF.
151. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the 155. Which one of the following elements is unable
following metals can be used to reduce
to form MF63– ion?
alumina?
(1) Cu (2) Fe (1) In
(3) Mg (4) Zn
(2) Ga
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al' (3) B
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the
(4) Al
correct option.
152. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 Answer ( 3 )
elements is
S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence
(1) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond
(2) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
(3) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In BF63(–).
(4) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
156. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
Answer ( 1 )
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
Sol.
together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
Elements B Ga Al In Tl in the order
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170
(1) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
153. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
pairs of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is (2) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
F
(A) (B)
F Cl PCl5
C2H5Cl
F (C)
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
The number of lone pair of electrons on C2H5OC2 H5
central Cl is 2. (B) (C)
30
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
157. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by 160. The correct difference between first and
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by second order reactions is that
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous (1) The rate of a first-order reaction does
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon depend on reactant concentrations; the
atoms. (A) is rate of a second-order reaction does not
(1) CH4 (2) CH CH depend on reactant concentrations
(2) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
(3) CH3 – CH3 (4) CH2 CH2
depend on reactant concentrations; the
Answer ( 1 ) rate of a second-order reaction does
depend on reactant concentrations
Br2/h
S o l . CH4 CH3Br (3) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a
(A) Na/dry ether second-order reaction cannot be
Wurtz reaction catalyzed
(4) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
CH3 — CH3
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a
158. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following second-order reaction does depend on
reactions: [A]0
Answer ( 4 )
3Cl / Br /Fe Zn/HCl
C7H8
2
A
2
B
C
0.693
Sol. For first order reaction, t 1/2 ,
The product 'C' is k
(1) p-bromotoluene which is independent of initial
concentration of reactant.
(2) m-bromotoluene
1
(3) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene For second order reaction, t 1/2 ,
k[A0 ]
(4) o-bromotoluene which depends on initial concentration of
Answer ( 2 ) reactant.
161. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
CH3 CCl3 CCl3 character is
3Cl 2 (1) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
Br2
Sol. Fe (2) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
Br
(C7H8) (A) (B) (3) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
(1) NO –
Br 1.0652 V Br2 1.595 V
(2) N2O5
Then the species undergoing
(3) N2O disproportionation is
(4) NO2
(1) HBrO (2) BrO3
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Fact (3) Br2 (4) BrO4
31
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
Answer ( 1 ) 165. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
1 0
o yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
S o l . HBrO
Br2 , EHBrO/Br 1.595 V
2 smell.
1 5 A and Y are respectively
BrO3 , Eo
HBrO 1.5 V
BrO3 /HBrO CH3
o
Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO, (1) CH3 OH and I2
o o
Ecell EHBrO/Br Eo
2 BrO3 /HBrO
= 1.595 – 1.5
(2) H3C CH2 – OH and I2
= 0.095 V = + ve
163. In which case is number of molecules of
water maximum? CH – CH3 and I2
(3)
(1) 10–3 mol of water OH
(2) 18 mL of water
(3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and (4) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
273 K
(4) 0.18 g of water Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 2 ) S o l . Option (3) is secondary alcohol which on
S o l . (1) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and
(2) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
18
Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA 2NaOH I2 NaOI NaI H2 O
18
= NA
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3
0.00224
(3) Moles of water = = 10–4 OH O
22.4 Acetophenone
(A)
Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA
I2
0.18 COONa + CHI3 NaOH
(4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA Iodoform
18 Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
= 10–2 NA 166. In the reaction
164. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points – +
than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of OH O Na
comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
CHO
(1) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding + CHCl3 + NaOH
(2) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(3) More extensive association of carboxylic
The electrophile involved is
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(4) Formation of carboxylate ion (1) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(2) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence Θ
boiling point increases and become more (3) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2
than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
and alcohols of comparable molecular
masses.
(4) Formyl cation CHO
32
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
Answer ( 1 ) 169. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile equation corresponds to
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to (1) Forces of attraction between the gas
the following reaction molecules
.–. (2) Density of the gas molecules
CHCl3 OH–
CCl3 H2 O
(3) Electric field present between the gas
.–. molecules
: CCl2 Cl–
CCl3
Electrophile (4) Volume of the gas molecules
Answer ( 1 )
167. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the 2 ⎞
⎛
formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond S o l . In real gas equation, ⎜ P an ⎟ (V nb) nRT
dissociation energy of X2 will be ⎜ V ⎟⎠
2
⎝
(1) 400 kJ mol–1
van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies
(2) 200 kJ mol–1 intermolecular forces of attraction.
(3) 800 kJ mol–1
170. Which one of the following conditions will
(4) 100 kJ mol–1 favour maximum formation of the product in
Answer ( 3 ) the reaction,
S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
X2 (g) r H X kJ?
A2 (g) B2 (g)
1 1
X2 (g) Y2 (g)
XY(g) (1) High temperature and low pressure
2 2
(2) Low temperature and high pressure
X (3) High temperature and high pressure
Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
2
respectively (4) Low temperature and low pressure
Answer ( 2 )
⎛X X⎞
H ⎜ ⎟ X 200
⎝2 4⎠ X2 (g); H x kJ
S o l . A2 (g) B2 (g)
1 1 1
CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
= (2py)2
8 4
BO = 2
2
(4) An orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers while an electron in an atom is 179. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form
designated by four quantum numbers an ionic compound. If the ground state
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3,
Answer ( 3 ) the simplest formula for this compound is
S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum (1) Mg3X2
multiplicity, the correct electronic
(2) Mg2X3
configuration of N-atom is
(3) Mg2X
(4) MgX2
2 2 3
Valency of Mg is 2.
1s 2s 2p
Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
Option (3) violates Hund's Rule. be Mg3X2.
35
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-NN) HLAAC
180. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room Answer ( 3 )
temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to
fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at 4r
S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a
room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming 3
molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
constant with temperature) is For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
1 3
(1) (2) ⎛ ZM ⎞
2 2 ⎜ N a3 ⎟ 3
d25C ⎝ A ⎠ BCC 2 ⎛ 2 2 r⎞ ⎛3 3⎞
⎜ ⎜
d900C ⎛ ZM ⎞ 4 4r ⎟ ⎝ 4 2 ⎟⎠
3 3 4 3 ⎜ ⎟
(3) (4) ⎜ N a3 ⎟ ⎝ 3 ⎠
4 2 3 2 ⎝ A ⎠ FCC
36