EMBRYOLOGY

1. Which of the following synthesize progesterone?

a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytiotrophoblast
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A or B

2. All occur during the morula stage except:

a) Attachment to the uterine epithelium takes place
b) The location of the cells dictates their fate
c) The outer cells pump fluid creating a fluid-filled blastocele
d) Tight junctions appear between cells at the periphery, isolating the inner
Cells from the uterine fluid

3. During the first week of human development:

a) The zona pellicoda is formed
b) The cells of the embryo increase in number but become smaller
c) The cells of the embryo increase in size
d) Implantation is completed
e) None of the above

4. During the second week of human development:

a) The trophoblast differentiates into cytotrophoblast & syncytiotrophoblast
b) The utero-placental circulation begins
c) The inner cell mass differentiation into hypoblast and epiblast
d) Primary stem villi appear
e) All of the above

5. As a result of transverse and longitudinal folding of the embryo:

a) The prochordal membrane is moved ventrally and caudally
b) Position of yolk sac becomes incorporated into embryonic body
c) The primitive groove is moved cranially & dorsally
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

6. Which of the following is/are normally always interposed between fetal and
maternal blood:
a) Extraembronic mesoderm
b) Maternal endothelial cells
c) Syncytiotrophoblast
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above
7. Maternal blood normally comes into contact with:
a) Syncytiotrophoblast
b) Cytotrophoblast
c) Fetal blood cells
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

8. Which of the following is not a function of the yolk sac in humans?

a) Site of origin of primodial germ cells
b) Site of origin of fetal blood cells
c) Provides nourishment/metabolic reserves for the embryo
d) Site of origin of epithelium of the primitive gut
e) Facilitates transfer of nutrients into the early embryo

9. At the time of ovulation the endometrium is in the:

a) Menstral phase
b) Early proliferative phase
c) Late proliferative phase
d) Early secretory phase
e) Late secretory phase

10. Lines in the chorionic after the third developmental week are:
a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytiotrophopblast
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

11. Always normally situated between maternal and fetal blood:

a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytiotrophoblast
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

12. Bleeding may occur near the 13th day of development:

a) May be confused with normal menstral bleeding
b) Is caused by increased blood flow into lacunar spaces
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

13. The extraembryonic membrane which contributes the most tissue to the
formation of the placenta is the:
a) Amnion
b) Chorion
c) Yolk sac
d) Connecting (body) stalk
e) Decidua
14. The extraembryonic epiblast gives rise to or contributes cells to which of the
following germ layers?
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

15. The primitive streak:

a) Is derived from the outer cells of the morula
b) Is formed during the second week in development
c) Persists as the cloacal membrane
d) Is the site of involution of epiblast cells to form mesoderm

16. The bilaminar germ disc:

a) Consists of hypoblast and epiblast
b) Is derived from trophoblast cells
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

17. Meiosis is completed within the gonads during gametogenesis in which sex?
a) Gametogenesis in human female
b) Gametogenesis in human male
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

18. Female pronucleus are fully formed:

a) Before fertilization
b) After fertilization
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

19. The conceptus is the:

a) Embryo/fetus
b) Amnion and Chorion
c) Deciduas
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

20. Functions of the placenta include all the following except:

a) Exchange of maternal and fetal blood
b) Exchange of nutrients and electrolytes
c) Hormone production
d) Gas exchange
e) Transmission of maternal antibodies
21. The secondary oocyte undergoes completion of the second maturation
division:
a) Before ovulation
b) At fertilization
c) After ovulation
d) Prenatally
e) At puberty

22. The ovarian follicular cells release:

a) Follicle stimulating hormone
b) Chorionic Gonadotrophin
c) Estrogen
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

23. The most common site for implantation in ectopic pregnancy is the::
a) Internal os of the uterus
b) Mesentary
c) Ovary
d) Oviduct
e) None of the above

24. At the time of initiation of implantation:

a) The endometrium is in the proliferative phase
b) The predominant ovarian hormone is progesterone
c) The conceptus is approximately one day "old" (postfertilization)
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

25. All is true about primary oocytes except:

a) Are arrested in prophase of the first meiotic division
b) Continue to form after birth
c) Together, with surrounding epithelial cells, for a primordial follicle
d) Suffer from atretion until only approximately 40, 000 are left at puberty

26. Trophoblast and inner cell mass portions are evident in the:
a) Conceptus before implantation has started
b) Conceptus after implantation has started
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

27. At fertilization:
a) The ovum completes the 2nd meiotic division
b) Cleavage is initiated
c) The sex of the individual is determined
d) The diploid number of chromosomes is restored
e) All of the above
28. All the following are derivatives of mesoderm except:
a) Dermatomes
b) Myotomes
c) Sclerotomes
d) Endothelium
e) Yolk sac

29. The prechordal plate:

a) Is a patent inducer region for future head structures
b) Becomes a portion of the oropharyngeal membrane
c) Is formed within the embryonic epiblast
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

30. At the time of fertilization, the endometrium is in the:

a) Proliferative phase
b) Secretory phase
c) Menstral phase
d) Both B and C

31. Which of the following contains abundant nutrient reserves?

a) Female gametes
b) Male gametes
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

32. Which of the following determines the genetic sex of the zygote?
a) Female gametes
b) Male gametes
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

33. Which of the following is found in the early placenta?

a) Cytotrophoblast
b) Syncytiotrophoblast
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

34. The space between the somatopleuric and splanchnopleuric extraembryonic

mesoderm is known as:
a) The primitive yolk sac
b) The secondary yolk sac
c) The blastocele
d) The amniotic cavity
e) The extraembryonic coelom
35. As a result of fertilization:
a) Sex of the offspring is determined
b) The diploid number of chromosomes is restored
c) Cleavage divisions are initiated
d) Genetic heterogeneity is maintained
e) All of the above

36. At the time of the first missing menstrual period, the conceptus is:
a) 3 days old
b) 5 days old
c) 3 weeks old
d) 5 weeks old

37. Primary oocytes have developed by the time of birth. From puberty to
menopause, these germ cells remain suspended in the meiotic prophase. The
oocyte of a mature follicle is induced to undergo the first meiotic division just
prior to ovulation as a result of which of the following hormonal stimuli:
a) The cessation of progesterone secretion
b) The gradual elevation of FSH titers
c) The low estrogen titers associated with the maturing follicle
d) The slow elevation of progesterone produced by luteal cells
e) The surge of luteinizing hormone initiated by high estrogen titers

38. By the 4th day of development, fluid accumulation by the morula results is
separation of the cells into trophoblasts and embryoblasts, or inner cell mass.
From the 8th-12th day of development, the role of trophoblasts includes all of the
following except:
a) Enclosure of inner cell mass and blastocyst cavity
b) Formation of embryo proper
c) Invasion of endometrial epithelium
d) Production of hormones
e) Production of 2 distinct cell populations by differentiation

39. A 26 year old man had viral influenza with fever 39.5o for 3 days. Since
spermatogenesis cannot occur above a scrotal temperature of 35.5 o, he was left
with no viable sperm on his recovery. The time required for spermatogenesis,
spermiogenesis, passage of a viable sperm to the epididymis is approximately:
a) 3 days
b) 1 week
c) 5 weeks
d) 2 months
e) 4 months
40. A 25 year old female states that she has a very regular menstrual cycle that is
24 days in length. The projected time of ovulation for this woman would be
about the:
a) 14th day following start of her last menstrual period
b) 12th day following end of her last menstrual period
c) 12th day following end of her last menstrual period
d) 10th day following end of her last menstrual period
e) 10th day following beginning of her last menstrual period

41. The chorionic villi of the placenta are most numerous in the region of the:
a) Decidua capsularis
b) Chorionic plate
c) Basal plate
d) Maternal septae
e) Decidua basalis

42. The following list contains components of the "placental barrier" during the
first trimester of pregnancy. Which one component is disappearing during late
pregnancy?
a) The endothelial lining of fetal capillaries
b) The cytotrophoblast
c) The syncytiotrophoblast
d) The basement membrane of fetal capillaries
e) None of the above

43. All of the following placental transport mechanism require the expenditure of
cellular energy except:
a) Active transport
b) Pinocytosis
c) Simple diffusion
d) Facilitated diffusion

44. A full-term male infant has vomited 1 hour after suckling. There has been
failure to gait during the first 2 weeks postnatal. The vomitus is not bile-stained
and no respiratory dilation is evident. Wxamination reveals an abdomen neither
tense nor bloated. The most probable explaination is:
a) Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
b) Duodenal atresia
c) Patient ileal diverticulum
d) Imperforate anus
e) Tracheo-esophageal fistula
45. A fistula is found that runs between the palatine tonsil fossa and the skin of
the neck immediately anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Developmetal
failure occured:
a) With a rupture of the tissue between the third branchial cleft and third
pharyngeal pouch
b) With a failure to close the first branchial cleft
c) With a failure to obliterate the cervical sinus
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

46. Which statement about fetal blood vessels is false:

a) The ductus arteriosus carries blood from the aorta to the pulmonary trunk
b) The foramen ovale carries blood from the right atrium to the left atrium
c) The umbilical vein carries blood from the umbilical cord via the ductus
venosus to the inferior vena cave
d) Implantation is completed
e) None of the above

47. Regarding the blastocyst all the following are true except:
a) Has more cells than a morula
b) Has inner cell mass
c) Has syncytotrophoblast
d) Has trophoblast cells
e) May have zona pellucida

48. Derivatives of the mesodermal cell layer of the embryo include all the
following except:
a) Adrenal cortex
b) Gonads
c) Peritoneal serosa
d) Spleen
e) Liver parenchyma

49. In the developing embryo, the first bone to begin ossification is the:
a) First rib
b) Humerus
c) Tibia
d) Scapula
e) Clavicle

50. Fallot's tetralogy includes all the following except:

a) Pulmonary stenosis
b) Aortic overriding
c) Ventricular septal defect
d) Patency of ductus arteriosus
e) Hypertrophy of the right ventricle
51. The trachea develops from the:
a) Septum transversum
b) Fifth branchial arch
c) Thyroglossal canal
d) Pulmonary mesenchyme
e) Foregut

52. In the developing pancreas, the dorsal bud contributes all the following
except:
a) Body of the pancreas
b) Distal portion of the main pancreatic duct
c) Secondary pancreatic duct
d) Uncinate process
e) Upper half of the head of the pancreas

53. All of the following structures contribute in development of diaphragm

except:
a) Body wall
b) Primitive mesoesophagus
c) Septum transversum
d) Pleuro-pericardial membrane
e) Pleuro-peritoneal membrane

54. Spina bifida is a failure of fusion between the:

a) Left and right halves of the vertebral column
b) Pedicle and centrum of the vertebra
c) Left and right laminae of the vertebra
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

55. A urachal fistula represents a remnant of the:

a) Cloaca
b) Allantois
c) Urogenital sinus
d) Hindgut
e) Mesonephric duct

56. What is the origin of the mucosa of the middle ear?

a) Neural ectoderm
b) Surface ectoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Endoderm
e) None of the above

57. The left sixth aortic arch gives rise to the:

a) Hemiazygos vein
b) Coronary sinus
c) Ligamentum arteriosum
d) Ligamentum venosum
e) No remnants are found in this structure in the adult
58. The posterior pituitary is of which origin:
a) Endoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Ectoderm
d) Endoderm and mesoderm
e) Endoderm and ectoderm

59. The parathyroid glands:

a) They are 3 in number
b) They secrete Calcitonia
c) They develop from the 2nd pharyngeal arch
d) They normally lie anterior to the thyroid gland
e) They develop from the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal arches (pouches)

60. Unilateral upper lip cleft is due to failure of fusion of:

a) Medial nasal processes
b) Maxillary and lateral nasal processes
c) Maxillary and medial nasal processes on one side
d) Maxillary and mandibular processes
e) Medial and lateral nasal processes unilaterally

61. In which of the following is precursor cell mitosis evident after puberty:
a) Female gametes
b) Male gametes
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

62. What is the origin of the mucosa of the oral pharynx?

a) Branchial arch I
b) Branchial arch II
c) Branchial arch III
d) Branchial arch IV
e) Not of branchial arch origin

63. Which of the following is formed from portions of one sclerotome:

a) Vertebral centrum
b) Intervertebral disc (annulus fibrosus)
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

64. The clavicle is:

a) The first bone to begin ossification
b) The first bone to complete ossification
c) Intramembranous in origin
d) Both A and C
e) All of the above
65. Limb musculature:
a) Relies on spinal nerve to aid the differentiation process
b) Begins as mesenchymal condensation
c) Is derived from somatic mesoderm
d) Splits into flexor and extensor compartments
e) All of the above

66. Cervical sinus develop from:

a) Pharyngeal pouch 1
b) Pharyngeal pouch 2
c) Pharyngeal pouch 3
d) Pharyngeal pouch 4
e) This structure is not derived from pharyngeal pouch

67. Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland develop from:

a) Pharyngeal pouch 1
b) Pharyngeal pouch 2
c) Pharyngeal pouch 3
d) Pharyngeal pouch 4
e) This structure is not derived from pharyngeal pouch

68. During the third to sixth months of pregnancy, the structure primarily
responsible for erythropoiesis is the:
a) Bone marrow
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Thymus
e) Yolk sac

69. Structures derived from the hind gut in the male include all the following
except the:
a) Allantois
b) Descending colon
c) Inferior portion of the anal canal
d) Prostatic urethtra
e) Urinary bladder

70. With regard to the formation of the placenta all of the following are false
except:
a) Tertiary chorionic villi differ from primary chorionic villi by the presence
of blood vessels
b) Primary chorionic villi contain only syncytiotrophoblast
c) The intervillous space contains fetal blood
d) The deciduas basalis and the chorion leave constitute the placenta
e) The umbilical cord contains a loose connective tissue called Wharton's jelly
71. The endocardial cushions are involved in the formation of all of the following
except:
a) Right and left atrioventricular canals
b) Pectinate muscles
c) Atrioventricular valves
d) Membranous part of the interventricular septum

72. Which of the following is the most common type of congenital heart
malformation?
a) Dextrocardia
b) Atrial septal defect
c) Ectopic cordis
d) Ventricular septal defect
e) Transposition of the great vessels

73. The adult left atrium is derived embryologically primarily from the:
a) Right horn of the sinus venosus
b) Primitive pulmonary vein
c) Sinus venarum
d) Bulbus cordis
e) Ledt horn of the sinus venosus

74. The primitive aortic arch pattern is transformed into an adult arterial
arrangement. Which pair of arteries (embryonic/adult) is incorrect:
a) 6th arch/ pulmonary artery
b) Right 4th arch/ right subclavian
c) Left 4th arch/ left subclavian
d) 2nd arch/ stapedial artery
e) 3rd arch/ common and internal carotid

75. Azygos vein is derived from the:

a) Right vitelline vein
b) Right subcardinal vein
c) Right anterior cardinal
d) Right supracardinal vein
e) All of the above

76. All of the following are true concerning development of the bronchi except:
a) Lung buds first form at the caudal end of the laryngotracheal tube
b) During the 5th week of development, the lung bud grows laterally into the
primitive pleural cavities (pericardioperitoneal canals)
c) Third generation bronchi supply bronchopulmonary segments
d) The pulmonary cartilage, smooth muscle, and connective tissue are derived
from the lung bud endoderm
e) By 24 weeks of development, respiratory bronchioles are present
77. Tracheoesophageal fistula with blind ending esophagus results in:
a) Polyhydraminos (more than usual amount of amniontic fluid)
b) Oligohydraminos (less than usual amount of amniotic fluid)
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

78. The definitive diaphragm is formed by fusions of all except one of the
following:
a) Mesoesophagus
b) Septum transversum
c) Pleuroperitoneal membranes
d) Mesentery of duct of Cavier
e) Mesoderm of the body wall

79. Paraxial (somite) mesoderm gives rise to:

a) Muscles of mastication
b) Muscles in the stomach
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

80. The embryonic epiblast gives rise to or contributes cells to which of the
following germ layers?
a) Ectoderm
b) Mesoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Both A and B
e) All of the above

81. Gonia cells produced during gametogenesis are usually present in 65-year old
individuals of which sex:
a) Gametogenesis in human female
b) Gametogenesis in human male
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

82. All of the following are true of amniotic fluid except:

a) It is derived from maternal blood
b) It is swallowed by the fetus from the beginning of the 5th month
c) It restricts fetal movement within the amniotic cavity
d) It absorbs jolts to the fetus

83. Epithelium of the tongue posterior to the sulcus terminals is derived from
the:
a) First branchial arch
b) Second branchial arch
c) Third branchial arch
d) Fourth branchial arch
e) Not of branchial arch origin
84. What is the origin of the superior parathyroid glands?
a) Pharyngeal pouch I
b) Pharyngeal pouch II
c) Pharyngeal pouch III
d) Pharyngeal pouch IV
e) Not of pharyngeal pouch origin

85. What is the origin of the mandible?

a) Branchial arch I
b) Branchial arch II
c) Branchial arch III
d) Branchial arch IV
e) Not of the branchial arch origin

86. The thyroid gland:

a) Originates from an endodermal outgrowth at the base of the primordial
tongue
b) Is usually detached from the Thyroglossal duct in the adult
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B