PRE - Model Exit Exam - Civil Engineering Department

PRE - MODEL EXIT EXAM FOR 5th Year UG
Civil Engineering Students – 2022/23 AY
March 10, 2023
PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY

ADAMA SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY UNIVERSITY
School of Civil Engineering and Architecture
Civil Engineering Department
Pre-Model Exit Exam for 5th year Civil Engineering UG Students - 2022/23 AY
Choose the best answer
1. Procurement and Contract Management is a critical aspect of project management in order to
ensure fair computation and distribution of obligations and rights among stake holders.
Which of the following step does not align with the objectives of Procurement and Contract
Management?
A) Negotiating the conditions of the contract with selected contractor
B) Preparing Procurement for Tendering and evaluation of Tender
C) Setting delivery system and contract type based on project needs and goals
D) None of the above
2. Imagine you are a procurement officer for urgent government project where limited
specialized contractors are invited, and you receive a bid from a contractor that was
submitted one hour after the bid submission deadline. Which of the following actions would
you take in the situation?
A) Accept the bid, as it may be the best option available.
B) Reprimand the contractor but still consider their bid since it meets all the
requirements.
C) Reject the bid, as it was submitted after the deadline, and it would not be fair to the
other bidders who submitted on time.
D) Ignore the violation and choose the contractor's bid, as they have been invited by your
office and have better experience.
3. What is a potential advantage and disadvantage of Turnkey and Design-Bid-Build system
compared to each other?
A) In Turnkey there is reduced risk for the owner with a single contractor responsible for
design and construction, while Design-Bid-Build is limited ability for the owner to
make changes during construction.
B) Turnkey: greater collaboration between owner and contractor; Design-Bid-Build:
limited accountability of the designer for construction issue.
PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 1

C) Turnkey: streamlined process with the same company handling design and
construction; Design-Bid-Build: increased potential with dispute and delay with
separate contractor.
D) Turnkey: owner has greater input and control over the process; Design-Bid-Build:
increase complexity and potential for miscommunication with separate teams.
4. What are the potential merits and demerits of single-stage and two-stage bid evaluations in
the construction procurement process?
A) Single-stage: fast but less competition; Two-stage: more comprehensive but slow and
costly.
B) Single-stage: lower quality work due to less competition; Two-stage: best contractors
selected but expensive.
C) Single-stage: may lack transparency and increases legal disputes; Two-stage:
accountable but may cause delays and higher costs.
D) Single-stage and two-stage have pros and cons; combining both could bring better
result.
5. Which one of the following is not an advantage of pre -qualification in procurement for
bidders?
A) Faster evaluation process for pre-qualified bidders.
B) Assurance to pre-qualified bidders for their bid considerations.
C) Reduction of low-balling bidders from participation
6. What is the application of a performance bond in construction, and who does it protect?
A) To ensure timely completion of a construction project, and it protects the contractor.
B) To safeguard the project owner from financial loss if the contractor fails to complete
the project and it protects the contractor.
C) To provide additional funding for the project during financial constraints, and it
protects the project owner.
D) To ensure compliance with construction regulations, and it protects the project
owner.

7. Imagine you are hired to work as a lab assistant at a laboratory that studies building
materials. If a student visits your office looking for advice about destructive tests that might
be done on concrete. Which test would you suggest being carried out to determine the
mechanical characteristics of concrete?
A) Oxide composition
B) Rebound hammer test
C) Compressive strength
D) Ultrasonic testing
8. Assume you are constructing a slab for a building in a cold weather environment and you
faced shortage of formwork materials, and you want to remove formwork earlier than
expected to accelerate the construction of a building. Therefore, in order for the slab to attain
its strength earlier, what kind of cement you will use:
A) Sulphate resisting portland cement
B) Rapid hardening portland cement
C) Ordinary portland cement
D) Low-heat portland cement
9. The main advantage of using steel as a building material than timber is:
A) Steel production and manufacturing consume less energy and emit less CO2 to the
environment.
B) Steel is highly susceptible to corrosion due to exposure to moisture.
C) Timber is more strong and durable construction material than steel.
D) Steel is less susceptible to decay, termites, and fire.
10. Which of the following statement is correct about portland cement production.
A) The purpose of adding gypsum in the last stage of cement manufacturing is to
accelerate setting time of cement paste.
B) The presence of alkalies in the raw materials of portland cement can leads to the
formation of alkali silca gel when it react with reactive silica of the aggregate and
moisture; causing shrinkage to the hardened concrete.
C) Silca, alumina, calcium oxide, magnesia, and iron oxide are the primary raw material
for cement production.

D) The wet process of cement manufacturing consumes high fuel and require more
energy; leading to higher production cost of portland cement.
11. Which statement is true about concrete.

A) The dominant hydration product in the hardened concrete is C-H gel.
B) The compressive strength of concrete is directily related to fineness of cement and
water cement ratio.
C) The rough surface of an aggregate creates strong bond between aggregate and
cement paste while decreasing its workability.
D) Batching, transporting, mixing, placing, compacting, curing and finishing are the
recommended stages to manufacture concrete for practical application.
12. Which one of the following statements is true about corrosion steel in concrete structures?
A) Corrosion occurs when the protective layer in concrete steel reinforcement are
destroyed.
B) The presence of oxygen and water inhibits the occurrence of corrosion in reinforcing
concrete.
C) Rust forms at the cathode where electrons migrates away and oxidation occurs.
D) During corrosion, cations migrate from cathode to anode.
13. What are the functions of construction project management for the existing challenges of
construction industry in Ethiopia?
A) In order to plan clear developmental goals and objectives, co-ordination of planning
between the industry and infrastructure programs in the various sectors of the
economy;
B) To prepare adequate relevant local construction regulations and standards.
C) To set time frames and budget to each activities in the project and work for the
completion of it within the time frame and budget.
D) All
14. How can you prevent falling hazards at the edge of a work floor?
A) By placing warning signs at the edge of the work floor
B) By putting proper barriers at the edge of the work floor

C) By giving the workers proper instruction at the start of the work

D) None

15. You are a project manager on a building construction project with contract amount of
800,000birr. There are two buildings to be constructed for six month for a total of
10,000hours. According to the project schedule your team will be done with 38% of the
work.as of today, the project is 40% complete while 50% budget has been used. Which one
of the following is correct about the project?
A) The project is over budget and ahead of schedule
B) The project is under budget & ahead of schedule
C) The project is over budget and under schedule
D) The project is under budget and under schedule
16. The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:
A) Identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.
B) Identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
C) Identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
D) Identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects
17. What are the processes of implementing quality management in construction?
A) Do, Perform quality assurance, Control quality
B) Plan quality management, Control quality, Perform quality assurance,
C) Perform quality assurance, Control quality, Plan quality management
D) planning process group, executing process group, monitoring and controlling process
group
18. If the daily production rate for two crews that works in an activity is 250 units /day and the
total crew cost per day of each crew is 1500 birr. The material consumed for daily work is 10
units at 200 birr/unit, calculate the time it takes the crews to finish 4500 units.
A) 12 days
B) 20 days
C) 18 days
D) 36 days

19. The process of locating the works to be constructed, ensuring that they are dimensionally
within permissible tolerances and correctly constructed is termed as;
A) Profile board
B) Setting out
C) Pegs
D) None
20. Which of the following types of walls highly recommended for residential and mass Housing
project in aspect of cost and availability?
A) Brick walls
B) Stone walls
C) Hallow concrete block walls
D) Cavity walls
21. Which one of the following is a purpose of surface finish?
A) To protect the surface from the effects of weathering agencies.
B) To provide a smooth surface.
C) To provide pleasing appearance to the surface.
D) All of the above
22. Assume you are hired as an engineer for the construction of heavy building, which the whole
built up area is characterized by soil having low bearing capacity, erratic property, and the
soil mass contains compressible lenses. Therefore, as an Engineer which foundation type you
recommend for the above case?
A) Mat foundation
B) Cantilever Footing
C) Combined Footing
D) Strip Footing

23. Which of the following metal sheets is most effective in preventing dampness?
A) Aluminum sheets
B) Lead sheets
C) Copper sheets
D) All the above
24. Mr. X is going to construct building for G+6 around highly swelling potential soil, sloping
sites and the soils containing aggressive chemicals, so as an engineer, which type of floor is
safe against for all these factors?
A) Ribbed slab flooring
B) Flat slab floor
C) Suspended floor
D) Solid slab floor
25. Which one of the following is not true?
A) The strength of a beam is affected considerably more by its depth than its breadth
B) The water to cement ratio is the single most important factor affecting concrete
strength
C) Tensile splitting test is the destructive test on hardened concrete
D) The failure that steel yields after the strain in the concrete at the compression face
reaches the maximum permissible value is desirable for design
26. Pick up the correct statement from the following
A) A ductile material has large plastic zone
B) A brittle material has no plastic zone
C) A rigid material has no plastic zone
D) All

27. The strain diagram for an over reinforced RC beam cross section can be represented by
which of the following?
A) B)
C) D) None
28. Which of the following is the ultimate live load that can be sustained by a 2m long cantilever
reinforced concrete beam with a critical cross section as shown in the figure below? The
beam is only required to carry its own weight as a dead load. Concrete grade C20/25, steel
grade S460, 25mm concrete cover and 8mm stirrups are used. Take ⁄ .
A) 39.47kN/m
B) 48.66kN/m
C) 57.33kN/m
D) None

29. For a simply supported floor where beams are spaced at 1m and have a span of 4m, what is
the minimum area of beam‟s tension reinforcement with the given design parameters?
A)
B)
C)
D)
The rectangular beam sections are designed with the following properties:
Factored super-dead load from slab
Factored imposed load
Breadth
Depth
Concrete cover
Diameter of main bar in one layer
Diameter of compression reinforcement
Diameter of stirrup
Concrete grade
Steel grade

30. For the simply supported continuous slab shown in question above with the following design
data, what is the minimum reinforcement area and length, respectively, for maximum
hogging moment?
A) and
B) and
C) and
D) and
Slab thickness to be designed
Design load
Concrete cover
Diameter of main bar
Concrete grade
Steel grade

31. Which one is true about the reinforced concrete column as per ES EN 1992-1-1:2015 code of
provisions?
A) Column is a member for which the section depth does not exceed four times its width
and the height is at least three times the section depth.
B) If the lateral displacement of the ends of the columns increasing the critical bending
moments by more than 10% above that calculated by ignoring the lateral
displacements, the frame is considered as an unbraced frame.
C) Limit on the minimum reinforcement is may be specified to
account for creep under sustained loading which is predominant in columns.

D) All
32. Referring figure 1, for the column in which zone reinforcement splices is recommended?
Assume the column carries lateral loads.
A) Zone A C) A and B
B) Zone B D) All
33. In which cases flat slab are preferable?
A) When the building is proposed to carry uniformly distributed loads.
B) When the building is proposed to carry concentrated forces.
C) When column layouts are regular.
D) All

34. A clamped beam of span „L‟ and constant plastic moment , carries a concentrated collapse
load at mid-span as shown in figure 2. The plastic moment at collapse will be:
A) C)
B) D)
35. Design the slab by yield line method is applicable when:

A) The slab shapes irregular, varied support conditions, presence of openings, varied loading
and more complex conditions are encountered.
B) The slab is under reinforced section.
C) The slab is collapsing because of moment only.
D) All
36. subjected to compressive force and if the member has to be designed for plastic resistance.
The internal part of a cross section shall be limited to maximum width to thickness ratio
A) c/t ≤ 72 Ɛ B) c/t ≤ 83 Ɛ C) c/t ≤ 75 Ɛ D) None of these
37. Which of the following method is mainly adopted for design of steel structure as per CES
code
A) Working stress method B) Earthquake load method C) Limit state method
D) Ultimate load method

38. Maximum net area for a given figure is plate size 200 x 10 mm, diameter of bolt 20 mm.
A) 1780 mm2 B) 2000 mm2 C) 2050 mm2 D) 1800 mm2

39. Shear buckling for webs without stiffeners should be verified using
B) C) D)
40. If design shear 50% plastic shear resistance than section moment resistance shall be
A) Increased B) Decreased C) No reduction D) All of these
41. Bolts connecting flange angles to cover plates in a beam are subjected to
A) Horizontal shear only B) Vertical load only C) Both a and b
42. Nowadays in bridge design, Load and Resistance Factor Design (LRFD) is applicable due to:
A) It applies elastic analysis
B) It is a reliability-based design methodology
C) It is a probabilistic design methodology
D) It is the only option applied for bridge
43. Select the disadvantage of continuous reinforced concrete bridges
A) Suitable on yielding foundations
B) Occurrence of undesirable stresses due to differential settlement
C) High vibration and deflection
D) Greater depth of girder

44. According to AASHTO for girder bridge with 1m girder spacing, the minimum
recommended depth for deck slab is:
A) 134mm
B) 160mm
C) 120mm
D) 100mm
45. Which one of the following is not remedial measure to control cracking?
A) Reduce the stress in the reinforcement
B) Increase bar diameter
C) Increase effective reinforcement ratio
D) Using high bond bars
46. Which one of the following is true about bearing?
A) The main function of bearing is to hinder relative movements between the
superstructure and substructure
B) Creep is one of the effects that causes translational movement of bearing
C) Fixed bearing does not allow rotations
D) All are true

47. What is the absolute maximum bending moment and shear in the bridge shown in Fig. (a),
due to the Design Truck shown in Fig(b)?
A)
B)
C)
D) 1
48. For multistorey, multi-bay frames which lateral load resisting systems has the lowest
behavior factor.?
A) Frame system
B) Wall system
C) Dual system
D) Inverted pendulum system
49. Which parameter is not used to calculate Peak velocity pressure.?
A) turbulence intensity C) mean wind velocity
B) Air density D) pressure coefficient
50. Which of the analysis methods is used to verify the structural performance of newly designed
and of existing buildings.
A) response spectrum C) pushover
B) linear static D) Time history
51. Which of the following methods can be applied to slabs with opening.?
A) Strip method C) Equivalent frame method
B) Yield line method D) Direct design method

52. What will be The D value of a column 30X30cm and located at middle axis of floor with
3m height provided that the building is G+3. Use beam dimensions 25x40cmx4m length.
A) 0.122 C) 0.056
B) 0.134 D) 0.096
53. Calculate the shape factor of circular section with diameter D.
A) 1.7 C) 1.15
B) 2 D) 1.5
54. The soil is found above the U-line in the USCS chart. What do you understand from the
situation?
A) The soil is a highly plastic clay
B) The soil is a low plastic clay
C) The soil is highly plastic silt
D) The test result is invalid
55. The stress which is exerts parallel to the area of the plane is
A) Normal stress
B) Shear stress
C) Shear strain
D) A and B
56. Which of the following statement is correct
A) The stress carried by the soil particles and pore pressure is an effective stress
B) The stress carried by excess pore pressure is an effective stress
C) Total stress is the stress carried by only soil particles
D) The stress carried by soil grain is an effective stress
57. A retaining wall moves outward, causing a lateral strain of 0.1% and a vertical strain of
0.05% on a soil element located 3m below ground level. Assuming the soil is a linear,
isotropic, elastic material with E = 5000 kPa and ν = 0.3, calculate the increase in stresses
imposed.
A) σ1 =0.5kPa and σ3 = -5.3kPa
B) σ1 = 5kPa and σ3 = -5.3kPa
C) σ1 =1.5kPa and σ3 = 5kPa
D) σ1 =0.8kPa and σ3 = 4kPa

58. Which of the following is not correct regarding consolidation settlement of fine-grained
soils:-
A) The tolerable settlement limit for the sandy soil based on EBCS is 50mm
B) The tolerable settlement limit for the clay soil based on EBCS is 75mm
C) Both permeability of the soil and drainage path affect the rate of consolidation
D) soil pre-loading increases the compressibility of the soil
59. Calculate the flow rate through the dam foundation for soil permeability of k = 2*10 -4 cm/s
number of flow lines =4 number of drops = 12 and u/s and d/s head Difference 10m
A) 0.8cm3/s
B) 0.6cm3/s
C) 1cm3/s
D) 0.40cm3/s
60. To analyze the stability of slopes, geotechnical engineers have to evaluate
A) Geology.
B) Drainage.
C) Groundwater.
D) All
61. Determine the increase in stress using the approximate method at 3m soil depth for the
structural column load, 120kPa, transfer to 2x3 footing size
A) 40 kPa
B) 24 kPa
C) 55.1 kPa
D) 33.3 kPa
62. What is the depth of tension crack for c-φ soil in Rankine active lateral earth pressure
distribution in 10m depth of retaining wall? (C‟ = 20kpa, φ = 350, γ‟= 19kN/m3).
A) 4.4m
B) 2.5m
C) 6.3m
D) 1.2m

63. In which types of soil does the general shear failure cannot occur
A) dense sand
B) stiff cohesive soils
C) Highly compressible soil
D) all
64. Suppose you have conducted a consolidated drained shear strength test. What are the
parameters you can get from the lab result?
A) Effective young‟s modulus
B) Total young‟s modulus
C) Effective angle of internal friction
D) Total angle of internal friction of the soil
65. Which of the following is not the output result of soil exploration?
A) Selection of the most economical foundation types.
B) Determination of the depth of the foundation
C) Evaluation of the safety of existing structures
D) None
66. Among the given soil exploration methods, which one is not destructive soil investigation
methods
A) Test pitting method
B) Wash boring method
C) Rotary rig method
D) Geophysical Method

67. From the provided shallow foundation, under what conditions we are going to use cantilever
beam (Strap) footings?
A) When centre to centre distance between adjacent columns becomes too short
B) When the two given columns carry unequal structural loads
C) When centre to centre distance between the given columns becomes close
D) All
68. Foundation Engineers often choose mat foundations when dealing with one of the following?
A) When the structural loads are so high and the soil conditions are poor
B) When it is excessive and differential settlement is developed
C) When the uplift loads are larger than the spread footing can accommodate
D) All
69. An isolated shallow foundation was intended to be designed for a specific project. Due to the
axial load from the superstructure being 1200KN and the soil having a net allowable bearing
capacity of 200KPa, depending on the given parameter values the isolated footing will have a
width of.
A) 3m
B) 3.5m
C) 2.45m
D) 2.75m
70. A cantilever retaining wall is used to retain soil mass above ground level. Soil having bearing
capacity and density are 180KPa and 17.5KN/m3 respectively. Hence depending on the given
data the Depth of the foundation will be. Assume the angle of internal friction of the
foundation soil as 280.
A) 1.5m
B) 1.3m
C) 1.4m
D) 1.25m

71. Which one of the following are methods of preventing damages in expansive soils to
minimize or eliminate damage to buildings due to heave or shrinkage?
A) Structural Measures
B) Soil Stabilization
C) Moisture Control
D) All
72. Choose the best method of construction of drilled piers at sites where caving or excessive
lateral deformation toward the shaft cavity occurs depending
A) Dry method
B) Casing method
C) Wet method
D) All
73. Which one of the following statements is true about piles?
A) The load capacity for a pile group is necessarily the same as to load capacity of a
single pile multiplied by the number of piles
B) In fine-grained soils, the piles in the centre tend to carry more loads than the piles in
the centre of the group.
C) In coarse-grained soils, outer piles take more loads than outer piles.
D) Piles driven into loose, coarse-grained soil tend to densify the soil around the piles,
and η could exceed 1.
74. For a pile group arranged by 3x4 (with pile diameter of 0.4m) matrixes which is confined by
two layers of soil having different properties as mentioned below, determine (assume S/D=2,
and 2V:1H load distribution) the bearing capacity of the pile using FS=2
The ground water table is a@3m below the ground surface
Soil ϒsat
layer Soil type Depth(m) (kN/m3) Cu(kPa) ɑ φ(degree) ẟ(degree)
Saturated
1 clay 5 18 30 0.5 30 2/3*φ
2 sand 3 19 0 0.4 38 2/3*φ
A. 450KN C. 400KN
B. 500KN D. 550KN

75. The response of a pile group to lateral loads and moments is influenced by
A. Geometry of the group
B. Pile–soil interaction
C. Stiffness or flexibility of the piles
D. All
76. For a site composed of highly expansive soils to a depth of 3m, which of the following
methods is appropriate treatment method for safe foundations?
A. Pre loading
B. Soil removal and back fill
C. Compaction
D. Chemical stabilization
77. Suburban neighborhood residents have three choices for commuting to the employment zone
at the city centre, which is at a distance of 20 km away. The modes available are: Auto (A),
commuter rail (R) and a suburban bus line (B). The utility values for the three modes, based
on a factored sum of attributes such as time, cost, etc. are “-1.23” for mode A, “-2.11” for
mode R and “-1.89” for mode B. The total number of commuters originating from the
neighbourhood is 820. The number of Auto trips expected is most nearly:
A) 400
B) 235
C) 425
D) 300
78. The theoretical study of waiting lines expressed in mathematical terms and useful in
predicting and evaluating the performance of traffic system is known as:
A) Shockwave
B) Queue
C) Arrival of vehicle
D) None

79. A three-phase traffic signal with 4 sec lost time per phase has the following critical
movement conditions (Assume there is no phase overlap):
Phase A Phase B Phase C
Critical volume (veh/hr/ln) 70 400 550
Adjusted saturation flow rate

350 1350 1960
(veh/hr/ln)
Using the critical intersection volume-to capacity ratio method, what is most nearly
recommended duration of the cycle (in seconds)? Assume a default value of 4sec lost
time per phase and (use Webster‟s method)
A) 50
B) 35
C) 42
D) 30
80. Given that a zone has 275 household with car and 275 household without car and the average
trip generation rates for each group is respectively 5.0 and 2.5 trips per day. Assuming that in
the future, all household will have a car, find the future trips from that zone, assuming that
the population and income remains constant.
A) 4125 trips/day C) 5260 trips/day
B) 4130 trips/day D) 4140 trips/day

81. Which of the following is not the importance of conducting a spot speed study?
A) To analyze traffic accident Data.
B) To evaluate the effects of physical improvements on excessive speeding.
C) To determine Speed Trend.
D) To determine the traffic Volume.

82. Which of the following are factors that affect the level of service (LOS) of freeway and
highway?
A) Freedom to travel with desired speed B) Lateral obstruction
C) Traffic interruptions / restrictions D) All

83. Which of the following best describes departure from standard during road design?
A) Avoiding Inclusion of a switchback curve
B) Use of a gradient greater than the desirable value
C) Provision of sight distance greater that the minimum set value by ERA manual
D) Use of a gradient less than the desirable value

84. If the road functional classification is Trunk, have mid-life design annual
average daily traffic greater than 10,000 and have flat terrain type, the design standard of that
road will be
A) DC1
B) DC8
C) DC2
D) DC7
85. Which of the following is false about phasing of vertical and horizontal alignment?
A) Defects arise if an alignment is mis-phased.
B) Defects may be purely visual and do no more than present the driver with an
aesthetically displeasing impression of the road
C) The correct phasing of vertical curves restricts the designer in fitting the road to the
topography at the lowest cost.
D) If there is sufficient separation between the end of the horizontal and vertical curves,
a false reverse curve may appear on the outside edge-line at the beginning of the
horizontal curve.

86. Improper establishment of the new highway‟s centerline and cross-sections in relation to the
terminal points and to the topography through which the highway increase;
A) Land acquisition cost C) Vehicle operation cost
B) Accident rate D) All
87. In Ethiopia the road functional classification and evaluation, if it connects Centres of
international importance and roads terminating at international boundaries, what types of
road you may propose?
A) Truck Road
B) Link Road
C) Main Access Road
D) Collector road
88. ___________is a traffic type made due to improvement of existing road quality and
standard?
A) Normal Traffic C) Developed Traffic
B) Generated Traffic D) Diverted Traffic
89. Among the following which one is not the requirement of premixed asphalt?
A) high resistance to deformation
B) High fatigue resistance.
C) low permeability to prevent intrusion of air and water
D) None
90. Among the following laboratory tests which one is used for evaluating the resistance of
aggregates to sudden impact loading?
A) Toughness test C) Abrasion test
B) Aggregate impact test D) Aggregate crushing value test
91. In the CBR test, the value of CBR is calculated at

A) Both 2.5mm&5.0mm penetration C) 7.5mm penetration only
B) 5.0mm penetration only D) 2.5mm penetration only
92. Penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its
A) Temperature Susceptibility C) Viscosity
B) Grading D) Ductility

93. _______is a simple strength test that compares the bearing capacity of a material with that of
a well-graded crushed stone.
A) Water content test
B) Aggregate crushing value test
C) CBR test
D) Resilient Modules test
94. The optimum bitumen contents of typical test result from Marshall Mix design is 6%. If the
maximum density is 6% and the percentage of air void at 4% is 6%, Compute the maximum
stability in percent.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) None
95. One is not a factor to be considered in dam site selection.
A) Topography
B) Spillway site
C) Submergence area
D) Dam outlet
96. Which failure occurs when the net horizontal force above any plane in the dam or at the base
of the dam exceeds the frictional resistance developed at that level?
A) Overturning B) Crushing C) Sliding D) By development of tension
97. Which of the following match between dam and suitable spillway for the dam is incorrect?
A) Free over fall spillway for arch dams
B) Ogee spillway for gravity dams
C) Chute spillway for embankment dams
D) Free over fall and tunnel spillway for embankment dam

98. When the tail-water depths in the river downstream of a spillway are quite low such that the
tail-water curve at all discharges lies below the post-jump depth curve, then the energy
dissipation can be affected best by ______________
A) A roller bucket B) A ski-jump bucket C) Either roller or ski-jump bucket
D) A sloping apron
99. Which one of the following does not show the possible location of hydraulic jump
A) Upstream of diversion weir
B) Downstream of diversion weir
C) Downstream of sluice gate
D) Downstream of cross regulators and distributary head regulator
100. Which of the following foundation is suitable for earth and rock fill dam ___________?
A) Solid rock foundation
B) Silt and fine sand foundation
C) Clay foundation

Answer Key
1. D 25. D 54. D 77. C 95. D

2. C 26. D 55. B 78. B 96. C
3. B 27. A 56. D 79. A 97. D
4. A 28. B 57. A 80. A 98. B
5. D 29. B 58. D 81. D 99. A
6. B 30. B 59. B 82. D 100. A
7. C 31. D 60. D 83. B
8. B 32. B 61. B 84. B
9. D 33. A 62. A 85. D
10. D 34. B 63. C 86. D
11. C 35. D 64. A 87. A
12. A 36. A 65. D 88. B
13. D 37. C 66. D 89. D
14. B 38. A 67. B 90. B
15. A 39. A 68. D 91. A
16. B 40. C 69. C 92. B
17. D 41. A 70. B 93. C
18. C 42. B 71. D 94. B
19. B 43. B 72. C
20. C 44. A 73. D
21. D 45. B 74. A
22. A 46. B 75. D
23. D 47. B 76. B
24. C 48. D
49. D
50. C
51. A
52. B
53. A



PRE - Model Exit Exam - Civil Engineering Department

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

PRE - Model Exit Exam - Civil Engineering Department

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

PRE - MODEL EXIT EXAM FOR 5th Year UG

Civil Engineering Students – 2022/23 AY

March 10, 2023

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 1

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 2

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 3

11. Which statement is true about concrete.

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 4

C) By giving the workers proper instruction at the start of the work

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 5

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 6

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 7

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 8

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 9

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 10

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 11

account for creep under sustained loading which is predominant in columns.

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 12

35. Design the slab by yield line method is applicable when:

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 13

A) 1780 mm2 B) 2000 mm2 C) 2050 mm2 D) 1800 mm2

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 14

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 15

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 16

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 17

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 18

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 19

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 20

The ground water table is a@3m below the ground surface

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 21

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 22

Phase A Phase B Phase C

Critical volume (veh/hr/ln) 70 400 550

Adjusted saturation flow rate

B) 4130 trips/day D) 4140 trips/day

A) To analyze traffic accident Data.

B) To evaluate the effects of physical improvements on excessive speeding.

C) To determine Speed Trend.

D) To determine the traffic Volume.

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 23

A) Freedom to travel with desired speed B) Lateral obstruction

C) Traffic interruptions / restrictions D) All

A) Avoiding Inclusion of a switchback curve

B) Use of a gradient greater than the desirable value

D) Use of a gradient less than the desirable value

A) Defects arise if an alignment is mis-phased.

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 24

91. In the CBR test, the value of CBR is calculated at

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 25

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 26

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 27

1. D 25. D 54. D 77. C 95. D

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 28

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 29

PRE-MODEL EXIT EXAM 2022/23 AY 30

You might also like