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Q1.
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are seven persons M, N, O, P, Q, R and S who were born on seven di erent months of the
same year starting from January to July but not necessarily in the same order. They participated in
a race and obtained di erent ranks, from rst to seventh based on their performance. Also each
of them fasted on di erent days of the week starting from Monday to Sunday.
N, who obtained Sixth rank, fasted on the fourth day of the week but he was born in neither March
nor July. Two persons fasted between the days on which N and R fasted and neither of them
fasted on the 1st day of the week. There is one person fasted between M and O, but O did not fast
on 1st and 3rd day of the week. O obtained Seventh rank and was born in March. The one, who
was born in April, fasted on the last day of the week and he was the second best performer in the
race. P has not fasted on the day immediately before and immediately after the day on which M
fasted. M did not obtain First rank and Fourth rank. S fasted immediately after O and obtained
Fourth rank. Q did not obtain First rank and he is the second youngest. M was not born in
February and January. The one who was born in May fasted immediately after the day when the
one who was born in March fasted. M did not obtain Fifth rank. P is older than N.
Which of the following combinations is de nitely false? (1 Mark)

A. O – Seventh rank – March
B. M – Third rank – July
C. Q – Fifth rank – June
D. R – Seventh rank – March
E. S- Fourth rank- May
Your Answer: Not Attempted
Correct Answer: D. R – Seventh rank – March 
Solution
Step-1. for more join

From the information given in the question,
https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
fasted on the 1st day of the week.
https://store.adda247.com/#!/myTestAnalysis/printsolution/mappingId=25521/packageId=359/lang=ENGLISH 1/151
Step-2.
Proceeding with the remaining information,
The one, who was born in April, fasted on the last day of the week and he was the second best
performer in the race. There is one person who fasted between M and O. But O did not fast on 1st
and 3rd day of the week. O obtained Seventh rank and was born in March. S fasted immediately
after O and he obtained Fourth rank.
Step-3.
P has not fasted on the day immediately before and immediately after the day on which M fasted.
M did not obtain First rank and Fourth rank. It means P fasted on Monday and Q fasted on
Tuesday. Q did not obtain First rank and he is the second youngest. M was not born in February
and January. The one who was born in May fasted immediately after the day when the one who
was born in March fasted. M did not obtain Fifth rank. P is older than N.
So the nal arrangements are-
Q2. for more join
Who among the following fasted on the 5th day of the week? (1 Mark)
A. The person who obtained Third rank
B. The person who born in April
C. The person who born in March
D. The person who obtained Fifth rank
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. The person who born in March 
Solution
Step-1.
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Step-2. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Step-3.
Q3.
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fasted. M did not obtain First rank and https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Fourth rank. S fasted immediately after O and obtained
Who is the oldest among all of them? (1 Mark)

A. The person who obtained Sixth rank
B. The person who obtained Third rank
C. The person who obtained First rank
D. Either the person who obtained First rank or the person who obtained Sixth rank
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. The person who obtained First rank 
Solution
Step-1.
Step-2.
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Step-3. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Q4.
If ‘N’ is related to ‘Seventh rank’ and ‘S’ is related to ‘Second rank’ then which of the following is ‘M’
related to? (1 Mark)
A. First rank
B. Sixth rank
C. Fifth rank for more join
D. Third rank
E. None of these https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: B. Sixth rank 
Solution
Step-1.
Step-2.
Step-3.
So the nal arrangements are- for more join
Q5.
Who was born in February? (1 Mark)

A. The person who fasted on fourth day of the week
B. The person who fasted just before Q
C. The person who fasted just after Q
D. Can’t be determined
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. The person who fasted on fourth day of the week 
Solution
Step-1.
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Step-2.
Step-3.
Q6.
Statement-
Strongly objecting to BJP leader Yogi Adityanath government’s decision to demolish cycle tracks in
Uttar Pradesh, former SP Chief Minister Akhilesh Yadav said that cycling is bene cial for health and
safety. He added that on returning to power, his party’s government will encourage cycling and
also extend cycle tracks in the state. “Cycling is bene cial for health, environment and economy,”
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Akhilesh Yadav tweeted.
Which of the following can be assumed from the given statement?
(I)BJP government was taking decisions against people’s interest and they are no more interested
in peoples’ welfare.
(II) According to Akhilesh Yadav, the BJP-led UP government’s decision to demolish the cycle tracks,
this will be a wrong move and lead to more road accidents and pollution, cycling could also solved
tra c problems.
(III)The SP government will provide a compensation of Rs.10 lakh to any cyclist killed in accident
and stress will be given on encouraging tourism through bicycle. (2 Mark)
A. Only (III)
B. Only (II)
C. Only (I)
D. Both (II) and (III)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Only (II) 
Solution
For I-This cannot be assumed from the given statement because It is nowhere mentioned in the
given statement whether BJP government is interested in people’s welfare or not.
For II-This can be assumed from the given statement as it is given in the statement that cycling is
bene cial for health, environment and economy so it can be assumed that to demolish the cycle
tracks, will lead to pollution and accidents.
For III-This cannot be assumed from the given statement as nothing is mentioned about the
compensation given by SP government.
Q7.
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language:

Hindustan Indian The Hindu - #S1, @N1, #T8, #S4
Economic Times Express Guardian - @Y9, #S5, #D19, @G1
Daily Mirror Observer Post - #A12, @S15, @Z5, @M19.
What will be the code of Business? (1 Mark)

A. @G19 for more join
B. @W19
C. #E21 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. #G19
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. @G19 
Solution
Q8.

What will be the code of “World and India”? (2 Mark)

A. #M12 @N14 #M9
B. @M12 #N14 #M9
C. #M12 #N14 #M9
D. #M12 #N9 @M14
E. None of these
Correct Answer: E. None of these 
Solution
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Q9.

What will be the code of “Nobel Prize”? (1 Mark)

A. #M5 #J26
B. @M5 @J26
C. @M5 #J26
D. #M5 @J26
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. #M5 #J26 
Solution
Q10.

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What will be the code of “Previous Year”? (1 Mark)

A. @J21 #W1
B. #J21 @W1
C. #J21 #W1
D. @J1 @W1
E. @J21 @W1
Correct Answer: E. @J21 @W1 
Solution
Q11.

What will be the code of “Latest News”? (1 Mark)

A. #Z19 @W23
B. #Z19 #W23
C. @Z23 @W19
D. @Z19 @W23
E. None of these

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Solution
Q12.
Over 90% Indian customers still prefer branch over online banking: Report said. While the
government has been pushing people to go online when it comes to banking, the branch still
continues to dominate banking channels in India.
Which of the following can be deduced from the given statement?
(I)Retail banking customers used to visit the branch/store at least once in the past 12 months.
(II)There is great potential for banks to move more into the digital space. Only 51 per cent of retail
banking customers have a reliable online banking experience with their main nancial institution.
(III)Digital banking is not yet a pervasive experience in India. (2 Mark)
A. Only (II)
B. Only (III)
C. Only (I) and (II)
D. Both (II) and (III)
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: B. Only (III) 
Solution
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In the above question we have to nd which statement concluded from the given statement.
For I-This cannot be deduced from the https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
given statement as it is nowhere mentioned in the given
statement.
For II- This cannot be deduced from the given statement as it cannot be determine from the given
statement about banks potential to turn into digital space and about the percentage of customers
who have a reliable online banking experience.
For III-This can be deduced from the given statement as it is clearly mentioned in the given
statement that 90% Indian customers still prefer branch over online banking which implies that
digital banking is still not widely accepted by group of people.
Q13.
Read the following information and answer the questions that follow:
Seven farmers P, Q, R, S, T, U and V have sown various items in their elds i.e. Rice, Wheat, Gram,
Pulses, Grapes, Mango and Pepper on a di erent months of the year from January to July and each
of these farmers have a contract with di erent FMCG companies viz.- 24 mantra, Morarka organic,
Itc, Reliance, Tata, Parle and Pepsico. The order of persons, crops, companies and months of the
year are not necessarily in the same order.
R sows Rice but not in February. V sows in January but neither Gram nor Pepper. U sows Grapes in
May. The one who sows Rice has a contract with Tata. Q sows Pulses in March. Two people sows
on the months between the months on which the one who has a contract with Tata sows and the
one who has a contract with Parle sows. S, who has a contract with Parle, does not sow Rice and
Gram and sows on the next month of the month on which T sows Mango. The one who has a
contract with Reliance sows in the month just before the month in which R sows and three people
sows between the months on which the one who has a contract with 24 mantra and the one who
has a contract with Pepsico sows. The one who has a contract with Morarka organic sows just
before the month on which the one who belongs to 24 mantra sows. The one who has a contract
with Itc sows after the month on which the person who has a contract with 24 mantra sows.
Which of the following combinations is correct? (1 Mark)

A. V-Wheat-March-Itc
B. P-Wheat-January-24 mantra
C. V-Gram- January-Tata
D. V-Pepper-July-Parle
E. None of These
Correct Answer: E. None of These for more join

Solution https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
contract with Reliance sows in the month just before the month in which R sows. From the above
conditions we get----
Three people sows between the months on which the one who has a contract with 24 mantra and
the one who has a contract with Pepsico sows. The one who has a contract with Morarka organic
sows just before the month on which the one who belongs to 24 mantra sows. The one who has a
contract with Itc sows after the month on which the person who has a contract with 24 mantra
sows.
Q14.
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R sows in which of the following month? (1 Mark)

A. June
B. July
C. February
D. April
E. None of These
Correct Answer: D. April 
Solution
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sows. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Q15.
Four of the following ve are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to that group? (1 Mark)
A. V
B. Grapes
C. Wheat
D. U
E. Gram
Correct Answer: E. Gram 
Solution for more join

R sows Rice but not in February. V sowshttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
in January but neither Gram nor Pepper. U sows Grapes in
sows.
Q16.
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Which of the following persons has a contract with Morarka organic? (1 Mark)
A. T
B. S
C. U
D. R
E. V
Correct Answer: E. V 
Solution
sows.
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Q17.
If V is related to Pulses-Itc in the same way as Q is related to Grapes-Parle. Following the same
pattern, nd out P is related to which of the following? (1 Mark)
A. Pulses-Itc
B. Wheat-Reliance
C. Rice-Tata
D. Mango-Parle
E. Rice-Pepsico
Correct Answer: E. Rice-Pepsico 
Solution
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sows.
Q18.
Which of the following language de nes commands GRANT and REVOKE? (2 Mark)
A. DDL
B. DML
C. DCL
D. DQL
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. DCL 
Solution
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DCL (Data Control Language) is used tohttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
control the user access to the database, tables, views,
procedures, functions and packages. Using DCL command, it allows or restricts the user from
accessing data in database schema. DCL use two commands to control access- GRANT and
REVOKE.
Q19.
After cooking gas, government now wants people to give up subsidy on rail fares: report
Which of the following is not-in-line with the given statement?
(I)After the ‘Give-It-Up’ campaign on cooking gas subsidy gaining immense success, the
government is now planning launch a similar plan for rail fares, under which passengers will have
the option of forgoing the subsidy on tickets.
(II)The railway has introduced increased fares in elite trains like Rajdhani and Shatabdi.
(III)The report cited a source saying that to begin with, the national transporter will o er two slabs
to surrender the subsidy on rail fares surrender – 50 per cent and 100 per cent of the subsidy
amount.
(IV)The option to forgo subsidy will be available for railway tickets booked online or bought from
counters. (2 Mark)
A. Only III and IV
B. Only III
C. Only I and II
D. Only II
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Only II 
Solution
In the above question we have to nd which statement does not follow the theme of the given
statement.
For I-This is in line with the given statement because it describes that government is planning to
launch a campaign to give up subsidy on rail tickets which is similar to Give-It-Up’ campaign.
For II-This is not in line with the given statement because it states about the increased fares of
Shatabdi and Rajdhani trains whereas the given statement is about the government’s plan to
encourage people to give up their subsidy on rail tickets.
For III-This is also in line with the given statement as it describes about the slabs o ered by the
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government to surrender their subsidy on rail tickets.
For IV-This is also in line with the given statement because it gives additional information about
the forgo subsidy plan of government.
Q20.
Study the following diagram and convert it into other diagrams by implementing the instructions
which is given in each step to get next step.
For Step-1:
Add the number of the last alphabet which is in the alphabetical series with the element.
For Step-2:
(i) If the alphabets contain one consonant and one vowel -
If the number with them is a whole square, then replace vowel with the opposite letter in
alphabetical series and add 2 in the given number.
If the number with them is not a whole square, then replace vowel with the second previous letter
in the alphabetical series.
(ii) If the alphabets are two consonant –
If the number with them is a whole square, then replace alphabets with the opposite letter in
alphabetical series and subtract 2 in the given number.
If the number with them is not a whole square, then replace alphabets with the second next letter
For Step-3: step 3 is coded in some special pattern.
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As per the rules followed in the above step, nd out the appropriate steps for the given input.
And answer the following questions.
Which of the following element replaces the alphabets SN14 from step-2 to in step 3? (2 Mark)
A. MJ10
B. KD20
C. TO9
D. XW2
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. TO9 
Solution
The alphabets are arranged according to the directions are given for step 1.
For Step-3:
(i)The elements arranged in a serial way in rst and third row as element of third column is placed
in rst column, element of rst column is placed in second column and element of second column
is placed in third column.
(ii)In the second row the elements are arranged in the given arrangement-
The Consonant are replaced with the letter in the alphabetical series with the next letter of the
given letter in alphabetical series. The vowels are replaced with third next letter in the alphabetical
series. There is a subtraction of 5 from the given number.
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Q21.
For Step-1:
For Step-2:
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Which of the following element replaces HY25 from step-1 to in step 2? (2 Mark)
A. FZ3
B. SB23
C. RT18
D. GZ26
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. SB23 
Solution
For Step-3:
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Q22.
For Step-1:
For Step-2:
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Which of the following element is placed in 2nd column 3rd row in step 3? (2 Mark)
A. DM11
B. XW2
C. TC18
D. RT18
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. DM11 
Solution
For Step-3:
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Q23.
For Step-1:
For Step-2:
in the alphabetical series. for more join
(ii) If the alphabets are two consonant –https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Which of the following is diagonally opposite to the element FZ3 in step 3? (2 Mark)
A. GZ26
B. JA25
C. TC18
D. MJ10
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. GZ26 
Solution
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For Step-3:
Q24.
For Step-1:
For Step-2:
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Which of the following replaces CD4 from step-1 to in step 2? (2 Mark)

A. XW2
B. XN14
C. MJ10
D. GZ26
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. XW2 
Solution
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For Step-3:
Q25.
Statement:-
Former Pakistan opener-turned-commentator Rameez Raja questioned the Board of Control for
Cricket in India's (BCCI) decision to give Mahendra Singh Dhoni a Grade A contract despite retiring
him from Test cricket in 2014. He said that the cricketers are being given higher grades based
upon their performance in the shorter format of the game.
Which of the following could be hypothesized from the above statement?
(i) Raja is criticizing the Indian cricket board for neglecting Test cricket as a result of which the
longer version of the game is losing its importance in the sub-continent.
(ii) As Raja belongs to the rival country, he cannot see India’s cricketers prosper.
(iii) Shorter version game deserves more attention from BCCI. (2 Mark)
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
C. Only (ii) and (iii)
D. Only (i) and (iii)
E. None of these
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Correct Answer: A. Only (i) 
Solution
In this question, we have to choose an option which can be assumed from the given statement.
Statement (i) can be assumed as it is given in the statement that Raja was unhappy with Dhoni
being given Grade-A despite him being retired from test cricket.
Statement (ii) cannot be assumed as it is not related to the statement.
Statement (iii) is against the statement which considers that giving Grade-A to those cricketers who
have retired from test cricket is not good for the game.
Q26.
Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
There are eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H of the same family. F, D and E are the only
females’ members. D, who is married to B, is the second youngest member. Both H and C, are E’s
maternal uncle. A, who is the only child of G, has three kids. All the females belong to a di erent
generation. F has only one child.
How is A related to E, if it is given that E is the only unmarried female and F is the oldest member
in the family? (1 Mark)
A. Maternal Grandfather
B. Sister
C. Mother
D. Grandmother
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Maternal Grandfather 
Solution
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Q27.
Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
There are eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H of the same family. F, D and E are the only
females’ members. D, who is married to B, is the second youngest member. Both H and C, are E’s
maternal uncle. A, who is the only child of G, has three kids. All the females belong to a di erent
generation. F has only one child.
How many persons are older than A’s son in law, if it is given that E is the only unmarried female
and F is the oldest member in the family? (1 Mark)
A. Three
B. Two
C. One
D. More than three
E. Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: E. Cannot be determined 
Solution
Q28.
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Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six persons i.e. L, K, N, O, P and Q like di erent colours viz; Red, Brown, Pink, Black, Orange and
Blue, but not necessarily in the same order. Also they sit in di erent cabins in the o ce. Di erent
cabins are allotted to them among 1 to 6 to each of these six persons. Each of the above person
was born in a di erent years among 1977, 1978, 1981, 1982, 1988 and 1989, but not necessarily in
the same order.
N was born in 1981. N works in an odd numbered cabin. K works in cabin 2. The person who likes
Red colour was born in a year which is immediately after the person who likes Brown colour. P
works in cabin 1. Q was born just after the person who likes Blue colour and Q works in cabin 6. N
and O do not like Red, Orange and Blue colours. The person who likes Black colour was born in
1988. The person who likes Pink is youngest person among all of them. L works in an even
numbered cabin and likes Pink colour. Neither the person, who likes Blue colour nor person, who
likes Orange colour is allotted cabin 2.
Who among the following person likes Orange colour? (1 Mark)

A. K
B. P
C. Q
D. None of these
E. O
Correct Answer: C. Q 
Solution
N was born in 1981. K works in cabin 2. P works in cabin 1. L works in an even numbered cabin
and likes Pink colour. The person who likes Pink is youngest person among all of them. N works in
an odd numbered cabin. Q works in cabin 6. From the above conditions it is clear that L works in
cabin 2 and was born in 1989.
Q was born just after the person who likes Blue color. N and O do not like Red, Orange and Blue
colours. Neither the person, who likes Blue colour nor person, who likes Orange colour is allotted
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cabin 2. The person who likes Black colour was born in 1988. So only person left who was born in
1977 will be P.
The person who likes Red colour was born in a year which is immediately after the person who
likes Brown color. So, only possibility is N likes Brown color and K likes Red color, O likes black
color and Q likes Orange colour. Also it is clear that K was born in 1982 and O was born in 1988.
Q29.
the same order.
In which of the following year was the person born who likes Blue colour? (1 Mark)
A. 1982
B. 1978
C. 1977
D. 1981
E. None of these
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Correct Answer: C. 1977 
Solution
1977 will be P.
Q30.
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the same order.
In which of the following cabin does O work? (1 Mark)

A. 6
B. 5
C. 3
E. 2
Correct Answer: D. Can’t be determined 
Solution
1977 will be P.
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Q31.
the same order.
Which of the following combination is de nitely correct? (1 Mark)

A. P- 1- Blue- 1988
B. Q- 4- brown-1978
C. N-5- Black- 1988
D. K-2-Red- 1982
E. O- 3- Black- 1988
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Correct Answer: D. K-2-Red- 1982 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
1977 will be P.
Q32.
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the same order.
Who among the following person works in Cabin 5? (1 Mark)

A. K
B. N
C. O
D. P
E. Can’t be determined
Correct Answer: E. Can’t be determined 
Solution
1977 will be P.
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Q33.
the same order.
Who among the following person was born in 1981? (1 Mark)

A. O
B. N
C. P
D. K
E. None of these
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Correct Answer: B. N https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
1977 will be P.
Q34.
Multiprogramming systems _________? (1 Mark)
A. Are easier to develop than single programming systems
B. Execute each job faster
C. Execute more jobs in the same time
D. Are used only on large main frame computers for more join
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Execute more jobs in the same time 
Solution
Multiprogramming refers to having multiple (programs, processes, tasks, threads) running at the
same time. This term is used in modern operating systems when multiple tasks share a common
processing resource (e.g., CPU and Memory).
Q35.
Statement-
Pakistan on Thursday alleged that Indian security forces are using "ammunition which contains
chemical agents" in Jammu and Kashmir, reported Pakistani media.
Which of the following negates the above statement?
(i) The report came from the local media channel which is known to be biased against Indian Army.
(ii) Dead bodies of Kashmiri youth were found in the debris of ve houses with nose masks on
their heads.
(iii) Indian Army is known to use water cannon against the stone palters. (2 Mark)
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
D. Only (iii)
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Only (i) 
Solution
In this question, we have to choose an option which negates the report which accuses Indian Army
of using chemical weapons in the attack.
Statement (i) raises doubts over the media report and therefore negates the statement.
Statement (ii) substantiates the statements by giving further evidence to support the statement.
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Statement (iii) is irrelevant as water cannons are not a chemical weapon.
Q36.
Statement:-
India's foreign ministry has denied reports that China had "cancelled" a meeting between
President Xi Jinping and Prime Minister Narendra Modi on the sidelines of the G20 summit in
Hamburg.
Which of the following abrogates the above statement?
(i) Spokesman Gopal Baglay told reporters that a meeting with Mr Xi had never been on Mr. Modi's
agenda.
(ii) Last meeting between Mr. Xi and Mr. Modi was very fruitful to both countries.
(iii) Troops have been facing extreme temperatures along one stretch of India and China's shared
border along the Himalayas. (2 Mark)
A. Only (i)
B. Only (ii)
D. Only (i) and (iii)
E. None of these
Solution
In this question, we have to choose an option which negates the given statement.
Statement (i) supports the statement as it says that there was no plan of such a meeting which
rules out the possibility of it being cancelled.
Statement (ii) is irrelevant to the question as it talks about the past.
Statement (iii) is also irrelevant to the question as troops deputed at the border areas facing
extreme temperatures does not in any way a ect the meeting.
Q37.
Read the following instructions carefully and answer the given questions.
If a person ‘Mahesh’ walks 15 meter towards south directions from point A to point B, then turn
towards east, walks 7 meter and reached point C again turn towards north direction, walks 5
meter and reached point D. Another person ‘Adarsh’, who stand on point E, which is 15 meter west
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of point D. Point Q is north of point E.
Mahesh’s last position is in which direction with respect to the point Q? (1 Mark)
A. North-east
B. Can’t be determined
C. East
D. South-east
E. South-west
Correct Answer: D. South-east 
Solution
Q38.
Read the following instructions carefully and answer the given questions.
If a person ‘Mahesh’ walks 15 meter towards south directions from point A to point B, then turn
towards east, walks 7 meter and reached point C again turn towards north direction, walks 5
meter and reached point D. Another person ‘Adarsh’, who stand on point E, which is 15 meter west
of point D. Point Q is north of point E.
If Point P, Q, E are in a straight line and Point P is south-west of point B. And shortest distance
between point E and point P is 11 meter, then what is the shortest distance between point B to
point P? (1 Mark)
A. 2√5 meter
B. 10 meter
C. 20 meter
E. None of these for more join
Correct Answer: B. 10 meter 
Solution
Q39.
Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V like seven di erent cities of world, viz. Paris, Dubai, Rome,
Durban, New york, London, and Singapore but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them is
married to a di erent girl, viz. K, B, O, M, L, N, and A on di erent days of same week from Monday
to Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order.
L is married on Friday. Q likes New York. The one, who is married to T, is married just next day
after M is married. The one who is married to A, likes either Singapore or New york. U is not
married to K and L. R is married on Monday. There is a gap of one day between the day of
marriage of the one who likes Singapore and the day of marriage of B. P is married to O. V does
not like London. Q is married neither to K nor A. S likes Rome. R likes Dubai and is married to M. T
and U do not like Durban. The one, who likes Durban, is married to B on the day immediately
before the day on which the one who likes New York is married. Neither L nor K is married to S.
The one, who is married to K, likes London. There is a gap of two days between the days when O is
married and V is married. S is married on the day immediately after the day when K is married.
The one who is married on Saturday, likes which of the following city? (1 Mark)
A. Paris for more join
B. New York https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. Dubai
D. Singapore
E. Can’t be determined
Correct Answer: D. Singapore 

Solution
Q likes New York. The one, who is married to T, is married just next day after M is married. . U is
not married to K and L. R is married on Monday. P is married to O. V does not like London. Q is
married neither to K nor A. S likes Rome. R likes Dubai and is married to M. T and U do not like
Durban. Neither L nor K is married to S. The one, who is married to K, likes London. So, there is
only place left for K as K is married to T.
S is married on the day immediately after the day when K is married. There is a gap of two days
between the days when O is married and V is married. L is married on Friday. There is a gap of one
day between the day of marriage of the one who likes Singapore and the day of marriage of B. The
one, who likes Durban, is married to B on the day immediately before the day on which the one
who likes New York is married. The one who is married to A, likes either Singapore or New york.
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Q40.
The person who is married to O likes which city? (1 Mark)

A. Durban
B. Rome
C. Paris
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Paris 
Solution
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Q41.
Which of the following combinations is false? (1 Mark)

A. Q – New York – L- Friday
B. U – Singapore – A- Saturday
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C. V – Durban – B- Thursday
D. S-Rome- M- Wednesday https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. All are true
Correct Answer: D. S-Rome- M- Wednesday 
Solution
Q42.
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Which of the following girl is married on Tuesday? (1 Mark)

A. T
B. S
C. P
D. L
E. None of these
Solution
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Q43.
Which of the following girl is married to P? (1 Mark)

A. A
B. O
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C. L
D. B https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. M
Correct Answer: B. O 
Solution
Q44.
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Statement-
The lynching of a police o https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
cer DSP Ayub Pandith outside the Jama Masjid in downtown Srinagar
on Friday triggered widespread condemnation. Srinagar's Deputy Superintendent of Police (DSP)
Ayyub Pandith was lynched by an irate mob after he allegedly opened re at a group of people
who caught him clicking pictures near a mosque in downtown area of Srinagar.
Which of the course of action should be followed?
(I)Police and security guards should run away after they found the mob too large to be handled.
(II)The authorities should restrict the movement of people in particular areas of the city as a
precautionary measure.
(III)It should be announced to maintain law and order and some kind of action plan should be
prepared to stop all these mishappenings. (2 Mark)
A. Only II
B. Only III and I
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and II
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: C. Only II and III 
Solution
For I-This course of action should not be followed as it is the duty of police and security guards to
handle the crowd in an appropriate manner. So it should not be followed.
For II-This course of action should be followed to restrict movement of people in some particular
areas until the situation will come under control.
For III-This course of action should also be followed as it is important to maintain law and order in
such situations and a plan of action should also be made to face such problems.
Q45.
Statement-
Aviation ministry of India has sent a notice to private airlines titled “protocol to be extended to
VIPs in private airlines”. The ministry of civil aviation (MoCA) has called all private airlines to discuss
the "protocol" they should extend to VIPs who made headlines for their alleged misbehaviour with
airline sta .
Which of the following substantiates the given statement?

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(I)American Airlines buys stake in China Southern Airlines .American and China Southern Airlines
will expand commercial cooperation, possibly in sales, airport facilities and code-sharing.
(II)Aviation authorities of India seem to be working on a new protocol to be applicable to private
airlines.
(III)After a two-week-ban, the government had directed an unwilling Air India and private airlines
to lift the restriction from the MP Ravindra Gaikwad. (2 Mark)
A. Only I and II
B. Only III and I
C. Only II and III
D. Only II
Correct Answer: D. Only II 
Solution
In the above question we have to nd which statement supports the given statement.
For I-This statement is false as it discusses about the deal between American and China Southern
Airlines which is not related to the given statement because the given statement is about the
notice that has been sent to the private airlines by the government of India.
For II-This statement substantiates the given statement because it describes about the new
protocol that has been discussed in the notice given by the aviation authority to the private
airlines in the given statement.
For III-This statement is irrelevant as it discusses about the lifting of ban from MP Gaikwad which is
not related to the given statement.
Q46.
A hemispherical bowl is lled with hot water to the brim. The contents of the bowl are transferred
into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height.
If diameter of the bowl is the same as that of the cylindrical vessel, then the volume of the hot
water in the cylindrical vessel is (1marks)
A. 60% of the cylindrical vessel
B. 80% of the cylindrical vessel
C. 100% of the cylindrical vessel
D. 50% of the cylindrical vessel
E. none of these
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Correct Answer: C. 100% of the cylindrical vessel 
Solution
Q47.
A hemispherical bowl is lled with hot water to the brim. The contents of the bowl are transferred
into a cylindrical vessel whose radius is 50% more than its height.
This hemispherical bowl is joined at one end of the cylindrical vessel and the solid obtained by
combining these gure is lled completely with water. If a drain pipe is connected to it then pipe
will empty of water is one minute. If radius of the solid is 21 cm, then in what time whole
of the water will be emptied from the solid. Given that diameter of cylinder and hemisphere are
same. (2marks)
A. 72 min
B. 60 min
C. 90 min
D. 75 min
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. 72 min 
Solution
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Q48.
10 men and 12 women can complete a work in 5 days and 2 women and 6 children can complete
the same work in 32 days. The work done by 6 men in one day is equal to the work done by 8
women and 8 children together in one day.
If 8 men and 4 women start another work ‘X’ and they worked for 5 days and completed 1/3 rd of
the work. In how many days the remaining work is done by 8 women 4 children. They all work with
same individual e ciency on work ‘X’ as they work on original work (2marks)
A. 25 days
B. 20 days
C. 23 days
D. 10 days
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 20 days 
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Solution
Q49.
10 men and 12 women can complete a work in 5 days and 2 women and 6 children can complete
the same work in 32 days. The work done by 6 men in one day is equal to the work done by 8
women and 8 children together in one day.
10 men start another work ‘Y’ and completed that work in certain days. How many women and
children should be assigned to do the same work in same number of days as 10 men take. Given
that number of children working is double of the number of women they all work with same
individual e ciency on work ‘Y’ as they work on original work (2marks)
A. 4 women, 8 child
B. 5 women, 10 child
C. 15 women, 30 child
D. 10 women, 20 child
E. None of these
Your Answer: Not Attempted for more join
Correct Answer: D. 10 women, 20 child 
Solution
Q50.
Given below is the line graph which shows the number of days taken by 5 machines A, B, C, D and
E to complete a certain work.
Table shows the ratio of e ciency of machine D to the e ciency of 3 man, 5 women and 8
children in completing the same work.
Initially machine A and E worked for 3 days on the work and then both left the work. Then one
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man and one women joined and they work alternatively to complete the remaining work starting
from man. What is the total time in which whole work will be completed (2marks)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Correct Answer: A. <img

src="https://d37ohbyy0w8xn8.cloudfront.net/1511180742705image9.png"> 
Solution
Q51.
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What will be the ratio of time taken by 1 men, 1 women and a child in completing the work
individually (1marks)
A. 3 : 4 : 12
B. 6 : 5 : 24
C. 5 : 6 : 22
D. 6 : 8 : 21
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 6 : 5 : 24 
Solution
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Q52.
If ratio of e ciency of the given three men is di erent and is in the ratio 5 : 4 : 1 then, number of
days by least e cient man in completing the work alone is what percent more or less than
number of days taken by machine A in completing the work. (2marks)
A. 140%
B. 80%
C. 125%
D. 150%
E. 90%
Correct Answer: D. 150% 
Solution
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Q53.
A sum is divided between A and B in the ratio of 1 : 2. A purchased a car from his part, which
depreciates per annum and B deposited his amount in a bank, which pays him 20% interest
per annum compounded annually. By what percentage will the total sum of money increase after
two years due to this investment pattern (approximately)? (2marks)
A. 18%
B. 20%
C. 22%
D. 16%
E. 14%
Correct Answer: B. 20% 
Solution
Q54.
Calculate quantity I and Quantity II on the basis of the given information then compare them and
answer the following questions accordingly
A bag contains 4 white and 2 black balls. Another certain bag contains 3 white and 5 black balls.
One ball is drawn from each bag. (1marks)
Quantity I: Probability that both are white for more join

Quantity II: Probability that both are black
A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation
Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II 
Solution
Q55.
A boat sails down the river for 10 km and then up the river for 6 km. The speed of the river is 1
km/hr. (1marks)
Quantity I: Speed of boat for the whole trip to take a minimum of 4 hours.
Quantity II: 4 km/hr
Correct Answer: D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
Solution
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Q56.
Quantity I: C’s share, if Rs. 3000 distributed among A, B and C such that A gets 2/3 rd of what B and
C together get and C gets 1/2 of what A and B together get
Quantity II: Aman’s share, if Rs. 2250 is divided among three friends Aman, Bijoy and Chandra in
such a way that 1/6 th of Aman is share, 1/4 thof Bijoys share and 2/5 th of Chandras share are
equal. (1marks)
Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II 
Solution
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Q57. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
A sum of Rs. 9000 was lent under the following repayment scheme for 12 years
8% p.a. for initial 2 years.
9.5% p.a. for next 4 years.
11% p.a. for next 2 years.
12% p.a. for after rst 8 years. (1marks)
Quantity I: Amount at the end of 12 years.

Quantity II: Rs. 20,000
Solution
Q58.
Quantity I — Time taken by Pallavi to complete the work, if Baby and Pallavi can do the same work
in 7 days while Pallavi is times e cient than Baby.
Quantity II — Time taken by Gaurav, Vivek and Babu all together to complete a work, if Gaurav
works half of Vivek while Babu works half of the work done by Gaurav and Vivek together.If the
time taken by Babu alone to complete the same work is 12 days. (2marks)
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C. Quantity I Quantity II https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
D. Quantity I = Quantity II
E. No relation
Solution
Q59.
Four retailers Satish, Veer, Arun and Yogesh buy some bicycle from a wholeseller. Wholeseller
gave di erent discount on marked price to every customer. Discount (in percentage) given to Veer
and Arun together is equal to discount (in percentage) given to Satish and Yogesh together.
Number of bicycle bought by Satish and Veer together is equal to number of bicycle bought by
Arun. Number of bicycle bought by Veer and Arun together is equal to number of bicycle bought
by Yogesh. Discount o ered to Arun is equal to discount o ered to Satish & Veer together and
Yogesh get 10% more discount than Veer. Arun bought 20 number of bicycle and Yogesh buy 24
more bicycle than Satish. Discount o ered to yogesh is equal to total discount Satish and Arun get.
If Satish and Arun both sell 8 bicycle at M.P. then pro t earn by Arun is how much percent more
than pro t earn by Satish if both sell at M.P. (2marks)
A. 100%
B. 150%
C. 200%
D. 250%
E. None of these
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Correct Answer: C. 200% https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Solution
Let Satish, Veer, Arun and Yogesh buy ‘w’, ‘x’, ‘y’ and ‘z’ bicycle respectively.
According to direction given
w + x = y …(i)
x + y = z …(ii)
y = 20 …(iii)
z - w = 24 …(iv)
By solve (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
We get
w = 8, x = 12, y = 20, z = 32
Let Satish, Veer, Arun and Yogesh get ‘a%’, ‘b%’, ‘c%’ and ‘d%’ discount by wholeseller on MP.
According to direction given,
b + c = a + d …(i)
c = a + b …(ii)
d=a+c …(iii)
d – b = 10% …(iv)
By solving (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
We get
a = 5%, b = 10%, c = 15%, d = 20%
Let marked price = 100x
Satish buy 8 bicycle at = 95x
Arun buy 8 bicycle at = 85x
Pro t earn by Satish = 800x – 8 × 95x
= 800x – 760x
= 40x
Pro t earn by Arun = 800x – 8 × 85x
= 800x – 680 x
= 120x
Q60.
Four retailers Satish, Veer, Arun and Yogesh buy some bicycle from a wholeseller. Wholeseller
gave di erent discount on marked price to every customer. Discount (in percentage) given to Veer
and Arun together is equal to discount (in percentage) given to Satish and Yogesh together.
Number of bicycle bought by Satish and Veer together is equal to number of bicycle bought by
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Arun. Number of bicycle bought by Veer and Arun together is equal to number of bicycle bought
by Yogesh. Discount o ered to Arun is https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
equal to discount o ered to Satish & Veer together and
Yogesh get 10% more discount than Veer. Arun bought 20 number of bicycle and Yogesh buy 24
more bicycle than Satish. Discount o ered to yogesh is equal to total discount Satish and Arun get.
Yogesh sell 8 bicycle at 10% discount on marked price, 18 bicycle on 30% discount on marked price
and remaining on Marked price. Find the total pro t or loss earn by Yogesh if marked price is
equals to 20,000? (2marks)
A. 12,000
B. 10,000
C. 8,000
D. 6,000
E. None of these
Solution
Total bicycle Yogesh bought = 32

Let M.P. = 100x
C.P. of 32 bicycle = 32×80x=2560x
S.P. of 8 bicycle at 10% discount = 8 × 90x = 720x
S.P. of 18 bicycle at 30% discount = 18 × 70x = 1260x
S.P. of 6 bicycle on M.P. = 6 × 100x = 600x
Total S.P. = 720x + 1260x + 600x = 2580x
Pro t = 2580x – 2560x = 20x
100x = 20,000
x = 200
Total pro t = 20 × 200 = 4000
Q61.
Given data show the gross revenue , amount for commission, amount for discount and net
revenue of magazine A during 5 month`
Note-
Net revenue=gross revenue-amount allocated for commission-amount allocated for discount and
others.
Some value are missing you have to calculate these values according to queastion.
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In July, if 40% of the gross revenue of magazine was collected from advertisement, what was the
amount of gross revenue collected from advertisement in the july month. Given that Net Revenue
in July is 7/8th of the Net revenue in May. (2marks)
A. 1,48,000
B. 1,44,800
C. 1,44,000
D. 1,72,000
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 1,44,800 
Solution
Q62.
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Note-
others.
In March, if Net Revenue of the magazine was 85% of its gross revenue, what was the amount
allocated for discount and others? (1marks)
A. 23,200
B. 24,200
C. 22,400
D. 22,800
E. 21,600
Correct Answer: D. 22,800 
Solution
Q63.
Note-
others.
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Amount collected for commission in March is what percent more or less than Amount allocated
for commission in April if net revenue in April is 13.75% less than the gross revenue of April
(Approx).
(2marks)
A. 11%
B. 13%
C. 15%
D. 20%
E. 10%
Correct Answer: A. 11% 
Solution
Q64.
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Note-
others.
What is the di erence b/w net revenue of magazine in April and its gross revenue in June, if
commission in April is 10% of its Gross revenue in April month and discount allocated in June
1/11th of the net Revenue of this june. (2marks)
A. 200000
B. 130000
C. 100000
D. 500000
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 130000 
Solution
Q65.
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Note-
others.
In May, the respective ratio of amount allocated for commission and amount allocated for
discount and other was 4 : 3 then, what was the gross revenue of the magazine in May? (1marks)
A. 4,24,000
B. 4,40,000
C. 3,86,000
D. 4,20,000
E. 4,39,000
Correct Answer: D. 4,20,000 
Solution
Q66.
Aman and Chirag decided to meet each other at point B. Aman started from point A at 11 : 00 a.m.
and at the same time Chirag started from point C. They move in opposite direction. Chirag take 1
hour more to reach point B relative to Aman. Speed of Chirag is 20% more than speed of Aman
and distance covered by Aman less than distance covered by Chirag.
At what time Chirag will reach at point B? (2marks)

A. 2 : 30 P.M. for more join
B. 3 : 00 P.M.
C. 3 : 30 P.M.
D. 4 : 00 P.M.
E. 4 : 30 P.M.
Correct Answer: D. 4 : 00 P.M. 
Solution
Let distance covered by Chirag = 3z

Distance covered by Aman = 2z
Speed of Aman = x
Speed of Chirag = 1.2x
Time taken by Aman = 2 × 2 = 4 hr

Time taken by Chirag = 2.5 × 2 = 5 hr
Chirag reach at point B = 11 : 00 + 5 hr = 4 : 00 p.m.
Q67.
Aman and Chirag decided to meet each other at point B. Aman started from point A at 11 : 00 a.m.
and at the same time Chirag started from point C. They move in opposite direction. Chirag take 1
hour more to reach point B relative to Aman. Speed of Chirag is 20% more than speed of Aman
and distance covered by Aman less than distance covered by Chirag.
Aman would slow his speed by how much percent so that time taken by Aman and Chirag is same?
(2marks)
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 15%
D. 20%
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Solution
Q68.
There are two bags, one of which contains 3 black and 4 white balls, while the other contains 4
black and 3 white balls. A dice is cast, if the face 1 or 3 turns up, a ball is taken from the rst bag
and if any other face turns up, a ball is chosen from the second bag.
The probability of choosing a black ball is: (2marks)

A. 11/24
B. 11/21
C. 11/27
D. 11/29
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 11/21 
Solution
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Q69.
There are two bags, one of which contains 3 black and 4 white balls, while the other contains 4
black and 3 white balls. A dice is cast, if the face 1 or 3 turns up, a ball is taken from the rst bag
and if any other face turns up, a ball is chosen from the second bag.
The probability of choosing a white ball is: (2marks)

A. 11/21
B. 11/29
C. 10/21
D. 14/23
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. 10/21 
Solution
Q70.
Given below, are the pie charts showing the distribution of runs scored by Virat Kohli against
di erent teams in ODI matches and test matches. The total runs scored by him in ODI matches is
25500 and in test matches is 11200
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If https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
of the runs scored against Pak in ODI’s and 5/14 of the runs scored against the same team
in test matches are scored in India. Then nd the di erence b/w runs scored against Pak in test
matches outside India and the runs scored against the same team in ODI’s outside India (2marks)
A. 1516
B. 1614
C. 3419
D. 1450
E. None of these
Solution
Q71.
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Total runs scored by Kohli in ODI’s against Pak and WI together are what % less/more than total
runs scored by him in tests against New Zealand and England together?(APPROX.) (2marks)
A. 290%
B. 136%
C. 285%
D. 296%
E. None of these
Solution
Q72.
Average number of runs scored by him in ODI in against all of team excluding other is
approximately how many times the runs scored by him in tests against W.I.? (1marks)
A. 8.09
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B. 7.10 https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. 7.02
D. 6.94
E. 1.4
Correct Answer: E. 1.4 

Solution
Q73.
What is the ratio b/w of the runs scored by Kohli in ODI’s against England and NZ together and
runs scored by him in tests against Pak and Aus together? (2marks)
A. 2805 : 1792
B. 2905 : 1794
C. 2805 : 1699
D. 2875 : 1592
Correct Answer: A. 2805 : 1792 
Solution
Q74.
Run scored by Kohli in Test matches against others is what% of the run scored by Kohli in ODI
against others. (Approx.) (1marks)
A. 40%
B. 35%
C. 30%
D. 45%
E. 50%
Solution
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Q75.
Study the table and answer the following question
Given below is the table shows ve types of laptops sold by two seller (X and Y). Table shows cost
price, Pro t percentage and Market price of the laptops.
Note:
i) Some data is missing, you have to calculate that data if it is required to answer the question.
ii) Selling price may or may not be equal to M.P.
How much percentage C.P. of Lenovo laptop sold by seller X is less than MP of Sony laptop sold by
seller Y. If X gave 10% discount on Lenovo laptop while seller Y gave 20% discount on sony Laptop
on M.P? (approximately) (2marks)
A. 20%
B. 28%
C. 35%
D. 45%
E. 72%
Solution
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Q76.
Note:
If the ratio between S.P. of Lenovo and M.P. of HP sold by Y is 3 : 4 then what is the average of Cost
price of 2 laptops of Lenovo bought by X and 6 laptops of Lenovo bought by Y if X gave 10%
discount of M.P. (2marks)
A. 18,000
B. 19,000
C. 18,500
D. 18,705
E. None of these
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Solution
Q77.
Note:
If the average C.P. of Asus and Sony bought by ‘X’ is 14,000 and average S.P. of Asus and Sony by ‘X’
is 18,000 then what will be the di erence between the C.P of Asus and Sony laptop bought by
seller ‘X’ ? (2marks)
A. 3,500
B. 4,000
C. 4,500
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 4,000 
Solution
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Q78.
The following questions are accompanied by three statements I, II and III. You have to determine
which statement(s) is/are su cient/necessary to answer the questions and mark your answer
accordingly.
How much minimum marks is required to pass the examination? (2marks)
I. Student A secured 38% in the examination and failed by 8 marks. Student B secured 42% marks
in the same examination and got 12 more than the minimum pass marks.
II. Student A secured 35% of the total marks in the examination and failed by 23 marks. If he had
secured 25 more marks his percentage of marks would have been 40%.
III. A student will be declared passed, if he secures 39.60% of the total marks.
A. Any two of them
B. Only I
C. III and either I or II
D. Either I or II
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Either I or II 
Solution
Q79.
accordingly.
What will be the share of R in the pro t earned by V, R and A together? (2marks)
I. They together earned a pro t of Rs. 54000 for a period of 1 yr.

II. R’s investment was 25% less than V’s and 50% more than A’s.
III. The pro t of V is Rs. 4000 more than that of A.
A. Only I and II together
B. II and either I or III only
C. Only II
D. Only II and III together
Correct Answer: A. Only I and II together 
Solution
Q80.
accordingly.
A boat takes 2 hours to travel from point A to B in still water. To nd out the speed upstream,
which of the following information is/are required? (2marks)
A. Distance between point A and B.

B. Time taken to travel downstream from B to A.
C. Speed of the stream of water.
A. All are required
B. Any one pair of A and B, B and C or C and A is su cient.
C. Only A and B
D. Only A and C
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. Any one pair of A and B, B and C or C and A is su cient. 
Solution
Q81.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have
been printed in bold to help you locate them, while answering some of the questions.
The translation in 1947 of Jean-Paul Sartre s lecture, Existentialism is Humanism (1945), ensured
that the term existentialism would enter into the vocabulary of American thought and culture.
Existentialism is notoriously di cult to de ne, especially since it claims a varied philosophical
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background, drawing from Rene Descartes, SorenAabye Kierkegaard, Friedrich Wilhelm Nietzsche,
and Martin Heidegger. Moreover, as Gabriel Marcel and others announced, an existentialist could
believe in God as mightily as a Sartre embraced atheism. Sartre s existentialism, in its boldest
outlines, came to rest on the assertion that man is free, and that in having the freedom to choose,
man encounters anxiety and despair. While existentialism in Sartre s hands often dwelled on the
absurd and problematic nature of human existence, the essential conclusion that the existential
perspective drew was that our existence is of our own making; we are responsible for our fates..
This dreadful freedom was at once exhilarating and frightening.
In his introduction to Sartre s lecture on existentialism, translator Bernard Frechtman remarked
that the American vogue for Sartre s philosophy, which had begun in 1945 was ... one of those
curious phenomena which might, if properly examined, illuminate some peculiarities of culture in
America. Alas, Frechtman failed to develop this insight, although he did suggest that the popular
press in America had focused too much on Sartre s personality and too little on his ideas.
Examination of the initial dissemination of French existentialism in American popular culture
reveals a number of intertwined themes. First, much of the American fascination with French
existentialism was rooted in what French sociologist Pierre Bourdieu calls cultural capital, the
power of certain cultural representations to command prestige and respect. Thus, from the start,
fashion and idea coexisted to de ne the dissemination of French existentialism in America.
Second, American coverage of French existentialists such as Sartric, Simone de Beauvoir, and
Albert Camus exempli ed what historian Daniel Boorstin calls the predominance of the celebrity in
modern American culture. The popular reception of existentialism in America was as much about
the image of the intellectual as the content of existentialist ideas. Third, Sartre and other
existentialists were portrayed in American popular culture as exemplary of an erratic left-bank
bohemianism, an image that t poorly with post-war celebrations of the American intellectual as a
sober minded, optimistic, and respectable citizen. By popularising French existentialists as
celebrities and associating their pessimistic philosophy with the trauma France had experienced in
World War II, the popular press undermined their reception by the American intellectual
community. Many considered existentialism a passing vogue, not centrally applicable to the life of
the mind in America. Thus, the cultural politics for the dissemination of existentialism in America
became complex. marked by tensions in control of the cultural capital associated with French
culture and the image of the intellectual. It was nearly 20 years before existentialism was accepted
as a viable philosophy relevant to the modern American intellectual community.
Americans in the 1940s highly valued French ideas, art, and fashion, less for any essential quality
than for the prestige that came with their French label. These perceptions were satirised in two
cartoons that ran in the late 1940s in the New Yorker, which apotheosised a certain popular,
middlebrow style in America. In one cartoon, a rather dishevelled street vendor selling ties at 25
cents each looks askance at his well-dressed competitor who is able to sell the same items,
elegantly called cravats, at one dollar apiece. Another cartoon shows a doughty group of women,
one of whom exclaims: I know what! Let s play OldFashioned before we start talking French . The
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allure of France, of things French in American culture, must not be underestimated as a continuing
theme in accounts of the popularity of existentialism and of existential thinkers, and existential
thinkers consciously played on this fascination.
Before the Second World War in Europe had ended, before the atomic bomb had forever scarred
the physical and mental landscape of modern men and women, the existential gure and ideas of
Jean-Paul Sartre had alighted on American shores. Sartre was determined to become an in uential
gure in both Europe and the United States. In Paris Alive, translated by Lincoln Kirstein, Sartre
introduced himself to Americans. In a note to the essay, the editors of the magazine characterised
Sartre, incorrectly, as one of the military leaders of the French resistance during the war. Although
Sartre did not refer to himself as a leader, he universalised his discussion of the psychological
impact of German occupation upon the French by pronouncing: Never were we freer than under
the German occupation. With this strange, apparently contradictory observation about the nature
of freedom, Sartre began to communicate existentialist ideas without naming them formally to his
American audience. In the essay, Sartre also touched upon themes that would later become
associated with the essentials of an existentialist perspective: authenticity, choice, the presence of
death, loneliness, responsibility, and the notion that in his freedom in choosing himself, he [man]
chose the freedom of all.
Major introductions to existentialism appeared in American magazines between 1945 and 1948.
The dissemination of existentialist ideas and personalities in the popular press was more than a
story being narrated upon the inert intellectual bodies of Sartre, Beauvoir, Camus, and
existentialism. As Anna Boschetti has noted, Sartre and his followers had carefully orchestrated
their reception in order to capture the French intellectual eld, thus assuring, albeit brie y, that
existentialism would dominate. Sartre and Beauvoir attempted to in uence the reception of their
philosophical perspective on the American intellectual eld as well.
Why does the author say that the term Existentialism is notoriously di cult to de ne?
1. It has a varied background

2. An existentialist could believe in God
3. It draws from many thinkers (1.5 Mark)
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. Only 2
Correct Answer: C. 1, 2 and 3 

Refer the second sentence of the rst passage, “Existentialism is notoriously di cult to de ne,
especially since it claims a varied philosophical background, drawing from Rene Descartes,
SorenAabye Kierkegaard, Friedrich Wilhelm Nietzsche, and Martin Heidegger.”
Q82.
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Which of the following statement is true? (1.5 Mark)

A. An existentialist believes in God
B. Existentialism originated in France
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C. Existentialists were against freedom as they thought it was dreadful
D. Existentialism was not accepted by the Americans
Correct Answer: B. Existentialism originated in France 
Solution
Sartre the propounder of the concept was French.
Q83.
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The main point that the author makes in the third paragraph is that: (1.5 Mark)
A. France was the cultural capital of the world
B. The existentialists were considered as erratic, left- bank bohemians .
C. The portrayal in the media of existentialism created misunderstandings about intellectuals
D. Existentialism was not accepted as a philosophy for 20 years
Correct Answer: C. The portrayal in the media of existentialism created misunderstandings about
intellectuals 
Solution
The third paragraph dwells on the portrayal of existentialists’ image in America.
Q84.
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fashion and idea coexisted to de ne thehttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
dissemination of French existentialism in America.
chose the freedom of all. for more join
What word would best replace the word apotheosised as used in the passage? (1.5 Mark)
A. hypothesised
B. created
C. encouraged
D. glorify
E. condemn
Correct Answer: D. glorify 
Solution
Apotheosise means elevate to, or as if to, the rank of a god; idolize and glorify means describe or
represent as admirable, especially unjusti ably. Hence the correct choice is (d)
Q85.
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It can be concluded from the passage that (1.5 Mark)

A. the philosophers held the American press in disdain
B. the philosophers did not bother about what was written about them in the press
C. the philosophers were satirised in cartoons
D. the philosophers used the press to promote themselves
Correct Answer: D. the philosophers used the press to promote themselves 
Solution
Refer the last two sentences of the passage.
Q86.
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What is the best de nition of existentialism that can be inferred from the passage? (1.5 Mark)
A. Man is what he makes himself and is also responsible for what he makes of himself
B. To exist is to be
C. Man is free but the freedom to choose causes him anxiety
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A. Man is what he makes himself and is also responsible for what he makes of
himself 
Solution
Refer the second-last sentence of the rst paragraph.
Q87.
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Existentialism is notoriously di cult to https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
de ne, especially since it claims a varied philosophical
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What would the best title for the passage? (1.5 Mark)
A. Existentialism
B. The Impact of Existentialism on American Culture
C. The French existentialist philosophers
D. How the Press Created Existentialism
Correct Answer: B. The Impact of Existentialism on American Culture 
Solution
Option (b) is the best title for the passage.
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Q88.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are
given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Pure love of learning, of course, was a less compelling motive for those who became educated for
careers other than teaching. Students of law in particular had a reputation for being materialistic
careerists in an age when law was becoming known as “the lucrative science” and its successful
practice the best means for rapid advancement in the government of both church and state.
Medicine too had its pro t-making attractions. Those who did not go on to law or medicine could,
if they had been well trained in the arts, gain positions at royal courts or rise in the clergy.
Eloquent testimony to the pro t motive behind much of twelfth-century education was the lament
of a student of Abelard around 1150 that “Christians educate their sons. ..for gain, in order that
the one brother, if he be a clerk, may help his father and mother and his other brothers, saying
that a clerk will have no heir and whatever he has will be ours and the other brothers.” With the
opening of positions in law, government, and the church, education became a means for
advancement not only in income but also in status. Most who were educated were wealthy, but in
the twelfth century, more often than before, many were not and were able to rise through the
ranks by means of their education. The most familiar examples are Thomas Becket, who rose from
a humble background to become chancellor of England and then archbishop of Canterbury, and
John of Salisbury, who was born a “plebeian” but because of his reputation for learning died as
bishop of Chartres.
The instances of Becket and John of Salisbury bring us to the most di cult question concerning
twelfth century education: To what degree was it still a clerical preserve? Despite the fact that
throughout the twelfth century the clergy had a monopoly of instruction, one of the outstanding
medievalists of our day, R. W. Southern, refers with good reason to the institutions sta ed by the
clergy as “secular schools.” How can we make sense out of the paradox that twelfth-century
schools were clerical and yet “secular”?
Let us look at the clerical side rst. Not only were all twelfth-century teachers except professionals
and craftsmen in church orders, but in northern Europe students in schools had clerical status and
looked like priests. Not that all really were priests, but by virtue of being students all were awarded
the legal privileges accorded to the clergy. Furthermore, the large majority of twelfth-century
students, outside of the possible exception of Italy, if not already priests became so after their
studies were nished. For these reasons, the term “cleric” was often used to denote a man who
was literate and the term “layman” one who was illiterate. The English word for cleric, clerk,
continued for a long time to be a synonym for student or for a man who could write, while the
French word „cleric‟ even today has the connotation of intellectual.
Despite all this, twelfth-century education was taking on many secular qualities in its environment,
goals, and curriculum. Student life obviously became more secular when it moved out from the
monasteries into the bustling towns. Most students wandered from town to town in search not
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only of good masters but also of worldly excitement, and as the twelfth century progressed they
found the best of each in Paris. More important than environment was the fact that most
students, even though they entered the clergy, had secular goals. Theology was recognized as the
“queen of the sciences,” but very few went on to it. Instead they used their study of the liberal arts
as a preparation for law, medicine, government service, or advancement in the ecclesiastical
hierarchy.
This being so, the curriculum of the liberal arts became more sophisticated and more divorced
from religion. Teaching was still almost exclusively in Latin, and the rst book most often read was
the Psalter, but further education was no longer similar to that of a choir school. In particular, the
discipline of rhetoric was transformed from a linguistic study into instruction in how to compose
letters and documents; there was a new stress on logic; and in all the liberal arts and philosophy
texts more advanced than those known in the early Middle Ages were introduced.
Along with the rise of logic came the translation of Greek and Arabic philosophical and scienti c
works. Most important was the translation of almost all the writings of Aristotle, as well as his
sophisticated Arabic commentators, which helped to bring about an intellectual revolution based
on Greek rationalism. On a more prosaic level, contact with Arabs resulted in the introduction in
the twelfth century of the Arabic numeral system and the concept of zero. Though most
westerners rst resisted this and made crude jokes about the zero as an ambitious number “that
counts for nothing and yet wants to be counted,” the system steadily made its inroads rst in Italy
and then throughout Europe, thereby vastly simplifying the arts of computation and record
keeping.
According to the passage, twelfth century schools were clerical and yet secular because (1.5 Mark)
A. many teachers were craftsmen and professionals who did not form part of the church.
B. while the students had the legal privileges accorded to the clergy and looked like priests, not all
were really priests.
C. the term “cleric” denoted a literate individual rather than a strict association with the church.
D. though the clergy had a monopoly in education, the environment, objectives and curriculum in
the schools were becoming secular.
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. while the students had the legal privileges accorded to the clergy and looked
like priests, not all were really priests. 
Solution
Refer the second and third sentences of the third paragraph “Not that all really were priests, but
by virtue of being students all were awarded the legal privileges accorded to the clergy.
Furthermore, the large majority of twelfth-century students, outside of the possible exception of
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Italy, if not already priests became so after their studies were nished.”
bishop of Chartres.
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hierarchy.
keeping.
What does the sentence “Christians educate their sons...will be ours and the other brothers”
imply? (1.5 Mark)
A. The Christian family was a close-knit unit in the twelfth century.
B. Christians educated their sons not so much for the love of learning as for material gain.
C. Christians believed very strongly in educating their sons in the Church.
D. The relationship between Christian parents and their sons was exploitative in the twelfth
century.
E. All of the above.
Correct Answer: B. Christians educated their sons not so much for the love of learning as for
material gain. 
Solution
Explained in the rst paragraph “Eloquent testimony to the pro t motive behind much of twelfth-
century education was the lament of a student of Abelard around 1150 that “Christians educate
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their sons. ..for gain, in order that the one brother, if he be a clerk, may help his father and mother
and his other brothers, saying that a clerk will have no heir and whatever he has will be ours and
the other brothers.”
Q90.
bishop of Chartres.
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hierarchy.
keeping.
According to the passage, which of the following is the most noteworthy trend in education in
twelfth century Europe? (1.5 Mark)
A. Secularization of education.
B. Flowering of theology as the queen of the sciences.
C. Wealthy people increasingly turning to education.
D. Rise of the clergy‟s in uence on the curriculum
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: A. Secularization of education. 
Solution
The passage revolves around the theme of Secularization of education.
Q91. for more join
bishop of Chartres.
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hierarchy.
keeping.
According to the author, in the twelfth century, individuals were motivated to get higher education
because it (1 Mark)
A. was a means for material advancement and higher status .
B. gave people with health an opportunity to learn
C. o ered a coveted place for those with a love of learning
D. directly added to the income levels of people.
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. was a means for material advancement and higher status . 
Solution
Refer the fth sentence of the rst paragraph of the passage “Eloquent testimony to the pro t
motive behind much of twelfth-century education was the lament of a student of Abelard around
1150 that “Christians educate their sons. ..for gain, in order that the one brother, if he be a clerk,
may help his father and mother and his other brothers, saying that a clerk will have no heir and
whatever he has will be ours and the other brothers.”
Q92. for more join
bishop of Chartres.
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hierarchy.
keeping.
According to the passage, what led to the secularization of the curriculum of the liberal arts in the
twelfth century? (1 Mark)
A. It was divorced from religion and its in uences.
B. Students used it mainly as a base for studying law and medicine.
C. Teaching could no longer be conducted exclusively in Latin.
D. Arabic was introduced into the curriculum.
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: A. It was divorced from religion and its in uences. 
Solution
Explained in the fourth paragraph “Despite all this, twelfth-century education was taking on many
secular qualities in its environment, goals, and curriculum. Student life obviously became more
secular when it moved out from the monasteries into the bustling towns. “
Q93.
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bishop of Chartres.
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hierarchy.
keeping.
Choose the word/group of words which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words
printed in bold as used in passage.
Prosaic (1 Mark)
A. moored
B. endemic
C. ubiquitous
D. ambiguous
E. vapid
Correct Answer: E. vapid 
Solution
Prosaic means having or using the style or diction of prose as opposed to poetry; lacking
imaginativeness or originality. Hence it has same meaning as vapid.
Q94.
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careers other than teaching. Students of https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
law in particular had a reputation for being materialistic
bishop of Chartres.
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hierarchy.
keeping.
Choose the word/group of words which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word/group of words
Lucrative (1 Mark)
A. dubitable
B. admittedly
C. remunerative
D. awful
E. unequivocally
Correct Answer: C. remunerative 
Solution
Lucrative means producing a great deal of pro t. Hence it has same meaning as remunerative.
Q95.
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bishop of Chartres.
hierarchy.
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keeping.
Choose the word/group of words which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word/group of words
Eloquent (1 Mark)
A. bounty
B. patronage
C. inarticulate
D. solicitude
E. vexation
Correct Answer: C. inarticulate 
Solution
Eloquent means clearly expressing or indicating something. Hence it has opposite meaning as
inarticulate.
Vexation means the state of being annoyed, frustrated, or worried.
Solicitude means care or concern for someone or something.
Q96.
Select the phrase/connector (STARTERS) from the given three options which can be used to form a
single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in
the statement sentences.
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(1)India was partitioned on religious lines.
(2)People on both sides of the border look at the treatment of people of their own religion in their
neighbouring countries.
(I)Since India was partitioned…

(II)On account of the fact that India…
(III)Seeing that India was partitioned… (1 Mark)
A. Only (I) is correct
B. Only (III) is correct
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct
D. Both (I) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: E. All are correct 
Solution
All the three starters are correct enough to form three logical sentences without altering the
meaning of the actual sentence.
(I)Since India was partitioned on religious lines, people on both sides of the border look at the
treatment of people of their own religion in their neighbouring countries.
(II)On account of the fact that India was partitioned on religious lines, people on both sides of the
border look at the treatment of people of their own religion in their neighbouring countries.
(III)Seeing that India was partitioned on religious lines, people on both sides of the border look at
the treatment of people of their own religion in their neighbouring countries.
Q97.
(1)We in India are quite justi ably talking in terms of women’s empowerment.
(2)It is pertinent to recall the achievements of the distinguished woman scientist Marie Curie, the
rst to get the world’s most prestigious recognition, the Nobel Prize in two subjects viz. Physics
and Chemistry.
(I)While we in India are quite…

(II)To recall the achievements of…
(III)Marie Curie was the rst to get… (1 Mark)
A. Only (I) is correct for more join
B. Only (II) is correct
C. Both (I) and (II) are correct https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: A. Only (I) is correct 
Solution
Only the rst starter can be used to frame a logical and comprehensive sentence connecting both
the sentences given as the question. The other two starters are incorrect owing to their varying
meanings.
(I)While we in India are quite justi ably talking in terms of women’s empowerment, it is pertinent
to recall the achievements of the distinguished woman scientist Marie Curie, the rst to get the
world’s most prestigious recognition, the Nobel prize, in two subjects viz. Physics and Chemistry.
Q98.
(1)Co ey and Spear have pointed out that the caste system is still prevalent among the majority of
the population.
(2)It leads to a situation where no one is willing to clean out the pit latrines that are being built for
fear of losing caste.
(I)Pointing out the caste system…

(II)As Co ey and Spear have pointed…
(III)Although in a situation where no one… (1 Mark)
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: C. Both (I) and (II) are correct 
Solution
Both the starters (I) and (II) can be used to connect the given set of two sentences to form a
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meaningful statement. However, the third starter is incorrect as it would alter the meaning of the
actual sentence. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
(I)Pointing out the caste system that is still prevalent among the majority of the population, Co ey
and Spear feel that it leads to a situation where no one is willing to clean out the pit latrines that
are being built for fear of losing caste.
(II)As Co ey and Spear have pointed out, the caste system that is still prevalent among the
majority of the population leads to a situation where no one is willing to clean out the pit latrines
that are being built for fear of losing caste.
Q99.
(1)The Government has announced a scal stimulus for bank recapitalisation and road-building on
a massive scale.
(2)The Government has recognized the need to revitalise the economy.
(I)Just when the Government announced…

(II)Recognizing the need to revitalize…
(III)Notwithstanding that the Government has… (1 Mark)
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: B. Only (II) is correct 
Solution
Only the second starter can be used to frame a logical and comprehensive sentence connecting
both the sentences given as the question. The other two starters are incorrect owing to their
varying meanings.
(II)Recognizing the need to revitalize the economy, the Government has announced a scal
stimulus for bank recapitalisation and road-building on a massive scale.
Q100.
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(1)The poor villagers have been subjected to gross exploitation as in every other country.
(2)Over the years they have evolved a strategy which has enabled them to survive a variety of
predators.
(I)Though the poor villagers…
(II)Despite being subjected to gross…
(III)As in every other country… (1 Mark)
B. Only (III) is correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: D. Both (I) and (III) are correct 
Solution
Starters (I) and (III) logical sentences without altering the meaning of the actual sentence.
(I)Though the poor villagers have been subjected to gross exploitation as in every other country,
over the years they have evolved a strategy which has enabled them to survive a variety of
predators.
(III)As in every other country, the poor villagers have been subjected to gross exploitation, but over
the years they have evolved a strategy which has enabled them to survive a variety of predators.
Q101.
Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which one sentence has been deleted. From
the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.
Indira Gandhi’s 100th birth anniversary is coming up on 19 November. Her long and eventful stint
as India’s prime minister—barring a three-year gap between 1977 and 1980, she served
continuously from 1966-84—has ensured that a lot of current debates continue to be informed by
her policy choices. But any attempt at a dispassionate analysis of Gandhi’s legacy is immensely
di cult given the polarizing gure that she was. The highs of the 1971 military victory over
Pakistan have to be reconciled with the lows of the Emergency.
________________________________________________________ (1 Mark)
A. The Allahabad high court verdict which nulli ed her election to Parliament was the straw that
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broke the camel’s back.
B. Even Lal Bahadur Shastri—Gandhi’s immediate predecessor—had realized the need for
liberalization to overcome the chronic shortages that the Indian economy was constantly dealing
with.
C. Her various other moves like bank nationalization and Operation Blue Star continue to evoke
strong views.
D. The move was met with a strong domestic backlash.
E. Her centralized political administration increased the frequency and magnitude of, and
therefore the scal costs of handling, regional turbulences.
Correct Answer: C. Her various other moves like bank nationalization and Operation Blue Star
continue to evoke strong views. 
Solution
The given paragraph is about the tenure of Indira Gandhi as India’s Prime Minister. Read the
paragraph carefully, among the given options, there is only sentence (c) which nds some
connection with the paragraph and at the same time it concludes the paragraph in the best
manner, adding meaning to it. Other options are not feasible enough to make the paragraph
complete and conclusive. Hence (c) is the correct choice.
Q102.
What’s been the policy response so far? One of jaw-dropping ine ciency and political bickering.
______________________________________________. On the one hand, paddy farmers in neighbouring
Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh, having harvested the rice, start burning the leftover stubble in
order to prepare the farms for winter sowing. At the same time, as climate scientist Krishna
Achuta Rao writes in a recent article, “Like Los Angeles and Mexico City, Delhiites are cursed by
geography to be prone to a meteorological phenomenon called inversion where warm air rests
above the colder air closer to the ground, preventing it from mixing upwards, thereby trapping all
that we put into it—almost like a lid.” (1 Mark)
A. In Delhi, air pollution is seasonal: with the onset of the winter, two things happen.
B. This is an annual a air, but the policy response has been marked by a complete lack of
preparedness.
C. Delhiites are a beleaguered lot and a degree of resignation characterizes the popular response
to this health crisis.
D. Yet, pollution masks are now far more ubiquitous than they were a year ago.
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E. That Delhi’s air is among the foulest is well known—it’s close to being declared a hardship
assignment for foreign diplomats. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: A. In Delhi, air pollution is seasonal: with the onset of the winter, two things
happen. 
Solution
The given paragraph is about how air pollution is increasing India’s burden of disease in
accordance with the most vulnerable state of the Indian capital. Read the paragraph carefully, it
can be easily viewed that among the given options, only the sentence (a) forms the correct
substitution to the provided blank space. Other options do not go with the theme of the
paragraph. They alter the meaning of the paragraph. Hence (a) is the correct choice.
Q103.
Despite this evidence, and given the scale of the challenge of delivering quality education for all,
governments have progressively looked to the private sector for support. However, mechanisms
to track the quality of education in private schools have historically tended to be weak or absent,
even in developed countries. _____________________________________________. The report concluded
that “overseeing private schools may be no easier than providing quality schooling” and that
“governments may deem it more straightforward to provide quality education than to regulate a
disparate collection that may not have the same objectives”. (1 Mark)
A. Data for relatively richer countries also shows that systems with low levels of competition have
higher social inclusion and that upward social mobility is higher in government systems.
B. Private schools appear better since they enroll children from relatively advantaged backgrounds
who are able to pay, not because they deliver better quality.
C. The long-term solution lies in strengthening the public education system in its complexity and
ensuring that all of India’s children receive quality education.
D. Building this regulatory capacity requires signi cant nancial and human resource investments.
E. The road to reform is fraught with challenges but the cost of inaction will be much higher.
Correct Answer: D. Building this regulatory capacity requires signi cant nancial and human
resource investments. 

The given paragraph is about the education system in India and the e orts by the government to
upgrade the public education system. Among the given options, only sentence (d) ts perfectly
into the blank space as it follows the sentence prior to the space as well as the one following it. It
brings the continuity into the meaning of the paragraph. Other options are not relevant enough to
bring about a similar meaning to the paragraph. Hence (d) is the correct choice.
Q104.
Redeeming a gift voucher at a neighbourhood store is a familiar transaction; a digital coupon is a

slight tweak. Even new smartphone users—regardless of age or literacy—won’t leave money on
the table at their grocer. Besides, digital payments have already become so simple in India that
small retailers who don’t accept cards can also very easily redeem QR-code-based vouchers.
Alphabet Inc.’s Google has pioneered an audio-QR-based payment mechanism for India that rides
on instant person-to-person or person-to-merchant payments.
___________________________________________________________ (1 Mark)
A. The payday Amazon and its homegrown rival, Flipkart, are waiting for will come after new users’
buying habits change.
B. It’s reasonable to expect that Indians’ familiarity with digital payments will grow more quickly
than their penchant for online shopping.
C. As Ambani rolls out his strategy, expect the current two-way battle between Amazon and
Flipkart to turn into a three-horse race.
D. So long as the discounts come from brands, the cost of such an e-commerce push is also going
to be more manageable than for pure-play digital marketplaces.
E. India has 432 million internet users, but only 60 million online shoppers.
Correct Answer: B. It’s reasonable to expect that Indians’ familiarity with digital payments will grow
more quickly than their penchant for online shopping. 
Solution
The given paragraph is about the digitization of payment methods in India and its subsequent
chances of getting a place in the market in coming days. Read the paragraph carefully, it can be
easily drawn that the only sentence that follows the pattern of the theme of the paragraph is (b). It
adds meaning to the paragraph and at the same time it concludes the paragraph in the most
evident way. Other options, though related to the same subject, are not relevant enough to be the
part of this particular paragraph. Hence (b) is the correct choice.
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Q105.
South India has always been highly dependent on the monsoon, which is uncertain and risky. Over
the past few decades, the south-west monsoon has become unpredictable and has reduced in
intensity. What does this mean for the Cauvery? _______________________________________________. In
good years, when the river receives enough rainfall, there is no discord between the two States. In
bad years, like the one we are facing now, it turns into a gargantuan political crisis. Unfortunately,
the number of bad years is only going to worsen. (1 Mark)
A. We need to pay attention to land use at the regional level.
B. Despite warnings from environmentalist groups and farmer coalitions, and interventions by the
court, this practice continues unchecked.
C. Rapid urbanisation has converted fertile agriculture, forests and wetlands into concreted areas
that are unable to retain rainwater or channel them into tributary streams that feed the Cauvery.
D. Siltation in dams and connecting river channels has reached alarming proportions.
E. The amount of water the river receives during the summer rains is becoming increasingly
unreliable.
Correct Answer: E. The amount of water the river receives during the summer rains is becoming
increasingly unreliable. 
Solution
The paragraph is about the monsoon condition of South India and its impact on Indian rivers like
Cauvery. There is an indication in the sentence prior to the blank space that asks a question
regarding the river Cauvery. It clearly states that among the given options, only sentence (e) ts
perfectly into the space provided as it follows the other sentences in a proper order to bring out
an appropriate meaning to the paragraph. Other options are irrelevant to this particular
paragraph. Hence (e) is the correct choice.
Q106.
There are four sentences given in the following question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are
grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing the best possible alternative among the
ve options given below each question. If all sentences are correct, choose (E) as your answer.
(I)A champion of participatory democracy and grassroots development, Gandhi believed that
making villages self-contained and sustainable was the rst step towards empowering India.
(II)Every individual represent an end-in itself, and the curtailment of freedom of a minority of
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individuals leads to a qualitative deterioration of the freedom of the whole society.
(III)Several scienti c studies have suggested that the impact of some of the air pollutants may be
reduced by the intake of some dietary components such as antioxidants and anti-in ammatory
constituents.
(IV)Our traditional ayurvedic texts, such as Sushrata Samhita, states that jaggery puri es blood and
has been prescribed for common health problems like cough, indigestion, constipation.
(1 Mark)
B. Only (IV) is correct
C. Both (I) and (III) are correct
D. Only (I), (III) and (IV) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: C. Both (I) and (III) are correct 
Solution
There are some grammatical errors in the sentences (II) and (IV). In the case of sentence (II), the
plural verb “ represent ” should be replaced by its singular form “ represents ” as the subject it
refers is in singular form [“ Every individual”]. Moreover, when “ every ” refers to the subject of the
clause, we use a singular verb . In the case of sentence (IV), there is a similar case of mistake, the
singular verb “ states ” should be replaced by its plural form “ state ” as the subject it refers is in
plural form [“ our traditional ayurvedic texts”]. The other two sentences are grammatically correct.
Hence option (c) is the correct choice.
Q107.
The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts which contain
grammatical errors in one or more than one part of the sentence, as speci ed in bold in each part.
If there is an error in any part of the sentence, nd the correct alternatives to replace those parts
from the three options given below each question to make the sentence grammatically correct. If
the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction, choose (E), i.e., “No
correction required” as your answer.
A cycle-rickshaw may appear less o ensive than the hand-drawn rickshaws (I)/that has been still
plying to some urban centers, but there is a stigma attached to (II)/both - they feature one person
toiling to, literally, give others a ride. (III)
(I)could appear to be lesser o ensive

(II)still ply in some urban centers
(III)giving a ride to others (1 Mark) for more join
A. Only (I)
B. Only (II) https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
C. Both (I) and (III)
D. All (I), (II) and (III)
E. No correction required
Correct Answer: B. Only (II) 

Solution
There is a grammatical error in the second part of the sentence; the phrase “ has been still plying
to some urban centers ” should be replaced by “ still ply in some urban centers ” as it is the correct
expression in the context of the sentence structure. The other two parts of the sentence are
grammatically and contextually correct and do not require any correction. Hence option (b) is the
correct choice.
Q108.
In the question given below, there are four sentences. Choose the sentence which is grammatically
incorrect as your answer. If all the given sentences are grammatically correct and do not require
any correction, choose (E) i.e. “All are correct” as your answer. (1 Mark)
A. Across the world, pollution has been associated with increased risk of respiratory and
cardiovascular illnesses and other diseases, including cancer and auto-immune disorders.
B. Gravely concerned over growing terrorism, India and France decided to enhance counter- terror
cooperation, and asked the international community to oppose those nancing, sheltering and
providing safe havens to terrorists.
C. China may consider alternative routes through Jammu and Kashmir to address India’s concerns
regarding the China Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) that passes through Pakistan-occupied
Kashmir (PoK).
D. China, along with Russia, have repeatedly expressed opposition to the THAAD deployment,
saying it will do nothing to help ease tension with North Korea.
E. All are correct.
Correct Answer: D. China, along with Russia, have repeatedly expressed opposition to the THAAD
deployment, saying it will do nothing to help ease tension with North Korea. 
Solution
There is a grammatical error in the sentence (d); the plural verb “ have ” should be replaced by its
singular form “ has ” as the subject in this case is singular [“ China”]. The subject is " China ." That is
the entire subject. " Along with Russia " is a prepositional phrase. A prepositional phrase is never a
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part of the subject. It does not a ect the count of the subject. Whatever is said in a prepositional
phrase, no matter how plural it may be,https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
does not make a singular subject plural. The only thing
that can make an otherwise singular subject plural is the conjunction " and ." If the word " and "
were used instead of " along with ," then the verb would be " have ." Other sentences are
grammatically correct. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.
Q109.
There are three sentences given in the following question. Find the sentence(s) which is/are
grammatically correct and mark your answer choosing the best possible alternative among the
ve options given below each question. If all the sentences are correct, choose (E) as your answer.
(I)As worrisome as the AMR crisis is the risk of disrupting the ecological system within our bodies
due to non-judicious uses of antimicrobials.
(II)The most outstanding feature of life’s history is the constant domination of microbes as they are
capable of developing new strategies every now and then for their survival.
(III)The Modi government has been patting itself on the back for its e orts to curb black money
asserting that demonetization has the backing of people who are willing to go through the pains of
the measure. (1 Mark)
C. Both (I) and (III) are correct
D. Both (II) and (III) are correct
E. All are correct
Correct Answer: E. All are correct 
Solution
All the three sentences are grammatically correct and do not require any correction. Hence option
(e) is the correct choice.
Q110.
Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the
questions that follow.
If the sentence (D), “With the Gujarat State elections barely a few weeks away, the debate on the
Indian economy has become increasingly polarised.” is the rst sentence of the paragraph, then
what is the sequence of other sentences after rearrangement?
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(A)Both policies, it is asserted, are guaranteed to yield long-term bene ts, unmindful of large-scale
hardships, loss of livelihoods, closure ofhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
small and medium enterprises and slowdown of
agriculture.
(B)While the o cial view of demonetisation unleashed in November 2016 elevates it to a moral
and ethical imperative, the chaos caused by the goods and services tax (GST) launched on July 1,
2017, is dismissed as a short-run transitional hiccup.
(C)Lack of robust evidence is as much a problem for the o cial proponents of these policies as it is
for the critics.
(D)With the Gujarat State elections barely a few weeks away, the debate on the Indian economy
has become increasingly polarised.
(E)Critics of course reject these claims lock, stock and barrel.
(F)Hence the debate continues unabated with frequent hostile overtones. (1 Mark)
A. FBECA
B. AEBCF
C. CABEF
D. BAECF
E. AEBFC
Correct Answer: D. BAECF 
Solution
If (D) is the rst sentence, the correct sequence of other sentences after rearrangement should be
BAECF. The sentences (B) and (A) make a clear connection as the mention of demonitisation and
GST in the sentence (B) can be followed up with the mention of “ Both policies” in the sentence (A).
The sentence (F) clearly suggests that it should be the concluding sentence. Thus sentences in the
sequence of DBAECF form a coherent paragraph which is about whether demonetisation and the
GST have aggravated income inequality. Hence option (d) is the correct choice.
Q111.
Five statements are given below, labelled a, b, c, d and e. Among these, four statements are in
logical order and form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the option that does
not t into the theme of the paragraph. (1 Mark)
A. Consequently, research investment by private companies remained at a meagre 3-4% of
revenue against the international norm of 10-12%.
B. Forty- ve Indian seed companies got a licence to use the technology and participated in the
explosion in the Indian cotton market.
C. Sadly, the policies of the Central and state governments fell short of the required visionary
approach.
D. The genetically modi ed (GM) seeds technology has disrupted the existing industry structure in
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India.
E. These changes led to a temporary monopoly for the technology provider but the policy
framework had the opportunity to help society reap long-term economic bene t by enabling the
industry to absorb and exploit the new technology.
Correct Answer: A. Consequently, research investment by private companies remained at a

meagre 3-4% of revenue against the international norm of 10-12%. 
Solution
Sentences dbec form a coherent paragraph as they are talking about the merits and demerits of
new technology (Genetically modi ed seeds technology). Sentence (a) is giving the statistics of
investment by private companies making it unrelated to other sentences. Hence option (a) is the
correct choice.
Q112.
A. Her long and eventful stint as India’s prime minister—barring a three-year gap between 1977
and 1980, she served continuously from 1966-84—has ensured that a lot of current debates
continue to be informed by her policy choices.
B. The reforms in the 1980s also did little to increase the government’s ability to raise revenue.
C. The highs of the 1971 military victory over Pakistan have to be reconciled with the lows of the
Emergency.
D. Indira Gandhi’s 100th birth anniversary is coming up on 19 November.
E. But any attempt at a dispassionate analysis of Gandhi’s legacy is immensely di cult given the
polarizing gure that she was.
Correct Answer: B. The reforms in the 1980s also did little to increase the government’s ability to
raise revenue. 
Solution
Reading the sentences we can conclude that it revolves around the theme of Analysis of Indira
Gandhi’s legacy as India’s Prime Minister making sentences daec as coherent paragraph while
sentence (b) which is about 1980 reform is not connecting well with the other sentences. Hence
option (b) is the correct choice.
Q113.
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A. Its P2P structure has served as a template for any number of digital businesses since.
B. Sean Parker was just 19 years old when he co-founded Napster in 1999.
C. Parker’s bracingly irreverent 2015 essay on “hacker philanthropy” in The Wall Street Journal
displayed that same audaciousness.
D. The new Co-Impact initiative launched last Wednesday is meant to target precisely that kind of
change.
E. The peer-to-peer (P2P) le-sharing network changed the shape of the global music industry, for
better and for worse.
Correct Answer: D. The new Co-Impact initiative launched last Wednesday is meant to target
precisely that kind of change. 
Solution
Sentences beac are interlinked to each other discussing about the peer-to-peer (P2P) le-sharing
network, co-founded by Sean Parker, serving many purposes while sentence (d) talks about the
launch of Co- Impact initiative, making no connection with other sentences. Hence sentence (d) is
the correct choice.
Q114.
A. The focus should be to strengthen economy-wide competencies, build robust infrastructure,
and ensure functional and speedy administration across states.
B. Any sign of exploitation of cheap labour would turn consumers against products in rich
countries.
C. The WTO may also frown upon some tax concessions and subsidies.
D. Special economic zones failed to take o on any large scale as they did not suit the political
economy.
E. Resources were misdirected and revenues lost, considering that large companies set up shop in
SEZs mainly to milch tax breaks.
Correct Answer: A. The focus should be to strengthen economy-wide competencies, build robust
infrastructure, and ensure functional and speedy administration across states. 
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Going through the sentences, we nd that sentences debc form a coherent paragraph talking
about the reasons behind the failed Special economic zones on any large scale while sentence (a)
is talking about the focus in development across states which fails to connect with other
sentences. Hence option (a) is the correct choice.
Q115.
A. Regular, moderate exercise, including authentic yoga, holds the key.
B. Urban planning must provide for open spaces and facilities for such mass exercise to take
place.
C. Changes in lifestyle and diet can prevent Non communicable diseases.
D. This is more than a personal choice.
E. So, dealing with Non communicable diseases needs novel thinking and innovative responses.
Correct Answer: E. So, dealing with Non communicable diseases needs novel thinking and
innovative responses. 
Solution
We can easily point out that sentences cadb form a coherent paragraph talking about the
prevention of Non communicable diseases while sentence (e) is about requirement to deal with
the Non communicable diseases, making it unrelated to other sentences. Hence option (e) is the
correct choice.
Q116.
Bank of Rajasthan was merged with which private sector bank?
A. ICICI Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. Kotak Mahindra Bank
E. None of the given options is true
Correct Answer: A. ICICI Bank 

Bank of Rajasthan was merged with ICICI Bank in 2010.
Q117.
The Reserve Bank of India has recently constituted a 10-member ‘High-Level Task Force on Public
Credit Registry (PCR) for India’. The committee will be headed by ______________.
A. Sachidanand Tiwari
B. Rajiv Kumar
C. Kirti Kumar
D. Khushwant Sahu
E. Y M Deosthalee
Correct Answer: E. Y M Deosthalee 
Solution
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) formed a high-level task force on public credit registry (PCR) for
India. The task force, chaired by Y M Deosthalee, former CMD of L&T Finance Holdings Ltd will
have nine other members.
Q118.
PSLCs are tradable certi cates issued against priority sector loans of banks. What does meaning of
"Cs" in PSLCs?
A. Cess
B. Cities
C. Census
D. Certi cates
Correct Answer: D. Certi cates 
Solution
PSLCs stands for Priority Sector Lending Certi cates.
Q119.
The 2017 Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences has been awarded to whom for his contributions to
behavioural economics?
A. Joachim Frank
B. Richard H. Thaler
C. Jacques Dubochet
D. C. Barish
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Correct Answer: B. Richard H. Thaler 
Solution
The 2017 Nobel prize in economics was awarded to Richard H. Thaler, an American economist at
the University of Chicago, for his contributions to behavioral economics.
Q120.
Which Bank of India maintains the Principal Accounts of Central as well as State Governments at
its Central Accounts Section?
A. IDBI
B. SBI
C. SIDBI
D. NABARD
E. RBI
Correct Answer: E. RBI 
Solution
RBI has maintained the Principal Accounts of Central as well as State Governments at its Central
Accounts Section.
Q121.
Prasar Bharati has recently launched an online application system for music auditions across all
genres for the All India Radio. Name the present Chairman of Prasar Bharati.
A. Kuldeep Jadhav
B. Om Prakash Mishra
C. Sandeep Kumar
D. A Surya Prakash
E. Kiran Maurya
Correct Answer: D. A Surya Prakash 
Solution
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Prasar Bharati Chairman A Surya Prakash launched an online application system for music
auditions across all genres for the All India Radio (AIR).
Q122.
ECGC Ltd. wholly owned by Government of India, was set up in ______________ with the objective of
promoting exports from the country by providing Credit Risk Insurance and related services for
exports.
A. 1935
B. 1982
C. 1964
D. 1949
E. 1957
Correct Answer: E. 1957 
Solution
ECGC Ltd. (Formerly Export Credit Guarantee Corporation of India Ltd.), wholly owned by
Government of India, was set up in 1957 with the objective of promoting exports from the country
by providing Credit Risk Insurance and related services for exports.
Q123.
Which country is the second-largest crude oil supplier to India after Iraq?
A. Bahrain
B. Kuwait
C. Saudi Arabia
D. Iran
E. None of these
Correct Answer: C. Saudi Arabia 
Solution
Iraq replaced Saudi Arabia as top crude supplier to India in April as re ners moved to boost their
processing margins by purchasing the cheaper Basra Heavy oil grade, ship tracking and Thomson
Reuters trade ow data showed.
Q124.
The World Bank is like a cooperative, made up of --------------- member countries. These member
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countries, or shareholders, are represented by a Board of Governors, who are the ultimate
policymakers at the World Bank. https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
A. 189
B. 193
C. 159
D. 173
E. 187
Correct Answer: A. 189 
Solution
The World Bank is like a cooperative, made up of 189 member countries. These member
countries, or shareholders, are represented by a Board of Governors, who are the ultimate
policymakers at the World Bank.
Q125.
PNB MetLife India Insurance Company Ltd (PNB MetLife) has recently appointed ____________ as a
new Managing Director & Chief Executive O cer of the company.
A. Amrut Sinha
B. Ashish Srivastava
C. Yash Khera
D. Pritam Prabhakar
E. Vikram Narula
Correct Answer: B. Ashish Srivastava 
Solution
PNB MetLife India Insurance has a new MD and CEO in Ashish Srivastava. He will be responsible
for leading all aspects of the business in the country. Prior to this elevation, Srivastava was an
interim CEO at PNB MetLife.
Q126.
NIBM, an autonomous academic institution, is governed by a Board, its highest policy-making
body. Where is the headquartered of NIBM?
A. Nashik, Maharashtra
B. Pune, Maharashtra
C. Mumbai, Maharashtra
D. Kolhapur, Maharashtra
E. Nagpur, Maharashtra
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Your Answer: Not Attempted https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: B. Pune, Maharashtra 
Solution
Pune, Maharashtra is the headquartered of National Institute of Bank Management (NIBM).
Q127.
Reliance Commercial Finance Ltd has signed an agreement with Indian Renewable Energy
Development Agency Ltd (IREDA) for loan of amount ___________.
A. Rs.300 crore
B. Rs.350 crore
C. Rs.375 crore
D. Rs.400 crore
E. Rs.450 crore
Correct Answer: A. Rs.300 crore 
Solution
Reliance Commercial Finance Ltd has signed an agreement with Indian Renewable Energy
Development Agency Ltd (IREDA) for Rs 300 crore loan. In a statement, the company said the
IREDA loan will be used to lend to renewable energy and energy e ciency projects.
Q128.
___________ is an electronic fund transfer system that operates on a Deferred Net Settlement (DNS)
basis which settles transactions in batches.
A. NEFT
B. RTGS
C. NPCI
D. BBPS
E. IMPS
Correct Answer: A. NEFT 
Solution
National Electronics Funds Transfer (NEFT) is an electronic fund transfer system that operates on a
Deferred Net Settlement (DNS) basis which settles transactions in batches.
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Reserve Bank of India (RBI) instructed banks and non-bank entities to make their digital
wallets/prepaid payment instruments (PPIs), interoperable through the Uni ed Payments Interface
(UPI) within how many months?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
E. None of these
Correct Answer: B. 6 months 
Solution
Q130.
The Central O ce of the Reserve Bank was initially established in Calcutta (now Kolkata) but was
permanently moved to Mumbai in-
A. 1949
B. 1937
C. 1943
D. 1945
E. 1934
Solution
The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance with the provisions of
the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The Central O ce of the Reserve Bank was initially
established in Calcutta but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937.
Q131.
The joint training exercise “Mitra Shakti 2017” has started between India and which country?
A. Japan
B. Russia
C. Sri Lanka
D. Myanmar
E. USA
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Correct Answer: C. Sri Lanka 
Solution
Mitra Shakti 2017, a joint exercise between India and Sri Lanka for military co-operation and
interoperability, conducted at the Aundh Military Camp in Pune.
Q132.
A facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow additional amount of overnight
money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). It is called?
A. Repo Rate
B. Reverse Repo Rate
C. Bank Rate
D. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
E. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
Correct Answer: D. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) 
Solution
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is a facility under which scheduled commercial banks can borrow
additional amount of overnight money from the Reserve Bank by dipping into their Statutory
Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
Q133.
India has signed a loan deal of ________ million with Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA)
for a project to upgrade the environment management plan at Alang-Sosiya ship recycling yards.
A. $52 million
B. $76 million
C. $72 million
D. $84 million
E. $88 million
Correct Answer: B. $76 million 
Solution
The government has entered into a USD 76-million loan pact with the Japan International
Cooperation Agency (JICA) for a project at Alang-Sosiya ship recycling yards.
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__________ an asset, including a leased asset, becomes non performing when it ceases to generate
income for the bank.
A. NPA
B. KCC
C. NPV
D. GDP
E. GNP
Correct Answer: A. NPA 
Solution
Non performing Assets (NPA) is an asset, including a leased asset, becomes nonperforming when
it ceases to generate income for the bank.
Q135.
The World Day for Audiovisual Heritage (WDAH) is observed every year on October 27. What was
the theme of 2017 WDAH?
A. Discover, remember and share
B. Archives at Risk: Protect, remember and share
C. It’s your story – don’t lose it
D. Protect & share your visual story
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Discover, remember and share 
Solution
World Day for Audiovisual Heritage was observed across the world on 27 October 2017 with the
theme 'Discover, remember and share'.
Q136.
The Banking Ombudsman is a senior o cial appointed by..............?
A. Government of India
B. President of India
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Reserve Bank of India
E. Finance Ministry
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Correct Answer: D. Reserve Bank of India 
Solution
The Banking Ombudsman is a senior o cial appointed by the Reserve Bank of India to redress
customer complaints against de ciency in certain banking services.
Q137.
India's rst Centre for Animal Law has been recently established at the city-based NALSAR
University of Law. This University is situated in ______________.
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Telangana
C. Karnataka
D. Haryana
E. Maharashtra
Correct Answer: B. Telangana 
Solution
The Nalsar University of Law inaugurated country's rst Centre for Animal Law in the city wherein
students can conduct research and advocate animal protection rights. Nalsar University of Law,
o cially the National Academy of Legal Studies and Research, is a legal studies institution located
in Shamirpet, Hyderabad, Telangana, India.
Q138.
What is the minimum initial deposit required for opening a Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account
(BSBDA)?
A. Rs 500
B. Rs 1000
C. Rs 100
D. Rs 200
E. No initial deposit
Correct Answer: E. No initial deposit 
Solution
There is no requirement for any initial deposit for opening a BSBDA.
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The Inderkilla National Park (INP) is located in which state, which is established in 2010?
A. Assam
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. Kerala
E. Odisha
Correct Answer: B. Himachal Pradesh 
Solution
Inderkilla National Park is a national park in Himachal Pradesh, India established in 2010.
Q140.
India and Norway have extended bilateral cooperation in the health sector through the Norway-
India Partnership Initiative for a period of three years starting 2018. What is the Capital of Norway?
A. Jakarta
B. Baku
C. Oslo
D. Moscow
E. Stockholm
Correct Answer: C. Oslo 
Solution
India and Norway have extended bilateral cooperation in the health sector through the Norway-
India Partnership Initiative for a period of three years starting 2018. A letter of Intent was signed to
this e ect in New Delhi between the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the
Norwegian Ministry of Foreign A airs. Oslo is the Capital of Norway. Erna Solberg is the President
of Norway.
Q141.
Name the personality, who has been chosen for the 2017 Vayalar Ramavarma Literary Prize for his
novel “Sugandhi Enna Andal Devanayaki”.
A. K. R. Meera
B. T D Ramakrishna
C. U. K. Kumaran
D. Subhash Chandran
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Correct Answer: B. T D Ramakrishna 
Solution
T.D. Ramakrishnan’s novel Sugandhi Enna Andal Devanayaki has been chosen for this year’s
Vayalar Ramavarma Literary Prize.
Q142.
The greatest dam Bisalpur, located in Tonk District of which state?
A. Rajasthan
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Gujarat
E. Haryana
Correct Answer: A. Rajasthan 
Solution
The greatest dam of Rajasthan-Bisalpur, located in Tonk District of Rajasthan. The dam is built
across the Banas River between two mountains. The largest dam of Rajasthan-Bisalpur with a
height of 39m is one of the honor of Rajasthan
Q143.
The book titled “The Shershah of Kargil” is a biography of Kargil war hero Late Captain Vikram
Batra, who was posthumously awarded Param veer Chakra (PVC) – the highest gallantry award of
India. The book is written by
A. Deepak Surana
B. Balraj Joshi
C. Shakti Singh
D. PK Singh
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Deepak Surana 

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The book titled “The Shershah of Kargil” is a biography of Kargil war hero Late Captain Vikram
Batra, who was posthumously awarded Param veer Chakra (PVC) – the highest gallantry award of
India. The book written by Deepak Surana is an inspiring story of the young captain Vikram Batra,
which takes you through the various dimensions of Captain Batra’s life.
Q144.
Name the First India bank Got ISO.
A. ICICI Bank
B. South Indian Bank
C. Dena Bank
D. Canara Bank
E. SBI
Correct Answer: D. Canara Bank 
Solution
Canara Bank became the rst Indian Bank to get ISO certi cation in 1996, for "Total Branch
Banking" of its Seshadripuram branch in Bangalore, it is an Indian state owned bank, and its
headquarters is in Bangalore.
Q145.
The 17th edition of FIFA U-17 World Cup took place for the rst time in India. The o cial ball for
Under-17 football World Cup is called _____________.
A. Sukrot
B. Nabrato
C. Protol
D. Manora
E. Krasava
Correct Answer: E. Krasava 
Solution
The 17th edition of FIFA U-17 World Cup took place for the rst time in India. It is a biennial
international football tournament of men’s under-17 national teams organized by Federation
Internationale de Football Association (FIFA). The o cial ball for Under-17 football World Cup is
called ‘Krasava’. for more join
Where is the headquarter of AB Bank Ltd?
A. China
B. Russia
C. Singapore
D. Bangladesh
E. Sri Lanka
Correct Answer: D. Bangladesh 
Solution
AB Bank (formerly Arab Bangladesh Bank) is a leading private sector bank in Bangladesh
established in 31 December 1981. This was the rst joint venture private bank in Bangladesh.
Q147.
The World Tsunami Awareness Day (WTAD) is observed every year on which date to spread
awareness among people across the world in matters related to the dangers of tsunami?
A. November 1
B. November 2
C. November 3
D. November 4
E. November 5
Correct Answer: E. November 5 
Solution
The First World Tsunami Awareness Day is being observed today (5 November) across the world.
The theme for the year is E ective Education and Evacuation Drills.
Q148.
Who is the Civil Aviation minister of India?
A. D.V. Sadananda Gowda
B. Ashok Gajapathi Raju Pusapati
C. Smt. Harsimrat Kaur Badal
D. Narendra Singh Tomar
E. None of these
for more join
Correct Answer: B. Ashok Gajapathi Raju Pusapati 
Solution
Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju is an Indian politician and the Union Minister for Civil Aviation in
the Narendra Modi Government and is the Member of the Indian Parliament for Vizianagaram.
Q149.
Ace Indian shuttler Kidambi Srikanth has won the 2017 Denmark Open Superseries Badminton
trophy by defeating
A. H-K Vittinghus
B. Son Wan-ho
C. Wong Wing Ki
D. Lee Hyun-il
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Lee Hyun-il 
Solution
Kidambi Srikanth was at his uent best as he claimed top honours in the Denmark Open Super
Series Premier in Odense. The Indian dished out a awless performance in his 21-10, 21-5 win
against Korean veteran Lee Hyun Il in what turned out to be a one-sided nal.
Q150.
NTPC's Ramagundam thermal power plant is located in which state?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Odisha
D. Telangana
E. None of these
Correct Answer: D. Telangana
Solution
NTPC's Ramagundam thermal power plant in the Karimnagar district of Telangana ranks as the
seventh largest thermal power plant in India and the largest in south India. The coal- red power
plant has an installed capacity of 2600MW.
Q151.
for more join
What was the ranking of ICICI Bank CEOhttps://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
and MD Chanda Kochhar in the released Forbes' list of the
world’s 100 most powerful women?
A. 32
B. 47
C. 45
D. 56
E. 67
Correct Answer: A. 32 
Solution
The 14th edition of the annual “World’s 100 Most Powerful Women” released by Forbes featured
ve Indian women leaders – namely ICICI Bank’s MD & CEO Chanda Kochhar (ranked 32); Roshni
Nadar Malhotra (57), executive director and CEO of HCL Enterprise; Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw (64),
founder, Chairman and MD of Biocon; Shobhana Bhartia (92), Chairperson and Editorial Director,
HT Media Ltd and nally Bollywood actress and global celebrity Priyanka Chopra just making the
cut at number 97.
Q152.
The Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) is located in
A. Goa
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Kerala
D. Jammu and Kashmir
E. Himachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: A. Goa 
Solution
The Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary (BWS) is located at Ponda taluka in northeastern Goa and covers an
area of 8 km2.
Q153.
The AYUSH Festival of Stamps 2017 has started in which city?
A. New Delhi
B. Chennai
C. Panaji
D. Gandhi Nagar
for more join
E. Pune https://t.me/currentAffairscLuB
Correct Answer: C. Panaji 
Solution
The AYUSH Festival of Stamps 2017 was inaugurated by Rajya Sabha MP Vinay Tendulkar at
Maquinez Palace in Panaji, Goa.
Q154.
Name the veteran Indian classical singer of the Seniya and Banaras gharanas, who has passed
away in Kolkata, West Bengal.
A. Girija Devi
B. I V Sasi
C. Satish Chandra
D. Kundan Shah
E. None of these
Correct Answer: A. Girija Devi 
Solution
Eminent classical singer and Padma Vibhushan awardee Girija Devi passed away.
Q155.
Name the lender with which the Engineering Export Promotion Council (EEPC) of India has signed
an MoU to provide easy access to nance for SMEs and merchant exporters of the council.
A. Allahabad Bank
B. Punjab National Bank
C. Syndicate Bank
D. IDBI Bank
E. Bank of Baroda
Correct Answer: B. Punjab National Bank 
Solution
for more join
The Engineering Export Promotion Council (EEPC) of India has signed a memorandum of
understanding with Punjab National Bank to provide easy access to nance for SMEs and
merchant exporters of the council.

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Which of the following combinations is de nitely false? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: D. R – Seventh rank – March <br>

Step-1. for more join

Correct Answer: C. The person who born in March <br>

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Who is the oldest among all of them? (1 Mark)

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Who was born in February? (1 Mark)

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In a certain code language:

What will be the code of Business? (1 Mark)

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In a certain code language:

What will be the code of “World and India”? (2 Mark)

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In a certain code language:

What will be the code of “Nobel Prize”? (1 Mark)

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What will be the code of “Previous Year”? (1 Mark)

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In a certain code language:

What will be the code of “Latest News”? (1 Mark)

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Which of the following can be deduced from the given statement?

Correct Answer: B. Only (III) <br>

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Which of the following combinations is correct? (1 Mark)

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R sows in which of the following month? (1 Mark)

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Correct Answer: E. Gram <br>

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Correct Answer: E. V <br>

Correct Answer: E. Rice-Pepsico <br>

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Correct Answer: C. DCL <br>

Correct Answer: D. Only II <br>

For Step-3: step 3 is coded in some special pattern.

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Correct Answer: C. TO9 <br>

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Correct Answer: B. SB23 <br>

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Correct Answer: A. DM11 <br>

For Step-3: step 3 is coded in some special pattern.

Correct Answer: A. GZ26 <br>

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For Step-3: step 3 is coded in some special pattern.

Which of the following replaces CD4 from step-1 to in step 2? (2 Mark)

Correct Answer: A. XW2 <br>

Which of the following could be hypothesized from the above statement?

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Who among the following person likes Orange colour? (1 Mark)

Correct Answer: C. Q <br>

Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: B. Quantity I < Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II <br>

Correct Answer: A. Quantity I > Quantity II <br>