Test Paper - 12

Biology 1 - Section A 5 Given below are two statements:

Six molecules of CO2 and twelve
1 Hydroponics can be used in Assertion (A): molecules of NADPH + H+ and 18 ATP
1. identification of essential elements are used to form one hexose molecules.
2. discovery of deficiency symptoms of essential Light reaction results in formation of
elements Reason (R): ATP and NADPH .
2
3. commercial production of vegetables
4. all of the above
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
2 Which of the following categories are utilised for explanation of (A).
grouping of essential elements? Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
a. Components of biomolecules explanation of (A).
b. Part of energy-related biomolecules 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
c. Activator or inhibitor of enzymes 4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
d. Alter the osmotic potential of a cell
1. a & b only 6 Which of the following are special features of the
2. a, c & d C4 plants?
3. a & d only
4. All are correct I. They have a special type of leaf anatomy.
II. They tolerate higher temperatures and show a
3 Which of the following is incorrect about the light response to high light intensities.
III. They lack photorespiration and have greater
reactions of photosynthesis? productivity of biomass.
1. P680 and P700 are the reaction centres of PS-I and PS- 1. Only I and II
II respectively 2. Only I and III
2. Light energy provides energy for the photolysis of 3. Only II and III
water through excitation of the reaction centre of PS-II 4. I, II and III
3. NADPH is not produced in cyclic electrons transport
in light reactions 7 The chloroplast stroma lamella membrane:
4. Reactions of the two photosystems are needed for the 1. lacks PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme.
reduction of NADP 2. lacks PS II but has NADP reductase enzyme.
3. lacks NADP reductase enzyme but has PS II.
4 Which of the following process is not used by 4. has PS II as well as NADP reductase enzyme.
plants to synthesize amino acids from ammonia?
1. Reductive amination 8 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
2. Transamination 1. RuBisCO is a bifunctional enzyme
3. Oxidative amination 2. In C4 plants, the site of RuBisCO activity is
4. All of the above mesophyll cell
3. The substrate molecule for RuBisCO activity is a 5-
carbon compound
4. RuBisCO action requires ATP and NADPH

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 9 Read the following statements and select the correct 13 Given below are two statements:
option During Calvin cycle, regeneration of
Assertion (A):
Numerically, osmotic pressure is RuBP is crucial for uninterrupted cycle.
Statement A: equivalent to the osmotic potential, but the RuBP in Calvin cycle acts as a
sign is opposite. Reason (R): CO2 acceptor.
Cells swell in hypertonic solution and
Statement B:
shrink in hypotonic solution.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1. Only statement A is true 1.
explanation of (A).
2. Only statement B is true
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
3. Both statements are false 2.
explanation of (A).
4. Both statements are true
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
10 Photorespiration shows formation of 4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
1. sugar but not ATP
2. ATP but not sugar 14 Identify i, ii, iii and iv labellings in the following
3. both ATP and sugar diagram :
4. neither ATP nor sugar.

11 Reactions carried out by N2 fixing microbes include

(i) 2 NH + 3O → 2 NO + 2H + 2H O
3 2
−

2
+
2

(ii) 2 NO + O → 2 NO
2 2 3

Which of the following statements about these equations

is not true?
Step (i) is carried out by Nitrosomonas or
1.
Nitrococcus i ii iii iv
2. Step (ii) is carried out by Nitrobacter 1. stroma lamella thylakoid stroma genetic material
3. Both steps (i) and (ii) can be called nitrification 2. stroma lamella grana stroma starch granule
Bacteria carrying out these steps are usually 3. grana lamella stroma starch granule
4.
photoautotrophs 4. stroma lamella grana cytoplasm starch granule

12 How many of the statement(s) given below is/are 15 How many of the following statements are correct?
correct about the fate of ammonia in plants? i. Products of dark reaction are substrates of light
At physiological pH, ammonia is protonated to form reaction.
(a)
ammonium ion which cannot be stored as it is toxic. ii. Products of light reaction are substrates of dark
Most plants can assimilate ammonium ion as well as reaction.
(b)
nitrate ion. iii. In the stroma, enzymatic reactions incorporate CO2
The assimilation of ammonia can take place by into the plant leading to the synthesis of sugar.
(c)
reductive amination as well as transamination. iv. Dark reactions are directly light-driven.
Transport of fixed nitrogen in the form of amides v. Chloroplast is a single membranous organelle.
(d)
and ureides takes place via xylem vessel. 1. 2
1. 4 2. 3
2. 3 3. 4
3. 2 4. 1
4. 1

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16 Which one of the following is not the criterion for 19 Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. the family,
essentiality? the floral diagram, of which is provided below?
1. Element must be directly involved in the metabolism
of plant
2. Element is absolutely necessary for growth and
reproduction
3. Requirement of one element replaced with another
element
4. In the absence of element, plants cannot complete
their life cycle

17 Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

Mineral Functions in plants
Opening and closing of
1. Potassium
stomata, Activation of enzymes 1. The floral formula is:
Maintenance of ribosome 2. The plants usually possess exalbuminous seeds
2. Magnesium
structure, Structure of chlorophyll 3. Fruit is usually capsule
Pollen germination, Carbohydrate 4. More than one of the options given above are
3. Boron
translocation incorrect.
Water splitting in photosynthesis,
4. Molybdenum 20 Which of the following is correct?
Nitrogen metabolism
1. A typical flower has four different kinds of whorls
B iology 1-S ection B arranged on the swollen end of the pedicel called
thalamus or receptacle
2. Calyx and corolla are essential whorls of a flower
18 Read the following statements w.r.t the secondary 3. Perianth constitutes distinct calyx and corolla
growth in dicot stems: 4. All are correct
The cambium is generally more active on the inner
(i)
side than on the outer side. 21 Read the following statements and mark true (T) or
The cells which are cut off towards pith by false (F) for them.
cambium mature into secondary phloem and cells A. Diffusion is a fast process
(ii)
cut off towards periphery mature into secondary C. Facilitated diffusion is very specific
xylem. C. Solute potential is always positive
The amount of secondary xylem produced is more A B C
(iii)
than secondary phloem. 1. T F T
The primary and secondary phloems get gradually 2. F F T
(iv) crushed due to the continued formation and
3. T T F
accumulation of secondary xylem.
4. F T F
The primary xylem also gets crushed and rarely
(v)
remains intact.
22 Breakdown of proton gradient across the thylakoid
How many of the above statements are correct? membrane is due to
1. Three 1 Removal of protons from stroma by NADP reductase
2. Two 2 Active transport of protons through F0 part
3. Four 3 Diffusion of protons through transmembrane channel
4. One 4 Pumping of protons through F1 part

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23 Which of the following statement is not correct for 27 In the given diagram, A and B respectively
toxicity of mineral nutrients ? represent:
1. Toxicity is mainly associated with micro nutrients.
2. Toxicity level of any nutrient also varies for different
plants.
3. Toxicity of one nutrient may inhibit uptake of another
nutrient.
4. Symptom of toxicity cannot be due to deficiency of
any other nutrient

24 Fill in the blank according to the causes of the

proton gradient in photosynthesis :
The ________ accepter of ______, which is located
towards the ____ side of the membrane, transfers its
electron not to an electron carrier but to an _____.
1. Primary, proton, inner, proton carrier
2. Primary, electron, outer, H carrier
3. Terminal, proton, outer, proton carrier
4. Primary, electron, inner, H carrier
1. The N and the C terminus of the polypeptide
25 Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll- ‘a’ is shown 2. The C and the N terminus of the polypeptide
by- The constant and variable regions of the antibody
3.
molecule
The variable and constant regions of the antibody
4.
molecule

28 For the stability of the organic compounds, Oparin

opined that probably:
1. UV radiation never reached the surface of the
primeval Earth
2. the primeval Earth was in a molten state
a. i 3. the primeval Earth atmosphere was reducing rather
b. ii than oxidizing
c. iii 4. plenty of energy sources were available for chemical
d. Not shown. reactions to occur

Biology 2 - Section A 29 In a population in genetic equilibrium, the

frequency of the recessive allele is found to be 0.2. What
26 Consider the given two statements: is the frequency of heterozygotes in this population?
1. 0.8
Sponges exhibit a cellular level of
Statement&nsbp;I: 2. 0.16
organization.
3. 0.32
Cnidarians have a tissue level of 4. 0.64
Statement&nsbp;II:
organization.
In light of the above statements, choose the most 30 Palaeontological evidence for evolution refers to
appropriate answer from the options given below: the:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 1. development of the embryo
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 2. homologous organs
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 3. fossils
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 4. analogous organs.

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31 Metamerism evolved for the first time in the 39 All members of Kingdom Animalia:
members of the Phylum: 1. have tissues like nerve and muscle.
1. Annelida 2. Platyhelminthes 2. reproduce exclusively by sexual method.
3. Aschelminthes 4. Chordata 3. are multicellular.
4. exhibit same pattern of organization of cells.
32 Analogous organs arise due to:
40 In the given diagram of the body plan of an insect,
1. divergent evolution 2. artificial selection
identify the parts A-F:
3. genetic drift 4. convergent evolution

33 Cirrhosis of liver is a complication of chronic abuse

of:
1. Alcohol 2. Nicotine
3. Morphine 4. Benzodiazepines

34 Flatworms will exhibit all the following except:

1. Bilateral symmetry
2. Three embryonic layers
3. Incomplete digestive system
4. Coelom

35 Ascaris is characterized by: A B C D E F

1. Presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism Blood Nerve
1. Trachea Spiracles Crop Hearts
2. Presence of true coelom and metamerism vessel cord
3. Absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism Blood Nerve
2. Trachea Spiracles Oesophagus Hearts
4. Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism vessel cord
Nerve Blood
3. Trachea Spiracles Crop Ostia
36 Which of the following is unique to the molluscs cord vessel
and has no equivalent in any other animal? Nerve Blood Stomo-
4. Ostia Oesophagus Spiracles
1. Haemocoel cord vessel chord
2. Hemocyanin
3. Radula 41 A thorn of Bougainvillea and a tendril of Cucurbita
4. Metamerism are an example of :
1. analogous organs
37 The term 'Health' is defined in many ways. The 2. vestigial organs
most accurate definition of health would be: 3. homologous organs
Health is the state of body and mind in a balanced 4. defense organs
1.
condition
2. Health is the reflection of a smiling face 42 Opioids bind to specific receptors in CNS and:
Health is a state of complete physical, mental and 1. GIT 2. CVS
3.
social well-being 3. Liver 4. Lungs
4. Health is the symbol of economic prosperity.

38 Rheumatoid arthritis is:

1. X – linked recessive disorder
2. Congenital disorder
3. A viral infection
4. An auto-immune disorder

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 Biology 2 - Section B 47 Identify a non-infectious disease amongst the
following:
43 A complete digestive system is present in the 1. Malaria 2. Hemophilia
members of all the following phyla of Animal Kingdom 3. AIDS 4. Hepatitis
except:
I. Platyhelminthes 48 Cannabinoid receptors are principally located in the
II. Mollusca brain but they also have side effects on:
III. Annelida 1. GIT 2. CVS
1. Only I
3. Liver 4. Lungs
2. Only II
3. Only II and III
4. I, II, and III 49 “Organisms that share common descent show
underlying embryological patterns on which they build
44 Regarding bilateral symmetry: later their adult patterns”. This is :
1. Haeckel’s law
Bilateral symmetry is the body plan where the body
2. Baer’s law
of the animal can be divided into two identical halves
I: 3. Gauss law
through any plane passing through the central axis of
4. Allen’s rule
the body.
While Ctenophores and adult Echinoderms have 50 The theory of spontaneous generation stated that:
II: bilateral symmetry, Annelida and Arthropods have
1. life arose from living forms only
radial symmetry.
2. life can arise from both living and non-living
In light of the above statements, choose the most 3. life can arise from non-living things only
appropriate answer from the options given below: 4. life arises spontaneously, neither from the living nor
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. from the non-living
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. C hemistry -Section A
45 Recombinant vaccine used to prevent Hepatitis B 51 Sodium metal crystallizes in a body centred cubic
contains: lattice with a unit cell edge of 4.29 Å. The radius of
1. killed hepatitis B virus sodium atom is approximately :
2. live attenuated hepatitis B virus 1. 1.86 Å
3. antigenic polypeptide of hepatitis B virus 2. 3.22 Å
4. messenger RNA of yeast 3. 5.72 Å
4. 0.93 Å
46 Regarding the cell shown in the given figure:
52 What percentage of nickel exists as N i and N i
2+ 3+

I: The name Cnidaria is derived

from this cell ions in N i O
0.95 ? 1.00

1. N i = 89.48%, N i = 10.52%
2+ 3+

II: The stinging capsule present 2. N i = 10.52%, N i = 89.48%

2+ 3+

in the cell is called as nematode 3. N i = 91.6%, N i = 8.4%

2+ 3+

III: These cells help cnidarians 4. N i = 8.4%, N i = 91.6%

2+ 3+

in anchorage, defence and in

capturing the prey
1. While I and II are correct, III is incorrect
2. I, II and III are correct
3. Only II is incorrect
4. Only I is correct

Page: 6
53 Which one of the following statement is false?
1. Raoult's law states that the vapour pressure of a
component over a solution is proportional to its mole
fraction
2. The osmotic pressure (π) of a solution is given by the
equation π=MRT, where M is the molarity of the
solution
3. The correct order of osmotic pressure for 0.10 M
aqueous solution of each compound is BaCl2 > KCl >
CH3COOH > sucrose
4. Two sucrose solutions of same molarity prepared in
different solvents will have the same depression in
freezing point
54 An ideal solution is made by mixing 2 moles of
benzene (P o
and 3 moles of another liquid
= 266 mm)
57 Given below are two statements:
When 1.0 mol of NaCl is doped with 10-
Assertion (A): 3mol SrCl2, the number of cationic sites
remaining vacant is 10-3 mol.
Each SrCl2 unit produces two cationic
Reason (R):
vacancy.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

(P
o
= 236 mm). The total vapor pressure of the 58 The wavelength (in nanometer) associated with a
solution at the same temperature would be proton moving at 1.0 × 103 ms–1 (Mass of proton = 1.67
1. 502 mm × 10–27 kg and h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js) is-:
2. 248 mm 1. 0.032 nm
3. 600 mm 2. 0.40 nm
4. 258 mm 3. 2.5 nm
4. 14.0 nm
55 Element ‘B’ forms ccp structure and ‘A’ occupies
half of the octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms occupy 59 The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water
all the tetrahedral voids. The structure of bimetallic and ethanol is less than that of water and ethanol. The
oxide is - mixture shows
1. A BO 2 4 1. Negative deviation from Raoult’s law
2. A B O 4 2 2. Positive deviation from Raoult’s law
3. AB O 2 4 3. No deviation from Raoult’s law
4. A B O 2 2 4. Deviation which cannot be predicted from the given
information
56 The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a
particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of number 60 The number of electrons plus neutrons in K is
40 +

19

of their molecule is : 1. 38
1. 7 : 32 2. 59
2. 1 : 8 3. 39
3. 3 : 16 4. 40
4. 1 : 4
61 An element (Atomic mass = 50 g/mol) having fcc
structure has a unit cell edge length of 400 pm. The
density of the element is-
1. 5.188 g/cc
2. 10.376 g/cc
3. 2.56 g/cc
4. 1.2 g/cc

Page: 7
62 The osmotic pressure of 5% (mass-volume) solution Chemistry - Section B
of cane sugar at 150°C (mol. mass of sugar = 342) is
1. 4 atm 68 Molal depression constant for a solvent is 4.0 K kg
2. 5.07 atm
3. 3.55 atm mol–1 . The depression in the freezing point of the
4. 2.45 atm solvent for 0.03 mol kg–1 solution of K2SO4 is :
(Assume complete dissociation of the electrolyte)
63 The values of the Henry's law constant of Ar, CO2, 1. 0.36 K
CH4 and O2 in water at 25°C are 40.30, 1.67, 0.41 and 2. 0.18 K
34.86 kbar, respectively. The order of their solubility in 3. 0.12 K
water at the same temperature and pressure is 4. 0.24 K
1. Ar > O2 > CO2 > CH4
2. CH4 > CO2 > Ar > O2
69 The solubility of potassium nitrate in water
increases with temperature. A saturated solution of
3. CH4 > CO2 > O2 > Ar
potassium nitrate at 80 °C is cooled to 25 °C in a closed
4. Ar > CH4 > O2 > CO2 container. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
64 Select the incorrect statement from the following : (A) The mass of undissolved potassium nitrate will
1. The number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids increase.
present in fcc structure are in the ratio 1:2 (B) The concentration of the potassium nitrate solution
2. Solids containing F-centres are paramagnetic remains the same.
3. 68% space is unoccupied in bcc (C) The total mass of solvent present remains the same.
4. ZnO shows metal excess defect 1. B and C only
2. A and C only
65 Doping of Ge with small amount of In gives 3. A only
4. B only
1. Insulators
2. n-type semi-conductor
3. p-type semi-conductor 70 The molarity of NaNO3 solution is 2M. The
4. Oscillator density of solution is 1.2 gram/ml. The molality of the
solution will be (Molar weight of NaNO3 = 85)
66 Which, of the following solutions has the highest 1. 1.94 m
freezing point? 2. 2 m
1. 1 M Urea solution 3. 2.06 m
2. 1 M KCl solution 4. 1.85 m
3. 1 M MgCl2 solution
4. All have the same freezing point 71 The relative molecular mass of calcium carbonate is
100. What is the minimum volume of 2.0 M
67 The mole fraction of glucose (C H O
6 12 6) in an hydrochloric acid that would be needed to
completely react with 2.0 g of calcium carbonate?
aqueous binary solution is 0.1. The mass percentage of
water in it to the nearest integer is- 1. 40 cm3
1. 44% 2. 20 cm3
2. 49 % 3. 30 cm3
3. 47 %
4. 5 cm3
4. 41 %

Page: 8
72 A 50-watt bulb emits monochromatic yellow light 77 For a telescope, the limit of resolution is given by:
of a wavelength of 0.60 μm. The number of photons 1. α = 1.22λ

emitted per second by the bulb is: D

2. α = D

1. 2.3 × 1020 1.22λ

2

3. α =
D

2. 1.1 × 1019 λ
2

3. 1.8 × 1019 4. α =
λ

4. 1.5 × 1020
78 The threshold frequency for a certain metal is ν0 .

73 The metallic as well as ferromagnetic compound When the light of frequency ν = 2ν is incident on it,
0

among the following is- the maximum velocity of photoelectrons is 4 × 10 m/s.

6

1. TiO2 If the frequency of incident radiation is increased to 5ν ,

0

2. CrO2 then the maximum velocity of photoelectrons (in m/s)

will be:
3. VO2
1. (4/5) × 10 6

4. MnO2
2. 2 × 10 6

3. 8 × 10 6

74 If the energy of an electron in the 1st and the 2nd 4. 2 × 10 7

energy levels of an H atom are -13.6 eV and -3.4 eV,

respectively. The energy required in eV to excite an 79 A ray of light incident normally on one of the faces
electron from the 1st energy level to 2nd energy level is of a right-angled prism is found to be totally internally
1. 17.0 reflected as shown in the figure. What is the minimum
2. -17.0 value of the refractive index of the prism?
3. 10.2
4. -10.2

75 Solid CO2 is an example of:

1. Molecular crystal
2. Covalent crystal
3. Metallic crystal
4. Ionic crystal

Physics - Section A
1. √2
76 Which of the following (referred to a spherical 2. √3/2
mirror) do (does) not depend on whether the rays are 3. 4/3
paraxial or not? 4. 1.5
(a) pole
(b) focus
(c) radius of curvature
(d) principal axis
Choose the correct option:
1. (a) and (b)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (a), (b) and (c)
4. (a), (c) and (d)

Page: 9
80 Two waves, each of intensity i and wavelength 0.2
0 84 In Young’s double-slit experiment using
m, start from sources A and B and meet at point P as monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of
shown in the figure. If AP = 0.5 m, BP = 0.8 m, then light at a point on the screen where path difference λ is
intensity at P is: K units. What is the intensity of the light at a point

where path difference is λ/3?

1. K

2. K

3. K

4. K
1. 2i 0

2. i 0 85 Given below are two statements:

3. i /2
0
The focal length of the objective of the
4. zero Assertion (A): telescope is larger than that of the
eyepiece.
81 Given below are two statements: The resolving power of the telescope
Corpuscular theory fails in explaining Reason (R): increases when the aperture of the
Assertion (A):
the velocities of light in air and water. objective is small.
According to corpuscular theory, light
Reason (R): should travel faster in denser media than Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
in rarer media. 1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
1.
explanation of (A). 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. 86 A YDSE setup is first performed in air and then in a
4. (A) is false but (R) is true. liquid of refractive index μ. At a particular location on
the screen, the 10th bright fringe in air and the 12th
82 A monochromatic source of light emits 50 W at a bright fringe in liquid coincide. Then μ =
wavelength of 400 nm. The number of photons emitted 1. 1.8
per second is approximately (Take hc = 1240 eV-nm): 2. 1.54
1. 10 20
3. 1.67
2. 10 25 4. 1.2
3. 10 30

4. 10 40 87 A ray of unpolarised light is incident on a glass

plate at the polarising angle. Then:
83 Let p and E denote the linear momentum and
energy of a photon. If the wavelength is decreased, the reflected and transmitted rays will be completely
1.
1. both p and E increase. plane polarised.
2. p increases and E decreases. the reflected ray will be completely polarised and the
2.
3. p decreases and E increases. transmitted ray will be partially polarised.
4. both p and E decrease. the reflected ray will be partially polarised and the
3.
transmitted ray will be completely polarised.
the reflected ray and the transmitted ray will be
4.
partially polarised.

Page: 10
88 Consider the spectral line resulting from transition Physics - Section B
n = 2 to n = 1 in the atoms and ions given below. The
shortest wavelength is given by: 93 A convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15
1. hydrogen atom
m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2 and that of
2. deuterium
water is 4/3, the focal length of lens when immersed in
3. singly ionised helium
4. doubly ionised lithium water is:
1.0.45 m
89 According to Bohr's theory, the moment of 2. 0.15 m
3. 0.30 m
momentum of an electron revolving in second orbit of 4. 0.6 m
hydrogen atom will be:
1. 2πh 94 Which one of the following statements is not true:
2. πh
The sizes of the atoms taken in Thomson's model and
3. h

π
1. Rutherford's model have the same order of
4. 2h

π magnitude.
In the ground state of Thomson's model, the electrons
90 Find the minimum order of a green fringe 2. are in stable equilibrium. However, in Rutherford's
(λ = 500 nm) which overlaps a dark fringe of model, the electrons always experience a net force.
violet (λ = 400 nm) in a Young's double-slit experiment A classical atom based on Thomson's model is
conducted with these two colours. 3.
doomed to collapse.
1. 4 The positively charged part of the atom possesses
2. 2 4.
most of the mass in both the models.
3. 5
4. 2.5 Two slits are made one millimetre apart and the
95
91 If λ1 and λ2 screen is placed one metre away. What should the width
are the wavelengths of the first
of each slit be to obtain 10 maxima of the double-slit
members of the Lyman and Paschen series respectively,
pattern within the central maximum of the single-slit
then λ : λ is:
1 2
pattern?
1. 1 : 3
1. 2 mm
2. 1 : 30
2. 0.2 mm
3. 7 : 50
3. 0.02 mm
4. 7 : 108
4. 20 mm
92 The zero of the potential energy is so chosen that
the total energy of the hydrogen atom in its 1st excited
state is zero. Then, the energy of the ground state of the
hydrogen atom is:
1. −3.4 eV
2. −6.8 eV
3. −10.2 eV
4. −13.6 eV

Page: 11
96 Photoelectric effect experiments are performed 99 The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front
using three different metal plates p, q and r having work of the eye. What is the power of the lens required to
functions Q = 2 eV, Q = 2.5 eV and Q = 3.0 eV,
p q r enable him to see very distant objects clearly?
respectively. A light beam containing wavelength of 550 1. −1.25 D
nm, 450 nm and 350 nm with equal intensities 2. +1.25 D
illuminates each of the plates. The correct (I − V ) 3. −2.12 D
graph for the experiments is: (Take hc = 1240 eV-nm) 4. +2.12 D

100 For what distance is ray optics a good

approximation when the aperture is 3 mm wide and the
1. 2. wavelength is 500 nm?
1. 32 m
2. 42 m
3. 18 m
4. 20 m

3. 4.

97 Red light is used in a single slit diffraction

experiment with a slit width of 0.6 mm. If the red light is
replaced by yellow light, then the observed pattern will
reveal:

1. that the central maximum is wider

2. more number of fringes
3. less number of fringes
4. no diffraction pattern

98 For a photoelectric cell, the graph showing the

variation of stopping potential (V ) with the frequency
0

(f ) of incident light is best represented by:

1. 2.

3. 4.

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