REVIEWER NOTES

for

A C C R E D I T A T I O N

of

MATERIAL S ENGINEERS

1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete?

Ans: concrete cylinder sample

2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete?

 Ans: Slump test

3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?
Ans: 1.0 m/10,000 kg/size/shipment

4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?
Ans: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample

5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?

Ans: 3 pcs-60 mm in 1 sht/100 sheets

6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?

Ans: Reflectorized Paint

7. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
Ans: 24 hours

8. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?

Ans: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq.m

9. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?

Ans: 0 to 30 penetration grade

10. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test?

Ans: Concrete beam sample

11. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?
Ans: CBR, abrasion, GPCD

12. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item 104)?
Ans: 3 grading tests

13. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be used as
Item 200 if finer than the required materials?
Ans: blend Item 200 with coarser materials

14. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201?

Ans: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively

15. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201?

Ans: 80% maximum
16. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black cementitious
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material in which the predominating substance is bitumen?
Ans: asphalt

17 What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?
Ans: Blown Asphalt
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?
Ans: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement

19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?

Ans: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine

20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?
Ans: by Field Density Test

21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?

Ans: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit

22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?

Ans: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis

23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m 3, with an actual
moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m3?
Ans: 101.23%

24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?
Ans: 5 holes/km/lane

25. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Ans: the soil is clayey

26. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs. sample represents?
Ans: 2000 bags

27. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
Ans: 2 pcs – 1 m sample

28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
Ans: 110 ± 5oC

29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
Ans: because it can affect its weight

30. What is the use of blown asphalt?

Ans: as joint filler and water proofing
31. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture content?
Ans: hygroscopic moisture content is the moisture content of an air- dried sample while
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natural moisture content is the moisture content of the original sample from the field.

32. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is already oven
– dried?
Ans: if the sample reaches its constant weight
33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily reinforced concrete
structure using a pumpcrete to pump out the fresh concrete mix, what admixture should it be?
Ans: Superplasticizer

34. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven –
dried weight of 138.2 grams?
Ans: 17.58%

35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
Ans: Asphalt Cement

36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in water?
Ans: 4 days @ 50 oC

37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement?

Ans: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition

38. Paint is composed of _____

Ans: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads

39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?
Ans: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip

40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing?
Ans: 23o C ± 1.7o C

41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63°F to 85°F are permitted
for a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior to test if free moisture is maintained on
the surface of the specimen at all times.
Ans: three (3)

42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____ hours
and should be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 °F ± 3°F
Ans: Twenty-four (24)
43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?
Ans: high degree of compressibility

44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?
Ans: No. 40 (0.425 mm)

45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture – Density Relation Test
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(MDR) is T – 180?
Ans: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop

46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how many blows/tamps
per layer shall be applied?
 Ans: 60 blows/layer

47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the %
asphalt by weight of mix?
Ans: 5.10%

48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?

Ans: Cut-back asphalt

49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the rate of
approximately _____?
Ans: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47, what is the
acceptable range of asphalt content?
Ans: 4.7% to 5.5%

51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of compaction for
this kind of soil?
Ans: 95% degree of compaction

52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/ cu.m, how about for concrete Class
“B”?
Ans: 8 bags/ cu.m

53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____?

Ans: Contractor

54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates?
Ans: Once the source is identified

55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is the minimum
compressive strength for concrete Class “C”?
Ans: 3000 psi
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in cu.m as
shown on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer, except that an overload up to _____
percent above the mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data for
strength, segregation, and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no spillage of
concrete takes place.
Ans: Ten (10)

57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from pavement is
deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?
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Ans: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the
affected location

58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
Ans: hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
Ans: Materials test results/reports

60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?

Ans: consistency

61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____?
Ans: consistency of concrete

62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s operation?
Ans: at least one but not to exceed three samples

63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Ans: four (4)

64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Ans: nine (9)

65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why?
Ans: may be the sampling is incorrect

66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the following
amount of water is most likely required for the mix?
Ans: 20 liters

67. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be used
in the project?
Ans: four (4) pails
68. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.
Ans: overheating during the process of manufacture

69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted
depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve analysis?
Ans: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis

70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be
used in the project?
Ans: Two (2) samples

71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of 8,250 cu.m?
Ans: Six (6) compaction tests
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72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?
Ans: Summary of field tests and status of test

73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
 Ans: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water

74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?
Ans: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water

75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how
many samples for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing requirements.
What program or report is this?
Ans: Quality Control Program

76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative way of
reducing sample for testing size?
Ans: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample

77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained the
minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the specified age the
pavement shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was placed.
Ans: Fourteen (14)

78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample has been submitted
and tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME must refer to what
report so that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the construction
materials being used in the project?
Ans: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or crumbling
up to 1/8” (3.2 mm).
Ans: Plastic Limit

80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.

Ans: Liquid Limit

81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and tamping rod.
After the test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm. what is the slump of the concrete?
Ans: 127 mm

82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the mass percent
of wear?
Ans: 30 – 33 rpm

83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine
aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your actual batch
weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
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Ans: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130 liters
water

84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is equal to
21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs?
 Ans: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum

85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____?

Ans: week

86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be tested:
Ans: before it is incorporated into work

87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose measurement?
Ans: 200 mm loose measurement

88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?
Ans: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption

89. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control measures and also to
improve the stability of the slope.
Answer: Berm

90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers should a 40 cm
thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?
Ans: Three (3)
91. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?
Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval

92. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity
represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date sampled
and date submitted and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer?
Ans: Sample Card

93. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a quality test
that takes place. Since not all construction materials can be tested just for a day or even a week so,
what is the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a cement sample?
Ans: One (1) month

94. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days before
testing?
Ans: Four (4)

95. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result be used
in field density test?
Ans: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
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96. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you going to
pursue your schedule? Why?
Ans: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
97. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix can be done by
what test?
Ans: Extraction Test

98. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil
sample was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken, except
Ans: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction,
relative density

99. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____
above the top of the conduit.
Ans: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m

100. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the
stones weighing more than 50 kgs.
Ans: Class B

101. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with at least 50% of the
stones weighing more than 20 kgs.
Ans: Class A
102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% of the
stones weighing more than 80 kgs.
Ans: Class C

103. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Ans: liquid limit device with grooving tool

104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at least 50% of the
stones weighing more than 150 kgs.
Ans: Class D

105. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?

Ans: glass plate

106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.

Ans: 150 mm

107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.

Ans: 1 inch

108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.

Ans: 35%
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109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.
Ans: 4% to 9%

110. Range of sand size.

 Ans: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø

111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids

Ans: void ratio

112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids

Ans: moisture content

113. Significance of grading test are, except

Ans: Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity, measures the
potential cohesion of soil

114. Significance of plasticity index are, except

Ans: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material,
measures the shearing resistance of soil

115. Properties of concrete are, except

Ans: workability, strength, durability, cracking

116. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.

Ans: Liquidity Index
117. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures. The important
parts of the structure included are slabs, beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced
abutments, retaining walls, and reinforced footings.
Ans: Class A

118. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the economical thickness,
except
Ans: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base

119. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except

Ans: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index

120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders, beam, frames
and arches.
Ans: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)

121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
Ans: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Ans: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
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123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
Ans: 2 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
124. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all other vertical
surfaces.
Ans: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

125. A mass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to ensure that act as a
unit to support the imposed load
Ans: Pile cap

126: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.

Ans: 150 mm

127. Class of concrete deposited in water.

Ans: Class Seal

128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls,
unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of reinforcement.
Ans: Class B

129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in
steel grid floors.
Ans: Class C

130. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete structures and members.
Ans: Class P

131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit

Ans: 1.50 m

132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings

Ans: Item 612

133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300
Ans: + 15 mm and – 5 mm

134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____
Ans: 3% to 5 %

135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____

Ans: plain bars

136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a flexural strength of
_____ when tested in 14 days.
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Ans: 3.80 MPa

137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate sub – base shall
spread and compacted in ____
` Ans: two or more layers
138. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3

139. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete specimens for PCCP
which 10% to less than 15%
Answer: 70%

140. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30
minutes in the concreting operation
Ans: Transverse Construction Joint

141. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge between contacts with
the surface in Item 310
Ans: 6.0 mm

142. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test
is _____
Ans: four (4)

143. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____
Ans: 80%
144. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the final rolling, the
surface will be treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the rate of application?
Ans: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
145. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: ± 10 mm

146. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard
Answer: No. 40

147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except

Ans: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density

148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except

Ans: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil, fineness
and shape of grain, Atterberg limits

149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Ans: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4

150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material

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Ans: Group Index (if low better, if high – meaning clayey its poor )

151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width per paving day,
how many sets of concrete beam samples shall be required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50
m, thickness = 230 mm
 Ans: 353 sets

152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings

Ans: 30%

153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings

Ans: 6%

154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds
Ans: 80% and 55% respectively

155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is

Ans: 800 kg/cu.m or lower

156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with

Ans: AASHTO T 90

157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with

Ans: AASHTO T 89

158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer

Ans: 95%

159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment

Ans: 10 m wide by 50 m long

160. At least how many in – situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m 2 of each layer of
compacted fill?
Ans: three (3)

161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200

Ans: 12%

162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200

Ans: 35%

163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200

Ans: 2”

164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance with
Ans: AASHTO T 96
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165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200
Ans: 50%

166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200

Ans: 25%
167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by
Ans: AASHTO T 193

168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course
Ans: 100%

169. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B
Ans: 2”
170. Item number for water?
Ans: Item 714

171. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in
accordance with
Ans: AASHTO T 191

172. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of Item 202
Ans: 50%
173. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non – available, the use
_____ allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or gravel.
Ans: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)

174. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B
Ans: 1 ½ inch

175. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202

Ans: 45%

176. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202

Ans: 80%

177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A

Ans: 1 ½ inch

178. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A

Ans: 2”

179. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B

Ans: 1 inch

180. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate, lime, water in
proper proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase.
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Ans: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)

181. The required plasticity index for Item 203

Ans: 4% to 10%
182. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203
Ans: 50%

183. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203

Ans: 100%

184. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?
Ans: 3% to 12%

185. Required percent compaction for Item 203

Ans: 100%

186. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the surface
profile which may be expressed in terms of International Roughness Index.
Ans: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device

187. Equipment to be used for initial rolling

Ans: Pneumatic tire roller

188. Equipment to be used for final rolling

Ans: 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel roller

189. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and passing a small
test flame
Ans: flash point

190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of existing pavement with
unbound granular properties.
Ans: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer

191. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length of
the regular piles?
Ans: Test Pitting

192. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a concrete
pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to
determine the remaining life of existing pavement.
Ans: Falling Weight Deflectometer

193. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded
in concrete before cutting or drilling?
Ans: Rebar Locator
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194. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete and asphalt
pavements as soon as he concrete has hardened sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix has been
initially compacted?
Ans: 3 – meter straight edge
195. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together are called _____
Ans: tie bars

196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material which is commonly
used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt road construction and in the measurement of
moisture content?
Ans: Nuclear Density Gauge

197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings.
The results of the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate the structural condition of roads,
and to help in the design of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvement.
Ans: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
198. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt?
Ans: MC – 3000

199. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks and
concrete? This instrument is a non – destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x
180 mm x 160 mm and its main uses includes the determination of concrete strength (either in –
situ or pre – cast),also to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections.
Ans: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester

200. Soil stabilizing agent

Ans: Lime – for silty and clayey soil, Cement – for sandy soil

201. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
Ans: LIQUID LIMIT

202. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state.
Ans: PLASTIC LIMIT

203. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid.
Ans: SHRINKAGE LIMIT

204. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is conducted _____

Ans: Once a year

205. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?

Ans: 1 sample per 130 tonnes

206. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture?
Ans: 2”
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207. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 – m straight edge. The concrete
in the area represented by these high spots _____
Ans: shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but not
exceeding 12 mm, it shall be ground down only.
209. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall Stability
Method for heavy traffic is ____
Ans: 1800 lbs

210. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance that a
specimen will develop at _____
Ans: 60°

211. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a heavy traffic
design under the Marshall Stability Method?
Ans: 75 blows

212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be
used?
Ans: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P

213. Removal of forms of concrete pavement

Ans: 24 hours

214. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested by the midpoint
method.
Ans: 4.50 MPa

215. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?
Ans: 85 – 100

216. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____

Ans: Steel forms of an approved section

217. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____
Ans: Within 24 hours

218. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is _____
Ans: 1 ½ inches

219. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract price allowed is
_____
Ans: 25% or more

220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?
Ans: 1,000 ln.m
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221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?
Ans: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm

222. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured concurrently?
 Ans: 500 ln. m

223. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.

Ans: 4 to 6 rpm

224. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m
of pavement of fraction thereof placed each day?
Ans: 1 set

225. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course preparatory to the
construction of a bituminous surface course.
Ans: Prime Coat

226. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
Ans: 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength

227. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing steel.
Ans: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø and above = 10d)

228. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water?

Ans: 10 to 20 cm

229. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?

Ans: Item 304

230. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula for Item 310?
Ans: ± 0.4%

231. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the application of
aggregate on existing bituminous surface?
Ans: Seal Coat

232. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310.
Ans: ± 10°C

233. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full day’s operation?
Ans: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø

234. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?
Ans: 107°C

235. The required speed in rolling in Item 310.

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Ans: 5 kph

236. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack.

Ans: faulting
237. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?
Ans: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
238. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____
Ans: ± 1.0 mass %

239. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of at least ______
Ans: 100 mm

240. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones for riprap.
Ans: 800 mm (Class A – 300 mm; Class B – 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)
241. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or cement concrete
surface with bituminous materials preparatory to the construction of bituminous surface course.
Ans: Tack Coat

242. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used grade of asphalt
cement?
Ans: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100

243. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut – back asphalt?
Ans: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
244. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from the testing edge
of the straight edge between any two contacts with the surface?
Ans: 6 mm

245. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310?

Ans: 1.40 MPa

246. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65?
Ans: 70% minimum

247. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Ans: ±7

248. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).
Ans: ±4

249. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve.
Ans: ±2

250. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load.
Ans: stability
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251. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water, temperature and traffic.
Ans: durability

252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.

Answer: 92% to 95%
253. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to gradual
settlements and moments of the base and subgrade.
Ans: flexibility

254. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability.
Ans: decrease
255. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of wheel loads.
Ans: fatigue resistance

256. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the cohesion of the mix?
Ans: Immersion – Compression Test

257. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Compression Test is performed.
Ans: stability

258. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used?
Ans: armored thermometer

259. Peat and muck soils are considered as:

Ans: highly organic soils

260. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course construction?
Ans: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and the
construction method.

261. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix?
Ans: tacky

262. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____

Ans: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel

263. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____

Ans: weak subgrade

264. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____

Ans: very stable

265. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?
Ans: excessive asphalt content

266. A good subgrade soil should have the following:

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Ans: low liquid limit and low plastic limit

267. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous without shock at a
constant rate within the range of _____
Ans: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 – 175 psi/second (flexural)
268. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three – edge bearing test
machine?
Ans: 0.3 mm crack
269. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to _____
Ans: determine the trend of its strength development

270. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is already doubt as to its
quality should:
Ans: be retested prior to use

271. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular purpose.
Ans: Stabilization

272. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test is taken. What
will be this test?
Ans: referee test

273. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH
specs to use core samples to determine the strength. What is the required compressive strength?
Ans: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days

274. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___
Ans: normal

275. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?

Ans: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil

276. What is the significance of field density test?

Ans: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test in embankment
construction to ensure adequate compaction.

277. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result. True or false?
Ans: true

278. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample?

Ans: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun

279. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative should be
used?
Ans: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C
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280. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
Ans: Method A & B – use sample passing No. 4
Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch

281. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 compaction test method?
 Ans: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12” drop while T – 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs)
rammer with an 18” drop.
282. What is particle size analysis?
Ans: It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a
combined analysis

283. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals?
Ans: distilled water

284. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a
height of _____?
Ans 10 mm

285. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit are rotated?
Ans: 2 rps

286. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break?
Ans: 3.2 mm (1/8”)

287. What is specific gravity?

Ans: It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio of
the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temperature)

288. What is the approximate area for density control strips?

Answer: 335 sq. m

289. What Item of work is embankment?

Ans: Item 104

290. What kind of material for Item 200?

Ans: Aggregate sub – base course

291. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item 104?
Ans: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3” openings and not more than 15 mass %
will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)

292. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
Ans: 100%

293. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or
compaction test?
Ans: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content (OMC)
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294. What are the apparatus used in FDT?
Ans: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing
scale, oven with temperature control, chisel or digging tool, plastic bags and labeling
materials (tag name)
295. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone?
Ans: ½ inch (12.7 mm)

296. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
Ans: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No. 200
sieve

297. How many hours do a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in
water?
Ans: 15 to 19 hours

298. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition?
Ans: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If the molded shape of
fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a surface dry condition

299. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?

Ans: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse
aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight an d abrasion
Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request

300. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion test?
Ans: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455 grams

301. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with
12 as number of spheres?
Ans: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams

302. What is significance of abrasion test?

Ans: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of
quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also determines whether the
aggregates will have degradation during traffic or rolling.

303. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Ans: No. 12 (1.70 mm)

304. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
Ans: 14 days

305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third point?
Ans: R = PL
bd2
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306. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2bd2

307. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
 Ans: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the
same Ø as the rod.

308. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are required?
Ans: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)

309. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
Ans: Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum

310. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete masonry units?
Ans: Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum

311. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?

Ans: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation and is
used to classify the bars into grade.

312. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?

Ans: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB

313. What is the required testing requirement for paints?

Ans: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)

314. SS – l or SS – lh is what kind of asphalt?

Ans: slow – setting emulsified asphalt

315. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
Ans: 24 hours

316. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?

Ans: cut – back asphalt

317. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of RCCP?
Ans: 25 pieces

318. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called _____
Ans: segregation
319. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement?
Ans: thickness and density of pavement

320. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best established through what?
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Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples

321. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ test that measures what?
Ans: depth of soil layer
322. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are
recorded in a _____
Ans: Materials logbook

323. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the
pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm.
If the thickness of the subbase is 125 mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase
courses shall be carried out in _____?
Ans: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m

324. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be
permitted?
Ans: higher

325. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were
the ME assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that you would
recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the subbase course?
Ans: geotextiles

326. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21” beam mold be
rodded?
Ans: 63 blows/layer

327. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive
_______ or _______.
Ans: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture

328. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____
Ans: 29ºC

329. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Ans: 12 sets

330. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to
test?
Ans: 6 pcs RCCP

331. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability
(provided concrete does not excced specified slump), how many minutes after the initial time of
mixing does adding water be permitted?
Ans: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water – cement ratio is not exceeded.
V
332. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit the job – mix
formula?
Ans: three (3) weeks

333. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous mixture?
 Ans: TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the distillation of crude oil.

334. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?

Ans: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt, emulsified asphalt

335. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?

Ans:
GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type
KEROSENE – for medium curing type
DIESEL – for slow curing type

336. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.

Ans:
CATIONIC EMULSION – works better with wet aggregates and in cold
weather. It is a positively charge electron.
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have positive charge. It is a
negatively charge electron.

337. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?

Ans: asphalt cement

338. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?

Ans: grade and quantity of asphalt

339. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?

Ans: climatic condition

340. The job – mix formula contains provisions the following:

Ans:
a. grading of aggregates
b. percentage and type of asphalt
c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction

341. Who will approve the job – mix formula?

Ans: DPWH PE and ME

342. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?
Ans: 66ºC to 107ºC

343. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density?
V
Ans: when the mixture is still hot and workable

344. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required
density?
Ans: trial section
345. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great significance in the
strength of the resulting pavement?
Ans: temperature

346. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?

Ans: It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel towards the center
line, each trip overlapping one half the roller’s width.

347. After the final rolling, what will be checked?

Ans: degree of compaction

348. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____
Ans: 95% of the laboratory compacted density

349. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement?

Ans: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature

350. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?

Ans: by the use of core drill or saw

351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?

Ans: 40 mm – 75 mm

352. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated?

Ans: 10 mm – 40 mm

353. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?
Ans: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds

354. How is concrete consolidated?

Ans: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically

355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is used?
Ans: longitudinal construction joint
356. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until
the concrete is deposited in – place at the site?
Ans: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non – agitating trucks and 90 minutes if
hauled in truck mixers or agitators

357. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing?
Ans: sawing shall be omitted
V
358. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding problem?
Ans: deformed steel tie bars

357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw?
 Ans: not less than 50 mm

358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____

Ans: not less than 6 mm

359. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____

Ans: asphalt or other materials

360. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a position parallel to the surface
and center line of the slab of pavement?
Ans: dowel

361. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with
_____
Ans: thin film of bitumen

362. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of _____

Ans: brooming

363. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement?
Ans: 1.5 mm

364. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of
_____
Ans: 72 hours

365. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following:

Ans:
a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement
c. by ponding
d. by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the surface
366. When is the right time to seal the joints?
Ans: after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic

367. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve?
Ans: No. 200

368. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____?
Ans: Materials Engineer of the DPWH

369. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is _____

V
Ans: Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit, accompanied by a
sample card filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME

370. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction materials for use in
the project based on test results?
 Ans: Materials Engineer of the DPWH

371. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness.

Ans: asphaltene

372. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?
Ans: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine sand

373. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____

Ans: pothole patching

374. VMA means

Ans: Voids in Mineral Aggregates

375. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen

Ans: 124ºC

376. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is

Ans: 163ºC

377. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is

Ans: 121ºC - 188ºC

378. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from

Ans: 177ºC - 191ºC

379. The maximum absorption content of CHB

Ans: 240 kg/m3
380. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used to
estimate shear strength and bearing capacity
Ans: Standard Penetration Test
381. The maximum moisture content of CHB
Ans: 45%

382. SPT means

Ans: Standard Penetration Test

383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample

Ans: Shelby tube

384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample

Ans: wax
V
385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample
Ans: split spoon sampler

387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring

 Ans: diamond bit

388. CQCA means

Ans: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)

389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from

Ans: 1.01 – 1.04

390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt?

Ans: cationic

391. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted volume of
embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer?
Ans: fifteen (15)

392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is

Ans: 6% maximum under nominal stress

393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet steel bar is
Ans: 0.06%

394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?

Ans:
TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD POINT
GRADE 40 483 MPa 276 MPa
GRADE 60 621 MPa 414 MPa
GRADE 75 689 MPa 517 MPa

395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent

Ans: clay content
396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is
Ans: air – dried condition

397. The method in the determination of density of soil in – place

Ans: Sand cone method

398. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing

Ans: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200

399. Which of the following items does not need CBR?

Ans:
a. subbase materials
V
b. surfacing materials
c. base course materials

400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast – iron spheres or steel spheres.
Ans:
 GRADING A – 12 spheres
GRADING B – 11 spheres
GRADING C – 8 spheres
GRADING D – 6 spheres

401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients including water is in
the drum is
Ans: 100 rpm

402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and finishing when this
method is used (Item 206)
Ans: two (2) hours

403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____ until the asphaltic
material has set.
Ans: 40 kph

404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation

Ans: 90 minutes

405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be followed is
Ans: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed concrete.

406. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____

Ans: 2.75

407. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____

Ans: abrasion loss
408. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your firm, what will
you recommend?
Ans: conduct recoring

409. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or doomed up and a load
suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates
Ans: excessive asphalt

410. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
Ans: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)

411. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25 th blow is projected in order to determine the
liquid limit of the soil.
Ans: Flow curve
V
412. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that produces a
slump of 76.2 mm?
Ans: 24.7 liters
413. The standard packaging weight of cement
Ans: 40 kg/bag

414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents
rapid evaporation of water from the mix.
Ans: curing compound

415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid
drying, resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess improved visibility at night.
Ans: reflectorized paint

416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
Ans: glass beads

417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units.

Ans: Latex

418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.
Ans: Triple spot test

419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.
Ans: Single spot test

420. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.

Ans: 2.15

421. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint.

Ans: 102.5ºC
422. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made with varnish as
the vehicle.
Ans: Enamel

423. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint.

Ans: 10 minutes

424. The rate of application of traffic paint.

Ans: 0.33 lit/m2

425. The maximum drying time of traffic paint.

Ans: 15 – 30 minutes

426. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good
V
drainage and adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material as subgrade may be assumed
as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
Ans: good subgrade material
427. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course
of material to be compacted.
Ans: Control strips

428. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its final position.
Ans: tremie with 250 mm Ø

429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint.

Ans: 10 kg

430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving mixture.
Ans: vernier caliper

431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt
pavement.
Ans: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry
specimens.

432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.

Ans: gasoline

433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on

Ans: mass of dry aggregates

434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture.
Ans: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
Ans: penetrometer

436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
Ans: Distillation

437. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Ans: two (2)

437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.

Ans: Softening point

438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula
Ans: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%

439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.

V
Ans: 200˚F to 225˚F

440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?

Ans: yellowish brown
441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Ans: seven (7)

443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at

Ans: approximately quarter points

444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes

Ans: bleeding

445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?

Ans: not greater than 4

446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle.
Ans: raveling

447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or
chicken wire.
Ans: alligator cracking

448. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement
Ans: Ottawa sand

449. Additives used in concrete mixing.

Ans: admixtures
450. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the
weighted loss shall not exceed
Ans: 10 mass %

451. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and number
of test of each item of work.
Ans: Minimum Testing Requirements

452. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted
loss shall not exceed
Ans: 12 mass %

453. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity hammer.
Ans: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete)
4.5m (timber)

454. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of
sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
V
Ans: Soundness test

455. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on

Ans: Absolute Design Method
456. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
Ans: 45 minutes

457. The final setting time of Portland cement

Ans: 10 hours

458. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability
Ans: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus

459. A mixture of cement and water is

Ans: cement paste

460. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement in the laboratory.
Ans: Gillmore needle

461. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is

Ans: 19.3 MPa

462. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain
samples that will show the nature and condition of the materials which they represent.
Ans: sampling
463. The critical number of days of curing of concrete
Ans: first seven (7) days

464. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Ans: retarder

465. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of particles
into sizes which will pass certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples

466. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of structural
properties.
Ans: thin – walled tube sampling

467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory.
Ans: government

468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling equipment that
provides clean hole before insertion of thin – walled tubes that is, both the natural density and
moisture content are preserved as much as practicable.
Ans: undisturbed samples
V
469. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave?
Ans: crumbled

470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength of concrete.
 Ans: accelerator

471. The following are considered unsuitable materials:

Answer:
a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials such as grass,
roots and sewage
b. Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55%
d. Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100%
e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3
f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the engineer

472. The rate of application of special curing agent

Ans: 4 liter per 14 sq. m

473. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening.
Ans: 2mm
474. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of timber.
Ans: 10 days

475. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be performed?
Ans: Liquid limit test

476. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base course?
Ans: 0 – 12%
477. The best enemy of construction.
Ans: water

478. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and gradation.
Answer: Compaction

479. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel.
Ans: sounding

480. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is
Ans: 20mm

481. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering materials.
Ans: liquid limit of fines

482. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the expected traffic and
the modulus of the cracked and seated pavement section.
V
Answer: 3” to 5”

483. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is ____ or the
differential deflection is ____.
Ans: greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002”
484. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24 – hour strength by
_____.
Ans: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%

485. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have previously patched by
asphalt by _____ with nominal _____ air pressure.
Ans: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi

486. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form moist in concrete
during mixing without significantly altering the setting or the rate of characteristic of concrete.
Ans: air entraining admixtures
487. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed task to make – up
for the past or future loss of time.
Ans: Delivery control

488. Bowl – shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface.

` Ans: potholes

489. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the pavement.
Ans: corrugation

490. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement.

Ans: shoving

491. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.

Ans: rutting

492. It is the chief load – bearing of gravel road?

Ans: base or subbase course

493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of deposit by pneumatic means.
Ans: 3 meters

494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and subgrade.
Ans: base course

495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered.

Ans: 40 times bar Ø

496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except pavements
conforming to the lines, grade and dimension.
V
Ans: Structural concrete

497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons.

Ans: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi)
498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway structure.
Ans: transom

499. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler?

Ans: 50mm

500. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split spoon sampler and the depth
needed is _____.
Ans: one (1) meter, 30m

501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling.

Ans: 1.50m length

502. The initial diameter of bore hole.

Ans: 76mm

503. What is the core bit diameter?

Ans: 67mm

504. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations.

Ans: ± 4mm

505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 300 VPD traffic.
Ans: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)

506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than 300 VPD traffic.
Ans: 500m (along centerline)

507. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on swampy or marshy ground.
Ans: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)

508. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project

Ans:
1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)
1 boring for each pier for multi – span (3m into the bed rocks)

509. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.
Ans: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline
Depth = ½ times base width

510. For ports and harbors projects:

Ans: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m minimum for piers & wharves)
V
511. For buildings (large area – greater than 930 m2):
Ans: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one on the interior (9m below lowest
foundation)
512. For buildings less than 930 m2
Ans: two (2) boring at opposite corners

513. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x 140mm.
Ans: Flush Surface Reflector

514. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed.

Ans: shrinkage cracking

515. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in design?

Ans: consistency

516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite infestation.
Ans: Cordoning

517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation.

Answer: Drenching

518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not exceed _____

Ans: 22%

519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed _____

Answer: 14%

520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position.

Ans: 244 kg/m2

521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.

Ans: 1,033.50 KPa

522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at each stroke.
Ans: 831.48 kg/m

523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice below ground line or seabed.
Ans: 2.5 meters

524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and other bodies of water.
Ans: dredging

525. The slope of batter piles

Ans: 1:6
V
526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ____
Ans: 0.12%

527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design

Ans: 20%
528. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing capacity.
Ans: footing
529. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above.
Ans: Boring test

530. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill.

Ans: 100mm

531. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a column.
Ans: Spread footing

532. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness
Ans: - 5mm

533. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the ground.
Ans: 700mm

534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the manufactured state.
Ans: ± 3%

535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates that
Ans: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs additional
compaction

536. Liquid limit is usually

Ans: greater than plastic limit

537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor

538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are different from the
on tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you do?
Ans: conduct immediate re – testing for verification

539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?
Ans:
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of material
c. scheduling of delivery of materials
d. design of concrete mix
V
528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has been established on
the ground.
Ans: Minor excavation
540. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% higher than
the optimum moisture content?
Ans: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact

541. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be

Ans: volume

542. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff statement is true?
Ans:
a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum density at low
optimum moisture content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC
d. none of the above

543. Steel bars are considered undersize if

Ans: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper doesn’t meet the manufactured size

544. Geosynthetics may be used for

Ans: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion control

545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content?

Ans:
a. beam balance
b. oven
c. moisture can
d. extruder

546. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements
except grading. What will you recommend?
Ans: reprocess the materials by blending

547. Concrete curing refers to

Ans: procedure done to maximize concrete strength

548. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
Ans: organic

549. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of water as
lubricant?
Ans: Moisture – Density relation test
V
550. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is
Ans: No. 10
551. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method in compaction test?
Ans: 0.002124 m3
552. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass
2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Ans: sand

553. What is ASTM?

Ans: American Society for Testing & Materials

554. What is AASHTO?

Ans: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials

555. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?

Ans: ½ of the thickness

556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised laboratory
testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest methods as prescribed
under
Ans: ASTM & AASHTO

557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have laboratory equipments or
apparatus in pre – bidding qualifications?
Ans: large

558. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?

Ans: colloids

559. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the specimen
Ans: 25mm

560. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and containing
silt – clay materials
Ans: soil aggregates

561. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi – rounded with an average dimension between 75mm
– 305mm
Ans: boulders

562. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them denser and grow
straight.
Ans: Pruning

563. The road near or abutting a bridge.

Ans: Approach
V
564. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves
Ans: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of not more than 225mm depth, loose
materials and extending to the full width of the embankment
565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done
Ans: before the construction work

566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity

Ans: sand and gravel

567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a maximum interval of

Ans: 20 meters

568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade
material for road construction is classified as
Ans: Soil Reinforcement Method

569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a lump
Ans: remove and replace the pavement area with irregularity

570. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately after final
placement especially during the first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks

571. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete?

Ans: Liquid membrane forming

572. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?

Ans: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the specified date

573. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?

Ans: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span on each side have reached the specified strength

574. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand
having high void rather and usually not high water content
Ans: Weak Subgrade

575. What is Twelve – Inch Layer Method Embankment?

Ans: the material shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 300 mm in depth
(12”) loose measure, parallel to the finished grade and extending to the full width of the
embankment

577. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204?
Ans: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil

576. What is Rock Embankment Method?

V
Ans: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by means of
bulldozer. This method is only applicable to fill ≥ 1.2 m in depth. It shall not be placed
within 600 mm of the other grade

578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?

 Ans: the material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited so as to form
the grade and cross section and shall be thoroughly compacted

579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
Ans: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration move also be
considered)

580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?

Ans: were unsuitable material is present under the embankment corrective work consists of
placing a surcharge constructed to the full width of the road bed. The surcharge shall
remain in place until the embankment has reached stability or the required settlement

581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?

Ans: this involves the introduction of water into the embankment to accelerate consideration

582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for surface sealing
Ans: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)

583. What is the formula for percentage of wear?

Ans:
Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
Original wt.

584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass – like reflecting
surface that usually becomes quite sticky
Ans: bleeding

586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement
Ans: crushing

587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the free haul distance
Ans: Overhaul

588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio?
Ans: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water

590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics?

Ans: Dr. Karl Terzhagi
589. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to produce good
grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay?
Ans: Mechanic Stabilization
V
585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion of the slabs
during hot weather
Ans: buckling

591. What is quality?

 Ans: It the degree of excellence

592. What is control?

Ans: Is to regulate

593. What is quality control?

Ans: It is conformance to requirements

594. What is assurance?

Ans: it the degree of certainty

595. What are the two kinds of control activities?

Ans: Inspection and Testing

596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
Ans: 4 – 5 feet

597. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and
hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction process by slowing the rate of evaporation of
moisture from the soil
Ans: Calcium chloride or rock salt

598. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?

Ans: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content increases. Granular material becomes
unstable if it has dried

600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from asphalt cement?
Ans: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from convenience in road – mixing
or priming

601. The theory of concrete design mix is to

Ans: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes properties of cement mortar

602. The simple recipe of Portland cement is

Ans: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of iron ore, then 1
pinch of gypsum added to clinker

603. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on
Ans: cement type, cement content and water content

604. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)?

Ans: Type I
V
605. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Ans: Type II

605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland Cement?

 Ans: Type III

606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement?

Ans: Type IV

607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Ans: Type V

608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement?
Ans: Type 1S

609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement?

Ans: Type 1P

610. Type I is for general use such as

Ans: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges and tanks & water pipes

611. Type III cement is used for

Ans: early stripping of forms & high early strength

612. Type IV is used for

Ans: massive structures such as dams

613. Type V cement is used for

Ans: when sulphate content of groundwater is very high

614. The inventor of Portland cement was

Ans: Joseph Aspdin

615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing

Ans: calcium, alumina, iron and silica

616. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called

Ans: volcanic earth

618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of

Ans: C3S and C2S

619. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but making
it so will only result to sacrifice in
Ans: strength
V
620. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when _____ is added to
Portland cement
Ans: water

621. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by

 Ans: C3A and C4AF

622. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is developed

Ans: hydration

623. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means

Ans: the setting time is larger

624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from

Ans: crushed rock, slags and river gravel

625. The water required for concrete mix should be

Ans: fresh water

626. The entrapped air in concrete is

Ans: accidental and unwanted

627. The entrained air in concrete is

Ans: deliberate and desirable

628. We use aggregate in concrete as

Ans: filler materials in concrete

629. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes care of the concrete’s
Ans: alkalinity

630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly influence:

Ans: the properties of concrete, its mix proportion and its economy

631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete?

Ans: calcium

632. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the average strength
of the cores is equal to or at least _____ of the specified strength, fc’ and no single core is less
than _____
Ans: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c

633. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic impurities
Ans: Colormatic Test

634. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates

Ans: fineness modulus
V
635. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates
Ans: free water

636. What do you mean by SSD?

 Ans: Saturated Surface Dry

637. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if:

Ans: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake cement and it comes from a
discarded or used bag

638. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be sensitive
up to
Ans: 0.1g

639. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is

Ans: objectionable

640. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as

Ans: Water – reducing admixture

641. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal segments?
Ans: five (5)

642. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity
Ans: consistency

643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading to failure
Ans: bearing capacity

644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay

Ans: 2”

645. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed from the oven, it
will placed inside a
Ans: dessicator

646. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay constant weight/mass
Ans: 4 hours

647. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been removed from
the oven within
Ans: 1 hour

648. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above

Ans: Boring Test
V
649. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of working load so that tension
under these loads is reduced
Ans: Pre – stressing

650. A test to determine the moisture content of soil

 Ans: calcium tri – chloride

651. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is

Ans: low

652. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature; the drying
time depends on the kind of soil and size of sample. A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be
dried in about
Ans: 2 hours

653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement

Ans: hot – mix asphalt

654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk

Ans: 1.5 m

655. The limit of water – cement ratio of concrete

Ans: 0.50 – 0.60

656. A cement which has a cementitious effect

Ans: Portland cement

657. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel materials?
Ans: Phospho - molydate

658. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause brittleness or cold
shortness when its content goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Ans: phosphorous

659. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement
Ans: 0.60 m

660. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?
Ans: ± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3 from (water)
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m3 of average (water)
661. In non – entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained?
Ans: 3% - 0.2% (small – bigger aggregates)

662. In air – entrained concrete, what is the range of air entrained?

Ans: 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)

663. What will happen if you lower the water – cement ratio and maintaining other values of its
V
ingredients?
Ans: it will acquire strength

664. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will happen if air content is involved?
Ans: the strength of concrete is reduced
665. What is the mixing time of concrete?
Ans:1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 60 seconds
Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 90 seconds

666. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be disallowed beyond
____
Ans: 1 ½ hours

667. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before batching starts?
Ans: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for draining

668. When will truck mixing start?

Ans: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added
15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32ºC temperature is present

669. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1 hour or 250
revolutions of the drum or Olader. Why?
Ans: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete

670. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size of pipe that is
negligible in the volume computation?
Ans: pipes with Ø of 4” or less

671. The CBR test is used in

Ans: structural design

672. The water content of an air-dried soil is

Ans: capillary

673.Are engineering properties of granular soils.

Ans: A Good load-bearing and Comparatively incompressible
674. The range of water content that a soil ’is in a plastic state is termed
Ans: Plasticity Index
675. A sample of saturated clay has a mass of 102.8 g. After you oven drying, the same soil weighs
73.4 g. If the specific gravity is 2.74, its water content is
Ans: 40%

676. From the previous problem, the void ratio is

Ans: 1.1
677. The porosity is V
Ans: 40% (a) .523 (b) 0.525 (c.) 0.53) (d) 0.533.
678. The wet density, g/ml is
Ans: 40% (a). 1.829 (b) 1.825 (c) 1.827 (d) 1.830,
 679. The dry density, g/ml is
Ans: 40% (a) 1.310 (b) 1.306 (c) 1.300 (d) 1.309.

700. Of the following soil, the poorest rated for subgrade is

Ans: A-7

701. A soil with Group Index of 15 is better than that with

Ans: GI >15

702. The consistency limits of soils are determined on fractions passing

Ans: 425mm
703. The thickest pavement structure could be found on subgrade with CBR value of
(a) 3 (b) 10 (c) 25 (d) 60.
704. The height of fall of the rammer used to determine the moisture density relation of soil in
the T-180 procedure is :
Ans: 457mm
705. Is a heavy monolithic gravity structure consisting of wire baskets filled with coarse
non-degradable rock.
Ans: Gabion
706. Admixtures are used to
Ans: (a) improved workability (b) increase strength (c) retard initial setting
707. What will improve if water cement ratio is lowered
Ans: (a) Compressive Strength (b) Fllexural Strength(c) Bond Strength
708. Concrete specimen molded in a 6”x6’x21” beam mold should be rodded
Ans: 63 times per layer
709. Quality Tests of concrete coarse aggregate sample requires
Ans: Abrasion and Stability Test
710. Concrete fine aggregate should be tested for
d) none of the precedings
711. Greatest net water is required in a concrete mix with ______ fine aggregate
Ans: very fine
712. Slump test could be used to detect
Ans: increase in water
713. Angular coarse aggregate will require more _______ per unit volume of concrete
Ans:water and sand
V
714. Paving concrete will need less ______ than that of structural concrete.
Ans:water and sand
715. Maintaining the water cement ratio, the concrete containing _____ maximum size aggregate will
develop the highest strength.
Ans:2 inches
 716. If the concrete beam specimen is raptured during test outside the middle third, but within 5% of the
span length, the formula to be used in computing the stress is
Ans: PL/bd2
717. Concrete cylinder sample should be molded in ____equal layers.
Ans: 3 (three)
718. In molding concrete cylinder specimen, each layer should be rodded ___ times.
Ans: 25 (twenty five)
719. The fineness modulus is highest for
Ans: very fine sand
720. Concrete mix should be in place____after the cement is added into the aggregates and water.
Ans: 90 minutes
721. The basic type of manufactured asphalt is
Ans: asphalt cement
722. The distance travelled by a standard penetration needle on a prepared sample of asphalt cement under
standard conditions is 13 mm. The materials is a
Ans: 120-150 penetration grade
723. _________ is preferable for bituminous prime coat
Ans: liquid

724. Extraction test is the procedure for separating

Ans: asphalt from mineral aggregates

725. A bituminous concrete hot mix with no asphalt content of 10 is better than one with 5%
Ans: False

726. Asphalt cement is tested for specific gravity to determine its workability.
Ans: True

727. Asphalt cement possessing ductility are normally more _____ than asphalt cements lacking these
characteristics.
Ans: Adhesive

728. An asphaltic material that is identified by penetration grade is

a) an asphalt emulsion b) a cut-back asphalt c) an asphalt cement
729. A Job-Mix Formula provides for close control of
a) asphalt content b) aggregate gradation
c) both of them d) neither of them
730. The optimum asphalt content obtained in a Marshall Stability test is the average of the asphalt
contents at Maximum Stability, Maximum density and
a) Maximum flow b)Maximum air voids V
c) 4% Air voids d) 4 % Flow.
731. The temperature of hot mixes being delivered should not be less than its
a) mixing b) application c) heating d) compaction.
732. The bituminous tack coat is usually applied with aggregate
 a) True b) False c) it depends on the surface application.
733. In the application of the Job-Mix Formula, the allowable tolerance
for the percentage of bituminous materials is
a) + 0.4% b) ) + 0.1% c) + 0.8% d) none of the precedings
734. The air voids of a compacted bituminous mix containing 4.5% asphalt by weight is 5%.
If the specific gravity of the aggregate is 2.65, the bulk specific gravity of the mix is
a) 2.347 b) 2.496 c) 2.268 d) 2.431
735. The required percent retained strength by the Immersion Compression test is 70%
Minimum. If the dry strength is 900 psi the wet strength should be at least:
a) 630 b) 680 c) 730 psi.
736. The embankment should be compacted in layers to at least
a) 95% of Standard Proctor Density b) 100% of Standard Proctor Density
c) 95% of Modified Proctor Density d) 100% of Modified Proctor Density
737. Aggregate Base Course material should be placed in layer having
a compacted thickness of not more than
a) 5 cm b) 15 cm c) 30 cm d) 40 cm
738. Per our present Specifications for Highways and Bridge, including amendments, it is
mandatory to open portland cement concrete pavements to traffic not later than
a) 7 days after pouring b) 14 days after pouring
c) 21 days after pouring d) 28 days after pouring
739. For efficient compaction, the embankment material should at the time of rolling be
a) dry b) wet c) at optimum moisture content d) at maximum moisture content
730. The percentage of Passing No. 200 sieve for fine aggregate used in Portland Cement
Concrete should not exceed.
a) 5.0 b) 3.0 c) 1.5 d) 1.0

731. What is the maximum size of coarse aggregates, if the design mix calls for a Class “A” concrete:
a. 3” b. 2” c. 1 ½ “ d. 1 “

732. What kind of asphalt, that we are going to use, if it is applied to a surface that is dry or slightly
moist:
a. Rapid curing cut back asphalt
b. Emulsified Asphalt
c. Asphalt Cement

733. Who shall prepare the design mix either for concrete or Asphalt pavement:
a. Project engineer (Government side)
b. Materials engineer (Government side)
c. Contractor
V
734. Is the unit of pressure of stress, it is the pressure or stress which is produced when a force of one
newton is applied to an area of one square metre:
a. Newton
b. Pascal
c. Kilonewton/meter
 d. Kilogram/meter

735. A load resulting from the change of speed of a moving vehicle :

a. Liveload
b. Unit load
c. Design load
d. Impact

736. Minimum covering of concrete bridge slab top reinforcement:

a. 50 mm b. 51 mm c. 60 mm d. 70 mm

737. What group classification of soil if the sample is silly or clayer gravel and sand:
a. A-1-b
b. A-2-4
c. A-7-5
d. A-1

738. What method of moisture density relation of soil (laboratory compaction) as determined by
AASHTO-T-90, if the sample if Item 104:
a. Method A
b. Method B
c. Method C
d. Method D

739. What is the mass % hydrated lime be added to the mixture during the mixing operation in dry
aggregate basis?
a. 5.0 to 8.0 %
b. 0.5 to 1.0%
c. 0.9 to 1.0%
d. 1.5 to 2.0%

740. After completion of the pile driving, what is the allowable variation from the butt end from its
theoretical location underneath the pile cap?
a. 100 mm b. 150 mm c. 200 mm d. 250 mm

741. It’s the limit of water content between liquid state and plastic state:
a. Shrinkage limit
b. Plasticity limit
c. Liquid limit
d. Plastic limit

742. Is the color code of Grade 415 Reinforcement steel bars:

V
a. Yellow
b. Red
c. White
d. Green
743. 276 MPa is the minimum yield strength of what grade?
a. Grade 40
b. Grade 60
c. Grade 230
d. Grade 275

744. What will you do if materials incorporated in the work is not yet pre-tested and construction is
nearly completed?
a. Detach it
b. Subject them to test by appropriate methods

745. In case that an investigation will be conducted on a certain project, what is the significance of test
results conducted from materials intended to that projects?
a. Evidence that the Materials Engineer has actually done the testing and passed results
b. No significance
c. None of the above

746. Due to numerous projects allotted to the District Officer, the Materials Engineer was not able to
fully supervise and not personally available in the final inspection. He/she solely depended on the
report of the Project Engineer and technician. What is his/her liability in case problem will arise
later on some projects.
a. He is liable
b. Half liable
c. Not liable

747. What is the minimum index retained strength of bituminous mixture?

a. 30% b. 60% c. 70% d. 85%

748. What test are you going to perform in the classification of soil?
a. PL/LL /Grading
b. Grading compaction
c. PL/LL Grading, Compaction
d. PL/LL Compaction

749. Non-homogenous process mineral material produced by physical and chemical disintegration
where engineering behavior is greatly effect by changes in moisture and density?
a. Aggregate Base Course Materials
b. Aggregate Subbase Course Materials
c. Soil Materials

750. One of the physical properties of asphalt which reacts to the resistance of asphalt to change in
properties due to weathering on aging which involves chemical and physical reaction called
V
oxidation?
a. Adhesion and cones law
b. Temperature susceptibility
c. Consistency
d. Durability
 e. Hardening

751. How many chemical tests for Portland Cement?

a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

752. What do you call the solid portion of paint?

a. Solid particles
b. Pigment
c. Titanium oxide
d. Volatile
e. Non-volatile
f. Extenders

753. For every________bags of cement or fraction thereof one( 1) quality test

a. 2,500 b. 2,000 c. 10,000 d. 200

754. For every______cu.m, of Fine Aggregates one (l) grading test.

a. 76 cu.m b. 74 cu.m c. 75 cu.m d. 1,500

755. For every_______ cu.m. of Fine Aggregates one (l) quality test.
a. 1,500 cu.m. b. 2,500 cu.m c. 75 cu.m. d. 300 cu.m.

756. For every ______cu..m of Coarse Aggregates or fraction thereof one (l) grading test.
a. 75 cu. m b. 300 cu.m c.1,500 d. 2,500
760. For every________of Coarse Aggregates one ( 1) quality test.
a. 300 b. 1,500 c. 2,500 d. 75
761. For every _______ kgs. of Reinforcing Steel Bar or fraction thereof 1 quality test (Q)
a. 5,000 b. 10,000 c. 2,000 d. 1,500
762. For every ________ tons of Asphalt or per shipment 1 quality test (Q)
a. 25 b. 40 c. 20 d. 50
763. How many concrete core bores are required in one ( 1) lot?
a. 3-CB b. 5-CB c. both n & b d. none of the above
764. How many lot is a 1,000 ln.m double lane concrete pavement.
V
a.2 b. 1 c. 4 d. 3
765. In 1 km. of concreted pavement road, one lane, how many core should be taken?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 3 d. none of the above
766. Required degree of compaction for item 202 ?
 a. 95% b. 100% c. both a & b d. none of the above

767. Required degree of compaction for item 105?

a 100% b.95 % c. both a & b d. none of the above

768. Required degree of compaction for item 104?

a. 95% b. 100% c. both a & b d. none of the above

769. "Required degree of compaction for item 200?

a.100% b. 95% c. both a & b d. none of the above

770. Required degree of compaction for item 201?

a. 95 % b. 100% c. both a & b d. none of the above

771. Required degree of compaction for item 300?

a. 95 % b. 100% c. both a & b d. none of the above

772. A set of concrete cylinder sample shall represent how many pieces of pipe culverts?
a. 50 pieces b. 25 pieces c. 60 d. 35

773. How many pieces of CHB samples shall be tested for a 5,000 pieces of none load bearing
CHB?
a. 3 pieces b. 5 pieces c. 10 pieces d. none of the above

774. The Ideal sample to represent a concrete pavement?

a. Beam b. Cylinder c. Conc. Core d. none of the above
775. The ideal sample to represent a Bridge concrete Girder?
a. Beam b. Cylinder c. Conc. Core d. none of the above

776. Portland Cement Concrete Pavement is called?

a. Item 405 b. Item 311 c. Item 407 d. Item 405 V

777. Sub-grade Preparation iscalled?

a. Item 104 b. item 105 c. both a & b d. none of the above
778. Embankment is called!
a. Item 104 b. Item 105 c. Item 311 d. none of the above

779. Aggregate Base Course is called?

a. Item 200 b. Item 201 c. Item 405 d. none of the above

780. Aggregate Sub-Base Course is called?

a. Item 200 b. Item 201 c. both a & b d. none of the above

781. Pipe Culvert and Storm Drain is called?

a. 500(1) b. Item 500(2) c. Item 500 d. Item 501
782. Structural Concrete is called?
a. Item 311 b. Item 405 c. both a & b d. none of the above
783. Structure Excavation is called?
a. Item 102 b. Item 103 c. Item 201 d. none of the above
784. Clearing and Grubbing is called?
a. Item 101 b. Item 100 c. both a & b d. none of the above
785. Aggregate Surface course is called?
a. Item 310 b. Item 311 c. Item 300 d. none of the above
786. Excavation is called?
a. Item 102 b. Item 100 c. Item 104 d. Item 105
787. Aside from sample splitter, What method should be applied to sample for soils/aggregate materials?
a. Quartering b. Splitting c. both a & b d. none of the above
788. Plastic Limit required for Item 200?
a. >26 b> 25 c. >30 d. >12

789. Ideal concrete Slump for Item 311?

a. 50-76 mm b. 76-100 mm c. 100-150mm d. 0.050 mm

790. Concrete Beam sample should continuously cured for?

a.28 days b. 14days c. 15 days d. 7 days V

791. "Concrete Cylinder sample should be continuously cured for?

a.28 days b. 14 days c. 7 days d. 15 days
792. Max. size of F.A. for Item 311 & 405?
 a. ½” b. 3/8” c. ¾” d. none of the above

793. Maximum size of 202?

a. ½ “ b. 2” c. ¾” d. 2 ½

794. Maximum size of 200?

a. 3 “ b. 2” c. ¾” d. 3 ½.

795. Maximum size of 201?

a. 3 “ b. 2” c. ¾” d. 1 ½.

796. Maximum size of 311?

a. 3 “ b. 2” c. 3 ½ ” d. 2 ½.

797. Maximum size of Selected Borrow materials for topping?

a. 3 “ b. 2” c. 2 ½ ” d. 1 ½.

798. Max. size of Item 300

a.2 ½ “ b. 1” c. ¾ “ d. 3”.

799. For every ______ square meters or fraction thereof, One In-situ Density Test?
a. 400 sq. m b. 500 sq.. m c. 150 m d. 50 m

800. How many hole in 1 In Situ- Density?

a. 4-Holes b.3 -Holes c. 1 Hole d. none of the above

801. How many pieces in 1 set of Concrete Beam Sample,?

a. 4 pieces b.3 pieces c. 7 pieces d. none of the above

802. How many pieces in 1 set of Concrete Cylinder Sample?

a. 4 pieces b.3 pieces c. 7 pieces d. none of the above
V

803. Laboratory Compaction of Item 104, tested by AASHTO T99, method “C”, how many
blows?
a. 56 blows/ Layer b.25 B/L c. 30 B/L d. none of the above
804. Laboratory Compaction of Item 200, tested by AASHTO T180, method “D”, how many
blows?
a. 56 blows/ Layer. b. 25 B/L, c. 30 B/L d. none of the above
805. Preparation of Concrete Beam Sample, how many stroke / layer?
a. 56 S/L b. 53 S/L c. 63 S/L d. none of the above

806. Preparation of Concrete Cylinder Sample, how many Layer /Sampling

a. 2- layers b. 3 –layers c. 5- layers d. None of the above

807. CBR value of Item 200 min.?

a.25% b. 30% c. 80% d. 100%
808. CBR value of ltem 201 min.?
a)30% b. 80% c.35% d.25%
809. Abrasion Loss requirement of item 201 max?
a. 40% b. 50% c.35% d.25%

810. Abrasion Loss requirement of item 200 max?

a.40% b. 40% c. 45% c. 45%
811. Liquid Limit for Item 200 max?
a.25 b.30 c. 35 c. 40
812. Liquid Limit for Item 201 max?
a.25 b. 30 c. 35 c. 40
813. Liquid Limit for Selected Borrow materials for Topping?
a.25 b. 30 c. 35 c. 40
814. Plasticity Index (PI) for Item 200 max?
a.6 b. 9 c. 12 c. 15
815. Plasticity Index (PI) for Item 201 max?
a.6 b. 9 c. 12 c. 15
816 .Maximum size of soil particle for Item 104(selected borrow for topping):
V

a. 2 ½ in b. 3.0 in c. 1 ½ in d. None of the above

817. Item 104 materials, particle passing sieve 75 mm(3.0 in) square openings should not be
 more than____% passing 0.075 mm(No. 200) sieve, as determined by AASHTO TII.

a.1% b. 3% c.1 ½ % d.15%.

818. Roadway embankment of item 104 material shall be placed in horizontal layers not exceeding
____loose measurement, and shall be compacted before the next layer is placed:
a. 150 mm b.200 mm c. 100 mm d. none of the above

819.Lifts of materials(Item 104) having >25 mass percent of rocks larger than 150 mm in dimension shall
not be constructed above ______below the finished sub-grade:
a..150 mm b. 200 mm c. 300 mm d. none of the above

820.The sampling requirement for paving concrete for every 75 cu. m. is:
a. .1 set of 3 cylinder sample c.1 set of 3 beam sample
b. 3 sets of 3 cylinder sample d. 3 sets of 3 beam sample
821.What kind of reinforcement is used for dowel bars of a PCCP?
a. plain square bars b. plain round bar c.def. square bars d. def. round bars

822.Unless other sizes are shown in the plans, stones for stone masonry should have a minimum thickness
of:
a. 100 mm b.150mm c. 200 mm d.250 mm

823.What is Item 504 in the DPWH Standard Specification?

a. Structural Concrete c. Riprap and grouted riprap
b. Pre stressed Concrete d. Stone masonry
824.In compacting materials on fill, adequate and appropriate compaction equipment should
be used and undertaken along the embankment in what direction?

825.What equipment is used to “proof roll” the sub-grade of a road?

a.Pneumatic tired roller c. sheep foot roller
b. vibratory roller d. steel wheel roller
826.The rate of application.of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat 302 should be within the
V
range of:

a. 0.2-0.5 l/m2 b.0.2-0.7l/m2 c. 0.15-0.7 l/m2 d.0.15-0.5 l/m2

827.Embankment material should be laid and compacted by layer at maximum thickness of:
a. 100 mm b. 400 mm c. 500 mm (d)200 mm

828.Which of the following equipment should be used for properly compacting uniformly graded soil
material for embankment:
a. Three wheeled roller c. Pneumatic roller

b. vibratory roller d. Tandem roller

829.The most important single factor affecting the strength of concrete is:
a. The quality of aggregates and cement c. Curing condition

b. water cement ratio d. Duration of mixing

830.Who recommends actions to resolve problems during field implementation of a project?

a. Project Engineer c. Project Inspector

b. Resident Engineer d. Materials Engineer

831.Finish on final rolling of newly laid-asphalt concrete is required in order to:

a. Remove excess asphalt cement c. Allow bigger aggregates to penetrate deeper

b. Eliminate roller marks d. Cool the asphalt concrete before opening to traffic

832. The uniformly compacted sub-grade, sub-base and base course must be extended at least______from
either side of the width to be concreted:
Ans: 60 cm.

833.For building, borings are generally made:

a. One at each comer b. One at the center

c. One at one comer and one at the center d. One at each comer and one at the center
834. For Item 104 under selected borrow, materials passing sieve with 75mm(3.0in) square V
a.85% b. 100% c. 75% d. 95%

835. For Item-104, existing ground shall be compacted to a depth of:

a. 100 mm b. 200 mm c. 150 mm d. 8 inches
836. Maximum size of materials for Item 200 is:
a, 3.0in b. 2.0 in c. 1 '/* in d. 3 Vi in

837. CBR (soaked) value of Item 200, should not be less than?
a. 20% by 25% c. 30% d.80%

838. Item 200 shall have a LL of not greater than ?

a. 25 b.)35 c. 30 d. 20
839. Item 200 shall have a PL of not greater than?
a. 12 b. 15 c. 10 d.6
840. Aggregate Sub-Base shall be compacted and have a tolerance of layer thickness of:
a. +/- 20 mm b. +/- 10 mm c. +/-15 mm d. none of the above
841. Item 201 shall have a maximum size of:
a.2” b. 1 1/2 c. 2 1/2 d.3
842. CBR value for sub-base course shall not be less than:
a. 40 % b. 35 % c. 30 % d. 25%

843. If conventional base course materials are not available, blending of weathered limestone is
allowed with a proportion of:

a. 40 % limestone ; 60 % gravel b. 50-50 proportion

c. 60 % limestone ; 40 % gravel d. none of the above

844. For Item 201 under grading B maximum passing of 1 ½ “ materials:

a.. 30-55 b. 20-50 c. 60-85 d. 100
845. In the conduct of CBR test as to T-193 maximum size of particles is:
a. 1” b. ¾ “ c. ½” d. 1 ½ ”

846. Maximum size for Item 202 is: V

a. 1” b. ¾ “ c. 1 ½” d. 2

847. Abrasion Test for Item 202 shall have a mass % of wear not exceeding _____ by
Los Angeles Abrasion Test (LAAT)
 a. 40% b.45%. c. 50% d.70%

848. Item 202 shall have a mass percent of ____with at least one (1) fractured face;

a) <50 b) <40 c) . <45 d) . <85

849. Lower.water-cement ratio in concrete mixes improves

a) strength
b) durability
c) water-tightness
d) all of the preceding.

850. It is a test used to determine the relative proportion of asphalt cement and diluents present in liquid
asphalt

a) Distillation b)extraction c) penetration

d) solubility

851. Which index of retained strength is most preferable for bituminous mixture in accordance with
immersion compression test:

a) 70% b) 75%c) 80%

852. An asphaltic materials that is intensified by penetration grade is

a)an asphalt emulsion b)an asphalt cement c)cut back asphalt

853. Aggregate base coarse materials should be placed in layers having a loose thickness of not more than

a) 5 cm b)15 cm c) 30cm d) 40 cm

854. The compaction of soil material in embankment construction should be

a) 50 cm loose layers b) 30 cm loose layers

c) 20 cm loose layers d) one layer

855. Per present specs for highways and bridges including’ amendments , PCC Pavement should be V
opened to traffic not later than

a) 7 days after pouring b)l4 days after pouring

c) 21 days after pouring d)28daysafterpouring
856. For efficient compaction, the embankment materials should at the time of rolling be

a) dry b) wet c) at optimum moisture content d) at maximum moisture content

857. Based on the maximum dry density obtained by laboratory test, the degree of compaction required by
embankment materials should be at least

a) 75% b) 85% c) 95% d) 100%

858. The minimum flexural strength required for Portland cement concrete pavement at 14 days by mid-
point method is

a) 525 psi b) 600 psi c) 500 psi d) 700 psi

859. The embankment should be compacted in layers to at least

a) 95% of standard proctor density b) 100% of std proctor density

b) 95% of modified proctor density c)100% of modified proctor density

860. A surface coarse of gravel or either granular materials without manufactured admixture,
the plasticity should be

a) Less than 4 b) 4 to 9 c) 9 to 12 c) more than 12

861. The maximum percent abrasion loss allowed for concrete coarse aggregate is

a) 20% b) 30% c)40% d)100%

862. The plasticity index of aggregate base coarse should be not greater than

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

863. The percent asphalt cement content in bituminous concrete should be

a) 1 to 3 b) 4 to 8 c) 6 to 10 d) 10 to 12

864. Moisture content of soil is generally based on

a) Degree of saturation b) weight of solids

c)Total weight of soils

865. Sandy soils have a higher plasticity index than clayey soils
V
a) True b) False c) it depends on size distribution

866. A fine-grained soil will decrease in volume if water content decreases while the soil is in the
 a) Plastic state b) semi-solid state c) both of the preceding

867. The empirical number used in design is

a) Plasticity index b) Group index c) both of the preceding

868. The degree of compaction of soil affect the CBR value

a) True b) False c) it depends on porosity

869. Shrinkage limit dried the minimum volume of soil when dried

a)True b) False c) it depends on porosity

870. High cohesion makes the soil more desirable for a road base or subbase

a)True b) False c) it depends on specific gravity

871. Sand has a Factor rate of consolidation than clay

a) True b) False c) it depends on in-place density

872. Fine-grained soils are preferable than coarse grained soils for construction of highways embankment

a)True b) False c) it depends on grading

871. Organic soil

Ans. : Peat/Muck

872. Ratio of volume of voids to volume of soil

Ans. : Porosity
V
873. Test to determine volume change and strength characteristics

Ans. : CBR

874. Density in place

 Ans. :

875. Test to determine degree of compaction

Ans. : FDT

876. Fine-grained soil

Ans. : Sand

877. Ratio of volume voids to volume of solids

Ans. : Void Ratio

878. Test to determine pay volume

Ans. : Coring

879. Density correlated with field compaction

Ans. : Max. Density

880. Test to determine volume change characteristics

Ans. : Consolidation

881. (a) Rock Asphalt (b) Asphalt Emulsion (c) Asphalt Cement (d) Cutback
Asphalt is an asphalt formed by natural process of evaporation.

882. Uncrushed aggregates are preferable than crushed aggregates for bituminous mixture (a) True
(b) False (c) It depends on the type of bituminous material.

883. The apparatus used in determining the consistency of liquid asphalt is the (a) flowmeter
(b) viscometer (c) penetrometer (d) psychometer

884. (a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Blown (d) Hot asphalt

is preferable for bituminous prime coat.

885. (a) Distillation (b) Extraction (c) Penetration (d) Solubility is the test used in
determining the amount of asphalt cement in a liquid asphalt.
V
886. (a) Asphalt cement (b) Cut-back asphalt (c) Asphalt mixes (d) Asphalt Emulsion are
usually tested for extraction.

887. Extraction test is the procedure used for separating

a) The asphalt from water in emulsified asphalt ;
 b) Asphalt from mineral aggregates;
c) Asphalt from gasoline solvent;
d) Asphalt from kerosene solvent

888. (a) Distillation (b Viscosity (c) Flash point (d) Softening Point indicated the safe working
temperature of the asphalt.

889. The optimum asphalt content obtained in a Marshall stability Test is the average of the asphalt
content of the Maximum Stability, Maximum density and

(a) Maximum flow (b) Maximum Air Voids (c) 4% Air Voids (d) 4% flow.

890. (a) VMA (b) Air voids (c) Permeable voids are intergranular void spaces between
aggregate particles.

891. The main difference a bulk measured specific gravity of a bituminous mixtures and its maximum
measured specified gravity is the

(a) weight of the voids (b) weight of the asphalt (c) volume of the voids (d) volume of
the aggregates.
892. (a) Asphalt cement (b) Emulsified asphalt (c) Rapid curing cut-back (d)Medium curing cut-
back is the best type of asphalt to be used for hot mixes.

893. The field density of a bituminous pavement shall not be less than

(a) 92% (b)95% (c) 98% of the specific gravity of the laboratory compacted specimen.

894. A bituminous coating specified in an existing road prior to laying of bituminous surface overlay is

(a) prime coat (b) tack coat (c) seal coat

895. The distance travelled by a standard penetration needle on a prepared sample of asphalt cement
under conditions for normal penetration is 8.6 mm. The material
is (a)40-50 (b) 85-100 (c) 120-150 (d) 200-300 penetration grade.

896. The maximum specific gravity of an asphalt mix containing 6.0% asphalt by weight of mix is 2.5.
If the specific gravity, the asphalt is 1.01, the specific gravity of the aggregate is equal to (a) 2.65
(b) 2.56 (c) 2.76 (d) 2.70

897. A job-mix formula provides for close control of (a) asphalt content (b)aggregate gradation
(c) both of them (d) neither of them.
V
898. The desired property of fresh concrete is

(a) strength (b) durability (c)workability (d) water tightness.

899. The slave used in the separation of aggregate after the abrasion test is

(a) 0.425mm(no. 40) (b) 4.75mm(No.4) (c) 1.70mm(no.12) (d)0.075mm(n0.200)

900. Normally concrete mix with

(a) 0.75 (b) 0.3 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.45 water-cement ratio will develop the lowest strength.

901. The most important single factor which affects the quality of concrete is

(a) cement content(b) aggregate gradation (c) water-cement ratio (d) aggregate quality.

902. Paving concrete will need less ___ than that of structure concrete.
(a) sand (b) water (c) coarse aggregate (d) both a & b

903. Concrete specimen molded in a 6”x6”x21” beam mold should be rodded

(a)60 (b) 61 (c) 62 (d) 63 times per layer.

904. Quality determination of concrete coarse aggregate sample requires

(a) abrasion test (b) sieve analysis (c) stability (d) both a & b.

905. Concrete mix should be in place

(a) 100 min (b) 120 min (c) 15 min (d) 30 min after the cement is added into the
aggregate and water.

906. Concrete beam specimens for paving concrete are molded in

(a) 2 equal layers (b) 3 equal layers (c) 4 equal layers (d) any of the preceding.

907. A Minimum cement factor of

(a) 7.5 (b) 8.5 (c) 9.5 (d) 10.0 bags per cubic meter of concrete is required for paving
concrete. (based on the 94lb bag of cement)

908. The volume of the (a) concrete (b) cement (c) air (d) all of the preceding can be
calculated by performing the unit weight test on the fresh concrete.

909. The use of manufactured fine aggregate will generally require more

(a) mixing water (b) fine aggregate (c) coarse aggregate (d) both a & b.

910. The two major components of concrete are

(a) paste and mineral aggregate (b)cement and water (c) water and coarse aggregate.

911. The coarser the fine aggregate, the higher the fineness modulus.
V
(a) yes (b) no (c) depends on the grading test

912. The more the concrete is exposed, the greater the range of movement is
(a) True (b) False (c) it depends upon the type of cement.
913. The samples of reinforcing steel bar to be submitted for test should be at least
(a) 20 cm (b) 40 cm (c) 100 cm.

914. For efficient compaction, the embankment material should at the time of rolling be
(a) dry (b) wet (c) at optimum moisture content.

915. (a) 15,000 kg (b) 10,000 kg (c) 5,000 kg of 12.5 mm diameter steel bar for concrete
reinforcement is the maximum quantity that a sample can represent.

916. Per cur present specifications for Highways and Bridges, including amendments, it is mandatory to
open Portland cement concrete pavements to traffic not later than (a) 7 days after pouring
(b) 14 days after pouring (c) 21 days after pouring (d)28 days after pouring.

917. For 850 m3 of concrete paved in one day (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 sets of concrete beam samples
should be taken and tested for strength (thickness of pavement=0.23m).
918. For 4050 m3 concrete coarse aggregate (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 4 samples should be
submitted for quality tests.

919. The coarse aggregate of Item 20 dia, Aggregate base coarse shall have a percentage of wear of not
more than (a) 40% (b)45% (c) 50% (d) 60% as determined by Los Angeles Rattler Test.

920. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as bituminous prime coat is

(a) 0.5 to 1.0 L (b) 1.0 to 1.5 L (c) 1.5 to 2.0 L per square meter.

921. Steel bars for concrete reinforcement is tested for its

(a) tensile (b) compression (c)bending (d) both a & c properties.

922. For 250 gallons of Red Lead Paint

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 samples should be submitted for quality test.

923. The number of samples of structure steel (reduced section) required for 38,000 kg is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3

924. (a) Third point loading (b) Mid-span loading (c) Three-edge bearing is the method
used in determining the strength of concrete pipes.

925. An aggregate Base Coarse of 23750 m3 will require ___ quality tests.

(a) 80 (b) 50 (c) 20 (d) 16

926. The plasticity index of aggregate base course should be not greater than
V
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 8.

927. Concrete hollow blocks are tested for its

(a) compression (b) absorption and dimensions (c) tensile (d) both a & b (e) both b & c.
928. Which plasticity index is most suitable for aggregate base course?
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 50

929. The specified flexural strength for paving concrete is

(a) 350 (b) 400 (c) 325 (d) 300 psi when tested by the third point method.

930. The sample of 12.5 mm diameter steel bar to be submitted for test should be at least
(a) 20 cm (b) 40 cm (c) 100 cm (d) none of the above.

931. (a) Third point loading (b) Three-edge bearing test (c)Mid-span loading (d)None
of the above is the method used in determining the strength of concrete pipes.

932. Pre-stressed concrete requires the use of Class

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) P concrete.

933. If an asphalt pavement will be constructed over an old existing concrete pavement
(a) prime coat (b) tack-coat (c) seal coat (d) mortar coat should be applied to the concrete
pavement it.

934. For bituminous concrete mixes the asphalt material may either be asphalt cement or asphalt
emulsion (a) True (b) False

935. Coarse aggregate for Bituminous Macadam pavement should be

(a) crushed gravel or stone (b) natural gravel (c) both a & b (d) none of the above

936. Tests for coarse aggregate include

(a) abrasion (b) mortar strength (c)absorption (d) all of the preceding.

949. Tests for fine aggregate for concrete includes

(a) gradation (b) mortar strength (c) abrasion (d) all of the preceding.

950. Unless otherwise specified in the special provision, the type of porland cement used in paving
concrete shall be (a) Type I (b) Type II (c) Type III (d) Type IV.

951. During construction of a road project, if all the materials to be used are tested for quality, inspection
is no longer required (a) True (b) False.
952. The degree of compaction of an embankment in our present specifications is based on
(a) CB 3 method (b) unconfined compression test (c) AASHTO Design I-180 (d) Bulk specific gravity.

953. Under excavation for structures, Item 106, the backfilling operation shall be done in______ cm. loose
V
layer and compacted to at least_______ percent.
Ans. 20cm, 95%

954. Item 306 is called _______________________________

a) Bituminous Surface treatment
 b) Bituminous Road Mix Surface Course
c) Bituminous Plant Mix (Stockpile Maintenance Mixture)
d) Bituminous Penetration Macadam Pavement

955. In the preparation of an asphalt design mix intended for Item 310, the proportion of bituminous
material (asphalt cement) on the basis of total dry aggregates shall be from:
a) 4 to 8 percent
b) 3 to 5 percent
c) 5 to 7 percent
d) 5 to 8 percent

956. Item______ included general requirements that are applicable to all types of bituminous plant mix
surface courses irrespective of gradation of aggregates or kind and amount of bituminous material.
a) Item 306
b) Item 307
c) Item 308
d) Item 310

957. ____________ is the result of asphalt layer instability or granular base or subgrade weakness. The
pavement usually twist out of shape.
a) Disintegration
b) Upheaval
c) Distortion
d) Bleeding

958. _____________ the localized upward displacement if a pavement due to swelling of the subgrade or
some portion of the pavement structure.
a)Upheaval
b) Edge Cracking
c) Ravelling
d) Depression

959. Item ___________ consist of furnishing and placing one or more courses of graded aggregates and
one or more application of bituminous material followed by a seal coat with cover aggregates constructed
in a prepares base is:
a) Item 303
b) Item 304
c) Item 305
d) Item 306

960. An asphalt cement submitted in the laboratory for quality test should always have a corresponding.
a) Job Mix Formula
V
b) Test Reports
c) Sample Card
d) Minimum Testing Requirement
 961. Soils and natural aggregates of minerals connected by strong & permanent cohesive forces
(a) True (b) False.

962. The boundary between sand and gravel is

a. 0.425 mm (#40) (b)4.75mm(No.4) (c) 2.0 mm (no. 10) (d) 0.075 mm (No. 200) sieve.

963. A (a) sandy clay (b)clayey sand (c) sand clay (d) none of the preceding is a soil
exhibits the properties of a clay but contains an appreciable amount of sand.

964. Plasticity test is done on soils passing

(a) 0.425mm (no.40) (b) 2.0mm (no..10) (c)0.075mm (no. 200) sieve.

965. (a) Soil compaction (b) Mechanical analysis (c) In Place Unit weight (d) CBR is the
process whereby soil particles are contained more closely together through a reduction in the air voids,
generally by mechanical means.

966. Soils containing more than 35% passing 0.075 mm (no. 200) sieve are classified under (a) silt-clay
materials (b) granular materials (c) it depends on the plasticity index.

967. (a) Surface drainage (b) Chemical admixtures (c) Compaction (d) Subsoil drainage is
provided for the purposes of counteracting moisture movement within the structure either by seepage
or capillary action.

968. A subgrade soil with a CBR value of will require a thicker layer of subbase and base course.

(a) 5% (b) 15% (c) 30% (d) 3%

969. (a) Particle rearrangement (b) Sodding or sprigging (c) paving (d) flattening is one of
the methods of stabilizing inferior soils.

970. The physical and engineering properties of soils may be improved by (a)
compaction (b) stabilization (c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b.

971. Water content of soils is generally based on the

(a) total weight of soils (b) total volume of soil (c) weight of solids (d) none of the
preceding.
972. The density to which a soil can be compacted is related to
(a) compactive efforts (b) water content (c) both a and b (d) none of the preceding.
V
973. Disturbed samples may be used for
(a) sieve test (b) liquid limit (c)compaction test (d) any of the preceding.

974. A soil with a Group Index of 5 is stronger than another with a group Index of 10
 (a)True (b) False (c) it depends on the water content.

975. (a) Water content (b) Void ratio (c) Degree of saturation (d) porosity determines the
relative amount of water in the voids.

976. In Soil Engineering the term “Soil” includes

(a) clay (b) gravel (c) sand (d) all of the preceding.

977. The compressibility of a fine grained soil is

(a) high (b) low (c) it depends upon the grain size.

978. Sand has a greater load carrying capacity than clay.

(a) True (b) False (c) it depends gradation (d) it depends on water content.

979. The highest moisture content in the plastic consistency of fine grained soil is the
(a) liquid limit (b) plastic limit (c) shrinkage limit.

980. Compaction increases the strength of s soil by

(a) expelling air from its voids (b)forcing soil particles into more intimate contact
(c) both a and b.

981. (a) Plastic Limit (b) Shrinkage Limit (c) Plasiticity Index indicates a range of moisture
content over which a soils is plastic.

982. Water content of an undisturbed soil is called

(a) optimum moisture content (b)hygroscopic moisture content (c) natural water content.

983. In the performance of Moisture density relation test, the equipment used is
(a)liquid limit device (b) sand core apparatus (c) rammer and mold (d)none of the above.

984. Peat and muck are

(a) fair subgrade soils (b) stable soils (c) unstable soils (d)good subgrade soil.

985. The particle sixe distribution of a soil is determined by

(a) liquid limit test (b) sieve analysis test (c) plastic limit test (d) any of the preceding.

986. To prevent intrusion of soft subgrade material into the aggregate base or subbase
(a) reinforced earth (b)rock buttress (c) gabions (d) geotextile may be used.

987. The CBR value is generally selected at V

(a) 0.10 (b) 0.0375 (c) 0.05 (d) 0.20 in penetration.
988. (a) Particle rearrangement (b) Sodding or sprigging (c) paving (d) None of the preceding
is one of the methods in improving the properties of a soil to make it suitable for a particular purpose.
989. A sample of saturated clay has a mass of 102.8 g. After oven drying, the same soil weights 73.4 g.
If the specific gravity is 2.74, its wet density g/ml is

(a) 1.829 (b)1.825 (c) 1.827 (d) 1.830.

990. The dry density, g/ml is

(a) 1.310 (b) 1.306 (c) 1.300 (d) 1.309.

991. Maximum spacing of the closed stirrups of columns is

a. d/2 b. d/7 c.d/3 d. d

992. Spacing of closed stirrups of column at a height h from the bottom and the top of the beam will not
exceed;
a. 10 cm b. 8 cm c. 11 cm d. 9 cm

993. Buildings with natural ventilation has an ideal height of;

a. 2.4 b. 2.5 c. 2.7 d. 2.8

994. Footings located at 2.4 m below grade along national roads of public highway can be projects
beyond the property line at a maximum of ;
a. 200 mm b. 400 mm c. 300 mm d. 500 mm

995. Standard height of habitable rooms provided with artificial ventilation

a. 2.1 b. 2.4 c. 2.5 d. 2.7

996. Recommended point of construction joint for a concrete beam is located at

a. d/3 b. d/5 c. d/2 d. d/4

997. At what height of residential bldg does not required a seismic analysis
a. 7.0m b. 7.5m c. less than 7.5 m d. more than 7.5 m

998. Standard spacing of stirrups on concrete beam at a distance of 20 from the support is
a. d/3 b. d/4 c. d/2 d. d

999. A soil profile with dense or stiff soil conditions, where the soil depth exceeds 60 m or more has an
S factor of
a. 1.2 b. 2.0 c. 1.0 d. 1.5

1000. For more than one-storey building shall have a maximum clearance height of
a. 2.5 m b. 2.4 m c. 2.6 m d. 2.7 m

1001. Mixture of asphalt cement and water with emulsifying agent is called V
a. R.C. Cutback b. MC Cutback c. Asphalt Emulsion d.Neither of them

1002. A job mix formula provides for close control of

a. Asphalt content b. Agg. Gradation c. Both of them d. neither of them
1003. _______ are the small air spaces between coated aggregates
a. VMA b. Air voids c. Permeable voids

1004. ___________ is the resistance of an asphalt pavement to disentegration due to the effect of
water, traffic and change of temperature the amount of air voids in a compacted asphalt mixture

Ans. Durability

1005. The amount of air voids in a compacted asphalt mixture

a. Increased b. Decreased c. Remains constant as the asphalt content is increased.

1006. Which percent air voids is most preferable in bituminous mixture

a. 6 % b. 5% c. 8% d. 10%

1007. The optimum asp. Content obtained in a Marshall Stability Test is the average of the asphalt
content of maximum stability, maximum density and
a. Maximum flow b. Maximum air voids c.4% air voids d. 4% flow

1008. Crushed aggregate are preferable than uncrushed aggregate for bituminous mixtures

a. True b. False c. It depends on the type of bituminous materials.

1009. The effective asphalt content is

a. lower than b. higher than c., equal to the asphalt content

1010. The main difference between a bulk measured specific gravity of an asphalt mixtures and
its maximum measured specific gravity is the

a. weight of the voids b. weight of the asphalt c. vol.of voids

1011. The air voids of a compacted bituminous mixes containing 4.5% asphalt by weight if 5%. If
the specific gravity of the aggregate if 7.65, the ;
Solution :
5% = 2.65-Gmb
2.65
0.05 = 2.65-Gmb
2.65
100
Gm = 4r5 + 100-4.5 = 2.469
101 2.65
Av= 0.05
Av=Gm-Gmb V
Gmb

0.05 = 2.469-Gmb
2.469
 Gmb = 2.469- ).05 (2.469)
= 2.34

1012. The required % retained strength by the 1 mm/compaction test is 70% minimum. If they
dry strength is 900 psi. The wet stability should be a least
a. 630 b. 680 c. 730 psi

1013. Field density of a bituminous pavement shall not be less than

a. 92% b. 95% c. 98% of the specific gravity of the laboratory compacted temp..

1014. The temperature of hot mixes being delivered should not be less than its
a. mixing b. application c. heating d. compaction temp.

1015. The bituminous tack coat is usually applied with aggregate

a. True b. False c. it depends on the surface application

1016. A bituminous coating applied in an existing road prior to laying of bituminous surface
overlay is
a. Prime coat b. Tack coat c. Seal coat

1017. Emulsified asphalt can be used as bituminous materials for Macadam construction.

A. True b. False c. it depends upon the aggregate availability

1018. 3000 psi equivalent to

a. 20.7 Mpa b. 410 Mpa c. 310 Mpa d. 210 Mpa

1019. Fc’ is to concrete as fy is to

a. concrete b. steel c. wood d. wood & steel

1020. What is required height of a habitable room that is provided with artificial ventilation

a. 2.40 m b. 3.00 m c. 2.70 m d. 2.10 m

1021. What is the required window opening for a room that is not provided with artificial
ventilation
a. at least 10% of floor area of room
b. at least 5% of floor area of room
c. at least 15% of floor area of room
d. at least 20% of floor area of room
V
1022. The required wind speed in Zone III is
a. 150 kph
b. 200 kph
c. 175 kph
d. 100 kph
1023. What is the required ground acceleration for Palawan? a.
a. 0.20g
b. 0.30g
c. 0.40g
d. 0.50g

1024. Linhoff means

a. Drainage
b. Septic tank
c. Rainwater
d. sanitary

1025. Boring or plate load test is required for buildings

a. Four storey
b. Three storey
c. Two storey
d. One storey

1026. Torsional moment occurs if the center of mass is not coincident with the center of gravity
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Not sure

1027. It is a displacement of one level relative to the level above or below it

a. storey drift
b. Torsion
c. P Delta
d. Shear

1028. What is the corrugated bar place perpendicular to the part at the center of pavement
Ans. Tie Bar
V

1029. What is the bar used (pain) with sleeve in the construction joint.
Ans. Dowel Bar
1030. What is the contraction weakened joint transverse contraction joint
 Ans. Weakened Plane Joint
1031. What is the joint where you place your bar cold joint
Ans. Transverse construction “dowel”/ Transverse construction joint –

1032. Distance travelled by a penetration needle on a prepared sample of asphalt cement under
standard condition is 13 mm the material is a a. 60-70 b. 85-100
c. 120-150 d. 200-300 per grade

1033. The ___________ compares the compressive strength of dry and wet specimen of asphalt
mix a. Marshall stability test
b. MM/Comp. Test c. Job Mix Formula

1034. A bit concrete mix with an Asphalt mix content of 10 is better than one with 5%

a. True b. False c. it depends on mixing temperature

1035. The flow value of Marshall stability is a measure of

a. Strength b. Voids c. Deformation d. All of the preceding

1036. Asphalt cement is tested for specific gravity to determine its workability
a. True b. False c. It depends upon its consistency

1037. The ability of asphalt to strength to a fine thread without breaking

a. Solubility b. Ductility c. Viscosity

1038. Asphalt cement possessing ductility are normally more

a. ____b. Adhesive c. Soluble d. Workable than asphalt cement lacking these
characterization

1039. An asphalt material that is identified by penetration grade is

a. An asphalt emulsion b. Cutback asphalt c. An asphalt cement

1040. Blown asphalt is usually used for paving

a. True b. false c. It depends upon its durability

1041. Which is the hardest grade it penetration asphalt

a. 40-50 b. 60-70 c. 85-100 d. 120-150

1042. Asphalt cement is usually tested for

a. Viscosity b. Distillation c. Extraction d. Penetration V

1087. Shrinkage limit is the minimum volume of a soil when dried

a. True b. False c. it depends on porosity
1088. High cohesion makes the soil more desirable for a road base or subbase
a. True b. False c. it depends on specific gravity
 1089. Sand has a factor rate of consolidation than clay
a. True b. False c. it depends on in-place density
1090. Fine-grained soils are preferable than coarse grained soils for construction of highways
embankment
a. True b. False c. it depends on grading

1091. For testing reinforcing steel bars, the sample for every 10 tons should be:
a) 0.5 meter long
b) 1.0 meter long
c) 1.5 meter long
d) 2.0 meter long

1092. To protect Portland cement concrete pavement against rain before it has sufficiently
hardened, the contractor should be required to have at all times any of the following materials
with the exception of:
'(a) metal forms or wood planks

c) burlaps or cotton mats

d) plastic sheeting material
e) plastic water stops

1093. Unless other sizes are shown, in the plans Stones for stone masonry should have a minimum
thickness of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm
1094. What is Item 504 in the DPWH Standard Specification?
a) Structural concrete
b) Prestressed concrete
c) Riprap and grouted riprap
d) Stone masonry
1095. What do you call the layer of specified material placed between the base and subgrade?
a) Filling materials b) Sub-base c)
Embankment d) Fine aggregates

1096. What is the accepted required roller speed in compacting?

a) 2 to 3 km/ hr
b)3 to 5 km/ hr
c) 6 to 7 km/ hr
d) 8 to 9 km/ hr
1097. Embankment material should be laid and compacted Ly layer at maximum V
thickness of:
a) 100 mm
b) 400 mm
c) 500 mm
d) 200 mm
1098. Sub-grade soil is well compacted under the controlled condition of:
a) Over saturation with water
b) Optimum moisture content and maximum dry density
c) Dry soil
d) Cold weather

V
 Set No. 60 Page: 2
k
1099. Aside from rolling and vibration, compaction of sands and other uniform graded earth materials can also

be achieved by:
a) Watering, ponding & jetting
b) Blending it with portland cement
c) Sprinkling bitumen

d) Exposing to traffic

1100. The tolerance for the thickness of concrete pavement for non-payment or removal and replacement is more than:

a) 15 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 30 mm

1101. The sampling requirement for paving concrete for every 75 cubic meters is:
a) l set of 3 cylinder samples
b) 3 sets of 3 cylinder samples
c) 1 set of 3 beam samples
d) 3 sets of 3 beam samples
1102. In case of emergency, e.g. earthquake, typhoons, or volcanic eruption, what report should a
Project Engineer submit?
a) Executive Report
b) Periodic Report
c) Exception Report
d) Accomplishment Report
1103. Who recommends actions to resolve problems during field implementation of a project?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Resident Engineer
1104. The length of a spurdike should not be more than:
a) Half the river width
b) One-third of the river width
c) One-fourth of the river width
d) Three-fourths of the river width
1105. Proqress payments are subject to retention of
a) 5 %
b) 10 %
c) 15 %
d) 50 % V
1106. Under PD 1870, the government can take over by administration or award a contract to other qualified
contractors if a project incurs a negative slippage of more than
a) 5 %
b) 7.5 %
c) 10 %
d) 15%

1107. Bleeding of asphalt in a newly-paved road is an indication of:

 Set No. 60 Page: 3
a) Lack of aggregates in the mix
b) Inadequate compaction
c) ' Excessive asphalt cement
cf) Poorly laid and spread asphalt mix

1108. The optimum water content of a soil is determined by:

a) CBR test
b) Liquid limit test
c) Unit weight test

d) Compaction test

1109. For a bridge project, spacing of borings should be made at a minimum of:
a) One deep boring per abutment and pier
b) Two deep borings per abutment and per pier*
c) Two deep borings per abutment and an additional one per pier
e) Three deep borings per abutment and pier
1110. For a bridge project, penetration tests should be made at:
a) A minimum interval of 1 . 5 m
b) A minimum interval of 1 . 5 m and at every change of soil stratum
c)A maximum interval of 1 . 5 m and at every change of soil stratum
d) Every change of soil stratum
1111. In a PERT/CPM diagram, the contract time duration of the project is represented by:
a)
Dummy Activities
b)
Float
f c)Critical path

d)End event

1112. In case a portion of a contracted work is to be sub-contracted, it:

a) should not exceed 50% of the original contract amount
b) relieves the general contractor of full responsibility of the sub-contracted work
c) creates a contractual relation between the sub-contractor and the government
d))is not necessary to secure a written consent from the concerned government agency
1113. When a contract is rescinded, the contractor is:
a) Allowed to complete said contract project
b) Disallowed to submit bids
c)
Allowed to submit bids
d)
Disallowed to continue with its other on-going projects

1114. In Item 200-Aggregate Subbase Course, the fraction passing the 0.425 mm (N°. 40) sieve should have a
liquid limit not greater than:
a) 25 % V

b) 35 %
c) 50 %
 Set No. 60 Page: 4

1115. In Item 200-Aggregate Subbase Course, in-place density test of each compacted layer should be at
least what percent of the maximum dry density?
a) 85 %
b) 90 %
c) 95%
d) 100%

1116. Where do we base and reckon the computation of contract price escalation of a project that is
awarded thru public bidding?

a) Notice to proceed
b) Effectivity of the contract
c) Date of approval of the contract
d) Date of bidding

1117. Oversanded and undersanded concrete mixtures require more water to have better
workability, but this will only result in the following with the exception of:
a) Good surface texture
b) Water tightness
c) Increased bond strength
d) Decrease in strength of concrete
1118. You are to recommend measures to minimize inundation on the
landside of an overflowing river. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a) Reduce the flood inflow to the area by constructing spillways and retarding
basins
b) Regulate the land use in the area
c) Install drainage facilities like pumping stations
d) Introduce dredging works
1119. Meandering section of a river means:
a) Straight sections
b) Silted sections .
c) Winding sections
d) Tributary sections

1120. Vegetation control along highways should be undertaken from the outerv edge of the shoulder to:
a) Outer edge of side ditch lined canal
b) Center of side ditch
c)Outer edge of shoulder only
d)Road right-of-way limit V
1121. What do you call the collapse cf earth or side slope due to elements of nature like wind and
rain?
(a) Erosion
b)Landslide
c)Scouring
d)Denudation
 Set No. 60 Page: 5

1122. Which of the following is a bank protection structure?

a) Drainage ditch
b) Retaining wall
c) Lateral works
d) Pier resting on piles
1123. In a PERT/CPM network, what is the latest allowable point^in time that an activity may be completed
without delaying the original scheduled project completion time?
a) Early start
b) Late start
c) Early finish
d) Late finish
1124. The best aid in locating and identifying areas of discussion in an inspection report are:
a) Bar charts
b) Executive summary
c) Weather charts
d) Photographs
1125. The following chemicals can be used in the disinfection of wells with the exception of:
a) Calcium hypochlorite
b) Chlorox
c) Bleaching powder
d) Ammonia powder
1126. For reference in the preparation of catch-up plans the following are the prevailing weather
conditions in the Philippines with the exception of:
a) Two pronounced seasons, dry from November to April,
i
wet during the rest of the year
b) No dry season, with a very pronounced maximum rainfall from November to January
c) Dry and rainy season is equally distributed throughout the year
d) Rainfall more or less distributed throughout the year
1127. What do you call the portion of the foundation of a building that transmits loads directly to the
soil?
a) Footing
b) Concrete
c) Reinforcement
d) Gravel bedding

1128. Measurement of concrete materials for concrete structures shall be by:

a) Volume
b) Weight
c) Quantity
d) Density
V
 Set No. 60 Page: 6
1129. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the design
will generally require:
a) Spread foundations
b) Raft foundations
c) Pile foundations
d) Caisson foundations

1130. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair work starts,
with the exception of:
a) Earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b) Water diversion thru dikes of rock and earth
c) Use of steel sheet piles
(d)_) Spurdiking

1131. Which of the following documents is not a requirement in computing Contract Price Escalation?
a) Contract documents with bill of quantities
b) Voucher and statement of work accomplished c) PERT/CPM
d) Certificate of Quality Control Assurance

1132. Which of the following is not a requirement in processing a variation order?

a) Approved Prior Clearance
b) Computation of quatities
c) Plans
d) Certification of Materials Availability
1133. In iiciicxfying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the following criteria is
not appropriate to recommend?
a) Drainage facilities is well - maintained
b) Location is not in a typhoon belt area „
c) Existing base course is stable
d) Flood-prone road section

1134. An equation where BK (Back) is greater than AH (Ahead) means:

a)A deductive distance
b) An additive (plus) distance
c) No increase in distance
d) The road length
1135. For purposes of pavement design, the varying axle loads are converted to a common
denominator which is in terms of :
a) 5,000 lb (22 KN) wheel load
b) 10,000 lb (44 KN) single axle load
c) 32,000 lb (142 KN) tandem axle load
d) 18,000 lb (80 KN) single axle load

1136. What is the level of accomplishment considered substantial for time to be suspended?
a) After completion of 85 % V
b) After completion of 90 %
c) After completion of 95 %
d) Before the conduct of pre-final inspection
 Set No. 60 Page: 7

1137. An asphalt cement can be a good bituminuous binder material for item:
a) 306
b) 308
c) 310
d) 311

1138. A cofferdam is a temporary structure which is done prior to the construction of a

foundation of a structure. What is the most common materials used?
a) Timber cribs
b) Puddle Walls
c) Steel sheet piling
d) Earth fill and Rock fill

1139. Which of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?

a) Pneumatic foundation
b) Box Caisson
c) Open Caisson
d) Hydraulic Caisson
1140. Profile along the centerline of the river channel should be extended from.the centerline of the bridge by
at least
a) 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
b) b) 100 to 200 m upstream only
c)100 to 200 m downstream only
d)300 m upstream and downstream
1141. The most common hourly volume count used for roadway design is:
a) AADT
b) 30th highest hourly volume
c) service flow
d) highest 15 minute volume
1142. A lane loading consisting of a uniform load of 9.4 KN/m of traffic lane combined with a concentrated
load of 80 KN for moment and 116 KN for shear is referred to as:
a) M 13.5 Lane Loading
b) MS 13.5 Lane Loading
c) MS 18 Lane Loading
d) HS 15 Lane Loading
1143. The following are the loads which are taken into account while designing a bridge. What is the least
load considered in the design?
a) dead load
b) live load
c) impact load
d) longitudinal force V
 Set No. 60 Page: 8

1144. When considering wind or earthquake forces either acting alone or in combination with vertical loads,
all allowable stresses and soilbearing value for working stress design may be increased by:
a}1/4

c) 1/3
d) 1/2
e) 3/4

1145. Two basic types of foundation are shallow and deep foundations.
Which of the following is a variety of a shallow foundation?
a) spread, continuous strapped footing
b) drilled caissons
c) piers
d) piles
1146. Dams, as flood control structures are primarily used to:
a) impound and conserve water
b) retard flood runoff
c) minimize the effect of sudden floods
d) both b and c

1147. The upstream slope for earthfill dams may vary from 2:1 to 4:1 for stability. The first number in these
slope ratios refers to the:
a) vertical projection
b) horizontal projection
c) diagonal projection
d) tangent of the slope angle
1148. For curve alignment of an internal open waterways (rectangular channel), the wall height must be at
least 0.3C m above the superelevated water surface for velocities of 10 meter/second or less. This means that
if the superelevated water level is at elevation 44.30 m., the top of the channel wall will be at least at elevation:
a) 44.0m
b) 44.3m
c) 4 4.6m
d) 44.9m
1149. On sloping surface, concrete should be placed starting at:
a) top of slope
b) bottom of slope
c) middle of slope
d) any part of the slope

. What is the minimum width required in pipe culvert excavation?

1150

a) 300 mm greater than the diameter of the pipe V

b) 2 times the diameter of the pipe
c) 1.5 times the diameter of the pipe
a) Just enough to put the pipe
Set No. 60 Page: 9

1150. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the concrete mix and transported by a truch
mixer up to the time said mix is deposited in place at the site should not exceed:
a) 15 minutes
b) 45 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 20 minutes
1151. The water from the pavement surface is removed by providing which of the following to the
pavement?
a) weep hole
b) drain hole
c) cross drain
d) camber or cross slope
1152. What is the common geometric shape of informative signs that are meant to guide the road users
and provide the direction of their destination?
a) triangular
b) octagonal
c) rectangular
d) circular
1153. In riprapping, masonry works and concrete slope protection on side slope, revetment, etc. which
of the following are provided to serve as water outlet and lateral pressure reliever on the structure?
a) cut-off wall
b) berm
c) weephole
d) gravel filter
1154. What do you call the mixture made of aggregates and bituminous liquid asphalt (SS-l) used for
emergency patching on asphalt and concrete pavement?
a) plant/ready mix
b) cold mix
d) bituminous macadam mix
e) slurry mix
1155. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period of how many
days after it has been placed?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 14
d) 7

1156. As ^practically possible, concrete mix should not be placed where

this can be subject to manual dropping by not more than _____________________________
and where no other special tools and means are used.
a) 3.0m
b) 2.5m V
c) 2.0m
d) 1 . 5 m
e)
1157. What is the required minimum weight of the gravity hammer used in pile driving?
a) 2000 kg
b) 1500 kg
 Set No. 60 Page: 10

c) 1800 kg
d) 1700 kg

1158. What do you call the part of the abutment which holds back the approach embankment above
the bearing shelf?
a)ballast wall
b) block wall
c) apron
d) headwall

1159. Which of the following is not considered as slope protection work?

a) Piled walls
b) Stone pitching
c) Gabions
d) Cofferdams
1160. What is the usual practice done to minimize construction time and cost at pier site of bridge
before cofferdams or other retaining structures are placed?
a) steel sheet piling
b) pre-dredging
c) square holing
d) timber piling

1161 . Which of the following is not a slope protection work?

a) Earth canal and soil conservation
b) Dredging
c) River training works
d) Retaining unstable foundation
1162. Which of the following is not a revetment slope protection structure?
a) Dry boulder riprap
b) Grouted riprap
c) Rubble concrete
d) Sodding
1163.A proposed flood control project has a mini-hydro electric power component. However, the area is already
being serviced by the the National Power Corporation. Which of the following will be the best action to
take?
a)
implement all work components
b)
locate to other service areas needing power
c)
delete the mini-hydro power component
d)
abort the implementation of the flood control project

V
 Set No. 60 Page: ll
1164. A designated boulder source is 10 km. away but is now exhausted unless blasting work is done. The
nearest other source is 7 5 k m . away. If the original item cost is P 400 per cu.m, and assuming that other
aggregates are available, which of the following is y°ur
best option?

a) extract from the new source but with additional cost of P 500 per cu.m.
b) replace embankment pacing with concrete blocks at unit price of P 850 per cu.m.
c) delete the boulder pacing then apply for negative change order
d) extract from original source with additional P 550 per cu.m. blasting cost

1165. Soil will have greater strength if its particles are:

a), uniformly graded
b) well-graded
c) one-sized
d) gap-graded
1166. The particle size distribution of coarse-grained soil is determined by:
a) sieve analysis
b) hydrometer analysis
c) shaking test d> "tripping test

1167. For Item 311 (Portland Cement Concrete Pavement), the minimum cement factor in bags of cement per
cubic meter of concrete based on a 40 kg per bag of cement is:
a) 7.5
b) 8.0
c) 9.1
d) 9.5
1168. Cores taken from a concrete pavement are tested for:
a) strength verification of concrete in-place that is considered adequate
b) flexural strength determination
c) cement content determination
d) thickness determination

.
1169 When
a completed asphalt pavement exhibits too much voids. It is usually caused by the following with the
exception of:
a)
rolling the mixture below the temperature requirements
b)
too much coarse aggregates
c)
too little binder
d)
too much fine aggregates

1170. To protectiPortland cement concrete pavement against rain before it has sufficiently hardened, the
contractor should be required to have at all times any of the following materials with the exception of:
a) metal forms or wood planks DJ burlaps or cotton mats
c) plastic sheeting material V
d) plastic water stops
 Set No. 60 Page: 12
1171.What class of stones for riprap has the smallest dimensi°ns?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D

1172.To whom does the Project Engineer delegate from time to time any of the powers and authorities vested
in him?
a) Materials Engineer (
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Contractor's Engineer
1173. In a PERT/CPM diagram, the value of the float of critical activities is :
a) less than one
b) zero
c, more than one
d) equal to activity duration
1174. In scheduling, what is the indication that a catch-up plan will be required?
a) If all parallel activities are ahead of the scheduled critical path
b) If all parallel activities are behind the scheduled critical path
c) If actual critical path is ahead of the scheduled critical path

d) If actual critical path is behind the scheduled critical path

1175. Which of the following is the main purpose of the first advance payment to a contractor?
a) seed money
b) progress payment
c) mobilization costs
d) representation costs

1176. When a project is delayed, and the contractor desires to complete the project on time, he may submit for
approval a:
a) request for time extension
b}. request for variation order
c)catch-up schedule
d)revised S-curve
1177. During test run,. a mini dam was observed to have a high probability of overtopping due to increase in river
discharge capacity brought about by massive deforestation. Which of the following is the most logical V
recommendation?
a) acceptance and keep information to yourself
b) increase in height of dam
c) armoring of the upstream pacing

d) redesign/reconstruction of the spillway structure

1178. Under Department Order 102, series of 1988 {calibrated action °n contracts with negative slippages),
rescission of the contract should be initiated when the rate of slippage reaches:
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 12%
d) 15%
1179. After the final inspection of a reported 100% accomplished project, before a certificate of final inspection
is issued, which of the following should be conducted in the field:
a) Emergency Conference
b) Exit Conference
c) Pre-construction Conference
d) Turn-over Ceremony
1180. The following are basic documents needed as reference in an assessment of a project with the exception
of:
a) Program of Works
b) Statement of Work Accomplished
c) ' Certificate of Availability of Funds
d) Certificate of Quality Control Assurance
1181. Settlement of right-of-way problems should be done
a) during the construction work
b) after the construction work
c) before the construction work
d) before equipment and manpower mobilization
1182. A major item of work is defined as:
3) pay item representing at least 10% of AAE

b) pay item representing at least 20% of AAE

c) three items having the lowest % of the AAE
d) three items having the highest % of the AAE

1183. Which of the following is not a field test in road construction?

a) Density test
b) Core boring test
c) California Bearing Ratio (CBR) test
d) Dynamic Cone Penetrometer test

1184. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 7,500 cu.m. How many Grading and Plasticity
tests are required based on the DPWH minimum testing requirement?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
1185. Item 201 materials with CBR value of 75% (which is 5% less than the minimum requirement) can still be
used in the design of a concrete pavement provided that the following are considered except one:
a) adequate compaction is applied during construction
b) increase the thickness requirement of base course
c) the design is only intended for a barangay road project\
d) the foundation contains unsuitable materials
1186. What is the appropriate equipment for erecting heavy c°ncrete plank decks?
i a)} Tower crane

b) Mobile crane
c) Backhoe
d) Luffing crane

i
 >
1187.
r. In constructing a box culvert, which is built first?
a) , side walls
b) bottom slab
c) ’ top slab
d) wingwall

1188. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for concrete columns, the
minimum time before forms and supports
are removed should be:
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days
1189. To find the time of flow, it is required to determine the length of channel. This can be done by
transforming the drainage area into a rectangle whose two sides are in the proportion of 1:1.5. The
length of the stream is assumed one diagonal of this rectangle plus one-half of the shorter side of the
rectangle, which is the:
a) square root of the square of width (W) plus half of W
b) square root of the sum of the squares of longer side (L) and W plus half of W
c) square root of the square of the squares of L plus half of W
d) 3.0 w
1190. The sampling requirement for paving concrete for every 75 cubic: meters is:
a) 1 set of 3 cylinder san lee

b) 3 sets of 3 cylinder se pies

c) 1 set of 3 beam samples
d) 3 sets of 3 beam sample

1191. What kind of reinforcing steel is used for dowel bars of a PCCP

a) Plain square bars

b) Plain round bars '
c) Deformed square bars
d) Deformed round bars

1192. Unless other sizes are shown in the plans, stones for stone masonry should have a minimum
thickness of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

1193. What is Item 504 in the DPWH Standard Specification?

a) Structural concrete
V
b) Prestressec concrete

c) Riprap and grouted riprap

d) Stone-masonry

1194. In-compacting materials on fill, adequate and appropriate compaction equipment should be used and
undertaken along the embankment in what direction?
 >
r. a) Longitudinal
b) Latera]
c) Diagonal
d) Zigzag

1195. What equipment is used to proof roll the sub-grade of a road?

a)Pneumatic tired roller
b)Vibratory roller
c)Shear foot roller
d)Steel wheel roller

1196. The rate of application of Emulsified asphalt used as tack coat should within the range

a) O.2-0.5 l/m2
b) 0.2-0.7 l/m2
c) 0.15-0.7 l/m2
a) 0.15-0.5 l/m2

1197. Embankment material should be laid and compacted by layer at maximum thickness of:

a) 100 mm

b) 400 mm

c) 500 mm

d) 200 mm

V
1198.Which of the following equipment should be used for properly compacting uniformly graded soil material
for embankment?
a) Three wheeled steel roller
b) Pneumatic roller
c) Vibratory roller
d) Tandem roller

1199. The most important single factor affecting the strength of concrete is:
a) The quality of aggregates and cement
b) Water-cement ratio
c) Curing conditions
d) Duration of mixing

1200. Who recommends actions to resolve problems during field implementation of a project?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
b) Project Inspector
c) Resident Engineer

1201. Who gives orders to equipment operators, labor foremen and supply controller in the work
operations at the project site?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident engineer
c) Project engineer
b) Contractor's Engineer

1203. Advance- payment shall be repaid by deducting from a contractor's periodic progress payments an amount
equivalent to :
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
1204. Finish on final rolling of newly laid-asphalt concrete is required in order to:
a)Remove excess asphalt cement
b)Eliminate roller marks
c)Allow bigger aggregates to penetrate deeper
d)Cool the asphalt concrete before opening to traffic

1205.The uniformly compacted subgrade, sub-base and base course extended at least, from either side of the
width to be concreted:
a) 1.00 m
b) 0.50 m
c) 0.30 m
 d) 0.60 m

1206. For buildings, borings are generally made:

a) One at each corner
b) One at the center
c) one at corner and one at the center
d) One at each corner and one at the center

1
1207. The variance between actual and planned accomplishments of a project is called:
a)Slack
b)Liquidated damage
c)Deviation
d)Slippage

1208. What class of structural concrete is generally used for footings, pedestals, massive pier shafts, pipe
bedding, and gravity walls?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class P

1209. Which of the following is not a basis or ground £or an extension of contract time?
a) Ordinary unfavorable weather condition
b) Affected activities fall on the critical path of the PERT/CPM network
c) Existence of right-of-way problems
d) Adverse peace and order condition

1210. When a contract is mutually terminated, the contractor is :

a)Blacklisted by the agency
b)Required to pay liquidated damages
c)Allowed to submit bids
d) Disallowed to submit bids

1211. According to the Implementing Rules and Regulations (IIR) of PD1594, under which of the following
conditions can a negotiated contract be entered into?
a) Failure to award the project after a public bidding
b) Failure to award the project after two public biddings
c) It is a major and urgent project
d) It is a build-eperate-and-transfer (BOT) project

1212. Select one not covered by conditions where an extra work order may be issued:
a) Where there are additional works needed for the completion of the project which were not
included as items of work in the original contract
b) Where there are subsurface or latent physical conditions at the site differing materially from
those indicated in the contract,beyond the limit of the change order
c) Where there are unknown physical conditions at the site of an unusual nature beyond
the limits of change order inherent in the work
d) Where the additional works necessary for the completion of the project is beyond the limits
and the general scope of the project

1213. Where do we base and reckon the computation of the contract price Escalation of a project that is
awarded thru simplified bidding?
a) Notice to proceed
b) Date of bidding
c) Approval of the contract
d) None of the above

1214. After a typhoon, a dam measuring 250 meters suffered a 40-meter breach equivalent to P 4.0
 million. You found out that it is impossible to close the gap before,the onset of rainy months, which
may result in total collapse of the dam. If you are the new Project Engineer, what will you do?

a) Risk 3-shift operation to attain maximum accomplishment

b) Suspend the project and resume after the rainy months
c) Armor the breached section with gabion-mattress and spurdike, to utilize gap as diversion
channel
d) Introduce a crash program sacrificing quality

1215. What is the method of measurement for determining the depth of a river channel?

a) Pacing

b) Sounding

c) Leveling

d) Traversing

1216. Which of the following is not a flood prevention/mitigation measure?

a) Channel improvement
b) Dikes
c) Spillways
d) Reclamation

1217. Meandering section of a river means

a) Straight sections
b) Silted sections
c) Winding sections
d) Tributary section

1218. Extension of an existing open lined drainage canal along a highway falls under:
a) Special maintenance
b) Restoration work
c) Repair work
d) Periodic maintenance

1219. What do you call the collapse of earth or side slope due to elements of nature like wind and rain?
a) Erosion
b) Landslide
c) Scouring
d) Denudation
1220. Which of the following is a bank protection structure?
a) Drainage ditch
b) Retaining wall
c) Lateral works
d) Pier resting on piles

1221. The system of protecting land area from ocean waves is called:
a) River protection works
b) Coastal protection works
c) Slope protection works
 d) Erosion control works

1222. ___ is a requirement for advance payment.

a) Notice to proceed
b) Statement of work accomplish
c) Certificate of completion and acceptance
d) Bidder’s bond

1223. In a PERT/CPM network, this is referred to as the amount of spare time available to complete an event
or activity:
a) Float
b) Early start
c) Late start
d) Dummy

1224. "what class of concrete is used when concrete is deposited in water?

a)Class B
b)Class C
c)Class P
d)Seal

1225. If the required thickness of Item 200 i=300 mm, the material
may be spread and compacted in_______ layer(s).
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) uniform

1226. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair work starts, with the
exception of:
a) Earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b) Water diversion thru dikes of rock and earth
c) Use of steel sheet piles
d) Spurdiking

1227. From the time a project was bid to the issuance of notice to proceed, how many calendar days is required
for a project to be entitled to contract price adjustment?
a) 60
b) 90
c) 120
d) 150

1228. If the type of soil in Item 200 material is non-plastic what A.tterberg limit test can be performed?.
a) Plastic limit
b) Liquid limit
c) Shrinkage limit
d) Both a & b
1229) In the design of shear reinforcement, which of the following is not considered as reinforcement?
a) Stirrups
b) Welded wire fabric
c) Spiral
d) Tension reinforcement

1230. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the following criteria is not
appropriate to recommend?
a) Drainage facilities is well - maintained
b) Location is not in a typhoon belt area
c) Existing base course is stable
d) Flood-prone r0ad section

1231. An equation where BK (Back) is greater than AH (Ahead) means

a) A deductive distance
b) An additive (plus) distance
c) No increase in distance
d) The read length

1232. Who exercises overall planning implementation and control in the supervision of field
operations?
a)Materials Engineer
b) Project Engineer
c) Construction Foreman
e) Project Inspectors

1233. Which of the following modifies specific work items relative to increases/decreases in the quantities
provided for in the original contract?
a) Extra work order
b) Change order
c) Resume order
d) Suspension order

1234. For purposes of pavement design, the varying axle loads are converted to a common denominator
which is in terms Of:
a) 5,000 lb (22 KN) wheel load
b) 10,000 lb (44 KN) single axle load
c) 32,000 lb (142 KN) tandem axle load
d) 18,000 lb (80 KN) single axle load
 r
1235. An asphalt cement can be a good bituminous binder material for item:
a) 306
b) 308
c) 310
d) 311

hich of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?

a) Pneumatic foundation
b) Box Caisson
c) Open Caisson
d) Hydraulic Caisson /
1237. What is the simplest typo of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited upon of 8 meters?
a) Reinforced concrete slab
b) Concrete plank deck
c) Girder and slab superstructure
d) Beam or plank bridge

1238. Final survey plans for roads should be prepared using the following scales with the exception of:
a) 1:1000 for- 1ocation plans
b) 1:100 vertical and 1-1000 horizontal for profiles
c) 1:100 for cross-sections
d) 1:1000 horizontal and 1:100 vertical for cross-sections-''

1239. The most common hourly volume count used for roadway design is: a) AADT
b) 30th highest hourly volume
d) service flow
e) highest 15 minute volume

1240. The effective span lengths to be used in calculating distribution of loads and bending moments for slabs
supported on steel' stringers over more than two supports should be:
a) clear span
b) distance between edges of flanges plus one-half of the stringer flange width
c) clear span plus one-half of thickness of stringer
d) distance center to center of supports

1241. The bearing power of a pile is the static longitudinal load that the pile can support safely as a part of the
permanent substructure. This can be determined by any of the following with the exception of:
a) plate bearing test
b) dynamic pile driving formula
c) static formula
d) actual loading test

52. Gravity-loads usually refer to dead load and live load. Which of the following is not included in this
classification?
a) weight of all permanent components
b) architectural, components
 r
c) occupants, furnitures, etc.
d) wind load /

1242. Lateral forces on building frames can be analyzed by approximate analytical methods given below with
the exception of:
a) Moment-Distribution Method
b) Portal Method
c) Factor Method
c) Cantilever Method

1243. Spurdikes should have lengths from 10% to 15% of the width of the river or channel but not to exceed
which of the following?
a) 50 m
b) 100 m
c) 150 m
d) 200 m

1244. The upstream slope for earthfill may vary from ____ to____ for stability. The first number in these slope
ratios refers to the :
a)vertical projection
b) horizontal projection
c) diagonal projection
d) tangent of slope angle

1245. The maximum spacing of manholes for circular conduits should be:

a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 50 m
d) 150 m

1246. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist condition avid
saturated with water for at least:
a) 6 hrs.
b) 1.5 hrs
c) 2 hrs
d) 3 hrs

1247. What is the minimum width required in pipe, culvert excavation?

a) 300 mm greater than the diameter of the pipe
b) 2 times the diameter of the pipe
c) 1.5 times the diameter of the pipe
d) Just enough to put the pipe

1248. What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer
of aggregate base course?
a) b 20 mm
b) b 15 nm
c ) 2 5 mm
d)10 mm
 r
1249. What do you call the defect of a concrete pavement that shows peeling away of the surface and
aggregates are exposed
I a) cracking
b) scaling
c) rutting
d) warping

1250. what do you call the process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them
denser and grow straight?

a) prunning
b) grafting
c) felling
d) budding

1251. The equivalent physical measurement used in Live determination of the cost of maintenance of our
national roads and bridges and all its facilities is known as:

a) lane kilometer
b) equivalent kilometer unit
c) equivalent maintenance kilometer
d) standard kilometer unit

1252. Concrete Class A mix used and deposited in water for footing construction shall maintain a clump
between:
a) 5 to 10 cm
b) 10 and 20 cm
c) 20 and 30 cm
d) 30 and 40 cm

1253.Mounting heights above floor level When installing electrical light and safety switch should not be ies3
than:
a) 150 era. and 120 cm. respectively
b) 90 cm. and 100 cm. respectively -
c) 60 cm. and SO cm. respectively
d) d) 120 cm. and 150 cm. respectively

1254. Generally, latex paint in applied as finishing or decorative coating on :

a) wood surface
b} steel surface
c) concrete and masonry surface
d} galavanized iron sheet surface

A
1255. What do you call the road near or abutting a bridge?
V5
a) embankment \ 2y> y

ft
 r
b) approach
c) abutment
d) Apron

1256. What is the minimum length requirement' for longitudinal reinforcement of the piles that should
be embedded in the bridge structure?
a) 30 times the diameter of main deformed bars
b) 40 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
c) 50 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
d) 20 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars

1257. Which of the following is not included in the types of bridge foundations?
a) Spread footing
b)Caisson
c)Piles
d) Bearing shelf

1258. Which of the following is not categorized on a type of steel deck used on bridges?

a) Steel jack arches

b) Open panel
c) Stiffened steel
d) Close through panel

1259. What is the maximum allowable variation at the butt end of a pile in any direction from its location
shown in the approved plan B?
a) 75 mm ?
b) 50 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 40 mm
)

1260. Driving heads of piles are provided to:

a) ensure lateral support to the pile
b) provide a driving surface normal to the pile
C)avoid swaying
d) splice piles

1261. During construction of a flood control dam, the proposed spillway was overcut by one meter. What
should the Project Engineer do?

a)Cover the section with excavated materials

b)Continue work and disregard the overcut i,

c) Suspend work and request for design, analysis

d) Blame and blacklist the contractor
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1262. Due to the massive deforestation within the project site of a proposed emergency flood control dam,
siltation has affected the elevation of the outlet works and it is estimated to be silt covered within 2
years. Which of the following is the logical recommendation make?

a) continue the project, keep the situation to yourself

b) discuss with the contractor for a possible dredging project a supplemental contract
c) recommend construction of a suitable circular dike structure around the entrance of the
outlet works
d) recommend reviews of the proposed emergency flood control project

1263. The type of asphaltic material that is being referred to by penetration grade?
a) Emulsified asphalt
b) cutback asphalt
c) asphalt cement
d) Mastic asphalt

1264. Which of the following materials ha3 the greatest load carrying -capacity?
a) Clay
b) Sand
c) Silt
d) Peat and muck

1265. To facilitate the acceptance of cement the compressive strength of mortar samples at 1 days and 7 days
can be considered provided that the strength of the samples at 7 days is not less than what percent °f
the compressive strength requirement for 20 days.
a) 75%
b) 6.0%
c) 85%
d) 50%

1266. When should weakened plane joints on concrete pavement be saved?

a) After the cutting period
b) After 14 days before opening the pavement to traffic
c) As soon as the concrete has hardened sufficiently, usually within 24 hours
d) Before removing the formworks

1267. Per DPWH Memorandum Circular No. 38 dated 12 November 1981, a Certificate of Quality Control
Assurance (COCA) should be accomplished:
a) Daily
b) Weekly
c) Monthly
d) Yearly

1268. What Test determines the amount of asphalt present bituminous mixture?
a) Distillation test
b) Stability test
c) Ductility tent
d) Extraction test

1269. What should the Resident Engineer do when an asphalt pavement under construction attains a density of
85% at the time of compaction?
a) require the contractor to spread additional bituminous mixture and compact it to the required
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density
b) require the Materials Engineer to redesign the Job-Mix Formula
c) require additional rolling until the minimum density requirement is attained
d) require the contractor to replace the roller

1270. When a completed asphalt pavement exhibits too much voids. It is usually caused by the following with
the exception of:
a) rolling the mixture below the temperature requirements
b) too coarse aggregates
c) too little binder
d) too much fine aggregates

1271. The minimum flexural strength requirement of concrete for Item 311 * (Portlandy Cement. Concrete
Pavement) is:
a) 500 psi
b)550 psi
c) 3,000 psi
d) 3,500 psi

1272. Unless otherwise specified, all materials below subgrade level in earth should be cut to a depth of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

1273. In the DPWH Standard Specifications, what is the Item No. of Excavation?
a) 100
b) 102
c) 104
d) 106

1274. Who investigates source of materials supply before delivery to project site and start of project?
a) Project Inspector
b) Materials Engineer
c) Resident Engineer
d) Project Engineer

1275. Which of the following scheduling features does not describe the bar chart?
a) Shows start and end dates of activities
b) indicates estimated duration of such activity
c) allows comparison actual and planned progress
d) identification activity relationship

1276.In PERT/CPM networking, the process of compressing the duration of a project is called:
a) Time optimization
b) Crashing
c) Contract time adjustment
d) Reduction

1277. Which of the following is the main purpose of the first advance payment to a contractor?
 r
a) Seed money
b) Progress payment
c) Mobilization cost
d) Representation costs

1278. Concerning delayed implementation, which of the following is not the fault of the contractor?
a) Delayed preparation of contract documents
b) Faulty construction method
c) Defective construction equipment
d) Undersized construction materials delivered

1279. Under Department Order 102, series of 1988 (calibrated action on tracts with negative slippages),
contractors should be given ascond warning and be required to submit a detailed action program for
nightly basis when the rate of slippage reaches:

a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%

1280. What do you call the process of measuring progress towards an objective, evaluating what remains to be
done, and taking the necessary corrective action to achieve or exceed the objective?
a) Monitoring
b) Planning
c) Controlling
d) d) Evaluating

1281. If the project topography does nc conform with the approved plan, what should be immediately submitted
for approval by the project engineer?
a) as-built plan
b) project profile
c) as-staked survey/plan
d) progress billing
1282. The list of deficiencies to be corrected that is prepared at the final inspection is sometimes referred to
as:
a) Check list
b) Punchlist
c) Master list
d) Short list

1283. Settlement of right of way should be done?

a) during the constructionwork
b) after the construction work
c) before the construction work
d) before equipment and manpower mobilization

1284. Which of the following is not a quality test for comment?

a) Compressive strength
b) Loss of ignition
c) Soundress
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d) California Bearing Ratio (CBR)

1285. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 7,500 cu.m. How many Grading and
Plasticity tests are require based on the DPWH minimum testing requirement?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9

1286. Item 201 materials with CBR value of 7% which is 5% less than the minimum, requirement) can still be
used in the design of a concrete pavement provided that the following are considered except one:
a) adequate compaction is applied hiring construction
b) increase the thickness requirement of base course
c) the design is only intended for barangay read project
d) the foundation contains unsuitable- materials

1287. Your total approved accomplishment on a project including those to be covered by an Extra work is
equivalent to 75% but only 65% is covered under the approved original contract. Up to what level of
progress billing would you allow?
a) up to the total 75% accomplishment
b) below 75% but more than 65% accomplishment
c) up to the documented value not more than 50%
d) up to the documented value not more than 65%
1288. For bridge and highway projects which of the following hydrologic data is the most
important?
a) Magnitude of flood
b) Duration of flood
c) Maximum flood height
d) Damage of construction

1289. In hydrologic survey, sounding points should be made at maximum interval of :

a) 10 m
b) 20 m
c) 50 m
d) 100 m

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