WORKSHEETS: BIOLOGY 10 IPA

1st Sem Final Test 2019 – 2020

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. What is the typical resolution of a microscope using daylight as a light source with a x10 eyepiece
lens and a x40 objective lens?
A. 0.20 nm D. 400 μm
B. 200 nm E. 0.2 cm
C. 100 μm

2. What best describes an electron microscope in comparison with a light microscope?

magnification resolution
A higher higher
B higher lower
C lower higher
D lower lower
E unlimited unlimited

3. Which features of cilia and root hairs are correct?

4. The diagram shows a high-power drawing of a bacterium.

Which three components are found in both this bacterium and an animal cell?
A. capsule, cell membrane and cell wall
B. capsule, DNA and ribosome
C. cell membrane, cell wall and DNA
D. cell membrane, DNA and ribosome
E. cell wall, ribosome and DNA

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5. Which cell structures have ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?
1. chloroplast
2. mitochondrion
3. nucleus
4. rough endoplasmic reticulum
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only E. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only

6. Which features enable an organism to be identified as a prokaryote?

I. cell wall III. nucleus
II. circular DNA IV. ribosomes
A. II only D. II and IV only
B. III only E. I, II, III and IV
C. I and IV only

7. An actively growing cell is supplied with radioactive amino acids. Which cell component would first
show an increase in radioactivity?
A. Golgi body D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B. Mitochondrion E. cell membrane
C. Nucleus

8. Which organelle does NOT contain a partially permeable membrane?

A. golgi apparatus D. ribosome
B. lysosome E. cell surface membrane
C. mitochondrion

9. Lysosomes vary in shape and size, making them difficult to identify.

What describes a lysosome?
A. a vesicle containing enzymes, enclosed by a double membrane, that is budded off the
endoplasmic reticulum
B. a vesicle containing hydrolytic enzymes and surrounded by a single membrane, found only in
phagocytes
C. a vesicle enclosed by a single membrane, containing several different hydrolytic enzymes
that may act inside or outside the cell
D. a vesicle surrounded by a double membrane, containing enzymes which can hydrolyse
damaged organelles in a cell
E. None of the above

10. The statements are all descriptions of cell structures.

1. surrounded by a single membrane and enclosing a large fluid-filled space
2. surrounded by a single membrane and enclosing inactivated enzymes
3. formed by two membranes enclosing a matrix, the inner membrane is folded
4. formed by a membrane that has flattened sacs and tubular structures inter-
connected throughout the cell
5. formed of nucleic acid and protein attached to membranes or free in the
cytoplasm.

Which row shows the typical cell in which these cell structures are found?
Plant cell Animal cell
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2, 3 and 5
B 1, 2 and 5 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C 2, 4 and 5 1, 4 and 5
D 3, 4 and 5 only 2, 3 and 5 only
E 1, 3, 4 and 5 2, 3, 4 and 5

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11. Which part of the cell is often continuous with the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
A. cell surface membrane D. nuclear envelope
B. Golgi apparatus E. lysosome
C. mitochondrion

12. Which structures are found in typical eukaryotic cells?

1. 70S ribosomes
2. 80S ribosomes
3. linear DNA (chromosomes)
4. circular DNA
A. 3 and 4 only D. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only E. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 1 and 4 only

13. Which is correct for competitive inhibitors of enzymes?

1. They occupy the active site of an enzyme.
2. 2 They have exactly the same shape as the substrate.
3. 3 They can be used to control the rate of enzyme activity.
4. 4 They can bind to a site on an enzyme other than the active site.
A. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4
B. 1 and 3 only E. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 only

14. The following statements are true to all enzymes except …………… .
A. Enzymes are proteins that functions as biological catalysts
B. An enzyme and its substrate have complementary shapes.
C. Enzymes are affected by pH and temperature and can be denatured
D. Enzymes do not accelerate reactions.
E. Enzymes tend to be very specific in their reactions they catalyze

15. A fixed volume of the enzyme catalase was added to a fixed volume of hydrogen peroxide solution.
The diagram shows how the concentration of product changed over the course of the reaction.

What explains the shape of this graph?

A. The active sites become saturated.
B. The enzyme was denatured.
C. The hydrogen peroxide inhibited the reaction.
D. The substrate molecules were used up.
E. The enzymes are used up.

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16. The graph shows energy changes in a chemical reaction.

What is the activation energy when an enzyme is added?

A. 1 + 2 D. 4
B. 3 – 2 E. 2 + 3
C. 2 only

17. The rate of enzyme catalyzed reactions in human cells is regulated.

Which of the following may be involved in such regulation?
I. A change in enzyme concentration
II. A change in substrate concentration
III. Inhibition by the final product of the reaction
A. I only D. I, II and III
B. III only E. II only
C. I and II only

18. The table contains results recorded by a student from an investigation into the effect of temperature
on an enzyme-catalysed reaction. All other variables were standardised.

What is the correct conclusion?

A. The optimum temperature was between 30 OC and 50 OC
B. The data for 50 OC was anomalous.
C. The optimum temperature was between 40 OC and 50 OC.
D. 30 OC was the optimum temperature.
E. At 40 OC the enzyme starts to get denatured.

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19. A fixed volume of the enzyme catalase was added to a fixed volume of hydrogen peroxide solution.
The diagram shows how the rate of the reaction changed over the course of the reaction.

Why did the actual rate of reaction decrease over time?

A. The enzyme active sites become saturated.
B. The enzymes were denatured.
C. The product inhibited the reaction.
D. The substrate molecules were used up.
E. The enzyme molecules were used up.

20. Which levels of protein structure can determine the specificity of an enzyme?
1. primary
2. secondary
3. tertiary
4. quaternary
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only E. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only

21. Which properties are characteristic of a non-competitive inhibitor of an enzyme?

binding
A at active site
B at active site
C not at active site
D not at active site
E All of the above
Effect of adding more substrate
reduces inhibition
does not reduce inhibition
reduces inhibition
does not reduce inhibition

22. The diagram shows the movement of substance Z across a cell surface membrane.

Which process is involved in this movement?

A. endocytosis D. pinocytosis
B. exocytosis E. facilitated diffusion
C. phagocytosis

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23. The initial rate of a reaction catalyzed by an enzyme was measured at various substrate
concentrations.
Which graph shows the effect of a low concentration of non-competitive inhibitor on the reaction?

24. Which processes allow movement into and out of a cell?

1. active transport
2. diffusion
3. facilitated diffusion
4. osmosis
A. 2 only D. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only E. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3 only

25. Visking tubing is often used as a model during experiments to investigate osmosis in plants.
What could Visking tubing be used to represent?

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26. The graph shows how the rate of entry of glucose into a cell changes as the concentration of glucose
outside the cell changes.

What is the cause of the plateau at X?

A. All the carrier proteins are saturated with glucose.
B. The carrier proteins are denatured and no longer able to function.
C. The cell has used up its supply of ATP.
D. The concentrations of glucose inside and outside the cell are equal.
E. All of the above

27. A molecule can enter a cell by two different passive processes.

Which process would increase the rate at which this molecule enters the cells?
A. Diffusion D. osmosis
B. Endocytosis E. facilitated diffusion
C. exocytosis

28. Strips of potato tissue were immersed in distilled water or in sucrose solutions of different
concentrations. The graph shows the percentage change in length of the potato tissue over time.

Which row correctly shows how the water potentials of the distilled water and sucrose solutions differ
from the initial water potential of the potato tissue?

distilled water 0.1 mol dm -3 sucrose 0.5 mol dm -3 sucrose

solution solution
A less negative more negative less negative
B less negative less negative more negative
C less negative more negative more negative
D more negative less negative less negative
E more negative more negative less negative

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29. What happens to an animal cell when it is placed in a solution with a more negative water potential?
A. It loses solutes to the solution and swells.
B. It takes in water by osmosis and bursts
C. It takes in solutes and swells.
D. It loses water by osmosis and shrinks.
E. Nothing happens

30. What are the most abundant molecules in the cell surface membranes of plant cells?
A. phospholipids D. proteins
B. glycolipids E. all of the above
C. cholesterol

31. Which statements about the differences between phospholipids and triglycerides are correct?
1. Phospholipids have hydrophobic regions but triglycerides do not.
2. The fatty acids in a phospholipid are always saturated but in a triglyceride they may
be saturated or unsaturated.
3. Phospholipids are polar molecules but triglycerides are non-polar.
A. 1 and 2 D. 3 only
B. 1 only E. 2 only
C. 2 and 3

32. Molecules 1, 2 and 3 are found in cell surface membranes.

1. Glycolipids
2. Glycoproteins
3. Phospholipids

Which contribute to cell recognition?

A. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 only
B. 1 and 2 only E. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only

33. The diagram shows the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure.
Which would enable a hormone to recognise its target cell?

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34. The diagram shows a cell surface membrane.

Which is a correct role for a labelled molecule?

A. W is involved in controlling membrane stability.
B. X is involved in active transport.
C. Y is involved in cell signalling.
D. Z is involved in diffusion of ions
E. W is involved in cell signaling

35. Which statements about complementary base pairing are correct?

1. Cytosine forms two hydrogen bonds with guanine.
2. Purines and pyrimidines are different sizes.
3. Adenine forms the same number of hydrogen bonds with thymine and uracil.
4. The base pairs are of equal length.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only E. 1, 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 3 and 4 only

36. Which statement correctly describes the base pairing in a molecule of DNA?
A. The purine adenine forms bonds with the pyrimidine thymine.
B. The purine adenine forms bonds with the pyrimidine uracil.
C. The purine cytosine forms bonds with the pyrimidine guanine.
D. The purine guanine forms bonds with the pyrimidine thymine.
E. The pyrimidine adenine forms bonds with the purine thymine.

37. Which row shows two pairs of nucleotide bases in a molecule of DNA?
First base pair Second base pair
Bases present number of bases present number of
hydrogen bonds hydrogen bonds
A AC 2 GU 3
B AC 3 GT 2
C AT 2 GC 3
D AT 2 GC 3
E AT 3 TU 3

38. What does the enzyme DNA polymerase synthesise in a cell?

A. A polypeptide using DNA as template
B. A strand of DNA using polypeptide as a template
C. A strand of DNA using DNA as a template
D. A strand of mRNA using DNA as a template.
E. A strand of RNA using RNA as a template

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39. Which statements about tRNA are correct?
1. Hydrogen bonds between bases temporarily hold tRNA against mRNA.
2. The base sequences in the tRNA molecules are the same as the base sequences in
the mRNA that is being translated.
3. tRNA translates the base sequence in mRNA into the amino acid sequence in a
protein.
A. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only E. none of the above
C. 1 and 3 only

40. In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is attached to the sugar’s ……… carbon and the phosphate
group is attached to the sugar’s ………. carbon.
A. 1’ … 3’ D. 1’ … 2’
B. 2’ … 1’ E. 2’ … 3’
C. 1’ … 5’

41. Which molecules are involved in transcription and which molecules are involved in translation?
transcription translation
A DNA and mRNA mRNA and tRNA
B DNA and tRNA mRNA and amino acids
C mRNA and amino acids DNA and mRNA
D tRNA and mRNA Amino acids and DNA
E tRNA and amino acids mRNA and amino acids

42. The diagram shows part of the DNA sequence of a gene and a mutated sequence of the same gene.

What are possible effects of the mutated sequence?

1. the presence of mRNA stop codons, UAG, UAA or UGA
2. a change in the sequence of amino acids
3. a non-functional protein
4. ribosomes cannot translate the mRNA
A. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 E. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only

43. A polypeptide has the amino acid sequence: glycine – arginine – lysine – serine.
The table gives possible tRNA anticodons for each amino acid.
amino acid tRNA anticodons
arginine UCC GCG
glycine CCA CCU
lysine UUC UUU
serine AGG UCG
Which sequence of bases on DNA would code for the polypeptide?
A. CCACGCAAGAGC D. GGTTGGTTGTGC
B. CCTTCCTTCTCG E. GGTCCCTTTTCC
C. GGAAGGAAAAGC

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44. The table shows the DNA triplet codes for some amino acids.

The base sequence on the DNA strand coding for a polypeptide is shown.
CCA TTC ACG GCG TTA GCA
Two mutations occur in this sequence during DNA replication.
Which mutated DNA would have no effect on the polypeptide synthesised?
A. CCA ATC ACG GCG TTG GCA
B. CCA TTC ACA GCA TTA GCA
C. CCA TTC ACG CCG TTA GCC
D. CCT TTC ACG GCG TTA GGA
E. None of the above

45. Which type of molecule is always the end product of transcription?

A. amino acid D. tRNA
B. mRNA E. polypeptide
C. DNA

46. The diagram represents stages in the life cycle of an organism.

Which arrow represents a process that results in haploid cells and which represents mitosis?
produces haploid mitosis
cells
A P Q
B Q R
C R Q
D P R
E R P

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47. The diagram shows part of the life cycle of the honey bee, Apis mellifera.

Where does mitosis occur?

A. 1 only D. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only E. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only

48. A scientist counted 22 chromosomes in each of the root cells of a xerophytic plant.
What is the diploid and haploid number of chromosomes for this species?
diploid number haploid number
A 11 22
B 22 11
C 22 44
D 44 22
E 46 23

49. The diagram shows an outline of the process of sexual reproduction.

Which row identifies the type of cell division occurring during stages 1 and 2 and the number of
chromosomes in cells P and Q?

1 2 P Q
A meiosis meiosis diploid haploid
B meiosis mitosis haploid diploid
C mitosis meiosis haploid diploid
D mitosis mitosis diploid haploid
E diploid haploid meiosis mitosis

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50. What occurs in mitosis?
homologous chromosomes chromosome number remains
pairs the same
A x ✓
B ✓ x
C x x
D ✓ ✓

51. Three parts of a chromosome and their functions are listed.

Which part is matched with its correct function?

A. P1 and F1 D. P3 and F2
B. P2 and F1 E. P2 and F2
C. P2 and F3

52. The diagrams show chromosomes at different stages of mitosis.

Which shows the correct order of the cell cycle?

A. W → X → Y → Z D. Z → W → X → Y
B. X → W → Z → Y E. X → Y → Z → W
C. Y → Z → W → X

53. The photomicrograph shows a stage of mitosis.

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 What would be correct for the next stage in mitosis?
paired chromatids nuclear membrane
A absent absent
B absent re-forming
C present absent
D present breaking down
E re-forming breaking down

54. Which process occurs during prophase of the mitotic cell cycle in an animal cell?
A. Division of centromere D. Separation of centrioles
B. Formation of chromosomes E. nuclear envelope breaks down
C. Replication of DNA

55. Which statement describes events during interphase of mitosis?

A. Chromosomes start to coil, becoming shorter and fatter.
B. Chromosomes line up on the equator of the spindle.
C. Chromatids are pulled apart by spindle fibres.
D. Chromosomes are replicated ready for the next division.
E. Chromatids joined by centromere.

56. Which statements about cancer are correct?

1. Exposure to UV light from the sun always causes skin cancer.
2. Some viruses can cause cancer.
3. The mutation of genes controlling the cell cycle may cause cancer.
A. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only E. none of the above
C. 1 and 3 only

57. Uncontrolled cell division can form tumours.

Which statement is correct for tumour cells only?
A. Metaphase does not take place.
B. Cytokinesis does not occur.
C. Interphase takes more time.
D. They have mutated DNA (this is for sickle cell)
E. Interphase takes less time.

58. Some chemicals, used to stop tumour growth, work by preventing the DNA double helix from
uncoiling and separating.
During which stage of the cell cycle would they act?
A. anaphase D. prophase
B. interphase E. telophase
C. metaphase

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59. Which row shows the appearance of a chromosome at the beginning of prophase of mitosis and the
number of DNA strands in the chromosome?

60. The diagram shows a cell nucleus in prophase of mitosis.

Which statement describes the chromosomes found in each daughter nucleus immediately following
division of this cell by mitosis?
A. 4 chromosomes, each containing 1 molecule of DNA
B. 4 chromosomes, each containing of 2 chromatids
C. 8 chromosomes, each containing 1 molecule of DNA
D. 2 chromosomes, each consisting of 2 chromatids
E. 8 chromosomes, each consisting of 4 chromatids

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II. STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
1. The diagram shows some of the cell structures involved in the secretion of an extracellular enzyme.

a) Identify A, B, C and D. [4]

b) Outline the role of each of the following in this process.

i. A [2]

ii. B [2]

iii. C [2]

iv. D [2]

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2. Complete the empty boxes in the table below by adding the correct information below each column
heading.

[8]

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3. Place a tick (✓) or cross (X) in each box as appropriate.
process Uses energy Uses specific Controllable
in the form of proteins by cell
ATP

Diffusion

Osmosis

Facilitated
diffusion

Active transport

Endocytosis and
exocytosis

[10]

4. Freezing temperatures can also completely stop enzyme activity by causing the molecules to
undergo ‘cold denaturation’. Enzyme activity is not recovered when temperatures are increased to a
normal working temperature range.
a) Explain the mode of action of enzymes.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..........
.....................................................................................................................................................[3]

b) Suggest how the molecular structure of the enzyme changes during ‘cold denaturation’.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………….…...[2]

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5. Red blood cells are formed from cells called reticulocytes. Stem cells in the bone marrow produce
reticulocytes which differentiate into red blood cells. During differentiation haemoglobin is produced.
Fig. 6.1 shows the structure of small sections of DNA and messenger RNA (mRNA) in the nucleus of
a reticulocyte during transcription.

a) Name the bases P to S. [4]

P …………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Q ………………………………………………………………………………………………….
R ………………………………………………………………………………………………….
S …………………………………………………………………………………………………..

b) Describe the role of the mRNA molecule shown in Fig. 6.1.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. [3]

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6. Describe the differences between DNA replication and DNA transcription.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………..…..[6]

7. A student investigated growth in the roots of broad bean, Vicia faba. The student cut sections of the
root tip of this plant and viewed them with a light microscope. Fig. 1.1 is a photomicrograph of one of
the sections. The cell labelled D is in interphase.

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 a) Complete the table below by:
 Naming the stages of mitosis in the correct sequences following interphase
 Identifying ONE example from the cells labelled A to H that is in each stage of mitosis that
you have named.

Stage of mitosis Label from Fig 1.1

[8]

b) In animal cells, centrioles are responsible for assembling microtubules to make the spindle at the
beginning of mitosis.
Describe the role of the spindle during mitosis.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………...[2]

c) State two roles of mitosis in plants and animals other than growth.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………....[2]

……….end of paper……….

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