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06/04/2023 CODE-A

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INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2023

MM : 720 CST-3 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Complete Syllabus of NEET

Instructions for Paper (FRCLII) :

(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A
 
1. (
If A = i + 2 j − 3kˆ and B= ) ( j + kˆ ) , then the
 
value of A × B will be

(1) (5i + j + kˆ )
(1) Zero (2) 75000 kg m2 s–1
(2) ( 5i − j + kˆ ) (3) 150000 kg m2 s–1 (4) 300000 kg m2 s–1
3. The frequency of a tuning fork is 300 Hz. The
(3) ( i + j + 5kˆ
) distance travelled by the sound, produced in air,
is 20 cm in one vibration. The speed of sound in
(4) ( j + 5kˆ ) air will be
(1) 67 m/s
2. A car of mass 5000 kg is moving along a straight
(2) 60 m/s
line with speed 15 m/s as shown in the figure.
(3) 40 m/s
The angular momentum of the car about origin
will be (4) 30 m/s

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4. A glass tube of a resonance tube apparatus is 9. During adiabatic changes, the volume of a gas is
held vertically and the length of the air column found to be dependent inversely on square of its
can be adjusted by adjusting water level in the absolute temperature. The relation between
tube as shown in the figure. A tuning fork of
pressure and absolute temperature is
frequency f is sounded above the air column. The
length of air column is slowly increased from a 1
(1) P ∝ T2 (2) P ∝
small value. The two successive lengths at which T2
resonance occurs are 1 and 2. The speed of
(3) P ∝ T3 (4) P ∝ T
sound in air is
10. The first Bohr radius of a hydrogen atom is
(1) 2.5 × 10–13 m
(2) 1.0 × 10–12 m
(3) 7.0 × 10–12 m
(4) 0.53 × 10–10 m
11. A steel plate has face area 4 cm2 and thickness
0.5 cm and is fixed rigidly at lower surface. A
(1) 2f(2 – 1) (2) 2f(2 + 1) tangential force of 10 N is applied on upper face.
What is approximate lateral displacement of
  − 3 1    + 3 1  upper face with respect to lower?
(3) 2f  2  (4) 2f  2 
 2   2 
(Rigidity modulus of steel η = 8.4 × 1010 N m–2)
5. A large block of mass 40 kg is dragged along the
(1) 2 × 10–8 m
platform of railway station with 30 kgf force. The
coefficient of friction between block and concrete (2) 3 × 10–6 m
of platform is 0.5. The force of friction is (3) 1.5 × 10–9 m
(1) 30 kgf (2) 25 kgf
(4) 2.5 × 10–7 m
(3) 20 kgf (4) 40 kgf
12. If 4 A current flows across a cell of emf 2 V and
6. A beaker containing water is placed on a platform
internal resistance 2 Ω (as shown) then terminal
of a spring balance. The balance reads 1.5 kg. A
stone of mass 0.5 kg and volume 0.001 m3 is potential difference across the cell will be
completely immersed in water without touching
the walls of the beaker. The balance reads
(1) 2.2 kg (2) 2.5 kg
(3) 1.5 kg (4) 1.2 kg
7. 50 g of ice at 0°C is added to 300 g of a liquid at
30°C. What will be the final temperature of the
mixture when all the ice has melted? The specific (1) 10 V
heat capacity of the liquid is 2.65 J/g °C–1 while (2) 6 V
that of water is 4.2 J–1 °C–1 and specific heat of
fusion of ice = 336 J/g. (3) 8 V
(1) 10.7°C (2) 12.2°C (4) 12 V
(3) 9.2°C (4) 7.01°C 13. The SI unit of electron mobility will be
8. A body cools from 60°C to 50°C in 10 minutes. (1) Cs/kg
What is its temperature of the body at the end of
next 10 minutes if room temperature is 25°C? (2) Nm/C

(1) 40°C (2) 42.8°C (3) Vm/C

(3) 44.5°C (4) 38.7°C (4) NC/m

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14. Consider an infinitely long charged sheet such 18. The mass of a body at the centre of the earth is
that points ‘A’ and ‘B’ lie at a distance d1 and d2
(1) Infinite
from it as shown in figure. If VA and VB are
electric potential at A and B then (surface charge (2) Zero
density = – σ C/m2) (3) Same as at other places
(4) Greater than as at other places
19. The angle between the dipole moment and
electric field at any point on the equatorial plane
is
(1) 0° (2) 45°
(3) 180° (4) 90°
20. Two identical particles of charge q and mass m
σ
(1) VA − V
=B (d1 − d 2 ) are suspended from non-conducting threads of
2ε0 equal length l. If the system is in equilibrium, then
(2) VA – VB = 0 the value of x is (θ is very small)
σ
(3) VA − =
VB (d 2 − d1 )
2ε0
σ
(4) VA − VB =
− (d1 + d 2 )
2ε0
15. If a uniform electric and magnetic field exists
along x-axis and a charged particle q is projected
along y-axis with speed v then the time in which 1 1
speed of particle become twice is  q 2  3  q2 3
(1) 
 2πε mg 
(2) 
(m = mass of charged particle)  4πε mg 
 0   0 
vm 3vm
(1) (2) 1 1
qEB qE  q2  3  q 2  2
(3) 
 4πε mg 
(4) 
vm qE  4πε mg 
(3) (4)  0   0 
3qE 3vm
21. The amplitude of electric field in a parallel beam
16. The phenomenon which does not take place in of light of intensity 3 Wm–2 is nearly
sound waves is
(1) Scattering (2) Interference (1) 35.5 N/C (2) 47.5 N/C
(3) Diffraction (4) Polarisation (3) 60 N/C (4) 30.5 N/C
17. A thief’s car crosses a police car at t = 0. The 22. A body is moving with the velocity 2i + (t + 3) j in
velocity-time graph of thief’s car and police car is
shown in the following graph, police car catches x-y plane. Then the time when velocity of body
the thief’s car in time will have 45° angle from positive x direction in
counter clockwise sense will be
(1) t = 1 (2) t = 5
(3) t = 3 (4) No such time exist
23. The condition that is true for equilibrium is, where
U is potential energy and x is position of particle.
dU dU
(1) >0 (2) <0
dx dx

(1) 10 s (2) 15 s dU
(3) =0 (4) All options are true
(3) 20 s (4) Never dx

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24. Two bar magnets are placed one over other in 29. A transformer of efficiency 90% draws an input
such a manner that their magnetic moment power of 4 kW. If the current in secondary coil is
vectors are in opposite direction. If M1 and M2 are 6 A, voltage across the secondary coil is
their magnetic moments then net magnetic (1) 600 V (2) 200 V
moment of the system will be
(3) 666.67 V (4) 732 V
(1) M1 + M2 (2) M1 – M2
30. A small bob of mass m is oscillating simple
M1 harmonically with the help of a light string in
(3) (4) M1M2
M2 vertical plane. When bob is at its extreme
position then
25. Consider the flux-time graph for a circular coil
given below and select the correct option. (v – velocity of bob, a – acceleration of bob)
(1) v = 0, a = 0 (2) v ≠ 0, a = 0
(3) v = 0, a ≠ 0 (4) v ≠ 0, a ≠ 0
31. The power of a bi-convex lens is 1.25 m–1 in a
medium. Radii of curvature of both surfaces of
lens are 40 cm and 20 cm respectively and
refractive index of material of lens is µ = 1.5.
Refractive index of medium in which lens is
(1) Induced EMF between t = 0 to t = tA is non-
placed, is
zero
(2) If tB – tA = tC – tB then magnitude of EMF 4 6
(1) (2)
induced will be same 3 5

(3) EMF will induce in between tA – tB and 3 9

(3) (4)
tB – tC will allow to flow current in same 2 7
direction 32. In normal adjustment, for a refracting telescope
(4) Induced EMF will be zero between 0 to tA the distance between objective and eye piece is
40 cm. The focal length of the objective, when
26. The energy E of a particle at time t and position
the angular magnification of the telescope is
(x) is given by
3, will be
E = k1t + k2x
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
k (3) 40 cm (4) 30 cm
Dimensions of 1 is
k2
33. Frequency of input signal in a half wave rectifier
(1) [M1L1T–2] (2) [M0L1T–1] (HWR) is f. The frequency of output of HWR will
(3) [M1L1T–1] (4) [M0L1T–2] be

27. The diameter of a wire is measured to be (1) f (2) 2f

0.007080 × 10–5 m. The number of significant f
(3) (4) 3f
figures is 2
(1) Six (2) Seven 34. The characteristics equation of logic circuit
(3) Three (4) Four shown in the figure is

28. A gas mixture consists of 3 moles of N2 gas and

3 moles of He at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
system is
(1) 12RT (2) 11RT (1) Y = A ⋅ B + A ⋅ B (2) Y = A ⋅ B + A + B

(3) 5RT (4) 9RT (3) Y = A + B + A ⋅ B (4) Both (1) and (2)

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35. A radioactive element X emits 6 α-particles and 40. A spring block system undergoes simple
2 β–-particles leading to 211 harmonic motion on a smooth surface. The block
82 Pb . The element ‘X’
is given charge ‘q’ and a uniform horizontal
is
electric field to the right is switched on (as shown
230 235 in figure). As a result.
(1) 90 Th (2) 92 U

232 238
(3) 90 Th (4) 92 U

SECTION-B
36. A uniform solid cylinder of mass m and radius R
(1) Time period of oscillation will increase
is kept on rough surface after giving its centre a
horizontal speed 24 m/s. The speed of centre of (2) Time period of oscillation will decrease
solid cylinder when it starts pure rolling will be (3) Mean position of simple harmonic motion will
(1) 24 m/s (2) 20 m/s qE
shift to right by
k
(3) 14 m/s (4) 16 m/s
(4) Both (1) and (3)
37. A heavy block of mass M hangs in equilibrium at
41. The given network is part of a larger circuit. The
the end of the rope of mass m and length 
potential difference between any one of A, B or C
connected to the ceiling. The tension in the rope and point D is 40 V. The potential difference
at distance x from the ceiling is between A and O is

−x −x
(1) Mg + mg   (2) Mg + mg  
 x    

x  1− x 
(3) Mg + mg   (4) mg + Mg  
   
38. The end of a capillary tube with radius r is
immersed in water. The water rises in tube. If T is
surface tension and ρ is density of water, what is
the work done by surface tension? (Assume
(1) 18 V (2) 10 V
angle of contact = 0°)
(3) 3.8 V (4) 104 V
T2 2πT 2 42. P1 and P2 are two coherent sources. The
(1) (2)
ρg ρg intensity of both sources is same. If the intensity
at the point of maxima is 5 Wm–2, the intensity of
T2 4T 2 π
(3) (4) each source is
4ρg ρg
(1) 1 W/m2 (2) 2 W/m2
39. A cylinder contains 3 moles of oxygen at a
temperature of 27°C. The cylinder is provided 1 5
(3) W/m2 (4) W/m2
with frictionless piston which maintain a constant 2 4
pressure of 1 atm on the gas. Gas is heated until H
43. A particle is dropped from a height . The
temperature rises to 127°C. How much heat was 4
supplied to the gas? de-Broglie wavelength of the particle as a
function of height is proportional to
(1) 1506 Cal
1 −1
(2) 2523 J (1) H 2 (2) H 2

(3) 2089 Cal 3 −3

(4) 7030 J (3) H2 (4) H2

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44. The magnetic field at the centre of the circular The angular frequency of the source, at which
loop as shown in figure, when a single wire is power transferred to the circuit is half the power
bent to form a circular loop and also extends to at the resonant angular frequency, may be
form a straight section is (1) 50 rad/s (2) 12.5 rad/s
(3) 25 rad/s (4) 21 rad/s
48. One centimetre on the main scale of vernier
calliper is divided into ten equal parts. If 10
divisions of vernier scale coincide with 9 small
division of the main scale, the least count of the
vernier calliper is
(1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.02 cm
µ I µ I 1 
(1) 0 ⊗ (2) 0  1 +  (3) 0.03 cm (4) 0.1 cm
2R 2R  π 2
49. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 60° on one
µ I 1  µ I 1  face of a prism of refracting angle 30°. The
(3) 0  1 − ⊗ (4) 0  1 − 
2R  π 2 R  π 2 emergent ray of light makes an angle of 30° with
incident ray. The emergent ray is
45. If gravitational potential is varying as V = xy2 + xz,
then the magnitude of gravitation field at (1, 2, 1) (1) Normal to the face through which it emerges
is (in SI units) (2) Inclined at 30° to the face through which it
(1) 21 units (2) 30 units emerges
(3) Inclined at 60° to the face through which it
(3) 23 units (4) 42 units
emerges
46. A body of mass 2 kg is taken along a rough
(4) Inclined at 45° to the face through which it
inclined plane upto a height 2 m from the ground
emerges.
and 100 J of work is done, then the co-efficient of
friction between the block and plane will be 50. The transfer characteristics of a CE amplifier is
shown in the figure
(Given angle of inclined plane is 30° and
g = 10 ms2)

2 3
(1) (2)
3 2

2 3
(3) (4)
3 2
In the region II, transistor works as
47. A series LCR circuit containing 10 H inductor,
(1) A switch (2) An amplifier
160 µF capacitor and 80 Ω resistor is connected
220 V variable frequency sinusoidal AC source. (3) A switch ‘ON’ (4) A switch ‘OFF’

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Neopentyl group among the following is (3)
(1)

(2) (4)

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52. In the given reaction, the product formed is 58. Which among the following order of energies of
Mo2O3
CH4 + O2  → subshell is correct?
∆
(1) (E2s)Li > (E2s)Na > (E2s)K
(1) CH3OH (2) HCHO
(2) (E2s)Li > (E2s)K > (E2s)Na
(3) HCOOH (4)
(3) (E2s)K > (E2s)Na > (E2s)Li
(4) (E2s)K > (E2s)Li > (E2s)Na
53. Which among the following is a Ketal?
59. Statement-I: Copernicium has atomic number
112.
(1) (2)
Statement-II: Uup belongs to nitrogen family.
In the light of above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(3) (4)
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
54. Statement I: Picric acid is stronger acid than (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
benzoic acid. correct
Statement II: Picric acid as well as benzoic acid (3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
evolve hydrogen gas on reaction with sodium. (4) Both statement I and statement II are
In light of the above statements, choose the incorrect
correct answer. 60. General outermost shell electronic configuration
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is of alkaline earth metals is
incorrect (1) ns1 (2) ns2
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (3) ns2 np1 (4) ns2 np3
correct
61. Purest allotrope of carbon is
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(1) Graphite (2) Coal
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) Fullerene (4) Diamond
incorrect
62. Which among the following is not a greenhouse
55. Correct order of SN1 rate of the given compounds
gas?
is
(1) CO2 (2) Water vapour
(3) O3 (4) O2
63. Magnetic moment of Fe2+ ion in BM is

(1) 8 (2) 3
(1) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (2) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
(3) 24 (4) 35
(3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) (4) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
64. Critical temperature TC can be expressed as
56. Which among the following is not an essential
amino acid? a
(1)
27b2
(1) Lysine (2) Histidine
(3) Alanine (4) Valine 8a
(2)
27Rb
57. Hybridization involved in complexes Ni(CO)4 and
[Co(NH3)6]3+ respectively are a
(3)
(1) dsp2 and sp3d2 (2) sp3 and sp3d2 Rb

(3) sp3 and d2sp3 (4) dsp2 and d2sp3 (4) 3b

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65. Match the following options and choose the 70. Statement-I: The monomers of glyptal are
correct option. phthalic acid and ethylene glycol.
Statement-II: Urea formaldehyde resin and
Column-I Column-II
bakelite both have formaldehyde as one of their
a. Ostwald’s process (i) H2SO4 monomer.
In the light of above statements, choose the
b. Holme’s signal (ii) Cl2 correct option.
c. Contact process (iii) PH3 (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
d. Deacon’s process (iv) HNO3
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
incorrect
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
x
71. A plot of log   vs log p for the adsorption of a
66. Rate highest boiling point among hydrides of m
group 15 elements is gas on a solid gives a straight line with slope
(1) AsH3 (2) NH3 equal to

(3) PH3 (4) BiH3 (1) k (2) n

67. An example of non-narcotic analgesic which 1

(3) (4) log k
n
inhibits synthesis of prostaglandins is
72. 1.5 m aqueous solution of urea contains
(1) Codeine (2) Serotonin
(1) 60 g urea per 500 g of solvent
(3) Aspirin (4) Valium
(2) 90 g urea per 500 g of solvent
68. Rate of nucleophilic substitution will be fastest in
(3) 45 g urea per 500 g of solution
(4) 45 g urea per 500 g of solvent

(1) (2) 73. Which one of the following compounds shows

both Frenkel as well as Schottky defects?
(1) KCl (2) NaCl
(3) CsCl (4) AgBr
74. The ionic radii of A+ and B– ion are 0.7 × 10–10 m
(3) (4) and 1.81 × 10–10 m. The coordination number of
of A+ ion is
(1) 2 (2) 4
69. Phenetole is (3) 6 (4) 8
75. For the cell reaction
2Fe(s) + O2(g) + 4H+(aq) → 2Fe2+(aq) + 2H2O(l)
(1) (2)
E°cell = 1.67 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs
energy (∆rG°) of the cell reaction is
[Given that Faraday constant F = 96500 C mol–1]
(1) – 64.46 kJ mol–1 (2) – 644.62 kJ mol–1
(3) (4)
(3) – 6.44 kJ mol–1 (4) – 6446.2 kJ mol–1

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76. Which among the following is the correct option 82. Catalyst used in Haber’s process for the
for right relationship between Cp and Cv for ten manufacturing of ammonia is
mole of ideal gas? (1) Finely divided iron
[Where Cp and Cv are molar heat capacity] (2) Platinised asbestos
(1) Cp – Cv = 10R (2) Cp – Cv = R (3) Vanadium pentoxide
(3) Cv – Cp = R (4) Cp + Cv = R (4) Finely divided copper
77. The oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 is 83. Species which does not exist is
(1) + 6 (2) + 5 (1) He22+ (2) Be2
(3) + 7 (4) + 4
(3) O2− (4) O2+
78. Statement-I: The method used to remove
temporary hardness of water is Clark’s method. 84. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid?

Statement-II: Hydrogen has three isotopes of (1) BF3 (2) AlCl3

which tritium is most common. (3) FeCl3 (4) CH4
In the light of above statements choose the 85. For the chemical reaction
correct answer. H2 + I2  2HI
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is The correct option is
incorrect
d [H2 ] 1 d [HI] d [H2 ] 2d [HI]
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (1) − =
− (2) − =
dt 2 dt dt dt
correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct d [H2 ] 1 d [HI] d [H2 ] d [HI]
(3) − = (4) − =
dt 2 dt dt dt
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect SECTION-B

79. Match the metal given in list I with their ores 86. Heterocyclic aromatic compound among the
given in list II and identify the correct option. following is

List I List II
(1) (2)
a Iron (i) Bauxite

b Copper (ii) Magnetite

c Zinc (iii) Malachite (3) (4)

d. Aluminium (iv) Calamine

87. Major product of the given reaction is
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
80. The mass percentage of carbon in glucose is
(1) 45% (2) 40%
(3) 35% (4) 30% (1) (2)

81. The maximum basic strength in aqueous solution

among the following is associated with
(1) (CH3)3N (2) (CH3)2NH (3) (4)
(3) CH3NH2 (4) NH3

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88. Which among the following show keto-enol 95. Wavenumber corresponding to the transition with
tautomerism? smallest wavelength in Lyman series of H-atom
will be

RH
(1)
4

RH
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only (2)
9
(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) RH
89. Which among the following will not show
stereoisomerism? 1
(4)
RH
(1) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] (2) [Co(en)3]3+
(3) [PtCl2(en)2]2+ (4) [PdCl4]2+ 96. Paramagnetic nature of alkali metal solution in
90. Assuming 75% ionisation, which of the following liquid ammonia is due to
aqueous solution will have highest osmotic (1) Ammoniated electrons
pressure?
(2) Solvated cation metal
(1) 0.1 M Al2(SO4)3 (2) 0.1 M CaCl2
(3) Formation of amide
(3) 0.1 M NaCl (4) 0.1 M Urea
91. Identify the wrongly match pair. (4) Ammonium ion

Molecule Shape 97. On the basis of van der Waals constants a and b

(1) PCl5 Trigonal bipyramidal for two gases H2 and O2 choose the correct
statement from the following.
(2) XeF4 Square pyramidal
(3) BrF5 Square pyramidal (1) Value of b for O2 is more while value of a is
more for H2
(4) SF4 See-saw
92. The solubility of AgCl(s) having Ksp = 2 × 10–10 in (2) Value of b for H2 is more while value of a is
0.1 M KCl solution would be more for O2

(1) 2 × 10–9 M (2) 2 × 10–8 M (3) Value of both a and b is more for H2
(3) 2 × 10–10 M (4) 2 × 10–11 M (4) Value of both a and b is more for O2
93. When initial concentration of the reactant is 98. A nitrogen containing aromatic compound ‘X’
doubled then the half life of a zero order reaction
when reacts with Sn/HCl forms a compound ‘Y’.
(1) Is tripled (2) Is halved When Y reacts with NaNO2/HCl at 0°C forms an
(3) Remains unchanged (4) Is doubled unstable compound Z which reacts with Y to form
94. Following limiting molar conductivities are given a yellow coloured dye ‘D’. D is
as
(1)
°
λm ( CH3 COO ) Mg = 2 –1
 2  187.8 S cm mol
°
λm (HCl) =
426 S cm2 mol–1 (2)
°
λm (MgCl2 ) =
258 S cm2 mol–1
°
(3)
λm (in S cm2) mol–1 for CH3COOH will be

(1) 290 (2) 390.9

(4)
(3) 490 (4) 590.9

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99. The correct structure of tetrathionate ion is

(4)
(1)

100. Which among the following is an intensive

property?
(2)
(1) Heat capacity

(2) Volume

(3) (3) Density

(4) Entropy

BOTANY
SECTION-A 105. Which of the following groups of plants do not
show independent free living existence of male
101. Plants lose water in the form of vapours and
and female gametophytes?
liquid droplets via two different processes. Which
of the following is the correct statement for the (1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
two different processes? (3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms
(1) Both processes occur through stomata. 106. Reduction in the number of chromosomes occur
during
(2) One process loose pure water while the other
(1) Anaphase I (2) Anaphase II
releases dilute solution of organic and
inorganic substances. (3) Metaphase I (4) Metaphase II

(3) Both processes occurs only at the margins 107. Amoeboid and ciliated protozoans both
and the tips of the leaves. (1) Can be fresh water forms
(4) Loss of water as vapours occurs during night (2) Are multicellular
but as liquid droplets occurs during the day. (3) Have same locomotory structure
102. Coenzyme-A has all of the following elements (4) Cannot be parasitic
except 108. Fungi do not
(1) S (2) N (1) Posses aseptate hyphae

(3) Mo (4) C (2) Have Golgi bodies

(3) Synthesize their own food
103. The process of cytokinesis i.e., division of
cytoplasm in plant cell and animal cell is (4) Store food material
109. Read the following statements and select the
(1) Centrifugal and centripetal respectively
correct option.
(2) Centrifugal
Assertion (A) : Lichens are considered as
(3) Centripetal indicators of SO2 pollution.
(4) Centripetal and centrifugal respectively Reason (R) : Lichens can grow well in polluted
environment.
104. Which of the following features is shared by all
three classes of algae? (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(1) Presence of air bladders
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) Presence of flagellated asexual spores
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(3) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation correct explanation of (A)
(4) Sexual reproduction of isogamous type (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

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110. Experimental verification of the chromosomal 118. A pair of leaves arise at each node and opposite
theory of inheritance was done by to each other in
(1) Sutton and Boveri (1) Alstonia (2) Guava
(2) Gregor Mendel (3) Sunflower (4) Mustard
(3) Bateson and Punnet 119. Select the element of tissue which lacks
(4) Thomas Hunt Morgan protoplast at maturity.
111. A disease caused by an allosomal non-disjunction (1) Companion cell (2) Sieve tube element
is
(3) Xylem parenchyma (4) Tracheid
(1) Down’s syndrome (2) Turner’s syndrome
120. Select the feature which is not true for monocot
(3) Edward’s syndrome (4) Sickle cell anemia stem.
112. Regarding blood group, the genotypes of a (1) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
husband and his wife are IAIB and IAi. They never
had a child with blood group O. The reason (2) Parenchymatous ground tissue
behind this, is (3) Ring arrangement of vascular bundles
(1) IA is dominant over i but not over IB, so i (4) Water containing cavities are present within
cannot express itself vascular bundles
(2) IB is dominant over i but not IA, so i cannot 121. Choose the correct sequence of wall layers in
express itself cell envelope (from outside to inside) in
(3) i is dominant over IA and IB, so IA and IB prokaryotic organisms.
cannot express itself
(1) Plasma membrane → Cell wall → Glycocalyx
(4) IA and IB are completely dominant over i, so i
(2) Glycocalyx → Cell wall → Plasma membrane
allele can express itself in homozygous
conditions only (3) Cell wall → Plasma membrane → Glycocalyx
113. For the organism growing in a natural (4) Plasma membrane → Glycocalyx → Cell wall
environment, the curve we get when we plot
122. The site of formation of glycoproteins and
population growth against time would be
glycolipids is
(1) Linear curve (2) Hyperbolic curve
(1) Polysome
(3) Sigmoid curve (4) J-shaped curve
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
114. Adventitious buds at leaf margin can be seen in
(3) Peroxisome
(1) Oxalis (2) Sugarcane
(4) Golgi apparatus
(3) Strawberry (4) Bryophyllum
123. Who gave the concept of “Omnis cellula-e-
115. In case of anemophily, the stigma are usually
cellula” regarding cell theory?
(1) Needle-like and non-sticky
(1) Rudolf Virchow
(2) Large and feathery
(2) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
(3) Short and sticky
(3) Matthias Schleiden
(4) Not well-exposed
(4) Theodor Schwann
116. An example of biofertilizer is
(1) E. coli (2) Baculovirus 124. A are useful in providing information for

(3) Mycoplasma (4) BGA identification of names of species found in an

area.
117. Select the odd one out w.r.t. modification of
different types of roots for food storage. Select the correct option to fill in the blank A.
(1) Turnip (2) Carrot (1) Manuals (2) Monographs
(3) Sweet potato (4) Radish (3) Flora (4) Catalogues
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125. Correct sequence of taxonomic categories 131. In the technique that involves southern blot
showing hierarchical arrangement in ascending hybridisation for DNA fingerprinting, which of the
order is following is used as a probe?
(1) Genus → Species → Class → Order → (1) Radiolabelled satellite DNA
Phylum → Kingdom (2) DNA fragment of the sample
(2) Species → Genus → Family → Class → (3) Radiolabelled DNA sequence that is
Order → Kingdom expressed as mRNA

(3) Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order → (4) Complete DNA of a cell

Family → Genus → Species 132. All of the following are present in both
nucleosome and ribosome, except
(4) Species → Genus → Family → Order →
Class → Phylum → Kingdom (1) N-glycosidic linkage (2) Proteins

126. Mark incorrectly matched pair (3) Purines (4) 5-methyl uracil
133. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(1) Oxaloacetic acid – First member of TCA
cycle (1) z gene of lac operon – Hydrolysis of
disaccharide
(2) Cytochrome c – Mobile electron carrier of
(2) Total number of genes – About 3 × 109
ETS
estimated in human
(3) Ubiquinone – Located within outer
(3) The human chromosome – Present in males
mitochondrial membrane
having fewest gene
(4) Oxygen – Terminal hydrogen (4) y gene of lac operon – Associated with
acceptor of ETS permeability of
127. How many of the following are vitamin C β-galactosides
enriched crops released by IARI? 134. Read the following statements.
Spinach, Bathua, Mustard, Tomato, a. Alexander von Humboldt observed that within
Bitter gourd, Carrots, Pumpkin a region, species richness increases with
increasing explored area.
(1) Two (2) Five
b. The regression coefficient, i.e., the value of Z
(3) Four (4) Three lies in the range of 0.6 to 1.2, when the
128. Select the odd one out w.r.t. population attribute? species-area relation is done for very small
areas.
(1) Death rate (2) Birth rate
c. Without any exception, tropics harbour more
(3) Sex ratio (4) Age of individual
species than temperate areas.
129. Which of the following is not an ecosystem
The correct one(s) is/are
function?
(1) All a, b and c (2) b only
(1) Stratification (2) Productivity
(3) a and b only (4) a only
(3) Decomposition (4) Energy flow
135. Consider the following food chain:
130. One of the differences between C4 and C3
Zooplankton → Small fish → Fish-eating birds →
pathways of photosynthesis is that
Lice and bugs.
(1) The former does not require NADP
If there is 0.003 ppb DDT in the water where
(2) The former requires extra ATP to fix same zooplankton of the above mentioned food chain
amount of CO2 thrives, which organism would show maximum
(3) The latter occurs only in dicot plants amount of DDT per individual?
(4) The latter occurs only in mesophyll cells of (1) Zooplankton (2) Small fish
the leaves in C4 plants (3) Fish-eating bird (4) Lice and bugs
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SECTION-B 143. Which among the following is not a part

136. Algin can be obtained from the members of associated with ground tissue system?
(1) Cortex (2) Stomata
(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Pericycle (4) Pith
(3) Rhodophyceae (4) Red algae
144. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. aestivation in
137. All of the following structures aid in transpiration, corolla and its example.
except
(1) Twisted – Cotton
(1) Stomata (2) Lenticels
(2) Imbricate – China rose
(3) Hydathodes (4) Cuticle (3) Vexillary – Pea
138. T4 bacteriophage lacks (4) Valvate – Calotropis
(1) Protein coat (2) Host specificity 145. Select the incorrect statement regarding
(3) Infectious nature (4) Helical RNA chloroplast.
(1) It is a double membrane bound organelle
139. All sperms of which of the following males have
same type of sex chromosomes? (2) Membrane of thylakoids enclose a space
called a lumen
(1) Humans (2) Grasshopper
(3) Thylakoids are arranged in stacks, like a pile
(3) Drosophila (4) Birds of coins
140. Which of the following options is wrong regarding (4) The outer membrane of the chloroplast is
cytokinins? relatively less permeable than inner
membrane
(1) Cytokinins have specific effect on cytokinesis
146. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘–‘
(2) Kinetin occur naturally in plants
sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral
(3) Zeatin is a natural substance with cytokinin interaction, then how many of the following is/are
like activity representing ‘+’ and ‘–‘ interaction

(4) Natural cytokinins are synthesised in regions a. Orchid growing on a mango branch
where active cell division occurs b. Sea anemone and clown fish
141. a. Gecko lizard can act as pollinator. c. Lichens

b. Flower of Amorphophallus is about 6 feet in d. Sparrow eating any seed

height. e. Cuscuta on hedge plants
c. Flowers produce less pollen grains, when (1) Two (2) Three
pollinated by abiotic agent. (3) One (4) Five
d. All angiosperms shed their pollen grain from 147. Read the following statements and select the
anther at 3-celled stage. correct option.

How many of the above statements is/are Assertion (A) : Secondary succession is much
faster and hence, climax is reached more quickly.
incorrect?
Reason (R) : In secondary succession, seeds or
(1) Four (2) Two
other propagules are present and soil is already
(3) One (4) Three there.
142. Find the incorrect pair (1) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) LAB – Curd (2) (A) is false but (R) is true

(2) Monascus – Lipase (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
explanation of (A)
(3) Aspergillus – Citric acid
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
(4) Mycorrhiza – Biofertilizer correct explanation of (A)
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148. Match the following columns and select the (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
correct option. (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
Column-I Column-II 149. Which among the following taxa have maximum
global species diversity?
a. Ribozyme (i) Provides energy
for polymerisation (1) Angiosperms (2) Fishes

Synthesized by (3) Fungi (4) Insects

b. DNA ligase (ii)
RNA polymerase 150. Jhum cultivation results in

c. Deoxyribonucleoside (iii) Codes for a (1) Eutrophication

triphosphate polypeptide (2) Deforestation

d. Cistron (iv) Joins the DNA (3) Ozone depletion

fragments (4) Acid rain

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 155. Read the given statements and select the
151. All the given digestive enzymes help in digestion correct option.
of proteins, except Assertion (A): CAD is characterised by decrease
(1) Pepsin (2) Carboxypeptidase in blood supply to heart muscles.
(3) Chymotrypsin (4) Amylase Reason (R): Deposition of calcium, fat, cholesterol
152. Platelets are cell fragments produced from and fibrous tissues in coronary arteries, makes the
lumen of arteries narrower.
(1) Megakaryocytes in the spleen
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(2) Megakaryocytes in the bone marrow
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Thrombocytes in the bone marrow
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(4) Thrombocytes in the spleen correct explanation of (A)
153. Read the given features
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
a. Mosaic vision
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
b. Uricotelic
156. The ejection of stomach content through the
c. Collaterial glands mouth is a reflex action controlled by the vomit
d. Spermatheca centre present in
The presence of above given features is best (1) Pons
applicable to which organism?
(2) Cerebellum
(1) Male frog (2) Female cockroach
(3) Medulla
(3) Male cockroach (4) Earthworm
(4) Hypothalamus
154. The connective tissues which support and protect
157. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. lymph.
softer tissues and also serve weight bearing
function, contain all of the following, except (1) It is not an important carrier for nutrients,
hormones etc.
(1) Calcium salts
(2) Hard ground substance (2) WBCs are present but RBCs are absent.

(3) Collagen fibres (3) It is a fluid present in the lymphatic system.

(4) Solid and pliable intercellular material (4) It contain specialised lymphocytes.

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158. Consider the given diagram and choose the 162. The total number of ear ossicles in an adult man
incorrect statement. is equal to the total number of ‘X’ in an adult
man. Identify ‘X’ and select the correct option.
(1) Cranial bones (2) Girdle bones
(3) Facial bones (4) Limb bones
163. During muscle contraction, all of the following
events take place, except
(1) Reduction in the length of I-band
(2) Narrowing of H-zone
(3) Increase in overlapping zone
(4) Reduction in the length of A-band
(1) Contraction of diaphragm leads to increase in 164. Which among the following is distinguishable
volume of thoracic cavity in dorso-ventral feature in between the reptiles and aves?
axis. (1) Type of fertilisation
(2) Intrapulmonary pressure is less than the (2) Regulation of body temperature
atmospheric pressure during inspiration.
(3) Type of development
(3) Contraction of external inter-costal muscles
(4) Tendency to lay eggs
lift up the ribs.
165. A fish came to the shore along with large waves.
(4) There is a negative pressure in the lungs with
A zoologist observed that it is a Torpedo
respect to atmospheric pressure.
exhibiting all of the features, except
159. In which of the given organisms, uric acid is the
(1) Presence of minute placoid scales
main excretory product?
(2) Presence of electric organs
(1) Mammals
(3) Terminal mouth
(2) Marine fishes
(4) Gill slits without the gill cover
(3) Land snails
166. Match the column-I with column-II and select the
(4) Terrestrial amphibians
correct option.
160. Choose the incorrect statement.
Column-I Column-II
(1) All vertebrates have complex tubular organs
called kidneys for osmoregulation. a. Ichthyophis (i) Flightless bird
(2) All segmented animals possess the tubular
b. Struthio (ii) Oviparous mammal
excretory structures named nephridia.
(3) Flame cells are the excretory structure in c. Ornithorhynchus (iii) Limbless amphibian
flatworms.
d. Alligator (iv) Reptile with
(4) Green glands help in the removal of 4-chambered heart
nitrogenous waste and osmoregulation in
crustaceans. (v) Viviparous amphibian

161. Choose the pair of fishes that cannot live (1) a(v), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
together. (3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) Hilsa and sardines 167. Select the odd one among the following w.r.t.
(2) Catla and common carp oestrous cycle.
(3) Rohu and Catla (1) Sheep (2) Deer
(4) Mackerel and common carp (3) Monkey (4) Tiger
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168. Select the correct pair w.r.t. external genitalia of 175. B. thuringiensis forms _____ during a particular
a female. phase of their growth, which is activated in
(1) Cervix and clitoris alkaline medium in insects.

(2) Mons pubis and pubic symphysis Fill the blank correctly from the options given
below.
(3) Labia majora and labia minora
(1) Polysaccharide crystals
(4) Vagina and cervix
(2) Fat globules
169. Which of the given hormones is secreted by
adenohypophysis and acts on interstitial cells of (3) Protein crystals
testis to stimulate synthesis and secretion of (4) Cyst
androgens? 176. Read the given statements and select the
(1) LH (2) ACTH correct option.
(3) GnRH (4) ADH Statement-A : The construction of the first rDNA
170. Select the correct option w.r.t. gestation to emerged from the possibility of linking a gene
complete the analogy. encoding antibiotic resistance with a plasmid of
organism that causes typhoid in humans.
Foetus develops limbs and digits : by the end of
second month of gestation :: First movement of Statement-B : Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a
foetus : ______ pathogen of rice that transforms normal plant
cells into a tumor.
(1) End of 24 weeks (2) During 5th month
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) End of 4th week (4) During 12th week
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
171. Read the given statements carefully and select
the incorrect one w.r.t. the male and female (3) Only statement A is correct
condoms. (4) Only statement B is correct
(1) These are barriers made of thin rubber 177. The process in which separated bands of DNA
(2) Gives privacy to the user are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted
from the gel piece is known as
(3) These are reusable
(1) Spooling (2) Elution
(4) Condoms prevent ovum and sperm from
physical meeting (3) Centrifugation (4) Electrophoresis

172. All of the following statements are true w.r.t. oral 178. Which of the following checks the progression of
contraceptive pills, except a restriction enzyme digestion?
(1) They inhibit ovulation (1) Polymerase chain reaction
(2) All of them are non-steroidal preparation (2) Downstream processing
(3) Can affect the nature of cervical mucus (3) Culturing host cells at large scale
(4) Pills are very effective with lesser side effect (4) Agarose gel electrophoresis
173. Along with cell body of neuron, Nissl’s granules 179. Who disapproved embryological support for
are also found in which part of neuron? evolution given by Ernst Haeckel?
(1) Axon (2) Node of Ranvier (1) Karl Ernst von Baer
(3) Dendrites (4) Schwann cells (2) Thomas Malthus
174. Inhibiting hormones secreted from hypothalamus (3) Darwin
reach the anterior pituitary gland through (4) S.L. Miller
(1) Hypophyseal artery 180. Life appeared how many years after the
(2) Hypophyseal portal system formation of Earth?
(3) Lymph vessels (1) 500 million (2) 4 million
(4) Axonal path (3) 500 billion (4) 4 billion

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181. The most recent ancestor of mammals were (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(1) Pelycosaurs (2) Thecodonts correct explanation of (A)

(3) Dinosaurs (4) Therapsids (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
182. The secondary metabolite among the following,
which belongs to the same category as that of (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
morphine, is (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(1) Abrin (2) Anthocyanin 188. Select the correct match.
(3) Codeine (4) Diterpene
(1) pCO2 in – More than the pO2 in
183. Lipids are not strictly macromolecules because alveolar air alveolar air
(1) Molecular weight of lipids is less than 800 Da
(2) pO2 in systemic – Equal to the pCO2 in
(2) On grinding, lipids get broken and arranged
veins pulmonary veins
into vesicles
(3) These are present in acid soluble pool (3) pCO2 in – Less than the pO2 in
systemic pulmonary artery
(4) These constitute cellular organelles
arteries
184. Consider the given statements w.r.t. structure of
proteins and choose the correct one. (4) pO2 in – Less than the pO2 in
(1) The right end of a protein is represented by pulmonary pulmonary artery
first amino acid (N-terminal amino acid). veins

(2) The secondary structure of proteins include 189. All of the following belong the same class,
α-pleated sheet and α-helix. except
(3) Haemoglobin is a tertiary structure. (1) Pavo (2) Psittacula
(4) Tertiary structure is necessary for many (3) Macropus (4) Neophron
biological activities of proteins.
190. Malpighian tubules and nephridia are excretory
185. All of the following statements are correct w.r.t. structures of organisms ‘X’ and ‘Y’.
malaria, except
Select the correct option for ‘X’ and ‘Y’
(1) Sporozoites are stored in salivary glands of respectively.
mosquito.
(1) Aedes and Aplysia
(2) Gametocytes of Plasmodium develop in human
(2) Pheretima and Anopheles
RBCs.
(3) Haemozoin is released from ruptured RBCs. (3) Bombyx and Nereis

(4) Female mosquito takes up gametes with (4) Planaria and Locusta
blood meal. 191. Echinus is similar to the Pennatula with respect
SECTION-B to the presence of

186. The given drugs can be used to reduce the (1) Bilateral symmetry
symptoms of allergy, except (2) Direct development
(1) Anti-histamine (2) Steroids (3) Similar habitat
(3) Serotonin (4) Adrenaline (4) Presence of Coelomic cavity
187. Read the given statements and select the correct 192. All of the following contraceptives are related with
option. hormonal effects on the body, except
Assertion (A) : Hirudinaria and Pterophyllum (1) CuT
both have closed circulatory system.
(2) Lactational amenorrhea
Reason (R) : In closed circulatory system blood
pumped by heart is always circulated through a (3) Progestasert
network of blood vessels. (4) LNG-20

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193. Read the statements carefully and select the 198. Industrial melanism is an example of type of
incorrect one w.r.t. gonadotrophins. natural selection in which more individuals
(1) LH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of acquire
progesterone. (1) The mean character value
(2) LH induces ovulation in females. (2) Value other than the mean character value
(3) Only FSH regulates spermatogenesis. (3) Peripheral character values at both ends of
(4) FSH stimulates growth and development of the distribution curve
ovarian follicles. (4) Values that leads to formation of two peaks in
194. Some strains of B. thuringiensis kill insects like distribution curve
coleopterans. Select a coleopteran from the 199. Consider the given statements w.r.t. enzyme
following. action.
(1) Flies (2) Beetles
a. A competitive inhibitor closely resembles the
(3) Mosquitoes (4) Armyworms substrate in its molecular structure.
195. The ionic gradients across the resting membrane b. Substrate binds to the allosteric site of
are maintained by active transport of ions by Na+ inhibitor.
– K+ pump which transports
c. Enzyme-substrate complex is short-lived and
(1) 3Na+ into the cell for 2K+ outwards dissociates into its product.
(2) 2Na+ outwards for 3K+ into the cell Choose the option with all correct statements.
(3) 3K+ outwards for 2Na+ into the cell (1) a and c (2) b and c
(4) 3Na+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell
(3) a and b (4) a, b and c
196. Bacteriophages differ from plasmids in
200. Consider the given statements and choose the
(1) The ability to replicate within the host cell correct one.
(2) Being used as cloning vector (1) Immature lymphocytes differentiate into
(3) Having high copy number antigen-sensitive lymphocytes in spleen.
(4) Being independent of the control of (2) T-lymphocytes are produced in bone marrow
chromosomal DNA and bone marrow provides sites for
197. If a restriction enzyme cuts a circular DNA at interaction of T-lymphocytes with antigen.
three sites, then how many DNA fragments are (3) Thymus provides site for interaction of
formed? lymphocytes with the trapped antibodies.
(1) 3 (2) 1 (4) MALT constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid
(3) 2 (4) 4 tissue in human body.

  

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