HYDRAULIC SYSTEM

PASCALL’S LAW
“If a force is applied to a liquid in a confined space, then this force will be felt equally
in all directions”.
BRAMAH’S PRESS
a) The smaller the area under load, the greater the pressure generated.
b) The larger the area under pressure, the greater will be the load available.
The ideal properties of a hydraulic fluid are:
a) 2
e relatively incompressible, i.e. up to 2.7.6 MN/m (276 Bar), so ensuring
instantaneous operation.
b) Have good lubricating properties for metal and rubber
c) Have good viscosity with a high boiling point (helps prevent vapour locking and
cavitation) and low freezing point e.g. temperature range +80°C to -70°C.
d) Have a flash point above 100°C.
e) Be non-flammable.
f) Be chemically inert.
g) Be resistant to evaporation.
h) Have freedom from sludging and foaming.
i) Have good storage properties.
BASIC SYSTEM
There are six main components common to all hydraulic systems:
A reservoir of oil, which delivers oil to the pump and receives oil from the
actuators.
A pump, either hand, engine or electrically driven.
A selector or control valve, enabling the operator to select the direction of the flow
of Fluid to the required service and providing a return path for the oil to the
reservoir.
A jack, or set of jacks or actuators, to actuate the component.
A filter, to keep the fluid clean.
A relief valve, as a safety device to relieve excess pressure.
OPEN-CENTRE SYSTEM
The main advantage of this system is that it is simple, the main disadvantage is
that only one service can be operated at a time.
The relief valve will relieve excess pressure if the selected does not return to its
neutral position.
This type of system is popular in many light aircraft which do not require a constant
pressure to be maintained all the time as only items like landing gear and flaps
will be powered for short periods of time each fligh

With this type of system, operating pressure is maintained in that part of the
system which leads to the selector valves, and some method is used to
prevent over-loading the pump. In systems which employ a fixed volume
pump (constant delivery) an automatic cut-out valve is fitted, to divert pump
output to the reservoir when pressure has built up to normal operating
pressure.

1. Emergency supply is taken from the bottom of the reservoir

2. Stack pipe even if the level drops below min level stack pipe keeps its own
reserve
3. Fins and Baffles – to prevent swirling and surging of fluids in a turning flight.
4. De-aerator tray – removes any dissolved gases from the returning fluid.
5. Working fluid level is lower than fluid level with system switched off
6. Vent prevents creation of partial vacuum in the tank.
7. Primary F (n) is to supplement main pump under peak load
x
c

8. Piston separtes gas & fluid.

9. Initially, gas Px or Air gas in accumulator will cause Px fluctuations leading to
Tran quelling (Acov).

● To allow ground servicing to take place without the need for engine running to
operate cargo doors etc.
● So that lines and joints can be pressure tasted.
● For emergency lowering of ldg. gear in some aircraft
1. Liquid boils when its vapour Px is more than Ambiant Px.
2. At high altitudes fluids boils early (evaporate) due to lox Px.
3. This is the reason why all the tanks (Fuel tank, water tank, hydraulic tank should
be pressurized to prevent evaporate at high altitude and also to prevent pump
cavitation by providing fluid at a post Px to the pump inlet.
4. The primary purpose of reservoir is no store fluids to compensate for small balls.

RESERVOIRS
A reservoir provides both storage space for the system fluid, and sufficient air space
to allow for variations of fluid in the system which may be caused by:
● Jack (actuator) ram displacement, since the capacity of the jack is less when
contracted than extended.
● Thermal expansion, since the volume of oil increases with temperature.
● It provides a head of fluid for the pump.
● It compensates for small leaks.
● Most reservoirs are pressurized, to provide a positive fluid pressure at the pump
inlet, and to prevent air bubbles from forming in the fluid at high altitude.
● Air pressure is normally supplied from the compressor section of the engine, of
the cabin pressurization system or by compressed cylinders of N2, Nitrogen.

PUMPS
Draw oil from the reservoir and deliver a supply of fluid to the system. Pumps may
be:
a) Hand Operated
b) Engine Driven
c) Electric Motor Driven
d) Pneumatically (Air Turbine Motor) (ATM)
e) Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
f) Hydraulically (Hyd, Motor Driving A Hyd. Pump) known as a power transfer
unit or PTD. In most cases the ATM, RAT or PTU is used to provide an
alternate supply as part of the redundancy provision for the safe operation of
the aircraft.
Engine driven pumps (EDP) or electrically driven pumps may be classified as
follows:
1. Constant Delivery (Fixed Volume) Type Pump –
 i) Output is X RPM
ii) Must have fluid at positive Px at pump inlet, to prevent
cavitation
iii) Constant volume pump has to have on Acav.
This pump supplies fluid at a constant rate and therefore needs an automatic cut-out
or relief valve to return the fluid t the reservoir when the jacks have reached the end
of their travel, and when the system is not operating, it requires an idling circuit.
Axial pump/constant Px pump/variable volume pump upon engine shut-down swash
plates stops at Max. Stroke angle for immediate Px build-up on next start.

Constant Pressure (Variable Volume) Pump – This pump supplies fluid at a

variable volume and controls its own pressure, this type of pump is typically fitted in
modern aircraft whose systems operate at 3,000-4,000 psi. It is GOVERNED BY
THE CONTROL PISTON
AUTOMATIC CUT OUT VALVES (ACOV)
A automatic cut-out valve (ACOV) is fitted to a system employing a constant delivery
(fixed volume) pump, to control system pressure and to provide the pump with an
idling circuit when no services have been selected.
An ACCUMULATOR is fitted as part of the power system when a cut out is fitted,
since any slight leakage through components, or form the system, would result in
frequent operation of the cut-out, and frequent loading and unloading of the pump.
The accumulator maintains the system pressure when the pump is in its ‘cut out’
position.
The automatic cut-out valve in its ‘cut in’ position allows the delivery from the pump
to pass through the non return valve and pressurize the system. When system
pressure has been reached the piston is forced upwards by the pressure acting
underneath it and opens the poppet valve allowing the output of the pump to pass to
the reservoir at low pressure. The ACOV is now in its ‘cut out’ position allowing the
pump to be offloaded but still maintaining a lubricating and cooling flow.
The Ram Air Turbine, or RAT, is designed to give limited hydraulic power ot the
primary services in the event the normal hydraulic power generation system fails
shows the RAT, which consists of a variable pitch propeller driving a small hydraulic
pump via a gearbox.
When not in use, the RAT is held in a bay, which is normally located in the underside
of the aircraft, by main system pressure. When stowed, the RAT’s propeller blades
are kept in the feathered position.
RAT provides services to
1. Flight Controls & Brakes

RAM AIR TURBINE

HYDRAULIC ACCUMULATORS
An accumulator is fitted:
a) To store hydraulic fluid under pressure.
b) To dampen pressure fluctuations.
c) To allow for thermal expansion
d) To provide an emergency supply of fluid to the system in the event of pump
failure.
e) To prolong the period between cut-out and cut-in time of the ACOV and so
reduce the wear on the pump
f) Provides the initial fluid when a selection is made and the pump is cut-out.

The gas side of the accumulator is charged to predetermined pressure with air
and Nitrogen

Incorrect pre-charge pressure of the main accumulator can cause the ACOV to
cut in and out too frequently.

This may cause rapid fluctuations of system pressure which can be felt and heard
as ‘hammering’ in the system. (Poppat valve is making noise)

The initial gas charge of the accumulator is greater than the pressure required to
operate any service, and the fluid volume is usually sufficiently large to operate
any service once. Gas is compressed until it equalizes the normal system
pressure.

HYDRAULIC LOCK
When fluid is trapped between the piston of the jack and a non-return valve, a
“hydraulic lock” is said to be formed. Because the fluid is incompressible and is
unable to flow through the system, THE PISTON CANNOT MOVE even if a load
is applied to it and is therefore locked in its position.

PRESSURE CONTROL
BALL-TYPE RELIEF VALVE

Relief valves for:

All act as safety devices to relieve excess pressure in the system back to
reservoir
 Pressure Maintaining Valves. A pressure maintaining valve, or priority valve, is
basically a relief valve which maintains the pressure in a primary service at a
value suitable for operation of that service, regardless of secondary service
requirements.

PRESSURE MAINTAINING VALVE OR PRIORITY VALVE

FLOW CONTROL VALVES - RESTRICTOR VALVE :- CONTROLS RATE OF

FLOW OF FLUID
The components described in this paragraph are used to control the flow of fluid
to the various services operated by the hydraulic system.
a) Non-return Valves - The most common device used to control the flow of
fluid is the non-return valve, which permits full flow in one direction, but blocks
flow in the opposite direction. Simple ball-type non-return valves are included.

b) Restrictor Valves (or choke).

A restrictor valve may be similar in construction to a non-return valve, but a

restrictor valve is designed to permit limited flow in one direction and full flow
in the other direction. THIS REGULATED CONTROL IS NEED IN
OPERATION OF LANDING GEAR AND FALPS ALLOWING A DELAY IN
TIME.
Shuttle Valves - These are often used in landing gear and brake systems, to enable
an alternate system to operate the same actuators as the normal system. When
normal system pressure is lost and the alternate system is selected, the shuttle valve
moves across because of the pressure difference, blocking the normal line and
allowing the alternate supply to operate the brakes.

Hydraulic fuses, which sense increased flow rate are fitted upstream of components
that could be a potential source of an external leak. Under normal conditions, the
piston is held against its stops by combination of fluid pressure and spring force.
If a leak occurs downstream of the fuse, a pressure differential occurs the piston,
resulting in the piston moving across and blocking the flow.
While the service downstream of the fuse is lost, the other services supplied by the
system remain serviceable.

1. HYDRAULIC SYSTEM IS ACTIVATED BY EDP OR ELECTRIC PUMP

2. HYDRAULIC OIL FOR JET ENGINE IS SYNTHETIC OIL (SKYDROL) PURPLE
IN COLOUR
3. HYDRAULIC PRESSURE – 3000-4000 P.S.I.
4. HYDRAULIC FUSE PROTECT VOLUME OF FLOW
5. HYDRAULIC FUSE SENSE RATE OF FLOW AND VOLUME OF FLOW
6. FLOW CONTROL VALVES CONTROLS DIRECTION OF FLOW AND RATE OF
FLOW.
7. HYDRAULIC MOTOR CONVERTS FLUID PRESSURE TO ROTATORY MOTION
8. SEAL MATERIAL AND FLUID SHOULD ALWAYS BE THE SAME
9. NEOPRENE RUBBER SEAL FOR DEF STAN 91-48 (MINERAL OIL AND RED
IN COLOUR)
10. BUTYL SEAL FOR SKYDROL PURPLE IN COLOUR
Pressurization System:
● Primary purpose of outflow valve is to maintain desire cabin pressure.
● Outflow valve (permit outflow only).
● Negative relief valve prevent cabin altitude from getting higher than A/C altitude.
(A/c A-1200 – C.A. – 20,000) A/c will compressed by CRUSHING EFFECT.
● SUDDEN DEPRESSURIZATION will cause MIST & FOG in the cabin
● Life of fuselage is based on – No. of pressurization cycles.
● Conditioned AIR is regulated for humidity, Temp. Px by A/c packs.
● One pressurization cycle is when the AIR is introduced in the cabin till released.
● Safety valve operates before the Max DIFF is reached.
● As A/c climb outflow value should progressively closed.
● Outflow value are biased from inside they open outside
● Opening of outflow value cause cabin Px to decrease, Cabin alt. to inc. & cabin
differential to dec.
● Outflow flow value are at the back of the A/c to form some thrust recovery.
 PRESSURISATION SYSTEM

CABIN AMBIENT PRESSURE

The external ambient conditions at 8000ft. The temperature of the cabin needs to be
kept between 18 and 24°C. the pressure within the cabin must be maintained at
10.92 psi or higher, which is referred to as cabin ambient.
An increase in cabin ambient pressure relates to a decrease in cabin altitude, and an
increase in cabin altitude relates to a decrease in cabin ambient pressure.
If an aircraft is flying at 40 000ft. the ambient air pressure around the aircraft is 2.7
psi. The differential between the two pressures (10.92-2.7) is 8.22 psi, giving a
pressure of 8.22 pounds per square inch. This may not seem much, but this
pressure differential creates the hoop and axial loads in the fuselage skins.
MAXIMUM DIFFERENTIAL
The maximum differential, or max different, as it is also referred to, is determined by
the aircraft’s structural strength.
For air transport aircraft, this is currently considered between 7 to 9 p.s.i.
Of course in reality, some aircraft exceed this. With new materials and building
systems, the max diff of aircraft will continue to rise. Existing aircraft could have
been built with higher max diffs using existing materials but there would have been
unacceptable weight penalties.
From the point of view of the cabin structure, the greater the max diff, the higher the
aircraft can fly while maintaining sea level conditions in the cabin.
For example, if one aircraft has a max diff of 6.4 psi and another a max diff of 8.6 psi,
the first aircraft would be able to fly at a maximum of 15000 ft and maintain sea level
conditions, whereas the second aircraft would be able to maintain sea level cabin
pressure at a maximum of 22500 ft.
NEGATIVE DIFFERENTIAL
Pressurised aircraft are designed to act as pressure containers, with standing a
higher internal pressure than that of the surrounding atmosphere. They are not
designed to withstand higher atmospheric ambient conditions than cabin ambient. If
these conditions develop and are allowed to increase, there is a real danger of
structural damage due to the crushing effect of the pressure differential,
SAFETY
To protect the aircraft from structural damage due to excessive LP caused by the
failure of the normal pressure control system, two outward pressure relief valves
termed inward relief valves are fitted.
SYSTEM CONTROL
Cabin pressurization is controlled by having a constant mass flow of air entering the
cabin and then varying the rate at which it is discharged to atmosphere. The
constant mass flow of air is supplied by the air-conditioning system via the mass flow
controller and is discharged to atmosphere by the discharge or outflow valves.
TWO MODES FO OPERATION
The operation of these valves is governed by the pressure controller when in
automatic control and by the flight crew when in manual.
**Closing the valve reduces the outflow and increases the pressure, opening the
valve increases the outflow and reduces the pressure. During the cruise the outflow
valves form a thrust recovery nozzle to regain lost thrust energy from the cabin
exhaust air. (DGCA)

a) SAFETY VALVE (Out flow relief value) A simple mechanical outwards pressure
relief valve fitted to relieve positive pressure in the cabin when the maximum
pressure differential allowed for the aircraft type is exceeded i.e. prevent the
structural max. diff. being exceeded. This valve will open if the pressure rises to
max. Diff. plus 0.25 psi.
b) INWARDS RELIEF (INWARDS VENT) VALVE. A simple mechanical inwards
relief valve is fitted to prevent excessive negative differential pressure which will
open if the pressure outside the aircraft exceeds that inside the aircraft by 0.5 to
1.0 psi.
c) DUMP VALVE. A manually operated component, the Dump Valve, will enable the
crew to reduce the cabin pressure to zero for emergency depressurization. This
valve may also be used as the air outlet during manual operation of the
pressurization system an aircraft fitted with pneumatic discharge valves.
d) DITCHING VALVE – Addition some pressure controllers are fitted with a ditching
control which will close all the discharge valves to reduce the flow of water into
the cabin in the event of a forced landing on water. It helps A/C float on water
due to air inside it.
RATE OF CHANGE
The term rate of change, or ROC, is given to the value by which the cabin altitude is
allowed to ascent or descent. This is normally given in feet per minute or fpm.
However, ROC can also be used as rate of climb and ROD used for rate of descent.
The aircraft also has a rate of change.
The maximum rate of ascent is 500 fpm and 300 fpm for descent respectively.
These rates have been determined by passenger comfort due to the human ear
physiology.
SYSTEM OPERATION
The schematic arrangement of the pressurization control system of a modern
passenger transport aircraft.
INPUTS
The automatic controllers are duplicated and have inputs from the aircraft static
pressure sensing system the cabin pressure and air/ground logic system.
If pre-pressurisation is part of the schedule then inputs will be required from the
thrust lever positions and the door warning system. The cabin altitude control panel
is generally be fitted to overhead panels on the flight deck.
There are two modes of operation, auto (1 & 2) and manual with the outflow valves
being electrically operated by either of the two AC motors under the control of the
automatic controllers or by the DC motor for emergency or manual operation.
Selection of manual will lock out all normal automatic functions and enable the
outflow valve(s) to be positioned by the manual control switch via the DC motor.
The pilot will set the controller to produce the required flight profile.
Taxi. When the aircraft begins to taxi the pressurization GROUNDFLIGHT switch is
selected to FLIGHT and the aircraft is pre-pressurised to a differential pressure of
0.1 psi. This ensures that the transition to pressurized flight will be gradual and that
there will be no surges of pressure on a rotation and ingress of fumes from engines
etc.
Take off and climb. As the aircraft takes off, the ‘ground / air’ logic system will signal
the controller to switch to proportional control. The controller will sense ambient
and cabin pressure and position the outflow valves to control the rate of change of
cabin altitude in proportion to the rate of climb of the aircraft (between 300 and 500
feet per minute).
Cruise. When cruise altitude is reached the controller will switch to ISOBARIC
CONTROL to maintain a constant differential pressure.
Once established in the cruise small changes in altitude (+/-500 – 1000 feet) will be
accommodated without any change in cabin pressure, however if the cruise altitude
has to be increased significantly, then the flight altitude selection will have to be
reset.
If the maximum differential pressure has been reached the controller will not allow
any further increase in differential pressure and the aircraft will now be in Max. Diff.
Control.
Descent and landing. At commencement of the descent the controller will switch
back to proportional control and will give a cabin rate of descent of 300 feet/minute to
produce a diff. pressure of 0.1 psi on touchdown (airfield altitude – 200 feet).
With the ‘ground/air’ logic system now in ground mode, changing the cabin pressure
controller GROUND/FLIGHT switch to GROUND will drive the outflow valves to fully
open to equalize cabin and ambient pressures. And Max. Differential to ZERO.
To summarise:- If the differential pressure is increasing the discharge valves are
closing, if the differential pressure is decreasing then the discharge valves are
opening and if the differential pressure is constant then, since the mass flow in is
constant, the discharge valve will not move.

The minimum indications required for a pressurization system are:-

a) Cabin Altimeter. This gauge reads cabin pressure but is calibrated to read this
in terms of the equivalent altitude of the cabin.
b) Cabin Vertical Speed Indicator. This indicates the rate at which the aircraft
cabin is climbing or descending.
c) Cabin Differential Pressure Gauge. This indicates the difference in the
absolute pressure between the inside and outside of the aircraft cabin and is
generally calibrated in psi. In the event of a malfunction of the pressure controller
or outflow valve, this instrument would indicate that the safety valves were
controlling the cabin pressure at the structural (emergency) maximum pressure
differential
WARNING SYSTEM
CABIN ALTITUDE IN THE EVENT OF A PRESSURE FAILURRE
10 000 ft above msi, an audible and red visual flight deck warning occurs
13 000 ft, outflow valves drive shut automatically
14 000 ft, passenger oxygen masks deploy automatically to the half- hung
position

AIRCRAFT PNEUMATIC SYSTEMS

A pneumatic system is fitted in most modem aircraft to supply some or all of the
following aircraft systems.
Uses of Bleed Air.
AC (Air Conditioning)
Pressurization
Wing engine & Tail qwi 10 kg
Engine start & release thrust
Hydraulic reservoir and portable water tank pressurization
Aero foil and engine anti-icing
Air turbine motors, e.g. i) Engine starting ii) Hydraulic power iii) Thrust
reverse
Leading and trailing edge flap/slat operation
Pneumatic rams, e.g. thrust reverser actuation
Most of these systems use high volume low pressure airflow bled from the
compressor stages of a gas turbine engine. Other sources of supply are engine
driven compressors or blowers, auxiliary power unit bleed air.
ENGINE BLEED AIR SYSTEM
Bleed Air is taken at two stages in the engine. WHY?
Because of the great variation of air output available from a gas turbine engine
between idle and maximum rpm there is a need to maintain a reasonable supply of
air during low rpm as well as restricting excessive pressure when the engine is at
maximum rpm. It is usual to tap two pressure stages to maintain a reasonable
pressure band at all engine speeds.
••••
pressure (LP) stage and a higher pressure (HP) stage.

↳
Bleed air system with air being ducted from two stages of the compressor, a low

The two sources are combined together at the High Pressure Shut-Off valve
(HPSOV). This valve is pressure sensitive and pneumatically operated and is open
when there is insufficient air pressure from the LP system to maintain the required
flow. As the engine speeds up the LP air pressure will increase until it closes the
high pressure shut-off valve so that, in all normal stages of flight, bleed air will come
from the LP stages.
The high pressure shut-off valves are designed to open relatively slowly on engine
start up or when air conditioning is selected to minimize the possibility of a surge of
air pressure. They are also designed to close very quickly to prevent an ingress of
fumes or fire to the cabin in the event of an engine fire.
The bleed air control valve is the separation point between the engine and the
pneumatic system manifold and allows the bleed air to enter the pneumatic system
and is controlled electrically from the flight deck.
**Non-return valves (NRV) are installed in the LP stage ducts to prevent HP air
entering the LP stages of the engine when the high pressure shut-off valve is open.
So won’t back pressure.
Most multi-engine aircraft also keep the supplying engines or sides separate with
each engine supplying its own user services. These are kept independent by
ISOLATION VALVES which are normally closed but which may be opened if an
engine supply is lost to feed the other side’s services.
The system will also be fitted with safety devices to prevent damage to the supply
ducting due to over pressure or overheat.
a) OVER PRESSURE
This is usually caused by failure of the high pressure shut-off valve and a
pressure relief valve is fitted to the engine bleed air ducting.
If the over pressure persists, a sensor bleeds high pressure shut-off valve opening
pressure and forces the valve to close.
b) OVERHEAT
An electrical temperature switch downstream of the bleed air control valve will close
the valve if the temperature of the air reaches a predetermined level.
Both overheat and over pressure conditions will be indicated to the pilots by warning
lights. If an overheat occurrence took place, the bleed valve switch would be
selected ‘OFF’ and the isolation valve opened to restore the lost system.
BASIC PRINCIPLES OF AIRCRAFT AIR CONDITIONING
As aircraft are going to be operated at different flight levels in different temperature
zones around the world, the aircraft’s air conditioning system must be capable of
taking extremely cold air and warning it, or extremely hot humid air and cooling and
dehumidifying it.
REQUIREMENTS OF AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM
1. Provision of fresh air – Fresh air must be provided at a rate of 1 lb per seat
per minute in normal circumstances, or at not less than 0.5 lb following a
failure of any part of the duplicated air-conditioning system
2. Temperature Cabin air temperature should be maintained within the range
65°F to 75°F, (18°C to 24°C)
3. Relative humidity – The relative humidity of the cabin air must be maintain at
approximately 30% (at 40,000 ft the relative humidity is only 1 to 2%)
4. Contamination – Carbon monoxide contamination of the cabin air must not
exceed 1 part in 20,000.
5. Ventilation – Adequate ventilation must be provided on the ground and
during unpressurised phases off light.
6. Duplication – The air-conditioning system must be duplicated to the extent
that no single component failure will cause the provision of fresh air to fall to
rate which is lower than 0.5 lb per seat per minute.
Hot bleed air is taken from a gas turbine’s compressor. This heated air, often
referred to as charge air, is then split and a proportion cooled, before it is mixed
together to achieve the required temperature.
Cooling the charge air is a major function of the pack. There are two different
methods in which this can be achieved, the use of air as a cooling medium referred
to as Air Cycle, or the use of a Refrigerant referred to as vapour cycle.
AIR CYCLE MACHINES
The component that cools the charge air is termed a Cold Air Unit or CAU. There
are three different designs. Each comes under the heading of air cycle
machines. The types are :
❖ THE BOOTSTRAP
❖ THE BRAKE TURBINE
❖ THE TURBO FAN
BOOTSTRAP IN CONJUNCTION WITH A MECHANICAL BLOWER
This type of system is used on larger piston-engine aircraft and smaller turboprop
aircraft, where the engines are not designed to supply bleed air for the aircraft’s air
condition system.
The functions and location in the system is what DGCA wants you to know

BOOTSTRAP IN CONJUNCTION WITH A MECHANICAL BLOWER

BLOWER
Ambient air is drawn into a blower. The blower consists of two lobes which are
engine driven, and geared to rotate and mesh. This draw a large volume of air in
and forces it into the supply duct. The restriction of the duct raises both air pressure

and temperature.
BBB
Since the blower is mechanical, it requires lubrication.
Failure of the oil seals can result in blue smoke in the aircraft as the oil vaporizes
in the hot air.
The rotation of the lobes creates a pulsing, changing air pressure (whomp-whomp
effect), which is removed by the silencer unit located downstream.
SPILL VALVE AND FLOW CONTROL VALVE
FUNCTION - The spill valve is designed to allow charge air to bleed overboard
 (leave the airplane) in different conditions and is linked to the flow control valve.
LIVE SMOKE
During flight, the flow control valve, also referred to as a mass flow controller,
determines the correct mass of air passing through the system to ventilate the
aircraft. This is done by venting charge air to atmosphere.
MASS FLOW CONTORL
As the aircraft climbs and the ambient density decreases, the flow control
valve progressively closes the spill valve ( so more air can get in).
In the event of an engine fire, to prevent contamination of the cabin air, the spill valve
is fully opened when the pilot operates the engine’s fire handle.
A non-return valve (NRV) is fitted downstream of the spill valve to prevent loss of
cabin air pressure in the event that the spill valve is opened or failure of the blower.
DUCT RELIEF VALVE
Location – A duct relief valve is located downstream of the NRV.
Function – The function of this valve is to protect the duct from over pressurization.
There is a real danger that if the duct ruptures, high temperature air could play onto
fuel lines or electrical cables and start a fire.
The relief valve is set to operate at 10 psi above the ducts normal pressure. The
standard used in examination questions is the valve’s vale (10 psi).
CHOKE VALVE AND DUAL PRESSURE SWITCH
The choke valve is fitted as a means of increasing the charge air’s temperature in
certain conditions, by restricting the flow and creating a backpressure. The choke
valve only restricts the airflow when the bypass valve downstream is fully open.
BYPASS VALVES
There are two bypass valves fitted in this system,
Location 1 – one downstream of the choke valve
Location 2 – second downstream of the primary heat exchanger.
They function as temperature control valves.
Function 1 – The first bypass valve can direct all the air through the heat exchanger
or allow a percentage of air to bypass the heat exchanger.
Function 2 – The second valve control the amount of air that enters the CAU.
Both valves are controlled by temperature sensors, either mounted in the
aircraft’s cabin or in the duct leading into the aircraft’s cabin.
PRIMARY HEAT EXCHANGER
The system has two heat exchangers, which act as radiators. Charge air from the
first bypass valve is ducted into the primary heat exchanger, also known as a pre-
cooler. In the heat exchanger, the hot charge air is passed through a matrix of small-
bore pipes, while ram ambient air passes around them. As the heat exchanger is
open ended, this results in adiabatic cooling, where the temperature decreases, but
there is no significant change in the pressure.
BOOTSTRAP
The bootstrap consists of three components in the following order: compressor,
heat exchanger, and turbine.
The compressor and turbine are linked together and form one CAU.
The system is referred to as a bootstrap as it is able to self-start. As soon as there is
air flowing across the turbine, it starts to revolve itself and the compressor.
Due to the compression and work done by the cold air unit and the speed of rotation,
these units must be lubricated. Failure of the oil seals can result in blue smoke
entering the cabin.
Air that has been cooled by the pre-cooler is directed by the second bypass valve
into the eye of the CAU’s centrifugal compressor.
AT COMPRESSOR Here, it is compressed, raising both pressure and temperature.
The output from the compressor is then passed through the secondary heat
exchanger, also referred to as an intercooler, before being ducted on to the edge of a
turbine.
In the turbine, the air is made to work by rotating the turbine and compressor.
The work absorbs pressure energy and, at the same time, the air is able to expand.
The combined effect reduces the temperature of the air, resulting in a stream of cold
air leaving the turbine.
The speed of the CAU is determined by the temperature requirements of the system
and the air’s density. The lower the temp. selected from the flight dock the more is
speed of CAU.
WATER EXTRACTOR
Excess humidity inside the aircraft would manifest itself as condensation or even
water droplets failing from the air conditioning low-pressure ducts. This would lead to
discomfort for the passengers and crew, as well as the possible shorting of electrical
circuits, corrosion, and an increase in mass over time as the insulation blankets
become sodden.
LOCATION – To remove this excess moisture, water extractors, also known as water
separators, are fitted downstream of the cold air unit.
There are different designs of water extractors. However, they all work on the same
basic principle of diffusion, coalition, and extraction. As the air enters the water
extractor, it passes through a diffuser section that slows the airflow and guides it over
a coalesce section.
Here, the moisture is coalesced (merged) into larger droplets.
HUMIDIFIER
In aircraft operating at high altitudes (greater than 40,000 feet) for long periods of
time it may be necessary to increase the moisture content of the conditioning air to
1-2% relative humidity to prevent physical discomfort arising from low relative
humidity. This is the function of the humidifier, a typical example of which is shown
below. The aircraft’s drinking water supply is used and the water is atomized by air
from the air conditioning supply.

Bootstrap used in conjunction with bleed air from a gas turbine engine. Turbine
powered aircraft, where the compressor section can supply more air than the core
engine requires, are able to supply bleed air to the packs.
This air has been heated due to compression. Therefore, in this system, there is no
requirement for a blower and silencer.
In the event of any problem, the bleed air to the air conditioning back can be cut by
closing the bleed air shut off valve (SOV). This isolates the engine, and as the air
entering the engine passes through it, there is no need for a spill valve.
A mass flow controller linked to a flow control valve ensures that the correct mas of
air is supplied to the system as the aircraft changes altitudes and engine rpm
settings.
Restriction creates back pressure on the compressor & put the load on turbine. This
makes RPM self regulating in these machines.

BE
In this system, the bleed air is passed through a pre-cooler to obtain adiabatic
cooling and then to a temperature control valve, or TCV. This directs the precooled
air to the turbine or plenum chamber. To ensure that the air passing across the
turbine loses pressure and temperature, a compressor draws in ambient air at static
pressure by taking its supply from within a vented bay. This air passes across the
compressor and is dumped overboard via a restricted pipe.
The restriction creates a backpressure that acts to slow the compressor and place a
load on the turbine. The speed of these machines is self-regulating and is
determined by the mass of air that passes across the turbine and the air’s density.
They can be turning at 40,000 rpm at high altitude.
In these systems, if hotter air is required in the system, the bleed air can be taken
from latter stages of compression in the engine. As before, the streams of air are
mixed in a plenum chamber before passing into the aircraft cabin.
This system is lighter (only one heat exchanger) and the mass flow/weight
ratio.
FAN TURBINE (TURBO-FAN)
This is a refinement of the brake turbine unit, in which, instead of a compressor, the
turbine is coupled to a fan of sufficient capacity to draw the required volume of
cooling airflow through the primary heat exchanger so that the unit is not dependent
on ram air for its operation and can therefore be operated on the ground.
 ok
VAPOUR CYCLE (REFRIGERATION) SYSTEM :
The vapour cycle air conditioning system is similar in operation to the domestic
refrigerator or the galley cart cooling system used on some large aircraft. Its use for
aircraft is now generally limited to small piston engine types.
 B
A refrigerant is used to absorb heat from the charge air by changing its state from
liquid to gas. The heat is carried by the refrigerant to a condenser where it is given
up to the atmosphere and the refrigerant returns to its liquid state.
** In the vapour cycle system the refrigerant alternates between the vapour and
liquid phase. It is compressed, cooled, expanded and heated in that order. The
refrigerant is a liquid (Freon) which boils at approx. 3.5°C (38°F) at sea level
atmospheric pressure.
**At higher pressure the boiling point is increased and vice versa.
Working
Refrigerant at low pressure is drawn through the evaporator by the compressor
(which may be electrically or air driven). As it passes through the evaporator the
refrigerant changes state from liquid to gas absorbing heat from the cabin air supply
and therefore cooling the air as it does so.
The COMPRESSOR raises the pressure and therefore the boiling point of the
refrigerant before it enters the condenser.
The CONDENSER is positioned so that cold ram air passes over it and the
refrigerant changes back to its liquid state giving up latent heat to the ram air. The
pressurized liquid then passes to the receiver which acts as a reservoir and then
through an EXPANSION VALVE which reduces its pressure and boiling point before
entering the evaporator to repeat the cycle.
RE-CIRCULATION FANS
These augment the air conditioning packs allowing the packs to be operated at a
reduced rate during the cruise which decreases engine bleed requirements and
maintains a constant ventilation rate throughout the cabin.
The fans draw cabin air from the under floor area through filters then reintroduce the
air into the Mix manifold conditioned distribution system where it is mixed with fresh
air from the packs and resend to the cabin. Air from the region of toilets and galleys
is not re-circulated but is vented directly overboard by the pressurization discharge
valves.
TEMPERATURE CONTROL
RAM AIR MUFFLER TYPE HEAT EXCHANGER
In these systems, which are used in unpressurised piston engine aircraft, ambient
atmospheric air is introduced to the cabin through forward facing air intakes. Some
of this ram air can be heated by exhaust or combustion heaters and then mixed with
the cold ambient air in varying proportions to give a comfortable cabin temperature.
Whenever cabin heat is used it is used in conjunction with the use of fresh air.
A leak in the exhaust pipe may cause pilot incapacitation due to carbon monoxide

poisoning.
BB
The heater muff or exhaust muff is a close fitting cowl around the exhaust pipe which
allows ram air to come into close contact with the hot exhaust pipe to provide hot air
for heating the cabin. Fresh cold air can be allowed into the cabin through the ram
air inlets on the wing leading edge. After use the air is dumped overboard through a
vent on the underside of the aircraft.
COMBUSTION HEATER
More sophisticated light aircraft can use a dedicated combustion heater to heat ram
air. The fuel used in the heater is normally that which is used in the aircraft’s
engines and the heater works by burning a fuel/air mixture within the combustion
chamber. Air for combustion is supplied by a fan or blower and the fuel is supplied
via a solenoid operated fuel valve.
The fuel valve is controlled by duct temperature sensors but can be manually
overridden. The system is designed so that there is no possibility of leaks from
inside the chamber contaminating the cabin air. In addition the system must be
provided with a number of safety devices which must include:
a) Automatic fuel shut-off in the event of any malfunction.
b) Adequate fire protection in the event of failure of the structural integrity of the
combustion chamber.
c) Automatic shut-off if the outlet air temperature becomes too high.
PRESSURISED AIRCRAFT
For larger and faster pressurized aircraft, it is standard to fit two air conditioning units
(referred to as air conditioning packs, abbreviated to ACS packs of just packs) to
serve the system. This allows for redundancy, as one pack is able to maintain the
minimum conditions required by the regulation.
OXYGEN SYSTEM

RAPID DECOMPRESSION
A rapid decompression occurs when the cabin pressure decreases to ambient in a
period of 5 to 7 seconds.

As the pressure drops, air and gases within the body expand and rush to
atmosphere. Normally, air rushes from the mouth and nasal passages, allowing the
lungs and middle ear to equalize.

The main danger is hypoxia. Unless rapid utilization of the aircraft’s supplementary
oxygen system is made, unconsciousness occurs. This is done by the Oxygen
system of the Aircraft.

If the flight crew believe that they are in danger of a decompression (cracked
windscreen, etc.) they must place themselves on oxygen, initiate a let-down, and
raise the cabin altitude to minimize the differential to reduce the effect of any
subsequent decompression.
If an aircraft suffers decompression at high altitude, the maximum rate of descent
that the crew can ever initiate is Vd or dive velocity.

Insufficient oxygen is known as Hypoxia. The importance of aircrew being able to

recognize Hypoxia cannot be overstated.

The drills to overcome this can be summarized as:-

a) Provide Oxygen
b) Descent to a level where atmospheric oxygen is present in sufficient
quantities to meet the body’s needs.

CABIN ALTITUDE IN THE EVENT OF A PRESSURE FAILURE

In the event of cabin pressure failure, as the cabin altitude rises, the following
warnings and actions occur:
❖ 15,000 ft Max Permissible emergency cabin Altitude
❖ 14000 ft, passenger oxygen masks deploy automatically to the half-hung
position 13,000 ft Outflow Valve Closes Automatically
❖ 10,000 ft above msi, an audible and red visual flight deck warning occurs
❖ 8,000 ft Max Normal Cabin Altitude

The 10,000 ft audible and visual warning occurs to alert the crew of possible
problems, so that they have time to correct where possible, to minimize passenger
discomfort and possibly to prevent passenger oxygen masks from dropping.

If the problem cannot be solved, the pressure controller signals the outflow valves to
close to minimize the loss of cabin pressure.

If the cabin altitude reaches 14000 ft, the passenger oxygen masks that are stored in
the passengers’ overhead service unit (PSU), are deployed to the half-hung position
by a barostatic controller. This is done at this altitude to ensure that supplementary
oxygen is available before the cabin reaches 15000 ft.

NUMBER OF PASSENGER MASKS AND DISTRIBUTION

Aircraft that operate above 25000 ft, or those that operate at or below 25000 ft but
cannot descend safely within 4 minutes to 13000 ft, must be fitted with automatically
deployable oxygen equipment immediately available to each occupant, wherever
seated. The total number of masks must exceed to number of seats by at least 10%.
The extra masks are to be evenly distributed throughout the cabin.

These extra masks are to enable cabin crew or passengers who are away from their
seats to gain immediate access to oxygen. As crew or passengers might be in the
aircraft lavatories when oxygen is required, each aircraft lavatory must have two face
masks.

OXYGEN
In aviation, there are three physical states for three physical states for the
transportation of oxygen:
Liquid
Gaseous
Chemical
Liquid oxygen is not used in the civil aviation industry, as it is very expensive and
poses handling, storage, and safety problems. Flight crew are always supplied with
gaseous oxygen, as this is the most economic and effective way to meet the
regulations.

Depending on design, some air transport aircraft have gaseous supplementary

oxygen systems for the passengers.

However, it is more common to find that passenger oxygen is produced by chemical

oxygen generators as these are cheaper to produce, have a five-year shelf life, and
require no servicing as they are replaced, not serviced.

GASEOUS OXYGEN SYSTEMS

There are two gaseous oxygen systems in current use:
The continuous flow system
The diluter demand system

PASSENGER OXYGEN SYSTEM

Provides an emergency oxygen supply to the passengers and cabin attendants and
is of the continuous flow type supplied either by a high pressure gaseous system or
a chemical generator system.

The continuous flow system is normally used in light un-pressurised aircraft intending
to fly above 10000 ft, or as the passenger supplementary oxygen system for some
pressurized aircraft. The diluter demand system, a more sophisticated and more
expensive system, is used for flight crew of air transport aircraft.

In these systems, gaseous oxygen stored in a cylinder at 1800 psi is passed through
an intermediate pressure regulator, where the pressure is dropped to between 80-
100 psi. It is then fed into a ring main or manifold. A barometric valve prevents the
oxygen from flowing to the passenger masks.

When the cabin altitude exceeds 14000 ft, the barometric valve opens and allows
oxygen to pass into the low-pressure regulator. At the same time, pneumatic
pressure opens a latch allowing the PSU door to open and deploy the masks in the
half-hung condition. The act of pulling the face mask down opens the valve to the
mask, allowing continuous flow of oxygen into a one-size fits-all rubber cup that
covers the mouth and nose and has an elasticized head

CONTINUOUS FLOW PASSENGER SUPPLEMENTARY OXYGEN SYSTEM

(GASEOUS)

The masks are stowed in the passenger service units (PSU), the doors of which will
open automatically by a barometrically controlled release mechanism if the cabin
altitude reaches 14000 ft or by manual selection from the flight by the crew at any
altitude below this.

This release mechanism is actuated electrically for the chemical generator system
and pneumatically for the gaseous system.

When the PSU doors open the masks drop to the “half-hung” position.

Pulling the mask towards the face initiates the oxygen flow by opening a check
valve on the gas supplied system or operating the electrical or percussion cap firing
mechanism on the chemical generator.

The generators are located in each passenger, cabin attendants and lavatory service
units.

Oxygen is generated by the chemical reaction of sodium chlorate (NaClO3) and

iron(Fe).

The complete reaction is NaClO3 + Fe ------- NaCl + FeO + O2,

The sodium chlorate and iron core is shaped to provide maximum oxygen flow at
starting.

A filter in the generator removes any contaminates and cools the oxygen to a
temperature not exceeding 10°C above cabin ambient temperature.

A relief valve prevents the internal pressure in the generator exceeding 50 psi, the
normal flow pressure is 10psi. Sufficient oxygen is supplied form the generator to
meet the requirements to descent in emergency conditions. (min of 15 mins).

Caution.
Once the chemical reaction has started, it cannot be stopped.
Surface temperatures of the generator can reach 232°C (450°F)
A strip of heat sensitive tape or paint changes colour, usually to black, when the
generator is used and provides visual indication that the cylinder is expanded.
Chemical generators have a shelf life to ten years.

FLIGHT CREW’S DILUTER DEMAND SYSTEM

we
This type of system is provided in most aircraft for flight crew use and is separate
and additional t the passenger system.

Oxygen is diluted with air and supplied as demanded by the users respiration cycle
and the oxygen regulator.

Low-pressure regulation is controlled by the demand valve, diaphragm, and bow

spring. When “normal” is selected, and the pilot is not breathing in or in the process
of exhaling, the demand valve is closed by spring and oxygen pressure. As the pilot
inhales, a partial vacuum is formed in the mask and is felt by the diaphragm.

The other side of the diaphragm is subjected is subjected to cabin ambient.

The differential created biases the diaphragm across to the right. The bow spring,
oxygen pressure acting on the demand valve, and the demand valve’s spring limit its
movement.

The allows oxygen to flow past the demand valve.

A typical regulator operates as follows:-
● With the oxygen supply ‘ON’ and ‘NORMAL’ oxygen selected, diluted oxygen will
be supplied to the crew members mask as he/she inhales. As the cabin altitude
increases and cabin air pressure decreases the percentage oxygen increases
until, at 34000 ft cabin altitude, 100% oxygen is supplied.
● 100% oxygen will be supplied, regardless of altitude, if the crew member selects
100% O2 on the regulator control panel. But on demand.
● Selecting ‘Emergency’ on the regulator will provide protection against the
inhalation of smoke and harmful gases by supplying 100% O2 at a positive
pressure.
● When ‘TEST’ is selected, oxygen at a high positive pressure is supplied to check
masks for fit and other equipment for leakage.

PORTABLE OXYGEN SYSTEMS

First aid and sustaining portable oxygen cylinders are installed at suitable locations
in the passenger cabin.

The consist of a cylinder containing normally 120 litres of oxygen at a pressure of

1800psi in a carrying bag with straps.

It is usually possible to set one of two flow rates depending on requirement. These
are Normal and High which correspond to flow rates of 2 and 4 litres per minute.

At these rates a 120 litre bottle would last 60 or 30 minutes.

SAFETY PRECAUTIONS
The following general safety precautions apply to all oxygen systems.
a. Oxygen is a non-flammable heavier that air gas which supports combustion as
well as life. Any flammable material will burn more fiercely in the presence of
oxygen than in air. Smoking is therefore banned in oxygen rich atmospheres.
b. No oil or grease should be allowed to come into contact with oxygen as there
is the possibility of a severe chemical reaction.
c. Any moisture present will react with gaseous oxygen and can cause corrosion
and the possibility of valves freezing.
d. During replenishment or maintenance of oxygen systems the surrounding
area must be adequately ventilated. Remember that oxygen is heavier than
air and will fill low lying areas such as servicing pits, aircraft bilges, etc.
e. Only lubricants specified in the maintenance manuals may be used. E.g.
graphite.

SUMMARY

▪ MAX ALTITUDE WITHOUT O2 AT WHICH FLYING EFFICIENCY IS NOT

IMPARIRED 10000
▪ O CYLINDERS ARE NORMALLY CHARGED AT 1800 PSI
2

▪ IN PRESSURE DEMAND O SYSTEM EACH CREW HAS A REGULATOR

2

▪ IF A/C SUFFERS RAPID DECOMPRESSION O MASK AUTOMATICALLY2

DEPLOY TO HALF HUNG POSITION
▪ RATE OF FLOW OF O IS MEASURED IN LITERS/MIN
2

▪ AMERICAN O CYLINDER IS GREEN IN COLOUR

2

▪ BRITISH O CYLINDER IS BLACK WITH WHITE NECK

2

▪ WHEN AIR IS PRESSURISED % OF O REMAINS THE SAME

2

▪ AT 34000 FT DILUTED DEMAND SYSTEM WILL PROVIDE 100% O 2

▪ LUBRICATION OF O IS DONE BY GRAPHITE

2

▪ CONTROL KNOB IS SET TO HIGH CYLINDER WILL LAST FOR 30 MIN.

▪ CHANCES OF HYPOXIA IS INCREASED BY SMOKING
▪ TO CHECK FOR LEAKS USE DISTILLED WATER AND ACID FREE
SOLUTION
▪ GREEN COLOR’S BOW OUT DISK IF MISSING MEANS THE OXYGEN
CYLINDER IS RELEASED DUE TO OVER PRESSURE.
▪ ALTERNATOR VOLTAGE SHOULD BE SLIGHTLY HIGHER THAN BATTERY
VOLT TO MAINTAIN CHARGING CURRENT
▪ ALTERNATOR, BATTERY AND LOADS ARE CONNECTED IN PARLLLEL OF
EACH OTHER & RESISTANCE IS LESS IN PARALLEL
▪ IN DC ELECTRICITY POLARITY REMAINS SAME ONLY MAGNITUDE
 CHANGES
▪ IN AC ELECTRICITY POLARITY & MAGNITUDE BOTH CHANGES

Advantage of AC over DC
1. Ease with which AC can stepped up and step down efficiently wing a
transforms,
2. Lighter and thin cable in AC
3. Less arcing and sparking in AC
4. More reliable but high altitude & high RPM
▪ Resistance in parallel :- Is the sum of the reciprocals of individual resistance
▪ Resistance in series :- Sum of the individual resistance.

ELECTRICITY

An electric current is created when electrons are caused to move through a

conductor. Moving electrons can explain most electrical effects.

There are basic means to provide the force which causes electrons to flow:-
a) Friction – static electricity
b) Chemical action – cells and batteries (primary and secondary cells)
c) Magnetism – generators and alternators
d) Heat – thermocouples (junction of two dissimilar metals)
e) Light – photo electric cell
f) Pressure – piezo electric crystals

Of these only Chemical Action (batteries) and Magnetism (generators) produce

electrical power in sufficient quantities for normal daily needs.

In the same way that water needs a force (pressure) to make it flow, electricity needs
pressure, Electro Motive Force (EMF), to make it flow.

EMF is measured in units of Voltage. The number of volts is a measure of the EMF
or potential Difference (the difference in electrical potential between the positive and
negative terminal). Voltage is given the symbol V or E.

To measure voltage a voltmeter is used. It is connected across the two points

between which the voltage is to be measured without disconnecting the circuit.
CURRENT
The current (symbol l) in a conductor is the number of electrons passing any point in
the conductor in one second and is measured in amperes or amps (symbol A)

Current can be measured by an instrument called an ammeter which is connected

into the circuit so that the current in the circuit passes through the ammeter.

Ammeter are place in series and have low resistance

Voltage is measured by voltmeter and is connected in parallel and have high
resistance

Effect of an electric current:

a) Heating Effect, conductor to become hot – electric fires, irons, light bulbs and
fuses
b) Magnetic Effect. When a current flows through a conductor it always causes
the A magnetic field is always produced around the conductor when a current
flows though it – motors, generators and transformers.
c) Chemical Effect. When a current flows through certain liquids (electrolytes a
chemical change occurs in the liquid and any metals immersed in it – battery
charging and electroplating.

RESISTANCE
The obstruction in the circuit which opposes the current flow is called resistance.
Different materials have different numbers of free electrons, those with more free
electrons will have a lower resistance than those with few free electrons, so those
with more free electrons are better conductors of electricity.

FACTORS AFFECTING THE RESISTANCE

a) Length – The longer the wire the greater the resistance
b) Cross sectional area- The thicker the wire the smaller the resistance
c) Temperature – The symbol for temperature coefficient is a (alpha). If
 resistance increases with an increase of temperature, the resistor is said to
have a Positive Temperature Coefficient (PTC). If resistance decreases with
an increase of temperature, the resistor is said to have a Negative
Temperature Coefficient (NTC). Resistors having these characteristics are
used in aircraft systems for temperature measurement.

UNITS OF RESISTANCE
The unit of resistance is the Ohm (symbol n) A material has a resistance of one ohm
if an applied voltage of one volt produces a current flow of one ampere.

RESISTORS
Sometimes resistance is used to adjust the current flow in a circuit by fitting resistors
of known value. Could be of two types fixed and variable resistors.

OHMS law:
V=IR
If the resistance remains the same any increase in voltage will cause an increase in
current and vise versa (Current directly proportional to voltage).

POWER
When a force produces a movement then work is said to have been done, the rate at
which work is done is called power.
● Fuses and CB’s are fitted in both AC and DC Circuits.
● Fuses and CB (Circuits Breaker) are connected in series with the loads.
● Fuses & CB are rated in AMPS.
● CB works as a sweeter as well as a fuse.
● In an open circuit Resistance is Maximum (INFINITE) (Cause its not lefting
any single current to pass).
● Fuse works on a principal of a low melting ALLOY.
● A circuits of 6V and 2Ohms resistance will require a Fuse of
A. 5 AMPS
B. 3 AMPS
C. 1.5 AMPS

​= Force × Velocity
​= Volt × I
P = IR × I
 ​
In an electric circuit work is done by the Voltage causing the current to flow through
A resistance, creating heat, magnetism or chemical action.

The rate at which work is done is called Power and is measured in Watts
Watts(W) = Voltage (V) × Amperes (I)

CIRCUIT PROTECTION DEVICES

There are a number of protection devices used in aircraft electrical systems but only
2 basic types are discussed here:
a) Fuses
b) Circuit breakers
A fuse normally opens the circuit (No Current Flows) before full fault current is
reached, whereas the circuit breaker opens after the full fault current is reached.
This means that when circuit breakers are used as the protection device, both the
circuit breaker and the component must be capable of withstanding the full fault
current for a short time.
The circuit breaker has the capability, which the fuse has not, of opening and closing
the circuit, and can perform many such operations before replacement is necessary,
it may also be used as a circuit isolation switch.
FUSES
There are 3 basic types of use currently in use on aircraft:
a) Cartridge fuse.
b) High rupture capacity (HRC) fuse
c) Current limiter fuse.

THE CARTRIDGE FUSE (Image)

The cartridge type fuse consists of tubular glass or ceramic body, 2 brass end caps
and a fuse element.

Fuses are made of a type of wire which has a low melting point, and when it is
placed in series with the electrical load it will melt, blow or rupture when a current of
higher value than its ampere rating is placed upon it. Fuses are rated in ‘amps’.

HIGH RUPTURE CAPACITY (HRC) FUSES.

The high rupture capacity (HRC) fuse is an improvement on the cartridge type fuse.
It is used mainly for high current rated circuits.

CURRENT LIMITERS
Current limiters, as the name suggests, are designed to limit the current to some
predetermined amperage value.

They are also thermal devices, but unlike ordinary fuses they have a high melting
point, so that their time/current characteristics permit to carry a considerable
overload current before rupturing.

For the reason their application is confined to the protection of heavy duty power
distribution circuits. The output of a Transformer Rectifier Unit would be a prime
location for a current limiter to be used.

CIRCUIT BREAKERS
Circuit breakers combine the function of fuse and switch and can be used for
switching circuits on and off in certain circumstances.
Circuit breakers are common on the flight deck of modern aircraft and can be
categorized as either:-
a) A Non-Trip Free Circuit Breaker, or
b) A Trip Free Circuit Breaker (image)

The non-trip free circuit breaker may be held in under fault conditions and the circuit
will be made, this is clearly dangerous.

The Trip free circuit breaker if held in under the same circumstances the circuit can
not be made.

CAPACITORS
A capacitor can perform three basic functions:
1. Store an electrical charge by creating an electric field between the plates.
2. Will behave as if it passes Alternating Current
3. Blocks Direct Current flow

Construction:
In its simplest form a capacitor consists of two metal plates separated by an insulator
called a dielectric. Wires connected to the plates allow the capacitor to be
connected into the circuit.

CAPACITANCE
A capacitor (C) of a capacitor measures its ability to store an electrical charge. The
unit of capacitance is the FARAD (F). The farad is subdivided into smaller, more
convenient units.

Factor Affecting Capacitance:

 a. Area of the plates – a large are gives a large capacitance
b. Distance between the plates – a small distance gives a large capacitance
c. Material of the dielectric – different materials give different values of
capacitance

CAPACITOR
● Capacitor provides initial current flow whenever any electrical service is
selected
● Capacitor’s doing a same job as accumulator in Hydraulics
● Capacitors are used in ignition circuit of a Piston and JET engine.
● JET Engine spark plug works on a principle of capacitor discharge

CAPACITOR IN A DC CIRCUIT
A capacitor in series with a battery and a switch

After a short time the difference in charge between the plates results in a potential
difference existing between the plates. The flow of electrons will reduce and stop
when the potential difference between the plates is equal to the supply voltage. The
capacitor is now fully charged, current has stopped flowing, the plates are said to be
charged and there exists an electric field between the plates. The capacitor is now is
fully charged, current has stopped flowing, the plates are said to be charged and
there exists an electric field between the plates. The capacitor is now blocking DC
flow. The capacitor will only discharge if it is now connected to an external circuit.

CAPACITOR IN AN AC CIRCUIT – appears to pass AC

The battery replaced with an Alternating Current Supply. A light bulb is placed in
series with the supply and the capacitor.

Therefore: A capacitor appears to pass AC

CAPACITORS IN PARALLEL
Capacitors connected in parallel are effectively increasing the area of the plates.
The total capacitance Ct can be found by adding the individual capacitance:

CAPACITORS IN SERIES
Capacitors in series have effectively increased the distance between the plates and
therefore the total capacitance has decreased. The total capacitance is found by
using the formula for resistances in parallel:

BATTERIES
A battery is made up of one or more cells which convert chemical energy to electrical
energy
PRIMARY CELLS are of type that is normally used in torches and transistor radios.
A fully charged Primary Cell gives rise to a potential difference of 1.5 Volts. Once
discharged, Primary cells cannot be recharged. A primary cell consists of two
electrodes immersed in a chemical called an electrotype. The electrolyte
encourages electron transfer between the electrodes until there is a potential
difference between them.

The capacity of a cell is a measure of how much current it can provide over a certain
period of time.

Lead Acid Battery Alkaline Battery (Nickel Cadmium, Nicad)

Used in light Aircraft Used in large Aircraft
Voltage & current decreases as battery Provide constant voltage as battery
discharges discharge
Positive plate is load peroxide, negative The plates are nickel oxide and cadmium
plate is spongy lead, electrolyte solution and the electrolyte is potassium
of water and sulphuric acid. hydroxide.
A fully charged cell SG of 1.27, A The SG of the electrolyte is 1.24-1.30.
discharged cell SG of 1.17 SG does not charge much, can’t
determine charging state wing
hydrometer.
The ON load voltage each cell is 2 volts. The ON-load voltage of one cell is about
The OFF load voltage of each cell is 2.2 1.2 volts
volts
Problem – When charging lead acid Problem – Nicad batteries have a low
battery it is important that the rate of thermal capacity; the heat generated is
charge is controlled. Charging too faster than it can dissipate rapid increase
quickly can cause ‘gassing’ and in temperature dissipate rapid in crease
evaporation may lead to boiling the in temperature known as a thermal
battery dry runaway, and can cause battery explode.

In aircraft batteries, cells are usually connected in series with other cells of the same
voltage and capacity. The presentation shows a battery with six cells, connected in
series.

SECONDARY CELLS work on the same principle as primary cells but the chemical
energy in the cell can be restored when the cell has been discharged by passing a
“charging current” through the cell in the reverse direction to that of the discharge
current. The capacity of a cell is a measure of how much current a cell can provide
in a certain time. Capacity is measured in Ampere hours (Ah)

One of the most common types of secondary cell is the Lead Acid Cell.

The active material of the positive plate is lead peroxide and the negative plate is
spongy lead, both plates are immersed in an electrolyte solution of water and
sulphuric acid.

The lead acid battery is the most commonly used in light aircraft. The electrolyte of a
fully charged cell will have a specific gravity of approx. 1.3. The specific gravity of
the electrolyte can be measured with a HYDROMETER.

ADDING CELLS IN SERIES

Voltage increases and capacity remains same.
ADING CELLS IN PARALLEL
CAPACITY INCREASES VOLTAGE CONSTANT
Reverse cut out- open when generator voltage drop below battery voltage

SUMMARY
▪ Battery are charged at a constant voltage varying current (CVVC)
▪ Overheating of battery may take place due to charging the battery at a constant
current more than capacity
▪ A/c battery are checked every 3 months
▪ Before flight battery capacity should be 80%
▪ Light aircraft battery is normally 24 volts
▪ More than one battery in a/c will be connected in parallel
▪ Cells in a battery are connected in series
 ▪ Vent in a battery exhaust the gasses out formed while charging
▪ A fully efficient battery 60 amph can give 6 amperes for 10 hours.
▪ Battery voltage is checked on load with all circuits switched on by a voltmeter
▪ S.G. 1.3 charged and S.G. 1.17 discharged checked using hydrometer.
TEMPORARY MAGNETS
Temporary magnets are made from soft iron which is easily magnetized but readily
loses its magnetic properties.
▪ With time and use battery’s voltage and current reduces.
▪ Battery converts chemical energy to electrical energy.
PERMANENT MAGNETS
Permanent magnets are made from hard alloy steels which are difficult to magnetise
but retain their magnetism well.
THE MAGNETIC FIELD OF A SOLENOID
A solenoid (electromagnet) is a coil of a large number of turns of insulated wire.
THE STRENGH OF THE FIELD OF A SOLENOID
The strength of the field of a solenoid can be increased by:
a. Increasing the number of turns on the coil
b. Increasing the current
c. Using a soft iron core.
When the current is switched off the magnetic field collapses leaving a little residual
magnetism in the soft iron core.

SOLENOID AND RELAY

Solenoids and relays are nothing more than remotely controlled switches. By
switching a small current from the flight deck a large current can be switched at the
solenoid or relay. Eg. The starter solenoid in the starting circuit for a piston engine.
The solenoid has a moving core whereas the relay has a stationary core and an

attracted armature.
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
Batteries are a good source of DC electricity by conversion of chemical energy, but
they are not inexhaustible and will go flat after a period of time and need recharging.
The primary source of electricity in an aircraft is always the generator or alternator.
Magnetism can be used to generate electricity by converting mechanical energy to
electrical energy by Electromagnetic Induction.
If a conductor is moved in a magnetic field the conductor will ‘cut through’ the
invisible lines of flux. When this happens an Electromotive Force EMF (voltage) is
induced into the conductor as long as the conductor keeps moving. If the conductor
stops the induced EMF ceases. It does not matter if the conductor or the magnetic
field is moved as long as there is relative movement between the two.

FARADAY’S LAW
Farady’s law states:-

When the magnetic flux through a coil is made to vary, a voltage is set up. The
magnitude of this induced voltage is proportional to the rate of change of flux.
SIMPLE GENERATOR
The rotating loop is known as the armature.
The magnetic field is termed the field.
In a simple generator the armature rotates in the field.
An EMF is induced in the armature by electromagnetic induction.

This type of generator produces an AC voltage in the armature and therefore an

Alternating Current in the external circuit (first flowing one way, then changing
direction and flowing the opposite way).

Layout of a generator system

In an aircraft system the generator, load and battery are all in parallel with each
other. The bus bar is a distribution point. The generator output voltage is
maintained slightly higher than battery voltage to maintain the battery charged.
ALTERNATORS
Most modem light aircraft use an alternator rather than a DC generator to provide
constant voltage electricity for its electrical system because of the advantages and
alternator has.

The alternator has a much better power to weight ratio, will produce a stable output
at low RPM and does not suffer with the problems of a commutator as it uses a
rectifier to convert AC to DC.

DC GENERATOR ALTERNATOR
DC GENERATOR OUTPUT RATING is in ALTERNATOR OUTPUT RATING.
Kilo Watts (Kw) Alternator is rated in Volt Amperes (VA)
or Kilo Volt Amperes (KVA), the Apparent
Power.
Rotating Armature Stationary Armature
Stationary Field Rotating Field
Converts AC to DC by means of a Converts AC to DC by means of a
commutator rectifier
Suffers from arcing and sparking at the High load current taken from stationary
commutator as the high load current has armature eliminates arcing and sparking.
to flow through the commutator and
brushes
VOLTAGE CONTROL
µ
Most light aircraft DC electrical systems operate at 14 volts and so all the equipment
it designed to operate correctly when supplied with 14 volts. It is therefore
necessary for the output of the generator or alternator to be controlled, or regulated,
to ensure that at all times it supplies 14 volts.
The generator or alternator is driven by a drive belt or an engine accessory gearbox
and therefore the speed of rotation of the armature or field is linked to the speed of
rotation of the engine.
Controlling the output voltage by controlling the speed of the engine is not a practical
solution.
The only practical method of controlling the output voltage of a generator is to control
the strength of the magnetic field by controlling the current flow in a coil wound
around the magnetic pole pieces (field coil or field winding). Control of the current
flow is achieved by a voltage regulator.
A voltage regulator consist of:-
a) A variable resistance in series with the field coil. DC generator
b) A control coil in parallel with the field coil and the armature. AC generator
The voltage regulator senses the output voltage of the generator or alternator and
adjusts the field current to maintain the correct output voltage irrespective of
generator speed or electrical load.
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEMS
The power system for a single-engine aircraft consists of a generator or alternator
with the control and indication equipment necessary to supply all the electrical power
once the system is on-line.
The term on-line means that the generator or alternator has been switched into the
electrical system and is actually supplying power to the system.
With multi-engine aircraft two or more generators or alternators are installed in
parallel. The ampere capacity of an aircraft electrical system is determined by the
number of power-consuming devices fitted.
DI-POLE OR TWO WIRE SYSTEM
A dipole or two wire system is required where an aircraft is made of a nonconductive
material.
The current needs a complete circuit to flow and therefore needs a negative wire to
connect the load to the negative side of the generator as well as a positive or ‘live
wire’ to connect from the Bus bar (distribution point) to the load.

SINGLE POLE (UNIPOLE OR EARTH RETURN) SYSTEM

This is the most common type of system on an aircraft with metal construction. The
metal airframe is used as the negative conductor completing the circuit for the
current flow. The negative side of the generator is connected to an ‘airframe earth’
as is the negative side of each load.

CENTER ZERO AMMETER

The load Meter shows the total current output of the alternator.
The Center Zero Ammeter reads the current flowing into and out of the battery.

CENTRE ZERO AMMETER – BEFORE ENGIEN START

Prior to the engine start, the pointer of the Centre Zero Ammeter will be in the
negative part of the dial, indicating that the battery is discharging.

CENTRE ZERO AMMETER – AFTER ENGIEN START

Just after engine start-up, the pointer of the Centre Zero ammeter will be in the
positive sector, indicating that the alternator is able to provide for all the electrical
loads, and to continue charging the battery.

If, With the engine running, the pointer of the Centre Zero Ammeter is well into the
negative sector of the dial, it must be deduced that the alternator has failed and is
not supplying the electrical loads and the battery is discharging. In this case you
should switch off any unnecessary electrical services.

A Zero reading on the load meter indicates alternator failure

If during flight the Load Meter reading remains high, this may indicate that the battery
is recharging at too high a rate. This will damage the battery and cause it to
overheat.

The high charge rate may indicate a faulty voltage regulator.

A Negative ammeter reading, showing a constant, heavy discharge, indicates that

the alternator is incapable of supplying demand and that the battery is discharging.

If the electrons flowing in a circuit move backwards and forwards about a mean
position then the current produced is known as Alternating current (AC).

This means that to produce constant 400H2 electricity the RPM of the alternator
meant be constant at 8000 RPM.

But how to keep the frequency of an alternator at 400Hz. This is achieved by CSDU

CSDU is a hydraulic pump driven by engine which

drives the hyd. Motor to drive the alternator at constant
RPM.
115V DC
● T.R.U converts 115V AC to 28V DC
● TRU is connected in series with the battery.
● TRU output is shown in AMPS

Alternating current (AC) is used in most large modern transport aircraft because of
the following advantages that it holds over direct current.
❖ AC generators are simpler and more robust in construction than DC
❖ The power to weight ratio of AC machines is better than comparable DC
machines.
❖ The supply voltage can be converted to a higher or lower value with almost
100% efficiency using transformers.
❖ Any required DC voltage can be obtained simply and efficiently using
transformer rectifier units. (T.R.U.s)
❖ Three phase AC motors which are simpler, more robust and more efficient
than DC motors, can be operated from a constant frequency source, (AC
 generators).
AC machines do not suffer from the commutation problems associated with DC
machines and consequently are more reliable, especially at high altitude.

AC CURRENT TERMINOLOGY
CYCLE – A cycle is one complete series of values.
PHASE – A sine wave can be given an angular notation called phase. One cycle
represents from 0°-360° of phase

FREQUENCY – The number of cycles occurring each second is the frequency of the
supply. The frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz). One cycle per second is equal to
one Hertz. Constant frequency AC supply systems usually have a frequency of 400
Hz. For modern a/c system.

Frequency is dependent upon the number of times a North and a South pole pass
the armature in a given time period.
For example, an 8 pole generator rotating at 6,000 R.P.M. will have an output
frequency of :-
ANS : 400 Hertz

The INDUSTRY STANDARD that has evolved for constant frequency aircraft is:
(DGCA)
115/200v AC, 3 phase, 400 Hz.

And the requirement for DC is satisfied by converting AC to 28v DC using

transformer rectifier units (TRU’s), while retaining the battery for emergency use.

ALTERNATOR OUTPUT RATING

Alternators are rated in terms of this armature current as well as by their voltage
output.
Thus every alternator is rated in
Volt Amperes (VA) or Kilo Volt Amperes (KVA), the Apparent Power.

POLYPHASE CIRCUITS. (THREE PHASE ALTERNATOR)

“Three-phase” alternators have two or more single phase windings symmetrically
spaced around the stator. The number of separate stator windings determines the
number of phase present in the supply.

The currents and voltages generated in this type of machine will have the same
frequency but be out of phase with each other, the phase windings are mechanically
arranged to be at 120° to each other in the sequence A,B, C so that the outputs are
electrically separated by 120°. It can be seen that “A” phase reaches a peak going
positive before “B” phase reaches a peak going positive before “C” phase reaches a
peak going positive. This is the phase sequence ABC.
The ADVANTAGES of a three phase system are :-
a. They have a greater power/ weight ratio
b. They are easier to work in parallel

•
•
CONSTANT FREQUENCY ALTERNATORS
For A/c Systems to work constant frequency AC is needed but the question is how to
keep the frequency constant?

CSDU Constant Speed drive Unit

1. Purpose of CSDU is to keep the RPM of the Magnet constant in an alternator.
2. CSDU helps produce CONSTANT HERTZ ELECTRICITY
3. CSDU is a hydraulic pump driving a hyd. Motor which drive the alternator at a
 constant RPM.
4. CSDU fault indicating are – Oil light illuminates for two reasons
i) Low oil Px ​ i​ i) High oil Temp
5. ​ SDU can be disconnected by disconnect switch but once disconnected
C
can only be reset on the end.

If the alternator can be driven at a constant speed, then the output frequency will be
constant.
Driving the engine at a constant speed is not a practical proposition so a device is
required to keep the speed of the alternator constant irrespective of the engine
speed.

CONSTANT SPEED GENERATOR DRIVE SYSTEMS

The constant Speed Drive Unit (C.S.D.U) consists of an engine driven hydraulic
pump, the output of which drives a hydraulic motor which itself in turn drives the
alternator. The oil which forms the medium through which the mechanism operates
and also facilitates lubrication and cooling, is contained within a reservoir, entirely
separate from the engine oil system.

The output of the hydraulic pump, and therefore the speed of the hydraulic motor,
depends on the angle of a swash plate (constant pressure Pump) within the pump.
The angle of the swash plate is controlled by a device called a speed governor.

The speed governor is controlled by the load controller which senses the output
frequency of the alternator and is responsible for increasing or decreasing the torque
output of the C.S.D.U. to the alternator drive.

Most C.S.D.U. are capable of maintaining the alternator output frequency within 5%
of 400 Hz (380-420 Hz).
The CSDU operates in one of three modes overdrive, straight through drive or under
drive.
Overdrive = engine speed less than generator speed
Straight through drive = engine speed same as generator speed
Under drive = engine speed greater than generator speed
Some constant frequency generators have their CSDU and generator combined in
one unit called an Integrated Drive Unit (IDU) or Integrated Drive Generator (IDG)

C.S.D.U FAULT INDICATIONS IN THE COCKPIT

There are several indications in the cockpit associated with the Constant Speed
Drive Unit and the problems which might occur with it. The two main ones are :-
a) Low Oil Pressure Warning Lights. These will illuminate when the oil pressure
drops below a predetermined minimum value.
 b) High Oil Temperature warning. Monitors the CSDU oil outlet temperature

DGCA – PLS remember Battery is getting charged through a TRU in Series. And is
parallel to the AC generator

LOAD SHARING OR PARALLELING OF CONSTANT FREQUENCY

ALTERNATORS
When running two or more constant frequency alternators in parallel they must be
controlled in order that each one takes a fair and equal share of the load.

This “load sharing” or “paralleling” requires that two parameters are regulated:-
1. REAL LOAD
Real Load is the actual working load output available for supplying the various
electrical services and it is measured n Kilowatts (real power or true power)
Real Load Sharing is achieved by controlling the Constant Speed Drive Unit
(C.S.D.U.)

2. REACTIVE LOAD
Reactive Load is the so-called Wattless Load which is the vector sum of inductive
and capacitive currents and voltages expressed in KVARs (Kilo Volt-Amperes
Reactive).
Reactive Load Sharing is achieved by controlling the Voltage Output (Exciter Field
Current) of each generator that is connected in parallel.

TRANSFORMERS
One of the biggest advantages that an AC supply has over a DC supply is the ease
with which the value of alternating voltage can be raised or lowered with extreme
efficiency by the use of Transformers.

A simple transformer would consist of two electrically separate coils wound over iron
laminations to form a common core.

TRANSFORMATION RATIO (r) =

B
If the transformation ration is greater than one, then the transformer is a Step Up
transformer. If the ratio is less than one, then the transformer is a Step Down
transformer.

TRANSFORMER RECTIFIER UNITS (TRU’s)

TRU’s convert AC at one voltage to DC at another voltage by combining the
transformer and rectifier in one unit (usually 115/200vAC to 28vDC) to supply the DC
needs of an AC distribution system.

TRU’s are invariably multi phase units to achieve a smooth DC output.

INDICATIONS OF TRU OUTPUT (AMPS) can be shown on the main electrical
panel on the flight deck. Cooling is achieved by drawing air through the unit which
may be monitored for temperature with an overheat waning supplied.

THE RAM AIR TURBINE (R.A.T)

The Ram Air Turbine (R.A.T), when lowered into the slipstream of an aircraft in flight
will produce an emergency source of AC power. The output is controlled at a
nominal 200/115 volts, three phase 400 Hz. It will give limited operation only of
Flight Instrument and Radio services in the event of Total Alternator Failur.

THE AUXIALIARY POWER UNIT (A.P.U.)

The Auxiliary Power Unit (A.P.U.) is usually a small gas turbine engine mounted in
the aircraft tail cone. It can be used, among other things, to drive a 200/115 volt,
three phase alternator for ground servicing supplies, or, in some aircraft, for
emergency supplies in the air.

The A.P.U. alternator cannot normally be paralleled with the engine driven
alternators, and will usually only supply power to the bus bars when no other source
is feeding them.

INVERTERS
An inverter converts DC to AC.
The inverter in an constant frequency AC equipped aircraft is used as a source of
emergency supply if the AC generators fail, then the inverter is powered by the
battery. Inverters are invariably “solid state” static inverters, (transistorized), in
modem aircraft providing constant frequency AC for operation of flight instruments
and other essential AC consumers.

BONDING
An aircraft in flight will pick up, or become charged with, static electricity from the
atmosphere.

Bonding will prevent any part of the aircraft from building up a potential so great that
it will create a spark and generate a fire risk.
Each piece – of the metal structure of the aircraft, and each component on the
aircraft, is joined to the other by flexible wire strips.
This process is called bonding, and it provides an easy path for the electrons from
one part of the aircraft to another.

SCREENING
Screening is designed to prevent radio interference by absorbing electrical energy.
Static electrical charges, produced by the operation of certain electrical equipment,
create interference on radio circuits.

THE STATIC DISCHARGE SYSTEM OR STATIC WICKS

The static discharge systems, or static wicks, are fitted to reduce static build up on
the airframe. They were originally made of cotton.

DC current is required for home appliances to work but ac is supplied to out

houses, how is this happen?

STRUCTURE

FUSELAGE, COMPONENTS, AIRFRAME STRUCTURE

The fuselage is the main structure or body of the aircraft. There are three main types
of construction in use:-
1. TRUSS OR FRAMEWORK CONSTRUCTION
Framework consists a light gauge steel tubes which form a space frame of
triangular shape to give the most rigid of geometric forms. Each tube carries a
specific load, the magnitude of which depends on whether the aircraft is airborne
or on the ground. A strong, easily built basic structure.
 The framework is covered by a lightweight aluminium alloy a fabric ‘skin’ to give
an enclosed aerodynamically efficient compartment.

2. MONOCOQUE CONSTRUCTION
‘Monocoque’ is a French word meaning ‘ single shell’. In a monocoque structure.
All the loads are taken by a stressed skin with just light internal frames or
formers to give the required shape. Formers also help the A/C to withstand hoop
stress which arises because of the pressurization cycle

3. SEMI-MONOCOQUE CONSTRUCTION

q
As aircraft became larger, the pure monocoque was found not to be strong enough.
Longerons run length wise along the fuselage joining the frames together. The light
alloy skin is attached to the frames and longerons by riveting or adhesive bonding.
Remember : Longerons are also called as Stringers (Stiffeners) Function- Stiffens
the skin and assist the sheet materials to carry loads along their length.

Bulkheads isolate different sections of the aircraft, for instance the engine
compartment from the passenger compartment. Bulkheads are of much stronger
construction than fames or formers, as the loads upon them are so much greater.

Construction of Wing
Remember that energy control surface is attached to the rear spar. The front
spar is the main spar.
Lighting Hole in a RIB is lighten the structure wing with fuel cell in it is known as
wet wing.

From star, near spar, ribs & skin forms a torsion box which is highly resistant to
bending and twisting.

Bread monoplane :- wings are supported at more than one points by Fuselage

Cantilever Monoplane – only connected to fuselage at a point via bots and no other
support

FLIGHT DECK WINDOWS

The flight deck windows fitted to pressurized aircraft must withstand both the loads of
pressurization and impact loads from bird strikes. They are constructed from
toughened glass panels attached to each side of a clear vinyl interlayer.
An electrically conducting coating, applied to the inside of the outer glass panel is
used to heat the window.

WINGS, TAILPLANE AND FIN

Types of construction are:
1. ​bi-plane ​2. ​Braced monoplane ​ ​3. Cantilever
monoplane

BI-PLANE CONSTRUCTION
For biplanes which fly less than 200 kts in level flight, so a truss type design is
adequate. The bracing wire form of great rigidity which is highly resistant to bending
and twisting. Large amounts of drag are produced, hence lower airspeeds.

CANTILEVER MONOPLANE (NON-BRACED)

Cantilever wings have to absorb the stresses and strains of lift and drag in flight, and
their own weight when on the ground.

CANTILEVER MONOPLANE
A cantilever structure would consist of a front and rear spar, with the metal skin
attached to the spars to forma torsion box.
The stringers are spanwise members which give the wing rigidity by stiffening the
skin in compression.

Formers, or ribs, maintain the aerofoil shape of the wings. They support the spars,
stringers and skin against buckling, and pass concentrated loads from engines,
landing gear and control surfaces into the skin and spars.

TAIL UNITS OR STABILISING SURFACES

The tail unit or stabilizing unit, sometimes called the empennage, comes in many
different designs. It can be: 1. Conventional 2. T-tail 3. H-tail 4. V-tail
DEFINITIONS, LOADS APPLIED TO AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES.

Tension
A tension, or tensile, load is one which tends to stretch a structural member.
Components designed to resist tensile loads are known as ties.

Compression.
Compressive loads are the opposite of tensile loads and tend to shorten structural
members. Components designed to resist compressive loads are known as Struts.

Shear
Shear is a force which tends to slide one face to the material over an adjacent face.
Rivetted joints are designed to resist shear forces.

COMBINATION LOADINGS
Bending

Bending of the structure involves the three basic loadings, i.e.

a) Tension as the outer edge stretches.
b) Compression as the inner edge squeezes together.
c) Shear across the structure as the forces try to split it.

Torsion
Torsion or twisting forces produce tension at the outer edge, compression in the
centre and shear across the structure.

Stress
Stress is the internal force inside a structural member which resists an externally
applied force and, therefore, a tensile load or force will set up a tensile stress,
compression loads compressive stresses etc.

Stress is defined as the force per unit of area.

Strain
When an external force of sufficient magnitude acts on a structure, the structural
dimensions change. This change is known as strain and is the ratio of the change in
length to the original length and is a measure of the deformation of any loaded
structure.
Buckling
Buckling occurs to thin sheet materials when they are subjected to end loads and to
ties if subjected to compressive forces.

Design Limit Load (DLL)

This the maximum load that the designer would expect the airframe or component to
experience in service.

Design Ultimate Load (DUL)

The DUL is the DLL × the safety factor. The minimum safety factor specified in
design requirements is 1.5. The structure must withstand DUL without collapse.

COMPOSITE MATERIALS
Composite materials are manufactured from reinforcing fibres embedded in a
bonding resin. As the materials can be moulded, they are described as plastic.

ADVANTAGES OF COMPOSITE MATERIALS

The advantages of using composite material over alloys are:
● The ability to arrange the fibres to obtain directional properties consistent with
the load
● The ability to make complex shapes, since the material is not homogeneous
● Weight savings
● Resistance to corrosion
● High specific strength
● High specific stiffness

DISADVANTAGES OF COMPOSITE MATERIALS

The disadvantages of composite materials are:
● They are quickly eroded by hail, sand, etc, so leading edges must be
sheathed.
● They are difficult to repair
● They can absorb moisture if the material is not correctly sealed

EACH MATERIAL IS CHOOSEN FOR A PARTICULAR PROPERTY

Titanium is much lighter than steel and can be used where fire protection is required
i.e. firewalls. It has good strength and retains this and its corrosion resistance up to
temperatures of 400°C.

Magnesium alloys are also used, their principal advantage being their weight. This
gives an excellent strength to weight ratio (aluminium is one and a half times
heavier). The elastic properties of magnesium are not very satisfactory so its use in
primary structures is limited.

Aluminium and its alloys are the most widely used metals for structural use due to a
good strength to weight ratio with ‘duralumin’ type alloys predominating due to their
good fatigue resistance.

Steel and its alloys used where strength is vital and weight penalties can be ignored.
When aluminium is alloyed with 4% copper (Al-Cu) the resulting alloy has a lower
strength-to weight ratio, a good fatigue reistance and is easier to use in
manufacturing since it is softer than Al-Zn alloys. This material is often called
Duralumin and is extensively used in Production of Aircraft.

SAFE LIFE
The aircraft structure, as a whole, and components within the aircraft are given a
safe life. This is based on one, several, or all of the following:
● Cumulative flying hours
● Landings
● Pressurisation cycles
● Calendar time

FAIR-SAFE STRUCTURE
Fail-Safe
To achieve a fail-safe structure, no one item within a structure takes the entire load.
It is shared by several components, thus there are multiple load paths. This
redundancy of items allows the structure to continue operating normally up to the
static ultimate for a limited period. These are not preferred due to the fact it is
difficult to find out the damage occurrence are a in the structure. Therefore A
programmed inspection is required.

Damage tolerant structure –

Fail safe structure are rather heavy
due to the extra structural members
required to protect the integrity of
the structure. Damage tolerant
structure eliminates the extra
structural members by spreading the
loading of a particular structure over
a large area. This means that the structure is designed so that damage can be
detected during the normal inspection cycle before a failure occurs.
SPEED BRAKES

Speed brakes are devices to increase the drag of an aircraft when it is required to
decelerate quickly or to descent rapidly. To operate them as speed brakes they are
controlled by a separate lever in the cockpit and move symmetrically. Spoilers
functions as a roll control whilst being used as speed brakes, by moving
differentially from the selected brake position.

The functions of the landing gears are :-

a. To provide a means of manoeuvring the aircraft on the ground.
b. To support the aircraft at a convenient height to give clearance for propellers
and flaps, etc. and to facilitate loading.
c. To absorb the kinetic energy of landing and provide a means of controlling
deceleration.

LANDING GEAR TYPES, FIXED OR RETRACTABLE

With slow, light aircraft, and some large aircraft on which simplicity is of prime
importance, a fixed (non-retractable) landing gear is often fitted, the reduced
performance caused by the drag of the landing gear during flight is offset by the
simplicity, reduced maintenance and low initial cost.
With higher performance aircraft, drag becomes progressively more important, and
the landing gear is retracted into the wings.

FIXED LANDING GEAR

1. Spring Steel Legs. Spring steel legs are usually employed at the main
undercarriage positions. The leg consists of a tube, or strip of tapered spring
steel, the upper end being attached by bolts to the fuselage and the lower end
terminating in an axle on which the wheel and brake are assembled.
2. Rubber Cord. When rubber cord is used as a shock-absorber, the
undercarriage is usually in the form of tubular struts, designed and installed so
that the landing force is directed against a number of turns of rubber in the
form of grommet or loop.
3. Principle is OIL and AIR
4. Rate of recoil is less than an original compression
5. Insufficient extension of OLEO is caused by Low Air Pressure in the cylinder.
6. Torque link may get damaged when trying to turn in a less than mm specified
radius in the manual.
7. Broken torque link may lead shinny.
8. Air oct as shock absorber & oil as damper control.

Oleo-pneumatic Struts. Some fixed main under carriages, and most fixed nose
undercarriages, are fitted with an oleo-pneumatic shock absorber strut.

Spats are an aerodynamic fairing which may be required to minimize the drag of the
landing gear structure.

The outer cylinder is fixed rigidly to the airframe structure by two mounting brackets,
and houses an inner cylinder and a piston assembly, the interior space being
partially filled with hydraulic fluid and inflated with compressed gas (air or nitrogen).

OLEO-PNEUMATIC STRUT OPERATION

a. Under static conditions the weight of the aircraft is balanced by the strut gas
pressure and the inner cylinder takes up a position approximately midway up
its stroke.
b. Under compression (e.g. when landing), the strut shortens and fluid is forced
through the gap between the piston orifice and the metering rod, this
restriction limiting the speed of upward movement of the inner cylinder.
c. As the internal volume of the cylinders decreases, the gas pressure rises until
it balances the upward force.
d. As the upward force decreases, the gas pressure acts as a spring and
extends the inner cylinder. The speed of extension is limited by the restricted
flow of fluid through the orifice.
e. Normal taxying bumps are cushioned by the gas pressure and dampened by
the limited flow of fluid through the orifice.
**Oleo-pneumatic shock absorbers, generically referred to as oleos, function on the
principle that fluid is considered incompressible, and that gas can be compressed.
The pressure raised in the gas is equal to the force exerted in compressing it.

THE OIL CHARGE

An oil charge acts as a damper to control both the rate of compression during initial
touchdown landing load and the recoil action of the leg.

THE GAS CHARGE

The gas charge, normally nitrogen as it is inert (can be compressed air for light
aircraft), supports the weight of the aircraft and absorbs the loads.

OIL CHARGE-LEAKS OR LOSSES

The most likely place for an oleo oil leak is from the GLAND SEAL at the bottom of
the upper leg. As oil is lost, there is a loss in the oleo’s damping action.

DIFFERENTIAL BREAKING
Is when Pilot apply more break pressure on one side of the wheel & less Px on other
side to turn aircraft in confined spaces.

An undercarriage unit has to withstand varying loads during its life. These loads are
transmitted to the mountings in the aircraft structure, so these too must be very
strong. The loads sustained are;
a. Compressive (Static and on touch down)
b. Rearward bending. Due to forward movement
c. Side (During cross wind landings, take offs, and taxying).
d. Forwards (during push back).
e. Torsional (Ground Manoeuvring).
NOSE UNDERCARRIAGE
A nose undercarriage unit, is usually a lighter structure than a main unit since it
carries less weight and is usually subject only to direct compression loads. Its
design is complicated by several requiremens.
a. Castoring
b. Self centring
c. Steering
d. Anti-shimmy

Castoring is the ability of the nose wheel to tum to either side in response to the
results of differential braking or aerodynamic forces on the rudder.

SELF CENTERING
Automatic self centering of the nose wheel is essential prior to landing gear
retraction. If the nose gear is not in a central position prior to its retraction, the
restricted space available for its stowage will not be sufficient and severe damage
may be caused.

Centering is achieved by either a spring loaded cam or a hydraulic dash pot.

NOSE WHEEL STEERING

A method of steering is required to enable the pilot to manoeuver the aircraft safely
on the ground. Early methods involved the use of differential braking.
Powered steering using hydraulic systems are now common to most large
commercial aircraft.

To allow free castoring of the nose undercarriage when required, i.e. towing, a by-
pass is provided in the steering system hydraulics to allow fluid to transfer from one
side to the other.

When steering is selected this by-pass is closed by hydraulic pressure.

Steering is controlled, depending on the type of aircraft, by:
a. A separate steering wheel
b. Operation of rudder pedals
Incorporated in the steering system are:
a. Self-Centering jack
b. Shimmy damper.
c. Shimmy is oscillation of nose wheel along aircraft track or about vertical axis.

Cause of Shimmy
1. Broken torque link
 2. Over inflated tyre- If air Px is more, then shimmy is more.
3. Wear in the wheel bearing or work shimmy damper.

Steering Operation

Self-Centering operation. An inner cylinder in each steering jack is connected to

the landing gear ‘up’ line and is supplied with fluid under pressure when the landing
gear is selected up. The steering jacks extend equally to centralize the nose wheel
before pressure is applied to the nose retraction jack, and the by-pass valve allows
fluid from the steering jacks to flow to the return line.

DOWN LINE FOR STEERING

AND
UPLINE FOR CENTERING

Normal nose wheel steering operating pressure is derived from the undercarriage
‘don’ line, and a limited emergency supply is provided by a hydraulic accumulator,
hydraulic pressure passes through a CHANGE-OVER VALVE, which ensures that
the steering system is only in operation when the nose undercarriage is down.

NOSE WHEEL SHIMMY

Due to the flexibility of tyre side walls, an unstable, rapid sinusoidal oscillation or
vibration known as shimmy is induced into the nose undercarriage.

Excessive shimmy, especially at high speeds, can set up vibrations throughout the
aircraft and can be dangerous.

Shimmy can be reduced in several ways:

a. Provision of a hydraulic lock across the steering jack piston.
 b. Fitting a hydraulic damper.
c. Fitting heavy self centering springs.
d. Double nose wheels.
e. Twin contact wheels.

OPERATIONS
FUNCTION OF SEQUENCE VALVE

When the Nose undercarriage is fully retracted it is retained in position by the NLG
Uplock (Hydraulically released-Spring applied).
The one way restrictor (Restricted Flow) which restricts the rate of fluid return acting
as a door speed damper.

LIGHT INDICATIONS
1. Green light is only shown for one reason L.G. Down & Locked
2. Red light shown for many up not locked. Down, not locked, In Transit.

The electrical undercarriage system operates in such a manner that green light is
displayed when the undercarriage is locked down, a red light is displayed when the
undercarriage is in transit, and no lights are visible when the undercarriage is locked
up; bulbs are usually duplicated to avoid the possibility of false indications as a result
of bulb failures.

Note: Restrictor valves are normally fitted to limit the speed of lowering of the main
undercarriage units, which are influenced in this direction by gravity. The nose
undercarriage often lowers against the slipstream and does not need the protection
of a restrictor valve.

INADVERENT RETRACTION OF LANDING GEAR

1. GROUND LOCKING PINS – are to be placed of such location in cabin so

crew can physically see them.
2. GEAR SELECTOR LOCK-
To prevent inadvertent retraction of the landing gear when the aircraft is
resting on its wheels, a safety device is incorporated which prevents
movement of the selector lever. This safety device consists of a spring-
loaded plunger which retains the selector in the down position and is released
by the operation of a solenoid.

Electrical power to the solenoid is controlled by a switch mounted on the

shock absorber strut (part of the air/ground logic circuits).

3. AIR/GROUND LOGIC SYSTEM

Micro switches are placed in the main landing gear oleo’s so that their position
will be changed when the weight of the aircraft compresses the oleo, or
alternatively, on take off, when the weight of the wheel and bogie assembly
extends the oleo.
These circuit will prevent the running of the pump and thus the pressure in the
upline by not completing the circuit of pumps causing the landing staying
deployed on ground even if up gear selector is selected.

A HYDRAULIC GEAR RETRACTION SYSTEM

A hydraulic system for retracting and extending a landing gear normally takes its
power from engine driven pumps, alternative system being available in case of pump
failure. On some light aircraft a self-contained ‘power pack’ is used.

EMERGENCY LOWERIGN SYSTEMS

A means of extending the landing gear and locking it in the down position is provided
to cater for the eventuality of main system failure.
a. Landing gear can be extended by compressed cylinder of nitrogen or
b. On some aircraft the up-locks are released mechanically or electrically by
manual selection. The landing gear ‘free falls’ under its own weight and the
 down locks are engaged mechanically.

AQUAPLANING
The term given to a condition where the aircraft’s tyres are riding on a liquid film and
are not indirect contact with the runway surface is aquaplaning. The resulting effects
are: Wheel skids, which damage or burst the affected Tyre(s), due to the brakes
locking the wheel(s).

Increased landing roll, due to the loss of braking efficiency Loss of directional control.

Aquaplaning, a European term, can also be referred to as hydroplaning, the

American term.

Dynamic aquaplaning occurs when standing water on a wet runway is greater than
the tread depth of the type.

AQUAPLANNING SPEED FORMULAE

The possibility of aquaplaning increases as the depth of the tread is reduced, it is

therefore important that the amount of tread remaining is accurately assessed. The
coefficient of dynamic friction will reduce to very low values, typically 0, when
aquaplaning.

ACTIONS TO MINIMISE AQUAPLANING ON LANDING

Avoid landing in heavy precipitation. Allow time for the runway to drain.
Know the aquaplaning sped of the main tyres and nose wheels.
 Use flaps to land at the lowest practical speed.
Do not perform a long flareor allow the aircraft to drift in the flare.
Touch down firmly to punch the tyres though any moisture and do not allow
the aircraft to bounce, as the distance covered in the bounce and the bounce
protection system reduces the available braking distance…..
Apply forward column pressure as soon as the nose wheel is on the runway
to increase weight on the nose wheel for improved steering effectiveness.

WHEELS FOR TUBELESS TYRES

Wheels for tubeless tyres are similar in construction to non-tubeless but are ground
to a finer finish and impregnated with Bakelite to seal the material. ‘0’ ring seals are
used between the parts of the wheel to prevent leakage.
Unlike tubed wheels, the valve is built into the wheel itself and is thus not affected by
creep.

TERMINOLOGIES
Crown
This area has the tyre tread and is designed to withstand the wear of normal
operation.

Shoulder
This is a change in profile thickness from the crown and is not designed to take
wear.

Sidewall
This is the thinnest and, therefore, weakest section of a tyre and is designed to flex
when loads are applied.

Bead
This is designed to fit against the rim of the wheel, known as the bead seat.

The Regions of the Tyre

The most popular tread pattern is that termed Ribbed, its is formed from
circumferential grooves around the tyre.

Not seen so frequently now, but still termed the all weather pattern, is the Diamond
tread pattern.

The tube is inflated through an inflation valve, in which the stem is attached to the
rubber base by direct vulcanization, and the rubber is vulcanized to the tube, renewal
of the inflation valve is not permitted.

TUBELESS TYRES
These tyres are similar in construction to that of a conventional cover for use with a
tube, but an extra rubber lining is vulcanized to the inner surface and the underside
of tyre. This lining, which retains the air pressure, forms an airtight seal on the wheel
rim.

The inflation valve is of the usual type, but is fitted with a rubber gasket and situated
in the wheel rim. The advantage of tubeless tyres over conventional tyres include
the following:

a) The air pressure in the tyre is maintained over longer periods because the
lining is unstretched.
b) Penetration by a nail or similar sharp object will not cause rapid loss of
pressure because the unstretched lining clings to the objects and prevents
loss of air.
c) The tyre is more resistant to impact blows and rough treatment because of
the increased thickness of the casing, and the lining distributes the stresses
and prevents them from causing local damage.
d) Lack of an inner tube means an overall saving of approximately 7.5% weight.
e) Inflation valve damage by creep is eliminated.

TYRE PRESSURES
The difference in landing speeds, loading, landing surfaces and landing gear
construction of aircraft make it necessary to provide a wide range of tyre sizes, types
of tyre construction and inflation pressures.

There are four main categories of tyre pressures, which are as follows:
a) Low pressure. Designed to operate at a pressure of 25lb. to 35lb. per sq. in,
used on grass surfaces.
b) Medium Pressure. Operates at a pressure of 35 lb to 70 lb. per sq. in, (2.42-
4.83 bar) and is used on grass surfaces or an medium firm surfaces without a
consolidated base.
c) High Pressure. Operates at a pressure of 70 lb. to 90 lb. per sq. in, (4.83-
6.21 bar) and is suitable for concrete runways.
d) Extra High Pressure. Operates at pressures of over 90 lb. per sq. in (some
 tyres of this type are inflated to 350 lb. per sq. in), the tyre is suitable for
concrete runways.

TYRE MARKINGS
The letters ECTA or the symbol are used to indicate a tyre that has extra carbon
added to the rubber compound to make it electrically conducting to provide earthing
(grounding) between the aircraft and ground.

1 mark DGCA Question

Bg
WHAT ALL INFORMATION IS PRESENT ON THE SIDE OF THE TYRE
The size of a tyre is marked on its sidewall and includes the following information:-
a) The outside diameter in inches
b) The inside diameter in inches
c) The width of the tyre in inches.

Type of tyre
In this case, the tyre is tubeless type H.

Ply Rating
In this case, the tyre has the strength equal to 22 cotton plies.

Note: The ply rating number does not indicate the physical number of plies.
Together with the load rating, it indicates the strength and corresponding inflation
pressures. See AEA No. below.

Load Rating
In this case, the tyre has maximum static load of 30 100 lb.

Part No.
This is a number specific to the company who manufactured the tyre.

Speed rating
In this case, 245 mph is the maximum groundspeed for which the tyre is tested and
approved.
Tyre Pressure
This indicates the tyre pressure at which the tyre is inflated to prior to fitment tot eh
aircraft.

Green or grey dots painted on the sidewall of the tyre indicate the position of the
“awl” vents. Awl vents prevent pressure being trapped between the plies which
would cause disruption of the tyre carcase if it was exposed to the low pressures
experienced during high altitude flight.

BALANCE MARKER
The lightest point of a tyre cover is indicated by a red spot or triangle painted on the
sidewall of the tyre.

EFFECT OF AMBIENT TEMPERATURE

CHANGE ON TYRE PRESSURE

As an approximate guide, any increase in the ambient temperature by 3’C (5’F)
causes the tyre’s inflation pressure to increase by 1% and vice versa. If an aircraft
is flying to a destination where the ambient temperature differs by 25’C, adjusting the
tyre pressure for the cooler climate is necessary.

CREEP (SLIPPAGE)
When tyres are first fitted to a wheel they tend to move slightly around the rim. This
phenomenon is called ‘creep’ and at this stage it is considered normal. After the
tyres settle down this movement should cease.

In service, the tyre may tend to continue to creep around the wheel. If this creep is
excessive on a tyre fitted with an inner tube, it will tear out the inflation valve and
cause the tyre to burst.

Creep is less of a problem with tubeless tyres, as long as the tyre bead is
undamaged and any pressure drop is within limits.
Creep is less likely to occur if the tyre air pressure is correctly maintained. To assist
in this, tyre manufactures specify a RATED INFLATION PRESSURE for each tyre.

This figure applies to a cold tyre not under load, that is, a tyre not fitted to an aircraft.
Distortion of the tyre cover when the weight of the aircraft is on it will cause the tyre
pressure to rise by 4%. When checking the tyre pressure of a cold tyre fitted to an
aircraft should mentally add 4% to the rated tyre pressure.

TYRE DAMAGE
Inspecting the aircraft on a pre-flight includes checking the tyres. Pilots qualified on
type are able to check and top tyre pressures if the operator and the authority agree.
Some of the common causes of tyre damage include:

DRY BRAKING FLAT SPOT

Dry Braking Flat Spot
Locked or non-rotating wheels on dry runways, shown in diagram 8.39, cause fiat
spots. The skid can wear through the tyre cover and has a distinctive onion ring
pattern.

WET BRAKING FLAT SPOTS

These occur on wet/damp runway surfaces when the wheel aquaplanes dynamically
or through a reverted rubber skid. This shows the result of a wet skid. The affected
area of the tyre has the appearance of melted rubber.

FOD
Foreign object damage (FOD) describes items that should not have been there but
were and have subsequently damaged an aircraft or its equipment. FOD also
describes items that can present a hazard to an aircraft due to their location.

Do not attempt to remove any item stuck in a tyre. It could be lethal. The correct
course of action is to report it, so that the aircraft engineers can reduce the type
pressure and replace the wheel. A screw has greater grip and sealing properties
than a nail due to its thread.

The tyre requires removal if:

1. Any cut penetrates the casing plies
2. Cuts extend for more than 35 mm or 50% of any tread rib with a depth of 50%
or more of the existing rib.
3. Any cut exposes the casing cords.

FUSIBLE PLUG (thermal plugs)

As a safety precaution, to prevent over-pressurisation through overheating, fusible
plugs are fitted in tubeless tyre wheel hub assemblies).

These plugs have a threaded insert of low melting point alloy. If the wheel
temperature reaches a point where the fusible insert melts, the tyre infiation medium
(nitrogen) is released at a controlled rate.

This prevents tyre covers from exploding at high temperatures. The common value
for an air transport aircraft fusible plug is 177C. (Set by Green color)

To indicate that the plug is set at this temperature, it is coloured red. (150°C)
Prolonged braking leads to slow tyre deflation.

This works on the principle that prolonged braking generates excessive heat and the
fusible plugs melt.

The friction pads are made of an inorganic friction material and the plates of ‘heavy’
steel with a specially case hardened surface. It is this surface which causes the
plates to explode if doused with liquid fire extinguish and when they are red hot. In
the unfortunate event of a wheel or brake fire, the best extinguishant to use is dry
powder.

If the brakes become too hot, they will not be able to absorb any further energy and
their ability to retard the aircraft diminishes. This phenomenon is termed Brake
Fade.

If the return spring inside the adjuster assembly ceases to function, or if the unit is
wrongly adjusted, then they could be the cause of a brake not releasing correctly.
This is termed Brake drag.

It is important that the thickness of the brake lining material is carefully monitored.

On multiple disc brake systems, the most popular method of gauging the depth of
brake lining material remaining is by checking the amount that the retraction pin (or
the indicator pin, as it is sometimes called) extends from (or intrudes within) the
spring housing with the brakes.

ANTI SYSTEM
As the pilot’s foot pressure is the controller of the brake pressure, it is possible to
apply a pressure great enough to lock the brake and prevent the wheel from turning,
causing the wheel to skid. This damages the tyre to the point where it can burst (see
tyres), reduce the braking efficiency, and lose directional stability. To overcome this,
anti-skid braking systems are used on modern aircraft.

The basic principle of these systems is the use of the inertia of a flywheel as a
sensor of wheel deceleration. A wheel directly driven by the aircraft wheel is coupled
to the flywheel by a spring. Any changes in aircraft wheel velocity cause a relative
displacement between the flywheel and the driven wheel. This relative displacement
is used as a control signal to operate a valve in the hydraulic braking system to
release the brake pressure.

Semi Modulating
These are first generation electronic systems

Fully Modulating
These are the modern electronic systems fitted to air transport aircraft.

Aircraft fitted with an anti-skid system cannot take off unless it is serviceable.

In the event of a power supply failure to an electronic anti-skid system.

In the event of a power supply failure to an electronic anti-skid system.

In the event of a loss of normal pressure supply to the brakes when an anti-skid
device would be operating, provisions must occur for sufficient operation of the
brakes to bring the aeroplane to rest when landing under runway surface conditions
for which the aeroplane is certificated.

Some value releases pressure of the slower running wheel

Under inflated tyre will cause creep.
Over inflated tyre will cause shimmy.
Spongy Brakes means air in the system and brakes not applying properly.
To reduce tyre wear during Taxi speed must be less than 22 kts or 40 KMPH.
RTO (Rejected take off) is activated on Actuation of reverse thrust lever.
Antiskid system should be serviceable both for Take Off & landing.
Braking system is more effective on Dry Runway.
Auto Break system deactivates when the A/c comes to a full stop after
landing.
If anti-skid devices are installed, the devices and associated systems must be
designed so that no single probable malfunction, or failure results in a hazardous
loss of braking ability or directional controls of the aeroplane.

ELECTRONIC ANTI-SKID SYSTEMS

The electronic system comprises three main elements:
a) A sensor which measures wheel speed.
b) A control box to compute wheel speed information.
c) A servo valve to modulate brake pressure.

To enable the pilot to have full control of the brakes for taxying and manoeuvring, the
anti-skid system is deactivated, either manually or automatically, when the aircraft
has slowed down to below approximately 20 m.p.h., it is assumed then that there is
no further danger of skidding.

The antiskid valves received hydraulic pressure from the normal brake metering
valves
Auto brake selections, deceleration rates, and wheel brake pressure selection
Rate of deceleration Hydraulic pressure applied.
Max, 12 ft/sec 2100 psi
Max, 14.7 ft/sec 2100 psi
RTO Uncontrolled rate of deceleration 3000 psi.

ANTI ICING AND DE ICING

During spray of type I or Type 2 fluid – Engine must be switched OFF, APU may be
running (for lights) with bleed Air OFF (otherwise AC can suck the fluid smell inside
aircraft)

Type 2 fluid is thicker & gives more hold over time (15 min is sprayed 100% cold
spray application.

Anti-Ice Protection is provide for:-

● Aerofoil leading Edges.
● Wings
● Slats
● Fin
 ● Tailplane
Wing fence areas engine intakes.

Types of Ice :
a) Hoar Frost
b) Rime Ice
c) Clear or Glaze ice – cause by large super cooled water droplets most
hazardous.

Formation of ICE leads to

❖ Large changes in the local pressure gradients
❖ The extreme surface roughness common to some forms of ice will cause high
surface friction and a considerable reduction of boundary layer energy.
❖ A considerable increase in drag and a large reduction in maximum lift
coefficient
❖ Higher takeoff run and landing run.

Icing on aircraft in flight is caused primarily by the presence of super-cooled water

droplets in the atmosphere. Their existence is most known in temperature ranges
form 0° C to 7°C.

Two different approaches are generally used:

a. “De-icing” where ice is allowed to accumulate prior to being removed.
b. “Anti-icing” where the object is to prevent any ice accumulation.

There are a number of avenues which need exploring and these include detection
and warning systems and the methods used to protect the aircraft, which can be any
or all of the following:
1. Pneumatic . i) Expanding rubber boats – mechanical – De-icing
2. Thermal : i) ​Electrically heated – Anti-Icing /De-icing cycle timer switch
ii) Oil heated
iii) Air heated – Modern A/c / Anti-icing (Hot air)
3. Liquid – i) Freezing point depressant fluids (FPD)
4. Anti-Icing is the application of continuous heat or fluid
5. De-Icing is the intermittent application of fluid, heat or mechanical effort.

MECHANICAL ‘DE-ICING’
Pneumatic de-icing systems are employed in certain types of piston engine aircraft
and twin turbo propeller aircraft.

De-icer Boots. The de-icer boots, or overshoes, consist of layers of natural rubber
and rubberized fabric between which are disposed flat inflatable tubes closed at the
ends.

The tubes are made of rubberized fabric and are volcanised inside the rubber layers.
In some boats the tubes are so arranged that when the boats are in position on a
wing or tailplane leading edge the tubes run parallel to the span; in others they run
parallel to the chord.

Air supplies and Distribution: The tubes in the boot sections are inflated by air from
the pressure side of an engine-driven vacuum pump, from a high -pressure reservoir
or in the case of some types of turbo-propeller aircraft, from a topping at an engine

compressor stage.
THERMAL “ANTI-ICING” AND DE-ICING
Hot air systems on modern aircraft are generally engine bleed air and are said to be
‘anti-icing’.
Other methods of obtaining the hot air will be described, and depending on
the duration of application and the temperature applied, they may be either
de-icing or anti-icing systems.

In this system, the leading edge sections of wings including leading edge slots but
not leading edge flaps, and tail units are usually provided with a second, inner skit
positioned to form a small gap between it and the inside of the leading edge section.
Heated air is ducted to the wings and tail units and passes into the gap, providing
sufficient heat in the outer skin of the leading edge to melt ice already formed and
prevent further ice formation.

There are two thermal system in use for air intake de/icing; a hot air bleed system
and on electrical resistance heating system, and although the latter is usually chosen
for turbo-propeller engines to provide protection for the propeller, there are some
examples where both systems are used in combination.
Air supplies: there are several methods by which the heated air can be supplied
and these include bleeding of air from a turbine engine compressor, heating of ram
air by passing it through a heat exchanger located in an engine exhaust gas system,
and combustion heating of ram air.

The heat exchanger method of supplying warm air is employed generally in aircraft
powered by turbo-propeller engines.

Exhaust Air Heat Exchanger

Electrical Heating system

In an electrical heating system, heating elements either or resistance wire or sprayed
metal, are bonded to the air intake structure of the engine cowl and at the leading
edges.

The power supply required for heating is normally three-phase alternating current.
The arrangement adopted in a widely used turbo-propeller engine.

Both anti-icing and de-icing techniques are employed by using continuously heated
and intermittently heated elements respectively.

The elements are sandwiched between layers of glass cloth.

The power supply is fed directly to the continuously heated elements, and via a
cyclic time switch unit to the intermittently heated elements and to the propeller blade
elements.

The cyclic time switch units control the application of current in selected time
sequences compatible with prevailing outside air temperature conditions and severity
of icing.

FLUID SYSTEMS
This system prevents the formation of ice on surfaces by pumping de-icing fluid to
panels in the leading edge of the aerofoil, and allowing the fluid to be carried over
the surface by air movement.

The fluid is supplied from the storage tank to the pump through an integral filter.
The pump has a single inlet and a number of delivery outlets to feed the distributors
on the area fail leading edges.

To protect the pump and the system from damage due to pipe blockage etc, the
pump incorporates a safety device which relieves abnormal pressure by reducing the
flow. There are two types of distributor for use with the system, i.e. strip
and panel.

WINDSCREN PROTECTION
Windscreen protection is provided by fluid sprays, electrical heating.
Fluid De-icing system: the method employed in this system is to spray the
windscreen panel with a methyl-alcohol based fluid.
The principle components of the system are a fluid storage tank, a pump which may
be a hand operated or electrically operated type, supply pipe lines and spray tube
unit.

Electrical Anti-icing System: This system employs a windscreen of special

laminated construction heated electrically to prevent, not only the formation of ice
and mist, but also to improve the impact resistance of the windscreen at low
temperatures.

REMEMBER AC current is supplied to windshield units.

PROPELLER PROTECTION SYSTEMS

Ice formation on a propeller blade produces distortion to the aerofoil section, causing
a loss in efficiency, possible unbalance and destructive vibration. The build up of ice
must be prevented and there are two systems in use.

Effects of ice
Distorts aerofoil
Causes inbalance
Vibration
Loss of efficiency

Protection by
Anti-icing fluid system
Electrical thermal de-icing system

Protection is provided either by an Anti-icing fluid system, or by an electrically

powered thermal De-icing system.
 1. Prop De-icing is done by electrical heating equipment’s via cyclic time switch
(De-icing)
2. To prevent prop heating, heating elements only to be used while prop are
rotating.
3. Fluid is delivered to a prop by slinger ring and pipes.
4. Sometimes heating elements are also fitted to middle third segment.
5. Ice detector probe fitted in the A/C works on the principle of frequency
vibration. Any Drop in Frequency below A predetermined level provides
warnig.
6. Turn on Anti-ice and De-ice equipment only when visible moisture is present
and TAT is +10 or below. Total air temperature probe.
7. Outer wing third -No Protection.
8. Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type:
9. Regarding fire detection, Ion detectors are used to defect.

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENTS

SMOKE DETECTION
Smoke detection systems are employed where it is not possible to keep a bay or
compartment e.g. cargo or electrical equipment, under constant physical surveillance
system of detectors are employed in each compartment bay which can give remote
warnings of smoke, can be tested from the flight deck, and can be re-set when a
warning is received in order to verify it.

Smoke and flame detectors operate according to several different prinicples, for
example:-
a. Light detection
b. Light refraction
c. Ionisation
d. Change in resistance of semiconductor.

a. Light detection system – designed to respond to a change in visible light or a

change in infrared readiation.

PHOTOELECTRIC LIGHT SCATTER DETECORS

•M
As light travels in a straight line through clear air, a photoelectric light sensor is
placed out of line from a light source in these detectors. Under normal conditions,
the sensor is hidden from the light source. When smoke enters the chamber, the
light is scattered through refraction and reflection, allowing some of the light to fallon
the sensor.

PHOTOELECTRIC LIGHT ATTENUATION DETECTORS

In these smoke detectors, a light source is in direct line with a sensor.

Under normal conditions, a beam of light, a known value from the light source,
shines on the sensor cell. As the sensor cell is photoelectric, the light creates an
electrical voltage that is measured and compared against a set value.
When smoke enters the detector chamber, it starts to obscure the light (attenuation).
The subsequent reduction in light falling on the sensor drops the voltage output of
the photoelectriccell. The measuring circuit senses the drop in voltage and triggers
the flight deck warning. This type of detector requires a greater volume of the
previous designs.
Ionisation SMOKE DETECTOR

Electrons have a negative charge while the remaining atoms have a positive charge.
Two separate plates are across the chamber; one has a negative voltage, while the
other a positive voltage supplied from the aircraft’s electrical system.
 •
•
When power is applied to these plates, they act as electro – magnets, which attract
theionised particles of the opposite charge.
The electronics within the detection circuit sense the small amount of electrical
current that is created by the electrons and ions moving toward the plates. When
smoke particles enter the ionisation chamber, they disrupt the current being created
by attaching themselves to the ions, which neutralizes their potential. In this
situation, the detection circuit senses the drop in current between the plates. This
triggers the warning.

SMOKE DETETORS ARE PLACED IN

1. Cargo Compartments
2. Toilets or Lavatories
3. Avionics Bay

FIRE DETECTION SYSTEMS

Detection methods can vary according to the position of the equipment. Four
methods of detection can be described as follows:-
1. Melting Link Detectors – These are found in older aircraft and consists of a
pair of contacts held apart by a fusible plug. At a pre – determined
temperature the fusible plug melts allowing the contacts to close and a fire
warning circuit is made. A major drawback with this detector is that the
contacts will not open after the fire has been extinguished thus giving a
permanent fire warning.
2. Fire Wire System
 •
•

​These could be of two types-

​Resistive fire wire system has a negative coefficient of resistance.This
means that a temperature increases. It causes the resistance to decrease.
This gradually increases the current flow until it is large enough to activate
the warning system.

Some system also employ material with a positive coefficient of resistance, in

which increasing temperature would increase resistance and decrease
current. These system also have negative or positive coefficient of
capacitance.

These Fire wire is mounted as a continuous loop in areas where the outbreak
of fire is possible.

3. DIFFERENT EXPANSION DETECTERS

When heat is applied the tube expands at a greater rate, drawing the contacts
together, so providing power to the Fire warning circuit. A subsequent drop in
temperature will cause the tube to shorten, the contact will open and the
warning cancel. This type of unit is often used as a monitor on Engine Cooling
Air Outlets toprovide Internal Engine Overheat (I.E.O.H) warning.

•
Any fault within a fire detection system which may give rise to a false fire
 warning must be treated as a real fire.

BUILT-IN TEST-BIT
Modern fire detection systems have built-in test circuits. When electrical power is
applied to the systems, they constantly monitor the loops for integrity of the whole
system. If the test circuit detects a fault, an amber “Fault” light illuminates on the
appropriate fire-warning panel. This alerts the pilot to select the serviceable loop.

FIRE WARNINGS FOR LAVATORY COMPARTMENTS

For aircraft with 20 passenger seats or more, each lavatory must be equipped with a
smoke detector system or equivalent that provides:

A warning light in the cockpit, or

A warning light or audible warning in the passenger cabin that would be readily
detected by a cabin crew member.

FIRE EXTINGUISHING AGENTS

Agents that can be used for aircraft fixed fire extinguisher systems are:

Agent Known as Chemical Usage

Formula
Carbon Dioxide CO2 CO2 Cargo compartments
Engine bays
Bromochiorodifluoromethane BCF CBrClF3 Flight deck
Halon Passenger
1211 Compartments
Cargo Compartments
Engine bays
Bromotrifluoromethane Halon CF3Br Cargo Compartments
1301 Engine bays
Water H 2O Passenger
Compartments
Methyl Bromide MB CH3Br Engine bays
Failed cause of Toxic nature

CARBON DIOXIDE – CO2

CO2 is a gas that extinguishes fire by dispelling the oxygen from the immediate area.
It has a toxic effect and, therefore, is not normally used in passenger cabins While
CO2 is very strong. This can lead to freeze burns to flesh and cause thermal shock
to hot metals.
BROMOCHLORODIFLUOROMETHANE – CBRCIF3
BCF-Halon 1211 is a halogenated hydrocarbon. Chemical of this group also referred
to as freons.

BCF is a non-corrosive chemical that forms a blanketing mist when released, which
deprives the fire of oxygen and interferes with the combustion process, preventing
re-ignition.

It is stored as a liquefied gas kept under pressure by nitrogen, which also starts the
expulsion of the liquid from the container when the fire extinguisher is operated.

BCF does not cause cold burns or thermally shock heated metals and has a lesser
toxicity than CO.

It also has the advantage of being directed as a stream from a hand-held fire
extinguisher, allowing the user to fight fires from a safe distance.

BROMOTRIFLUOROMETHANE – CF3BR
BTM-Halon1301 has the same fire knock down properties as Halon1211 but is less
toxic than BCF. It is stored as a liquerfied gas kept under pressure by nitrogen,
which also starts the expulsion of the liquid Halon1301 from the container when the
fire extinguisher is operated.

However, Halon 1301 readily converts to a gas as per CO, and is less direct able
than BCF.

It is not suitable as the agent in a hand-held fire extinguisher.

WATER-H20
Water filled hand-held fire extinguishers are carried in the passenger cabins to fight
Class A fires. The water is expelled from the extinguisher by nitrogen gas pressure.

METHYL BROMIDE – MB
Methyl Bromide is stored as a liquefied gas kept under pressure by nitrogen, which
also starts the expulsion of the liquid from the container when the fire extinguisher is
operated.

It is an older agent that is highly toxic and corrosive to aluminium alloys, magnesium
alloys, and zinc.

Methyl Bromide is the most harmful of the agents available and is being phased out
of service as many manufacturers fo not supply or service these units. However, be
aware that some aircraft might still have this agent on board.
SAND
Useful for containing metal fires such as magnesium or titanium where liquids will
make matters worse.

CLASSIFICATION OF FIRES
Class A : Fires that involve solid materials, predominantly of an organic kind such as
paper, cotton, and wood also form glowing embers. The means of extinguishing
these fires is to cool them. The use of water also prevents re-ignition by soaking the
fuel.

Class B: Fires that involve liquids or liquefiable solids.

The means of extinguishing this fire is foam, dry powder, carbon dioxide, and Halon.

Class C: Fires that involve gases or liquefied gases such as butane, propane, and
methane, etc., resulting from spillage or leakage.
The means of extinguishing these fires is to smother them with foam or dry Powder
and use water to cool any leaking container.

Class D: Fires that involve metals such as aluminium. The means of extinguishing
these fires is to smother them with a special dry powder.

Passenger capacity Number of extinguishers

7 to 30 1
31 to 60 2
61 to 200 3
201 to 300 4
301 to 400 5
401 to 500 6
501 to 600 7
601 to 700 8

LAVATORY FIRE PROTECTION

There is a requirement for aircraft with 20 passenger seats or more to have a built0in
fire extinguisher that discharges automatically into the waste bin if a fire occurs. This
is because some passengers on long-haul non-smoking flights try to use the
aircraft’s lavatories as smoking booths.
 •
Small capacity Halon fire extinguisher, often termed a potty bottle, is Fitted behind
the waste bin unit in each lavatory. The bottle has a small diameter pipe, which is
sealed with a law melting point alloy after it has been charged with the BCF.

•
•
● ELECTRICAL FIRE – CO2 AND BCF (WATER GLYCOL SHOULD NEVER
BE USED)
● ENGINE FIRE – HALON, BCF, METHYL BROMIDE
● CABIN FIRE – WATER GLYCOL, BCF
● BRAKE FIRE – DRY POWDER, FOAM, SAND
(CO2 is never used on brake fire since it causes explosion (thermal shock)
Water has no effect on class D fire explosion (thermal shock) engine fire warning
steady red light and common warning bell.
1. Smoke detectors are fitted in cargo bays, toilets, avionics bay (electrical
equipment bays) where it is not possible to keep physical surveillance.
2. Engine fire extinguisher discharged due to overheat or over pressurization will
be indicated to crew by externally mounted discharge indicator showing red.
3. Engine fire extinguisher discharged due to use by crew will be indicated by
the red pin protruding at the head of the bottle.
4. Cut-in area is delineated buy external marking having right angled corners.
5. Emergency exits are outlined externally by a 2 inch band of contrasting colour.
 6. Toilet fire extinguisher is the only automatic fire extinguisher fires when temp
is high in the vicinity.
7. Fire detection system can be tested from the flight deck to verify the warning.
8. Emergency lighting has a min period of 10 min. via vital dc bus bar and
powers light deck lighting, cabin internal and external lighting.
9. Emergency torch is flashing at 4 sec interval (serviceable)
10. Escapes lights are inflated through compressed cylinder of nitrogen. It is
armed only from inside the cabin.

FUEL SYSTEM (JET)

Low Pressure Pump (LP pump)

The fuel then enters the ‘engine fuel system’ and is delivered to the low pressure
pump (LP pump) or backing pump. The LP pump is driven by the engine gearbox
and supplies fuel to the HP pump. In the event of total failure of the fuel tank
booster pumps the LP pump will ‘suck’ from the fuel tank to allow the engine to
remain running. In this event the aircraft MEL may require a reduction of altitude to
prevent LP pump cavitation.
Cooler
A fuel cooled oil cooler (FCOC) is fitted in the majority of gas turbine installations.
The oil cooler serves the double purpose of cooling the oil and also heating the fuel
to eliminate the formation of ice crystals which may block the components further
downstream the system.

Heater
The next component, the fuel heater, completes the warning of the fuel and the
elimination of ice crystals that may occur. It uses compressor delivery air to warm
the fuel and may be automatic, working in conjunction with the FCOC to maintain a
predetermined fuel temperature, or manual, selected by the flight engineer.

Filter
The fuel filter is in the low pressure side of the system and protects the delicate
control components within the H.P. fuel pump and the fuel control unit (F.C.U.) from
any dirt or contamination.

Flowmeter
The Flowmeter measures the instantaneous fuel flow in Gallons/hour or
Kilogram/hour and may also include an integrator to sum the total amount of fuel
used since the engine was started (Totaliser).

Fuel Pressure and temperature

May be sensed at this point in the system and indicated to the pilot to allow the
system to be monitored.

The high pressure (H.P.) fuel pump.

The High Pressure pump (HP pump) is driven by the engine high pressure shaft
through the HP gearbox and raises the pressure and flow required for the demanded
engine thrust setting. The high pressure fuel pump could be an axial piston type
pump.

Some engine may use a spur gear type HP pump which is simpler but still supply the
pressure and flow required any excess is recycled back to the inlet side of the pump.
ALSO REMEMBER
GAS TURBINE FUELS
Gas turbine engine aircraft use kerosene fuels. The two main types of gas turbine
fuel in common use in civilian aircraft are shown below, together with their
characteristic properties;-
a) JET A1 (AVTUR) (Aviation turbine fuel). This is a kerosene type fuel with a
nominal SG of 0.8 at 15°C. It has a medium flash point 38.7°C and waxing
point -50°C.
b) JET A is a similar type of fuel, but it has a waxing point of -40°C. This fuel is
normally only available in the U.S.A.
c) JET B (A VTAG) (Aviation turbine gasoline). This is a wide-cut gasoline
kerosene mix type fuel with a nominal S.G. of 0.77 at 15°C. It has a low floash
point -20°C, a wider boiling range than JET AI, and a waxing point of -60°C.
This fuel can be used as an alternative to JET A1 but as can be seen, with its low
flash point is a very flammable fuel and for reasons of safety is not generally used in
civilian aircraft.

1. Baffles in the tank prevent surging of fuel in tanks.

2. Fuel booster pump is used for jettison and fuel transfer.
3. Fuel cooled oil cooler is use to heat the fuel and cool the oil.
4. Fuel booster pumps are low pressure-cetrifugal pumps in the fuel tanks.
5. LP and HP pumps are engine driven pumps only booster pump is electrical
pump.
6. Cross feed valve is used to select fuel from any tank to any engine.
7. Wide cut fuel is more flammable than a kerosene type fuel.
8. Fuel is heated to prevent waxing.
9. Combustion chamber drain valve is closed by combustion pressure by pressure
operated NRV.
10. GTE are normally stopped by high pressure fuel shut off valve.
11. Avgas 100 and Avgas 100LL are same octane rating fuel but are given different
colours.
12. Capacitive fuel gauging system are installed in modern aircrafts they measure
fuel quantity in mass (LBS). They require AC power.
13. It comprensates for AC flight attitude and thermal expansions.
14. If A/C is filled with water instead of fuel it will show full deflection high because
S.G. of water is more than fuel.
15. The fuel flow meter is situated between HP shut off valve and fuel spray
nozzles.

Electric power failure in capacitive fuel gauging system will straw full scale deflection
low.

A fuel level drop below a pre-determined level than “low level float” switches will shut
off Jettison valve.

HYDRAULIC SYSTEM

1. A shuttle valve is used to?

a. Switch from one supply to another.
b. Switch from one service to another.
c. Operate components in sequence
d. Move components backward and forwards

2. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized?

a. By ground crew before flight?
b. Using air form the air conditioning packs
 c. Using engine bleed air for GTE
d. Uses a dedicated air compressor unit.

3. A hydraulic fuse?
a. Minimises loss of fluid in the event of a hose failure.
b. Prevents excessive fluid flow rates when jacks become unloaded
c. Limits the rate at which services operate
d. Permits gravity lowering of landing gear.

4. What services can be operated by the RAT?

1. Landing gear
2. Flaps
3. Flying controls
4. Spoiler
a. 1,2,3
b. 2,3,4
c. 1,2,4
d. All of the above

5. The RAT supplies?

a. Nosewheel steering
b. Flaps
c. Landing gear
d. Primary flight controls

6. Modern transport a/c hydraulic system typically use?

a. 1000 to 2000 psi
b. 2000 to 3000 psi
c. 3000 to 4000 psi
d. 4000 to 5000 psi

7. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized in order to?

 a. Prevent pump captivation
b. Prevent freezing of fluid
c. Keep fluid cool
d. Prevent ingress of moisture

8. In addition to storing energy, hydraulic accumulators also?

a. Minimise fluid leaks
b. Minimise leak required
c. Reduce pressure fluctuations
d. Reduce the size of reservoir required.

9. The stack pipe in a hydraulic reservoir?

a. Feeds the emergency services
b. Feeds all the systems
c. Feeds the normal systems but reserves fluid for the emergency systems
d. Prevents debris from circulating in the system.

10. Hydraulic fluid with a milky appearance?

a. Is normal after flight.
b. Indicate aeration of the system and should be investigated
c. Indicates aeration but is quite normal
d. Indicates water in the system, the fluid must be changed

11. The vent in a non-pressurised hydraulic reservoir?

a. Prevents pump captivation
b. Prevents the ingress of water vapour
c. Prevents the creation of partial vacuums and over-pressure in the reservoir
d. Prevents the fluid from boiling

12. A hydraulic fuse?

a. Prevents reverse fluid flows
b. Controls fluid flow rates
 c. Minimises fluid leakage
d. Raptures if fluid flow becomes excessive.

13. A hydraulic fuse is fitted?

a. Downstream of non-essential services
b. Downstream of essential services
c. Upstream of Essential services
d. Upstream of non-essential services.

14. An ACOV?
a. Provides on idle circuit for a constant delivery pump
b. Provides an idle circuit for a variable delivery pump
c. Controls pump output pressure
d. Controls pump output flow

15. The output of a constant delivery pump is?

a. Constant
b. Determined by swash plate angle
c. Controlled by a servo piston
d. Proportional to RPM

16. Modern a/c hydraulic system operate on the principle of?

a. High pressure large displacement.
b. High pressure small displacement.
c. High pressure large actuator
d. Low pressure small actuators.

17. Thermal expansion, jack ram displacement and small leaks are allowed for by
the?
a. Reservoir
b. Accumulator
c. Check valves
 d. Pressure relief valves

18. Hydraulic pressure pulsations and fluctuations when systems are selected, are
smoothed out by?
a. Accumulator
b. Swash plate pumps
c. ACOV
d. Pressure relief valves

19. If a shuttle valve sticks in the normal position?

a. Normal system actuation will be impossible
b. Emergency system actuation will be impossible
c. System operation will be impossible
d. The system will operate sluggishly

20. A shuttle valve?

a. Controls the direction of motion of hydraulic actuators
b. Controls the pressure sources of hydraulic systems
c. Shuts off the normal supply and connects the emergency supply when
emergency operation is selected by the pilot
d. Automatically selects the emergency supply whenever the main supply fails

21. A high pressure hydraulic pump?

a. Sucks in fluid from the reservoir
b. Must ne provided with a positive feed of fluid
c. Requires no cooling flow
d. Requires an ACOV

22. A pressure maintaining valve?

a. Maintains pressure for essential services following fluid loss
b. Controls maximum system pressure
c. Maintains system pressure after shut down
 d. Provides positive supply of fluid to the pump.

23. Low hydraulic accumulator charge pressure is likely to cause?

a. Chattering and pressure fluctuations
b. Slow operations of services
c. Unusually fast operation of services
d. Inability to operate services in flight

24. Thermal relief valves?

a. Allow for thermal expansion of fluid
b. Allow for thermal contraction of fluid
c. Allow for thermal expansion and contraction of fluid
d. Release over heated fluid from the system

25. A full flow relief valve is commonly located?

a. Upstream of the pump
b. Between the pump and filter
c. Between the pump and reservoir
d. In the return lines

26. Hydraulic system back pressure is?

a. Pressure of the gas in the accumulator
b. Pressure exerted by the loads resisting the motion of the jacks
c. Pressure generated by the rate of motion of the system
d. Pressure employed to resist excessive rates of motion in the system

27. Hydraulic system hammering?

a. Is caused by sticking jacks in is quite normal
b. Is caused by the ACOV and is quite normal
c. Is caused by entrapped air and can cause pipe fracture is left uncorrected
d. Is caused by defective swash plate pump servo pistons
28. Fluid available to the engine driven pump is normally?
a. Unfiltered
b. That between the fluid level and the bottom of the stack pipe
c. That between the fluid level and the bottom of the reservoir
d. That above the top of the stack pipe

29. The variable delivery constant pressure pump is?

a. Set to minimum output prior to start up
b. Set to maximum stroke prior to start up
c. Goes to maximum stroke during shut down
d. A constant stroke device

30. If the ACOV in a constant delivery hydraulic system fails in the closed position?
a. Pressure will fall to 0
b. Pressure will remain constant
c. Pressure will increase until the relief valve opens
d. Pressure will increase until the pipes burst or the system is shut down

31. Shuttle valves?

a. Permit 2 separate power-source to operate one service
b. Permit one power source to operate a number of services
c. Prevent reverse flow of fluid
d. Carry used fluid back to the reservoir

32. A hydraulic system pressure gauge indicates?

a. Fluid pressure
b. Accumulator gas pressure
c. Fluid pressure plus accumulator gas pressure
d. Pump output pressure

33. A double acting hand pump?

a. Is two pumps in series
 b. Is two pumps in parallel
c. Provides pressure on both the in and out strokes
d. Provides pressure only on the in stroke

ANSWERS

Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Ans a c b b d c a c c b c

Ques 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
Ans c d a d b b a b c b a

Ques 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33
Ans a a c b c b c c a a c
 HYDRAULICS

1. A force of 100N is applied to 2 separate jacks, the area of one is 0.02 m2

and the
2
other is 0.04m :
a. The smaller jack will exert a pressure of 2000Pa and the larger 4000 Pa
b. The smaller jack will exert a pressure of 5000Pa and the larger 2500 Pa
c. Both jacks will move at the same speed.
d. Both have the same load.

2. A pre charge pressure of 1000 bar of gas is shown on the accumulator gauge.
The system is then pressurised to 155 bar, so the accumulator will read:
a. 500 bar
b. 1000 bar
c. 1500 bar
d. 2500 bar

3. The pressure gauge of an hydraulic system provides information regarding the

pressure of:
a. The air in the accumulator
b. The air and hydraulic fluid in the system
c. The proportional pressure in the system
d. The hydraulic fluid in the system

4. A shuttle valve:
a. Is used to replace NRVs
b. Allows two supply sources to operate one unit
c. Allows one source to operate two units
d. Acts as a non-return valve

5. Def. Stan 91/48 is------ and is -------based:

 a. Red, mineral
b. Red, synthetic
c. Green, mineral
d. Purple, synthetic

6. A restrictor valve:
a. Is used to restrict the number of services available after loss of system
pressure
b. Controls the rate of movement of a service
c. Controls the rate of build up of pressure in the system
d. Controls the distance ajack moves

7. With a hyd lock there is:

a. Flow, but no jack movement
b. No flow but jack continues to move under gravitational effects.
c. No flow, jack is stationary
d. Constant flow
8.The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:
a. ​high operating fluid temperature
b. ​system failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible
corrosion.
c. ​seal damage and jack corrosion.
d. ​normal operation

9. Accumulator floating piston:

a. Pushed the fluid up when being charged.
b. Pushes the fluid down when being charged
c. Provides a seal between the gas and fluid
d. Prevents a hydraulic lock.

10. A relief valve:

a. Relieves below system pressure
b. Maintains pressure to a priority circuit
 c. Relieves at its designed pressure
d. Prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid temperature.

11. The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:

a. To compensate for leaks and expansion
b. To allow a space into which spare fluid may be stored.
c. To indicate system contents.
d. To maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator

12. With air in the hydraulic system you would:

a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it.
b. Bleed the air out of the system
c. Allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself
d. Expect it to operate faster

13. The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:

a. Filters the fluid returning to the tank.
b. Is fitted down stream of the pump
c. Can be by passed when maximum flow is required
d. Clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir

14. Pascal’s law states that

a. Pressure is inversely proportional to load
b. Liquid is compressible
c. Oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators
d. Applied force acts equally in all directions

15. A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:

a. An automatic cut out.
b. Engine RPM
c. A control piston
d. A swash plate that senses the fluid temperature
16. A high pressure hydraulic pump:
a. Needs a positive fluid supply
b. Does not need a positive fluid supply
c. Outlet pressure is governed by centrifugal force
d. Does not need a cooling fluid flow

17. Case drain filters are:

a. Fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the system
b. Designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to drain to atmosphere
c. To enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump condition
d. Fitted in the reservoir outlet

18. The purpose of an accumulator is to:

a. Relieve excess pressure
b. Store fluid under pressure
c. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation
d. Remove air from the system

19. With a one way check valve (NRV):

a. Flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure
b. Flow stops when the thermal relief valve off loads the hand pump.
c. Flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure.
d. Flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure.

20. A restrictor valve is physically fitted in the:

a. U/C up line and flap up line.
b. U/C down line and flap up line.
c. U/C down line and flap down line.
d. Supply line to the U/C retraction actuator.

21. In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve:

 a. A full flow relief valve is fitted downstream of it.
b. A full flow relief valve is fitted upstream of it.
c. A full flow relief valve is not required.
d. The terminal pressure will be controlled by adjusting the pump RPM.

22. Hydraulic pressure of 3000Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which
2 2
is 0.02 m and the same pressure is exerted on actuator whose are is 0.04m .
a. Both have the same force.
b. Both jacks will move at the same speed.
c. The smaller jack will exert a force of 600N and the larger 1200N
d. The smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N

23. A separator in an accumulator:

a. Isolates the gas from the fluid.
b. Reduces the size of the accumulator required.
c. Removes the dissolved gases from the fluid.
d. Maintains the fluid level in the reservoir

24.In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid will be:
a. Greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on the jack
b. Greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the load imposed on the
actuator
c. High initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel.
d. The same at all points.

25. The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the
reservoir is at the full level. The system is then pressurized. Will the contents
level:
a. Fall below the “full” mark.
b. Fall to a position marked ‘full aces charged’.
c. Remain at the same level
d. Fries above the “full” mark.
26. A pressure maintaining or priority valve:
a. Enables ground operation of services when the engines are off.
b. Is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services
c. Is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system pressure.
d. Is used to increase pressure in the sys

27. A hydraulic lock occurs:

a. When the thermal RV operates
b. When fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank.
c. When flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move
d. When fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is allowed to bypass to
the reservoir.

28. In an enclosed system pressure is felt:

a. More at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder.
b. More at the cylinder end than the piston head.
c. More when the piston is moving than when it is stationary.
d. The same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head.

29. A non return valve:

a. Can only be fitted if provided with a by pass selector.
b. Closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure.
c. Opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure
d. Closes if inlet pressure ceases

30. Low gas pressure in accumulator causes:

a. Rapid jack movements
b. No effect on system
c. Rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating.
d. Rapid and smooth operation of system.

31. Hammering in system:

 a. Is normal and does not affect the systems efficiency.
b. Is caused by pipe diameter fluctuations.
c. Is an indication that a further selection is necessary.
d. Is detrimental to the system

32. The specification of hydraulic fluids (mineral, vegetable or ester based) is:
a. Always distinguishable by taste and smell.
b. Generally distinguishable by colour
c. Generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same
manufacturer.
d. Not generally distinguishable by colour.

33. An ACOV will:

a. Provide an idling circuit when a selection is made.
b. Extend the life of the accumulator.
c. Provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully charged
d. Ensure the pump is always on load

34. Emergency air bottle may be used:

a. To compensate for a low fluid level in reservoir.
b. To charge the accumulators in an emergency
c. An emergency power supply in the event of main system fluid pressure loss.
d. An emergency power supply to raise the undercarriage.

35. Fluid level in a reservoir will, when pressurized=

a. Fall
b. Rise
c. Only change when the systems are operated
d. Remain the same

36. The purpose of a reservoir is to:

a. Compensates for temperature changes
 b. Compensates for small leaks, expansion and jack displacement.
c. Compensates for fluid loss
d. To minimize pump cavitation

37. When the hydraulic system pressure is released

a. Reservoir air pressure will increase
b. Reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than other components in
the system
c. Reservoir fluid contents will fall if reservoir is the highest point in the system
d. Reservoir contents are dumped overboard.

38. Hydraulic pressure in a closed system:

a. Is greater in pipes of larger diameters.
b. Is greater in pipes of smaller diameters.
c. Does not vary with pipe diameter.
d. Varies in direct proportion to the system demands

39. The materials used for moving or sliding seals in hydraulic systems are:
a. Synthetic rubber with vegetable oils
b. Natural rubber with man made oils
c. Natural rubber with mineral oils
d. Butyl rubber with chemically made oils

40. The seal material and fluid source:

a. Will be the same always.
b. Are not the same-mixed freely
c. Are sometimes variable
d. Are simply chosen according to the supplies available

41. A variable displacement pump on system startup will be at:

a. Minimum stroke
b. An optimised position depending on fluid viscosity.
 c. Maximum stroke
d. Mid stroke

42. The purpose of a reservoir is:

a. To provide a housing for the instrument transmitters
b. To enable the contents to be checked
c. To allow for fluid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and contents
monitoring.
d. To provide a housing for the main system pumps and so obviate the need for
backing pumps.

43. A hand pump will draw its supply from:

a. The stack pipe.
b. Above the normal level
c. Through the U tube to prevent syphoning
d. The bottom of the reservoir

44. A main system hydraulic pump:

a. Does not need a positive fluid supply if primed before startup.
b. Always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation.
c. Does not need a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation.
d. Can be run dry without causing and damage.

45. Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:
a. Exert the same force.
b. Will move at different speeds.
c. Will move at the same speed
d. Exert different forces
2
46.A force of 1500 N is applied to a piston of area 0.002m and generates a force of
2
____ (I) _____N on a piston of area 0.003m . The pressure generated is _____
(2) ____ and, if the smaller piston moves 0.025m, the work done is _____ (3)
______.
a. ​(1) 56.25J (2) 750000Pa (3) 750000N
 b. (​ 1) 750000N (2) 2250 P ​(3) 56.25J
c. ​(1) 225N (2) 75000Pa (3) 562.5 J
d. (​ 1) 1250N (2) 750000Pa (3) 37.5 J

47. The following statements relate to hydraulic accumulators. The function of a

accumulator is to:
1. Store fluid under pressure
2. Dampen pressure fluctuations
3. Allow for fluid expansion
4. Replace the need for a reservoir
5. Absorb some of the landing loads
6. Allow for thermal expansion
7. Prolong the period between pump cut-in and cut-out
8. Provide the initial pressure when a selection is made and the pump is cut out
9. Provide an emergency reserve of pressure in the event of pump failure
Which of the following applies?
a. All of the statements are correct
b. N one of the statements are correct
c. Statement 1,2,3,4,5,8,9 are correct
d. Statements 1,2,3,6,7,9 are correct

48. The seal materials used with hydraulic fluids to DEF/STAN 91-48 and
SKYDROL 700 specification are respectively
a. Natural rubber and neoprene
b. Neoprene and natural rubber
c. Butyl and neoprene
d. Neoprene and butyl

49. To prevent cavitation of the pump a hydraulic reservoir may be:-

a. Pressurized
b. Bootstrapped
c. Above the pump
d. All of the above
50. A hand pump is usually fitted:
a. For ground servicing purpose
b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency
c. Pressurizing the oleo struts in the air
d. Retracting the gear after take-off.

ANSWERS

Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans b c d b a b c b c c a b b

Ques 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans d c a c b d a a d a d a b

Ques 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Ans c d d c d d c c a b b c d

Ques 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans a c c d b d d d d d a
 AIR CONDITIONING AND PRESSURISATION

1. Main and nose wheel bays are:

a. Pressurized
b. Unpressurised
c. Conditioned
d. Different, with the mains being unpressurised and the nose pressurized

2. Normal maximum negative differential pressure is:

a. When atmospheric pressure exceeds cabin pressure by the amount permitted
by the system controls
b. Where the cabin pressure falls below aircraft altitude pressure at which time
the inward relief valve opens
c. When the cabin pressure exceeds the atmospheric pressure by 0.5 PSI
d. The pressure at which the duct relief valve is set to operate.

3. When would the negative differential limit be reached/ exceeded:

a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
 b. During ground pressure testing
c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs
d. When changing to manual operation

4. A/C in level flight if cabin altitude increases does pressure diff:

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same
d. nil

5. In level pressurized flight does the outflow valve:

a. close
b. adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open
c. open to increase air conditioning
d. adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally almost closed

6. In a turbo cooler system is the cooling air:

a. Ram air
b. Engine by pass air
c. Cabin air
d. Compressor air

7. The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. Is this
more important:
a. In descent
b. In climb
c. In periods when the dehumidifier is in use
d. In cruise
8. Is a cabin humidifier:
a. On the ground in conditions of low relative humidity
b. At high altitude
c. At low altitude
 d. On the ground in high ambient temperatures

9. Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:

a. Number of pressurisation cycles.
b. Number of explosive decompressions
c. Number of landings only
d. Number of cycles at maximum differential

10. If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, will air be:
a. Contaminated
b. Unaffected
c. ‘b’ is only correct if synthetic oil is used
d. ‘a’ will be correct only if the aircraft is inverted

11. Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:

a. Special gauge
b. Aircrafts VSI
c. Cabin pressure controller
d. Gauge reading a percentage of Max Diff Pressure

12. Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic) is supplied with:

a. Air data computer output information
b. Cabin and static pressure
c. Cabin pressure, static and air speed information
d. Cabin pressure only

13. On what principle does the vapour cycle cooling system word on:
a. Liquid into vapour
b. Vapour into liquid
c. Vapour into gas
d. Cold gas into hot gas
14. What is the purpose of the duct relief valve:
a. To protect the undercarriage bay
b. To ensure the compressor pressure is regulated
c. To prevent damage to the ducts
d. To relieve excess pressure to compressor return line

15. What system is installed to control the air conditioning?

a. Emulsifier and water extractor
b. Impingement type dehydrator and humidifier
c. Dehydrator only
d. Humidifier only

16. How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?

a. By expanding over turbine
b. By expanding over turbine driving compressor
c. Via an air cooled radiator
d. By passing it through the fuel heater

17. At the max differential phase, is the discharge valve:

a. Open
b. Closed
c. Under the control of the rate capsule
d. Partly open

18. What is the purpose of inward relief valves:

a. To prevent negative differential
b. To back up the duct relief valve
c. To allow positive pressure to be bled off in an emergency
d. To back up the outflow valve

19. On a ground pressurization test, if the cabin suffers a rapid depressurization:

a. The temperature will rise suddenly
 b. Water precipitation will occur
c. Damage to hull may occur
d. Duct relief valve may jam open

20. A heat exchanger function by:

a. Combining ram and charge air
b. Mixing the various vapours inside the heat exchanger
c. Passing charge air through ducts and cool air around ducts
d. Removing the static charge

21. Maximum Differential pressure:

a. Is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of the
fuselage and the atmospheric ambient presure
b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump
c. Is the pressure loss over a given time limit
d. Is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

22. A humidifier is fitted to:

a. Extract the moisture content in the air
b. Filter the air
c. Increase the moisture content in the air when operating at high altitude
d. To ensure the cabin air is saturated at high altitude

23. If the discharge or outflow valve closes:

a. The duct relief valve will take control
b. The inward relief valve would assume control
c. The safety valve would limit the positive pressure difference
d. The safety relief valve would limit the negative pressure difference

24. Air for conditioning and pressurization is taken from:

a. The engine compressor or cabin compressor
b. The engine by pass duct or thrust reverse by pass duct
 c. The engine compressor or ram turbine
d. The engine turbine or cabin compressor

25. Safety valves are biased:

a. Inwards
b. Outwards
c. In the direction sensed by the SVC
d. Neither a nor b

26. Cabin compressors:

a. Increase their flow in cruise conditions
b. Decrease their flow in cruise conditions
c. Increase their flow in proportion to increases of altitude differential pressure
and reduction in engine RPM in order to maintain the mass flow.
d. Deliver minimum air at level via the cold air unit.

27. In a pressurization circuit the sequence of operation is for the:

a. Inward relief valve to open before the safety valve
b. Outflow valve to operate before the safety valve
c. Outflow valve to operate after the safety valve
d. Outflow valve to operate the same time as the safety valve.

28. With the QFE set on the cabin controller, against an altitude of zero:
a. The fuselage will be pressurized on landing
b. A ground pressurization will automatically take place
c. The cabin will be unpressurised on landing
d. The flight deck will be depressurized

29. In the cruise of 30,000ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4,000ft to 6,000ft:
a. Cabin differential will increase
b. Cabin differential will not be affected
c. Cabin differential will decrease
 d. Nil

30. An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16,000ft at 1,000ft per min, the cabin
pressurization is set to climb at 500ft per min to a cabin altitude of 8,000ft. The
time taken for the cabin to reach 8,000ft is.
a. The same time as it taken the aircraft to reach 16,000ft
b. Half the time is takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft
c. Twice the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft
d. Three times the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft

31. The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing gear:
a. Allows the aircraft to be pressurized on the ground.
b. Stop pressurizing on the ground and ensure that there is no pressure
differential
c. Ensures that the discharge valve is closed
d. Cancels out the safety valve on the ground

32. Negative differential is limited by:

a. Dump valve
b. Inward relief valve
c. Outflow valve
d. Safety valve

33. Sequence of air through a vapour cooling system is:

a. Turbine then expansion valve
b. Tank then evaporator
c. Turbine then evaporator
d. Compressor then turbine

34. To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin

pressure:
a. A duct relief valve is fitted
b. A venture device is fitted
 c. A mass flow controller is fitted
d. A thermostatic relief valve is fitted

35. The term “pressurization cycle” means:

a. Air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only
b. Air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time the air is released
c. Air discharged from the fuselage above 15 psi
d. The frequency in Hzs the pressure cycles from the rootes blowers enter the
fuselage

36. Inward relief valves operate:

a. In conjunction with the cabin pressure controller when there is a negative diff.
b. In conjunction with the cabin altitude selector when there is negative diff.
c. When manually selected during the emergency descent procedure
automatically when there is a negative diff.

37. Safety valves operate:

a. At higher diff than discharge valve
b. As soon as initiation takes place
c. At a lower diff than a discharge valve
d. At a set value, which is selected

38. Ditching cocks are operated:

a. Automatically when the soluble plugs dissolve.
b. To shut all outflow valves.
c. To direct pressure into flotation bags
d. For rapid depressurization

39. Duct Relief Valves operate when:

a. Excessive pressure builds up in the air conditioning system supply ducts
b. To keep cabin pressure close to ambient pressure
c. To prevent the floor from collapsing should baggage door open
 d. The cooling modulator shutters reach the optimized position.

40. During a normal pressurized cruise, the discharge valve position is:
a. At a position pre-set before take off
b. Partially open
c. Open until selected altitude is reached
d. Closed until selected altitude is reached

41. A dump valve:

a. Automatically opens when fuel is dumped
b. Is controlled manually
c. Is opened automatically when the safety valve opens
d. Is controlled by the safety valve integrating line.

42. When air is pressurized the % of oxygen:

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. Nil

43. If pressure is manually controlled:

a. An extra member is required to monitor system operation
b. The climb rate would be maintained automatically
c. Climb rate could not be maintained
d. Care should be taken to ensure climb/descent rates are safe

44. An aircraft is prevented from pressurizing on the ground by:

a. The auto deflating valve on the main oleos
b. Inhibiting micro switches on the landing gear
c. Inhibiting micro switches on the throttles
d. The pressure control master switch
45. If the pressurization air is passed over the cold air unit compressor does it:
a. Increase the charge air temperature
b. Decrease the charge air temperature
c. Decrease the charge air pressure
d. Make no change to the charge air condition

46. If the cabin pressure increases in level flight does the cabin VSI show:
a. Rate of climb
b. No change unless the aircraft climbs
c. Rate of descent
d. Nil

47. Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:

a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height
b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter
c. Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure
d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

48. The term pressure cabin is used to describe:

a. Pressurization of the flight deck only
b. The ability to pressurize the aircraft to a higher than ambient pressure
c. The passenger cabin on an airliner
d. The ability to maintain a constant pressure differential at all altitudes

49. A pressurization system works by:

a. Essentially constant input mass flow and variable output
b. Essentially constant output mass flow and variable input
c. Does not start until an altitude of 8,000ft has been reached
d. Supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the mass flow control
system

50. When air is pressurized by an engine driven compressor, it is also:

 a. Moisturized
b. Heated
c. Cooled
d. The temperature is not affected

ANSWERS

Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans b a a b b a a b a a a b a c

Ques 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans b b a a b c a c c a a c b c

Ques 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans c a b b a c b d a b a b b c

Ques 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans d b a c a b a b
PRESSURISATION AND CONDITIONING

1. Why are some aircraft pressurization systems to referred to as bootstrap

systems?
a. Because they are air cycle machines.
b. Because they are vapour cycle machines.
c. They are activated by pull cords
d. They employ refrigerants

2. The ditching control valve?

a. Opens the outflow and inward relief valves
b. Closes the outflow valves
c. Closes the mass flow controller
d. Opens the outflow valves

3. The heat exchanger in a bootstrap system?

a. Cools both the bled air and the compressor outlet air
 b. Heat the incoming air
c. Cools the incoming air
d. Extracts heat from the exhaust air before it is discharged overboard

4. An air cycle machine?

a. Uses a turbine to reduce air temperature
b. Uses Freon to reduce air temperature
c. Uses Freon to increase air temperature
d. Uses a compressor to reduce air temperature

5. Cabin air pressure?

a. Is controlled only when maximum pressure differential is reached
b. Can no longer be controlled when maximum pressure differential is reached
c. Can be controlled either manually or automatically
d. Can only be controlled manually

6. A pressure cabin is one in which?

a. Cabin pressure is maintain at sea level pressure
b. Pressurization occurs above 8000ft only
c. A constant differential pressure is maintained at all altitudes
d. Cabin pressure is always greater than ambient

7. In straight and level cruise flight?

a. The inward relief valve is open
b. The outflow valves are open
c. The outflow valves are closed
d. The outflow valves are partly open

8. Cabin altitude?
a. Is actual altitude corrected for sea level pressure
b. The pressure altitude at which the pressure in the cabin would occur in the
ISA
 c. The altitude at which pressure inside and outside of the cabin are same
d. The pressure altitude equating to that in the cabin when at cruising altitude.

9. Conditioned air?
a. Is bled from the engines
b. Is air that has had its pressure and temperature adjusted to make it suitable
for use in the cabin
c. Is air that has had its humidity, temperature and pressure adjusted to make it
suitable for us in the cabin
d. Is unsuitable for use in the cabin

10. In a bootstrap system the air first?

a. Passes through the turbine
b. Passes through a compressor
c. Passes through a dehumidifier
d. Passes through a heat exchanger

11. If the maximum operating altitude is limited by the cabin pressure, the limiting
factor will be?
a. Maximum pressure differential that the system can achieve.
b. Maximum pressure differential that the cabin structure can sustain
c. Maximum pressure differential that the passengers can tolerate
d. Power available from the engines.

12. The dump valve?

a. Opens the outflow valves
b. Opens the inflow valves
c. Rapidly depressurizes the cabin
d. Rapidly pressurizes the cabin

13. Where in a cabin conditioning system is the vapour separator?

a. After the cold air unit
b. After the heat exchanger
 c. Before the heat exchanger
d. Before the turbine

14. If cabin pressure becomes lower than ambient?

a. Outward relief valve closes
b. Inward relief valve opens
c. Dump valve opens
d. The compressor goes into high gear.

15. If the outflow valve becomes fully closed?

a. The inward relief valve will open
b. The outward relief valve will open
c. The cabin skin will rupture
d. The safety valve opens when the structural limit is reached

16. If QFE is set on the cabin altimeter will read?

a. Zero on the ground
b. Zero at sea level
c. The airfield elevation when on the runway
d. The same as the height above sea level when QNH is set

17. During a descent the cabin pressure in a pressurized aircraft usually?

a. Climbs at the same rate as the ambient pressure
b. Climbs at a lesser rate than the ambient pressure
c. Climbs at a greater rate than the ambient pressure
d. Remains constant

18. The working cycle of an air cycle machine is?

a. Induction, compression, power exhaust
b. Induction, cooling compression, cooling, expansion, exhaust
c. Compression, expansion, exhaust
d. Induction, compression, cooling, exhaust
19. If the outflow valve of a pressurized aircraft malfunctions and opens, when it is
cruising at 30000 ft, the cabin pressure will………, the differential pressure
will…….., the cabin ROC will …….. and the cabin pressure altitude will
………….?
a. Increase, increase, decrease, decrease
b. Increase, increase, increase, increase
c. Decrease, increase, increase, decrease
d. Decrease, decrease, increase, increase

20. Cabin altitude is?

a. The height of the cabin above the ground
b. The height of the cabin in the ISA
c. The altitude at which the cabin pressure would occur in the ISA
d. The altitude of the cabin above ISA msi

21. Pack valves?

a. ​ ontrol airflow from the packs
c
b. ​ ontrol airflow to the packs
c
c. ​ ontrol bleed air to the packs
c
d. ​ ontrol bleed air temperature
c

22. If in steady flight the cabin VSI reads 300 fpm?

a. The pressure will fall to ambient
b. The automatic cut-in will operate
c. The passengers will suffocate
d. The automatic oxygen masks will drop down
23. What would the cabin VSI indicate if the cabin pressure suddenly began to
decrease in cruise flight?
a. Positive ROC
b. Negative ROC
c. Sudden increasing in positive ROC
d. Sudden decrease in negative ROC
24. The sequence of processes in an air cycle machine is?
a. Turbine, primary heat exchanger, compressor
b. Compressor, turbine, primary heat exchanger
c. Compressor, secondary heat exchanger, turbine
d. Secondary heat exchanger, compressor, turbine

25. The sudden appearance of mist in the cabin indicates??

a. Slow decompression
b. Excessive pressurization
c. Inward relief valve stuck open
d. Rapid decompression

26. Cabin temperature is controlled?

a. Manually by the cabin crew
b. Manually by the pilot or automatically
c. Automatically according to pre-set profiles
d. Automatically according to selectable profiles

27. The range of differential pressures employed in commercial aircraft is?

a. 3 to 6 psi
b. 7 to 9 psi
c. 8 to 15 psi
d. 7 to 11 psi

28. In a manually controlled pressurization system the rate of change of cabin

altitude is controlled by?
a. The maximum ROC limiter
b. The maximum ROD limiter
c. The outward vent valve
d. The range change selector
29. If an aircraft climbs to 30000 ft at 1500 fpm, while its cabin altitude climbs to
8000ft at 500 fpm, the cabin pressure will?
a. Increase
b. Decrease gradually over a period of 16 minutes
c. Decrease gradually over a period of 20 minutes
d. Decrease gradually over a period of 5.33 minutes

30. Maximum cabin rate of descent is limited by?

a. Structural considerations
b. Passenger comfort considerations.
c. Flight crew efficiency considerations
d. The physical limitations of the pressurization system

ANSWERS

Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans a b a a c b d b c d a c b b b

Ques 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans a b b d c c a c c d b b d b b
​

OXYGEN

1. Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 25000 ft is

approximately:
a. Twenty seconds
b. Eighty seconds
c. Three minutes
d. Six minutes
2. Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 40 000 ft is
approximately.
a. Twenty seconds
b. Three minutes
c. Eighty seconds
d. Six minutes

3. The maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not seriously
impaired is:
a. 10000 ft
b. 17 500 ft
c. 25 000 ft
d. 30 000 ft

4. In a pressure demand oxygen system:

a. Each member of the crew has a regulator
b. Each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply
c. Oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow.
d. Oxygen demand will cause the pressure to rise

5. In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied:

a. Only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection.
b. Only on passenger inhalation through the mask
c. Only when the cabin altitude is above 18 000 ft.
d. Only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot.

6. In a diluter demand system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in:
a. Air mix supplied at emergency pressure.
b. 100% oxygen supply as called for by the user.
c. 100% oxygen at positive pressure
d. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure.
7. If the aircraft suffers a decompression passenger oxygen masks:
a. Are released by the passengers
b. Automatically drop to a half hung (ready position).
c. Are handed out by the cabin staff
d. Must be removed from the life jacket storage

8. Oxygen cylinders are normally charged to:

a. 1000 PSI
b. 1200 PSI
c. 1800 PSI
d. 2000 PSI

9. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in:

a. Litres/minute
b. Pounds/minute
c. Litres/second
d. Kilos/ hour

10. The colour of American oxygen cylinder is:

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Brown

11. The colour of British oxygen cylinders is:

a. White with black lettering.
b. Grey with silver lettering
c. Black with white neck
d. Blue with white lettering

12. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders:

a. Is relieved by a thermostat
 b. Is relieved by under pressurizing the bottle
c. Is relieved by a bursting disc
d. Is controlled by a thermal relief valve
13. To leak test an oxygen system use:
a. Fairy liquid and de-ionised water.
b. Thin oil
c. Acid free soap and distilled water
d. Acid free soap and water

14. Lubrication of an oxygen component thread is by:

a. Soap water
b. Grease
c. Oil
d. Graphite

15. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen system is indicated by:

a. Flow indicators
b. Lack of anoxia
c. Aural reassurance
d. Pressure indicators

16. If the pressurization system fails and the cabin starts to climb, then at 14000’
oxygen will be available to the passengers by:
a. The stewardess who will hand out masks.
b. The passengers grabbing a mask from the overhead lockers
c. Portable oxygen bottles located in the seat backs
d. Masks automatically ejected to a ½ hung position.

17. When air is pressurized the % of oxygen:

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
 d. Nil

18. In an emergency chemically produced oxygen is supplied for a given period by:
a. Sodium chlorate, iron power, an electrical firing system and a filter.
b. Potassium chlorate, iron powder, an electrical firing system and a filter.
c. Sodium chlorate, iron powder which is chemically activated by air and then
filtered.
d. Sodium chlorate and an electrical firing system

19. Passengers oxygen masks will present

a. Only when the cabin altitude reaches 14000
b. Only if selected by the crew
c. Only if selected by the cabin staff
d. If selected manually = electrically = barometrically

20. The charged pressure of a portable oxygen cylinder is normally:

a. 500 psi
b. 1200psi
c. 1800 psi
d. 3000 psi

21. With the control knob set to high, a 120 litre portable bottle will provide oxygen
for a period of:
a. 60 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 12 mins
d. 3 mins

22. At what altitude will the diluter-demand oxygen regulator provide 100% pure
oxygen
a. 10,000 ft
b. 14,000 ft
c. 24,000 ft
 d. 34,000 ft

23. A flow indicator fitted to an Oxygen regulator indicates:

a. That exactly the correct amount of oxygen is being used by the crew member.
b. That oxygen is flowing through the regulator
c. That the crew member is correctly connected to the regulator
d. That the system pressure reducing valve is supplying the correct pressure to
the regulator.

24. What is the approximate time of useful conciousness when hypoxia develops at
the specified altitudes.
18,000 ft ​ ​ ​30,000 ft
a. 2-3 Min ​ ​10-15 sec
b. 10 Min ​ ​2 Min
c. 30 Min ​ ​90-45 secs
d. 40 Min ​ ​5 Min

25. What is the effect on cabin temperature of a rapid de-compression at 30,000 ft.

a. Sudden and extreme drop

b. Insignificant change over the first 2 minutes
c. A gradual decrease to ambient over a period of about 10 minutes if the cabin
heating ceases.
d. A gradual decrease to ambient temperature over a period of about 30 minutes
if cabin heating continues.

26. Susceptibility to hypoxia is increased by:

a. Heat
b. Noise
c. Smoking
d. Under-Breathing

27. What is the approximate cabin altitude above which you must breath 100%
oxygen if you are to maintain an alveolar partial pressure equal to that at sea
 level:
a. 26,000 ft
b. 30,000 ft
c. 34,000 ft
d. 38,000 ft

ANSWERS

Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans c a a a a d b c a c c c c d

Ques 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27
Ans a d c a d c b d b c a c c

ELECTRICITY

1. DC is converted to AC by ………… and AC is converted to DC by ……………?

a. Rectifiers i​ nverters
b. Inverters r​ ectifiers
c. Diodes t​ ransistors
d. Transistors ​ iodes
d

2. Fuses are rated in terms of?

a. The amount of power they can carry
b. The amount of voltage they can carry
c. The amount of current they can carry
d. Their rupture time

3. In a three phase star connected AC electrical system, the line current is?
a. The same as the phase current
 b. Larger than the phase current
c. 1/ phase current
d. × phase current

4. How is the voltage regulator in a DC generator connected?

a. In series with field windings
b. In series with the armature
c. In parallel with the field windings
d. In parallel with the armature.
5. EMF is measured in?
a. Amps
b. Farads
c. Coulombs
d. Volts

6. Load driven by a battery must be?

a. In series so that all share the same voltage
b. In series so that all carry the same current
c. In parallel so that all carry the same current
d. In parallel so that all carry the same voltage

7. In a three phase start connected AC electrical system, the phase voltage is?
a. The vector sum of all three phase voltages
b. Equal to the line voltage
c. Less than the line voltage
d. Greater than the line voltage

8. A centre zero ammeter is normally fitted …….. in order to measure…………?

a. Downstream of the battery bus bar ​ easure discharge rate
m
b. Upstream of the generator bus bar ​ easure discharge rate
m
c. Downstream of the generator ​ ​ easure charge rate
m
d. Between the battery and its bus bar ​ easure
m
9. What kinds of meters are used in AC circuit?
a. Volts and amps
b. Watts and amps
c. KVA and amps
d. KVA and Hz

10. Ohm’s law states that current is?

a. Inversely proportional to voltage
b. Inversely proportional to resistance
c. Directly proportional to the square of the resistance
d. Directly proportional to the square of voltage

11. In a star wound generator?

1. Line frequency is greater than phase frequency
2. Line voltage is greater than phase voltage
3. Line current is greater than the phase current
4. Phase frequency is greater than the line frequency
5. Phase voltage is greater than the line voltage
6. Phase current is greater than the line current
a. Only 2 is true
b. Only 1 is true
c. Only 1 and 3 are true
d. All are true

12. A capacitor in series will?

a. Make current log voltage in a DC circuit
b. Pass only DC current
c. Block DC current
d. Reduce impedance in a DC circuit

13. The most commonly used AC frequency in a/c is?

 a. 25 hz
b. 100 hz
c. 115 hz
d. 400 hz

14. If a CSDU over speeds?

a. Shut down the engine
b. Disconnect the CDSU and leave it disconnected
c. Throttle back the engine until the CSDU disconnects automatically
d. Accelerate the engine until the CSDU trips

15. If 10 fully charged lead acid cells are connected in parallel the open circuit
voltage will be approximately?
a. 2.2 volts
b. 2.4 volts
c. 22 volts
d. 24 volts

16. If DC is the primary source of electrical power in a a/c, the AC instruments may
be fed from?
a. A TRU
b. An inverter
c. A rectifier
d. A transducer

17. A bus bar is?

a. A common connection to a number of loads
b. A common connection for a number of power supplies
c. An integral part of a generator
d. Fed by a circuit breaker

18. Electrical power in a DC circuit is?

 a. I/E
b. V / R
2

c. R/ I
d. V×R

19. The advantages of AC generators over DC generators include?

1. Less complex
2. Better power to weight ratio
3. Higher starting torque
4. Longer service lives
5. Less RF interference
a. 1,2,4,5
b. 1,3,5
c. 2,4,6
d. Al of the above
20. If 10 fully charged lead acid cells are connected in series the open circuit
voltage will be approximately?
a. 2.2 volts
b. 2.4 volts
c. 22 volts
d. 24 volts

21. AC bus bar loads are connected?

a. In series so that the current is proportional to load
b. In parallel so that the current is proportional to load
c. In series so that the voltage is proportional to load
d. In parallel so that voltage is proportional to load

22. Electrical fuses are connected in?

a. Parallel ​reduce resistance
b. Parallel i​ ncrease resistance
c. Series s​ ense total voltage
 d. Series ​sense total current

23. The phase in a three phase AC generator are?

a. 45 degrees apart
b. 60 degrees apart
c. 90 degrees apart
d. 120 degrees apart

24. If a generator ammeter is indicating 14 amps?

a. The battery is dead
b. The battery is charging
c. The generator is off line
d. The generator is online

25. What is the difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker.
a. 1 operates on current while 2 operates on power
b. 1 can be reset while 2 cannot
c. 1 operates on power while 2 operates on current
d. 1 cannot be reset but 2 can be
26. Poor bonding will be indicated by?
a. Repeated tripping of circuit breakers
b. Corrosion of skin joints
c. Fuse blowing
d. Static interference on radios

27. What must be the RPM of a four pole AC generator to produce a 400 hz
output?
a. 4000 RPM
b. 6000 RPM
c. 8000 RPM
d. 12000 RPM
28. Fuses will blow when?
a. The circuit has become open circuit
b. Too many loads have been switched off, so excessive current flows in the
remaining loads
c. The loads have become connected in series
d. The circuit has become short circuited

29. As load increases, the regulator of a constant sped AC generator?

a. Remains constant
b. Increases field excitation
c. Decreases filed excitation
d. Stops field excitation

30. The output of an AC generator is rated in?

a. KW and volts
b. KVA or KW
c. Volts and amperes
d. KVA and amps

31. A relay is?

a. An electromagnetic switch in which the core moves
b. An electromagnetic switch in which the core does not move
c. A rotary indicator employing electromagnetic fields and return springs
d. A remote amplification device

32. The frequency of the output of an AC generator is determined by?

a. RPM
b. Number of poles
c. Fields excitation amplitude
d. Number of poles and RPM

33. If a centre zero ammeter is indicating minus 12 amps?

 a. The battery is charging
b. The battery is discharging
c. The generator is online
d. The voltage regulator is defective

ANSWERS

Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans b c a a d d c d d b a c

Ques 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Ans d b a b a b a c b d d d

Ques 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33
Ans d d d d a d b d b

SELF ASSESSMENT QUESTIONS – STRUCTURES

1. What is the purpose of the wing main spar

a. To withstand bending and torsional loads
b. To withstand compressive and torsional loads
c. To withstand compressive and shear loads
d. To withstand bending and shear loads

2. What is the purpose of wing ribs

a. To withstand the fatigue stresses
b. To shape the wing and support the skin
c. To house the fuel and the landing gear
d. To provide local support for the skin
3. What is the purpose of stringers
a. To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses
b. To produce stress risers and support the fatigue metres
c. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin.
d. To support the primary control surfaces

4. The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing:

a. The design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor
b. The design limit plus the design ultimate load
c. Three times the safety factor
d. The design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety

5. In the construction of airframes the primary purpose of frames or formers is to:

a. Provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels
b. Oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage
c. Form the entrance door posts
d. Support the wings.

6. How can wing bending moments be reduce in flight?

a. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and keeping the centre section fuel tanks full for as
long as possible
b. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and using the fuel in the wings last
c. By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron ‘down-float’
d. By having wing mounted engines and using the wing fuel first

7. Regarding a safe life structure:

1. Will only fail after a known number of operations or hours of use
2. Should not fail until a predicted number of fatigue cycles has been achieved
3. Has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults
4. Is changed before its predicted life is reached
a. 1 and 2 apply
 b. 1 and 3 apply
c. 3 and 4 apply
d. All of the above apply

8. A fail safe structure

1. Has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults
2. Is changed before its predicted life is reached
3. Has redundant strength which will tolerate a certain amount of structural
damage
4. Is secondary structure of no structural significance
a. 1 and 2 apply
b. 1 and 3 apply
c. 3 and 4 apply
d. All of the above apply

9. The skin of a modem pressurized aircraft

a. Is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle
b. Houses the crew and the payload
c. Provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse
weather
d. Is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads

10. The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:

a. Support the wings
b. House the crew and payload
c. Keep out adverse weather
d. Provide access to the cockpit

11. Station number (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:

a. a means of locating airframe structure and components
b. passenger seat locations
c. runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal
 d. compass alignment markings

12. Flight deck windows are constructed from

a. An amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals
b. Strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl interlayers and rubber
pressure seals
c. Strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing and
rubber pressure seals
d. Strengthened glass with rubber seals

13. A cantilever wing:

a. Is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires
b. Is supported at one end only with no external bracing
c. Has both an upper an lower airfoil section
d. Folds at the root section to ease storage in confined spaces

14. A torsion box:

a. Is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and
twisting loads.
b. Is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending
and twisting loads
c. Is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and
landing gear
d. Is a structure designed to reduce the weight

15. A lightening hole in a rib

a. Prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage
b. Provides a means of passing cables and controls through a pressure bulkhead
c. Collects and disposes of electrical changes
d. Lightens and stiffens the structure

16. Control surface flutter

a. Provides additional lift for take off and landing in the event of engine failure
b. Occurs at high angles of attack
 c. Is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope
d. Is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing.

17. Control surface flutter is minimized by

a. Reducing the moment of the critical engine
b. Aerodynamic balance of the control cables
c. Changing the wings before they reach their critical life
d. Mass balance of the control surface

18. A damage tolerant structure

a. Has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area
b. Is light, non load bearing structure, damage to which will not adversely affect
the aircraft
c. Is replaced when it reaches its predicted life
d. Need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance

19. Aircraft structures consists mainly of

a. Light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets an titanium or steel materials at
points requiring high strength
b. Magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and titanium or steel at points
requiring high strength
c. Aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points
requiring high strength
d. Aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring
high strength

20. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of an aircraft is

a. The maximum permissible take offmass of the aircraft
b. The maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no useable fuel
c. The maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with zero payload
d. The maximum permissible landing mass

ANSWERS
Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans a b c d b b c b d b

Ques 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans a b b b d c d a c b

STRUCTURES

1. Fail safe structures?

a. Are designed to remain safe for a specified number of hours or flight cycles
b. Are designed such that if any element of structure fails, the loads will be
carried by the adjacent element of structure
c. Are designed such that all parts are likely to fails are inspected regularly
d. Do not require regular inspection

2. Trim tabs?
a. Reduce manoeuvring forces
b. Trim the aircraft in normal fight
c. Trim the aircraft in low speed flight
d. Reduce or cancel out control hinge moments

3. Duralumin is made of?

1. Aluminium
2. Copper
3. Aluminium copper alloy
4. Is easy to weld
5. Is difficult to weld
6. Is susceptible to corrosion
7. Is highly resistant to corrosion
 8. Has good thermal conductivity
9. Has poor thermal conductivity
a. 3,5,6,8
b. 1,2,5,9
c. 3,4,5,7
d. 1,5,7,9

4. Krueger flaps are used?

a. Outboard only
b. Inboard only
c. Usually inboard with slats outboard
d. Along the inboard trailing edge only

5. Trim tabs are fitted in order to?

a. Reduce control effectiveness at high speed
b. Increase control effectiveness at low speed
c. Reduce stick holding forces to zero
d. Reduce stick forces when manoeuvring

6. Flaperons are?
a. Combined rudder and flaps
b. Combined slats and flaps
c. Combined ailerons and flaps
d. Combined elevators and flaps

7. Fail safe construction?

a. Is used in all modern aircraft
b. Is used only in highly stressed military aerobatic aircraft
c. Is no longer used in commercial passenger aircraft
d. None of the above

8. Torsional aileron flutter involves?

 a. C of G aft of hinge line and cyclic twisting of wings
b. C of G aft C of P and cyclic twisting of wings
c. C of P fwd of torsional axis and cyclic twisting of wings
d. None of the above

9. Swept back wings are ………… to divergence?

a. More prone
b. Less prone
c. Never prone
d. None of the above

10. How is control mass balance achieved?

a. By fitting weight aft of the hinge
b. By fitting weight onto the leading edge
c. By fitting weights into the tip cap
d. By fitting a horn balance

11. Which of the following minimize adverse yaw?

a. Yaw damper
b. Dorsal fin
c. Roll spoilers
d. Trim dampers

12. Aerodynamic balance methods include?

a. Split flaps and split rudders
b. Weights added to the leading edge of the control surfaces
c. Insert hinge and horn balance
d. Rudder-aileron and coupling

13. Adverse yaw in a turn may be corrected by?

a. Balance tabs
b. Anti-balance tabs
 c. Differential ailerons
d. Mass balance

14. Which of the following is true of power assisted flying controls

a. None of the aerodynamic loads are felt by the pilot
b. Some proportion of the aerodynamic load are felt by the pilot
c. The full aerodynamic load is felt by the pilot
d. Control is lost in the event of a total hydraulic failure

15. What is the purpose of the mach trim system in a high speed aircraft?
a. To damp out phugoid motion in yaw
b. To prevent pitch up in shock stall
c. To prevent pitch down in shock stall
d. To prevent dutch roll

16. How do ailerons and roll respond if the control wheel is moved to the left?
a. Left aileron down, left spoiler does not move, right aileron and spoiler up
b. Right aileron and spoiler down, left aileron and spoiler up
c. Left aileron and spoiler down, right aileron and spoiler up
d. Left aileron and spoiler up, right aileron down, right aileron remains retracted

17. A yaw damper?

a. Improves lateral stability
b. Prevents spiral instability
c. Is useful at low speeds only
d. Is not necessary in swept wing aircraft

18. Servo tabs?

a. Can sometimes be used following hydraulic power failure
b. Can never provide control following hydraulic power failure
c. Can always provide control following hydraulic power failure
d. Can never be used in power assisted control system
19. Fully powered flying controls?
a. Are not required in large aircraft
b. Generate high stick forces at high speeds
c. Generates high stick forces at low speeds
d. Generate low stick forces

20. Control reversal?

a. Occurs only in the transonic speed range
b. Cannot occur in the transonic speed range
c. Is most likely at high speeds
d. Is most likely at low speeds

21. The three axes of motion?

a. Never cross
b. Cross at C of P
c. Cross at C of G
d. Cross at the neutral point

22. Primary flying control include?

a. Ailerons, elevons and roll spoilers
b. Ailerons, air brakes and lift spoilers
c. Elevons, rudder and stabilisers
d. Rudder, roll spoilers and nose wheel steering

23. The main stresses on the upper and lower skins of a wing in flight are?
a. Compression ​tension
b. Compression ​ c​ ompression
c. Tension ​ t​ ension
d. Tension ​ c​ ompression

ANSWERS
Ques 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans b d a c c c c a b b c c

Ques 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
Ans c b c d a a d c c a a

FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEMS

1. The purpose of pulley wheels in the cable control system is

a. To ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system
b. To change the direction of the control cable
c. To ensure smooth operation of the system
d. To prevent the cable from slackening

2. The purpose of the primary stops in a control system is:

a. To set the range of movement of the control surface
b. To enable the secondary stops to be correctly spaced
c. To limit control movement to one direction only
d. To set the control surface neutral position

3. The purpose of the secondary stops in a control system is:

a. To reduce the control loads on the primary stops
b. To limit control surface range in the event of primary stop failure
c. To limit the secondary control system from excessive movement
d. To remove the excess backlash in the controls

4. The purpose of the fairleads in a cable control system is to:

a. Alter the angle of deflection of the cables
b. To guide the cables on the pulley wheels
 c. To attach the cables to chain drives
d. To deep the cable straight and clear of structure

5. In a cable control system cables are tensioned to:

1. Remove backlash from the control linkage
2. Provide tension on the turnbuckles
3. Provide positive action in both directions
4. Ensure the full range is achieved
5. Compensate for temperature variations

a. 1,3 and 5 only

b. 3 only
c. 4 only
d. All the above

6. In a cable control system the cables are mounted in pairs to:

1. Remove backlash from the control linkage
2. Provide tension on the turnbuckles
3. Provide positive action in both directions
4. Ensure the full range is achieved
5. Compensate for temperature variations

a. 1,3 and 5 only

b. 3 only
c. 4 only
d. All the above

7. In a manual flying control system the control inputs to the primary control
surfaces
1. Are reversely
2. Are irreversible
3. Are instinctive for the movement required
 4. Are opposite for the movement required
5. Are limited in range by flight deck obstructions

a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,3 and 5 only

8. To yaw the aircraft to the right:

a. The right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left
b. The right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right
c. The left rudder pedal is pushed is pushed forward and the rudder moves to
the left
d. The left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left

9. ​To roll the aircraft to the right:

a. The rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the
left down
b. The aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the
left down
c. The aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and
the left one down
d. The aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left
one down

10. The advantages of a cable control are:

1. Light, very good strength to weight ratio
2. Easy to route through the aircraft
3. Less prone to impact damage
4. Takes up less volume
5. Less bolted joints

a. 1 and 2 and 4 only

b. 3 and 5 only
 c. 1, 2 and 5 only
d. All the above

LANDING GEAR

1. The advantages of tubeless tyres include?

1. The tube cannot rotate within the tyre
2. The tyre cannot rotate relative to the wheel
3. The tyre will deflate if there is excessive creep
4. They are more easily fitted to wheels
5. The valves cannot be sheared off by excessive braking
a. 1,2,3,4,5
b. 1,2,4,5
c. 1,3,4,5
d. 1,5

2. How is gear retraction prevented on the ground?

a. A warning sign on the lever
b. An aural warning system
c. Isolation of the hydraulic power when on the ground
d. Micro switches

3. A brake accumulator?
a. Permits use to brakes when engines are stopped
b. Allows for thermal contraction of fluid after shutdown
c. Maintain braking effect in the event of small leaks when parked

4. Thermal bugs?
a. Release brake pressure to prevent overheating of brakes
b. Release excessive tyre pressure to prevent wheel/tyre explosions
 c. Heat up the hydraulic fluid to working temperature
d. Active brake cooling fans at some pre-determined temperature

5. Landing gear legs are locked down by?

a. An amber warning light
b. The actuating cylinder reaching the end of its range
c. An over-centre geometric locking mechanism
d. Putting in the ground locks
6. Commercial passenger aircraft oleo struts employ?
a. Air
b. Nitrogen
c. Helum
d. Halon

7. An under inflated tyre operating on a dry runway will?

a. Improve braking efficiency
b. Increase wear at the shoulders
c. Increase wear at the centre
d. Decrease viscous aquaplaning speed

8. Anti-skid system?
a. Increase fluid pressure to the slower level
b. Increase fluid pressure to the faster level
c. Decrease fluid pressure to the slower level
d. Decrease fluid pressure to the faster level

9. How is anti-skid system disconnected?

a. Automatically when spoilers are deployed
b. Automatically upon touch down
c. Automatically when a specified speed is reached after touch-down
d. Manually after the end of the landing run
10. Tubeless tyres?
a. Can eb deflated by creep
b. Explode if punctured
c. Can be deflated due to the valve being torn out by excessive braking
d. Are lighter than tubed ones

11. Shimmy is potentially damaging oscillation that occurs when?

a. Landing gear is retracted
b. Landing gear is extended
c. Moving at low speeds on the ground
d. Moving at high speeds on the ground

12. Fusible plugs react to?

a. High pressures
b. High temperatures
c. Low pressures
d. Low temperatures

13. The indication of gear down and locked is?

a. All lights out
b. Three reds
c. Three greens
d. Gear down caption illuminated

14. Emergency landing gear extension in modern passenger aircraft is usually

powered by?
a. Essential services AC busbar
b. Essential service DC busbar
c. Stored HP air.
d. Gravity

15. Power for the landing gear is usually provided by means of?
 a. HP pneumatic system
b. DC electrics
c. AC electrics
d. HP hydraulics

16. The majority of modern transport aircraft use ….. brake units?
a. Drum
b. Multi drum
c. Disc
d. Multi disc

17. The recommended maximum speed to reduce tyre wear is?

a. 20 kts
b. 22 kts
c. 30 kts
d. 45 kts

18. Shimmy is often prevented in light aircraft with single nose wheels by?
a. A marstrand tyre
b. Shimmy dampers
c. Power steering
d. Non-castoring nose-wheel

19. Inadvertent gear selection in flight is prevented in light aircraft by?

a. Squat switches
b. Ground locks
c. Micro-switches
d. Detented selector levers

20. Emergency gear extension in larger aircraft is typically by means of?

a. High pressure oxygen
b. High pressure nitrogen or gravity
 c. Hand pump
d. RAT

21. The device which ensures that gear doors are open before the gear is raised
to?
a. Micro-switch
b. Squat-switch
c. Sequency valve
d. One way restrictor valve

22. Unlocked gear is indicated by?

a. Audible warnings
b. Red lights
c. Green lights
d. Flashing red lights

23. Anti-skid is operational when?

a. The wheels are on the ground
b. The wheels are on the ground and ground speed is greater than 20 mph
c. Landing gear is down and locked
d. All the times when selected on

24. A differential braking system?

a. Applies different forces to the nose and when brakes to keep the aircraft track
straight
b. Applies different forces to the wheel brakes depending on the forces applied
by the to the foot pedals
c. Has a parking brake lever for each main wheel
d. Is used only in light aircraft

25. Brake indications in light aircraft typically include?

a. Temperature, system pressure, wear and anti-skid condition
b. Temperature and anti-skid condition
 c. Wear and anti-skid condition
d. Temperature, system pressure and anti-skid condition

26. Braking is most effective when the wheels are?

a. Stopped
b. Spinning at high speed
c. Just about to skid
d. Skidding but still spinning slowly

27. Brake fade is caused by?

a. Ingress of water between pads and discs
b. Over heating of pads
c. Melting of discs
d. Boiling of hydraulic fluid

28. Why must CO not be used to extinguish when brake fires?

2

a. It will corrode the brake disc

b. It will crack the brake discs
c. It will cause the wheels to explode
d. It will not extinguish burning rubber

29. Excessive use of brake is likely to cause?

a. Rapid tyre deflation
b. Boiling of broke fluid
c. Slow tyre deflation
d. Tyre bursting

30. Creep?
a. Is rotational movement of the brake discs when pressure is low
b. Is rotational movement of the tyre around the wheel rim
c. Is caused by excessive tyre pressures
d. Does not happen with tubed tyres
31. Shimmy is?
a. Rapid oscillations of the main wheels about their axles
b. Rapid oscillations of the nose wheel about its vertical axis
c. Slow oscillation of the main wheels about their bogies
d. Slow vertical oscillation of the nose wheels

32. One way restrictors in gear operating systems?

a. Restrict retraction rate to prevent impact damage with the fuselage
b. Restrict extension rate to prevent damage to gear stops and attachments
c. Restrict both extension and retraction rates to prevent damage
d. Restrict retraction rate in the event of a burst hydraulic pipe

33. Creep is indicated by?

a. Green spots on the tyre walls
b. White lines on the tyre walls and wheels rims
c. Red dots on wheels and tyre walls
d. Tearing of the tyre sidewal rubber

34. Brake dragging is caused by?

a. The pilot keeping his toes on the pedals in the flight
b. Air trapping in the brake hydraulic system
c. Excessive main hydraulic system pressure
d. Worn brake pads or shoes

35. Creep is likely to occur with?

a. Worn tyres
b. Over inflated tyres
c. Newly fitted tyres
d. Marstrand tyres

36. Light aircraft nose wheel steering is usually by?

 a. Pneumatic power
b. Hydraulic power
c. Electrical power
d. Push-pull rods

37. Anti-skid?
a. Prevents wheel locking when taking off
b. Prevents wheel locking when landing
c. Prevents wheel locking when landing and brake application during the
approach to land
d. Operates only in contaminated or wet runway conditions

38. The auto-brake system is disengaged?

a. Manually
b. Automatically when aircraft stops
c. Automatically at 75 kts
d. Automatically at taxi speeds (22kts)

39. Anti-skid systems?

a. Prevent skidding or slush, snow and ice
b. Prevent wheels from locking when carrying out an RTO
c. Improves both take off and landing performance
d. All of the above

40. Grey or green dots on tyre sidewalls indicate?

a. The heaviest port of the tyre
b. The lightest part of the tyre
c. Small holes to dissipate trapped air
d. Small holes caused by trapped air

41. Shimmy dampers are fitted to?

a. Main gear only
 b. Main and nose gear
c. Nose gear only
d. Non-steerable nose gears only

42. Creep is?

a. Affects only tubeless tyres?
b. Affects only tubed tyres
c. Can tear out the valves of tubeless tyres
d. Can tear out the valves of tubed tyres

43. Brake dragging is most likely to occur when?

a. Pads are worn out and brakes are cold
b. Discs are worn out and brakes are hot
c. Discs are wrapped and brakes are cold
d. Air is trapped in the system and brakes are hot

44. If tyre pressure is 225 psi, its aquaplaning speed will be?
a. 105 kts
b. 115 kts
c. 125 kts
d. 135 kts

45. Inadvertent gear retraction on the ground is prevented by?

a. Gravity
b. Safety pins
c. Ground/air logic system
d. A gated or guarded gear lever

46. How is the main undercarriage normally locked in the down position?
a. Hydraulic pressure and mechanical lock
b. Hydraulic pressure
c. Hydraulic pressure and geometric lock
 d. A geometric lock and a mechanical lock

47. The most probable cause of nose wheel shimmy is?

a. Shock absorber extension low
b. Worn torques links and toggles
c. Low tyre inflation pressure
d. Excessive shock absorber extension

48. When the main undercarriage is selected DOWN in flight, it is locked down by?
a. Hydraulic down locks
b. Locking pins and warning flags
c. Sequence valves
d. Spring loaded lock jacks imposing a geometric lock on the side stays or drag
struts

49. A red band painted on the wall of a tyre is?

a. Light spot
b. Balance mark
c. Heavy spot
d. Creep mark

50. The rated pressure of an aircraft tyre is?

a. Loaded pressure when the aircraft is cold
b. Unloaded pressure when the tyre is hot
c. Loaded pressure when the tyre is hot
d. Unloaded pressure when the tyre is cold

51. A rated pressure in an aircraft tyre is recommended by?

a. The aircraft operator
b. The aviation authority of the country from which the aircraft operates
c. The European aviation authority
d. The tyre manufactures
52. A ribbed tyre is worn to its limits when it is worn to?
a. 4 nm from the bottom of the wear indicator grooves
b. 2 nm from the bottom of any groove
c. 4 nm from the bottom of any grave
d. 2 nm from the bottom of the wear indicator grooves

53. An advantage of a nosewheel undercarriage configuration over a tail wheel

configuration is?
a. A reduced landing speed
b. Reduce possibility of a nose-over in a crosswind
c. Reduced aircraft weight
d. Less complex construction of the undercarriage

54. Aircraft nose wheel shimmy is?

a. Rapid oscillation of the wheel about the wheel axis
b. Commonly caused low shock absorber gas pressure
c. Oscillationof wheel about its track
d. Rapid vertical displacement of the wheel due to uneven ground

55. A fire of aircraft’s wheel or wheel brake will require which of the following types
of portable hand held fire extinguishers to be used?
a. CO or BCF
2

b. CO 2

c. Foam
d. Dry powder

56. A retractable main undercarriage unit is locked by?

a. Hydraulic pressure
b. Torque links
c. A mechanical lock and a spring loaded centre lock
d. A hydraulic lock and mechanical lock
57. The principle of operation of an oleo pneumatic shock absorber (shock strut)
employs:
a. Oil and spring
b. Oil and air (or nitrogen)
c. Oil only
d. Air and a coil spring

58. A wheel brake anti-skid unit is sensitive to?

a. Aircraft speed
b. Hydraulic system fluid pressure
c. Hydraulic system fluid pressure, and temperature
d. Angular deceleration

ANSWERS

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES (DGCA)

1. Oil is used in an oleo strut to:-

a. Support the weight of the aircraft
b. Limit the speed of compression of the strut
c. Lubricate the piston within the cylinder
d. Limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut
2. The nose wheel assembly must be centered before retraction because:-
a. There is limited space in the nose wheel bay
b. The aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight
c. The tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight
d. It will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off

3. The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:-

a. Prevent the fluid becoming aerated
b. Counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast
c. Make the lowering time greater than the raising time
d. Prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated

4. Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:

a. Not possible because the system is not powerful enough
b. Prevented by the ground/air logic system
c. Always a danger after the ground locks have been removed’
d. The responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft

5. Creep (slippage):-
a. Is not a problem with tubeless tyres
b. Refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes
c. Can rip out the inflation valve and deflate the tyre
d. Can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre

6. Tyre wear when taxying can be reduced:-

a. Restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers
b. Taxying at less than 40 kph
c. Staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway
d. Taxying at less than 25 knots

7. To prevent scrubbing the tyres while taxying, you should:-

 a. Use tyres with fusible plugs
b. Make sharp turns only if you have high speed tyres fitted
c. Tum no sharper than the minimum specified radius
d. Deflate the tyres to a minimum pressure

8. The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is:-

a. CO 2

b. Dry powder
c. Freon
d. Water

9. When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on the gauge
should be modified by:-
a. 10psi
b. 100/0
c. 4psi
d. 4%

10. The most likely cause of brake fade is:-

a. Oil or grease on the brake drums
b. Worn stators
c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure
d. Overheating

11. The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes
from:-
a. The aircraft main hydraulic system
b. The pilots brake pedals
c. A self contained power pack
d. The hydraulic reservoir

12. Which of the following statements will produce the shortest landing run:-
 i. Crossing the threshold at the correct height and speed
ii. Applying full anti-skid braking as quickly as possible after touchdown
iii. Using maximum pedal pressure but releasing the pressure as the wheels
start to skid
iv. The use of cadence braking
v. Use of minimum braking pressure early in the landing run and maximum
pressure towards the end
vi. Application of reverse thrust as early as possible in the landing run
vii. Deployment of the lift dumpers/speed brakes as early as possible in the
landing run

a. (i), (ii), (vi), (vii)

b. (i), (iii), (vi), (vii)
c. (i), (iv), (vi), (vii)
d. (i), (v), (vi), (vii)

13. The formula which gives the minimum speed (Vp) at which aquaplaning may
occur is:-
2
where P is kg/cm and Vp is in knots
a.
b. where P is psi and Vp is in mph
c. where P is psi and Vp is in knots
2
d. where P is kg! cm and Vp is in mph

14. An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will
be:-
a. 135 mph
b. 135 knots
c. 145 knots
d. 145 mph

15. Landing gear ground locking pins are:-

a. Fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are fully cocked
 b. Removed prior to flight and returned to stores
c. Fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the down lock jack
d. Removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the
crew.

16. The most likely cause of brake unit dragging is:-

a. dirt between the rotor and stator assemblies
b. grease on the rotor assembly
c. the brake pressure being too high
d. incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies

17. a likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:-

a. aircraft is overweight
b. the tyre pressures are too high
c. the aircraft is incorrectly loaded
d. a torque link is worn or damaged

18. Creep (slippage):-

a. Can damage the braking system
b. Can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim
c. May cause excess wear
d. Never occurs on new tyres

19. The anti-skid system would be used:-

a. On landing runs only
b. On take off runs only
c. For take off on icy runways
d. For both take off and landing runs

20. A hydraulic gear retraction mechanism consists of sequence valves, uplocks

and:-
a. An anti-skid braking system
 b. Downlocks
c. Torque links
d. A shock absorber

21. A nose wheel steering control system:-

a. Prevents the nose wheel from casterig at all times
b. Allows the nose wheel to caster within preset limits when in the neutral position
c. Allows the nose wheel to caster freely at all times
d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralized

22. At an aircraft taxying speed of 10mph the antiskid braking system is:-
a. Inoperative
b. Operative
c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes
d. Operative only o the main wheel brakes

23. The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing.
The pressures will have:-
a. Fallen by 15% from their rated value
b. Risen by 15% from their rated value
c. Remained constant
d. Risen by 100/0 of their original value

24. The ply rating of a tyre:-

a. Always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcase
b. Never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcase
c. Indicates whether or not an inner should be fitted
d. Is the index of the tyre strength

25. When the landing gear is selected UP the sequence of lights is:-
a. Red, green, out
b. Red, out, green
 c. Green, red, out
d. Out, red, green

26. The amount of wear on a reinforced, ribbed tread tyre is indicated by:-
a. The offset wear groove
b. Marker tie bars
c. Concentric wear rings
d. Grey cushion rubber

27. In the event of an approach to land being made with the throttle levers retarded
towards idle and the flaps down and the gear up, the warning given to the pilot
will be a :-
a. Continuous bell
b. Hom
c. Buzzer
d. Stick shaker

28. Lowering the gear using the free fall system will result in the main landing gear
doors:-
a. Closing hydraulically
b. Closing mechanically
c. Remaining open
d. Being jettisoned

29. With RTO (rejected take-off) selected and armed the brakes will be
automatically applied if:-
a. V 1 is not reached after a predetermined distance
b. Vr is not reached after a predetermined distance
c. Reverse thrust is selected at any time
d. One of the thrust levers is returned to idle

30. A green fusible plug is designed to deflate the tyre if a temperature of -------- is
reached.
a. 177°C
 b. 277°C
c. 155°C
d. 199°C

ANSWERS

ANTI – ICING

1. The electrical supply to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes:

a. Is controlled to give an intermittent supply.
b. Must be taken directly from the APU generator
c. Must only be selected on for short periods
d. Is continuous to all blades

2. Propeller blade heating elements are:-

a. Fitted only to the thin outer sections where maximum ice accretion occurs
b. Fitted only to the thick inner section where minimum ice accretion occurs
c. Usually fitted to the thick section but sometimes a second element is fitted to a
mid section
d. Fitted to the complete leading edge.

3. When an aircraft is de-iced prior to departure, if the temperature is 0°C in

precipitation, which type of fluid and application method will provide the longest
holdover period:
a. Type I fluid @ 100% cold spray application
b. Type II fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application
c. Type I fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application
d. Type II fluid @ 100% cold spray application.
4. The effect of frost on an aircraft:
a. Is to cause an increase in boundary layer energy and so delay the onset of
the stall.
b. Can be generally ignored
c. Has no significant effect on the aerodynamic controur or CL max
d. Is to cause an increase in the surface roughness which in turn increase skin
friction and reduces the kinetic energy of the boundary layer.

5. In flight airframe icing does not occur

a. Above 25 000 feet.
b. Above 40 000 feet.
c. Above 35 000 feet
d. Above 30 000 feet.

6. The method used to provide de-icing in flight can be:-

a. Mechanical or pneumatic or fluid
b. Pneumatic or thermal or fluid
c. Electrically heated or air heated or oil heated
d. Centrifugally forced or ram air heated

7. Ice detectors are used primarily to warn the crew:

a. That they are approaching airframe icing conditions
b. That they are approaching engine icing conditions
c. That engine icing conditions now warrant the initiation of the engine system
d. That airframe icing conditions exist

8. Fluid is delivered to a propeller by:

a. a centrifugal slipper ring and pipes.
b. Integral passages within the propeller done.
c. A small reservoir contained within the spinner
d. A slinger ring and pipes

9. If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to departure

 a. The aircraft can be de-iced with the engines running
b. The aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running
c. The aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running and the bleed air off
d. Neither the APU or main engines can be running during the procedure.

10. With a gas turbine engine, should engine anti-icing be selected “ON”.
a. Whenever the igniters are on.
b. Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture
c. Whenever the TOAT is +10°C or below and it is raining.
d. Whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on.

ANSWERS

1. In a pneumatic de-icing system

a. The boots remain inflated while the system operates
b. The boots are inflated and deflated repeatedly
c. Vacuum inflates the boots and pressure deflates them repeatedly
d. When the boots are fully inflated the pressure is released and they collapse
due to their elasticity

2. When the pneumatic de-icer system is switched off:

a. The relief valves admit ram air to the boots.
 b. A small flow of hot air continuously flows through the boots
c. The dynamic pressure on the leading edge ensures that the boots lie flat.
d. Vacuum deflates the boots to minimize drag.

3. Propeller electrical de-icing systems

a. Use only continuous loads to the elements
b. Use a cyclic timer
c. Convert electrical energy to mechanical energy
d. Transfer power to the elements via a commutator in DC systems

4. To prevent propeller elements overheating

a. Use only when all other services are switched off:
b. Carry out a load check before starting engines
c. Use only when the propellers are rotating
d. Use only when in flight

5. A thermal wing de-icing system

a. Feeds hot air along the complete upper wing surface
b. Feeds the engine exhaust through the leading edge ducts only
c. Can use air taken from the engine compressor
d. Relies on heat generated by the kinetic heating effect of the airflow

6. Pilots cockpit windows are heated:

a. Only to prevent condensation occurring
b. By agitating the window molecules with an AC current
c. With a reflective inner coating that prevents fogging
d. By passing current across an inner conductive electrical coating

7. For maximum strength against impact damage pilots windows are:

a. Normally kept to a minimum size
b. Specially treated during construction
c. Heated internally to increase their eleaticity
d. Only heated when the IOAT falls below 0°C in precipitation
8. Pilots cockpit windows are:
a. Only heated by air from the de-misting fan
b. Constructed by heat treating the outer surface to reduce glare
c. Made of sandwich construction with an electrical conductive coating
d. Made of polarized glass

9. If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to departure.

a. The aircraft can be de-iced with engine running
b. The aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running
c. The aircraft can be de-iced with APU running and bleed air selected off
d. Neither APU or engines can be running

10. An aircraft is to be de-iced and then enter the line up for departure. Which de-
ice fluid will have the best holdover time at 0°C with precipitation:
a. Type I fluid at 100% cold spray
b. A 50%/50% solution of type II fluid hot spray
c. A 50%/50% solution of type I fluid hot spray
d. Type II fluid at 100% cold spray

ANSWERS

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT DGCA QUESTIONS

1. A Flight deck indication that a fixed fire extinguisher has been fired is:
a. A green coloured bursting disc
b. A protruding indicator pin at the discharge head
 c. Low pressure warning lamp
d. Thermal discharge indicator
2. One type of extinguishing agent you would expect to find in an aircraft installed
engine fire protection system is:
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Argon
c. Helium
d. Freon
3. A wheel brake fire should be fought with a:
a. Water/gas fire extinguisher
b. Dry powder extinguisher
c. Carbon dioxide extinguisher
d. Foam fire extinguisher

4. An engine fire extinguisher has discharged due to an over temperature condition

occurring
a. A bursting disc in the discharge nozzle
b. An externally mounted warning lamp
c. An externally mounted discharge indicator showing red
d. An audible warning

5. On a multi engine aircraft, an engine fire warning system consists of:

a. Flashing red lights for each engine and a warning hom
b. Steady red light for each engine and a common warning bell
c. Flashing red light for each engine and a common warning bell
d. Steady red light and bell for each engine

6. Smoke detectors are fitted in.

a. Passenger cabins, cargo bays, electrical equipment bays
b. Cargo bays, APU compartment, toilets
c. Toilets, electrical equipment bays, APU compartments
d. Cargo bays, electrical equipment bays, toilets
7. A short circuit in a resistive “fire wire” detector will:
 a. Fire the squib in the fire bottle discharge head
b. Cause a spurious fire warning to be received
c. Cause the blowout disc to be ruptured
d. Disable the test circuit

On receipt of an engine fire warning on the flight deck the correct procedure should
be:

a. Fight the fire with the flight deck BCF fire extinguisher
b. Pull the fire handle, fire the fire extinguisher, shut down the engine
c. Shut down the affected engine, pull the fire handle, fire the first extinguisher
d. Fire the first extinguisher, pull the fire handle, shut down the engine
9. Fire detection systems:
a. Automatically fire the engine extinguishers
b. Can only use AC electricity
c. Are connected to the Vital bus bar
d. Can be tested from the fight deck
10. A toilet fire extinguisher is activated
a. By high temperature in its vicinity
b. By remote control from the flight deck
c. By a switch at the nearest flight attendant station
d. By a smoke detector
11. Emergency exits:
Can only be opened form the inside
a.
Must have an escape slide fitted to them
b.
Are painted yellow
c.
Must be outlined externally by a 2 inch band of contrasting colour.
d.

12. Regulations governing the fitting, marking and use of safety equipment is
contained in:
 a. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements
b. Navigation Regulations
c. Joint Airworthiness Requirements
d. Operations Manual

An automatic escape slide:

13.
a. ​can be armed from the inside of the aircraft only
b. ​can only be activated from the flight deck
c. ​automatically inflates when the crash switches are activated
d. ​inflates when the recovery team open the door from the outside of the
aircraft

14. ​Emergency lighting must be capable fo remaining illuminated for a

minimum of
a. 5 mins
b. 7 mins
c. 10 mins
d. 15 mins

15. The LED indicator light on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 second
intervals. This indicates:
a. ​the battery is charging
b. ​the torch is serviceable
c. ​the battery needs replacing
d. ​the filament is broken

16. Nomex gloves are provided on the flight deck to:

a. ​ rotect hands during cold weather refueling operations
p
b. r​ emove hot meal containers from the oven
c. ​ rotect hands from hot materials during fire fighting
p
d. t​ o allow tum around checks to be carried out on a hot gas turbine engine

17. If the emergency lighting system is powered from the aircraft electrical system,
it takes is power supply from
 a. ​AC essential bus-bar
b. ​DC essential bus-bar
c. ​Vital DC bus-bar
d. ​The inverter

18. Lifejackets are inflated with compressed:

a. ​ elium
H
b. ​ itrogen
N
c. ​ reon
F
d. ​ arbon Dioxide
C

19. Emergency lighting:

a. ​ an be switched on from the flight deck only
c
b. ​ ust illuminate the inside of the passenger cabin only
m
c. ​ omprises flight deck lighting, cabin internal and external lighting
c
d. ​ nce activated cannot be switched off
o
​ ​
20. A Cut-in area
a. ​ lways has a crash axe located next to it
a

b. ​is designated as a weak fuselage area

c. ​is lit internally by the emergency lighting system
d. ​is delineated by external markings having right angled comers

ANSWERS
 FUEL STSTEMS

1. With an increase in altitude the boiling point of fuel will:

a. stay the same
b. increase
c. decrease
d. increase up to FL80 then remain the same.

2. Modern jet aircraft fuel tanks are pressurized:

a. ​ y air from the engine compressor to prevent cavitation.
b
b. ​ y air from the air conditioning system to prevent cavitation
b
c. ​ y ram air to prevent cavitation
b
d. ​ y ram air to stabilize the boiling point
b

3. Fuel is heated from which of the following?

a. Air conditioning air
b. Air from the compressor
c. Air from the bootstrap
d. Air from the turbine
4. Fuel is heated to:
a. prevent waxing.
b. Ensure vapour losses are minimized.
c. Make it more viscous
d. Make it easier to flow under all conditions

5. Fuel booster pumps are situated in:

a. t​ he fuel tanks
b. i​ n the line between the main fuel tanks and the engine
c. l​ ow pressure side of the engine
d. ​ igh-pressure side of the engine
h

6. In a high by pass engine fuel pumps are driven by:

a. ​ igh pressure turbine
h
b. ​ igh pressure compressor
h
c. l​ ow pressure compressor
d. i​ ntermediate compressor

7. The effect of the high pressure compressor outlet pressure exceeding its
maximum value would be:
a. ​pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU) FCU reduce fuel, reduce
RPM
b. ​pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU) FCU increase fuel,
increase RPM
c. ​Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU), Bleed valve open, bleed
off excess volume of air.
D. ​pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU), Bleed valve open, bleed
off excess pressure

8. Which of the following is a normal stopping device for a gas turbine

a. LP shut off valve close.
b. Fuel tank booster pumps select off.
c. HP shut off valve close
d. Isolate electrics from engine
9. Which of the following is a correct statement?
a. When an engine is running, the combustion chamber drain is closed by a
pressure operated NRV
b. When an engine is running, the combustion chamber drains tank is opened by
a pressure operated NRV.
c. When the engine is shut down the drains tank closes to minimize fuel losses.
d. When the engine is shut down, residual fuel is syphoned directly back to the
fuel tanks to minimize fuel losses.

10. The fuel flow-meter is situated:

a. ​ etween LP pump and the FCOC.
b
b. ​ etween LP pump and HP pump
b
c. j​ ust before FCU.
d. ​ etween HP shut off valve and fuel nozzles.
b

11. An overheat in the turbine will result in:

a. An electrical signal from the thermocouple sent directly to the FCU and fuel
being reduced.
b. An electrical signal from the thermocouple amplified then sent directly to the
FCU and fuel being reduced.
c. Pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge then subsequently throttling
back the engine, therefore reducing fuel.
d. Pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge then subsequently increasing
RPM to increase airflow, to increase cooling air, to decrease turbine
temperature.

12. Aircraft flying at FL 420. If the booster pumps feeding the engine cease to
work:
a. The engine would close down immediately
b. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of
cavitation due to the low pressure and low boiling point of the fuel
c. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of
cavitation due to the low pressure and higher boiling point of the fuel
d. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of
cavitation due to the higher pressure and higher boiling point of the fuel.

13. The fuel cooled oil cooler:

 a. Heats the oil and cools the fuel.
b. Heats the fuel only
c. Cools the oil only
d. Heats the fuel and cools the oil

ANSWERS

FUEL SYSTEM

1. Baffles are fitted in aircraft fuel tanks:

a. To assist in correct fuel distribution
b. To prevent fuel surging during aircraft manoeuvres
c. To prevent the static build up in the tank during refulling
d. To channel fuel to the vent valve

2. A power failure to a capacitive fuel contents system would cause the gauge to:
a. ​ how full scale deflection high
s
b. f​ luctuate between high and low readings
c. r​ emain fixed on the last contents noted before failure
d. ​ how full scale deflection low.
s

3. A fuel booster pump, besides pumping fuel to the engine, can also be utilized to:
a. Jettison and transfer fuel
b. Jettison and heat the fuel
c. Transfer and heat the fuel
d. Transfer and recycle the fuel
​
4. During fuel jettison, the aircraft is protected against running out of fuel by:
 a. High level float switches.
b. Preset jettison quantity switches
c. The crew remaining alert
d. Low level float switches
​
5. To indicate that a refueling bowser carries JET A1 aviation kerosene:
a. Yellow and black stripes are marked on the refueling hose.
b. JET A 1 would be painted in 30cm high symbols on the side of the container
c. JET A 1 is printed in white on a black background label positioned prominently
on the vehicle.
d. The driver wears a straw yellow water and fuel proof jacket.

6. Adjustments may have to made to an aircraft’s engine fuel system if it has been
refueled with JET B instead of its normal JET A1 fuel, these adjustments are to
cater for:
a. The change in the specific gravity of the fuel
b. The change in the calorific value of the fuel
c. The change in the viscosity of the fuel
d. The lack of HITEC lubricant in the fuel.

7. ​The differences between AVGAS 100 and AVGAS 100LL are: Colour Anti-
knock value
a. Same Same
b. Same Different
c. Different Same
d. Different Different

8. ​The aircraft cannot be refueled while:

a. A ground power unit is operating on the ramp
b. Passengers are walking through the refueling zones
c. Passengers are boarding
d. The A.P.U. is running
9. ​The disadvantage of refueling the aircraft to “tanks full” the night before a
departure in the heat of the day is that:
a. The change in the specific gravity may cause the aircraft to be overweight
b. The change in the volume of the fuel may cause it to spill through the vent
system
c. The change in calorific value may reduce engine power to below sufficient
d. The R.P.M. governor will be rendered inoperative

10. An aircraft using MOGAS

a. Is likely to be affected by detonation at cruise power
b. Must have booster pumps fitted in the fuel tanks
c. Is more likely to be affected by vapour locking and carburetor icing.
d. Will suffer from a loss of power during take off

ANSWERS

FUEL SYSTEM

1. If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:
a. ​ ater contamination
w
b. ​ nti-microbiological additives
a
c. ​ ixing different fuel grades
m
d. ​ il in the fuel.
o

2. On an aircraft equipped with a compensated capacitance type fuel quantity

indication system graduated to read in kg, the temperature increase just after the
tanks are half filled with fuel. If the fuel expands by 10%, the gauges will show:
a. An increase of 10%
b. A decrease of 10% of the volume factored by the new specific gravity
 c. A decrease
d. The same amount

3. The exhaust gases from the A.P.U. go into the refueling zone. The A.P.U. :
a. Must be switched OFF throughout the refueling operation
b. Can be started while refueling is carried out.
c. Must be started before fueling is carried out, and can be run throughout the
refueling operation.
d. Can be started only after the refueling has been terminated.

4. De-fuelled fuel:
a. Can only be used in domestic heating systems
b. Can only be used by aircraft from the same operators fleet
c. Must be put back into storage
d. Cannot be re-used until its quality has been verified

5. The background colour scheme for fueling system pipelines carrying the following
fuel is:
a. ​Red Black
b. ​Black Red
c. ​Red Yellow
d. ​Yellow Red

6. AVGAS:
a. ​is coloured red for identification purpose
b. ​is coloured green if it is a leaded fuel and blue if it is a low fuel.
c. ​has no artificial colouring and appears either clear or a straw yellow
colour
d. ​can only be used in piston engines if oil is added to improve its anti-
knock properties.

7. Information relating to the use of MOGAS can be found in:

a. ​ .A.A. General Aviation Safety Sense Leaflets
C
 b. ​ dvisory Information Circulars
A
c. ​Notams
d. ​ .A.A. Airworthiness Publications
C

8. The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:

a. The use of fuel from any tank to any engine.
b. Refueling when only one bowser is in use.
c. Isolation of the engine from the fuel system in the case of an engine fire.
d. Transfer of fuel between the main fuel tanks

9. Refueling with passengers on board is not permissible.

a. On a fixed wing aircraft
b. If a VGAS is being used.
c. If the aircraft has more than twenty seats and the ratio of cabin attendants to
passengers is greater than 1:50 and it is a wide bodied jet.
d. In any of the above cases

10. While refueling with passengers on board, when a loading bridge is in use:
a. Two sets of extra steps must be provided, one of which must be at the rear of
the aircraft.
b. The rear left or right door must be manned constantly by a cabin attendant
ready for use as an emergency exit using the inflatable escape slide.
c. Ground servicing must not be carried out.
d. Catering and cleaning must not be carried out.

ANSWERS

FUEL SYSTEM

1. A “wide-cut” fuel is:

 a. More flammable than a kerosene type fuel
b. Less volatile than a kerosene type fuel
c. Coloured red for identification purpose
d. Commonly used in civilian transport aircraft

2. The purpose of fitting baffles in fuel tanks is to:

a. ​ revent longitudinal movement of the fuel during acceleration
p
b. ​ llow the booster pump to remain covered by fuel irrespective
a of the
aircraft attitude
c. ​dampen lateral movement of the fuel in the wing during a slideslip
d. ​maintain a pre-determined quantity of fuel in the outboard section of the
wing tanks

3. Fuel is heated:
a. t​ o stop cavitation in the High Pressure Fuel Pump
b. t​ o maintain a constant viscosity
c. t​ o prevent water contamination
d. t​ o stop ice blocking the Low Pressure fuel filter.

4. What is the function of a collector tank (feeder box)

a. ​ revent detonation during take off
p
b. ​ revent cavitation of the booster pumps
p
c. ​ revent fuel surge due to extreme aircraft attitude
p
d. ​ llow suction feeding of the engine pump
a

5. Fuel tank booster pumps are:

a. ​ entrifugal, low pressure
c
b. ​ entrifugal, high pressure
c
c. ​ ear type, low pressure
g
d. ​ ear type, high pressure
g

6. The advantage of a capacitor type fuel contents gauging system is that the
circuit:
 a. ​responds to changes in specific gravity
b. ​compensates for high altitude flight
c. ​responds automatically to extremely low temperatures.
d. ​compensates for aircraft altitude changes

7. The Low Pressure engine driven pump:

a. Back up in case the engine High Pressure Pump fails.
b. Backs up in case of a double booster pump failure
c. Assists in the refueling operation if only low pressure refueling systems are
available
d. Pressurizes the fuel tanks to assist flow to the booster pumps

8. The purpose of the fuel cooled oil cooler is to:

a. ​ eat the oil and cool the fuel.
h
b. ​ eat the fuel and cool the oil
h
c. ​ ool the oil
c
d. ​ eat the fuel
h

9. IF a fuel tank with a capacitive quantity system was filled with water instead of
fuel, the gauge would indicate:
a. Full scale low (zero)
b. It would indicate the same as if it were filled with fuel
c. Full scale high (max)
d. It would freeze at the last known indication

10. AVTUR or JET AI:

a. Varies in colour between clear and straw yellow:
b. Is a wide cut fuel which is not normally used in civilian transport aircraft
c. Is a gasoline type fuel with a high flash point
d. Is a 97 octane fuel which prevents detonation in gas turbine engines.

ANSWERS
​ ​