Njeets Full Test-12 (16-01-2024)

FIITJEE - NJEETS
(JEE MAIN TEST SERIES - 2024)

CLASS – XII & XII PASS
FULL TEST - 12
Q.P.CODE:00000.0
CONDUCTION DATE: 16-01-2024
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
▪ Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
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Important Instructions
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attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & C in the OMR. Part-B of OMR to be left unused
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided for rough
work.
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rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices ext. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall
/ room.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet:

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
4. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
C. Marking Scheme for All Two Parts:

(i) Part-A (01-20) – Contains Twenty (20) multiple choice objective questions which have four (4) options each and only
one correct option. Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and -1 mark will be
deducted for every incorrect answer.
(i) Part-C (01-05) contains Five (05) Numerical based questions with single digit integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9
(both inclusive). Each question carries +4 marks will be awarded for every correct answer and NO MARKS will be
deducted for every incorrect answer.
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NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -2
Useful Data Chemistry:

Gas Constant = 8.314 J K−1 mol−1
R
= 0.0821 Lit atm K−1 mol−1
= 1.987  2 Cal K−1 mol−1
Avogadro's Number Na = 6.023  1023
Planck’s Constant h = 6.626  10–34 Js
= 6.25 x 10-27 erg.s
1 Faraday = 96500 Coulomb
1 calorie = 4.2 Joule
1 amu = 1.66 x 10-27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
Atomic No : H=1, D=1, Li=3, Na=11, K=19, Rb=37, Cs=55, F=9, Ca=20, He=2, O=8,
Au=79.
Atomic Masses: He=4, Mg=24, C=12, O=16, N=14, P=31, Br=80, Cu=63.5, Fe=56,
Mn=55, Si = 28 Pb=207, u=197, Ag=108, F=19, H=2, Cl=35.5
Useful Data Physics:
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m / s


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -3
Section – I (Physics)
PART – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Q1. The SI unit of a physical quantity is pascal-second. The dimensional formula of this quantity will be :
(A) ML−1 T −1  (B) ML−1 T −2 
(C) ML2 T −1  (D) M−1 L3 T0 
Q2. The distance of the Sun from earth is 1.5  1011 m and its angular diameter is (2000) s when observed from
the earth. The diameter of the Sun will be :
(A) 2.45  1010 m (B) 1.45  1010 m
(C) 1.45  109 m (D) 0.14  109 m
Q3. When a ball is dropped into a lake from a height 4.9 m above the water level, it hits the water with a velocity
v and then sinks to the bottom with the constant velocity v. It reaches the bottom of the lake 4.0 s after it is
dropped. The approximate depth of the lake is :
(A) 19.6 m (B) 29.4 m
(C) 39.2 m (D) 73.5 m
Q4. One end of a massless spring of spring constant k and natural length 0 is fixed while the other end is
connected to a small object of mass m lying on a frictionless table. The spring remains horizontal on the
table. If the object is made to rotate at an angular velocity  about an axis passing through fixed end, then
the elongation of the spring will be :
k − m2 0 m2 0
(A) (B)
m2 k + m2
m 02
k + m2 0
(C) (D)
k − m2 m2
Q5. A stone tide to a string of length L is whirled in a vertical circle with the other end of the string at the centre.
At a certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed u. The magnitude of change in
its velocity, as it reaches a position where the string is horizontal, is ( )
x u2 − gL . The value of x is
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 1 (D) 5
Q6. Four spheres each of mass m form a square of side d (as shown in figure). A fifth sphere of mass M is
situated at the centre of square. The total gravitational potential energy of the system is :
m m
m d m
(A) −
Gm 
d 
( )
4 + 2 m + 4 2M

(B) −
Gm 
d 
(
4 + 2 M + 4 2m
 )
Gm  2 Gm  2
(C) − 3m + 4 2M (D) − 6m + 4 2M
d   d  

NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -4
Q7. For a perfect gas, two pressures P1 and P2 are shown in figure. The graph shows :
P2
Volume (V)
P1
O Temperature (T)
(A) P1  P2
(B) P1  P2
(C) P1 = P2
(D) Insufficient data to draw any conclusion
Q8. According to kinetic theory of gases,

A. The motion of the gas molecules freezes at 00C.
B. The mean free path of gas molecules decreases if the density of molecules is increased.
C. The mean free path of gas molecules increases if temperature is increased keeping pressure constant.
3
D. Average kinetic energy per molecules per degree of freedom is kB T (for monoatomic gases).
2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(A) A and C only (B) B and C only
(C) A and B only (D) C and D only
Q9. A lead bullet penetrates into a solid object and melts. Assuming that 40% of its kinetic energy is used to heat
it, the initial speed of bullet is :
(Given, initial temperature of the bullet = 1270C,
Melting point of the bullet = 3270C,
Latent heat of fusion of lead = 2.5  10 4 J kg−1 ,
Specific heat capacity of lead = 125 J/kg K)
(A) 125 ms −1 (B) 500 ms −1
(C) 250 ms −1 (D) 600 ms −1
 1
Q10. The equation of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by x = sin   t +  m . At t = 1s, the
 3
speed of particle will be
(Given :  = 3.14 )
(A) 0 cm s−1 (B) 157 cm s−1
(C) 272 cm s −1 (D) 314 cm s −1
Q11. If a charge q is placed at the centre of a closed hemispherical non-conducting surface, the total flux passing
through the flat surface would be :
q q
(A) (B)
0 2 0
q q
(C) (D)
4 0 2 0


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -5
Q12. Three identical charged balls each of charge 2 C are suspended from a common point P by silk threads of 2
m each (as shown in figure). They form an equilateral triangle of side 1 m. The ratio of net force on a
charged ball to the force between any two charged balls will be :
P
2m
2m 2m
B3
1m
1m
B1 B2
1m
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:4
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 3 : 1
Q13. Two long parallel conductors S1 and S2 are separated by a distance 10 cm and carrying currents of 4A and
2A respectively. The conductors are placed along x-axis in X-Y plane. There is a point P located between the
conductors (as shown in figure).
A charge particle of 3 coulomb is passing through the point P with velocity v = 2iˆ + 3ˆj m/s; where î and ĵ ( )
represents unit vector along x & y axis respectively.
(
The force acting on the charge particle is 4  10−5 −xiˆ + 2jˆ N . The value of x is : )
Y
S1 4A
4 cm
10 cm P
S2 2A
0 X
Z
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 3 (D) -3
Q14. If L, C and R are the self inductance, capacitance and resistance respectively, which of the following does
not have the dimension of time?
L
(A) RC (B)
R
L
(C) LC (D)
C


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -6
Q15. Given below are two statements :

Statement I : A time varying electric field is a source of changing magnetic field and vice-versa. Thus a
disturbance in electric or magnetic field creates EM waves.
1
Statement II : In a material medium, the EM wave travels with speed v = . In the light of the above
0 0
statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(A) Both statement I and statement II are true
(B) Both statement I and statement II are false
(C) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(D) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
Q16. A convex lens has power P. It is cut into two halves along its principal axis. Further one piece (out of the two
halves) is cut into two halves perpendicular to the principal axis (as shown in figures). Choose the incorrect
option for the reported pieces.
L2 L3
L1
P P
(A) Power of L1 = (B) Power of L2 =
2 2
P
(C) Power of L3 = (D) Power of L1 = P
2
Q17. If a wave gets refracted into a denser medium, then which of the following is true?
(A) wavelength, speed and frequency decreases.
(B) wavelength increases, speed decreases and frequency remains constant.
(C) wavelength and speed decreases but frequency remains constant.
(D) wavelength, speed and frequency increases.
Q18. A mass m is suspended from two springs of spring constants k 1 and k2 as shown . The time period of
vertical oscillations of the mass will be :
k1
k2
 k1 + k2   m   m ( k1k2 )   m ( k1 + k2 ) 
(A) 2   (B) 2   (C) 2   (D) 2  
 
 m   k1 + k2   ( k1 + k2 )   ( k1k2 ) 
Q19. A body is thrown up from the surface of earth with a velocity equal to 3/4 th of the escape velocity from the
surface of earth. The height attained by the body is
(A) 7R/9 (B) 8R/9 (C) 11R/17 (D) 9R/7


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -7
Q20. A 2 kg block moving with 10 m/s strikes a spring of constant  2 N/m

attached to 2 kg block at rest kept on a smooth floor. The time for which
rear moving block remain in contact with spring will be :
1 1
(A) 2 sec (B) sec (C) 1 sec (D) sec
2 2
PART – C
Integer Type
Q1. A mass of 10 kg is suspended vertically by a rope of length 5 m from the roof. A force of 30 N is applied at
the middle point of rope in horizontal direction. The angle made by upper half of the rope with vertical is
( )
 = tan−1 x  10−1 . The value of x is………..
(Given, g = 10 m / s2 )
Q2. A rolling wheel of 12 kg is on an inclined plane at position P and connected to a mass of 3 kg through a
string of fixed length and pulley as shown in figure.
Consider PR as friction free surface.
The velocity of centre of mass of the wheel when it reaches at the bottom Q of the inclined plane PQ will be
1
xgh m/s. The value of x is………
2
12 kg
P
3 kg
 
Q R
Q3. A particle executives simple harmonic motion. Its amplitude is 8 cm and time period is 6 s. The time it will
take to travel from its position of maximum displacement to the point corresponding to half of its amplitude,
is……… s.
Q4. In the given circuit 'a' is an arbitrary constant. The value of m for which the equivalent circuit resistance is
x
minimum, will be . The value of x is………
2
ma
a/m
ma
a/m
ma
Q5. A deuteron and a proton moving with equal kinetic energy enter into to a uniform magnetic field at right angle
r
to the field. If rd and rp are the radii of their circular paths respectively, then the ratio d will be x : 1 where x
rp
is……..
space for rough work


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -8
Section – II (Chemistry)
PART – A
1. A solution is 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Sr(NO3)2. If solid Na2CrO4 is added to the solution, what is [Ba+2]
when SrCrO4 begins to precipitate?  K sp ( BaCrO4 ) = 1.2 10−10 , K sp ( SrCrO4 ) = 3.5 10−5 
(A) 7.4 × 10–7 (B) 2 × 10–7
(C) 6.1 × 10–7 (D) 3.4 × 10–7
2. For the reaction

+ 2+ 3+
Cr ( H 2O )4 Cl2  ⎯⎯K1
→ Cr ( H 2O )5 Cl  ⎯⎯ K2
→ Cr ( H 2O )6 
aq ( aq ) ( aq )
+
K1 = 1.78 10−3 s −1 and 5.8 10−5 s −1 for the initial concentration of Cr ( H 2 O )4 Cl2  is 0.0174 mol L–1 at 0°C.
2+
Calculate the value of time at which the concentration of Cr ( H 2 O )5 Cl  is maximum.
(A) 1500 s (B) 5.8 × 10–5 s
(C) 1990 s (D) 500 s
3. Let  1 be the frequency of the series limit of the Lyman series,  2 be the frequency of the first line of the
Lyman series, and  3 be the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer series.
1
(A)  1 − 2 =  3 (B)  2 − 1 =  3 (1 − 3 ) (C)  2 =
(D) v1 + v2 = v3
2
4. An aqueous solution of 6.3 gram oxalic acid dihydrate is made upto 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH
required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution is
(A) 40 ml (B) 20 ml
(C) 10 ml (D) 4 ml
5. Which of the following molecules can exhibit optical activity?

(A) 1 - bromopropane (B) 2 – bromobutane (C) 3 - bromopentane (D) bromocyclohexane
6. 4-Formylbenzoic acid on treatment with one equivalent of hydrazine followed by heating with alcoholic KOH
gives the major product
O H
(B)
(A)

O OK
O NHNH 2
N NH 2
(C)
(D)

H2 N N OK
7. NH3 produces dark blue solution when reacts with CuSO 4 solution. If PH3 is used in place of NH3, then
(A) No reaction (B) Dark blue solution
(C) Light blue precipitate (D) Black precipitate


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -9
8. Which gas produces brown colourisation when passed in aq. solution of FeSO 4?
(A) NO (B) CO (C) NH3 (D) H2S
9. Phenol associates in benzene to certain extent in dimerisation reaction. A solution containing 0.02 kg of
phenol in 1.0 kg of benzene has its freezing point depressed 0.69 K. Hence, degree of association of phenol
(
dimerized will be: K f ( C H ) = 5.12 K kg mol −1
6 6
)
(A) 0.63 (B) 0.73 (C) 0.83 (D) 0.93
10. Consider the following reaction:

CH3
CH2 CH2 CH CH CH2
⎯⎯⎯⎯→
conc.H 2 SO4
The major product expected is:
(A) (B)
CH3
Et
CH3 H3C
(C) CH3 (D)

CH3
CH3
11. Find out the major product of the following reaction:

O
HN
+ −
⎯⎯⎯⎯
NO2 BF4
→
O O
HN HN
(A) (B)
NO2 O 2N
O
HN O
HN
(C) (D) O 2N
NO2
12. The strongest bronsted base among the following is: ( Ka : HClO4  HClO3  HClO2  HClO)
(A) ClO– (B) ClO2– (C) ClO3– (D) ClO4–


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -10
13. The decomposition of azo methane, at certain temperature according to the equation
( CH 3 )2 N 2 → C2 H 6 + N 2 is a first order reaction.
After 40 minutes from the start, the total pressure developed is found to be 350 mm Hg in place of initial
pressure 200 mm Hg of azo methane. The value of rate constant k is
−4 −1 −4 −1
(A) 2.88 10 sec (B) 1.25  10 sec
−4 −1
(C) 5.77 10 sec (D) None of these
14. Compare the bond lengths ‘a’ and ‘b’

O
H3C C O CH3
a b
(A) a = b (B) b > a (C) b < a (D) impossible predict
15. Rank the following in decreasing order of their acidic strengths
O N N
OH H3C H
H H
(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) A > C > B > D (B) A > D > B > C (C) A > D > C > B (D) D > A > C > B
16. Correct order of basic strength of given amines is:

(A) Me2NH > MeNH2 > Me3N > NH3 in protic solvent
(B) Et2NH > Et3N > EtNH2 > NH3 in protic solvent
(C) Me3N > Me2NH > MeNH2 >NH3 in gas phase
(D) All are correct
17. Which one of the following would be most stable?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18. How many stereoisomers of the following molecule are possible?

HOOC.CH = C = CH.COOH
(A) two optical isomers (B) two geometrical isomers
(C) two optical and two geometrical isomers (D) None of these
19. Correct order of stability of the following carbocation is

CH2 CH2 CH2
CH2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
CH3
CD3
CH3 CD3 H
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) I > II > IV > III (C) II > I > IV > III (D) I > IV > II > III


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -11
20. C5 H12 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯

light
→C5 H11Cl ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Na / ether
→C
Only one structure of BB is possible, A,B and C are
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(A) H3C C CH3 H3C C CH2Cl H3C C CH2CH2 C CH3

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
(B) H3C CH CH2CH3 H3C C CH2CH3 CH3 CH2 C C CH2CH3

Cl CH3 CH3
(C) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(D) None of the above
PART – C
Numerical Based Type
1. The gaseous reaction, A ( g ) + nB ( g ) mC ( g ) is represented by following curves:
12
[B]
10

Conc 8 [A]
. 6
[C]
0 Time →
What is the value of n + m?
x− y
2. Consider the structure of Al2Me6 compound and find the value of .
z
Where x = maximum number of atoms that can lie in plane having terminal (Al–Me) bonds
y = Total number of 3c–2e– bonds
z = total number of atoms that are sp3 hybridized
3. Calculate pH of a buffer solution that contains 0.1 M NH4OH (Kb = 10–5) and 0.1 M NH4Cl
4 Equivalence conductance at infinite dilute of NH4Cl,NaOH and NaCl are 129.8, 217.4 and 108.9-1 cm2 mol-
1,respectively. If the equivalent conductance of 0.01 N solution of NH4OH is 9.532 -1 cm2 mol-1, then the
percentage (%) dissociation of NH4OH at this temperature is
5. The normal boiling point of water increases by 4.16C, if two moles of a salt is added to one Kg water. What
is the Van’t Hoff factor of the salt? [Kb of water =0.52 K kg mol-1]


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -12
Section – III (Mathematics)

PART – A
x −1
Q1. Let f ( x ) =
x +1
( )
, x  R − 0, − 1, 1 . If f n +1 ( x ) = f f n ( x ) for all n N , then f 6 ( 6) + f 7 (7) is equal to :
7 3
(A) (B) −
6 2
7 11
(C) (D) −
12 12
 z +1 
Q2. Let A = z  C :  1
 z −1 
  z − 1  2 
and B = z  C : arg  = .
  z + 1 3 
Then A  B is :
 1 
(A) a portion of a circle centered at  0, −  that lies in the second and third quadrants
 3
only
 1 
(B) a portion of a circle centered at  0, −  that lies in the second quadrant only
 3
(C) an empty set
2
(D) a portion of a circle of radius that lies in the third quadrant only
3
Let A be a 3 x 3 invertible matrix. If adj ( 24A ) = adj ( 3adj ( 2A ) ) , then A is equal to :

2
Q3.
(A) 6 6 (B) 212
(C) 26 (D) 1
Q4. The ordered pair (a, b) , for which the system of linear equations
3x − 2y + z = b
5x − 8y + 9z = 3
2x + y + az = −1
has no solution, is :
 1  1
(A)  3,  (B)  −3, 
 3  3 
 1  1
(C)  −3, −  (D)  3, − 
 3   3 
The remainder when ( 2021)

2023
Q5. is divided by 7 is :
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 5 (D) 6


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -13
Q6. lim
(
sin cos−1 x − x ) is equal to :
x→
1
2
1 − tan cos−1 x ( )
(A) 2 (B) − 2
1 1
(C) (D) −
2 2
− x + 3 , x  0 
 x + k1x , x  0
2
Q7. Let f,g : R → R be two real valued functions defined as f ( x ) =  and g ( x ) =  ,
 e
x
,x0  4x + k 2 , x  0

where k1 and k2 are real constants. If ( gof ) is differentiable at x = 0 , then ( gof )( −4) + ( gof )( 4) is equal to :
(A) 4 e 4 + 1 ( ) (
(B) 2 2e 4 + 1 )
(C) 4e4 (D) 2 ( 2e 4
− 1)
Q8. The sum of the absolute minimum and the absolute maximum values of the function f ( x ) = 3x − x 2 + 2 − x in
the interval −1, 2 is :
17 + 3 17 + 5
(A) (B)
2 2
9 − 17
(C) 5 (D)
2
x y
Q9. Let S be the set of all the natural numbers, for which the line + = 2 is a tangent to the curve
a b
n n
x y
 a  +  b  = 2 at the point (a, b), ab  0 . Then :
   
(A) S =  (B) n (S) = 1
(C) S = 2k : k  N (D) S = N
Q10. The area bounded by the curve y = x2 − 9 and the line y = 3 is :
(
(A) 4 2 3 + 6 − 4 ) (
(B) 4 4 3 + 6 − 4 )
(C) 8 ( 4 3 +3 6 −9 ) (D) 8 ( 4 3+ 6 − 9)
Q11. Let R be the point ( 3, 7 ) and let P and Q be two points on the line x + y = 5 such that PQR is an equilateral
triangle. Then the area of PQR is :
25 25 3
(A) (B)
4 3 2
25 25
(C) (D)
3 2 3
Q12. Let C be a circle passing through the points A ( 2, −1) and B ( 3, 4) . The line segment AB is not a diameter of
13
C. If r is the radius of C and its centre lies on the circle ( x − 5 ) + ( y − 1) =
2 2
, then r 2 is equal to :
2
65
(A) 32 (B)
2
61
(C) (D) 30
2


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -14
Q13. Let the normal at the point P on the parabola y 2 = 6x pass through the point (5, − 8) . If the tangent at P to
the parabola intersects its directrix at the point Q, then the ordinate of the point Q is :
9
(A) −3 (B) −
4
5
(C) − (D) −2
2
x − 2 y +1 x − 1 2y + 3 z + 5
Q14. If the two lines : = , z = 2 and 2 : = = are perpendicular, then an angle
−2 
1
3 1 2
1 − x 2y − 1 z
between the lines 2 and 3: = = is :
3 −4 4
 29   29 
(A) cos−1   (B) sec −1  
 4   4 
 2   2 
(C) cos−1   (D) cos−1  
 29   29 
Q15. Let the plane 2x + 3y + z + 20 = 0 be rotated through a right angle about its line of intersection with the plane
 1 
x − 3y + 5z = 8 . If the mirror image of the point  2, − ,2  in the rotated plane in B (a, b, c ) , then :
 2 
a b c a b c
(A) = = (B) = =
8 5 −4 4 5 −2
a b c a b c
(C) = = (D) = =
8 −5 4 4 5 2
Q16. If a . b = 1, b . c = 2 c . a = 3 , then the value of
( ) (
a  b  c , b  ( c  a ) , c  b  a  is :
  )
(A) 0 (B) −6 a . b  c( )
(
(C) 12 c . a  b ) (D) −12 b . ( c  a )
Q17. Let a biased coin be tossed 5 times. If the probability of getting 4 heads is equal to the probability of getting 5
heads, then the probability of getting atmost two heads is :
275 36
(A) 5 (B) 4
6 5
181 46
(C) 5 (D) 4
5 6
Q18. The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and their variance is 6.8. If M is the mean deviation of the
numbers about the mean, then 25 M is equal to :
(A) 60 (B) 55
(C) 50 (D) 45
Q19. Let f ( x ) = 2cos−1 x + 4cot −1 x − 3x2 − 2x + 10, x  −1, 1 . If a, b is the range of the function f, then 4a − b is
equal to :
(A) 11 (B) 11− 
(C) 11+  (D) 15 − 
Q20. Let ,  ,  be such that pq  ( (pq) r ) is a tautology. Then (pq)  r is logically equivalent to :
(A) (p r )  q (B) (p r )  q
(C) (p  r ) q (D) (p r )  q


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -15
PART – C
Integer Type

Q1. The sum of the cubes of all the roots of the equation x4 − 3x3 − 2x2 + 3x + 1 = 0 is  , then is…..
9
Q2. ( )
Let the common tangents to the curves 4 x 2 + y 2 = 9 and y 2 = 4x intersect at the point Q. Let an ellipse,
centered at the origin O, has lengths of semi-minor and semi-major axes equal to OQ and 6, respectively. If
e and respectively denote the eccentricity and the length of the latus rectum of this ellipse, then is equal
e2
to……..
 f ( x ) dx
Q3. Let f ( x ) = max  x + 1, x + 2 ,...., x + 5  . Then −6
is equal to……
7
Q4. Let the solution curve y = y ( x ) of the differential equation ( 4 + x ) dy − 2x ( x

2 2
)
+ 3y + 4 dx = 0 pass through
y ( 2)
the origin. They is equal to……….
2

48  3x 2  sin x
4 
Q5. The value of the integral − x3  dx is equal to…………
 0 2  1 + cos x
2


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -16
FIITJEE - NJEETS
(JEE MAIN TEST SERIES - 2024)
CLASS – XII & XII PASS
FULL TEST - 12
Q.P.CODE: 00000.0
CONDUCTION DATE: 16-01-2024
ANSWERS
PART - A
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. C
5. B 6. A 7. A 8. B
9. B 10. B 11. B 12. D
13. C 14. D 15. C 16. A
17. C 18. D 19. D 20. C
PART – C
1. 3 2. 3 3. 1 4. 3
5. 2
PART - A
1. D 2. C 3. A 4. A
5. B 6. B 7. D 8. A
9. B 10. B 11. C 12. A
13. C 14. B 15. C 16. D
17. C 18. A 19. B 20. A
PART – C
1. 5 2. A 3. 9 4. 4
5. 4
PART - A
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. C
5. C 6. D 7. D 8. A
9. D 10. D 11. D 12. B
13. B 14. B 15. A 16. A
17. D 18. A 19. B 20. A
PART – C
1. 4 2. 4 3. 3 4. 6
5. 6


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -17
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

PART - A
N
Sol1. S.I unit Pascal - second = 2 − sec
m
MLT −2 T
=
L2
= ML−1 T−1

Sol2. 1 → 60 ' D Sun

 60' → 10

C
60 ' →
180 L

C
3600" →
180
 Earth
1" →  3600
180
  2000
C
2000 " →
180  3600
  2  103
=
180  3600
L = 1.5  1011m

D = L  = 1.5  1011   2  103
180  3600
= 1.45  109 m
Sol3. Total time (T) = 4sec u = 0 m/sec
Given u = 0 m/sec
a = g = 9.8 m/sec2 4.9m
h = 4.9 m, t = ?
1
 h = ut + a t 2 Lake
2 h
1
4.9 = 0.t +  9.8 t 2
2
t = 1sec 
‘v’ be the velocity with which ball hits u=0
the water v = u + at
4.9m
= 0 + 9.8  1 = 9.8m / sec
Time taken to reach the bottom of the
lake from surface of the lake
= 4 − 1 = 3sec
v h
v = 9.8m / sec
1 1
H = ut + gt 2 = 9.8  3 +  9.8  9
2 2
29.4 + 4.9  9
= 29.4 + 44.1
H = 73.5m


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -18
Sol4. F.B.D, with respect

k
To Non- Inertial frame m
 kx = m 2 ( 0 + x )
 x | k − m2 ( 0 + x)
0
m 2
x= 0
k − m 2
m m2 ( 0 + x)
kx
Sol5. Conservation of Energy b/w (1) & (2) v

1 1
mv 2 + mg = mu2 2
2 2
v = u − 2g 2
v = v ˆj − u î
1 u
v = u2 − 2g ˆj − uiˆ
( )
2
(u)
2
v = + u2 − 2g
= u2 + u2 − 2g
(
= 2 u2 − g )
x=2
Sol6. Amount of work done to bring mass from infinity to point (4) m d
(1) u1 = 0 m (3)
− Gm
Similarly, to bring mass (2) u2 = m M
d d d
Gm  m m  (5)
u3 = − +
d  1 
2 (1) m m(2)
− Gm  m d
u4 =  2m + 
d  2
− Gm 
u5 = 4 2 M
d  
UT = u1 + u2 + u3 + u4 + u5
UT =
− Gm 
d 
(
4 + 2 m + 4 2 M
 )
Sol7. At constant Temp
1
P P2
v V P1
v 2  v1 v2
 P1  P2
v1
1
Sol8. x (mean free path) =
2  d2 nv


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -19
nNA
nv = , ,n → No. of moles in volume v NA → Avogadro’s Number
v
n P
=
v RT
1
xv & x T at constant P)
 (density
  x  | x  T 
The motion of the gas molecules freezes at 0K not 0 C
1
Average kinetic Energy per molecule per degree of freedom is = k B T (for Mono atomic gases)
2
Sol9. 40% of k.E = mcT + mL

1
0.4   mv 2 = m 125 (327 − 127 ) + 2.5  104 
2
1
 0.4   mv 2 = m 125 ( 327 − 127 ) + 2.5  104 
2
 0.2v 2 = 125  200 + 25  10 3 
 0.2v 2 = 250  10 2 + 25  10 3 
2  25  103
v2 =
0.2
v = 5  100
v = 500m / sec
 1
Sol10. x = sin   t + 
 3 
dx   1 
v= = cos   t +   
dt   3 
 4 
v ( at t = 1sec ) = cos  
 3 
 
= cos   +   
 3

= − cos  (  )
3

= − = −1.57m / sec
2
Speed = 157 cm/sec
q
Sol11. f lot = (1 − cos  )
20
When, ‘q’ is at the centre of the flat q
surface then,  = 50.
f lat =
q
20
(
1 − cos90 ) q

q
=
20


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -20
k q2 q3 k  2 2 q3
Sol12. F23 = 2
= = 4k
d 12
F21 = 4k 1m 1m
F13 = 4k F21
Net force on q2 = FR = q1 1m q2 60
F212 + F132 + 2F21 F23 cos  F23
( 4k ) + ( 4k ) + 2  4k cos60 
2 2
=
= 16k2 + 16k2 + 16k2

= k 48 − (1)
Force b/w (1) & (2) F21 = 4k − ( 2)
FR k 48 4 3
= = = 3 :1
F21 4k 4
0 i i 
Sol13. BNet =
4
2 1 − 2 
 d1 d2 
( −kˆ )
4 2 
= 10−7  2   100 −  100 
4 6 
( − kˆ )
 1 
= 2  10−5 1 −  − kˆ
 3
4
BNet =  10−5 − kˆ
3
( )
q = 3 c
v = 2 î + 3jˆ
( )
F = q v B
= 3 ( 2 î  3ˆj )   10 ( −kˆ ) 
 4  −5
 3 
F = 4  10 ( −3i + 2 j ) N
ˆ−5 ˆ
x=3
Sol14. Dimension
RC → T
L
→ T
R
Lc → T
L
→ dimensionless
C
Sol15. Statement 1 is true

Speed of EM ware in vaccum is given by,
1
C=
0 0
Speed of EM wave in a material medium
1
v=
r 0 r 0
So, statement (2) is false.


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -21
Sol16. R1 = R
R2 = −R
1  1 1 
P= = (  − 1)  − 
f  R 1 R2 
 
1  1  −1 
P = = (  − 1)  −   
f  R  R 
(  − 1) 2
P=
R
L2
R1 = R
R2 = 
1 1 1
Power of L 2 = = (  − 1)  −  L2
f' R  
Power of L 2 = P
2
R1 = 
R 2 = −R
1  1  1  L3
Power of L3 = = (  − 1)  −  −  
f"    R 
 −1 P
Power of L3 = =
R 2
L1
R1 = R
R 2 = −R
1 1 1 
Power of L1 = = (  − 1)  −  L1
f"  R 1 R2 
(  − 1)  2
Power of L1 = =P
R
Sol17. 2  1
2
1
1
1
c c
2 = , 1 = 2
v2 v1
 2 v1
=  1  v1  v 2
1 v 2
→ Frequency remains constant while

refraction since energy is constant
E = h
v
=

v
1   2
 → decreases


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -22
wavelength and speed decreases

but frequency remains constant
1 1 1 m
Sol18. = + & T = 2
Keq K1 K 2 Keq
GMm 1  9 2GM  GMm
Sol19. − + m =−
R 2  16 R  R+h
Sol20. C
PART – C
Sol1. F.B.D of point ‘P’

Tsin  = 30 - (1)

Tcos  = 100 - (2)
(1)  (2) 30 N P
tan  =
3
10
  = tan−1 3  10−1 ( )
10 kg

T Tcos
30 N
Tsin 100 N
Sol2. By conservation of Energy

1
mgh = IP 2
2
1
(
3gh = MR2 + MR2 2
2
)
3gh = MR22
3gh = mv 2
3gh
v2 =
12
gh x gh
v= =
2 2
Sol3. A = 8cm
A initial
T = 6sec at ‘ t ’
B
 = 60 from A to B 60
During reaching the point of its maximum
amplitude from point (A)
C
 = 60 =
3
 = t
 2
= t
3 T
 2
= t
3 6
t = 1 sec


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -23
ma a ma
Sol4. Req = + a/m
3 2m ma
ma a
R= + ma
3 2m a/m
dR a a 2
=0  − m =0
dm 3 2
3 v
m2 =  m= 3 = x
2 2 2
Sol5. rd = (Radius of deutron)

md v d
=
qd B
2md k E
=
qd B
2mP k  E
rp =
qP B
rd md qP
= 
rP mp qd
2mP qP
=  qP = qd = 1.6  10C−19 
mP qd  
= 2 :1
PART - A
1. D
Ksp ( BaCrO4 ) 1.2 10−10
CrO42 −  to just start ppt. of BaCrO4 = +2
= = 12 10−10
[Ba ] 0.1
K sp ( SrCrO4 ) 3.5 10−5
CrO42−  to just start ppt. of SrCrO4 = = = 35 10−5
[Sr +2 ] 0.1
 Ba+2 will ppt. first
  Ba +2  =
K sp BaCrO4( =
)
1.2 10−10
= 0.034  10−5 = 3.4  10−7
2−
[CrO4 ] 35 10−5
2. C
Sol. The time required for two consecutive reactions to react its maximum activity or concentration is given by
t = 2.303
( log K1 − log K2 )
= 2.303
( log1.78 10−3 − log 5.8 10−5 )
= 1990 s
K1 − K 2 (1.18 10−3 ) − (5.8 10−5 )
3. A
Sol.


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -24
n=
1 3
n=2
2
n=1
1 – 2 = 3
4. A
Sol. meq of oxalic acid = meq of NaOH (NV)
6.3 1000
 10 = 0.1V
63 250
V = 40 ml
5. B
6. B
Sol. Wolf Kishner Reduction
7. D
Sol. 3CuSO4 + 2PH 3 ⎯⎯
→ Cu3 P2 + 3H 2 SO4
( black ppt.)
8. A
Sol. FeSO4 produces brown colouration when reacts with NO due to the formation of brown complex
 Fe ( H 2O )5 NO  SO4
9. B
Sol. Tf = k f .m.i  i = 0.633 i.e. 0.69 = 5.12  0.02  103  i  i = 0.633'

i =1−  +   = 0.73
2
10. B
Sol.
CH2
CH2 +
+ H
H
CH CH3 CH3
H2C CH3
CH CH3
11. C
Sol. –NH– activates the LHS aromatic ring.
12. A
13. C
( CH 3 )2 N 2 ⎯⎯
→ C2 H 6 + N 2
Sol. t =0 200 mmHg 0 0 Pt = 200 + p
t = 40 200 − p p p 350 = 200 + p  p =150
( CH 3 )2 N 2   200 
log 
2.303 2.303
k= 0
= log  
t ( CH 3 ) N 2  t 40  60  50 
= 5.77 × 10–4 sec–1.
14. B
Sol.
O O
+
H3C C O CH3 H3C C O CH3
( Partial double bond character )
15. C
Sol. Acidic strength is determined by observing the stability of conjugate base.
16. D

NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -25
Sol. Gaseous phase : +I effect

Solvent phase : +I effect, ease of availability of L.P. for H+.
17. C
Sol. Since the two  bonds are in resonance as well as most hyperconjugated.
18. A
Sol. No any type of symmetry is present in the molecule making it optically active.
19. B
Sol. The respective carbocation gets stabilsed due to hyperconjugation effect as well as as inductive effect too
20. A
Sol. Only, one structure of B means B is neopentyl chloride. New (C–C) bond by Na/ether (Wurtz) reaction.
PART – C
1. 5
Sol.
A ( g ) + nB ( g ) mC ( g )
8− x = 6 12 − nx =8 mx = 6
 x=2
 m = 3 and n = 4/2 = 2
n+m=5
2. A
Sol. x = 10, y = 2, z = 8
x − y 10 − 2
 = =1
8 8
3. 9
0.1
Sol. pOH = 5 + log =5
0.1
pH = 9
4. 4
Sol. eq(NH4OH) = eq(NH4Cl) + eq(NaOH) − eq(NaCl)
129.8 + 217.4 − 108.9 = 238.3 ohm−1cm2mol−1
eq 9.532
Now,  = = = 0.04 = 4%
eq

238.3
5. 4
Sol. Tb = Kb  i  m
Or 4.16 = 0.52  i  2
Or i = 4

PART - A
x −1
−1
x −1
Sol1. f (x) =
x +1
(
 f f (x) = + 1 x
)
x −1
=−
1
x
+1
x +1
x −1
+1
+
 f 4 (x) = − x + 1
x 1
 f 3 (x) = − =x
x −1 x −1
−1
x +1
So, f 6 ( 6) + f 7 (7) = f 2 ( 6) + f 3 (7)
1 7 +1 9 3
=− − =− =−
6 7 −1 6 2


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -26
z +1 y
Sol2.  1  z + 1  z − 1  Re ( z )  0
z −1
 z − 1  2 O x
and arg  = is a part of circle as shown. -1 0 1
 z +1 3 60
 −1 
 i
 3 
Sol3. adj ( 24A ) = adj 3 adj ( 2A ) ( )

 24A = 3 adj ( 2A )
2 2
( ) ( ) adj ( 2A )
2 2 2 2
 243  A = 33
2 4
 246  A = 36 2A
( )
2 4 4
246 A = 36  23 A
2 246 218  36
 A = = 6 12 = 26
3 2
6 12
3 2
Sol4. System of equation can be written as

 3 −2 1   x   b 
    
 5 −8 9   y  =  3 
 2 1 a   z   −1
    
 3 −2 1   x   b 
    
  15 −24 27   y  =  9 
6 3 3a   z   −3 

R3 − 2R1, R2 − 5R1
 3 −2 1  x  b 
    
  0 −14 22   y  =  9 − 5b 
 0 7 3a − 2   z   −3 − 2b 
    
1
R3 + R2
2
 
 3 −2 1  x  b 
    
  0 −14 22   y  =  9 − 5b 
 0 0 3a + 9   z   3 9b 
    − 
2 2 
For no solution
3 9b
3a + 9 = 0 but − 0
2 2
1
 a = −3 b
3
Sol5. 2021  −2 mod (7)
 ( 2021)  ( −2) mod ( 7 ) ……….(i)
2023 2023
Now, ( −2)  −1mod ( 7 )

3
( −2)  ( −1) mod ( 7 )

3674 674


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -27
 ( −2)  1mod ( 7 )
2022
 ( −2)  ( −2) mod ( 7 )  5 mod ( 7 ) ………..(ii)

2023
(i) & (ii)

 ( 2021)  5 mod ( 7 )
2023
 Remainder = 5
Sol6. lim
(
sin cos−1 x − x )
x→
1
2
(
1 − tan cos−1 x )

let cos−1 x = +
4
   
sin  +   − cos  +  
= lim  4   4 
→ 0  
1 − tan  +  
4 
 
2 sin  +  − 
= lim  4 4 
→ 1 + tan 
1−
1 − tan 
2 sin  1
= lim (1− tan ) = −
→ −2tan  2
Sol7. gof is differentiable at x = 0

So R.H.D = L.H.D
d
dx
(
4ex + k 2 =
d
dx
)
2
((
− x + 3 − k1 x + 3 ) )
 4 = 6 − k1  k1 = 2
Also g f 0+ ( ( )) = g ( f (0 )) −
 4 + k 2 = 9 − 3k1  k 2 = −1
( ) ( )
Now g f ( −4 ) + g f ( 4 )
= g ( −1) + g ( e ) = (1 − k ) + ( 4e
4
1
4
+ k2 )
= 4e4 − 2
(
= 2 2e 4 − 1 )
Sol8. f ( x ) = x 2 − 3x − 2 − x
 3 − 17  3 + 17 
= x −  x−  − x
 2  2
  
 3 − 17 
 x 2 − 4x − 2 ; −1  x  
 f (x) =  2
2 
 − x + 2x + 2 ; 3 − 17 
 x2
 2 


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -28
y=3
y=2
O 2
-1 3 − 17
2
 3 − 17  −3 + 17
absolute minimum f 
  =
 2  2
absolute maximum = 3
−3 + 17 3 + 17
 sum 3 + =
2 2
n n
x y
Sol9. a +b = 2
   
n −1 n −1
nx n y dy
 + =0
a  a  b  b  dx
n −1
dy b  bx 
 =−  
dx a  ay 
dy b
=−
dx ( a,b ) a
so line always touches the given curve.
Sol10. y = x2 − 9 & y = 3
solving x2 − 9 = 3
x =  6,  2 3
-3 6 3 2 3


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -29
3+7−5 5 R (3, 7)
RM = =
Sol11. 2 2
5 2
sin600 =  =5
2 3
0
60
3 25 x+y = 5
PQR = 2
= Q M P
 Area of 4 2 3
Sol12. Equation of perpendicular bisector of AB is

3 1 5
y − = −  x −   x + 5y = 10
2 5 2
Solving it with equation of given circle,
2
 10 − x  13
( x − 5)
2
+ − 1 =
 5  2
2 1  13
 ( x − 5 ) 1 + = 2
 25 
5 5 15
 x − 5 =   x = or
2 2 2
But
5
x
2
because AB is not the diameter.
So, centre will be
 15 1 
 2 ,2
 
Now
2 2
 15  1  65
r2 =  − 2  +  + 1 =
 2   2  2
(
Sol13. Let P at 2 , 2 at where )
3
a=
2
T : yt = x + at 2 so point Q is
 a
 −a, at − t 
 
N : y = −tx + 2at + at 3 passes through (5, -8)
3 3
−8 = −5t + 3t + t
2
 3t3 − 4t + 16 = 0
(
 ( t + 2 ) 3t 2 − 6t + 8 = 0 )
 t = −2
9
So ordinate of point Q is −
4
Sol14. 1 and 2 are perpendicular, so

3  1 + ( −2)   + 0  2 = 0
2
a =3
Now angle between 2 and 3 ,

NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -30

1( −3 ) + ( −2) + 2 ( 4 )
cos  = 2
2
1+
+ 4  9 + 4 + 16
4
2
 4   29 
 cos  = 29   = cos−1   = sec −1  
2  29   4 
Sol15. Consider the equation of plane,
P : ( 2x + 3y + z + 20) +  ( x − 3y + 5z − 8) = 0
P : ( 2 +  ) x + (3 − 3 ) y + (1+ 5 ) z + (20 − 8 ) = 0
Plane P is perpendicular to 2x + 3y + z + 20 = 0
So, 4 + 2 + 9 − 9 + 1+ 5 = 0
0=7
P : 9x − 18y + 36z − 36 = 0
Or P : x − 2y + 4z = 4
If image of
 1 
 2, − 2 ,2 
 
In plane P is (a, b, c) then
1
b+
a−2 2 = c −2
=
1 −2 4
 1
a+2 b− 2  c+2
and   − 2  + 4 =4
 2   2   2 
 
clearly
4 5 2
a = , b = and c = −
3 6 3
So, a : b : c = 8 : 5 : −4
( )
Sol16. a  b  c = 3b − c = u
b  ( c  a ) = c − 2a = v
( )
c  b  a = 3b − 2a = w
u + v = w
so vectors
u,v and w
are coplanar, hence their Scalar triple product will be zero.
Sol17. P (H) = x  P ( T ) = 1− x
P ( 4H  1T ) = P (5H)
C1 ( x ) (1 − x ) = 5 C5 x5
5 4 1
5 (1− x ) = x
5
6x = 5 = 0 x =
6
P(atmost 2H)
= P (OH, 5T ) + P (1H, 4T ) + P (2H,3T )


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -31
5 4 2 3
 1 5  1 5  1
= 5 C0   + 5 C1    + 5 C2    
6 6 6 6 6
1 276 46
5 (
= 1 + 25 + 250 ) = 5 = 4
6 6 6
a + b + 8 + 5 + 10
Sol18. x = 6 =  a + b = 7 ………..(i)
5
and
a2 + b2 + 82 + 52 + 102
2 = − 62 = 6.8
5
 a2 + b2 = 25 …….(ii)
From (i) and (ii) (a,b) = (3, 4) or (4, 3)
Now mean deviation about mean
1 12
M = (3 + 2 + 2 + 1+ 4) =
5 5
 25M = 60
Sol19. f ( x ) = 2cos−1 x + 4cot −1 x − 3x2 − 2x + 10x  −1, 1

2 4
 f '( x) = − − − 6x − 2  0x  −1, 1
1− x 2 1 + x2
So, f(x) is decreasing function and range of f(x) is
 f (1) ,f ( −1)  , which is  + 5, 5 + 9
Now 4a − b = 4 (  + 5) − (5 + 9) = 11− 
Sol20. Case-I     
(
( p  q) → ( p  q)  r )
it can be false if r is false,
so not a tautology
Case–II If     
(p  q) → ( (p  q)  r )  tautology
then (p  q)  r  (pr )  q
Case-III If   ,  
then ( p  q) → (p  q)  r
Not a tautology
(Check p → T, q → T, r → F )
Case-IV If   ,  
(p  q) → (p  q)  r
Not a tautology
PART – C
Sol1. x − 3x − 2 x + 3x + 1 = 0
4 3 2
 ( x 2 − 1)( x 2 − 3 x − 1) = 0
 x = 1
and let  ,  are roots of x − 3x − 1 = 0
2
 +  = 3  = −1
13 + ( −1) +  3 +  3
3
= 1 − 1 + ( +  ) − 3 ( +  )
3


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -32
= 27 + 3( 3) = 36
Sol2. Let y = mx + c is the common tangent

1 3 1
so c = =  1 + m2  m2 =
m 2 3
so equation of common tangents will be
1
y= x 3
3
which intersects at Q ( −3, 0)
Major axis and minor axis of ellipse are 12 and 6. So eccentricity
1 3
e2 = 1 − =
4 4
and length of latus rectum
2b 2
= =3
a
Hence
3
= =4
e2 3/ 4
Sol3. y = x +1 (0,5)
y = x+5
0
1
  f ( x ) dx = 2  ( 2 + 5)  3 = 21
−6
2
2
-2 -1 O
-6 -5 -4 -3
Sol4. ( 4 + x ) dy − 2 x ( x
2 2
+ 3 y + 4 ) dx = 0
dy  6 x 
 =  y + 2x
dx  x 2 + 4 
dy  6 x 
 −  y = 2x
dx  x 2 + 4 
I.F. =
(
−3 n x 2 + 4 ) 1
e =
(x + 4)
2 3
So
y 2x
= dx + c
(x + 4) (x + 4)
2 3 2 3
(
1 2
x + 4) + c ( x2 + 4)
3
 y=−
2
When x = 0, y = 0 gives
1
c=
32
So, for x = 2, y = 12


NJEETS-2024 - FT - 12 -PCM -33
48     3  
3 2
   sin xdx
3
Sol5. I=
4  0

 2
− x 

− 
4 2
− x  + 
 4  1 + cos x
2
Using
 f ( x ) dx =  f ( a + b − x ) dx
b b
a a
we get
48     3  
3 2
   sin xdx
3
I=
4  0
−  − x  +
  2 

4 2
− x  + 
 4  1 + cos x
2
Adding these two equations, we get

48  3 sin x dx
2I =
 4  0

2 1 + cos 2 x
12  12 
I =  − tan −1 ( cos x )  =  = 6
 0  2


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FIITJEE - NJEETS

(JEE MAIN TEST SERIES - 2024)

B. Filling of OMR Sheet:

C. Marking Scheme for All Two Parts:

Name of the Candidate :_______________________________________________

Batch :_______________________ Date of Examination :____________________

Enrolment Number :___________________________________________________

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Useful Data Chemistry:

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Q8. According to kinetic theory of gases,

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Q15. Given below are two statements :

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Q20. A 2 kg block moving with 10 m/s strikes a spring of constant  2 N/m

space for rough work

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2. For the reaction

5. Which of the following molecules can exhibit optical activity?

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10. Consider the following reaction:

The major product expected is:

(C) CH3 (D)

11. Find out the major product of the following reaction:

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14. Compare the bond lengths ‘a’ and ‘b’

15. Rank the following in decreasing order of their acidic strengths

(A) (B) (C) (D)

16. Correct order of basic strength of given amines is:

17. Which one of the following would be most stable?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

18. How many stereoisomers of the following molecule are possible?

19. Correct order of stability of the following carbocation is

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

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20. C5 H12 + Cl2 ⎯⎯⎯

(A) H3C C CH3 H3C C CH2Cl H3C C CH2CH2 C CH3

(B) H3C CH CH2CH3 H3C C CH2CH3 CH3 CH2 C C CH2CH3

1. The gaseous reaction, A ( g ) + nB ( g ) mC ( g ) is represented by following curves:

What is the value of n + m?

space for rough work

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Section – III (Mathematics)

Let A be a 3 x 3 invertible matrix. If adj ( 24A ) = adj ( 3adj ( 2A ) ) , then A is equal to :

The remainder when ( 2021)

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Q10. The area bounded by the curve y = x2 − 9 and the line y = 3 is :

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Q16. If a . b = 1, b . c = 2 c . a = 3 , then the value of

Batch :___ Date of Examination :