Chapter 15-Basics of Electrical Systems: True/False

There should be no evidence of fluid leakage.
Turn the fan clutch by hand; it should have

slight resistance to turning when the engine is cold, and a drag when the engine is hot is
normal. If the fan can be spun with little or no resistance with the engine off or if there is axial
movement of the clutch, the fan clutch should be replaced.
PTS: 1
9. What are the component parts of a radiator?
ANS:
Aluminum tubes and fins make up the core.
Attached to the core are metal or plastic tanks.
The transmission cooler tube is installed in the cool side tank.
PTS: 1
Chapter 15—Basics of Electrical Systems
TRUE/FALSE
1. Electricity is the flow of protons from one atom to another.
ANS: F PTS: 1
2. When an electron leaves the orbit of an atom, the atom then has a positive charge.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. The chemical reaction in a battery causes a lack of electrons at the positive (+) terminal.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. The term ampere was assigned to units of current in honor of André Ampere, who studied the
relationship between electricity and magnetism.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. Electromotive force is measured in volts.
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. Voltage stays constant in a closed electrical circuit, but the amperage drops as it powers a
load.
ANS: F PTS: 1
7. One watt is equal to one volt multiplied by one ampere.
ANS: T PTS: 1
8. A series circuit provides two or more different paths for the current to flow through.
ANS: F PTS: 1
9. To complete the electrical path to the vehicle‘s battery, the vehicle‘s metal frame components
are often part of the electrical circuit.
ANS: T PTS: 1
10. A circuit protection device such as a fuse, fuse link, or circuit breaker will open the circuit if
resistance values become too great.
ANS: F PTS: 1
11. If there is voltage in a circuit, there must be electrons flowing through the circuit.
ANS: F PTS: 1
12. Amperage stays constant in a circuit, but the voltage drops as it powers a load.
ANS: T PTS: 1
13. A parallel circuit can only have one load on each leg.
ANS: F PTS: 1
14. Increasing the voltage of an automotive electrical system allows the wires to be smaller yet
supply the same electrical power as a low-voltage system with larger wires.
ANS: T PTS: 1
15. Alternating current constantly changes in voltage and direction.
ANS: T PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is the name of the formula E = I x R?

Watt‘s law c. Ampere‘s law a.
Ohm‘s law d. Voltaire‘s law b.
ANS: D
Ohm‘s law
PTS: 1
2. Which type of resistor is commonly used in automotive circuits?

variable c. fixed value a.
all answers are correct d. stepped b.
ANS: D
all answers are correct
PTS: 1
3. What is the current in a 12-volt circuit with a 6-ohm resistor connected series?
6 amps c. 2 amps a.
12 amps d. 4 amps b.
ANS: A
2 amps
PTS: 1
4. The unit for measuring electrical current is _____.

volts c. amperes a.
watts d. ohms b.
ANS: A
amperes
PTS: 1
5. The unit for measuring electrical resistance is _____.

volts c. amperes a.
watts d. ohms b.
ANS: B
ohms
PTS: 1
6. The unit for measuring electrical pressure (force) is _____.

volts c. amperes a.
watts d. ohms b.
ANS: C
volts
PTS: 1
7. Which of the following is a source of energy in an automobile‘s electrical system?

both ―battery‖ and ―AC generator‖ c. battery a.
neither ―battery‖ nor ―AC generator‖ d. AC generator b.
ANS: C
both ―battery‖ and ―AC generator‖
PTS: 1
8. In the formula E = I x R, E represents _____.

voltage c. current a.
wattage d. resistance b.
ANS: C
voltage
PTS: 1
9. In the formula E = I x R, I represents_____.

ANS: A
current
PTS: 1
10. In the formula E = I x R, R represents_____.

ANS: B
resistance
PTS: 1
11. Technician A says moving magnetic fields are a source of electrical energy in an automobile.
Technician B says chemical reaction is a source of electrical energy in an automobile. Who is
correct?
both A and B c. A only a.
neither A nor B d. B only b.
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
12. Technician A says current will increase with a decrease in resistance. Technician B says
current will decrease with an increase in resistance. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
13. Technician A says current 14-volt systems are rated at 800 W to 1500 W. Technician B says a
higher voltage system requires more amperage to produce the same wattage. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
14. Technician A says the amount of electricity produced by an AC generator depends on the
strength of the magnetic field. Technician B says it depends on the speed at which the
magnetic field moves past the wires. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
15. Technician A says the conventional theory of current flow states that current flows from
negative to positive. Technician B says the electron current flow theory states that electrons
move from negative to positive. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
16. Technician A says late model cars use maxifuses instead of fusible links. Technician B says
fusible links are normally found in the engine compartment near the battery. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
17. All the following are used as circuit protection EXCEPT:

circuit breaker c. fuse a.
fuse link d. relay b.
ANS: B
relay
PTS: 1
18. Switches are being discussed. Technician A says that ―pole‖ refers to the number of output
circuits. Technician B says that ―throw‖ refers to the number of input circuits. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
19. A _____ is an electromagnet with a movable core that converts electrical current into
mechanical movement.
reluctor c. stator a.
solenoid d. magneto b.
ANS: D
solenoid
PTS: 1
20. Wire sizes are being discussed. Technician A says an AWG 20 gauge wire is larger than an
AWG 22 gauge wire. Technician B says a metric 1.0 gauge wire is smaller than a metric .8
gauge wire.
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
21. The amount of electricity produced in the vehicle‘s generator is dependent on _____.
the strength of the magnetic field a.
the number of wires that are passed through the magnetic field b.
the speed at which the magnetic field passes through the wires c.
all answers are correct d.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
22. Technician A says when there is a complete path through the electrical circuit, the circuit is
said to be open. Technician B says when the circuit path is broken or interrupted the circuit is
said to be closed. Who is right?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
23. Which statement concerning series circuits is NOT true?

The sum of the voltage drops equals the source voltage a.
The amount of current [amperes] flowing through the circuit is the same throughout the b.
circuit
The voltage drop across each load is different if the resistance of the loads is different c.
The total resistance is equal to the lowest resistance in the circuit d.
ANS: D
The total resistance is equal to the lowest resistance in the circuit
PTS: 1
24. Which of the statements concerning parallel circuits is NOT true?

The total circuit resistance is always lower than the resistance of the leg with the lowest a.
resistance
The current through each leg will be different if the resistance of the loads in each leg is b.
different
The sum of the current of all the legs is the total circuit current c.
The combined voltage drop of all the legs equals the total voltage drop d.
ANS: D
The combined voltage drop of all the legs equals the total voltage drop
PTS: 1
25. Technician A says 42-volt automotive electrical systems can use smaller wires to supply the
same amount of power to electrical accessories. Technician B says a 42-volt electrical system
is very dangerous and can kill you if your skin comes into contact with exposed wiring. Who
is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
26. All the following are variable resistors EXCEPT:

rheostat c. potentiometer a.
thermistor d. resistor wire b.
ANS: B
resistor wire
PTS: 1
27. A momentary contact switch is used to operate the _____.

horn c. headlights [on/off] a.
turn signals d. heater fan b.
ANS: C
horn
PTS: 1
28. Secondary wire is used to power _____.

AC generator [alternator] c. spark plugs a.
all answers are correct d. starter b.
ANS: A
spark plugs
PTS: 1
29. A simple on/off switch with one input terminal and one output is a _____type switch.
DPDT [double pole, double throw] c. SPDT [single pole, double throw] a.
MPMT [multipole, multi throw] d. SPST [single pole, single throw] b.
ANS: B
SPST [single pole, single throw]
PTS: 1
30. The function of a resistor in an electrical circuit is to limit _____.

resistance [ohms] c. voltage a.
power [ watts] d. current [amperes] b.
ANS: B
current [amperes]
PTS: 1
31. The voltage in a hybrid vehicle can rang up to _____ volts.

600 c. 42 a.
1,000 d. 175 b.
ANS: C
600
PTS: 1
32. The electrical principle that states ―the sum of the voltage drops in a closed circuit equals the
voltage applied to that circuit‖ is known as _____ law.
Kirchoff‘s c. Ohm‘s a.
Ampere‘s d. Watt‘s b.
ANS: C
Kirchoff‘s
PTS: 1
33. The electrical system of a modern automobile runs at _____ volts when the engine is running.
14.0 c. 12.0 a.
15.6 d. 12.6 b.
ANS: C
14.0
PTS: 1
34. Circuit breakers are being discussed. Technician A says after the circuit breaker is tripped, it
must be reset by pressing a button on the breaker. Technician B says some circuit breakers
automatically reset after the power has been turned off for a few seconds. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
35. Technician A disconnects the battery ground cable prior to replacing a fusible link.
Technician B uses a fusible link that is larger [lower gauge number] than the circuit it
protects. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. In a series circuit, current is always ____________________ throughout the circuit.
ANS: constant
PTS: 1
2. The resistance of the load(s) in an AC [alternating current] circuit is called

____________________.
ANS: impedance
PTS: 1
3. Electrons have a ____________________ charge.
ANS: negative
PTS: 1
4. An atom that has lost an electron has a ____________________ charge.
ANS: positive
PTS: 1
5. Electrical power is measured in ____________________.
ANS: watts
PTS: 1
6. ____________________ are materials with a low resistance to the flow of current.
ANS: Conductors
PTS: 1
7. ____________________ are materials that resist the flow of current.
ANS: Insulators
PTS: 1
8. The current in an electrical circuit ____________________ when the resistance increases.
ANS: decreases
PTS: 1
9. The process of generating electricity by moving a wire through a magnetic field is called
____________________.
ANS: induction
PTS: 1
10. Electromotive force is usually called ____________________.
ANS: voltage
PTS: 1
11. A circuit that is complete and does not have anything to prevent the flow of electrical current
through it has ____________________.
ANS: continuity
PTS: 1
12. As temperature increases, the resistance of a NTC [negative temperature coefficient]

thermistor ____________________.
ANS: decreases
PTS: 1
13. A circuit that is incomplete is called a(n) ____________________ circuit.
ANS: open
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. Name the four basic components of all electrical circuits.
ANS:
Source; load; switch; conductor
PTS: 1
2. Describe the formula for power (Watt‘s law).
ANS:
Power (watts) = voltage x amperage
PTS: 1
3. What factors affect the resistance of a copper wire?
ANS:
The diameter, length, and temperature of a copper wire affect the amount of internal
resistance.
PTS: 1
4. Why is a relay used in a circuit?
ANS:
To allow a low-current device to control a higher-current device
PTS: 1
5. Why can wire sizes be smaller when higher system voltages are used?
ANS:
Because the amperage used to power things is less.
PTS: 1
6. Describe the difference between the terms ―electrical‖ and ―electronics.‖
ANS:
Electrical refers to wiring and electrical parts; electronics refers to circuits using computers
and solid-state devices.
PTS: 1
7. What is a solenoid?
ANS:
An electromagnetic device with movable cores, used to change electrical current flow into
mechanical movement
PTS: 1
8. What is a relay?
ANS:
An electrical switch that allows a small amount of current to control a high-current circuit
PTS: 1
9. Identify the four basic parts of a typical automobile electrical circuit.
ANS:
Power source, conductors, loads, and controllers (switches)
PTS: 1
10. Describe the difference between alternating and direct current.
ANS:
The electron flow in an alternating current (AC) circuit changes direction at a fixed rate, and
the electron flow in a direct current (DC) circuit flows in one direction only.
PTS: 1
11. What is electromagnetic induction?
ANS:
The process of producing electricity by passing a moving magnetic field through a conductor
PTS: 1
12. What is the difference between voltage and current?
ANS:
Voltage is the push or force of electricity, and current is the actual amount of electron flow
through the circuit.
PTS: 1
Chapter 16—General Electrical System Diagnostics and Service
TRUE/FALSE
1. The black DMM test lead always plugs into the COM input jack.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. High resistance in a circuit causes decreased current flow.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. A wiring diagram shows the actual position of parts on a vehicle.
ANS: F PTS: 1
4. An ohmmeter can be used to check for continuity.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. When using a DMM to test resistance, the red lead is connected to the A jack.
ANS: F PTS: 1
6. All types of circuit protection devices can be checked with an ohmmeter or test light.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. A circuit is open when it is complete.
ANS: F PTS: 1
8. A switch that is in the closed position should not have more than 300 millivolts voltage drop
between input and output terminals.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. Analog meters should not be used to test electronic components.
ANS: T PTS: 1
10. When a circuit protection device [fuse, circuit breaker] opens due to higher than normal
current, a short is the likely cause.
ANS: T PTS: 1
11. Connecting an ohmmeter to a live circuit usually results in damage to the meter.
ANS: T PTS: 1
12. An analog oscilloscope can freeze a captured signal for close analysis.
ANS: F PTS: 1
13. The schematic for a relay is typically shown on the outside of the relay.
ANS: T PTS: 1
14. A voltage drop test can find excessive resistance in a circuit that may not be detected using an
ohmmeter.
ANS: T PTS: 1
15. If rosin core solder is not available, acid core solder can be used as a substitute.
ANS: F PTS: 1
16. Connecting an ohmmeter into a live circuit can damage the meter.
ANS: T PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. While discussing how to test a switch, Technician A says the action of the switch can be
monitored by a voltmeter. Technician B says the continuity through the switch can be checked
by measuring the resistance across the switch terminals. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
2. Technician A says electrical circuit resistance causes voltage drop. Technician B says high-
resistance problems cause an increase in current flow. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
3. Technician A says fuses and other circuit protection devices normally wear out. Technician B
says to avoid future problems, replace a bad fuse with a higher ampere-rated fuse. Who is
correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
4. Technician A says uses an ohmmeter to measure resistance of a component. Technician B

uses a voltmeter to measure voltage drop. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
5. Sensor problems are being discussed. Technician A says a poor ground in the reference
voltage circuit can cause higher than normal readings at the computer. Technician B says
small amounts of unwanted resistance in a low voltage sensor circuit will not have a
significant effect on the vehicle‘s performance. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
6. Technician A uses a splice clip while soldering two wires together. Technician B twists the
wire strands of the wire ends together before soldering. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
7. A technician is testing a connector in a circuit with a voltmeter. With the power on in the
circuit, the meter reads 12 volts when the leads are placed on each side of the connector. This
indicates that the connector _____.
is good c. is shorted to ground a.
has current flowing through it d. is open b.
ANS: B
is open
PTS: 1
8. The waveform of AC voltage is typically a _____.

sine wave c. square wave a.
flat line d. sawtooth wave b.
ANS: C
sine wave
PTS: 1
9. A technician is checking a circuit with excessive resistance. The current flow through the
circuit should be 10 amps, but a check with an ammeter measures only 6 amps. The
technician measures a voltage drop of 1.0 volts across the switch terminals when the circuit is
turned on. What is the resistance of the switch?
6 ohms c. 1/60 ohm a.
60 ohms d. 1/6 ohm b.
ANS: B
1/6 ohm
PTS: 1
10. The wave form of constant DC voltage on a lab scope is a _____.

sine wave c. square wave a.
flat line d. sawtooth wave b.
ANS: D
flat line
PTS: 1
11. Oscilloscopes are being discussed. Technician A says the vertical positions represent time.
Technician B says the horizontal positions represent voltage. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
12. Technician A uses a voltmeter to check circuit resistance. Technician B uses an ohmmeter to
check circuit resistance. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
13. Technician A says jump-starting can cause a battery to explode. Technician B says jump-
starting can damage a computer. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
14. Resistance checks are being discussed. Technician A says the component must be
disconnected from the system before checking. Technician B says an infinite reading means
the component is shorted. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
15. Voltage drop testing is being discussed. Technician A connects the red voltmeter lead to the
most positive side of the circuit being tested and the black lead to the most negative side or
part of the circuit being tested. Technician B says the test must be conducted with the circuit
operating with normal amounts of current. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
16. When testing resistance in a circuit with an ohmmeter, _____.

the ohmmeter is connected in parallel to the circuit and the circuit is turned on a.
the ohmmeter is connected in series to the circuit and the circuit is turned on b.
the circuit or component must first be disconnected from the power source, then the c.
ohmmeter is connected in series with the component being tested
ANS: C
the circuit or component must first be disconnected from the power source, then the
ohmmeter is connected in series with the component being tested
PTS: 1
17. The radiator fan on a vehicle is working, but it is turning at a much slower speed than normal.
The specifications for the fan motor are 25 amperes. Your DMM has a maximum amperage
of 10 amps. What should you use to test the fan motor current?
Replace the 10 amp fuse in your DMM with a 25 amp fuse a.
Use an inductive type ammeter b.
Both ―Replace the 10 amp fuse in your DMM with a 25 amp fuse‖ and ―Use an inductive c.
type ammeter‖
Neither ―Replace the 10 amp fuse in your DMM with a 25 amp fuse‖ nor ―Use an d.
inductive type ammeter‖
ANS: B
Use an inductive type ammeter
PTS: 1
18. When connecting a conventional ammeter to a circuit, _____.

the circuit must turned on a.
the ammeter must be wired in series with the circuit b.
the anticipated load current must be less than the ammeter‘s maximum current rating c.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
19. When using an inductive current probe adapter on a DMM, _____.

the DMM is set for DC amps a.
the arrow on the clamp faces toward the battery [source voltage] b.
the thumb wheel on the probe is adjusted to zero on the DMM c.
ANS: C
the thumb wheel on the probe is adjusted to zero on the DMM
PTS: 1
20. DMMs that can measure temperature use a _____ adapter that is placed on or near the object
to be checked.
manometer c. thermometer a.
refractometer d. thermocouple b.
ANS: B
thermocouple
PTS: 1
21. When testing the high-voltage circuits on a hybrid vehicle, a _____type meter and test leads
must be used.
Cat IV c. Cat II a.
Cat V d. Cat III b.
ANS: B
Cat III
PTS: 1
22. When setting up a lab scope to measure a waveform that ranges from 0 to 15 volts; if there are
eight vertical divisions, what must the voltage level be set at to display the entire waveform?
1 volt c. 100 millivolts a.
2 volts d. 500 millivolts b.
ANS: D
2 volts
PTS: 1
23. All the following are lab scope adjustments EXCEPT:

trigger source c. trigger level a.
amperage level d. slope b.
ANS: D
amperage level
PTS: 1
24. What is the best tool to use to find the cause of an intermittent problem in a low-voltage DC
circuit?
digital voltmeter c. graphing multimeter [GMM] a.
test light d. analog oscilloscope b.
ANS: A
graphing multimeter [GMM]
PTS: 1
25. Technician A says a circuit breaker can be reset after the problem that tripped the circuit
breaker is fixed by disconnecting the power to the circuit breaker for a few seconds.
Technician B says the circuit breaker can be reset by pressing the reset button on the breaker.
Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
26. A technician is testing a circuit that uses a ground-controlled relay to provide power to the
circuit load. With the relay installed in its socket, the control terminal of the relay is grounded
by a jumper wire; nothing happens. Technician A says check the coil input terminal for
voltage. Technician B says connect a jumper wire between battery negative and the output
terminal of the relay to check if the load is the problem. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
27. A potentiometer [type of variable resistor] can be tested with all the following tools EXCEPT:
ohmmeter c. test light a.
digital lab scope [DSO] d. voltmeter b.
ANS: A
test light
PTS: 1
28. The best method for testing wires and electrical connections is _____.
inductive ammeter c. ohmmeter test a.
infrared pyrometer d. voltage drop test b.
ANS: B
voltage drop test
PTS: 1
29. All the following information about the vehicle‘s wiring can be found in the electrical
schematics with the exception of _____.
connector terminal designation c. wire color a.
component location on vehicle d. wire size b.
ANS: D
component location on vehicle
PTS: 1
30. Technician A uses the electrical schematic diagram to trace the flow of current through all the
switches, wires, connectors, circuit protection devices, and grounds related to the problem
before he begins testing. Technician B uses the schematic diagram to locate exactly where on
the vehicle all of the circuit components are located. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
31. Technician A says dielectric grease is used on wire terminals and connectors to prevent
corrosion. Technician B says dielectric grease reduces the resistance between the terminals.
Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
32. Technician A uses heat shrink tubing to insulate and seal soldered wire connections.
Technician B wraps the soldered connection with electrical tape. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
33. The wiring harness for the SIR [air bag] circuit has a _____ harness cover.
day glow green c. red a.
yellow d. orange b.
ANS: D
yellow
PTS: 1
34. A technician is diagnosing the cause of an insufficient heat problem. He notices the fan is
working but not providing much air flow. He disconnects the fan power feed wire and
connects the fan to the battery using a fused jumper wire. The specification for the fan motor
is 16 amps. His ammeter shows 26 amps when the fan is jumped directly to the battery. What
could be the problem?
shorted wiring in the fan motor c. bad fan motor ground a.
all answers are correct d. high resistance in the fan motor wiring b.
ANS: C
shorted wiring in the fan motor
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. An electrical ____________________ is a diagram used to troubleshoot a circuit.
ANS: schematic
PTS: 1
2. A conventional ammeter is always connected in ____________________ with the circuit.
ANS: series
PTS: 1
3. A voltmeter is connected in ____________________ with the circuit.
ANS: parallel
PTS: 1
4. ____________________ solder is used to repair electrical wiring.
ANS: Rosin or resin-type flux core
PTS: 1
5. The most common way to check a variable resistor is with a(n) ____________________.
ANS: ohmmeter
PTS: 1
6. A voltage drop test is performed to find unwanted ____________________.
ANS: resistance
PTS: 1
7. The voltage specification for a wheel speed sensor is 3.5 to 6.0 VAC RMS ± 0.5/20 MPH.
What does RMS stand for? ____________________
ANS:
Root mean square
A RMS capable AC voltmeter must be used to accurately measure output voltage.
PTS: 1
8. A beeping noise coming from the DMM when the function selector is set to ohms indicates
that the circuit has ____________________.
ANS: continuity
PTS: 1
9. Duty cycle is measured in ____________________.

ANS:
percentage
%
PTS: 1
10. The number of cycles per second is called ____________________.
ANS: frequency
PTS: 1
11. You are wiring a vehicle for a trailer hitch. The trailer will have eight parking lamps. Each
parking lamp uses a 6 watt lightbulb. What size fuse should be used to supply power for the
parking lamp circuit? [Assume that the normal operating voltage is 14 volts.]
ANS:
3.43 amp
5 amp
PTS: 1
12. Taking electrical measurements from the external wire terminal ends on the outside of a
plugged-in electrical connector is called ____________________.
ANS: back probing
PTS: 1
13. The most common cause of high resistance in electrical wiring is ____________________.
ANS: corrosion
PTS: 1
14. What units of measurement are used to measure frequency?____________________
ANS:
hertz
cycles per second
PTS: 1
15. When using an amps probe adapter on a DMM, the function selector should be set to
____________________.
ANS: DC millivolts
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. How does an inductive amps probe measure current without touching any wires in the circuit?
ANS:
The probe measures the magnetic field formed in the wire by current flow.
PTS: 1
2. Other than measure voltage, current and resistance most DMMs [DVOMs] can also measure
and test what other factors?
ANS:
frequency
duty cycle/dwell
pulse width
diode test
engine RPM
temperature
PTS: 1
3. What does the scope trigger do?
ANS:
The scope trigger tells the scope when to begin the trace across the screen.
PTS: 1
4. What are the steps in diagnosing an electrical problem?
ANS:
Verify the customer‘s complaint. Operate the system and others to get a complete
understanding of the problem. Locate the correct wiring diagram for the vehicle and identify
the testing points in the circuit and possible problem areas. Test and use logic to identify the
cause of the problem.
PTS: 1
5. What are three ways to check a fuse?
ANS:
Visual inspection, resistance check with an ohmmeter, voltage drop test with a voltmeter and
test light
PTS: 1
6. What is a short circuit?
ANS:
A short circuit has an unwanted path for current to follow.
PTS: 1
7. Explain how you would bench test a relay [the relay is removed from the vehicle].
ANS:
Test for continuity between the coil terminals with an ohmmeter—if OL, replace relay.
Then connect coil terminals to battery +(pos) and –(neg). Test for continuity between power
input and output terminals—if OL, replace relay.
PTS: 1
8. How can you test a circuit that blows its fuse as soon as it is in inserted into the fuse holder?
ANS:
Use a jumper wire with an automatic resetting circuit breaker to power the fuse holder
terminal. A test light or headlight bulb can also be used to limit current flowing through the
circuit. The circuit breaker will provide a pulsating voltage that will not overheat the wires
but will allow a test light or voltmeter to test for continuity in the wiring. Disconnect the
circuit before the load. If the circuit breaker stops pulsating or if the test light goes out, the
short is at the load. If nothing happens, disconnect any connectors between the fuse and load
to isolate the short.
Alternatively; use a DMM. Remove the fuse and place the DMM leads across the fuse
terminals. If the DMM reads voltage, the circuit is shorted to ground. Disconnect the circuit at
various points until the meter reads OL.
PTS: 1
9. What are the three classifications of electrical problems?
ANS:
Open circuits, shorts to ground, and high resistance
PTS: 1
10. What are the four major parts [areas] of a digital multimeter?
ANS:
display area [screen]
function selector knob
range selector knob or button
jacks for test leads
Also:
battery
test leads
PTS: 1
Chapter 17—Batteries: Theory, Diagnosis, and Service
TRUE/FALSE
1. A battery is an electrochemical device that converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. Lithium-ion batteries are the safest type of battery to use in a hybrid vehicle because lithium
is not reactive or explosive.
ANS: F PTS: 1
3. At 0 degrees Fahrenheit, a battery can produce only 40 percent of the electric current that it is
capable of producing at 80 degrees Fahrenheit.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. The specific gravity of the electrolyte decreases as the battery is discharged.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. The electrolyte level in a battery with vent caps slowly drops due to gassing.
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. A constant current type battery charger increases or decreases voltage to maintain a constant
current flow while charging.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. Battery hold-downs reduce the amount of vibration and help increase the life of the battery.
ANS: T PTS: 1
8. Gassing is the conversion of the battery water into helium and nitrogen gas.
ANS: F PTS: 1
9. The typical CCA rating for a passenger car or light truck is between 300 and 600 amps.
ANS: T PTS: 1
10. Because of the memory effect, nickel-metal-hydride [Ni-MH] type batteries are never used in
hybrid vehicles.
ANS: F PTS: 1
11. Vehicles equipped for cold climates may have a battery blanket or heater to keep the battery
warm during extremely cold weather.
ANS: T PTS: 1
12. Lead acid type batteries cannot be recycled.
ANS: F PTS: 1
13. On a top post battery the positive terminal is slightly larger than the negative.
ANS: T PTS: 1
14. The electrolyte in a battery cannot freeze, even if the battery is discharged and the
temperature drops below 0 degrees Fahrenheit.
ANS: F PTS: 1
15. The BCI group number is normally located on the outside of the battery and is used to state
the physical size [height, width, and depth] of the battery.
ANS: T PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. How many volts are present in a fully charged 12-volt battery?

12.4 c. 12.0 a.
12.6 d. 12.2 b.
ANS: D
12.6
PTS: 1
2. When load testing a battery, the load applied to the battery should be _____.
two times the CCA rating c. one half the CCA rating a.
two times the CA rating d. the CCA rating b.
ANS: A
one half the CCA rating
PTS: 1
3. Which of the following is NOT a common cause for premature battery failure?
excessive engine restarting c. increased cycling a.
overcharging d. sulfation b.
ANS: C
excessive engine restarting
PTS: 1
4. Which of these statements is NOT a true conclusion from a battery load test?
The battery needs to be replaced if the voltage dropped below 9.6 volts while under a load a.
but rose above 12.4 volts when the load was removed
The battery should be charged and then retested because it dropped below 9.6 volts and b.
didn‘t rise above 12.4 volts when the load was removed
The battery should be charged and then retested because it dropped below 9.6 volts and c.
rose above 12.4 volts when the load was removed
The battery is good because the voltage dropped only to 10.3 volts while under load d.
ANS: C
The battery should be charged and then retested because it dropped below 9.6 volts and rose
above 12.4 volts when the load was removed
PTS: 1
5. What is the first step when removing an old battery?

Disconnect the positive cable a.
Remove the battery hold-down straps and cover b.
Inspect and clean the area c.
Remove the heat shield d.
ANS: C
Inspect and clean the area
PTS: 1
6. Which of the following is NOT part of routine battery inspections and maintenance?
Visually check cables and terminals a.
Make sure the battery hold-downs are holding the battery securely in place b.
Refill the electrolyte level with clean electrolyte c.
Clean any corrosion from the cable ends and terminals d.
ANS: C
refill the electrolyte level with clean electrolyte
PTS: 1
7. Battery overcharging may be caused by _____.

faulty vehicle charging system a.
improper use of a battery charger b.
both ―faulty vehicle charging system‖ and ―improper use of a battery charger‖ c.
neither both ―faulty vehicle charging system‖ nor ―improper use of a battery charger‖ d.
ANS: C
both ―faulty vehicle charging system‖ and ―improper use of a battery charger‖
PTS: 1
8. Sulfation of battery plates can cause _____.

lower specific gravity a.
reduced reserve power in cold weather b.
both ―lower specific gravity‖ and ―reduced reserve power in cold weather‖ c.
neither both ―lower specific gravity‖ nor ―reduced reserve power in cold weather‖ d.
ANS: C
both ―lower specific gravity‖ and ―reduced reserve power in cold weather‖
PTS: 1
9. While conducting a battery drain test, if the ammeter reads _____ or more amperes, there is
excessive drain.
0.250 c. 0.100 a.
2.500 d. 0.050 b.
ANS: C
0.250
PTS: 1
10. A cold-cranking amperes (CCA) rating specifies the minimum amperes available at _____
degrees Fahrenheit.
0 c. 50 a.
50 d. 32 b.
ANS: C
0
PTS: 1
11. Technician A says absorbed glass mat [AGM] batteries have spiral wound plates and never
require water. Technician B says recombinant batteries use a gel-type electrolyte and convert
oxygen and hydrogen back into water. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
12. Technician A uses a voltmeter to test the open circuit voltage of a battery. Technician B uses
the results of an open circuit voltage test to determine the battery‘s state of charge. Who is
correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
13. Technician A says baking soda can be used to neutralize battery corrosion. Technician B says
baking soda should be used to clean batteries. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
14. Technician A says the reserve capacity rating of a battery is the amount of steady current that
a fully charged battery can supply for 20 hours without the voltage dropping below 10.5 volts.
Technician B says an ampere-hour rating states how many hours the battery is capable of
supplying 25 amperes. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
15. Technician A says a battery strap or carrier should be used whenever a battery is lifted.
Technician B says when a battery is removed, the positive cable should be disconnected first.
Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
16. Technician A says when a battery is charging, it changes chemical energy into electrical
energy. Technician B says when a battery is being discharged, it changes electrical energy
into chemical energy. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
17. Technician A says a positive battery plate consists of a grid filled with lead peroxide (Pb0 2).
Technician B says lead peroxide is a porous, brown, crystalline material. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
18. Technician A says electrolyte is very corrosive. Technician B says electrolyte is a water and
hydrochloric acid solution. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
19. Technician A says the specific gravity of pure water is 10.00 at 80 degrees Fahrenheit (27
degrees Celsius). Technician B says the specific gravity of electrolyte in a fully charged
battery is between 1.260 and 1.280 at 80 degrees Fahrenheit (27 degrees Celsius). Who is
correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
20. Technician A says lead in the lead peroxide of the positive plates combines with sulfate to
form lead sulfate (PbSO4) as a battery discharges. Technician B says lead sulfate forms on the
negative plates as a battery discharges. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
21. Technician A says when battery cells are connected together in series, the amperage increases.
Technician B says when battery cells are connected together in parallel, the voltage increases.
Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
22. Battery ratings are being discussed. Technician A says the reserve capacity rating is a measure
of the battery‘s ability to operate the lights and electrical system in the event of a generator
failure. Technician B says the cold-cranking amps rating is a measure of the battery‘s ability
to provide current for the starter. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
23. The electrolyte in a fully charged lead acid type battery is a solution of _____.
36 percent sulfuric acid and 64 percent water a.
40 percent hydrochloric acid and 60 percent water b.
30 percent potassium hydroxide and 70 percent water c.
50 percent hydrogen peroxide and 50 percent water d.
ANS: A
36 percent sulfuric acid and 64 percent water
PTS: 1
24. In a VRLA [valve regulated lead acid] recombinant type battery, _____.
the gases produced in the recharging process are vented to the atmosphere a.
the electrolyte is 100 percent water b.
oxygen and hydrogen released during charging are converted back into water c.
ANS: C
oxygen and hydrogen released during charging are converted back into water
PTS: 1
25. Corrosion on or near the battery must be minimized because _____.

corrosion on the battery terminals increases resistance in the battery circuit a.
corrosion on the battery cover can create a path that will allow the battery to slowly b.
discharge
corrosion can destroy the hold-down straps and battery tray c.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
26. Technician A says overcharging can overheat and damage the battery. Technician B says
overcharging causes gassing that can cause the battery to lose water. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
27. Sulfation can cause _____.

battery freezing in subzero weather a.
poor cranking in cold weather b.
both ―battery freezing in subzero weather‖ and ―poor cranking in cold weather‖ c.
neither ―battery freezing in subzero weather‖ nor ―poor cranking in cold weather‖ d.
ANS: C
both ―battery freezing in subzero weather‖ and ―poor cranking in cold weather‖
PTS: 1
28. Technician A uses a solution of baking soda and water to clean a battery. Technician B uses
soap and water. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
29. Which method of testing for battery state of charge (SOC) can be used on maintenance-free
batteries?
built-in hydrometer a.
open circuit voltage test b.
battery hydrometer c.
both ―built-in hydrometer‖ and ―open circuit voltage test‖ d.
ANS: D
both ―built-in hydrometer‖ and ―open circuit voltage test‖
PTS: 1
30. A conductance tester measures the battery condition by _____.

sending a small AC signal through the battery and measuring the current response a.
applying a load of 125 amps on the battery and measuring how fast the battery voltage b.
returns to 12.4 volts when the load is turned off
measuring how fast the voltage drops when a 100 amp load is applied c.
measuring the voltage drop between cells as a load is applied d.
ANS: A
sending a small AC signal through the battery and measuring the current response
PTS: 1
31. The best way to test battery cables and terminal for excessive resistance is by _____ testing.
ammeter [conventional] c. ohmmeter a.
inductive ammeter d. voltage drop b.
ANS: B
voltage drop
PTS: 1
32. When charging a battery that has been completely discharged, the most important item to
monitor is _____.
charging current c. gassing a.
battery temperature d. charging voltage b.
ANS: D
battery temperature
PTS: 1
33. All the following are good safety precautions to follow when charging batteries EXCEPT:
Always wear safety glasses a.
Make sure the area is well ventilated b.
Never charge a frozen battery or one with damaged plates c.
Never allow the charging voltage to exceed 12.6 volts d.
ANS: D
Never allow the charging voltage to exceed 12.6 volts
PTS: 1
34. The two types of battery cell designs used in high-voltage hybrid battery systems are
cylindrical and _____.
hyperbolic c. prismatic a.
parabolic d. radial b.
ANS: A
prismatic
PTS: 1
35. When depowering the high-voltage battery system of a hybrid vehicle, _____.
lineman‘s gloves should be worn a.
never wear anything metallic [jewelry] b.
wait at least five minutes after disconnecting the HV batteries before working on the c.
vehicle electrical system
ANS: D
PTS: 1
36. Which of the following components is not part of a battery cell?

electrolyte c. positive electrode a.
solenoid d. negative electrode b.
ANS: D
solenoid
PTS: 1
37. Technician A fast charges a sulfated battery then reinstalls it in the vehicle. Technician B
trickle charges a sulfated battery over 24 hours before reinstalling it. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
38. Battery charging should be done in a well-ventilated area because the gases produced during
recharging are _____.
highly toxic [poisonous] a.
explosive b.
both ―highly toxic [poisonous]‖ and ―explosive‖ c.
neither ―highly toxic [poisonous]‖ nor ―explosive‖ d.
ANS: B
explosive
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. ____________________ describes the battery‘s ability to conduct current.
ANS: Conductance
PTS: 1
2. Battery corrosion is commonly caused by spilled water and electrolyte condensation from
____________________.
ANS: gassing
PTS: 1
3. A ____________________ battery can withstand six deep-cycles and still retain 100 percent
of its original reserve capacity.
ANS: hybrid
PTS: 1
4. The amount of time a battery can be discharged at a certain rate before the voltage drops to a
specified level is referred to as the ____________________ capacity of the battery.
ANS: reserve
PTS: 1
5. Specific gravity is measured with a ____________________.
ANS:
hydrometer
refractometer
PTS: 1
6. A(n) ____________________ is used to test for parasitic draw.
ANS: ammeter
PTS: 1
7. Before servicing the battery or battery cables, a ____________________ saver should be

connected to the vehicle‘s electrical system to prevent erasure of data in the vehicle‘s
computer and setup information in the entertainment and accessory systems.
ANS: memory
PTS: 1
8. ____________________ chargers provide low charging currents and require a day or more to
bring the battery up to full state of charge.
ANS:
Trickle
Slow
PTS: 1
9. Consult the manufacturer‘s ____________________ for procedures and precautions when

jump-starting late model vehicles with electronic control systems.
ANS: service manual
PTS: 1
10. ____________________ is never added to maintenance-free batteries.
ANS: Water
PTS: 1
11. ____________________ are chemical solutions that react with the metals used to construct
the battery plates. This chemical reaction produces an electric voltage between the plates.
ANS: Electrolytes
PTS: 1
12. Battery cables are typically ____________________ or ____________________ gauge wire.
ANS:
4, 6
6, 4
PTS: 1
13. ____________________ water should be used to top off the cells of a battery with removable
cell covers.
ANS: Distilled
PTS: 1
14. Battery sulfation is normally caused by ____________________.
ANS: undercharging
PTS: 1
15. The only way to check a maintenance-free battery that does not have a built-in hydrometer is
by ____________________ testing.
ANS: open circuit voltage
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. What are parasitic loads?
ANS:
Parasitic loads that current drains that exist when the ignition switch is off
PTS: 1
2. Identify battery inspection steps.
ANS:
Visually check the battery cover and case, electrolyte level, terminals and cables, covers and
caps, hold-downs and heat shields.
PTS: 1
3. List five personal safety precautions to follow when working with, or near, a battery.
ANS:
Avoid open flames, sparks, and smoking; remove jewelry; avoid breathing the fumes; work in
a well-ventilated area; wear safety glasses; and follow battery charger instructions and service
manual procedures.
PTS: 1
4. Describe the cold-cranking amperes (CCA) rating system.
ANS:
It specifies the minimum amperes available for 30 seconds at 0 degrees Fahrenheit and at –20
degrees Celsius.
PTS: 1
5. Identify five lead acid battery design types.
ANS:
Low-maintenance, maintenance-free, sealed maintenance-free, hybrid, recombination [gel],
absorbed glass mat, valve regulated lead acid
PTS: 1
6. What is meant by the term ―specific gravity‖?
ANS:
It is the weight of a given volume of any liquid divided by the weight of an equal volume of
water.
PTS: 1
7. Identify six things that shorten the life of a battery.
ANS:
Improper electrolyte levels; corrosion; overcharging; undercharging/sulfation; poor mounting;
cycling
PTS: 1
8. What causes gassing in a battery?
ANS:
The conversion of the battery water into hydrogen and oxygen gas
Alternatively:
Overcharging
PTS: 1
9. How is a battery leakage test conducted?
ANS:
Set a voltmeter on a low DC volt range with the negative test lead on the negative battery
terminal and move the positive lead across the battery top and sides.
PTS: 1
10. If the built-in hydrometer of a maintenance-free battery is white, what should be done?
ANS:
Replace the battery.
PTS: 1
11. What are the functions of the metal box that surrounds the high-voltage batteries in a hybrid
vehicle?
ANS:
Secures the batteries; protects the occupants from electrical shock; directs cooling air around
the batteries to keep them cool; may hold in heat in some applications to keep batteries warm
PTS: 1
12. Describe the ampere-hour rating.
ANS:
The ampere-hour (AH) rating is the amount of steady current that a fully charged battery can
supply for 20 hours at 80 degrees Fahrenheit without the cell‘s voltage dropping below a
predetermined level [10.5 volts for a 12-volt battery].
PTS: 1
13. Describe the cold-cranking amps rating.
ANS:
The cold-cranking amps (CCA) rating is the number of amps a battery is able to deliver for 30
seconds at 0 degrees Fahrenheit without its voltage dropping below a predetermined level [7.2
volts for a 12-volt battery].
PTS: 1
14. How do you remove the surface charge on a battery prior to open circuit voltage testing?
ANS:
With the engine off, turn on the headlights for three minutes, or using a VAT, apply a heavy
load for fifteen to thirty seconds.
PTS: 1
15. How is a voltage drop test performed on the battery cables and connections?
ANS:
Connect the voltmeter between each side of the battery connection. If testing the ground side
of the circuit, connect the black test lead to the battery post and the red test lead to a good
engine ground. Disable the ignition system, then operate the starter motor for ten to fifteen
seconds while observing the meter. Voltage drop should not exceed 0.100 volts.
PTS: 1
Chapter 18—Starting and Traction Motor Systems
TRUE/FALSE
1. The starter must never operate for more than sixty seconds at a time and should rest for two
minutes between extended cranking.
ANS: F PTS: 1
2. The starter safety switch on a vehicle with an automatic transmission is typically located on
the transmission housing.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. Most starter motors have two to six brushes.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. The starter motor converts electric current into torque or twisting force through the interaction
of magnetic fields.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. The gear ratio between the starter pinion gear and flywheel teeth provides an increase in
torque and a reduction in speed (rpm).
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. Permanent magnet starting motors use strong magnets surrounded by field coils to produce
extra turning torque.
ANS: F PTS: 1
7. Some starters use planetary gearsets for gear reduction.
ANS: T PTS: 1
8. A battery should be checked and charged as needed before performing any starting systems
tests.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. When a cranking voltage test is performed, the ignition system must be disabled.
ANS: T PTS: 1
10. The starter circuit requires strong voltage, but actual current flow is low.
ANS: F PTS: 1
11. Cranking problems can be created if oversize battery cables are installed.
ANS: F PTS: 1
12. An engine may crank very slowly or may not start in cold weather if the wrong weight motor
oil is used.
ANS: T PTS: 1
13. Poor or incomplete diagnosis accounts for the fact that nearly 80 percent of starters returned
as defective on warranty claims work perfectly when tested.
ANS: T PTS: 1
14. The electric motor in a hybrid vehicle can act as a generator when its power is not needed.
ANS: T PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is NOT part of the starter circuit?

starter motor c. battery a.
ignition switch d. solenoid b.
ANS: D
ignition switch
PTS: 1
2. Which of the following could result in a hard starting condition?

heavy-gauge battery cables c. corroded battery cables a.
all answers are correct d. excessive CCA capacity b.
ANS: A
corroded battery cables
PTS: 1
3. Which of the following is NOT a part of the starter control circuit?

ballast resistor c. ignition switch a.
starting safety switch d. starter relay b.
ANS: C
ballast resistor
PTS: 1
4. Which of the following tests would be performed to check for high resistance in the positive
battery cable?
starter relay bypass test c. cranking voltage test a.
ground circuit resistance test d. insulated circuit resistance test b.
ANS: B
insulated circuit resistance test
PTS: 1
5. When the starter spins but does NOT crank the engine, which of the following may be a
cause?
a faulty neutral safety switch c. a defective starter drive a.
all answers are correct d. excessive resistance in the control circuit b.
ANS: A
a defective starter drive
PTS: 1
6. The usual minimum cranking voltage specification is ______ volts.

11.0 c. 9.6 a.
12.65 d. 10.5 b.
ANS: A
9.6
PTS: 1
7. While the engine is cranked, a voltmeter placed between positive battery post and the positive
post of the starter reads less than .01 volt. The cause of this reading could be ______.
excessive resistance in the ground circuit a.
normal resistance in the positive battery cable b.
excessive resistance in the solenoid control circuit c.
excessive resistance in the positive battery cable d.
ANS: B
normal resistance in the positive battery cable
PTS: 1
8. If a ground circuit test reveals a voltage drop of more than 0.2 volt, the problem may be a
______.
loose starter motor mounting bolt a.
poor battery ground terminal post connector b.
damaged battery ground cable c.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
9. The field coils in the starter motor are connected in ______.

series-shunt [series-parallel] c. series a.
all answers are correct d. shunt [parallel] b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
10. The device that prevents the engine from turning the armature of the starter motor is the
______.
flywheel c. overrunning clutch a.
pole shoe d. pinion gear b.
ANS: A
overrunning clutch
PTS: 1
11. A cranking current test is performed, and the amperage is found to be less than specification.
Technician A says the starter is bad and it should be replaced. Technician B insists on testing
the resistance of the cables, grounds, and connections. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
12. An engine cranks slowly. Technician A says a possible cause of the problem is low resistance
in the starter circuit connections. Technician B says a possible cause is an open in the starter
field coil circuit. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
13. Technician A says the starter solenoid mounts directly on top of the starter motor. Technician
B says the starter solenoid pushes the starter drive pinion into mesh with the flywheel teeth.
Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
14. Checking for excessive resistance in the starting circuit is being discussed. Technician A says
connecting a voltmeter across the ground cable from the battery to the ground connection of
the cable is the preferred method. Technician B says connecting an ohmmeter across the
positive battery cable after it has been removed from the vehicle is the preferred method. Who
is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
15. While discussing armature testing, Technician A says to test for shorts, place the armature in a
growler and hold a thin metal blade parallel to the armature. Technician B says an ohmmeter
can be used to test for shorts. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
16. Pinion gear to flywheel ring gear clearance is being discussed. Technician A says if there is
too much clearance, there will be a high-pitched noise after the engine starts. Technician B
says if there is too little clearance, there will be a high-pitched noise while the starter is
cranking the engine. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
17. Technician A says a starter no-load test is conducted with the starter in a bench vise.
Technician B says the battery must have a minimum voltage of 9.6 volts during the test. Who
is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
18. Technician A checks a starter‘s field coils for opens by connecting an ohmmeter between the
coil‘s power feed wire and the field coil brush lead. Technician B checks a starter‘s field coil
for a short to ground by connecting an ohmmeter from the field coil brush lead and the starter
housing. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
19. Technician A says the purpose of the solenoid is to engage the starter pinion into the
flywheel‘s ring gear. Technician B says the solenoid energizes the starter motor by closing the
electrical circuit from the battery to the motor. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
20. The teeth on a starter drive are worn excessively. Technician A says to replace the starter
drive. Technician B says to check the flywheel. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
21. Technician A says the starter circuit carries high current from the battery to the starter motor.
Technician B says the control circuit is a low current circuit that sends current from the
ignition switch to the starter relay or solenoid. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
22. The starter solenoid‘s function is to _____.

push the drive pinion gear into engagement with the ring gear teeth a.
act as a relay switch to energize the starter motor b.
both ―push the drive pinion gear into engagement with the ring gear teeth‖ and ―act as a c.
relay switch to energize the starter motor‖
neither ―push the drive pinion gear into engagement with the ring gear teeth‖ nor ―act as a d.
relay switch to energize the starter motor‖
ANS: C
both ―push the drive pinion gear into engagement with the ring gear teeth‖ and ―act as a relay
switch to energize the starter motor‖
PTS: 1
23. The function of the overrunning clutch in the starter drive is to _____.
allow the pinion gear teeth to engage the ring gear teeth if they don‘t initially align a.
prevent damage to the ring gear and drive pinion if the driver accidentally engages the b.
starter when the engine is running
prevent damage to the armature if the starter stays engaged after the engine starts c.
ANS: C
prevent damage to the armature if the starter stays engaged after the engine starts
PTS: 1
24. The pull-in winding and hold-in winding are part of the _____.
armature winding c. starter field coil assembly a.
starter safety switch d. starter solenoid b.
ANS: B
starter solenoid
PTS: 1
25. A vehicle is being diagnosed for a ―no crank‖ problem. When the ignition switch is turned to
the start position, a clicking [buzzing] noise is heard at the starter but the engine does not
crank over. Technician A says the problem could be a weak battery. Technician B says the
problem could be an open in the hold-in winding. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
26. A vehicle that has a low cranking RPM is being diagnosed. A cranking voltage test measures
9.1 volts at the starter solenoid terminal. What should be done next?
Check the voltage at the ignition switch c. Replace the starter a.
Perform a charging system output test d. Perform a cranking current test b.
ANS: B
Perform a cranking current test
PTS: 1
27. When performing a cranking current test: if a remote starter switch cannot be used, the _____
system must be disabled.
S.I.R. [air bag] c. ignition a.
torque converter clutch [TCC] d. fuel b.
ANS: A
ignition
PTS: 1
28. The maximum voltage drop for the insulated circuit [battery positive to starter solenoid] is
typically about _____ volt.
0.2 c. 0.02 a.
0.6 d. 0.06 b.
ANS: D
0.6
PTS: 1
29. When replacing a starter drive that has chipped pinion gear teeth what else must be checked
before the starter is installed?
starter relay c. ignition switch a.
ring gear teeth d. starter solenoid b.
ANS: D
ring gear teeth
PTS: 1
30. An AC traction motor for a hybrid vehicle _____.

has brushes and a commutator a.
is heavier than a DC motor b.
produces constant torque over a wide range of speeds c.
ANS: C
produces constant torque over a wide range of speeds
PTS: 1
31. Traction motors are being discussed. Technician A says AC traction motors require a
converter [inverter] to change DC current into AC. Technician B says DC traction motors do
not allow regenerative braking.Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
32. Hybrid vehicles are being discussed. Technician A says Toyota uses a hall effect sensor to
monitor rotor position in the traction motor. Technician B says Honda uses a resolver-type
sensor to monitor rotor position. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
33. Technician A says the inverter changes DC current from the high-voltage batteries into three-
phase AC current to power the electric motor(s) in a hybrid. Technician B says the inverter
changes AC voltage generated in the motor(s) into DC voltage that is used to recharge the
high-voltage batteries. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
34. What device pushes the starter pinion gear into mesh with the ring gear when the ignition
switch is in the start position?
armature c. overrunning clutch a.
solenoid d. field coil b.
ANS: A
overrunning clutch
PTS: 1
35. Positive engagement or movable pole shoe type starters are normally found on older vehicles
built by _____.
Chrysler c. GM a.
Toyota d. Ford b.
ANS: B
Ford
PTS: 1
36. The two main components of the armature are the armature windings and the _____.
pole shoe c. field coil a.
commutator d. brush holder b.
ANS: D
commutator
PTS: 1
37. Technician A says permanent magnet starter motors are more robust than electromagnetic
field type motors and can better withstand being dropped. Technician B says permanent
magnet motors can produce more torque using less electric current. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
38. Which of the following would NOT cause excessive current draw by the starter motor?
a short in the starter motor a.
excessive resistance in the battery cables b.
high mechanical resistance due to engine problems c.
misalignment of the starter drive d.
ANS: B
excessive resistance in the battery cables
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. The part of the armature that the brushes ride on is called the ____________________.
ANS: commutator
PTS: 1
2. A(n) ____________________ is an electromagnetic device that uses the movement of a

plunger to exert a pulling or holding force.
ANS: solenoid
PTS: 1
3. The starter drive ____________________ gear teeth mesh with the flywheel ring gear teeth.
ANS: pinion
PTS: 1
4. All positive engagement starters use a(n) ____________________ in series between the
battery and the starter motor.
ANS: relay
PTS: 1
5. The field coils connect in series with the armature windings through the starter
____________________.
ANS:
brushes
commutator
PTS: 1
6. The ____________________ is the rotating component of the starter.
ANS: armature
PTS: 1
7. The armature has two main components: the armature ____________________ and the
commutator.
ANS: windings
PTS: 1
8. If flywheel ring gear teeth are worn, the ring gear should be ____________________.
ANS: replaced
PTS: 1
9. The starter motor ____________________ clutch should rotate smoothly in one direction and
lock in the other.
ANS: overrunning
PTS: 1
10. Some starters use ____________________ between the starter and the mounting pad to allow
for proper clearance between the drive pinion gear and the flywheel ring gear.
ANS: shims
PTS: 1
11. The starting system has two separate electrical circuits: the starter circuit and the
____________________ circuit.
ANS: control
PTS: 1
12. On a vehicle equipped with a starter relay, there are two positive battery cables. One connects
the battery positive battery terminal to the relay. The second cable connects the battery to the
____________________ terminal.
ANS: starter motor
PTS: 1
13. Nearly all starter system current testers [VAT] use an ____________________type ammeter
to measure current draw.
ANS: inductive pickup
PTS: 1
14. In a hybrid vehicle the electric motor that is used to power the vehicle is called a(n)
____________________ motor.
ANS: traction
PTS: 1
15. Asynchronous and synchronous are types of ____________________.
ANS:
traction motors
electric motors
PTS: 1
16. A starter motor can have as many as ____________________ brushes.
ANS: six
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. Why does proper starter operation depend on good battery cables and connectors?
ANS:
Low electrical resistance is required to allow high current flow to operate the starter.
PTS: 1
2. How does the design of a permanent magnet starting motor differ from one designed with
electromagnets?
ANS:
It uses strong permanent magnets instead of field coils.
PTS: 1
3. What is the purpose of field coils and pole shoes?
ANS:
They are designed to produce strong stationary electromagnetic fields within the starter body
as current is passed through the starter.
PTS: 1
4. With a starter removed from the vehicle, how is the overrunning clutch inspected?
ANS:
It should slide freely on the armature shaft, and rotate smoothly in one direction and lock in
the other.
PTS: 1
5. Identify various tests used to troubleshoot the starting system.
ANS:
Battery load, cranking voltage, cranking current, insulated and ground circuit resistance,
control circuit, and drive component tests
PTS: 1
6. Identify basic guidelines for starter motor reassembling.
ANS:
Lubricate armature shaft splines, bearings, and bushings with high temperature grease; seal
the solenoid to the starter motor housing; check the pinion to flywheel teeth clearance;
perform a no-load test.
PTS: 1
7. Why must parts cleaning solvent be avoided when cleaning the starter motor?
ANS:
The residue left on the parts can ignite and cause a fire and/or destroy the starter.
PTS: 1
8. Describe how to perform a cranking voltage test.
ANS:
With the ignition disabled, crank the engine and observe the voltmeter reading.
PTS: 1
9. Describe some important safety precautions that should be followed while testing the starter.
ANS:
Wear safety glasses and follow service manual procedures; watch for moving parts while
cranking; make certain that the transmission is out of gear and the parking brake set; first
disconnect the battery ground cable while servicing the starting or battery circuit.
PTS: 1
10. Identify the six basic components of a typical starting system.
ANS:
Battery, ignition switch, battery cables, magnetic switch (electrical relay or solenoid), starter
motor, and the starter safety switch
PTS: 1
11. The first step in removing a starter from a vehicle is __________________________.
ANS:
disconnect the battery negative cable
PTS: 1
12. What is counter EMF ?
ANS:
When the armature in an electric motor is spinning, a voltage is induced into the armature
coils that resists the flow of incoming electric current. When the motor is spinning slowly,
there is very little CEMF allowing large amounts of current to flow through the motor. As the
motor speed increases, the CEMF also increases. This reduces the amount of current that can
flow through the motor.
PTS: 1
Chapter 19—Charging Systems
TRUE/FALSE
1. Most AC generator stators use three windings to generate the required amperage output.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. AC generators produce overlapping sine waves three-phase voltage.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. All AC generators use an internal fan to move air across the components for cooling.
ANS: F PTS: 1
4. Some AC generators have dual fans to move air across the components for cooling.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. Rectification refers to changing alternating current to direct current.
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. A zener diode is a special type of diode that blocks the current when the polarity is reversed,
but only as long as the voltage is low. When the voltage rises above a critical level, the
current can flow through it in a reverse direction.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. The voltage regulator controls voltage by varying the field current through the rotor.
ANS: T PTS: 1
8. Most late model vehicles do not have a separate voltage regulator. Instead, voltage regulation
is a function of the PCM.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. A PCM-controlled AC generator controls charging system voltage by shunting its excess

output.
ANS: F PTS: 1
10. On a B circuit AC generator, the regulator is on the negative side of the circuit.
ANS: F PTS: 1
11. An alternator is also called an AC generator.
ANS: T PTS: 1
12. The output of an AC generator can be as high as 250 volts if it is not controlled.
ANS: T PTS: 1
13. Late model vehicles with PCM-controlled AC generators can generate more engine power
due to decreased magnetic drag caused by the AC generator.
ANS: T PTS: 1
14. An AC generator cannot be liquid-cooled.
ANS: F PTS: 1
15. Testing the voltage regulator circuit by full fielding the alternator is a common diagnostic
technique on modern cars.
ANS: F PTS: 1
16. A lab scope can be used to check for open or shorted diodes in the rectifier.
ANS: T PTS: 1
17. A bad diode can cause an abnormal whirring noise in the AC generator.
ANS: T PTS: 1
18. The current output in an AC generator must be limited by a resistor to prevent excess current
from damaging the battery and electrical accessories.
ANS: F PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is NOT a way to increase the amount of voltage induced in an AC
generator?
Increase the number of conductors a.
Move the conductors through the magnetic field slowly b.
Move the conductors at a right angle to the magnetic field c.
Increase the current going through the electromagnet d.
ANS: B
Move the conductors through the magnetic field slowly
PTS: 1
2. Which of the following precautions should be followed whenever working on or testing a
charging system?
Make sure a load is on the system before energizing the AC generator a.
Ground the alternator‘s output terminals b.
Disconnect the positive side of the battery before disconnecting any wire to and from the c.
AC generator or battery
All answers are correct d.
ANS: A
Make sure a load is on the system before energizing the AC generator
PTS: 1
3. A rotating magnetic field inside a set of stationary conducting wires is a simple description of
a(n) ______.
voltage regulator c. DC generator a.
none of these answers is correct d. AC generator b.
ANS: B
AC generator
PTS: 1
4. Which type of stator winding produces high AC generator charging voltage at low speeds?
trio c. wye a.
series d. delta b.
ANS: A
wye
PTS: 1
5. Which part of the AC generator produces the moving magnetic field?

brushes c. stator a.
poles d. rotor b.
ANS: B
rotor
PTS: 1
6. Slip rings and brushes ______.

mount on the rotor shaft a.
conduct current to the rotor field coils b.
are insulated from each other and the rotor shaft c.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
7. The alternating current produced by the AC generator is rectified into DC (direct current)
through the use of ______.
diodes c. transistors a.
capacitors d. electromagnetic relays b.
ANS: C
diodes
PTS: 1
8. Integrated voltage regulators ______.

mount to the back of or inside the AC generator housing a.
may be integrated with the brush holder assembly b.
are not serviceable and must be replaced if defective c.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
9. Voltage regulator circuitry in the computer control module controls AC generator output by
______.
using a variable resistor to vary current flow to the rotor field windings a.
pulsing current flow to the rotor field windings on and off to create a correct average field b.
current supply
both ―using a variable resistor to vary current flow to the rotor field windings‖ and c.
―pulsing current flow to the rotor field windings on and off to create a correct average
field current supply‖
neither ―using a variable resistor to vary current flow to the rotor field windings‖ nor d.
―pulsing current flow to the rotor field windings on and off to create a correct average
field current supply‖
ANS: B
pulsing current flow to the rotor field windings on and off to create a correct average field
current supply
PTS: 1
10. A voltage drop over _____ volt(s) indicates high resistance in either the circuit or ground
wiring of the charging system.
0.5 c. 0.1 a.
1.0 d. 0.2 b.
ANS: C
0.5
PTS: 1
11. Oscilloscope patterns are being discussed; Technician A says an open or shorted diode can be
detected by the waveform on a lab scope without removing the generator from the vehicle.
Technician B says the waveform produced by the AC generator after the output moves
through the diodes is a straight line because it is a constant DC voltage. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
12. Technician A uses a current output test to check AC generator output. Technician B uses a
voltage output test to check output. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
13. Before adjusting drive-belt tension, Technician A checks for proper pulley alignment.
Technician B looks up the specified belt tension in the vehicle‘s service manual. Who is
correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
14. When checking AC generator output using an oscilloscope, the correct pattern resembles
______.
a square wave c. the rounded tops of a picket fence a.
a sawtooth wave d. a square sine-wave pattern b.
ANS: A
the rounded tops of a picket fence
PTS: 1
15. Technician A says a DC generator is similar in construction to an electric motor. Technician B

says DC generators have limited output, especially at low speeds. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
16. Technician A says the charging system recharges the battery by supplying a constant and
relatively low charge to the battery. Technician B says the charging system works on the
principles of magnetism to change mechanical energy into electrical energy. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
17. Technician A says electricity can be generated by moving a magnetic field across an electrical
conductor. Technician B says electricity can be generated by moving an electrical conductor
across a magnetic field. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
18. Hybrid vehicles are being discussed. Technician A says some hybrid vehicles use a
motor/generator that is connected to the crankshaft by a drive belt. Technician B says the
motor/generator on a hybrid vehicle is located at the flywheel. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
19. Technician A says the magnetic field in an AC generator is stationary. Technician B says the
rotor in an AC generator is driven by a belt. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
20. Technician A says an a circuit has the regulator on the positive side of the field coil.
Technician B says on an isolated field circuit, the regulator may be on the negative or the
positive side. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
21. Technician A says increasing the strength of the magnetic field in an AC generator increases
the voltage output. Technician B says the voltage regulator controls the strength of the rotor‘s
magnetic field. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
22. A diode trio provides rectified current to the ______.

battery c. field coil a.
ignition switch d. stator coil b.
ANS: A
field coil
PTS: 1
23. If the field of a 100 amp, pulse width modulated AC generator [PCM controlled] is fed a 30%
duty cycle, how much current will be produced at the generator output terminal?
70 amps c. 0 amps a.
100 amps d. 30 amps b.
ANS: B
30 amps
PTS: 1
24. Voltage regulators are being discussed. Technician A says charging voltage is decreased when
the battery temperature is low because the battery cannot accept high charging rates at low
temperatures. Technician B says the voltage regulator increases the current flowing through
the field coil when the battery voltage is low. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
25. The motor/generator in a hybrid vehicle ______.

generates electricity when the engine is running a.
acts as a starter motor b.
slows the vehicle when the brakes are applied c.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
26. On a PCM-controlled AC generator, system voltage is controlled by varying the _____ of the
current applied to the field coil.
bandwidth c. frequency a.
amplitude d. duty cycle b.
ANS: B
duty cycle
PTS: 1
27. A technician connects the red lead of a voltmeter to the B+ [output] terminal of an AC
generator and the black lead to the battery positive terminal. He starts the engine and turns on
all the lights and electrical accessories. What is the technician measuring?
resistance in the positive side charging system cables a.
diode leakage b.
charging voltage c.
charging current d.
ANS: A
resistance in the positive side charging system cables
PTS: 1
28. Technician A says the charging system is needed to keep the battery fully charged and
recharge the battery after starting. Technician B say the charging system supplies all the
vehicle‘s electrical current needs after the engine starts. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
29. Air cooling or liquid cooling is required in an AC generator to maintain the temperature of the
_____.
voltage regulator c. stator a.
diodes [rectifier] d. rotor b.
ANS: D
diodes [rectifier]
PTS: 1
30. What type of test equipment is needed to perform a charging system current output test?
a lab scope c. an ammeter a.
a VAT with a carbon pile d. a voltmeter b.
ANS: A
an ammeter
PTS: 1
31. The bearings that support the rotor shaft are located on the ______.
rectifier c. stator housing a.
tensioner bracket d. end frames b.
ANS: B
end frames
PTS: 1
32. PCM-controlled AC generators are being discussed. Technician A says the battery current
sensor is located inside the AC generator. Technician B says the battery current sensor is a
three-wire hall effect type sensor that connects to the PCM. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. The alternating current produced by the AC generator is rectified into DC (direct current)
through the use of ____________________.
ANS: diodes
PTS: 1
2. A voltage regulator controls the voltage output of an AC generator by controlling the current
through the ____________________.
ANS:
rotor
field
PTS: 1
3. The ____________________ is the stationary member of the AC generator.
ANS: stator
PTS: 1
4. Most newer vehicles do not have a separate voltage regulator and control the output of the
charging system through the ____________________.
ANS:
PCM
powertrain control module
PTS: 1
5. Most electronic voltage regulators use a ____________________ diode that blocks current
flow until a specific voltage is obtained.
ANS: zener
PTS: 1
6. A whirring noise from a malfunctioning AC generator may be caused by a bad

____________________.
ANS: diode
PTS: 1
7. Recommended engine rpm during a voltage output test is usually around

____________________ rpm.
ANS: 1,500 to 2,000
PTS: 1
8. With no electrical load, charging voltage during a voltage output test should be approximately
____________________ volts higher than during an open circuit voltage test.
ANS:
two
2
PTS: 1
9. Bypassing the regulator is known as ____________________ the generator.
ANS: full fielding
PTS: 1
10. Circuit resistance is checked by connecting a(n) ____________________ to the positive

battery terminal and the output, or battery terminal of the AC generator.
ANS: voltmeter
PTS: 1
11. ―A one-way check valve for electric current‖ is a good description of a

____________________.
ANS: diode
PTS: 1
12. A ____________________.circuit in the voltage regulator prevents simple electrical

problems such as corroded output terminals from causing high-voltage outputs that could
damage delicate electronic components.
ANS: fail safe
PTS: 1
13. ____________________ braking is the process of using the motor/generator to convert

kinetic energy into electrical energy to recharge the batteries while slowing the vehicle.
ANS: Regenerative
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. What is the purpose of a diode trio?
ANS:
It is used to rectify current from the stator so that it can be used to create the magnetic field in
the field coil of the rotor; it eliminates the need for extra wiring.
PTS: 1
2. How does voltage regulation circuitry located within a PCM control the AC generator output?
ANS:
The PCM controls the current flow to the field windings within the rotor by pulsing the field
current on and off at a specific frequency and varying on-off times (pulse width modulation).
PTS: 1
3. What factors determine whether a faulty AC generator should be replaced or rebuilt?
ANS:
The time and cost required to rebuild it; the shop‘s policy; and the customer‘s desires
PTS: 1
4. Describe how to test a rotor for a short to ground.
ANS:
Connect an ohmmeter to a slip ring and to the shaft; a low resistance reading indicates a short
to ground.
PTS: 1
5. Identify four internal problems of faulty AC generators.
ANS:
Diodes, stator windings, and field circuits that may be open, shorted, or improperly grounded;
worn brushes or slip rings; bent rotor shaft
PTS: 1
6. How can an oscilloscope be used to check AC generator output?
ANS:
An oscilloscope shows voltage patterns that can be compared to the normal AC generator
output.
PTS: 1
7. What is the purpose of the fail-safe circuit contained with many voltage regulators?
ANS:
To prevent simple electrical problems from causing high-voltage outputs that can damage
delicate electronic components
PTS: 1
8. What is pulse width modulation?
ANS:
A method of controlling output by varying the on time of the field coil
PTS: 1
9. How does a voltage regulator control AC generator voltage output?
ANS:
By varying the amount of field current flowing through the rotor; higher field current
produces higher voltage output.
PTS: 1
10. Describe the steps in a charging system voltage test.
ANS:
Remove the surface charge on the battery.
Measure and record battery open circuit voltage before starting the engine.
Start the engine and measure open circuit battery voltage.
Voltage should increase about 2 volts.
With all electrical accessories and lights turned on, battery voltage should be at least .5 volt
above original voltage.
PTS: 1
11. What are the four types of charging system failure warning systems?
ANS:
Charging indicator light, ammeter, voltmeter, warning message display
PTS: 1
Chapter 20—Lighting Systems
TRUE/FALSE
1. Vehicle lighting systems are regulated by federal laws.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. A lamp generates light as current flows through the filament.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. Double filament bulbs can be used as the lone bulb in the stoplight circuit, taillight circuit,
and the turn signal circuit.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. Most composite headlights are vented to release the pressure of heated air.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. Flash-to-pass systems blink the high beams on and off when the turn signal lever is moved to
change lanes to pass another vehicle.
ANS: F PTS: 1
6. The lower filament of a dual filament headlamp is for the high beam.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. A halogen bulb, located within a composite headlamp assembly, will burn out quickly if the
assembly is cracked.
ANS: F PTS: 1
8. When replacing a composite lamp, do not handle the bulb by its base.
ANS: F PTS: 1
9. The dimmer switch allows the driver to change the intensity of the instrument panel lamps.
ANS: F PTS: 1
10. The photocell sensor/amplifier for an automatic light system is usually mounted under a
group of perforated holes in the upper instrument panel pad.
ANS: T PTS: 1
11. Most modern vehicles have a warning system that alerts the driver when the driver‘s door is
opened when the headlights or parking lights are turned on.
ANS: T PTS: 1
12. Some light circuits are ground controlled, where the lightbulb has power all the time and the
light switch completes the circuit to ground.
ANS: T PTS: 1
13. Halogen bulbs are only used in composite headlights.
ANS: F PTS: 1
14. Neon lights are used on some vehicles for center mounted brake lights.
ANS: T PTS: 1
15. Concealed [pop-up] headlights were often operated by vacuum on older vehicles.
ANS: T PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following are NOT usually controlled by the main light switch assembly?
taillights c. headlights a.
backup lights d. parking lights b.
ANS: D
backup lights
PTS: 1
2. The rear light assembly typically includes the ______.
brake lamps c. rear turn signals a.
all answers are correct d. taillights b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
3. Circuits that can energize the high beams even if the headlight switch is off are known as
____ circuits.
dimmer c. flash-to-pass a.
retractable d. mercury b.
ANS: A
flash-to-pass
PTS: 1
4. An underhood lamp is typically controlled by a _____ switch.

courtesy light c. headlight a.
mercury d. momentary contact b.
ANS: D
mercury
PTS: 1
5. The stoplight switch is normally mounted on the ______.

brake pedal arm c. instrument panel a.
none of these answers is correct d. transmission b.
ANS: C
brake pedal arm
PTS: 1
6. Which of the following is NOT a basic type of headlight used in today‘s vehicles?
composite c. sealed beam a.
high-intensity discharge d. acetylene b.
ANS: B
acetylene
PTS: 1
7. Standard sealed beams are typically filled with ______.

helium c. oxygen a.
nitrogen d. argon b.
ANS: B
argon
PTS: 1
8. Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding HID headlamps?

More than 15,000 volts are needed to jump the gap between the electrodes a.
They come on instantly b.
Once lit, 80 volts are required to keep current flowing c.
They produce about twice as much light as halogen bulbs d.
ANS: B
They come on instantly
PTS: 1
9. The light-sensitive photocell sensor/amplifier of an automatic light system is located ______.

near the base of a wiper arm c. in the center of the grill a.
within a composite headlamp assembly d. within the upper instrument panel pad b.
ANS: B
within the upper instrument panel pad
PTS: 1
10. Technician A uses a powered test light to check a lightbulb. Technician B uses an ohmmeter.
Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
11. Technician A says the condition of the vehicle‘s springs and shocks should be checked before
aligning the headlamps. Technician B says the vehicle should have a full tank of fuel when its
headlamps are being adjusted. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
12. Technician A says on all vehicles, the fuse that protects the backup light system is the same
fuse that protects the turn signal system. Technician B says vehicles equipped with automatic
transmissions use a combination backup/neutral start switch. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
13. Technician A says blinking headlights can be caused by the self-resetting circuit breaker
installed between battery and the headlight switch, that is kicking out due to a short.
Technician B says flickering vehicle lights can be caused by a loose electrical connection.
Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
14. Composite headlights are being discussed. Technician A says they have replaceable bulbs.
Technician B says a cracked or broken lens will prevent the operation of a composite
headlamp. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
15. Technician A says the brake light switch receives voltage from the ignition switch. Technician
B says when there is light pressure on the brake pedal, the brake lights will be dim. Who is
correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
16. Technician A says some condensation on the inside of a sealed beam headlamp is normal.
Technician B says the buildup of black spots on the lens of a sealed beam headlamp decreases
the brightness of the headlamp. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
17. Technician A says on some vehicles, if the turn signals blink faster than normal, the problem
may be a burned out bulb. Technician B says on some vehicles, if the turn signals don‘t blink
at all, the problem may be a burned out bulb. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
18. Technician A says a lamp may contain only one filament. Technician B says some lamps
contain two filaments. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
19. Technician A says halogen light systems do not have removable bulbs. Technician B says
some composite headlamp housings are vented. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
20. Technician A says vanity lights are on whenever the headlamps are on. Technician B says
most trunk lights are on whenever the headlamps are on. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
21. Technician A says HID [xenon] headlights on vehicles sold in Europe must be self-leveling
and equipped with washers. Technician B says HID headlights produce more heat and use
more electricity than halogen headlights. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
22. Which of the following statements concerning LED headlights is NOT true?
LED headlights use 40 percent less power than xenon-type headlights a.
LEDs produce whiter light than xenon b.
LEDs contain mercury, which is toxic and environmentally unfriendly c.
LEDs do not require a vacuum bulb or high voltage to work d.
ANS: C
LEDs contain mercury, which is toxic and environmentally unfriendly
PTS: 1
23. A technician is diagnosing an HID headlight that intermittently turns on and off. Technician A
says the problem is a worn out HID arc tube{bulb]. Technician B says the problem is a blown
headlight fuse. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
24. Diagnosis of automatic leveling headlight problems is done with a(n) ______.
aiming screen and spirit level c. DMM a.
scan tool d. electronic headlight aimer b.
ANS: D
scan tool
PTS: 1
25. The best place on a vehicle to mount fog lights is ______.

below the front bumper a.
on the roof b.
on the hood c.
on a light bar twelve inches above the roof d.
ANS: A
below the front bumper
PTS: 1
26. Headlight circuit protection devices are being discussed. Technician A says the headlight
circuit is protected by a self-resetting circuit breaker. Technician B says the headlight circuit
is protected by a single maxi fuse. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
27. A mechanical shield plate or shutter that is moved up and down as the headlights are switched
between low and high beams is a feature of a ______-type headlight system.
halogen composite c. xenon a.
adaptive d. bi-xenon b.
ANS: B
bi-xenon
PTS: 1
28. What is the life expectancy of an LED headlight?

10 years/150,000 miles c. 2 years/30,000 miles a.
the life of the vehicle d. 5 years/60,000 mils b.
ANS: D
the life of the vehicle
PTS: 1
29. The multifunction switch is normally mounted on the ______.

steering column c. instrument panel a.
all answers are correct d. brake pedal arm b.
ANS: C
steering column
PTS: 1
30. Daytime running lights are being discussed. Technician A says DRLs turn on when the
parking brake is applied. Technician B says the DRL module applies 6 volts to the high beam
filaments when the ignition is on and the headlights are turned off. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
31. Technician A uses the vehicle‘s built-in bubble level to adjust headlight vertical aim.
Technician B uses a screen at ten feet from the vehicle to aim headlights. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
32. A customer complains that the turn signal indicator flashes unusually fast when the turn
signal switch is in a left turn position. Technician A says the left side turn signal flasher is
defective. Technician B says one of the left turn signal bulbs is the wrong wattage. Who is
correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
33. How long does it take an HID-type headlight to reach maximum intensity?
1.5 seconds c. 15 milliseconds a.
15 seconds d. 150 milliseconds b.
ANS: D
15 seconds
PTS: 1
34. The halogen element that is used in most halogen lightbulbs is ______.
iodine c. chlorine a.
bromine d. fluorine b.
ANS: C
iodine
PTS: 1
35. Sealed beam headlights are being discussed. Technician A say the lens of a sealed beam
headlight has convex prisms molded into its inner surface to concentrate the light into a
narrow beam. Technician B says a sealed beam is an airtight assembly containing a filament,
reflector, and lens. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
36. The reflector [aluminum-coated mirror] in a light fixture can be cleaned with ______.
a lint-free cloth only c. alcohol a.
nothing—it cannot be cleaned d. soap and water b.
ANS: D
nothing—it cannot be cleaned
PTS: 1
37. The owner of a vehicle with automatic headlights complains that the headlights are always on
whenever the vehicle is driven; even in broad daylight. What is the first thing you should
check?
check for DTCs with scan tool c. headlight fuse a.
articles placed on top of the dash d. headlight switch connections b.
ANS: D
articles placed on top of the dash
PTS: 1
38. Once high voltage bridges the gap in the HID xenon arc tube, only about _____ volts are
needed to keep current flowing across the gap.
200 c. 14 a.
800 d. 80 b.
ANS: B
80
PTS: 1
39. Which statement concerning HID headlights is NOT true?

The light beam made by HID headlights is brighter and more consistent than halogen- a.
type headlights
HID headlights are smaller and lighter than halogen headlights b.
HID headlights run hotter than halogen headlights c.
HID headlights use less electrical power than halogen headlights d.
ANS: C
HID headlights run hotter than halogen headlights
PTS: 1
40. Flash-to-pass systems are being discussed. Technician A says the high beam filament is
turned on when the flash-to-pass switch is closed. Technician B say the flash-to-pass system
only works when the headlights or parking lights are turned on. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. Headlamps either have a replaceable lightbulb or they are ____________________ beams,

which must be replaced as a unit.
ANS: sealed
PTS: 1
2. Some manufacturers recommend coating the prongs and base of the headlights with
____________________ grease to prevent corrosion.
ANS: dielectric
PTS: 1
3. The ____________________ switch provides a means for the driver to select between high or
low beam headlamp operation.
ANS: dimmer
PTS: 1
4. Fog lamps are usually tinted ____________________.
ANS:
yellow
amber
PTS: 1
5. More than ____________________ volts are used to jump the gap between the electrodes of
an HID headlamp.
ANS: 15,000
PTS: 1
6. The country that requires that all new vehicles be equipped with daytime running lights for
added safety is ____________________.
ANS: Canada
PTS: 1
7. A standard sealed beam headlight is commonly filled with ____________________ gas.
ANS: argon
PTS: 1
8. Most headlight assemblies are provided with ____________________ adjusting screws.
ANS:
two
2
PTS: 1
9. Some headlight assemblies are equipped with a ____________________ level to aid vertical
headlamp alignment.
ANS:
bubble
spirit
PTS: 1
10. While the car‘s headlights are adequate in normal driving circumstances, some customers
desire ____________________ lights for special conditions such as fog or extended night
driving.
ANS: auxiliary
PTS: 1
11. When installing fog lights or driving lights, a ____________________ should be used to
prevent overloading the vehicle‘s lighting circuit and circuit protection devices.
ANS: relay
PTS: 1
12. Automatic leveling HID headlights are controlled by the ____________________.
ANS:
BCM
body control module
PTS: 1
13. The turn signal and hazard flashers are located in the ____________________.
ANS:
fuse panel
fuse box
PTS: 1
14. On automatic headlight systems that have automatic high beam detection, the sensor [camera]
is typically mounted ____________________.
ANS: on the front side of the rear view mirror
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. Why do some manufacturers protect the headlamp circuit with a circuit breaker instead of a
fuse?
ANS:
A circuit breaker is designed to reset itself automatically, to enable the driver to proceed to a
location to have the problem repaired.
PTS: 1
2. What are adaptive brake lights?
ANS:
Adaptive brake lights have two modes of operation—normal and intense.
In moderate braking the standard brake light LEDs are turned on.
In severe braking or when the ABS system is activated, additional groups of LEDs also
illuminate. This helps to alert following drivers that the vehicle will be slowing at a faster rate
than usual.
PTS: 1
3. When should a vehicle be equipped with a heavy-duty turn signal flasher?
ANS:
When the vehicle is equipped for towing
PTS: 1
4. List the four main components of an illuminated entry system.
ANS:
Electronic module, illuminated door lock cylinder, door handle switch, and wiring harness
PTS: 1
5. List three common locations of courtesy lights.
ANS:
Door trim panels, under the instrument panel, and in the center of the headlining
PTS: 1
6. Describe an automatic light system.
ANS:
It provides light-sensitive, automatic on-off control of the headlights.
PTS: 1
7. Describe adaptive headlights.
ANS:
The bases of the headlamps swivel to illuminate curves in the road.
The system aims the headlights in the direction the vehicle is turning.
The system is controlled by the BCM [body control module] and uses VSS, yaw rate, and
steering angle sensors.
PTS: 1
8. Describe how daytime running lights function.
ANS:
Approximately 6 volts are used to operate the vehicle‘s high beam lights.
The ignition must be on, the parking brake released, and the headlight switch turned off.
PTS: 1
9. Identify the four basic types of headlights.
ANS:
Standard sealed beam, halogen sealed beam, composite, LED and high intensity discharge
(HID)
PTS: 1
10. Name the two headlight design that do NOT have a filament.
ANS:
HID and LED

High intensity discharge and light emitting diode
PTS: 1
11. What are some of the advantages of LED-type lights?
ANS:
no vacuum tube
low voltage
they use less power
whiter light than xenon
mercury free—environmentally friendlier
superlong service life
less glare for oncoming traffic
thinner design gives car designers more flexibility
PTS: 1
Chapter 21—Electrical Instrumentation
TRUE/FALSE
1. Analog gauges use digital displays of numbers.
ANS: F PTS: 1
2. Most digital speedometers have a speed limit. If the vehicle exceeds the speed value, the
speedometer continues to display the top of its range.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. LCDs are usually red, white, or green
ANS: F PTS: 1
4. Electronic odometer display readings are stored in the computer‘s RAM.
ANS: F PTS: 1
5. A mechanical odometer is typically driven by the speedometer drive cable and a tiny set of
gears.
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. An oil pressure sending unit may be called a piezoresistive sensor.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. An engine coolant temperature sending unit may be called a piezoresistive sensor.
ANS: F PTS: 1
8. Most tachometers operate from a cable driven by the engine‘s distributor or camshaft.
ANS: F PTS: 1
9. When the fluid level in a washer reservoir is low, the fluid level switch opens and the low
washer level indicator lamp illuminates.
ANS: F PTS: 1
10. The sending unit for the engine coolant temperature gauge is typically an NTC thermistor.
ANS: T PTS: 1
11. The oil change maintenance reminder on a Honda is automatically reset by a switch contact in
the oil filter housing that is tripped whenever the oil filter is removed.
ANS: F PTS: 1
12. On most new vehicles, the action of an ECT [engine coolant temperature] sensor can be
monitored on a scan tool.
ANS: T PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is NOT a type of gauge design?

variable resistance c. thermal a.
magnetic bobbin d. balancing coil b.
ANS: C
variable resistance
PTS: 1
2. The indicator needle on a speedometer is held to the zero position by ______.

the speedometer cable c. magnetic force a.
a hairspring d. the weight of the needle b.
ANS: D
a hairspring
PTS: 1
3. All the following are used as digital electronic displays EXCEPT:

incandescent c. light-emitting diode a.
vacuum fluorescent d. liquid crystal diode b.
ANS: C
incandescent
PTS: 1
4. A universal gauge checker can be used to check the operation of the ______.
gauge unit a.
instrument voltage regulator b.
both ―gauge unit‖ and ―instrument voltage regulator‖ c.
neither ―gauge unit‖ nor ―instrument voltage regulator‖ d.
ANS: C
both ―gauge unit‖ and ―instrument voltage regulator‖
PTS: 1
5. The typical magnetic gauges receive _____ volts from the IVR.
8.0 c. 2.0 a.
12.0 d. 5.0 b.
ANS: B
5.0
PTS: 1
6. A digital speedometer constantly reads zero mph. Technician A says the problem may be the
vehicle speed sensor. Technician B says the problem may be the throttle position sensor. Who
is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
7. All gauges do not work. Technician A says the connection to the instrument cluster may be
open. Technician B says the cluster‘s IVR may be open. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
8. Technician A says the low fuel warning indicator light is turned on when the fuel level drops
below one-eighth of the tank capacity. Technician B says the fuel gauge sending unit is
normally combined with the electric fuel pump. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
9. The oil pressure light stays on whenever the engine is running. The oil pressure has been
checked and it meets specifications. Technician A says a short to ground in the circuit
between the indicator light and the pressure switch could be the cause. Technician B says an
open in the pressure switch could be the cause. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
10. Technician A says a cable-driven speedometer unit depends upon magnetism to move the
needle. Technician B says the vehicle speed sensor used with an electronic speedometer is
typically mounted near one of the vehicle drive wheels. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
11. Technician A says an oil pressure sending unit may be tested with an ohmmeter. Technician B
says an engine coolant temperature sending unit may be tested with an ohmmeter. Who is
correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
12. Technician A says most digital temperature gauges are bar-type displays. The number of
illuminated bars varies according to the current flow from the sending unit. Technician B says
some warning lights are triggered by the PCM and BCM. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
13. Park distance control systems are being discussed. Technician A says that as the distance
between the vehicle and an object becomes closer, the intervals between the warning tones
become longer. Technician B says that some systems have both visual and audible warnings.
Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
14. Technician A says that the brake pad warning indicator light is triggered by a switch on the
back of the brake pedal. Technician B says the brake pad warning indicator is triggered by a
switch on the master cylinder. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
15. All the following are items to be checked in gauge systems EXCEPT:
IVR c. sender units a.
gauges d. detector switches b.
ANS: B
detector switches
PTS: 1
16. The vehicle speed sensor [VSS] for an electronic speedometer on an RWD vehicle is typically
mounted _____.
on the right rear axle hub c. on the right front wheel hub a.
on the transmission output shaft d. on the left front wheel hub b.
ANS: D
on the transmission output shaft
PTS: 1
17. Technician A uses a universal gauge tester to diagnose gauge problems. Technician B uses a
scan tool to test the ECT [engine coolant temperature] sensor. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
18. An NTC thermistor is used in a(n) _____.

fuel gauge sending unit c. oil pressure sending unit a.
all answers are correct d. engine coolant temperature sensor b.
ANS: B
engine coolant temperature sensor
PTS: 1
19. In an NTC-type thermistor, when the temperature is high, the resistance is ______.
high c. zero a.
infinite d. low b.
ANS: B
low
PTS: 1
20. Tire pressure monitor systems are being discussed. Technician A says that when the indicator
light is yellow, the pressure in one of the vehicle‘s tires is below minimum. Technician B says
that when the indicator is red, the tire pressure is excessively low or almost flat. Who is
correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
21. The stop light [brake light] checker uses a _____ to sense when a brake light bulb is burned
out.
voltage stabilizer c. thermistor a.
reed switch and magnetic coils d. photo diode b.
ANS: D
reed switch and magnetic coils
PTS: 1
22. Which of the following is NOT connected to the tone generator [chime module]?
seat belt switch c. headlight switch a.
Park/Neutral safety switch d. ignition key switch b.
ANS: D
Park/Neutral safety switch
PTS: 1
23. The park distance control system warns the driver that the vehicle is close to an obstacle by
_____.
an audible signal that increases in frequency as the vehicle gets closer a.
the ABS system automatically applying the brakes when the vehicle gets too close b.
both ―an audible signal that increases in frequency as the vehicle gets closer‖ and ―the c.
ABS system automatically applying the brakes when the vehicle gets too close‖
neither ―an audible signal that increases in frequency as the vehicle gets closer‖ nor ―the d.
ABS system automatically applying the brakes when the vehicle gets too close‖
ANS: A
an audible signal that increases in frequency as the vehicle gets closer
PTS: 1
24. Which of the following is not a type of digital display?

balancing coil c. LED [light-emitting diode] a.
vacuum fluorescent d. LCD [liquid crystal diode] b.
ANS: C
balancing coil
PTS: 1
25. Fuel range, ETA [estimated time of arrival], fuel economy and distance to destination are
common types of data that are displayed on the _____.
heads-up display c. BCM [body control module] a.
all answers are correct d. driver information center b.
ANS: B
driver information center
PTS: 1
26. Which of the following is NOT a component of an analog gauge system?

light-emitting diode c. thermoelectric gauge a.
instrument voltage regulator d. sending unit b.
ANS: C
light-emitting diode
PTS: 1
27. The internal combustion engine in a hybrid does not normally run when the vehicle is at a
standstill. What alerts the driver that the vehicle is capable of being driven?
the Electric Drive Enabled light c. the Ready light a.
the Drive light d. the Hybrid System On light b.
ANS: A
the Ready light
PTS: 1
28. A(n) _____ coil is installed in the IVR power lead to prevent radio interference caused by
pulsations of the IVR.
ignition c. choke a.
damper d. solenoid b.
ANS: A
choke
PTS: 1
29. Which of the following is NOT displayed on the Toyota hybrid multifunction display panel?
fuel consumption [MPG] c. direction and path of energy flow a.
amount of recovered energy d. voltage of HV battery pack b.
ANS: B
voltage of HV battery pack
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. The ____________________ gauge indicates engine speed [RPM].
ANS: tachometer
PTS: 1
2. The ____________________ is the simplest type of magnetic gauge.
ANS: ammeter
PTS: 1
3. The two types of electrical analog gauges are magnetic and ____________________.
ANS: thermal
PTS: 1
4. In some fuel gauge systems, a ____________________ module is used to reduce gauge

fluctuation caused by fuel sloshing in the tank.
ANS: low fuel warning
PTS: 1
5. A heads-up display projects visual images on the ____________________.
ANS: windshield
PTS: 1
6. Information on the operation of the Toyota hybrid system is displayed on the

____________________ located in the center of the dash.
ANS: multifunction display
PTS: 1
7. The resistance value of an NTC thermistor ____________________ as temperature increases.
ANS:
decreases
goes down
PTS: 1
8. All electrical gauges require an input from either a ____________________ or sensor.
ANS: sending unit
PTS: 1
9. The correct term for a modern dashboard is ____________________.
ANS: instrument panel
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. Identify various causes of intermittent electrical/electronic problems.
ANS:
Poor mating of connector halves; backed out connector terminals; wire chafing; connector
body damage; dirty or corroded terminals; and poor wire-to-terminal connections
PTS: 1
2. What basic devices should be checked while diagnosing gauge/indicator failures?
ANS:
Check fuses, indicator bulbs, detector switches, sender units, gauges, and the IVR.
PTS: 1
3. Describe how a fuel level sending unit operates.
ANS:
Mounted on the fuel pickup tube assembly, it consists of a variable resistor controlled by the
level of an attached float in the fuel tank; low fuel level produces low resistance in the
sending unit and causes the gauge to provide a low reading.
PTS: 1
4. What is meant by ISO symbols?
ANS:
Easily recognized symbols used throughout the world and often placed on most instrument
panel warning devices and controls; developed by the International Organization for
Standardization
PTS: 1
5. How does an HUD display work?
ANS:
The HUD systems project visual images onto the windshield allowing the driver to see MPH,
turn signal indicators, low fuel level warning indicators, and high beam indicators without
having to take his/her eyes off the road ahead. The HUD system uses a vacuum fluorescent
display that is projected through a prismatic mirror onto the windshield.
PTS: 1
6. What is the difference between a warning light and an indicator light?
ANS:
A warning light indicates a potential problem or concern, such as low oil pressure. An
indicator light tells us that a device is either on or off, such as the rear window defroster is
turned on.
PTS: 1
7. What is the function of an IVR [instrument voltage regulator]?
ANS:
IVRs are used to stabilize and limit voltage for accurate instrument operation.
PTS: 1
8. What tools are needed to check the operation of a fuel gauge sending unit?
ANS:
DMM, jumper wire, and service manual
PTS: 1
Chapter 22—Basics of Electronics and Computer Systems
TRUE/FALSE
1. Some common semiconductor materials include silicon and germanium.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. The different names for the legs of a transistor are the emitter, base, and collector.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. The EEPROM located in a computer allows stored information to be electrically changed.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. The instrument panel warning light is called a DTC.
ANS: F PTS: 1
5. A multiplex wiring system uses bus data links that connect different computers or control
modules together.
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. A thermistor is a temperature-variable transistor.
ANS: F PTS: 1
7. Actuators are electromechanical devices that convert mechanical action into electrical signals.
ANS: F PTS: 1
8. The clock in a computer is needed to maintain the orderly flow of information throughout the
computer‘s circuitry by transmitting one bit of binary code for each clock pulse.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. A Wheatstone bridge is used as a variable resistance sensor.
ANS: T PTS: 1
10. Before an analog sensor signal can be processed by a computer, it must first be converted into
a digital format.
ANS: T PTS: 1
11. In an OBD-II system, each component is checked by a diagnostic routine to verify that it is
functioning properly.
ANS: T PTS: 1
12. A CAN [controller area network] bus is a low-speed data bus.
ANS: F PTS: 1
13. Twisting together two wires that carry data from one computer module to another increases
the possibility that radio waves and magnetic fields can interfere with data transmission.
ANS: F PTS: 1
14. When disconnecting and connecting electronic components, the ignition switch should be
turned off.
ANS: T PTS: 1
15. A scan tool is NOT required to retrieve DTCs on late model vehicles.
ANS: F PTS: 1
16. Reflashing a computer requires that the computer be removed from the vehicle and sent back
to the manufacturer for reflashing.
ANS: F PTS: 1
17. Multiplexing requires many more wires and additional sensors in the vehicle network.
ANS: F PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Semiconductors are made of ______.

copper c. gallium a.
none of these answers is correct d. silicon b.
ANS: B
silicon
PTS: 1
2. Which of the following is NOT made of semiconductor material?

magnetic pulse [PM] generator c. zener diode a.
transistor d. LED b.
ANS: C
magnetic pulse [PM] generator
PTS: 1
3. Which of the following is a semiconductor?

integrated circuit c. diode a.
all answers are correct d. transistor b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
4. The two types of semiconductor materials are P-type and ______.

N-type c. B-type a.
Y-type d. K-type b.
ANS: C
N-type
PTS: 1
5. An engine coolant temperature sensor is an example of a(n) ______.

thermistor c. potentiometer a.
Wheatstone bridge d. actuator b.
ANS: C
thermistor
PTS: 1
6. Some multimeters display RMS readings for ______.
high resistance values c. AC circuits a.
low resistance values d. DC circuits b.
ANS: A
AC circuits
PTS: 1
7. Which of the following is associated with voltage frequency?

both ―cycle‖ and ―hertz‖ c. cycle a.
neither ―cycle‖ nor ―hertz‖ d. hertz b.
ANS: C
both ―cycle‖ and ―hertz‖
PTS: 1
8. Which of the following is a type of diode?

clamping c. LED a.
all answers are correct d. zener b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
9. Which of the following is NOT a name for a transistor leg?

emitter c. base a.
transmitter d. collector b.
ANS: D
transmitter
PTS: 1
10. Which of the following is not a type voltage generating sensor?

knock sensor c. coolant temperature sensor [CTS] a.
magnetic pulse [PM] generator d. oxygen sensor b.
ANS: A
coolant temperature sensor [CTS]
PTS: 1
11. Technician A says when positive voltage is applied to the base of an NPN transistor, the
transistor is turned on. Technician B says when an NPN transistor is turned on, current flows
through the collector and emitter of the transistor. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
12. Technician A says diodes are used to rectify the voltage produced from an AC generator.
Technician B says a zener diode protects circuit components from voltage spikes. Who is
correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
13. Technician A says a Hall-effect switch uses a semiconductor, permanent magnet, and trigger
wheel to measure shaft speed. Technician B says an engine coolant temperature sensor is
basically a thermistor. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
14. Technician A says some types of voltage sensors provide input to the computer by modifying
or controlling a constant, predetermined voltage signal. Technician B says some types of
voltage sensors provide a voltage generating signal. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
15. Technician A says the primary purpose of a multiplexing system is to send and receive
multiple analog signals. Technician B says multiplexing uses bus data links. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
16. Actuators (outputs) are being discussed. Technician A says they are variable resistance/
reference-types, switches, and thermistors. Technician B says they convert electrical current
into mechanical action. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
17. Technician A says N-type semiconductors have loose, or excess, electrons. Technician B says
P-type semiconductors are positively charged materials. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
18. Technician A says diodes are semiconductors. Technician B says diodes function as electronic
circuit relays. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
19. Technician A says transistors are semiconductors. Technician B says transistors function as
one-way valves for current flow. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
20. Technician A says static electricity can generate more than 25,000 volts and can damage
electronic components. Technician B says to avoid touching bare metal contacts because oils
from the skin can cause corrosion and poor electrical contact. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
21. Energy storage is being discussed. Technician A says a battery stores energy chemically.
Technician B says a capacitor stores energy in an electrostatic field between two electrodes.
Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
22. The unit of capacitance is ______.

gauss c. coulomb a.
hertz d. farad b.
ANS: B
farad
PTS: 1
23. If a 100 microfarad capacitor is charged off of a 12 volt battery, how many volts will be
present between the terminals of the capacitor?
.12 volt c. 0.0000012 volt a.
12 volts d. 0.00012 volt b.
ANS: D
12 volts
PTS: 1
24. The number of charge/discharge cycles an ultracapacitor can supply to the hybrid traction
motor system is approximately ______.
20 million c. 100,000 a.
infinite d. 1 million b.
ANS: D
infinite
PTS: 1
25. Semiconductors are being discussed. Technician A say a semiconductor is a conductor.

Technician B says a semiconductor is an insulator. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
26. A(n) _____is often used to prevent damage to electronic components from the voltage spikes
produced when electromagnetic coils are turned off.
NPN transistor c. clamping diode a.
PNP transistor d. zener diode b.
ANS: A
clamping diode
PTS: 1
27. The voltage applied to the _____ of a transistor controls the flow of electric current through
the transistor.
collector c. base a.
cathode d. emitter b.
ANS: A
base
PTS: 1
28. Transistor operation is being discussed. Technician A says that when the base of a PNP is
connected to ground, the transistor is turned on. Technician B says that when the base of an
NPN transistor has a positive voltage applied to it, the transistor is turned on. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
29. When a diode is _____ current cannot flow through it.

excited c. forward biased a.
grounded d. reverse biased b.
ANS: B
reverse biased
PTS: 1
30. The four basic functions of a computer are input, output, processing, and _____.
attenuation c. reflashing a.
storage d. monitoring b.
ANS: D
storage
PTS: 1
31. The reference voltage [Vref] sent to most sensors ranges from _____ to _____ volts.
5.0, 9.0 c. 0.5, 0.9 a.
10.0, 12.6 d. 1.5, 1.9 b.
ANS: C
5.0, 9.0
PTS: 1
32. The throttle position sensor is a rotary _____.

potentiometer c. pulse generator a.
magnetometer d. hall-effect sensor b.
ANS: C
potentiometer
PTS: 1
33. Which of the following does NOT use a magnetic pulse generator [PM generator]?
vehicle speed sensor c. wheel speed sensor a.
crankshaft position sensor d. throttle position sensor b.
ANS: B
throttle position sensor
PTS: 1
34. The _____ changes analog signals produced by sensors into digital signals that the computer
can use to process and store data.
CPU [central processing unit] c. rectifier a.
A to D converter d. inverter b.
ANS: D
A to D converter
PTS: 1
35. AND, NOT, OR, and NAND are types of ______.

logic gates c. multiplex networks a.
PROM chips d. pressure sensors b.
ANS: C
logic gates
PTS: 1
36. Which of the following is NOT a type of actuator?

magnetic pulse generator c. solenoid a.
electric motor d. relay b.
ANS: C
magnetic pulse generator
PTS: 1
37. Computer memory is being discussed. Technician A says RAM-type memory is erased only
when the vehicle‘s battery is disconnected from the computer. Technician B says ROM
memory can be erased with a scan tool. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
38. Pulse width is measured in _____.

milliseconds c. hertz a.
millimeters d. percentage b.
ANS: C
milliseconds
PTS: 1
39. The DLC connector on an OBDII vehicle is located ______.

under the hood, on the firewall c. under the hood, near the battery a.
under the hood in the fuse/relay center d. under the dash on the driver‘s side b.
ANS: B
under the dash on the driver‘s side
PTS: 1
40. OBDII technology is being discussed. Technician A says the OBDII system has the ability to
store a freeze frame [snapshot] of the operating conditions that existed when the fault
occurred. Technician B says vehicle identification must be transmitted automatically to the
scan tool. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
41. _____ allows control modules to share sensor and output status information without the need
for additional sensors or wiring.
Reprogramming c. Multiplexing a.
Pulse width modulation d. Transcription b.
ANS: A
Multiplexing
PTS: 1
42. Technician A says serial data passing through the vehicle‘s data bus can be monitored with a
scan tool. Technician B says serial data travels through the vehicle on a twisted pair of
wires—one wire is grounded to the chassis and the other wire is the serial bus transmission
wire. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
43. Starting in model year 2008, what type of communication protocol is required for
diagnostics?
Class-C [CAN] c. Class-A [UART] a.
Class-D [SAE J-1761] d. Class-B [SAE J-1850] b.
ANS: C
Class-C [CAN]
PTS: 1
44. Which of the following requires a high-speed bus?

power windows c. antilock brakes a.
horn d. windshield wipers b.
ANS: A
antilock brakes
PTS: 1
45. Technician A touches a good ground immediately before touching a computer module.
Technician B wears a grounding wrist strap before touching the computer electrical
connections and computer case. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
46. Lab scopes are being discussed. Technician A says a lab scope can be used to measure
resistance. Technician B says that a lab scope can be used to measure frequency by dividing
the length of a cycle into 1. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. An electronic device that stores and processes data is a(n) ____________________.
ANS: computer
PTS: 1
2. An ____________________ signal is an infinitely variable voltage that can change within a

given range.
ANS: analog
PTS: 1
3. Digital signals are typically called ____________________ patterns.
ANS: square-wave
PTS: 1
4. ____________________ means that data concerning the effects of the computer‘s commands
are fed back to the computer as an input signal.
ANS: Feedback
PTS: 1
5. The type of memory that contains specific information about the vehicle and can be removed
and reprogrammed or replaced is called ____________________.
ANS:
PROM
programmable read-only memory
PTS: 1
6. A(n) ____________________ is the simplest type of semiconductor.
ANS: diode
PTS: 1
7. A(n) ____________________ is a material or device that can function as either a conductor

or an insulator.
ANS: semiconductor
PTS: 1
8. A(n) ____________________ is a special diode that emits light when current passes through
it.
ANS:
LED
light-emitting diode
PTS: 1
9. Zener diodes are often used to regulate circuit ____________________.
ANS: voltage
PTS: 1
10. On today‘s vehicles, ____________________ diodes are commonly used to prevent voltage
spikes in circuits as magnetic fields collapse.
ANS: clamping
PTS: 1
11. ____________________ are sometimes called condensers.
ANS: Capacitors
PTS: 1
12. Variable capacitors are called ____________________.
ANS: trimmers
PTS: 1
13. A common use for a clamping diode is in the air-conditioning ____________________ coil.
ANS: compressor clutch
PTS: 1
14. The two main computers in a modern vehicle are the PCM [powertrain control module] and
the _____________________.
ANS: BCM [body control module]

PTS: 1
15. A ____________________ is used to amplify and condition the weak voltage signals from
some sensors, typically Hall-effect type sensors.
ANS: Schmitt trigger
PTS: 1
16. The location in the computer memory where a piece of data is stored is called a(n)
____________________.
ANS: address
PTS: 1
17. A(n) ____________________ module allows for data exchange between two different buses.
ANS: gateway
PTS: 1
18. Terminating ____________________ are connected in parallel across the ends of the main
CAN bus wires to eliminate potential voltage spikes or noise on the data bus.
ANS: resistors
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. What are the three main types of memory in a computer?
ANS:
Read-only memory (ROM), programmable read-only memory (PROM), and random access
memory (RAM)
PTS: 1
2. What is the difference between an analog signal and a digital signal?
ANS:
Analog means a voltage signal is infinitely variable and can change within a given range, and
digital means a voltage signal is either on or off.
PTS: 1
3. Identify some common voltage-generating devices (sensors) in automobiles.
ANS:
Magnetic pulse generators, oxygen sensors, and knock sensors
PTS: 1
4. Identify some common applications of magnetic pulse generators in automobiles.
ANS:
Vehicle speed sensor, crankshaft position sensor, and wheel speed sensor
PTS: 1
5. What is an integrated circuit?
ANS:
A large number of diodes, transistors, and other electronic components, such as resistors and
capacitors, all mounted on a single piece of semiconductor material
PTS: 1
6. Identify desirable characteristics of semiconductors.
ANS:
They are small, require little power to operate, are reliable, and generate very little heat.
PTS: 1
7. Describe the four basic functions of a computer.
ANS:
Input; processing; storage; output
PTS: 1
8. What is the major difference between ROM and RAM memory in a microprocessor?
ANS:
ROM (read-only memory) is permanently stored information in a microprocessor, and RAM
(random access memory) is used during computer operation to store temporary information.
PTS: 1
9. What is meant by the term ―pulse width‖?
ANS:
The on- and off-cycling of an electrical circuit; the cycling time varies depending upon the
needs of the output circuit.
PTS: 1
10. Describe the two ways a microprocessor works with memory.
ANS:
It can read information from memory or change information in memory by writing in or
storing new information.
PTS: 1
11. What is an integrated circuit?

ANS:
A large number of diodes, transistors, and other electronic components mounted on a single
piece of semiconductor material
PTS: 1
12. In an automotive computer system, what does the term ―feedback‖ mean?
ANS:
Feedback means that data concerning the effects of the computer‘s commands are fed back to
the computer as an input. The computer uses this signal to adjust the command signal so that
the desired result [target] is obtained.
PTS: 1
13. Under what circumstances should a computer be reflashed?
ANS:
When a service bulletin states that a reflash has been released by the manufacturer that
addresses the problem
PTS: 1
14. Explain how a diode is tested with a DMM.
ANS:
Set the DMM function switch to diode test. Touch each probe to the diode terminals then
reverse the test leads. The meter should show a low value in one direction and an infinite
value in the other. If the value is low or infinite in both directions, the diode is defective.
PTS: 1
15. What is an output driver?
ANS:
An output driver is a circuit in the computer that provides the ground or power for the
actuator. Basically the output driver is an on and off switch that is controlled by the CPU.
PTS: 1
Chapter 23—Electrical Accessories
TRUE/FALSE
1. Most timers for rear window defroster systems operate for twenty minutes.
ANS: F PTS: 1
2. Intermittent wiper delay interval on late models vehicles is controlled by the BCM.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. Permanent magnet motors typically have four brushes.

ANS: F PTS: 1
4. Most horns are controlled by a relay.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. A modern electronic cruise control system uses a centrifugal governor to regulate the vacuum
to the cruise control servo.
ANS: F PTS: 1
6. Most power seat systems are protected by a circuit breaker.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. Most intermittent wipers are controlled with a potentiometer.
ANS: T PTS: 1
8. The most common rear window defogger system failure is damage to the heating grids on the
window.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. The heating grid on a heated seat is typically tested with an ammeter.
ANS: F PTS: 1
10. The purpose of a dual horn system is to provide two different horn sounds.
ANS: F PTS: 1
11. A blinking cruise control light indicates that the vehicle is traveling at the maximum speed
that the cruise control system allows.
ANS: F PTS: 1
12. Dirt on the antenna mast can cause poor radio reception.
ANS: T PTS: 1
13. A horn can be tested by connecting a jumper wire between the battery positive terminal and
the horn power terminal.
ANS: T PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which device on a vacuum-type cruise control system is used to adjust and control the
position of the throttle?
brake-activated switch c. servo a.
transducer d. solenoid b.
ANS: A
servo
PTS: 1
2. Rear defrosters generally have a relay with a timer to allow the defogger to ______.
operate for only a specific amount of time a.
function just until the rear window is clear b.
be independent of the ignition switch c.
none of these answers is correct d.
ANS: A
operate for only a specific amount of time
PTS: 1
3. Power window systems use ______.

reversible motors c. electric motors a.
all answers are correct d. permanent magnet motors b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
4. The electric trunk release system uses a ______ to open the trunk lid.
solenoid a.
reversible permanent magnet motor b.
both ―solenoid‖ and ―reversible permanent magnet motor‖ c.
neither ―solenoid‖ nor ―reversible permanent magnet motor‖ d.
ANS: A
solenoid
PTS: 1
5. Which device on a cruise control system is used to control the amount of vacuum applied to
the servo unit?
transducer c. solenoid coil a.
none of these answers is correct d. brake-activated switch b.
ANS: C
transducer
PTS: 1
6. After the wipers are turned off, the ______ switch provides power to the wiper motor until the
wipers blades reach the bottom of the windshield.
overrun c. interval a.
park d. rest b.
ANS: D
park
PTS: 1
7. The speed of a two-speed electromagnetic field type wiper motor is controlled by ______.
a stepped resistor between the wiper switch and the motor power terminal a.
additional brushes that increase the strength of the magnetic field in the armature b.
series and shunt field windings that increase the strength of the magnetic field c.
ANS: C
series and shunt field windings that increase the strength of the magnetic field
PTS: 1
8. The right front window does NOT function on a power window vehicle. Technician A states
that there may be an open in the window motor circuit. Technician B states that either the
master switch or right door switch could be defective. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
9. The reasons for slower than normal wiper operation are being discussed. Technician A says
the problem may be in the mechanical linkage. Technician B says there may be excessive
resistance in the electrical circuit. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
10. A six-way power seat is NOT operating in any switch position. Technician A says to check
the circuit breaker. Technician B says there may be excessive resistance in the electrical
circuit. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
11. An open in one of the heated rear window grid elements can be repaired by ______.
replacing the window glass a.
pealing the heat grid off the glass with a heat gun and installing a new grid element b.
applying a thin strip of a repair compound to the damaged area c.
bridging the damaged area with rosin core solder d.
ANS: C
applying a thin strip of a repair compound to the damaged area
PTS: 1
12. What do the two-speed permanent magnet type wiper motors generally use to achieve the two
speeds?
brushes c. cams a.
all answers are correct d. reduction gears b.
ANS: C
brushes
PTS: 1
13. Which of the following is NOT a system used for automotive power seats?
a five-way system c. a two-way system a.
a six-way system d. a four-way system b.
ANS: C
a five-way system
PTS: 1
14. Technician A says a faulty unlock relay could cause the power door locks to lock but not
unlock the doors. Technician B says a faulty actuator could cause this. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
15. Antitheft devices are being discussed. Technician A says the master key can operate the
ignition, and unlock all the doors, trunk, and glove box. Technician B says the valet key only
works on the doors and the ignition. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
16. Cruise control systems are being discussed. Technician A says the cruise control system uses
a governor valve operated by automatic transmission fluid [ATF] pressure to control the
throttle. Technician B says vehicles that use electronic throttle control [throttle by wire] do
not require a separate cruise control module, stepper motor, or cable to control engine speed.
Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
17. Vacuum-operated cruise control systems are being discussed. Technician A says the brake
pedal opens a vacuum valve that bleeds off vacuum to the cruise control servo when the
brakes are applied. Technician B says a switch on the brake pedal assembly turns off the
electrical power to the transducer when the brakes are applied. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
18. Which of the following is used in an adaptive cruise control system to measure the distance
between the vehicle and the vehicle directly ahead of it.
GPS positioning c. radar a.
ultrasonic phase imaging d. optical vehicle recognition b.
ANS: A
radar
PTS: 1
19. Technician A says the cruise control system disengages if the brake pedal is depressed.
Technician B says the cruise control system is disengaged if the clutch pedal is depressed.
Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
20. The actuators for power door locks are ______.

thermo-electric expansion capsules c. solenoids a.
all answers are correct d. reversible DC electric motors b.
ANS: B
reversible DC electric motors
PTS: 1
21. The master control switch for a power window provides ______.
electrical power for the window motor a.
the ground for the window motor b.
both ―electrical power for the window motor‖ and ―the ground for the window motor‖ c.
neither ―electrical power for the window motor‖ nor ―the ground for the window motor‖ d.
ANS: C
both ―electrical power for the window motor‖ and ―the ground for the window motor‖
PTS: 1
22. Inspection verifies that none of the power windows moves up or down when either the master
switch or the door switches are toggled. What could be the problem?
defective master switch c. blown fuse/defective circuit breaker a.
all answers are correct d. bad power window system ground b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
23. An electrochromic outside mirror ______.
displays compass headings in the lower right hand corner a.
automatically dims the headlights when it detects oncoming traffic b.
turns the heater controls to the ―Max-defrost‖ position automatically when it senses the c.
presence of condensation on the interior of the windshield
darkens as the intensity [glare] of the outside light increases d.
ANS: D
darkens as the intensity [glare] of the outside light increases
PTS: 1
24. The most common problem with rear window defrosters is ______.
time delay circuit malfunctions c. burned out relay contacts a.
BCM communications failure d. damage to the grids on the window b.
ANS: B
damage to the grids on the window
PTS: 1
25. Smart keys are being discussed. Technician A says the smart key must be inserted into a slot
in the instrument panel before the engine can be started. Technician B says some smart keys
can unlock the doors and allow the engine to be started when the smart key is within a few
feet of the vehicle. Who is correct ?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
26. Which of the following types of sensors is NOT used to trigger an alarm system?
infrared body heat sensor c. switch [door, hood, trunk] a.
current [electrical] d. motion sensor b.
ANS: C
infrared body heat sensor
PTS: 1
27. The wireless smart key that arms and disarms the antitheft system and allows the vehicle to be
started is called a ______.
transceiver c. transponder a.
transducer d. key fob b.
ANS: A
transponder
PTS: 1
28. Some anti-theft systems use an ignition key that has a ______ embedded in the key.
diode c. transistor a.
capacitor d. resistor b.
ANS: B
resistor
PTS: 1
29. Windshield wiper motors are being discussed. Technician A says wiper motors are permanent
magnet type motors. Technician B says wiper motors are electromagnet field type motors.
Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
30. The park switch for a windshield wiper system is located ______.
inside the BCM c. on the drivers side wiper arm a.
inside the wiper control relay d. inside the wiper motor b.
ANS: B
inside the wiper motor
PTS: 1
31. A technician is diagnosing a vehicle for slow wiper operation. When the linkage from the
motor is disconnected and the wiper motor is turned on, the motor runs normally. Technician
A says the motor has a poor ground connection. Technician B says the linkage is binding.
Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
32. The rain sensor in an automatic windshield wiper system is located ______.
inside the drivers side rear view mirror c. at the top/center of the windshield a.
in the dash pad [above instrument panel] d. in the grill b.
ANS: A
at the top/center of the windshield
PTS: 1
33. A technician is testing a power seat that operates slower than normal. The dome light
noticeably dims while operating the power seat motors. The problem is likely ______.
a poor seat motor ground c. binding in the seat mechanism a.
a defective circuit breaker d. high resistance in the seat switch b.
ANS: A
binding in the seat mechanism
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. The ____________________ in a wiper system makes it possible to adjust the wiper interval
period.
ANS:
timer (module)
timer
module
PTS: 1
2. The major components of a power seat system include the fuse/circuit breaker, wiring
harness, electrical control switches, and electrical ____________________.
ANS: motors
PTS: 1
3. The direction that the power window motor moves the glass is determined by the
____________________ of the supply voltage.
ANS: polarity
PTS: 1
4. The major components in a power mirror system include the fuse/circuit breaker, wiring
harness, electrical control switches, and electrical ____________________.
ANS:
motor(s)
motor
motors
PTS: 1
5. Heated, or self-defrosting, front windshield systems rely on an electrical current being sent
through a microthin ____________________ coating on the inside of a windshield.
ANS: metallic
PTS: 1
6. Diagnosis on a late model vehicle with electronic cruise control is done using a(n)
____________________
ANS:
scan tool
service manual
PTS: 1
7. On a vehicle with a fender-mounted antenna, the height of the antenna must be

____________________ inches for proper FM reception.
ANS:
thirty-one
31
PTS: 1
8. The operation of the rear window defroster can be checked with a __________________.
ANS:
test light
volt meter
PTS: 1
9. A ____________________ type alarm system automatically arms the alarm system when the
ignition key is removed and the doors are locked.
ANS: passive
PTS: 1
10. The windshield washer pump is normally located in the ____________________.
ANS:
wash fluid reservoir
washer fluid tank
PTS: 1
11. A power lumbar support uses an electrically inflatable ____________________ to improve

the driver‘s comfort by supporting the lower portion of the spinal column.
ANS: air bladder
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. Identify various causes of intermittent electrical/electronic problems.
ANS:
Poor mating of connector halves; backed out connector terminals; wire chafing; connector
body damage; dirty or corroded terminals; and poor wire-to-terminal connections, poor
grounds
PTS: 1
2. Describe the purpose of photochromatic mirrors.
ANS:
To improve driver visibility, the mirror darkens when glare strikes the mirror surface.
PTS: 1
3. When an entire power window system is not functioning, what items should be checked?
ANS:
Check fuses, circuit breakers, and the master control switch.
PTS: 1
4. What is a power lumbar support system?
ANS:
It is a system that allows the operator to inflate or deflate an air bladder to increase comfort
and give support in the lower lumbar region of the spinal column.
PTS: 1
5. What is the difference between a passive and an active alarm system?
ANS:
Passive alarm systems automatically arm when the ignition key is removed or the doors are
locked. Active systems are activated with a key fob transmitter, keypad, or toggle switch.
PTS: 1
6. How does blind spot detection work?
ANS:
A radar transmitter/receiver is mounted on each side of the rear bumper. The radar detects
vehicles in the areas that the driver cannot see in the mirrors [blind spots]. When the turn
signal is applied for a lane change, a light on the dash or audible warning alerts the driver that
there is a vehicle in the blind spot area.
PTS: 1
7. What safety precautions should be observed when diagnosing a horn circuit problem?
ANS:
Follow the safety procedures and precautions for working around an air bag.
PTS: 1
8. What is the difference between a smart key and a smarter key.
ANS:
A smart key needs to be inserted in a slot in the instrument panel before the engine can be
started. A smarter key is wireless and only needs to be within a few feet of the vehicle to start
the engine.
PTS: 1
9. How would you test a horn relay?
ANS:
Using the diagram on the relay or in the shop manual, identify the magnetic coil [control
circuit] and switch terminals [power circuit]. Using a DMM, check for continuity in the
control circuit [magnetic coil]. Using a jumper wire, battery, and DMM, energize the
magnetic coil and check for continuity between the switch circuit terminals.
PTS: 1
10. What precautions would you take before disconnecting an antitheft radio?
ANS:
Ask the customer for the radio code number or request that the customer key in the code after
repairs are completed. If the battery is being replaced or serviced, install a memory saver or
connect a jump box to the vehicle‘s electrical system prior to disconnecting the battery cables.
PTS: 1
11. What is the first step in diagnosing a power window system?
ANS:
Determine whether the whole system or just one or two windows are not working properly.
PTS: 1
12. What are the principal components of a power sun roof system?
ANS:
electric motor
relay
sliding roof panel
circuit breaker
two-position switch
PTS: 1
Chapter 24—Restraint Systems: Theory, Diagnosis, and Service
TRUE/FALSE
1. An air bag will be fully deployed within thirty milliseconds of impact.
ANS: F PTS: 1
2. Always disconnect the negative battery cable and wait the recommended time before
attempting any service on an air bag system.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. Compressed argon gas is used on some air bag systems.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. A seat belt that has color fading due to exposure to the sun or chemicals should be replaced.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. The side impact air bags deploy at the same time as the front air bags.
ANS: F PTS: 1
6. When placing a live air bag module on a table or bench, face the trim and air bag up.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. A pretensioner may use an explosive charge to retract the seat belt.
ANS: T PTS: 1
8. After deployment of the air bag, there may be some potentially harmful sodium hydroxide
residue on the seats and upholstery.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. A live air bag must be deployed before disposal.
ANS: T PTS: 1
10. Smart air bag systems usually have three stages of deployment.
ANS: F PTS: 1
11. Seat belts can be both passive- and active-type restraints.
ANS: T PTS: 1
12. Some vehicles are equipped with two-stage force limiter type belt pretensioners.
ANS: T PTS: 1
13. The left and right side seat belt retractors are interchangeable.
ANS: F PTS: 1
14. Some vehicles have a switch that allows the driver‘s side air bag to be turned off.
ANS: F PTS: 1
15. Side head protection air bags are designed to stay inflated for about five seconds to offer
protection against a second or third impact.
ANS: T PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Technician A says that the air bag control module contains the clockspring and the inflator.
Technician B says that the diagnostic monitor assembly [ASDM] supplies emergency current
to the system if battery voltage is lost. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
2. All the following are components of the air bag module EXCEPT:
the explosive charge c. the squib a.
the bag assembly d. the safing sensor b.
ANS: B
the safing sensor
PTS: 1
3. The approximate deployment time for most air bags is ______.

about 0.5 seconds c. less than 100 milliseconds a.
less than 5 milliseconds d. about 500 milliseconds b.
ANS: A
less than 100 milliseconds
PTS: 1
4. The purpose of the air bag diagnostic monitor is to ______.

supply backup power to the system a.
determine whether there is a fault in the system b.
control the operation of the air bag warning light c.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
5. Technician A says that air bag systems may use up to five sensors. Technician B says all
sensors are located in the passenger compartment. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
6. All of the following are common air bag crash sensor types EXCEPT:
hall-effect type c. mass type a.
accelerometer d. roller type b.
ANS: C
hall-effect type
PTS: 1
7. Technician A says that an air bag module is serviced as an assembly. Technician B says that it
is acceptable to replace all the sensors if one is found to be damaged. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
8. An undeployed air bag is being replaced because the trim cover is cut. Technician A says the
cover can be replaced. Technician B says the air bag must be deployed before it is scrapped.
Who is right?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
9. Trouble code extraction is being discussed. Technician A says codes may be flashed by the air
bag lamp. Technician B says a scan tool may be used. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
10. The event data recorder is located ______.

in the air bag module a.
inside the air bag sensor assembly [ASDM] b.
in the BCM c.
ANS: B
inside the air bag sensor assembly [ASDM]
PTS: 1
11. Technician A says that the clockspring is located at the bottom of the steering column.
Technician B says that the clockspring maintains electrical contact between the inflator
module and the rest of the system. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
12. ______ gas is used to inflate an air bag module.

Both ―Argon‖ and ―Nitrogen‖ c. Argon a.
Neither ―Argon‖ nor ―Nitrogen‖ d. Nitrogen b.
ANS: C
Both ―Argon‖ and ―Nitrogen‖
PTS: 1
13. Technician A says during a frontal collision, the backup power supply will deploy the air bag
if the battery is disconnected. Technician B says all backup power supplies will power down
one minute after the negative battery is disconnected. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
14. Air bag warning lamps are being discussed. Technician A says an air bag system problem is
indicated if the lamp is on while the engine is cranking. Technician B says a jumper wire
placed between two terminals of the DLC can be used to retrieve air bag system codes if a
scan tool is not available. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
15. The arrow on an air bag sensor must always face ______.
the driver‘s side of the vehicle c. the location of the air bag module a.
the front of the vehicle d. the rear of the vehicle b.
ANS: D
the front of the vehicle
PTS: 1
16. Air bag system service is being discussed. Technician A says an air bag simulator can be
installed in place of the air bag thereby allowing accurate testing of the circuits without the
fear of accidental air bag deployment. Technician B says sensors are checked by back-probing
the connector. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
17. Technician A says the air bag module can be serviced. Technician B says the inflator
assembly is composed of a solid chemical gas generator containing sodium azide propellant.
Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
18. Which of the following tools should be used to test an air bag system?
a scan tool c. a 12-volt test light a.
AC-powered ohmmeter d. AC-powered voltmeter b.
ANS: C
a scan tool
PTS: 1
19. Air bag safety is being discussed. Technician A says to always carry an undeployed air bag
module with the trim facing away from your body. Technician B says to carry the air bag
module by its wires. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
20. A deployed air bag has a powdery residue on it. Technician A says this powder is mainly
sodium carbonate and cornstarch. Technician B says it may contain sodium hydroxide. Who
is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
21. Technician A says if the seat belt retractor does not retract when the belt is disconnected, the
retractor must be replaced. Technician B says if a seat belt is cut, it must be replaced. Who is
correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
22. Seat belt retractors are being discussed. Technician A says that when the belt is suddenly
jerked on a webbing-sensitive retractor system, the retractor should lock up. Technician B
says a vehicle-sensitive retractor can only be tested by braking the vehicle at speeds of 5 to 8
MPH. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
23. Which of the following factors is NOT used in determining the intensity of air bag
deployment in an adaptive [two stage] air bag system?
seat position c. vehicle speed a.
status of seat belt d. occupant‘s weight b.
ANS: A
vehicle speed
PTS: 1
24. The correct procedure for servicing a seat belt pretensioner is to ______.
replace it c. send it out to be rebuilt a.
none of these answers is correct d. install an overhaul kit b.
ANS: C
replace it
PTS: 1
25. Technician A says two-stage air bags may not always fully deploy. Technician B says two-
stage air bags are only used on the driver‘s side. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
26. If a seat belt will not buckle, ______.

examine the buckle with a flashlight for foreign objects a.
replace the seat belt assembly b.
check the fuse in the seat belt warning indicator circuit c.
lubricate the buckle mechanism with lithium grease d.
ANS: A
examine the buckle with a flashlight for foreign objects
PTS: 1
27. Technician A says a pyrotechnic-type retractor prevents the belt from coming out of the
retractor when there is a sudden pull on the belt. Technician B says an inertia lock retractor
uses an explosive charge to quickly tighten the belt at the start of a crash.
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
28. Vehicle-sensitive seat belt retractors are being discussed. Technician A says the vehicle must
be driven at 5 to 8 MPH to test the action of the retractors. Technician B says the retractors
should lock when the brakes are applied at speeds above 8 MPH and release when the vehicle
slows to less than 8 MPH. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
29. A pyrotechnic-type pretensioner can be tested with a(n) ______.

analog ohmmeter c. self-powered test light a.
it cannot be tested d. digital ohmmeter b.
ANS: D
it cannot be tested
PTS: 1
30. Pyrotechnic-type pretensioners should be replaced ______.

after deployment of the air bag c. every 5 years a.
never d. every 10 years b.
ANS: C
after deployment of the air bag
PTS: 1
31. Second generation air bag systems are being discussed. Technician A says a second
generation air bag inflates with about 20 to 35 percent more energy. Technician B says second
generation air bags reduce the number of injuries caused by the air bag itself. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
32. To prevent accidental deployment, most air bag systems require that at least _____ sensor
switches are closed before an air bag can be deployed.
four c. two a.
five d. three b.
ANS: A
two
PTS: 1
33. Which of the following is NOT a type of safing sensor?

accelerometer type c. roller type a.
piezoresistive type d. mass type b.
ANS: D
piezoresistive type
PTS: 1
34. Occupant classification sensors are being discussed. Technician A says the sensor uses a
silicone-filled bladder in the seat cushion that has a pressure sensor connected to it.
Technician B says that piezoresistive sensors are located between the seat track and the floor.
Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
35. The air bag control module determines whether the seat is occupied by a child, adult, or a
child in a booster seat by inputs from the _____ sensor.
seat belt buckle switch c. occupant classification a.
all answers are correct d. seat belt tension b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
36. Technician A says when the SIR warning light is illuminated all the time, there is a fault code
stored in the SIR control module. Technician B says if the warning light is on, the air bag
system is turned off and the air bag will not deploy in an accident. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
37. The wiring harness and electrical connectors for the air bag system components are colored
______.
orange c. red a.
day glow pink d. yellow b.
ANS: B
yellow
PTS: 1
38. The powdery substance released from the air bag when it is deployed is ______.
both ―cornstarch‖ and ―talcum powder‖ c. cornstarch a.
neither ―cornstarch‖ nor ―talcum powder‖ d. talcum powder b.
ANS: C
both ―cornstarch‖ and ―talcum powder‖
PTS: 1
39. When diagnosing air bag diagnostic codes, the order in which the codes are diagnosed is
______.
first displayed to last displayed c. highest to lowest a.
last displayed to first displayed d. lowest to highest b.
ANS: B
lowest to highest
PTS: 1
40. Wait at least _____ minutes after disconnecting the battery before working on or around the
air bag system.
fifteen c. five a.
thirty d. ten b.
ANS: D
thirty
PTS: 1
41. A precollision system uses _____ to detect possible collisions.

laser ranging c. sonar a.
optical ranging d. radar b.
ANS: B
radar
PTS: 1
42. Technician A says the SIR warning light should turn on for about six seconds after the
ignition is turned on and then turn off. Technician B says that if the SIR indicator is on
continuously, the passenger side air bag indicator will display Off. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. Safe service procedures of air bag systems are accomplished by following the
____________________ and by understanding the ____________________ principles of
these systems.
ANS:
safety procedures, operating
operating, safety procedures
PTS: 1
2. ____________________ and ____________________ must be worn when handling a

deployed air bag module.
ANS:
Safety glasses, gloves
Gloves, safety glasses
PTS: 1
3. Most side impact air bag systems are deployed from the ____________________ or the
outside of the ____________________.
ANS: door, seat
PTS: 1
4. A knee bolster is commonly used on ____________________ air bag systems.
ANS: driver‘s side
PTS: 1
5. The two types of restraint systems are air bags and ____________________.
ANS: seat belts
PTS: 1
6. When unbuckled, seat belts are stowed away by seat belt ____________________.
ANS: retractors
PTS: 1
7. The occupant classification sensor determines the ____________________ of the passengers.
ANS: weight
PTS: 1
8. All ____________________ [model year] and newer vehicles must have a system that allows
for air bag suppression when infants, children, or small adults are in the front passenger seat.
ANS: 2006
PTS: 1
9. ____________________ are used to tighten the seat belts at the beginning of a crash.
ANS: Pretensioners
PTS: 1
10. The ____________________ allows the electric signals from the air bag electronic control
module to connect to the driver‘s air bag module while allowing the steering wheel to rotate
freely.
ANS: clockspring
PTS: 1
11. The wiring harness and the electrical connectors for the air bag system are colored
____________________.
ANS: yellow
PTS: 1
12. On a ____________________ vehicle, the high-voltage batteries are disconnected from the
electrical system when the air bag is deployed.
ANS: hybrid
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. List three items to check when inspecting a seat belt.
ANS:
The webbing; the anchors; the buckle
PTS: 1
2. List three types of air bag safing sensors.
ANS:
Mass type; roller type; accelerometer
PTS: 1
3. What is the distinguishing feature of ―second generation‖ air bags?
ANS:
They inflate with less force.
PTS: 1
4. List the three functions of the air bag diagnostic monitor.
ANS:
It controls the instrument panel warning lamp, monitors air bag system components, and
provides an energy reserve to deploy the bag if battery voltage is lost during a collision.
PTS: 1
5. What is the purpose of the clockspring?
ANS:
It conducts electrical signals to the air bag module while allowing steering wheel rotation.
PTS: 1
6. What is the difference between active and passive restraint systems?
ANS:
An active restraint is one that the driver or occupant must make manual effort to use [seat
belts]. A passive restraint requires no effort on the vehicle‘s occupants to make it functional.
PTS: 1
7. What is the function of a knee bolster [knee diverter]?
ANS:
The knee bolster is designed to help restrain the lower parts of the bodies of the driver and
front passenger and prevent the driver from sliding under the air bag during a collision.
PTS: 1
8. What is the first step in diagnosing an air bag fault?
ANS:
Observe the operation of the SIR warning light and compare to the description in the service
manual.
PTS: 1
9. When disarming the air bag system for inspection of sensors, clockspring, or the air bag
module, what should be done before the battery is disconnected?
ANS:
Read and record any air bag system DTCs.
PTS: 1
10. What should be done before disposing a deployed two-stage air bag?
ANS:
Following the manufacturer‘s guidelines, manually deploy both air bag inflator modules.
PTS: 1
11. What is an event data recorder?
ANS:
The event data recorder records data from a crash or near crash. The recorder is inside the air
bag sensor assembly. It records air bag system diagnostic data, seatbelt status, engine speed,
throttle and brake pedal data, position of the transmission selector, and the position of the
driver‘s seat. This information is for safety improvements only.
PTS: 1
12. Why are adaptive and two-stage air bags [second generation] used on modern vehicles?
ANS:
The air bag systems used on older vehicles were designed for larger adults and could possibly
harm children and smaller adults.
Second generation adaptive and two-stage air bags deploy with less power and can
automatically compensate for occupants with less body mass.
PTS: 1
13. Besides safing [impact] sensors, what other types of sensors are used in an air bag system?
ANS:
seat position
occupant classification
seat belt buckle switch
seat belt tension
PTS: 1
Chapter 25—Engine Performance Systems
TRUE/FALSE
1. Higher compression ratios tend to speed up combustion.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. Higher-octane fuels are easier to ignite and burn faster than low-octane fuel.
ANS: F PTS: 1
3. Port fuel injection systems have a throttle plate assembly, but fuel never passes by the plate.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. The PCM can be electronically linked to other control modules.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. The PCM can turn off the A/C compressor when the engine is operating at full throttle.
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. When there is a calibration update available for an OBD-II vehicle, the old EPROM is
removed from its socket in the PCM and a new EPROM with the updated software is installed
in its place.
ANS: F PTS: 1
7. OBD-II regulations require all vehicle manufacturers to use the same names and acronyms for
all electric and electronic systems related to the engine and emission control systems.
ANS: T PTS: 1
8. During the EVAP monitor vacuum pull-down test, the canister vent solenoid is held open.
ANS: F PTS: 1
9. The MIL light should illuminate when the ignition switch is turned to the run position [engine
not running] and go out within a few seconds after the engine is started.
ANS: T PTS: 1
10. Scan tools can be used to cycle on and off some actuators such as injectors, vacuum
solenoids, idle air control motors, and the like.
ANS: T PTS: 1
11. Only OBD-II equipped vehicles have a sixteen-pin DLC connector.
ANS: F PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following jobs is NOT a function of the ignition system?

engaging the starter motor a.
generating a spark with enough heat to ignite the fuel b.
maintaining the spark long enough for total combustion of air and fuel c.
delivering the spark at the proper time to each cylinder on the compression stroke d.
ANS: A
engaging the starter motor
PTS: 1
2. Engine vacuum is being discussed. Technician A says that when the engine is operating under
light loads, engine vacuum is low. Technician B says that engine vacuum is high when the
engine is operated under heavy loads. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
3. Ignition spark typically occurs a few degrees _______.

before bottom dead center [BBDC] c. before top dead center [BTDC] a.
after bottom dead center [ABDC] d. after top dead center [ATDC] b.
ANS: A
before top dead center [BTDC]
PTS: 1
4. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of an electronic spark control system?

It compensates for changes in engine (and sometimes outside air) temperature a.
It allows lower compression ratio engines to be equally as efficient as higher compression b.
ratio engines
It makes changes many times faster than older (mechanical) systems c.
It has a feedback mechanism in which sensor readings allow it to constantly compensate d.
for changing conditions
ANS: B
It allows lower compression ratio engines to be equally as efficient as higher compression
ratio engines
PTS: 1
5. In a GDI system (gasoline direct injection) the injector sprays fuel into the ______.
intake port in cylinder head c. intake manifold (plenum) a.
cylinders (combustion chamber) d. intake runner in manifold b.
ANS: D
cylinders (combustion chamber)
PTS: 1
6. The injector pulse width is ______.

the size of the injector nozzle a.
the amount of time the injector opens and sprays fuel b.
the voltage applied to the injector solenoid coil c.
the distance between the injector tip and the center of the intake port d.
ANS: B
the amount of time the injector opens and sprays fuel
PTS: 1
7. Air/fuel ratios are being discussed. Technician A says that when the air fuel ratio is higher
than 14.7 to 1 the engine produces more power. Technician B says that when the air fuel ratio
is lower than 14.7 to 1 the engine uses less fuel. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
8. Which of the following chemicals is NOT a pollutant?

nitrogen [N2] c. carbon monoxide [CO] a.
hydrocarbons [HC] d. oxides of nitrogen [NOx] b.
ANS: C
nitrogen [N2]
PTS: 1
9. Which of the following is not a PCM output?

lights (indicator) c. solenoids a.
relays d. thermostats b.
ANS: B
thermostats
PTS: 1
10. Data collected by system sensors is stored in _____ memory.

ROM c. RAM a.
PROM d. nonvolatile RAM b.
ANS: A
RAM
PTS: 1
11. The first decision the computer makes in determining the best operating strategy is to
determine the _____.
throttle opening a.
engine operating mode (cranking, idling, cruise, etc.) b.
outside air temperature c.
barometric pressure d.
ANS: B
engine operating mode (cranking, idling, cruise, etc.)
PTS: 1
12. A phaser is used to _____.

advance or retard ignition timing c. advance or retard camshaft timing a.
kill Klingons d. measure crankshaft position b.
ANS: A
advance or retard camshaft timing
PTS: 1
13. When the cylinders are deactivated on a displacement on demand system, _____.
half of the cylinders continue to fire normally a.
oil pressure to the hydraulic lifters is increased, pumping up the lifters b.
both the intake and exhaust valves of the deactivated cylinders are held open c.
the injectors continue to fire, but because the manifold vacuum is so low, no fuel flows d.
into the combustion chamber
ANS: A
half of the cylinders continue to fire normally
PTS: 1
14. On an OBD-II vehicle, the DLC connector is located _____.

under the hood, on the left side inner fender a.
under the hood, on the right side inner fender b.
under the hood, in the fuse/relay box c.
under the dashboard, within arm‘s reach of the driver d.
ANS: D
under the dashboard, within arm‘s reach of the driver
PTS: 1
15. Engine operating modes are being discussed. Technician A says that when the engine is in
closed-loop mode, the PCM monitors sensor inputs, then adjusts the timing, air fuel ratio, and
emission controls. Technician B says the system will switch into open loop when the throttle
is fully opened or the oxygen sensors cool down during idle. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
16. Catalytic converter monitors are being discussed. Technician A says that if the converter is
working, the downstream signal frequency should mirror the upstream sensor. Technician B
says that the downstream sensor should provide a low-frequency voltage signal. Who is
correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
17. What sensor is used to detect engine misfire?

cylinder head temperature c. crankshaft position a.
exhaust gas temperature d. knock b.
ANS: A
crankshaft position
PTS: 1
18. Which of the following statements is not true?

A type A misfire can cause damage to the catalytic converter if the injector is not shut a.
down
A type B misfire will cause the MIL light to flash b.
A type B misfire is set after detected faults in two consecutive drive cycles c.
A type A misfire will set a DTC and cause the MIL light to illuminate immediately d.
ANS: B
A type B misfire will cause the MIL light to flash
PTS: 1
19. Oxygen sensor monitors are being discussed. Technician A says the system monitors the
sensor response time as the system cycles lean-rich-lean. Technician B says that at certain
times the monitor varies the fuel delivery and checks for heated oxygen sensor response. Who
is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
20. EGR monitors are being discussed. Technician A says some EGR system monitors EGR flow
by measuring the difference in pressure as the EGR gas flows through an orifice (restriction).
Technician B says some EGR monitors measure the temperature of the EGR outlet to
determine whether there is gas flowing through the EGR valve. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
21. Diagnostic trouble codes are being discussed. Technician A says a P0442 is a manufacturer‘s
code and means different things, depending on what manufacturer built the car. Technician B
says that a P0304 code is a universal code that means the same thing no matter what
manufacturer built the car. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
22. Freeze frame data is being discussed. Technician A says erasing the code with a scan tool will
erase the corresponding freeze frame data. Technician B says the freeze frame data is the
sensor and output status data at the instant the DTC was set. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
23. Before performing any repairs on a vehicle with an illuminated MIL light: Technician A
records all DTCs and freeze frame data. Technician B checks for service bulletins.Who is
correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
24. To read flash codes on an OBD I Chrysler-built vehicle ______.

connect terminals A and B on the DLC with a jumper wire a.
turn the rotary switch on the PCM counter clockwise 3 clicks b.
connect the E1 and TE1 terminals on the DLC c.
turn the ignition key on and off three times in five seconds, ending in on d.
ANS: D
turn the ignition key on and off three times in five seconds, ending in on
PTS: 1
25. Technician A uses the snapshot function of his scan tool to record serial data during a road
test that can be transferred and displayed on a PC. Technician B uses the snapshot feature of
his scan tool to record the sensor data and conditions leading up to the vehicle setting a DTC.
Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
26. Which of the following sensors is NOT used by the computerized ignition system to control
ignition timing?
manifold vacuum c. oxygen sensor a.
engine RPM d. engine temperature b.
ANS: A
oxygen sensor
PTS: 1
27. The two types of ignition systems are EI [electronic ignition] and ______.
MSI [multispark ignition] c. MI [magneto ignition] a.
GCI [ground circuit ignition] d. DI [distributor ignition] b.
ANS: B
DI [distributor ignition]
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. A ______________________ or _____________________ increases engine efficiency by

forcing (pumping) more air into the cylinders.
ANS:
turbocharger, supercharger
supercharger, turbocharger
PTS: 1
2. Besides the tailpipe, hydrocarbons [HC] can also be emitted from the
____________________.
ANS:
fuel tank, hoses
vapor recovery system
PTS: 1
3. A fault that comes and goes and is not always present is called a(n) ____________________
fault.
ANS: intermittent
PTS: 1
4. The three pollutants found in the exhaust gases are hydrocarbons, carbon monoxide, and
____________________ .
ANS:
oxides of nitrogen
[NOx]
PTS: 1
5. The output of the upstream and downstream oxygen sensors is compared to determine the
efficiency of the ____________________.
ANS: catalytic converter
PTS: 1
6. The ____________________ sensor is used by the misfire monitor to detect excessive

misfires.
ANS:
crankshaft position
[CKP]
PTS: 1
7. A ____________________ is a snapshot of the activity of the various inputs and outputs at

the
time the PCM illuminated the MIL.
ANS: freeze frame
PTS: 1
8. All cars built since ____________________ are equipped with an electronic fuel injection
system.
ANS: 1995
PTS: 1
9. The ideal or stoichiometric ratio of air to fuel (by weight) is ____________________ in a

gasoline engine.
ANS: 14.7
PTS: 1
10. The OBD-II system will illuminate the MIL if a failure is detected that will cause the
emissions levels to exceed ____________________ times the allowable standards for that
model year.
ANS: 1.5
PTS: 1
11. All OBD-II vehicles have a minimum of ____________________ oxygen sensors.
ANS:
2
two
PTS: 1
12. A catalytic converter monitor DTC is set after detecting faults on ____________________
consecutive drive cycles.
ANS:
3
three
PTS: 1
13. After ____________________ warm-up cycles without a fault, a DTC code is erased from
active memory, but the DTC and the freeze frame data will be stored as a history code with
freeze frame data until it is cleared.
ANS:
40
forty
PTS: 1
14. A PCM that can learn the nominal range of inputs and outputs by monitoring them over a
long period of time is said to be using ____________________ strategy.
ANS: adaptive
PTS: 1
15. PCM stands for ____________________.
ANS: powertrain control module
PTS: 1
16. The misfire monitor is necessary protect to the ____________________from melting during a
continuous misfire.
ANS: catalytic converter
PTS: 1
17. The monitor that continuously looks at all the major engine sensors and actuators that can
affect emissions levels is called the ____________________.
ANS: comprehensive component monitor
PTS: 1
18. During the secondary AIR active test, the PCM cycles the AIR flow to the exhaust manifold
on and off during closed loop operation and monitors the ____________________ voltage
and the short-term fuel trim value.
ANS: precatalyst HO2S

PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. What are flash codes?
ANS:
Flash codes are diagnostic codes that are displayed by the MIL indicator light as a series of on
and off pulses. Often codes are displayed by jumping two terminals on the DLC or cycling the
ignition key on and off several times.
PTS: 1
2. List the steps in diagnosing a vehicle with an illuminated MIL light.
ANS:
Interview customer
Check MIL operation
Connect Scan tool—record DTCs and freeze frame data
Check for TSB and service history
Clear DTCs and freeze frame data
Visual Inspection
Check for DTCs [pending]
Basic inspection
DTC chart
Check for intermittent problems
Perform repairs
Repair verification test
PTS: 1
3. List the major components of the fuel delivery system.
ANS:
fuel tank
fuel pump
fuel lines
fuel filter
Also:
fuel rail
injectors
pressure regulator
accumulator
pulse damper
PTS: 1
4. What is the principal function of the OBD-II system?
ANS:
To monitor the functioning of the emission control system and ensure that the vehicle
emissions stay below the mandated limits for the life of the vehicle.
PTS: 1
5. What is the difference between closed loop and open loop engine operation?
ANS:
During open loop operation, the PCM does not use feedback information from the oxygen
sensor and other sensors to adjust engine operating commands. The computer makes
decisions based on preprogrammed information that allows it to make basic ignition or
air-fuel settings and to disregard sensor inputs. During closed loop operation, the PCM uses
feedback information from the engine‘s sensors to constantly monitor, process, and send out
new output commands.
PTS: 1
6. What is an OBD-II trip?
ANS:
A trip is a drive cycle that includes all the conditions (enable criteria) required for a monitor
to run.
PTS: 1
7. What is a type A misfire?
ANS:
A type A misfire is a severe misfire that occurs in 2 to 20 percent of the ignition events. A
type A misfire will produce excess heat inside the catalytic converter and cause converter
failure. The PCM may turn off the injector to a cylinder with a type A misfire to prevent
converter damage. When the PCM detects a type A misfire, the MIL light will flash.
PTS: 1
8. What is the function of the EVAP system monitor?
ANS:
The EVAP system monitor tests the ability of the fuel tank to hold pressure
and the purge system‘s ability to vent the gas fumes from the charcoal canister when
commanded to do so by the PCM.
PTS: 1
9. What is the relationship between engine load and manifold vacuum?
ANS:
Under light loads, a high vacuum exists in the intake manifold. The density of the air-fuel
mixture drawn into the cylinders is low. Under heavy loads, when the throttle plate is near
fully opened, the vacuum in the cylinders is low and a very dense mass of air and fuel is
drawn into the cylinders.
PTS: 1
10. What is the DLC and where is it found in modern vehicles?
ANS:
The data link connector is the electrical connector used to connect a scan tool to the vehicle‘s
PCM. The connector is located inside the passenger compartment and must be easily
accessible while sitting in the driver‘s seat.
PTS: 1
11. What is short-term fuel trim?
ANS:
Short-term fuel trim makes minor adjustments to the pulse width. These adjustments are
temporary and not held in memory when the ignition is switched off.
PTS: 1
12. A V-6 engine has an oxygen sensor in each exhaust manifold. How do you determine which
one is B1 S1?
ANS:
B1 S1 is located in the same bank as cylinder number 1.
PTS: 1
Chapter 26—Detailed Diagnosis and Sensors
TRUE/FALSE
1. Mode 6 data are the results of the monitor diagnostic tests.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. If the MIL light is ON, there will be a DTC and associated freeze frame data stored in the
PCM‘s memory.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. Some PCM inputs come from another control module through the vehicle network.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. A sensor with a bad ground connection will produce a lower than normal signal voltage.
ANS: F PTS: 1
5. The engine coolant temperature sensor is typically found in the radiator.
ANS: F PTS: 1
6. The resistance of the intake air temperature (IAT) sensor increases as air temperature
increases.
ANS: F PTS: 1
7. The MAP sensor used on a turbocharged engine is calibrated the same as a MAP sensor for a
nonturbocharged engine.
ANS: F PTS: 1
8. A misfiring spark plug can cause a false oxygen sensor reading.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. Because air/fuel ratio sensors produce a signal only after their current output has been
processed by the PCM, they cannot be tested with a voltmeter or lab scope.
ANS: T PTS: 1
10. For most actuators, the circuit driver in the PCM applies a ground to the circuit to turn the
actuator on and removes the ground to turn the actuator off.
ANS: T PTS: 1
11. On some vehicles, actuators can be tested with a scan tool by accessing output state control
(OSC) or output test mode (OTM). In this mode, the actuator enabled or disabled, or the duty
cycle increased or decreased.
ANS: T PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Two technicians are discussing OBD-II monitor readiness status. Technician A says that the
vehicle must be driven through a drive cycle that includes several minutes of idle, low-speed
cruise, medium-speed cruise, and deceleration before all monitors can be performed.
Technician B says all monitors can be performed in five minutes of fast idling. Who is
correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
2. Trouble codes are being discussed. Technician A says that the first time the system detects a
fault, a pending code is set. Technician B says that a pending code will turn on the MIL light.
Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
3. The sensor and output status data stored when a DTC is set is called ______.
mode 6 data c. snap shot data a.
failure record d. freeze frame data b.
ANS: B
freeze frame data
PTS: 1
4. A vehicle with a DTC for an engine coolant temperature out of range code is being tested.
The serial data stream shows the coolant temperature to be 198 degrees Fahrenheit. When the
technician tests the resistance between the ETC terminals, he finds infinite resistance. The
specifications call for 20 to 40 ohms at 200 degrees Fahrenheit. After the ECT is replaced and
the code is erased, the system runs normally and the code and MIL illumination do not
reoccur. How is this possible?
There was excessive air in the cooling system; when the ECT sensor was removed, the a.
trapped air bled out
The ETC code was set by a loose connection where the harness meets the ECT terminals; b.
disconnecting and reconnecting the plug essentially fixed the problem
The problem is an intermittent electrical fault; it will eventually reoccur c.
When the ECT failed, the PCM substituted a nominal ECT value that allowed the engine d.
to run in limp home mode; the substituted value was displayed by the scan tool
ANS: D
When the ECT failed, the PCM substituted a nominal ECT value that allowed the engine to
run in limp home mode; the substituted value was displayed by the scan tool
PTS: 1
5. Which of the following tools is NOT used in testing engine sensors?

scan tool c. DMM a.
lab scope d. test light b.
ANS: B
test light
PTS: 1
6. A technician is setting up a lab scope to measure a sensor. Technician A says that the vertical
voltage scale must be adjusted in relation to the expected voltage signal. Technician B says
the trigger slope must be set to positive if the trace begins with a rising voltage. Who is
correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
7. Which statement is NOT true?

Some sensors are voltage or frequency generators a.
Some sensors are variable resistors b.
Some sensors are simple on-off switches c.
Some sensors are solenoids d.
ANS: D
Some sensors are solenoids
PTS: 1
8. A vehicle towed into the shop with a ―cranks but doesn‘t start‖ problem. A quick check under
the hood reveals that the spark plugs are not firing and the injectors are not receiving a pulse
from the PCM. The technician notices that the MIL light does not come on when the key is
turned to the run position. What would you do next?
Check the PCM‘s fuses, power wires, and ground wires a.
Replace the PCM b.
Check the main power relay in the power distribution center c.
Check for codes with a scan tool d.
ANS: A
Check the PCM‘s fuses, power wires, and ground wires
PTS: 1
9. The device that protects the PCM and other electronic components from the voltage spike
created in the windings of a solenoid, relay, or magnetic clutch when they are turned off is
called a ______.
suppression capacitor c. filter choke a.
voltage divider d. clamping diode b.
ANS: B
clamping diode
PTS: 1
10. Two technicians are discussing testing switch type sensors. Technician A uses an ohmmeter.
Technician B uses a voltmeter. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
11. The engine coolant temperature sensor helps to control all the following EXCEPT:
EGR opening c. fuel pressure a.
ignition timing d. open loop/closed loop operation b.
ANS: A
fuel pressure
PTS: 1
12. Two technicians are discussing IAT sensors (intake air temperature). Technician A says the
IAT sensor is an integral part of the mass airflow sensor (MAF). Technician B says the IAT is
a discrete sensor located in the intake air passages or air cleaner assembly. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
13. A MAP sensor with a varying frequency output can be tested with a(n) ______.
DMM with a duty cycle function c. voltmeter a.
DMM with a frequency function d. ohmmeter b.
ANS: D
DMM with a frequency function
PTS: 1
14. Which of the following is NOT a type of mass airflow sensor?

hot wire c. Karmen-Vortex a.
Hall effect d. vane type b.
ANS: D
Hall effect
PTS: 1
15. Technician A tests an MAF sensor with a scan tool by watching for erratic changes in flow
while the engine idles. Technician B checks an MAF sensor by tapping it lightly with the
handle of a screwdriver while watching the waveform on a lab scope. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
16. When the system is running rich, the oxygen content in the exhaust is ______.
both A and B c. high a.
neither A nor B d. low b.
ANS: B
low
PTS: 1
17. A conventional oxygen sensor needs to be heated to ________ degrees Fahrenheit before it
can produce a usable signal.
1,000 c. 500 a.
1,200 d. 750 b.
ANS: B
750
PTS: 1
18. An air/fuel ratio sensor is different from an oxygen sensor in that ______.
the signal output is a varying current (amps) a.
as the mixture becomes leaner, its output signal increases b.
the output responds to minor changes in air/fuel mixture, not just rich/lean conditions c.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
19. Which of the following problems would NOT cause a oxygen sensor to appear bad?
leaking EGR valve c. leaking fuel injector a.
leaking muffler to tailpipe gasket d. leaking intake manifold gasket b.
ANS: D
leaking muffler to tailpipe gasket
PTS: 1
20. Oxygen sensors may become contaminated by ______.

coolant from blown head gaskets a.
use of RTV silicone sealant in the intake system b.
excessive oil consumption caused by worn rings. c.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
21. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

A conventional oxygen sensor has a minimum voltage of 0.000 volts and a maximum a.
voltage of 1.000 volt.
On a V-type engine, bank 1 is the side of the engine where cylinder #1 is located. b.
An oxygen sensor measures the difference between the amount of oxygen inside the c.
exhaust and the outside air.
A conventional oxygen sensor receives a 5-volt reference voltage from the PCM. d.
ANS: D PTS: 1
22. Which of the following tools cannot be used to test an oxygen sensor?
lab scope c. digital voltmeter (DMM) a.
scan tool d. analog voltmeter b.
ANS: B
analog voltmeter
PTS: 1
23. A technician connects a DMM with a MIN/MAX/AVG function to the output of an oxygen
sensor. The engine is run at 2000 RPM for several minutes. During the test, the voltage
toggles rapidly between 150 and 900 millivolts. At the end of the test, the MAX voltage was
.967 V, the MIN voltage was .087 V, and the AVG voltage was .683 V. Technician A says the
sensor is faulty and should be replaced. Technician B says there could be a vacuum leak that
caused the sensor voltage to have a higher than normal average. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
24. A throttle position sensor has ______.

a ground terminal c. a 5-volt reference input terminal a.
all answers are correct d. a 0- to-5-volt signal output terminal b.
ANS: A
a 5-volt reference input terminal
PTS: 1
25. An accelerator pedal position sensor (APP) is used on vehicles equipped with ______.
torque converter clutch (TCC) c. electronic throttle control a.
all answers are correct d. cruise control b.
ANS: A
electronic throttle control
PTS: 1
26. A technician is rebuilding an engine and notices that one tooth is missing from the crank
sensor pulse ring. Technician A says the pulse ring is broken and will have to be replaced.
Technician B says that missing tooth identifies when cylinder #1 is at TDC and that the
missing tooth is normal. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
27. A camshaft position sensor provides the PCM with data needed to control _____.
ignition coil timing (COP ignition) c. fuel injector timing a.
all answers are correct d. variable valve timing b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
28. Which of the following is NOT an actuator?

canister purge solenoid c. PCV valve a.
idle air control valve d. fuel injector b.
ANS: A
PCV valve
PTS: 1
29. Which of the following tools should not be used to test an actuator unless the technician is
directed to do so by the manufacturer‘s service procedures?
jumper wires c. scan tool a.
lab scope d. DMM b.
ANS: C
jumper wires
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. Drivability problems that do not set a DTC are diagnosed by ____________________

strategy.
ANS: symptom-based diagnosis
PTS: 1
2. A bad sensor ground can allow ____________________ to interfere with the signals sent to
the PCM, possibly causing drivability problems.
ANS:
noise
line noise
EMI [electromagnetic interference]
PTS: 1
3. The ____________________ sensor measures changes in intake manifold pressure that result
from changes in engine load and speed.
ANS: MAP
PTS: 1
4. The BARO sensor informs the PCM about changes in weather and ____________________.
ANS: altitude
PTS: 1
5. The ____________________ sensor measures the amount of air in grams per second entering
the engine.
ANS: MAF
PTS: 1
6. A typical upstream oxygen sensor should have a voltage that toggles between
____________________ volt (low) and ____________________ volt (high) when the system
is working in closed loop.
ANS: .200; .800
PTS: 1
7. The vehicle speed sensor is typically mounted on the ____________________.
ANS: transmission
PTS: 1
8. A steel feeler gauge and voltmeter is used to test a ____________________ sensor.

ANS: Hall-effect
PTS: 1
9. The ____________________ sensor tells the PCM that detonation is occurring in the
cylinders.
ANS: knock
PTS: 1
10. ____________________ are electromechanical devices that convert an electrical current into
mechanical action.
ANS: Actuators
PTS: 1
11. The voltage drop between the PCM and the battery negative terminal should be
____________________ millivolts or less.
ANS:
30
thirty
PTS: 1
12. The PCM supplies a ____________________volt reference voltage to the MAP sensor.
ANS:
5
five
PTS: 1
13. The hot wire in the mass airflow sensor is held at a constant ____________________ degrees
Celsius.
ANS: 200
PTS: 1
14. Normal throttle position sensor signal voltage at closed throttle [idle] is
____________________ volt.
ANS: .5 to 1.0
PTS: 1
15. The ____________________ is the key sensor in the closed loop mode.
ANS:
exhaust oxygen sensor
heated exhaust oxygen sensor
oxygen sensor
lambda sensor
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. Describe the driving procedure that will allow the OBD-II system to complete all monitors.
ANS:
Engine must run continuously throughout the drive cycle.
Drive vehicle for at least four minutes, until engine temperature reaches 180 degrees
Fahrenheit.
Idle engine for forty-five seconds.
Accelerate at one-fourth throttle from standstill to 45 mph in ten seconds.
Drive between 30 and 40 mph for at least one minute.
Drive for four minutes at speeds between 20 and 40 mph.
Decelerate and idle for ten seconds.
Accelerate at one-half throttle to 55 mph.
Cruise at 40 to 60 mph for at least eighty seconds.
Decelerate and allow to idle.
Connect a scan tool, check readiness status and pending and active DTCs.
PTS: 1
2. What is a waveform library?
ANS:
A waveform library is a software package stored in the lab scope memory. The library
consists of series of sensor and actuator scope patterns taken from actual vehicles. The
waveform library allows the technician to reference normal patterns to compare with the
pattern taken from the sensor being tested. The waveform library may also contain waveforms
caused by common problems. Patterns that you obtain from the vehicles you work on can be
stored in the lab scope or transferred to a PC.
PTS: 1
3. What types of problems could be caused by a faulty engine coolant temperature sensor?
ANS:
hard starting
excessive rich or lean air-fuel ratio
improper operation of emission control devices
reduced fuel economy
improper converter clutch lockup
hesitation on acceleration
engine stalling
PTS: 1
4. What is the cause of photochemical smog?
ANS:
Photochemical smog is produced when hydrocarbons (HC) and oxides of nitrogen (NOx) are
present in stagnant air. When sunlight passes through the polluted air, a chemical reaction
takes place between the HC and NOx. The result is a brown haze that can cause breathing
difficulties, eye and lung irritation, and serious health problems.
PTS: 1
5. What is the primary function of an onboard diagnostic [OBD] system?
ANS:
The primary goal of OBD systems is to reduce vehicle emissions and reduce the possibility of
future emission increases by detecting and reporting system malfunctions.
PTS: 1
6. What is a closed loop system?
ANS:
Closed loop systems are often referred to as feedback systems. This means that the sensors
provide constant information, or feedback, on what is taking place in the engine. The
computer compares those values to its programs, then sends commands to the output devices.
The output devices adjust timing, air fuel ratio, and emission control operation. The resulting
engine operation will result in new inputs from the sensors. Those new messages are sent to
the computer, where the effectiveness of the change can be processed and corrections made as
necessary. This continuous cycle of information is called a closed loop.
PTS: 1
7. What is an OBD-II drive cycle?
ANS:
The OBD-II drive cycle is operating conditions that must exist before the self-diagnosis can
take place. A drive cycle includes an engine start and operation that brings the vehicle into
closed loop and includes whatever specific operating conditions are necessary to initiate and
complete a specific monitoring sequence. In a complete drive cycle, all monitors must be
completed followed by the catalyst monitor.
PTS: 1
8. How does the OBD-II catalytic converter efficiency monitor work?
ANS:
All OBD-II vehicles have at least two oxygen sensors. One sensor is located upstream of the
converter, and another is located downstream at the converter outlet. The catalyst monitor
looks at the level of activity of the two sensors. If the downstream sensor mirrors the
upstream sensor, there are no chemical reactions taking place inside the converter. The
monitor fails and a DTC is set. If the downstream sensor is significantly different from the
upstream sensor, there are chemical reactions working inside the converter and the monitor
passes. If the catalyst monitor fails twice in succession, the MIL light will illuminate and a
DTC will be set.
PTS: 1
9. What is a freeze-frame?
ANS:
The PCM takes a snapshot of the activity of the various inputs and outputs whenever a DTC
is set. The freeze-frame data is the data at the instant PCM illuminated the MIL. The PCM
uses this data for identification and comparison of similar operating conditions if the same
problem occurs in the future. Freeze-frame data is a valuable diagnostic tool when trying to
identify the cause of an intermittent problem.
PTS: 1
10. What is the OBD-II DLC and where is it located?
ANS:
DLC stands for data link connector. The DLC is a sixteen-pin terminal used to connect a scan
tool to the vehicles computer network. The DLC is located inside the passenger compartment
within easy access from the driver‘s seat. Typically the DLC is under the dash near the
steering column. The DLC cannot be hidden behind panels and must be accessible without
tools.
PTS: 1
Chapter 27—Ignition Systems
TRUE/FALSE
1. A spark plug fires before the piston reaches top dead center (TDC).
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. On a coil-over-plug type ignition system, a faulty coil will affect two cylinders.
ANS: F PTS: 1
3. The distributorless ignition system of a V-6 engine may be designed with three ignition coils.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. The waste-spark ignition system on a four cylinder engine with dual plug [two spark plugs per
cylinder] cylinder heads requires four ignition coils.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. Until 1994 all ignition systems used some type of distributor.
ANS: F PTS: 1
6. The misfire monitor uses a high data rate CKP [crankshaft position] sensor to detect engine
misfires, and the CMP [camshaft position] sensor is used to identify which cylinder is
misfiring.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. Conventional ignition systems are capable of producing higher electrical energy than
distributorless ignition systems.
ANS: F PTS: 1
8. A late model ignition system can supply 30,000 to 60,000 volts of electricity.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. Most distributor-equipped ignition systems use one ignition coil for each cylinder.
ANS: F PTS: 1
10. A spark plug‘s ceramic core or insulator acts as a heat conductor.
ANS: T PTS: 1
11. Driving on a rough road can trigger the engine misfire monitor.
ANS: F PTS: 1
12. Very few newer engines are equipped with a distributor.
ANS: T PTS: 1
13. Many of the inputs used for ignition system control are also used to control other systems,
such as fuel injection.
ANS: T PTS: 1
14. Magnetic pulse generators produce a weak DC voltage when the teeth of the trigger wheel
rotate past the pickup coil.
ANS: F PTS: 1
15. A camshaft position sensor [CMP] is necessary for a waste spark type ignition system to
determine which coil to fire when the engine reaches TDC.
ANS: F PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What happens when the low-voltage current flow in the coil primary winding is interrupted
by the switching device?
The magnetic field around the primary winding collapses a.
The movement of the magnetic field across the winding induces a high voltage in the b.
secondary winding
both ―The magnetic field around the primary winding collapses‖ and ―The movement of c.
the magnetic field across the winding induces a high voltage in the secondary winding‖
neither ―The magnetic field around the primary winding collapses‖ nor ―The movement d.
of the magnetic field across the winding induces a high voltage in the secondary winding‖
ANS: C
Both ―The magnetic field around the primary winding collapses‖ and ―The movement of the
magnetic field across the winding induces a high voltage in the secondary winding‖
PTS: 1
2. Which of the following is a component of the secondary ignition circuit?
PCM c. battery a.
spark plug d. ignition switch b.
ANS: D
spark plug
PTS: 1
3. Reach, heat range, and air gap are all characteristics that affect the performance of which
ignition system component?
spark plugs c. ignition coils a.
breaker points d. ignition cables b.
ANS: C
spark plugs
PTS: 1
4. Modern ignition cables contain carbon fiber cores that act as a(n) ____ in the secondary
circuit to cut down on radio and television interference and reduce spark plug wear.
semiconductor c. insulator a.
heat shield d. resistor b.
ANS: B
resistor
PTS: 1
5. The magnetic field surrounding the pickup coil in a magnetic pulse generator moves when the
______.
reluctor tooth approaches the ignition coil a.
reluctor tooth begins to move away from the pickup coil b.
reluctor tooth begins to move away from the ignition coil c.
the pickup coil is midway between two reluctor teeth d.
ANS: B
reluctor tooth begins to move away from the pickup coil
PTS: 1
6. Ignition timing is being discussed. Technician A says when the engine idle speed moves away
from the desired idle speed, the PCM will adjust the timing to stabilize the engine speed.
Technician B says when a knock is detected, the PCM retards the timing in fixed steps until
the knock disappears. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
7. Computer-controlled ignition timing is being discussed. Technician A says when excessive
wheel slippage occurs, the PCM will advance the timing to increase the torque output from
the engine. Technician B says to provide smooth shifting of an automatic transmission, the
PCM will temporarily retard the ignition timing to reduce the engine‘s torque when the
transmission is beginning to change gears.
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
8. Which of the following components is part of the primary ignition circuit?

ignition switch c. spark plug a.
neutral safety switch d. spark plug cable b.
ANS: C
ignition switch
PTS: 1
9. The typical amount of secondary coil voltage required to jump the spark plug gap is ____
volts.
10,000 c. 500 a.
50,000 d. 1,000 b.
ANS: C
10,000
PTS: 1
10. Resistor-type spark plugs are being discussed. Technician A says the resistor increases the
plug firing voltage. Technician B says the resistor helps reduce radio frequency interference
[RFI], which can interfere with, or damage, radios, computers, and other electronic
accessories, such as GPS systems. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
11. In EI systems using one ignition coil for every two cylinders, Technician A says two plugs
fire at the same time, with one wasting the spark on the exhaust stroke. Technician B says one
plug fires in the normal direction and the other in reversed polarity. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
12. Technician A says a magnetic pulse generator type sensor generates a small AC voltage
each time one of the machined slots in the trigger wheel passes by. Technician B says some
ignition systems use dual Hall-effect sensors that produce a 3x and 18x/revolution pulse. Who
is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
13. Coil-over-plug ignition systems are being discussed, Technician A says COP coils have less
time between each firing cycle, which increases the heat in the coil and can cause premature
failure. Technician B says the COP system allows the ignition timing for each cylinder to be
individually changed for maximum performance as the system responds to knock sensor
signals. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
14. Crankshaft sensors are being discussed. Technician A says the signal from a Hall-effect CKP
cannot be used to synchronize fuel injector timing with the engine. Technician B says some
early distributor ignition systems relied on photoelectric sensors to monitor crankshaft
position. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
15. Spark plug wires are being discussed. Technician A says silicon-insulated wires are used for
normal temperature applications. Technician B says hypalon-insulated wires are used for
high-temperature applications. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
16. Technician A says a plug with a V-notch ground electrode will have two electric arcs jumping
across the spark plug gap each time the spark plug fires. Technician B says a spark plug gap
that is too wide requires higher voltage to jump the gap, which can cause a misfire. Who is
correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
17. While discussing electronic ignition systems, Technician A says an NPN transistor in the
PCM or ignition module controls primary current flow through the coil. Technician B says
coil saturation is controlled by the length of time the primary ignition current is turned on.
Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
18. Technician A says spark plugs are part of the secondary ignition circuit. Technician B says the
battery is part of the primary ignition circuit. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
19. EI systems are being discussed. Technician A says a waste spark system has one coil per
cylinder. Technician B says a coil-on-plug system uses a double-ended coil. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
20. Spark plug design is being discussed. Technician A says a plug with too short a reach makes it
difficult to attach the plug wire boot. Technician B says a plug with too long a reach may
cause preignition. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
21. Which of the following is not a type of electronic ignition system?

DLI [distributorless ignition] c. DI [distributor ignition] a.
DI [direct ignition] d. MAF [mass airflow] b.
ANS: A
DI [distributor ignition]
PTS: 1
22. Which of the following is NOT a spark plug thread diameter?

18 mm c. 12 mm a.
9/16 in. d. 14 mm b.
ANS: D
9/16 in.
PTS: 1
23. One of the advantages of a coil-on-plug type ignition system is that it eliminates the need for
______.
knock sensor [KS] c. crankshaft position sensor [CKP] a.
spark plug wires d. camshaft position sensor [CMP] b.
ANS: D
spark plug wires
PTS: 1
24. All the following elements except _____ are used in the spark plug center electrode to
increase plug life.
yttrium c. platinum a.
cesium d. iridium b.
ANS: D
cesium
PTS: 1
25. The heat range of a spark plug is indicated by ______.

the color of the insulator ribs a.
the number of insulator ribs b.
a code within the plug number imprinted on the side of the spark plug c.
ANS: C
a code within the plug number imprinted on the side of the spark plug
PTS: 1
26. Which of the following components is part of the primary and secondary ignition circuits?
battery c. spark plugs a.
ignition switch d. ignition coil b.
ANS: B
ignition coil
PTS: 1
27. Ignition coils are being discussed. Technician A says the primary coil is normally composed
of 100 to 200 turns of 20-gauge wire. Technician B says the secondary coil consists of 15,000
to 25,000, or more, turns of very fine copper wire. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
28. Which of the following is an advantage of EI ignition?

There are no moving parts, and therefore it requires little maintenance a.
It is possible to control the ignition of individual cylinders to meet specific needs b.
Mechanical timing adjustments are eliminated c.
All answers are correct d.
ANS: D
All answers are correct
PTS: 1
29. Two technicians are discussing waste spark type ignition systems. Technician A says that half
of the spark plugs in the system fire in reversed polarity [from the ground electrode to the
center electrode]. Technician B says that the two spark plugs are connected in series with the
coil. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
30. Which of the following is NOT a type of engine position sensor?

photoelectric [optical] c. Hall-effect a.
piezoresistive d. magnetic pulse generator b.
ANS: D
piezoresistive
PTS: 1
31. The hex size [socket size] used for tightening and loosing the spark plugs is either 5/8 in. or
______.
11/16 in. c. 19 mm a.
13/16 in. d. 22 mm b.
ANS: D
13/16 in.
PTS: 1
32. Resistor plugs are being discussed. Technician A says that if the original equipment resistor
plugs are replaced with nonresistor plugs, the engine will produce more power at high RPM.
Technician B says that if the original equipment resistor plugs are replaced with nonresistor
plugs, the engine will run smoother at low RPM. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. The ignition coil is essentially a pulse ____________________.
ANS: transformer
PTS: 1
2. The ____________________ on a spark plug help prevent electric arcing on the outside of
the insulator.
ANS: ribs
PTS: 1
3. Some spark plugs have ____________________-tipped electrodes to extend the life of the
plug.
ANS: platinum
PTS: 1
4. A ____________________ ignition system has one ignition coil per cylinder and also uses
spark plug wires.
ANS:
coil-near-plug
coil-by-plug
PTS: 1
5. If the required voltage to fire a spark plug is greater than the available voltage, the result is
known as a ____________________ condition.
ANS: misfire
PTS: 1
6. Spark plug cables contain fiber cores that act as electrical ____________________ in the
secondary ignition circuit.
ANS: resistors
PTS: 1
7. A Hall-effect switch generates a ____________________ wave voltage signal.
ANS: square
PTS: 1
8. Some engines use a ____________________ sensor designed with an LED, a phototransistor,

and a slotted disc to identify crankshaft position.
ANS:
photoelectric (optical)
photoelectric
optical
PTS: 1
9. When current flowing through a winding is at its maximum and the strength of its magnetic
field is also at its maximum, the winding is said to be ____________________.
ANS: saturated
PTS: 1
10. Electronic ignition systems with a coil for every two spark plugs use the
____________________ spark method of spark distribution.
ANS: waste
PTS: 1
11. A Hall-effect sensor has three wires connecting it to the PCM: (1) a 5- to 12-volt reference
voltage, (2) ground, and (3) ____________________.
ANS: signal voltage
PTS: 1
12. A magnetic pulse generator consists of two parts: a ____________________ and a pickup
coil.
ANS:
trigger wheel
reluctor
pulse ring
armature
timing core
PTS: 1
13. The period of time during which there is primary current flow through the ignition coil is
called ____________________.
ANS: dwell
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. Describe a coil-on-plug ignition system.
ANS:
It uses one coil for each cylinder, and each coil is mounted directly on the plug, with no plug
wires.
PTS: 1
2. Why is reserve voltage necessary in a secondary ignition system?
ANS:
To avoid a spark plug misfire, reserve voltage is available above normal voltage requirements
to compensate for higher cylinder pressures and increased resistance in the secondary circuit.
PTS: 1
3. What is an engine‘s firing order?
ANS:
The sequence in which the cylinders fire, beginning with cylinder #1. On a distributor ignition
engine, the arrangement of spark plug cables on the distributor cap must be in firing order
sequence.
PTS: 1
4. Describe a dual plug system.
ANS:
Each cylinder has a spark plug on the intake side of the combustion chamber and one on the
exhaust side. When ignition takes place in two locations within the combustion chamber,
more efficient combustion and cleaner emissions are possible. Two coil packs are used, one
for the intake side and the other for the exhaust side. Some engines fire only one plug per
cylinder during starting. The additional plug fires once the engine is running.
PTS: 1
5. By what factor is the heat range of a spark plug determined?
ANS:
The length of the insulator in contact with the spark plug shell.
PTS: 1
6. Explain how the spark plugs fire in a double-ended coil EI system.
ANS:
One spark plug is connected to each end of the coil‘s secondary winding; as one spark plug
fires at the top of that cylinder‘s compression stroke, the other plug fires a waste spark in the
companion cylinder, with reverse polarity, at the top of the companion cylinder‘s exhaust
stroke. During the next revolution, the roles are reversed.
PTS: 1
7. How are engine misfires detected?
ANS:
Misfires are detected by variations in crankshaft rotational speed for each cylinder. A high
data rate CKP sensor is used to detect engine misfires, and the CMP is used to identify which
cylinder is misfiring.
PTS: 1
8. Describe the term ―dwell time.‖
ANS:
The period of time during which there is primary current flowing through the ignition coil.
PTS: 1
9. Name various locations of sensing devices used to identify engine component position for
ignition timing.
ANS:
Sensing devices are positioned at the front, center, and rear of the crankshaft (flywheel); at the
camshaft timing chain cover; and/or within the distributor housing.
PTS: 1
10. What happens when the low-voltage current flow in the coil primary winding is interrupted
by the switching device?
ANS:
The switching device opens the primary winding circuit, and its magnetic field collapses,
inducing a high-voltage surge in the coil secondary winding.
PTS: 1
11. What is spark plug reach?
ANS:
The length of the spark plug shell from the contact surface at the seat to the bottom of the
shell, including both threaded and nonthreaded sections
PTS: 1
12. What is preignition?
ANS:
Preignition is a term used to describe abnormal combustion, which is caused by something
other than the heat of the spark.
PTS: 1
13. What is the function of the crankshaft position sensor [CKP]?
ANS:
The crankshaft sensor signal provides engine speed and crankshaft position information to the
computer. The CKP is the primary sensor for the ignition and fuel injection system.
PTS: 1
14. Describe a waste spark ignition system.
ANS:
One double-ended coil for every two cylinders. Each coil is connected to two companion
cylinders. Companion cylinders are those cylinders whose pistons reach TDC simultaneously.
When one cylinder is on the end of the compression stroke, the companion cylinder is on the
end of the exhaust stroke. Each coil fires once per engine revolution. One spark plug ignites
the fuel/air charge in one cylinder, the other spark is wasted on the exhaust stroke.
PTS: 1
15. Why is the correct spark plug heat range important?
ANS:
A spark plug needs to retain enough heat to clean itself between firings, but not so much that
it damages itself or causes preignition of the air/fuel mixture in the cylinder.
PTS: 1
Chapter 28—Ignition System Diagnosis and Service
TRUE/FALSE
1. A defective EI coil may cause cylinder misfiring.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. If a vacuum gauge shows a low but steady vacuum when the engine is at idle, the problem is a
noncommon type.
ANS: F PTS: 1
3. Detonation can cause physical damage to the pistons, valves, bearings, and spark plugs.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. All ignition system diagnosis should begin with a visual inspection.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. An ignition module may be damaged due to a poor electrical ground circuit.
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. A bad sensor ground may cause the same symptoms as a faulty sensor.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. EMI can be produced by the vehicle‘s primary ignition circuit.
ANS: F PTS: 1
8. Insufficient timing advance or retarded timing at higher engine speeds could cause hesitation
and poor fuel economy.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. The reluctor (or pole piece) of a magnetic pulse generator should be replaced as a
maintenance item when engine spark plugs are renewed.
ANS: F PTS: 1
10. An ignition control module may overheat if it is not securely mounted.
ANS: T PTS: 1
11. A misfire is also called incomplete combustion.
ANS: T PTS: 1
12. Preignition is the same as detonation.
ANS: F PTS: 1
13. All ignition system problems will set a DTC in the vehicle‘s PCM and can be read with a
scan tool.
ANS: F PTS: 1
14. Damaged spark plug threads in an aluminum cylinder head cannot be repaired. The head must
be replaced if the threads are damaged.
ANS: F PTS: 1
15. Gapping the spark plug is only necessary on used spark plugs. New spark plugs have their
gaps set at the factory.
ANS: F PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. On an oscilloscope, which section ends with the primary coil current off signal?
firing c. intermediate a.
both ―intermediate‖ and ―dwell‖ d. dwell b.
ANS: B
dwell
PTS: 1
2. Leaner air/fuel mixtures ______.

decrease the electrical resistance inside the cylinder and decrease the required firing a.
voltage
increase the electrical resistance inside the cylinder and increase the required firing b.
voltage
increase the electrical resistance inside the cylinder and decrease the required firing c.
voltage
have no measurable effect on cylinder resistance d.
ANS: B
increase the electrical resistance inside the cylinder and increase the required firing voltage
PTS: 1
3. Which of the following is NOT a cause of spark knock?

excessively lean air/fuel mixture c. excessively advanced ignition timing a.
high-octane fuel d. engine overheating b.
ANS: D
high-octane fuel
PTS: 1
4. Spark plug cables from consecutively firing cylinders should ______.

cross rather than run parallel to one another a.
run parallel rather than cross one another b.
cross and run parallel to one another c.
none of these answers is correct d.
ANS: A
cross rather than run parallel to one another
PTS: 1
5. Which of the following statements about carbon tracking is NOT correct?

Carbon tracking may occur inside a distributor cap a.
Carbon tracking indicates that high voltage has followed a low-resistance conductive path b.
Carbon tracking may cause a misfire c.
Carbon tracking usually occurs in the primary ignition circuit d.
ANS: D
Carbon tracking usually occurs in the primary ignition circuit
PTS: 1
6. Spark plug firing voltage should normally be ______.

3 to 13 kV c. 7 to 13 kV a.
none of these answers is correct d. less than 3 kV b.
ANS: A
7 to 13 kV
PTS: 1
7. During a coil output test, the firing line shown on the oscilloscope pattern should exceed
______ volts.
1,200 c. 12 a.
35,000 d. 350 b.
ANS: D
35,000
PTS: 1
8. Technician A performs a cylinder performance test [power balance test] to determine which
cylinder is misfiring. Technician B uses a vacuum gauge to pinpoint the misfiring cylinder.
Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
9. A ―cranks but does not start‖ problem on a waste spark type EI system is being diagnosed.
When a spark tester is connected to each coil and the starter is engaged, there is no spark.
Technician A says the crankshaft position sensor could be the problem. Technician B says the
PCM could be the problem. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
10. The firing lines on an oscilloscope are all abnormally low. Technician A says the problem
could be a faulty coil. Technician B says the problem could be a lean air/fuel mixture. Who is
correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
11. While testing a coil in an EI ignition system, Technician A says an infinite reading means that
the winding has zero resistance and is shorted. Technician B says the secondary winding in a
waste spark [doubled-ended] coil should be checked by connecting the meter across the two
secondary terminals. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
12. An ohmmeter connected to the leads of a pickup coil in a DI ignition system reads 14 ohms of
resistance. The reading indicates that the pickup coil ______.
is open c. is satisfactory a.
has high resistance d. is shorted b.
ANS: B
is shorted
PTS: 1
13. Ignition coil testing is being discussed. Technician A uses an ohmmeter to measure primary
and secondary resistance. Technician B uses an oscilloscope and a test spark plug to measure
maximum coil output voltage. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
14. Technician A says large amounts of EMI can collapse the field in a coil and cause a plug to
fire. Technician B says poor spark plug cable insulation may cause EMI. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
15. While discussing an ignition problem displayed on a scope primary ignition pattern,
Technician A says a worn distributor drive gear can cause an erratic transistor ON signal.
Technician B says if there are erratic voltage spikes at the transistor ON signal, the ignition
module may be faulty. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
16. Waste spark EI systems are being discussed. Technician A says a high-resistance spark plug
can affect the firing of its companion spark plug. Technician B says improper spark plug
torque can cause an engine misfire. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
17. Test equipment for checking the primary circuit is being discussed. Technician A says a logic
probe can be used. Technician B says a DMM can be used. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
18. Possible causes for a no-start condition on a coil-over-plug EI engine are being discussed.
Technician A says a faulty crankshaft sensor may prevent the engine from starting.
Technician B says a shorted ignition coil may be the cause. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
19. While discussing EI service, Technician A says the crankshaft sensor may be rotated to adjust
the basic ignition timing. Technician B says the crankshaft sensor may be moved to adjust the
clearance between the pickup coil and reluctor on some EI systems. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
20. A no-start condition on an EI system is being discussed. Technician A says to use a test spark
plug to determine whether the problem is in the ignition system. Technician B says that if a
noid light is connected to the injector harness and it pulses while the engine is cranked, the
triggering unit for the primary ignition circuit should be okay. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
21. Which of the following problems is NOT caused by a misfire?

poor fuel economy c. lack of power a.
excess exhaust emissions d. high idle speed b.
ANS: B
high idle speed
PTS: 1
22. Technician A says a fouled spark plug can cause a misfire. Technician B says a bad coil can
cause a misfire. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
23. To minimize EMI interference, sensor wires should be routed away from _____.
distributor caps c. spark plug wires a.
all answers are correct d. ignition coils b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
24. Crankshaft position sensors [CKP] are _____ type sensors.

Hall-effect a.
magnetic pulse generators b.
both ―Hall-effect‖ and ―magnetic pulse generators‖ c.
neither ―Hall-effect‖ nor ―magnetic pulse generators‖ d.
ANS: C
both ―Hall-effect‖ and ―magnetic pulse generators‖
PTS: 1
25. Which of the following is NOT the location of the ignition module?
inside the distributor a.
underneath the coil packs b.
on the steering column, behind the ignition switch c.
integral with the PCM d.
ANS: C
on the steering column, behind the ignition switch
PTS: 1
26. Technician A says a loose ignition module mount can cause intermittent misfires or no-start
conditions. Technician B says when installing a new ignition module, a small amount of heat
conductive grease should be applied to the mounting surfaces. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
27. Technician A says white or grayish powdery deposits on secondary cables at the point where
they cross or near metal parts indicate that the cables‘ insulation is faulty. Technician B says
if the spark plug wire for #2 cylinder is damaged and the other wires look good, replace only
the damaged wire. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
28. The dwell period on a modern electronic ignition system ______.

is fixed and does not change with engine RPM a.
increases [lengthens] as engine RPM increases b.
decreases [shortens] as engine RPM increases c.
is required d.
ANS: B
increases [lengthens] as engine RPM increases
PTS: 1
29. Most engines have a spark duration of approximately _____ milliseconds.

5.0 c. 0.5 a.
15.0 d. 1.5 b.
ANS: B
1.5
PTS: 1
30. If the spark line is totally flat, is longer than 2 ms, and is less than 500 volts, there is a good
chance that:
the plug is not firing a.
the air/fuel ratio is excessively lean b.
there is high resistance in the spark plug wires c.
the spark plug heat range is wrong for the engine d.
ANS: A
the plug is not firing.
PTS: 1
31. Which of the following is not a common cause of preignition?

faulty ignition coil a.
incandescent carbon deposits in the combustion chamber b.
faulty cooling system c.
too hot of a spark plug d.
ANS: A
faulty ignition coil
PTS: 1
32. Usually an engine is timed so that the number 1 spark plug fires several degrees _____.
BBDC [before bottom dead center] c. BTDC [before top dead center] a.
ABDC [after bottom dead center] d. ATDC [after top dead center] b.
ANS: A
BTDC [before top dead center]
PTS: 1
33. The air gap between the crankshaft position sensor [CKP] and the trigger wheel is measured
with a(n) _____.
inside micrometer c. wire gauge a.
dial indicator d. nonmagnetic feeler gauge b.
ANS: B
nonmagnetic feeler gauge
PTS: 1
34. Technician A removes plug wires by grasping the spark plug boot and gently twisting it off.
Technician B uses a 13/16 in. deep thinwall socket to remove spark plugs. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
35. What type of fouling occurs immediately following an overdue tune-up?

splash fouling c. wet fouling a.
glazing d. cold fouling b.
ANS: C
splash fouling
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. Mode ____________________ scan tool data displays the test values stored at the time a
particular monitor was completed. This data can be useful in engine misfire diagnosis.
ANS:
six
6
PTS: 1
2. Any hot spot within the combustion chamber can cause ____________________.
ANS: preignition
PTS: 1
3. An occasional glow around a spark plug cable, known as a ____________________ effect, is

not harmful but indicates that the cable should be replaced.
ANS: corona
PTS: 1
4. Carbon ____________________ is the formation of a line of carbonized dust between

distributor cap terminals or between a terminal and the distributor housing.
ANS: tracking
PTS: 1
5. If a distributor cap or rotor has a mild buildup of dirt or corrosion, it should be

____________________.
ANS: cleaned
PTS: 1
6. Spark duration is represented by the length of the spark line and is measured in
____________________.
ANS: milliseconds
PTS: 1
7. An oscilloscope shows electrical ____________________ changes over a given period of

time.
ANS: voltage
PTS: 1
8. The height of the ____________________ line in a secondary oscilloscope pattern represents

the amount of voltage needed to initiate a spark across the spark plug gap.
ANS: firing
PTS: 1
9. An exhaust gas analyzer will show higher than normal ____________________ when
ignition timing is not correct.
ANS:
hydrocarbons
HC
PTS: 1
10. Noise symptoms of overly advanced timing include ____________________ or engine

knock.
ANS: pinging
PTS: 1
11. The companion cylinder for #1 cylinder on a six-cylinder engine with a firing order of 153624
is cylinder # ____________________.
ANS:
6
six
PTS: 1
12. If the needle on a vacuum gauge drops significantly every two revolutions of the engine, the
fault is a ____________________ problem.
ANS: noncommon
PTS: 1
13. Some manufacturers recommend the use of special heat-conductive ____________________

grease between the control unit [ignition module] and its mounting surface.
ANS: silicone
PTS: 1
14. The slope of the spark line is a good indication of the ____________________.
ANS: air/fuel ratio
PTS: 1
15. Only engines equipped with a ____________________ may need to have their ignition
timing set or adjusted.
ANS: distributor
PTS: 1
16. An engine may start with a faulty camshaft sensor, but it may only run in the
____________________ mode because the fuel injectors cannot be synchronized without the
camshaft signal.
ANS:
fail-safe
limp-in
limp-home
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. Describe how to quick-check a knock sensor.
ANS:
Tap the engine block with a hammer while watching the ignition timing or looking at its
signal with a DMM or oscilloscope.
PTS: 1
2. Describe how to test the integrity of a suspect electrical connection.
ANS:
The integrity of a suspect connection can be tested by tapping, tugging, and wiggling the
wires while the engine is running.
PTS: 1
3. Identify various concerns that may affect the height of spark plug firing lines.
ANS:
The firing line is affected by anything that adds resistance to the secondary circuit. This
includes the condition of the spark plugs or the secondary circuit, engine temperature, fuel
mixture, and compression pressures. The voltage required to fire a spark plug increases when
the engine is under load.
PTS: 1
4. Identify various drivability problems that an ignition system misfire can cause.
ANS:
Lack of power, poor gas mileage, excessive exhaust emissions, and a rough running engine
PTS: 1
5. Describe two important precautions that should be taken during all ignition system tests.
ANS:
Turn the ignition switch off before disconnecting any system wiring, and do not touch any
exposed connections while the engine is cranking or running.
PTS: 1
6. What basic tools are used when checking a Hall-effect sensor?
ANS:
A voltmeter and steel feeler gauge or knife; a logic probe may also be used.
PTS: 1
7. Identify the appearance of a normal spark plug.
ANS:
The tip will have a minimum amount of deposits on it and will be colored light tan or gray.
PTS: 1
8. Name the three types of secondary circuit trace patterns available on an oscilloscope.
ANS:
Display (parade); raster; superimposed
PTS: 1
9. Describe a cylinder performance (balance) test.
ANS:
The analyzer momentarily stops the ignition system from firing one cylinder at a time. During
this brief time, the RPM drop is recorded. When a cylinder is not contributing to engine
power due to low compression or some other problem, there will be very little RPM drop
when that cylinder stops firing.
PTS: 1
10. Name the three categories of stress tests used to check for intermittent ignition component
problems.
ANS:
Stress tests include cold testing, heat testing, and moisture testing.
PTS: 1
11. What are the causes of detonation?

ANS:
Detonation is usually caused by excessively advanced ignition timing, engine overheating,
excessively lean mixtures, or the use of low-octane gasoline.
PTS: 1
12. What is the first step in diagnosing an ignition system problem?
ANS:
Gathering as much information as possible from the customer, then a careful visual inspection
PTS: 1
13. What is Mode #6 data?
ANS:
Mode #6 displays the test values stored at the time a particular monitor was completed. Mode
#6 data can be displayed on many scan tools.
PTS: 1
14. What problems typically cause DTCs that indicate a misfire at an individual cylinder (P0301,
P0302, P0303, etc.)?
ANS:
A dirty or defective fuel injector, a fouled spark plug, a bad coil, or an engine mechanical
problem
PTS: 1
Chapter 29—Fuel Delivery Systems
TRUE/FALSE
1. In a returnless system, the pressure regulator is in the fuel tank and excess fuel is released to
the tank.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. All modern fuel tanks can only be filled to 90 percent of their capacity.
ANS: T PTS: 1
3. Fuel tank vapors are vented through the fuel filler cap.
ANS: F PTS: 1
4. All fuel tank fittings are the threaded type.
ANS: F PTS: 1
5. The fuel strainer serves as a filter, stopping any rust or dirt that may be in the fuel from
entering into the fuel pump.
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. Most current fuel pumps are installed inside the fuel tank.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. The fuel pump check valve is normally located in the fuel rail.
ANS: F PTS: 1
8. All fuel tanks have a liquid vapor separator.
ANS: T PTS: 1
9. Copper tubing can be used to replace steel tubing for fuel lines.
ANS: F PTS: 1
10. The negative battery cable should be disconnected before working on the fuel system.
ANS: T PTS: 1
11. All current fuel tank filler tubes have a built-in restrictor that prevents the entry of the larger
leaded fuel delivery nozzle at gas pumps.
ANS: T PTS: 1
12. All quick-disconnect fuel line fittings are hand releasable and do not require special tools to
disconnect.
ANS: F PTS: 1
13. A loose gas cap cannot cause the MIL light to turn on.
ANS: F PTS: 1
14. During its evaporative system integrity test, the canister vent solenoid is open to vent the
entire evaporative system.
ANS: F PTS: 1
15. Some vehicles have two fuel pumps: an in-tank pump and a second pump mounted under the
vehicle.
ANS: T PTS: 1
16. On modern vehicles, the fuel pump is shut off when the air bag is deployed.
ANS: T PTS: 1
17. On a GM vehicle, a defective fuel pump relay will prevent the engine from running.
ANS: F PTS: 1
18. A scan tool can be used to turn on the fuel pump when the engine is not running.
ANS: T PTS: 1
19. Some states, such as Connecticut and Massachusetts, mandate a gas cap check as part of the
annual emissions tests.
ANS: T PTS: 1
20. All modern vehicles use a threaded, removable gas cap.
ANS: F PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A high fuel pressure reading is typically caused by a faulty fuel ______.

filter c. pump a.
tank d. pressure regulator b.
ANS: B
pressure regulator
PTS: 1
2. Technician A says low fuel pressure can be caused by a restricted fuel filter. Technician B
says low fuel pressure can be caused by a kinked fuel return line. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
3. What class of fire extinguisher should be used on gasoline fires?

class C c. class A a.
class D d. class B b.
ANS: B
class B
PTS: 1
4. Residual fuel pressure is being discussed. Technician A says remove the fuel filter hose and
apply compressed air to the fuel line to push the residual fuel back into the fuel tank.
Technician B says to relieve the residual pressure by connecting a fuel gauge with a bleed
valve to the Shrader valve. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
5. Fuel tanks may be constructed of all the following EXCEPT:

plastic c. aluminum a.
brass d. steel b.
ANS: D
brass
PTS: 1
6. The first step in removing a fuel tank is to ______.

remove the negative battery cable c. drain the tank a.
raise the vehicle on a lift d. loosen the retaining straps b.
ANS: C
remove the negative battery cable
PTS: 1
7. Fuel line fittings are being discussed. Technician A says that O-rings are used on some fuel
line fittings. Technician B says that clamps are used on some systems. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
8. Fuel lines are being discussed. Technician A says when installing flexible tubing, always use
new clamps. Technician B says ordinary rubber hose may be used to replace a kinked steel
fuel line. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
9. Which of the following is a typical fuel filter replacement interval?

50,000 miles (80,470 km) c. 30,000 miles (48,280 km) a.
15,000 miles (24,140 km) d. 100,000 miles (160,000 km) b.
ANS: A
30,000 miles (48,280 km)
PTS: 1
10. Fuel pressure readings are being discussed. Technician A says high fuel pressure can be
caused by a defective pressure regulator. Technician B says low fuel pressure can be caused
by a defective pressure regulator. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
11. The fuel pressure regulator on a returnless fuel system is located ______.
inside the fuel tank a.
on the end of the fuel rail b.
on the fuel filter inlet c.
no where—a returnless system has no pressure regulator d.
ANS: A
inside the fuel tank
PTS: 1
12. Technician A says the best method for permanently solving a leaking metal fuel tank is to
replace the tank. Technician B says a leaking plastic fuel tank can sometimes be repaired.
Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
13. When draining a fuel tank, Technician A drains the fuel into plastic antifreeze containers then
caps them tightly to prevent leaks. Technician B drains the fuel into approved gasoline storage
containers. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
14. Technician A says the gas cap is equipped with a pressure release valve that opens if there is
excess vapor pressure in the fuel tank. This prevents tank ballooning. Technician B says the
gas cap is equipped with a vacuum relief valve that opens if there is an excessive amount of
vacuum in the fuel tank. This prevents tank collapse. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
15. OBDII evaporative system integrity testing is being discussed. Technician A says the integrity
check is done by creating a vacuum in the tank and measuring how well it holds the vacuum.
Technician B says the fuel tank pressure (FTP) sensor is a transducer that converts the
absolute pressure in the fuel tank into an input for the PCM. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
16. A vehicle with a leaking nylon fuel supply line is being repaired. Technician A says replace
the nylon fuel line with a section of double-wall steel fuel line, using short lengths of rubber
fuel hose and screw clamps to connect to the filter and fuel tank to the steel line. Technician B
says use an OEM nylon fuel line assembly. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
17. A plugged fuel filter will cause ______.

hesitation on acceleration c. high speed surge a.
all answers are correct d. loss of power at high speed [cut out] b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
18. The fuel filter on a modern car is typically mounted ______.

on the intake manifold c. under the car a.
on the side of the engine block d. on the end of the fuel rail b.
ANS: A
under the car
PTS: 1
19. Technician A says a pressure relief valve opens if the fuel supply line is restricted and pump
pressure becomes very high. Technician B says the check valve in the pump prevents fuel
from draining out of the fuel system and back into the fuel tank. This helps holds residual
pressure in the fuel lines after the pump is turned off. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
20. On a modern common rail diesel (DI) direct injection system fuel pressure is typically ______
psi.
2,600 c. 26 a.
26,000 d. 260 b.
ANS: D
26,000
PTS: 1
21. In Chrysler EFI systems, the ASD relay [automatic shutdown] controls the power to the
______.
positive primary coil terminal c. fuel pump a.
all answers are correct d. injectors b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
22. Technician A says the inertia switch has a reset button that must be depressed for at least one
second before the pump will operate again. Technician B says the inertia switch is triggered
by the ABS control module. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
23. Technician A connects a fuel pressure gauge to the Schrader valve on the fuel rail. Technician
B connects the gauge to the fuel lines by inserting a tee adapter between the fuel filter and the
fuel rail. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
24. If twenty inches of vacuum is applied to the fuel pressure regulator while the fuel pump is
running, the fuel pressure should _____.
hold steady c. increase a.
none of these answers is correct d. decrease b.
ANS: A
increase
PTS: 1
25. Technician A says on some vehicles the fuel pressure is monitored by a fuel rail pressure
sensor and the output of the fuel pump is controlled by the PCM through pulse-width
modulation. Technician B says all fuel pumps on late-model vehicles are controlled by the
PCM according to inputs received on the CAN bus and other specific sensors.Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
26. A loss of residual fuel pressure immediately after engine shutdown could cause ______.
loss of power at high speed c. surging a.
excessive emissions d. hard starting b.
ANS: B
hard starting
PTS: 1
27. A fuel system that runs at 35 to 50 psi should draw around _____ amps of current.
9 to 13 c. 2 to 4 a.
15 to 18 d. 4 to 9 b.
ANS: B
4 to 9
PTS: 1
28. A vehicle is being diagnosed with a low fuel pressure problem. A fuel pump current test
reveals higher than normal current flow. Technician A says the vehicle may have a clogged
fuel filter. Technician B says the fuel pump ground wire may be loose or corroded. Who is
correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
29. A no start/no fuel pressure condition is being diagnosed. When a test light is connected to the
pump positive terminal, there is no voltage when the engine is cranked by the starter. What
could cause this problem?
defective fuel pressure regulator c. defective neutral safety switch a.
defective fuel pump relay d. bad fuel pump ground b.
ANS: D
defective fuel pump relay
PTS: 1
30. Gas cap testing is being discussed. Technician A says the tester applies twenty inches of
vacuum to the cap and measures its rate of leakage. Technician B says if the wrong adapter
was used, the cap will fail the test even if it is good. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
31. Which of the following problems could NOT cause the fuel pressure to drops off quickly after
the engine and ignition are turned off.
leaking injector a.
internally leaking fuel pump check valve b.
internally leaking fuel pressure regulator c.
restricted fuel filter d.
ANS: D
restricted fuel filter
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. On many vehicles, the ____________________ must be removed to replace the fuel pump.
ANS: fuel tank
PTS: 1
2. When a vehicle will not start because of no fuel delivery, the first check should be the
____________________.
ANS: fuel level
PTS: 1
3. Fuel pumps should be tested for ____________________ and ____________________.
ANS:
pressure, volume
volume, pressure
PTS: 1
4. A restricted fuel filter will cause ____________________ than normal fuel pressure.
ANS: lower
PTS: 1
5. The fuel strainer is sometimes referred to as a ____________________.
ANS: sock
PTS: 1
6. If a vehicle is to be stored for several months, a fuel ____________________ should be

added to the gasoline in the fuel tank.
ANS: stabilizer
PTS: 1
7. An in-tank electric pump is usually the ____________________ type.
ANS: rotary
PTS: 1
8. A(n) ____________________ switch shuts off the fuel pump if the vehicle in involved in a
collision or rolls over.
ANS: inertia
PTS: 1
9. A pressure ____________________ can be used to connect a DMM (or lab scope) to the fuel
system to measure fuel pressure.
ANS: transducer
PTS: 1
10. Quick-disconnect fuel line fittings are sealed by a(n) ____________________ inside the
female connector.
ANS: O-ring
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. What materials are fuel lines normally made from?
ANS:
Steel, nylon, or synthetic rubber
PTS: 1
2. How can you tell whether the fuel pump runs when the ignition switch is turned on?
ANS:
Listen for a buzzing noise.
PTS: 1
3. What is the purpose of the pump check valve?
ANS:
To maintain residual fuel pressure at the injectors. Each time the engine is shut off, the check
valve prevents fuel from draining out of the fuel system and back into the fuel tank.
PTS: 1
4. Name the two types of threaded fuel line fittings.
ANS:
Compression; double-flare
PTS: 1
5. Where in the fuel system is a fuel filter usually found?
ANS:
Between the fuel tank and the engine
PTS: 1
6. What controls [turns on and off] the fuel pump on most late-model vehicles?
ANS:
The computer (PCM)
PTS: 1
7. If the fuel system does not have a test port, how can you safely relieve residual fuel pressure?
ANS:
The pressure can be relieved by loosening the fuel tank filler cap to relieve any tank vapor
pressure. Then remove the fuel pump fuse. Start and run the engine until the fuel in the lines
is used up and the engine stops. Crank the engine with the starter for about three seconds to
relieve any remaining fuel pressure.
PTS: 1
8. What is the first step in removing a fuel tank from a vehicle?
ANS:
Remove the negative cable from the battery.
PTS: 1
9. Why are most fuel pumps in modern vehicles located inside the fuel tank?
ANS:
Fuel pumps are mounted inside the tank to reduce noise, keep them cool, and keep the entire
fuel line pressurized to prevent premature fuel evaporation.
PTS: 1
10. Name three situations where the PCM automatically turns off the fuel pump.
ANS:
The ignition key is turned to the run position and the engine is not cranked or running within
two seconds.
The air bag is deployed.
The engine speed exceeds a predetermined limit [rev limiter].
The vehicle experiences long, high-speed, closed throttle coast down.
A fuel line has ruptured [engine has stalled].
The speed of the vehicle exceeds the speed rating of the tires.
PTS: 1
11. How can an electric fuel pump be safe when there is a great potential for sparks between an
electric motor‘s armature and brushes?
ANS:
The in-tank fuel pump is safe because there is no oxygen to support combustion in the tank.
PTS: 1
12. The arrow printed on a fuel filter must face in what direction?
ANS:
In the direction of fuel flow
PTS: 1
13. A fuel pressure test reveals higher than normal fuel pressure. How would you determine the
root cause of the problem?
ANS:
Disconnect the fuel return line at the tank. Use a length of hose to route the returning fuel into
a container. Start the engine and note the pressure reading at the engine. If fuel pressure is
now within specifications, check for an obstruction in the return system at the tank. If the
pressure is still high, disconnect the return line at the pressure regulator. If the pressure drops
to normal, there is a restriction in the return line between the pressure regulator and the tank.
If the pressure remains high, the problem lies within the pressure regulator.
PTS: 1
Chapter 30—Electronic Fuel Injection
TRUE/FALSE
1. Idle speed control is a function of the PCM.
ANS: T PTS: 1
2. The mass airflow (MAF) sensor measures changes in the intake manifold pressure that result
from changes in engine load and speed.
ANS: F PTS: 1
3. The strength of the mass airflow (MAF) signal is determined by the energy needed to keep
the heated sensing element at a constant temperature above the incoming ambient air
temperature.
ANS: T PTS: 1
4. CPI [central multiport injection] injectors are located in the lower half of the intake manifold.
ANS: T PTS: 1
5. PFI systems use at least one injector at each cylinder.
ANS: T PTS: 1
6. Today the most commonly used EFI system is the mass airflow (MAF) system. This system
relies on a MAF sensor that directly measures the amount of intake air.
ANS: T PTS: 1
7. Because modern engines heat up rapidly, heated oxygen sensors (HO2S) are not needed.
ANS: F PTS: 1
8. During closed loop engine mode, injector pulse width is controlled according to
predetermined parameters held in the PCM‘s memory.
ANS: F PTS: 1
9. Fuel injectors are electromechanical devices.
ANS: T PTS: 1
10. GDI [gasoline direct injection] systems allow engines to run at very lean air/fuel ratios and
eliminate the need for EGR systems.
ANS: F PTS: 1
11. Bottom-feed injectors used in throttle body injection [TBI] systems are able to use fuel
pressures as low as 10 psi.
ANS: T PTS: 1
12. The auxiliary air valve is controlled by the PCM.
ANS: F PTS: 1
13. OBD-II systems have only one O2S [oxygen sensor] in the exhaust system, located after the
catalytic converter (downstream).
ANS: F PTS: 1
14. The PCM may order a richer mixture when the engine is overheating.
ANS: T PTS: 1
15. Fuel trim can be monitored for diagnostic purposes.
ANS: T PTS: 1
16. To prevent fuel boiling in the TBI assembly, the fuel pressure is kept high.
ANS: T PTS: 1
17. All throttle body assemblies should be cleaned whenever the air filter is changed.
ANS: F PTS: 1
18. The throttle stop screw on modern throttle bodies is used to adjust the idle speed.
ANS: F PTS: 1
19. To meet OBD-II regulations, central multiport injection (CMFI) systems are equipped with
solenoids at the poppet injectors that allow the fuel flow to an individual cylinder to be shut
off when the PCM detects misfire.
ANS: T PTS: 1
20. Nearly all of today‘s diesel systems have a common rail injection system in which the
injectors are directly controlled by the PCM.
ANS: T PTS: 1
21. MAP output is the same as what is measured on a vacuum gauge. When intake vacuum is
high, MAP voltage is high.
ANS: F PTS: 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Fuel injector firing is being discussed. Technician A says SFI systems control each injector
separately so that it fires just before the intake valve opens. Technician B says sequential
injector firing is more accurate than multiport systems. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
2. The throttle body of a port fuel injected engine may include any of the following components
EXCEPT:
idle air control motor a.
single or double bores with throttle b.
plates
throttle position sensor c.
oxygen sensor d.
ANS: D
oxygen sensor
PTS: 1
3. Fuel injectors may be controlled ______.

sequentially c. in pairs or groups a.
all answers are correct d. all at once b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
4. An O-ring at the base of a fuel injector ______.

seals the injector to its mounting position a.
provides thermal insulation to prevent the formation of vapor bubbles b.
dampens potentially damaging vibrations c.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
5. Fuel injectors are ______.

top fuel-feeding devices a.
bottom fuel-feeding devices b.
both ―top fuel-feeding devices‖ and ―bottom fuel-feeding devices‖ c.
neither ―top fuel-feeding devices‖ nor ―bottom fuel-feeding devices‖ d.
ANS: C
both ―top fuel-feeding devices‖ and ―bottom fuel-feeding devices‖
PTS: 1
6. In closed loop, the PCM adjusts the pulse width according to inputs from a variety of sensors,
but primarily the _____.
IAT [intake air temperature] c. TP [throttle position] a.
O2S [oxygen sensor] d. ECT [engine coolant temperature] b.
ANS: D
O2S [oxygen sensor]
PTS: 1
7. Typical fuel injector pulse widths range from _____ to _____ milliseconds.
100; 1,000 c. 1; 10 a.
1,000; 10,000 d. 10; 100 b.
ANS: A
1; 10
PTS: 1
8. Technician A says an air/fuel ratio sensor responds to minor changes in the air/fuel mixture.
Technician B says that when an air/fuel ratio sensor is used on an OBD-II vehicle, both the
upstream and downstream sensors must be air/fuel ratio type sensors. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
9. While cranking a fuel injected engine and holding the accelerator to the wide-open throttle
position, the air/fuel mixture will be ______.
rich c. lean a.
stoichiometric d. normal b.
ANS: A
lean
PTS: 1
10. Which of the following is NOT representative of sequential fuel injection systems?
They have one injector per cylinder a.
Injectors are located in the intake manifold ports b.
All injectors receive the same PCM commands simultaneously c.
None of these answers is correct d.
ANS: C
All injectors receive the same PCM commands simultaneously
PTS: 1
11. While discussing PFI systems, Technician A says the PCM provides the proper air/fuel ratio
by controlling the fuel pressure. Technician B says the PCM provides the proper air/fuel ratio
by controlling the injector pulse width. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
12. Technician A says the computer uses the TP sensor and ECT sensor signals to determine the
amount of air entering the engine in a speed-density system. Technician B says the computer
uses the TP sensor and oxygen sensor signals to determine the amount of air entering the
engine in a speed-density system. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
13. Technician A says in a returnless fuel system, the pressure regulator is mounted on the fuel
rail. Technician B says in a returnless fuel system the pressure regulator, fuel sender, and
pump assembly are combined in one unit inside the fuel tank. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
14. Technician A says the vacuum hose on the fuel pressure regulator of a PFI system is
connected to the intake manifold. Technician B says the fuel pressure regulator of a TBI
injection system doesn‘t need a vacuum hose to regulate pressure because the injectors are
located above the throttle plate where the air pressure is constant. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
15. While discussing central multiport injection (CMFI), Technician A says the poppet nozzles
are opened by the computer. Technician B says the poppet nozzles are opened by fuel
pressure. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
16. Technician A says pulsation dampers reduce the pressure pulsations caused by the rapid
opening and closing of the fuel injectors. Technician B says the damper helps to reduce fuel
noise and maintains pressure during engine cooldown. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
17. Technician A says throttle-by-wire systems [ETC] eliminate the need for a cruise control
actuator. Technician B says ETC also allows the PCM to be more effective when limiting
engine and vehicle speeds. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
18. Technician A says a throttle body may house one fuel injector. Technician B says a throttle
body may house two fuel injectors. Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
19. Technician A says TBI systems use top fuel-feeding injectors. Technician B says PFI systems
use bottom fuel-feeding injectors. Who is correct?
ANS: D
neither A nor B
PTS: 1
20. Technician A says piezoelectric injectors rely on stacked crystals that expand when a voltage
is applied. Technician B says piezoelectric injectors are slower acting than solenoid-type
injectors. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
21. Each fuel injector has a _____-wire connector.

three c. one a.
four d. two b.
ANS: B
two
PTS: 1
22. The longest injector pulse width occurs during ______.

acceleration c. deceleration a.
cold starting d. idle b.
ANS: D
cold starting
PTS: 1
23. IAC [idle air control] valves are operated by a ______.

stepper motor c. vacuum servo a.
all answers are correct d. reversible DC electric motor b.
ANS: C
stepper motor
PTS: 1
24. The most important sensor in the fuel management system is _____.
oxygen sensor c. MAF [mass airflow] a.
CKP [crankshaft position sensor] d. MAP [manifold absolute pressure] b.
ANS: D
CKP [crankshaft position sensor]
PTS: 1
25. Which sensor synchronizes the firing of the injectors and determines when piston number 1 is
on the compression stroke?
TPS [throttle position sensor] c. CKP [crankshaft position sensor] a.
VSS [vehicle speed sensor] d. CMP [camshaft position sensor] b.
ANS: B
CMP [camshaft position sensor]
PTS: 1
26. Technician A says the oxygen sensor (O2S) detects misfires by monitoring the amount of
unburned fuel in the exhaust system. Technician B says a heating element inside the sensor
allows the sensor to reach operating temperature quickly and to maintain its temperature
during periods of idling or low engine load. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
27. A sudden increase in TP voltage tells the PCM to _____ to prevent hesitation and stumbling
during acceleration.
momentarily enrich the mixture c. advance base ignition timing a.
open the EGR valve d. retract the IAC valve pintle b.
ANS: C
momentarily enrich the mixture
PTS: 1
28. Fuel trim is being discussed. Technician A says a positive fuel-trim value means the PCM
detects a lean mixture and is increasing the pulse width to add more fuel to the mixture.
Technician B says LTFT [long-term fuel trim] is erased when the ignition is turned off. Who
is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
29. Technician A says when the ECT sensor detects low engine temperature, the PCM decreases
the injection pulse width. Technician B says when the TP sensor detects a sudden increase in
throttle angle, the PCM increases the injectors‘ pulse width. Who is correct?
ANS: B
B only
PTS: 1
30. In most TBI systems, the fuel pressure is maintained at _____.

30 to 45 psi (210 to 315 kPa) c. 2 to 7 psi (14 to 49 kPa) a.
60 to 125 psi (420 to 875 kPa) d. 10 to 25 psi (70 to 172 kPa) b.
ANS: B
10 to 25 psi (70 to 172 kPa)
PTS: 1
31. Only _____ meets the requirements of OBD II regulations.

TPI [tuned port injection] c. MPI [multipoint injection] a.
SFI [sequential fuel injection] d. TBI [throttle body injection] b.
ANS: D
SFI [sequential fuel injection]
PTS: 1
32. If the throttle is held wide open while the engine is cranked over by the starter motor, the fuel
management system will enter _____ mode.
clear flood c. closed loop a.
maximum fuel delivery d. open loop b.
ANS: C
clear flood
PTS: 1
33. Technician A says the fuel pressure regulator in a PFI system senses manifold vacuum and
continually adjusts the fuel pressure to maintain a constant pressure drop across the injector.
Technician B says the pressure regulator in a PFI system is designed to provide a constant
pressure to the fuel injector throughout the range of engine loads and speeds. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
34. Which of the following is NOT a component of a throttle-by-wire system?

throttle control motor c. accelerator pedal position sensor a.
IAC motor [idle air control] d. throttle position sensor b.
ANS: D
IAC motor [idle air control]
PTS: 1
35. A CPI [central multiport injection] fuel injection system for a six-cylinder engine has ______.
a single fuel pressure regulator c. only one injector solenoid a.
all answers are correct d. six poppet nozzles b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
36. Technician A says an SFI is more efficient than an MPI injection because fuel is injected only
when the intake valve is open, so the fuel can‘t condense when the intake valve is closed.
Technician B says an MPI injection system can shut down the injector for a misfiring
cylinder, preventing catalytic converter overheating. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
37. Which of the following is NOT an operating mode of a GDI [gasoline direct injection]
engine?
stoichiometric mode c. idle mode a.
lean burn [stratified] mode d. full-power mode b.
ANS: A
idle mode
PTS: 1
38. Technician A says in order to meet OBD standards, diesel control systems use many of the
same inputs as a gasoline engine (such as the MAP, IAT, MAF, TP, CKP, and CMP sensors).
Technician B says the pressure in the fuel rail of a modern common rail diesel engine can
range from 2,000 psi (138 bar) to 25,000 psi (1,724 bar). Who is correct?
ANS: C
both A and B
PTS: 1
39. Technician A says the air/fuel ratio of a GDI [gasoline direct injection] engine can be as high
as 60 to 1. Technician B says because the air/fuel ratios are so lean, GDI engines require
lower compression ratios to prevent detonation. Who is correct?
ANS: A
A only
PTS: 1
40. A fuel injection system that uses a MAP sensor [manifold absolute pressure] to determine the
amount of air entering the engine is called a _____-type injection system.
stoichiometric c. common rail a.
speed density d. mass airflow b.
ANS: D
speed density
PTS: 1
41. The fuel pressure regulator can be located _____.

inside the fuel tank c. on the throttle body a.
all answers are correct d. on the fuel rail b.
ANS: D
PTS: 1
42. In a GDI [gasoline direct injection] system, the tip of the injector is located ______.
in the intake port c. inside the combustion chamber a.
in the intake manifold plenum d. on the throttle body b.
ANS: A
inside the combustion chamber
PTS: 1
COMPLETION
1. In TBI, MFI, and SFI systems, the fuel pressure must be high enough to prevent fuel
____________________.
ANS:
boiling
vaporization
PTS: 1
2. The length of time an injector is energized is called the ____________________ width.
ANS: pulse
PTS: 1
3. A speed-density EFI system computer determines the amount of air entering the engine from
the ____________________ sensor and engine rpm input signals.
ANS:
MAP
manifold absolute pressure
PTS: 1
4. The ____________________ in a TBI system is designed to provide a constant pressure on

the fuel injector throughout the range of engine loads and speeds.
ANS: pressure regulator
PTS: 1
5. The high-pressure fuel pump used in GDI [gasoline direct injection] is driven by the
____________________.
ANS: camshaft
PTS: 1
6. ____________________ systems inject fuel above the throttle plates.
ANS:
TBI
Throttle body injection
PTS: 1
7. ____________________ systems inject gasoline directly into the cylinders.
ANS:
GDI
Gasoline direct injection
PTS: 1
8. The ____________________ receives signals from all the system sensors, processes them,
and transmits programmed electrical pulses to the fuel injectors.
ANS:
PCM
powertrain control module
PTS: 1
9. In ____________________ systems, the injectors are grouped together in pairs or groups, and
these pairs or groups of injectors are turned on at the same time.
ANS:
MPI
multiport fuel injection
PTS: 1
10. In a GDI system, the fuel is injected at pressures above ____________________ psi.
ANS: 400
PTS: 1
11. The ideal, or stoichiometric mixture of air and fuel for a gasoline engine is
____________________ to 1.
ANS: 14.7
PTS: 1
12. A mass airflow-type fuel injection system uses a ____________________ sensor to determine
the amount of air entering the engine.
ANS:
MAF
mass airflow
PTS: 1
13. The IAC system uses a ____________________ motor to retract or extend the IAC valve.
ANS: stepper
PTS: 1
14. The ____________________ in a PFI system controls the amount of air that enters the engine
as well as the amount of vacuum in the intake manifold.
ANS: throttle body
PTS: 1
15. The injectors on a modern port fuel injection system receive fuel from the
____________________.
ANS: fuel rail
PTS: 1
16. The ____________________ helps to maintain constant fuel pressure, reduces fuel noise, and
maintains pressure during engine cool down.
ANS: pulsation damper
PTS: 1
17. The ____________________ system controls idle speed by opening and closing a bypass
passage in the throttle body in response to commands from the PCM.
ANS:
IAC
idle air control
PTS: 1
ESSAY
1. Explain the major differences between throttle body injectors and port fuel injectors.
ANS:
Throttle body injectors spray fuel into the airstream above the throttle plates, and port fuel
injectors spray fuel in the intake ports.
PTS: 1
2. Why are SFI injection systems required on modern vehicles?
ANS:
To meet OBD-II regulations, SFI systems are capable of turning off the injector at a misfiring
cylinder. This protects the catalytic converter from damage by overheating.
PTS: 1
3. Identify the some of the advantages of gasoline direct injection (GDI) systems.
ANS:
Increases fuel efficiency
Provides higher power output
Increases the engine‘s volumetric efficiency
Lowers engine thermal losses
Decreases emissions (NOx may increase if combustion temperatures go too high)
Allows the engine to have high compression without the need to use high-octane fuel
Reduces most of the turbo lag when used with a turbocharger
PTS: 1
4. Define fuel injection.
ANS:
Fuel injection is the spraying or injecting of fuel into the engine‘s intake manifold, intake
ports, or directly into the cylinder.
PTS: 1
5. Explain the basic operation of a CMFI system.
ANS:
A central multiport fuel injection system is designed with a central injector assembly mounted
in the lower half of the intake manifold to control the fuel flow to individual poppet nozzles.
PTS: 1
6. Describe the purpose of a manifold absolute pressure (MAP) sensor.
ANS:
The MAP (manifold absolute pressure) sensor measures changes in the intake manifold
pressure.
PTS: 1
7. Explain how the computer controls the air/fuel ratio on an EFI system during closed loop.
ANS:
During closed loop, the computer uses the O 2 sensor, in addition to other inputs, to determine
the injector pulse width.
PTS: 1
8. Describe the purpose of an ECT signal on an EFI system.
ANS:
The ECT senses engine coolant temperature and provides an input signal to the PCM; the
PCM uses the ECT signal to modify the air/fuel ratio for various engine temperatures.
PTS: 1
9. Identify the purpose and two designs of mass airflow sensors.
ANS:
To measure the amount and density of the intake air, either a hot wire or hot film mass airflow
sensor can be used in certain EFI systems.
PTS: 1
10. What is meant by sequential firing of fuel injectors?
ANS:
Sequential firing refers to the PCM control of turning individual port injectors on and off in
relation to the opening of the intake valves.
PTS: 1
11. Name three advantages of a throttle-by-wire [ETC] system.
ANS:
ETC systems eliminate the need for a throttle cable and linkage.
Improved driveability, increased fuel efficiency, and decreased emissions.
ETC eliminates the need for an IAC valve and idle air orifice.
ETC eliminates cruise control actuators while providing improved speed control.
ETC also allows the PCM to be more effective when limiting engine and vehicle speeds.
ETC is also used in automatic traction control systems.
Improved shift quality. The PCM can alter throttle position when the transmission is shifting
gears to improve shift quality.
PTS: 1
12. What is the difference between open loop and closed loop mode?
ANS:
In open loop mode, the injector pulse width is determined by inputs from the CKP, MAP or
MAF, ECT, IAT, TPS, and other sensors; but the system does not use information from the
O2S [oxygen sensor] in the calculation. During open loop under most operating conditions,
the system is designed to run slightly rich.
In closed loop operation, the system uses all the sensors used in open loop mode and also uses
information from the O2S [oxygen sensor] to adjust the fuel trim. During closed loop
operation, the air/fuel ratio is adjusted to maintain an average of 14.7:1 or stoichiometric
ratio.
PTS: 1
13. Name five sensors that are used by the PCM to determine the proper injector pulse width.
ANS:
CKP [crankshaft position sensor]
CMP [camshaft position sensor]
MAP [manifold absolute pressure]
MAF [mass airflow]
ECT [engine coolant temperature]
IAT [intake air temperature]
TP [throttle position]
O2S [oxygen sensor]
PTS: 1
14. When does a GDI [gasoline direct injection] system run in lean burn mode?
ANS:
The engine runs in the lean mode when the vehicle is cruising with a very light load.

Chapter 15-Basics of Electrical Systems: True/False

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Chapter 15-Basics of Electrical Systems: True/False

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There should be no evidence of fluid leakage.

Turn the fan clutch by hand; it should have

9. What are the component parts of a radiator?

1. Electricity is the flow of protons from one atom to another.

5. Electromotive force is measured in volts.

7. One watt is equal to one volt multiplied by one ampere.

15. Alternating current constantly changes in voltage and direction.

1. What is the name of the formula E = I x R?

2. Which type of resistor is commonly used in automotive circuits?

4. The unit for measuring electrical current is _____.

5. The unit for measuring electrical resistance is _____.

6. The unit for measuring electrical pressure (force) is _____.

7. Which of the following is a source of energy in an automobile‘s electrical system?

8. In the formula E = I x R, E represents _____.

9. In the formula E = I x R, I represents_____.

10. In the formula E = I x R, R represents_____.

17. All the following are used as circuit protection EXCEPT:

23. Which statement concerning series circuits is NOT true?

24. Which of the statements concerning parallel circuits is NOT true?

26. All the following are variable resistors EXCEPT:

27. A momentary contact switch is used to operate the _____.

28. Secondary wire is used to power _____.

30. The function of a resistor in an electrical circuit is to limit _____.

31. The voltage in a hybrid vehicle can rang up to _____ volts.

1. In a series circuit, current is always ____________________ throughout the circuit.

2. The resistance of the load(s) in an AC [alternating current] circuit is called

3. Electrons have a ____________________ charge.

4. An atom that has lost an electron has a ____________________ charge.

5. Electrical power is measured in ____________________.

6. ____________________ are materials with a low resistance to the flow of current.

7. ____________________ are materials that resist the flow of current.

8. The current in an electrical circuit ____________________ when the resistance increases.

10. Electromotive force is usually called ____________________.

12. As temperature increases, the resistance of a NTC [negative temperature coefficient]

13. A circuit that is incomplete is called a(n) ____________________ circuit.

1. Name the four basic components of all electrical circuits.

2. Describe the formula for power (Watt‘s law).

3. What factors affect the resistance of a copper wire?

4. Why is a relay used in a circuit?

9. Identify the four basic parts of a typical automobile electrical circuit.

10. Describe the difference between alternating and direct current.

11. What is electromagnetic induction?

12. What is the difference between voltage and current?

2. High resistance in a circuit causes decreased current flow.

3. A wiring diagram shows the actual position of parts on a vehicle.

4. An ohmmeter can be used to check for continuity.

7. A circuit is open when it is complete.

9. Analog meters should not be used to test electronic components.

4. Technician A says uses an ohmmeter to measure resistance of a component. Technician B

8. The waveform of AC voltage is typically a _____.

10. The wave form of constant DC voltage on a lab scope is a _____.

16. When testing resistance in a circuit with an ohmmeter, _____.

18. When connecting a conventional ammeter to a circuit, _____.

19. When using an inductive current probe adapter on a DMM, _____.

23. All the following are lab scope adjustments EXCEPT:

2. A conventional ammeter is always connected in ____________________ with the circuit.

3. A voltmeter is connected in ____________________ with the circuit.

4. ____________________ solder is used to repair electrical wiring.

ANS: Rosin or resin-type flux core

6. A voltage drop test is performed to find unwanted ____________________.

9. Duty cycle is measured in ____________________.

10. The number of cycles per second is called ____________________.

12. Battery cables are typically or gauge wire.