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SOLUTIONS for

Must Do Questions

A Questionnaire that covers all varieties and prepares


you for the placements

Page |1 Aptitude Department


Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
INDEX
Sr. Topic Page No.
No.
1 Numbers 3
2 Percentage 5
3 Profit and Loss 9
4 Ratio, Proportion and Variation 11
5 Interests 15
6 Problems on Ages 19
7 Average 22
8 Time and Work 26
9 Time Speed Distance 31
10 Mixture and Alligation 33
11 Permutation Combination 36
12 Probability 39
13 Progression NA
14 Number Series 41
15 Coding Decoding 43
16 Blood Relations 45
17 Direction Sense 49
18 Clocks and Calendars 53
19 Syllogism 60

Page |2 Aptitude Department


Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
NUMBER SYSTEM
1. Solution:
𝐿𝐶𝑀 × 𝐻𝐶𝐹 = 𝑎 × 𝑏
936 × 4 = 72 × 𝑏, => 𝑏 = 13 × 4 = 52. 𝑂𝑝𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 (𝑏) 𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡.

2. Solution:
LCM (2, 4, 5.5) = 44. Hence option d.

3. Solution:
544 = 171 × 25. Hence, the total number of factors of 544 is 2 × 6 =12. But we have to
count factors excluding 1 and 544. Thus, we need to remove 2 factors from this. The
required answer is 12 – 2 =10. Option (d) is correct.

4. Solution:
127 25 5
+ + = 31
5 5 5
5. Solution:
43197 1197
= 7 = 𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑟 = 1. Option (d) is correct.
7
6. Solution
The answer will be given by the HCF of 378 and 675.
378 = 2 × 33 × 7
675 = 33 × 52
Hence, HCF of the two is 33 = 27
378 675
Hence, the number of sections is given by: 27 + 27 = 14 + 25 = 39 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠.
Option c.
7. Solution:
From the property (used in the above question) we can say that the difference will be
divisible by 99, Remainder = 0 (zero), Option (a)

8. Solution:
(A+8)-(3+1)=A+4 is divisible by 11. Hence least value of A will be 7. Option c.
9. Solution:
They will ring together again after a time which would be the LCM of 6, 8, 12 and 18.
The required LCM = 72. Hence, they would ring together after 72 seconds. Option (a) is
correct.
10. Solution:
Unit digit = 5 × 7 × 1 = 35 → 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑑𝑖𝑔𝑖𝑡 = 5. Option d

11. Solution:
2256 1664 (−1)64
𝑟𝑒𝑚 = 17 𝑟𝑒𝑚 = 17 𝑟𝑒𝑚 = 1. Option b
17
12. Solution:
Greatest 4 digit number is 9999
Page |3 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Now LCM of 6, 9, 12, 17 is 612
9999
𝑟𝑒𝑚 = 207. So, the greatest 4 digit number is (9999 − 207) + 1 = 2793. Hence,
612
option b

13. Solution:
LCM (12, 15, 18, 20) = 180
So required number is 180 + 4 = 184. Hence, option c.

14. Solution:
80 11
+ 7 = 12. Hence option a.
7

15. Solution:
411 + 412 + 413 + 414 + 415 = 411 (1 + 4 + 16 + 64 + 256) = 411 × 341 which is
divisible by 341. Hence option c.

Page |4 Aptitude Department


Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
PERCENTAGE
1. Solution:
1
water removed percent = 20% => 5
1
water to be added back = 4 => 25%

2. Solution:
1
11.11% = 9
1
5% = 4
1 1
=> × × 72 = 2
9 4

3. Solution:
Area = ½ x base x height
Area is dependent on two variables, base and height. ( ½ is a constant)
Apply the formula of Successive Percentage Change
𝑎𝑏
=> 𝑎 + 𝑏 + =0
100
15 𝑏
=> 15 + b + =0
100

=> b = -13.04%

4. Solution:
Area = length x breadth
Area is dependent on two variables, length and height
Apply the formula of Successive Percentage Change
30𝑏
=> 30 − 𝑏 − = 17
100

=> 10%

5. Solution:
2 5
=> 40% and 2 = 250%
5

Page |5 Aptitude Department


Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
250−40
hence error = ∗ 100 = 84%
250

6. Solution:
Amrut got 10 marks less than pass marks and Nikhil got 30 marks more than
pass marks.
 Their marks differ by 40 marks
 Their percentage differ by 20%
 20% = 40 marks
 Passing marks = 40 + 10 = 50

7. Solution:
Let the value be x
9 9 9
According to the condition 10 ∗ ∗ ∗ 𝑥 = 26136
10 10

X = 36000

8. Solution:
Expenditure = Price x Consumption
4% ↑ = 30% ↑ x (b%) ↓
Expenditure depends on two variables, price and consumption
hence apply Successive Percentage Change
AB
C = A + B + 100
30 B
4 = 30 – B - 100

B = 20%

9. Solutoin:
Let the number be 1
correct multiplication result = 1 x 5/3 = 5/3
wrong multiplication result = 1 x 3/5 = 3/5
Error in calculation = 5/3 – 3/5 = 16/15

Page |6 Aptitude Department


Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
16
error 16×3
Percentage error = true value × 100 = 15
5 × 100 = 15×5 × 100 = 64%
3

Note: If you assume the number = LCM ( 3,5 ) = 15, then the calculation would be
very simple.

10. Solution:
let’s say the man has 100% money. He gave 20% to his wife. 80% of money is
left.
25% of 80% = 20% is given to his son. 60% of money is left.
60% is distributed equally among his four daughters. Each daughter gets 15%.
15% = 180k. His wife gets 20% = 240k

11. Solution:
let the total voters be = 100%
voters who cast the votes = 80%
Winner got 54.5% of the vote cast. It means looser got 45.5% of the vote cast.
Difference of the votes cast = 54.5% - 45.5% = 9% of votes cast = 180 votes
If 9% of votes cast = 180, then, 100% of votes cast = 2000
But votes cast is only 80% of the voters list.
hence 100% of the voters list = 2500
12. Solution:
Let the number of apples be 100.
On the first day he sells 60% apples i.e.,60 apples. Remaining apples =40.
He throws 15% of the remaining i.e., 15% of 40 = 6.Now he has 40 – 6 =34
apples
The next day he throws 50% of the remaining 34 apples i.e., 17.
Therefore in total he throws 6 + 17 = 23 apples
13. Solution:
Assume x=10%
After growth, new number of sheeps will be 1 million + 1 lakh = 11 lakh
After famine the decreased number of sheeps = 1 million = 10 lakh
Page |7 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
1 lakh
decrease % = y% = 11 lakh × 100 = 9.09%

Here, x = 10% and y = 9.09%


=> x > y
14. Solution:
Let total number of men = 100
Then,
20 men play football.
80 men are less than or equal to 50 years old.
Remaining 20 men are above 50 years old.
Number of football players above 50 years old = 20% of 20 = 4
Number of football players less than or equal to 50 years old = 20 – 4 = 16
16
Requires percentage = 20 × 100 = 80%

15. Solution:
Cost = Rs. 25
Tax = Rs 30/100
Let the cost of tax free item be = x
tax rate = 6%
30 6 30
=> (25 − 100 − 𝑥) × 100 = 100

=> 𝑥 = 19.7

Page |8 Aptitude Department


Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
PROFIT AND LOSS

1. 0.9 × Price = 495, Price 550.

2. The SP = 107.5% of the CP. Thus, CP = 34.4/1.075 = Rs 32.

3. 1.15 × Price = 4600; Price = 4000.

4. A loss of 20% means a cost price of 100 corresponding to a selling price of 80. CP as a percentage of
the SP would then be 125%

5. 2400 = 1.25 × cost price; Cost price = 1920 Profit at 2040 = Rs 120 Percentage profit = (120/2040) ×
100 = 6.25%

6. Sales tax = 120/5 =24. Thus, the SP contains Rs 24 component of sales tax. Of the remainder (120 – 24
= 96) 1/3 rd is the profit. Thus, the profit = 96/3 = 32. Cost price = 96 – 32 = 64.

7. C.P × 1.2 = 25 ; CP = 20.833 At a selling price of Rs 22.5, the profit percent 1.666/20.833 = 8%

8. Solve using options. Option (c) gives you Rs 175 as the cost of the trouser. Hence, the shirt will cost
12% more i.e. 175 + 17.5 + 3.5 = 196.
This satisfies the total cost requirement of Rs 371.

9. The formula that satisfies this condition is: Loss of a 2 /100% (Where a is the common profit and loss
percentage). Hence, in this case 400/100 = 4% loss.

10. 8% is the correct answer.

11. The cost per toffee = 75/125= Rs 0.6 = 60 paise. Cost of 1 million toffees = 600000.
But there is a discount of 40% offered on this quantity. Thus, the total cost for 1 million toffees is 60% of
600000 = 360000.

12. On a marked price of Rs 80, a discount of 10% would mean a selling price of Rs 72. Since this
represents a 20% profit we get: 1.2 × CP = 72 , CP = 60.
13. The thought process in this question would go as follows: 80 – 5% of 80 = 76 (after the first
discount). 76 – 5% of 76 = 76 – 3.8 = 72.2 (after the second discount)

14. For Rs 72, we can buy a dozen pair of gloves. Hence, for Rs 24 we can buy 4 pairs of gloves.

15. 100 ; 80 (after 20% discount) ; 72 (after 10% discount) ; 68.4 (after 5% discount). Thus, the single
discount which would be equivalent would be 31.6%.

16. Option A
Page |9 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Solution: In the case of milk & water. The milk amount is consider as 100. Now during the comparison of
water with milk, the water amount is taken as profit %.
See here :
MW
4:1.
100 : 25% profit
on selling milk on CP but he sold it 20% gain So: 25+20+ (25*20)/100= 50% total

17. Option B
Solution:
900 gms in place of 1000 gm So profit% is (1000-900)/900 * 100 = 100/9 % 10% Profit is on CP also So
required profit% is 10 + 100/9 + 10*(100/9)/100 – successive formula

18. Option E
Solution:
CP of 1000 gm = SP of 800 gm So gain% = (1000-800)/800 * 100 = 25%

19. Option C
Solution: Profit is 20%. So, 1000 gm + 20% of 1000 gm = 1200 gm so CP of 1200 gm = SP of 800 gm Sp
profit% = (1200-800)/800 * 100 = 50%

20. Option E
Solution: A to B to C A to B 10% loss, 10% = 1/0. So SP for A = 10-1 = 9 B to C 11.11% loss, 11.11% = 1/9,
so SP for B = 9-1 = 8 C to A 12.5% profit, 12.5% = 1/8, so SP for C or CP for A = 1+8 = 9 A first sold to B at
9, and after he got from C at 9, so no profit no loss

P a g e | 10 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
RATIO AND PROPORTION
1. Solution:
We have, 7x + 2x + 5x + 4x = 72
 18x = 72 x=4
So, largest part 7x = 7*4 = 28

2. Solution:
LCM (3x,4x) = 12x
12x = 180, x = 15
first number, 3x = 3 x 15 = 45

3. Solution:
We have, milk: water = 5: 4
5𝑥 5
So, 4𝑥+6 = 6  6*5x = 5(4x + 6)  x = 3

So, quantity of milk 5x = 5*3 = 15 litres

4. Solution:
Let the third number be x.
So, First number = 1.5x and second number = 1.8x
1st number : 2nd number = 5: 6

5. Solution:
Let the salaries of Kunal and Soham be Rs.4x and Rs.5x respectively.
4𝑥+15000 11
So, 5𝑥+15000 = 13  13(4x + 15000) = 11(5x + 15000)  x = 10000

Soham’s salary = Rs.5x = Rs.50,000

6. Solution:
Hindi: Marathi: English = 5: 3: 6
The ratio of increased seats = 5*1.35 : 3*1.5 : 6*1.75 = 9: 6: 14

P a g e | 11 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
7. Solution:
𝑥1 𝑦13
since 𝑥 ∝ 𝑦 3 , 𝑥2 = 𝑦23
7 23
= 43
𝑥2

𝑥2 = 56

8. Solution:
A:B = 3:4, B:C = 5:3
Apply scaling
A:B:C = 15:20:12

9. Solution:
Initial values are 5, 15 and 25.
Thus we have 5 × 15 = K × 25.
Hence, K = 3.
Thus, the equation is AB = 3C.
For the problem, keep C constant at 25. Then, A × 9 = 3 × 25.
i.e. A = 75/9 = 8.33

10. Solution:
Suppose, initially the baskets are containing 9, 12 and 15 apples.
The new ratio is 5: 4: 3.
Now we are adding the number of apples in first two baskets only
That means the number of apples in the third basket remains the same.
 3y = 15 y=5
So, the number of apples in first two baskets are 25 and 20 respectively.
Increase in 1st basket = 25 – 9 = 16
And increase in 2nd basket = 20 – 12 = 8
So, the ratio in which the number of apples in 1st two baskets are increased is 16: 8
i.e. 2: 1

P a g e | 12 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
11. Solution:
X: Y: Z = 2: 3: 5
We have, 3x + 5x = 8000  x = 1000
Salary of X = 2x = 2000
Salary of Y = 3x = 3000
And Salary of Z = 5x = 5000
Z – X = 5000 – 2000 = 3000
3000
So, % difference = ∗ 100 = 150%
2000

12. Solution:
We have, 4P = 7Q = 3R  P: Q: R = 21: 12: 28
R’s share = 28/61 * 854 = Rs.392

13. Solution:
We have, 1 leap of cat = 2 leaps of rabbit.
Here, the distance covered by both is same.
Suppose they cover 4 km.
So, 1 leap of cat = 4 km and 1 leap of rabbit = 2 km.
Now cat takes 3 leaps for every 4 leaps of a rabbit
So, distance covered by cat = 12 km and the distance covered by rabbit = 8 km in the
same time
So, their speed ratio = 12: 8 = 3: 2

14. Solution:
Let A, B, C be the three cricketers.
Now we have, A’s runs : B’s runs = 5: 6
And B’s runs : C’s runs = 3: 4
So, A : B: C = 5: 6: 8

P a g e | 13 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Runs scored by B = 6/19 * 95 = 30

15. Solution
4E+3M+5C=3650
3C=2M, M=(3/2)C
3E=2C, E= (2/3)C
2 3
(4 × 3 𝐶) + (3 × 2 𝐶) + 5𝐶 = 3650

C=300
M= (3/2) 300 = 450

P a g e | 14 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
INTERESTS
1. Solution:
Let the part lent at 5% be Rs. x
𝑥∗5∗2 (1250−𝑥)∗10∗4
We have, =  x = (1250 – x)*4  x = 1000
100 100

So, the second sum is = 1250 – 1000 = Rs. 250

2. Solution:
Let X = equal installment at the end of one year ( rate% annually) .
Now 1st year,
P =600,
Interest = PTR/100 = 600 *0.1 = 60.
Let X is to be paid as an equal installment.
Now, at the beginning of 2nd year,
P =600 + 60 - X,
Interest at the end of 2nd year,
= (660-X)*0.1 = 66 - 0.1X.
Hence, total installment,
2X = 600+60+66 - 0.1X,
X = 7260/21 = 345.7.

3. Solution:
Lets find out the CI on 5000 for 2 years at 12% first.
12 2
CI = 5000 [1 + ] – 5000
100

= 1272
Now, let the sum placed on simple interest be Rs. x
We have, 1272 = 2(x * 3 * 10/100)
 636 * 10/3 = x  x = Rs.2120

P a g e | 15 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
4. Solution:
𝑅 2 𝑅
Difference = P(100) (3 + 100)

20 2 20
432 = P (100) (3 + 100)

432 = P * 16 / 125
P = 432 * 125 / 16 = Rs.3375

5. Solution:
Let the money borrowed be Rs. x
We have, SI = PRT/ 100
So, 2520 = (P*5*3)/100 + (P * 7 * 4)/100 + (P * 10 * 2)/100
252000 = (15 + 28 + 20) P
P = Rs. 4000

6. Solution:
Excess money obtained = 3 years @ 4% per annum = 12% of whole money
So, according to the question, 12% = 480
So, 100% (Principal) = 4000

7. Solution:
Let the principal be x and rate = r%.
Then, difference in between the interest of 5 years and of 2 years equals to
800 – 704 = 96
So, interest for 3 years = 96
Hence, interest/year = 96/3 = 32
So, interest for 2 years = 2 × 32 = 64
So, the principal = 704 – 64 = 640

8. Solution:
Let the rate of interest be R%.

P a g e | 16 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
We have, SI = PRT /100
So, 2100 = (1250 * 6 * R)/100 + (1500 * 5 * R)/100
210000 = (1250 * 6 + 1500 * 5) R
210000 = 15000 R R = 14%
9. Solution:
Let the sum be Rs. X and the arte of interest be R%
We have, 450 = [X * (R + 3) * 4]/100 – [X * R * 4]/100
450 = [4XR + 12X – 4XR] / 100
45000 = 12X  X = 3750

10. Solution:
Initial Principle = 150
Amount = 300 in 4 years.
So, now the principle is 300
And it will take 4 more years to become 600.

11. Solution:
Let the sum be Rs.100 at simple interest.
Interest = 50, Principle = 100, Time = 5 years, Rate = ?
SI = PRT/100
50 = 100 * 5 * R/100  R = 10%
Sum = 15000, Rate = 10%, Time = 3 years, CI = ?
3
 10 
CI  15000 1   15000  CI = Rs.4965
 100 

12. Solution:
Let the number of years = rate of interest = x
Principle = 1700, Interest = 612
612 1700* x * x/100  x2  612 /17  36  x  6

P a g e | 17 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
13. Solution:
For any amount, interest for the 1st three years @ 6% SI will be equal to 6 × 3 =
18%
Again, interest for next 4 years will be equal to 7 × 4 = 28%.
And interest for next 4 years (till 11 years) –7.5 × 4 = 30%
So, total interest = 18 + 28 + 30 = 76%
So, total interest earned by him = 76% of the amount = 912

14. Solution:
Let principal = x, then interest = x, time = 12 years.
Using the formula, Rate = (Interest × 100)/Principal × Time
= (x × 100)/(x × 12) = 8.33%

15. Solution:
Simple interest and compound interest for the first year on any amount is the same.
Difference in the second year’s interest is due to the fact that compound interest is
calculated over the first year’s interest also.
Hence, we can say that 72 = Interest on first year’s interest that is 12% on first
year’s interest = 72.
Hence, first year’s interest = 600 which should be 12% of the original capital.
Hence, original capital = 5000

P a g e | 18 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
PROBLEMS ON AGES
1. Solution:
Let the present age of B be x years.
So, A’s present age is (x + 10) years.
Now by given condition, A + 8 = 3(B – 8)  x + 10 + 8 = 3x – 24  x = 21
So, Present age of B is 21 years.

2. Solution:
Let the age of son be x years.
So, age of Suresh is 5x.
Ages 6 years ago were (x-6) and (5x – 6) respectively.
5x – 6 = 8(x – 6)  x = 14
So, present age of son is 14 years.

3. Solution:
Let the age of Geeta be x years.
So, the age of Seeta is 3x.
By given condition, Seeta + Geeta = 80  3x + x = 80  x = 20
Sum of the ages 4 years hence = x+ 4 + 3x + 4 = 24 + 64 = 88

4. Solution:
Average age of 12 students = 15
So, sum of their ages = 12*15 = 180
When 5 more students added, the new average becomes 16
So, new sum is 17*16 = 272
Sum of the ages of new students = 272 – 180 = 92
Average age of new students = 92/5 = 18.4 years.

5. Solution:
Let the age of youngest child be x years.
So, x + x + 2 + x + 4 + x + 6 + x + 8 + x + 10 = 54
 6x = 54 – 30  6x = 24 x=4

6. Solution:
Ravi’s present age = 15 years.
5 years ago, Ravi = ¼ Rohan  15 – 5 = ¼ Rohan  Rohan = 10*4 = 40years.

7. Solution:
Present age of Rupesh = 47 – 9 = 38 years.
Age of Suresh = 38 – 18 = 20 years
Also by given condition, Nitin - Suresh = Rupesh  Nitin - 20 = 38  Nitin = 58
So, 4: x = 20: 58  x = 58/5 = 11.6 years

8. Solution:
Mohan = 3 years, Girish = 3 + 2 = 5 years.
By given condition, (Ashish – 4)/12 = 5  Ashish = 64 years
9. Solution:
P a g e | 19 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Suppose, x years ago the ration a 5: 2
So, (45 – x): (30 – x) = 5: 2  x = 20 years.

10. Solution:
Let the age of the mother be x years.
So, Kavita’s age = 1/5 x
After 9 years, (1/5)x + 9 = (1/3) (x + 9)  x = 45 years.

11. Let the age of first child be X, then, the next child will be x+5 years and so on.

x + (X+5) + (x+10) + (x+15) + (x+20) = 60


5X + 50 = 60
X= 2
Youngest child be 2 years old.

12. Let Sunil’s age 5 years back be ‘X’

Therefore, his present age would be X+5

Now, after 15 years = (X+5)+15 = 5times X

X+20= 5X
X= 5 (age five years back)

Present age= X+5= 5+5 =10

13. Let Gaurav’s 4 years back age be ‘X’

Present age would be X+4

After 10 Years= (X+4)+10= X + 14

will be,

X+14 = 3 times X

X+ 14 = 3X
X= 7

Present age= X+4 = 7+4 = 11

14. Let the age of A 10 years back be X, therefore B’s age would be 2X

Present ages of A and B will be, X+10 and 2X + 10, which are in the ratio 3:4

X+10/2X+10 = ¾
X= 5,

P a g e | 20 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Present age total= X+10 + 2X+10 = 5+10+10+10= 35

15. Eq.1 F= 29+B


Eq-2. M= S+25
Eq.3 B=S+2

Family’s age after 6 years= 20*5 =100


Present age= 100- (5*6)= 70

From Eq.3 and Eq. 2


M=B+23
F=B+29

70=(B+23)+(B+29)+(B)+(B-2)
70= 4B+50
B= 5

Therefore,
M=B+23
M= 5+23 = 28

P a g e | 21 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
AVERAGES
1. Solution:
As the average weight increases by 2.5, the total increase in sum = 2.5*6 = 15
So, the weight of new person = 72 + 15 = 87 kg

2. Solution:
Let the smallest number be x
As average of the numbers is 25, the total sum of the numbers is 25*5 = 125
So, x + x + 1 + x + 2 + x + 3 + x + 4 = 125
 5x + 10 = 125  x = 115  x = 23
So, the largest number is 27.

3. Solution:
As the mean is 26, the total sum = 40*26 = 1040
But, in this total 38 was wrongly written as 13, so the sum should be increased by
25.
So, the actual sum = 1040 + 25 = 1065.
So, the corrected mean = 1065/40 = 26.6

4. Solution:
Average of 13 numbers = 11.8
Total sum = 13*11.8 = 153.4
Average of first 7 numbers = 13.5  Sum = 7*13.5 = 94.5
Average of last 7 numbers = 10.4  Sum = 7*10.4 = 72.8
Middle number = (94.5 + 72.8) – 153.4 = 13.9

5. Solution:
Average age of the husband and wife = 26 years
So, sum of their ages = 26*2 = 52 years

P a g e | 22 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
After 5 years the sum of ages of husband and wife would be 52+10 = 62 years.
So, now the average of the ages of husband wife and their child is,
(62 + 1)/3 = 63/3 = 21 years

6. Solution:
Let’s assume that there were x number of papers.
So, by first condition, the total marks are 53x.
And by second condition, the total marks are 58x.
So, we have, 53x + 25 = 58x  5x = 25 x=5

7. Solution:
Arithmetic mean of 65 numbers is 45.
 Sum of the numbers = 65*45 = 2925
Now each number is increased by 5.
So, the sum is increased by 65*5 = 325
The mean of new numbers = (2925 + 325)/65 = 50

8. Solution:
Average price of 12 books is Rs.15
Total sum of the prices = 12*15 = 180 rs.
Average price of 10 books is Rs. 10.5
Total sum of the prices = 10*10.5 = 105 Rs.
Let’s assume that the price of one of the two books is Rs. x
So, price of the 2nd book is 1.5x
Now we have, 105 + x + 1.5x = 180  x = 30
So, the prices of the two books are Rs. 30 and Rs. 45 respectively.

9. Solution:
Average of 9 numbers = 4.25  sum of the numbers = 9*4.25 = 38.25
Average of 3 of them = 4.5  sum of these 3 numbers = 3*4.5 = 13.5

P a g e | 23 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
And the average of the other 3 is 4.85  sum of these 3 numbers = 3*4.85 =
14.55
So, the sum of the remaining 3 numbers = 38.25 – (13.5 + 14.55) = 10.2
Average of the remaining 3 numbers = 10.2/3 = 3.4

10. Solution:
Average age of 17 students is 18 years
Sum of their ages = 17*18 = 306
Average of 10 students is 18 years  sum of the ages = 10*18 = 180
And the average of 6 other students is 17  sum of the ages = 17*6 = 102
The age of 15th student = 306 – (180 + 102) = 24 years.

11. Solution:
Let the average after 17th innings= x
Then average after 16th innings = ( x – 3 )
=> 16 ( x – 3 ) + 87 = 17x
=> x = 39

12. Solution:
Let the original average expenditure be Rs.x, then
42 ( x – 1 ) – 35x = 42
=> x = 12
=> original expenditure = 35 × 12 = 420

13. Solution:
Let the average expenditure of all the nine be = 𝑥
=> (12 × 8) + (𝑥 + 8) = 9𝑥
=> 𝑥 = 13
=> Total money spent = 9𝑥 = 9 × 13 = 117

P a g e | 24 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
14. Solution:
Total temperature on Wednesday, Thursday and Friday was = 25 × 3 = 75℃
Total temperature on Thursday, Friday and Saturday was = 24 × 3 = 72℃
Hence, difference between the temperature on Wednesday and Saturday= 3℃
If Saturday temperature= 27℃, then Wednesday's temperature = 27 + 3 = 30℃

15. Solution:
At present the total age of the family = 5 × 20 = 100
The total age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member = 100 − 10 −
(10 × 4) = 50
50
Therefore, average age of the family at the time of birth of the youngest member = 4
= 12.5

P a g e | 25 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
TIME & WORK
1. Solution: TIME * RATE = WORK
Ram Shyam R+S
TIME 40 2(2/3) 16
RATE 4 6 6+4
WORK 160 160 160

2. Solution: TIME * RATE = WORK


P+Q+R P Q R
TIME 24 60 72 90
RATE 15 6 5 4
WORK 360 360 360 360

3. Solution: TIME * RATE = WORK


X X+Y Y
TIME 35 27 14
RATE 2 5 3
WORK 70 135 42

4. Solution: TIME * RATE = WORK


Sam Ronit Sam + Ronit Sam + Johnny Johnny
TIME 24 30 6 11 120
RATE 5 4 5+4 6 6 – 5 =1
WORK 120 120 54 120 – 54 = 66 120

5. Solution: TIME * RATE = WORK


A+B B+C C+A A + B+ C
TIME 45 30 50 26(8/17)
RATE 10 15 9 34/2 = 17

P a g e | 26 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
WORK 450 450 450 450

6. Solution: TIME * RATE = WORK


P Q P Q
TIME 15 20 1 1
RATE 4 3 4 3
WORK 60 60 4 3
We can conclude that, in 2 days (4 + 3 = 7) units can be completed.
So, in (2*8 = 16) days, (7 * 8 = 56) units can be completed.
In last 17th days P will finish the work completing last 4 units.
So, total time required to finish the work is 17 days.

7. Solution: TIME * RATE = WORK

Ritu Nitu R+N


TIME 12 16 6
RATE 4 3 7
WORK 48 48 42
Fraction of work left = (48 – 42)/48 = 6/ 48 = 1/8

8. Solution: TIME * RATE = WORK


X Y X+Y X
TIME 20 25 5 11
RATE 5 4 9 5
WORK 100 100 45 55
So, the whole work was completed in (11 + 5) = 16 days.

9. Solution: TIME * RATE = WORK


P Q R P+R Q
TIME 24 10 12 4 5
P a g e | 27 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
RATE 5 12 10 15 12
WORK 120 120 120 60 60

10. Solution: TIME * RATE = WORK


X Y Z X+Y+Z Y+Z
TIME 8 10 16 2  2.5
RATE 1250 1000 625 2875 1625
WORK 10000 10000 10000 5750 4250

11. Solution:
M1 D1 H1 M2 D2 H2
= here w = Length x Breadth x Height
W1 W2
20×10×8 25×D2×12
= 400×10×15
200×10×20

D2 = 8

12. Solution:
Total work to be done = 8 × 12 = 96 man-days.
or total work to be done = 20 × 10 = 200 woman-days.
Since, the work is the same, we can equate 96 man-days = 200 woman-days
12 man-days = 25 woman-days
so 12 men + 15 women = 25 women + 15 women = 40 women
200 woman−days
Time = = 5 days
40 waman

13. Solution:
In order to complete the work in time, the contractor has to finish the remaining
60% of
the work in 25 days.
Now, in the first 25 days the work done = 50 × 25 =1250 man-days that is 40% of
the work.

P a g e | 28 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Hence, work left = 60% of the work = 1875 man-days.
Since, 25 days are left to complete the task, the number of people required is
1875/25 = 75 men.
Since, 50 men are already working, 25 more men are needed to complete the work.

14. Solution:
For this purpose, we have to do 1875 man-days of work in 15 days. Hence, men =
1875/15 = 125
men. Since, 50 men are already working, 75 more men are needed to complete the
work

15. Solution:
Rate A:B = 2:1
Time A:B = 1:2
Work = 2 unit
Time together = 2/3 unit = 30 days
Time for A = 1 unit = 30/(2/3) = 45 days
Time for B = 2 unit = 45 x 2 = 90 days

16. Work = 10 men x 18 days (1)


Work = 15 women x 18 days (2)
after equating we get 2M = 3W
2M and 3W are working i.e. 4M are working
Consider any work from either equation 1 or 2
Let’s consider (1)
Work = 10M x 18 days = 180 men days
Time = 180 men days / 4 men = 45 days

17. Work = ( 6M + 12W ) 4.5 days (1)


Work = ( 4M + 16W ) 6 days (2)
Equating both
M = 14W
Let’s consider equation 2
Work = ( 4M + 16W ) 6 days
Work = ( 56W + 16W ) 6 days

P a g e | 29 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Work = (72 x 6) women days
Since 6 women are working,
Time = (72 x 6) women days / 6 women = 72 days

18. Work = 8M x 12 days (1)


Work = 20W x 10 days (2)
Equating both
12M = 25W
12 men and 15 women are working, i.e. 40 women are working
Let’s consider equation 2
Work = 20W x 10 days = 200 women days
Time = 200 women days / 40 women = 5 days

19. Work = 40 boys x 60 days = 2400 boys days


40 boys work for 10 days = 400 boys days
80 boys work for next 10 days = 400 boys days + 800 boys days = 1200 boys days
120 boys work for next 10 days = 1200 boys days + 1200 boys days = 2400 boys days
2400 boys days got over in 30 days

20. Work = ( 25M + 15W ) 12 days (1)


Work done = ( 25M + 15W ) 8 days
8 days work out of 12 days work have been done
Had the women not left, the work would get over in 4 days. But it took 6 days. It means 25M
worked for 2 days extra to take care of the 15W’s 4 days work
So,
25M x 2 days = 15W x 4 days
5M = 6W
Let’s consider equation 1
Work = ( 25M + 15W ) 12 days = ( 30W + 15W ) 12 days = ( 45W ) 12 days = 540 women days
Only 1 woman is working,
Time = 540 women days / 1 woman = 540 days

P a g e | 30 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Time Speed Distance
1. Solution:
Let his usual time be 𝑡.
3
Then 𝑠𝑡 = 4 𝑠(𝑡 + 16) => 𝑡 = 48 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠
2. Solution:
45
First train must have covered 60 × 100 = 75 𝑘𝑚. So initial distance between them is
75 75 75
75 km. Time to meet = 136−110 = 36 ℎ𝑟. Distance from Delhi is = 36 × 100 + 75 =
283.33
3. Solution:
𝑊𝑎𝑙𝑘 + 𝐶𝑎𝑟 = 6ℎ𝑟 45 𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝐶𝑎𝑟 + 𝐶𝑎𝑟 = 4 ℎ𝑟 45 𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝑆𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑖𝑛𝑔: 𝑊𝑎𝑙𝑘𝑖𝑛 + 𝑊𝑎𝑙𝑘𝑖𝑛𝑔 = 8 ℎ𝑟 45𝑚𝑚𝑖𝑛
4. Solution:
650+940
Average Speed = 15 = 106
5. Solution:
20(𝑡 + 10) = 25(𝑡 + 4)
30
Solving this we get, 𝑡 = 20 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠. Distance = 20 × 60 = 10 𝑘𝑚
6. Solution:
Let ratio of speeds be 𝑠1 : 𝑠2 = 𝑑1 : 𝑑2
80 4𝑠2
 𝑠 = 9×80 => 𝑠2 = 120
2
7. Solution:
Let the speed be 𝑥 km/h.
300 300
Then, 𝑥 − 𝑥+5 = 2
Solving this we get, 𝑥 = 25
8. Solution:
Kalu’s speed = 3 m/s.
For 1200 m, Kalu would take 400 seconds and Sambhu would take 10 seconds less.
Hence, 390 seconds.
9. Solution:
Let each of the distance interval be 60 km.
180
Average Speed = 6+3+1 = 18 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
10. Solution:
Dimeter of the circle = √6002 + 8002 = 1000𝑚
11. Solution:
When Ram runs 2000 m, Shyam runs (1800 – 30s)
When Ram runs 1000 m, Shyam runs (2000 – 180s).
Then: 2000/1000 =
Solving, we get s = 6.66 m/s. Thus, Shyam’s speed = 400 m/minute and he would
take 5 minutes to cover the distance. Option (b) fits.
P a g e | 31 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
12. Solution:
(40 − 20)5
𝐿= × 36 = 200𝑚
18
13. Solution:
(50 − 30)5
𝐿= × 18 = 100𝑚 = 0.1 𝑘𝑚
18
14. Solution:
Without Stoppages the train travels 15 km. So the time taken in stoppages per hour
15
is 75 ℎ𝑟 = 12 𝑚𝑖𝑛
15. Solution:
10 10
Trip from A to B and back: 3−𝑟 − 3+𝑟 = 8 => 𝑟 = 2
If the trip from A to B to be completed in 100 minutes that is 5/3 hours then,
5
10 = (𝑏 + 2) => 𝑏 = 4
3

P a g e | 32 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Mixtures and Alligations

1. Solution:
18*3x  23*2 x 54  46 100
Price of mixture =    Rs.20
5x 5 5

2. Solution:

Ratio of girls to boys = 1: 2


So, number of boys = 2/3 * 30 = 20

3. Solution:

The quantity sold at 21% profit = 6/10*1000 = 600 kg

4. Solution:

5. Solution:
Let the CP of spirit be Rs.1 per litre.
So, SP f mixture is Rs.1 per litre and expected gain is 25%
100 4
CP of mixture = 1*  per litre.
125 5

P a g e | 33 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
1
So, % of water = *100  20%
5

6. Solution:
Average speed of the total journey = 100/10 = 10 kmph

So, distance travelled on foot, 6*6 = 36 km

7. Solution:

Here, 1 --------- 5
So, Number of wickets taken before the last match = 35*5 = 175

8. Solution:
5
5 x  *9  9
12 9
  x3
7 7
7 x  *9
12
Initial quantity of diesel = 7x = 7*3 = 21 litres

9. Solution:
Suppose a vessel contains 80 litres of mixture initially.
So, it contains 50 litres of pulp and 30 litres of water.
Now let’s assume that x litres of mixture should be replaced with water.
5
50  x
8 1
Then we have,   x  16
3
30  x  x 1
8
So, the part of mixture to be replaced with water = 16/80 = 1/5

10. Solution:
In180 litres of mixture, water is 20% (36 litres) and alcohol is 80% (144 litres)
Suppose x litres of water should be added to the mixture to make it 25%

P a g e | 34 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
36  x 25
Then,   x  12litres
144 75

11. Solution:
Applying the allegation gives the ratio of mixture = 2:3
So 2/5 is 40kg
then 3/5 is = 60kg

12. Solution:
SP of mixture = 4.4
Profit = 10%
CP of mixture = 4
Alligation of 3.6 and 4.2 with 4 gives the ratio = 1:2
2 represents 8kg
so 1 represents 4kg

13. Solution:
Alligation of 20% water with Pure 100% water to form a mixture of 25% water
Ratio = 15:1
15 represents 125 gallons
1 represents 125/15 = 8.33 gallons

14. Solution:
Total interest of 960 from 5 years, 192 from 1 year
192 is 5.33% of 3600
So it is allegation of 4% and 6% to have a mixture of 5.33%
the ratio is 1:2
Money lent on 4% = 1/3 of 3600 = 1200

15. Solution:
It is allegation of 60% and 80% to form a mixture of 65%
Ratio is 3:1
Girls appeared = ¼ of 400 = 100

P a g e | 35 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Permutations and Combinations

1. Solution:
Thousand’s place can be occupied by any of the 5 digits hence -> 5 ways
Hundred’s place can be occupied by any one of the remaining 4 digits hence ->4 ways
Unit’s place can be occupied by any of the remaining digits hence -> 3 ways
So, total number of 3-digits = 5 × 4 × 3 = 60 ways. Option c.

2. Solution:
Since each student can get any number of prizes.
So, number of ways = 5 × 5 × 5 × … 8 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑠 = 58 . Option b.

3. Solution:
Total number of ways = 5 × 4 = 20. Option a

4. Solution:
There exists only one road between any pair of cities. Hence, number of straight roads
12×11
connecting the cities is 12C2 = 2
= 66 . Option a.

5. Solution:
Number of straight lines = 25C2-7C2+1 = 280
Number of triangles = 25C3 -7C3 = 2265
Number of Quadrilaterals = 25C2 × 7C2 + 25C3 × 7C1 + 25C4 = 1230. Option a.

6. Solution:
Selection of 3 consonants out of 8 = 8C3 ways
Selection of 2 vowels out of 5 = 5C2 ways
Number of words = 8C3 × 5C2 × 5! = 56 × 10 × 120 = 67200. Option a.

7. Solution:
Let number of teams be 𝑛.
Then number of matches = nC2
𝑛(𝑛−1)
nC2 = 45 => 2
= 45 => 𝑛 = 10. Option b.

P a g e | 36 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
8. Solution:
8!
No. of words starting with A = (2!×3!) = 3360.
8!
No. of words starting with B = 2!×4! = 840
8!
No. of words starting with D = 2!×4! = 840
8!
No. of words starting with H = 2!×4! = 840
Now words with L start.
6!
No. of words starting with LAA = 2! = 180
Now LAB starts and first word starts with LABA.
No. of words starting with LABAA = 4! = 24
After this the next words will be LABADAAHL, LABADAALH, LABADAHAL, LABADAHLA
and hence, Option (a) is the answer.

9. Solution:
The arrangement can by either VCVCVCVC or CVCVCVCV
There are exactly 3 vowels and 3 consonants.
Hence, number of ways = 2 × 3! × 3! = 72. Option b

10. Solution:
𝑛(𝑛−3)
Number of diagonals of a polygon, = 44 => 𝑛 = 11. Hence option b.
2

11. Solution:
There are (4+4) members altogether.
President can be selected out of 8 members in = 8 ways
Vice-President can be selected from the remaining 7 members in = 7 ways
Secretaries can be selected from the remaining 6 members in = 6C3 ways = 20 ways
Total number of ways = 8 × 7 × 20 = 1120 ways. Option b.

12. Solution:
For one pair of black shoes we require one left black and one right black. Consider the
worst case situation:
7LB + 5LW + 5RW + 1RB or
7RB + 5LW + 5RW + 1LB = 18 shoes. Option d.

13. Solution:
P a g e | 37 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
7!
Total arrangements = = 2520
2!
2520
Number of arrangements where T always come before L = = 1260. Option a.
2

14. Solution:
Divisibility by 4 depends on last 2 digits of a number.
So, the possible pairs are 12, 32, 52, 24 and 44 i.e., 5 possible pairs.
So, the number of possible 5 digit numbers are 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 54 . Option a.

15. Solution:
There are 9 horizontal lines and 9 vertical lines in a chess board.
Hence, number of rectangles = 9C2 × 9C2 = 1296

P a g e | 38 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Probability

1. Solution:
Prime numbers = {2, 3, 5}, Composite = {4, 6}
2×3×2 1
So, probability of getting one prime and one composite = = 3 = 0.33. Option c
36

2. Solution:
The event definition here is: 1st bag and black ball OR 2nd Bag and Black Ball. The
chances of picking up either the 1st OR the 2nd Bag are 1/2 each.
Besides, the chance of picking up a black ball from the first bag is 6/14 and the chance of
picking up a black ball from the second bag is 7/11.
Thus, using these values and the ANDs and ORs we get:
1 6 1 7 3 7 66 + 98 164 41
( ) × ( ) + ( ) × ( ) = ( ) + ( )= = =
2 14 2 11 14 22 308 308 77

3. Solution:
𝑁𝑜.𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑑𝑠 ℎ𝑎𝑣𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑁𝑂𝑊
The required probability will be given by the equation = 𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑛𝑜.𝑜𝑓 𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑑𝑠
5! 1
= 7! = 42

4. Solution:
The event is occurring under the following situations:
(a) Second is a boy and third is a girl OR
(b) Second is a girl and third is a boy OR
(c) Second is a boy and third is a boy
1 1 1 1 1 1 3
This will be represented by: (2) × (2) + (2) × (2) + (2) × (2) = 4. Option a.
5. Solution:
7
First draw, Probability = 10
6
Second draw, probability = 9
7 6 7
Net probability = 10 × 9 = 15. Option d.
6. Solution:
3 1 1 97
Pass in at least one subject = 5 + 3 − 8 = 120. Option a
7. Solution:
Sum being 4 or less are 4, 3 and 2. Number of conditions are 3+2+1=6
Hence one of the dice being 2, conditions are (2,2), (2,1), (1,2) that is 3 conditions.
3 1
Hence probability is 6 = 2. Option b.
8. Solution:
P a g e | 39 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
At least 4 tails means (5T,0H) and (4T, 1H)
1+5 6 3
Probability = = 32 = 16. Option d
32
9. Solution:
Sum being 6 with odd numbers on both are (1,5) (5,1), (3,3)
3
Hence probability = 5. Option d
10. Solution:
3 3 9
Probability = 5 × 7 = 35. Option b.
11. Solution:
4×4×4 16
Probability = = 5525. Option a
52𝐶2
12. Solution:
A non- leap year has 365 days with 52 weeks and 1 extra day. So there are 52 confirmed
Sundays.
1
So, it will have 53 Sundays depends on that extra day. Hence probability = 7. Option a
13. Solution:
Total possible combinations = 11C4 =330
Number of conditions with 3 girls = 5C3 x 6C1 =60
60 2
Hence Probability = 330 = 11. Option d.
14. Solution:
Conditions for sum being 6 or 9 = 5+4=9
9 1
Hence probability = 36 = 4. Option b
15. Solution:
Area of the square = 100
If the coin is to fall within the square then its center should lie within 3 cm inside each
edge, i.e., within 4 by 4 square.
16
Hence probability = = 100 = 0.16. Option a.

P a g e | 40 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
NUMBER SERIES

Find out the next term in the series


1. 21
2. Cube of 7 = 343
3. Next prime number 47
4. Square of 10 = 100
5. 729 x 3 = 2187
6. The difference are consecutive prime number = 29 + 11 = 40
7. N!, where N is a natural number. 6! = 720
8. Next prime number = 37
9. The difference are 289, 225, 169, 121
so the next difference will be 81. Hence 179-81=98
10. difference 4, 9, 16, 25, 36
so 68 + 36 = 104
11. 5x1 + 1
6x2 + 2
14x3 + 3
45x4 + 4
184x5 + 5 = 925
12. Alternate series 54, 60, 66, 72 and 48, 54, 60
13. 16 x 0.5
8x1
8 x 1.5
12 x 2
24 x 2.5 = 60
14. 6x2 + 1
13x2 + 2
28x2 + 3
59x2 + 4
122x2 + 5 = 249
15. 34 + 3 + 4 = 41
41 + 4 + 1 = 46
46 + 4 + 6 = 56
56 + 5 + 6 = 67
67 + 6 + 7 = 80
16. 6x2 – 2 = 10
10x3 – 3 = 27
27x4 – 4 = 104
104x5 – 5 = 515
17. 18x2 – 2 = 34
34x2 + 2 = 70
70x2 – 2 = 138
138x2 + 2 = 278
18. the differences are 8, 27,125, 343
so 44 + 125 = 169
19. 8x1.5 = 12
12x2.5 = 30
P a g e | 41 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
30x3.5 = 105
105x4.5 = 472.5
20. 11 = 1
22 = 4
33 = 9
44 = 256
55 = 3125

P a g e | 42 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Coding Decoding

Directions(1-5):

Words: Codes
Banks : Ki
Money : Si
Today : Zi
Digital : Ti
Easy : Bi
Are : Li
Transfer/Through : Di/Fi
We/Have/Leave : Xi/Vi/Gi

Directions(6-10):

Words : Codes
World : Nk
Economy : Sk
Current : Pk
Challenging : Rk
Now : Tk
With : Dk
Looking/Good : Mk/Vk
Bad/Issues : Fk/GK

Q11. Option C

S D 9 5 E # K 6T I 8 P 1 % A 2 C λ LM U 3W @ N 4 © T $ 7 F B.

Q12. Option D
S D 9 5 E # K 6 T I 8 P 1 % A 2 C λ L MU 3 W @ N 4 © J $ 7 F B
Interchanged : M L λ C 2 A % 1 P 8I T 6 K # E 5 9 D S U3 W @ N 4 © J $ 7 F B
Hence, the 8th to the left of 20th element from left end is, T

Q13. Option C
E---(+2)---=K---(+3) I
P---(+2)---=%---(+3)---C
L---(+2)---=U---(+2)----W
3--- (+2)--=@---(+3)---©
N---(+2)---=©---(+3)---7
Hence, LUW doesn’t belong to the group

Q14. Option A
P a g e | 43 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
S D 9 5 E K 6 T I 8 P 1 A 2 C L M U 3 W N 4 J 7 F B The 5th to the left of 12thelement from right end i.e.
17th element from the right end.
Hence, the answer is “8”.

Q15. Option B #K5 P1I CλA ?


K is immediate right of # and 5 is 2rd to the left of # and the gap between the series i.e # to P is five and
P to C is four and so on. Hence, required series #K5 P1I CλA U3L.

P a g e | 44 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
BLOOD RELATIONS
1. Solution:

Option D
2. Solution:

Option A
Solutions (Q.3-5)

3.
Option A
4.
Option A
5.

P a g e | 45 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
Option B

6. Solution:

Option B
7. Solution:

Option B
8. Solution:

Option A
9. Solution:
H @ J $ L # M & P : H is wife of J who is brother of L. L is daughter of M means M is
the father of J also. So, M is father in law of H.
Option C
10. Solution:
In A # B $ C * D,
A # B : A is mother of B

P a g e | 46 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
B $ C : B is brother of C
C * D : C is daughter of D
So, clearly, A is the mother of B and C and D is the father of B and C
Option A

P a g e | 47 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
P a g e | 48 Aptitude Department
Pune Institute of Business Management (PIBM)
DIRECTION SENSE

1.
Solution:

X  402  302  2500  50m


Option B

2.

Solution:

Option B

3.

Solution:

X  62  82  100  10m . Option C

4.
Solution:

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Option B

5. Solution:

X  602  252  4225  65m


Option C

6.

Solution:

Option C

7.

Solution:

Option A

8.

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Solution:

X  122  92  144  81  225  15m


Option B

9.

Solution:

X = 180 – (20 + 35 + 40) = 180 – 95 = 85 km


Option D
10.
Solution

Option A

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CLOCKS AND CALENDAR

1. Total hours 6 : 14 am morning to evening 6 : 14 pm = 12 h


and total hours from 6 : 14 pm evening to 8 : 02 pm evening = 8 : 02 - 6 : 14 = 1 : 18 h i.e., 1 h and 48 min
∴ Total hours and minutes = 12 h + 1 h 48 min
= 13 h and 48 min

2.
Here, n = 3 and (n + 1) = 4
∴ Two hands will coincide at 60n / 11 min past n
⇒ 60 x 3 / 11 min past 3
⇒ 180 /11 min past 3.
⇒ 16 4/11 min past 3

3.
Count the number of odd days from the year 2002 onwards to get the sum equals to 0 odd day.

Years 2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007


Odd days 1 1 2 1 1 1

Sum = 7 odd days = 0 odd day


Calendar for the year 2008 is the same as that for the year 2002.

4.
Each day of the week is repeated after 7 days
∴ After 63 days, it would be Friday
So, After 62 days, it would be Thursday

5.
The year 1984 being a leap year, it has 2 odd days. So, the day on 2nd July, 1985 is two days beyond the
day on 2nd July, 1984. But, 2nd July 1985 was Wednesday.

∴ 2nd July, 1984 was Monday

6. Angle traced by hour hand in 12 h = 360°


Angle traced by hour hand in 5 h = (360/12) x 5° = 150°

7.
2 h 20 min = 140 min
In every hour the minute hand move over 360°.
So, in every minute it will move 360°/60° = 6°
So, in 140 min the minute hand will move over = 6 x 140° = 840°

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8. If today is Friday, after 7 days it will be Friday again.

So, we have to divide 105 by 7.


7*15 = 105 so, remainder is 0.
So, it will be Friday again after 105 days.
9.
Solution:
14 June, 1775 = (1774 years + Period from 1.1.1775 to 14.6.1775)
Odd days in 1600 years = 0
Odd days in 100 years = 5
74 years = (56 ordinary years + 18 leap year) = (56 x 1 + 18 x 2) = 92/7 = 1 odd days
Jan. Feb. March April May June
(31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 14) = 165 days
165 days = (23 weeks + 4 day) = 4 odd day.
Total number of odd days = (0 + 5 + 1 + 4) = 10 = 3 odd day.
Given day is Wednesday.

10. Solution:
We have to calculate no. of odd days from 10th Dec. 2007 to 1st Dec. 2009
2008 is a leap year  No. of odd days in 2008 is 2
No. of odd days in the period 1st Jan 2009 to 10th Dec 2009
= (31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 10) = 344/7 = 1
So, total odd days in the period of 10th Dec. 2007 to 10th Dec. 2009 are (21 + 2 + 1) = 24/7 = 3
Now as the day on 10th Dec. 2009 is Wednesday, we have to calculate 3 days back.
So, it was Sunday on 10th Dec. 2007

11. Solution:
If the given year is divided by 4, the quotient gives the number of leap years.
Here, 200/4 = 50.
But, as 100 and 200 are not leap years => 50 - 2= 48 leap years.

12.
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Solution:
a) If given year is at 1st position after Leap year then next repeated calendar year is Given Year + 6.
b) If given year is at 2nd position after Leap year then next repeated calendar year is Given Year + 11.
c) If given year is at 3rd position after Leap year then next repeated calendar year is Given Year + 11.
d) If given year is a leap year then next repeated calendar year is Given year + 28.
Now, the given year is 2009
We know that 2008 is a Leap year.
2008 2009 2010…..
LY 1st 2nd 3rd LY
Here 2009 is at 1st position after the Leap year.
According to rule (a) the calendar of 2009 is repeated for the year is 2009 + 6 = 2015.

13.
Solution:
If today is Tuesday, after 7 days it will be Tuesday again.
So, we have to divide 279 by 7.
7*39 = 273 so, remainder is 6.
After 273 days it will be Tuesday again.
So, we have to count 6 more days after Tuesday.
Its Monday.

14.
Solution:
As the number of days of the first month are not mentioned, we cannot calculate total number of days.
So, the answer cat be determined.

15.
Solution:
a) If given year is at 1st position after Leap year then next repeated calendar year is Given Year + 6.
b) If given year is at 2nd position after Leap year then next repeated calendar year is Given Year + 11.
c) If given year is at 3rd position after Leap year then next repeated calendar year is Given Year + 11.
d) If given year is a leap year then next repeated calendar year is Given year + 28.
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Now, the given year is 1768.
We know that 1768 is a Leap year.
So, the next repeated year is 1768 + 28 = 1796.

16.
Solution:
If the period between the two months is divisible by 7, then that two months will have the same
calendar.
a) Oct + Nov = 31 + 30 = 61 (not divisible by 7)
b) Apr + May + Jun + Jul = 30 + 31 + 30 + 31 = 122 (not divisible by 7)
c) July + Aug + Sep = 31 + 31 + 30 = 92 (not divisible by 7)
(d) Sep + Oct + Nov = 30 + 31 + 30 = 91 (divisible by 7)

17.
Solution:
We will first find out the day on 1st July 2015.
1st July 2015 = (2014 years + Period from 1.1.2015 to 1.7.2015)
Odd days in 2000 years = 0
Odd days in 14 years = (11 ordinary years + 3 leap year) = (11 x 1 + 3 x 2) = 17/7 = 3 odd days
Jan. Feb. March April May June
(31 + 28 + 31 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 1) = 182 days
165 days = (26 weeks) = 0 odd day.
Total number of odd days = (0 + 3 + 0) = 3 odd day.
So, 1st July 2015 is Wednesday.
So, the dates on Thursday will fall are, 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd.

18.
Solution:

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For the clock hands to be in straight line between 8 and 9 o’clock, minute hand has to move 10
minute spaces past 8.
Minute hand covers 55 M.S. in 60 minutes
60 12 120 10
*10  *10   10 min
So, 10 MS will be covered in 55 11 11 11

19.
Solution:
The hands of a clock coincide 11 times in every 12 hours (Since between 11 and 1, they coincide
only once, i.e., at 12 o'clock).
AM
12:00, 1:05, 2:11, 3:16, 4:22, 5:27, 6:33, 7:38, 8:44, 9:49, 10:55
PM
12:00, 1:05, 2:11, 3:16, 4:22, 5:27, 6:33, 7:38, 8:44, 9:49, 10:55
The hands overlap about every 65 minutes, not every 60 minutes.
The hands coincide 22 times in a day.

20.
Solution:
In 12 hours, they are at right angles 22 times.
In 24 hours, they are at right angles 44 times.

21.
Solution:

For the clock hands to be together between 3 and 4 o’clock, minute hand has to move 15
minute spaces past 3.
Minute hand covers 55 M.S. in 60 minutes

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60 12 180 4
*15  *15   16  min
So, 15 MS will be covered in 55 11 11 11

22.
Solution:

 360 17 
 *   127.5
Angle traced by hour hand in 4(1/4) hrs =  12 4 

 360 
 *15   90
Angle traced by minute hand in 15 minutes =  60 

Required angle = 127.5  90  37.5

23.
Solution:
55 min. spaces are covered in 60 min.

 60  5
 *60  min  65 min
60 min. spaces are covered in  55  11

 5  16
 65  64  min  min
Loss in 64 min. =  11  11

 16 1  8
 * *24*60  min  32 min
Loss in 24 hrs. =  11 64  11

24.
Solution:

For the clock hands to be at right angle between 7 and 8 o’clock, minute hand has to move 20
minute spaces past 7.
Minute hand covers 55 M.S. in 60 minutes

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60 12 240 9
*20  *20   21  min
So, 20 MS will be covered in 55 11 11 11

25.
Solution:

 360 41 
 *   102.5
Angle traced by hour hand in 3(5/12) hrs =  12 12 

 360 
 *25   150
Angle traced by minute hand in 25 minutes =  60 

Required angle = 150  102.5  47.5

26. A watch gains 6 seconds in 5 minutes and was set right at 10 AM. What time will it show at 7 PM
on the same day?
A) 10 : 27 : 41 AM B) 8 : 51 : 04 AM C) 7 : 45 : 15 PM D) 7 : 10 : 48 PM
Solution:
A watch gains 6 seconds in 5 minutes.
So, in 9 hours (10am – 7pm) it will gain 9*60*(6/5) sec. = 648 sec. = 10min. 48 sec.
So, the time shown by the watch at 7 pm will be 7: 10: 48 pm

27.
Solution:

An hour hand moves 300 in 1 hour.


So, from 9am to 2pm (5 hours), it will rotate through 300 *5 = 1500

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SYLLOGISMS

Q.1.
Solution:

Clearly, conclusion (I) follows as balloons can also be placed inside pretty. So it’s a possibility.
And some part of red is outside the area of balloons. So conclusion (II) also follows.
Answer Option E
Q.2.
Solution:

Answer Option D
Q.3.
Solution:

Answer Option B
Q.4.
Solution:

Answer Option E
Q.5.
Solution:

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Answer Option E
Q.6.
Solution:

Answer Option A
Q.7.
Solution:

Answer Option E
Q.8.
Solution:

Answer Option E
Q.9.
Solution:

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Answer Option A
Q.10
Solution:

Answer Option B

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