FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Tuesday 26th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. A ball of mass 0.15 kg hits the wall with its initial
1. Two projectiles are thrown with same initial speed of 12 ms-1 and bounces back without
velocity making an angle of 45° and 30° with the changing its initial speed. If the force applied by
horizontal respectively. The ratio of their the wall on the ball during the contact is 100 N.
respective ranges will be calculate the time duration of the contact of ball
(A) 1: 2 (B) 2 :1 with the wall.
(A) 0.018 s (B) 0.036 s
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 :2
(C) 0.009 s (D) 0.072 s
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

Sol. Let projection speed is u

u2Sin(90º ) u2 sin(60º )
Sol. 
Pi  0.15 12 ˆi
R1  ;R2 
g g P  0.15 12  ˆi 
f
R1 2
 P  3.6 kg  m / s
R2 3
2. In a Vernier Calipers. 10 divisions of Vernier scale 3.6 = F  t
is equal to the 9 divisions of main scale. When 3.6 = 100  t
both jaws of Vernier calipers touch each other, the  t = 0.036 sec
zero of the Vernier scale is shifted to the left of 4. A body of mass 8 kg and another of mass 2 kg are
zero of the main scale and 4th Vernier scale moving with equal kinetic energy. The ratio of
their respective momenta will be :
division exactly coincides with the main scale (A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1
reading. One main scale division is equal to 1 mm.
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
While measuring diameter of a spherical body, the
body is held between two jaws. It is now observed
that zero of the Vernier scale lies between 30 and P2
31 divisions of main scale reading and 6th Vernier Sol. K.E =
2m
scale division exactly. coincides with the main
P12 P2
scale reading. The diameter of the spherical body K1  ; K2  2
2 8  2 2
will be :
(A) 3.02 cm (B) 3.06 cm K1 = K2
(C) 3.10 cm (D) 3.20 cm So,
Official Ans. by NTA (C) 4P22 = P12
P1
Sol. 1 M.S.D = 1mm 2
P2
9 M.S.D = 10 V.S.D
1 V.S.D = 0.9 M.S.D = 0.9 mm 5. Two uniformly charged spherical conductors A
L.C of vernier caliper = 1–0.9 = 0.1 mm = 0.01 cm and B of radii 5 mm and 10 mm are separated by a
distance of 2 cm. If the spheres are connected by a
zero error =–(10–4)×0.1mm = – 0.6 mm conducting wire, then in equilibrium condition, the
Reading = M.S.R + V.S.R – Zero error ratio of the magnitudes of the electric fields at
= 3cm + 6 × 0.01 – [–0.06] the surface of the sphere A and B will be :
= 3 + 0.06 + 0.06 (A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 4
= 3.12 cm Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Nearest given answer in the options is 3.10

1
Sol. VA = VB 1.5  108 1.5
sin ic  
KQ A KQ B 2  108 2

RA RB 3
sin i c 
4
QA RA 1
 
QB R B 2 3 3
tan ic = 
4 3
2 2
7
KQA KQB
EA  ;E B 
RA 2
R B2  3 
ic = tan 1  
 7
E A Q A R B2 R B 2
    8. A body is projected vertically upwards from the
EB QB R A2 RA 1
surface of earth with a velocity equal to one third
6. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane of escape velocity. The maximum height attained
electromagnetic wave is given by By = 5 × l0-6 sin by the body will be:
l000  (5x - 4 × 108 t)T. The amplitude of electric (Take radius of earth = 6400 km and g=10 ms–2 )
field will be : (A) 800 km (B) 1600 km
(A) 15 × 102 Vm–1 (B) 5 × 10–6 Vm–1
(C) 2133 km (D) 4800 km
(C) 16 × 1012 Vm–1 (D) 4 × 102 Vm–1
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (D)

Sol. B0=5×10–6
4  108  w
v = Speed of wave =  8  107  v  
5  k
Sol.
E0 = vB0 = 40×101
2Gm
= 4 × 102 V/m ve 
R
7. Light travels in two media M1 and M2 with speeds
1.5 × 108 ms–1 and 2.0 × 108 ms–1 respectively. The GMm 1 Ve 2 GMm
 m 
critical angle between them is: R 2 9 Rh
 3  2 GM GM Ve 2
(A) tan 1   (B) tan 1    
 7 3 Rh R 18
3 2 GM GM GM
(C) cos1   (D) sin 1    
4 3 Rh R 9R

Official Ans. by NTA (A) GM 8GM


Rh 9R
1 8

R  h 9R
9R = 8R + 8h
Sol. R 6400
h   800km
8 8
9. The maximum and minimum voltage of an
c amplitude modulated signal are 60 V and 20 V
v respectively. The percentage modulation index will
n be :
nd sin ic = nr sin90º (A) 0.5% (B) 50% (C) 2% (D) 30%
n r vd Official Ans. by NTA (B)
sin ic = 
n d vr

2
Sol. Vmax = 60 = 2(0.3 + 0.1 + 0.12)
Vmin = 20 = 2(0.4 + 0.12)
% modulation = = 2(0.52)
 Vmax  Vmin   60  20   40  = 1.04 m2
 100    100   100
 Vmax  Vmin   60  20   80  1  10 2 10 2
Rth =  
KA 0.05  1.04 0.052
 50%
10. A nucleus of mass M at rest splits into two parts dQ T 40  0.052
   2.08  102 J / s
M' 2M' dt R th 102
having masses and  M'  M  . The ratio
3 3 2.08 × 102 = m × 3.4 × 105
of de Broglie wavelength of two parts will be :
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 2.08
m=  0.61  10 3 kg/s
3.4  103
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 3
= 61 × 10–5 Kg/s
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
12. A gas has n degrees of freedom. The ratio of
specific heat of gas at constant volume to the
specific heat of gas at constant pressure will be :
n n2
Sol. (A) (B)
n2 n
n n
(C) (D)
2n  2 n2
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

P1  P2
Sol. Cv 
nR
Cp 
 n  2 R
Here P is momentum 2 2
h Cv n
So   
P Cp n  2
Hence both will have same de broglie wavelength. 13. A transverse wave is represented by y = 2sin
11. An ice cube of dimensions 60 cm × 50 cm × 20 cm  t  kx  cm. The value of wavelength (in cm) for
is placed in an insulation box of wall thickness which the wave velocity becomes equal to the
1 cm. The box keeping the ice cube at 0°C of maximum particle velocity, will be ;
temperature is brought to a room of temperature (A) 4 (B) 2
40°C. The rate of melting of ice is approximately:
(C)  (D) 2
(Latent heat of fusion of ice is 3.4 × 105 J kg–1 and
thermal conducting of insulation wall is Official Ans. by NTA (A)
0.05 Wm–1ºC–1)
(A) 61×10–1 kg s–1 (B) 61×10–5 kg s–1
(C) 208 kg s–1 (D) 30×10–5 kg s–1 Sol. y = 2 sin (t – kx)
Official Ans. by NTA (B) Maximum particle velocity = A 

 Wave velocity =
k
Sol.

= A 
k

dQ KAT 1 2
  k= =
dt A 

A = 2 (0.6 × 0.5 + 0.5 × 0.2 + 0.2 × 0.6)  = 2A

= 4  cm
3
14. A battery of 6 V is connected to the circuit as 15. A source of potential difference V is connected to
the combination of two identical capacitors as
shown below. The current I drawn from the battery shown in the figure. When key 'K’ is closed, the
is : total energy stored across the combination is E1.
Now key ‘K’ is opened and dielectric of dielectric
constant 5 is introduced between the plates of the
capacitors. The total energy stored across the
combination is now E2. The ratio E1/E2 will be :

1 2
(A) (B)
10 5
5 5
(C) (D)
(A) 1A (B) 2A 13 26
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
6 4
(C) A (D) A
11 3

Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol. Balanced wheat stone bridge in circuit so there is

no current in 5 resistor so it can be removed

from the circuit. Sol.

(1) Switch is closed
Ceq = 2C
1
Energy E1  Ceq V 2
2
1
= 2C  V 2
2
E1 = CV2
(ii) When switch is opened charge on right
capacitor remain CV while potential on left
6  12 capacitor remain same
Re q  2
6  12 Dielectric K = 5
’
6  12 C = KC
 2
18 C’ = 5C
 CV 
2
R e q  6 1
E2   5C  V2 
2 2  5C 
V 6
I   1 Amp. 5CV 2 CV 2
Re q 6 E2  
2 10

4
 13CV 2 17. A velocity selector consists of electric field
E2 
5 E  Ekˆ and magnetic field B  Bjˆ with B=12 mT.
The value E required for an electron of energy
E1 CV2 5 728 eV moving along the positive x-axis to pass
 2

E 2 13CV 13 undeflected is :
5 (Given, mass of electron = 9.1×10–31kg)
E1 5 (A) 192 kVm–1 (B) 192 m Vm–1

E2 13 (C) 9600 kVm–1 (D) 16 kVm–1
Official Ans. by NTA (A)
16. Two concentric circular loops of radii r1=30 cm
and r2=50 cm are placed in X-Y plane as shown in
the figure. A current I = 7A is flowing through
Sol. E  E kˆ B = 12 mT
them in the direction as shown in figure. The net
magnetic moment of this system of two circular B  B ˆj Energy = 728 eV
loops is approximately :
1
Energy = mv2
2
1
728eV   9.1 10 31  v2
2
1
728  1.6  10 19   9.1 10 31  v2
2
v = 16 × 106 m/s
E = vB
7 7
(A) k̂ Am 2 (B)  k̂ Am 2 E = 16×106 × 12 × 10–3
2 2
E = 192 × 103 V/m
(C) 7kˆ Am2 (D) – 7 kˆ Am2
18. Two masses M1 and .M2 are tied together at the
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
two ends of a light inextensible string that passes
over a frictionless pulley. When the mass M2 is
twice that of M1. the acceleration of the system is
a1. When the mass M2 is thrice that of M1. The
a
acceleration of The system is a2. The ratio 1 will
a2
be:

Sol.
Magnetic moment
1 2
(A) (B)
M  i  0.5 kˆ  i  0.3  kˆ
2 2
3 3
3 1
22  25 9 ˆ (C) (D)
M  7   k 2 2
7  100 100 

Official Ans. by NTA (B)
 16  ˆ
= 22  k m 2g  m1g
 100  Sol. a
m1  m2
M  3.52kˆ Am2 Case 1 M2 = 2m1
2m1g  m1g
7 a1 =
  k̂ Am2 3m1
2
a1 = g/3
5
Case -2 Sol. Since breaking stress (Maximum lifting capacity)
M2 = 3m1 is the property of material so it will remain same.
3m1g  m1g Maximum lifting capacity
a2  breaking stress =
4m1 Area of cross section of rope
g
a2  10 25
2 4

2.5  10 A
g
a1 3 2 A = 625 × 10–6
 
a2 g 3 = 6.25 × 10–4 m2
2
SECTION-B
19. Mass numbers of two nuclei are in the ratio of 4:3.
Their nuclear densities will be in the ratio of
1 1.    
If A  2iˆ  3jˆ  kˆ m and B  ˆi  2ˆj  2kˆ m. The
3 3
(A) 4:3 (B)  
4 magnitude of component of vector A along vector
1
4 3
B will be________ m.
(C) 1 : 1 (D)  
3
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (C)

   
1
Sol. Radius of nucleus R  R 0 A 3 Sol. A  2iˆ  3jˆ  kˆ m and B  ˆi  2ˆj  2kˆ m

Mass of nucleus ˆ
Component of A along B = A·B
Density of nucleus =
volume of nucleus
A.B 262
mA = 
 Where m : mass of proton or neutron B 12  22  22
4 3
R
3 6
= 2
mA 3

4
R 0 3 A 2. The radius of gyration of a cylindrical rod about an
3
A0 axis of rotation perpendicular to its length and

Hence density of nucleus is independent of mass passing through the center will be_______ m.

number Given, the length of the rod is 10 3 m.

20. The area of cross section of the rope used to lift a
load by a crane is 2.5 × 10–4m2. The maximum Official Ans. by NTA (5)
lifting capacity of the crane is 10 metric tons. To
increase the lifting capacity of the crane to
25 metric tons, the required area of cross section of
the rope should be :
(take g =10 ms–2)
(A) 6.25 × 10–4m2 Sol.
(B) 10 × 10–4m2
(C) 1 × 10–4m2
(D) 1.67 × 10–4m2 m 2 2
10 3
I  mk 2  k 2   k    5
Official Ans. by NTA (A) 12 12 12 2 3 2 3

6
3. In the given figure, the face AC of the equilateral
prism is immersed in a liquid of refractive index
‘n’. For incident angle 60° at the side AC, the
refracted light beam just grazes along face AC.
x own weight is x × 10–9 m. The value of x is_____.
The refractive index of the liquid n  . The
4
value of x is_________ .
(Given refractive index of glass = 1.5)
5. A uniform heavy rod of mass 20 kg. Cross
sectional area 0.4 m2 and length 20 m is hanging
from a fixed support. Neglecting the lateral
contraction, the elongation in the rod due to its
:(Given. Young’s modulus Y=2 × 1011 Nm–2 and
g=10 ms–2)
Official Ans. by NTA (25)

Sol.

Official Ans. by NTA (27)

T dx
Y
A dy
m = 20 kg
A = 0.4 m2
l = 20m
let extension is dy in length dx
Sol.
stress
Y
strain
T
Using snell’s law at face AC T dx
Y A  .
1.5 sin 60º = n × sin 90º dy A dy
dx
3 x
1.5× =n= Tdx
2 4 dy 
AY
3 3 x
mg
x = 27 Tension at a distance x from lower end = x

4. Two lighter nuclei combine to form a l

mg dx
comparatively heavier nucleus by the relation
given below:
So.  dy  
0 0
x
AY
1 X  1 X 2 Y
2 2 4

mg  x 2 
The binding energies per nucleon 21 X and 24 Y are  =  
AY  2  0
1.1 MeV and 7.6 MeV respectively. The energy
released in this process is_______ . MeV. mg
 
Official Ans. by NTA (26) 2AY
20  10  20
 
Sol. Energy released in the given process = Binding 2  0.4  2  1011

energy of product – Binding energy of reactants 2500 × 10–11

= 7.6 × 4 – (1.1 × 2) × 2  = 25×10–9

= x × 10–9
= 30.4 – 4.4
x = 25
=26 MeV
7
6. The typical transfer characteristic of a transistor in
CE configuration is shown in figure. A load
Sol.
resistor of 2 k is connected in the collector
branch of the circuit used. The input resistance of
the transistor is 0.50 k . The voltage gain of the
k  5  0.3  10 12
F1 
transistor is 9  10 4

9  10 9  5  0.3  10 12

9  10 4

= 1.5×10 = 15 N

9  10 9  5  0.16  10 12
F2  = 8N
9  10 4

force experienced by charge at A  F12  F2 2

= 152  82

Official Ans. by NTA (200)  289 = 17 N

8. In a coil of resistance 8 , the magnetic flux due

Sol. Current gain in C-E configuration
to an external magnetic field varies with time as
I
 C 2
I B 
3
 
9  t 2 . The value of total heat produced in

RC = 2k  , RB=0.50 k 
the coil, till the flux becomes zero, will
I R 5  10 –3 2
Voltage gain = C C  6
 be_______J.
I BR B 100  10 0.5

10 2 1000 Official Ans. by NTA (2)

= 5
  200
5  10 5

7. Three point charges of magnitude 5C, 0.16µC

2
Sol.   (9  t 2 ) = 0
and 0.3C are located at the vertices A, B, C of a 3

right angled triangle whose sides are AB = 3cm,

t = 3 sec
BC  3 2 cm and CA=3 cm and point A is the

right angle corner. Charge at point A experiences d 2 4t

e=   (0  2t) 
dt 3 3
_______ N of electrostatic force due to the other
two charges. 3
e2 16t 2
Heat produced in 3 sec =  dt   dt = 2J
Official Ans. by NTA (17) r 0
98

8
9. A potentiometer wire of length 300 cm is
connected in series with a resistance 780  and a
standard cell of emf 4V. A constant current flows
through potentiometer wire. The length of the null
point for cell of emf 20 mV is found to be 60 cm.
The resistance of the potentiometer wire is____  .
Official Ans. by NTA (20)
10. As per given figures, two springs of spring
constants K and 2K are connected to mass m. If the
period of oscillation in figure (a) is 3s, then the
period of oscillation in figure (b) will be x s. The
value of x is_________.

4V 780
k
300 cm
i
60 cm 2k k
C 2k
A B
m m
i=0 figure (a) figure (b)

Sol. 20 mV Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Let resistance of potentiometers wire is R

4
i
R  780 k

Potential difference across AB

2k k 2k
4R

R  780 m m
Potential difference across AC figure (a) figure (b)
Sol.
4R  60 4R For figure (a) :
 
(R  780)  300 5(R  780) K  2K 2K
K eq  
K  2K 3
This should be equal to 20 mV
m m 3m
4R T  2  2  2
 20 103  2 102 K eq 2K / 3 2K
5(R  780)
For figure (b):
4R = 10—1(R + 780)
m
Keq = 3K, T'  2 
R 3K
4R   78
10
T' m  2K 2
 
R T 3K  3m 3
4R   78
10 T'  2

39R x=2
 78
10

R  20

9
 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022
(Held On Tuesday 26th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 4. At 30°C, the half life for the decomposition of AB2
1. Hemoglobin contains 0.34% of iron by mass. The is 200 s and is independent of the initial
number of Fe atoms in 3.3 g of hemoglobin is : concentration of AB2. The time required for 80%
(Given : Atomic mass of Fe is 56 u, NA in 6.022
of the AB2 to decompose is (Given: log 2 = 0.30;
× 1023 mol–1)
(A) 1.21 × 105 (B) 12.0 × 1016 log 3 = 0.48)
(C) 1.21 × 1020 (D) 3.4 × 1022 (A) 200 s (B) 323 s
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (C) 467 s (D) 532 s
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
0.34 3.3
Sol. No. of Fe atoms =   6.022  10 23
100 56
= 1.206 × 1020 Sol. T1/2 = 200 s and 1st order reaction
2. Arrange the following in increasing order of their 2.303log2 2.303 A0
covalent character. K  log
200 t 0.2A0
(A) CaF2 (B) CaCl2
(C) CaBr2 (D) CaI2 log2 1
 log5
Choose the correct answer from the options given 200 t
below. 7
t   200  466.67s = 467 s
(A) B < A < C < D (B) A < B < C < D 3
(C) A < B < D < C (D) A < C < B < D
5. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Sol. According to Fajan’s rule, Assertion A : Finest gold is red in colour, as the
Covalent character  size of Anion size of the particles increases, it appears purple
3. Class XII students were asked to prepare one litre then blue and finally gold.
of buffer solution of pH 8.26 by their chemistry
Assertion R : The colour of the colloidal solution
teacher. The amount of ammonium chloride to be
dissolved by the student in 0.2 M ammonia depends on the wavelength of light scattered by the
solution to make one litre of the buffer is (Given dispersed particles.
pKb (NH3) = 4.74; Molar mass of NH3 = 17 g mol– In the light of the above statements, choose the
1
; Molar mass of NH4Cl = 53.5 g mol–1)
most appropriate answer from the options given
(A) 53.5 g (B) 72.3 g
(C) 107.0 g (D) 126.0 g below;
Official Ans. by NTA (C) (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Sol. POH = 14 – 8.26
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
[NH 4 ]
= pKb + log explanation of A
[NH 3 ]
(C) A is true but R is false
[NH 4 ]
= 5.74 = 4.74 + log  [NH 4 ] = 2 (D) A is false but R is true
0.2
Hence Official Ans. by NTA (A)
NH4Cl = 2 × 53.5 = 107 g

1
6. The metal that has very low melting point and its 10. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
periodic position is closer to a metalloid is : as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
(A) Al (B) Ga
Assertion A : Boric acid is a weak acid
(C) Se (D) In
Official Ans. by NTA (B) Reason R : Boric acid is not able to release H+ ion
on its own. It receives OH– ion from water and
Sol. Melting point
releases H+ ion.
Al  933 K
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Ga  303 K
In  430 K most appropriate answer from the options given
Se  490 K below.
7. The metal that is not extracted from its sulphide (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
ore is :
explanation of A
(A) Aluminium (B) Iron
(C) Lead (D) Zinc (B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the
Official Ans. by NTA (A) correct explanation of A
(C) A is correct but R is not correct
Sol. Al is extracted from Al2O3·2H2O i.e., Bauxite ore
(D) A is not correct but R is correct
8. The products obtained from a reaction of hydrogen
peroxide and acidified potassium permanganate are Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(A) Mn4+, H2O only (B) Mn2+, H2O only
(C) Mn4+, H2O, O2 only (D) Mn2+, H2O, O2 only
OH OH
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
B + H2 O B– O+ H
HO OH HO
Sol. 6H+ + 2MnO4— + 5H2O2  2Mn+2 + 8H2O + Sol. OH H
5O2
9. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as OH
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
B– + H+
Assertion A : LiF is sparingly soluble in water. OH
HO
Reason R : The ionic radius of Li+ ion is smallest OH
among its group members, hence has least 11. The metal complex that is diamagnetic is (Atomic
hydration enthalpy.
number : Fe, 26; Cu, 29)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given (A) K3[Cu(CN)4]
below . (B) K2[Cu(CN)4]
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (C) K3[Fe(CN)4]
explanation of A
(D) K4[FeCl6]
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A Official Ans. by NTA (A)
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Sol. K3[Cu(CN)4]
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
O.N. of copper is Cu+1
Sol. Due to high lattice energy LiF is sparingly soluble Cu+1 = [Ar]3d10  Diamagnetic
in water. Li+ has high hydration energy among its
group members due to smallest size.
2
12. Match List I with List II 14. Which of the following is not an example of
List I List II benzenoid compound ?

Pollutant Source
A. Microorganisms I. Strip mining
(A) (B)
B. Plant nutrients II. Domestic sewage
C. Toxic heavy metals III. Chemical fertilizer
NH2
D. Sediment IV. Chemical factory
(C) (D)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III 15. Hydrolysis of which compound will give carbolic
acid ?
(C) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(A) Cumene
(D) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(B) Benzenediazonium chloride
Official Ans. by NTA (A) (C) Benzal chloride
(D) Ethylene glycol ketal
Sol. Official Ans. by NTA (B)

List I List II
N2 +Cl– OH
Pollutant Source
A. Microorganisms Domestic sewage Sol. H2 O
+ N2 + HCl
B. Plant nutrients Chemical fertilizer
C. Toxic heavy metals Chemical factory O
(i) DiBAl-H
D. Sediment Strip mining 16. EtO – C – HC
2
CH2CH2 CHO (ii) H2O
?

Consider the above reaction and predict the major

13. The correct decreasing order of priority of product.
functional groups in naming an organic compound (A) OHC – H2C CH2CH2CHO
as per IUPAC system of nomenclature is :
O
(A) COOH > CONH2 > COCl > CHO
(B) EtO – C – HC
2 CH2CH2CHO
(B) SO3H > COCl > CONH2 > CN
O
(C)
(C) EtO – C – HC
2 CH2CH2COOH
(D) COOH > COOR > CONH2 > COCl
Official Ans. by NTA (B) (D) OHC – H2C CH2CH2COOH

Official Ans. by NTA (A)

Sol. SO3H > COCl > CONH2 > CN

3
 O 19. Animal starch is the other name of :
Sol.
EtO – C– H2 C CH2 CH2CN (A) amylose (B) maltose
(C) glycogen (D) amylopectin
(i) DiBAL –H Official Ans. by NTA (C)
(ii) H2O
Sol. Glycogen
EtOH + OHC –CH2 CH2CH2 CHO
20. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
17. The correct sequential order of the reagents for the
Assertion A :Phenolphthalein is a pH dependent
given reaction is :
indicator, remains colourless in acidic solution and
NO2 OH
gives pink colour in basic medium
Reason R : Phenolphthalein is a weak acid. It
doesn’t dissociate in basic medium.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
NH2 I below :
(A) HNO2, Fe/H+, HNO2, KI, H2O/H+ (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(B) HNO2, KI, Fe/H+, HNO2, H2O/warm explanation of A
(C) HNO2, KI, HNO2, Fe/H+, H2O/H+ (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
explanation of A.
(D) HNO2, Fe/H+, KI, HNO2, H2O/warm
(C) A is true but R is false
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
(D) A is false but R is true
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
Sol.
NO2 NO2 NO2 NH2
Sol. Phenolphthalein dissociate in basic medium
HPh(aq)  H+ + Ph—
HNO2 KI Fe/H+

(colourless) (Pink)
NH2 N2 +Cl– I I SECTION-B
HNO2 1. A 10 g mixture of hydrogen and helium is
OH N2 +Cl– contained in a vessel of capacity 0.0125 m3 at 6 bar
and 27°C. The mass of helium in the mixture is
N2 +
H2 O/warm
_______ g. (nearest integer)
Given : R = 8.3 JK–1mol–1 (Atomic masses of H
I I and He are 1u and 4u, respectively)
18. Vulcanization of rubber is carried out by heating a Official Ans. by NTA (8)
mixture of :
(A) isoprene and styrene Sol. PV = nmixRT
(B) neoprene and sulphur 6  12.5
n mi x  3
(C) isoprene and sulphur 0.083  300
Let mole of He = x
(D) neoprene and styrene
Mole of H2 = 3 – x
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
4x + 2(3 – x) = 10
x  2mol
Sol. Vulcanization of rubber is carried out by heating a
Mass of He = 8g
mixture of isoprene & sulphur
4
2. Consider an imaginary ion 48
22 X3- . The nucleus 5. 20 mL of 0.02 M hypo solution is used for the

contains ‘a’% more neutrons than the number of
electrons in the ion. The value of ‘a’ is ____.
[nearest integer]
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
titration of 10 mL of copper sulphate solution, in
the presence of excess of KI using starch as an
indicator. The molarity of Cu2+ is found to be
_____ × 10—2 M [nearest integer]
Given : 2Cu2+ + 4I—  Cu2I2 + I2

I2 + 2S2O32—  2I— + S4O62—

48 3-
Sol. 22 X
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
No. of neutrons = 26
No. of electrons = 25
Sol. neq. of I2 = neq of Na2S2O3 = 20 × 0.002 × 1
% of extra neutrons
2 × nmol of I2 = 0.4
26  25
than electrons =  100  4 nmol of I2 = 0.2 m mol
25
nmol of Cu+2 = 0.2 × 2 × 10–3
3. For the reaction
0.4  10 3
[Cu+2] =  0.04  4  10 2
H2F2(g)  H2(g) + F2(g) 10  10 3

U = –59.6 kJ mol–1 at 27°C. 6. The number of non-ionisable protons present in the

product B obtained from the following reaction is
The enthalpy change for the above reaction is (–)
_____. C2H5OH + PCl3  C2H5Cl + A
___ kJ mol–1 [nearest integer] Given : R = 8.314
A + PCl3  B
JK—1 mol–1.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (57)

Sol. C2H5OH + PCl3  C2H5Cl + H3PO3

Sol. H = U + ngRT
H3PO3 + PCl3  H4P2O5 + HCl
H = –59.6 + 1 × 8.314 × 300 × 10—3 = –57.10
O O
4. The elevation in boiling point for 1 molal solution P P
HO O OH
of non-volatile solute A is 3K. The depression in H H
freezing point for 2 molal solution of A in the same 7. The spin-only magnetic moment value of the
solvent is 6 K. The ratio of Kb and Kf i.e., Kb/Kf is compound with strongest oxidizing ability among
1 : X. The value of X is [nearest integer] MnF4, MnF3 and MnF2 is ______ B.M. [nearest
integer]
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (5)

Sol. Tb = iKbm1 Tf = iKfm2

Tb K b 1 3 1 K b 1 Sol.
    
Tf K f  2 6 2 Kf 2

Kb 1 Hence MnF3  strongest O.A

  x 1
Kf 1   4(4  2)  24  4.89 = 5

5
8. Total number of isomers (including stereoisomers)
obtained on monochlorination of
methylcyclohexane is ________.
Official Ans. by NTA (12)

Sol.

9. A 100 mL solution of CH3CH2MgBr on treatment

with methanol produces 2.24 mL of a gas at STP.
The weight of gas produced is _______ mg.
[nearest integer]
Official Ans. by NTA (3)

Sol. CH3–CH2–MgBr + CH3OH 

OCH3
Mg
CH3 –CH3 + Br
2.24  10 3
n  10 4
22.4
W=n×M
= 10–4 × 30 = 3 mg
10. How many of the following drugs is/are
example(s) of broad spectrum antibiotic ?
Ofloxacin, Penicillin G, Terpineol, Salvarsan
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

Sol. Ofloxacin

6
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JULY, 2022

(Held On Tuesday 26th July, 2022) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A é92 - 102 112 ù é1 ù
ê ú
1. The minimum value of the sum of the squares of Sol. A¢BA = [1 1 1] ê122 132 - 142 ú êê1 úú
the roots of x2+(3-a)x+1=2a is: ê -152 162 172 ú ê1 ú
ë ûë û
(A) 4 (B) 5
é1 ù
11 –14 +17 ] êê1 úú
(C) 6 (D) 8 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
=[9 +12 –15 –10 +13 +16
Official Ans. by NTA (C) êë1 úû

= [92+122–152 –102+132+162 + 112–142+172]

Sol. a + b = (a + b) – 2 a b
2 2 2

= [539]
2
let f(a) = (3 – a) – 2(1 – 2a) n

f(a) = a2 – 2a + 7 4. å
i,j=0
n
C i n C j is equal to
i¹ j
f(a) = (a – 1)2 + 6
f(a) )min . = 6 (A) 22n -2n Cn (B) 22n -1 -2n -1 Cn -1

1
2. If z = x + iy satisfies |z| - 2 = 0 and |z-i|-|z+5i|=0, (C) 2 2 n - 2n
Cn (D) 2 n -1 + 2n -1
Cn
2
then
Official Ans. by NTA (B)
2
(A) x + 2y – 4 = 0 (B) x + y – 4 = 0
(C) x + 2y + 4 = 0 (D) x2- y + 3 = 0 n

Official Ans. by NTA (C) Sol. å

i,j=0
n
Ci nC j
i¹ j

n n n

å C i ·å n C j - å( )
2
Sol. |z-i|-|z+5i|=0 = n n
Ci
i =0 j= 0 i = j= 0
Þ |x + (y – 1)i | = |x + (y + 5)i |
n n 2n
= (2 ) (2 ) – Cn
x2 + (y – 1)2 = x2 + (y + 5)2
= 22n – 2nCn
(y – 1)2 – (y + 5)2 = 0
5. Let P and Q be any points on the curves (x-
(2y + 4) (–6) = 0
1)2+(y+1)2=1 and y = x2, respectively. The distance
y = –2
between P and Q is minimum for some value of the
\ x2 + (–2)2 = 4
abscissa of P in the interval
x=0
Z º (0, –2) , check options æ 1ö æ1 3ö
(A) ç 0, ÷ (B) ç , ÷
è 4ø è2 4ø
é1ù é92 - 102 112 ù
ê ú æ1 1ö æ3 ö
3. Let A = êê1úú and B = ê122 132 - 14 2 ú , then the (C) ç , ÷ (D) ç ,1 ÷
êë1úû ê-152 16 2 172 ú è4 2ø è4 ø
ë û
Official Ans. by NTA (C)
value of A¢BA is:

(A) 1224 (B) 1042 (C) 540 (D) 539

Official Ans. by NTA (D)

1
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
Sol. fa (x) = tan -1 2x - 3ax + 7
Sol.
2
fa¢ (x) = - 3a ³ 0
Q 1 + 4x 2
Pq
æ 2 ö p
C(1,–1) a£ç 2 ÷
at x = ±
è 3(1 + 4x ) ø min. 6

6
a max = a =
9 + p2
Q = ( t, t 2 )
m CQ = m normal p p 6 p p 9p
fa ( ) = tan -1 - 3 + 7 = tan -1 - +7
t +1
2
=-
1 8 4 9+p 8
2
4 4 p2 + 9 ( )
t -1 2t
Let f ( t )= 2t + 3t - 1
3

Let b= lim
(
ax - e 3x - 1 ) for some aΡ . Then
æ1ö æ1ö æ1 1ö 7.
f ç ÷f ç ÷ < 0 Þ t Îç , ÷ x ®0
(
ax e - 1 3x
)
è 4ø è3ø è 4 3ø
the value of a + b is :
P º (1 + cos ( 90 + θ ) , -1 + sin ( 90 + θ ) )
14 3 5 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
P = (1 - sin θ, -1 + cos θ ) 5 2 2 2

1 cos θ Official Ans. by NTA (C)

m normal = mCP Þ - = Þ tan θ = 2t
2t - sin θ
2t ax - (e3x - 1)
x = 1 - sin θ = 1 - = g(t) ( let ) Sol. b = lim
x ®0 ax(e 3x - 1)
1 + 4t 2
Þ g '(t) < 0 é
1 + ax - ê1 + 3x +
9x 2 ù
+ .....ú
ë 2! û
b = lim
g ( t ) ¯ function x®0 (e - 1)
3x
(ax) 3x
3x
æ1 1ö
t Îç , ÷ 9x 2
è 4 3ø (ax - 3x) - - .......
b = lim 2!
æ1 1ö 3ax 2
Þ g ( t ) Î ( 0.44,0.485 ) Î ç , ÷
x ®0

è4 2ø For existence of limit a – 3 = 0

a=3
6. If the maximum value of a, for which the function -3
Limit b=
fa (x) = tan -1 2x - 3ax + 7 is non-decreasing in 2a
1
b=-
æ p pö æ pö 2
ç - 6 , 6 ÷ , is a , then fa ç 8 ÷ is equal to Now,
è ø è ø
5
9p 4p a+b =
(A) 8 - (B) 8 - 2
(
4 9 + p2 ) (
9 4 + p2 ) 8. The value of log e 2
d p
(log cos x cosecx) at x = is
dx 4
æ 1+ p ö 2
p
(C) 8 ç 2 ÷
(D) 8 - (A) -2 2 (B) 2 2 (C) -4 (D) 4
è 9+p ø 4
Official Ans. by NTA (D)
Official Ans. by NTA (A)

2
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
d Official Ans. by NTA (B)
Sol. log e 2 (log cos x cosecx)
dx
Let, dy xy x 4 + 2x
Sol. + 2 =
y = log cos x cosecx dx x - 1 1 - x2

ln ( sin x )
x
ò x2 -1dx
y=- I.F = e
ln ( cos x )
I.F = 1 - x2
dy
=-
[cot x·ln(cos x) + tan x·ln(sin x)]
Solution of D.E.
( ln(cos x) )
2
dx
x 4 + 2x
y· 1 - x 2 = ò · 1 - x 2 dx
dy ö 4 1 - x2
÷ =
dx øx= p ln 2
4
(
y· 1 - x 2 = ò x 4 + 2x dx )
Now,
x5
4 y· 1 - x 2 = + x2 + C
Þ log e 2· =4 5
ln 2
20 p
At x = 0, y = 0, get C = 0
ò ( sin x + cosx )
2
9. dx is equal to :- x5 x2
0 y= +
5 1 - x2 1 - x2
(A) 10 ( p + 4 ) (B) 10 ( p + 2 )
Now,
(C) 20 ( p - 2 ) (D) 20 ( p + 2 ) 3 3 3
5
2 2
x 2
x2
Official Ans. by NTA (D) ò f(x)dx = ò 5 1 - x2
dx + ò 1 - x2
dx
- 3 - 3 - 3
2 2 2

20 p 3 3

ò ( sin x + cosx )
2
Sol. I = dx ; (Jack property) 2 2
x2
0 ò f(x)dx = 0 + 2 ò
1 - x2
dx
- 3 0
p /2
2
I = 40 ò ( sin x + cos x ) dx
2

0 3
2
p 3
p /2
I = 40 ò (1 + sin 2x ) dx
ò f(x)dx = -
3 4
- 3
0 2

I = 20[p + 2] 11. The acute angle between the pair of tangents drawn
10. Let the solution curve y = f(x) of the differential to the ellipse 2x2 + 3y2 = 5 from the point (1,3) is

dy xy x 4 + 2x æ 16 ö æ 24 ö
equation + 2 = , x Î ( -1,1) pass (A) tan -1 ç ÷ (B) tan -1 ç ÷
dx x - 1 1 - x2 è7 5ø è7 5ø
3 æ 32 ö æ 3+8 5 ö
(C) tan -1 ç (D) tan -1 ç
2
è7 5ø
÷ ç 35 ÷÷
through the origin. Then ò f ( x )dx is equal to è ø
-
3 Official Ans. by NTA (B)
2

p 1 p 3
(A) - (B) - Sol. Equation of tangent to the ellipse 2x2 + 3y2 = 5 is
3 4 3 4
5 2 5
y = mx ± m +
p 3 p 3 2 3
(C) - (D) -
6 4 6 2
It pass through (1, 3)

3
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
5 2 5 Official Ans. by NTA (A)
3=m± m +
2 3
44 Q (x2 , y)
3m2 + 12m – =0 2

3
Let q be the angle between the tangents P (x1, y1 )
Sol.
m1 - m 2
tan q = Equation of circle diameter form
1 + m1m 2
(x – x1)(x – x2) + (y – y1)(y – y2) = 0
3 320 (where x1 , x2 are the roots of x2 – 4x – 6 = 0 and y1,
tan q =
-35
y2 are the roots of y2 + 2y – 7 = 0)
æ 24 ö x2 + y2 – 4x + 2y – 13 = 0
q = tan -1 ç ÷
è7 5ø Now,
12. The equation of a common tangent to the parabolas Compare it with the given equation, we get
y = x2 and y = -(x-2)2 is a = –2, b = 1, c = –13
(A) y = 4(x-2) (B) y = 4 (x-1) Now
(C) y = 4 (x+1) (D) y = 4 (x+2) a + b – c = 12
Official Ans. by NTA (B) 14. If the line x-1 = 0, is a directrix of the hyperbola
kx2 – y2=6, then the hyperbola passes through the point

Sol. Equation of tangent of y = x2 be

(
(A) -2 5,6 ) (
(B) - 5,3 )
tx = y + at2 ………(1) (C) ( 5, -2 ) (D) ( 2 5,3 6 )
2
t Official Ans. by NTA (C)
y = tx –
4
Solve with y = –(x –2)2
x2 y2
2
t Sol. - =1 ……(1)
tx – = –(x –2)2 6/k 6
4
6
t2 e2 = 1 +
2
x + x(t – 4) – +4=0 6/k
4
D=0 e = 1+ k
æ t2 ö 6
(t – 4)2 –4 · ç 4 - ÷ = 0 a=
è 4ø k
2
t – 4t = 0
t = 0 or t = 4 a 6
Eq. of directrix x = Þx=
From eq. (1), required common tangent is e k(k + 1)
y = 4 (x-1)
6
=1
k(k + 1)
13. Let the abscissae of the two points P and Q on a k=2
circle be the roots of x2 - 4x – 6 = 0 and the From eq. (1) ,we get 2x2 – y2 = 6
2
ordinates of P and Q be the roots of y + 2y - 7 = Check options
0.If PQ is a diameter of the circle x2 + y2 + 2ax +
2by + c= 0, then the value of (a+b-c) is
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 14 (D) 16

4
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
r
15. A vector a is parallel to the line of intersection of the sin -1 x = ka
plane determined by the vectors ˆi, ˆi + ˆj and the plane cos-1 x = kb
determined by the vectors ˆi - ˆj, ˆi + kˆ . The obtuse angle p
r r k= ….(i)
between a and the vector b = ˆi - 2 ˆj + 2kˆ is 2(a + b)
3p 2p æ 2pa ö –1
(A) (B) sin ç ÷ = sin (4sin x)
4 3 è a + b ø
4p 5p
= 2sin(2sin–1x) cos(2sin–1 x)
(C) (D) = 4x 1 - x 2 (1 - 2x 2 )
5 6
Official Ans. by NTA (A) 17. Negation of the Boolean expression p Û (qÞp) is
(A) ( : p ) Ù q (B) p Ù ( : q )
r
Sol. n1 = ˆi ´ (iˆ + ˆj) = kˆ (C) ( : p ) Ú ( : q ) (D) ( : p ) Ù ( : q )
r
n 2 = (iˆ + k)
ˆ ´ (iˆ - ˆj) Official Ans. by NTA (D)

= ˆi + ˆj - kˆ
r r Sol. ~ ( p « (q ® p))
Line of intersection along n1 ´ n 2
~ ( p « q ) = ( pÙ ~ q ) Ú ( q Ù ~ p )
= kˆ ´ (iˆ + ˆj - k)
ˆ = -ˆi + ˆj
r ~ ( p « ( q ® p ) ) = ( pÙ ~ ( q ® p ) ) Ú ( ( q ® p ) Ù ~ p )
D.R of a= - ˆi + ˆj
r
D.R of b= ˆi - 2 ˆj + 2kˆ
( pÙ ~ ( q ® p ) ) = p Ù ( q Ù ~ p ) = ( pÙ ~ p ) Ù q = c
rr r r ( q ® p ) Ù ~ p = ( ~ q Ú p ) Ù ~ p =~ p Ù ( ~ q Ú p )
a·b = -3 and a Ù b = q( )
= ( ~ pÙ ~ q ) Ú ( ~ p Ù p ) = ~ pÙ ~ q
-3
cos q =
2 ´3 ~ ( p « ( q ® p ) ) = c Ú ( ~ p Ù ~ q ) =~ p Ù ~ q
3p 18. Let X be a binomially distributed random variable
q=
4 4
with mean 4 and variance . Then 54 P(X £ 2) is
1 sin -1 x cos-1 x 3
16. If 0 < x < and = , then a value equal to
2 a b 73 146
(A) (B)
æ 2pa ö 27 27
of sin ç ÷ is
è a +bø (C)
146
(D)
126
81 81
(A) 4 (1 - x ) (1 - 2x )
2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (B)

(B) 4x (1 - x ) (1 - 2x )
2 2

Sol. np = 4
(C) 2x (1 - x )(1 - 4x )
2 2
npq = 4/3
n = 6, p = 2/3, q = 1/3
(D) 4 (1 - x 2 )(1 - 4x 2 )
54(P(X = 2) + P (X = 1) + P(X = 0))
Official Ans. by NTA (B) æ 2
æ2ö æ1ö
4 1
æ2ö æ1ö
5
æ2ö æ1ö ö
0 6

54 ç 6 C2 ç ÷ ç ÷ + 6 C1 ç ÷ ç ÷ + 6 C0 ç ÷ ç ÷ ÷
ç è3ø è3ø è3ø è3ø è 3 ø è 3 ø ÷ø
è
sin -1 x cos-1 x 146
Sol. = =k =
a b 27

5
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
æ 1 ö æ ö
ç1 - ÷ ( cos x - sin x ) 1 ç dx dx ÷
19. The integral ò è 3ø
dx is equal to çò -ò ÷
æ 2 ö 2ç æ pö æ pö÷
ç1 + sin 2x ÷ ç sin ç x + 6 ÷ cos ç x - ÷ ÷
6øø
è 3 ø è è ø è

æx p ö æx p ö
tan ç + ÷ tan ç + ÷
1 è 2 12 ø + C 1 è 2 12 ø
(A) log e ln
2 æx pö 2 æx pö
ç2+ 6÷ tan ç + ÷
è ø è2 6ø

æx pö 20. The area bounded by the curves y = |x2-1| and y = 1

tan ç + ÷
1 è2 6ø +C is
(B) loge
2 æx pö
ç2 + 3÷
è ø (A)
2
3
( 2 +1 ) (B)
4
3
( 2 -1 )
æ x pö
(C) log e
tan ç + ÷
è 2 6 ø +C
(C) 2 ( 2 -1) (D)
8
3
( 2 -1 )
æx p ö
tan ç + ÷ Official Ans. by NTA (D)
è 2 12 ø

æx p ö Sol. y = |x2 – 1|
tan ç - ÷
1 è 2 12 ø + C
(D) log e
2 æx pö |x2 – 1| = y
tan ç - ÷
è2 6ø
(0, 1)
Official Ans. by NTA (A) A E ( 2, 1)
(– 2, 1) C
B D
æ 1 ö (–1, 0) 0 (1, 0)
ç1 - ÷ ( cos x - sin x )
Sol. I=ò è 3ø
dx Area = ABCDEA
æ 2 ö
ç 1 + sin 2x ÷ æ1 2 ö
è 3 ø
ç0 ( ) (
= 2 ç ò 1 - (1 - x 2 ) dx + ò 1 - (x 2 - 1) dx ÷
÷ )
è 1 ø
æ 1 ö
3 èç 1- ÷ ( cos x - sin x ) 8
3ø
2 ò
dx = ( 2 - 1)
æ 3 ö 3
çç + sin 2x ÷÷
è 2 ø SECTION-B

æ 3 1ö 1. Let A = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7} and B = {3,6,7,9}. Then

çç - ÷÷ (cos x - sin x)
è 2 2ø the number of elements in the set
ò sin 60° + sin 2x dx
{C Í A : C Ç B ¹ f} is_______

Official Ans. by NTA (112 )

æ 3 1 3 1 ö
çç cos x - cos x - sin x + sin x
è 2 2 2 2
ò æ pö æ pö
dx Sol. A = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7} and
2sin ç x + ÷ cos ç x - ÷
è 6ø è 6ø B = {3,6,7,9}

æ pö p öö Total subset of A = 27 = 128

æ æ
ç cos ç x - ÷ - sin ç x + ÷ ÷ C Ç B = f when set C contains the element
è è 6ø è 6 øø
ò æ pö æ pö
dx
2sin ç x + ÷ cos ç x - ÷ 1, 2, 4, 5
è 6ø è 6ø

6
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
\ S = {C Í A;C Ç B ¹ f} Sol. Here 1st digit is 1 or 2 only
Case-I
= Total – (C Ç B = f)
If first digit is 1
= 128 – 24 = 112
Then last two digits can be 24, 32, 36, 52, 56, 64
2. The largest value of a, for which the perpendicular
distance of the plane containing the lines 1

{
r
r= ( ˆi + ˆj) + l ( ˆi + ajˆ - kˆ ) and rr = ( ˆi + ˆj ) + m ( -ˆi + ˆj - akˆ ) 1 × 3 × 6 = 18 ways
from the point (2,1,4) is 3 , is_________. Case – II
If first digit is 2 then last two digit can be 16, 36,
Official Ans. by NTA (20)
56, 64

r ˆ ˆ
Sol. ( ) (
r = i + j + l ˆi + ajˆ - kˆ ) 2

{
r ˆ ˆ
r = ( i + j ) + m ( -ˆi + ˆj - akˆ ) 1 × 3 × 4 = 12 ways
Total ways = 12 + 18 = 30 ways
D.R’s of plane containing these lines is
10
k m
ˆi ˆj kˆ 4. If åk 4
=
+ k +1 n
2
, where m and n are co-
1 a -1 = ˆi(1 - a 2 ) - ˆj(-a - 1) + k(1
ˆ + a) =
k 1

-1 1 -a prime, then m + n is equal to

r Official Ans. by NTA (166)

n = (1 - a)iˆ + ˆj + kˆ
One point in plane : (1, 1, 0)
10
k m
\ equation of plane is
Sol. åk
k =1
4
=
+ k +1 n
2

(1 – a)(x – 1) + (y – 1) + (z – 0) = 0 1 10 (k 2 + k + 1) - (k 2 - k + 1)
Þ å
2 k =1 (k 2 + k + 1)(k 2 - k + 1)
(1 – a)x + y + z + a – 2 = 0
1 æ 10 æ 1 1 öö
Þ ç åç 2 - 2 ÷
\D =
| (1 - a)2 + 1 + 4 + a - 2 | 2 è k =1 è (k - k + 1) k + k + 1 ÷ø ø
(1 - a)2 + 1 + 1
55 m
Þ =
111 n
Þ |5 – a| = 3. a 2 - 2a + 3
m + n = 166
Þ a + 2a – 8 = 0
2

5. If the sum of solutions of the system of equations

Þ a = 2, –4 2sin 2 q - cos2q = 0 and 2 cos2 q + 3sin q = 0 in the
interval [0, 2 p ] is kp , then k is equal to _______.
\ largest value of a = 2
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
3. Numbers are to be formed between 1000 and 3000,
which are divisible by 4, using the digits 1,2,3,4,5
Sol. 2sin 2 q - cos2q = 0
and 6 without repetition of digits. Then the total
number of such numbers is _____________. 2sin2q – (1 – 2sin2 q) = 0
2
æ1ö
Official Ans. by NTA (30) Þ sin q = ç ÷ 2

è2ø

7
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
p 5p 7p 11p 36756
q= , , , New S.D, s¢1 = - (31)2 = s
6 6 6 6 38
2 cos2 q + 3sin q = 0 36756 – (31)2 × 38 = 38s2
Þ 2 sin 2 q - 3sin q - 2 = 0 Þ 38s2 = 238
1 The plane passing through the line L: l x-y+3(1- l )
\ sin q = - 7.
2
z = 1, x+2y - z = 2 and perpendicular to the plane
7 p 11p
q= , 3x+2y+z = 6 is 3x-8y+7z=4. If q is the acute
6 6
angle between the line L and the y-axis, then 415
So, the common solution is
cos2 q is equal to_____.
7 p 11p
q= ,
6 6 Official Ans. by NTA (125)
7p + 11p
Sum = = 3p= kp
6 r
Sol. n1 = lˆi - ˆj + 3(1 - l)kˆ
K=3
r
n 2 = ˆi + 2 ˆj - kˆ

6. The mean and standard deviation of 40 ˆi ˆj kˆ

observations are 30 and 5 respectively. It was Direction ratio of line = l -1 3(1 - l)
noticed that two of these observations 12 and 10 1 2 -1

were wrongly recorded. If s is the standard

= (6l - 5)iˆ + (3 - 2l)ˆj + (2l + 1)kˆ
deviation of the data after omitting the two wrong
3x – 8y + 7z = 4 will contain the line
observations from the data, then 38s2 is equal
(6l - 5)iˆ + (3 - 2l)ˆj + (2l + 1)kˆ
to___________.
Normal of 3x – 8y + 7z = 4 will be perpendicular
Official Ans. by NTA (238)
to the line
= 3(6l - 5) + (3 - 2l)( -8) + 7(2l + 1) = 0
Sol. Wrong mean = µ1 = 30
2
Þl=
Wrong S.D = s1 = 5 3
åx i
= 30 æ 5 7ö
\ direction ratio of line ç -1, , ÷
40 è 3 3ø
Þ å x i = 1200 Angle with y axis

s12 = 25 5/3
cos q =
25 49
1+ +
Þ
åx 2
i
- 30 2 = 25 9 9
40
5
Þ å x 2i = 925 ´ 40 = 37000
cos q =
83
New sum = å x¢ =
i 1200 - 10 - 12 = 1178
\ 415cos2 q =
25
´ 415 = 125
83
1178
New mean = m1¢ = = 31
38
New å x= 2
i 37000 - (10)2 - (12)2 = 36756

8
Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session

8. Suppose y = y(x) be the solution curve to the Sol. 1st term = 100 = a

dy Last term = 199 = l

differential equation - y = 2 - e - x such that
dx
If 3 term
lim y(x) is finite. If a and b are respectively the x-
x ®¥ a, a + d, a + 2d
and y- intercepts of the tangent to the curve at x=0, an = l = a + (n – 1)d
then the value of a-4b is equal to _________.
l-a
Official Ans. by NTA (3) di =
n-l
n ® number of terms
dy 199 - 100
Sol. - y = 2 - e-x n=3, d1 =
dx 2
I.F. = e ò = e - x
- dx
99
= Î/ I
2
\ solution of D.E
99
( )
y·e- x = ò 2e - x - e -2x dx n = 4, d 2 =
3
= 33 Î I

e-x n = 10, d 3 =
99
= 11 Î I
Þ y = -2 + + C.e x
2 9
Q lim y is finite n = 12, d 4 =
99
= 9ÎI
x ®¥
11
æ e-x ö \ å d i = 33 + 11 + 9 = 53
\ lim ç -2 + + C.e x ÷ ® finite
x®¥
è 2 ø
This is possible only when C = 0 éa b ù
10. The number of matrices A = ê ú , where
ëc d û
e-x
\ y = y(x) = -2 + a,b,c,d Î {-1,0,1,2,3,……,10}, such that A = A–1,
2
dy 1 is______.
= - e- x
dx 2 Official Ans. by NTA (50)
dy 1 1 -3
=- = m , y(0) = -2 + =
dx x= 0 2 2 2
éa b ù
\ equation of tangent Sol. A=ê ú
ëc d û
3 1
y+ = - (x - 0) Given A = A–1
2 2
\ A 2 = A·A -1 = I
Þ x + 2y = -3
é a b ù éa b ù é 1 0 ù
a = –3, b =
-3 ê úê ú=ê ú
ëc d û ëc d û ë0 1 û
2
a – 4b = –3 + 6 = 3 é a 2 + bc ab + bd ù é 1 0 ù
Þê 2ú
=ê ú
9. Different A.P.'s are constructed with the first term ë ac + cd bc + d û ë 0 1 û
100, the last term 199, And integral common
\ a + bc = 1
2
….(1)
differences. The sum of the common differences of
all such, A.P's having at least 3 terms and at most ab + bd = 0 …..(2)
33 terms is.
ac + cd = 0 …(3)
Official Ans. by NTA (53) 2
bc + d = 1 …….(4)

9
 Final JEE-Main Exam July, 2022/26-07-2022/Evening Session
(1) – (4) gives Case – II
2 2
a –d =0 a=d
Þ (a + d) = 0 or a – d = 0 from (2) and (3)
Case – I a ¹ 0 then b = c = 0
a + d = 0 Þ (a, d) = (–1, 1), (0, 0), (1, –1) a2 = 1
(a) (a, d) = (–1, 1) a= ± 1=d
\ from equation (1) (a, d) = (1, 1), (–1, –1) ® 2 pairs
1 + bc = 1 Þ bc = 0 \ Total = 23 + 23 + 2 + 2
b = 0 C = 12 possibilities = 50 pairs
c = 0 b = 12 possibilities
but (0, 0) is repeated
\ 2 × 12 = 24
24 – 1 (repeated) = 23 pairs
(b) (a, d) = (1, –1) Þ bc = 0 ® 23 pairs
(c) (a, d) = (0, 0) Þ bc = 1
Þ (b, c) = (1, 1) & (–1, –1), 2 pairs

10