Connect Core Concepts in Health Brief 14th Edition Insel Test Bank

Connect Core Concepts in Health Brief
14th Edition Insel Test Bank

Visit to Download in Full: https://testbankdeal.com/download/connect-core-concepts-i
n-health-brief-14th-edition-insel-test-bank/
Chapter 08 - Pregnancy and Childbirth
Chapter 08
Pregnancy and Childbirth
Multiple Choice Questions
1. (p. 186) Women under what age have a higher incidence of problems that can affect the health
of both mother and baby?
A. 25 years old
B. 20 years old
C. 18 years old
D. 15 years old
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remember
Learning Objective: List key issues to consider when deciding about parenthood
Topic Area: Parenthood Considerations
2. (p. 186) Women over what age have a higher incidence of problems that can affect the health
of both mother and baby?
A. 25 years old
B. 28 years old
C. 35 years old
D. 40 years old

8-1
Copyright © 2016 McGraw-Hill Education. All rights reserved. No reproduction or distribution without the prior written consent of
McGraw-Hill Education.
3. (p. 187) Women should be vaccinated against which of the following before becoming
pregnant?
A. rubella
B. herpes
C. tuberculosis
D. all of these

4. (p. 187) Which of the following should be assessed during preconception care?
A. family history of genetic disorders
B. problems with prior pregnancies
C. nutrition and diet
D. all of these

5. (p. 187) ________________ is a natural process that begins with the fertilization of an egg by
a sperm.
A. Conception
B. In vitro
C. Genetic coding
D. Insemination

Learning Objective: Explain the process of conception; and describe the most common causes and treatments for infertility
Topic Area: Conception and Infertility
8-2
6. (p. 189) The cell that is created from the fertilization of an ovum with a sperm is called a(n)
A. embryo.
B. zygote.
C. blastocyst.
D. fetus.

7. (p. 189) If an egg is not fertilized, it will last about

A. 12 hours.
B. 24 hours.
C. 32 hours.
D. 48 hours.

8. (p. 189) Conception normally occurs in the

A. ovary.
B. uterus.
C. vagina.
D. fallopian tube.

8-3
9. (p. 188) For which of the following conditions are African Americans at greater than average
risk?
A. sickle-cell disease
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. hemochromatosis
D. all of these

10. (p. 188) People from which of the following ethnic groups have a heightened risk of
developing hemochromatosis (iron overload)?
A. African
B. Asian
C. Irish
D. Moroccan

11. (p. 188) Which ethnic group is known to be at risk of developing Tay-Sachs disease?
A. Russians
B. Eastern European Jews
C. Italians
D. West Africans

T
8-4
opic Area: Parenthood Considerations
12. (p. 189) An ovum or a sperm has _________ chromosomes.

A. 18
B. 23
C. 32
D. 46

13. (p. 189) The basic units of heredity that direct the structure and function of all body cells are
A. chromosomes.
B. trophoblasts.
C. gametes.
D. genes.

14. (p. 189) The hollow organ in which the blastocyst embeds itself is the
A. uterus.
B. cervix.
C. vagina.
D. oviduct.

8-5
15. (p. 191) Alice delivered a set of fraternal twins. Which of the following statements about
them is TRUE?
A. They will be exactly alike in terms of their genetic code.
B. They came from an ovum that was fertilized by two sperm.
C. They resulted from two ova, each fertilized by a separate sperm.
D. They came from two ova fertilized by a single sperm.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understand
16. (p. 191) Identical twins

A. share the same genetic code.
B. are no more alike than other siblings.
C. result from one ovum fertilized by two separate sperm.
D. result from two eggs fertilized by two separate sperm.

17. (p. 191) Male infertility is the root cause of what percentage of all infertile couples?
A. 11 percent
B. 26 percent
C. 38 percent
D. 50 percent

8-6
18. (p. 191) One of the leading causes of female infertility in young women is
A. hyperthermia from hot tub use.
B. thyroid disease.
C. blocked fallopian tubes.
D. endometriosis.

19. (p. 191) Pelvic inflammatory disease is most often the result of
A. age.
B. urinary tract infections.
C. sexually transmitted infections.
D. scarring from abdominal surgery.

20. (p. 191) Kelley's infertility is caused by blocked fallopian tubes. She has no history of pelvic
infections or sexually transmitted infections. What is the most likely cause of the blockage?
A. scarring from abnormal hormone levels
B. endometriosis
C. a congenital defect in the oviduct
D. a tumor

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyze
8-7
21. (p. 191) ____________ is a condition in which the uterine lining grows outside of the
uterus.
A. Pelvic inflammatory disease
B. Endometriosis
C. Infertility
D. Ectopic pregnancy

22. (p. 191) Which of the following is NOT a primary reason for male infertility?
A. age
B. infection
C. testicular disease
D. disorder of sperm transport

23. (p. 192) A common treatment approach for infertility resulting from a low sperm count is
A. using a gestational carrier.
B. artificial (intrauterine) insemination.
C. infrequent intercourse to build up sperm stores.
D. erectile dysfunction drugs.

8-8
24. (p. 192) The process that results in fertilization of an ovum in a laboratory dish is called
A. artificial (intrauterine) insemination.
B. in vitro fertilization.
C. laparoscopic fertilization.
D. gestational carrier.

25. (p. 193) The hormone found only in pregnant women that, when detected, confirms
pregnancy is
A. estrogen.
B. unconjugated estriol.
C. prostaglandin.
D. human chorionic gonadotropin.

Learning Objective: Describe the physical and emotional changes a pregnant woman typically experiences
Topic Area: Changes During Pregnancy
26. (p. 193) Which of the following is NOT an early sign of pregnancy?
A. nausea
B. fatigue
C. Braxton Hicks contractions
D. breast tenderness

8-9
27. (p. 193) Hegar's sign is

A. a bluish discoloration of the cervix.
B. the softening of the uterus near the cervix.
C. a home pregnancy test.
D. the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin.

28. (p. 194) Four weeks after a woman misses her menstrual period, she would be considered to
be about ________ weeks pregnant.
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

29. (p. 194) What is the average weight gain during a healthy pregnancy?
A. 12.5 pounds
B. 19.5 pounds
C. 27.5 pounds
D. 31.5 pounds

8-10
30. (p. 195) The settling of the fetus into the pelvic cavity
A. occurs at the end of the first trimester.
B. is known as lightening.
C. is known as quickening.
D. indicates delivery within 24 hours.

31. (p. 195) Braxton Hicks contractions and lightening occur during
A. the first trimester.
B. the second trimester.
C. the third trimester.
D. labor.

32. (p. 195) The greatest degree of physical stress associated with pregnancy occurs
A. during the first trimester.
B. during the second trimester.
C. during the third trimester.
D. at different times depending on the age of the mother.

8-11
33. (p. 195) Cell differentiation and subsequent fetal development are directed by
A. genetic instructions.
B. the in vitro process.
C. alpha-fetoprotein codes.
D. chorionic gonadotropin.

Learning Objective: Discuss the stages of fetal development
Topic Area: Stages of Fetal Development
34. (p. 196) The conglomerate of cells that implants in the uterus and lays the foundation for the
development of the placenta and the eventual development of the fetus is the
A. ovum.
B. zygote.
C. germ cell.
D. blastocyst.

35. (p. 196) The blastocyst becomes an embryo about ________ days after fertilization.
A. 2
B. 7
C. 14
D. 42

8-12
36. (p. 196) The stage of development between implantation through about the 8th week after
conception is known as a(n)
A. zygote.
B. embryo.
C. fetus.
D. neonate.

37. (p. 196) The outer shell of the conglomerate of cells that embeds in the uterus becomes the
A. placenta, umbilical cord, and amniotic sac.
B. embryo.
C. heart, brain, and spinal cord.
D. genitals.

38. (p. 196) Which of the following statements best describes the function of the placenta?
A. The placenta connects the mother's and the baby's blood supplies.
B. The placenta makes a two-way exchange of nutrients and waste materials between the
mother and the fetus.
C. The placenta is a barrier that protects the developing baby from all harmful substances.
D. The placenta's only function is to carry nutrients and oxygen to the developing baby.

8-13
39. (p. 196) The major body structures and organ systems form during
A. the first trimester.
B. the second trimester.
C. the third trimester.
D. the entire course of the pregnancy.

40. (p. 196) Which of the following statements best describes what occurs AFTER the end of the
second month of prenatal development?
A. The major body structures are formed.
B. The cells are being differentiated into specific body parts.
C. The major body structures undergo growth and refinement.
D. The fetus is most at risk for developing birth defects.

41. (p. 197) The earliest point in pregnancy in which a fetus might survive outside of the uterus
is the
A. end of the third trimester.
B. end of the second trimester.
C. beginning of the second trimester.
D. middle of the third trimester.

8-14
42. (p. 198) Ultrasonography is LEAST useful in determining

A. genetic disorders.
B. structural abnormalities.
C. gestational age.
D. position of the fetus.

Learning Objective: List the important components of good prenatal care
Topic Area: Good Prenatal Care
43. (p. 198) An amniocentesis

A. cannot be performed during the second trimester.
B. is done primarily to collect genetic information.
C. cannot determine sex identification.
D. carries a very high risk for complications.

44. (p. 198) Women who become pregnant over the age of 35 have an increased risk of having
babies with
A. Down syndrome.
B. cystic fibrosis.
C. Tay-Sachs syndrome.
D. spina bifida.

8-15
45. (p. 198) The quadruple marker screen (QMS) is used to detect
A. fetal anomalies.
B. gender.
C. gestational age.
D. fetal position.

46. (p. 198) What does the QMS measure?

A. fetal hormones
B. gestational growth
C. fetal reflexes
D. blood gases of the fetus

47. (p. 198) What do researchers interested in fetal programming theory study?
A. chromosomal abnormalities
B. conditions of the womb
C. infectious agents
D. viral infections

8-16
48. (p. 199) Stress during pregnancy can lead to increased maternal levels of ______, which may
affect the infant's system for regulating blood pressure.
A. progesterone
B. estrogen
C. testosterone
D. cortisol

49. (p. 199) Bonnie's pregnancy has been confirmed with a home pregnancy test. Bonnie should
A. establish a relationship with a health care provider so that she can receive the appropriate
prenatal care.
B. be patient and retest in two weeks because of the high incidence of false positive results
with home pregnancy tests.
C. spend the next few weeks researching obstetricians so she makes the correct decision.
D. join a medically supervised weight-loss program to make sure she does not gain too much
pregnancy weight.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluate
50. (p. 200) To decrease the risk of neural tube defects, women who are capable of becoming
pregnant are urged to consume at least 400 micrograms daily of
A. folic acid.
B. vitamin C.
C. calcium.
D. iron.

8-17
51. (p. 201) Teratogen is the term that refers to a(n)

A. abnormality of the fetus.
B. defect in the placenta.
C. nutrient required for normal development.
D. substance that can cause birth defects.

52. (p. 201) Most types of birth defects occur during the
A. first trimester.
B. second trimester.
C. 9th through the 18th week of pregnancy.
D. final four weeks of pregnancy.

53. (p. 201) Unusual facial features, a small head, and heart defects are characteristic of babies
born to mothers who
A. used heroin during pregnancy.
B. used cocaine during pregnancy.
C. were exposed to toxic chemicals during pregnancy.
D. used alcohol during pregnancy.

8-18
54. (p. 201) Cigarette use during pregnancy is likely to result in a baby
A. with low birth weight.
B. with mental impairment.
C. born with anemia.
D. born with cancer.

55. (p. 201) Infants of women who smoke have an increased risk of
A. measles.
B. neural tube defect.
C. pneumonia.
D. stomach cancer.

56. (p. 201-202) The most common cause of life-threatening infections in newborns is
A. human immunodeficiency virus.
B. hepatitis B.
C. syphilis.
D. Group B streptococcus.

8-19
57. (p. 202) Neonatal blindness is caused most often by which of the following sexually
transmitted infections?
A. syphilis
B. hepatitis B
C. HIV
D. gonorrhea

58. (p. 202) A young woman has a history of herpes. She has an active lesion during labor.
Which of the following interventions will reduce the risk of herpes infection in the baby?
A. delivery by cesarean section
B. treatment with acyclovir during labor
C. application of antibiotic ointment to the baby's eyes after delivery
D. treatment of the lesion with an antiviral topical ointment

59. (p. 202) Pregnant women with HIV infections

A. are not likely to transmit the virus to the fetus.
B. can reduce the risk of transmission to the baby by taking antiviral drugs.
C. need not be tested during pregnancy because the fetus will already be infected.
D. will not infect the fetus if the delivery is by cesarean section.

8-20
60. (p. 203) ____________ exercises are recommended for pregnant women to strengthen the
pelvic floor muscles.
A. Kegel
B. Isotonic
C. Aerobic
D. Kinetic

61. (p. 203) Which one of the following is the most common recommendation regarding exercise
during pregnancy?
A. Start a rigorous exercise program.
B. Continue a moderate exercise program.
C. Stop exercising.
D. Increase the intensity of exercise.

62. (p. 203) Which of the following is NOT a reason to undertake prenatal exercise and
childbirth classes?
A. increased ability to relax during labor
B. decreased fear about labor and delivery
C. minimized weight gain
D. improved muscle tone

8-21
63. (p. 203) When a fertilized ovum becomes implanted at a site other than the uterus, the
resulting condition is known as a(n) _______________ pregnancy.
A. ectopic
B. aborted
C. gestational
D. peritoneal

64. (p. 204) Spontaneous abortions are most commonly caused by

A. chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.
B. poor nutritional status of pregnant women.
C. the use of cigarettes by pregnant women.
D. the use of alcohol by pregnant women.

65. (p. 205-206) Which of the following statements about low birth weight (LBW) is TRUE?
A. Good prenatal care is the best strategy for preventing LBW.
B. LBW is another term for prematurity.
C. Among LBW babies, small-for-date babies have as many health-related problems as
premature babies.
D. LBW babies are likely to overeat as infants.

8-22
66. (p. 206) To reduce the risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), parents should
A. put babies to sleep on fluffy bedding.
B. put babies to sleep on their backs.
C. keep the baby's room warmer than the rest of the house.
D. give the baby a plush toy to reduce nighttime stress.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Apply
67. (p. 207) The first stage of labor is characterized by

A. delivery of the placenta.
B. crowning.
C. dilation of the cervix.
D. lightening.

Learning Objective: Describe the process of labor and delivery
Topic Area: The Process of Labor and Delivery
68. (p. 208) The second stage of labor is characterized by

A. slow cervical dilation.
B. the delivery of the baby.
C. expulsion of the plug blocking the cervix.
D. the delivery of the placenta.

8-23
69. (p. 208) The third stage of labor is characterized by

A. intense uterine contractions.
B. movement of the baby's head into the birth canal.
C. rupture of the amniotic sac.
D. delivery of the placenta.

70. (p. 209) Which of the following is NOT a benefit associated with breastfeeding?
A. Breastfeeding contributes to postpregnancy weight loss.
B. Breastfeeding can enhance the emotional attachment between mother and infant.
C. Breastfeeding is a reliable form of birth control as long as breastfeeding continues.
D. Breast milk is more suited to the nutritional needs of the infant and more easily digested
when compared to formula.

71. (p. 210) Which of the following is NOT a usual characteristic of postpartum "baby blues"?
A. sleep disorders
B. periods of sadness and/or weeping
C. feelings of anxiety
D. prolonged despondency

8-24
72. (p. 210) Which of the following statements about postpartum depression is TRUE?
A. It will go away in a few days without help.
B. It prevents the new mother from participating normally in her life.
C. There is little that the mother's support system can do to help.
D. It is caused mostly by the mother's negative attitudes.

True / False Questions
73. (p. 185) Since 1970, the average age of first-time mothers in the United States has
decreased.
FALSE

74. (p. 187) An expectant mother's nutritional status is an important factor in the health of the
fetus.
TRUE

75. (p. 189) A human ovum and sperm each contains 23 single chromosomes.
TRUE

8-25
76. (p. 191) The most common cause of infertility in women is endometriosis.
FALSE

77. (p. 191) The risk for infertility in women increases with age.
TRUE

78. (p. 191) Having mumps in early childhood can result in male sterility.
TRUE

79. (p. 191) Fertility drugs can help a woman ovulate.

TRUE

8-26
80. (p. 192) Freezing embryos is common in assisted reproduction technology because multiple
eggs are usually harvested and fertilized during IVF.
TRUE

81. (p. 192) A gestational carrier is a fertile woman who agrees to carry a fetus for an infertile
couple.
TRUE

82. (p. 194) The duration of pregnancy and "due date" are calculated from the time of
fertilization because that date can be accurately determined.
FALSE

83. (p. 195) A woman who planned her pregnancy is unlikely to experience feelings of being
unattractive.
FALSE

8-27
84. (p. 196) The chorionic villi form the umbilical cord.
FALSE

85. (p. 198) A sonogram may detect the presence of a structural abnormality.
TRUE

86. (p. 198) Amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling are used to detect chromosomal
abnormalities in a fetus.
TRUE

87. (p. 198) An advantage of amniocentesis, when compared to chorionic villus sampling, is that
it can be performed in the first trimester, which allows for earlier intervention if a defect is
detected.
FALSE

8-28
88. (p. 200) Food safety is of special concern to pregnant women because foodborne pathogens
can be passed to the fetus.
TRUE

89. (p. 199-200) Regular prenatal care is unnecessary for a healthy woman who is having an
uncomplicated pregnancy.
FALSE

90. (p. 200) The presence of some sexually transmitted infections can be detected through
routine prenatal blood tests.
TRUE

91. (p. 201) Rubella exposure during the first trimester has no ill effects on the fetus.
FALSE

8-29
92. (p. 201) Getting drunk just one time during pregnancy is enough to cause a problem in the
infant's health.
TRUE

93. (p. 201) A fetus will not be affected by alcohol unless the woman drinks excessively during
the first trimester.
FALSE

94. (p. 202) HIV transmission to the fetus can occur only if both the mother and father are HIV
positive.
FALSE

95. (p. 204) Signs of preeclampsia include elevated blood pressure and swelling.
TRUE

8-30
96. (p. 204) Preeclampsia can be life-threatening for both the pregnant woman and her fetus.
TRUE

97. (p. 205) A low-birth-weight baby is one that weighs less than 5.5 pounds.
TRUE

98. (p. 205) A premature infant is one that is born before the 40th week of gestation.
FALSE

99. (p. 206) The United States has one of the lowest infant mortality rates among developed
countries.
FALSE

8-31
100. (p. 208) The Apgar score includes evaluation of the newborn's color, heart rate, muscle
tone, respiratory effort, and ability to suck.
FALSE

Multiple Choice Questions
Amy and Keith, both in their mid-twenties, have decided to have a baby. Both are in good
health and are physically active, although Keith is a smoker. Amy maintains her weight at
about 125 pounds. While they know that parenting is a big responsibility, they are excited
about the idea of becoming parents. The one thing that they are concerned about is the history
of genetic illnesses that exists in each of their families. After 6 months of not being successful
in conceiving, Amy is concerned that she may be infertile. She wants to see a fertility
specialist.
101. (p. 191) What information is Amy likely to receive when she asks her gynecologist to refer
her to a fertility specialist?
A. Amy should first be examined for endometriosis.
B. Keith should first be tested for a low sperm count.
C. Amy should be patient and try for at least another 6 months before being tested for
infertility.
D. Amy and Keith should experiment with different sexual positions when they have
intercourse.

8-32
102. (p. 191) What action can Amy or Keith take to increase their chances of conceiving?
A. Amy should douche with an alkaline solution prior to intercourse.
B. Keith should quit smoking.
C. Amy and Keith should drink alcohol to be more relaxed when having intercourse.
D. Amy and Keith should take vitamin E supplements.

103. (p. 187, 197) After another 4 months, Amy learns that she is 6 weeks pregnant. During her
first prenatal visit, Amy can expect all the following EXCEPT
A. encouragement to maintain her exercise regime.
B. instructions to avoid alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs.
C. information about a healthy pregnancy weight gain.
D. the ability to hear the baby's heartbeat.

104. (p. 198) Because of Amy's and Keith's concerns about genetic illnesses, they should make
plans to have
A. a sonogram at about 16 weeks' gestation.
B. a quadruple marker screening prior to 12 weeks' gestation.
C. chorionic villi sampling at about 10 weeks' gestation.
D. an amniocentesis at about 10 weeks' gestation.

8-33
105. (p. 207) Amy is at the end of her ninth month of pregnancy. The fetus has settled head
down into Amy's pelvic bones, and she has experienced Braxton Hicks contractions. What
will indicate the start of the birth process?
A. The amniotic sac will rupture.
B. The baby's head will move into the birth canal.
C. Amy's cervix will be fully dilated.
D. Amy will feel strong, rhythmic uterine contractions.

Essay Questions
106. List and discuss four factors or issues that partners should consider when deciding
whether and when to become parents.
Answers will vary

107. Explain the concept of preconception care, and briefly describe five questions, tests, or
treatments that a woman may encounter during preconception care.
Answers will vary

8-34
108. Describe the process of fertilization and early development, from the release of an egg
from an ovary to the implantation of an embryo in the uterus.
Answers will vary

109. Identify two causes of female infertility and two causes of male infertility. Then list and
describe three techniques that can be used to treat infertility.
Answers will vary

110. Describe at least three of the early signs and symptoms of pregnancy.
Answers will vary

111. Choose two factors in prenatal care (for example, diet, exercise, or alcohol use), and
describe how they can affect the health of the mother and developing fetus. Explain the
associated medical tests or lifestyle behaviors that are recommended to help support a healthy
pregnancy.
Answers will vary

8-35
112. Identify and describe the stages of labor, including key events that occur in each stage.
Answers will vary

8-36

Connect Core Concepts in Health Brief 14th Edition Insel Test Bank

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Connect Core Concepts in Health Brief 14th Edition Insel Test Bank

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Connect Core Concepts in Health Brief

14th Edition Insel Test Bank

Multiple Choice Questions

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

7. (p. 189) If an egg is not fertilized, it will last about

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

8. (p. 189) Conception normally occurs in the

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

opic Area: Parenthood Considerations

12. (p. 189) An ovum or a sperm has _________ chromosomes.

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

16. (p. 191) Identical twins

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

27. (p. 193) Hegar's sign is

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

42. (p. 198) Ultrasonography is LEAST useful in determining

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

43. (p. 198) An amniocentesis

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

46. (p. 198) What does the QMS measure?

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

51. (p. 201) Teratogen is the term that refers to a(n)

Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation