1

VIKASH RESIDENTIAL SCHOOL, BARGARH

SUBJECT-CHEMISTRY (043)
DPP FOR CLASS-XII
(DPP-DT.30.10.2023 TO 25.11.2023)

BIOMOLECULE
DPP-1 (30TH OCT 2023)

1. Which of the following monosaccharide is a pentose?

(1) Galactose (2) Glucose (3) Fructose (4) Arabinose
2. Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
(1) Leucine (2) Albumin (3) Inulin (4) Maltase
3. Which is monosaccharide?
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) Galactose (4) All of these
4. A carbohydrate consists of
(1) C and O (2) C, H and O (3) C, H, N and O (4) C and H
5. Glucose cannot be classified as
(1) A hexose (2) A carbohydrate (3) An oligosaccharide (4) An aldose
6. To become a carbohydrate a compound must contain at least
(1) 2 carbons (2) 3 carbons (3) 4 carbons (4) 6 carbons
7. General formula for carbohydrates is
(1) CnH2nO2n+2 (2) Cx(H2O)2x (3) Cx(H2O)y (4) None of these
8. If monosaccharide contains an aldehyde group, it is known as
(1) Epimer (2) Osones (3) Osazone (4) Aldose
9. Glucose and fructose are
(1) Isotopes (2) Isotones (3) Isomers (4) Homologues of each other
10. Sugars are
(1) Optically active polyhydroxy aldehydes
(2) Optically active polyhydroxy ketones
(3) Optically active polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones
(4) Polyhydroxy aldehydes or ketones which are optically inactive.
11. A carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolysed to simpler forms is called
(1) Disaccharide (2) Monosaccharide (3) Polysaccharide (4) Trisaccharide
12. Which is a reducing sugar
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) Galactose (4) All of these
13. The disaccharide present in milk is
(1) Maltose (2) Lactose (3) Sucrose (4) Cellobiose

DPP-2 (31ST OCT 2023)

1. Glucose when heated with CH3OH in presence of dry HCl gas gives  and -methyl glucosides because it
contains
(1) An aldehyde group (2) A –CH2OH group (3) A ring structure (4) Five hydroxyl groups
2. Which is a reducing sugar ?
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) Galactose (4) All of these
3. The number of atoms in the cyclic structure of D-fructose is ?
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 7
DPP/VIKASH RESIDENTIAL SCHOOL, BARGARH/2023-24
 2

4. Which is polysaccharide
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose (3) Glycogen (4) All of these
5. Glucose and mannose are
(1) Epimers (2) Anomers (3) Ketohexoses (4) Disaccharides
6. Glucose gives silver mirror with Tollen's reagent. It shows the presence of
(1) An acidic group (2) An alcoholic group (3) A ketonic group (4) An aldehydic group
7. Molecular formula of pentahydroxy acid obtained when glucose is oxidised with Br2 water is
(1) C6H12O7 (2) C6H12O8 (3) C6H12O6 (4) C6H10O6
8. The reagent which forms crystalline osazone derivative when reacted with glucose, is
(1) Fehling solution (2) Phenylhydrazine (3) Benedict solution (4) Hydroxylamine
9. Glucose and fructose form
(1) Same osazone (2) Same acid on oxidation
(3) Same alcohol when reduced (4) Different osazone
10. Glucose will show mutarotation when solvent is
(1) Acidic (2) Basic (3) Neutral (4) Amphoteric
11. In fructose, the possible optical isomers are
(1) 12 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 4
12. On heating with conc. H2SO4, sucrose gives
(1) CO and CO2 (2) CO and SO2 (3) CO, CO2 and SO2 (4) C and H2O
13. Which one of the following is laevorotatory
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose (3) Fructose (4) None of these
14. Lactose on hydrolysis gives
(1) Two glucose molecules (2) Two galactose molecules
(3) A galactose molecule and a fructose molecule (4) A galactose molecule and a glucose molecule
15. Fructose reduces Tollen's reagent due to :-
(1) primary alcoholic group
(2) secondary alcoholic group
(3) enolisation of fructose followed by conversion to aldehyde by base.
(4) asymmetric carbons
16. Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose ?
(1) On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose
(2) (+) Lactose is a b–glycoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a molecule of D(+)
galactose
(3) (+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation
(4) (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8–OH groups
17. Which of the statements about 'Denaturation" given below are correct ? Statements
(a) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of secondary and tertiary structures of the protein
(b) Denaturation leads to the conversion of double strand of DNA into single strand.
(c) Denaturation affects primary structure which gets distorted Options :
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (b)
18. D (+) glucose reacts with hydroxylamine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be :

DPP/VIKASH RESIDENTIAL SCHOOL, BARGARH/2023-24

 3

DPP-3 (2ND NOV 2023)

1. Cane sugar on hydrolysis gives

(1) Glucose and maltose (2) Glucose and lactose
(3) Glucose and fructose (4) Only glucose
2. An example of non-reducing sugar is
(1) Cane sugar (2) Fructose (3) Lactose (4) Cellobiose
3. On complete hydrolysis of starch, we finally get
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (3) Glucose and fructose (4) Sucrose
4. Maltose contains how many oxygen atoms
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 11 (2) 22
5. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
(1) Lactose (2) Starch (3) Cellulose (4) Glucose
6. Cellulose is a polymer of
(1) L-fructose (2) D-mannose (3) D-glucose (4) Amylose
7. Which one of the following does not exhibit the phenomenon of mutarotation ?
(1) (–) Fructose (2) (+) Sucrose (3) (+) Lactose (4) (+) Maltose
8. Which one of the following sets of monosaccharides forms sucrose?
(1) -D-Glucopyranose and -D-fructofuranose
(2) -D-Glucopyranose and -D-fructopyranose
(3) -D-Galactopyranose and -D-Glucopyranose
(4) -D-Glucopyranose and -D-fructofuranose
9. Which one of the following compounds shows the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond ?
(1) Cellulose (2) Concentrated acetic acid (3) H2O2 (4) HCN
10. The difference between amylose and amylopectin is
(1) Amylopectin have 1 → 4 -linkage and 1→ 6 -linkage
(2) Amylose have 1 → 4 -linkage and 1→ 6 -linkage
(3) Amylopectin have 1 → 4 -linkage and 1→ 6 -linkage
(4) Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose

DPP-4 (4TH NOV 2023)

1. Which of the following is non essential amino acid ?

(1) Valine (2) Lysine (3) Histidine (4) Glycine
2. Amino acids are
(1) Liquids (2) Volatile solids
(3) Non-volatile crystalline compounds (4) Mixture of amines and acids
3. The main structural feature of proteins is
(1) The ester linkage (2) The ether linkage (3) The peptide linkage (4) All of these
4. Protein contains
(1) C, H, O and N (2) Only C and H (3) Cl, H and O (4) All of these
5. Which one of the following is an amino acid ?
(1) CH3CONH2 (2) CH3CONHCH3 (3) CH3NHCHO (4) NH2CH2COOH
6. The optically inactive amino acid is
(1) Lysine (2) Glycine (3) Arginine (4) Alanin
7. Isoelectric point is a
(1) Specific temperature
(2) Suitable concentration of amino acid
(3) Hydrogen ion concentration that does not allow migration of amino acid under electric field
(4) Melting point of an amino acid under the influence of electric field

DPP/VIKASH RESIDENTIAL SCHOOL, BARGARH/2023-24

 4

8. Proteins are hydrolysed by enzymes into

(1) Dicarboxylic acids (2) Hydroxy acids (3) Amino acids (4) Aromatic acids
9. Out of the following the best category of proteins is
(1) Polyamides (2) Polythioethers (3) Glycerides (4) Polysaccharides
10. The molecular weight of protein is
(1) < 10000  (2) > 10000  (3) > 1000  (4) > 1000  and < 10000 
11. Which of the following is not a classification of proteins?
(1) Enzymes (2) Antibodies (3) Antigens (4) Hormones
12. The functional group which is found in amino acid is
(1) –COOH group (2) –NH2 group (3) –CH3 group (4) Both (1) and (2)

DPP-5 (6TH NOV 2023)

1. Enzymes are made up of

(1) Carbohydrates (2) Edible proteins
(3) Nitrogen containing carbohydrates (4) Proteins with specific structure
2. Enzymes belong to which class of compounds?
(1) Polysaccharides (2) Polypeptides (3) Polynitrogen heterocyclic compounds (4) Hydrocarbons
3. Enzymes in the living systems
(1) Provide energy (2) Provide immunity (3) Transport oxygen (4) Catalyse biological processes
4. Enzymes
(1) Accelerate biochemical reactions (2) Have optimum activity at body temperature
(3) Consist of amino acids (4) Have all these properties
5. Leucine amino acids is
(1) Essential (2) Non-essential (3) Aromatic (4) Basic
6. Which  amino acid has cross link peptide chains
(1) Serine (2) Cysteine (3) Glutamine (4) Tyrosine
7. Amino acids are the building blocks of
(1) Fat (2) Vitamin (3) Protein (4) Carbohydrate
8. The number of essential amino acids in man is
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 18 (4) 20
9. In a protein molecule various amino acids are linked together by :
(1) -glycosidic bond (2) -glycosidic bond (3) peptide bond (4) dative bond
10. The non-essential amino acid among the following is :
(1) valine (2) leucine (3) alanine (4) lysine
11. Which structure(s) of proteins remains(s) intact during denaturation process?
(1) Both secondary and tertiary structures (2) Primary structure only
(3) Secondary structure only (4) Tertiary structure only

DPP-6 (6TH NOV 2023)

1. Vitamin B1 is
(1) Riboflavin (2) Cobalamin (3) Thiamine (4) Pyridoxine
2. Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets
(1) Vitamin-D (2) Vitamin-B (3) Vitamin-A (4) Vitamin-K
3. Vitamin B6 is known as
(1) Pyridoxin (2) Thiamine (3) Tocopherol (4) Riboflavin
DPP/VIKASH RESIDENTIAL SCHOOL, BARGARH/2023-24
 5

4. Which one of the following is a peptide hormone–

(1) Glucagon (2) Testosterone (3) Thyroxin (4) Adrenaline
5. Which one of the following vitamins is water soluble–
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin K
6. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin ?
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E
7. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease
(1) Cheilosis (2) Sterility (3) Convulsions (4) Beri-Beri
8. The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the genetic information flows from :-
(1) DNA → RNA → Proteins
(2) DNA → RNA → Carbohydrates
(3) Amino acids → Proteins → DNA
(4) DNA → Carbohydrates → Proteins

DPP-7 ( 7TH NOV 2023)

1. The base present in DNA, but not in RNA is

(1) Guanine (2) Adenine (3) Uracil (4) Thymine
2. Energy is stored in our body in the form of
(1) ATP (2) ADP (3) Fats (4) Carbohydrates
3. In nucleic acids, the sequence is
(1) Base-phosphate-sugar (2) Phosphate-base-sugar
(3) Sugar-base-phosphate (4) Base-sugar-phosphate
4. In DNA, the complementary bases are
(1) Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine (2) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine
(3) Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil (4) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine
5. Which of the following is not a sex hormone
(1) Testosterone (2) Estrone (3) Estradiol (4) Cortisone
6. Codon is present on
(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA (3) r-RNA (4) All of these
7. Nucleic acid is a polymer of
(1) Nucleosides (2) α − amino acids (3) Nucleotides (4) Glucose
8. Which one of the following is an amine hormone :
(1) Oxypurin (2) Insulin (3) Progesterone (4) Thyroxine
9. The segment of DNA which acts as the instrumental manual for the synthesis of the protein is :-
(1) Nucleoside (2) Nucleotide (3) Ribose (4) Gene
10. Which of the following hormones contains iodine ?
(1) Thyroxine (2) Insulin (3) Testosterone (4) Adrenaline
11. The correct statement regarding RNA and DNA, respectively is:
(1) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose.
(2) The sugar component in RNA is ribose and the sugar component in DNA is 2'-deoxyribose.
(3) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose
(4) The sugar component in RNA is 2'-deoxyribose and the sugar component in DNA is arabinose.

DPP/VIKASH RESIDENTIAL SCHOOL, BARGARH/2023-24

 6

GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESS OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS- (METALLURGY)

DPP-1 (8TH NOV 2023)

1. What is meant by ore ?

(A) to obtained metals from mineral.
(B) to obtained non-metals from minerals.
(C) to obtained more metals from minerals.
(D) to obtained compound from minerals
2. What is meant by gangue ?
(A) undesirable or earthly substance are called impurities.
(B) Combined form of pure metals.
(C) non-metals found in combine form from earth’s crust
(D) metals found in combined form from earth’s crust
3. Which of the following is step to obtain metal from the ore ?
(A) Concentration of ore. (B) Isolation of metal from concentrated ore.
(C) Purification of metal. (D) All above
4. On which principles metallurgy do work to form metal ?
(A) thermodynamical (B) electro chemical (C) reduction (D) above all
5. Which of the following is ore of aluminium ?
(A) Calamine (B) Kaolinite (C) Malachite (D) Siderite
6. Which is formula of malachite ore ?

7. What is composition proportion of bauxite ore of aluminium ?

8. Which of the following is oxide ore ?

(A) Malachite (B) Feldspar (C) Bauxite (D) Zinc bland
9. Which of the following metal will be highest obtained from earth’s crust ?
(A) Fe (B) Al (C) Ca (D) Na
10. Which ore contain formula of Cu(OH) 2 . CuCO3 ?
(A) cuprite (B) copperglance (C) copperpyrites (D) malachite
11. What is molecular formula of siderite ?
(A) Fe2O3 (B) Fe3O4 (C) FeS2 (D) FeCO3

DPP-2 (9TH NOV 2023)

1. Which of the following have principle of relative density of ore and gangue ?
(A) Hydraulic washing (B) Magnetic separation (C) Froth floatation (D) Leaching
2. Which of the following is added as froth stabilisers in froth floating method ?
(A) Cresol, Phenol (B) Phenol, Aniline (C) Aniline, Cresol (D) Phenol, Benzene
3. Which of the following added as depressant in ores containing ZnS and PbS ?
(A) NaOH (B) KCN (C) NaCl (D) NaCN

DPP/VIKASH RESIDENTIAL SCHOOL, BARGARH/2023-24

 7

4. Assertaion (A) : NaCN is added as depressant to the ore containing ZnS and PbS, then PbS skims off on the
upper part with the froth.

(A) (A) and (R) both are correct statement (R) gives explanation of statement (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct but statement (R) does not give explanation of statement (A).
(C) Statement (A) is correct and statement (R) is wrong.
(D) Statement (A) is wrong and statement (R) is correct.
5. Which method is used in concentration of bauxite ore ?
(A) Hydraulic washing (B) Magnetic separation (C) Leaching (D) Froth floatation
6. Which substances are added to sulphide ore to produce froth and concentrate the ore ?
(A) Fatty acids (B) Xanthates compound (C) Turpentine (D) Above all
7. Which method is used when the ore is soluble in some suitable solvent ?
(A) Hydraulic washing (B) Calcination (C) Leaching (D) Froth Floatation
8. In Froth floatation method why mineral particle is floting on upper surface ?
(A) They are light in weight. (B) Surface of them are not wet by water.
(C) They are insoluble. (D) they can’t form electrolyte.
9. In which ores the principles of magnetic properties used for concentration of ores ?
(A) Horn silver (B) Calamine (C) Haematite (D) Bauxite
10. Which of the following method is used in concentration of ores?
(A) Distillation (B) Liquation (C) Forth flotation (D) Electrolysis

DPP-3 (10TH NOV 2023)

1.

2. In metallurgy Leaching of which metal is carried out by NaCN in presence of oxygen ?

(A) Au (B) Ag (C) Cu (D) Al
3. Which reducing agent is used to convert metal ore into metal ?
(A) Carbon (B) Carbonmonoxide (C) Silicon (D) Both (A) and (B)
4. Which of the following reaction is called calcination ?

5. Which type of ores are required for roasting ?

(A) oxide ore (B) silicate ore (C) sulphide ore (D) carbonate ore
6. Which of the following is common method for obtaining metal from ore ?
(A) Reduction by hydrogen (B) Reduction by Aluminium
(C) Reduction by carbon (D) By Electrolysis reaction
7. What is meaning by flux ?
(A) Melting point of molten solid is very low, some substance are added to make it high.
(B) Melting point of molten solid is very high. So some substance are added to bring it low.
(C) Some substance are added to make temperature high of Reaction.

DPP/VIKASH RESIDENTIAL SCHOOL, BARGARH/2023-24

 8

(D) Some substance are added to make Rate higher of Reaction.

8. Ag and Au are form by leaching of which compound ?
(A) KCN (B) NaCN (C) (A) and (B) both (D) Zn
9. From which ore aluminium can be formed ?
(A) Bauxite (B) Kaolinite (C) Calamine (D) Malachite
10. To form precipitate of Al2O3 in solution of sodium aluminate which compound is added into it ?
(A) Aqueous solution of NaOH (B) Freshly prepared aqueous Al2O3
(C) Freshly prepared Al(OH) 3 precipitate (D) Both (B) and (C)

DPP-4 (11TH NOV 2023)

1. Which term of thermodynamics is essential to have information about to understand metallurgy principles?
(A) Chemical equilibrium (B) Gibb’s free energy
(C) Entropy (D) All of the mentioned
2. What is value of gibb’s free energy for spontaneous process ?
(A) positive (B) negative (C) zero (D) infinite

3.

4. Which graphs are known as Ellingham diagrams ?

5. Which of the following statement is false ?

(A) Value of G 0 is positive than value of k is more than 1.
(B) Value of G 0 is negative than value of k is less than 1.
(C) Value of free energy of oxidation reduction process become zero when G 0 ’s value become negative.
(D) G  H  T S in this equation value of T increases, product increases
6. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
(A) 2% copper is available in copper sulphide ores in nature.
(B) 5% copper obtained by remove impurities from free form of copper.
(C) Wet metallurgical process is used for pyrites ores of lower grade.
(D) Copper has low attraction towards sulphur so that’s why it is easily reduced.
7. Which of the following is not done during heating Blister copper in presence of air in furnace ?
(A) Silicates of Fe, Bi, Zn etc. Float as slag on copper.
(B) Volatile oxides of As and Sb are remove.
(C) During this some aqrous oxide is produced.
(D) Copper become brittle.
8. Cu metal is reduced from what in extration of copper from copper sulphide ore ?
(A) FeS (B) Cu2O (C) SO2 (D) SO3
9. Which of the following process is done in blast furnace at 500-800 K temperature ?

10.
 9

DPP-5 (13TH NOV 2023)

1. Mainly from which ores iron can be extracted ?

(A) Iron pyrites (B) Megnatite (C) Heamatite (D) Sidarite
2. Which of the following reaction is seen during calcination process ?
(A) Convert iron sulphide into iron oxide.
(B) Conversion of cuprous oxide into cuprous shlphide
(C) Conversion of cuprous sulphide into cuprous oxide
(D) Conversion of ferrous oxide into ferric oxide
3. Reaction occuring in blast furance wroking on which principle ?
(A) Thermodynamics (B) Electrochemical laws (C) La-chatelier (D) Electronation
4. At which temeperature pig iron is form ?
(A) 1270 K (B) 2170 K and high temperature (C) 2170 K (D) 1270 K - 2170 K
5. When will be cast iron form ?
A) By passing hot air in mixture of pig iron and coke.
(B) By heating pig iron at high temperature.
(C) By heating pig iron and iron scrap at high temperature.
(D) By heating mixture of pig iron, iron scrap and coke at very high temperature.
6. Which of the following statement is wrong for conversion of cast iron into wrought iron ?
(A) layer of graphite in blast furnace.
(B) addition of limestone as a flux.
(C) oxidation of S, Si and P and they are removed with slag.
(D) conversion of hematite carbon into carbon monoxide.
7. In extraction of copper which compound form slag ?
(A) Sand and Iron oxide (B) Silica and Iron oxide
(C) Iron oxide and cuprous sulphide (D) Sand and Cuprous oxide.
8. In Extraction of copper what is matte ?
(A) Copper (II) sulphide and Iron (II) sulphide (B) Copper (II) sulphide and Iron (III) sulphide
(C) Copper (I) sulphide and Iron (II) sulphide (D) Copper (I) sulphide and Iron (III) sulphide
9. Heating pyrites for removing sulphur that process called ...... ?
(A) Roasting (B) Calcination (C) smelting (D) Bessemerisation
10. By heating Cu2O and Cu2S which product is obtained?

DPP-6 (14TH NOV 2023)

1. Which of the following reaction is not possible in blast furnace ?

2.
 10

3.

4. Select true and false statement from below :

(i) Wet metallurgical process is used for pyrites ores of higher grade.
(ii) Mixture of iron sulphide and cuprus sulphide called matte.
(iii) German silver is alloy of copper.
(iv) 4 % of carbon is present in wrought iron.
(v) Galena is present as impurities in calamine ore.
(A) TTFFT (B) FTTFT (C) TFTFT (D) FTTFF

5. Check balancing of following four reactions is true or false state that. (T = True, F = Wrong)

6. Select true or false option from following statements :

(i) Calamine is a carbonate ore of zinc.
(ii) Leaching of gold is done by NaCN.
(iii) Sulphide ores are very useful for extraction for metals.
(iv) Purification of zinc is done by distilation.
(A) TFTF (B) TFFT (C) FTFT (D) FTTF
7. Match Column-I with Column-II.
 11

8.

9. In Extraction of copper what is matte ?

(A) Copper (II) sulphide and Iron (II) sulphide
(B) Copper (II) sulphide and Iron (III) sulphide
(C) Copper (I) sulphide and Iron (II) sulphide
(D) Copper (I) sulphide and Iron (III) sulphide
10. Which impurities are in 95% pure copper ?
(A) Mainly-sulphur, Iron, Trace amount : As, Sb, Zn, Bi, Si, Au, Pt
(B) Mainly sulphur, Zinc, Trace amount : As, Sb, Fe, Bi, Ag, Au, Pt
(C) Mainly - Iron, zinc, Trace amount : Al, Ag, Au, Pt, Sn
(D) Mainly sulphur, Trace amount : Zn, Sb, Fe, Si, As, Au

DPP-7 (15TH NOV 2023)

1. Which principles can be useful for reduction of metal ions present in the aqueous solution or in molten
states?
(A) By using Reducing Agent like carbon (B) By electrolysis
(C) By formation of optimum state (D) By adding flux
2. When will be reduction of reaction become tough?
(A) Value of reduction potential low and negative.
(B) Value of oxidation potential high and negative.
(C) Value of reduction potential low and positive.
(D) Value of oxidation potential high and negative.
3. Which of the following can be extracted by electrolysis method?
(A) transition metals (B) High active metals (C) ideal Gas (D) Soft metals
4. Which of the following ore is mainly used for extraction of zinc ?
(A) Zinc blende (B) Calamine (C) zincite (D) above al
5. Which ore of zinc is concentrated by froth flotation method ?
(A) zinc blende (B) calamine (C) zincite (D) siderite
6. Which of the following matter is important during roasting of Zns ?
(A) minimum ZnO occur. (B) maximum ZnO can occur.
(C) SO2 gas can librate. (D) ZnSO4 can form.
7. By reacting with whom pure zinc sulphate solution can form ?
(A) dilute HCl (B) dilute H2SO4 (C) aqueous NaOH (D) CuSO4
8. Which of the following method is used for extraction of pure zinc from spetter ?
(A) By reacting with dilute H2SO4 .
(B) By precipitation of Cd by Zinc dust
(C) Al, Sb and As are separated from solutions of suitable acidity.
(D) Above all.
9. Which of the following use of zinc metal ?
(A) electrical cell. (B) to prepare german silver alloy.
(C) extraction of Ag and Au by reduction. (D) above all
 12

10. How to extract zinc from zinc blende?

(A) By electrolytic reduction and roasting (B) reduction and roasting by carbon
(C) reduction and roasting by other metal (D) self reduction.

DPP-8 (16TH NOV 2023)

1. Why copper become brittle during thermal refining ?

(A) Because methan gas is obtained.
(B) Because powder of coal is spread on the fluid copper
(C) Because cuprose oxide is formed which is dissolve in copper
(D) Because of destructive distilation of branches of wood.
2. For which of the following oxidation-Reduction process mainly used ?
(A) Metal (B) Non-metal (C) Semi-metal (D) Above all.
3. Which of the following reaction is to obtain chlorine from sea water?

4. By which of the following metal is used for reduction of [Au(CN)2]– complex ion to form Au ?
(A) Fe (B) Al (C) Cu (D) Zn
5. Which of the following method is used for refining of zinc like metals which have low melting points?
(A) Liquiation (B) Zone refining (C) Distilation (D) Vapour phase refining
6. Distilation method is used for purification of which of the following metals ?
(A) Zn (B) Hg ( C) Ti (D) Sn
7. When will pure metal deposited on cathode by reduction of metal ion in solution by electrolysis ?
(A) Reduction potential will high and positive.
(B) Reduction potential will low and negative.
(C) Value of G 0 positive.
(D) Value of E° negative .

8. Which of the following principle is used for zone refining ?

(A) Impurities of some metals are soluble in their aqeous solutions.
(B) Impurities of some metals are more soluble in their molten stage but less soluble in solid state.
(C) Impurities of some metals are insoluble in their aqueous solution.
(D) Impurities of some metals are partially soluble in their molten stage.
9. Which of the following metals are purified by zone refining method ?
(A) Si, Ge, Ti, Zn, Cu (B) Si, Ge, Ti, B, Hg (C) Si, Ga, B, Cu, Sn (D) Si, Ga, B, In, Ge.
10. Which of the following process is for refining pure nickel ?
(A) Van Arkel (B) Mond Carbonyl (C) Electrolysis (D) Liquation

11.

12. Which of the following metal can be purity by Van Arkel method?
(A) Zr, Ti (B) Ti, Zn (C) Zn, B (D) In, Ga
 13

DPP-9 (17TH NOV 2023)

1. Which type of impurity are present in titanium ?

(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen (C) Sulphur (D) Both (A) and (B)
2. Which of the following is used as adsorbate in chromatography method?
(A) Al2O3 (B) ideal gas (C) filter paper (D) All of these
3. Which of the following can be separated in chromatography method?
(A) Dyes (B) Cation (C) Anion (D) All of these
4. Which of the following not alloy of aluminium ?
(A) Alnico (B) Magnalium (C) Constant (D) Duralumin
5. Which of the following is alloy of aluminium ?
(A) Steel (B) German silver (C) Alnico (D) Delta metal
6. Which of the following is alloy of copper ?
(A) Duralamin (B) Aluminium bronze (C) Alnico (D) Magnalium
7. Which of the following is not alloy of copper ?
(A) Delta metal (B) Muhtz metal (C) Constantant (D) magnalium
8. Which of the following used by cast iron ?
(A) Wire (B) Chains (C) Vessel (D) Toys
9. Which of the following is use of wrought iron ?
(A) Both (B) Stove (C) Ropes (D) Cycle
10. Which of the following is use of nickel containing steel ?
(A) grinding machines (B) parts of plan (C) agricultural tools (D) preparations of anchors
11. Which of the following is use of steel containing chromium ?
(A) Cutting machines (B) Automobile (C) Toys (D) Pen
12. Which of the following is use of stainless steel?
(A) Automobile (B) Cycle (C) Measuring Tap (D) Pen

13. Match Column-I with Column-II.

DATE : 18TH NOV. 2023

POLYMERS (DAY- 1)
1. Which polymer is obtain by condensation polymerisation ?
(A) Polythene (B) Teflon (C) Phenol formaldehyde resin (D) Nitrile rubber
2. Natural rubber is polymer of which monomer ?
(A) ethelene (B) vinyl (C) phenol (D) isoprene
3. Which synthetic polymer is obtained from caprolectum ?
(A) Nylon-6 (B) Teflon (C) Terylene (D) Nylon-6
4. Synthetic polymer (Neoprene) is ....... .
(A) polyester (B) polyamide (C) polysacarine (D) polychloroprene
 14

5. Which of the following type is polyamide ?

(A) Nylon (B) Orlon (C) Teflon (D) Terylene
6. How impurity of polymer solution is measure ?
(A) adsorption of light by solution (B) emmision of light by solution
(C) scattering of light by solution (D) none of these
7. In which of the following peptie bond is present ?
(A) Polysaccharide (B) Protein (C) Nucleotide (D) Vitamine
8. Synthetic hair wig of humane is copolymer, which is prepared from vinylchloride and acrilo
nytrile. What is it ?
(A) PVC (B) PAN (C) Cellulose (D) Dynel
9. Which synthetic polymer is like natural rubber ?
(A) Neoprene (B) Chloroprene (C) Gyptal (D) Nylon (E) None of these
10. Natural rubber is polymer of which monomer ?
(A) trans isoprene (B) cis isoprene (C) none of these (D) S.N trans-isoprene
DATE : 20TH NOV. 2023
POLYMERS (DAY- 2)

1. Orlon is polymer of which monomer ?

(A) Tetrafluoro ethylene (B) Acrylonitrile (C) Ethanoic acid (D) Benzen
2. Which fibers are of polyamide type ?
(A) Decron (B) Orlon (C) Nylon (D) Rayon
3. Bakelite is obtained by reaction between which substances ?
(A) Formaldehyde and Quinol. (B) Aniline and Urea
(C) Phenol and Methanal (D) Phenol and Chloroform
4. Which one is the raw material of Nylon ?
(A) adipic acid (B) butadiene rubber (C) isoprene (D) ethylene
5. Polyethene polymer is made from ...... monomer.
(A) CH2 = CH2 (B) CH2 = CCl2 (C) CHCl = CHCl (D) CH2 = CHCl
6. Which of the following is an example of thermosetting polymer ?
(A) Polythene (B) Neoprene (C) PVC (D) Bakelite
7. With whom phenol is reactaed Backelite obtained ?
(A) Polythene (B) Acetyle (C) Formaldihyde (D) Chlaro Benzene
8. Which catalyst is used in preparation of polythene by ziegler-Natta method ?
(A) Lithium tetrachloride and tryphenyl Aluminium
(B) Titanium tetrachloride and triethyl aluminium
(C) Titanium
(D) Titanium isoperoxide
9. Which of the following pair is not true ?
(A) Terylene : Condensation polymer of terphtalic acid and ethylene glycol
(B) Teflon : Cross linking stable polymer prepared from phenol and formaldehyde.
(C) Glyptal : It is homopolymer of methyl metha crylate
(D) Synthetic rubber : It is condensation polymer of butadiene and styrene.
10. Which is the product of Addition polymerisation ?
(A) PVC (B) Nylon (C) Terylene (D) Polyamide
 15

DATE : 21ST NOV. 2023

POLYMERS (DAY- 3)

1. What is an ebonixe ?
(A) Natural rubber (B) Synthetic rubber (C) Hard valcanized rubber (D) Poly-propene
2. Bakelite is obtained by reaction between which substances ?
(A) Urea and formaldehyde (B) Phenol and formaldehyde
(C) Tetra methylene glycol and hexamethylisocynate (D) Ethylene glycol and dimethylterphatalate.
3. High molecular mass present in ...... polymer.
(A) elastomer (B) fiber (C) thermoplastic (D) thermosetting plastic
4. PMMA is polymer of which monomer ?
(A) methyl methacrylate (B) methacrylate (C) methylacrylate (D) ethylacrylate
5. Bekelite is obtained by reaction between phenol and formaldehyde, then in first step the reaction
between two substances show example of ?
(A) aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction (B) aromatic nucleophilic substitution reaction
(C) free dradical reaction (D) aldol reaction
6. Glyptal polymer is obtained by reaction between glycerol and which substance ?
(A) melonic acid (B) phthalic acid (C) maleic acid (D) acetic acid
7. ...... is monomer of Teflon polymer.
(A) Difluoro ethene (B) Mono fluoro ethene (C) Tetra fluoro ethene (D) Tetra chloro ethene
8. Which polymer is not addition polymer ?
(A) Polythene (B) Polystyrene (C) Neoprene (D) Tery lene
9. Which polymer is used in manufacturing of non-stick kitchen vessels ?
(A) PVC (B) Polystyren (C) Polyethene (D) Polytetrafluoroethene
10. Which is the example of addition polymer ?
(A) Buna-S (B) Bakelite (C) Nylon-6 (D) Melamine
11. Which of the following is copolymer ?
(A) Nylon-6 (B) Nylon-6 6 (C) PMMA (D) Polyethene

DATE : 22ND NOV. 2023

POLYMERS (DAY- 4)
1. Which polymer is not synthetic ?
(A) Polyethene (B) PVC (C) Nylon (D) Cellofen
2. Which of the following is not true for polymer ?
(A) Polymer does not possesses any type of electric charge.
(B) Polymer have high density.
(C) They can scatter of light
(D) They have low molecular mass
3. In which class, polymer can be classified on the basis of preparation method ?
(A) Only Addition polymer (B) Only condensation polymer
(C) Co-polymer (D) (A) and (B) Both
 16

4. Natural rubber is polymer of which monomer ?

(A) butadiene (B) ethyne (C) styrene (D) isoprene
5. Terlyene is condensation polymer of ethelen glycol and ...... ?
(A) benzoic acid (B) acetic acid (C) terephthalic acid (D) salicylic acid
6. Zieglar-Natta catalyst is ...... .
(A) K[pyCl3 (C244] (B) (ph3p)3 RhCl (C) Al2 (C2H5)6 + TiCl4 (D) Fe(C2H5)2
7. Preparation of Nylon-66 is possible by condensation of HMDA with,
(A) phenol (B) benzaldehyde (C) adipic acid (D) sucsinic acid
8. The reaction of heating of natural rubber with sulphur is known as ......
(A) galvanization (B) vulcanisation (C) nitration (D) sulphonation
9. Terylene is obtained by polymerisation of terepthelic acid and ......
(A) ethelene glycol (B) phenol (C) ethanol (D) catacol
10. Teflon, styrene and neoprene all are ...... .
(A) co-polymer (B) condensation polymer (C) homopolymer (D) monomer
11. Which type of intermolecular attraction force are present in Nylon-66 ?
(A) Van der waals (B) hydrogen bond (C) dipolar-dipolar attraction (D) none of these
12. CF2 = CF2 is monomer of which of the following polymer ?
(A) Teflon (B) Glyptal (C) Nylon-6 (D) Buna-S
13. Generally soft-drink bottle and baby feeding bottle is made from which of the following
polymer ?
(A) polyester (B) polyurethin (C) polyamide (D) polystyrene

CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE

DPP – 1 (23 RD
NOV 2023)
1. Which classification of drugs is useful for general physicians ?
(1) Classification based on chemical structure. (2) Classification based on drug use.
(3) Classification based on pharmacological effect. (4) All of these.
2. Phenol can be used as a (an)
(1) antiseptic (2) disinfectant (3) analgesic (4) both (1) and (2)
3. Aspirin is known as
(1) acetyl salicylic acid (2) phenyl salicylate (3) acetyl salicylate (4) methyl salicylic acid
4. The drug which suppresses ovulation is an
(1) antiseptic (2) antimicrobial (3) antibiotic (4) antifertility
5. Futher growth of cancerous cells in the body is arrested by
(1) physiotherapy (2) chemotherapy (3) electrotherapy (4) psychotherapy
6. Use of medicines for curing diseases is known as
(1) pharma theraphy (2) chemical therapy (3) disease management (4) any of these
7. Which of the following compounds is not an antacid?
(1) Cimetidine (2) Phenelzine (3) Ranitidine (4) Aluminium hydroxide
8. Which one of the following types of drugs reduces fever?
(1) Analgesic (2) Antipyretic (3) Antibiotic (4) Tranquilizer
9. Chemically heroin is
(1) morphinediacetate (2) morphinemonoacetate (3) morphinedibenzoate (4) morphinemonobenzoate
 17

10. Pick the odd one amongst the following on the basis of their medicinal properties.
(1) Chloroxylenol (2) phenol (3) Chloramphenicol (4) Bithional
11. Match the drug with its use
(a) Bithional (p) used in the prevention of
tuberculosis
(b) Chloramphenicol (q) Used to relieve pain due to
arthritis
(c) Streptomycin (r) Used in the treatment of ty-
phoid, dysentery, etc.
(d) Paracetamol (s) Used to impart antiseptic
properties to soap.

12. Antiseptics are different from disinfectants as

(1) antiseptics merely inhibit the growth and disinfectant kill the microorganisms.
(2) antiseptics are used against microorganisms while disinfectants are used against inserts.
(3) antiseptics are used only over skin while disinfectants can be taken orally also.
(4) antiseptics are used over living tissues while disinfectants cannot be used over living tissues.
13. Among the following organic acids, the acid present in rancid butter is
(1) pyruvic acid (2) lactic acid (3) butyric acid (4) acetic acid

DPP – 2 (24TH NOV 2023)

1. Which artificial sweetener contains chlorine?
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin (3) Sucralose (4) Alitame
2. Carotene is
(1) a food preservative (2) an artificial sweetener (3) synthetic dye (4) none of these
3. Which of the following food additives is an antioxidant?
(1) Butylated hydroxyanisole (2) Cyclamate (3) Sodium metabisulphite (4) Amaranth
4. Food colours are added to improve
(1) vitamin content (2) nutritional value (3) table value (4) Both (1) & (2)
5. Sodium lauryl sulphate is a
(1) soap (2) detergent (3) food colour (d) none of these
6. Which of the following is an example of non-biodegradable detergent?

7. Cetyl ammonium bromide is a

(1) soap (2) anionic detergent (3) cationic detergent (4) none of these
 18

8. Which one of the following substances is a good detergent in water?

9. Which of the following statement is true?

(1) Synthetic detergents contain only hydrophilic part.
(2) Synthetic detergents contain only hydrophobic part.
(3) Synthetic detergents contain large amount of chlorine,
(4) Synthetic detergent contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic part.
10. Which detergent can cause maximum pollution?

11. Which one of the following substances is a good detergent in water?

(1) Hexadecyltrimethyl ammonium chloride:
C16 H33 N (CH3 )3 Cl 
(2) Hexadecane:C16H34
(3) Hexadecanoic acid : C15H31COOH
(4) Hexadecyl hexadecanoate : C15H31COOC16H33
12. Synthetic detergents contain :
(1) 70% or more soap (2) 50 – 70 % of soap (3) 10-50% soap (4) no trace of soap
13. Which of the following compounds is soap?
(1) CH3CH2CH2COONa (2) CH3(CH2)14CH2ONa (3) CH3(CH2)14COONa (4) [CH3(CH2)14COO]2Ca