Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Page: 1
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
102 CO2
2. 145O2
2 CO2
3. Zero O2
4 CO2
4. 1O2
Page: 2
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
17 Transpiration is very important for plants because it 24 In the given diagram of a typical set up for nutrient
helps in solution culture, the purpose of X is :
1. the absorption of water from soil
2. the cooling of leaves at high temperature
3. the movement of water and minerals absorbed by
roots to various parts of the plant
4. all of the above
Page: 3
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
27 Induction of Flowering in plants depends upon 32 Choose the correct option for the following diagram
1. Duration of light period only
2. Duration of Dark period only
3. Combination of light and dark exposures as well as
their relative durations
4. Amount of pigment synthesized at shoot tip
bacteria. complex
4. Water channels are made up of eight different
aquaporins. 33 In which form sugar is moved into the companion
cell and then into the living phloem sieve tube cells?
29 The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is 1. Glucose
to: 2. Fructose
1. yield energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down 3. Sucrose
the respiratory chain. 4. Glycogen
2. act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming
water 34 Fate of pyruvate produced by glycolysis depends on
3. combine with carbon, forming CO2. cellular needs, it can enter
4. combine with lactate, forming pyruvate. 1. Lactic acid fermentation
2. Alcoholic fermentation
30 Sunlight is essential for photosynthesis is 3. Aerobic respiration
4. All are correct
established
by
1. Jan Ingenhousz
35 Which of the following combinations is correct
2. Robert Hill regarding to "transamination"?
3. Emerson A. Involves transfer of α-ketoglutaric acid to glutamic
4. Julius Von Sach acid
B. Involves the transfer of amino group from one amino
31 The synthesis of one molecule of glucose during the acid to the keto group of a keto acid
C. Ammonia reacts with α-ketoglutaric acid to form keto
Calvin cycle requires.
acid
1. 12 molecules of ATP and 18 molecules of N ADP H
D. Involves transfer of glutamic acid to ketoglutaric acid
2
Page: 4
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
37 What happens, when a cell is placed in a isotonic 41 The following statements are correct except
1. Different plants respond differently to the deficiency
solution?
of the same element
(a) There is not net flow of water towards the inside or
2. The deficiency of any element can cause multiple
outside.
symptoms and that the same symptoms can be caused by
(b) Cells are said to be flaccid.
the deficiency of other elements as well
(c) ψ becomes positive.
P
3. Lack of N, K, S, Mo is responsible for cell division
(d) Enlargement and extension growth of cells occur.
4. There is a narrow range of concentration at which
The correct statement(s) is/are
elements are optimum
1. a only
2. a and b only
3. a, b and c only 42 Carbohydrates are commonly found as starch in
4. all are correct plant storage organs. Which of the following five
properties of starch (A-E) make it useful as a storage
38 With reference to factors affecting the rate of material?
A. Easily translocated
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not
B. Chemically non-reactive
correct?
C. Easily digested by animals
1. Light saturation for CO fixation occurs at 10% of
2
D. Osmotically inactive
full sunlight
E. Synthesized during photosynthesis
2. Increasing atmospheric CO concentration up to
2
The useful properties are
0.05% can enhance CO fixation rate
2
1. (B) and (C)
3. C plants responds to higher temperatures with
3
2. (B) and (D)
enhanced photosynthesis while C plants have much
4
3. (A), (C) and (E)
lower temperature optimum
4. (A) and (E)
4. Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in
CO -enriched atmosphere for higher yield
2
43 In glycolysis [EMP pathway], the number of ATP
39 The continuous excretion of watery substance molecules directly synthesized from one glucose
molecule are:
from stump of a well-watered potted plant after
1. 2
cutting off the shoot slightly above the base is
2. 4
due to
3. 6
1. root pressure
4. 10
2. guttation
3. transpiration
4. imbibitions
Page: 5
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
44 Consider the following statements: 49 In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary CO2
I. Growth in plants occurs by cell division and cell acceptor is -
enlargement, followed by cell 1. Oxaloacetic acid
differentiation. 2. Phosphoglyceric acid
II. Growth in plants is generally limited to regions of 3. Phosphoenol pyruvate
growing points known as meristems. 4. Rubisco
1. Both are correct and II explains I
2. Both are correct but II does not explain I 50 Which of the following is not a purpose of
3. I is correct but II is incorrect Transpiration?
4. I is incorrect but II is correct 1. Absorption of minerals and water from the soil and
transport in the plants
45 Water movement in plants is: 2. Supplies water for photosynthesis
1. Down a potential gradient in apoplast and up 3. Evaporative heating
the potential gradient in symplast 4. Maintains the shape and structure of the plants by
2. Down a potential gradient in symplast and up keeping cells turgid
the potential gradient in apoplast
3. Up the
apoplast and symplast
potential gradient in both Zoology - Section A
4. Down the potential gradient in both
apoplast and symplast
51 Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented during a
second pregnancy in a Rh negative mother who is likely
46 Assertion: A correct concentration of auxin and to carry a Rh positive fetus by:
1. Administering anti – Rh antibodies to the mother just
cytokinin is required for the development of root and
before the delivery of the second child
shoot in a callus
2. Administering Rh antigen to the mother just after the
Reason: When the ratio of auxin to cytokinin is high,
delivery of the first child
then only roots develop but when the ratio of cytokinin
3. Administering Rh antigen to the mother just before
to auxin is high then only shoots develop
the delivery of the second child
1. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is
4. Administering anti – Rh antibodies to the mother just
the correct explanation of the assertion
after the delivery of the first child
2. If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is
not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. If assertion is true but reason is false
52 Which of the following receptors are specifically
4. If both assertion and reason are false statements responsible for maintenance of balance of body and
posture ?
47 All the following regarding the role of xanthophylls 1. Basilar membrane and otoliths
2. Hair cells and organ of corti
and carotenoids in photosynthesis are correct except:
3. Tectorial membrane and macula
1. They act as accessory pigments
4. Crista ampullaris and macula
2. Their peak absorption is in blue and red regions of
VIBGYOR
3. They enable a wider range of wavelength of incoming
53 Match the type of WBC in column-I with its percent
light to be utilized for photosynthesis composition in total WBCs (column-II) and the shape of
4. They protect chlorophyll a form of photo-oxidation. its nucleus in column-III. Choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II Column -III
48 Enzymes and electron carriers for the formation of a. Eosinophils i. 60%-65% p. Large, rounded
cellular energy are present in the mitochondria at b. Neutrophils ii. 0.5%-1% q. Bilobed
1. Outer membrane only. c. Lymphocytes iii. 2%-3% r. Many lobed
2. Inner membrane only. iv. 20% - 25% s. Bean shaped
3. Both outer and inner membrane. 1. a-iii-q, b-i-r, c-iv-p
4. Mitochondrial matrix only. 2. a-i-r, b-iv-s, c-ii-q
3. a-iii-s, b-i-p, c-iv-q
4. a-ii-q, b-iii-p, c-ii-s
Page: 6
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
54 Identify the incorrectly matched pair: 59 Match List I with List II:
Disease Cause List I List II
Myasthenia Antibodies against neuromuscular A. Tetany I. Decreased levels of estrogen
1.
gravis junction B. Muscular dystrophy II. Autoimmune disorder
2. Tetany Hypocalcemia C. Myasthenia III. Genetic disorder
3. Osteoporosis Hypoparathyroidism D. Osteoporosis IV. Rapid spasms in muscle
4. Gout Accumulation of uric acid crystals Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
55 Consider the following statements with respect to 1. A - (IV); B - (II); C - (I); D - (III)
mechanism of muscle contraction 2. A - (IV); B - (III); C - (II); D - (I)
(a) Binding of calcium with the subunit of tropomyosin 3. A - (III); B - (II); C - (I); D - (IV)
removes the masking of active sites for myosin 4. A - (I); B - (II); C - (III); D - (IV)
(b) Z-lines move towards the centre of ‘H’ zone
(c) Cross bridge is formed by utilising the energy from 60 The condition where urea accumulates in blood is:
hydrolysis of ATP 1. Glycosuria
(d) H-zone disappears when a muscle fibre is maximally 2. Uremia
contracted 3. Ketonuria
Select the option with the correct statement 4. Acidosis
1. a and c only
2. b and d only 61 Given below a diagram of a section of an alveolus
3. a, c and d with a pulmonary capillary. Which of the following is a
4. b, c and d correct statement for
diffusion of gases?
56 Mark the incorrect statement regarding the transport
of gas.
1. About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC.
2. Nearly 20-25% of CO2 is transported by RBC.
3. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood deliver 4 ml of
CO2 to the alveoli.
4. Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood deliver 20 ml
of O2 to the body tissues
Page: 7
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
63 Match the Source gland with its respective hormone 67 Which region of the diencephalon controls the ANS
and function and select the correct option. and endocrine system and body temperature?
Source 1. epithalamus
Hormone Function 2. hypothalamus
gland
Anterior Contraction of uterus 3. thalamus
1. Oxytocin 4. infundibulum
pituitary muscles during child birth
Stimulates reabsorption of
2.
Posterior
Vasopressin water in the distal tubules in 68 Match the items in Column - I with those in
pituitary Column - II:
the nephron
Corpus Column I Column II
3. Estrogen Supports Pregnancy (a) Podocytes (i) Crystallised oxalate
luteum
Regulates blood calcium (b) Protonephridia (ii) Annelids
4. Thyroid Thyroxine
level (c) Nephridia (iii) Amphioxus
(d) Renal calculi (iv) Filtration slits
64 The vomiting center in the humans is located in the: Select the correct option from the following:
1. Medulla oblongata (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. Pons varolii 1. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
3. Hypothalamus
2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
4. Thalamus
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
65 Five events in the transmission of nerve impulse 4. (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
across the synapse -
A. Opening of specific ion channels allows the entry of 69 Choose the correct option to complete the analogy.
ions, a new action potential is generated in the post- Between right atrium and right ventricle :
synaptic neuron Tricuspid valve :: Between left ventricle and aorta :
B. Neurotransmitter binds to the receptor on post- ___________
synaptic membrane. 1. Semilunar valve
C. Synaptic vesicle fuses with pre-synaptic membrane, 2. Pulmonary valve
neurotransmitter releases into synaptic cleft 3. Bicuspid valve
D. Depolarization of pre-synaptic membrane 4. Mitral valve
E. Arrival of an action potential at the axon terminal
In which sequence do these events occur? 70 The plasma calcium levels is very effectively
1. E→ D→ C →B →A maintained by a balance between the activities of
2. A →B →C →D→ E 1. Thyroxine and parathormone.
3. A →B →D →C →E 2. Parathormone and calcitonin.
4. E →D →C →A →B 3. Aldosterone and vasopressin.
4. Insulin and glucagon.
66 Select the correct matching of hormone its source of
synthesis and function.
Hormone Source Function
b-cells of Increase blood glucose
1. Glucagon
pancreas levels
2. Vasopressin Hypothalamus Increase diuresis
Stimulates synthesis
Anterior lobe of
3. ACTH and secretion of
pituitary
glucocorticoids
Stimulates gonadal
4. LH Hypothalamus
activity
Page: 8
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
71 Match each item in Column I with one in Column II 74 Reabsorption and secretion of major substances at
and choose your answer from the codes given below: different parts of the Nephron are shown in the given
GI secretion Secreted by figure. In this figure A, B, C, D are :-
(a) Lysozyme (i) Upper small intestinal mucosa
(b) Rennin (ii) Stomach
(c) Enterokinase (iii) Saliva
(d) Nucleases (iv) Pancreas
3
shown by all muscles present in the humans. 2. NaCl, Urea, H , HCO
+ −
1. Contractility 3
2. Extensibility 3
4. Autorhythmicity
75 When both ovaries of human females removed then
73 Which of the following statement is not correct for which hormone will decrease in blood?
normal ECG? 1. Oxytocin
1. P-wave represents electrical excitation/ 2. Estrogen
depolarisation of atria 3. Prolactin
2. QRS complex represents the depolarisation of 4. Gonadotropin hormone
ventricle
3. By counting the QRS complexes that occur in a 76 Which of the following is not the function of the
given period time, one can determine the heart large intestine?
beat rate of an individual 1. Absorption of some water, minerals and certain drugs
4. T wave represents the beginning of ventricular 2. Nutrient absorption
systole 3. Secretion of mucus to lubricate feces
4. The temporary storage of feces in rectum
Page: 9
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
78 Parts A, B, C and D of the human eye are shown in 81 The type of joint between the carpal bones is:
the diagram. Select the option which gives correct 1. Ball and Socket
identification along with its functions/characteristics 2. Hinge
3. Pivot
4. Gliding
Page: 10
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
Zoology - Section B 90 The cells that produce the smallest formed elements
of the blood are called
86 During counter current mechanism, interstitial 1. erythroblasts
2. megakaryocytes
medullary concentration can be increased upto 4 times
3. myeloblasts
due to
4. thrombocytes
i. Active pumping of salts from the upper part of the
ascending limb.
ii. Passive diffusion of salts from the lower part of the 91 Which of the following symptom can not be
ascending limb. expected,
if there is tumour like growth in parathyroid glands?
iii. Passive diffusion of Na+ and Cl– from thick segment
1. Tetany of muscle.
of the ascending limb.
2. Increase in Ca++ level deposition of bones.
iv. Active secretion of Na+ and Cl– into the thin segment
of the tubule 3. More tubular reabsorption of Ca++ from the nephric
1. i, ii, iii & iv tubule.
2. i & ii 4. Both 1 and 2.
3. ii & iii
4. i only 92 ACTH controls the secretion of:
1. cortisol
87 Mark the incorrect match regarding the process 2. aldosterone
involved in digestion and absorption? 3. epinephrine
Muscular activities of 4 testosterone
1. different parts of Hormonal control
the alimentary canal. 93 A glenoid cavity is seen in:
Passive process 1. Scapula
Absorption and transport of 2. Coxa
2. and depends upon
water 3. Humerus
the osmotic gradient
4. Clavicle
3. Absorption of fatty acid Involvement of micelle
Absorption of some 94 Regarding the control of water balance by the
4. Large intestine water, minerals and
certain drugs kidneys:
1. The renal medulla has an osmotic gradient that
decreases from the border with the cortex to the renal
88 Which of the following cannot be expected in the papilla.
filtrate when it arrives to descending limb of Henle’s 2. ADH is secreted by anterior pituitary in response to a
loop? decrease in the osmolality of the blood.
I. Albumin II. Glucose 3. A normal person cannot produce urine with an
III. Urea IV. Amino acid osmolality greater than 300 mOsmil.kg-1.
1. I, II, III & IV 4. ADH acts on the cells of the collecting ducts to
2. I only increase their permeability to water.
3. II, IV only
4. I, II & IV 95 Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice
89 The ___________ integrates information received versa.
from the semicircular canals of the ear and the auditory 2. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, and nervous
system. system regulates endocrine glands.
1. Cerebrum. 3. Neither hormones control neural activity nor do the
2. Cerebellum. neurons control endocrine activity.
3. Medulla oblongata. 4. Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice
4. Thalamus. versa
Page: 11
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
96 Read the following four statements (a-d) and select 99 Heart disorder in which cardiac muscles are
the option which includes all correct ones only :- suddenly damaged by inadequate supply of blood is
(a) Exchange of O2 and CO2 at alveoli and tissue 1. Heart failure
occur by active transport. 2. Cardiac arrest
(b) Long exposure to industrial dust leads to 3. Heart attack
inflammation leading to fibrosis and thus 4. Atherosclerosis
causing serious lung damage.
(c) EICM and IICM are muscles actively involved in 100 Excretion of dilute urine requires
normal and forced breathing respectively. 1. relative permeability of the distal tubule to water
(d) Spirometer is unable to find out the functional 2. transport of sodium and chloride ions out of the
residual capacity and total lung capacity. descending loop of Henle
1. b, c and d 3. the presence of ADH
2. b and d 4. impermeability of the collecting tubule to water
3. a, b and d
4. a, b, c and d Chemistry - Section A
97 Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a 101 In the given compound, the most reactive
normal expiration is about:
hydrogen towards free radical substitution is:
1. 1200 ml
2. 2300 ml
3. 4600 ml
4. 5800 ml
Page: 12
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
103 Consider the following statements about the 107 In the following sequence of reactions, the
electromeric effect: compound ‘B’ is:
a. It is a temporary effect.
b. Alkenes and alkynes show this effect.
1. CH3CH2CHO
This effect operates in presence of an attacking
c. 2. CH3COCH3
reagent only.
3. CH3CH2COCH3
The correct statements are: 4. CH3CHO
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only 108 2,2–dimethylpropane, C(CH3)4, is an isomer of
3. (a), (b), and (c)
4. (a) and (c) only pentane, CH3(CH2)3CH3. Pentane has a boiling point of
36 °C whilst the boiling point of 2,2–dimethylpropane is
104 Select the correct option based on statements 10 °C.
below: The statement that explains the difference in the boiling
points for these two substances is:
2-butyne on controlled hydrogenation
The molecules have different relative molecular
Assertion (A): with Pd/CaCO3 (Lindlar's catalyst) in 1.
masses.
presence of PbO gives cis 2-butene.
2. Isomers have different chemical properties.
Hydrogenation occurs at the surfaces of
Reason (R): 3. Pentane has permanent dipoles.
metal-containing adsorbed hydrogen.
Longer chain, lesser branched molecules have
4.
stronger spontaneous/induced dipoles.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
109 The sodium extract of an organic compound on
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2. acidification with acetic acid and the addition of lead
explanation of (A).
acetate solution gives a black precipitate.
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
The organic compound contains:
4. Both (A) and (R) are false. 1. Nitrogen
2. Halogen
105 The correct reagent that is used for the following 3. Sulphur
reaction is: 4. Phosphorus
?
1. Manganese acetate
2. Copper at high temperature and pressure There are double bonds between silicon and oxygen
1.
3. Molybdenum oxide atoms.
4. Potassium permanganate 2. Silicon atom is bonded to two oxygen atoms.
Each silicon atom is surrounded by two oxygen
106 Proper management of disposal of household and 3. atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon
industrial wastes can be done by: atoms.
Recycling the waste material to give useful products Each silicon atom is surrounded by four oxygen
1.
again. 4. atoms and each oxygen atom is bonded to two silicon
2. Burning and incineration of combustible waste. atoms.
3. Sewage treatment.
4. All of the above. 111 LiF is sparingly soluble in water because it has:
1. partial covalent character.
2. small electronegativity.
3. high lattice enthalpy.
4. low hydration enthalpy.
Page: 13
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
112 Zeolite is hydrated sodium aluminum silicate. 117 Given the equation
When treated with hard water, the sodium ions is zeolite 1% H gSO4
CH3 − C ≡ CH + H2 O −−−−−−−→ A
is exchanged with:
20% H2 SO4
1. Zn 2+
4. Cu 2+
3. CH − CH − CH − OH
3 2 2
4. CH − CH (OH ) − CH
3 3
1. H BO and B O
3 3 2 3
2. B O and H BO
2 3 3 3
3. B O and [BH ]
−
2 3 4
4. H BO and H BO 2 3 3
Page: 14
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
121 Classical smog is a mixture of: 125 Among the following pairs of resonating
1. Fog and SO3 structures, incorrect option is:
2. Fog and SO2
1.
3. Fog, smoke and SO2
4.. Fog, smoke and SO3
Page: 15
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
128 Aromatic compound among the following is: 132 Metal nitrate that does not release N O2 upon
heating is:
1. LiN O 3
2. Be(N O ) 3 2
3. M g(N O ) 3 2
1. 2. 4. KN O 3
3. 4.
I II III IV
1. I>II>III>IV
129 2. I>III>II>IV
Assertion (A): It is impractical to separate Conformers. 3. IV>III>II>I
Conformers have a negligibly small 4. III>IV>I>II
Reason (R):
difference in their potential energy.
134 0.3 g of organic compound contains 40 % bromine
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct in silver bromide by the Carius method, the mass of
1.
explanation of (A). silver bromide is:
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 1. 0.12 g
2. 2. 0.28 g
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false. 3. 0.18 g
4. 0.021 g
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
135 Identify the reactants A, B, and C in the following
reaction:
130 A + B + C ⇌ BeCl2 + Gas (at 600 - 800 K)
Trans-but-2-ene has a higher boiling 1. BeO + Cl O
Assertion (A): 2
but-2-ene. 4. BeO + Cl + C 2
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
Page: 16
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
2. N a > Li
+ +
> K
+
> Rb
+
> Cs
+
3. Li > N a
+ +
> K
+
> Cs
+
> Rb
+
4. N a > Li
+ +
> K
+
> Cs
+
> Rb
+
1. 2.
139 The number of unbranched straight-chain
molecules with different structural formulas for the
molecular formula C H F are:
4 8 2
1. 4
2. 6
3. 12
4. 9
3. 4.
140 The order of activity of the various o- and p-
directors, given below is-
1. -NH2 > -OH > -OCOCH3 > -COCH3
2. -OH > -NH2 > -OCOCH3 > -COCH3
3. -OH > -NH2 > -COCH3 > -OCOCH3
4. -COCH3 > -OH > -NH2 > -OCOCH3
Page: 17
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
144 Incorrect statement about silicones is: 150 (CH3)4N+ is neither an electrophile nor a
They are chemically inert and water-repelling in nucleophile because of it:
1.
nature. does not have an electron pair for donation and it
1.
2. Lower silicones are oily liquids. also cannot attract an electron pair.
3. They are used in making waterproof clothes. neither has an electron pair available for donation
4. Good electrical conductors. 2. nor can accommodate electrons since all shells of N
are fully occupied.
145 An incorrect statement among the following 3. can act as Lewis acid and base.
regarding hydrogen is - 4. None of the above.
1. Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic salts.
2. Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in a solution. P
hysics -S
ection A
3. Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing agent.
4. Hydrogen has three isotopes of which protium is the 151 A man of mass 75 kg lies on a bed of 10000 nails.
most common. The tip of each nail has an area of 1.0 square
millimetres. What pressure does the man experience?
146 The major product formed in the following (Take g = 10 N/kg)
reaction is :- 1. 7. 5 × 10 pa 6
H Br
2. 7. 5 × 10 Pa 4
CH CH = CH CH (CH )
3 −−→ 3
2
3. 7. 5 × 10 Pa 3
1. CH3CH2CH2C(Br)(CH3)2
4. 7. 5 × 10 Pa 7
2. Br(CH2)3CH(CH3)2
3. CH3CH2CH(Br)CH(CH3)2 152 Given below are two statements:
4. CH3CH(Br)CH2CH(CH3)2 Smaller drops of water resist
Assertion (A): deformation forces better than larger
147 Select the correct option for P bCl and P bCl : 2 4 drops.
Excess pressure inside the drop is
Reason (R):
1. Both are 100% ionic in nature. inversely proportional to its radius.
2. P bCl is ionic and P bCl is covalent.
4 2
are: 2
2. H O 2
3. BaSO + H O 4 2 2
4. H SO + H O
2 8 2 2
Page: 18
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
154 A thermodynamic system is taken from an original 158 If the speed of sound in air is 320 m/s, then with
state D to an intermediate state E by the linear process, what frequency of sound will an air column of 2 m long
as shown in the figure. Its volume is then reduced to the pipe closed at one end will resonate?
original volume from E to F by an isobaric process. The 1. 120 Hz
total work done by the gas from D to E to F will be: 2. 200 Hz
3. 280 Hz
4. All of these
156 The intensity (I) of a sound wave depends on the hot reservoir and deliver 80 J of heat to the cold
distance (x) from the source as: reservoir in each cycle, the minimum temperature of the
1. I ∝ x hot reservoir would be:
1. 350 K
2. I ∝ 1
x 2. 375 K
3. I ∝ 1
2
3. 400 K
x
157 When the temperature difference between a body 161 A spring-block system oscillates with a time period
and its surroundings is 20°C, it loses heat to the T on the earth's surface. When the system is brought into
surroundings at a rate of 40 W. If the temperature a deep mine, the time period of oscillation becomes T . ′
difference increases to 25°C, the rate of loss of heat is: Then one can conclude that:
1. 45 W 1. T > T
′
2. 50 W 2. T < T
′
3. 60 W 3. T = T
′
4. 80 W 4. T = 2T
′
Page: 19
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
162 The terminal velocity (vT ) of the spherical 166 The energy of a gas molecule in a gas at a given
raindrop depends on the radius (r) of the spherical temperature T(K) is calculated based on the kinetic
raindrop as: theory of gases. Match column I with column II.
1.r 1/2
Column-I Column-II
2. r Mean kinetic energy per
A. (P) k T
3
3. r 2
mole of diatomic gas 2
B
4. r 3
Mean transitional kinetic energy
B. (Q) RT
3
1. soap bubbles have two air-liquid interfaces. Mean rotational kinetic energy
D. (S) k T
2. liquid drops have one air-liquid interface. per molecule of diatomic gas B
3. n
2n+2
the approximate average velocity of the fluid?
4. n
1. 2 m/s
n−2
2. 4 m/s
3. 5 m/s
165 Two equal and opposite deforming forces are 4. 6 m/s
applied parallel to the cross-sectional area of a cylinder
as shown in the figure. θ is the angular displacement of 168 A thin paper cup filled with water does not catch
the cylinder from the vertical. The shearing strain is
fire when placed over a flame. This is because:
given by:
1. the water cuts off the oxygen supply to the paper cup.
2. water is an excellent conductor of heat.
the paper cup does not become appreciably hotter
3.
than the water it contains.
4. the paper is a poor conductor of heat.
Page: 20
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
170 A particle executes SHM along a straight line. 174 Two metallic blocks M and M of the same area
1 2
Statement-I: displacement (from mean position) is a is K, then the thermal conductivity of M will be:
1
2. , ω
A A
2 2
constant temperature. The pressure is recorded
3. √2A, 2Aω continuously as the volume decreases. The pressure ( y-
4. √2A, √2Aω axis) and volume (x-axis) are plotted on a linearly scaled
graph. Which statement describes the plotted line?
173 Two sources of sound vibrating at 200 Hz and
204 Hz are sounded together. The beat frequency heard a curved line of increasing positive gradient starting
1.
is: at the origin of the graph.
1. 202 Hz a curved line with a negative gradient of decreasing
2. 404 Hz 2.
magnitude.
3. 4 Hz 3. a straight line parallel to the pressure axis.
4. 2 Hz
4. a straight line parallel to the volume axis.
λ
)
Page: 21
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
178 The length of a seconds pendulum at a height 182 A certain amount of gas of volume at ∘
V 27 C
h = 2R from the earth's surface will be: temperature and pressure 2 × 10 Nm-2 expands
7
(Given R = Radius of the earth and acceleration due to isothermally until its volume gets doubled. Later it
gravity at the surface of the earth g = π m/s2)
2
expands adiabatically until its volume gets redoubled.
1. m
2
The final pressure of the gas will be: (Use γ = 1.5)
9
2. m
4 1. 3.536 × 10 Pa 5
9
2. 3.536 × 10 Pa 6
3. m
8
9 3. 1.25 × 10 Pa 6
4. m
1
9
4. 1.25 × 10 Pa 5
179 A wire of length L and radius r is clamped rigidly 183 A source of sound moves with a constant velocity.
at one end. When the other end of the wire is pulled by a An observer standing close to the line of motion finds
force F , its length increases by 5 cm. Another wire of the frequency of sound to be 1100 Hz when the source is
the same material of length 4L and radius 4r is pulled approaching and 900 Hz when it is receding from him.
by a force 4F under the same conditions. The increase in The frequency of the source is:
length of this wire is: 1. 1000 Hz
C 2. 950 Hz
1. 3 cm 3. 990 Hz
2. 5 cm 4. 1010 Hz
3.10 cm
4. 6 cm 184 Water from the tap emerges vertically downwards
with an initial speed of 1 m/s. The cross-sectional area of
180 The pressure that needs to be applied to the ends of the tap is 10 m2. Assuming that the pressure is
−4
a steel wire of length 20 cm and area of cross-section constant throughout the stream of water and flow is
2
0.5 m to keep its length constant when the temperature steady, the cross-sectional area of the steam 0.15 m
is raised by 200 C is: (where Y is Young's modulus of below the tap is:
∘
expansion) 2. 6 × 10 m2 −4
Nm , α = 1.1 × 10 K )
11 −2 −5 −1
(Y = 2 × 10
3. 3 × 10 m2 −5
1. 3.2 × 10 Pa
6
4. 10 m2 −5
2. 2.2 × 10 Pa
8
3. 4.4 × 10 Pa
8
185 Infinite springs with force constants k, 2k, 4k,
4. 2.2 × 10 Pa
9
Page: 22
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
filled balloon.
W > W , as the air inside is at a greater pressure
3. 2 1
Page: 23
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
193 One mole of an ideal gas is taken through a cyclic 196 Given below are two statements:
process as shown in the (V − T ) diagram. Which of the If a gas container in motion is suddenly
Assertion (A):
following statements is correct? stopped, the temperature of the gas rises.
The kinetic energy of ordered
mechanical motion is converted into the
Reason (R):
kinetic energy of random motion of gas
molecules.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
1. log 2.
0
same material but of cross-section A and length l 2 2
2 2
l1 +l2
2. l =
194 A string of length l is fixed at both ends and is 2
A1 +A2
1. 2√2 mm
2. 4mm 1. 2.
3. √2 mm
4. 2√3 mm
Page: 24
NEET Level Test (12-Feb-23) - Contact Number: 9667591930 /
BONUS TEST 8527521718
situation is:
1. T = T = T
1 2 3
2. T > T > T
3 2 1
3. T = T > T
3 2 1
4. T > T = T
3 2 1
Page: 25