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 ÷ªÙÞœüŒî¦ô¢Ù Wû 1, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17

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ALGEBRA

A) 4
1
1. If 2P +  = 4, then value of P3 +  is
P
B) 5

Sol: Given that 2P +  = 4

1
C) 8
1
8P3
D) 15
Then the values of a and b are...
P
b−1=0⇒b=1
a2 b 2
Divide the above equation with '2' then we get

P+=2
1
3
2c − 3 = 0 ⇒ c =  SSC Exams 16. If a2 + b2 = 5ab, the value of  +  is:
b2 c2
( )
2
2P A) 32 B) 16 C) 23 D) −23
1
(... If ax +  = k then (ax)3 + 
bx
1
(bx)3
1
( )
∴ 3a + b + 2c = 3 −  + 1 + 2 
3
3
2
() Special Sol: a2 + b2 = 5ab
Divide both sides with ab
= −1 + 1 + 3 = 3
1
= k3 − 3k a . 
b
( ) 1

Ans: A
Quantitative Aptitude
a
+=5
b
b
a
5. If a 3 = 11, then the value of a2 − 331a is:
3 1
8p3
3 1
P +  ⇒ (P) +  = (2) − 3(2) 1 . 
(2p)3
3 1
2
( ) A) 1331331 B) 1331000
x2 y2
Squaring both sides
a2 b2 a
 +  + 2  .  = 25
b
C) 1334331 D) 1330030 10. If the expression  + tx +  is a perfect
= 8 − 3 = 5 Ans: B b2 a2 b a
1 y2 4
 a2 b2
Writer Sol: a 3 = 11 square, then the values of t is:  +  = 23
A) ± 1 B) ± 2 C) 0 D) ± 3 b2 a2 Ans: C
cubing both sides
R. Vahinee a = 113 = 1331 x2 y2 1 1
Sol:  + tx +  17. If x +  = 1, then (x + 1)5 + 
Senior Faculty, CCE a2 − 331a = a (a − 331) x+1 (x + 1)5
y2 4
= 1331(1331 − 331) = 1331000 equals
Ans: B x 2 y 2

2. If = 


4√ 3 + 5√ 2 
 = a + b√ 6, then the values
6. If x2 + y2 − 4x − 4y + 8 = 0, then the value of ()
y 2
()
⇒  + tx +  ........(1) A) 1
1
B) 2 C) 4 D) 8
√ 48 + √ 18 x − y is: x y Sol: x +  = 1
of a and b are respectively: A) 4 B) −4 C) 0 D) 1 ⇒ take A = , B =  then (A ± B)2 1 x+1
y 2 ∴ if x +  = 5
9 −4 3 4 Sol: Given that x2 + y2 − 4x − 4y + 8 = 0 x 1
A) ,  B) ,  = A2 + B2 ± 2AB is in the form of (x +1) +  = 2
15 15 11 33 (x2 − 4x + 4) + (y2 − 4y + 4) = 0 1 (x + 1)
x 2 y 2 x2 +  = 52 − 2 = 23
9 2
C) , 
3 4
D) , 
(x − 2)2 + (y − 2)2 = 0 ( ) ( )( ) ( )
y
x
y 2
y
⇒  ± 2   +  ........(2)
2
x2
23 + 3(5) + 5 43 (x + 1) = 1
(... By adding 1 both sides)
10 5 5 15 Two square terms addition zero so those two
  compare (1) & (2) =  = 
4√ 3 + 5√ 2  square terms also must zeros 23 23 Ans: A 1
t = ±1 Ans: A (x + 1)5 +  = 1 + 1 = 2
Sol: 
  = a + b√ 6 ∴ x − 2 = 0; y − 2 = 0 13. If x + y +z = 0, then (x + 1)5 Ans: B
√ 48 + √ 18 11. If x3 + y3 = 35 and x + y = 5, then the value
x = 2; y = 2 A) (xyz)2 B) x2 + y2 + z2 C) 9 D) 3 1 1
L.H.S. 1 1 18. If x = p +  and y = p −  then the value
    ∴x−y=2−2=0 Ans: C of  +  will be: Sol: x + y + z = 0 p p
4√ 3 + 5√ 2 4√ 3 − 3√ 2 x y

  × 
  3  let x = 1, y = 1, z = −2 of x4 − 2x2y2 + y4
√ 48 + √ 18
 
4√ 3 − 3√ 2
 
√ 2
7. If p = 124, p(p + 3p + 3) + 1 = ?
A) 
1
B) 
5
C) 6 D) 
2 x, y, z values satisfies the given condition so A) 24 B) 4 C) 16 D) 8
(4√ 3 + 3√ 2) (4√ 3 − 3√ 2) A) 5 B) 7 C) 123 D) 125 3 6 3 x2 y2 z2 1 1
⇒  3  Sol: Given x3 + y3 = 35; x + y = 5 we can take those values for  +  +  Sol: Let x = p + , y = p − 

48 − 18
8√ 6 + 18 8√ 6
 √ 2
Sol: p(p + 3p + 3) + 1
let us take x = 3, y = 2
yz zx xy p p
18 3  1 1 (−2)2 (x4 − 2x2y2 + y4) = (x2 − y2)2
⇒  =  + 
30 30 30 √ p3 + 3p2 + 3p + 13

Our assuming values of x and y satisfies the
given two conditions
⇒  +  + 
(1)(−2) (−2)(1) (1)(1) = [(x + y) (x − y)]2
3
18
30
3
a =  = ; b =  = 
5
8
30 15
4
Ans: D
√ (p + 1)3

substitute p = 124 1 1 1
so  +  =  +  = 
1 5
−1 1
⇒−+ =3
2 2
4
1 Ans: D
2 2
[ ( )]
= (2p)  = 16 Ans: C
3 p
3. x varies inversely as square of y. Given that √ (124 + 1)3 ⇒ 5 x
1
y 3 2 6 Ans: B
14. The value of 
19. If (m + 1) = √ n + 3, the value of
y = 2 for x = 1, the value of x for y = 6 will be Ans: A 12. If x +  = 5, then the value of b−c c−a a−b
(xb + c) . (xc + a) . (xa + b) 1 m3 − 6m2 + 12m − 8
equal to:
1 1
x z
8. If x + y = 2z then the value of  +  is
x−z y−z
x
x4 + 3x3 + 5x2 + 3x + 1 A) 1 2) 2 C) −1
(x ≠ 0)
D) 0 2
(
 
√n
 − n is )
A) 3 B) 9 C)  D)  
3 9 1 x4 + 1 b−c c−a a−b A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
A) 1 B) 3 C)  D) 2 Sol: (xb + c) . (xc + a) . (xa + b) 
1 1 2 43 47 41 45 Sol: m + 1 = √ n + 3
Sol: x ∝  ⇒ x = k .  A)  B)  C)  D)  2 2 2 2 2 2  
Sol: x + y = z + z 23 21 23 21 xb − c . xc − a . xa − b
n
[...(am) = amn] m − √n = 2 ⇒ m − 2 = √n
y2 y2
x − z = z − y ⇒ (x − z) = − (y − z) 1 cubing both sides
1 Sol: x +  = 5 2 2 2 2 2 2 
1=k.⇒k=4 x z x−z x xb − c + c − a + a − b [(am × an = am + n] m3 − 23 + 3(m)(2)2 − 3(m)2(2) = n√ n
22 ∴  +  =  = 1 
x − z −(x − z) x − z x4 + 3x3 + 5x2 + 3x + 1 x0 = 1 Ans: A m − 8 +12m − 6m = n√ n
3 2

( )
1
x = (4)  ⇒ x = 
62
1
9 Ans: D
Ans: A
9. If p + q =10 and pq = 5, then the numerical

x4 + 1
15. If a + b + c = 2s, then
(s − a)2 + (s − b)2 + (s − c)2 + s2
1 n√ n
 
2 √n
[
 −n =0 ] Ans: A

4. If (3a + 1)2 + (b − 1)2 + (2c − 3)2 = 0, then the
value of (3a + b + 2c ) is equal to:
p q
value of  +  will be
q p
( 3
x2 x2 + 3x + 5 +  + 
x
1
x2
) a2 + b2 + c2 20. If a + b = 1, find the value of
⇒  A) a2 + b2 + c2 B) 0 C) 1 D) 2 a3 + b3 − ab − (a2 − b2)2 ?
A) 3 B) −1 C) 2 D) 5 1
Sol: Given that
A) 16 B) 20
Sol: p + q = 10; pq = 5
C) 22 D) 18
( )
x2 x2 + 
x2
Sol: a + b + c = 2s
let a = 1, b = 1, c = 4, s = 3 values satisfies
A) 0
Sol: a + b = 1
B) 1 C) −1 D) 2
(3a + 1)2 + (b − 1)2 + (2c − 3)2 = 0
Square numbers addition zero so those num-
ber also must zeros q
p q
p
p2 + q2
qp
(p + q)2 − 2pq
 +  =  ⇒ 
pq
( x2
⇒ 
1
) ( ) 1
x2 +  + 3 x +  + 5
x
the given condition so
(3 − 1)2 + (3 − 1)2 + (3 − 4)2 + 32 18
let b = 0, a = 1
substitute a, b values in the required form
 =  = 1
100 − 10 90 1 1 + 1 + 16 18 (1)3 + (0)3 − (1) (0) − (12 − 02)2 = 1 − 1 = 0
3a + 1 = 0 ⇒ a = − 
1 =  =  = 18 x2 + 
3 5 5 Ans: D x2 Ans: C Ans: A
GH
17 opposition from Republican sena-

Etienne Glichitch Award tors)

1) Neera Tanden
2) Jenifer Rajkumar
3) Nima Kulkarni

ñªëÅ]î¦ô¢Ù Wû 2, 2021
National
DIPCOVAN kit
On 21 May 2021, the Defence
Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) stated that it
developed a new antibody detection-
based kit ‘DIPCOVAN’ that can give the
result in 75 minutes and cost Rs.75
only.
The DRDO’s Defence Institute of
Physiology and Allied Sciences (DIPAS)
laboratory, Delhi developed this DIPCO-
VAN kit, which can detect spike as well
as nucleocapsid (S&N) proteins of
SARS-CoV-2 virus with a high sensitivi-
ty of 97 percent and specificity of 99%.
The kit has an 18-month shelf life.
conferred on...
4) Kesha Ram 5) Vandana Slatter
5. International Missing Children's Day
observed on ........
1) 1 May 2) 20 May 3) 18 May
n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 4) 25 May 5) 1 June
6. Portable medical oxygen concentra-
tor called Shwaas developed by ......
India in 1952, is expected to be re-intro- ments during the period of higher edu-
duced into the country at the Kuno cation.
Model Questions 1) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre of
ISRO
National Park in Madhya Pradesh by On reaching the age of 23, the child 1. The President of India nominated 2) IIT Delhi
November 2021. will get the corpus amount as a lump whom as the executive chairperson
On 23 May 2021, the state officials sum for personal and professional use.
3) JNTU University, Hyderabad
of the National Legal Services
said that the Supreme Court approved 4) IISc, Bangalore 5) IIT, Ropar
The Central government will also Authority (NALSA)?
7. Which nation successfully launched
the introduction of African cheetahs to ensure free education for such children. 1) Justice R.F.Nariman
the new ocean observation satellite
suitable habitat in India on an experi- All children will be enrolled for free
2) Justice Khanwilkar Haiyang-2D?
mental basis. health insurance of Rs.5 lakh under
3) Justice D.Y. Chandrachud 1) India 2) USA 3) China
Kuno, located in the Chambal region, Ayushman Bharat till 18 years and the
4) Justice L. Nageswara Rao
is spread over an area of over 750 sq. premium will be paid as part of the 4) Japan 5) Australia
5) Justice Uday Umesh Lalit
km and has a conducive environment scheme. 8. Etienne Glichitch Award conferred
2. Subodh Kumar Jaiswal assumed
for the cheetah. on ........
UNESCO World Heritage Sites charge as new Director of ........ 1) BCCI
Government helps COVID 1) BSF 2) Assam Rifles
On 19 May 2021, the ministry of culture Neera Tanden 2) All India Chess Federation for
affected children informed that six Indian places added 3) IB 4) CBI 5) RAF the Blind
On 29 May 2021, Prime Minister to the tentative list of UNESCO (United 3. Guillermo Lasso was sworn in as 3) Archery Association of India

Cheetahs to be re-introduced
Narendra Modi announced many bene-
fits under PM Cares For Children, in a
Nations Educational, Scientific and
Cultural Organization) World Heritage
sites.
General president of Ecuador. What is the
capital of Ecuador?
1) Abuja 2) Quito
4) All India Football Federation
5) Hockey India
bid to support children who lost their
The world's fastest land animal,
Cheetah, which was declared extinct in
parents to the Covid-19 pandemic.
PM Cares will contribute through a
They are Satpura Tiger Reserve in
Madhya Pradesh, the Iconic riverfront
Awareness 3) Bamako 4) Conakry 5) Dakar
4. An Indian-American was appointed 1-5 2-4
Key
3-2 4-1
specially designed scheme to create a of the historic city of Varanasi in Uttar as senior adviser to the USA 5-4 6-1 7-3 8-5
corpus of Rs.10 lakh for each child Pradesh, Megalithic site of Hire Benkal and temples of Kanchipuram in Tamil President Joe Biden. She is ........
Writer when they reach 18 years of age. in Karnataka, Maratha Military Nadu. (The appointment was done after
Amara Veeraswamy The corpus will be used to give a Architecture in Maharashtra, With the addition of these six sites, she withdrew her nomination as For more Information see
monthly stipend from 18-23 years of Bhedaghat-Lametaghat in Narmada UNESCO has 48 proposals in the ten- Director of the White House Office of today’s Telangana Edition
Subject Expert
age to take care of the child's require- Valley in Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh tative list of India. Management and Budget due to stiff

Others
Millennium Technology Prize
The Chemists Shankar
Balasubramanian and David
Klenerman from Cambridge University
were declared the winners of the 2020
Millennium Technology Prize on 18
May 2021.
The Millennium Technology Prize
Worth Euro 1 million is awarded by
Technology Academy Finland (TAF) at
two-year intervals.
Balasubramanian, an India-born
British professor of medicinal chem-
istry, and Klenerman, a British bio-
physical chemist, co-invented the
Solexa-Illumina Next Generation DNA
Sequencing (NGS), technology
enabling fast, accurate, low-cost and
large-scale genome sequencing.
The technology is being used to
track and explore the novel coron-
avirus viral mutations.
They co-found the company Solexa
to make the technology more broadly
available to the world.
Miss Universe 2020
Andrea Meza of Mexico has been
crowned Miss Universe for the year
2020. While Brazil’s Julia Gama
emerged the runner-up, Janick
Maceta from Peru finished third. Miss
India Adline Castelino stood fourth at
the beauty pageant.
On 16 May 2021, the 69th edition
Miss Universe event held at the
Seminole Hard Rock Hotel & Casino in
the USA.
International Day for
Biological Diversity
The International Day for Biological
Diversity observed on 22 May for the
promotion of biodiversity issues.
The theme for 2021 International
Day for Biological Diversity is “We’re
part of the solution” and it has been
chosen as an extension to 2020’s con-
cept - 'Our solutions are in nature'
This day is celebrated to make peo-
ple aware of the biodiversity across
the planet which plays an important
role in our lives.
Italian Open
On 16 May 2021, Spanish Tennis star
Rafael Nadal defeated the top seed
Serbian Novak Djokovic by 7-5, 1-6, 6-
3 to clinch the Italian open title. This is
Rafael Nadal 10th Italian Open crown.
Iga Swiatek of Poland won the
Women's Singles title of the Italian
Open. She defeated ninth seed Czech
Karolina Pliskova 6-0, 6-0 with what is
known as a "double bagel" score in the
summit clash in Rome that lasted just
46 minutes.
International
'UNITE AWARE'
On 24 May 2021, India's Deputy
Permanent Representative to the UN,
Ambassador K Nagaraj Naidu said
that India, in partnership with the UN
Department of Peacekeeping
Operations and the Department of
Operational Support, has been work-
ing towards developing a mobile tech
platform 'UNITE AWARE'.
The platform incurs an expenditure
of $1.64 million which helps to
increase situational awareness and
provides terrain-related information to
peacekeepers.
India is one of the largest troops
contributing countries to UN peace-
keeping missions and has contributed
more than 2,50,000 troops in 49 mis-
sions over the years.
The mobile tech platform may be
launched during India’s United Nations
Security Council (UNSC) Presidency
term in August 2021.
India and Israel cooperation
On 24 May 2021, India and Israel
signed a three-year joint work pro-
gramme till 2023 to enhance coopera-
tion in the field of agriculture.
The Union Agriculture and Rural
Development Minister Narendra Singh
Tomar said that under the new work
programme, Villages of Excellence
(VoE) - a model ecosystem in agricul-
ture - will be created across eight
states alongside 13 CoEs within 75 vil-
lages.
This decision will promote the
increase of net income and better the
livelihood of the individual farmer,
transforming traditional farms into
modern-intensive farms based on IIAP
standards.
India and Israel had bilateral relations
since 1993 in the agricultural sector.
This is the 5th Indo-Israel Agriculture
Action Plan (IIAP). So far, both nations
completed four action plans.
VIPER
National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA) announced
that it is planning to send its first
mobile robot VIPER to the moon in
2023.
The Mobile robot named “Volatiles”
Investigating Polar Exploration Rover
(VIPER) to be launched will help sci-
entists to map data of recourses at the
lunar South Pole that could later be
used during human exploration of the
moon.
According to an announcement
made by NASA on 21 May 2021, the
rover will search for ice and other
resources on the lunar surface.

F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F

ú£Ù-Ý°u-÷u-÷ú£– n- Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª

ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.-
÷³Ý°uÙø‹õª
Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ: EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°TÙචú£ÙÜuìª Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ
Ñë¯: 12 Íû¶ ú£ÙÜuìª 4 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°T-ú£ªhÙC.-
Ú¥ñæ¨d 4, 12ÚÛª Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.-
EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°TÙචú£ÙÜuìª Ô÷ªÙæ°ô¢ª?
-
36 = 1 × 36; 2 × 18; 3 × 12; 4 × 9; 6 × 6 90 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ 15 21
V 12 Íû¶ ú£ÙÜuìª 5 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°TÙ-àŸë]ª.- Ú¥ñæ¨d
5, 12ÚÛª Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Ú¥ë]ª.- 36 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36 -
= 1 + 2 + 3 + 5 + 6 + 9 + 10 + 15 + (1) − 6 = øË™ù£Ù
G ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜuÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥-õìª ÚÛìª-ÚÁ\-î¦-õÙç˶, ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1 18 + 30 + 45 + 90 = 234 øË™ù£Ù =- 6
Î ú£ÙÜuìª ·ôÙè[ª ú£ï£°á ú£ÙÜuõ õñÌÄÙÞ¥ 3. 180 E ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ õñÌÄÙÞ¥ íÆ£«êŸ-ô¢«-í£Ùö˺ sö˶ë¯z ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3
ô¦óŸ«L.- Ð ú£ÙÝËu-õFo ë]êŸh-ú£Ù-ÜuÚÛª Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù- ô¦óŸªÙè…. 2 90 Þœ-÷ª-EÚÛ:
Ú¥õª Í÷±-ê¦ô³.- 1) 2 × 32 × 52 2) 22 × 32 × 5 3 45 ví£-ëůì ú£ÙÜu:- 1, Íë¶ ú£ÙÜu ÷«vêŸî¶ª Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥-
Ñë¯: 12 = 1 × 12; 2 × 6; 3 × 4 3) 22 × 3 × 52 4) 22 × 32 × 52 3 15
õªÞ¥ Ñìo ú£ÙÜuìª ví£ëůì ú£ÙÜu ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.-
12 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- F(12) = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 þ§ëÅ]ì: 2 180 5
Ñë¯:- 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ........
vÚÛ--í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ:- a ÚÛª b Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Íô³ b ≠ a 11. Ú¨ÙC-î¦-æ¨ö˺ ví£ëůì ú£ÙÜu ÔC?
2 90 90 = 21 × 32 × 51
Í-ô³ê¶, aÚÛª b vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- 3 45 1) 33 2) 35 3) 37 4) 39
90 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ
Ñë¯: 10 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 2, 5, 10 3 15 (22 − 1) (33 − 1) (52 − 1)
þ§ëÅ]ì: 33Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 3, 11, 33
10 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 2, 5 =  35 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 5, 7, 35
5 (2 − 1) (3 − 1) (5 − 1)
G ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜuìª N = ap × bq × cr (a, b, cõª ví£ëůì 180 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 37 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 37
(4 − 1) (27 − 1) (25 − 1)
ú£ÙÜuõª. p, q, rõª ú£ï£°á ú£ÙÜuõªz ô¢«í£Ùö˺ =  39 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 3, 13, 39
= 22 × 32 × 5 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 1×2×4
ô¦›úh, NÚÛª Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu (No. 4. 720ÚÛª Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª ÓEo? 3 × 26 × 24
šíj ú£ÙÜuö˺ 37 ÷«vêŸî¶ª ·ôÙè[ª Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥-õìª
of prime factors) =- p + q + r =  = 234 ÚÛLT ÑÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d 37 ví£ëůì ú£ÙÜu Í÷±-꟪ÙC.-
1) 6 2) 9 3) 8 4) 7 2×4
G ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜuìª N = ap × bq × cr (a, b, cõª ví£ëůì ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3
þ§ëÅ]ì: 2 720 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2
ú£ÙÜuõª. p, q, rõª ú£ï£°á ú£ÙÜuõªz ô¢«í£Ùö˺
ô¦›úh NÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu 2 360 ð¼æ© í£K¤Ûõ 9. 220 ÚÛª Ñìo vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ ÓÙêŸ? ÍòÅ°uú£ ví£øŒoõª
G
= (p + 1) (q + 1) (r + 1)
ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜuìª N = ap × bq × cr (a, b, cõª ví£ëůì
2 180
2 90 ví£ê¶uÚÛÙ 1) 264
þ§ëÅ]ì: 2 220
2) 274 3) 284 4) 294
1. 72 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥-õìª ÎôÁ--é-vÚÛ-÷ªÙö˺ ô¦›úh
ú£ÙÜuõª. p, q, rõª ú£ï£°á ú£ÙÜuõªz ô¢«í£Ùö˺ 3 45 2 110 7 8 ÷, ÷ Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ ÓÙêŸ?
ô¦›úh NÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ 3 15 ÷«uëÇ]æ¨ÚÂq 5 55 1) 17 2) 21 3) 30 4) 42
(ap + 1 − 1) (bq + 1 − 1) (cr + 1 − 1) 5 11 2. 1729 Ú¨ Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Ú¥EC ÔC?
=  144 = 24 × 32
-
(a − 1) (b − 1) (c − 1) 720 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 220 = 22 × 51 × 111 1) 13 2) 19 3) 81 4) 91
N ÚÛª Ñìo vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ = 2 4 × 32 × 51 144 ÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu = (4 + 1) (2 + 1)
220 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 3. 576 Ú¨ Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª ÓEo?
(ap + 1 − 1) (bq + 1 − 1) (cr + 1 − 1) 720 ÚÛª Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu -
= 5 × 3 = 15 - (23 − 1) (52 − 1) (112 − 1) 1) 10 2) 9 3) 7 4) 8
=  − N
(a − 1) (b − 1) (c − 1) =4+2+1=7 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 =  − 220
(2 − 1) (5 − 1) (11 − 1) 4. 324 ìª ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ õñÌÄÙÞ¥ íÆ£«êŸ-ô¢«-
ú£÷«-ëůìÙ: 4 7. A = F(12) ∩ F(18), B = F(16) ∩ F(24)
(8 − 1) (25 − 1) (121 − 1)
=  − 220
í£Ùö˺ ô¦óŸªÙè….
5. ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜu N = 2p × 35 × 57 × 73 ô¢«í£Ùö˺ ÑÙC.- (A, B õª ·ôÙè[ª ú£Nª-꟪õª) Íô³ê¶ -
A−B=?
(1) (4) (10) 1) 22 × 34 2) 23 × 34
ô¢àŸô³êŸ Î ú£ÙÜuÚÛª Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu 18 1) {1, 2, 4, 8} 2) {3, 6}
7 × 24 × 120 3) 23 × 35 4) 2 × 35
úˆšï°àÂ. ô¦ëůÚÛ”ù£g Íô³ê¶ p Nõª÷ ÓÙêŸ? 3) {3, 6, 4, 8} 4) {4, 8} =  − 220
4 × 10 -
5. 500 ÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu?
Nù£óŸª Eí£±éªõª 1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 5 þ§-ëÅ]ì: 12 = 1 × 12; 2 × 6; 3 × 4
= 504 − 220 = 284 1) 6 2) 9 3) 12 4) 15
þ§ëÅ]ì: N = 2p × 35 × 57 × 73 18 = 1 × 18; 2 × 9; 3 × 6
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 6. 48 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ ÓÙêŸ?
16 = 1 × 16; 2 × 8; 4 × 4
÷«-CJ ú£÷ª-ú£uõª NÚÛª Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu =-
⇒ p + 5 + 7 + 3 = 18 ⇒ p + 15 = 18
18
24 = 1 × 24; 2 × 12; 3 × 8; 4 × 6
Þœ-÷ª-EÚÛ:- 6 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 6 1) 134 2) 124
28 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 28 3) 144 4) 154
1. Ú¨ÙC-î¦-æ¨ö˺ 100 ÚÛª Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Ú¥EC ÔC? ⇒ p = 18 − 15 = 3 F(12) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12}
496 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 496 7. 100 ÚÛª Ñìo vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu?
1) 5 2) 15 3) 20 4) 25 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1 F(18) = {1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18}
8128 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 8128 1) 9 2) 8 3) 10 4) 7
þ§-ëÅ]ì: F 100 E 5 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°T-ú£ªhÙC Ú¥ñæ¨d 100Ú¨ 6. 144 ÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª ÓEo? A = F (12) ∩ F (18)
6, 28, 496, 8128-õìª í£J-í£²ô¢g ú£ÙÜuõª 8. 284 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ?
5 Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- 1) 18 2) 12 3) 15 4) 20 = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 } ∩ {1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18} (Perfect numbers) ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.- 1) 220 2) 280
F 100E 15 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°TÙ-àŸë]ª.- Ú¥ñæ¨d 100Ú¨ 15 þ§ëÅ]ì: -
144 = 1 × 144; 2 × 72; 3 × 48; 4 × 36; = {1, 2, 3, 6} 10. ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜu N ìª 75 êÁ òÅ°T›úh øË™ù£Ù 21 ÷#aÙC.- 3) 244 4) 264
Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Ú¥ë]ª.- 6 × 24; 8 × 18; 9 × 16; 12 × 12 F(16) = {1, 2, 4, 8, 16} Íô³ê¶ Íë¶ ú£ÙÜuìª 15êÁ òÅ°T›úh ÷à¶a øË™ù£Ù 9. ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜuìª 171êÁ òÅ°T›úh øË™ù£Ù 25
F 100E 20 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°T-ú£ªhÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d 100Ú¨ 20 144 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª -
= 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, F(24) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24} ÓÙêŸ? ÷#aÙC.- Íë¶ ú£ÙÜuìª 19êÁ òÅ°TÙ-àŸÞ¥ ÷à¶a
Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- 16, 18, 24, 36, 48, 72, 144 B = F (16) ∩ F (24) 1) 8 2) 9 3) 6 4) 7 øË™ù£Ù ÓÙêŸ?
F 100E 25 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°T-ú£ªhÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d 100Ú¨ 25 144 ÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu =- 15 = {1, 2, 4, 8, 16} ∩ {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24} 75 N 15 N 1) 8 2) 9 3) 6 4) 11
Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- sö˶ë¯z = {1, 2, 4, 8} ( ) − 21 ( )−? 10. Ú¨ÙC-î¦-æ¨ö˺ ví£ëůì ú£ÙÜu Ú¥EC ÔC?
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 2 144 A − B = {1, 2, 3, 6} − {1, 2, 4, 8} = {3, 6} îµ³-ë]æ¨ òÅ°Þ¥--ô¢Ùö˺ NòÅ°-áÚÛÙ =- 75 1) 41 2) 43 3) 47 4) 49
2. Ú¨ÙC-î¦-æ¨ö˺ 36Ú¨ Ñìo Ú¥ô¢é°Ù-Ú¥õª ÔN? 2 72 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 ·ôÙèÁ òŰޥ-ô¢Ùö˺ NòÅ°-áÚÛÙ =- 15
1) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36 2 36 8. 90 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ ÓÙêŸ? îµ³ë]æ¨ NòÅ°-á-Ú¥-EÚ¨ ·ôÙèÁ NòÅ°-áÚÛÙ Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ ú£÷«ëůû¦õª
2) 1, 2, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36 2 18 1) 224 2) 234 3) 244 4) 254 Íô³-ê¶, ·ôÙèÁ òÅ°Þ¥--ô¢Ùö˺ øË™ÿ§Eo ÚÛìª-ÚÁ\--î¦-õÙç˶ 1-2 2-3 3-4 4-1 5-3
3) 1, 2, 3, 4, 9, 12, 16, 18 39 þ§-ëÅ]ì: 90 = 1 × 90; 2 × 45; 3 × 30; 5 × 18; îµ³ë]æ¨ òÅ°Þ¥--ô¢Ù-ö˺E øË™ÿ§Eo ·ôÙèÁ òÅ°Þ¥--ô¢Ù-ö˺E 6-2 7-2 8-1 9-3 10-4
4) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12, 18, 36 3 6 × 15; 9 × 10 NòÅ°-á-ÚÛÙêÁ òÅ°TÙ-à¦L.-
GH
17 Model Questions
"Mission Hausla" 1. Which state launched the ‘Amrit
Vahini’ app to provide better facil-
ities for the people infected with
coronavirus?

ñªëÅ]î¦ô¢Ù Wû 2, 2021
National
143 Khelo India Centres
On 25 May 2021, the Sports Ministry
approved to open 143 Khelo India
Centres across 7 states in the country
with a total budget estimate of Rs.14.30
crore.
The states include Maharashtra,
Mizoram, Goa, Karnataka, Madhya
Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh and
Manipur. These Khelo India Centres
will be entrusted with one sports disci-
pline each.
INS Rajput decommissioned
Indian Navy’s first destroyer INS
Rajput decommissioned at Naval
Dockyard, Visakhapatnam on 21 May
2021, after serving the nation for 41
glorious years.
The ship was decommissioned in a
solemn and low-key event due to the
ongoing COVID Pandemic when the
National Flag, Naval Ensign, and the
Decommissioning Pennant lowered at
sunset time.
INS Rajput was commissioned in
1980, at Poti, Georgia, as the lead ship
Writer
Amara Veeraswamy
Subject Expert
International
World Health Assembly
On 24 May 2021, the Union Minister of
Health and Family Welfare and
Chairman of WHO Executive Board, Dr
Harsh Vardhan participated in the 74th
World Health Assembly through a
video conference.
The theme of the Assembly is
‘Ending this pandemic, preventing the
next: building together a healthier,
safer and fairer world.’
Mrs Dechen Wangmo, Minister of
Health of Bhutan was elected as the
president of the 74th World Health
n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net
of the Rajput Class Destroyers of the
Indian Navy.
NMMS app
On 20 May 2021, the Union Agriculture
and Rural Development Minister
Narendra Singh Tomar launched
National Mobile Monitoring Software
(NMMS) app and Area officer monitor-
ing App virtually.
The NMMS App permits taking real-
time attendance of workers at MGNRE-
GA worksites along with a geotagged
photograph, which will increase citizen
oversight of the programme besides
potentially enabling processing pay-
ments faster.
The Area Officer Monitoring App
facilitates them to record their findings
online along with time-stamped and go-
coordinate tagged photograph for all
the schemes of the Department of
Rural Development.
Both apps bring transparency and
effective monitoring of schemes.
Pinarayi Vijayan as Kerala
CM for 2nd time
On 20 May 2021, Pinarayi Vijayan was
sworn in as Kerala Chief Minister for a
second time after leading the CPM-led
Left Democratic Front government to a
historic second successive term in the
April-May election 2021.
He was sworn in by Governor Arif
Assembly.
The Health Assembly adopted a new
resolution on malaria that aims to revi-
talize and accelerate efforts to end
malaria, a preventable and treatable
disease that continues to claim more
than 4 lakh lives annually.
It endorsed a decision recognizing 30
January as World Neglected Tropical
Diseases Day (‘World NTD Day’).
Israel and the Palestinian ceasefire
The ceasefire has come into effect
between Israel and the Palestinian mil-
itant group Hamas in the Gaza Strip on
20 May 2021.
launched to help...
Mohammad Khan in a brief ceremony
conducted following COVID-19 proto-
cols.
Relief to YAAS affected states
On 28 May 2021, Prime Minister
Narendra Modi sanctioned Rs.1,000
crore in financial aid to the cyclone
Yaas ravaged states.
Of the relief package, Rs.500 crore
has been allotted to Odisha, while the
remaining Rs.500 crore will be distrib-
uted between West Bengal and
Jharkhand.
He also announced ex-gratia of Rs.2
lakh to the next of kin of the deceased
and Rs.50,000 to the seriously injured.
The ‘Yaas’ name is named by Oman
which refers to a Jasmine-like tree.
Others
Kareem Abdul-Jabbar Social
Justice Champion Award
On 13 May 2021, the NBA announced
the creation of a new award - the
Kareem Abdul-Jabbar Social Justice
Champion Award to recognise players
who are making efforts in the fight for
social justice.
Each NBA team will nominate one
player for consideration. Kareem Abdul-
Jabbar has devoted much of his life to
advocating for equality and social justice.
The 11 days hostilities came to an
end, which saw militants fire 4,000
rockets towards Israel and the Israeli
military strike 1,500 targets in Gaza.
A ceasefire is simply an announce-
ment by both sides not to carry on
fighting, either indefinitely or for a limit-
ed period.
At least 243 people, including more
than 100 women and children, were
killed in Gaza, according to its health
ministry. Israel said it killed at least 225
militants during the fighting.
Egypt and Qatar were involved in
the mediation, as well as the USA and
the UNO.
1) Gujrat 2) AP 3) Jharkhand
4) Assam 5) Tamil Nadu
2. Who was named as COP26
People’s Advocate for the U.K.’s
Presidency of UN climate change
summit in Glasgow to be held in
The theme holds significance November 2021?
because with the pandemic forcing 1) Steven Spielberg
important activities to shift to a digital 2) James Cameron
platform, changes were observed in 3) David Attenborough
people's attitudes towards certain activ-
4) Terence Young
ities and their lifestyle. 5) Sam Mendes
It is a well-known fact that the family 3. who was conferred with the FIH
serves as a support system for every President’s Award for his out-
human being. In 1993, it was decided standing efforts to promote hock-
by the United Nations that 15 May
ey in the Odisha State during the
every year would be celebrated as
47th International Hockey
International Day of Families to
Federation (FIH) Congress held
acknowledge the importance, issues,
on 22 May 2021?
and other nuances of families.
1) Rina Ray 2) Anshu Prakash
3) VK Pandian 4) Naresh Kumar
Fiame Naomi Mata’afa Rudolf V. Schindler Award
5) Satya Gopal
The American Society of
4. Which state Police launched
General Gastrointestinal Endoscopy (ASGE)
conferred the Rudolf V. Schindler
Award on Dr D. Nageshwar Reddy, the
"Mission Hausla" to help people
get oxygen, beds, ventilators and
Awareness Chairman of AIG hospitals.
Dr. Reddy is one of the first to pro-
plasma for Covid-19 patients?
1) Haryana
3) Uttarakhand
2) Rajasthan
4) UP
mote endoscopy in India and has led
the charge of educating numerous 5) West Bengal
Kareem Abdul-Jabbar is an
endoscopists all over the world. 5. Who is the president of the Indian
American former professional basket-
Olympic Association has been re-
ball player who played 20 seasons in He is the first-ever Indian medical
elected as president of the
the National Basketball Association practitioner to get this recognition from
International Hockey Federation
(NBA) for various teams. ASGE for his work in the field of
endoscopy. on 23 May 2021?
International Day of Families 1) Ajay Singh 2) Jay Shah
On 25 May 2021 in a statement,
ASGE said that honour is given to Dr D 3) Narinder Batra
The International Day of Families
observed on the 15 May every year. Nageshwar Reddy who has accomplish- 4) Sanjay Kapoor
The theme of this year's International ments in endoscopic research, teaching, 5) Dushyant Chautala
and service to the field of GI Endoscopy.
Day of Families is "Families and New 6. Which state/ UT renamed the
Technologies." Mohali International Hockey
Stadium after the legendary Balbir
Singh. Sr. on the occasion of his
2021 Templeton Prize of other species.
first death anniversary recently?
1) UP 2) Bihar 3) Punjab
She is the
Dr. Jane Goodall of England, the fourth woman to 4) Maharashtra 5) Chhattisgarh
founder of the Jane Goodall Institute, 7. Fiame Naomi Mata’afa sworn in as
receive the
UN Messenger of Peace and world- the first female prime minister of......
Templeton Prize
renowned ethologist and conserva- 1) Samoa 2) South Korea
since its inception
tionist, whose discoveries changed
in 1972. 3) Estonia 4) New Zealand
humanity’s understanding of its role in
The first Templeton Prize conferred 5) Jordan
the natural world was conferred with
the 2021 Templeton Prize. on Mother Teresa (1973). Key
On 20 May 2021, the award was The Templeton Prize, valued at over
1-3 2-3 3-3 4-3
declared to Jane Goodall by the $1.5 million is given to honour those
5-3 6-3 7-1
Templeton Foundation. She is the first who harness the power of the sci-
ethologist and with her long years of ences to explore the deepest ques-
research and engagement with chim- tions of the universe and humankind’s For more Information see
panzees widened the understanding place and purpose within it. today’s Telangana Edition

F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F

ú£Ù-Ý°u-÷u-÷ú£– n- Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª

ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.-
÷³Ý°uÙø‹õª
Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ: EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°TÙචú£ÙÜuìª Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ
Ñë¯: 12 Íû¶ ú£ÙÜuìª 4 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°T-ú£ªhÙC.-
Ú¥ñæ¨d 4, 12ÚÛª Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.-
EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°TÙචú£ÙÜuìª Ô÷ªÙæ°ô¢ª?
-
36 = 1 × 36; 2 × 18; 3 × 12; 4 × 9; 6 × 6 90 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ 15 21
V 12 Íû¶ ú£ÙÜuìª 5 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°TÙ-àŸë]ª.- Ú¥ñæ¨d
5, 12ÚÛª Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Ú¥ë]ª.- 36 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36 -
= 1 + 2 + 3 + 5 + 6 + 9 + 10 + 15 + (1) − 6 = øË™ù£Ù
G ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜuÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥-õìª ÚÛìª-ÚÁ\-î¦-õÙç˶, ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1 18 + 30 + 45 + 90 = 234 øË™ù£Ù =- 6
Î ú£ÙÜuìª ·ôÙè[ª ú£ï£°á ú£ÙÜuõ õñÌÄÙÞ¥ 3. 180 E ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ õñÌÄÙÞ¥ íÆ£«êŸ-ô¢«-í£Ùö˺ sö˶ë¯z ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3
ô¦óŸ«L.- Ð ú£ÙÝËu-õFo ë]êŸh-ú£Ù-ÜuÚÛª Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù- ô¦óŸªÙè…. 2 90 Þœ-÷ª-EÚÛ:
Ú¥õª Í÷±-ê¦ô³.- 1) 2 × 32 × 52 2) 22 × 32 × 5 3 45 ví£-ëůì ú£ÙÜu:- 1, Íë¶ ú£ÙÜu ÷«vêŸî¶ª Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥-
Ñë¯: 12 = 1 × 12; 2 × 6; 3 × 4 3) 22 × 3 × 52 4) 22 × 32 × 52 3 15
õªÞ¥ Ñìo ú£ÙÜuìª ví£ëůì ú£ÙÜu ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.-
12 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- F(12) = 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 þ§ëÅ]ì: 2 180 5
Ñë¯:- 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ........
vÚÛ--í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ:- a ÚÛª b Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Íô³ b ≠ a 11. Ú¨ÙC-î¦-æ¨ö˺ ví£ëůì ú£ÙÜu ÔC?
2 90 90 = 21 × 32 × 51
Í-ô³ê¶, aÚÛª b vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- 3 45 1) 33 2) 35 3) 37 4) 39
90 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ
Ñë¯: 10 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 2, 5, 10 3 15 (22 − 1) (33 − 1) (52 − 1)
þ§ëÅ]ì: Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 3, 11, 33
33
10 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 2, 5 =  35 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 5, 7, 35
5 (2 − 1) (3 − 1) (5 − 1)
G ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜuìª N = ap × bq × cr (a, b, cõª ví£ëůì 180 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 37 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 37
(4 − 1) (27 − 1) (25 − 1)
ú£ÙÜuõª. p, q, rõª ú£ï£°á ú£ÙÜuõªz ô¢«í£Ùö˺ =  39 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª =- 1, 3, 13, 39
= 22 × 32 × 5 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 1×2×4
ô¦›úh, NÚÛª Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu (No. 4. 720ÚÛª Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª ÓEo? 3 × 26 × 24
šíj ú£ÙÜuö˺ 37 ÷«vêŸî¶ª ·ôÙè[ª Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥-õìª
of prime factors) =- p + q + r =  = 234 ÚÛLT ÑÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d 37 ví£ëůì ú£ÙÜu Í÷±-꟪ÙC.-
1) 6 2) 9 3) 8 4) 7 2×4
G ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜuìª N = ap × bq × cr (a, b, cõª ví£ëůì ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3
þ§ëÅ]ì: 2 720 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2
ú£ÙÜuõª. p, q, rõª ú£ï£°á ú£ÙÜuõªz ô¢«í£Ùö˺
ô¦›úh NÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu 2 360 ð¼æ© í£K¤Ûõ 9. 220 ÚÛª Ñìo vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ ÓÙêŸ? ÍòÅ°uú£ ví£øŒoõª
G
= (p + 1) (q + 1) (r + 1)
ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜuìª N = ap × bq × cr (a, b, cõª ví£ëůì
2 180
2 90 ví£ê¶uÚÛÙ 1) 264
þ§ëÅ]ì: 2 220
2) 274 3) 284 4) 294
1. 72 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥-õìª ÎôÁ--é-vÚÛ-÷ªÙö˺ ô¦›úh
ú£ÙÜuõª. p, q, rõª ú£ï£°á ú£ÙÜuõªz ô¢«í£Ùö˺ 3 45 2 110 7 8 ÷, ÷ Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ ÓÙêŸ?
ô¦›úh NÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ 3 15 ÷«uëÇ]æ¨ÚÂq 5 55 1) 17 2) 21 3) 30 4) 42
(ap + 1 − 1) (bq + 1 − 1) (cr + 1 − 1) 5 11 2. 1729 Ú¨ Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Ú¥EC ÔC?
=  144 = 24 × 32
-
(a − 1) (b − 1) (c − 1) 720 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 220 = 22 × 51 × 111 1) 13 2) 19 3) 81 4) 91
N ÚÛª Ñìo vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ = 24 × 32 × 51 144 ÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu = (4 + 1) (2 + 1)
220 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 3. 576 Ú¨ Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª ÓEo?
(ap + 1 − 1) (bq + 1 − 1) (cr + 1 − 1) 720 ÚÛª Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu -
= 5 × 3 = 15 - (23 − 1) (52 − 1) (112 − 1) 1) 10 2) 9 3) 7 4) 8
=  − N
(a − 1) (b − 1) (c − 1) =4+2+1=7 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 =  − 220
(2 − 1) (5 − 1) (11 − 1) 4. 324 ìª ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ õñÌÄÙÞ¥ íÆ£«êŸ-ô¢«-
ú£÷«-ëůìÙ: 4 7. A = F(12) ∩ F(18), B = F(16) ∩ F(24)
(8 − 1) (25 − 1) (121 − 1)
=  − 220
í£Ùö˺ ô¦óŸªÙè….
5. ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜu N = 2p × 35 × 57 × 73 ô¢«í£Ùö˺ ÑÙC.- (A, B õª ·ôÙè[ª ú£Nª-꟪õª) Íô³ê¶ -
A−B=?
(1) (4) (10) 1) 22 × 34 2) 23 × 34
ô¢àŸô³êŸ Î ú£ÙÜuÚÛª Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu 18 1) {1, 2, 4, 8} 2) {3, 6}
7 × 24 × 120 3) 23 × 35 4) 2 × 35
úˆšï°àÂ. ô¦ëůÚÛ”ù£g Íô³ê¶ p Nõª÷ ÓÙêŸ? 3) {3, 6, 4, 8} 4) {4, 8} =  − 220
4 × 10 -
5. 500 ÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu?
Nù£óŸª Eí£±éªõª 1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 5 þ§-ëÅ]ì: 12 = 1 × 12; 2 × 6; 3 × 4
= 504 − 220 = 284 1) 6 2) 9 3) 12 4) 15
þ§ëÅ]ì: N = 2p × 35 × 57 × 73 18 = 1 × 18; 2 × 9; 3 × 6
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 6. 48 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ ÓÙêŸ?
16 = 1 × 16; 2 × 8; 4 × 4
÷«-CJ ú£÷ª-ú£uõª NÚÛª Ñìo ví£ëůì Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu =-
⇒ p + 5 + 7 + 3 = 18 ⇒ p + 15 = 18
18
24 = 1 × 24; 2 × 12; 3 × 8; 4 × 6
Þœ-÷ª-EÚÛ:- 6 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 6 1) 134 2) 124
28 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 28 3) 144 4) 154
1. Ú¨ÙC-î¦-æ¨ö˺ 100 ÚÛª Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Ú¥EC ÔC? ⇒ p = 18 − 15 = 3 F(12) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12}
496 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 496 7. 100 ÚÛª Ñìo vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu?
1) 5 2) 15 3) 20 4) 25 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1 F(18) = {1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18}
8128 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 8128 1) 9 2) 8 3) 10 4) 7
þ§-ëÅ]ì: F 100 E 5 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°T-ú£ªhÙC Ú¥ñæ¨d 100Ú¨ 6. 144 ÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª ÓEo? A = F (12) ∩ F (18)
6, 28, 496, 8128-õìª í£J-í£²ô¢g ú£ÙÜuõª 8. 284 vÚÛ-í£-Ú¥-ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ?
5 Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- 1) 18 2) 12 3) 15 4) 20 = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12 } ∩ {1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18} (Perfect numbers) ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.- 1) 220 2) 280
F 100E 15 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°TÙ-àŸë]ª.- Ú¥ñæ¨d 100Ú¨ 15 þ§ëÅ]ì: -
144 = 1 × 144; 2 × 72; 3 × 48; 4 × 36; = {1, 2, 3, 6} 10. ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜu N ìª 75 êÁ òÅ°T›úh øË™ù£Ù 21 ÷#aÙC.- 3) 244 4) 264
Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Ú¥ë]ª.- 6 × 24; 8 × 18; 9 × 16; 12 × 12 F(16) = {1, 2, 4, 8, 16} Íô³ê¶ Íë¶ ú£ÙÜuìª 15êÁ òÅ°T›úh ÷à¶a øË™ù£Ù 9. ÖÚÛ ú£ÙÜuìª 171êÁ òÅ°T›úh øË™ù£Ù 25
F 100E 20 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°T-ú£ªhÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d 100Ú¨ 20 144 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õª -
= 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9, 12, F(24) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24} ÓÙêŸ? ÷#aÙC.- Íë¶ ú£ÙÜuìª 19êÁ òÅ°TÙ-àŸÞ¥ ÷à¶a
Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- 16, 18, 24, 36, 48, 72, 144 B = F (16) ∩ F (24) 1) 8 2) 9 3) 6 4) 7 øË™ù£Ù ÓÙêŸ?
F 100E 25 EøË™)-ù£ÙÞ¥ òÅ°T-ú£ªhÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d 100Ú¨ 25 144 ÚÛª Ñìo Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ ú£ÙÜu =- 15 = {1, 2, 4, 8, 16} ∩ {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24} 75 N 15 N 1) 8 2) 9 3) 6 4) 11
Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- sö˶ë¯z = {1, 2, 4, 8} ( ) − 21 ( )−? 10. Ú¨ÙC-î¦-æ¨ö˺ ví£ëůì ú£ÙÜu Ú¥EC ÔC?
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 2 144 A − B = {1, 2, 3, 6} − {1, 2, 4, 8} = {3, 6} îµ³-ë]æ¨ òÅ°Þ¥--ô¢Ùö˺ NòÅ°-áÚÛÙ =- 75 1) 41 2) 43 3) 47 4) 49
2. Ú¨ÙC-î¦-æ¨ö˺ 36Ú¨ Ñìo Ú¥ô¢é°Ù-Ú¥õª ÔN? 2 72 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 ·ôÙèÁ òŰޥ-ô¢Ùö˺ NòÅ°-áÚÛÙ =- 15
1) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36 2 36 8. 90 Ú¥ô¢-é°Ù-Ú¥õ îµ³êŸhÙ ÓÙêŸ? îµ³ë]æ¨ NòÅ°-á-Ú¥-EÚ¨ ·ôÙèÁ NòÅ°-áÚÛÙ Ú¥ô¢-é°ÙÚÛÙ ú£÷«ëůû¦õª
2) 1, 2, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36 2 18 1) 224 2) 234 3) 244 4) 254 Íô³-ê¶, ·ôÙèÁ òÅ°Þ¥--ô¢Ùö˺ øË™ÿ§Eo ÚÛìª-ÚÁ\--î¦-õÙç˶ 1-2 2-3 3-4 4-1 5-3
3) 1, 2, 3, 4, 9, 12, 16, 18 39 þ§-ëÅ]ì: 90 = 1 × 90; 2 × 45; 3 × 30; 5 × 18; îµ³ë]æ¨ òÅ°Þ¥--ô¢Ù-ö˺E øË™ÿ§Eo ·ôÙèÁ òÅ°Þ¥--ô¢Ù-ö˺E 6-2 7-2 8-1 9-3 10-4
4) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12, 18, 36 3 6 × 15; 9 × 10 NòÅ°-á-ÚÛÙêÁ òÅ°TÙ-à¦L.-
GH
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Coding And Decoding
In the previous article, we discussed, in
detail, the most important topic a candidate
should attempt first in the Logical
Reasoning Section of the exam. The next
most important topic a candidate should
What is the colour of apple?
attempt is Coding and Decoding. We have 3) XLMHSWVI 4) XLMHRWVI letter ‘O’ and the code ‘c’ is common. Hence the WORDS CODES
chosen this topic as the second one, keeping 5) XLMHRYVI code for ‘O’ is ‘c’. Similarly, we can find out the girls at
in view its weightage, difficulty level, and Sol: For the letters in the word their opposite letters and their corresponding codes.
most importantly, the chances of scoring 5 are vj
letters are written as the code. Hence the Letters D O L T I A C M W V E
out of 5 marks in the exam. In this article, code for CONSIDER is XLMHRWVI playing lt
codes t c s g e k l y r b/n b/n
we are going to discuss those models of Ans: 4 chess km
Coding and Decoding that are important 5. In a certain code language “AGENCY” is 9-3; The code for ‘WILD’ is ‘rest’. some ox
for the Prelims Examination. coded as “DHZXDM” and in the same way 10-4; The code for ‘MAID VOTE’ is ‘yket bcgn’.
left hs
“BEAUTY” is coded as “ZFAXUT”, then which 11-5; ‘rhlnc’ can be code for ‘COWER’
of the following words is coded as “CASTLE”? 12-1; ‘EXAM’ can be coded as ‘kbyz’ cricket fg
Writer 1) RBDDMS 2) RBBDMS 3) RBBMDS 13-4; LACK - sltk definitely false. boys ck
4) TBDEMS 5) RBBMSD watching bn
G. Sashi Kumar MODEL - III : Sentences and codes
Sol: Word: A G E N C Y not sr
Senior Faculty, CCE −1 +1 −1 −1 +1 −1 Directions (Qs. 14 - 18): In certain code lan-
guage, the code for the sentence given in col- players ef/dw
umn I are given in column II. Each word has a watching ef/dw
Model Questions
MODEL - I: Individual Questions
Code: D H Z X D M
Similarly
SBI unique code.
Answer the questions based on these codes.
14-2; The code for ‘boys’ is ‘ck’
15-3; ‘Cricket’ is coded as ‘fg’
Word: C A S T L E Junior Associates Column-I Column-II 16-5; ‘sr hs’ is the code for ‘not left’
1. In a certain code language “ENORMOUS” is −1 +1 −1 −1 +1 −1 17-1; ‘cz dw’ can be the code for ‘woman players’
girls are playing chess vj at lt km
coded as “SUOMRONE” and in the same way
“OUTCOME” is coded as “EMOCTUO”, then
Reasoning some girls are left at ox vj hs 18-5; ‘lt dk cs’ can not be the code for ‘listen
music interestingly’
what will be the code for “RELEGATED”? some boys playing cricket lt fg ck ox
1) DETAGLEER 2) DETAGELER Code: R B B D M S WORDS CODES MODEL-IV: Condition based coding
girls not watching cricket fg bn sr at
3) DETAGEELER 4) DEATGELER Ans: 2
DOVE bcnt Directions (Qs. 19 - 20): Study the following infor-
6. If spoon is called fork, fork is called knife, players watching chess km ef dw bn
5) DETEGAELRE TIL egs mation carefully and answer the questions
knife is called plate, plate is called pot, then interestingly
Sol: Letters in the word are reversed. Similarly MALT sgyk given below it.
the instrument used to cut the vegetables is?
the code for RELEGATED is DETAGELER 14. What is the code for “boys”? Digits in the numbers are to be coded as
1) Pot 2) Knife 3) Fork CAD ktl
Ans: 2 1) ox 2) ck 3) fg 4) sr 5) lt follows:
4) Plate 5) Spoon OWL src
2. In a certain code language “TACITURN” is 15. Which word is coded as “fg”? Digit 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
coded as “UTTRNICA” and in the same way Sol: Knife is used to cut vegetables and in this
code knife is called plate Ans: 4 9. Find the code for “WILD”? 1) playing 2) some 3) cricket Code K C S E Z V F R T A
“MAGPIPE” is coded as “PPMIGEA”, then 4) boys 5) not
7. If yellow means red, red means blue, blue 1) ersn 2) rent 3) esrt
what will be the code for “ANSWERS”? Following conditions are to be observed:
means black, black means orange, then what 4) stry 5) terk 16. What is the code for “not left”?
1) WSRSNEA 2) WSSNERA 1) If the first and last digits are even then both
is the colour of apple? 10. Find the code for “MAID VOTE”? 1) sr fg 2) hs xv 3) ao sr
3) WSSRNEA 4) SSWRNEA are coded as ‘$’.
1) Black 2) Blue 3) Red 1) ekye lrnc 2) kylr gsnb 3) yekl bgnc 4) fg lt 5) sr hs
5) AENRSSW 2) If the first digit is even and the last digit is
4) Yellow 5) Orange 4) tkey bgnc 5) Cannot be determined 17. What can be the code for “women players”?
Sol: The letters in the word are arranged in the odd then both codes are interchanged.
Sol: Apple is red in colour and yellow means 11. Which can be the code for “COWER”? 1) cz dw 2) ab cz 3) ef dw
reverse alphabetical order. The code for 3) If the middle digit is ‘0’ (zero) then ‘0’ will
red. Hence apple is yellow in colour. 1) hlbrn 2) nkzcr 3) tgsyl 4) fg dw 5) ef sr be coded as ‘#’.
ANSWERS is WSSRNEA Ans: 3
Ans: 4 4) behlc 5) rhlnc 18. What is not code for “listen music interest- 4) If the first digit odd and the last digit is even
3. In a certain code language “SLOWDOWN” is
8. The value of the word “SHYLY” is coded with 12. Which may be coded as “kbyz”? ingly”? then both digits codes will be coded as
coded as “TMPXEPXO” and in the same
way “BROUGHT” is coded as “CSPVHIU”, “89” and in the same way “MASTER” is 1) EXAM 2) MAPS 3) VOID 1) za it ef 2) dw st xo 3) dw ab xy code for the last digit.
then what will be the code for “WEALTH”? coded with “76”, then what will be the code 4) DITE 5) WICK 4) ef cy bx 5) lt dk cs Note: 0 (Zero) is not considered as either even or
1) XFBMUJ 2) XFBMUI 3) XFCMUI for “WORRIED”? 13. Which of the following combination is defi- Key With Explanation: odd. If no condition is being followed then
4) XFBMIU 5) XFALTI 1) 89 2) 98 3) 92 4) 94 5) 95 nitely false? Column-I Column-II the codes for the digits are according to
Sol: Word: S L O W D O W N Sol: Sum of the place values of the letters in 1) TOY - gmc 2) MOVE - nybc 1. girls are playing chess - vj at lt km the given table.
the word is the number. 3) DONE - ntcj 4) LACK - sltk 2. some girls are left - at ox vj hs 19. 5891436
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
S = 19, H = 8, Y = 25, L = 12, Y = 25 5) TOOL - cscg 3. some boys playing cricket - lt fg ck ox 1) VTACZEV 2) FTCAEZF
Code: T M P X E P X O
19 + 8 + 25 + 12 + 25 = 89 Key With Explanation: 4. girls not watching cricket - fg bn sr at 3) FTACZEF 4) VTACZEF
Similarly
Similarly, W O R R I E D WORDS CODES 5. players watching chess - km ef dw bn 5) None of these
Word: W E A L T H
= 23 + 15 + 18 + 18 + 9 + 5 + 4 = 92 1. DOVE - bcnt interestingly Sol: By rule (4), the code for 5891436 is
+1 +1 +1 +1 +1 +1
Ans: 3 2. TIL - egs By comparing (1), (2) and (4) the words ‘girls’ FTACZEF Ans: 3
Code: X F B M U I
Ans: 2 MODEL - II: Words and codes 3. MALT - sgyk and the code ‘at’ are common. Hence the code 20. 7980531
4. In a certain code language “BELIEVE” is coded 4. CAD - ktl for girls is at. By comparing (1) and (2), the 1) RAT#VEC 2) CATKVER
Directions (Qs. 9 - 13): For the words given in
as “YVORVEV” and in the same way “DELAY” 5. OWL - src code ‘are’ and the code ‘vj’ are common. Hence 3) CAT#VER 4) RATKVEC
column I, the codes are given in column II.
is coded as “WVOZB”, then which of the fol- Answer the following questions, by finding the By comparing (1) and (4), the letter ‘D’ and the code for are is ‘vj’. Similarly, we can find out 5) None of these
lowing words is coded as “CONSIDER”? codes for the letters from the words and their the code ‘t’ are common. Hence the code for ‘D’ the codes for the remaining words. The words Sol: By rule (3), the code for 7980531 is
1) XLMHRWIV 2) XLMRVWI given in the columns. is ‘t’. Similarly, by comparing (1) and (5), the and their corresponding codes are as follows. RAT#VEC Ans: 1
GH
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History
1. Ravikirti, a jain, who composed the Aihole
Prashasti, was patronised by....
a) Pulakeshin -I
c) Pulakeshin -II
b) Harsha
d) Kharavela
‘Mandal issue’ is associated with..?
2. Which was the backbone of Indus Economy?
18. Which of the following article deals with
a) Agriculture
c) Dairy
b) Brick industry
d) Carpentry
3. According to ancient Indian cosmogonic
SSC Exams “Freedom to manage religious affairs”.....
a) Article 25 b) Article 24
General Science
25. Stroboscope is used to.....
ideas the sequential order of the cycle of four
aeons (yugas) is:
a) Dvapara, Krita, Treta and Kali
Special c) Article 23 d) Article 26
19. Who quoted Directive principles of state pol-
icy as a ‘manifesto of aims and aspirations’?
a) View rapidly moving objects
b) measures the curvature of surfaces
c) View distant objects
a) T.T. Krishnamachari b) K.T. Shah
b) Krita, Dvapara, Treta and Kali General Awareness c) K.C. Wheare d) Sir Ivor Jennings
d) To measure blood pressure
c) Krita, Treta, Dvapara and Kali 26. Which of the following is an example for
d) Treta, Dvapara, Kali and Krita 20. The remuneration of the Attorney General is scalar quantity?
a) Battle of Plassey b) Battle of Panipat
determined by..... a) Displacement b) Velocity
4. Name the clan Buddha belonged to...... c) Anglo Mysore wars
a) Union Law minister b) The President c) Distance d) Position
a) Gnathrika b) Maurya d) Battle of Wandiwash
c) The Parliament 27. At 25 degree Celsius, Speed of sound is
c) Sakya d) Kuru 14. Who started a Hindi weekly ‘Abhyudaya’?
5. Mohammed Bin Tuglaq transferred his capi- d) Chief Justice of India highest in.....
a) Madan Mohan Malaviya
tal from..... B. P. Mandal 21. The establishment of the CBI was recom- a) Glass b) Iron c) Steel d) Aluminium
b) Raja ram Mohan Roy
a) Delhi to Warangal b) Delhi to Devagiri mended by the...... 28. The process of depositing a layer of zinc on
c) Swami Vivekananda d) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Delhi to Madurai d) Delhi to Calcutta c) Aihole d) Nasik a) Sarkaria Committee iron is called.....
b) Punchhi Committee a) Galvanisation b) Crystallisation
6. Whom did Bal Gangadhar Tilak refer to as 9. Which of the following was the early capital Polity c) Santhanam Committee
his Political Guru? of the Rashtrakutas? c) Rusting d) None
a) Swami Vivekananda b) Ram Mohan Roy a) Sopara b) Ellora c) Vatapi d) Ajanta 15. ‘Mandal issue’ is associated with..... d) Rao Committee 29. What is the major sources of Carbon
c) Sisir Kumar Ghosh d) MG Ranade 10. Shaddarshan means..... a) Environment Movement 22. Judicial review in the Indian Constitution is monoxide?
7. Who was the leader of the Bardoli a) 6 schools of philosophy b) Rights Movements c) OBC reservations based on..... a) Refrigerants b) Aerosol
Satyagraha? b) 8 Schools of philosophy d) None of the above a) Equal laws for all b) Due process of Law c) Paints d) Vehicular combustion
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad c) 9 Schools of philosophy 16. “Flowers and Grass” is the symbol of which c) Procedure established by Law 30. Which of the following affects the optic
b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru d)10 Schools of Philosophy Indian political party? d) Rule of Law nerve, causing blindness?
c) Sardar Patel d) Acharya J. B. Kripalani 11. Who translated “Mahabharatha” into Persian ? a) Communist Party of India (Marxist) 23. Which of the following act known as the a) Methanol b) Ethanol
8. Which inscription mentions about the village a) Keshav Lal b) Abul Fazal b) Nationalist Congress Party "Act for the Good Government of India"? c) Ethanoic Acid d) Acetone
administration under the Cholas? c) Babar d) Badauni c) All India Trinamool Congress a) Government of India act, 1935 31. Who among the following is known as the
a) Junagarh b) Uttaramerur d) Bahujan Samaj Party b) Government of India act 1858 Father of Indian Botany?
12. A new coin called the ‘Rupaya’ was issued
for the first time by..... 17. Which of the following act abolished the c) Charter act of 1853 a) Birbal Shahni b) K.C. Mehta
a) Ala-ud-din Khilji trade monopoly of the company in India? d) Pitts act of 1784 c) William Roxburgh d) T. Sadashivam
Writer 32. Which of the following are helpful for fer-
b) Mohammed Shah Tughluq a) Charter Act of 1793 24. The elections to the Constituent Assembly
T. Srichakra Phani c) Sher Shah Suri d) Akbar b) Charter Act of 1813 (for 296 seats allotted to the British Indian mentation of rice idlis and dosa batter?
13. British achieved political power in India after c) Charter Act of 1833 Provinces) were held in.... a) Bacteria b) Yeast
Senior Faculty, RACE
which of the following war? d) Charter Act of 1853 a) 1940 b) 1942 c)1944 d) 1946 c) Both a and b d) Fungi and bacteria

Key With Explanations
1-c; Ravikirti was the court poet of Chalukya
King, Pulakesin - II who reigned from 610
to 642 A.D.
2-a; Agriculture was the backbone of the Indus
economy. The people made extensive use
of the wooden plows. Barley and wheat
were the main food crops.
3-c; A complete Yuga starts with the Satya
Yuga(Krita), Treta Yuga and Dvapara Yuga
into a Kali Yuga.
4-c; Sakya was an ancient tribe. Buddha was
also known as sakya muni.
5-b; In 1327, Muhammad bin Tughluq passed
an order to shift the capital from Delhi to
Daulatabad, also known as Devagiri, in
present day Maharashtra.
6-d; Mahadev Govind Ranade was known to be
the mentor and political guru of Bal
Gangadhar Tilak.
7-c; The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928), Gujarat. It
was at that time that Mahatma Gandhi
conferred the title of “SARDAR” to
Vallabhai Patel.
8-b; A tenth century inscription on a temple wall
of the brahman village of Uttaramerur
gives the details of village administration
under Cholas.
9-b; Dantidurga who was the founder and first
ruler of the dynasty, ruled from Ellora.
Later, Amoghavarsha - I made Manyakhet
his capital that remained the
Rashtrakutas' regal capital until the end of
the empire.
10-a; Hindu philosophy is traditionally divided
into six astika (orthodox) schools of
thought, or darsanam, which accept the
Vedas as supreme revealed scriptures.
11-d; The Mahabharata was translated into
Persian at Akbar’s orders, by Faizi and
Abd al-Qadir Badauni and named
Razmnama.
12-c; Sher shah introduced a silver coin
Rupaya.
13-a; After the Battle of Plassey in 1757, the
British achieved political power in India. It
marked a decisive victory of the British
East India Company over the Nawab of
Bengal and his French allies.
14-a; Madan Mohan Malaviya was vice chan-
cellor of Benares Hindu University. His
journals were Leader, Indian union,
Abyudaya, Hindustan. In 1915, he found-
ed Hindu Maha Sabha.
15-c; Mandal Commission - Reservations for
the Other Backward Classes.
16-c.
17-b; The act of 1813 abolished the trade
monopoly of the company in India i.e., the
Indian trade was thrown open to all British
merchants.
18-d; Article 26 - Freedom to manage religious
affairs.
19-c; K.C.Wheare called DPSP as a ‘manifesto
of aims and aspirations’ and opined that
they serve as mere ‘moral homily’.
20-b; The remuneration of the Attorney General
is not fixed by the Constitution. He
receives such remuneration as the presi-
dent may determine.
21-c; The establishment of the CBI was recom-
mended by the Santhanam Committee on
Prevention of Corruption (1962-64). The
CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its
powers from the Delhi Special Police
Establishment Act, 1946.
22-c; The phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has
nowhere been used in the Constitution.
The American Constitution provides for
‘due process of law’ against that of ‘pro-
cedure established by law’ which is con-
tained in the Indian Constitution.
23-b; Government of India act 1858 known as
the Act for the Good Government of
India.
24-d; The elections to the Constituent
Assembly were held in July-August 1946.
The Indian National Congress won 208
seats, the Muslim League 73 seats, and
the small groups and independents got
the remaining 15 seats.
25-a; Stroboscope is used to view rapidly mov-
ing objects.
26-c.
27-d.
28-a; The iron pipes we use in our homes to
carry water are galvanised to prevent
rusting.
29-d; Vehicular combustion and burning of
fuels and hydrocarbons are the sources
Carbon monoxide.
30-a; Methanol in very small quantities can
cause death. Methanol affects the optic
nerve, causing blindness.
31-c; William Roxburgh, a Scottish botanist is
considered to be the father of Indian
Botany.
32-c; Bacteria and yeast are also helpful for fer-
mentation of rice idlis and dosa batter.

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Data Interpretation
TABLES
In tables, data is arranged in rows and
columns. In Data Interpretation tables you
are required to read data from tables,
analyse the same and answer the given
Who has scored the highest marks?
question on that basis. 6. The approximate percentage increment in school B in 2015 and 2017 together? A - 525; B - 468; C - 412; D - 437
F Before solving a question, read the infor-
mation given in the table very carefully as
even minute details may change the ques-
SBI the number of students appeared in school D
from 2016 to 2017 was..
1) 20% 2) 30% 3) 25% 4) 10% 5) 40%
1) 2017
4) 2015
Sol: In the year 2019
2) 2016
5) 2019
3) 2018

Ans: 5
E - 474; F - 361.
A got highest marks in all subjects
Ans: 3
tion entirely. Understand the instructions Junior Associates 108 − 98
Sol:  × 100 ≈ 10 % Directions (Q. 11 - 14): Study the following table 13. What is the percentage of D’s marks (upto
carefully to avoid wastage of time while 98 Ans: 4 carefully and answer the given questions. two digits after decimal) in all the subjects
calculating the data. Quantitative Aptitude 7. In which of the following years was the num- Following table gives the marks obtained by dif-
together?
F Be very careful of the units used in the ber of students appeared in all the schools ferent students in different subjects. 1) 88.63 2) 77.38 3) 67.83
tables, and the units in which the answers 1) 20% 2) 60% 3) 50% 4) 40% 5) 30% put together the maximum?
(options) are provided. A mistake in the 1) 2016 2) 2018 3) 2015 4) 2019 5) 2017 Hindi English Maths Social Science Sanskrit Phy.Edu
Sol: Number of males from
units may yield an entirely different Sol: 2018 Ans: 2 (100) (100) (100) (100) (75) (50) (75)
B & C = 540 + 720 = 1260
answer. Also be careful of whether the Number of females from 8. In which of the following years was the pass A 85 95 87 87 65 35 71
answer is required in decimal or percent- A & D = 450 + 450 = 900 percentage of school B the minimum? B 72 97 55 77 62 41 64
age. Such errors are common and easily 1260 − 900
∴ Required Percent =  1) 2017 2) 2019 3) 2016
avoidable. C 64 78 74 63 55 25 53
900 4) 2015 5) None of these
360 D 65 62 69 81 70 40 50
=  × 100 = 40% 48
900 Ans: 4 Sol: 2015;  × 100 = 85.71 % E 92 82 81 79 49 30 61
Writer 56
4. If total male participated from school F are 56
Dr. G.S. Giridhar F 55 70 65 69 44 28 30
40% more than that of from school A and 2016;  × 100 = 71.79 %
78
Director, RACE ratio of female participated from school B to
that of from school F is 21 : 32, then find total 72 11. How many students have scored the lowest 4) 62.83 5) 72.83
2017;  × 100 = 76.59 %
students participated from school F. 94 marks in two or more subjects ? Sol: D total marks = 437
Model Questions 1) 1420 2) 1550 3) 1580 70 1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) 0 5) 4 437
2018;  × 100 = 82.35 % Sol: Subject wise lowest marks Required percent =  × 100 = 72.83%
4) 1460 5) 1490 85 600 Ans: 5
Directions (Qs. 1 - 5): Table given below shows
Sol: Number of males from F 90 Hindi - F; English - D; Maths - B; Social - C; 14. Marks obtained by C in Hindi are what per-
the number of male and female participated in 2019;  × 100 = 97.82
an event from five different schools (A, B, C, D = 140% of 650 = 910 92 Science - F; Sanskrit - C; Phy.Edu - F. cent of marks (upto two digits after decimal)
& E). Study the table carefully and answer the Ratio of females from school B & F = 21 : 32 ∴ The minimum is in the year 2016 Ans: 3 2 students, F & C got lowest marks in 2 or obtained by A in the same subject ?
following questions. (SBI CLERKS 2020) Number of females from B = 420 9. In which of the following schools was the per- more subjects Ans: 1 1) 75.92 2) 78.38 3) 77.29
32 centage pass the maximum in 2018? 12. Who has scored the highest marks in all the 4) 75.29 5) 72.83
SCHOOLS MALE FEMALE Number of females from F =  × 420 = 640 1) E 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) D subjects together ? 64
21 Sol: Required percent =  × 100 = 75.29%
A 650 450 86 1) D 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) B 85
∴Total Students from F = 910 + 640 = 1550 Sol: A;  × 100 = 78.18%
B 540 420 Sol: Student wise highest marks Ans: 4
Ans: 2 110
C 720 500 5. Find total number of male students partici- 70 2. Delay in flight C on Monday was what per-
D 560 450 pated from all the five schools together?
B;  × 100 = 82.35%
85
Practice Questions cent less than the delay in flight D on the
E 680 320 1) 2860 2) 3150 3) 2940 Directions (1 - 5): Study the following informa- same day?
90
4) 3200 5) 3020 C;  × 100 = 88.23% tion carefully and answer the questions given 1) 19.5% 2) 22.5% 3) 16.25%
1. Find average number of female participated 102
from school A, B & D. Sol: Number of males from all schools below. 4) 14.75% 5) 18.75%
102
= 650 + 540 + 720 + 560 + 680 = 3150 D;  × 100 = 91.07% Delay (in minutes) of flights A, B, C and D on 3. Total delay time for flight C on Wednesday,
1) 400 2) 380 3) 350 4) 440 5) 450 112
Sol: Average females from Ans: 2 given 4 days Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday Thursday and Friday was 2 hours 45 min-
98
450 + 420 + 450 1320 Directions (Qs. 6 - 10): Study the following table E;  × 100 = 90.74% and Thursday is given in the table below. utes, what is ratio between delay in flight C
A, B & D =  =  = 440 108 on Friday and delay in flight D on Thursday?
carefully and answer the questions that follow. (SBI CLERKS 2018)
3 3 ∴ The maximum percentage is in school D
Time (in Minutes) for Which 1) 19 : 9 2) 17 : 10 3) 19 : 10
Ans: 4 Following table gives the number of students Ans: 5
4) 19 : 5 5) 18 : 5
2. Total male participated from school B & D Appeared and Passed in an examination from 10. In which of the following years was the num- flights are delay 4. Find the difference between delay time of
together are how much more or less than five different schools A, B, C, D and E over the ber of students appeared in school C same A B C D flight B on Monday and Wednesday togeth-
years. as the total number of students passed in
total female participated from school A & C MONDAY 60 107 39 48 er and delay time of same flights on
together? Schools A B C D E TUESDAY 36 134 65 35 Tuesday and Thursday together?
→ 1) 6 minutes 2) 5 minutes 3) 14 minutes
1) 150 2) 110 3) 170 4) 120 5) 240 WEDNESDAY 40 49 96 22
Sol: Number of males from YEARS ↓ A P A P A P A P A P 4) 8 minutes 5) 12 min
THURSDAY 84 28 12 15
B & D = 540 + 560 = 1100 2015 75 55 56 48 60 45 84 78 70 68 5. Find the average delay time of flight A on all
Number of females from 1. Out of total time for which flights C and D the given four days?
2016 83 60 78 56 85 75 98 80 85 75
A & C = 450 + 500 = 950 was delayed on Tuesday, 1/5 of delay was 1) 46 minutes 2) 54 minutes
Difference = 1100 − 950 = 150 Ans: 1 2017 92 78 94 72 90 85 108 102 96 88 because of late arrival. What was total time 3) 45 minutes 4) 57 minutes
3. Total male participated from school B & C 2018 110 86 85 70 102 90 112 102 108 98 for which flights C and D was delayed 5) 55 minutes
together are what percent more or less than because of late arrival?
2019 108 96 92 90 120 105 90 80 96 90
total female participated from school A & D 1) 15 minutes 2) 20 minutes 3) 35 minutes
together? A: Appeared P: Passed 4) 25 minutes 5) 30 minutes

GH
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F F F F F F F F F
Seating Arrangements
Seating Arrangement forms a major chunk of
questions from the Reasoning Ability section.
You will always find questions based on the
seating arrangement in Preliminary as well as
Who among the following likes Orange?
in main examinations of various banking exams
such as SBI PO, IBPS PO, SBI Clerk, IBPS ting at the extreme ends ?
Tips/ Techniques to save time
Clerk, RRB PO, RRB Clerk, etc. In this article,
I am going to provide you with some important
tips for the seating arrangement questions. As
a) QV b) PR c) TP d) ST e) VP
8. Name the person who should change places
with R such that he gets the fourth place from
SBI l Divide given data into two parts i.e, Primary
data & Secondary data.
you all are well aware, at least 2-4 sets are the south end. Junior Associates l Secondary data is introduction of the
asked from seating arrangement or puzzle- a) P b) S c) Q d) T e) U arrangement or basic data.
based questions in most of the banking exams. 9. Immediately between which of the following Reasoning l No need to note down anything from
This topic is really important since the question pairs of people S is sitting? Secondary data.
is asked normally in a set of 5 questions and a) UR b) PQ c) VP d) TU e) RV l Primary data is most important part in
d) Five e) None of these arrangement so we must note down all the
once you get the correct arrangement, you can 10. Which of the conditions given above are not
easily score 5 marks from this part. 12. Who among the following is an immediate given positive and negative clues/condi-
required to find out the place in which P is neighbour of the persons who like Black tions in appropriate way, otherwise we can’t
sitting? and Yellow? make arrangements in less time.
a) I b) II c) IV d) III e) All required a) Dinesh b) Gaurav c) Heena
Writer How to divide Primary & Secondary data
Explanation: d) Chandan e) None of these Ex: P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a
A. Anjaneyulu P 13. Who among the following likes Orange? straight line facing north, but not necessarily
Senior Faculty, RACE R a) Nita b) Pranav c) Dinesh in the same order. There is only one person
the immediate left of A, who sits in the middle of S d) Bhavesh e) None of these between U and R. T sits between P and S.
the row. 14. Who among the following sits on the imme- There are only two persons between T and V.
Types of seating arrangements: U
1. How many persons are there between diate left of the one who likes Blue? U sits on the immediate left of P, who sits in
1. Linear seating arrangements V the middle of the row.
E and F? a) The one who likes Orange
2. Two parallel row arrangements Q Secondary data
a) One b) Two c) Three b) Either Pranav or Nita
3. Circular arrangements T P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in a
d) Can’t be determined e) None of these c) The one who likes Violet
4. Square arrangements straight line facing north, but not necessarily
2. Who among the following sit at the extreme Ans: 6-b; 7-c; 8-e; 9-a; 10-e. d) The one who likes Black
5. Miscellaneous/ mixed arrangements ends of the row? in the same order.
Directions (Qs. 11 - 16): Study the following e) None of these
LINEAR SEATING ARRANGEMENTS a) D, F b) G, C c) B, C information carefully and answer the questions Primary data
15. Who among the following sits third to the
d) Can’t be determined e) None of these given below. There is only one person between U and R.
In this type of linear seating arrangements, right of the person who likes Red?
Eight friends Heena, Chandan, Nita, Gaurav, T sits between P and S. There are only two
candidates are required to arrange persons in 3. Who among the following sits on the immedi- a) Nita b) Gaurav c) Dinesh
Bhavesh, Pranav, Dinesh and Isha are sitting in persons between T and V. U sits on the imme-
the row according given clues/ conditions with ate right of D? d) Pranav e) None of these
a row facing north. All of them like different diate left of P, who sits in the middle of the row.
respect to their positions. Candidates need to a) G b) E c) F d) B e) None of these 16. Which of the following statement is/ are
identify the exact position of persons along with 4. Who among the following sits third to the colours, viz Red, Pink, Orange, Green, Yellow,
true? u V stands third to the left of R.
any other variable given in the question with right of A? Black, Violet and Blue.
a) Bhavesh is on the immediate right of u Neither R nor U is an immediate neighbour
respect to one another based on the informa- a) C b) G c) B d) E e) None of these F There is only one person between Nita and
Gaurav and likes Green. of S.
tion given. the one who likes violet.
5. Which of the following statements is true with b) Heena sits second to the right of Nita. 17. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Q?
Based on the direction of the persons given regard to B? F Dinesh is neither an immediate neighbour of
in the question candidates should take proper Nita nor he likes Green. c) Dinesh is an immediate neighbour of Isha a) P stands second to the left of Q.
a) B is second to the right of A. and Nita.
left/ right or left end/ right end. F Heena sits fourth to the left of the one who b) S is one of the immediate neighbour of Q.
b) B is fourth to the left of G. d) Only (a) and (c) are true.
NORTH FACING: likes Violet but she does not like Pink. c) Only one person stands between Q and T.
c) B sits at the extreme right end of the row. e) None is true.
F The person who likes Black is third to the d) Q stands at one of the extreme ends of the
LEFT RIGHT d) B sits at the extreme left end of the row. right of the one who likes Green and sits on Explanation: line.
e) None of these. the immediate right of Heena. e) V stands second to the right of Q.
Orange
Yellow
Green

Viloet
Black

Explanation: F The one who likes Green sits at one of the 18. Four of the following five form a group as
Blue
Pink
Red

LEFT END RIGHT END extreme ends of the row. Chandan does not per the given arrangement. Which of the fol-
SOUTH FACING: like Green. Facing lowing does not belong to that group?
C G F A E D B F Pranav is an immediate neighbour of both North a) RQ b) TP c) VT d) UV e) PS
RIGHT END LEFT END Ans: 1-a; 2-c; 3-d; 4-c; 5-c.
Bhavesh

Heena

Chandan

Nita

Pranav

Dinesh

Isha

Dinesh and Nita. 19. What is the position of V with respect to U?

Directions (Qs. 6 - 10): Study the following F Isha sits at one of the extreme ends of the a) Immediate left b) Second to the right
Gaurav

information carefully and answer the questions row but she does not like Green. c) Third to the right d) Immediate right
given below. F The one who likes Blue sits second to the
RIGHT LEFT e) Second to the left
I. P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting on a wall right of the one who likes Orange. Ans: 11-a; 12-c; 13-b; 14-c; 15-d; 16-e. 20. Which of the following pairs stand at the
Model Questions and all of them are facing West. F The ones who like Black and Pink are imme- extreme ends of the line?
II. S is on the immediate left of R. diate neighbours. Directions (Qs. 17 - 20): Study the following infor-
Directions (Qs. 1 - 5): Study the following a) Q, S b) Q, P c) Q, T
III. T is at an extreme end and has Q as his F Bhavesh sits third to the left of Nita and likes mation carefully and answer the given questions.
information carefully and answer the questions d) V, S e) V, P
neighbour. Yellow. Seven friends P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are
given below.
IV. V is between Q and U. F There is only one person between the per- standing in a straight line facing north but not Explanation:
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight
V. S is sitting third from the north end. sons who like Yellow and Black. necessarily in the same order.
line facing north, but not necessarily in the
same order. There is only one person between 6. Who is sitting to the left of S? 11. How many persons are there between u U stands second from the left end of the line.
F and C. E sits between A and D. There are a) Q b) U c) T d) R e) P Gaurav and Chandan? u Only two persons stand between U and T. V U Q R T P S
only two persons between E and G. F sits on 7. Which of the following pairs of people are sit- a) Two b) Three c) Four u Only one person stands between P and R. Ans: 17-c; 18-c; 19-a; 20-d.

GH
 þ¼÷ªî¦ô¢Ù Wû 7, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17

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F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F

Word Rearrangement
In this question type, you are given a
sentence with three bold words, which may
not be in their correct positions. This is
harder than ‘Word-Swapping’ Question type
because the choices give combinations of all
Mark the correct arrengement..
the three words. This means, if A, B and C ment as the answer. If no rearrangement is was wise, popular and intimate (B) he died
are the bold words, we have to consider
ABC (No rearrangement required), ACB,
BAC, BCA, CAB, and CBA, a total of six
required, mark option (e) (No rearrangement
required) as your answer.
1. The explanation for the evident (A) phenom-
SBI because he was betrayed by his late (C)
friend.
a) ACB b) BAC c) BCA
combinations. enon, which was earlier strange (B), became Junior Associates d) CAB e) No rearrangement required
F A short cut would be to start with the first hidden (C) when he consulted a scientist. 12. They are so wily (A) to get rid of their des-
bold word ‘A’. We must first see if it is in a) ACB b) BAC c) BCA English Language perate (B) poverty that they are ready to
its correct place. If not, we must check d) CAB e) No rearrangement required even sell their souls to the abject (C) devil.
which other bold word can replace it. Let’s 2. The mother decided to blame (A) to a crime a) CBA b) ACB c) BAC
d) BCA e) No rearrangement required
say, it should be replaced by C, then, you she did not commit (B) because it was her d) BCA e) No rearrangement required
must go to the options and check which 8. The wording of the contract was selected
son who was to confess. (C) 13. He did not blame himself seriously (A) for
options begin with C. This way you can (A), intended (B) to confuse the complicat-
a) CBA b) ACB c) BAC ed (C) candidates. completely (B) injuring his wife because
eliminate some options. If there are two she too behaved carelessly (C).
d) BCA e) No rearrangement required a) CBA b) ACB c) BAC
options that begin with C, then you must a) CBA b) ACB c) BAC
see if the remaining two bold words ‘A’ 3. The saint did not have any visions (A) that d) CAB e) No rearrangement required
his stop (B) about future were going to con- d) CAB e) No rearrangement required
and ‘B’ need to be replaced with each 9. Every year, these nomads search (A) their
cern (C) completely. current country and quit (B) throughout 14. The cardinal (A) spy committed a candid
other. Based on that, you finalize your a) CBA b) CAB c) BCA
a) CBA b) ACB c) BAC another country in wander (C) of food and (B) sin when he told his foolish (C) wife the
answer. Most importantly, remember to d) ACB e) No rearrangement required
d) CAB e) No rearrangement required new shelter. state secret: Now everyone in the neigh-
start by first reading the whole sentence, 6. The thief was punished, not by circum- bourhood would know that.
understanding its context and sense. 4. You have to have (A) for it if you want to stances (A), but by the actions (B) of his a) CAB b) ACB c) BCA
a) CAB b) ACB c) BCA
apply (B) in this country, or at least drive (C) fate. (C) d) CBA e) No rearrangement required
Directions (Qs. 1 - 14): In each of the following d) CBA e) No rearrangement requied
a valid passport. a) ACB b) BAC c) BCA 10. When the arguments (A) happened and the
questions, a sentence is given with three words
a) CAB b) ACB c) BCA d) CAB e) No rearrangement required summit (B) finished, the leaders started
printed in bold and marked as (A), (B) and (C).
d) CBA e) No rearrangement required 7. It appeals (A) that she will fail even if she polling (C) even before the results were out. Writer
These words may or may not be placed at their
correct places. Four options with different 5. In our region, rain is scarce (A), but the seems (B) to the kindness of her father, who a) CBA b) CAB c) BCA
K. Naresh
arrangements of these words have been pro- canals supply perennial (B) water for the generally pardons (C) everyone. d) ACB e) No rearrangement required
vided. Mark the option with the correct arrange- ample (C) cultivation of staple crops. a) CBA b) ACB c) BAC 11. Ironically, though the generous (A) king
Senior Faculty, CCE

Key With Explanations
1-c; As he was seeking explanation for the phe-
nomenon, it must have been strange. So,
B comes in the first place. Obviously, when
we consult a scientist, things become
clearer. So, evident (which means obvious)
should come in the third place. Hidden,
therefore, comes in the second place.
What was hidden earlier, became evident
after consulting the scientist. The correct
rearrangement is BCA. The correct sen-
tence would read “The explanation for the
strange phenomenon, which was earlier
hidden, became evident when he consult-
ed a scientist.”
2-a; The preposition “to” before “a crime”
means that we cannot have “blame” or
“commit” in the first place. So, “confess”
should come first. “Commit” seems to be in
the correct place. “Blame” can go in the
third place. The correct rearrangement is
CBA. The correct sentence would read
“The mother decided to confess to a crime
she did not commit because it her son who
was to blame.”
3-d; “Stop completely” makes more sense than
“visions completely” and “concern com-
pletely”. So, B “stop” should come third.
“Visions about future” is sensible in the
context. So, A should come second. C
concern comes in the first place. The cor-
rect rearrangement is CAB. The correct
sentence would read “The saint did not
have any concern that his visions about
future were going to break completely.”
4-c; From the context, it is clear that “it” refers
to “driving license”. We apply for it. So, B
comes first. Driving license allows you to
drive. So, C comes second. We “have” a
passport. So, A comes last. The correct
rearrangement is BCA. The correct sen-
tence would read “You have to apply for it
if you want to drive in this country, or at
least have a valid passport.”
5-d; Rain can be “scarce” (rare) or “perennial”
(throughout the year). But the part “but the
canals supply” suggests that rains must be
scarce. This means A is in its correct
place. Perennial water does not make
sense, but “perennial cultivation” makes
sense. So, B comes third. And, C comes
second. The correct rearrangement is
ACB. The correct sentence would read “In
our region, rain is scarce, but the canals
supply ample water for the perennial culti-
vation of staple crops.”
6-d; Both “actions of his fate” and “fate of his
actions” do not make sense. This means
both B and C have to be replaced. The
phrase “circumstances of his actions”
makes sense. This means C fate should
come first, A circumstances should come
second, and B actions should come last.
The correct rearrangement is CAB. The
correct sentence would read “The thief
was punished, not by fate, but by the cir-
cumstances of his actions.”
7-c; “It seems”, which means “it appears” is
more apt than “it appeals”. So, B comes
first. We normally “appeal” to kindness. So,
‘appeals’ comes second. Pardons is in cor-
rect place. The correct rearrangement is
BAC. The correct sentence would read “It
seems that she will fail even if she appeals
to the kindness of her father, who general-
ly pardons everyone.”
8-a; The word “complicated” is more apt to
describe “wording”. So, C should come
first. We cannot say “selected to confuse”,
but we can say “selected candidates”.
Therefore, A comes last. B is in the correct
place. The correct rearrangement is CBA.
The correct sentence would read “The
wording of the contract was complicated,
intended to confuse the selected candi-
dates.”
9-c; They are nomads (wanderers), so they
must be quitting their current home and
going in search of another. So, B comes
first, C comes second and A comes last.
The correct rearrangement is BCA. The
correct sentence would read “Every year,
these nomads quit their current country
and wander throughout another country in
search of food and new shelter.”
10-c; The part “even before the results were
out” suggests that the polling must have
finished. So, C comes in second place.
That means the leaders started arguing.
So, A comes last. That also means that B
comes first. The correct rearrangement is
BCA. The correct sentence would read
“When the summit happened and the
polling finished, the leaders started argu-
ments even before the results were out.”
11-d; While “generous king” and “late friend”
may not be wrong, the part “he died”
refers to the king. Therefore, “late” should
come in the first place. The word “inti-
mate” is better placed before friend, the
word “ironically” suggests that “the wise
king” was betrayed by his own close
friend. Intimate, in the context, means
“close”. Therefore, intimate should come
last. The correct rearrangement is CAB.
The correct sentence would read
“Ironically, though the king was wise, pop-
ular and generous he was betrayed by his
intimate friend.”
12-d; “Wily” means cunning”, so it is a better
description for “devil”. That means A
comes last. And “abject” means
“extremely unpleasant”, a better descrip-
tion for poverty. So, C comes second.
Obviously, B comes first. The correct
rearrangement is BCA. The correct sen-
tence would read “They are so desperate
to get rid of their abject poverty that they
are ready to even sell their souls to the
wily devil.”
13-c; We cannot say “complete injury” unless
the context requires that. But we can say
“serious injury”. Therefore, the words A
and B should swap places. C is in its cor-
rect place. The correct rearrangement is
BAC. The correct sentence would read
“He did not blame himself completely for
seriously injuring his wife because she
too behaved carelessly.”
14-a; The word “candid” means “frank and
straightforward”, which means “unlikely to
keep secrets”. So, the wife must be can-
did” and not the spy, because spies can-
not be candid. So, B comes in third posi-
tion. If the spy told the secret to his can-
did wife, it means he has committed a
“cardinal sin”, a serious error and he is
also stupid. So, A comes in second place
and C comes in the first place. The cor-
rect rearrangement is CAB. The correct
sentence would read “The foolish spy
committed a cardinal sin when he told his
honest wife the state secret: Now every-
one in the neighbourhood would know
that.”

GH
 ÷ªÙÞœüŒî¦ô¢Ù Wû 8, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17

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Choose the correct option!

Quantitative Comparison
The Quantitative comparison or quadratic
equations are one of the most commonly
asked questions in the bank examinations
under branch of Quantitative aptitude. In
Clerk Preliminary Examination, the questions
of Quadratic equations were asked. There are 1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y x = 1, y = 11 p(p + 4) − 3(p + 4) = 0
high chances that these questions will be
5) x = y or relationship cannot be established For any values of x, y and z the relationship (p + 4) (p − 3) = 0 ⇒ p = 3 (or) − 4
asked in upcoming Clerical and PO
Sol: I. x + y = 16 cannot be established II. q2 − 4q + 3q − 12 = 0
Preliminary Examinations. Generally 5 Ans: 5
II. 2x − y = 11 q(q − 4) + 3 (q − 4) = 0
questions are asked from this topic and we 6. I. 6a + 6b = 102 II. 2a + 3b = 45
I + II ⇒ 3x = 27 ⇒ x = 9 (q − 4) (q + 3) = 0 ⇒ q = 4 (or) − 3
can easily score 5 marks. III. a + c = 14
From I, 9 + y = 16 ⇒ y = 7 For any values of p and q the relationship
In linear equations, both variables have only 1) b > c > a 2) a < b < c
∴x>y Ans: 2 cannot be established Ans: 5
one value. So relation can be established 3) a < b > c 4) b > c > a
4. I. 3x − 2y − 4 = 0 II. 4x − 2y + 6 = 0 9. I. 2x2 + 7x + 6 = 0 II. 2y2 − 7y + 6 = 0
easily. In Quadratic Equations, we will get 5) a = b = c or relationship cannot be
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y 1) y ≥ x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y < x
two values for each variable by solving two established
5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established
equations. Those two values are called roots Sol: I. 6a + 6b = 102 ⇒ a + b = 17
Sol: I. 3x − 2y = 4 Sol: I. 2x2 + 4x + 3x + 6 = 0
of the equation. By these roots we have to II. 2a + 3b = 45 III. a + c = 14
know the relation between both the variables. II. 4x − 2y = − 6 By solving I & II, we get b = 11, a = 6
2x(x + 2) + 3(x + 2) = 0
Let us assume X and Y are two variable then I − II ⇒ −x = 10 ⇒ x = −10 a = 6 substitute in III then we get c = 8
(x + 2) (2x + 3) = 0
From I, − 30 − 2y = 4 ⇒ − 2y = 34 x = −2 (or) −3/2
the relation between two variable can be ∴a<b>c Ans: 3
X > Y, X < Y, X ≥ Y, X ≤ Y and X = Y or ⇒ y = − 17 II. 2y2 − 4y − 3y + 6 = 0
Directions (Qs. 7 - 10): In the following questions
relation cannot be established. Let us discuss ⇒x>y Ans: 2 two equations numbered I and II are given. You 2y(y − 2) − 3(y − 2) = 0
some important problems in Quantitative Directions (Qs. 5 - 6): In the following questions have to solve both the equations and choose (y − 2) (2y − 3) = 0
three equations numbered I, II and III are given. y = 2 (or) 3/2

SBI
comparison. the correct option.
You have to solve all the equations either 7. I. x2 + 7x + 12 = 0 II. y2 − 7y + 12 = 0 For any values of x and y, y > x
Ans: 2
together or separately, or two together and one 1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y
Writer separately or by any other method and choose 10. I. 2x2 + x − 6 = 0 II. 2y2 − y − 6 = 0

R. Vahinee the correct option. Junior Associates 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 1) y ≥ x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y < x
Sol: I. x2 + 4x + 3x + 12 = 0 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established
5. I. (x + y)3 = 1728 II. x − y − z = 0
Senior Faculty, CCE Quantitative Aptitude x (x + 4) + 3(x + 4) = 0 Sol: I. 2x2 + 4x − 3x − 6 = 0
III. xy = 11
(x + 4) (x + 3) = 0 ⇒ x = − 4 (or) − 3 2x(x + 2) − 3(x + 2) = 0
1) x = y > z 2) x > z > y
Model Questions (x − y) = ±10 II. y2 − 4y − 3y + 12 = 0 (x + 2) (2x − 3) = 0
3) z < x > y 4) x ≤ y < z
∴ z = 10 (or) −10 y (y − 4) − 3(y − 4) = 0 x = −2 (or) 3/2
5) x = y = z or relationship cannot be
Directions (Qs. 1 - 2): In the following questions If z = 10 then x + y = 12 (y − 4) (y − 3) = 0 ⇒ y = 4 (or) 3 II. 2y2 − 4y + 3y − 6 = 0
two equations numbered I and II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and choose
established
Sol: I. (x + y)3 = (12)3 ⇒ x + y = 12 x − y = 10 }
add both For any values of x and y, x < y 2y(y − 2) + 3(y − 2) = 0
II. x − y = z III. xy = 11 2x = 22 Ans: 1 (y − 2) (2y + 3) = 0
the correct option.
From I, II and III x = 11, y = 1 8. I. p2 + p − 12 = 0 II. q2 − q − 12 = 0 y = 2 (or) − 3/2
1. I. 2x + 4 = 0 II. 24y = 48
(x − y)2 = (x + y)2 − 4xy If z = −10 then x + y = 12 1) p < q 2) p > q 3) p ≤ q 4) p ≥ q For any values of x and y, the relation
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y
5) x = y or relationship cannot be established = (12)2 − 4(11) x − y = −10
add both} 5) p = q or relationship cannot be established between x and y cannot be established
(x − y)2 = 100 2x = 2 Sol: I. p2 + 4p − 3p − 12 = 0 Ans: 5
Sol: I. 2x + 4 = 0
2x = −4 ⇒ x = −2
II. 24y = 48
Practice Questions 1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y given. You have to solve both the equations 1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y
5) x = y or relationship cannot be established and choose the correct option. 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established
48 Directions (Qs. 1 - 2): In the following ques-
y=⇒y=2 Directions (Qs. 5 - 6): In the following ques- 7. I. x2 + 14x + 24 = 0 II. y2 − 14y + 24 = 0 13. I. 2m3 + 4m2 − 16m = 0
24 tions two equations numbered I and II are tions three equations numbered I, II and III are 1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y II. 3n2 + 27n + 60 = 0
∴x<y Ans: 1 given. You have to solve both the equations given. You have to solve all the equations 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 1) n < m 2) n > m 3) n ≤ m 4) n ≥ m
2x − 10 and choose the correct option. either together or separately, or two together
2. I.  = 2(x − 1) II. 3y = 9(y + 2) 8. I. p2 + 2p − 24 = 0 II. q2 − 2q − 24 = 0 5) m = n or relationship cannot be
2 1. I. 2x + 8 = 0 II. 12y = 24 and one separately or by any other method and 1) p < q 2) p > q 3) p ≤ q 4) p ≥ q established
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y 1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y choose the correct option.
5) p = q or relationship cannot be established 14. I. 4m2 + 25m + 39 = 0
5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 5. I. 3a + 3b = 51 II. 2a + 3b = 41
9. I. 2x2 + 10x + 12 = 0 II. 3n2 − 77n + 470 = 0
Sol: I. 2x − 10 = 2[2(x − 1)] 2x − 12 III. a + c = 19
2. I.  = 4(x − 6) II. 6y = 18(y + 2) II. 2y2 − 10y + 12 = 0 1) m < n 2) m > n 3) m ≤ n 4) m ≥ n
2x − 10 = 4x − 4 6 1) a > c > b 2) a < b < c
1) y ≥ x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y < x 5) m = n or relationship cannot be
4x − 2x = −10 + 4 ⇒ 2x = − 6 ⇒ x = − 3 1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y 3) a < b > c 4) b > c > a established
5) x = y or relationship cannot be established
II. 3y = 9(y + 2) 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 5) a = b = c or relationship cannot be 
10. I. 2x2 + 2x − 12 = 0 II. 2y2 − 2y − 12 = 0 15. I. x2 + 12√ 2 x + 22 = 0
⇒ 3y = 9y + 18 Directions (Qs. 3 - 4): In the following ques- established 
1) y ≥ x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y < x II. y2 − 12√ 2 y + 22 = 0
6y = −18 ⇒ y = − 3 tions two equations numbered I and II are 6. I. (x + y)3 = 1331 II. x − y − z = 2
given. You have to solve all the equations 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 1) x = y or relationship cannot be established
∴x=y Ans: 5 III. xy = 10
together or each one separately or by any other 11. I. x2 + 26x + 168 = 0 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y ≥ x 5) y < x
Directions (Qs. 3 - 4): In the following questions 1) x = y > z 2) x > z > y
methods and choose the correct option. II. y2 + 33y + 230 = 0
two equations numbered I and II are given. You 3) z < x > y 4) x ≤ y < z
have to solve all the equations together or each 3. I. x + y = 32 II. 2x − y = 22 5) x = y = z or relationship cannot be
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y Answers
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 1-1 4-2 7-1 10-5 13-3
one separately or by any other methods and established
choose the correct option. 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 12. I. x2 − 24x + 128 = 0 2-2 5-1 8-5 11-5 14-1
Directions (Qs. 7 - 15): In the following ques-
3. I. x + y = 16 II. 2x − y =11 4. I. 3x − 2y − 8 = 0 II. 4x − 2y + 12 = 0 tions two equations numbered I and II are II. y2 + 20y − 69 = 0 3-2 6-5 9-2 12-2 15-2.

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Model Questions
1. Who was appointed as the interim chief of
the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) for
three months on 31 May 2021?
World’s first Nano Urea Liquid launched by..?
1) Injeti Srinivas 2) A.B. Pandey
3) J.B. Mohapatra 4) Rajiv Kumar
5) Atanu Chakraborty 9. Who was appointed as the World Bank 30. Which state announced the launch of
2. Who was appointed as the CEO of Reserve
Bank of India’s Innovation Hub effective from
17 May 2021? (The hub was set up in August
Education Advisor for the period June 2021
to June 2024? (He is a primary school
teacher from Solapur, Maharashtra, who
SBI Ankur, a scheme under which citizens will
be awarded for planting trees during mon-
soon season?
2020 to promote innovation across the finan- received the Global Teacher Prize in 2020.) Junior Associates 1) AP 2) Odisha 3) MP
cial sector with the help of technology.) 1) Dr Sharankumar Limbale 4) UP 5) Goa
1) Subhash Chandra 2) C.K.Mishra 2) Yusuff Ali M. A 3) Ranjitsinh Disale GENERAL AWARENESS 31. Mahatma Jyotiba Phule Jan Arogya Yojana
3) Rajesh Bansal 4) B.P.Kanungo 4) Dr Krithi K Karanth is a Universal health care scheme run by
5) Gowsalya Shankar which state to provide a free quality critical
5) N.S.Viswanathan 1) West Bengal 2) UP 3) MP
10. Public sector banks will be offering unse- care for low-income people?
3. Which international monetary organization 4) Gujrat 5) AP
cured personal loans between Rs.25,000 1) UP 2) Chhattisgarh
proposed a $50 billion global vaccination 23. Who will assume the post of CEO of
plan that would cover at least 40 percent of to Rs.5 lakh to salaried, non-salaried and 3) Maharashtra 4) Rajasthan
Amazon from 5th July? (He will replace Jeff
the global population by the end of 2021 and pensioners for meeting Covid treatment as Bezos.) 5) Jharkhand
at least 60 percent by the first half of 2022? per the statement given by Indian Banks' 1) Michael Saul Dell 32. 'Akanksha', a comprehensive portal on
1) World Bank 2) ADB 3) IMF Association (IBA) and SBI. Who is the pre- Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
C.N.R.Rao 2) Timothy Donald Cook 3) Andy Jassy
4) AIIB 5) NDB sent chairman of IBA? activities by companies launched by ......
4) Julie Sweet 5) Jamie Dimon
1) RajKiran Rai 2) CH S S Mallikarjuna Rao 1) Karnataka 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Bihar
1) 7.2% 2) 7.9% 3) 8.5% 24. The Finance Ministry has formed 7 mem-
3) Dinesh Kumar Khara 4) Rajasthan 5) Madhya Pradesh
Writer 4) 9.3% 5) 5.6% bers of the Group of States Minister's com-
4) Madhav Nair 5) Rakesh Sharma mittee to examine and resolve uncertainty 33. Which country was the largest source of
Amara Veeraswamy 17. On 31 May 2021, the Controller General of FDI in India in 2020-21?
11. RBI cut its forecast of real GDP growth of associated with the valuation of services by
Accounts (CGA) said that the revenue deficit 1) China 2) USA 3) Singapore
Subject Expert Indian economy at ...... in the current finan- casinos, racecourses, and online gaming
at the end of the fiscal 2020-21 was ......
cial year (2021-2022) in the recent mone- platforms for levying GST. The committee 4) Japan 5) UK
tary policy review done on 4 June 2021. 1) 5.80% 2) 5.50% 3) 6.35%
will be convened by ...... 34. World Food Safety Day observed on ......
4. Equitas Small Finance Bank became the first 1) 7.5% 2) 8.3% 3) 9.5% 4) 5.42% 5) 7.42%
1) Buggana Rajendranath Reddy , Finance 1) 1 June 2) 15 June 3) 7 June
Small Finance Bank to offer its NRI customer 18. New President of Confederation of Indian Minister of AP
4) 4.5% 5) 6.8% 4) 21 June 5) 18 June
segment the ease of account opening online. Industry (CII) for 2021-22 is ......
12. Government of India and which 2) Ajith Pawar, Deputy CM of Maharashtra 35. Government of India released ...... to
Where is the head office of Equitas Small 1) Mahesh Balasubramanian
International Monetary Organization signed 3) Chandrakant Kavlekar, Deputy CM of Goa states in the first instalment of their share
Finance Bank? the finance contract for second tranche of 2) Vijay Goel 3) Mukesh Ambani in the State Disaster Response Fund
4) Renu Devi, Deputy CM of Bihar
1) Mumbai 2) Hyderabad 3) Kolkata Euro 150 million for Pune Metro Rail project 4) T V Narendran 5) Gautam Adani (SDRF) for 2021-22. (The first installment
5) Nitin Patel, Deputy CM of Gujarat
4) Delhi 5) Chennai through a virtual signing ceremony? 19. International Financial Services Centre of the SDRF has been released in
25. A Group of Ministers (GoM) has been con-
5. Latest SBI Ecowrap report released on 1 1) World Bank Authority (IFSCA) constituted a committee advance as it is usually released in June
stituted by GST Council to examine GST
June 2021 projected ...... growth for India's to suggest a roadmap to promote as per the recommendations of the
2) European Investment Bank 3) IMF exemption on Covid-19 relief materials.
GDP for 2021-22, down from its previous Investment Funds at IFSC headed by ...... Finance Commission.)
4) AIIB 5) NDB Which state Chief Minister is the convener
projection of 10.4% growth. 1) Jose J Kattoor 2) Padmakumar M Nair of this panel? 1) Rs.4.516.6 crore 2) Rs.8,873.6 crore
13. Which bank collaborated with NPCI to link
1) 5.3% 2) 7.9% 3) 8.4% 3) Raghu Raghuram 4) Nilesh Shah 1) Meghalaya 2) Manipur 3) AP 3) Rs.1,064.6 crore 4) Rs.4,213.6 crore
its ‘Pockets’ digital wallet to the UPI?
4) 10.1% 5) 6.2% 5) Sumit Dhawan 4) Tamil Nadu 5) Gujrat 5) Rs.9,123.6 crore
1) SBI 2) Union Bank of India 3) ICICI
6. Which bank issued the first-ever Foreign 20. Lakshmi Bhandar project declared by which 26. On 31 May 2021, World’s first Nano Urea 36. As per Bloomberg Index released 20 May
4) HDFC 5) Punjab National Bank
Portfolio Investor (FPI) licence to the GIFT state government under which the poor Liquid launched by...... 2021, an Indian became the second richest
14. As per the official data by the Statistics families will receive a monthly allowance of
IFSC alternative investment fund (AIF) of 1) GNFC 2) FACT 3) CFCL person in Asia. He is......
Ministry, India’s economy has contracted by Rs.500 from the government and families
True Beacon Global? (This is the first FPI ...... in the FY 2020-21 4) DFPCL 5) IFFCO 1) Gautam Adani 2) Radhakishan Damani
from Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe 3) Cyrus Poonawalla
licence issued to an AIF incorporated in GIFT 1) 7.3% 2) 6.9% 3) 5.8% 27. TCS establishes its first European Pace
families are eligible to receive Rs.1,000?
IFSC by any custodian bank or designated Port in ...... (It serves as a hub for TCS 4) Pallonji Mistry 5) Uday kotak
4) 6.5% 5) 4.9% 1) AP 2) West Bengal 3) Telangana
depository participant (DDP) in the country.) teams to co-innovate with European cus- 37. As per the S&P Global Market Intelligence
15. Who is the present Controller General of 4) Bihar 5) Karnataka
1) Union Bank of India 2) HDFC Bank tomers, guiding them through the discovery, report, India got which position for the insur-
Accounts (CGA)? (CGA is the Principal 21. Who received the International Eni Award
3) Kotak Mahindra Bank 4) Bank of India definition, refinement and delivery phases ance-technology market in the Asia-Pacific
Accounting Adviser to Government of India 2020 for research into renewable energy
5) Bank of Maharashtra of innovation.) region? (The first position got by China.)
and is responsible for establishing and sources and energy storage? (It is also
7. The first bank in India launched ‘SWIFT gpi maintaining a technically sound 1) London 2) Paris 3) Berlin 1) second 2) third 3) fourth
called the Energy Frontier award. This is
Instant’, for cross border inward payments is Management Accounting System). 4) Rome 5) Amsterdam 4) fifth 5) tenth
considered to be the Nobel Prize in Energy
...... (The beneficiary gets the credit to the 1) G.C.Murmu 2) K.K.Venugopal Research.) 28. World Hunger Day Observed on......
bank account instantly.) 3) Smt. Soma Roy Burman 1) R.P.Singh 2) Sulabha K. Kulkarni 1) June 1 2) May 14 3) May 28 Answers
1) SBI 2) Canara Bank 4) Harsh Kumar Bhanwala 5) R.Gandhi 3) C.N.R.Rao 4) Paramjit Khurana 4) May 8 5) May 25 1-3 9-3 17-5 25-1 33-3
3) Yes Bank 4) HDFC Bank 5) ICICI 16. India's Fiscal deficit for 2020-21 was at ...... 5) Gautam Radhakrishna Desiraju 29. An Indian economist was conferred with 2-3 10-1 18-4 26-5 34-3
8. The RBI cancelled the licence of Shivajirao or Rs.18.21 lakh crore of the gross domes- Spain's top Princess of Asturias Award in 3-3 11-3 19-4 27-5 35-2
22. India attracted highest ever total FDI inflow
Bhosale Sahakari Bank, as the lender does tic product (GDP), lower than 9.5% estimat- the social sciences category by the Spanish 4-5 12-2 20-2 28-3 36-1
of US$ 81.72 billion during the financial year
not have adequate capital and earning ed by the Finance Ministry in the revised prize foundation. He/ She is...... 5-2 13-3 21-3 29-1 37-1.
2020-21. Which state is the top recipient
prospects. The bank located in ...... Budget estimates according to the state with 37% share of the total FDI Equity 1) Amartya Sen 2) Montek Singh Ahluwalia 6-3 14-1 22-4 30-3
1) AP 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Bihar Controller General of Accounts (CGA) inflows followed by Maharashtra (27%) and 3) Ila Patnaik 4) Bimal Jalan 7-5 15-3 23-3 31-3
4) UP 5) Maharashtra data. Karnataka (13%)? 5) D.T.Lakdawala 8-5 16-4 24-5 32-1

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Sequence
In the previous articles, we discussed, in detail
the hierarchy in which a candidate should attempt
in the examination to score maximum marks in
less time. The next topic in that order is
SEQUENCE. There is every chance of getting 5
questions from this chapter and it is very easy to
score 5 out of 5 marks in the exam. This sequence
in particular we get in prilims rather than in
mains. In this article, we are going to discuss
those models of sequence That are
important for the prilims examination.
Writer
G. Sashi Kumar
Senior Faculty, CCE
Model - I
1. How many 5’s are there in the following digit
sequence which are immediately preceded
by 7 and immediately followed by 6?
755945764598756764325678
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) Four 5) None
Sol: In the sequence
755945764598756764325678
1 lowest number thus formed?
there is only one 5 which is immediately pre-
ceded by 7 and immediately followed by 6.
Ans: 1
2. How many 7’s are immediately preceded by
6 but not immediately followed by 4 in the
following sequence?
742764367535784376724067
43
1) None 2) Two 3) Four
4) Six 5) One
Sol: In the sequence
742764367535784376724067
1 2
43
there are only two 7's which are immediately
preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 4.
Ans: 2
3. How many 4’s are there which are immedi-
ately preceded by 7 but not immediately fol-
lowed by 3?
Model - IV
Directions (Qs. 1 - 5): Select correct alterna-
tive from the given choices.
1. Which of the following is 8th letter to the left
of 6th letter from the right end in the English
alphabet?
1) G 2) M 3) Y 4) K 5) N
Sol: (Left = L, Right = R)
8L + 6R ⇒ 8 + 6 = 14R = M
(Since directions are different add) Ans: 2
2. Which of the following is 9th letter to the right
of 3rd letter to the right of 7th letter from the
left end in the English alphabet?
1) N 2) H 3) S 4) I 5) M
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Which does not belong to the group?
593217426974613287413832
5674395820187463
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five
4) Six 5) Two
Sol: In the sequence,
593217426974613287413832
1 2 3
5674395820187463
4 783, 354, 467, 546, 298
there are four 4's which are immediately pre-
ceded by 7 but not followed by 3. Ans: 2
4. In the sequence given below, how many
such 9's are there each of which is either
immediately preceded by 2 or immediately
followed by 3?
129465938393259293482698
1) One 2) Three 3) Four
4) Six 5) None of these
Sol: In the sequence,
129465938393259293482698
← → → ← →
1 3 4 2 5
there are five 9's each of which is either
immediately preceded by 2 or followed by 3.
Ans: 5
5. In the sequence given below, how many
Sol: 9L (3R 7L) ⇒ 9R (10L) ⇒ 19L
(... directions are different)
19L = S
3. Which of the following is 5th to the left of 6th
to the right of 8th to the left of 15th from the
right end in the English alphabet?
1) E 2) R 3) P 4) V
Sol: 5L 6R (8L 15R) ⇒ 5L 6R (23R)
⇒ 5L (23 − 6) ⇒ 5L17R ⇒ 5 + 17 = 22R = E
4. Which of the following is 4th to the right of
7th to the left of 6th to the right of 10th to the
right of 3rd from the left end in the English
alphabet?
n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17
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FFFF FFFF FFFF
Sol: 892 − 453 = 439 Ans: 4
Model - V
SBI 3. The difference between the first and the sec-
ond digits of which of the following number is
exactly half of the difference between the
Directions (Qs. 1 - 5): These questions are
based on the following information.
Junior Associates second and the third digits of the same num- 83X∗$WI7F45%@LCΣ8HBY
ber? (difference always take positive) 9U>®µTQΩ2£
Reasoning 1) 453 2) 892 3) 764 1. Which of the following is 5th element to the
4) 387 5) Both (1) and (3) right of 16th element from the right end?
Sol: 387 ⇒ 8 − 3 = 5 and 8 − 7 = 1, 1) $ 2) Y 3) @
such 9's are there each of which is either
5 is not half of 1. 4) 9 5) None of these
immediately preceded by 2 or immediately
453 ⇒ 5 − 4 = 1 and 5 − 3 = 2, 1 is half 2. Sol: 5R 16R ⇒ 16 − 5 = 11R = Y
followed by 3 but not both? Ans: 2
764 ⇒ 7 − 6 = 1 and 6 − 4 = 2, 1 is half of 2.
129465938393259293482698
Ans: 5
2. How many such symbols are there in the
1) Five 2) Three 3) Four above sequence each of which is immedi-
4. Which of the following is the second digit of
4) Two 5) More than five ately preceded by a consonant and imme-
the second highest number?
Sol: In the sequence, diately followed by a number?
1) 6 2) 9 3) 5 4) 8 5) 4
129465938393259293482698 1) Two 2) Three 3) None
← → → Sol: Second highest is 764 and second digit is 6.
1 2 3 4) One 5) More than three
Ans: 1
there are only three 9's each of which is Sol: In the Sequence
5. If the position of the first and the third digits in
either immediately preceded by 2 or immediate- 83X∗$WI7F45%@LCΣ8HBY
each number are interchanged, which of the 1
ly followed by 3 but not both. Ans: 2
following will be the third digit of the second
9U>®µTQΩ2£
2
Model - II 1) 3 2) 4 3) 7 4) 6 5) 5 There are two symbols which are immedi-
Sol: The given numbers after in rearranging are ately preceded by a consonant and imme-
Directions (Qs. 1 - 5): These questions are
diately following by a number. Ans: 1
based on the five three digit numbers given
The Second lowest number is 354 and the 3. Which of the following is the 9th element to
below.
third digit 4. Ans: 2 the left of the 18th element from the left
387 453 764 645 892
end?
1. The sum of the second and third digits in
which of the following number is exactly one
Model - III 1) 9 2) L 3) 0 4) F 5) &
Sol: 9L 18L ⇒ (18 − 9) = 9L = F Ans: 4
and half times of the first digit in that number? Directions (Qs. 1 - 3): These questions are
4. If the second half of the above sequence is
1) 764 2) 645 3) 453 based on the five words given below.
reversed then which element is 12th to the
4) 892 5) 387 RAT NOT EAR BUN SHE
right of 8th to the right of 2nd element from
1 (The new words formed after performing the
Sol: 8 + 7 ≠ 3 × 1  the left end?
2 mentioned operations not necessarily be
1) U 2) µ 3) ® 4) Y 5) T
1 meaningful English words)
4+5=6×1 Sol: 12R (8R 2L) ⇒ 12R10L ⇒ 22 L
2 Ans: 2 1. If the positions of the first and the second
If the second half is reversed 22nd from the
2. Which of the following will be the third digit of alphabets of each of the words are inter-
left is ®. Ans: 3
the three digit number obtained by subtract- changed, which of the following will form a
5. Four of the five are alike in a certain way
ing the second lowest number from the high- meaningful English word?
based on the given arrangement, which
est number? 1) EAR 2) BUN 3) RAT
does not belong to the group?
1) 5 2) 1 3) 6 4) 9 5) 2 4) SHE 5) Both RAT and SHE
1) $7% 2) F%Σ 3) >T£
Sol: After interchanging the letters the words are
4) ∗I5 5) 89>
ART ONT AER UBN HSE
1) L 2) T 3) M 4) P 5) Z only RAT forms a meaningful word.
Sol: $+3 7+4 %; F+3 %+4 Σ; >+3 T+4£
∗+3 I+4 5; 8+4 9+2>.
Sol: 4R 7L 6R (10R 3L) ⇒ 4R 7L (6R 13L) Ans: 3
Hence, except 89> four of the five are alike
Ans: 3 ⇒ 4R 7L (19L) ⇒ 4R (12L) ⇒ 16L = P 2. If in each of the given words, each of the con-
in the sequence.
Ans: 4 sonants is changed to previous letter and
Ans: 5
5. Which of the following is 5th to the right of each vowel is changed to next letter in the
12th to the right of 13th to the left of 6th to English alphabetical series, in how many
changed to next alphabet in the English
5) U the right of 8th to the left of 3rd from the right words thus formed will no vowels appear?
alphabetical order, how many words having
end in the English alphabet? 1) Four 2) Two 3) Three
two vowels (same of different vowels) will be
1) Z 2) V 3) B 4) One 5) None formed?
Ans: 1 4) S 5) None of these Sol: After applying the condition the words are 1) One 2) Three 3) None
Sol: 5R 12R 13L 6R (8L 3R) QBS MPS FBQ AVM RGF 4) Two 5) Four
⇒ 5R 12R 13L 6R (11R) In four words no vowel is present. Sol: The words are
⇒ 5R 12R (13L 5R) ⇒ 5R (12R 18R) Ans: 1 RAU NOU EAS BUO SHF
⇒ 5R6R ⇒ 1R = Z Ans: 1 3. If third alphabet in each of the words is Ans: 5
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Sequence
In the previous articles, we discussed, in detail
the hierarchy in which a candidate should attempt
in the examination to score maximum marks in
less time. The next topic in that order is
SEQUENCE. There is every chance of getting 5
questions from this chapter and it is very easy to
score 5 out of 5 marks in the exam. This sequence
in particular we get in prilims rather than in
mains. In this article, we are going to discuss
those models of sequence That are
important for the prilims examination.
Writer
G. Sashi Kumar
Senior Faculty, CCE
Model - I
1. How many 5’s are there in the following digit
sequence which are immediately preceded
by 7 and immediately followed by 6?
755945764598756764325678
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) Four 5) None
Sol: In the sequence
755945764598756764325678
1 lowest number thus formed?
there is only one 5 which is immediately pre-
ceded by 7 and immediately followed by 6.
Ans: 1
2. How many 7’s are immediately preceded by
6 but not immediately followed by 4 in the
following sequence?
742764367535784376724067
43
1) None 2) Two 3) Four
4) Six 5) One
Sol: In the sequence
742764367535784376724067
1 2
43
there are only two 7's which are immediately
preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 4.
Ans: 2
3. How many 4’s are there which are immedi-
ately preceded by 7 but not immediately fol-
lowed by 3?
Model - IV
Directions (Qs. 1 - 5): Select correct alterna-
tive from the given choices.
1. Which of the following is 8th letter to the left
of 6th letter from the right end in the English
alphabet?
1) G 2) M 3) Y 4) K 5) N
Sol: (Left = L, Right = R)
8L + 6R ⇒ 8 + 6 = 14R = M
(Since directions are different add) Ans: 2
2. Which of the following is 9th letter to the right
of 3rd letter to the right of 7th letter from the
left end in the English alphabet?
1) N 2) H 3) S 4) I 5) M
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Which does not belong to the group?
593217426974613287413832
5674395820187463
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five
4) Six 5) Two
Sol: In the sequence,
593217426974613287413832
1 2 3
5674395820187463
4 783, 354, 467, 546, 298
there are four 4's which are immediately pre-
ceded by 7 but not followed by 3.
4. In the sequence given below, how many
such 9's are there each of which is either
immediately preceded by 2 or immediately
followed by 3?
129465938393259293482698
1) One 2) Three 3) Four
4) Six 5) None of these
Sol: In the sequence,
129465938393259293482698
← → → ← →
1 3 4 2 5
there are five 9's each of which is either
immediately preceded by 2 or followed by 3.
5. In the sequence given below, how many
Sol: 9L (3R 7L) ⇒ 9R (10L) ⇒ 19L
(... directions are different)
19L = S
3. Which of the following is 5th to the left of 6th
to the right of 8th to the left of 15th from the
right end in the English alphabet?
1) E 2) R 3) P 4) V
Sol: 5L 6R (8L 15R) ⇒ 5L 6R (23R)
⇒ 5L (23 − 6) ⇒ 5L17R ⇒ 5 + 17 = 22R = E
4. Which of the following is 4th to the right of
7th to the left of 6th to the right of 10th to the
right of 3rd from the left end in the English
alphabet?
n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17
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û¶æ¨ êµõÙÞ¥é Óè…ù£ûÂö˺...
÷-JÌÄEe- Íû¶ í£vA-ÚÛìª vð§ô¢Ù-GÅÙ-à¦ô¢ª.- DE Gô¢ª-ë]ª-ð»Ù-ë¯ô¢ª. ô¦-õìª Bv÷ÙÞ¥ ÷uA-¸ô-Ú¨Ù-à¦ô¢ª.
cô¦ù£ZÚÛ«åªõªe
ví£ëůì õ¤¥uõª ú£÷«-áÙ-ö˺E ô¢ªÞœt-êŸ-õìª,
FFFF FFFF FFFF
Sol: 892 − 453 = 439 Ans: 4
Model - V
SBI 3. The difference between the first and the sec-
ond digits of which of the following number is
exactly half of the difference between the
Directions (Qs. 1 - 5): These questions are
based on the following information.
Junior Associates second and the third digits of the same num- 83X∗$WI7F45%@LCΣ8HBY
ber? (difference always take positive) 9U>®µTQΩ2£
Reasoning 1) 453 2) 892 3) 764 1. Which of the following is 5th element to the
4) 387 5) Both (1) and (3) right of 16th element from the right end?
Sol: 387 ⇒ 8 − 3 = 5 and 8 − 7 = 1, 1) $ 2) Y 3) @
such 9's are there each of which is either
5 is not half of 1. 4) 9 5) None of these
immediately preceded by 2 or immediately
453 ⇒ 5 − 4 = 1 and 5 − 3 = 2, 1 is half 2. Sol: 5R 16R ⇒ 16 − 5 = 11R = Y
followed by 3 but not both? Ans: 2
764 ⇒ 7 − 6 = 1 and 6 − 4 = 2, 1 is half of 2.
129465938393259293482698
Ans: 5
2. How many such symbols are there in the
1) Five 2) Three 3) Four above sequence each of which is immedi-
4. Which of the following is the second digit of
4) Two 5) More than five ately preceded by a consonant and imme-
the second highest number?
Sol: In the sequence, diately followed by a number?
1) 6 2) 9 3) 5 4) 8 5) 4
129465938393259293482698 1) Two 2) Three 3) None
← → → Sol: Second highest is 764 and second digit is 6.
1 2 3 4) One 5) More than three
Ans: 1
there are only three 9's each of which is Sol: In the Sequence
5. If the position of the first and the third digits in
either immediately preceded by 2 or immediate- 83X∗$WI7F45%@LCΣ8HBY
each number are interchanged, which of the 1
ly followed by 3 but not both. Ans: 2
following will be the third digit of the second
9U>®µTQΩ2£
2
Model - II 1) 3 2) 4 3) 7 4) 6 5) 5 There are two symbols which are immedi-
Sol: The given numbers after in rearranging are ately preceded by a consonant and imme-
Directions (Qs. 1 - 5): These questions are
diately following by a number. Ans: 1
based on the five three digit numbers given
The Second lowest number is 354 and the 3. Which of the following is the 9th element to
below.
Ans: 2 third digit 4. Ans: 2 the left of the 18th element from the left
387 453 764 645 892
end?
1. The sum of the second and third digits in
which of the following number is exactly one
Model - III 1) 9 2) L 3) 0 4) F 5) &
Sol: 9L 18L ⇒ (18 − 9) = 9L = F Ans: 4
and half times of the first digit in that number? Directions (Qs. 1 - 3): These questions are
4. If the second half of the above sequence is
1) 764 2) 645 3) 453 based on the five words given below.
reversed then which element is 12th to the
4) 892 5) 387 RAT NOT EAR BUN SHE
right of 8th to the right of 2nd element from
1 (The new words formed after performing the
Sol: 8 + 7 ≠ 3 × 1  the left end?
2 mentioned operations not necessarily be
1) U 2) µ 3) ® 4) Y 5) T
1 meaningful English words)
4+5=6×1 Sol: 12R (8R 2L) ⇒ 12R10L ⇒ 22 L
2 Ans: 2 1. If the positions of the first and the second
If the second half is reversed 22nd from the
2. Which of the following will be the third digit of alphabets of each of the words are inter-
left is ®. Ans: 3
the three digit number obtained by subtract- changed, which of the following will form a
5. Four of the five are alike in a certain way
ing the second lowest number from the high- meaningful English word?
based on the given arrangement, which
Ans: 5 est number? 1) EAR 2) BUN 3) RAT
does not belong to the group?
1) 5 2) 1 3) 6 4) 9 5) 2 4) SHE 5) Both RAT and SHE
1) $7% 2) F%Σ 3) >T£
Sol: After interchanging the letters the words are
4) ∗I5 5) 89>
ART ONT AER UBN HSE
1) L 2) T 3) M 4) P 5) Z only RAT forms a meaningful word.
Sol: $+3 7+4 %; F+3 %+4 Σ; >+3 T+4£
∗+3 I+4 5; 8+4 9+2>.
Sol: 4R 7L 6R (10R 3L) ⇒ 4R 7L (6R 13L) Ans: 3
Hence, except 89> four of the five are alike
Ans: 3 ⇒ 4R 7L (19L) ⇒ 4R (12L) ⇒ 16L = P 2. If in each of the given words, each of the con-
in the sequence.
Ans: 4 sonants is changed to previous letter and
Ans: 5
5. Which of the following is 5th to the right of each vowel is changed to next letter in the
12th to the right of 13th to the left of 6th to English alphabetical series, in how many
changed to next alphabet in the English
5) U the right of 8th to the left of 3rd from the right words thus formed will no vowels appear?
alphabetical order, how many words having
end in the English alphabet? 1) Four 2) Two 3) Three
two vowels (same of different vowels) will be
1) Z 2) V 3) B 4) One 5) None formed?
Ans: 1 4) S 5) None of these Sol: After applying the condition the words are 1) One 2) Three 3) None
Sol: 5R 12R 13L 6R (8L 3R) QBS MPS FBQ AVM RGF 4) Two 5) Four
⇒ 5R 12R 13L 6R (11R) In four words no vowel is present. Sol: The words are
⇒ 5R 12R (13L 5R) ⇒ 5R (12R 18R) Ans: 1 RAU NOU EAS BUO SHF
⇒ 5R6R ⇒ 1R = Z Ans: 1 3. If third alphabet in each of the words is Ans: 5
GH
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 øŒ‰vÚÛî¦ô¢Ù Wû 11, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17

History
1. Who among the following is known as father
of Indian Pre-History?
Which type of lake is formed
a) Rebert bruce Foote b) AL Bhasham
c) Dayaram Sahani d) John Marshall
2. Which of the following statement on the
Harappan Civilisation is correct?
a) Horse sacrifice was known to them .
by volcanic activities?
b) Cow was sacred to them.
c) ‘Pashupati’ was a hindu god. Polity Economics
d) The culture was not generally static.
3. The ‘Ajivika’s were a.. 8. Who said that the Constitution of India has
been framed after “ransacking all the known
SSC Exams 21. The term “Washington consensus” was
coined by..
a) sect contemporary to the Buddha.
b) breakaway branch of the Buddhists.
c) sect founded by Charvaka.
Constitutions of the World”?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Ambedkar
b) Gandhi
d) Rajendra Prasad
Special a) Ragnar Frisch
c) John Marshall
b) John Williamson
d) Abhijit Banerjee
22. Which of the following is a method to calcu-
d) sect founded by Shankaracharya.
4. Akbar’s tomb is located at which of the fol-
9. Which of the following acts created a new General Awareness late National income?
office “secretary of state for India”? a) Output or value added method
lowing places?
a) Government of India act 1935 c) Vice president and President jointly b) Income method c) Expenditure Method
a) Sikandara b) Agra
b) Government of India act 1858 d) Parliament d) All the above
c) Fatehpur Sikri d) Allahabad
c) Charter act of 1853 d) Pitts act of 1784 13. The earliest High Courts in India were set 23. In which years rolling plan was introduced?
5. How many times Shivaji plundered Surat?
10. Constituent Assembly had.. up at.. a) 1977-78 b) 1976-77 c) 1975-76 d) 1974-75
a) Once b) Twice Rebert bruce Foote
a) 11 sessions over two years, 11 months a) Delhi and Calcutta 24. Which of the following are the main causes
c) Thrice d) Four times
and 18 days. b) Bombay, Madras, Calcutta 17. The running water cuts through the clayey of unemployment in India?
6. “Geetha Rahasyam” was written by..
b) 12 sessions over two years, 11 months c) Bombay, Delhi, Calcutta soils and makes deep channels.. a) Rural - Urban Migration
a) Tilak and 28 days. d) Madras and Bombay a) Sand bars b) Loess b) Defective Educational System
b) Gopala Krishna Ghokhale c) 11 sessions over two years, 9 months and c) Gullies d) Barchans c) Lack of Infrastructure Development
c) Lala Lajpat rai d) Aurobindo Ghosh
7. Hunter Commission appointed to submit
26 days. Geography 18. Which one of the following countries has d) All the above
d) 14 sessions over two years, 10 months the longest coastal line? 25. It is a situation in an economy when inflation
report on.. and 26 days. 14. Which one of the following is a fossil source a) Newzealand b) USA and unemployment both are at higher lev-
a) Constitutional Reforms 11. Fundamental Rights in India are guaranteed of energy? c) Australia d) Canada els, contrary to conventional belief..
b) Khilafat Agitation by it through.. a) Wood b) Solar radiation 19. Which scale is used for measuring the a) Bottle neck inflation b) Skew Flation
c) Jallianwala Bagh tragedy a) Educational and Cultural Rights c) Tidal waves d) Petroleum intensity of the earthquake? c) Inverse curve d) Stagflation
d) Chauri Chaura incident b) The Right to Equality 15. Integral Coach Factory is located at.. a) Richter scale b) Metric scale 26. Which of the following is an open market
c) Right Against Exploitation a) Chittaranjan b) Lallaguda c) Centigrade scale d) Mercalli scale operation of the RBI?
Writer d) Right to Constitutional Remedies c) Jamshedpur d) Perambur 20. Which type of lake is formed by volcanic a) Buying and selling of shares
T. Srichakra Phani 12. According to the Indian Constitution, who 16. Bhitarkanika Mangroves is in.. activities? b) Trading in securities
has the power to declare emergency? a) Orissa b) Chhattisgarh a) Caldera lake b) Karst lake c) Transactions in gold
Senior Faculty, RACE
a) Speaker b) President c) West Bengal d) Bihar c) Lagoon d) Fresh water lake d) Lending to commercial banks

Key With Explanations
1-a; Foote spent 33 years working for the geo-
logical survey. He is often considered the
"Father of Indian Pre history”. He also wrote
a book named “Antiquities of South India”.
2-d; Horse was unknown to them. Cow was
sacred during Aryans. Their religion was
secular. Harappan culture was not static
and did not disappear suddenly.
3-a; Ajivika was primarily a heterodox Hindu
(Nastika) or atheistic system. The Ajivikas
may simply have been a more loosely-
organized group of wandering ascetics
(shramanas or sannyasins).
4-a; Akbar’s tomb is situated in Sikandra, a sub-
urb of Agra, Uttar Pradesh.
5-b; Shivaji plundered it twice in January 1664
and October 1670. By attacking Surat twice
he sent a strong message to Aurangzeb.
6-a; A book Geetha Rahasyam was written by
Tilak. He founded Akhadas (Religious
physical fitness centre). The youth trained
in akhadas asked to fight against cow
slaughter.
7-c; Referred to as the Disorders Inquiry
Committee, it was later more widely known
as the Hunter Commission. It was named
after the name of chairman, Lord William
Hunter.
8-c; Dr B.R. Ambedkar proudly acclaimed that
the Constitution of India has been framed
after “ransacking all the known
Constitutions of the World”.
9-b; Government of India act 1858 created a
new office, Secretary of State for India,
vested with complete authority and control
over Indian administration.
10-a; In total Constituent Assembly held 11
sessions over two years, 11 months and
18 days.
11-d; Article 32 confers the right to remedies
for the enforcement of the fundamental
rights of an aggrieved citizen. In other
words, the right to get the Fundamental
Rights protected is in itself a fundamen-
tal right.
12-b; Under Article 352, the President can
declare a national emergency when the
security of India or a part of it is threat-
ened by war or external aggression or
armed rebellion.
13-b; The institution of high court originated in
India in 1862 when the high courts were
set up at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
14-d; Fossil energy sources, including oil, coal
and petroleum, are non-reneable
resources that formed when prehistoric
plants and animals died and were gradu-
ally burued by layers of rock.
15-d; Started in 1952, the Integral Coach
Factory (ICF) is located in Perambur, a
suburb of Chennai, India. Its primary
products are rail coaches.
16-a. Chilka Lake, Bhitarkanika are Ramsar
wetland sites in Odisha.
17-c; The running water cuts through the clayey
soils and makes deep channels as gul-
lies. The land becomes unfit for cultivation
and is known as bad land. In the Chambal
basin such lands are called ravines.
18-d; Canada has the longest coastline in the
world.
19-d; The Mercalli intensity scale is a seismic
scale used for measuring the intensity of
an earthquake.
20-a; Caldera refers to a large basin shaped
crater that is bound by steep cliffs. The
Caldera best known in North America is
Crater Lake.
21-b; The term “Washington consensus” was
coined by the US economist John
Williamson in 1989.
22-d; Income is used for expenditure, and
expenditure, in turn, leads to further pro-
duction. There are three phases of circu-
lar flow of national income. So there are
three methods of measuring national
Income.
23-a; It was introduced by Morarji Desai(Janata
Government).
24-d.
25-d; Stagflation is basically a combination of
high inflation and low growth.
26-b; Open Market Operations are the market
operations conducted by the Reserve
Bank of India by way of sale/ purchase of
Government securities to/ from the mar-
ket with an objective to adjust the rupee
liquidity conditions in the market on a
durable basis.

F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F

÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ú£yô¢)-¸ô-Üõª
÷³Ý°uÙ-ø‹õª
÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ:- ÖÚÛ ÷”ê¦h-Eo Ö¸Ú GÙë]ª÷± ÷ë]Ì
ú£pJ)ú£«h sú£p¬”Pú£«hz Uú‡ì ¸ôÜìª Î ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ
(Tangent) ÍÙ-æ°ô¢ª.
ÖÚ•\ÚÛ\ ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ ð»è[÷± ÓÙêŸ..?
  90° + 55° + ∠POA = 180°
F ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ò°ï£°uÙÞ¥ Ñìo GÙë]ª÷± ìªÙ#
O
Î ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ UóŸª-Þœõ ú£pô¢)¸ôÜõ ú£ÙÜu = 2.
= √ 841 − 400 = √ 441 145° + ∠POA = 180°
= 21 šúÙ.-Oª.- ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 4 ∠POA = 180° − 145° = 35° ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1
F ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ò°ï£°u GÙë]ª÷± ÞœªÙè¯ Uú‡ì ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Üõ 2. ‘O’ ¸ÚÙvë]ÙÞ¥ Ñìo ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ 17 šúÙ.-Oª.- ë]«ô¢Ùö˺
P
↔
A Q
ð»è[-÷±õª ú£÷«ìÙ.- ÍÙç˶ PA = PB. 5. ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙ ò°ï£°u-GÙ-ë]ª÷± P ìªÙ# Î ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨
Ñìo ò°ï£°u-GÙ-ë]ª÷± P ìªÙ# Uú‡ì ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ PA Uú‡ì ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Üõ ÷ªëÅ]u-ÚÁéÙ 60°. Î ÷”êŸh-î¦u-þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ
í£-åÙö˺ PQ Í-û¶C ÷”ê¦hEo Ö¸Ú GÙë]ª÷± ‘A’ ÷ë]Ì ú£p-ô¢)-¸ôÜ ð»è[÷±: ð»è[÷± 15 šúÙ.-Oª. Íô³ê¶ Î ÷”êŸh î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ
↔ A 6 šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶ ÖÚ•\ÚÛ\ ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ ð»è[÷± ÓÙêŸ?
ú£pJ)-ú£ªhÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d PQ ÷”-ê¦h-EÚ¨ ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ Í÷±-꟪ÙC. l ÓÙêŸ? sšúÙ.-Oª.-õö˺z sšúÙ.-Oª.-õö˺z 
r 1) 8 2) 9 3) 10 4) 12  
A E ú£pô¢)-GÙ-ë]ª÷± ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.- O 1) 2√ 3 2) 3√ 3 3) 4√ 3 4) 6√ 3
d P þ§ëÅ]ì:- A
F ÖÚÛ ÷”ê¦hEo ·ôÙè[ª GÙë]ª-÷±õ ÷ë]Ì ÜÙè…Ùච¸ôÜìª þ§-ëÅ]ì: A
Î ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ àŶë]ì¸ôÜ sö˶ë¯z ÜÙè…êŸ ¸ôÜ ÍÙæ°ô¢ª. 
15 šúÙ.-Oª.
‘O’ ¸ÚÙvë]ÙÞ¥ Ñìo ÷”êŸhÙö˺ AP ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ Uú‡ì 6 šúÙ.-
P Oª. 60° P
ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ, OA î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ Íô³ê¶ ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ ð»è[÷± (AP) O
17 šúÙ.-Oª. O
O 
l = √ OP2 − OA2
 B
P Q l = √ d2 − r2 OP = 17 šúÙ.-Oª., PA = 15 šúÙ.-Oª.-
↔ ‘O’÷”êŸh-¸ÚÙvë]Ù- ò°ï£°u-GÙ-ë]ª÷± P ìªÙ# ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨
í£-åÙö˺ ÷”-ê¦h-EÚ¨ àŶë]-ì-¸ôÜ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.-
PQ (d = ÷”êŸh ¸ÚÙvë]Ù ìªÙ# ò°ï£°u-GÙ-ë]ª÷± ‘P’ÚÛª Ñìo OA = ÷”êŸh-î¦u-þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ = ? Uú‡ì ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Üõª = PA, PB.
ë]«ô¢Ù ⇒ OP2 = OA2 + PA2 60°
F ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ (Tangent) Íû¶ í£ë]Ù ö°æ¨û í£ë]- ∠APB = 60° ⇒ ∠APO =  = 30°
r = ÷”êŸh-î¦u-þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ.z ⇒ 172 = OA2 + 152
iì æ°ûÂvU sTangerez ìªÙ# ÷#aÙC.- - 2
cæ°ûÂvUe- ÍÙç˶ cú£pJ)Ù-àŸè[Ùe ÍE Íô¢–Ù. F ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ò°ï£°u- GÙ-ë]ª÷± ìªÙ# Uú‡ì ú£pô¢)-¸ô-
Üõ ÷ªëÅ]u Ôô¢pè˶ ÚÁé ú£÷ª-Cy-ÜÙ-è[-ì -¸ô-Üšíj Î
ð¼æ© í£K¤Ûõ ⇒ 289 = OA2 + 225
⇒ OA2 = 289 − 225 = 64
OA = 6 šúÙ.-Oª.-
F ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙšíj Ñìo Ôëµjû¦ GÙë]ª÷± ÞœªÙè¯ Uú‡ì
ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ, Î ú£pô¢)-GÙ-ë]ª÷± ÷ë]Ì î¦uþ§-ô¦ÌÄ-EÚ¨ õÙñÙÞ¥
÷”êŸh ¸ÚÙvë]Ù ÑÙåªÙC. ví£ê¶uÚÛÙ ∴

⇒ OA = √ 64 = 8
÷”êŸh-î¦u-þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ
šúÙ.-Oª.-
šúÙ.-Oª.
(OA) = 8
∆ OAP ö˺ tan30° = OA

PA
ÑÙåªÙC.- A 1 6
÷«uëÇ]æ¨ÚÂq ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1  =
√ 3 PA

O O
P D R C
3. PA, PB õª “O” ¸ÚÙvë]ÙÞ¥ Ñìo ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ Uú‡ì
ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Üõª. ∠AOB = 120° Íô³ê¶ ∠APB Nõª÷ ⇒ PA = 6√ 3 šúÙ.-Oª.- PA = 6√3
PA = PB Ú¥ñæ¨d
B ÓÙêŸ? 
X P Y
1) 70° 2) 60° 3) 120° 4) 80°
PA = PB = 6√ 3 šúÙ.-Oª.- ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 4
F ÷”êŸh î¦uþ§-ô¦ÌÄ-EÚ¨ ú£pô¢)-GÙ-ë]ª÷± ÞœªÙè¯ Uú‡ì ¸ôÜìª í£-åÙö˺ OP, ∠APB ÚÁé-ú£-÷ª-Cy-ÜÙ-è[ì ¸ôÜ Þœ÷ª-EÚÛ: ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙ ò°ï£°u-GÙ-ë]ª÷± P ìªÙ# Î ÷”ê¦h-
Î ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ Î GÙë]ª÷± ÷ë]Ì ÍGÅ-õÙñÙ (Normal) Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- þ§-ëÅ]ì: A
EÚ¨ Uú‡ì ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Üõ ÷ªëÅ]u-ÚÁéÙ ‘θ’. Î ÷”êŸh î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ
ÍE ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.- F ·ôÙè[ª ÔÚÛ-¸ÚÙvë] ÷”ê¦hö˺x ò°ï£°u-÷”êŸhÙ â°u, ÍÙêŸ-ô¢- S Q
‘r’ óŸ´.- Íô³ê¶ ÖÚ•\ÚÛ\ ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ ð»è[÷±
÷”êŸhÙ ú£pô¢)-GÙ-ë]ª÷± ÷ë]Ì ú£÷ª-Cy-ÜÙ-è[ì à¶þ§hô³.- O 120° P r
F ÖÚÛ êŸõÙö˺ ÷”êŸhÙšíj î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ #÷J GÙë]ª÷± =  óŸ´.
ÞœªÙè¯ Uú‡ì ¸ôÜ ë¯EÚ¨ õÙñÙÞ¥ ÑÙç˶, Î ¸ôÜ (C1 = ò°ï£°u-÷”êŸhÙ θ
tan -
÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- C 1
C2 = ÍÙêŸ-ô¢-÷”êŸhÙ
A P B
B 2

F ÖÚÛ GÙë]ª÷± ìªÙ# ÖÚÛ ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ UóŸªÞœõ ú£pô¢)-¸ô-

O C 2 AB = â°u í£-åÙö˺ ∠AOB + ∠APB = 180°
AB + CD = BC + DA
Üõ ú£ÙÜu Î GÙë]ª÷± þ§–û¦Eo ñæ¨d ÑÙåªÙC.- P = AB â°u C2 ìª 120° + ∠APB = 180° ô¢àŸô³êŸ
i) GÙë]ª÷± (P) ÷”êŸhÙ
ê¦¸Ú GÙë]ª÷±z ÷«-CJ ú£÷ª-ú£uõª ∠APB = 180° − 120° = 60° úˆšï°àÂ. ô¦ëůÚÛ”ù£g
A P B ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2
ö˺í£õ ÑÙC Ú¥ñæ¨d, Nù£óŸª Eí£±éªõª
Î GÙë]ª÷± ìªÙ# AP = PB 1. ‘O’ ¸ÚÙvë]ÙÞ¥ Ñìo ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ 20 šúÙ.-Oª.- 4. O ¸ÚÙvë]ÙÞ¥ Ñìo ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ò°ï£°u-GÙ-ë]ª÷± P ìªÙ#
P
÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Ü- FO ¸ÚÙ-vë]ÙÞ¥ Ñìo ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ò°ï£°u-GÙ-ë]ª÷± A ìªÙ# ÷”êŸhÙšíj Ñìo P GÙë]ª÷± ÷ë]Ì Uú‡ì ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ PQ.- Uú‡ì ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Üõª PA, PB. ∠APB = 110° Íô³ê¶ ÍòÅ°uú£ ví£øŒoõª
õìª UóŸªö˶Ù.- Uú‡ì ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Üõª AP, AQ Íô³ê¶, OQ = 29 šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶ PQ ð»è[÷± ÓÙêŸ? ∠POA Nõª÷ ÓÙêŸ?
F ÷”êŸhÙ ÍÙêŸ-ô¢Ù-ö˺- Ñìo GÙë]ª÷± ìªÙ# ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ∠PAQ = 2∠OPQ = 2∠OQP sšúÙ.-Oª.-õö˺z 1) 35° 2) 45° 3) 55° 4) 65° 1. ú£pô¢)-GÙ-ë]ª÷± ÷ë]Ì ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸh ú£pô¢)-¸ô-ÜêÁ ë¯E
Uú‡ì ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Üõ ú£ÙÜu = 0 P 1) 27 2) 25 3) 23 4) 21 þ§-ëÅ]ì: A î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄ٠ඛú ÚÁéÙ.-.-.-
ii) GÙë]ª÷± (P) ÷”-êŸhÙšíj ÑÙC þ§ëÅ]ì: 1) 30° 2) 45° 3) 60° 4) 90°
P
Ú¥ñæ¨d Î GÙë]ª÷± ÞœªÙè¯ ÷”ê¦h- O x
? 110° 2. ÷”êŸh-¸ÚÙvë]Ù ìªÙ# ò°ï£°u-GÙ-ë]ª-÷±ÚÛª Ñìo ë]«ô¢Ù
O θ 20 šúÙ.- O P
15 šúÙ.-Oª.- ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ ð»è[÷± 12 šúÙ.-Oª.-
EÚ¨ ÖÚÛ ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Üìª UóŸª-ÞœõÙ.- y A Oª.
F ÷”êŸhÙšíj Ñìo GÙë]ª÷± ÞœªÙè¯ P O
29 šúÙ.-Oª.
Q Íô³ê¶ Î ÷”êŸh-î¦u-þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ ÓÙêŸ? sšúÙ.-Oª.õö˺-z
B 1) 10 2) 9 3) 8 4) 7
÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ UóŸª-Þœõ ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Üõ ú£ÙÜu =- 1 Q
iii) GÙë]ª÷± (P) ∠APB = 110° OA ⊥ AP Ú¥ñæ¨d 3. ·ôÙè[ª ÔÚÛ-¸ÚÙvë] ÷”ê¦hõ î¦uþ§-ô¦ÌÄõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥
∠PAQ = 2∠OPQ ⇒ θ = 2x 
÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ò°ï£°uÙÞ¥ A OP (r) = 20 šúÙ.-Oª., ∠APB ∠OAP = 90° 12 šúÙ.-Oª.-, 13 šúÙ.-Oª. AB Íû¶C #ìo ÷”ê¦h-
∠PAQ = 2∠OQP ⇒ θ = 2y ⇒ ∠APO = 
ÑÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d Î GÙë]ª÷± OQ (d) = 29 šúÙ.-Oª., PQ (l) = ? 2 EÚ¨

ú£pô¢)-¸ôÜ, šíë]Ì ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ â°u Íô³ê¶
O 
ìªÙ# ÷”ê¦h-EÚ¨ ·ôÙè[ª P F ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙ ABCD àŸêŸª-ô¢ª(Ä-â°Eo P, Q, R, S 100 AB ð»è[÷± ÓÙêŸ? sšúÙ.-Oª.-öö˺z
l = √ d2 − r2 =  = 55°
ú£÷«ì ð»è[-÷±õª Ñìo B
GÙë]ª-÷±õ ÷ë]Ì ê¦Ú¨ÙC.- Íô³ê¶ AB + CD  2 1) 5 2) 8 3) 10 4) 12
ú£pô¢)-¸ô-Ü-õìª UóŸª-ÞœõÙ.- = BC + DA Í÷±-꟪ÙC. = √ 292 − 202 ∆ OAP ö˺ ∠OAP + ∠APO + ∠POA = 180° ú£÷«ëůû¦õª: 1-4 2-2 3-3.

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ERROR SPOTTING
As discussed in earlier articles, we must
first attempt vocabulary questions in any
competitive exam. After the vocabulary
questions, we must go for the grammar
questions because we can attempt them with
almost the same speed as the vocabulary
questions. In grammar, Error Spotting or
Error Identification question type is
one of the most common and important
question types. You are given a sentence,
which may or may not have an error in one
or more parts. The correct answer option is
the one that refers to the erroneous part or
parts. All the important grammar rules are
covered by this question, particularly, the
so-called common errors. In SBI Prelims,
you may be given up to 5 such questions.
You must know all the important rules with
standard examples so that you can answer
these questions as quickly and as
accurately as possible.
Model Questions
1. Although Indian newspapers (a)/ say the
opposite, (b)/ the minister (c)/ has visited
Goa last weekend (d). No Error (e)
2. Against the wishes of her parents, (a)/ who
are very rich, (b)/ Geetha is married with a
poor man, (c)/ who works as a waiter in a
restaurant (d). No Error (e)
3. In our residential school, (a)/ each and every
Answer as quickly.. as accurately
boy and girl like (b)/ Ms. Prince, (c)/ who
teaches us biology (d). No Error (e)
4. Although Ram worked hard, but he failed,
(a)/ and his mother and father, (b)/ who had
high hopes on him, (c)/ were disappointed
(d). No Error (e)
5. I am positive about getting selected
because,(a)/ after the interview concluded,
(b)/ the interviewer said to me that (c)/ he
looked forward to meet me (d). No Error (e)
6. The results show that (a)/ I have failed in the
final exam, (b)/ and I think that, if I worked
hard, I would have passed (c)/ the exam with
flying colours (d). No Error (e)
7. Despite the fact (a)/ that her mother disap-
proves of (b)/ Geetha’s binge-watching seri-
als and movies on online streaming services,
(c)/ Geetha is watching movies on Netflix
since morning (d). No Error (e)
10. My daughter, (a)/ who is the smartest in her
8. The wisdom in my late mentor’s (a)/ motiva-
tional speeches surprise me every time (b)/ I
listen to them (c)/ on YouTube (d). No Error (e)
11. Both India and Pakistan’s Prime Ministers,
9. Based on personal experience, (a)/ I can say
that the judicial system in India is good, (b)/
but there seems to be some problem with (c)/
the police, who is feared by the public (d).
No Error (e)
12. After having sleeping for five long (a)/ hours
school, (b)/ makes less grammar mistakes
(c)/ than her classmates (d). No Error (e)
(a)/ who were holding a bilateral summit (b)/
for the first time in decades, (c)/ addressed
the people of both India and Pakistan (d).
No Error (e)
Bank Exams
Special
English Language
in her penthouse, Vikas (b)/ woke up and
realized that he (c)/ must start preparing for
the upcoming exams (d). No Error (e)
13. During my school days, (a)/ my best friend
Venu would always offer help to (b)/ his
friends if he thought (c)/ they deserve it (d).
No Error (e)
14. My beloved daughter, (a)/ whom I loved a
lot, (b)/ is not with me anymore, (c)/ and I
wish I have her with me now (d). No Error (e)
15. My girlfriend, before she came to India (a)/
last year due to the COVID-19 pandemic,
(b)/ was living in America (c)/ for almost ten
years (d). No Error (e)
16. Scarcely Hampi had reached (a)/ the
venue, where a chess competition (b)/ was
being held, (c)/ when the competition start-
ed (d). No Error (e)
17. My father, who runs a big company (a)/ in
the New York city suburbs, (b)/ is not accus-
tomed with belatedness, (c)/ which is quite
common in India (d). No Error (e)
18. The number of bank job aspirants, (a)/ who
take SBI or IBPS exam, (b)/ are increasing
every year because (c)/ there's the much-
desired job security in a bank job (d).
No Error (e)
19. The former President of India, (a)/ who
many Indians are inspired by, (b)/ shall
always be cherished (c)/ in our hearts and
minds (d). No Error (e)
20. Although the judge was explicit (a)/ when he
asked the jury (b)/ to give a unanimous ver-
dict, (c)/ the jury was divided on the final
verdict (d). No Error (e)
21. Although my parents are poor (a)/ and can-
not afford a bike, (b)/ they have promised
that (c)/ they will buy me a bike on my next
birthday (d). No Error (e)
Writer
K. Naresh, Senior Faculty
Sreedhar's CCE

Key With Explanations
1-d; When we mention the past time of an
action, we must use past tense. In d, “last
weekend” is mentioned, so the verb “has
visited” (which is in the present perfect
tense) should be changed to “visited”
(which is in the simple past tense).
2-c; In Standard English, we normally say “is
married to” and not “is married with”.
3-b; The phrase “each and every” should be fol-
lowed by a singular noun and the verb
should be singular too. If two nouns follow
the phrase, both should be singular. In b,
the verb “like” is plural. Therefore, we
should change it to its singular form “likes”.
4-a; Both “although” and “but” are contrasting
conjunctions and mean the same.
Therefore, either of them should be used in
a sentence for the same purpose. In
Standard English, using both for the same
function in a sentence is erroneous. We
should remove either of them.
5-d; In Standard English, after some phrasal
verbs, if a second verb is used, it should be
in the “continuous” or “gerund” (+ ing) form.
One such phrasal verb is “look forward to”
(which means “wait for something eager-
ly”). Therefore, we should change “meet”
to “meeting” in part d.
6-c; The (if) conditional in part c is supposed to
be “impossible conditional” because it
refers to the past. We can say this based on
the other parts, which indicate that the per-
son has already failed. The structure of the
impossible conditional is: [If + past perfect
tense (had + V3)… would/ could/ might +
have + V3]. In the given sentence, in the IF-
part of part c, the tense of the verb “worked”
is simple past. Therefore, we should
change it to “had worked” (past perfect).
7-d; There is a tense error in part d. The tense
of the verb is Present Continuous tense,
which is used to refer to an action that is
happening continuously at the time of
speaking. However, the word “since” indi-
cates that the action started in the past.
The Present Perfect Continuous tense is
used to refer to an action that started in the
past and is still continuous. Therefore, we
should change the tense to “has been
watching” in part d.
8-b; The subject of the sentence is “wisdom” in
part a (and not “speeches”). “Wisdom” is
an uncountable noun. Therefore, the verb
should be singular and not plural (as given
in part b). We should change “surprise” to
“surprises”.
9-d; In Standard English, the noun “police” is
used with a plural verb and not a singular
one. Therefore, we should change “is” in
part d to “are”.
10-c; The comparative form “less” is used to
compare quantities of “uncountable
nouns”. It cannot be used with “countable
nouns” such as “mistakes”. For countable
nouns, we normally use the comparative
form “fewer”. Therefore, we should
change “less” to “fewer”.
11-a; In Standard English, when houses are co-
owned by two people, Ram and Sita, for
example, we say “Ram and Sita’s hous-
es”. However, if one house belongs to
Ram and another to Sita and there is no
combined ownership, we say “Ram’s and
Sita’s houses” (note the two separate
apostrophes). Because India and
Pakistan do not have a common Prime
Minister, part a is erroneous. It should be
“India’s”. The correction is “Both India’s
and Pakistan’s Prime Ministers”.
12-a; The structure "Having + v3" is used when
it qualifies the subject of the clause. In
part a, the structure "having sleeping" is
wrong. We should change it to "having
slept".
13-d; The context is past as can be understood
from "school days", "would" and
"thought". Therefore, even the verb
"deserve" should be changed to its past
tense "deserved".
14-d; In a sentence that expresses the speak-
er's wish, we should use the past tense
for the verb connected to the wish. In the
given sentence, the word “wish” in part d
suggests that the clause is a wish.
Therefore, the verb "have", which is in the
present tense, should be changed "had"
(the past tense).
15-c; In Standard English, when we refer to two
past actions that took place one after the
other, we should use past perfect for the
earlier action and the simple past for the
later action. If the earlier action happens
to be continuous, then the past perfect
continuous tense should be used. In the
given sentence, the first action is "was liv-
ing", which is in the past continuous
tense. Therefore, we should change it to
the past perfect continuous tense "had
been living"
16-a; In Standard English, if negative adverbs,
such as hardly and scarcely, come at the
beginning of a sentence, then there
should be a subject- auxiliary-verb inver-
sion. Otherwise, the adverbs should be
placed before the main verb. In part a,
therefore, we should say either "Hampi
had scarcely reached" or "Scarcely had
Hampi reached".
17-c; The word "accustomed" in part c should
be followed by the preposition "to" and
not "with".
18-c; The phrase "the number of" refers to an
actual number. Therefore, it should be
used with a singular verb. In c, we
should change the plural "are" to the sin-
gular "is".
19-b; The pronoun "who" is a subject pronoun,
and it is used to refer to the subject of a
clause. The pronoun ‘whom’ is an object
pronoun, and it is used to refer to the
object of a clause. In part b, the presence
of the preposition "by" indicates that we
are referring to the president as the object
of the clause. Therefore, we should
change "who" to "whom".
20-d; Collective nouns such as jury and com-
mittee, can take a singular or a plural verb
depending on whether the individuals are
united or divided. If divided, we must use
a plural verb, otherwise, a singular verb.
The word "divided" suggests that the jury
men (members of a jury) are not united.
Therefore, we should use "were" in place
of "was".
21-c; The verb "promise" which means "assure
someone that one will definitely do some-
thing or that something will happen" is a
transitive verb. Such verbs should be fol-
lowed by an object. However, there's no
object after "promised" in part c.
Therefore, we must add "me", a suitable
object based on the context.

GH
 ÎCî¦ô¢Ù Wû 13, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 23

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Quantitative Comparison
Model Questions
Directions (Qs. 1 - 14): In the following questions
two equations numbered I and II are given. You
have to solve both the equations and choose
Solve both the equations..!
the correct option.  
 II. 2y2 − √ 2 y − 6√ 2 y + 6 = 0 10. I. x2 + 14x + 48 = 0 II. y2 + 26y + 168 = 0 between m and n cannot be established.
1. I. m2 = 36 II. n = √ 36   
√ 2 y (√ 2 y − 1) − 6 (√ 2 y − 1) = 0 1) y ≥ x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y < x Ans: 5
1) m = n or relationship cannot be established  
(√ 2 y − 1) (√ 2 y − 6) = 0 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 13. I. 6m2 + 25m + 26 = 0
2) n > m 3) n ≤ m 4) n ≥ m 5) n < m  
y = 1/√ 2 (or) 6/√ 2 Sol: I. x2 + 14x + 48 = 0 II. 5n2 − 67n + 222 = 0
Sol: I. m2 = 36 ⇒ m = ± 6  
 y = 1/√ 2 (or) 3√ 2 ⇒ x2 + 8x + 6x + 48 = 0 1) m < n 2) m > n 3) m ≤ n 4) m ≥ n
II. n = √ 36 ⇒ n = 6
For any values of x and y, x < y x (x + 8) + 6 (x + 8) = 0 5) m = n or relationship cannot be established
For any values of m and n, m ≤ n
Ans: 2 (x + 8) (x + 6) = 0 ⇒ x = − 8 (or) − 6 Sol: I. 6m2 + 12m + 13m + 26 = 0

Ans: 4 
6. I. 2x2 + 3√ 6 x + 6 = 0 II. y2 + 14y + 12y + 168 = 0 ⇒ 6m (m + 2) + 13 (m + 2) = 0
2. I. p3 = 125 II. q = √ 25 
II. 2y2 − 3√ 6 y + 6 = 0 ⇒ y (y + 14) + 12 (y + 14) = 0 ⇒ (m + 2) (6m + 13) = 0
1) p > q 2) p < q 3) p ≥ q 4) p ≤ q
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y (y + 14) (y + 12) = 0 ⇒ m = − 2 (or) − 13/6
5) p = q or relationship cannot be established
5) x = y or relationship cannot be established y = − 14 (or) − 12 II. 5n2 − 30n − 37n + 222 = 0
Sol: I. p3 = 125 ⇒ p = 5 
 Sol: I. 2x2 + 3√ 6 x + 6 = 0 For any values of x and y, y < x 5n(n − 6) − 37 (n − 6) = 0
II. q = √ 25 ⇒ q = 5  
2x2 + 2√ 6 x + √ 6 x + 6 = 0 Ans: 4 (n − 6) (5n − 37) = 0 ⇒ n = 6 (or) 37/5
For any values of p and q, p = q   
2x (x + √ 6) + √ 6 (x + √ 6) = 0 11. I. p2 − p − 272 = 0 II. q2 − q − 306 = 0 for any values m and n, m < n
Ans: 5  
 ⇒ (x + √ 6) (2x + √ 6) = 0 1) p > q 2) p < q 3) p ≥ q 4) p ≤ q Ans: 1
3. I. x2 + 7√ 2 x + 12 = 0  
 x = − √ 6 (or) x = − √ 6/2 5) p = q or relationship cannot be established x3 − x2 − 4x + 4
II. y2 − 7√ 2 y + 12 = 0   14. I.  = 0
II. 2y − 2√ 6 y − √ 6 y + 6 = 0
2 Sol: I. p2 − 17p + 16p − 272 = 0 x+2
1) x = y or relationship cannot be established   
2) y > x 3) y ≤ x
 
4) y ≥ x 5) y < x 2y (y − √ 6) − √ 6 (y − √ 6) = 0
 
(y − √ 6) (2y − √ 6) = 0
Bank Exams p (P − 17) + 16 (p − 17) = 0
(p − 17) (p + 16) = 0
y3 + 4y2 + 5y + 2
II.  = 0
y+1
Sol: I. x2 + 6√ 2 x + √ 2 x + 12 = 0  
   y = √ 6 (or) y = √ 6/2 ⇒ p = 17 (or) − 16 1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y
x (x + 6√ 2) + √ 2 (x + 6√ 2) = 0
 
(x + 6√ 2) (x + √ 2) = 0
 
For any values of x and y, x < y Special II. q2 − 18q + 17q − 306 = 0 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established
Sol: x3 + 2x2 − 3x2 − 6x + 2x + 4
Ans: 1 q (q − 18) + 17 (q − 18) = 0
x = − 6√ 2 (or) − √ 2 I.  = 0
 
II. y2 − 6√ 2 y − √ 2 y + 12 = 0
7. I. x2 + 28x + 192 = 0 II. y2 + 43y + 460 = 0 Quantitative Aptitude ⇒ (q − 18) (q + 17) = 0 ⇒ q = 18 (or) − 17 x+2
   1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y For any values of p and q, the relation x2 (x + 2) − 3x (x + 2) + 2 (x + 2)
y(y − 6√ 2) − √ 2 (y − 6√ 2) = 0  = 0
  5) x = y or relationship cannot be established II. y2 + 22y − 3y − 66 = 0 between p and q cannot be established. x+2
(y − 6√ 2) (y − √ 2) = 0
  Sol: I. x2 + 16x + 12x + 198 = 0 y (y + 22) − 3 (y + 22) = 0 Ans: 5 (x + 2) (x2 − 3x + 2)
y = √ 2 (or) 6√ 2  = 0
x (x + 16) + 12 (x + 16) = 0 (y + 22) (y − 3) = 0 ⇒ y = 3 (or) − 22 12. I. 2m3 + 12m2 − 32m = 0 x+2
For any values of x and y, x < y
(x + 16) (x + 12) = 0 For any values of x and y, x > y II. 3n2 + 34n + 63 = 0 x2 − 3x + 2 = 0 ⇒ x2 − x − 2x + 2 = 0
Ans: 2
⇒ x = − 16 (or) − 12 Ans: 2 1) n < m 2) n > m 3) n ≤ m 4) n ≥ m x (x − 1) − 2 (x − 1) = 0
Writer II. y2 + 23y + 20y + 460 = 0 9. I. x2 + 8x + 12 = 0 II. y2 + 5y − 300 = 0 5) m = n or relationship cannot be established (x − 1) (x − 2) = 0 ⇒ x = 1 (or) 2
y (y + 23) + 20 (y + 23) = 0 1) y ≥ x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y < x Sol: I. 2m3 + 12m2 − 32m = 0 y3 + y2 + 3y2 + 3y + 2y + 2
R. Vahinee, Senior Faculty (y + 23) (y + 20) = 0 II.  = 0
5) x = y or relationship cannot be established divide both sides with 2m y+1
Sreedhar's CCE y = − 23 (or) − 20 Sol: I. x2 + 8x + 12 = 0 m2 + 6m − 16 = 0 y2 (y + 1) + 3y (y + 1) + 2 (y + 1)
For any values of x and y, x > y m2 + 8m − 2m − 16 = 0  = 0
 x2 + 6x + 2x + 12 = 0 y+1
4. I. x2 + 3√ 6 x + 12 = 0 Ans: 2 x (x + 6) + 2 (x + 6) = 0 m (m + 8) − 2 (m + 8) = 0 (y + 1) (y2 + 3y + 2)
 ⇒  = 0
II. y – 3√ 6 y + 12 = 0
2 8. I. x2 − 25x + 144 = 0 II. y2 + 19y − 66 = 0 ⇒ (x + 6) (x + 2) = 0 ⇒ x = − 6 (or) − 2 ⇒ (m + 8) (m − 2) = 0 ⇒ m = − 8 (or) 2 y+1
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y 1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y II. y2 + 20y − 15y − 300 = 0 II. 3n2 + 34n + 63 = 0 y2 + y + 2y + 2 = 0
5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established y (y + 20) − 15 (y + 20) = 0 3n2 + 27n + 7n + 63 = 0 ⇒ y (y + 1) + 2 (y + 1) = 0
 
Sol: I. x2 + 2√ 6 x + √ 6 x + 12 = 0 Sol: I. x2 − 16x − 9x + 144 = 0 (y + 20) (y − 15) = 0 ⇒ y = − 20 (or) 15 3n (n + 9) + 7 (n + 9) = 0 (y + 1) (y + 2) = 0 ⇒ y = − 1 (or) − 2
  
x (x + 2√ 6) + √ 6 (x + 2√ 6) = 0 x (x − 16) − 9 (x − 16) = 0 For any values of x and y, the relationship (n + 9) (3n + 7) = 0 ⇒ n = − 9 (or) −7/3 for any values of x and y, x > y
 
x = − 2√ 6 (or) − √ 6 (x − 16) (x − 9) = 0 ⇒ x = 16 (or) 9 between them cannot be exist. Ans: 5 For any values of m and n, the relationship Ans: 2
 
II. y2 − 2√ 6 y − √ 6 y + 12 = 0
   
y(y − 2√ 6) − √ 6 (y − 2√ 6) = 0
 
Practice Questions 3. I. 2x2 − 6√ 6 x + 15 = 0 y3 + 2y2 − 5y − 6 II. q2 − q – 272 = 0
 II.  = 0
y = 2√ 6 (or) √ 6 II. 2y2 + 6√ 6 y + 15 = 0 y+1 1) p > q 2) p < q 3) p ≥ q 4) p ≤ q
Directions (Qs. 1 - 10): In the following ques-
For any values of x and y, x < y 1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y 1) y < x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y ≥ x 5) p = q or relationship cannot be established
tions two equations numbered I and II are 

Ans: 1 given. You have to solve both the equations 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 9. I. m2 = 49 II. n = √ 49
5. I. 2x2 + 7√ 2 x + 6 = 0 and choose the correct option. 6. I. x2 + 9x + 18 = 0 1) m = n or relationship cannot be established
  x3 + 7x2 + 16x + 12
II. 2y2 − 7√ 2 y + 6 = 0 1. I. x2 + 6√ 6 x + 30 = 0 4. I.  = 0 II. y2 + 15y − 450 = 0 2) n > m 3) n ≤ m 4) n ≥ m 5) n < m
1) y ≥ x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y < x  x+3
1) y ≥ x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y < x 
II. y2 − 6√ 6 y + 30 = 0 3
10. I. p = 216 II. q = √ 36
5) x = y or relationship cannot be established y3 + 2y2 − y − 2 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established
1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y II.  = 0 1) p > q 2) p < q 3) p ≥ q 4) p ≤ q
  y−1
Sol: I. 2x2 + √ 2 x + 6√ 2 x + 6 = 0 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 7. I. x2 + 16x + 64 = 0 5) p = q or relationship cannot be established
    1) x < y 2) x > y 3) x ≤ y 4) x ≥ y
√ 2 x (√ 2 x + 1) + 6 (√ 2 x + 1) = 0 2. I. 2x2 − 12√ 2 x + 11 = 0 II. y2 + 24y + 128 = 0
   Answers
(√ 2 x + 1) (√ 2 x + 6) = 0 II. 2y2 + 12√ 2 y + 11 = 0 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 1) y ≥ x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y < x
 
x = − 1/√ 2 (or) − 6/√ 2 1) y ≥ x 2) y > x 3) y ≤ x 4) y < x x3 − 4x2 + x + 6 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established 1-1 3-2 5-3 7-3 9-4
  5. I.  = 0
x = − 1/√ 2 (or) − 3√ 2 5) x = y or relationship cannot be established x+1 8. I. p2 − p − 240 = 0 2-4 4-3 6-5 8-5 10-5

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F F F F
Indian Financial System
A financial system is an institutional
mechanism that intermediates between
ultimate borrowers and ultimate lenders.
The Indian Financial System consists of
two markets: the Money Market and the
Capital Market.
Money Market
* Money market is a short term credit market
for short term funds.
* RBI is the controlling authority of the money
market.
* Money market deals in financial securities
whose period of maturity is in the range of
one day to one year.
* In money market, the commercial banks
are the major lenders of money.
* The major participants in the market are the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Commercial
Banks, Non Banking Finance Companies,
State Governments, Large Corporate
Houses and Mutual Funds.
Money Market Instruments
a. Commercial Bills:
F It is a written acknowledgement of debt by
the maker directing to pay a specified sum of
money to a particular person.
F Commercial bills are drawn by one business
firm to another in lieu of credit transaction.
F They are also called Trade Bills or Bills of
Exchange.
Capital Market
* Capital market is a market where buyers
and sellers engage in trade of financial
securities like bonds, stocks, etc.
* The buying/ selling is undertaken by partic-
ipants such as individuals and institutions.
* Capital market consists of primary mar-
kets and secondary markets.
* Primary markets deal with trade of new
issues of stocks and other securities,
whereas secondary market deals with the
exchange of existing or previously-issued
securities.
Financial Instruments in Capital Market
a. Shares:
F “Share” refers to a part of capital of a com-
pany which is divided among a number of
people.
F The capital of a company is divided into
shares.
F People who purchase the shares of a com-
pany are known as the shareholders and
are also considered as the owners of a
company.
F The shareholders receive dividends as
return from the company. On the other-
side, shareholders may enjoy or suffer
capital gain/ loss at the time of sale of
shares.
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F F F F
Who is the chairman of SEBI?
Ajay Tyagi
F They are short-term instruments generally
issued for a period of 90 days.
F These are freely marketable.
F Banks provide working capital finance to
firms by purchasing the commercial bills at a
discount; this is called 'discounting of bills'.
b. Treasury Bills:
l They are promissory notes issued by the RBI
on behalf of the government as a short term
liability and sold to banks and to the public.
b. Debentures:
zx Debentures are debt instruments with a
fixed rate of interest issued by a company
and generally unsecured.
zx The finances raised through debentures are
also known as long-term debt.
zx Many investors prefer debentures because
it offers higher rate of interest than fixed
deposits.
c. Bonds:
G Bond is also an instrument of acknowl-
edgement of debt.
G Traditionally, the Government issued
bonds, but these days, bonds are also
being issued by semi government and non-
governmental organisations.
d. Mutual Funds:
l These are funds operated by an investment
company which raises money from the
public and invests in a group of assets
(shares, debentures etc.), in accordance
with a stated set of objectives.
l It is a substitute for those who are unable to
invest directly in equities or debt because
of resource, time or knowledge constraints.
l Mutual fund units are issued and redeemed
by the Fund Management Company based
on the fund’s Net Asset Value (NAV), which
is determined at the end of each trading
session.
n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17
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îËÁåô Õ.-è….-, ú£«\öËÀ ú£Jd-íƇ-·Úåªx, Îú‡h í£vê¦õª, Óõ-vÚ¥d-EÚ 24 × 7 ví£-þ§ô¢Ù à¶þ¼hÙC. GSAT-15 Ñ-í£-vޜ Íìª-ú£Ù- ÚÛL-T ÑÙåªÙC. DE ë¯yô¦ î¦uð§-ô¢-ú£ªhõª NE-óµ«-Þœ-
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HÅîª óŸ«íà (Bharat Interface for Money): JáôÂy àŦûµ-üŒ‰x ví£þ§ô¢Ù à¶ú£ª-ÚÁ-÷àŸªa. òÅ°ô¢ê ÚÛ«uÎô ÚÁèÂìª ÎôÂHÕ
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êŸô¢îµªiì, ޜ-÷Ù-êŸ-iì ÎJ–ÚÛ ö°î¦-ë¶-O-õìª Eô¢y-Ù-àŸ- Në]ue-; êµõÙ-Þ¥- û¦oô³.-
éö˺ T-SAT G Ï Ú¥ÚÛªÙè¯ Ð n- ð§ôÈ¢-ø‹õ, þ¼p·Úû åªuæ˺-J-óŸªöËÀ,
ë¯yô¦ DEo ô¢«ð»Ù-CÙ-à¦ô¢ª.- òÅ°ô¢-êŸ-ð¿-ô¢ªõª î¦J þ§tôÂd- E-í£±é DEÚ¨ Ñë¯--ô¢-é-Þ¥ àµð»pàŸªa.- û¶ù£-ìöËÀ Jð¼->-åK, þ§ô¦ÙøË ë]-ö˵jì ÎûÂ-ö˵jû ð¼ô¢düŒ‰x
ðƼ-ìxìª ÏÙå·ôoæÀêÁ Íìª-ú£Ù-ëů-EÙ# Ð óŸ«íÃìª [ Ð àŦûµ-üŒxÚÛª Ú¥î¦-Lqì ú£÷«-à¦-ô¦Eo ví£÷³Ü IITõª, NNëÅ] ô¢Ú¥õ ›ú÷-õìª ÍÙC-ú£ªh-û¦oô³.
F F F F F F F F F F F F
14 days (called short notice). Securities and Exchange Board of
SBI zx No collateral is required to borrow from this
market.
zx Funds are usually raised from this market
India (SEBI)
Junior Associates upto three days - the higher the interest, the F It is the regulator of the securities and
longer the period for which the funds have commodity market in India owned by
the Government of India.
FINANCIAL AWARENESS been borrowed.
F It was established on April 12, 1988 and
Unorganized money market
given Statutory Powers on 30 January
l The maturity period ranges from 14 to 364 q The unorganized money market consists of 1992 through the SEBI Act, 1992.
days. indigenous bankers, money lenders and F It became an autonomous body on 12
l They are the negotiable instruments, i.e. they unregulated non-bank financial intermedi- April 1992.
are freely transferable. aries such as finance companies, chit funds F It monitors and regulates the Indian
l No interest is paid on such bills but they are and nidhis. capital and securities market while
issued at a discount on their face value. q Farmers, artisans and other small time pro- ensuring to protect the interests of the
c. Commercial Paper (CP): ducers and traders borrow money from the investors, formulating regulations and
unorganized money market.
c A commercial paper is an unsecured promis- guidelines.
sory note issued by corporate with net worth Organized Money Market F The head office of SEBI is at Bandra
of atleast Rs.5 crore to the banks for short n Organized money market is the formal mar- Kurla Complex, Mumbai.
term loans.
ket for money regulated by RBI with com- Functions:
c These are issued at discount on face value mercial banks being the main players.
for a period of 14 days to 12 months. n Foreign banks, Co-operative banks, Discount a. SEBI is primarily set up to protect the
c These are issued in multiples of Rs.1 lakh and Finance House of India, finance compa- interests of investors in the securities
subject to a minimum of Rs.25 lakh. nies, provident funds, Securities Trading market.
d. Certificate of Deposit (CD): Corporation of India, Public Sector b. It promotes the development of the
G These are issued by banks against deposits Undertakings and mutual funds are the other securities market and regulates the
kept by individuals and institutions for a peri- institutions which operate in the formal Indian business.
od of 15 days to 3 years. money market. c. It prohibits insider trading, i.e. fraudulent
G These are similar to Fixed Deposits but are n The Reserve Bank of India is the monetary and unfair trade practices related to the
negotiable and tradable. authority controlling the formal money mar- securities market.
G These are issued in multiples of Rs.1 lakh ket. d. SEBI takes care of research and devel-
subject to a minimum of Rs.25 lakh. opment to ensure the securities market
e. Call Money Market (CMM): is efficient at all times.
Writer e. It ensures that investors are educated
zx It is an inter-bank money market where funds
are borrowed and lent for one day. T. Srichakra Phani on the intermediaries of securities mar-
zx It is also known as over-night borrowing kets.
Senior Faculty, RACE
(called as money at call) and for a period upto
Model Questions
5. Which of the following short term bills issued 8. In capital market, the period of maturity is ....
1. In India, unorganised money market con- by central government to meet its immediate a) Less than a year b) More than a year
sists of ..... cash needs?
c) less than 45 days d) less than 180 days
a) Foreign Banks b) Provident funds a) Certificate of Deposit 9. Which of the following is Not an objective of
c) Public Sector Undertakings b) Call Money Market SEBI
d) Chit funds c) Cash Management Bill a) To protect the interests of investors in the
2. Treasury bills are issued by the ..... d) Commercial Bills securities market
a) State Government b) SEBI 6. Which of the following bills is also known as b) It prohibits insider trading
c) Government of India d) All the above Trade Bills? c) To ensure that investors are educated on
3. Commercial Paper was introduced on the a) Certificate of Deposit the intermediaries of securities markets
recommendation of the ..... b) Commercial paper d) To promote individual businesses
a) Vaghul Committee c) Mutual funds 10. In India, the capital market is controlled by?
b) Narasimhan Committee d) Commercial Bills a) Reserve Bank of India
c) Shekar Kumar Committee 7. In India, who is the controlling authority of b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
d) Atul Committee the money market? c) NABARD d) PFRDA
4. At present, who is the chairman of Securities a) Reserve Bank of India
and Exchange Board of India? b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
Key
a) UK Sinha b) Ajay Tyagi c) Both a and b 1-d 2-c 3-a 4-b 5-c
6-d 7-a 8-b 9-d 10-b
c) Ajit Kumar d) Ajay Sinha d) Neither a nor b
GH
 ñªëÅ]î¦ô¢Ù Wû 16, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17

National
Anup Chandra Pandey in EC
On 9 June 2021, Anup Chandra
Pandey joined as the Election
Commissioner in the Election
Commission of India.
The three-member body is headed
by Chief Election Commissioner
Sushil Chandra and Rajiv Kumar is
the other election commissioner.
Pandey superannuated as the
Uttar Pradesh chief secretary in
August 2019. He also served as a
member of the National Green
Tribunal Oversight Committee, Uttar
Pradesh.
New National Parks in Assam
On the occasion of World
Environment Day on 5th June 2021,
Assam Chief Minister Himanta Biswa
Sarma announced that the Raimona
reserve forest in Kokrajhar district
under the Bodoland Territorial Region
bordering Bhutan has been upgraded
as the sixth national park of the
state.
The new Raimona national park is
part of a contiguous forest patch with
an area of 422 square kilometres,
covering the northern part of the noti-
fied Ripu Reserve Forest.
The state cabinet also agreed to
designate Dehing Patkai Wildlife
Sanctuary as the state's seventh
national park.
International
Abdulla Shahid heads UNGA
On 7 June 2021,
Abdulla Shahid was
elected as the
President of the 76th
session of the United
Nations General
Assembly. He was
able to garner143 votes out of the 191
ballots cast, whose candidature was
supported by India
He is serving as Foreign Minister of
Maldives. Shahid replaced Volkan
Bozkir from Turkey.
According to the established rules of
regional rotation, the President of the
76th session of the General Assembly
was to be elected from the Group of
Asia-Pacific States.
Abdulla Shahid appointed India’s
Deputy Permanent Representative to
the UN Ambassador K Nagaraj Naidu
as his Chef de Cabinet.
The new national park Dehing
Patkai is a prominent elephant habi-
tat, with 310 kinds of butterflies docu-
mented there. The Park is home to 47
reptile and mammal species, includ-
ing the tiger and clouded leopard.
Performance Grading Index
On 6 June 2021, Union Education
Minister, Ramesh Pokhriyal
‘Nishank’ approved the release of the
Performance Grading Index (PGI)
2019-20 for States and Union
Territories of India, which was intro-
duced with a set of 70 parameters to
bring about change in school educa-
tion.
The PGI exercise envisages that
the index would propel States and
Union Territories towards undertak-
ing multi-pronged interventions that
will bring about the much-desired
optimal education outcomes.
Punjab, Chandigarh, Tamil Nadu,
Andaman & Nicobar Islands and
Kerala occupy the highest grade
(Grade A++) for 2019-20.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands,
Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur,
Puducherry, Punjab and Tamil Nadu
have improved overall PGI score by
10 %.
The Performance Grading Index
for States and Union Territories on
school education was first published
in 2019 with reference to the year
2017-18.
Asia University Rankings
The Indian Institute of Science (IISc),
Bengaluru secured 37th rank in the top
200 Times Higher Education (THE)
Asia University Rankings announced
on 2 June 2021.
IIT Ropar got 55th rank and IIT Indore
got 78th rank. Tsinghua University,
China gained the first position in the
Asia university rankings 2021.
New members in Security council
The United Nations Organization
General Assembly elected 5 countries
to join the powerful U.N. Security
Council on 11 June 2021.
The nations elected unopposed are
Brazil, the United Arab Emirates,
Albania, Ghana and Gabon.
The 5 new council members will
start their terms on 1 January 2022,
replacing 5 countries whose 2-year
terms end on 31 December 2021 --
Estonia, Niger, Saint Vincent and the
Grenadines, Tunisia and Vietnam.
'Jahan Vote, Wahan
Vaccination'
On 7 June 2021, the 'Jahan Vote,
Wahan Vaccination' campaign was
launched by the Delhi state govern-
ment.
Under this campaign, the people
The theme of World Milk Day is..?
David Diop
The new members will join other
non-permeant members of the council
-India, Ireland, Kenya, Mexico and
Norway, the five countries that were
elected in the last year.
The 10 non-permanent seats on the
council are allotted to regional groups,
who usually select candidates, but
sometimes cannot agree on an uncon-
tested slate.
Even if a country is running unop-
posed, it must obtain the votes of two-
thirds of the member states that voted
in order to win a seat on the council.
The five permeant members of the
Security Council are- the UK, the USA,
Russia, France and China.
India in ECOSOC
On 7 June 2021, India was elected to
the United Nations Economic and
Social Council (ECOSOC) for the term
of 2022-24.
ECOSOC has 54 members, which
are elected by the General Assembly
and India was elected in the Asia-
Pacific States category.
For more Information see
today’s Telangana Edition
will be able to get doses of Covid-19
vaccines at booths where they voted
in the election.
Delhi is the first state to announce a
mass vaccination drive to cover a
large part of its population by directing
people to get their dose at their voting
booth.
General Awareness
Others
India hosts FIFA under-17 Women
On 20 May 2021, the FIFA council
declared that the 2022 FIFA under-17
Women’s World Cup will be held in
India from October 11 to 30, 2022.
India was earlier scheduled to host
the 2020 U-17 World Cup but it was
postponed to 2021 before being can-
celled due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
FIFA U-20 Women's World Cup will
be held in Costa Rica between 10-28
August 2022.
The FIFA Council also approved
the tournament dates for the
Women's World Cup Australia and
New Zealand 2023 from July 20 to
August 20, 2023.
Model Questions
1. The Zimbabwean novelist, play-
wright, filmmaker and activist was
conferred with the prestigious PEN
Pinter Prize 2021. She is......
1) Lebo Mashile
2) Sindiwe Magona
3) Zukiswa Wanner
4) Cynthia Jele
5) Tsitsi Dangarembga
2. On 2 June 2021, who was appointed
as the Chair of WHO (World Health
Organization) Executive Board?
1) Anthony Fauci of USA
2) Devi Shetty of India
3) Rosemary Leonard of UK
4) Magdi Yacoub of Egypt
5) Patrick Amoth of Kenya
3. Who won the presidential election
Writer
Amara Veeraswamy
Subject Expert
World Environment Day
World Environment Day is observed
on June 5 every year to spread aware-
ness about the importance of nature
throughout the world.
The theme of World Environment
Day this year is 'Reimagine. Recreate.
Restore' and its focal point is ecosys-
tem restoration.
This year World Environment Day
hosted by Pakistan.
On this eve, the United Nations
Decade on Ecosystem Restoration has
of Syria in the fourth term?
1) Guillermo Lasso
2) Bah Ndaw 3) Bashar al-Assad
4) Moctar Ouane 5) Assimi Goita
4. 'Sustainability in the dairy sector
with messages around the environ-
ment, nutrition, and socio-econom-
ics' is the theme of World Milk Day
observed on......
1) 25 May 2) 31 May
3) 15 June 4) 1 June 5) 7 June
5. Research Design and Standards
Organisation (RDSO), which sets
standards for the railway sector, is
the standard body joined in the ‘One
Nation, One Standard’ scheme of
the central government. Where is
the headquarters of RDSO?
1) New Delhi 2) Hyderabad
3) Lucknow 4) Chennai 5) Pune
been officially launched, which will run
from 2021 to 2030.
The UN Decade on Ecosystem
Restoration is a global mission to
revive billions of hectares, from forests
to farmlands, from the top of mountains
to the depth of the sea.
International Booker Prize
David Diop has become the first
French writer to win the International
Booker Prize on 2 June 2021.
His novel ‘At Night All Blood is
Black’, was inspired by his Senegalese
great-grandfather's silence about his
experiences in World War One.
The £50,000 prize will be split
between Diop and the book's translator
- USA author and poet Anna
Moschovakis.
The International Booker Prize is
awarded every year for a single book
that is translated into English and pub-
lished in the UK or Ireland.
6. Which AI-based platform launched
by the Government of India by hav-
ing a partnership with non-profit
organisation Artpark and Niramai
to detect COVID 19, with the help of
a Chest X-ray?
1) XrayPath 2) XrayJeevan
3) X-Ray Setu 4) XraySarathi
5) Xraygnan
7. Which film won the best film award
on environment conservation at the
67th National Films Awards 2021?
1) The 11th hour
3) Water Burial
4) The Day after tomorrow
5) Indian Gold
Answers
1-5 2-5 3-3 4-4
5-3 6-3 7-3

F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F
Eù£pAh n- Íìª-ð§êŸÙ
p

p
÷³Ý°uÙ-ø‹õª-
Eù£pAh þ§óŸªÙêÁ ú£â°A ô¦øŒ‰-õìª ð¼ö˹aàŸªa,
Ñí£-óµ«-TÙ-àŸ-÷àŸªa.-
a, b Íû¶ ú£ë]”øŒu ô¦øŒ‰õ ÷ªëÅ]u Eù£p-AhE a : bÞ¥
ÑëÁu-Þ¥õ ÚÁú£Ù ð¼æ©í£-è…ì ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õª ÓÙêŸ÷ªÙC?
ô¦þ§hô¢ª.-
p Eù£p-AhE Óõx-í£±pè[« ÚÛEù£’ í£ë¯ö˺x ÷uÚÛh-í£-ô¢-à¦L.- 5(−9) 5(−9)
=  =  =- 3 ë]-ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù:- 8. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh 17 :- 45.- #ìo ú£ÙÜuö˺
p a : bö˺ îµ³ë]æ¨ í£ë]Ù aE í£²ô¢y-í£ë]Ù 13 − 28 −15 ÓÙí‡-·Új-ì-î¦ô¢ª =- 5x − 20 1 1
(Antecedent) ÍE, ·ôÙèÁ í£ë]Ù bE í£ô¢-í£ë]Ù bx(c − d) 7(5)(4 − 13) 35(−9)  ÷ òŰޜ٠Nõª÷, šíë]Ì ú£ÙÜuö˺  ÷ òÅ°ÞœÙ
 =  =  ÓÙ-í‡ÚÛ Ú¥E-î¦ô¢ª =- 6x − 100 − (5x − 20) 3 5
(Consequent) ÍE ÍÙ-æ°ô¢ª.- ad − bc 1(13) − 7(4) 13 − 28 ìªÙ# 15 Bú‡-›úh ÷#aì Nõª-÷ÚÛª ú£÷«ìÙ.-
= 6x − 100 − 5x + 20
a 35(−9) Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜu-õö˺ #ìo ú£ÙÜu Nõª÷.....
p a : bE GÅìo-ô¢«-í£Ùö˺  Þ¥ ô¦þ§hô¢ª. =  = 21 = x − 80
b- −15 1 1 1 1
Ï-í£±pè[ª, (5x − 20) : (x − 80) = 6 : 1 1) 42 - 2) 56  3) 76  4) 92 
p a : b = c : d Í-ô³ê¶ a, b, c, dõª Íìª-ð§- ∴ Î ú£ÙÜuõª =- 3, 21 2 2 2 2
⇒ (5x − 20) 1 = (x − 80) 6
êŸÙö˺ ÑÙæ°ô³.- ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1 ⇒ 5x − 20 = 6x − 480 þ§ëÅ]ì: ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- 17 :- 45
p a : b = c : d Í-ô³ê¶ a × d = b × c Í-÷±ê - ªŸ ÙC.- 3. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª 3 :- 5 Eù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- ví£A Î ú£ÙÜuõª = 17x, 45x
⇒ 480 − 20 = 6x − 5x ⇒ x = 460
ú£ÙÜu ìªÙ# 9E Bú‡-›úh ÷à¶a ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh ë]-ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù,
11 : 19. Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥......-
ð¼-æ©-í£-è…ì ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õ îµ³êŸhÙ = 6x = 6 × 460
ô¢àŸô³êŸ ÷ªÙC = 2760 1 1
1) 96, 160 2) 135, 225 17x ö˺ -÷ òŰޜ٠= 45xö˺ -÷ òŰޜ٠− 15
úˆšï°àÂ. ô¦ëůÚÛ”ù£g 3) 72, 120 4) 108, 180
ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 3 5
6. A, Bõª ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª.- Aö˺ 5%, Bö˺ 4%-õ 1 1 17x
Nù£óŸª Eí£±éªõª þ§ëÅ]ì: ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª a : b E-ù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- Î
îµ³êŸhÙ Nõª÷ Aö˺ 6%, Bö˺ 8%-õ îµ³êŸhÙö˺
17x ×  = 45x ×  − 15 ⇒  = 9x − 15
3 5 3
ú£ÙÜuõ ìªÙ# xE Bú‡-›úh ÷à¶a ú£ÙÜuõ
2 17x 10x
÷«-CJ ú£÷ª-ú£uõª Eù£pAh c : d Í-ô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥
ax(d − c) bx(d − c)
 ÷ òŰޜ٠ÑÙç˶ A, Bõ Eù£pAh ÓÙêŸ?
3
9x −  = 15 ⇒  = 15
3 3
 ,  1) 2 :- 1 2) 3 :- 2 3) 4 :- 3 4) 3 :- 4 15 × 3 45 9 9
1. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª 17 : 13 Eù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³. Î
ú£ÙÜuõ îµ³êŸhÙ 120.- Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥..-
ad − bc ad − bc
·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- a : b = 3 : 5 ð¼æ© í£K¤Ûõ þ§ëÅ]ì:- Aö˺ 5% + Bö˺ 4% x =  =  =  ∴ x = 
10 10 2
9
2

1) 66, 54
3) 68, 52
2) 78, 42
4) 76, 44
B-ú‡--ú‡ì ú£ÙÜu =- x = 9
íÆ£-LêŸ ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- c : d = 11 : 19 ví£ê¶uÚÛÙ 2
=  [Aö˺ 6% + Bö˺ 8%]
3
#ìo ú£ÙÜu = 17x = 17 × 

153 1
2

þ§ëÅ]ì:- ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª a : b Eù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- Î

ú£ÙÜuõ îµ³êŸhÙ x Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ax(d − c) 3(9)(19 − 11)
ad − bc
= 
3(19) − 5(11)
÷«uëÇ]æ¨ÚÂq A×5 B×4 2 A×6 B×8
 +  =   + 
100 100 3 100 100
- [ ] =  ⇒ 76 
2 2 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ :- 3
ax bx 3(9)(8) 3(9)(8)
ÍòÅ°uú£ ví£øŒoõª
, 
a+ b a + b
=  =  = 108
57− 55 2
ôÁê @êŸÙ × (100 −- 80)% :- Þœé˶ùà @êŸÙ ×
(100 −- 85)%- : vÚ¨ùà @êŸÙ × (100 −- 75)%-
5A + 4B 2 6A + 8B
⇒  =  
100 3 100
- [ ] 1. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª 6 :- 7 Eù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- Î
·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- a : b = 17 : 13 bx(d − c) 5(9)(19 − 11) 5(9)(8) =- 8 :- 9 :- 20 ⇒ 3(5A + 4B) = 2(6A + 8B) ú£ÙÜuõ îµ³êŸhÙ 22.-1 Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª
ú£Ù-Üuõ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 120  =  = 
ad − bc 3(19) − 5(11) 57 − 55 ⇒ ôÁ-ê @êŸÙ × 20%- :- Þœé˶ùà @êŸÙ × 15%- ⇒ 15A + 12B = 12A + 16B ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥.....-
ax 17(120) 17(120) 5(9)(8) :- vÚ¨ùà @êŸÙ × 25%- = 8 :- 9 :- 20 ⇒ 15A − 12A = 16B − 12B 1) 9.2, 12.-9 2) 10.-2, 11.-9
Î ú£ÙÜuõª  =  =  = 68 =  = 180
a + b 17 + 13 30 2 ⇒ ôÁ-ê @êŸÙ × 4 :- Þœé˶ùà @êŸÙ × 3 :- vÚ¨ùà A 4 3) 10.-9, 11.-2 4) 9.-9, 12.-2
bx 13(120) 13(120) @êŸÙ × 5 = 8 :- 9 :- 20 ⇒ 3A = 4B ⇒  =  ⇒ A : B = 4 : 3 - -
Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ =- 108, 180 B 3 2.- ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh 5 :- 9.- ví£A ú£ÙÜuÚÛª 9
 =  =  = 52 ⇒ ôÁ-ê @êŸÙ :- Þœé˶ùà @êŸÙ :- vÚ¨ùà @êŸÙ
a+b 17 + 13 30 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 ÚÛL-í‡ê¶ ÷à¶a íÆ£LêŸ ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh 16 :- 27.-
∴ Î ú£ÙÜuõª
= 68, 52 öË¶ë¯ 8 9 20
=  :  : =2 : 3 : 4 7. Ú¨ÙC í£åÙö˺ AB ¸ôÝ°-ÜÙè[Ù ð»è[÷± 28.-6 Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuö˺x ·ôÙèÁ ú£ÙÜu......-
ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- 3 :- 5 4 3 5 šúÙ.-Oª.- X Íû¶ GÙë]ª÷± ¸ôÝ°-ÜÙ-è¯Eo 9 :- 13 1) 63 2) 90 3) 99 4) 108
Þœ÷ª-EÚÛ:- ÷´è[ª ú£ÙÜuõª a : b : c E-ù£p-Ahö˺ ÑÙè…, Î ú£ÙÜuõª =- 3x, 5x Í-ìª-ÚÁÙè….- ÷³-Þœª_J @ê¦õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- ô¢«.-72,000 Eù£p-Ahö˺ NòÅ¡->-ú£ªhÙC.- Íô³ê¶ AX, XB ¸ôÝ°-ÜÙ- 1 2
î¦æ¨ îµ³êŸhÙ x Í-ô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ è¯õ ð»è[-÷±õª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥....... sšúÙ.-Oª.-öö˺z 3. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh - - - - ví£A ú£ÙÜu
1  : 2 .
ax bx cx
3x − 9 11
ö˵ÚÛ\ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù,  = 
ôÁê @êŸÙ =- ô¢«.-72000 × 2 -`--23--`--4 - 2 3
, ,  5x − 9 19 A X B ìªÙ# 15ìª Bú‡-›úh ÷à¶a íÆ£LêŸ ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh
a + b + c a + b + c a + b + c 2 1 2
⇒ 19(3x − 9) = 11(5x − 9) =- ô¢«.-
72000 ×  = - - ô¢«.-16,000 1) 17.1, 11.5 2) 11.7, 16.9 1  :- 3  Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuö˺x šíë]Ì ú£ÙÜu..
2. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª 1 : 7 Eù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- Î ú£ÙÜu- ⇒ 57x − 171 = 55x − 99 9
3) 16.9, 11.7 4) 12.7, 15.9 - 3- 3
õÚÛª 5 ÚÛL-í‡ê¶ ÷à¶a ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh 4 : 13.- ⇒ 57x − 55x = 171 − 99 ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1  1) 27 2) 36 3) 42 4) 48
Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥..-... 72 5. ÎKt ÑëÁu-Þ¥õ EóŸ«-÷ªÚÛ ví£vÚ¨-óŸªö˺ ÓÙí‡-·Újì, þ§-ëÅ]ì: AB ¸ôÝ°-ÜÙè[Ù ð»è[÷± =- 28.-6 šúÙ.-Oª.-
⇒ 2x = 72 ⇒ x =  = 36
 
AX, XBõ Eù£pAh =- 9 :- 13
4. ÖÚÛ ÎòÅ¡-ô¢éÙ 12.-5 vÞ¥÷³õ ñô¢ª÷± ÑÙC.- ë¯Eö˺
1) 3, 21 2) 4, 28 2 ÓÙí‡ÚÛ Ú¥E ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õ Eù£pAh 5 : 1.- ÑëÁu-Þ¥õ Ùè… 2.-5 vÞ¥÷³õª, NªT-Lì ö˺õª Ñû¦oô³.-
,
3) 5 35 4) 6, 42 Î ú£ÙÜuõª, 3x = 3 × 36 = 108 ÚÁú£Ù ð¼æ©-í£-è…ì ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õ ú£ÙÜu 100 êŸT_, ÓÙí‡-  9
AX ð»è[÷± =- 28.6 ×  šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶ ÎòÅ¡-ô¢-éÙö˺ Ùè…, ÏêŸô¢ ö˺õ ñô¢ª-÷±õ
þ§ëÅ]ì:- ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh a : b.- Î ú£ÙÜu-õÚÛª x 5x = 5 × 36 = 180 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 4 ·Újì ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õª 20 ÷ªÙC êŸT_ê¶ ÓÙí‡-·Újì, ÓÙí‡ÚÛ 9 + 13 ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo Eù£pAh......
Íû¶ ú£ÙÜuìª ÚÛL-í‡ê¶ ÷à¶a ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh 4. ôÁêÂ, Þœé˶ùÃ, vÚ¨ùà Íû¶ ÷³Þœª_ô¢ª ÑëÁu-Þœªõ @ê¦õ Ú¥E ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õ Eù£pAh 6 :- 1 Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- Íô³ê¶ 9
= 28.6 ×  = 1.3 × 9 = 11.7 šúÙ.-Oª. 1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 3 3) 1 :- 2 4) 2 : 3
c : d.- Í-ô³ê¶ Î ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ îµ³êŸhÙ ô¢«.-72,000.- î¦ô¢ª êŸ÷ª @ê¦ö˺x ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ ÑëÁu-Þ¥õ ÚÁú£Ù ð¼æ©-í£-è…ì ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õª ÓÙêŸ÷ªÙC? 22 - 5. ÖÚÛ öËºï£°í£± NªvøŒ-÷³ö˺ ô¦T, >ÙÚÂõª 9 : 4 Eù£p-
ax(c − d) bx(c − d) 80%-, 85%-, 75%- Üô¢ªa à¶þ§hô¢ª.- î¦ô¢ª à¶ú‡ì 1) 2560 2) 2760  13 Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- ë¯Eö˺ ô¦T 24 Ú¨ö˺-vÞ¥-îªõª
, 
ad − bc ad − bc ð»ë]ªí£± þ»÷³tõ Eù£pAh 8 :- 9 : 20.- Íô³ê¶ 3) 2780 4) 2860
XB ð»è[÷± - šúÙ.-Oª.
= 28.6 × 
9 + 13 ÑÙç˶, >ÙÚ í£J-÷«éÙ ÓÙêŸ? sÚ¨.-vÞ¥õö˺z
·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- a : b = 1 : 7 ôÁê @êŸÙ ÓÙêŸ? þ§ëÅ]ì:- ÎKt ÑëÁu-Þ¥õ EóŸ«-÷ªÚÛ ví£vÚ¨-óŸªö˺ ÓÙí‡-·Újì, 13 2 1 2 1
= 28.6 ×  = 1.3 × 13 = 16.9 šúÙ.-Oª. 1) 10  2) 10  3) 9  4) 9 
ÚÛ-L-í‡ì ú£ÙÜu =- x = 5 1) ô¢«.-16000 2) ô¢«.-18000 ÓÙí‡ÚÛ Ú¥E ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õ Eù£pAh =- 5 :- 1 22- 3 3 3 3
3) ô¢«.-19000 4) ô¢«.-21000 ÓÙí‡-·Új-ì-î¦ô¢ª =- 5x Íìª-ÚÁÙè….-  
-Ú•êŸh ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh = c : d = 4 : 13 AX, XBõ ð»è[-÷±õª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥
ú£÷«-ëů-û¦õª
ax(c − d) 1(5)(4 − 13) þ§ëÅ]ì: ôÁêÂ, Þœé˶ùÃ, vÚ¨ùÃõª ඛú ð»ë]ªí£± þ»÷³t ÓÙí‡-ÚÛ-Ú¥E î¦ô¢ª =- x Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- = 11.7 šúÙ.-Oª.-, 16.9 šúÙ.-Oª.-
Î ú£ÙÜuõª 
ad − bc
= 
1(13) − 7(4) Eù£pAh =- 8 : 9 : 20 ð¼æ©-í£-è…ì îµ³êŸhÙ ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õª =- 5x + x = 6x ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 n-
12 23 n- n-
34 41 n- n-
51

GH
 ñªëÅ]î¦ô¢Ù Wû 16, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17

Who is the chairman of the NTAGI?

National
E100 ethanol dispensing stations
On the occasion of World Environment
Day observed on 5 June 2021, Prime
Minister Narendra Modi launched three
E100 ethanol dispensing stations in
Pune under a pilot project.
He reminded that the Ministry of
Petroleum and Natural Gas directed oil
marketing companies to sell 'Ethanol
Blended Petrol” with a percentage of
ethanol up to 20 percent, with effect
from April 1, 2023.
Ethanol extracted from sugarcane as
well as damaged food grains such as
wheat and broken rice and agriculture
waste is less polluting and its use also
provides farmers with an alternate
source of income.
The sugar industry will divert 6 mil-
lion tonnes of surplus sugar to produce
7 billion litres of the ethanol needed
while the remaining ethanol will be pro-
duced from excess grain.
The target for mixing 20% ethanol in
petrol has been brought forward from
2030 to 2025.
Bal Swaraj
National Commission for Protection of
Child Rights (NCPCR) devised an
online tracking portal “Bal Swaraj
(COVID-Care link)” for children in need
of care and protection.
The portal was developed as there is
a growing problem related to children
affected by COVID-19.
On 29 May 2021, the Union Ministry
of Women and Child Development was
Others
International Dublin Literary Award
On 20 May 2021, International Dublin
Literary Award was conferred on
Mexican author Valeria Luiselli for her
work ‘Lost Children Archive’.
The Award carries the cash prize of
100,000. It is awarded to a novel writ-
ten or translated into English around
the globe. The books are nominated by
libraries.
The American policy of keeping chil-
dren away from their parents at the
Mexican-American border was the ori-
General Awareness
informed by saying that the portal was
created to track and monitor children
who need care and protection in real-
time, digitally.
DG NCC Mobile Training App 2.0
On 28 May 2021, Defence Secretary
Dr Ajay Kumar launched Directorate
General National Cadet Corps (DG
NCC) Mobile Training App Version 2.0
in New Delhi.
It is aimed at providing NCC-related
basic information and entire training
material (Syllabus, Precis, Training
Videos, Frequently Asked Questions)
on one platform.
The app also assists in conducting
countrywide online training to NCC
cadets during the COVID-19 pandemic
conditions.
Using this app, the cadets will be
able to attend online training, appear in
certificate exams and prevent loss of
the academic year.
YUVA
On 29 May 2021, the Department of
Higher Education under the Ministry of
Education launched a new initiative
called ‘YUVA- Prime Minister’s Scheme
For Mentoring Young Authors’.
YUVA stands for Young, Upcoming
and Versatile Authors.
The scheme was launched to mentor
authors under the age of 30 and train
gin of this fictional novel. The book also
won the Rathbones Folio prize in 2020.
French Open
On 13th June 2021, Serbian Tennis
star Novak Djokovic won the men’s
French title by defeating Greece player
Stefanos Tsitsipas in a gripping French
Open final. This is the 19th Grand Slam
title of Djokovic defeated his opponent
Tsitsipas by 6-7 (6/8), 2-6, 6-3, 6-2, 6-4.
Earlier on 12th June 2021, Barbora
Krejcikova became the first Czech
women's singles champion since 1981
after beating Russian Anastasia
them to promote reading, writing and
book culture in the country, and project
India and Indian writings globally.
A consolidated scholarship of
Rs50,000 per month for 6 months per
author will be paid under the YUVA
Scheme. YUVA is a part of Azadi Ka
Amrit Mahotsav.
It aims to bring the perspectives of
the young generation of writers on
themes like unsung heroes, freedom
fighters, unknown and forgotten places
and their role in the National
Movement, and other related themes
innovatively and creatively.
‘SWASTIIK’
The CSIR-National Chemical
Laboratory (CSIR-NCL), Pune launched
a new technology called ‘SWASTIIK’
The ‘SWASTIIK’ technology uses
natural oils to disinfect water.
The technology boils liquid as a result
of pressure reduction or cavitation. It
makes use of natural oils with antimi-
crobial properties to disinfect water.
A statement issued by the ministry of
science and technology on 2 June 2021
said that this technology can eliminate
harmful bacteria, including antibiotic-
resistant strains, economically.
It not only integrates Indian tradition-
al knowledge of Ayurveda for complete
disinfection of water but also may offer
possible health benefits of natural oils.
Pavlyuchenkova 6-1, 2-6, 6-4 in the
French women’s final.
World No-Tobacco Day
World No Tobacco day observed on
31 May. The theme for World No
Tobacco Day 2021 is "Commit to Quit".
Under this theme, the WHO aims to
promote tobacco cessation through
supporting robust tobacco cessation
policies, improving access to cessation
services, raising awareness about the
tactics of the tobacco industry and sup-
porting people who want to quit tobac-
co via Quit and Win initiatives.
IISc Bengaluru top in research University has made its debut in the
QS World University Rankings and is
The Indian Institute of Science (IISc), placed in the 561-570 band.
Bengaluru, has been ranked the
“world’s top research university,” in the Kappa and Delta
Quacquarelli Symonds (QS) World
Rankings 2022, an annual publication The World Health Organisation (WHO)
of university rankings. named the B.1.617.1 variant of the
The QS said that according to the COVID 19 as 'Kappa' while the
Citations Per Faculty (CPF) indicator, B.1.617.2 variant was dubbed 'Delta.'
when universities are adjusted for fac- Both the variants were first found in
NK Arora ulty size (the size of the institution is India. World Health Organisation
taken into account for calculating the named various variants of the coron-
avirus using Greek alphabets to simpli-
CPF), IISc Bengaluru achieving a per-
International fect score of 100/100 for this metric. fy public discussions and also helped
The report released on 8 June 2021 to remove the stigma from the names.
Arab-India Energy Forum
rated the Massachusetts Institute of On 31 May 2021, WHO said that the
On 9 June 2021, the first edition of the Technology (MIT) as the top institution B.1.1.7 strain first detected in the UK
Arab-India Energy Forum (AIEF) was in the world in the overall ranking. will be known as “Alpha”, while the
B.1.351 variant detected in South
concluded. 177th rank holds by the Indian
Africa is now ‘Beta', P.1 variant first
Under the co-chairship of India and Institute of Technology Bombay (IITB)
found in Brazil is “Gamma” and the P.2
the Kingdom of Morocco, the event and 185th rank holds by the Indian
variant is “Zeta”. The strains found in
was witnessed in the implementation Institute of Technology Delhi (IITD).
the USA are “Epsilon” and “Iota”.
of the Executive Programme of the For the QS World University
Arab-India Cooperation Forum (AICF). Rankings, institutions and universities
For more Information see
The aim of the forum is to enhance were judged on six indicators - acade-
two-way energy cooperation and intra- mic reputation, employer reputation, today’s AP Edition
regional power trading. citations per faculty, faculty/ student
The discussions focused on the ratio, international faculty ratio and
potential for collaboration in fields of international student ratio. Writer
the energy transition, intra-regional While IIT Hyderabad, in the 591-600 Amara Veeraswamy
power trading, hydrocarbons & nuclear rank band, enjoys its first year ever in Subject Expert
power generation. the top 600, the Jawaharlal Nehru
Model Questions 2) Dr Sukhbir Singh Sandhu 1) Raj Nath Singh 2) Amit Shah
1. UNO declares which day as 3) NK Arora 4) Aruna Sundararajan 3) Nitin Jairam Gadkari
Russian Language Day? 5) M.P. Bezbaruah 4) Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank
1) 6 June 2) 18 December 4. Which nation reported the first 5) Narendra Singh Tomar
3) 23 April 4) 20 April human case of H10N3 bird flu? 7. Arun Kumar Mishra was appointed
1) USA 2) South Africa as the new chairman of......
5) 20 March
2. Who was conferred with the 'WHO 3) China 4) India 5) Sri Lanka 1) National Human Rights
Director-General Special 5. Who became the first woman flight Commission
Recognition Award' for his accom- test engineer? (She will be respon- 2) National Academy of Sciences
plishments in the area of tobacco sible for evaluating aircraft and air- 3) National Asset Reconstruction
borne systems before their induc-
control by the World Health Company Ltd
tion into the armed forces)
Organisation (WHO)? 4) National Council of Applied
1) Sanjay Gupta 2) Terry Dubrow 1) Zoya Aggarwal Economic Research
3) Dr Harsh Vardhan 2) Papagari Thanmai 5) National Commission for
4) Ron Paul 5) Nageshwar Reddy 3) Aashritha V Olety Scheduled Castes
3. Who is the chairman of the National 4) Akansha Sonaware
5) Shivani Manhas
Answers
Technical Advisory Group on
Immunisation (NTAGI)? 6. ‘International Invincible Gold Medal’ 1-1 2-3 3-3 4-3
1) Ranbir Singh conferred on 5-3 6-4 7-1

F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F
Eù£pAh n- Íìª-ð§êŸÙ
p

p
÷³Ý°uÙ-ø‹õª-
Eù£pAh þ§óŸªÙêÁ ú£â°A ô¦øŒ‰-õìª ð¼ö˹aàŸªa,
Ñí£-óµ«-TÙ-àŸ-÷àŸªa.-
a, b Íû¶ ú£ë]”øŒu ô¦øŒ‰õ ÷ªëÅ]u Eù£p-AhE a : bÞ¥
ÑëÁu-Þ¥õ ÚÁú£Ù ð¼æ©í£-è…ì ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õª ÓÙêŸ÷ªÙC?
ô¦þ§hô¢ª.-
p Eù£p-AhE Óõx-í£±pè[« ÚÛEù£’ í£ë¯ö˺x ÷uÚÛh-í£-ô¢-à¦L.- 5(−9) 5(−9)
=  =  =- 3 ë]-ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù:- 8. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh 17 :- 45.- #ìo ú£ÙÜuö˺
p a : bö˺ îµ³ë]æ¨ í£ë]Ù aE í£²ô¢y-í£ë]Ù 13 − 28 −15 ÓÙí‡-·Új-ì-î¦ô¢ª =- 5x − 20 1 1
(Antecedent) ÍE, ·ôÙèÁ í£ë]Ù bE í£ô¢-í£ë]Ù bx(c − d) 7(5)(4 − 13) 35(−9)  ÷ òŰޜ٠Nõª÷, šíë]Ì ú£ÙÜuö˺  ÷ òÅ°ÞœÙ
 =  =  ÓÙ-í‡ÚÛ Ú¥E-î¦ô¢ª =- 6x − 100 − (5x − 20) 3 5
(Consequent) ÍE ÍÙ-æ°ô¢ª.- ad − bc 1(13) − 7(4) 13 − 28 ìªÙ# 15 Bú‡-›úh ÷#aì Nõª-÷ÚÛª ú£÷«ìÙ.-
= 6x − 100 − 5x + 20
a 35(−9) Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜu-õö˺ #ìo ú£ÙÜu Nõª÷.....
p a : bE GÅìo-ô¢«-í£Ùö˺  Þ¥ ô¦þ§hô¢ª. =  = 21 = x − 80
b- −15 1 1 1 1
Ï-í£±pè[ª, (5x − 20) : (x − 80) = 6 : 1 1) 42 - 2) 56  3) 76  4) 92 
p a : b = c : d Í-ô³ê¶ a, b, c, dõª Íìª-ð§- ∴ Î ú£ÙÜuõª =- 3, 21 2 2 2 2
⇒ (5x − 20) 1 = (x − 80) 6
êŸÙö˺ ÑÙæ°ô³.- ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1 ⇒ 5x − 20 = 6x − 480 þ§ëÅ]ì: ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- 17 :- 45
p a : b = c : d Í-ô³ê¶ a × d = b × c Í-÷±ê - ªŸ ÙC.- 3. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª 3 :- 5 Eù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- ví£A Î ú£ÙÜuõª = 17x, 45x
⇒ 480 − 20 = 6x − 5x ⇒ x = 460
ú£ÙÜu ìªÙ# 9E Bú‡-›úh ÷à¶a ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh ë]-ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù,
11 : 19. Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥......-
ð¼-æ©-í£-è…ì ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õ îµ³êŸhÙ = 6x = 6 × 460
ô¢àŸô³êŸ ÷ªÙC = 2760 1 1
1) 96, 160 2) 135, 225 17x ö˺ -÷ òŰޜ٠= 45xö˺ -÷ òŰޜ٠− 15
úˆšï°àÂ. ô¦ëůÚÛ”ù£g 3) 72, 120 4) 108, 180
ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 3 5
6. A, Bõª ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª.- Aö˺ 5%, Bö˺ 4%-õ 1 1 17x
Nù£óŸª Eí£±éªõª þ§ëÅ]ì: ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª a : b E-ù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- Î
îµ³êŸhÙ Nõª÷ Aö˺ 6%, Bö˺ 8%-õ îµ³êŸhÙö˺
17x ×  = 45x ×  − 15 ⇒  = 9x − 15
3 5 3
ú£ÙÜuõ ìªÙ# xE Bú‡-›úh ÷à¶a ú£ÙÜuõ
2 17x 10x
÷«-CJ ú£÷ª-ú£uõª Eù£pAh c : d Í-ô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥
ax(d − c) bx(d − c)
 ÷ òŰޜ٠ÑÙç˶ A, Bõ Eù£pAh ÓÙêŸ?
3
9x −  = 15 ⇒  = 15
3 3
 ,  1) 2 :- 1 2) 3 :- 2 3) 4 :- 3 4) 3 :- 4 15 × 3 45 9 9
1. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª 17 : 13 Eù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³. Î
ú£ÙÜuõ îµ³êŸhÙ 120.- Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥..-
ad − bc ad − bc
·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- a : b = 3 : 5 ð¼æ© í£K¤Ûõ þ§ëÅ]ì:- Aö˺ 5% + Bö˺ 4% x =  =  =  ∴ x = 
10 10 2
9
2

1) 66, 54
3) 68, 52
2) 78, 42
4) 76, 44
B-ú‡--ú‡ì ú£ÙÜu =- x = 9
íÆ£-LêŸ ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- c : d = 11 : 19 ví£ê¶uÚÛÙ 2
=  [Aö˺ 6% + Bö˺ 8%]
3
#ìo ú£ÙÜu = 17x = 17 × 

153 1
2

þ§ëÅ]ì:- ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª a : b Eù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- Î

ú£ÙÜuõ îµ³êŸhÙ x Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ax(d − c) 3(9)(19 − 11)
ad − bc
= 
3(19) − 5(11)
÷«uëÇ]æ¨ÚÂq A×5 B×4 2 A×6 B×8
 +  =   + 
100 100 3 100 100
- [ ] =  ⇒ 76 
2 2 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ :- 3
ax bx 3(9)(8) 3(9)(8)
ÍòÅ°uú£ ví£øŒoõª
, 
a+ b a + b
=  =  = 108
57− 55 2
ôÁê @êŸÙ × (100 −- 80)% :- Þœé˶ùà @êŸÙ ×
(100 −- 85)%- : vÚ¨ùà @êŸÙ × (100 −- 75)%-
5A + 4B 2 6A + 8B
⇒  =  
100 3 100
- [ ] 1. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª 6 :- 7 Eù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- Î
·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- a : b = 17 : 13 bx(d − c) 5(9)(19 − 11) 5(9)(8) =- 8 :- 9 :- 20 ⇒ 3(5A + 4B) = 2(6A + 8B) ú£ÙÜuõ îµ³êŸhÙ 22.-1 Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª
ú£Ù-Üuõ îµ³êŸhÙ =- 120  =  = 
ad − bc 3(19) − 5(11) 57 − 55 ⇒ ôÁ-ê @êŸÙ × 20%- :- Þœé˶ùà @êŸÙ × 15%- ⇒ 15A + 12B = 12A + 16B ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥.....-
ax 17(120) 17(120) 5(9)(8) :- vÚ¨ùà @êŸÙ × 25%- = 8 :- 9 :- 20 ⇒ 15A − 12A = 16B − 12B 1) 9.2, 12.-9 2) 10.-2, 11.-9
Î ú£ÙÜuõª  =  =  = 68 =  = 180
a + b 17 + 13 30 2 ⇒ ôÁ-ê @êŸÙ × 4 :- Þœé˶ùà @êŸÙ × 3 :- vÚ¨ùà A 4 3) 10.-9, 11.-2 4) 9.-9, 12.-2
bx 13(120) 13(120) @êŸÙ × 5 = 8 :- 9 :- 20 ⇒ 3A = 4B ⇒  =  ⇒ A : B = 4 : 3 - -
Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ =- 108, 180 B 3 2.- ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh 5 :- 9.- ví£A ú£ÙÜuÚÛª 9
 =  =  = 52 ⇒ ôÁ-ê @êŸÙ :- Þœé˶ùà @êŸÙ :- vÚ¨ùà @êŸÙ
a+b 17 + 13 30 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 ÚÛL-í‡ê¶ ÷à¶a íÆ£LêŸ ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh 16 :- 27.-
∴ Î ú£ÙÜuõª
= 68, 52 öË¶ë¯ 8 9 20
=  :  : =2 : 3 : 4 7. Ú¨ÙC í£åÙö˺ AB ¸ôÝ°-ÜÙè[Ù ð»è[÷± 28.-6 Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuö˺x ·ôÙèÁ ú£ÙÜu......-
ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- 3 :- 5 4 3 5 šúÙ.-Oª.- X Íû¶ GÙë]ª÷± ¸ôÝ°-ÜÙ-è¯Eo 9 :- 13 1) 63 2) 90 3) 99 4) 108
Þœ÷ª-EÚÛ:- ÷´è[ª ú£ÙÜuõª a : b : c E-ù£p-Ahö˺ ÑÙè…, Î ú£ÙÜuõª =- 3x, 5x Í-ìª-ÚÁÙè….- ÷³-Þœª_J @ê¦õ îµ³êŸhÙ =- ô¢«.-72,000 Eù£p-Ahö˺ NòÅ¡->-ú£ªhÙC.- Íô³ê¶ AX, XB ¸ôÝ°-ÜÙ- 1 2
î¦æ¨ îµ³êŸhÙ x Í-ô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ è¯õ ð»è[-÷±õª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥....... sšúÙ.-Oª.-öö˺z 3. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh - - - - ví£A ú£ÙÜu
1  : 2 .
ax bx cx
3x − 9 11
ö˵ÚÛ\ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù,  = 
ôÁê @êŸÙ =- ô¢«.-72000 × 2 -`--23--`--4 - 2 3
, ,  5x − 9 19 A X B ìªÙ# 15ìª Bú‡-›úh ÷à¶a íÆ£LêŸ ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh
a + b + c a + b + c a + b + c 2 1 2
⇒ 19(3x − 9) = 11(5x − 9) =- ô¢«.-
72000 ×  = - - ô¢«.-16,000 1) 17.1, 11.5 2) 11.7, 16.9 1  :- 3  Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuö˺x šíë]Ì ú£ÙÜu..
2. ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª 1 : 7 Eù£p-Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- Î ú£ÙÜu- ⇒ 57x − 171 = 55x − 99 9
3) 16.9, 11.7 4) 12.7, 15.9 - 3- 3
õÚÛª 5 ÚÛL-í‡ê¶ ÷à¶a ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh 4 : 13.- ⇒ 57x − 55x = 171 − 99 ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1  1) 27 2) 36 3) 42 4) 48
Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥..-... 72 5. ÎKt ÑëÁu-Þ¥õ EóŸ«-÷ªÚÛ ví£vÚ¨-óŸªö˺ ÓÙí‡-·Újì, þ§-ëÅ]ì: AB ¸ôÝ°-ÜÙè[Ù ð»è[÷± =- 28.-6 šúÙ.-Oª.-
⇒ 2x = 72 ⇒ x =  = 36
 
AX, XB õ Eù£pAh =- 9 :- 13 4. ÖÚÛ ÎòÅ¡-ô¢éÙ 12.-5 vÞ¥÷³õ ñô¢ª÷± ÑÙC.- ë¯Eö˺
1) 3, 21 2) 4, 28 2 ÓÙí‡ÚÛ Ú¥E ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õ Eù£pAh 5 : 1.- ÑëÁu-Þ¥õ Ùè… 2.-5 vÞ¥÷³õª, NªT-Lì ö˺õª Ñû¦oô³.-
,
3) 5 35 4) 6, 42 Î ú£ÙÜuõª, 3x = 3 × 36 = 108 ÚÁú£Ù ð¼æ©-í£-è…ì ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õ ú£ÙÜu 100 êŸT_, ÓÙí‡-  9
AX ð»è[÷± =- 28.6 ×  šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶ ÎòÅ¡-ô¢-éÙö˺ Ùè…, ÏêŸô¢ ö˺õ ñô¢ª-÷±õ
þ§ëÅ]ì:- ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh a : b.- Î ú£ÙÜu-õÚÛª x 5x = 5 × 36 = 180 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 4 ·Újì ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õª 20 ÷ªÙC êŸT_ê¶ ÓÙí‡-·Újì, ÓÙí‡ÚÛ 9 + 13 ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo Eù£pAh......
Íû¶ ú£ÙÜuìª ÚÛL-í‡ê¶ ÷à¶a ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh 4. ôÁêÂ, Þœé˶ùÃ, vÚ¨ùà Íû¶ ÷³Þœª_ô¢ª ÑëÁu-Þœªõ @ê¦õ Ú¥E ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õ Eù£pAh 6 :- 1 Í÷±-꟪ÙC.- Íô³ê¶ 9
= 28.6 ×  = 1.3 × 9 = 11.7 šúÙ.-Oª. 1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 3 3) 1 :- 2 4) 2 : 3
c : d.- Í-ô³ê¶ Î ·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ îµ³êŸhÙ ô¢«.-72,000.- î¦ô¢ª êŸ÷ª @ê¦ö˺x ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ ÑëÁu-Þ¥õ ÚÁú£Ù ð¼æ©-í£-è…ì ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õª ÓÙêŸ÷ªÙC? 22 - 5. ÖÚÛ öËºï£°í£± NªvøŒ-÷³ö˺ ô¦T, >ÙÚÂõª 9 : 4 Eù£p-
ax(c − d) bx(c − d) 80%-, 85%-, 75%- Üô¢ªa à¶þ§hô¢ª.- î¦ô¢ª à¶ú‡ì 1) 2560 2) 2760  13 Ahö˺ Ñû¦oô³.- ë¯Eö˺ ô¦T 24 Ú¨ö˺-vÞ¥-îªõª
, 
ad − bc ad − bc ð»ë]ªí£± þ»÷³tõ Eù£pAh 8 :- 9 : 20.- Íô³ê¶ 3) 2780 4) 2860
XB ð»è[÷± - šúÙ.-Oª.
= 28.6 × 
9 + 13 ÑÙç˶, >ÙÚ í£J-÷«éÙ ÓÙêŸ? sÚ¨.-vÞ¥õö˺z
·ôÙè[ª ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh =- a : b = 1 : 7 ôÁê @êŸÙ ÓÙêŸ? þ§ëÅ]ì:- ÎKt ÑëÁu-Þ¥õ EóŸ«-÷ªÚÛ ví£vÚ¨-óŸªö˺ ÓÙí‡-·Újì, 13 2 1 2 1
= 28.6 ×  = 1.3 × 13 = 16.9 šúÙ.-Oª. 1) 10  2) 10  3) 9  4) 9 
ÚÛ-L-í‡ì ú£ÙÜu =- x = 5 1) ô¢«.-16000 2) ô¢«.-18000 ÓÙí‡ÚÛ Ú¥E ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õ Eù£pAh =- 5 :- 1 22- 3 3 3 3
3) ô¢«.-19000 4) ô¢«.-21000 ÓÙí‡-·Új-ì-î¦ô¢ª =- 5x Íìª-ÚÁÙè….-  
-Ú•êŸh ú£ÙÜuõ Eù£pAh = c : d = 4 : 13 AX, XBõ ð»è[-÷±õª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥
ú£÷«-ëů-û¦õª
ax(c − d) 1(5)(4 − 13) þ§ëÅ]ì: ôÁêÂ, Þœé˶ùÃ, vÚ¨ùÃõª ඛú ð»ë]ªí£± þ»÷³t ÓÙí‡-ÚÛ-Ú¥E î¦ô¢ª =- x Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- = 11.7 šúÙ.-Oª.-, 16.9 šúÙ.-Oª.-
Î ú£ÙÜuõª 
ad − bc
= 
1(13) − 7(4) Eù£pAh =- 8 : 9 : 20 ð¼æ©-í£-è…ì îµ³êŸhÙ ÍòÅ¡u-ô¢ª–õª =- 5x + x = 6x ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 n-
12 23 n- n-
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F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F

Tripathi is the 'better' novelist

Phrase Replacement
Directions (Qs. 1-13): Which of the phrases
given below each sentence should REPLACE
THE PHRASE IN BOLD to make it grammati-
cally correct? If the sentence is correct as it is
given and no correction is required, mark (e),
‘No correction required’, as the answer.
Tripathi is the best novelist. and yoga are important.
1. Although the scientists’ report claims to cover
everything, missing in it is a number of
a) Tripathi is the best novelist of all.
b) Tripathi is the best novelist of the two.
Bank Exams b) Ayurveda suggests that both healthy food
and yoga are important
important developments that have caused
c) Tripathi is better novelist. c) Ayurveda both suggests that healthy food
the pandemic.
a) missing in it was a number of d) Tripathi is the better novelist.
e) No correction required
Special and yoga is important.
d) Ayurveda suggests that both healthy food
b) missing in it were a number of
5. In spite of being very young, the knowledge and yoga is important
c) missing in it are a number of
of my talented daughter is extraordinary.
English Language e) No correction required
d) missing in it has been a number of
a) the knowledge of my talented daughter’s 12. Carrying their furniture, luggage and college
e) No correction required textbooks, the girl from the paying guest
b) the knowledges of my talented daughter a) she is more superior to me
2. In India, in just the last decade, due to a great house has gone to a friend’s place.
c) my talented daughter has knowledge that b) she is superior than me
interest in science and technology, many a) the girl from the paying guest house have
d) the knowledge of my talented daughter c) she is superior to me
new technologies in the IT field have been gone
has d) she is superior me
developed by IT professionals. b) the girls from the paying guest house have
e) No correction required. e) No correction required
a) many new technologies in the IT field has gone
6. In spite of Radha had been maintaining d) lest they must not get angry. 10. Every time people park their vehicles in
been developed c) the girls from the paying guest house has
social distancing during the pandemic, e) No correction required. front of the hotel without eating at the hotel,
b) many new technologies in the IT field have gone
she got COVID-19. 8. Although the famous non-governmental the hotel management will puncture the
developed tyres of the vehicles. d) the girl from the paying guest houses have
a) Radha has been maintaining social dis- organisation has been committed to helping
c) many new technologies in the IT field were gone
tancing during the pandemic, she poor children with comprehensive guides and a) the hotel management puncture the tyres
developed textbooks, they sometimes ignore such of the vehicles. e) No correction required
b) Radha was maintaining social distancing
d) many new technologies in the IT field during the pandemic, she studious children as our maid’s daughter. b) the hotel management will puncture the 13. The American foreign exchange students
developed a) they sometimes ignore such studious child tyre of the vehicles. complained that they were not satisfied at
c) Radha maintaining social distancing dur-
e) No correction required the level of education in our country.
ing the pandemic, she b) it sometimes ignores such studious chil- c) the hotel management has punctured the
3. The speaker is now referring to the delegates dren tyres of the vehicles. a) with b) of c) above d) below
d) maintaining social distancing during the
who I am seeing in the front row. pandemic, Radha c) they sometimes ignores such studious d) the hotel management punctures the tyres e) No correction required
a) who I see b) whom I see e) No correction required children of the vehicles.
c) who I seeing d) who is seeing 7. Eat slowly when you are dining with your d) they sometimes ignore such studious chil- e) No correction required Writer
e) No correction required superiors, lest they may not get angry. drens 11. In order to maintain excellent health,
4. After reading both Chetan Bhagat and Amish a) lest they do not get angry. e) No correction required Ayurveda both suggests that healthy K. NareshSenior Faculty
Tripathi, my opinion is that although Bhagat’s b) lest they get angry. 9. I have only one colleague, Mrs. Anita, and food and yoga are important. Sreedhar's CCE
stories are more relatable than Tripathi’s, c) lest not they should get angry. she is more superior than me. a) Ayurveda suggests both that healthy food

Key With Explanations
1-c; There is a subject-verb agreement error in
the bold part of the sentence. The subject
of the singular verb “is” in the bold part is “a
number of...decisions”, which is plural. “A
number of” means “many”. Therefore, the
verb should be converted to plural form
“are” to correct the error. The correction is
“...missing in it are a number of...”
Therefore, c is correct. The same error
occurs in a and d. Also, there is tense prob-
lem in a and b. The other parts in the sen-
tence are in the present tense, so the bold
part should maintain that consistency.
2-c; The phrase “in the last decade” indicates a
past time reference. Therefore, the tense
of the verb “develop” should be the simple
past and not ‘present perfect’ as in the bold
part, choice a has the same tense with sin-
gular verb. Choices b and d have the active
voice. We need passive voice as is indicat-
ed by “by IT professionals”. Only c has the
correct simple past tense.
3-b; The phrase “now” indicates that the tense
should be present simple or present con-
tinuous. However, the noun “see”, when it
means “perceive with the eyes”, cannot be
used in continuous tenses. Therefore, it
should be in simple present tense, as
given in a and b. Also, the noun “dele-
gates” is the object of the verb “see”.
Therefore, “who”, which is referring to “del-
egates” should be changed to “whom”.
This is so only in b.
4-d; Clearly the comparison is between two
novelists “Bhagat” and “Tripathi”.
Therefore, only a comparative degree of
comparison should be used, as has been
done in d. However, in the original and in a
and b, the superlative degree has been
used. The correction is “Tripathi is the bet-
ter novelist”. In c, the definite article “the” is
missing.
5-c; The first part of the sentence, “In spite of
being very young” is a modifying phrase,
and can refer only to “my talented daugh-
ter” in the context, and not to “the knowl-
edge”. Therefore, we need to start the bold
phrase with “the talented daughter”. This is
so only in choice c. In a, “daughter’s” is
wrong. In b, the plural “knowledges” is
wrong as knowledge is an abstract noun.
In d “has” is wrong as the verb “is” is
already present.
6-d; The prepositional phrase “in spite of” is
always followed by a noun phrase, noun or
a gerund, but the bold part has a clause.
This mistake is repeated in a and b. We
should change it to “maintaining social dis-
tancing during the pandemic, Radha…”
Here, the subject of the participle clause is
“Radha”. This is given only in d. In c, it
should be “Radha’s maintaining” in place
of “Radha maintaining”.
7-b; This is a difficult question and is likely to be
given in the Mains. The conjunction “lest”
means “that---not”, “with the intention of
preventing (something bad) or “to avoid
the risk of”. As the meaning of the word
“not” is already present in the conjunction,
we should avoid “not” with “lest”. This
makes a, c, d and e wrong. Also, if you
want to use an auxiliary verb with “lest” it
should be “should”. But this is not compul-
sory in Modern English. Only b is correct.
8-b; The subject of the sentence is “non-gov-
ernmental organisation”, which is singular.
Therefore, the plural pronoun “they” in part
the bold part and in a, c and d is wrong. It
should be “it”. Also, the verb should be
“ignores” (singular). The correction is “it
sometimes ignores...”
9-c; In Standard English, the word superior
takes “to” instead of “than”. Also, remem-
ber that it does not have a comparative
form “more superior” or superlative form
“most superior”. Therefore, the part in bold
phrase and choices a and b are wrong.
Choice d is wrong as it does not have “to”
after “superior”. Choice c “she is superior
to me” is correct.
10-d; The phrase “every time” and the tense of
the non-bold part indicate that the sen-
tence is a general fact about the hotel.
Therefore, it should be in the simple pre-
sent tense. But the bold part is in the sim-
ple future tense. We should change the
same to “simple present tense” as is done
in d.
11-b; There’s a conjunction-related error.
“Both…and” is a correlative conjunction.
This conjunction should be positioned
such that the two parts it is joining should
be grammatically balanced. What follows
“both” and what follows “and” should have
the same form. In the bold part, “both” is
followed by “suggests that + noun
phrase”, whereas “and” is followed by
only a “noun”. Therefore, we should shift
“suggests that” to the place before “both”.
The correction is “suggests that both
healthy food and yoga are...” The correc-
tion given in b is, therefore, correct. In c,
the verb “is” is singular and does not
match the plural subject “healthy food and
yoga”.
12-b; We have the plural pronouns “their” in the
first part of the sentence. This indicates
that the subject must be plural. Therefore,
“girl”, which is singular, should be
changed to “girls”. Also, the verb “has”
should be changed to “have”. These are
given only in b. In a, c and d, the same
error is repeated with minor changes.
13-a; In Standard English Usage, “satisfied” is
followed by “with” and not “at”. This is
given only in a.

GH
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F F F F F F F F F

POLITY
1. Which of the following can a court issue for
enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
a) An Award
c) An act
b) A Writ
d) An Ordinance
Ethanoic acid is commonly called..?
2. The minimum age of the member of Rajya
Sabha is? 8. Todas, small pastoral tribal community found c) Edward Jenner d) Y Subba Rao
a) 18 years
c) 30 years
b) 35 years
d) 25 years
3. The salaries and emoluments of the judges
in.....
a) Atacama desert
c) Kalahari desert
b) Blue mountains
d) Mangolia desert
SSC Exams 24. Vertebrates are classified into....
a) Five classes
c) Seven classes
b) Six classes
d) Eight classes
of the Supreme Court are charged on.....
a) Public account fund of India
b) The Contingency Fund of India
9. The average width of a continental shelf is...
a) 80 kms
c) 250 kms
b) 120 kms
d) 500 kms
Special 25. Organelles are present in....
a) Cell membrane b) Cytoplasm
c) Nucleus d) None of the above
c) The Consolidated Fund of India 10. Ozone layer is formed due to reactions of: General Awareness
d) As directed by CAG a) Oxygen and ultraviolet rays
CURRENT AFFAIRS
4. Who said “The Assembly was the Congress b) Carbon dioxide and layers of atmosphere 26. In the context of COVID 19 treatment,
and the Congress was India”? 18. Which of the following are the examples of
c) Cosmic rays and layers of atmosphere Bisexual Flowers? ECMO stands for.....
a) Naziruddin Ahmed b) Granville Austin d) Infrared rays and ultraviolet rays a) Echocardiogram Output
a) Corn b) Papaya
c) Lord Viscount Simon d) Prem Behari 11. The Mohorovicic (Moho) Discontinuity sepa- b) Electrophysiology Output
c) Cucumber d) Mustard
rates...... c) Electromagnetic Cardio Oxygen
19. Ethanoic acid is commonly called.....
Writer a) Outer core and Mantle Subodh Kumar Jaiswa d) Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygen
a) Acetic acid b) Hydric acid
T. Srichakra Phani b) Inner and Outer core 27. Who has been appointed as a new director
c) Nitric acid d) Nitrous oxide
c) Sima and Nife c) Payment made for the use of organisation of CBI?
Senior Faculty, RACE 20. Which of the following is used as a preserv-
d) Crust and Mantle d) Payment made for the use of land ative in pickles? a) Subodh Kumar Jaiswal
15. Which Committee suggested the need of an a) Citrus acid b) Vinegar b) Sunil Kumar Jaiswal
GEOGRAPHY ECONOMICS organised money market in India? c) Susheel Kumar Jaiswal
c) Ascorbic acid d) Oxalic acid
5. Which of the following groups of countries 12. UDAY scheme is associated with..... a) Chakravarthy Committee d) Suman Kumar Jaiswal
21. When deep sea fishes are brought to the
share border with Israel? a) Electricity Distribution Companies b) Vahul Committee. surface of the sea, their bodies burst. This is 28. Which country hosted the meeting of
a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Egypt b) Irrigation Scheme c) Rangarajan Committee because the blood in their bodies flows at BRICS Astronomy Working Group (BAWG),
b) Egypt, Turkey, Jordan, Cyprus c) Crop loan to farmers d) Manmohan Singh Committee very...... held in May 2021?
c) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey, Jordan d) Small scale industries a) high speed b) high pressure a) Japan b) China
GENERAL SCIENCE c) India d) Brazil
d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq, Yemen 13. Expand NEER.... c) low speed d) low pressure
6. Kuno National Park is in..... a) Nominal Effective Exchange Rupee 16. Which of the following is/ are Antibiotics? 22. The holograms found on credit-cards are an 29. Recently, which organisation launched the
a) Madhya Pradesh b) Rajasthan a) Streptomycin b) Tetracycline example of..... helpline ‘SAMVEDNA’?
b) National Effective Exchange Rate
c) Uttar Pradesh d) Gujarat c) Erythromycin d) All the above a) Volume holograms a) National Commission for Women
c) Nominal Economic Exchange Rate
7. Which type of soil is found in the coniferous 17. Which of the following is not a bacterial dis- b) Reflection holograms b) National Commission for Minorities
d) Nominal Effective Exchange Rate
forests? ease? c) Hybrid hologram d) Rainbow hologram c) National Commission for Protection of
14. Economic rent refers to....
a) Yellow b) Podsol a) Tuberculosis b) Measles 23. Who discovered vaccine for small pox? Child Rights
a) Payment made for the use of labour
c) Chernozem d) Laterite c) Cholera d) Typhoid a) Alexander Fleming b) Louis Pasteur d) None of the above
b) Payment made for the use of capital

Key With Explanations
1-b; The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and
the high courts (under Article 226) can
issue the writs of habeas corpus, man-
damus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-war-
ranto.
2-c; The minimum age for a person to become
a member of Rajya Sabha is 30 years.
3-c; The salaries payable to the Judges of the
Supreme Court shall be charged on and
paid out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4-b; Granville Austin, remarked ‘The
Constituent Assembly was a one - party
body in an essentially one party country.
The Assembly was the Congress and the
Congress was India.
5-a; Israel is bordered by Lebanon, Syria,
Jordan, Egypt, Golan heights, West Bank ,
Gaza Strip.
6-a; Cheetah, declared extinct in India in 1952
is set to be re-introduced into India in
November, 2021 at the Kuno National
Park, Madhya Pradesh
7-b; Podzol or Podsol type of soil is found in the
coniferous forests.
8-b; The Toda people are a small pastoral trib-
al community who live on the isolated
Nilgiri plateau in hill country of Southern
India.
9-a; The average width of a continental shelf is
80 kms. The shelves are almost absent or
very narrow along some of the margins like
the coasts of Chile, the west coast of
Sumatra, etc.
10-a; Ozone in the Earth's stratosphere is cre-
ated by ultraviolet light striking ordinary
oxygen molecules containing two oxygen
atoms (O2), splitting them into individual
oxygen atoms (atomic oxygen).
11-d; The Mohorovicic discontinuity, usually
referred to as the Moho, is the boundary
between the Earth’s crust and the mantle.
12-a; UDAY (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance
Yojana) was launched by the GoI. It aims
to reduce interest burden of the
DISCOMs, cost of power and their
Aggregate Transmission & Technical
losses.
13-d; The Nominal Effective Exchange Rate
(NEER) of the rupee is a weighted aver-
age of exchange rates before the curren-
cies of India’s major trading partners.
14-d; Rent refers to that part of payment by a
tenant which is made only for the use of
land.
15-a; It was the Chakravarthy Committee
(1985) which, for the first time, underlined
the need of an organised money market
in the country.
16-d; Streptomycin, tetracycline and ery-
thromycin are some of the commonly
known antibiotics which are made from
fungi and bacteria.
17-b; Measles is a viral disease. All other are
bacterial disease.
18-d; Corn, papaya and cucumber produce uni-
sexual flowers, whereas mustard, rose
and petunia have bisexual flowers.
19-a; Ethanoic acid is commonly called acetic
acid and belongs to a group of acids
called carboxylic acids.
20-b; 5-8% solution of acetic acid in water is
called vinegar and is used widely as a
preservative in pickles.
21-a; When deep sea fishes are brought to the
surface of the sea, their bodies burst, this
is because the blood in their bodies flows
at very high speed.
22-d; Rainbow Hologram begins with a stan-
dard transmission hologram. These types
of holograms are found on credit cards.
They are designed to be viewed under
white light illumination.
23-c; Edward Jenner discovered the vaccine
for small- pox in 1798.
24-b; Vertebrates are grouped into six classes:
Cyclostomata, Pisces, Amphibia,
Reptilia, Aves, Mammalia.
25-b; Cytoplasm is the jelly-like substance
present between the cell membrane and
the nucleus. Various other components,
or organelles, of cells are present in the
cytoplasm.
26-d; In critical cases of Covid19, doctors
choose to apply ECMO or Extracorporeal
membrane oxygen for critically ill
patients.
27-a; The Central Government has appointed
‘Subodh Kumar Jaiswal’ as a new
Director of the Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI).
28-c; India hosted the seventh meeting of
BRICS Astronomy Working Group
(BAWG) on online mode.
29-c; National Commission for Protection of
Child Rights has been providing
Tele-Counselling to children affected dur-
ing COVID 19 Pandemic through
SAMVEDNA -Toll-Free Helpline.

GH
17
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F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F

Line Graphs
Line graphs are best when you want to
show how the value of something changes
over time or compare how several things
change over time relative to each other.
Find difference of the marks..
Line graphs are common and effective
charts because they are simple, easy to
understand, and efficient.
Line graphs are good for
Bank Exams
Bank Exams * Comparing lots of data all at once
* Showing changes and trends over time
Writer
Maths English Science
Special
Special * Including important context and annotation
Dr. G.S. Giridhar * Displaying forecast data and uncertainty
A B Column 1
Director, RACE Quantitative Aptitude * Highlighting anomalies within and across
6. If a student C has scored 96 marks in data series
Science, then by what percent C has scored
Model Questions more than B in Science? 1) 5000 2) 7000
1) 20% 2) 18% 3) 45% 3) 2500 4) 1000
17. What is the difference between the produc-
Directions (Qs. 1 - 5): Study the following graph 4) 25% 5) None of these
tion of 'B' in 2013 and the production of 'C' 5) None of these
carefully to answer the questions that follow 7. What is the average of the marks scored by
in 2016? 19. The total production of company 'C' in 2013
Number of toys manufactured and sold by vari- A and B in English?
1) 500 2) 15 3) 5000 & 2016 is approximately what percent of the
ous companies over the years 1) 27 2) 36 3) 50
4) 50000 5) None of these total production of company 'A' in 2011 &
(Numbers in Lakhs) 4) 54 5) None of these
18. What is the difference between the average 2012?
8. If the maximum marks in each of the subjects 1) 151.70% 2) 131.25% 3) 185%
1) 6300 tons 2) 57000 tons productions of company B and company C
Maths, English and Science is 100, then the 4) 72.81% 5) 55%
3) 5300 tons 4) 61000 tons over the years.
aggregate percentage marks obtained by B
in the given three subjects? 5) None of these
1) 60.1% 2) 66.6% 3) 75.5% 13. In which of the following years was it likely
Key With Explanations C Marks in Geography & History
4) 62.5% 5) None of these that the quantity of rubber imported to = 45 + 105 = 150
1-2; Required Ratio = (30 + 35) : (15 + 30)
9. In the exam, A scored 44 marks in History bridge the gap between demand and supply ∴ Required Difference = 150 − 80 = 70
⇒ 65 : 45 = 13 : 9
and 36 marks in Geography. In the same two was minimum? 10-1; A total marks in Maths & English
Manufactured Sold 40
subjects, if C has scored 25% more marks 1) 2017 2) 2014 3) 2016 2-4; Required Percent =  × 100 = 160% = 72 + 24 = 96
1. What is the respective ratio of the number of 25
than the marks scored by B in Maths and 4) 2018 5) 3 & 4 B Marks in Maths & Science
toys manufactured by companies A and D 3-2; Average number of manufactured
English respectively, then find the difference 14. What is the respective ratio between the = 36 + 80 = 116
together to the number of toys sold by com- 30 + 25 + 25 + 35 + 40 155
of the marks scored by C and A in History production of rubber in 2015 and production
panies C and E together? =  =  ∴ Required ratio = 96 : 116 = 24 : 29
and Geography. in 2017? 5 5
1) 7 : 3 2) 13 : 9 3) 11 : 7 40
1) 60 2) 24 3) 50 1) 5 : 7 2) 6 : 11 3) 6 : 7 Average number of sold 11-2; Required% =  × 100 = 61.53%
4) 9 : 5 5) None of these 65
4) 70 5) None of these 4) 9 : 10 5) None of these 20 + 20 + 15 + 25 + 30 110
2. The number of toys manufactured by compa- =  =  70 + 50 + 65 + 55 + 75
10. Find the ratio of the marks scored by A in 15. The requirement of rubber in 2016 is how 5 5 12-5; Average = 
ny E is what percent of the number of toys 5
Maths and English together and the marks much percent more than the requirement 155 110 45
manufactured by company B? ∴ Difference =  −  =  = 9 lakhs 315000
scored by B in Maths and Science together. from the previous year?
1) 125% 2) 112.5% 3) 85% 5 5 5 =  = 63000 tons
1) 24 : 29 2) 12 : 15 3) 45 : 58 1) 30% 2) 66% 3) 50% 5
4) 160% 5) None of these 35 − 25
4) 30 : 29 5) None of these 4) 15% 5) 23% 4-2; Increment percent =  × 100 13-5; In 2014, 70000 − 35000 = 35000 tons
3. What is the difference between the average 25
Directions (Qs. 11 - 15): Study the following Directions (Qs.16 - 19): Study the following in 2016, 65000 − 40000 = 25000 tons
number of toys manufactured by all the com- 10
graph carefully and answer the questions graph carefully and answer the questions =  × 100 = 40% in 2018, 75000 − 50000 = 25000 tons
panies together and the average number of 25
accordingly. accordingly.
toys sold by all the companies together? 30 Minimum in 2016 & 2018
Following graph shows the requirement and Following graph shows the production of 5-1; Required percent =  × 100 ≈ 27%
1) 9000 2) 900000 3) 900 14-3; Required ratio = 60 : 70 = 6 : 7
production (in thousand tons) of rubber over the Mobiles by 3 different companies A, B, and C 110
4) 1800000 5) None of these
years. over the years (Production is in thousands) 96 − 80 65 − 50 15
4. The number of toys manufactured by compa- 6-1; Required percent =  × 100 15-1;  × 100 =  × 100 = 30%
80 80 50 50
ny D is how much percent more than the
number of toys manufactured by company B? 70 16 50 − 30
=  × 100 = 20% 16-2; Increment Percent =  × 100
1) 28.5% 2) 40% 3) 65% 60 80 30
4) 140% 5) None of these 50 A 84 + 24 108 20
7-4; Average Marks =  =  = 54 =  × 100 ≈ 67%
5. The number of toys sold by company E is 40
B 2 2 30
C
approximately what percent of the number of 8-2; Required Percent Marks 17-3; Required difference = 45000 − 40000
2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 30
toys sold by all the companies together? 36 + 84 + 80 = 5000
Requirement Production Column 1 20 =  × 100
1) 27%
4) 25%
2) 18%
5) 32%
3) 14%
11. In 2016, the production of rubber was what 10
200
300
200
⇒  × 100 =  = 66.6%
[310
6
325
6
]
15
18-3;  −  =  = 2.5 thousand
6
Directions (Qs. 6 - 10): Study the following line percent of the requirement (rounded off to 0
2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 300 3 = 2500
graph and answer the following questions: two digits after decimal)?
9-4; A total marks in History & Geography (65 + 40)
In the line graph, marks obtained by two stu- 1) 56.49% 2) 61.53% 3) 131.41% 16. What is the percentage increase in produc- 19-2;  × 100
= 44 + 36 = 80 (50 + 30)
dents A and B in three subjects Maths, English 4) 76.47% 5) None of these tion of company ‘A’ from 2012 to 2013?
1) 120% 2) 67% 3) 45% C Marks in History = 125% of 36 = 45 105
and Science is given. 12. What is the average requirement over the ⇒  × 100 = 131.25%
years? 4) 137.5% 5) 55% C Marks in Geography = 125% of 84 = 105 80
(SBI CLERKS - 2020)

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FFFF FFFF FFFF FFFF

LINEAR SEATING ARRANGEMENTS

Directions (Q.1 - 4): Study the following infor-
mation and answer the questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
sitting on a row facing towards North. There are
three married couples in the group. Any person
Who is second to right of L?
does not sit with her spouse. D and E both mar-
7. Who among the following sits at the extreme a) T and V b) N and S 21. Which of the following is true with respect to
ried but not to each other are sitting 3 places
ends of the row? c) V and U d) S and T the given information?
away from each other. H is single and she is sit-
ting at a maximum possible distance from F. a) A and his wife b) E and his uncle e) None of these a) A faces north
A is not married to D. There are exactly four c) C and his daughter d) H and his wife 17. Who is sitting at fifth to the left of U? b) B sits third to the right of E.
people sitting between H and B. C who is mar- e) None of these a) Q b) S c) T d) R e) None of these c) B sits exactly between A and F.
ried to B is an immediate neighbour of A. F is 8. What is the position of H with respect to C? 18. Who is second to right of L? d) G sits at one of the extreme ends of the
unmarried and he is not sitting on the right of a) Third to the left b) Fourth to the right a) S b) P c) U line.
any of the member. c) Fifth to the left d) Sixth to the right d) V e) None of these e) A sits second to the left of B.
1. What is the position of C with respected to D? e) None of these 19. Which of the following statement/s is/are 22. How many persons in the given arrange-
a) Third to the left b) Second to the right 9. How is E related to C? true? ment are facing North?
c) Third to the right d) Second to the left a) Grandson b) Son c) Son-in-law a) W and N are sitting at two ends. a) Four b) Two c) Three
e) Fourth to the right d) Granddaughter e) None of these b) There are six girl students sitting between d) One e) More than four
2. How many persons are sitting between B N and Q. 23. Four of the following five are alike in a cer-
Explanation:
and G? c) U is second to the right of O tain way and so form a group. Which of the
a) Two b) One c) Four A H D F B G C E following does not belong to the group?
d) M is sitting at fourth place to the right of
d) Three e) None of these (+) (+) (−) (−) (−) (−) (+) (+) T. a) A, E b) D, C c) G, F
3. Who is sitting to the immediate left of E? e) More than one statement is true. d) E, B e) B, A
a) B b) G c) A
d) C e) D
Family Tree
Bank Exams Explanation: W
M
Explanation:
E B A D
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
C(+) Û G(−) V G F H C
way and so from a group which is the one
that does not belong to that group? Special S Ans: 20-b 21-e 22-a 23-b
a) CB b) GC c) BF D(−) Û H(+) A(+) Û B(−) Q
Directions (Q.24 - 28): Study the following
d) DA e) HE Reasoning T information carefully and answer the question
E(+) F( −) given below:
Explanation: L
Ans: 5-d 6-b 7-b 8-c 9-a 13. Which of the following pairs is the neighbour A, B, C, D, E, F and H are sitting in a straight
of N? O
line but not necessarily in the same order. Two
Directions (Q.10 - 14): Read the following a) D, L b) C, T c) T, L P
of them are facing south. C sits second to the
F D B A C E G H information carefully and answer the questions d) C, D e) None of these U right of E. A sits second to the left of F, who sits
given below 14. Which of the following pairs is at the N third to the left of H. H is facing south. B sits
Married couples K, P, T, C, N, D, L and J are standing in a row extreme ends of the row? R third to the right of C, who is third from left. E
D Û G E Û A C Û B facing north, but not necessarily in the same a) J, P b) K, P c) K, J and B face opposite directions.
order. Only N is between C and D whereas only Ans: 15-b 16-d 17-a 18-b 19-c
Ans: 1-c 2-d 3-d 4-d d) Can’t be determined e) None of these 24. Who among the following sits between F
L is between D and J. T and K are P’s neigh- Directions (20 - 23): Study the following infor- and B?
Directions (Q.5 - 9): Study the following bours. Neither T nor C is at the extreme end of Explanation: mation to answer the given questions. a) D b) E c) H
information carefully and answer the ques- the row. J is to the right of T but not necessari-
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a d) C e) None of these
tions given below. ly on the immediate right.
K P T C N D L J straight line equidistant from each other (but not 25. Who among the following sits third to the
Eight family members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H 10. Who among the following are neighbours? necessarily in the same order). Some of them
Ans: 10-b 11-c 12-a 13-d 14-c right of F?
are sitting in a row facing north, but not neces- a) T, K b) T, C c) N, L are facing south while some are facing north.
a) E b) C c) D
sarily in the same order. Four of them are d) K, J e) L, T Directions (Q.15 - 19): Study the following (Note: Facing the same direction means, if one
males. There are three couples in the family. d) A e) None of these
11. Which of the following is true? information carefully and answer the questions is facing north then the other is also facing north
E is a male and sits second to the right of G, given below. and vice versa. Facing the opposite directions 26. Which of the following pairs sits on the
a) N is on the immediate right of D
who is wife of C. D sits second to the left of B, means if one is facing north then the other is extreme ends of the row?
b) K is not at either of the extreme ends. Twelve girl students L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T,
who is female. D is wife of H and sits adjacent U, V and W are sitting in a row facing east. Q is facing south and vice versa.) H faces north. C a) F, D b) A, E c) H, B
c) P is between K and T
to her husband. F is daughter of H and is not third to the right of M and T is sitting near L. Six sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. A sits d) D, H e) None of these
d) T is at one of the extreme ends.
between G and E. B is on the immediate left of girl students are sitting between W and O. R is third to the left of C. D is not an immediate 27. Four of the following five are alike in a cer-
e) None of these
G and second to the left of her father – in – law. fourth to the right of O and S is fifth to the left of neighbour of C. G sits third to the right of A. B tain way and so form a group. Which is the
A is brother of H, who is on the immediate right 12. Which of the following defines the position sits on the immediate right of G. B does not sit one that does not belong to the group?
P, who is eight to the right of W. L is sitting on
of A. E and F are siblings. of D?
sixth place from the right end. U is not near to R at any of the extreme ends of the line. Only one a) A, D b) B, D c) F, D
5. How many female members are there a) D is second to the left of J person sits between F and D. G sits second to
and S. V is sitting on the fourth place to the left d) C, D e) H, E
between C and H? b) D is second to the right of L of L. the left of F. E sits second to the right of B. Both 28. Who among the following sits second to the
a) One b) Two c) Three c) D is at one of the extreme ends. 15. Who is the two girl students sitting at the the immediate neighbours of G face the same left of E?
d) Four e) None of these d) D is the neighbour of C e) None of these two ends? direction. Both the immediate neighbours of A
a) D b) C c) A d) B e) None of these
6. Who among the following sits second to the a) W and N b) W and R face the opposite directions. E faces the same
directions as B. Explanation:
left of G? Writer c) V and O d) O and Q
a) Son b) Granddaughter 20. Who amongst the following sits second to
e) None of these H E
A. Anjaneyulu the right of F?
c) Daughter d) Daughter-in-law 16. Find out the names of two girl students sit- A C F B D
Senior Faculty, RACE a) A b) D c) C d) G e) H
e) None of these ting near to Q? Ans: 24-b 25-c 26-d 27-e 28-a
GH
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Word Swapping
Directions (Qs. 1 - 7): In each of the questions
given below, four words are given in bold and
labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). These four words
may or may not be in their correct positions.
The sentence is then followed by options with
the correct combination of words that should
replace each other in order to make the sen-
tence grammatically and contextually correct.
Find the correct combination of words that
replace each other. If the sentence is correct as
it is, select option ‘e’ (No rearrangement
required) as your answer.
1. In the weird (A) battle, the ferocious (B) for-
est gypsies somehow fought with hidden (C)
objects, which they used to distract the
enemy and kill them with wooden (D) knives.
a) A - B; C - D b) A - D; B - C c) C - D
d) A - B e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: The part “kill them with” suggests
that the knives must have been real. Similarly,
the part “which they used to distract the enemy”
suggests that the objects must be wooden. So,
C and D need to interchange places. While a
battle can be both weird and ferocious, the con-
text suggests that the forest gypsies must be
weird as they used ‘wooden objects’. So, A and
B need to interchange places. The correct sen-
tence would read “In the ferocious battle, the
forest gypsies somehow fought with wooden
objects, which they used to distract the enemy
and kill them with hidden knives.” Ans: a
2. The scientist decided to object (A) the
debate by informing the students that the
conclude (B) of the juices (C) was to crush
leaves and liberate their process (D).
a) C - D b) B - C c) A - B; C - D
d) A - D e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: Juices is more apt in place of D
as “liberating the juices” after crushing the
Find the correct combination of words..
leaves is possible. Moreover, “liberate the part “It was speedy” is nonsensical. A ‘speedy’
process” is not sensible. So, C and D need to
interchange places. Similarly, while “object” of
Bank Exams rectification makes sense. So, B and C need to
interchange places. The correct sentence
debate is possible, “conclude” of the process is would read “The idea was vague, but the tech-
inapt. So, A and B need to interchange places.
The correct sentence would read “The scientist Special nicians went ahead with the because it was
critical for a speedy rectification of the embar-
decided to conclude the debate by informing rassing error made by their boss.”
the students that the object of the process was English Language Ans: b
to crush leaves and liberate their juices.” 7. During the COVID-19 pandemic, people suf-
Ans: c a) B - C b) A - D; B - C c) A - C; B - D fering from a attention (A) of mental depres-
d) A - D e) No rearrangement required
3. In his personal (A) life, the CEO was very sion (B), including illnesses (C), could not be
generous (B), which is why his staff hated Explanation: The word “completely impartial” given any medical spectrum (D).
him, but, in his business (C) life, he was very is the meaning of “subjective”. So, B and C a) C - D b) B - C c) A - C; B - D
frugal (D). need to interchange places. “Imagines poor d) A - D; B - C e) No rearrangement required
a) A - B; C - D b) A - D; B - C people’s prayers” is not as sensible as “ignores
Explanation: The part “including” suggests that
c) A - C; B - D d) B - D poor people’s prayers”. So, A and D need to
we are talking about a “range of illnesses”.
e) No rearrangement required interchange places. The correct sentence
Therefore, “spectrum” should replace “atten-
Explanation: The part “which is why his staff would read “He imagines that god must be
tion”. Medical attention makes sense too. So, A
hated him” suggests that the first part is about objective that is, completely impartial, but looks
Explanation: If god can kill him, it means that and D need to interchange places. “Of mental
“business life”. So, A and C need to interchange like our god is rather subjective, because he
the devil is not immortal, but a mortal. So, C and illnesses, including depression” makes more
places. Again, the part “which is why his staff repeatedly ignores poor people’s prayers.”
D need to interchange places. Also, “According sense than “of mental depression, including ill-
hated him” suggests the boss must not be “gen- Ans: b
to souls” is not as sensible as “According to nesses”. So, B and C need to interchange
erous”, which is a positive word. Therefore, B 6. The idea was embarrassing (A), but the
scriptures”. So, A and B need to interchange places. The correct sentence would read
and D need to interchange places. The correct technicians went ahead with that because it
places. The correct sentence would read “During the COVID-19 pandemic, people suffer-
sentence would read “In his business life, the was speedy (B) for a critical (C) rectification
“According to their scriptures, the devil, who ing from a spectrum of mental illnesses, includ-
CEO was very frugal, which is why his staff of the vague (D) error made by their boss.
can steal their souls, thinks that he is immortal, ing depression, could not be given any medical
hated him, but, in his personal life, he was very a) A - B; C - D b) A - D; B - C c) B - D
but, their god can kill him as if he were a attention.” Ans: d
generous.” Ans: c d) A - D e) No rearrangement required
mortal.” Ans: a
4. According to their souls (A), the devil, who Explanation: The part “The idea was embar-
5. He ignores (A) that god must be subjective
can steal their scriptures (B), thinks that he rassing” seems to be correct, but “vague error” Writer
is mortal (C), but, their god can kill him as if (B) that is, completely impartial, but looks is not apt. If it is vague, why would they try to
he were a immortal (D). like our god is rather objective (C), because rectify it. So, A and D need to interchange K. Naresh, Senior Faculty
a) A - B; C - D b) B - C c) C - D he repeatedly imagines (D) poor people’s places. A ‘vague’ also makes sense in the con- Sreedhar's CCE
d) A - B e) No rearrangement required prayers. text of “but the technicians went ahead”. The

Word Rearrangment
Directions (Qs. 1 - 6): In each of the following
questions, a sentence is given with three words
printed in bold and marked as (A), (B) and (C).
These words may or may not be placed at their
correct places. Four options with different
arrangements of these words have been pro-
vided. Mark the option with the correct arrange-
ment as the answer. If no rearrangement is
required, mark option ‘e’ (No rearrangement
required) as your answer.
1. Sachin is a simple (A) person, just like
Kalam, who was very modest (B) but always
said that he was a great (C) man.
a) CBA b) CAB c) BCA
d) ACB e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: The part “very modest (B) but
always said that he was a great (C) man” is
illogical as a modest person cannot call himself
great. The context suggests that we are talking
about Sachin being “modest”, just like Kalam. A
modest person can call himself simple. So, ‘A’
should come last. If that is the case, Kalam was
actually great but considered himself modest.
So, ‘C’ comes in second place. As Sachin is
similar to Kalam, modest should describe him.
So, ‘B’ comes first. The correct rearrangement
is BCA. The correct sentence would read
“Sachin is a modest person, just like Kalam,
who was very great but always said that he was
a simple man.” Ans: c
2. Our boring (A) childhood memories from
school are awesome, but they also include
hard (B) grammar classes and precious (C)
mathematics problems.
a) ACB b) BAC c) BCA
d) CAB e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: The word “awesome”, a positive
word, suggests that the childhood memories
are “precious”, another positive word. As “bor-
ing” and “hard” are negative words, they cannot
come before childhood. Therefore, C has to
come first. This is so only in option D. Also,
“hard” and “boring” can come in any order
because grammar and maths can be boring
and hard respectively for some or vice versa for
others. The correct rearrangement is CAB. The
correct sentence would read “Our precious
childhood memories from school are awesome,
but they also include boring grammar classes
and hard mathematics problems.”
Ans: d
3. The teachers imitate (A) that the child is nor-
mal and has the capacity to assume (B) from
them and learn (C) their good behaviour.
a) CBA b) ACB c) BAC
d) BCA e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: The phrase “from them” suggests
that “learn” should come before it. Therefore, C
comes in the second place. Children are
expected to imitate their teachers’ good behav-
iour. Therefore, A comes in the third place.
Obviously, B comes first. The correct
rearrangement is BCA. The correct sentence
would read “The teachers assume that the child
is normal and has the capacity to learn from
them and imitate their good behaviour.”
Ans: d
4. One devoid (A) fact is that many sea crea-
tures are breathe (B) of both gills and lungs,
and startling (C) through their skin.
a) CBA b) ACB c) BAC
d) CAB e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: “Breathe of” is incorrect. “Breathe
through” is correct. Therefore, B should come
last. The fact that these creatures breathe
through their skin is “startling” (surprising). SO,
C comes first. Obviously, A comes second.
“Devoid of” means “without”. The correct
rearrangement is CAB. The correct sentence
would read “One startling fact is that many sea
creatures are devoid of both gills and lungs, and
breathe through their skin.”
Ans: d
5. This animal dormant (A) only on feeds (B)
available in summer, and is completely fruits
(C) in winter.
a) CAB b) ACB c) BCA
d) CBA e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: The last part “is completely fruits
in winter”, is absurd. It makes sense with “dor-
mant” (is completely dormant in winter). A
comes last. C comes second and B comes first.
The correct rearrangement is BCA. The correct
sentence would read “This animal feeds only on
fruits available in summer, and is completely
dormant in winter.”
Ans: c
6. The company is regularly (A) reliant on
those employees who solely (B) commute
long distances (C) to work and not on those
who stay in the nearby staff quarters.
a) CBA b) CAB c) BAC
d) ACB e) No rearrangement required
Explanation: “Solely commute” is not correct in
that context. (It means “commute alone”).
“Regularly commute” is better. Also, “Solely
reliant” is more sensible in the context if we con-
sider “and not on those who stay in the nearby
staff quarters”. Therefore, B and A need to
interchange places. C is in correct place. The
correct rearrangement is BAC. The correct sen-
tence would read “The company is solely reliant
on those employees who regularly commute
long distances to work and not on those who
stay in the nearby staff quarters.”
Ans: c

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F F F
Indian Banking System
Indian banking system is classified into two
categories:
1. Unorganised Banking system.
Ex: Money lenders etc
2. Organised Banking system
The organised banking system is classified into
three categories:
I. Reserve bank of India which is the mone-
tary authority or the apex bank
II. Commercial banks
III. Cooperative banks
Writer
T. Srichakra Phani
Senior Faculty, RACE
Reserve Bank of India
q RBI was set up on April 1, 1935 under the
Reserve Bank of India Act,1934. It was nation-
alised on January 1, 1949 under RBI (Transfer
of Public Ownership) Act, 1948 and thereafter
it is fully owned by government of India.
q RBI is the regulator of entire Banking in India.
It regulates commercial banks and non-bank-
ing finance companies working in India.
q It regulates money supply and credit in the
country.
q The RBI carries out India's monetary policy
and exercises supervision and control over
banks and non- banking finance
companies in India. RBI Logo
q The Central Office of the RBI was
The original
established in Calcutta (now
choice for the
Kolkata) but was moved to seal of RBI was
Bombay (now Mumbai) in the East India
1937.
Company Double
q RBI has 4 regional represen- Mohur, with the sketch of the Lion t As per Indian Coinage Act
tations: North in New Delhi,
and Palm Tree. However, it was
South in Chennai, East in
decided to replace the lion
Kolkata and West in Mumbai.
with the tiger, the nation-
q It has 2 training colleges for its al animal of India.
officers, viz. Reserve Bank Staff
College, Chennai and College of
Monetary Policy
It is a policy related to money supply in the
economy. In India, RBI manages money supply
through Quantitative and Qualitative instru-
ments.
Quantitative instruments
a. Bank Rate: It refers to the official interest at
which the RBI provides loans to the banking
system. Bank rate is also used as a signal by
the RBI to communicate interest rate levels
to commercial banks.
Significance: Bank rate reflects the policy of
RBI. When RBI increases bank rate, the cost of
borrowing rises. Consequently, demand for
credit also reduces, leading to reduction in
money supply. Thus increase in bank rate
reflects tightening of monetary policy by RBI.
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Hilton Young was the chairman of..?
Hilton Young
Agricultural Banking, Pune.
Printing and Minting of currency:
t Security Printing and Minting Corporation of
India Limited (SPMCIL), a wholly owned
company of the government of India, has
printing presses at Nashik, Maharashtra and
Dewas, Madhya Pradesh.
t Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran
Private Limited (BRBNMPL), owned by the
RBI, has printing facilities in Mysore
(Karnataka) and Salboni (West
Bengal).
t For the minting of coins, SPM-
CIL has four mints at Mumbai,
Noida, Kolkata and
Hyderabad for coin produc-
tion.
1906, Coins can be issued
upto the denomination of
Rs.1000.
t RBI has sole right to issue cur-
rency notes of various denomina-
tions except one rupee notes. The One
b. Repo Rate: It is rate at which RBI lends to its
clients generally against government securi-
ties. Under repo, RBI lends money to com-
mercial banks and commercial banks give
government bonds to RBI with an agreement
to purchase them back.
Significance: Commercial banks borrow money
from RBI by the means of repo. Thus, repo is
used to inject liquidity (money supply) in the sys-
tem. If RBI wants to reduce money supply, it
increases the repo rate. If RBI wants to increase
money supply, it decreases the repo rate.
c. Reverse Repo Rate: Under the Reverse
Repo or Reverse Repurchase Agreement,
commercial banks park their excess funds at
fixed rate with RBI and RBI gives govern-
ment bonds to commercial banks with an
agreement to purchase them back. It is the
n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17
n
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5-2
2-1
6-3
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7-4
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F F F F F F
Evolution of banking in India v RBI provides the facility of clearing house for
followed by Punjab National Bank Ltd. set up
in 1895 with headquarters at Lahore. settling banking transactions.
l 'Kautilya’s Arthashastra', which contains ref- v It uses various measures such as qualitative
l The 3 presidency banks- Bank of Bengal,
erences to creditors and lenders. and quantitative techniques to regulate credit
Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were
l Banking in India started in 1770 with the integrated to a single large bank known as in the economy.
establishment of Bank of Hindustan. Imperial Bank of India in 1921. v Lender of last resort is an exclusive function
l Commercial Banking in India can be traced l In 1925, Royal Commission on Indian of RBI, where it lends money to support a
back to the early 18th century with the estab- financial institution like a bank when the latter
Currency and Finance was established
lishment of 3 presidency banks- Bank of under the chairmanship of Hilton Young. This is facing severe liquidity problems.
Calcutta, Bank of Madras and Bank of commission recommended the operation of v Opening a Bank or NBFC requires a license
Bombay. money management in 1926. Based on the from RBI.
l In the year 1806, Bank of Calcutta was recommendations of this commission, RBI
founded. It was later renamed to Bank of Act was passed in 1934.
Model Questions
Bengal. In the later years, Bank of Bombay l In the year 1935 India’s central bank, 1. The bank of Calcutta was founded in ....
(1840) and Bank of Madras (1843) were Reserve Bank of India was established a) 1805 b) 1806
setup. under the Reserve Bank of India act. c) 1807 d) 1808
l The first bank which was exclusively set up l Imperial Bank of India was transformed into 2. In the year 1955, The Imperial Bank of
by Indians was Allahabad Bank (1865), State Bank of India in July 1955. India was transformed into......
a) Canara Bank b) Allahabad Bank
Rupee note is issued by Ministry of Finance and
it bears the signatures of Finance Secretary,
while other notes bear the signature of
Governor RBI.
SBI c) State Bank of India d) Presidency Bank
3. Headquarters of RBI is located at.....
a) Calcutta b) Mumbai
Functions of RBI: Junior Associates c) Chennai d) Hyderabad
v RBI has the sole authority to issue currency 4. The RBI logo/ seal contains which of the
notes in India. FINANCIAL AWARENESS following animal?
a) Tiger b) Lion c) Cheetah d) Jaguar
v One rupee note and the coins of all denomi-
nations are minted and issued by government 5. In India, which of the following institution/
and hence it acts as the guardian of commer-
of India, but they are circulated through RBI. cial banks in India. Ministry is the custodian of country’s for-
v The currency notes issued by RBI is a legal eign currency reserves?
v Reserve Bank of India acts as the lender of
tender throughout the territory of India without a) RBI b) SEBI
last resort and banks can approach RBI when
any limitations. they need funds. c) Ministry of Finance
v It gives financial advice to the government v RBI is the custodian of cash reserves of com- d) Ministry of Commerce
and maintains government accounts. mercial banks. 6. If RBI increases cash reserve ratio, then
v It has a responsibility to manage public debt v RBI has the responsibility to maintain the available amount with banks.....
and maintain the foreign exchange reserves. exchange rate stability and for this, it has to a) Increases b) Decreases
v It provides overdraft facilities to Central and bring demand and supply of foreign currency c) Remains unchanged
State government. (usually US Dollar) to similar levels. d) None of the above
v It has obligatory powers to regulate, guide, v RBI is the custodian of country’s foreign cur- 7. When RBI increases bank rate, the cost of
help and direct other banks of the country, rency reserves. borrowing......
a) Increases b) Decreases
rate at which banks lend funds to RBI. RBI increases CRR then the available
c) Remains unchanged
d) None of the above
Significance: Reverse repo is used to suck liq- amount with the banks decreases or comes
8. In 1895, Punjab National Bank Ltd. was set
uidity (money supply) from the system. If RBI down.
up with it’s headquarters at.......
wants to reduce money supply, it increases the Significance: It makes it readily available when
a) Bombay b) Lahore
reverse repo rate. If RBI wants to increase customers want their deposits back. CRR helps
c) Karachi d) Calcutta
money supply, it reduces the reverse repo rate. in keeping inflation under control.
9. Who was the Chairman of “Royal
d. Open market operations: Open market f. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): SLR is the Commission on Indian Currency and
operations is the sale and purchase of gov- percentage of NDTL (Net Deposit and Time Finance”?
ernment securities and treasury bills by RBI Liability) that commercial bank have to keep a) Fredman b) Hunter
or the central bank of the country. with themselves. It can have cash, G-secs c) Hilton Young d) Litton
Significance: When the RBI wants to increase and gold. Range of SLR prescribed by RBI is 10. Reserve bank of India’s college of agricul-
the money supply in the economy, it purchases from 0% to 40%. tural banking is in.......
the government securities from the market and Significance: SLR can be seen as a mechanism a) Mumbai b) Pune
it sells government securities to suck out liquid- used by Scheduled Commercial Banks to pro- c) Bhopal d) Calcutta
ity from the system. vide credit to government through purchase of
e. Cash Reserve Ratio: It is referred to as the government securities. To reduce inflation, RBI Key
amount of funds which the banks have to increases SLR. To increase economic growth, 1-b 2-c 3-b 4-a 5-a
keep with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). If RBI decreases SLR. 6-b 7-a 8-b 9-c 10-b
GH
17 3) $900 Billion

‘Honours Your Trust’ 4) $750 Billion 5) $1000 Billion

29. India maintained which rank in the
annual World Competitiveness
Index compiled by the Institute for
Management Development (IMD)

is the punch line of...

that examined the impact of
COVID-19 on economies around
the world this year?
1) 114 2) 47 3) 28
ñªëÅ]î¦ô¢Ù Wû 23, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 4) 43 5) 101
30. Despite India evolving digitally,
Model Questions 7. Which bank has been named by 22. The residential project – ‘Rivali India got which rank in the

Bank Exams
Forbes in their list of World’s Best Park’ is the first housing project in Coursera's Global Skills Report
Banks 2021? (Recently this bank the country that received funding 2021, exhibited a lag in digital skills
1. The Central Government re-appoint-
was recognised as ‘India’s Best under the Government of India’s development?

Special
ed Mahesh Kumar Jain as………
International Bank 2021’ by SWAMIH (Special Window for 1) 142 2) 84 3) 49
1) Chairman of SBI Asiamoney.) Affordable and Mid-Income 4) 67 5) 131
2) Chairman of SEBI 1) SBI 2) ICICI 3) DBS bank Housing Fund) scheme. The ‘Rivali 31. Mukhyamantri Kisan Mitra Urja
3) MD of SBI
4) Chairman of Competition
4) Kotak Mahindra Bank General Awareness Park’ situated in...... Yojana approved by which state?
5) Citi Bank 1) Pune 2) Bangalore (The scheme will grant subsidy
Commission of India 3) Bhubaneswar
8. Bank customers will have to pay ..... India's most valuable unicorn start- amount to agricultural power con-
5) Deputy governor of RBI for each ATM cash withdrawal up with a valuation of $16.5 billion, 4) Jammu 5) Mumbai sumer’s electricity bill. The
2. Who is the Country Director for the beyond free transaction limit in effect surpassing fintech company 23. India’s first International Maritime metered agricultural consumers
World Bank in India? from January 1, 2022 as per the Paytm's $16 billion valuation. It Services Cluster will be established will receive Rs.1,000 per month
1) Ranjitsinh Disale fresh ATM withdrawals rules. is...... by which state Maritime Board at and a maximum of Rs.12,000 per
2) Rajesh Khullar (Currently they are paying Rs.20) 1) Byju's 2) upGrad 3) Unacademy GIFT City? year for their electricity bill.)
Rebeca Grynspan
3) Junaid Kamal Ahmad 1) Rs.41 2) Rs.21 3) Rs.51 4) Udemy 5) Coursera 1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Goa 1) Bihar 2) UP 3) Rajasthan
4) Rajeev Topno 5) Anshula Kant 4) Rs.100 5) Rs.30 13. Who was appointed as the secre- 3) Kerala 4) Gujarat 4) Goa 5) Maharashtra
1) AP 2) Telangana 3) Kerala
3. Who was appointed as the new 9. Honours Your Trust is the punch line tary-general of the United Nations 5) West Bengal 32. Which state launched Chief
chairman of Microsoft? of.....(On 27 May 2021 this bank Conference on Trade and 4) Haryana 5) Punjab Minister Anuprati Coaching
24. Pran Vayu Devta Pension Scheme
1) Arvind Krishna 2) sunder Pitchai board approved the proposal for rais- Development (UNCTAD)? 18. On 3 June 2021, which Indian IT (PVDPS) launched by........ (For Scheme to help underprivileged
ing of equity capital aggregating to 1) Ligia Noronha (India) firm touched Rs.3 trillion in market maintenance of trees older than 75 students prepare for entrance
3) Satya Nadella 4) Vivek Sankaran
Rs.3,000 crore during the financial capitalisation for the first time, years, a “pension amount” of Rs. examinations to civil services and
5) Ajaypal Singh Banga 2) Audrey Azoulay (France)
year 2021-22) becoming the third Indian IT firm to 2,500 would be given per year.) professional courses, with an aim
3) Rebeca Grynspan (Costa Rica) achieve the milestone after TCS
1)SBI 2) Canara Bank 1) Haryana 2) Karnataka to give them equal opportunity?
Writer 4) LI Yong (China) and Infosys.?
3) UCO bank 4) DCB bank 3) Maharashtra 1) Goa 2) Uttarakhand
5) Henrietta Fore (USA) 1) HCL 2) Larsen & Toubro Infotech
Amara Veeraswamy 5) Indian Bank 4) Odisha 5) Telangana 3) Rajasthan 4) Chhattisgarh
14. Who is the chairman of LIC? ( He/ 3) Mindtree 4) Hexaware 5) Wipro
Subject Expert 10. Which bank on 15 June 2021 said she has been given 9 months 25. Which state launched ‘e-Nirman’ 5) Jharkhand
that it will be the lead sponsor of 19. Union Minister for Food Processing 33. Which of the following book co-
extension in view of the LIC’s pro- web portal and a mobile application
4. Yamuna International Airport Private National Asset Reconstruction Industries Narendra Singh Tomar authored by Nitin Rakesh and Jerry
posed initial public offer towards the to facilitate online registration of
Limited secured a loan of Rs.3,725 Company Limited (NARCL) or bad virtually inaugurated the Indus Wind, who bagged International
end of the current fiscal year) workers from the unorganized sec-
crore from ...... for the development bank with 12% stake in the entity. Best Mega Food Park in…… Business Book of the Year Award
1) Subhash Chandra Khuntia tor to enroll them for various gov-
of Noida International Airport at (Bad Bank refers to a financial insti- 1) Chhattisgarh 2) Jharkhand ernment welfare schemes. 2021 recently?
2) Dr. P. D. Vaghela 3) M.R Kumar 3) Assam 4) Rajasthan 5) Bihar
Jewar in Uttar Pradesh. tution that takes over bad assets of 1) Rajasthan 2) Tamil Nadu 1) ‘Indian Economy’s Greatest
4) Analjit Singh 20. On 3 June 2021, the Labour and
1) RBL Bank 2) ICICI lenders and undertakes resolution.) 3) Gujrat Crisis: impact of Coronavirus and
5) Sunita Maheshwari Employment Ministry constituted an the Road Ahead’
3) Bank of Baroda 1)SBI 2) Indian Overseas Bank 4) Andhra Pradesh 5) Assam
15. Asian Development Bank inked a expert group to provide technical 2) ‘Leadership Lessons from 22
4) IOB 5) SBI 3) Canara Bank 26. World Day Against Child Labour
pact with the union government for inputs and recommendations on fix- Yards’
5. Lending and digital payments start- 4) Punjab National Bank observed on...........
$2.5 million (approximately Rs. ation of minimum wages and
up BharatPe on 7 June 2021 5) Bank of India 1) 1 June 2) 31 May 3) 12 June 3) ‘Transformation in Times of
18.23 crore) loan assistance to national floor for minimum wages.
announced that it inked a long deal 11. Which bank launched a new loan Crisis’
upgrade road infrastructure in the The panel headed by....... 4) 6 June 5) 10 June
to become an official partner with product named ‘Kavach Personal North-Eastern state of........ 4) ‘Future of Regional Cooperation
1) Ranbir Singh 2) Dr V K Paul 27. Which among the following philan-
International Cricket Council (ICC). Loan’, to provide financial assis- in Asia and the Pacific’
1) Sikkim 2) Manipur 3) Mizoram 3) Dr Nilima Kshirsagar thropic foundations has partnered
Who is the co-founder and CEO of tance to customers facing econom- 5) ‘Pandemonium: The Great Indian
4) Arunachal Pradesh 5) Assam 4) Ravindra H Dholakia with NITI Aayog to launch
BharatPe? ic crises due to covid related treat- Banking Tragedy’
16. Which year has been declared by ‘Surakshit Hum Surakshit Tum
1) Mahesh Balasubramanian ment costs? (The scheme will 5) Professor Ajit Mishra
the UNO to be commemorated as Abhiyaan’?
2) Ashneer Grover 3) RM Sundaram enable buyers avail loans of up to 21. Which state launched the KEY
the ‘International Year of Artisanal 1) Azim Premji Foundation 13-3 20-5 27-3
4) Jose J Kattoor 5) Rajesh Bansal Rs.5 lakh at an effective interest ‘Knowledge Economy Mission’ to
Fisheries and Aquaculture’? 2) Reliance Foundation 1-5 7-3 14-3 21-3 28-1
6. Which nation became the first in the rate of 8.5% per annum for 60 bring the ongoing efforts to provide
1) 2025 2) 2030 3) 2022 3) Piramal Foundation 2-3 8-2 15-1 22-5 29-4
world to formally adopt bitcoin as months which is inclusive of 3 employment to the educated and
4) 2035 5) 2040 support 'knowledge workers' under 4) Aditya Birla Foundation 3-3 9-3 16-3 23-4 30-4
legal tender? months moratorium.)
17. Which state got first rank in the NITI a single programme? 5) Zee Foundation 4-5 10-3 17-3 24-1 31-3
1) Nigeria 2) Uganda 1) ICICI Bank 2) HDFC 3) SBI
Aayog’s third edition of India’s 1) AP 2) Jharkhand 3) Kerala 28. First time India’s foreign exchange 5-2 11-3 18-5 25-3 32-3
3) El Salvador 4) UCO Bank 5) YES Bank
Sustainable Development Goals 4) Tamil Nadu 5) Telangana reserves crossed........... 6-3 12-1 19-1 26-3 33-3
4) New Zealand 5) Fiji 12. An Indian Edtech company became
(SDG) index 2020-21? 1) $600 Billion 2) $800 Billion

F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F

¸ô&óŸª ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª
a, b, cõª î¦ú£h÷ ú£ÙÜuö˵j a2 + b2 ≠ 0 Íô³,
ax + by + c = 0 öË¶ë¯ ax + by = c ô¢«í£Ùö˺
Ñìo ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°Eo ·ôÙè[ª àŸô¢-ô¦-øŒ‰õª x, yõö˺
¸ô&óŸª ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢éÙ ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.-
l a1x + b1y + c1 = 0, a2x + b2y + c2 = 0,
þ¿÷ªu Bú£ª-ÚÛªìo ÷Ùë] ûÁåx ú£ÙÜu...
a1, a2, b1, b2, c1, c2 õª î¦ú£h÷ ú£ÙÜuõª, -
6. px + 3y − (p − 3) = 0, 12x + py − p = 0 Íû¶ Ï-í£±pè[ª, 29 − x = 40 − 2x
a12 + b12 ≠ 0, a22 + b22 ≠ 0 ô¢«-í£Ùö˺ ô¢àŸô³êŸ ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õ áêŸÚÛª ÍìÙêŸ þ§ëÅ]-ìõª Ñû¦oô³. ⇒ 2x − x = 40 − 29
Ñìo ¸ô&óŸª ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õ ë]yóŸ«Eo ·ôÙè[ª Íô³ê¶, p ëÅ]ì Nõª÷ ÓêŸ?
úˆšï°àÂ. ô¦ëůÚÛ”ù£g ⇒ x = 11
àŸô¢-ô¦-øŒ‰ö˺x ¸ô&óŸª ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õ áêŸ ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.- 1) 12 2) 8 3) 6 4) 4
l x, y àŸ-ô¢-ô¦-øŒ‰ö˺x ¸ô&óŸª ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õ áêŸ Nù£óŸª Eí£±éªõª ∴ ô¢«.-100 ûÁåx ú£ÙÜu =- 11
þ§ëÅ]ì:- Ï#aì ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª (ö˶ë¯)
L1 = a1x + b1y + c1 = 0 a1 = 4, b1 = 3, c1 = 7 L1 = px + 3y − (p − 3) = 0, x + y − 29 = 0; 100x + 50y − 2000 = 0
L2 = a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 a2 = 8, b2 = 6, c2 = k L2 = 12x + py − p = 0 x + y − 29 = 0; 2x + y − 40 = 0
i) ·ôÙè[ª ú£ô¢-üŒ-¸ô-Ü-õìª Ö¸Ú ÖÚÛ GÙë]ª÷± ÷ë]Ì ÜÙè…Ù- ë]-êŸh-¸ô-Üõª í£ô¢-ú£p-ô¦-ëů-JêŸ ¸ôÜõª Ú¥ñæ¨d, a1 = p, b1 = 3, c1 = − (p − 3) a1 = 1, b1 = 1, c1 = − 29
#ì î¦æ¨Ú¨ Ö¸Ú ÖÚÛ þ§ëÅ]ì ÑÙåªÙC.- î¦æ¨E a1 b1 c1 4 3 7 a2 = 12, b2 = p, c2 = − p a2 = 2, b2 = 1, c2 = − 40
ú£ÙÞœêŸ ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.-  =  =  ⇒=  = 
ii) ·ôÙè[ª ú£ô¢-üŒ-¸ô-Üõª ÔÚ©-òÅ¡-N›úh î¦æ¨Ú¨ ÍìÙêŸ þ§ëÅ]-
a2 b2 c2 8 6 k ú£-Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õ áêŸÚÛª ÍìÙêŸ þ§ëÅ]-ìõª Ñû¦oô³ b 1 c 2 − b 2 c1
3 7 7 × 6 Ú¥ñæ¨d, ô¢«.-100 ûÁåx ú£ÙÜu (x) = 
a1b 2 − a 2b1
ìõª ÑÙæ°ô³.- î¦æ¨E ú£ÙÞœêŸ, í£ô¢-ú£p-ô¦-ëů-JêŸ ⇒  =  ⇒ k =  = 14
ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.- 6 k 3 a1 b c1 1(− 40) − 1 (− 29) − 40 + 29
= 1 =  =  ⇒ 
iii) ·ôÙè[ª ¸ôÜõª ú£÷«Ù-êŸô¢ ¸ôÜõª Íô³ê¶, î¦æ¨ ∴ k = 14 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 a2 b2 c2 1(1) − 2(1) 1 − 2
áêŸÚÛª þ§ëÅ]ì ÑÙè[ë]ª.- î¦æ¨E Íú£Ù-ÞœêŸ ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢- 2. 9x − 6y + 5 = 0, 6x − ky + 7 = 0õª ú£÷«Ù- p 3 − (p − 3) − 11
⇒  =  =  =  = 11
é°õª ÍÙæ°ô¢ª.- êŸô¢ ¸ôÜõª Íô³ê¶, k Nõª÷ ÓÙêŸ? 12 p −p −1
l L1 = a1x + b1y + c1 = 0;
L2 = a2x + b2y + c2 = 0
1) 4 2) 6
þ§ëÅ]ì:- Ï#aì ú£ô¢üŒ ¸ôÜõª,
3) 8 4) 9
ð¼æ© í£K¤Ûõ ⇒ p × p = 12 × 3
⇒ p2 = 36
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 4
ú£-Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°-ö˺xE àŸô¢-ô¦-øŒ‰õ Þœªé-Ú¥-õÚÛª, î¦æ¨ ú£yòÅ°-
î¦-EÚ¨ ÷ªëÅ]u ú£ÙñÙëÅ]Ù ÑÙåªÙC.-
9x − 6y + 5 = 0, 6x − ky + 7 = 0
a1 = 9, b1 = − 6, c1 = 5,
ví£ê¶uÚÛÙ ⇒p=±6

⇒ p = √ 36 = ± 6 ÍòÅ°uú£ ví£øŒoõª
1.- l1x + m1y + n1 = 0, l2x + m2y + n2 = 0
a1 b1
i)  ≠  Í-ô³ê¶ Î ¸ô&óŸª ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õ áêŸ
a2 = 6, b2 = − k, c2 = 7
ú£-ô¢-üŒ-¸ô-Üõª ú£÷«Ù-êŸô¢ ¸ôÜõª Ú¥ñæ¨d,
÷«uëÇ]æ¨ÚÂq ∴p ëÅ]ì Nõª÷ = 6
Íú£Ù-ÞœêŸ ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª Íô³ê¶.-.-.-.-
a2 b2 ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3
ú£ÙÞœêŸ ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª.- a1 b c 9 −6 5 7. 5 šíEqüŒ‰x, 7 šíìªoõ îµ³êŸhÙ ëÅ]ô¢ ô¢«.-69.- Íë¶ ô¢Ú¥- l1 m n1
 = 1 ≠ 1 ⇒  =  ≠  í£ë]ªõ þ§–ìÙ-ö˺E ÍÙ·Ú = y Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- 1)  = 1 = 
a1 b1 c1 a2 b2 c2 6 −k 7 EÚ¨ àµÙCì 7 šíEqüŒ‰x, 5 šíìªoõ îµ³êŸh٠õ l2 m2 n2
⇒ Î ú£ÙÜu = 10y + x ⇒ x + 10y
ii)  =  =  Í-ô³ê¶ Î ¸ô&óŸª ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õ 9 −6 6 ô¢«.-63.- Íô³ê¶ ÖÚÁ\ šíEqöËÀ ëÅ]ô¢ ÓÙêŸ? l1 m1 n1
a2 b2 c2 ⇒  =  ⇒ k = 6 ×  = 4 Î ú£ÙÜu-ö˺E ÍÙ·Ú-õìª ê¦ô¢ª-÷«ô¢ª ඛúh ÷à¶a ú£ÙÜu 2)  =  ≠ 
6 −k 9 1) ô¢«.4 2) ô¢«.5 3) ô¢«.6 4) ô¢«.7 l2 m2 n2
áêŸ ú£ÙÞœêŸ ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª, í£ô¢-ú£p-ô¦-ëů-JêŸ ú£Oª-ÚÛ- = 10x + y
ô¢-é°õª.- ∴ k = 4 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1 ë]-ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù, (x + 10y) + (10x + y) = 99 þ§ëÅ]ì:- ÖÚÁ\ šíEqöËÀ ëÅ]ô¢ =- x ÍìªÚÁÙè…- l1
3)  ≠ 
m1
a1 b 1 c1 3. ÖÚÛ êÁåö˺ Ú•Eo ꟪t-ë]õª, í£±÷±yõª Ñû¦oô³.- ⇒11x + 11y = 99
ÖÚÁ\ šíìªo õ =- y ÍìªÚÁÙè… l2 m2
iii)  =  ≠  Í-ô³ê¶ Î ¸ô&óŸª ú£÷ª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õ ví£A í£±÷±yšíj ÖÚ•\ÚÛ\ ꟪të] î¦L-ê¶ ÖÚÛ êŸªîµªtë] ö˵ÚÛ\ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù, 5x + 7y = ô¢«.-69; 4) l1l2 − m1m2 = n1n2
a2 b 2 c2 99
NªT-L-ð¼-ô³ÙC.- ví£A í£±÷±yšíj ·ôÙè[ª ꟪t-ë]õª 11(x + y) = 99 ⇒ x + y =  = 9 7x + 5y = ô¢«.-63 2. l1x + m1y + n1 = 0,
áêŸ Íú£Ù-ÞœêŸ ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª. î¦Lê¶ ÖÚÛ í£±÷±y NªT-L-ð¼-꟪ÙC.- Íô³ê¶ í£±÷±yõª, 11
-

⇒ 5x + 7y − 69 = 0; 7x + 5y − 63 = 0 l2x + m2y + n2 = 0 ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°-õÚÛª Ö¸Ú

l a1x + b1y + c1 = 0, a2x + b2y + c2 = 0 ∴ x + y = 9 .....-s1)
꟪t-ë]õª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ .-.-.-.-.- a1 = 5, b1 = 7, c1 = − 69; þ§ëÅ]ì ÑÙç˶.-.-.-.-.-
õª ·ôÙè[ª ¸ô&óŸª ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª Íô³ê¶, 1) 2, 3 2) 3, 2 3) 3, 4 4) 4, 3
ú£ÙÜu-ö˺E ÍÙ·Úõ òÅ˶ë]Ù =- 5
a2 = 7, b2 = 5, c2 = − 63 l1 m1 n1
x y ⇒x−y=5⇒x=y + 5 1)  =  = 
 =  þ§ëÅ]ì:- ꟪t-ë]õª =- x, í£±÷±yõª =- y Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- b1c2 − b2c1 l2 m2 n2
b1c2 − b2c1 c1a2 − c2a1 x = y + 5E (1) ö˺ ví£A-¸¤-í‡Ù-àŸÞ¥ ÖÚÁ\ šíEqöËÀ ëÅ]ô¢ (x) =- 
ë]ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù, ví£A í£±÷±yšíj ÖÚÛ êŸªîµªtë] î¦L-ì- a 1b2 − a2b1 l1 m1 n1
1 í£±pè[ª, ÖÚÛ êŸªîµªtë] NªT-L-ð¼-꟪ÙC.- x + y=9⇒y + 5 + y=9 2)  =  ≠ 
=  7(− 63) − 5 (− 69) − 441 + 345 l2 m2 n2
a1b2 − a2b1 Ú¥ñæ¨d, x = y + 1 .-.-.-.-.-.-(1) 2y = 9 − 5 = 4 ⇒ y = 2 =  ⇒ 
5(5) − 7(7) 25 − 49 l1 m1
b1c2 − b2c1 ví£A í£±÷±yšíj ·ôÙè[ª ꟪t-ë]õª î¦Lê¶ ÖÚÛ í£±÷±y x=y + 5⇒2 + 5=7 3)  ≠ 
⇒ x =  ; − 96 l2 m2
a 1b 2 − a 2b 1 NªT-L-ð¼-꟪ÙC.- Î ú£ÙÜu =- 27 ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2 =  = ô¢«.-4
− 24 4) l1l2 − m1m2 = n1n2
Ú¥ñæ¨d, x = 2(y − 1) 5. 7x + py + 9 = 0, 14x − 10y + 11 = 0õÚÛª
c1a2 − c2a1 ú£÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1 3.- ax + 5y − 3 = 0, 7x + 10y +- 6 = 0õÚÛª
y =  ⇒ y + 1 = 2y − 2 þ§ëÅ]ì ö˶ë]ª.- Íô³ê¶ p Nõª÷ ÓÙêŸ?
a1b2 − a 2 b1 1) −4 2) −5 3) −8 4) −9 8. þ¿÷ªu ò°uÙÚ ìªÙ# ô¢«.-2000 Bú£ª-ÚÁ-î¦-õE Íìª- þ§ëÅ]ì ö˶ÚÛ-ð¼ê¶, a Nõª÷.-.-.-.-
(. .. (1)ìªÙ#
x = y + 1) ÚÛªÙC.- Î Ú¥uù‡-óŸª-ôÂìª Î îµ³ê¦h-EÚ¨ ô¢«.-50, 7 9 5 3
⇒ 1 + 2 = 2y − y ⇒ y = 3 þ§ëÅ]ì:- Ï#aì ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª L1 = 7x + py + 9 = 0 ô¢«.-100 ûÁç˶x Ï÷y-÷ªE ÚÁJÙC.- ÎÚÛª îµ³êŸhÙ 1)  2)  3)  4) 
2 2 2 2
÷«-CJ ú£÷ª-ú£uõª x = y + 1⇒3 + 1 = 4 L2 = 14x − 10y + 11 = 0
29 ûÁåªx ÷à¦aô³.- Íô³ê¶ þ¿÷ªu Bú£ª-ÚÛªìo 4.- Ú¨ÙC -ú£-Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õ áêŸö˺x ÜÙè[ì ¸ôÜõª ÔN?
∴ í£±÷±yõª = y = 3; ꟪t-ë]õª = x = 4 a1 = 7, b1 = p, c1 = 9; ô¢«.-100 ûÁåx ú£ÙÜu.-.-.-.-.- 1) 3x − 2y = 3, 6x − 4y = 6
1. 4x + 3y + 7 = 0, 8x + 6y + k = 0õª a2 = 14, b2 = − 10, c2 = 11
í£ô¢-ú£p-ô¦-ëů-JêŸ ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª Íô³ê¶, k N-õª÷ ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 1) 10 2) 9 3) 13 4) 11 2) 2x + y − 5 = 0, 3x − 2y − 4 = 0
4. ·ôÙè[Ù-·Úõ ú£ÙÜuìª, ë¯E-ö˺E ÍÙ·Ú-õìª ê¦ô¢ª-÷«ô¢ª ú£-Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°-õÚÛª þ§ëÅ]ì ö˶ë]ª Ú¥ñæ¨d, þ§ëÅ]ì:- þ¿÷ªu Bú£ª-ÚÛªìo ô¢«.-100 ûÁåx ú£ÙÜu
ÓÙêŸ? 3) 9x − 4y + 7 = 0, 18x − 8y + 5 = 0
ඛúh Ôô¢pè˶ ú£ÙÜuõ îµ³êŸhÙ 99.- Î ú£ÙÜu-ö˺E a 1 b 1 c1 7 p = x ÍìªÚÁÙè…-
1) 12 2) 14 3) 16 4) 18  =  ≠  ⇒  =  4) šíjÔO Ú¥÷±
ÍÙ·Úõ òÅ˶ë]Ù 5.- Íô³ê¶ Î ú£ÙÜu.-.-.-.-.- a 2 b 2 c2 14 −10 ô¢«.-50 ûÁåx ú£ÙÜu = y ÍìªÚÁÙè…-
þ§ëÅ]ì: Ï#aì ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°õª 4x + 3y + 7 = 0;
1) 38 2) 27 3) 49 4) 16 7
⇒ p = −10 ×  = − 5 ö˵ÚÛ\ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù, x +- y = 29; 100x + 50y = 2000
8x + 6y + k = 0
þ§ëÅ]ì:- ·ôÙè[Ù-·Úõ ú£ÙÜuö˺ ÖÚÛåx þ§–ìÙ-ö˺E ÍÙ·Ú 14 ⇒ y = 29 − x; 50y = 2000 − 100x
ú£÷«ëůû¦õª
šíj ú£Oª-ÚÛ-ô¢-é°-õìª a1x + b1y + c1 = 0, = x Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- ∴ p = −5 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2
a2x + b2y + c2 = 0õêÁ ð¼L›úh,
⇒ y = 29 − x; y = 40 − 2x 1-2- 2-3 - 3-1- 4-2-
GH
 øŒ‰vÚÛî¦ô¢Ù Wû 25, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17

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F F F F F F F F F

CURRENT AFFAIRS
1. Mid-Day-Meal Scheme was launched in.....
a) 1994 b) 1995 c) 1996
2. Cyclone Yaas made landfall in.....
a) Balasore
c) Bhuvneshwar
b) koraput
d) 1997

d) Wheeler island
National income is based on...
3. The term “mucor septic” is associated with.... 11. Emulsion is known as a.... a) Navigation b) To generate tidal energy
a) Yellow fungus
c) Black fungus
b) Blue fungus
d) White fungus
4. Prevention of Anti-Social Activities Act
a) Colloidal solution of substances having dif-
ferent physical states
b) True solution
SSC Exams c) Fishing d) Surfing
26. Which one of the following coasts of India is
most affected by violent tropical cyclones?
(PASA) is set to be introduced in which
Indian UT......
a) Lakshadweep b) Chandigarh
c) Distillation mixture for making alcohols
d) Colloidal solution of two liquids
12. Which instrument is used for measuring the
Special a) Goa
c) Maharashtra
b) East coast
d) Kerala
27. ..... is one of the major causes of soil erosion
c) Puducherry scattering of light by particles suspended in General Awareness a) Deforestation b) Afforestation
d) Andaman & Nicobar Islands light....... c) Winds d) Over irrigation
5. Which state has implemented the Recovery a) Multimeter b) Refraction 28. Manas, Nameri, Orang tiger reserves are
of Damages to Property Act, 2021? 20. Expand REER.....
c) Nephelometer d) Turbo generator located in......
a) Karnataka b) Uttar Pradesh a) Real Effective Exchange Rate
13. The branch of physics which deals with a) Assam b) Mizoram
c) Telangana d) Haryana b) Real Economic Exchange Rate
extremely low temperatures is.... c) Nagaland d) Chhattisgarh
Marie Curie c) Rare Effective Exchange Rate
a) Acoustics b) Cryogenics
GENERAL SCIENCE d) Effective Exchange Rate
c) Optics d) Geophysics
6. The cells having nuclear material without a)115 crores of rupees GEOGRAPHY POLITY
nuclear membrane are termed as..... ECONOMICS b) 85 crores of rupees
a) Prokaryotic cells b) Eukaryotic cells c) 200 crores of rupees 21. Great Barrier Reef is in..... 29. The objective of “social justice” artic-
14. National income is based on....
c) Cell membrane d) None d) 210 crores of rupees a) Australia b) Japan ulated in the....
a) Total revenues of the state
7. Crocodiles have..... 18. When the budgetary proposals of a govern- c) Malaysia d) Indonesia a) Article 14 b) Article 21
b) Production of goods and services
a) Two chambered heart ment for a particular year proposes higher 22. The leading producer of natural rubber in c) Article 46 d) Preamble
c) Market prices d) Factor prices
b) Three chambered heart expenditures than the receipts, it is known the world is..... 30. Who said Indian Constitution is
15. Which five-year plan known as “Rao-
c) Four chambered heart d) None as a.... a) India b) Indonesia “both in language and substance a
Manmohan plan”?
a)Deficit Budget b) Monetised Deficit c) Malaysia d) Thailand close copy of the Act of 1935”?
8. Disease causing microorganisms are called... a) Fifth plan b) First Plan
c) Demonetised deficit d) None of the above 23. Which canal links Pacific and Atlantic a) N Srinivasan b) Ivor Jennings
a) Fungi b) Bacteria c) Seventh plan d) Eighth plan
19. Which of the following institution is known oceans....... c) Deshmukh d) Rajendra Prasad
c) Pathogens d) None 16. Who Made the first systematic assessment
as the soft window of the WB.... a) Panama canal b) Buckingham canal
9. Radium is obtained from..... of poverty in India?
a) The International Bank for Reconstruction c) Suez canal d) Bering strait
a) Limestone b) Haematitie a) Amartya Sen b) Abhijit Banerjee
c) Rangarajan d) VM Dandekar and Development 24. Earthquakes are generally associated with...
c) Pitchblende d) Rutile
b) The International Development Agency a) Joints b) Faults Writer
10. Which of the following is widely used in the 17. Under the minimum reserve system, the
manufacture of cigarette lighters? Reserve Bank of India as the sole authority c) The International Finance Corporation c) Folds d) Schistosity T. Srichakra Phani
a) Misch metal b) Propane of note issue is required to maintain assets d) The Multilateral Investment Guarantee 25. Mixing of warm ocean currents and cold
Senior Faculty, RACE
c) Butane d) Sodium worth not less than.... Agency ocean currents is ideal for......

Key With Explanations
1-b; The Ministry of Education has approved the
proposal to provide monetary assistance to
students through Direct Benefit Transfer of
the cooking cost component of the Mid-
Day-Meal Scheme, to all eligible children.
2-a; Recently, cyclone Yaas made landfall
south of Balasore in Odisha. The cyclone
has been named Yaas by Oman.
3-a; Yellow fungus, also called mucor septic,
initially develops by the presence of
moulds (a type of fungi) in the environ-
ment. Prolonged use of steroids, contami-
nated environment, uncontrolled diabetes,
unhygienic habits, lesser immunity, comor-
bidities are the main causes.
4-a; The Lakshadweep administration has
announced to introduce Lakshadweep
Development Authority Regulation 2021
(LDAR) and the Prevention of Anti-Social
Activities Act (PASA) in the islands.
5-d; This act aims to recover the damages
caused by protestors to people’s shops,
vendor carts, houses, government offices,
vehicles, buses and other public property
during any rally or movement.
6-a; The cells, like onion cells and cheek cells
having well-organised nucleus with a
nuclear membrane are designated as
Prokaryotic cells.
7-c; Crocodiles have four heart chambers.
8-c; Some of the microorganisms cause dis-
eases in human beings, plants and ani-
mals. Such disease causing microorgan-
isms are called pathogens.
9-c; Radium was discovered in 1898 by Marie
Curie from pitchblende a material that con-
tains uranium.
10-a; ‘Misch metal’ alloyed with iron is used in
the cigarettes lighters. Misch metal is an
alloy of cerium (50%), lanthanum (25%),
neodymium (18%), praseodymium (5%)
and other rare metals.
11-d; The particles of a colloid are uniformly
spread throughout the solution.
12-c; Nephelometer is used for measuring the
scattering of light by particles suspended
in light.
13-b; Cryogenics is the branch of physics which
studies extremely low temperatures.
14-b; National income is based on the produc-
tion of goods and services.
15-d; It is a first plan after economic reforms.
16-d; VM Dandekar and N Rath made the first
systematic assessment of poverty in
India in 1971, based on National Sample
Survey (NSS) data from 1960-61.
17-c; Since 1957, the RBI is required to main-
tain gold and foreign exchange reserves
of Rs.200 crore (2 billion), of which at
least Rs.115 crore should be in gold and
Rs.85 crore in the form of Government
Securities. The system as it exists today
is known as the minimum reserve system.
18-a; If the budget proposes lesser expendi-
tures than the receipts is a surplus budget.
19-b; The International Development Agency
(IDA) which is also known as the soft win-
dow of the WB was set up in 1960 with
the basic aim of developing infrastructur-
al support among the member nations,
long-term lending for the development of
economic services.
20-a.
21-a; The Great Barrier Reef is the world's
largest coral reef system, located in the
Coral Sea, off the coast of Queensland,
Australia. It is a distinct feature of the
East Australian Cordillera division.
22-d; The leading producer of natural rubber in
the world is Thailand.
23-a; The Panama Canal is a ship canal in
Panama that connects the Atlantic Ocean
(via the Caribbean Sea) to the Pacific
Ocean.
24-b; Earthquake is more likely to be of
Tectonic origin and probably because of
existence of a Fault.
25-c; Meeting of warm and cold currents is
ideal for fishing. These zones are best
fishing grounds of the world. Ex Sargasso
Sea in North Atlantic Ocean.
26-b; Tropical Cyclones moves from east to
west under the influence of trade winds.
Hence east coast is more vulnerable to
violent tropical cyclones than west coast.
27-a; Deforestation is one of the major causes
of soil erosion. Plants keep soil bound in
locks of roots and thus prevent erosion.
They also add humus to the soil by shed-
ding leaves and twigs.
28-a; Kaziranga, Manas, Nameri, Orang tiger
reserves are located in Assam.
29-d; Social justice denotes the equal treat-
ment of all citizens without any social dis-
tinction based on caste, colour, race, reli-
gion, sex and so on.
30-a; N.Srinivasan observed that Indian
Constitution is “both in language and sub-
stance a close copy of the Act of 1935”.

GH
 øŒEî¦ô¢Ù Wû 26, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17

EóŸªÙ-vAêŸ ú£Ùú£–õª (Regulatory Bodies)

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šúÚÛ«u-J-æ©úà ÍÙè ӸÚq aÄÙâËÀ ò˺ô“ ÎíÆà ÏÙè…óŸ« (SEBI)
p ð§ô¢x-ÙæÀ àŸådÙ
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ALPHABETS
In the previous articles, we discussed in
the detail the hierarchy in which a candi-
date should attempt in the examinations to
ensure maximum marks in less time. The
next topic in that hierarchy is "problems
on Alphabets". Individual questions each
÷³Üu-iì EóŸªÙ-vAêŸ ú£Ùú£–õª
ç˵LÚ¥Ù ·ôÞœªu-ö˶-åK Íëǯ-Jæ© ÎíÆÃ
ÏÙè…óŸ« (TRAI):-
n 1990 ë]øŒ-ÚÛÙö˺ ÷#aì ÎJ–ÚÛ ú£ô¢-SÚÛ”êŸ
Nëů-û¦õ íÆ£L-êŸÙÞ¥ ç˵LÚ¥Ù ô¢ÙÞœÙö˺
wšíjæÀ ú£Kyúà vð»îµj-è[ô¢ªx ÷à¦aô³.- DE
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EóŸªÙ-vêŸé Í÷-ú£-ô¢-iÙC.-
n 1997ö˺ ð§ô¢x-ÙæÀ àŸådÙ ë¯yô¦ -cç˵LÚ¥Ù
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Ôô¦påª à¶ø‹ô¢ª.- ÏÙë]ªö˺ ÖÚÛ àŵjô¢t-ûÂêÁ
ð§åª ÷³Þœª_ô¢ª ú£òÅ¡ªuõª ÑÙæ°ô¢ª.-
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vêŸé, NNëÅ] ú£Ùú£–õ ÷ªëÅ]u ÍGÅ-öù£-é©-óŸª-
iì ð¼æ©E vð¼êŸq-Ù-àŸè[Ù.-
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Þœ-ë¯-ô¢ª-õÚÛª û¦éu-iì ›ú÷-õìª ÍÙCÙ-
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Nî¦-ë¯-õìª í£J-ù£\-JÙ-àŸè[Ù.-
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ví£óµ«-á-û¦õª ú£Ùô¢¤¨Ù-àŸè[Ù, ò°uÙ¸Ú-êŸô¢
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Company - NBFC) Ú¥ô¢u-ÚÛ-ö°-ð§-õìª
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ñÙÞ¥ô¢ª ú£êŸuû¦ô¦óŸªé
Nù£óŸª Eí£±éªõª
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The fourth letter from the right is..?
ô¢ª·Þjì ›ú÷õ ÚÛõpì..
Ú¥ô¢uÚÛö°ð§õ í£ô¢u¤Ûé
Ïì«q-·ôûÂq ·ôÞœªu-ö˶-åK & è˵÷-õ-íÃ-ÙæÀ ò°ô Ú˽EqöËÀ ÎíÆà ÏÙè…óŸ« ÎöËÀ ÏÙè…óŸ« Ú˽EqöËÀ
Íëǯ-Jæ© ÎíÆà ÏÙè…óŸ« (IRDAI) ð¼æ© í£K¤Ûõ D òÅ°ô¢êŸ ð§-ô¢x-ÙæÀ
1961ö˺ Íè[y-
ÎíÆà ç˵Úo¨ -ÚÛöËÀ Óè[ªu-¸Ú-ù£ûÂ-
F ð§-ô¢x-ÙæÀ àŸådÙ ë¯yô¦ 1999ö˺ -cÏì«q-¬- A ë¶øŒÙö˺ þ§Ù¸Ú-AÚÛ Në]uìª îµªô¢ª-·Þjì
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ÍÙèÂ- è˵÷-õ-íÃ-ÙæÀ ví£ê¶uÚÛÙ ë¯yô¦ ò°ôÂ
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ë¯yô¦ 1987ö˺ ÎöËÀ ÏÙè…óŸ« Ú˽EqöËÀ
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ú£òÅ¡ªuõª ÑÙæ°ô¢ª.- A ÏÙá-F-JÙÞÂ, ðƧô¢túˆ, ÚÛÙí£²u-åô Në]u,
ÍÙC-ú£ªhìo ›ú÷-õìª ú£÷ª-ô¢–-÷Ù-êŸÙÞ¥ í£ô¢u- CÙ#, ì«êŸì î¦é¨áu Nëů-û¦-õšíj Íìª-ú£-
-¤¨-ú£ªhÙC.- ÏÙë]ªö˺ ÖÚÛ àŵjô¢tûÂ, Ú•ÙêŸ- JÙ-à¦-Lqì NCÅ-N-ëů-û¦-õìª ví£òÅ¡ª-ê¦y-EÚ¨ ÍCÅ-Ú¥-ô¦õª n- NëÅ]ªõª:- û¶-âËÀ-ÙæÀ, Ñð§-ëůuóŸª Në]u îµ³ë]-ö˵jì
÷ªÙC ú£òÅ¡ªuõª ÑÙæ°ô¢ª.- D û¦uóŸª ÷u÷-ú£–ö˺ ô¢ª-·Þjì í£E-B-ô¢ªìª î¦æ¨Ú¨ ú£ÙñÙ-CÅÙ-#ì ì«êŸì í£J-øËÁ-ëÅ]-ìõ
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F òÅ°ô¢-êÂ-ö˺E ë¶QóŸª, Në¶Q Ïì«q-·ôûÂq
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vêŸé ÚÛLT ÑÙåªÙC.-
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F ð§õ-úˆ-ë¯-ô¢ªõ ví£óµ«-â-û¦-õìª í£J-ô¢¤¨- ÞœªJhÙí£± Ï÷yè[Ù.- û¦uóŸª Në]uìª vð¼êŸq-
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àŸè¯EÚ¨ ÚÛ”ù‡ à¶óŸªè[Ù.- A ì«êŸì ÚÁô¢ªqõ Eô¢y--éÚÛª Íìª-÷ª-꟪õª
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F Ïì«q-·ôûÂq ÚÛÙší-FõÚÛª, ÷ªëÅ]u-÷-ô¢ªh-õÚÛª Íìª- ú£ªhÙC.- DEo òÅ°ô¢êŸ
÷ª-꟪õª ÷ªÙWô¢ª à¶ú£ªhÙC.- ð§ô¢x-ÙæÀ àŸådÙ
F àŸåd EñÙ-ëÅ]-ìõìª ÑõxÙ-íƇªÙ-#ì ú£Ùú£–õ ë¯yô¦ 2003ö˺ û¶ù£-ìöËÀ šïj°î¶ Íëǯ-Jæ© ÎíÆà ÏÙè…óŸ« (NHAI)
Íìª-÷ª-꟪õª/- ö˵jšú-ûÂqõª ô¢ë]ªÌ-à¶-ú£ªhÙC, áJ- Ôô¦påª à¶ø‹ô¢ª.- ÏÙë]ªö˺ ÖÚÛ àŵjô¢tûÂ,
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Ú¥Ùí‡-æ©-ù£û ÚÛNª-ù£û ÍCÅ-Ú¥-ô¦õª n- NëÅ]ªõª:-
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ÎíÆà ÏÙè…óŸ« í£±ìª šíÙð»Ù-CÙ-àŸè[Ù.- ú£÷ªô¢–ÙÞ¥ Eô¢y-Ù#, í£ô¢u--¤¨ú£ªhÙC. àµåªx
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(Competition Commission of India) G Në]ªuê àŦKb-õìª vÚÛ÷ ª-ñ-DÌÄ-ÚÛ-JÙ-àŸè[Ù,
t òÅ°ô¢-êŸ-ë¶øŒ ÎJ–ÚÛ ø‹úˆYóŸª í£ë]ÌÄ-Aö˺ NNëÅ] þ§xñªõ ëÅ]ô¢-õìª
ÑÙæ°ô¢ª.-
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b â°BóŸª ô¢ï£°-ë¯-ô¢ªõ Eô¦téÙ, Eô¢y-é,
G Në]ªuê ڕìª-ÞÁõª, ú£ô¢-íÆ£ô¦ ÷u÷--ô¦-õìª
÷«·ô\åx ÍGÅ-÷”CÌÄ ì«êŸì þ§Ù¸Ú-AÚÛ í£J-â‘°-û¦Eo NE-óµ«- b ì«êŸì ô¢ï£°-ë¯-ô¢ªõ Eô¦t-éÙö˺
ÚÁú£Ù ví£òÅ¡ªêŸyÙ í£ô¢u--¤¨Ù-àŸè[Ù.- Në]ªuê ÑêŸp-AhÚ¨ ú£ÙñÙ- TÙ# â°BóŸª ô¢ï£°-ë¯-ô¢ª-õìª ÍGÅ-÷”CÌÄ Óë]ª-ô¢ó¶ªu ú£÷ª-ú£uõ í£J-ÿ§\-ô¦-EÚ¨ ÚÛ”ù‡
1969ö˺ MRTP
CÅÙ-#ì ì«êŸì í£J-øËÁ-ëÅ]-ì-õìª vð¼êŸq-Ù- à¶óŸªè[Ù.- æ˺öËÀ-ð§x-â°õ Eô¢y-é, íƈVõ à¶óŸªè[Ù.- ô¢ï£°-ë¯-ô¢ªõ Eô¦t-éÙö˺ NNëÅ]
àŸæ°dEo ô¢«ð»Ù-CÙ- àŸè[Ù. ø‹ú£Y, þ§Ù¸Ú-A-ÚÛêŸìª NE-óµ«-TÙ-à¶ö° ÷ú£«-õªÚÛª Í÷-ú£-ô¢-iì ÷«ô¢_-ë]-ô¢)-Ú¥-õìª ví£òÅ¡ªêŸy ø‹Üõ ÷ªëÅ]u ú£÷ª-ìy-óŸ«Eo
#ÙC.- 2002ö˺ ÚÛ”ù‡ à¶óŸªè[Ù.- ô¢«ð»Ù-CÙ-àŸè[Ù.- þ§CÅÙ-àŸè[Ù.- Eô¦té ô¢ÙÞœÙö˺ ì«êŸì
G ë¶øŒÙ-ö˺E NNëÅ] ô¦ÿZ§õ ÷ªëÅ]u Në]ªuê í£J-øËÁ-ëÅ]-ìõª à¶ú‡ ví£òÅ¡ª-ê¦y-EÚ¨ E-CÙ-
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ÖÚÛ àŵjô¢tûÂ, ìõª-Þœªô¢ª ú£òÅ¡ªuõª ÑÙæ°ô¢ª.-
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(Central Pollution Control Board) ú£òÅ¡ªuõª ÑÙæ°ô¢ª.- ÷-ô¢é ú£ÙñÙ-CÅêŸ ÍÙø‹-õìª í£J-Q-LÙ-àŸè[Ù.-
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ð¼æ©E šíÙð»Ù-CÙ-àŸè[Ù.- ›úyà¦aÄ î¦é¨áu ÍCÅ-Ú¥-ô¦õª n- NëÅ]ªõª:-
R ë¶øŒÙö˺ í£ô¦u-÷-ô¢-é°Eo í£J-ô¢¤¨Ù-à¶Ù-ë]ªÚÛª R áõ, î¦óŸ³ Ú¥õªù£u EóŸªÙ-vêŸ-éÚÛª àŸô¢uõª à¶óŸªè[Ù.-
Eô¢y--éÚÛª Íìª-jì í£J-ú‡–-꟪-õìª ÚÛLpÙ-
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F F F F F F F F F F F F

Bank Exams
14. How will the word ‘VOGUE’ be written as, if left to right, then which letter will be fourth
of 1 mark will be given from this topic all its letters are arranged in alphabetical letter from left end?
particularly in the prelims. There is every order and then each letter is replaced by its 1) P 2) S 3) L 4) H 5) D
chance of getting 2 to 3 questions from this

Special
previous letter in the English alphabetical Explanation: Word: P U B L I S H E D
topic. In this article, we are going to dis- series? U S P L I H E D B
cuss those models that are important for 1) FHPVW 2) DFNTU 3) DFPTU
prelims examination. L is the fourth letter from the left.
4) EFNTU 5) DHPTU
Reasoning Explanation: Word: V O G U E
Ans:3
19. If each vowel of the word ‘DEPARTMENT’
Model Questions Alphabetical order: E G O U V is changed to the next letter in English
twelth letters of the word ‘ACQUAIN-
1. How many such pairs of letters are there in TANCE’ which will be second letter from the
−1 −1 −1 −1 −1 alphabetical series and consonant is
the word ‘DIRECTION’ each of which has as right of the word so formed? If more than D F N T U changed to the previous letter in the English
many letters between them in the word (in one such word can be formed, mark your Ans:2 alphabetical series, then how many alpha-
both forward and backward directions), as answer as Y. If no such word can be 15. If all the vowels of the word ‘PERCEPTION’ bets will appear twice in the new arrange-
there are between them in the English alpha- formed, mark your answer as X. are substituted with next letter of the ment?
betical series? 1) O 2) A 3) L 4) Y 5) X English alphabetical series and each con- 1) None 2) Two 3) One
1) Two 2) Four 3) Three sonant is substituted with the letter preced- 4) Three 5) More than three
Explanation: The letters are A, N, C and E.
4) Five 5) More than Five ing it and then all the letters are arranged in Explanation:
CANE and ACNE are the two words that can be
5. How many meaningful English words can be alphabetical order, which of the following
Explanation: formed. Ans:4 Word: D E P A R T M E N T
made with the letters ‘ATE’ using each letter would be the fourth letter from the right?
DIRECTION 11. If Only one meaningful English word can be −1 +1 −1 +1 −1 −1 −1 +1 −1 −1
only once in each word? 1) N 2) O 3) P 4) Q 5) S
Ans:1 formed with the first, sixth, seventh and C F O B Q S L F M S
1) One 2) Two 3) None Explanation:
2. How many such pairs of letters are there in tenth letters of the word ‘BENEVOLENT’, F and S are the two letters that were repeated.
4) Three 5) More than three Word: P E R C E P T I O N
the word ‘STATEMENT’ each of which has which will be the third letter from the left of Ans:2
as many letters between them in t he word (in Explanation: EAT, ATE and TEA are the three the word so formed. If two words can be −1 +1 −1 −1 +1 −1 −1 +1 +1 −1
words that can be formed with these letters. 20. If the letters of the word ‘REQUIREMENT’
both forward and backward directions), as formed mark ‘Y’ as your answer if more than N F Q B F O S J P M are arranged in alphabetical order, which
there are between them in the English alpha- Ans:4 two words can be formed then mark ‘X’ as Alphabetical order: letter will come at the exactly middle posi-
betical series? 6. How many meaningful English words can be your answer. If no word can be formed mark B F F J M N O P Q S tion?
1) None 2) Two 3) One made with the letters ‘AELM’ using each let- ‘Z’ as your answer? The fourth letter from the right is O. 1) I 2) R 3) Q 4) N 5) M
ter only once in each word? 1) X 2) Y 3) Z
4) Three 5) More than three Ans:2 Explanation:
1) One 2) Two 3) None 4) O 5) L
Explanation: 16. The letters in the word ‘INTRACTABLE’ all Word: R E Q U I R E M E N T
4) Three 5) More than three Explanation: The letters are B, T, O and L.
STATEMENT consonants are first arranged alphabatically E E E I M N Q R R T U
Explanation: MALE, MEAL, LAME, MELA and BOLT and BLOT are the two words that can be and then all vowels are arranged alphabati-
Ans:4 N will be at the middle. Ans:4
ALME are the words that can be formed. formed. Ans:2 cally then which letter will be third to the
3. How many such pairs of digits are there in 21. Suppose the first and second letters in the
Ans:5 12. If all letters of the word ‘PREVIOUS’ are right of eighth letter from the right?
the number ‘596748392’ both in forward and word ‘ADMINISTRATIVELY’ were inter-
7. How many meaningful English words can be arranged as per the English alphabetical 1) W 2) S 3) X
backward directions, each of which has as changed also the third and fourth letters, the
made with the letters ‘GHIRT’ using each let- series. Then a meaningful English word
many digits between them in the number as 4) T 5) None of these fifth and sixth so on. Find out the twelth let-
ter only once in each word? (starting with S) is formed with the first,
in the arithmetic numerals? Explanation: ter from right end?
1) None 2) Two 3) One third, fifth and sixth alphabets of the word so
1) Two 2) Four 3) One Word: I N T R A C T A B L E 1) N 2) T 3) I 4) S 5) M
4) Three 5) More than three formed, which of the following will be the
4) Three 5) More than four B C L N R T T A A E I Explanation:
Explanation: RIGHT is the only word that can third letter of the word from left?
Explanation: (8-3) = 5th Letter from the right is T Word:
be formed. Ans:3 1) R 2) S 3) O 4) E
596748392 Ans:4 A D M I N I S T R A T I V E L Y
8. How many meaningful English words can be 5) No meaningful word can be formed
Ans:5 17. If in the word ‘DEVELOPMENT’, all the D A I M I N T S A R I T E V Y L
formed with the second, fourth, sixth and Explanation: P R E V I O U S, letters are
There are six such pairs vowels are first arranged alphabetically and
seventh letters of the word ‘IMPERATIVE’? arranged in alphabetical order E I O P R S U V. I is the twelth letter from the right Ans:3
4. How many such pairs of digits are there in then all the consonants are arranged alpha-
1) None 2) One 3) Two The letters are E O R and S. SORE is the word 22. If two is added to each even digit and two is
the number ‘815472639’ both in forward and betically and then all the vowels replaced by
4) Three 5) More than three that can be formed, R is the third letter from the subtracted from each odd digit in the num-
backward directions, each of which has as the next letter and all the consonants are
Explanation: The letters are A, E, M and T. left. Ans:1 ber 729436526 and then in the new number
many digits between them in the number as replaced by previous letter from English
MEAT, TEAM, TAME and MATE are the four 13. If all the letters in the word GOVERNMENT thus formed all digits are arranged in
in the arithmetic numerals? alphabet, which letter will be third from the
words that can be formed. Ans:5 are rearranged as they appear in the ascending order, which of the following will
1) Three 2) Six 3) Four right end?
9. How many meaningful English words can be English alphabets, the position of how many be third from the right?
4) five 5) More than Six 1) U 2) S 3) L 4) O 5) M
formed with the first, sixth, seventh and letters will remain unchanged after the 1) 3 2) 8 3) 4 4) 7 5) 5
Explanation: Explanation:
eleventhletters of the word ‘ENVIRON- rearrangement? Explanation:
815472639 Word: D E V E L O P M E N T
MENT’? 1) None 2) Two 3) One Number: 7 2 9 4 3 6 5 2 6
E E E O D L M N P T V
1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 5 5) 4 4) Three 5) Four
There are six such pairs. Ans:2 +1 +1 +1 +1 −1 −1 −1 −1 −1 −1 −1 −2 +2 −2 +2 −2 +2 −2 +2 +2
Explanation: The letters are E, O, N and T. 5 4 7 6 1 8 3 4 8
F F F P C K L M O S U
NOTE and TONE are the two words that can be Explanation: Word: G O V E R N M E N T
Writer After arrangement O is the third letter from the Ascending order:
formed. Ans:3 Alphabetical order: E E G M N N O R T V
right. Ans:4 134456788
G. Sashi Kumar, Senior 10. If only one meaningful English word can be The letter N remained in the same position.
18. If the letters of the word ‘PUBLISHED’ are 7 is the third letter from the right
Faculty Sreedhar's CCE formed with the fifth, seventh, eleventh and Ans:3
arranged in reverse alphabetical order from Ans:4

GH
 17
JUNIOR ASSOCIATES
SBI
No. of Questions: 100
PRELIMS MODEL PAPER
Max. Marks: 100 Time: 1 Hour ÎCî¦ô¢Ù Wû 27, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Qs.1-4): In the given ques-
tion, a part of the sentence is printed in
bold. Below the sentence, alternatives
to the emboldened part are given as
(1), (2), (3) and (4), which may help
improve the sentence. Choose the
correct alternative out of the given five
options. In case the given sentence is
correct, your answer will be option (5),
i.e., “No correction required”.
1. ‘There are some good pictures
there, and they varies in scale
between small A4 sized prints to
huge behemoths that only just fit on
the wall.’
1) varied in scale between
2) varying in scale between
3) vary in scale between
4) vary in scale among
5) No correction required
2. ‘At one point, these huge
behemoths were fill to the brim
with foodstuffs, but now considered
a safe haven for those unfortunate
not to have a home to call upon.’
1) fills to the brim with
2) filled to the brim with
3) filling to the brim with
4) filled to the brim within
5) No correction required
3. ‘It was formed million of years ago
when India slowly crashed into
Asia, giving rise to the Himalaya
mountains and other rocky
behemoths that form Tibet’s borders
on three sides.’
1) millions off years ago when
2) millions of years ago then
3) millions of year ago when
4) millions of years ago when
5) No correction required
4. ‘He embraced them as practition-
ers of the money traded whose
credit served to induce economic
equalization and prosperity in the
monetized society of fifteenth centu-
ry Urbino.’
1) as practitioners of the money
trading
2) as practitioners of a money trade
3) as practitioners of the money
trade
4) as of practitioners of the money
trade
5) No correction required
Directions (Qs.5-9): In this question,
words (A),(B),(C) and (D) are given in
bold. If two of these words are inter-
changed, the sentence will be mean-
ingful and grammatically correct.
Identify the pair of words, if inter-
changed which will make the sentence
meaningful and grammatically correct.
That pair is your answer. If all the words
have been appropriately then mark ‘No
replacement required’ as your answer.
5. Last month, the Joint Committee
(A)/ of Parliament on Data
Protection Bill had come down
showing (B)/ on Twitter for heavily
(C)/ Ladakh as part of China, saying
it amounted (D)/ to treason and had
sought an explanation.
1) A-D 2) B-C 3) C-D
4) Both A-D and B-C
5) No replacement required
6. Twitter had come under (A)/ heavy
criticism and faced (B)/ a backlash
from social media users after (C)/ its
geo tagging feature displayed (D)/
“Jammu & Kashmir, the People’s
Republic of China” in a live broad-
cast.
1) A-D 2) B-C 3) C-D
4) Both A-D and B- C
5) No replacement required
7. The World Inequality estimates (A)/
covered 173 nations, including 50
additional (B)/ countries in its latest
report, which compared (C)/
income inequality database (D)/
between 1993 and 2019.
1) A-D 2) B-C 3) C-D
4) Both A-C and B-D
5) No replacement required
8. In China, the compared (A)/ 1%
captured 14% of national income
(B)/ in 2019 compared with 8% in
1990, while in India, the corre-
sponding (C)/ figures are 21% in
2019 top (D)/ with 11% in 1990.
1) A-D 2) B-C 3) C-D
4) Both A-C and B-D
5) No replacement required
9. In economies (A)/ of distribution of
emerging (B)/ income in Asia, in the
top 1%, high income terms (C)/ lost
their position to the national (D)/
economies, especially to China and
India.
1) A-D 2) B-C and A-D 3) C-D
4) A-C and B-D
5) No replacement required
Directions (Qs.10-14): In this question,
four words denoted by (1), (2), (3) and
(4) are given in bold. One of these
words given in bold may either be
wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the
context of the sentence. Find out which
amongst (1), (2), (3) and (4) is inappro-
priate in the context or wrongly spelt, if
any. That option is your answer. If all
are correctly spelt or appropriate in the
context of the sentence, then mark ’All
Correct’ as your answer.
10. Thorough(1)/ that approach, per-
sons with a dispute in the civil (2)/
court are given the opportunity (3)/
to resolve the matter with solutions
that they devise (4)./ All correct
11. I immediately (1)/ harvested all
that were left (2),/ and resolved
even more firmly (3)/ that I’d
demand a grater (4)/ percentage
at our next interspecies confer-
ence./ All correct
12. In the mean (1)/ time, I resolved to
let him decide (2)/ what we should
do together, and go long (3)/ with it
unless I thought it would have a
negative impact (4)/ on him some-
how./ All are correct
13. John’s life has been claoked (1)/ in
the shadow of this tragedy (2)/
ever since and he resolves to save
his father and alter (3)/ the course
of his own personal (4)/ history./
All correct
14. Having resolved to follow this
coarse (1)/ of action I contacted
(2)/ both England and Russia and
formed (3)/ an alliance to the detri-
ment (4)/ of Germany./ All correct
Directions (Qs.15-22): Read the
following passage carefully and
answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help
you locate them while answering some
of the questions.
The presence of Union Health
Minister Harsh Vardhan at a press con-
ference to promote Coronil, an
Ayurvedic pill promoted by Baba
Ramdev’s Patanjali Ayruved, is objec-
tionable on more than one count.
Coronil is a concoction of common
herbs known to Ayruveda. Since June,
there have been attempts to deploy it
into India’s COVID-19 management
protocol. Dr. Vardhan, alongside
Cabinet colleague Nitin Gadkari, was at
a press conference with Baba Ramdev
and other promoters of Patanjali to
announce a scientific publication
describing the efficacy of Coronil in rid-
ding volunteers, part of a clinical trial, of
coronavirus. For one, Coronil is a prod-
uct manufactured by a private compa-
ny. Doctors – Harsh Vardhan is an ENT
surgeon – are explicitly barred from
promoting drugs of any sort. Though
Dr. Vardhan didn’t explicitly mention
Coronil in his address at the function,
what public functionaries are seen to
be doing speaks louder than what they
say. Baba Ramdev first claimed that his
product was endorsed by the WHO.
Following media reports, WHO South-
East Asia tweeted that it hadn’t
reviewed or certified the effectiveness
of any traditional medicine for the treat-
ment of COVID-19. What transpired
was that India’s apex drug regulator
had certified Coronil as pharmaceutical
product in “supporting COVID
treatment and an immunity booster”
and cleared it for export. It hasn’t rec-
ommended it as treatment for COVID-
19. The publication of a double-blinded,
randomized clinical trial in a research
journal isn’t an endorsement of a prod-
uct, but an essential requirement of
reporting the drug’s action to subject
experts. The report reveals that the
medicine was only tested on 95 of those
asymptomatic and “mildly symptomatic”
but confirmed as RT-PCR positive. The used in the passage?
45 patients who got the actual treatment 1) Clearly 2) truly 3) seemingly
(and not a dummy pill) tested COVID-19 4) noticeably 5) vaguely
negative significantly quicker. However, 18. What is the purpose of double
these numbers are small. A large pro- blinded, randomized clinical trial?
portion of those with mild or no symp-
1) To give endorsement of a drug by
toms are expected to clear out the infec-
WHO
tion without any external intervention.
2) To give an essential requirement
There was no information in the study
of reporting the drug’s action to
on the number of days that elapsed
subject experts
before the patients tested positive, mak-
3) It is published in the journal
ing the role of the drug in clearing out
4) Trial is accepted by the drug
the virus unclear. True, allopathic medi-
regulator
cine too has cut corners: an ICMR –
led trial ultimately couldn’t justify the 5) None of the above
administration of hydroxychloroquine; 19. What is the meaning of the phrase
the Drugs Controller General of India “cut corners” ?
approved itolizumba by Biocon that was 1) To take a short cut
tested only in a sample of 30 but was 2) to be stingy 3) lavish
advertised as “breakthrough drug”; and 4) to destroy 5) to converse
Covaxin was approved before its effica-
20. Give the opposite of the word
cy was known. Processes are imper-
“endorsement” used in the
fect, but the government must demon-
passage?
strate its scientific disinterest when
1) Approval 2) sanction
evidence is wanting.
3) refusal 4) oppose 5) criticise
15. Why is the presence of Union
minister presence at Coronil event 21. Why does the author say
condemned by the author? “processes are imperfect”?
A. Coronil is manufactured by a 1) Coronil got approval for export
private company 2) Biocon drug is advertised as
B. Being a doctor Union minister is “breakthrough drug”
barred from promoting a drug 3) Drugs were approved without
following the procedures
C. Coronil is just a concoction of
4) Drugs are administered to
herbs
patients without their knowledge
D. WHO did not approve Coronil
5) None of the above
1) A 2) A, B 3) A, B, C
22. Does the author think that the
4) D 5) All the above
government is biased towards
16. According to the passage, which of
Coronil? Which statement from the
the following statements are true
passage supports your argument?
about Coronil?
1) Yes, Coronil event is attended by
A. Coronil is concoction of herbs
Union Health Minister
mentioned in Ayurveda
2) No, Allopathic drugs such as
B. Coronil is endorsed by WHO
hydroxychloroquine, itolizumba
C. Coronil is deployed into India’s
were also given approval without
COVID-19 management protocol
proper trials
D. Coronil can be used in COVID
3) Yes, itolizumba is advertised as
treatment and is an immunity
“breakthrough drug”
booster
4) Yes Coronil got approval for
1) A 2) A, D 3) B
exporting.
4) C 5) None of the above
5) None of the above
17. Choose the word which is closest
sNªÞœê¦ ví£øŒoõª ¸ôí£æ¨ ›í@ö˺xz
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 17

SBI
No. of Questions: 100
JUNIOR ASSOCIATES
PRELIMS MODEL PAPER
Max. Marks: 100 Time: 1 Hour þ¼÷ªî¦ô¢Ù Wû 28, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net

sEìoæ¨ ›í@ êŸô¢ªî¦ô³z
Directions (Qs.23-26): The sentence
has a blank which indicates something
has been omitted. Which of the follow-
ing words given against the sentence,
fit the blank in the given sentence both
grammatically and meaningfully?
23. His ........ of the safety regulations
really can’t be ignored any longer.
1) disregard 2) unfamiliarity
3) carelessness 4) inattention
5) None of these
24. Let’s .......... the place, it looks so
gloomy and unpleasant.
1) miss 2) abandon
3) depart 4) disappear
5) None of these
25. For a short while, I managed to
catch ......... of the President enter-
ing the palace.
1) vision
4) sight
2) notice
5) None of these
3) view
26. It was the commission’s job to
decide whether the pilot was .........
for the crash that occurred right
after the take-off.
1) responsible 2) prone 3) guilty
4) comprehensive 5) None of these
Directions (Qs.27-30): In this question is
divides into four parts denoted by (A),
(B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read
the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error
if any, will be in one part of the sen-
tence. That part is the answer. If there
is no error, the answer is “No error”.
Ignore the errors of punctuation if any.
27. People used to (1)/ be afraid by that
the (2)/ gypsies might carry (3)/
their children off (4)./ No error (5)
28. A delegation of Parliament of
Members (1)/ from Punjab met
Union Home Minister Amit Shah
(2)/ on Saturday to seek the
resumption of train services (3)/ to
the State stopped from September
(4)./ No error (5)
29. Despite the abrupt of (1)/ the DDC
elections in terms of timing, it is
important that this (2)/ sacred
space in democracy is not allowed
to be (3)/ invaded and marauded
by divisive forces (4)./ No error (5)
30. The Parliament construction (1)/
work is like to start in December,
(2)/ according to the architects of
the project, (3)/ HCP Design,
Planning and Management (4)./ No
error (5)
NUMERICAL ABILITY
Directions (Qs.31-40): What will come in
place of question mark (?) in the given
questions?
F F F
32 × 24 × 12 1) 480 2) 560 3) 360 annual profit, what was B’s share and 2015 to that of difference 500 km. If both trains reach their
31. ————— = 3 9 −?
4) 448 5) 540 in the annual profit? between 2018 and 2019? destination in 25 hours and 36
25
45. The boat travels from A to B 1) Rs. 7500 2) Rs. 8000 1) 7 : 5 2) 2 : 3 3) 6 : 11 hours respectively after meeting,
1) 1 2) 7 3) 6 4) 3 5) 5
upstream in the same time as 3) Rs. 7200 4) Rs. 6400 5) Rs. 8400 4) 11 : 12 5) 9 : 11 then
32. 75% of 50% of ? = 35% of 60
taken by the boat while travelling Directions (Qs.51-55) In this questions a Directions (Qs.61-65): Given below are Quantity I: Speed of train moving
1) 58.5 2) 62.5 3) 56
from B to C downstream. The number series is given. Only one num- two quantities named I and II. Based from Q to P
4) 51 5) 67.5
respective ratio between speed of ber is wrong which doesn’t fit in the on the given information, you have to Quantity II: Speed of train moving
33. 75% of 920 − ?% of 120 = 654 the boat downstream and the from P to Q
series. Find out the wrong number? determine the relationship between the
1) 30 2) 20 3) 10 4) 25 5) 35 speed of the boat upstream is 3 : 51. 26 35 60 109 230 386 688 1) Quantity I > Quantity II
two quantities.
34. 460 − 180 − ? = 132 2. If the distance travelled 1) 35 2) 230 3) 386 4) 60 5) 26 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
61. Quantity I: An article is sold for
1) 99 2) 111 3) 121 upstream is 12 km less than the 52. 8 10 18 28 48 78 120 Rs.20000. The shopkeeper 3) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
4) 129 5) 139 distance travelled downstream,
1) 78 2) 18 3) 28 4) 48 5) 10 marked 45% above the cost price 4) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
9 what is the distance between A and he gets overall 25% profit on
35. (6.5 − 2.5)2 ×  = 23 53. 7 11 27 63 113 227 371 5) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation
and B? (in km) cost price. What is the marked
? 1) 11 2) 227 3) 27 4) 113 5) 63 cannot be determined
1) 18 2) 24 3) 12 4) 15 5) 36 price of the article?
1) 24 2) 15 3) 22 4) 20 5) 18 54. 13 126 140 265 201 228 220
36. 460 ÷ 3 × 15 = 3200 − ?
46. A shopkeeper gave 20% discount Quantity II: 23200 REASONING
on the marked price of an item, 1) 201 2) 126 3) 228 4) 140 5) 265
1) 750 2) 800 3) 900 55. 18 11 13 21.5 45 118 345.5 1) Quantity I < Quantity II Direction (Qs.66-70) : Study the following
thereby earning a profit of 28%.
4) 1100 5) 700 1) 118 2) 13 3) 45 4) 11 5) 21.5 2) Quantity I > Quantity II information and answer the questions:
Had he given a discount of
3) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II Eight people - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H
37. (46 − 29)2 − (22 −14)2 = ?2 Rs.360, his profit would have been Directions (Qs.56-60): Study the given
4) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II live on eight different floors of a building
1) 25 2) 35 3) 15 4) 20 5) 5 12%. What was the cost price (in graph carefully to answer the ques-
but not necessarily in the same order.
( 4
5
3
4 )
38. 1  + 2  × 40 = ?
Rupees) of the item?
1) 780 2) 750 3) 640 4) 800 5) 720
tions that follow.
The given graph shows the number of
people (in thousands) using mobiles of
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation
cannot be determined
62. Quantity I: A dishonest dealer
The lower most floor of the building is
numbered one, the one above that is
1) 138 2) 164 3) 182 47. Sam and Tanmay invested differ- numbered two and so on till the top most
ent sums, for three years and five different companies. promises to sell his goods at a 25%
4) 142 5) 152 floor is numbered eight. A lives on floor
years respectively, in scheme A loss but uses 30% less weight. Find
39. 60% of (415 − ?) = 174 numbered six. Only one person lives
offering X% p.a. simple interest. approximate profit percentage?
1) 225 2) 145 3) 150 between A and F. Only three people live
Sum invested by Tanmay is Quantity II: 50
4) 175 5) 125 between F and C. H lives immediately
Rs. 3200 less than that invested by 1) Quantity I < Quantity II below C. E lives on an even numbered
40. 12354 + 8457 − ? = 10976 Sam. The interests received by 2) Quantity I > Quantity II floor below H. There are as many peo-
1) 9422 2) 9582 3) 8392 both Sam and Tanmay are equal. 3) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II ple living between B and D as there are
4) 10182 5) 9835 What was the sum (in Rupees)
4) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II between D and G. G lives neither imme-
41. Side of a square field is thrice the invested by Tanmay? diately above nor immediately below F.
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation
radius of a circular field. The differ- 1) 3200 2) 4200 3) 3600 66. Four of the following five are alike
cannot be determined
ence between the areas of the 4) 4800 5) 5400 in a certain way as per the given
56. What is the average number of 63. Quantity I: 4 years ago age of wife
square field and the circular field is 48. Six years ago, the respective ratio arrangement and thus form a
is 75% of her husband and 4 years
287 m2 . What is the cost of fenc- between A’s and B’s ages at that people using realme mobiles for all
group. Which of the following does
the years together? hence sum of their ages will be 65.
ing the square field at the rate of time was 3 : 4. A’s age two years not belong to that group?
What is the age of their son whose
Rs.11 per meter? (in Rupees) from now will be equal to B’s age 1) 15000 2) 16500 3) 18000
age is difference between their 1) AC 2) FG 3) EB 4) HF 5) DA
1) 1232 2) 924 3) 616 seven years ago. What is the sum 4) 17500 5) 19000 present ages? 67. Who lives exactly between the
4) 308 5) 912 of the present ages of A and B? (in 57. The total number of people using Quantity II: floors on which A and H live ?
42. A jar contains a mixture (X litre) of Years) all the three mobiles in the year  1) C 2) G 3) No one 4) E 5) D
milk and water in the respective 1) 75 2) 60 3) 80 4) 76 5) 84 2019 is what percent of the total √50% of 1350 − 324 + 343 ÷ 7 = x
68. If all people are made to live in
ratio of 5 : 1. Twelve litre of the mix- 49. Rohan gave 70% of his monthly number of people using all the 1) Quantity I > Quantity II
alphabetical order, from top to bot-
ture is taken out. Seven litre of milk salary to his wife Reema and the three mobiles in the year 2016? 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
tom, the position(s) of how many
and eight litre of water is added to remaining he invested in mutual 1) 81.82% 2) 75.76% 3) 89.9% 3) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II people will remain unchanged?
the resultant mixture, as a result of funds. Out of the money Reema 4) 74.75% 5) 92.93% 4) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
1) Three 2) More than three
which the respective ratio of milk got, she spent 30% on groceries, 5) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation
58. The number of people using 3) None 4) One 5) Two
and water in the resultant mixture 30% on rent and the remaining Samsung mobiles in the year 2017 cannot be determined
becomes 9 : 4. What is the value of amount she spent on buying gold 69. Who amongst the following lives
and 2015 is approximately what 258 on the topmost floor (i.e. floor num-
X? and furniture in the respective ratio 64. Quantity I: 
percent of the total number of peo- 301 bered eight)?
1) 48 2) 24 3) 36 4) 42 5) 34 of 5 : 3. If she spent Rs.7350 on ple using all the three mobiles in Quantity II: A group of 5 pebbles is
43. 16 men can complete a project in buying gold, how much did Rohan 1) F
those years? to be formed from a box of 4 red
35 days. 28 men started working invest in mutual funds? 2) Other than those given as options
1) 21.5 2) 27.8 3) 29.4 color and 3 blue color. What is the
on the project. If after 4 days, 12 1) Rs.12,600 2) Rs.12,000 3) B 4) C 5) G
4) 31.5 5) 33.1 probability that the group has at
men left, in how many days was 3) Rs.12,900 4) Rs.13,500 70. Which of the following is true about
59. In which year percentage of people least two blue color?
the remaining project completed? 5) Rs.14,400 B?
using redmi mobiles is second 1) Quantity I > Quantity II
1) 14 2) 21 3) 28 4) 35 5) 20 50. A and B started a business with 1) B lives on an even numbered floor
highest out of total number of peo- 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
44. The number of chocolates each certain Investments. Sum invested ple using all the three mobiles in 2) All the given statements are true
3) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
child got when X number of choco- by B was thrice of that invested by that year? 3) Only three people live between B
lates were distributed among six- 4) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
A. Four months after the start of and C
1) 2017 2) 2016 3) 2018 5) Quantity I = Quantity II or relation
teen children, were six less than business, C joined with twice the 4) B lives on the lowermost floor
what each child got when X + 60 4) 2015 5) 2019 cannot be determined
sum invested by A and six months 5) A lives on a floor immediately
number of chocolates were distrib- after the start of business C dou- 60. What is the respective ratio of dif- 65. Two trains are moving with uniform
above B
uted among 15 children. What is bled his investment. If C got ference between number of people speeds from P and Q respectively.
the value of X? Rs. 5600 as his share from the using all the three mobiles in 2014 Distance between Q and P is sNªÞœê¦ ví£øŒoõª, Ú© ¸ôí£æ¨ ›í@ö˺xz
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 17
JUNIOR ASSOCIATES
SBI
No. of Questions: 100
PRELIMS MODEL PAPER
Max. Marks: 100 Time: 1 Hour ÷ªÙÞœüŒî¦ô¢Ù Wû 29, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net

table. M sits second to the right of N the question Directions (Qs.86-87): In this question, 91. What is the position of P with 98. Statements:
sEìoæ¨ êŸô¢ªî¦ô³z l Only two people sit between M and J 4) The data even in both statements I relationship between different ele- respect to Q? All apples are grapes.
Directions (Qs.71-72): Study the follow- l I sits second to the right of J. Only and II together are not sufficient to ments is shown in the statements. The 1) Third to the right Some grapes are oranges.
ing information carefully to answer the three people sit between I and O. answer the question statements are followed by two conclu- 2) Second to the right Only a few oranges are kiwis.
given questions : l K faces the same direction as O (i.e. if 5) The data in statement I alone are suf- sions. Study the conclusions based on 3) Third to the left Conclusions:
Point L is 18 m to the West of point M. O faces the centre then K also faces ficient to answer the question, while the given statement and select the
4) Second to the left I. Some oranges are not kiwi.
Point M is 10 m to the South of point N. the centre and vice versa) the data in statement II alone are not appropriate answer.
5) Fourth to the right II. No apple is a orange.
Point N is 9 m to the East of point O. l L is not an immediate neighbour of J. sufficient to answer the question 86. Statement: N ≤ H = Q ≤ S > U ≥ B
92. Four of the given five are alike in a 1) Either I or II follows.
Point O is 6 m to the North of point P. 78. Which of the following is true 84. Among five candidates S, T, U, V Conclusions: I. S ≥ N II. Q ≤ B certain way based on the given
and W who scored the least in an 2) Neither I nor II follows.
71. If point R is 10 m to the North of regarding N? 1) Neither conclusion I nor II is true arrangement and hence form a
examination? (Each candidate 3) Both I and II follow.
point P, then which of the following 1) N sits second to the right of M 2) Only conclusion II is true group. Which of them does not
will be the nearest point to point R ? scored a different score) 4) Only conclusion I follows .
2) N is an immediate neighbour of P 3) Only conclusion I is true belong to that group ?
1) N 2) M 3) P 4) O 5) L I. T scored more than V but not the 5) Only conclusion II follows.
3) None of the given options is true 4) Either conclusion I or II is true 1) G 2) P 3) H 4) S 5) O
72. In which direction is point L with highest. S scored less than V but 99. Statements:
4) Both I and K are immediate neigh- 5) Both conclusions I and II are true Directions (Qs.93-97): Study the follow-
respect to point P ? more than W. Only a few bags are books.
bours of N 87. Statement: B ≥ L ≤ M ≥ O = H > W ing information carefully and answer
1) North-West 2) South-East II. S scored less than U and T but not the questions given below. Only a few books are erasers.
5) Only three people sit between N Conclusions: I. L > W II. O ≤ B
the least. T did not score the high- Only erasers are pencils.
3) South 4) west 5) South-West and L 1) Only Conclusion II is true Eight persons B, C, H, L, N, R, T, and
est. V scored more than S but less
Directions (Qs.73-77) : Study the given 79. Four of the following five are alike Y living in a four-floor building such that Conclusions:
than U. 2) Only Conclusion I is true
series carefully to answer the given in a certain way and so form a the ground floor is numbered as 1, I. All books are bags is a possibility.
1) The data in both statements I and II 3) Either Conclusion I or II is true above it is floor 2 and then the top floor
questions : 5 8 # B F L E 4 * M J 9 G N group. Which is the one that does II. No bag is eraser.
together are necessary to answer 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II is true is numbered as 4. Each floor has two
2W3+S4?$PQ6R7&HT not belong to that group? 1) Only conclusion I follows.
the question 5) Both Conclusions I and II are true flats i.e. flat-1 and flat-2. flat-1 is in the
73. Four of the following five are alike in 1) O 2) N 3) K 4) I 5) J 2) Only conclusion II follows.
2) The data in statement I alone are suf- Directions (Qs.88-92): Study the given West of flat-2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is imme-
a certain way based on their posi- 80. How many people sit between L ficient to answer the question, while information carefully and answer the diately above flat-1 of floor-1 and 3) Either I or II follows.
tions in the given arrangement and and K when counted from the left the data in statement II alone are not given questions: immediately below flat-1 of floor-3 and 4) Neither I nor II follows.
so form a group. Which is the one side of L? sufficient to answer the question so on. L is living North-East of B and liv- 5) Both I and II follow.
that does not belong to the group? 1) Two 2) Four 3) One Twelve people are sitting in two par-
3) The data either in statement I alone allel rows containing six people each, ing below H in the same flat. B is living 100. Statements:
1) 5#F 2) M9N 3) +4P 4) Three 5) None or statement II alone are sufficient in such a way that there is equal dis- above Y. C is living immediately above Some cows are elephants.
4) JG2 5) R&T 81. Who sits to the immediate left of K? to answer the question tance between adjacent persons. In R and both living in the same flat. T is
74. What should come in place of the Only a few dogs are cats.
1) L 2) N 3) I 4) M 5) J 4) The data in statement II alone are row-1 O, P, Q, R, S and T are seated living immediately below N and both liv-
question mark (?) in the following No cat is elephant.
82. What is the position of P with sufficient to answer the question, and all of them are facing South. In ing in the same flat but not living on the
series based on the given arrange- respect to O? while the data in statement I alone same floor as either H or L. Conclusions:
row-2 G, H, I, J, K and L are seated
ment? 1) Third to the left are not sufficient to answer the I. Some cows are not cats.
and all of them are facing North. 93. Who is living on the North of L?
FE4 M9G 23+ 4$P ? 2) Second to the left question Therefore in the given seating arrange- II. All dogs can be cats.
1) N 2) T 3) B 4) C 5) H
1) QR7 2) Q7& 3) 6RH 3) Third to the right 5) The data even in both statements I ment each member seated in a row 1) Either I or II follows.
94. How many persons are living
4) 67& 5) 6HT 4) Second to the right and II together are not sufficient to faces another member of the other below L? 2) Neither I nor II follows.
75. If all the symbols are dropped from 5) Fifth to the left answer the question row. (Note: None of the information 1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 3) Only conclusion I follows.
the arrangement then which one of 85. On which day of the same week given is necessarily in the same order.)
Directions (Qs.83-85): This question con- 4) Five 5) Six 4) Only conclusion II follows.
the following will be the fourteenth (starting from Monday to Sunday) I sits third to the right of L. I does not sit
sists of a question and two statements 95. Four of the following five are alike 5) Both I and II follow.
element from the right end of the did Raman complete his gradua- at any of the extreme ends of the
numbered I and II given below it. You in a certain way and hence form a
given arrangement? tion? line. The one who faces L sits second KEY
have to decide whether the data given in group, which one doesn't belong to
1) S 2) G 3) N 4) M 5) E the statements are sufficient to answer I. Raman's brother correctly remem- to the right of R. R sits second to the 1-3 21-3 41-2 61-5 81-1
that group?
76. How many such letters are there in the questions. Read both the statements bers that he completed his gradua- right of O. Only two people sit between 2-2 22-2 42-3 62-1 82-3
R and S. S faces J. Only one person 1) H-C 2) T-Y 3) R-L
the given arrangement, each of and choose the most appropriate option. tion after Tuesday but before Friday.
4) B-N 5) L-N 3-4 23-1 43-3 63-2 83-3
which is immediately followed by a II. Raman's friend correctly remembers sits between S and Q. T sits to the
83. In a straight line of eight people (all 4-3 24-2 44-1 64-5 84-3
symbol and also immediately pre- that he completed his graduation after immediate right of P. K sits to the 96. Who among the following lives in
facing North), who stands third 5-2 25-4 45-2 65-2 85-4
ceded by a number? Wednesday but before Saturday immediate right of G. flat-2 of 3rd floor?
from the left end of the line? 6-5 26-1 46-2 66-1 86-3
1) None 2) More than three I. D stands at an extreme end of the 1) The data either in statement I alone 88. Who amongst the following is 1) H 2) L 3) B 4) T 5) N
facing T? 7-1 27-2 47-5 67-3 87-4
3) Three 4) Two 5) One line. Only three people stand or statement II alone are sufficient 97. Who among the following lives with
to answer the question 1) K 2) I 3) G 4) L 5) H R in the same floor? 8-1 28-1 48-1 68-3 88-4
77. Which of the following is eighth to between D and N. T stands to the
the left of the nineteenth from the 2) The data in statement I alone are suf- 9-4 29-1 49-1 69-4 89-2
immediate left of N. 89. Who amongst the following is 1) L 2) C 3) B 4) T 5) Y
left end of the given arrangement? ficient to answer the question, while 10-1 30-2 50-3 70-5 90-3
II. L stands third from the right end of facing G? Directions (Qs.98-100): Study the fol-
1) 9 2) J 3) M 4) 4 5) L the line. Only one person stands the data in statement II alone are not lowing information carefully and 11-4 31-5 51-3 71-4 91-2
1) W 2) P 3) R 4) T 5) O
Directions (Qs.78-82): Study the follow- between L and N. B is an immedi- sufficient to answer the question answer the questions given below. In 12-3 32-3 52-2 72-5 92-4
90. Which of the following statements
ing Information carefully and answer ate neighbour of N. 3) The data in statement II alone are each of the questions below are 13-1 33-1 53-4 73-3 93-5
is true regarding H?
the given questions: 1) The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, given three statements followed by 14-1 34-2 54-2 74-4 94-3
while the data in statement I alone 1) L sits to second to the right of H 15-2
Eight friends. I, J, K, L, M, N, O and sufficient to answer the question, two conclusions numbered I and II. 35-5 55-1 75-2 95-5
while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the 2) H faces one of the immediate You have to take the given state- 16-2
P are sitting around a square table in 36-3 56-4 76-1 96-2
are not sufficient to answer the question neighbours of R ments to be true even if they seem to
such a way that four of them sit at four 17-1 37-3 57-1 77-2 97-1
corners while four sit in the middle of question 4) The data in both statements I and II 3) Only two people sit between be at variance with commonly known 18-2 38-3 58-4 78-5 98-4
each of the four sides. The ones who 2) The data either in statement I alone together are necessary to answer H and G facts. Read all the conclusions and 19-1 39-5 59-2 79-2 99-1
sit at the four corners face the centre or statement II alone are sufficient the question 4) None of the given statements is then decide which of the given con-
20-3 40-5 60-2 80-5 100-3
while those who sit in the middle of the to answer the question 5) The data even in both statements I true clusions logically follow from the
sides face outside. 3) The data in both statements I and II and II together are not sufficient to 5) K is one of the immediate given statements, disregarding com- This model paper was prepared by
l N sits at one of the corners of the together are necessary to answer answer the question neighbour of H monly known facts. Give answer.... subject experts of Sreedhar's CCE

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 ñªëÅ]î¦ô¢Ù Wû 30, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17

National
All India Survey on Higher
Education 2019-20
All India Survey on Higher Education
2019-20 which provides key perfor-
mance indicators on the current sta-
tus of higher education in the country
was released by the Union Education
Minister Ramesh Pokhriyal ‘Nishank’
on 10 June 2021.
assistance every month.
As per the announcement, Rs.2,500
per month will be provided to the chil-
dren who have lost both parents to
Covid-19 and Rs.1500 per month to
those who have lost a single parent to
the virus on or after April 1, 2020.
The assistance will not be provided
in case the child has been adopted.
NMHC development
oxygen plants, concentrators, and
ventilators.
iDEX
On 13 June 2021, the Government of
India approved budgetary support of
Rs.498.8 crore to Innovations for
Defence Excellence (iDEX) - Defence
Innovation Organisation (DIO) for the
next 5 years.
The budgetary support will provide
a big boost to the ‘Aatmanirbhar
Bharat Abhiyan’ as iDEX-DIO has the
primary objective of self-reliance and
indigenisation in the defence and
aerospace sector of the country.

Who won the ‘Land for Life Award’?

The report revealed that in the last
five years from 2015-16 to 2019-20,
there has been a growth of 11.4% in
student enrolment. There is a rise in
female enrolment in higher education
during the period is 18.2%. The total
enrolment in higher education stands
at 3.85 crore in 2019-20 as compared
to 3.74 crore in 2018-19, registering a
growth of 11.36 lakh (3.04%).
Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER), the
percentage of students belonging to
the eligible age group enrolled in
higher education, in 2019-20 is
27.1% against 26.3% in 2018-19.
Pupil-Teacher Ratio in higher edu-
cation in 2019-20 is 26. Gender
Parity Index (GPI) in Higher
Education in 2019-20 is 1.01 against
1.00 in 2018-19 indicating an
improvement in the relative access to
higher education for females of eligi-
ble age group compared to males.
The minister also said that the
number of Institutions of National
importance increased 80% from 75 in
2015 to 135 in 2020.
Ashirbad
On 20 June 2021, Odisha Chief
Minister Naveen Patnaik announced
Ashirbad, a scheme under which
those children who lost their parents
to Covid-19 will be provided financial
International
NATO Summit
The North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(NATO) Summit was held in Brussels,
Belgium on 14 June 2021.
It is the 31st formal meeting of the
heads of state and heads of govern-
ment of NATO.
The leaders agreed to have the
‘NATO 2030 Agenda’, which will be a
comprehensive initiative that will
ensure that NATO is ready to face
future challenges.
The agenda will strengthen political
consultation, the resilience of society,
reinforce defence and deterrence.
The Ministry of Culture and Ministry
of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
signed MOU for ‘Cooperation in
Development of National Maritime
Heritage Complex (NMHC) at Lothal,
Gujarat’ in New Delhi on 16 June
2021.
The NMHC is the country’s first of
its kind complex facility which is
meant for the legacy of the maritime
heritage of India
NMHC would be developed in an
area of about 400 acres with various
unique structures such as National
Maritime Heritage Museum, Light
House Museum, Heritage Theme
Park, Museum Themed Hotels &
Maritime themed eco-resorts,
Maritime Institute etc. which would be
developed in a phased manner.
'Project O2 for India'
On 13 June 2021, the Government of
India launched 'Project O2 for India'
to step up the production of medical
oxygen to meet the potential increase
in demand due to further waves of the
pandemic.
Under the project, the 'National
Consortium of Oxygen' is enabling
the supply of critical raw materials
such as zeolites, setting up of small
oxygen plants, manufacturing com-
pressors, final products such as
The meeting agreed to a new cyber
defence policy to have secured politi-
cal consultations, technological capa-
bilities and military planning.
ADMM Plus 2021
On 16 June 2021, the defence minister
Rajnath Singh attended the 8th
ASEAN Defence Ministers Meeting
(ADMM) plus meeting.
Brunei is the Chair of the ADMM
Plus forum this year.
The ADMM Plus is an annual meet-
ing of Defence Ministers of 10 ASEAN
(Association of Southeast Asian
Nations) countries and eight dialogue
partner countries - Australia, China,
Shyam Sundar Jyani
General
Awareness
India, Japan, New Zealand, Republic
of Korea, Russia and the USA.
New Heads of Israel
On 13 June 2021, Naftali Bennett, the
leader of the right-wing Yamina party,
took the oath of office as 13th Prime
Minister of Israel after the Knesset
(Parliament) elected him with a razor-
thin majority of 60-59 in the 120-mem-
ber house.
On 2 June 2021, the Israeli parlia-
ment elected Isaac Herzog, a former
leader of the Labour Party, as the 11th
President. He won the presidency after
defeating rival candidate Miriam Peretz
by 87 votes. Herzog will assume the
office next month and will succeed
Reuven Rivlin.
For more Information see
today’s Telangana Edition
Others
7th International Day of Yoga
The 7th International Day of Yoga
was celebrated on 21 June 2021. This
year, the theme of International Yoga
Day is ‘Yoga For Wellness’.
On this eve, PM Modi launched a
mYoga app in collaboration with WHO
(World Health Organisation) that will
help fulfil the motto of ‘One World, One
Health’. This app comes preloaded with
many yoga training videos that are
based on common yoga protocol and in
multiple languages. The Ministry of
Culture celebrated the day at 75 cultural
heritage locations across the country.
Land for Life Award
The Rajasthan-based climate activist
Shyam Sundar Jyani, won the presti-
gious United Nations' ‘Land for Life
Award’ for his environment conserva-
Model Questions
1. Indian Broadcasting Foundation
(IBF) announced the appointment
of whom as the Chairman of its
newly formed self-regulatory body
Digital Media Content Regulatory
Council (DMCRC)?
1) Rohinton Fali Nariman
2) Uday U. Lalit
3) Ajay Manikrao Khanwilkar
4) Vikramajit Sen 5) Chandrachud
2. The Central European University
awards its highest honour, the
Open Society Prize, to whom for
her determined leadership and
community-based public health
work, saving lives during the pan-
demic?
1) Soumya Sen
2) Ajitha Gotimukul 3) k Ramani
tion concept, ‘Familial Forestry’. award was given under the theme
On 17 June 2021, UN Convention to "Healthy Land, Healthy Lives".
Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
announced the award to him, who is an
International Olympic Day
associate professor of Sociology in International Olympic Day observed
Rajasthan's Bikaner, has been cam- every year on 23 June.
paigning for Familial Forestry for over
The Olympic Day was announced in
15 years.
1948 to honour the birth of the modern
Familial Forestry means transferring Olympic Games on 23 June 1894 at the
the care of the tree and environment in Sorbonne in Paris. The day’s theme is
the family so that a tree becomes a part 'Stay healthy, stay strong, stay active
of the family's consciousness. with the #OlympicDay workout on 23
More than a million families from more June'.
than 15,000 villages of desert-prone The day observed to encourage par-
northwest Rajasthan in over 2.5 million
ticipation in sport across the globe
saplings have been planted in the past regardless of age, gender, or athletic
15 years, with the active participation of ability.
students and desert dwellers under the
Familial Forestry campaign.
The Land for Life Award was
launched at the UNCCD COP10 in
Writer
the Republic of Korea as part of the
Changwon Initiative. This year the
Amara Veeraswamy
Subject Expert
4) Dr.Sudha Rani 5) K.K. Shailaja 3) Pham Minh Chinh- Vietnam
3) French Grand Prix won by....? 4) KP Sharma Oli- Nepal
1) Max Verstappen 5) All of the above
2) Lewis Hamilton 6. UN Public Service Day observed on....
3) Valtteri Bottas 1) 23 June 2) 11 June 3) 7 June
4) Lando Norris 5) Charles Leclerc 4) 1 July 5)18 June
4. Weyan village in Bandipora district 7. which Space technology start-up
of.... became the first village in India successfully tested India's first pri-
to achieve 100 per cent vaccination vately developed hall-effect
of eligible adults against COVID-19. thruster, an electric propulsion
1) Kerala 2) Chhattisgarh engine for microsatellites weigh-
3) Jammu and Kashmir ing 50-500 kg?
1) Agnikul Cosmos 2) Pixxel
4)Tamil Nadu 5) Assam
3) Bellatrix Aerospace
5. The list of Prime Ministers elected/
appointed are given below. The 4) Skyroot Aerospace
correct combination is....? 5) Rosto Aerospace
1) Henri Dondra- Central African
Republic Answers
2) Anatole Collinet Makosso-
1-4 2-5 3-1 4-3
5-5 6-1 7-3
Republic of Congo

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1.- ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÖÚÛ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù, ÍÙë]ªö˺ ÷ªôÁ ÷”êŸhÙ
∴ ÷”êŸh jø‹õuÙ ÓÚÛª\÷, 33 àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª.-
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3
÷«uëÇ]æ¨ÚÂq 8 8
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1 ∴ a = 44
7 2
šúÙ.-Oª.-
ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# Ñû¦oô³.- Î ·ôÙè[ª ÷”ê¦hõ ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo  
3. ÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÖÚÛ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Î ÷”êŸh- 6.- àŸêŸªô¢vú£Ù ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÍÙêŸJxIÙ# ÑÙC. ë¯E = √ 2a = √ 2 × 44
àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ ÚÛô¢gÙ -
÷”ê¦h-Ú¥ô¢ ò°å jø‹õuÙ 16π àŸ.-óŸ´.- Íô³ê¶ Î ë]ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù, àŸêŸªô¢vú£ jø‹õuÙ = ÷”êŸh jø‹õuÙ 
í£-JCÅ 100 šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶ Î àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ òÅ¡ªáÙ ‘a’ óŸ´.- Î àŸêŸª-ô¢-vú£Ùö˺ ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙ = 44√ 2 šúÙ.-Oª.-
àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ jø‹õuÙ ÓÙêŸ? sàŸ.-óŸ´.-õö˺z a2 = π r 2
ð»è[÷±? sšúÙ.Oª.õöË 
ºz 
ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Íô³ê¶ ò°ï£°u, ÍÙêŸô¢ ÷”êŸh ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 4
1) 32 2) 48 3) 64 4) 72 a2 a 2
þ§ëÅ]ì:- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ
100 100√ 2
1) - 2)  3)  4) 50 π √ 2
50√ 2  ⇒  = π ⇒  = π
r2 r
( ) jø‹-ö°uõ Eù£pAh ÓÙêŸ?
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 :- 1 3) 1 : √ 2
 
4) √ 2 : 1 ÍòÅ°uú£ ú£÷ª-ú£uõª
π π π 
=- a Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- a  √π þ§-ëÅ]ì:- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ =- a óŸ´.-
þ§ëÅ]ì:- í£åÙö˺, àŸ-꟪-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ = a,- ⇒  = √ π =  1.- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Î
ñóŸªæ¨, ö˺í£L ÷”êŸh ↑
a

R
÷”êŸh-î¦u-þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ =- r Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- r

1 ò°ï£°u-÷”êŸh î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ =- R,
î¦uþ§-ô¦ÌÄõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ 2
O ⇒ a : r = √π : 1 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 àŸêŸª-ô¢-vú£Ùö˺ ÷ªôÁ ÷”ê¦hEo ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙà¦ô¢ª.-
↓
r -÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÖÚÛ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸô¢ ÷”êŸh î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ =- r ·ôÙè[ª ÷”ê¦hõ ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo ÷”ê¦h-Ú¥ô¢ ò°å
= R, r ÍìªÚÁÙè….- 5.- í£åÙö˺ àŸ«í‡ìåªx ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺
ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙç˶, àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- jø‹õuÙ 9π àŸ.-óŸ´.- Íô³ê¶ Î àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£
a→

ë]-ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù,
√ 

ÚÛô¢gÙ =- ÷”êŸh î¦uú£Ù àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.-

2

←a→ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÍÙêŸ-Jx- jø‹õuÙ ÓÙêŸ? sàŸ.-óŸ´.-õö˺)

=

·ôÙè[ª ÷”ê¦hõ ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo ÷”ê¦h- Î àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ a.

d

⇒ √2 a = d IÙ# ÑÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d



1) 9 2) 18 3) 36 4) 72

←

Ú¥ô¢ ò°å jø‹õuÙ =- 16 π àŸ.-óŸ´. ⇒ √ 2 a = 2r

Íô³ê¶ í£åÙö˺ ›ùè à¶ú‡ì àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ ÚÛô¢gÙ =- ò°ï£°u ←a→
2.- ÖÚÛ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ àŸªåªd-Ú•-õêŸ 22 šúÙ.-Oª, ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸh
⇒ π (R2 − r2) = 16π vð§ÙêŸ îµjø‹õuÙ ÓÙêŸ?
⇒ R2 − r2 = 16 → (1)
2r

÷”êŸh î¦uú£Ù í£JCÅ 22 šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶ Î ·ôÙè…Ù-æ¨ö˺ ë¶E
⇒ a = 
 → (1) sàŸ.-óŸ´.-õö˺z √ 2a = 2R jø‹õuÙ ÓÚÛª\÷? ÓÙêŸ ÓÚÛª\÷?
a 2 √2 (3π + 2)a2 
í£åÙ ìªÙ#; R2 = r2 +  ( ) 1)  √ 2a
a 1) àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù, 8.-5 šúÙ.-Oª.2
2R

2 ë]-ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù, ÷”êŸh-í£-JCÅ -= 100 šúÙ.-Oª.- 8 ⇒R==  óŸ´.-

=

2 √2 2) ÷”êŸhÙ, 8.2-5 šúÙ.-Oª.-2

d

a2 ⇒ 2πr = 100 (3π + 2)a2

⇒ (R 2 − r 2) =  2)  a
←a→ 3) àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù, 17 šúÙ.-Oª.2
4 100 50 4 ∴R= óŸ´.-
⇒ r =  =  šúÙ.-Oª.- √2 4) ÷”êŸhÙ, 17 šúÙ.-Oª.2
⇒ a 2 = 4(R2 − r 2) 2π π (3π + 2)a2
50
r =  šúÙ.-Oª.-ìª (1) ö˺ ví£A-¸¤-í‡Ù-àŸÞ¥, 3)  àŸêŸª-ô¢-vú£Ùö˺ ÷”êŸhÙ ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC. 3.- ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Î
⇒ a 2 = 4 × 16 = 64
∴ àŸ-꟪-ô¢vú£ jø‹õuÙ àŸ.-óŸ´.-
(a2) = 64
π

2 Ú¥ñæ¨d, àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ =- ÍÙêŸ-ô¢- ÷”êŸh î¦uú£Ù ÷”êŸh î¦uú£Ù 15-√2 šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶ Î àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£
2 50  50 50√ 2 4) (3π + 2)a2 a = 2r òÅ¡ªáÙ ð»è[÷± ÓÙêŸ? sšúÙ.-Oª.-õö˺)
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 a = 
 ×  = √ 2 ×  =  šúÙ.-Oª.-
√2 π π π þ§-ëÅ]ì:- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ =- a óŸ´.- ⇒r=
a
óŸ´.- 1) 15 2) 30 3) 7.-5 4) 12
2. ÖÚÛ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ àŸªåªd-Ú•-õêŸ 44 šúÙ.-Oª.-, ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸh 
50√ 2 2 4.- ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Î
í£JCÅ 44 šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶, Î ·ôÙè…Ù-æ¨ö˺ ë¶E ∴ a = 
π - šúÙ.-Oª. ÷”êŸhÙö˺ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d a àŸêŸª-ô¢-vú£Ùö˺ ÷ªôÁ ÷”êŸhÙ ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.-
jø‹õuÙ ÓÚÛª\÷? ÓÙêŸ ÓÚÛª\÷? ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ ÚÛô¢gÙ =- ÷”êŸh î¦uú£Ù ⇒ √2 a = 2r ∴r=
2
óŸ´.-
←a→ Íô³ê¶ ò°ï£°u-÷”êŸhÙ, àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù, ÍÙêŸô¢ ÷”êŸh
1) àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù, 33 àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª. 4.- ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙ, àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ jø‹-ö°uõª ú£÷«ìÙ. Íô³ê¶, √ 2a a
àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªâ°-EÚ¨, ÷”êŸh î¦uþ§-ô¦ÌÄ-EÚ¨ ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo ⇒ r =  =   óŸ´.-
ò°ï£°u ÷”êŸh jø‹õuÙ : ÍÙêŸô¢ ÷”êŸh jø‹õu٠jø‹-ö°uõ Eù£pAh ÓÙêŸ?
-2) ÷”êŸhÙ, 66 àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª.- 2 √ 2 =- π R 2 : π r 2 1) 14 : 7 : 11 2) 11 : 7 : 14
3) ÷”êŸhÙ, 33 àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª.- Eù£pAh ÓÙêŸ? a
  a 2 a 2
=- π ( 
 ) :- π (  )
∴
÷”êŸh-î¦u-þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ (r) = 
 óŸ´.- 3) 7 : 11 : 14 4) 14 : 11 : 7
4) ·ôÙè…Ùæ¨ îµjø‹-ö°uõª ú£÷«ìÙ. 1) π : 1 2) 1 :- π 3) √ π :- 1 4) 1 :- √ π √2
r 90° r
√2 2
ú£÷«ëůû¦õª
þ§ëÅ]ì:- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ =- a, ÷”êŸh î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ =- r þ§ëÅ]ì:- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ = a, ÷”êŸh î¦þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ = r í£åÙö˺, ›ùè à¶óŸªE vð§ÙêŸ îµjø‹õuÙ πa2 π a2
a
Í-ìª-ÚÁÙè….- Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- =- šúÚÛdô jø‹õuÙ − vAòÅ¡ªá jø‹õuÙ =: -
1-3 -
2-2 -
3-1 4-4
2 4
GH
 ñªëÅ]î¦ô¢Ù Wû 30, 2021 n e-mail:pratibhadesk@eenadu.net 17

The best Liveability city in the world is..?

National
Anemia Mukt Bharat Index
Madhya Pradesh topped with a score
General Awareness June 2021 examined 140 cities world-
wide to quantify the challenges pre-
Navy Ship ESPS Navarra, and two
French Navy Ship FS Tonnerre and FS
of 64.1 in the Anemia Mukt Bharat Development of Ocean Climate CAIMS sented to an individual’s lifestyle in the Surcouf participated.
Index 2020-21. Change Advisory Services, past year, for the first time taking into
The second and third positions are On 11 June 2021, Youth Affairs and account this disrupting global event. DDLD
Technological innovations for explo-
marked by Odisha and Himachal ration and conservation of deep-sea Sports Minister Kiren Rijiju launched On 14 June 2021, PM Narendra Modi
Pradesh respectively. the Central Athlete Injury Management Antonio Guterres re-elected
biodiversity, Deep Ocean Survey and spoke at the opening segment in his
Exploration, Energy and fresh water System (CAIMS) for streamlining the On 18 June 2021, the UNO General capacity as the President of the 14th
The Ministry of Health and Family
from the Ocean and Advanced Marine sports medicine and rehabilitation sup- Assembly appointed Antonio Guterres Session of the Conference of Parties of
Welfare (MoHFW), Government of
Station for Ocean Biology. port offered to the athletes. of Portugal as the UNO Secretary- the United Nations Convention to
India launched the Anemia Mukt Bharat
Program for accelerating the decline in It will start with support for athletes General for a second term beginning 1 Combat Desertification (UNCCD).
anemia prevalence and to achieve the Grievance Redressal Board who are a part of the Target Olympic January 2022, days after the powerful He said that in the last ten years
POSHAN Abhiyaan target of reducing Podium Scheme (TOPS) development Security Council unanimously recom- around 3 million hectares of forest
Internet and Mobile Association of Arjan Kumar Sikri
the prevalence of anemia. group expected to participate in 2024 mended his name to the 193-member cover added in India. It enhanced the
India (IAMAI) appointed Justice (Retd.)
and beyond. TOPS is a flagship pro- body for re-election. combined forest cover to almost one-
Anemia Mukt Bharat strategy was Arjan Kumar Sikri to chair the
gram of the Ministry of Youth Affairs International President of the 75th session of the fourth of the country's total area. He
launched with the target to reduce the Grievance Redressal Board (GRB),
and Sports which is an attempt to assist Global Liveability Index 2021 UN General Assembly Volkan Bozkir addressed the UN “High-Level
condition by 3% per year. formed as a part of the Digital Publisher
the nation’s top athletes, which keep an administered the oath of office of Dialogue on Desertification, Land
Content Grievances Council (DPCGC).
"Deep Ocean Mission" eye in the future and fund a The Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) Guterres at the podium of the UN Degradation and Drought” (DDLD).
The GRB will address content griev- Developmental Group of Athletes who published the Global Liveability Index
To explore the deep ocean for ances about any of the DPCGC mem- General Assembly Hall. This would contribute to India's com-
resources and develop the deep-sea are medal prospects for the Olympic 2021. The data for the survey conduct-
ber’s video streaming services. ed from 22nd Feb 2020 to 21st March mitment to achieving an additional car-
technologies for sustainable use of Games in Paris in 2024 and Los India and EU joint naval drill bon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of
ocean resources, the Cabinet The council will function as an inde- Angeles Games in 2028. 2021. Auckland of New Zealand has
pendent body and act as the second- been named the best Liveability city India and the European Union carried carbon dioxide equivalent.
Committee on Economic Affairs
tier within the three-tier grievance 'Revv Up' because of the ability of the adminis- out a joint naval drill in the Gulf of Aden
chaired by PM Modi approved the pro- For more Information see
redressal mechanism as envisioned by tration to contain Covid-19 at a faster to improve operational interoperability
posal of the Ministry of Earth Sciences On 14 June 2021, the Government of
(MoES) to constitute "Deep Ocean the Information Technology rate, leading to the early lifting of among the forces. today’s AP Edition
Telangana launched the Telangana AI
Mission" On 16 June 2021. (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital restrictions than other cities around the In the two-day exercise that began
Mission (T-AIM) as part of the "2020
Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021. world. Japanese cities of Osaka and on 18 June 2021, the ships from both
Rs.4077 crore for 5 years will be Year of AI" initiative. T-AIM was pow-
The DPCGC currently has 14 pub- Tokyo grabbed second and fourth sides participated in a series of naval Writer
spent on the mission. ered by NASSCOM (National
lishers of online curated content as place, whereas Adelaide of Australia activities off the coast of Somalia. Amara Veeraswamy
Deep Ocean Mission will be a mis- Association of Software and Service
members, which include Amazon got third place. Indian Naval Ship Trikand, Italian
sion mode project to support the Blue Companies). The vision of T-AIM is to Subject Expert
Prime Video, Alt Balaji, Apple, develop Telangana as a global hub for The Liveability Index released on 9th Navy Ship ITS Carabiner, Spanish
Economy Initiatives of the Government
BookMyShow Stream, Eros Now, Artificial Intelligence (AI) and leverage it
of India. The mission consists of 6
Firework TV, Hoichoi, Hungama,
major components. They are
Lionsgate Play, MX Player, Netflix,
for societal good. T-AIM announced the Model Questions Chandran Nair took over as the ing 10.63 seconds for the 100m at
Development of Technologies for Deep launch of the accelerator program Director-General of….. the Olympic Destiny meeting in
Reeldrama, Shemaroo and Ullu. 'Revv Up' that will enable and empower 1. Who won the best actress award for
Sea Mining, and Manned Submersible, 1) CRPF 2) Assam Rifles Kingston. She is...
AI start-ups. her acting in the film “Raahgir: The
Wayfarers” at UK film Festival? 3) CISF 4) BSF 5) RA 1) Allyson Felix
1) Aishwarya Rai 4. Megha Rajagopalan won which 2) Kendra Harrison
Milana Safronova of Kazakhstan. Ross Taylor and Kane Williamson of
Others Anupama (+81kg) also bagged a silver New Zealand chased down a total of
2) Anushka Sharma journalism award for her innovative 3) Yelena Isinbayeva
3) Tillotama Shome investigative reports that exposed 4) Nikita Petinov
Asian Boxing Championships medal, losing to Lazzat Kungeibayeva 139 set up by India with eight wickets secretly built China's mass deten-
of Kazakhstan in the final. in hand in the last hour of the reserve 4) Kareena Kapoor 5) Alia Bhatt 5) Shelly-Ann Fraser-Pryce
On 31 May 2021, Pooja Rani won the tion camps for Uyghur Muslims in
day. 2. Who among the following is the 6. Who has been named as the
gold medal in the 75kg Women's NZ winner of WTC Xinjiang province?
Kyle Jamieson of New Zealand was noted environmentalist and the Captain for the Indian Men’s
Middle category final at the Asian 1) UNESCO/ Guillermo Cano World Hockey Team, participating in
New Zealand had beaten India by conferred Player of the Match Award leader of the Chipko Movement
Boxing Championships, in Dubai. Press Freedom Prize Tokyo Olympics 2021?
eight wickets to win the inaugural for his outstanding seven wickets recently passed away?
MC Mary Kom crashed to a narrow 2) The Prince Albert II of Monaco 1) Suraj Karkera 2) P. R. Sreejesh
World Test Championship title. The claim. 1) Sugathakumari
split-decision defeat against and UNCA Global Prize 3) Manpreet Singh
final match held at Rose Bowl, The ICC World Test Championship 2) K. Shivaram Karanth
Kazakhstan's Nazym Kyzaibay in the Southampton, England between 18-23 3) Pulitzer Prize
is a league competition for Test crick- 3) Sunderlal Bahuguna 4) Jarmanpreet Singh
women's 51kg final. She won the silver June 2021. 4) Golden Pen of Freedom Award
et run by the International Cricket 4) Robin Banerjee 5) Surender Kumar
medal. 5) European Press Prize
India did 217 and 170 runs in both Council (ICC), which started on 1 Answers
Lalbuatsaihi (64kg) also won the sil- 5) Anupam Mishra
innings, whereas New Zealand man- August 2019 with the Ashes series. 5. The Jamaican sprint star became
ver medal in her category, losing to 3. Lieutenant General Pradeep 1-3 2-3 3-2 4-3 5-5 6-3
aged to get 249 and 140. the second-fastest woman by clock-

F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F
àŸ-꟪-ô¢vú£Ù, ÷”êŸhÙ
÷³Ý°uÙ-ø‹õª
àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù: àŸ-꟪-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ ‘a’ óŸ´-Eåªx Íô³ê¶, ë¯E
àŸªåªd-Ú•-õêŸ =- 4a óŸ´.-
jø‹õuÙ =- a2àŸ.-óŸ´.-
Î ·ôÙè…Ù-æö¨ ˺ ë¶E jø‹õuÙ ÓÚÛª\÷? θ 1
ÚÛô¢gÙ = √ 2a óŸ´.- =  × πr2 −  ×
360° 2
- õÙñÚÁé òÅ¡ªâ°õ õñÌÄÙ =4:2=2 : 1
÷”êŸhÙ: ÷”êŸh î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ r óŸ´.- Íô³ê¶, ô¢àŸô³êŸ ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 2
a 2 1

jø‹õuÙ =- πr 2 àŸ.-óŸ´.-
ë¯E í£JCÅ =- 2πr óŸ´.- úˆšï°àÂ. ô¦ëůÚÛ”ù£g
Nù£óŸª Eí£±éªõª
90°
= ×π 
360° √2 2 ( )
 −  (r)(r) 7.- ÖÚÛ ÷”ê¦h-Ú¥-ô¢ öËºï£°í£±BÞœ î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ 28 šúÙ.-Oª.-
ë¯Eo àŸêŸª-ô¢-vþ§-Ú¥-ô¢Ùö˺ ÷Ù#ê¶ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ ÚÛô¢gÙ
πa2 π a2 a2
Í-ô¢ÌÄ-÷”êŸhÙ: Í-ô¢ÌÄ-÷”êŸh î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ r óŸ´.- Íô³ê¶
àŸªåªd-Ú•-õêŸ =- πr + 2r óŸ´.- ë]ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù, 4×2
1 a
= − 
2

2 (√ )(√ ) a

 = −
2 8 4
ð»è[÷± ÓÙêŸ? sšúÙ.-Oª.-õö˺z 
1) 11√ 2 2) 22√ 2
π a2  
sö˶ë¯z
=- (π + 2)r óŸ´.-
4a = 44 šúÙ.-Oª.-; 2πr = 44 šúÙ.-Oª.-
44 22
a =  šúÙ.-Oª.-; 2 ×  × r = 44 šúÙ.-Oª.-
( =  − 1 
2 4) àŸ.-óŸ´.- 3) 33√ 2
þ§-ëÅ]ì:-
4) 44√ 2

sö˶ë¯z 4 7 í£åÙö˺ ›ùè à¶ú‡ì vð§ÙêŸ îµjø‹õuÙ

7 =- ÷”êŸh -j-ø‹õuÙ − ›ùè à¶óŸªE vð§ÙêŸ îµjø‹õuÙ r
36 a = 11 šúÙ.-Oª.-; r = 44 ×  šúÙ.-Oª.-
=  r óŸ´.- 2 × 22 π a2
7
πr 2
-
= 7 šúÙ.-Oª.- (
= π r2 −  − 1 
2 4 )
= 
jø‹õuÙ - àŸ.-óŸ´.- 2 π a2 a2

l
2
·ôÙè[ª ÔÚÛ-¸ÚÙvë] ÷”ê¦hõ ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo ÷”ê¦h-Ú¥ô¢ ö˶ë¯
àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ jø‹õuÙ a2 = 112
= 121 àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª.-
a
= π 

2(√ ) − +
8

4 ←a→

÷”êŸh jø‹õuÙ -= πr2 π a2 π a2 a2 ÷”ê¦h-Ú¥-ô¢Ùö˺ Ñìo BÞœìª àŸêŸª-ô¢-vþ§-Ú¥-ô¢Ùö˺ ÷Ù#ê¶,

ÚÛÙÚÛ-é°-Ú¥ô¢ ò°å jø‹õuÙ =  − + ÷”êŸh-í£-JCÅ =- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ àŸªåªd-Ú•-õêŸ
=- π (R 2 −- r 2) àŸ.-óŸ´.-
= π (R + r) (R − r) àŸ.-óŸ´.-
22
=  × 7 × 7 = 154
7
àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª.- ð¼æ© í£K¤Ûõ 2
3π a2
= +
a2
8 4
2π r = 4a
πr

÷«-CJ ú£÷ª-ú£uõª
jø‹-ö°uõ ÷ªëÅ]u òÅ˶ë]Ù
-= 154 − 121 = 33 àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª.-
ví£ê¶uÚÛÙ 8 4
3π a2 + 2a2 (3π + 2)a 2
=  =  àŸ.-óŸ´.-
2π r
⇒a= =
4 2
22 28
-
=  ×  = 44 šúÙ.-Oª.
1.- ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÖÚÛ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù, ÍÙë]ªö˺ ÷ªôÁ ÷”êŸhÙ
∴ ÷”êŸh jø‹õuÙ ÓÚÛª\÷, 33 àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª.-
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3
÷«uëÇ]æ¨ÚÂq 8 8
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 1 ∴ a = 44
7 2
šúÙ.-Oª.-
ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# Ñû¦oô³.- Î ·ôÙè[ª ÷”ê¦hõ ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo  
3. ÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÖÚÛ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Î ÷”êŸh- 6.- àŸêŸªô¢vú£Ù ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÍÙêŸJxIÙ# ÑÙC. ë¯E = √ 2a = √ 2 × 44
àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ ÚÛô¢gÙ -
÷”ê¦h-Ú¥ô¢ ò°å jø‹õuÙ 16π àŸ.-óŸ´.- Íô³ê¶ Î ë]ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù, àŸêŸªô¢vú£ jø‹õuÙ = ÷”êŸh jø‹õuÙ 
í£-JCÅ 100 šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶ Î àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ òÅ¡ªáÙ ‘a’ óŸ´.- Î àŸêŸª-ô¢-vú£Ùö˺ ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙ = 44√ 2 šúÙ.-Oª.-
àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ jø‹õuÙ ÓÙêŸ? sàŸ.-óŸ´.-õö˺z a2 = π r 2
ð»è[÷±? sšúÙ.Oª.õöË 
ºz 
ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Íô³ê¶ ò°ï£°u, ÍÙêŸô¢ ÷”êŸh ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 4
1) 32 2) 48 3) 64 4) 72 a2 a 2
þ§ëÅ]ì:- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ
100 100√ 2
1) - 2)  3)  4) 50 π √ 2
50√ 2  ⇒  = π ⇒  = π
r2 r
( ) jø‹-ö°uõ Eù£pAh ÓÙêŸ?
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 :- 1 3) 1 : √ 2
 
4) √ 2 : 1 ÍòÅ°uú£ ú£÷ª-ú£uõª
π π π 
=- a Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- a  √π þ§-ëÅ]ì:- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ =- a óŸ´.-
þ§ëÅ]ì:- í£åÙö˺, àŸ-꟪-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ = a,- ⇒  = √ π =  1.- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Î
ñóŸªæ¨, ö˺í£L ÷”êŸh ↑
a

R
÷”êŸh-î¦u-þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ =- r Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- r

1 ò°ï£°u-÷”êŸh î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ =- R,
î¦uþ§-ô¦ÌÄõª ÷ô¢ª-ú£Þ¥ 2
O ⇒ a : r = √π : 1 ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 àŸêŸª-ô¢-vú£Ùö˺ ÷ªôÁ ÷”ê¦hEo ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙà¦ô¢ª.-
↓
r -÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÖÚÛ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸô¢ ÷”êŸh î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ =- r ·ôÙè[ª ÷”ê¦hõ ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo ÷”ê¦h-Ú¥ô¢ ò°å
= R, r ÍìªÚÁÙè….- 5.- í£åÙö˺ àŸ«í‡ìåªx ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺
ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙç˶, àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- jø‹õuÙ 9π àŸ.-óŸ´.- Íô³ê¶ Î àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£
a→

ë]-ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù,
√ 

ÚÛô¢gÙ =- ÷”êŸh î¦uú£Ù àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.-

2

←a→ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÷”êŸhÙö˺ ÍÙêŸ-Jx- jø‹õuÙ ÓÙêŸ? sàŸ.-óŸ´.-õö˺)

=

·ôÙè[ª ÷”ê¦hõ ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo ÷”ê¦h- Î àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ a.

d

⇒ √2 a = d IÙ# ÑÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d



1) 9 2) 18 3) 36 4) 72

←

Ú¥ô¢ ò°å jø‹õuÙ =- 16 π àŸ.-óŸ´. ⇒ √ 2 a = 2r

Íô³ê¶ í£åÙö˺ ›ùè à¶ú‡ì àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ ÚÛô¢gÙ =- ò°ï£°u ←a→
2.- ÖÚÛ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ àŸªåªd-Ú•-õêŸ 22 šúÙ.-Oª, ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸh
⇒ π (R2 − r2) = 16π vð§ÙêŸ îµjø‹õuÙ ÓÙêŸ?
⇒ R2 − r2 = 16 → (1)
2r

÷”êŸh î¦uú£Ù í£JCÅ 22 šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶ Î ·ôÙè…Ù-æ¨ö˺ ë¶E
⇒ a = 
 → (1) sàŸ.-óŸ´.-õö˺z √ 2a = 2R jø‹õuÙ ÓÚÛª\÷? ÓÙêŸ ÓÚÛª\÷?
a 2 √2 (3π + 2)a2 
í£åÙ ìªÙ#; R2 = r2 +  ( ) 1)  √ 2a
a 1) àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù, 8.-5 šúÙ.-Oª.2
2R

2 ë]-ê¦hÙøŒÙ ví£Ú¥ô¢Ù, ÷”êŸh-í£-JCÅ -= 100 šúÙ.-Oª.- 8 ⇒R==  óŸ´.-

=

2 √2 2) ÷”êŸhÙ, 8.2-5 šúÙ.-Oª.-2

d

a2 ⇒ 2πr = 100 (3π + 2)a2

⇒ (R 2 − r 2) =  2)  a
←a→ 3) àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù, 17 šúÙ.-Oª.2
4 100 50 4 ∴R= óŸ´.-
⇒ r =  =  šúÙ.-Oª.- √2 4) ÷”êŸhÙ, 17 šúÙ.-Oª.2
⇒ a 2 = 4(R2 − r 2) 2π π (3π + 2)a2
50
r =  šúÙ.-Oª.-ìª (1) ö˺ ví£A-¸¤-í‡Ù-àŸÞ¥, 3)  àŸêŸª-ô¢-vú£Ùö˺ ÷”êŸhÙ ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC. 3.- ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Î
⇒ a 2 = 4 × 16 = 64
∴ àŸ-꟪-ô¢vú£ jø‹õuÙ àŸ.-óŸ´.-
(a2) = 64
π

2 Ú¥ñæ¨d, àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ =- ÍÙêŸ-ô¢- ÷”êŸh î¦uú£Ù ÷”êŸh î¦uú£Ù 15-√2 šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶ Î àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£
2 50  50 50√ 2 4) (3π + 2)a2 a = 2r òÅ¡ªáÙ ð»è[÷± ÓÙêŸ? sšúÙ.-Oª.-õö˺)
ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 a = 
 ×  = √ 2 ×  =  šúÙ.-Oª.-
√2 π π π þ§-ëÅ]ì:- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ =- a óŸ´.- ⇒r=
a
óŸ´.- 1) 15 2) 30 3) 7.-5 4) 12
2. ÖÚÛ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ àŸªåªd-Ú•-õêŸ 44 šúÙ.-Oª.-, ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸh 
50√ 2 2 4.- ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙö˺ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Î
í£JCÅ 44 šúÙ.-Oª.- Íô³ê¶, Î ·ôÙè…Ù-æ¨ö˺ ë¶E ∴ a = 
π - šúÙ.-Oª. ÷”êŸhÙö˺ àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.- Ú¥ñæ¨d a àŸêŸª-ô¢-vú£Ùö˺ ÷ªôÁ ÷”êŸhÙ ÍÙêŸ-Jx-IÙ# ÑÙC.-
jø‹õuÙ ÓÚÛª\÷? ÓÙêŸ ÓÚÛª\÷? ú£-÷«-ëůìÙ:- 3 àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ ÚÛô¢gÙ =- ÷”êŸh î¦uú£Ù ⇒ √2 a = 2r ∴r=
2
óŸ´.-
←a→ Íô³ê¶ ò°ï£°u-÷”êŸhÙ, àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù, ÍÙêŸô¢ ÷”êŸh
1) àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£Ù, 33 àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª. 4.- ÖÚÛ ÷”êŸhÙ, àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ jø‹-ö°uõª ú£÷«ìÙ. Íô³ê¶, √ 2a a ò°ï£°u ÷”êŸh jø‹õuÙ : ÍÙêŸô¢ ÷”êŸh jø‹õu٠jø‹-ö°uõ Eù£pAh ÓÙêŸ?
àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªâ°-EÚ¨, ÷”êŸh î¦uþ§-ô¦ÌÄ-EÚ¨ ÷ªëÅ]u Ñìo ⇒ r =  =   óŸ´.-
-2) ÷”êŸhÙ, 66 àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª.- 2 √ 2 =- π R 2 : π r 2 1) 14 : 7 : 11 2) 11 : 7 : 14
3) ÷”êŸhÙ, 33 àŸ.-šúÙ.-Oª.- Eù£pAh ÓÙêŸ? a
  a 2 a 2
=- π ( 
 ) :- π (  )
∴
÷”êŸh-î¦u-þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ (r) = 
 óŸ´.- 3) 7 : 11 : 14 4) 14 : 11 : 7
4) ·ôÙè…Ùæ¨ îµjø‹-ö°uõª ú£÷«ìÙ. 1) π : 1 2) 1 :- π 3) √ π :- 1 4) 1 :- √ π √2
r 90° r
√2 2
ú£÷«ëůû¦õª
þ§ëÅ]ì:- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ =- a, ÷”êŸh î¦uþ§ô¢ÌÄÙ =- r þ§ëÅ]ì:- àŸêŸª-ô¢vú£ òÅ¡ªáÙ = a, ÷”êŸh î¦þ§ô¢ÌÄÙ = r í£åÙö˺, ›ùè à¶óŸªE vð§ÙêŸ îµjø‹õuÙ πa2 π a2
a
Í-ìª-ÚÁÙè….- Íìª-ÚÁÙè….- =- šúÚÛdô jø‹õuÙ − vAòÅ¡ªá jø‹õuÙ =: -
1-3 2-2- -
3-1 4-4
2 4
GH
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