25/01/2023 12:15 number theory - Proof for: $(a+b)^{p} \equiv a^p + b^p \pmod p$ - Mathematics Stack Exchange

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Proof for: (a + b) p
≡ a
p
+ b
p
(mod p)

Asked 10 years, 1 month ago Modified 2 years, 8 months ago Viewed 19k times

a, b are integers. p is prime.

I want to prove:
16 (a + b)
p
≡ a
p
+ b
p
(mod p)

I know about Fermat's little theorem, but I still can't get it

I know this is valid:
p
(a + b) ≡ a + b (mod p)

but from there I don't know what to do.

Also I thought about

p p p p−1 p p
p k p−k p k p−k p p
(a + b) = ∑ ( )a b = ( )b + ∑ ( )a b + ( )a = b +
k=0 k 0 k=1 k p

p−1 p
k p−k p
∑ ( )a b + a
k=1 k

Any ideas?

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25/01/2023 12:15 number theory - Proof for: $(a+b)^{p} \equiv a^p + b^p \pmod p$ - Mathematics Stack Exchange

Thanks!

number-theory elementary-number-theory prime-numbers

1.9k watchers 39.4k questions

Share Cite Follow edited Jan 30, 2020 at 21:38 asked Dec 17, 2012 at 21:38
Questions on advanced topics - beyond those in typical introductory courses: higher degree algebraic number and function
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numbers / lattices, quadratic forms, discontinuous groups and and automorphic forms, Diophantine approximation, transcendental
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algebraic geometry, exponential and character sums, Zeta and L-functions, multiplicative and additive number theory, etc. View tag

14 By Fermat's Theorem, a ≡ a , b ≡ b, so with your observation that (a + b)

p p p
≡ a + b , you are finished. If we don't want to use Fermat, show that the binomial
coefficients are divisible by p. – André Nicolas Dec 17, 2012 at 21:41

2 both techniques almost work. And generally, when you offer money for a solution, most people think you are taking a test. Not sure if it is a terms of service
thing. – Thomas Andrews Dec 17, 2012 at 21:42

1 I think people here prefer reputation points to small amount of money. Setting bounties is a better idea but it comes with a small caveat.... You should garner
some reputation points before you can give it away ;) – Isomorphism Dec 17, 2012 at 21:44

6 Why on earth do people downvote this so heavily? He's confused, but shows work, etc. Not cool. – gnometorule Dec 17, 2012 at 21:48

3 Thanks. I edited out. The test is tomorrow, is why I gave 12hs. (thought none would answer) I didn't know about the dynamic behind the site, now that makes
sense ^^. Thanks André! Didn't remembered about the transitive property of congruence relations. (a + b) ≡ a + b and a + b ≡ a + b so
p p p

(a + b) ≡ a + b . =) Apologies if someone got offended by the bounty. –  Florencia Hoffmann Dec 17, 2012 at 22:06
p p p

2 Answers Sorted by: Highest score (default)

p−1

Your second idea is good, so let's work a little bit on it: We have that (a + b) . Obviously it is enough to show that
p p p p k p−k
= a + b + ∑ ( )a b
k
k=1

16 each term of this sum is divisible by p in order to get that the whole sum is ≡ 0 mod p .

p⋅(p−1)!
So why is that the case? For 1 we have that ( and since p is prime, no factor in the denominator divides p, so the
p
≤ k ≤ p − 1 ) =
k k!(p−k)!

(p−1)!
denominator does not divide p at all: Hence we have that already is integer and so p . Of course then ( is divisible by p and
p p k p−k
∣ ( ) )a b
k!(p−k)! k k

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25/01/2023 12:15 number theory - Proof for: $(a+b)^{p} \equiv a^p + b^p \pmod p$ - Mathematics Stack Exchange

hence the whole sum is too.

Share Cite Follow answered Dec 17, 2012 at 21:51

martin.koeberl
904 6 13

6 Note that this is really much better than using Fermat because (a + b) p
= a
p
+ b
p
holds in all fields of characteristic p, hence even in cases where Fermat itself
would not apply. – Hagen von Eitzen Dec 17, 2012 at 21:54

First of all, a p
≡ a (mod p) and b p
≡ b (mod p) implies a p
+ b
p
≡ a + b (mod p) .

7 Also, (a + b) .
p
≡ a + b (mod p)

By transitivity of modulo, combine the above two results and get (a + b) p

≡ a
p p
+ b (mod p) .

Done.

Share Cite Follow edited May 2, 2020 at 16:12 answered Mar 15, 2020 at 1:57
1b3b apen
1,194 5 18 267 2 6

This is a pretty cool proof to be honest! – mmmmh mmmmmh Feb 5, 2022 at 9:44

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