K.K.

Wagh College of Agriculture, Nashik

Course No.: FST- 362 (New) Course Credits: 2+0=2

Course Title: Principles of Food Science and Nutrition
Course Teacher – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Carbohydrates containing 3-10 mono-saccharides linked together by glycosidic bond are called
a) Polysaccharides c) Oligosaccharides
b) Monosaccharides d) Disaccharides

2. Which is sweetest of all sugars

a) Glucose c) Sucrose
b) Galactose d)Fructose

3. Each gram of carbohydrate, as starch or sugar, provides

a) 5 kcal/g c) 9 kcal/g
b) 4 kcal/g d) 1 kcal/g

4. Each gram of fat provides

a) 5 kcal/g c) 9 kcal/g
b) 4 kcal/g d) 1 kcal/g

5. The best temperature range for flavor evaluation is

a) 10-20°C c) 20-30°C
b) 0-10°C d) 15-25°C

6. Carbohydrates act also as reserve fuel supply in the form of

a) Glycogen c) Cholesterol
b) Starch d) Glucose

7. The average nitrogen content of proteins is about……...

a) 28 % c) 16%
b) 53 % d) 75%

8. Proteins which on complete hydrolysis yield only amino acids as an end product are
a) Conjugated Proteins c) Derived Proteins
b) Simple Proteins d) Complex Proteins

9. Proteins which are attached to non- protein substances or prosthetic group are
a) Conjugated Proteins c) Derived Proteins
b) Simple Proteins d) Complex Proteins

10. Which of the following is not fat soluble vitamin

a) A c) E
b) B d) K

FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary

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11. Which of the following is not an active form of vitamin A in the body
a) Retinol c) Retinal
b) Retinoic acid d) β-carotene

12. Deficiency of Niacin causes

a) Xerophthalmia c) Pellagra
b) Beriberi d) Osteomalacia

13. Fatty acids which contain no double bonds between carbon atoms are
a) Polyunsaturated c) Monounsaturated
b) Saturated d) Triglycerides

14. Which of the following is not a derived lipid

a) Wax c) Terpenes
b) Steroids d) Carotenoids

15. Extra-nutritional constituents that typically occur in small quantities in foods

a) Vitamins c) Bioactive compounds
b) Flavours d) Minerals

16. Which of the following is non- perishable food

a) Fruits c) Potato
b) Meat d) Sugar

17. Which micro-organism is known as Brewer’s yeast

a) Salmonela c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
b) Aspergillus d) E. coli

18. Sugar concentration of ……….. and above is required to inhibit mould growth
a) 50% c) 40%
b) 65% d) 25%

19. Non-acidic foods are spoiled mainly by

a) Yeast c) Moulds
b) Enzymes d) Bacteria

20. Which of the following method doesn’t prevent or delay microbial decomposition
a) Antioxidants c) Asepsis
b) Filtration d) Radiation

21. Which of the following method of preservation does not involve lowering aw
a) Salt c) Canning
b) Sugar d) Freeze drying

22. Which preservation method is known as “cold sterilization”

a) Freeze drying c) Sharp freezing
b) Radiation d) Cold storage

23. Sensory testing designed to determine whether detectable differences exist between samples is
a) Discrimination testing c) Preference testing
b) Descriptive testing d) Hedonic test

FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary

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24. Sensory testing designed to determine the acceptability between products is
a) Discrimination testing c) Preference testing
b) Descriptive testing d) Triangle test

25. Sensory testing which provides information on selected characteristics of food samples and
determining the sensory profile of the products is
a) Discrimination testing c) Preference testing
b) Descriptive testing d) Hedonic test

26. The cellular imbalance between the supply of nutrients and energy and the body’s demand for
them to ensure growth, maintainance and specific functions is called
a) Undernutrition c) Overnutrition
b) PEM d) Malnutrition

27. Range of pathological conditions arising from coincident lack of dietary protein and/or energy in
varying proportions.
a) Undernutrition c) Overnutrition
b) PEM d) Malnutrition

28. Any diet altered to include certain components such as calories, fat, vitamins and minerals.
a) Modified diet c) Balanced diet
b) Fortified diet d) Menu planning

29. Full form of FSSAI is

a) Food Standards and Safety Agency of India
b) Food Safety and Standards Agency of India
c) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
d) Food Standards and Safety Authority of India

30. Full form of ICDS is

a) International Child Development Services
b) Indian Child Development Services
c) Integrated Child Development System
d) Integrated Child Development Services

31. Full form of PEM is

a) Protein Energy Metabolism c) Pulsed Electric Method
b) Protein Energy Malnutrition d) Pulsed Electrical Method

32. Nutritional anemia is caused mainly due to deficiency of

a) Iron c) Protein
b) Carbohydrate d) Iodine

33. Oedema is observed in

a) Marasmus c) Kwashiorkor
b) Goiter d)Xerophthalmia

34. Saliva contains ……… enzyme

a) Lactase c) Maltase
b) Sucrase d) Amylase

FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary

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35. High Protein diet is not recommended for
a) Burns c) Fever
b) Kidney disorders d) Hyper thyroidism

36. In balanced diet the ratio of energy distribution from Carbohydrates, proteins and Fats should be
a) 7:1:2 c) 7:2:1
b) 2:1:7 d) 2:7:1

37. Full form of RDA

a) Recommended Daily Allowances c) Recommended Dietary Allowances
b) Required Daily Allowances d) Required Dietary Allowances

38. Golden Rice variety of rice is genetically engineered to biosynthesize ……..

a) α-carotene c) γ-carotene
b) β-carotene d) Lycopene

39. Which of the following nutrient is not used for fortification

a) Vitamin A c) Folic acid
b) Calcium d) Protein

40. Yellow revolution includes

a) Oilseed Production c) Coffee Production
b) Milk Production d) Fish Production

41. Brown revolution includes

c) Oilseed Production c) Coffee Production
d) Milk Production d) Fish Production

42. Full Form of NFSM is

a) National Food Security Mission c) Nutritional Food Security Mission
b) Nutritional Food Supply Management d) National Food Supply Management

43. Headquarters of WHO is in

a) New York c) Paris
b) Rome d) Geneva

44. Headquarters of FAO is in

a) New York c) Paris
b) Rome d) Geneva

45. Vernier caliper is used for measuring

a) Shape c) Size
b) Volume d) Porosity

46. No microbes can multiply below water activity of

a) 0.6 c) 1.0
b) 0.7 d) 0.7

47. Penetrometer is used to measure

a) Colour c) Sphericity
b) Firmness d) Density

FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary

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48. Process of keeping out micro-organisms is called as
a) Filteration c) Blanching
b) Oxidation d) Asepsis

49. Father of Canning is

a) Louis Pasteur c) Nicholas Appert
b) Napolean Bonaparte d) Peter Durand

50. Foods rich in ……….. are called body building foods

a) Carbohydrates c) Fats
b) Proteins d) Vitamins

51. …………… is known as Sunshine vitamin

a) Vitamin C c) Vitamin E
b) Vitamin K d) Vitamin D

52. Which vitamin is required for blood clotting

a) Vitamin K c) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B1 d) Vitamin C

53. The addition of one or more essential nutrients to a food, whether or not it is normally contained
in the food, for the purpose of preventing or correcting a demonstrated nutrient deficiency in the
population or specific population groups is
a) Enrichment c) Substitution
b) Fortification d) Restoration

54. Iodized salt is example of

a) Enrichment c) Substitution
b) Fortification d) Restoration

55. Addition of nutrients to replace the ones that were lost during processing is
a) Enrichment c) Substitution
b) Fortification d) none of the above

56. Foods aimed at specific subgroups of the population are fortified, thereby increasing the intake of
that particular group rather than that of the population as a whole
a) Mass fortification c) Targeted fortification
b) Biofortification d) Market driven fortification

57. Addition of one or more micro-nutrients to foods commonly consumed by the general public is
a) Mass fortification c) Targeted fortification
b) Biofortification d) Market driven fortification

58. Process of breeding crops to increase their nutritional value is

a) Mass fortification c) Targeted fortification
b) Biofortification d) Market driven fortification

59. Which of the following is true for fortification

a) There should be a demonstrated need for increasing the intake of the nutrient
b) Nutrient added should be sufficient to correct or prevent deficiency
c) The food selected for fortification should be consumed by the population at risk.

FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary

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d) All of the above

60. Golden rice is example of

a) Mass fortification c) Targeted fortification
b) Biofortification d) Market driven fortification

61. High pressure processing is also known as cold pasteurization

a) True
b) False

62. Full form of HPP is

a) High Pulsed Processing c) High Pressure Processing
b) High Pulsed Pasteurization d) None of the above

63. Which of the following is thermal processing method

a) HPP c) PEF
b) Cold Plasma d) Ohmic processing

64) Cavitation bubbles are formed in which processing method

a) HPP c) PEF
b) Ultrasound processing d) Ohmic processing

65. Technique by which the sensitive ingredients are packed within a coating or protective wall
material to preserve organoleptic and physico-chemical properties of the original products is
a) Encapsulation technology c) PEF
b) Ultrasound processing d) Ohmic processing

66. ………….. is a quasi-neutral ionized gas comprising of positive ions, negative ions, free radicals,
electrons, excited or non-excited molecules and photons at or near room temperature.
a) HPP c) PEF
b) Cold Plasma d) Ohmic processing

67. …………… technology involves the application of microsecond pulses of high voltage to liquid
or semi-solid foods placed between two electrodes.
a) Encapsulation technology c) PEF
b) Ultrasound processing d) Ohmic processing

68. The Mid-day Meal Scheme first started in …….

a) Bihar c) West Bengal
c) Rajasthan d) Tamil Nadu

69. Balwadi nutrition program is for children of age ………….

a) 1-3 years c) 5-8 years
b) 3-5 years d) > 8 years

70. Integrated Child Development Services

a) Children >6 years c) Pregnant ladies
b) Lactating mothers d) All of the above

FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary

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 Answer Key
1. C 51. D
2. D 52. A
3. B 53. B
4. C 54. B
5. C 55. A
6. A 56. C
7. C 57. A
8. B 58. B
9. A 59. D
10. B 60. B
11. D 61. A
12. C 62. C
13. B 63. D
14. A 64. B
15. C 65. A
16. D 66. B
17. C 67. C
18. B 68. D
19. D 69. B
20. A 70. D
21. C
22. B
23. A
24. C
25. B
26. D
27. B
28. A
29. C
30. D
31. B
32. A
33. C
34. D
35. B
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. A
41. C
42. A
43. D
44. B
45. C
46. A
47. B
48. D
49. C
50. B

FST 362 MCQ – Dr. P. R. Chaudhary

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