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IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Paper 2 -2008 with Solutions

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1.     The correct stability order for the following species is

          

(A)    (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)

(B)    (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)

(C)    (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)

(D)    (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)

2.     Cellulose upon acetylation with excess acetic anhydride/H2SO4 (catalytic) gives
cellulose triacetate whose structure is

       

3.     In the following reaction sequence, the correct structures of E, F and G are
    

4.     Among the following, the coloured compound is

        (A)    CuCI

        (B)    K3 [Cu(CN)4]

        (C)    CuF2

        (D)    [Cu(CH3CN)4]BF4

5.     Both [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]2- are diamagnetic. The hybridization of nickel in these
complexes, respectively, are

        (A)    sp3, sp3

        (B)    sp3, dsp2

        (C)    dsp2, sp3

        (D)    dsp2, dsp3

6.     The IUPAC name of [Ni(NH3)4] [NiCI4] is

        (A)    Tetrachloronickel (II) - tetraamminenickel (II)

        (B)    Tetraamminenickel (II) - tetrachloronickel (II)

        (C)    Tetraamminenickel (II) - tetrachloronickelate (II)

        (D)    Tetrachloronickel (II) - tetraaminenickelate (0)


 

7.     Electrolysis of dilute aqueous NaCI solution was carried out by passing 10 milli ampere
current. The time required to liberate 0.01 mol of H2 gas at the cathode is (1 Faraday = 96500
C mol-1)

        (A)    9.65 × 104 sec

        (B)    19.3 × 104 sec

        (C)    28.95 × 104 sec

        (D)    38.6 × 104 sec

8.     Among the following, the surfactant will form micelles in aqueous solution at the lowest
molar concentration at ambient conditions is

        (A)    CH3(CH2)15N+(CH3)3Br-

        (B)    CH3(CH2)11OS Na+

        (C)    CH3(CH2)5COO-Na+

        (D)    CH3(CH2)11N+(CH3)3Br-

9.     Solubility product constants (Ksp) of salts of types MX, MX2 and M3X at temperature 'T'
are 4.0 × 10-8, 3.2 × 10-14 and 2.7 × 10-15, respectively. Solubilities (mol dm-3) of the salts
temperature 'T' are in the order

        (A)    MX > MX2 > M3X

        (B)    M3X > MX2 > MX

        (C)    MX2 > M3X > MX

        (D)    MX > M3X > MX2

10.    STATEMENT-1 : Aniline on reaction with NaNO2/HCI at 0oC followed by coupling


with β-naphthol gives a dark blue coloured precipitate.

        and

        STATEMENT-2 : The colour of the compound formed in the reaction of aniline with
NaNO2/HCI at 0oC followed by coupling with b-naphthol is due to the extended conjugation.

(A)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


statement-1.
(B)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

11.    STATEMENT-1 : [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 is paramagnetic.

        and

STATEMENT-2 : The Fe in [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 has three unpaired electrons.

(A)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

12.    STATEMENT-1 : The geometrical isomers of the complex [M(NH3)4CI2] are optically
inactive.

        and

        STATEMENT-2 : both geometrical isomers of the complex [M(NH3)4CI2] possess axis
of symmetry.

(A)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

 13.    STATEMENT-1 : There is a natural asymmetry between converting work to heat and
converting heat to work.

        and

        STATEMENT-2 : No process is possible in which the sole result is the absorption of
heat from a reservoir and its complete conversion into work.
(A)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

Paragraph

A tertiary school H upon acid catalysed dehydration gives a product I. Ozonolysis of I leads
to compounds J and K. Compound J upon reaction with KOH gives benzyl alcohol and a
compound L, whereas K on reaction with KOH gives only M.

              

14.    Compound H is formed by the reaction is

      

15.    The structure of compound I is


       

16.    The structures of compounds J, K and L, respectively, are

        (A)    PhCOCH3, PhCH2COCH3 and PhCH2COO-K+

        (B)    PhCHO, PhCHO and PhCOO-K+

        (C)    PhCOCH, PhCH2CHO and CH3COO-K+

        (D)    PhCHO, PhCOCH3 and PhCOO-K+

Paragraph

In hexagonal systems of crystals, a frequently encountered arrangement of atoms is described


as a hexagonal prism. Here, the top and bottom of the cell are regular hexagons and three
atoms are sandwiched in between them. A space-filling model of this structure, called
hexagonal close-packed (HCP), is constituted of a sphere on a flat surface surrounded in the
same plane by six identical spheres as closely as possible. Three spheres are then placed over
the first layer so that they touch each other and represent the second layer. Each one of these
three spheres touches three spheres of the bottom layer. Finally, the second layer is covered
with a third layer that is identical to the bottom layer in relative position. Assume radius of
every sphere to be 'r'.

17.    The number of atoms in this HCP unit cell is

        (A)    4

        (B)    6
        (C)    12

        (D)    17

18.    The volume of this HCP unit cell is

        (A)    24 √2 r3

        (B)    16 √2 r3

        (C)    12 √2 r3

        (D)     64/3√3 r3

19.    The empty space in this HCP unit cell is

        (A)    74%

        (B)    47.6%

        (C)    32%

        (D)    26%

20.    Match the compounds in Column I with their characteristics test(s)/ reactions(s) given
in Column II.

Column I Column II

(A) H2N-NH3CI (p) Sodium fusion extract of the


compound gives Prussian blue
colour with FeSO4

(B) (q) Gives positive FeCI3 test

(C) (r) Gives white precipitate with


AgNO3

(D) (s) Reacts with aldehydes to form the


corresponding hydrazone
derivatve.

 
21.    Match the conversions in Column I with the type(s) of reaction(s) given in column II.

Column I Column II

(A) PbS --> PbO (p) Roasting

(B) CaCO3 --> CaO (q) Calcinations

(C) ZnS --> Zn (r) Carbon reduction

(D) Cu2S --> Cu (s) Self reduction

22.    Match the entries in Column I with the correctly related quantum number(s) in Column
II.

Column I Column II

(A) Prbitals angular momentum of the (p) Principal quantum number


electron in a hydrogen-like atomic
orbital

(B) A hydrogen-like one-electron wave (q) Azimuthal quantum number


function obeying Pauli principle

(C) Shape, size and orientation of (r) Magnetic quantum number


hydrogen-like atomic orbitals

(D) Probability density of electron at (s) Electron spring quantum number


the nucleus in hydrogen-like atom

Paper II-Solution
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1.      Correct choice: (D)

        The correct stability order of the given species is (I)>(III)>(II)>(IV).

        Structure (I) is stabilized by resonance and hyperconjugation due to 6 α-H atoms.
Structure (III) is stabilized by resonance and hyperconjugation due to 3 α-H atoms. Structure
(II) is stabilized by hyperconjugation due to 5 α-H atoms. Structure (IV) is stabilized by
hyperconjugation due to 2 α-H atoms.

2.      Correct choice: (A)


        Cellulose is a polymer of β(D) glucose. The product cellulose triacetate should have
three acetate substituents in each of is repeat unit.

3.     Correct choice: (C)

        

4.     Correct choice: (C)

        CuF2 is coloured because Cu2+ ion has one unpaired electron in the 3d subshell. Rest of
the compounds are not coloured because Cu+ present in each compound has completely filled
3d subshell.

5.     Correct choice: (B)

          

        The hybridization of Ni in [Ni(CO)4] is sp3 and in [Ni(CN)4]2- is dsp2.

6.     Correct choice: (C)

        Tetraamminenickel(II)-tetrachloronickelate(II)

7.     Correct choice: (B)

        I = 10 × 10-3 = 10-2 amp

        Q = 0.01 × 2F = 0.02 F = 0.02 × 96500 C

        t = Q/t = (0.02*96500)/10-2 = 19.3 × 104 sec.


 8.     Correct choice: (A)

        Those surfactant molecules will be able to form associated colloids (micelles) readily
which have greater hydrophobic interactions. Thus critical micellar concentration (CMC) will
be lowest for such surfactant molecules. The hydrophobic end is biggest in CH3(CH2)15N+
(CH3)3Br-.

9.     Correct choice: (D)

        Ksp of MX = 4.0 × 10-8

        Solubility of MX = (4.0 × 10-8)1/2 = 2 × 10-4 M

        Ksp of MX2 = 3.2 × 10-14

        Solubility of MX2 = (3.2 * 10-4 / 4 )1/3 = 2 × 10-5 M

        Ksp of M3X - 2.7 × 10-15

        Solubility of M3X = (2.7 * 10-15 / 27 )1/4 = 10-4 M.

        =>    The decreasing order of their solubilities MX > M3X > MX2.

10.    Correct choice: (D)

        STATEMENT-1 is false because the coupling of diazonium salt with


b-naphthol gives orange red coloured precipitate. STATEMENT-2 is true.

11.    Correct choice: (A)

        [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 has ligand NO in +1 oxidation state and metal Fe in +1 state. Since
Fe+ has 3 unpaired electrons, the complex is paramagnetic. STATAMENT-2 is true and is the
correct explanation of STATEMENT-1.

12.    Correct choice: (B)

        The two geometrical isomers of [M(NH3)4CI2] are optically inactive as both of them
have plane of symmetry. The trans isomer has C2 and C4 axes of symmetry whereas the cis
isomer has C2 axis of symmetry. A molecules may be optically active even if it has axis of
symmetry. Both the statements are true but the STATEMENT-2 is not the correct explanation
of STATEMENT-1.
         

13.    Correct choice: (A)

        Both the statements are true and STATEMENT-2 is the correct explanation of
STATEMENT-1.

14.    Correct choice: (B)

                                                Ph
                                                |
    The compound (H) is     Ph-CH2-C-CH3 .     This being a tertiary alcohol
                                                |
                                               OH

can be prepared through the reaction of ketone with a Grignard reagent followed by
hydrolysis via any of three possible routes.

           

15.    Correct choice: (A)

        

16.    Correct choice: (D)


           

17.    Correct choice: (B)

            

        The number of effective atoms in the above hcp unit cell

                = (12 × 1/6) + (2 × 1/2) + (3 × 1)

                = 6. 

18.    Correct choice: (A)

        Volume of unit cell = area of the base × height of unit cell

                                        = 6× (√3 a2 × h/4)

                                        = 6× (√3 a2 /4) × √(8/3) a

                                        = 3√2 a3

                                        = 3√2 × (2r)3

                                        = 24√2 r3

19.    Correct choice: (D)

        Packing fraction =  (6 × 4/3 πr3)/(24√2 r3) 

                                  =  π/3√2
                                  =  0.74

        So, void fraction = 0.26 = 26%

20.    (A-r, s); (B - p, q); (C - p, q, r); (D - p, s)

21.    (A - p); (B - q); (C - p, r); (D - p, r, s)

22.    (A - q); (B - p, q, r, s); (C - p, q, r); (D - p, q, r)

IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Paper1-2007

Paper 1

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1.     The species having bond order different from that in CO is

        (A)    NO-

        (B)    NO+

        (C)    CN-

        (D)    N2

2.     Among the following, the paramagnetic compound is

        (A)    Na2O2

        (B)    O3

        (C)    N2O

        (D)    KO2

3.     Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by


        (A)    electrolytic reduction

        (B)    roasting followed by reduction with carbon

        (C)    roasting followed by reduction with another meal

        (D)    roasting followed by self-reduction

4.     In the following reaction,

  

5.     The reagent(s) for the following conversion,

       

        is/are

        (A)    alcoholic KOH

        (B)    alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH2

        (C)    aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2

        (D)    Zn/CH3OH

6.     The number of structural isomers for C6H14 is

        (A)    3

        (B)    4
        (C)    5

        (D)    6

7.     The percentage of p-character in the orbitals forming P-P bonds in P4 is

        (A)    25

        (B)    33

        (C)    50

        (D)    75

8.     When 20g of naphthoic acid (C11H8O2) is dissolved in 50 g of benzene (Kf = 1.72 K kg
mol-1), a freezing point depression of 2K is observed. The van't Hoff factor (i) is

        (A)    0.5

        (B)    1

        (C)    2

        (D)    3

9.     The value of log10K for a reaction A  B is

        (Given : Dr  = -54.07 kJ mol-1, Dr  = 10 JK-1 mol-1 and R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1; 2.303 ×
8.314 × 298 = 5705)

        (A)    5

        (B)    10

        (C)    95

        (D)    100

10.    STATEMENT-1

        Boron always forms covalent bond

        Because

        STATEMENT-2

        The small size of B3+ favours formation of covalent bond.


(A)    Statement-1 is True, Staement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Staement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

11.    STATEMENT-1

        In water, orthoboric acid behaves as a weak monobasic acid.

        Because

        STATEMENT-2

        In water, orthoboric acid acts as a proton donor.

(A)    Statement-1 is True, Staement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Staement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

12.    STATEMENT-1

p-Hydroxybenzoic acid has a lower boiling point than o-hydroxybenzoic acid.

        Because

        STATEMENT-2

        o-Hydroxybenzoic acid has intramolecular hydrogen bonding.

(A)    Statement-1 is True, Staement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Staement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

 
13.    STATEMENT-1

Micelles are formed by surfactant molecules above the critical miceller concentration (CMC).

Because

STATEMENT-2

The conductivity of a solution having surfactant molecules decreases sharply at the CMC.

(A)    Statement-1 is True, Staement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Staement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

14.    Argon is used in arc welding because of its

        (A)    low reactivity with metal

        (B)    ability to lower the melting point of metal

        (C)    flammability

        (D)    high calorific value

15.    The structure of XeO3 is

        (A)    linear

        (B)    planar

        (C)    pyramidal

        (D)    T-shaped

16.    XeF4 and XeF6 are expected to be

        (A)    oxidizing

        (B)    reducing

        (C)    unreactive

        (D)    strongly basic

 
 

Paragraph

        Chemical reactions involve interaction of atoms and molecules. A large number of
atoms/molecules (approximately 6.023 × 1023) are present in a few grams of any chemical
compound varying with their atomic/molecular masses. To handle such large numbers
conveniently, the mole concept was introduced. This concept has implications in diverse
areas such as analytical chemistry, biochemistry, electrochemistry and radiochemistry. The
following example illustrates a typical case, involving chemical/electrochemical reaction,
which requires a clear understanding of the mole concept.

        A 4.0 molar aqueous solution of NaCI is prepared and 500 mL of this solution is
electrolysed. This leads to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes (atomic mass:
Na = 23, Hg = 200; 1 Faraday = 96500 coulombs).

17.    The total number of moles of chlorine gas evolved is

        (A)    0.5

        (B)    1.0

        (C)    2.0

        (D)    3.0

18.    If the cathode is a Hg electrode, the maximum weight (g) of amalgam formed from this
solution is

        (A)    200

        (B)    225

        (C)    400

        (D)    446

19.    The total charge (coulombs required for complete electrolysis is

        (A)    24125

        (B)    48250


        (C)    96500

        (D)    19300

20.    Match the complexes in Column I with their properties listed in Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]CI2 (p geometrical isomers
)
(B) [Pt(NH3)2CI2] (q paramagnetic
)
(C) [Co(H2O)5CI]CI (r) diamagnetic
(D) [Ni(H2O)6]CI2 (s) metal ion with +2 oxidation
state

21.    Match the chemical substances in Column I with type of polymers/type of bonds in
Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) Cellulose (p) Natural polymers
(B) Nylon-6, 6 (q) Synthetic polymer
(C) Protein (r) Amide linkage
(D) Sucrose (s) Glycoside linkage

22.    match gases under specified conditions listed in Column I with the properties/laws in
Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) Hydrogen gas (P-200 atm, (p) Compressibility factor ¹ 1
T=273 K)
(B) Hydrogen gas (P ~ 0, T=273 K) (q) Attractive forces are dominant
(C) CO2 (P = 1 atm, T = 273 K) (r) PV = nRT
(D) Real gas with very large molar (s) P(V - nb) = nRT
volume

 
 

IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Paper 2-2007
Paper II

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1.     Consider a titration of potassium dichromate solution with acidified Mohr's salt solution
using diphenylamine as indicator. The number of moles of Mohr's salt required per mole of
dichromate is

        (A)    3

        (B)    4

        (C)    5

        (D)    6

2.     Among the following metal carbonyls, the C-O bond order is lowest in

        (A)    [Mn(CO)6]+

        (B)    [Fe(CO)5]

        (C)    [Cr(CO)6]

        (D)    [V(CO)6]-

3.     A solution of a metal ion when treated with KI gives a red precipitate which dissolves in
excess KI to give a colourless solution. Moreover, the solution of metal ion on treatment with
a solution of cobalt (II) thiocyanate gives rise to a deep blue crystalline precipitate. The metal
ion is

        (A)    Pb2+

        (B)    Hg2+

        (C)    Cu2+

        (D)    Co2+

4.     Cyclohexene and ozonlysis followed by reaction with zinc dust and water gives
compound E. Compound E on further treatment with aqueous KOH yields compound F.
Compound F is
      

5.     The number of stereoisomers obtained by bromination of trans-2-butene is

        (A)    1

        (B)    2

        (C)    3

        (D)    4

6.     Among the following, the least stale resonance structure is

     

7.     A positron is emitted from 23Na11. The ratio of the atomic mass and atomic number of
the resulting nuclide is

        (A)    22/10

        (B)    22/11

        (C)    23/10

        (D)    23/12

8.     For the process H2O(l), (1 bar, 373 K) → H2O(g) (1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of
thermodynamic parameters is

        (A)    DG = 0, DS = +ve

        (B)    DG = 0, DS = -ve

        (C)    DG = +ve, DS = 0


        (D)    DG = -ve, DS = +ve

9.     Consider a reaction aG + bH → Products. When concentration of both of the reactants G


and H is doubled, the rate increases by eight times. However, when concentration of G is
doubled keeping the concentration of H fixed, the rate is doubled. The overall order of the
reaction is

        (A)    0

        (B)    1

        (C)    2

        (D)    3

10.    STATEMENT-1 : Alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia to give blue solutions.

        because

        STATEMENT-2: Alkali metals in liquid ammonia give solvates species of the type
[M(NH3)n]+ (M = alkali metals).

(A)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

11.    STATEMENT-1: Glucose gives a reddish-brown precipitate with Fehling's solution.

        Because

        STATEMENT-2: Reaction of glucose with Fehling's solution gives CuO and gluconic
acid.

(A)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True


 

12.    STATEMENT-1: Molecules that are not superimposable on their mirror images are
chiral.

        Because

        STATEMENT-2: All chiral molecules have chiral centers.

(A)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

13.    STATEMENT-1: Band gap is germanium is small.

        Because

STATEMENT-2: The energy spread of each germanium atomic energy level is


infinitesimally small.

(A)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for


statement-1.

(B)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
statement-1.

(C)    Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

   &n(D)    Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

14.    Among the following, identify the correct statement.

        (A)    Chloride ion is oxidized by O2

        (B)    Fe2+ is oxidized by iodine

        (C)    Iodide ion is oxidized by chlorine

        (D)    Mn2+ is oxidized by chlorine

 
15.    While Fe3+ is stable, Mn3+ is not stable in acid solution because

        (A)    O2 oxidises Mn2+ to Mn3+

        (B)    O2 oxidises both Mn2+ to Mn3+ and Fe2+ to Fe3+

        (C)    Fe3+ oxidizes H2O to O2

        (D)    Mn3+ oxidizes H2O to O2

16.    Sodium fusion extract, obtained from aniline, on treatment with iron(II) sulphate and
H2SO4 in presence of air gives a Prussian blue precipitate. The blue colour is due to the
formation of

        (A)    Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

        (B)    Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2

        (C)    Fe4[Fe(CN)6]2

        (D)    Fe3[Fe(CN)6]3

17.    Which one of the following reagents is used in the above reaction?

        (A)    aq. NaOH + CH3CI

        (B)    aq. NaOH + CH2CI2

        (C)    aq. NaOH + CHCI3

        (D)    aq. NaOH + CCI4

18.    The electrophile in this reaction is

        (A)    :CHCI

        (B)    +CHCI2

        (C)    :CCI2

        (D)    .CCI3

 
19.    The structure of the intermediate I is

       

20.    Match the reactions in Column I with nature of the reactions/type of the products in
Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) O2- → O2 + O22- (p) redox reaction.
(B) CrO42- + H+ → (q) one of the products has trigonal
planar structure
(C) MnO4- + NO2- + H+ → (r) dimeric bridged tetrahedral metal
ion
(D) NO3- + H2SO4 + Fe2+ → (s) disproportionation

21.    Match the compounds/ions in Column I with their properties/reactions in Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) C6H6CHO (p) Gives precipitate with 2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
(B) CH3C≡CH (q) Gives precipitate with AgNO3
(C) CN- (r) Is a nucleophile
(D) I- (s) Is involved in cyanohydrins formation

 
22.    Match the crystal system/unit cells mentioned in Column I with their characteristic
features mentioned in Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) Simple cubic and face-centred (p) Have these cell parameters
cubic a = b = c and a = b = g
(B) Cubic and rhombohedral (q) Are two crystal systems
(C) Cubic and tetragonal (r) Have only two crystallographic
angles of 90o
(D) Hexagonal and monoclinic (s) Belong to same crystal system

IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Screening-2005
1. Which species has the maximum number of lone pair of electrons on the central atom?
(a) [CIO ] 3
-

(b) XeF 4

(c) SF 4

(d) [I ] 3
-

2. Which kinds of isomerism is exhibited by octahedral Co(NH ) Br CI? 3 4 2

(a) Geometrical and ionization


(b) Geometrical and optical
(c) Optical and ionization
(d) Geometrical only

3. Which is the most thermodynamically stable allotropic form of phosphorus?


(a) red
(b) white
(c) black
(d) yellow

4. Which ore contains both Iron and Copper?


(a) Cuprite
(b) Chalcocite
(c) Chalcopyrite
(d) Malachite

5. Which of the following is not oxidised by O ? 3

(a) KI
(b) FeSO 4

(c) KMnO 4

(d) K MnO 2 4

6. Which one of the following statement for order of reaction is not correct?
(a) Order can be determined experimentally
(b) Order of reaction is equal to sum of the power of concentration terms in differential rate
law
(c) It is not affected with stiochiometric coefficient of the reactants
(d) Order can not be fractional

7. How will you convert butan-2-one to propanoic acid?


(a) Tollen’s reagent
(b) Fehling solution
(c) NaOH/I /H+ 2

(d) NaOH/NaI/H+

8. Which blue-liquid is obtained on reacting equimolar amounts of two gases at –30 C?


o

(a) N O 2

(b) N O 2 3

(c) N O 2 4

(d) N O 2 5

9. Which of the following resonating structures of 1-methoxy-1, 3-butadiene is least stable?


(a) CH —CH=CH—CH=O—CH
2 3

(b) CH =CH —CH—CH=O—CH


2 2 3

(c) CH —CH—CH=CH—O—CH
2 3

(d) CH =CH—CH—CH—O—CH
2 3

10. The ratio of the rate of diffusion of helium and methane under identical condition of
pressure and temperature will be:
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0.5

11. When PbO reacts with conc. HNO3 the gas evolved is:
2

(a) NO 2

(b) O 2

(c) N 2

(d) N O 2

12. In which of the following crystals alternate tetrahedral voids are occupied?
(a) NaCI
(b) ZnS
(c) CaF 2

(d) Na O 2

13. 

        

(a) CH —COOH 3

(b) BrCH —COOH 2

(c) (CH CO) O 3 2

(d) CHO—COOH
14. The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCI in 1 kg of water using the following
2

information will be:


(Molecular weight of CuCI = 134.4 and Kb = 0.52 K molal–1)
2

(a) 0.16
(b) 0.05
(c) 0.1
(d) 0.2

15. What would be the product formed when 1-bromo-3-chloro cyclobutane reacts with two
equivalents of metallic sodium in ether?

16. 4-methyl benzene sulphonic acid reacts with sodium acetate to give :

17. The following on hydrolysis in aqueous acetone will give :

              

(a) Mixture of (K) and (L)


(b) Mixture of (K) and (M)
(c) only (M)
(d) only (K)

18. 0.1 mole of CH NH (Kb = 5 × 10 ) is mixed with 0.08 mole of HCI and diluted to one
3 2
–4

litre. What will be the H+ concentration in the solution?


(a) 8 × 10 M –2

(b) 8 × 10 M –11

(c) 1.6 × 10 M –11

(d) 8 × 10 M –5

19. The rusting of iron takes place as follows :


2H+ + 2e + 1/2O  H O (l) ;       E = + 1.23 V

2 2
o

Fe + 2e  Fe(s) ;                   E = 0.44 V
2+ – o

Calculate G for the net process o

(a) –322 kJ mol –1

(b) –161 kJ mol –1

(c) –152 kJ mol –1

(d) –76 kJ mol –1

20. Name of the structure of silicates in which three oxygen atoms of [SiO ] are shared is :
4
4–

(a) pyrosilicate
(b) sheet silicate
(c) linear chain silicate
(d) three dimensional silicate

21. Lyophilic sols are :


(a) irreversible sols
(b) they are prepared from inorganic compounds
(c) coagulated by adding electrolytes
(d) self-stabilizing

22. Which pair of compounds is expected to show similar colour in aqueous medium?
(a) FeCI and CuCI
3 2

(b) VOCI and CuCI2 2

(c) VOCI and FeCI2 2

(d) FeCI and MnCI


2 2

23. The two forms of D-glucopyranose obtained from the solution of D-glucose are called :
(a) isomer
(b) anomer
(c) epimer
(d) enantiomer

24. The number of radial nodes of 3s, and 2p orbitals are respectively :
(a) 2, 0
(b) 0, 2
(c) 1, 2
(d) 2, 1

25. A metal nitrate reacts with KI to give a black precipitate which on addition of excess of
KI convert into orange colour solution. The cation of metal nitrate is:
(a) Hg 2+

(b) Bi 3+
(c) Pb 2+

(d) Cu +

26. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with t-butanol, the product would be:
(a) benzene
(b) phenol
(c) t-butyl benzene
(d) t-butyl phenyl ether

27. The best method to prepare cyclohexene from cyclohexanol is by using :


(a) conc. HCI + ZnCI 2

(b) conc. H PO 3 4

(c) HBr
(d) conc. HCI

28. When one mole of monoatomic ideal gas at T K undergoes adiabatic change under a
constant external pressure of 1 atm changes volume from 1 litre to 2 litre. The final
temperature in kelvin would be :
(a) T/2 (2/3)

(b) T + 2/(3×0.0821)
(c) T
(d) T – 2/(2×0.0821)

IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Mains-2005
1. Monomer A of a polymer of ozonolysis yields two moles of HCHO and one mole of
CH COCHO.
3

(a) Deduce the structure of A.


(b) Write the structure of “all cis”—form of polymer of compound A.

2. Fill in the blanks

(a) U
235
92 + 0 n 1
 A
137
52 + B
97
40 + ……….

(b) 82
Se 34    2 e
–1
0
+ ……….

3. (a) Calculate the amount of calcium oxide required when it reacts with 852 g of   P O 4 10.

(b) Write the structure of PO . 4 10

4. An element crystallizes in fcc lattice having edge length 400 pm. Calculate the maximum
diameter of atom which can be placed in interstitial site without distorting the structure.

5. 20% surface sites have adsorbed N . On heating N gas evolved from sites and were
2 2

collected at 0.001 atm and 298 K in a container of volume is 2.46 cm . Density of surface 3

sites is 6.023 × 10 /cm and surface area is 1000 cm , find out the number of surface sites
14 2 2

occupied per molecule of N . 2


6. Predict whether the following molecules are iso-structural or not. Justify your answer.

(i)NMe 3

(ii)N(SiMe ) 3 3

7.

            

Identify X and Y.

8. Which of the following disaccharide will not reduce Tollen’s reagent?

9. Write balanced chemical equation for developing a black and white photographic film.
Also give reason why the solution of sodium thiosulphate on acidification turns milky white
and give balance equation of this reaction.
  

.
(a) Write IUPAC name of A and B.
(b) Find out spin only magnetic moment of B.

11. 2X(g)  3Y(g) + 2Z(g)

Assuming ideal gas constant, calculate,

(a) Order of reaction


(b) Rate constant
(c) Time taken for 75% completion of reaction.
(d) Total pressure when P = 700mm

12. (a) Calculate velocity of electron in first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom

(Given r = a )
0

(b) Find de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in first Bohr orbit.

(c) Find the orbital angular momentum of 2p-orbital in terms of h/2 units.

Find X and Y. Is Y optically active? Write the intermediate steps.

14. Give reasons for

       
15.

          

          Find A, B, C and D. Also write equations A to B and A to C.

IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Screening-2004

  1.         2-phenyl propene on acidic hydration gives 

             (a)       2-phenyl-2-propanol 


             (b)       2-phenyl-1-propanol 
             (c)       3-phenyl-1-propanol 
             (d)       1-phenyl-2-propanol 

2. 

                                     
            C2 is rotated anticlockwise 120o about C2 - C3 bond. The resulting 
            conformer is 

            (a)       Partially eclipsed 


            (b)       Eclipsed 
            (c)       Gauche 
            (d)       Staggered 

3.             Benzamide on treatment with POCI3 gives 

            (a)       Aniline 


            (b)       Benzonitrile 
            (c)       Chlorobenzene 
            (d)       Benzyl amine 
  

4.          The methods chiefly used for the extraction of lead and tin from their ores 
             are respectively

            (a)       Self reduction and carbon reduction 


            (b)       Self reduction and electrolytic reduction 
            (c)       Carbon reduction and self reduction 
            (d)       Cyanide process and carbon reduction 
  

5.

                              
  
           Product on monobromination of this compound is 
  

                
  

6.         The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide with the following 
           compounds is 

              

       (a)       (II) > (III) > (I) 


            (b)       (I) > (III) > (II) 
            (c)       (II) > (I) > (III) 
            (d)       All react with the same rate 
  

7.              (NH4)2 Cr2O7 on heating gives a gas which is also given by 

            (a)       Heating NH4NO2 


            (b)       Heating NH4NO3 
            (c)       Mg3N2 + H2O 
            (d)       Na(comp.) + H2O2 
  

8.          Zn|Zn2+ (a = 0.1 M)||Fe2+ (a = 0.01 M)|Fe. 


            The emf of the above cell is 0.2905 V. Equilibrium constant for the cell       
            reaction is 
  
            (a)       100.32/0.591 
            (b)       100.32/0.0295 
            (c)       100.26/0.0295 
            (d)       e0.32/0.295 
  
9.         HX is a weak acid (Ka = 10-5). It forms a salt NaX (0.1M) on reacting with 
            caustic soda. The degree of hydrolysis of NaX is 
  
            (a)       0.01 % 
            (b)       0.0001 % 
            (c)       0.1 % 
            (d)       0.5% 
  
10.         Spontaneous adsorption of a gas on solid surface is an exothermic process 
             because: 
  
            (a)       DH increases for system 
            (b)       DS increases for gas 
            (c)       DS decreases for gas 
            (d)       DG increases for gas 
  
11.        For a monoatomic gas kinetic energy = E. The relation with rms velocity is

            (a)            µ=(2E/M)1/2 
            (b)       µ=(3E/2M)1/2       
            (c)       µ=(E/2M)1/2 
            (d)       µ=(E/3M)1/2    
  
12.       The pair of compounds having metals in their highest oxidation state is 
  
            (a)       MnO2, FeCI3 
            (b)       [MnO4]-, CrO2CI2 
            (c)       [Fe(CN)6]3-, [Co(CN)3] 
            (d)       [NiCI4]2-, [CoCI4]- 
  
13.       The compounds having tetrahedral geometry is 
  
            (a)       [Ni(CN)4]2- 
            (b)       [Pd(CN)4]2- 
            (c)       [PdCI4]2- 
            (d)       [NiCI4]2- 
  
14.      Spin only magnetic moment of the compound Hg[Co(SCN)4] is 

           (a)       √3 
           (b)       √15 
           (c)       √24 
           (d)       √8 
  
15.       A sodium salt of an unknown anion when treated with MgCI2 gives white 
           precipitate only on boiling. The anion is 

            (a)       S42-              


            (b)       HC3- 
            (c)       C32- 
            (d)       N3- 
  
16.      Which hydrogen like species will have same radius as that of Bohr orbit of 
           hydrogen atom? 

            (a)       n = 2, Li+2 


            (b)       n = 2, Be3+ 
            (c)       n = 2, He+ 
            (d)       n = 3, Li2+ 
  
17.      

                     

            Arrange in order of increasing acidic strength 


            (a)       X > Z > Y 
       (b)       Z < X < Y 
            (c)       X > Y > Z 
            (d)       Z > X > Y 
  
  

18.       0.004 M Na2SO4 is isotonic with 0.01 M glucose. Degree of dissociation of


           Na2SO4 is 

            (a)       75% 


            (b)       50% 
            (c)       25% 
            (d)       85% 
  
19.       DHvap = 30 kJ/mole and DSvap = 75 Jmol-1 K-1. Find temperature of vapour,
           at one atmosphere

            (a)       400 K 


            (b)       350 K 
            (c)       298 K 
            (d)       250 K 
  
20.       2 mol of an ideal gas expanded isothermally and reversibly from 1litre to 10 
           litres at 300 K. What is the enthalpy change?

            (a)       4.98 kJ 


       (b)       11.47 kJ 
            (c)     -11.47 kJ 
       (d)       0 kJ 
  
21.       (A) follows first order reaction. (A) --> product 
            
           Concentration of A, changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 minutes. Find the 
           rate of reaction of A when concentration of A is 0.01 M.
           (a)       3.47 × 10-4 M min-1                  
           (b)       3.47 × 10-5 M min-1 
           (c)       1.73 × 10-4 M min-1                  
           (d)       1.73 × 10-5 M min-1 
  
22.       2-hexyne gives trans-2-hexene on treatment with 

            (a)       Li/NH3 


            (b)       Pd/BaSO4 
            (c)       LiAIH4 
            (d)       Pt/H2 
  
23.       How many chiral compounds are possible on mono chlorination of 2-methyl
           butane? 
            (a)       2 
            (b)       4 
            (c)       6 
            (d)       8 
  
24.       Which of the following pairs give positive Tollen's test? 
            (a)       Glucose, sucrose 
            (b)       Glucose, fructose 
            (c)       Hexanal, acetophenone 
            (d)       Fructose, sucrose 
  
25.       Which of the following as -O-O- linkage 
            (a)       H2S2O6 
            (b)       H2S2O8 
            (c)       H2S2O3 
            (d)       H2S5O6 
  
26.       When I- is oxidised by Mn4- in alkaline medium, I- converts into 
            (a)       I3-    
            (b)        I2
            (c)       I4-  
            (d)       IO-
  
27.       Number of lone pair (s) in XeF4 is/are 
            (a)       0 
            (b)       1 
            (c)       2 
            (d)       3 
  
28.       According to MO theory, 
            (a)    O2+is paramagnetic and bond order greater than O2 
            (b)    O2+is paramagnetic and bond order less than O2 
            (c)    O2+ is diamagnetic and bond order is less than O2 
            (d)    O2+ is diamagnetic and bond order is more than O2 
  
  
  

IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Mains-2004
  
1.        For the given reaction 
                                                A + B --> Products 
  
          Following data were given 
  
-1 -1
            Initial conc. (m/L)             Initial conc. (m/L)           Initial rate (mL s )

                        [A]0                                         [B]0 

                   0.1                                  0.1                            0.05


                   0.2                                  0.1                            0.1
                   0.1                                  0.2                            0.05

               (a)       Write the rate equation. 


               (b)       Calculate the rate constant. 
  
2.       100 mL of a liquid contained in an insulated container at a pressure of 1 bar.
         The pressure is steeply increased to 100 bar. The volume of the liquid is       
         decreased by 1 mL at this constant pressure. Find the DH and DU. 
  
3.      Draw the shape of XeF4 and OSF4 according to VSEPR theory. Show the lone 
         pair of electrons on the central atom. 
  
4.      The structure of D-Glucose is as follows : 

                                               

                                    

  
            (a)       Draw the structures of L-Glucose. 
            (b)       Give the reaction of L-Glucose with Tollen's reagent. 
  
5.         (a)       Draw Newmann's projection the less stable staggered form of 
                  butane.
            (b)       Relatively less stability of the staggered form is due to :

                        (i)         Torsional strain 


                        (ii)        Van der Waal's strain 
                        (iii)       Combination of the above two 
  
6.         Arrange the following oxides in the increasing order of Bronsted basicity.
                              CI2O7, BaO, SO3, CO2, B2O3 
  
7.        AIF3 is insoluble in anhydrous HF but when little KF is added to the
           compound it becomes soluble. On addition of BF3, AIF3 is precipitated.
           Write the balanced chemical equations. 
  
8.        The crystal AB (rock salt structure) has molecular weight 6.023 y amu. 
           Where y is an arbitrary number in amu. If the minimum distance between    
           cation and anion is y1/3 nm and the observed density is 20 kg/m3. Find the:
 
            (a)       density in kg/m3 and 
            (b)       type of defect 
 

9.      Which of the following is more acidic and why? 


  

                            
  
10.      7-bromo-1, 3, 5-cycloheptatriene exists as ionic species in aqueous solution 
          while 5-bromo-1, 3 cyclopentadiene doesn't ionize even in   presence of 
          Ag+  (aq). Explain. 
  
11.   (a)  The Schrodinger wave equation for hydrogen atom is : 
  

                         
  
         Where a0 is Bohr's radius. Let the radial node is 2s be at r0. Then find
                  r0 in   terms of a0

          (b)       A base ball having mass 100 g moves with velocity 100 m/sec. Find   
                     out the value of wavelength of base ball. 

          (c)      Find out atomic number, mass number of Y and identify it. 


      

                    
                      
   12.    On the basis of ground state electronic configuration arrange the following    
           molecules in   increasing O-O bond length order.

                                     KO2, O2, O2[AsF6] 


  
13.   (a) In the following equilibrium

                                    N2O4(g) <-->  2NO2(g) 


           When 5 moles of each are taken, the temperature is kept at 298 K the total 
           pressure was  found to be 20 bar. Given that

                                   △Gf0(N2O4) = 100 kJ

                                   △Gf0(NO2) = 50 kJ 

            (i)         Find △G of the reaction 


            (ii)        The direction of the reaction in which the equilibrium shifts 
  
       (b) A graph is plotted for a real gas which follows van der Waal's equation 
            eith PVm taken on Y-axis and P on X-axis. Find the intercept of the 
            line where Vm is molar volume. 
  
14.    (a)  1.22 g C6H5COOH is added into two solvent and data of DTb and Kb are        
given as:

 
          (i)      In 100 g CH3COCH3           △Tb= 0.172,Kb = 1.7 kg Kelvin/mol 
          (ii)      In 100 benzene,                △Tb = 0.13 , Kb = 2.6 kg   Kelvin/mol 
  
         (b)    0.1 M of HA is titrated with 0.1 M NaOH, calculate the pH at end point. 
                 Given Ka (HA) = 5.6 × 10-6 and  << 1. 
  
15.  

                            
        

        Convert in not more than four steps. Also mention the temperature and
         reaction condition. 
  
  
  
16.    Identify A to D. 

                

17.    A1 and A2 are two ores of metal M. A1 on calcinations gives black precipitate, 


        CO2 and water. 
  
  
  
  

18.      NiCI2 in the presence of dimethyl glyoxime (DMG) gives a complex  


          which precipitates in the presence of NH2OH, giving a bright red colour.
            (a)       Draw its structure and show H-bonding 
            (b)       Give oxidation state of Ni and its hybridization 
            (c)       Predict whether it is paramagnetic or diamagnetic 
  
19.       Find the equilibrium constant for the reaction
 
                                Cu+2 + In+2  <--> Cu+ + In+3

            Given that

              
  
20.       An organic compound 'P' having the molecular formula C5H10O treated with 
           dil H2SO4 gives two compounds, Q and R both gives positive   idoform test.
           The reaction of C5H10O with dil H2SO4 gives reaction 1015 times faster than
           ethylene. Identify organic compound of Q and R. Give the reason for the
           extra stability of P. 
 

IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Screening-2003

SCREENING__________________________________________________
_____________

1.         Among the following the molecule with the highest dipole moment is : 
            (a)       CH3CI                                                 
            (b)       CH2CI2 
            (c)       CHCI3                                                
       (d)       CCI4 
  

2.         Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural? 


            NO3-, C O32-, CI O3-, SO3 
            (a)       N O3-, C O32-                                       
            (b)       SO3, N O3- 
            (c)       CI O3-, C O32-                                      
            (d)       C O32-, SO3 
  

3. 

            
  
            The product A will be 
   
           
  

4.         [X] + H2SO4 → [Y] a colourless gas with irritating smell 


            [Y] + K2CrO7 + H2SO4 ® green solution 
            [X] and [Y] is: 
            (a)       S O32-, SO2                                         
            (b)       CI-, HCI 
            (c)       S2-, H2S       
            (d)       C O3-, CO2 
  

5.         For H3PO3 and H3PO4 the correct choice is: 


            (a)       H3PO3 is dibasic and reducing 
            (b)       H3PO3 is dibasic and non-reducing 
            (c)       H3PO4 is tribasic and reducing 
            (d)       H3PO3 is tribasic and non-reducing 
  

6.         When MnO2 is fused with KOH, a coloured compound is formed, the product and
its colour is : 
            (a)       K2MnO4, purple green     
            (b)       KMnO4, purple 
            (c)       Mn2O3, brown      
            (d)       Mn3O4 black 
  

7.         Rate of physiorption increases with : 


            (a)       decrease in temperature  
            (b)       increase in temperature 
            (c)       decrease in pressure 
            (d)       decrease in surface area 
  

8.         Which of the following represent the given mode of hybridization 


sp2 - sp2 - sp - sp from left to right? 
            (a)       H2C = CH - C ≡ N       
            (b)       HC ≡ C - C ≡ CH 
  
            (c)       H2C = C = C = CH2         
            (d)       

                        
  

9.      

          
  

10.       The product of acid hydrolysis of P and Q can be distinguished by : 


        

          

            (a)       Lucas Reagent                           


            (b)       2, 4-DNP 
            (c)       Fehling's solution     
            (d)       NaHSO3 
  

11.       

              
  
            (a)       C6H5OC2H5                                
            (b)       C2H5OC2H5 
            (c)       C6H5OC6H5      
            (d)       C6H5I 
  

12.       Which has maximum number of atoms? 


            (a)       24g of C (12)                               
            (b)       56 g of Fe (56) 
            (c)       27g of AI (27)                          
            (d)       108 g of Ag (108) 
  
13.

             
  

14.       In the electrolytic cell, flow of electrons is from : 


            (a)       cathode to anode in solution 
            (b)       cathode to anode through external supply 
            (c)       cathode to anode through internal supply 
            (d)       anode to cathode through internal supply 
  

15.       In a first order reaction the concentration of reactant decreases from 800
mol/dm3 to 50 mol/dm3 is 2 × 104 sec. The rate constant of reaction in sec-1 is : 
            (a)       2 × 104                              
            (b)       3.45 × 10-5 
            (c)       1.386 × 10-5                      
            (d)       2 × 10-4 
  

16.       During depression of freezing point in a solution the following are in


equilibrium : 
            (a)       liquid solvent, solid solvent           
            (b)       liquid solvent, solid solute 
            (c)       liquid solute, solid solute            
            (d)       liquid solute solid solvent 
  

17.       H3BO3 is : 
            (a)       Monobasic and weak Lewis acid 
            (b)       Monobasic and weak Bronsted acid 
            (c)       Monobasic and strong Lewis acid 
            (d)       Tribasic and weak Bronsted acid 
  

18.  
         
  

19.   

          
  

20.       Mixture X = 0.02 mol of [Co(NH3)5 SO4]Br and 0.02 mol of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4was


prepared in 2 litre of solution. 
                        1 litre of mixture X + excess AgNO3 → Y 
1 litre of mixture X + excess BaCI3 → Z 
Number of moles of Y and Z are : 
            (a)       0.01, 0.01                                
            (b)       0.02, 0.01 
            (c)       0.01, 0.02                         
            (d)       0.02, 0.02 
  

21.       Which of the reaction defines ΔHf0: 


            (a)       Cdiamond + O2(g) → CO2(g)         
            (b)       1/2 H2(g) + 1/2 F2(g) → HF(g) 
            (c)       N2(s) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)            
            (d)       CO(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → CO2(g) 
  

22.       23Na is the more stable isotope of Na. Find out the process by which 24Na11can
undergo radioactive decay: 
            (a)       b- emission                       
            (b)       a emission 
            (c)       b+ emission                     
            (d)       K electron capture 
  

23.       (Me)2 SiCI2 on hydrolysis will produce : 


            (a)       (Me)2 Si(OH)2                 
            (b)       (Me)2 Si = O 
            (c)       -[-O-(Me)2 Si-O-]n-         
            (d)       Me2SiCl(OH) 
  

24.       A solution which is10-3 M each in Mn2+, Fe2+, Zn2+ and Hg2+ is treated with 10-16 M
sulphide ion. If Ksp of MnS, FeS, ZnS and HgS are 10-15, 10-23, 10-20 and 10-54 respectively,
which one will precipitate first? 
            (a)       FeS                         
            (b)       MgS 
            (c)       HgS                         
            (d)       ZnS 
  

25.       In the process of extraction of gold, 


            Roasted gold ore + CN- + H2O → O2 → [X] + OH- 
            [X] + Zn → [Y] + Au 
            Identify the complexes [X] and [Y] : 
            (a)       X = [Au(CN)2]-, Y = [Zn(CN)4]2- 
            (b)       X = [Au(CN)4]3-, Y = [Zn(CN)4]2- 
            (c)       X = [Au(CN)2]-, Y = [Zn(CN)6]4- 
            (d)       X = [Au(CN)4]-, Y = [Zn(CN)4]2- 
  

26.       Positive deviation from ideal behaviour takes place because of : 


            (a)       Molecular interaction between atom and PV/nRT > 1. 
            (b)       Molecular interaction between atom and PV/nRT < 1. 
            (c)       Finite size of atom and PV/nRT > 1 
            (d)       Finite size of atoms and PV/nRT < 1 
  
  

27.       

           
  
            How many structures of F is possible? 
            (a)       2                                         
            (b)       5 
            (c)       6                                              
            (d)       3 
  

28.       An enantiomerically pure acid is treated with racemic mixture of an alcohol


having one chiral carbon. The ester formed will be: 
            (a)       Optically active mixture         
            (b)       Pure enantiomer 
            (c)       Meso Compound                
            (d)       Racemic mixture 
 

 
IT-JEE-Chemistry-Mains-2003

Mains_________________________________________________________
______ 

                        
Note : Question number 1 to 10 caries 2 marks each and 11 to 20 carries 4 marks
each. 
  
1.         Calculate the molarity of water if its density is 1000 kg/m3. 
  

2.         The average velocity of gas molecules is 400 m/sec. Calculate its rms velocity at
the same temperature. 
  

3.         Write down the heterogeneous catalyst involved in the polymerization of


ethylene. 
  

4.         Which one is more soluble in diethyl ether anhydrous AICI3 or hydrous AICI3?
Explain in terms of bonding. 
  

5.         Using VSEPR theory, draw the shape of PCI5 and BrF5. 
  

6.         A racemic mixture of (+) 2-phenyl propanoic acid on esterification with (+) 
2-butanol gives two esters. Mention the stereochemistry of the two esters produced.
  
7.         Wavelengths of high energy transition of H-atoms is 91.2nm. Calculate the
corresponding wavelength of He atoms. 
  

8.         Match the Ka values 


 

  Ka

 (a) Benzoic acid  3.3 × 10-5 


     

6.3 × 10-5 
 (b) O2N- -COOH    
  
30.6 × 10-5 
  
 (c) CI- -COOH 
  
6.4 × 10-5 
  
 (d) H3CO- -COOH 
   4.2 × 10-5

 (e) H3C- -COOH 


 

  

9.         Write down reactions involved in the extraction of Pb. What is the oxidation
number of lead in litharge? 
  

10.       Following two aminoacids liosine and glutamine form dipeptide linkage. What are
two possible dipeptides? 
  
                       NH2                          NH2 
                      |                             |
                 /\/\/\            +              /\/\
            H2N       COOH             HOOC     COOH 
  

11.       (a) You are given marbles of diameter 10 mm. They are to be placed such that
their centres are lying in a square bound by four lines each of length 40 mm. What will
be the arrangements of marbles in a plane so that maximum number of marbles can be
placed inside the area? Sketch the diagram and derive expression for the number of
molecules per unit area. 
  
            (b) 1 gm of charcoal adsorbs 100 ml 0.5 MCH3COOH to form a monolayer, and
thereby the molarity of CH3COOH reduces to 0.49. Calculate the surface area of the
charcoal adsorbed by each molecule of acetic acid. Surface area of charcoal = 3.01 ×
102 m2/gm. 
  

12.       (a) Will the pH of water be same at 4oC and 25oC? Explain. 
            (b) Two students use same stock solution of ZnSO4 and a solution of CuSO4. The
emf of one cell is 0.03 V higher than the other. The conc. of CuSO4 in the cell with higher
emf value is 0.5 M. Find out the conc. of CuSO4 in the other cell (2.203 RT/F = 0.06). 
  

13.       Convert 
                                                                  F
                                                                 /

            (a)          COOH-       →    COOH-  


                            
                 (in not more than 3 steps) 
                                                                                  
  

            (b)            COOH-           →      Aspirin 


                                               
  

14.       There is a solution of p-hydroxy benzoic acid and p-amino benzoic acid. Discuss
one method by which we can separate them and also write down the confirmatory tests
of the functional groups present. 
  

15.       A(C6H12) --HCl--> (B + C) 


                                        (C6H13CI) 
  
            B -- alc KOH --> D (isomer of A) 
  
            D -- ozonolysis --> E      (it gives negative test with Fehling solution but
                                               responds to idoform test) 
  
            A  -- ozonolysis -->  F + G  (both gives positive Tollen's test but do not 
                                                 give idoform test) 
  
            F + G -- conc. NaOH --> HCOONa + a primary alcohol 
  
            Identify to A to G. 
  

16.       Identify the following : 


            
          Na2CO3 -- SO2 --> A  -- Na2CO2 --> B -- Elemental S / Δ --> C  -- I2 --> D 
            
          Also mention the oxidation state of S in all the compounds. 
  

17.       Write the IUPAC nomenclature of the given complex along with its hybridization
and structure. K2[Cr(NO)(NH3)(CN)4], m = 1.73 BM. 
  

18.       A mixture consists A (yellow solid) and B (colourless solid) which gives lilac
colour in flame : 
            (a)       Mixture gives black precipitate C on passing H2S(g). 
 
(b)       C is soluble in aqua-regia and on evaporation of aqua-regia and adding
SnCI2gives grayish black precipitate D. 
The salt solution with NH4OH gives a brown precipitate. 

(i)            The sodium extract of the salt with CCI4/FeCI3 gives a violet layer. 
(ii)          The sodium extract gives yellow precipitate with AgNO3 solution which is
insoluble in NH3. Identify A and B, and the precipitates C and D. 
  

19.       (a) Match the following if the molecular weights of X, Y and Z are same 
 

  Boiling Point Kb

X  100  0.68 
        
Y  27  0.53 
        
Z 253 0.98

  
(b) Cu value of He is always 3R/2 but Cu value fo H2 is 3R/2 at low temperature and 5R/2
at moderate temperature and more than 5R/2 at higher temperature explain in two to
three lines. 
  

20.       (a)       H2C            CH2 


                            \//\//
                             |
                           OH 
            Write resonance structure of the given compound. 
(b) Compound A of molecular formula C9H7O2CI exists in ketoform and predominantly in
enolic form 'B'. On oxidation with KMnO4, 'A' gives m-chlorobenzoic acid. Identify 'A' and
'B'. 
 

IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Screening-2002

SCREENING 
______________________________________________________________________
_

1. How many moles of electron weighs one kilogram? 

(A) 6.023 x 1023 


(B) 1/9.108 x 1031 
(C) 6.023/9.108 x 1054 
(D) 1/(9.108 x6.023) x 108 

2. Which of the following volume (V) – temperature (T) plots represents the behavior of
one mole of an ideal gas at the atmospheric pressure? 

     

  
3.         If the Nitrogen atom had electronic configuration 1s7, it would have energy lower
than that of the normal ground state configuration 1s2 2s2 2p3, because the electrons
would be closer to the nucleus. Yet 1s7 is not observed because it violates
(A)       Heisenberg  uncertainty principle 
(B)       Hund's rule 
(C)       Pauli exclusion principle 
(D)       Bohr postulate of stationary orbits 
  
4.         Rutherford's experiment , which established the nuclear model of the atom, used
a beam of 
(A)       β-particles , which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed 
(B)       γ-rays, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered 
(C)       Helium atoms , which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered 
(D)       Helium nuclei , which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered 
  
5.         When the temperature is increased, surface tension of water 
(A)       Increases 
(B)       Decreases 
(C)       Remains constant 
(D)       Shows irregular behaviour 
  
6.         A substance AX BY crystallizes in a face centered cubic (FCC) lattice in which
atoms 'A' occupy each corner of the cube and atoms 'B' occupy the centers of each face
of the cube. Identify the correct composition of the substance AX BY 
(A)       AB3 
(B)       A4B3 
(C)       A3B 
(D)       Composition cannot be specified 
  
7.         Consider the chemical reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g)   --> 2NH3(g).  The rate of this
reaction can be expressed in terms of time derivative of concentration of N2(g), H2(g), or
NH3(g).  Identify the correct relationship amongst the rate expressions 
(A)       Rate = -d[N2]/dt =  -1/3 d[H2] /dt = 1/2 d[NH3] /dt 
(B)       Rate = -d[N2]/dt =  -3 d[H2] /dt = 2 d[NH3] /dt 
(C)       Rate =  d[N2]/dt =  1/3 d[H2] /dt = 1/2 d[NH3] /dt 
(D)       Rate = -d[N2]/dt  =  - d[H2] /dt =  d[NH3] /dt 
  
 

8.  Standard electrode potential data are useful for understanding the suitability of an
oxidant in a redox titration. Some half cell reactions and their standard potentials are
given below 
MnO4-(aq.) +8H+ (aq.) +5e --> Mn2+ (aq.) + 4H2O (l)                E0 = 1.51 V 
Cr2O72-(aq.) + 14 H+ (aq.) + 6e --> 2Cr 3+ (aq.) + 7H2O (l)        E0= 1.38V 
                 Fe3+ (aq.) + e --> Fe2+  (aq.)                              E0 = 0.77V 
                    Cl2 (g) +2e --> 2Cl-(aq.)                                   E0 = 1.40V 
Identify the only incorrect  statement regarding the quantitative estimation of aqueous
Fe(NO3)2 . 
(A)       MnO4- can be used in aqueous HCl 
(B)       Cr2O72- can be used in aqueous HCl 
(C)       MnO4- can be used in aqueous H2SO4 
(D)       Cr2O72- can be used in aqueous H2SO4 
  
9.         Specify the coordination geometry around and hybridization of N and B atoms in
a 1:1 complex of BF3 and NH3 
(A)       N: tetrahedral , sp3 ; B: tetrahedral, sp3 
(B)       N: pyramidal, sp3 ; B: pyramidal, sp3 
(C)       N: pyramidal, sp3 ; B: planar, sp2 
(D)       N: pyramidal, sp3 ; B: tetrahedral, sp3 
  
10.       One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm. 3.0 L, 95 K )
à (4.0 atm. 5.0 L, 245 K)  with a change in internal energy , DU = 30.0L atm. The
change in enthalpy (H) of the process in L atm is 
(A)       40.0 
(B)       42.0 
(C)       44.0 
(D)       Not defined, because pressure is not constant 
  
11.       Consider  the following equilibrium in a closed container 
  
             N2O4 (g)  <-->  2NO2 
  
At a fixed temperature, the volume of the reaction container is halved. For this change,
which of the following holds true regarding the equilibrium constant (Kp) and degree of
dissociation (α)? 
(A)       Neither KP nor α change 
(B)       Both KP and α change 
(C)       KP  changes, but  α does not change 
(D)       KP does not change, but α change 

12. Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest dipole moment ? 

        

13. Compound ‘A’ (molecular formula C3H8O)is treated with acidified potassium


dichromate to form a product ‘B’ (molecular formula C3H6O) ‘B’ forms a shining silver
mirror on warming with ammoniacal silver nitrate. ‘B’ when treated with an aqueous
solution of H2NCONHNH2 and sodium acetate gives a product ‘C’. Identify the structure of
‘C’ 

      

14. Identify the correct order of reactivity in electrophilic substitution reactions of the


following compounds 

     

  
(A)       1>2>3>4 
(B)       4>3>2>1 
(C)       2>1>3>4 
(D)       2>3>1>4 
  
15.       Identify the correct order of boiling points of the following compounds 
CH3 CH2CH2CH2OH             CH3 CH2CH2CHO                  CH3 CH2CH2COOH     
   1                                              2                                       3 
  
(A)       1>2>3 
(B)       3>1>2 
(C)       1>3>2 
(D)       3>2>1 
  
16.       Identify the set of reagents / reaction conditions 'X' and 'Y' in the following set
of transformations 
CH3 - CH2 - CH2Br   --X->  product --Y-> CH3 - CH - CH3       
                                                               |
                                                               Br 
(A)       X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 200C; Y =HBr / acetic acid, 200C 
(B)       X = concentrated alcoholic NaOH, 800C; Y =HBr / acetic acid, 200C 
(C)       X = dilute aqueous NaOH, 200C; Y = Br2/ CHCl3, 00C 
(D)       X = concentrated aqueous NaOH, 800C; Y = Br2/ CHCl3, 00C 
  
17.       Identify a reagent from the following list which can easily distinguish between 1-
butyne and 2-butyne 
(A)       Bromine, CCl4 
(B)       H2, Lindlar catalyst 
(C)       Dilute H2SO4, HgSO4 
(D)       Ammoniacal CuCl2 solution 
  
 18.      Consider the following reaction 
  

       

  
19.       Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant? 
(A)       CH3CHFCOOH 
(B)       FCH2CH2COOH 
(C)       BrCH2CH2COOH 
(D)       CH3CHBrCOOH 
  
 

20.       Which of the following compounds exhibits steroisomerism? 


(A)       2-methylbutene- 1 
(B)       3-methylbutyne-1 
(C)       3-methylbutanoic  acid 
(D)       2-mtethylbutanoic acid 
  
21.       The nodal plane in the  Π-bond of ethane is located in 
(A)       The molecular plane 
(B)       A plane parallel to the molecular plane   
(C)       A plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carbon - carbon
σ-bond at right angle 
(D)       A plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the carbon - carbon
σ-bond 
  
22.       Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents because they 
(A)       Form soluble complexes with anionic species 
(B)       Precipitate anionic species 
(C)       Form soluble complexes with cationic species 
(D)       Precipitate cationic species 
  
23.       Identify the correct order of acidic strengths of CO2, CuO, CaO, H2O 
(A)       CaO< CuO< H2O<CO2 
(B)       H2O <CuO< CaO <CO2 
(C)       CaO<H2O<CuO<CO2 
(D)       H2O<CO2<CaO<CuO 
  
24.       Identify the least stable ion amongst the following 
                        (A)  Li- 
                        (B)  Be- 
                        (C)  B- 
                        (D)  C- 
  
25.       Which of the following molecular species has unpaired electrons (s)? 
                        (A)  N2 
                        (B)  F2 
                        (C)  O2- 
                        (D)  O22- 
  
26.       A gas 'X' is passed through water to form a saturated solution. The aqueous
solution of treatment with silver nitrate gives a white precipitate. The saturated aqueous
solution also dissolves magnesium ribbon with evolution of a colourless gas 'Y'. Identify
'X' and 'Y'. 
(A)       X =CO2, Y= Cl2 
(B)       X =Cl2, Y= CO2 
(C)       X =Cl2, Y= H2 
(D)       X =H2, Y= Cl2 
  

27.       An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate on treatment with


dilute hydrochloric acid, which dissolves on heating. When hydrogen sulfide is passed
through the hot acidic solution, a black precipitate is obtained. The substance is a 
(A)       Hg22+ salt 
(B)       Cu2+ salt 
(C)       Ag+ salt 
(D)       Pb2+ salt 
  
28.       Which of the following process is used in extractive metallurgy of magnesium? 
(A)       Fused salt electrolysis 
(B)       Self reduction 
(C)       Aqueous solution electrolysis 
(D)       Thermite reduction 
  
29.       Identify the correct order of solubility of Na2S, CuS and ZnS in aqueous medium 
(A)       CuS    >  ZnS   >  Na2S 
(B)       ZnS    >  Na2S >  CuS 
(C)       Na2S  >  CuS   >  ZnS 
(D)       Na2S  >  ZnS   >  CuS 
  
30.       Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by 
(A)       Heating hydrated ferric chloride at a high temperature in a stream of air 
(B)       Heating metallic iron in a stream of dry chlorine gas 
(C)       Reaction of ferric oxide with hydrochloric acid 
(D)       Reaction of metallic iron with hydrochloric acid 
 

MAIN
Time : Two hours                                                                      Max. Marks : 60

______________________________________________________________________

Instructions 
1.     The Question Paper has 4 printed pages and has 12 questions. Please ensure that
the copy of the Question Paper you have received contains all the questions. 
2.     Attempts ALL questions. Each question carries 5 marks. 
3.     Answer each question starting on a new page. The corresponding Question number
must be written in the left margin. 
4.     Do not write more than one answers for the same question. In case you attempt a
question more than once, please cancel the answer(s) you consider to be wrong.
Otherwise, only the answer appearing last will be evaluated. 
5.     Use only Arabic numerals (0, 1, 2 .............9) in answering the questions
irrespective of the language in which your answer. 
6.     Use of logarithmic tables is NOT PERMITTED. 
7.     Use of calculators is NOT PERMITTED. 
8.     Both magnitude and direction of vector quantities, if any, in your answer should be
indicated clearly. 
9.     Irrational numbers, if any, in your answer need not be expressed in decimal form. 
10.  If the final answer appears in the form of a ratio or a product of two numbers, that
need not to be further simplified. 
_______________________________________________________________
  
1.         Five isomeric para-disubstituted aromatic compounds A to E with molecular
formula C8H8O2 were given for identification. Based on the following observation, give
structures of the compounds. 
(i)         Both A and B from a silver mirror with Tollen's reagent; also, B gives a positive
test with FeCI3 solution. 
(ii)        C gives positive idoform test. 
(iii)       D is readily extracted in aqueous NaHCO3 solution. 
(iv)       E on acid hydrolysis gives 1, 4-dihydroxybenzene. 
  
2.         500 mL of 0.2 M aqueous solution of acetic acid is mixed with 500 mL of 0.2 M
HCI at 250oC. 
(i)         Calculate the degree of dissociation of acetic acid in the resulting solution and
pH of the solution. 
(ii)        If 6 g of NaOH is added to the above solution, determine the final pH. [Assume
there is no change in volume on mixing; Ka of acetic acid is 
1.75 × 10-5 mol L-1]. 
  
3.         Deduce the structures of [NiCI4]2- and [Ni(CN)4]2- considering the hybridization of
the metal ion. Calculate the magnetic moment (spin only) of the species. 
  

4.         The density of the vapour of a substance at 1 atm pressure and 500 K is 0.36 kg
m-3. The vapour effuses through a small hole at a rate of 1.33 times faster than oxygen
under the same condition. 
(a)       Determine (i) molecular weight, (ii) molar volume, (iii) compression factor (Z) of
the vapour and (iv) which forces among the gas molecules are dominating, the attractive
or the repulsive? 
(b)       If the vapour behaves ideally at 1000 K, determine the average translational
kinetic energy of a molecule. 
  
5.         Write balanced equations for the reactions of the following compounds with
water: 
            (i)         AI4C3 
            (ii)        CaNCN 
            (iii)       BF3 
            (iv)       NCI3 
            (v)        XeF4 
  
6.         Identify X, Y and Z in the following synthetic scheme and write their structures. 
                               [i] NaNH2          H2/Pd BaSO4        alkaline KMnO2 
     CH3CH2C ≡ C - H -------------> X  ------------->  Y  ----------------> Z 
                                   [ii]  CH3CH2Br 
            Is the compound Z optically active? Justify your answer. 
  
7.         How is boron obtained from borax? Give chemical equations with reaction
conditions. Write the structure of B2H6 and its reaction with HCI. 
  
8.         64Cu (half-life = 12.8 h) decays by b- emission (38%), b+ emission (19%) and
electron capture (43%). Write the decay products and calculate partial half-lives for each
of the decay processes. 
  
9.         When a white crystalline compound X is heated with K2Cr2O7 and concentrated
H2SO4 a reddish brown gas A is evolved. On passing A into caustic soda solution, a
yellow coloured solution of B is obtained. Neutralizing the solution of B with acetic acid
and on subsequent addition of lead acetate a yellow precipitate C is obtained. When X is
heated with NaOH solution, a colourless has is evolved and on passing this gas into
K2HgI4 solution, a reddish brown precipitate D is formed. Identify A, B, C, D and X. Write
the equations of reactions involved. 
  
10.       Write the structures of the products A, B, C, D and E in the following scheme. 
                

11.       A biologically active compound, Bombykol (C16H30O) is obtained from a natural


source. The structure of the compound is determine by the following reactions. 
(a)       On hydrogenation, Bombykol gives a compound A, C16H34O, which reacts with
acetic anhydride to give an ester, 
(b)       Bombykol also reacts with acetic hydride to give another ester, which on
oxidative ozonolysis (O3/H2O2) gives a mixture of butanoic acid, oxalic acid and 10-
acetoxy decanoic acid. 
Determine the number of double bonds in Bombykol. Write the structures of compound A
and Bombykol. How many geometrical isomers are possible for Bombykol?
  
12.       Two moles of a perfect gas undergo the following processes: 
(a)  a reversible isobaric expansion from (1.0 atm, 20.0 L) to (1.0 atm, 40.0 L); 
(b)  a reversible isochoric change state from (1.0 atm, 40.0 L) to (0.5 atm, 40.0 L); 
(c)  a reversible isothermal compression from (0.5 atm, 40.0 L) to (1.0 atm, 20.0 L); 
(i)   Sketch with labels each of the processes on the same P-V diagram. 
(ii)  Calculate the total work (w) and the total heat change (q) involved in the above
processes. 
(iii)  What will be the values of DU, DH and DS for the overall process? 
 

Screening

Time : Two hours                                                               Max. Marks : 100 


______________________________________________________________________ 

Instructions 
Use the values of the constants as given below: 
Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 x 10  Js 
-34

Atomic Numbers: Cr = 24, Mn =25, Fe = 26, Co=27, Pt=78 

______________________________________________________________________ 

1. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible when: 


(a) Surroundings and system change into each other 
(b) There is no boundary between system and surroundings 
(c) The surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system 
(d) The system changes into the surroundings spontaneously 

2. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at constant pressure varies with density
(d) as : 
(a) d  2

(b) d 
(c) √d 
(d) 1/√d 

3. In a solid ‘AB’ having the NaCl structure, ‘A’ atoms occupy the corners of the cubic
unit cell. If all the face-centered atoms along one of the axes are removed, then the
resultant stoichiometry of the solid is: 
(a) AB2 
(b) A2B 
(c) A4B3 
(d) A3B4 

4. The wavelength associated with a golf ball weighing 200g and moving at a speed of 5
m/h is of the order : 
(a) 10-10m 
(c) 10-20m 
(d) 10-30m 
(e) 10-40m 

5. Hydrogenation of the adjoining compound in the presence of poisoned palladium


catalyst gives : 

                    
(a) An optically active compound 
(b) An optically inactive compound 
(c) A racemic mixture
(d) A diastereomeric mixture 

6. 1-Propanol and 2-Propanol can be best distinguished by : 


(a) Oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution 
(b) Oxidation with acidic dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution 
(c) Oxidation by heating with copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution 
(d) Oxidation with concentrated H2SO4 followed by reaction with Fehling solution 

7. The reaction of propene with HOCl proceeds via the addition of : 


(a) H+ in the first step 
(b) Cl+ in the first step 
(c) OH- in the first step 
(d) Cl+ and OH- single step 

8. An SN  reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a compound always gives : 


2

(a) An enantiomer of the substrate 


(b) A product with opposite optical rotation 
(c) A mixture of diastereomers 
(d) A single steroisomer 

9. The quantum numbers +1/2 and -1/2 for the electron spin represent : 
(a) Rotation of the electron in clockwise and anticlockwise direction respectively 
(b) Rotation of the electron in anticlockwise and clockwise direction respectively 
(c) Magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively 
(d) Two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogue 

10. Which one of the following statements is false : 


(a) Work is state function 
(b) Temperature is a state function 
(c) Change in the state is completely defined when the initial and final stated are
specified 
(d) Work appears at the boundary of the system 

11. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dehydrate is made up to 250ml> the
volume of 0.1N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10ml of this solution is : 
(a) 40ml 
(b) 20ml 
(c) 10ml 
(d) 4ml
12. The correct order of basicities of the following compounds is : 

(a) 2>1>3>4 
(b) 1>3>2>4 
(c) 3>1>2>4 
(d) 1>2>3>4 

13. The number of isomers for the compound with molecular formula C2 BrClFI is: 
(a) 3 
(b) 4 
(c) 5 
(d) 6 

14. In the presence of peroxide, hydrogen chloride and hydrogen iodide do not give
anti-Markovnikov addition to alkenes because : 
(a) Both are highly ionic 
(b) One is oxidising and the other is reducing 
(c) One of the steps is endothermic in both the cases 
(d) All the steps are exothermic in both the cases 

15. The compound that will react most readily with NaOH to form methanol is : 
(a) (CH3)4 N+ I-

(b) CH3 OCH3 
(c) (CH3)3 S+ I-

(d) (CH3)3 Cl 

16. A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH


solution gives : 
(a) Benzyl alcohol and sodium formate 
(b) Sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol 
(c) Sodium benzoate and sodium formate 
(d) Benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol 

17. The correct order of equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of LiCl,NaCl and KCl
is: 
(a) LiCl>NaCl> KCl 
(b) KCl>NaCl> LiCl 
(c) NaCl>KCl>LiCl 
(d) LiCl>KCl>NaCl 

18. At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant (KP) for the decomposition
reaction N2 O4  2NO2 is expressed by KP=4x2 P/(1-x2), where P= pressure,

x = extent of decomposition. Which one of the following statements is true: 


(a) KP increases with increase of P 
(b) KP increases with increase of x 
(c) KP increases with decrease of x 
(d) KP remains constant with change in P and x 
19. If 'I' is the intensity of absorbed light and ‘C’ is the concentration of AB for the
photochemical process AB+hv → AB* , the rate of formation of AB* is directly
proportional to : 
(a) C 
(b) I 
(c) I  
2

(d) C.I 

20. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt-bridge’ because : 


(a) Velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO3- 
(b) Velocity of NO3-is greater than that of  K+ 
(c) Velocities of both K+and NO3-are nearly the same 
(d) KNO3 is highly soluble in water. 

21. For a sparingly soluble salt APBq , the relationship of its solubility product (LS) with
its solubility (S) is : 
(a) LS=S(p+q).pp.qq 
(b) LS=S(p+q).pq.qp 
(c) LS=Spq.pp.qq 
(d) LS=Spq.p.q(p+q) 

22. The correct order of acidity is : 


(a) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 
(b) HClO4 < HClO3  < HClO2 < HCLO 
(c) HClO < HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 
(d) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO 

23. The reaction, 3ClO(aq)- → ClO3(aq)- + 2Cl(aq)- is an example of : 


(a) Oxidation reaction 
(b) Reduction reaction 
(c) Disproportionate reaction 
(d) Decomposition reaction 

24. The number of s-s bonds in sulphur trioxide timer (S3O9) is : 


(a) Three 
(b) Two 
(c) One 
(d) Zero 

25. The common features among the species CN-, CO and NO+ are : 


(a) Bond order three and isoelectronic 
(b) Bond order three and weak field ligands 
(c) Bond order two and acceptors 
(d) Isoelectronic and weak field ligands. 

26. The chemical composition of ‘slag’ formed during the smelting process in the
extraction of copper is : 
(a) Cu2O + FeS 
(b) FeSiO3 
(c) CuFeS2 
(d) Cu2S + FeO 

27. In the standardization of Na2S2O3 using K2Cr2O7 by iodometry, the equivalent weight


of K2Cr2O7 is: 
(a) (molecular weight)/2 
(b) (molecular weight)/6 
(c) (molecular weight)/3 
(d) Same as molecular weight 

28. The complex ion which has no ‘d’ electrons in the central metal atom is : 
(a) [MnO4]- 
(b) [Co(NH3)6]3+ 
(c) [Fe(CN)6]3- 
(d) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ 

29. The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is : 


(a) K>Na>Li 
(b) Be>Mg>Ca 
(c) B>C>N 
(d) Ge>Si>C 

30. The correct order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species NH3,
[PtCl4]2-, PCl5 and BCl3 is:

(a) dsp2,dsp3,sp2 and sp3 


(b) sp3,dsp2,dsp3,sp2 
(c) dsp2,sp2,sp3,dsp3 
(d) dsp2,sp3,sp2,dsp3 

The questions below (31-35) consist of an ‘Assertion’ in column 1 and the ‘Reason’ in
column 2. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer. 
(a) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, and reason is the CORRECT explanation
of the assertion. 
(b) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT the CORRECT
explanation of the assertion. 
(c) If assertion is CORRECT, but reason is INCORRECT. 
(d) If assertion is INCORRECT, but reason is CORRECT.

      Assertion (column 1)        Reason (column 2) 

31. Dimethylsulphide is commonly It reduces the ozonide giving water


used for the reduction of an ozonide of soluble dimethyl sulphoxide and excess
an alkene to get the carbonyl of it evaporates. 
compounds. 

32. Addition of bromine to trans-2- Bromine addition to an alkene is an


butene yields meso-2, 3- electrophilic addition. 
dibromobutane. 

33. Between SiCl4 and CCl4, only SiCl4 is ionic and CCl4 is covalent. 


SiCl4 reacts with water. 

34. strongly acidic solutions, aniline The amino group being completely


becomes more reactive towards protonated in strongly acidic solution,
electrophilic reagents.  the lone pair of electrons of the
nitrogen is no longer available for
resonance. 

35. In any ionic solid (MX) with Equal numbers of cation and anion
Schottky defects, the number of vacancies are present. 
positive and negative ions are same. 

MAINS
Time : Two hours                                                                Max. Marks : 100 
______________________________________________________________________ 

1. Compound (X) on reduction with LiAIH4 gives a hydride (Y) containing 21.72 hydrogen
along with other products. The compounds (Y) reacts with air explosively resulting in
boron trioxide. Identify (X) and (Y). Give balanced reactions involved in the formation of
(Y) and its reacton with air. Draw the structure of (Y). 

2. A metal complex having compositon Cr (NH3)4 CI2Br has been isolated in two forms (A)
and (B). The form (A) reacts with AgNO3 to give a white precipitate readily soluble in
dilute aqueous ammonia, whereas (B) givens a pale yellow precipitate soluble in
concentrated ammonia. Write the formula of (A) and (B) and state the hybridization of
chromium in each. Calculate their magnetic moments (spin-only value). 

3. Starting from SiCI4, prepare the following in steps not exceeding the number given in
parentheses (give reactions only): 
(i) Silicon                                                               (1) 
(ii) Linear silicone containing methyl groups only            (4) 
(iii) Na2SiO3                                                            (3) 

4. Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 ml) reacts quantitatively with a solution of KMnO4(20
ml) acidified with dilute H2SO4. The same volume of the KMnO4 solution is just
decolourised by 10 mL of MnSO4 in neutral medium simultaneously forming a dark brown
precipitate of hydrated MnO2. The brown precipitate is dissolved in 10 ml of 0.2 M sodium
oxalate under boiling condition in the presence of dilute H2SO4. Write the balanced
equations involved in the reactions and calculate the molarity of H2O2. 

5. How would you synthesise 4-methoxyphenol from bromobenzene in NOT more than
five steps? State clearly the reagents used in each step and show the structures of the
intermediate compounds in your synthetic scheme. 

6. Cyclobutyl bromide on treatment with magnesium in dry ether forms an


organometallic (A). The organometallic reacts with ehtanal to give an alcohol (B) after
mid acidification. Prolonged treatment of alcohol (B) with an equivalent amount of HBr
gives 1-bromo-1-methylcyclopentane (C). Write the structures of (A), (B) and explain
how (C) is obtained from (B). 

7. Aspartame, an artificial sweetener, is a peptide and has the following structure: 

            

(i) Identify the four functional groups. 


(ii) Write the zwitterionic structure. 
(iii) Write the structures of the amino acids obtained from the hydrolysis of aspartame. 
(iv) Which of the two amino acids is more hydrophobic? 

8. An alkene (A) C16H16 on ozonolysis gives only one product (B) C8H8O. Compound (B) on
reaction with NaOH/I2 yields sodium benzoate. Compound (B) reacts with
KOH/NH2NH2 yielding a hydrocarbon (C) C8H10. Write the structures of compounds (B) and
(C). Based on this information two isomeric structures can be proposed for alkene (A).
Write their structures and identify the isomer which on catalytic hydrogenation (H2/Pd –
C) gives a racemic mixture. 

9. The compression factor (compressibility factor) for one mole of a Van der Waals gas
at 0 C and 100 atmospheric pressure is found to be 0.5. Assuming that the volume of a
o

gas molecule is negligible, calculate the Van der Waals constant a. 
10. The rate of first-order reaction is 0.04 mol litre–1 s–1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol litre–
1
  s–1  at 20 minutes after initiation. Find the half-life of the reaction. 

11. A white substance (A) reacts with dilute H2SO4 to produce a colourless gas (B) and a
colourless solution (C). The reaction between (B) and acidified K2Cr2O7solution produces a
green solution and a slightly coloured precipitate (D). The substance (D) burns in air to
produce a gas (E) which reacts with (B) to yield (D) and a colourless liquid. Anhydrous
copper sulphate is turned blue on addition of this colourless liquid. Addition of aqueous
NH3 or NaOH to (C) produces first a precipitate, which dissolves in the excess of the
respective reagent to produce a clear solution in each case. Identify (A), (B), (C), (D)
and (E). Write the equations of the reactions involved. 

12. (a) Identify (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the following schemes and write their
structures : 

          

(b) Identify (X), (Y) and (Z) in the following synthetic scheme and write their structures.
Explain the formation of labeled formaldehyde (H2C*O) as one of the products when
compound (Z) is treated with HBr and subsequently ozonolysed. Mark the C* carbon in
the entire scheme. BaC*O3 + H2SO4 --> (X) gas [C* denotes C14]

                  

13. When 1-pentyne (A) is treated with 4 N alcoholic KOH at 175 C, it is converted


o

slowly into an equilibrium mixture of 1.3% 1-pentyne (A), 95.2% 2-pentyne (B) and
3.5% of 1, 2-pentadiene (C). The equilibrium was maintained at 175 C. Calculate
o

theG for the following equilibria : 


      B  A                      G  = ? 
1
o

      B  C                      G  = ? 
2
o

From the calculated value of  G  and  G  indicate the order of stability of (A), (B) and
1
o
2
o

(C). Write a reasonable reaction mechanism showing all intermediates leading to (A), (B)
and (C). 

14. The standard potential of the following cell is 0.23 V at 15oC and 0.21 V at  35oC. 
             Pt | H2(g) | HCI(aq) | AgCI(s) | Ag(s) 

(i) Write the cell reaction. 


(ii) Calculate the Ho and So for the cell reaction assuming that these quantities remain
unchanged in the range 15oC to 35oC. 
(iii) Calculate the solubility of AgCI in watr at 25oC. 

Given : The standard reduction potential of the Ag+ (aq)/Ag(s) couple is 0.80 V at 25oC. 

15. The vapour pressure of two miscible liquids (A) and (B) are 3000 and 5000 mm of
Hg respectively. In a flask 10 moles of (A) is mixed with 12 moles of (B). However, as
soon as (B) is added, (A) starts polymerizing into a completely insoluble solid. The
polymerization follows first-order kinetics. After 100 minutes, 0.525 mole of a solute is
dissolved which arrests the polymerization completely. The final vapour pressure of the
solution is 400 mm of Hg. Estimate the rate constant of the polymerization reaction.
Assume negligible volume change on mixing and polymerization and ideal behavior for
the final solution. 

IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Screening–2000

SCREENING
Time : Three hours                                                             Max. Marks : 100 
___________________________________________________________________

1. For the electrochemical cell, M|M+||X–|X, Eo (M+|M) = 0.44V and Eo 


(X|X–) = 0.33 V. From this data one can deduce that: 
(A) M + X  M+ + X– is the spontaneous reaction. 
(B) M+ + X–  M + X is the spontaneous reaction. 
(C) Ecell = 0.77V 
(D) Ecell = –0.7 V 

2. The fHo for CO2(g), CO(g) and H2O(g) are –393.5, –110.5 and –241.8 kJ mol–
1
respectively. The standard enthalpy change (in kJ mol–1) for the reaction CO2(g) +
H2(g)  CO(g) + H2O(g) is:

(A) 524.1                                 (B) 41.2 


(C) –262.5                               (D) –41.2 

3. The number of P — O — P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric acid is: 


(A) zero                                  (B) two 
(C) three                                (D) four 

4. The chemical processes in the production of steel from haematite ore involve: 
(A) reduction 
(B) oxidation 
(C) reduction followed by oxidation 
(D) oxidation followed by reduction 

5. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity: 


(A) F–                                    (B) OH– 
(C) CH3-                                 (D) NH2- 

6. The order of reactivities of the following alkyl halides for a SN2 reaction is: 
(A) RF > RCI > RBr > RI            (B) RF > RBr > RCI > RI 
(C) RCI > RBr > RF > RI            (D) RI > RBr > RCI > therefore 

7. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d5 4s1. 


This represents its: 
(A) excited state                   (B) ground state 
(C) cationic form                   (D) anionic form 

8. The correct order of acidic strength is: 


(A) CI2O7> SO2 > P4O10       (B) CO2 > N2O5> SO3
(C) Na2O > MgO > AI2O3       (D) K2O > CaO > MgO 

9. Which of the following, has the most acidic hydrogen: 


(A) 3–hexanone                 (B) 2, 4-hexanedione 
(C) 2, 5-hexanedione          (D) 2, 3-hexanedione 

10. Benzoyl chloride is prepared from benzoic acid by: 


(A) CI2, hv                      (B) SO2CI2 
(C) SOCI2                       (D) CI2, H2O 
11. Which one of the following alkenes will react fastest with H2 under catalytic
hydrogenation condition : 

    

12. The appropriate reagent for the following transformation :

    
(A) Zn(Hg), HCI                    (B) NH2 NH2, OH– 
(C) H2/Ni                             (D) NaBH4 

13. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall-Heroult process is carried


out: 
(A) in the presence of NaCI. 
(B) in the presence of fluorite. 
(C) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature. 
(D) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with higher melting temperature. 

14. Amongst the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state. 
(A) MnO4-                            (B) Cr(CN)63-

(C) NiF62-                             (D) CrO2CI2 

15. For the reversible reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) at 500oC, the value of Kp is
1.44 × 10-5 when partial pressure is measured in atmospheres. The corresponding value
of Kc with concentration in mol L-1 is: 
(A) 1.44 × 10-5/(0,082 × 500)-2             (B) 1.44 × 10-5/(8.314 × 773)-2 
(C) 1.44 × 10-5/(0.082 × 773)2              (D) 1.44 × 10-5/(0.082 × 773)-2 

16. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3- and NH4+ are:

(A) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively            (B) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively 
(C) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively            (D) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively 

17. Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with the highest boiling point is: 
(A) H2O because of hydrogen bonding 
(B) H2Te because of higher molecular weight 
(C) H2S because of hydrogen bonding 
(D) H2Se because of lower molecular weight 
18. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism: 
(A) 1-phenyl-2-butene                       (B) 3-phenyl-1-butene 
(C) 2-phenyl-1-butene                       (D) 1, 1-diphenyl-1-propene 

19. Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are: 


(A) the same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively 
(B) the same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively 
(C) different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively 
(D) different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively 

20. Among the following, the strongest base is: 


(A) C6H5NH2                                   (B) p – NO2C6H4NH2 
(C) m – NO2 – C6H4NH2                    (D) C6H5CH2NH2 

21. The correct order of radii is: 


(A) N < Be < B                                (B) F– < O2– < N3– 
(C) Na < Li < K                                (D) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+ 

22. The number of nodal planes in a px orbital is: 


(A) one                                         (B) two 
(C) three                                       (D) zero 

23. Ammonia can be dried by: 


(A) conc. H2SO4                            (B) P4O10 
(C) CaO                                        (D) anhydrous CaCI2 

24. The rms velocity of hydrogen is √7 times the rms velocity of nitrogen. If T is the
temperature of the gas: 
(A) T (H2) = T (N2)                        (B) T (H2) > T (N2) 
(C) T (H2) < T (N2)                        (D) T (H2) = √7 T (N2) 

25. Propyne and propene can be distinguished by: 


(A) conc. H2SO4                          (B) Br2 in CCI4 
(C) dil. KMnO4                             (D) AgNO3 in ammonia

26. Which one of the following will most readily be dehydrated in acidic condition:

        

27. The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at STP. Therefore : 


(A) Vm > 22.4 litres                            (B) Vm < 22.4 litres 
(C) Vm = 22.4 litres                            (D) Vm = 44.8 litres 

28. The rate constant for the reaction, 2N2O5  4NO2 + O2 is 3.0 × 10–5 s–1. If the rate is
2.40 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1, then the concentration of N2O5 (in mol L–1) is : 
(A) 1.4                                            (B) 1.2 
(C) 0.04                                          (D) 0.8 

29. At 100oC and 1 am if the density of the liquid water is 1.0g cm–3 and that of water
vapour is 0.0006 g cm–3, then the volume occupied by water molecules in1 litre of steam
at this temperature is: 
(A) 6 cm3                                        (B) 60 cm3 
(C) 0.6 cm3                                     (D) 0.06 cm3 

30. When two reactants, A and B are mixed to give products C and D, the reaction
quotient, Q, at the initial stages of the reaction : 
(A) is zero                                     (B) decreases with time 
(C) is independent of time                (D) increases with time 

The questions below consist of an ‘Assertion’ in column I and the ‘Reason’ in column 2.
Use of the following key to choose the appropriate answer. 
(A) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, and reason is the CORRECT explanation
of the assertion. 
(B) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT the CORRECT
explanation of the assertion. 
(C) If assertion is CORRECT, but reason is INCORRECT. 
(D) If assertion is INCORRECT, but reason is CORRECT.

Assertion Reason
31. 1-Butene on reaction with HBr It involves the formation of primary
in the presence of a peroxide radical.
produces 1-bromobutane
32. The first ionization energy of 2p orbital is lower in energy than 2s.
Be is greater than that of B.
33. The pressure of a fixed amount Frequency of collisions and their impact
of an ideal gas is proportional both increase in proportion to the square
to its temperature root of temperature.
34. Phenol is more reactive than In the case of phenol, the intermediate
benzene towards electrophilic carbocation is more resonance stabilized.
substitution reaction
35. The heat absorbed during the The volume occupied by the molecules
isothermal expansion of an of an ideal gas is zero.
ideal gas against vacuum is
zero

MAINS 
Time : Two hours                                                              Max. Marks : 100 
______________________________________________________________________
_

General Instructions : 
1. There are ten questions in this paper. Attempt all Questions. 
2. Answer each question starting on a new page. The corresponding question number
must be written in the left margin. Answer all the parts of a question at one place only. 
3. Use only Arabic numerals (0, 1, 2 ………….9) in answering the questions irrespective of
the language in which your answer. 
4. Use of logarithmic tables is not permitted. 
5. Use of calculator is NOT PERMITTED. 
______________________________________________________________________
_

1. (a) Write the chemical reactions associated with the ‘brown ring test’. 

(b) Draw the structures of [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Ni(CN)4]2– and [Ni(CO)4]. Write


thehybridization of atomic orbitals of the transition metal in each case. 

(c) An aqueous blue coloured solution of a transition metal sulphate reacts with H2S in
acidic medium to give a black precipitate A, which is insoluble in warm aqueous solution
of KOH. The blue solution on treatment with KI in weakly acidic medium, turns yellow
and produces a white precipitate B. Identify the transition metal ion. Write the chemical
reactions involved in the formation of A and B. 

2. (a) Give an example of oxidation of one halide by another halogen. Explain the
feasibility of the reaction. 

(b) Write the MO electron distribution of O2. Specify its bond order and magnetic
property. 

(c) 92238U is radioactive and it emits  and  particles to form 82206Pb. Calculate the number


of  and  particles emitted in this conversion. An ore of 92238U is found to contain 92238U
and 82206Pb in the weight ratio of 1 : 0.1. The half-life period of92238U is 4.5 × 109 years.
Calculate the age of the ore. 

3. (a) (i) Give an example of oxidation of one halide by another halogen. Explain the
feasibility of the reaction. 
(ii) Write the balanced chemical equation for developing photographic films. 

(b) Write the chemical reactions associated with the ‘borax bead test’ of cobalt (II)
oxide. 

(c) Draw the molecular structures of XeF2, XeF4 and XeO2F2, indicating the location of lone
pair(s) of electrons.

4. (a) Identify the pairs of enantiomers and diastereomers from the following
compounds I, II and III. 

       

(b) Give reasons for the following : 


(i) tert-Butylbenzene does not give benzoic acid on treatment with acidic KMnO4. 
(ii) CH2 = CH– is more basic than HC  C–. 
(iii) Normally, benzene gives electrophilic substitution reaction rather than electrophilic
addition reaction although it has double bonds. 

(c) What would be the major product in each of the following reactions? 
                               

5. (a) Write the structures of the products A and B. 

                    

(b) How would you bring about the following conversion (in 3 steps)? 
           Aniline  Benzylamine 

(c) An organic compound A, C6H10O, on reaction with CH3MgBr followed by acid treatment
gives compound B. The compound B on ozonolysis gives compound C, which in presence
of a base gives 1-actetyl cyclopentene D. The compound B on reaction with HBr gives
compound E. Write the structures of A, B, C and E. Show how D is formed from C. 

6. (a) Write the structures of alkaline at pH = 2 and pH = 10. 

(b) Identify A, B and C, and give their structures. 

         

(c) An organic compound A, C8H4O3, in dry benzene in the presence of anhydrous


AICI3 gives compound B. The compound B on treatment with PCI5, followed by reaction
with H2/Pb(BaSO4) gives compound C, which on reaction with hydrazine gives a cyclised
compound D (C14H10N2). Identify A, B, C and D. Explain the formation of D from C. 

7. (a) The average concentration of SO2 in the atmosphere over a city on a certain day is
10 ppm, when the average temperature is 298 K. Given that the solubility of SO2 in
water at 298 K is 1.3653 moles litre–1 and pKa of H2SO3 is 1.92, estimate the pH of rain
on that day. 

(b) Calculate the pressure exerted by one mole of CO2 gas at 273 K if the Van der Waals
constant a = 3.592 dm6 atm mol–2. Assume that the volume occupied by CO2molecules is
negligible. 

(c) The figures given below show the location of atoms in three crystallographic planes in
a FCC lattice. Draw the unit cell for the corresponding structures and identify these
planes in your diagram. 

            

8. (a) A hydrogenation reaction is carried out at 500 K. If the same reaction is carried
out in the presence of a catalyst at the same rate, the temperature required is 400 K.
Calculate the activation energy of the reaction if the catalyst lowers the activation barrier
by 20 kJ mol–1. 

(b) Copper sulphate solution (250 mL) was electrolysed using a platinum anode and a
copper cathode. A constant current of 2 mA was passed for 16 minutes. It was found
that after electrolysis the absorbance of the solution was reduced to 50% of its original
value. Calculate the concentration of copper sulphate in the solution to begin with. 

(c) Calculate the energy required to excite one litre of hydrogen gas at 1 atm and 298 K
to the first excited state of atomic hydrogen. The energy for the dissociation of H — H
bond is 436 kJ mol–1. 

9. (a) A sample of argon gas at 1 atm pressure and 27oC expands reversibly and
adiabatically from 1.25 dm3 to 2.50 dm3. Calculate the enthalpy change in this process.
CV, m for argon is 12.49 J K–1 mol–1. 

(b) To 500cm4 of water, 3.0 × 10–3 kg of acetic acid is added. If 23% of acetic acid is
dissociated, what will be the depression in freezing point? Kf and density of water are
1.86K kg–1 mol–1 and 0.997gcm–3, respectively. 

(c) Show that the reaction CO(g) + (1/2)O2(g) --> CO2(g) at 300 K, is spontaneous and
exothermic, when the standard entropy change is –0.094 kJ mol–1 K–1. The standard
Gibbs free energies of formation for CO2 and CO are –394.4 and –137.2 kJ mol–1,
respectively. 

10. (a) Give reasons(s) why elemental nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecular whereas
elemental phosphorus is a tetraatomic molecule. 

(b) Give the structures of the products in each of the following reaction. 

     

(c) The following electrochemical cell has been set up. 


Pt(1)|Fe3+, Fe2+ (a = 1)| Ce4+, Ce3+ (a = 1)|Pt(2) 
EO(Fe3+, Fe2+) = 0.77 V and EO(Ce4+, Ce3+) = 1.61 V. 

(d) Diborane is a potential rocket fuel which undergoes combustion according to the
reaction 
B2H6(g) + 3O2(g) --> B2O3(s) + 3H2O(g) 
From the following data, calculate the enthalpy change for the combustion of diborane. 
2B(s) + (3/2) O2(g) --> B2O3(s)                     H = –1273 kJ mol–1 
H2(g) + (1/2) O2(g) --> H2O(l)                       H = –286 kJ mol–1 
H2O(l) --> H2O(g)                                        H = 44 kJ mol–1 
2B(s) + 3H2(g) --> B2H6(g)                           H = 36 kJ mol–1

IIT-JEE-Chemistry–1999

Time : 3 hours                                                                Max. Marks : 200 


______________________________________________________________________
_

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. Do not break the seal of the question paper before you are instructed to do so by
the invigilator.
2. This question paper is in two sections. Section I has 35 objective type question.
Section II has 12 regular questions.
3. Answer Section I only on the special machine-gradable OBJECTIVE RESPONSE
SHEET (ORS) that is inserted in this booklet. Questions of Section I will not be
graded if answered anywhere else.
4. Answer problems of Section II in the answer book.
5. Without breaking the seal of this booklet, take out the Response Sheet (ORS) for
section I. Make sure that the ORS has the SAME QUESTION PAPER CODE printed
on it as on the top of this page.
6. Write your name, registration number and name of the Centre at the specified
locations on the right half of the ORS for Section I.
7. Using a soft HB pencil, darken the appropriate bubble under each digit of your
registration number.
8. The Objective Response Sheet will be collected back after 75 minutes have
expired from the start of the examination. In case you finish Section I before the
expiry of 75 minutes, you may start answering Section II.

INSTRUCTIONS FOR SECTION I 

1. Question are to be answered by darkening with a soft HB pencil the appropriate


bubble (marked A, B, C or D) against the question number on the left hand side
of the Objective Response Sheet.
2. In case you wish to change an answer, erase the of answer completely using a
good soft eraser.
3. The answer sheet will be collected back after 75 minutes from the start of the
examination.
4. There is no negative marking.
5. Question numbers 1-25 carry 2 marks each and have only one correct answer.
6. Question numbers 26-35 carry 3 marks each, and may have more than one
correct answers. All the correct answers must be marked in these questions to
any credit.

IMPORTANT INFORMATION
                    Logarithmic tables can be used. 
                    Use of calculator is not allowed. 
Useful data : 
          Gas constant, R = 0.Q82 L atm K–1 = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1 
                                        = 1.987 cal K–1 mol–1 
         1 Faraday constant = 96.500 C mol–1 
         Avagadro number, NA = 6.02 × 1023 
         Atomic number : Ni = 28 
         Relative atomic mass : H = 1; 
         CI = 35.5; Cr = 52; Cu = 63.5; Xe = 131 
______________________________________________________________________
_

                                                        SECTION I 

DIRECTIONS: Select the most appropriate alternative A, B, C or D in questions 1-25.

1. The electrons, identified by quantum numbers n and l, (i) n = 4, l = 1, (ii) n = 4, l =


0, (iii) n = 3, l = 2, and (iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of increasing energy,
from the lowest to highest, as: 
(A) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i)                                      (B) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) 
(C) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)                                     (D) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) 

2. The number of neutrons accompanying the formation of 139Xe54 and 94Sr38 from the


absorption of a slow neutron by 235U92, followed by nuclear fission is : 
(A) 0 
(B) 2 
(C) 1 
(D) 3

3. The correct order of increasing C–O bond length of CO, CO2-3, CO2 is : 
(A) CO2-3 <  CO2 <  CO                                   
(B) CO2 < CO2-3 < CO 
(C) CO < CO2-3 < CO2                                    
(D) CO < CO2 < CO2-3 

4. A gas will approach ideal behaviour at : 


(A) low temperature and low pressure 
(B) low temperature and high pressure 
(C) high temperature and low pressure 
(D) high temperature and high pressure 

5. The normality of 0.3 M phosphorus acid (H3PO3) is 


(A) 0.1                                                              
(B) 0.9 
(C) 0.3                                                             
(D) 0.6

6. The coordination number of a metal crystallizing in a hexagonal close-packed


structure is : 
(A) 12                                                                                                                      

(B) 4 
(C) 8                                                                                   
(D) 6 
7. A gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution containing a mixture of 1 M Y– and 1 M
Z– at 250C. If the reduction potential of Z < Y > X, then : 
(A) Y will oxidize X and not Z 
(B) Y will oxidize Z and not X 
(C) Y will oxidize both X and Z 
(D) Y will reduce both X and Z 

8. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in the order : 


(A) NaCI < NH3CI < NaCN < HCI 
(B) HCI < NH4CI < NaCI < NaCN 
(C) NaCN < NH4CI < NaCI < HCI 
(D) HCI < NaCI < NaCN < NH4CI 

9. For the chemical reaction 3X(g) + Y(g) <--> X3Y(g), the amount of X3 Y at equilibrium
is affected by : 
(A) temperature and pressure 
(B) temperature only 
(C) pressure only 
(D) temperature, pressure and catalyst 

10. In the dichromate dianion : 


(A) 4 Cr—O bonds are equivalent 
(B) 6 Cr—O bonds are equivalent 
(C) all Cr—O bonds are equivalent 
(D) all Cr—O bonds are nonequivalent 

11. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess water gives : 


(A) one mole of phosphine 
(B) two moles of phosphoric acid 
(C) two moles of phosphine 
(D) one mole of phosphorus pentoxide 

12. The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2, H2S respectively, are : 


(A) 0, +1 and –2                                             
(B) +2, +1 and –2 
(C) 0, +1 and +2                                            
(D) –2, +1 and –2 

13. On heating ammonium dichromate, the gas evolved is: 


(A) oxygen                                                     
(B) ammonia 
(C) nitrous oxide                                          
(D) nitrogen 

14. In the commercial electrochemical process for aluminium extraction, the electrolyte
used is : 
(A) AI(OH)3 in NaOH solution 
(B) an aqueous solution of AI2(SO4)3 
(C) a molten mixture of AI2O3 and Na3AIF6 
(D) a molten mixture of AIO(OH) and AI(OH)3 

15. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are : 


(A) angular and non-zero                       
(B) angular and zero 
(C) linear and non-zero                          
(D) linear and zero 

16. The geometry of Ni(CO)4 and Ni(PPh3)2 CI2 are: 


(A) both square planar 
(B) both tetrahedral and square planar, respectively 
(C) both tetrahedral 
(D) square planar and tetrahedral, respectively 

17. In compounds of type ECI3, where E = B, P, As or Bi, the angles CI–E–CI 


(A) B > P = As = Bi 
(B) B > P > As > Bi 
(C) B < P = As = Bi 
(D) B < P < As < Bi 

18. In the compound CH2 = CH—CH2—CH2—C   CH, the C2 = C3 bonds is of 


(A) sp – sp2                                              
(B) sp3 – sp3 
(C) sp – sp3                                             
(D) sp2 – sp3 

19. When propionic acid is treated with aqueous sodium bicarbonate, CO2 is liberated the
‘C’ of CO2 comes from : 
(A) methyl group                                    
(B) carboxylic acid group 
(C) methylene group                            
(D) bicarbonate

21. A positive carbylamines test is given by : 


(A) N, N–dimethylaniline 
(B) 2, 4–dimethylaniline 
(C) N-methyl-o-methylaniline 
(D) p-methylbenzylamine 

22. The optically active tartaric acid is named as D – (+) – tartaric acid because it has a
positive : 
(A) optical rotation and is derived from D-glucose 
(B) pH in organic solvent 
(C) optical rotation and is derived from D – (+) – glyceraldehyde 
(D) optical rotation only when substituted by deuterium 

23. A solution of (+) –2–chloro–2–phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the


presence of small amount of SbCI5, due to the formation of: 
(A) carbanion 
(B) carbine 
(C) free-radical 
(D) carbocation 

24. The product(s) obtained via oxymercuration (HgSO4 + H2SO4) of 1-butyne would


be : 

                  O
                    
(A) CH3–CH2–C–CH3 
(B) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO 
(C) CH3–CH2–CHO + HCHO 
(D) CH3–CH2–COOH + HCOOH 

DIRECTIONS: Question numbers 26-35 carry 3 marks each and may have more than
one correct answer. All correct answers must be marked to get any credit in these
questions.

27. Toluene, when treated with Br2/Fe, gives p-bromotoulene as the major product
because the CH3 group : 
(A) is para directing 
(B) is meta directing 
(C) actives the ring by hyperconjugation 
(D) deactivates the ring 
28. The following statement(s) is(are) correct : 
(A) A plot of log Kp versus 1/T is linear 
(B) A plot of log [X] versus time is linear for a first order reaction, X --> P 
(C) A plot of log p versus 1/T is linear at constant volume 
(D) A plot of p versus 1/V is linear at constant temperature 

29. The following is(are) endothermic reaction(s) : 


(A) Combustion of methane 
(B) Decomposition of water 
(C) Dehydrogenation of ethane of ethylene 
(D) Conversion of graphite to diamond.

31. In the depression of freezing point experiment, it is found that the: 


(A) vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure solvent 
(B) vapour pressure of the solution is more than that of pure solvent 
(C) only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point 
(D) only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point 

32. Ionic radii of : 
(A) Ti4+ < Mn7+ 
(B) 35CI– < 37CI– 
(C) K+ > CI– 
(D) P3+ > P5+ 

33. Ammonia, on reaction with hypochlorite anion, can form: 


(A) NO 
(B) NH4CI 
(C) N2H4 
(D) HNO2 

34. A buffer solution can be prepared from a mixture of : 


(A) sodium acetate and acetic acid in water 
(B) sodium acetate and hydrochloric acid in water 
(C) ammonia and ammonium chloride in water 
(D) ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water 

35. An aromatic molecule will : 


(A) have 4n  electrons 
(B) have (4n + 2)  electrons 
(C) be planar 
(D) be cyclic 

____________________________________________________________________

IIT-JEE-Chemistry–1999

                                          SECTION II 

INSTRUCTIONS 
(i) There are 12 questions in this section. 
(ii) At the end of the answer to a question, leave about 3 cm blank space, draw a
horizontal line and start answer to the next question. The corresponding question
number must be written in the left margin. Answer all parts of a question at one place
only. 
(iii) The use of Arabic numerals (0, 1, 2, ……..9) only is allowed in answering the
question at one place only. 

1. (a) A white solud is either Na2O or Na2O2. A piece of red litmus paper turns white when
it is dipped into a freshly made aqueous solution of the white solid. 
           (i) Identify the substance and explain with balanced equation. 
          (ii) Explain what would happen to the red litmus if the white solid were the other
compound. 
(b) A, B and C are three complexes of chromium (III) with the empirical formula
H12O6CI3Cr. All the three complexes have water and chloride ion as ligands. Complex A
does not react with concentrated H2SO4, whereas complexed B and C lose 6.75% and
13.5% of their original mass, respectively, on treatment with concentrated H2SO4.
Identify A, B and C. 

2. (a) An aqueous solution containing one mole of HgI2 and two moles of NaI is orange in
colour. On addition of excess NaI the solution becomes colourless. The orange colour
reappears on subsequent addition of NaOCI. Explain with equations. 
(b) How many millilitres of 0.5 M H2SO4 are needed to dissolve 0.5 g of copper (II)
carbonate? 
(c) Give reasons for the following in one or two sentences only. 
            (i) BeCI2 can be easily hydrolysed. 
           (ii) CrO3 is an acid anhydride. 

3. (a) In the following equation, 


A + 2B + H2O --> C + 2D 
(A = HNO2, B = H2SO3, C = NH2OH). Identify D. Draw the structures of A, B, C and D. 
(b) In the Contact process for industrial manufacture of sulphuric acid, some amount of
sulphuric acid is used as a starting material. Explain briefly. What is the catalyst used in
the oxidation of SO2?

(b) Discuss the hybridization of carbon atoms in allene (C3H4) and show the –orbital
overlaps. 

(c) Explain why o-hydroxybenzaldehyde is a liquid at room temperature while                                      


p-hydroxybenzaldehyde is a high melting solid. 
 

5. (a) Compound A (C8H8O) on treatment with NH2OH. HCI given B and C. B and C
rearrange to give D and E, respectively, on treatment with acid. B, C, D and E are all
isomers of molecular formula (C8H9NO). When D is boiled with alcoholic KOH, an oil F
(C6H7N) separates out. F reacts rapidly with CH3COCI’ to give back D. On the other hand,
E on boiling with alkali followed by acidification gives a white solid G (C7H6O2). Identify A-
G.

(b) Carry out the following transformation in not more than three steps. 

 
 

8. Nitrobenzene is formed as the major product along with a minor product in the
reaction of benzene with a hot mixture of nitric acid and sulphuric acid. The minor
product consists of carbon : 42.86%, hydrogen : 2.40%, nitrogen : 16.67%, and oxygen
: 38.07%,
(i) Calculate the empirical formula of the minor product. 
(ii) When 5.5 g of the minor product is dissolved in 45g of benzene, the boiling point of
the solution is 1.840C higher than that of pure benzene. Calculate the molar mass of the
minor product is dissolved in 45g of benzene, the boiling point of the solution is 1.840C
higher than that of pure benzene. Calculate the molar mass of the minor product the
determine its molecular and structural formula. 
(Molal boiling point elevation constant of benzene is 2.53 K kg mol –1.) 

9. (a) A plant virus is found to consist of uniform cylindrical particles of 150 A in


diameter and 5000 A long. The specific volume of the virus is 0.75 cm 3/g. 
If the virus is considered to be a single particle, find its molar mass. 

(b) When 3.06 g of solid NH4HS is introduced into a two-litre evacuated flask at 27 0C,
30% of the solid decomposes into gaseous ammonia and hydrogen sulphide.
(i) Calculate Kc and Kp for the reaction at 270C. 

(ii) What would happen to the equilibrium when more solid NH 4HS is introduced into the
flask? 
10.(a) One mole of nitrogen gas at 0.8 atm takes 38 s to diffuse through a pinhole,
whereas one mole of an unknown compound of xenon with fluorine at 1.6 atm takes 57s
to diffuse through the samel hole. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound. 

(b) The pressure exerted by 12 g of an ideal gas at temperature t0C in a vessel of volume
V litre is one atm. When the temperature is increased by 10 degrees at the same
volume, the pressure increases by 10%. Calculate the temperature t and volume V.
(Molecular weight of the gas = 120) 

11.(a) A cell, Ag | Ag+ || Cu2+ | Cu, initially contains 1 M Ag+ and 1 M Cu2+ ions.

Calculate the change in the cell potential after the passage of 9.65 A of current for 1 h. 

(b) The solubility of Pb(OH)2 in water is 6.7 × 10–6 M. Calculate the solubility of Pb

(OH)2 in a buffer solution of pH = 8. 

12.(a) Estimate the average S–F bond energy in SF6. The values F standard enthalpy of
formation of SF6(g), S(g) and F(g) are : 1100, 275 and 80 kJ mol –1respectively. 

(b) The rate constant for an isomerisation reaction, A --> B is 4.5 × 10–3 min. If the

initial concentration of A is 1 M, calculate the rate of the reaction after 1 h. 

(c) A metal crystallizes into two cubic phases, face centered cubic (FCC) and body
centered cubic (BCC), whose unit cell lengths are 3.5 and 3.0 A, respectively. Calculate
the ratio of densities of FCC and BCC. 

IIT-JEE-Chemistry–1998

Time : 2 hrs.                                                                           Max. Marks :100 


______________________________________________________________________

Instructions 

1. This question paper is in two sections and contains eight pages. Section I has 40
objective type questions. Section II has 15 question. There are no negative marks for
wrong answers. 
2. Answer section I only on the printed form on the third page of the answer book. 
3. Answer questions-problems of section II starting from page 4 of the answer book. All
parts of a question must be answered sequentially at one place only. 
4. Attempt all questions. 
5. Answers must be written only in the language of your choice as shown in your admit
card. 
6. Use of logarithmic tables is permitted. 
7. Use of slide rule/Calculator is not permitted.

Useful data : 
                       Gas constant, R = 0.082 litre atm K–1 mol–1 
                                                     = 1.987 cal K–1 mol–1 
                                                     = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1 
                     1 Faraday constant = 96.500 Coulombs mol–1 
______________________________________________________________________

                          
                                                            SECTION  I

Instructions : 
1. You must first transfer the Question Paper Code given on top of this section to your
answer book in the appropriate box marked Question Paper Code. 
2. Answer Section I only on the printed form on the third page of your answer book by
writing the appropriate letters (A), (B), (C), (D) against the question number in the
table. Answers for section I written in this space alone will be awarded marks. 
3. Section I consists of 40 objective type questions. 
4. This section should take about one hour to answer. 
5. Each question in this section carries 2 marks. 
6. Read questions 1 to 28 carefully and choose from amongst the alternatives given
below each question the correct lettered choice(s). A question may have one or more
correct alternatives. In order to secure any marks for a given question, all correct
lettered alternative(s) must be chosen. 

1. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct when a mixture of NaCI and
K2Cr2O7 is gently warmed with conc. H2SO4 :

(A) A deep red vapour is evolved 


(B) The vapour when passed into NaOH solution gives a yellow solution of Na2CrO4 
(C) Chlorine gas is evolved 
(D) Chromyl chloride is formed. 

2. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia : 


(A) Shows blue colour 
(B) exhibits electrical conductivity 
(C) produces sodium amide 
(D) produces hydrogen gas

4. p-Chloroaniline and anilinium hydrochloride can be distinguished by: 


(A) Sandmeyer reaction                                  (B) NaHCO3 
(C) AgNO3                                                      (D) Carbylamine test 

5. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H atom is – 13.6 eV. The possible
energy value(s) of the excited state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits of hydrogen is(are) : 
(A) – 3.4 eV                                                       (B) – 4.2 eV 
(B) – 6.8 eV                                                       (D) + 6.8 eV 

6. In nitroprusside ion the iron and NO exist as FeII and NO+ rather than FeIII and

NO. These forms can be differentiated by : 

(A) estimating the concentration of iron. 


(B) measuring the concentration of CN. 
(C) measuring the solid state magnetic moment. 
(D) thermally decomposing the compound. 

7. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct : 


(A) The coordination number of each type of ion in CsCI crystal is 8. 
(B) A metal that crystallizes in bcc structure has a coordination number of 12. 
(C) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells. 
(D) The length of the unit cell in NaCI is 552 pm. ( rNa+ = 95 pm; rCI- =181 pm) 

8. Sodium nitrate decomposes above –8000C to give : 


(A) N2                                       (B) O2 
(C) NO2                                     (D) Na2O 

9. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the ferrous and
ferric ions : 
(A) Fe3+ gives brown colour with potassium ferricyanide. 
(B) Fe2+ gives blue precipitate with potassium ferricyanide. 
(C) Fe3+ gives red colour with potassium thiocyanate. 
(D) Fe2+ gives brown colour with ammonium thiocyanate. 

10. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct : 


(A) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d5 4s1. (Atomic Number of Cr = 24.) 
(B) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value. 
(C) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite type.
(Atomic Number of Ag = 47). 
(D) The oxidation state of nitrogen in HN3 is –3. 

11. A new carbon-carbon bond formation is possible in 


(A) Cannizzaro reaction                          (B) Friedel-Crafts alkylation 
(C) Clemmensen reduction                       (D) Reimer-Tiemann reaction 

12. White phosphorus (P4) has : 


(A) six P–P single bonds                        (B) four P–P single bonds 
(C) four lone pairs of electrons               (D) PPP angle of 600. 

13. Which of the following will react with water : 


(A) CHCI3                                           (B) CI3CCHO 
(C) CCI4                                                       (D) CICH2CH2CI 

14. The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X, Y, Z are 0.52, –
3.03 and   –1.18V respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals
is: 
(A) Y > Z > X                                    (B) X > Y > Z 
(C) Z > Y > X                                     (D) Z > X > Y 

15. Among the following compounds, which will react with acetone to give a product    
containing >C = N – : 
(A) C6H5NH2                                     (B) (CH3)3 N 
(C) C6H5NHC6H5                                    (D) C6H5NHNH2 

16. Which of the following compounds will show geometrical isomerism: 


(A) 2-butene                                     (B) propone 
(C) 1-phenylpropene                                 (D) 2-methyl-2-butene 

17. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbital present about the central atom in BF3
is: 
(A) linear, sp                                    (B) trigona planar, sp2 
(C) tetrahedral, sp3                    (D) pyramidal, sp3 

18. Benzyl chloride (C6H5CH2CI) can be prepared from toluene by chlorination with : 


(A) SO2CI2                                 (B) SOCI2 
(C) CI2                                    (D) NaOCI 

19. Which of the following will undergo aldol condensation : 


(A) acetaldehyde                       (B) propanaldehyde 
(C) benzaldehyde                       (D) trideuteroactaldehyde 

20. Addition of high proportions of manganese makes steel useful in making rails 


(A) gives hardness to steel. 
(B) helps the formation of oxides of iron. 
(C) can remove oxygen and sulphur 
(D) can show highest oxidation state of +7. 

21. Decrease in atomic number is observed during : 


(A) alpha emission 
(B) beta emission 
(C) positron emission 
(D) electron capture. 

22. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basic medium gives : 


(A) diphenyl ether 
(B) p-hydroxyazobenzene 
(C) chlorobenzene 
(D) benzene 

23. Among the following compounds, the strongest acid is: 


(A) HC  CH 
(B) C6H6 
(C) C2H6 
(D) CH3OH 

24. For a first order reaction : 


(A) the degree of dissociation is equal to (1 – e–kt). 
(B) a plot of reciprocal concentration of the reactant vs. time gives a straight line. 
(C) the time taken for the completion of 75% reaction is thrice the t1/2 of the reaction. 
(D) the pre-exponential factor in the Arrhenius equation has the dimension of time, T–1.  

26. According to Graham’s law, at a given temperature the ratio of the rates of diffusion
rA/rB of gases A and B is given by: 
(A) (PA / PB) (MA / MB)1/2 
(B) (MA / MB) (PA / PB)1/2 
(C) (PA/ PB ) (MB / MA)1/2 
(D) (MA / MB) (PB/ PA)1/2 

27. For the reaction CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2 (g) + H2(g) at a given temperature, the


equilibrium amount of CO2(g) can be increased by: 
(A) adding a suitable catalyst 
(B) adding an inert gas 
(C) decreasing the volume of the container. 
(D) increasing the amount of CO (g). 

28. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct : 


(A) The pH of 1.0 × 10–8 M solution of HCI is 8. 
(B) The conjugate base of H2PO4– is HPO42–. 
(C) Autoprotolysis constant of water increases with temperature. 
(D) When a solution of a weak monoprotic acid is titrated against a strong base, at half-
neutralisation point pH = (1/2) pKa. 

IIT-JEE-Chemistry–1998

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS 

Directions : The questions below (29 to 40) consist of an assertion in column 1 and the
reason in column 2. Against the specific question number, write in the appropriate
space. 
(A) If both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion. 
(B) If both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation of
the assertion. 
(C) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect. 
(D) If assertion is incorrect but reason is correct. 

Example : 
_____________________________________________________________________ 
                  Assertion                                       Reason 
F–F bond in F2 molecule is strong.                                 F atom is small in size. 
 Answer : (D) 
_____________________________________________________________________

29. Benzonitrile is prepared by the reaction of         Cyanide (CN–) is a strong nucleophile.


chlorobenzene with potassium cyanide.

30. F atom has a less negative electron affinity


than CI atom. Additional electrons are repelled more effectively by 3p
electrons in CI atom than by 2p electrons in F atom.

Nuclides having odd number of protons and neutrons


31. Nuclide 30Ai13  is less stable than 40Ca20. are general unstable.

AI — O and O — H bonds can be broken with equal


ease in AI(OH)3.
32.  AI (OH)3 is amphoteric in nature
Hydrogen bonding is present in ammonia.

33. The value of Van der Waals’ constant ‘a’ is


larger for ammonia than for nitrogen. The electrons are lost from 4s orbital to form ZN2+.

34. ZN2+ is diamagnetic. The product contains one asymmetric carbon.

35. Addition of Br2 to 1–butene gives two optical


isomers.
36. The electronic structure of O3 is
  

                 

structure is not allowed because octet around O cannot


be expanded.
37. LiCI is predominantly a covalent compound.
Electronegativity difference between Li and CI is too
small.

38. HNO3 is a stronger acid than HNO2. In HNO3 there are two nitrogen-to-oxygen bonds
whereas in HNO2 there is only one.

Ionic radius of Mg2+ is smaller than that   of Ba2+.


39. Sulphate is estimated as BaSO4 and not as
MgSO4. Acetic acid has no alpha hydrogens.

40. Acetic acid does not undergo haloform


reaction.

                                                   SECTION II

Instructions : 

1. There are 15 questions in this section. 


2. At the end of the answer to a question, leave 3 cm blank space, draw a horizontal line
and start the answer to the next question. The corresponding question number must be
written in the left margin. Answer all parts of a question at one place only. 
3. The use of Arabic numerals (0, 1, 2, ……9) only is allowed in answering the questions
irrespective of the language in which you answer.

______________________________________________________________________

1. (a) When the ore haematite is burnt in air with coke around 2000 0C along with lime,
the process not only produces steel but also produces a silicate slag that is useful in
making building materials such as cement. Discuss the same and show through balanced
chemical equations. 
(b) Draw the structure of a cyclic silicate, (Si3O9)6– with proper labeling. 
(c) During the qualitative of a mixture containing CU 2+ and ZN2+ ions, H2S gas is passed
through an acidified solution containing these ions in order to test Cu 2+alone. Explain
briefly. 

2. (a) Thionyl chloride can be synthesized by chlorinating SO2 using PCI5. Thionyl chloride
is used to prepare anhydrous ferric chloride starting from its hexahydrated salt.
Alternatively, the anyhydrous ferric chloride can also be prepared from its hexahydrated
salt by treating with 2, 2-dimethoxypropane. Discuss all this using balanced chemical
equations. 
(b) Reaction of phosphoric acid with Ca5(PO4) F yields a fertilizer “triple superphospate”
Represent the same through balanced chemical equation. 

3. (a) Complete and balance the following chemical equations. 


(i) P4O10 + PCI5  
(ii) SnCI4 + C2H5CI + Na 
(b) Work out the following using chemical equations. 
(i) In moist air, copper corrodes to produce a green layer on the surface. 
(ii) Chlorination of calcium hydroxide produces bleaching powder. 

4. (a) An aqueous solution containing 0.10g KIO3 (formula weight = 214.0) was treated
with an excess of KI solution. The solution was acidified with HCI. The liberated I2
consumed 45.0 mL of thiosulphate solution decolourise the blue starch-iodine complex.
Calculate the molarity of the sodium thiosulphate solution. 
(b) Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction, 2Fe  + 3I   2Fe  + I3 .
3+ – 2+ -

The standard reduction potentials in acidic conditions are 0.77 V and 0.54 V respectively
for Fe3+Fe2+ and I3-| I3- couples. 

5. (a) Interpret the non-linear shape of H2S molecule and non-planar shape of PCI3using
valence shell electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory. (Atomic numbers : H = 1; P = 15,
S = 16; CI = 17) 
(b) Hydrogen peroxide acts both as an oxidizing and as a reducting agent in alkaline
solution towards certain first row transition metal ions. Illustrate both these properties of
H2O2 using chemical equations. 

6. Give reasons for the following in one or two sentences. 


(a) Acid catalysed dehydration of t-butanol is faster than that of n-butanol. 
(b) The central carbon-carbon bond in 1, 3–butadiene is shorter than that of n-butane. 
(c) Dimethylamine is a stronger base than trimethylamine. 
(d) Nitrobenzene does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation. 

7. (a) An ester A (C4H8O2), on treatment with excess methyl magnesium chloride followed
by acidification, gives an alcohol B as the sole organic product. Alcohol B, on oxidation
with NaOCI followed by acidification, gives acetic acid. Deduce the structures of A and B.
Show the reactions involved. 
(b) An aldehyde A (C11H8O), which does not undergo self aldol condensation, gives
benzaldehyde and two moles of B on ozonolysis. Compound B, on oxidation with silver
ion gives oxalic acid. Identify the compounds A and B.

8. Each of the following reactions gives two products. Write the structures of the
products. 

        

9. (a) Write the intermediate steps for each of the following reactions.
 

        
(b) Show the steps to carry out the following transformations. 
(i) Ethylbenzene --> benzene 
(ii) Ethylbenzene --> 2-phenylpropionic acid 

9. Complete the following reactions with appropriate structures of


products/reagents. 

       

11. (a) A evacuated glass vessel weighs 50.0 g when empt, 148.0 g when filled
with a liquid of density 0.98 mL–1 and 50.5 g when filled with an ideal gas at 760
mm Hg at 300 K. Determine the molar mass of the gas. 
(b) From the following data, calculate the enthalpy change for the combustion of
cyclopropane at 298 K. The enthalpy of formation of CO2 (g), H2O (I) and propene
(g) are – 393.5, –285.8 and 20.42 kJ mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of
isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene is –33.0 kJ mol–1. 

12. (a) The degree of dissociation is 0.4 at 400 K and 1.0 atm for the gaseous
reaction PCI5  PCI3 + CI2. Assuming ideal behaviour of all the gases, calculate
the density of equilibrium mixture at 400 K and 1.0 atmosphere. (Relative atomic
mass of P = 31.0 and CI = 35.5) 
(b) Given : Ag(NH3)2+ Ag+ + 2NH3, Kc = 6.2 × 10–8 and Ksp of AgCI =1.8 × 10–10
at 298 K.If ammonia is added to a water solution containing excess of AgCI(s)
only,.Calculate the concentration of the complex in 1.0 M aqueous ammonia.. 

13. (a) Using Van der Waal’s equation, calculate the constant, ‘a’ when two moles
of a gas confined in a four litre flask exert a pressure of 11.0 atmospheres at a
temperature of 300 K. The value of ‘b’ is 0.05 L mol–1. 
(b) A solution of a non-volatile solute in water freezes at –0.300C. The vapour
pressure of pure water at 298K is 23.51 mm Hg and Kf for water is 1.86 Kg mol–1.
Calculate the vapour pressure of this solution at 298 K. 

14. (a) The rate constant of a reaction is 1.5 × 107 s–1 at 500C and 4.5 × 107 s–
1
at 1000C. Evaluate the Arrhenius parameters A and Ea. 
(b) For the reaction, N2O5 (g) = 2NO2 (g) + 0.5 O2 (g), calculate the mole fraction
N2O5 (g) decomposed at a constant volume and temperature, if the initial pressure
is 600 mm Hg and the pressure at any time is 960 mm Hg. Assume ideal gas
behaviour. 

15. (a) Find the solubility product of a saturated solution of Ag2CrO4 in water at


298K if the emf of the cell Ag | Ag+ (satd. Ag2CrO4 soln.) || AG+ (0.1M) | Ag is
0.164 V at 298 K. 
(b) What will be the resultant pH when 200 mL of an aqueous solution of HCI (pH
= 2.0) is mixed with 300 mL of an aqueous solution of NaOH (pH = 12.0)? 

IIT-JEE-Chemistry–1997

Time : Three Hours                                                      Max. Marks : 100 


______________________________________________________________________ 

Instructions:

1. Answer all questions in the language of your choice as shown in your admit card. 
2. The paper consists of eight printed pages 10 questions. 
3. Answer to next question should start after drawing a separating horizontal line with a
in the question paper. 
4. All sub-questions of a question should be answered at one place in the same order as
in the question paper. 
5. There is no negative marking. 
6. Use of all type of calculating devices, graph paper, trigonometric/statistical tables is
prohibited. 
7. Use of Lagarithmic Tables is permitted. 

Useful Data: 
Avogadro constant,                       NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1 
Faraday constant,                         F = 96500 C mol–1 
Gas constant,                               R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 
                                                  or 
                                                 R = 0.082 dm–3 atm K–1 mol–1 
Relative atomic masses:                 H = 1.0; O = 16.0 
                                                 Cl = 35.5; Cr = 51.99; Ag = 107.8 
Atomic numbers                            Na = 11; Mg = 12 
                                                 V = 23; Cu = 29; Ag = 47 
_____________________________________________________________________

1. There are fifteen sub-questions in this question. For answering each sub-question,
four alternatives are given, and only one of them is correct. Indicate your answer for
each sub-question by writing one of the letters A, B, C or D only in the answerbook. 

(i) For a d-electron, the orbital angular momentum is : 


(A) √6 (h/2π)                                    (B) √2 (h/2π) 
(C) (h/2π)                                        (D) 2 (h/2π) 

(ii) The standard reduction potentials of Cu2+|Cu and Cu2+|Cu+ are 0.337 V and 0.153 V
respectively. The standard electrode potential of Cu+|Cu half cell is: 
(A) 0.184 V                                      (B) 0.827 V 
(C) 0.521 V                                      (D) 0.490 V 

(iii) The compressibility factor for an ideal gas is : 


(A) 1.5                                            (B) 1.0 
(C) 2.0                                            (D) 

(iv) Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds : 


(A) NH4Cl                                        (B) HCN 
(C) H2O2                                          (D) CH4 

(v) The critical temperature of water is higher than that of O2 because the H2O molecule
has : 
(A) fewer electrons than O2               (B) two covalent bonds 
(C) V-shape                                    (D) dipole moment. 

(vi) Which one of the following species is not a pseudohalide: 


(A) CNO–                                      (B) RCOO– 
(C) OCN–                                      (D) NNN– 

(vii) Ammonium dichromate is used in some fireworks. The green coloured powder blown
in the air is : 
(A) CrO3                                       (B) Cr2O3 
(C) Cr                                          (D) CrO (O2). 

(viii) Which one of the following compounds has sp2 – hybridization : 


(A) CO2                                         (B) SO2 
(C) N2O                                         (D) CO2 

(ix) The number of moles KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of
sulphite ion in acidic solution is : 
(A) 2/5                                           (B) 3/5 
(C) 4/5                                           (D) 1 

(x) Which of the following compounds is expected to be coloured : 


(A) Ag2SO4                                    (B) CuF2 
(C) MgF2                                       (D) CuCl 

(xi) How many optically active stereoisomers are possible for butane-2, 3-diol: 
(A) 1                                             (B) 2 
(C) 3                                             (D) 4 

(xii) When cyclohexane is poured on water, it floats, because : 


(A) cyclohexane is in ‘boat’ form 
(B) cyclohexane is in ‘chair’ form 
(C) cyclohexane is in ‘crown’ form 
(D) cyclohexane is less dense than water. 

(xiii) Which of the following is an organometallic compound : 


(A) Lithium methoxide                     (B) Lithium actetate 
(C) Lithium dimethylamide                (D) Methyl lithium. 

(xiv) In the reaction p-chlorotoluene with KNH2 in liq. NH3, the major product is : 
(A) o-toluidine                                (B) m-toluidine 
(C) p-toluidine                                (D) p-chloroaniline 

(xv) (CH3)3 CMgCl on reaction with D2O produces: 


(A) (CH3)3 CD                                (B) (CH3)3 OD 
(C) (CD3)3 CD                                (D) (CD3)3 OD 

(xii) When cyclohexane is poured on water, it floats, because : 


(A) cyclohexane is in ‘boat’ form 
(B) cyclohexane is in ‘chair’ form 
(C) cyclohexane is in ‘crown’ form 
(D) cyclohexane is less dense than water. 

(xiii) Which of the following is an organometallic compound : 


(A) Lithium methoxide                     (B) Lithium actetate 
(C) Lithium dimethylamide                (D) Methyl lithium. 
(xiv) In the reaction p-chlorotoluene with KNH2 in liq. NH3, the major product is : 
(A) o-toluidine                                (B) m-toluidine 
(C) p-toluidine                                (D) p-chloroaniline 

(xv) (CH3)3 CMgCl on reaction with D2O produces: 


(A) (CH3)3 CD                                (B) (CH3)3 OD 
(C) (CD3)3 CD                                (D) (CD3)3 OD

2. Fill in the blanks (write only your answers in the answer book sequentially) : 

(a) In the Arrhenius equation, k = A exp (–E/RT), A may be termed as the rate
constant at …….. . 
(b) When Fe(s) is dissolved in aqueous hydrochloric acid in a closed vessel, the
work done is ………………. . 
(c) A liquid which is permanently supercooled is frequently called a …………… . 
(d) Enthalpy is an ……………………. property. 
(e) In the reaction I– + I2 →I–3, the Lewis acid is ……………………. . 
(f) Silver jewellery items tarnish slowly in the air due to their reaction with
………. . 
(g) Compounds that formally contain Pb4+ are easily reduced to Pb2+. The stability
of the lower oxidation state is due to …………… . 
(h) Glycerine contains one ……………… hydroxy group. 
(i) 1, 3-Butadiene with bromine in molar ratio generates predominantly ……….. . 
(j) Vinyl chloride on reaction with dimethly copper gives ………….. . 

3. (a) A sample of AgCI was treated with 5.00 mL of 1.5 M Na2CO3 solution to give
Ag2CO3. The remaining solution contained 0.0026 g of CI– per litre. Calculate the
solubility product of Ag CI [Ksp (Ag2CO3) = 8.2 × 10–12] 

(b) The rate constant for the first order decomposition of a certain reaction is
described by the equation 
                log (k/s–1) = 14.34 – (1.25×104 K) / T

(i) What is the energy of activation for this reaction ? 


(ii) At what temperatue will its half-life period be 256 minutes? 

4. (a) Compute the heat of formation of liquid methyl alcohol in kilojoules per
mole, using the following data. Heat of vaporization of liquid methyl alcohol = 35
kJ/mol. Heat of formation of gaseous atoms from the elements in their standard
states : H, 218kJ/mol; C, 715 kJ/mol; O, 249 kJ/mol. 
Average bond energies : C—H, 415 kJ/mol 
C—O, 356 kJ/mol 
O—H, 463 kJ/mol 

(b) To a 25 mL H2O2 solution, excess of acidified solution of potassium iodide was


added. The iodine liberated required 20 mL of 0.3 N sodium thiosulphate solution.
Calculate the volume strength of H2O2 solution. 

5. (a) Write balanced equations for the following : 


(i) Phosphorus is treated with concentrated nitric acid. 
(ii) Oxidation of hydrogen peroxide with potassium permanganate in acidic medium. 
(iii) Manufacture of phosphoric acid from phosphorus. 
(iv) Reaction of aluminium with aqueous sodium hydroxide. 
(v) Reaction of zinc with dilute nitric acid. 

(b) Write the formulae of the following complexes: 


(i) Pentamminechlorocobalt (III) 
(ii) Lithium tetrahydroaluminate (III). 

(c) Element A ourns in nitrogen to give an ionic compound B. Compound B reacts with
water to give C and D. A solutions of C becomes /milky’ on bubbling carbon dioxide.
Identify A, B, C and D. 

   

7. (a) How many grams of silver could be plated out on a serving tray by electrolysis of
a solution containing silver in + 1 oxidation state of period of 8.0 hours at a current of
8.6 Amperes? What is the area of the tray if the thickness of the silver plating if 0.00254
cm? Density of silver is 10.5 g/cm3. 

(c) Chromium metal crystallizes with a body centred cubic lattice. The length of the unit
cell edge is found to be 287 pm. Calculate the atomic radius. What would be the density
of chromium in g/cm3? 

(d) An acid type indicator, HIn differs in colour from its conjugate base (In–). The human
eye is sensitive to colour differences only when the ratio [In–] / [HIn] is greater than 10
or smaller than 0.1. What should be the minimum change in the pH of the solution to
observe a complete colour change 
(ka = 1.0 × 10–5)? 

7. (a) A compound of vanadium has a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. Work out the
electronic configuration of the vanadium ion in the compound. 

(b) A soluble compound of poisonous element M, when heated with Zn/H2SO4,


gives a colourless and extremely poisonous gaseous compound N, which on
passing through a heated tube gives a silvery mirror of element M. Identify M and
N.

(c) Between Na+ and Ag+, which is a stronger Lewis acid and why? 

(d) The crystalline salts of alkaline earth metals contain more water of
crystallization than the corresponding alkali metal salts. Why? 

(e) Anhydrous AICI3 is covalent. From the data given below, predict whether it
would remain covalent or become ionic in aqueous solution. 
(Ionisation energy for AI = 5137 kJ mol–1;   Hhydration for AI3 = 4665 kJ mole–
1
;  Hhydration for CI– = –381 kJ mol–1) 

9. (a) Acetophenone on reaction with hydroxylamine-hydrochloride produce two


isomeric oximes. Write structures of the oximes. 

(b) 2, 2-Demethyloxirane can be cleaved by acid (H+). Write mechanism. 

(c) Which of the following is the correct method for synthesizing methyl-t-butyl
ether and why? 

(i) (CH3)3 CBr + NaOMe → 


(ii) (CH3Br + NaO – t – Bu → 

(d) Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than
benzoate ion, benzoic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Why? 

(e) The hydrocarbon, A, adds one mole of hydrogen in the presence of a platinum
catalyst to from n-haxane. When A is oxidized vigorously with KMnO4, a single
carboxylic acid, containing three carbon atoms, is isolated. Give the structure of A
and explain. 

10. (a) Aluminium sulphide gives a foul odour when it becomes damp. Write a
balanced chemical equation for the reaction. 

(b) Arrange the following ions in order of their increasing radii: Li+, Mg2+, K+, AI3+ 

(c) Arrange the following sulphates of alkaline earth metals in order of decreasing
thermal stability : BeSO4, MgSO4, CaSO4, SrSO4 

(d) Write a balanced equation for the reaction 14N with α-particle. 

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