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“One good book can change your whole life”
LEVEL-1
Our environment
Multiple choice questions.
Observe the food chain given below : June - 2019
Grass → Grass hopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle.
1.If the energy available at first tropic level is 5000 J, then the amount of energy
available for snake is
(A) 500 J (B) 5 J (C) 0·5 J (D) 50 J.

2 The correct statement with respect to biodegradable substances among the

following. These substances
July-2021
(A) undergo recycling naturally in the environment
(B)harm various organisms in the ecosystem
(C) increase the density of harmful chemicals in different tropic levels
(D)remain inert in the environment for a long time

3 The materials that change slowly their form and structure in the environment
September2021
(A) Plant fibres (B) Peels of vegetable (C) Waste papers (D) Used tea leaves
4 Atmospheric layer that absorbs ultraviolet radiations coming from the sunlight is
made up of this molecule. April-2022
(A) N2 (B) H2 (C) O3 (D) O2
5 Primary consumers in any food chain are always.

(A) carnivores (B) herbivores (C) higher carnivores (D) producers

1 mark questions
6 Micro-organisms like bacteria are called decomposers. Why ? June- 2019
Ans : Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers because they break down the dead
and decaying organic matter into simpler substances and provide the nutrients back to
the soil.
7 Nowadays Chlorofluorocarbon ( CFC ) free refrigerators are being manufactured.
Why ? June-2022
Ans. : CFC’s are responsible for the decrease in the amount of ozone layer which
protects the earth from ultraviolet rays of sun.
 8 What is ‘biological magnification’ ? June-2022

Ans. : Process that involves magnification ( increase ) of the harmful chemicals at

different trophic levels of ecosystem.
Two Marks questions
1. A food chain in a polluted aquatic ecosystem is given. Observe it and answer the

following questions. April-2019

Fresh water → Algae → Fishes → Birds.

(i) Which organisms are disturbed more due to bio-magnification ? Why ?

(ii) This ecosystem will be destroyed gradually due to bio-magnification. Why ?

Ans : (i) Birds get affected more due to bio-magnification.

As the birds occupy the top most level in the given food chain, the maximum
concentration of harmful chemicals causing bio-magnification get accumulated in their
body.
(ii) Bio-magnification is the process of accumulation of non-degradable chemicals in the
various tropic levels of food chains. As the chemicals are non-degradable or cannot be
washed. they cannot be removed from the organisms of the food chain. This leads to
gradual destruction of the ecosystem.

2 A student places a piece of cucumber, a glass piece, a banana peel and a plastic
pen in a pit and closes it. What changes can be observed in these materials after
a month ? Give scientific reason for these changes. April 2019
Ans :
• Cucumber piece and banana peel are organic substances.
• They are biodegradable substances, and are eco-friendly.
• Glass piece and plastic pen are inorganic/synthetic substances.
• They are non-biodegradable substances and cause soil poll

3 “As energy moves progressively through various tropic levels of food chain it is
no longer available to the previous level.” Give reasons. June-2020
Ans : (1) The flow of energy is unidirectional.
At every tropic level, large amount of energy is lost in form of heat for
maintaining metabolic activities.
• The amount of heat lost is generally 90 % and only 10 % of energy is retained
and is available from previous tropic level to the next
• Thus it is said that no energy is available for the previous tropic level.

3 Mention any two effects of non-biodegradable substances on the environment.

June-2022
 These substances do not undergo natural recycling and remain inert in the
environment.
• May harm the various members by adding into different stages of
ecosystem / cause ‘Biological magnification’.
• Cause environmental pollution.

5 Mention any two methods that reduce the problems caused while disposing
the wastes. June-2022
By adopting following methods :
• Segregation of dry wastes and wet wastes.
• Reusing of wet wastes by converting them into manures.
• Recycling dry wastes
• Limiting the use of disposable materials
• Following eco-friendly packagings.
6 Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable substances would affect the
environment.
a. These inert substances simply persist in the environment. This means that these
substances require land area for dumping.
b. Excess of fertilizers, pesticides and other chemicals changes soil chemistry and also
affects aquatic life.
c. Most of these chemicals and heavy metal are easily absorbed by the organisms.
This causes biological magnification.

Three marks questions

7 What is trophic level ? Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always
unidirectional. Why ? Explain.
April-2022
Different levels or stages of food chain are called trophic level.
Energy flow in an ecosystem is unidirectional because,
* The energy that is captured by autotrophs does not revert back to the
solar input.
*The energy which passes to the herbivores do not come back to
autotrophs.
*As energy moves progressively through the various trophic levels it is no
longer available to the previous level.
*At different levels energy is lost in the form of heat.
8 Give an example for a food chain of grassland ecosystem. If there is an
increase in the number of organisms in the second trophic level, how does
this affect on that food chain ? April-2023
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle
 * If the number of organisms in the second trophic level increases, then
the number of organisms in the first trophic level decreases.
*Eventually population of the rest of the organisms in the trophic levels
decreases and leads to ecological imbalance.

9 Give reason :- September-2020

Food chains generally consist of only three or four steps.
Decomposers play an important role in an ecosystem.
Protecting of ozone layer is necessary.

Ans : a) Food chains generally consist of only three or four steps because,
energy is lost in each tropic level. Hence, a shorter food chain is more
efficient.

b) Decomposers play an important role in an ecosystem because, they break

down the dead and decaying organic matter into simpler substances and
provide the nutrients back to the soil.

c) Protecting of ozone layer is necessary because , the ozone layer is a natural

layer of gas in the upper atmosphere that protects humans and other living
things from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun

10 How ozone layer is formed ? Explain with equations

Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiation
acting on oxygen (O2) molecule.
*The higher energy UV radiations split apart some molecular oxygen (O2) into
free oxygen (O)atoms.
*These atoms then combine with the molecular oxygen to form ozone

O2 O+O
O2 + O O3
 Chapter 16
SUSTAINABLE MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES

1 mark: MCQ

1. By constructing Khadin check-dams in level terrains,

(A) underground water level decreases
(B) underground water level increases
(C) vegetation in the nearby areas are destroyed due to excess moisture
(D) underground water gets polluted

2. Switching off fans and lights which are not in use are examples
(A) Refusal
(B) Reduce
(C) Reuse
(D) Repurpose

3. Which of these is not the use of rain water harvesting

(A)Increases the ground water
(B) Water does not evaporate
(C) Provides a breeding area for mosquitoes
(D) Provides moistures for plants

4. One student while drinking tender coconut and juice , did not use the straw , which
type of environmental protection is he following
(A)Recycle
(B) Reduce
(C) Reuse
(D) Refuse

5. Who are not the stakeholders in the conservation of forests?

(A) People who have paper mills near the forest
(B) People who are living in the city
(C) People who are running the forest department
(D) People who live in and aroud the forest 1 mark que
6. It is essential to have long-term goal in resource management. Why ?
Ans : The resources can be used for the benefit of the present generation and also
conserved for the benefit of generations to come.
This ensures uniform distribution of resources among the people.

7. In the alpine meadows of the great Himalayan National Park, the practice of regular
grazing by sheep was put to an end. What are the effects on the meadows due to
thismeasure ?
8. Ans.: Without the regular grazing by the sheep, the grass first grows very tall and then
falls over preventing fresh growth
List the advantages of ‘reduce’ and ‘reuse’ to save environment. Ans :
 ● By the practice of ‘Reduce’, we can save (i) Electricity (ii) Water (iii) Food (iv)
Natural resources.
● By the practice of ‘Reuse’ (i) Environment pollution can be controlled
(ii) Materials are available for immediate use (iii) Energy can be saved
(iii) Use of raw materials can be minimised.

9. Mention the two importances of ‘Recycling’ in controlling environmental pollution.

Ans. : ● Helps in the segregation of bio-degradable and non-bio degradable materials
● The materials that can be recycled are not dumped as other waste materials
● Decrease the use of raw materials
● Addition of harmful wastes to other natural resources will be avoided.

10. List the disadvantages of using fossil fuels.

Ans :●When these fuels are burnt, the products are oxides of carbon, water, oxides of
nitrogen and oxides of sulphur.
● Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur may lead to acid rain.

● Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas. When its concentration in the atmosphere

increases continuously, leads to intense global warming.

11. “A short-term goal in resource management is disadvantageous” Justify the

statement.
Ans : ● Exploiting resources with short term aim would be self-centred satisfaction.
They provide immediate advantages. But later it will be hazardous to the environment.
● For example : Constructing huge dams may fulfill our present need. In long term it

cause adverse effect on environment.

12. List any four human activities for deforestation.

Ans : ● Converting forest land in to an agricultural land
● Mining in forest area
● Constructing dams and roads in forest area

● Hectic use of forest products like timber , paper etc

13. Suggest two measures for controlling CO2 levels in atmosphere.

Ans : (i) Reduce or refuse to the use of fossil fuels(ii) Planting more trees or forest
conservation efforts has to be practiced

14. What needs of the local people are fulfilled by the forest ? Ans. : Local people obtain
:
● Large quantities of firewood, small timber and grass.

● Bamboo to make slats for huts and baskets for collecting and storing food materials.

● Essential materials to prepare the implements for agriculture, fishing and hunting.

● Fruits, nuts and medicines.

● Grazing area for their cattle. ( any 4)

15. Ground water conservation is more advantageous to any other means of water
conservation. Why ?
Ans : (i) It does not evaporate
(ii) It spreads and recharges the wells(iii) It provides moisture for vegetation
(iv) It does not provide breeding ground to mosquitoes
(v) it is protected by contamination by human or animal wastes

Who are the stakeholders ?

Ans : (i) the people who live in or around forests are dependent on forest produce for
various aspects of their life
(ii) the Forest Department of the Government which owns the land and controls the
resources from forests.
(iii) the industrialists –who use various forest produce,
(iv) the wildlife and nature enthusiasts who want to conserve nature in its pristine form.

16. Give any two examples forPeople’s Participation in the Management of Forests
Ans
: ● Amrita Devi Bishnoi, sacrificed her life along with others for the protection of
khejri’ trees in Khejrali village .Rajasthan.
● Chipko Andolan, result of a grass-root level effort to end the alienation of people from

their forests. The movement was originated in a remote village called Reni in Garhwal
● With the active and willing participation of the local community, the sal forests of

Arabari underwent a remarkable recovery.

17. “Managing forest and wildlife is challenging task” Justify the statement by any two
examples.
Ans : It is difficult to observe the activities of people living in and around forest
● Difficulties in controlling the forest fire
● To control the encroachment of forest area
● Hunting wildlife for ethnic tradition

18. Why do you think that there should be equitable distribution of resources? What
forces would be working against an equitable distribution of our resources?
Ans :Everyone has rights to use natural resources. There should be equitable distribution
of resources so that all, rich, powerful and poor people get benefit from the development
of these resources.
Rich, greedy and powerful people could work against an equitable distribution of our
resources.
These resources does not reach the people those are far away from their availability

19. What is sustainable development ? Why do we need to manage our resources ? Ans :
Economic development that is conducted without depletion of natural resources is called
sustainable development.
(i) Natural resources are limited in quantity.
(ii) Due to increase in population, their demand has increased resulting in over use of
resources.
(iii) To make available and utilize for the future generations 3 Three marks questions

20. (i) Reuse of plastic products is better than recycle method. Why ? (ii) “Local people
are stakeholders of forest resources.” Explain.
Ans : (i)In recycling method energy is required , which in turn leads to pollution . There
is no need of energy in reuse method.
(ii) Local people depend on forest resources for following purpose -
● For fire wood : Timber and Thatch.
● For bamboo used in huts & baskets
● For implements of agriculture, fishing and hunting.

● To gather fruits, nuts and medicines.● To fodder for their cattle’s

21. (i) How does combustion of fossil fuels cause greenhouse effect ?
(ii) List the reasons for failure in sustaining ground water. Ans :
(i) Combustion of fossil fuels Releases carbon dioxide to the atmosphere . The increase
in carbon dioxide leads to global warming
(ii) Reasons for failure in sustaining ground water-
● Deforestation
● Growing crops which demand high water
● Pollution due to industrial effluents

● Pollution due to urban wastes.

22. Coal and petroleum products should be used judiciously. Why ?

Ans. : ● Coal and petroleum contain carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and sulphur. When
these
are burnt, carbon dioxide, water, oxides of nitrogen, oxides of sulphur and carbon
monoxide are released.
● All gases released result in air pollution.
● Coal and petroleum are non-renewable / exhaustible sources of energy.
● Excess of carbon dioxide released leads to greenhouse effect.
● It also leads to global warming.
● Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur lead to acid rain.

● Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas and harmful to lives of organisms. (any 6)

23. How can you as an individual contribute or make a difference to the management of
(a) forests and wildlife, (b) water resources and (c) coal and petroleum ?
Ans :
(a) forests and wildlife -
* By reusing and reducing papers we may contribute the conservation of forest
* By refusing the purchase of things made of wild life we may contribute the
conservation of wildlife

(b) water resources -

* By reusing waste water for garden
* By refusing things like detergents we may prevent water pollution
(c) coal and petroleum -
* By using public transport rather than individual we can conserve fuels
* By avoiding unnecessary use of electricity

24. “Building crescent shaped earthen embankment in level terrain is better than the
construction of large dams across the river to store water.” Analyse this statement with
their effects.
Ans. : Problems of constructing large dams across the river -
● Social problems : Effects of the construction of large dams across the rivers
● Economic problems : Swallop up huge amount of public money.

● Environmental problems : They contribute enormously to deforestation and loss of

biological diversity.
Advantages of building crescent shaped earthen embankment in level terrain :
● They recharge the ground water beneath.
● Water does not evaporate, but spreads out recharge wells and provide moisture for

vegetation.
● It does not provide breeding grounds for mosquitoes like stagnant water
 SOURCES OF ENERGY.

ONE MARK QUESTIONS.

June 2019 .

1. Which of the following is ecofriendly ?

(A) Thermal power plant (C) Biogas plant .
(B) Hydropower plant (D) Nuclear power station.

2. The inner surface of solar cooker is coated with black paint to

(A) absorbs more heat (C) prevent rusting
(B) reflect light (D) converge the light rays.

3. The power plant in which natural source of energy is directly used to rotate turbines is
(A) thermal power plant (C) nuclear power plant
(B) hydro-electric power plant (D) solar power plant.

July 2021 ( MCQ based exam)

1. The inner wall of the solar cooker is painted black because this
(A) reflects light (C) prevents from rusting
(B) converges solar radiations (D) absorbs more heat.

2. The source of energy in nuclear power reactor is

(A) nuclear fission reaction
(B) controlled nuclear fission chain reaction
(C) exothermic reaction
(D) nuclear fusion reaction.

Sept 2021 ( MCQ based exam)

1. The major component of bio-gas is
(A) propane (B) butane (C) methane (D) ethane

2. The power plant that uses the natural source of energy directly to rotate the turbines is
(A) Thermal power plant (B) Nuclear power plant
(C) Hydro-electric power plant (D) Solar power plant.

April - 2023
1. The inner wall of the solar cooker is painted black. Because black colour
(A) reflects light (C) prevents from rusting
(B) converges solar rays (D) absorbs more heat .

2. The power plant that generates electricity without using the turbines is
(A) Thermal power plant (B) Solar power plant
(C) Hydro power plant (D) Nuclear power plant.
ONE MARK QUESTIONS.
APRIL 2020.

1. Biogas plant is a boon to farmers. Why ?

Ans. : The slurry left behind is used as excellent manure, rich in nitrogen and
phosphorous
It provides a safe and efficient method of waste disposal besides supplying energy and
manure.

APRIL 2022.

1. Which is the major component of biogas ? Write four characteristics of a good source
of energy.
Ans. : Methane / CH4 (refer June-2019 Qno-2)

June - 2022

1. What is a solar cell ?

Ans. : The device that converts solar energy into electrical energy.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS.

JUNE 2019,

1. List the characteristics of a good source of energy.

Ans. : (i) It would do a large amount of work per unit volume or mass. (ii) It should be
easily available. (iv) It should be easy to transport. (iii) It should be easy to store. (v) It
should be economical.

JUNE 2022.

1. Write any two limitations of producing electricity from wind energy.

Ans. : i) Wind energy farms ( wind mills ) cannot be established everywhere. ii) The
wind speed should be higher than 15 km/h to maintain the required speed of the turbine.
iii) Wind energy farms require large area of land. iv) The initial cost of establishment of
the farm is quite high.

APRIL 2023.
1. Name the major constituent of biogas and write the properties of biogas.
Ans. : Methane / CH4 .
When burnt leaves no residue like ash
It burns without smoke Its heating capacity is high .
2. List the hazards of nuclear power generation.
Improper nuclear-waste storage and disposal result in environmental contamination
There is a risk of accidental leakage of nuclear radiation.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS.

April 2019 .

1. (i) Name the major constituent of biogas. Write the properties of biogas which make it
a good fuel. (ii) Name the two devices that work using heat energy of the sun.
Ans : (i) The major constituent of biogas is - Methane / CH4 .
Properties of biogas which make it a good fuel.-
Leaves no residue like ash.
It burns without smoke / eco friendly.
Its heating capacity is high.
ii) Devices that work using heat energy of the sun
Solar water heater Solar cooker. Solar furnace

2. (i) Write the advantages of solar cells. (ii) Write any two hazards of nuclear power
generation.
Ans : (i) The advantages of solar cells : They have no moving parts. Require little
maintenance and work quite satisfactorily without the use of any focusing device They
can be set up in remote and inaccessible hamlets or Very sparsely inhabited areas in
which laying of a power transmission line may be expensive and not commercially
viable. (ii) Improper nuclear waste storage and disposal result in environmental
contamination There is a risk of accidental leakage of nuclear radiation.

September 2020.
1. a) Explain how is nuclear energy generated in power reactors. How is electricity
produced from nuclear energy ? b) Mention two hazards of nuclear power reactor.
(3Marks)
Ans : a) Nuclear fission reaction is carried out in nuclear power reactors. The nucleus
of heavy atom ( such as uranium, plutonium or thorium ) when bombarded with low
energy neutrons, can be split apart into lighter nuclei.
When this is done, a tremendous amount of energy is released at a controlled
rate.
The released energy is used to produce steam and further generate electricity.

b) Hazards of nuclear power reactor :

Improper / unscientific storage and disposal of spent or used fuels.
Accidental leakage of nuclear radiations.
High cost of installation of nuclear power reactor.
Limited availability of uranium.
High risk of environmental contamination ( Any two points )

2. a) Explain why we are looking at the alternative sources of energy. b) Mention the
advantages and disadvantages associated with solar cells.
Ans : a) The reasons for our looking at alternative sources of energy are ;
The conventional sources of energy like fossil fuels are in danger of getting exhausted
soon. Unlimited use of conventional sources of energy has led to the problem of
energy crisis Uncontrolled use of conventional sources of energy has created many
problems of environmental pollution. b) Advantages associated with solar cells : They
have no moving parts They require little maintenance They can be set up in remote
and inaccessible hamlets Disadvantages associated with solar cells : Availability of
special grade silicon for making solar cells is limited. The process of manufacture of
solar cells is very expensive. Their efficiency is low.

APRIL2022.

1. Which element is used in making solar cell ? Write any four advantages of solar cells.
Ans. : An element used in makng solar cell is - Silicon / Si The advantages of solar cells :
They have no moving parts Little maintenance Work quite satisfactorily without
the use of any focusing device Can be set up in remote areas where people cannot
reach easily Can set up in those areas too, where laying of power transmission line is
not possible.

APRIL 2023.
1. Name any two fossil fuels and mention any two disadvantages of using fossil fuels.
Ans. : Coal , Natural gas , Petroleum ( Any two )
Disadvantages of using fossil fuels : Air pollution Acid rain Greenhouse effect
Pollutes water and land Global warming ( any suitable answer ) ( Any two )

MOST LIKELY QUESTIONS FOR 2024 ( Including previous year questions )

1. Energy from various sources is considered to have been derived from the sun. Do you
agree? Justify your answer.
Ans : Yes, sun is the ultimate source of energy. Directly or indirectly, all the forms of
energy are derived from solar energy. (i) Clouds are formed when water in lakes, rivers,
seas etc. evaporates due to solar energy. They bring rainfall This flowing water can be
used for getting hydroelectricity. (ii) Wind energy arises due to uneven heating of the
earth‘s surface by the sun. Due to this, wind possesses kinetic energy. (iii) Plants in the
process of photosynthesis converts the solar energy into food (chemical energy). This
food is consumed by animals. Thus, the animal wastes and remains of the plants
constitute biomass which can be utilised as a source of energy.

2. There is a need to harness non-conventional sources of energy. Give two main reasons.
Ans.: There is a need to harness non-conventional sources of energy because: (i) Our
demand for energy is increasing to improve quality of life and growth of population. (ii)
fossil fuels are limited sources and are depleting fast. (iii) burning of fossil fuels causes a
lot of pollution.

3. What are the limitations in obtaining energy from Solar cell ?

Ans : Solar energy is not available in night or when the sun is hidden under clouds.
The domestic use of solar cells for production of electricity is not possible due to high
cost.
4. There are many limitations associated with the setting up of wind energy farms to
harness energy. Ramesh wants to generate electricity by using wind mill in his parental
village in Karnataka. (i) Is it advisable to set up such wind energy farms in his village?
Give reason for your answer. (ii) Write any two limitations associated with the wind
energy farms.
Ans : (i) No, it is not advisable to set up such wind energy farms in his village because
wind energy farms can be established only at those places where wind blows for the
greater past of a year. The wind speed should also be higher than 15 km/h to maintain the
required speed of the turbine. (ii) Limitation of wind energy: (a) Initial cost of
establishment of the farm is quite high. (b) The tower and blades need a high level of
maintenance.

5. Can any source of energy be pollution-free? Why or why not?

Ans : Some energy sources like wind energy , solar energy are pollution free
Some energy sources like fossil fuels , biomass are cause pollution

6. What is the role of a plane mirror and a glass sheet in a solar cooker ?
Ans : Plane mirror reflects the sunlight inside the solar cooker A solar cooker
covered by a plane glass slab will be more efficient. This is because glass slab does not
allow the heat radiation to escape from the solar cooker and hence the temperature of the
solar cooker covered with glass slab increases more than the temperature of the solar
cooker which is left open.

7. What steps would you suggest to minimise environmental pollution caused by burning
of fossil fuel ?
Ans : By using public transport instead of private vehicles Growing more and more
trees, Using smokeless chulahs and Using smokeless chimneys in thermal power
plants.

8. How is hydropower harnessed?

Ans .Potential energy of water stored in a dam is converted into kinetic energy of falling
water and then, this kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy.

9. Burning fossil fuels may lead to intense global warming.‖ Justify this statement.
Ans .Burning of fossil fuels produces carbon dioxide and excess carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere causes the greenhouse effect, leading to intense global warming.
 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

1. Observe the diagram.

The magnetic poles represented by P and Q respectively are

(A) south ( S ) and south ( S ) (B) north ( N ) and south ( S )
(C) north ( N ) and north ( N ) (D) south ( S ) and north ( N ).

2. The device that works on the principle of electromagnetic induction is

(A) electric generator (B) electric heater (C) electric motor (D) electric fan

3. A rectangular coil of copper wire is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the
induced current changes once in each
(A) two revolutions (B) one revolution
(C) half revolution (D) one-fourth revolution

4. The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are in the form of parallel straight lines. The
reason for this is, the magnetic field inside the solenoid is
(A) very high (B) uniform (C) zero (D) produced by electric current

5. The device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is

(A) electric generator (B) solar cell (C) dry cell (D) electric motor

6. Which of the following is ‘NOT’ a property of magnetic field lines ?

(A) Magnetic field lines are dense near the poles
(B) Magnetic field lines are closed loops
(C) Magnetic field lines intersect each other
(D) Magnetic field lines emerge from north pole and merge at the south pole

7. In Fleming‘s right-hand rule, the middle finger indicates the direction of

(A) electric current induced in conductor (B) magnetic field
(C) movement of conductor (D) force

8. A device that reverses the direction of flow of current in an electric circuit is

(A) Ammeter (B) Commutator (C) Voltmeter (D) Galvanometer

9. The function of fuse in an electric circuit is that, it

(A) reverses the direction of an electric current
(B) shows the direction of motion of the electric current
(C) measures the potential difference
(D) protects the electrical appliances
10. The device used to produce electricity is -
(A) Galvanometer (B) Electric generator (C) Ammeter (D) Electric motor.

11. In Fleming‘s right hand rule, the middle finger indicates the direction of
(A) induced electric current (B) magnetic field
(C) motion of the conductor (D) mechanical force.

12. A device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is

(A) Electric generator (B) Electric motor
(C) Galvanometer (D) Voltmeter.

13. Imagine, you are holding a straight current carrying conductor as per the right hand
thumb rule. If the thumb is upward, then the direction of the field lines of the
magnetic field is
(A) downward (B) upward
(C) anti-clockwise (D) clockwise.

April 2019
1. Draw the diagram of a simple electric motor. Label the following parts : (2Marks) (i)
Split rings (ii) Brushes.
Ans. :

2. (i) How does overload and short-circuit occur in an electric circuit ? Explain. What is the
function of fuse during this situation ?
(ii) Mention two properties of magnetic field lines. (3Marks)
Ans : (i)
• Overloading can occur when the live wire and the neutral wire come into direct
contact.
• This occurs when the insulation of wires is damaged or there is a fault in the
appliance or When many electrical appliances are connected to one circuit
simultaneously.
• In such a situation, the current in the circuit abruptly increases and short circuit
occurs.
• The joule heating that takes place in the fuse melts it to break the electric circuit,
and prevents the electric appliances from possible damage
(ii) Properties of magnetic field lines :
• No two field lines are found to cross each other.
• The density of the magnetic field lines are more in their poles.
• The magnetic field lines emerge from north pole and merge at south pole.
• Inside the magnet, the direction of field lines is from its south pole to its north
pole.
• Thus the magnetic field lines are closed curves. (any two)
June 2019
1. The names of devices are given in Column-A and corresponding functions are given
in Column-B. Match them and write the answer along with its letters : (4Marks)
Column - A Column – B
(A) Commutator (i) detects the presence of electric current in a circuit
(B) Fuse (ii) converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
(C) Galvanometer (iii) measures the potential difference
(D) Electric generator (iv) shows the direction of the motion of the conductor
(v) protects the electrical appliances
(vi) reverses the direction of current
(vii) converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
Ans. : (A) — (vi) reverses the direction of current
(B) — (v) protects the electrical appliances
(C) — (i) detects the presence of electric current in a circuit
(D) — (ii) converts mechanical energy into electrical energy

2. Draw the diagram of a simple electric motor. Label the following parts : (2Marks) (i)
Brushes (ii) Battery.

April 2020

1. Observe the given figure.

What type of current is induced in the coil by doing the experiment related to this figure ?
Give reason for your answer.

Ans. :
• Alternating current
• Because , galvanometer deflections are in opposite directions
2. Draw the diagram of a simple electric generator. Label the following parts : (2Marks)
• i) Brushes
• ii) Rings.
Ans:

B1 , B2 — brushes , R1 , R2 — rings

3. How do you trace the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet using compass needle ?
Explain. Write the properties of magnetic field lines. (3Marks)
Ans. :
• Take a small compass and a bar magnet. Place a magnet on a sheet of white paper
fixed on a drawing board.
• Place the compass near the north pole of the magnet mark the position of two ends
of the needle.
• Now move the needle to a new position such that the south pole occupies the
position previously occupied by its north pole.
• In this way proceed step by step till we reach the south pole of the magnet. Join the
points marked on the paper by a smooth curve. This represents field line.
• Repeating above procedure we can draw as many lines as possible.

Properties of magnetic field lines :

• Field lines emerge from north pole and merge at the south pole.
• At the poles field lines are crowded.
• No two field lines are intersect each other.

September 2020
2. Suggest any two measures to avoid overloading in domestic circuits. (1Mark) Ans. :
• Live and neutral wires should not come into direct contact.
• Too many appliances should not be connected to a single socket.

3. Observe the given diagram. Explain the experiment related to this diagram. What
conclusions can be drawn from this experiment ? (4Marks)
Ans. :
• The ends of the copper coil ( AB ) are connected to a galvanometer. The north pole
of the bar magnet ( NS ) is moved inside the coil. The needle of the galvanometer
shows momentary deflection in one direction.
• When the north pole of the magnet is withdrawn from the coil, the needle of the
galvanometer is deflected in the opposite direction.
• When the magnet is held stationary inside the coil, the deflection of the
galvanometer deflection
• When the magnet is moved inside the coil with greater force, galvanometer shows
greater deflection and when the magnet is moved with smaller force, the
galvanometer shows smaller deflection.

• Conclusions that can be drawn from this experiment :

• Motion of the magnet with respect to the coil produces an induced electric current
in the circuit.
• The direction of the induced current depends on the direction of the movement of
the magnet inside the coil.
• The amount of induced current is directly proportional to the force with which the
magnet is moved into or withdrawn from the coil.

April - 2022
3. Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other. Why ?
Ans. : At the point of intersection the compass needle would point towards two directions
which is not possible.
4. What are the functions of an earth wire ? It is necessary to connect the electric
appliances having metallic body to earth wire in domestic electric circuit. Why ? Explain.
Ans. : Functions of the earth wire :
• This is used as a safety measure for appliances have metallic body in domestic
circuit
• This provides a low resistance conducting path for the current
• Any leakage of current in the appliances keeps its potential to that of the earth and
the user may not get a severe electric shock.

5. Explain Faraday‘s experiment related to electromagnetic induction. Mention the

difference between direct and alternate current.
Ans. : Faraday‘s Experiment :
• Take a coil of copper wire having a large number of turns connect the ends of the
coil to a galvanometer
• Take a strong magnet and move its one pole into the coil
• There is a deflection in the needle of the galvanometer. This indicates the presence
of a current in the coil
 • Likewise, when the magnet is withdrawn back then also the needle of
galvanometer deflects and this indicates the presence of electric current.
Direct current Alternate current
Direct current flows in one direction Periodically alternating current reverse
its direction

June - 2022
1. What are the reasons for occurring overload in an electric circuit ?
Ans. :
• Accidental hike in the supply voltage
• Connecting too many appliances to a single socket
• When live wire and neutral wire come into direct contact.

2. Draw the diagram of a simple electric motor and label ‗Split rings‘ ?

3. List the properties of the magnetic field due to the flow of electric current in a
solenoid. What are the two methods of increasing magnetic field in a solenoid ?
Ans. :
• The magnetic field in a current carrying solenoid is similar to that of magnetic
field produced in a bar magnet.
• The magnetic field is uniform inside the solenoid.

The two methods to increase magnetic field in a solenoid.

i) By increasing the number of turns of the coil.
ii) By increasing the current flowing through solenoid.

April 2023
1. What does the thumb indicate in the right hand thumb rule ?
Ans. : Direction of current

2. What is solenoid ? Write the properties of the magnetic field lines formed around a
current carrying solenoid.
• A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped closely in the shape
of a cylinder is called a solenoid.
 • At the ends/poles of a solenoid, the magnetic field lines appear in the form of
concentric circles.
• At the centre / inside the solenoid the magnetic field lines appear in the form of
parallel straight lines.

3. What is alternating current ? Electric appliances having metallic body are connected to
earth wire, why ?
• The current that changes direction after equal intervals of time is called an
alternating current.
• The metallic body is connected to the earth wire provides a low resistance
conducting path for the current.
• Thus, it ensures that any leakage of current to the metallic body of the appliance
keeps its potential to that of the earth and the user may not get a severe electric
shock.
June 2023
1. Observe the figure and mention the direction of the force acting on the current carrying
conductor AB. Name the rule that helped you to find the direction of the force.

• Towards left OR Towards the north pole of the magnet

• Fleming‘s left hand rule

1. Observe the given diagram :

Explain the experiment related to this diagram. What conclusions can be drawn from
this experiment ?
• Take two different coils of copper wire say 100 and 50 turns respectively. Insert them
over a non-conducting cylindrical roll.
• Connect the Coil-1 in series with a battery and plug key, Coil-2 with galvanometer
• When the key is plugged in, needle of the galvanometer deflects and returns to zero.
This indicates the presence of current in the Coil-2
• Disconnect Coil-1 from battery. Needle of the galvanometer deflects in the opposite
direction and returns to zero. This indicates the opposite direction of the current.
Conclusions :
Changing electric current in Coil-1 induces current in Coil-2. This is electromagnetic
induction.This is due to the change in the magnetic field.
MOST LIKELY QUESTIONS FOR 2024 ( Including previous year questions)
1. Why two magnetic field lines do not intersect each other?
Ans : At the point of intersection needle has to show two direction , which is not possible
practically.
2. What is the role of the split ring in an electric motor ?
Answer:
• The split ring reverses the direction of current in the armature coil after every half
rotation,
• This allow the armature coil to rotate continuously in the same direction.

3. Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuits and appliances.
Answer: (i) Earthing (ii) Electric fuse.

4. Explain different ways to induce current in a coil. When is the induced current is
highest ? State the rule to find the direction of induced current.
Answer: Different ways to induce current in a coil are :
1. moving a magnet towards or away from the coil or vice-versa, and
2. changing current in the neighbouring coil.
Induced current is highest when -
• the rate of movement of magnet is increased
• number turns of coil is increased
• by increasing the amount of current in neighbouring coil

Fleming‘s right hand rule states the direction of current

2. What precautions should be taken to avoid the overloading of domestic electric

circuits ?
Ans : (i) The wires used in the circuit must be coated with good insulating materials
(ii) The circuit must be divided into different sections and a safety fuse must be used
in each section. (iii) High power appliances like air-conditioner, refrigerator, a water
heater, etc. should not be used simultaneously.

6. An electric oven of 2 kW power rating is operated in a domestic electric circuit (220

V) that has a current rating of 5 A. What result do you expect ? Explain.
Answer: The electric oven draws a current given by

Thus the electric oven draws current much more than the current rating 5 A. That is the
circuit is overloaded. Due to excessive current, the fuse wire will blow and the circuit
will break.

7. A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will happen if a

bar magnet is (i) pushed into the coil (ii) withdrawn from inside the coil (iii) held
stationary inside the coil
Ans: (i) As a bar magnet is pushed into the coil, a momentary deflection is observed in
the galvanometer indicating the production of a momentary current in the coil.
(ii) When the bar magnet is withdrawn from the coil, the deflection of galvanometer is in
opposite direction showing the production of an opposite current.
(iii) When the bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil, there is no deflection in
galvanometer indicating that no current is produced in the coil.

8. Two circular coils A and B are placed closed to each other. If the current in the coil A
is changed, will some current be induced in the coil B ? Give reason.
Ans: Yes, some current will be induced in the coil B.
When the current in coil A is changed, some current is induced in the coil B.
Due to change in current in coil A, the magnetic field lines linked with coil A and with
coil B get changed. This sets up induced current in coil B.

9. What is the function of an earth wire ? Why is it necessary to earth metallic appliances
?
Ans: Earth wire is a safety measure that controls the sudden hike in electric potential
(Voltage) It ensures that if there is any current leakage in the metallic cover, the potential
of the appliance becomes equal to that of the earth. It is necessary to earth metallic
appliances because, the person handling the appliance will not get an electric shock.

10. What is solenoid ? Can you compare it with magnet ? Justify your answer.
Ans : A coil of many circular turns of insulated copper wire wrapped closely in the shape
of a cylinder is called a solenoid.
A solenoid behaves like a magnet in the following ways.
• The magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is very much similar to
that of a bar magnet.
• Like a bar magnet, one end of the solenoid has N-polarity while the other end has S-
polarity.

11. How are commercial motors different from simple electric motor.?
Ans : The commercial motors use -
(i) an electromagnet in place of permanent magnet
(ii) large number of turns of the conducting wire in the current carrying coil
(iii) a soft iron core on which the coil is wound.
The soft iron core, on which the coil is wound, plus the coils, is called an armature. This
enhances the power of the motor.

12. Which rule helps to find the force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field
? State the rule and name the three factors on which the force on the current carrying
conductor depend.
Ans : Fleming's left hand rule gives the directions of the force on a conductor when it
carries a current in a magnetic field.
Fleming’s left hand rule : Stretch the first finger, the middle finger and the thumb of
your left hand mutually perpendicular to each other in such a way that the index finger
represents the direction of the magnetic field, the middle finger represents the direction of
the current in the conductor, then the thumb will represent the direction of motion of the
conductor.
Factors on which the force acting on current carrying conductor depends
Strength of Magnetic Field. ...
Strength of electric field. ...
Length of conductor.

13. Explain the following with reference to the magnetic field around a straight conductor
carrying current.
(i) Tracing the pattern of magnetic field
(ii) increasing the intensity of magnetic field
(iii) Reversing the direction of electric current.

Ans : (i) Tracing the pattern of magnetic field Set the instruments as shown in figure .
Place some iron fillings on card board.
Then close the key so that current flows through the wire.
Gently tap the card board , then we will find that the iron filings align themselves
showing a pattern of concentric circles around the wire
(ii) increasing the intensity of magnetic field
If we change the intensity of current by using variable rheostat , the intensity of magnetic
field also changes.
(iii) Reversing the direction of electric current.
If the direction of current through the straight wire is reversed the direction of magnetic
field lines also get reversed
14. What does the direction of thumb indicate in the right hand thumb rule ? In what way
this rule is differ form Flemings left hand rule.
Ans : According to right hand thumb rule , the direction of thumb indicates the direction
of current
According to Flemings left hand rule , the direction of the thumb indicates the direction
of force applied on the current carrying conductor when it was kept in magnetic field.

15. A compass needle is placed near a current carrying straight conductor. State your
observation for the following cases and give reasons for the same in each case.
(a) Magnitude of electric current is increased.
(b) The compass needle is displaced away from the conductor.
(c) reversing the direction of flow of current in the conductor?
Ans:
(a) As the amount of magnetic field strength is directly proportional to the amount of
current, so the deflection of compass needle increases.
(b) Since magnetic field strength at a point is inversely proportional to the distance
from the wire. Hence deflection of compass decreases when it is displaced away from the
conductor.
(c) If the direction of current is reversed, the direction of the needle deflection also get
reversed.

16. State three factors on which the strength of magnetic field produced by a current
carrying solenoid depends. Strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying
solenoid depends upon the following factors:
• number of turns in the coil
• amount of current flowing through it
• radius of coil
• Material of core of the solenoid.

17. Give reason for the following : The burnt out fuse should be replaced by another fuse
of identical rating.
• If a fuse of higher rating is used then it may not melt and cut off the supply during
overloading.
• Similarly a fuse of lower rating may melt frequently even for a normal flow of
current. This results in decreasing the efficiency of the circuit.

18. List two distinguishing features between the magnetic field produced by a current
carrying solenoid and a bar magnet.
• A bar magnet is a permanent magnet whereas solenoid is an electromagnet, therefore
field produced by solenoid is temporary and stay till current flows through it.
• Magnetic field produced by solenoid is more stronger than magnetic field of a bar
magnet.

19. Alternating current has a frequency of 50 Hz. What is meant by this statement? How
many times does it change its direction in one second?
Ans: This means, A.C. completes 50 cycles in one second. In each cycle it changes its
direction twice Thus, A.C. changes direction 2 × 50 = 100 times in one second.

20. List three characteristic features of the electric current used in our homes. (i) The
electric current which we receive in our homes are alternating current with a frequency of
50 Hz.
(ii) There are mainly two wires used in the power supply provided to us. The one usually
with a red insulation is called the live wire (or positive wire) and the one with black
insulation is called the neutral wire (or negative wire). The potential difference between
these wires is 220 V.
(iii) Often, there are two separate circuits used in our homes, one of 15 A current rating
for appliances with higher power rating and the other circuit of 5 A rating for appliances
such as fans, bulbs, etc.
 HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD.

MCQ QUESTIONS.

April 2019
1. The change that occurs in the eye to see the distant objects clearly is
(A) focal length of the eye lens decreases (B) curvature of the eye lens increases
(C) focal length of the eye lens increases (D) ciliary muscles of the eye contract

June - 2020
1. The sky as seen from the surface of the moon appears dark because,
(A) only a little of the blue and violet colours are scattered
(B) all the colours are absorbed by the atmosphere present in the moon
(C) all the colours are scattered
(D) atmospheric particles needed to scatter the light are not present.

APRIL 2023.
1. Observe the given figure. Identify the eye defect indicated in this figure.

(A) Presbyopia (B) Hypermetropia (C) Myopia (D) Cataract

Ans. : (C) Myopia

1 MARK QUESTIONS.

\APRIL 2019.

1. What is Tyndall effect ?

Ans. : The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles is called Tyndall
effect .

June 2019

1. What is the function of pupil of the human eye ? (1Mark)

Ans. : The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye.
2 MARK QUESTIONS.

APRIL 2019
1. Observe the given figure. Name the eye defect indicated in the figure and also mention
the lens used to correct this defect.

Ans : Near sightedness or Myopia Concave lens has to be used to correct this defect.
2. What is dispersion of light ? Mention the colour that bends the least and the colour that
bends the most when light undergoes dispersion through a prism.
Ans. : The splitting of light into its component colours is called dispersion. The colour
that bends the least is - Red and the colour that bends the most is – Violet

3. Mention any four phenomena that can be observed due to atmospheric refraction of
light on the earth.
Ans. : Twinkling of stars Advance sunrise and delayed sunset
Difference in the actual and apparent positions of stars.
Formation of rainbow

JUNE 2019

1. (i) What is Tyndall effect ? (ii) Name the colour that bends the least and the colour that
bends the most when white light is dispersed by a prism.
Ans. : (i) The phenomenon of scattering of light by the colloidal particles is called
Tyndall effect
(ii) The colour that bends the least is - Red and the colour that bends the most is -
Violet

2. (i) What is meant by the power of accommodation of the eye ? (ii) What are the far
point and near point of the human eye with normal vision ?
Ans. : (i) The ability of the eye lens to adjust its focal length is called accommodation.
(ii) Far point - infinity and Near point - 25 cm

3. What is hypermetropia or far-sightedness ? Name the type of lens used to correct it.
Ans. : A person can see distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly.
This defect is called as hypermetropia or far-sightedness. Convex lens has to be used to
correct this defect.
JUNE 2020
1. A student sitting in the last bench has difficulty in reading the blackboard writing.
Which is the defect of vision the student has ? How can it be corrected ?
Ans. : Student had the defect of near-sightedness or Myopia. Concave lens has to be used
to correct this defect.

3 MARKQUESTIONS.
JUNE 2020

1. Draw the diagram to show the recombination of the spectrum of white light and label
the following parts. a) The ray of light that bends the most b) The ray of light that bends
the least.

APRIL 2023

1. How does rainbow form in the nature ? Explain. Mention the colour of the light that
bends the most and that bends the least
Ans: It is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets present in the
atmosphere.
The water droplets in the atmosphere act like small prisms.
They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally and
finally refract it again.
Due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection different colours reach
observer‘s eye. Violet colour bends the most. Red colour bends the least.

2. How does the eye lens accommodate to see the distant objects and nearby objects ?
Explain.
Ans When ciliary muscles relax, the curvature of the lens decreases and becomes thin.
Then focal length of the lens increases and distant objects are clearly visible.
When ciliary muscles contract, the curvature of the lens increases and becomes
thick. Then focal length of the lens decreases and nearby objects are clearly visible.
June 2023

1.a) How does the lens of human eye accommodate to see the nearby objects and the
distant objects ? Explain. b) Explain the formation of rainbow in the nature.
Ans : Same as in April 2023

5 MARK QUESTIONS.

April 2020

1. Explain the experiment conducted by Newton to show that white light contains seven
colours. Sun appears red in colour during sunrise but appears white at noon. Explain with
the reasons. (5 marks) Ans. : Newton‘s experiment - Isaac Newton was the first to use
a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight. He tried to split the colours of the
spectrum of white light further by using another similar prism. Then he placed a
second identical prism in an inverted position with respect to the first prism, allowed all
the colours of the spectrum to pass through the second prism. He found a beam of
white light emerging from the other side of the second prism. This observation gave
Newton the idea that the sunlight is made up of seven colours. Light from the Sun near
the horizon passes through thicker layers of air and larger distance in the earth‘s
atmosphere. Near the horizon, most of the blue light and shorter wavelengths are
scattered away by the particles. Red light has longer wave length and reaches to our eyes.
This gives rise to the reddish appearance of the Sun. While at noon , light would travel
relatively shorter distance and very little amount of blue and violet colours are scattered
hence the sun appears white.

MOST LIKELY QUESTIONS FOR 2024(Including previous year questions )

1. How our pupil adjust for the dim light and bright light ?
Ans : Pupil will dialate when light is dim light so as to allow more light , while it
constricts in bright light to minimise the entry of light

2. A person needs a lens of power – 2.5 D for correction of her vision. (a) What kind of
defect in vision is she suffering from? (b) What is the focal length of the corrective lens?
(c) What is the nature of the corrective lens?
Ans : (a) The defect is near sightedness or Myopia (b) Focal length of the lens 𝑓 = 1 𝑃 =
1 −2.5 = −0.4 𝑚 𝑜𝑟−40 𝑐𝑚 (c) The nature of the corrective lens is - Concave lens
3. An eye defect which can not be rectified by using lens –
(A) Myopia (B) Hypermetropia (C) Presbyopia (D) Cataract
4. A person with a myopic eye cannot see objects beyond 1.2 m distinctly. What should
be the type of the corrective lens used to restore proper vision?
Ans : Given : person cannot see object beyond the 1.2m So, in order to view objects
beyond 1.2m the focal length of the lens should be 1.2m Hence , the power of the lens 𝑃
= 1 𝑓 = 1 1.2 =0.83 𝐷 As the defect was myopic , the corrective lens should be concave
lens with power of – 0.83D
5. Why is a normal eye not able to see clearly the objects placed closer than 25 cm?
Ans This is because the ciliary muscles of eye are unable to contract beyond a certain
limit. If the object is placed at a distance less than 25 cm from the eye . then the object
appears blurred Because light rays coming from object meet beyond the retina.

6. Define the angle of deviation.

Ans.The angle between the direction of incident ray and the emergent ray, is called the
angle of deviation.

7. Why do we see a rainbow in the sky only after rainfall?

Ans.A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun. The water
droplets act like small prisms. They refract and disperse the incident sunlight as a
rainbow.

8. Is the position of a star as seen by us its true position? Justify your answer.
Ans: No , It‘s an apparent position. Due to the atmospheric refraction , the apparent
position of the star is slightly different from its actual position. The star appears
slightly higher (above) than its actual position when viewed near the horizon

9. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the (A) pupil. (B)
retina. (C) ciliary muscles. (D) iris.

10. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour.
These can be easily seen from a distance because among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog (b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog (c) is
absorbed the most by smoke or fog (d) moves fastest in air

11. Why does the sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut?
Ans. There is no atmospheric particles to scatter the light, hence it appears dark

12. State the function of each of the following parts of human eye: (i) Cornea (ii) Iris (iii)
Pupil (iv) Ciliary muscles (iv) Retina
Ans.(i) Cornea : It is a transparent bulge on the front surface of eyeball which refracts
most of the light rays entering the eye. (ii) Irish is a dark muscular diaphragm that
controls the size of the pupil. (iii) Pupil: It controls the amount of light entering into the
eye. (iv) Ciliary muscles: Ciliary muscles holds the eye lens and helps in the adjustment
of its focal length. (v) Retina: It capture light and convert it into electric signals that are
translated into images by the brain.

13. Draw the diagram showing the Myopic eye and its correction by lens.
14. Draw
the

diagram showing the Hypermotropic eye and its correction by lens.

15. ―The time difference between the actual sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2
minutes‖ What is the reason for the same? Explain
Ans. The Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise, and about 2
minutes after the actual sunset because of atmospheric refraction. By actual sunrise, we
mean the actual crossing of the horizon by the Sun. Figure shows the actual and apparent
positions of the Sun with respect to the horizon. The time difference between actual
sunset and the apparent sunset is about 2 minutes. The apparent flattening of the Sun’s
disc at sunrise and sunset is also due to the same phenomenon.

16. Give reason: (i) reddish appearance of the sun at the sunrise or the sunset and (ii)
white appearance of the sun at noon when it is overhead.
Ans.(i) At sun-rise and the sun-set, light from the sun passes through thicker layers of air
and larger distance in the earth’s atmosphere. As the red colour has longest wavelength
hence, it is least scattered by the air and dust particles. So, the sun appears reddish. (ii) At
noon, when sun is overhead, the distance to be travelled is least. All wavelengths are
scattered equally and hence sun appears white.

17. What happens when a narrow beam of (i) a monochromatic light and (ii) white light
passes through a glass prism?
Ans. i) It gets refracted at the surface and the light gets deviated from its initial path ii)
the white light undergoes dispersion and splits into its constituent colours along with
deviation from its initial path.

18.In a triangular prism. If the angle of incidence increases, the angle of deviation
a] increases b] decreases c] remains the same d] none of the above.
 LIFE-PROCESSES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The blood vessels that carry blood from all parts of the human body to the heart
are JULY-2021
(A) arteries (B) capillarie (C) pulmonary arteries (D) veins
2. Plants can get rid of excess of water by this process

(A) Transpiration (B) Photosynthesis (C) Respiration (D) Translocation

3 The blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the
lungs in the human body are SEP-2021
(A) Pulmonary veins (B) Aorta (C) Veins (D) Pulmonary arteries
4 The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis in plants is
(A) Transpiration (B) Osmosis (C) Diffusion (D) Translocation
ONE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Under what condition lactic acid is produced in the muscle cells ? APRIL-19
Ans. : Lactic acid is produced when there is lack of oxygen in the muscle cells.

2. Eating chapatti by chewing it very slowly tastes sweeter. Why? SEPT-2020 When
chapatti is chewed for some time it taste sweeter because, the saliva produced
by the salivary glands consist of enzyme called Amylase .This enzyme converts
the starch content(carbohydrate)present in the chapatti into sugar.

3. The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in
terrestrial organisms” Why ? APRIL-2020

Aquatic organisms like fishes obtain oxygen from water present in dissolved
state through the gills. Since the amount of dissolved oxygen is fairly low as
compared to the amount of oxygen in the air, t
4. Name the products of anaerobic respiration. JUNE-2019
Ethanol and Carbon dioxide are the products of anaerobic respiration
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS
JUNE 2019
5 The approximate lengths of small intestine of animals x and y are given in the
table. Observe it and answer the question.
Animal Approximate length of small intestine
X 20 to 40 feet
Y 5 to 8 feet
 Identify the herbivorous and carnivorous animals in the table and support your
decision with scientific reasons.
Animal X is herbivorous and animal Y is carnivorous. The small
intestine is longer in herbivores than in carnivores because herbivores
consume plant which is full of cellulose and the digestion of cellulose takes
a long time. Herbivores need a longer small intestine to allow cellulose to
be digested.
Whereas Meat is easier to digest, hence carnivores have shorter small intestine.
6 Explain the process of translocation of food materials in plants. APRIL-2019
a) Translocation of food materials occurs in the phloem tissue of plants.
b) This process takes place in the sieve tubes with the help of adjacent
companion cells both in upward and downward directions.
c) This process is achieved by osmotic pressure.
7. Draw the diagram showing opened stomata. Label the following parts : Guard cells
(ii) Stomatal pore.

8. Diagrams given below represent hearts of three different animals. Observe it and
answer the question.
(1) (2) (3)

Among these, which heart is helpful to the animals that require more energy ? Why ?
june 2019
Ans : (i) Heart - 2
(ii) Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood will no mix together Efficient supply of

oxygen to the body.Helpful to maintain body temperature.

9. Give reason : APRIL-2022
a) ‘Ventricles of the human heart have thick wall.’
b) ‘It is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in

mammals and birds.’

Ans. : a) Since ventricles have to pump blood into various organs.

b) Since they need more energy to maintain their body temperature constant.

10. How does transportation of water take place over the heights in a plant ?
sept-2020
• At the roots, cells in contact with the soil actively take up ions. This creates a
difference in the concentration of these ions between the root and the soil.
• Water moves into the root from the soil to eliminate this difference. There is a
steady movement of water into root xylem, creating a column of water that is
steadily pushed upwards.
• Evaporation of water molecules from the stomata of leaves due to
transpiration creates a suction which pulls water from xylem cells of root.

11. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human excretory system and label
‘ureter’. June 2022

4 Observe the given below figures : april-2023

a) Which figure indicates the massive amount of exchange of gases ? Why ?
b) Name the parts X and Y. What is the function of other part X ?

Ans. : a) Fig. (i) / Open stomata It is because the stomatal pore is open.

b) X — Guard cell Y — Stomatal pore X part Regulates opening and closing of

stomatal pore.

5 Compare the functions of xylem tissue with that of phloem tissue.

June 2023

Xylem Phloem
Transport water and minerals Transport food
Flow of materials is in two directions
Flow of materials is unidirectional
(upward
and downward)
Xylem tracheids and vessels transport Sieve tube and companion cells
materials from root to shoot transport materials to all the parts from
leaves
Works by suction pressure Works by osmotic pressure

6 Explain the process of exchange of gases that take place through stomata in
plants. June 2023
• In plants the large intercellular spaces and all the cells are oftenly in
contact with air, due to this CO2 and oxygen are exchanged by diffusion
here. This means
• Gases can go into cells and away from them and out into the air

7 How is the structure of human heart supportive in transporting oxygenated blood

and deoxygenated blood ? Explain. June 2023

• Human heart has different chambers

• The valves present in between the chambers prevent backward flow of
blood
• Separated by dividing wall septum
• Septum is responsible for creating separate pathways to transport
oxygenated and deoxygenerated blood.

8 In humans, how is the digested food absorbed by the blood ? Mention the
function of blood in transporting necessary materials. June 2023
• Absorbed by finger like projections Villi present in small intestine
 • Blood plasma — transports food, carbon dioxide and nitrogen wastes
• RBC — Carries oxygen
• Many other substances like salts are also transported by blood.

9 What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products ?
june 2022
a. Excess of water removed by transpiration
b. Remove oxygen and carbon dioxide gases through stomata
c. Waste products and dead cells in vacuoles by shedding leaves / barks
d. Resins and gums get store in old xylem
e. Diffusing certain wastes into surrounding soil.

Three mark questions

1 How are the functions of arteries, veins and capillaries are interrelated in the
circulation of blood ? sep-2020
Ans. :Arteries carry blood away from the heart to various organs of the
body. On reaching an organ or tissue, the artery divides into smaller and
smaller vessels to bring the blood in contact with all the individual cells.
Exchange of material between the blood and surrounding takes place
across the thin wall of smallest vessels, the capillaries. The capillaries
then join together to form veins.
Veins convey the blood away from the organ or tissue. Veins collect the
blood from different organs and bring it back to the heart.

2 Which are the factors essential for photosynthesis ? Mention the events that occur
during this process and represent this process by balanced chemical equation.
April-2022
Factors essential for photosynthesis : Carbon dioxide, water, minerals, sunlight and

chlorophyll. Events that occur during photosynthesis :

i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll.

ii) Conversion of light energy into chemical energy.

iii) Splitting of water molecules into hydrogen and oxygen molecules.

iv) Reduction of carbon dioxide into carbohydrates. Equation :

3. What is double circulation ? Explain the stages of ‘double circulation’ of the blood

in humans. June 2022

 Ans. : Blood goes through the heart twice during each cycle in our body. This is

known as double circulation.

Transportation of blood in heart :

a. Oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes to the left atrium.
b. When the left atrium relaxes and contracts then blood gets
transferred to left ventricle
c. When the left ventricle contracts the blood is pumped out to the
body through aorta.
d. De-oxygenated blood comes from the body to the right atrium.
e. As the right atrium contracts the blood get transferred to the right
ventricle.
f. On contraction of right ventricle the blood go to the lungs for
oxygenation.
4 Draw the diagram showing the structure of nephron and label ‘glomerulus’
june 2023

Three MARKS QUESTIONS.

1 Explain the digestion of food materials in stomach and small intestine.
Stomach : april 2023
• Gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach release hydrochloric acid,
pepsin and mucus.
• Hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium which facilitates the action of
pepsin.
• Pepsin digests protein.
Small intestine :
• It receives pancreatic juice and bile juice. Bile juice makes the food alkaline.
• Bile salts emulsify the fats in the small intestine.
 • Trypsin present in pancreatic juice helps to digest the proteins.
• Lypase breaks down the emulsified fats.
• Enzymes present in the small intestinal juice convert proteins into amino acids,
complex carbohydrates into glucose and fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

2.Draw the diagram showing the sectional view of the human heart. Label the
following parts. April 2019
(i) Aorta (ii) Chamber of heart that receives deoxygenated blood.
Ans :

Which molecule is formed during the first step of cellular respiration by the
breakdown of glucose molecule in cytoplasm ? Mention the types of
respiration and write any two differences between them. April-
2022
Ans. : Pyruvate.
Two types : i) Aerobic respiration ii) Anaerobic respiration.

Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration.

Atmospheric oxygen is utilised Atmospheric oxygen is not utilised

Liberates more energy with Liberates less energy with ethanol
carbon dioxide and water and carbon dioxide
Takes place in mitochondria Takes place in cytoplasm
Takes place in higher levels of Takes place in lower organisms like
organisms yeast.
2. Explain the role of xylem and phloem tissues in the transportation of materials in
plants. April-2023
Xylem : Water conducting tissue.
• In xylem tissue, vessels and tracheids of the roots, stem and leaves are
interconnected to form a continuous system of water-conducting channel
reaching all parts of the plant.
• Transpiration ( loss of water through stomata ) creates suction pressure and
creates a column of water.
• This steadily pushes the water upward with dissolved minerals in it.

Phloem : Food conducting tissue.

• Phloem translocates soluble products of photosynthesis, amino acids and
other substances from the leaves to storage organs of roots, fruits and seeds,
and to the growing organs.
• Translocation takes place in sieve tube with the help of companion cell, both in
 upward and downward directions.
• Osmotic pressure helps water to move into the phloem tissue and moves other
materials from the phloem to other tissues.
3. Describe the structure and functioning of nephrons.

Ans : Structure of nephron :Each nephron is composed of two parts.

• First one is a cup-shaped bag at its upper end which is called Bowman’s
capsule. The Bowman’s capsule contains a bundle of blood capillaries which is
called glomerulus.
• The other part of the nephron is coiled which carries filtrate to the collecting

Function of nephron : Filtration of blood takes place in Bowman’s capsule from the
capillaries of glomerulus. The filtrate passes into the tubular part of the nephron.
This filtrate contains glucose, amino acids, urea, uric acid, salts and water.
• As the filtrate flows along the tubule, useful substances such as glucose, amino
acids, salts and water are selectively reabsorbed into the blood by capillaries
surrounding the nephron tubule.
• The filtrate which remained after reabsorption is called urine.
• Urine is collected from nephrons to carry it to the ureter from where it passes
into urinary bladder.

MOST LIKELY QUESTIONS FOR 2024( Including previous year questions )

1. What is the role of acid in our stomach ?

It provides acidic medium to promote the action of pepsin It kills bacteria

present in the food

2 Mucus is not used for churning the food or digesting it. Then why is it
secreted in the stomach?

Ans. Excessive secretion of HCI can damage the inner lining of stomach. Hence,
mucus is secreted in the stomach to protect its inner lining from being damaged by
HCI.

3 How is small intestine designed to absorb digested food ?

Ans : The small intestine has millions of tiny finger-like projections called villi. These
villi increase the surface area for more efficient food absorption. Within these villi,
many blood vessels are present that absorb the digested food and carry it to the
bloodstream.
 4 Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with petroleum jelly. How will it
affect the plant? State two reasons.
The plant will not remain healthy for long due to the following reasons:

1. There will be no transpiration.

There will be no exchange of gases which will affect the rate of photosynthesis

5 What are the components of the transport system in human beings? What are
the functions of these components?
Ans : The transport system in human beings mainly consists of heart, blood and
blood vessels.

(i) Function of heart : The heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body
parts and pumps it to lungs for enriching with oxygen. It receives purified
blood from lungs and pumps it around the body.

(ii) Function of blood : Blood transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, digested food,
hormones and nitrogeneous waste like urea. It also protects the body from
diseases and regulates the body temperature.
(iii) Function of blood vessels : The blood pushed by the heart flows through the
blood vessels (arteries, veins and capillaries) and also comes back to the
heart through them.

6 Why the walls of trachea are supported by cartilaginous rings?

Ans. The trachea is supported by cartilaginous rings which prevent the collapsing
even when there is not much air in it.

7 Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in

mammals and birds?
OR
What are the advantages of having four chambered heart in birds and mammals
• Separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood allows good supply of
oxygen to the body.
• This system is useful in animals that have high energy requirement.
• Mammals and birds constantly need oxygen to get energy to maintain their
body temperature constant.

8 How arteries and veins are structurally differ in each other ?

Ans :
• Since the blood emerges from the heart under high pressure, the arteries have
thick, elastic walls.
 • Veins do not need thick walls because the blood is no longer under pressure,
instead they have valves that ensure that the blood flows only in one
direction.
9 Write the mechanism of Opening and Closing of Stomatal Pore .
• The opening and closing of the pore is a function of the guard cells.
• The guard cells swell when water flows into them causing the stomatal pore to
open.
• Similarly the pore closes if the guard cells shrink.
• As large amount of water is lost through stomata, the plant closes these pores.

10 Compare to animals , plants need less energy.Why?

• Plant doesn’t move
Major part of the plant body is made up of dead cell\

11 What would be the consequences of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies?

Ans: Due to the deficiency of haemoglobin in blood, its oxygen carrying
capacity decreases. As a result the production of energy by oxidation will
become slower. Therefore, one would fall sick and would feel fatigue most of
the time.

12 Give two points of differences between respiration in plants and respiration in

animals

Ans : (i) In plants, all parts like the root, stem, leaves, etc., perform respiration
individually., while in animals, either the general body surface or specific
organs like the skin, gills, lungs, etc.,

(ii) There is a minimal transport of gasses from one part of the plant to other , unlike
the animals

(iii) Plant respiration occurs at much slower rate than animals

(iv) During the daytime, water and minerals travel faster through xylem as
compared to the night.It is because during daytime rate of transpiration is
higher.
13 Trace the movement of oxygenated blood in the body.
Lungs → Pulmonary veins → Left atrium of heart → Aorta → Arteries → Body parts
14 How glucose is break down in the cytoplasm ?
The break down of glucose ,a six cabon molecule ,in to a three carbon molecule
called pyruvate is formed.
15 Name the molecule synthesised during cellualar respiration and write its
function.
ATP .ATP is used to fuel all other activities in the cell.
16 Write the importance of transpiration?
• It regulates temperature.
• Helps in upward movement of water and minerals from root to the leaves.
 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

1.The possible chemical reaction among the following is April 2019

(A) FeSO4 + Pb → PbSO4 + Fe (B) ZnSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Zn
(C) 2 AgNO3 + Cu → Cu ( NO3)2 + 2 Ag (D) PbCl2 + Cu → CuCl2 + Pb

2. Fe2O3 + 2 Al → Al2O3 + 2 Fe June 2019

The type of above chemical reaction is
(A) combination reaction (B) double displacement reaction
(C) decomposition reaction (D) displacement reaction.

3. The gas liberated at the cathode in the electrolysis of water is-

April - 2022
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Chlorine (D) Nitrogen.

4. Chips manufacturers, flush bags of chips with nitrogen gas because, to

March 2022
(A) prevent corrosion of chips (B) prevent chips from getting oxidised
(C) make chips undergo rancidity (D) prevent the chips from getting reduced.

5. The reactants that exchange ions by reacting with each other and form a
precipitate among the following are – March 2023
(A) BaCl2 and Na2SO4 (B) Al2O3 and HCl
(C) NaOH and H2SO4 (D) Na2O and CO2

1 Mark questions
1. CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O In this reaction name the reactant April 2020
i) that is oxidised ii) that is reduced.
• Oxidised reactant = Hydrogen (H2)
• Reduced reactant = Copper Oxide (CuO

2. Manufacturers of chips, flush the packets of chips with nitrogen gas. Why ?
(1Mark) April 2020
To prevent the rancidity ,

3. ZnO + C → Zn + CO In this reaction name the reactant March 2022

i) that is oxidised and ii) that is reduced.
Ans. :• Oxidised reactant is : C
• Reduced reactant is : ZnO

4 . Name the product produced when calcium oxide reacts with water.
Ans. : Calcium hydroxide / slaked lime OR 𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2

1.Name the brown fumes liberated when lead nitrate is heated. Write the
balanced chemical equation for this reaction. (2Marks)
• Nitrogen dioxide (NO2 )
• 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
2.Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in the electrolysis of water. Label the
following parts. (2Marks) April 2019

i)Graphite rod (ii) Cathode.

2. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in the electrolysis of water. Label the
following parts. (i) Graphite rod (ii) Cathode. June 2019

3.Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus used to show the

electrolysis of water and label the ‘graphite rod’. June – 2022

4.The reaction between Aluminium sulphate with barium chloride .Name the type
of chemical reaction and write balanced chemical equation for this reaction.
April 2022
Ans: Double displacement or precipitation reaction
Al2(SO4)3 + 3BaCl2 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4 ↓

5. What is the type of chemical reaction in which quicklime is obtained by lime

stone (calcium carbonate) ? Write a chemical equation for this reaction.
June 2023
• Decomposition reaction or thermal decomposition reaction / endothermic
reaction.
Equation : 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2 (limestone) (quick lime)

6. An iron nail is dropped into a test tube having copper sulphate solution. The
iron nail gradually turns to brownish colour. Why ? March 2023
Ans. : Since iron is more reactive than copper, it displaces copper from copper
sulphate solution / Displaced copper gets deposited on the iron nail. .

7. “Calcium oxide and carbon dioxide are produced on heating calcium

carbonate.” Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction. Mention the
type of this chemical reaction. March 2023
Ans : 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2
Decomposition reaction / Thermal decomposition reaction / endothermic reaction
(any one

8. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following chemical reactions.
How can we confirm by observation that these chemical reactions are taking
place ? june2020
a) Lead nitrate is heated. b) Sodium sulphate reacts with Barium chloride.
a) Brown fumes of Nitrogen dioxide will liberate when lead nitrate is heated.
2Pb ( NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
b) White precipitate of Barium sulphate will be formed ,
Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → 2NaCl + BaSO4 ↓

3 MARKS
1. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following chemical reactions :
march - 2022
i) Calcium carbonate 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide
ii) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
iii) Magnesium + Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen.
Ans. :i) 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 → 𝐶𝑎𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2
ii) 𝐻2 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 2𝐻𝐶𝑙
iii) 𝑀𝑔 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐻2

2. Which type of chemical reaction takes place when an iron nail is dipped in
copper sulphate solution ?Why ? Write a balanced chemical equation for this
chemical reaction. march - 2022
• Chemical displacement reaction.
• Because more reactive iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.
𝐹𝑒 + 𝐶𝑢𝑆O4 → 𝐹𝑒𝑆O4 + 𝐶𝑢

2. Add same amount of barium chloride solution to a test tube containing 5 ml of

sodium sulphate solution. ThenWhich insoluble white precipitate is formed ?
June 2023
i) Name the ions responsible for the formation of white precipitate.
ii) Mention the type of chemical reaction that took place here.
Ans. :i) Barium sulphate OR 𝐵𝑎𝑆𝑂4
sulphate radical (𝑆𝑂4−2) , Barium ion (𝐵𝑎+2)
ii)Double displacement reaction / precipitation reaction.

MOST LIKELY QUESTIONS FOR 2024 ( Including previous year questions

1 An iron nail is kept in copper sulphate for some time what will happen to the
color of the solution?Write the balanced chemical equation
Ans : Blue colour changes to green
𝐹𝑒 + 𝐶𝑢𝑆𝑂4→𝐹𝑒𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐶u
2. Give an example, each for thermal decomposition, Electolytic decomposition
and photochemical decomposition reactions. Write balanced equation for the
same.

Thermal decomposition : If the decomposition is carried out by heating is called

thermal decomposition Example : On heating limestone is converted in to quick
lime CaCO3 𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡 CaO + CO2

Photolytic Decomposition : If the decomposition is carried out in presence of

sunlight is called Photolytic decomposition
Example : Exposure of Silver chloride in sunlight
2AgCl 𝑆𝑢𝑛𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 2Ag + Cl2

Electrolytic Decomposition
2H2O 2H2 + O2

3. What are redox reactions ? Give example.

Ans: The reactions in which both oxidation and reduction takes place
simultaneously Are called redox reactions

4.A shiny brown colored element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes a black colored
compound. Name the element ‘X’ & the black colored compound formed. Also
write the equation.
Ans: Element X is - Copper
Black colored compound is - CuO( Copper oxide)
2Cu + O2 → 2 CuO

5. What is rancidity? Write the common methods to prevent it.

Ans: Rancidity : The oxidation of fats and oils when exposed to air is known as
rancidity. It leads to bad smell and bad taste of food.
Methods to Prevent Rancidity
(i) By adding antioxidants
(ii) (ii) Keeping food in air tight containers
(iii) (iii) Replacing air by nitrogen
(iv) (iv) Refrigeration

6. A shining metal ‘M’, on burning gives a dazzling white flame and changes to a
white powder ‘N’.
(a) Identify ‘M’ and ‘N’.
(b) Represent the above reaction in the form of a balanced chemical equation.
(C) Does ‘M’ undergo oxidation or reduction in this reaction? Justify.

Ans : (a) ‘M’ is - Magnesium and ‘N’ is Magnesium oxide

(b) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
(c) It’s an oxidation reaction , because magnesium get oxidised in to magnesium
oxide

7. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance
them.
a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia
3 H2 + N2 2 NH3

b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide

2H2S + 2O2 2 H2O + 2SO2

c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and
aprecipitate of barium chloride

3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 3BaSO4 + 2AlCl3

d)Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen
gas

2K +2H2O 2KOH + H2

8. Balance the following equations.

A) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
2 HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 Ca(NO3)2 + H2O

B) NaOH + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + H2O

2 NaOH + H2SO4 Na2SO4 + 2 H2O

C) NaCl + AgNO3 AgCl + NaNO3

Self balanced

D) BaCl2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + HCl

BaCl2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + 2HCl

9. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions

A) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide Calcium carbonate + water
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 CaCO3 + H2O

B) Zinc + Silver nitrate Zinc nitrate + Silver

Zn +2 AgNO3 Zn(NO3)2 + 2Ag

C) Aluminium + Copper chloride Aluminium chloride + Copper

Al + CuCl2 AlCl2 + Cu

D) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate Barium sulphate + Potassium

chloride
BaCl2 + K2SO4 BaSO4 + 2 KCl

10. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type
of
Reaction in each case
A) Potassium bromide + Barium iodide Potassium iodide+ Barium bromide
2KBr + BaI2 BaBr2 + 2KI
Double displacement

B) Zinc carbonate Zinc oxide + Carbon dioxide

ZnCO3 ZnO + CO2
Chemical decomposition

C) Hydrogen + Chlorine Hydrogen chloride

H2 + Cl2 2HCl
Chemical combination

D) Magnesium + Hydrochloric acid magnesium chloride + Hydrogen

Mg +2 HCl MgCl2 + H2
Displacement reaction
 LEVEL-2
METALS AND NON METALS
Previous questions from SSLC Board
April 2019
1. Give reasons :

(i) Ionic compounds in solid state do not conduct electricity, whereas in molten state are good
conductors of electricity.

(ii) Silver articles when exposed to air gradually turn blackish.

(iii) Chemical reaction does not take place when copper is added to iron sulphate solution.
Ans : (i) In the solid state ionic compounds do not conduct electricity because movement of ions in
the solid is not possible due to their rigid structure,

In molten state, ions move freely and conduct electricity.

(ii) Silver reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of silver sulphide.

(iii) Reactivity of copper is less than that of iron.

OR
Give reasons :

(i) Copper loses its brown layer gradually when exposed to air.

(ii) Aluminium oxide is called amphoteric oxide.

Ans : (i) Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air and slowly loses its shiny brown surface
and gains a green coat.

(ii) Aluminium oxide ( Al2O3 ) reacts with both acids as well as bases to produce salt and
water.

June 2019

1. (i) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place when aluminium
reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
(ii) Hydrogen gas is not liberated when a metal reacts with concentrated nitric acid. Give reason.

Ans : (i) 2 Al + 6 HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H 2

(ii) Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent.

It oxidises hydrogen produced to water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen oxides.
OR
Show the formation of NaCl and MgCl2 with the help of electron dot structure.

Ans :
 2. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to show the action of steam on a metal.
Label the following parts :
(i) Metal sample
(ii) Delivery tube.

April 2020

1. Which physical properties are used in the following situations ?

i) Gold is used to make ornaments
ii) Nickel is used in strings of guitar.
Ans : i) Shining surface / Metallic lustre , Ductility and Malleability ( Any two )

ii) Sonorous and Ductility.

September 2020
1. What are amphoteric oxides ?

Ans. : Metallic oxides that show both acidic and basic behaviour are called amphoteric oxides.

3. Strips of zinc, iron, magnesium and copper are taken in the test tubes A,B, C and D
respectively. Same quantity of ferrous sulphate solution is added to these test tubes. In
which test tubes chemical reaction will occur ? Why ? Write the chemical equations for the
reactions taking place here.
Ans : Chemical reaction occurs in test tubes A and C.
Because zinc and magnesium are more reactive than iron.

• Zn + FeSO 4 → ZnSO4 + Fe

July 2021 (MCQ based exam)

1. Observe the following chemical reactions :

Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4+ Cu Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4+ Fe

The decreasing order of reactivity of the metals in the above reactions is

(A) Zn > Fe > Cu (B) Fe > Cu > Zn

(C) Zn > Cu > Fe (D) Cu > Fe > Zn
Sept 2021 (MCQ based exam)

1. Observe the following equations of chemical reactions :

Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4+ Fe

2 Al + 3 ZnSO4 → Al2 ( SO4 )3+ 3 Zn

The increasing order of reactivity of the metals in the above reactions is

(A) Fe < Zn < Al (B) Al < Zn < Fe

(C) Zn < Fe < Al (D) Al < Fe < Zn

April - 2022
1. Draw the diagram to show the arrangement of the apparatus used for testing the
conductivity of salt solution and label ‘graphite rod’.

2. Give reason :
a) Metals are used in making cooking vessels.
b) Sodium metal is stored in kerosene.
Ans. :
a) Because, metals are good conductors of heat and have property of malleability.
b) Sodium metal vigorously reacts with atmospheric oxygen and water, but not with
kerosene.
OR
Give reason :
a) When a calcium metal reacts with water, the liberated hydrogen gas does not catch fire.
b) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points.

Ans. :
a) The reaction of calcium with water is less violent. The heat evolved is not sufficient for the
hydrogen to catch fire.
b) Because a considerable amount of energy is required to break the strong inter-ionic
attraction.

June - 2022
1. The metal that displaces copper from copper sulphate solution is

(A) mercury (B) gold (C) iron (D) silver

 2. a) Explain the formation of ionic bond between sodium atom and chlorine atom. [ Atomic
number of sodium is 11, Atomic number of chlorine is 17 ]
b) List any four general properties of ionic compounds.
Ans. : a) Electronic configuration of sodium atom is 2, 8, 1 Electronic configuration of chlorine
atom is 2, 8, 7

• To have stable octet configuration sodium loses its one valence electron, thus forms
sodium cation
( Na ) and chlorine receives one electron to its valence shell, thus forms chloride anion ( Cl
).
• Due to the electrostatic force between oppositely charged Na andCl ions
sodium chloride (NaCl) forms.

b) Properties of ionic compounds :

i) Generally solids
ii) Generally brittle and breaks into pieces when pressure is applied.
iii) They have high melting and boiling points.
iv) Soluble in water and not soluble in organic solvents.
v) They do not conduct electricity is solid state / good conductors in molten or aqueous
state.

April 2023
1. Draw the diagram of arrangement of apparatus to show the action of steam on a metal.
( see June -2019)
2. Depict the formation of magnesium chloride with the help of electron dot structure.

𝑀𝑔 → 𝑀𝑔+2 + 2𝑒−

2𝐶𝑙 + 2− → 𝐶𝑙2

3. Hydrogen gas is not liberated when a metal like zinc reacts with nitric acid. Why ?

• Nitric acid is a strong oxidising agent

• It oxidises the hydrogen produced to water and itself gets reduced to oxides of
nitrogen.
4. How are metals in the middle of the reactivity series extracted from their ores ? Explain.

• Metals in the middle of the activity series are in the form of sulphide or carbonate
ores.
• The sulphide ores are converted into oxides by roasting. Roasting is heating the ores
strongly in the presence of excess air.

• The carbonate ores are converted into oxides by heating strongly in limited air in
calcination.
• The metal oxides are then reduced to the corresponding metals by using reducing
agents such as carbon.
June - 2023
1. Ionic compounds have high melting point and boiling point. Why ?

Ans. : Considerable amount / more amount of energy is required to break the strong inter ionic
attraction between the molecules.

2. What are alloys ? Write the constituent elements present in bronze and solder metal. An
alloy is a homogenous mixture of two or more metals or metals and non-metals.
• Bronze → Copper and tin / Cu and Sn
• Solder metal → Lead and tin / Pb and Sn

3. What are ores ? Name the respective methods used to convert sulphide and carbonate
ores of metals into their oxides.
Minerals contain a very high percentage of a particular metal and the metal can be profitably extracted
from it.
• sulphide ore → Roasting
• carbonate ore → Calcination
4. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus used to show the action of steam on
metal. Label the following parts :
i) Metal sample ii) Delivery tube. ( see June -2019)

MOST LIKELY QUESTIONS FOR 2024 ( Including previous year

questions )

1. Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.

Ans :
Na2O

MgO

2. What are the general properties for ionic compounds

• Ionic compounds are solids and are somewhat hard

• Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points
• compounds are generally soluble in water and insoluble in organic solvents
• ionic compounds conduct electricity in the molten state

3. Name any two metals those displaces hydrogen from the dilute acids and two metals
those does not displaces hydrogen from the dilute acids.
Metals those are more reactive than hydrogen displaces it from the dilute acids Example : Sodium ,
Potassium , Zinc , Iron
Metals those are less reactive than hydrogen does not displaces it from the dilute acids Example :
Copper , Silver
 4. Give reasons -
(a) Platinum , Gold , Silver are used in making ornaments
Ans - Shining surface / Metallic lustre , Ductility and Malleability , Less reactivity

(b) Sodium , Potassium are stored in kerosene

Ans : These metals are highly reactive with air and water. So they are kept in kerosene.

(c) Aluminium is used in utensils even it is more reactive. Ans : Aluminium is lighter and good
conductor
Aluminium forms oxide layer to prevent itself from further corrosion

5. Why the metal oxides are said to be basic oxides. Explain with an example. Metal oxides
when dissolved in water they form alkalis which are basic in nature Ex : Sodium hydroxide is
formed on dissolving sodium oxide in water
Na2O + H2O → 2NaOH

6. You are given cold water and hot water in two separate test tubes. If you kept a piece of
magnesium in test tube containing cold water it shrinks, while in hot water it floats. Give
reason

Ans :
• Magnesium do not react with cold water
• Magnesium liberates hydrogen gas when it reacts with hot water.
• It also starts floating due to the bubbles of hydrogen gas sticking to its surface.

7. Define ductility and malleability

• The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wires is called ductility.

• Some metals can be beaten into thin sheets. This property is called malleability

8. What is ionic bond ? Explain the formation of ionic bond taking sodium chloride as an

example. Ans :
• A strong electrostatic force of attraction between positive and negative ions is called
ionic bond.
• Sodium has an atomic number 11, its electron configuration is 2 , 8 , 1
• Chlorine has an atomic number 17, its electron configuration is 2 , 8 , 7
• So , sodium has 1 and chlorine has 7 electrons in their outer most orbit.
• To attain octave configuration sodium donates one electron to chlorine atom, then it
will becomes positive ion
• As chlorine atom receive one electron from sodium, it becomes negative ion
• Hence there is a strong electrostatic force of attraction between Na+ and Cl- ions
results in the formation of ionic bond between sodium and chlorine.

9. Metals are arranged in the reactivity series. Why hydrogen is kept in the series though it is
not a metal?

Ans. Hydrogen is a non metal but still it is placed in the reactivity series because it behaves as an
electropositive elements like metals i.e can loose electrons to form positive ions.
 10. Why do Aluminium oxide is called amphoteric oxide? Explain with help of chemical
equations
Ans : Aluminium oxide ( Al2O3 ) reacts with both acids as well as bases to produce salt and water,
hence it is called as amphoteric oxide.

• Aluminium oxide reacts with an acid -

Al2O3 +6HCl → 2AlCl3 + 3H2O

• Aluminium oxide reacts with base-

Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O

11. You are provided with three metals: sodium, magnesium and copper, Using only water as
the reactant, how will you identify each of them

Ans: (a) The metal which reacts violently with cold water and catches fire is sodium

(b) The metal which evolves hydrogen gas upon heating with water is magnesium

(c) The metal which does not react with water even on strong heating is copper

12. Corrosion of metals is not always harmful. Illustrate.

Ans. Corrosion is a very harmful process resulting in slow eating up of a metal but corrosion of
aluminium is useful as a layer of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) formed as result of chemical reaction and
gets deposited on the surface of metal. It forms a protective coating on the surface and prevents the
attacks of water, air, acids or alkalis.

13. Classify the following oxides as acidic , basic and amphoteric oxides ZnO , MgO , SO2 ,

CO2 , Na2O , CaO , Al2O3

Ans : Acidic oxides : SO2 , CO2

Basic oxides : MgO , Na2O , CaO , Amphoteric oxides : ZnO , Al2O3

14. (a) Why does calcium start floating when it reacts with water? Write the balanced
chemical equation of the reaction.
(b) Name two metals which do not react with water.

(a) Calcium reacts with cold water to form calcium hydroxide and liberates hydrogen gas.
The bubbles of hydrogen gas produced stick to the surface of calcium and hence, it starts floating on
the surface of water.
(b) Gold and silver do not react with water.

15. An ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence. Name the
type of ore with one example. What steps will be required to obtain metal from the enriched
ore? Also write the chemical equations for the reactions involved in the process.
 The ore on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid produces brisk effervescence hence, it must be a
carbonate ore.
Steps required to obtain metal from the enriched carbonate Are:
(a) Conversion of the carbonate ore into metal oxide : This is done by calcinations. In this process the
ore is heated strongly in absence of air. The zinc carbonate on heating decomposes to form zinc
oxide
Heat
ZnCO3 −−−−→ ZnO + CO2 ↑

b) Reduction of the metal oxide to metal using carbon as reducing agent

𝑍𝑛𝑂 + 𝐶 → 𝑍𝑛 + 𝐶𝑂

16. Compare the reactivity of the following metals with cold and hot water:

(a) Sodium
(b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
(d) Iron

(a) Sodium : It reacts violently with cold water and catches fire
(b) Calcium : It reacts less violently with cold water and do not catches the fire
(c) Magnesium : It does not reacts with cold water but it reacts with hot water
(d) Iron : It does not reacts with both clod and hot water

17. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to their respective
metals. Why? Where are these metals placed in the reactivity series? How are these metals
obtained form their ores?

Sodium, magnesium and aluminium have higher affinity towards oxygen than that of carbon. Hence,
carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to their respective metals.

These metals are placed at the top of the reactivity series.

The highly reactive metals like Na, Mg, Al, etc. are extracted by electrolytic process

18. Differentiate between a metal and a non-metal on the basis of chemical properties

Metals Non-metals
Metals generally form basic oxides. Non-metals generally form acidic oxides.

Metals which lie above hydrogen in the Non-metals (except F) do not react with
reactivity series displace hydrogen from water.
water.
Metals generally behave as reducing Non-metals generally behave as oxidising
agents. agents.
HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE
 ACID, BASE AND SALTS
Previous questions from SSLC Board
April 2019

1. The chemical equation that represents neutralization reaction among the following is (1Mark)

(A) BaCl2 + H2SO4→BaSO4+ 2HCl (B) MnO2+ 4 HCl →MnCl2+ 2H2O + Cl2

(C) 2NaOH + H2SO4 →Na2SO4 + 2H2O (D) AgNO3+ HCl → AgCl + HNO3
2. Name the acid present in the stinging hair of nettle

leaves. (1Mark) Ans : Methanoic acid (Formic acid)

3. Draw the diagram of arrangement of apparatus used to show the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label the following
parts. (2 Marks)
(i) Soap solution
(ii) Delivery tube.

4. There is no change in the colour of red litmus and blue litmus paper when introduced into
an aqueous solution of sodium chloride. After passing direct current through the same
solution, red litmus changes to blue colour. Which product is responsible for this change ?
Mention any two uses of this product.
(2 Marks) The product formed here is Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) responsible for the change in
colour.

Uses of Sodium hydroxide :

• It is used in degreasing metals

• It is used in manufacture of soaps and detergents.
• It is used in paper making and artificial fibers

June 2019

1. Name the gas liberated when an acid reacts with metallic carbonate. Write the chemical
equation of the reaction when this gas is passed through lime water. What is the colour of the
precipitate obtained in this reaction ? (2 Marks)
Ans :
• Carbon dioxide ( or CO2 )
• Ca (OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
• White precipitate.
2. Give scientific reason :
a] While diluting an acid, the acid should be added to
water. ( 2Marks) Ans :
• If water is added to concentrated acid the heat generated may cause the mixture to
splash out and cause burns.
• The glass container may also break due to
excessive heat. b] Plaster of Paris should be stored in a
moisture-proof container.
Ans : Plaster of Paris on mixing with water or moisture it changes to gypsum once again
giving a hard solid mass. Hence it should be kept in a moisture-proof container.

3. What is neutralisation reaction ? ( 1Marks)

Ans : The reaction between an acid and a base to give a salt and water is known as a neutralisation
reaction.

4. Name the products of chlor-alkali process. Write one use of

each. ( 3Marks) Products obtained from Chlor-alkali process are

• Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
• Hydrogen (H2)
• Chlorine (Cl2)

Uses of Sodium hydroxide :

• It is used in degreasing metals
• It is used in manufacture of soaps and detergents.
• It is used in paper making and artificial fibers (any

one use) Uses of Hydrogen :

• It is used as a fuel
• It is used in the preparation of ammonia which is used

in fertilizers Uses of Chlorine :

• It is used in water treatment

• It is used as disinfectant
• It is used in pesticides , PVCs and CFCs

April 2020

1. As the pH value of a neutral solution increases ( 1Marks)

(A) basic property decreases and number of OH − ions increases

(B) acidic property increases and number of H + ions decreases
(C) basic property increases and number of OH − ions increases
(D) acidic property decreases and number of H + ions increases.

2. Agricultural scientists have suggested to add a certain amount of lime powder to an

agricultural field. What may be the reasons for this ? Explain. ( 2Marks)
Ans. :
• Plants require a specific pH range for their healthy growth.
• Soil of his land is acidic.
• Lime powder is a base.
• So adding lime powder to the soil, decreases the acidic property /soil is neutralised.

3. Draw the diagram of the apparatus to show that acid solution in water conducts
electricity. Label the following parts : ( 2Marks)
i) Dil. HCl solution ii) Rubber cork.

OR

4. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label the
following parts : ( see April -
2019)
i) Test tube ii) Soap solution.

Sept 2020

1. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to show that acid solution in
water conducts electricity and label the battery. ( see April -2020)
OR
Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus showing the reaction of zinc granules with dilute
sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning and label the zinc granules. ( see April -2019)

2. What is a strong acid ? Explain how tooth decay is caused. How can it be

prevented ? ( 3Marks) Ans : Acid that gives rise to more H+ ions is said to be

strong acid.
• Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food
particles remaining in the mouth after eating. So the pH in the mouth decreases and the tooth
enamel gets corroded.
• Using toothpastes which are generally basic, for cleaning the teeth.

3. Write the molecular formulae and two uses of each of the following compounds : ( 3Marks)
a) Bleaching powder b) Plaster of Paris.

a) Molecular formula of Bleaching powder : CaOCl2

Uses : 1. It is used as bleaching agent in textile industry , paper industry and in laundries
2. Used as an oxidising agent in many chemical industries
3. It is used to make drinking water free from germs.
1
b) Molecular formula of Plaster of Paris : 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 ∙ 𝐻2𝑂
2
Uses : 1. Doctors use this for supporting fractured bones in the right position.
2. It is used for making toys, materials for decoration and for making surfaces
smooth.
July 2021 ( MCQ based exam )

1. A compound that reacts with both acids as well as bases to produce salts and water is
(A) aluminium oxide (B) copper oxide (C) iron oxide (D) sodium oxide
2. The gas liberated when sodium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is
(A) carbon dioxide (B) nitrogen dioxide (C) hydrogen (D) chlorine
3. The substance that converts blue litmus paper into red colour is
(A) lime water (B) pure water (C) sodium hydroxide solution (D) gastric juice
4. An acid present in the stinging hair of nettle plant leaves is
(A) methanoic acid (B) oxalic acid (C) citric acid (D) lactic acid

Sept 2021 ( MCQ based exam )

1. Observe the following table

Substance pH value
P 7.4
Q 2.2
R 10
S 1.2
+
The substance that has least number of Hydrogen ionsH( ) is

A] P B] Q C] R D] S

2. The gas liberated when sodium bicarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is

(A) hydrogen (B) nitrogen (C) carbon dioxide (D) nitrogen dioxide
3. The substance that converts red litmus paper into blue colour is
(A) sodium hydroxide solution (B) citric acid solution
(C) sodium chloride solution (D) pure water

April - 2022

1. Write any two uses of Plaster of Paris.

Ans. : Plaster of Paris is used in :

• Supporting fractured bones

• Making toys
• Decorative materials

• Making smooth surfaces.

2. The pH values of A, B and C solutions are 5, 6 and 7 respectively. Which of these
solutions is more acidic in nature ? Why ?
Ans. : Solution A is more acidic.
Because , it has more H+ ions.

3. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label the
following parts : ( see April -2019)
i) Zinc granules ii) Delivery tube.

June - 2022
Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc granules with dilute
sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label the following parts : ( see April -2019)

i) Zinc granules ii) Soap

solution.

2. a) What is neutralisation reaction ? Give an example.

1
b) What is the common name of the compound that has molecular formula 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4 ∙ 2 𝐻2𝑂

a) Reaction between acids and bases to form salt and water is called neutralisation reaction.
Example : 𝐻𝐶𝑙 + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 → 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2𝑂

b) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate or Plaster of Paris.

April 2023

1. Draw the diagram of arrangement of apparatus to show that acid solution in water
conducts electricity and label dilute HCl solution. ( see April -2020)

2. Name the salts used in the following situations and write their molecular formula :
a) To remove permanent hardness of water.
b) To make drinking water free from germs.
c) To support fractured bones in their right position.

a) To remove permanent hardness of water. : Washing soda / sodium carbonate

b) To make drinking water free from germs.: Bleaching powder / Calcium oxychloride

c) To support fractured bones in their right position: Plaster of Paris / Calcium sulphate
hemihydrate
3. The pH values of four solutions are given in the below table. Classify these into acidic and
basic solutions
:

Ans : Acidic solutions :

e & h Basic solutions : f &

g
4. Name the antacid used to neutralise excess of acid in the stomach.

Ans : Milk of magnesia / Magnesium hydroxide OR Sodium hydrogen carbonate

June - 2023

Name the ions responsible for acidic and basic natures of the substances.

• Acidic → H+ / H3O+ / Hydrogen / Hydronium

• Basic → OH− / Hydroxyl / Hydroxide

2. Explain the manufacturing of bleaching powder. Write any two uses of it.

Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime.

𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝐶𝑙2 → 𝐶𝑎𝑂𝐶𝑙2 + 𝐻2𝑂

Uses :

• For bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry, wood pulp in paper factories.
• For bleaching washed clothes in laundry
• As an oxidising agent in chemical industry
• to make drinking water free from germs. ( Any two )

3. A strong solution of sodium hydroxide is added to the strong solution of hydrochloric

acid. What is the nature of the salt solution formed here ? Write a balanced chemical
equation for this reaction.

• The salt solution is a neutral solution.

• NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O.

MOST LIKELY QUESTIONS FOR 2024( Including previous year questions

)
1. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
Ans : Dry HCl gas does not give H+ ions and therefore does not change the colour of dry litmus paper.

2. Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence.

The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for
the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.

3. Why do HCl, HNO3, etc., show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of
compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?

Ans :
+
• H ions in aqueous solution are responsible for acidic character.
+ +
HCl, HNO3, etc. give H ions in water while alcohol and glucose do not give H ion in water.

• Therefore, alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character.

4. In two test tubes ‘A’ and ‘B’ an equal length of magnesium piece has taken. Hydrochloric
acid (HCl) added to ‘A’ and acetic acid (CH3COOH) to test tube ‘B’ of equal amount and
concentration. In which test tube do you observe that air bubbles evolved more vigorously ?
and Why ?
Ans : In test tube ‘A’ air bubbles evolved more vigorously.
Because , HCl is strong acid while acetic acid is weak.

5. You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and
the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If you are given only
red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?

Ans :
• Put the red litmus paper in all the test tubes, turn by turn. The solution which turns
red litmus to blue will be a basic solution. The blue litmus paper formed here can now be used
to test the acidic solution.
• Put the blue litmus paper obtained above in the remaining two test-tubes, turn-
by-turn. The solution which turns the blue litmus paper to red will be the acidic solution.
• The solution which has no effect on any litmus paper will be neutral and hence it
will be distilled water.
+
6. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O ) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted ?

Ans: On dilution, the number of hydronium ions per volume decreases and concentration decreases.

7. You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6 and pH of solution B is 8.

Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one
is basic?

Ans : Solution A has more hydrogen ion concentration.

Solution ‘A’ is acidic , and solution ‘B’ is basic in nature

8. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.

(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?

Ans : (a) Milk is made slightly alkaline so that it may not get sour easily due to the formation of lactic
acid in it.
(b) The alkaline milk takes a longer time to set into curd because the lactic acid being formed has to first
neutralise the alkali present in it.
9. Why do we call Hydrochloric acid as strong acid and acetic acid as weak ?
Ans : Hydrochloric acid dissociates completely in water and give more H+ ions , while Acetic
acid dissociates incompletely and give less H+ ions.

10. The gas liberated when sodium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is passed
through lime water, a white precipitate is formed. But when the same gas is passed through
lime water in excess, precipitate is not visible. Why?

Ans :
• Carbon dioxide gas is liberated when sodium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric
acid
• When this gas is passed through lime water, a white precipitate ( Calcium carbonate) is
formed.
• When the same gas is passed through lime water in excess, precipitate is not
visible because , Calcium carbonate was converted in to calcium bicarbonate which is
soluble in water.
11. Write the name and formulae of three hydrated salts Washing Soda , Na2CO3.10H2O
Gypsum , CaSO4.2H2O Blue vitriol (Copper sulphate) , CuSO4. 5H2O.

12. How is sodium hydroxide manufactured in industries ? Name the process. In this
process a gas X is formed as by-product. This gas reacts with lime water to give a
compound Y, which is used as a bleaching agent in the chemical industry. Identify X and
Y and write the chemical equation of the reactions involved.

Ans : Sodium hydroxide is manufactured by Chlor-Alkali process

• ‘X’ is - Chlorine gas (Cl2)

• ‘Y’ is - Calcium Oxychloride (CaOCl2)

Reaction : Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O

13. A student heated a few crystals of copper sulphate in a dry boiling tube.
(a) What will be the color of the copper sulphate after heating?
(b) Will you notice water droplets in the boiling tube?
(c) Where have these come from

Ans. (a) Blue colour of crystals changes in to White

(b) Yes , water droplets seen inside the test tube
(c) Copper sulphate crystals which seem to be dry contain water of crystallization.

14. Give any two practical applications of neutralization reaction.

Ans. (a) Antacids are used to neutralize the acidity of stomach.

(b) Toothpaste is a basic substance that helps to neutralize the acid in our mouth
(c) Farmer uses slacked lime to neutralize the acidic soil
(d) Baking soda is used to neutralize the acid released by the ant or bee sting.

15. Which will determine acids and bases more accurately litmus paper or pH paper ? Give
reason

Ans. pH paper determines more accurately , because it is used know the H+ ion concentration in a
solution. By this we can judge the strength of an acid or base

While litmus paper is used only to determine whether the solution is acidic or basic

16. Write the names of the product formed when zinc reacts with NaOH. Also write the
balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved. Write a test to confirm the presence
of the gas evolved during this reaction.

• When Zinc reacts with NaOH , a salt called sodium zincate is formed along with
hydrogen gas
• 𝑍𝑛 + 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 → 𝑁𝑎2𝑍𝑛𝑂2 + 𝐻2
• When burning matchstick is kept on the mouth of this test tube, pop sound is
heard which confirms the presence of H2 gas.
16. Rajesh prepares HCl gas in hischool laboratory using certain chemicals. He puts both
dry and wet blue litmus papers in contact with the gas.
(i) Name the reactants used by Rajesh to prepare HCl gas.
(ii) State the colour changes observed with the dry and wet blue litmus papers.

(i) Reactants used in the preparation of HCl are Sodium chloride and conc. H2SO4

𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2𝑆𝑂4 → 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙

(ii) There is no change in the colour of ‘dry’ blue litmus paper but ‘moist’ blue litmus
paper turns red if brought near the mouth of the test tube.
This shows that HCl gas does not show acidic behaviour in absence of water but it shows acidic
behaviour in presence of water.

17. An aqueous solution ‘A’ turns phenolphthalein solution pink. On addition of an aqueous
solution ‘B’ to ‘A’ the pink colour disappears. What would be the pH of solution ‘A’ and ‘B’

• Since A is basic in nature its pH should be greater than 7

• B is acidic , hence its pH is less than 7

18. “Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a basic salt”. Justify this statement. How is it converted
into washing soda?

• Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) is basic in nature as on hydrolysis it gives a

mixture of strong base (NaOH) and weak acid (H2CO3).
• Sodium hydrogen carbonate is converted to washing soda by thermal decomposition
𝐻𝑒𝑎𝑡
2𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 −−−−→ 𝑁_
˛𝑎_
2𝐶
_𝑂3̧ + 𝐶𝑂2 ↑ + 𝐻2𝑂 ↑
𝑤𝑎𝑠 ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑑𝑎

19. What is observed when carbon dioxide gas is passed through lime water
(i) for a short duration?
(ii) for a long duration? Also write the chemical equations for the reactions involved.

(ii) When CO2 is passed through lime water for short interval of time, it turns milky due to the
formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.

𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝐶𝑂2 → 𝐶˛𝑎_𝐶_𝑂_3¸ ↓ + 𝐻2𝑂

𝑊ℎ𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑡

(iii) If CO2 is passed for long duration through lime water, the white precipitate formed
dissolves due to the formation of soluble calcium hydrogen carbonate and the solution
becomes clear.

𝐶˛𝑎_𝐶_𝑂_3¸ ↓ +𝐶𝑂2 → 𝐶
˛𝑎_𝐻
_𝐶_𝑂3̧ + 𝐻2 𝑂
𝑊ℎ𝑖𝑡𝑒 𝑝𝑝𝑡 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑏𝑙𝑒
LEVEL-3
CONTROL AND COORDINATION
1. The correct path of the movement of nerve impulses in the following diagram is
April-2019

(A) Q→S →R →P (B) P→Q→R→S

(C) S →R→Q→P (D) P→R→S→Q

2. The incorrect statement related to thyroxine hormone among the following is

April-2020
(A) it regulates fat metabolism
(B) its deficiency leads to goitre
(C) it is secreted by parathyroid gland
(D) iodine in the food is essential for its production

3. The hormone that regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the human
body is July-2021
(A) Testosterone (B) Adrenaline (C) Insulin (D) Thyroxin

4. A pot that has growing seedling is kept in a dark room. A burning candle is placed near it
for a few days. The top part of the seedling bends towards the light of burning candle. This is
(A) Chemotropism (B) Phototropism (C) Geotropism (D) Hydrotropism

5. The gap between two neurons is

(A) dendrite (B) axon (C) synapse (D) cell body

6. A plant hormone that inhibits the growth of plants is Sep-2021

(A) Auxin (B) Gibberellin (C) Cytokinin (D) Abscisic acid

7. The centre of reflex action is

(A) Cerebrum (B) Spinal cord (C) Cerebellum (D) Hypothalamus
8. The correct path of movement of electrical impulse in a neuron is
(A) Dendrite→Cellbody→Axon→Axonend
(B) Axon→Axonend→Dendrite→Cell body
(C) Dendrite→Axon→Cellbody→Axonend
(D) Cellbody→Dendrite→Axonend→Axon

9. An example for positive geotropism in plants is- June-2022

(A) growth of shoot (B) growth of roots into deep soil
(C) growth of tendrils of creepers (D) upward growth of roots

10. “A person immediately starts running soon after observing a snake.” The correct
transmission path of reflex impulse in this situation is April-2023
(A) Receptor→ Sensoryneuron→ Brain→Relayneuron→Motorneuron→ Effector
(B) Receptor→Sensoryneuron→Spinalcord→Relayneuron→Motorneuron→ Effector
(C) Effector→Spinalcord→Sensoryneuron→Relayneuron→Motorneuron→Receptor
(D) Effector→Motorneuron→Relayneuron→Brain→Sensoryneuron→ Receptor
Ans:
(B) Receptor→Sensoryneuron→Spinalcord→Relayneuron→Motorneuron→ Effector

1 MARKS
1. Which hormone inhibits the growth of plants ? April -2022
Ans. : Abscisic acid

2. What is the role of abscisic acid in plants ?

Ans. : Abscisic acid inhibits growth in plants.

2 MARKS
1. Draw the diagram showing the structure of neuron Label the following parts:
(i) The part which has prominent nucleus (ii) Dendrite. June -2019
Ans
2. A person’s face has become pale and his breathing rate has increased due to fear.
Analyse the process which enables the person to deal with this situation.
Sep-2020
Ans.:
(i) Adrenaline is directly secreted into the blood. The blood to the skin is reduce
due to contraction of muscles around small arteries.
(ii) The breathing rate increases because of the contractions of the diaphragm and
the rib muscles. The heart beats faster, resulting in supply of more oxygen to
the muscles.

3. As the growth advances in a climbing plant (creeper) that appears as the plant
is moving towards a particular direction. How ? June -2023
● For a touch / thigmotropism, when the tendrils of creeper plants come in
contact with a support, the plant circles around it and grows faster.
● When tendrils gets attached to a support then, tips of the plant synthesise auxin
hormone at higher concentration and stimulates the elongation of cells, then the
plant shows directional movement / growth towards light.

4. Explain the necessity of chemical communication in animals. In animals chemical

Communication is necessary.

● In animals electrical impulses will reach only the cells that are connected by
nervous tissue but not each and every cell.

● Nerve cell scan not create and transmit electrical impulses continuously
therefore, chemical communication is necessary in transmitting stimulus
continuously to each and every cell.
3 MARKS
1. Imagine the following situations : June2019
(i) Clapping at the end of a programme
(ii) Fluctuating blood pressure in the body
How these situations are functionally different ? Give reason.
Ans. :(i) Voluntary action :
● Action performed based on thinking
● Controlled by fore brain.
(ii) Involuntary action :
● Action without thinking control
● Controlled by hind brain.

OR

“We withdraw our leg when stepped on thorn unknowingly.”

(a) Trace the sequences of events which occur in this action.
(b) Which part of human nervous system controls this action ?
Ans.:(a) (i) Receptors receive the stimulus of pain
(ii) Messages reach spinal cord through sensory neuron.
(iii) Responses reach motor neuron through association neuron.
(iv) Responses reach effectors through motor neuron.
(v) Muscles withdraw the leg.
(b) Spinal cord controls this action

2. Mention the function of the following plant hormones : April -2022

i) Auxin ii) Cytokinin.
i) Auxin : Helps the cells in the stems and the cells in the many parts of the plant body
to grow longer.
ii) Cytokinin :
● Promotes cell division in fruits and seeds
● Helps in promoting overall growth of plants.
4 MARKS
1.Name the given structure. What is its general function ? Mention the function of the
Parts labeled as A and B. These structures in animals are said to be efficient ways to
give quick responses. Why ? June2019
Ans :
● Reflex arc
● It gives sudden action in response to the event happening in the environment.
(A) Sensory neuron : It conducts the impulse of stimulus from receptor to the spinal
cord.
(B) Effectors : Which shows the sudden visible response.
Reflex arcs have evolved in animals because the thinking process of brain is not fast
enough in many animals. Meanwhile many animals have very little of the complex neuron
network needed for thinking.
So, it can function in the absence of true thought process and increase the chance of survival.

2. Draw the diagram showing longitudinal section of human brain. Label the following
parts : Sep-2020
a) Midbrain
b) Gland which stimulates growth in all organs.

Ans :

3. Draw the diagram showing the structure of the human brain and label the following
parts: April -2022
i) Cerebrum ii) Cerebellum.

4. Draw the diagram showing the structure of the human brain and label the following
parts:
i) Cerebellum ii) Mid-brain.
5. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human brain. Label the following parts:
i) Hypothalamus ii) Pons.
6. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human brain and label the following
parts : June-2023
i) Mid-brain ii) Pons

MOST LIKELY QUESTIONS FOR 2024

1. What is the need for a system of control and coordination in an organism ?

Ans : An organism needs control and coordination system for the following functions :
(i) To save the body of the organisms from the harmful changes in the environment.
(ii) To control the speed of voluntary and involuntary actions.
(iii) To have the capability to think and learn for responding to any stimuli.

2. What happens at the synapse between two neurons ?

Ans :The small empty space between two nerve cells is called synapse.
• At synapse, a chemical substance is produced at the end of axon of one nerve cell
that reaches to the other nerve cell through the dendrite.
3. Which part of the brain maintains posture and equilibrium of the body ?
Ans : Posture and equilibrium of the body are controlled by cerebellum.

4. How do we detect the smell of an agarbatti (incense stick) ?

Ans : The smell of agarbatti (incense stick) diffuses in the air.
It is detected by olfactory receptors present in the nose.
This information is sent to olfactory lobe by sensory nerves located in the fore brain.
It responds to the information.

5. Give an example of a plant hormone that promotes growth.

Ans : Hormone that promotes growth in plants is - Auxin. Giberllin,
Cytokinin
6. How is the movement of leaves of the sensitive plant different from the
movement of a shoot towards light ?
Ans :

Movement of leaves of the sensitive plant Movementofashoottowards light

It is a nastic movement It is a tropic movement
The stimulus is touch The stimulus is light
It does not depend on the direction of It depends on the direction of
stimulus stimulus
It is growth independent It is growth dependent

7. How do auxins promote the growth of a tendril around a support ?

Ans : When the tip of a tendril touches a support, then the auxins present in
its tip move to that side of tip which is away from the support.

Auxins promote growth. So, due to more auxins in it, the side of tendril away from the
support grows faster (and becomes longer) than the side which is
in contact with the support and makes the tendril twirl (or bend) around the support.

8. Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.

Ans : Equipments requires : Glass through, water container, soil and a plant
Procedure : As shown in figure, in glass through take a soil, plant and
keep the water containing cup just away from the plant. Keep this set
up for few days.

Observation : Roots grow towards wet area

Decision : Roots show hydrotropism.

9. How does phototropism occur in plants ?

Ans :The movement in any part of a plant due to light is called phototropism.
The shoot of plant shows positive phototropism and roots show negative phototropism.
Phototropism in plants occurs due to the hormone auxin. When light falls on one side of a
plant, the secretion of auxin hormone is more in the part away from the light.
Hence, auxin causes growth in length of the cells in shady part. So, the plant appears to bend
towards light.
10. How are involuntary actions and reflex actions different from each other ?
Ans :

Involuntary actions Reflex actions

It takes place without anythinking It takes place along withstimuli
It is controlled by mid and hind brain It is controlled by spinalcord
The action is relativelyslower It is veryquick

11. Compare and contrast nervous and hormonal mechanisms for control and coordination in
animals.
Ans :
Nervous system Endocrine system
It is a faster process It is a slower process
It transmits information in the form of It transmits information in the form of
electro chemical signals chemical signals
It does not control metabolism It controls metabolism
Growth is not affected Growth is affected

12. What are the parts of hind brain ? Mention their functions.
Ans : (i) Cerebellum : it controls posture and equilibrium of the body
(ii) Medulla : Involuntary actions including blood pressure, salivation and
vomiting are controlled by the medulla

13. Name the endocrine glands found attached with following organs and mention the
hormones secreted by these glands.
(i) Brain (ii) Kidney
Ans : (i) Brain : Pituitary gland, secretes growth hormones
(ii) Kidney : Adrenal gland, helps in metabolism, regulates blood pressure and is
responsible for the fight or flight response.

14. Why are some patients of diabetes treated by giving injections of insulin ?
Ans :
● Insulin hormone regulates blood sugar levels.
● To treat increased level of blood sugar, the diabetic patients are treated by
giving injections of insulin.
15. How does our body respond when adrenaline is secreted into the blood?
Ans : When adrenaline is secreted into the blood, it prepares our body for action.
• It speeds up heart beat and breathing, raises blood pressure and allows more glucose
to go into the blood to give us a lot of energy quickly to fight or urn away from frightening
situation.
• The blood supply decreases form the skin and digestive system and increase to
skeletal muscles.
• All these conditions help the individual to respond the emergency situation.

16. How endocrine glands do helps in maintaining feedback control ?

Ans : The timing and amount of hormones released are regulated by feedback mechanism.
For example, glucose level in the blood is maintained constant by feedback mechanism.
a) High glucose level in the blood induces the pancreatic cells to produce insulin
which converts glucose to glycogen.
b) Less glucose level in the blood do not induce the pancreatic cells to produce
insulin so that less conversion of glucose to glycogen may occur.
 April 2019

1. The functional groups present in propanol and propanal respectively are

(A) — OH and — CHO (B) — OH and — COOH

(C) — CHO and — COOH (D) — CHO and — CO

2. What are structural isomers ? Name the first member of alkanes that shows structural
isomerism.

Ans. :
• Compounds with identical molecular formula but different structures are called structural
isomers
• Butane or C4H10

3. (i) Write the differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.

(ii) Write the molecular formula and structural formula of an alkene having five carbon atoms.

Ans : (i) Differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.

Saturated hydrocarbons Unsaturated hydrocarbons

Single bond between carbon atoms Double or triple bond between carbon
atoms
Less reactive More reactive
Generally gives clean blue flame Burns with yellow sooty flame

(ii) Molecular formula of an alkene having five carbon atoms = C5H10

Structural formula =

OR

Carbon atom does not form C 4 − anion and C 4 + cation. Why ?

Ans : Carbon can gain four electrons. But it would be difficult for the nucleus with six protons to hold
on to ten electrons, that is four extra electrons.

It can lose four electrons but it would require a large amount of energy to remove four electrons
leaving behind a carbon cation with six protons in its nucleus holding on to just two electrons.

June 2019

1. What is a covalent bond ?

Ans. : Chemical bond which is formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms is known as covalent
bond.
 2. Name the first member of alkynes and write its molecular formula.
Ans. : Name : Ethyne ( or Acetylene ) Molecular formula : C2H2

3. The general formula of two specific groups of saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons is Cn
H2n . Write the structures of the member of each group when n = 3.

Ans : Saturated hydrocarbon = Cyclo-propane Unsaturated hydrocarbon = Propene

April 2020
1. An example for saturated hydrocarbon is

(A) C2H6 (B) C3H4

(C) C2H2 (D) C2H4 .

2. The molecular formula of three carbon compounds which are in homologous series are C2H6 ,
C3H8 ,
C4H10 . The suitable general formula for these compounds is

(A) Cn H2n (B) Cn H2n − 1

(C) Cn H2n −2 (D) Cn H2n +2

September 2020
1. Identify the correct electron dot structure of nitrogen molecule in the following :

Ans. :
2. The name and the molecular formula of the unsaturated
hydrocarbon having general formula Cn H2n and containing 3 carbon atoms is

(A) propane, C3 H8 (B) Cyclopropane, C3 H6

(C) Propyne, C3 H4 (D) Propene, C3 H6 .

3. What are structural isomers ? Write two structures of butane molecule.

Ans. : a) Carbon compounds with identical molecular formula but different structures are
called structural isomers.
• Isomers of Butane :

n - butane iso - butane

July 2021 (MCQ based exam)

1. The structural formula of propanal is

A] B]

C] D]

Ans. : (C)

2. The number of single bonds and double bonds present in a structure of benzene molecule
respectively

(A) 3 and 9 (B) 9 and 3

(C) 6 and 6 (D) 7 and 5

3. The common molecular formula of both hexene and cyclohexane is

(A) C6H6 (B) C6H14 (C) C6H12 (D) C6H10

September 2021 (MCQ based exam)

1. The pair of carbon compounds having same molecular formula is

(A) Hexane, Hexene (B) Hexene, Hexyne

(C) Hexene, Benzene (D) Hexene, Cyclohexane

2. the functional group present in this carbon compound is

(A) Aldehyde (B) Ketone

(C) Carboxylic acid (D) Alcohol

3. A group of carbon compounds that are in homologous series

(A) CH4 , C2H4 , C3H4 (B) C2H2 , C2H6 , C3H6

(C) C2H4 ,C3H6 , C4H8 (D) C3H6 , C3H8 , C3H4

 4. The saturated hydrocarbon among the following is

(A) C5H8 (B) C2H2 (C) C6H6 (D) C5H12

April - 2022
1. Write the structural formula of ethene molecule.

2. a) What are structural isomers ? Write the molecular and structural formula of butane.
b) What is catenation ? Write general formula for alkenes.
Ans. : a) Carbon compounds having same molecular formula but different structural
formulae Molecular formula of butane is C4H10

• Isomers of Butane :

n - butane iso - butane

b) Carbon has unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to large molecules.

General formula for alkene is CnH2n

June- 2022
1. Number of single bonds found in the molecular structure of propanal is

(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 5

2. a) Write any two differences between saturated and unsaturated carbon compounds.
b) Write the structural formula of the following carbon compounds :
i) Benzene
ii) Butane
Ans. : Differences between saturated and unsaturated carbon compounds

Saturated carbon compounds Unsaturated carbon compounds

i) Single bond exists between
two consecutive carbon atoms
ii) Less reactive
iii) Give clean flame when they
burnt
iv) Subjected to substitution
reaction
v) Ex. : Alkanes, cycloalkanes
etc.
i) Double and triple bond exists
ii) More reactive
iii) Give yellow / black flame
iv) Subjected to both addition
and substitution reactions
v) Ex. : Alkenes, alkynes,
benzene etc.
 b ) i)

ii)

April 2023

1. The general formula of cycloalkanes is 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛 and its first member is cyclopropane 𝐶3𝐻6
Write the molecular formula and structural arrangement of the fourth member of this
homologous series.

Molecular formula : C6H12

Structural arrangement :

2. What is hydrogenation ?

Ans. : Hydrogen is added to unsaturated hydrocarbons in the presence of catalyst such as palladium or
nickel to give saturated hydrocarbons. This is known as hydrogenation.
OR
Conversion of unsaturated oils into saturated fats by adding hydrogen in the presence of palladium / nickel
like catalyst.

3. How will ethanol be oxidised ?

Ethanol is oxidised into ethanoic acid by heating with oxidising agents like alkaline potassium
permanganate
or acidified potassium dichromate
OR

4. Explain the cleaning action of soaps.

• Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids.

• Soap molecules form micelles, in which the ionicend interacts with water and faces outside
• Carbon chain of the soap interacts with oil or dirt.
• This forms emulsion in water. The soap molecules pull out the dirt and wash the clothes
clean.
June - 2023

1. Why are detergents more suitable for cleansing clothes in hard water ?
Ans. : Detergents do not form insoluble precipitates with calcium / magnesium ions present in hard water

2. In a homologous series, the first member of hydrocarbon group has the molecular formula
CH4. Then find out the molecular formula of the fourth member and write two types of
structural formula of it.

Ans : 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+2 If n = 4

Molecular formula of the fourth member 𝐶4𝐻2𝑥4+2 = 𝐶4𝐻10

Structural formula :

OR

3. Identify unsaturated hydrocarbons in the following carbon compounds and write their
structural formula.

𝐶6𝐻6 , 𝐶5𝐻12 , 𝐶2𝐻5𝑂𝐻 , 𝐶2𝐻2

Unsaturated Hydrocarbons are -

i) 𝐶6𝐻6 :
Structural formula

ii) 𝐶2𝐻2 : Structural formula

4. Write the difference between esterification and saponification.

Esterification : Reaction between an acid and an alcohol to produce esters.
Saponification : Reaction between an alkaline base and long chain carboxylic acid to produce soaps [
or sodium / potassium salts of long chain carboxylic acid ]

5. Write electron dot structure of oxygen molecule.

 6. Carbon atom does not form C4 − anion and C 4 + cation. Why ?

• C4 − anion does not form because difficult for the nucleus with six protons to hold on ten
electrons.

• C 4 + cation does not form because require large amount of energy to remove four
electrons leaving behind a carbon with six proton in its nucleus holding on just two
electrons.

MOST LIKELY QUESTIONS FOR 2024 ( Including previous year questions

)

1. Write the molecular formula and electron dot structure of

cyclopentane? Ans :
Molecular formula : C5H10

Electron dot structure :

2. Why do we found large number of carbon compounds in the nature ?

Ans : Carbon can easily perform catenation that forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms to form
longer chains and higher mass structures. This is the reason for the presence of the vast number of
organic compounds made of carbon in nature.

3. How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane? Write their structural
formula. Ans : Pentane shows three isomers.

4. Ethanol have 2 carbon atoms and Hexanal have 6 carbon atoms. Both have same
chemical properties. Give reason .
Ans : Chemical properties of carbon compounds does not depend on the number of carbon atoms they
have. It depends on functional group.

Ethanol and Hexanol have same functional group (alcohol)

5. Write the structural formula for the followings -

i) Ethanoic acid ii) Bromopentane iii) Butanone iv) Hexanal
Ans : i) Ethanoic acid ii) Bromopentane

iii) Butanone iv) Hexanal

6. On the basis of molecular formula and molecular mass prove that propane and
butane are in homologous series.
Ans :
Molecular Molecular mass
formula
Propane C3H8 44 u
Butane C4H10 58 u
Difference CH2 14 u

These compounds differ by - CH2 unit and 14 u. Hence they are said to be in homologous series.

7. Write the structural formula for the followings -

i) Chloropropane ii) Ethanol iii) Butanoic acid iv)
Propanal Ans :
i) Chloropropane ii) Ethanol

iii) Butanoic acid iv) Propanal

8. Write the electron dot structure for the followings -

i) Methane ii) Ethane iii) Eathene iv) Eathyne

Ans :

i) Methane ii) Ethane

iii) Eathene iv) Eathyne

9. Name the members belongs to alcohol , aldeyde and ketone having three carbon atoms
and write their structural formula .
Ans :

Alcohol : Propanol Aldehyde : Propanal Ketone : Propanone

10. Write the molecular and structural formula of a saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbon
in which 6 carbon atoms arranged in the form of a ring.
Ans :

Saturated hydrocarbon :

Molecular formula : C6H12

Structural formula :

Unsaturated hydrocarbon :

Molecular formula : C6H6

Structural formula :
 11. Write three important uses of ethanol

(i) It is used as a solvent to dissolve various substances like medicine , varnishes

and other organic compounds.

(ii) It is used as beverage

(iii) In many industries it is used in the form of denatured spirit.

12. A hydrocarbon molecule contain 4 hydrogen atom. Write its molecular and structural
formula if it is -

(i) Alkane (ii) Alkene and

(iii) Alkyne Ans :

(i) Alkane : Molecular formula CH4 ,

Structural formula

(ii) Alkene : Molecular

formula C2H4

Structural formula

(iii) Alkyne : Molecular

formula C3H4 Structural

formula

14. Given a chemical test to distinguish between

(i) Ethanol and ethanoic acid (ii) Soaps

and Detergents Ans :

(i) Ethanoic acid gives a brisk effervescence with sodium hydrogen carbonate while ethanol
does not.
Ethanoic acid turns blue litmus in to red while ethanol does not show any colour changes with
litmus
(ii) Soaps form curdy white precipitate or scum with hard water while detergents
do not form any precipitate.

15. "A compound ‘X’ on combustion gives a yellow flame with lots of smoke.’’ What
inference would you draw from this statement?

Ans : Not much oxygen was provided hence, it’s an incomplete combustion

16. State the role of alkaline KMnO4 in the reaction involving conversion of an alcohol
to a corresponding carboxylic acid.
Ans : It acts as an oxidising agent.
 LIGHT REFLECTION AND REFRACTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS FROM PREVIOUS YEARS
1. To obtain a diminished image of an object from a concave mirror, position of the
object should be April2019
( F = principal focus, C = centre of curvature, P = pole )
[A] between C and F (B) beyond C (C) between P and F (D) at F

2. Identify the emergent ray in the given figure. June 2019

(A) CD (B) BC (C) AB D)IJ.

3. An object is kept at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror.

The position and nature of the image formed is
April 2020
[A] between F and C and inverted (B) behind the mirror and
erect
(C) between F and P and erect (D) at the centre of curvature
and inverted.

4. The image of the English letter ― ‖ in convex mirror looks like

September 2020

A] B]

C] D] Ans. : B]

5. The focal length of a lens is + 0.50 m. The power of the lens and type are
July 2021
(A) + 2.0 D and convex lens (B) + 2.0 D and concave lens
(C) – 2.0 D and concave lens (D) – 2.0 D and convex lens
6.The nature and the size of the image formed when an object is kept
 between the principal focus F1 and optical centre O of a convex lens
are
[A] virtual, erect and enlarged (B) real, inverted and small
size
(C) virtual, inverted and small size (D) real, inverted and enlarged

7.Observe the following table: In which material medium the speed of light is very
high ?

Material P Q R S
Refractiv
1.52 1.44 2.42 1.33
e index

[A] Q (B) P (C) S (D)R

8.One property of a convex lens among the following is that, it

(A) diverges the light rays (B) is thicker at the edges and thinner at the middle
(C) forms real and erect image (D) is thinner at the edges and thicker at
the middle
9.If the power of a lens is – 2.5 D, the focal length of the lens and type is
Sept 2021
(A) + 0.40 m and convex lens (B) – 0.40 m and convex lens

(C) + 0.40 m and concave lens (D) – 0.40 m and concave lens
10. If an image is to be formed between F2 and 2F2 in a convex
lens, then the object should be placed [F: principal focus of a
lens ]

(A) beyond 2F1 (B) at 2F1 (C) between F1 and 2F1 (D) at focus F1

11. One property of concave lens among the following is, that
a. it converges the light rays

b. is thicker at the edges and thinner at the middle

c. is thinner at the edges and thicker at the middle

d. it forms real and inverted image
12. The distance between the principal focus and the optical centre of a lens
is
a. principal axis (B) object distance
b. (C) image distance (D) focal length

13.To get diminished and real image of an object from a convex lens, the object
should be placed - April – 2022
 A) at principal focus F1
(B) between principal focus F1 and 2F1

(C) beyond 2F1

(D) between principal focus F1 and optical centre O.

14.The correct statement among the following related to the concave lens is-
June - 2022
[A]converges the light rays (B) diverges the light rays
(C) forms inverted image (D) forms real image.

15.A light ray enters to rarer medium from a denser medium. Then the
speed of that light ray April - 2023
(A) decreases and bends towards the normal
(B) increases and bends away from the normal
(C) decreases and bends away from the normal
(D) increases and bends towards the normal

16.A mirror forms an erect and enlarged image of an object. Then the type of the
mirror and the nature of the image respectively are
June - 2023
(A) convex mirror and virtual image (B) concave mirror and real image
(C) plane mirror and real image (D) concave mirror and virtual
image.
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS [1 MARK]
1.Convex mirror is commonly used as rear-view mirror in vehicles. Why ? April2019

ANS: *Convex mirror always give erect and diminished images

*As they are curved outwards they have wider field of view.
2.What is the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror ? June 2019
Ans. : The reflecting surface of a spherical mirror forms a part of a sphere. This
sphere has a centre. This point is called the centre of curvature of the spherical
mirror.
3.Observe the given incomplete diagram. September 2020
Complete the diagram by drawing refracted rays and show the image formed

Ans:

4.Mention the SI unit of power of lens. April – 2022

Ans. : Dioptre

5.Calculate the power of convex lens with a focal length of + 0·5 m. June - 2022
Ans. : Focal length ( f ) = + 0·5 m

Power of lens 𝑃=1/f = 1/+0.5 = +2D

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS FROM PREVIOUS YEAR [2 MARK]

1.The focal length of a concave lens is 30 cm. At what distance should
the object be placed from the lens so that it forms an image at 20 cm
from the lens ? April2019
Ans. : Focal length of a lens f = -30cm
Image distance u = -20cm
1 1 1 1 1 1
Lens formula − = 𝑂𝑅 = −
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓 𝑢 𝑣 𝑓
1 1 1 1 1
= − (−30) = +
𝑢 −20 −20 30
1 −3+2 1 1
= =−
𝑢 60 𝑢 60

u = - 60 cm
2.Draw the ray diagram to show the formation of image by a convex
lens when the object is at 2F1. [ F1 : Principal focus ]
June2019
Ans. :
3.Object distance and image distance of a lens are –30 cm and –10 cm
respectively. Find the magnification and decide the type of lens used
and nature of the image. (2Marks) September 2020

Ans. : Here, object distance u = – 30 cm , image distance v = – 10 cm

𝑣 −10 1
∴ Magnification 𝑚= 𝑚= =
𝑢 −30 3

m = 0.33
• Here, as v is negative, the used lens is concave lens.
• As the magnification is positive and less than one [ having
positive sign ] the image formed is erect, virtual and diminished.
4.An object is placed at 25 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a
sharp image ? April – 2022
Ans. : Focal length f = - 15cm , Object distance u = - 25cm Image distance
v= ?
1 1 1 1 1 1
Formula + = OR = −
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓 𝑣 𝑓 𝑢

1 1 1 −5+2 −3
= − = =
𝑣 −15 −25 75 75
75
So , 𝑣= = −37.5𝑐𝑚
−3
The screen should be placed at a distance of 37·5 cm, in front of the concave mirror.

5.A concave lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should the
object from the lens be placed so that it forms an image at 10 cm from the
lens ?
Focal length f = - 15cm , Image distance v = - 10cm

Object distance u = ?
1 1 1 1 1 1
Formula + = OR = −
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓 𝑢 𝑣 𝑓

1 1 1 −3+2 −1
= − = =
𝑢 −10 −15 30 30
So , u = - 30 cm

The object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the concave lens.

6. a) State the two laws of refraction of light.
b) The refractive index of diamond is 2·42. Write the meaning of this statement.
June - 2022

Ans. : a) Laws of refraction

i)The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two transparent
media at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.
ii)The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction
is a constant for the light of a given colour and for the given pair of media
 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑖
OR = 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟
b) The ratio of the speed of light in air and the speed of light in diamond is
2.42

7. Light enters from air to benzene having refractive index 1·50. Calculate
the speed of light in benzene. ( Speed of light in air : 3 × 108 ms − 1 )
April - 2023
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑎𝑖𝑟
Solution : Refractive index of a medium= 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝑏𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑒𝑛𝑒

1.50 = 3x108 /speed of light in benzene

𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔h𝑡 𝑖𝑛 𝐵𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑒𝑛𝑒= 3x108 /1.5

𝑆𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑜𝑓 𝑙𝑖𝑔ht 𝑖𝑛 𝐵𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑒𝑛𝑒 = 2 𝑥 108 𝑚−1

8 .A concave lens has focal length of 12 cm. At what distance should the
object from the lens be placed so that it forms an image at 9 cm from the
lens ?

Solutions : f = -12cm , v = - 9cm , u = ?

1 1 1
− =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓

1 1 1 1 1
= − = −
𝑢 𝑣 𝑓 −9 −12

1 1 1 −4+3 −1
= + = =
𝑢 −9 12 36 36

u = - 36 cm

9. What is meant by the power of a lens ? Write the formula used to find
the power of a lens. What is the SI unit of power of a lens ?
June - 2023
*The degree of convergence or divergence of light rays is the power of a lens
1
* Formula P =
𝑓
*SI unit of power of a lens is ‗dioptre‘.
10 .If the focal lengths of two lenses A and B are + 0 ∙ 50 m and – 0 ∙ 40
m respectively. Mention the types of these lenses in the same order.

• + 0・50 m → Convex lens

• - 0・40 m → Concave lens

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS FROM PREVIOUS YEARS [3 & 4

MARKS]
1. Draw the ray diagrams for the image formation in a convex lens when an object is
placed (3Marks) April2019
(i) at focus F1

(ii) beyond 2F1.

Ans. : (i) at focus F1 (ii) beyond 2F1.

2. A concave lens has focal length 30 cm. At what distance should the object be
placed from the lens so that it forms an image at 20 cm from the lens ? Also, find
the magnification produced by the lens. June 2019

Ans. : Focal length of a lens f = -30cm , Image distance u = -20cm

1 1 1 1 1 1
Lens formula − = OR = −
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓 𝑢 𝑣 𝑓
1 1 1 1 1
= − (−30)
= +
𝑢 −20 −20 30
1 −3+2 1 1
= =−
𝑢 60 𝑢 60

u = - 60 cm
𝑣 −20 1
∴ Magnification 𝑚= 𝑚= =
𝑢 −60 3

m = 0.33
3.An object is kept on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm. If
the object is at a distance of 18 cm from the mirror, calculate the image distance.
Determine the nature of the image formed by calculating the magnification produced
by the mirror. April 2020

Ans. :
Focal length f = -12cm, object distance u = -18cm , image distance v=?

Lens formula : OR

𝑣 = −36 𝑐𝑚
Magnification :

m = -2
Nature of the image : Real , inverted and larger than object
3. Draw the ray diagram when the object is kept between F1 and 2F1 of the convex
lens. With the help of the diagram mention the position and nature of the image
formed. [ F1 : Principal focus of the lens
]

Ans. :

Position of the image- beyond

2F2

Nature of the image - real inverted and enlarged.

4 .a) State the laws of refraction of light. (3Marks)

b) In the given figure, AB is the incident ray, BC is the refracted ray and MN is
the normal at the point of incidence. Which medium is more denser ? Why ?
September 2020

Ans : a) Laws of refraction of light :

* The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the interface of two
transparent media at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
* The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction is a constant
for the light of a given colour and for the given pair of media.
b) Medium 1 is more denser.
When a ray of light travels from rarer medium to denser medium, it always bends
towards the normal.
5. a) Differentiate between convex mirror and concave mirror.
b) Define the principal focus of a convex lens.
Ans : a) Differences between convex mirror and concave mirror.
convex mirror concave mirror.
It has outwardly bulged It has inwardly curved reflecting
reflecting surface surface
Principal focus lies behind the Principal focus lies in front of
mirror the mirror
It is known as diverging mirror It is known as converging mirror

It always forms virtual , It forms different types of images

diminished erect images depending on the position of the
object

b) Principal focus of a convex lens.

The rays, after refraction from the lens, are converging to a point on the principal
axis. This point is called the principal focus of the lens.

6 .Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation by a convex lens, when the
object is kept at 2F1 of the lens. With the help of the ray diagram mention the
position and nature of the image formed.

April – 2022

Position of the image : at 2F2

Nature of the image : Real , inverted

and same size that of object

7.Draw the ray diagram of image formation when the object is kept between C and F
of the concave mirror. With the help of the ray diagram mention the position and the
nature of the image formed. [ F : Principal focus of the mirror, C : Centre of curvature
of mirror ] June - 2022

Position of the image : Beyond C

Nature of the image : real inverted and larger than the
object

8 .a) Write any four uses of concave mirror.

b) An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm on the principal axis in front of a

concave lens with a focal length of 10 cm. Find the image distance.

Ans. : a) Uses of concave mirror :

i) Used in torches, search-lights , ii) Used in vehicles head lights

iii) Used as shaving mirrors ,

 iv) The dentists used to examine teeth of patients

v) Used in solar furnace.

b) Focal length f = - 10cm , Object distance u = - 15cm Image distance v = ?

Formula

So,
Image distance = – 6 cm.

9 .Draw the ray diagram for the image formation in a convex lens when the object is
placed beyond 2F1 . Mention the position and nature of the image formed. [F1 :
Principal focus of the lens ] April - 2023

• Position of the image :

Between F2 & 2F2 .

• Nature of the image :

Real and inverted.

10 . What is meant by the aperture‘ of a spherical mirror ? Mention the four uses of a
concave mirror. June - 2023

• The diameter of the reflecting surface of spherical mirror.

Uses of a concave mirror :

• Used in torches, search-lights and vehicle head lights to get parallel beam of
light
• as a shaving mirror
• by dentists to see large images of the teeth
used in solar furnace to concentrate sunlight.

11.Draw the ray diagram for the image formation by a convex lens, when the object is
placed at 2F1 . With the help of the ray diagram mention the position and the nature
of the image formed.[F1 : Principal focus of the lens ]

Position of the image : at 2F2

Nature of the image : Real and inverted

12.Draw the ray diagram for the image formation in a convex lens when the object is
placed beyond 2F1 . Mention the position and nature of the image formed. [F1 :
Principal focus of the lens ]

* Position of the image : Between F2 & 2F2 .

* Nature of the image : Real and inverted.

MOST LIKELY QUESTIONS FOR 2024 ( Including previous year questions

)

1. Four objects A , B , C and D have refractive index 1.50 , 1.36 , 1.77 and 1.31
respectively. Which object will shine more ?

a) Object A b) Object B c) Object C d) Object D

Explanation : As the refractive index of an object increases it shines more
2. An object is placed between f and 2f of a convex lens. Correct statement for the
image formed here is

a] real and larger than object b] erect and smaller than object
c] inverted and equal size d] virtual and larger than object

3. Four convex lens P , Q , R and S have focal length 20cm , 15cm, 5cm and 10cm
respectively. The power of lens is more in -

a] P b] Q c] R d] S

Explanation : Power of lens is inversely proportional to focal length

4. An object was kept at any distance from concave lens , the nature of the image is

a] virtual , erect and larger than object b] virtual , inverted and smaller

than object

c] virtual , erect and smaller than object d] virtual , erect and

equal size

5) The correct statement among the following related to the concave lens is
(A) Converges the light rays. (B) forms inverted image.
(C) forms real image (D) diverges the light says
6. The diameter of the reflecting surface of spherical mirror is
(A) optical centre (B) centre of curvature
(C) Aperture (D) Principal axis.
7. The position of the image obtained by a convex lens when an object is kept
between 𝐹1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 2𝐹2
(A) between F2 and 2F2 (B) at 2F2.
(C) beyond 2F2 (D) at Profinity.
8. One of the properties of concave lens is,
(A) it diverges the light rays. B) forms real es inverted image.
(C) is thinner at the edges and thicker at the middle
(D) Converges the light rays.
9. The phenomenon of bending of light as it passes from one transparent
medium to another is-
(A) refraction of light (B) reflection of light
(C) internal reflection of light (D) lateral inversion of light
10. observe the following table:

Material medium Refractive index

P 1.52

Q 1.44

R 2.42

S 1.33
In which material medium speed of light is very high?
(A) Q (B) S
(C) R (D) P
11. Observe the figure. The image formed in the figure is:

(A) Real, inverted, diminished (B) virtual, erected, diminished

(C) virtual, erect, enlarged (D) Real, inverted, enlarged
Some important questions :
1. Mention the conditions when a ray of light travels from one media to another,
refraction does not take place.

Ans :
• If the angle of incidence is equal to 900 or 00
• If the refractive indexes of both media are same.

2. A ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray bend
towards the normal or away from the normal? Why?
Ans :
• The light-ray bends towards the normal
• Because the ray of light goes from a rarer medium to a denser medium.
3. Observe the information given in Table

Media Refractive index

Kerosene 1.44
Turpentine 1.47
Water 1.33

In which of these does the light travel fastest? Give reason to your answer.

Ans :
• In water light travels faster.
• Because water has the lowest refractive index, therefore light travels fastest in
this optically rarer medium than kerosene and turpentine oil.

4. Observe the information given in Table

Find out the medium having highest optical density. Give reason for your answer

Media Refractive index

Fused glass 1.46
Crown glass 1.52
Diamond 2.42
Flint glass 1.65
Ans : Diamond has highest optical density
• As the refractive index of a media increases , its optical density also increases.
5. The magnification produced by a lens is +1. What does this mean ?

Ans : (i) m = 1 indicates the size of image is same as that of object.

(iii) positive sign of m indicates that an erect image is formed.

6. Find the focal length of a lens of power -2.0 D. What type of lens is this ?

Ans: Here, P = -2.0 D

Focal of length of lens

The type of lens is concave because the focal length is negative.

7. List four characteristics of the images formed by plane mirrors.

Characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror are

(i) image distance is same as that of object distance
(ii) image formed is virtual and erect
(iii) image formed is of the same size as that of the object
(iv) image formed is laterally inverted (left appears right and right appears left).

8. Draw the ray diagrams for the image formed by the concave mirror when an object
was kept at -

i) Beyond C ii) At C iii) Between C and F

i) Beyond C ii) At C

iii) Between C and F

8. A 10 cm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 cm

long image of the awl pin is formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. Find the focal
length of this mirror .

Given: Object size h = 10cm, Image size h! = 5 cm, Image distance v=-30cm

ℎ′ 𝑣
Magnification formula 𝑚 =
ℎ
=−
𝑢
=
5 30
= =−
10 𝑢
10
𝑢 = −30𝑥
5
u = -60cm.

Now, the mirror formula

Focal length of the concave mirror is -20cm

10. Rays from Sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where
should an object be placed so that size of its image is equal to the size of the object?

(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror

(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror

(c) between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror

(d) more than 30 cm in front of the mirror

11. Observe the information given in Table
Media Refractive
index
Kerosene 1.44
Mustard oil 1.46
Water 1.33
Glycerine 1.74

In which of these does the refracted ray bends more towards normal ? Give reason to
your answer.

Ans : In Glycerine , because it is more optically denser than others.

When light travels from rarer medium to denser medium the refracted ray bends
towards normal.

12. Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass is 1.6 and absolute refractive
index of glass is 1.5. Find out the absolute refractive index of diamond.

Given : Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass = 1.6

Refractive index of glass =1.5

Then , Absolute refractive index of diamond = 1.6 x 1.5 = 2.4

13. Name the type of mirrors used in the design of solar furnaces. Explain how
high temperature is achieved by this device.

• Concave mirrors are used to design solar furnaces.

• These mirrors converge parallel beam of light on the furnace. Therefore a high
temperature is attained at that point.

14. A spherical mirror produces an image of magnification -1 on a screen placed at

a distance of 50 cm from the mirror.
(a) Write the type of mirror.
(b) Find the distance of the image from the object.
(c) What is the focal length of the mirror?
(a) Concave mirror (because negative sign of magnification indicates the nature of
image is real. Only concave mirror produce real images)

(b) Magnification value 1 indicates that object and image are of same size. It
means object and image are in the same distance.
So, distance of the image from the object is zero.
(c) As the image is formed at centre of curvature i.e., v = R.
∴ focal length of the mirror, f = R/2
f = 50/2 =25 cm

15. A student wants to obtain an erect image of an object using a concave mirror of
12 cm focal length. What should be the range of distance of the candle flame from
the mirror? State the nature and size of the image he is likely to observe.

• To obtain an erect image, the object is placed in between pole and the focus of
the concave mirror.

• So range of distance of the candle flame from the mirror is in between 12 cm.
• Nature of the image = Virtual and erect.
• Size of the image = Enlarged
16. If the image formed by a mirror for all positions of the object placed in front of it
is always diminished, erect and virtual, state the type of the mirror. Write one use of
such mirrors giving with reason
• Only Convex mirror forms such images.
• Convex mirrors are commonly used as rear-view (wing) mirrors in vehicles
because they always give an erect, diminished image. Also, they have a wider
field of view as they are curved outwards. Thus, convex mirrors enable the
driver to view a large area.

17. If the image formed by a lens for all positions of the object placed in front of it is
always virtual, erect and diminished, state the type of the lens. If the numerical value
of focal length of such a lens is 20 cm, find its power

• Concave lens always forms virtual, erect and diminished image for all positions
of the object.
Focal length of the lens = - 20 cm or - 0.2m

Power of the lens

18. Under what condition with a glass lens placed in a transparent liquid become
invisible.
If the refractive index of glass lens is equal to the refractive index of liquid then the
glass lens placed in a transparent liquid will become invisible.
19. Describe and illustrate with a diagram, how we should arrange two converging
lenses so that a parallel beam of light entering one lens emerges as a parallel beam
after passing through the second lens.
Suppose we have two converging lens of focal
lengths f1 and f2. We will keep the two converging
lens at a distance of f1 +f2 so that a parallel beam
of light entering one lens emerges as a parallel
beam after passing through the second lens.

20. If the focal length of a spherical mirror is 15 cm. Find the radius of curvature? (IM)
Ans:- R=2f
=2×15=30cm
21.Define Dioptre ?
Ans:- Dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal length is 1 metre
1D = 1m/1
22. What is optic centre of spherical lens?
Ans:- The central point of lens is it's optical centre. It is usually represented by the letter
‘O’
23. Ray of light travelling in air enters obliquely into water. Does the light ray
bend towards the normal or away from the normal? Why?
Ans:- when the light ray travels obliquely from air to water, it bends towards the
normal. Because water is denser than air medium, so speed of light decreases in
denser medium.

24.Convex mirror is commonly used as a rearview mirror in vehicles. why? write the
relationship between the focal length and radius of curvature of convex mirror.
Ans:- convex mirror is used as rear view mirror in vehicles because, it always gives an
erected image, it covers wider field of view.
The relationship between the focal length and radius of curvature is, the radius is twice
the focal length. R=2f or f=2/R
25.Write the formula to calculate the magnification produced by a spherical mirror.
Ans:- m=h’/h m=v/u
26) Draw the ray diagram showing the object and image, to get the real inverted image
whose size is same as the object using a convex lens.
Ans:-
27)Draw the ray diagram showing the image formation by a convex lens, when the
object is kept between principal focus and optic centre. With the help of the diagram
mention the nature of the image formed.
Ans:-

Nature of the image is -virtual and erect.

28) a) An object is kept between centre of curvature and principal focus of a concave
mirror. Write the nature of the image formed.
b) Define focal length of a convex mirror, write the relationship between focal and
radius of curvature of a convex mirror.
Ans:- a) Nature of the image formed:- Real and inverted and larger than the object.
b) Focal length:- The distance between pole and the principle focus of a spherical
mirror is called focal length.
Radius of curvature:- The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is equal to twice the
focal length.
R=2f or f=2/R
29) a) Give any two examples for refraction of of light in daily life. State the laws of
refraction of light.
(b) The power of a lens is -2.5D. Which type of lens is this?
Ans:- a) Example for refraction of light -i)The bottom of the swimming pool appear
higher,
ii) A pencil partially immersed in water appears to be bent at the interface of water and
air,
1st law of refraction:- The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the point of
incidence all lie in the same plane.
2nd law (Snell,s law):- The ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of angle of
refraction is constant for a light of given colour and for a given pair of media.
Sin i/sin r =constant.
b) The power of lens value is negative so it is a ‘concave lens’

30. Draw the ray diagram showing the position of the object and image, to get the real
inverted image whose size is same as the object using a convex lens.
Ans:-
Position of the object is at 2F₁
Position of the image is at 2F₂
31) A 2cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of
focal length 10cm. If the object is 15 cm, then calculate the image distance and height
of the image.
Ans:- object height h =2cm, Focal length f=+10cm Object distance u= -15cm ,
Image distance v= ?
Object height h’=?
1 1
Lens formula: −
𝑣 𝑢
1 1 1
= +
𝑣 𝑓 𝑢
1 1 1
= +
𝑣 +10 −15
1 3 2 1
= − =
𝑣 30 30 30
V=+30cm
ℎ′ 𝑣
m= =
ℎ 𝑢
30
m= m=-2cm
−15
h’=m x h
h’=-2 x 2 h’ = -4cm
Negative sign of ‘m’ and h’ indicates the image formed is inverted and real.
h’ Value is greater than 1, so it is enlarged.
32) Draw the ray diagram of the image formation when the object is kept at ‘C’ of the
concave mirror, with the help of a ray diagram mention and position and nature of the
image formed.

Ans: nature of the image is: real and inverted

Position of the image : at C
33) Draw the ray diagram of the image formed when the object is kept beyond
2F₁ of the convex lens, with the help of the diagram mention the position and
nature of the image.
Ans:
Nature of image: real and inverted ; Position of the Image: between F₂ and 2F₂
34) Draw the ray diagram of image formed when the object is kept beyond C of
the concave mirror. With the help of the diagram mention the position and nature
of the image formed.

Ans:
nature of the image: real and inverted Position of image: between C and F

35) An object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from a diverging lens of focal length

15cm. At what distance the image is formed from the lens? Find the
magnification of the image.
Ans: object distance ‘u’ = -30cm ; focal length ‘f’ = -15cm ;
image distance ‘v’ =? ; magnification ‘m’ = ?
1 1 1
lens formula = − =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓
1 1 1
= +
𝑣 𝑓 𝑢
1 1
= +
−15 −30
−2−1 −3
= =
30 30
−1
1/v = ; v = -10cm
10
ℎ′ 𝑣 −10
m= = =
ℎ 𝑢 −30
m= 1/3 = + 0.33cm
‘m’ value less than 1 indicates image is diminished. Positive sign indicates it is
erected.

36) a] List the uses of convex mirror and concave mirror.

b] define the principle focus and radius of curvature of a convex mirror.
Ans: a] (i) convex mirror is used as rear view mirror in vehicles.
(ii) they are used at the blind turns and on the points of merging traffic
to facilitate vision of both side traffic.
Concave mirror:
(i) concave mirror is used in torches, search lights and vehicles headlights to get
powerful parallel beams of light.
(ii) it is used by dentists.
(iii) it is used as shaving mirror.
(iv) used in solar furnace.
[b] Principle focus (F) : The point on principle axis where all the parallel light rays
appear to meat after reflection is called principle focus.
Radius of curvature (R) : the distance between the pole and the centre of
curvature is called radius of curvature.

37). Observe the following figure. AB is light ray travelling from liquid to air. BC and BD
are refracted rays.
i) Which is the refracted ray if the liquid taken is benzene?
ii) Which is the refracted ray if the liquid taken is water?
Justify your answer. (The absolute refractive index of water and benzene
are 1.33 and 1.5 respectively)

Ans : (i) BD is the refracted ray if the liquid taken is benzene

(ii) BC is the refracted ray if the liquid taken is water
Because benzene is denser than water. We know that, when a ray of light travels from
rarer to denser medium, it deflects to normal. Denser the medium, greater is the
deflection towards the normal.
38) An object 2cm tall is kept on the principal axis of a converging lens of focal length
8cm. Find the position, nature and size of the image formed if the object is at 12cm
from the lens. Also find the magnification produced by the lens.
Ans: object height ‘h’ = 2cm ; focal length ‘f’ = +8cm ; image distance ‘v’ = ?
Object distance ‘u’ = -12cm ; ‘m’ = ?
1 1 1 ℎ′ 𝑣 24
Lens formula; = − = m= = =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑓 ℎ 𝑢 −12
1 1 1
= + m = -2cm
𝑣 𝑓 𝑢
1 1
= + magnification value is negative , it is
8 −12
inverted
3−2 1
= = and real image. The value is greater than 1
24 24
v = 24cm hence the image is enlarged.
 HERIDITY AND EVOLUTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER

1 A pure dominant pea plant producing round — yellow seeds is crossed with
pure recessive pea plant producing wrinkled — green seeds. The number of
plants bearing round — green seeds in the F1 generation of Mendel’s
experiment is
(April2019)
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 9
2 Observe the table which shows contrast forms of pea plants The genetic
makeup with green seed and terminal flowers is indicated as
(A) gGAa (B) GgAa (C) GgAA (D) Ggaa
Colour of the seed Position of the flower
3. The experiences of
an individual Green ( G ) Axial ( A ) during its
lifetime cannot be passed on to
its progeny because, they
are. Yellow ( g ) Terminal (a ) (July2021)

(A) inherited traits (B) acquired traits

(C) dominant traits (D) recessive traits

4 Homologous organs, (july2021)

(A) have same structure and perform same function
(B) have same structure and perform different functions
(C) have different structures and perform same function
(D) have different structures and perform different functions

5 If a round green seeded pea plant [ RRyy ] is crossed with wrinkled yellow
seeded pea plant [ rrYY ], the seeds produced in F1 generation are. (July2021)
(A) round and green seeds (B) wrinkled and yellow seeds
(C) round and yellow seeds (D) wrinkled and green seeds

6 The genotypic ratio of F2 generation of Mendel’s monohybrid cross

experiment is. (Sept 2021)
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 : 1 (D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

7 Analogous organs have. (Sept2021)

(A) same structure and perform same function
(B) different structures and perform different functions
(C) different structures and perform same function
(D) same structure and perform different functions
8 Tall pea plants having round seeds (TTRR ) are crossed with dwarf pea
plants having wrinkled seeds (ttrr ). The progeny obtained in F1 generation is
(sept2021)
(A) Tall plants having wrinkled seeds (B) Tall plants having round seeds
(C) Dwarf plants having round seeds (D) Dwarf plants having wrinkled seeds

One-mark questions with answers

9 What are fossils? (April2019)
Ans: Fossils are the remains or traces of a dead organism.

10 How does relative method help to determine the age of fossils?

Ans: Relative method gives the information that, fossils which are closer to the
surface are most recent than those in deeper layers.

11 The experiences of an individual acquired during its lifetime cannot be

passed on to its progeny. Give reason.(April2022)
Ans: Change in non-reproductive tissues cannot be passed on to the DNA of
germ cells.

12. The gene for brown coloured hair is recessive that of gene for black
coloured hair. What is the hair colour of a person who has inherited a gene for
brown coloured hair from mother and black coloured hair from father?(April2020)
Ans: Black coloured hair

13. What is the sex of a child born by receiving X chromosome from father?
Ans: Female child / baby girl

14. What is genetic drift? (sept2020)

Ans: Genetic drift is an evolutionary change in allelic frequencies of a
population as a matter of chance. It occurs in very small populations, but its
effects are strong
TWO MARKS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
15. Write the differences between homologous organs and analogous organs?
(April2019)

HOMOLOGOUS ORGANS ANALOGOUS ORGANS

• They have similar structure • They have different structure

and perform different function and perform similar function
• Ex : Forelimbs of bird and • Ex : Wings of bird and wings
forelimbs of human of bat.

\
16. Write the differences between the sex chromosomes of man and sex
chromosomes of woman. (April2019)
Ans: Woman has a perfect pair of sex chromosomes, both called X.
Man has a normal sized chromosome X and another short-sized
chromosome Y.

17. Sex of a child is determined by the father. How?. (April2019)

Ans. A child who inherits X chromosome from her father will be a girl and a
child who inherits Y chromosome from his father will be a boy. Both the girl and
the boy inherit only X chromosome from the mother. Therefore, sex of a child is
determined by the father.

18. Explain the two methods to estimate the age of fossils. (Sept 2020)
Ans. : * Relative method — If we dig into the earth, the fossils we find closer to
the earth’s surface are more recent than the fossils we find in deeper layers.
* carbon dating method---By detecting the ratios of different isotopes of
the same element in the fossil material.

19. Can the wing of butterfly and the wing of bat be considered as Analogous
organs ? If yes, why ? If no, why ?(june2022)
* Yes, these structures are considered as Analogous organs.
* Because the wing of butterfly and wing of bat both are useful for flight.
* But their basic design / origin are not same.

20. Analyse the situations given below, Answer the questions given :
(April2023)
Situation 1 : The number of green grasshoppers in a green zone has been
increasing from one generation to another generation.
Situation 2 : The number of brown grasshoppers in the same green zone has
been reducing. Here,
a) Where could genetic drift be happened more ? Why ?
b) How can natural selection be considered as an important factor in organic
evolution ?

Ans. a) In situation (1)

because, natural selection is positive. Among the organisms of new generation of
green grasshoppers new combinations in genetic material have been
accumulating and genetic drift increases.
b) In situation (2)
because, natural selection is not positive. Due to this, the number of brown
grasshoppers is reduced and may disappear in future. So the natural selection is
an important event.

21. How are the traits of organisms classified as ‘dominant’ and ‘recessive’
traits ? (2024)
* Among the two copies of genes related for a trait, if one of the traits expressed
in many generations/ offsprings, then that trait is dominant.
* Among paired traits which of the traits not expressed or less expressed in a few
of the generations/organisms, then that trait is recessive.

22. How does the creation of variations in a species promote survival? (2024)
Ans : * The variations provide stability to the population of various species by
preventing them from getting wiped out during adverse conditions.
* The natural environment also changes, and variations in species which
become suited to the environment help it to survive.

23. How do Mendel’s experiments show that traits are inherited independently?
(2024)
Ans : When tall-round seeded plant is crossed with short-wrinkle seeded plant
we find new combinations in F2 progenies like tall-wrinkle seeded and short-
round seeded plants .
This shows that the tall/short trait and the round seed/wrinkled seed trait are
independently inherited.
THREE MARKS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

24. When a tall ( TT ) pea plant is crossed with a dwarf ( tt ) pea plant,
represent the result obtained in F2 generation of monohybrid cross with the help
of checker board and mention the ratio of varieties of plants. (April2023)

Phenotypic ratio: 3:1 Genotypic ratio: 1:2:1

25. “An individual organism cannot pass the experiences acquired during its
life time to the progenies of the next generation.” Explain this concept with the
help of an illustration. (June2022)
* Change in non-reproductive tissues cannot be passed on to the DNA of the
germ cells.
* For example, if we breed a group of mice all their progeny will have tails, as
expected. Now, if the tails of these mice are removed by surgery in each
generation, the tailless mice produce tailed progeny.
* Because, removal of the tail cannot change the genes of the germ cells of the
mice.
26. What are fossils ? What do they tell us about the process of evolution
?(April2022)
Ans: Fossils are the remains or traces of a dead organism. These are formed
through the formation of sedimentary rocks. They provide following information
on the process of evolution.
1. They tell about the gradual development of complex structured organisms
from simple structured organisms.
2. It is known through them that birds are evolved from reptiles.

27. Why are human beings who look so different from each other in terms of
size, colour and looks said to belong to the same species ? (2024)
Ans:* Humans may be slightly different in different races of people, but there is
no reproductive isolation.
• Reproductive isolation differentiates one species from the other.
• Human beings may be different in size, colour and looks , they can marry
among themselves and produce fertile offspring.

• FOUR MARKS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

28. The plant bearing round yellow coloured ( RrYy ) seed are self pollinated
with the same plant. Represent the result obtained in the F2 generation of
dihybrid cross with the help of a checker board. Mention the varieties of plants
obtained in F2 generation.

29. What is evolution ? Explain the three evidences for evolution.

Ans : Phenomenon of gradual change of organisms from simple form into
complex form in a long period is called evolution.
Three evidences are :
i) Homologous organs :
* The organs which have same basic structures but modified to perform different
functions are called homologous organs.
* Provide the information that organisms of different species might be evolved
from common ancestor.
ii) Analogous organs :
* The organs which have different basic structures but they perform similar
function are called analogous organs.
* Provide the information that though the organs of different organisms perform
same function, they may not have same function but they may not be evolved
from common ancestor.
iii) Fossils :
* The dead remains of past organism under the rocks/deep earthen layers are
called fossils.
* They help to study evidence and missing link between different species.
* They help to understand the sequence of evolution and help in classification

30. Mendel crossed plants bearing red flowers ( RR ) with the plants bearing
white flowers ( rr ) and produced progeny from them. The plants with red flowers
obtained in F1 generation were different from the plants with red flowers of
parental generation. Why ? Explain with reasons.
Ans. :
* In parent generation, plant bearing red flowers has both the dominant traits RR.
*In F1 generation, plant bearing red flowers has both the dominant and
recessive traits Rr.
* F1 generation plant inherits one copy of dominant trait ( red ) and one copy of
recessive trait
( white ) from the parental plants Rr. But only the dominant trait ( red ) is
expressed.
*Dominant character expressed in first generation while recessive is suppressed.

31. Mention the tools used for tracing the evolutionary relationships between
the organisms.
Ans. : * Excavating
* Time-dating
* Studying fossils
* Determining DNA sequences.

32. Tall pea plant producing red flowers (TT RR) is crossed with short pea
plant producing white flowers (tt rr)
i) Mention the type of plants produced from these plants in the F1 generation.
ii) Write the ratio of plants obtained in theF2 generation by crossing the plants of
F1 generation and name the varieties of plants obtained.
i) Parents : TT RR × tt rr
Gametes : TR×tr
F1 generation --Tt Rr
F1-- All red flowers producing tall pea plants.
ii) Ratio of plants obtained in F2 generation is - 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Types of plants
a) 9-Tall — Red flowers producing pea plants
b) 3-Tall — White flowers producing pea plants
c) 3-Short — Red flowers producing pea plants
d) 1-Short — White flowers producing pea plant
Most likely Questions for 2024

33. List out the tools for tracing evolutionary relationships of human beings?
Answer: The tools for tracing evolutionary relationships are excavating, time
dating, studying fossils and determining DNA sequence.

34. Explain The evolution of wild cabbage by artificial selection?

Answer : Humans have over more than 2000 years cultivated wild cabbage as
a food plant, generated different vegetables from it by artificial selection rather
than natural selection. so some farmers have wanted to select for very short
distances between leaves and have bread the cabbage we eat .some have
wanted to select for arrested flower development ,and have bread broccoli ,or for
sterile flowers, and have made the cauliflower. some have selected for swollen
parts, and come up with kohlrabi. some have simply looked for slightly larger
leaves and come up with a leafy vegetable called kale .This is how the evolution
of wild cabbage took place over years.

35.Give an example of characteristics being used to determine how close to

species are in evolutionary terms.
Answer : Example 1. studies of fossils indicate that some ancient reptiles like
dinosaurs had evolved feathers to provide insulation in cold weather. However
they cannot fly with these feathers. Later on birds adapted the feathers to flight.,
this means that birds are very closely related to reptiles since dinosaurs were
reptile.
Example 2 : let us take another example of humans and apes. both of them
have similar body design. body hair and memory glands are present in both the
animals. hence these two animals are closely related in evolutionary terms.

36. Why are human beings who look so different from each other in terms of
size, colour and looks set to belong to the same species?
Answer : Species is a group of organisms that are capable of interbreeding to
produce fertile offspring. skin colour ,looks and size are all variety of features
present in human beings. These features are genetic but also environmentally
controlled. various human races are formed based on these features. All human
races have more than enough similarities to be called as same species.
Therefore all human beings are a single species as humans of different colour
size looks are capable of reproduction and can produce fertile offspring.
37.What evidence do we have for the origin of life from inanimate matter?
Answer. The evidence for the origin of life from inanimate matter was provided
through an experiment conducted in 1953 by Stanley L Miller and Herold C Urey.
In that experiment they assembled atmosphere containing molecules like
ammonia, methane and hydrogen sulphide but no oxygen over water. This was
similar to the atmosphere that was thought to have existed an early earth. This
was maintained at a temperature just below 100 degree Celsius and sparks were
passed through the mixture of gases to stimulate lightening. At the end of a week
15% of carbon from methane had been converted to simple compounds of
carbon including amino acids which make up protein molecules and support the
life in basic form. This clearly suggests that life arose from inanimate matter on
earth.

38.In evolutionary terms can we say which among bacteria, spider, fish and
chimpanzees have a better body design? why or why not?
Answer. Evolution cannot always be equated with progress or better body
design. Evolution simply creates more complex body designs however this does
not mean that simple body designs are inefficient.
A. If complexity of body design is the criterion, chimpanzee is obviously better
than bacteria.
B. Bacteria having a simple body design or still the most cosmopolitan
organisms found on earth they can survive in hot Springs, deep sea and even
freezing environment. The above 2 examples show that bacteria, spider, fish
and chimpanzees are all different branches of evolution.
39.How are the areas of study-- evolution and classification-- interlinked?
Answer.
a . The modern system of classification is also called phylogenetic classification
which means it is based on evolutionary relationships. Hence evolution and
classification are closely related.
b. classification involves grouping of organisms into a formal system based on
similarities in internal and external structure or evolutionary history. when two
species are closely related they have more characteristics in common. And if two
species are more closely related then it means they have a more recent
anchester.
40 Write the mind mapping of sex determination in human beings
Answer. MALE Female
XY XX
Offsprings:: XX. XY. XX. XY