Lioc QB

UNIT - LIOC – (QUESTION BANK)
CONTENTS
PERIODIC PROPERTIES............................................................Pg.– 01-09
CHEMICAL BONDING................................................................Pg.– 10- 23
METALLURGY .............................................................................Pg.–24- 34
COORDINATION CHEMISTRY .................................................Pg.–35-46
HYDROGEN & ITS COMPOUND .............................................Pg.–47-50
S-BLOCK ELEMENTS ...............................................................Pg.–51-57
p-BLOCK ELEMENTS ................................................................Pg.–58-78
d-BLOCK ELEMENTS ................................................................Pg.–79-88
SALT ANALYSIS ............................................................................ Pg.–89-102
(1)
Periodic table & Periodic properties
PERIODIC PROPERTIES
EXERCISE-I
Quantum number
1. Correct set of four quantum numbers for valence electron of rubidium( Z = 37) is
1 1 1 1
(A) 5, 0, 0, + (B) 5, 1, 0, + (C) 5, 1, 1, + (D) 6, 0, 0, +
2 2 2 2
2. The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of chlorine atom is
n l m
(A) 2 1 0
(B) 2 1 1
(C) 3 1 1
(D) 3 0 0
3. The total number of neutrons in dipositive zinc ions with mass number 70 is
(A) 34 (B) 40 (C) 36 (D) 38
4. Principal quantum number of an atom represents
(A) Size of the orbital (B) Spin angular momentum
(C) Orbital angular momentum (D) Space orientation of the orbital
5. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represent an impossible arrangement
n l m ms
1
(A) 3 2 –2
2
1
(B) 4 0 0
2
1
(C) 3 2 –3
2
1
(D) 5 3 0
2
6. The explanation for the presence of three unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can be given by
Node-1\Target-2019-20\1.JEE(Main+Advanced)\Module\Leader\Chemistry\Inorganic chemistry\Eng\Q.B.
(A) Pauli’s exclusion principle (B) Hund’s rule

(C) Aufbau’s principle (D) Uncertainity principle
7. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the Mth shell is
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 18 (D) 32
8. Which quantum number will determine the shape of the subshell
(A) Principal quantum number (B) Azimuthal quantum number
(C) Magnetic quantum number (D) Spin quantum number
9. Which of the following has maximum number of unpaired electron (atomic number of Fe 26)
(A) Fe (B) Fe (II) (C) Fe (III) (D) Fe (IV)
10. A neutral atom of an element has two K, eight L, nine M and two N electrons then electronic configuration
of the element is __________.
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Atomic & Ionic Radii
11. The size of the following species increases in the order:
(A) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (B) F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(C) Mg+2 < F– < Na+ (D) Na+ < F– < Mg2+
12. Highest size will be of
(A) Br– (B) I (C) I– (D) I+
13. Element Cu has two oxidation states Cu+1 & Cu+2. the right order of radii of these ions.
(A) Cu+1 > Cu+2 (B) Cu+2 > Cu+1 (C) Cu+1 = Cu+2 (D) Cu+2 Cu+1
14. The correct order of increasing atomic size of element N,F, Si & P.
(A) N < F < Si < P (B) F > N < P < Si
(C) F < N < P < Si (D) F < N < Si < P
15. The correct order of atomic or ionic size
(A) N < Li < B (B) Cl < Mg < Ca
+2 –2
(C) Ca < S < Cl¯ (D) Na+ < Mg+2 < Cl¯
Ionization Energy or Potential
16. In which of the following electronic configuration ionisation energy will be maximum in
(A) [Ne] 3s2 3p1 (B) [Ne] 3s2 3p2 (C) [Ne] 3s2 3p3 (D) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4p3
17. The correct order of second ionisation potential of C, N, O and F is:
(A) C > N > O > F (B) O > N > F >C (C) O > F > N > C (D) F > O > N > C
18. The ionization energy will be maximum for the process.
(A) Ba  Ba+ (B) Be Be+ (C) Cs  Cs+ (D) Li  Li+
19. The correct order of second I.P.
(A) Na < Mg > Al < Si (B) Na > Mg < Al > Si
(C) Mg < Na < Si < Al (D) Na > Mg > Al > Si
20. Amongst the following, the incorrect statement is
(A) IE1 (Al) < IE1 (Mg) (B) IE1 (Na) < IE1(Mg)
(C) IE2 (Mg) > IE2 (Na) (D) IE3 (Mg) > IE3 (Al)
Electron affinity or Electron Gain Enthalpy
21. The process requires absorption of energy is
(A) F  F– (B) Cl  Cl– (C) O–  O2– (D) H  H–

22. Of the following elements, which possesses the highest electron affinity?
(A) As (B) O (C) S (D) Se
23. Electron affinities of O,F,S and Cl are in the order.
(A) O < S < Cl < F (B) O < S < F < Cl
(C) S < O < Cl < F (D) S < O < F < Cl
24. Increasing order of Electron affinity for following configuration.
(a) 1s2, 2s2 2p2 (b) 1s2, 2s2 2p4
(c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 (d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p3
(A) d < a < b < c (B) d < a < c < b (C) a < b < c < d (D) a < b < d < c
25. Highest electron affinity is shown by
(A) F¯ (B) Cl¯ (C) Li+ (D) Na+
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Electronegativity
26. The outermost electronic configuration of most electronegative element is:
(A) ns2 np3 (B) ns2 np4 (C) ns2 np5 (D) ns2 np6
27. In the following which configuration of element has maximum electronegativity.
(A) 1s2, 2s2 2p5 (B) 1s2, 2s2 2p6 (C) 1s2, 2s2 2p4 (D) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p3
28. On the Pauling’s electronegativity scale, which element is next to F .
(A) Cl (B) O (C) Br (D) Ne
29. Bond distance C–F in (CF4) & Si–F in (SiF4) are respective 1.33Å & 1.54 Å. C–Si bond is 1.87 Å.
Calculate the covalent radius of F atom ignoring the electronegativity differences.
1.33  1.54  1.8 1.54

(A) 0.64 Å (B) Å (C) 0.5 Å (D) Å
3 2
30. Which one is not correct order of electronegativity.
(A) F > Cl > Br > I (B) Si > Al > Mg > Na
(C) Cl > S > P > Si (D) None of these
31. Calculate the bond length of C–X bond if C – C bond length is 1.54 Å and X–X bond length is
1.2 Å and electronegativities of C and X are 2.0 and 3.0 respectively.
(A) 2.74 Å (B) 1.37 Å (C) 1.46 Å (D) 1.28 Å
Miscellaneous
32. Choose the s-block element from the following:
(A) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d5, 4s1 (B) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s1
(C) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 4s1 (D) all of the above
33. False statement for periodic classification of elements is
(A) The properties of the elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.
(B) No. of non-metallic elements is less than the no. of metallic elements.
(C) First ionization energy of elements does not increase regularly with the increasing of atomic number in
a period.
(D) d-subshell is filled by final electron with increasing atomic number of inner transition elements.
34. Among the following which species is/are paramagnetic
(i) Sr2+ (ii) Fe3+ (iii) Co2+ (iv) S2– (v) Pb2+
(A) i, iv, v (B) i, ii, iii (C) ii, iii (D) iv, v
35. If each orbital can hold a maximum of three electrons, the number of elements in 9th period of periodic
table (long form) are
(A) 48 (B) 162 (C) 50 (D) 75
36. Which of the following element has highest metallic character .
Element IP
(A) P 17 eV
(B) Q 2 eV
(C) R 10 eV
(D) S 13 eV
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37. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4. The atomic number and the group
number of the element ‘X’ which is just below the above element in the periodic table are respectively.
(A) 24 & 6 (B) 24 & 15 (C) 34 & 16 (D) 34 & 8
More than one correct
38. The number of d- electrons in Mn2+ is equal to that of
(A) p-electrons in N (B) s-electron in Na
(C) d-electrons in Fe+3 (D) p-electrons in O–2
39. Which of the following is correct order of EA.
(A) N < C < O < F (B) F > Cl > Br > I
(C) Cl > F > Br > I (D) C < N < O < F
40. Select the correct statement(s).
(A) The value of electron gain enthalpy of an element can be -ve or +ve.
(B) In the periodic table, metallic character of the elements increases down the group and decreases
across the period
(C) The Cl¯ & S2– are isoelectronic species but first one is not smaller in size than the second
(D) Ionization enthalpy of an atom is equal to electron gain enthalpy of cation
41. Which of the following are correct
(A) IE2(Mg) < IE2 (Na) (B) EA (N) < EA (P)
(C) Atomic size Mg+2 > Atomic size (Li+) (D) IP of Na < Mg < Al
42. If Aufbau’s principle and Hund’s rule were not followed.
(A) K would have been d–block element & paramagnetic.
(B) Cu would have been s–block element.
(C) Cr would have been diamagnetic
(D) None of these
43. In halogen, which of the following properties increase from iodine to fluroine
(A) Ionisation energy (B) Electronegativity
(C) Bond length (D) Electron affinity
44. st
In which of the following sets of elements 1 element is more metallic then second.
(A) Ba, Ca (B) Sb, Sn (C) Ge, S (D) Na, F
45. Amongst the following statements, which is / are correct?
(A) Electronegtaivity of sulphur is greater than that of oxygen.
(B) Electron affinity of oxygen is smaller than that of sulphur.
(C) Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is most negative
(D) Electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is most negative
46. Select the correct statements (s)
(A) IE1 of F > IE1 of Cl (B) EA of O > EA of S
(C) Ionic radius of Cl– > Ionic radius of K+ (D) None of these
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Assertion & Reason
47. Statement-1 : The groundstate configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d54s1
Statement-2 : The energy of atom is lesser in 3d5 4s1 configuration compared to 3d4 4s2
configuration.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
48. Statement-1 : The first ionization energy of Be is greater than that of B.
Statement-2 : 2p orbital is lower in energy than 2s.
statement-1.
49. Statement-1 : IE1 of N is greater than O.
Statement-2 : N-atom is bigger than O in size.
statement-1.
50. Statement-1 : First electron gain enthalpy is alway -ve for an element.
Statement-2 : Magnitude of electron gain enthalpy irregularly increases from left to right in
a period.
statement-1.
51. Statement-1 : Ionization potential of Sn is less than Pb.
Statement-2 : Ionization potential is inversaly proportional to atomic size.

statement-1.
52. Statement-1 : Electron gain enthalpy of Cl is largest in periodic table.
Statement-2 : Halogen’s have largest electron gain enthalpy in a period.
statement-1.
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JEE-Chemistry
Paragraph for Question 53 to 55
The general electronic configuration of outer most and penultimate shell is given as (n – 1)s2
(n – 1)p6 (n – 1)dxns2. Then for an element with n = 4 and x = 7.
53. The number of protons present in the divalent cation of the element of above configuration is :-
(A) 25 (B) 26 (C) 27 (D) 28
54. The element is isoelectronic with which of the following species :-
(A) Fe– (B) Ni+ (C) Cu2+ (D) All of these
55. The number of unpaired electron in the trivalent cation of the given element in isolated gaseous state
is :-
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1
Match the column
56. If electrons are filled in the sub shells of an atom in the following order 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p, 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d,
4f......... then match the following element in List I with block in List II.
List-I List-II
(A) K(19) (P) s-Block
(B) Fe(26) (Q) p-Block
(C) Ga(31) (R) d-Block
(D) Sn(50) (S) f-block
57. Match the characteristics mentioned in List II with the process in List I.
List I List II
(A) O (g) + e¯  O¯ (g) (P) Positve electron gain enthalpy
(B) 2
O¯ (g) + e¯  O ¯ (g) (Q) Negative electron gain enthalpy
(C) Na¯(g)  Na(g) + e– (R) Exothermic
(D) + –
Mg (g) + e  Mg (g) (S) Endothermic
58. Match the column :
Column I Column II
(A) Cl (P) Metal
(B) F (Q) Highest electron gain enthalpy
(C) Cu (R) Highest Electronegative element
(D) He (S) Highest ionisation energy.
59. Match the column :
Column I Column II
(A) Ni (P) Elements having number of unpaired

electron in their dipositive = 2.
(B) K (Q) At least 13 electrons are having magnetic
quantum number 'zero'
(C) Mn (R) Atom is paramagnetic
(D) Pd (S) Element is not transition element
Subjective :
60. Find total no. of orbitals in nickel which have |m|  1 and at least one electron is present, where ‘m’
is magnetic quantum number.
(Given your ans. as sum digits for example. If your ans is 57 then 5 + 7 = 12 and 1 + 2 =3)
 1
61. Minimum number of electrons having spin quantum number equal to    in Cr is “_____”.
 2
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EXERCISE -II
1. Moving from right to left in a periodic table, the atomic size is: [JEE 1995]
(A) increased (B) decreased (C) remains constant (D) none of these
2. The increasing order of electronegativity in the following elements: [JEE 1995]
(A) C, N, Si, P (B) N, Si, C, P (C) Si, P, C, N (D) P, Si, N, C
3. One element has atomic weight 39. Its electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 4s1. The true
statement for that element is:
(A) Hight value of IE (B) Transition element
38
(C) Isotone with 18Ar (D) None [JEE 1995]
4. The number of paired electrons in oxygen atom is: [JEE 1995]
(A) 6 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 32
5. The decreasing size of K+, Ca2+, Cl– & S2– follows the order: [REE 1995]
+ +2 –2 – + +2 – –2
(A) K > Ca > S > Cl (B) K > Ca > Cl > S
(C) Ca +2 >K+ > Cl– > S–2 (D) S–2 > Cl– > K+ > Ca+2
6. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons [JEE 1996]
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ti3+ (C) V3+ (D) Fe2+
7. The incorrect statement among the following is: [JEE 1997]
(A) the first ionisation potential of Al is less then the first ionisation potential of Mg
(B) the second ionisation potential of Mg is greater then the second ionisation potential of Na
(C) the first ionisation potential of Na is less then the first ionisation potential of Mg
(D) the third ionisation potential of Mg is greater then the third ionisation potential of Al
8. Li+, Mg2+, K+,Al3+ (Arrange in increasing order of radii) [JEE 1997]
9. Which one of the following statement (s) is (are) correct? [JEE 1998]
(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d5 4s1.(Atomic No. of Cr = 24)
(B) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value
(C) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite type. ( Atomic No.
of Ag = 47)
(D) The oxidation state of nitrogen in HN3 is –3.
10. The electrons, identified by n & l ; [JEE 1999]
(i) n = 4 , l = 1 (ii) n = 4 , l = 0 (iii) n = 3 , l = 2
(iv) n = 3 , l = 1 can be placed in order of increasing energy, from the lowest to highest as :
(A) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (B) (iii) < (ii) < (iv) < (i)
(C) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (D) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii)
11. Gaseous state electronic configuration of nitrogen atom can be represented as : [JEE 1999]
(A)  (B)  (C) (D)
12. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1. This represents its :
(A) excited state (B) ground state (C) cationic form (D) none [JEE 2000]
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JEE-Chemistry
13. Assertion: F atom has a less negative electron gain enthalpy than Cl atom. [JEE 2000]
Reason: Additional electron is repelled more efficiently by 3p electron in Cl atom than by 2p
electron in F atom.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for statement-1.
14. The correct order of radii is: [JEE 2000]
– 2– 3–
(A) N < Be < B (B) F < O < N (C) Na < Li < K (D) Fe < Fe < Fe4+
3+ 2+
15. The IE1 of Be is greater than that of B. [T/F] [JEE 2001]

16. The set representing correct order of IP1 is [JEE 2001]
(A) K > Na > Li (B) Be > Mg > Ca (C) B > C > N (D) Fe > Si > C
17. Identify the least stable ion amongst the following: [JEE 2002]
(A) Li– (B) Be– (C) B– (D) C–
18. The maximum number of electrons that can have principal quantum number n=3, and spin quantum
number, ms = – 1/2, is [JEE 2011]
19. Which of the following represents the correct order of increasing first ionization enthalpy for Ca,
Ba, S, Se and Ar ? [JEE 2013]
(A) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar (B) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar
(C) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar (D) Ca < Ba S < Se < Ar
20. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na+ will
be :- [JEE 2013]
(A) – 2.55 eV (B) – 5.1 eV (C) – 10.2 eV (D) + 2.55 eV
21. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is:
[JEE 2014]
1 1 1 1
(A) 5,1,1,  (B) 5,0,1,  (C) 5,0,0,  (D) 5,1,0, 
2 2 2 2
1
22. In an atom, the total number of electrons having quantum numbers n=4, |m| = 1 and ms= – is:
2
[JEE Advanced 2014]
23. If the principal quantum number n = 6, the correct sequence of filling of electrons will be:-
[JEE Main (On line 2015]
(A) ns(n–1)d(n–2)ƒnp (B) nsnp(n–1)d(n–2)ƒ
(C) ns(n–2)ƒ(n–1)dnp (D) ns(n–2)ƒnp(n–1)d
24. In the long form of the periodic table, the valence shell electronic configuration of 5s2 5p4 corresponds
to the element present in: [JEE Main (On line 2015]
(A) Group 16 and period 5 (B) Group 17 and period 6
(C) Group 17 and period 5 (D) Group 16 and period 6
25. The ionic radii (in Å) of N3–, –O2– and F– are respectively :- [JEE Main (Off line 2015]
(A) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 (B) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40
(C) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (D) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40
26. Which of the following atoms has the highest first ionization energy ?[JEE Main (Off line 2016]
(A) Sc (B) Rb (C) Na (D) K
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ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE # I
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. C
8. B 9. C 10. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d1 4s2 11. A 12. C
13. A 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. B,C
20. C 21. C 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. C 26. C
27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D 31. D 32. C 33. D
34. C 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. B,C 39. A,C
40. A,B,D 41. A,B 42. A,B,C 43. A,B 44. A,C,D 45. B,D
46. A,C 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. D 51. B
52. B 53. C 54. D 55. C 56. (A) R, (B) R, (C) Q, (D) S
57. (A) Q,R; (B) P,S; (C) S; (D) Q,R 58. (A) Q (B) R (C) P (D) S
59. (A) P,Q,R (B) R,S (C) Q,R (D) P, Q 60. 4 61. 9
EXERCISE # II
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. D 7. B
8. Mg2+ < Li+ < K+ 9. A,B,C 10. A 11. A,D 12. B,C 13. C
14. B 15. True 16. B 17. B 18. 9 19. C 20. B
21. C 22. 6 23. C 24. A 25. A 26. A
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CHEMICAL BONDING
EXERCISE # (O–2)
(CHOOSE THE CORRECT OPTION. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE ARE CORRECT)
VALENCY & OCTET
1. Which of the following compounds contain both ionic and covalent bonds ?
(A) NH4Cl (B) KCN (C) CuSO4.5H2O (D) NaOH
2. The octet rule is not obeyed in :
(A) CO2 (B) BCl3 (C) PCl5 (D) SiF4
3. To which of the following species octet rule is not applicable ?
(A) BrF5 (B) SF6 (C) IF7 (D) CO
4. Which of the following species contain coordinate bond ?
(A) AlCl3 (B) CO (C) NOF3 (D) N3–
VBT / HYBRIDISATION / VSEPR THEORY
5. The experimental result says that two iodine atoms are in different environments and predict the all possible
INCORRECT arrangement for I2Cl4Br2.
Cl Cl Br Br Cl Br
(A) I I (B) I I
Cl Cl Br Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl Br Cl Br Cl
(C) I I (D) I I
Br Cl Cl Cl Br Cl
6. The linear structure is assumed by :
(A) SnCl2 (B) NCO– (C) CS2 (D) NO2+
7. Shape of NH3 is very similar to
(A) SeO32– (B) CH3– (C) BH3 (D) CH+3
8. Pick out among the following species isoelectronic with CO2 :
(A) N3– (B) (CNO)– (C) (NCN)2– (D) NO2–
9. The structure of XeF6 is :
(A) pentagonal bipyramidal (B) distorted octahedral
(C) capped octahedral (D) square pyramidal
10. A -bond may between two px, orbitals containing one unpaired electron each when they approach each
other appropriately along :
(A) x-axis (B) y-axis (C) z-axis (D) any direction
BOND ANGLE / BOND LENGTH

11. Which of the following statements are not correct ?
(A) All C–O bonds in CO32– are equal but not in H2CO3
(B) All C–O bonds in HCO2– are equal but not in HCO2H
(C) C–O bond length in HCO2– is longer than C–O bond length in CO32–
(D) C–O bond length in HCO2– and C–O bond length in CO32– are equal.
BENT'S AND DRAGO RULE
12. Select the CORRECT statement for following molecules :
(I) PF2(CH3)3 ; (II) PF2(CF3)3
(A) Both have trigonal bipyramidal structure with respect to P.
(B) P-F bond length is longer in PF2(CH3)3 than in PF2(CF3)3
(C) F-atoms occupy axial position in both
(D) None of these
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Chemical Bonding
BACK BONDING
13. Molecules in which bond angle is changed due to back bonding w.r.t B/O/N.
(A) H3BO3 (B) B(OMe)3 (C) BF3 (D) N(SiH3)3
14. 3d-2p type back bonding is observed in :
–
(A) N(SiH3)3 (B) CCl3 (C) S(CH3)2 (D) BCl3
MULTICENTERED BOND
15. No X–X bond exists in which of the following compounds having general form of X2H6 ?
(A) B2H6 (B) C2H6 (C) Al2H6 (D) Si2H6
16. Three centre - two electron bonds exist in :
(A) B2H6 (B) Al2(CH3)6 (C) BeH2(s) (D) BeCl2(s)
17. Select correct statement about B2H6
(A) Bridging groups are electron-deficient with 12 valence electrons
(B) It has 2c – 2e B–H bonds
(C) It has 3c – 2e B–H–B bonds
(D) All of above are correct statements
SILICATE
18. In which of the following cases the number of corner shared per tetrahedron is '2' -
(A) Pyroxene chain silicate (B) Amphibole chain silicate
(C) 5-membered cyclic silicate (D) None of these
ODD ELECTRON SPECIES
19. Select correct about NO2 :
(A) It is odd electron species (B) N–O bond order = 1.5
(C) Paramagnatic species (D) Isoelectronic with CO2
20. The number of specie(s) which are not perfectly planar.
(A) CH3 (B) CF3 (C) CHF2 (D) CH2F
21. Which of the following statement is CORRECT :-
(A) The free electron of ClO3 molecule is present in d-orbital of Cl-atom

(B) The free electron of CF3 is present in sp3 hybrid orbital
(C) NO is polar
(D) The free electron of ClO2 molecule is present in d-orbital of Cl-atom
22. Consider the following statement(s) is / are INCORRECT for
. .
C H3 = X and C F3 = Y
(A) When X dimerises bond angle decreases
(B) When X dimerises bond angle increases
(C) In X–Y molecule C–C bond length less than that in Y–Y molecule
(D) Bond angle in Y is less than X
HYDROLYSIS
23. Which of the following halides cannot be hydrolysed ?
(A) SeF6 (B) SF6 (C) CCl4 (D) NF3
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MOLECULE DOES NOT EXIST
24. Which of the following molecules do not exist ?
(A) Br2O (B) SF6 (C) NCl5 (D) OF4
25. Which of the following do not exists ?
(A) SH6 (B) HFO4 (C) SiCl6–2 (D) HClO3
26. Which of the following molecule exist-
(A) SF6 (B) PH5 (C) PH3 (D) PCl5
INERT PAIR EFFECT
27. Which of the following have an (18 + 2) electron configuration ?
(A) Pb2+ (B) Cd2+ (C) Bi3+ (D) SO42–
28. Which of following stability order is/are correct due to inert pair effect ?
(A) Hg > Hg2+ (B) Bi3+ < Bi5+ (C) Pb2+ > Pb4+ (D) Fe2+ < Fe3+
IONIC COMPOUND
29. Choose the CORRECT order for the given properties.
(A) MgSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4 : Thermal stability order
(B) BeC2O4 < CaC2O4 < BaC2O4 : Solubility in water
(C) LiCl > NaCl > KCl : Melting point order
(D) BeF2 > CaF2 > SrF2 : Covalent character order
30. Polarization may be called the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently placed cation. Which
of the following statements is/are INCORRECT ?
(A) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation of low radius
(B) A large cation is likely to bring about a large degree of polarization
(C) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high charge
(D) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarization
31. Most ionic compounds have :
(A) high melting points and low boiling points

(B) high melting points and nondirectional bonds
(C) high solubilities in polar solvents and low solubilities in nonpolar solvents
(D) three-dimentional network structures, and are good conductors of electricity in the molten state
32. Choose the CORRECT order for the given properties.
(A) NaF < MgF2 < AlF3 : covalent character order.
(B) NaF < MgF2 < AlF3 : melting point order
(C) NaF < MgF2 < AlF3 : lattice energy order
(D) NaF > MgF2 > AlF3 : order of polarising power of cation.
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Chemical Bonding
MOLECULAR ORBITAL THEORY
33. Which of the following have identical bond order ?
(A) O22+ (B) NO+ (C) CN– (D) CN+
34. Which of the following statement is/are CORRECT ?
(A) The peroxide ion has a bond order of 1 while the oxygen molecule has a bond order of 2
(B) The peroxide ion has a weaker bond than the dioxygen molecule has.
(C) The peroxide ion as well as the dioxygen molecules are paramagnetic
(D) The bond length of the peroxide ion is greater than that of the dioxygen molecule
35. Given the species : N2, CO, CN– and NO+. Which of the following statements are true for these
(A) All species are paramagnetic (B) The species are isoelectronic
(C) All the species have dipole moment (D) All the species are linear
36. Which of the following have unpaired electron(s) ?
(A) O+2 (B) O¯2 (C) NO (D) H+2
37. Which of the following are paramagnetic ?
(A) B2 (B) O2 (C) N2 (D) He2
38. Which of the following species have a bond order of 3 ?
(A) CO (B) CN– (C) NO+ (D) O2+
39. Which of the following is CORRECT ?
(A) During N2+ formation, one electron is removed from the bonding molecular orbitals
(B) During O2+ formation, one electron is removed from the antibonding molecular orbitals
(C) During O¯
2 formation, one electron is added to the bonding molecular orbitals
(D) During CN¯ formation, one electron is added to the bonding molecular orbitals
WEAK FORCES AND HYDROGEN BONDING
40. Which of the following factors are responsible for origination of vander Waals forces ?
(A) Instantaneous dipole-induced dipole interaction
(B) Dipole-induced dipole interaction
(C) Dipole-dipole interaction

(D) Size of molecule
41. Which of the following are TRUE ?
(A) Vander Waals forces are responsible for the formation of molecular crystals
(B) Branching lowers the boiling points of isomeric organic compounds due to decrease in Vander Waals
forces of attraction
(C) In graphite, vander Waals forces act between the carbon layers
(D) In diamond, vander Waals forces act between the carbon layers
42. Which of the following molecules are expected to exhibit intermolecular H-bonding
(A) Acetic acid (B) o-nitrophenol (C) m-nitrophenol (D) o-boric acid
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JEE-Chemistry
DIPOLE MOMENT
43. Which has (have) zero value of dipole moment?
(A) XeF4 (B) CHCl3 (C) CO2 (D) Cl Cl
44. Which of the following have dipole moment ?

(A) nitrobenzene (B) p-chloronitrobenzene
(C) m-dichlorobenzene (D) o-dichlorobenzene
MISCELLANEOUS
45. Borax is actually made of two tetrahedra and two triangular units joined together and should be written
as: Na2[B4O5(OH)4 ].8H2 O
Consider the CORRECT statements about borax:
(A) Each boron atom has four B-O bonds
(B) Each boron atom has three B-O bonds
(C) Two boron atoms have four B-O bonds while other two have three B-O bonds
(D) Each boron atom has one –OH groups
46. Rotation around the bond (between the underlined atoms) is restricted in :
(A) C2H4 (B) H2O2 (C) C2H2 (D) C2H6
47. Which of the following have a three dimentional network structure ?
(A) SiO2 (B) (BN)x (C) P4(white) (D) CCl4
14
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Chemical Bonding
EXERCISE # (S–2)
Comprehension # 1 (1 to 3 Questions)
B is the first element of IIIrd group. It forms a number of electron deficient halides and hydrides. Among
the hydrides diborane is an important compound.
1. Which of the following halide is the strongest Lewis acid?
(A) BF3 (B) BCl3 (C) BBr3 (D) BI3
2. Which of the following compounds has 2p - 2p bond ?
(A) BF3 (B) BCl3 (C) BBr3 (D) BI3
3. In B2H6 number of 3c – 2e bonds is/are
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None
Molecular orbital theory is based on linear combination of atomic orbitals (LCAO). According to LCAO
when respective atomic orbitals of the atoms interact, they undergoes constructive and destructive
interference giving two types of molecular orbital i.e. bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals
respectively.
4. Which of the following species is paramagnetic ?
(A) NO– (B) O22– (C) CN– (D) CO
5. Bond order of Be2 is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
6. Number of anti bonding electrons in N2 is :
(A) 4 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
Polarisation of anion in ionic compounds play an important role to influnce the various physical and
chemical properties of ionic compound.
7. Amongst LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2 and MgCl2 the compounds with the greatest and the least ionic character,
respectively are :
(A) LiCl and RbCl (B) RbCl and BeCl2 (C) RbCl and MgCl2 (D) MgCl2 and BeCl2
8. Compound with maximum ionic character is formed from :
(A) Na and Cl (B) Cs and F (C) Cs and I (D) Na and F
"Hydrolysis is defined as the reaction of water with any susbtance"
9. Choose the correct order of ease of hydrolysis -
(A) MgCl2 > AlCl3 (B) SF6 < SeF6 (C) SnCl2 > SnCl4 (D) None
10. Which of the following oxyacids are formed during the stepwise hydrolysis of P4O10
(A) tetrametaphosphoric acid (B) tetrapolyphosphoric acid
(C) pyrophosphoric acid (D) All of these
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JEE-Chemistry
MATCHING LIST
11. Match list I with list II and select the CORRECT answer:
List I (species) List II (O-N-O angle)
(P) NO+2 (1) 180°
(Q) NO 2 (2) 134°
(R) NO¯
2 (3) 120°
(S) NO¯
3 (4) 115°
(5) 109°
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 5 4 3 2 (B) 5 2 4 3
(C) 1 2 4 3 (D) 1 4 3 2
List–I (Molecule / Species) List–II (Unpaired electron resides in)
(P) NO 2 (1) d-orbital
(Q) ClO 2 (2) sp2-orbital
(R) ClO 3 (3) sp3-orbital
(S) •CH 3 (4) p-orbital
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 2 4 1 3 (B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 4 2 3 (D) 3 1 2 4
List–I (Process) List–II (Operating interaction involved) Node-1\Target-2019-20\1.JEE(Main+Advanced)\Module\Leader\Chemistry\Inorganic chemistry\Eng\Q.B.
(P) Clathrate compound of Xe in ice (1) Ion - Dipole

(Q) Liquation of Xe gas (2) Dipole - Dipole
(R) Liquation of HCl gas (3) Dipole - Induced dipole
(S) Hydration of Na+ (4) London forces
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 1 3 4 2 (B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 1 3 2 4
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Chemical Bonding
MATRIX MATCH
14. Match the column
Column-I Column-II
(Compound) (Characteristics associated with given compounds)
(A) BeCl2 (P) Undergoes partial hydrolysis
(B) SiF4 (Q) All possible bond angles are identical
(C) SO2Cl2 (R) Hydrolysed product of the attacking site is electron deficient and
(D) BF3 finally produces polymerised product
(S) Maximum number of atoms present in one plane is three
Column-I Column-I
(Molecules) (Characteristics)
(A) CH 4 (P) Molecule is having perfect tetrahedral shape
(B) CH2F2 (Q) C-F bond has maximum p-character
(C) CHF3 (R) C–H bond has maximum s-character
(D) CF4 (S) Molecule is having maximum number of equal angles
(T) Molecule has lowest bond angle
Column-I Column-II
(Process) (Characteristics)
(A) N2+ 
 N2 (P) Magnetic moment gets changed
(B) Zn2+ 
 Zn (Q) The process is associated with two electronic change
(C) O22– 
 2O2– (R) Magnetic behaviour gets changed
(D) C22– 
 C2 (S) Electron(s) associated in the process enter(s) into *2p orbital
(T) Electron(s) associated in the process involve(s) 2 p orbital

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J-ADVANCED EXERCISE
1. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3— and NH4+ are : [IIT 2000]
(A) sp2, sp3 and sp2 respectively (B) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(C) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively (D) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
2. The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species NH3, [PtCl4]2–, PCl5 and BCl3
is : [IIT 2001]
(A) dsp2, sp3d, sp2 and sp3 (B) sp3, dsp2, sp3d, sp2
(C) dsp2, sp2, sp3, sp3d (D) dsp2, sp3, sp2, sp3d
3. The common features among the species CN—, CO and NO+ are : [IIT 2001]
(A) bond order three and isoelectronic (B) bond order three and weak field ligands
(C) bond order two and - acceptors (D) isoelectronic and weak field ligands
4. Specify the coordination geometry around and hybridisation of N and B atoms in a 1 : 1 complex of BF3
and NH3 – [IIT 2001]
(A) N: tetrahedral sp3 ; B : tetrahedral sp3 (B) N: pyramidal sp3 ; B : pyramidal sp3
(C) N: pyramidal sp3 ; B : planar sp2 (D) N: pyramidal sp3 ; B : tetrahedral sp3 d
5. Specify hybridization of N and B atoms in a 1 : 1 complex of BF3 and NH3 [JEE 2002]
(A) N : tetrahedral, sp3; B : tetrahedral, sp3 (B) N : pyramidal, sp3; B : pyramidal, sp3
(C) N : pyramidal, sp3; B : planar, sp2 (D) N : pyramidal, sp3; B : tetrahedral, sp3
6. The nodal plane in the -bond of ethene is located in [JEE 2002]
(A) the molecular plane
(B) a plane parallel to the molecular plane
(C) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects, the carbon-carbon a bond at right angle.
(D) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains, the carbon-carbon bond. Node-1\Target-2019-20\1.JEE(Main+Advanced)\Module\Leader\Chemistry\Inorganic chemistry\Eng\Q.B.
7. Which of the following molecular species has unpaired electron(s) ? [JEE 2002]
(A) N2 (B) F2 (C) O2– (D) O2–
2
8. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural ? [JEE 2003]

NO3– . CO32–, ClO–3 , SO3
(A) NO3–, CO2–
3
(B) SO3, NO3– (C) ClO–3, CO2–
3
(D) CO2–
3
, SO3
9. According to molecular orbital theory which of the following statement about the magnetic character and
bond order is correct regarding O2+ [JEE 2004]
(A) Paramagnetic and Bond order < O2 (B) Paramagnetic and Bond order > O2
(C) Diamagnetic and Bond order < O2 (D) Diamagnetic and Bond order > O2
18
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Chemical Bonding
10. Which species has the maximum number of lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
(A) ClO3– (B) XeF4 (C) SF4 (D) I3– [JEE 2005]
11. The percentage of p-character in the orbitals forming P–P bonds in P4 is [JEE 2006]
(A) 25 (B) 33 (C) 50 (D) 75
12. Among the following, the paramagnetic compound is [JEE 2007]
(A) Na2O2 (B) O3 (C) N2O (D) KO2
13. The species having bond order different from that in CO is [JEE 2007]
(A) NO– (B) NO+ (C) CN– (D) N2
14. The structure of XeO3 is [JEE 2007]
(A) linear (B) planar (C) pyramidal (D) T-shaped
15. Statement-1 : p-Hydroxybenzoic acid has a lower boiling point than o-hydroxybenzoic acid.
Statement-2 : o-Hydroxybenzoic acid has intramolecular hydrogen bonding. [JEE 2007]
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
16. Statement-1 : In water, orthoboric acid behaves as a weak monobasic acid. [JEE 2007]
Statement-2 : In water, orthoboric, acid acts as a proton donor.
17. Statement-1 : Pb+4 compounds are stronger oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds [JEE 2008]
Statement-2 : The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier members
of the group due to 'inert pair effect' .
18. Match each of the diatomic molecules in Column I with its property / properties in Column II.
Column I Column II [JEE 2009]
(A) B2 (P) Paramagnetic
(B) N 2 (Q) undergoes oxidation
–
(C) O2 (R) Undergoes reduction
(D) O 2 (S) Bond order  2
(T) Mixing of 's' and `p' orbitals
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JEE-Chemistry
19. The nitrogen oxide(s) that contain(s) N–N bond(s) is (are) [JEE 2009]
(A) N2O (B) N2O3 (C) N2O4 (D) N2O5
20. In the reaction [JEE 2009]
+ –
2X + B2H6  [BH2(X)2] [BH4]
the amine(s) X is (are)
(A) NH3 (B) CH3NH2 (C) (CH3)2NH (D) (CH3)3N
21. The species having pyramidal shape is [JEE 2010]
(A) SO3 (B) BrF3 (C) SiO2–
3
(D) OSF2
22. Assuming that Hund's rule is violated, the bond order and magnetic nature of the diatomic molecule B2
is [JEE 2010]
(A) 1 and diamagnetic (B) 0 and diamagnetic
(C) 1 and paramagnetic (D) 0 and paramagnetic
23. In allene (C3H4), the type(s) of hybridisation of the carbon atoms is (are) [JEE 2012]
(A) sp and sp3 (B) sp and sp2 (C) only sp2 (D) sp2 and sp3
24. Which ordering of compounds is according to the decreasing order of the oxidation state of nitrogen-
(A) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 (B) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl [JEE 2012]
(C) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 (D) NO, HNO3, NH4Cl, N2
25. The shape of XeO2F2 molecule is : [JEE 2012]
(A) Trigonal bipyramidal(B) Square planar
(C) tetrahedral (D) see-saw
Subjective
26. The number of water molecule(s) directly bonded to the metal centre in CuSO4.5H2O is
[JEE 2009]
27. Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90 degree F–Br–F angles in BrF5 is [JEE 2010]
28. The value of n in the molecular formula BenAl2Si6O18 is [JEE 2010]
29. The total number of diprotic acids among the following is [JEE 2010]
H3PO4 H2SO4 H3PO3 H2CO 3 H2S 2O 7

H3BO3 H3PO2 H2CrO4 H2SO3
30. Among the following, the number of elements showing only one non-zero oxidation state is
O, Cl, F, N, P, Sn, Tl, Na, Ti [JEE 2010]
31. The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two types of sulphur atoms in Na2S4O6 is.
[JEE 2011]
32. The total number of lone-pairs of electrons in melamine is [JEE Adv. 2013]
33. Assuming 2s-2p mixing is NOT operative, the paramagnetic species among the following is :
[JEE Adv. 2014]
(A) Be2 (B) B2 (C) C2 (D) N2
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Chemical Bonding
34. Match the orbital overlap figures shown in List-I with the description given in List-II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the lists. [JEE Adv. 2014]
List-I List-II
(P) (1) p – d  antibonding
(Q) (2) d – d  bonding
(R) (3) p – d  bonding
(S) (4) d – d  antibonding
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 4 1 3 2
35. Among the triatomic molecules / ions, BeCl2, N¯3, N2O, NO+2, O3, SCl2 , ICl¯2 , I3– and XeF2 the total
number of linear molecules(s) / ion(s) where the hybridization of the central atoms does not have contribution
from the d-orbital(s) is : [JEE Adv. 2015]
(Atomic number : S = 16, Cl = 17, I = 53 and Xe = 54)
36. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in N2O3 is : [JEE Adv. 2015]
37. The correct statement(s) regarding, (i) HClO, (ii) HClO2, (iii) HClO3 and (iv) HClO4, is(are)
(A) The number of Cl=O bonds in (ii) and (iii) together is two [JEE Adv. 2015]
(B) The number of lone pairs of electrons on Cl in (ii) and (iii) together is three
(C) The hybridization of Cl in (iv) is sp3
(D) Amongst (i) to (iv), the strongest acid is (i)
38. When O2 is adsorbed on a metallic surface, electron transfer occurs from the metal to O2. The TRUE,
statement (s) regarding this adsorption is (are) [JEE Adv. 2015]
(A) O2 is physisorbed (B) heat is released
(C) occupancy of *2 p of O2 is increased (D) bond length of O2 is increased
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ANSWERS KEY
EXECISE (O–2)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A,B,C,D B,C A,B,C B,C,D B,C,D B,C,D A, B A, B, C B, C B, C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C, D A, B, C A, B, D A, B A, C A, B, C B, C A, C A,B,C B,C,D
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B,C,D B,C B, C, D C, D A, B, C A, C, D A, C A, C A, D A, B, D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. B, C, D A, B, C A, B, C A, B, D B, D A,B,C,D A, B A, B, C A, B, D A, B, C
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
Ans. A, B, C A, C, D A, C, D A,B,C,D C, D A, B, C A, B
EXERCISE (S–2)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D A B A D A B B B D
Que. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C B C (A)–Q,R,S (B)–P,Q,S (C)–S (D)–P,Q (A)–P,S (B)–Q,T (C)–R (D)–P,S
Que. 16
Ans. (A) – P,R,T (B) – Q (C) – Q (D) – Q,T
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Chemical Bonding
J-ADVANCED EXERCISE
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. D
11. D 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. C
16. C 17. C 18. (A)-P,Q,R,T(B)-Q,R,S,T(C)-P,Q,R(D)-P,Q,R,S
19. A,B,C 20. B,C 21. D 22. A 23. B
24. B 25. D 26. (4) 27. (0) 28. (3)
29. (6) Sol. H2SO4 H3PO3 H2CO3 H2S2O7 H2CrO4 H2SO3
30. (2) Sol. F, Na
31. (5)
32. (6)
..
NH2
.. ..
N N
Sol.
.. ..
NH2 N NH2
..
33. C
34. C
35. D
BeCl2, N3–, N2O, NO2+
36. (8)
..
O
..
Sol. N–N ..
O =N–O–N
..
O
..
.. ..
O
..
..
37. B,C
38. B,C,D
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METALLURGY
EXERCISE - O-II
ONE OR MORE THAN ONE OPTION MAY BE CORRECT
ORES
1 Which of the following is(are) sulphide ores ?
(A) Argentite (B) Galena (C) Anglesite (D) Copper glance
2 Which of the following is(are) regarded as iron ores?
(A) Haematite (B) Magnetite (C) Limonite (D) Copper pyrites
CONCENTRATION
3 Which of the following ores is(are) concentrated by froth floatation?
(A) haematite (B) galena (C) copper pyrite (D) azurite
4 Which of the following ores is (are) concentrated industrially by froth floatation?
(A) Copper pyrites (B) Galena (C) Dolomite (D) Carnallite
5 Leaching is used for the concentration of:
(A) Red bauxite (B) Haematite (C) Gold ore (D) Silver ore
CALCINATION/ROASTING
6 Calcination and roasting processes of ores to form their oxides are beneficial
(A) to convert ores into porous form so that their reduction becomes easier
(B) as impurities like S, As, Sb, are removed
(C) as organic impurities are removed.
(D) as the ores are converted into oxide form which makes the reduction easier
7 Which of the following reaction(s) occur during calcination?
(A) CaCO3  CaO + CO2 (B) 4FeS2 + 11O2  2Fe2O3 + 8SO2
(C) 2Al(OH)3  Al2O3 + 3H2O (D) CuS + CuSO4  2Cu + 2SO2
8 Which of the following is true for calcination of a metal ore?
(A) It makes the ore more porous
Node-1\Target-2019-20\1.JEE(M ain+Advanced)\M odule\Leader\Chem istry\Inorganic chem istry\Eng\Q.B.
(B) The ore is heated to a temperature when fusion just begins

(C) Hydrated salts lose their water of crystallisation
(D) Impurities of S, As and Sb are removed in the form of their volatile oxides.
9 Roasting can be performed in
(A) blast furnace (B) reverberatory furnace
(C) electric furnace (D) None of these
REDUCTION
10 Carbon reduction method is employed for commercial extraction of
(A) haematite (B) cassiterite (C) iron pyrite (D) corundum
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Metallurgy
11 Auto reduction process is used in extraction of
(A) Cu (B) Hg (C) Al (D) Fe
12 Which of the following reduction reactions are actually employed in commercial extraction of metals?
(A) Fe2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Fe
(B) Cr2O3 + 2Al  Al2O3 + 2Cr
(C) 2Na[Au(CN)2] + Zn  Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Au
(D) Cu2S + Pb  Cu + PbS 
PURIFICATION
13 In the manufacturing of metallic sodium by fused salt-electrolysis method (Down's process), small amount
of CaCl2 that added is known as auxiliary electrolyte and is used to
(A) improve the electrical conductance (B) decrease the melting point of electrolyte
(C) stabilise the metallic sodium (D) increase the temperature of electrolysis
14 Poling is employed in refining of
(A) iron (B) copper (C) tin (D) lead
15 Zone refining is used for purification of
(A) Ge (B) Si (C) Ga (D) Se
16 Metal(s) which does/do not form amalgam is/are
(A) Fe (B) Pt (C) Zn (D) Au
17 Metals which can be commercially extracted by smelting process
(A) Pb (B) Fe (C) Zn (D) Mg
EXTRACTION OF METALS
18 Hoop's process of purification of aluminium involves formation of layers during electrolysis.
It involves
(A) the three layers have same densities but different materials.
(B) the three layers have different densities
(C) the upper layer is of pure aluminium which acts as a cathode
(D) the bottom layer is of impure aluminium which acts as an anode and middle layer consists of
cryolite and BaF2.

19 Metallurgical process of zinc involves roasting of zinc sulphide followed by reduction. Metallic
zinc distills over as it is volatile and impurities like Cu, Pd and Fe gets condensed. The crude metal
obtained is called spelter, which may be purified by
(A) electrolysis process (B) fractional distillation
(C) polling (D) heating with iodine
20 Which of the following process (es) are used for purification of Bauxite ore?
(A) Hall's process (B) Serpeck's process (C) Baeyer's process (D) Mond's process
21 Common impurities present in Bauxite are
(A) CuO (B) ZnO (C) Fe2O3 (D) SiO2
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22 Calcium silicate slag formed in extraction of iron
(A) prevents the reoxidation of molten iron.
(B) catalyses the combustion of carbon.
(C) reduces CO2 toCO at the bottom of the furnace.
(D) is used in cement industry.
23 Amphoteric nature of aluminium is employed in which of the following process for extraction of aluminium?
(A) Baeyer’s process (B) Hall’s process (C) Serpek’s process (D) Dow’s process
24 The chief reaction(s) occurring in blast furnace during extraction of iron from haematite is(are)
(A) Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2 (B) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3
(C) Fe2O3 + C  2Fe + 3CO (D) CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3
25 Which of the following are true for electrolytic extraction of aluminium
(A) cathode material contains graphite (B) anode material contains graphite
(C) cathode reacts away forming CO2 (D) anode reacts away forming CO2
26 During extraction of copper, it is obtained in the form of molten matte. Which of the following is not
true?
(A) matte is further treated in Bessemer’s converter
(B) molten matte is electrolysed
(C) It is treated with a blast of air and sand
(D) It is dissolved in CuSiF6 and crystallised.
27 The major role of fluorspar (CaF2) which is added in small quantities in the electrolytic reduction of
alumina dissolved in fused cryolite (Na3AlF6) is
(A) as a catalyst
(B) to make the fused mixture very conducting
(C) to lower the melting temperature of the mixture
(D) to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode.
28 Which of the following reaction is not occur in blast furnace during extraction of iron :
(A) CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3 (B) Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe + 3CO2
1
(C) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3 (D) FeO  Fe + O
2 2
MISCELLANEOUS
29 Which of the following employ downward movement of ore due to gravity?
(A) Gravity separation (B) Froth floatation
(C) Blast furnace (D) Bessemer’s converter
30 The correct statements are :
(A) generally the calcination and roasting is done in blast furnace
(B) the sandy and rocky materials associated with ore are called matrix
(C) froth floatation process is suitable for sulphide ores
(D) substance that reacts with gangue to form fusible mass is called slag
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Metallurgy
EXERCISE - S-2
COMPREHENSION AND MATCH THE COLUMN
ELLINGHAM DIAGRAM
Paragraph for 1 to 3
(+) ve
0
O
ZrZr 2
(–)ve O
FeFe
CC
G0 O
gO
Mg M
O
Pb
CaCa PbO
T1
Temperature
1 Which of the above curve is wrongly presented -
(A) C  CO2 (B) Pb  PbO (C) Zr  ZrO2 (D) Mg  MgO
2 Which of the above metal oxide is having minimum thermal decomposition temperature.
(A) CaO (B) FeO (C) ZrO2 (D) MgO
3 Which of the following metal's oxide can be reduced by Fe as reducing agent at temperature (T1)
(A) Zr (B) Ca (C) Mg (D) None of these
PURIFICATION METHOD
Paragraph for 4 to 6
At high temperature carbon reacts with water to produce a mixture of carbon monoxide, CO and
hydrogen, H2.
red heat
C + H2O   CO + H2
CO is separated from H2 and then used to separate nickel from cobalt by forming a volatile compound,
nickel tetracarbonyl, Ni (CO)4.
Ni + 4CO 
 Ni(CO)4
4 How many moles of Ni(CO)4 could be obtained from the CO produced by the reaction of 75.0g of
carbon ? Assume 100% reaction and 100% recovery in both steps.
(A) 6.25 (B) 1.563 (C) 3.125 (D) 25.0
5 Formation of volatile Ni(CO)4 and its subsequent heating give pure Ni. process is called -
(A) Hall (B) Dow (C) Serpeck (D) Mond
6 Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below .
Column-I (Metals) Column-II (Method used for refining)
(A) Iron & copper (P) Poling
(B) Zirconium & Titanium (Q) Bessemerisation
(C) Lead & Tin (R) Van-Arkel
(D) Copper & Tin (S) Liquation
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MISCELLANEOUS
Match Column
7 Match the following choosing one item from column X and the appropriate item from column Y.
Column -X Column-Y
(A) Zinc from ZnCO3 (P) Calcination
(B) Lead from PbS (Q) Removal of iron
(C) Cu from CuFeS2 (R) Froth floatation process
(D) Tin from cassiterite (S) Poling
8 Match column (I) (process) with column (II) (electrolyte)
Column (I) (process) Column (II) (electrolyte)
(A) Downs cell (P) fused MgCl2
(B) Dow sea water process (Q) fused (Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2)
(C) Hall-Heroult (R) fused (40% NaCl + 60% CaCl2)
(S) (AN + C + N2)
9 Match column - I with column - II
Column - I (Property) Column - II (Element/compound)
(A) Explosive (P) Cu
(B) Self-reduction (Q) Fe3O 4
(C) Ferrimagnetic material (R) Cu(CH3COO)2.Cu(OH)2
(D) Verdigris (S) Pb(NO3)2
10 Match column - I and column - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Column - I Column - II
(A) Cyanide process (P) Ultrapure Ge
(B) Floatation process (Q) Dressing of HgS
(C) Electrolytic reduction (R) Extraction of Al
(D) Zone refining (S) Extraction of Au
11. Match the items of Column I with items of Column II and assign the correct code :
Column I Column II
(P) Blistered Cu (1)Aluminium

(Q) Blast furnace (2) 2Cu2O + Cu2S  6Cu + SO2
(R) Reverberatory furnace (3) Iron
(S) Hall-Heroult process (4) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3
(5) 2Cu2S + 3O2 2Cu2O + 2SO2
Code :
(A) A  (2) ; B  (3) ; C  (4) ; D (1)
(B) A (1) ; B (2) ; C (3) ; D (5)
(C) A (5) ; B (4) ; C (3) ; D (2)
(D) A (4) ; B (5) ; C (3) ; D (2)
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Metallurgy
EXERCISE # IV (J-ADVANCED)
Objective:
1. Carnallite does not contain
(A) K (B) Ca (C) Mg (D) Cl
2. During initial treatment, preferential wetting of ore by oil and gangue by water takes place in
(A) Levigation (gravity separation) (B) Froth floatation
(C) Leaching (D) Bessemerisation
3. Which of the following is true for calcination of a metal ore?
(A) It makes the ore more porous
(B) The ore is heated to a temperature when fusion just begins
(C) Hydrated salts lose their water of crystallisation
(D) Sulphur in sulphides is oxidised to SO 2
(E) Heating with carbon leads to better calcination
4. In the commercial electrochemical process for aluminium extraction, the electrolyte used as :
[JEE-1999]
(A) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution (B) an aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3
(C) a molten mixture of Al2O3 and Na3AlF6 (D) a molten mixture of AlO(OH) and Al(OH)3
5. The chemical process in the production of steel from haematite ore involve: [2000 Qualifying]
(A) reduction (B) oxidation
(C) reduction followed by oxidation (D) oxidation followed by reduction
6. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall-Heroult process is carried out:
(A) in the presence of NaCl [2000 Qualifying]
(B) in the presence of fluorite
(C) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature
(D) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with higher melting temperature
7. The chemical composition of "slag" formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper
is : [2001 Qualifying]
(A) Cu2O + FeS (B) FeSiO3 (C) CuFeS2 (D) Cu2S + FeO
8. Which of the following processes is used in extractive metallurgy of magnesium?[2002 Qualifying]
(A) Fused salt electrolysis (B) Self reduction
(C) Aqueous solution electrolysis (D) Thermite reduction
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9. In the process of extraction of gold, [2003 Qualifying]
Roasted gold ore + CN– + H2O O

2 [X] + OH–
[X] + Zn  [Y] + Au
Identify the complexes [X] and [Y] :
(A) X = [Au(CN)2]– , Y = [Zn(CN)4]2– (B) X = [Au(CN)4]3– , Y = [Zn(CN)4]2–
(C) X = [Au(CN)2]– , Y = [Zn(CN)6]4– (D) X = [Au(CN)4]– , Y = [Zn(CN)4]2–
10. The methods chiefly used for the extraction of lead and tin from their ores are respectively :
[JEE-2004]
(A) self reduction and carbon reduction (B) self reduction and electrolytic reduction
(C) carbon reduction and self reduction (D) cyanide process and carbon reduction
11. Which ore contains both iron and copper ? JEE-2004]
(A) Cuprite (B) Chalcocite (C) Chalcopyrite (D) Malachite
12. Extraction for zinc from zinc blende is achieved by : [JEE-2007]
(A) electrolytic reduction (B) roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(C) roasting followed by reduction with another metal (D) roasting followed by self-reduction
13. Native silver metal forms a water soluble complex with a dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in the presence of
(A) nitrogen (B) oxygen
(C) carbon dioxide (D) argon [JEE-2008]
Paragraph for questions 14 to 16
Copper is the most nobel of the first row transition metals and occurs in small deposits in several
countries. Ores of copper include chalcanthite (CuSO4 . 5H2O), atacamite (Cu2Cl(OH)3), cuprite
(Cu2O), copper glance (Cu2S) and malachite (Cu2(OH)2CO3). However, 80% of the world copper
production comes from the ore chalcopyrite (CuFeS2). The extraction of copper from chalcopyrite
involves partial roasting, removal of iron and self-reduction.
14. Partial roasting of chalcopyrite produces :- [JEE-2010]
(A) Cu2S and FeO (B) Cu2O and FeO (C) CuS and Fe2O3 (D) Cu2O and Fe2O3
15. Iron is removed from chalcopyrite as :-
(A) FeO (B) FeS (C) Fe2O3 (D) FeSiO3
16. In self-reduction, the reducing species is :-
(A) S (B) O2– (C) S2– (D) SO2
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17. Match the extraction processes listed in column I with metals listed in column II. [JEE-2006]
Column I Column II
(A) Self reduction (P) Lead
(B) Carbon reduction (Q) Silver
(C) Complex formation and displacement by metal (R) Copper
(D) Decomposition of iodide (S) Boron
18. Match the conversions in Column I with the type(s) of reaction(s) given in Column II. Indicate your
answer by darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS.
Column I Column II [JEE-2008]
(A) PbS  PbO (P) Roasting
(B) CaCO3  CaO (Q) Calcination
(C) ZnS  Zn (R) Carbon reduction
(D) Cu2S  Cu (S) Self reduction
19. In extractive metallurgy of zinc partial fusion of ZnO with coke is called ______ and reduction of
the ore to the molten metal is called ________ (smelting, calcining, roasting, sintering). [JEE-1988]
20. Extraction of metal from the ore cassiterite involves [JEE-2011]
(A) carbon reduction of an oxide ore (B) self-reduction of a sulphide ore
(C) removal of copper impurity (D) removal of iron impurity
21. Oxidation states of the metal in the minerals haematite and magnetite, respectively, are [JEE-2011]
(A) II, III in haematite and III in magnetite (B) II, III in haematite and II in magnetite
(C) II in haematite and II, III in magnetite (D) III in haematite and II, III in magnetite
22. In the cyanide extraction process of silver from argentite ore, the oxidizing and reducing agents used
are : [JEE-2012]
(A) O2 and CO respectively. (B) O2 and Zn dust respectively.
(C) HNO3 and Zn dust respectively. (D) HNO3 and CO respectively.
23. Sulfide ores are common for the metals - [JEE-2013]
(A) Ag, Cu and Pb (B) Ag, Cu and Sn (C) Ag, Mg and Pb (D) Al, Cu and Pb
24. The carbon-based reduction method is NOT used for the extraction of [JEE-2013]
(A) tin from SnO2 (B) Iron from Fe2O3
(C) aluminium from Al2O3 (D) magnesium from MgCO3.CaCO3
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25. Upon heating with Cu2S, the reagent(s) that give copper metal is/are [JEE Adv. 2014]
(A) CuFeS2 (B) CuO (C) Cu2O (D) CuSO4
26. Copper is purified by electrolytic refining of blister copper. The correct statement(s) about this process
is (are) [JEE Adv. 2015]
(A) Impure Cu strip is used as cathode (B) Acidified aqueous CuSO4 is used as electrolyte
(C) Pure Cu deposits at cathode (D) Impurities settle as anode-mud
27. Match the anionic species given in Column-I that are present in the ore(s) given in Column-II
Column - I Column - II [JEE Adv. 2015]
(A) Carbonate (P) Siderite
(B) Sulphide (Q) Malachite
(C) Hydroxide (R) Bauxite
(D) Oxide (S) Calamine
(T) Argentite
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ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE # O-2
1. (A,B,D) 2. (A,B,C) 3. (B,C) 4. (A,B) 5. (A,C,D)
6. (A,B,C,D) 7. (A, C) 8. (A, C) 9. (A, B) 10. (A, B)
11. A,(B) 12. (B,C) 13. (A,B) 14. (B,C) 15. (A,B,C)
16. (A,B) 17. (A,B,C) 18. (B,C,D) 19. (A,B) 20. (A,B,C)
21. (C,D) 22. (A, D) 23. (A,B) 24. (A, D) 25. (A,B,D)
26. (B,D) 27. (B,C) 28. (C,D) 29. (A,C) 30. (B,C)
EXERCISE # S-2
1 (B) 2 (D) 3 A 4 (B)
5 (D) 6 (A)  Q ; (B)  R ; (C)  S ; (D)  P
7 (A)  P, (B)  R ; (C)  Q, R, S (D)  Q, S 8 (A)  R ; (B)  P ; (C)  Q
9 (A)  S ; (B)  P ; (C)  Q ; (D)  R
10 (A)  S ; (B)  Q ; (C)  R ; (D)  P 11. (A)
EXERCISE (J-ADVANCED)
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A,C) 4. (C) 5. (C)

6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (D)
16. (C)
17. (A)  P, R ; (B)  P ; (C)  Q ;(D)  S
18. (A)  P ; (B)  Q ; (C)  P, R ; (D)  P, S 19. Sintering , Smelting

20. (A,C,D) 21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (C,D)
25. (B,C,D) 26. (B,C,D) 27. (A)  P,Q,S ; (B)  T ; (C)  Q,R ; (D)  R
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Important Notes
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Co-ordination Chemistry
CO-ORDINATION CHEMISTRY
EXERCISE : O-2
MORE THAN ONE MAY BE CORRECT
1. Which of the following exhibit geometrical isomerism (M stands for a metal, and a and b are achiral
ligands)?
(A) Ma2b2 (Sq. Pl.) (B) Ma4b2 (C) Ma5b (D) Ma6
2. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct ?
(A) The oxidation state of iron in sodium nitro prusside Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)] is +II.
(B) [Ag(NH3)2]+ is linear in shape.
(C) In [Fe(H2O)6]3+, Fe is d2sp3 hybridized.
(D) In Ni(CO)4, the oxidation state of Ni is zero.
3. Which of the following compound(s) show(s) optical isomerism.
(A) [Pt(bn)2]2+ (B) [CrCl2(en)2]+ (C) [Co(en)3] [CoF6] (D) [Zn(gly)2]
4. Select incorrect statement(s) for [Cu(CN)4]3–, [Cd(CN)4]2– and [Cu(NH3)4]2+ complex ion.
(A) Both [Cd(CN)4]2– and [Cu(NH3)4]2+ have square planar geometry
(B) [Cu(CN)4]3– and [Cu(NH3)4]2+ have equal no. of unpaired electron
(C) [Cu(CN)4]3– and [Cd(CN)4]2– can be separated from the mixture on passing H2S gas.
(D) All the three complexes have magnetic moment equal to zero.
5. Which of the following will have two stereoisomeric forms?
(A) [Cr(NO3)3(NH3)3] (B) K3[Fe(C2O4)3]
(C) [CoCl2(en)2]+ (D) [CoBrCl(Ox)2]3–
6. Which is / are not correctly matched.
Complex compounds IUPAC name
(A) K[CrF4O] Potassium tetrafluoridooxidochromate(V)
(B) Na[BH(OCH3)3] Sodium hydridotrimethoxyborate(III)

(C) [Be(CH3–CO–CH2–CO–C6H5)2]° Bis(benzoylacetonato)beryllium(III)
(D) H[AuCl4] Hydrogen tetrachloroaurate(III)
7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect
(A) In [CoBrCl(en ) 2 ] geometrical isomerism exists, while optical isomerism does not exist
(B) Pot assium aquadicyanidosuperoxidoperoxidochromate(III) is IUPAC name for

K2[Cr(CN)2O2(O2)(H2O)]
(C) There are 3 geometrical isomers and 15 stereoisomers possible for [Pt(NO2)(NH3)(NH2OH)(py)]+ and
[PtBr Cl I (NO2)(NH3)(py)] respectively
(D) cis and trans forms are not diastereomers to each other
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8. Which of the following complexes are polymerisation isomers :
3+ 6+
OH OH
(A) (NH3)3 Co OH Co (NH3)3 and Co Co (NH3)4
OH OH 3
(B) [Pt(NH3)4] [PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4] [Pt(NH3)Cl3]2

(C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] and [Pt(NH3)3Cl]2 [PtCl4]
(D) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] and [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
9. Which of the following is correct about
Tetraamminedithiocyanato-Scobalt(III) tris(oxalato)cobaltate(III)
(A) formula of the complex is [Co(SCN)2(NH3)4][Co(ox)3]
(B) It is a chelating complex and show linkage isomerism.
(C) It shows optical isomerism.
(D) It shows geometrical isomerism.
10. Which is correct statement(s)?
(A) [Ag(NH3)2]+ is linear with sp hybridised Ag+ ion
(B) NiCl 24 , VO34 and MnO 4 have tetrahedral geometry
(C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ , [Pt(NH3)4]2+ & [Ni(CN)4]2– have dsp2 hybridisation of the metal ion
(D) Fe(CO)5 has trigonal bipyramidal structure with d 2 sp3 hybridised iron.
z
11. In which of the following complex(s) spin only magnetic moment is independent , from the nature of
ligand. (L = monodented ligand) -
II II III III
(A) [Ni L 4 ] (B) [Ni L 6 ] (C) [Fe L 6 ] (D) [Cr L 6 ]
12. Which of the following compound(s) can show optical isomerism -

(A) [PtCl4]2– (B) [PtCl2(NH3)2] (C) [Fe(EDTA)]– (D) [Fe(en)3]3+
13. Which of the following compounds are resolvable into d or -forms?
(A) [ZnCl2(en)] (B) [Be(acac)2] (C) [Co(gly)3] (D) [Cr(C2O4)3]3–
14. Which of the following ion is/are diamagnetic and non planar
(A) [Ni(CN)4]2– (B) MnO4– (C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (D) CrO42–
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EXERCISE : S-2
MATCH THE COLUMN :
1. Match the complexes in column-I with the EAN of central atom in column-II:
Column-I Column-II
(A) [Fe(CO)4]2– (P) 34
(B) [Co(NH3 )5Cl]Cl2 (Q) 35
(C) K2[Ni(CN)4 ] (R) 36
(D) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (S) 37
2. Column - I Column -II
(A) Na2 [Fe(CN)5 NO] (P)  = 0 B.M.
(B) [Fe(H2O)5 NO] SO4 (Q) octahedral
(C) [Ag(CN)2]¯ (R)  = 15 B.M.

(D) K4[Fe(CN)6 ] (S) NO+ ligand
3. Match the complexes in column I with their stereoproperties is column II
Column I Column II
(A) [CoCl3 (NH3)3 ] (P) Show facial isomer
(B) [Cr (OX)3]3– (Q) Cis form is optically active
(C) [CrCl2(OX)2 ] (R) Trans form is optically inactive
(D) [RhCl3 (Py)3 ] (S) Show meridional form
(T) Two optically active isomer
4. Match each coordination compound in List-I with co-ordination number of central metal/ion from
List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I List-II
3+
(P) [Co(en)3] (1) 6
2–
(Q) [Ca(EDTA)] (2) 4
(R) [Ni(CO)4] (3) 2
(S) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (4) 5
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 2 3
(B) 1 1 2 3
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 1 1 3 2
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5. Match the List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
(P) Ferrocene (1) Iron present
(Q) Mn2(CO)10 (2) Cobalt
(R) Vitamine B12 (3) Metal-Metal bonding
(S) Haemoglobin (4) Sandwich structure
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 1 3 1 2
(C) 1,4 3 2 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
6. Match the List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
(P) EDTA4– (1) N-doner atom
(Q) en (2) Chelate ligand with same doner site
(R) gly– (3) Bidentate with different doner atom
(S) amide (4) Hexa dentate
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Assertion Reason :
7. Statement-1: Complexes containing three bidentate groups such as [Cr(ox)3]3– and [Co(en)3]3+
do not show optical activity.
Statement-2: Octahedral complex, [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl shows geometrical isomerism.

8. Statement-1: After splitting of d-orbitals during complex formation, the orbitals form two sets of
orbitals t2g and eg octahedral field.
Statement-2: Splitting of d-orbitals occurs only in the case of strong field ligands such as CN¯.
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9. Statement-1: [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is coloured while [Sc(H2O)6]3+ is colourless.
Statement-2: d–d transition is not possible in [Sc(H2O)6]3+ because no d-electron is present while
possible for Ti3+ having d1 system.
Comprehension (10 to 12)
Ligands are neutral or ionic species capable of donating at least one electron pair to central metal.
Hence ligands can be of different denticities.
10. For a given metal M3+ coordination number is six, then for which set of ligands, complex will be
more stable-
(A) 6H2O (B) 6F¯ (C) EDTA4¯ (D) 2H2O and 2C2O42–
11. [Mn(CO)5] can attain more stability by :
(A) Oxidation of itself (B) Reduction of itself
(C) Dimerization (D) Both (B) and (C)
12. The metal cation that has least tendency to accept electron pair from NH3 is
(A) Fe3+ (B) Rh3+ (C) Zn2+ (D) Ba++
Comprehension (13 to 15)
Complex compounds are molecular compounds which retain their identities even when dissolved
in water. They do not give all the simple ions in solution but instead furnish complex ions with
complicated structures. The complex compounds are often called coordination compounds because
certain groups called ligands are attached to the central metal ion by coordinate or dative bonds.
Coordination compounds exhibit isomerism, both structural and stereoisomerism. The structure,
magnetic property, colour and electrical properties of complexes are explained by various theories.
13. Arrange the following compounds in order of their Molar conductance:
(I) K[Co(NO2)4 (NH3)2] (II) [Cr(ONO)3 (NH3)3]
(III) [Cr(NO2)(NH3)5]3 [Co(NO2)6]2 (IV) Mg[Cr(NO2)5 (NH3)]

(A) II < I < IV < III (B) I < II < III < IV
(C) II < I < III < IV (D) IV < III < II < I
14. The oxidation number and coordination number of chromium in the following complex is
[Cr(C2 O4)2(NH3)2]1–
(A) O.N. = + 4, C.N. = 4 (B) O.N. = +3, C.N. = 4
(C) O.N. = – 1, C.N. = 4 (D) O.N. = + 3, C.N. = 6
15. In which of the following pairs, both the complexes have the same geometry but different hybridisation
(A) [NiCl4]2– , [Ni(CN)4]2– (B) [CoF6]3–, [Co(NH3)6]3+
(C) [Ni(CO)4] , [Ni(CN)4]2– (D) [Cu(NH3)4]2+, [Ni(NH3)6]2+
E 39
JEE-Chemistry
EXERCISE : JEE-ADVANCED
1. The complex ion which has no 'd' electrons in the central metal atom is : [JEE 2001]
[ At No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe= 26, Co = 27 ]
(A) [MnO4]¯ (B) [Co (NH3)6]3+ (C) [Fe(CN)6]3– (D) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
2. The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species. [JEE 2001]
NH3, [PtCl4 ]2–, PCl5 and BCl3 is [At No. Pt = 78]
(A) dsp2,sp3d,sp2 and sp3 (B) sp3,dsp2, sp3d, sp2
(C) dsp2,sp2,sp3 and sp3d (D) dsp2, sp3,sp2 and sp3d
3. The species having tetrahedral shape is : [JEE 2004]
(A) [PdCl4]2– (B) [Ni(CN)4]2– (C) [Pd(CN)4]2– (D) [NiCl4]2–
4. The pair of compounds having metals in their highest oxidation state is [JEE 2004]
(A) MnO2, FeCl3 (B) [MnO4]¯, CrO2Cl2
(C) [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Co(CN)3] (D)[NiCl4]2– , [CoCl4]¯
5. Spin only magnetic moment of the compound Hg [Co(SCN)4] is [JEE 2004]
(A) 3 (B) 15 (C) 24 (D) 8
6. Which of the following pair is expected to exhibit same colour in solution? [JEE 2005]
(A) VOCl2 ; FeCl2 (B) CuCl2; VOCl2 (C) MnCl2 ; FeCl2 (D) FeCl2 ; CuCl2
7. Which type of isomerism is shown by Co(NH3)4Br2Cl? [JEE 2005]
(A) Geometrical and Ionisation (B) Optical and Ionisation
(C) Geometrical and Optical (D) Geometrical only
Question No. 8 to 10 (3 questions) [JEE 2006]
The coordination number of Ni2+ is 4.
NiCl2 + KCN (excess)  A (cyano complex)
NiCl2 + KCl (excess)  B (chloro complex)
8. The IUPAC name of A and B are
(A) Potassium tetracyanidonickelate (II), potassium tetrachloridonickelate (II)
(B) Tetracyanidopotassiumnickelate (II), teterachloridopotassiumnickelate (II)

(C) Tetracyanidornickel (II), tetrachloridonickel (II)
(D) Potassium tetracyanidonickel (II), potassium tetrachloridonickel (II)
9. Predict the magnetic nature of A and B.
(A) Both are diamagnetic.
(B) A is diamagnetic and B is paramagnetic with one unpaired electron.
(C) A is diamagnetic and B is paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons.
(D) Both are paramagnetic.
10. The hybridization of A and B are
(A) dsp2, sp3 (B) sp3, sp3 (C) dsp2, dsp2 (D) sp3d2, d2sp3
40
E
11. If the bond length of CO bond in carbon monoxide is 1.128Å, then what is the value of CO bond length
in Fe(CO)5? [JEE 2006]
(A) 1.15Å (B) 1.128Å (C) 1.72Å (D) 1.118Å
12. Among the following metal carbonyls, the C–O bond order is lowest in [JEE 2007]
(A) [Mn(CO)6]+ (B) [Fe(CO)5] (C) [Cr(CO)6] (D) [V(CO)6]–
13. Match the complexes in Column I with their properties listed in Column II. Indicate your answer by
darkening the appropriate bubbles of the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS.
(A) [Co(NH3)4 (H2O)2]Cl2 (P) Geometrical isomers
(B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (Q) Paramagnetic
(C) [Co(H2O)5 Cl]Cl (R) Diamagnetic
(D) [Ni(H2 O)6]Cl2 (S) Metal ion with 2+ oxidation state
14. Among the following, the coloured compound is [JEE 2008]
(A) CuCl (B) K3 [Cu (CN)4] (C) CuF2 (D) [Cu(CH3CN)4] BF4
15. The IUPAC name of [Ni(NH3)4] [NiCl4] is [JEE 2008]
(A) Tetrachloronickel (II)-tetraamminenickel (II)
(B) Tetraamminenickel (II)-tetrachloronickel (II)
(C) Tetraamminenickel (II)-tetrachloronickelate (II)
(D) Tetrachloronickel (II)-tetraamminenickelate (0)
16. Both [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic. The hybridisations of nickel in these complexes,
respectively, are [JEE 2008]
(A) sp3, sp3 (B) sp3, dsp2 (C) dsp2, sp3 (D) dsp2, dsp2
17. Statement-1 : The geometrical isomers of the complex [M(NH3)4Cl2] are optically inactive.
Statement-2 : Both geometrical isomers of the complex [M(NH3)4Cl2] possess axis of symmetry.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True [JEE 2008]
18. Statement-1 : [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 is paramagnetic [JEE 2008]
Statement-2 : The Fe in [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 has three unpaired electrons.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
19. The spin only magnetic moment value (in Bohr magneton units) of Cr(CO)6 is [JEE 2009]
(A) 0 (B) 2.84 (C) 4.90 (D) 5.92
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JEE-Chemistry
20. The compound(s) that exhibit(s) geometrical isomerism is (are) : [JEE 2009]
(A) [Pt(en)Cl2] (B) [Pt(en)2]Cl2 (C) [Pt(en)2Cl2]Cl2 (D) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
21. The number of water molecule(s) directly bonded to the metal centre in CuSO 4 . 5H 2 O
is. [JEE 2009]
22. The ionization isomer of [Cr(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl is – [JEE 2010]
(A) [Cr(H2O)4(O2N)]Cl2 (B) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2](NO2)
(C) [Cr(H2O)4Cl(ONO)]Cl (D) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2(NO2)].H2O
23. Total number of geometrical isomers for the complex [RhCl(CO)(PPh3)(NH3)] is. [JEE 2010]
24. The correct structure of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is – [JEE 2010]
H OOC–CH 2 CH 2–COOH H OOC COOH
(A) N–CH =CH–N (B) N–CH 2–CH 2–N
H OOC–CH 2 CH 2–COOH H OOC COOH
COOH
CH 2
H OOC–CH 2 H
H OOC–CH 2 CH 2–COOH
N–CH –CH–N
(C) N–CH 2 –CH 2 –N (D) H CH 2–COOH
H OOC–CH 2 CH 2–COOH CH 2
H OOC
25. Geometrical shapes of the complexes formed by the reaction of Ni2+ with Cl–, CN– and H2O
respectively, are - [JEE 2011]
(A) octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar (B) tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral
(C) square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral (D) octahedral, square planar and octahedral
26. Among the following complexes (K–P) [JEE 2011]
K3[Fe(CN)6] (K), [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (L), Na3[Co(oxalate)3] (M), [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 (N),
K2[Pt(CN)4] (O) and [Zn(H2O)6] (NO3)2 (P)
The diamagnetic complex are -
(A) K, L, M, N (B) K, M, O, P (C) L, M, O, P (D) L, M, N, O
27. The volume (in mL) of 0.1M AgNO3 required for complete precipitation of chloride ions present in
30 mL of 0.01M solution of [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2, as silver chloride is close to. [JEE 2011]
28. As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex [Co(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3 is : [JEE 2012]
(A) Tetraaquadiaminecobalt(III) chloride (B) Tetraaquadiamminecobalt(III) chloride
(C) Diaminetetraaquacobalt(III) chloride (D) Diamminetetraaquacobalt(III) chloride
29. The colour of light absorbed by an aqueous solution of CuSO4 is - [JEE 2012]
(A) orange-red (B) blue-green (C) yellow (D) violet
30. NiCl2{P(C 2H5) 2(C 6H5)} 2 exhibits temperature dependent magnetic behavior (paramagnetic/
diamagnetic). The coordination geometries of Ni2+ in the paramagnetic and diamagnetic states are
respectively : [JEE 2012]
(A) tetrahedral and tetrahedral (B) square planar and square planar
(C) tetrahedral and square planar (D) square planar and tetrahedral
42
E
31. Consider the following complex ions P, Q and R ,
P = [FeF6]3– , Q = [V(H2O)6]2+ and R = [Fe(H2O)6]2+
The correct order of the complex ions, according to their spin-only magnetic moment values
(in B.M.) is - [JEE 2013]
(A) R < Q < P (B ) Q < R < P (C) R < P < Q (D) Q < P < R
4–
32. EDTA is ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion. The total number of N–Co–O bond angles in
[Co(EDTA)]–1 complex ion is [JEE 2013]
33. The pair(s) of coordination complex/ion exhibiting the same kind of isomerism is(are) - [JEE 2013]
(A) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (B) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ and [Pt(NH3)2(H2O)Cl]+
(C) [CoBr2Cl2]2– and [PtBr2Cl2]2– (D) [Pt(NH3)3(NO3)] Cl and [Pt(NH3)3Cl] Br
34. Match each coordination compound in List-I with an appropriate pair of characteristics from List-II
and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. [JEE Adv. 2014]
{en = H2NCH2CH2NH2 ' atomic numbers ; Ti = 22 ; Cr = 24 ; Co = 27 ; Pt = 78}
List-I List-II
(P) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (1) Paramagnetic and exhibits ionisation isomerism
(Q) [Ti(H2O)5Cl](NO3)2 (2) Dimagnetic and exhibits cis-trans isomerism
(R) [Pt(en)(NH3)Cl]NO3 (3) Paramagnetic and exhibits cis-trans isomerism
(S) [Co(NH3)4(NO3)2]NO3 (4) Dimagnetic and exhibits ionisation isomerism
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1 (B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 1 3 4 2
35. A list of species having the formula XZ4 is given below : [JEE Adv. 2014]
– – 2+ 2– 2– 2–
XeF4, SF4, SiF4, BF4 , BrF4 , [Cu(NH3)4] , [FeCl4] , [CoCl4] and [PtCl4] .
Defining shape on the basis of the location of X and Z atoms, the total number of species having a
square planar shape is
Subjective
Draw the structures of [Co(NH3)6]3+ , [Ni(CN)4]2– and [Ni(CO)4]. Write the hybridisation of atomic
36.
orbitals of the transition metal in each case. [JEE 2000]
37. A metal complex having composition Cr(NH3)4 Cl2Br has been isolated in two forms A and B. The
form A reacts with AgNO3 to give a white precipitate readily soluble in dilute aqueous ammonia,
whereas B gives a pale yellow precipitate soluble in concentrated ammonia. Write the formula of A
and B and state the hybridisation of chromium in each. Calculate their magnetic moments (spin-only
value). [JEE 2001]
38. Deduce the structures of [NiCl4]2– and [Ni(CN)4]2– considering the hybridisation of the metal ion.
Calculate the magnetic moment (spin only) of the species. [JEE 2002]
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JEE-Chemistry
39. Write the IUPAC name of the compound K2[Cr(NO)(CN)4(NH3)]. Spin magnetic moment of the complex
µ = 1.73 BM. Give the structure of anion. [JEE 2003]
40. NiCl2 in the presence of dimethyl glyoxime (DMG) gives a complex which precipitates in the presence
of NH4OH, giving a bright red colour. [JEE 2004]
(a) Draw its structure and show H-bonding
(b) Give oxidation state of Ni and its hybridisation
(c) Predict whether it is paramagnetic or diamagnetic
41. For the octahedral complexes of Fe3+ in SCN – (thiocyanato-S) and in CN – ligand environments, the
difference between the spin only magnetic moments in Bohr magnetons (when approximated to the nearest
integer) is : [Atomic number of Fe = 26] [JEE Ad. 2015]
42. In the complex acetylbromidodicarbonylbis(triethylphosphine)iron(II), the number of Fe–C bond(s) is-

[JEE Ad. 2015]
43. Among the complex ions, [Co(NH2-CH2-CH2-NH2)2Cl2]+ , [CrCl2(C2O4)2]3–, [Fe(H2O)4(OH)2]+ ,

[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4]–, [Co(NH2-CH2-CH2-NH2)2(NH3)Cl]2+ and [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]2+, the number of
complex ion(s) that show(s) cis-trans isomerism is - [JEE Ad. 2015]
44. Among [Ni(CO)4], [NiCl4]2– , [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl, Na3[CoF6], Na2O2 and CsO2, the total number of
paramagnetic compounds is - [JEE Ad. 2016]
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
45. The number of geometric isomers possible for the complex [CoL2Cl2]– (L = H2NCH2CH2O– ) is
[JEE Ad. 2016]
46. The geometries of the ammonia complexes of Ni2+ , Pt2+ and Zn2+ , respectively , are :
(A) octahedral, square planar and tetrahederal [JEE Ad. 2016] Node-1\Target-2019-20\1.JEE(Main+Advanced)\Module\Leader\Chemistry\Inorganic chemistry\Eng\Q.B.
(B) square planar, octahederal and tetrahederal

(C) tetrahederal, square planar and octahederal
(D) octahederal , tetrahederal and square planar
44
E
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE : O-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A,B A,B,D A,B,C,D A,B,D A,B B,C,D A,B,C,D A,B,C B,C,D A,B,C,D
Que. 11 12 13 14
Ans. B,D C,D C,D B,D
EXERCISE : S-2
Que. 1 2
Ans. (A)-R, (B)-R (C)-P (D)-Q (A)-P,Q,S (B)-Q,R,S (C)-P (D)-P,Q
Que. 3
Ans. (A)-P,S (B)-T (C)-Q,R,T (D)-P,S
Q ue. 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. B C D D C A C D D A
Q ue. 14 15
Ans. D B
JEE-ADVANCED
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B D B B B A A C A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
Ans. A D (A)-P,Q,S ; (B)-PR,S ; (C)-Q,S ; (D)-Q,S C C B B
Que. 18 19 20
Ans. A A C, D
2+
H
H 
O (II) O O O
H H
H Cu O S
21. H H
O O H H
O O
H 
Que. 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
Ans. B 3 C B C 6 D A C B
Que. 32 33 34 35
Ans. 8 B, D B 4
36. d2sp3 , dsp2 and sp3
37. A  [Cr(NH3)4ClBr]Cl
B  [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Br
In both Cr is d2 sp3 hybridised and magnetic moment is 15 BM
E 45
JEE-Chemistry
38. [NiCl4]2–  sp3 , 8 BM
[Ni(CN)4]2–  dsp2 , 0
39. Potassium amminetetracyanidonitrosoniumchromate(I)  d2sp3 , octahedral
O–H.......O¯
| |
N N
H3C–C Ni C–CH3
40. | |
H3C–C = N N = C–CH3
| |
¯O...... H–O
dsp2 , Ni2+ , diamagnetic
41. Ans. (4) 42. Ans. (3) 43. Ans. (6) 44. Ans. (B)
45. Ans. (5) 46. Ans. (A)
46
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Hydrogen & its compound
HYDROGEN & IT'S COMPOUNDS
EXERCISE # O–II
1. Which of the following is / are same for Ortho and Para hydrogen :-
(A) In the number of protons (B) In the molecular mass
(C) In the nature of spins of nucleus (D) In the nature of spins of electrons
2. In Bosch's process which gas is NOT utilised for the production of hydrogen :-
(A) Producer gas (B) Water gas (C) Coal gas (D) Natural gas
3. The gas(es) used in the hydrogenation of oils in presence of nickel as a catalyst is / are :-
(A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Ozone (D) Hydrogen
4. Water softening by Clarke's process does NOT uses :-
(A) Calcium bicarbonate (B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Potash alum (D) Calcium hydroxide
5. Which of the following produces hydrolith with dihydrogen :-
(A) Mg (B) Al (C) Cu (D) Ca
6. Which process is/are used to remove permanent hardness :-
(A) Boiling (B) Clark's method
(C) On reaction with with NaOH (D) Permutit process
7. Ionic hydrides is/are usually :-
(A) Good electrically conductors when solid (B) Easily reduced
(C) Good reducing agents (D) Liquid at room temperature
8. Which of the following will produce hydrogen gas :-
(A) Reaction between Fe and dil. HCl
(B) Reaction between Zn and conc. H2SO4
(C) Reaction between Zn and NaOH
(D) Electrolysis of NaCl (aq.) in Nelson's cell
9. Ortho-hydrogen and para-hydrogen resembles in which of the following property :-
(A) Thermal conductivity (B) Magnetic properties
(C) Chemical properties (D) Heat capacity
10. Which of the following statements concerning protium, deuterium and tritium is / are true :-
(A) They are isotopes of each other
(B) They have similar electronic configurations
(C) They exist in the nature in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3
(D) Their mass numbers are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3
11. Ionic hydrides are formed by :-
(A) Transition metals (B) Elements of very high electropositivity

(C) Elements of very low electropositivity (D) Metalloids
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct :
(A) Atomic hydrogen is obtained by passing hydrogen gas through an electric arc
(B) 30% (w/v) or 100V H2O2 solution is not called per hydrol.
(C) Finely divided palladium absorbs large volume of hydrogen gas.
(D) Ortho and para hydrogen have same physical properties.
13. Which hydride is/are an ionic hydride :-
(A) NH3 (B) H2S (C) TiH1.73 (D) NaH
14. Which of the following hydride is/are "electron-precise' type ?
(A) HF (B) H2O (C) SiH4 (D) PH3
15. Hydrogen peroxide can act as a :-
(A) A reducing agent (B) An oxidising agent
(C) A dehydrating agent (D) A bleaching agent
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JEE- Inorganic Chemistry
EXERCISE # S–2
Matrix Match Type
1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :-
List – I List II
P. Heavy water 1. Bicarbonates of Mg and Ca in water
Q. Temporary hard 2. No foreign ions in water
R. Soft water 3. D2O
S. Permanent hard 4. Sulphates and chlorides of Mg and Ca in water
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 3
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :-
List – I List II
P. Calgon 1. Metallic hydride
Q. Non-stoichiometric compound 2. Polymetaphosphate of sodium
R. Covalent hydride 3. Hydrolith
S. Salt-like hydride 4. Hydrogen compounds of non-metals
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 3
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2 3 1 4
Comprehenstion Type :
Passage for Q.3 to Q.5
Hydrogen accounts for approximately 75% of the mass of the universe. Hydrogen serves as the
nuclear fuel of our Sun and other stars, and these are mainly composed of hydrogen.
Hydrogen has three isotopes : hydrogen or protium (11H), deuterium or heavy hydrogen (D or 21H),
tritium (T or 31H).
3. Which of the following is radioactive in nature ?

(A) hydrogen only (B) deuterium only
(C) tritium only (D) deuterium and tritium
4. Hydrogen, H2, is very less abundant in the atmosphere due to -
(A) inflammable nature of H2
(B) weak earth's gravity which is not able to hold light H2 molecules
(C) diatomic nature of hydrogen
(D) very rapid reaction between hydrogen and atmospheric oxygen
5. Liquid H2 has been used as rocket fuel as
(A) its reaction with oxygen is highly exothermic
(B) it occupies small space
(C) it has high thrust
(D) all of the above
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Hydrogen & its compound
EXERCISE # JEE ADVANCED
1. When zeolite (hydrated sodium aluminium silicate) is treated with hard water, the sodium ions are
exchanged with :- [IIT 1990]
+ –
(A) H ions (B) Ca2+ ions (C) SO24 ions (D) OH ions
2. Which of the following statement is correct :-

(A) Hydrogen has same ionisation potential as sodium
(B) H has same electronegativity as halogens
(C) It will not be liberated at anode
(D) H has oxidation state + 1, zero and – 1
3. Polyphosphates are used as water softening agent becuase they :- [IIT 2002]
(A) Form soluble complexes with anionic species
(B) Precipitate anionic species
(C) Form soluble complexes with cationic species
(D) Precipitate cationic species.
4. Hydrogen peroxide in its reaction with KlO4 and NH2OH respectively, is acting as a
[JEE Adv. 2014]
(A) reducing agent, oxidising agent (B) reducing agent, reducing agent
(C) oxidising agent, oxidising agent (D) oxidising agent, reducing agent
E 49
ANSWERS KEY
EXERCISE : O–II
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A,B,D A,C,D D A,B,C D D C A,C,D C A,B,D
Que. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. B A,C D C A,B,D
EXERCISE : S–2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. A C C B D
EXERCISE : JEE-ADVANCED
Que. 1 2 3 4
Ans. B D C A
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s-Block Elements
EXERCISE # O-2
SELECT THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVES (ONE OR MORE THEN ONE CORRECT ANSWERS)
Alkali metals
1. Nitrogen dioxide can be prepared by heating -
(A) KNO3 (B) AgNO3 (C) Pb(NO3)2 (D) Cu(NO3)2
2. Which of the following compounds are not paramagnetic in nature?
(A) KO2 (B) K2O2 (C) Na2O2 (D) RbO2
3. The golden yellow colour associated with NaCl to Bunsen flame can be explained on the basis of
(A) low ionisation potential of sodium
(B) emission spectrum
(C) photosensitivity of sodium
(D) sublimation of metallic sodium of yellow vapours
4. KO2 finds use in oxygen cylinders used for space and submarines. The fact(s) related to such use of
KO2 is/are
(A) it produces O2 (B) it produces O3
(C) it absorbs CO2 (D) it absorbs both CO and CO2
5. The compound(s) which have –O–O– bond(s) is/are
(A) BaO2 (B) Na2O2 (C) CrO5 (D) Fe2O3
6. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in ammonia
(A) shows blue colouration due to solvated electrons
(B) shows electrical conductivity due to both solvated electrons as well as solvated sodium ions
(C) shows red colouration due to solvated electrons but a bad conductor of electricity
(D) produces hydrogen gas or carbonate
7. Sodium metal is highly reactive and can be stored under
(A) toluene (B) kerosene oil (C) alcohol (D) benzene
Alkaline earth metals
8. nd
The compound(s) of II A metals, which are amphoteric in nature is/are
(A) BeO (B) MgO (C) Be(OH)2 (D) Mg(OH)2
9. The correct statement is/are

(A) BeCl2 is a covalent compound (B) BeCl2 is an electron deficient molecule
(C) BeCl2 can form dimer (D) the hybrid state of Be in BeCl2 is sp2
10. Which of the following substance(s) is/are used in laboratory for drying purposes?
(A) anhydrous P2O5 (B) graphite
(C) anhydrous CaCl2 (D) Na3PO4
11. Na2SO4 is water soluble but BaSO4 is insoluble because
(A) the hydration energy of Na2SO4 is higher than that of its lattice energy
(B) the hydration energy of Na2SO4 is less than that of its lattice energy
(C) the hydration energy of BaSO4 is less than that of its lattice energy
(D) the hydration energy of BaSO4 is higher than that of its lattice energy
E 51
12. Which of the following statements are false?
(A) BeCl2 is a linear molecule in the vapour state but it is polymeric form in the solid state
(B) Calcium hydride is called hydrolith.
(C) Carbides of both Be and Ca react with water to form acetylene
(D) Oxides of both Be and Ca are amphoteric.
13. Which of the following are ionic carbides?
(A) CaC2 (B) Al4C3 (C) SiC (D) Be2C
14. Which of the following orders are CORRECT :
(A) AgCl > AgF : Covalent character order
(B) BaO > BaF2 : Melting point order
(C) BeF2 > BaF2 : Solubility order
(D) LiNO3 < RbNO3 : Thermal stability order
15. Which of the following statements are CORRECT :
(A) Mg is present in chlorophyll
(B) Alkaline earth metals does not form super oxide
(C) NaHCO3 is known as baking soda
(D) Permanent hardness of water is removed by boiling
16. Which of the following carbides on hydrolysis does not form methane :
(A) Be2C (B) CaC2 (C) SrC2 (D) Mg2C3
17. Select the incorrect order for given properties :
(A) Thermal stability : BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4
(B) Solubility : BaSO4 > SrSO4 > CaSO4
(C) Thermal stability : Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3
(D) Solubility : Li2CO3 > Na2CO3 > K2CO3
18. The correct statement(s) is/are

(A) Mg cannot form complexes
(B) Be can form complexes due to a very small atomic size
(C) the first ionisation potential of Be is higher than that of Mg
(D) Mg forms an alkaline hydroxide while Be forms amphoteric oxides
19. Which of the following is are the characteristic of barium?
(A) It produce water soluble sulphide, sulphite and sulphate
(B) It is a silvery white metal
(C) It forms Ba(NO3)2 which is used in preparation of green fire
(D) It produce blue-black solution in liquid ammonia
52
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s-Block Elements
EXERCISE # S-2
COMPREHENSION BASED QUESTIONS
Comprehension # 1
A  
 B (oxide) + CO2
B + H2O  C
C + CO2 A (milky)
C + NH4Cl 
 D (gas)
D + H2O + CO2  E
E + NaCl F
F  
 Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
1. A is :
(A) Ca(HCO3)2 (B) CaCO3 (C) CaO (D) Na2CO3
2. B and C are :
(A) CaO, Ca(OH)2 (B) Ca(OH)2, CaCO3
(C) CaCO3, Ca(OH)2 (D) Ca(OH)2, CaO
3. D, E and F are :
(A) NH3, NH4Cl, NH4HCO3 (B) NH3, NH4HCO3, NaHCO3
(C) NH4HCO3, Na2CO3, NaHCO3 (D) None
Comprehension # 2
Alkali metals readily react with oxyacids forming corresponding salts like M2CO3, MHCO3, MNO3,
M2SO4 etc. with evolution of hydrogen. They also dissolve in liquid NH3 but without the evolution
of hydrogen. The colour of its dilute solution is blue but when it is heated and concentrated then its
colour becomes bronze.
4. Among the nitrate of alkali metals which one can be decomposed to its oxide easily?
(A) NaNO3 (B) KNO3 (C) LiNO3 (D) RbNO3

5. Among the carbonates of alkali metals which one has highest stability?
(A) Cs2CO3 (B) Rb2CO3 (C) K2CO3 (D) Na2CO3
6. Which of the following statement about the sulphate of alkali metal is correct?
(A) Except Li2SO4 all sulphate of other alkali metals are soluble in water
(B) All sulphates of alkali metals except lithium sulphate forms alum.
(C) The sulphates of alkali metals cannot be hydrolysed.
(D) All of these
E 53
7. Which of the following statement about solution of alkali metals in liquid ammonia is correct?
(A) The solution have strong oxidizing properties.
(B) Both the dilute solution as well as concentrated solution are paramagnetic in nature
(C) Charge transfer is the responsible for the colour of the solution
(D) None of these
8. Which metal bicarbonates does not exist in solid state?
(i) LiHCO3 (ii) Ca(HCO3)2 (iii) Zn (HCO3)2
(iv) NaHCO3 (v) AgHCO3
(A) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) (B) (i), (ii), (iii) (C) (i), (ii), (v) (D) (ii), (iii), (iv)
MATCH THE COLUMN :

9. Column-I Column-II
(A) Hydrolith (P) Contain Ca
(B) Nitrolium (Q) Used as a fertilizer
(C) Dolomite (R) Used to prepare H2
(D) Pearl's ash (S) Contain potassium
 metal oxide + SO + O
(A) Metal sulphate  (P) Ba
2 2
(B) Metal cation + K2CrO4 yellow ppt (Q) Sr

(liquid)
(C) Metal + NH3   blue solution (R) Na
(D) MCl2 + conc. H2SO4 white ppt. (S) Mg
MATCH THE CODE :

11. List–I List–II
(P) CaH2 (1) Paramagnetic anion

(Q) K2O2 (2) Homodiatomic, diamagnetic anion
(R) KO2 (3) Neutral aqueous solution
(S) NaCl (4) Gives hydrogen on hydrolysis
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
54
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s-Block Elements
(P) Solvay process used for (1) NaCl
(Q) Evolve CO2 on heating (2) Na2O2
(R) aq. soln. is neutral towards litmus (3) NaHCO3
(S) Oxone (4) Na2CO3
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3,4 3 1 2
(B) 4,1 1 3 2
(C) 2,3 4 1 3
(D) 2,4 1 3 4
ASSERATION & REASONING :

Questions given below consist of two statements each printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R);
while answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses:
(A) if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) if both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C) if (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) if (A) is false and (R) is true
13. Assertion : Beryllium does not impart any characteristic colour to the bunsen flame.
Reason : Due to its very high ionization energy, beryllium requires a large amount of energy for
exciation of the electrons.
14. Assertion : In fused state, calcium chloride cannot be used to dry alcohol or NH3.
Reason : Anhy. CaCl2 is not a good desiccant.
15. Assertion : Diagonal relationship is shown between Be and Al.
Reason : Ionic potential of Be is almost the same as that of Al.
16. Assertion : Beryllium halides dissolve in organic solvents.
Reason : Beryllium halides are ionic in character.

17. Assertion : BeCl2 fumes in moist air.
Reason : BeCl2 reacts with moisture to form HCl gas.
18. Assertion : Calcium carbide on hydrolysis gives methane.
Reason : Calcium carbide contains C22– anion.
19. Assertion : When CO2 is passed through lime water, it first turns milky and then the solution
becomes clear when the passage of CO2 is continued.
Reason : The milkiness is due to the formation of insoluble CaCO3 which then changes to
soluble Ca(HCO3)2 when excess of CO2 is present.
20. Assertion : MgCO3 is soluble in water when a current of CO2 is passed.
Reason : The solubility of MgCO3 is due to the formation of Mg(HCO3)2.
E 55
EXERCISE # JEE-ADVANCED
1. The species that do not contain peroxide linkage are - [JEE 1992]
(A) PbO2 (B) H2O2 (C) SrO2 (D) BaO2
2. Read the following statement and explanation and answer as per the options given below :
Statement-1 : The alkali metals can form ionic hydrides which contain the hydride ion H–.
Statement-2 : The alkali metals have low electronegativity ; their hydrides conduct electricity when
fused and liberate hydrogen at the anode. [JEE 1994]
(A) Both 1 and 2 are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(B) Both 1 and 2 are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(C) 1 is true but 2 is false.
(D) 1 is false but 2 is true.
3. The following compounds have been arranged in order of their increasing thermal stabilities. Identify the
correct order. [JEE 1996]
K2CO3(I) MgCO3(II) CaCO3(III) BeCO3(IV)
(A) I < II < III < IV (B) IV < II < III < I
(C) IV < II < I < III (D) II < IV < III < I
4. Property of all the alkaline earth metals that increase with their atomic number is - [JEE 1997]
(A) ionisation energy (B) solubility of their hydroxides
(C) solubility of their sulphate (D) electronegativity
5. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia - [JEE 1998]
(A) shows blue colour (B) exhibits electrical conductivity
(C) produces sodium amide (D) produces hydrogen gas
6. The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is - [JEE 2001S]
(A) K > Na > Li (B) Be > Mg > Ca (C) B > C > N (D) Ge > Si > C
Asseration and Reason
7. This questions contains statement-1 (asseration) and statement-2 (reason) and has 4 choices (a), (b), (c)
and (d) out of which only one is correct.

Statement-1 : Alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia to give blue solutions. because.
Statement-1 : Alkali metals is liquid ammonia give solvated species of the type [M(NH3)n]+
(M = alkali metals). [JEE 2007]
(A) Both 1 and 2 are true and 2 is the correct explanation of 1.
(B) Both 1 and 2 are true but 2 is not the correct explanation of 1.
(C) 1 is true but 2 is false.
(D) 1 is false but 2 is true.
8. The compound(s) formed upon combustion of sodium metal in excess air is (are) [JEE 2009]
(A) Na2O2 (B) Na2O (C) NaO2 (D) NaOH
56
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s-Block Elements
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE # O-2
1. (B),(C), (D) 2. (B),(C) 3. (A),(B) 4. (A),(C)
5. (A),(B),(C) 6. (A), (B) 7. (A), (B),(D) 8. (A),(C)
9. (A),(B),(C) 10. (A),(C) 11. (A), (C) 12. (C),(D)
13. (A),(B),(D) 14. (A),(B),(C),(D) 15. (A),(B),(C) 16. (B),(C),(D)
17. (B), (D) 18. (B),(C),(D) 19. (B),(C),(D)
EXERCISE # S-2
• Comprehension Based Questions
Comprehension # 1
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B)
Comprehension # 2
4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A)
• Match the column

9. (A) P,R ; (B) P,Q ; (C)  P ; (D) S
10. (A) P,Q,S ; (B) P,Q; (C)  P,Q,R ; (D) P,Q
• Match the code

11. (D) 12. (A)
• Asseration & Reasoning

13. A 14. C 15. A 16. C
17. A 18. D 19. A 20. A
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B
5. A,B 6. B 7. B 8. A,B
E 57
p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
EXERCISE-II
One or more than one option may be correct :
1. When a compound X reacts with ozone in aqueous medium, a compound Y is produced. Ozone also reacts
with Y and produces compound Z. Z acts as an oxidising agent, then X, Y and Z will be
(A) X = HI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO3 (B) X = KI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO3
(C) X = KI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO4 (D) X = HI, Y = I2 and Z = HIO4
2. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding B2H6?
(A) banana bonds are longer but stronger than normal B–H bonds
(B) B2H6 is also known as 3c–2e compound
(C) the hybrid state of B in B2H6 is sp3 while that of sp2 in BH3
(D) it cannot be prepared by reacting BF3 with LiBH3 in the presence of dry ether
3. Which of the following pairs of nitrates gives the same gaseous products on thermal decomposition?
(A) KNO3 and Pb(NO3)2 (B) KNO3 and NaNO3
(C) Pb(NO3)2 and Cu(NO3)2 (D) NaNO3 and Ca(NO3)2
4. 2NO2  N2O4The dimerisation of NO2 is accompanied with
(A) decrease in paramagnetism (B) change in colour
(C) increase in molecular weight (D) increase in paramagnetism
5. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding inter-halogen compounds of ABx types?
(A) x may be 1,3,5 and 7
(B) A is a more electronegative halogen than B
(C) FBr3 cannot exit
(D) The interhalogens are generally more reactive than the halogens (except F2) due to weaker
A–X bonds compared to X–X bond.
6. When an inorganic compound (X) having 3e-2e as well as 2e-2e bonds reacts with ammonia gas at a certain
temperature, gives a compound (Y) iso-structural with benzene. Compound (X) with ammonia at a high
temperature, produces a hard substance (Z). Then
(A) (X) is B2H6 (B) (Z) is known as inorganic graphite
(C) (Z) having structure similar to graphite (D) (Z) having structure similar to (X)
7. Boric acid
(A) exists in polymeric form due to inter-molecular hydrogen bonding.
(B) is used in manufacturing of optical glasses.
(C) is a tri-basic acid
(D) with borax, it is used in the preparation of a buffer solution.
58
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p-Block Elements
8. The correct statement(s) related to allotropes of carbon is/are
(A) graphite is the thermodynamically most stable allotrope of carbon and having a two dimensional sheet
like structure of hexagonal rings of carbon (sp2)
(B) diamond is the hardest allotrope of carbon and having a three dimensional network structure of C(sp3)
(C) fullerene (C60) is recently discovered non-crystalline allotrope of carbon having a football-like structure.
(D) Vander Waal's force of attraction acts between the layers of graphite 6.14 Å away from each other
9. Al2(SO4)3 + NH4OH  X, then
(A) X is a white coloured compound (B) X is insoluble in excess of NH4OH
(C) X is soluble in NaOH (D) X cannot be used as an antacid
10. The species that undergo(es) disproportionation in an alkaline medium is/are

2–
(A) Cl2 (B) MnO4 (C) P4 (D) ClO¯
4
11. Select correct statement(s):
(A) Borax is used as a buffer
(B) 1 M borax solution reacts with equal volumes of 2 M HCl solution
(C) Titration of borax can be made using methyl orange as the indicator
(D) Coloured bead obtained in borax-bead test contains metaborate
12. Which of the following is / are correct for group 14 elements?
(A) The stability of dihalides are in the order CX2 < SiX2 < GeX2 < SnX2 < PbX2
(B) The ability to form p–p multiple bonds among themselves increases down the group
(C) The tendency for catenation decreases down the group
(D) They all form oxides with the formula MO2.

13. Zeolite is used in which of the following cases :
(A) Conversion of alcohols into gasoline (B) Cracking of hydrocarbon
(C) Isomerisation of hydrocarbons (D) Softning of hard water
14. Which of the following oxides are mixed oxide :
(A) PbO2 (B) SnO2 (C) Pb2O3 (D) Pb3O4
15. Which of the following reaction produces PH3 :

(A) Ca3P2 + H2O  (B) P4 + NaOH  (C) PH4I +KOH  (D) H3PO2  
E 59
16. Which of the following element of chalcogen group can form MX2 type of compound where
X = Cl and Br :
(A) O (B) S (C) Se (D) Te

17. Ca2B6O11 + Na2CO3   [X] + CaCO3 + NaBO2 (Unbalanced equation)
Correct statement for [X]

(A) Structure of anion of crystalline (X) has one boron atom sp3 hybridised and other three boron atoms
sp2 hybridised
(B) (X) with NaOH(aq.) gives a compound which on reaction with H2O2 in alkaline medium yields a
compound used as brightner in soaps
(C) Hydrolysis of (X) with HCl or H2SO4 yields a compound which on reaction with HF gives fluoroboric
acid
(D) [X] on heating with cobalt salt in oxidising flame gives blue coloured bead
2000ºC to
18. (A) + 2C 
2500ºC
 (B) +2CO 
2000ºC to
(B) + Carbon 
2500ºC
 (C)
If A is an example of 3-d silicate then select the correct statements about (C)
(A) Central atom of C is sp3 hybridised
(B) (C) is non planar and all atoms are sp3 hybridised
(C) C has diamond like structure, and it is colourless when impurity is present but yellow solid at room
temperature
(D) (C) is silicon carbide (SiC) and it is not being affected by any acid except H3PO4
60
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p-Block Elements
EXERCISE-III
Paragraph for Question No. 1 & 2
A + alkaline solution  B + C
6Cl2 3Cl2
(D) (F) (D) E+F
3H2O CH3COOH
1. When D react with C2H5OH then product will be

(A) C2H5Cl, H3PO4 (B) C2H5Cl, H3PO3
(C) CH3COCl, H3PO3 (D) Only H3PO3
2. B can be absorbed by :
(A) Ca(OCl) Cl (B) H2S (C) Both (D) None
Paragraph for Question No. 3 to 6
373K
HCOOH  
Conc.H 2SO4
 H2O + (X)
423 1273K
C(s) + H2O   (X) + H2(g)
3. Select the correct statement about (X)

(A) (X) is a colourless, odourless and almost water insoluble gas
(B) X is highly poisonous and burns with blue flame
(C) When (X) gas is passed through PdCl2 solution giving rise to balck ppt
(D) All of these
4. Mixture of (X) gas + H2 is called
(A) Water gas or synthesis gas (B) Producer gas

(C) Methane gas (D) None of these
5. In second reaction when air is used instead of steam a mixed of (X) gas and N2 is produced which is called
(A) Water gas (B) Synthesis gas (C) Producer gas (D) Carbon dioxide gas
6. Select the correct statement about (X)
(A) (X) gas is estimatate by I2O5 (B) Cu2Cl2 is absorber of (X) gas
(C) (X) gas is the purifying agent for Ni (D) All of these
E 61
Questions given below are based on electronic configurations of the elements. The three elements X, Y
and Z with the electronic configurations shown below all form hydrides:
Element Electronic configuration
X 1s2, 2s2, 2p2
Y 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1
Z 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10, 4s2, 4p5
7. Which line of properties (A, B, C, or D) correctly lists properties of the hydrides of these elements?
Hydride of X Hydride of Y Hydride of Z

(A) Colourless gas Silver/grey solid, reacts Colourless gas form a
insoluble in H2O with H2O to form an strong acid in H2O
alkaline solution
(B) Colourless liquid, no Silver/grey solid, forms Ionic solid with formula
reaction with H2O H2O ZH
(C) Colourless gas found Does not conduct Colourless gas, reacts
naturally electricity in the molten with Cl2
state
(D) Non-polar compound Silver/grey ionic solid Forms when water is
reacts with Cl2 in light with formula YH2 added to phosphorus
and element Z
8. Which of the following exists as gas?

(A) X2 (B) Y2 (C) Z2 (D) all of the above

Read the following write-ups and answer the questions at the end of it.
Silicons are synthetic polymers containing repreated R2SiO units. Since, the empirical formula is that
of a ketone (R2CO), the name silicone has been given to these materials. Silicones can be made into
oils, rubbery elastomers and resins. They find a variety of applications because of their chemical
inertness, water repelling nature, heat-resistance and good electrical insulating property.
Commercial silicon polymers are usually methyl derivatives and to a lesser extent phenyl derivatives
and are synthesised by the hydrolysis of
R2SiCl2[R=methyl (Me) or phenyl ()]
Me Me Me
H 2O
| | |
Me2SiCl2  O  Si  O  Si  O  Si  O 
| | |
Me Me Me
62
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p-Block Elements
9. If we mix Me3SiCl with Me2SiCl2, we get silicones of the type:
Me Me
| |
Me Me Me Me  O  Si  O  Si  O 
| | | | | |
(A) Me  Si  O  Si  O  Si  O  Si  Me (B) O O
| | | | | |
| |
Me Me
(C) both of the above (D) none of the above
10. If we start with MeSiCl3 as the starting material, silicones formed is:
Me Me
| |
| | | | | |
(A) Me  Si  O  Si  O  Si  O  Si  Me (B) O O
| | | | | |
| |
Me Me
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above
CO gas is absorbed by aqueous suspension of cuprous chloride forming the complex like
[CuCl(CO)(H2O)2].
11. Comment on the shape of the above complex.
(A) Tetrahedral (B) TBP (C) Square planar (D) Can not be predicted
12. Choose the correct statement regarding the above molecule
(A) Cl-atom is separated by equal angle from both of the water molecule
(B) Magnetic moment of the above complex is 1.73 B.M.
(C) There are two stereo isomer for the above complex.
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Paragraph for Question No. 13 to 14
There are some deposits of nitrates and phosphates in earth’s crust. Nitrates are more soluble in water.
Nitrates are difficult to reduce under the laboratory conditions but microbes do it easily. Ammonia
forms large number of complexes with transition metal ions. Hybridization easily explains the ease
of sigma donation capability of NH3 and PH3. Phosphine is a flammable gas and is prepared from
white phosphorous.
13. Among the following, the correct statement is
(A) Phosphates have no biological significance in humans
(B) Between nitrates and phosphates, phosphates are less abundant in earth’s crust
(C) Between nitrates and phosphates, nitrates are less abundant in earth’s crust
(D) Oxidation of nitrates is possible in soil
14. White phosphorus on reaction with NaOH gives PH3 as one of the products. This is a
(A) dimerization reaction (B) disproportionation reaction
(C) condensation reaction (D) precipitation reaction
E 63
15. Match List-I with List-II
List-I (Chemical reaction) List-II (Name of process)
(I) 4NH3 + 5O2 800  C / Pt
 4NO + 6H2O (a) Contact process
230C/ CuCl2
(II) 4HCl + O2   2Cl + 2H O (b) Ostwald's process
450500 / V2O5 2 2
(III)2SO2 + O2  2SO3 (c) Deacon's process

IV. 2N2 + 3H2 Fe Mo
 2NH3 (d) Haber's proces
(A) I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c (B) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
(C) I-a, II-d, III-c, IV-b (D) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
(P) Dry ice (1) Used as antidote for CO-poisoning
(Q) Carbongene (2) Used as nonstick coating
(R) Carborundum (3) Used as refrigerant
(S) Teflon (4) Used as abrassive
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 4 1 3 2 (B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 1 4 2 (D) 1 4 3 2
Compound Correct statement for compounds given
(P) SnCl2 (1) Used in printing technology
(Q) Butter of tin (2) Used for gilding purpose (in joining gold pieces)
(R) Mosaic gold (3) Reducing agent
(S) Pink salt (4) Mordant
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 4 3 2 1 (B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 1 3 4 2
18. Column-I (Metal) Column-II (Correct statements)
(P) Fe (1) Produces NO with 20% HNO3
(Q) Cu (2) Produces NH4NO3 with 6% HNO3
(R) Pb (3) Produces NO2 with 70% HNO3
(S) Sn (4) Produces NH4NO3 with 20% HNO3
64
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p-Block Elements
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 2, 1 1 3, 4 2, 3
(B) 2, 3 1, 3 1, 3 2, 3, 4
(C) 1, 3 1, 2 3, 4 2
(D) 1, 4 2, 3 1, 3 1, 4
19. Column-I (Reactions) Column-II (Correct statements)
(P) X eF2 + PF5  (1) Fluoride of Xe acts as fluoride acceptor
(Q) XeF4 + Pt  (2) Fluoride of Xe undergoes disproportion
(R) XeF4 + H2O  (3) Fluoride of Xe acts as fluorinating agent
(S) XeF6 + CsF  (4) Fluoride of Xe act as fluoride donor
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1 (B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 4 2 1
20. Column-I (Substances) Column-II (Can be prepared by)
(P) O 3 (1) Acidification of BaO2 with H3PO4
(Q) Bleaching powder (2) Birkeland Eyde process
(R) H2O2 (3) Dry O2 is passed through a silent electrical discharge
(S) HNO3 (4) Cl2 gas is passed through slaked lime
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 4 1 2 3
E 65
J-ADVANCED
(IIT JEE ASKED QUESTIONS)
Fill in the blanks
1. The hydrolysis of alkyl substituted chlorosilanes given..... [1991]
2. The hydrolysis of trialkychlorosiane R3 SiCl, yields ...... [1994]
3. The two types of bonds present in B2H6 are covalent and..... [1994 ]
4. One recently discovered allotrope of carbon (e.g., C60) is commonly known as .... [1994]
True/False
5. Carbon tetrachloride burns in air when lighted to give phosgene. [1983]
6. Graphite is a better lubricant on the moon than on the earth. [1987]
7. All the Al—Cl bonds in Al2Cl6 are equivalent. [1989]
8. Diamond is harder than graphite. [1993]
9. The basic nature of the hydroxides of group 13 (Gr. IIIB) decreases progressively down the group.
[1993]
10. The tendency for catenation is much higher for C than for Si. [1993]
11. Complete and balance the following chemical equations – [IIT-1998, 2 M]
(i) P4O10 + PCl5  (ii) SnCl4 + C2H5Cl + Na 
12. Work out the following using chemical equations [IIT- 1998, 2M]
"Chlorination of calcium hydroxide produces bleaching powder"
13. Hydrogen peroxide acts both as an oxidizing and as a reducing agent in alkaline solution towards certain
first row transition metal ion. Illustrate both these properties of H2O2 using chemical equations –
[IIT- 1998, 4 M]
14. In the contact process for industrial manufacture of sulphuric acid, some amount of sulphuric acid is
used as a starting material. Explain briefly. What is the catalyst used in the oxidation of SO2?
[IIT- 1998,4 M]
15. Give reasons in one or two sentences for each of the following : [1985]
(i) Graphite is used as a solid lubricant,
(ii) Fluorine cannot be prepared from fluorieds by chemical oxidation.

16. Write balanced equations for : [1990]
(i) The preparation of crystalline silicon from SiCl4
(ii) The preparation of phosphine from CaO and white phosphorus
(iii) The preparation of ammonium sulphate from gypsum, ammonia and carbon dioxide.
17. Anhydrous AlCl3 is covalent. From the data given below, predict whether it would remain covalent
or become ionic in aqueous solution. [1997]
Ionisation energy for Al = 5137 kJ mol–1
Hhydration for Al3+ = –4665 kJ mol–1
Hhydration for Cl–= –381 kJ mol–1
66
E
p-Block Elements
18. Aluminium sulphide gives a foul odour when it becomes damp. Write a balanced chemical equation for the
reaction. [1997]
19. Draw the structure of a cyclic silicate, (Si3O9)6– with proper labelling – [IIT-1998]
20. Give reasons for the following in one or two sentences only. [IIT- 1999]
"BeCl2 can be easily hydrolysed."
21. Draw the molecular structures of XeF2, XeF4 and XeO2F2, indicating the location of lone pair (s) of
electrons. [IIT- 2000]
22. Give reason : [IIT- 2000]
Why elemental nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecule whereas elemental phosphorus is a tetra atomic
molecule.
23. Give an exapmle of oxidation of one halide by another halogen. Explain the feasibility of the reaction.
[IIT- 2000]
24. Compounds X on reduction with LiAlH4 gives a hydride Y containing 21.72% hydrogen alongwith
other products. The compound Y reacts with air explosively resulting in boron trioxide. Identify X and
Y. Give balanced reactions involved in the formation of Y and its reaction with air Draw the structure
of Y. [IIT- 2001]
25. Starting from SiCl4, prepare the following in steps not exceeding the number given in parenthesis
(reactions only) [IIT- 2001]
(i) Silicon (1)
(ii) Linear silicon containing methyl group only (4)
(iii) Na2SiO3 (3)
26. Write the balanced chemical equation for developing photographic films. [IIT- 2001]
27. Identify (X) in the following synthetic scheme and write their structures. [IIT- 2001]
*
BaCO + H2SO4 X (gas) (C denotes C14)
3
28. Write the balanced equations for the reactions of the following compounds with water [2002]
(i) Al4Cl3 (ii) CaNCN (iii) BF3 (iv) NCl3 (v) XeF3
29. Write the balanced equations for the reactions of the following compounds with water: [IIT- 2002]
(i) Al4C3 (ii) CaNCN (iii) BF3 (iv) NCl3 (v) XeF4
30. Identify the following:
SO 2 Na2CO 3 elemental S I
Na2CO 3 A B C 
2
D [IIT- 2003]

(aq)
Also mention the oxidation state of S in all the compounds.

31. Arrange the following oxides in the increasing order of Bronsted basicity. [IIT- 2004]
Cl2O7, BaO,SO3, CO2, B2O3
32. When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate, is treated with hard water, the sodium
ions are exchanged with : [1990]
(A) H+ ions (B) Ca2+ ions (C) SO24  ions (D) Mg2+ ions
33. Which of the following halides is least stable and has doubtful existence ? [1996]
(A) CCl4 (B) Gel4 (C) Snl4 (D) Pbl4
E 67
34. In compounds of type ECl3, where E = B, P, As or Bi, the angless Cl–E–Cl for different E are in the
order :
(A) B > P = As = Bi (B) B > P > As > Bi [1999]
(C) B < P = As = Bi (D) B < P < As < Bi
35. The number of P—O—P bonds in cyclic tetrametaphosphoric acid is – [IIT-2000]
(A) Zero (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
36. The correct order of acidic strength is – [IIT- 2000]
(A) Cl2O7 > SO2 < P4O10 (B) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
(C) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 (D) K2O > CaO > MgO
37. Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with the highest boiling point is – [IIT- 2000]
(A) H2O because of hydrogen bonding (B) H2Te because of higher molecular weight
(C) H2S because of hydrogen bonding (D) H2Se because of lower molecular weight.
38. Ammonia can be dried by – [IIT- 2000]
(A) Conc. H2SO4 (B) P4O10 (C) CaO (D) Anhydrous CaCl2
39. Which of the following are hydrolysed – [REE 2000]
(A) NCl3 (B) BCl3 (C) CCl4 (D) SiCl4
40. The set with correct order of acidity is – [IIT- 2001]
(A) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (B) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(C) HClO < HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 (D) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO
41. The reaction, 3ClO– (aq)  ClO3– (aq) + 2Cl– (aq) is an example of – [IIT- 2001]
(A) Oxidation reaction (B) reduction reaction
(C) Disproportionation reaction (D) Decomposition reaction
42. The number of S–S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer, (S3O9) is – [IIT- 2001]
(A) Three (B) Two (C) One (D) Zero
43. Specify the coordination geometry around and hybridisation of N and B atoms in a 1 : 1 complex of
BF3 and NH3 – [IIT 2001]
3 3 3 3
(A) N: tetrahedral sp ; B : tetrahedral sp (B) N: pyramidal sp ; B : pyramidal sp
(C) N: pyramidal sp3 ; B : planar sp2 (D) N: pyramidal sp3 ; B : tetrahedral sp3 d
44. Statement-I : Between SiCl4 and CCl4, only SiCl4 reacts with water [IIT- 2001]
Because :
Statement-II : SiCl4 is ionic and CCl4 is covalent
(A) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the corect explanation of the assertion
(B) If both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) If assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
(D) If assertion is incorrect, but reason is correct.
45. Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents because they – [IIT- 2002]
(A) Form soluble complexes with anionic species
(B) Precipitate anionic species
(C) Form soluble complexes with cationic species
(D) Precipitate cationic species
68
E
p-Block Elements
46. Identify the correct order of solubility of Na2S, CuS, and ZnS in aqueous medium – [IIT- 2002]
(A) CuS > ZnS > Na2S (B) ZnS > Na2S > Cus
(C) Na2S > Cus > ZnS (D) Na2S > ZnS > CuS
47. Identify, the correct order of acidic strength of CO2, CuO, CaO, H2O – [IIT- 2002]
(A) CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2 (B) H2O < CuO < CaO < CO2
(C) CaO < H2O < CuO < CO2 (D) H2O < CO2 < CaO < CuO
48. H3BO3 is – [IIT- 2002, 3]
(A) Monobasic acid and weak Lewis acid (B) Monobasic and weak Bronsted acid
(C) Monobasic and strong Lewis acid (D) Tribasic and weak Bronsted acid
– – –
49. When I is oxidised by MnO4 in alkaline medium, I converts into – [IIT- 2003]
(A) IO3– (B) I2 (C) IO4– (D) IO –
50. Column-I Column-II [IIT- 2003]
(A) Bi3+ BiO)+ (p) Heat
(B) [AlO2]– Al(OH)3 (q) Hydrolysis
6
(C) SiO44   Si 2 O7 (r) Acidification
(D) (B4 O72  ) [Bi(OH)3] (s) Dilution by water
51. (Me)2 SiCl2 on hydrolysis will produce – [IIT- 2003]
(A) (Me)2 Si(OH)2 (B) (Me)2 Si = O
(C) [—O—(Me)2 Si—O—]n (D) Me2 SiCl(OH)
52. Which is the most thermodynamically stable allotropic form of phosphorus? [IIT- 2004]
(A) Red (B) White (C) Black (D) Yellow
53. When PbO2 reacts with conc. HNO3 the gas evolved is : [2005]
(A) NO2 (B) O2 (C) N2 (D) N2O
54. Which of the following is not oxidised by O3? [IIT- 2005]
(A) KI (B) FeSO4 (C) KMnO4 (D) K2MnO4
55. Which blue-liquid is obtained on reacting equimolar amounts of two gases at – 30ºC ? [IIT- 2005]
(A) N2O (B) N2O3 (C) N2O4 (D) N2O5
Name of the structure of silicates in which three oxygen atoms of [SiO4]4– are shared is –
56.
(A) Pyrosilicate (B) Sheet silicate [IIT- 2005]
(C) Linear chain silicate (D) Three dimensional silicate
57. B(OH)3 + NaOH NaBO2 + Na[B(OH)4] + H2O how can this reaction is made to proceed in
forward direction ? [IIT- 2006]
(A) Addition of cis 1, 2 diol (B) Addition of borax
(C) Addition of trans 1, 2 diol (D) Addition of Na2HPO4
58. The percentage of p-character in the orbitals forming P–P bonds in P4 is – [IIT- 2007]
(A) 25 (B) 33 (C) 50 (D) 75
59. Among the following, the paramagnetic compound is – [IIT- 2007]
(A) Na2O2 (B) O3 (C) N2O (D) KO2
E 69
60. Statement-I : Boron always forms covalent bond [2007]
Because :
Statement-II : The small size of B3+ favours formation of covalent bond.
(A) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is Ture, Statement-II is a correct explanation for Statement-I
(B) Statement-I is Ture, Statement-II is Ture, Statement-II is not a correct explanation for Statement-II
(C) Statement-I is Ture, Statement-II is False
(D) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is Ture
61. Statement-I : In water, orthoboric acid behaves as a weak monobasic acid. [2007]
Statement-II : In water, orthoboric acid acts as a proton donor.
(A) Statement-I is True, Statement-II is Ture, Statement-II is a correct explanation for Statement-I
(B) Statement-I is Ture, Statement-II is Ture, Statement-II is not a correct explanation for Statement-II
(C) Statement-I is Ture, Statement-II is False
(D) Statement-I is False, Statement-II is Ture
Comprehension # 1 (Q. 62 to 64)
The noble gases have closed-shell electronic configuration and are monoatomic gases under normal
conditions. The low boiling point of the lighter noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces between
the atoms and the absence of other interatomic interactions. The direct reaction of xenon with fluorine
leads to a series of compounds with oxidation number + 2, + 4 and + 6. XeF4 reacts violently with
water to give XeO3. The compounds of xenon exhibit rich stereochemistry and their geometries can
be deduced considering the total number of electron pairs in the valence shell. [IIT- 2007]
62. Argon is used in arc welding because of its –
(A) Low reactivity with metal (B) Ability to lower the melting point of metal
(C) Flammability (D) High calorific value
63. The structure of XeO3 is –
(A) Linear (B) Planar (C) Pyramidal (D) T-shaped
64. XeF4 and XeF6 are expected to be –
(A) Oxidising (B) Reducing (C) Unreactive (D) Strongly basic
Comprehension # 2 (Q.65 to 67)
There are some deposits of nitrates and phosphates in earth’s crust. Nitrates are more soluble in water.
Nitrates are difficult to reduce under the laboratory conditions but microbes do it easily. Ammonia
forms large number of complexes with transition metal ions. Hybridization easily explains the ease of
sigma donation capability of NH3 and PH3. Phosphine is a flammable gas and is prepared from white
phosphorous. [IIT- 2008]
65. Among the following, the correct statement is :-
(A) Phosphates have no biological significance in humans
(B) Between nitrates and phosphates, phosphates are less abundant in earth’s crust
(C) Between nitrates and phosphates, nitrates are less abundant in earth’s crust
(D) Oxidation of nitrates is possible in soil
70
E
p-Block Elements
66. Among the following, the correct statement is :-
(A) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
spherical ‘s’ orbital and is less directional
(B) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
sp3 orbital and is more directional
(C) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupiessp3
orbital and is more directional
(D) Between NH3 and PH3. PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies
spherical ‘s’ orbital and is less directional.
67. White phosphorus on reaction with NaOH gives PH3 as one of the products. This is a :-
(A) dimerization reaction (B) disproportionation reaction
(C) condensation reaction (D) precipitation reaction
68. The reaction of P4 with X leads selectively to P4O6. The X is [JEE 2009]
(A) Dry O2 (B) A mixture of O2, and N2
(C) Moist O2 (D) O2 in the presence of aqueous NaOH
69. The nitrogen oxide(s) that contain(s) N–N bond(s) is (are) [JEE 2009]
(A) N2O (B) N2O3 (C) N2O4 (D) N2O5
70. In the reaction, 2X + B2H6  [BH2(X)2]+[BH4]– the amine(s) X is (are) [JEE 2009]
(A) NH3 (B) CH3NH2 (C) (CH3)2NH (D) (CH3)3N
71. The reaction of white phosphorus with aqueous NaOH gives phosphine along with another
phosphorus containing compound. The reaction type ; the oxidation states of phosphorus in phosphine
and the other product are respectively [JEE 2012]
(A) redox reaction ; -3 and –5 (B) redox reaction ; +3 and +5
(C) disproportionation reaction ; -3 and +1 (D) disproportionation reaction ; -3 and +3
72. Bleaching powder contains a salt of an oxoacid as one of its components. The anhydride of that
oxoacid is :
(A) Cl2O (B) Cl2O7 (C) ClO2 (D) Cl2O6 [JEE 2012]
73. With respect to graphite and diamond, which of the statement(s) given below is (are) correct ?
(A) Graphite is harder than diamond. [JEE 2012]

(B) Graphite has higher electrical conductivity than diamond.
(C) Graphite has higher thermal conductivity than diamond.
(D) Graphite has higher C–C bond order than diamond.
74. Concentrated nitric acid, upon long standing, turns yellow-brown due to the formation of -
(A) NO (B) NO2 (C) N2O (D) N2O4 [JEE 2013]
75. The correct statement(s) about O3 is(are) [JEE 2013]
(A) O–O bond lengths are equal
(B) Thermal decomposition of O3 is endothermic
(C) O3 is diamagnetic in nature
(D) O3 has a bent structure
E 71
Comprehension # 3 (Q. 76 and 77)
The reaction of Cl2 gas with cold dilute and hot concentrated NaOH in water give sodium salt of two
(different) oxoacids of chlorine P and Q respectively. The Cl2 gas reacts with SO2 gas , in presence of
charcoal to give a product R. R reacts with white phosphorous to give a compound S. On hydrolysis,
S gives as oxoacid of phosphorous T.
76. R, S and T , respectively are - [JEE 2013]
(A) SO2Cl2, PCl5 and H3PO4 (B) SO2Cl2, PCl3 and H3PO3
(C) SOCl2, PCl3 and H3PO2 (D) SO2Cl2, PCl5 and H3PO4
77. P and Q, respectively, are the sodium salts of -
(A) Hypochlorus and chloric acid (B) Hypochlorus and chlorus acid
(C) Chloric and perchloric acids (D) Chloric and hypochlorus acids
78. The unbalanced chemical reactions given in List-I show missing reagent or condition (?) which are
provided in List-II. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
the lists :A [JEE 2013]
List-I List-II
?
(P) PbO2 + H2SO4   PbSO4 + O2 + other product (1) NO
?
(Q) Na2S2O3 + H2O   NaHSO4 + other product (2) I2
?
(R) N2H4   N2 + other product (3) Warm
?
(S) XeF2   Xe + other product (4) Cl2
Codes :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1 (B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3 (D) 3 4 2 1
79. Under ambient conditions, the total number of gases released as products in the final step of the
reaction scheme shown below is [JEE Adv. 2014]
Complete
H ydrolysis
XeF6 P + other product
–
OH / H 2O
slow disproportionation in OH – / H 2 O
products
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
72
E
p-Block Elements
80. The product formed in the reaction of SOCl2 with white phosphorous is [JEE Adv. 2014]
(A) PCl3 (B) SO2Cl2 (C) SCl2 (D) POCl3
81. The correct statements(s) for orthoboric acid is / are - [JEE Adv. 2014]
(A) It behaves as a weak acid in water due to self ionization
(B) Acidity of its aqueous solution increses upon addition of ethylene glycol
(C) It has a three dimensional structure due to hydrogen bonding.
(D) It is a weak electrolyte in water
82. The correct statement(s) regarding, (i) HClO, (ii) HClO2, (iii) HClO3 and (iv) HClO4, is(are)
(A) The number of Cl=O bonds in (ii) and (iii) together is two [JEE Adv. 2015]
(B) The number of lone pairs of electrons on Cl in (ii) and (iii) together is three
(C) The hybridization of Cl in (iv) is sp3
(D) Amongst (i) to (iv), the strongest acid is (i)
83. When O2 is adsorbed on a metallic surface, electron transfer occurs from the metal to O2. The TRUE,
statement (s) regarding this adsorption is (are) [JEE Adv. 2015]
(A) O2 is physisorbed (B) heat is released
(C) occupancy of *2p of O2 is increased (D) bond length of O2 is increased
84. Under hydrolytic conditions, the compounds used for preparation of linear polymer and for chain termination,
respectively, are [JEE (Adv.) 2015]
(A) CH3SiCl3 and Si(CH3)4 (B) (CH3)2SiCl2 and (CH3)3SiCl
(C) (CH3)2SiCl2 and CH3SiCl3 (D) SiCl4 and (CH3)3SiCl

85. Three moles of B2H6 are completely reacted with methanol. The number of moles of boron containing
product formed is - [JEE (Adv.) 2015]
86. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in N2O3 is : [JEE Adv. 2015]
E 73
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-II
(ONE OR MORE THAN ONE OPTION MAY BE CORRECT)
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A, B A, B, C B, C A, B, C A, C, D A, B, C A, B, D A, B A, B, C A, B, C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Ans. A,B,C,D A, C, D A,B,C,D C, D A,B,C,D A, B, D B, C, D A,B,C,D
EXERCISE-III
PARAGRAPH & MATRIX MATCH
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B A D A C D A C A B
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A A C B B C B B C A
74
E
p-Block Elements
J- ADVANCED
Fill in the blanks
1. Silicones 2. R3Si(OH)
3. Three centre two electron bond or banana bond 4. Buckminstre fullerene
True/False
5. F 6. T 7. F 8. T 9. F 10. T
Subjective
11. (i) P4O10 + 6PCl3 10POCl3 (ii) SnCl4 + 2C2H5Cl + 2Na Na2SnCl6 + C4H10
12. 3Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 Ca(OCl)2 + Ca(OH)2 CaCl2 · 2H2O
Bleaching powder is a mixture of CaOCl2

and hydrated basic calcium chloride.
13. When H2O2 acts as oxidizing agent, therefore, following reaction takes place:
H2O2 + 2e–  2OH–
while, regarding is action on reducing agent, the following reaction takes place :
H2O2 + 2OH– O2 + 2H2O + 2e–
Oxidizing character :
2Cr(OH)3 + 4NaOH + 3H2O2  2Na2CrO4 + 8H2O
Reducing character:
2K3 [Fe(CN)6] + 2KOH + H2O2 2K4 [Fe(CN)6] + 2H2O + O2
14. In SO3 + H2O  H2SO4 reaction, H2SO4 is obtained in misty form and reaction is explosive
(highly exothermic). By adding H2SO4 the above reaction is prevented.
H2SO4 + SO3 H2S2O7 (oleum)
H2S2O7 + H2O  2H2SO4
The catalyst used is V2O5 and K2O is used as promotor for the oxidation of SO2 into SO3.
15. (i) Graphite, hexagonal planes are held by weak van der Waals forces. Since these forces are
overcome, one plane slides over the other. This explains the lubricating properties of graphite.
(ii) Fluoride has negative oxidation potential
2F—  F2 +2e–, EOP = – 2.87 volts
Hence, fluoride is the poorest reducing agent.
Hence, F2 can’t be prepared by oxidation of HF by even strong oxidising agents such as
KMnO4, MnO2 etc.


16. (i) 3SiCl4 + 4Al 4AlCl3 + 3Si
vapour molten volatilized
(ii) 15CaO + 4P4  5Ca3 P2 + 3P2O5 

[Ca3P2 + 6H2O  3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3 ] × 5
15CaO + 4P4 + 30H 2O  15Ca(OH)2 + 3P2O 5  + 10 PH 3  
(iii) 2NH 3 + CO2 + H 2O  (NH 4)2CO 3
CaSO 4 + (NH 4 )2 CO3  CaCO3  (NH 4 )2SO4
gypsum
CaSO4 + 2NH3 + CO2 + H2O  CaCO3 

+ (NH4)2SO4
E 75
17. Total hydration energy of Al3+ and 3Cl– ions of AlCl3
(Hhydration)
= (Hydration energy of Al3+ + 3 × hydration energy of Cl–)
= [–4665 + 3(–381)] kJ mol–1 = 5808 kJ mol–1
This amount of energy is more than that required for the ionisation of Al into Al3+ (Ionisation
energy of Al to Al3+). Due to this reason, AlCl3 becomes ionic in aqueous solution. In aqeous
solution, it exists in ionic form as below :
AlCl3 + 6H2O  (Al(H2O)6 3+ + 3Cl–
18. Al2S3 + 6H2O  2Al(OH)3  +3H2S
foul odour
Foul odour, on damping of Al2S3 is due to formation of H2S gas.
19. In cyclic (Si 3 O 9 ) 6– , three tetrahedral of SiO4 are joined together by sharing of two oxygen atoms
per tetrahedral.
Structure of (Si 3 O69  )
In it dark circles (·) represent Si and open circles (O) represent oxygen atom or iron.
20. BeCl2 is hydrolysed due to high polarising power and presence of vacant p-orbitals in Be atom.
(Be = 1s2, 2s2, 2p1x , 2p0y , 2p 0z )
21.
F
Xe
F
In it Xe is sp3d-hybrid but its shape is linear due to involvent of VSEPR theory. (i.e., due to presence
of three free pair of electrons, geometry of XeF2 is distorted from trigonal bipyramidal to linear).
F F
Xe
F F
In it Xe is sp3d2-hybrid but its shape is square planar due to involvement of VSEPR theory. (i.e.,
due to presence of two free pair of electrons, geometry of XeF4 is distorted from octahedral to
square planer).
F Xe F
O O
76
E
p-Block Elements
In it Xe is sp3 d-hybrid but its geometry is planar due to involvement of VSEPR theory. (i.e., due to
presence of a free pair of electron, its geometry is distorted from trigonal bipyramidal to planar).
22. In nitrogen, d-orbitals are not present, so in it the possiblity of intramolecular multiplicity exists which
leads to the completion of octet through -bond between two nitrogen atoms.
In phosphorus, d-orbitals are present, so in it due to large size of P, the P–P bonds are longer and
hence intramolecular multiplicity is ruled out. So, for the completion of octet, it forms the bonds with
three other 'P' atoms. Hence due to this reason it shows molecular formula as P4.
23. 2I– (aqueous) + Cl2 I2 + 2Cl– (aqueous)
(i) 2I– (aqueous) I2 –(s) + 2e–
(ii) Cl2 (g) + 2e– 2Cl (aq)
Thus, I– is oxidised into I2 by Cl2 due to higher oxidised potential of Cl2 than I2
24. X : BCl3
Y : B2H6
4BCl3 + 3LiAlH4 3AlCl3 + 3LiCl + 2B2H6
X
B2H6 + 3O2 B2O3 + 3H2O (exothermic)
Y
25. (i) 3 SiCl4 + 4Al 3Si + 4AlCl3 (in one step)
(ii) SiCl4 + 2Mg 2MgCl2 + Si
Si + Cu Si – Cu
2CH3Cl + Si– Cu (CH3)2 SiCl2 + Cu
(CH3)2SiCl2 + 2H2O (CH3)2Si(OH)2 + 2HCl
CH 3 CH 3

2(CH3)2Si(OH)2   H—O— Si—O— Si—OH
–H 2 O
CH 3 CH 3
(iii) SiCl4 + 4H2O Si(OH)4 + 4HCl

Si(OH)4 SiO2 + 2H2O

SiO2 + Na2CO3 
1673K
 Na2SiO3 + CO2
26. Unreacted AgBr is removed by hypo (Na2S2O3)

AgBr + 2Na2S2O3  Na3[Ag(S2O3)2] + NaBr
27. 14 CO
2
28. (i) Al4Cl3 + 12H2O 4Al(OH)3 + 3CH4 
(ii) CaNCN + 3H2O CaCO3  + 2NH3
(iii) 4BF3 + 3H2O H 3BO 3 + 3HBF4
boric acid fluoboric acid
(iv) NCl3 + 3H2O NH3 + 3HOCl

hypochlorous acid
(v) 2XeF4 + 3H2O Xe + XeO3 + F2 + 6HCl

xenon trioxide
E 77
29. (i) Al4C3 + 12H2O 4Al(OH)3 + 3CH4
(ii) CaNCN + 3H2O CaCO3 + 2NH3
(iii) BF3 + 3H2O H3BO3 + 3HF
3HF + 3BF3 3HBF4
4BF3 + 3H2O H3BO3 + 3HBF4
30. Oxidation state

(A) : NaHSO3 + 4 (B) : Na2SO3 +4
(C) : Na2S2O3 + 2 (D) : Na2S4O6 + 2.5
31. Cl2O7 < SO3 < CO2 < B2O3 < BaO
Objectve
32. BD 33. D 34. B 35. C 36. A 37. A
38. C 39. BD 40. A 41. C 42. D 43. A
44. C 45. C 46. D 47. A 48. A 49. A
50. Thus, Q and R
(A) : Bi3+ + H2O BiO+ + 2H+ thus ((Q) and S)
(B) : AlO2 + H3O+ Al(OH)3  thus (R)
(C) : 2SiO44  + 2H+  Si2 O67  thus (R)
(D) : B4 O72  
H
 B(OH)3
B4 O72  
H2O

 B(OH)3
Thus, (Q) and (R)
51. C 52. C 53. AB 54. C 55. B 56. B
57. A 58. D 59. D 60. A
Boron always forms covalent bond because boron requires very high energy of form B3+ and again
B3+ due to its very small size having high polarising power thus cause greater polarisation and eventually
significant covalent characteristics-Fajans rule.
61. C
H H
O O
O O HO
B H OH
B– + H +
:OH O H B H
O
2
O HO OH
H
H H
Comprehension # 1 (Q. 62 to 64)

62. A 63. C 64. A
Comprehension # 2 (Q.65 to 67)
65. C 66. C 67. B
68. B 69. ABC 70. BC 71. C 72. A
73. BD 74. B 75. ACD
Comprehension # 3 (Q. 76 and 77)
76. A 77. A
78. D 79. C 80. A 81. B,D 82. B,C
83. B,C,D 84. B 85. 6 86. 8
78
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d-Block Elements
d-BLOCK COMPOUND
EXERCISE # O-2
SELECT MORE THAN ONE IS CORRECT OPTIONS
General Properties of d-block
1. Potash alum is a double salt, its aqueous solution shows the characteristics of
(A) Al3+ ions (B) K+ ions (C) SO42– ions (D) Al3+ ions but not K+ ions
2. Addition of non-metals like B and C to the interstitial sites of a transition metal results the metal
(A) of more ductability (B) of less ductability
(C) less malleable (D) of more hardness
3. Mercury is a liquid at 0°C because of
(A) very high ionisation energy (B) weak metallic bonds
(C) high heat of hydration (D) high heat of sublimation
4. The correct statement(s) about transition elements is/are
(A) the most stable oxidation state is +3 and its stability decreases across the period
(B) transition elements of 3d-series have almost same atomic sizes from Cr to Cu
(C) the stability of +2 oxidation state increases across the period
(D) some transition elements like Ni, Fe, Cr may show zero oxidation state in some of their compounds
5. The ionisation energies of transition elements are
(A) less than p-block elements (B) more than s-block elements
(C) less than s-block elements (D) more than p-block elements
6. The metal(s) which does/do not form amalgam is/are
(A) Fe (B) Pt (C) Zn (D) Ag
7. Which of the following statements concern with d-block metals?
(A) compounds containing ions of transition elements are usually coloured
(B) Zinc has lowest melting point among 3d-series elements
(C) they show variable oxidation states, which differ by two units only
(D) they easily form complexes
8. The highest oxidation state among transition elements is
(A) + 7 by Mn (B) + 8 by Os (C) + 8 by Ru (D) + 7 by Fe

9. Amphoteric oxide(s) is/are
(A) Al2O3 (B) SnO (C) ZnO (D) Fe2O3
10. The catalytic activity of transition elements is related to their
(A) variable oxidation states (B) surface area
(C) complex formation ability (D) magnetic moment
11. In the equation: M + 8CN– + 2H2O + O2  4[M(CN)2]– + 4OH–, metal M is
(A) Ag (B) Au (C) Cu (D) Hg
12. CuSO4(aq) + 4NH3  X, then X is
(A) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (B) paramagnetic
(C) coloured (D) of a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM
E 79
JEE- Physical Chemistry
13. Amphoteric oxide(s) of Mn is/are
(A) MnO2 (B) Mn3O4 (C) Mn2O7 (D) MnO
14. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that
(A) Zr and Hf have same atomic sizes (B) Zr and Hf have same properties
(C) Zr and Hf have different atomic sizes (D) Zr and Hf have different properties
15. Ion(s) having non zero magnetic moment (spin only) is/are
(A) Sc3+ (B) Ti3+ (C) Cu2+ (D) Zn2+
Compounds of d-block
16. Correct statement(s) is/are
(A) an acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 liberates iodine from KI
(B) K2Cr2O7 is used as a standard solution for estimation of Fe2+ ions
(C) in acidic medium, M = N/6 for K2Cr2O7
(D) (NH4)2Cr2O7 on heating decomposes to yield Cr2O3 through an endothermic reaction
17. Interstitial compounds are formed by
(A) Co (B) Ni (C) Fe (D) Ca
18. Acidified KMnO4 can be decolourised by
(A) SO2 (B) H2O2 (C) FeSO4 (D) Fe2(SO4)3
80
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d-Block Elements
EXERCISE # S-2
COMPREHENSTION TYPE QUESTIONS :
Comprehension # 01 to 04
Transition metal and their compounds are used as catalysts in industry and in biological system. For
example, in the Contact process, vanadium compounds in the +5 state (V2O5 or VO 3– ) are used to
oxidise SO2 to SO3 :
1 V 2 O5
SO2 + O2  SO3
2
It is thought that the actual oxidation process takes place in two stages. In the first step, V5+ in the
presence of oxide ions converts SO2 to SO3. At the same time, V5+ is reduced to V4+.
2V5+ + O2– + SO2  2V4+ + SO3
In the second step, V5+ is regenerated from V4+ by oxygen :
1
2V4+ + O  2V5+ + O2–
2 2
The overall process is, of course, the sum of these two steps:
1
SO2 + O2  SO3
2
1. Transition metals and their compounds catalyse reactions because :
(A) They have competely filled s-subshell
(B) They have a comparable size due to poor shielding of d-subshell
(C) They introduce an entirely new reaction mechanism with a lower activation energy
(D) They have variable oxidation states differ by two units
2. During the course of the reaction :
(A) Catalyst undergoes changes in oxidation state
(B) Catalyst increases the rate constant
(C) Catalyst is regenerated in its orginal form when the reactants form the products
(D) All are correct.

3. Catalytic activity of transition metals depends on :
(A) Their ability to exist in different oxidation states
(B) The size of the metal atoms
(C) The number of empty atomic orbitals available
(D) None of these
4. Which of the following ion involved in the above process will show paramagnetism?
(A) V5+ (B) V4+ (C) O2– (D) VO 3
E 81
Comprehension # 05 & 06
(X) is very important laboratory reagent which is prepared by its naturally occuring ore which is called
pyrolusite. Pyrolusite when fused with alkali in the presence of O2, green compound (Y) is produced.
(Y) is converted into (X) by electrolysis or by using ozone.
5. On small scale (X) is prepared by disproportion of (Y) in acidic solution. Which of the following is
produced by disproportion of (Y) in slight alkaline solution.
(A) KMnO4, Mn+2 (B) KMnO4, MnO2
(C) MnO2, Mn+2 (D) K2MnO4, Mn+2
6. Select the correct statements :
(A) (X) is tetrahedral & diamagnetic
(B) (Y) is tetrahedral & paramagnetic
(C) (X) produce dimangnese hepta oxide (oily liquid) with conc. H2SO4
(D) All are correct
Comprehension # 07 to 09
Due to availability of vacant orbitals of sufficiently low energy, d-block elements form
complexes, d-block elements have different properties such as- catalytic, magnetic, alloy formation,
interistitial compounds formation. Interistitial compounds are those compounds in which small atoms
like carbon and boron fits into interistices of d-block elements crystal. In interistitial compounds,
there is no chemical bond formation takes place so , chemical properties remain almost same but
physical properties may change.
7. Which of the property of interistitial compounds has the same behaviour as that of the element -
(A) Malleability (B) Ductility
(C) Electrical conductance (D) Hardness
8. Which of the following property gets decreased in interistitial compounds compared to that of the
element -
(A) Malleability (B) Metallic lustre
(C) Hardness (D) Density
9. Select correct statement -
(A) Highest oxidation state of 3d-series is +8.
(B) Ni, Cu and Zn are not transition element.
(C) Ziglar natta catalyst contain vanadium.
(D) Aq. solution of Cu2+, Fe+3 and Cr3+ are blue, yellow and green respectively.
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d-Block Elements
MATCH THE COLUMN : (Matrix Match)
10. Column-I (M et als) Column-I I
(A) Zn (P) Cyanide process involve in the comerical extration
(B) Cu (Q) Extracted by hydrometallurgical process
(C) Ag (R) Roasting involve in the comerical extration
(D) Au (S) Present in Brass
11. Column-I (catalyst) Column-II (Used)
(A) TiCl4 (P) Adams catalyst in reduction
(B) PdCl2 (Q) In preparation of (CH3)2 SiCl2
(C) Pt/PtO (R) Used as the ziegler-natta catalyst in polythene
production
(D) Cu (S) Wacker process for converting C2H4 to CH3CHO
SELECT CORRECT CODE :

(P) Cr2O 3 (1) Neutral oxide
(Q) CrO3 (2) Amphoteric oxide
(R) Fe 3O 4 (3) Mix oxide
(S) N 2 O (4) Acidic oxide
Select correct code for matching -
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
(Metal ion of 3d-series) (Characterstic)
(P) Ni2+ (1) produce blue aq. solution
(Q) Cr2+ (2) half filled t2g orbitals in octahedral complex

(R) V2+ (3) diamagnetic ion
(S) Ti4+ (4) calculated µ = 2.84 B.M. (spin only)
Select correct code for matching -
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 1 2 4 3
E 83
ASSERATION & REASONING :
Questions given below consist of two statements each printed as Assertion (A) and Reason (R); while
answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses:
(A) if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) if both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C) if (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) if (A) is false and (R) is true
14. Assertion : KMnO4 is purple in colour due to charge transfer.
Reason : In MnO 4 , there is no electron present in d-orbitals of manganese.
15. Assertion : K2CrO4 has yellow colour due to charge transfer.
Reason : CrO 24 ion is tetrahedral in shape.
16. Assertion : The highest oxidation state of chromium in its compounds is +6.
Reason : Chromium atom has only six electrons in ns and (n–1) d orbitals.
17. Assertion : CrO3 reacts with HCl to form chromyl chloride gas.
Reason : Chromyl chloride (CrO2Cl2) has tetrahedral shape.
18. Assertion : Zinc does not show characteristic properties of transition metals.
Reason : In zinc outermost shell is completely filled.
19. Assertion : Tungsten has a very high melting point.
Reason : Tungsten is a covalent compound.
20. Assertion : Equivalent mass of KMnO4 is equal to one-third of its molecular mass when it acts
as an oxidising agent in an alkaline medium.
Reason : Oxidation number of Mn is +7 in KMnO4.
21. Assertion : Ce4+ is used as an oxidising agent in volumetric analysis.
Reason : Ce4+ has the tendency of attain +3 oxidation state.

22. Assertion : Promethium is a man made element.
Reason : It is radioactive and has been prepared by artifical means.
23. Assertion : Cu+ ion is colourless.
Reason : Four water molecules are coordinated to Cu+ ion in water.
84
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d-Block Elements
TRUE/FALSE :
1. Cu+ disproportionates to Cu2+ and elemental copper in solution. [JEE 1991]
FILL IN THE BLANKS :
2. When Fe(s) is dissolved in aqueous hydrochloric acid in a closed vessel, the work done
is .......... . [JEE 1997]
3. Silver jewellery items tarnish slowly in the air due to their reaction with .......... . [JEE 1997]
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER :
4. Which one is solder ? [JEE 1995]
(A) Cu and Pb (B) Zn and Cu (C) Pb and Sn (D) Fe and Zn
5. Which compound does not dissolve in hot, dilute HNO3? [JEE 1996]
(A) HgS (B) PbS (C) CuS (D) CdS
6. Ammonium dichromate is used in some fireworks. The green coloured powder blown in the air
is - [JEE 1997]
(A) CrO3 (B) Cr2O3 (C) Cr (D) CrO(O2)
7. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic
solution is - [JEE 1997]
(A) 2/5 (B) 3/5 (C) 4/5 (D) 1
8. Read the following statement and explanation and answer as per the options given
below : [JEE 1998]
Assertion : Zn2+ is diamagnetic.
Reason : Two electrons are lost from 4s orbital to form Zn2+.
(A) If both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.

(D) If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
9. In the dichromatic anion, [JEE 1999]
(A) 4 Cr – O bonds are equivalent (B) 6 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(C) all Cr – O bonds are equivalent (D) all Cr – O bonds are non-equivalent
10. Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by: [JEE 2002]
(A) heating hydrated ferric chloride at a high temperature in a stream of air
(B) heating metallic iron in a stream of dry chlorine gas
(C) reaction of ferric oxide with HCl
(D) reaction of metallic iron with HCl
E 85
11. When MnO2 is fused with KOH, a coloured compound is formed, the product and its colour is:
(A) K2MnO4, green (B) KMnO4, purple [JEE 2003]
(C) Mn2O3, brown (D) Mn3O4, black
12. The product of oxidation of I– with MnO4– in alkaline medium is - [JEE 2004]
(A) IO3– (B) I2 (C) IO– (D) IO4–
13. (NH4)2Cr2O7 on heating liberates a gas. The same gas will be obtained by - [JEE 2004]
(A) heating NH4NO2 (B) heating NH4NO3
(C) treating H2O2 with NaNO2 (D) treating Mg3N2 with H2O
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER :
14. Which of the following alloys contains (s) Cu and Zn ? [JEE 1993]
(A) Bronze (B) Brass (C) Gun metal (D) Type metal
15. Addition of high proportions of magnanese makes steel useful in making rails of railroads, becuse
manganese. [JEE 1998]
(A) gives hardness to steel
(B) helps the formation of oxides of iron
(C) can remove oxygen and sulphur
(D) can show highest oxidation state of +7.
16. The correct statement(s) about Cr2+ and Mn3+ is (are) [JEE Advance 2015]
[Atomic numbers of Cr = 24 and Mn = 25]
(A) Cr2+ is a reducing agent
(B) Mn3+ is an oxidizing agent
(C) Both Cr2+ and Mn3+ exhibit d4 electronic configuration
(D) When Cr2+ is used as a reducing agent, the chromium ion attains d5 electronic configuration
86
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d-Block Elements
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE # O-2
1. (A, B, C) 2. (B, C, D) 3. (A, B) 4. (A, B, C, D)
5. (A, B) 6. (A, B) 7. (A, B, D) 8. (B, C)
9. (A, B, C) 10. (A, B, C) 11. (A, B) 12. (A, B, C, D)
13. (A, B) 14. (A, B) 15. (B, C) 16. (A, B, C)
17. (A, B, C) 18. (A, B, C)
EXERCISE # S-2
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (B)
5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (A)
9. (D) 10. (A)-(R,S) ; (B)-(R,S) ; (C)-(P,Q) ; (D)-(P,Q)
11. (A)-(R) ; (B)-(S) ; (C)-(P) ; (D)-(Q) 12. (A) 13. (C)
14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17.(B)
18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (B) 21. (A)
22. (A) 23. (C)
TRUE/FALSE :
1. True
FILL IN THE BLANKS :
2. Zero 3. H2S
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONSWITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER :
4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (A)

8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (A)

12. (A) 13. (A)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONSWITH ONE OR MORETHAN ONE CORRECTANSWER :
14. (B, C) 15. (A) 16. (A), (B), (C)
E 87
88
IMPORTANT NOTES
E
Salt Analysis
SALT ANALYSIS
EXERCISE # II
ANIONS : Class A (Subgroup - I)
1. Statement-1: On passing CO2 gas through lime water, the solution turns milky.
because
Statement-2: Acid-Base (neutralisation) reaction takes place.
2. A substance on treatment with dil. H2 SO4 liberates a colourless gas which produces (i) turbidity
with baryta water and (ii) turns acidified dichromate solution green. The reaction indicates the presence
of
(A) CO 32 (B) S2– (C) SO 32 (D) NO 2
Class A (Subgroup - II)

3. When a mixture of solid NaCl, solid K2Cr2O7 is heated with conc. H2SO4, orange red vapours are
obtained. These are of the compound
(A) chromous chloride (B) chromyl chloride
(C) chromic chloride (D) chromic sulphate
4. Which of the following will not give positive chromyl chloride test?
(A) Copper chloride, CuCl2 (B) Mercuric chloride, HgCl2
(C) Zinc chloride, ZnCl2 (D) Anillinium chloride, C6H5NH3Cl
5. Sodium borate on reaction with conc. H2SO4 and C2H5OH gives a compound A which burns with a
green edged flame. The compound A is
(A) H2B4O7 (B) (C2H5)2B4O7 (C) H3BO3 (D) (C2H5)3BO3

6. Nitrate is confirmed by ring test. The brown colour of the ring is due to formation of
(A) ferrous nitrite (B) nitroso ferrous sulphate
(C) ferrous nitrate (D) FeSO4NO2
7. A salt gives violet vapours when treated with conc. H2SO4, it contains
(A) Cl– (B) I— (C) Br– (D) NO3
CATIONS : DRY TEST

8. In the borax bead test of Co2+, the blue colour of bead is due to the formation of:
(A) B2O3 (B) Co3B2 (C) Co(BO2)2 (D) CoO
E 89
9. Which of the following leaves no residue on heating?
(A) Pb(NO3)2 (B) NH4NO3 (C) Cu(NO3)2 (D) NaNO3
10. Which of the following cations is detected by the flame test?
(A) NH 4 (B) K+ (C) Mg2+ (D) Al3+
WET TEST : GROUP - I
11. Mercurous ion is represented as:
(A) Hg 22 (B) Hg2+ (C) Hg + Hg2+ (D) Hg 2

GROUP - IIA
12. When bismuth chloride is poured into a large volume of water the white precipitate produced is
(A) Bi(OH)3 (B) Bi2O3 (C) BiOCl (D) Bi2OCl3
13. CuSO4 decolourises on addition of excess KCN, the product is
(A) [Cu(CN)4]2–. (B) Cu2+ get reduced to form [Cu(CN)4]3–
(C) Cu(CN)2 (D) CuCN
14. When H2S gas is passed through the HCl containing aqueous solution of CuCl2, HgCl2, BiCl3 and
CoCl2, it does not precipitate out:
(A) CuS (B) HgS (C) Bi2S3 (D) CoS
GROUP - II
15. Which of the following is soluble in yellow ammonium sulphide?
(A) CuS (B) CdS (C) SnS (D) PbS
16. When excess of SnCl2 is added to a solution of HgCl2, a white ppt turning grey is obtained. The
grey colour is due to the formation of
(A) Hg2Cl2 (B) SnCl4 (C) Sn (D) Hg
GROUP - III
17. In the precipitation of the iron group in qualitative analysis, ammonium chloride is added before
adding ammonium hydroxide to
(A) decrease concentration of OH— ions. (B) prevent interference by phosphate ions.
(C) increase concentration of Cl— ions. (D) increase concentration of NH 4 ions.

GROUP - IV
18. Colour of nickel chloride solution is
(A) pink (B) black (C) colourless (D) green
19. Dimethyl glyoxime in a suitable solvent was refluxed for 10 minutes with pure pieces of nickel
sheet, it will result in
(A) Red ppt (B) Blue ppt. (C) Yellow ppt. (D) No ppt.
GROUP - V
20. In III group, NH4Cl is added to decrease concentation of ammonium ion . We do not add (NH4)2SO4
along with NH4OH because -
(A) (NH4)2SO4 is insoluble in water (B) It precipitate other insoluble sulphates
(C) It is weak electrolyte (D) None of these
90
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Salt Analysis
MISCELLANEOUS
ANION
21. When S2O32– react with solution of 'X' reagent then reaction is redox followed by precipitation then 'X'
is:
(A) FeCl3 solution (B) AgNO3 solution
(C) CuSO4 solution (D) None of these
22. In the test for iodine, when I2 is treated with sodium thiosulphate, Na2S2O3
Na2S2O3 + I2 
 NaI + ......
(A) Na2S4O6 (B) Na2SO4 (C) Na2S (D) Na3ISO4
Paragraph for Q. 23 to Q. 26
(Sulphamic
Conc. acid) FeSO4 (D) (Unstable brown coloured
B(g) (A) (C)
H2SO4 + conc. H2SO4 compound)
(Mixture (Only one is
of two ions) present)
23. Identify mixture of ions (A) -

– – – – – –
(A) NO2 and Br (B) NO2 and I (C) NO2 and NO3 (D) None of these
24. What is oxidation state of central atom of (D)
(A) +3 (B) +2 (C) +1 (D) Zero
25. Identify gas B-
(A) Br2 (B) Br2 + NO2 (C) Only NO2 (D) None of these
26. What is the hybridisation of central atom of D-
(A) d2sp3 (B) sp3d2 (C) sp3d (D) sp3
A dil HCl B(g) lime C (milky solution)

water
boil Sulphur
Zn+ dil.H2SO4
D B(g) E(g) F
dil HCl H2O2
boil with (A)

FeCl3
G D
27. Identify A
(A) CO32– (B) SO32– (C) S2O32– (D) none of these
28. When A react with Pb(NO3)2 then compound X is formed. Compound X is oxidized by atmospheric
oxygen on boiling, then Y is formed what is the colour of Y
(A) yellow (B) White (C) Black (D) Green
E 91
29. When gas E react with sodium nitroprusside in basic medium then compound Z is formed. The colour
of compound Z is:
(A) Green (B) Purple (C) Reddish brown (D) Black
Strongly
(A) heated
B+C
(Hydrated salt) transparent
glassy bead
Strongly
HBO
3 3
heated C+D
30. Identify C-
(A) (BN)X (B) NaPO3 (C) B2O3 (D) Mg(NH4)PO4
31. Find the number of water of crystallizations in (A)-
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 24
32. How many X–O–X linkages are present in structure of A (X = central atom)-
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 2
33. Find the number of tetrahedral and trigonal planar units in structure of A -
(A) 2,1 (B) 2,2 (C) 2,4 (D) 5,2
Gently
Unknown salt (M) + conc. H2SO4 + K2Cr2O7 Reddish brown (X)
Heated
vapour
Passed into
NaOH solution
Yellow ppt. (Z) Pb (OAc)2

Yellow solution (Y)
CH3COOH
34. The salt (M) is/are-

(A) AgCl (B) NH4Cl + NaBr (C) NaBr (D) Ca(ClO4)2
35. How many non axial d-orbitals are involved in hybridisation of central atom of compound (X)-
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) None of these
36. What is the formula of yellow ppt (Z )-
(A) BaCrO4 (B) Na2CrO4 (C) Ag2CrO4 (D) PbCrO4
CATION
37. Which fo the following yellow coloured sulphide is insouble in yellow ammonium sulphide.
(A) SnS2 (B) As2S5 (C) CdS (D) Bi2S3
38. Type of sulphide ppt may be obtained in the group-II ppt during group analysis.
(A) M2S3 (B) M2S (C) MS (D) MS2
39. If reddish brown ppt (only) is obtained in group-III during group analysis, then oxidation state of
Fe in the original sample may be
(A) +2 (B) +3 (C) +2 and +3 both (D) Neither +2 nor +3
92
E
Salt Analysis
40. If NH4Cl is not added to the group-III reagent which of the following ppt could be obtained
(A) Cr(OH)2 (B) Fe(OH)3 (C) Mn(OH)2 (D) Mg(OH)2
41. In which of the following cases blue ppt is obtained
(A) Fe2+ + [Fe(CN)6]3– 

 (B) Fe2+ + [Fe(CN)6]4– 

SnCl 2
(C) Fe3+ + [Fe(CN)6]4– 
 (D) Fe3+ + [Fe(CN)6]3–  
42. What are the following steps are to be done before adding group-III reagent into the group-II filtrate.
(A) Group-II filtrate is to be evapourated to dryness
(B) Group-II filtrate is to be boiled of first
(C) After boiling 2-3 drops of dil.H2SO4 is added and boiled again.
(D) After boiling 2-3 drops of HNO3 is added and boiled again.
43. Na2HPO4 + Reagent ‘M’  white ppt. The reagent ‘M’ is -
(A) BaCl2 solution (B) AlCl3 solution (C) MnSO4 solution (D) FeCl3 solution
44. Match the column -
Column-I Column-II
(Element) (Correct characteristics)
(A) Ba (P) cation in solution produces brick red ppt. with CrO42–
(B) Pb (Q) cation in solution produces yellow ppt .with CrO42–
(C) Ag (R) corresponding salt produces apple green colour in
the flame test
(D) Ca (S) corresponding salt produces brick red colour in the
flame test
(T) cation in solution produces no ppt. with CrO42– ion
45. Column-I Column-I
Cation in solution Correct characteristics when no where excess reagent
is used
(A)Ag+ and Pb2+ (P) can be distinguished by Na2HPO4 solution
(B) Zn2+ and Mg2+ (Q) can be distinguished by dil.HCl

(C) Pb2+ and Hg22+ (R) can be distinguished by KI solution
+ 3+
(D)Ag and Fe (S) can be distinguished by NaOH solution
(T) can not be distinguished by NH4OH solution
46. How many of the following gives green ppt.
(i) CrCl3 + NaOH  (ii) CrCl3 + excess NaOH 
(iii) NiCl2 + excess NaOH  (iv) NiCl2 + excess NH4OH 
(v) Hg22+ + KI 
47. Find the no. of cation which gives white ppt with K4[Fe(CN)6]
Sr2+ Ca2+, Zn2+, Fe3+ , Cu2+
E 93
48. Unknown salt + Al-powder + NaOH (conc.)  gas comes out which turns Nesslar’s reagent brown.
The salt may be -
(A) NaNO2 (B) NaNO3 (C) NH4Cl (D) NH4HCO3
49. A white solid is first heated with dil H2SO4 and then with conc. H2SO4. No action was observed in
either case. The solid salt contains
(A) sulphide (B) sulphite (C) thiosulphate (D) sulphate
50. On passing H2S gas in II group sometimes the solution turns milky. It indicates the presence of
(A) oxidising agent (B) acidic salt (C) s-block cation (D) reducing agent.
51. A white sodium salt dissolves readily in water to give a solution which is neutral to litmus. When
silver nitrate solution is added to the solution, a white precipitate is obtained which does not dissolve
in dil. HNO3. The anion could be:
(A) CO 32 (B) Cl– (C) SO 24 (D) S2–
52. Which metal salt gives a violet coloured bead in the borax bead test (oxidising flame, cold)?
(A) Fe2+ (B) Ni2+ (C) Co2+ (D) Mn2+
53. The compound formed in the borax bead test of Cu2+ ion in oxidising flame is:
(A) Cu (B) CuBO2 (C) Cu(BO2)2 (D) None of these
54. In microcosmic salt bead test Co2+ produce blue bead due to the formation of -
(A) Cu(BO2)2 (B) NaCoPO4 (C) Co2(PO4)(BO2) (D) NaPO3
55. A pale green crystalline metal salt of M dissolves freely in water. On standing it gives a brown ppt on
addition of aqueous NaOH. The metal salt solution also gives a black ppt on bubbling H2S in basic
medium. An aqueous solution of the metal salt decolourizes the pink colour of the permanganate
solution. The metal in the metal salt solution is
(A) copper (B) aluminium (C) lead (D) iron
56. A mixture of chlorides of copper, cadmium, chromium, iron and aluminium was dissolved in water
acidified with HCl and hydrogen sulphide gas was passed for sufficient time. It was filtered, boiled
and a few drops of nitric acid were added while boiling. To this solution ammonium chloride and
sodium hydroxide were added in excess and filtered. The filtrate shall give test for
(A) sodium and iron ion (B) sodium, chromium and aluminium ion
(C) aluminium and iron ion (D) sodium, iron, cadmium and aluminium ion
57. A metal is brunt in air and the ash on moistening smells of ammonia. The metal is
(A) Na (B) Fe (C) Mg (D) Al
58. A white ppt obtained in a analysis of a mixture becomes black on treatment with NH4OH. It may be
(A) PbCl2 (B) AgCl (C) HgCl2 (D) Hg2Cl2
59. Which of the following compound on reaction with NaOH and Na2O2 gives yellow colour?
(A) Cr(OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2 (C) Al(OH)3 (D) None of these
60. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white ppt. on treatment with dil. HCl, which dissolves on
heating. When hydrogen sulphide is passed through the hot acidic solution, a black ppt. is obtained. The
substance is a
(A) Hg2+ salt (B) Cu2+ salt (C) Ag+ salt (D) Pb2+ salt
94
E
Salt Analysis
61. Which one of the following does not produce metallic sulphide with H2S?
(A) ZnCl2(Neutral soln) (B) CdCl2(aq) (C) CoCl2(aq) (D) CuCl2(aq)
62. Which is not dissolved by dil HCl?
(A) ZnS (B) MnS (C) BaSO3 (D) BaSO4
63. In Nessler’s reagent, the ion present is:
(A) HgI2– (B) HgI 24  (C) Hg+ (D) Hg2+
64. The cations present in slightly acidic solution are Fe3+, Zn2+ and Cu2+. The reagent which when added in
excess to this solution would identify and separte Fe3+ in one step is:
(A) 2 M HCl (B) 6 M NH3 (C) 6 M NaOH (D) H2S gas
65. In the separation of Cu2+ and Cd2+ in 2nd group qualitative analysis of cation, tetrammine copper (II)
sulphate and tetrammine cadmium (II) sulphate react with KCN to form the corresponding cyano
complexes. Which one of the following pairs of the complexes and their relative stability enables the
separation of Cu2+ and Cd2+?
(A) K3[Cu(CN)4] more stable and K2[Cd(CN)4] less stable.
(B) K2[Cu(CN)4] less stable and K2[Cd(CN)4] more stable.
(C) K2[Cu(CN)4] more stable and K2[Cd(CN)4] less stable.
(D) K3[Cu(CN)4] less stable and K2[Cd(CN)4] more stable.
66. Which one has the minimum solubility product?
(A) AgCl (B) AlCl3 (C) BaCl2 (D) NH4Cl
67. Which of the following sulphate is insoluble in water?
(A) CuSO4 (B) CdSO4 (C) PbSO4 (D) Bi2(SO4)3
68. A metal 'X' on heating in nitrogen gas gives 'Y' . 'Y' on treatment with H2O gives a colourless gas
which when passed through CuSO4 solution gives a blue colour Y is:
(A) Mg(NO3)2 (B) Mg3N2 (C) NH3 (D) MgO
69. Which of the following gives blood red colour with KSCN?
(A) Cu2+ (B) Fe3+ (C) Al3+ (D) Zn2+

70. The metal ion which is precipitated when H2S is passed with HCl:
(A) Zn2+ (B) Ni2+ (C) Cd2+ (D) Mn2+
71. Which one of the following metal sulphide has maximum solubility in water?
(A) HgS, Ksp =10–54 (B) CdS, Ksp=10–30
(C) FeS, Ksp =10–20 (D) ZnS, Ksp=10–22
72. Identify the correct order of solubility of Na2S, CuS and ZnS in aqueous medium is:
(A) CuS > ZnS > Na2S (B) ZnS > Na2S >CuS
(C) Na2S > CuS > ZnS (D) Na2S > ZnS > CuS
E 95
J-ADVANCED
1. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct with reference to the ferrous and ferric ions:
(A) Fe3+ gives brown colour with potassium ferricyanide [JEE 1998]
(B) Fe2+ gives blue precipitate with potassium ferricyanide
(C) Fe3+ give red colour with potassium thiocyanate
(D) Fe2+ gives brown colour with ammonium thiocyanate
2. Which of the following statement(s) is /are correct. When a mixture of NaCl and K2Cr2O7 is gently
warmed with conc. H2SO4? [JEE 1998]
(A) A deep red vapours is evolved.
(B) The vapours when passed into NaOH solution gives a yellow solution of Na2CrO4
(C) Chlorine gas is evolved
(D) Chromyl chloride is formed.
3. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate on treatment with dilute hydrochloric
acid, which dissolves on heating. When hydrogen sulphide is passed through the hot acidic solution,
a black precipitate is obtained. The substance is a : [JEE 2000]
(A) Hg 2 salt (B) Cr2+ salt (C) Ag+ salt (D) Pb2+ salt
4. A gas ‘X’ is passed through water to form a saturated solution. The aqueous solution on treatment
with silver nitrate gives a white precipitate. The saturated aqueous solution also dissolves magnesium
ribbon with evolution of a colourless gas ‘Y’. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’: [JEE 2002(Mains)]
(A) X = CO2, Y = Cl2 (B) X = Cl2, Y = CO2
(C) X = Cl2, Y = H2 (D) X = H2, Y = Cl2
5. [X] + H2SO4  [Y] a colourless gas with irritating smell [JEE 2003] Node-1\Target-2019-20\1.JEE(Main+Advanced)\Module\Leader\Chemistry\Inorganic chemistry\Eng\Q.B.
[Y] + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4  green solution

[X] and [Y] are:
(A) SO32 , SO2 (B) Cl¯, HCl (C) S2– , H2S (D) CO 32 , CO2
6. A sodium salt of an unknown anion when treated with MgCl2 give white precipitate only on boiling.
The anion is: [JEE 2004]
(A) SO 24  (B) HCO3 (C) CO 32 (D) NO 3
7. (NH4)2Cr2O7 on heating gives a gas which is also given by: [JEE 2004]
(A) heating NH4NO2 (B) heating NH4NO3
(C) Mg3N2 + H2O (D) NaNO2 + H2O2
96
E
Salt Analysis
8. A metal nitrate reacts with KI to give a black precipitate which on addition of excess of KI convert into
orange colour solution. The cation of metal nitrate is: [JEE 2005]
(A) Hg2+ (B) Bi3+ (C) Pb2+ (D) Cu+
9. A solution when diluted with H2O and boiled, it gives a white precipitate. On addition of excess
NH4Cl / NH4OH, the volume of precipitate decreases leaving behind a white gelatinous precipitate.
Identify the precipitate which dissolves in NH4OH / NH4Cl. [JEE 2006]
(A) Zn(OH)2 (B) Al(OH)3 (C) Mg(OH)2 (D) Ca(OH)2
10. CuSO4 decolourises on addition of KCN, the product is: [JEE 2006]
(A) [Cu(CN)4]2– (B) Cu2+ get reduced to form [Cu(CN)4]3–
(C) Cu(CN)2 (D) CuCN
11. Consider a titration of potassium dichromate solution with acidified Mohr’s slat solution using
diphenylamine as indicator. The number of moles of Mohr’s salt required per mole of dichromate is:
[JEE 2007]
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
12. The species present in solution when CO2 is dissolved in water are [JEE 2007]
(A) CO 2 , H 2 CO 3 , HCO 3 , CO 32 (B) H 2CO 3 , CO 32
(C) CO 32 , HCO 3 (D) CO 2 , H 2 CO 3
13. Sodium fusion extract, obtained from aniline, on treatment with iron (II) sulphate and H2SO4 in
presence of air gives a Prussian blue precipitate. The blue colour is due to the formation of :
[JEE 2007]
(A) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (B) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2
(C) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]2 (D) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]3
14. Column I Column II [JEE 2007]
(A) O2¯  O2 + O22– (P) Redox reaction

(B) CrO42– + H+  (Q) One of the products has trigonal planar structure
(C) MnO4¯ + NO2¯ + H+  (R) Dimeric bridged tetrahedral metal ion
(D) NO3¯ + H2SO4 + Fe2+  (S) Disproportionation
15. A solution of a metal ion when treated with KI gives a red precipitate which dissolves in excess KI
to give a colourless solution. Moreover, the solution of metal ion on treatment with a solution of
cobalt (II) thiocyanate gives rise to a deep blue crystalline precipitate. The metal ion is
[JEE 2007]
(A) Pb2+ (B) Hg2+ (C) Cu 2+ (D) Co2+
E 97
16. A solution of colourless salt H on boiling with excess NaOH produces a non-flammable gas. The gas
evolution ceases after sometime. Upon addition of Zn dust to the same solution, the gas evolution restarts.
The colourless salt(s) H is (are) [JEE 2008]
(A) NH4NO3 (B) NH4NO2 (C) NH4Cl (D) (NH4)2SO4

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 19
p-Amino-N, N-dimethylaniline is added to a strongly acidic solution of X. The resulting solution is treated
with a few drops of aqueous solution of Y to yield blue coloration due to the formation of methylene blue.
Treatment of the aqueous solution of Y with the reagent potassium hexacyanoferrate(II) leads to the formation
of an intense blue precipitate. The precipitate dissolves on excess addition of the reagent. Similarly, treatment
of the solution of Y with the solution of potassium hexacyanoferrate(III) leads to a brown coloration due to
the formation of Z. [JEE 2009]
17. The compound X is
(A) NaNO3 (B) NaCl (C) Na2SO4 (D) Na2S
18. The compound Y is
(A) MgCl2 (B) FeCl2 (C) FeCl3 (D) ZnCl2
19. The compound Z is
(A) Mg2[Fe(CN)6] (B) Fe[Fe(CN)6] (C) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (D) K2Zn3[Fe(CN)6]2
20. Match each of the reactions given in Column I with the corresponding product(s) given in
Column II.
(A) Cu + dil. HNO3 (P) NO
(B) Cu + conc. HNO3 (Q) NO2
(C) Zn + dil. HNO3 (R) N2O
(D) Zn + conc. HNO3 (S) Cu(NO3)2
(T) Zn(NO3)2
Passing H2S gas into a mixture of Mn2+, Ni2+, Cu2+ and Hg2+ ions in an acidified aqueous solution
21.
precipitates [JEE 2011]
(A) CuS and HgS (B) MnS and CuS (C) MnS and NiS (D) NiS and HgS
22. Reduction of the metal centre in aqueous permanganate ion involves - [JEE 2011]
(A) 3 electrons in neutral medium (B) 5 electrons in neutral medium
(C) 3 electrons in weak alkaline medium (D) 5 electrons in acidic medium
23. The equilibrium [JEE 2011]
 Cuo + CuII
2CuI 
in aqueous medium at 25°C shifts towards the left in the presence of
(A) NO3– (B) Cl– (C) SCN– (D) CN–
98
E
Salt Analysis
Paragraph for Questions Nos. 24 to 26
When a metal rod M is dipped into an aqueous colourless concentrated solution of compound N, the
solution turns light blue. Addition of aqueous NaCl to the blue solution gives a white
precipitate O. Addition of aqueous NH3 dissolves O and gives in intense blue solution. [JEE 2011]
24. The metal rod M is -
(A) Fe (B) Cu (C) Ni (D) Co
25. The compound N is -
(A) AgNO3 (B) Zn(NO3)2 (C) Al(NO3)3 (D) Pb(NO3)2
26. The final solution contains -
(A) [Pb(NH3)4]2+ and [CoCl4]2– (B) [Al(NH3)4]3+ and [Cu(NH3)4]2+
(C) [Ag(NH3)2]+ and [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (D) [Ag(NH3)2]+ and [Ni(NH3)6]2+
27. Which of the following hydrogen halides react(s) with AgNO3(aq) to give a precipitate that dissolves
in Na2S2O3(aq): [JEE 2012]
(A) HCl (B) HF (C) HBr (D) HI
28. The reaction of white phosphorus with aqueous NaOH gives phosphine along with another
phosphorus containing compound. The reaction type ; the oxidation states of phosphorus in phosphine
and the other product are respectively [JEE 2012]
(A) redox reaction ; –3 and –5 (B) redox reaction ; +3 and +5
(C) disproportionation reaction ; –3 and +1 (D) disproportionation reaction ; –3 and +3
29. For the given aqueous reactions, which of the statement(s) is (are) true ? [JEE 2012]
dilute H2SO4
excess KI + K3[Fe(CN)6] brownish-yellow solution
ZnSO4
white precipitate + brownish-yellow filtrate

Na2S2O3
colourless solution
(A) The first reaction is a redox reaction.

(B) White precipitate is Zn3[Fe(CN)6]2.
(C) Addition of filtrate to starch solution gives blue colour.
(D) White precipitate is soluble in NaOH solution.
30. Upon treatment with ammonical H2S , the metal ion that precipitates as a sulfide is -
(A) Fe(III) (B) Al(III) (C) Mg(II) (D) Zn (II) [JEE 2013]
E 99
Paragraph for Question 31 and 32
An aqueous solution of a mixture of two inorganic salts, when treated with dilute HCl, gave a precipitate
(P) and a filtrate (Q). The precipitate (P) was found to dissolve in hot water. The filtrate (Q) remained
unchanged, when treated with H2S in a dilute mineral acid medium. However, it gave a precipitate (R)
with H2S in an ammoniacal medium. The precipitate R gave a coloured solution (S), when treated with
H2O2 in an aqueous NaOH medium. [JEE 2013]
31. The coloured solution (S) contains
(A) Fe2(SO4)3 (B) CuSO4 (C) ZnSO4 (D) Na2CrO4
32. The precipitate (P) contains
(A) Pb2+ (B) Hg22+ (C) Ag+ (D) Hg2+
33. Consider the following list of reagents : [JEE Adv. 2014]
Acidifeid K2Cr2O7, alkaline KMnO4, CuSO4, H2O2 , Cl2, O3, FeCl3, HNO3 and Na2S2O3.
The total number of reagents that can oxidise aqueous iodide to iodine is
34. Among PbS, CuS, HgS, MnS, Ag2S, NiS, CoS, Bi2S3 , and SnS2 the total number of BLACK
coloured sulphides is [JEE Adv. 2014]
Paragraph for Q.No. 35 to 36
An aqueous solution of metal ion M1 reacts separately with reagents Q and R in excess to give
tetrahedral and square planar complexes, respectively. An aqueous solution of another metal ion
M2 always forms tetrahedral complexes with these reagents. Aqueous solution of M2 on reaction
with reagent S gives white precipitate which dissolves in excess of S. The reactions are summarized
in the sheme given below. [JEE Adv. 2014]
SCHEME:
Q R
Tetrahedral
excess M1 excess Square planar
Q R
Tetrahedral
excess M2 excess Tetrahedral
S, stoichiometric amount
S
White precipitate precipitate dissolves
excess
35. M1, Q and R, respectively are

(A) Zn2+, KCN and HCl (B) Ni2+, HCl and KCN
(C) Cd2+ , KCN and HCl (D) Co2+, HCl and KCN
100
E
Salt Analysis
36. Reagent S is
(A) K4[Fe(CN)6] (B) Na2HPO4 (C) K2CrO4 (D) KOH
37. Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2+ by using - [JEE Adv. 2015]
(A) H2O2 in presence of NaOH (B) Na2O2 in water
(C) H2O2 in presence of H2SO4 (D) Na2O2 in presence of H2SO4
38. The pair(s) of ions where BOTH the ions are precipitated upon passing H2S gas in presence of dilute
HCl, is(are) [JEE Adv. 2015]
(A) Ba2+, Zn2+ (B) Bi3+, Fe3+ (C) Cu2+, Pb2+ (D) Hg2+, Bi3+
39. The reagent(s) that can selectively precipiate S2– from a mixture of S2– and SO42– in aqueous soltuion
is(are) : [JEE(Adv.)-2016]
(A) CuCl2 (B) BaCl2 (C) Pb(OOCCH3)2 (D) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
40. In the following reaction sequence in aqueous soluiton, the species X, Y and Z respectively, are-
[JEE(Adv.)-2016]
2– Ag+ Ag+ With time

S2O 3 X Y Z
clear white black
solution precipitate precipitate
(A) [Ag(S2O3)2]3–, Ag2S2O3, Ag2S (B) [Ag(S2O3)3]5– , Ag2SO3, Ag2S

(C) [Ag(SO3)2]3–, Ag2S2O3, Ag (D) [Ag(SO3)3]3–, Ag2SO4, Ag
E 101
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE # II
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (B)
8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (D)
15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (C)
22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (B)
29. (B) 30. (C) 31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (B)
36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (A,C,D) 39. (A,B,C) 40. (B,C,D) 41. (A,C,D) 42. (B,D)
43. (A, B) 44. (A)  Q , R; (B)  Q ; (C)  P ; (D)  S , T
45. (A)  P, S ; (B)  T ; (C)  R, S ; (D)  Q, R, S 46. (3) 47. (2)
48. (A,B,C,D) 49. (D) 50. (A) 51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (C)
54. (B) 55. (D) 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (A) 60. (D)
61. (A,C) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (A) 66. (A) 67. (C)
68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (C) 71. (C) 72. (D)
J-ADVANCED
1. (A, B, C) 2. (A, B, C) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (A)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (D) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A)
14. (A)  P , S ; (B)  R ; (C)  P , Q ; (D)  P 15. (B) 16. (A),(B) 17. (D)
18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (A)  P,S; (B)  Q,S; (C)  R,T; (D)  Q, T 21. (A)
22. (A,C,D) 23. (B,C,D) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (A,C,D) 28. (C)
29. (A,C,D) 30. (D) 31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (7) 34. (6) / (7) 35. (B)
36. (D) 37. (A, B) 38. (C,D) 39. (A OR A, C) 40. (A)
102
E

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UNIT - LIOC – (QUESTION BANK)

CHEMICAL BONDING................................................................Pg.– 10- 23

COORDINATION CHEMISTRY .................................................Pg.–35-46

HYDROGEN & ITS COMPOUND .............................................Pg.–47-50

S-BLOCK ELEMENTS ...............................................................Pg.–51-57

p-BLOCK ELEMENTS ................................................................Pg.–58-78

d-BLOCK ELEMENTS ................................................................Pg.–79-88

SALT ANALYSIS ............................................................................ Pg.–89-102

(A) Pauli’s exclusion principle (B) Hund’s rule

(A) F  F– (B) Cl  Cl– (C) O–  O2– (D) H  H–

1.33  1.54  1.8 1.54

Statement-2 : Ionization potential is inversaly proportional to atomic size.

(A) Ni (P) Elements having number of unpaired

15. The IE1 of Be is greater than that of B. [T/F] [JEE 2001]

13. A 14. C 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. B 19. B,C

20. C 21. C 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. C 26. C

27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D 31. D 32. C 33. D

34. C 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. B,C 39. A,C

46. A,C 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. D 51. B

52. B 53. C 54. D 55. C 56. (A) R, (B) R, (C) Q, (D) S

14. B 15. True 16. B 17. B 18. 9 19. C 20. B

21. C 22. 6 23. C 24. A 25. A 26. A

BOND ANGLE / BOND LENGTH

(A) high melting points and low boiling points

(C) Dipole-dipole interaction

(A) XeF4 (B) CHCl3 (C) CO2 (D) Cl Cl

44. Which of the following have dipole moment ?

(P) Clathrate compound of Xe in ice (1) Ion - Dipole

(T) Electron(s) associated in the process involve(s) 2 p orbital

8. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural ? [JEE 2003]

H3PO4 H2SO4 H3PO3 H2CO 3 H2S 2O 7

(P) (1) p – d  antibonding

(Q) (2) d – d  bonding

(R) (3) p – d  bonding

(S) (4) d – d  antibonding

(C) occupancy of *2 p of O2 is increased (D) bond length of O2 is increased

Ans. (A) – P,R,T (B) – Q (C) – Q (D) – Q,T

11. D 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. C

16. C 17. C 18. (A)-P,Q,R,T(B)-Q,R,S,T(C)-P,Q,R(D)-P,Q,R,S

19. A,B,C 20. B,C 21. D 22. A 23. B

24. B 25. D 26. (4) 27. (0) 28. (3)

29. (6) Sol. H2SO4 H3PO3 H2CO3 H2S2O7 H2CrO4 H2SO3

30. (2) Sol. F, Na

(B) The ore is heated to a temperature when fusion just begins

cryolite and BaF2.

(P) Blistered Cu (1)Aluminium

Roasted gold ore + CN– + H2O O

Node-1\Target-2019-20\1.JEE(M ain+Advanced)\M odule\Leader\Chem istry\Inorganic chem istry\Eng\Q.B.

5 (D) 6 (A)  Q ; (B)  R ; (C)  S ; (D)  P

7 (A)  P, (B)  R ; (C)  Q, R, S (D)  Q, S 8 (A)  R ; (B)  P ; (C)  Q

9 (A)  S ; (B)  P ; (C)  Q ; (D)  R

10 (A)  S ; (B)  Q ; (C)  R ; (D)  P 11. (A)

1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A,C) 4. (C) 5. (C)

18. (A)  P ; (B)  Q ; (C)  P, R ; (D)  P, S 19. Sintering , Smelting

Node-1\Target-2019-20\1.JEE(M ain+Advanced)\M odule\Leader\Chem istry\Inorganic chem istry\Eng\Q.B.

(B) Na[BH(OCH3)3] Sodium hydridotrimethoxyborate(III)

(B) Pot assium aquadicyanidosuperoxidoperoxidochromate(III) is IUPAC name for

(B) [Pt(NH3)4] [PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4] [Pt(NH3)Cl3]2

(B) NiCl 24 , VO34 and MnO 4 have tetrahedral geometry

12. Which of the following compound(s) can show optical isomerism -

(C) [Ag(CN)2]¯ (R)  = 15 B.M.

Statement-2: Octahedral complex, [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl shows geometrical isomerism.

(III) [Cr(NO2)(NH3)5]3 [Co(NO2)6]2 (IV) Mg[Cr(NO2)5 (NH3)]