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1.

___ is the error attributable to the various components of the VOR equipment
in the aircraft. (airborne equipment error)
2. The interrogation pulse pair spacing from aircraft to ground station in Y mode
is ___. (36 microseconds or usec)
3. It has more than 350 operational references worldwide. (TACAN 551)
4. These are randomly spaced pairs as filler pulses for the transmitter duty cycle.
(squitter)
5. The ___ emits an AM wave with a modulated frequency of 3000 Hz. (inner
marker)
6. The VOR system operates in the VHF frequency band ___. (108.0 to 117.95
MHz)
7. In DME operating modes, this mode is when transmissions are inhibited, the
receiver and audio are operative. The DME displays shows four dashes to
indicate no computed data. (standby mode)
8. A runway intended for the operation of aircraft using visual approach
procedure. (non-instrument runway)
9. Allow operations with a decision height and visibility corresponding to Category
I, or II, or III. (precision runway)
10. The ___ is used to mark the point of transition from an approach by instruments
to a visual one. (middle marker)
11. This is a systematic error associated with the transmitter, aerial and earth
systems and power supply that is with the actual ground equipment. (ground
station error)
12. The ___ is located 5.556/11.112 km from the runway’s threshold. (outer
marker)
13. The interrogation pulse pairs spacing from aircraft to ground station is X mode
is___. (12 microseconds)
14. It is a transponder-based radio navigation technology that measures slant
range distance by timing the propagation delay of VHF or UHF radio signals.
(distance measuring equipment)
15. Beginning of runway for landing. (runway threshold)
16. In this DME Operating mode, the transmitter will broadcast the maximum
number of pulse pairs (up to 150 pulse-pairs/sec) until it receives a specific
number of reply pulses. (search mode)
17. DME was developed in Australia, invented by ___. (Edward George “Taffy”
Bowen) (with or without taffy)
18. ___ serves as a visual aiming point for a landing aircraft. (aiming point)
19. Enumerate the 2 categories of a VOR. Specify the names Category A and B.
(Category A – Normal VHF Omnidirectional Range beacon for en-route
navigation | Category B – Terminal VHF Omnidirectional Range)
20. Enumerate the disadvantages of Low-Frequency 4-course radio range. (1.
Limited number of courses available. | 2. Poor signal/noise ratio | 3. Fatigue
caused by listening to the tones | 4. Difficulty of identifying the course.)
21. In VOR ___ is the frequency band of Category A and ___ for Category B.
(Provide space before the unit). (108.00 to 117.95 MHz | 108.00 to 112 MHz)
22. The basic principle of operation of the VOR is very simple: the VOR facility
transmits two signals at the same time. One signal is ___ in all directions, while
the other is ___ about the station. The ___ equipment receives both signals,
looks (electronically) at the difference between the two signals, and interprets
the result as a ___ from the station. (constant | rotated | airborne | radial)
23. Enumerate the different VOR errors. (Ground Station Error | Site Effect Error |
Terrain Effect | Vertical Polarization (Altitude Effects) | Airborne Equipment
Error | Aggregate Error)
24. VOR transmissions are ___ polarized, however signals ___ from terrain can
become vertically polarized. When the aircraft is ___, this can cause some
abnormal movement of the ___ or RMI needle. (horizontally | reflected | banked
| Course Deviation Indicator)
25. TACAN in general can be described as the ___ version of the VOR-DME
system. It operates in the frequency band ___. The bearing unit of TACAN is
more ___ than a standard VOR since it makes use of a ___ principle, with ___
and ___ components. (military | 960-1215 MHz | accurate | two frequency | 15
Hz | 135 Hz)
26. The DME ___ on the aircraft is designed to automatically ___ to the
corresponding DME frequency when the associated ___ is selected on the ___.
(interrogator | tune | VOR frequency | NAV receiver)
27. The ___ system is nowadays the primary system for ___ approach for
conditions of operation minimums and it provides the ___ as well as the ___
guidance necessary for an accurate landing approach in IFR (Instrument Flight
Rules) conditions, thus in conditions of limited or reduced ___. (Instrument
Landing System | instrumental | horizontal | vertical | visibility)
28. Enumerate the types of Runway approach. (Non-Instrument Runway |
Instrument Runway | Non-Precision Runway | Precision Runway)
29. Enumerate the components of ILS for ground installations. (Ground Localizer
Antenna | Ground Glide Path Antenna | Marker Beacons)
30. ___ is used to manually rotate the course card. (Omni Bearing Selector)
31. The ___ is an internationally normalized system for navigation of aircrafts upon
the final approach for landing. (Instrument Landing System)
32. A ___ is an approved descent procedure using a navigation facility aligned
with a runway where glide slope information is given. (Precision Approach)
33. The first scheduled passenger airliner to land using ILS was in ___. (1938)
34. An error due to the topographical features surrounding the ground station and
affecting the signal. (Site Effect Error)
35. The algebraic sum of all the VOR errors is called ___. (Aggregate Error)
36. An instrument runway served by visual aids and a non-visual aid providing at
least lateral guidance adequate for a straight-in approach. (Non-Precision
Runway)
37. ___ is an instrument that display only DME related information. (Standalone
instrument)
38. If pulse-pairs from any station are not received after a short period of time
(approx .2 seconds), the interrogator goes into memory mode, where by
distance is calculated from the most recently received pulse-pairs. (memory
mode)
39. DME ground and on-board equipment use UHF radio frequency band between
___. (962MHz and 1213MHz)
40. This error is caused by the radial being reflected or 'rippled' as it passes over
rough terrain between the station and the aircraft. (terrain effects)
41. ___ is a measure of an aircraft's position relative to the DME station that
incorporates the height of the aircraft, its angle from the ground station and its
unknown ground range based upon a 90° angle. (slant range)
42. ___ is calibrated from 0 to 360°, which indicates the VOR bearing chosen as
the reference to fly TO or FROM. (Rotating Course Card)
43. This arrow will point up, or towards the nose of the aircraft, when flying TO the
VOR station. (TO-FROM indicator)
44. This is the overload of a DME station caused by large numbers of aircraft
interrogations. (station saturation)
45. The first point for the aircraft should touch the runway during landing.
(Touchdown zone)
46. Is a short range navigation aid operating in the VHF band which provides the
pilot with a track to steer to the VOR beacon and also deviation left or right of
any selected track. (VHF Omnidirectional Range)
47. As the DME receives a valid reply for its own pulse-pairs, it enters in Track
mode and reduces the pulse repetition frequency to 25 pulse-pairs/sec, in order
to free up band space for other airborne DMEs. (Track Mode)
48. A runway intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument approach
procedures. (Instrument Runway)
49. ___ are navigational aids which are mainly used by aircraft. (radio ranges)
50. This needle swings left or right indicating the direction to turn to return to
course. (course deviation indicator)
51. ___ is the randomly varying space between the pulse-pairs sent by the
interrogator. (Jitter)
52. ___ is a polar-coordinate type radio air navigation system that provides an
aircrew with distance information, from distance measuring equipment (DME),
and bearing (azimuth) information. (Tactical Air Navigation)

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