Volume 1

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Filipino
Basahin at unawain ang bawat aytem. Piliin ang LETRA ng pinakatamang sagot.
1. Sinong Pilipinong manunulat ang tinaguriang “Ama ng Zarsuelang Tagalog”?
A. Aurelio Tolentino C. Alejandro Abadilla

B. N.V.M. Gonzalez D. Severino Reyes
Sagot: D.
2. Ang Gintong Panahon ng Panitikan ng Pilipinas ay ang panahon ng____.
A. Amerikano C. Kastila
B. Hapones D. Kontemporaryo
Sagot: B.
3. Isang tanyag ng Pilipinong manunulat na may sagisag-panulat na “Kalipulako.”
A. Jose Dela Cruz C. Mariano Ponce

B. Antonio Luna D. Severino Reyes
Sagot:C.
4. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang HINDI epiko ng Mindanao?
A. Indarapatra at Sulayman C. Bidasari

B. Alim D. Bantugan
Sagot: B
5. Ang titik na “ng” sa Alpabetong Filipino ay nagmula sa alpabetong _________.
A. Ingles C. Romano
B. Abecedario D. Abakada
Sagot: D.
6. Ilang titik ang hiniram ng Alpabetong Filipino mula sa Alpabetong Ingles?
A. 6 C. 8
B. 7 D. 9
Sagot: B
7. Anong titulo sa panitikan ng Pilipinas ang ibinigay sa may-akda sa tulang pinamagatang “Isang Dipang Langit”?
A. Makata ng Pag-ibig C. Makata ng Masa

B. Makata ng Manggagawa D. Ama ng Wikang Pambansa
Sagot: B.
8. Isa sa pinakatanyag na Pilipinong manunulat sa Ingles at kilala sa kanyang sagisag panulat na “Doveglion.”
A. Jose Garcia Villa C. Alejandro Abadilla

B. N.V.M. Gonzalez D. Zulueta de Costa
Sagot: A.
9. Kinilala siyang “Makata ng Pag-ibig” at “Hari ng Balagtasan” ng kanyang panahon. Siya ang sumulat sa titik ng makabayang awitin na
“Bayan Ko.”
A. Jose Garcia Villa C. Aurelio Tolentino

B. Jose Corazon de Jesus D. Zulueta de Costa
Sagot: B.
10. Ang may-akda ng tulang “Ako Ang Daigdig.”
A. Alejandro Abadilla C. Aurelio Tolentino

B. Jose Corazon de Jesus D. Amado Hernandez
Sagot: A.
11. Sabihin mo na ang totoo

Totoo at walang bahid na kasinungalingan
Kasinungalingan ay ‘di ko tatanggapin
Tatanggapin lamang kung ano ang totoo at nararapat sa akin
Ang nasa itaas ay halimbawa ng anong uri ng tayutay?
A. Anapora C. Anadiplosis
B. Epipora D. Konsonans
Sagot: C.
12. Aling salita ang may klaster?
A. palma C. pluma
B. basta D. Basket
Sagot: C.
13. “Ang aking pag-ibig ay tanging sa iyo lamang.” Ibigay ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito.
A. payak C. karaniwan
B. tambalan D. di-karaniwan
Sagot: D.
14. Aling salita ang may diptonggo?
A. buwis C. buhay
B. bayan D. Iwas
Sagot: C.
15. Sa kanya pa rin babalik sigaw ng damdamin,

Sa kanya pa rin sasaya bulong ng puso ko,
Sa kanya lamang at walang ng iba.
Anong uri tayutay ang pinapakita sa itaas?
B. Epipora D. Konsanans
Sagot: A.
16. Ipaglalaban kita dahil mahal kita.

Aalagaan kita dahil mahal kita.
Kailangan kita dahil mahal kita.
B. Epipora D. Konsonans
Sagot: B.
17. Ang Cebuano, Ilokano at Hiligaynon ay halimbawa ng anong barayti ng wika?
A. sosyolek C. dayalekto
B. dyolek D. Jargon
Sagot: C.
18. “Nakulong si Janette.” Ibigay ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito.
Sagot: C.
19. “Meron akong nalalaman. ‘Di ko sasabihin sa iyo.” Nasa anong antas ng wika ang mga salitang nakasalangguhit?
A. kolokyal C. pampanitikan
B. balbal D. Lalawiganin
Sagot: A.
20. Ito ang pinakaunang sistema ng pagsulat ng mga katutubong Pilipino.
A. Alibata C. Diona
B. Cuneiform D. Abecedario
Sagot: A.
21. Ito ay isang epiko tungkol sa kasaysayan ng pag-iibigan ng mga bathala mula sa Iloilo, Antique at Aklan.
A. Hinilawod C. Bidasari
B. Biag-ni-Lam-ang D. Maragtas
Sagot: A.
22. Siya ay kilala bilang “dakilang manunulat” ng kilusang propaganda.
A. Graciano Lopez Jaena C. Marcelo H. Del Pilar

B. Jose Rizal D. Gregorio Del Pilar
Sagot: B.
23. Alin sa mga sumusunod na titik ng Alpabetong Filipino ay isang hiram?
A. y C. c
B. b D. Ng
Sagot: C.
24. Anong teroya ng wika ang nagsasabing ang wika ay nailikha bunga ng masidhing damdamin ng tao?
A. Bow-wow C. Ding-dong
B. Pooh-pooh D. Yoheho
Sagot: B.
25. Natutulog ba ang Diyos?
Ang pahayag sa itaas ay halimbawa ng anong uri ng tayutay?
A. Pagdaramdam C. Pagtanngi
B. Tanong Retorikal D. Pagsalungant
Sagot: B.
26. Bakit Tagalog ang siyang napiling batayan ng kauna-unahang wikang pambansa sa Pilipinas?
A. Dahil sa ito ang ginagamit ng mga taga-Manila kung saan naman matatagpuan ang kabisera ng Pilipinas
B. Dahil sa ito ay binubuo ng mga kaakit-akit na mga salita at bokabularyo
C. Dahil sa ito ay tinatanggap at ginagamit na ng mas nakararaming Pilipino
D. A at C
Sagot: C.
27. Ano ang naging pangalan ng wikang pambansa noong 1959?
A. Pilipino C. Tagalog
B. Filipino D. Wikang Pambansa
Sagot: A.
28. Isang awiting bayan ng ginamit sa pagpapatulog ng bata ay ang _____.
A. diona C. soliranin
B. oyayi D. Umbay
Sagot: B.
29. “Ang palasyo ay nag-anunsyo na walang pasok bukas.”

Ano ang tayutay ang ginamit sa pahayagan sa itaas?
A. Pagpapalit-saklaw C. pagtanggi
B. Pagpaplit-tawag D. Pagsalungat
Sagot: B.
30. “Apat ng mga mata ang tumititig sa kanya.”

Ano ang tayutay ang ginamit sa pahayag na ito?
A. Pagpapalit-saklaw C. Pagtanggi
B. Pagpapalit-tawag D. Pagsalungant
Sagot: A.
31. Ang “Maupay na Aga!” ng mga taga Samar ay halimbawa ng anong antas ng wika?
A. kolokyal C. balbal
B. pambansa D. Lalawigan
Sagot: D.
32. Ang “Hindi po namin kayo tatantanan” at “Dahil hindi natutulog ang balita 24 oras” ay mga tanyag na pahayag ni Mike Enriquez sa
telebisyon. Sa anong barayti ng wika ito naiuuri?
A. Jargon C. Sosyolek
B. Dayalekto D. Idyolek
Sagot: D.
33. “Neneng ang pangalan ng aking ermat.” Ano ang angtas ng wikang nakasalangguhit?
B. pambansa D. Lalawigan
Sagot: D.
34. Ano ang tamang ispeling ng salitang barbershop sa Filipino?
A. barbersyap C. barbershap
B. barbershop D. Barbersiyap
Sagot: B.
35. Isang kwento hinggil sa pinagmulan ng sansinukuban at kalipunan ng iba’t ibang paniniwala sa mga diyos at diyosa ay ___________.
A. pabula C. mitolohiya
B. parabula D. Anekdota
Sagot: C.
36. Isang mahabang tulang pasalaysay tungkol sa kabayanihan ng pangunahing tauhan na may pambihirang katangian ay ang _______.
A. epiko C. parabula
B. pabula D. Dalit
Sagot: A.
37. Alin sa apat na uri ng akdang pampanitikan na patula ay tungkol sa pangangatwiran at tagisan ng talino?
A. tulang pasalaysay C. tulang padula

B. tulang patnigan D. tulang Iiriko
Sagot: B.
38. “Ikaw ang aking mahal.” Ibigay ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito.
Sagot: D.
39. Alin sa mga sumusunod ay HINDI tulang pasalaysay?
A. Moro-moro C. Awit
B. Epiko D. Korido
Sagot: A.
40. Alin sa mga tula sa ibaba ang isang tulang liriko?
A. Panunuluyan C. Pastoral
B. Duplo D. Balagtasan
Sagot: C.
41. Isang tulang maromansa na kung saan nakaharap sa mga pakikipagsapalaran ang mga tauhan at hago sa tunay na buhay ay _______.
A. Oda C. soneto
B. Awit D. Elehiya
Sagot: B.
42. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang HINDI epilo ng Bisaya?
A. Lagda C. Bidasari
B. Maragtas D. Hinilawod
Sagot: C.
43. Ang tinaguriang pinakasikat na epiko ng mga Ilokano, ay ang ______.
A. Ibalon at Aslon C. Hinilawod

B. Bantugan D. Biag ni Lam-ang
Sagot: D.
44. Ito ay isang epiko na tungkol sa mga bathalang Ifugao ni Punholdayan at Makanungan. Tinutukoy rito ang pagpapakasal ng magkapatid na
Bugan at Wigan.
A. Haraya C. Hari sa Bukid

B. Alim D. Lagda
Sagot: B.
45. Alin sa mga sumusunod ay isang epiko ng mga Ifugao
A. Ibalon at Aslon C. Biag ni Lam-ang

B. Hudhud D. Haraya
Sagot: B
46. Isang manunulat sa wikang Kastila na may sagisag panulat na Batikuling at nahirang na Makatang Laureado, ay si _________.
A. Jesus Balmori C. Alejandro Abadilla

B. N.V.M. Gonzalez D. Zueleta de Costa
Sagot: A.
47. Ang kauna-unahang nobelang sinulat ng isang Pilipino gamit ang wikang Ingles, ay ang ______.
A. The Wound and Stars C. Like the Molave

B. A Child of Sorrow D. A Vision of Beauty
Sagot: B.
48. Isang Cebuana na ipinalalagay na pinakapangunahing manunulat na babae sa Ingles bago makadigma, ay si ________.
A. Estrella Alfon C. Dolores Manapat

B. N.V.M. Gonzalez D. Jomapa
Sagot: A.
49. “Nagtaksil si Adrian”. Ibigay ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito.
Sagot: C.
50. “Umiiyak si Ana habang siya ay nagbasa ng isang sulat.” Anong uri ng pangungusap ayon sa kayarian ang pangungusap na ito?
A. pasalaysay C. hugnayan
B. padamdam D. Tambalan
Sagot: C.
51. “Nasusunog ang bahay!” Anong uri ng pangungusap ayon sa kayarian ang pangungusap na ito?
A. padamdam C. payak
B. pasalaysay D. Tambalan
Sagot: C.
52. Ito ay ang pag-aaral ng makabuluhang tunog ng isang wika.
A. Ponolohiya C. Sintaks
B. Morpolohiya D. Palabuuan
Sagot: B.
53. Isang pag-aaral tungkol sa wika na tinatawag ding palabuuan, ay ang _______.
A. Ponolohiya C. Sintaks
B. Morpolohiya D. Wala sa Nabanggit
Sagot:B.
54. Alin sa mga sumusunod ay HINDI uri ng pangungusap ayon sa gamit?
A. padamdam C. pautos
B. langkapan D. Patanong
Sagot: B.
55. Sino ang may-akda ng nobelang Banaag at Sikat?
A. Jose dela Cruz C. Jose Corazon de Jesus

B. Lope K. Santos D. Emilio Jacinto
Sagot: B.
56. Isang Pilipinong manunulat na may sagisag panulat na Dimas-ilaw, ay si _____.
A. Jose dela Cruz C. Jose Corazon de Jesus

B. Anotonio Luna D. Emilio Jacinto
Sagot: D..
57. May sagisag panulat na Paralitiko at ang tinaguriang “Utak ng Himagsikan”, ay si _______.
A. Emilio Jacinto C. Jose Corazon de Jesus

B. Anotonio Luna D. Apolinario Mabini
Sagot: D.
58. Isang satirikong bersyon ni Del Pilar sa akdang sinulat ni Padre Jose Rodriguez na may ganito ring pamagat, ay ang ______.
A. Caiingat Cayo
B. Dasalan at Tocsohan
C. Fray Botod
D. Sagot ng Espanya sa Hibik ng Pilipinas
Sagot: A.
59. Sino ang may-akda ng Dasalan at Tocsohan?
A. Graciano Lopez Jaena

B. N.V.M. Gonzalez
C. Andres Bonifacio
D. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
Sagot: D.
60. Isang tanyag na Pilipinong manunulat na may sagisag-panulat na “Agap-ito Bagumbayan” si ______.

B. N.V.M. Gonzalez
C. Andres Bonifacio
D. Marcelo H. Del Pilar
Sagot: C.
61. Isang awiting bayan na tungkol sa pakikipagkaibigan ang _________.
A. sambotani C. daeleng
B. salagintok D. Oyayi
Sagot: B.
62. Sino si Dolores Manapat?

B. N.V.M Gonzalez
C. Andres Bonifacio
D. Marcelo H. del Pilar
Sagot: D.
63. Isang tulang maromansa na kung saan angmga tauhan ay may kapangyarihang
A. oda C. soneto
B. korido D. Elehiya
Sagot: B.
64. Ito ay isang tulang patnigan at hango sa isang alamat ng isang dalagang naghulog ng singsing sa dagat at ang sinumang binatang
makakakita nito ay siyang pakakasalan ng dalaga.
A. panubong C. elehiya
B. karagatan D. Oda
Sagot: B.
65. Isang manunulat sa panahon ng Amerikano na naging tanyag sa kanyang tulang “Ang Guryon”. Sino ito?
A. Ildefonso Santos C. Alejandro Abadilla

B. Amado Hernandez D. Teodor Gener
Sagot: A.
66. Siya ang “Ama ng Maikling Kwento sa Pilipinas”.
A. Jose Garcia Villa

B. Deogracias Rosario
C. Aurelio Tolentino
D. Zulueta de Costa
Sagot: B.
67. Isang dula na sumikat nang humina angzarzuela sa Pilipinas, ay ang _______. Ito ay tinatawag ding stage show sa Ingles.
A. bodabil C. karagatan
B. duplo D. Korido
Sagot: A.
68. Ang may-akda ng “Kahapon, Ngayonat Bukas” ay si ______.
A. Aurelio Tolentino C. Alejandro Abadilla

B. Juan Abad D. Severiono Reyes
Sagot: A.
69. Siya ang sumulat ng dulang ang “Tanikalang Ginto” na kung saan inakyat ng mga alagad ng batas ang Batangas habang itinatanghal ang
dulang ito at dinakop ang may-akda.
A. Aurelio Tolentino
B. Juan Abad
C. Alejandro Abadilla
D. Severiono Reyes
Sagot: B.
70. Ang mga sumusunod ay mga nobela ni Lualhati Bautista MALIBAN sa _____.
A. Dekada
B. Satanas sa Lupa
C. Gapo
D. Bulaklak ng City Jail
Sagot: B.
71. Isang batikan at kilalang feministang manunulat na kung saan ang kanyang akda ay nakapokus sa mga kababaihan si _______. Siya ang
may-akda ng “Bata, Bata, Paano ka Ginawa?
A. Estrella Alfon
B. Laulhat Bautista
C. Fausto Galauran
D. Gervacion Santiago
Sagot: B.
72. Ito ay isang kwento tungkol sa pagpapadala ng prinsipe sa kanyang kapatid na lalaki upang patayin ang mga halimaw sa kabilang bundok.
Ito ang tinaguriang alamat ng Mindanao.
A. Alim C. Indarapatra at Sulayman

B. Hudhud D. Wala sa Nabanggit
Sagot: C.
73. Handa nang lumisan ang taong “amoy lupa” nang malaman niyang nasa maayos na nakalagayan ang mga anak nito. Ang pariralang “amoy
lupa” ay nagsasaad ng anong antas ng wika?
B. pambansa D. Pampanitikan
Sagot: D.
74. Isang epiko ng mga Bisaya na tungkol sa kalipunan ng mga kautusan ng pamahalaan. Gaya ng “Kodigo ni Kalantiyaw” ng tribu ng Aklan ang
______.
A. Bantugan C. Bidasari
B. Lagda D. Darangan
Sagot: B.
75. Siya ang may-akda ng dulang ang “Dalagang Bukid”.

A. Hermogenes Ilagan C. Alejandro Abadilla
B. N.V.M. Gonzalez D. Patricio Mariano
Sagot: A.
76. Sino ang may-akda ng Fray Botod?
A. Jose Garcia Villa C. Marcelo del Pillar

B. Graciano Lopez Jaena D. Jose Rizal
Sagot: B.
77. Isang awiting bayan na tungkol sa paglilibing ang ________.
A. umbay C. sambotani
B. kundiman D. Soliranin
Sagot: A.
78. Sino ang may-akda ng maikling kwento na “Kwento ni Mabuti”?
A. Estrella Alfon C. Genoveva matute

B. Deogracias Rosario D. Lualhati Bautista
Sagot: C.
79. “Ikaw ay may pusong bato”. Ibigay ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito.
Sagot: D.
80. Siya ang may-akda ng maikling kwento na “Uhaw ang Tigang na Lupa”.
A. Liwayway Arceo C. Genoveva Matute

B. Lualhati Bautista D. Estrella Alfon
Sagot: A.
81. “Hindi ko kaya ang mabuhay s amundo kung mawawala ka sa piling ko.”
A. Pagtutulad C. Pagwawangis
B. Pagmamalabis D. Pagsasatao
Sagot: B.
82. Ikinalulungkot ko ang mga kalamidad na dumating sa Pilipinas. Ang kaganapan ng pandiwang nakasalangguhit sa pangungusap ay ______.
A. ganapan C. tagaganap
B. sanhi D. Tagatanggap
Sagot: B
83. Si Janeth Napolesya ay naglulubid ng buhangin. Ang pariralang “naglulubid ng buhangin” ay nagsasaad ng anong antas ng wika?
B. pambansa D. Pampanitika
Sagot: D.
84. Ang Alibata ay ahngo sa alpabetong Arao na “alif-ba-ta”. Ito ay may 7 titik: 3 patinig at 14 na katinig. Ano ang ibang tawag sa alibata?
A. Baybayin C. Diona
B. Cuneiform D. Abecedario
Sagot: A
85. Sino si Herninia dela Riva sa tunay na buhay?
A. Ildefonso Santos C. Alejandro Abadilla

B. Amado Hernandez D. Teodor Gener
Sagot: B.
86. Alin sa mga sumusunod na akda ni Aureio Tolentino ang siyang naging sanhi ng kanyang pagkakakulong?
A. Luhang Tagalog C. Bagong Kristo

B. Kahapon, Ngayon at Bukas D. Manood Kayo
Sagot: B.
87. Siya ang may-akda ng “Ninay”?
A. Pedro Paterno
B. Emilio Jacinto
C. Jomapa
D. Isabelo delos Reyes
Sagot: A.
88. Ano ang pamagat ng ating pambansang awit?
A. Bayang Magiliw
B. Perlas ng Silanganan
C. Alab ng Puso
D. Lupang Hinirang
Sagot: D.
89. Nagpupuyos sa galit ang kanyang ina nang malaman nito ang pagbubulakbol sa klase. Ano ang ibig sabihin ng nakasalunguhit?
A. Inis na inis sa galit C. na-ngingitnigt sa galit

B. Nagbubuhos ng galit D. nakikimkim ng galit
Sagot: C.
90. “Kumakain ng prutas si Jherame.” Ibigay ang polus ng pandiwa na nasa pangungusap.
Sagot: C.
91. Hayun ang mga bata na masayang naglalaro. Ang salitang hayun ay isang ________.
A. pang-abay C. pangngalan
B. pang-angkop D. Panghalip
Sagot: D.
92. “Pinagbakasyunan nina Eng-eng at Tonton ang Camotes.” Ano ang polus ng pandiwa na nasa pangungusap?
Sagot: A.
93. Alin sa mga salita sa ibaba ang nasa kayariang KPPKKPKPKP?
A. kasaysayan C. katapangan
B. heograpiya D. Klastering
Sagot: B.
94. “Ipinagluto ng kanyang asawa si Jestoni.” Ano ang pokus ng pandiwa na nasa pangungusap?
A. ganapin C. tagaganap
Sagot: D.
95. Kapag sinasabing “Itaga mo sa bato ang aking pangako” siya ay
A. Natutuwa sa kanyang pangako

B. Nakataga n pangako sa bato
C. Nagsasabi ng totoo
D. Nangangako ng pagtupad sa pangako
Sagot: C.
96. Anong hulwaran ng organisasyon ito?
Tumaas ang presyo ng lahat ng bilihin ngayong taon. Dahil kasi ito s apagtaas ng dagdag na buwis na ipinataw ng pamahalaan sa lahat ng mga
bilihin.
A. Paghahambing at pagkokontrast
B. Problema sa solusyon
C. Sanhi at bunga
D. Enumerasyon
Sagot: C.
97. Anong uri ng tayutay ang napapaloob sa pahayag na ito?
NALIGO NA SA HAMOG NG GAMI ANG MGA BULAKLAK
A. pagmamalabis C. pagpapalit-tawag
B. pag-uuyam D. Pagsasatao
Sagot: D.
98. Angsarsuwelang igit na kaugnayan ng pangalang Severino Reyes ay _____________.
A. Dalagang Bukid C. Walang sugat

B. R.I.P. D. Minda Nora
Sagot: C
99. Sa tulang ito pinahalagahan ni Jose Rizal ang mga kabataan ang pag-asa ng bayan.
A. Sa Aking mga Kababata C. Filipino Dentro de Cien anos

B. Mi Ultimo Adios D. Ala Juventud Filipino
Sagot: D.
100. Sa ____ ng Gabi gaganapin ang pulong sa mga manunulat.
A. Ika-walo C. Ika 8
B. Ika-8 D. Ikawalo
Sagot: B.
NATURAL SCIENCE
1. Scientists tend to replicate the measurements during an experiment. The main reason behind this is for them to
A. estimate the experimental error

B. list the date in a tabulation
C. change the experimental conditions
D. find out if the equipment is working
Answer: A.
2. Arrange the following steps in the most logical order of scientific investigation.
I. Formulate
II. Perform the experiment
III. State the problem
IV. Draw the generalization
A. III, II, I IV C. III, I, II, IV

B. III, IV, II, I D. III, II, IV, I
Answer: C.
3. Roger and Henry are doing their experiments; both use the same kind of materials same amount of different liquids, the same placed
where they performed their experiment. What is the variable in the experiment?
A. Bottles
B. Amount of liquid
C. Kind of liquid
D. Place of experiment
Answer:C.
4. What is the importance of control set-up in experimentation?
A. It will identify the variables in the experiment.

B. It will provide a basis of comparison between treated and untreated subjects.
C. It will provide a basis for measuring data.
D. It will eliminate mechanical errors in experimentation.
Answer: B.
5. Linda formulated a hypothesis that anthurium flower will grow larger if fish bone is added to the soil. She has two experimental plots of
anthurium, one with fish bone and the other without fish bone. Which data should she be collected to support this hypothesis?
A. Height of Anthurium plant in both plots

B. Length of growing time in both plots
C. Size of anthurium flower in both plots
D. Amount of fish bone in both plots
Answer: C.
6. The process of comparing one quantity with the corresponding standard is called ______.
A. Measurement C. Interpolation extrapolation

B. Formulation D. Extrapolation
Answer: A.
7. Which of the following relationships is correct?
A. A meter is less than a kilometer

B. A second is more than a minute
C. A centigram is equal to a milligram
D. A decimeter is greater than a decameter
Answer: A.
8. Matter is anything that has ________.

A. Weight and volume C. Weight and mass
B. Mass and volume D. Mass and shape
Answer: B.
9. The relationship between quantity A and B is expressed in the equation, AB = K. What graph line is formed if quantity A is plotted against
quantity B?
A. Straight line slanting to the right C. Parabola

B. Horizontal line D. Hyperbola
Answer: D.
10. A student walks from home to school 3 blocks away and then returns home for lunch. After lunch, he goes back to school. His total
displacement is _______.
A. 0 block
B. 3 blocks
C. 6 blocks
D. 9 blocks
Answer: B.
11. Which description below shows the fastest runner?
A. The one with the longest recorded time

B. The one with the farthest distance travelled
C. The one with the farthest distance travelled at long recorded time
D. The one with the farthest distance travelled at shorter recorded time
Answer: D.
12. What property of matter is involved in the sign, “Fasten Your Seat Belt”?
A. Impenetrability C. Acceleration
B. Inertia D. Interaction
Answer: B.
13. Two items of similar shapes and weights are dropped simultaneously from ten-storey building. Which of the following statements is
correct about the failing rate (acceleration) of the objects?
A. The weight of the objects has no effect on the falling rate.

B. The shape of the objects has a minor effect on the falling rate.
C. The resistance of the air has no effect on the falling rate.
D. The distance of the fall has an effect on the falling rate.
Answer: A.
14. Which laboratory equipment/s is/are used to find whether a ring is genuine or fake?
I. Platform balance
II. Graduate cylinder
III. Beaker
A. I only C. I and II only

B. II only D. I, II and III
Answer: C.
15. If three-fourths of the block of wood floating in water is below the surface of the water, the density of this block of wood is _______.
A. Greater than the density of water

B. More than half the density of water
C. Equal to the density of water
D. Less than half the density of water
Answer: B.
16. Four circular holes of equal size arranged from top to bottom were cut 2 cm apart into a large plastic bottle. The holes were covered first
with tape, and the bottle was filled with water. The tape was then removed simultaneously. Which of the following statements will best
described the result?
A. Water from each hole will squirt out the same distance from the bottle.
B. Water from the top hole will squirt out the farthest.
C. Water from the bottom hole will squirt out the farthest.
D. The sudden release of water will cause the bottle to collapse.
Answer: C.
17. Which of the following situations is true as a boat moves from salty sea to fresh water river?
A. It sinks deeper C. it says at the same level.

B. It floats higher. D. it moves faster
Answer: B.
18. Which of the following is conserved when a pendulum is swinging?
A. Mass C. Energy
B. Momentum D. Weight
Answer: C.
19. Which statement best explains why ice is a good refrigerant?
A. It cools by evaporation C. It conducts heat quickly

B. It absorbs heat while melting D. It does not melt inside the refrigerator
Answer: B.
20. Where does visible light fall on the electromagnetic spectrum?
A. between infrared and ultraviolet radiations

B. between FM and AM radio waves
C. between microwaves and infrared radiations
D. between gamma rays and x-rays
Answer: A.
21. An object becomes positively charge if it _____.
A. gains protons C. loses protons

B. gains electrons D. loses electrons
Answer: D.
22. What relationship exists between current and voltage when resistance is constant?
A. Direct proportionality
B. Direct-square proportionality
C. Inverse proportionality
D. Inverse-square proportionality
Answer: A
23. If three light bulbs of different wattages are connected in series to battery, which of the following is true?
A. The resistance in each light bulb will be the same.

B. The current in each light bulb will be the same.
C. The light output of each light bulb will be the same
D. The power consumed by each light bulb will be the same.
Answer: B.
24. The force that holds the atoms and molecules together to form larger bodies is known as
A. Gravitational force C. Weak nuclear force

B. Electromagnetic force D. Strong nuclear force
Answer: D
25. Which of the following statements is true of nuclear fission?

A. The energy process is identical to that which occurs in the sun.
B. Energy is obtained by getting nucleus of the atoms to break up or split.
C. Scientists can combine lighter nuclei to form a heavier nucleus.
D. Matter from the lighter atoms is changed into energy.
Answer: B.
26. Which of the following statements about atomic structure is not true?
A. Atoms are mostly empty space.

B. All atoms of the same atomic number are atoms of the same element.
C. Most of the mass of the atom is concentrated at the nucleus.
D. An atom can gain or lose electrons without changing its charge.
Answer: When an atom gains or loses electron, that atom becomes electrically charged. If it gains electrons, it becomes negatively
charged; it if loses electrons, it become positively charged.
27. Atoms consist of three fundamental particles. What are these particles and their charges?
A. Proton (-), neutron (+) and electron (neutral)

B. Proton (+), neutron (-) and electron (neutral)
C. Proton (+), neutron (neutral) and electron (-)
D. Proton (-), neutron (neutral) and electron (+)
Answer: C.
28. Uranium 238 has an atomic number of 92. It can be inferred that this atom has _____.
A. 92 protons, 146 electrons, and 92 neutrons

B. 146 protons, 92 electrons, and 92 neutrons
C. 92 protons, 92 electrons, and 146 neutrons
D. 146 protons, 146 electrons, and 238 neutrons
Answer: C.
29. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in n = 4?
A. 2 C. 16
B. 8 D. 32
Answer: D.
30. Which element in the periodic table has the symbol Ca?
A. Cadmium C. Carbon
B. Calcium D. Californium
Answer: B.
31. Loans are formed by _____.
A. Gaining or losing electrons C. sharing protons

B. Gaining or losing protons D. sharing electrons
Answer: B.
32. A given gas occupies 2000 cc at a pressure of 90 cm of mercury. What volume will the same gas occupy if the pressure becomes ½ of the
original pressure?
A. 1000 cc C. 3000 cc
B. 2000 cc D. 4000 cc
Answer: D.
33. All of the following characteristics of metals, except _______.
A. good conductor C. malleability

B. brittleness D. ductility
Answer: B.
34. Which is true of metalloids?
A. Have properties of both metals and non-metals

B. Conduct electricity better than metals
C. Conduct heat better meals
D. Conduct heat and electricity less effective than non-metals
Answer: A.
35. Which of the substance below are compounds and not elements or mixtures?
I. Ethanol
II. Neon
III. Water
IV. Crude Oil
A. I, III and IV C. I and III

B. I and IV D. III only
Answer: C.
36. In the given list of mixtures, the one which is considered homogenous is ________.
A. Alloy, air, sugar solution

B. Rainwater, petroleum, gravel and stand
C. Salt solution, sugar, sea water
D. Water, air oil
Answer: A.
37. In a flame test, what is the color of the flame if there is a presence of boron in a solution?
A. Brick red C. Royal blue

B. Yellow gold D. Bright green
Answer: D.
38. Which of the following properties are characteristics of acids?
A. Turn red litmus paper to blue, have pH less than 7 and are electrical conductors
B. Turn red litmus paper to blue, are electrical conductors and react with metals
C. Turn blue litmus paper to red, have pH less than 7 and react with metals
D. Turn blue litmus paper to red, have pH greater than 7 and electrical conductors
Answer: C.
39. Which warning label indicates a chemical property of the material being labeled?
A. Fragile C. Shake well

B. Handle with care D. Flammable
Answer: D.
40. The chemical reaction that releases heat energy during the process is called _______.
A. Endothermic reaction C. Synthesis reaction

B. Exothermic reaction D. Decomposition reaction
Answer: B.
41. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
A. Melting of candle C. Dissolving sugar

B. Rusting of iron D. Boiling of water
Answer: B.
42. A change in state from solid to gas without passing the liquid state is called _______.
A. Solidification C. Condensation
B. Evaporation D. Sublimation
Answer: D.
43. Which two processes are reversible and occur at the same temperature?
I. Freezing
II. Condensation
III. Melting
IV. Sublimation
A. I and II C. II and III

B. I and III D. III and IV
Answer: B.
44. The radioisotope which is now used in cancer radiation treatment is ________.
A. Cobalt 60 C. Sodium 24
B. Uranium 238 D. Iodine 131
Answer: A.
45. Which radioactive radiation coming from external source is most dangerous to human body?
A. X-rays C. Beta radiation

B. Alpha radiation D. Gamma radiation
Answer: D.
46. The history of the Earth has been divided by scientists into eras. Which of the following shows the arrangement of these eras into the
proper sequence from the oldest to the most recent?
A. Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic

B. Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Precambrian
C. Precambrian, Mesozoic, Cenozoic, Paleozoic
D. Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Precambrian, Mesozoic
Answer: A.
47. The invention of the telescope is very significant because ________.
A. It brightens the light coming from the stars.

B. It analyzes the composition of the plant
C. It allows the observations of far objects.
D. It determines the age of the stars.
Answer: C.
48. All the planets in the solar system _________.
A. Have the same temperature C. revolve around the sun

B. Can maintain life D. are exactly of same size
Answer: C.
49. Which scientist paved the way for modern exploration by advancing the theory that planets revolve around sun?
A. Ptolemy
B. Aristotle
C. Copernicus
D. Harvey
Answer: C.
50. Which of the following is the main cause of seasonal changes?
A. The distance of the earth from the sun

B. The rotational of the sun about the earth
C. The revolution of the earth around the sun
D. D. The titling of the earth on its axis
Answer: D.
51. Solar eclipse occurs when ______.
A. The Moon is between the Earth and the Sun.

B. The Earth is between the Moon and the Sun.
C. The Sun is between the Earth and the Moon.
D. The Earth is behind the Sun.
Answer: A.
52. What phase of the Moon is observed when it cannot be seen at all because it passes directly between the earth and the Sun?
A. New Moon C. Full Moon

B. First quarter D. Last quarter
Answer: A.
53. Two minerals are both green and shiny. Which of the following methods can be used to identify whether they are the same or different?
A. Identify the general characteristics C. Determine and visible characteristics

B. Find out which one is organic D. Compute and compare their densities
Answer: D.
54. Fossils are mostly to be found in ______.
A. Sedimentary rocks C. Metamorphic rocks

B. Igneous rocks D. Plutonic rocks
Answer: A.
55. Tropical disturbances are classified as tropical depression, tropical storm or typhoon. This classification is based on the _______.
A. Amount of rainfall
B. Strength of the accompanying winds
C. Amount of rainfall and strength of accompanying winds
D. Origin of formation
Answer: B..
56. The Philippines lies in the region where many volcanoes are active. This region is known as
A. Wheel of Fire C. Volcanic Rim

B. Ring of Fire D. Archipelagic Fault Line
Answer: B.
57. The following means help in controlling floods, except
A. Reforestation C. Crop rotation

B. Deforestation D. Construction of flood ways
Answer: B.
58. Petroleum is formed by the ______.
A. decay of microorganisms under heat and pressure

B. heat from radioactive substances found in the mantle
C. volcanic eruptions that burn living matters
D. steam trapped underneath a geologic column
Answer: A.
59. Farmers add commercial fertilizers to the soil to ______.
A. Speed up the decay of bacteria

B. Add mineral content
C. Active the growth of earthworms
D. Enhance the growth of the roots
Answer: B.
60. All of the following are reasons why terraces are built in Mountain Province, except
A. to accommodate excess run of water

B. to provide space for planting rice
C. to make the place beautiful
D. D. to provide steps for the natives to go up hill
Answer: C.
61. The biologist who probably first used the term “cell” was ________.
A. Hooke C. Leeuwenhoek
B. Browne D. Schleiden
Answer: A.
62. When a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution
A. The plant cell will expand.

B. The plant cell will rupture.
C. The plant cell will shrink.
D. There will be no effect on the plant cell.
Answer: C
A. chemical composition C. structural similarities

B. physiological traits D. evolutionary sequence
Answer: D. Phytogenetic involves the origin and evolutionary development of plants.
63. Which of the following organisms is included in the Kingdom Plantae?
A. Magnolidae C. Protozoa
B. Fungi D. Prokaryotes
Answer: A. Magnolidae is one of the evergreen trees. Thus, it belongs to kingdom plantae.
64. The molecule that allows plants to capture energy from the sun is the _______.
A. ATP C. chlorophyll
B. carbon dioxide D. sugar
Answer: C.
65. What plant tissue is responsible for transporting water and minerals form the roots to the leaves and conveying food materials from the
leaves to all parts of the body?
A. Vascular tissue C. Primary tissue

B. Meristematic tissue D. Secondary tissue
Answer: A.
66. Which of the following protists can cause dysentery?
A. Aedisegypti C. Gorilla beringei

B. Entamoebahistolyca D. Streptococcus
Answer: B.
67. What phylum classification is the transmitter of dengue?
A. Arthropoda C. Echinodermata
B. Hermichordate D. Annelida
Answer: A.
68. A cold-blooded animal is one that _______.
A. lacks red corpuscles C. has a variable body temperature

B. lacks white corpuscles D. has a fixed body temperature
Answer: C..
69. Spiders can be distinguished from insects by the fact that spiders have _____.
A. hard outer covering C. large abdomens

B. four pairs of legs D. biting mouth parts
Answer: B..
70. In order to determine the cause of an infectious disease, a diagnostic test that allows microorganisms to multiply in a medium is performed
in a controlled laboratory condition. This test is called ______.
A. Complete blood count C. Microbial culture

B. Urinalysis D. In virtro fertilization
Answer: C.
71. A lot of malnourished children in Africa are found to have poor teeth and eyesight. This is believed to be caused by deficiency in _______.
A. Vitamin A and D C. Vitamin C

B. Iodine D. Iron
Answer: A.
72. The two chemical factors that can cause decomposition are
A. death and cellular respiration C. autolysis and putrefaction

B. autolysis and photosynthesis D. putrefaction and respiration
Answer: C.
73. How will genetic drift affect the population of rabbits that are living in a stable habitat with no changes in the environment?
A. It will increase the population of the rabbits.
B. It will decrease the genetic variation of the rabbits.
C. It will develop the dominance and superior traits of the rabbits.
D. It will enhance the appearance of new traits of the rabbits.
Answer:C.
74. The union of an egg and sperm cell inside a test tube is called ______.
A. Self pollination C. Embryology
B. In vivo fertilization D. in vitro fertilization
Answer: D.
75. Which of the following is under the grass family?

A. Bamboo C. Moss
B. Fern D. Mushroom
Answer: A
76. The appendix, though a part of the large intestine, has no digestive function. It is therefore called
A. A heterogeneous organ C. an addendum organ
B. A vestigial structure D. An analogous structure
Answer: B.
77. Which of the following is the by-product of photosynthesis?
A. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen D. Carbohydrates
Answer: A.
78. The protein shell of a virus is called _____.

A. Nucleolus C. Nucleus
B. Capsid D. Nucleic acid
Answer: B.
79. Which of the following molecules contains an organism’s genetic structure?
A. Nucleic acid C. Nucleolus
B. Cytosal D. Cytoplasts
Answer: A.
80. The segmented worm that can be used to facilitate anticoagulation is the _______.
A. Earthworm C. Flatworm
B. Leech D. Remora
Answer: B..
81. Which of the following is an example of non-pathogenic microorganism?

A. Probiotics such as lactobacilli C. Plasmodium vivax
B. Yerseniapestis D. Influenza sp.
Answer: A.
82. What stage in chicken pox is considered very contagious?

A. When wounds are peeling off
B. When wounds have swollen
C. When all wounds have disappeared
D. During the first week
Answer: A.
83. Some genetic orders are caused by the damage to DNA, which cannot be repaired. This shows
A. Mutation C. Embryology
B. Pathology D. Speciation
Answer A.
84. What do you call the consumers that directly feed on producers and get the greatest amount of energy?
A. Decomposers C. Herbivores
B. Carnivores D. Omnivores
Answer: C.
85. What term is used to describe an organism which depends its subsistence on others?
A. Prey C. Medium
B. Parasite D. Host
Answer: B.
86. The main organ for respiration is the _____.

A. Nose C. Esophagus
B. Lungs D. Trachea
Answer: B.
87. All of the following are autotrophs, except _________.
A. Fern C. Herb
B. Grasshopper D. Grass
Answer: B.
88. What organism would most likely be in arctic environment?

A. Frog C. Rice bird
B. Turtle D. Walrus
Answer: D.
89. Which is true about dominant genes?

A. They prevent the expression of other genes in the same locus.
B. They should be paired with recessive genes.
C. They cannot be expressed if heterozygous.
D. They are aggressive and express the more beneficial traits.
Answer: D.
90. Which of the following best describes the science of Ecology?

A. Living things C. Life and environment
B. Rocks D. Weather and climate
Answer: C.
91. What do you call the natural environment where a certain organism lives and thrives?
A. Community C. Country
B. Habitat D. Ecosystem
Answer: B.
92. When water from a river is mixed with sewage in a septic tank, water pollution occurs and this is called _______.
A. Eutrophication C. Hydrolysis
B. Hypertrophication D. Water condensation
Answer: B.
93. The main aim of Bruntland Commission is the development that meets the needs of the present, without compromising the ability of the
future generation to meet their own needs. This development is classified as ______.
A. sustainable development C. uncompromising development
B. environmental development D. ecological development
Answer: A.
94. The “red tide” phenomenon causes what particular marine organism to be poisonous for human consumption?
A. Arthropods C. Earthworms
B. Mollusks D. Algae
Answer: B.
95. Which environmental law requires industries to install anti-pollution devices and bans the use of incinerators?
A. Philippine Clean Air Act C. Anti-pollution Act
B. Environmental Security Act D. Greenpeace Act
Answer: A.
96. The progressive flooding in some parts of Mindanao are believed to be caused by _______.
A. Cultural minority discrimination
B. Irrigation of vast rice fields
C. Wanton cutting of trees
D. Construction of fish ponds
Answer: C.
97. The El Niño phenomenon, which grabbed control of the world’s weather machine, is described as meteorologists as ___.
A. Landslides, flash floods, warm air currents
B. Heavy downpours, tropical storms, strong winds
C. Lack of rains, droughts, crop failure
D. Monsoons, easterly winds, low pressure area
Answer: C.
98. The Kyoto Protocol requires the reduction of greenhouse gases in the environment. This practice advocates.
A. environment protection C. ecological destruction
B. energy conservation D. sustainable development
Answer: A..
99. At present, scientists report about the formation of holes in the ozone layer of the atmosphere. This dangerous trend is being blamed on
what of the following wrong practices?
A. The use of ozone itself on the surface of the earth
B. The excessive use of aerosols
C. Removals of the protective covered lie the green plants
D. The use of soil fertilizers on earth
Answer: B.
Math
1. If the probability that it will rain today is 5/8, what is the probability that it will not?
A. 1/8 C. 1/4
B. 3/8 D. 100%
Answer: B
2. The thousandths digit of the number 1, 234.5678, is ________.
A. 1 C. 8
B. 7 D. 5
Answer: B.
3. The degree of the term -4x2y, is __________.
A. 4th C. 2nd
B. 1st D. 3rd
Answer: D.
4. If x is an odd integer and y is an even integer, which of the following is an even integer.
A. 2x-y-1 C. x2+37+1
B. x2+y D. 4x-1
Answer: C.
5. Find the distance between (3, 2) and (-1, 4).
A. 5 √❑ C. 10
B. 2 √❑ D. 2 √ ❑
Answer: D.
6. The difference between gross profit and cost of goods sold is known as ______________.
A. markdown C. net profit

B. discount D. invoice price
Answer:Net Profit = Gross Profit – Cost of Goods Sold
7. Julius has ₱15,000.00 in the bank. After a year, he expects to earn ₱750.00. What is the rate of interest?
A. 2% C. 5%
B. 4% D. 6%
Answer: C
8. The greatest common divisor (GCD) of 91, 39 and 78 is _____.
A. 24 C. 91
B. 13 D. 39
Answer: b.
9. The property of real numbers which describes (5+6)-3 = -3 + (5+6) is ______.
A. Commutative C. Distributive
B. Associative D. Reflexive
Answer: A.
10. Which is a proportion?
A. 5:4 = 15:12 C. 4:5 = 12:10

B. 8:3 = 16:9 D. 1/2:7 = 5:2
Answer: A
11. After receiving a 30% discount, Jay paid ₱210.00 for an item. What is the regular price of the item?
A. ₱300.00 C. ₱380.00
B. ₱350.00 D. ₱400.00
Answer: A.
12. Peter borrows ₱15,000.00 from the bank at the rate of 12% per year. How much will he owe the bank after 1.5 years?
A. ₱16,000.00 C. ₱17,000.00
B. ₱16,700.00 D. ₱17,700.00
Answer: D.
13. 1/8 in percent is ______.
A. 10.5% C. 14.5%
B. 12.5% D. 16.5%
Answer: b.
14. Simplify the equation:

( 89 − 13 ) ÷ ( 34 − 61 )
21 19
A. C.
20 20
20 20
B. D.
21 19
Answer; B.
15. John invested ₱5,000.00 in a certain business. How much will his money be in 2 years if in earns 12% interest a year?
A. ₱6,000.00 C. ₱6,200.00
B. ₱6,100.00 D. ₱6,300.00
Answer: F = P (1+rt) = ₱5,000 (1+0.12 (2))= ₱6,200
16. What do you call an equality of 2 ratios?
A. Quotient C. percentage
B. Fraction D. proportion
Answer: D.
17. How many gallons of 30% solution of hydrochloric acid should be added to 2 gallons of 15% solution of the same acid, to make a 20%
solution?
A. 1 C. 2
B. 1.5 D. 2.5
Answer: A
sin sin θ
18. What is ?
cos cos θ
A. sec secθ
B. cot cot θ
C. tan tan θ
D. csc csc θ
sin sin θ cos cos θ

Answer: tan tan θ= cot cot θ=
cos cos θ sin sinθ
19. The number of hours spent for review in Algebra, Chemistry and English is in the ratio of 4:3:1. How many hours does each student spend
for Chemistry in a 24-hour review package?
A. 3 C. 9
B. 6 D. 12
Answer: C.
20. What is the value in grams of 3.5 kilograms?
A. 35 C. 3500
B. 350 D. 35000
ANSWER: C
21. If m < 0 and n > o, which of the following is true?
m 1 1
A. =0 C. <
n m n
1 1
B. mn> 0 D. >
m n
Answer: C.
22. What is the value of 360in radians?
π π
A. C.
5 3
π π
B. D.
4 2
Answer: A.
23. What least common multiple (LCM) of 18 and 24 is ______.
A. 6 C. 36
B. 24 D. 72
Answer: D.
24. How many pieces of 7 ½ in, wire can be cut from a 31 ¼ ft roll of wire?
A. 5 C. 25
B. 10 D. 50
Answer: D.
.
25. What do you call a triangle with equal sides?
A. Scalene C. isosceles
B. Equilateral D. right
Answer: B.
26. Solve for the value of x to make the proportion x:8 = 4:16 true.
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
Answer: b.
−4
27. If sin sin θ= and cos cos θ>0 , what is the value of tan tan θ?
5
−4 4
A. C.
3 3
−3 3
B. D.
4 4
Answer: A.
28. How many centimeters are there in 100 millimeters?
A. 0.1 C. 10
B. 1 D. 10.5
Answer: c.
29. A ball is drawn at random from a box containing 3 red balls, 4 white balls and 5 blue balls. What is the probability that it is not blue?
1 7
A. C.
4 12
1
B. D. 1
2
Answer: C.
30. What is the volume of a right circular cylinder of height h and radius r?
1
A. π π2 h C. 2 π π2 h
2
1
B. π π2 h D. π π2 h
3
Answer: D.
31. A salesman gets a 15% commission for the first ₱20,000.00, and 10% for the amount over ₱20,000.00 of his total sales. How much does he
get for a total sale of ₱50,600.00?
A. ₱5,060.00 C. ₱7,060.00
B. ₱6,060.00 D. ₱8,060.00
Answer: B.
32. Jack can finish a certain job in 5 days. Jill can finish the same job in 7 days. Working together, in how many days can they finish the job?
11 1
A. 2 C.4
12 2
B. 3 D. 12
5(7) 35 11
Answer: = =2 days
5+ 7 12 12
x
33. What is the value of if log4 16 = x and logy 16 = 4?
y
1 3
A. C.
2 2
B. 1 D. 2
Answer: B.
34. A TV set that originally cost ₱20,000.00 is now sold at ₱18,000.00. What is the percentage decrease in the price of the TV set?
A. 10% C. 30%
B. 20% D. 40%
Answer: A
sec sec θ tan tan θ

35. What is the value of −
cos cos θ cot cot θ
A. cos cos θ C. -1
B. sin sin θ D. 1
Answer: D.
36. At 70 kph, Jay can reach his home within 50 minutes. At what rate should he drive his car so that he can reach home 15 minutes earlier?
A. 60 kph C. 90 kph
B. 80 kph D. 100kph
Answer: D.
37. One side of a rectangle is 5 inches. If the perimeter is P inches, what is the length (in inches) of the other side?
10+ P P+ 5
A. C.
2 2
P−10 10−P
B. D.
2 2
Answer: B.
38. A typist can finish 4 pages in 6 minutes. How long will it take him to finish 10 pages?
A. 20 minutes C. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes D. 8 minutes
Answer: B.
39. What is the area of a rectangle of height h and base b?
A. bh C. 2bh
1 1
B. bh D. bh
2 3
Answer: A.
40. Given the data below
Staff Female Male Total

Nurses 7 1 8
Physicians 3 2 5
Total 10 3 13
If a person staff is selected in a hospital, what is the probability that the subject is a nurse or male?
5 10
A. C.
13 13
8 11
B. D.
13 13
Answer: C.
41. What is the circumference of a circle with an area of 4 π squares units?

A. 2 π units C. 6 π units
B. 4 π units D. 8 π units
Answer: B.
42. What is the probability of the FEU basketball team winning all in a series of 3 games, assuming the teams are evenly matched?
1 5
A. C.
8 8
3
B. D. 100%
8
Answer: A.
43. What is the volume of a cube of edge 2 ft.?
A. 6 cubic ft. C. 10 cubic ft.

B. 8 cubic ft. D. 12 cubic ft.
Answer: B.
44. Four people can finish painting a room within hours. If only 2 people are available, how many hours do they have to work to finish the
same job?
A. 2 C. 6
B. 4 D. 8
Answer: D.
45. The probability that a man will be alive in 25 years in 3/5 and that of his wife is 2/3. What is the probability that both will be alive?
1
A. C. 50%
5
2
B. D. 100%
5
Answer: B.
46. A square and an equilateral triangle have equal perimeters. If the side of the square is 3 units less than the side of the triangle, what is the
area of the square?
A. 25 sq. units C. 64 sq. units

B. 36 sq. units D. 81 sq. units
Answer: D.
47. What is the height of a flagpole which cast a shadow 45 ft. when the angle of elevation of the sun was 45 0?
A. 30 ft. C. 60 ft.
B. 45 ft. D. 75 ft.
Answer: B.
48. The value of k for which 745,648 is divisible by 4
A. 5 C. 3
B. 4 D. 1
Answer: B.
49. Hat is the value of ϑ θ ?
A. -2 C. 1
B. -1q D. 2
Answer: C.
50. What is the total surface area of a box of dimensions 6 inches x 8 inches x 12 inches?
A. 216 sq. in. C. 576 sq. in.

B. 432 sq. in. D. 600 sq. in.
Answer: B.
10 3 2
51. Simplify 8 +5 −4
11 11 11
1 1
A. 11 C. 10
11 11
B. 11 D. 10
Answer: D.
25 18 6
52. The value of x x is ______.
36 75 35
2 8
A. C.
35 7
1 5
B. D.
35 7
Answer: B.
53. Simplify this

( 78 − 13 ) ÷ ( 1112 − 58 )
7 5
A. C.
13 24
13 24
B. D.
7 5
Answer: B.
4
54. Lawrence harvested 250 tons of seaweeds. He exported equally the seaweeds to 5 countries. How many tons of seaweeds did each
5
country get?
A. 50.16 C. 50.18
B. 50 D. 50.50
Answer: A.
55. Jean bought 5 kilos of rice worth ₱200.00 and another 4 kilos of rice worth ₱144.00. What is the average price of rice per kilo?
A. ₱172.00 C. ₱175.00
B. ₱172.11 D. ₱175.11
Answer: D.
3
56. 72 is of what number?
4
A. 76 C. 86
B. 84 D. 96
Answer:D.
57. 0.0125 expressed as fraction in lowest term
1 1
A. C.
8 800
1 1
B. D.
4 80
Answer: D.
58. Jack and Jill work as part of the service crew in one of the fast-food chains. If their earnings were in the ration 7:8 respectively, how much
did Jack earned when Jill had earned ₱6,400.00?
A. ₱6,200.00 C. ₱5,800.00
B. ₱5,600.00 D. ₱6,000.00
Answer B.
3 4 5 6
59. The value of + + + is ______.
1000 10 100 1
A. 6.453 C. 4.536
B. 3.456 D. 6.543
Answer: A.
60. Which of the following is a multiple of 8?
A. 5148 C. 1460
B. 53250 D. 32400
Answer: D.
61. The value of the car has depreciated by ₱20,000.00. It is now worth ₱380,000.00. By how many percent did the value of the car decrease?
A. 5% C. 20%
B. 10% D. 25%
Answer: A.
62. If x is an integer and 90>3x, then x cannot be _____.
A. 29 C. 27
B. 26 D. 30
Answer: D
63. After a 40% discount, a book sells ₱105.00. What was its original priceA?
A. ₱145.00 C. ₱180.00
B. ₱175.00 D. ₱190.00
Answer:B.
45
64. Simplify this
84
1 1
A. C.
2 8
1
B. D. 4
4
Answer: b.
5 7
65. If x > and > x, then x can be ______.
6 4
1 3
A. C.
2 2
2
B. D. 2
3
7 5 3 7 3 5
Answer: > x > then c= , > >
4 6 2 4 2 6
66. The area of a square is 16 sq. units. How long is its diagonal?
A. 6 units C. 4 units
B. 8 units D. 4 √ 2 units
Answer: D.
67. The area of a rectangle is 6x2 with length of 2x. Find the perimeter.
A. 16x C. 12x2
B. 10x D. 4x+12x2
Answer: B.
68. The area of a circle with a diameter of 8 inches is ____.

A. 9 π sq ∈¿ C. 16 π sq∈¿
B. 8 π sq ∈¿ D. 4 π sq∈¿
Answer: B.
69. How many times will the digit 7 appear between 1 to 100.
A. 9 C. 19
B. 20 D. 11
Answer: B.
70. Find the value of 3a2 – 2b2 if a = -2 and b = 3
A. 6 C. 8
B. -6 D. -8
Answer: B
71. Lito cut 4 ¼ yd of plastic cover from a bolt containing 35 1/8 yd. How many yards were left in the bolt?
1 1
A. 31 C. 31
4 8
7 1
B. 30 D. 30
8 4
1 1 1 1
Answer: 35
8
−4 =( 35−4 ) + −
4 8 4 ( )
1 7
31− =30 yd
8 8
72. Find the final amount due in investing ₱50,000.00 at a simple interest rate of 14.5% for 18 months.
A. ₱60,875.00 C. ₱60,900.00
B. ₱50,875.00 D. ₱50,900.00
Answer:A.
73. Which of the following numbers is prime?
A. 91 C. 101
B. 121 D. 119
Answer: 101 only has 2 factors: 1 and 101.
74. The edges of the rectangular solid have measures of 1.5ft x 0.5ft x 3 inches. What is the volume in cubic inches?
A. 324 C. 272
B. 225 D. 27
Answer:
1.5ft = 18 inches, 0.5ft = 6inches

Volume = 18 x 6 x 3 = 324 cubic inches
75. Simplify this

4 x 2−9
2 x +3
A. 2 x+3 C. 3 x+ 2
B. 2 x−3 D. 3 x−2
Answer: b.
1 1 1
76. What is the average of , , and ?
2 4 3
13 19
A. C.
12 29
13 13
B. D.
27 36
Answer:
( 12 + 41 + 13 )÷ 3= 1312 x 31 = 1336
77. What is the exact interest of ₱15,000.00, invested at 5.5% simple interest rate for 108 days?
A. ₱255.62 C. ₱260.62
B. ₱265.62 D. ₱244.11
Answer: D.
78. In how many ways can a photographer arrange 6 people in a row to pose for a photograph?
A. 30 C. 120
B. 600 D. 720
79. If a letter is chosen at random from the English alphabet, find the probability that the letter to be chosen will be after the letter G.
5 7
A. C.
26 26
19 10
B. D.
26 26
Answer: B
80. At what rate of interest should ₱2,400.00 be invested so that it will earn ₱80.00 in 8 months?
A. 6.5% C. 5%
B. 5.5% D. 6%
81. If April 18, 2014 fell on Friday, in what day will April 18, 2016 fall?
A. Monday C. Thursday
B. Tuesday D. Sunday
82. What is the single equivalent discount rate of the discount series 5%, 10%, and 25%?
A. 40% C. 64.1%
B. 35.9% D. 60%
83. The sum of 2 number is 10. Three times, the smaller exceeds the larger by 2. Find the smaller number.
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 4
Answer:
84. The product of 2 whole numbers is 36, and their ratio is 1:4. Which of these is the smaller number?
A. 9 C. 3
B. 12 D. 2
Answer: C.
85. What is the smallest positive number that is a multiple of both 15 and 18?
A. 90 C. 75
B. 180 D. 72
Answer: A
86. If 30% of x is 30, what is 50% of x?
A. 30 C. 50
B. 40 D. 60
Answer: C
87. Jay’s salary is ₱8,500.00 per month. If it is increased by 12%, what is his new salary per month?
A. ₱8,500.00 C. ₱9,520.00
B. ₱8,520 D. ₱9,500.00
Answer: C.
88. How much commission does a salesman get if he were able to sell ₱35,500.00 worth of jewelry and he is given a 15% of it?
A. ₱5,300.00 C. ₱5,000.00
B. ₱5,325.00 D. ₱5,425.00
Answer: B.
89. A pair of fair dice is rolled. Find the probability that the sum 8 will appear.
5 1
A. C.
36 6
7
B. 1 D.
36
Answer: A.
( 2,6 ) , ( 3,5 ) , ( 4,4 ) , ( 5,3 ) ,(6 ,, 2)
P=
36
90. In how many ways can 6 persons from a committee of 3?
A. 2 C. 120
B. 25 D. 20
Answer: D.
91. In how many ways can 3 boys and 2 girls be seated in a row?
A. 120 C. 12
B. 5 D. 15
Answer: A
92. A stick is drawn at random from a box containing 4 red sticks, 3 white sticks and 3 blue sticks. Find the probability that the ball is not red.
4 1
A. C.
9 3
5 2
B. D.
9 3
Answer: B.
93. How much should a man deposit in a bank at 6% simple interest rate if he wants to earn ₱1,200.00 in a year?
A. ₱10,000.00 C. ₱15,000.00
B. 30,000.00 D. ₱20,000.00
Answer: D.
00
94. The value of -50 is ________.
A. 1 C. -1
B. 0 D. Undefined
Answer: C.
95. Ann buys 3 apples for ₱50.00. How much does she pay for 2 dozens of these apples?
A. ₱450 C. ₱420
B. ₱400 D. ₱425
Answer: 2 dozen= 24 apple

24÷ 3=gruops of 3 apple each
Total amount paid= 8× P 50=P 400
96. A 1800 angle is divided into 3 with the ratio 1:2:3. What is the measure of the biggest angle?
A. 900 C. 1200
B. 600 D. 450
Answer; A
97. What percent of 10 is 12?
A. 55% C. 83.33%
B. 120% D. 60%
Answer: B.
98. Simplify this (2-1)(22)(20)
A. 1 C. 4
B. 2 D. 0
Answer: B.
99. A movie ticket cost ₱500.00 during a premiere night and ₱320 during the regular showing. What is the percentage decrease in the price of
the ticket?
A. 30% C. 24%
B. 36% D. 40%
Answer: B
100. What type of regular polygon is one whose interior angle measures 108 degrees?
A. Pentagon C. Octagon
B. Heptagon D. Hexagon
Answer: A.
NUMERICAL, QUANTITATIVE AND ANALYTICAL SKILLS

DIAGNOSTIC TEST
Direction: Choose the correct answer. You have one hour to complete the diagnostic test.
1. Perry worked 5/6 hour on Monday, 1/2 hour on Tuesday, and 9/10 on Wednesday. How many hours did he work on Monday, Tuesday and
Wednesday?
A. 2 hours 30 mins. C. 3 hours 12 mins.

B. 2 hours 14 mins. D. 3 hours 25 mins.
2. Jon gave the cashier a Php 50 bill. The amount of his purchases was Php 17.19. How much change should he receive?
A. Php 32.81 C. Php 23.81
B. Php. 31.81 D. Php 28.81
3. The car travelled at an average speed of 125 kilometers per hour. At that rate, how far did the car travel in 7.5 hours?
A. 917.5 km C. 857.5 km
B. 938.5 km D. 937.5 km
4. Three boys together weigh 282.6 kilograms. Suppose each boy weigh the same. What does each boy weigh?
A. 92.3 kg C. 94.2 kg
B. 94.3 kg D. 95.2 kg
5. Mr. Moreno paid Php 425 per kilo for 34 kilos of corn seed. How much did the corn seed cost in total?
A. Php 14,450 C. Php 10,745

B. Php 14,375 D. Php 14,440
6. Rovik multiplied 0.012 by some number and got the product of 0.00516. What was the number?
A. 0.47 C. 0.60
B. 0.43 D. 0.53
7. The basketball team has won 14 games. The ratio of games won to games played is 7 to 12. How many games has the team played?
A. 28 games C. 26 games
B. 24 games D. 22 games
8. The ratio of boys to girls at ABC College of Science and Technology is 11 to 10. There are 330 boys at the college. How many girls are there?
A. 1100 girls C. 300 girls

B. 600 girls D. 100 girls
9. A photocopying machine can produce 50 copies in 2 minutes. At that rate, how long will it take to produce 150 copies?
A. 6 mins. C. 4 mins.
B. 5 mins. D. 7 mins.
10. Complete the following equations:
5
I. =¿
16 ¿
A. 31% C. 45%
B. 31.25% D. 32.33%
3
II. =¿
16 ¿
A. 13.75% C. 18.75%
B. 17.25% D. 20.5%
11. Change each of the following fraction or mixed numeral in simplest form.
I. 45% = _________
9 3
A. C.
20 16
2 4
B. D.
20 25
II. 62 ½ % = _________
7 2
A. C.
35 3
1 5
B. D.
5 8
12. Complete the following statements:
1
I. __________ is 33 % of 96
3
A. 23 C. 33
B. 36 D. 32
II. _________ is 8.4% of 1800
A. 178.6 C. 120.4
B. 151.2 D. 84.6
13. Complete the following statements:
1
I. 12 is ________% of 75
2
1 2
A. 13 % C. 16 %
5 3
1 2
B. 17 % D. 20 %
2 3
II. 27 is ______% of 180
3 1
A. 13 % C. 17 %
4 2
B. 15% D. 20%
14. Find the diameter of each circle with radius of

I. 16 cm
A. 8 cm B. 9 cm
C. 6 cm D. 9 cm
II. 2.5 m
A. 1.25 m C. 1.27 m
B. 1.3 m D. 1.4 m
15. Express 4.5% as a decimal
A. 0.045 C. 0.45
B. 4.5 D. 4.05
16. At the Shoemart Food Court, Samuel and his classmates bought 5 drinks and 8 orders of Chicken Inasal Unli Rice for Php 955.00. Lemuel and
his classmates bought 2 drinks and 4 orders of Chicken Inasal Unli rice for Php 470.00 from the same court. How much did each order of chicken
inasal cost?
A. Php 110.00 C. Php 120.00

B. Php 115.00 D. Php 100.00
17. Men and women watched the circus performance at Ali Mall Plaza. One-third (1/3) of the people who watched the circus was men. After 25
men left Ali Mall Plaza, the number of men became one-fourth (1/4) of the original number of people at Ali Mall Plaza. How many women are
there at the Ali Mall Plaza?
A. 250 women C. 137 women

B. 220 women D. 200 women
18. There are 30 questions in an examination. For every question that you answer correctly, you will be given 4 points. For every questions that
you answer incorrectly, 3 points will be deducted. If you score 57 points for this exam, how many questions have you answered correctly?
A. 18 questions C. 19 questions
B. 21 questions D. 15 questions
19. Rommel gave 1/7 of his salary to his father and ½ of the remainder to his mother. What fraction of his salary did he have left?
A. 3/7 C. ½
B. 5/7 D. 6/21
20. A machine can compile 160 books in 1 hour. How many books can it complete in 15 minutes?
A. 60 books C. 40 books
B. 35 books D. 11 books
SOLUTIONS TO DIAGNOSTIC TEST
1. B
To solve the problem, convert the fractions into its equivalent number of hours.
STEP ONE: Draw a model or diagram to visualize the given text.
“Perry worked 5/6 hour on Monday”
1 hour = 60 minutes
6 units = 60 minutes
1 unit = 10 minutes
“1/2 hour on Tuesday”
1 unit = 30 minutes
“9/10 hour on Wednesday”
STEP TWO: Add everything up.
Monday + Tuesday + Wednesday = Total hours of work

50 mins + 30 minutes + 54 minutes = 134 minutes
134 minutes = 120 minutes + 14 minutes
= 2 hours and 14 minutes
Perry worked for 2 hours and 14 minutes on Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday.
2. A
This is a simple subtraction problem.
STEP ONE: Subtract Php 17.19 from Php 50.00.
P 50.00
– 17.19
P 32.81
The difference is Php 32.81.
3. D
This problem wants to find out the distance of the car travelling at 125 KPH in 7.5 hours.
STEP ONE: Use the equation

distance = rate x time
STEP TWO: Substitute and simplify
d = 125 kph x 7.5 hours
125 kilometers
d= x 7.5hours
hour
125 kilometers
d= x 7.5hours
hour
937.5 km=125 kilometers x 7.5

The car would have travelled 937.5 kilometers in 7.5 hours.
4. C
STEP ONE: From the phrase “suppose each boy weighs the same…”, divide:
282.6 / 3 = 94.2 kg
The answer is 94.2 kg for each of the three boys.
5. A
STEP ONE: Multiply Php 425 by 34 kilos of seed.
Php 425 per kilo x 34 kilos = Php 14, 450
The total cost Mr. Moreno paid was Php 14,450.
6. B
To solve this problem, reverse the operation.
STEP ONE: Divide 0.00516 by 0.012.
0.012 0.00516
STEP TWO: Move three decimal places to the right to divide.
0.43
12 5.16
0____
51
48__
36
_36
0
The answer is 0.43.
7. B
This is a ratio and proportion problem.
STEP ONE: To solve the problem, first analyze the statements given.
“The basketball team has won 14 games.”
14
“The ratio of the games won to the games played is 7 to 12.”
14 7
=
x 12
In ratio and proportion, the numbers should be in proportion to each other. In this example, the 14 games won is only expressed as the number
7. The real number was divided by 2.
Based on that pattern, 12 is already divided by 2.
STEP TWO: Therefore, to find x, reverse the operation by multiplying it by 2.

14 7
=
x 12
The total number of games played is 24 games.
8. C
This is also a ratio and proportion problem.
STEP ONE: Convert the statement into an equation as shown below:

11 330 boys
=
10 x number of girls
STEP TWO: One way of solving ratio and proportion problems with big numbers is to find out the value of 1 (unit).
For example:
11 units = 330 boys
1 unit = 30 boys
STEP THREE: Multiply by 10 to get the proportion of the number of girls,

10 units = 300 girls
The number of girls at ABC College of Science and Technology is 300.
9. A
STEP ONE: To solve this problem, first analyze the given statements.
“A photocopying machine can produce 50 copies in 2 minutes.”
STEP TWO: Convert this statement into an equation.

50 copies = 20 minutes
STEP THREE: From there, compute.

50 copies x 3 = 150 copies
150 copies = 2 minutes x 3
= 6 minutes
The photocopier can copy 150 copies in 6 minutes.
10. I – B. 31.25% ; II – C. 18.75%

I. STEP ONE: Divide the fraction. This will get the decimal.
16 5
0.3125
16 5.0000
48___
20
16__
40
32_
80
80
0
STEP TWO: Convert to a percentage by moving the decimal two places to the right.
0.3125 = 31. 25%
Thus, the answer is 31.25%.
II. STEP ONE: Divide the fraction

0.1875
16 3.0000
16___
140
128__
120
112_
80
80
0
STEP TWO: Convert to a percentage by moving the decimal two places to the right.
0.1875 = 18.75%
Thus, the answer is 18.75%.
11. I – A. 9/20 ; II – D. 5/8

I. STEP ONE: Convert the percentage into a fraction by dividing by 100 as shown below:
45
45 %=
100 The percentage sign (%) means
“divided by 100” or “over 100”.
STEP TWO: Reduce the fraction to its lowest term using the Greatest Common Factor or GCF.
45 9
÷ 5=
100 20
9
The answer is .
20
II. STEP ONE: Convert the mixed percentage into an improper fraction percentage as shown below:
1 125
62 %= %
2 2
STEP TWO: Remember that the percentage sign means “divided by 100”. Thus, the equation
125
125 2
%=
2 100
STEP THREE: Divide. Remember, an integer is always
125 100 100
÷ =¿ “over 1”. For example, 100 = .
2 1 1
STEP FOUR: To divide a fraction, invert the divisor and multiply, as shown below:
125 1 5
× =
2 100 8
5
The answer is .
8
12. I – D. 32 ; II – B. 151.2
I. STEP ONE: Write the statement in equation form.
1
n=33 % × 96
3
STEP TWO: Convert the percentage into a fraction.
1 100
33 %= %
3 3
100 100 100
%= ÷
3 3 1
100 1 1
× =
3 100 3
STEP THREE: Simplify the equation.
1
n= ×96
3
n=32
1
Thus,33 %of 96 is 32.
3
II. STEP ONE: Write the statement in equation form.
n = 8.4% x 1800

8.4
n= ×1800
100
84
n= ×1800
1000
STEP THREE: Simplify the equation.
84
n= ×1800
1000
756
n=
5
n = 151.2
Hence, 8.4% of 1800 is 151.2.
2
13. I – C. 16 % ; II – B. 15%
3
I. STEP ONE: Write the statement in equation form.
12.50 = n% x 75
n
12.50= × 75
100
STEP THREE: Transpose (move) the 100 to the left side by multiplying both sides by 100.
n
12.50 (100) = ×75(100)
100
1250 = n x 75
STEP FOUR: Divide both sides by 75.

1250 n × 75
=
75 75
1250
=n
75
2
¿ 16.6 ∞∨16
3
2
Therefore, 12.50 is 16 % of 75.
3
II. STEP ONE: Write the statement in equation form.
27 = n% x 180
STEP TWO. Divide both sides by 180.

27
=n %
180
= 15%
Therefore, 27 is 15% of 180.
14. I – A. 8cm ; II – A.1.25cm

A radius is half the diameter of the circle,
diameter
radius
I. 8cm II. 1.25 m
8 cm 8 cm 1.25 m 1.25 m
16 cm 2.5 m
15. A
To express a percentage to a decimal, move the decimal point TWO PLACES TO THE LEFT.
4.5% = 0.045
Similarly, to make a decimal to a percentage, move the decimal point TWO PLACES TO THE RIGHT.
0.045 = 4.5%
The answer is 0.045.
16. A
To answer this problem, carefully analyze the given “clues” in the statements. Use the model approach to dissect through the problem, step by
step. Problems like these are easier solved when visualized.
STEP ONE: Draw the model according to the statements given.

“Samuel and his classmates bought 5 drinks and 8 orders of chicken inasal for Php 955.”
Chicken Inasal
Php 955
Drinks
“Lemuel and his classmates bought 2 drinks and 4 orders of chicken inasal for Php 470 from the same food court.”
Chicken Inasal
Php 470
Drinks
STEP TWO: Overlap both models, Overlap the second model twice.
Chicken Inasal
Php 955
Drinks
Php 470 Php 470
STEP THREE: From this, the equation for one drink is left.
955 – (470 + 470) =
955 – 940 = Php 15.00
STEP FOUR: Get the cost of the five drinks. Therefore,

1 drink = Php 15.00
5 drinks = Php 15 x 5
5 drinks = Php 75
Chicken Inasal
Php 955
Drinks Php 75
STEP FIVE: Calculate the cost of the chicken inasal by subtracting the cost of the drinks.
8 chicken inasals = Php 955 – Php 75
= Php 880
1 chicken inasal = Php 880 / 8

= Php 110
Each order of Chicken Inasal costs Php 110.00.
17. D
To solve the problem, use the model approach.
“1/3 of the people who watched the circus were men.”
That implies that 2/3 of the people who watched were women, as shown below:
MEN
WOMEN
“After 25 men left Ali Mall Plaza, the number of men became ¼ of the original number of people at Ali Mall Plaza.”
STEP TWO: Find out the number with the closest relation to 2/3 and ¼. Hence, the number 12.
STEP THREE: Divide the model into 12 equal parts.

MEN
WOMEN
One fourth (1/4) of 12 is 3.
MEN
WOMEN
LEFT
STEP FOUR: Compute

1 unit = 25 people
Number of women = 8 units = 25 x 8
= 200 women
The number of women at the Ali Mall Plaza was 200.
18. B
STEP ONE: First calculate the highest possible points for the test.
30 correct questions = 120 points
STEP TWO: Subtract the points scored from the highest possible points.
120 – 57 = 63 points
The difference between the highest possible point (120) and the points scored (57) is 63.
STEP THREE: Divide the number by 3 to get the correctly answered questions as shown below:
63 ÷ 3 = 21 questions
Thus, 21 questions were answered correctly. Nine questions were answered incorrectly.
CHECK:
9 x 3 = 27 points deducted
21 x 4 = 84 points earned
84 – 27 = 57 points scored
19. A
“Rommel gave 1/7 of his salary to his father.”
STEP TWO: Draw 7 bars in the model and mark one as the 1/7th of his salary given to his father as shown below:
to father
“and ½ of the remainder to his mother.”
to father to mother
From the model, the fraction of the salary Rommel had left was 3/7.
20. C
STEP ONE: To solve this problem, convert the statements given into an equation.
“A machine can compile 160 books in 1 hour”
1 hour = 160 books
STEP TWO: Compute

60 minutes = 160 books
60 minutes 160 books
=
4 4
15 minutes = 40 books
The machine can compile 40 books in 15 minutes.
FRACTIONS AND MEASUREMENTS
Direction: Choose the correct answer. You have one hour to complete this test.
1. Hannah buys a cake and cuts it into 12 equal pieces. He gives 3 pieces to Orvik and 5 pieces to IC. (a) What fraction of the cake do the boys
get altogether? (b) What fraction of the cake has Hannah left?
A. (a. 2/3); (b. 4/6) C. (a. 8/14); (b. 4/6)

B. (a. 2/3); (b. 1/3) D. (a. 1/3); (b. 2/12)
2. Mommy bought ½ kilo of pork and ¾ kilo of fish and 2 kilos of vegetables for Php 390. How heavy (in kg) is Mommy’s grocery?
A. 3 ¼ kg C. 2 ¾ kg
B. 3 ½ kg D. 2 ½ kg
3. Rica bought 2 kg of powdered milk at the grocery. She accidentally spilled the 1/8 kg of the powdered milk because she slipped on the floor.
What is now the weight of the milk left?
A. 1 2/3 kg C. 1 7/8 kg
B. 1 5/8 kg D. 1 ¼ kg
4. At MRT, the child pays 1/3 of the adult fare. How much will the child pay if the ticket cost Php 15?
A. Php 3 C. Php 45
B. Php 5 D. Php 60
5. Jennifer gave John and Andrew 1/5 of her cake each. What fraction of her cake was left? What fraction was given to the two boys?
A. (a. 3/5); (b. 3/5) C. (a. 1/5); (b. 4/5)

B. (a. 2/5); (b. 3/5) D. (a. 3/5); (b. 2/5)
6. Jacob’s daddy weighs 2/3 more than him. If Jacob weighs 51 kilos, what is his daddy’s weight?
A. 87 kg C. 86 kg
B. 88 kg D. 85 kg
7. Walter bought 30 boxes of chocolates for her girlfriend. His mom knew about it and took 1/3 of the chocolate boxes. How many boxes of
chocolates were left to Walter’s girlfriend?
A. 20 boxes C. 25 boxes
B. 15 boxes D. 18 boxes
8. 5/12 of the class are absent. What fraction of the class is present?
A. 5/12 C. 7/12
B. ½ D. ¾
9. Which fraction is smaller, 3/9 or 3/11?
10. 3/8 is (greater than, less than) 4/7. Circle your answer.
11. 2/3 is (greater than, less than) 7/5. Circle your answer.
12. A chocolate bar Roger bought was cut into 6 equal parts. Roger’s Mommy eats 3 parts of the chocolate bar. What fraction of the chocolate
bar is left?
A. ½ C. 1/6
B. 5/6 D. 4/6
13. 3/7 is _________ out of _________ equal parts?

14. 4/5 and __________ make 1 whole part?
15. 1/5 of 100 and 1/3 of 120 equals ___________?
16. 2/3 less ¼ equals ___________?
17. 7/6 plus 2/3 equals __________?
18. 2/4 plus 6/4 equals __________?
19. The least common denominator of 3/8, ½ and 5/6 is _________?
20. Express each sum or difference in simplest form.
3 2
A. + =¿
5 3 ¿
11 3
B. − =¿
15 10 ¿
1 3 1
C. 6 + +2 =¿ ¿
2 8 4
7
D. 7− =¿
8 ¿
4 1
E. 1 × 3 =¿ ¿
5 3
7 3
F. ÷ =¿
8 10 ¿
21. The soup bowl contains 200 ml of hot soup. If Dennis sips 50 ml of the soup, what fraction is consumed by Rovik?
A. ¾ of the soup C. 2/3 of the soup

B. ¼ of the soap D. 1/5 of the soup
22. Complete the following:
1 1 2 2
A. +1 =¿ ¿ B. 1 +1 =¿ ¿
2 4 5 7
23. Express each quotient in simplest form:
1 1
A. 8 ÷ 10=¿ ¿ B. 13 ÷3=¿ ¿
3 2
24. Solve each of the following:
3 6
I. =
8 n
A. n = 15 C. n = 20
B. n = 16 D. n = 12
n 5
II. =
30 6
A. n = 5 C. n = 25
B. n = 20 D. n = 15
25. Find the value of n:

8 n
I. =
11 99
A. n = 77 C. n = 85
B. n = 86 D. n = 72
10 5
II. =
n 8
A. n = 16 C. n = 18
B. n = 26 D. n = 24
26. Gilbert wants to buy 10 kilos of durian fruit. What would be the cost if he buys durian fruit which is Php 490 for 5 kilos?
A. Php 960 C. Php 980

B. Php 880 D. Php 920
27. In 3 hours, the machine can produce 225 cases of candies. At this rate, how much cases of candies can be produced in 8 hours?
A. 600 cases C. 450 cases

B. 700 cases D. 650 cases
28. On a map each centimeter represents 60 kilometers. What is the distance between 2 municipalities which are represented 5 centimeters
apart on the map?
A. 120 km apart C. 250 km apart

B. 360 km apart d. 300 km apart
29. Change each of the following to a fraction or mixed numeral in simplest form:
1
A. 33 %=¿ ¿
3
1
B. 87 %=¿ ¿
2
1
C. 37 %=¿ ¿
2
2
D. 116 %=¿ ¿
3
1
E. 62 %=¿ ¿
2
30. Herbert’s savings is 4 times as much as Aaron’s savings. If both of them saves a total of Php 1,200, how much does Herbert save?
A. Php 960 C. Php 980

B. Php 480 D. Php 965
31. Orly spent 2 times as much money as Roberto. If Orly spent Php 240 more than Roberto, how much did each person spend?
A. Roberto spent Php 260; Orly spent Php 520

B. Roberto spent Php 480; Orly spent Php 240
C. Roberto spent Php 860; Orly spent Php 1,620
D. Roberto spent Php 240; Orly spent Php 480
32. Change each of the following percentage to a decimal:
1
A. 37 %=¿ ¿
2
1
B. 16 %=¿ ¿
4
3
C. 21 %=¿ ¿
4
9
D. 83 %=¿ ¿
10
SOLUTIONS TO
FRACTIONS AND MEASUREMENTS
1. B
To solve this problem, use the model approach. Questions like these are easier solved when visualized.
STEP ONE: Visualize the problem statement by drawing a pie chart.

“Hannah buys a cake and cuts it into 12 equal parts.”
STEP TWO: Mark the following accordingly.
“3 pieces to Orvik and 5 pieces to IC.
for Orvik
The boys get 8/12 of the cake. Hannah gets the remaining 4/12.
STEP THREE: Reduce to the lowest term.
To reduce to the lowest term, use the Greatest
(a) The boys get 2/3 of the cake. Common Factor or GCF. The GCF is the greatest
number that can be used to divide both the
(b) Hannah gets 1/3 of the cake. numerator and denominator. For 4/12 and 8/12,
the GCF is 4. Thus, the lowest term:
4 1 8 2
÷ 4= ÷ 4=
2. A 12 3 12 3
STEP ONE: Make all the denominators the same.
1 2 3 3 8
kilo= kilo kilo= kilo 2 kilos= kilos
2 4 4 4 4
STEP TWO: Add the fractions.
2 3 8 13
+ + =
4 4 4 4
STEP THREE: Convert into mixed fraction and reduce to lowest term.
13 1
=3
4 4
3. C
STEP ONE: Convert 2 kg into a fraction with the same denominator as the subtrahend.
16
2 kg =
8
STEP TWO: Subtract.
16 1 15
− =
8 8 8
STEP THREE: Convert into a mixed fraction and reduce to lowest term.
15 7
=1
8 8
7
Rica now had only 1 kg of milk left.
8
4. B
STEP ONE: Simply divide by 3.
15 / 3 = 5
The child must pay Php 5.
5. D
5
1=
(a) only 3/5 of the cake was left. 5
5 1 1
(b) The boys got 2/5 of the cake.
( )
− + =¿ ______
5 5 5
6. D
5 2 3
− =
STEP ONE: Draw the models according to the problem statements. 5 5 5
“Jacob’s Dad weighs 2/3 more than him.”
Jacob 51 kg
Dad
2/3rds more
3 unit = 51 kg
1 unit = 17 kg
Dad = 5 units = 85 kg.
Jacob’s dad weighs 85 kg.
7. A
STEP ONE: Draw he models according to the problem statements.
“His mom took 1/3 of the chocolate boxes.”
2/3
took away (1/3)

STEP TWO: Make the model into equation form and compute for 1 unit.
3 units = 30 boxes
1 unit = 10 boxes
2 units =20 boxes
Only 20 boxes of chocolate were given to Walter’s girlfriend.
8. C
STEP ONE: Visualize the problem statement by drawing a 12-unit model. Mark the model accordingly.
“5/12 of the class are absent.”
Absent Present
7/12 of the class are present.
9. 3/11
There are two ways to solve this problem. One way is to convert both fractions into decimals and then compare. Another is to visualize it in a
chart.
A. Fraction to decimal
0.33 ∞ 0. 263
9 3.00 11 3.0000 The key here is knowing how many
27_ 22__
parts will it be divided to. The more
30 70
people who
27_ will share, the lesser the
66_ amount per share people get.
Chart Title ∞
40
33_
70..
B. Chart
3/9 3/11
Chart Title 3/11 is smaller than 3/9.
10. Less than

3/8 = 0.375
4/7 = 0.571
3/8 is less than 4/7.

11. Less than
7/5 = 1.40 2/3 = 0.67
2/3 is less than 7/5.
12. A
STEP ONE: Visualize the chocolate bar by drawing a model, as shown below:
“A chocolate bar was cut into 6 equal parts. 3 parts were eaten by Roger’s mom”
Eaten by Mom
STEP TWO: Reduce fraction to lowest term.

3/6 = ½
½ of the chocolate bar is left.
13. 3 out of 7
3/7 is 3 out of 7 equal parts
14. 1/5
4/5 and 1/5 make 1 whole part.
15. 60
STEP ONE: Multiply to get the value.
1
x 100=20
5
1
x 120=40
3
STEP TWO: Add the values.
20 + 40 = 60
1/5 of 100 and 1/3 of 120 is 60.
16. 5/12
STEP ONE: Make all denominators the same
2 8 1 3
= =
3 12 4 12
STEP TWO: Subtract fractions
8 3 5
− =
12 12 12
The answer is 5/12.
5
17. 1
6
STEP ONE: Make the both denominators the same.
2 4
x 2=
3 6
STEP TWO: Add the fractions.
7 4 11
+ =
6 6 6
11 5
=1
6 6
5
The answer is 1 .
6
18. 2
STEP ONE: Add the fractions
2 6 8
+ =
4 4 4
STEP TWO: Reduce to the lowest term.
8
=2
4
The answer is 2.
19. 24
STEP ONE: Compare all numbers.
3 1 5
+ + =¿
8 2 6 ¿
The lowest umber that can be divided by 8, 2, and 6 is 24. This is found by simply multiplying 8 and 6, 2 is already a factor of both numbers so it
can be ignored. Divide the product (48) by 2 to lower the value, but make sure that it is still divisible by either 8 or 6.
3 1 5 ?
+ + =
8 2 6 24
The Least Common Denominator (LCD) is 24.
20. A. 1 4/15; B. 13/30; C. 9 1/8; D. 6 1/8; E. 6; F. 2 11/12

A. STEP ONE: Find the LCD and add.
3 2 9+10
+ =
5 3 15
19
¿
15
19 4
=1
15 15
4
The sum is 1 .
15
B. STEP ONE: Find the LCD and subtract.
11 3 22−9
− =
15 10 30
13
¿
30
The answer is 13/30.
1 3 1
C. 6 + +2 =¿ ¿
2 8 4
STEP ONE: Convert the fractions into an improper fraction, then add.
13 3 9 52+3+18
+ + =
2 8 4 8
13 3 9 73
+ + =
2 8 4 8
STEP TWO: Simplify by converting the improper fraction into mixed fraction.
73 1
=9
8 8
1
The difference is 9 .
8
D. STEP ONE: Convert the integer into an improper fraction.
56
7=
8
STEP TWO: Subtract and simplify by making it into a mixed fraction.
56 7 49
− =
8 8 8
1
¿6
8
1
The difference is 6 .
8
E. STEP ONE: Convert the mixed fraction into an improper fraction. Then, multiply.
9 10 90
x =
5 3 15
¿6
The answer is 6.
F. STEP ONE: To divide a fraction, first invert the divisor and multiply.
7 3
÷ =¿
8 10 ¿ Check:
7 10 70 2
x =
8 3 24 22 11
11 24 70 2 ÷ 2=2
¿2 24 12
12 48_ reduce to lowest term
22 GCF is 2
11
The answer is 2 .
12
21. A
STEP ONE: Convert the statement into an equation.
50 ml
200 ml
50 ml 1
=
200 ml 4
Dennis consumed ¼ of the soup. Therefore, Rovik consumed ¾ of the soup.
22. A. 1 3/4; B. 2 24/35
A. STEP ONE: Convert the mixed fraction into an improper fraction. Make the denominator the same.
1 5 7
+ =
2 4 4
3
¿1
4
3
The answer is 1 .
4
B. STEP ONE: Convert the mixed fraction into an improper fraction. Find the LCD, then add.
7 9 49+ 45
+ =
5 7 35
7 9 94
+ =
5 7 35
24
¿2
35
24
The answer is 2 .
35
23. A. 5/7; B. 4 ½
A. STEP ONE: First convert the mixed fraction into an improper fraction. Remember that an integer is always “over 1” as shown by the number
10 below.
25 10
÷ =¿
3 1 ¿
STEP TWO: Invert the divisor then multiply.
25 1 25
× =
3 10 30
25 5
=
30 7
The quotient is 5/7.
B. STEP ONE: Convert into improper fractions and invert the operation.
27 3 27 1
÷ = ×
2 1 2 3
27 1 27
× =
2 3 6
3
¿4
6
1
¿4
2
The answer is 4 ½.
24. I. B; II. C
I. This can be considered a ratio and proportion problem. In this problem, the value of the numerator ws multiplied by 2. Therefore, multiply
the denominator by 2 as well.
3x 2 6
=
8 x 2 16
The answer is n = 16.
II. C
In this problem, the value of the denominator (30) was divided by 5. Reverse the operation by multiplying the given number by 5.
25 x 5 5
=
30 x 5 6
25. I. D; II. A
I. The denominator (11) is multiplied by 9 to make 99. To keep the fraction equal, also multiply the numerator by 9.
8 x 9 72
=
11 x 9 99
II. In this problem, the values are divided by 2. To find n, reverse the operation by multiplying the given denominator (8) by 2.
10 5
=
16 8
26. C
STEP ONE: Use the equation for the problem.
Php 490 n
=
5 kilos 10 kilos
STEP TWO: Simply multiply the price by 2 to get the price of 10 kilos.
10 kilos = Php 490 x 2
= Php 980
The cost would be Php 980.
27. A
3 hours = 225 cases
225 cases Always solve for 1 unit. You
1 hour =
3 can be flexible finding any
= 75 cases unit number once 1 unit is
found.
8 hours = 75 x 8
= 600 cases
The machine can produce 600 cases in 8 hours.
28. D
1 cm = 60 km
5 cm = 60 km x 5
= 300 km
The municipalities are 300 km apart.
29.
A. 1/3
STEP ONE: First convert the fraction into an improper fraction.
1 100
33 %= %
3 3
STEP TWO: Remember, the “%” sign means “divided by 100”. Thus, below.
100
3
100
STEP THREE: Divide.
100
÷ 100=¿ ¿
3
STEP FOUR: Invert the divisor and multiply.
100 1 100
x =
3 100 300
STEP FIVE: Reduce to simplest form.
100 1
=
300 3
1
33 % is equal to 1/3.
3
B. 7/8
1 175
87 %= %
2 2
STEP TWO: Divide by 100 because of the sign “%”.
175
÷ 100=¿ ¿
2
STEP THREE: Invert the divisor and multiply.
175 1 175
× =
2 100 200
STEP FOUR: Reduce to simplest form.
175 7
=
200 8
1 7
87 % is equal to .
2 8
C.3/8
1 75
37 %= %
2 2
75
÷ 100=¿ ¿
2
75 1 75
× =
2 100 200

75 3
=
200 8
1 3
37 % is equal to .
2 8
D. 1 1/6
2 350
116 %= %
3 3
350
÷ 100=¿ ¿
3
350 1 350
× =
3 100 300

350 7 1
= =1
300 6 6
2 1
116 % is equal to 1 .
3 6
E. 5/8
1 125
62 %= %
2 2
125
÷ 100=¿ ¿
2
125 1 125
× =
2 100 200

125 5
=
200 8
1 5
62 % is equal to .
2 8
30. A
For this problem, use the model approach.
STEP ONE: Draw the model according to the statements.

“Herbert saves 4 times as much as Aaron.”
Herbert
Aaron
STEP TWO: Write into equation form. solve for 1 unit.

5 units = Php 1,200
1 unit = Php 240
STEP THREE: Multiply to solve for Herbert.

Herbert = 4 units = 240 x 4
= Php 960
Herbert saves Php 960.
31. D
STEP ONE: Draw the model according to the statements.
“Orly spends 2 times as much as Roberto.”
Orly
Roberto
STEP TWO: Write into equation form. Solve for 1 unit.

“Orly spent Php 240 more…”
1 unit = Php 240
Orly = 2 units = Php 240 x 2
= Php 480
Roberto spent Php 240; Orly spent Php 480.
32.
A. 0.375
1 75
37 %= %
2 2
75
÷ 100=¿ ¿
2
75 1 75
× =
2 100 200
75 3
=
200 8
STEP FIVE: Divide to get the decimal.
3
=0.375
8
1
37 % is equal to 0.375.
2
B. 0.1625
1 65
16 %= %
4 4
65
÷ 100=¿ ¿
4
65 1 13
× =
4 100 80
13
=0.1625
80
1
16 % is equal to 0.1625.
4
C. 0.2175
3 87
21 %= %
4 4
87
÷ 100=¿ ¿
4
87 1 87
× =
4 100 400
STEP FOUR: Divide to get the decimal
87
=0. 2175
400
3
21 % is equal to 0.2175.
4
D. 0.839
9 839
83 %= %
10 10
839
÷ 100=¿ ¿
10
839 1 839
× =
10 100 1000
STEP FOUR: Divide to get the decimal
839
=0.839
1000
9
83 % is equal to 0.839
10
ENGLISH
1. Becky Sharp, the main character of the novel “Vanity Fair” by Thackeray, ___________ to forget about her first love, but she knows that
doing so takes a lifetime.
A. has been trying C. had tried

B. has tried D. had been trying
Answer: A.
2. What can be the most appropriate follow-up sentence to the given statement below?
“I have been searching for love.”
A. So it is now time to quit

B. And I can’t imagine doing anything else
C. And I want this to end right now
D. And I learned to love myself, too
Answer: B.
3. Fyodor Dostoyevsky __________________ his last novel. Brother Karamazov, when he died.
A. has written C. had written

B. had been writing D. has been writing
Answer: B.
4. Which among the sentences below follows the correct order of adjectives?
A. She drives an expensive black Japanese sports car.

B. She drives a black Japanese expensive sports car.
C. She drives a black expensive Japanese sports car.
D. She drives an expensive Japanese black sports car.
Answer: A.
5. Only 35% of the total number of student’s ________ able to pass the comprehensive exam last year.
A. Are B. was C. is D. were
Answer: D.
6. Neither F. Scott Fitzgerald nor his contemporaries’ _______ their real names on their writing career.
A. Use B. was C. is D. has used
Answer: A.
7. The man in the mirror looks _____________.
A. Strange B. strangely C. stranger D. has strange
Answer:A.
8. A number of endangered species living underwater _____________ now extinct because of illegal hunting and dynamite fishing.
A. Are B. is C. were D. was
Answer: a
9. The tribulations that I face were __________________ for me overcome.
A. so much B. too much C. very much D. too more
Answer: B.
10. In Benjamin Franklin’s “Poor Richard’s Almanac”, it was said that: “early to bed, ______________ makes a man healthy.
A. Early rising C. early to rise

B. Rising early D. waking up early
Answer: C.
11. Which among these words has the voiceless /th/sound?
A. this B. gather C. think D. there
Answer: C.
12. Which word must have the primary stress in the sentence below if we want to emphasize possession?
“That is my boyfriend”.
A. That B.is C. my D. bag
Answer: C.
13. What pitch level must be used in emphasizing the main idea in a sentence?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Answer: C.
14. Which among the words below has the /sh/ sound?
A. Sober B. leisure C. shallow D. salient
Answer: B& C.
15. Your boss isn’t working anymore, ________________?
A. Is B. isn’t he C. has he D. hasn’t he
Answer: A.
16. This pertains to the pauses or rests in speech.
A. Pitch B. Juncture C. Stress D. Intonation
Answer: B.
17. I will not leave you come hell or high water, based on the given sentence, we can surmise that:
A. The speaker will not leave the person no matter what.

B. The speaker warns the person of a forthcoming disaster.
C. The speaker wants the person to give up.
D. The speaker wants the person to continue fighting.
Answer: A.
18. Which does not belong in the group?
A. Assumption B. Summary C. Synthesis D. Generation
Answer: A.
19. Complete the statement: Blessed are ___________ poor for _________shall be welcomed in heaven.”
A. The-you B. the-they C. you-they D. they-they
Answer: B.
20. Your brother isn’t supporting you, ________________?
A. Isn’t she B. is she C. aren’t she D. is he?
Answer: D.
21. A person with a negative outlook in life cannot ____________ with depression.
A. Cope up B. Cope on C. Cope in D. Cope
Answer: D.
22. Which sound like “fine”?
A. Crane B. brine C. pristine D. quarantine
Answer: B.
23. The Senators approached the podium with his spiel. His hands were shaking and he was sweating tremendously. He experienced:
A. Heart Attack C. Stage Fright

B. Stage Fright D. Headache
Answer: C.
24. “He was like a snake in the night.” What figure of speech is present?
A. Personification C. Metaphor
B. Simile D. Apostrophe
Answer: B.
25. The Rubaiyat has the theme:
A. Always looking forward to a new day

B. Never giving in to death easily
C. Grasping pleasure while you can
D. Creating your own world and beautify it
Answer: C..
26. What is “true learning” as exemplified in this quotation: “Only one who bursts with eagerness do I instruct. Only one who bubbles with
excitement do I enlighten.
A. Learning makes human being a follower of instruction.

B. Learning involves patience and tenacity.
C. Learning has the ability to make a man.
D. Learning is couple with commitment and passion.
Answer:D.
27. In KerimaPolotanTuvera’s short story “The Virgin,” why did Ms. Mijares fail to find a man to marry?
A. She is choosy in finding a man.

B. She took care of her sick mother.
C. She is busy with work.
D. She is concentrated in her studies.
Answer: B
28. In Paz Latorena’s short story “The Small Key” what is inside the chest when the second wife Soledad opened it sung the small key?
A. Old clothes and other things owned by the first wife

B. Skeletons
C. Land documents
D. Weapons used in war by Pedro during the Second World War
Answer: A.
29. In Nick Joaquin’s short story “May Day Eve,” what is the technique used by the author in developing the plot?
A. Telescoping C. Flash Back
B. Foreshadowing D. Stream of Consciousness
Answer: A.
30. In the Loreto ParasSulit’s short story “The Bolo”, what is being treasured by the main character?
A. The Bolo that was given to her by her husband

B. Their wedding ring
C. Their house and lot
D. The swords that her husband bought from Barcelona, Spain
Answer: A.
31. What can be the obvious lesson in the short story “The Bolo”?
A. Food is a primal need
B. Heritage is more important than physiological needs.
C. Culture is as important at hunger
D. Hunger can drive people to do things that they ever thought they can do.
Answer: B.
32. If you drink poison, you _________________.
A. Die B. will die C. died D. would die
Answer: A.
33. If the president listened to the wails of his people, he _______________the killing in Mindanao.
A. Stops C. would have stopped

B. Would stop D. will stop
Answer. C.
34. If I had taken my chance on love. I ______________ happier.
A. Am B. would be C. will be D. would have been
Answer: D.
35. If the murder weapon is not found inside the bag of Aksionov, he ______________ imprisonment.
A. Will not suffer C. Would have not suffered

B. Suffers D. would suffer
Answer: a.
A. ZERO CONDITIONAL – this is used in describing situations that are always true or factual. This is also termed as REAL CONDITION,
IF CLAUSE MAIN CLAUSE

SIMPLE PRESENT SIMPLE PRESENT
If you expose ice to sunlight It melts.
B. FIRST CONDITIONAL – this is used in speculating situations that are possible to happen at present time on in the future. This is also termed
as UNREL BUT LIKELY CONDITION.

SIMPLE PRESENT WILL + BASE FORM
If we dance our nights away We will wake up late tomorrow.
C. SECOND CONDITIONAL – This is used in speculating situations that probably won’t happen at present or in the future, this is also termed
as UNREAL AND UNLIKELY CONDITION.

PAST TENSE WOULD + BASE FORM
If I were a boy I would understand your situation.
D. THIRD CONDITIONAL – This is used in speculating situation that happened or did not happen in the past. This is also termed as UNREAL
CONDITIONS.

PAST PERFECT WOULD + HAVE + PAST PARTICIPLE
If I had the chance to change things I would have taken every possible opportunity.
A Poison Tree
I was angry with friend;

I told my wrath did end
I was angry with my foe
I told it not, my wrath did grow
And I watered with fears

Night and morning with my tears
And I sunned with my smiles
And with soft deceitful wiles
And it grew both day and night

Till it bore an apple bright
And my foe beheld its shine
And he knew that it was mine
And into my garden stole

When the night had veiled the pole;
In the morning glad I see
My foe outstretched beneath the tree
36. Who is the writer of this poem?
A. Robert Frost C. Emily Dickinson

B. William Blake D. Oscar Wilde
Answer: B.
37. What inference can be drawn out from the first stanza?
A. The persona hides his anger inside his heart

B. The persona thinks that it is better to be honest about your feelings.
C. The persona values friendship
D. The persona hates his enemies.
Answer: A.
38. What tense was consistently used in the first stanza?
A. Past B. Future C. Present perfect D. Past perfect
Answer: A.
39. What tense was consistently used in the first stanza?
A. AABB B. ABAB C. BBAA D. AABA
Answer: A.
40. What can be inferred from the second stanza of the poem?
A. The persona is being true to his dealings with his foe.

B. The persona is trying to show his true emotions towards his enemy.
C. The persona is masking his anger by being kind to his enemy.
D. The persona wants to exact vengeance against his foe.
Answer: C.
41. The second stanza achieved vitality because of the use of.
A. Effective adjectives C. action verbs

B. Figures of speech D. impressive diction
Answer: B
42. What is being represented by the “apple” in the second stanza?
A. A trap that the persona was able to make for his enemy
B. A symbol of longstanding friendship
C. A symbol of forgiveness, redemption, and unwavering kindness
D. Evil that is personified
Answer: A.
43. What figure of speech is used in the second line of the fourth stanza?
A. Hyperbole C. Onomatopoeia
B. Personification D. Apostrophe
Answer: B.
44. In the fourth stanza, what word will constitute to tense inconsistency?
A. Pole B. Outstretched C. See D. Stole
Answer: C.
45. Which story by Edgar Allan Poe resembles the theme of the given poem above?
A. The Fall of the House of Usher

B. The Cask of Amontillado
C. Annabel Lee
D. The Raven
Answer: B.
46. What reading technique is being utilized when a teacher asks his student to read a particular passage, and he marks mispronounced
words?
A. DRTA B. IRI C. SQ3R D. KWL Chart
Answer: B.
47. The Philippines is considered as an _____________________ nation.
A. EFL C. ESL
B. B. English speaking D. Foreign Sounding
Answer: C.
48. In the School Paper, who is in-charge of the entire publication?
A. Editor-in-Chief
B. Features Editor
C. Managing Editor
D. News Editor
Answer: A.
49. English has been the Lingua France of the word since America gained its international power. Lingua Franca means:
A. Language of France
B. Language of Rich
C. Language of Word
D. Language of the Powerful
Answer: C.
50. What is the subject of the sentence”Walk away”?
A. The implied “you”

B. The implied “I”
C. None
D. All of the Listeners
Answer. A.
51. The spectators never fail to admire the great Greek tragedy writer Sophocles whenever ___________ narrates has dramas.
A. She B. him C. he D. her
Answer: C
52. If you chance upon the principal on your way out of the campus, please send _________ my best wishes.
A. Him B. them C. us D. it
Answer: B.
53. My father and I met a friend of __________________ in the shopping center.
A. Ourselves B. ours C. them D. us

Answer: B.
54. Mr. Carillo, the head of the logistics committee, is concerned about the well-being of the seminar participants and so he reports
to__________ superior all of the things that he may find compromising.
A. He B. her C. them D. his
Answer: D
55. Whenever I do thing in the kitchen, I make sure not to hurt ___________________.
A. Herself C. myself
B. Ourselves D. themselves
Answer: C.
56. Some scientists and Bible scholars agree with the ____________ that the Earth is coming to an end.
A. Prophet B. prophetic C. prophecy D. prophesy
Answer: C.
57. Fish and fries ____________ my cousin’s favorite fast food meal.
A. is b. has C. are D. have
Answer: A
FOR ITEMS 58 AND 59

These items aim to know if the test taker knows the difference between ALTOGETHER and ALL TOGETHER.
ALTOGETHER means the following:

1. Completely and fully
2. When everything is added up
3. In a general way
ALL TOGETHER means:

1. To conglomerate
2. To gather up in one place
58. The membersof the congregation are _______________ inside the conference room already.
A. Altogether C.all together

B. Together D. together all
Answer: C.
59. It is ____ fitting that we organize a literacy to pay homage to a great Filipino writer.
A. Altogether C. all together

B. Together D. together all
Answer:A.
FOR ITEM 60 AND 61
These items aim to discover if the test taker has knowledge in terms of SUBJECT and VERB agreement particularly in
sentences that use NEITHER…NOR.
Basic rule is that the verb agrees with the closest noun. In item number 10, the noun “FRIENDS” is closer to the verb therefore the
verb must be PLURAL. On the other hand, in item number 11, the proper noun “WALT WHITMAN” is closer to the verb therefore the
verb must be SINGULAR.
60. Neither Ralph Waldo Emerson nor his friends______ present in the meeting last night
A. Were C. was
B. is D. are
Answer: A.
61. Neither his followers nor Walt Whitman_______ convinced that the ideas Emerson are out of this world
A. are C. was
B. were D. has
Answer: C.
62. The audience exhibited enthusiasm for the Play; they seem _________.
A. offended C. interested
B. disgusted D. has
Answer: C.
63. The representative of the president had issued a public apology before the victims _______the case
A. file C. filing
B. filed D. have filed
Answer: B.
64. According to the report done by the first department, the explosion was caused by _________connection.
A. lost C. loose
B. lose D. losing
Answer: C.
65. You _______finished writing your novel before the winner comes.
A. had C. will have

B. will be D. was
Answer: C.
66. Charlotte Bronte ________finishing her novel when death arrives.
A. will have C. will have been

B. will have to be D. will be having
Answer: C.
FOR ITEMS 65 AND 68
The Future Perfect and the Future Perfect Progressive Tense
The Future Prefect Tense connotes two assumed actions – the first action will happen and will end before the second one starts.
The First future action must have the helping verbs WILL + HAVE + PAST PARTICIPLE FORM OF THE VERB, while the second one must be in the
present tense.
This is the case in item number 65.
The Future Prefect Progressive Tense connotes two future actions – the first action is assumed to be still happening when the second future
action starts.
The first action must have the helping verbs WILL + HAVE + BEEN + the ING form of the verb, while the second future action must be in the
present tense.
This is the case in item number 66.
67. Technology in the field of medicine ________________ tremendously since the beginning of the 21 st century.
A. does improve C. is improve

B. has improved D. had improved
Answer: B.
68. Some of our relative’s ____________ to visit our great-grand father in the States.
A. has decided C. have decided

B. had decided D. will have decided
Answer: C.
69. I have written my report last Monday. What makes this sentence wrong?
A. have C. written
B. last Monday D. my
Answer: B. last Monday
FOR ITEMS NUMBER 67, 68, AND 69

THE PRESENT PERFECT TENSE
Generally, the PRESENT PERFECT TENSE connotes actions that started at a specific time in the past and continued up until the present time.
The Pattern of Conjugation of verbs in the PRESENT PERFECT TENSE is shown below.
HAS (singular subject) + PAST PARTICIPLE FORM OF THE VERB (main verb)
HAVE (plural subject)
In item number 67, the word “SINCE” signifies that the action started somewhere in the past and might still be happening at the present time.
Therefore, the best answer is B “HAS IMPROVED.”
In item number 68, the best answer is C “HAVE DECIDED” because the subject “RELATIVES” is plural.
In the item number 69, the best answer is option B “LAST MONDAY” because define TIME MARKERS like YESTERDAY, LAST MONTH, LAST
MONDAY (unless the word “since” is added) are not allowed in the present perfect tense because in this tense the two possible outcomes are
(1) the action is still happening but about to end, or (2) the action has just recently ended which mean that the end of the action is indefinite.
70. In one of his poems, the Filipino author Zulueta da Costa said that the Filipinos are like themolave. What figure speech was used?
A. Simile C. metaphor
B. Personification D. hyperbole
Answer: A.
SIMILE Indirect association/comparison using the words “AS” or “LIKE”

PERSONIFICATION Giving humanly attributes or characteristics to inanimate objects
METAPHOR Direct association/comparison
HYPERBOLE Exaggeration
71. Helen of Troy is the face who launched a thousand ships. What Figure of speech is used in the given sentence?
A. Ellipse C. alliteration
B. Synecdoche D. irony
Answer: B.
ELLIPSIS Omission of the last words

SYNECDOCHE An association of one important part that represents the whole
ALLITERATION The repetition of the same sounds at the beginning of words in lines of poetry and even in prose
IRONY The contrast between what is expected and what actually transpired
72. “The rustling tress during winter” inspired Robert Frost in writing most of his inspiration poems. What figure of speech ids used in the
given phrase?
A. Metonymy C. asyndeton
B. Apostrophe D. onomatopoeia
Answer: D.
METONYMY An association wherein the name of something is substituted by its representation

APOSTROPHE A direct address to someone who is not present or dead, or to something inanimate
ASYNDETON Removal of connectors/conjunctions
ONOMATOPOEIA Mentioning the sound instead of the word itself
73. What figure of speech is used in the given lines that follows:
Deep into that darkness peering, long I stood there wondering, fearing, doubting, dreaming dreams no mortal ever to dream before
A. Euphemism C. personification
B. Alliteration D. oxymoron
Answer: B.
EUPHEMISM Creating a positively connotation out of something negative

ALLITERATION The repetition of the same sounds at the beginning of words in lines of poetry and even in prose
PERSONIFICATION Giving humanly attributes or characteristic to inanimate objects
OXYMORON Self contradicting coined words
74. The lines given in the item number 73 are from what canonical and widely read poem?
A. Annabel lee C. the raven

B. The cask of Amontillado D. The mask of the red death
Answer: C. The Cask of Amontillado and the Mask of the Red Death are not short stories, so these options are obviously wrong. Option A
“ANNABEL LEE” and Option C “THE RAVEN” are two of the most famous poem of Edgar Allan Poe, but the best answer is C “THE RAVEN”.
The lines below are taken from the ode “Intimations of Immortality from recollections of Early Childhood”.
Though nothing can bring back

The hour of splendor in the grass,
Of glory in the flower
We will grieve not,
Rather find strength in what remains behind
75. The given stanza above is an example of __________.
A. Haliku C. sonnet
B. Free verse D. rhyme verse
Answer: B.
HAIKU A poem with lines up to 17 syllables which are commonly allusions to nature
FREE VERSE A poem with irregular or no rhyme scheme at all
SONNET A poem with 14 iambic pentameter lines
RHYME VERSE A poem with regular rhymes
76. The ode “intimation of immortality from recollections of early childhood” is authored by ___________.
A. William Shakespeare
B. Robert frost
C. William words worth
D. Willa Cather
Answer: C. William Wordsworth was one of the major Romantic poets in England together with Samuel Taylor Coleridge. His ode
the “Intimations of Immortality from Recollections of Early Childhood” known as “Ode, Immortality Ode” or “Great Ode,” was
completed in the year 1804 and was published in the year 1807 as part of Wordsworth’s “Poem in Two Volumes”.
Out of the night that covers me

Black is the pit from pole to pole
I thank whatever Gods may be
For my unconquerable soul
In the fell clutch of circumstances

I have not winced nor cried aloud
Under the bludgeoning of chance
My head is bloody, but unbowed
Beyond this place of wrath and tears

Looms but the horror of the shade
And yet the menace of the years
Finds and shall find me unafraid
It matters not how strait the gate

How charged with punishments the scroll
I am the master with my fate
I am the captain of my soul
77. Who. Wrote the given poem above?
A. William Ernest Henley C. Robert frost

B. Walt Whitman D. john Milton
Answer: A.
78. What is the tittle of the given poem?
A. The captain
B. The brave and the free
C. invictus
D. D. the brave
Answer: C.
79. The poem has how many beats per line?
A. Six C. eight
B. Four D. five
Answer: C.
80. The last line of the given poem above presents the determination of an individual who is.
A. Brave C. fearful
B. Lonely D. boastful
Answer:
FOR ITEMS 77, 78, 79, AND 80
INVICTUS by William Ernest Henley
The poem invictus was written by William Ernest Henley during the Victorian period. It was published in the year 1888 in Henley’s “Book of
Verses.”
Its earlier version hand no title but a dedication to Robert Thomas Hamilton Bruce, who is a merchant and a literary patron. When the poem
was included in “The Oxford Book of English Verses,” the editor Arthur Quiller- couch added the tittle “Invictus”.
81. The Greek goddess Aphrodite is an exemplification of feminine PULCHRITUDE in the antiquity.
A. Homeliness C. plain
B. Loveliness D. ugliness
Answer: B.
PULCHRITUDE mean physical comeliness or beauty
HOMELY Not pretty, plain, or unattractive

LOVELY Very pleasing
PLAIN Lacking beauty
UGLY Unpleasant to look at
82. Emily Dickinson is known for her CANDOR about some issue on poetic freedom.
The word CANDOR means _______________.
A. Appeal C. opinions
B. Frankness D. tact
Answer: B.
CANDOR The quality of being sincere and honest

APPEAL The quality that causes people to like something
FRANK Marked by free and sincere expression
OPINION A judgment or appraisal
TACT The ability to say things without hurting other people
83. Which of the statement below best describe EPISTOLARY LITERATURE?
A. A story that is created through exchanges of letters.

B. A story that is based on history.
C. A story that is created based on the epistles.
D. A story that exhibits the adventure of the crusade against the jihads.
Answer: A.
EPISTOLARY LITERATURE
Epistolary literatures are pieces narrated or told trough letters written by two or more characters.
84. Most experts agree that climate change is an APOCALYPTIC event that must be feared by the inhabitants of his planet. Apocalyptic
means _____________.
A. Encouraging C. attractive
B. Climate D. careless
Answer: B.
APOCALYPTIC Ultimate decisive

ENCOURAGING To make someone more determined
CLIMACTERIC A major turning point or critical stage
ATTRACTIVE Pleasing
CARELESS Without caution
Four score and seven years ago our fathers brought forth on this continent, a new nation, conceived in Liberty, and dedicated to the proposition
that all men are created equal. Now we are engaged in a great civil war, testing whether that nation, or any nation so conceived and so
dedicated, can long endure. We are met on a great battle-field of that war. We have come to dedicate a portion of that field, as a final resting
place for those who here gave their lives that the nation might live. It is altogether fitting and proper that we should do this.
But, in a larger sense, we can not dedicate – we can not consecrate – we can not hallow – this ground. The brave men, living and dead, who
struggled here, have consecrated it, far above our poor power to add or detract. The world will little note, nor long remember what we say
here, but it can never forget what they did here. It is for us the living, rather, to be dedicated here to the unfinished work which they who
fought here have thus far so nobly advanced. It is rather for us to be here dedicated to great task remaining before us – that from these
honored dead we take increased devotion to that cause for which they gave the last full measure of devotion – that we here highly resolve that
these dead shall not have died in vain – that this nation, under God, shall have a new birth of freedom – and that government of the people, by
the people, for the people, shall not perish from the earth.
85. What is being said on the first paragraph of his widely known oratorical piece?
A. The speaker state that America is only for early colonizers from Europe.
B. The speaker posits that America belong to that native red Americans.
C. The speakers assert that America is a nation of people from different origins.
D. The speakers argue that America is a nation where all citizens are equal.
Answer: D.
86. What is the intention of the second paragraph?
A. The speaker is trying to conceive the listeners to forget about war and just give in to demands of the opponents.
B. The speaker wants to persuade the listeners to stand and fight for equality and justice.
C. The speaker wants the listeners to appreciate the efforts done by the heroes of the past.
D. The speaker wants the listeners to remember the sacrifices done by the heroes who fought for American’s freedom in the past.
Answer: B.
87. Which part of the third paragraph summarizes the entire oratorical piece?
A. That this nation, under God, shall have a new birth of freedom – and that government of the people, by the people, for the people,
shall bot perish from the earth.
B. But, in a larger sense, we can not dedicate – we can not consecrate – we can not hallow – this ground.
C. The brave men, living and dead, who struggled here, have consecrated it, far above our poor power to add or detract.
D. The world will little note, nor long remember what we say here, but it can never forget what they did here.
Answer: A
88. The given piece is entitled:
A. The JFK Inaugural Speech

B. The Gettysburg Address
C. The Lincoln Memorial Address
D. The State of Liberty and Equality Address
Answer: B
89. Who wrote the given oratorical piece?
A. Victor Hugo
B. Abraham Lincoln
C. John F. Kennedy
D. Carl Sandburg
Answer: B.
Rationalization for numbers 85 – 89

The Gettysburg Address
By
Abraham Lincoln
The Gettysburg Address is one of the most famous speeches in American history. It was delivered by Abraham Lincoln on November 19,
1863, in Gettysburg, Pennsylvania during the American Civil War.
90. Agamemnon, the leader of the Acheans has fondness for women. The underlined word has the synonym:
A. Aversion B. penchant C. defiance D. dislike
Answer: B.
Fondness Tender affection for something

Penchant Strong liking for something
Defiance A refusal to obey
Aversion A strong feeling of not liking something
Dislike A feeling of disapproval
91. Edgar Allan Poe feels like a fish out of water upon arriving in a foreign land. The italicized phrase means:
A. One who is outside his usual environment

B. A fish that was taken out of the sea
C. One who feels that he/she is not needed
D. One who feels that he/she is not well appreciated
Answer: A. The phrase is an idiomatic expression. An idiom is a combination of words that expresses something figurative, that is why
option B is already wrong because it is too literal. Option A is the best answer because just like a fish taken out of water, the subject,
Edgar Allan Poe, feels that he does not belong.
92. He is a Filipino poet who in using punctuation marks extensively in his pieces—most especially “commas.”
A. Paz Marquez Benitez C. Jose Garcia Villa

B. Nick Joaquin D. EdilbertoTiempo
Answer: C.
First, a poem must be magical

Then musical as a sea-gull.
It must be a brightness moving
And hold secret a birds flowering.
It must be slender as a bell,
And it must hold fire as well.
It must have wisdom of bows
And it must kneel like a rose.
It must be able to hear
Then luminance of dove and deer.
It must be able to hide
What it seeks, like a bride.
And over all I would like to hover
God, smiling from the poems cover.
93. What is the title of the given poem above?
A. Poem 10 B. Poem 11 C. Poem 15 D. Poem 17
Answer: A.
94. Who wrote the given poem?
A. Amador Dagui C. Paz Latorena

B. Jose Garcia Villa D. Paz Marquez Benitez
Answer: B.
95. What figure of speech was used extensively in the given poem?
A. Hyperbole B. personification C. metaphor D. simile
Answer: D.
SIMILE Indirect association/comparison using the words “ AS” or “LIKE”

PERSONIFICATION Giving humanly attributes or characteristics to inanimate objects
METHAPHOR Direct association/comparison
HYPERBOLE Exaggeration
Rationalization for number 92 -94
Jose Garcia Villa
Jose Garcia Villa is a Filipino short story writer, critic, painter, and poet. He is known as the “Comma Poet” because of his extensive use of
punctuation marks in his poetry. He is also known for his “Poem 10 First a Poem be Magical.” He is known to be the rival of Salvador Lopez on
issues concerning the purpose of art (Salvador Lopez for proletariat literature and Jose Garcia Villa for Art for Art’s Sake).
96. William Shakespeare showed composure in front of his critics amidst countless derision. The underline word means:
A. Agitation B. fear C. aplomb D. nervousness
Answer: C.
Composure Calmness of mind, manner and appearance

Agitation To move with irregular and rapid violent actions
Fear To be afraid or worried
Aplomb Confidence and skill shown in a difficult situation
Nervousness Showing feelings of being worried or afraid
97. There are times when we are forced to do things against our own violations. The underlined word means:
A. Opinion B. intuition C. will D. fate
Answer: C.
Volition The power to make choices

Opinion A view or judgment
Will Used to express choice or desire
Intuition A quick and ready insight
Fate An inevitable outcome
The apparition of these faces in the crowd;
Petals on a wet, black bough.
In a Station of the Metro

By Ezra Pound
The poem “In a station of the Metro” was published in the literary magazine “Poetry” in the year 1913. This poem is a classic example of
Imagism as the poet, Ezra Pound, describes a moment in the Underground Metro Station in Paris.
98. What is the title of the given poem above?
A. The Apparition and the Bough C. The Crowd and the Petals
B. In a Station of the Metro D. The Crowded Metro Station
Answer: A.
99. Who wrote the given poem?
A. Ezra Pound C. Cummings

B. Robert Frost D. T.S. Eliot
Answer: A.
100. The given poem is an example of modernist poetry, particularly ______________.
A. Stream of consciousness C. imagism

B. Free verse D. pointillism
ANSWER: C.
PART I. IDENTIFYING ERRORS

PRACTICE TEST 1
Directions. The following sentences may contain an error of some kind. Choose the underlined word or phrase which must be removed or
replaced in order to make the sentence correct. Choose the word or phrase marked E if the sentence has no error.
1. Since the War on Drugs rolled out early last year, the number of crime incidents in the country have considerably
A B C
declined. No error
D E
2. One of the programs that are being implemented now by local executives require community support. No error.
A B C D E
3. Onlookers were enthralled when they saw the daredevil stunts of the acrobatics team. No error
A B C D E
4. The gun-wielding suspect had mistook the victim for his cousin who owed him a large sum of money. No error.
A B C D E
5. The apathy of the complainant, plus the silence of the witnesses, have weakened the case for the prosecution.
A B C D
No error.
E
6. A number of criminals in Metro Manila remains at large and continue to transgress the law with wanton impunity.
A B C D
No error.
E
7. One of the members of the peace negotiation panel that represented the government were an alumnus of the
A B C D
University of the Philippines. No error.
E
8. Runners are one brand of footwear that started to gain popularity two years ago. No error.
A B C D E
9. Every civil service undergo stringent screening process before being accepted into the service. No error.
A B C D E
10. Had the employee known that his supervisor would evaluate his work, he would have prepare his report earlier.
A B C D
No error.
E
11. The two officers forged a friendship which, throughout the years, have remained strong and steady. No error.
A B C D E
12. At the bottom of the Atlantic Ocean lies buried treasures from the ruins of the doomed Titanic. No error.
A B C D E
13. A new list of students who have hurdled the exam are posted on the bulletin board. No error.
A B C D E
14. Among the nine towns in our province, ours was adjudged the most cleanest during the awarding ceremonies.
A B C D
No error.
E
15. A group of investigators composed mostly of lawyers has been investigating the bombing incident that claimed a
A B C
score of lives. No error.
D E
16. Inside the garage is piles of old and mostly torn newspaper stashed more than five years ago. No error.
A B C D E
17. One of the legislator who proposed an anti-dynasty bill came from the rich-vote province of Ilocos. No error.
A B C D E
18. He was considered the better firefighter among those who were killed in the September 11 attack. No error.
A B C D E
19. Fifty meters of yarn are what the students need to finish a school project due by the end of the month. No error.
A B C D E
20. The judge demanded that the witness takes an oath before him on the first week of March. No error.
A B C D E
ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
IDENTIFYING ERRORS
PRACTICE TEST 1
1. C. This is an error on subject-verb agreement. The subject in this sentence is the phrase the number which is singular. Hence, the verb should
be has instead of have. (… the number of crime incidents in the country has considerably declined.)
2. D. The correct verb should be requires to agree with the subject of the sentence which is one.
3. E. The sentence has no error.
4. B. The correct word is mistaken. It is the past participle form of the verb mistake and is used in perfect tenses (or actions already completed
with respect to the present). In this case, the past perfect tense is used which is formed by using had + past participle form of the verb. (i.e. had
mistaken).
5. C. This is another error on subject-verb agreement. The subject, apathy, is singular and therefore follows a singular verb which is has
weakened. The phrase, plus the silence of the witnesses is called an intervening phrase that does not affect the subject and verb agreement.
Aside from plus, other intervening words include besides, in addition to, and aside from.
6. B. The phrase a number of when used as a subject of a sentence follows a plural verb. In this sentence, the correct verb should be remain.
Another clue is the verb continue which is plural.
7. C. This is another error on subject-verb agreement. This is similar to item no. 2. The subject is one and agrees with the verb was instead of
were. To test whether the answer is correct, invert the sentence to read like this: An alumnus of the University of Philippines was (not were) one
of the members of the peace negotiation panel represented the government.
8. A. The correct verb is is. The subject is a singular noun ending in s. It is a name of one footwear brand.
9. B. The subject is singular, hence the verb should be undergoes. Any subject preceded by the indefinite pronoun every is singular (e.g. every
man, every student, etc.)
10. C. The sentence is a conditional statement. Since the perfect tense is used, the correct form of the verb should be prepared instead of
prepare.
11. C. The correct verb is has remained as it refers to friendship which is a singular noun.
12. A. This is an error on subject-verb agreement involving an inverted sentence. (An inverted sentence is one in which the verb comes first
before the subject.) To determine whether the sentence is correct, it has to be reversed to its natural order where the subject comes first. In
this case, it should be read: Buried treasures (lie, lies) … Since the subject is plural, it should be lie.
13. B. The verb should be is instead of are as it agrees with the subject list which is singular.
14. C. The comparative word most should be removed because the adjective cleanest is already in the superlative degree.
16. B. The correct verb should be are. When reversed to its natural order, the sentence will read: Piles of old and mostly torn papers … are
inside the garage.
17. A. The correct word is legislators. The noun that follows the phrase one of the… is always in plural form. (When translated in Filipino, it
means, isa sa mga…)
18. B. Instead of better, the correct word is best since more than two persons are involved in the comparison.
19. A. For subjects involving units of measurement, the verb should be singular. Hence, is should be the correct verb. (It is what the students
need.)
20. B. This is a sentence in subjunctive mood and does not follow the standard subject-verb agreement rules. In this case, the correct verb
within the that clause is take instead of takes.
IDENTIFYING ERRORS
PRACTICE TEST 2
1. Because English is the official language used in government, employees should master English grammar so they can
A B C
write clearly and speak confidently. No error.
D E
2. The members of the steering committee proposed that the awarding ceremonies are postponed until electricity is
A B C
restored. No error.
D E
3. Overcame with fear, the young recruit could barely speak when questioned about the anomalous transactions.
A B C D
No error.
E
4. The class officers spent the whole day yesterday preparing for their graduation program. No error.
A B C D E
5. To have a stable job, to fulfill a childhood dream and serving the country are the main reasons fresh graduates
A B C
enter government service. No error.
D E
6. There was no reason for the proctor to get upset against the examinees just because they did not greet her.
A B C D
No error.
E
7. For most commuters in Metro Manila, riding the bus is preferable than riding the train. No error.
A B C D E
8. Our fiscal management for the first quarter of the year have improved, indeed. No error.
A B C D E
9. Some senators voiced descent on the recommendation to hold the witness in contempt. No error.
A B C D E
10. Our national air force flies one of the oldest fleet of aircraft in the world. No error.
A B C D E
11. According to the scriptures, the wicked flee though no one pursue, but the righteous are as bold as a lion.
A B C D
No error.
E
12. Men are free to do anything they see fit, but they have to remembered that God will judge them for the things
A B C
done in the body, whether good or bad. No error.
D E
13. Taking of photographs inside the meeting rooms are strictly prohibited. No error.
A B C D E
14. Neither the members of the audience nor the keytone speaker were aware of the scuffles between the security
A B C D
guards and the demonstrators. No error.
E
15. For most parents, the culmination of responsible parenting is that special day when they get to marched on stage
A B C
and witness their children receive a college diploma. No error.
D E
16. Servant-leadership is a proven, time-tested leadership anchored on the principles of selflessness and sacrifice.
A B C D
No error.
E
17. Unless we allow God to govern us, we will governed ourselves the wrong way. No error.
A B C D E
18. Complaining is an indicator of how poorly we managed stress whether at work or at home. No error.
A B C D E
19. She dreads looking at herself in the mirror because she can’t no longer see the vibrancy of youth and the smile in
A B C D
her eyes. No error.
E
20. We should understand that taxes should be spend wisely and given back to the Filipino people to help improve
A B C
the quality of their life. No error.
D E
IDENTIFYING ERRORS
PRACTICE TEST 2
2. C. The sentence is in subjunctive mood. The correct form of the verb is be instead of are. See answer key Practice Test 1, item no. 20 for the
explanation.
3. A. The correct word is overcome. It is a participle (one of the three verbals – gerund, infinitive and participle) acting as an adjective. In this
sentence, the participle phrase overcome with fear, describes the subject recruit.
5. B. The correct phrase is to serve the country so as to follow the principle of parallel structure. This means that a sentence should use the
same coordinate grammatical units. In this case, infinitives (to have, to fulfill and to serve) are used.
6. B. The correct preposition is with (upset with) and not against.
7. D. The correct word is to (preferable to) and not preferable than.
8. C. Following the rule on subject-verb agreement, the verb should be has improved because it refers to a singular subject which is fiscal
management.
9. B. The appropriate word choice is dissent which means opposing view, and not descent which means a downward movement.
10. C. The correct word is fleets instead of fleet. A plural noun follows the phrase one of the …
11. B. No one is a singular indefinite pronoun that agrees with a singular verb. Hence, the correct verb is pursues instead of pursue. Both the
wicked and the righteous are adjectives used as nouns and requires plural verbs.
12. B. Infinitives take the form of the preposition to + base form of the verb (e.g. to cook, to report, to denounce). In the given statement, the
correct infinitive is to remember, not to remembered.
13. D. The subject in this sentence is the gerund phrase, taking of photographs, which is a single activity. Therefore, it agrees with the verb is,
and not are.
14. B. The verb should be was not were.
When there are two subjects separated by either or or neither nor, the subject that is nearer
the verb determines the agreement. In the given sentence, speaker is nearer the verb; hence, it
should follow a singular verb.
15. C. In the infinitive to + verb, the verb is always in its base form (meaning without s or ed). In the sentence, to marched is incorrect. The
correct infinitive is to march.
16. E. The sentence is correct.
17. C. The use of the future tense of the verb (will/shall + verb) requires the base form of the verb. In the sentence, governed should be
replaced by govern.
18. C. We use the present tense of the verb in statement of facts. Hence, in the sentence, the verb managed should be changed to manage.
19. C. This is a case of double negatives. The word can’t should be replaced with can.
20. A. The correct form of the verb is spent and not spend.
IDENTIFYING ERRORS
PRACTICE TEST 3
1. Let us strive to preserved our character because when we have it, we have everything. No error.
A B C D E
2. A study reveals that active individuals are more positive in their outlook and experience greater self-efficacy than
A B C
sedentary or inactive people. No error.
D E
3. If we realize that God values the human body and even intend it to be his dwelling place, then we will not have to
A B C
worry about the human rights violations. No error.
D E
4. Sports provide a venue where teammates and rivals alike can create meaningful bonds and forge enduring
A B C D
friendships. No error.
E
5. Engaging in sports is one of the best avenue to release our stress away. No error.
A B C D E
6. One essential trait that a person must cultivate in order to survive in the game called life is flexibility. No error.
A B C D E
7. A flexible person is one who can adopt well to different situations, whether good or bad. No error.
A B C D E
8. Each of us have a God-given purpose and a race to finish. No error.
A B C D E
9. History is replete with exemplary exploits of Filipino women in various realm of endeavor. No error.
A B C D E
10. The Filipino woman is known not only for her nurturing nature but also for her resilience in times of challenges.
A B C D
No error.
E
11. God in his sovereignty has all ready determined beforehand the number of our days on earth. No error.
A B C D E
12. No wealth and no power in life make a man truly happy. No error.
A B C D E
13. The incessant pouring of rain has drenched the cloth and shrank it to half its original size. No error.
A B C D E
14. His consolation, despite his defeat in the elections, are the respect and loyalty of his followers. No error.
A B C D E
15. A huge number of words and phrases in Visayan dialect was used by the President in his inaugural address.
A B C D
No error.
E
16. Between the two competing basketball teams, the Shooters had fewest turnovers. No error.
A B C D E
17. Engagement in the social media such as Facebook, Twitter and Instagram, are, according to recent studies, highly addictive.
A B C D
No error.
E
18. Millennials find it difficult to cultivate deep and meaningful relationships because oftentimes, they turn to their
A B C
devises for security. No error.
D E
19. The accessibility of the Internet has caused an explosion of knowledge unprecedented in the history of mankind.
A B C D
No error.
E
20. Because we just live on borrowed time, we should strived to live our purpose which is to know and obey God. No error.
A B C D E
IDENTIFYING ERRORS
PRACTICE TEST 3
1. B. An infinitive (to + verb) form always takes on verbs in their base form (meaning, no adding of s or ed). In the sentence, to preserved is
incorrect. It should be to preserve.
An infinitive is a form of verbal (verb forms that do not function as verbs or action
words, but as noun or modifiers). In the given sentence, to preserve functions as an
adverb as it modifies the verb strive
3. B. The correct verb is intends and not intend. It agrees with the noun God.
5. C. The correct word is avenues (plural) and not avenue. The sentence indicates that engaging in sports is one of the best avenues (but not the
only one) to release our stress away.
7. B. The appropriate word is adapt, and not adopt. To adapt means to change or become suitable to a certain condition or environment. To
adopt means to take something legally as your own.
8. B. Each is a singular indefinite pronoun and agrees with a singular verb. In the given sentence, has is the correct verb.
9. D. Using the preceding word various as a hint, the noun that follows it should be plural. Hence, the correct word is realms not realm. The
modifier various obviously points to more than one reference.
10. E. There is no error in the sentence.
11. B. The correct word choice is already, which is an adverb of time describing something has happened before a specific time. All ready means
that everything has been prepared.
12. C. Compound subjects preceded by no (in this case, no wealth and no power) follows or agrees with a singular verb. Hence, the correct word
should be makes, instead of make.
13. C. The past participle form of the verb shrink is shrunk. The sentence uses the present perfect tense of the verb (has/have + past participle
of the verb) which requires the past participle form (e.g. has taken, have drunk, has mistaken).
14. D. This is an error on subject-verb agreement. The subject is consolation, which is singular, hence the verb that agrees with it should be is.
The phrase, despite his defeat in the election, is just an interrupting or intervening phrase that does not affect the subject-verb agreement.
15. C. When the phrase a number is used as a subject of a sentence, it always follows a plural verb. The correct verb should be were. However,
the phrase the number when used as a subject of a sentence follows a singular verb (The number of students that drop out of schools year after
year is staggering.)
16. D. Since only two teams are being compared, the correct term is fewer.
17. B. The subject is engagement which is singular. The correct verb therefore is, is. The prepositional phrase in the social media, is an
intervening phrase that does not determine nor affect the subject and verb agreement.
18. D. This is an error on diction or word usage. The word devises is a verb. Devices in the noun and is the appropriate word in the sentence
given.
19. E. There is no error in the sentence.
20. C. The sentence contains an error on verb form. Instead of strived, the correct form is strive as it is preceded by a modal should.
Modals such as will, would, can, could, may and might are used with the base form of the
verb (e.g. could understand, not could understood; will consider, not will considered)
IDENTIFYING ERRORS
PRACTICE TEST 4
1. Have you realize how little control you have over your life? No error.
A B C D E
2. Even the Scriptures says, “We may throw the dice, but the Lord determines how they fall.” No error.
A B C D E
3. Paul, who was a staunch persecutor of Christians prior to his conversion, consider himself the worst among all
A B C D
sinners. No error.
E
4. If only I could turn back the hands of time, I will not squander my youth on meaningless pursuits. No error.
A B C D E
5. Vigilant netizens have already shared the video online before the actress sat for an interview to deny its contents.
A B C D
No error.
E
6. Our savior invites us to lie down our troubles and worries upon his feet and to find rest for our souls in him.
A B C D
No error.
E
7. Peace negotiators refused to divulge information when it was asked to comment on the ongoing peace talks with
A B C
the leftists. No error.
D E
8. The news of the President’s impending visit to the hospital have excited the doctors and patients. No error.
A B C D E
9. Except my mother and I, everyone was present during the 100th birthday celebration of my grandfather in our
A B C D
hometown. No error.
E
10. The fighting senator spoke with thunder to convinced his colleagues of the need to re-impose the death penalty
A B C
for perpetrators of heinous crimes. No error.
D E
11. Last night, I laid the documents on the table so my husbands would see and browse them before meeting his
A B C D
friends. No error.
E
12. Because of the changing weather, small children at a daycare center easily catched a cold. No error.
A B C D E
13. The members of the steering committee for our company’s founding anniversary have not made up its minds yet
A B C D
on the schedule of their meeting. No error.
E
14. According to the kidnapper, the safe release of his victim is a remote impossibility unless random is paid by the
A B C D
relatives. No error.
E
15. Either swimming in the pool or running on a treadmill significantly improve the heart’s performance. No error.
A B C D E
16. Writing, among other activities, challenge me the most because it is mentally exacting. No error.
A B C D E
17. During a board meeting, the president proposed that the present curriculum is revised to address the gaps
A B C
between the academe and the industry. No error.
D E
18. According to a famous Christian evangelist, people who have already decided in their heart what they want to
A B
believe are impervious to reason. No error.
C D E
19. Does the pious, faithful people who never miss church really care for the sick, destitute and homeless? No error.
A B C D E
20. The widower tries with all her might to soothe the children’s sorrows and fears. No error.
A B C D E
IDENTIFYING ERRORS
PRACTICE TEST 4
1. B. Realized is the correct verb form and not realize. It is preceded by a helping verb have to form the present perfect tense. The verb in the
present perfect tense is in its past participle for. Since realize is a regular verb (meaning its past and past participle form end in d or ed), the
correct verb is realized.
3. B. The sentence contains an error on verb tense consistency. Since the descriptive clause describing the subject Paul is in the past tense, the
verb should also be in the past tense. The correct verb is considered.
4. B. The sentence contains an error on verb consistency. The correct helping verb is would to maintain consistency in verb tense (i.e. use of
could turn in the first clause, and would not squander, in the succeeding clause.)
5. B. The correct verb tense is had already shared. This is known as past perfect tense or an action that occurred before another action took
place.
The past perfect tense involves two past actions and the earlier past action is known as the past
perfect. In the sentence given, there were two action involved – the sharing of the video as well
as the conduct of interview. The past perfect tense follows this structure: had + past participle
form of the verb (e.g. had spoken, had initiated, had discussed)
6. A. This is an error on correct usage. The correct verb is lay instead of lie. To lie means to recline (as in lie in bed), while to lay is to place or put
something down.
7. B. This is an error on pronoun-antecedent agreement. The antecedent or the noun for which the pronoun stands is peace negotiators. The
correct phrase should be they were instead of it was.
8. C. The sentence contains an error on subject-verb agreement. News is a singular noun that ends in s and should therefore agree with the verb
has (excited), and not have (excited).
9. B. The correct pronoun is me. In the sentence, except is used as a preposition followed by a noun (mother) and a pronoun in the objective
case (me instead of I).
10. C. Infinitives (to + verb) take on the base form of the verb. In this sentence, convinced is incorrect. The correct form is convince.
12. D. This is an error on verb form. The past tense of the verb catch is caught and not catched.
13. D. The correct pronoun is their, referring to the subject – members.
14. C. Remote possibility and not remote impossibility.
15. C. This is another error on subject-verb agreement. The correct verb is improves because grammar rules prscribe that singular subjects
joined by either or or neither nor take on singular verbs.
16. B. The subject, writing, is a singular activity and should take on a singular verb. In this case, the correct verb is challenges. The phrase,
among other activities, does not affect the subject and verb agreement because it is just an intervening phrase.
17. B. Instead of is, the correct verb is be (i.e. that the present curriculum be revised ..) A sentence that contains a proposal, suggestion,
demand, or recommendation using the that clause (e.g. I proposed that.. She suggested that.. ) is said to be in subjunctive mood.
The sentence characterized by this mood does not follow the normal subject-verb agreement
rule. Instead the verb used is always in its base form regardless of the number of the subject.
Examples:
(a) The instructor demanded that his student be (not is) present during the exhibit.
(b) The director suggested that the clerk attend (not attends) the conference.
18. E. This sentence has no error.
19. A. The correct helping verb is do instead of does. The subject, the pious, faithful people, is plural and thus requires a plural verb (do care,
instead of does care.)
20. A. The widower is a male; hence, the correct pronoun is his.

SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. If refers to the full and fair equivalent of the property taken from its owner by the expropriator, and the gauge for computation is not the
taker’s gain but the owner’s loss. In order for the payment to be “just”, it must be real, substantial, full, and ample; made within a
reasonable time from the taking of the property.
A. Property C. Public use
B. Eminent domain D. Just Compensation
Answer: D.
2. In Northeast Luzon, the longest river in the country originates from the mountains of Quirino and Nueva Vizcaya and drains the whole
Cagayan Valley existing through the town of Appari and Cagayan. What is the name of this river?
A. Agno River C. Pampanga River
B. Abra River D. Rio Grande de Cagayan
Answer: D.
3. A sociological research method that approaches social phenomena through quantifiable evidence, and often relies on statistical analysis of
many case (or across intentionally designed treatments in an experiment) to create valid and reliable general claims.
A. Qualitative design C. Normative
B. Quantitative design D. Formative
Answer: b.
4. The “La Liga Filipina” was a concrete evidence of Rizal’s desire to _________.
I. Unite the entire Philippines archipelago
II. Fight violence and injustice
III. Revolt against the Spaniards
A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. I and III
Answer: A.
5. The culture of the Ilocanos can easily be felt through their ants dance known as _____________.
A. Balitaw B. Dandansoy C. Mahinhin D. Kinnotan
Answer: D.
6. Cooperative can eventually put up banks of their own. What are the evidences or their successes?
A. Many banks in Metro Manila and Central Luzon started out as cooperatives.
B. Most of the rural banks started out as cooperatives
C. Cooperatives are not heavily taxed
D. Opening of rural bank is allowed on a cooperative concept
Answer. B.
7. When a combination of independent business organizations form to regulate production, pricing, and marketing of goods by the members,
which term applies?
A. Cartel B. Monopoly C. Depression D. Inflation
Answer: A.
8. What are considered major goals of multicultural education?
I. Catering to diversity of learners

II. Considering social class and ethnic groups
III. Providing equal opportunities to education
IV. Helping individuals and group survive despite difference in culture and beliefs.
A. II and III B. I, II and IV C. III and IV D. I, II, III and IV

Answer: D.
9. What right and duty do Filipinos exercise when they participate in ratifying a proposed constitution?
A. Citizenship C. suffrage
B. Habeas corpus D. Bill of Rights
Answer: C.
10. Martial Law remained in force until 1981 under Proclamation # ____________.
A. 1081 B. 1425 C. 9994 D. 7610
Answer: A.
11. The process by which person learns the requirements of the culture by which he or she is surrounded, and acquire values and behaviors
that are appropriate or necessary in that culture is called _________.
A. Assimilation C. Cultural relativism
B. B. enculturation D. acculturation
Answer: B.
12. The exchange of cultural features that results when group of individual from different cultures come into continuous first-hand contact.
The original cultural patterns of either groups may be altered, but the groups remain distinct.
A. Assimilation C. cultural relativism
B. enculturation D. acculturation
Answer: B.
13. The Commander of the American and Filipino forces in Bataan was ____________.
A. General Arthur MacArthur C. General Jonathan Wainwright
B. General Douglas MacArthur D. General Edward P. King
Answer: D.
14. The first American Civil Governor was ______________.

A. William Howard Taft C. Arthur Mac Arthur
B. Wesley Merritt D. Murray Bartlet
Answer: A.
15. This is a collection of traditional courtship song in the Mexican-Spanish tradition based on the habanera rhythm.
A. Harana B. Kundiman C. Jazz D. modern
Answer:A
16. It is characterized by shared experiences and mutual responsibilities.

A. Gesellschaft C. Enculturation
B. Gemeinchaft D. Acculturation
Answer: B.
17. It features the exchange of goods, money and services.

A. Gesellschaft C. Enculturation
B. Gemeinchaft D. Acculturation
Answer: A.
18. One of the advantages of presidential system of government is _______________.

A. The principle of the separation of power and check and balance is observed.
B. Unity of authority
C. It cuts costs and redundancy in lawmaking.
D. It promotes strong political party
Answer: A.
19. The fulfillment of the collective needs to the human species, including global society, is pursue ____________.
A. Public interests C. common goods
B. Justice D. political will
Answer: A.
20. This is the determination of the government to relate to what is perceived as beneficial to public interests and acts to implement its
decision on such in order to achieve a better future for its citizens.
A. Public interests C. common goods
B. Justice D. political will
C.
Answer: D.
21. Those provinces that were pacified and were already recognizing Spanish rule were called ________.
A. Alcadias C. Indulto de comercio
B. Alcalde Mayor D. Corregimientos
Answer: A.
22. During the Spanish period, this refers to the privilege of the provincial Governor to engage in trade.
A. Alcadia C. Indulto de comercio
B. Alcalde Mayor D. Corregimientos
Answer: C.
23. What form of government did we have when Presidential Aguinaldo proclaimed the Philippine Independence on June 12, 1898?
A. Dictatorial C. Freedom
B. Revolutionary D. Presidential
Answer: A.
24. The military provinces that were unpacified during the Spanish led by a Corregidor, helped by a lieutenant.
A. Alcadia C. Indulto de comercio
B. Alcalde mayor D. Corregimientos
Answer: D.
25. The longest revolt in Philippines History is called the ________.

A. Dagohoy revolt C. Gabriella Silang revolt
B. Diego Silang revolt D. Palaris revolt
Answer: A.
26. The most devastating typhoon in 2009, with a damage of$1.09 billion and 747 fatalities was known as ___________.
A. Reming C. Ondoy
B. Milenyo D. Habagat
Answer: C.
27. Violation of human rights is a violation of the _________ of persons.
A. Dignity C. emotions
B. Intelligence D. freedom
Answer: A.
28. One of the new seven wonders of nature that can be found in Palawan is
A. Puerto Princesa Underground River
B. El Nido
C. Palawan Underground River
D. Puerto Princesa River
Answer: D.
29. The Act/Law that led to the granting of ten-year transition period is called ____________.
A. Hare-Hawes Cutting Bill C. Parity Rights
B. Tydings-McDuffie Law D. Independence Law
Answer: B.
30. Republic Act 9994 is also known as the _______.

A. Anti-Child Abuse Law C. Expanded Senior Citizen’s Act
B. K-12 Act D. Prison Modernization Law
Answer: C
31. What is the very foundation of genuine peace and reconciliation?
A. Happiness C. Confrontation
B. Joy D. Social Justice
Answer: d
32. This is the location of the island known as the “Isla de Pintados” by the Spaniards.
A. Luzon B. Visayas C. Mindanao D. Isla Verde
Answer: B.
33. What was our government under the 1935 Constitution?

A. Revolutionary C. Commonwealth
B. Monarchy D. Military
Answer: C.
34. In economics, ___________ is a rise in the general level of prices goods and services in an economy over a period of time.
A. Inflation B. mercantilism C. depression D. free trade
Answer: A..
35. What values are being promoted by the Philippine Government when it launched the “Juan Time” project 2011?
A. Punctuality C. Palabra de Honor
B. Austerity D. Close family ties
Answer: A..
36. A UNSESCO World heritage Site in Ilocos Norte is _________________.

A. Bangui windmills C. Currimao Rock Formations
B. Paoay Church D. Pagupud
Answer: B.
37. An international convention where the Philippine can validate its claim to the Spratlysand other territories in the West Philippine Sea is
known as the ____________.
A. United Nation Convention on the Law of the Sea (Unclos)
B. Geneva Convention
C. Rio De Janeiro Convention
D. Kyoto Protocol
Answer: A
38. The author of “Flora de Filipinas” circa 1837, the botanical illustrations of plant specimens that grew into the Philippines herbarium is
A. Gov. Polavieja C. Fr. Manuel Blanco
B. Padre Emmanuel Gonzales D. Gov. NarcisoClaveria
Answer: C.
39. The Philippines was ruled by Spain through ________________ until 1814.
A. Cuba B. Puerto Rico C. Viceroy of Mexico D. Guam
Answer: C.
40. This is a guarantee given by the Constitution to certain units of government where their approved annual approved annual appropriations
shall be automatically and regularly released.
A. General Appropriations Act C. Fiscal Discipline
B. Fiscal Autonomy D. Internal Revenue Allocations
Answer: C.
41. Which order of government correctly sequences what happened during the American regime?
A. Civil, Military, Commonwealth
B. Military, Civil, Commonwealth
C. Civil, Commonwealth, Military
D. Military, Commonwealth, Civil
Answer: B.
42. Which order of presidents correctly applies to Philippine History?
I. Carlos P. Garcia
II. DiosdadoMacapagal
III. Manuel Roxas
IV. Ferdinand Marcos
A. III, I, II, IV B. I, II, III, IV C. IV, II, I, III D. IV, III, II, I
Answer: A.
43. In whose presidency was the famous MIRACLES RICE produced?

A. Ferdinand Marcos C. Joseph Estrada
B. Fidel Ramos D. Sergio Osmeña
Answer: A.
44. If you keep seeing your ways of doing things as the right way and everybody else’s as the wrong way, you tend to have the attitude called
A. Cultural relativism
B. Ethical relativism
C. Ethnocentrism
D. Xenophobia
Answer: C.
45. After the Second World War, which emerged as new powers?
A. People’s Republic of China and United States of America
B. South Korea and Soviet Union
C. Germany and Soviet Union
D. United States of America and Soviet Union (USSR)
Answer: D.
46. Legislation granting special privileges to senior citizens helps neutralize prejudice and discrimination towards a social category based on:
A. Age B. Ethnicity C. Gender D. Race
Answer: A.
47. The employees of MET Review Center want to associate, pool their savings, and use the fund as soon as possible to grant loans to members and
capitalized and operate the canteen of the said review center. What type of cooperative will they organize and register?
A. Service cooperative C. Consumer cooperative
B. Producer’s cooperative D. Credit cooperative
Answer: D.
48. One of the types of positive economics that collects and presents data that can describe the phenomena is ______________.
A. Descriptive economics C. Growth
B. Economic theory D. Stability
Answer: A.
49. The complex set of relationships within the agricultural sector and between tenure structure, production structure, and the structure of
supporting services is called ______________.
A. Land reform
B. Agrarian structure
C. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law
D. Agrarian reform measures
Answer: B.
50. The earliest mode of economic life in human history according to Karl Marx is called __________.
A. Enlightened self-interest
B. Reciprocity
C. Primitive communism
D. Agricultural
Answer: C.
51. It refers to any liability to pay money arising out of a contract, express or implied.
A. Poll tax B. Tax C. Debt D. Debtors
Answer: C.
52. The state of entire subjection of one person to the will of another is called _____________.
A. Peonage B. Slavery C. Suppressed D. Depressed
Answer: B.
53. It means that when a person is charged with an offense and the case is terminated either by acquittal or conviction or in any other
manner without the express consent of the accused, the latter cannot again be charged with the same or identical offense.
A. Writ of Habeas Corpus C. Writ of Amparo
B. Right against illegal detention D. Right against double jeopardy
Answer: D.
54. The families of victims of extrajudicial killings and enforced disappearances can invoke the writ when the right to life, liberty, or security
of a person is violated or threatened with violation by an unlawful act or omission of a public official or employee or of a private
individual or entity.
A. Writ of Habeas Corpus
B. Right against illegal detention
C. Writ of Amparo
D. Right against double jeopardy
Answer: D.
55. This court shall have jurisdiction over civil and criminal case involving graft and corrupt practices and such offenses committed by public
officers and employees in relation to their offices as may be determined by law.
A. Court of Appeals
B. Regional Trial Courts
C. Sandiganbayan
D. Supreme Court
Answer: C.
56. These are the only official removable by impeachment.

A. The President, Vice-President, members of the Supreme Court, members of the Constitutional Commission, and the Ombudsman.
B. The President, Vice-President, members of the Supreme Court, members of the Constitutional Commissions and the Senators.
C. The President, Vice-President, members of the Supreme Court, members of the Constitutional Commission and the
Congressmen/women.
D. The President, Vice President, members of the Supreme Court, members of the Constitutional Commissions and the Commander-in-
Chief of the Armed Forces.
Answer: A. .
57. This is the legal process whereby the registered voters of a local government unit may directly propose, enact, or amend any law or
ordinance at polls called for the purpose independently of the regular constituted local legislative body.
A. Referendum C. Order
B. Recall D. People’s Initiative
Answer: D.
58. He became governor, with new capital at Iloilo, 1898 until Treaty of the Paris was signed, December 10, 1898, handling sovereignty over
the Philippines to the United States for $20 million. His term as governor was from August 13, 1898-December 10, 1898, and Manila on
January 1, 1899.
A. Diego De Los Rios C. Miguel Lopez De Legazpi
B. Basilio Agustin D. NarcisoClaveria
Answer: A.
59. He was a native of Cataluña, and count of Caspe. He became governor in 1891, around the time when La Liga Filipina (Philippine League)
was founded in Manila by Rizal in 1892. He introduced many reforms; popular with natives but aroused the wrath of religious orders, who
are said to have paid $100,000 for his dismissal. His term of governor was from 1891-1893.
A. Gov. Gen. Despujol
B. Gov. Gen. Claveria
C. Gov. Gen. De Los Rios
D. Gov. Gen. Polavieja
Answer: A.
60. The Republic Act that requires the compulsory teaching of Rizal Course and the lives of other Filipino patriots is ___________.
A. Republic Act 7610 C. Republic Act 1425
B. Republic Act 9262 D. Republic Act 9994
Answer: C.
61. This Republic Act created the Technical Education and Skills Development Authority (TESDA).
A. Republic Act 7796
B. Republic Act 9262
C. Republic Act 1425
D. Republic Act 9994
Answer: A.
62. It prohibits hazing and other forms of initiation rites in fraternities, and other organizations.
Answer: D.
63. An Act Strengthening Teacher Education in the Philippines by establishing Centers of Excellence and creating a teacher Education Council.
Answer: A.
64. Rizal was eight years old when he wrote this poem. He realized the ultimate importance of having a native tongue.
A. Remembrance to my Hometown
B. Our Mother Tongue
C. To Education
D. Intimate alliance between religion and good education
Answer: B.
65. This poem, was written by Rizal when he was 15 years old. His memories of Calamba demonstrated his innate love of nature that
ultimately developed into a greater love of nation.
C. To Education
Answer: a.
66. In this poem, Rizal compared education to the goddess of light, wisdom, hope, peace and truth.
C. To Education
Answer: C.
67. In this poem, Rizal noted the role of religion in attaining good education.
C. To Education
Answer: C.
68. This was a prize winning-poem of Rizal when he was a student in UST. This poem proved that an Indio was not only equal but also more
superior than the Spaniards in poetry writing.
A. To the Filipino Youth C. Hymn to Talisay
B. They ask Me For Verses D. Kundiman
Answer: A.
69. Rizal’s loneliness is profoundly expressed in this poem which has the line “His lyre had long ago become so mute and broken; his muse
stammers and no longer smiles at him.” What is the title of this poem?
Answer: B.
70. Written in 1895, the verses, were used against him during his trial in December 1896.
Answer: C.
71. Originally written in Tagalog, the poem is one of the only two poems that Rizal wrote in his vernacular. He, however, denied authorship of
such.
Answer: D.
72. The highest mountain in the continent of Africa is _______________.
A. Mt. Everest C. Mt. Fuji
B. Mt. Kilimanjaro D. Mt. Apo
Answer. B.
73. He coined the term “survival of the fittest”.
A. August Comte C. Herbert Spencer
B. Karl Max D. Arnold Toynbee
Answer: C.
74. This is a multilateral agreement an all-embracing international trade. According to its preamble, its purpose was the “substantial
reduction of tariffs and other trade barriers and the elimination of preferences, on a reciprocal and mutually advantageous basis
A. APEC B. ASEAN C. NAFTA D. GATT
Answer: D.
75. The mountain that separates the continents of Asia and Europe is ____________.
A. Ural Mountain C. Mt. Everest
B. Mt. Kilimanjaru D. Mt. Apo
Answer: A.
76. The “yellow race” is also known as:

A. Caucasians C. Negroids
B. Mongoloids D. Malays
Answer: B.
77. The major rivers in China are ___________.

A. Tigris and Euphrates
B. Hwang-Ho and Yangtze
C. Nike and Indus
D. Aegean and Mekong
Answer: B.
78. Year 2014 has been declared by Pope Francis as Year of the _______________.
A. Laity B. Hope C. Faith D. Righteousness
Answer: A.
79. ___________ is a major land mass on the northern coast of the Black Sea that is almost completely surrounded by water. The peninsula is
located just south of the Ukrainian mainland west of the Russian region of Kuban. It is surrounded by two seas: the Black Sea and the
smaller Sea of Azov to the east.
A. Gibraltar C. Falkland
B. Cape of Good Hope D. Crimea
Answer: D.
80. The Russian President who wants to annex Crimea is named ____________.
A. Vladimir Putin C. Joseph Stalin
B. Michael Gorbachev D. Nikita Khrushchev
Answer: a.
81. The Russian President who gave Crimea to Ukraine in 1954 is ______________.
A. Vladimir Putin C. Joseph Stalin
B. Michael Gorbachev D. Nikita Khrushchev
Answer: D
82. The British Prime Minister who supported the European Union’s measures against Russia on the issue of Crimea is ___________.
A. Margaret Thatcher C. David Cameron
B. Winston Churchill D. Tony Blair
Answer: C.
83. Which constitute a quorum in each House of Congress?
A. One-third of the members of each House
B. Two-thirds of the members of each House
C. A majority of each House
D. Three-fourths of the members of each House
Answer: C.
84. The function by which schools help children to participate effectively in larger society is called:
A. Socialization C. Enculturation
B. Education D. Acculturation
Answer: A.
85. The principle of checks and balances is intended to maintain balance among executive, legislative and judicial departments of the
government. Which one is a check on the execute department by the judiciary?
A. Determining the salaries of the President and Vice President
B. Declaring a legislative measures is unconstitutional
C. Declaring an act of the President unconstitutional
D. Impeaching the President
Answer: C.
GENERAL INFORMATION AND CURRENT EVENTS
1. Which is the Philippine population in 2017?

a. More than 103 million c. Less than 100 million
b. More than 150 million d. Almost 200 million
2. Of the more than 1,200 islands of the Philippine archipelago, how many are inhabited?
a. about 2,000 c. more than 1,000
b. 3,000 d. between 1,000 to 1,500
3. Which is the largest island in the Philippines?

a. Mindanao c. Luzon
b. Panay d. Palawan
4. Which island have been subject of dispute between the People’s Republic of China, Malaysia, the Philippines, Taiwan and Vietnam?
a. Mindanao Coron Islands c. Babuyan Islands
b. Tawi-tawi Islands d. Spratly Islands
5. Which does “greenhouse effect” mean?

a. The cool effect of green leaves.
b. Warming that results when the atmosphere traps heat radiating from Earth toward space.
c. The cool effect of sea breeze.
d. The cool effect of mountain breeze.
6. Which is the essence of sustainable development?

a. Introducing development at the same time mindful of the effect of such development in the future.
b. Introducing only something that can be sustained for a long time.
c. Using new technology to replace the old technology regardless of the cost.
d. Using old and new technologies side by side.
7. Which is the tallest building in the world?

a. Buri Khalifa in Dubai c. Taipei 101 in Taiwan
b. Empire State Building in New York d. Petronas Tower in Kuala Lumpur
8. What does ASEAN mean?

a. Association of Southeast Asiatic Nations
b. Association of Southeast Asian Nationhood
c. Association of Southeast Asia for Nation Building
d. Association of Southeast Asian Nations
9. What does PQF mean?

a. Philippine Qualifications Framework c. Philippine Qualifications Frameworks
b. Philippine Qualifying Framework d. Philippine Qualifying Frameworks
10. What does AQF mean?

a. ASEAN Qualifying Framework c. ASEAN Qualifications Framework
b. Asian Qualifications Framework d. Asian Qualifying Framework
11. Which is true of the Enhanced Basic Education Act of 2013?

a. It added to 2-years to the 10-year basic education program.
b. It added junior and senior high school to the present basic education system.
c. It made basic education compulsory.
d. It required teachers of basic education to obtain a professional license.
12. What does EFA mean?

a. Education Accessible for All
b. Education for All
c. Education Free for All
d. Education Free and Accessible to All
13. What is the consequence of ASEAN integration?

a. All Asian nations becoming one ASEAN community.
b. Free exchange of goods and services among ASEAN member-states
c. The development of a Philippine Qualifications Framework
d. More job opportunities in the Philippines
14. With twelve year-basic education as the international standard, which law was passed in the Philippines to cope with this educational standard?
a. The Kindergarten Act c. The Enhanced Basic Education Act of 2013
b. The Kindergarten Act d. The Early Childhood Education Act
15. To respond to the demands of ASEAN integration, the qualification standards for each level in the educational system were laid down.
Which Executive Order from the office of the President was issued?
a. The Philippine Qualifications Framework
b. The ASEAN Qualifications Reference Framework
c. Continuing Professional Development
d. Early Childhood Care and Education
16. What obligation do Filipinos fulfill when they get a cedula?

a. loyalty to the public c. respecting the law
b. paying taxes d. honoring the flag
17. Which of the following is a concern of a just and responsible government?

a. allows absolute freedom c. guarantee citizens’ right to decent living
b. provides opportunities to earn money d. ensures growth development
18. Which statement is TRUE regarding the pre-Spanish Filipino government?

a. The datus exercised all powers of the government.
b. It was a centralized form of government.
c. Laws were created by an elected lawmaking body.
d. There was check and balance in government.
19. After suffering a devastating earthquake in great Eastern Japan, the Japanese built their communities to show their good character. Which
of the following does NOT apply to their values?
a. Superiority over nature c. unity
b. solidarity d. fortitude
20. Which of the following was a characteristics of the Philippine educational system during the American period
a. It focused on languages.
b. It encouraged vocational education and love of labor.
c. It focused on Latin and Spanish language, arithmetic, philosophy, and theology
d. It emphasized honesty, civic consciousness, cooperation with the government and mutual help.
21. Which of the following skills correspond to the Fourth Pillar of Learning “Learning to live together”?
a. empathy and cooperative social behavior
b. adaptability to change in the world of work
c. personal commitment and sense of responsibility
d. reasoning and problem-solving skill
22. The Syrian Civil War is an ongoing armed conflict taking place in Syria. The United Nations and other countries have come to assist Syrians
by way of vaccination, relief and care package, which deserves praise as these interventions are ____________.
a. civic c. humanitarian
b. political d. economic
23. The Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012, officially recorded as Republic Act No. 10175, is a law in the Philippines approved on September 2,
2012 which aims to address legal issues concerning online interactions and the Internet in the Philippines. Among the cybercrime offenses
included in the bill are cybersquatting, cybersex, child pornography, identity theft, illegal access to data and libel. Which of the following is
considered a violation of this act?
a. updating personal profile in own facebook account
b. nude children posing through a computer system
c. sending private email messages to friends
d. commenting on a tweet
24. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), Ebola Virus is transmitted to people from wild animals and spreads in human
population through human-to-human transmission. Which of the following actions can the Philippine government take to prevent the disease
from spreading?
a. Suspension of exports of exotic animals.
b. Encourage private and illegal experimentations of exotic animals.
c. Allow private individuals to purchase imported animals from the black market.
d. Allow people from the ebola virus exposed countries to enter the country without proper quarantine.
25. Farmers complain about their crops being rotten easily during rainy season. What government project answers this situation?
a. conducting seminars with farmers c. constructing farm to market roads
b. ask middlemen to interfere d. putting up cooperatives
26. One of the latest earthquake that happened in the Philippines was the magnitude 6.1 quake struck Surigao del Norte on July 3, 2015. With
subsequent earthquakes happening in the country, what action has been done by the Philippine government to prevent, if not eliminate severe
casualties in the future?
a. Public education, earthquake drills and safety reminders
b. Earthquakes cannot be predicted, just wait and pray
c. Leave the action to PHILVOCS
d. Ask other countries to help out when the earthquake struck
27. Which of the following best expresses the fact that “teaching peace is difficult?
a. It needs insightful thinking c. It is a value to be “caught” or realized
b. It is value education d. It requires constructivist learning.
28. What strategy can be used by the government to apply openness and diplomacy in order to win insurgents back to society?
a. Peace talks c. Counter revolution
b. Cultural reform d. Ideological education
29. For which main reason does some cities in the Philippines have an ordinance that prohibits the use of plastic bags in shopping areas?
a. Plastic is a non-biodegrable and adds to the problem of solid garbage disposal.
b. People must be taught to recycle plastic materials.
c. Filipinos must be taught to patronize their products.
d. Government must work for the convenience of the people they serve.
30. Which is a proof that Philippine Laws have given women equality with men in terms of rights?
a. The husband’s prerogative to choose the family residence is now a join decision with his wife in consultation with their children.
b. The husband’s prerogative to choose the family residence is now a matter for both husband and wife todecide.
c. The wife’s prerogative to choose the family residence is now a join decision with her husband in
consultation with their children.
d. The husband’s prerogative to choose the family residence is now transferred to the wife.
31. Which problem is created when Filipinas are legally or illegally sent to other countries as mail-order brides and ended up in prostitution
houses?
a. Human trafficking c. Piracy
b. Terrorism d. White Slavery
32. Why is the present era in the world named “Information Age”?
a. Information is at its height as a result of its accumulation through the years.
b. Emphasis in schools and acquisition of information.
c. The shift in global economy is towards the manipulation of information.
d. This is the period of correcting all erroneous information from the past.
33. From whom did we learn the love for a lavish fiestas and celebrations?
a. The Spaniards c. The Japanese
b. The Americans d. The Malays
GENERAL INFORMATION AND CURRENT EVENTS
1. a. more than 103 million

2. a. about 2000
3. c. Luzon
4. d. Spratly Islands
5. b. Warming that results when the atmosphere traps heat radiating from Earth toward space.
6. Introducing development at the same time mindful of the effect of such development in the future.
7. a. Burj Khalifa in Dubai
8. d. Association of Southeast Asian Nations
9. a. Philippine Qualifications Framework
10. c. ASEAN Qualifications Framework
11. a. It added 2 years to the 10-year basic education program.
12. b. Education for All
13. a. All Asian nations becoming one ASEAN community.
14. c. The Enhanced Basic Education Act of 2013
15. a. The Philippine Qualifications Framework
16. b. paying taxes
17. c. guarantees citizens’ right to decent living
18. a. the datus exercised all the powers of the government
19. a. superiority over nature
20. d. It emphasized honesty, civic consciousness, cooperation with the government and mutual help.
21. a. empathy and cooperative social behavior
22. c. humanitarian
23. b. nude children posing through a computer system
24. a. suspension of exports of exotic animals.
25. c. constructing farm to market roads
26. a. public education, earthquake drills and safety reminders
27. c. it is a value to be ‘caught’ or realized.
28. a. peace talks
29. a. plastic is non-biodegradable and adds to the problem of solid garbage disposal
30. b. The husband’s prerogative to choose the family residence is now a matter for both husband and wife to decide.
31. a. human trafficking
32. c. The shift in global economy is towards he manipulation of information
33. a. The Spaniard

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1. Sinong Pilipinong manunulat ang tinaguriang “Ama ng Zarsuelang Tagalog”?

A. Aurelio Tolentino C. Alejandro Abadilla

2. Ang Gintong Panahon ng Panitikan ng Pilipinas ay ang panahon ng____.

3. Isang tanyag ng Pilipinong manunulat na may sagisag-panulat na “Kalipulako.”

A. Jose Dela Cruz C. Mariano Ponce

4. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang HINDI epiko ng Mindanao?

A. Indarapatra at Sulayman C. Bidasari

6. Ilang titik ang hiniram ng Alpabetong Filipino mula sa Alpabetong Ingles?

A. Makata ng Pag-ibig C. Makata ng Masa

A. Jose Garcia Villa C. Alejandro Abadilla

A. Jose Garcia Villa C. Aurelio Tolentino

A. Alejandro Abadilla C. Aurelio Tolentino

11. Sabihin mo na ang totoo

14. Aling salita ang may diptonggo?

15. Sa kanya pa rin babalik sigaw ng damdamin,

16. Ipaglalaban kita dahil mahal kita.

17. Ang Cebuano, Ilokano at Hiligaynon ay halimbawa ng anong barayti ng wika?

18. “Nakulong si Janette.” Ibigay ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito.

20. Ito ang pinakaunang sistema ng pagsulat ng mga katutubong Pilipino.

22. Siya ay kilala bilang “dakilang manunulat” ng kilusang propaganda.

A. Graciano Lopez Jaena C. Marcelo H. Del Pilar

23. Alin sa mga sumusunod na titik ng Alpabetong Filipino ay isang hiram?

25. Natutulog ba ang Diyos?

Ang pahayag sa itaas ay halimbawa ng anong uri ng tayutay?

27. Ano ang naging pangalan ng wikang pambansa noong 1959?

28. Isang awiting bayan ng ginamit sa pagpapatulog ng bata ay ang _____.

29. “Ang palasyo ay nag-anunsyo na walang pasok bukas.”

30. “Apat ng mga mata ang tumititig sa kanya.”

34. Ano ang tamang ispeling ng salitang barbershop sa Filipino?

A. tulang pasalaysay C. tulang padula

39. Alin sa mga sumusunod ay HINDI tulang pasalaysay?

A. Ibalon at Aslon C. Hinilawod

A. Haraya C. Hari sa Bukid

45. Alin sa mga sumusunod ay isang epiko ng mga Ifugao

A. Ibalon at Aslon C. Biag ni Lam-ang

A. Jesus Balmori C. Alejandro Abadilla

A. The Wound and Stars C. Like the Molave

A. Estrella Alfon C. Dolores Manapat

49. “Nagtaksil si Adrian”. Ibigay ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito.

52. Ito ay ang pag-aaral ng makabuluhang tunog ng isang wika.

54. Alin sa mga sumusunod ay HINDI uri ng pangungusap ayon sa gamit?

55. Sino ang may-akda ng nobelang Banaag at Sikat?

A. Jose dela Cruz C. Jose Corazon de Jesus

56. Isang Pilipinong manunulat na may sagisag panulat na Dimas-ilaw, ay si _____.

A. Jose dela Cruz C. Jose Corazon de Jesus

A. Emilio Jacinto C. Jose Corazon de Jesus

59. Sino ang may-akda ng Dasalan at Tocsohan?

A. Graciano Lopez Jaena

A. Graciano Lopez Jaena

61. Isang awiting bayan na tungkol sa pakikipagkaibigan ang _________.

A. Graciano Lopez Jaena

A. Ildefonso Santos C. Alejandro Abadilla

A. Jose Garcia Villa

68. Ang may-akda ng “Kahapon, Ngayonat Bukas” ay si ______.

A. Aurelio Tolentino C. Alejandro Abadilla

A. Alim C. Indarapatra at Sulayman

75. Siya ang may-akda ng dulang ang “Dalagang Bukid”.

76. Sino ang may-akda ng Fray Botod?

A. Jose Garcia Villa C. Marcelo del Pillar

77. Isang awiting bayan na tungkol sa paglilibing ang ________.

A. Estrella Alfon C. Genoveva matute

A. Liwayway Arceo C. Genoveva Matute