Unique Question Bank - Chemistry

Unique Practice Questions Chemistry
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1. Consider the following reaction:
(1) In acid base titration as an indicator
(2) In protein estimation as an alternative to ninhydrin
(3) In laboratory test for phenols
(4) As food grade colourant
2. The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, respectively, are :
(1) 296, 325, 333 and 349 (2) 333, 325, 349 and 296
(3) 349, 333, 325 and 296 (4) 333, 349, 325 and 296
3. The number of chiral carbons in chloramphenicol is ___________.
4. The flocculation value of HCl for arsenic sulphide sol. is 30 m mol L 1. If H2SO4 is used for the flocculation of
arsenic sulphide, the amount, in grams, of H2SO4 in 250 ml required for the above purpose is ______.
(molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol)
5. The number of sp2 hybridised
6. As per Hardy-Schulze formulation, the flocculation values of the following for ferric hydroxide sol are in the
order
(1) AlCl3 > K3[Fe(CN)6] > K2CrO4 > KBr = KNO3 (2) K3 [Fe(CN)6] < K2CrO4 < KBr = KNO3 = AlCl3
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] > AlCl3 > K2CrO4 > KBr > KNO3 (4) K3[Fe(CN)6] < K2CrO4 < AlCl3 < KBr < KNO3
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7. The number of chiral centres in penicillin is _____________.
8. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct option is
Assertion : For hydrogenation reactions, the catalytic activity increases from Group 5 to Group 11 metals
with maximum activity shown by Group 7-9 elements.
Reason : The reactants are most strongly adsorbed on group 7-9 elements.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are false.
(3) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation for the assertion.
9. White phosphorus on reaction with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO 2 gives phosphine
and compound (X). (X) on acidification with HCl gives compound (Y). The basicity of compound (Y) is
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 1
10. Complexes (ML5) of metals Ni and Fe have ideal square pyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal geometries,
respectively. The sum of the 90°, 120° and 180° L-M-L angles in the two complexes is __________.
11. The electronic configurations of bivalent europium and trivalent cerium are
(atomic number : Xe = 54, Ce = 58, Eu = 63)
(1) [Xe] 4f7 and [Xe] 4f1 (2) [Xe] 4f7 6s2 and [Xe] 4f2 6s2
(3) [Xe] 4f2 and [Xe] 4f7 (4) [Xe] 4f4 and [Xe] 4f9
12. A chemist has 4 samples of artificial sweetener A, B, C and D. To identify these samples, he performed certain
experiments and noted the following observations :
(i) A and D both form blue-violet colour with ninhydrin.
(ii) Lassaigne extract of C gives positive AgNO3 test and negative Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 test.
(iii) Lassaigne extract of B and D gives positive sodium nitroprusside test.
Based on these observations which option is correct?
(1) A : Aspartame; B : Alitame;
C : Saccharin; D: Sucralose

(2) A : Saccharin; B : Alitame;
C : Sucralose; D: Aspartame
(3) A : Alitame; B : Saccharin;
C : Aspartame; D: Sucralose
(4) A : Aspartame; B : Saccharin;
C : Sucralose; D: Alitame
13. Which of these will produce the highest yield in Friedel Crafts reaction?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
14. The mass percentage of nitrogen in histamine is _____.
15. A, B and C are three biomolecules. The results of the tests performed on them are given below
A, B and C are respectively :
(1) A = Lactose, B = Fructose, C = Alanine (2) A = Lactose, B = Glucose, C = Alanine
(3) A = Glucose, B = Fructose, C = Albumin (4) A = Lactose, B = Glucose, C = Albumin
16. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the amount of oxygen required (in ppm)
(1) By bacteria to break-down organic waste in a certain volume of a water sample
(2) For sustaining life in a water body
(3) By anaerobic bacteria to break down inorganic waste present in a water body
(4) For the photochemical break down of waste present in 1 m3 volume of a water body

17. On heating compound (A) gives a gas (B) which is a constituent of air. This gas when treated with H 2 in the
presence of a catalyst gives another gas (C) which is basic in nature. (A) should not be:
(1) Pb(NO3)2 (2) (NH4)2Cr2O7
(3) NH4NO2 (4) NaN3
18. While titrating dilute HCl solution with aqueous NaOH, which of the following will not be required?
(1) Pipette and distilled water (2) Clamp and phenolphthalein
(3) Burette and porcelain tile (4) Bunsen burner and measuring cylinder
19. The statement that is not true about ozone is
(1) In the stratosphere, CFCs release chlorine free radicals (Cl) which reacts with O3 to give chlorine dioxide
radicals
(2) It is a toxic gas and its reaction with NO gives NO2.
(3) In the atmosphere, it is depleted by CFCs
(4) In the stratosphere, it forms a protective shield against UV radiation
20. If you spill a chemical toilet cleaning liquid on your hand, your first aid would be
(1) aqueous NaOH (2) aqueous NaHCO3
(3) aqueous NH3 (4) vinegar
21. The correct observation in the following reactions is :
(1) Gives no colour (2) Formation of red colour
(3) Formation of violet colour (4) Formation of blue colour
22. The atomic number of the element unnilennium is
(1) 109 (2) 119
(3) 102 (4) 108
23.
(1) Br2/water; ZnCl2/HCl; FeCl3 (2) ZnCl2/HCl; FeCl3; Alcoholic HCN
(3) Br2/water; ZnCl2/HCl; NaOCl (4) Alcoholic HCN; NaOCl; ZnCl2/HCl

24. Thermal power plants can lead to
(1) Eutrophication (2) Ozone layer depletion
(3) Blue baby syndrome (4) Acid rain
25. The incorrect statement(s) among (a) (d) regarding acid rain is (are)
(a) It can corrode water pipes.
(b) It can damage structures made up of stone.
(c) It cannot cause respiratory ailments in animals.
(d) It is not harmful for trees.
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (c) only
26. Match the following drugs with their therapeutic actions
Drug Therapeutic Action
(i) Ranitidine (a) Antidepressant
(ii) Nardil (b) Antibiotic
(Phenelzine)
(iii) Chloramphenicol (c) Antihistamine
(iv) Dimetane (d) Antacid
(Brompheniramine)
(e) Analgesic
(1) (i)-(d); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(a); (iv)-(e) (2) (i)-(d); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(c)
(3) (i)-(e); (ii)-(a); (iii)-(c); (iv)-(d) (4) (i)-(a); (ii)-(c); (iii)-(b); (iv)-(e)
27. An ionic micelle is formed on the addition of
(1) excess water to liquid

(2) excess water to liquid
(3) sodium stearate to pure toluene
(4) liquid diethyl ether to aqueous NaCl solution
28. The number of groups present in a tripeptide Asp Glu Lys is _______.
29. Match the following
Type of Colloid Examples
(i) Foam (a) smoke
(ii) Gel (b) cell fluid
(iii) Aerosol (c) jellies
(iv) Emulsion (d) rubber
(e) froth
(f) Milk
(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(d) (2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(f)
(3) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(e) (4) (i)-(e), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(f)
30. The intermolecular potential energy for the molecules A, B, C and D given below suggests that :
(1) A-B is the stiffest bond (2) A-D has the shortest bond length
(3) A-A has the largest bond enthalpy (4) D is more electronegative than other atoms

31. The processes of calcination and roasting in metallurgical industries, respectively, can Iead to
(1) Global warming and photochemical smog
(2) Photochemical smog and ozone layer depletion
(3) Photochemical smog and global warming
(4) Global warming and acid rain
32. The reaction in which the hybridisation of the underlined atom is affected is
420 K
(1) XeF4 + SbF5 (2) H2 SO 4 NaCl
Disproportionation H
(3) H3 PO2 (4) NH3
33.
(1) Activates the histamine receptor (2) Helps in the secretion of histamine
(3) Inhibits the secretion of histamine (4) Inhibits the action of histamine receptor
34. The number of chiral centres present in threonine is ________.
35. If a person is suffering from the deficiency of nor-adrenaline, what kind of drug can be suggested?
(1) Analgesic (2) Antidepressant
(3) Anti-inflammatory (4) Antihistamine
36. The number of chiral carbon(s) present in peptide, Ile-Arg-Pro, is _____.
37. The one that is NOT suitable for the removal of permanent hardness of water is
(1) (2) Ion-exchange method
(3) (4) Treatment with sodium carbonate
38. The incorrect statement is
(1) bronze is an alloy of copper and tin
(2) cast iron is used to manufacture wrought iron
(3) german silver is an alloy of zinc, copper and nickel
(4) brass is an alloy of copper and nickel

39. Consider the following reactions
A P1 ; B P2 ; C P3 ; D P4,
The order of the above reactions are a, b, c, and d, respectively. The following graph is obtained when log[rate]
vs. log[conc.] are plotted
Among the following, the correct sequence for the order of the reactions is
(1) d>b>a>c (2) d>a>b>c
(3) a>b>c>d (4) c>a>b>d
40. Match the following compounds (Column-I) with their uses (Column-II)
(1) (I)-(B), (II)-(C), (III)-(D), (IV)-(A) (2) (I)-(B), (II)-(D), (III)-(A), (IV)-(C)
(3) (I)-(C), (II)-(D), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A) (4) (I)-(D), (II)-(A), (III)-(C), (IV)-(B)
41. Mischmetal is an alloy consisting mainly of
(1) lanthanoid and actinoid metals (2) actinoid and transition metals
(3) lanthanoid metals (4) actinoid metals
42. For Freundlich adsorption isotherm, a plot of log (x/m) (y-axis) and log p (x-axis) gives a straight line. The
intercept and slope for the line is 0.4771 and 2, respectively. The mass of gas, adsorbed per gram of adsorbent
if the initial pressure is 0.04 atm, is ______ × 10 4 g. (log 3 = 0.4771)
43. The atomic number of Unnilunium is _______.

44. Out of the following, which type of interaction is responsible for the stabilisation of a-helix structure of proteins?
(1) Covalent bonding (2) Hydrogen bonding
(3) Ionic bonding (4) vander Waals forces
45.
(1) Cu, Ni and Fe (2) Cu, Sn and Zn
(3) Al, Cu, Mg and Mn (4) Cu, Zn and Ni
46. The gas released during anaerobic degradation of vegetation may lead to :
(1) Acid rain (2) Corrosion of metals
(3) Ozone hole (4) Global warming and cancer
47. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(Monomer unit) (Polymer)
(a) Caprolactum (i) Natural rubber
(b) 2-Chloro-1, 3-butadiene (ii) Buna-N
(c) Isoprene (iii) Nylon 6
(d) Acrylonitrile (iv) Neoprene
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i) (2) (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (ii)
(3) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv) (4) (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iv), (d) (iii)
48. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I :
aquatic life.
Statement-II : The optimum value of BOD is 6.5 ppm.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both statement I and statement II are true (2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Statement I is true but statement II is false
49. Match List-I and List-II.

List-I List-II
(a) Valium (i) Antifertility drug
(b) Morphine (ii) Pernicious anaemia
(c) Norethindrone (iii) Analgesic

(d) Vitamin B12 (iv) Tranquilizer
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
List-I (Salt) List-II (Flame colour wavelength)
(a) LiCl (i) 455.5 nm
(b) NaCl (ii) 670.8 nm
(c) RbCl (iii) 780.0 nm
(d) CsCl (iv) 589.2 nm
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
51. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : CeO2 can be used for oxidation of aldehyde and ketones.
Statement-II : Aqueous solution of EuSO4 is a strong reducing agent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Statement-I : An allotrope of oxygen is an important intermediate in the formation of reducing smog.
Statement-II : Gases such as oxides of nitrogen and sulphur present in troposphere contribute to the fomation
of photochemical smog.
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
53. Compound(s) which will liberate carbon dioxide with sodium bicarbonate solution is/are :

(1) B only (2) C only
(3) A and B only (4) B and C only
54. The major components of German Silver are:
(1) Cu, Zn and Ni (2) Zn, Ni and Ag
(3) Ge, Cu and Ag (4) Cu, Zn and Ag
55. The correct sequence of reagents used in the preparation of 4-bromo-2-nitroethyl benzene from benzene is:
(1) CH3COCl/AlCl3, Zn-Hg/HCl, Br2/AlBr3, HNO3/H2SO4
(2) HNO3/H2SO4, Br2/AlCl3, CH3COCl/AlCl3, Zn-Hg/HCl
(3) CH3COCl/AlCl3, Br2/AlBr3, HNO3/H2SO4, Zn/HCl
(4) Br2/AlBr3, CH3COCl/AlCl3, HNO3/H2SO4, Zn/HCl
List-I (Ore) List-II (Element Present)
(a) Kernite (i) Tin
(b) Cassiterite (ii) Boron
(c) Calamine (iii) Fluorine
(d) Cryolite (iv) Zinc
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)(ii), (b)(i), (c)(iv), d(iii) (2) (a)(iii), (b)(i), (c)(ii), d(iv)

(3) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), d(iii) (4) (a)(i), (b)(iii), (c)(iv), d(ii)
57. The presence of ozone in troposphere :
(1) Protects us from greenhouse effect (2) Protects us from the X-ray radiation
(3) Generates photochemical smog (4) Protects us from the UV radiation
58. Which of the following vitamin is helpful in delaying the blood clotting?
(1) Vitamin B (2) Vitamin E
(3) Vitamin K (4) Vitamin C
59. Calgon is used for water treatment. Which of the following statement is NOT true about Calgon?
(1) It is polymeric compound and is water soluble
(2) Calgon contains the 2nd most abundant element
(3)
(4) It doesnot remove Ca2+ ion by precipitation
List-I List-II
(a) Sucrose (i) -D-Galactose and -D-Glucose
(b) Lactose (ii) -D-Glucose and -D-Fructose
(c) Maltose (iii) -D-Glucose and -D-Glucose
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) (i), (b) (iii), (c) (ii) (2) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (i)
(3) (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (iii) (4) (a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (ii)
61. Which among the following pairs of Vitamins is stored in our body relatively for longer duration?
(1) Ascorbic acid and Vitamin D (2) Vitamin A and Vitamin D
(3) Thiamine and Ascorbic acid (4) Thiamine and Vitamin A
62. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I (Industrial process) List-II (Application)

(a) (i) HNO3 synthesis
(b) (ii) Aluminium extraction
(c) Contact process (iii) NH3 synthesis
(d) Hall-Heroult process (iv) H2SO4 synthesis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
63. The type of pollution that gets increased during the day time and in the presence of O 3 is
(1) Reducing smog (2) Acid rain
(3) Global warming (4) Oxidising smog
64. Given below are two statement : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : Size of Bk3+ ion is less than Np3+ ion.
Reason R : The above is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
65. The INCORRECT statements below regarding colloidal solutions is
(1) The flocculating power of Al3+ is more than that of Na+.
(2) A colloidal solution shows Brownian motion of colloidal particles.
(3) An ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of colloidal particles.
(4) A colloidal solution shows colligative properties.
List-I List-II
Test/Reagents/ Species detected

Observation(s)
(a) (i) Carbon
(b) Cu(II) oxide (ii) Sulphur
(c) Silver nitrate (iii) N, S, P, and halogen
(d) The sodium fusion (iv) Halogen Specifically
extract gives black
precipitate with acetic
acid and lead acetate
The correct match is:
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
67. The green house gas/es is (are):
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen
(C) Water vapour (D) Methane
(1) (A), (C) and (D) only (2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (A) and (C) only (4) (A) only
68. A colloidal system consisting of a gas dispersed in a solid is called a/an
(1) aerosol (2) foam
(3) solid sol (4) gel
Statement-I : Retardation factor (Rf) can be measured in meter/centimeter.
Statement-II : Rf value of a compound remains constant in all solvents.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (2) Both statement I and statement II are true

(3) Both statement I and statement II are false (4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
70. The INCORRECT statement(s) about heavy water is (are)
(A) used as a moderator in nuclear reactor
(B) obtained as a by-product in fertilizer industry
(C) used for the study of reaction mechanism
(D) has a higher dielectric constant than water
(1) (B) and (D) only (2) (B) only
(3) (D) only (4) (C) only
71. With respect to drug-enzyme interaction, identify the wrong statement.
(1)
(2) site
(3) Non-Competitive inhibitor binds to the allosteric site
(4) Competitive inhibitor binds to active site
Enzyme A
72. C12H22O11 H2O C6H12O6 C6H12O6
Glucose Fructose
Enzyme B
C6H12O6 2C2H5OH 2CO2
Glucose
In the above reactions, the enzyme A and enzyme B respectively are
(1) Amylase and Invertase (2) Invertase and Zymase
(3) Zymase and Invertase (4) Invertase and Amylase
List-I (Chemical Compound) List-II (Used as)
(a) Sucralose (i) Synthetic detergent
(b) Glyceryl ester (ii) Artificial sweetener
of stearic acid

(c) Sodium benzoate (iii) Antiseptic
(d) Bithionol (iv) Food preservative
Choose the correct match.
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
74. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect reason for eutrophication?
(A) Excess usage of fertilisers
(B) Excess usage of detergents
(C) Dense plant population in water bodies
(D) Lack of nutrients in water bodies that prevent plant growth
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) (D) Only (2) (A) only
(3) (B) and (D) only (4) (C) only
List-I List-II
(a) Ca(OCl)2 (i) Antacid
1
(b) CaSO4 · H2O (ii) Cement
2
(c) CaO (iii) Bleach
(d) CaCO3 (iv) Plaster of Paris
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
76. Match List-I with list-II :
List-I List-II
(a) Chlorophyll (i) Ruthenium
(b) Vitamin - B12 (ii) Platinum

(c) Anticancer drug (iii) Cobalt
(d) Grubbs catalyst (iv) Magnesium
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
77. Match List-I with list-II :
List-I (Class of Drug) List-II (Example)
(a) Antacid (i) Novestrol
(b) Artificial Sweetener (ii) Cimetidine
(c) Antifertility (iii) Valium
(d) Tranquilizers (iv) Alitame
Choose the most appropriate match :
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
78. Match List-I and with List-II.
List-I (Process) List-II (Catalyst)
(a) Deacon's process (i) ZSM-5
(b) Contact process (ii) CuCl2
(c) Cracking of (iii) Particles 'Ni'
hydrocarbons
(d) Hydrogenation of (iv) V2O5
vegetable oils
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
79. The chemical that is added to reduce the melting point of the reaction mixture during the extraction of
aluminium is

(1) Cryolite (2) Calamine
(3) Kaolite (4) Bauxite
Statement I : Non-biodegradable wastes are generated by the thermal power plants.
Statement II : Bio-degradable detergents leads to eutrophication.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false (2) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Both statement I and statement II are true
81. Deficiency of vitamin K causes :
(1) Cheilosis (2) Increase in blood clotting time
(3) (4) Decrease in blood clotting time
List-I (Class of Chemicals) List-II (Example)
(a) Antifertility drug (i) Meprobamate
(b) Antibiotic (ii) Alitame
(c) Tranquilizer (iii) Norethindrone
(d) Artificial Sweetener (iv) Salvarsan
Choose the most appropriate match :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
List-I List-II
(a) Mercury (i) Vapour phase refining
(b) Copper (ii) Distillation refining
(c) Silicon (iii) Electrolytic refining
(d) Nickel (iv) Zone refining
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
List-I List-II
(a) Be (i) treatment of cancer
(b) Mg (ii) extraction of metals

(c) Ca (iii) incendiary bombs and signals

(d) Ra (iv) windows of X-ray tubes
(v) bearings for motor engines
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below.
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
85. The conditions given below are in the context of observing Tyndall effect in colloidal solutions:
(A) The diameter of the colloidal particles is comparable to the wavelength of light used.
(B) The diameter of the colloidal particles is much smaller than the wavelength of light used.
(C) The diameter of the colloidal particles is much larger than the wavelength of light used.
(D) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are comparable.
(E) The dispersed phase has a very different refractive index from the dispersion medium.
Choose the most appropriate conditions from the options given below.
(1) (A) and (D) only (2) (C) and (D) only
(3) (B) and (E) only (4) (A) and (E) only
86. 2SO4 produces brown fumes and gives dark

brown ring with FeSO4 in presence of concentrated H2SO4
solution in dilute HCl is treated with H2 3 followed
by excess of NH4OH
(1) Cu(NO3)2 (2) Pb(NO2)2
(3) Pb(NO3)2 (4) Co(NO3)2
87. Identify the incorrect statement from the following
(1) Amylose is a branched chain polymer of glucose
(2) -Glycosidic linkage makes cellulose polymer
(3) Glycogen is called as animal starch
(4) Starch is a polymer of -D glucose
88. Which one of the following statements is not true about enzymes ?
(1) The action of enzymes is temperature and pH specific

(2) Enzymes are non-specific for a reaction and substrate
(3) Enzymes work as catalysts by lowering the activation energy of a biochemical reaction
(4) Almost all enzymes are proteins
89. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5 and respectively. At t = 0, a sample has the
2
1
same number of the two nuclei. The time taken for the ratio of the number of nuclei to become will be :
e
1 1
(1) (2)
2 4
1 2
(3) (4)
90. Thiamine and pyridoxine are also known respectively as:
(1) Vitamin E and Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B2 and Vitamin E
(3) Vitamin B1 and Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B6 and Vitamin B2
91. Match List-I and List-II:
List-I (Elements) List-II (Properties)
(a) Ba (i) Organic solvent soluble compounds
(b) Ca (ii) Outer electronic configuration 6s2
(c) Li (iii) Oxalate insoluble in water
(d) Na (iv) Formation of very strong monoacidic base
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv) and (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i) and (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii) and (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii) and (d)-(iii)
92. The idea of froth floatation method came from a person X and this method is related to the process Y of ores.
X and Y, respectively, are :
(1) Fisher woman and concentration (2) Washer woman and concentration
(3) Washer man and reduction (4) Fisher man and reduction
93. Which one of the following compounds of Groups-14 elements is not known?
(1) [GeCl6]2 (2) [SiF6]2
(3) [Sn(OH)6]2 (4) [SiCl6]2

94. Sodium stearate CH3(CH2)16COO Na+ is an anionic surfactant which forms micelles in water. Choose the
correct statement for it from the following
(1) It forms non-spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16 group pointing towards the centre
(2) It forms spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16 group pointing outwards on the surface of sphere
(3) It forms non-spherical micelles with COO group pointing outwards on the surface
(4) It forms spherical micelles with CH3(CH2)16 group pointing towards the centre of sphere
95. is a repeating unit for
(1) Acrilan (2) Novolac
(3) Buna-N (4) Neoprene
96. The water soluble protein is
(1) Albumin (2) Collagen
(3) Myosin (4) Fibrin
Statement I : Chlorofluoro carbons breakdown by radiation in the visible energy region and release chlorine
gas in the atmosphere which then reacts with stratospheric ozone.
Statement II : Atmospheric ozone reacts with nitric oxide to give nitrogen and oxygen gases, which add to the
atmosphere.
For the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are false
List-I List-II

Example Classification
of Colloids
(a) Cheese (i) Dispersion of liquid in liquid
(b) Pumice stone (ii) Dispersion of liquid in gas
(c) Hair cream (iii) Dispersion of gas in solid
(d) Cloud (iv) Dispersion of liquid in solid
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii) (4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
99. Match List-I with List-II : (Both having metallurgical terms)
List-I List-II
(a) Concentration of Ag ore (i) Reverberatory furnace
(b) Blast furnace (ii) Pig iron
(c) Blister copper (iii) Leaching with dilute NaCN solution
(d) Froth floatation method (iv) Sulfide ores
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv) (4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
100. A biodegradable polyamide can be made from :
(1) Glycine and isoprene (2) Glycine and aminocaproic acid
(3) Styrene and caproic acid (4) Hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid
101. Which one of the following metals forms interstitial hydride easily?
(1) Mn (2) Cr
(3) Fe (4) Co
102. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(a) NaOH (i) Acidic

(b) Be(OH)2 (ii) Basic
(c) Ca(OH)2 (iii) Amphoteric
(d) B(OH)3
(e) Al(OH)3
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i), (e)-(iii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii), (e)-(iii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i), (e)-(iii)
103.
(1) Uracil (2) Guanine

(3) Adenine (4) Cytosine
104. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(1) Eutrophication leads to increase in the oxygen level in water
(2) Eutrophication indicates that water body is polluted
(3) Eutrophication leads to anaerobic conditions
(4) The dissolved oxygen concentration below 6 ppm inhibits fish growth
105. Which one among the following chemical tests is used to distinguish monosaccharide from disaccharide?
(1) (2) Iodine test
(3) (4) Barfoed test
List-I (Drug) List-II (Class of Drug)
(a) Furacin (i) Antibiotic
(b) Arsphenamine (ii) Tranquilizers
(c) Dimetone (iii) Antiseptic
(d) Valium (iv) Synthetic antihistamines
Choose the most appropriate match
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Statement I : Penicillin is a bacteriostatic type antibiotic.
Statement II : The general structure of Penicillin is
Choose the correct option :

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
108. The addition of silica during the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore
(1) Converts iron oxide into iron silicate
(2) Converts copper sulphide into copper silicate
(3) Reduces copper sulphide into metallic copper
(4) Reduces the melting point of the reaction mixture
List-I (compound) List-II (effect/affected species)
(a) Carbon monoxide (i) Carcinogenic
(b) Sulphur dioxide (ii) Metabolized by pyrus plants
(c) Polychlorinated biphenyls (iii) Haemoglobin
(d) Oxides of nitrogen (iv) Stiffness of flower buds
(1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv) (2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) (4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
110. Which one of the following methods is most suitable for preparing deionized water?
(1) Synthetic resin method (2) Permutit method
(3) (4)
111. The total number of negative charge in the tetrapeptide, Gly-Glu-Asp-Tyr, at pH 12.5 will be ______. (Integer
answer)
112.

The class of drug to which chlordiazepoxide with above structure belongs is :

(1) Antacid (2) Analgesic
(3) Tranquilizer (4) Antibiotic
113. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Sucrose is a disaccharide and a non-reducing sugar.
Reason (R) : Sucrose involves glycosidic linkage between C1 of -glucose and C2 of -fructose.
the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
114. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Photochemical smog causes cracking of rubber.
Reason (R) : Presence of ozone, nitric oxide,

acrolein, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate in photochemical smog makes it oxidizing
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true explanation of (A).
115. Match items of List - I with those of List - II :
List I (Property) List II (Example)
(a) Diamagnetism (i) MnO
(b) Ferrimagnetism (ii) O2
(c) Paramagnetism (iii) NaCl
(d) Antiferromagnetism (iv) Fe3O4

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
116.
The correct statement about (A), (B), (C) and (D) is :

(1) (B), (C) and (D) are tranquilizers (2) (B) and (C) are tranquilizers
(3) (A) and (D) are tranquilizers (4) (A), (B) and (C) are narcotic analgesics
117. Which one of the following tests used for the identification of functional groups in organic compounds does not
use copper based reagent?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) Biuret test for peptide bond
118. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because,
(1) The colloidal particles are solvated
(2) The colloidal particles have positive charge
(3) The colloidal particles have no charge
(4) There is a strong electrostatic repulsion between the negatively charged colloidal particles
119. The denticity of an organic ligand, biuret is :
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6
Statement I : The process of producing syn-gas is called gasification of coal.
Statement II : The composition of syn-gas is CO + CO2 + H2 (1 : 1 : 1).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false (4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

121. Which of the following is NOT an example of fibrous protein?

(1) Albumin (2) Collagen
(3) Myosin (4) Keratin
122. The deposition of X and Y on ground surfaces is referred as wet and dry depositions, respectively. X and Y
are
(1) X = SO2, Y = Ammonium salts (2) X = CO2, Y = SO2
(3) X = Ammonium salts, Y = SO2 (4) X = Ammonium salts, Y = CO2
123. Water sample is called cleanest on the basis of which one of the BOD values given below :
(1) 3 ppm (2) 21 ppm
(3) 15 ppm (4) 11 ppm

List-I (Colloid Preparation Method) List-II (Chemical Reaction)
(a) Hydrolysis (i) 2AuCl3 + 3HCHO + 3H2O 2Au(sol) + 3HCOOH +
6HCl
(b) Reduction (ii) As2O3 + 3H2S As2S3(sol) + 3H2O
(c) Oxidation (iii) SO2 + 2H2S 3S(sol) + 2H2O
(d) Double Decomposition (iv) FeCl3 + 3H2O Fe(OH)3(sol) + 3HCl
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
125. The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is
Item-I (drug) Item-II (test)
A. Chloroxylenol P. Carbylamine test
B. Norethindrone Q. Sodium hydrogen Carbonate test
C. Sulphapyridine R. Ferric chloride test
D. Penicillin S. Bayer's test
(1) A Q, B P, C S, D R (2) A R, B S, C P, D Q
(3) A Q, B S, C P, D R (4) A R, B P, C S, D Q
126. The alkaline earth metal nitrate that does not crystallise with water molecules, is
(1) Ba(NO3)2 (2) Ca(NO3)2
(3) Mg(NO3)2 (4) Sr(NO3)2
127.
The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is :
Item-I Item-II
(A) Benzaldehyde (P) Mobile phase
(B) Alumina (Q) Adsorbent

(C) Acetonitrile (R) Adsorbate

(1) (A) (Q), (B) (R), (C) (P) (2) (A) (Q), (B) (P), (C) (R)
(3) (A) (P), (B) (R), (C) (Q) (4) (A) (R), (B) (Q), (C) (P)
128. The correct sequnce of amino acids present in the tripeptide given below is :
The given tripeptide contains.
(1) Leu - Ser - Thr (2) Thr - Ser - Val

(3) Val - Ser - Thr (4) Thr - Ser Leu
129. If dichloromethane (DCM) and water (H2O) are used for differential extraction, which one of the following
statements is correct?
(1) DCM and H2O will make turbid/colloidal mixture
(2) DCM and H2O will be miscible clearly
(3) DCM and H2O would stay as upper and lower layer respectively in the separating funnel (S.F.)
(4) DCM and H2O would stay as lower and upper layer respectively in the S.F.
130.
NEt3
Asn Ser (CH3CO)2 O P
(excess)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
131.
(compound) (reagent)
(A) Lysine (P) 1-naphthol

(B) Furfural (Q) ninhydrin

(C) Benzyl alcohol (R) KMnO4
(D) Styrene (S) Ceric ammonium nitrate

(1) (A) (R); (B) (P); (C) (Q); (D) (S) (2) (A) (Q); (B) (P); (C) (S); (D) (R)
(3) (A) (Q); (B) (R); (C) (S); (D) (P) (4) (A) (Q); (B) (P); (C) (R); (D) (S)
132. The major product obtained in the following reaction is:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
133. The major porduct of the following reaction is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
134. Match the metals (column I) with the coordination compound(s)/enzyme(s) (column II)
(Column I) (Column II)
Metals Coordination compound(s)/ enzyme(s)
(A) Co (i) Wilkinson catalyst
(B) Zn (ii) Chlorophyll
(C) Rh (iii) Vitamin B12
(D) Mg (iv) Carbonic anhydrase
(1) (A) - (iv), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii) (2) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
(3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii) (4) (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)
135. The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is:
Item-I Item-II
(A) Ester test (P) Tyr
(B) Carbylamine test (Q) AsP
(C) Phthalein dye test (R) Ser

(S) Lys
(1) (A) (Q); (B) (S); (C) (P) (2) (A) (R); (B) (Q); (C) (P)
(3) (A) (Q); (B) (S); (C) (R) (4) (A) (R); (B) (S); (C) (Q)
136. The correct match between Item-I and Item-II is:
Item-I Item-II
(A) Allosteric effect (P) Molecule binding to the active site of enzyme
(B) Competitive (Q) Molecule crucial for inhibitor communication in the
body
(C) Receptor (R) Molecule binding to a site other than the active site
of enzyme
(D) Poison (S) Molecule binding to the enzyme covalently
(1) (A) (P); (B) (R); (C) (S); (D) (Q) (2) (A) (R); (B) (P); (C) (Q); (D) (S)
(3) (A) (P); (B) (R); (C) (Q); (D) (S) (4) (A) (R); (B) (P); (C) (S); (D) (Q)
137. Which of the following compounds reacts with ethylmagnesium bromide and also decolourizes bromine water
solution?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
138. The standard electrode potential and its temperature coefficientfor a cell are 2 V and 5 × 10 4 VK 1
at 300 K respectively. The cell reaction is

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s)
The standard reaction enthalpy ( r) at 300 K in kJ mol 1 is,
[Use R = 8 JK 1 mol 1 and F = 96,000 C mol 1]

(1) 206.4 (2) 384.0
(3) 412.8 (4) 192.0
139. The correct statement(s) among I to III with respect to potassium ions that are abundant within the cell fluids
is/are
I. They activate many enzymes
II. They participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP
III. Along with sodium ions, they are responsible for the transmission of nerve signals

(1) I and III only (2) I, II and III

(3) III only (4) I and II only
140. The correct structure of histidine in a strongly acidic solution (pH = 2) is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
141. The major product of the following reaction is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
142. Polysubstitution is a major drawback in :

(1) Reimer Tiemann reaction (2) Acetylation of aniline
(3) (4)
143. Fructose and glucose can be distinguished by:
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
144. The major product of the following reaction is
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
145. The peptide that gives positive ceric ammonium nitrate and carbylamine tests is
(1) Ser - Lys (2) Lys - Asp
(3) Gln - Asp (4) Asp Gln
146. Consider the given plot of enthalpy of the following reaction between A and B.
A B C D
Identify the incorrect statement.
(1) Activation enthalpy to form C is 5 kJ mol 1 less than that to form D

(2) D is kinetically stable product
(3) Formation of A and B from C has highest enthalpy of activation
(4) C is the thermodynamically stable product
147. The amorphous form of silica is
(1) Quartz (2) Tridymite
(3) Kieselguhr (4) Cristobalite
148. The principle of column chromatography is :
(1) Differential adsorption of the substances on the solid phase.
(2) Gravitational force.
(3) Differential absorption of the substances on the solid phase.
(4) Capillary action.
149. For a reaction at equilibrium
1
A(g) B(g) C(g)
2
The relation between dissociation constant (K), degree of dissociation ( ) and equilibrium pressure (p) is given
by:
1 3
2
p2 3 1
K 1 2
p2
3 2 K
1 (1 ) 1
(1) 2 (2) (2 ) 2 (1 )

3
( p) 2 3
K 1 ( p) 2
3 2 K
1 (1 ) 1
(3) 2 (4) (1 )(1 )2
Statement I : Emulsion of oil in water are unstable and sometimes they separate into two layers on standing.
Statement II : For stabilisation of an emulsion, excess of electrolyte is added.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
151.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
152. Which of the following is an example of polyester?

(1) Butadiene-styrene copolymer
(2) Melamine polymer
(3) Neoprene
(4) Poly- -hydroxybutyrate-co- -hydroxy valerate
153. 2SO4 at 393 K under 2-
-
(1) Starch (2) Cellulose
(3) Amylose (4) Amylopectin
154. Which of the following is not a broad-spectrum antibiotic?
(1) Vancomycin (2) Ampicillin
(3) Ofloxacin (4) Penicillin G
155. Which one of the following elemental forms is not present in the enamel of the teeth?

(1) Ca2+ (2) P3+

(3) F (4) P5+
156. Match List-I with List -II :
List-I List-II
(A) Sphalerite (I) FeCO3
(B) Calamine (II) PbS
(C) Galena (III) ZnCO3
(D) Siderite (IV) ZnS
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
157. Metals generally melt at very high temperature. Amongst the following, the metal with the highest melting point
will be
(1) Hg (2) Ag
(3) Ga (4) Cs
158. Which of the following chemical reactions represents Hall-Heroult Process?
(1) Cr2O3 + 2Al Al2O3 + 2Cr (2) 2Al2O3 + 3C 4Al + 3CO2
2Au(CN)2 Zn(s) 2Au(s) [Zn(CN4 )]

(3) FeO + CO Fe + CO2 (4) (aq)
159. In the industrial production of which of the following, molecular hydrogen is obtained as a byproduct?
(1) NaOH (2) NaCl
(3) Na metal (4) Na2CO3
160. Some gases are responsible for heating of atmosphere (green house effect). Identify from the following the
gaseous species which does not cause it.
(1) CH4 (2) O3
(3) H2O (4) N2
161. Which of the following is not an example of a condensation polymer?
(1) Nylon 6,6 (2) Dacron
(3) Buna-N (4) Silicone
162. The structure shown below is of which well-known drug molecule?
(1) Ranitidine (2) Seldane

(3) Cimetidine (4) Codeine

163. In the flame test of a mixture of salts, a green flame with blue centre was observed. Which one of the following
cations may be present?
(1) Cu2+ (2) Sr2+
(3) Ba2+ (4) Ca2+
164. (a) Baryte, (b) Galena, (c) Zinc blende and (d) Copper pyrites. How many of these minerals are sulphide
based?
165. In alanylglycylleucylalanyvaline, the number of peptide linkages is __________.,
166. Incorrect statement for Tyndall effect is :
(1) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude.
(2) The diameter of the dispersed particles is much smaller than the wavelength of the light used.
(3) During projection of movies in the cinemas hall, Tyndall effect is noticed.
(4) It is used to distinguish a true solution from a colloidal solution.
167. The eutrophication of water body results in:
(1) loss of Biodiversity. (2) breakdown of organic matter.
(3) increase in biodiversity. (4) decrease in BOD.
168. Using very little soap while washing clothes, does not serve the purpose of cleaning of clothes, because:
(1) soap particles remain floating in water as ions.
(2) the hydrophobic part of soap is not able to take away grease.
(3) the micelles are not formed due to concentration of soap, below its CMC value.
(4) colloidal structure of soap in water is completely distributed.
169. Which one of the following is an example of artificial sweetner?
(1) Bithional (2) Alitame
(3) Salvarsan (4) Lactose
170. For a given chemical reaction
1A + 2B 3C + 4D
Concentration of C changes from 10 mmol dm 3 to 20 mmol dm 3 in 10 seconds. Rate of appearance of D is

1.5 times the rate of disappearance of B which is twice the rate of disappearance A. The rate of appearance
of D has been experimentally determined to be 9 mmol dm 3 s 1. Therefore, the rate of reaction is _____ mmol
dm 3 s 1.
(Nearest Integer)
171. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A Zymase I Stomach
B Diastase II Yeast
C Urease III Malt

D Pepsin IV Soyabean
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
172. Given below are two statements.
Statement-I: During electrolytic refining, blister copper deposits precious metals.
Statement-II: In the process of obtaining pure copper by electrolysis method, copper blister is used to make
the anode.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
173. The number of bridged oxygen atoms present in compound B formed from the following reactions is
673 K
Pb(NO3 )2 A PbO O2
Dimerise
A B
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
174. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Polluted water may have a value of BOD of the order of 17 ppm.
Reason R: BOD is a measure of oxygen required to oxidise both the bio-degradable and non-biodegradable
organic material in water.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.
175. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: A mixture contains benzoic acid and naphthalene. The pure benzoic acid can be separated out
by the use of benzene.
Reason R: Benzoic acid is soluble in hot water.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

176. An antiseptic Dettol is a mixture of two electrons and B has 2 electrons.
(1) Bithionol (2) Terpineol

(3) Chloroxylenol (4) Chloramphenicol
177. How many of the given compounds will give a positive Biuret test_________? Glycine, Glycylalanine,
Tripeptide, Biuret.
E
178. The of different types of half cells are as follows:
T P
A B C D
4 4 4 4
1 10 2 10 0.1 10 0.2 10
(Where E is the electromotive force)
Which of the above half cells would be preferred to be used as reference electrode?
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
Statement I : According to the Ellingham diagram, any metal oxide with higher G° is more stable than the
one with lower G°.
Statement II : The metal involved in the formation of oxide placed lower in the Ellingham diagram can reduce
the oxide of a metal placed higher in the diagram.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
180. Polar stratospheric clouds facilitate the formation of:
(1) ClONO2 (2) HOCl
(3) ClO (4) CH4
Statement I:
sodium thiocyanate is formed.
Statement II: If both nitrogen and sulphur are present in an organic compound, then the excess of sodium
used in sodium fusion will decompose the sodium thiocyanate formed to give NaCN and Na 2S.
182. Which of the following sets are correct regarding polymer?

(A) Copolymer : Buna-S

(B) Condensation polymer : Nylon-6,6
(C) Fibres : Nylon-6,6
(D) Thermosetting polymer : Terylene
(E) Homopolymer : Buna-N
Choose the correct answer from given options below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) are correct (2) (B), (C) and (D) are correct
(3) (A), (C) and (E) are correct (4) (A), (B) and (D) are correct
183. A chemical which stimulates the secretion of pepsin is:
(1) Anti-histamine (2) Cimetidine
(3) Histamine (4) Zantac
184. Which statement is not true with respect to nitrate ion test?
(1) A dark brown ring is formed at the junction of two solutions.
(2) Ring is formed due to nitroferrous sulphate complex.
(3) The brown complex is [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]SO4.
(4) Heating the nitrate salt with conc. H2SO4, light brown fumes are evolved.
185. The number of oxygens present in a nucleotide formed from a base, that is present only in RNA is ________.
186. Match List I with List II
List I List II
Enzyme Conversion of
A Invertase I Starch into maltose
B Zymase II Maltose into glucose
C Diastase III Glucose into ethanol
D Maltase IV Cane sugar into
glucose
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
187. s-block element which cannot be qualitatively confirmed by the flame test is
(1) Li (2) Na
(3) Rb (4) Be
188. The measured BOD values for four different water samples (A-D) are as follows:
A = 3 ppm; B = 18 ppm; C = 21 ppm; D = 4 ppm;. The water samples which can be called as highly polluted
with organic wastes, are
(1) A and B (2) A and D
(3) B and C (4) B and D
189. Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin, that is not excreted easily?

(1) Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B1

(3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B12
List-I List-II
(A) Lyophilic colloid (I) Liquid-liquid colloid
(B) Emulsion (II) Protective colloid
(C) Positively charged (III) FeCl3 + NaOH colloid
(D) Negatively charged (IV) FeCl3 + hot water colloid
(1) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
List-I List-II
(A) Concentration of (I) Aniline Gold ore
(B) Leaching of alumina (II) NaOH
(C) Froth stabiliser (III) SO2
(D) Blister copper (IV) NaCN
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
192. Given below are two Statements:
Statement I: Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate. It is a reducing mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur
dioxide.
Statement II: Photochemical smog has components, ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde, PAN etc.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
193. Which of the following is structure of a separating funnel?
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

List-I List-II
(Polymer) (Used in)
(A) Bakelite (I) Radio and television cabinets
(B) Glyptal (II) Electrical switches
(C) PVC (III) Paints and Lacqures
(D) Polystyrene (IV) Water pipes
(1) (A) (II) (B) (III), (C) (IV), (D) (I) (2) (A) (I) (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
(3) (A) (IV) (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (I) (4) (A) (II) (B) (III), (C) (I), (D) (IV)
List-I List-II
(A) (I) Dishwashing power
(B) (II) Toothpaste
(C) C17H35COO Na++Na2CO3+Rosinate (III) Laundry soap

(D) CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)CH2CH2OH (IV) Hair conditional
(1) (A) (III) (B) (II), (C) (IV), (D) (I) (2) (A) (IV) (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) (I)
(3) (A) (IV) (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (I) (4) (A) (III) (B) (IV), (C) (I), (D) (II)
196. Statement-I : Leaching of gold with cyanide ion in absence of air/O2 leads to cyano complex of Au(III).
Statement-II : Zinc is oxidized during the displacement reaction carried out for gold extraction.
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
197. The f orbitals are half and completely filled, respectively in lanthanide ions
[Given: Atomic no. Eu, 63; Sm, 62; Tm, 69; Tb, 65; Yb, 70; Dy, 66]
(1) Eu2+ and Tm2+ (2) Sm2+ and Tm3+

(3) Tb4+ and Yb2+ (4) Dy3+ and Yb3+

198. Which is true about Buna-N?
(1) It is a linear polymer of 1, 3-butadiene
(2) It is obtained by copolymerization of 1, 3-butadiene and styrene
(3) It is obtained by copolymerization of 1, 3-butadiene and acrylonitrile
(4) The suffix N in Buna-N stands for its natural occurrence.
199. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Maltose has two -D-glucose units linked at C1 and C4 and is a reducing sugar.
Statement II: Maltose has two monosaccharides: -D-glucose and -D-glucose linked at C1 and C6 and it is
a non-reducing sugar.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
List I List II
A. Antipyretic I. Reduces pain
B. Analgesic II. Reduces stress
C. Tranquilizer III. Reduces fever
D. Antacid IV. Reduces acidity
(stomach)
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
201. Given are two statements one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Magnesium can reduce Al2O3 at a temperature below 1350°C, while above 1350°C aluminium
can reduce MgO.
Reason R : The melting and boiling points of magnesium are lower than those of aluminium.
In light of the above statements, choose most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are correct, and R is correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct, R is correct.
202. Which one of the lanthanoids given below is the most stable in divalent form?

(1) Ce (Atomic Number 58) (2) Sm (Atomic Number 62)

(3) Eu (Atomic Number 63) (4) Yb (Atomic Number 70)
203. The formula
(1) NaFe[Fe(CN)6] (2) Na[Cr(NH3)2(NCS)4]
(3) Na2[Fe(CN)5(NO)] (4) Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)]
204. Which one of the following techniques is not used to spot components of a mixture separated on thin layer
chromatographic plate?
(1) I2 (Solid)
(2) U.V. Light
(3) Visualisation agent as a component of mobile phase
(4) Spraying of an appropriate reagent
205. Which amongst the following is not a pesticide?
(1) DDT (2) Organophosphates
(3) Dieldrin (4) Sodium arsenite
List-I List-II
(A) Negatively charged sol (I) Fe2O3 xH2O
(B) Macromolecular colloid (II) CdS sol

(C) Positively charged sol (III) Starch
(D) Cheese (IV) a gel
(1) (A) (II), (B) (III), (C) (IV), (D) (I) (2) (A) (II), (B) (I), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
(3) (A) (II), (B) (III), (C) (I), (D) (IV) (4) (A) (I), (B) (III), (C) (II), (D) (IV)
207. In the metallurgical extraction of copper, following reaction is used :
FeO + SiO2 FeSiO3
FeO and FeSiO3 respectively are.
(1) Gangue and flux (2) Flux and slag
(3) Slag and flux (4) Gangue and slag
208. Given below are two statements, one is Assertion (A) and other is Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Natural rubber is a linear polymer of isoprene called cis-polyisoprene with elastic properties.
Reason (R): The cis-polyisoprene molecules consist of various chains held together by strong polar
interactions with coiled structure.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct one from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

209. 2SO4 in alcoholic solution, tw

oxidation with HNO3
(1) Maltose (2) Sucrose
(3) Lactose (4) Starch
210. The drug tegamet is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
211. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(1) Brownian motion destabilises sols.
(2) Any amount of dispersed phase can be added to emulsion without destabilising it.
(3) Mixing two oppositely charged sols in equal amount neutralises charges and stabilises colloids.
(4) Presence of equal and similar charges on colloidal particles provides stability to the colloidal solution.
212. Which one of following reactions indicates the reducing ability of hydrogen peroxide in basic medium?
(1) HOCI + H2O2 H3O+ + CI + O2
(2) PbS + 4H2O2 PbSO4 + 4H2O
(3) 2MnO4 3H2O2 2MnO2 3O2 2H2O 2OH
(4) Mn H2O2 Mn 2OH

213. The acid that is believed to be mainly responsible for the damage of Taj Mahal is
(1) Sulfuric acid (2) Hydrofluoric acid
(3) Phosphoric acid (4) Hydrochloric acid
214. The polymer, which can be stretched and retains its original status on releasing the force is
(1) Bakelite (2) Nylon 6, 6
(3) Buna-N (4) Terylene
215. Sugar moiety in DNA and RNA molecules respectively are

(1) -D-2-deoxyribose, -D-deoxyribose (2) -D-2-deoxyribose, -D-ribose

(3) -D-ribose, -D-2-deoxyribose (4) -D-deoxyribose, -D-2-deoxyribose
216. Which of the following compound does not contain sulphur atom?
(1) Cimetidine (2) Ranitidine
(3) Histamine (4) Saccharin
217. The number of terminal oxygen atoms present in the product B obtained from the following reaction is
________.
FeCr2O4 + Na2CO3 + O2 A + Fe2O3 + CO2
A + H+ B + H2O + Na+
List-I Ore List-II Composition
A. Siderite I. FeCO3
B. Malachite II. CuCO3. Cu(OH)2
C. Sphalerite III. ZnS
D. Calamine IV. ZnCO3
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
219. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Dacron is an example of polyester polymer.
Reason R : Dacron is made up of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid monomers.
220. The structure of protein that is unaffected by heating is
(1) Secondary Structure (2) Tertiary Structure
(3) Primary Structure (4) Quaternary Structure
221. The mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol is an example of
(1) Antiseptic (2) Pesticide
(3) Disinfectant (4) Narcotic analgesic
222. The photochemical smog does not generally contain :
(1) NO (2) NO2
(3) SO2 (4) HCHO
223. During the denaturation of proteins, which of these structures will remain intact?
(1) Primary (2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary (4) Quaternary

224. Drugs used to bind to receptors, inhibiting its natural function and blocking a message are called:
(1) Agonists (2) Antagonists
(3) Allosterists (4) Anti histaminists
Statement I: On heating with KHSO4, glycerol is dehydrated and acrolein is formed.
Statement II:
Choose the correct option.
226. For micelle formation, which of the following statements are correct?
A. Micelle formation is an exothermic process.
B. Micelle formation is an endothermic process.
C. The entropy change is positive
D. The entropy change is negative
(1) A and D only (2) A and C only
(3) B and C only (4) B and D only
227. Given below are two statements.
Statement-I : Pig iron is obtained by heating cast iron with scrap iron.
Statement-II : Pig iron has a relatively lower carbon content than that of cast iron.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are not correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is not correct
(4) Statement-I is not correct but Statement-II is correct
228. High purity (>99.95%) dihydrogen is obtained by
(1) Reaction of zinc with aqueous alkali
(2) Electrolysis of acidified water using platinum electrodes
(3) Electrolysis of warm aqueous barium hydroxide solution between nickel electrodes
(4) Reaction of zinc with dilute acid
List I List II
A. Sulphate I. Pesticide
B. Fluoride II. Bending of bones
C. Nicotine III. Laxative effect
D. Sodium arsinite IV. Herbicide
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
230. Match List I with List II:
List I List II
Polymer Used for items
A. Nylon 6, 6 I Buckets
B. Low density II. Non-stick utensils polythene
C. High density III. Bristles of brushes polythene
D. Teflon IV. Toys
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
231. Glycosidic linkage between C1 of -glucose and C2 of -fructose is found in
(1) Maltose (2) Sucrose
(3) Lactose (4) Amylose
232. Some drugs bind to a site other than the active site of an enzyme. This site is known as
(1) Non-active site (2) Allosteric site
(3) Competitive site (4) Therapeutic site
233. Which of the following can be used to prevent the decomposition of H 2O2?
(1) Urea (2) Formaldehyde
(3) Formic acid (4) Ethanol
234. Which technique among the following, is most appropriate in separation of a mixture of 100 mg of p-nitrophenol
and picric acid?
(1) Steam distillation
(2) 2-5 ft long column of silica gel
(3) Sublimation
(4) Preparative TLC (Thin Layer Chromatography)
235. Stearic acid and polyethylene glycol react to form which one of the following soap/s detergents?
(1) Cationic detergent (2) Soap
(3) Anionic detergent (4) Non-ionic detergent
236. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Finest gold is red in colour, as the size of the particles increases, it appears purple then blue
and finally gold.
Reason R : The colour of the colloidal solution depends on the wavelength of light scattered by the dispersed
particles.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A


List I List II
Pollutant Source
A. Microorganisms I. Strip mining
B. Plant nutrients II. Domestic sewage
C. Toxic heavy metals III. Chemical fertilizer
D. Sediment IV. Chemical factory
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
238. Vulcanization of rubber is carried out by heating a mixture of
(1) Isoprene and styrene
(2) Neoprene and sulphur
(3) Isoprene and sulphur
(4) Neoprene and styrene
239. Animal starch is the other name of
(1) Amylose (2) Maltose
(3) Glycogen (4) Amylopectin
240. How many of the following drugs is/are examples(s) of broad-spectrum antibiotics?
Ofloxacin, Penicillin G, Terpineol, Salvarsan.
241. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Activated charcoal adsorbs SO2 more efficiently than CH4.
Reason R: Gases with lower critical temperatures are readily adsorbed by activated charcoal.
242. Which of the following methods are not used to refine any metal?
A. Liquation
B. Calcination
C. Electrolysis
D. Leaching
E. Distillation
(1) B and D only (2) A, B, D and E only

(3) B, D and E only (4) A, C and E only

List I List II
Pollutant Disease/ sickness
A. Sulphate I. Methemoglobinemia
(> 500 ppm)
B. Nitrate II. Brown mottling of teeth
(> 50 ppm)
C. Lead (> 50 ppb) III. Laxative effect
D. Fluoride IV. Kidney damage
(> 2ppm)
Choose, the coned answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
List-1 List II
Polymers Commercial
names
A. Phenol- I. Glyptal
formaldehyde resin
B. Copolymer of II. Novolac
1,3-butadiene and
styrene
C. Polyester of glycol III. Buna-S
and phthalic acid
D. Polyester of glycol IV. Dacron
and terephthalic acid
Choose the correct answer from the option give below:
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
245. Match List I and List II.


(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
246. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Dissolved substances can be removed from a colloidal solution by diffusion through a
parchment paper.
Reason (R) : Particles in a true solution cannot pass through parchment paper but the colloidal particles can
pass through the parchment paper.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Statement I : The non bio-degradable fly ash and slag from steel industry used by cement industry.
Statement II : The fuel obtained from plastic waste is lead free.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
List-I (Polymer) List-II (Monomer)
(1) Neoprene (I) Acrylonitrile
(B) Teflon (II) Chloroprene
(C) Acrilan (III) Tetrafluroethene
(D) Natural rubber (IV) Isoprene
(1) (A) - (II), (B) (III), (C) (I), (D) (IV) (2) (A) - (II), (B) (I), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
(3) (A) - (II), (B) (I), (C) (IV), (D) (III) (4) (A) - (I), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D) (IV)
List-I (Mixture) List-II (Purification Process)
(A) Chloroform & Aniline (I) Steam distillation
(B) Benzoic acid & (II) Sublimation Napthalene
(C) Water & Aniline (III) Distillation
(D) Napthalene & Sodium (IV) Crystallisation chloride
(1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
250. Among the following ores Bauxite, Siderite, Cuprite, Calamine, Haematite, Kaolinite, Malachite, Magnetite,
Sphalerite, Limonite, Cryolite, the number of principal ores of iron is____.
Statement I: In polluted water values of both dissolved oxygen and BOD are very low.
Statement II: Eutrophication results in decrease in the amount of dissolved oxygen.
252. Terylene polymer is obtained by condensation of:
(1) Ethane-1, 2-diol and Benzene-1, 3 dicarboxylic acid
(2) Propane-1, 2-diol and Benzene-1, 4 dicarboxylic acid

253. Statements about Enzyme Inhibitor Drugs are given below :

(1) There are Competitive and Non-competitive inhibitor drugs.
(2) These can bind at the active sites and allosteric sites.
(3) Competitive Drugs are allosteric site blocking drugs.
(4) Non-competitive Drugs are active site blocking drugs.
(1) (A), (D) only (2) (A), (C) only
(3) (A), (B) only (4) (A), (B), (C) only
254. Statement-I: An alloy of lithium and magnesium is used to make aircraft plates.
Statement-II: The magnesium ions are important for cell-membrane integrity.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
256. Two statements in respect of drug-enzyme interaction are given below
Statement I: Action of an enzyme can be blocked only when an inhibitor blocks the active site of the enzyme.
Statement II: An inhibitor can form a strong covalent bond with the enzyme.

257. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R.
Assertion A: Thin layer chromatography is an adsorption chromatography.
Reason R: A thin layer of silica gel is spread over a glass plate of suitable size in thin layer chromatography
which acts as an adsorbent.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
258. 100 mL of 5% (w/v) solution of NaCl in water was prepared in 250 mL beaker. Albumin from the egg was
poured into NaCl solution and stirred well. This resulted in a/an :
(1) Lyophilic sol (2) Lyophobic sol
(3) Emulsion (4) Precipitate
259.
(1) Contamination of undesired earthy materials.
(2) Contamination of metals, other than desired metal.
(3) Minerals which are naturally occurring in pure form
(4) Magnetic impurities in an ore.
260. Which among the following pairs has only herbicides?
(1) Aldrin and Dieldrin (2) Sodium chlorate and Aldrin
(3) Sodium arsinate and Dieldrin (4) Sodium chlorate and sodium arsinite
261. Which of the following compounds is an example of hypnotic drug?
(1) Seldane (2) Amytal
(3) Aspartame (4) Prontosil
262. In a linear tetrapeptide (constituted with different amino acids) (number of peptide bonds) is _____.
263. Which of the following is not a natural polymer?
(1) Protein (2) Starch
(3) Rubber (4) Rayon
264. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Amylose is insoluble in water.

Reason R : Amylose is a long linear molecule with more than 200 glucose units. In the light of the above
statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is not correct
(4) A is not correct but R is correct
265. change at pH close to the equivalence point during
neutralization of NaOH with CH3
(1) Methyl orange (2) Methyl red

(3) Phenolphthalein (4) Eriochrome Black T

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Unique Practice Questions
Answers
1. (1) 26. (2) 51. (2)
2. (4) 27. (1) 52. (2)
3. (02.00) 28. (5) 53. (4)
4. (0.37) 29. (4) 54. (1)
5. (9) 30. (1) 55. (1)
6. (2) 31. (4) 56. (1)
7. (3.00) 32. (1) 57. (3)
8. (3) 33. (4) 58. (3)
9. (4) 34. (02.00) 59. (2)
10. (20.00) 35. (2) 60. (3)
11. (1) 36. (4) 61. (2)
12. (4) 37. (3) 62. (4)
13. (4) 38. (4) 63. (4)
14. (37.84) 39. (1) 64. (2)
15. (4) 40. (2) 65. (3)
16. (1) 41. (3) 66. (1)
17. (1) 42. (48) 67. (1)
18. (4) 43. (101) 68. (2)
19. (1) 44. (2) 69. (3)
20. (2) 45. (2) 70. (3)
21. (2) 46. (4) 71. (1)
22. (1) 47. (2) 72. (2)
23. (1) 48. (4) 73. (3)
24. (4) 49. (1) 74. (1)
25. (3) 50. (2) 75. (3)

76. (1) 113. (2) 150. (3)

77. (2) 114. (1) 151. (2)
78. (2) 115. (3) 152. (4)
153. (2)
79. (1) 116. (2)
154. (4)
80. (4) 117. (1)
155. (2)
81. (2) 118. (1)
156. (1)
82. (1) 119. (2)
157. (2)
83. (4) 120. (1) 158. (2)
84. (4) 121. (1) 159. (1)
85. (4) 122. (3) 160. (4)
86. (1) 123. (1) 161. (3)
87. (1) 124. (4) 162. (3)
163. (1)
88. (2) 125. (1)
164. (03)
89. (1) 126. (1)
165. (04)
90. (3) 127. (4)
166. (2)
91. (2) 128. (3)
167. (1)
92. (2) 129. (4) 168. (3)
93. (4) 130. (4) 169. (2)
94. (4) 131. (2) 170. (01)
95. (2) 132. (4) 171. (2)
96. (1) 133. (4) 172. (1)
173. (1)
97. (4) 134. (4)
174. (3)
98. (1) 135. (1)
175. (4)
99. (3) 136. (2)
176. (2)
100. (2) 137. (2)
177. (02)
101. (2) 138. (3) 178. (3)
102. (4) 139. (2) 179. (4)
103. (3) 140. (4) 180. (2)
104. (1) 141. (3) 181. (1)
105. (4) 142. (4) 182. (1)
183. (3)
106. (4) 143. (2)
184. (2)
107. (1) 144. (2)
185. (09)
108. (1) 145. (1)
186. (3)
109. (2) 146. (1)
187. (4)
110. (4) 147. (3) 188. (3)
111. (1) 148. (1) 189. (4)
112. (3) 149. (2) 190. (1)

191. (2) 216. (3) 241. (3)

192. (1) 217. (06) 242. (1)
193. (1) 218. (1) 243. (2)
195. (1) 219. (1) 244. (2)
195. (2) 220. (3) 245. (3)
196. (4) 221. (1) 246. (3)
197. (3) 222. (3) 247. (1)
198. (3) 223. (1) 248. (1)
199. (3) 224. (2) 249. (4)
200. (1) 225. (3) 250. (04.00)
201. (2) 226. (3) 251. (3)
202. (3) 227. (2) 252. (3)
203. (4) 228. (3) 253. (3)
204. (3) 229. (3) 254. (2)
205. (4) 230. (2) 255. (2)
206. (3) 231. (2) 256. (4)
207. (4) 232. (2) 257. (1)
208. (3) 233. (1) 258. (1)
209. (2) 234. (4) 259. (1)
210. (3) 235. (4) 260. (4)
211. (4) 236. (1) 261. (2)
212. (3) 237. (1) 262. (01)
213. (1) 238. (3) 263. (4)
214. (3) 239. (3) 264. (4)
215. (2) 240. (01.00) 265. (3)

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Unique Practice Questions Chemistry

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

Unique Practice Questions Chemistry

(1) In acid base titration as an indicator

(2) In protein estimation as an alternative to ninhydrin

(3) In laboratory test for phenols

(4) As food grade colourant

3. The number of chiral carbons in chloramphenicol is ___________.

(molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol)

5. The number of sp2 hybridised

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [1]

7. The number of chiral centres in penicillin is _____________.

8. For the following Assertion and Reason, the correct option is

(2) Both assertion and reason are false.

(3) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(atomic number : Xe = 54, Ce = 58, Eu = 63)

(i) A and D both form blue-violet colour with ninhydrin.

(iii) Lassaigne extract of B and D gives positive sodium nitroprusside test.

Based on these observations which option is correct?

(1) A : Aspartame; B : Alitame;

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [2]

(2) A : Saccharin; B : Alitame;

(3) A : Alitame; B : Saccharin;

(4) A : Aspartame; B : Saccharin;

14. The mass percentage of nitrogen in histamine is _____.

A, B and C are respectively :

(1) A = Lactose, B = Fructose, C = Alanine (2) A = Lactose, B = Glucose, C = Alanine

(3) A = Glucose, B = Fructose, C = Albumin (4) A = Lactose, B = Glucose, C = Albumin

(1) By bacteria to break-down organic waste in a certain volume of a water sample

(2) For sustaining life in a water body

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [3]

(1) Pb(NO3)2 (2) (NH4)2Cr2O7

(3) NH4NO2 (4) NaN3

(1) Pipette and distilled water (2) Clamp and phenolphthalein

19. The statement that is not true about ozone is

(2) It is a toxic gas and its reaction with NO gives NO2.

(3) In the atmosphere, it is depleted by CFCs

(4) In the stratosphere, it forms a protective shield against UV radiation

(1) aqueous NaOH (2) aqueous NaHCO3

(3) aqueous NH3 (4) vinegar

21. The correct observation in the following reactions is :

(1) Gives no colour (2) Formation of red colour

(3) Formation of violet colour (4) Formation of blue colour

22. The atomic number of the element unnilennium is

(1) 109 (2) 119

(3) 102 (4) 108

(1) Br2/water; ZnCl2/HCl; FeCl3 (2) ZnCl2/HCl; FeCl3; Alcoholic HCN

(3) Br2/water; ZnCl2/HCl; NaOCl (4) Alcoholic HCN; NaOCl; ZnCl2/HCl

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [4]

24. Thermal power plants can lead to

(1) Eutrophication (2) Ozone layer depletion

(3) Blue baby syndrome (4) Acid rain

(a) It can corrode water pipes.

(b) It can damage structures made up of stone.

(c) It cannot cause respiratory ailments in animals.

(d) It is not harmful for trees.

(3) (c) and (d) (4) (c) only

26. Match the following drugs with their therapeutic actions

Drug Therapeutic Action

(i) Ranitidine (a) Antidepressant

(ii) Nardil (b) Antibiotic

(iii) Chloramphenicol (c) Antihistamine

(iv) Dimetane (d) Antacid

27. An ionic micelle is formed on the addition of