מבחן אמריקאי הרדמות

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Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

orală „Arsenie Guțan”
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81. MC. Choose the right statements about maxillary sinus:
3 YEAR STOMATOLOGY
It is the only sinus that
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ENGAGED @DR_BENIK 💎
A. is present at birth
B. It is localized in the upper meatus
C. It develops till 25 years old
D. The shape of the sinus is according to the shape of the face
E. In adults its shape is triangular pyramid
82. MC. Clinical examination consists of:
A. Inspection
B. X-ray
C. Palpation
D. Anamnesis
E. Blood test
83. MC. Anamnesis consists of:

A. History of the disease
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B. Complains
C. Anamnesis (????)
D. Auscultation
E. Antibiotic resistance test
84. MC. Which teeth have 2 roots?
A. Central incisors
B. Upper molars
C. Canines
D. First upper premolar
E. Inferior molars
85. MC. Choose the right statements about maxillary sinus:
A. It is the largest sinus

B. It is a pneumatic cavity
C. It is located in the body of the maxilla
D. It is located in the processes of the maxilla
E. None of variants from above
86. MC. Where is mental foramen located?
A. On the same vertical line with infraorbital foramen

B. Between lateral incisor and canine
C. Between premolars
D. Between second premolar and first molar
E. In elders it is located closer to the alveolar process edge
87. MC. Choose the bones that form the orbit:

A. Palatal
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B. Maxilla
C. Mandible
D. Zygomatic
E. Frontal
88. MC. Mandible is formed by:
A. Ramus
B. Coronoid process
C. Glenoid fossa
D. Body of the mandible
E. Zygomatic process
89. MC. Which teeth might be in contact with maxillary sinus?
A. Second upper molar

B. Third upper molar
C. Second upper premolar
D. Upper canine
E. First upper molar
90. MC. Choose the functions of the maxillary sinus:
A. Humidifying the air

B. Temperature adjustment
C. Reduce the weight of the facial skeleton
D. Resonance
E. Air filtration
91. MC. Choose the muscles that elevates the mandible:

A. Temporalis
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B. Masseter
C. Genioglossus
D. Medial pterygoid
E. Digastric
92. MC. Choose the muscles that depress the mandible:

A. Masseter
B. Mylohyoid
C. Digastric
D. Geniohyoid
E. Temporalis
93. MC. Choose the mimic muscles:
A. Orbicularis oris
B. Risorius
C. Levator anguli oris
D. Masseter
E. Temporalis
94. MC. Mimic muscles are classified in:
A. Buccal group
B. Orbital group
C. Mandibular group
D. Lingual group
E. Genian group
95. MC. What are the branches of the trigeminal nerve:

A. Mandibular
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B. Ophthalmic
C. Facial
D. Alveolar
E. Maxillary
96. MC. Biopsy is used to identify:
A. Benign tumors
B. Malign tumors
C. Inflammatory processes
D. Pathologic processes of an unclear etiology
E. Any pathology in OMF area
97. MC. Biopsy is done by:
1. Injection
2. Illumination
3. Incision
4. Aspiration
5. Excision
98. MC. Advantages of OPG x-ray test:

A. All teeth are visible
B. All mandible is visible
C. Mental foramen is visible
D. Mandibular canal is visible
E. Frontal sinus is visible
99. MC. How many roots the upper premolars have?

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A. 3 B.
2
C. 1
D. 4-5
E. all variants are correct
100. MC. Choose the types of surgical dental treatment:
A. Prophylactic treatment
B. Planed treatment
C. Secondary treatment
D. Loco-region treatment
E. Emergency treatment
101. MC. What are the processes of the mandible?
A. Zygomatic
B. Frontal
C. Coronoid
D. Articular
E. All variants ae correct
102. MC. Select the canal that passes through the mandible:
A. Incisive
B. Nasopalatine
C. Anterior palatine
D. Mandibular
E. All variants are correct
103. MC. OMF surgery is closely cooperating with following departments:
A. ENT (ear, nose and throat)

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B. Anesthesiology
C. Cardiology
D. Neurology
E. Traumatology
104. MC. What are the requirements for the walls in OMF surgery department?
A. Washable
B. Light colored
C. Painted
D. Dark colored
E. All variants are correct
105. MC. Choose the mandatory equipment for the oral surgery room:
A. Dental chair
B. TV
C. Ventilation
D. Surgical suction
E. Addition light source
106. MC. Surgeons hands should match following requirements:
A. Clean
B. No jewelers
C. Short nails
D. Long fingers
E. Small size
107. MC. What are the levels of the face:
A. Superior
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B. Lateral left
C. Lateral right
D. Inferior
E. Posterior
108. MC. Choose the bones of the facial skeleton:
A. Maxilla
B. Zygomatic
C. Occipital
D. Temporal
E. Frontal
109. MC. What are the fasciae of OMF region:
A. Superficial fascia of the face

B. Fascia propria of the face (facial fascia)
C. Parotid-masseteric fascia
D. Buccopharyngeal fascia
E. Inter-pterygoid fascia
110. MC. Choose the muscles of the neck:
A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Omo-hyoid
C. Masseter
D. Sternothyroid
E. Thyrohyoid
111. MC. What are functions of mimic muscles:
A. Breathing
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B. Speaking
C. Protects the orifices of the face
D. Changes the expression of the face
E. Swallowing
112. MC. Choose the nerves that innervates the maxilla:
A. Infraorbital
B. Auriculotemporal
C. Buccal
D. Nasopalatine
E. Mental
113. MC. What are the sensitive branches of the trigeminal nerve?
A. Ophthalmic
B. Maxillary
C. Mandibular
D. Facial
E. Lingual
114. MC. Through which foramen the branches of trigeminal nerve leave the skull:
A. Occipital
B. Ovale
C. Ophthalmic
D. Rotundum
E. Spinosum
115. MC. Choose the processes of the maxilla:
A. Alveolar
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B. Zygomatic
C. Mandibular
D. Frontal
E. Palatine
116. MC. Clinical examination is made by:
A. Palpation
B. Endo-oral examination
C. Extra-oral examination
D. Inspection
E. CT
117. MC. What arteries provide vascularization to OMF region?
A. Facial
B. Maxillary
C. External carotid
D. Middle meningeal
E. Sphenopalatine
118. MC. What are the steps of clinical examination?
A. Subjective examination
B. Endo-oral examination
C. Exo-oral examination
D. Objective examination
E. X-ray examination
119. MC. Methods of subjective examination:
A. Questionnaire
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B. Discussion
C. Palpation
D. Mixed
E. Biopsy
120. MC. Paraclinical examination are:
A. Blood test
B. X-ray
C. Transillumination
D. Allergic anamnesis
E. Exo-oral examination
121. MC. Lab tests required for an OMF pathology diagnosis:
A. Hemogram (complete blood count (CBC))

B. Glycemia
C. Time of bleeding
D. Time of coagulation
E. Hematocrit
122. MC. By sterilization we can destroy:
A. Viruses
B. Microorganism
C. Spores
D. Toxins
E. All answers are correct
123. MC. The most efficient methods of sterilization are:
A. Dry and moist heat

B. Irradiation
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C. Gas
D. Boiling
E. Open flame
124. MC. Requirements that antiseptic solutions must match:
A. To be able to kill bacteria

B. To be transparent
C. To be harmless for live tissue
D. To nave no odor
E. All variants above
125. MC. What are stages of pre-sterilization:
A. Drying
B. Wrapping
C. Expose to open flame
D. Rinsing
E. Mechanical cleaning
126. MC. Want is required for pre-sterilization:
A. Gloves
B. Contaminated instruments
C. Autoclave
D. Hot/cold water
E. UV lamp
127. MC. Methods of dry heat sterilization:
A. Explosion to open flame

B. Overheating
C. Hot air
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D. Autoclave
E. Boiling
128. MC. Methods of moist heat sterilization:
A. Boiling
B. Pasteurization
C. Vapors under pressure
D. Water with soap
E. Water with antiseptic solutions
129. MC. By exposing to open flame we can sterilize:

A. Test tubes
B. Glass containers
C. Scalpel blades
D. Needles
E. All mentioned above
130. MC. Oral surgery room is disinfected:
A. Twice a day
B. Once a week a complete cleaning day
C. 2-3 times a day with disinfectant solutions
D. With complex disinfectant solutions
E. Ventilation at every hour
131. MC. Choose chemicals used for sterilization control:
A. Para-quinone (1,4-Benzoquinone)
B. Mercury (Hg)
C. Sulfur (S)
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D. Benzoic acid
E. Lead (Pb)
132. MC. X-ray with contrast substance is used for diagnosis of:
A. Salivary glands
B. Fractures
C. TMJ
D. Caries
E. Neuralgia
133. MC. Endo-oral x-ray investigations are:
A. Occlusal x-ray
B. OPG
C. CT
D. Bitewing
E. Teleradiography
134. MC. Choose the correct statements for CT:
A. High precision
B. No contraindication
C. Requires hi-tech equipment
D. Requires simple, common equipment
E. Low dose of irradiation
135. MC. Choose the correct values for thrombocytes (platelet) in blood test:
A. 200x109
B. 100-500
C. 250x109
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D. 50-90
E. 4-9x109
136. MC. Name the stages of prevention in OMF surgery:
A. Primary
B. National
C. Local
D. Third
E. Planed
137. MC. Choose the correct statements for Antisepsis:
A. Its goal is to kill microorganism inside the wound

B. Its goal is to kill microorganism on the instruments
C. It’s a treatment method
D. It’s a method of prevention
E. Is done with disinfectant substances
138. MC. Choose the correct statements for periapical x-ray:
A. Easy to perform
B. Minimal irradiation
C. Limited area of examination
D. Easy to read the results
E. None of the variants mentioned above
139. MC. Mechanism of action of antiseptic solutions:
A. Mechanical destruction
B. Protein denaturation
C. Cellular enzymes block
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D. Tensioactive action
E. All variants mentioned above
140. MC. Select extra-oral x-ray methods:
A. CT
B. Periapical
C. Teleradiography
D. Occlusal
E. Bitewing
141. MC. Allergy examination is done by:
A. Blood test
B. Intravenous test
C. Intradermal test
D. Oral administration (per os)
E. Intramuscular test
142. MC. Choose groups of antiseptic solutions:
A. Halogens
B. Detergents
C. Chlorine based substances
D. Alcohols
E. Oxidants
143. MC. Choose substances that eliminates oxygen:
A. Hydrogen peroxide
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Boric acid
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D. Potassium permanganate
E. Iodine
144. MC. Physical method of antisepsis is:
A. Exudate evacuation
B. Washing with chlorhexidine
C. Washing with detergents
D. Lowering the level of toxins inside the wound
145. MC. Halogens are represented by:
A. Potassium permanganate
B. Iodine
C. Betadine
D. Sodium hypochlorite
E. Lugol solution
146. MC. Biological method of antisepsis is:
A. Vaccines
B. Bacteriophages
C. Immunoglobulins
D. Anatoxins
E. Antibiotics
147. MC. Complex (combined) method of antisepsis simultaneously uses:
A. Mechanical method
B. Physical method
C. Chemical method
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D. Biological method
E. Sterilization
148. MC. Disadvantages of antibiotic administration:
A. Dysbiosis (dysbacteriosis)
B. A broad-spectrum of activity
C. Creates resistant forms of bacteria
D. Multiple side effects
149. MC. Methods of antiseptic solution administration:
A. On the skin
B. Inside the wound
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
E. Oral administration (per os)
150. MC. Methods of antisepsis:
A. Mechanical
B. Physical
C. Biological
D. Dry heat
E. Moist heat
151. MC. The role of mechanical antisepsis is:
A. To remove bacteria from the wound

B. To remove foreign bodies from the wound
C. Treatment with alcohol
D. Excision of necrotic tissues
E. Hand washing
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152. MC. Choose examples of physic antisepsis:
A. Wound drainage
B. UV light usage
C. Laser usage
D. Hygroscopic gauzes
E. Antiseptic solution usage
153. MC. What is used for wound drainage:
A. Isotonic solutions
B. Cotton gauzes
C. Rubber sheets
D. Plastic tubes
E. Laser
154. MC. Disinfectant substances are:
A. Chloramine
B. Chlorhexidine
C. Aldehydes
D. Alcohols
E. All listed above
155. MC. Methods of sterilization control:
A. Chemical
B. Visual
C. Biological
D. Manual
E. All listed above
156. MC. Possible complications in patients with liver diseases:

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A. Toxic complications
B. Hyperglycemic coma
C. Allergic complications
D. Bleeding
E. Neurologic complications
157. MC. Patients preparations for surgery consist of:
A. Physical preparation
B. Hand washing
C. Biological preparation
D. Premedication
E. Psychological preparation
158. MC. Physical preparation of the patient is:
A. Reflex checking
B. Jewelry being removed
C. Blood pressure check
D. Pre-surgical skin surface preparation
E. Muscle tonus check
159. MC. Pre-surgical patient preparation is performed to:
A. Infection prevention
B. Glycemia checking
C. Avoiding possible complications
D. Checking general health status
E. Surgeon preparation for the surgery
160. MC Select the possible accidents in patients with allergic field:

A. Hives;
B. Diplopia.
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C. Quincke Edema;
D. Anaphylactic shock;
E. Diarrhea;
161 MC. Name the boundaries of the OMF territory:
A. Superior orbital rebounds

B. Hair growth line
C. Hioid bone
D. Thyroid Cartilage
E. Mental protuberance
162 MC. Select the regions of the OMF territory:
A. Nasal
B. Mental
C. Labial
D. Infraorbital
E. Buccal
163. MC. . What are the general principles of surgical techniques?

a. The needles are manipulated with the forceps;
b. The incisions must be big.
c. The instruments must be checked
d. To keep records of the used compresses;
e. Only disposable instruments are used;
164. MC. Medical Documentation in OMF Surgery

a. Outpatient Card (F143);
b. Patient Survey.
c. Stationary observation sheet
d. Job post;
e. Sterilization schedule;
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165. MC. Select the neck fascia:

a. Superficial neck fascia
b. Neck fascia
c. Submandibular fascia;
d. Parotid Fascia.
e. Endocervical Fascia
166. MC. Select the Osteo-fascial spaces and lodges

a. Maseteric-mandibular space;
b. Parietal space.
c. Pterygo-mandibular space;
d. Pterygopalatin fosse;
e. Sinus area;
167. MC What are the bones forming the facial skeleton

a. maxilla;
b. Vomer.
c. Zigomatic bone;
d. Temporal bone;
e. Mandibula;
168. MC. Which of the following are mimic muscles?

a. Milohioid muscle;
b. Orbicularis oris;
c. Masseter.
d. Small zygomatic muscle;
e. Temporal Muscle;
169. MC. Select the functions of the lateral pterygoid muscle:

a. Mandibular prolapse at bilateral contraction;
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b..Mandible lifting at bilateral contraction.

c.. Lowering of the mandible at bilateral contraction;
d. Deviation from the medial line of the mandible in unilateral contraction;
e.Does not affect the mandible bone;
170. MC. Articular disc:

a. It has a flat lens shape.
b. Facilitates movements in the joint;
c. Divide the intra-articular space into two floors;
d. It has the shape of a biconcave lens;
e. Not present in children;
171. MC. Terminals of the jaw nerve:

a. N. nasal exterior;
b. N. zygomatic.
c. N. inferior palpebral;
d. N. Alveolar superior posterior;
e. N. Lower alveolar;
172. MC. Select the functions of the articular meniscus:

a. Mechanical role;
b. To drive the sound to the middle ear.
c. Proprioceptive role;
d. Morphogenic role;
e. Eases the facial skeleton;
173. MC.What Passport data are required to establish the patient's identity
a. Date of birth
b. Living conditions
c. Address;
d. Insurance policy number;
e. Working conditions;
174. MC. The Advantages of Subjective Examination?

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a. May be done when the patient is unconscious;

b. No special equipment required;
c. The data is accurate.
d. It takes little time;
e. Establishes the doctor-patient relationship;
175. MC. The main symptoms of patients with OMF diseases are:
a. Pain;
b. Discomforts at mastication
c. Inflammation;
d. Bleeding;
e. Loss of hearing;
176. MC. What does the history of the disease include?

a. The first appearance of the symptoms;
b. Blood count.
c. Characteristics of accusations;
d. Hematocrit test;
e. Palpation;
177. MC. What does the endobucal examination consist of?

a. Vestibular mucosa;
b. The hard palate;
c. Lymphatic nodules.
d. temporomandibular joint;
e. Teeth;
178. MC. Does the hemogram include the following indices?

a. leukocytes;
b. Hemoglobin;
c. Cholesterol.
d. Platelet;
e. Erythrocytes;
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179. MC. Bleeding and coagulation time is appreciated by performing the following tests:
a. Lee-White;
b. Valsalva.
c. Duke;
d. Caldwel Luke;
e. All of them.
180. MC. Name the fractions of the cholesterol:

a. LDL;
b. Ionized.
c. HDL;
d. Glycosylated;
e. All of them;
181. MC. The allergic test is done to detect allergies at:

a. Dressing material.
b. Titan;
c. Local anesthetics;
d. Physiological solution;
e. Antibiotics;
182. MC. Is ultrasound used to diagnose the diseases of:

a. Salivary glands;
b. Dental.
c. Maxillary sinus;
d. Lymphatic nodules;
e. Frontal sinus;
183. MC. Bitewing radiography highlights:

a. Articular meniscus;
b. Maxillary sinus;
c. A group of 4-8 teeth;
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d. Tooth Apex.
e. Contact points between teeth;
184. MC. Select the types of radiography using contrast?

a. Angiography;
b. Scintigraphy.
c. Fistulography;
d. Sialography;
e. Arthrography;
185. MC. The preparation of the surgeon for intervention consists of:
a. Intellectual Training;
b. Physical training;
c. Instrument training.
d. Mental Training;
e. Field operator training;
186. MC. Disinfecting the surgeon's hands is done using:

a. 3% hydrogen peroxide;
b. Flowing water;
c. Alcohol 70%
d. Alcohol 96%.
e. Sodium hypochlorite;
187. MC. What properties should be in the perfect antiseptic:

a. Fast action;
b. Sustained action
c. To destroy as many pathogens as possible;
d. Not Toxic;
e. All of them;
188. MC. Select the alcohols used as antiseptics:

a. Mezopropyl;
b. Ethyl
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c. Methyl
d. Isopropyl
e. Parapropyl
189. MC. Detergents are represented by:

a. Bromocet;
b. Hydrogen peroxide.
c. Deconex;
d. Hexanes;
e. Sufranes;
190. MC. What does the physical preparation of the pacient involve?
a. Evacuation of the intestine;
b. Cutting nails
c. Physical rest assurance
d. Hygiene of the oral cavity
e. Psychological rest assurance
191. MC.The local physical preparation of the patient involves

a. Disinfectant treatment;
b. Hairskin cut
c. Mobile dentures will be removed
d. Premedication
e. Removal of the odontogenic infection
192. MC. Select the alcohols used as antiseptic:

a. Mezopropyl;
b. Ethyl
c. Methyl
d. Isopropyl
e. Parapropyl
193. MC. Select the vital functions that require monitoring during surgery:
a. Blood pressure;
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b. Pulse
c. Breath
d. Body Temperature
e. Cholesterol level
194. MC. Name the advantages of premedication

a. Reduces salivary secretion
b. Reduces anxiety;
c. Reduces reflex activity
d. Prolongs the analgesic effect
e. Induces euphoria
195. MC. Select the components of surgeon's equipment:

a. Sterile gloves;
b. Sterile robe
c. Sterile instruments
d. Mask
e. Glasses
196. MC. The history of life involves collecting information about the following: a.
Current disease
b. Working conditions;
c. Living conditions
d. Previous surgical interventions
e. Date of birth
197. MC. The General Status Review provides information about:

a. Cardiovascular system;
b. Respiratory System
c. Gastrointestinal System
d. Central Nervous System
e. Endocrine system
198. MC. Which of the statements about Vitamin D3 are correct:

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a. It participates in the metabolism of Ca ions

b. It leads to low blood sugar
c. It is also called cholecalciferol
d. It is taken from food
e. All of them
199. MC. Nuclear magnetic resonance has the following advantages:

a. No special apparatus required;
b. High precision
c. Avoids ionizing radiation
d. It highlights the soft tissues
e. All of them
200. MC. Select the levels of prevention:

a. Primary;
b. World
c. National
d. Municipal
e. Secondary
201. C.S. Which cranial nerves pair is trigeminal nerve?

a. IV
b. V
c. VI
d. VII
e. VIII
202. C.M. Main branches of trigeminal nerve are :

a. maxilar
b. alveolar
c. mandibular
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d. ophthalmic
e. mental
203. C.M. The superior dental plexus innervates :
a) upper teeth and dento -alveolar conjunctiones
b) vestibular mucosa
c) alveolar bone
d) nasal fossa
e) maxillary sinus
204. C.M. The motor branches of the mandibular nerve includes:

a. m. masseter
b) m. pterygoid
c) mylohyoid muscles
d) m. tensor of the eardrum
e) m. lifter of the upper eyelid
205. C.S. The upper second molar is innervated by:

a. superior posterior alveolar
b. inferior alveolar
c. lingual
d. masseter
e. auriculotemporal
206. C.S. The mandibular nerve emerge from the cranium

a. foramen rotundum
b. occipital foramen
c. foramen ovale
d. foramen mandibularis
e. foramen spinosum
207. C.M. The buccal nerve releases sensitive branches for:

a. the skin of oral cavity region
b. the mucosa on the internal face of the buccinators m
c. buccinatory m.
d. the posterior part of the buccal mucosa
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e. m. tensor of palatine wave
208. C.S. Masseter nerve issues nerve branches for:

a. m. temporal
b. m. buccinatory
c. m. masseter
d. m. pterigoidian medial
e. m. pterigoidian lateral
209. C.S. Masseter muscle is innervated by: a)

temporal n.
b) masseterin n.
c) pterigoidian n.
d) all of the above
e) none
210. C.M. Inferior alveolar nerve contains fibers that innervate:

a. mandibular teeth
b. the skin and mucosa of the lower lip
c. the skin of the mental region
d. masséter muscles
e. buccinators muscle
211. C.M. What are the terminal branches of inferior alveolar nerve?
a. mylohyoid n.
b. inferior and posterior dental nerve
c. inferior and middle dental nerve
d. mental nerve
e. incisive nerve
212. C.S. The maxillary nerve leaves the cranium by:

a. Foramen spinosum
b. mandibullar foramen
c. foramen rotundum
d. foramen ovale
e. mental foramen
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213. C.S. In which region descend from Maxillary n. branches superior and posterior
alveolar nerve?
a. in the infraorbital ditch
b. in the middle cranial fossa
c. pterygopalatine fossa
d. at the level of orbit
e. jugular fossa
214. C.M. Which nerves are responsible for the innervation of the walls of the maxillary
sinus?
a. superior anterior alveolar n
b. superior posterior dental n
c. superior-middle alveolar n
d. zygomatic n
e. infraorbital n
215. C.M. The inferior alveolar nerve dissociates from the mandibular branch:
a. 2 cm above the foramen ovale
b. 2 cm below the foramen ovale
c. mandibular foramne
d. at the Stenon duct level
e. in the pterygoid space of the infratemporal region
216. C.M. What are the terminal branches of the mandibular nerve?
a. auriculo-temporal
b. temporo-bucal
c. temporo maseterin
d. inferior alveolar
e. lingual
217. C.M. Superior first and second molars receive nerve threads from:
a. greater palatine nerve
b. middle palatine nerve
b.
c.
d.
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e.
c. posterior palatine n.
d. superior and posterior alveolar n.
e. superior dental plexus
218. C.M. What are the areas of innervation for the superior and posterior alveolar nerve?
a. maxillary bone
b. first, second and third molars
C.distal periosteum of the zygomatic-alveolar crest
d.the posterior wall of the maxillary sinus
E.the gingival and vestibular mucosa near the molars
219. C.M. The maxillary nerve crosses through the following regions:
a. Zygomatic fossa
b. pterigopalatine fossa
c. sfenomaxilar fissure
d. the infraorbital groove
e. Pterygoidian fossa
220. C.M. From the mandibular nerve, emerge the following branches:
a. pterigoidian medial
b. auriculo-temporal
c. lingual
e. tympanic
221. C.M. Which of the following anesthesia are used at the lower jaw?
a. at the mental foramen
b. interincisival
c. Spina Spix
d. inferior plexus
e. palatin nerve
b.
c.
d.
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e.
222. C.S. With which of the following anatomical formations will report the lingual
nerve?
a. the parotid gland
b. the Warton duct
c. coronoid process
d. Pterigomandibular raphe
e. submandibular gland
223. C.M. The following anesthesia is practiced in the upper jaw:

a. at Spina Spix
b. to tuberosity
c. interincisival
d. to the mental foramen
e. all are correct
224. C.M. The superior alveolar nerve is divided according to the region:
a. alveolar superior-posterior
superior-medium alveolar
superior-anterior alveolar
alveolar infraorbital supraorbital
alveolar
225. C.S. The mandibular branches of the trigeminal is:

a. strictly sensory
b. strictly motor
c. mixed
d. sometimes sensory
e. motor random
226. C.S. Which trigeminal branch does not have general dental importance?
b.
c.
d.
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e.
a. ophthalmic
b. maxillary
c. mandibular
d. none
e. all
227. C.M. Superior dental plexus innervates:

a. Alveolar maxillary bone
b. the maxillary sinus
c. teeth in the upper jaw
d. nasal fossa
e. nasal wing
228. C.S. What nerve gets to the inter incisive papilla?

a. nasopalatin
b. superior posterior alveolar
c. the palatine
d. the frontal
e. mandibular
229. C.S. What nerves pass through the foramen rotundum?

a. maxillary
b. mandibular
c. superior alveolar
e. all of the above
230. C.S. The anterior palatal nerve is also called:

a. palatine supero-posterior
has no other name
b.
c.
d.
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e.
middle palate small

palatine
b.
c.
d.
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e.
greater palatal nerve
231. C.M. The local anesthetic used in dental medicine must have
following qualities: 1. Strong anesthetic effect, ensuring complete
anesthesia for all types of dental treatment;
2. a powerful anesthetic effect that provides complete anesthesia only
for certain types of dental treatments;
3. short induction;
4. reduced systemic toxicity;
5. not produce local irritation
232. C.S. Adequate duration of anesthesia for standard dental treatments:

1. It should vary between 60 and 90 minutes
2. It should vary between 30 and 60 minutes
3. It is 180 minutes
4. It lasts all day
5. No Correct Answer.
233. C.S. The first known local anesthetic substance is:

1. Prilocaine
2. Lidocaïne
3. Mepivacaine
4. Cocaine
5. Articaine
235. C.M Articaine:

1. today is one of the most used local anesthetics
2. today is one of the most used general anesthetics
3. Especially used in dental medicine and oro-maxillo-facial surgery
4. Synthesized by the chemist Muschaweck 5. synthesized by
Lofgren.
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236. C.M For local anesthesia are used the following substances:
1. The thiopental sodium
2. Articaine
3. Bupivacaine
4. Mepivacaine
5. Ketamine
238. C.M. Cocaine:

a. the first known local anesthetic substance
b. b of the second known local anesthetic substance
c. Was prepared from leaves of the Eritroxilon Coca tree
d. Kollereste is the first who used cocaine as a local anesthetic in dental medicine
e. Kollereste is the first who used cocaine as a local anesthetic in ophthalmic surgery
239. C.M. The following substances belong to the category of local anesthetics,
except:
1. Bupivacaine
2. Articaine
3. Mepivacaine
4. Eter
5. Nitrogen propoxide
240. C.M. Blockage of nerve conduction caused by the local anesthetic:

1. it will be a suppression of the transmission of the nervous influx.
2. causes reversible loss of pain sensitivity in an unlimited area.
3. causes irreversible loss of pain sensitivity in a limited area.
4. causes reversible loss of pain sensitivity in a limited area.
5. it is more easily interested in smaller nerve fibers

1. occurs by preventing the excitation-conduction process, without
damaging the nerve fiber.
2. It occurs by preventing the excitation-driving process, with the
damage to the nerve fiber.
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3. involves easier nerve fibers with smaller diameter.

4. involves easier nerve fibers with bigger diameter.
5. involves easier nerve fibers that are not at all or slightly myelinated

1. involves easier nerve fibers with smaller diameter.
2. involves easier nerve fibers that are not at all or slightly
myelinated.
3. involves easier myelinated fibers.
4. involves easier fibers with short axons.
5. involves easier fiber with a high discharge rate and a potential for
sustainable action
243. C.M The local anesthetic, block the following:

1. Thermal and painful feeling
2. self-perception
3. tactile sensitivity
4. sensitivity of pressure
5. motor function
248. C.M The duration of anesthetic action depends on:

1. The ability of the substance to bind to proteins.
2. the concentration of cationic forms around the axon.
3. Anesthetic capacity of diffusion .
4. Injection rate.
5. rate of elimination of the anesthetic
249. C.M. The following statements are correct:

1. In the structure of any local anesthetic, two essential chemical
groups are present: the aromatic radical (anionic component H) and
the tertiary amine group (cationic component B +).
2. By their cationic component, local anesthetics are quaternary
ammonium derivatives and can block neuronal synaptic
transmission.
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sodium derivatives and can block neuronal synaptic transmission.
4. The aromatic radical gives the local anesthetic substances the
character of lipophilic, which makes it possible to cross the axonal
perineural membrane.
hydrophilic character that makes it possible to cross the axonal
250. C.M. The following statements are correct except:

1. In the structure of any local anesthetic, two essential chemical
groups are present: the aromatic radical (anionic component H) and
the tertiary amine group (cationic component B +).
ammonium derivatives and can block neuronal synaptic
transmission.
sodium derivatives and can block neuronal synaptic transmission.
character of lipophilic, which makes it possible to cross the axonal
hydrophilic character that makes it possible to cross the axonal
251. C.M. The anesthetic power of the anesthetic substance is favored by:
1. the alkaline environment.
2. Low p H.
3. Increased p H.
4. the acidic environment.
5. No Correct Answer
252. C.S. Patients with heart disease, treated with drugs such as beta blockers,
calcium blockers, antiarrhythmic:
1. overdose accidents can not occur after administration of a local
anesthetic.
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2. The local anesthetic fraction will increase in circulation and

general over dosage accidents may occur, even within the range of
usual anesthetic dosages.
3. The free (unbound) local anesthetic fraction will increase in
circulation and general over dosage accidents may occur even
within the range of usual anesthetic dosages.
4. The free (unbound) local anesthetic fraction will increase in
circulation and general over dosage accidents may occur only after
high doses of anesthetic.
253. C.M. Anesthetic of the amides category,

1. Cocaine
2. Mepivacaine
3. Bupivacaine
4. Lidocaine
5. Prilocaine
254. C.M. Anesthetics from amides group are:

1. Chlorprocaine
2. Mepivacaine
3. Bupivacaine
4. Lidocaine
5. Butacaine
255. C.M. Select the anesthetics from the esters group: a)

Procaine (novocaine, neocain)
b) Chlorprocaine (noncaine)
c) Propoxicine
d) Cocaine
e) Tetracaine
256. C.S. Choose ester anesthetics substances:

1. Butacaine
2. Chlorprocaine
3. Cocaine
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4. Tetracaine
5. All answers are correct
257. C.S. The following substances are included in the amide group, excepting :
1. Articaine
2. Mepivacaine
3. Bupivacaine
4. Lidocaine
5. Procaine
258. C.S. Select the local anesthetic substances with superior qualities
1. Mepivacaine
2. Lidocaine
3. Articaine
4. All of the above answers are correct.
5. No correct answer.
259. C.M. The following substances are local anesthetics of superior quality,
excepting:
1. Lidocaine
2. Articaine
3. Mepivacaine
4. Benzocaine
5. Procaine
260. C.M. The anesthetic substance used in local anesthesia in dental medicine pass the:
1. Nerves tissue
2. blood flow
3. lungs
4. liver
5. kidneys
261. C.S. The anesthetic substance used in local anesthesia in dental medicine pass the:
1. Nerves tissue
2. blood flow
3. liver
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4. kidneys
5. All answers are correct.
262. C.M. The following substances were replaced in practice by substances of superior
quality, currently having only documentary interest:
1. Procaine
2. Ametocaine
3. Chlorprocaine
4. Piperocain
5. Lidocaine
263. C.S. The following substances have been replaced in practice by substances of
superior quality, with the exception of:
1. Procaine
2. Ametocaine
3. Chlorprocaine
4. Piperocaine
5. Mepivacaine
264. C.M. Anesthetic substances with superior qualities are:

1. Ametocaine
2. Articaine
3. Procaina
4. Lidocaine
5. Mepivacaine
265. C.M. Lidocaine:

1. From a chemical point of view, it is an acetamide.
2. has a pH of about 6.5.
3. marketed as aqueous, isotonic, sterile, apygene solutions
containing anesthetic agent.
4. It is marked with or without adrenaline.
5. in no case contains preservatives that can induce allergic reactions
266. C.M. Lidocaine:

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1. is marketed as aqueous, isotonic, sterile, apygene solutions

containing anesthetic agent.
2. Only commercially available without adrenaline.
3. It is marked with or without adrenaline.
4. It is marked only with adrenaline.
5. The solution often contains a preservative called methyl paraben

1. Lidocaine hydrochloride is partially absorbed after parenteral
administration.
2. Lidocaine hydrochloride is completely absorbed after parenteral
administration.
3. The rate of absorption in the blood stream is primarily dependent
on the presence or absence of the vasoconstrictor.
4. The rate of absorption in the blood stream is dependent on the body
weight of the patient.
5. The proportion of plasma-related lidocaine hydrochloride depends
on the concentration of the administered solution.
268. C.M. The following statements are false:

1. Renal impairment affects the pharmacokinetics of lidocaine
2. The substance is metabolized rapidly at approximately 90% in the
liver.
3. Metabolites and the remaining 10% of the non-metabolized
substance are renal elimination.
4. Most liver disorders do not influence the pharmacokinetics of
lidocaine.
5. Lidocaine hydrochloride passes the blood-brain barrier, most likely
by passive diffusion.

1. Lidocaine hydrochloride crosses the blood-brain barrier, most likely by passive
diffusion.
2. The substance is rapidly metabolized at approximately 90% in the liver.
3. Metabolites and the remaining 10% of the non-metabolized substance are renal
elimination.
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4. Renal diseases do not influence the pharmacokinetics of lidocaine, but can lead
to the accumulation of metabolites.
5. Most liver disorders more or less influence the pharmacokinetics of lidocaine.
270. C.M. Lidocaine products marketed as a spray or gel:

1. contains adrénaline.
2. do not contain adrenaline.
3. used for topical anesthesia.
4. used for general anesthesia.
5. are not used in dental medicine
271. C.M. Method of administration of lidocaine:

1. It is recommended to inject a minimum dose of anesthetic to allow
effective anesthesia.
2. It is recommended to inject as much anesthetic as possible to
achieve effective anesthesia.
3. In dental medicine and oro - maxillofacial surgery, the usual dose
for local anesthesia is 20-100 mg lidocaine, so 1-5 ml 2% solution.
4. In dental medicine and oro – maxillofacial surgery, the usual dose
for local anesthesia is 20-200 mg lidocaine, so 1-10 ml of 1%
solution.
5. In dental medicine and oro-maxillo-facial surgery, the usual dose
solution.
272. C.S. Healthy adults, the maximum dose of lidocaine without adrenaline is:
1. 2.5 mg / kg body weight, not exceeding 300 mg;
2. 5, 5 mg / kg body weight, not exceeding 300 mg;
3. 7, 5 mg / kg body, not exceeding 300 mg; 4. 4, 5 mg / kg body
weight, not exceeding 300 mg; 5. No Correct Answer.
273. C.S. Healthy adults, the maximum dose of lidocaine, with adrenaline, is:
1. 7 mg / kg body, not exceeding 500 mg.
2. 6 mg / kg body weight, not exceeding 500 mg.
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274. C.S. Children over 3 years of normal development, the maximum dose of
lidocaine without adrenaline is:
1. 5-6 mg / kg body.

1. In healthy adults, the maximum adrenaline-free lidocaine dose is 4,
5 mg / kg bodyweight, not exceeding 300 mg;
3. In healthy adults the maximum adrenaline lidocaine dose is 7 mg /
kg body weight, not exceeding 500 mg;
4. In children over 3 years of normal development, the maximum
dose of lidocaine without adrenaline is 3-4 mg / kg body.
5. For children over 3 years of normal development, the maximum
adrenaline-free lidocaine dose is 6 mg / kg body weight

1. In children over 3 years of normal development, the maximum
dose of lidocaine without adrenaline is 6 mg / kg body weight.
2. For children over 3 years of normal development, the maximum
dose of lidocaine without adrenaline is 3-4 mg / kg body.
5 mg / kg body weight, not exceeding 300 mg;
5. For healthy adults the maximum adrenaline lidocaine dose is 7 mg /
kg bodyweight, not to exceed 500 mg;
277. C.S. The following statements are correct:

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1. It is recommended to inject a minimum dose of anesthetic to allow

effective anesthesia.
2. In dental medicine and oro-maxillo-facial surgery, the usual dose
solution.
3. Make sure that the maximum dose for a meeting is not exceeded.
5. No right answer.
278. C.M. Precautions for lidocaine administration:

1. It is contraindicated to patients hypersensitive to amidic local
anesthetics.
2. Intravascular injection should be avoided.
3. Aspiration prior to injection of the substance is required.
4. No aspiration is required before injection of the substance.
5. It is recommended that a minimum effective dose of anesthetic be
administered

1. Lidocaine anesthesia is contraindicated in patients known to be
hypersensitive to amidic local anesthetics.
2. Lidocaine injection is given intravascular.
4. No aspiration is required before injection of the substance.
administered
280. C.M. The following statements are correct within precautions in lidocaine
administration:
1. It is contraindicated in patients known to be hypersensitive to
amidic local anesthetics.
2. Intravascular injection should be avoided.
4. The allergenic risk is due to paraben and sulfite preservatives in
adrenaline products, respectively.
administered.
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281. C.M. They will be permanently monitored after lidocaine anesthesia:

1. heart rate.
2. Respiratory rhythm.
3. Patient consciousness.
4. patient's blood glucose.
5. patient's body temperature
282. C.M. Early signs of central neurotoxicity after lidocaine anesthesia are:
1. agitation, anxiety
2. tinnitus
3. Dizziness
4. Visual disturbances
5. trembles
283. C.M. Administration of lidocaine during

pregnancy: 1. Lidocaine has a teratogenic
effect
2. It falls into the toxicity class A.
3. It falls into the toxicity class B.
4. It is recommended to delay the administration to pregnant women
during the first trimester of pregnancy.
5. It is recommended to delay the administration of pregnant women
during the last trimester of pregnancy.
284. C.S. Administration of lidocaine during pregnancy:

1. Pregnancy is recommended in the first trimester of pregnancy.
2. It is recommended to delay the administration of pregnant women
during the second trimester of pregnancy.
3. It is recommended that pregnancy be delayed during the last
trimester of pregnancy.
4. It can be given to pregnant women during pregnancy.
285. C.M. Administration of lidocaine during pregnancy and lactation:

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1. Fetal heart rate monitoring is advisable given that lidocaine

penetrates the placental barrier.
2. Hypotension may occur in rare cases in patients with advanced
pregnancy after administration of lidocaine.
3. Pregnancy hypertension may occur in rare cases in patients with
advanced pregnancy after administration of lidocaine.
4. Replacement of breastfeeding for 24 hours is recommended for
patients who have been given local anesthetic with lidocaine with
or without adrenaline.
5. It has not been clear that lidocaine should be eliminated in breast
milk
286. C.M. The following statements are false in relation to the administration of
lidocaine during pregnancy and lactation:
1. Fetal heart rate monitoring is advisable given that lidocaine
penetrates the placental barrier.
2. It has been clearly shown that lidocaine is excreted in breast milk.
3. Hypotension may occur in rare cases in patients with advanced
pregnancy after administration of lidocaine.
4. Replacement of breastfeeding for 24 hours is recommended for
patients who have been given local anesthetic with lidocaine with
or without adrenaline.
5. It is not recommended to replace breastfeeding for 24 hours in the
case of patients who have had local anesthesia with lidocaine with
or without adrenaline

1. Administration of local anesthetic solutions with adrenaline or
noradrenaline in patients undergoing treatment with tricyclic
antidepressants may induce persistent severe hypertension.
2. Phenothiazines and butyrophenones may reduce or eliminate the
vasoconstrictor effect of adrenaline.
3. Phenothiazines and butyrophenones can not reduce or eliminate the
4. The interaction of lidocaine with vasopressor medication can lead
to persistent hypertension.
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5. Interaction of lidocaine with ergotamine ocitococcal medication

can lead to persistent hypertension or even strokes
288. C.M. The following drugs may interact with lidocaine:

1. tricyclic antidepressants
2. phenothiazines
3. Butyrophenones
4. vasopressors
5. ocotoccal ergotamine
289. C.S. The following medicines may interact with lidocaine:
1. tricyclic antidepressants
2. phenothiazines
3. Butyrophenones
4. vasopressors
290. C.M. The following statements are false:

noradrenaline in patients undergoing treatment with tricyclic
antidepressants may induce persistent severe hypotension.
3. Phenothiazines and butyrophenones can not reduce or eliminate the
4. The interaction of lidocaine with vasopressor medication can lead
to persistent hypotension.
5. Interaction of lidocaine with ergotamine ocitococcal medication
can in no case lead to stroke.

1. When lidocaine is administered to pregnant women, fetal heart rate
monitoring is advisable given that lidocaine penetrates the
placental barrier.
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3. Replacement of breastfeeding for 24 hours is recommended in the
case of local anesthetic patients with lidocaine with or without
adrenaline.
noradrenaline in patients undergoing MAOI or tricyclic
antidepressants may induce persistent severe hypertension.
5. It is recommended that lidocaine should be used in pregnancy in
the last trimester of pregnancy.
292. C.M. Adverse reactions following administration of lidocaine are rare and are
related to elevated levels of free lidocaine caused by:
1. Overdose
2. slow absorption
3. rapid absorption
4. Intravascular injection
5. idiosyncratic phenomena.
293. C.M. In adverse reactions following lidocaine administration, CNS

manifestations are cortical excitatory and / or inhibitory type, which have the following
clinical manifestations:
1. Feeling hot or cold
2. Paresthesia
3. nervousness
4. euphoria, drowsiness
5. nausea and vomiting
294. C.M. In adverse reactions following lidocaine administration, CNS

1. Paresthesia
2. Double or unclear view
3. tinnitus
4. seizures
5. Even cardio-respiratory arrest
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295. C.S. In adverse reactions following lidocaine administration, CNS

1. Paresthesia
2. nervousness
3. euphoria
4. drowsiness
296. C.M. Cardiovascular manifestations in adverse reactions following

administration of lidocaine include:
1. Bradycardia
2. hypotension
3. hypertension
4. rarely cardiovascular collapse
5. rare cardio-respiratory stop
297. C.S. Allergic manifestations in adverse reactions following lidocaine

administration include:
1. edema
2. hives
3. anaphylactoid reactions
4. All of the above answers are correct
5. No Correct Answer

1. Allergic reactions after lidocaine administration are rare and are
due to the methylparaben preservative.
2. Clinical evaluation of sensitivity to anesthetic by intradermal or
subcutaneous injection is of strong value.
3. Clinical evaluation of sensitivity to anesthetic by intradermal or
subcutaneous injection is questionable.
4. Allergic manifestations following lidocaine administration include
chills, papules, shingles.
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5. Allergic manifestations following administration of lidocaine

include: edema, hives, anaphylactoid reactions.
299. C.S. The therapeutic attitude in overdose of lidocaine:

1. Cardio-respiratory monitoring
2. monitoring the state of consciousness
3. oxygen therapy
4. If the symptoms do not resolve, call a specialist service
immediately.
300. C.M. The therapeutic overdose of lidocaine includes:

1. First of all, a preventive attitude is required, limiting the amount of
injected substance.
2. Cardio-respiratory monitoring.
3. Body temperature monitoring.
4. In the event of any signs of overdose, oxygen therapy will be used
first.
5. If the symptoms are not resolved, the patient is sent home.
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d)
e)
305. CM. What are the firs clinical signs of central neurotoxicity? a)
Agitation (anxiety)
b) Tinnitus (ringing or buzzing in the ears)
c) Visual disorders
d) Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart action)
e) Tachypnea (abnormally rapid breathing)
306. CM. Firs clinical signs of central neurotoxicity are: a)

Bruxism
b) Anxiety
c) Dizziness
d) Euphoria
e) Shaking
307. CM. What are the firs clinical signs of central neurotoxicity?
Depression and sleepiness
Tachycardia (abnormally rapid heart action) and bradypnea (abnormally slow breathing)
Reduced diuresis (production of urine)
Hyper sweeting
All variants
309. CM. After the local anesthetic injection the following parameters will be
observed:
a) Diuresis (production of urine)
b) Cardiac rhythm
c) ESR (erythrocytes sedimentation rate)
d) Breathing rhythm
e) State of consciousness
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310.
311. CM. What are the side effects of local anesthetics on central nervous system: a)
Convulsions
b) Nausea and vomiting
c) Paresthesia
d) Photophobia (extreme sensitivity to light)
e) Bile colic
312. CM. What are the effects of local anesthetics on cardio vascular system:
Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart action)
Hypotension
Pulmonary edema
Cardio-respiratory stop
Cardiac failure
313. CM. Allergic reactions after the administration of local anesthetic are: a)
Purpura (a rash of purple spots on the skin)
b) Urticarial (a rash of round, red weals on the skin which itch intensely)
c) Edema
d) Nystagmus (rapid involuntary movements of the eyes)
e) Anaphylactoid reactions
314.
320. CM. Articaine is administrated with caution for patients with: a)

Liver diseases
b) Kidney diseases
c) Digestive diseases
d) Psychological diseases
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e) Osteoarticular diseases
321.
323. CM. In case of over dosage with Articaine: a)

O2 therapy
b) Do not administrate any drugs
c) In case of necessity – anticonvulsant drugs
d) Call the emergency
e) Administration of beta-blocatots
324. CM. The effects of vasoconstrictor in local anesthetics are: a)

Slow resorption of anesthetic substance
b) Increase the effect and time of action
c) Decrease the effect and time of action
d) Increase the risk of toxicity
e) Has no effect at all
325. CM. The effects of vasoconstrictor in local anesthetics are: a)

Increase the risk of local bleeding
b) Decrease the risk of local bleeding
c) Decrease the risk of toxicity
d) Decrease the effect of anesthetic substance
e) Decrease the time of action
326. CM. Which are the substances with vasoconstrictor effect: a)

Adrenaline
b) Noradrenaline
c) Nitroglycerine
d) Nifedipine
e) Felipresine
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327.
328. CM. Local effect of adrenaline is: a)

Fast hemostasis
b) Induce bleeding
c) Reduce resorption of anesthetic substance
d) Increase the effect of anesthetic substance
e) Decrease the effect of anesthetic substance
329. CM. The effect of adrenaline in patients with cardiovascular disorders:

a) Induce hyper tension
b) Induce tachycardia
c) Induce bradycardia
d) Has no affect
e) Induce tachycardia and bradycardia
330.
334. CM. Administration of anesthetics with vasoconstrictors during the last trimester
of pregnancy:
a) Decreases the rick of childbirth
b) Increases the risk of childbirth
c) Induces contraction of uterus
d) Induces malformations to the fetus
e) Must be avoided
335. CM. What are general rules of plexal anesthesia: a)

Use sterile needles
b) Use multiple use needles
c) Use disposable needles
d) Position of the patient must be adequate to the anesthesia that will be performed
e) Anesthetic substance must be injected as quickly as possible
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Injection point must be moist
b) Injection point must be dry
c) Mucosa must be antiseptically treated before injection
d) Mucosa must be antiseptically treated after injection
e) Do not use topical anesthetic before injection

Apply topical anesthetic before injection
b) A good grip of the hands must be assured
c) The hand with the syringe must be in contact with the patient
d) Do not use gloves
e) Anesthesia effect must be at least for 2 hours

Patients must not see the syringe
b) Needle is inserted with the bevel toward the bone
c) Needle must touch the cheek first
d) Needle should touch anything besides injection point
e) Needle in introduced slowly
339. CM. What are general rules of plexal anesthesia:

a) We must inject the substance during the progression of the needle through the soft tissues
b) All the substance must be administrated in the in injection point
c) Aspiration is recommended
d) During troncular anesthesia aspiration is mandatory
e) Anesthetic substance is administrated fast
340. CM. For contact anesthesia are used:

a) Substances with lower concentration than for plexal
b) Substances with higher concentration than for plexal
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c) Substances with the same concentration than for plexal

d) Lidocaine based substances
e) Articaine based substances
341. CM. Which procedure requires only topical anesthesia: a)

Pulpectomia
b) Scaling
c) Crown preparation at the level of gingival sulcus
d) Dental filling polishing at the level of gingival sulcus
e) Granuloma removal
342. CM. Which procedure requires only topical anesthesia: a)

Apical resection
b) Wisdom tooth extraction
c) Gag reflex diminishing during treatment
d) Gag reflex diminishing during x-ray at the level of molars
e) Scaling
343.
345. CM. Topical anesthesia is done with: a)

Cream
b) Spray
c) Gel
d) Injection
e) None of the variants
346. CM. Topical anesthetic substance anesthetize: a)

Tooth
b) Soft tissues
c) Hard tissues
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d) Bone
e) Nervous terminal branches
347. CM. Plexal anesthesia is:

a) Using a syringe for the anesthesia
b) Apply the substance on the surface
c) Deploy the substance at a distance from the nerve
d) Deploy the substance near the nerve
e) All variants a correct
348.
349. CM. Injection for plexal anesthesia of the extra oral area is done: a)
Intradermic
b) Subcutaneous
c) Submucosal
d) Intraoseos
e) None of the variants is correct
350. CM. Plexal anesthesia are:

a) Supraperiosteal
b) Intraligamentary
c) Spray
d) Intraoseos
e) Troncular peripheric
351. CM. Submucosal anesthesia:

a) For deep abscesses
b) The needle is inserted only under the mucosa
c) For submucosal abscesses
d) The needle is inserted above the abscess
e) Anesthetic substance in administrated alongside the future incision line
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352. CM. Plexal anesthesia is used:

a) Whole maxilla
b) Maxilla with the exception of the first molar
c) Whole mandible
d) Mandible in the frontal area
e) Mandible only in the wisdom teeth area
353. CM. Plexal anesthesia is more effective in: a)

Elder people
b) Children
c) Young people
d) In case of a more dens cortical bone
e) In case of a more expressed spongy bone
354. CM. Plexal anesthesia anesthetize:

a) Vestibular mucosa
b) 1-2 teeth in the area of anesthesia
c) All the teeth on the hemiarch
d) Periostium and the bone in the area of anesthesia
e) All dental arch
355. CM. Indication for plexal anesthesia: a)

Extraction
b) Apical surgery
c) Implant placement
d) Tumor removal
e) Cyst removal
356. CM. Contraindication for plexal anesthesia:

a) Tumor removal
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b) Abscesses at the level of injection

c) Ulcers at the level of injection
d) Anesthesia for lateral teeth on the mandible
e) Anesthesia for the first maxillary molar
357. CM. Injection point in case of plexal anesthesia is made: a)

Oral vestibulum, at the level of attached and mobile mucosa
b) Through the bone
c) Inside the spongy bone
d) With the needle bevel towards the bone
e) Above the tooth apex
358. CM. Advantages of intraligamentary anesthesia are: a)

Possibility to anesthetize only one tooth
b) Fast anesthetic effect (20-40 sec)
c) Small amount of anesthetic substance used
d) Requirement for special syringes and needles
e) Possibility to anesthetize more than one tooth without overdosage risk
359. CM. Disadvantages of intraligamentary anesthesia are: a)

Requirement for special syringes and needles
b) Dry socket appears more often
c) Large amount of anesthetic substance used
d) Local pain after anesthesia
e) None of the variants are correct
360. CM. Indications for intraligamentary anesthesia are:

a) Patients with high risk of bleeding
b) Liver diseases
c) Patients under anti-coagulant therapy
d) Temporary teeth
e) Infection process at the level of injection
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361. CM: Contraindications for intraligamentary anesthesia are: a)

Patients with high risk of bleeding
b) Temporary teeth
c) Inflammation process at the level of injection
d) Infection process at the level of injection
e) Liver diseases
362. CM. Troncular peripheric anesthesia is: a)

Loss of conductibility of the nerve
b) Anesthesia on the area of innervation of one nerve
c) Anesthesia of terminal branches of the nerve
d) Anesthesia of the axon of the nerve and terminal branches
363. CM. Troncular peripheric anesthesia: a)

Has a prolonged time of action
b) Has a shorter time of action
c) Deform the area of anesthesia
d) Do not deform the area of anesthesia
e) Allows an intervention on wide are for a prolonged time
364. CM. Area of anesthesia after tuberosity anesthesia a)

Superior molars
b) Alveolar bone
c) Vestibular mucosa
d) Posterior wall of the maxillary sinus
e) Mucosa of the maxillary sinus
365. CM. Tuberosity anesthesia anesthetize: a)

Superior molars
b) Sometimes, mesiovestibular root of the first maxillary molar
c) Totally or partially premolar area
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d) Superior frontal teeth

e) Inferior frontal teeth
366. CM. indication for tuberosity anesthesia: a)

Superior frontal teeth surgery
b) Inferior frontal teeth surgery
c) Superior molars surgery
d) In case on unsuccessful plexal anesthesia
367.
368. CM. Tuberosity anesthesia extraoraly: a) Is

rarely used
b) Injection point is anterior to the maseter
c) Injection point is under the inferior margin of the zygomatic bone
d) Oral mucosa is not punctured by the needle
e) Oral mucosa is punctured by the needle
369. CM. Landmarks for intraoral tuberosity anesthesia:

a) Occlusal plane of the lower molars
b) Zygomatico-alveolar ridge
c) Distal root ot the second molar
d) Mesial root of the second molar
e) Muco-bucal fold
370. CM. Position of the patient for tuberosity anesthesia:

a) Patients sits in the dental chair
b) With the head in a slight extension
c) Mouth is half open
d) Mouth is wide open
e) Mandible is slightly deviated toward the side of the anesthesia
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371. CM. In tuberosity anesthesia, soft tissues are retracted with:

a) Index of the left hand, in case of anesthesia on the right side
b) Thumb, in case of anesthesia on the left side
c) With the index we palpate the bone
d) Index of the left hand, in case of anesthesia on the left side
372. CM. Puncture point in tuberosity intraoral anesthesia is: a)

In the mobile mucosa
b) In the attached mucosa
c) Above the distal root of the first upper molar
d) Above the mesial root of the first upper molar
e) Distal to zygomatico-alveolar ridge
373. CM. Nasopalatine anesthesia:

a) Is associated with plexal ansthesia for surgical treatment on the frontal upper teeth
b) Anesthetize 1/3 of anterior palatal mucosa
c) Puncture point is at the level of interincisival papilla
d) Puncture point is at the level of vestibular mucosa
e) Is associated with infraoribal ansthesia for surgical treatment on the frontal upper teeth
374. CM. Puncture point in nasopalatine anesthesia is: a)

Middle of the incisive papilla
b) Palatal, between the superior incisors
c) In one of the palatal rugae
d) Vestibular, at the level of the tooth
e) At 0.5 cm posterior and above the neck of the central superior incisor
375. CM. Nasopalatine anesthesia:

a) Is painful due to the rich intervention of the papilla
b) Is painful due to the adhesion of the mucosa
c) Is painful due to the lack of submucosal layer
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d) Requires topic anesthesia

e) Requires administration of 0.2-0.5 ml of substance
376. CM. Nasopalatine anesthesia can be done: a)

Vestibular, at the level of moars
b) At the level of the lingula
c) Floor of the nasal cavity
d) Hoffer technique
e) Escat technique
377.
378. CM. Greater palatal nerve is indicated: a)

Anterior 1/3 of the palatal mucosa
b) Posterior 1/3 of the palatal mucosa
c) All palatal mucosa
d) Molar and premolar mucosa
e) Posterior 2/3 of the palatal mucosa
379. CM. Greater palatal nerve is indicated a)

Superior incisors treatment
b) Inferior molar treatment
c) Additionally to tuberosity anesthesia
d) Additionally to plexal anesthesia for superior premolar treatment
e) Additionally to plexal anesthesia for superior molar treatment
380. CM. Greater palatal nerve block landmarks: a)

1 cm above the neck of the last molar
b) 0.5 cm anterior to the posterior margin of the hard palate, at the junction point between
palatal and alveolar processes
c) 5 cm in front of internal wing of the pterygoid process
d) Interincisival papilla
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381. CM. In greater palatal nerve block: a) Do

not need to enter in the canal
b) Usually 50-100 ml solution is administrated
c) Puncture is made at the level of the second molar
d) Trajectory of the needle is upward, backward and slightly external
e) The syringe is placed at the opposite corner of the mouth
382. CM. Complications during greater palatal nerve block: a)

Bleeding
b) Fast administration of anesthetic substance
c) Mucoperiosteum reflection with necrosis
d) Soft palate infiltration
e) Soft palate edema
383. CM. Fast administration of substance during greater palatal nerve block will lead to:
a) Mucoperiosteum reflection
b) Increased risk of palatal mucosa necrosis
c) Mucoperiosteum distension
d) No changes
e) All the variants are correct
384. CM. Area of anesthesia after infraorbital block: a)

Mandible
b) Nose
c) Superior frontal teeth
d) Alveolar process from the medial line till the first premolar
e) All variants are correct
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Superior incisors and canines
b) Inferior eyelid
c) Nose
d) Vestibular mucosa and the periosteum from the medial line till the first premolar
e) Vestibular mucosa and the periosteum from the third molar area

Posterior wall of the sinus and sinus membrane
b) Superior alveolar process behind medial line
c) Half of the superior lip
d) Inferior eyelid
e) Superior frontal teeth
387. CM. Infraorbital nerve block:

a) Treatment in the area of superior frontal teeth
b) For surgical treatment, requires additional plexal anesthesia of the hard palate
c) Requires additional nasopalatine anesthesia for central incisors treatment
d) Doesn’t affect superior eyelid
e) Is done intraoral
388. CM. Infraorbital foramen is located: a)

At 80 mm below inferior orbital ridge
b) At 6-8 mm below inferior orbital ridge
c) At 5 mm medial to mediopupilar line
d) On the same line that passes through supraorbital and mental foramen
389. CM. Infraorbital foramen is located: a)

At 6-8 mm below inferior orbital ridge
b) At 5 mm external to mediopupilar line
c) At the joint point of 1/3 internal and 2/3 external inferior orbital ridge
d) On the same line that passes through supraorbital and mental foramen
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390. CM. Puncture point in intraoral infraorbital anesthesia is:

a) Canine fossa
b) Mobile mucosa
c) Above and laterally to canine apex
d) Incisive canal
391. CM. Landmarks for extraoral infraorbital anesthesia: a)

Medially and superior to infraorbital foramen
b) Medially and inferior to infraorbital foramen
c) At the level of the nose wing
d) 0.5-1 cm lateral to nasogenian fold
392. CM. To avoid penetrating the orbit with the needle in case of extraoral infraorbital
nerve block:
a) Insert the needle in the canal not more than 0.5-1 cm
b) Insert the needle in the canal not more than 5-10 cm
c) The index of the left hand is placed at the level of the inferior margin of the orbit d) It can
never occur
e) It can’t be avoided
393. CM. What can happen in case of penetrating the orbit with the needle, in extraoral
infraorbital nerve block:
a) Infiltration of the orbital adipose tissue
b) Transitory diplopia (double vision)
c) Total and permanent loss of sight
d) Anesthesia of the inferior branch of oculomotor nerve
e) Temporary loss of sight
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394.
398. CM. Contraindications for tuberosity anesthesia: a)
Treatment at the level of inferior frontal teeth
b) In case of insufficient plexal anesthesia
c) Treatment at the level of superior molars
d) Tumors at the level of puncture
e) Abscesses at the level of puncture
399. CM. In case of bone contact loss during tuberosity anesthesia increases the risk of:
a) Infection in the area
b) Insufficient anesthesia
c) Puncture of a blood vessel
d) There are no risks
e) Hematoma
400. CM. In case of a hematoma during tuberosity anesthesia the following maneuvers
are performed:
a) Compression of the cheek below the zygomatic bone
b) Compression of the cheek on the opposite side
c) Administration of anticoagulants
d) Intraoral compression with a cotton gauze in the inferior mucobuccal fold
e) Intraoral compression with a cotton gauze in the supperior mucobuccal fold
401. C.M.Anesthesia at incisive foramen:

a. is indicated in combination with plexus anesthesia for lateral group interventions;
b. interested palatine fibromycosis in the posterior third;
c. assumes puncture at the level of incisive papilla;
d. involves puncture in the buccal fold;
e. is indicated in association with peripheral troncular anesthesia of the infraorbital
nerves for interventions at the frontal group
402. C.M. The anesthetized territory of alveolar inferior nerve anesthesia is:
a. The bone;
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b. Theeth;
c. Vestibular gingivomucosa;
d. Labiomentoniere soft tissues from the mental foramen till
the midian line;
e. Soft tissues from the 3 molar to the mental foramen.
403. C.M. The methods of performing the alveolar inferior nerve anesthesia are:
a. Oral way at spina spix;
b. Cutaneous submandibular way;
c. Cutaneous retromandibular and superior;
d. Cutaneous retomandibular and inferior;
e. Cutaneous subzigomatic.
404. C.M. When alveolar inferior nerve anesthesia is practiced by cutaneous way: a)
Inflammatory processes;
b) Tumors
c) Trismus
d) When the access to the puncture site is not allowed
e) When the patient wants
405. C.M. The landmarks for Spina Spix are:

a. The temporal crest, medial and posterior of anterior margin
of mandibular ramus;
b. The pterygomandibular raphe lying along the anterior
margin of the internal pterygoid muscle;
c. The occlusion plan of lower molars
d. The pterygomandibular raphe located along the posterior
margin of the internal pterigoid muscle;
e. The occlusion plan of superior molars
406. C.M. In alveolar inferior nerve anesthesia the puncture site is: A
. between the temporal crest and the pterygomandibular raphe
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B . 1 cm above the lower molar occlusion plane in the dental patient

C. 1.5 cm from the lower edged ridge
D. 1 cm below the occlusion plane of the upper molars in the dental patient E. 1.5
cm from the superior edged ridge
407. C.M. In spina Spix anesthesia:

a. 1 cm in depth anaesthesize the lingual nerve
b. 1.5-2 cm posterior, the alveolar inferior nerve
c. 0.5 cm deeper the bucal nerve
d. 2 cm in depth anaesthesize the lingual nerve
e. At 2.5-3 cm posterior the alveolar inferior nerv
408. C.M. The technical mistakes that lead to the non-installation of spina spix
anesthesia are:
a. The puncture performed below will not intercept the
inferior alveolar nerve at the entrance to the mandible
b. The puncture performed above will cause auriculotemporal
nerve anesthesia
c. Puncture performed too lateral (outward) will lead to
needle propping in the anterior edge of the mandible
d. Puncture performed too medially (inside) of the
pterygomandibular raphe will cause an lateropharyngeal
anesthesia
e. Puncture performed too deep (2.5-3 cm) will infiltrate the
parotid gland with facial nerve anesthesia
409. C.M. Accidents of anesthetic puncture at spina Spix

a. Needle Breaking
b. Punching of the vascular pack with the production of either
a hemorrhage and a hematoma
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c. The penetration of the anesthetic substance into the vessel

will lead to tachycardia, palpitations, lipothymias
d. Punching of the nervous pack that leads to transient
nevrites
e. Installing immediate anesthesia
410. C.M. In addition to the classical technique of inferior alveolar nerve anesthesia,
alternative techniques are:
a. Veisbrem
b. Gaw-gates
c. Akinos
d. Dan theodorescu
e. Applegate
411. C.M. The lingual nerve may also be anesthetized where it is more superficial in
the mouth.
a. In the mandibulo lingual groove
b. Near the third molar
c. Before going under the milohioidian muscle into
the submandibular space
d. Near the second molar
e. After the milohioidian muscle in the
submandibular spase
412. C.M. Anesthesia of the lingual nerve comprises

a. half of the tongue
b. half of the palate
c. mucosa of the alveolar crest from
the lingual side
d. mucosa of the alveolar crest from
the vestibular side
e. Floor of the mouth
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413. C.M. Anesthesia at the mental foramen is performed for interventions on the following
teeth:
a. Canine
b. lateral Incisiv
c. central Incisiv
d. first premolar
e. second molar
414. C.M. Anesthesia at the mental foramen includes:

a. Alveolar process between the mental foramen and the
median line
b. Vestibular fibromucosa between the mental foramen and
the median line
c. Half of inferior lip
d. The skin of the mental region on that side
e. Second premolar
415. C.M. Anesthesia of mental and incisor nerve is indicated for:
a. Completing inferior alveolar nerve anesthesia when

therapeutic procedures are in the median line region,
through infiltration at mental foramen
b. Labio·mental surgical interventions when local anesthesia
by infiltration deforms the soft tissues.
c. Completing inferior alveolar nerve anesthesia when
therapeutic procedures at the median line through
infiltration at the mental foramen
d. As additional anesthesia
e. Anesthesia of frontal inferior teeth
416. C.M. Mention the main methods of obtaining anesthesia in the presence of
regional tissue inflammation
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a. Administration of the local anesthetic at a

distance from the inflamed area
b. Peripheral troncular anesthesia
c. Inject a larger amount of anesthetic into the
region through an anesthesia in the dam
d. topic anesthesia
e. intraligamental anesthesia
417. C.M. The local accidents of loco-regional anesthesia are:

a. Necrosis of mucosa
b. Long time trismus
c. Pain
d. Facial transitory paresis
e. Needle breaking
418. C.M. Imediate local accidents of loco-regional anesthesia include:

a. Vaso-vagal syncope
b. Pain
c. Postextractional alveolitis
d. Facial transitory paresis
e. Epithelial desquamation
419. C.M. Emergency treatment of upper airway edema implies:

a. Oxygenotherapy
b. Administration of adrenaline 0.3-0.5 mg of 1/1000
subcutaneous sol
c. Metaproterenol administration 0.3 ml sol. 5% with 2.5-3 ml
physiological saline sol
d. Administration of epinephrine in bronchospasm
e. Antibiotic administration in laryngeal edema
420. C.M. The clinical signs of the general hypertension accident are :
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a. Unmotivated state of agitation

b. Dry skin
c. The feeling of nausea
d. Intense headache
e. Shiver
421. C.M. The treatment of angina pectoris consists of:

a. The declive position of the patient
b. Aspiration of secretions from the oral cavity
c. Administration of a coronary vasodilator
d. Stopping dental surgery
e. Administration of anti oedematous per os
422. C.M. Troncular peripheral anesthesia of inferior alveolar nerve spina Spix
includes:
a. Mandibular teeth on the same side, up to the median line
plus one tooth on the opposite side
b. The vestibular muco-periosteum located anterior the first
molar
c. The half of the lip and the chin on the side of anesthesia
d. The mandibular body and the inferior portion of the
ascendent branch of the mandible
e. Anterior 2/3 of the tongue and mouth floor
423. C.M. The desadvantages of troncular anesthesia are:

a. The need for an increased dose of anesthetic;
b. There is a risk of pricking the blood vessels near the major
nerve trunks;
c. Complete anesthesia of several nerves;
d. Long duration of anesthesia, with the risk of accidental
injury, when, after treatment, the anesthetic effect is still
present;
e. Difficult technique.
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424. C.M.In the case of patients with clotting disorders:

a. The number of anesthetic punctions is limited;
b. Avoiding deep peripheral troncular anesthesia techniques;
c. The time of the dental work is established in collaboration
with the haematologist or cardiologist;
d. There are no restrictions on local anesthesia;
e. the dose of vasoconstrictor associated with anesthetics is up
to 1: 50000.
425. C.M. In patients with chronic bronchitis and pulmonary emphysema, the
following considerations should be given for the administration of local anesthesia:
a. The dose of vasoconstrictor in the anesthetic solution
should be at most 1: 200,000;
b. There are no restrictions on the concentration of
vasoconstrictor in the anesthetic solution;
c. Do not perform bilateral anesthesia of the alveolar inferior
nerve or greater palatine nerve;
d. Avoiding the use of "deep" peripheral troncular anesthesia
techniques;
e. Anxiolytic premedication is recommended.
426. C.M. The prophylaxis of pain in loco-regional anesthesia is done by:

a. Slow and without pressure injection of the anesthetic
substance;
b. Avoiding peripheral troncular anesthesia techniques;
c. Performing topical anesthesia prior to injection;
d. Use of short, thin and sharp needles;
e. Superficial, submucosal injection of the anesthetic solution.
427. C.M. In case of anaphylactic shock, the cardiovascular collapse is manifested by:
a. Laryngeal edema;
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b. bronchospasm;
c. tachycardia
d. Cardiac arrhythmia
e. Hypertension
428. C.M. Clinical signs of overdosing with adrenaline or other vasoconstrictor are:
a. palpitations
b. trembling
c. difficulty in breathing;
d. Decreased heart rate;
e. Sudden decrease in systolic blood pressure.
429. C.S. The clinical sign of anesthetic overdose at low anesthetic concentrations is:
a. Loss of consciousness;
b. Agitation;
c. Visual disturbances;
d. Cardiac depression
e. Difficulties in breathing;
430. C.M. In the initial phase of anaphylactic shock, the following clinical
manifestations appear:
a. erythema;
b. Intense pruritus;
c. Dyspnea;
d. Diarrhea;
e. Conjunctivitis.
431. C.S. In the hypertensive crisis as an accident of loco-regional anesthesia,

Emergency treatment consists of administering:
a. VIII factor;
b. Sublingual nitroglycerin;
c. Aspirin;
d. Hydrocortisone hemisuccinate;
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e. Adrenaline injectable.
432. C.M. Which of the following pathologies are considered post-anesthetic

complications in dental medicine:
a. prolonged trismus
b. pneumonia
c. post-extractional alveolities
d)necrosis of mucosa
e)paresteziile persistente
433. C.M. Post-anesthetic trismus:

a. is an inflammation of the trigeminal nerve
b. is a cardiovascular disease
c. the local anesthetic in large quantities produces tissue distension and then trismus
d. can be given by large amounts of local anesthetics
e) is a form of cancer
434. C.M. General post-anesthesia accidents most commonly encountered in the

dentistry are represented by:
a. trismus
b. respiratory manifestations
c. postextractional alveolities
d) vaso-vagal sincope
e) angina pectoris
435. C.M. Fainting is manifested:

a) by a general weakness
b) loss of postural tone
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c) patient's inability to maintain orthostatism

d) fever 39-41 degrees C
e) fever and shiver
436. C.M. Fainting is manifested:

a. sweating
b. pallor
c. decrease muscle strength
d. dizziness
e) keeping consciousness
437. C.S. Treatment in vasovagal syncope :

a. aims to improve the normalization of irrigation and cerebral oxygenation
b) aims to vitaminize the patient
c) aims to keep the Achilles reflex
d) aims to reduce brain irrigation
e) all variants are correct
438. C.M. Treatment in the asthma crisis:

a) antibiotic
b) probiotic
c) interruption of dental surgery
d) bisulfites
e) the patient remains seated
439. C.M. In the asthma crisis, the treatment consists of:

a. inhalatory bronchodilators
b. never the patient's medication
c. patient's own medication
d. do not administer O2
e)epinefrine
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440. C.M. Treatment of asthma:

a) monitoring serum calcium
b) monitoring TA
c) saturation O2 monitoring
d) pulse monitoring
e)administration of O2
441. C.M. General hypoglycemic accident :

a. usually occurs in the insulin-dependent diabetic patient
b. may, however, also occur in non-insulin dependent patients
c. to insulin dependent occurs through accidental overdose with insulin
d. there have been no cases
e) always occurs in children
442. C.M. To prevent hypoglycemic accident:

a) antibiotics are taken
b) the patient is scheduled in the morning
c) a source of glucose is prepared
d) a rigorous anamnesis is made
e) ranitidine is administered
443. C.M. General hypertensive accident:

a. is recorded in hypertensive neglected patients
b. is recorded in hypertensive patients not taking their medication
c. stress, pain, infection are the causes of the HTA
d) occurs hypotensives patients
e) occurs old people only
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444. C.M. Clinical signs in the general hypertensive accident:

a. intense headache
b. unmotivated state of agitation
c. feeling nauseated
d. disorders of state of consciousness, of sight
e) signs of angina pectoris
445. C.M. The hypertension crisis:

a. Blood pressure values> 180/110 require the doctor's intervention
b. values> 200/130 require prompt action
c. as treatment is administered antihypertensive, diuretic medication
d. the patient must remain in the seated position with the limbs down
e. nifedipine and furosemide are given
446. C.M. Choosing the anesthetic method depends on: a)

The general and mental state of the patient;
b) Age;
c) The type and probable duration of the operation;
d) General and local pathological changes;
e) Place of intervention, conditions of technical endowment, competence and experience of
cadres;
447. C.M. The advantages of loco-regional anesthesia are:

a) Easy to administer without special training;
b) It does not require specially trained personnel or special equipment;
c) Offers possibility of collaboration with the patient;
d) It's not expensive;
e) It can be administered to any patient in interventions of any magnitude.
448. C.M. Loco-regional anesthesia in some cases is contraindicated : a)

Allergic patients to local anesthetics;
b) Patients with organic deficiencies;
c) Patients with long, laborious, long-term surgery;
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d) In the absence of general anesthesia equipment;

e) Patients with pathological processes in the needle puncture place .
449. C.S. Preanesthesia represent:

a) The totality of the psychological, physical and medicinal preparations of the patient for
anesthesia;
b) Reducing excitability of the central nervous system;
c) Sanitation of the oral cavity, antiseptic treatment;
d) Total examination of the patient;
e) All together.
450. C.M. Pre anesthesia includes: a)

Specifying passport data;
b) Patient interrogation;
c) Psychological preparation;
d) Physical preparation;
e) Drug preparation (premedication).
451. C.M. The factors to be taken into account for assessing the risk of anesthesia are:
a) insuficient anamnesis;
b) The veracity of the diagnosis;

c) Selection of patients for this type of anesthesia;
d) Cabinet endowment and doctor's degree of technicians;
e) Anesthetic risk
452. C.M. The importance of the anesthetic act and the operator act should not exceed
the functional reserves of the body, otherwise the anesthetic risk and the operator
dependent on:
a) The importance of anesthetic act;
b) The importance of the surgical act;
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c) Functional reserves of the body;

d) Anesthetic risk;
e) Operative risk.
453. C.M. Difficulties in assessing anesthetic risk are:

a) A lot of techniques;
b) Numerous anesthetic substances;
c) polypharmacy;
d) Not knowing the complete elimination of anesthetics;
e) Incorrect reasoning in the indication.
454. C.M. The psychological preparation of the patient in the oro-maxilo-facial surgery
cabinet includes:
a) Creating an atmosphere of calm, trust and benevolent attitude;
b) The appearance of the cabinet and medical staff;
c) Explaning and pacifying the patient to suppress his feeling of fear;
d) The calm, authoritative attitude of the physician in terms of therapeutic conduct; e) None
of these.
455. C.M. Physical preparation for anesthesia and surgery in the oral surgery room
includes the following:
a) Compliance with general and individual hygiene rules (oral cavity hygiene);
b) It is advisable for the patient to have the bladder empty and to do other physiological
needs;
c) In case of wearing mobile prostheses, remove them;
d) Place the patient in a correct and comfortable position in the dental armchair or on the
operating table;
e) Closed neck clothes with objects that could distract distant breath (tie, cords, belts, bras,
etc.)
456. C.M. Drug preparation (premedication) should be: a)

Complex and appropriate to specific pathology;
b) After individual peculiarities;
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c) The size and duration of the operation;

d) The place where is get - ambulatory or hospital;
e) None of them.
457. C.M. Drug preparation is:

a) The combination of drugs that combat the state of restlessness, agitation and preoperative
fear;
b) Drug administration that can occur in accidents for patients with a specific field (allergic,
cardiovascular, neuroleptic etc.);
c) Convenient patient placement in the armchair;
d) Removing obstacles from the oral cavity;
e) All these.
458. C.M. The goals of a complete premedication in oro-maxillo-facial surgery are as

follows:
a) Removing fear;
b) Lowering the metabolic level;
c) Depression of reflex activity, decreased secretions;
d) Potentialization of anesthetic agents;
e) Anti-edemic actions and protection against toxic effects.
459. C.M. The medicines used in premedication are: a)

Barbiturics (luminal, fenobarbital, nembutal, etc.);
b) Opioid analgesics (dipidolog, fentanil, mialgin etc.);
c) parasympatholytics (atropine, scopolamine etc );
d) Antihistaminics (dimedrol, pipolfen, tavegil, suprastin etc.); e) All.
460. C.M. Of the medicines listed below in ambulatory premedication it is indicated :

a) Medium and long acting barbiturates;
b) hypnotic tranquillizers;
c) Analgesics with high action;
d) Hypnotic tranquillizers and vagolitics;
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e) All these medicines.
461. C.M. Which of the following maneuvers are required to prepare the operator field
for oral anesthesia by infiltration:
a) lavage of the oral cavity with antiseptic solutions;
b) spotting the puncture site with the left hand finger;
c) Removing deposits from mucous membranes;
d) Badging the mucosa with alcohol;
e) A few moments are expected to dry the mucosa.
462. C.M.Premedication in ambulatory conditions is given :

a) 24 hours before surgery;
b) 12 hours before surgery;
c) 6-8 hours before surgery;
d) 30-45 minutes before surgery;
e) During the operation.
463. C.M.The preanesthetic medication of neurovegetative dystonia patients and

neuropsychiatric anxiety disorders comprises :
a) atropine;
b) chlorpromazine;
c) meprobamate;
d) magnesium sulphate;
e) diazepam.
464. C.M. Sedative premedication is indicated for:

a) Mentally labile patient;
b) patients with heart disease ;
c) patients with psychomotor disability;
d) Children;
e) pregnant.
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465. C.M. Premedication is mandatory for: a)

All patients;
b) Children;
c) In the elderly;
d) Emotional patients;
e) Patients with exaggerated reflections.
466. C.M. Premedication is reducing the: a)

Pain;
b) Central nervous system excitability;
c) Fear;
d) Saliva secretion;
e) None of them.
467. C.M.The following medications are used for premedication : a)

anestetic substances ;
b) antiseptic substances;
c) Sedatives and neuroleptics;
d) Vagolitics;
e) Analgezics.
468. C.M. Choosing premedication is always based on: a)

Age and patient's land;
b) Anesthesia method used (local, general);
c) Operational circumstances (duration and severity of the intervention);
d) Place of intervention (ambulatory or stationary);
e) Not one of them.
469. C.S. For ambulatory patients is used premedication: a)

Light;
b) Forte;
c) Medium;
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d) Long term;
e) With a deep sleep.
470. C.S. For hospitalized patients is used premedication: a)

Light;
b) Forte;
c) Medium;
d) Proportional with the importance and duration of the intervention;; e) All.
471. C.M. To get a poor (light) premedication in ambulatory conditions are used: a)
Minor non-hypnotic tranquilizers (diazepam, atarax);
b) Vagolitics (atropine);
c) Analgezics (dipidolor, phentanil);
d) antihistamines (dimedrol, suprastin, tavegil);
e) From case to case some of them.
472. C.M. When we choose the way of premedication and the drugs needed in
ambulatory conditions we follow:
a) Do not have unpleasant side effects;
b) To be administered gently (per os);
c) That the patient leaves the office after 2-3 hours without abnormal reactions;
d) Reduce anesthetic and surgery risk;
e) All these.
473. C.S. The moral and legal responsibility for anesthesia and the surgery always
belongs to:
a) The treating physician;
b) team of anesthetists;
c) patient;
d) The staff of the oral surgery cabinet;;
e) All.
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474. C.M. Steps of any type of general anesthesia are:

a) induction;
b) maintaining;
c) Awakening;
d) relaxation;
e) Hypnosis.
475. C.M. The particularities of general anesthesia in dentistry and oro-maxillo-facial surgery
are:
a) The field of activity of the dentist and anesthetist is common;
b) Some pathological processes (suppurations, tumors, fractures, etc.) are closely related to
the upper airways, deform the region's anatomy, flood the oral cavity with blood,
secretions, exacerbate reflexes;
c) Limiting mouth opening through trismus, temporomandibular constrictions, ankylosis,
lead to the adoption of special narcotic techniques (tracheostomy, intravenous);
d) Free airway maintenance is difficult to achieve (blood, secretions, foreign bodies,
compressions etc.);
e) Anesthesiologist must leave the head and neck for surgeon and choose another way.
476. C.M. In the indication and choice of general anesthetic substances, types of
anesthesia, the recovery of protective reflexes is an important objective, namely:
a) Dentists treat all ages, with various types of central nervous system, which explains the
need for in-depth knowledge of general anesthesia;
b) Specificity of speciality often leads to various risks of general anesthesia;;
c) Some risk factors are determined by the specificity of the oro-maxilo-facial region, the
semi-sedentary position, blood, saliva, pus, etc .;
d) Changes in the airways (edema, tumor, etc.) lead to difficult tracheal intubations, vagal
reflections;
e) Often patients have chronic general disorders, insufficiently investigated etc.
477. C.M. General anesthesia especially in oro-maxillo-facial surgery is indicated: a)

For the children;
b) For patients with allergic or intolerant local anesthesia;;
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c) For patients with neuropsychiatric and neuromotor deficiencies;

d) In septic evolutionary processes where local anesthesia can not be used;; e) Patient desire.
478. C.M. The quadruple of modern general anesthesia is: a)

analgesia;
b) Amnesia - Hypnosis;
c) Muscle relaxation;
d) Providing general homeostasis;
e) Awakening.
479. C.M. The basic in preparing the patient for general anesthesia is: a)
Detailed history and complete patient examination;
b) Psychological preparation;
c) Physical preparation;
d) Drug preparation (premedication);
e) Narcoza.
480. C.M. Methods of administration of general anesthesia are : a)

The inhalation method;
b) The intravenous method;
c) The intrarectal method;
d) The intramuscular method;
e) Combining multiple methods.
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RED: 06

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

81. MC. Choose the right statements about maxillary sinus:

82. MC. Clinical examination consists of:

83. MC. Anamnesis consists of:

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

84. MC. Which teeth have 2 roots?

85. MC. Choose the right statements about maxillary sinus:

A. It is the largest sinus

86. MC. Where is mental foramen located?

A. On the same vertical line with infraorbital foramen

87. MC. Choose the bones that form the orbit:

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

88. MC. Mandible is formed by:

89. MC. Which teeth might be in contact with maxillary sinus?

A. Second upper molar

90. MC. Choose the functions of the maxillary sinus:

A. Humidifying the air

91. MC. Choose the muscles that elevates the mandible:

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

92. MC. Choose the muscles that depress the mandible:

93. MC. Choose the mimic muscles:

94. MC. Mimic muscles are classified in:

95. MC. What are the branches of the trigeminal nerve:

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

96. MC. Biopsy is used to identify:

97. MC. Biopsy is done by:

98. MC. Advantages of OPG x-ray test:

99. MC. How many roots the upper premolars have?

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

100. MC. Choose the types of surgical dental treatment:

101. MC. What are the processes of the mandible?

103. MC. OMF surgery is closely cooperating with following departments:

A. ENT (ear, nose and throat)

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

106. MC. Surgeons hands should match following requirements:

107. MC. What are the levels of the face:

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

108. MC. Choose the bones of the facial skeleton:

109. MC. What are the fasciae of OMF region:

A. Superficial fascia of the face

110. MC. Choose the muscles of the neck:

111. MC. What are functions of mimic muscles:

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

112. MC. Choose the nerves that innervates the maxilla:

115. MC. Choose the processes of the maxilla:

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

116. MC. Clinical examination is made by:

117. MC. What arteries provide vascularization to OMF region?

118. MC. What are the steps of clinical examination?

119. MC. Methods of subjective examination:

Catedra de chirurgie OMF și implantologie DATA: 20.09.2017

120. MC. Paraclinical examination are:

121. MC. Lab tests required for an OMF pathology diagnosis:

A. Hemogram (complete blood count (CBC))

122. MC. By sterilization we can destroy:

123. MC. The most efficient methods of sterilization are:

A. Dry and moist heat