Arjuna JEE (2024)

JEE
JEE Advanced Test - 02 Advanced
Paper-01
DURATION: :180
DURATION 90 Minutes
Minutes DATED: 08/10/2023 M. MARKS: 192

Topics covered
Physics : "Newton law of Motion(Full Chapter), Friction (Full Chapter), Circular motion(Full Chapter),
Work, Power & Energy (Full Chapter), Motion of System of Particle and COM (Full Chapter)"
Chemistry : "Mole concepts (Full Chapter), Atomic structure (Full Chapter), Periodic Classification(Full Chapter),
Chemical Bonding (Full Chapter), State of Matter, gases and liquids (Full chapter),
thermodynamics(Full Chapter), Equilibrium-chemical(Full Chapter) Equilibrium-ionic (Full Chapter)
Redox Reactions (Full Chapter)"
Mathematics : Quadratic Equations (Full syllabus), Complex Numbers - I (Full syllabus), Permutation & Combinations
(Full syllabus), Binomial Theorem (Full syllabus)

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 192.
4. This Paper consists Three Sections (Section A, B & C) in each subject (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)
For Section A : Numerical Value Type (8 Questions)
For each Question, enter the correct numerical value. If the numerical value has more than 2 decimal places, truncate/round-off the
value to TWO decimal places.
Full Marks - +3, Zero Marks - 0
For Section B : One or More than one correct (6 Questions); For each Question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answers.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - 1
For Section C : Matrix Match Columns or List (4 Questions); For each Question, choose the correct option corresponding to the correct
answer.
Each Columns or List has TWO lists : Column I & Column II or List I & List II
Column I or List I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and (IV) and Column II or List II has four or five entries (P), (Q), (R), (S) and (T). Four
options (1),(2),(3),(4) are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on Column I or List I and Column II or List II and only ONE of
these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
Full Marks - +4, Zero Marks - 0, Negative Marks - -1
5. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc.
inside the examination room/hall.
6. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the
candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles completely. Half-
filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may create
problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-A 1
6. A bead of mass kg starts from rest from A to
Numerical Value Type (1-8) 2
1. The minimum acceleration (in m/s2) that must be move in a vertical plane along a smooth fixed
imparted to the cart in Fig. so that the block A will quarter ring of radius 5m, under the action of a
not fall (given  = 0.5 is the coefficient of friction constant horizontal force F = 5N as shown. The
between the surfaces of block and cart) is given speed of bead (in m/s) as it reaches point B is:
by: (g = 10 m/s2) (Take g = 10 m/s2)
a
F
A
A
R=5m

2. A circular plate of uniform thickness has a

diameter of 28 cm. A circular portion of diameter
7.
21 cm is removed from the plate as shown. O is the
centre of mass of complete plate. The position of
centre of mass of remaining portion will shift
towards left from ‘O’ by cm
B
The maximum value of mass of block C (in kg) so
that neither A nor B Moves is.
(Given that mass of A is 100 kg and that of B is
140 kg. Pulleys are smooth and friction coefficient
between A and B and between B and horizontal
surface is  = 0.3.) Take g = 10m/s2

3. A ball is dropped from a height of 45 m from the

ground. The coefficient of restitution between the 8. A ball moving with velocity 2 m/s collides head on
ball and the ground is 2/3. What is the distance with another stationary ball of double the mass. If
the coefficient of restitution is 0.5 then their
travelled (in metres) by the ball in 4th second of its velocities (in m/s) after collision will be v1 m/s and
motion. Assume negligible time is spent in v2 m/s. Find the value of v1 + v2 (in m/s)
rebounding. Let g = 10 ms–2.
SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (9–14)
4. Determine the time (in s) in which the smaller 9. The rough blocks A and B, A placed over B, move
block reaches others end of bigger block in the
with accelerations a A and a B , velocity v A and
Figure. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
v B by the action of horizontal forces F A and F B
10 N 2 kg  = 0.3 , respectively (see Fig.). When no friction exists
8 kg  = 0.0 between the blocks A and B.

L = 3.0 m

5. A nail is fixed at a point P vertically below the

point of suspension ‘O’ of a simple pendulum of
length 1m. The bob is released when the string of
pendulum makes an angle 30° with horizontal. The (A) v A = vB and a A = aB
bob reaches lowest point then describes vertical (B) aA = aB
circle whose centre coincides with P. The least (C) Both (A) and (B)
distance of P from O (in m) is: FA FB
(D) = and v A = vB
mA mB
10. Seven pulleys are connected with the help of three 12. Assume right side to be positive. The coefficient of
light strings as shown in the Fig. given below. friction between the block and ground is shown in
Consider P3, P4 and P5 as light pulleys and Pulleys Figure. The correct option(s) are:
P6 and P7 have masses m each. For this 0.2 kg 0.5 kg
arrangement mark the correct statement(s)? 3N 3N
A µ = 0.5 B
22 m
(A) Acceleration of block A is 10m/s2
(B) Acceleration of block B is –1m/s2
P7 (C) The time (t) at which they collide to each
P3 other is 2s.
(D) None of the above

13. A ball of mass 1 kg is thrown up with an initial

speed of 4 m/s. A second ball of mass 2 kg is
released from rest from some height as shown in
figure. Choose the correct statement(s).

(A) Tension in the string connecting P1, P3 and P4

is zero.
(B) Tension in the string connecting P1, P3 and P4
is mg/3.
(C) Tension in all the 3 string is same and equal
to zero.
(D) Acceleration of P6 is g downward and that of
P7 is g upward. (A) The centre of mass of the two balls comes
down with acceleration g/3
11. Two blocks, of masses M and 2M, are connected (B) The centre of mass first moves up and then
to a light spring of spring constant K that has one comes down.
end fixed, as shown in figure. The horizontal
(C) The acceleration of the centre of mass is g
surface and the pulley are frictionless. The block’s
downwards.
are released from rest when the spring is in relaxed
(D) The centre of mass of the two balls remains
state.
K stationary.
M
14. The potential energy of a particle of mass m at a
distance r from a fixed-point O is given by
2M V(r)=kr2/2, where k is a positive constant of
appropriate dimensions. This particle is moving in
a circular orbit of radius R about the point O. If v
4Mg is the speed of the particle and L is the magnitude
(A) Maximum extension in the spring is
K of its angular momentum about O, which of the
(B) Maximum kinetic energy of the system is following statement is (are) true?
2M 2 g 2 k
(A) v = R
K 2m
(C) Maximum energy stored in the spring is four
k
times that of maximum kinetic energy of the (B) v = R
system. m
(D) When kinetic energy of the system is (C) L = mk R 2
maximum, energy stored in the spring is
mk 2
4M 2 g 2 (D) L = R
2
K

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Matrix Match Type (15–18)
15. The coefficient of friction between the block and
the surface is 0.4 in figure (i-iv). Match column I
with II.
F = 2.5 N
2 kg 2 kg
1 kg

(i) (ii)
2 kg
Take g = 10 ms–2.
F=5N F=5N
(A) (a)→(r), (b)→(p), (c)→(s), (d)→(q)
60° (B) (a)→(p), (b)→(r), (c)→(s), (d)→(q)
2 kg 2 kg
(C) (a)→(r), (b)→(p), (c)→(q), (d)→(s)
(D) (a)→(r), (b)→(s), (c)→(p), (d)→(q)
(iii) (iv)
Column-I Column-II
17. A block is placed on a rough wedge fixed on a lift
(i) Force of friction (a) Figure (i)
as shown in figure. A string is also attached with
is zero in
the block. The whole system moves upwards.
(ii) Force of friction (b) Figure (ii)
Block does not lose contact with wedge. Match the
is 2.5 N in
following two columns regarding the work done
(iii) Acceleration of (c) Figure (iii)
(on the block).
the block is zero
in
(iv) Normal force is (d) Figure (iv)
not equal to 2g in
(A) i→a,c ii→b,d iii→a,b,c,d iv→c, d
(B) i→a,d, ii→c,d iii→b,a,d iv→b,c,d Column-I Column-II
(C) i→a,d, ii→a,d iii→c,d iv→b,c
(D) i→a,d, ii→a,c iii→b,c,d iv→c,d (a) Work done by normal (p) Positive
reaction
16. System shown in figure is released from rest.
(b) Work done by gravity (q) Negative
Friction is absent and string is massless. In time
t = 0.3 s: (c) Work done by friction (r) Zero
Column-I Column-II
(d) Work done by tension (s) Can’t say
(a) Work done by gravity on (p) –1.5J
anything
2kg block
(b) Work done by gravity on (q) 2J (A) (a)→(p), (b)→(q), (c)→(r), (d)→(s)
1kg block (B) (a)→(p), (b)→(q), (c)→(r), (d)→(p)
(c) Work done by string on 2kg (r) 3J
(C) (a)→(q), (b)→(p), (c)→(r), (d)→(s)
block
(D) (a)→(q), (b)→(p), (c)→(s), (d)→(r)
(d) Work done by string on 1kg (s) –2J
block

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18. The coefficient of friction between the masses 2m Column-I Column-II
and m is 0.5. All other surfaces are frictionless and i m1=2m (a) Acceleration of 2m and
pulleys are massless (see Fig.) Column-I gives the m are same

different values of m1 and column-II gives the ii m1=3m (b) Acceleration of 2m and
m are different
possible acceleration of 2m and m. Match the
iii m1=4m (c) Acceleration of 2m is
columns? greater than m
iv m1=6m (d) Acceleration of m is less
then 0.6g
m1 (A) (i→a,d, ii→a,d iii→b,c,d iv→b,c,d)
m (B) (i→c,d, ii→a,d iii→b,a,d iv→b,c,d)
2m (C) (i→a,d, ii→a,d iii→b,c,d iv→b,c)
(D) (i→a,d, ii→a,c iii→b,c,d iv→b,c,d)

PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A
Numerical Value Type (19–26)
19. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen
atom is 0.529 Å. The radius of the third orbit of
He+ will be?
20. When 10𝑥 molecules are removed from 200 mg
of N2O, 2.89 × 10–3 moles of N2O are left. The
value of x will be?
21. When a gas filled in a closed vessel is heated
through 1°C, its pressure is increased by 0.4%.
The initial temperature of the gas was _____ K.
22. When 1 g of anhydrous oxalic acid is burnt at
25°C, the amount of heat liberated is 2.835 kJ.
H combustion for oxalic acid (C2H2O4) is –x kJ.
What is the value of x ?
23. The solubility product of BaSO4 is 4 × 10–10. The
solubility of BaSO4 in presence of 0.02 N H2SO4
will be Z × 10-8. Find the value of Z?
24. How many moles of KMnO4 are required to
oxidise 5 moles of SnCl2 in acidic medium?
(Given : MnO −4 + Sn 2+ → Mn 2+ + Sn 4+ )
25. In the equilibrium,
SO 2 Cl2 (g) SO 2 (g) + Cl 2 (g)
at 2000 K and 10 atm pressure, % Cl2 = 40, %
SO2 = 40 (by volume), then Kp will be?
26. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron
travelling with 10% of velocity of light is equal
to ______ pm. (Given: h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js)
SECTION-B
One or More than One Correct Type (27–32)
27. Which of the following statement concerning the
four quantum numbers is/are correct?
(A) n gives the size of an orbital.
(B) l gives the shape of an orbital.
(C) m gives the energy of the electron in orbital.
(D) s gives the direction of spin of electron in
the orbital.
3
28. In a reaction, KClO3 → KCl + O2; 1 mole of
2
KClO3 is thermally decomposed and excess of
aluminium is burnt in the gaseous product. What
amount of Al2O3 can be formed?
3
(Given : 2A + O2 → A 2O3 )
2
(A) 1 mole (B) 2 moles
(C) 101.9 g (D) 5.093 ×1023 molecules
29. Which of the following statements about modern
periodic table is correct?
(A) The p-block has 6 columns because a
maximum of 6 electrons can occupy all the
orbitals in the p-subshell.
(B) The d-block has 8 columns because a
maximum of 8 electrons can occupy all the
orbitals in the d-subshell.
(C) Each block contains a number of columns
equal to number of electrons that can occupy
the subshell.
(D) The block indicates the value of azimuthal
quantum number for the last subshell which
received electrons.

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30. Which one of the following pairs of chemical 34. Match column I with column II, and choose the
species contains the ions having different correct combination from the options given
hybridisation of the central atoms? below:
(A) NO −2 and NH 2− (B) NO −2 and NO3− Column-I Column-II

(C) NH +4 and NO3− (D) SCN − and NH 2− (a) Shape of SF2 (p) Tetrahedral
(b) Shape of BeF2 (q) Linear
31. Which of the following is not correct in case of
kinetic theory of gases? (c) Shape of ClF3 (r) T shape
(A) Gases are made up of small particles of (d) Shape of POCl3 (s) Angular
negligible size as compared to container size
a b c d
(B) The molecules are in random motion always
(A) s p q r
(C) When molecules collide they lose energy
(B) p s r q
(D) When the gas is heated, the average kinetic
(C) p r s q
energy of gas molecules increase
(D) s q r p
35. Match the column-I with Column-II:
32. The respective examples of extensive and
Column-I Column-II
intensive properties are:
(a) Path function (p) Heat
(A) Enthalpy, Entropy
(b) State function (q) Internal energy
(B) Entropy, Enthalpy
(c) Irreversible (r) No equilibrium
(C) Entropy, Temperature process in the system
(D) Temperature, Entropy (d) Adiabatic (s) No exhange of
process heat between
SECTION-C system and
Matrix Match Type (33–36) surrounding
33. Match column I with column II, and choose the a b c d
correct combination from the options given
(A) r s q p
below:
(B) r q s p
Column-I Column-II (C) p r s q
(a) Maximum oxidation (p) 0 (D) p q r s
state of Iodine
(b) Oxidation Number of (q) +2 36. Match the frequencies of electromagnetic waves:
sulphur in H2S2O8 Column-I Column-II

(c) Oxidation Number of Fe (r) +6 (a) UV rays (p) 1011 Hz

in K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ] (b) X rays (q) 106 Hz

(d) The average oxidation (s) +7 (c) Microwaves (r) 1015 Hz

state of chlorine in (d) Radiowaves (s) 1018 Hz
bleaching powder
a b c d
a b c d (A) q p s r
(A) s r q p (B) r s p q
(B) s r p q (C) r s q p
(C) r s q p (D) s r p q
(D) r s p q

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 PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-A
Numerical Value Type (37-44) SECTION-B
37. A man has 3 friends. If N is the number of ways One or More than One Correct Type (45–50)
he can invite one friend everyday for dinner on 6 45. If n = 45.37.511, then which of the following is/are
correct?
successive nights so that no friend is invited
(A) The number of divisor of n which are
more than 3 times then the value of N, is equal to perfect squares is 144
(B) The number of proper divisors of n is 1054
38. If x1 + x2 + x3 + 4x4 = 20, then the number of non- (C) The number of odd divisors of n is 96
(D) The number of even divisors of n is 958
negative integral solution of the equation, is
equal to 46. There are 6 boys and 5 girls. There are two round
tables with 7 chairs and 4 chairs. Then which of
39. If z1, z2 and z3 are complex numbers with the following is/are correct?
(A) Number of ways of arranging all of them is
z1 = z2 = |z3| = 1, z1 + z2 + z3 = 1 and z1z2z3 = 1. 11!
Then the value of |(z1 + 2) (z2 + 2) (z3 + 2)|, is 28
(B) Number of ways of arranging all of them so
equal to
( 6!)2
that all girls are at same table is
8
40. If z1 and z2 are two complex numbers satisfying
(C) Number of ways of arranging all of them so
z1 − 3z 2 5!6!
=1 (where |z1|  3), then |z2|, is equal to that all boys are at same table is
3 − z1 z2 4
(D) Number of ways of arranging all of them so
that all boys are at one table or all girls are
n
3n − 2 r
41. If nN, n > 4 and (1–x3)n =  ar xr (1 − x ) at one table is 6!(120)
r =0

n 47. The value of C02 + 3.C12 + 5.C22 + ……… to (n+1)

and  ar = n
, then the value of , is equal to
term where Cr = nCr, is equal to
r =0
(A) 2n–1Cn–1
(B) 2n + 1.2n–1Cn
2
 n Ck  n ( n + 1)2 ( n + 2 )
n (C) 2(n+1).2n–1Cn
If n  N and  k  n 3
=
 C  (D) 2n–1Cn + (2n + 1)2n–1Cn–1
42. ,
k =1  k −1  p

( )
then the value of p, is equal to n
48. If 4 + 15 = I + f , where n is odd natural

number, I is an integer and 0 < f < 1, then

43. If x1, x2 are roots of equation x2 – 6x + 4 = 0, then (A) I is a natural number 0

value of
( x1 − 2 )16 + ( x2 − 6 )8 , is equal to (B) I is an even integer f
(C) (I + f) (1 – f) = 1
x18
(D) (I + f) (I – f) = 1

44. Let a2 + b + c = 32 – 4 + 1, aβ2 + bβ + c = 49. If |z1| = 1, |z2 – 2| = 3 and |z3 – 5| = 6, then
maximum value of |2z1 – 3z2 – 4z3| is not less
3β2 – 4β + 1, a2 + b + c = 32 – 4 + 1 where ,
than (where z1, z2 and z3 are complex numbers) is
β and  are distinct real numbers, then sum of (A) 43 (B) 44
roots of quadratic equation 3ax2 + 9bx + 7c = 0 is (C) 45 (D) 46
equal to

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  1 52. Match entries of column I with those of column II.
50. Let y =  a +  x 2 + x + 3 is given, where aR–
 a Column- I Column-II
{0}. Then which of following can be graph of y = f 1 2 P 2
5
 1 
(x)? The value of   xn + xn 
y n =1
when x2 – x + 1 = 0 is equal
to
(A) x 4
2 Q 4
If  1 + cos + i sin   =
y  sin + i (1 + cos  ) 

cos n + i sin n, then n is

(B) equal to
x
3 The adjacent vertices of a R 9
y regular polygon of n sides
having center at origin are
the points z and z . If
(C) x Im(z)/Re(z) = 2 − 1, then
the value of n/4 is equal to
y  10 
(1 / 50 )  ( r − ) ( r − 2 )
4 S 8
x
 r =1 
(D) is equal to (where  is cube
root of unity)

1 2 3 4
(A) Q S R P
SECTION-C (B) S Q P R
Matrix Match Type (51–54) (C) S P Q R
51. Consider the quadratic polynomial P(x) = 2x2 – (D) S Q R P
10px + 7p –1, where p is a parameter, then match
column I with column II.
53. If (1 + x + x2)n = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ….. + a2nx2n,
Column- I Column-II
match the following columns.
1 If both roots of P(x) P 1  Column- I Column-II
= 0 are confined in p ,  
3 
(–1, 1), then 1 a02 − a12 + a22 − a32 + .... + a22n , P
is equal to
1 n
2
(
3 + an )
2 Exactly one root of Q p
P(x) = 0, lies in (–1,
1)
3 Both roots of P(x) = R  1 1
2 a0a2 – a1a3 + a2a4 …. + Q
a2n–2a2n, is equal to
1 n
2
(
3 −1 )
0 are greater than 1 p − , 
 17 3  3 a0 + a1 + a2 +….+an is R an–1
4 One root of P(x) = 0 S  1  1  equal to
P −, −    ,  
is grater than 1 and  17   3 
4 a2 + a4 + ….. + a2n, is S an
other roots of P(x) =
equal to
0 is less than 1
T  −1 1 
1 2 3 4
p ,  (A) R S Q P
 17 3 
(B) S R P Q
1 2 3 4 (C) P Q R S
(A) R S Q P (D) R P Q S
(B) Q T P R
(C) T Q R P
(D) R P Q S

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54. Match the following columns.
Column- I Column-II

1 Number of straight lines P 30

joining any two of 10
points if which four points
are collinear, is equal to

2 Maximum number of Q 60
points of intersection of 10
straight lines in the plane,
is equal to
3 Maximum number of R 40
points of intersection of 6
circles in the plane, is
equal to
4 Maximum number of S 45
points of intersection of 6
parabolas, is equal to
1 2 3 4
(A) Q P R S
(B) R S Q Q
(C) R P S Q
(D) R S P Q

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