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Chapter 10 - How Cells Divide
BIOLOGY 10TH EDITION RAVEN

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Chapter 10
How Cells Divide
Multiple Choice Questions
1. In bacterial cell division, the cell divides into two nearly equal halves. This process is
referred to as:
A. binary fission
B. mitosis
C. fusion
D. meiosis
E. cytokinesis
Blooms Level: 1. Remember

LO: 10.01.01 Describe the process of binary fission.
Section: 10.01 Bacterial Cell Division
Topic: Cell Cycle and Mitosis
10-1
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2. How does the organization of the bacterial genome differ from the organization of the
eukaryotic genome?
A. The compaction of the eukaryotic genome involves structural maintenance of
chromosome (SMC) proteins, and the compaction of the bacterial genome does not.
B. Most bacterial chromosomes are circular and the eukaryotic chromosomes contained in
the nucleus are not.
C. Bacterial chromosomes are made up of RNA and eukaryotic chromosomes are made up of
DNA.
D. The eukaryotic genome is found on chromosomes and there are no chromosomes in
bacterial cells.
E. Eukaryotic chromosomes have to be tightly packed to fit into the nucleus, and bacterial
chromosomes do not require tight packing to fit into the cell.
Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic chromosomes have to be tightly packed to fit into the cell,
and the compaction process involves SMC proteins in both cases. Both eukaryotic and
prokaryotic chromosomes are made up of double stranded DNA. Both eukaryotic and
prokaryotic cells contain chromosomes, though the chromosomes are of different structure.
Blooms Level: 2. Understand

3. The division of a bacterial cell occurs as the:

A. cell wall develops cracks around the equator of the cell.
B. chromosomes are pulled toward the ends of the cell.
C. actin and microtubules constrict the cytoplasm.
D. new membrane and cell wall materials begin to grow and form a septum.

10-2
4. If a cell contained a mutation in the gene that encodes FtsZ, what process would be
affected?
A. Septation
B. Cytokinesis
C. Prophase
D. DNA Synthesis
E. Cohesin cleavage
Blooms Level: 4. Analyze

5. The accommodation of the very long DNA strands that are part of a chromosome into the
limited space of the nucleus is achieved by coiling the DNA around beads of histones into
repeating subunits. These DNA-wrapped histones are called:
A. Solenoids
B. Nucleosomes
C. Chromatin loops
D. Rosettes
Review Figure 10.5

LO: 10.02.01 Describe the structure of eukaryotic chromosomes.
Section: 10.02 Eukaryotic Chromosomes
10-3
6. The point of constriction on chromosomes that contains certain repeated DNA sequences
that bind specific proteins is called:
A. The kinetochore
B. The centromere
C. The cohesin complex
D. The centriole
E. The centrosome
The centromere is the point of constriction on the chromosome that contains repeated DNA
sequences that bind specific proteins. The proteins that bind at the centromere are referred to
as the kinetochore. The cohesin complex keeps the sister chromatids attached at the
centromere, but the cohesin complex is a protein complex, and does not contain repeated
DNA sequences. The centrosome is a microtubule organizing center that contains a pair of
centrioles. These are not part of chromosomes.

7. Eukaryotic chromosomes are composed of a complex of 60% protein and 40% DNA. This
complex is referred to as:
A. The histone complex
B. Chromatin
C. The kinetochore
D. Cohesin

10-4
8. The number of chromosomes characteristic of diploid eukaryotic cells, in general:

A. is 46.
B. can be predicted by the size of the organism.
C. changes as each organism grows and ages.
D. varies considerably from 2 to over 1000 in different species.

9. A person whose cells all contain a chromosome number of 2n+1 most likely has what type
of condition?
A. Monosomy
B. Trisomy
C. Cancer
D. Obesity
E. None, this is the normal chromosome number for humans.
The normal chromosome number for humans is 2n, where n = 23 for the number of different
types of chromosomes that human cells contain. 2n + 1 indicates that the individual has the
diploid number of chromosomes (i.e., 46) plus one additional chromosome. This indicates
that they most likely have an extra copy of one chromosome, which is how trisomy is defined.
Because this is in all cells, this is most likely a case of trisomy. Monosomy would be 2n - 1,
because this refers to a condition where one chromosome is missing. While cancer cells can
sometimes gain or lose one or more chromosomes, this would not affect all the cells in the
organism - only the cancer cells. This chromosome number is not relevant to obesity.
Blooms Level: 3. Apply

10-5
10. In later chapters, you will learn more about the regulation of gene expression. One way
to regulate gene expression is to make changes to the histone proteins to alter how tightly the
DNA is coiled and wrapped. The more tightly coiled and wrapped a particular region of DNA
is, the less likely it is that the genes in that region will be expressed. Bearing this in mind,
how tightly do you think regions of heterochromatin are compacted?
A. Very tightly
B. Moderately
C. Loosely
D. Not at all
Since heterochromatin domains are not expressed, the DNA must be very tightly compacted
in those regions.

11. You are assembling a model of a chromosome, but begin having some trouble when you
get to the step of forming chromatin loops. If you are unable to resolve this problem, what
step of chromosome structure would you be unable to achieve?
A. Histone/DNA complex
B. Nucleosome
C. Solenoid
D. Rosettes

10-6
12. A scientist wants to study histones. Histones are:

A. proteins that double-stranded DNA molecules wrap around in eukaryotes.
B. proteins that double-stranded DNA molecules wrap around in prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
C. proteins that regulate checkpoints in the mitotic cell cycle.
D. proteins that serve as the spindle fiber to pull sister chromatids apart during anaphase.
E. proteins that required for the activity of Cdk enzymes.

13. The two copies of each type of chromosome found in normal somatic (body) cells in an
organism, throughout the cell cycle, are called:
A. Sister chromatids
B. Homologous chromosomes
C. Daughter chromosomes
D. Kinetochores

LO: 10.02.02 Distinguish between homologues and sister chromatids.
10-7
14. Before cell division of somatic cells, each chromosome must be replicated. After
replication, the resulting two parts of each chromosome are held together by cohesin at the
centromere. These two parts are referred to as:
A. Sister chromatids
B. Homologous chromosomes
C. Daughter chromosomes
D. Kinetochores
E. Genes

15. These structures are held together by cohesin:

A. Nucleosomes
B. Sister chromatids
C. Homologous chromosomes
D. Solenoids

10-8
16. A cell biologist produces a karyotype of mouse somatic cells arrested in mitosis. She
sees 40 chromosomes, which is completely normal for mice. Based on this information, what
is the haploid number of chromosomes for mice?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 40
D. 80
E. It cannot be determined from the information provided
The karyotype was done with somatic cells arrested in mitosis. The number of chromosomes
observed represents the diploid number (2n). The haploid number will be half the number of
chromosomes that was observed (n). Therefore, the haploid number is 20.

LO: 10.02.03 Contrast replicated and nonreplicated chromosomes.
17. If there are 32 sister chromatids in a normal somatic cell, what is the haploid number for
that cell?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
After DNA replication, each chromosome contains two sister chromatids so if there are 32
sister chromatids, two per chromosome, that means that there are 16 chromosomes. Since this
is a normal somatic cell, that would be the diploid number, so the haploid number would be
half of 16 or 8.

10-9
18. If there are 32 sister chromatids in a normal somatic cell, how many chromosomes are
there?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
After DNA replication, each chromosome contains two sister chromatids so if there are 32
sister chromatids, two per chromosome, that means that there are 16 chromosomes.

19. A somatic cell from a garden pea normally contains 14 chromosomes. How many sister
chromatids would that cell contain during G1 of the cell cycle?
A. 0
B. 7
C. 14
D. 28
G1 is prior to S phase when DNA is replicated. As a result, there will be no sister chromatids
in the cells in G1.

10-10
20. A somatic cell from a corn plant normally contains 20 chromosomes. How many sister
chromatids would that cell contain during G2 of the cell cycle?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 40
G2 is after S phase in the cell cycle, which is when DNA is replicated. As a result, the
chromosomes will be replicated in G2, and each will contain two sister chromatids.
Therefore, there will be 40 sister chromatids in these cells.

21. What is the sequence of events in a typical eukaryotic cell cycle?

A. G1 to G2 to S to mitosis to cytokinesis
B. G1 to S to G2 to mitosis to cytokinesis
C. G1 to S to G2 to cytokinesis to mitosis
D. G1 to G2 to mitosis to S to cytokinesis
E. S to G1 to G2 to mitosis to cytokinesis

LO: 10.03.01 Describe the eukaryotic cell cycle.
Section: 10.03 Overview of the Eukaryotic Cell Cycle
10-11
22. The portion of the cell cycle when the cell is growing and does not contain a replicated
genome is referred to as:
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. Mitosis
E. Cytokinesis
During both G1 and G2 the cells are growing, but during G1, the cells do not contain a
replicated genome.

23. The stage of the cell cycle during which the cytoplasm divides to form two cells is called:
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. Mitosis
E. Cytokinesis

10-12
24. This stage of the cell cycle is characterized by growth and it contains a checkpoint to
verify that all of the DNA has been replicated prior to mitosis.
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. Mitosis
E. Cytokinesis

25. A duplicate copy of all of the hereditary information contained in the nucleus of
eukaryotic cells is made during what stage of the cell cycle?
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. Mitosis
E. Cytokinesis

10-13
26. The physical distribution of cytoplasmic material into the two daughter cells in plant
cells is referred to as:
A. The gap phase
B. Cytokinesis
C. Binary fission
D. Interphase
Plant cells are eukaryotic, and therefore the division of cytoplasm is referred to as cytokinesis

27. If a cell has 32 chromosomes prior to S and undergoes mitosis followed by cytokinesis,
each new daughter cell will have how many chromosomes?
A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8

10-14
28. Embryonic cell cycles allow the rapid division of cells in the early embryo. These mitotic
cell cycles are much shorter in length than the mitotic cell cycles of cells in a mature
organism. In the embryonic cell cycles, mitosis takes approximately the same amount of time
as it does in the cell cycles of mature cells. What do you think is a result of the embryonic
cycle?
A. Resulting daughter cells are smaller than the mother cell in the embryonic cell cycles.
B. Resulting daughter cells do not contain the same genetic information as the mother cell in
the embryonic cell cycles.
C. Resulting daughter cells cannot form a mitotic spindle in the embryonic cell cycle.
D. Mother cells in the embryonic cell cycle spend the majority of their time in G0.
The abbreviated length of the embryonic cell cycle is due to the lack of gap phases. Since we
told you that mitosis is equivalent in length in both types of cell cycles, and you know that S
phase must occur normally to ensure that both daughter cells get a proper complement of
chromosomes, this means that G1 and G2 are likely cut short or eliminated in these cell cycles.
As a result, the daughter cells will likely be smaller than the mother cell in the embryonic cell
cycles.

29. What is the portion of the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are invisible under
the light microscope because they are not yet condensed?
A. Interphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase

LO: 10.04.01 Describe the events that take place during interphase.
Section: 10.04 Interphase: Preparation for Mitosis
10-15
30. Interphase is made up of what stages of the cell cycle?

A. G1 + G2 + S
B. S + cytokinesis
C. prophase + metaphase + anaphase + telophase
D. cytokinesis + mitosis
E. G0 + G1 + G2

31. During what stages of the cell cycle are sister chromatids bound together by cohesin?
A. G1, S, G2
B. S, G2
C. G1, S
D. S, G2, prophase, metaphase
E. S, G2, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Sister chromatids are held together by cohesin from the time they are synthesized in S phase
until they enter anaphase and cohesin is cleaved by separase.

LO: 10.04.02 Illustrate the connection between sister chromatids after S phase.
10-16
32. Following S phase, a human cell would have how many pairs of sister chromatids and
individual DNA molecules?
A. 23 pairs of sister chromatids and 46 individual DNA molecules
B. 23 pairs of sister chromatids and 92 individual DNA molecules
C. 46 pairs of sister chromatids and 46 individual DNA molecules
D. 46 pairs of sister chromatids and 92 individual DNA molecules
E. 46 pairs of sister chromatids and 184 individual DNA molecules

33. If a chromosome contains a mutation such that it cannot bind to the kinetochore complex,
what would be the consequence?
A. That chromosome would not be able to be replicated.
B. That chromosome would not be able to condense.
C. That chromosome would not be able to bind to the mitotic spindle.
D. That chromosome would not be able to interact with histone proteins.
The kinetochore allows chromosomes to bind to microtubules.

10-17
34. Consider the cell cycle of a human cell. During G2, what is the state of the homologous
chromosomes?
A. The homologous chromosomes are lined up on the equator of the cell.
B. The homologous chromosomes have all been copied through DNA replication and are
beginning to condense.
C. The homologous chromosomes have been pulled to their respective poles by the spindle
apparatus.
D. The homologous chromosomes have not been replicated yet.
E. The homologous chromosomes are now in the haploid or n condition.

35. This is the stage of mitosis characterized by the alignment of the chromosomes in a ring
along the inner circumference of the cell:
A. Interphase
B. Telophase
C. Prophase
D. Metaphase

LO: 10.05.01 Describe the phases of mitosis.
Section: 10.05 M Phase: Chromosome Segregation and the Division of Cytoplasmic Contents
10-18
36. The stage of mitosis characterized by the physical separation of sister chromatids is
called:
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Prometaphase
D. Telophase

37. This stage of mitosis is characterized by the disassembly of spindle apparatus, the
reestablishment of the nuclear membrane, and the decondensation of the chromosomes:
A. Prometaphase
B. Telophase
C. Anaphase
D. Metaphase

10-19
38. During this stage of mitosis, the nuclear envelope begins to break down and the spindle
begins to form.
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase
C. Prophase
D. Telophase
E. Prometaphase

39. In prophase, ribosomal RNA synthesis stops when the chromosomes condense, and as a
result:
A. the chromosomes lengthen.
B. the nuclear envelope reforms.
C. the nucleolus disappears.
D. the chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell.

10-20
40. During this stage of mitosis, the chromosomes become attached to the spindle at their
kinetochores.
A. Prophase
B. Prometaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Telophase

41. What happens during Anaphase B?

A. Kinetochores are pulled toward the poles.
B. The spindle poles move apart.
C. The spindle apparatus disassembles.
D. The nuclear envelope reforms.
E. The APC/C gets activated for the first time.

10-21
42. You are conducting a genetic screen using Caenorhabditis elegans embryos to isolate
mutations affecting anaphase (A). Therefore, you need to look for embryos in which
A. the centromeres do not move toward the poles.
B. the poles do not move apart.
C. the spindle apparatus does not disassemble.
D. sister chromatids are mismatched and therefore fail to separate.

43. What stage of mitosis is essentially the reverse of prophase?

A. Anaphase
B. Prometaphase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase
E. Cytokinesis

10-22
44. The drug Taxol, or Paclitaxel, is used to treat patients with a variety of cancers, including
breast, lung and ovarian cancers. The drug works by stabilizing microtubules, and preventing
their disassembly. The goal of the drug is to prevent dividing cells from being able to
complete mitosis. As a result, cancerous cells can no longer divide. In a cell treated with
Taxol, at what stage of mitosis will the cells arrest?
A. Prior to metaphase
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase
D. Cytokinesis

45. Why is it so important that all of the chromosomes align on the metaphase plate during
metaphase?
A. This is the only place in the cell where the cyclins and Cdks are located.
B. If they cannot, it suggests that they aren't properly attached to the spindle microtubules,
and thus won't separate properly during anaphase.
C. This is the location where the chromosomes can become attached to the spindle
microtubules.
D. This allows asters to form.
E. This allows sister chromatids to form.

LO: 10.05.02 Explain the importance of metaphase.
10-23
46. If a cell was capable of bypassing metaphase and going directly from prometaphase to
anaphase, what is the most likely consequence of this?
A. The resulting daughter cells would not have a nuclear envelope.
B. The resulting daughter cells would have significantly different quantities of cytoplasmic
materials.
C. The resulting daughter cells would have different numbers of chromosomes.
D. The resulting daughter cells would be completely normal.
Metaphase is critical for ensuring that all sister chromatids are properly attached to the
mitotic spindle. If this phase were bypassed that would mean that there was no mechanism to
check for proper attachment to the mitotic spindle. As a result, it is possible that some
chromosomes were not properly attached and therefore, some chromosomes may not properly
separate and/or segregate. This would lead to daughter cells with different numbers of
chromosomes, which is not a goal of mitosis.

LO: 10.05.02 Explain the importance of metaphase.
47. Animal cells typically achieve cytokinesis by:

A. binary fission.
B. forming a cell plate across the middle of the cell.
C. forming a cleavage furrow that pinches the cell into two.
D. chromosome condensation.
E. chromosome elongation.

LO: 10.05.03 Compare cytokinesis in plants and animals.
10-24
48. Plant cells typically achieve cytokinesis by:

A. binary fission.
B. forming a cell plate across the middle of the cell.
C. forming a cleavage furrow that pinches the cell into two.
D. chromosome condensation.
E. chromosome elongation.

49. If a drug that inhibited transport from the trans face of the Golgi was applied to plant
cells, which stage of the cell cycle would be directly affected?
A. G2
B. S
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase
E. Cytokinesis
Since the cell plate forms from the fusion of Golgi-derived vesicles, cytokinesis is the most
likely process to be affected directly by this drug.

10-25
50. The progress of the eukaryotic cell cycle is regulated primarily by what proteins?
A. Cyclins
B. Histone proteins
C. Condensins
D. FtsZ

LO: 10.06.01 Distinguish the role of checkpoints in the control of the cell cycle.
Section: 10.06 Control of the Cell Cycle
51. At what checkpoint(s) does the cell arrest in response to DNA damage?
A. G1/S
B. G2/M
C. spindle
D. G1/S and G2/M
E. G2/M and spindle

10-26
52. You are examining the effect of maturation-promoting factor (MPF) in sea urchin cells,
which have a diploid number of 36. If you fuse a dividing sea urchin cell with a G1 arrested
oocyte, what would be the outcome?
A. The G1 cell would enter mitosis, but would likely arrest at the spindle checkpoint because
the chromosomes have not been properly replicated.
B. The G1 cell would undergo mitosis and its daughter cells would each have 36
chromosomes.
C. The G1 cell would undergo mitosis and its daughter cells would each have 18
chromosomes.
D. The G1 cell would first go through S phase and then mitosis. Its daughter cells would have
36 chromosomes.
In this scenario, the presence of MPF would drive the G1 cell to go immediately into mitosis.
The nuclear envelope would break down, the spindle would assemble, etc. But because the
cell has not gone through S phase, the chromosomes would not be replicated, and thus the cell
would likely arrest at the spindle checkpoint.

10-27
53. What time point represents G2?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

10-28
54. You are studying cell cycle progression in yeast cells. If you could prevent cdc2 from
associating with the mitotic cyclin, the cells would:
A. arrest in G1.
B. arrest in G2.
C. arrest in S.
D. arrest in prometaphase.
E. arrest in metaphase.

55. You are studying cell cycle progression in an early frog embryo. If you were to inject a
protein synthesis inhibitor into a cell during S phase, where do you predict that the cells
would arrest?
A. G1
B. G2
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase
If the mitotic cyclin cannot be synthesized after S phase, it is most likely that the cell will
arrest in G2 and will be unable to enter mitosis.

10-29
56. In G2, there are typically high levels of the mitotic cyclin. Why is cdc2 not active during
G2 if the mitotic cyclin is present?
A. Cdc2 is also regulated by phosphorylation.
B. Cdc2 does not bind to the mitotic cyclin.
C. Cdc2 requires ubiquitination to be activated.
D. Cdc2 also has to bind to cohesin to be activated.

57. What is separase?

A. A protein that marks a protein called securin for destruction.
B. A protein that is part of the cohesin complex.
C. A protein that destroys cohesin through its protease activity.
D. A protein that targets the mitotic cyclin for degradation.

LO: 10.06.02 Characterize the role of the anaphase-promoting complex/cyclosome in mitosis.
58. What is one of the roles of the APC/C during anaphase?

A. To directly target the mitotic cyclins for destruction.
B. To directly target cohesin for destruction.
C. To directly target separase for destruction.
D. To directly target microtubules for destruction.

10-30
59. What would you expect to happen if the anaphase-promoting complex/cyclosome

(APC/C) failed to ubiquitinate securin?
A. The cohesin complex will be destroyed, and the cell will remain in metaphase.
B. The cohesin complex will persist, preventing the cell from entering anaphase.
C. Separase will be marked for degradation by securin, preventing the cell from entering
anaphase.
D. Securin will remain intact and therefore will degrade cohesin, allowing the cell to enter
anaphase.

60. If you were to think of the cell as a car, and mitosis as a process that drives that car to go,
what would be a good analogy for a cell that has a mutation in both copies of a tumor-
suppressor gene?
A. The gas pedal of a car gets stuck while pushed down.
B. The gas pedal of a car does not work at all.
C. The brake pedal of a car gets stuck while pushed down.
D. The brake pedal of a car does not work at all.
Tumor suppressor genes are like the brakes on the cell cycle. Normally, they prevent cell
division in response to problems, such as damaged DNA or incomplete replication. If both
copies of a tumor suppressor gene are mutated, that would mean that a cell could not stop
dividing in response to normal signals. This is analogous to cutting the brakes on a car. No
matter what "signals" emerge (a stop sign, a red light, etc.), it is not possible to stop the car
using the brake because there is something wrong with the brakes.

LO: 10.06.03 Describe cancer in terms of cell cycle control.
10-31
61. You are leading a team of researchers at a pharmaceutical company. Your goal is to
design drugs that help fight cancer. Specifically, you want to focus on drugs that bind to and
inactivate certain proteins, thereby halting cell cycle progression. One of your team members
suggests targeting the retinoblastoma (Rb) protein and inhibiting this protein. Will this
approach be successful? Why or why not?
A. This approach will not be successful. Rb is tumor-suppressor protein, and functions to
inhibit the action of a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate
the Rb protein would essentially create the same situation as in as a cell that lacks both copies
of the Rb gene. Lack of Rb activity would release the inhibition of cell cycle regulatory
proteins, thereby promoting cell cycle progression, rather than halting it.
B. This approach will be successful. Rb is an oncogene, and functions to activate a number of
cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would halt the cell
cycle in cells that contain an active Rb. As a result, cancer cells expressing a constitutively
active Rb protein would be good targets for this type of therapeutic.
C. This approach will be successful. Rb is tumor-suppressor protein, and functions to inhibit
the action of a number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb
protein would activate cell cycle inhibition. Lack of Rb activity would therfore inhibit the cell
cycle regulatory proteins.
D. This approach will not be successful. Rb is an oncogene, and functions to activate a
number of cell cycle regulatory proteins. A drug designed to inactivate the Rb protein would
actually activate cell cycle progression. As a result, this drug would likely make this situation
worse for patients whose cancer cells contain mutant Rb.

10-32
62. This protein or protein complex functions in the cell to stop cell division if the cell has
experienced extensive DNA damage:
A. APC/C
B. p53
C. FtsZ
D. Condensin

10-33

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Chapter 10 - How Cells Divide

BIOLOGY 10TH EDITION RAVEN

Multiple Choice Questions

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 2. Understand

3. The division of a bacterial cell occurs as the:

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 4. Analyze

Review Figure 10.5

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 2. Understand

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

8. The number of chromosomes characteristic of diploid eukaryotic cells, in general:

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 3. Apply

Blooms Level: 3. Apply

Blooms Level: 4. Analyze

12. A scientist wants to study histones. Histones are:

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

15. These structures are held together by cohesin:

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 3. Apply

Blooms Level: 3. Apply

Blooms Level: 3. Apply

Blooms Level: 3. Apply

Blooms Level: 3. Apply

21. What is the sequence of events in a typical eukaryotic cell cycle?

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 2. Understand

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 2. Understand

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 2. Understand

Blooms Level: 3. Apply

Blooms Level: 4. Analyze

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

30. Interphase is made up of what stages of the cell cycle?

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 2. Understand

Blooms Level: 3. Apply

The kinetochore allows chromosomes to bind to microtubules.

Blooms Level: 4. Analyze

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 2. Understand

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

41. What happens during Anaphase B?

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 2. Understand

43. What stage of mitosis is essentially the reverse of prophase?

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 4. Analyze

Blooms Level: 2. Understand

Blooms Level: 4. Analyze

47. Animal cells typically achieve cytokinesis by:

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

48. Plant cells typically achieve cytokinesis by:

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

Blooms Level: 4. Analyze