Psychology Canadian 2nd Edition Feist

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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1) ________ is defined as the urge to move toward one's goals.

A) Deprivation B) Motivation C) Perception D) Emotion
Answer: B

2) Which of the following is an example of a motivated behaviour?

A) A baby smiling B) The wind blowing hard
C) A tree growing D) A musician learning a new piece
Answer: D

3) Which of the following is true of motivation?

A) It only comes from internal factors. B) It is responsible for every action.
C) It only comes from external factors. D) It is caused by some need.
Answer: D

4) ________ are states of cellular or bodily deficiency that compel drives.

A) Emotions B) Needs C) Incentives D) Moods
Answer: B

5) Which of the following is an example of a drive?

A) Kindness B) Water C) Music D) Education
Answer: B

6) ________ are the perceived states of tension that occur when our bodies are deficient in some need.
A) Drives B) Incentives C) Emotions D) Traits
Answer: A

7) Which of the following is the best example of motivation stemming from an incentive?
A) A teacher preparing for the next day's class
B) A girl learning the piano because she loves music
C) A family going out to eat because they are hungry
D) A boy mowing the lawn to make money during the holidays
Answer: D

8) Which of the following is true for incentives?

A) They are emotional in nature. B) They are unimportant for motivation.
C) They are an external motivating factor. D) They are monetary in nature.
Answer: C

9) Drives come from the ________ environment, while incentives come from the ________
environment.
A) external; internal B) institutional; personal
C) social; biological D) biological; external
Answer: D

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10) When discussing the origins of altruistic behaviour evident in many individuals across many
circumstances, Dr. Kim asserts that even though it doesn't necessarily benefit the individual, there
must have been some kind of adaptive significance produced by this kind of behaviour or it would
not be present today. Based on this information, Dr. Kim would most likely identify with which of
the following approaches to motivation?
A) optimal arousal theory B) evolutionary psychology
C) incentive theory D) hierarchical theory
Answer: B

11) Towhich model of motivation would the theory of 'survival of the fittest' most likely belong?
A) The optimal arousal model B) The evolutionary model
C) The drive reduction model D) The hierarchical model
Answer: B

12) Motivated behaviours result from:

A) needs, drives and incentives. B) hunger, thirst, and sex.
C) survival, hunger, and thirst. D) needs, drives, and money.
Answer: A

13) According to the evolutionary model of motivation, an organism's ultimate purpose is to ________.
A) migrate to a favourable climate B) reproduce itself
C) create mutations in its species D) find a role in its social group
Answer: B

14) According to the evolutionary model of motivation, the major motives all involve:
A) socialand theological needs
B) achieving self-actualization and self-esteem
C) the need for belonging and intimacy
D) survival and reproduction needs
Answer: D

15) Maintaining homeostasis is a major motivating factor in the ________ model of motivation.
A) drive-reduction B) optimal arousal
C) evolutionary D) hierarchy of needs
Answer: A

16) According to the drive reduction model of motivation, various drives are produced:
A) when our growth needs are not being met.
B) when we value a goal and expect that certain behaviours will lead to its accomplishment.
C) by specific instincts that are common to both humans and animals.
D) when there is a physiological disruption of homeostasis.
Answer: D

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17) Kathy wakes up from bed at night feeling hungry and decides to go down to the kitchen and see
what is inside the fridge. Kathy's body wants to achieve ________.
A) social assimilation B) homeostasis
C) motivation D) self-actualization
Answer: B

18) Drive reduction model assumes that there is a significant causal relation between which of the
following constructs?
A) drives and instincts B) instincts and homeostasis
C) drives and homeostasis D) drives and needs
Answer: C

19) Ifwe get too hot, we sweat to cool off. If we get too cold, we shiver to warm up. This is part of our
body's effort to maintain ________.
A) motivation B) homeostasis
C) self-actualization D) social assimilation
Answer: B

20) When the brain is deprived of sensory stimulation, the brain region that processes that kind of
sensory information:
A) actually shrinks.
B) cannot fire when it is stimulated subsequently.
C) actually enlarges.
D) is randomly activated.
Answer: A

21) Which of the following is true according to the optimal arousal model of motivation?
A) Arousal level is directly proportional to performance.
B) Low arousal improves performance.
C) Arousal level is inversely proportional to performance.
D) High arousal leads to poor performance.
Answer: D

22) Martin has been locked up in a dark room for four continuous days as part of a research to record the
effects of sensory deprivation. What results are likely to be observed?
A) Martin will be able to concentrate better once he comes out.
B) Martin is likely to experience hallucinations.
C) Martin will emerge refreshed and energetic.
D) There will be no visible changes in Martin's behaviour.
Answer: B

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23) Research on the relationship between physiological arousal and performance has determined that:
A) as arousal increases, performance increases to a point, but after that, further arousal serves to
decrease performance.
B) there is no relationship between arousal and performance.
C) as arousal increases, performance decreases to a point, but after that, further arousal serves to
increase performance.
D) as arousal increases, performance always tends to increase.
Answer: A

24) Alex is on his school's soccer team. According to the theories of Yerkes and Dodson, in which of
the following games would Alex perform best?
A) A practice game at the beginning of the season, with no fans present.
B) A championship game against his team's rival, with the arena filled with screaming fans.
C) A midseason game against an equally skilled team, with several fans present.
D) Alex will perform equally well in all the games.
Answer: C

25) Theessence of Maslow's hierarchy of needs is that:

A) the highest needs (e.g., growth and fulfillment) must be filled before more basic physiological
necessities can be considered.
B) low arousal and high arousal both lead to poor performance while moderate arousal leads to
optimal performance.
C) needs range from the most basic physiological necessities to the highest, most psychological
need for growth and fulfillment.
D) only the primary drive needs are important (e.g., food, water, and sex).
Answer: C

26) Which of the following is the correct sequence of needs in ascending order according to Maslow's
hierarchy of needs?
A) Esteem, love and belongingness, safety, self-actualization
B) Physiological, safety, love and belongingness, esteem
C) Safety, physiological, love and belongingness, esteem
D) Safety, esteem, physiological, love and belongingness
Answer: B

27) Matthas just moved to a new city to look for work. According to Maslow's theory, which of the
following needs will Matt seek to fulfill first?
A) Security B) Physiological
C) Love and belongingness D) Self-actualization
Answer: B

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28) Rowan is spiritual, in touch with her emotions, and kind to others. According to Maslow's theory,
Rowan has most likely reached the level of ________.
A) self-actualization B) reaction formation
C) expressive suppression D) egocentrism
Answer: A

29) According to Maslow's theory, Celine must meet her ________ needs before she fulfills security
needs.
A) love and belongingness B) physiological
C) self-actualization D) self-esteem
Answer: B

30) An important role in the signaling and initiating of hunger is the temporary rise and fall of
________.
A) leptin B) estrogen
C) glucose D) cholecystokinin (CCK)
Answer: C

31) Ifresearchers electrically stimulated the ventromedial hypothalamus (of rats, what would you
predict they would find?
A) The rats would experience the normal signals of satiety and therefore maintain their normal
body weight.
B) The rats would become gluttons increasing dramatically their body weights.
C) The rats would begin eating normally after a period of gluttony.
D) The rats would refuse to eat to the point of starvation.
Answer: D

32) Hunger researchers assumed that a certain region of the brain is responsible for initiating hunger and
eating because when it was electrically stimulated, animals would begin to eat. This brain region
was called the:
A) lateral hypothalamus (LH). B) ascending reticular formation (ARF).
C) paraventricular nucleus (PVN). D) ventromedial hypothalamus
Answer: A

33) ________ is a simple sugar that the brain uses for energy.
A) Ghrelin B) Neuropeptide Y C) Peptide YY D) Glucose
Answer: D

34) Which of the following is true of glucose?

A) Hunger causes a rise in glucose levels in the body.
B) It is a simple sugar that provides energy for cells.
C) The brain can use it only in combination with fat and protein.
D) It is a secondary source of energy for the body after fat.
Answer: B

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35) The________ regulates most of the basic physiological needs.
A) amygdala B) hypothalamus
C) medulla oblongata D) hippocampus
Answer: B

36) When the body'sblood sugar level drops, the ________ triggers the drive to obtain food.
A) hippocampus B) medulla oblongata
C) hypothalamus D) frontal lobe
Answer: C

37) Jasonfeels his stomach growling for food while he is attempting a math test in class. Which of the
following chemicals has likely sent a message to his brain that Jason's body is hungry?
A) Neuropeptide B) Melanin C) Orexin D) Ghrelin
Answer: D

38) Dr.
Ryan's view is that being hungry depends on how much food we have eaten recently and how
much energy is available to our bodies. His view correlates with the
A) Yerkes-Dodson law B) hierarchy of needs
C) evolutionary model D) drive reduction perspective
Answer: D

39) Stomach "growling" results from:

A) gastric secretions that are activated by the brain when we think of, see, or smell food.
B) stomach contractions.
C) insulin secretions that are activated by the hypothalamus when we smell food.
D) neuropeptide Y (NPY) secretions that stimulate appetite.
Answer: A

40) Whichof the following hormones suppresses appetite?

A) Neuropeptide Y B) Leptin C) Melanin D) Ghrelin
Answer: B

41) We can learn to associate the hearing and sight of food with its taste and, thus, these stimuli can
serve to trigger a hunger response. This is best explained through the constructs of ________ theory.
A) operant conditioning B) classical conditioning
C) modeling D) avoidance conditioning
Answer: B

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42) Juliefrequently eats a great deal of food when she gets emotionally upset. The last time she started
to feel depressed, she ate two large bags of potato chips, a half gallon of ice cream, and several
slices of pizza, all in one sitting. After she eats this way, she usually takes several laxatives to help
her purge all this food. Despite this eating behaviour, Julie's weight is about average for someone of
her height and age. Julie would most likely be diagnosed:
A) with bulimia. B) with digestive deficiency.
C) with anorexia nervosa. D) with both anorexia and bulimia.
Answer: A

43) People who have an intense fear of being fat and severely restrict their food intake, often to the point
of starvation, have the eating disorder called ________.
A) bulimia B) anorexia nervosa
C) digestive deficiency D) obesity phobia
Answer: B

44) Which of the following necessitates a reduction in the food intake of people living in industrialized
nations today?
A) Changing standards of beauty B) Increasing food scarcity
C) The prevalence of sedentary lifestyles D) Improved medical technology
Answer: C

45) A person's body mass index is determined by:

A) dividing weight by height to yield a weight-to-height ratio.
B) conducting a volumetric and body composition analysis.
C) measuring a person's waist-to-hip ratio.
D) identifying waist circumference to yield a waist-to-height ratio.
Answer: A

46) The ideal body mass index is ________.

A) below 15 B) 25-30 C) 30 and above D) 20-25
Answer: D

47) Who among the following would be considered obese?

A) Nathan's BMI is 15. B) Paul has a BMI of 26.
C) James has a BMI of 24. D) Timothy's BMI is 32.
Answer: D

48) Who among the following would be considered overweight, but not obese?
A) Hannah's BMI is 32. B) Julia has a BMI of 27.
C) Ann has a BMI of 25. D) Chloe's BMI is 15.
Answer: B

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49) One study found that adults who had been adopted as children were much closer in weight to their
biological parents than to their adoptive parents. This indicates that:
A) weight gain is subject to environmental rather than biological influence.
B) the social environment has no influence on weight loss or gain.
C) cultural mores are the sole determining factors in adult weight.
D) biological factors play an important role in determining adult weight.
Answer: D

50) The number of fat cells is set by childhood and adolescence,

A) and the number decreases if someone loses weight.
B) and it increases if a person gains weight.
C) and it decreases as we age.
D) and does not change much after that.
Answer: D

51) The number of fat cells that a person has is determined by ________.
A) biological characteristics B) the social environment
C) psychological factors D) the person's food habits
Answer: A

52) Why do dieters find it difficult to keep off weight they've lost by dieting?
A) The nutritional deprivation during a diet stimulates the production of fat cells to store energy.
B) Fat cells do not respond in any way to changes in food habits or food quantity.
C) The fat cells lost as a result of a diet are replaced by new cells once the diet ends.
D) Diets do not decrease the number of fats cells, but rather how much fat each cell stores.
Answer: D

53) Which of the following is true for diets?

A) Diets have no effect on the fat cells in a body.
B) Diets are the most efficient way to lose weight.
C) People frequently regain the weight they have lost on a diet.
D) Diets reduce the number of fats cells a person has.
Answer: C

54) InMasters and Johnson's sexual response cycle, the onset of vaginal lubrication in the female and
erection in the male occurs in the:
A) plateau phase. B) resolution phase.
C) excitement phase. D) orgasm phase.
Answer: C

55) The refractory period, during which males are temporarily unable to have an orgasm, occurs during
the ________ phase of the sexual response cycle.
A) plateau B) vasocongestion C) orgasm D) resolution
Answer: D

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56) During the plateau phase of the sexual response cycle:
A) the physiological arousal that was initiated in the previous phase remains high.
B) males and females experience pleasurable involuntary contractions.
C) males are temporarily unable to have an orgasm.
D) there is an initial rapid increase in physiological arousal.
Answer: A

57) In general, both males and females experience the sexual response cycle in similar ways EXCEPT:
A) males experience a refractory period.
B) females experience a refractory period.
C) females do not experience the resolution phase.
D) males do not experience the resolution phase.
Answer: A

58) Which of the following, according to Masters and Johnson, is the correct sequence of human sexual
responses in the order of occurrence?
A) Orgasm, excitement, plateau, resolution B) Excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution
C) Plateau, resolution, excitement, orgasm D) Resolution, excitement, plateau, orgasm
Answer: B

59) Which of the following sexual phases do women often bypass altogether?
A) Plateau B) Orgasm C) Resolution D) Excitement
Answer: B

60) Which of the following is true for the differences in sexual behaviour exhibited by men and women?
A) Men do not experience the plateau and resolution stages.
B) Sexual responses decrease during the time of ovulation.
C) Women can have multiple orgasms while men do not.
D) Sexual responses for women are the same as those for men.
Answer: C

61) Which of the following regions of the brain plays a crucial role in sexual arousal?
A) The hippocampus B) The hypothalamus
C) The frontal lobe D) The medulla oblongata
Answer: B

62) Astudy by neuroscientist Gert Holstege and his colleagues shows that the ________ of women's
brains is(are) deactivated while they experience orgasm.
A) medulla oblongata B) frontal lobes
C) amygdala and hippocampus D) hypothalamus
Answer: C

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63) Men show brain deactivation during orgasm ________
A) in the hippocampus.
B) of regions involved with fear and anxiety. Specifically, the amygdala and hippocampus, as well
as parts of the cortex involved in consciousness.
C) in the ventromedial hypothalamus.
D) to the left amygdala (a smaller emotional region of the brain).
Answer: D

64) Which of the following hormones plays the major role in stimulating sexual response?
A) Testosterone B) Melanin C) Ghrelin D) Adrenaline
Answer: A

65) Whichof the following is true of the male sexual responses?

A) Unlike women, men show no brain deactivation during orgasm.
B) Males can achieve multiple orgasms more often than females can.
C) Men achieve orgasms less frequently than do women.
D) An increase in levels of testosterone is related to increases in sexual activity.
Answer: D

66) From their study of sexual behaviour and culture, Clellan Ford and Frank Beach categorized
societies into ________.
A) restrictive, semirestrictive, and permissive societies
B) matriarchal, patriarchal, and egalitarian societies
C) egalitarian, class-based, and ranked societies
D) heterosexual, homosexual, or bisexual societies
Answer: A

67) Broude and Greene (1980) studied men and women in many non-Western cultures and found that
extramarital sex was:
A) an acceptable alternative to marriage in most non-Western societies.
B) practiced by men and women in the majority of these societies.
C) unheard of as the societies had stronger family ties than the West.
D) expected of both men and women before and during marriage.
Answer: B

68) Parentalinvestment theory states that ________.

A) parental prohibition against sexual activity actually increases the likelihood of early sexual
behaviour
B) the more involved parents are in their children's lives, the less likely is risky sexual behaviour
C) men are eager to engage in casual sex to impress rivals with their sexual prowess
D) women are reluctant to engage in casual sex for fear of pregnancy
Answer: D

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69) A person's emotional and erotic preference for partners of a particular sex is referred to as:
A) gender identity B) sexual orientation
C) gender D) sexual response cycle
Answer: B

70) Research reveals that individuals exposed to high levels of testosterone in the womb are likely to be:
A) homosexual or bisexual. B) highly motivated at work.
C) more attracted to women. D) less aggressive in nature.
Answer: C

71) Brad and Amanda are siblings. Based on our knowledge sexual orientation, ________ is more likely
to develop a distinct sexual orientation, while ________ is more likely to identify as bisexual.
A) There is a gradual decrease from exclusively heterosexual to exclusively homosexual in both
sexes.
B) Brad; Amanda
C) Not enough information is known to make a decision.
D) Amanda; Brad
Answer: B

72) Dr.MacQuarrie states that although genetics play a role in sexual orientation, child play, early peer
relations, differences in how parents treat boys and girls, and gender identity are important factors in
the development of sexual orientation. This is consistent with the idea that:
A) neither environmental factors nor genetics have an influence on the sexual orientation of
individuals.
B) biology is key in the development of sexual orientation, and is not affected by environmental
factors.
C) environmental factors are what determine sexual orientation, biological development does not
play a role in sexual orientation of individuals.
D) biology could start the development of sexual orientation, which in turn would be strengthened
or discouraged by environmental factors.
Answer: D

73) The 'need for affiliation' corresponds to the ________ level of needs in Abraham Maslow's
hierarchy of needs.
A) self-actualization B) belongingness
C) safety D) physiological
Answer: B

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74) Affiliation with others is:
A) a minor need. Individuals who do not have affiliation function equally well as people who have
close affiliations.
B) Not important. Being rejected by others has not been shown to impact a person's health.
C) determined by success. Only when individuals succeed can they create deep connections with
others.
D) so important that social exclusion physically hurts and activates pain regions in the brain
involved in physical pain.
Answer: D

75) Itwas the championship game and Ryan, the star player, was a nervous wreck. Soccer was his love
but this game held a lot of pressure. A college scout was in the stands as well as his entire family.
Ryan could taste victory and the importance of the game only increased his drive and need for
success. Ryan's motivation is most likely based on his:
A) anxiety associated with loss. B) anxiety associated with winning.
C) motivation for success. D) fear of failure.
Answer: C

76) Peter has just graduated to junior high school. Although a shy adolescent, he has a great desire to
make friends and be part of a group in school; he has decided that he will try to speak more with the
other kids in class. Which of the following is he expressing?
A) The need for achievement B) The need to be motivated
C) The need to excel D) The need for affiliation
Answer: D

77) According to Atkinson, the tendency to achieve includes all the following EXCEPT:
A) the incentive value of success. B) the need for affiliation.
C) the expectation of success. D) the motivation to succeed.
Answer: B

78) ________ is an individual's evaluation of the likelihood of succeeding at a task.

A) Incentive value B) Expectation of success
C) Need for achievement D) Motivation to succeed
Answer: B

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79) Sara and Frank are competing for the same new job. They both very much want the job and believe
that it would substantially help their careers. Frank isn't sure that he has the job or interview skills
needed to get the job and as a result, he puts a little less effort into his resume and job interview.
Sara, on the other hand, believes that she has good interview skills and thinks that she has the talent
to get the job. As a result, she prepares at bit harder for this position. According to Atkinson's ideas
on achievement motivation the most likely explanation of this difference in motivation is due to:
A) their different expectancies regarding their goal-related behaviours.
B) their different growth needs.
C) their different internal drives.
D) the different values they placed on the job.
Answer: A

80) A motivation theorist who believes in Atkinson's model of achievement motivation would most
likely say that two people can respond differently to the same incentive because:
A) they evaluate the worth of the incentive differently.
B) they have different drives.
C) they have different deficiency needs.
D) they have different unconscious motives.
Answer: A

81) The worth that an individual places on a goal is often called the:
A) growth value. B) deficiency value.
C) incentive value. D) reinforcement value.
Answer: C

82) Since the two concepts are closely associated and can sometimes be confused, some theorists
suggest that it is helpful to consider ________ as a stimulus that causes goal-directed behaviour and
to view ________ as a response to events that are related to important goals.
A) affect; motivation B) emotion; affect
C) emotion; motivation D) motivation; emotion
Answer: D

83) Which of the following is true for emotions and drives?

A) Drives are always more influential than emotions.
B) Drives are linked with very specific biological needs.
C) Emotions cannot be influenced by physiology.
D) Emotions have no effect on biological drives.
Answer: B

84) Which of the following is true of moods?

A) They are not influenced by physiology.
B) They have no effect on emotions.
C) They last longer than emotions.
D) They remain stable from childhood to adulthood.
Answer: C

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85) ________ are enduring aspects of our personalities that set the threshold for the occurrence of
particular emotional states.
A) Moods B) Needs C) Affective traits D) Intrinsic motives
Answer: C

86) Which of the following individuals is NOT expressing a basic emotion?

A) Billy isashamed that he earned an F on the final exam.
B) Martin is disgusted he earned a D on the final exam.
C) Jessica is surprised she earned a C on the final exam.
D) Sarah is happy she earned an A on the final exam.
Answer: A

87) Whichof the following is a basic emotion?

A) Embarrassment B) Guilt C) Shame D) Disgust
Answer: D

88) Which of the following best describes an emotion family?

A) A broad category, such as fear, consists of specific emotions like anxiety and nervousness.
B) The same emotion, such as joy, can be experienced by several members of a family.
C) From birth, people tend to have persistent traits of emotions-either positive or negative.
D) Negative emotions can pass from one person to the next when living in close quarters.
Answer: A

89) Which of the following is an example of a self-conscious emotion?

A) The disgust on looking at rotting food B) The happiness of winning a prize
C) The surprise at receiving a gift D) The shame of being caught in a lie
Answer: D

90) Evolutionary psychologists speculate that when we are threatened, our attention is narrowed by the
adaptive significance of ________.
A) negative emotions B) motivation
C) positive emotions D) attention
Answer: A

91) According to many evolutionary psychologists:

A) only negative emotions have adaptive significance.
B) positive and negative emotions have very similar adaptive functions.
C) positive and negative emotions have different and distinct adaptive functions.
D) positive and negative emotions have no adaptive significance.
Answer: C

92) Which of the following emotions can only be experienced if a person possesses a sense of self and
the ability to reflect on his own actions?
A) Fear B) Shame C) Disgust D) Anger
Answer: B

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93) Emotionsthat require considering oneself in relation to the expectations of others are called
________ emotions.
A) primal B) self-regulated C) basic D) self-conscious
Answer: D

94) Which of the following is true when viewing emotions from an evolutionary perspective?
A) Negative emotions help to ensure survival.
B) Positive emotions encourage a narrow focus.
C) Negative emotions have no adaptive value.
D) Positive emotions have no adaptive value.
Answer: A

95) Which of the following is true of positive emotions?

A) People experiencing positive emotions have a narrow focus compared to people in sad or
neutral moods.
B) Positive emotions reduce attention to visual information in the outer edges of a visual display.
C) When people are in positive moods they perform poorly on tasks of selective attention.
D) People experiencing positive emotions perform worse on tasks that require a broader
attentional focus.
Answer: C

96) Sidsaw a gang of teenagers throw rocks at his car. He saw the damage this caused and became very
angry. He chased the teens, and although he could not catch them, he got close enough to recognize
one of them. Although Sid envisioned retaliating for the damage to his car, he knew it would be
better to seek compensation for the damage. He called the police, reported the incident, and swore
he would sue the parents of the boy he knew to make them pay for the damage to the car. Which of
the following was the antecedent event in Sid's emotion-charged situation?
A) Chasing the teens B) Not being able to catch the teens
C) Becoming angry D) Seeing the teens throw the rocks
Answer: D

97) Modern emotion researchers assume that most emotions:

A) are determined primarily by physiological responses.
B) involve a combination of cognitive, physiological, and behavioural response patterns.
C) are reflected in particular behavioural responses.
D) involve a combination of cognitive and physiological response patterns.
Answer: B

98) All
of the following were mentioned as one of the four common features of emotions EXCEPT:
A) emotional responses result from our interpretations of stimuli.
B) emotions are responses to internal or external stimuli.
C) emotions are distinct from the behavioural tendencies they evoke.
D) emotions involve a physiological response from our bodies.
Answer: C

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 99) Your roommate returns home after being gone all day and rolls his eyes and says nothing in
response to your friendly, "hello." You interpret this lack of response as being rather rude and your
body responds with some of the minor physiological changes associated with anger. With your
arousal increasing, you sarcastically say, "Nice to see you too, jerk!" under your breath as your
roommate closes the door to his room. In this example, the rolling eyes and lack of response from
your roommate would best be considered the:
A) instrumental behavioural response. B) antecedent event.
C) cognitive appraisal. D) expressive behaviour.
Answer: B

100) In addition to being evoked by internal or external stimuli, another common factor that all emotions
generally share is that:
A) they almost never include physiological responses.
B) they almost never are appraised for appropriateness of the emotion.
C) they are distinct from the behavioural tendencies they evoke.
D) they include the physiological responses.
Answer: D

101) Richard and Robert are chatting in the cafeteria. Richard starts naming the muscles as he cuts
though his chicken. Robert who hates to think that what he is eating was an animal is disgusted.
Richard, who is studying to become a vet, interpreted the conversation in a clinical, detached way,
but the thought of his dinner walking around and using muscles, sickened Robert. Each boy had a
different _________________of their lunchtime conversation.
A) motional regulation B) cognitive appraisal
C) reaction formation D) physiological response
Answer: B

102) The fact that emotions typically do not occur by themselves and are usually triggered in response to
various people, behaviours, situations, objects, or events best demonstrates how emotions involve:
A) physiological responses. B) an antecedent event.
C) cognitive appraisals. D) behavioural tendencies.
Answer: B

103) Suppose someone asked you right now to think of a time when you were very afraid. It is very likely
that the simple memory of what happened would evoke some feelings of fear and/or other emotions
that you experienced in response to this particular event. The fact that you can do this in response to
this person's request best demonstrates how:
A) emotions can be triggered by internal or external stimuli.
B) emotional comparisons can make people feel worse.
C) most emotions are triggered by external stimuli.
D) emotions inspire both instrumental and expressive behaviours.
Answer: A

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104) The fact that two people can have very different emotions in response to the same event is most
easily explained by the notion of:
A) cognitive appraisals. B) expressive behaviour.
C) an antecedent event. D) instrumental behaviour.
Answer: A

105) Which of the following determines whether a situation will lead to an emotion or not?
A) Situation B) Regulation C) Appraisal D) Outcome
Answer: C

106) ________ is the evaluation of a situation with respect to how relevant it is to one's own welfare.
A) Appraisal B) Motivation C) Regulation D) Hubris
Answer: A

107) Which of the following is true of appraisal in the emotion process?

A) It is always a conscious, deliberate thought process.
B) It is occurs with the full consciousness of the person.
C) It is influenced by a person's frame of reference.
D) It is only a consequence of an emotional response.
Answer: C

108) Nancy's mother decides to cancel Thanksgiving dinner because she has an opportunity to go on a
trip. Nancy was really looking forward to spending the day with all of her family. Her partner Mary
really did not care if they went or not. Who would be most likely to have an emotional response to
the situation?
A) Mary B) Mary's mother C) Nancy D) Nancy's mother
Answer: C

109) Senara becomes angry when someone bumps into her in the grocery store. She then notices that the
person was trying to get out of the way of some cans falling off a shelf. Senara's anger turns to
concern for the individual. Senara's change in emotion is an example of:
A) appraisal. B) expressive-suppression.
C) an antecedent event. D) reappraisal.
Answer: D

110) Jason saw a couple of teenagers damage his porch with spray paint and graffiti. He decided to call
the police and resolve this situation through the legal process. Jason chose ________ to solve his
problem.
A) expressive-suppression B) displacement
C) reaction formation D) reappraisal
Answer: A

17
111) The deliberate attempt to inhibit the outward display of an emotion is known as ________.
A) reaction formation B) reappraisal
C) expressive-suppression D) displacement
Answer: C

112) Bob is very good at reading the behavioural cues that people generate and responds effectively to
these cues. Bob has many close friends and is generally well liked by those who know him. In
addition, Bob is also good at motivating himself and taking care of his personal needs. These
qualities suggest that Bob would most likely score highly on a measure of:
A) emotional intelligence. B) mathematical intelligence.
C) visual-spatial intelligence. D) linguistic intelligence.
Answer: A

113) The ability to accurately read and effectively respond to the reactions of other people or yourself is
considered to be an essential part of ________ intelligence.
A) interpersonal B) social C) empathic D) emotional
Answer: D

114) Research examining intervention programs designed to teach children socio-emotional(SE) skills
have found that:
A) they improve children's emotional well-being and social skills.
B) they improve children's emotional well-being, social skills, and academic performance.
C) these programs do not have long term effects on children.
D) they improve children's emotional well-being.
Answer: B

115) Which of the following is true of the ANS (autonomic nervous system)?
A) The ANS is concerned solely with positive emotions.
B) The pattern for ANS activity is the same for all emotions.
C) It is controlled by the circulatory system.
D) It activates the respiratory system.
Answer: D

116) Emotions concerned with survival or protection trigger activation of the:

A) central nervous system.
B) parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.
C) sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.
D) somatic nervous system.
Answer: C

18
117) Mark's father had triple bypass surgery a week ago and has been told by his doctors to reduce the
stress in his life in general and at least for the next several weeks try to maintain calmness about
him. After opening a letter from school containing Mark's poor semester grades, his father does his
biofeedback exercises in an effort to return his blood pressure to normal and his muscles back to
relaxation. For this to work, a particular nervous system is working overtime. This is the ________
nervous system.
A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) homeostatic D) central
Answer: B

118) Positive emotions engage:

A) somatic nervous system.
B) parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.
C) sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.
D) central nervous system.
Answer: B

119) Jason is trekking along a hillside when he comes across a bear. He is very frightened and tries to
find the best way to escape. Which of the following has been immediately activated in Jason's body?
A) The parasympathetic nervous system B) The immune system
C) The sympathetic nervous system D) The cardiovascular system
Answer: C

120) Which of the following is activated when we are watching something funny on television which
puts us in a good mood?
A) The enteric nervous system B) The parasympathetic nervous system
C) The sympathetic nervous system D) The central nervous system
Answer: B

121) Which of the following emotions is known to slow down heartbeat?

A) Anxiety B) Anger C) Fear D) Disgust
Answer: D

122) What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?

A) It regulates our heart. B) It regulates the gastrointestinal system.
C) It controls our reasoning. D) It contains the spinal cord.
Answer: A

123) Researcher Ekman developed this method as a way to study fundamental patterns of human
emotional expression.
A) somatic theory of emotion B) facial action coding system
C) expectancy x value theory D) cognitive appraisal
Answer: B

19
124) The parasympathetic branch of the ANS is activated when ________.
A) we experience amusement or happiness
B) we are sad or lonely
C) we are angry
D) we are in a situation that threatens our survival
Answer: A

125) The most recognizable facial expression is:

A) surprise. B) fear. C) happiness. D) anger.
Answer: C

126) A Duchenne smile is one that ________.

A) expresses true joy B) masks negative emotions
C) does not use the lips D) is used to be polite
Answer: A

127) The subjective experience of emotion can be understood by ________.

A) an independent rater's coding of facial expressions
B) brain imaging techniques
C) someone's description of how they feel
D) hormonal measurement assays
Answer: C

128) According to Ekman's neurocultural theory of emotion, which of the following may be different
across cultures?
A) The universality of emotions
B) Facial expressions that accompany emotions
C) The regulation of emotions
D) The physiological underpinnings of emotions
Answer: C

129) Researchers have determined that the cognitive appraisals of different emotions, such as anger, fear,
and joy, appear to be remarkably similar for people in different cultures, suggesting that some types
of interpretations may be ________.
A) related to brain structures B) culturally determined
C) environmentally determined D) universal
Answer: D

130) Monica has had a very emotionally draining day, but she really isn't sure what she is feeling. After
taking a quiet moment to herself, she starts to cry, and after observing this behaviour, she decides
that she must be sad. This example of emotional recognition is most consistent with the:
A) James-Lange theory of emotion. B) self-observation theory of emotion.
C) Cannon-Bard theory of emotion. D) behavioural theory of emotion.
Answer: A

20
131) Pearl is in love with Edward. When her little sister asks her how she knows it is true love she is
feeling, Pearl replies that the reaction of her body tells her it is love. Pearl's explanation supports the
________ theory of emotion.
A) cognitive-affective B) James-Lange
C) two-factor D) Cannon-Bard
Answer: B

132) The part of the brain most extensively connected with fear is the ________.
A) hippocampus B) corpus callosum C) thalamus D) amygdala
Answer: D

133) Researchers conducted a study where people who unknowingly received an injection of a stimulant
tended to rate a movie as being funnier than participants who received either a placebo or a
tranquilizer. This study provides evidence that:
A) arousal can affect cognitive appraisals. B) cognitive appraisals can affect arousal.
C) primary appraisals determine emotions. D) supported the facial feature hypothesis.
Answer: A

134) The polygraph test operates by measuring which component of emotion?

A) eliciting stimulus B) behavioural
C) physiological D) cognitive
Answer: C

135) When experts are given lie detector results from people who are known to be either innocent or
guilty:
A) they tend to accurately identify the guilty, but they do significantly less well in correctly
identifying the innocent.
B) they tend to accurately identify the innocent, but they do significantly less well in correctly
identifying the guilty.
C) they tend to be very accurate at correctly identifying both the innocent and the guilty.
D) they are usually unable to reliably identify either the innocent or the guilty.
Answer: A

136) Newer methods of lie detector test rely on ________, although this has produced mixed results.
A) a polygraph assessing physiological responses
B) a PET scan
C) a CAT scan
D) an EEG of brain activity
Answer: D

137) Which of the following areas of the brain plays a role in the appraisal and reappraisal of emotion?
A) Prefrontal cortex B) Corpus callosum C) Amygdala D) Hypothalamus
Answer: A

21
138) Rachael is known to be a happy and cheerful girl. However, ever since she met with a ski accident
some months ago she has constantly been in depression. It is likely that the accident has caused
some damage to her ________.
A) hypothalamus B) amygdala C) prefrontal cortex D) corpus callosum
Answer: C

139) The anterior cingulate cortex region of the brain is active when we are trying to ________ a
situation.
A) understand B) plan C) imagine D) evaluate
Answer: C

140) When you see another person you care about get hurt physically, it creates the same activity in the
________ that you experience with feelings of your own physical pain.
A) thalamus B) Corpus callosum
C) insula D) orbitofrontal cortex
Answer: C

141) The ________ is the brain structure most involved in perceiving internal, physical sensations or
interoception.
A) insula B) fornix
C) orbitofrontal cortex D) thalamus
Answer: A

142) In Canada, someone who sticks her thumb up is likely trying to hitchhike or is telling someone that
everything is ok. However, in Greece, this same gesture is considered obscene. This difference best
demonstrates how culturally based norms called ________ can influence emotional expressions.
A) primary appraisals B) eliciting stimuli
C) display rules D) instrumental behaviours
Answer: C

143) Which of the following provides the best explanation as to why cultural display rules impact
emotional expression?
A) They change the use of upward and downward comparisons.
B) They alter primary appraisals that occur before particular emotions are expressed.
C) They dictate when and how particular emotions are expressed.
D) They alter the physiological arousal that occurs with particular emotions.
Answer: C

144) What are display rules?

A) Emotional responses triggered by certain drugs
B) Emotional responses dictated by society
C) Emotional responses dictated by feelings
D) Emotional responses common to all cultures
Answer: B

22
145) Rebecca was extremely jealous of her brother's earning a full college scholarship, yet she knew she
had to act proud of and happy for him. Rebecca is behaving in accordance with ________.
A) the Yerkes-Dodson law B) vicarious reinforcement
C) display rules D) reappraisal
Answer: C

146) Which of the following is true of display rules?

A) They are not operational when a person is alone.
B) They followed more by women than men.
C) They are caused by damage to the amygdala.
D) They exist only in repressive cultures.
Answer: A

147) Charles Darwin proposed that a fearful facial expression ________.

A) differs from person to person B) decreases one's scope of vision
C) renders one incapable of any action D) increases a person's chances of escape
Answer: D

148) Men and women's ratings of their emotional experience are:

A) very similar.
B) different. Men are better than women at recognizing subtle facial expressions.
C) different. Men talk more about emotions than women do.
D) different. Women rate themselves as much more emotional than men.
Answer: A

149) In his two-factor theory of emotion, Stanley Schachter asserts that the cognitive appraisal of
situational cues provides essential information to help us determine exactly what emotion we are
feeling while our ________ tell(s) us how strongly we are feeling something.
A) facial features B) cognitive appraisals
C) situational cues D) level of physiological arousal
Answer: D

150) PATHS (Providing Alternative Thinking Strategies) is a concept designed by:

A) Salovey and Caruso. B) Greenberg and Kusché.
C) Daniel Goleman. D) Peter Salovey.
Answer: B

151) Why has the concept of emotional intelligence been so readily applied to the field of education?
A) It has led to academic improvement in classrooms.
B) It is a popular method of teaching.
C) The concept has been propounded by a teacher.
D) It is successful in improving motor skills in young children.
Answer: A

23
152) Which of the following is a characteristic of children who have attended SEL programs?
A) They suffer from Attention Deficit Disorder.
B) They have higher GPA scores.
C) They have better motor skills.
D) They are fluent in different languages.
Answer: B

153) Which of the following is true of emotional intelligence?

A) It improves cognitive function. B) It cannot be taught.
C) It cannot be measured. D) It has no link with academics.
Answer: A

154) Both Richard and Chris got offered jobs that will increase their responsibilities but would require
them to move to a new city. Richard has decided that he will explore the new city and step up to the
challenge. His friend Chris has decided to stay where he is in a comfortable position that he knows.
Based on the research findings which of the two men will be happier with their decision?
A) Chris will be happier. B) They will be equally happy.
C) Richard will be happier. D) Happiness cannot be measured.
Answer: C

155) According to the longitudinal study by Bruce Headey (2008) which of the following is true of
happiness?
A) Happiness will decrease over time for people who value spending time with friends most.
B) Happiness will decrease over time for people who value spending time with family most.
C) Happiness will decrease over time for people who value material goals most.
D) Happiness will increase over time for people who seek to advance their careers.
Answer: C

156) According to Bruce Headey, once a country's GNP crosses $12,000 per person per year, it is
________ that matter the most for overall happiness in people.
A) monetary gains B) close relationships
C) self-esteem needs D) job opportunities
Answer: B

157) People who find meaning in their lives in general and even in negative and tragic experiences are
likely to:
A) be happier than those who do not see meaning and purpose in life.
B) experience more depression than those who don't find meaning.
C) dwell on negative emotions, rather than avoid them.
D) earn less money than those who find no purpose in life.
Answer: A

24
158) The sense of well-being in life comes from all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) the achievement of basic needs in life. B) meeting self-esteem needs.
C) an absence of negative thoughts. D) presence of positive feelings.
Answer: C

159) Cindy, Mathew and Raymond lost individual members of their families in an accident. Three
months prior to the accident, Cindy had got married and was feeling very satisfied and happy in her
life. Mathew had bought a house but feels he played by the people selling the home and it has been
nothing but one problem after another for him. Raymond had lost his grandmother who he felt was
his only cheerleader in life. He was still reeling from this loss and figuring out how to be his own
supporter. Based on our knowledge of research findings, who amongst the three will be able to cope
best with their trauma?
A) Mathew B) All three have the same ability to cope.
C) Cindy D) Raymond
Answer: C

25
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED27

1) B
2) D
3) D
4) B
5) B
6) A
7) D
8) C
9) D
10) B
11) B
12) A
13) B
14) D
15) A
16) D
17) B
18) C
19) B
20) A
21) D
22) B
23) A
24) C
25) C
26) B
27) B
28) A
29) B
30) C
31) D
32) A
33) D
34) B
35) B
36) C
37) D
38) D
39) A
40) B
41) B
42) A
43) B
44) C
45) A
46) D
47) D
48) B
49) D
50) D
26
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED27

51) A
52) D
53) C
54) C
55) D
56) A
57) A
58) B
59) B
60) C
61) B
62) C
63) D
64) A
65) D
66) A
67) B
68) D
69) B
70) C
71) B
72) D
73) B
74) D
75) C
76) D
77) B
78) B
79) A
80) A
81) C
82) D
83) B
84) C
85) C
86) A
87) D
88) A
89) D
90) A
91) C
92) B
93) D
94) A
95) C
96) D
97) B
98) C
99) B
100) D
27
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED27

101) B
102) B
103) A
104) A
105) C
106) A
107) C
108) C
109) D
110) A
111) C
112) A
113) D
114) B
115) D
116) C
117) B
118) B
119) C
120) B
121) D
122) A
123) B
124) A
125) C
126) A
127) C
128) C
129) D
130) A
131) B
132) D
133) A
134) C
135) A
136) D
137) A
138) C
139) C
140) C
141) A
142) C
143) C
144) B
145) C
146) A
147) D
148) A
149) D
150) B
28
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED27

151) A
152) B
153) A
154) C
155) C
156) B
157) A
158) C
159) C

29
Another random document with
no related content on Scribd:
 The method of erection, so far as the side frames are concerned,
is the same as for the first example of travelling gantries. Stability is,
however, gained by cross-bracing as shown in figure, thus making
strutting unnecessary. The platform can be laid by placing short
boards 9 in. by 3 in. across the runners when the platform is narrow.
It is more usual, however, to place joists 10 in. by 2 in. across, and
on these to lay the boards longitudinally. The joists average 2 to 3
feet apart, the braces are about 2 in. by 7 in. On the outside of the
scaffold, parallel to the sills, balk timbers are placed forming a
‘fender’ to prevent the vehicular traffic from injuring or disturbing the
erection.

Front Elevation
 End Elevation
Fig 11.—Gantry or Elevated Platform over Footpaths

Stagings.—Stagings are erected in a manner similar to travelling

gantries, but are carried more than one storey high (fig. 12). It is a
form of scaffolding rarely seen, more especially since the
introduction of the Scotch derrick system. The timbers are erected to
the height of the first runner in the same manner as the frames in fig.
11. In order to carry the scaffold higher, horizontal pieces are laid
across the scaffold, over the standards, and are made to project 9 or
10 feet on each side of the runners.
 On these beams, uprights, as in the first tier, are raised, being
connected in like manner, longitudinally by transoms. The rising tiers
of standards are strutted by timbers a a, rising from the projecting
portion of the beam called the footing piece, which serves in the
samemanner as a footing block. The footing piece is supported by
struts, b b, rising from the lower standards. The struts b b are in two
pieces, being bolted to the sides of the footing pieces and uprights.
This allows the shores a a to pass between them.

Front Elevation Cross Section

Fig. 12.—Example of Stagings
Strutting within the bays formed by the standards is carried out on
each tier with the exception of the top, where braces are fixed, as
shown at c.
On the top runners rails are laid for a traveller.
In constructing the foregoing square timber erection, note should
be taken of the following points:—
That the uprights of the upper tiers should stand immediately over
those of the lower tiers, in order to prevent cross strains on the
runners.
 That the timbers should fit as evenly as possible, as thereby the
whole erection is rendered more stable.
That joints between the runners should occur immediately over the
standards.
The several parts of this structure, if for temporary purposes, can
be connected by dog irons; if for a more permanent use, by bolts and
straps.

Pole Scaffolds
Bricklayers’ Scaffolds.—A bricklayer’s scaffold consists of a
series of upright poles or standards, to which are lashed horizontal
poles, termed ledgers. The ledgers and the wall of the building carry
the putlogs, on which boards are laid to support the workman, his
material, and tools (fig. 13).
The standards are first erected, and may stand singly or in pairs.
In a repairing job, unless of great height, and where there is no great
weight of material, single poles are sufficient.
Where double poles are required, the first pair are erected of
different lengths.
The short pole is termed a puncheon. The difference of length
allows of a lap in connecting the succeeding poles.
The lap should equal half of the full-length pole. The standards are
placed 6 to 8 feet apart, and from 4 to 6 feet away from the building.
 Fig. 13.—Elevation of Pole Scaffold
The butt-ends are embedded about 2 feet in the ground, which
affords some resistance to overturning. If they cannot be embedded,
they should be placed on end in barrels filled with earth tightly
rammed. As the building rises additional poles are added, being
lashed to the standards already erected.
If the standard is a single pole, the second pole, having a lap of 10
or 15 feet, stands upon a putlog placed close to the first pole for that
purpose (fig. 14).
The inner end of the putlog is securely fastened down to the
scaffold or inserted into the building.
If the standard is double, the rising pole is placed upon the top end
of the puncheon, and afterwards others are placed on end upon the
lowest free end of the standards already fixed.
 Fig. 14.—Method of Fixing Rising Standard
As the standards rise, they are spliced or ‘married’ together with
band ties.
At a height of 5 feet, this distance being the greatest at which a
man can work with ease, a ledger is tied across the standards to
form a support for the working platform.
Where a single pole is insufficient in length to form a continuous
ledger, two are joined in one of three ways.

Fig. 15
 In the first they are lapped over each other as fig. 15. This method
gives a strong connection, but prevents the putlogs being laid evenly.

Fig. 16
The second way provides that the ledgers shall lap horizontally
side by side. This allows of evenness of line for the putlogs, but is
not so strong (fig. 16).
 In both of these methods the lap should cover two standards, and
not as shown in fig. 17.
The third manner of connection (fig. 18) is the best. The ledgers
butt end to end. Underneath, a short pole is placed crossing two
standards. The tying at the standard embraces the double ledger. A
band tie is run round the supporting pole and the ends of the ledgers
where they butt.
Great strength is obtained in this way and the putlogs can be
evenly laid.
Additional ledgers are fixed as the work proceeds.

Fig. 17
On the ledgers, and at right angles to them, putlogs are laid,
resting outwardly on the ledgers and inwardly on the wall, where
header bricks have been left out for their reception.
 Fig. 18
The putlogs, which are placed about 3 or 4 feet apart, should be
tied to the ledgers and fastened by wedges into the wall. This is not
often done, but at least one putlog to every tying between standard
and ledger should be so treated.
Where the putlogs cannot be carried by the wall owing to an
aperture in the building, such as a window, they are supported by
bearers fixed as shown in figs. 19 and 20.
Fig. 19
 Fig. 20
By wedging the inner end of the putlog into the wall, some stability
is given to the scaffold, but the connection cannot be considered
satisfactory, as the putlog would draw under very little strain. Greater
stability can be gained if the outer frame of the scaffold is supported
by one of the three methods given as follows.
 Fig. 21.—Shores and Ties for Dependent Scaffolds
A shore or tie can be fixed between the erection and the ground as
shown in fig. 21, or, if there are openings in the wall, supports can be
fixed as ties shown in the same diagram.
The ties or struts should be placed to every third or fourth standard
at about 25 feet from the ground, and their fastenings made good.
Additional ties should be carried within the building at a greater
height where possible. The stability of the scaffold under loads and
cross wind pressure, depends greatly upon the ties or shores, and
their fastenings should be well made and kept in good order. The
historical instance of the mechanic who, to escape a shower of rain,
stood upon the inner board of the platform, and by leaning against
the building pushed the scaffold over, should have no opportunity of
recurrence.

Fig. 22
To stiffen the scaffold longitudinally braces are tied on the outside
of the scaffold in the form of a St. Andrew’s cross (see fig. 13).
They start from the lower end of one standard and rise obliquely
across the scaffold to near the top, or some distance up a standard
in the same run. Tied at their crossing-point, connections are made
to all the main timbers of the scaffold with which they come in
contact. Braces are fixed in all exposed situations, and generally
where the scaffold is more than one pole (30 feet) in height.

Fig. 23
The only exception to effective bracing being carried out is where
the building, being of irregular form, creates many breaks and
returns in the scaffolding. It is obvious that where a scaffold butts
against or breaks with a return wall, the tendency to lateral motion is
lessened.
The boards, which are placed longitudinally across the putlogs,
can be laid to lap or butt at their ends. When lapping, one putlog only
is required to carry the ends of two series of boards (fig. 22).
When butting, two putlogs are required placed about 4 inches
apart (fig. 23).
The second method is the better, as the boards are not so likely to
lose their place or to trip the workmen. If heavy work is in progress
the boards are laid double. As the building rises, the boards are
carried up to each successive platform, but each tied putlog is left in
its place.
 Fig. 24.—Masons’ Scaffolds: End Elevation

Masons’ Scaffolds.—Masons’, or independent scaffolds differ

from the bricklayers’ in that they have to be self-contained. Owing to
the different material of which the building is erected, the putlogs
cannot rest upon the wall. If openings were left for them, as in
brickwork, the wall would be permanently disfigured, more especially
when ashlar fronted.
In order to gain the necessary support two parallel frames of
standards and ledgers are erected along the line of wall to be built
(fig. 24).
They are from 4 to 5 feet apart, the inner frame being as close to
the wall as possible. As a heavier material has to be dealt with, the
standards are placed closer together, say from 4 to 5 feet.

Fig. 25.—Landing Stages

The ledgers and braces are placed as before, the putlogs now
resting on ledgers at each end, and not on the wall at the innermost
end, as in the bricklayer’s scaffold.
To prevent cross movement of the scaffold, an additional method
of bracing is available in this system. An inner and outer standard
are connected by short braces across each bay, as shown in fig. 24.
This method of cross-bracing can be continued to the top of the
scaffold, and the braces should be put in longitudinally, about 20 feet
apart.
The platforms laid on all pole-scaffolds are from 4 to 5 feet wide. It
is usually necessary, on anything but the smallest jobs, to keep this
width free for the workman and his material.
In order, therefore, to provide a platform on which the material can
be landed, it is convenient to erect, on the outside of the scaffold, an
additional platform from 5 to 10 feet square (fig. 25).
It is constructed of standards, ledgers, and braces, in like manner
as the scaffold to which it is attached.
The face-boards, as shown in this figure, should be fixed wherever
material is being hoisted, to prevent any projection of the load
catching under a ledger and upsetting.

Connections.—The members of pole scaffolds are connected by

cordage. The names of the various knots are given in Chapter V.
The arranging of the various timbers used in erecting scaffolds is a
dangerous occupation, and one requiring skill and considerable
nerve on the part of the workmen. In the majority of cases, the
timbers on the ground level are placed in position by manual labour
only, shear legs being used to facilitate matters. When the scaffold
rises, advantage is taken of any rigid member on which pulley
wheels can be hung, and by this means the succeeding poles, &c.
are raised, manual dexterity and strength being responsible for their
final position.
 CHAPTER II

SCAFFOLDS FOR SPECIAL PURPOSES

When applying the given methods for scaffolding, difficulties arise
owing to the varying designs of the buildings under construction or
repair.
It is impossible to deal with these cases in detail; they must be left
to the scaffolder, who, while holding closely to the principles, by the
exercise of ingenuity will make combinations and variations of the
various systems to suit the special requirements demanded in each
case. There are, however, certain types of scaffolding which occur
with some regularity, and these will now be dealt with.

Needle Scaffolding.—Needle scaffolding is necessary where it is

impossible or too expensive to carry the scaffold from the ground
level or other solid base. It is used both for repairing and new
erections.
The needles from which the scaffold takes its name are timbers
(usually poles or balks) placed horizontally through and at right
angles, or nearly so, to the wall of the building. The projections
support a platform upon which an ordinary pole scaffold is erected
(fig. 26).
Windows, or other openings in the wall, are utilised where possible
for the poles to pass through. In other cases holes have to be made
in the walls, cut as nearly as can be to the size of the needles in use.
The needles must be of sufficient scantling to carry the weight of
the scaffold and attendant loads. The stability of the structure
depends upon the means taken to fasten down the inner end of the
needle.
The usual plan is to tie it down to a convenient joist or other rigid
member of the building itself, but the method shown on the diagram
is better, as resistance to movement is gained both from above and
below.
 Struts from the building below the needles to their outer end, give
greater strength to the beam.
When erecting needle scaffolding around buildings of small area,
say of a tower or chimney shaft, the needles can be laid across the
building in one length, piercing the wall on opposite sides. In these
cases, if the needles are wedged in, the weight of the building and
the scaffold itself on the opposite ends of the needles, is sufficient to
maintain equilibrium.
 Fig. 26.—Needle Scaffold
The platform is formed of 9-in. by 3-in. deals, and on this is
erected whatever scaffolding may be necessary.

Scaffolds for Chimney Shafts, Towers, and Steeples.—The

erection of chimney shafts can be carried on entirely by the aid of
internal scaffolding. As the work rises putlogs are laid across the
shaft, the ends being well built into the wall. On the putlogs the
platform is laid, being carried up as the work proceeds. The putlogs
may be left in for the time, and struck on completion. The platform is
fitted in its centre with a hinged flap door through which the material
is hoisted as required.
There is some objection to this method of scaffolding where the
wall is more than 1 foot 101⁄2 inches thick (which is the greatest
depth of brickwork over which a man can reach and do finished
work), for the mechanics, in order to reach the outside joints, have to
kneel on the freshly laid material, which is detrimental to good
workmanship. For this reason the system of carrying up an ordinary
pole scaffold externally until the height is reached where the wall is
reduced to 1 foot 101⁄2 inches in thickness, is to be preferred.
The walls of a chimney shaft decrease in thickness 41⁄2 inches at a
time, forming an internal set-back of that width at every 20 feet in
height.
This set-back is of advantage to internal scaffolding when the full
height of the brickwork is reached, and the cap has to be fixed. The
cap or coping, when of stone or iron, does not admit of the insertion
of putlogs. To overcome the difficulty, four or more standards are
erected at equal distances, and standing upon the top set-back (fig.
27).
The standards project sufficiently to carry the pulley wheel well
above the total height of the chimney, in order to give head room and
to assist the workman in fixing the coping.
To stiffen the standards, short ledgers are tied across as shown in
fig. 27.