Full Test-14 (PCM) Paper (21-01-2024)

FIITJEE - NJEETS
(JEE MAIN TEST SERIES - 2024)

CLASS – XII & XII PASS
FULL TEST - 14
Q.P.CODE:00000.0
CONDUCTION DATE: 21-01-2024
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
▪ Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
Important Instructions
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR sheet before
attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & C in the OMR. Part-B of OMR to be left unused
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, clip boards, log tables, slide
rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices ext. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall
/ room.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet:

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
4. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
C. Marking Scheme for All Two Parts:

(i) Part-A (01-20) – Contains Twenty (20) multiple choice objective questions which have four (4) options each and only
one correct option. Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and -1 mark will be
deducted for every incorrect answer.
(i) Part-C (01-05) contains Five (05) Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive). Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and NO MARKS will be
deducted for every incorrect answer.
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NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -2
Useful Data Chemistry:

Gas Constant = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1
R
= 0.0821 Lit atm K−1 mol−1
= 1.987  2 Cal K−1 mol−1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s Constant h = 6.626  10–34 Js
= 6.25 x 10-27 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2, O=8,
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,
Mn=55, Si = 28 Pb=207, u=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5
Useful Data Physics:
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m / s


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -3
Section – I (Physics)
PART – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. The dimension of mutual inductance is :

(A) ML2 T −2 A −1  (B) ML2 T −3 A −1 
(C) ML2 T −2 A −2  (D) ML2 T −3 A −2 
Q2. In the arrangement shown in figure a1,a2 ,a3 and a 4 are the
accelerations of masses m1,m2 ,m3 and m4 respectively. Which
of the following relation is true for this arrangement?
(A) 4a1 + 2a2 + a3 + a4 = 0
m1
(B) a1 + 4a2 + 3a3 + a4 = 0
(C) a1 + 4a2 + 3a3 + 2a4 = 0
(D) 2a1 + 2a2 + 3a3 + a4 = 0
m2
m3
m4
Q3. Arrange the four graphs in descending order of total work done; where W1,W2 ,W3 and W 4 are the work done
corresponding to figure a, b, c and d respectively.
F F
F
F
(A) Figure - a x1 (B) Figure - b

x0 x1 x2
x0
x x
-F -F
F F
F F
x1
(C) Figure - c x1 x2 (D) Figure - d
x0 x2 x3
x x0
-F x
-F
(A) W3  W2  W1  W4 (B) W3  W2  W4  W1
(C) W2  W3  W4  W1 (D) W2  W3  W1  W4


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -4
Q4. A solid spherical ball is rolling on a frictionless horizontal plane surface about its axis of symmetry. The ratio
of rotational kinetic energy of the ball to its total kinetic energy is –
2 2
(A) (B)
5 7
1 7
(C) (D)
5 10
Q5. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : If we move from poles to equator, the direction of acceleration due to gravity of earth always
points towards the centre of earth without any variation in its magnitude.
Reason R : At equator, the direction of acceleration due to the gravity is towards the centre of earth.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Q6. If p is the density and  is coefficient of viscosity of fluid which flows with a speed v in the pipe of diameter d,
the correct formula for Reynolds number Re is :
d v
(A) Re = (B) Re =
v d
vd 
(C) R e = (D) Re =
 vd
Q7. A flask contains argon and oxygen in the ratio of 3 : 2 in mass and the mixture is kept at 27 C. The ratio of
their average kinetic energy per molecule respectively will be :
(A) 3 : 2 (B) 9 : 4
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 1 : 1
Q8. The charge on capacitor of capacitance 15F in the figure 10F 15F 20F
given below is :
(A) 60c
(B) 130c
(C) 260c + -
V
(D) 585c 13V
Q9. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation
d = 2m has a capacitance of 4 F. The new capacitance of the system
if half of the space between them is filled with a dielectric material of
dielectric constant K = 3 (as shown in figure) will be : K=3
(A) 2F
(B) 32F
(C) 6F
(D) 8F
d
Q10. Sixty four conducting drops each of radius 0.02 m and each carrying a charge of 5C are combined to form
a bigger drop. The ratio of surface density of bigger drop to the smaller drop will be :
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1
(C) 1 : 8 (D) 8 : 1


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -5
Q11. The equivalent resistance between points A and 5

B in the given network is : 5
(A) 65  5
10 
(B) 20 
(C) 5  10  5
(D) 2  5 10 
B
A 10 
Q12. A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 2.0  105 JT−1 , is placed along the direction of uniform magnetic
field of magnitude B = 14  10−5 T . The work done in rotating the magnet slowly through 60 from the
direction of field is :
(A) 14 J (B) 8.4 J
(C) 4 J (D) 1.4 J
Q13. Two coils of self inductance L 1 and L2 are
connected in series combination having mutual
inductance of the coils as M. The equivalent self I I I
inductance of the combination will be :
1 1 1
(A) + +
L1 L 2 M
(B) L1 + L2 + M
(C) L1 + L2 + 2M
(D) L1 + L2 − 2M
Q14. A metallic conductor of length 1m rotates in a vertical plane parallel to east-west direction about one of its
end with angular velocity 5rad s−1 . If the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.2  10−4 T, then
emf induced between the two ends of the conductor is :
(A) 5V (B) 50V
(C) 5mV (D) 50mV
Q15. Which is the correct ascending order of wavelengths ?

(A)  visible   X −ray   gamma −ray  microwave (B)  gamma −ray   X −ray   visible  microwave
(C)  X −ray   gamma −ray   visible  microwave (D) microwave   visible   gamma −ray   X −ray
Q16. For a specific wavelength 670nm of light coming from a galaxy moving with velocity v, the observed
wavelength is 670.7nm.
The value of v is :
(A) 3  108 ms−1 (B) 3  1010 ms−1
−1
(C) 3.13  10 ms
5
(D) 4.48  105 ms−1

Q17. A metal surface is illuminated by a radiation of wavelength 4500 A . The ejected photo-electron enters a
constant magnetic field of 2 mT making an angle of 90 with the magnetic field. If it starts revolving in a
circular path of radius 2mm, the work function of the metal is approximately :
(A) 1.36 eV (B) 1.69 eV
(C) 2.78 eV (D) 2.23 eV
Q18. A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different processes. Half-life for the first process is 3.0 hours while it
is 4.5 hours for the second process. The effective half-life of the nucleus will be :
(A) 3.75 hours (B) 0.56 hours
(C) 0.26 hours (D) 1.80 hours


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -6
Q19. The positive feedback is required by an amplifier to act an oscillator. The feedback here means :
(A) External input is necessary to sustain ac signal in output.
(B) A portion of the output power is returned back to the input.
(C) Feedback can be achieved by LR network .
(D) The base-collector junction must be forward biased.
Q20. A sinusoidal wave y ( t ) = 40sin (10  106 t ) is amplitude modulated by another sinusoidal wave
x ( t ) = 20sin (1000t ). the amplitude of minimum frequency component of modulated signal is :
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.25
(C) 20 (D) 10
PART – C
Integer Type
Q1. A ball is projected vertically upward with an initial velocity of 50ms −1 at t = 0 s. At t = 2s, another ball is
projected vertically upward with same velocity. At t = _____s, second ball will meet the first ball (g = 10 ms -2).
Q2. Two 10cm long, straight wires, each carrying a current of 5A are kept parallel to each other. If each wire
experienced a force of 10 −5 N, then separation between the wires is _________cm.
Q3. A small bulb is placed at the bottom of a tank containing water to a depth of 7 m. The refractive index of
4
water is . The area of the surface of water through which light from the bulb can emerge out is x m2 . The
3
value of x is ________.
Q4. A travelling microscope is used to determine the refractive index of a glass slab. If 40 divisions are there in
1cm on main scale and 50 Vernier scale divisions are equal to 49 main scale divisions, then least count of
the travelling microscope is ________ 10 −6 m.

Q5. The stopping potential for photoelectrons emitted from a surface illuminated by light of wavelength 6630 A is
x
0.42 V. If the threshold frequency is  1012 / s , where x is ________ (nearest integer).
2
(Given, speed light = 3  108 m / s, Planck’s constant = 6.63  10−34 Js )
space for rough work


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -7
Section – II (Chemistry)
PART – A
1. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by

(A) Free radical fluorination (B) Sandmeyer's reaction
(C) Finkelstein reaction (D) Swarts reaction
2. can be classified as
(A) Dehydration reaction (B) Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
(C) Williamson ether synthesis reaction (D) Alcohol formation reaction
3. Ethanol is converted into ethoxy ethane

(A) by heating excess of ethanol with conc. H2SO4 at 140°C
(B) by heating Ethanol with excess of conc. H2SO4 at 443 K
(C) by treating with conc. H2SO4 at room temperature
(D) by treating with conc. H2SO4 at 273 K
4. Number of sp2 hybrid orbitals in Benzene is:

(A) 18 (B) 24 (C) 6 (D) 12
5. Determine the de-Broglie wavelength of electron in 4th Bohr's orbit of H-atom?

(A) 4πa0 (B) 2πa0 (C) 8πa0 (D) 6πa0
6. Which of the following species have one unpaired electron each?

(A) , (B) , (C) (D) ,
7. Following Vander Waal forces are present in ethyl acetate liquid

(A) H-bond, London forces.
(B) Dipole-dipole interaction, H-bond
(C) Dipole –dipole interaction, London forces
(D) H-bond, dipole-dipole interaction, London forces
8. Amongst the following which is not a postulate of Dalton's atomic theory

(A) Matter is formed of indivisible atoms
(B) Under identical conditions of pressure and temperature gases combines and give gaseous products in
simple volume ratio.
(C) During chemical reactions atoms remains conserved and only pass through rearrangement
(D) Same atoms have same properties including atomic mass
9. The correct order of increasing C – O bond length of CO, CO32– and CO2 is:
(A) CO32– < CO2 < CO (B) CO2 < CO32– < CO
2–
(C) CO < CO3 < CO2 (D) CO < CO2 < CO32–
10. Which of the following compounds will show the maximum ‘enol’ content?
(A) CH3COCH2COOC2H5 (B) CH3COCH2COCH3
(C) CH3COCH3 (D) CH3COCH2CONH2


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -8
11. Calculate the standard cell potential (in V) of the cell in which following reaction takes place :
Fe2+ ( aq ) + Ag + ( aq ) → Fe3+ ( aq ) + Ag ( s )
Given that
o
E Ag +
/ Ag
= xV
O
EFe 2+
/ Fe
= yV
o
EFe3+
/ Fe
=zV
(A) x − z (B) x − y (C) x + 2 y − 3z (D) x + y − z
12. A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using 0.1 Faraday electricity. How many
mole of Ni will be deposited at the cathode ?
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.20 (C) 0.15 (D) 0.10
13. Find the rate constant from the given data:

[A]0 [B]0 R0, Rate mol L–1 s–1
0.1 0.2 0.05
0.2 0.2 0.10
0.1 0.1 0.05
(A) 1 sec–1 (B) 0.5 sec–1 (C) 1.5 sec–1 (D) 2 sec–1
14. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (K) with temperature (T) are given below. The plot that
follows Arrhenius equation is
K K
(A) (B)
T T
K K
(C) (D)
T T
15. The precipitate of Ag2S is not obtained from which of the following solutions when H 2S is passed through
them?
(A) Aqueous suspension of AgCl. (B) [Ag(S2O3)2]– solution.
(C) [Ag(CN)2]– solution (D) AgNO3 solution
16. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of a certain reaction is given by the equation,
1.25 104
ln K ( sec−1 ) = 14.34 −
T
Calculate the energy of activation.
(A) 20.84 kcal mol–1 (B) 24.83 kcal mol–1 (C) 26.84 kcal mol–1 (D) 21.83 kcal mol–1
17. For an exothermic chemical process occurring in two steps as follows

(i) A + B ⎯→ X (slow)
(ii) X ⎯→ AB (fast)
The process of reaction can be best described by:
X
P.E.
P.E.
(A) A+B
AB (B)
A+B
AB
R.C.(reaction coordinate) R.C.


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -9
P.E.
P.E.
X X
(C) A+B (D) AB
AB
A+B
R.C. R.C.
18. Silver chloride is dissolved in hypo solution to form a complex.

(A) Na2  Ag ( S 2O3 )2  (B) Na5  Ag ( S 2O3 )6 
(C) Na3  Ag ( S 2O3 )2  (D) Na3  Ag ( S 2O3 )4 
19. In which of the following reaction, the yield of the products does not increase by increase in pressure?
(A) N2( g ) + O2( g ) 2NO( g ) (B) 2SO2( g ) + O2( g ) 2SO3( g )
(C) N2( g ) + 3H 2( g ) 2 NH3( g ) (D) PCl3( g ) + Cl2( g ) PCl5( g )
20. The pH of a solution is 7.00. To this solution, sufficient base is added to increase the pH to 12.0 The
increase in OH– ion concentration is
(A) 5 times (B) 1000 times (C) 105 times (D) 4 times
PART – C
Numerical Based Type
1. How many of the following wil give a positive haloform test?

CH3CH2OH , CH3CH(OH)CH3 , CH3CHO , CH3COCH3, CH3CH2OCH3 , CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 , CH3CH2CHO ,
CH3CH2COCH3
2. How many of the following wil give a positive CAN (Cerric ammonium nitrate)test?
CH3 Cl, CH3CH2OH , CH3CH2OCH3 ,CH3CH(OH)CH3 , CH3CHO , CH3COCH3, H3CH2CH(OH)CH3
CH3CH2CHO , CH3CH2COCH3
3. Consider the following reaction

PhCHCl-CH2Cl +xNaNH2 → A
A + Et-Cl → Ph-C≡C-Et
Find the value of x.
4. If 2.5 × 102y photons of light having a wavelength of 5000 Å are necessary to provide 1 Joule of energy, find
the value of y.
5. Number of nodal planes for f-orbital are………..


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -10
Section – III (Mathematics)

PART – A
Q1. Let A = x  R : x + 1  2 and B = x  R : x − 1  2 . Then which one of the following statements is NOT
true?
(A) A − B = ( −1, 1) (B) B − A = R − ( −3,1)
(C) A  B = ( −3, − 1 (D) A  B = R − 1, 3)
Q2. Let a,b  R be such that the equation ax2 − 2bx + 15 = 0 has a repeated root  . If  and  are the roots of
the equation x2 − 2bx + 21 = 0 , then  2 + 2 is equal to :
(A) 37 (B) 58
(C) 68 (D) 92
z 
Q3. Let z1 and z 2 be two complex numbers such that z1 = iz2 and arg  1  =  . Then
 z2 
 3
(A) argz2 = (B) argz2 = −
4 4
 3
(C) argz1 = (D) argz1 = −
4 4
Q4. The system of equations

−kx + 3y − 14z = 25
−15x + 4y − kz = 3
−4x + y + 3z = 4 is consistent for all k in the set
(A) R (B) R − −11, 13
(C) R − 13 (D) R − −11, 11
  1
 1
Q5.

(
lim  tan2 x  2sin2 x + 3sin x + 4 ) (
2
− sin2 x + 6sin x + 2 )
  is equal to
2
x→
2  
1 1
(A) (B) −
12 18
1 1
(C) − (D)
12 6
Q6. The area of the region enclosed between the parabolas y 2 = 2x − 1 and y 2 = 4x − 3 is
1 1
(A) (B)
3 6
2 3
(C) (D)
3 4


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -11
Q7. The coefficient of x101 in the expression

( 5 + x ) + x (5 + x ) + x2 (5 + x ) + .... + x500 , x  0 , is
500 499 498
C101 ( 5 ) C101 ( 5 )
501 399 501 400
(A) (B)
C100 ( 5 ) C101 ( 5 )
501 400 500 399
(C) (D)
Q8. The sum 1 + 2 . 3 + 3 . 32 + .... + 10 . 39 is equal to :

2 . 312 + 10 19 . 310 + 1
(A) (B)
4 4
9 . 310 + 1
(C) 5 . 310 − 2 (D)
2
Q9. Let P be the plane passing through the intersection of the planes
( ) ( )
r. î + 3ˆj − kˆ = 5 and r. 2iˆ − ˆj + kˆ = 3 , and the point ( 2, 1, − 2) . Let the position vectors of the points X and Y
be, î − 2jˆ + 4kˆ and 5iˆ − ˆj + 2kˆ respectively. Then the points
(A) X and X + Y are on the same side of P
(B) Y and Y – X are on the opposite sides of P
(C) X and Y are on the opposite sides of P
(D) X + Y and X – Y are on the same side of P
Q10. A circle touches both the y-axis and the line x + y = 0. Then the locus of its center is :
(A) y = 2x (B) x = 2y
(C) y 2 − x 2 = 2xy (D) x 2 − y 2 = 2xy
Q11. Water is being filled at the rate of 1 cm3 / sec in a right circular conical vessel (vertex downwards) of height
35 cm and diameter 14 cm. When the height of the water level is 10 cm, the rate (in cm 2/sec) at which the
wet conical surface area of the vessel increases is
21
(A) 5 (B)
5
26 26
(C) (D)
5 10

cos2 nx
Q12. If bn =  2 dx, n  N , then
0 sin x
(A) b3 − b2 , b4 − b3 , b5 − b4 are in an A.P. with common difference –2
1 1 1
(B) , , are in an A.P. with common difference 2
b3 − b 2 b 4 − b3 b5 − b 4
(C) b3 − b2 , b4 − b3 , b5 − b4 are in a G.P.
1 1 1
(D) , , are in an A.P. with common difference -2
b3 − b 2 b 4 − b3 b5 − b 4
If y = y ( x ) is the solution of the differential equation 2x2 − 2xy + 3y 2 = 0 such that y ( e ) = , then y (1) is
dy e
Q13.
dx 3
equal to
1 2
(A) (B)
3 3
3
(C) (D) 3
2


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -12
Q14. If the angle made by the tangent at the point ( x0 ,y0 ) on the curve x = 12 ( t + sint cost ) ,
 
y = 12 (1 + sint ) , 0  t 
2
, with the positive x-axis is , then y0 is equal to :
2 3
(
(A) 6 3 + 2 2 ) (
(B) 3 7 + 4 3 )
(C) 27 (D) 48
Q15. (
The value of 2 sin 120 − sin 720 is : ) ( )
(A)
(
5 1− 3 ) (B)
1− 5
4 8
(C)
(
3 1− 5 ) (D)
(
3 1− 5 )
2 4
Q16. A biased die is marked with numbers 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 32 on its faces and the probability of getting a face with
1
mark n is . If the die is thrown thrice, then the probability, that the sum of the numbers obtained is 48, is :
n
7 7
(A) 11 (B) 12
2 2
3 13
(C) 10 (D) 12
2 2
Q17. The negation of the Boolean expression (( ~ q)  p)  (( ~ p)  q) is logically equivalent to :

(A) p  q (B) q  p
(C) ~ (p  q) (D) ~ ( q  p )
Q18. If the line y = 4 + kx, k > 0, is the tangent to the parabola y = x − x 2 at the point P and V is the vertex of the
parabola, then the slope of the line through P and V is :
3 26
(A) (B)
2 9
5 23
(C) (D)
2 6
  15  
 cos   − 1
 4 
Q19. The value of tan−1   is equal to :
  
 sin   
 4 
 
(A) − (B) −
4 8
5 4
(C) − (D) −
12 9
x2 y2
Q20. The line y = x + 1 meets the ellipse + = 1 at two points P and Q. If r is the radius of the circle with PQ as
4 2
diameter then ( 3r ) is equal to :
2
(A) 20 (B) 12
(C) 11 (D) 8


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -13
PART – C
Integer Type
 2 −2   −1 2 
Q1. Let A =   and B =   . Then the number of elements in the set
 1 −1  −1 2 
(n, m ) : n, m  1, 2,.......,10 and nA n

+ mBm = I is ……….
 49 
b
1
Q2. The value of b  3 for which 12 dx = loge   , is equal to………
3 ( x −1 x − 4
2
)( 2
)
 40 
Q3. Let b = î + ˆj +  k,
ˆ  R . If a is a vector such that a  b = 13iˆ − ˆj − 4kˆ and a . b + 21 = 0 , then
(b − a ).(kˆ − ˆj ) + (b + a ).( î − kˆ ) is equal to

7
n
Q4. The total number of three-digit numbers, with one digit repeated exactly two times, is 3 , then n is….
Q5. ( )
Let f ( x ) = ( x − 1) x 2 − 2x − 3 + x − 3, x  R . If m and M are respectively the number of points of local
minimum and local maximum of f in the interval (0, 4), then m + M is equal to…………..


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -14
FIITJEE - NJEETS
(JEE MAIN TEST SERIES - 2024)
CLASS – XII & XII PASS
FULL TEST - 14
Q.P.CODE: 00000.0
CONDUCTION DATE: 21-01-2024
ANSWERS
PART - A
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B
5. D 6. C 7. D 8. A
9. C 10. B 11. C 12. A
13. D 14. B 15. B 16. C
17. A 18. D 19. B 20. D
PART – C
1. 6 2. 5 3. 9 4. 5
5. 7
PART - A
1. D 2. C 3. A 4. A
5. C 6. C 7. C 8. B
9. C 10. B 11. C 12. A
13. B 14. A 15. A 16. B
17. C 18. C 19. A 20. C
PART – C
1. 6 2. 3 3. 3 4. 9
5. 3
PART - A
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. D
5. A 6. A 7. A 8. B
9. C 10. D 11. C 12. D
13. B 14. C 15. D 16. D
17. C 18. C 19. B 20. A
PART – C
1. 1 2. 6 3. 2 4. 5
5. 3


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -15
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PART - A
di
Sol1. e = −M
dt
e
M= = M L2 T −2 A −2
di / dt
Sol2.  T.a = 0 T
T T T T
a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 = 0
2 4 8 8
 4a1 + 2a2 + a3 + a4 = 0 T/2
T/2
a1 m1
T/4 T/4
a2 m2
T/8 T/8
a3 m3
m4 a4
Sol3. Work done represents area under

F vs x diagram.
w 3  w 2  w1  w 4
1
Sol4. K  ER (Rotational) = ICM2
2
1 2
=  MR2 2
2 5
MR2 2
= - (1)
5
K  E Total = K  ER + K  ET
MR2 2 1
= + M Vcm2
5 2
MR2 2 1
= + MVcm2
5 2
MR  2 2
1
= + MR2 2
5 2
7 MR2 2
= - (2)
10
k  ER 1 10 2
= =
K  ETotal 5  7 7


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -16
Pole
Sol5. g' = g −  Rsin 
2

Earth
g' (at  = 0pole) = g
equator
(
g' at  = 90 ,equator = g − 2 R )
g decreases as we move from bole to equator
So, A is false statement
But ‘R’ statement is true
 vd
Sol6. Re =

Sol7. The average kinetic energy (per molecule) of any (ideal) gas (be it monoatomic like Argon, diatomic like
3
oxygen or polyatomic) is always equal to K B T. If depends only on temperature, and is independent of the
2
nature of the gas. So, Answer is 1 : 1.
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol8. = + + = + +
Ceq C1 C2 C3 10 15 20
1 6 + 4 + 3 13
= =
Ceq 60 60
60
Leq = F
30
60
Q = Ceq v =  13 C
13
0 A
Sol9. Given = 4 F
d
 A2 = 2 4
C1 = 0
d = 8 F
k 0 A
C2 = = 3  2  4 = 24 F
d/2
k=3
C C 8  24 8  24
Ceq = 1 2 = = = 6 F
C1 + C2 8 + 24 32 9/2 9/2
Sol10. Since, Volume remain constant

4 4
64   r 3 = R3
3 3
R3 = r 3  64
R = 4r
5  64
bigger =
4 R2
5
small drop =
4 r 2
bigger 5  64  42
=
small drop 4 R2  5
2
r
= 64  
R


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -17
2
 r 
= 64  
 4r 
64
=
16
= 4 :1
Sol11. 5
5
10  5
10 
5
5
10 
A
10  B
5
5
10  10  10 
10  5
B
A 10 

5
5
5  10  10  5
B
A 10 

5
5
10  10  10  5
10 
B
A

5
5
5 10 
B
10 
A



NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -18
5
10  10 
B
A 10 

5 5
B
A 10 

A 5 B
Sol12. u = −MBcos 2 − ( − MBcos 1 )

= − MBcos 2 − cos 1 
(
= −2  105  14  10 −5 cos 60  − cos0  )
1 
= −28  − 1
2 
28
= = 14J
2
Sol13. L eq = L1 + L 2 − 2M
 2
Sol14. emf induced = BH
2
12
= 0.2  10−4  5 
2
= 5  10−5 = 50 v
Sol15. If frequency is night wavelength is low.
 v
Sol16. =
 c

v= C

0.7  10−9
= −9
 3  108
670  10
= 3.13  105
hc
Sol17. k = −

mv 2km
As radius, r = =
eB eB
 (reB ) = 2km
2
(reB)
2
k =
2m


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -19
hc ( reB )
2
= −
 2m
1 1 1
Sol18. = +
t t1 t 2
1 1 1
= +
t 3 4.5
4.5 + 3
=
3  4.5
3  4.5 9
t= =
7.5 5
t = 1.8hrs
Sol19. A portion of the output power is returned back to the input.
A C
Sol20. Cm ( t ) = A C sin C t + cos ( C − m ) t − cos ( C + m ) t 
2 
Am
=
AC
A C = 40
Am = 20
1
=
2
 AC
So amplitude of minimum frequency =
2
= 10
PART – C
1
Sol1. h = 50 t −  10 t 2 = 80m Initial
2 A 50 m/sec
Now velocity B with respect to A
After t = 2sec
VBA = VB − VA
30 m/sec
= 50 − 30
= 20m / sec
(A)
Now ABA = aB − aA
( ) (
= 10 − ˆj − −10 ˆj ) 50 m/sec
h
=0
Time taken to collide. (B)
h = VBA t
50 m/sec
80 = 20 t
t = 4sec
Total time = 4 + 2 B
= 6sec
30 m/sec
  2 i1 i2
Sol2. F= 0 .
4 d
10−7  2  5  5 10
10−5 = 
d 100


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -20
5  10  10 −7 10
d=
10−5 100
d = 5  10−2 m
d = 5cm
Sol3. by snell’s law r

4
sin C = 1 sin90
3 C
4
sin C = 1 1
3 7m  = 4 / 3
3 r C
sin C = =
4
( )
2
r2 + 7
3 r
=
4 r +72
Squaring both side

9 r2
= 2
16 r + 7
qr 2 + 63 = 16r 2
 63 = 7r 2
r2 = q
r = 3m
A = r 2 =   9 = 9
Sol4. Let ‘x’ be the value of one division on main scale

1
x= cm
40
Let ‘y’ be the value of one division on vernier
Now given
50 y = 49 x
49 x
y=
50
Least count = x − y
49x
= x−
50
x 1
= = cm
50 40  50
1
=  10−2
20
= 0.05  10−2
= 5  10−4 cm
= 5  10−6 m
hC
Sol5. e V0 + h0 =

6.63  10 −34  3  108
 1.6  10−19  0.42 + 6.63  10−34 0 =
663  10−10
 1.6  10−19  0.42 + 6.63  10−34 0 = 3  10−19


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -21
 6.63  10−34 0 = 10−19 ( 3 − 1.6  0.42)

6.63  10−34 0 = 2.328  10−19
2.328  10 −19
0 =
6.63  10 −34
0 = 35.11 1013
= 35
PART - A
1. D
Sol. F2 is very reactive and reacts very vigorously; hence free radical fluorination is not carried. Sandmeyer’s
reaction is for preparation of aryl chloride and Bromide. Finkelstein Reaction is carried for alkyl iodides.
2. C
Sol. In Williamson ether synthesis reaction alkoxide ion reacts with alkyl halide to form ether.
3. A
Sol. Ethanol is converted into ethoxy ethane by heating excess of ethanol with conc. H 2SO4 at 140°C
4. A
Sol In benzene total six sp2 hybrid carbon atoms are present. Each carbon atom has 3 sp2 hybrid orbitals.
Therefore total sp2 hybrid orbitals are 18 in benzene.
5. C
Sol. 2πr = nλ
6. C
Sol. O2 = σ1s2 σ*1s2 σ2s2 σ*2s2 σ2pz [π2px = π2py] π *2px1= π* 2py1
7. C
Sol. Ethyl acetate is polar molecule so dipole-dipole interaction will be present there.
8. B
Sol. Conceptual
9. C
Sol. Bond Order of CO = 3; CO2 = 2, CO32– = 4/3 = 1.33
10. B
11. C
12. A
Sol. Ni (NO3 )2 → Ni2+ + 2NO3−
Ni2+ + 2e− → Ni
2 eq. of Ni2+ will be discharged from 2 faraday.
0.1 e.q. of Ni2+ will be discharged from 0.1 F.
No. of e.q. = Moles n-factor
0.1= Moles 2
Moles=0.05
13. B
Sol. Let the rate law for the reaction is Rate = K [A]m [B]n
0.05 = K [0.1]m [0.2]n …(i)
0.10 = K [0.2]m [0.2]n …(ii)
0.05 = K [0.1]m [0.1]n …(iii)
Solving these equations,
M(order w.r.t. A) = 1 and n (order w.r.t. B) = 0
Thus, rate = K [A]1 [B]0
or 0.05 = K [0.1]1
or K = 0.5 sec–1

NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -22
14. A
Sol. According to Arrhenius equation
K = A.e− Ea / RT
15. A
Sol. AgCl is a Insoluble salt, Hence it doesn’t dissociate to give Ag+ions . While all others are soluble salts of Ag.
Hence they will form ppt of Ag2S with H2S gas.
16. B
Sol. According to the relation given,
1.25 104
ln K = 14.34 − …(1)
T
E
And the Arrhenius equation is ln K = ln A − a …(2)
RT
By comparing eq. (1) and (2),
Ea
= 1.25 104 cal mol–1
R
 Ea = 1.25 104 1.987 cal mol–1 = 24.83 kcal mol–1
17. C
18. C
Sol. → Na3  Ag ( S2O3 )2  + NaCl
AgCl + 2 Na2 S2O3 ⎯⎯
sodium argento thiosulphate
( Colourless solution )
19. A
Sol. In which ng = 0
20. C
Sol. Initial pH or pOH = 7,  [OH–] = 10–2 M
10−2
Increase in [OH–] = = 105 times
10−7
PART – C
1. 6
Sol. CH3CH2OH , CH3CH(OH)CH3 , CH3CHO , CH3COCH3 ,CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3, CH3CH2COCH3 will give a
positive haloform test.
2. 3
Sol. Alcohols give a positive CAN test.
3. 3
Sol. 2eq. of NaNH2 are used for dehydrohalogenation (2 times) and another 1-eq. is used for pulling the acidic
terminal proton.
4. 9
Sol. ∆E =Nhυ
N = 2.5 × 1018 photons

5. 3
Sol. Number of nodal planes  ℓ = 3
PART - A
−2  x + 1  2 x − 1  −2 or x − 1  2
Sol1.
−3  x  1 x  −1 or x  3
A
-3 1
B
-1 3
A B
-3 -1

NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -23
A B
-1 3
A-B
-1 1
B-A
-3 3
2b  0 b
Sol2. D = 0  b 2 = 15a,  = =
2a a
b 15
= 2
=
15
b
b
 +  = 2b  2 +  2 = 4b2 − 42
 = 21
a ( x −  ) = a ( x2 − 2 x +  2 ) = ax − 2bx + 15
2
 −2a = −2b & a 2 = 15

 a = b & a 2 = 15 a, b,
(i) (ii)
( ii )   = 15
 +  = 2b (iii)
(i ) 6
 = 21 (iv)
30
 2 +  2 = 4b2 − 42  + =

30
= −

 = 21
 30 
   −   = 21  30 −  2 = 21   2 = 9
  
 =3  = −3
 =7  = −7
 2 +  2 = 9 + 49 = 58
z  Z2
Sol3. z1 = iz2 , arg  1  =
 z2 
zz  Q
 z1 = − z2 , arg  1 22 =
 z  −

 2 
2
 arg ( z1 z2 ) = 

20 − =
2 Z1
3
=
4
 
− =
2 4


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -24
−k 3 −14
Sol4.  = −15 4 −k
−4 1 3
= ( −k )(12 + k ) + 3( 4k + 45) − 14 ( −15 + 16 )
= −12k − k 2 + 12k + 135 − 14 = 121 − k 2
 = 0  k = 11
For k = -11,
 11x + 3 y − 14 z = 25
−15 x + 4 y + 11z = 3
−4 x + y + 3z = 4
−11x + 3 y − 14 z = 25
 
 −15 x + 4 y − 11z = 3  → No solution for k = 11
 −4 x + y + 3z = 4 
 
(11, 3, − 14) = ( −15, 4,11) + m ( −4,1, 3)
sin 2 x ( sin 2 x − 3sin x + 2 )
( )
Sol5. lim

x→
2 cos2 x  2sin 2 x + 3sin x + 4 + sin 2 x + 6sin x + 2
 
3 3
1 ( sin x − 1)( sin x − 2 ) 1 −1 1
= lim  = ( −1)  =
x → 9 (1 − sin x )(1 + sin x )
 6 2 12
2
1
Sol6. x=
2
y =1 (1, 1)
 y2 + 3 y2 + 1 
y=2   −  dy
y =0 
4 2 
1 1 (3/4, 0)
1  y3   y3 
=  + 3y  −  + y 
2 3 0  3 0 1
x=
1  10  4 1 2
=  − =
2 3  3 3
  x 501 
( 5 + x )  1 − 
500
 
  5 + x  
Sol7. S=
x
1−
5+ x
x501
(5 + x ) −
500
5 + x = (5 + x ) − x
501 501
=
5 5
(5 + x )
501
C101 5400
Coefficient of x →
101
Sol8. 1  30 + 2  31 + 3  32 + .... + 10.39


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -25
10
=  n ( 3)
n −1
n =1
10 1  ( x11 − 1)
 xn = 1 + x + x2 + .... + x10 =
n =0 x −1
10 ( x − 1) 11x − ( x
10 11
− 1)  1
 nx n −1
=
( x − 1)
2
n =0
22  310 − ( 311 − 1)
For n = 3, S =
4
3 ( 22 − 3) + 1 19.310 + 1
10
= =
4 4
Sol9. ( x + 3 y − z − 5) +  ( 2x − y + z − 3) = 0
 (1 + 2 ) x + ( 3 −  ) y + (  − 1) z − 5 − 3 = 0
Point ( 2,1, −2)  (1 + 2 ) ( 2) + ( 3 −  )(1) + (  − 1)( −2 ) − 5 − 3 = 0
 2 + 4 + 3 −  − 2 + 2 − 5 − 3 = 0
−2 + 2 = 0   = 1
P : 3x + 2 y + 0.z = 8
X (1, − 2, 4 )
Y ( 5, −1, 2 )
X + Y = ( 6, − 3, 6 )
Y − X = ( 4,1, − 2)
h + k1
Sol10. h = r and =r
2
(h + k )
2
= h 2  h 2 = k 2 + 2hk x+y=0
2
(h, k)
x2 − y2 = 2xy
x=0
Sol11. S =r 7
=x x + y 2 2
=  x x 2 + 25x 2
x
35
S =  26x2
ds dx
=  26  2 x  y=5x
dt dt
 
ds
  →x=2
 dt  y =10
 dx 
=  26 ( 4 )  
 dt 
1
=  26 ( 4 ) 
6

NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -26
dv
=1
dt
d
  x2  5x = 1
dt
dx
5 .3x 2 =1
dt
 dx  1 1
 = =
 
dt 15  ( )
4 60
 /2
cos 2 nx
Sol12. bn = 
0
sin x
dx
 /2
1 + cos 2nx
= 
0
2sin x
dx
 /2
cos ( 2nx ) − cos ( 2 ( n − 1) x )
bn − bn −1 = 0
2sin x
dx
 /2
2sin ( 2n − 1) x  sin ( − x )
= 
0
2sin x
dx
 /2
=  − sin ( ( 2n − 1) x ) dx
0
 /2
cos ( 2n − 1) x  1 −1
=  = 0 − 1 =
( 2n − 1)  0 2n − 1 2n − 1
1
bn −1 − bn =
2n − 1
1 1
b1 − b2 = ( A) − ,....
3 5
1
b2 − b3 = ( B ) − 5, − 7, − 9,.....
3
1
b3 − b4 = (C)
7
dy
Sol13. 2 x 2 − 2 xy + 3 y 2 = 0
dx
2
dy y 3  y 
= −  
dx x 2  x 
Put y = vx
dy dv
=v+x
dx dx
dv 3
v + x = v − v2
dx 2
dv 3 2
x + v =0
dx 2
dv 3 dx
 2 + =0
v 2 x


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -27
1 3
− + n x =C
v 2
x 3
− + n x =C
y 2
 e
Point  e,

 3
−e 3
 + ne = C
e 2
 
3
3 −3
C = −3=
2 2
3 −x 3
nx + =0
2 y 2
2
x =1 y =
3
dx
Sol14. = 12 (1 + cos 2t )
dt
dy
= 24 (1 + sin t ) cos t
dt
dy 2 (1 + sin t ) cos t
= = 3
dx 2cos2 t
1 + sin t
= 3
cos t
1 3 1
 = cos t − sin t
2 2 2
1  
 = cos  t + 
2  6

0t 
2
 
x0 = 12  + .... 
 3 
2
 1 9
y0 = 12 1 +  = 12  = 27
 2 4
Sol15. 2sin12 − sin 72

0 0
= sin120 − ( sin 720 − sin120 )

= sin120 − 2cos 420 sin 300
= sin120 − cos 420
= sin120 − sin 480
= 2cos300 ( − sin180 )
= − 3sin180
 5 −1
= − 3  
 4 

NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -28
Sol16. x + y + z = 48
x, y, z 2, 4, 8,16, 32, 32
3
1
16 + 16 + 16 → P1 =  
 16 
2
1  1  3!
32 + 8 + 8 → + P2 =    
32  8  2!
1 3 1+ 6 7
P = 12 + 11 = 12 = 12
2 2 2 2
Sol17. ~ (( ~ ( ~ q )  p ))  (( ~ p )  q )
= − ( ( q ~ p )  ( ~ p  q ) )
= p ~ q
~ ( p → q)
= ~ ( ~ p  q ) = p ~ q
Sol18. y = x − x2
p (t, t − t 2 )
T( p ) : y + t − t 2
= x + t − 2x  t
 y = (1 − 2t ) x + t 2
y = kx + 4, k  0
 1 − 2t = k , t 2 = 4, t = 2
 y = 5x + 4
 1 
 2 −1 
Sol19. tan −1  
 1 
 
 2 
(
= tan −1 1 − 2 )
= tan −1 ( 2 − 1)
= −
tan  = 2 − 1
tan 2 =
( 2 − 1)
2
1 − ( 2 − 1)
2
2 ( 2 − 1)
=
2 (2 − 2 )
2 ( 2 − 1)
=
2 ( 2 − 1)
tan 2 = 1

NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -29

=
8
x2 y 2
Sol20. + =1
4 2
lim PQ is y = x + 1
x 2 ( x + 1)
2
+ =1
4 2
x 2 + 2 ( x + 1) = 4
2
 3x 2 + 4 x − 2 = 0
2
 4  2  16 8 40
 ( x1 − x2 ) =  −  − 4  −  = + =
2
 3  3 9 3 9
y = x +1
y1 − y2 = x1 − x2
80 PQ 80
PQ2 =  =r=
9 2 6
4 5
 ( 3r ) = 2 5 = 20 ( )
2
r=
2
6
PART – C
2 −2  −1 2   −1 2 
A= B2 = 
−1  
Sol1.
1  −1 2   −1 2 
 −1 2  −1 2 
B= = =B
 −1 2   −1 2 
 2 −2   2 −2 
A2 ==     ....B3 = B 2 = B  B n = B
1 −1 1 −1
 2 −2 
= =A
1 −1
 ... = A3 = A2 = A  An = A
nAn + mB m = I  nA + mB = I
 2n −2n   −m 2m  1 0
 n − n  +  − m 2m  =  0 1 
     
 2n − m = 1 n−m=0  n = m =1
−2n + 2m = 0 −n + 2m = 1
1 1 1 
b
Sol2. 3 3  x2 − 4 + x2 − 1  dx
1  1 x − 2 1 x −1
6
=  n − n
3  4 x + 2 2 x + 1  3
   b −1 
1  (b − 2) / b + 2  1  b + 1 
= n  − n 2 
12  1  6  
 5   4 


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -30
 1 1


= n
 5 ( b − 2 )  ( )
12  2 b − 1  6

 /  
 b + 2   b + 1  
 
1
 49 12
= n 
 40 
5(b − 2) 4 ( b − 1)
2
49
=
b+2 ( b + 1)
2
40
( b − 2 )( b + 1) 5 49
2
  =
( b + 2 )( b − 1) 4 40
2
( b − 2 )( b + 1) = 49
2

( b + 2 )( b − 1) 50
2
( b + 1) = 49b + 98
2
( b − 1) 50b − 100
2
4b −b + 198
=
2 ( b + 1) 99b − 2
2
 b3 − 3b − 198 = 0
b=6
iˆ ˆj kˆ
Sol3. a  b = a1 a2 a3
1 1 
= (  a2 − a3 , a3 − a1 , a1 − a2 )
= (13, − 1, − 4 )
a  b = −21
 a1 + a2 + a3 = −21
13 + a3 a3 + 1
 a2 − a3 = 13   = =
a2 a1
12
a3 − a1 = −1 =
a2 − a1
12
a1 − a2 = −4 a2 − a1 = =4

a1 + a2 + 3a3 = −21
3a2 − a3 = 13
a3 − 3a1 = −1 → 3( a2 − a1 ) = 12  = 3
a1 − a2 = −4
a1 + a2 + 3( 3a2 − 13) = −21
 a1 + 10a2 = 18
a1 − a2 = −4
( −)  11a2 = 22
a2 = 2  a1 = −2
a3 = 3a2 − 13 = −7

NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -31
a = ( −2, 2, − 7 )
b = (1,1, 3)
b − a = ( 3, − 1,10 )
b + a = ( −1, 3, − 4 )
(b − a )  ( kˆ − ˆj ) + (b + a )  (iˆ − kˆ )
= 10 − ( −1) + ( −1) − ( −4)
= 11 + 3 = 14
Sol4. a1, 2, 3,...,9

b0,1, 2,...,9
9  9 = 81
81 + 81 + 81 = 243
Sol5. f ( x ) = ( x − 1)( x + 1)( x − 3) + x − 3

- + - +
-1 1 3
For x   −1,1  3,  )
y = x2 ( x − 3)
dy
= 2 x ( x − 3) + x 2 = 3 x 2 − 6 x = 3 x ( x − 2 )
dx
0 2
3
(1,-2)
(-1,-4) Max.
For x  ( −, − 1)  (1, 3)
y = ( x − 3) ( 2 − x 2 )
-1 ⊥
3
2
− 2
= ( 2 − x 2 ) + ( x − 3)  ( −2 x )
dy
dx
= 2 − x2 − 2 x2 + 6 x
= −3x 2 + 6 x − 2
−6  36 + 24 −6  2 15
−3x2 + 6 x + 2 = 0  x = = = 1  15 / 3
−6 −6
x=0
(3,0)
(1,-2)
(-1,-4) (4,..)
Number of max = 2
Number of min = 1


NJEETS-2024- FT - 14 -PCM -32


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FIITJEE - NJEETS

(JEE MAIN TEST SERIES - 2024)

B. Filling of OMR Sheet:

C. Marking Scheme for All Two Parts:

Name of the Candidate :_______________________________________________

Batch :_______________________ Date of Examination :____________________

Enrolment Number :___________________________________________________

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Useful Data Chemistry:

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Q1. The dimension of mutual inductance is :

(A) Figure - a x1 (B) Figure - b

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Q11. The equivalent resistance between points A and 5

Q15. Which is the correct ascending order of wavelengths ?

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space for rough work

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1. The synthesis of alkyl fluorides is best accomplished by

3. Ethanol is converted into ethoxy ethane

4. Number of sp2 hybrid orbitals in Benzene is:

5. Determine the de-Broglie wavelength of electron in 4th Bohr's orbit of H-atom?

6. Which of the following species have one unpaired electron each?

7. Following Vander Waal forces are present in ethyl acetate liquid

8. Amongst the following which is not a postulate of Dalton's atomic theory

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13. Find the rate constant from the given data:

17. For an exothermic chemical process occurring in two steps as follows

R.C.(reaction coordinate) R.C.

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18. Silver chloride is dissolved in hypo solution to form a complex.

(C) Na3  Ag ( S 2O3 )2  (D) Na3  Ag ( S 2O3 )4 

1. How many of the following wil give a positive haloform test?

3. Consider the following reaction

5. Number of nodal planes for f-orbital are………..

space for rough work

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Section – III (Mathematics)

Q4. The system of equations

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Q7. The coefficient of x101 in the expression

Q8. The sum 1 + 2 . 3 + 3 . 32 + .... + 10 . 39 is equal to :

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Q17. The negation of the Boolean expression (( ~ q)  p)  (( ~ p)  q) is logically equivalent to :

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(b − a ).(kˆ − ˆj ) + (b + a ).( ˆi − kˆ ) is equal to

space for rough work

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Section – III (Mathematics)

Batch :___ Date of Examination :