CAA Complete Database

Database Question Common Answer
A decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in the

HP0002 hypoxia
red blood cells leads to a condition called:-
The volume of oxygen in the atmosphere is

HP0003 21
approximately:-
the amount of oxygen required by

HP0004 The breathing rate is determined by:-
the body.
HP0005 Blood is pumped around the body by the:- right atrium of the heart
HP0006 Oxygen rich blood:- is found in the right ventricle.
The pumping or discharge chambers of the heart

HP0010 the left atrium and the right atrium
are:-
When measuring blood pressure the lowest reading

HP0012 the systolic pressure
obtained is referred to as:-
A person suffering from sustained low blood

HP0013 dizziness or fainting
pressure may experience:-
the total pressure of the gas mixture

HP0016 In terms of the Gas laws, Dalton's Law states that:- is equal to the sum of its partial
pressures
increases with the consumption of

HP0020 A pilot's susceptibility to hypoxia:-
alcohol drugs and tobacco
an insufficient partial pressure of

HP0021 Hypoxic hypoxia occurs as a result of:-
oxygen
the time available to recognise the

HP0022 The time of useful consciousness is:- onset of hypoxia and take corrective
action
breathing into a paper bag will

increase the body's level of carbon
HP0024 In order to treat hyperventilation:-
dioxide which in turn will return the
breathing rate to normal.
HP0025 Anaemic hypoxia may be caused by:- poor blood circulation

remaining at an altitude which will
Prevention of hypoxia in a non-pressurised aircraft
HP0027 provide an adequate oxygen
is best achieved by:-
pressure gradient.
A consequence of hyperventilation is that there will a shortage of carbon dioxide in the

HP0029
be:- blood
Whilst using oxygen masks passengers should be

HP0033 cautioned against breathing rapidly or deeply in hyperventilation
order to avoid:-
the amount of oxygen in each breath

HP0034 According to Dalton's Law:-
remains constant at any altitude
As altitude is gained the amount of oxygen in each

HP0035 remains constant
breath:-
the period of time a pilot can

HP0036 The "time of useful consciousness" means:- function without oxygen before
losing consciousness
The "time of useful consciousness" at 25 000 ft

HP0038 5 minutes
following rapid decompression is approximately:-
The amount of light which enters the eye is

HP0039 iris
controlled by the:-
In order to correct long sightedness,

HP0040 a convex lens is used
(hypermetropia):-
In order to correct long sightedness,

HP0040 a convex lens is used
(hypermetropia):-
HP0041 With reference to the eye, the rods:- are used for peripheral vision
Vision in low levels of illumination or at night is

HP0042 the rods
dependant upon:-
Control over the light entering the eye is exercised iris which expands increasing the
HP0043
by the:- size of the pupil
looking to the side of the object in

HP0045 Good night vision is best achieved by:-
order to focus the object on the rods
HP0046 In order to correct short sightedness, (myopia):- a concave lens is used

change the size of the pupil to allow
HP0048 Accommodation is the ability of the eye:-
more or less light into the eye
During the approach to land on an unfamiliar

HP0050 upward sloping runway a pilot may have a fly a high approach.
tendency to:-
During the approach to land on a very wide

HP0052 fly a low approach.
unfamiliar runway a pilot may have a tendency to:-
semi-circular canals and the

HP0053 The vestibular apparatus comprises the:-
Eustachian tube.
HP0055 Presbycusis is the term used to define:- a decrease in hearing ability with age
HP0058 Vertigo is:- a false sense of rotation
should be treated by looking at and

Spatial disorientation is usually a temporary
HP0060 believing the aircraft flight
condition which:- instruments
is associated with the inner ear and

HP0063 Non-conductive, or noise-induced, hearing loss:-
is usually irreversible
A deterioration in hearing with age is referred to

HP0065 presbycusis
as:-
A deterioration in hearing with age is referred to

HP0065 tinnitus
as:-

HP0066 Conductive hearing loss is:-
is always temporary
HP0067 The term tinnitus is used to define:- the natural loss of hearing with age
A method which may be used to help passengers have them fix their eyes in the
HP0069
avoid airsickness is to:- distance on the natural horizon
HP0070 The symptoms of motion sickness include:- pale skin nausea and sweating
The best treatment for a pilot suffering from acute

HP0071 a restful uninterrupted natural sleep
fatigue is:-
If a passenger is observed suddenly suffering from
HP0072 severe chest pains and then collapses, the cause is hypoxia
likely to be:-
HP0073 Fainting is caused by :- lack of oxygen at altitude
HP0075 Following scuba diving, a pilot:- may not fly within 24 hours
If a passenger is observed suffering from mild chest

HP0077 pains, dizziness, breathlessness and a pale hyperventilation
complexion the cause is likely to be:-
The symptoms of low blood glucose (blood sugar),
HP0078 include a sensation of dizziness and shaking. This by eating regularly
can be corrected:-
is best treated by a peaceful and

HP0079 Acute fatigue:-
uninterrupted sleep
occurs over a very long period and

HP0080 Chronic fatigue:- requires a prolonged recovery
period.
Sleep management is an important part of personal

HP0081 fitness and the type of sleep associated with paradoxical sleep.
physical rejuvenation is called:-
HP0082 The type of sleep associated with brain rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
rejuvenation is called:-
The most common symptoms of carbon monoxide

HP0084 tunnel vision.
poisoning are:-
A leaking aircraft engine exhaust may pose a threat increased amounts of carbon
HP0086
to aircrew and passengers because:- monoxide may enter the cabin
A method of processing information referred to as works independently of the central

HP0089
a closed loop system:- decision maker
Memory which deals with the storage of

HP0091 semantic memory
information in word form is called:-
The short term or working memory is capable of

HP0093 7 types of unrelated information
dealing with a maximum of:-
HP0094 Acute stress is considered to be:- a short-term condition

noise and vibration combined with
The most likely causes of environmental, or
HP0095 variations in temperature and
physical stress in an aircraft are:-
humidity
condition which builds up over a
HP0097 Acute stress is usually a:- short period of time requiring a very
long recovery period.
HP0098 Chronic stress is usually a:- long term condition
“Environmental capture” is an error which is

HP0099 skill-based behaviour
associated with:-
HP0101 A motor programme is:- a skill which is acquired by practice
indicate the pressure of the blood

HP0105 The term “blood pressure” is used to:-
against the walls of the main arteries
Platelets are a type of blood cell which are

HP0106 the formation of blood clots
responsible for:-
Pilots who are suffering from blocked sinuses and

HP0108 continue to fly may be subject to severe pain, and a climb in a non-pressurised aircraft.
even suffer ear damage, particularly during:-
When crossing time zones adjustment of the body is easier when flying from west to
HP0110
clock:- east
the ability to store information in the

HP0112 Semantic memory is the term used to describe:-
form of words language or numbers
A method of processing information which requires

HP0113 an open loop system
feedback to the central decision maker is called:-
The best method for an individual to acquire sleep

HP0116 maintain a normal sleep period
“credits” is to:-
HP0117 Chronic insomnia is often the result of:- disturbed body rhythms.
The tiny air sacs in the lungs which allow oxygen to

HP0118 diffuse into the blood and carbon dioxide to diffuse alveoli
into the lungs are called:-
Adaptation of the eye for night vision may take up

HP0120 30 minutes
to:-
the light rays will be focused on the
It may be impossible to see a distant, faintly lit
HP0121 fovea which contains a
object at night by looking directly at it because:-
concentration of rods
HP0125 Angina is characterised by:- severe chest pains and collapse
A situation in which a pilot makes a correct decision

HP0126 but initiates the incorrect reaction is referred to environmental capture
as:-
require the conscious involvement of

HP0129 Skill-based behaviour consists of actions that:-
the brain
decisions made based on knowledge

HP0130 Knowledge-based behaviour is associated with:-
stored in the long-term memory.
The transfer of oxygen from the lungs to the blood the low levels of oxygen in the
HP0132
is a function of:- blood.
the transfer of oxygen into the blood

HP0136 As the partial pressure of oxygen decreases:-
decreases
the body’s demand for oxygen

HP0137 As the partial pressure of oxygen increases:-
increases
Permanent hearing loss may result from damage to

HP0142 cochlea
the:-
Constant and excessive exposure to loud noise may

HP0144 eventually lead to permanent hearing loss as a cochlea
result of damage to the:-
a natural loss of hearing as a result

HP0145 Presbycusis is:-
of age
Decompression sickness, associated with reduced the formation of bubbles of nitrogen

HP0146
air pressure, is characterised by:- in various parts of the body
With regard to decompression sickness, the pain

HP0147 experienced by the formation of nitrogen bubbles the bends
in the body’s joints is referred to as:-
With regard to decompression sickness, the itching
HP0148 sensation created by the formation of nitrogen the creeps
bubbles in the skin is referred to as:-
With regard to decompression sickness, the
HP0150 formation of nitrogen bubbles in the lungs leads to the chokes.
a condition known as:-
In the human ear, angular accelerations are sensed
HP0152 semi-circular canals
by the:-
In the human ear, linear accelerations are sensed

HP0153 otolith or static organ.
by the:-
The purpose of the otolith, or static, organ in the

HP0154 sense linear accelerations
human ear is to:-
According to Boyles Law, providing the as the pressure of a gas increases

HP0155
temperature is constant:- the volume decreases
During a level turn, with no external reference, a

false sense that the aircraft is flying straight and
HP0157 level may be felt by the pilot. During the roll out a vertigo
sense of turning in the opposite direction may be
felt. This is referred to as:-
During a level turn, with no external reference, a

false sense that the aircraft is flying straight and
HP0157 level may be felt by the pilot. During the roll out a the coriolis illusion
sense of turning in the opposite direction may be
felt. This is referred to as:-
The “oculogravic or somatogravic illusion” is the the body rotating when in fact no
HP0159
sensation of:- rotation is occurring.
The “oculogravic or somatogravic illusion” is the

HP0159 tumbling backwards
sensation of:-
At night a stationary light which is stared at for a

HP0161 few seconds may appear to move. This illusion is autokinesis.
known as:-
Autokinesis is a visual illusion which may occur at the eye only focuses at a distance of
HP0162
night when:- 1 to 2 metres ahead.
Autokinesis is a visual illusion which may occur at

HP0162 a stationary light appears to move
night when:-
Equalisation of the pressure between the outer ear

HP0164 Eustachian tube
and the middle ear is achieved through the:-
The transmission of electrical signals, for

HP0167 conversion into sound, from the ear to the brain is auditory nerve.
achieved via the:-
In an effort to avoid motion sickness a method fix their eyes in the distance on the
HP0169 which may help passengers is to:- natural horizon
An increase in positive “g” may initially result in a
HP0170 grey out
condition known as:-
“Grey out” is a condition which may occur as a

HP0171 positive “g” manoeuvres
result of:-
A sudden increase in negative “g” may result in a

HP0172 red out
condition known as:-
“Red out” is a condition which may occur as a result

HP0173 excessive negative “g” manoeuvres
of:-
“Black out” is a condition which may occur as a

HP0175 sustained positive “g” manoeuvres
result of:-
the blood rushes away from the

HP0176 During sustained positive “g” acceleration:- head causing loss of vision grey out
or black out.
An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the will cause a tingling sensation in the
HP0178
blood:- finger tips.
The term “chunking” is used to define the process transferring information into the
HP0179
of:- long term memory
The condition known as cyanosis is associated

HP0181 high blood pressure
with:-
The ability to make a judgement based on learned

HP0185 cognitive judgment
skills or experience is referred to as:-
Cognitive judgement involves decision making

HP0186 a complex thought process
based on:-
HP0187 Perceptual judgement is judgement based on:- a complex thought process
excessive levels of carbon dioxide in

HP0190 Hypoxia is caused by:-
the body tissues
HP0191 Hyperventilation may be caused by:- too little carbon dioxide in the blood
The ability of the eye to change the curvature of

HP0197 accommodation
the lens in order to focus on an object is called:-
HP0198 Visual acuity is:- the ability of the eye to see clearly
Right
anaemia
21
the level of carbon dioxide in the

blood
left ventricle of the heart.
is bright red in colour
the left ventricle and the right

ventricle.
the diastolic pressure
dizziness or fainting
the total pressure of the gas mixture

is equal to the sum of its partial
pressures
increases with the consumption of

alcohol drugs and tobacco
an insufficient partial pressure of

oxygen
the time available to recognise the

onset of hypoxia and take corrective
action
breathing into a paper bag will

increase the body's level of carbon
dioxide which in turn will return the
breathing rate to normal.
a reduction in the amount of

circulating haemoglobin.
remaining at an altitude which will
provide an adequate oxygen
pressure gradient.
a shortage of carbon dioxide in the

blood
hyperventilation
the proportion of oxygen remains at

21% throughout the atmosphere
decreases.
the time taken by a pilot to

recognise the onset of hypoxia and
take corrective action.
2 – 3 minutes
iris
a convex lens is used
a convex lens is used
are used for peripheral vision
the rods
iris which expands increasing the

size of the pupil
looking to the side of the object in

order to focus the object on the rods
a concave lens is used

change the curvature of the lens in
order to focus on an object
fly a low approach.
fly a high approach.
semi-circular canals and the otolith

organs
a decrease in hearing ability with age
a false sense of rotation
should be treated by looking at and

believing the aircraft flight
instruments

is usually irreversible
presbycusis
presbycusis
is associated with the outer ear and

is either temporary or can be
reversed
ringing in the ears
have them fix their eyes in the

distance on the natural horizon
pale skin nausea and sweating
a restful uninterrupted natural sleep

a heart attack
a reduced flow of blood to the brain.
may not fly within 24 hours
an angina attack
by eating regularly
is best treated by a peaceful and

uninterrupted sleep
occurs over a very long period and

requires a prolonged recovery
period.
slow wave sleep
rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
headaches and nausea
increased amounts of carbon

monoxide may enter the cabin
requires feedback to the central

decision maker
semantic memory
7 types of unrelated information
a short-term condition
noise and vibration combined with
variations in temperature and
humidity
short term condition
long term condition
skill-based behaviour
a skill which is acquired by practice
indicate the pressure of the blood

against the walls of the main arteries
the formation of blood clots
a descent
is easier when flying from east to

west
the ability to store information in the

form of words language or numbers
a closed loop system.
maintain a normal sleep period
long-term stress
alveoli
30 minutes
the light rays will be focused on the
fovea which contains a
concentration of cones
mild chest pains which subside on

resting.
an action slip
operates without the constant

attention of the brain.
decisions made based on knowledge

stored in the long-term memory.
the pressure of the oxygen

decreases

increases.
cochlea
cochlea
a natural loss of hearing as a result

of age
the formation of bubbles of nitrogen

in various parts of the body
the bends
the creeps
the chokes.
semi-circular canals
otolith or static organ.
sense linear accelerations
as the pressure of a gas increases

the volume decreases
the leans
the leans
tumbling backwards
tumbling backwards
autokinesis.
a stationary light appears to move
a stationary light appears to move
Eustachian tube
auditory nerve.
fix their eyes in the distance on the

natural horizon
grey out
positive “g” manoeuvres
red out
excessive negative “g” manoeuvres
sustained positive “g” manoeuvres
the blood rushes away from the

head causing loss of vision grey out
or black out.
will cause an increase in the

breathing rate
combining data to increase the

capacity of the working or short
term memory
hypoxia.
perceptual judgement
a complex thought process
experience.
a decrease in the partial pressure of

oxygen
anxiety caused by a stressful

situation.
accommodation
the ability of the eye to see clearly
The volume of oxygen in the atmosphere is

met0001 0.21
approximately:-
An aircraft is flying at FL095, OAT +5°C. The

met0006 +9°C.
temperature deviation from ISA is:-
The layer between the troposphere and the

met0008 the tropopause.
stratosphere is called:-
out of an area of high pressure and

met0009 Air has a tendency to flow from:-
into an area of low pressure
met0011 The average height of the troposphere:- is greatest at the equator
the temperature increases with an

met0012 In a temperature inversion:-
increase height
Dewpoint temperature is the temperature at air will become saturated at a

met0014
which:- constant pressure
a steep positive environmental lapse

met0015 Instability in the atmosphere is associated with:
rate
The term "insolation" or "solar radiation" is used to re-radiation of heat from the earth's
met0017
define the:- surface
In terms of visibility, the difference between fog fog has a visibility of less than 1000
met0019
and mist is that:- metres
the cooling of air as it rises and

met0020 Adiabatic process is the term used to describe:-
expands
decreases with an increase in

met0021 Relative humidity:-
temperature.
The dewpoint temperature is the temperature at

met0022 becomes saturated
which a particular air mass:-
standing with their back to the wind

met0023 According to Buys Ballots Law, an observer:- in the Southern Hemisphere will
have low pressure on their right.
In the Southern Hemisphere, the wind around a clockwise with the area of lowest
met0024
low pressure blows:- pressure in the centre.
met0027 The Coriolis Force is created by: the rotation of the earth
met0028 A land breeze will be found at coastal areas:- at night
During summer in Southern Africa, the Inter

met0029 Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is generally in the southern hemisphere
located:-
The type of wind which flows upslope during the

met0031 anabatic
day is called:-
met0033 A "trough" is:- a wedge of low pressure
met0034 A sea breeze will be found at coastal areas:- during the day
In a high pressure system in the southern the wind rotates anticlockwise with
met0035
hemisphere:- an outwards and downwards flow.
met0038 Cirrus type cloud refers to:- high thin cloud
The type of cloud which is formed by convection is

met0039 cumulus
called:-
commonly associated with a warm

met0040 Nimbostratus cloud is:-
front
met0041 Cumulonimbus cloud is characterised by:- severe turbulence
On a clear night, light winds and moist air blowing

met0044 radiation fog
over the land will most probably create:-
The ideal conditions for the formation of advection warm moist air blowing over a cold
met0046
fog are:- surface
met0049 Polar maritime air is characterised by:- fine weather but poor visibility
The factor most likely to cause a decrease in the
met0050 warming of the air mass from below
stability of an air mass is:-
A cold front approaching South Africa will be

met0051 north westerly winds
characterised by:-
The type of clouds which typically characterise a

met0052 Cumulus and Cumulonimbus
cold front are:-
A front caused by cold air cutting under warm air is

met0053 a cold front.
referred to as:-
cirrus followed by cirrostratus or

met0057 The indications of the approach of a warm front:-
altostratus type clouds.
On landing, an aircraft's altimeter indicates the

airfield elevation of 4500 ft with QNH correctly set.
met0061 During the pre-flight inspection the following the static vent has become blocked
morning the altimeter indicates 4200 ft. During the
night:-
met0063 The symbol SCT is used to indicate:- 3 to 4 oktas of cloud
met0064 The symbol FEW is used to indicate:- 1 to 2 oktas of cloud
The term CAVOK is used in weather forecasts to visibility 10 km or more and no cloud
met0065
indicate:- below 5000 ft
The information which is provided by the ATIS the airfield's surface wind QNH
met0066
includes:- visibility and runway in use
In winter, an aeroplane which has been parked

met0068 outside during a night with clear skies may expect hoar frost
to be covered with:-
The presence of a coastal low, on the east coast of overcast conditions with light rain or
met0074
South Africa, may be characterised by:- drizzle
The characteristics of the South African summer the presence of moist south easterly
met0075
include:- trade winds
met0077 A common characteristic of a stable air mass is:- excellent visibility

With reference to the TAF for Port Elizabeth (FAPE)
met0080 on page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, an aircraft 3 to 4 oktas of cloud at 1500 ft
that intends landing between 1300 and 1500 local
time would expect:-
With reference to the TAF for Durban (FADN) on

page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, an aircraft
met0081 140/12.
landing between 1800 and 2000 local time would
expect the surface wind to be:-
With reference to the METAR for Johannesburg

met0083 the minimum temperature is -2°C
(FAJS) on page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-
With reference to the METAR for Johannesburg the variation in the observed wind
met0083
(FAJS) on page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:- direction is between 350° and 070°
With reference to the METAR for George (FAGG) on

met0084 the dew point temperature is 15°
page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-
The characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass

met0086 cumuliform clouds with rain showers
include:-
met0087 The characteristics of a stable air mass include:- poor surface visibility
the appearance of clouds of great

The weather condition associated with a surface
met0090 vertical development above the
temperature inversion is:-
inversion
A concave or almond-shaped cloud which appears

met0093 to be stationary in the vicinity of mountains or hills lenticular cloud
is called referred to as:-
Whilst flying in the vicinity of a mountain range a

met0094 pilot observes formations of static lenticular cloud. considerable turbulence
The pilot should expect:-
In stable conditions, with a strong wind blowing mountain wave turbulence is to be

met0095
over a mountain range or high ridge of hills:- expected
The most hazardous type of thunderstorms to

met0099
aircraft are:-
The greatest intensity of a thunderstorm occurs

met0100
during:-
When flying from an area of high pressure to an

met0102 the altimeter will tend to over read
area of low pressure:-
a report of actual weather at an
met0104 A METAR is:-
aerodrome
met0105 A TAF is:- a weather forecast for an aerodrome
decrease with an increase in

met0106 Air density will:-
pressure.
a wind that is changing in a

met0107 The term veering refers to:-
clockwise direction
a wind that is changing in an

met0108 The term backing refers to:-
anticlockwise direction
The flow of air from a high to a low in the southern

met0109 to the left
hemisphere is deflected by the coriolis force:-
met0110 Following the passage of a cold front:- the pressure will begin to rise.
With reference to the Significant Weather Chart 3

initially drizzle from stratocumulus
on page 15 of the Meteorology Manual. An aircraft
met0116 cloud becoming rain towards Cape
intending to fly from Port Elizabeth (PE) along the
Town
coast towards Cape Town (CT) would experience:-
With reference to the Winds and Temperatures

chart on page 16 of the Meteorology Manual. The
met0120 wind direction on the Natal North Coast at 5000 ft 115° (T)
is:-
With reference to Station 6 of the Synoptic Station

met0123 Models - 1, on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual. moderate intermittent drizzle
The present weather is:-

Models - 1 on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual.
met0125 falling then steady.
The barometric tendency during the past three
hours was:-

met0126 Models - 1 on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual. thick altostratus or nimbostratus
The medium cloud indicated is:-
met0127 Models - 1 on page 5 of the Meteorology Manual. a fall in pressure of 3 hPa
The pressure change during the past three hours
was:-

met0129 the visibility is 200 metres in haze
Models - 2 on page 6 of the Meteorology Manual.:-
1225 grammes per cubic metre and

met0131 According to ISA, the sea level density of the air is:-
decreases with altitude
decrease in temperature with

met0132 The term "lapse rate" is used to describe:-
altitude
In the southern hemisphere the wind is deflected

met0133 coriolis force.
to the left by the:-
In the southern hemisphere an aircraft which is flying towards an area of low

met0134
being subjected to left drift is:- pressure
The type of cloud which can be expected to form as

met0138 a result of a moist unstable air mass being forced clouds with substantial vertical
development
upwards is:-
met0139 The weather conditions associated with a ridge of air which is subsiding
high pressure include:-
Precipitation in the form of rain can be expected

met0142 altocumulus
from:-
Precipitation in the form of light drizzle can be

met0143 altocumulus
expected from:-
rain which evaporates before it

met0144 Virga is:- reaches the surface
met0147 Frontal fog is found After the passage of a warm front
when super-cooled drops of water

met0148 Rime ice may be expected to form on an aircraft:-
freeze on impact
max temperature is 16, min is 15

met0149 Page 9 of Manual look at FAGM: METAR taken on 20th at 0730 local
time
With reference to the METAR for Upington (FAUP)
met0150 the minimum temperature is -1°C
on page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:-
With reference to the METAR for George (FAGG) on the visibility is 1000 m with fog in
met0151
page 9 of the Meteorology Manual:- the vicinity
With reference to the TAF for George (FAGG) on light rain temporarily becoming
met0153 page 8 of the Meteorology Manual, the expected heavy rain between 1200 and 2000
weather includes:- local time

met0154 chart on page 16 of the Meteorology Manual. The ISA+7°C.
temperature at 5 000 ft at S30° E015° is:-

chart on page 16 of the Meteorology Manual. The
met0155 221/11
wind direction and velocity (W/V) at 4000 ft at S25°
E015° is:-
is indicated by a rough running

met0156 Carburettor icing:- engine and a gradual decrease in
RPM
Coastal lows along the South African coast are

met0158 a strong flow of air from the interior
generally created by:-
is greatest during clear skies over

met0165 Cooling of the earth's surface during the night:-
rocky or desert areas.
met0170 Air at the surface which is forced to rise as a result is generally unstable
of convergence:-
A warm, dry wind blowing down a mountain during

met0171 the föhn wind
the day is a typical characteristic of:-
The type of wind which may be experienced at

met0172 a sea breeze
coastal areas during the day is:-
met0174 An anabatic wind:- flows up a slope during the day.
An air mass which is approaching South Africa from

met0179 polar maritime
the Antarctic is classified as:-
forms over the land absorbs

met0180 A continental air mass:- moisture and will be saturated in the
lower levels
As a polar maritime air mass passes over South absorb heat in the lower layers and
met0182
Africa during summer it will:- become unstable
rising air and a low pressure system

met0184 Convergence is associated with:-
with instability
subsiding air and a high pressure

met0185 Divergence is associated with:- system with overcast skies and
instability
When warm air is forced to rise up and over cold

met0186 a warm front will form
air:-
Following the passage of a warm front in South

met0188 back.
Africa, the winds will:-

met0189 the temperature will increase
Africa:-

met0190 the visibility will improve rapidly.
Africa:-
met0191 An occluded front occurs when:- a cold front overtakes a warm front
The south westerly buster which affects the coast the anti-cyclonic flow of air from a
met0195 high pressure system ridging in
of KwaZulu-Natal (South Africa) is caused by:-
behind a coastal low
there is a well developed high

The Black South Easter is a wind which occurs in pressure system to the west of Cape
met0196
South Africa when:- Town with strong pressure gradients
and a long sea track
The South African Berg Wind is generally caused a strong high pressure system over
met0198
by:- southern Africa
When the standard pressure setting, 1013 hPa, is

met0199 set on the subscale of the altimeter of an aircraft pressure altitude
on the ground at an aerodrome, the altimeter will
indicate:-
derived by correcting the pressure

met0200 Density altitude is:-
altitude for temperature.
When QFE is set on the subscale of the altimeter of

met0201 an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome, the zero
instrument will read:-
When QNH has been set on the subscale of an
met0204 the aircraft's pressure altitude
altimeter, the instrument will indicate:-
Right
0.21
+9°C.
the tropopause.
out of an area of high pressure and

into an area of low pressure
is greatest at the equator
the temperature increases with an

increase height
air will become saturated at a

constant pressure
a steep positive environmental lapse

rate
heating of the earth's surface by the

sun
fog has a visibility of less than 1000

metres
the cooling of air as it rises and

expands
decreases with an increase in

temperature.
becomes saturated
standing with their back to the wind

in the Southern Hemisphere will
have low pressure on their right.
clockwise with the area of lowest
pressure in the centre.
the rotation of the earth
at night
in the southern hemisphere
anabatic
a wedge of low pressure
during the day
the wind rotates anticlockwise with

an outwards and downwards flow.
high thin cloud
cumulus
commonly associated with a warm

front
severe turbulence
radiation fog
warm moist air blowing over a cold

surface
stable conditions at its source.

warming of the air mass from below
north westerly winds
Cumulus and Cumulonimbus
a cold front.
cirrus followed by cirrostratus or

altostratus type clouds.
the pressure has increased
3 to 4 oktas of cloud
1 to 2 oktas of cloud
visibility 10 km or more and no cloud

below 5000 ft
the airfield's surface wind QNH

visibility and runway in use
hoar frost
overcast conditions with light rain or

drizzle
the presence of moist south easterly

trade winds
the presence of stratiform clouds

3 to 4 oktas of cloud at 1500 ft
140/12.
the variation in the observed wind

direction is between 350° and 070°
the variation in the observed wind

direction is between 350° and 070°
the dew point temperature is 15°
cumuliform clouds with rain showers
poor surface visibility
an increase in temperature with

altitude.
lenticular cloud
considerable turbulence
mountain wave turbulence is to be

expected
thunderstorms embedded in frontal

clouds.
the mature stage
the altimeter will tend to over read

a report of actual weather at an
aerodrome
a weather forecast for an aerodrome
decrease with an increase in

humidity
a wind that is changing in a

clockwise direction
a wind that is changing in an

anticlockwise direction
to the left
the pressure will begin to rise.
initially drizzle from stratocumulus

cloud becoming rain towards Cape
Town
115° (T)
moderate intermittent drizzle
falling then steady.
thick altostratus or nimbostratus

a fall in pressure of 3 hPa
the visibility is 200 metres in haze

decrease in temperature with

altitude
coriolis force.
flying towards an area of low

pressure
clouds with substantial vertical

development
air which is subsiding
altocumulus
stratus or stratocumulus clouds
rain which evaporates before it

reaches the surface
Ahead of a warm front
when super-cooled drops of water

freeze on impact
there is no cloud below 5000 ft.
the visibility is 1000 m with fog in

the vicinity
light rain temporarily becoming

heavy rain between 1200 and 2000
local time
ISA+7°C.
221/11
is indicated by a rough running

engine and a gradual decrease in
RPM
a strong flow of air from the interior
is greatest during clear skies over

rocky or desert areas.
is generally unstable
the föhn wind
a sea breeze
flows up a slope during the day.
polar maritime
forms over the land and remains

fairly dry throughout.
absorb heat in the lower layers and
become unstable
rising air and a low pressure system

with instability
a cold occlusion will form
back.
the pressure will continue to fall but

at a slower rate and then start to rise
the pressure will begin to rise
a cold front overtakes a warm front
the anti-cyclonic flow of air from a

high pressure system ridging in
behind a coastal low
there is a well developed high

pressure system to the west of Cape
Town with strong pressure gradients
and a long sea track
a strong high pressure system over

southern Africa
pressure altitude
derived by correcting the pressure

altitude for temperature.
zero
the aircraft's altitude above sea
level.
The position which separates the laminar air flow

pof0002 from the turbulent air flow around an aerofoil is the transition point
called:-
In accordance with Bernoulli's theory when air the velocity increases and the
pof0003
flows through the throat of a venturi tube:- pressure decreases
Bernoulli's principle states that if the velocity of air

pof0004 pressure energy must decrease
flowing through a venturi is increased, then the:-
The angle of attack of an aeroplane is defined as at which the wing is mounted on the
pof0005
the angle:- fuselage
The angle between an aerofoil's chord line and the

pof0007 the angle of attack
relative airflow is referred to as:-
pof0008 The lift force produced by an aerofoil always acts:- perpendicular to the relative airflow.
An increase in the angle of attack of an aerofoil increase the pressure below the
pof0010
will:- wing and increase drag.
On an aerofoil, the point through which the total

pof0014 centre of pressure
lift acts is called the:-
As the angle of attack of an aerofoil in normal level

pof0015 move aft
flight is increased, the centre of pressure will:-
With reference to the lift formula. If an aeroplane's

pof0016 speed is doubled whilst the angle of attack remains be four times greater.
constant, the parasite drag will:-
On an aerofoil, the point through which the total

pof0017 the centre of pressure.
lift force acts is known as:-
there will be a greater increase in

pof0021 If the gross weight of an aircraft is increased:-
induced drag than in parasite drag
In respect of an aeroplane's wing, the term "aspect

pof0023 the wingspan to the wing tip
ratio" refers to the ratio of:-
Whilst maintaining level flight, a decrease in speed

pof0024 induced drag.
will result in an increase in:-
Adverse aileron yaw, (aileron drag), will be most
pof0025 at high speeds
noticeable:-
A design feature which is used to reduce induced

pof0026 the use of a low aspect ratio wing
drag is:-
pof0028 An increase in induced drag can be expected:- when the angle of attack is increased
pof0030 An aeroplane which has a high lift/drag ratio:- will have poor climb performance
pof0031 Induced drag is created by:- an increase in speed
pof0032 Induced drag is created by:- the lift produced by the wings.
In comparison to a high aspect ratio wing, a low

pof0033 have increased longitudinal stability
aspect ratio wing will:-
In comparison to a high aspect ratio wing, a low

pof0033 create less induced drag.
aspect ratio wing will:-
When a wing has been given washout, it means be narrower in width at the tip than
pof0035
that the wing will:- it is at the
If, during level flight, altitude must be maintained

pof0037 angle of attack must be increased
whilst reducing speed the:-
During normal level flight a reduction in power will the thrust line acts horizontal to and
pof0039
cause the nose of an aeroplane to drop because:- above the d
pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:- lift is greater than weight
The relationship between the four forces in level lift is equal to weight and thrust is
pof0042
flight is that:- equal to dra
In order to maintain elevator control effectiveness, locate the centre of gravity at the
pof0043
when loading an aeroplane it would be better to:- centre of pres
The forces acting on an aeroplane in a climb are so the value of lift is greater than that
pof0044
arranged that:- of weight<
the centre of pressure is located at
pof0045 Whilst maintaining straight and level flight:-
the centre of
During straight and level flight the centre of gravity

pof0047 aft of the centre of pressure
is normally located:-
The total lift produced by the wings during a the vertical component of lift and
pof0049
balanced level turn, must equal:- the centripetal
The total lift produced by the wings during a

pof0049 only the weight of the aeroplane
balanced level turn, must equal:-
A change in pitch will cause an aircraft to rotate

pof0050 lateral axis and centre of gravity
around its:-
A change in bank will cause an aircraft to rotate longitudinal axis and centre of
pof0051
around its:- gravity
During entry into a left hand turn from straight and

correct the adverse yaw created by
pof0054 level flight, rudder is normally applied in the same
direction as ailerons in order to:- lowering the ai
Ailerons may have to be used to prevent the

pof0055 all turns.
aeroplane from underbanking during:-
If only rudder is applied during straight and level

pof0058 yaw followed by roll and a spiral dive
flight the following will occur:-
In order to reduce the effect of aileron drag, a

pof0059 is differential ailerons
common design feature used:-
increases as the angle of attack is

pof0060 Adverse aileron yaw (aileron drag):-
increased.
Differential ailerons are a means used on some

pof0061 reduce aileron drag
aeroplanes in order to:-
both ailerons travel through a

pof0062 The operation of frise ailerons is such that:-
greater arc up and
Frise ailerons are a design feature which may be aerodynamically balance the
pof0063
installed on some aeroplanes in order to:- controls
Frise ailerons are a design feature which may be reduce the effort required by the
pof0063
installed on some aeroplanes in order to:- pilot to operate
During a level turn to the left, the ball of the slip
pof0064 indicator is deflected to the left of centre. This a slipping turn
indicates a:-
The initial effect of uncorrected aileron drag, or cause an initial yaw to the left when
pof0065
adverse aileron yaw is to:- rolling left
pof0066 The use of a Horn balance in an aeroplane:- increases aileron effectiveness
A mass balance, extending ahead of the hinge line,

pof0067 is attached to the leading edge of a control surface increase the control effectiveness
in order to:-
pof0069 An aircraft which has its CG too far aft would:- be difficult to control in pitch
In order to remove aerodynamic forces from the

so that they remain neutral in
pof0070 controls, balance tabs are adjusted by the pilot in
relation to the con
flight:-
An anti-balance, or anti-servo, tab which is move in the opposite direction to

pof0071
incorporated in a stabilator will:- the control surf
An anti-balance, or anti-servo, tab which is only move when activated by the

pof0071
incorporated in a stabilator will:- trim control in th
allow an aeroplane to glide at a

pof0074 Application of flap will:-
steeper angle<BR< span>
pof0075 Application of flaps during a turn will:- increase the stall speed
pof0075 Application of flaps during a turn will:- decrease the stall speed
pof0076 Application of trailing edge flaps will:- increase the Lift/Drag ratio
Flaps are provided on many light aeroplanes in decrease the stalling angle of attack
pof0077
order to:- at low speed
Trailing edge flaps are provided on an aeroplane in

pof0078 improve longitudinal stability
order to:-
During a flapless approach to land the nose

pof0079 position of the aeroplane will, in relation to a lower
normal approach with full flap, be:-
pof0080 The application of trailing edge flaps will:- increase the stalling angle of attack
pof0081 Application of trailing edge flaps will cause:- an increase in longitudinal stability
pof0082 An aeroplane will stall as a result of:- exceeding the critical angle of attack
will remain constant irrespective of

pof0083 The stalling angle of attack of a particular aerofoil:-
airspeed ban
remains constant regardless of

pof0084 The stalling angle of attack of an aeroplane:-
airspeed or weight
During a turn an aeroplane stalls at a higher IAS because the critical angle of attack is
pof0085
than it does with the wings level:- reached at
During the approach to a power off stall in level control effectiveness decreases at a
pof0086
flight:- steady rate.<
The effect of maintaining engine power at the stall to cause a reduction in the stalling
pof0088
will be:- angle o
The potential of a normal spin to develop into a flat

pof0090 an aft centre of gravity.
spin increases with:-
In order to initiate spin recovery the controls ailerons and elevator are applied
pof0091
should be used in the following manner:- simultaneously.<
A passenger carrying aeroplane is usually designed

pof0094 dynamic stability
to have:-
Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature which may

pof0096 in the pitching plane
be used to improve stability:-
Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature used as a

pof0097 about the lateral axis
method of improving stability:-
Longitudinal dihedral is a design feature used as a

pof0097 about the longitudinal axis
method of improving stability:-
pof0098 Directional stability in an aeroplane is achieved:- through the vertical fin.

A design feature used in some aeroplanes to
pof0100 is washout
improve lateral stability:-
The force required by an aeroplane to make it turn called centrifugal force and is
pof0102
is:- produced by the wi
roll then yaw followed by a spiral

pof0104 The primary and further effects of rudder are:-
dive.
An increase in the angle of attack of an aerofoil decrease the pressure below the
pof0106
will:- wing and increase
An increase in the angle of attack of an aerofoil increase the pressure above the
pof0106
will:- wing and reduce dr
During level flight, the centre of gravity is located forward of the centre of
pof0107
normally:- pressure
When lowering trailing edge flaps, the initial effect the centre of pressure generally
pof0111
is that:- moves aft
During a steady climb the arrangement of the four

pof0112 thrust is greater than drag
forces is such that:-
With reference to the figure below, Position B on

pof0113 the minimum drag speed
the total drag curve indicated represents:-
With reference to the figure below, Curve B on the

pof0115 parasite drag
graph indicated represents:-
pof0118 In order to maintain altitude during a turn:- only the power should be increased
The four forces acting on an aeroplane in level an increase in thrust will cause the
pof0119
flight are normally arranged so that:- nose to pitch
Wingtip stalling may be reduced by the

pof0122 washout
incorporation of:-
pof0124 The primary purpose of Fowler flaps is to:- increase the surface area of a wing
the centre of pressure moves aft of

pof0128 At high angles of attack:-
the centre of
If the pressure of a parcel of air is kept constant temperature is decreased the
pof0129
and the:- density will decreas
If the pressure of a parcel of air is kept constant temperature is increased the density
pof0129
and the:- will decreas
pof0130 With regard to humidity and air density:- humid air is less dense
If the temperature of a dry parcel of air is kept an increase in pressure will result in
pof0131
constant:- a decrease
The layer of air in contact with the surface of an

pof0132 the boundary layer
aerofoil during flight is referred to as:-
The portion of the air flow over an aerofoil, in

pof0133 flight, which comes into immediate contact with skin friction
the surface is slowed down due to the effect of:-
The correct operation of a balance tab can be
balance tab remains fixed in the
pof0134 checked before flight by moving the elevator and
observing that the:- same position<BR< span>
Dust which is on the surface of a wing before flight

pof0135 will often still be there at the end of the flight streamlining
because of:-
The correct operation of anti-balance tab can be anti-balance tab moves in the
pof0136 checked before flight by moving the stabilator and
opposite direction t
observing that the:-
both wings are at the stalling angle

pof0137 During the autorotation stage of a spin to the left:-
of attack<BR< span>
In an aircraft which is spinning to the left the may increase the lift on the
pof0138
application of ailerons to the right:- outboard section of t
In order to prevent the effects of gusts or
manouevring on the structural integrity of an
pof0139 Vne
aircraft, it should not be flown under normal
operating conditions above:-
the resultant of centripetal force and
pof0140 Load factor is the term given to:-
gross weigh
During a balanced, level turn at 60° angle of bank in

pof0141 twice the gross weight
an aeroplane, the load factor is:-
The force required to turn an aeroplane in flight is

pof0142 centrifugal force
called the:-
pof0144 The symbol V in the lift formula refers to:- IAS
In terms of the International Standard Atmosphere 1225 grammes per cubic metre and
pof0147
(ISA), the sea level density of the air is:- remains constant
pof0148 Newton's First Law refers to:- equilibrium.
pof0149 Newton's Second Law refers to:- acceleration
IAS corrected for temperature and

pof0152 True airspeed (TAS) is:-
altitude
pof0154 An increase in weight will:- decrease the glide angle
pof0155 When gliding into wind:- the rate of descent will decrease.
the range can be increased by flying

pof0157 During a glide:-
at a faster s
If power is reduced during a descent but the speed

pof0158 the range will increase.
is kept constant:-
When climbing to clear obstacles in the take-off

pof0160 at the maximum rate of climb speed
path an aeroplane should climb:-
When climbing the maximum height gained in the by climbing at the best angle of
pof0162
shortest distance will be achieved:- climb speed
The position which separates the laminar air flow

pof0002 from the turbulent air flow around an aerofoil is the transition point
called:-
pof0032 Induced drag is created by:- the lift produced by the wings.
When a wing has been given washout, it means have a decrease in the angle of
pof0035
that the wing will:- attack towards the
pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:- lift is greater than weight
pof0069 An aircraft which has its CG too far aft would:- be difficult to control in pitch
During the aerodynamic stage of a spin known as the outer wing is partially unstalled
pof0092
autorotation:- whilst the i
In an aircraft which is spinning to the left the

pof0138 may delay the spin recovery.
application of ailerons to the right:-
pof0154 An increase in weight will:- decrease the glide angle
With reference to the figure below, the speed at

pof0163 the best angle of climb speed
point A indicates:-
Right
the transition point 1
the velocity increases and the

1
pressure decreases
pressure energy must decrease 1
between the chord line and the

0
relative airflow
the angle of attack 1
perpendicular to the relative airflow. 1
increase the pressure below the

1
wing and increase drag.
centre of pressure 1
move forward 0
be four times greater. 1
the centre of pressure. 1
there will be a greater increase in

1
induced drag than in parasite drag
the wingspan to the mean

0
aerodynamic chord.
induced drag. 1
at a high angle of attack 0
washout. 0
when the angle of attack is increased 1
will have a shallow gliding angle 0
the pressure difference between the

0
top and bottom surfaces
the lift produced by the wings. 1
create more induced drag 0
create more induced drag 0
have a decrease in the angle of

0
incidence towards the wingtip
angle of attack must be increased 1
the centre of gravity is located

0
forward of the centre of pressure
lift is less than weight 0
lift is equal to weight and thrust is

0
equal to drag
have a forward centre of gravity 0
the value of lift is less than that of

0
weight
the centre of pressure is located
0
behind the centre of gravity.
forward of the centre of pressure 0
the vertical component of lift and

0
the centripetal force.
the vertical component of lift and

0
the centripetal force.
lateral axis and centre of gravity 1
longitudinal axis and centre of

1
gravity
correct the adverse yaw created by

lowering the aileron on the right 0
wing
a gliding turn 0
yaw followed by roll and a spiral dive 1
is differential ailerons 1
increases as the angle of attack is

1
increased.
reduce aileron drag 1
the hinge line of both ailerons is

located slightly aft of their leading 0
edges.

a slipping turn 1
cause an initial yaw to the right

0
when rolling left
improves the aerodynamic balance

0
of the controls
prevent control flutter. 0
be difficult to control in pitch 1
to operate in the opposite direction

to the primary control surface to 0
which they are attached.
move in the same direction as the

0
control surface
move in the same direction as the

0
control surface
allow an aeroplane to glide at a

0
steeper angle
decrease the stall speed 0
decrease the stall speed 1
reduce the L/D ratio 0
increase both the lift and the drag 0
increase the value of lift created by

the wing at a particular angle of 0
attack and airspeed
higher. 0
decrease the lift/drag ratio and
0
increase the glide angle.
exceeding the critical angle of attack 1
will remain constant irrespective of

0
airspeed bank angle or weight
remains constant regardless of

1
airspeed or weight
because the critical angle of attack is

0
reached at a higher IAS.
control effectiveness decreases at a

0
steady rate.
to cause a reduction in the stalling

0
speed
an aft centre of gravity. 1
rudder is applied before elevator 0
dynamic stability 1
in the pitching plane 1
about the lateral axis 1
about the lateral axis 0
through the vertical fin. 1

is dihedral 0
called centripetal force and is

0
created by the wings
yaw then roll followed by a spiral

0
dive
decrease the pressure above the

0
wing and increase drag
decrease the pressure above the

0
wing and increase drag
located forward of the centre of

1
pressure
the centre of pressure generally

1
moves aft
thrust is greater than drag 1
the minimum drag speed 1
parasite drag 1
the angle of attack must be

0
increased
an increase in thrust will cause the

0
nose to pitch up
washout 1
increase the surface area of a wing 1
the effect of aileron drag will be

0
more noticeable
temperature is increased the density
0
will decrease
temperature is increased the density

0
will decrease
humid air is less dense 1
an increase in pressure will result in

0
an increase in density
the boundary layer 1
skin friction 1
balance tab moves in the opposite

0
direction to the elevator.
skin friction. 0
anti-balance tab moves in the same

0
direction as the elevator
the left wing will have a greater

0
angle of attack than the right wing.
may delay the spin recovery. 0
Vno 0
the resultant of centrifugal force and

0
gross weight during a turn
twice the gross weight 1
centripetal force 0
TAS 0

0
equilibrium. 1
acceleration 1
CAS/RAS corrected for temperature

0
and altitude.
have no effect on the glide angle 0
the glide angle will increase 0
application of flap will reduce the

0
best L/D ratio.
the rate of descent will increase 0
at the best angle of climb speed 0
by climbing at the best angle of

1
climb speed
the transition point 1
the lift produced by the wings. 1
0
be difficult to control in pitch 1
the outer wing is partially unstalled

0
whilst the inner wing is stalled
may delay the spin recovery. 1
have no effect on the glide angle 0
the best angle of climb speed 1

acgen0001 If cyclic is moved forward: Swash plate is moved forward
heli The horizontal stabiliser on the tail boom:
control the flow of air over the

acgen0001 The primary purpose of cowl flaps is to:- engine cylinders in order to maintain
the correct operating temperature.
The cylinder head temperature gauge usually a cylinder which tests show runs the
acgen0002
obtains its reading from:- hottest
Engine cylinder barrels and heads are usually fitted

acgen0003 improve engine cooling
with fins in order to:-
The most likely cause of the over extension of an excessive hydraulic fluid and low air
acgen0005
oleo in an undercarriage leg is:- pressure.
excessive tread wear in the centre of

acgen0006 An over-inflated tyre may result in:-
the tyre.
The purpose of a torque link on a nosewheel shock keep the nosewheel correctly
acgen0007 strut assembly is to:- aligned with the airframe
aluminium tubing is used to create

A semi-monocoque fuselage design is one in
acgen0008 the shape whilst the stressed skin
which:-
carries part of the load
The most important structural component of a

acgen0009 are the ribs
wing:-
The part of a wing to which the ailerons and flaps

acgen0010 rear or auxiliary spar.
are usually attached is the:-
the inflation valve to break away

acgen0011 Tyre creep may cause:-
from the inner tube
A shimmy in the nosewheel whilst taxying indicates the nosewheel tyre pressure is too
acgen0012
that:- low
A shimmy in the nosewheel whilst taxying indicates the nosewheel wheel is out of
acgen0012
that:- balance
A fuselage which is constructed to allow the skin to
acgen0013 a semi-monocoque structure
take some of the load is:-
The primary load carrying component of an

acgen0014 is the main spar
aluminium stressed skin wing:-
The most likely cause of the under-extension of an

acgen0016 low air pressure
oleo in an undercarriage leg is:-
acgen0017 Tyre creep may be expected to occur:- during the normal landing.
In a Truss, or Girder-type fuselage the main

acgen0018 longeron
structural component is a:
The timing of the ignition of the fuel and air

between 20° and 25° before TDC
acgen0020 mixture in an internal combustion engine is
during the compression stroke
arranged to occur:-
A condition which may occur in only one cylinder

acgen0022 pre-ignition
of an engine as a result of too a lean mixture is:-
Valve overlap in the four stroke engine will occur

acgen0031 exhaust and induction strokes
between the:-
In a piston engine, the piston will have passed BDC

acgen0033 compression and power strokes
and be moving towards TDC during:-
The type of pump utilised in a piston engine to

acgen0034 gear type pump.
provide high pressure oil lubrication is a:-
Lubrication of the main bearings and crankshaft of by both high pressure oil and splash
acgen0035
the engine is provided:- lubrication.
Dry sump piston engine lubrication systems make pump oil from the sump back to the
acgen0036
use of a scavenge pump to:- oil tank
oil is stored in the engine sump and

acgen0037 In a wet sump piston engine lubrication system:- distributed throughout the engine
by a pressure pump
A high oil temperature coupled with low oil

acgen0039 are an indication of low oil supply.
pressure:-
The oil in a wet sump lubrication system passes

acgen0040 before passing the pressure pump
through the oil cooler:-
An oil pressure gauge is usually located in the oil
acgen0041
line of a wet sump system:-
control the pressure of oil between

The purpose of the pressure relief valve in a
acgen0042 the pressure pump and the pressure
lubrication system is to:-
filter
The temperature of the oil in a wet sump

acgen0043 after leaving the oil cooler
lubrication system is usually measured:-
provide high voltage to the spark

acgen0045 The function of the distributor in a magneto is to:-
plugs
The purpose of baffles in an aircraft’s fuel tank is prevent the fuel from surging about
acgen0047
to:- during flight
produce a strong retarded spark

The purpose of an impulse coupling in a magneto is
acgen0049 usually in the left magneto for easier
to:
starting
acgen0050 The electrical current produced by a magneto:- is created by a rotating magnet
If the earth wire from a magneto to the aircraft the engine will continue to run with
acgen0053 the magneto switch in the off
structure is broken:-
position
draws fuel from a position higher

The fuel supply line from the fuel tank to the than the sump to allow water or
acgen0054
engine normally:- other impurities to settle at the
bottom of the tank
In some magneto ignition systems an impulse boosting ignition power during start
acgen0055
coupling is used as a method of:- with current from the battery
The presence of carburettor icing would be the engine starting to run rough and
acgen0056
indicated by:- a decrease in RPM
When the throttle is opened quickly, the throttle discharge additional fuel into the
acgen0058
accelerator pump will:- venturi
An accelerator pump is often incorporated in a increase the fuel supply to the

acgen0060 carburettor during high power
carburettor in order to:-
operation.
An engine which starts to run rough and then

acgen0061 slowly loses power is probably suffering from:- carburettor icing.
acgen0063 When leaning the fuel/air mixture:- the ratio of fuel to air is reduced
will also richen the mixture because
acgen0064 The application of carburettor heat:-
of the higher air temperature
at the venturi butterfly valve or inlet

acgen0065 Carburettor icing is most likely to occur:-
manifold
The blade angle of a propeller varies from hub to ensure that the thrust produced is
acgen0070
tip in order to:- constant along the propeller blade
increase the manifold pressure

The correct sequence for increasing power in an
acgen0074 setting increase the RPM then richen
aeroplane with a Constant Speed Unit (CSU) is:- the mixture.
During take-off in an aeroplane equipped with a
acgen0076 Constant Speed Unit (CSU), it would be most a small blade angle
beneficial to have:-
If an aeroplane, with a fixed pitch propeller, is
placed in a shallow dive so that forward speed
acgen0078 remain constant
increases with no change in power setting, the
RPM will:-
After starting an engine black smoke is seen
acgen0079 that the mixture is too rich
coming from the exhaust. This indicates:-
An operational advantage of the alternator is that will generate a DC supply without

acgen0083
it:- using a rectifier.
The correct level of electrolyte in a lead acid

acgen0085 battery should be maintained by the addition of:- hydrochloric acid
One of the advantages of refuelling an aeroplane the stain from fuel leaks will be
acgen0086 with full tanks after flight is that:- more easily noticed.
will continue to produce power at

acgen0087 One of the benefits of the DC generator is that it:-
low speeds
Control of the voltage output from a DC generator

acgen0089 voltage regulator
is achieved through a:-
The use of fuel with a lower octane rating than that

acgen0092 recommended by the aircraft manufacturer may detonation
lead to:-
The storage capacity of a battery is usually

acgen0093 ampere-hours.
expressed in:-
acgen0099 A rectifier is required in an alternator in order to:- convert the AC output into DC
A reverse current cut-out relay, or circuit breaker,
protect the circuit from being
acgen0100 is used in a generator supplied electrical system
overloaded
to:-
The purpose of the engine driven vacuum pump
pump high pressure air through
acgen0101 used in an aircraft's gyroscopic instrument system
small jets onto the gyro rotor
is to:-
The purpose of the engine driven vacuum pump
decrease the pressure within the
acgen0102 used in an aircraft's gyroscopic instrument system
instrument case.
is to:-
a pressure relief valve which is
Over-speeding of vacuum driven gyro rotor is
acgen0105 located just before the vacuum
prevented by:- pump.
The suction required to operate vacuum driven

acgen0106 3 - 5 inches of mercury
gyroscopes is usually between:-
A left-zero ammeter is incorporated in an electrical indicate the flow of current into and
acgen0108
system to:- out of the battery
A voltmeter may be incorporated in an electrical indicate the voltage in the electrical

acgen0109
system to:- system
The instruments that would be affected by a static the altimeter airspeed indicator and
acgen0112
vent blockage are:- vertical speed indicator.
If the alternate static vent, located in the aircraft's

remain unaffected unless the
acgen0113 cockpit, is opened in flight in response to a blocked
aircraft is pressurised
external static vent, the altimeter will:-
If the alternate static vent, located in the aircraft's over-read because the cockpit
acgen0113 cockpit, is opened in flight in response to a blocked pressure is usually lower than the
external static vent, the altimeter will:- outside pressure
The instruments which would be affected by a

acgen0115 blockage in both pitot tube and static vent are:- the altimeter VSI and ASI
A blockage of the static vent during a descent

acgen0117 over-read
would cause the ASI to:-
acgen0119 If, during a descent, the static vent becomes continue to indicate the altitude at
blocked the altimeter will:- which the blockage occurred.
If, during level flight, the static vent becomes

acgen0121 remain constant
blocked the ASI reading will:-
acgen0124 The green arc on an airspeed indicator represents:- the normal operating speed range
acgen0126 In a simple airspeed indicator:- static pressure is fed to the capsule
pitot pressure is fed to the

acgen0127 In a simple airspeed indicator:-
instrument case
indicated airspeed corrected for

acgen0128 Calibrated or Rectified airspeed is:-
instrument and position error
calibrated or rectified airspeed

acgen0129 True airspeed is:-
corrected for position error
acgen0130 The basic principle of operation of an airspeed between static and pitot pressure
indicator is to measure the differential between:-
As altitude is increased the capsule inside an expand causing the instrument to

acgen0136
altimeter will:- shown an increase in altitude
As altitude is decreased the capsule inside an

acgen0137
altimeter will:-
The presence of black oily deposits in the firing end that the engine has been operated
acgen0140
cavity of a spark plug would probably indicate:- with too rich a mixture
During a descent the pressure in the capsule of a

acgen0144 vertical speed indicator (VSI) will:- decrease
During a climb the pressure inside the case of a decrease at the same rate as the
acgen0145 vertical speed indicator (VSI) will:- pressure within the capsule.
During a descent the pressure inside the case of a increase at the same rate as the
acgen0146
vertical speed indicator (VSI) will:- pressure within the capsule.
decrease the static pressure in the
acgen0147 The instantaneous vertical speed indicator (IVSI) case of the instrument during the
utilises an accelerometer to:-
initiation of a descent
During the initiation of a climb the accelerometer

cause a rapid increase in static
acgen0148 in an instantaneous vertical speed indicator (IVSI)
pressure in the instrument case
will:-
An operational problem of the conventional VSI

acgen0149 manoeuvre-induced error
which does not occur in the Instantaneous VSI is:-
The two properties associated with a spinning

acgen0151 rigidity and precession.
gyroscope are:-
With reference to the Attitude Indicator or

acgen0154 Artificial Horizon, as an aircraft changes its pitch the gyro remains at right angles to
the aircraft’s longitudinal axis
attitude or bank:-
acgen0155 The gyroscope used in a direction indicator is a:- Vertical axis gyro.
Apparent wander in a Direction Indicator is caused

acgen0157 the rotation of the earth
by:-
Wear in the bearings and gimbals as well as air

acgen0159 causing real wander of a gyro
turbulence will have the effect of:-
acgen0162 The indications on a turn indicator during a turn to the ball should move to the left and
the right whilst taxying are:- the needle should show a right turn.
If the rotor speed of a turn indicator increases the pointer will show a lesser rate of
acgen0164
above normal:- turn
acgen0166 The turn indicator makes use of a:- rate gyro
Control of the precession of the gyro in a turn the tension of a spring mounted
acgen0167 between the gimbal and the case of
indicator is achieved by:-
the instrument
acgen0168 The needle of a turn co-ordinator shows:- the angle of bank

acgen0169 The diagram below indicates a:- balanced turn
acgen0170 The diagram below indicates a:- slipping turn.
acgen0172 The type of gyro used in an attitude indicator is:- an earth gyro.
During take-off the error which may be expected

acgen0173 from an air-driven Artificial Horizon, or Attitude is erection error
Indicator:-
During flight the gyro in a Direction Indicator aligns

acgen0174 a fixed point in space
itself with:-
An aircraft engine is designed to operate on a

acgen0177 specific octane rating. Using fuel of a higher octane pre-ignition
than recommended may result in:-
A manually operated primer pump should always

acgen0179 be used to prime a cold engine for start because:-
the mixture should be in the full lean

When attempting to start an engine which has position until the engine fires and
acgen0182
been over-primed or flooded:- then richened slowly to keep the
engine running
In the southern hemisphere, an aircraft is to

maintain a constant heading of 090° (M) on a
acgen0186 magnetic compass. If the aircraft speed is show an apparent turn to the south
increased from 80 kts to 110 kts the compass
would:-
is caused by local magnetic fields

acgen0187 The deviation error found in a magnetic compass:-
within the aircraft
When executing a turn from 160° through south to

210°, in the southern hemisphere, using only a
acgen0189 190°
magnetic compass, the most appropriate heading
to roll out on would be:-
acgen0192 Compass deviation in a particular aircraft:- is a fixed value for each heading
acgen0195 In comparison to a generator:- the power output of an alternator

will be greater at a lower rpm
The operating principle of a DC generator is that uses a commutator to convert DC

acgen0197
it:- into AC.
when pressure is increased on a

A hydraulic system operates on the basic principle confined volume of fluid the
acgen0199
that:- increased pressure will be
transmitted by the fluid
The pilot of an aircraft which is equipped with

acgen0200 manifold pressure gauge would be able to identify a decrease in RPM
the presence of carburettor icing by:-
With reference to the figure below, the trailing

acgen0201 a split flap
edge flap type indicated is:-
With reference to the figure below, the trailing

acgen0203 a Fowler flap.
edge flap type indicated is:-
allow the aeroplane to fly at a higher

acgen0204 The effect of slats is to:-
angle of attack and a lower airspeed
MSL temperature of 15°C and lapse

According to the International Standard
acgen0205 rate of 1.98°C /1000 ft up to 36 090
Atmosphere (ISA) there is a:-
ft
According to the International Standard

acgen0206 1225 grammes per cubic metre
Atmosphere (ISA), the density of air at sea level is:-
routes filtered air to the exhaust

Application of “alternate air” in a fuel injection
acgen0208 pipes for heating before entering
system:-
the induction system.
acgen0210 An aircraft’s pitot tube is usually mounted:- directly into the airflow
a tube mounted in the relative
acgen0211 Pitot pressure is taken from:-
airflow

acgen0212 Normal static pressure is taken from:-
airflow
The effect of having two static vents located one

acgen0213 position error will be reduced
on either side of an aircraft’s fuselage is that:-
acgen0214 The alternate static valve draws air from:- within the aircraft cockpit.
If the speed of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed

acgen0215 pitch propeller decreases, but the throttle setting remain the same
remains constant the RPM will:-
The component of a hydraulic system which stores

acgen0219 an accumulator
hydraulic fluid under pressure is called:-
Loss of pressure in a hydraulic system is indicated

acgen0220 a warning light usually red
to the pilot:-
In the event that a fuse in an electrical circuit has it should be replaced only once with
acgen0222
blown:- a fuse of the same rating
it should be pushed back in only

In the event that a circuit breaker in an electrical
acgen0223 circuit has tripped:- once after allowing a cooling off
period
Control of the precession of the gyro in a turn

having a high rotor speed
indicator is achieved by:-
Right
Helps generate aerodynamic lift to

prevent tailboom from dipping
control the flow of air over the

engine cylinders in order to maintain
the correct operating temperature.
a cylinder which tests show runs the

hottest
improve engine cooling
high air pressure.
excessive tread wear in the centre of

the tyre.
keep the nosewheel correctly

aligned with the airframe
the shape and rigidity of the

fuselage is provided by formers and
stringers whilst the stressed skin
carries part of the load
is the main spar
rear or auxiliary spar.
the inflation valve to break away

from the inner tube
the torque links are worn or have

failed
the torque links are worn or have

failed
a semi-monocoque structure
is the main spar
low air pressure
during the normal landing.
longeron
between 20° and 25° before TDC

during the compression stroke
pre-ignition
exhaust and induction strokes
the compression and exhaust

strokes.
gear type pump.
by both high pressure oil and splash

lubrication.
pump oil from the sump back to the

oil tank
oil is stored in the engine sump and

distributed throughout the engine
by a pressure pump
are an indication of low oil supply.
before being fed to the engine

components
between the pressure relief valve
and the sump
maintain a constant oil pressure

over a range of engine power
changes
after leaving the oil cooler
provide high voltage to the spark

plugs
prevent the fuel from surging about

during flight
produce a strong retarded spark

usually in the left magneto for easier
starting
is created by a rotating magnet
the engine will continue to run with

the magneto switch in the off
position
draws fuel from a position higher

than the sump to allow water or
other impurities to settle at the
bottom of the tank
producing a strong retarded spark

during the low RPM of engine start.
the engine starting to run rough and

a decrease in RPM
discharge additional fuel into the

venturi
provide extra fuel when the throttle

is opened rapidly.
carburettor icing.
the ratio of fuel to air is reduced

will also richen the mixture because
of the higher air temperature
at the venturi butterfly valve or inlet

manifold
ensure that the thrust produced is

constant along the propeller blade
richen the mixture increase the RPM

then increase the manifold pressure
setting
a small blade angle
increase
that the mixture is too rich
will still produce electrical power at

low RPM
distilled water
full tanks will minimise condensation

forming overnight
does not rely on battery power to

bring it on line.
voltage regulator
detonation
ampere-hours.
convert the AC output into DC

prevent the flow of current from the
battery to the generator
remove air from the instrument case
decrease the pressure within the

instrument case.
a pressure relief valve which is

located just before the vacuum
pump.
3 - 5 inches of mercury
indicate the flow of current from the

alternator.
indicate the voltage in the electrical

system
the altimeter airspeed indicator and

vertical speed indicator.
over-read because the cockpit

pressure is usually lower than the
outside pressure
over-read because the cockpit

pressure is usually lower than the
outside pressure
the altimeter VSI and ASI
over-read
continue to indicate the altitude at
which the blockage occurred.
remain constant
the normal operating speed range
pitot pressure is fed to the capsule
static pressure is fed to the case.
indicated airspeed corrected for

instrument and position error
calibrated or rectified airspeed

corrected for temperature and
density
between static and pitot pressure
expand causing the instrument to

shown an increase in altitude
contract causing the instrument to

shown a decrease in altitude
that oil is slipping past the piston

rings and is being burnt in the
combustion chamber
increase
decrease at a slower rate than that

inside the capsule
increase at a slower rate than that

inside the capsule
decrease the static pressure of the
capsule during the initiation of a
descent.
cause a rapid decrease in static

pressure in the capsule.
manoeuvre-induced error
rigidity and precession.
the gyro remains in the vertical

relative to the earth.
Horizontal axis gyro
the rotation of the earth
causing real wander of a gyro
the ball should move to the left and

the needle should show a right turn.
the pointer will show a higher rate

of turn
rate gyro
the tension of a spring mounted

between the gimbal and the case of
the instrument
the rate of turn

balanced turn
slipping turn.
an earth gyro.
is a temporary error in both pitch

and roll
a fixed point in space
lead fouling of the spark plugs
the primer is more effective than the

throttle accelerator pump and will
pump more fuel into the venturi as a
result
the mixture should be in the full lean

position until the engine fires and
then richened slowly to keep the
engine running
show an apparent turn to the south
is caused by local magnetic fields

within the aircraft
190°
varies with each heading
the power output of an alternator

will be greater at a lower rpm
it is self-excited and does not

require the use of a battery
when pressure is increased on a

confined volume of fluid the
increased pressure will be
transmitted by the fluid
a decrease in manifold pressure
a split flap
a Fowler flap.
allow the aeroplane to fly at a higher

angle of attack and a lower airspeed
MSL temperature of 15°C and lapse

rate of 1.98°C /1000 ft up to 36 090
ft
1225 grammes per cubic metre
feeds air from within the engine

cowling to the induction system
directly into the airflow

airflow
a port located in an area of

undisturbed air
position error will be reduced
within the aircraft cockpit.
decrease
an accumulator
a warning light usually red
it should be replaced only once with

a fuse of the same rating
it should be pushed back in only

once after allowing a cooling off
period
the tension of a spring mounted

between the gimbal and the case of
the instrument
Database Question
An aircraft is flying from A (32° E) in an westerly direction to B (12° W) along the equator.
nav0003
The aircraft:-
nav0005 On the earth:-
nav0007 Convergency is defined as being:-
nav0010 When applied to an aeronautical chart, the term “topographical chart” means:-
nav0014 The scale of a chart is expressed as 15 cm to 25 nm. As a representative fraction, this is:-
An aeronautical chart which portrays the earth's features with a very little distortion, is
nav0015
known as:-
An aeronautical chart which portrays the earth's features with a very little distortion, is
nav0015
known as:-
nav0024 The scale of a Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection is correct:
nav0025 On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection:
nav0026 On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection:-
On a chart constructed using the Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection, a rhumb line
nav0029
track:-
nav0031 When magnetic variation is indicated as "West", it means that:-
nav0032 When magnetic variation is indicated as "East", it means that:-
An aircraft on a cross country flight is to maintain a heading of 290° (M). From the figures
nav0034 extracted from the compass correction card in the figure below, the compass heading to
steer is:-
An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of 270° (M) on a
nav0035
magnetic compass. If the aircraft's speed is increased the compass would:-
An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of 360° (M) using
nav0038
a magnetic compass. If the airspeed is decreased the compass would:-
nav0040 Compass deviation:-
nav0045 One kilometre is defined as:-
Overhead HEIDELBERG VOR (HGV), (S26° 42' E028° 18'), en route DURBAN
nav0047 INTERNATIONAL, (S29° 58' E030° 58'), TAS 120, W/V 100/15. The mean magnetic heading
to steer is:-
Overhead PILANESBERG, (S25° 32, E027° 12'), at 0730 UTC, en route MAPUTO, (S25° 55'
nav0049
E032° 34'), FL095, OAT -5°C, RAS 103 kts, W/V 240/10. The ETA for MAPUTO is:-
With reference to the figure below, the symbol, appearing on a South African 1:1000 000
nav0065
aeronautical chart, indicates:-
nav0070
aeronautical chart, indicates that:-
An aircraft flies from A to B, distance 133 nm, in 1 hour and 12 minutes. If there is a
nav0075
headwind of 12 kts the TAS is:-
Track 183° (T), Heading 209° (M), TAS 110 kts, Groundspeed 118 kts, variation 19° W. The
nav0078
W/V is:-
nav0081 Track 115° (T), Heading 110° (T), TAS 115 kts, Groundspeed 105 kts. The W/V is:
nav0082 Track 184° (T), Drift 5° left, Variation 22°W, deviation 4° West. The compass heading is:-
At 1415 an aircraft was overhead a VOR maintaining radial 215° en route for B, heading
nav0083
210° (M). At 1430, the pilot decides to return to the VOR. The heading to steer is:-
An aircraft is flying from Alpha to Bravo, total distance 96 nm. After flying for 40 nm a fix is
nav0084
obtained which places the aircraft 3 nm right of track. The track error is:-
An aircraft is flying from EAST LONDON, (S33° 03' E027° 50'), to COOKHOUSE NDB, (S32°
nav0086 45' E025° 49'), drift 8°L. The relative bearing required from the COOKHOUSE NDB to
maintain the track is:-
Track 145° (T), W/V 220/20, TAS 125 kts, variation 22°W. The magnetic heading to steer
nav0089
is:-
An aircraft with a TAS of 110 kts, flies from A to B, distance 148nm, in 1 hr 14 mins. The
nav0090
TAS required to fly from B back to A in 1 hr 20 mins is:-
nav0091 FL105, temperature ISA + 1°, RAS 85 kts. The TAS will be:-
Track 002° (T), W/V 315/15, TAS 115 kts, variation 18°W, deviation 2° West. The compass
nav0094
heading to fly is:-
nav0099 Official day is defined as the period:-
nav0102 Sunset is defined as:-
nav0103 Sunrise is defined as:-
nav0104 South Africa uses a standard time factor of:-
nav0106 Aircraft heading 175° (C), variation 18° W, Deviation 4° W. The aircraft’s true heading is:-
nav0108 When compass deviation is indicated as "West", it means that:-
An aircraft is to fly from A to B, distance 235 nm, TAS 90 kts, tailwind 5 kts, cruise fuel flow
nav0111 8.5 USG/Hr, assume 3 USG is required to take-off and climb to cruising altitude and the
reserve fuel requirement is 9 USG. The total fuel required is:-
If the local mean time at airfield A, longitude E018° 45', is 0818 then, if both positions are
nav0112
in South Africa, the time, UTC, at airfield B, longitude E021° 45' will be:-
nav0114 Distance 185 nm, GS 95, fuel flow 6.8 USG/hr. The trip fuel is:-
nav0121 Distance flown 88 nm, flight time 43 minutes. The groundspeed is:-
nav0123 W/V 290/15, TAS 90 kts, Track 320° (T). The heading is:-
nav0125 When referring to direction on the earth the cardinal points are:-
Aircraft heading 008° (T), variation 24° W, Deviation 4° West. The aircraft’s compass
nav0129
heading is:-
nav0132 TAS 110 kts, W/V 155/15, Track 085° (T). The drift is:-
nav0167 40 US gallons equals:-
nav0171 Airfield elevation 2800 ft, QNH 1023. The pressure altitude is:-
nav0174 Airfield elevation 1090 ft, QNH 1016, temperature +22°C. The density altitude is:-
nav0174 Airfield elevation 1090 ft, QNH 1016, temperature +22°C. The density altitude is:-
nav0184 Using the following information, W/V 220/10, Hdg 176° (T), TAS 100 kts:-
nav0188 W/V 045/12, Track 101° (T), drift 6° right, TAS 95 kts. The groundspeed is:-
nav0195 If official night ends at 0500, the time of sunrise is:-

nav0197 If official night in South Africa starts at 1645 UTC, the local time of sunset is:-
nav0198 If official day in South Africa starts at 0325 UTC, the local time of sunrise is:-
nav0199 If the time of sunset in South Africa is given as 1615 UTC, official night begins at:-
nav0202 The axis about which the earth rotates is between:-
nav0203 The longitude of a position refers to its location:-
nav0206 The reference for the measurement of latitude is:-
nav0208 Convergency:-
nav0213 The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is called:-
nav0214
aeronautical chart, indicates:-
nav0218 Flight time A to B = 1 hour 15 minutes, fuel flow 7.3 USG/hr. The trip fuel is:-
The mean magnetic track and distance from BISHO (S32° 55’ E027° 16’) to BURGERSDORP
nav0224
(S30° 58’ E026° 20’) is:-
An aircraft, maintaining a heading of 295° (C), obtains a relative bearing of 345° from an
nav0231 NDB. If the aircraft’s variation is 20° W and deviation is 3° E, the bearing to plot from the
NDB is:-
At 0830 an aircraft was overhead NELSPRUIT (S25° 30’ E030° 55’) on track for
nav0233 PILANESBURG (S25° 22’ E027° 12’). At 0924 the aircraft crosses radial 020 WIV (S25° 50’
E029° 12’). The groundspeed is:-
An aircraft climbs from 2500 ft to 9500 ft at a constant rate of climb of 350 fpm. If the
nav0243
mean climb groundspeed is 85 kts the distance covered during the climb is:-
nav0251 When referring to direction on the earth the quadrantal points are:-
nav0252 When referring to direction on the earth the cardinal points are:-
nav0255 When magnetic variation is indicated as "East":-
nav0256 When magnetic variation is indicated as "West":-
nav0265 Pressure altitude 5000 ft, temperature ISA +23°C. The density altitude is:-
nav0266 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-
nav0270 Runway 16 in use, surface wind 270/12. The aircraft would have a:-
The significance of the two standard parallels on a Lambert’s Conformal Conic projection
nav0296
is that:-
The type of chart projection which is constructed by placing a cone around an imaginary
nav0299
earth, so that it cuts the earth at two different parallels of latitude is called a:-
The type of chart on which meridians of longitude and parallels of latitude are at 90° to
nav0011
each other is called:-
An aircraft in the southern hemisphere is to maintain a constant heading of 270° (M) on a

nav0035
magnetic compass. If the aircraft's speed is increased the compass would:-
nav0130 TAS 100 kts, W/V 005/15, Track 345° (T). The groundspeed is:-
nav0266 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-

Common Answer Right
flying both a great circle and rhumb flying both a great circle and rhumb
line track line track
the shortest distance between two

a parallel of latitude is a rhumb line
points is along
the angle between adjacent the angle between adjacent

meridians. meridians.
that the earth’s features are

that the earth’s features are
represented with a minimum of
represented with a
distortion
1: 308 833 1: 308 833 308833.3333
topographical orthomorphic
conformal. orthomorphic
only at the standard parallels. only at the standard parallels.
convergency is constant throughout

convergency varies throughout the
the chart but correct only at the
chart and is con
parallel of origin
a rhumb line will cut each meridian a rhumb line will cut each meridian
at the same angle at the same angle
will always cut every meridian at the will always cut every meridian at the
same angle same angle
magnetic north is located to the magnetic north is located to the

west of true north west of true north
magnetic north is located to the east magnetic north is located to the east
of true nort of true north
288° (C) 288° (C)

show an apparent turn to the south show an apparent turn to the south
indicate an apparent turn to the

continue to show the same heading.
west
is the difference in degrees between usually varies on all headings in the

true north an same aircraft
one ten thousandth of the distance one ten thousandth of the distance
from the equator to either pole from the equator to either pole
160° (M) 160° (M)
0948 UTC 0948 UTC
a VOR facility co-located with a a VOR facility co-located with a

compulsory report compulsory reporting point
the length of the longest runway is the aerodrome does not have
4495 feet runway lights
99 kts 123 kts
306/16 306/16
069/14 069/14
215° (C) 215° (C)

040° (M) 040° (M)
4.5°. 4.5°.
008° 352°
176° (M) 176° (M)
TAS 101 TAS 121
100 kts 100 kts
014° (C) 017° (C)
from 15 minutes after sunrise to 15 from 15 minutes before sunrise to

minutes before 15 minutes after sunset
being 15 minutes before the start of being 15 minutes before the start of
official nigh official night
when the very first part of the sun when the very first part of the sun
appears above appears above the horizon
UTC +2 UTC +2
153° (T) 153° (T)
magnetic north is located to the compass north is to the west of

west of compass n magnetic north.
33 USG 33 USG
0630 UTC 0630 UTC

13.3 USG 13.3 USG
123 kts 123 kts
315° (T). 315° (T).
north east south and west north east south and west
0 036° (C)
7° left 7° left
151 litres 151 litres
2500 ft 2500 ft
3300 ft. 3300 ft.
4000 ft 4000 ft
1800 ft 2080 ft.
2080 ft. 2080 ft.
the track is 172° (T) and the the track is 172° (T) and the
groundspeed is 93 k groundspeed is 93 kts
88 kts 88 kts
445 515
1900 LMT 1830 LMT
0540 LMT. 0540 LMT.
1830 LMT. 1830 LMT.
true north and true south true north and true south
east or west of the prime meridian east or west of the prime meridian
the equator. the equator.
is greater at high latitudes than it is is greater at high latitudes than it is

at low lat at low latitudes
variation variation
an isogonal. an isogonal.
9.1 USG 9.1 USG
001° (M) and 127 nm. 001° (M) and 127 nm.
077° 083°. 83
94 kts 102 kts
28 nm 28 nm
360° 090° 180° and 270° 045° 135° 225° 315°
north north east east south east

360° 090° 180° and 270°
south south
the value of variation must be

the value of variation must be
subtracted from a true heading to
subtracted from a t
obtain a magnetic heading
the value of variation must be added
the value of variation must be added
to a true heading to obtain a
to a true hea magnetic heading
7760 ft. 7760 ft.
IAS corrected for instrument and IAS corrected for instrument and
position errors< position errors
4 kt tailwind 4 kt tailwind
they are the points where the cone

of the projection cuts through the
the graduated scale on these
imaginary earth’s surface and
parallels may be used
therefore the scale of the chart is
only correct at these points
Lambert conformal conic projection Lambert conformal conic projection
topographical orthomorphic.
show an apparent turn to the south show an apparent turn to the south
86 kts 86 kts
IAS corrected for temperature and IAS corrected for instrument and
altitude position errors
Database
fppa0003
fppa0003
fppa0005
fppa0009
fppa0016
fppa0028
fppa0047
fppa0050
fppa0061
fppa0065
fppa0066
fppa0069
fppa0071
fppa0076
fppa0085
fppa0092
fppa0112
fppa0113
fppa0113
fppa0116
fppa0123
fppa0130
fppa0133
fppa0134
fppa0135
fppa0138
fppa0139
fppa0140
fppa0146
fppa0148
fppa0149
fppa0150
fppa0153
fppa0156
fppa0160
fppa0171
fppa0177
fppa0182
fppa0185
fppa0187
fppa0189
fppa0202
fppa0214
fppa0215
fppa0218
fppa0220
fppa0221
fppa0224
fppa0240
fppa0241
fppa0256
fppa0266
fppa0284
fppa0286
fppa0287
fppa0288
fppa0292
fppa0305
fppa0309
fppa0314
fppa0326
fppa0330
fppa0338
fppa0377
fppa0381
fppa0382
fppa0383
fppa0397
fppa0403
fppa0405
fppa0407
fppa0411
fppa0414
fppa0415
fppa0416
fppa0420
Question
A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.8", weight 2300 lbs, MAUW 2500 lbs. The pilot decides to add an
additional 22 USG of fuel, SW 6 lbs/USG, (arm 93.0"). The new CG is:-
A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.8", weight 2300 lbs, MAUW 2500 lbs. The pilot decides to add an
A loaded aircraft's CG is 88.3", weight 2450 lbs. During flight the aircraft will burn off 280 lbs
of fuel (arm 93.0"). The landing CG is:-
A loaded aircraft's CG is 89.2", weight 2470 lbs. During flight the aircraft burns off 173 lbs of
fuel (arm 93.0"). The landing CG will have:-
Airfield elevation 1200 ft, QNH 1003 hPa. The pressure altitude is:-
An increase in temperature at a particular airfield would have the effect of:-
With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. OAT +20°C, pressure altitude
5000 ft, weight 2400 lbs, 10 kts headwind. The ground roll required is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. OAT +30°C, pressure altitude
2500 ft, 10 kts headwind, runway length available 1200 ft. The maximum weight for this
take-off is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-8: Time, Distance and Fuel to Climb. Departure airfield pressure
altitude 3000 ft, OAT +30°C, cruising level FL095, OAT 0°C. The distance covered during the
climb is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 8 500 ft, OAT ISA+2°C,
65% power. The RPM required is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 6 500 ft, OAT +10°C,
60% power. The RPM required is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-9: Engine Performance. Pressure altitude 4 500 ft, temperature
ISA. The RPM at 70% power is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-10: Speed Power - Performance Cruise. Pressure altitude 7 500
ft, OAT+5°C, 65% power. The TAS is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-11: Speed Power - Economy Cruise. Pressure altitude 10 500 ft,
OAT 0°C, 55% power. The TAS is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-13: Range – EconomyCruise. Pressure altitude 10 500 ft,
temperature ISA, 55% power. The range with no reserve is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-15: Time, Fuel and Distance to Descend. Cruising pressure
altitude 9 500 ft, OAT -5°C, destination pressure altitude 2 500 ft, OAT +15°C. The time taken
for the descent is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Gross Weight, 25° Flaps, 30° bank. The Indicated
stall speed is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2350 lbs, 40° Flaps. The Indicated stall
speed in straight and level is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2350 lbs, 40° Flaps. The Indicated stall
speed in straight and level is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-2: Stall Speeds. Weight 2250 lbs, 25° Flaps, 15° bank. The
Indicated stall speed is approximately:-
300 litres of fuel, SG 0.72. The weight of the fuel in lbs is:-
SG 0.73, fuel weight 108 kg. The volume of fuel in litres is:-
An aircraft achieves a performance of 3.8 air nautical miles/litre. If the fuel flow is 7.8
USG/hr the TAS is:-
An aircraft’s performance is 2.0 ground nautical miles/lb. If the fuel flow is 8.5 USG/hr
(SG .71), and there is a headwind component of 8 kts the TAS is:-
An aircraft achieves a performance of 3.5 air nautical miles/litre, fuel flow is 8.5 USG/hr,
tailwind component 7 kts. The groundspeed is:-
The term “utility category” means that an aircraft:-
The maximum zero fuel weight of an aircraft is the empty weight of the aircraft:-
An aircraft flies from A to B with 27 USG of fuel on board. The trip fuel is 14 USG and
alternate and reserve fuel is 9 USG. If the holding fuel flow is 6.5 USG/hr, the aircraft could
hold overhead B, without using the reserve fuel, for:-
The maximum ramp weight of an aircraft:-

A stopway:-
A clearway:-
Runway length 1550 metres, displaced threshold 30 metres. The take-off distance available
(TODA) is:-
With reference to Figure 1-6. 25° Flaps Take-off Performance. Pressure altitude 4000 ft,
temperature +20°C, 5 kts headwind, take-off distance available 1650 ft. The maximum
weight at which take-off can be made is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 2-2: Loading Graph. If the combined weight of the pilot and front
passenger is 145 Kg, the moment/1000 is:-
With reference to Figure 2-2: Loading Graph. If the total fuel loaded in the aircraft is 35 USG,
the moment/1000 is:-
An aircraft in level flight covers a distance of 158 nm at a groundspeed of 95 kts, consuming

12.5 USG. The fuel flow is:-
On final approach to land an aircraft encounters a sudden decrease in the headwind

component. The aircraft:-
On final approach to land an aircraft encounters a sudden increase in the tailwind

component. The aircraft:-
In order to avoid the wake turbulence when landing behind a heavy aircraft which has just
landed, a lighter aircraft should:-
In order to avoid the wake turbulence whilst following a heavy aircraft during the approach
to land, a lighter aircraft should:-
With reference to Figure 1-3: Flaps Up Take-off Ground Roll. Airfield elevation 650 ft, QNH
1018, OAT +25°C, weight 2500 lbs, 5 kts tailwind. The ground roll required is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-17: Landing Performance. Airfield pressure altitude 5000 ft, OAT
+32°C, weight 2500 lbs, 13 kts headwind. The landing distance over a 50ft barrier is
approximately:-
Runway 09 threshold 2250 ft, Runway 27 threshold 2200 ft, length 4300 ft. The percentage
slope of runway 27 is:-
The runway length available for take-off:-

Aircraft empty weight 1500 lbs, crew, passengers and baggage 900 lbs, trip and reserve fuel
180 lbs, taxi fuel 5 lbs, maximum take-off weight 2580 lbs. The maximum ramp weight is:-
With reference to Figure 2-3: CG Range and Weight of the Aeroplane Manual. Empty weight
1490 lbs, CG 84.7 inches, pilot and instructor 350 lbs located at 77.8 inches, fuel 180 lbs
located at 93 inches. The aeroplane:-
Aeroplane empty weight 1490 lbs, CG 84.7 inches, pilot and front passenger 350 lbs located
at 77.8 inches, fuel 210 lbs located at 93 inches, aft passenger 100 lbs located at 116.6
inches, no baggage. The loaded CG of the aeroplane is:-
A loaded aircraft's CG is 91.0", weight 2400 lbs. A passenger weighing 160 lbs located in a
front seat (arm 77.8") changes place with a passenger weighing 100 lbs located in a rear
seat (arm 116.6"), the pilot loads an additional 50 lbs of fuel (arm 93.0”). The new CG is:-
With reference to Figure 1-22: Take-off Distance. Pressure altitude 500 ft, Weight 2400 lbs,
temperature +10°C, the required ground roll is:-
temperature +15°C, the take-off distance required to clear 50 ft is:-
With reference to Figure 1-24: Landing Distance. Weight 2400 lbs, airfield elevation 2650 ft,
QNH 1018 hPa, temperature +24°C, the landing distance to clear 50 ft is:-
Aeroplane empty weight 1380 lbs, CG 84.5 inches, pilot and front passenger 310 lbs located
at 77.8 inches, fuel 275 lbs located at 94 inches, aft passenger 80 lbs located at 116.5 inches,
no baggage. The loaded CG of the aeroplane is:-
Runway length 1020 metres, stopway 30 metres. The landing distance available is:-
Runway length 1150 metres, stopway 30 metres, displaced threshold 25 metres. The
landing distance available is:-
The presence of a permanently displaced threshold:-
The presence of a stopway:-
Runway 31 threshold 725 ft, Runway 13 threshold 800 ft, length 3400 ft. The percentage
slope of runway 13 is:-
With reference to Figure 1-4: Flaps Up Take-off Performance. Airfield elevation 4090 ft, QNH
1016 hPa, OAT -2°C, weight 2360 lbs, zero wind. The take-off distance required over a 50 ft
barrier is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-6. 25° Flaps Take-off Performance. Airfield elevation 1410 ft,
QNH 1010 hPa, temperature +24°C, weight 2340 lbs, 7 kts headwind. The take-off distance
required over a 50 ft barrier is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-8: Time, Distance and Fuel to Climb. Departure airfield elevation
2410 ft, QNH 1010 hPa, temperature ISA, cruise pressure altitude 8500 ft,
With reference to Figure 1-10: Speed Power - Performance Cruise. Pressure altitude 2 500
ft, temperature ISA +4°C, groundspeed 111 kts, headwind 9 kts. The % power is:-
With reference to Figure 1-11: Speed Power - Economy Cruise. Pressure altitude 4 000 ft,
temperature is standard, TAS 110 kts. The % power is:-
With reference to Figure 1-12: Range – Performance Cruise. Pressure altitude 4 000 ft,
temperature ISA +5°C, the range with no reserve is 620 nm. The % power is:-
An aircraft flies from A to B, distance 225 nm, GS 100 kts, fuel flow 8.5 USG/hr. Taxi, take-off
and climb fuel is 3.3 USG. If the total fuel on board is 35 USG, the reserve fuel is:-
Aquaplaning is more likely to occur on a wet runway at:-
A factor which may increase the possibility of aquaplaning is:-
The basic empty weight of an aircraft is:-
The empty weight of an aircraft including unusable fuel, full oil and fixed equipment is
referred to as:-
With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 3000 ft, 2400
RPM. The fuel flow is:-
With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, 2500
RPM. The % BHP is:-
With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, RPM
2400, the range is:-
temperature +10°C, 5 kt headwind. The take-off distance required to clear 50 ft is:-
temperature +10°C, dry, grass runway, zero wind. The take-off distance required to clear 50
ft is:-
temperature +30°C, dry, grass runway, 5 kts headwind. The take-off distance required to
clear 50 ft is:-
temperature +10°C, dry, grass runway, 2 kts tailwind. The take-off distance required to clear
50 ft is:-
temperature +15°C, dry, grass runway, 10 kts headwind. The required ground roll is:-
With reference to Figure 1-23: Cruise Performance Table. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, RPM
2400, the range is:-
Common Answer Right
89.5"
89.0" 89.0"
87.7" 87.7"
moved aft moved forward
1500 ft 1500 ft
increasing the density altitude increasing the density altitude
1450 ft
2250 lbs
25 nm
2490 RPM 2490 RPM
2380 RPM 2380 RPM
2500 RPM
117 kts 117 kts
103 kts 103 kts

700 nm
20 minutes 25 minutes
54 KIAS 54 KIAS
52 KIAS 48 KIAS
48 KIAS 48 KIAS
48.5 KIAS 48.5 KIAS
476 lbs 476 lbs
120 kts
93 kts 109 kts
120 kts 120 kts
may not be used for stall training
plus crew, passengers, baggage and

plus only unusable fuel
any cargo
37 minutes 37 minutes
is the maximum take-off weight of is the maximum take-off weight of

the aircraft plu the aircraft plus taxi fuel
is not part of a clearway
includes the stopway includes the stopway
1550 metres 1550 metres
2400 lbs
24.8 24.8
24.5 19.5
7.5 USG/hr 7.5 USG/hr
will start to overshoot
will start to overshoot
attempt to land after the point at attempt to land after the point at
which the heavy aircraft landed which the heavy aircraft landed
remain below the heavier aircraft’s

flight path
1740 ft
1320 ft 1290 ft
1.16% up 1.16% up
is reduced by the presence of a

permanently displa
2580 lbs 2585 lbs
may be operated in the utility may be operated in the utility

category category
85.87 inches 85.87 inches
91.25"
885 ft 885 ft
2265 ft 2265 ft
1372 ft
86.01 inches 86.01 inches
1020 metres 1020 metres
1175 metres
increases the take-off distance reduces the landing distance

available available
will not affect the landing distance will not affect the landing distance
available available
2.2% down 2.2% down
1700 ft 1700 ft
1200 ft
0.7 0.75
0.65 0.65
0.65 0.65
11.7 USG
high groundspeeds high groundspeeds
over-inflated tyres under-inflated tyres
the empty weight of an aircraft the empty weight of an aircraft

including unusable fuel, full oil and
including unusable
fixed equipment
the basic empty weight the basic empty weight
7.5 gph 7.5 gph
0.74
780 nm
1655 ft
2530 ft 2428 ft
2762 ft 2650 ft
2420 ft 2306 ft
1223 ft 1223 ft
775 nm
Database
LAW0002
LAW0003
LAW0004
LAW0008
LAW0011
LAW0017
LAW0022
LAW0024
LAW0028
LAW0029
LAW0031
LAW0033
LAW0034
LAW0035
LAW0037
LAW0040
LAW0043
LAW0045
LAW0046
LAW0047
LAW0049
LAW0051
LAW0052
LAW0055
LAW0056
LAW0057
LAW0058
LAW0061
LAW0065
LAW0069
LAW0076
LAW0079
LAW0080
LAW0082
LAW0083
LAW0085
LAW0087
LAW0088
LAW0089
LAW0090
LAW0091
LAW0092
LAW0096
LAW0099
LAW0104
LAW0105
LAW0106
LAW0106
LAW0107
LAW0109
LAW0110
LAW0112
LAW0115
LAW0118
LAW0120
LAW0122
LAW0124
LAW0126
LAW0128
LAW0133
LAW0134
LAW0136
LAW0137
LAW0139
LAW0144
LAW0148
LAW0150
LAW0200
LAW0202
Question
“Day” is the period between:-
The period of validity of a Class 2 medical for a private pilot under the age of 40 is:-
A private pilot may act as co-pilot on an aircraft:-
No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:-
An accident involving a South African registered aircraft outside the Republic shall be
reported as soon as possible to the:-
For an aeroplane flying VFR in uncontrolled airspace between 1 500 ft and 5 000 ft above
the ground by day, the required weather minima is:-
Unless otherwise directed by ATC, compliance with the semi-circular rule is required for all
flights operating above:-
An aircraft which is following a railway line within one nautical mile shall, unless otherwise
instructed by ATC:-
The minimum height at which an aircraft may fly across an aerodrome without conforming
to the traffic pattern is:-
The visual ground signal as shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area at an
aerodrome indicates that:-
"Night" is the period between:-
No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft:-
A private pilot, who is not the holder of an instrument rating, may not act as a flight crew
member if, prior to each flight, their flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed:-
The take-off visibility required for an aeroplane on a VFR flight departing from an
Aerodrome Traffic Zone is:-
The navigation and associated equipment required for aircraft operated under VFR
includes:-
Unless instructed to do otherwise by an ATSU, an aircraft flying at or below 1500 ft above

the surface following a line feature:-
To an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome, a series of red flashes shall mean:-
The symbol indicated in figure below, when displayed in a signal area indicates that:-
An aircraft is to maintain a track of 344° (T), drift 6° right, Variation 20° W, high ground 4300
ft above sea level. The most appropriate VFR flight level to be used is:-
Except with the prior written approval of the Commissioner, no aircraft shall circle over, or
do repeated flights over an open-air assembly of persons at a height less than:-
The mass and centre of gravity of an aircraft must be established at least:-
If an intercepting aircraft, rocking its wings, appears in front and to the right of an
intercepted aircraft, this means:-
The pilot-in-command of an aircraft may propose an amendment to an air traffic control

clearance. The amendment:-
For an aircraft to be operated by day, a serviceable rotating beacon or strobe light:-
A pilot-in-command, subject to ATC approval, may conduct special VFR flight operations:-
Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual reference to the
surface and at no time above more than:-
When two heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of
landing the:-
A pilot shall not act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, carrying a passenger by night, unless
such pilot has carried out at least:-
A night rating is valid for:-

A applicant for an aeroplane night flight rating shall have completed not less than:-
"Date of application" when used in connection with the issuing, renewal or reissuing of a
licence, certificate or rating means:-
No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the flight
time exceeds or is likely to exceed:-
No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each flight, the flight
time exceeds or is likely to exceed:-
The signal shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area of an aerodrome
indicates:-
An aircraft which is taxying across the apron:-
The holder of a medical certificate who is unable to comply with the appropriate medical
requirements and standards of the certificate:-
When operating outside of an aerodrome circuit area, an aircraft which is overtaking a

slower aircraft at the same height and heading:-
Unless otherwise authorised by an ATSU, for a flight departing into controlled or advisory
airspace an air traffic service flight plan must be filed at least:-
A record of each fuel and oil uplift must be kept:-
A pilot-in-command may conduct special VFR operations, subject to ATC approval, within a:-
An aircraft flight folio must be retained by the owner or operator for a period of:-
In terms of the Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be filed for:-
Prior to undergoing the revalidation skill test a private pilot must have flown a minimum of:-
The applicant for a private pilot licence must undergo the skill test within:-
An incident involving an aircraft within the Republic shall be reported as soon as possible to
the:-
The pilot-in-command, surviving an accident involving an aircraft within the Republic, shall
report such accident as soon as possible to the:-
If because of duty in a State or territory outside the Republic, deferral of the issuing of a
South African medical certificate for a private pilot has to be made, such deferral shall,
subject to an acceptable medical report being obtained locally, not exceed -
If because of duty in a State or territory outside the Republic, deferral of the issuing of a
South African medical certificate for a private pilot has to be made, such deferral shall,
subject to an acceptable medical report being obtained locally, not exceed -
The pilot-in-command of a non-pressurised aircraft shall ensure that breathing oxygen is

available for passengers and crew for all flights between 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft:-
An air traffic service flight plan shall be filed for:-
In an aircraft in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses which must be carried is
equal to at least:-
An aerodrome that is not equipped with night flying facilities may not be used by an aircraft
to take-off and land by night:-
In terms of the Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be filed for:-
A pilot may fly through a declared restricted area provided that:-
For flights conducted in accordance with Part 91, or flying training, operations the relevant
entries in a pilot's logbook must be made within:-
In order to change to another type of aeroplane, not previously flown, within one class
rating:
Unless two-way communication has already been established, the frequency to be used by
an intercepted aircraft and the intercepting aircraft is:-
An aircraft, operating VFR, is maintaining a track of 359° (M). Another aircraft, also VFR, is
maintaining a track of 180° (M). The two aircraft:-
Away from built-up areas or open-air assemblies of persons, the minimum height at which
an aircraft may be flown is:-
Information regarding the latest restricted areas which may affect flights may be found:-
"Cloud ceiling" means:-
An applicant for a night rating must have completed:-
An applicant for a private pilot licence (aeroplane) who is also the holder of a glider pilot
licence may:
To an aircraft in the air at an aerodrome a series of white flashes means:-
Electronic logbooks may be used to record flight time, provided that:
An aircraft which has been involved in an accident may be moved:-
The equipment required in an aircraft to be operated by night includes:-
The holder of a pilot licence must submit to the Commissioner a certified copy of the
summary of his or her logbook at least:-
A licence holder must notify the Commissioner of any change of postal address within:-
Common Answer Right
15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes

after sun after sunset
twenty four months twenty four months
on which a co-pilot is not a requirement on which a co-pilot is not a requirement
within 72 hours following blood donation within 72 hours following blood donation
appropriate aviation authority of the appropriate aviation authority of the

country in which the accident occurred country in which the accident occurred
and the Commissioner and the Commissioner
5 km visibility distance from cloud: 2 000 ft 5 km visibility distance from cloud: 2 000 ft
ho horizontally and 500 ft vertically
1 500 ft AGL 1 500 ft AGL
if flying at or below 1500 ft AGL fly to the if flying at or below 1500 ft AGL fly to the
rig right of the railway line
2000 ft. 2000 ft.
landings are prohibited landings are prohibited
15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes

before sunr before sunrise
within 72 hours of blood donation within 72 hours of blood donation
1000 hours during the preceding 12

100 hours during the preceding 30 days.
months
5 km 5 km
an airspeed indicator and a clock or watch an airspeed indicator and a clock or watch
showing the time in hours minutes and showing the time in hours minutes and
seconds seconds
shall fly to the right of the line feature shall fly to the right of the line feature
taxi clear of landing area in use taxi clear of landing area in use
aircraft are required to land take-off and aircraft are required to land take-off and
taxi taxi on runways and taxiways only
FL075. FL075.
3000 ft above the surface 3000 ft above the surface
every 5 years every 5 years
“follow me to a landing terrain” “follow me to a landing terrain”
may not be applied by the pilot without may not be applied by the pilot without
ATC appro ATC approval
is required is not required
within a CTR with a cloud ceiling of at least within a CTR with a cloud ceiling of at least
60 600 ft and visibility at least 1 500 m
3/8 of cloud within a radius of 5 nm of the 3/8 of cloud within a radius of 5 nm of the
aircr aircraft
the aircraft at the lower level has right of the aircraft at the lower level has right of
way way
three take-offs and landings by night

three take-offs and landings by night
within the 90 days immediately preceding
within the
the flight
as long as the pilot licence of the holder of

12 months
the rating is valid
10 hours of instrument flight time at least
10 hours of instrument flight time at least 5 take-offs and 5 landings by night and a
5 tak dual night cross country of not less than
150 nm
the date on which the application is
the date on which the application is
received in the prescribed form by the
received in
Commissioner
400 hours during the preceding 90 days 400 hours during the preceding 90 days
1000 hours during the preceding 12 1000 hours during the preceding 12
months. months.
shall give right of way to a vehicle which is shall give right of way to a vehicle which is
tow towing an aircraft
must furnish proof to the designated

may not exercise the privileges of the medical body or institution that he or she
licence un has recovered from the decrease in
medical fitness.
shall pass the aircraft on the right shall pass the aircraft on the right
30 minutes before departure 30 minutes before departure
in the aircraft flight folio. in the aircraft flight folio.
control zone (CTR) control zone (CTR)
5 years calculated from the date of the last 5 years calculated from the date of the last
entr entry therein.
a flight from a manned aerodrome to an

a flight from a manned aerodrome to an aerodrome traffic zone where no other
aerodrome controlled or advisory airspace will be
entered during the flight
3 hours as pilot-in command in the 3 hours as pilot-in command in the

preceding 6 mon preceding 6 months
6 months of passing the theoretical 6 months of passing the theoretical

knowledge exam knowledge examinations
Commissioner or an air traffic service unit Commissioner or an air traffic service unit
Commissioner Commissioner
two consecutive periods each of three two consecutive periods each of three
months months
two consecutive periods each of three

a single period of six months
months
in excess of 120 minutes. in excess of 120 minutes.
a flight between two aerodrome traffic

a flight from an unmanned aerodrome to
zones even though no controlled or
an aerodro
advisory airspace will be entered en route
5% or three whichever is the greater 10% or three whichever is the greater.
unless the pilot-in-command is familiar

with the except in an emergency
a flight crossing an international boundary

a flight crossing an FIR boundary
even though no landings will be made
permission from the appropriate authority permission from the appropriate authority
is obta is obtained
7 days 7 days
the pilot must undergo differences or the pilot must undergo differences or
familiarisat familiarisation training
1215 MHz 1215 MHz
could be at the same flight level. could be at the same flight level.
1000 ft above the highest obstacle within

500 ft above the ground or water
2000 ft
in the latest AIP AIP SUP AIC's and in the latest AIP AIP SUP AIC's and
NOTAMS. NOTAMS.
the height above the surface of the base of

the height above the surface of the base of the lowest cloud below 20000 feet
the l
covering more than half the sky
10 hours of instrument instruction of
10 hours of instrument instruction of
which not more than 5 hours may have
which not mo
been acquired in an approved FSTD.
be credited with a maximum of 10 glider
be credited with a maximum of 10 glider
hours towards the issue of the private pilot
hours towa
licence.
land at this aerodrome and proceed to the land at this aerodrome and proceed to the
apron apron
the data is printed on paper at least every the data is printed on paper at least every
90 day 90 days
only if authority to move it has been only if authority to move it has been
granted by granted by the investigator in charge.
an electrical torch for each crew member an electrical torch for each crew member
every 12 months every 12 months
14 days 14 days
Database Question
hpof0005 The angle of attack of an aerofoil is defined as the angle:-
hpof0015 As the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased, the centre of pressure will:-
With reference to the lift formula. If the speed is doubled whilst the angle of attack
hpof0022
remains constant, the lift will:-
hpof0026 A design feature which is used to reduce induced drag is:-
hpof0029 Washout is incorporated in some blade designs in order to:-
hpof0044 The effect of blow-back (flap-back) is to:-
hpof0045 The coning angle is determined:-
hpof0049 In a turn, rotor thrust need to overcome:
hpof0053 Rotor drag (rotor torque) is that force which acts:-
When a helicopter, maintaining a constant height above ground whilst hovering, is

hpof0057
subjected to translational lift:-
hpof0061 The correct method of recovering from retreating blade stall is to:-
Translating tendency in a helicopter with anti-clockwise rotating rotor blades is

hpof0064
corrected by:-
When power is applied, a helicopter with an anti-clockwise rotating main rotor will
hpof0065
tend to:-
hpof0070 Lowering the collective lever will:-

hpof0086 Lead-lagging (dragging) is:-
hpof0090 Lateral stability in a helicopter refers to stability in the:-
hpof0092 During autorotation:-
hpof0097 If high rotor RPM is experienced during autorotation from high altitude:-
hpof0098 Directional stability in a helicopter refers to stability in the:-
hpof0101 The effect of the driven, or propeller region during autorotation is to:-
hpof0110 The effect on a helicopter's performance of an increase in humidity is:-
With reference to the figure below, when the cyclic control is operated so as to create
hpof0125
an increase in the pitch angle of the rotor blade in position B, the rotor disc will:-
As the angle of bank during a level turn is increased, additional engine power must be
hpof0129
applied in order to:-
hpof0134 Rectified airspeed (RAS) or Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is:-
If you need to descend quickly (another aircraft coming toward you), what's the best
hpof0162
way to do so?
hpof0164 In comparison to a straight climb, during a climbing turn:-
pof0041 During a straight climb at a constant speed:-

Common Answer Right
between the chord line and the between the chord line and the
relative airflow relative airflow
move forward move forward
be four times greater be four times greater
washout. washout.
reduce induced drag reduce induced drag
reduce the helicopter's forward reduce the helicopter's forward

speed speed
by the combined effect of the by the combined effect of the rotor

centripetal force and the rotor thrust thrust and centrifugal force.
vertical component of lift and

centripetal/centrifugal force/gross
weight
in the plane of rotation and opposite

perpendicular to the relative airflow
to the direction of blade travel.
the collective lever must be lowered the collective lever must be lowered
to maintain height to maintain height
lower the collective lower the collective
applying the left anti-torque pedal. moving the cyclic to the left
yaw to the right which must be yaw to the right which must be
corrected with the left pedal corrected with the left pedal
simultaneously decrease the blade simultaneously decrease the blade

angle all the rotor blades by the angle all the rotor blades by the
same amount same amount
the forward or aft movement of a the forward or aft movement of a
blade in the plane of rotation blade in the plane of rotation
rolling plane rolling plane
collective is used to control rotor collective is used to control rotor

RPM RPM
the collective pitch lever should be the collective pitch lever should be
raised to reduce it raised to reduce it
yawing plane. yawing plane.
produce rotor drag which opposes

provide a good rotational force.
the rotor RPM
to decrease the lift to decrease the lift
tilt aft tilt left
compensate for the increased

counter the increased centrifugal
induced drag because of greater
force
blade angles
TAS corrected for instrument and IAS corrected for instrument and
position errors. position errors
Cyclic forward, Collective down,

Reduce engine power
the rate of climb will remain the
the rate of climb will reduce
same.
lift is greater than weight lift is less than weight

Database Question
A loaded helicopter's CG is 96.4", weight 2100 lbs, MAUW 2150 lbs. One passenger
fpph0004 weighing 180 lbs seated in the rear (arm 86.6") disembarks. The pilot decides to add an
A loaded helicopter's CG is 97.3", weight 2150 lbs. During flight the aircraft will burn off
fpph0005 165 lbs of fuel (arm 94.0"). The landing CG is:-
A loaded helicopter's CG is 93.0", weight 1950 lbs. A late passenger, weighing 175 lbs is
fpph0010 seated in a rear seat (arm 86.6"), 30 lbs of baggage is loaded into the forward baggage
compartment (arm 70.5"), MAUW 2180 lbs. The new CG is:-
The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 40 kg/sq m. The maximum

fpph0012
weight which can be evenly loaded in an area measuring 0.6 m x 0.5 m is:-
The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 15 lbs/sq ft. The maximum
fpph0014 weight which can be evenly loaded in an area measuring 2 ft x 1.5 ft is:-
A decrease in a helicopter's take-off and climb performance can be expected when there
fpph0018 is:-
fpph0021 Airfield elevation 1800 ft, QNH 1010. The pressure altitude is:-
fpph0023 The symbol Vy is used to indicate the:-
If the temperature at pressure altitude 9500 ft is ISA +7°C the outside air temperature
fpph0027
is:-
With reference to Figure 1-1: Airspeed System Calibration of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0034 Manual. Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) 100 kts, the Indicated Airspeed (IAS) is
approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-1: Airspeed System Calibration of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0040
Manual. Indicated Airspeed (IAS) 97 kts, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-2: Density Altitude Chart of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0049 Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, temperature ISA +20° C, the density altitude is
approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-4: IGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
fpph0054 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 3500 ft, temperature +25° C, the gross weight is
approximately:-
approximately:-
fpph0059 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 2500 ft, gross weight 2270 lbs. The maximum
allowable temperature is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-5: OGE Hover Ceiling vs Gross Weight of the Helicopter
approximately:-
fpph0066 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, gross weight 1900 lbs, the maximum
allowable temperature is:-
fpph0067 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 3000 ft, gross weight 2050 lbs, the maximum
allowable temperature for hovering is:-
fpph0068 Performance Manual. Gross weight 1950 lbs, the maximum pressure altitude for lift off
on a standard day is:-
fpph0069 Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 1500 ft, temperature ISA +19° C, the gross
weight is:-
fpph0070 Performance Manual. Helipad elevation 2800 ft, QNH 1023, gross weight 2150 lbs, the
maximum allowable temperature for lift off is:-
With reference to Figure 1-6: Airspeed Limitations (VNE) of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0071
Manual. Pressure altitude 5000 ft, temperature +30° C, the Vne is approximately:-
fpph0075 Manual. Pressure altitude 5500 ft, the maximum temperature for a Vne of 105 KIAS is
approximately:-
fpph0080 Manual. Temperature 0° C, Vne 108 KIAS, the pressure altitude is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-7: Maximum Normal Operating Speed (VNO) of the
fpph0089 Helicopter Performance Manual. Pressure altitude 6000 ft, temperature ISA -3° C, the
Vno is approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-8: Maximum Continuous Power of the Helicopter

fpph0092 Performance Manual. Outside air temperature +35° C, pressure altitude 2000 ft. The
manifold pressure for maximum continuous power is:-


manifold pressure for maximum take-off power is:-

With reference to Figure 1-9: Autorotational Performance of the Helicopter Performance

fpph0103 Manual. A helicopter is carrying out an autorotation from a pressure altitude of 6500 ft
to a pressure altitude of 1500 ft. The horizontal distance covered during the descent is
approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-9: Autorotational Performance of the Helicopter Performance

Manual. A helicopter is carrying out an autorotation from a pressure altitude of 8000 ft
fpph0104
to a pressure altitude of 4000 ft. The horizontal distance covered during the descent is
approximately:-
With reference to Figure 1-3: Wind Component Graph, of the Helicopter Performance
fpph0111 Manual. The angle between the runway and the wind direction is 30° and the wind
speed is 20 knots. The crosswind component is approximately:-
After loading passengers and baggage the pilot has 175 lbs available for fuel. If the SG is
fpph0121 0.71 the volume of fuel in USG which can be loaded is:-
fpph0122 SG 0.73, fuel weight 105 kg. The volume of fuel in US Gallons is:-
fpph0126 SG 0.71, fuel weight 240 lbs. The volume of fuel in litres is:-
fpph0127 34 USG of fuel, SG 0.72. The weight of the fuel in lbs is:-
A helicopter achieves a performance of 12 ground nautical miles/USG. If the fuel flow is

fpph0131 48 lbs per hour (SW 6lbs/USG) the groundspeed is:-
A helicopter achieves a performance of 3.5 air nautical miles/litre, fuel flow is 8.5
fpph0135
USG/hr, tailwind component 7 kts. The groundspeed is:-
fpph0137 A helicopter has a total moment of 182465 (lbs/inches) with a centre of gravity of 94.5
inches. The weight of the aircraft is:-
fpph0145 A helicopter has consumed 18.5 USG at 7.3 USG/hr, GS 100. The distance flown is:-
The floor loading of a helicopter's baggage compartment is 20 lbs/sq ft. The maximum
fpph0161 weight which can be loaded in a box measuring 2 ft x 2 ft and weighing 12 lbs is:-
A helicopter in level flight covers a distance of 158 nm at a groundspeed of 95 kts,
fpph0171
consuming 12.5 USG. The fuel flow is:-
During the climb out after lift-off a helicopter encounters a sudden decrease in the
fpph0179
headwind component. The helicopter:-
In order to avoid the wake turbulence when landing behind a heavy aircraft which has
fpph0186 just taken off, a lighter aircraft should:-
In order to avoid the wake turbulence whilst following a heavy aircraft during the
fpph0187
approach to land, a lighter aircraft should:-
fpph0191 The symbol Vne is used to define the:-
fpph0193 The total weight of a loaded helicopter may be determined by:-
fpph0169 A helicopter burns 18 USG of fuel in 2 hours 18 minutes. The fuel flow is:-
fpph0190 The symbol Vno is used to define the:-

Common Answer Right
98.32" 97.22"
97.57" 97.57"
92.55" 92.17"
12.0 kg 12.0 kg
35 lbs 30 lbs
a high temperature combined with a a high temperature combined with a

high density al high density altitude
1890 ft 1890 ft
best rate of climb speed best rate of climb speed
+3°C +3°C
104 kts 104 kts

97 kts 94 kts
4800 ft 4500 ft
2180 lbs 2180 lbs
2300 lbs 2260 lbs
+20 °C +20 °C
2100 lbs 2100 lbs
+25° C +15° C
+20° C +15° C
5000 ft 5000 ft
2150 lbs 2100 lbs
+25° C, +25° C,
106 KIAS 106 KIAS
+30° C +30° C
7500 ft 7500 ft
106 KIAS 106 KIAS
23.7” 23.7”
22.9” 22.9”
23.4” 24.5”
23.6” 23.6”
3.5 nm 3.5 nm
2.75 nm 2.75 nm
10 kts 10 kts
22 kts 22 kts
5 kts 5 kts
29.5 USG 29.5 USG
33 USG 38 USG
204 lbs 204 lbs
100 kts 96 kts
106 kts 120 kts
1931 lbs 1931 lbs
253 nm 253 nm
78 lbs 68 lbs
will start to overshoot will start to undershoot
attempt to land before the point attempt to land before the point
where the heavy a where the heavy aircraft lifted off
remain above the heavier aircraft’s

remain below the heavier aircraft’s
flight path and land after the point
flight path
at which the heavy aircraft landed
never exceed speed never exceed speed
dividing the total moment by the dividing the total moment by the
centre of gravity centre of gravity
maximum structural cruising speed maximum structural cruising speed

at which a helicopter may be flown at which a helicopter may be flown

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Database Question Common Answer

A decrease in the amount of haemoglobin in the

The volume of oxygen in the atmosphere is

the amount of oxygen required by

HP0006 Oxygen rich blood:- is found in the right ventricle.

The pumping or discharge chambers of the heart

When measuring blood pressure the lowest reading

A person suffering from sustained low blood

the total pressure of the gas mixture

increases with the consumption of

an insufficient partial pressure of

the time available to recognise the

breathing into a paper bag will

HP0025 Anaemic hypoxia may be caused by:- poor blood circulation

A consequence of hyperventilation is that there will a shortage of carbon dioxide in the

Whilst using oxygen masks passengers should be

the amount of oxygen in each breath

As altitude is gained the amount of oxygen in each

the period of time a pilot can

The "time of useful consciousness" at 25 000 ft

The amount of light which enters the eye is

In order to correct long sightedness,

In order to correct long sightedness,

Vision in low levels of illumination or at night is

looking to the side of the object in

HP0046 In order to correct short sightedness, (myopia):- a concave lens is used

During the approach to land on an unfamiliar

During the approach to land on a very wide

semi-circular canals and the

HP0058 Vertigo is:- a false sense of rotation

should be treated by looking at and

is associated with the inner ear and

A deterioration in hearing with age is referred to

A deterioration in hearing with age is referred to

is associated with the inner ear and

The best treatment for a pilot suffering from acute

HP0073 Fainting is caused by :- lack of oxygen at altitude

If a passenger is observed suffering from mild chest

is best treated by a peaceful and

occurs over a very long period and

Sleep management is an important part of personal

The most common symptoms of carbon monoxide

A method of processing information referred to as works independently of the central

Memory which deals with the storage of

The short term or working memory is capable of

HP0094 Acute stress is considered to be:- a short-term condition

HP0098 Chronic stress is usually a:- long term condition

“Environmental capture” is an error which is

HP0101 A motor programme is:- a skill which is acquired by practice

indicate the pressure of the blood

Platelets are a type of blood cell which are

Pilots who are suffering from blocked sinuses and

the ability to store information in the

A method of processing information which requires

The best method for an individual to acquire sleep

The tiny air sacs in the lungs which allow oxygen to

Adaptation of the eye for night vision may take up

HP0125 Angina is characterised by:- severe chest pains and collapse

A situation in which a pilot makes a correct decision

require the conscious involvement of

decisions made based on knowledge

the transfer of oxygen into the blood

the body’s demand for oxygen