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Intensive Care Medicine


MCQs
Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

Editor:
Steve Benington MBChB MRCP FRCA EDIC FFICM
Authors:
Shoneen Abbas MBChB MRCP FFICM
Ruth Herod MBChB FRCA FFICM
Daniel Horner BA MBBS MD MRCP(UK) FCEM FFICM
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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

tfm Publishing Limited, Castle Hill Barns, Harley, Shrewsbury, SY5 6LX, UK
Tel: +44 (0)1952 510061; Fax: +44 (0)1952 510192
E-mail: info@tfmpublishing.com
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Editing, design & typesetting: Nikki Bramhill BSc Hons Dip Law
First edition: © 2015
Front cover image: © 2015 Sudok1/Dreamstime.com LLC
Paperback ISBN: 978-1-910079-07-2
E-book editions: 2015
ePub ISBN: 978-1-910079-08-9
Mobi ISBN: 978-1-910079-09-6
Web pdf ISBN: 978-1-910079-10-2

The entire contents of Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice


Questions with Explanatory Answers is copyright tfm Publishing Ltd. Apart
from any fair dealing for the purposes of research or private study, or
criticism or review, as permitted under the Copyright, Designs and Patents
Act 1988, this publication may not be reproduced, stored in a retrieval
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any responsibility for errors, omissions or misrepresentations, howsoever
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Whilst every care is taken by the authors and the publisher to ensure that all
information and data in this book are as accurate as possible at the time of
going to press, it is recommended that readers seek independent
verification of advice on drug or other product usage, surgical techniques
and clinical processes prior to their use.

The authors and publisher gratefully acknowledge the permission granted


to reproduce the copyright material where applicable in this book. Every
effort has been made to trace copyright holders and to obtain their
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any errors or omissions and would be grateful if notified of any corrections
that should be incorporated in future reprints or editions of this book.
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Contents

Page

Preface iv

Acknowledgements vi

Abbreviations vii

Converting units of measurement xii

Topic index xiii

Paper 1: Questions 1

Paper 1: Answers 39

Paper 2: Questions 105

Paper 2: Answers 143

Paper 3: Questions 219

Paper 3: Answers 259

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Preface

This book contains three 90-question multiple choice papers designed to


test the candidate’s knowledge of intensive care medicine (ICM) and their
ability to apply it. Each paper begins with 60 multiple true false (MTF)
questions consisting of a stem and five statements, each requiring a true
or false answer. These are followed by 30 single best answer (SBA)
questions where a clinical vignette is presented with five possible
solutions. The candidate should select the one that best addresses the
problem, mirroring clinical practice where a case usually has several
possible approaches.

Topics have been chosen to cover the breadth of knowledge required


of the modern intensivist, including resuscitation, diagnosis, disease
management, organ support, applied anatomy, end-of-life care and applied
basic sciences. There is a strong focus on the evidence base
underpinning the specialty, making this book particularly useful for
physicians and others approaching professional examinations in ICM and
related acute medical and surgical specialties. There is no ‘pass mark’,
although a score of less than four out of five in an MTF question or an
incorrect response to an SBA question should help the candidate identify
areas where they would benefit from further reading. Each question is
accompanied by a detailed and fully referenced answer; the majority of
references are freely accessible online or through institutional
subscriptions.

The authors are all senior trainees or consultants practising intensive


care medicine in the UK with firsthand experience of passing professional
examinations. In addition, they have extensive training and experience in

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Preface

acute medicine, anaesthesia and emergency medicine, respectively, and


have drawn on their experience to devise questions that reflect these
specialties and their interface with intensive care medicine. The authors
hope that this book will be a useful resource not only for those
approaching examinations but for anyone wishing to keep up-to-date in
this fast-changing specialty.

Steve Benington MBChB MRCP FRCA EDIC FFICM


Shoneen Abbas MBChB MRCP FFICM
Ruth Herod MBChB FRCA FFICM
Daniel Horner BA MBBS MD MRCP(UK) FCEM FFICM

v
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Acknowledgements

The Editor would like to thank Dr Ola Abbas and Dr Fiona Wallace for their
invaluable help proofreading the manuscript. Also, thanks to Dr John
Macdonald, Dr Hakeem Yousuff, Dr Richard Ramsaran and Dr Andrew
Martin for their comments while testing the questions.

vi
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Abbreviations

The following are the most commonly used abbreviations throughout the book:

AAGBI Association of Anaesthetists of Great Britain and Ireland


ABG Arterial blood gas
ACS Abdominal compartment syndrome
ACTH Adrenocorticotropic hormone
AF Atrial fibrillation
AFE Amniotic fluid embolism
AFLP Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
AIS Abbreviated Injury Scale
AKI Acute kidney injury
ALF Acute liver failure
ALI Acute lung injury
ALS Advanced Life Support
AP Acute pancreatitis
APACHE Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation
APLS Advanced Paediatric Life Support
APRV Airway pressure release ventilation
aPTT Activated partial thromboplastin time
ARDS Acute respiratory distress syndrome
ARR Absolute risk reduction
ASIA American Spinal Injury Association
AT Anaerobic threshold
ATLS Advanced Trauma Life Support
ATN Acute tubular necrosis
BE Base excess
BMI Body mass index
BNP B-natriuretic peptide
BP Blood pressure
BTS British Thoracic Society
CAM-ICU Confusion Assessment Method for the Intensive Care Unit
cAMP Cyclic adenosine monophosphate vii
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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

CAP Community-acquired pneumonia


CDI Clostridium difficile infection
cGMP Cyclic guanosine monophosphate
CIN Contrast-induced nephropathy
CK Creatine kinase
CKD Chronic kidney disease
Cl- Chloride
CMAP Compound muscle action potential
CMV Cytomegalovirus
COPD Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
CPAP Continuous positive airway pressure
CPET Cardiopulmonary exercise testing
CPIS Clinical Pulmonary Infection Score
CPK Creatinine phosphokinase
CPP Cerebral perfusion pressure
CPR Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
CRP C-reactive protein
CRRT Continuous renal replacement therapy
CSF Cerebrospinal fluid
CT Computed tomography
CTPA Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram
CVC Central venous catheter
CVP Central venous pressure
CXR Chest X-ray
DBD Donation after brainstem death
DCD Donation after cardiac death
DDAVP Desmopressin
DI Diabetes insipidus
DIC Disseminated intravascular coagulation
DKA Diabetic ketoacidosis
DVT Deep vein thrombosis
ECG Electrocardiogram
ECMO Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation
EEG Electroencephalography
EMG Electromyography
ESR Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
ETCO2 End-tidal carbon dioxide
EVD External ventricular drain
FFP Fresh frozen plasma
FRC Functional residual capacity
viii HR Heart rate
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Abbreviations

GBS Guillain-Barré syndrome


GCS Glasgow Coma Scale
GFR Glomerular filtration rate
GMC General Medical Council
GTN Glyceryl trinitrate
HAS Human albumin solution
HCM Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
HFOV High-frequency oscillatory ventilation
HME Heat and moisture exchangers
HRS Hepatorenal syndrome
IABP Intra-aortic balloon pump
IAH Intra-abdominal hypertension
IAP Intra-abdominal pressure
ICP Intracranial pressure
ICU Intensive care unit
ICUAW Intensive care unit-acquired weakness
ILCOR International Liaison Committee on Resuscitation
INR International Normalised Ratio
ISS Injury Severity Score
K+ Potassium
KDIGO The Kidney Disease: Improving Global Outcomes
LDH Lactate dehydrogenase
LMA Laryngeal mask airway
LMWH Low-molecular-weight heparin
LP Lumbar puncture
LQTS Long QT syndrome
LVOT Left ventricular outflow tract
MAP Mean arterial pressure
MDR Multidrug resistance
MELD Modified End-stage Liver Disease
MEN Multiple endocrine neoplasia
MEOWS Modified Early Obstetric Warning Score
MET Metabolic equivalent
MG Myasthenia gravis
Mg2+ Magnesium
MH Malignant hyperthermia
MHRA Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency
MI Myocardial infarction
MODS Multiple Organ Dysfunction Score
MPAP Mean pulmonary artery pressure
MPM Mortality Prediction Model ix
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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

MRC Medical Research Council


MRI Magnetic resonance imaging
MRSA Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
NICE The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence
NIV Non-invasive ventilation
Na+ Sodium
NAC N-acetyl cysteine
NF Necrotizing fasciitis
NHSBT National Health Service Blood and Transplant
NICE National Institute for Health and Care Excellence
NMS Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
NNT Number needed to treat
NPV Negative predictive value
NSAID Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
PAC Pulmonary artery catheter
PAOP Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure
PCI Primary coronary intervention
PCR Polymerase chain reaction
PCV Pressure-controlled ventilation
PCWP Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
PE Pulmonary embolism
PEEP Positive end-expiratory pressure
PEFR Peak expiratory flow rate
P:F ratio
Ratio of partial pressure of arterial oxygen to fraction of
inspired oxygen
PLR Passive leg raising
PN Parenteral nutrition
POSSUM Physiological and Operative Severity Score for the
enUmeration of Mortality and Morbidity
PPI Proton pump inhibitor
Pplat Plateau pressure
PPV Positive predictive value
PRIS Propofol infusion syndrome
PT Prothrombin time
PTHrP Parathyroid hormone-related protein
QALY Quality-adjusted life-year
RASS Richmond Agitation Severity Scale
RCT Randomised controlled trial
rFVIIa Recombinant Factor VIIa
RIFLE Risk, Injury, Failure, Loss, End-stage renal disease
x ROC Receiver operator characteristic
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Abbreviations

ROSC Return of spontaneous circulation


ROSIER Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room
RR Respiratory rate
RSBI Rapid Shallow Breathing Index
RTS Revised Trauma Score
SAH Subarachnoid haemorrhage
SAPS Simplified Acute Physiology Score
ScvO2 Central venous oxygen saturation
SDD Selective digestive tract decontamination
SIADH Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
SID Strong ion difference
SLE Systemic lupus erythematosus
SNAP Sensory (or mixed) nerve action potential
SOFA Sequential Organ Failure Assessment
STEMI ST elevation myocardial infarction
SVC Superior vena cava
SVRI Systemic vascular resistance index
TBI Traumatic brain injury
TBSA Total body surface area
TEG Thromboelastography
TIA Transient ischaemic attack
TIPSS Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting
TISS Therapeutic Intervention Scoring System
TLS Tumour lysis syndrome
TRISS Trauma Injury Severity Score
TSS Toxic shock syndrome
TTP Thrombotic thrombocytopaenia purpura
VAD Ventricular assist device
VAP Ventilator-associated pneumonia
VATS Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery
VCV Volume-controlled ventilation
VF Ventricular fibrillation
VT Ventricular tachycardia
Vt Tidal volume
VTE Venous thromboembolism
vWF von Willebrand Factor
WCC White cell count
WFNS World Federation of Neurosurgeons
WPW Wolff-Parkinson-White
WSACS World Society of the Abdominal Compartment Syndrome
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Converting units of
measurement
Laboratory results presented in the questions are given in standard UK
units. The following conversion factors may be useful to readers from
other areas:

1μmol/L = 0.0113mg/dL (e.g. serum bilirubin, creatinine)

1kPa = 7.5mmHg (e.g. PaO2)

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Topic index

Anaesthesia 2.84, 3.61, 3.90

Applied anatomy 1.27, 2.6, 2.9, 3.3, 3.52

Burns & trauma 1.14, 1.23, 1.71, 1.83, 2.29, 2.49,


2.58, 2.85, 3.9, 3.17, 3.20, 3.55, 3.65,
3.74

Cardiovascular 1.15, 1.25, 1.31, 1.33, 1.41, 1.47,


1.75, 1.85, 1.90, 2.10, 2.28, 2.43,
2.46, 2.55, 2.60, 2.67, 2.73, 2.74,
2.76, 2.77, 2.83, 3.19, 3.21, 3.36,
3.40, 3.45, 3.50, 3.53, 3.64, 3.76,
3.81

Diagnostic tests 2.12, 3.30

Ethics & legal 1.57, 1.60, 2.36

Evidence and biostatistics 1.20, 2.3, 2.68, 3.11, 3.18

Gastroenterology & hepatology 1.7, 1.52, 1.65, 1.88, 2.24, 2.35, 2.75,
3.25, 3.49, 3.51, 3.86

Haematology & clotting 1.2, 1.5, 1.26, 1.44, 1.84, 3.10, 3.38,
3.39, 3.48

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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

Metabolic & nutritional 1.9, 1.24, 1.37, 1.40, 1.62, 1.64, 1.82,
2.7, 2.8, 2.21, 2.41, 2.44, 2.52, 2.59,
2.63, 2.80, 2.86, 2.87, 3.4, 3.5, 3.29,
3.31, 3.42, 3.58, 3.68, 3.69, 3.70

Microbiology & infection control 1.28, 1.36, 1.74, 2.34, 2.40, 2.45,
2.47, 2.48, 2.81, 3.2, 3.15, 3.16, 3.24,
3.34, 3.66, 3.83, 3.88

Miscellaneous 1.49, 1.56, 1.89, 2.42, 2.79, 3.41,


3.71, 3.82

Neurology & neurosurgery 1.1, 1.8, 1.10, 1.16, 1.17, 1.29, 1.42,
1.53, 1.55, 1.58, 1.61, 1.66, 1.73,
1.79, 1.80, 2.19, 2.22 2.27, 2.30,
2.38, 2.64, 2.89, 3.22, 3.35, 3.46,
3.72, 3.77

Obstetrics 2.70, 2.72, 3.67, 3.75

Organ donation 1.45, 2.39, 3.32, 3.62

Organ support & sedation 1.12, 1.72, 1.78, 1.81, 1.86, 2.1, 2.5,
2.16, 2.20, 2.62, 3.43, 3.47, 3.59,
3.85, 3.87, 3.89

Paediatrics 1.46, 3.14, 3.55

Pharmacology 1.3, 1.6, 2.15, 2.18, 2.54

Physics & clinical measurement 1.30, 1.43, 2.13, 2.14, 2.17, 2.21,
2.51, 2.57, 2.78, 3.27, 3.33, 3.54,
3.56

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Topic index

Renal 1.13, 1.21, 1.22, 2.25, 2.50, 2.82,


2.90

Respiratory & ventilation 1.4, 1.11, 1.18, 1.50, 1.51, 1.59, 1.69,
1.70, 1.76, 1.77, 1.87, 2.23, 2.26,
2.65, 2.88, 3.1, 3.7, 3.8, 3.13, 3.44,
3.60, 3.78

Resuscitation & sepsis 1.34, 1.35, 2.4, 2.11, 2.37, 2.61, 2.66,
2.71, 3.6, 3.23, 3.26, 3.63, 3.73, 3.80

Scoring systems 1.19, 1.38, 1.54, 1.68, 2.2, 2.33, 2.56,


3.12, 3.28

Surgery 2.53, 3.83, 3.84

Toxicology & poisoning 1.32, 1.39, 1.48, 1.63, 1.67, 2.31,


2.32, 2.69, 3.37, 3.57, 3.79, 3.89

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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

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Paper 1
Questions

Paper 1
Multiple True False (MTF) questions — select true or false for each of
the five stems.

Questions
1 Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS):

a. Affects more females than males.


b. Is a disease of the middle-aged.
c. When secondary to a respiratory illness, the majority of cases
present within a month.
d. The presence of cranial nerve signs effectively rules out the
diagnosis.
e. The most common associated pathogen is Clostridium perfringens.

2 In the trauma patient with massive haemorrhage, the


following statements are correct:

a. An initial target systolic blood pressure of 80-90mmHg is


recommended for the patient without brain injury.
b. Desmopressin at a dose of 0.3μg/kg is recommended in the
bleeding patient taking platelet-inhibiting drugs.
c. Recombinant factor VIIa (rFVIIa) can be considered as a rescue
measure provided the platelet count is greater than 30 x 109/L.
d. Pre-injury warfarin use doubles the odds of death for trauma
patients with blunt head injury.
e. Antifibrinolytic drugs recommended for use in the bleeding major
trauma patient include tranexamic acid, aprotinin and aminocaproic
acid.

1
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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

3 The following drugs undergo non-organ metabolism:

a. Esmolol.
b. Atracurium.
c. Inhaled nitric oxide.
d. Propofol.
e. Adrenaline.

4 Which of the following features of an asthma attack


are classified as ‘life-threatening’ in the 2011 BTS
asthma guideline?

a. Inability to complete sentences in one breath.


b. PaO2 of >8kPa.
c. Silent chest.
d. PaCO2 >6kPa.
e. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) <50% of predicted.

5 With regard to bleeding and coagulopathy in the


critically ill patient:

a. If a platelet transfusion is indicated, 1 unit will raise the count by


approximately 20 x 109/L.
b. The principal constituents of cryoprecipitate include Factors VIII,
XIII, vWF, fibronectin and fibrinogen.
c. A suggested dose of fresh frozen plasma in the bleeding trauma
patient with coagulopathy is 30ml/kg.
d. Desmopressin at a dose of 0.3μg/kg is a useful treatment in
patients with coagulopathy related to uraemia, cirrhosis and aspirin
use.
e. At temperatures of 33-35°C, altered enzyme kinetics equate to a
33% reduction in normal clotting factors.

2
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Paper 1

6 Regarding drug-receptor interactions:

a. An antagonist has receptor affinity and intrinsic activity.

Paper 1
b. Increasing the dose of a partial agonist can elicit a maximal effect.
c. β-receptor blockers are reversible antagonists.
d. Flumazenil is an inverse agonist.
e. Phenoxybenzamine is an irreversible antagonist at α-adrenoceptors.

7 Regarding the hepatorenal syndrome (HRS):

Questions
a. It is commonly over-diagnosed in patients with cirrhotic liver
disease.
b. HRS Type 1 has the poorest outcome.
c. Kidneys from patients with HRS are suitable for transplantation.
d. The condition is associated with splanchnic vasodilatation.
e. Terlipressin must be given by infusion.

8 With regard to a patient with a neuromuscular


disorder on the critical care unit:

a. Potassium-sparing diuretics should be avoided in patients with


hypokalaemic periodic paralysis.
b. Suxamethonium use should be avoided in patients with myasthenia
gravis.
c. Patients with motor neurone disease typically require double the
standard dose of suxamethonium to provide optimum intubating
conditions.
d. Local anaesthesia can exacerbate symptoms of multiple sclerosis.
e. In Guillain-Barré syndrome, non-depolarising neuromuscular
blocking drugs may be used, but should be significantly dose-
reduced.

3
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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

9 Regarding parenteral nutrition in the critically ill


patient:

a. A patient with enteral feeds running at 40ml/hr with 4-hourly


aspirates of >200ml is deemed to be failing enteral nutrition.
b. Daily caloric intake should be 100-130% of the patient’s calculated
daily energy expenditure.
c. Parenteral nutrition can be administered peripherally.
d. Approximately 1g/kg/day of nitrogen is required.
e. Copper, zinc and selenium (trace elements) are present in
commercially produced parenteral nutrition solutions.

10 A 67-year-old male has a diagnosis of myasthenia


gravis (MG). Which of the following medications
should be avoided to reduce the risk of exacerbation?

a. Gentamicin.
b. Paracetamol.
c. Trimethoprim.
d. Ciprofloxacin.
e. Aspirin.

11 The following statements are true regarding the


management of acute severe asthma:

a. PEFR <33% is a criterion diagnosis.


b. Aminophylline should be given as a first-line intravenous
bronchodilator.
c. The use of IV magnesium sulphate to reduce mortality is supported
by level I evidence.
d. Ketamine 5mg/kg is the preferred induction agent if rapid sequence
intubation is required.
e. A restrictive fluid regime should be used in patients at risk of
intubation.
4
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Paper 1

12 Regarding the role of selective digestive tract


decontamination (SDD) on the ICU:

Paper 1
a. Eight potentially pathogenic micro-organisms are responsible for
the majority of infections in critical care.
b. SDD is ‘selective’ because it is anaerobe-sparing.
c. Primary endogenous pathogens are targeted by intravenous
antibiotics for the first 4 days.
d. After 10 days potentially pathogenic micro-organisms have been

Questions
eradicated and all antibiotics are stopped.
e. There is level I evidence that SDD increases the prevalence of
antibiotic resistance.

13 A 59-year-old male is admitted with a gradual onset of


peripheral oedema and frothy urine. He is
subsequently diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome.
The condition is associated with:

a. Hypercalcaemia.
b. Venous thrombosis.
c. Hyperlipidaemia.
d. Risk of myocardial infarction.
e. Hypervolaemia.

14 The following have been demonstrated to be useful


prognostic variables in moderate to severe traumatic
brain injury:

a. Age.
b. Pupillary reaction.
c. Sensory neurological deficit.
d. The presence of non-evacuated haematoma on CT brain scan.
e. Serum glucose.

5
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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

15 Regarding the use of ventricular assist devices (VADs)


for the management of acute and chronic heart
failure:

a. Ventricular assist devices can be used for a maximum of 3-4 weeks.


b. A short-term left ventricular assist device takes blood from the right
atrium and injects it into the main pulmonary artery.
c. Most modern ventricular assist devices produce a pulsatile flow.
d. The insertion of an LVAD worsens aortic regurgitation.
e. All patients with VADs must be anticoagulated.

16 Regarding diagnostic lumbar puncture (LP):

a. Meningitis is a relatively rare complication of LP.


b. Suspected bacteraemia is a contraindication to LP.
c. Aspirin should be stopped for at least 24 hours prior to LP.
d. LP is contraindicated in patients with a suspected spinal epidural
abscess.
e. It is recommended that LP is not performed in patients with platelet
counts of <100 x 109.

17 With regard to intracranial pressure (ICP) monitoring:

a. Ocular nerve sheath diameter >6mm measured with ultrasound


reliably predicts raised intracranial pressure of >20mmHg.
b. ICP monitoring through an external ventricular drain allows
therapeutic intervention.
c. On a standard intracranial pressure waveform, P3 represents
cerebral compliance.
d. Cerebral hypoxia results in hypoxic vasoconstriction and reduced
cerebral blood flow, thus causing a temporary reduction in ICP.
e. Lundberg Type A waves are always pathological.

6
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Paper 1

18 Regarding the mechanics of positive pressure


ventilation:

Paper 1
a. Setting an extrinsic positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) less
than intrinsic PEEP will reduce elastic work of the respiratory
system.
b. One risk of applying PEEP is a reduction in oxygen delivery (DO2).
c. A decelerating flow pattern is seen in volume-controlled ventilation.
d. The difference between peak and plateau pressures is greater

Questions
with volume-controlled ventilation than pressure-controlled
ventilation.
e. Dynamic compliance equals the tidal volume divided by (peak
pressure minus total positive end-expiratory pressure).

19 The following are examples of severity scoring systems


in the intensive care unit:

a. Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation III (APACHE III).


b. CT Calcium Score.
c. Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA).
d. Mortality Prediction Model (MPM).
e. Glasgow-Blatchford Score.

20 The following are examples of superiority randomised


controlled trials (RCTs) relevant to critical care, whose
results support the proposed null hypothesis:

a. ProCESS.
b. PROSEVA.
c. TTM.
d. VASST.
e. OSCAR.

7
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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

21 Regarding plasma exchange:

a. It is a highly effective treatment for thrombotic thrombocytopaenic


purpura.
b. The most commonly used replacement fluid is 4.5% albumin in
physiological saline.
c. Therapeutic plasma exchange requires central venous access.
d. Paraesthesia is a common complication.
e. Thrombosis is a common complication.

22 In patients with, or at risk of, acute kidney injury (AKI),


international consensus guidelines suggest the
following:

a. In critically ill patients, insulin therapy should target a plasma


glucose of about 6-8mmol/L.
b. Administration of colloid boluses to expand intravascular volume.
c. Parenteral nutrition should be used in preference to the enteral
route in patients with AKI.
d. N-acetyl cysteine (NAC) should not be used for the prevention of
post-surgical AKI.
e. Low-dose dopamine has a role in the treatment of established AKI.

23 With regard to the Medical Research Council-funded


CRASH trials:

a. The CRASH 1 trial examined the role of steroids in traumatic brain


injury (TBI).
b. The CRASH 2 trial assessed the role of tranexamic acid in
traumatic brain injury (TBI) within a pilot sample.
c. The CRASH 3 trial is designed to assess the effectiveness of
tranexamic acid in TBI within a multicentre cohort.

8
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Paper 1

d. The number needed to treat (NNT) in Crash 2 to save one life was
>50.
e. There is now level I evidence to support the role of steroids in

Paper 1
TBI.

24 Regarding diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA):

a. DKA can be diagnosed if a known diabetic patient presents with


hyperglycaemia (plasma glucose >10mmol/L) and a serum

Questions
bicarbonate of <15mmol/L.
b. A high serum ketone level indicates more severe disease.
c. DKA should be treated with a fixed rate insulin infusion.
d. When managing a patient with DKA, their usual insulin regime
should be stopped but oral antidiabetic medication should be
continued.
e. DKA is deemed to have resolved when urinary ketones are no
longer detectable.

25 The following apply to levosimendan:

a. It impairs diastolic relaxation.


b. It is a sodium channel sensitiser.
c. It increases myocardial oxygen consumption.
d. It can be used with β-blockers.
e. No loading dose is required due to the very short half-life.

26 With regard to thrombotic thrombocytopaenia


purpura (TTP):

a. Platelet transfusion is recommended to maintain a platelet count of


>10 x 109/L.

9
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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

b. The principal abnormality occurs due to the production of an


abnormal vWF cleaving protein.
c. The diagnostic pentad includes microangiopathic haemolytic
anaemia.
d. The diagnostic pentad includes proven or suspected arterial or
venous thrombosis.
e. Administration of solvent/detergent-treated fresh frozen plasma is a
useful treatment option.

27 Anatomical landmarks and anatomy in relation to


therapeutic practical procedures are as follows:

a. Needle decompression of a tension pneumothorax is best


performed by inserting a needle immediately below the second rib
in the mid-axillary line.
b. A chest drain should be inserted in the 5th intercostal space, just
anterior to the mid-axillary line.
c. Abdominal paracentesis can safely be performed 1cm below the
umbilicus.
d. A central venous catheter inserted into the femoral vein will lie
medial to the femoral nerve and lateral to the femoral artery.
e. Needle insertion for landmark-guided pericardiocentesis is
immediately below and to the right of the xiphisternum, between the
xiphisternum and the right costal margin.

28 A 67-year-old male has been mechanically ventilated


for 2 weeks on the ICU. He has had multiple courses of
antibiotics for chest sepsis. He develops profuse
diarrhoea over 2 days. A diagnosis of Clostridium
difficile infection is considered. Regarding this
organism:

a. Around 20% of all cases of antibiotic-associated diarrhoea are due


to Clostridium difficile.

10
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Paper 1

b. β-lactam antibiotics are least commonly associated with Clostridium


difficile infection.
c. The onset of diarrhoea may not occur until several weeks after the

Paper 1
termination of antibiotic therapy.
d. Stool culture has a high specificity but low sensitivity for diagnosis.
e. Asymptomatic carriage of C. difficile among hospitalised patients is
low.

29 Regarding the acute management of a subarachnoid

Questions
haemorrhage:

a. The peak incidence of vasospasm occurs at day 4.


b. Use of intravenous magnesium to reduce the incidence of
vasospasm is supported by the MASH (Magnesium for Aneurysmal
Subarachnoid Haemorrhage) trials.
c. Hypervolaemia, hypertension and haemodilution therapy reduces
the incidence of vasospasm.
d. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) targets should be set to >90mmHg
following protection of the aneurysm.
e. Clipping and coiling are equally effective treatment options in terms
of neurological outcome.

30 Regarding the pre-operative assessment of exercise


capacity:

a. 1 metabolic equivalent (MET) is roughly equivalent to climbing one


flight of stairs.
b. The anaerobic threshold (AT) is the point at which oxygen supply
exceeds demand.
c. Patients with an AT of >15ml/min O2 have a high relative risk of
cardiopulmonary morbidity following major non-cardiac surgery.
d. Cardiopulmonary exercise testing is relatively contraindicated in the
presence of severe aortic stenosis.
e. Oxygen consumption = cardiac output x (arterial-mixed venous
oxygen content).
11
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Intensive Care Medicine MCQs — Multiple Choice Questions with Explanatory Answers

31 A patient on the cardiothoracic intensive care unit has


an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) in situ. Which of
the following apply with regard to the IABP?

a. An IABP is contraindicated in aortic stenosis.


b. The IABP can be inserted via the femoral route.
c. The balloon inflates during systole.
d. Heliox is used to inflate the balloon.
e. An IABP improves cerebral and coronary perfusion.

32 In a patient with acute severe tricyclic antidepressant


poisoning:

a. A dominant R-wave >3mm is often seen in lead aVR.


b. QRS prolongation is a useful prognostic feature and should be
routinely measured.
c. First-line treatment for acute dysrhythmia should include a 2-4g
bolus of magnesium sulphate.
d. Intralipid® can be used as a rescue measure.
e. The pH should be normalised by intubation and hyperventilation.

33 Regarding the physiology of the donor heart following


cardiac transplantation:

a. β-adrenergic blockers will have no effect on the heart rate.


b. The Valsalva manoeurvre will have no effect on heart rate.
c. Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) will cause coronary vasodilatation.
d. The post-cardiac transplant patient can suffer anginal pain.
e. The heart rate will not increase during exercise unless a
pacemaker is fitted.

12
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