1.

Which method can be used in radiography to determine the through-wall position of a defect
such as a slag inclusion?
(a) The pinhole camera technique
(b) A tube or source shift technique (also called parallax technique)
(c) Carefully measure of film density using a microdensitometer
(d) The through-wall position of such defects cannot be determined by radiography

2. The term ‘heat affected zone’ or ‘HAZ’ is used in fusion welding to describe:
(a) a volume of the parent material each side of the weld, which, although it does not
melt, is metallurgically changed by the heat of welding
(b) everything that becomes molten during the fusion welding process
(c) both (a) and (b) are included in the heat affected zone
(d) in welding of carbon steel the HAZ is the entire volume that reaches a temperature of
100C or more during welding

3. An example of a volumetric flaw would be:

(a) a slag or oxide inclusion
(b) a gas pore
(c) hollow bead
(d) all of the above are volumetric

4. When using a DWDI technique to radiograph a butt weld in small bore pipe the OFD used to
calculate penumbra should be:
(a) the single wall thickness of the pipe
(b) the double wall thickness of the pipe
(c) the outside diameter of the pipe
(d) the inside diameter of the pipe

5. Which of the following weld defects is least reliably detected by radiography?

(a) porosity
(b) slag inclusion
(c) lack of penetration
(d) heat affected zone crack

6. Delayed hydrogen cracking can be caused by:

(a) insufficient pre-heat
(b) welding with damp electrodes
(c) high carbon equivalent parent material
(d) all of the above

7. Dark crescent shaped indications on a radiograph is most probably

(a) Pressure due to crimping of film after processing.
(b) Pressure due to crimping of film before exposure
(c) Splashes of developer during processing
(d) Pressure due to crimping of film after exposure before processing
8. What is the technique which is used to find the depth of the defect in radiography:
(a) Two film technique
(b) Parallax technique or tube shift technique
(c) Multiple Film technique
(d) Superimposed technique

9. Which of the following presents the greatest hazard from gamma radiation?
(a) 10 curies of cobalt 60
(b) 10 curies of iridium 192
(c) 10 curies of ytterbium 169
(d) all of the above are equally dangerous

10. The image formed on a film during exposure to ionising radiation prior to development is
usually referred to as:
(a) a raw image
(b) an underdeveloped image
(c) an imaginary image
(d) a latent image

11. The nucleus of any atom other than hydrogen contains:

(a) protons and electrons
(b) neutrons and protons
(c) protons, neutrons and electrons
(d) alpha, beta and gamma particles

12. ‘Penumbra’ is used in radiography as a direct alternative to:

(a) geometric unsharpness
(b) inherent unsharpness
(c) film unsharpness
(d) undercut

13. An exposure chart for iridium 192 that has been constructed for SFD = 500 mm gives an
exposure of 100 Ci-min for 25 mm of steel. The specification calls for a minimum
SFD = 800 mm. If all other factors remain equal what exposure is needed at the specified
minimum SFD?
(a) 160 Ci-min
(b) 62.5 Ci-min
(c) 39.1 Ci-min
(d) 256 Ci-min

14. The part of a conventional x-ray tube that is usually made from tungsten where deceleration
of
high velocity electrons takes place is called:
(a) the anode
(b) the cathode
(c) the target
(d) the filament

15. If the transmitted light intensity through part of a radiograph that has a density of 2.0 is 90
candela per square metre (cd/m2) how much light will be transmitted at a location where the
film density is 3.0 if all other factors remain the same?
(a) 30 cd/m2
(b) 9 cd/m2
(c) 0.9 cd/m2
(d) 60 cd/m2

16. In industrial radiography a Greinacher circuit is used in:

(a) an automatic film processor
(b) manufacture of radioactive isotopes
(c) a type of survey meter
(d) a constant potential x-ray set

17. The photosensitive material in a radiographic film emulsion is:

(a) kryptonite
(b) sodium thiosulphate
(c) silver bromide
(d) calcium tungstate

18. A film characteristic curve is a graph of:

(a) radiographic exposure against penetrated thickness.
(b) development time against film density.
(c) film density against logarithm relative exposure.
(d) film density against penetrated thickness

19. Lead screens decrease exposure time by:

(a) a factor of 10 or 12 at radiation energies exceeding 120 keV
(b) a factor of 5 or 6 at radiation energies exceeding 120 keV
(c) a factor of 4 or 5 at radiation energies exceeding 120 keV
(d) a factor of 2 or 3 at radiation energies exceeding 120 keV

20. The main active ingredient of developer is:

(a) an oxidising agent.
(b) a reducing agent.
(c) an acid.
(d) none of the above

21. One problem with the use of salt or fluorometallic screens is that:
(a) compared with lead screens exposure times are generally longer
(b) film contrast becomes excessive
(c) they do not respond to gamma rays
(d) the reciprocity law fails (an exposure of 2 mA for 2 minutes does not produce the
same film density as an exposure of 4 mA for 1 minute)

22. Reticulation is a film artefact caused by a sudden temperature change. It appears in the
radiographic image as:
(a) a net like structure – something like the appearance of grainy leather
(b) light or dark crescent shaped marks
(c) patches of very low film density
(d) a dark image with the shape of forked lightning

23. Characteristic curves are available for three types of radiographic film. The film that has the
characteristic curve which is to the left of the other two is:
(a) the fastest film
(b) the slowest film
(c) the film with the finest grain size
(d) the film with the shortest development time

24. When developing a new radiographic technique an exposure of 4 mA, 140 kV, 1.25 minutes
produces a film density of 1.5; a film density of 2.0 is required. Which exposure listed below
would probably achieve this?
(a) 4 mA : 150 kV : 1.25 minutes
(b) 4 mA : 130 kV : 5.00 minutes
(c) 4 mA : 140 kV : 1.00 minutes
(d) 4 mA : 140 kV : 1.80 minutes

25. Relative movement, exposure geometry, type of film, type of intensifying screens, screen
contact and film development all have an affect on:
(a) definition
(b) contrast
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) exposure time

26. The darkest area on a radiographic film is:

(a) the part of the film that has received the least exposure to x-rays
(b) the part of the film that has received the most exposure to x-rays
(c) the part of the film that was under the thickest part of the specimen
(d) the part of the film where very little metallic silver is present

27. Which of the following describes ‘Compton scattering’?

(a) An x-ray photon collides with an atomic nucleus or inner shell electron & ceases to
exist – is converted to a high speed electron and a high speed positron.
(b) An x-ray photon collides with an outer shell electron & is completely absorbed by the
electron resulting in ionisation.
(c) An x-ray photon collides with an outer shell electron & is partially absorbed by the
electron resulting in ionisation. The remaining photon energy continues as a low xray
photon in a new direction.
(d) An x-ray photon is momentarily absorbed by the orbital electrons of an atom, then reemitted
without loss of photon energy in a new direction.

28. If the effective focus size = 4 mm, the object to film distance = 35 mm and the focus to film
distance = 750 mm what is value the geometric unsharpness that has been obtained?
(a) 0.196 mm
(b) 0.200 mm
(c) 0.125 mm
(d) 0.187 mm

29. The output of Iridium 192 is 4.8 mSv/h/Ci at 1 metre, thus the dose rate at 1 centimetre from
a 1 Ci source will be:
(a) 48 mSv/h
(b) 0.48 Sv/h
(c) 48000 Sv/h
(d) 480 Sv/h

30. The SI unit of absorbed dose is the:

(a) becquerel
(b) sievert
(c) gray
(d) roentgen

31. The property of a gamma ray source that is measured in curies per gram is:
(a) its self-absorption coefficient
(b) its specific activity
(c) its strength or activity
(d) its penetrating power

32. Iridium 192 has:

(a) 192 protons in the nucleus
(b) 192 neutrons in the nucleus
(c) a combined total of 192 protons and neutrons in the nucleus
(d) 192 alpha particles in the nucleus

33. The standard abbreviation used to denote atomic number is:

(a) A
(b) Å
(c) Z
(d) W

34. The body of the anode in an x-ray set is usually made from pure copper – why?
(a) Because pure copper is a very good electrical conductor
(b) Because pure copper has excellent thermal conductivity
(c) Because pure copper oxidises only very slowly
(d) Because pure copper is an excellent source of electrons

35. A beta particle is a high velocity:

(a) electron
(b) helium nucleus
(c) proton
(d) neutron

36. To make cobalt 59 radioactive, bombard it with:

(a) alpha particles
(b) beta particles
(c) neutrons
(d) hand grenades

37. An electron:
(a) carries an electric charge that is equal and opposite to that of a proton
(b) is approximately 1836 times heavier than a neutron
(c) is called an alpha particle when travelling at very high velocity
(d) (a), (b) and (c) are all correct

38. The 2 factors that determine effective or projected focus size in an x-ray tube are:
(a) the diameter of the beryllium window and the diameter of the tungsten target
(b) the diameter of the electron beam and the diameter of the tungsten target
(c) diameter of the beryllium window and the angle of the tungsten target with respect to
the window
(d) diameter of the electron beam and the angle of the tungsten target with respect to the
electron beam

39. Electromagnetic radiation with photon energy of 5 keV and above will cause:
(a) ionisation of a gas
(b) nuclear disintegration
(c) nuclear fusion
(d) alpha emission

40. The penetrating power of x-rays is controlled by:

(a) tube current
(b) tube voltage
(c) (tube current) x (tube voltage)
(d) both (a) and (b)