QUIZ 1

Acetazolamide
Correct answers: Rectal Diazepam
6.The use of this drug should be with precaution in
patients with DM:. Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
1.Ganglionic blocker:. Single choice.
CBZ
Phenytoin
(1/1 Point)
Lamotrigine
Succinylcholine
VPA
Rocuronium
Correct answers: VPA
Hexamethonium 7.The first-line antidote for cholinergic poisons:. Single
choice.
Atracurium (1/1 Point)
Correct answers: Hexamethonium
2.Mixed alpha-beta blocker:. Single choice. Atropine
(1/1 Point)
Hysocine
Bisoprolol
PAM
Celiprolol
DAM
Carvedilol Correct answers: Atropine
8.Low doses of beta-blockers are indicated for Chinese
Nebivolol patients to prevent:. Single choice.
Correct answers: Carvedilol (1/1 Point)
3.Which of the following is good for geriatric patients?.
Single choice. Heart Block
(1/1 Point)
Bradycardia
Midazolam
Reflex Tachycardia
Alprazolam
Bronchospasms
Oxazepam Correct answers: Reflex Tachycardia
9.Beta-blocker for HTN in patients who are diabetic with
Diazepam CHF:. Single choice.
Correct answers: Oxazepam (1/1 Point)
4.Which of the following agents is good for arrhythmia
and hypertensive emergencies?. Single choice. Bisoprolol
(0/1 Point)
Celiprolol
Metoprolol
Carvedilol
Carvedilol
Metoprolol
Esmolol Correct answers: Carvedilol
10.Which of the following does not belong to the
Sotalol group?. Single choice.
Your answer to question 4 is wrong. Correct answers: (1/1 Point)
Esmolol
5.DOC for status epilepticus in children. Single choice. Rivastigmine
(1/1 Point)
Donepezil
Rectal Diazepam
Pyridostigmine
Phenytoin
Galantamine
Phenobarbital Correct answers: Pyridostigmine
11.Anti-seizure drug that necessitates hydration to
Analgesia
prevent kidney stones:. Single choice.
(1/1 Point) Eclampsia
Topiramate Diabetic nephropathy
Correct answers: Diabetic neuropathy
Lamotrigine
17.Pre-anesthetic:. Single choice.
Pregabalin (1/1 Point)
Gabapentin Thiopental
Correct answers: Topiramate
Secobarbital
12.Most common side effect of Phenytoin. Single
choice. Vinbarbital
(1/1 Point)
Phenobarbital
Hirsutism Correct answers: Thiopental
18.May cause blindness when myopia is clinically
Gingival hyperplasia
observed:. Single choice.
Ataxia (1/1 Point)
Diplopia Phenytoin
Correct answers: Gingival hyperplasia
Cenobamate
13.The first-line antidote for antimuscarinic agents:.
Single choice. Lamotrigine
(1/1 Point)
Topiramate
Neostigmine Correct answers: Topiramate
19.Antidote for Zolpidem poisoning. Single choice.
Atropine
(1/1 Point)
Rivastigmine
Ascorbic Acid
Physostigmine
Activated Charcoal
Correct answers: Neostigmine
14.Best cholinesterase inhibitor for MG:. Single choice. NaHCO3
(1/1 Point)
Flumazenil
Rivastigmine Correct answers: Flumazenil
20.DOC for Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome. Single choice.
Physostigmine
(1/1 Point)
Pyridostigmine
Lamotrigine
Neostigmine
Zonisamide
Correct answers: Pyridostigmine
15.DOC for Malignant Hyperthermia. Single choice. Rufinamide
(1/1 Point)
VPA
Dantrolene Correct answers: VPA
21.Which of the following is the best option for a
Bromocriptine
hypertensive patient with asthma?. Single choice.
Enflurane (0/1 Point)
Ryanodine Pindolol
Correct answers: Dantrolene
Carvedilol
16.Pregabalin is more ued for:. Single choice.
(1/1 Point) Celiprolol
Diabetic neuropathy Betaxolol
Your answer to question 21 is wrong. Correct answers:
Orphenadrine
Celiprolol
22.A novel lactate dehydrogenase inhibitor for seizures Biperiden
especially Dravet Syndrome:. Single choice.
(1/1 Point) Trihexyphenidyl
Correct answers: Orphenadrine
Cenobamate 27.Which of the following is used for urinary retention?.
Single choice.
Stiripentol
(1/1 Point)
Ezogabine
Bethanechol
Suvorexant
Methacholine
Correct answers: Stiripentol
23.DOC for absence seizures. Single choice. Pilocarpine
(1/1 Point)
Carbachol
Ethosuximide Correct answers: Bethanechol
28.Which of the following is the longest-acting agent
Topiramate
indicated for asthma?. Single choice.
VPA (1/1 Point)
Clonazepam Revefenacin
Correct answers: Ethosuximide
Tiotropium
24.For patients with bipolar disorders that failed to
respond to Lithium and Lamotrigine, this anti-seizure Oxytropium
drug can be used:. Single choice.
(1/1 Point) Ipratropium
Correct answers: Tiotropium
Topiramate 29.Alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor used as an antidote
to methanol poisoning:. Single choice.
Carbamazepine
(1/1 Point)
Stiripentol
Ethanol
Felbamate
Acamprosate
Correct answers: Carbamazepine
25.Which of the following is the best option for a Fomepizole
hypertensive patient with angina?. Single choice.
(1/1 Point) Nalmefene

Metoprolol Disulfiram
Correct answers: Fomepizole
Propranolol 30.Which of the following is associated with allergic
reactions?. Single choice.
Acebutolol
(1/1 Point)
Labetalol
Vecuronium
Correct answers: Metoprolol
26.Antimuscarinic for Parkinsonism, except:. Single Rocuronium
choice.
(1/1 Point) Atracurium
Message for respondents who select this answer
Diphenhydramine
Pipecurium
Benztropine Correct answers: Atracurium
 QUIZ 2
Morphinan
Piperidine
Benzomorphan
Correct answers: Morphinan
1.For inflammation of RA, the ASA daily dose should be:. 6.Oxaprozin. Single choice.
Single choice. (1/1 Point)
(1/1 Point)
Naphthylacetic Acid
3.2-4g/day
Indole Acetic Acid
<0.325g/day
Propionic Acid
< 0.6g/day
Phenylacetic Acid
0.3-2.4g/day
Correct answers: 3.2-4g/day Pyrrole Alkanoic Acid
2.The only opioid with a mixed agonist-antagonist Correct answers: Propionic Acid
activity that is a dominant mu agonist:. Single choice. 7.Which of the following possess an analgesic effect
(1/1 Point) comparable to opioids? I. Etodolac II. Ketorolac III.
Sulindac. Single choice.
Nalbuphine (1/1 Point)
Buprenorphine II & III
Pentazocine I & III
Butorphanol III
Correct answers: Buprenorphine
3.Antipyrine:. Single choice. I
(1/1 Point) I & II
N-arylanthranilic Acid Correct answers: I & II
8.Which of the following is considered the most
Salicylate nephrotoxic?. Single choice.
Arylacetic Acid (0/1 Point)

Pyrrazolone Naproxen
Correct answers: Pyrrazolone Mefenamic Acid
4.What is the chemical class of Nalbuphine?. Single
choice. Piroxicam
(1/1 Point) Ketorolac
Phenylheptylamine Your answer to question 8 is wrong. Correct answers:
Naproxen
Piperidine 9.What is the action of Morphine for acute pulmonary
Benzomorphan edema and acute myocardial infarction?. Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Phenanthrene
Venous dilation
Morphinan
Correct answers: Phenanthrene Arteriolar dilation
5.What is the chemical class of Levallorphan?. Single Reduces pain
choice.
(1/1 Point) Increases fluid output
Correct answers: Venous dilation
Phenylheptylamine 10.Sufentanil:. Single choice.
Phenanthrene (1/1 Point)
 Full Agonist I & III
Antagonist II & IV
Mixed Agonist-Antagonist I & IV
Mild to Moderate Agonist III
Correct answers: Full Agonist
II & III
11.What is the chemical class of Diphenoxylate?. Single
Your answer to question 15 is wrong. Correct answers: II
choice.
& III
(1/1 Point)
16.Which of the following is not good for primary
Phenylheptylamine dysmenorrhea?. Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Phenanthrene
Mefenamic Acid
Piperidine
Message for respondents who select this answer Diclofenac Potassium
Benzomorphan Naproxen
Morphinan Ibuprofen
Correct answers: Piperidine
Etodolac
12.Levorphanol. Single choice.
Correct answers: Etodolac
(1/1 Point)
17.Good for painful biliary colic:. Single choice.
Mixed Agonist-Antagonist (1/1 Point)
Full Agonist Fentanyl
Antagonist Nalbuphine
Mild to Moderate Agonist Pethidine
Correct answers: Full Agonist
Methadone
13.Opioid used as an emetic:. Single choice.
Correct answers: Pethidine
(1/1 Point)
18.If a patient can't receive Morphine for acute
Levallorphan pulmonary edema, the substitute is:. Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Levomethadone
Furosemide
Apomorphine
Pethidine
Meperidine
Correct answers: Apomorphine Methadone
14.Nabumetone. Single choice.
Nalbuphine
(1/1 Point)
Levorphanol
Naphthylacetic Acid
Correct answers: Furosemide
Phenylacetic Acid 19.If a patient is allergic to Naproxen, he/she will most
definitely be allergic to:. Single choice.
Pyrrole Alkanoic Acid
(1/1 Point)
Propionic Acid
Diclofenac
Indole Acetic Acid
Nabumetone
Correct answers: Naphthylacetic Acid
15.Which of the following agents is/are more used for Piroxicam
alcohol withdrawal? I. Naloxone II. Naltrexone III.
Propyphenazone
Nalmefene IV. Nalorphine. Single choice.
Correct answers: Nabumetone
(0/1 Point)
20.What is the chemical class of Noscapine?. Single (1/1 Point)
choice.
Meperidine
(1/1 Point)
Pentazocine
Morphinan
Levorphanol
Benzomorphan
Methadone
Phenanthrene
Morphine
Piperidine
Correct answers: Pentazocine
Phenylheptylamine 26.The main reason why ASA is no longer generally used
Correct answers: Phenylheptylamine as an antipyretic:. Single choice.
21.Butorphanol. Single choice. (1/1 Point)
(1/1 Point)
Erosive Gastritis
Full Agonist
Allergic Reaction
Mild to Moderate Agonist
Reye's Syndrome
Mixed Agonist-Antagonist
Asthma
Antagonist Correct answers: Reye's Syndrome
Correct answers: Mixed Agonist-Antagonist 27.Diflunisal. Single choice.
22.Tolerance to opioid is expected for all of its effects, (1/1 Point)
except for:. Single choice.
Pyrrazolone
(1/1 Point)
N-arylanthranilic Acid
Nausea and Vomiting
Salicylate
Pruritus
Message for respondents who select this answer
Increased Intrcranial Pressure
Arylacetic Acid
Urinary Retention Correct answers: Salicylate
28.Tramadol. Single choice.
Constipation
(1/1 Point)
Correct answers: Constipation
23.Meclofenamic Acid. Single choice. Antagonist
(1/1 Point)
Mixed Agonist-Antagonist
Pyrrazolone
Mild to Moderate Agonist
Arylacetic Acid
Full Agonist
Salicylate Correct answers: Mild to Moderate Agonist
29.An opioid with an analgesic effect dominantly
N-arylanthranilic Acid
depending on the drugs ability to increase
Correct answers: N-arylanthranilic Acid
noradrenaline and serotonin:. Single choice.
24.Levallorphan. Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
(1/1 Point)
Tramadol
Antagonist
Apomorphine
Full Agonist
Ziconotide
Mild to Moderate Agonist
Nalorphine
Mixed Agonist-Antagonist
Correct answers: Tramadol
Correct answers: Antagonist
30.Tolmetin. Single choice.
25.The only prototypical opioid that is not a strong/full
(1/1 Point)
agonist:. Single choice.

Naphthylacetic Acid
Indole Acetic Acid
Propionic Acid
Phenylacetic Acid
Pyrrole Alkanoic Acid
Message for respondents who select this answer
PRELIM
EXAM
Which of the following statement/s is/are true
regarding phenytoin?
I. The drug is poorly water-soluble hence it may cause
irritations at the injection site.
II. The solvent used for the parenteral formulation can
cause cardiac depression hence the infusion rate of
such should be controlled.
III Phenytoin in itself can also cause cardiac depression
and the early signs of toxicity are ataxia and diplopia.
A: I, II, III
What is the mechanism of skeletal muscle paralysis
associated with succinylcholine?
A: Sustained depolarization of the motor endplate
making it unresponsive to other impulses
A medical technologist has a 65 y/o father who recently
suffered from a heart attack 3 days ago. What dose
range will you suggest to him to purchase when he visits
the pharmacy?
A: <0.325 g/day
A cancer patient was maintained fentanyl for his
breakthrough pain (9 on pain scale). The head physician
of the pain management team added Naloxone. What is
the right course of action?
A: No intervention is required, the physician is trying to
control for the toxic effects of fentanyl
If a hypertensive patient is to be administered with a
beta blocker, and the physician feels that it may or may
not adequately control the patient’s blood pressure,
which of the following agents will you suggest because
it is less associated with reflex tachycardia when
withdrawn or discontinued abruptly if this physician
decides to change or shift the therapy along the course
of the disease?
A: Acebutolol
Which of the following statements about Aspirin is
true?
I. ASA is an irreversible inhibitor of lipoxygenase
preventing the biosynthesis of PG and TXA2
II. ASA is classified as an antiplatelet drug/platelet
aggregation inhibitor.
III. ASA is administered at 3.2 to 4g/day for
inflammation due to gout arthritis
A: I
Which of the following is an unconventional antagonist
in the sense that from a structural standpoint, it is
indeed a morphinan derivative with excellent opioid
antagonistic actions?
A: Levallorphan
What is the role of beta-blockers in the management of
thyrotoxicosis?
I. Beta-blockers can inhibit the peroxidase-catalyzed
reaction in the synthesis of thyroid hormones.
II. Beta-blockers control the sympathetic symptoms of
hyperthyroidism.
III. Beta-blockers may inhibit the peripheral conversion
of T4 to T3.
A: II, III
NSAIDs are generally weak acids in vitro, but this NSAID
is an exception
A: nabumetone be recommended for the management of acute
pulmonary edema?
Which of the following correctly explains the advantage
of beta-blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic A: morphine
activity?
I. These agents are relatively safe for patients with This is a sample drug discovered by screening of higher
bronchospastic disease. plants which remains to be the gold standard in the
II. These agents have anti-arrhythmic properties. management of pain.
III. These agents are less associated with rebound HTN
compared with other beta blockers. A: morphine

A: III What is the primary drawback with the use of selective

This is a sample drug discovered by accident
A: penicillin
Which of the following statements accurately describes
why the study of organic medicinal more dominant over
inorganic agents?
A: Organic compounds like natural products are
abundant
COX-2 inhibitors?
A: greater incidence of thromboembolism
A patient was rushed to the hospital and his blood
pressure reading was 180/110 and his mean arterial
pressure is 133 mm/Hg but no organ damage was noted
and a diagnosis of hypertensive emergency was then
made. In order to lower the mean arterial pressure
rapidly by 25%, which of the following must be
initiated?

A Filipino-chinese patient was prescribed to maintain I. Carvedilol

metoprolol for the prevention of symptom
exacerbations of his heart failure. The dose of
II. Acebutolol
metoprolol for this patient should be lower than the
dose due to ______________
III. Labetalol

A: I, III
A: Reflex tachycardia
A female patient was admitted to the emergency room
A 10 yr old patient was reported to exhibit lapses in
for the rapid lowering of her blood pressure to normal
concentration that usually lasts for seconds with sudden
ranges. The patient has no other significant histories
stops in motion and lip-smacking but without confused
except for an asthmatic attack when she was 8y/o.
states. With declining ability to learn. Neurologist
There were no available IV infusions of NTG and
confirms diagnosis of epilepsy. Which agent is
nitroprusside in your pharmacy nor short-acting IV
appropriate?
calcium channel blocker. Which of the following can be
used to lower this patient’s BP?
A: Topiramate
A: Labetalol
A cancer patient is suffering from chronic breakthrough
pain and is now poorly responding to morphine and
Tacrine, donepezil, & galantamine are anti-
fentanyl. What should be suggested to be added to the
acetylcholinesterases employed for which of the
patient’s regimen?
following conditions?
A: ketorolac
A: Alzheimer’s disease
A patient was admitted to the emergency due to severe
TCAs have cardio-toxic and anticholinergic effects. For
acute CHF and was prescribed medications for his CHF.
the cardio-toxic effects, this drug can be administered.
Pulmonary findings are consistent of acute pulmonary
A: Sodium bicarbonate
edema secondary to his acute CHF. If the patient has no
risks for developing respiratory depression, which can
Which of the following is the most recently developed
opioid antagonist approved for alcohol withdrawal by
decreasing the patient’s craving for alcohol?
A: Nalmefene
An 8y/o female patient frequently complains of
wheezing dyspnea especially at night …..To confirm the
diagnosis of asthma in the patient:
A: methacholine
Which beta-blocker has K+ channel blocking effects
making it useful as an antiarrhythmic agent?
A: Sotalol
This inorganic compound remains to be the gold
standard for the treatment of mania and other related
bipolar disorders.
A: Lithium carbonate
The physician who discovered penicillin
A: A. Fleming
Amantadine is an example of a drug where an
additional use is discovered by careful observation of its
pharmacologic property.
A: Parkinson
It is the most widely used acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
for myasthenia gravis.
A: Pyridostigmine
Which of the following statement/s is/are true?
I M3 receptors are Gq-linked receptors that lead to
activation of adenylyl cyclase, a signaling cascade that
leads to increased cAMP activity
II M2 receptors are Gi-linked receptors that lead to
inhibition of PLC, a signaling cascade that decreases IP3
and DAG activity.
III M1 receptors are Gq-linked receptors that lead to
activation of PLC,a signaling cascade that increases IP3
and DAG activity.
A: III
Which of the following conditions confer toxicity due to
organophosphates?
A: emesis
As the clinical pharmacist on duty, you noticed during
your rounds in the surgery ward that one patient was
prescribed Diazepam as the skeletal muscle relaxant.
This patient was probably prescribed with which of the
following inhalational anesthetic?
A: Isoflurane
A patient was on his periodic visit with his
ophthalmologist. On his follow-up, it was found that his
intraocular pressure was 28 mmHg (ref 12-22 mmHg). It
was also found that it was of the narrow angle-type
hence mydriatics were contraindicated. The patient also
has a documented allergy to choline esters and
alkaloids. Which of the following agents will be
appropriate for this patient?
I Metipranolol
II Timolol
III Carvedilol
A: I, II
This drug was formulated by pharmacological screening
of a prototypical compound with further structure
optimization, used for hypertension and other
cardiovascular disorders.
A: metoprolol
A patient was admitted to the poisoning center due to a
suspected accidental ingestion of atropine. If you were
the clinical pharmacist in charge, which therapeutic
measures must you initiate?
I Temperature control with cooling blankets
II Physostigmine as initial therapy
III Diazepam for seizure control
A: I, III
The metabolism of this anti-psychotic is generally pre-
determined hence prior to its administration,
debrisoquin is administered first to determine the
patient’s metabolizing capabilities for this drug.
A: thioridazine
Which of the following are contraindications to the use
of lithium salts
I Acute renal failure
II pregnancy
III arrhythmias respiration is severely depressed and sufficient airway
management and oxygenation was commenced. To
A: I, II further improve this patient’s status, one must:

Which of the following statements are true regarding A: Administer sodium bicarbonate
propofol?
I It is the only IV anesthetic formulated as an emulsion
II Its new derivative fospropofol is a more soluble
prodrug hence formulated as propylene glycol solution
III It is the most commonly used IV anesthetic today
although it can cause acidosis and it is very painful
when injected
MIDTERM QUIZ 1
A: I, II, III
1. Match the drug/drug group to the corresponding
Which of the following statements correctly describe target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) TCA's. Single
carbidopa? choice.
I It is an agent that improves Parkinsonian symptoms (1/1 Point)
II It reduces the risks of N&V, arrhythmias, and other
peripheral side effects associated with levodopa. Enzymes
III It increases the CNS bioavailability of levodopa Carrier proteins
A: I, II Voltage-gated ion channels
Reuptake Proteins
Which of the following agents necessitate weekly WBC
monitoring? Receptors
Correct answers: Reuptake Proteins
A: clozapine
2. Which of the following is/are true regarding
A 58 y/o patient claims that he is not experiencing the lipid-water partition coefficient?
same benefit with his levocarbidopa therapy. All of the
I. The system being used mimics the lipid
following agents will be of benefit to the patient except
membranes and the aqueous systems found in the
A: oxybutynin body.
II. The higher the lipid-water partition coefficient,
This drug is an analogue of a naturally-occuring drug the more polar is the drug.
that was discovered by screening of higher plants and is III. This parameter is usually determined to
commonly used as anti-motility agents for diarrhea determine hydrophobicity. Single choice.
(-/1 Point)
A: Loperamide
II, III
Which of the following anti-seizure drugs is a pure I, II
voltage-gated ion channel acting drug that is also used
for bipolar disorders? I, III
I VPA I
II Lamotrigine
III Gabapentin I, II, III
IV CBZ Answer: I, III

A: I and IV 3. A highly protein-bound drug that presents a

danger to patients when co-administered with
A patient was rushed to the emergency room due to a another highly protein-bound drug since the
suicide attempt using phenobarbital tablets. His
displacement of this drug from its protein binding Correct answers: Enzymes
sites may cause hemorrhage. Single choice.
(1/1 Point) 7. Match the drug/drug group to the corresponding
target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) Moclobemide.
Phenytoin
Single choice.
Oxacillin (1/1 Point)
Penicillin Carrier proteins
Warfarin Reuptake Proteins
Amitryptiline Voltage-gated ion channels
Correct answers: Warfarin
Receptors
4. Match the drug/drug group to the corresponding Enzymes
target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) Antipsychotics. Correct answers: Enzymes
Single choice.
(1/1 Point) 8. Match the drug/drug group to the corresponding
target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) Carbamazepine.
Enzymes
Single choice.
Carrier proteins (1/1 Point)
Voltage-gated ion channels Structural proteins
Receptors Receptors
Structural proteins Enzymes
Correct answers: Receptors
Voltage-gated ion channels
5. E & Z isomerism is important for the activity of Carrier proteins
this drug:. Single choice. Correct answers: Voltage-gated ion channels
(1/1 Point)
9. Match the drug/drug group to the corresponding
Morphine
target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) Digoxin. Single
Clomiphene choice.
Methylphenidate (1/1 Point)

Diethylstibestrol Receptors

Omeprazole Carrier proteins

Correct answers: Clomiphene Structural proteins
Voltage-gated ion channels
6. Match the drug/drug group to the corresponding
target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) Paracetamol. Enzymes
Single choice. Correct answers: Carrier proteins
(1/1 Point)
10. Match the drug/drug group to the
Receptors
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
Carrier proteins Cocaine. Single choice.
Enzymes (1/1 Point)

Structural proteins Enzymes

Voltage-gated ion channels Carrier proteins

 Reuptake Proteins Excretion is quite rapid.
Receptors Metabolism is quite rapid.
Voltage-gated ion channels Absorption does not occur.
Correct answers: Reuptake Proteins
Protein binding does not occur.
11. Sample drug excreted via the saliva. Single It avoids first pass-effect.
choice. Your answer to question 14 is wrong.
(1/1 Point) Correct answer: Protein binding
Nafcillin
15. Match the drug/drug group to the
Chloramphenicol corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
Phenytoin. Single choice.
Levobupivacaine
(1/1 Point)
Lidocaine
Carrier proteins
Procaine
Structural proteins
Correct answers: Lidocaine
Enzymes
12. Match the drug/drug group to the
Receptors
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
Omeprazole. Single choice. Voltage-gated ion channels
(1/1 Point) Correct answers: Voltage-gated ion channels
Carrier proteins
16. Match the drug/drug group to the
Enzymes corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
Colchicine. Single choice.
Voltage-gated ion channels
(1/1 Point)
Receptors
Receptors
Structural proteins
Structural proteins
Correct answers: Carrier proteins
Voltage-gated ion channels
13. Which of the following drug groups have
Carrier proteins
mechanisms of action that involve binding to
enzymes as target proteins?. Single choice. Enzymes
(1/1 Point) Correct answers: Structural proteins
Barbiturates
17. Match the drug/drug group to the
BZD's corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
Local Anesthetics. Single choice.
Calcium Channel Blockers
(1/1 Point)
NSAID's
Receptors
Phenothiazines
Enzymes
Correct answers: NSAID's
Voltage-gated ion channels
14. Which of the following is not true regarding the
Carrier proteins
intravenous route of administration? Single choice.
(0/1 Point) Structural proteins
Correct answers: Voltage-gated ion channels
18. Match the drug/drug group to the 21. Match the drug/drug group to the
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
Flibanserin. Single choice. Morphine. Single choice.
(1/1 Point) (1/1 Point)
Voltage-gated ion channels Receptors
Carrier proteins Voltage-gated ion channels
Structural proteins Reuptake Proteins
Enzymes Carrier proteins
Receptors Enzymes
Correct answers: Receptors Correct answers: Receptors

19. The following are the general factors that affect 22. ASA irreversibly binds COX hence it utilizes this
a dug molecule’s binding to a receptor except:. bond for binding:. Single choice.
Single choice. (1/1 Point)
(1/1 Point)
VDW forces
Chemical bonding capabilities
Disulfide bonds
Structural class
H-bonds
3D-shape of the molecule
Covalent bonds
Type of dosage form
Ionic bonds
Correct answers: Type of dosage form
Correct answers: Covalent bonds
20. A given drug was found to mimic Acetylcholine
23. A functional group or organized group of
since it contains the same number and
molecules that interact with the drug to produce a
arrangement of electrons in one region of the
biological response is known as ____________..
molecule. The molecule was observed to exert a
Single choice.
cholinergic effect more selectively. Which of the
(1/1 Point)
following statement(s) correctly describes this drug
molecule? Active site
I. The drug is an isostere of the neurotransmitter Receptor site
Acetylcholine.
II. The drug is an analogue of Acetylcholine that Biological receptor site
blocks its binding from its receptors. Biological site
III. The drug is an analogue that agonizes Correct answers: Biological receptor site
Acetylcholine receptors. Single choice.
(0/1 Point) 24. Match the drug/drug group to the
I, II, III corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
Levodopa. Single choice.
I, III (1/1 Point)
I Receptors
I, II Voltage-gated ion channels
II, III Reuptake Proteins
Your answer to question 20 is wrong. Correct
answers: I, III Enzymes
 Correct answers: Chloramphenicol
Carrier proteins
Correct answers: Receptors
28. Match the drug/drug group to the
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
25. Which of the following statement/s regarding
Atracurium. Single choice.
acetylcholine is/are true?
(0/1 Point)
I. The quasi-ring structure is the pharmacophore at
Nicotinic receptors causing CNS stimulation. Carrier proteins
II. The extended structure is the pharmacophore at
Structural proteins
Nicotinic receptors causing CNS stimulation.
III. The quasi-ring structure is the form in which Receptors
acetylcholine is recognized and degraded by Voltage-gated ion channels
acetylcholine esterases.. Single choice.
(1/1 Point) Enzymes
Your answer to question 28 is wrong. Correct
I, II answers: Receptors
I
29. Which of the following functional groups is/are
II, III
capable of forming ionic bonds with the receptor?
I, III I. Carboxyl Groups II. Sulfonamido Groups III.
Hydroxyl Groups. Single choice.
I, II, III
(1/1 Point)
Correct answers: I, III
Correct answer: I I, II
II, III
26. Match the drug/drug group to the
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) I, III
Methotrexate. Single choice. I, II, III
(0/1 Point)
I
Enzymes Correct answers: I, II
Structural proteins
30. Chloramphenicol for suspensions is formulated
Voltage-gated ion channels
as palmitate salts to:. Single choice.
Carrier proteins (1/1 Point)
Receptors To enhance oral absorption
Your answer to question 26 is wrong. Correct
To mask the bitter after-taste of the drug
answers: Receptors
A: Enzymes To enhance biliary recycling
To improve solubility in GIT
27.Sample drug excreted via the breast milk. Single
choice. To bypass first pass effect
(1/1 Point) Correct answers: To mask the bitter after-taste of
the drug
Chloramphenicol
Levobupivacaine 31. Sample drug marketed in its racemic combined
R & S forms:. Single choice.
Procaine
(1/1 Point)
Lidocaine
Ephedrine
Nafcillin
 Naproxen Voltage-gated ion channels
Bupivacaine Carrier proteins
Dextromethorphan Receptors
Correct answers: Receptors
Ibuprofen
Correct answers: Ibuprofen
35. Match the drug/drug group to the
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
32. The most potent isomer of Methylphenidate is:.
Caffeine. Single choice.
Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
(0/1 Point)
Receptors
dextro-threo
Structural proteins
threo
Voltage-gated ion channels
erythro
Enzymes
levo-threo
Carrier proteins
S
Correct answers: Enzymes
Your answer to question 32 is wrong. Correct
answers: dextro-threo
36. Match the drug/drug group to the
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
33. Which of the following regarding isosterism
Loratadine. Single choice.
is/are true?
(1/1 Point)
I. Isosteres impart similar physical properties but
ultimately different chemical properties in drug Receptors
molecules.
Carrier proteins
II. Isosteric alterations are widely employed in
discovery of analogues or antagonists to normal Structural proteins
metabolites. Voltage-gated ion channels
III. Isosteres are compounds or groups of atoms
with the same number and arrangement of Enzymes
electrons.. Single choice. Correct answers: Receptors
(1/1 Point)
37.Match the drug/drug group to the
I corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
I, II Clonidine. Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
I, II, III
Structural proteins
I, III
Enzymes
II, III
Correct answers: II, III Voltage-gated ion channels
Carrier proteins
34. Match the drug/drug group to the
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) Receptors
Benzodiazepines. Single choice. Correct answers: Receptors
(1/1 Point)
38. Van der Waals Forces of attraction are essential
Enzymes for this group’s interaction with receptors:. Single
Structural proteins choice.
(-/1 Point)
Vd
Imines
Lipid-Water Concentration
Benzene Correct answers: Lipid Water Partition Coefficient
Carbonyl
42.Match the drug/drug group to the
Amines corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
Aliphatic Physostigmine. Single choice.
Answer: Benzene (1/1 Point)
Voltage-gated ion channels
39. Which of the following statement(s) is (are)
Enzymes
true?
I. DES is active in its cis-configuration. Carrier proteins
II. Levo isomers of opioids in general are active as
Receptors
analgesics.
III. All isomers of the opioid analgesics are good Structural proteins
antitussives.. Single choice. Correct answers: Enzymes
(1/1 Point)
43.Match the drug/drug group to the
I & III
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1)
II Allopurinol. Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
I
Structural proteins
II & III
Voltage-gated ion channels
III
Correct answers: II Enzymes
Receptors
40.Match the drug/drug group to the
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) Carrier proteins
Eicosanoid Analogues. Single choice. Correct answers: Enzymes
(1/1 Point)
44.Which of the following is/are true regarding
Receptors
some of the stereoisomeric features of drugs?
Enzymes I. S-omeprazole has a longer half-life compared to
the combination of R & S enantiomers of
Structural proteins
Omeprazole.
Carrier proteins II. Dextrorotatory bupivacaine is more potent than
Voltage-gated ion channels levo and dextro bupivacaine.
Correct answers: Receptors III. Dextrorotatory isomers of opioid analgesics are
excellent antitussives.. Single choice.
41.This parameter determines a drug’s ability to (1/1 Point)
permeate aqueous and lipid barriers of the II, III
different body compartments.. Single choice.
II
(1/1 Point)
III
Lipid Water Partition Coefficient
I, II, III
Creatinine Clearance
I, III
t1/2
Correct answers: I, III A solid compound that is water-soluble, not
electrically conductive with a low melting point is
45.Match the drug/drug group to the definitely an
corresponding target: (Recall of Pharmacology 1) A: covalent compound
SSRI's. Single choice.
What orbital overlap is expected in the sigma
bonds of C-C triple bonds?
(1/1 Point) A: sp-sp
Reuptake Proteins
A solid compound that has a high melting point,
Carrier proteins
water-insoluble, and is capable of conducting
Enzymes electricity is
Voltage-gated ion channels A: metallic compound

Receptors Which of the following is not commonly seen in

Correct answer: Reuptake proteins organic compounds?
A: copper

MIDTERM EXAM Lab An organic sample that produces a cloudy or turbid

What orbital overlap is expected in the sigma
bonds of C-C triple bonds?
A: sp-sp
Formalin is expected to possess what bond angles
due to its carbon atom hybridization
A: 120
The chemical formula of the ionic compound used
as the positive control in the ionic and covalent
bonds simulation:
A: KCl
Explain how you will detect its presence by using
qualitative test?
solution is a rough estimate that the organic
compound is a
A: alkane
A solid compound that is water-soluble, electrically
conductive with high melting point is
A: ionic compound
11. How is the presence of an –OH detected in a
molecules with the ceric ammonium nitrate test?
A: red color is formed
12. How would you determine the presence of 2-
propylpentanoic acid in a sample solution?
A: NaHCO3 test
13. Explain how you would determine the presence
of salicylic acid?

14. Why can we measure electric conductivity

when ionic compounds are dissolved in water?
A: Because charged particles are present in the
solution

Bromine test can also be done, decolorization 15. Which of the following statements is/are true?
means presence of double bonds I Ionic compounds are water-soluble
II All covalent compounds are water-soluble
III Covalent compounds can be water-soluble
A: I, III
16. According to lab simulation 2, this is the atom’s
nirvana
A: When their octet rule is satisfied
17. The unknown covalent compound in the
mysterious substance of the alchemist
A: glucose
18. Which of the following statement is true?
I All ionic compounds are water-soluble
II Covalent compounds are mostly organic
compounds
III Ionic compounds are mostly inorganic
compounds
A: II, III
19. Ionic compounds that conduct electricity when
dissolved in water are known as:
A: electrolytes
20. Which of the following compounds will
decolorize bromine solutions?
I Pent-1-ene
II But-2-yne
III Hexane
A: I, II
21. Recall the ionic and covalent bond simulation
and match the following
A:
Sodium chloride – Unknown ionic compound
Glucose – unknown covalent compound
Potassium chloride – (+) control for ionic
compound
Copper – none
Caffeine – (-) control for covalent compound
Ionic compounds have high melting points because
A: Their crystal lattice energy is high and therefore
making it difficult to collapse the solid structure
The chemical formula of the unknown ionic
compound in the mysterious substance
A: NaCl
If a liquid sample fails to mix with another liquid
sample, the former is considered to be ____ with
the latter
A: immiscible
Organic compounds that are water-soluble can
conduct electricity
A: F
Ethanol will definitely give a positive result with
A: Ceric ammonium nitrate test
The covalent compound used as the positive
control in the simulation
A: caffeine
How is the presence of R-CH=CH-R determined
using the bromine test?
A: disappearance of reddish brown color
RCOOH is easily detected by
A: NAHCO3 Test
Amongst the reagents used for qualitative tests for
functional groups, which is a solid?
A: NaHCO3
The bond angles for hexane is expected to be
A: 109.5
Formaldehyde is expected to have what shape due
to the hybridization of its carbon atom’s orbitals
A: trigonal planar
The unknown samples and the solid positive
control were placed in what container for melting
point determination
A: capillary tube
MIDTERM EXAM Lec
Based on the reaction below, the drug’s
metabolism is somewhat longer because:
A: Metabolism predominantly occurs in the liver.
2. Which of the following reactions are highly
useful in the activation of prodrugs?
A: Hydrolysis
3. The more potent enantiomeric form of
methylphenidate is:
A: threo-pair
4. Lesinurad has what general drug target?
A: carrier proteins
5. Conversion of thioridazine to more toxic and
potent mesoridazine involves
A: S-oxidation
6. Which of the following FG is/are capable of
forming H bonds with the receptor?
I. Carboxyl groups
II Sulfonamido groups
III Hydroxyl groups
A: III
7. Van der Waals forces of attraction are essential
for this group’s interaction with receptors.
A: Aromatic compounds
8. Fluphenazine has what general drug target?
A: receptors
9. Phenytoin has what general drug target?
A: Voltage-gated ion channels
10. Chloramphenicol may cause gray baby
syndrome in neonates who are breastfed because;
A: The drug is eliminated through breast milk.
11. Which of the following regarding isosterism is
true?
I. Isosteres impart similar physicochemical
properties in drug molecules.
II. Isosteric alterations are widely employed in
discovery of analogues or antagonists to normal
metabolites
III Isosteres are compounds or groups of atoms
with the same number and arrangement of
electrons
A: I, II, III
12. Mosapride has what general drug target?
A: Receptors
13. Omeprazole has what general drug target?
A: carrier proteins
14. Rocuronium has what general drug target?
A: receptors
15. Given the reaction below, which of the
following statements is/are true?
I The drug is deactivated into two forms.
II The prodrug is activated into one form.
III The prodrug undergoes bioreduction.
A: I, III
16. Cetirizine has what general drug target?
A: Receptors
17. It is the most well-known example of olefinic
epoxidation.
A: CBZ
18. Given the reaction below, which of the
following statements is/are true?
I The central nucleus of the parent drug and
metabolite is benzodiazepine-2-one.
II The reaction depicts S-oxidation
III The reaction involves oxidation of carbonyls
A: III
19. Sample drug marketed in its racemic combined
R & S forms:
A: Ibuprofen
20. Which of the following is the most appropriate
reason for considering the parenteral route of
administration?
A: It avoids first pass effects?
21. The higher is the lipid-water partition 30. Given the reaction below, which of the
coefficient: following statements is/are true?
A: The higher the lipid solubility is

22. The biotransformation of amitryptilline to

nortryptilline involves:
A: N-demethylation

23. Which of the following is/are true regarding
lipid-water partition coefficient?
I. The system being used mimics the lipid
membranes and the aqueous systems found in the
body.
II. The higher the lipid-water partition coefficient,
the more non-polar is the drug.
III This parameter is usually determined to
determine hydrophobicity
A: I, II, III
24. Phenobarbital has what general drug target?
A: Receptors
25. REPEAT QUESTION
26. Codeine is converted to morphine via what
reaction?
A: O-demethylation
27. Oxidation of primary amines with alpha carbons
possessing alpha hydrogens after bisdealklylation is
termed as
A: Oxidative deamination
28. Which of the following statements is true?
I. DES is active in its trans-configuration
II. Dextro isomers of opioids in general are active
analgesics
III. Levo isomers of the opioid analgesics
are good antitussives
A: I
I The metabolite may have a different activity
II It is an example of allylic oxidation
III The metabolite is more active
A: II, III
31. The following are the general factors that affect
a drug molecule’s binding to a receptor except
A: Type of dosage form
32. When hydroxylation occurs at the
penultimate/second to the last methyl group of
aliphatic side chains of drugs, the oxidative process
is termed as
A: omega-1 oxidation
33. Mirabegron has what general drug target?
A: receptors
34. It is the major route of metabolism for drugs
that contain phenyl groups
A: Aromatic hydroxylation
35. Which of the following drug groups have
mechanism of action that involve binding to
voltage-gated ion channels as target proteins?
A: Nifedipine
36. Lidocaine is eliminated via
A: Saliva
Ibuprofen has what general drug target
A: Enzyme

29. Which of the following drug functionalities can The following interactions are expected of drugs
undergo reduction? with reversible effects, except
I. Carboxylic acids A: covalent bonds
II. Ketone
III Nitro and Azo compounds Given the reaction below, what is the enzyme
IV Amides involved?
A: II & III
 A: E and Z isomers

48. Donepezil has what general drug target?

A: enzymes

A: N-oxidase 49. Griseofulvin has what general drug target?

A: structural proteins
40. Which of the following is/are true regarding
some of the stereo-isomeric features of drugs? 50. Biological receptor site
I R-omeprazole has longer half-life compared to the A: A functional group or organized group of
combination of R & S enantiomers of omeprazole molecules that interact with the drug to produce a
II Levorotatory bupivacaine is less cardiotoxic than biological response
bupivacaine
III Levorotatory isomers of opioid analgesics are
excellent antitussives
A: II
FINALS LAB QUIZ
41. Endogenous primary amines are metabolized What testing reagents were employed in
by these non-CYP oxidative enzymes simulation 1 that needed a spatula for transfer? I.
A: Monoamine oxidases Sodium Bicarbonate II. Ceric Ammonium Nitrate III.
Bromine Solution. Single choice.
42. Chloramphenicol for parenterals is formulated (1/1 Point)
as succinate esters to
A: Enhance water solubility I & II
I & III
43. A highly protein-bound drug that presents a
I only
danger to patients when co-administered with
another highly protein-bound drug may cause fatal II only
hypotension II & III
A: phenytoin Correct answers: I only
44. Lidocaine has what general drug target? 2
A: voltage gated ion channels

45. Febuxostat has what general drug target?

A: enzymes

46. Which of the following statements regarding

acetylcholine is true?
I The quasi-ring structure is the pharmacophore at
nicotinic receptors causing CNS stimulation
II The extended structure is the pharmacophore at Given the molecule shown, what test will be
nicotinic receptors causing CNS stimulation. appropriate for identifying its presence? Single
III The quasi-ring structure is the form which choice.
acetylcholine is recognized and degraded by AChE (1/1 Point)
A: I Ceric Ammonium Nitrate Test
Sodium Bicarbonate Test
47. For clomiphene to exert full efficacy, a
combination of its ____ should be used None of the above (NOTA)
 Bromine Test Formation of a turbid or cloudy solution
Correct answers: Sodium Bicarbonate Test
Disappearance of reddish brown color of the
reagent
3 The bromine test is used for detecting the
presence of:. Single choice. Formation of red color
(1/1 Point) Effervescence
alcohols and phenols Correct answers: Effervescence
unsaturated compounds
7 What testing reagents were employed in
two of the choices simulation 1 that needed a pipette for transfer? I.
Sodium Bicarbonate II. Ceric Ammonium Nitrate III.
carboxylic acids
Bromine Solution. Single choice.
Correct answers: unsaturated compounds
(1/1 Point)
4 Given the molecule shown, what tests will be I & II
appropriate for identifying its presence? I. Bromine
I only
Test II. Sodium Bicarbonate Test III. Ceric
Ammonium Nitrate Test. Single choice. II only
(0/1 Point) I & III
II & III
Correct answers: II & III

8 How will you determine a positive result with the

ceric ammonium nitrate test?. Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
I & II Formation of a turbid or cloudy solution
II & III Formation of red color
I, II, III Effervescence
I only Disappearance of reddish brown color of the
reagent
II & III Correct answers: Formation of red color
Correct answers: II & III
9 The ceric ammonium nitrate test is used for
5 The sodium bicarbonate test is used for detecting detecting the presence of:. Single choice.
the presence of:. Single choice. (1/1 Point)
(1/1 Point)
aromatic compunds
carboxylic acids
alkenes
phenols
carboxylic acids
aromatic compunds
phenols
alkenes Correct answers: phenols
Correct answers: carboxylic acids
10 How will you determine a positive result with
6 How will you determine a positive result with the the bromine test?. Single choice.
sodium bicarbonate test?. Single choice. (1/1 Point)
(1/1 Point)
 Disappearance of reddish brown color of the As seen in its structure, the trimethyl
reagent ammonium group is necessary for activity because
it is necessary for receptor binding.
Formation of red color
It is used in symptomatic treatment of
Effervescence
bradycardia/heart block.
Formation of a turbid or cloudy solution Correct answers: As seen in its structure, the
trimethyl ammonium group is necessary for activity
because it is necessary for receptor binding.

3
A given drug was shown to increase catecholamine
release from adrenergic neurons. The central
nucleus in this drug is more or less: Single choice.

FINALS QUIZ 1 (0/1 Point)

Imidazoline
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true Phenylisopropylamine
regarding bioprecursor drugs? I. Antivirals are
Beta-phenylethylamine
nucleoside analogs that undergo phosphorylation
as a mechanism of activation II. Mechanisms of Aryloxypropanolamine
activation involve redox & hydrolysis III. Proton Your answer to question 3 is wrong. Correct
pump inhibitors undergo chemical activation to answers: Phenylisopropylamine
sulfonamides which bind to H+/K+ ATPase in
parietal cellsSingle choice. 4
(1/1 Point) Which of the following is an arylimadazoline?
Single choice.
I, II, III
(1/1 Point)
II, III
Clonidine
II
Phenylephrine
I, II
Methamphetamine
I
Antazoline
Correct answers: I
Tyramine
2 Correct answers: Clonidine
Which of the following statements is true regarding
the molecule below? Single choice. 5
(1/1 Point) If the meta-position of the benzene ring is the only
region hydroxylated, instead of the traditional
meta and para hydroxylations, what happens to
the activity of the drug? Single choice.
(1/1 Point)

The ester group contributes to half-life

prolongation.
The chain must be composed of 7-8 atoms for
it to exert biological activity
 Your answer to question 7 is wrong. Correct
The drug becomes a vasoconstrictor.
answers: I, III
The drug becomes a vasodilator.
The drug becomes a diuretic. 8
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true?
The drug becomes an antihypertensive agent. I. The amine group must be tertiary for
The drug becomes an inotrope. optimum activity.
Correct answers: The drug becomes a II. Substitution in the para position is
vasoconstrictor. essential for selective beta-1
antagonistic activity.
6 III. Substituents on the amino group must
Given the reaction, evaluate which of the following be bulky.Single choice.
statement is correct. I. The drug is Nitroglycerin. (1/1 Point)
The reaction depicted is a mechanism of its
activation. II. The drug is Nitroglycerin. The reaction
depicted shows its mechanism of termination. III.
The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is
glutathione-S-transferase.Single choice.
(0/1 Point)

I, II, III
II, III
III
I I
I, II, III I, II
II, III Correct answers: II, III
I, II
9
I, III What are the reactions involved seen in the image?
Your answer to question 6 is wrong. Correct I. Oxidative Deamination to an Aldehyde II.
answers: I, III Oxidative N-demethylation III. Oxidation of an
Aldehyde to Carboxylic Acid IV. Conjugation with
7 Glutathione V. Conjugation with Glutamine. Single
Which of the following agents has/have a beta choice.
phenylethylamine structure with the phenyl moiety (0/1 Point)
containing an ortho-dihydroxy substitution? I.
Epinephrine II. Ephedrine III. Dopamine Single
choice.
(0/1 Point)
I, III, V
II, III
I, IV
I
I, III, IV
I, III
I, V
II
I, II, III
I, II, III
Your answer to question 9 is wrong. Correct
answers: I, III, V

10
Which of the following statement(s) about
pheniramines is(are) true?
I. Some contain a diphenyl group, some
have phenyl and pyridyl groups. The drug is Isoniazid, metabolized by
II. Dextrorotatory isomers are Glutamine conjugation. The drug therefore
pharmacologically active. becomes non-toxic.
III. All are employed as systemic drugs The drug is Isoniazid, metabolized by N-
administered via PO. acetyltransferase. The metabolite causes
IV. They are the most active H1 hepatotoxicity especially in Asian patients.
antagonists.Single choice.
(1/1 Point) The drug is Hydralazine, metabolized by N-
acetyltransferase. The drug is therefore
II, III inactivated.
I, II The drug is Isoniazid, metabolized by N-
I, IV acetyltransferase. The drug therefore loses its anti-
tubercular effect and the dose should be increased.
II, IV
The drug is Isoniazid, metabolized by N-
III, IV acetyltransferase. The metabolite is more potent.
Correct answers: II, IV Correct answers: The drug is Isoniazid, metabolized
by N-acetyltransferase. The metabolite causes
11 hepatotoxicity especially in Asian patients.
The moeity between X and N is usually: Single
choice. 13
(1/1 Point) What is the drug molecule in the reaction and what
is its description?Single choice.
(1/1 Point)

Hydrocarbon
Two of the choices
Ethyl
Procainamide, an amide anti-arrhythmic
Propyl
Mescaline, an arylacetic acid hallucinogen
Ethanol
Lidocaine, an amide local anesthetic
Ether
Mescaline, an alkaloidal amine hallucinogen
Correct answers: Ethyl
Correct answers: Mescaline, an alkaloidal amine
hallucinogen
12
Given the reaction, evaluate which of the following
14
statement is correct.Single choice.
A patient with primary open-angle glaucoma was
(1/1 Point)
prescribed with topical Epinephrine for application
onto the eye. You know very well that Epinephrine
penetrates the mucus membranes of the eye
poorly. Which of the following agents will you
Formaldehyde
suggest as an alternative? Single choice.
(1/1 Point) Amide
Fenoldopam Nucleoside Analogs
Physostigmine Acetone
Dipivefrin Acetaldehyde
Correct answers: Acetone
Pilocarpine
Norepinephrine 18
Correct answers: Dipivefrin If the meta-position of the benzene ring is the only
region hydroxylated, instead of the traditional
15 meta and para hydroxylations, what happens to
Co-substrate(s) that terminate or attenuate the oral bioavailability of the drug? Single choice.
pharmacologic activity includes: I. Acetyl-CoA II. (1/1 Point)
UDP-Glucuronic Acid III. Phosphoadenosine
phosphosulfate Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
I, II
I, II, III
III
Increased due to decreased attack by COMT
II
Decreased due to increased attack by COMT
I
Two of the Choices
Correct answers: I
Decreased due to increased attack by MAO
16 Increased due to decreased attack by MAO
An example of a drug molecule that possesses Correct answers: Increased due to decreased attack
similarity with the structure depicted is:Single by COMT
choice.
(1/1 Point) 19
A patient being maintained on Levocarbidopa for
Parkinsonism will more or less benefit from the co-
administration of an antihistamine that belongs to
Terfenadine which of the following chemical class? Single
choice.
Hydroxyzine (1/1 Point)
Omeprazole Alkylamines
Clemastine Piperazines
Ranitidine Ethanolamines
Correct answers: Ranitidine
Piperidines
17 Phenothiazines
Ampicillin is formulated to Hetacillin by making the Correct answers: Ethanolamines
drug react with:Single choice.
(1/1 Point) 20
What are the enzymes involved in the reaction? I.
Alkylamines
CYP II. Glutamine-N-acyltransferase III.
Correct answers: Phenothiazines
Glutathione-S-transferase IV. Aldehyde
Dehydrogenase V. Alcohol DehydrogenaseSingle
23
choice.
Phenacetin was removed from the market due to
(0/1 Point)
its toxic metabolite that can cause hepatotoxicity
and nephrotoxicity which is formed via what
reaction? Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
I, III, IV
Glycine Conjugation
I, II, IV
Glucuronidation
II, IV
Sulfate Conjugation
I, II, V
O-deethylation
I, III, V
Methylation
Your answer to question 20 is wrong. Correct
Correct answers: Sulfate Conjugation
answers: I, II, IV
24
21
A new drug was found to have low oral absorption
A drug used as an adjunct for ulcer due to its ability
and bioavailability. The new drug does not fit the
to increase PG synthesis in the gastric mucosa:
criteria for ester prodrug formulation and it was
Single choice.
decided that it should be formulated as a Mannich
(1/1 Point)
Base. Which of the following functional groups
Rebamipide does this drug possibly contain?
Sucralfate I. Alcohols
II. Amines
Hyoscine-N-butylbromide III. Carbonyl Compounds Single choice.
Misoprostol (0/1 Point)

Amoxicillin II, III

Correct answers: Rebamipide I

22 I, II, III
The two Ar's in the structure shown is linked in II
what group of drugs?Single choice.
I, II
(1/1 Point)
Your answer to question 24 is wrong. Correct
answers: I, II

25
Methenamine is a urinary tract antiseptic & its
active metabolite is ____________. Single choice.
Piperazines (1/1 Point)
Ethanolamines Carboxylic Acid
Ethylenediamines Methanol
Phenothiazines Acetaldehyde
 Ethanol
28
Formaldehyde Which of the following biomolecules are involved
Correct answers: Formaldehyde in the reaction?
I. CoA and ATP
26 II. Acetyl CoA
Given the reaction, which of the following III. Glucose and UTP
statement(s) is(are) true? IV. Methionine and ATP
I. The reaction is the most dominant V. Sulfate and ATP
functionalization reaction. Single choice.
II. The reaction is the most dominant non- (1/1 Point)
functionalization reaction.
III. An endogenous molecule is involved in
the reaction.Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Acetyl CoA
Sulfate and ATP
Methionine and ATP
I, II, III
Glucose and UTP
II, III
CoA and ATP
II Correct answers: CoA and ATP
I, II
29
I, III The N in the structure is usually a part of a
Correct answers: II, III hetercycle in what group of drugs?Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
27
Which of the following properties may be expected
from drugs possessing this general structure? I.
Inhibition of allergic response II. Anticholinergic
Activity III. Inhibition of gastric acid secretionSingle
choice.
Pheniramines
(0/1 Point)
Ethylenediamines
Piperazines
Phenothiazines
Tertiary Amino Alkyl Ethers
I Correct answers: Piperazines
III
30
II, III For patients who are suffering from ophthalmic
I, II, III conjunctivitis and have allergic histories to
ethanolamines, piperazines, phenothiazines and
I, II alkylamines, which of the following agents will be
Your answer to question 27 is wrong. Correct considered the most appropriate? Single choice.
answers: I, II (1/1 Point)
 Naphazoline
Tetrahydrozoline
Antazoline
Pyrilamine
Tripelennamine
Correct answers: Antazoline
Which of the following would you consider as a
31 necessity or “a must” for a drug to have
Which of the following biomolecules are involved antimuscarinic activity? Single choice.
in the following reaction? I. CoA and ATP II. Acetyl (1/1 Point)
CoA III. Glucose and UTP IV. Methionine and ATP V. X being an ethylene functional group.
Sulfate and ATPSingle choice.
(1/1 Point) R1 & R2 being aromatic.
N substituent being quaternary ammonium.
X being an amine
The amine must be 2 carbon atoms away from
the tri-substituted carbon atom.
I
Correct answers: N substituent being quaternary
I & IV ammonium.
IV & V
34
V Doxylamine & Carbinoxamine belong to what
IV chemical class of antihistamines?Single choice.
Correct answers: V (1/1 Point)
Ethanolamines
32
Piperidines
Antibiotics for H. pylori-induced ulcer,
except:Single choice. Piperazines
(0/1 Point)
Alkylamines
Clarithromycine
Phenothiazines
Doxycycline Correct answers: Ethanolamines
Amoxicillin
35
Tetracycline Considering the structure, which of the following
Metronidazole statement/s is/are true?
Your answer to question 32 is wrong. Correct I. Maximal activity of this drug molecule is
answers: Doxycycline seen when the meta & para positions of
the ring have hydroxyl groups.
33 II. Substitution of the catechol ring with a
resorcinol ring offers beta-1 selective
agonist activity.
III. Bulky substituents confer beta-2
selectivity.Single choice.
(0/1 Point)
 I, II, III Carrier-Linked Prodrugs
I Mannich Bases
I, II Carbonyl Carbons
Correct answers: Bioprecursor Drugs
I, III
III 38
Your answer to question 35 is wrong. Correct Question
answers: I, III Single choice.
(0/1 Point)
36
Given the molecule, which of the following is/are
true?
I Presence of β hydroxyl groups decreases
effectivity while, α methyl groups increases
effectivity.
II N-substituents make them less active, &
substituents larger than methyl groups, render
them inactive. III. The primary amine is subject to The drug is a selective beta-2 agonist for
alteration into secondary or tertiary amine in order management of acute asthma.
to increase activity. Single choice.
(0/1 Point) The drug is a selective beta-1 agonist used for
heart failure.
The drug is a selective beta-2 agonist for
premature labor.
The drug is a selective alpha-1 agonist for
hypotension.
The drug is a non-selective beta-blocker used
for hypertension and hyperventilation.
I, III Your answer to question 38 is wrong. Correct
answers: The drug is a selective beta-2 agonist for
I, II premature labor.
II, III
39
I, II, III
I
Your answer to question 36 is wrong. Correct
answers: I, II

37
These are types of prodrugs that don’t have pro-
moeities & rely on biotransformation for their
activation.Single choice.
(1/1 Point) Given the structure below, which of the following
statement(s) is(are) true?
Esters I. In order for the drug to inhibit the
Bioprecursor Drugs allergic response, the alkyl bridge
maybe composed of 2 carbon atoms.
 II. In order for the drug to exhibit an Correct answers: Nizatidine
antipsychotic effect, the alkyl bridge
must be composed of 3 carbon atoms. 42
III. For the drug to be useful as an If an isopropyl group or a tert-butyl group is
antipsychotic, the heterocyclic ring must attached to the nitrogen atom: Single choice.
be substituted.Single choice. (1/1 Point)
(1/1 Point)
II
I, III
I, II, III
I, II
II, III Two of the choices
Correct answers: I, II, III The drug’s absorption and bioavailability will
be increased due to decreased degradation by
40 COMT.
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true? I.
The presence of four carbons in the chain The drug’s absorption and bioavailability will
separating the ring & nitrogen group is necessary be decreased due to increased water solubility.
for optimal antagonistic activity. II. Maximal The drug’s absorption and bioavailability will
antagonistic activity requires that the terminal be increased due to decreased degradation by
nitrogen group should be polar & non- basic. III. MAO.
The imidazole ring is required for competitive
inhibition at H2 Receptors and hence, should not The drug will become a selective alpha-2
be replaced. Single choice. agonist.
(1/1 Point) Correct answers: The drug’s absorption and
bioavailability will be increased due to decreased
degradation by MAO.

43
Which of the following is a phenylisopropylamine?
I, II, III
Single choice.
III (0/1 Point)
I, II Clonidine
I Isoproterenol
II, III Methamphetamine
Correct answers: I, II
Salbutamol
41
Which H2 blocker has greater than 90% Phenylephrine
bioavailability?Single choice. Your answer to question 43 is wrong. Correct
(1/1 Point) answers: Methamphetamine
Cimetidine
44
Terfenadine Which of the following is the co-substrate involved
Nizatidine in the reaction? Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Ranitidine
 Correct answers: The amine group of the urethane
group renders it stable against attack by ACh
esterases due to pi electron delocalization.
S-adenosylmethionine
47
Coenzyme A and ATP Given the reaction, which of the following
Acetyl CoA statements is/are true? I. The reaction is a
conjugative reaction. II. The general substrate for
UDP-glucuronic Acid such reactions involves aromatic acids. III. The
Phosphoadenosine phosphosulfate reaction enhances water-solubility of susceptible
Correct answers: S-adenosylmethionine substrates. Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
45
Given the reaction, which of the following is true? I.
The reaction is a phase I reaction. II. The reaction is
O-demethylation. III. The reaction is a phase II
reaction. IV. The reaction involves phenol
I, II, III
methylation. V. The reaction involves catechol
methylation. Single choice. II, III
(1/1 Point) I
I, III
I, II
I&V Correct answers: I, II, III
III & IV
48
I & IV Which of the following statement(s) regarding
III & V Estramustine is(are) true?
I. The steroidal nucleus is an alkylating
I & II agent required for the antineoplastic
Correct answers: III & V effect.
II. The normustard group is required for
46 the antineoplastic effect.
Given the structure of Bethanechol, which of the III. The drug is used for prostate cancer.
following is true?:Single choice. Single choice.
(1/1 Point) (1/1 Point)
The methyl group on the carbon beta to the I, II
onium group confers affinity to nicotinic receptors.
I, II, III
The amine group of the urethane group
renders it stable against attack by ACh esterases II, III
due to pi electron delocalization. II
The carbonyl moiety becomes sensitive to I
attachment by serine present in ACh esterase due Correct answers: II, III
to the urethane amino group.
The ionized quaternary nitrogen is a 49
pharmacophore at nicotinic receptors.
Esters of which of the following functional groups 52
are for enhancing water-solubility? I. Succinates II. A patient with Peptic Ulcer Disease, was prescribed
Sulfonates III. PalimitatesSingle choice. a drug to be maintained for 2 months in order to
(1/1 Point) assure complete healing of his ulcer wound. After 6
weeks of therapy, he complains of impotence and
II, III
some signs of breast tenderness. This patient was
I, II, III probably maintained on which of the following
I, II agents? Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
I
Cimetidine
III
Correct answers: I, II Misoprostol
Pantoprazole
50
Pirenzepine
If a methyl group is attached to the alpha-carbon,
what is the most probable effect that can be Sucralfate
observed from this drug molecule?Single choice. Correct answers: Cimetidine
(1/1 Point)
53
If the amino group was converted to a secondary
amine via attachment of an isopropyl group, what
is expected from its effect? Single choice.
(0/1 Point)

Inotropism
Bronchodilation
Increased lipolyisis
Hypotension
Hypertension due to inotropism The drug will be selective for exerting an
Correct answers: Hypotension inotropic effect.
The drug will be selective for exerting a
51 bronchodilating effect.
Given the reaction, what enzyme is involved?Single
choice. The drug will be selective for exerting a
(1/1 Point) vasoconstricting effect.
The drug will be a powerful laxative.
Your answer to question 53 is wrong. Correct
answers: The drug will be selective for exerting a
CYP bronchodilating effect.
O-acetyltransferase
54
Alcohol-O-methyltransferase Which of the following antihistamines favor a
Phenol-O-methyltransferase branching structure in its alkyl chain?Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Catechol-O-methyltransferase
Correct answers: Catechol-O-methyltransferase Promethazine
 Diphenhydramine Attachment of a hydroxyl group at the beta
carbon
Cyclizine
Attachment of a hydroxyl group and
Tripelennamine
hydroxymethyl groups at positions 4 and 3
Pheniramine respectively.
Correct answers: Promethazine Correct answers: Attachment of a hydroxyl group
and hydroxymethyl groups at positions 4 and 3
55 respectively.
Which of the following agents is an alkylamine, in
which the connecting atom for the aromatic 58
moieties is linked by an sp2-hybridized carbon A patient suffering from the common cold will most
atom? Single choice. likely benefit from the administration of an
(1/1 Point) antihistamine that belongs to which of the
Pheniramine following class? Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Dimethindene
Piperazines
Promethazine
Phenothiazines
Chlorphenamine
Ethanolamines
Azelastine
Correct answers: Dimethindene Ethylenediamines
56 Alkylamines
Correct answers: Alkylamines
What is the clinical use of Bethanechol? Single
choice. 59
(1/1 Point) Which of the following statement(s) regarding
Tachycardia promoeities is(are) true?
I. Promoeities must be devoid of
Intestinal Onstruction pharmacological activity.
Urinary Retention II. Promoeities need not have
pharmacological activity.
Glaucoma III. Promoeities may also have
CHF pharmacological activity.Single choice.
Correct answers: Urinary Retention (1/1 Point)
I, II, III
57
Which of the following statements will definitely II, III
increase the oral absorption and bioavailability of I, II
the beta-phenylethylamines? Single choice.
(1/1 Point) I

Attachment of a hydroxyl group at position 3 II

Correct answers: II, III
Attachment of a tert-butyl group to the
nitrogen atom 60
Attachment of 3 more alkyl groups to the Which of the following substrates will be activated
nitrogen atom prior to conjugative reactions? Single choice.
(0/1 Point)
 Benzoic Acids
Phenols
Catechols
Amines
Resorcinols
Correct answer: Benzoic acids

FINALS QUIZ 2
1
With regards to positions 6, 8, and 9 of the drug
molecule, which of the following statement/s
is/are true?Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Substitution with alkyl groups at these
positions increases the drug molecule’s effects
Substitution of these positions with hydroxyl
groups increase the drug’s effects
Leaving them un-substituted increases drug’s
Which of the following statement/s is/are true effects
regarding the drug molecule represented below? Incorporating large alkyl groups enhance
I. The drug is currently more used for lipophilicity and therefore increase the drug’s
seizures. effects
II. The drug molecule is more toxic than Correct answers: Leaving them un-substituted
Benzodiazepines. increases drug’s effects
III. III. The drug molecule’s activity is
increased if the substituents at position 3
5 are alkyl groups instead of hydrogen Which of the following agents is an opioid analgesic
atoms.Single choice. not commonly used as an aqueous pre-anesthetic?
(1/1 Point) Single choice.
I, II, III (1/1 Point)

I, II Meperidine

II, III Methadone

I, III Morphine

III Fentanyl
Correct answers: I, II, III Remifentanil
Correct answers: Methadone
2
4
Which of the following statement/s correctly
describes the properties of the local anesthetics? I.
The lipophilic center of these drugs is essential for
blocking sodium channels of neurons. II. The 6
hydrophilic center of these drugs is essential for With regards to the structure of Phenothiazine
penetrating the axon of neurons. III. These group of anti-psychotics, which of the following conditions
drugs can be esters or amides and the amides are will definitely increase their potency?Single choice.
usually longer acting.Single choice. (1/1 Point)
(1/1 Point)
Substituting the N10 position with a propyl
III dialkyl amino side chain
I, II, III Substituting the N10 position with a propyl
piperazine side chain
I, II
Substituting the N10 position with a propyl
II, III
piperidine side chain
I, III
Converting the nitrogen atom at position 10
Correct answers: III
into a carbon atom
Correct answers: Substituting the N10 position with
5
a propyl piperazine side chain

7
Amongst the drugs for ADHD, which of the
following agents is considered to be the most
potent?Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Threo-Methylphenidate
Erythro-Methylphenidate
levo-Threo-Methylphenidate
Lisdexamfetamine
Which of the following statement/s regarding the dextro-Threo-Methylphenidate
position 1 of the drug molecule is/are true?Single Correct answers: dextro-Threo-Methylphenidate
choice.
(1/1 Point) 8
Activity is enhanced if this position is Which of the following agents is expected to have
substituted with small alkyl groups such as methyl. the greatest potency?Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Activity is decreased if this position is
substituted with small alkyl groups such as methyl. Trifluoperazine

Activity is enhanced but half-life is shortened if Pipracetazine

this position is substituted with a hydroxyl group. Levomepromazine
Hydrolytic cleavage of the bond between Trifluopromazine
position 1 and 2 will enhance the drug’s activity.
Thioridazine
Leaving this position un-substituted increases Correct answers: Trifluoperazine
the drug’s activity.
Correct answers: Activity is enhanced if this 9
position is substituted with small alkyl groups such
as methyl.
 Which of the following agents will more or less
closely resembles the structure and activity of
Haloperidol? I. Clopentixol II. Penfluridol III.
ThiothixeneSingle choice.
(1/1 Point)
II
I, II, III
I, II
II, III
I, III
Correct answers: II
Given the molecule, which of the following
statement/s is/are true regarding substitution of 12
the drug molecule with a phenyl position at Which of the following agents is expected to cause
position 5?Single choice. less CNS depression and less addiction liabilities?
(1/1 Point) Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
The tendencies of the drug to induce
respiratory depression is increased. Phenobarbital
The CNS depressant effects of the molecule is Buspirone
intensified and becomes toxic. Diazepam
The addiction liabilities of the drug molecule Zolpidem
increases.
Zaleplon
The efficacy of the drug molecule increases Correct answers: Buspirone
with no appreciable effects on toxicity and abuse
potential. 13
Correct answers: The efficacy of the drug molecule
increases with no appreciable effects on toxicity
and abuse potential.

10
Which of the following anti-seizure drugs are
sodium channel blockers? I. CBZ II. Phenytoin III.
Phenobarbital. Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
I, II, III
I, II
II, III
I, III
Given the molecule, If an electronegative
III substituent is attached to position 7, which of the
Correct answers: I, II following is expected from its activity?Single
choice.
11 (1/1 Point)
 The tendencies of the drug to induce Diphenhydramine
respiratory depression is increased.
Buspirone
The CNS depressant effects of the molecule is
Ramelteon
intensified and becomes toxic.
Chloral Hydrate
The addiction liabilities of the drug molecule
Correct answers: Zolpidem
increases.
The efficacy of the drug molecule increases 16
with no appreciable effects on toxicity and abuse Which of the following anti-seizure agents will
potential. more or less have lower alkyl groups in their ureide
Correct answers: The efficacy of the drug molecule structure?Single choice.
increases with no appreciable effects on toxicity (1/1 Point)
and abuse potential.
Phenytoin
14 CBZ
VPA
Oxazolidinedione
Ethosuximide
Correct answers: Ethosuximide

17
Which of the following chemicals will more or less
be the most effective bronchodilator?Single choice.
(0/1 Point)
1,3,7-trimethylxanthine
3,7-dimethylxanthine
Which of the following can decrease this drug 1,3-dimethylxanthine
molecule's activity? I. Alkyl substitution at position
Two of the choices
3 II. Hydroxy substitution at position 3 III.
Your answer to question 17 is wrong. Correct
Conversion of N at position 1 to CSingle choice.
answers: 1,3-dimethylxanthine
(1/1 Point)
I, II, III 18
I, III Which of the following chemicals produced the
only atypical anti-psychotic with partial 5-HT and
II, III dopamine agonistic properties?Single choice.
I, II (1/1 Point)
II Benzamides
Correct answers: I, III Fluorophenylindoles

15 Benzisoxazoles
Which of the following drugs closely resembles the Dibenzodiazepine
action of the Benzodiazepines?Single choice.
Dihydrocarbostyrol
(1/1 Point)
Correct answers: Dihydrocarbostyrol
Zolpidem
19
Which of the following agents may induce
schizophrenic-like symptoms due to NMDA
blockade? I. Ketamine II. Etomidate III.
PhencyclidineSingle choice.
(1/1 Point)
I & III only
II & III
III only
I, II & III
I & II
Correct answers: I & III only

20
Which of the following agents is classified as an
Ester of PABA?Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
Cocaine
Dibucaine
Cyclomethicaine
Propoxycaine
Dibucaine