13/11/2021 OYMW

CODE-B

Coporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 360 Time : 90 Min.
FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES
(for NEET-2022)
Test – 12

Topics covered :
Physics : Atoms & Nuclei

Chemistry : Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids

Botany : Biodiversity and Conservation, Environmental Issues

Zoology : Biotechnology and its Applications

Instructions :

(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

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Fortnightly Test (OYMW_FT12) Code-B One Year Medical-2022

PHYSICS

1. The size of atom is of the order of 9. The S.I unit of activity of a radioactive material
(1) 10–8 m (2) 10–10 m is ‘Becquerel’ is 1 Becquerel is equal to
(1) 106 disintegration/s
(3) 10–18 m (4) 10–14 m
(2) 3.7 × 1010 disintegration/s
2. The angular momentum of electron in nth orbit
(3) 1010 disintegration/s
is given by
(4) 1 disintegration/s
h 10. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is
(1) nh (2)
2n –13.6 eV. The potential energy of electron in
n 2h this state is
nh
(3) (4) (1) –13.6 eV (2) –27.2 eV
2 2
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 27.2 eV
3. As per Bohr’s model the minimum energy
11. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom which of the
(in eV) required to remove an electron from
following pairs of quantities are quantized?
ground state of doubly ionized Li++ ion (Z = 3) is
(1) Energy and linear momentum
(1) 1.51 (2) 13.6
(2) Linear and angular momentum
(3) 40.8 (4) 122.4 (3) Energy and angular momentum
4. According to Bohr’s model, the radius of (4) None of these
second orbit of singly ionized helium ion is 12. In Rutherford’s scattering experiment, what will
(1) 0.53 Å (2) 1.06 Å be the correct angle for  scattering for impact
(3) 2.12 Å (4) 0.265 Å parameter b = 0?
(1) 90° (2) 270°
5. A proton (mass m, charge +e) having kinetic
(3) 0° (4) 180°
1
energy mv 2 is bombarded towards a heavy 13. The density  of nuclei varies with mass
2
number A as
nucleus target of charge Ze. Then the distance
1/2
of closest approach for the proton will be (1)   A (2)   A
proportional to 3/2
(3)   A0 (4)   A
1 1
(1) (2) 14. The average binding energy per nucleon of a
m v4 nucleus is of the order of
1 (1) 8 eV (2) 2 keV
(3) (4) v2
Ze (3) 8 MeV (4) 8 J
6. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, the ratio of 15. Which of the following pair is isobar?
periods of revolution of electron in n = 2 and 1 2 2 3
(1) 1H and 1H (2) 1H and 1H
n = 1 is
12
(3) 6C and 6C13 (4) 15 P
30
and 14Si30
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1
16. The mass defect per nucleon is called
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
(1) Binding energy (2) Packing fraction
7. In the following transitions, which transition is of
(3) Ionisation energy (4) Excitation energy
highest frequency?
17. Nuclear forces are
(1) 3  2 (2) 4  3
(1) Short range, attractive and charge
(3) 4  2 (4) 3  1 independent
8. Energy of an electron in an excited hydrogen (2) Short range, attractive and charge
atom is –3.4 eV. Its angular momentum in this dependent
state will be (3) Long range, attractive and charge
dependent
(1) 1.11 × 10–34 J-s (2) 1.51 × 10–31 J-s
(4) Long range, repulsive and charge
(3) 2.11 × 10–34 J-s (4) 3.72 × 10–34 J-s independent
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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test (OYMW_FT12) Code-B

18. The mass number of helium is 4 and that for 21. The half-life period of radium is 1600 years.
sulphur is 32. The radius of sulphur nucleus is The fraction of a sample of radium that would
larger than that of helium by times remain after 6400 years is

(1) 8 (2) 4 (1) 1/4 (2) 1/2

(3) 2 (4) 8 (3) 1/8 (4) 1/16

19. A free neutron decays into a proton, an 22. In the given reaction
electron and A A A 4
z  1 K A  4
zX  z  1Y  z 1K
(1) A neutrino (2) An antineutrino
radioactive radiations and particles are emitted
(3) An alpha particle (4) A beta particle in the sequence
210
20. A nucleus of 84 Po originally at rest emits  (1) , ,  (2) , , 
particle with speed v. The recoil speed of (3) , ,  (4) , , 
daughter nucleus is
23. If  is decay constant and N the number of
(1) 4v/206 radioactive nuclei of an element, the decay rate
(2) 4v/214 (R) of that element is
(3) v/206 (1) N2 (2) N
(4) v/214 (3) /N (4) 2N

CHEMISTRY

SnCl
2 3 H O
24. CH3  CN 
HCl
 A  B

Product B in the above reaction is (1) (2)

(1) CH3CH2NH2 (2) CH3CH2OH

(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3COOH
25. In Etard reaction, benzaldehyde is prepared (3) (4)
from
(1) Benzene (2) Toluene
28. Which of the following compounds is most
(3) Benzal chloride (4) Benzoic acid acidic?
dil NaOH 
26. CH3CHO  A  B (1) CCl3COOH (2) CF3COOH

Product B in the above reaction is (3) CHCl2COOH (4) CH2ClCOOH

29. Which of the following compounds on reaction
OH
| with CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis gives
(1) CH3  CH  CH2  CHO secondary alcohol?

OH (1) HCHO
| (2) CH3CHO
(2) CH2  CH2  CH2  CHO
(3) CH3COCH3
(3) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CHO (4) CH3COOH
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CHO 30. Which of the following gives benzoic acid on
27. Consider the following reaction, reaction with KMnO4-KOH/?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) All of these

P is
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Fortnightly Test (OYMW_FT12) Code-B One Year Medical-2022

38. IUPAC name of Mesityl oxide is

31.
(1) 4-methylpent-3-en-2-one
The above reaction is known as (2) 2-methylcyclohexanone
(3) 2, 4-dimethylpentan-3-one
(1) HVZ reaction
(4) 2-methoxypropanal
(2) Gattermann Koch reaction
39. Among the following most reactive compound
(3) Kolbe’s electrolysis
towards nucleophilic addition reaction is
(4) Friedel-Craft acylation reaction
(1) Ethanal (2) Propanal
32. Consider the following reaction sequence
(3) Propanone (4) Butanone
Alk. KMnO4 NH3
CH3CH2OH 
 A 

B 40. Among the following, Jones reagent is
H
(1) PCC (2) DIBALH
The compound B is
(3) CrO3 – H2SO4 (4) CrO2Cl2/H2O
(1) CH3CH2NH2 (2) CH3CONH2
O 41.
||  
(3) CH3NH2 (4) CH3  C  ONH4
In above reaction, reagent A can be
33. Cannizzaro reaction is shown by
(1) Zn-Hg/HCl (2) LiAlH4
(1) HCHO (2) CH3CHO
(3) H2/Pt (4) NaBH4
(3) CH3COCH3 (4) Ph – COCH3
42. Carboxylic acid which is least miscible in water
HBr KCN H3O among the following is
34. CH3CH2OH 
 A  B 

C
(1) CH3COOH
Product C in the reaction is
(2) HCOOH
(1) CH3CH2CN
(3) CH3CH2COOH
(2) CH3CH2CHO
(4) CH3CH2CH2COOH
(3) CH3CH2COOH 2
Hg
43. CH3  CH2  C  CH  A
(4) CH3COCH3 H SO2 4

SOCl2
35. CH3CH2COOH  H2 , Pd
 A  B Product A in the given reaction is
BaSO  CaCO 4 3
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2OH
Product B in the above reaction is (2) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO
(1) CH3CH2CHO (3) CH3  CH2  C  CH3
(2) CH3COCH3 ||
O
(3) CH3CH2CH3
(4) CH3  CH2  CH  CH3
(4) CH3CH2CH2OH |
36. Sodium benzoate is used as OH
(1) Food preservative 44. CH3  CH  CH  CH3 
(i) O /CCl
3 4
A
(ii) Zn/H O 2
(2) Soap
Product A in above reaction is
(3) Perfume
(1) CH3CHO
(4) Rubber manufacturing
(2) CH3COCH3
37. Which of the following is an acetal?
(3) CH3COOH
(4) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO
(1) (2)
45. CH3COOH + C2H5MgBr  P
P can be
(3) (4) (1) CH3CH2CH3 (2) CH3CH3
(3) CH4 (4) CH2 = CH2
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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test (OYMW_FT12) Code-B

BOTANY

46. The proportionate number of individuals of 54. A stable community

different species within a region is called (1) Should show too much variation in
(1) Genetic diversity (2) Population productivity from year to year
(3) Species loss (4) Species evenness (2) Must be resistant but not resilient to
47. According to Robert May’s estimate, the global occasional disturbances
species diversity is about (3) Must be resistant to occasional invasion by
alien species
(1) 7 million (2) 1.5 million
(3) 20-50 million (4) 30 million (4) Must not be resistant to occasional man-
made disturbances
48. Among animals a are most species rich
55. David Tilman performed/proposed
taxonomic group making more than b of
(1) Long term ecosystem, experiment using
the total earth’s biodiversity outdoor plot
(1) a-Molluscs (2) a-Insects (2) Species area relationship
b-70% b-70% (3) Integrated waste water management
(3) a-Crustaceans (4) a-Insects (4) Rivet popper hypothesis
b-50% b-40% 56. Exploring molecular, genetic and species level
49. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. biodiversity in of diversity for products of economic
Amazonian rain forest. importance is called

(1) Mammals - 427 (2) Birds - 1300 (1) Bioprospecting (2) Biofortification

(3) Reptiles - 3000 (4) Amphibians - 427 (3) Bioremediation (4) Biomagnification
57. Which of the following category is not correct
50. More than _____ genetically different strains of
for threatened species?
rice occur in India.
(1) Critically endangered
(1) 5,000 (2) 1,000
(2) Endangered
(3) 50,000 (4) 10,000
(3) Vulnerable
51. Biodiversity decreases if we move from
(4) Extinct
(1) High latitude to high altitude
58. How many national parks are there in India?
(2) Low latitude to high latitude
(1) 14 (2) 90
(3) High latitude to low latitude
(3) 448 (4) 27
(4) Poles to equator
59. All are means of in situ conservation, except
52. Which of the following is an example of
organisms with recent extinction in Mauritius? (1) Wildlife safari parks (2) National parks

(1) Quagga (2) Dodo (3) Biosphere reserves (4) Hotspots

(3) Thylacine (4) Steller’s sea cow 60. Choose the correct statement for “Terror of
Bengal”
53. Passenger pigeon have become extinct in the
last 500 years due to which of the given evil (1) They grow abundantly in eutrophic water
bodies
quartet?
(2) They have beautiful yellow coloured flowers
(1) Over-exploitation
(3) They are most problematic terrestrial
(2) Alien species invasion
weeds
(3) Co-extinction
(4) They were introduced in India for their
(4) Both (2) and (3) lovely stems and roots

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Fortnightly Test (OYMW_FT12) Code-B One Year Medical-2022

61. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. natural 65. Choose the correct match w.r.t relative
aging of a lake contribution of greenhouse gases to total global
(1) In young lake the water is cold and clear warming.
(2) With time due to increase in nutrients (1) CO2 – 20%
growth of aquatic organisms starts
(3) Over time lake grows and becomes (2) CH4 – 6%
shallower and warmer (3) N2O – 60%
(4) Natural aging of lake takes only few years (4) CFC – 14%
62. Pyrolysis is a method of
66. Ozone hole is observed every year over
(1) Controlled aerobic combustion of solid
Antarctic region in between months of
waste at 850°C
(2) Controlled aerobic combustion of solid (1) Late August and early October
waste at 1000°C (2) Late January and early March
(3) Anaerobic combustion of solid waste inside (3) July and August
chambers at 1250°C
(4) Anaerobic combustion of solid waste inside (4) Early February and early April
chambers at 1650°C 67. National forest policy (1988) of India has
63. The scrubbing mechanism must be installed in recommended percent forest cover in plains (A)
industry produces which of the given air and Hills (B) are
pollutant?
(1) A-50% (2) A-33%
(1) CO (2) SO2
(3) NOx (4) PAN B-50% B-67%
64. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. (3) A-67% (4) A-40%
agrochemicals B-33% B-60%
(1) In the wake of green revolution, excessive
68. Photochemical smog contains all of the given,
use of fertilisers and pesticides has
increased except
(2) They are not toxic to non-target organisms (1) O3
(3) Excess of chemical fertilisers cause (2) PAN
eutrophication
(3) NOx
(4) Green revolution increased crop production
but disturbed ecosystem of soil (4) H2S

ZOOLOGY

69. Bt toxin proteins are produced by 72. Read the statements A and B given below
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis carefully and select the correct option.
(2) C. botulinum Statement A: In autoradiography, the clone
having the mutated gene does not appear on
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
the photographic film
(4) Escherichia coli
Statement B: The probe (single stranded DNA
70. GM plants have been useful in many ways or RNA tagged with radioactive molecule)
except presents the complementarity with the mutated
(1) Helps to reduce post harvest losses gene
(2) Enhances nutritional value of food (1) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Decreases efficiency of mineral usage by (2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
plants (3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (4) Only statement B is correct
71. Production of pest resistant tobacco plant is
73. A functional ADA cDNA is used to treat ADA
based on deficiency by using
(1) DNA interference (2) RNA interference (1) DNA vector (2) Retroviral vector
(3) Plasmid interference (4) Light interference (3) Plasmid vector (4) pBR322
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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test (OYMW_FT12) Code-B

74. Which type of bonds were created between (1) Takes place in all eukaryotic cells
chain A and B to form human insulin? (2) Method of cellular defence
(1) Ionic bonds (2) Disulphide bonds (3) It prevents transcription of specific gene
(3) Ester bonds (4) Hydrogen bonds
(4) It prevents translation of the mRNA
75. Which nucleic acid based technique is now
83. The first clinical gene therapy was given to a
routinely in use to detect HIV in suspected
4-year old girl with adenosine deaminase
AIDS patients?
deficiency in the year
(1) PCR (2) Serum analysis
(1) 1983 (2) 1997
(3) Western blotting (4) MRI
(3) 1971 (4) 1990
76. ADA deficiency can be treated by all except
(1) Bone marrow transplantation 84. More than 95% of transgenic animals are

(2) Enzyme replacement therapy (1) Mice (2) Rabbit

(3) Gene therapy (3) Pigs (4) Cows
(4) Radiotherapy 85. Human insulin is being commercially produced
77. The main challenge for production of insulin from which transgenic organism?
using rDNA technology was (1) Salmonella
(1) Getting insulin assembled in a mature form (2) Escherichia coli
(2) Removing chain A and chain B and getting (3) Bacillus thuringiensis
functional C-peptide (4) Agrobacterium
(3) Searching for E.coli strain as host
86. In 1997, the first transgenic cow, Rosie
(4) Identifying vector for transgene delivery produced human protein enriched milk. The
78. Presence of coronavirus, if present even in little milk was rich in
amount can be traced using
(1) -lactalbumin (2) -lactalbumin
(1) RT-PCR (2) Urine analysis
(3) -1-antitrypsin (4) -galactosidase
(3) Stool analysis (4) Widal test
87. The Indian Parliament has recently cleared the
79. Animals that have had their DNA manipulated
_____ amendment of the Indian Patents Bill.
to possess and express an extra gene are
known as Choose the option which correctly fills the
blank.
(1) Genetically adapted organisms
(1) First (2) Third
(2) Transgenic animals
(3) Fourth (4) Second
(3) Resistant animals
(4) Alien animals 88. The applications of biotechnology include all
except
80. Select the incorrect match from the options
given below (1) Agro-chemical based farming

(1) Tobacco – Lepidopterans (2) Pest resistant plants

budworm (3) Bioremediation
(2) Mosquitoes – Dipterans (4) Therapeutics
89. Complete the analogy
(3) Beetles – Coleopterans
Bt cotton : Agrobacterium : : Transgenic
(4) Flies – Lepidopterans
tobacco : _______
81. Adenosine deaminase deficiency leads to a (1) Retrovirus (2) pBR322
disease called
(3) EcoRI (4) Agrobacterium
(1) SCID (2) Emphysema
90. Gene cry IAc controls
(3) Cystic fibrosis (4) PKU
(1) Corn borer (2) Dipterans
82. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. RNA
interference? (3) Cotton bollworm (4) Coleopterans

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