@PW LECTURES 01 TE CoE JEEAdvanced Test 3 Paper 2 Code B 2018

16/09/2018 Code-B
P- 2
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456
Term Exam for JEE (Advanced)(CoE)-2020

Test - 3 (Paper - 2)
MM: 183 Time : 3 Hours
Topics covered :
Physics : System of Particles and Rotational Motion : Vector Product of Two Vectors, Torque,
Equilibrium of a Rigid Body, Shifting of Normal Reaction and Toppling, ,Moment of
Inertia for Discrete Particle System, Uniform Symmeteric Bodies. Theorems of
Perpendicular and Parallel Axis.,Dynamics of Rotational Motion about a fixed
Axis.,General Motion of a Rigid Body, Kinematics of Rolling Motion,General Motion of
a Rigid Body, Kinematics of Rolling motion,Dynamics of Rolling Motion,Rotational Kinetic
Energy and Work Energy Theorm for Rigid Body.,Angular Momentum of a Particle and
System of Particles. Angular Momentum of Rigid Body,Conservation of Angular
Momentum,Angular Impulse, Instantaneous Axis of Rotation
Chemistry : Thermodynamics + Equilibrium
Mathematics : Permutation and Combinations, Straight Line, Circle

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATE
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all pages and no page
is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and
Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
10. Pattern of the questions are as under :
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part has
3 sections.
(ii) Section-1: This section contains SEVEN multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(iii) Section-2: This section contains SEVEN multiple choice questions which have one or more correct answer(s).
Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong answer. Partial +1 mark is given
for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
(iv) Section-3: This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer.
There is no negative marking.
Term Exam for JEE (Advanced)(CoE)-2020 Test-3_Paper-2 (Code B)
PART - I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains SEVEN multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A prototype train of length, l = 112 m is running at a constant speed with its engine off on horizontal portion of
a track that has a hilly portion as shown in the figure. What should be the minimum speed of the train to pass
over the hill. (Ignore dimension of train)
ll
Hi
37° Train
53°
100 m
(A) 28 m/s (B) 20 m/s

(C) 24 m/s (D) 18 m/s
2. A solid sphere (m, r) is released from point A as shown, path AB is rough so that sphere rolls without slipping
till point B, portion BC is smooth. Path does not exist beyond 'C', so the particle leaves the path from point 'C'.
Then, maximum height attained by sphere from ground, is (given H >> r)
m,r
A
Rough
2H C
H
30°
B
10 22
(A) H (B) H
7 17
41 31
(C) H (D) H
28 28
Space for Rough Work
2/18
Test-3_Paper-2 (Code B) Term Exam for JEE (Advanced)(CoE)-2020
3. Two identical point masses are connected by an ideal string of total length 2l. Both the point masses are placed
at a separation of l over smooth horizontal x-y plane as shown. If a point mass m is given a velocity v0 as shown
then total loss in mechanical energy after long time interval, is
v0
m
3 1
(A) mv 02 (B) mv 02
16 8
1 5
(C) mv 02 (D) mv 02
2 16
4. A point mass M is attached at one end B of a uniform rod of mass M and length 2L. If velocity of end B and O
are as shown, then total kinetic energy of the system is
M
2v0
B
L
v0
O
L
M,L
A
5 8
(A) Mv 02 (B) Mv 02
2 3
10
(C) 3Mv 02 (D) Mv 02
3
3/18
5. Circular disc of radius R is rolling without slippage over surface. If speed of point A is v0, then speed of point B
as shown in figure will be
R B
2
A
O
P
v0
(A) (B) v0
2
3v 0 3v 0
(C) (D)
2 2 2
6. A solid sphere is placed over rough horizontal surface and a horizontal force F is applied as shown, then direction
of frictional force on sphere will be
Solid sphere
(M,R)
R
6
F Rough
(A) Backward (B) Forward

(C) Direction will depend on magnitude of F (D) No friction force will act
7. Plank of mass 4m and length L is placed over smooth surface, if man A and B of masses m and 2m respectively
interchange their position then the displacement of plank, will be
m 2m
A B
4m, L
Smooth
L
(A) L (B)  
7
L L
(C)   (D)  
4 3
4/18
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type
This section contains SEVEN multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
8. Consider a massless spring (spring constant K) whose one end is fixed to the roof of a ceiling. When spring was
in its natural length, a constant force F = 2 mg is applied at its mid point and at the same time a block of mass
m is attached at other end of spring and the system is left to attain the equilibrium state. Now, if F is removed
suddenly, then choose the correct option(s)
g
F = 2mg
m
g
(A) Acceleration of m will be g in upward direction (B) Acceleration of m will be   upward
2
m 2g 2
(C) Loss in mechanical energy will be (D) Loss in mechanical energy will be zero
8k
9. A point mass (m) is attached at the end of a rigid massless rod (l), other end of a rod is hinged at a vertical
wall of box of same mass m as shown {Box is placed over smooth horizontal surface}. If point mass m is given
velocity v as shown, then choose the correct options
Box
(m)
l rod
Smooth
m v
(A) Minimum possible value of v to just complete the vertical circle is 8gl
(B) If v = 8gl , then at the topmost point speed of point mass will be 2gl
(C) If v = 8gl , then at the topmost point speed of point mass will be 4gl
(D) At top most point speed of m will be zero
5/18
10. The system shown in the figure is held in equilibrium by thread S. Choose the correct option(s), immediately after
cutting the thread
B
k m
A 2m
(A) Acceleration of block A will be zero

(B) Acceleration of block B will be zero
(C) Acceleration of block B will be g upward
(D) Spring force in the spring will be 2mg
11. Consider a rigid uniform square plate ABCD placed over smooth horizontal x-y plane. At any instant velocity of
   
point B and C are found to be v B  2i  4 j
  m/s and vC  6i  4 j m/s. If v 0 , v D are the velocities of centre
 
of mass of plate and point D respectively, and  is the angular speed of plate then
y
Plate
D C
x
O
A a B
1m

(A) v 0  4i  6 j
  m/s (B)  = 4 rad/s

(C) v D  10i  20 j
  m/s (D)  = 2 rad/s
6/18
12. Consider two particles of mass m and 2m moving towards each other. If collision is head on and coefficient of
1
restitution is . Then choose the correct option(s)
2
Smooth 2 m/s 1 m/s

m 2m
x
1
e
2
 i 
(A) After collision velocity of 2m will be  2  m/s
 
(B) After collision velocity of m will be i m/s

 
(C) In centre of mass frame linear momentum of system just before and after collision is zero
(D) In centre of mass frame linear momentum of system after the collision is non zero
13. Consider a uniform circular disc (M, R) having a point mass (M) at its circumference. Disc is rolling over a rough
horizontal surface, consider the arrangement shown in the position. At this position, a0 is the acceleration of centre
of disc, w0 and  are the angular velocity and angular acceleration of disc at this instant. Now choose the correct
option(s)
Disk (M1R)
0
a0
M
O
g
x
2a0
(A) If 0  , direction of frictional force will be forward
R
2a0
(B) If 0  , direction of frictional force will be forward
R
(C) N (normal reaction from ground) = 2 mg
(D) N (normal reaction from ground) < 2 mg
7/18
14. A force F is applied at one end of a uniform rod (M, L) so that it performs pure translational motion as shown in
figure. Then choose the correct option(s) (N : normal reaction acm : acceleration of centre of mass)
Rod(M, L)
F Smooth
 = 37°
4Mg 4g
(A) F  (B) acm 
3 3
3g
(C) N = Mg (D) acm 
4
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are 2 questions. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D). Out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 and 16
Consider a light rod whose one end A is made to accelerate with acceleration a0 = g 3 as shown in figure, other end
of rod has a point mass M attached rigidly, which can perform vertical circular motion about the moving axis passing
through point A. If point mass M is given velocity v0 (with respect to point 'A') which is the minimum possible speed to
just complete the vertical circle then.
A
+ a0 = g 3
g
Light rod (L)
v0
M
8/18
15. Speed of point mass M will be zero at a vertical height (measured from point of projection) which is equal to
(A) 2 L (B) L
3L  3
(C) (D) L  1  2 
2  
16. Value of v0 is equal to
(A) 7gL (B) 6gL
(C) 5gL (D) 2 2gL

A solid sphere (M, R) collides with rough horizontal surface whose coefficient of friction is  Just before collision centre
of mass has speed v0 and angular speed of sphere is 0. If maximum height reached by centre of mass of sphere after
v 02
collision is R  , then answer the following question
8g
y
M,R 0
v0 
x
1
e
2

17. If v cm is velocity of its centre of mass just after collision then
 3 v  v v
(A) v cm  v 0 i  0 j (B) v cm  j  0 i
2 2 2 2
 3 2v 0   3 v
(C) v cm  v 0 i  j (D) v cm  v 0 i  0 j
2 3 2 2
18. If  is the angular speed of sphere just after collision then
 13v 0 9v 0
(A)   0  (B)   0 
4R 4R
15v 0 11v 0
(C)   0  (D)   0 
4R 4R
9/18
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
19. Standard heat of formation of CaO(s) is –635 kJ/mol
2CaO(s)  2Ca(s) + O2(g). Select the correct statement at standard state for the given reaction
(A) 1270 kJ heat is released in the above reaction. (B) 635 kJ heat is released in the above reaction.
(C) 1270 kJ heat is absorbed in the above reaction (D) 635 kJ heat is absorbed in the above reaction
20. Calculate the heat of given reaction (in kJ) CH2 = CH2 + H2  CH3CH3
–1
Bond BDE (kJ mol )
C=C X
C–C Y
C–H Z
H–H W
(A) X + 2Z – W + Y (B) – X + 2Z – W + Y
(C) X – 2Z + W – Y (D) X – 2Z + W + Y
21. How much work (approx.) is done when 2.21 g of Barium azide decomposes in a container of changeable
volume against a constant pressure of 1.00 atm at 298 K ? (Molar mass of Ba is 137 g/mol and volume of
Ba(N3)2 (s) is negligible)
Ba(N3)2(s)  Ba(s) + 3N2(g)
(A) –74.35 J (B) –24.78 J
(C) –8.18 J (D) –2.01 J
22. 100 ml sample of a 0.5 M solution of a diprotic acid (H2A) is titrated against the strong base NaOH. Molarity of
NaOH(aq) is 0.5 M. What is the minimum volume of 0.5 M NaOH required to reach a pH of 8 (given pKa1 and
pKa2 of H2A are 5 and 8)
(A) 50 ml (B) 100 ml
(C) 150 ml (D) 200 ml
23. An ice cube is added to 32.75 g of liquid H2O at 40.0°C. The final temperature of the 42.75 g equilibrated mixture
is 10°C. The original temperature of ice cube is [CP of water and ice are 4 J/g-K and 2 J/g-K respectively and
H°fusion = 333 J/g]
(A) –5°C (B) –10°C
(C) –15°C (D) –20°C
10/18
24. Consider the following thermodynamic data, A + B  C + D
Temperature Equilibrium
constant
25°C 1
35°C 0.8
45°C 0.65
Select the incorrect statement.

(A) G° at 25°C is 0 (B) S° at 25°C is positive
(C) H° of reaction is negative (D) S° of reaction at 25°C is negative
25. 1 mol of Sn(s, grey) changes to Sn(s, white) at 5 atm. If H – U of process is negative and density of
Sn(s, grey) and Sn(s, white) are x and y respectively. Then select the correct statement.
(A) x must be greater than y (B) y must be greater than x
(C) x must be equal to y (D) x and y cannot be compared
SECTION - 2
This section contains SEVEN multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
26. 1 lit of a solution was saturated with respect to both AgCl and Ag2CrO4. The solution contained 10–4 moles of
Ag+ ions, 10–6 moles of Cl– ions and 8 × 10–4 moles of CrO42– ions. Ag+ ions are slowly added to the above
solution (assume volume remains constant) till 8 × 10–7 moles of AgCl were precipitated. On the basis of this
information, select the correct statement(s)
(A) Ksp of Ag2CrO4 is 6.4 × 10–11 mol3/lit3
(B) Ksp of AgCl is 10–10 mol2/lit2
(C) The concentration of Cl– ions when the equilibrium is re-established is 2 × 10–7 M
(D) Moles of Ag2CrO4 precipitated is 7.68 × 10–4 moles
27. 1 mol of monoatomic ideal gas is compressed from point A(P1, 8 L, 75 K) to B(P2, 1 L, T2K) in reversible adiabatic
process. If gas is expanded irreversibly and adiabatically from B to C (P3, 8 L, and T3K) against the constant
external pressure of 1atm. Select the correct statement(s) (Take 1atm L = 101. 3 J and R = 8.31 J/mol K)
(A) T3 > T2 > 75 K
(B) T2 > T3 > 75 K
(C) Magnitude of work done in A to B is more than that of B to C
(D) Magnitude of work done in A to B is less than that of B to C
11/18
28. Consider the data at temperature T
Salt Solubility (mol/lit)

(in pure water)
–4
Ag3PO4 1 × 10
–2
Ag2SO4 1 × 10
AgI 1 × 10
–9
–3
Ag2CrO4 1 × 10
1 mol of each PO34 , SO24 ,I– and CrO4 is present in 1 litre solution. If 0.01 mol of Ag+ is added then which of
the following forms precipitate?
(A) Ag3PO4 (B) Ag2SO4
(C) AgI (D) Ag2CrO4
29. Consider the two equilibrium that takes place in different containers at same temperature T
Equilibrium (I) P(g)  Q(g) H°r = X kJ, S°reaction = A J/mol K
Equilibrium (II) R(g)  S(g) H°r = Y kJ, S°reaction = B J/mol K
1
Below graph is plotted for lnKeq v s for the equilibrium I and II
T
Equilibrium (I)
ln Keq
Equilibrium (II)
0 1
T
Correct statement(s) is/are
(A) X > Y (B) Y > X
(C) A > B (D) B > A
30. Boiling point of ethanol is 78.37°C. Which is correct for the vaporization of ethanol at 40.0°C?
(A) Gvap  0 (B) Hvap  0
(C) Svap  0 (D) K vap  1
12/18
31. Consider the reaction at constant temperature 300 K

A(g) + B(g)  C(g) + D(g)
at any time 't', partial pressure of C, D, A and B are 3, 3, 1 and 1atm respectively. The G at time t is 12 kJ.
Select the correct statement
(A) Partial pressure of C at equilibrium is less than 3 atm
(B) Partial pressure of A at equilibrium is less than 1 atm
(C) G° of reaction at time 't' is 6.52 kJ (approx)
(D) At equilibrium G° and G both are zero
32. Select the correct statement(s).
(A) An acidic buffer must have pH less than 7 (B) pH of acidic buffer may or may not be less than 7
(C) pH of basic buffer can be less than 7 (D) At any temperature, pure water is neutral.
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type
A thermally insulated vessel is divided into two compartments of equal volume of 1 litre. One compartment contain 1 mol
of monoatomic ideal gas at 300 K. W hile other compartment contain 1 mol of diatomic gas at
500 K. The partition is removed so that the two gases mix. (use ln 1.42 = 0.348, ln 0.85 = – 0.1625)
33. The final pressure of gaseous mixture is
(A) 2 atm (B) 14.37 atm
(C) 34.89 atm (D) 47.89 atm
34. The total resultant entropy change (Smix) is (approx)
(A) 12.48 J/K (B) 6.52 J/K
(C) 20.32 J/K (D) 25.22 J/K
NH4HS(s) dissociate into NH3(g) and H2S(g) at temperature T as NH4HS(s)  NH3(g) + H2S(g) H > 0 and KP = 25
35. Factor which favours the formation of H2S(g) is
(A) Adding a small amount of NH4HS(s) at constant temperature
(B) Increasing pressure at constant temperature
(C) Increasing temperature
(D) Adding more NH3(g) at constant temperature
13/18
36. Initially only NH4HS(s) is present in the container then total pressure at equilibrium is
(A) 5 atm (B) 10 atm
(C) 25 atm (D) 15 atm
PART - III : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - 1
37. If the point (a, a2) lies in the angle between the lines x + y + 1 = 0 and x – 2y – 3 = 0 containing the origin,
then the integral values of a lying between (–3, 5) is
(A) 7 (B) 5
(C) 2 (D) Zero
38. The area of the region formed by joining all possible points where the family of lines bcx + cay + ab = 0 are
concurrent is (given that |a|, |b|, |c| are in H.P)
(A) 1 sq. units (B) 2 sq. units
(C) 4 sq. units (D) 8 sq. units
39. The area of quadrilateral bounded by pairs of straight lines 3 x 2  3 y 2  2xy   3  1 x   3  1 y  1  0
and 3 x 2  3 y 2  2xy   3  1 x   3  1 y  1  0 , is
(A) 2 3 sq. units (B) 3 sq. units
(C) 3 sq. units (D) 1 sq. units

40. If two pairs of tangents drawn from points A and B to the circle x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y – 3 = 0 form a parallelogram
then mid point of AB lies on
(A) x + 2y – 3 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 – 2x = 0
(C) 2x – y + 6 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 + 4y – 1 = 0
41. Tangents are drawn from the point P(1, 3) to the circle x2 + y2 – 4x = 0 to touch it at the points A and B. The
equation of circumcircle of triangle PAB is
(A) x2 + y2 – 3x – 3y + 2 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + 3x – 3y + 2 = 0
(C) x2 + y2 + 3x + 3y + 2 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 – 3x + 3y – 16 = 0
14/18
42. The number of ways in which 7 men and 4 women can dine at a round table if no two women are to sit together
is given by
(A) 4! 7! (B) 4! 6!
(C) 3! 7! (D) 5! 7!
43. A student is to answer 11 out of 15 questions in an examination such that he must choose at least 4 from the
first six questions. The number of ways in which the student can answer the questions is
(A) 1230 (B) 1170
(C) 1030 (D) 960
SECTION - 2
This section contains SEVEN multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
44. Number of ways of selecting 13 objects out of 37 different objects is N. Then

(A) Number of factors of N which are prime is 8
(B) Number of factors of N which are perfect square is 8
(C) N is divisible by 100
(D) Number of factors of N which are perfect cube is 6
45. ABC is an equilateral triangle. A1, A2, A3, A4 lie on side BC, B1, B2, B3, B4 lie on side CA and C1, C2, C3, C4
lie on side AB such that CB1 = B1B2 = B2B3 = B3B4 = B4A; BA1 = A1A2 = A2A3 = A3A4 = A4C and AC1 = C1C2
= C2C3 = C3C4 = C4B. Points A, B, C, Ai, Bi, Ci i = 1, 2, 3, 4 are joined in all possible ways as vertices to
form parallelograms. Then
(A) Number of parallelograms whose two sides are parallel to AB is 15
(B) Number of parallelograms whose two sides are parallel to AB is 14
(C) Number of all such possible parallelograms is 45
(D) Number of all such possible parallelograms is 30
46. If the distance of the line 3x + 4y +  = 0 from the point (4, 3) is equal to 5 units, then the value of  can be
(A) –49 (B) –1
(C) 1 (D) 49
15/18
47. The equation of circle(s) passing through the points A(4, 3), and B(2, 5) and touching the y-axis is/are
(A) x2 + y2 – 20x + 22y – 121 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 – 20x – 22y + 121 = 0
(C) x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y + 9 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 + 4x + 6y – 9 = 0
48. A chord AB(AB = 8 units) of the circle x2 + y2 – 2x + 4y – 20 = 0, when extended passes through the point
P(–1, 3), then
(A) PA + PB = 4 5 (B) PA + PB = 6 5
(C) PA. PB = 5 (D) PA. PB = 4
49. Two chords having length 8 units each of a circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y – 17 = 0 when extended intersect at a point P(–
a
3, 14). If the distance between the mid points of the chord is 10 units (where a and b are co prime natural
b
numbers), then
(A) a + b = 37 (B) a + b = 25
(C) |a – b| = 1 (D) |a – b| = 11
50. The equation(s) of tangents drawn from the origin to the circle S  x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 4 = 0 is/are
(A) x = 0 (B) y = 0
3 4
(C) y = x (D) y = x
4 3
SECTION - 3
Paragraph Type

Two tangents are drawn to the circle S = x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y – 4 = 0 from a point P. If the angle between the tangents is
3
and the locus of point P is S1 = x2 + y2 + axy + bx + cy + d = 0, then answer the following questions :
51. The number of positive integral divisors of N1 = |a| + |b| + |c| + |d| is
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Four (D) Six
16/18

52. The angle between two tangents drawn from the point P1 to S1 = 0 is . If the equation of locus of point P1, is
3
x2 + y2 + a1xy + b1x + c1y + d1 = 0, then the number of positive integral divisors of N2 = |a1| + |b1| + |c1| + |d1| is
(A) Four (B) Six
(C) Eight (D) Nine

Number of ways in which n identical objects may be distributed among p persons if each person may receive zero, one
or more objects is n + p – 1Cp – 1.
53. Total number of integral solutions of xyz = 42 is
(A) 105 (B) 81
(C) 108 (D) 27
54. If  be the number of integral solutions of x + y + z = 13 such that x  1, y > 2 and z  3, then the number of
divisors of  is
(A) Four (B) Six
(C) Twelve (D) Sixteen
  
17/18

@PW LECTURES 01 TE CoE JEEAdvanced Test 3 Paper 2 Code B 2018

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@PW LECTURES 01 TE CoE JEEAdvanced Test 3 Paper 2 Code B 2018

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16/09/2018 Code-B

Term Exam for JEE (Advanced)(CoE)-2020

Chemistry : Thermodynamics + Equilibrium

Mathematics : Permutation and Combinations, Straight Line, Circle

(A) 28 m/s (B) 20 m/s

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(A) Backward (B) Forward

(D) At top most point speed of m will be zero

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(A) Acceleration of block A will be zero

Smooth 2 m/s 1 m/s

(B) After collision velocity of m will be i m/s

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Light rod (L)

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(A) 7gL (B) 6gL

(C) 5gL (D) 2 2gL

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24. Consider the following thermodynamic data, A + B  C + D

Select the incorrect statement.

28. Consider the data at temperature T

Salt Solubility (mol/lit)

(A) Gvap  0 (B) Hvap  0

(C) Svap  0 (D) K vap  1

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31. Consider the reaction at constant temperature 300 K

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PART - III : MATHEMATICS

39. The area of quadrilateral bounded by pairs of straight lines 3 x 2  3 y 2  2xy   3  1 x   3  1 y  1  0

(A) 2 3 sq. units (B) 3 sq. units

(C) 3 sq. units (D) 1 sq. units

44. Number of ways of selecting 13 objects out of 37 different objects is N. Then

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