Test Booklet Code A

Stage-II
REVISION NTSE TEST SERIES
National Talent Search Examination (NTSE)

Stage-I Qualified Students

TEST PAPER - 01

PART-II : SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

 A
CODE
P-II/AP20

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Ph.: 011-47623456

Time : 2 Hrs. REVISION NTSE TEST SERIES (S-II) : TEST-1 M.M. : 100
(for Stage-I Qualified Students)

COMPLETE SYLLABUS - SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST (SAT)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1. There are 100 questions in this test. All are compulsory.
2. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of it by not
spending too much time on any one question.
3. Section-I is having 40 questions of Science (Physics, Chemistry & Biology), Section-II is having
20 questions from Mathematics and Section-III is having 40 questions of Social Science.
4. Use only Blue/Black ball point pen to darken the appropriate circle.
5. The mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
6. Darken only one circle for each question.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on the Answer sheet.
8. Each question carries 1 mark.

SECTION-I : SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :
1. The variation of displacement s and time t of a
vehicle travelling along a straight road is shown
below. The corresponding velocity time graph is
(3) O (4) O
Velocity

t 2t t 2t
Velocity

S
Time Time
Displacement

2. A person walks up a stationary escalator in t1

second. If he remains stationary on the escalator,
then it can take him up in t2 second. The time
t 2t taken by him to walk the moving escalator is
Time

2t1t 2 t1  t2
(1) (2)
t1  t 2 2
(1) (2) O
Velocity

Velocity

O t 2t
t 2t t1t 2
Time (3) (4) t1t2
Time t1  t 2

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Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X) Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A

3. In the given system, the pulley is light and (3) The velocity with which ball-2 was projected is
frictionless, string is also massless. Initially the
gh
system is in equilibrium. Now a small block C of
mass m is placed on the block B of mass M. If (4) The velocity with which ball-2 was projected is
block C always remains on block B, the normal
reaction on C due to B is gh
2

6. The gain in the potential energy of an object of

mass m raised near surface of earth through a
height h is
[Symbols have their usual meaning]

mgh
(1) mgh (2)
2
M A
3
(3) 2mgh (4) mgh
C m 2
B M 7. A person is carrying a bucket in one hand and a
fish in the other. If he puts fish in the bucket, how
2Mmg 4Mmg will the load carried by person changes?
(1) (2)
 2M  m  M  m  (1) It will increase
(2) It will decrease
(3)
Mmg
(4)
M  m  g
 M  m
2 2m
(3) No change
(4) It will depends on the mass of fish
4. Which of the following statement is correct?
8. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests
(1) Kinetic energy of a system can be changed
are 50 m apart and whose velocity is 20 m/s.
without changing its momentum
These crests reach the boat once every
(2) Kinetic energy of a system cannot be
(1) 0.2 s (2) 0.4 s
changed without changing its momentum
(3) 0.04 s (4) 2.5 s
(3) Momentum of a system cannot be changed
without changing its kinetic energy 9. If PA, PB and PC are the power dissipated in circuit
A, B and C respectively then
(4) A system cannot have energy without having
momentum R
5. Ball-1 is released from the top of a smooth inclined R R
plane, and at the same instant ball-2 is projected R
from foot of the plane with such a velocity that R R
they meet halfway up the incline. Then

ll-1
Ba V
V
(A) (B)
x h R R R
2
ll-
Ba

(1) The velocity with which ball-2 was projected is
V
2gh
(C)
(2) The velocity with which ball-2 was projected is
(1) PA > PB > PC (2) PB > PA > PC
3gh (3) PA > PC > PB (4) PC > PB > PA

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Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X)

10. A proton of mass m and charge +e is moving in 15. Consider the following part of the Modern Periodic
a circular orbit in a perpendicular magnetic field Table.
with kinetic energy 1 MeV. The kinetic energy of
1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
a particle (mass 4 m and charge +2e), so that it
can revolve in the path of same radius as that of 2
portion is 3 C B

(1) 4 MeV (2) 2 MeV 4 A D

(3) 1 MeV (4) 0.5 MeV 5

5f 6 E
11. A real object is placed at a distance from the
2 7
principal focus of a convex mirror of focal length f.
The magnification of image will be Read the given statements carefully and choose
the option containing only incorrect statements.
2 1
(1) (2) (a) ‘E’ is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
5 5

1 2 (b) The atomic number of the element just below

(3) (4) ‘D’ is 54
2 3
12. One gram of ice at 0°C is added to 5 gram of (c) ‘B’ is an electropositive element whereas ‘C’ is
water at 10°C. If the latent heat of ice be 80 cal/ an electronegative element.
g, then the final temperature of mixture is (d) ‘A’ exhibits the properties of both metals and
(1) 5°C (2) 0°C non-metals
(3) 2°C (4) –5°C (1) (c) and (d)
13. Liquid of refractive index 1.5 is contained in the (2) (a) and (b)
cavity of a glass specimen of refractive index 1.5
as shown in figure given below. If the focal length (3) (b) and (c)
of each lens is 20 cm, then the power of (4) (a) and (c)
combination of lens is
(A)
Liquid 16. Alcohol Unsaturated
hydrocarbon

(D) (B)
Glass
Carboxylic Saturated
acid hydrocarbon('S')

(C)
(1) 15 D (2) 5 D
(3) –5 D (4) –10 D Chloro
compound of 'S'
14. Consider the following table
Reactions D, C, A and B respectively are
Salt Acid used Base used
(1) Substitution, Dehydration, Addition and
P CH3COOH KOH
Oxidation
Q HNO3 NaOH
(2) Oxidation, Substitution, Dehydration and
R HCl Fe(OH) 3
Addition
The correct arrangement of the salts in the (3) Dehydration, Addition, Substitution and
decreasing order of their pH is Oxidation
(1) Q < R < P (2) P < Q < R
(4) Oxidation, Dehydration, Substitution and
(3) P > Q > R (4) P > R > Q Addition

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Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X) Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A

17. If a compound is formed by the transfer of 22. Identify the set in which all the substances have
electrons from a metal to a non-metal then which liquid dispersion medium and solid dispersed
of the following is not true about it. phase
(1) It has high melting and boiling point (1) Mud, milk of magnesia, gold sol
(2) It conducts electricity in the molten state (2) Milk, mud, rubber
(3) It is insoluble in water (3) Jelly, cheese, butter
(4) It generally exists as a solid and breaks into
(4) Starch sol, milk, butter
pieces when pressure is applied
23. Which of the following processes lead to the
18. Consider the following metals
increase in inter-molecular forces of attraction?
M1 = Does not react with dilute hydrochloric acid
(1) Melting and freezing
M2 = Most ductile metal
(2) Vaporisation and sublimation
M3 = Soft metal which reacts with cold water
vigorously (3) Liquefaction and deposition
M4 = Combines with oxygen to form amphoteric (4) Evaporation and boiling
oxide 24. Carbon dioxide is released by the thermal
The most reactive and the least reactive metal decomposition of limestone. Decomposition of
respectively is limestone gives quick lime and carbon dioxide. If
(1) M4 and M2 (2) M3 and M2 5 moles of CO2 is required for an experiment, then
(3) M3 and M1 (4) M4 and M1 the amount of limestone that must be decomposed
is
19. If the number of moles of transparent gas and the
brown coloured gas is x and y respectively emitted (1) 5 × 105 mg (2) 5000 g
by the thermal decomposition of two moles of lead (3) 5 kg (4) 5 × 102 mg
nitrate then the correct relation between x and y
25. Consider the schematic atomic structure of
will be
following elements
(1) y = x + 3 (2) x = y + 3
(3) y = x – 2 (4) x = y + 2
20. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(Salt) (Uses)
a. Washing soda (i) Makes surfaces B
smooth A C
b. Baking soda (ii) Oxidising agent
c. P. O. P (iii) Removes permanent
hardness of water
d. Bleaching powder (iv) Soda-acid fire D
extinguisher Now, choose the incorrect statement
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (1) The molar mass of the chloride of element A
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) is 95 g
21. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? (2) ‘B’ is the most electronegative element of the
(1) Each nitrogen atom in a molecule of nitrogen Modern Periodic Table
contributes three electrons (3) An isotope of element C (C-32) is used in the
(2) Number of lone pair of electrons in an oxygen treatment of leukemia
molecule is two (4) 70 g of ‘D’ contains 2.10 × 1023 atoms of ‘D’
(3) A chlorine molecule has a single covalent
26. Mass of a molecule of heavy water (D2O) is
bond
(1) 3.32 × 10–23g (2) 3.81 × 1023g
(4) Total number of C-H bonds in a cyclohexane
molecule is 12 (3) 1.89 × 10–23g (4) 13.31 × 1023g

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Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X)

27. In which of the following body organs/parts spindle

M
shaped involuntary muscle fibres are found? 31. -

P
ha
(1) Heart (2) Urinogenital tract

se
d a

In terphase
(3) Pharynx (4) Limbs
28.  They breathe through lungs and are warm-
blooded animals.
c b
 Larynx is absent in them.
 They have pneumatic bones.
How many of the following animals have all the
given characteristics? In which of the following phases of cell cycle in the
given representation, replication of DNA takes
(a) Draco place?
(b) Varanus (1) b
(c) Psittacula (2) a
(d) Pteropus (3) d
(e) Tyto (4) c
(f) Necturus 32. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Five (2) Three correct option.

(3) Two (4) Four Column-I Column-II

(Water harvesting (Areas)
29. Organs Effects of adrenaline structures)
Breathing rate (i) a. Ahars (i) Kerala
(ii) Conversion of b. Surangams (ii) Bihar
glycogen to glucose
c. Kattas (iii) Rajasthan
Arterioles (iii)
of the skin d. Khadins (iv) Karnataka
Muscles (iv)
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
Select the option that correctly identifies (i), (ii), (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(iii) and (iv) in the given table.
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) (i)-Decreases, (ii)-Stomach, (iii)-Constrict,
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(iv)-Contract
(2) (i)-Increases, (ii)-Muscles, (iii)-Dilate, (iv)-Relax 33.
(3) (i)-Decreases, (ii)-Stomach, (iii)-Dilate, Sun
(iv)-Relax
(4) (i)-Increases, (ii)-Liver, (iii)-Constrict, Plant  Deer  Jackal  Tiger
(iv)-Contract
If the energy assimilated by jackal in the given food
30. Select the option which includes only the animals chain is 0.5 J, then what amount of solar energy
with closed circulatory system. fell on the plant?
(1) Unio, Mussel, Pila (1) 500 J
(2) Octopus, Loligo, Sepia (2) 50 J
(3) Loligo, Prawn, Sepia (3) 5 kJ
(4) Mussel, Unio, Octopus (4) 0.5 kJ

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Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X) Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A

34. The substrate ‘S’ binds to the active site of the 37. Kranti and Pusa Bold are high yielding varieties of
enzyme for which it has to diffuse towards the
(1) Wheat
active site to form an ES complex.
(2) Maize
(3) Mustard

Velocity of reaction (v)

(4) Sunflower
P
38. Which of the following statements are true
regarding the six-kingdom classification system
given by Carl Woese?
(i) He introduced the kingdoms Archaebacteria
Substrate and Eubacteria instead of the kingdom Fungi.
concentration [S]
(ii) Mycoplasma which infects animals and plants
The given graph shows the effect of change in the belongs to archaebacteria.
concentration of substrate on enzyme activity, X-
(iii) There is absence of peptidoglycan in the cell
axis represents the substrate concentration and
the Y-axis represents the velocity of reaction. walls of archaebacteria.

Consider the given statements regarding the graph (iv) The plasma membrane of archaebacteria has
shown above and select the correct option. branched chain lipids instead of lipid bilayer.
(a) Increasing the substrate concentration at point (v) Cyanobacteria are eubacteria and are the
‘P’, increases the velocity of the enzymatic most primitive organisms to have oxygenic
reaction. photosynthesis.
(b) At point ‘P’, the enzyme molecules become (1) (ii), (iii) and (v)
fully saturated.
(2) (i) and (iv) only
(1) Both (a) and (b) are true
(3) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(2) Only (a) is true
(3) Only (b) is true (4) (ii) and (v) only

(4) Both (a) and (b) are false 39. The causative agent of disease sleeping sickness
35. If a Snapdragon plant producing pink flowers is is transmitted by the vector
crossed with another Snapdragon plant producing (1) Glossina
white flowers, then the phenotypic ratio for the
(2) Phlebotomus
flower colour obtained in F1 generation would be
(1) Red : Pink : White (3) Sand fly

1 : 2 : 1 (4) Culex mosquito

(2) Red : White 40. Statement-I : In binary fission, no part of the
3 : 1 parent body is left unused.
(3) Red : Pink Statement-II : Meiotic division involves crossing
1 : 1 over between the homologous pair of
chromosomes and also the copying of DNA,
(4) Pink : White
which is not absolutely accurate.
1 : 1
Consider the given statements and select the
36. Formation of flightless birds from flying birds correct option.
shows
(1) Only statement-I is incorrect
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Progressive evolution (2) Only statement-II is incorrect

(3) Retrogressive evolution (3) Both the statements are correct

(4) Artificial selection (4) Both the statements are incorrect

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Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X)

SECTION-II : MATHEMATICS

41. The greatest and the smallest number amongst 46. Two cones having same height and their radii
1 3 2 1 (in cm) are the roots of equation x2 – 9x + 13 = 0
8 20
4 ,2 ,3 15 and 9 9 are respectively are melted and recast into a solid cube having
edge of 5.5 cm. Then, the height of each cone is
1 3 1 2
(1) 9 9 and 2 20 (2) 4 8 and 315 (1) 5.7125 (2) 3.4125 cm
(3) 2.3875 cm (4) 2.8875 cm
1 3 1 2
(3) 4 8 and 2 20 (4) 9 9 and 3 15 47. A person walks towards a tower. Initially when he
starts, angle of elevation of the top of the tower is
42. If m = (n + 1) and n is a positive integer, then 45°. On travelling 45 metres towards the tower in
m(m + 1) (m + 5) is exactly divisible by 30 minutes, the angle changes to 60°. Then how
(1) 5 (2) 8 much more time (approximately) he has to travel to

(3) 6 (4) 9 
reach the tower Use 3  1.73 is 
(1) 39 min (2) 40 min
43. If  and  are the roots of the quadratic equation
x2 – 5x + 5 = 0 and an = n – n, then the value (3) 41 min (4) 42 min
a  5a10 48. For the equation 3|x|2 – 5|x| + 2 = 0
of 12 is
a11
(1) There are only two rational roots
(1) 10 (2) 8
(2) There are only two irrational roots
5
(3) 5 (4) (3) Product of rational roots is positive
2
(4) Product of irrational roots is negative
44. In the adjoining figure, ABC is a triangle right
angled at A and its incircle C1 has radius 8 cm and 49. In right triangle ABC, right angled at B. If D is the
a circle C2 of radius 2 cm touches sides AB, BC mid-point of AC, E is the mid-point of AD and F is
and the circle C1. Then, the length BC is the mid-point of CD, then (BE2 + BF2) equals

C (1) 5AC2 (2) 8AC2

5 8
(3) AC 2 (4) AC 2
8 5

C1 50. In a quadrilateral ABCD, E is the mid-point of BD,

F and G are the mid-points of CE and AE
C2
8 cm respectively. Then area of the shaded region is
2 cm
C
A B D
F
100
(1) cm (2) 56 cm
3 E
G
200 56
(3) cm (4) cm
3 3
B
A
45. The rational roots of the cubic equation – x3 5kx2
+ 31kx – 15k2 = 0 are in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. The 1
possible values of k is/are (1) ar  ABCD  (2) ar(AEB)
2
(1) 0 only (2) 2 only
1
(3) ar(CED) (4) ar  ABCD 
(3) 4 only (4) 0, 4 4

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Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X) Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A

51. Two dice are thrown together. The probability of 56. If the ratio of supplement of angle x and
getting a sum as a prime number is complement of angle y is 5 : 2, then the value of
(5y – 2x) is
5 7
(1) (2) (1) 45° (2) 72°
12 12
(3) 90° (4) 58°
11 19
(3) (4) 57. The condition for which the equations 5x – ky = 5
36 36 and kx – 4y = 3 are consistent with unique
52. If two vertex of an equilateral triangle are (a, b) and solution is
(–a, b) then third vertex can be
(1) k  2 5 only
(1) 0, a  3b  (2) 0, b  3a  (2) k   2 5 only
(3) k  2 5 or k   2 5
(3)  b  3a,0  (4) a  3b,0  (4) k  2 5 or k   2 5
53. If 4 sin2   4 3 cos   7, where  lies in first
1 2  2 3  3 4 
quadrant, then the value of 58. The value of   2     2     2   ...
n n  n n  n n 
cos4   2  sec 4   2 is up to n-terms is
1  2 2 2
(1) 7 3 (2) 6 3 (1) n  3 (2) n  3
2n   n 
7 3 6 3 2 1
(3)
6
(4) (3)  n  3 (4)  2  3n 
7 n 2n
54. The average weight of 25 students in a class is 59. S1 and S2 are two arithmetic progressions having
22.4 kg. One student leaves the class, now d1 and d2 be their common difference. If d1 is 2
average becomes 22 kg. If another student join the more than d2 and the first terms of S1 and S2 are
class than average becomes 23 kg, the sum of 3 and 9 respectively, then the difference between
the 10th term of S1 and 10th term of S2 is
weights of both the students is
(1) 20 (2) 12
(1) 32 kg (2) 82 kg
(3) 18 (4) 30
(3) 79 kg (4) 47 kg
60. The minimum value of p(x) = 4x2 – 7x + 8 occurs
55. The mean of the median, the mode and the range at x equals
of the following data
7 7
20, 58, 43, 37, 84, 43, 33, 72, 67, 43 is (1) (2)
8 4
(1) 43 (2) 50 8 4
(3) (4)
(3) 63 (4) 56 7 7

SECTION-III : SOCIAL SCIENCE

61. Match the following 62. Consider the following statement
(i) Hind Swaraj (A) January 1921 Statement-I : During Non-Cooperation movement,
council elections were boycotted in provinces.
(ii) Jallianwala Bagh (B) 13th April 1919
Statement-II : Justice party in Madras also
(iii) Non-Cooperation (C) 1909 boycotted council election.
–Khilafat Movement
Select the correct option.
(iv) Inland Emigration (D) 1859 (1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and
Act statement-II is correct explanation of
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) statement-I
(1) A D C B (2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
statement-II is not correct explanation of
(2) B C D A statement-I
(3) C B A D (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong
(4) B C A D (4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is wrong

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Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A
63. Consider the following statement :
Statement-I : Printing by rubbing paper against
the inked surface of woodblocks was first invented
in China.
Statement-II : Shanghai became the hub of the
new culture in the late 19th century, catering to the
western-style schools.
Select the correct option.
(1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and
statement-II is correct explanation of
statement-I
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
statement-II is not correct explanation of
statement-I
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is
wrong
64. Consider the following statement
Statement-I : The effects of Non-Cooperation on
the economic front were more dramatic.
Statement-II : The Non-Cooperation movement in
the cities gradually slowed down for a variety of
reasons.
Select the correct option.
(1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and
statement-II is correct explanation of
statement-I
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
statement-II is not correct explanation of
statement-I
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
wrong
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is
wrong
65. Consider the following statement
Statement-I : There was large-scale industrial
production for an international market even before
factories began to dot the landscape in England.
Statement-II : System of production before
industrial revolution in England is called proto-
industrialisation.
Select the correct option.
(1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and
statement-II is correct explanation of
statement-I
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
statement-II is not correct explanation of
statement-I
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Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X)
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
wrong
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is
wrong
66. Consider the following statement
Statement-I : Masulipatnam on the Coromandel
coast and hooghly in Bengal had trade links with
South-East Asian Ports.
Statement-II : A variety of Indian merchants and
bankers were involved in this network of export
trade.
Select the correct option.
(1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and
statement-II is correct explanation of
statement-I
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
statement-II is not correct explanation of
statement-I
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is
wrong
67. Consider the following statement
Statement-I : Napoleon becomes emperor of
France in 1804.
Statement-II : Napoleon was defeated at Waterloo
in 1815.
Select the correct option.
(1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and
statement-II is correct explanation of
statement-I
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
statement-II is not correct explanation of
statement-I
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is
wrong
68. Consider the following statement :
Statement-I : At the beginning of the twentieth
century, the vast majority of Russia's people were
agriculturists.
Statement-II : About 85 percent of the Russian
empire's population earned their living from
agriculture.
Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X) Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A

Select the correct option. A B C

(1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and (1) 1 2 3
statement-II is correct explanation of (2) 3 2 1
statement-I
(3) 2 1 3
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
statement-II is not correct explanation of (4) 2 3 1
statement-I 72. Who led the procession of worker to the Winter
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong Palace which was attacked by the police leading
to “bloody Sunday” in Russia in 1905?
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is wrong
(1) Lenin (2) Stalin
69. Consider the following statement
(3) Kerensky (4) Father Gapon
Statement-I : In 1933, Hitler said, 'In my state the
mother is the most important citizen'. 73. The commune of farmers in Russia was known as

Statement-II : In Nazi Germany all mothers were (1) Tsar (2) Duma
not treated equally. (3) Mir (4) Cossacks
Select the correct option. 74. In the Russian civil war, the Bolshevik and the
(1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and Socialist Revolutionaries were represented by
statement-II is correct explanation of which of the following colours respectively?
statement-I (1) Whites and reds (2) Greens and whites
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but (3) Reds and greens (4) Yellow and white
statement-II is not correct explanation of 75. At the beginning of 20th century, the majority of
statement-I Russian people worked in the
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (1) Industrial sector (2) Agricultural sector
wrong
(3) Mining sector (4) Transport sector
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is
wrong 76. Consider the following statement
70. Consider the following statement Statement-I : United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development (UNCED) was held
Statement-I : Brandis set up the Indian forest
in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
service in 1874 and helped to formulate the Indian
forest act of 1865. Statement-II : UNCED that was held in 1992 is
commonly called Earth Summit.
Statement-II : Imperial forest research institute
was set up at Dehradun in 1906. Select the correct option.
Select the correct option. (1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and
statement-II is correct explanation of
(1) Statement-I and II are correct and statement-II
statement-I
is correct explanation of statement-I
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
Statement-II is not correct explanation of
Statement-II is not correct explanation of
statement-I
statement-I
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
wrong
wrong
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is
wrong
wrong
77. Consider the following statement
71. Match the following leaders and their respective
area of movement. Statement-I : Gross cropped area is an area sown
more than once in an agricultural year plus Net
Names Area
sown area.
(A) Sidhu and Kanhu (1) Santhal Parganas
Statement-II : National forest policy of 1952 laid
(B) Birsa Munda (2) Chotanagpur emphasis on maintaining 33 percent of a
(C) Alluri Sitaram Raju (3) Andhra Pradesh geographical area as forest area.

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Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X)

Select the correct option. A B C D

(1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and (1) i iv ii iii
statement-II is correct explanation of (2) i iii ii iv
statement-I
(3) iv iii ii i
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
Statement-II is not correct explanation of (4) i ii iii iv
statement-I 82. Consider the following statement
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is Statement-I : Rice is a commercial crop in
wrong Odisha and a subsistence crop in Punjab and
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is wrong Haryana.
78. With reference to red and yellow soil, consider the Statement-I : Wheat is a Rabi crop.
following statement. Select the correct option.
Statement-I : Red soils develop on crystalline (1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and
igneous rocks in areas of low rainfall. statement-II is correct explanation of
Statement-II : Red soil develop reddish colour due statement-I
to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic (2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
rock and yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form. statement-II is not correct explanation of
Select the correct option. statement-I
(1) Statement-I and II are correct and II is correct (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong
explanation of I (4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but wrong
statement-II is not correct explanation of 83. Which of the following is/are Bio- diesel crops?
statement-I
(1) Jatropha
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong
(2) Jojoba
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is wrong
(3) Jatropha and jojoba
79. This programme has been in formal existence since
1988 and Odisha was the first state to implement (4) Wheat
it. Identify the programme 84. Match the following
(1) Project Tiger State Nuclear Power Plant
(2) Rooftop Rainwater harvesting (A) Tamil Nadu (i) Kakrapar
(3) Joint Forest Management (B) Karnataka (ii) Tarapur
(4) Project Rhino (C) Maharashtra (iii) Kaiga
80. Which of the following species are rare species as (D) Gujarat (iv) Kalpakkam
per international Union for conversation of nature A B C D
and natural resources?
(1) iv iii ii i
(i) Himalayan brown bear
(2) i ii iii iv
(ii) Wild Asiatic buffalo
(3) ii iii i iv
(iii) Desert fox
(4) iii ii iv i
(iv) Asiatic Cheetah
85. Match the following
Select the correct option
State Copper Mines
(1) (i) and (iv) (2) (iii) and (iv)
(A) Madhya Pradesh (i) Balaghat Mines
(3) (ii), (iii), and (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii)
(B) Rajasthan (ii) Khetri mines
81. Match the following rivers and dams built on these
rivers (C) Jharkhand (iii) Singhbhum
Rivers Dams A B C
(A) Sutlej (i) Bhakra -Nangal (1) i ii iii
(B) Ganga (ii) Narora (2) ii i iii
(C) Krishna (iii) Koyna (3) iii ii i
(D) Damodar (iv) Konar (4) i iii ii

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Part-II_Scholastic Aptitude Test (Class-X) Revision NTSE Test Series (S-II) Test-1A

86. Consider the following statement 92. Which of the following is are National party in
Statement-I : Kolkata is an inland riverine and a India?
tidal port. (i) Telugu Desam Party (TDP)
Statement-II : Haldia Port was developed as a (ii) Forward Bloc (FB)
subsidiary port.
(iii) All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)
Select the correct option.
(1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and (iv) Nationalist Congress Party (NCP)
statement-II is correct explanation of (1) Only (i) (2) (i) and (ii)
statement-I
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (iii) and (iv)
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
Statement-II is not correct explanation of 93. Who among the following is the supreme
statement-I commander of defense of India?
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (1) President (2) Prime Minister
wrong (3) Army Chief (4) Defence Minister
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is
94. Which among the following is the final authority for
wrong
making laws in India?
87. The wet and swampy belt of northern region of
India is locally known as (1) Parliament (2) President
(1) Bhabar (2) Tarai (3) Judiciary (4) Prime Minister
(3) Doab (4) Bhangar 95. When was the Sedition Act passed?
88. A narrow gap in a mountain range providing (1) 1970 (2) 1870
access to the other side is called
(3) 1860 (4) 1880
(1) Mound (2) Pass
(3) Strait (4) Valley 96. A cheque is a paper _______ the bank to pay a
specific amount from the person's account to the
89. Which Islands of India are composed of small coral
person in whose name the cheque has been
islands?
made?
(1) Lakshadweep
(1) Instructing (2) Authorizing
(2) Andaman & Nicobar Island
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) Guaranteeing (4) Permitting
(4) New Moore Island 97. When the United Nations adopted the UN
90. What are lesser Himalayas known as? Guidelines for consumer Protection?
(1) Himadri (2) Himachal (1) 1985 (2) 1990
(3) Shivaliks (4) Purvanchal (3) 1995 (4) 2005
91. Consider the following statement 98. In a matter of years, our markets have been
Statement-I : Equal Remuneration Act 1976 transformed. This is mainly due to
provides that equal wages should be paid to equal (1) Globalization (2) Liberalisation
work under certain circumstances
(3) Privatization (4) Nationalization
Statement-II : Women and men are paid equal
wages in India. 99. "OPERATION FLOOD" is related to
Select the correct option. (1) Control Flood (2) Produce Fish
(1) Statement-I and statement-II are correct and (3) Milk Production (4) Grain Production
statement-II is correct explanation of
statement-I 100. A person has six members in his family and lives
in slums of Delhi. He will be considered below
(2) Statement-I and statement-II are correct but
poverty line if his income is below ______ per
statement-II is not correct explanation of
month.
statement-I
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong (1) `5000 (2) `6000
(4) Statement-II is correct but statement-I is wrong. (3) `4896 (4) `3896
‰ ‰ ‰
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