AP Biology

MOST POPULAR AROUND THE WORLD
SUCCESS
PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

SERIES
AP BIOLOGY
BOOST YOUR KNOWLEDGE
DESIGNED FOR SURE SUCCESS

MCQ EDITION
NARAYAN CHANGDER
5 + S
4 6 ON
8 T I RS
2 S E
E W
QU NS
A
USEFUL FOR
4STUDENTS 4
□ □TEACHERS 4
□PARENTS 4□KIDS 4
□QUIZ TEST
□EXAM 4
4 □TRIVIA TEST 4
□COMPETITIVE EXAM 4
□OTHERS
2
Preface:
This book has undergone rigorous scrutiny to ensure its accuracy. I eagerly invite constructive
feedback on its content. Feel free to reach out to me via Facebook at https://www.facebook.
com/narayanchangder. Additionally, you can access all of my books on Google Play Books at
https://play.google.com/store/books/author?id=Narayan+Changder.
JAI SHREE RAM
NARAYAN CHANGDER
This E-book is dedicated to the loving memory of my mother:

my guiding light, my shining star,
forever
It is my deepest gratitude and warmest

affection that I dedicate this Ebook.
To my mother JOYTSNA CHANGDER

who could not see this Ebook.
who has been a constant source of Knowledge and in-

spiration. Mom, Covid did not take you, it took our
many dreams. wherever you are we will meet again.
Disclaimer
The aim of this publication is to sup-

ply information taken from sources be-
lieved to be valid, reliable and authen-
ticate. The author bear no responsibil-
ity for any damage arising from inad-
verent omissions, negligence or inac-
curacies (typographical or factual) that
♣
NARAYAN CHANGDER
may have found their way into this PDF
booklet.
Due care has been taken to ensure that
the information provided in this book
is correct. Author is not responsible
for any errors, omissions or damage
arising out of use of this information.
nt
Importa inter-
s , s e ar ch the de
er to inclu -
i t h t h e answ w a n t
w u au
atisfied . If yo ontact
If not s rrect answers klet, please c t s:
p
net for
co
i n t h is boo F a c e b ook ht
estions on
tact him arayanchangd
er/
new qu a n c o n n
ou c om/
thor. Y acebook.c
. f
//www
CRUCIAL INFORMATION: PLEASE READ BEFORE
CONTINUING:

1. If you require practice sets on various sub-
jects, kindly send us a message on Facebook
with the subject name. Our team will be happy
to create them for you. Message us on Face-
book at https://www.facebook.com/
narayanchangder
2. Additionally, you can access all of my books
with answers on Google Play Books at »>
https://play.google.com/store/books/
author?id=Narayan+Changder
3. Answers are given at the end of every page
to help you identify your strengths and weak-
nesses.
4. It shows you how to build your own techni-
cal and pedagogical skills to enable them to
create their own materials and activities for
students.
5. It helps you to see how you can make the
transition from classroom teaching to blended
and online teaching.
6. It’s the cheapest good quality ebook that you
can buy online on google play books.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
7. The money raised from creating the sales of
the book will help to ensure that I’m able to
produce similar books like this at a compara-
ble price.
8. YOU CAN DOWNLOAD 4000+ FREE PRACTICE
SET PDF EBOOK ON VARIOUS SUBJECTS (NURS-
ERY to UNIVERSITY LEVEL) FROM GOOGLE
DRIVE LINK https://drive.google.com/
drive/u/1/folders/19TbUXltOSN5S7FV3sL
Contents
1 Biochemistry . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.1 Atomic Structure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.2 Bonding . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
1.3 Polar and Nonpolar Molecules . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
1.4 Properties of Water . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
1.5 pH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 68
1.6 Isomers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 78
1.7 Organic Compounds . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 83
1.8 Enzymes and Metabolism . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 93
2 The Cell . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 124

2.1 Cell Theory . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 124
2.2 Structure and Function of the Cell . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 160
2.3 Transport Into and Out of the Cell . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 256
2.4 Cell Communication . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 310
3 Cell Respiration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 360

3.1 ATP—Adenosine Triphosphate . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 360
3.2 Glycolysis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 381
3.3 Anaerobic Respiration—Fermentation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 415
3.4 Aerobic Respiration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 425
3.5 The Krebs Cycle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 438
3.6 Structure of the Mitochondrion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 452
3.7 Oxidative Phosphorylation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 456
3.8 Chemiosmosis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 461
4 Photosynthesis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 462
4.1 Photosynthetic Pigments . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 462
4.2 The Chloroplast . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 466
4.3 Photosystems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 484
4.4 Light-Dependent Reactions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 486
4.5 The Calvin Cycle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 505
4.6 Photorespiration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 522
NARAYAN CHANGDER
4.7 C-4 Photosynthesis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 525
4.8 CAM Plants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 533
5 Cell Division . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 536

5.1 The Cell Cycle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 536
5.2 Cell Division and Cancerous Cells . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 612
5.3 Meiosis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 704
5.4 Meiosis and Genetic Variation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 757
6 Heredity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 777
6.1 Basics of Probability . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 777
6.2 Law of Dominance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 809
6.3 Law of Segregation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 812
6.4 Monohybrid Cross . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 814
6.5 Backcross or Testcross . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 847
6.6 Law of Independent Assortment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 851
6.7 Incomplete Dominance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 852
6.8 Codominance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 869
6.9 Multiple Alleles . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 875
6.10 Gene Interactions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 885
6.11 Sex-Infl uenced Inheritance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 886
6.12 Linked Genes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 890
6.13 Sex-linkage . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 897
6.14 Crossover . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 908
6.15 Linkage Mapping . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 911
6.16 The Pedigree . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 911
6.17 Mutations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 921
6.18 Nondisjunction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 965
7 The Molecular Basis of Inheritance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 970

7.1 The Search for Inheritable Material . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 970
7.2 Structure of Nucleic Acids . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 973
7.3 DNA Replication . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1004
7.4 DNA Makes RNA Makes Protein . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1056

7.5 Gene Mutation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1188
7.6 The Genetics of Viruses and Bacteria . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1215
7.7 Viruses and Prions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1228
7.8 Transposons . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1232
7.9 The Human Genome . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1234
7.10 Recombinant DNA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1248
7.11 Cloning Genes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1268
7.12 Tools and Techniques of Recombinant DNA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1277
8 Classification . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1278
8.1 The Three-Domain Classification System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1278
8.2 Evolutionary Trends in Animals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1280
8.3 Nine Common Animal Phyla . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1281
8.4 Characteristics of Mammals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1297
8.5 Characteristics of Primates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1299
9 Evolution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1304
9.1 Evidence for Evolution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1304
9.2 Historical Context for Evolutionary Theory . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1337
9.3 Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1345
9.4 Types of Selection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1368
9.5 Sources of Variation in a Population . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1371
9.6 Evolution of a Population . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1387
9.7 Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1420
9.8 Patterns of Evolution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1436
9.9 Modern Theory of Evolution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1456
9.10 The Origin of Life . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1466
10 Plants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1497
10.1 Classification of Plants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1497
10.2 Bryophytes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1549
10.3 Tracheophytes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1561
10.4 Pteridophytes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1563
10.5 Plant Tissue . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1566
10.6 Roots . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1602
10.7 Stems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1621
10.8 The Leaf . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1628
10.9 Transport in Plants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1648
10.10 Plant Reproduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1696
10.11 Alternation of Generations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1748
10.12 Plant Responses to Stimuli . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1750
11 Animal Physiology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1759

11.1 Digestion in Different Animals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1759
NARAYAN CHANGDER
11.2 Digestion in Humans . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1774
11.3 Gas Exchange in Different Animals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1796
11.4 Gas Exchange in Humans . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1800
11.5 Circulation in Different Animals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1808
11.6 Human Circulation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1810
11.7 Chemical Signals . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1842
11.8 Osmoregulation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1846
11.9 Excretion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1860
11.10 Nervous System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1899
11.11 Muscle animal . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1925
12 The Human Immune System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1929

12.1 Defense Mechanis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1929
12.2 Nonspecific Defense Mechanisms . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1936
12.3 Types of Immunity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1937
12.4 Immune Response . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1938
12.5 Blood Groups . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1951
12.6 Transfusion . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1960
12.7 AIDS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1971
13 Animal Reproduction and Development . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1987

13.1 Asexual Reproduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1987
13.2 Sexual Reproduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2022
13.3 Embryonic Development . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2046
14 Ecology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2053
14.1 Properties of Populations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2053
14.2 Energy Flow and Primary Production . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2057
14.3 Energy Flow and the Food Chain . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2088
14.4 Ecological Succession . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2136
14.5 Biomes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2163
14.6 Chemical Cycles . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2240
1
14.7 Humans and the Biosphere . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2285
15 Animal Behavior . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2302

15.1 Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2302
15.2 Learning . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2378
15.3 Social Behavior . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2383
16 Laboratory Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2400

16.1 Diffusion and Osmosis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2400
16.2 Enzyme Catalysis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2428
16.3 Mitosis and Meiosis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2429
16.4 Plant Pigments and Photosynthesis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2476
16.5 Cell Respiration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2477
16.6 Molecular Biology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2539
16.7 Transpiration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2601
16.8 Physiology of the Circulatory System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2631
1. Biochemistry
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 Atomic Structure
1. Elements in the same vertical column of the 5. Atoms of the same element must always
periodic table; also called group have the same number of
A. Family A. electrons
B. Atom B. neutrons
C. Element C. isotopes
D. Metals D. protons
2. Ionic bonds are between 6. How many electrons can fit on the first
A. Metal and Non-metal shell in a Bohr Model?
B. Non-metal and Non-metal A. 1
C. Metal and Metal B. 2
D. none of above C. 6
3. What is the mass number? D. 8
A. the number of protons 7. How many valence electrons does the ele-
B. the number of protons and neutrons ment Selenium (Se) have?
C. the number of neutrons A. 4
D. the number of protons and electrons B. 5
C. 6
4. An atom has 10 protons, 15 neutrons and
10 electrons what is its mass number. D. 7
A. 20 8. The bond between a metal and a nonmetal
B. 10 is a bond.
C. 5 A. Molecular
D. 25 B. Ionic
1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. B
1.1 Atomic Structure 3
C. Polar 15. A chemical bond where electrons are

D. Covalent shared between two atoms. In this type
of bond no ions are. You will find these

9. Electrons are bonds when carbon bonds to other ele-
ments.
A. negative and in the nucleus
A. Covalent bond
B. positive and at the edge of the atom
C. not in an atom B. Element
D. negative and in a cloud C. Hydrogen bond

D. none of above
10. the central region of an atom where its
neutrons and protons are is its 16. Where are protons and neutrons found in
A. nucleus an atom?
B. electron cloud A. in the atomic number
C. core B. inside the nucleus
D. center C. outside of the nucleus
11. How many protons does Neon have? D. in the electron zone
A. 10 17. What does the Law of Conservation of

B. 11 Mass state?
C. 25 A. Matter cannot be gained or lost in a
chemical reaction.
D. 4
B. Matter can only be lost in a chemical
12. The positive particles of an atom are reaction.
A. electrons C. Matter can only be gained in a chemi-
B. positrons cal reaction.
C. neutrons D. Matter can be gained and lost in a
chemical reaction.
D. protons
18. What is the atomic number of silicon (Si)?
13. Where are electrons found in an atom?
A. 42
A. in the atomic number
B. inside the nucleus B. 28
C. outside of the nucleus C. 14
D. in the electron zone D. 17
14. electrons have this type of charge? 19. What is the chemical symbol for Mercury?
A. negative A. Fe
B. positive B. Co
C. neutral C. Me
D. none of above D. Hg
9. D 10. A 11. A 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. A 16. B 17. A 18. C 19. D 20. C
20. When an atom loses an electron, it is called 26. All elements are composed of
a..
A. molecules
A. crystal
B. atoms
B. formula
C. neutrons
C. ion
D. compounds
D. none of above
21. How do the isotopes Hydrogen-2 and 27. Chlorine has atomic number 17 and mass
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Hydrogen-3 differ? number 35. It has
A. Hydrogen 3 has one more electron A. 17 protons, 17 electrons, and 18 neu-
B. hydrogen-3 has two neutrons trons
C. hydrogen-2 has three protons B. 35 protons, 35 electrons, and 17 neu-

trons
D. hydrogen-2 does not have protons
C. 17 protons, 17 electrons, and 52 neu-
22. Which elements are found on the right side trons
of The Periodic Table?
D. 18 protons, 18 electrons, and 17 neu-
A. Metals
trons
B. Nonmetals
C. Metalloids 28. If an atom has 12 positively charged par-
ticles, which of the following must it also
D. Water have to be considered a neutral atom?
23. The of an element equals the number A. 12 neutrons
of protons in an atom of that element
B. 12 electrons
A. mass number
C. 12 protons
B. atomic weight
C. atomic number D. 24 protons and neutrons
D. isotopes 29. The number of is most important in de-

24. An element with a mass number of 11 and termining how an atoms will bond.
an atomic number of 5 has how many neu- A. Neutrons
trons?
B. Protons
A. 11
C. Valence Electrons
B. 5
D. Electron sin the innermost shell
C. 6
D. 16 30. an atom with atomic number 6 would have
how many protons
25. all matter is made of what
A. 6
A. energy
B. atoms B. 12
C. electrons C. 3
D. compounds D. cannot be determined
21. B 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. B 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. A 31. B
31. How many electrons can the second energy C. Bohr Model
level hold D. Electron dot diagram

A. 2
37. A chemical bond between two atoms
B. 8 where one or more electrons are passed
C. 18 from one atom to another. When they
give up electrons, each of the atoms should
D. 16
have a filled shell. An example is the
32. What is the atomic number for an element sodium chloride bond.
with three protons? A. Ionic bond
A. 2 B. Hydrogen bond
B. 1 C. Element
C. 3 D. Covalent bond
D. 6 38. Covalent bonds are between
33. What element has the element symbol A. Metal and Non-metal
“Si” B. Non-metal and Non-metal
A. Sulfur C. Metal and Metal
B. Sodium D. none of above
C. Sillicon 39. When balancing equations a can be
D. Sellinum placed to the left of a formula of a sub-
stance to make the equations balanced
34. Number of protons in an atom of an ele-
A. charge
ment.
B. subscript
A. proton count
C. random number
B. atomic number
D. coefficient
C. atomic mass
40. How many valence electrons does Barium
D. isotopes
have?
35. What is the little number after an element A. 1
in a chemical equation called.Example:H2
B. 2
A. Coefficient C. 3
B. Subscript D. 4
C. Atom
41. How many valence electron does an ele-
D. Equation ment want to have in order to have a full
outer shell?
36. A physical model that depicts the atom as a
small positively charged nucleus with elec- A. 5
trons in orbit at different levels. B. 6
A. Covalent bond C. 7
B. Ionic bond D. 8
32. C 33. C 34. B 35. B 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. B 41. D 42. B
42. What is the term used for the electrons B. atomic number
that occupy the outermost energy level of C. atomic weuight
an atom?
D. isotope weight
A. vermont electrons
B. valence electrons 48. The bond between a nonmetal and another
nonmetal is a bond.
C. viewmaster electrons
D. valentine electrons A. Molecular
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Ionic
43. An element will always have the same
number of C. Covalent
A. neutrons D. Polar
B. protons 49. The particles of the atom you can find by
C. isotopes knowing the atomic number.
D. atoms A. neutrons
44. Particles in an atom that are neutral and B. protons and electrons
have no charge are C. protons and neutrons
A. negatrons D. atomic mass
B. electrons
50. Which particles contribute the most to the
C. neutrons mass of an atom?
D. protons A. Protons, Neutrons, Electrons
45. How many electrons fit on the 2nd shell in B. Protons only
a Bohr Model? C. Protons and Electrons
A. 1 D. Protons and Neutrons
B. 2
51. The smallest particle of any particular type
C. 8
of matter is known by which of the follow-
D. 18 ing terms?
46. The identity of an element can be deter- A. Compound
mined on the basis of which of the follow- B. Atom
ing
C. Chemical
A. The number of neutrons in an atom
D. Element
B. The number of protons in an atom
C. The mass number of the element 52. The dense, positively charged mass lo-
cated in the center of the atom.
D. the relative atomic mass of an element
A. nucleus
47. The of an atom is the sum of the pro-
B. proton
tons and neutrons in the nucleus of that
atom. C. isotope
A. mass number D. molecule
43. B 44. C 45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. B 50. D 51. B 52. A
1.2 Bonding 7
1.2 Bonding

1. Which macromolecule contains sulfur? 5. This type of bond results from the gain or
A. Carbohydrates loss of electrons.
B. Lipids A. polar covalent bond
C. Nucleic Acids B. nonpolar covalent bond
D. Proteins C. hydrogen bond
2. Which of the following describes an iso- D. ionic bond

tope?
6. This type of bond results from equal shar-
A. same number of neutrons, different ing of valence electrons.
number of protons
A. polar covalent bond
B. same number of neutrons, different
number of electrons B. nonpolar covalent bond
C. same number of protons, different C. hydrogen bond
number of electrons D. ionic bond
D. same number of protons, different
number of neutrons 7. This type of bond results from an elec-
tronegative atom bonded to a hydrogen at-
3. This type of bond results from unequal tracted to another electronegative atom.
sharing of electrons
B. nonpolar covalent bond
B. nonpolar covalent bond
C. hydrogen bond
C. hydrogen bond
D. ionic bond
D. ionic bond
4. Which macromolecule contains phospho- 8. Which energy level has the highest amount
rus? (Always true, not Sometimes true) of energy?
A. Carbohydrates A. first shell (closest the nucleus)

B. Lipids B. second shell
C. Nucleic Acids C. third shell (farthest from nucleus)
D. Proteins D. none of above
1.3 Polar and Nonpolar Molecules

1. A bond with a partially negative end and D. isometric
a partially positive end is:
2. The electronegativity difference in the
A. ionic bonds of CCl4 (carbon tetrachloride) is:
B. polar A. 0.4
C. non-polar B. 0.5
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. C 1. B 2. B
1.3 Polar and Nonpolar Molecules 8
C. 9.5 8. Which of the following molecules contains

polar bonds but is NOT a polar molecule?
D. 5.5
A. Chlorine, Cl2
3. Excluding the Noble gas family, where on B. Hydrogen chloride, HCl
the Periodic Table are the elements with
the highest electronegativity located? C. Trichloromethane, CHCl3
D. Tetrachloromethane, CCl4
A. upper right
9. A molecule with a difference in electroneg-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. lower right
ativity of 1.6 is
C. upper left
A. Polar
D. lower left
B. Covalent
4. Which two atoms in the periodic table form C. Ionic
the most polar bond? D. Nonpolar
A. fluorine (F) and francium (Fr)
10. Which element can combine with oxygen
B. chlorine (Cl) and cesium (Cs) to form a molecular compound?
C. fluorine (F) and cesium (Cs) A. Fe
D. chlorine (Cl) and francium (Fr) B. Mg
C. C
5. The attraction that an atom has for shared
electrons in bonds is D. Ne
A. electron affinity. 11. The polarity of a bond is determined by

B. electronegativity.
A. The sum of the electronegativities of
C. electropositivity. the two atoms
D. electromagnetism. B. The difference in the electronegativi-
ties of the two atoms
6. Which has the greater electronegativity:H,
N, O or F? C. The charges of the atoms
A. H D. None of the Above
B. F 12. What is the VSEPR theory used to pre-

dict?
C. N
A. Bond Strength
D. O
B. Polarity
7. Which of the following molecules are prob- C. Molecular Shape
ably nonpolar?
D. Electronegativity
A. Cl2
13. Partial charges are present in which type
B. N2 of bond?
C. O2 A. Ionic
D. All of the previous B. Nonpolar Covalent
3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. A

C. Polar Covalent 19. What type of bond happens between a

D. Both Polar Covalent and Ionic metal and a nonmetal element?

A. Ionic
14. The most electronegative atom in the peri-
odic table is: B. Covalent
A. Fluorine C. Metallic
B. Helium D. none of above
C. Neon
20. The bond between H and O on a single wa-
D. Francium ter molecule is
15. Energy required to raise the temperature A. a hydrogen bond

of 1 gram of a substance by one degree B. a polar covalent bond
A. super solvent C. a nonpolar covalent bond
B. specific heat D. an ionic bond
C. intermolecular forces
21. using the bonding continuum a bond is po-
D. capillarity
lar when the electronegativity is
16. It requires a lot of heat input in order to A. less than .5
raise the temperature of water. This is be-
cause water has a high B. between .5 and 2.1
A. surface tension C. greater than 2.1

B. density D. none of above
C. specific heat 22. Use your knowledge and electronegativity
D. RBI sheet to predict what type of bond would
form between calcium and bromine.
17. Which best describes a triple bond?
A. non-polar covalent
A. 3 shared pairs of electrons
B. polar covalent
B. 3 shared electrons
C. ionic
C. a central electron with 3 atoms bonded
around it D. metallic
D. none of above
23. When the electronegativity between two
18. Water forms a concave meniscus because atoms is large, the electrons is totally
stolen by one atom. What type of bond
A. water is more attracted to the sides of happens when there is a transfer of elec-
the test tube than it is to itself trons?
B. water is more attracted to itself than A. Ionic
it is to the sides of the container
B. Covalent
C. water has no attraction to itself or the
container C. Metallic
D. what is a meniscus? D. none of above
15. B 16. C 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. B 22. C 23. A 24. A
24. All molecules (and atoms) experience Lon- 29. Two or more substances that are mixed
don forces, but dipole-dipole and hydrogen together but not chemically combined is a
bonding forces of attraction are so much
stronger that when they are present we A. compound
can ignore London forces. Which of these
has ONLY London forces? B. mixture
A. I2 C. keratin
D. chromatography
B. NH3
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. OCl2 30. A molecule is polar when
D. HBr A. it is asymmetrical with at least one po-
lar bond
25. Which of the following gives the correct B. it is symmetrical
order of electronegativities of elements?
C. it is asymmetrical
A. F > Cl > O > H
D. it is symmetrical with at least one po-
B. Cl > O > N > S lar bond
C. O > S > H > Si 31. What is Sulfur Trichloride?
D. Cl > N > O > F A. SCl3
26. According to the VESPR theory four elec- B. SiCl3
tron pairs give a C. SCl4
A. linear shape D. Si3Cl
B. bent shape 32. Which of the following molecules, based
C. trigonal planar shape on the elements present, would be most
polar?
D. tetrahedral shape
A. HF
27. The smallest unbreakable unit of a com- B. H2
pound is called
C. HCl
A. subscript
D. HBr
B. proton
33. Water is a polar molecule that is good for
C. formula
dissolving
D. molecule
A. Polar and Ionic Molecules
28. What property of water allows it to be B. Nonpolar Molecules
such a versatile solvent that it is often C. Amphiphilic Molecules
called the “universal solvent?”
D. Colloids
A. Purity
34. What do we call a chemical substance
B. Polarity and cohesion
made up of 2 or more different types
C. High heat capacity atoms bonded together?
D. Expansion upon freezing A. formula
25. C 26. D 27. D 28. B 29. B 30. A 31. A 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. A
B. atom 40. All of the following molecules have polar

bonds. Which of the following molecules
C. subscript
IS NOT polar? (You might need to draw

D. compound Lewis structures.)
A. H20
35. Put these in increasing order:F, N, B
B. NH3
A. B < N < F
C. CH4
B. B < F < N
D. CH3F
C. N < F < B
41. Which ink is a mixture of different inks?
D. F < N < B
A. red
36. Which formula represents a nonpolar B. black
molecule?
C. blue
A. HBr D. yellow
B. feel
42. What kind of bond do you have:F and Cl
C. CBr4 A. Non-polar covalent
D. commodities B. Polar covalent
37. Which of the following geometries could C. ionic

be nonpolar? D. James Bond
A. bent 43. Emulsifiers
B. tetrahedral A. Form covalent bonds with water
C. trigonal pyrimidal molecules
B. Titrate nonpolar and polar substances
D. none of the above
38. Which of these is an amphiphilic C. Act as a catalyst in a reaction between

molecule? 2 polar molecules
A. Oil D. Cause polar and nonpolar molecules to
mix
B. Ice
44. Water has a specific heat
C. Soap
A. high
D. Hexane
B. low
39. Which type of bonding has low melting and C. none of the above
boiling points?
D. none of above
A. ionic
45. In an HF molecule, which atom will have a
B. covalent partial negative charge?
C. metallic A. Hydrogen
D. none of above B. Flourine
36. C 37. B 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. B 43. D 44. A 45. B 46. A
C. None of the above. H and F are sharing C. polar

electrons equally. D. nonpolar
D. none of above
51. Which of the following molecules are po-
46. Which of the following periodic trend is lar?(1) NCl3(2) CF3Cl(3) SCl2
CORRECT for electronegativity values? A. and (2) only
A. increase from left to right across a pe- B. and (3) only
riod
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. and (3) only
B. decrease from left to right across a pe-
D. , (2) and (3)
riod
C. increases from right to left across a pe- 52. In an HF molecule, which atom will have a
riod partial positive charge?
D. increases from right to left across a pe- A. Hydrogen
riod B. Flourine
47. What are the basic building blocks for all C. None of the above. H and F are sharing
matter? electrons equally.
A. atoms D. none of above
B. elements 53. Why are diatomic molecules of elements,
C. compounds such as H2, Cl2, and N2, always nonpo-
lar?
D. chemicals
A. Polar molecules have at least three
48. A molecular geometry with 2 lone pairs atoms.
and 2 bonding pairs is B. Both atoms are exactly the same size.
A. Tetrahedral
B. Trigonal pyramidal C. The molecules contain no lone pairs.
C. Bent D. The two atoms have the same elec-
tronegativity.
D. Linear
54. The attractions between water molecules
49. Which of the following pairs of elements
are called a
is most likely to form an ionic bond? (You
should refer to a Periodic table.) A. gravity force
A. sulfur and oxygen B. dipole force
B. sulfur and fluorine C. nuclear force
C. sodium and sulfur D. I don’t know!
D. oxygen and fluorine 55. A lone pair is defined as
50. Oil molecules are nonpolar. What kind of A. A pair of bonding electrons
solvent is required to remove an oil stain? B. One non-bonding electron
A. saturated C. A pair of non-bonding electrons
B. unsaturated D. A pair of electrons on the central atom
CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

56. The attraction from one molecule to the C. Electrons are not shared
next is D. None of the Above

A. a polar bond
62. What explains the very high melting and
B. an intermolecular force boiling point of water
C. strong nuclear force A. Strong dipole-dipole bonds between
D. Newton’s force water molecules
B. Strong hydrogen bonds between water
57. How do covalent bonds form? molecules
A. Donating & receiving valence e- C. Dispersion forces which are present in
between atoms. all molecules
B. Opposite slight charges attract each D. Asymmetrical shape of the polar
other between compounds. bonds.
C. Scientists are still not sure how they
63. In a polar bond, electrons are shared
form.
A. equally
D. Sharing valence e-between atoms.
B. unequally
58. A covalent bond is a chemical bond where C. between non-metals with similar elec-
two atoms share tronegativities
A. protons D. between a metal and a non-metal
B. neutrons
64. Use your knowledge and electronegativity
C. valence electrons sheet to predict what type of bond would
D. the same group on the periodic table form between phosphorus and fluorine.
A. non-polar covalent
59. Is F-F a polar molecule?
B. polar covalent
A. yes
C. ionic
B. no
D. metallic
C. impossible to tell from the information
given 65. The rule that refers to polar molecules dis-
solving polar and nonpolar dissolving non-
D. none of above
polar is
60. Which of the following molecules are non- A. this dissolves that
polar?(1) CS2(2) H2S(3) SF6
B. like dissolves like
A. and (2) only C. same dissolves same
B. and (3) only D. here dissolves there
C. and (3) only
66. In a polar covalent bond, electrons are
D. , (2) and (3) shared:
61. The electrons in an ionic molecule are A. equally
shared B. unequally
A. Evenly C. between two metals
B. Unevenly D. between a metal and a non-metal

67. Which of the following covalent bonds is C. lost

the most polar? D. shared
A. H Cl
73. The electrons in a nonpolar covalent
B. S F molecule are shared
C. Si O A. Evenly
D. P Br
B. Unevenly
NARAYAN CHANGDER
68. What type of substance can a polar sol- C. Electrons are not shared
vent dissolve?
D. None of the Above
A. Ionic compounds
74. If you heat equal masses of water and
B. Polar molecules
metal with the same amount of heat,
C. Nonpolar molecules
A. the water will get hotter faster
D. Both ionic compounds and polar
B. the metal will get hotter faster
molecules
C. the metal will get hotter slower
69. When form, the elements lose there
D. they heat up at the same rate
individual chemical properties and take on
new properties. 75. According to VSEPR, molecules adjust their
A. compounds shapes to keep which of the following as
far away as possible?
B. atoms
A. Pairs of valence electrons
C. subscript
B. Inner shell electrons
D. formula
C. Mobile Electrons
70. What is the molecular geometry of CO2?
D. Electrons closest to the nucleus
A. Bent
B. Trigonal planar 76. Polar molecules have
C. Trigonal pyramidal A. no charges.
D. Linear B. slight positive and negative charges on

opposite ends of the molecules.
71. Which phrase correctly describes the distri- C. only positive charges.
bution of charge and the molecular polarity
of ethane? D. either positive or negative charges,
but not both.
A. symmetrical and polar
B. asymmetrical and polar 77. Which of the following pairs of atoms can
form a polar covalent bond?(1) N and O(2)
C. asymmetrical and nonpolar C and C(3) C and N
D. symmetrical and nonpolar A. and (2) only
72. In covalent bonds, electrons are B. and (3) only
A. transferred C. and (3) only
B. gained D. , (2) and (3)

78. Hydrogen bonding occurs between ad- C. ionic

jacent molecules that contain hydrogen D. James Bond
atoms bonded to N, O, or F. Which of the

following molecules could experience hy- 83. A solute that contains polar molecules will
drogen bonding interactions? dissolve in a solvent that contains
A. CBr4 A. nonpolar molecules
B. NO2 B. polar molecules
C. H2S C. covalent molecules
D. NH3 D. equal-sized molecules
79. In order to determine if a molecule is polar, 84. How many valence electrons does Hydro-
you must consider the gen have?
A. polarity of bonds and symmetry of the
A. 8
molecule.
B. 6
B. number of electrons and number of
bonds. C. 1
C. polarity of bonds only. D. 3
D. total charge of each ion and number of 85. Which of the following describes the char-
multiple bonds. acteristics of a phospholipid?
80. Which of the following is CORRECT about A. Polar phosphate head and two nonpo-
polar bonds? lar lipid tails
A. They exist in metals. B. Nonpolar phosphate head and two po-
B. They always result to ionic compounds. lar lipid tails
C. Polar phosphate head and two polar
C. They always result to polar molecular lipid tails
compounds. D. none of above
D. They may give nonpolar covalent com-
86. What type of bond happens between a
pounds depending on geometry.
nonmetal and another nonmetal atom?
81. What is the basis of a metallic bond? A. Ionic
A. the attraction of neutral metal atoms. B. Covalent
B. the attraction between protons and C. Metallic
neutrons.
D. none of above
C. the attraction between positive metal
ions and interlocking electrons. 87. What type of covalent bond is character-
D. the attraction between positive metal ized by an unequal sharing of electrons?
ions and free floating electrons. A. Ionic Bond
82. What kind of bond do you have:Br and Br B. Polar Covalent Bond
A. Non-polar covalent C. Non-Polar Covalent Bond
B. Polar covalent D. Covalent Bond

88. Which element is more electronegative? 94. A molecule that has a partial positive end
A. Cl and a partial negative end because of un-
equal sharing of electrons is a
B. O
A. nonpolar molecule
C. S
B. polar molecule
D. Ne
C. ionic compound
89. What kind of compound is CO2? D. metalic compound
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Non-polar molecule with polar bonds 95. All are made up of two or more atoms
B. Polar molecule with polar bonds bonded together.
C. ionic A. atoms
D. polar molecule with non-polar bonds B. molecules
C. electrons
90. A bond in which an electron has been trans-
ferred from on atom to another is a(n) D. elements
bond. 96. What term refers to the strength of an
A. polar covalent atom to attract electrons to itself?
B. ionic A. Polarity
C. nonpolar covalent B. Electronegativity
D. metallic C. Valence
D. Octet
91. A molecular geometry with 3 bonding
pairs is 97. A diatomic molecule like O2 is always
because electrons are shared
A. Trigonal pyramidal
A. nonpolar; equally
B. Trigonal planar
B. polar; equally
C. Trigonal bipyramidal
C. nonpolar; unequally
D. T-shaped
D. nonpolar; unequally
92. What do we call a substance consisting of
a single atom? 98. When forming an ionic bond, a metal atom
A. Gains electrons to form a cation
A. coefficient
B. Loses electrons to form a cation
B. element
C. Gains electrons to form an anion
C. compound
D. Loses electrons to form an anion
D. molecule
99. Put these in increasing electronegativity
93. Water is most dense at order:C, H, and O
A. 4◦ C A. H < C < O
B. 0◦ C B. H < O < C
C. 32◦ F C. O < C < H
D. 100◦ C D. C < H < O

100. Electronegativity is a measurement of B. Ethene is nonpolar and water is nonpo-

the ability of a nucleus to: lar.

A. attract bonding electrons C. Ethene is polar and water is polar.
B. attract other nuclei D. Ethene is nonpolar and water is polar.
C. attract electrons in the non-valence
106. For which of the following is metallic
energy levels
bonding the most significant intermolec-
D. none of above ular force of attraction determining the
physical properties of the material?
101. Which of the following elements has the
weakest attraction for electrons in a chem- A. liquid mercury
ical bond? B. tin oxide
A. S C. strontium chloride
B. Cl D. silicon dioxide
C. O
107. What molecules move up the paper to
D. F carry the different colors of ink?
102. Which of the following shows the correct A. color
order of increasing polarity? B. fat
A. N-H < C-H < H-O < H-F C. water
B. H-F < H-O < N-H < C-H D. none of above
C. H-F < H-O < C-H < N-H
108. When two atoms of the same nonmetal
D. C-H < N-H < H-O < H-F element bond together, they form a(n)
103. Which of the following is a polar A. ionic bond.
molecule?
B. nonpolar covalent bond.
A. CH4
C. polar covalent bond.
B. Xe
D. James Bond.
C. H2O
109. Using your electronegativity handout and
D. CO2
the types of atoms involved, predict what
104. In a polar molecule, the forces of attrac- type of bond would form between F and
tion are Cl.
A. Asymmetrical A. nonpolar covalent
B. The Same B. polar covalent
C. Symmetrical C. ionic
D. Weaker D. metallic
105. Which statement explains why ethene 110. Predict the bond that will form between
does not dissolve in water? Be and F without using electronegativi-
A. Ethene is polar and water is nonpolar. ties.
A. Ionic

B. Covalent 116. Which bond is most polar?

C. Polar Covalent A. H-F
D. none of above B. H-Cl
C. H-Br
111. Which of the following liquids will de-
D. H-I
flect towards a charged rod?(1) H2O(2)
CHCl3(3) CCl4 117. In a polar covalent bond, the electrons
gather around
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. and (2) only
B. and (3) only A. The atom with the Greatest Electroneg-
ativity
C. and (3) only
B. The atom with the Lowest Electroneg-
D. , (2), and (3) ativity
112. The most electronegative atom in the Pe- C. Each atom Equally
riodic table is D. None of the Above
A. Fluorine 118. This is the quality that allows water glid-
B. Francium ers to walk on water
A. specific heat
C. Neon
B. capillarity
D. Phosphorous
C. surface tension
113. Chromatography separates a mixture of D. super solvent
dyes on the basis of their
119. Which of these is nonpolar?
A. density, weight and polarity
A. H2O
B. gravity
B. CaCl2
C. boiling point
C. SF3
D. none of above D. CO2
114. Which molecule contains a triple covalent 120. The electronegativity difference in the
bond between its atoms? bonds of CH4 is:
A. N2 A. 0.4
B. O2 B. 5.9
C. F2 C. -0.4
D. H2 D. 1.7
121. Electronegativity is a measurement of
115. What elements have zero electronegativ-
the ability of a nucleus to
ity?
A. attract bonding electrons
A. metals
B. attract other nuclei
B. nonmetals
C. attract elenece in the non-valence en-
C. metalloids ergy levels
D. noble gases D. none of above

122. Which of the following would likely dis- B. When valence electrons are not
solve in oil (nonpolar) shared equally

A. gasoline (nonpolar) C. Both of the previous
B. water (polar) D. none of above
C. salt (ionic) 128. The physical separation of mixtures into
D. none of above individual components is..
A. chromatography
123. London forces are stronger in heavier
atoms or molecules, and weaker in lighter B. opacity
atoms or molecules. Which of these non- C. latent
polar molecules has the strongest London D. trace evidence
forces?
A. F2 129. In a polar covalent bond, electrons are
shared
B. Br2
A. unequally between two metals
C. I2
B. equally between a metal and a non
D. Cl2 metal
124. A bond in which the electrons are shared C. unequally between two non metals
equally between the two atoms is a(n) D. between a metal and a non metal
bond.
130. Water has a high boiling and melting
A. polar covalent point because
B. nonpolar covalent A. it’s a heavy molecule
C. hydrogen B. strong intermolecular forces
D. ionic C. the molecules do not stick together
very well
125. What is the name of the electrons that
don’t form bonds? D. water is a super solvent
A. Bonding pairs of electrons 131. What molecular geometry would PH3
B. Lone pairs of electrons have?
C. Unvalence pairs of electrons A. Trigonal Pyramidal
D. Outer pairs of electrons B. Trigonal Bipyramidal
C. Bent
126. Water travels up plants because of
D. Linear
A. capillarity
132. It is very hard to find pure water in na-
B. surface tension
ture because
C. density
A. water has a high specific heat
D. specific heat
B. water has a high boiling point
127. What makes a molecule nonpolar? C. water is a super solvent and dissolves
A. When valence electrons are shared most things that come int contact
equally D. surface tension

133. Which two substances are covalent com- 139. polarity of bonds is based on
pounds? A. atomic radius of each element
A. C6H12O6 (s) and KI (s) B. electronegativity of each element
B. KI (s) and NaCl (s) C. the protons
C. C6H12O6 (s) and HCl (g) D. how electrons are transferred
D. NaCl (s) and HCl (g)
140. As water freezes
134. What is the geometry of PCl3?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. its mass goes up
A. trigonal pyramidal B. its mass goes down
B. linear C. its volume goes up
C. tetrahedral D. its volume goes down
D. trigonal planar
141. Which of the following formulas repre-
135. Covalent bonds form between 2 or more sents a polar molecule?
atoms of A. H2
A. metals B. NI3
B. metaloids C. CO2
C. nonmetals D. CCl4
D. I don’t know
142. Which of the following describes the
136. Which molecular structure is most likely charge distribution and molecular polarity
conducive to a polar molecule of NH3?
A. Trigonal Planar A. even distribution and polar
B. Bent B. uneven distribution and nonpolar
C. Tetrahedral C. uneven distribution and polar
D. Linear D. even distribution and nonpolar
137. What is the chemical formula for carbon 143. Which of the following describes the abil-
tetrachloride? ity of an atom to attract electrons?
A. CCl A. conductivity
B. C4Cl B. electronegativity
C. CCl4 C. geometry
D. none of above D. ionization
138. Water’s boiling point and melting point 144. Which molecule has a polar covalent
are relatively compared to similar bond?
molecules A. Which molecule has a polar covalent
A. high bond?
B. low B. H-F
C. the same C. K-F
D. none of above D. Na-F

145. Phosphorus has an electronegativity 150. A molecule is a group of atoms held to-
value of 2.1. Chlorine’s electronegativity gether with that acts as an indepen-
value is 3.0. What type of bond will these dent unit.

two elements form? A. covalent bonds
A. ionic B. ionic bonds
B. nonpolar covalent C. metallic bonds
C. polar covalent D. isotopic bonding
D. metallic 151. Which of the following compounds would
have the most polar bond(s)?
146. How does the density of water compare
as a solid to as a liquid? A. BeO (beryllium oxide)
A. solid water is more dense B. HF (hydrogen fluoride)
B. solid water is less dense C. CaCl2 (calcium chloride)
C. liquid water is less dense D. MgBr2 (magnesium bromide)
D. none of the above 152. Which substance contains bonds that in-
volve a transfer of electrons from one
147. The boiling point of polar molecules is atom to another?
the boiling point of nonpolar molecules.
A. CO2
A. lower than B. NH3
B. equal to C. KBr
C. higher than D. Cl2
D. none of above
153. Which type of compound dissolves easily
148. Which of the ff. is TRUE about the solu- in water?
bility of nail polish with water? A. ionic compound
A. water and nail polish are both polar B. covalent compound
B. water is polar and nail polish is ionic C. metallic compound
C. water and nail polish are both nonpo- D. none of above
lar
154. Does “slight positive and negative
D. water is polar and nail polish is non po- charges” explain Polar or Nonpolar
lar molecules?
149. What makes a molecule polar? A. Polar

B. Nonpolar
A. When valence electrons are shared
equally C. Both
B. When valence electrons are not D. none of above
shared equally
155. How many electrons are represented by
C. Both of the previous a single straight line in a Lewis structure?
D. none of above A. 1

B. 2 161. Which of the following describes when

C. 4 two identical atoms share their electron
pairs and exert force on each other?
D. 6
A. coordinate covalent bond
156. Does the following reference Polar, Non- B. double covalent bond
polar, or both:”unequal sharing of elec-
C. nonpolar covalent bond
trons”?
D. polar covalent bond
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Polar
B. Nonpolar 162. NaCl is made up of sodium (Na) ion and
chlorine (Cl) ion. Which of the ff. types of
C. Both
bond is described by the compound?
D. none of above
A. ionic bond
157. How many valence electrons does calcium B. covalent bond
have?
C. polar covalent bond
A. 4 D. nonpolar covalent bond
B. 7
163. Which type of bond(s) is/are good con-
C. 2 ductors of electricity?
D. 6 A. ionic
158. Non polar covalent bond is equal sharing B. covalent
of electron. Polar covelent bond is C. metallic
A. unequal sharing of electrons D. ionic when dissolved in water and
B. different speeds of electrons metallic
C. presence of hydrogen bonding 164. What type of intermolecular force is ex-
D. presence of atoms hibited by water?
A. hydrogen bonding
159. What type of molecule is water
B. dipole-dipole
A. polar
C. London dispersion forces
B. nonpolar
D. ion-dipole
C. neither
D. none of above 165. In what instance do atoms share elec-
trons unequally?
160. Which statement correctly describes A. Difference in the number of electrons
NaCl?
B. Difference in the number of neutrons
A. Its charge is evenly distributed
C. Differences in electronegativity
B. It is a polar molecule
D. none of above
C. It is ionic, and its charges are dis-
tributed unevenly 166. Why is Chromatography useful?
D. none of above A. It can be used as medicine.

1.4 Properties of Water 23
B. It can be used for finding clues at a A. 1

crime scene B. 2

C. It can be used to make bombs.
C. 3
D. It can reduce the lack of food and wa-
D. 0
ter.
167. Electronegativity is 170. Why are polar molecules called
molecules?
A. how good an atom is at attracting elec-
trons A. Because they tend to be have low
freezing points.
B. the ability of an atom to lose electrons
B. Because they have the same charges
C. the energy required to remove an elec- at each end, like the north and south pole
tron from a specific atom of a magnet.
D. how easy it is to make friends. C. Because they have opposite charges

on each, like the north and south pole of a
168. Bonds between atoms in a molecule form magnet.
as a result of the sharing of?
D. none of above
A. formulas
B. electrons 171. Br & Br
C. atoms A. Ionic
D. chemicals B. Polar Covalent
169. How many lone pairs of electrons are on C. Nonpolar Covalent

the P atom in PF3? D. none of above
1.4 Properties of Water

1. The pH of most human cells should be be- 3. A water molecule is a molecule, which
tween what two numbers? has one oxygen that has a charge and
two hydrogens that have a charge.
A. 6-8
A. nonpolar, positive, negative
B. 0-14
B. polar, positive, negative
C. 7-14
C. polar, negative, positive
D. 7-8 D. nonpolar, negative, positive
2. Which property of water will cause water 4. This is a function of proteins.

to bead up on glass? A. Stored energy
A. Adhesion B. Main energy source
B. Cohesion C. Muscle and other sturctures
C. Ability to dissolve substances D. Genetic information
D. High specific heat 5. Water is made of what two elements?

A. Hydrogen and Nitrogen 11. What word describes when a molecule is

B. Oxygen and Hydrogen attracted to water?
C. Helium and Oxygen A. hydrophobic
D. Hydrogen and Carbon B. hydrophilic
C. bipolar
6. The temperature at which a substance
changes from a liquid to a solid (for wa- D. solvent
ter, this is 0 degrees Celsius, 32 degrees 12. What is water’s freezing point?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Fahrenheit)
A. 0 F
A. freezing point
B. 32 C
B. boiling point
C. 50 C
C. melting point
D. 0 C
D. evaporation
13. What does cohesion make water do?
7. What is the part of an experiment that the
scientist changes on purpose? A. It makes a little bloop, or dome when
dropped on a surface.
A. independent variable
B. It makes water splat into a very flat
B. dependent variable
dot.
C. constant
C. It makes water float in the air.
D. none of above
D. It makes water dissolve salts.
8. The density of water becomes maximum
14. Why is water known as the universal sol-
at
vent?
A. 4 degrees
A. it dissolves many other substances
B. 0 degrees
B. it is dissolved by many other sub-
C. 12 degrees stances
D. 6 degrees C. it can be absorbed by many materials
9. The pH scales ranges between what two D. it absorbs many other materials
numbers?
15. What type of bond holds together two or
A. 0-7 more molecules of water?
B. 1-13 A. Covalent
C. 0-14 B. Hydrogen
D. 7-14 C. Ionic
10. Solution where more solute can still be dis- D. none of above
solved at the given temperature.
16. Which property of water helps to explain
A. Saturated that it takes a bit of time for a pot of wa-
B. Unsaturated ter to boil?
C. Supersaturated A. adhesion
D. Homogeneous solution B. density

C. specific heat 22. Fill in the blanks with the most appropri-
D. universal solvent ate answer:“Oil is than water as well
as , with evidence being that oil sits

17. How many bonds can a carbon atom on top of water as well as seperates from
make? water.”
A. 1 A. Cooler; polar
B. 2 B. Non-polar, less dense
C. 3 C. Less dense; non-polar

D. Cohesive; polar
D. 4
23. Vinegar is an example of:
18. What is it called when the positively
charged hydrogen of one water molecule A. Strong Acid
is attracted to the negatively charged oxy- B. Weak Acid
gen of a different water molecule? C. Strong Base
A. Covalent Bond D. Weak Base
B. Ionic Bond 24. Which end of the water molecule has a
C. Hydrogen Bond slightly positive charge?
D. Friendship Bond A. the oxygen end
B. the hydrogen end
19. The number of protons is represented by
the C. both ends are slightly positive
D. neither end is positive
A. atomic mass
B. atomic number 25. This is a function of carbohydrates.
C. symbol A. Stored energy

B. Main energy source
D. number of neutrons
C. Muscle and other sturctures
20. Which of water’s unique properties causes D. Genetic information
water to bead up?
26. When water molecules stick to other wa-
A. transparency
ter molecules, this is called-
B. capillary action
A. cohesion
C. cohesion B. adhesion
D. specific heat C. surface tension
21. Water is essential for life.Water typically D. capillary action
has a pH of 7 and therefore is considered 27. The property that holds molecules of dif-
neutral. ferent substances together is called
A. hydrogen and hydronium ions. A. Adhesion
B. hydroxide and hydronium ions. B. Cohesion
C. hydrogen and hydroxide ions. C. Specific heat
D. oxygen and hydrogen ions. D. universal solvent

28. This is an example of a carbohydrate. 34. Which of the following properties of wa-
A. meats ter enables it to move through plant stems
from the roots to the leaves?
B. vegetables
A. Water expands as it freezes.
C. oils
B. Water is an excellent solvent.
D. DNA
C. Water exhibits cohesion and adhesion.
29. What property of water did dissolving salt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
in water show?
D. Water has a high heat capacity.
A. Specific heat capacity
35. The bonds between water molecules is
B. Surface Tension
called a/an
C. Heat of Evaporation
A. ionic bond
D. Solvent
B. hydrogen bond
30. Earth is covered by % of water C. covalent bond
A. 97% D. metallic bond
B. 3%
36. The water drop got bigger on the penny
C. 50% because of
D. 71%
A. universal solvent
31. A is 2 or more atoms where as a B. cohesion
must be 2 or more different atoms.
C. capillary action
A. molecule:compound
D. condensation
B. compound:molecule
C. cohesion:adhesion 37. What property allows solid ice to float in
liquid water?
D. compound:cohesion
A. high specific heat
32. A liquid that can dissolve a substance B. density
A. solvent
C. adhesion
B. solute
D. cohesion
C. solution
38. Which of the following is NOT a property
D. none of above
of water?
33. When water molecules interact with the A. Hydrogen bonds exist only in the solid
xylem in plants as it moves up to the state
leaves, it is displaying the property of..
B. It can dissolve ionic and polar
A. Cohesion molecules
B. Adhesion C. It has a high surface tension
C. Surface tension D. The solid state is less dense than the
D. Polarity liquid state.

39. The movement of water is able to trans- 44. the attraction between molecules of the
port minerals and nutrients. Which state- same substance
ment best explains why water is able to

A. adhesion
do this?
B. cohesion
A. Water is an excellent solvent.
C. capillary action
B. Water is a liquid at room temperature.
D. solute
C. Water absorbs heat energy. 45. An acid

D. Water has a density of one gram per A. is a substance that releases H+ ions
milliliter. when dissolved in water
B. is a substance that does not release
40. Large bodies of water do not quickly
any ions when dissolved in water
change in temperature. Why?
C. is a substance that releases OH-when
A. Water is a solvent.
dissolved in water
B. Water has a high heat capacity. D. releases an equal amount of OH-and
C. Water acts as a buffer. H+ ions when dissolved in water
D. Water is non-polar. 46. What is the physical change in matter from
a liquid to a gas when heat is added?
41. Water’s ability to dissolve other sub-
stances is known as A. Melting Point
A. Polarity B. Boiling Point
B. Surface Tension C. Freezing Point
C. Solubility D. none of above
D. Specific Heat 47. Water beads up on the surface of a penny
because of this property.
42. A group of students put some water in a
pan and heated it on a hot plate. After 6 A. Adhesion
minutes, there was nothing left in the pan. B. High Surface Tension
The water evaporated because it reached C. Universal Solvent
a temperature of-
D. Changes in Density
A. 0◦ C
B. 50◦ C 48. Ice floats when placed in a liquid water be-
cause:
C. 100◦ C
A. ice is less dense than the liquid
D. 200◦ C
B. ice is more dense than the liquid
43. Feels slippery. C. ice is soluble
A. Acids D. water is adhesive
B. Bases
49. What is the only substance with the pH of
C. All 7 (neutral)?
D. none of above A. Milk

B. Blood 55. The cohesive forces between water

C. Orange Juice molecules are responsible for the phe-
nomenon known as , which allows
D. Water small insects to be on top of water
50. Some adult insects are unable to swim A. adhesion
but are able to walk on the top of water.
B. surface tension
What characteristic of water enables these
insects to walk on the top of water? C. suspension
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. heat capacity D. solute
B. solvent properties 56. The chemical compound of water is
C. solute properties A. HO
D. surface tension B. H2O
51. A water strider can skate along the top of C. H3O
a pond because: D. HO2
A. covalent bonds result in water cohe-
sion 57. Since a water molecule has a polar nature,
what property does water have?
B. hydrogen bonds result in water cohe-
sion (surface tension) A. dissolving properties
C. water striders have adapted to take B. lustrous properties
advantage of water cohesion C. magnetic properties
D. low surface tension of water D. density properties
52. Cohesion is when water sticks to 58. Water is a polar molecule. Which portion
A. other salts ions of water has a negative charge?
B. other water molecules A. the hydrogens
C. tree roots B. the oxygen
D. none of above C. both
53. A single water molecule can form up to D. neither
how many hydrogen bonds at a time
59. What receives a proton
A. 1
A. Basic
B. 2
B. Base
C. 3
C. electron
D. 4
D. Acid
54. Center of atom that houses the protons
and neutrons 60. When dissolved in water, acids produce:
A. orbitals A. bases
B. nucleolus B. salts
C. nucleus C. hydrogen ions
D. isotope D. hydroxide ions

61. In order to be considered a solution with B. hydrophobic

a neutral pH, it would have to have a pH C. surface tension
value of

D. adhesion
A. 5
B. 7 67. Consider the chemical equation CH4 + 2 O
2 → CO 2 + 2 H 2O. In this equation, CH4
C. 10 is a
D. none of above A. product
62. Swimming is an example of which cate- B. reactant
gory of ways humans use water?
C. displacement
A. Household
D. none of above
B. Agriculture
68. is the energy needed to heat a sub-
C. Recreation
stance by a particular amount.
D. Industry
A. specific heat
63. Covalent Bond B. specific temperature
A. a chemical bond formed between C. Universal solvent
atoms by the sharing of electrons.
D. adhesion
B. The name of Agents 002.
69. A frozen lake in winter with fish swim-
C. A really special glue.
ming below the surface is possible because
D. Something very sticky. of which property of water?
64. Water binding with water A. cohesion and adhesion
A. Adhesion B. ice being less dense than liquid water
B. Cohesion C. surface tension
C. Ability to dissolve substances D. Universal solvent
D. High specific heat 70. What is water?
65. Water has several properties that make it A. An atom
essential to life. Which property of water B. A molecule composed of 2 parts Oxy-
is most important for dissolving molecules gen and one part Hydrogen
to deliver nutrients to cells of the human
body? C. A molecular compound composed of 2
parts Hydrogen and one part Oxygen
A. Cohesive properties
D. A pure substance composed of 2 parts
B. Adhesive properties Hydrogen and one part Oxygen
C. High specific heat
71. Water is considered a polar molecule be-
D. Universal solvent cause
66. The attraction of water molecules to other A. it is attracted to the north pole
types of molecules (other than water) B. it has a positively charged end and a
A. cohesion negatively charged end

C. it is attracted to metal poles 77. The pH scale is a measurement system that

D. it repels other substances indicates the concentration of in a so-
lution.
72. Ice floats on water because it when it A. H+
freezes, and becomes dense than wa-
B. OH-
ter.
C. water
A. Contracts; more
D. salt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Contracts; less
C. Expands; more 78. Which scientific tool should be used to mea-
sure the volume of water in a cup?
D. Expands; less
A. triple beam balance
73. The tendency of water molecules to attract B. metric ruler
to one another is known as
C. graduated cylinder
A. Adhesion D. spring scale
B. Cohesion
79. At what temperature does water Freeze?
C. Specific heat
A. 0o C
D. Capillary Action
B. 100o C
74. A substance that increases the hydrogen C. 32o C
ion (H+) concentration of a solution. On D. -273o C
the pH scale:6.9 or below is considered an
A. acid 80. Which of the following will cause water to
change to ice?
B. base
A. adding salt to the water
C. neutral substance
B. removing heat from the water
D. concentrated substance
C. stirring the water
75. A molecule that has a partial positive D. putting the water in sunlight
charge on one side and a partial negative
charge on the other side is called a 81. When you mix salad oil and water they
immediately separate because:
A. nonpolar molecule.
A. Salad oil is hydrophobic
B. polar molecule.
B. Hydrogen bonds reform between wa-
C. charged molecule. ter molecules
D. bipolar molecule. C. Salad oil is too heavy
76. Pure (distilled) water has a pH value of: D. It depends on what kind of oil you are
using
A. 1
82. When water moves up a piece of paper, or
B. 7
up a tree against gravity, it is displaying
C. >9 the property of water known as
D. 14 A. Adhesion

B. Capillary action C. Hydrogen bonds

C. Cohesion D. Glycosidic bonds

D. Density 88. The physical property of water that allows
it to stick to ther polar substances is re-
83. Surface Tension
ferred to as:
A. Is the attractive force in liquids that
A. Cohesion
pulls surface molecules into the rest of the
liquid, minimizing the surface area. B. Adhesion
B. The feeling that something is not right. C. Van der Waals Forces
D. Ionic bonding
C. The tight feeling on the outside of your 89. Gerridae lucas, more commonly known as
skin. pond skaters, are able to rest on the sur-
D. none of above face of ponds. Which property of water
enables this?
84. Which is NOT a property of water?
A. ability to hold a lot of heat
A. Water has a high specific heat capacity
B. ability to form hydrogen bonds
C. less dense when frozen
B. Water is a polar molecule
D. colourless and odourless
C. Water molecules cannot bond with
other water molecules 90. What word describes when water is at-
D. Water is more dense as a liquid than tracted to other substances?
as a solid A. cohesion
85. A solution with a pH of 3.6 would be B. adhesion

C. capillary action
A. Acid
D. surface tension
B. Base
C. Neutral 91. a substance in which a solute dissolves
D. Acid and Base A. insulation
B. solvent
86. Cohesion is
C. hydrogen bond
A. Sort of like Co-operation.
D. capillary action
B. like another thing.
92. Which of the following observations is
C. extremely sticky stuff.
best explained by water’s high surface
D. the sticking together of particles of the tension?
same substance.
A. a pond is slow to freeze, despite low
87. Which of the following intermolecular in- air temperature
teractions is easiest to disrupt via a B. a human sweats in order to cool down
change in temperature?
A. Ionic bonds C. a tree takes up water from its roots
B. Covalent bonds D. a leaf floats on the surface of a puddle

93. Which part(s) of a water molecule C. Stick to itself

has/have a partial negative charge? D. Flow upward against the force of grav-
A. the two hydrogen (H) atoms ity
B. the two oxygen (O) atoms
99. This is an example of a nucleic acid.
C. the one hydrogen (H) atom
A. meats
D. the one oxygen (O) atom
B. vegetables
94. Water sticking to a car window is an ex-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. oils
ample of this property of water-
D. DNA
A. cohesion
B. adhesion 100. Taking a shower is an example of which
C. capillary action category of ways humans use water?
D. surface tension A. Transportation

B. Household
95. How close or far you are from an ocean
affects C. Industry
A. climate D. Agriculture
B. polarity
101. What is WATER?
C. cohesion
A. A tasteless and odorless liquid at room
D. adhesion temperature, it has the important ability
to dissolve many other substances.
96. What property of water creates surface
tension? B. Liquid Gold.
A. Adhesion between water and air C. It is a juice.
B. Cohesion between water molecules D. Liquid Candy
C. Water is a good buffer
102. When water vapor changes to liquid wa-
D. Water dissolves polar molecules ter, it is called
97. Sweating is an example of what property A. evaporation
of water? B. condensation
A. Ability to Moderate Temperature
C. precipitation
B. Expansion Upon Freezing
D. water cycle
C. Cohesive Behavior
D. Universal Solvent 103. This is one part of the Earth’s system
which contains all of the Earth’s living
98. Capillary action is the result of waters things.
properties of cohesion and adhesion work-
A. hydrosphere
ing together to allow water to
B. biosphere
A. Absorb water through the roots of
plants C. atmosphere
B. Stick to other things D. geosphere

104. The component of a solution that does the B. A neutral ion.

dissolving. It dissolves something else. C. A positively charged ion.

A. heterogeneous D. none of above
B. homogeneous
110. Why is it helpful to nature that ice
C. solvent floats?
D. solute A. fish swim around the ice
105. When a water molecule clings to a B. fish swim on top of the ice
wooden surface, and forms a flat sheet of C. fish swim underneath the ice
water, it is displaying
D. ice doesn’t float
A. Adhesion
111. Which type of ion does a base produce
B. Capillary action
when it is dissolved in water?
C. Cohesion
A. oxide
D. Surface tension
B. oxygen
106. This property of water allow water to C. hydrogen
move through materials with pores or nar-
D. hydroxide
row spaces inside fibers.
A. adhesion 112. Water is a polar molecule because the
B. cohesion A. electrons are pulled more towards the
oxygen.
C. capillary action
B. electrons are pulled more towards the
D. surface tension
hydrogen.
107. The amount of heat needed to increase C. molecule is neutral.
the temperature of a mass of a substance
D. electrons are positively charged.
by one degree.
A. heterogeneous 113. This water property makes it a good sol-
vent
B. specific heat
A. lower density as liquid
C. solvent
B. low specific heat
D. suspension
C. acidity
108. What word describes when a water D. polarity
sticks to another substance?
A. Cohesion 114. What is a bond where the attraction
between a hydrogen atom of one water
B. Adhesion molecules and the oxygen atom of another
C. Solution water molecule?
D. Transpiration A. Covalent
109. An atom that loses an electron becomes B. Ionic

which of the following? C. Hydrogen
A. A negatively charged ion. D. none of above

115. The basic unit of matter B. positively charged hydrogen ends and
A. protons a negatively charged oxygen end.
B. cells C. two negatively hydrogen and oxygen

ends
C. atoms
D. negatively charged hydrogen ends and
D. molecules a positively charged oxygen end.
116. A carefully placed paperclip can float on 121. The is the thing being dissolved.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
top of water due to the of water
A. solute
A. high specific heat
B. solvent
B. density
C. mixture
C. surface tension
D. suspension
D. evaporative cooling
122. water is said to be , because it has a
117. Why is water polar?
positive end and a negative end
A. It can withstand freezing tempera-
A. adhesion
tures
B. solvent
B. It can dissolve non-polar solutes
C. polar
C. It has areas of positive and negative
charges within it D. solute
D. It is typically found in the North and 123. Waters temperature remains relatively
South Poles
A. hot
118. What type of bond is between two water B. cold
molecules?
C. Room tepature
A. Covalent bond
D. Stable
B. Ionic bond
C. Hydrogen bond 124. Bond formed when one or more electrons
are transferred from one atom to another
D. Nonpolar bond
A. hydrogen
119. What is the reason why oil and water
B. ionic
don’t mix?
C. covalent
A. Oil is too heavy to mix with water
D. electromagnetic
B. Water can only mix with polar
molecules 125. Both animals and plants use this water
C. Water can only mix with non-polar property to maintain internal homeostasis
molecules (stable body temperature)
D. Oil is too light to mix with water A. cohesion
120. A water molecule has- B. density
A. two positively charged hydrogen and C. evaporative cooling

oxygen ends D. polarity

126. On the pH scale, most solutions have pH C. 100 ◦ C

values in the range of: D. 115 ◦ C

A. 0-7
132. the atom in water that has a slight nega-
B. 0-14 tive charge
C. >7-<14 A. polar covalent bonds
D. 7-14
B. oxygen
127. When it rains, water will stick to your C. adhesion
clothes and get them wet. What property
D. solution
is this an example of?
A. Cohesion 133. This is when water is added to break a
bond.
B. Adhesion
A. Dehydration Synthesis
C. High Specific Heat Capacity
B. Hydrolysis
D. Surface Tension
C. Hydrophillic
128. Water droplets join together as they run
D. Hydrophobic
down the windshield of the car.
A. cohesion 134. Water is often called the “universal sol-
vent” because many substances can be dis-
B. adhesion
solved in water. What property of water
C. specific heat allows it to be such a versatile solvent?
D. capillary action A. purity
129. Because it has a positive and negative B. polarity
charge, water is said to be what kind of C. high heat capacity
molecule?
D. expansion upon freezing
A. a magnetized molecule
B. a soluble molecule 135. Which part(s) of a water molecule
has/have a partial positive charge?
C. a polar molecule
A. the two hydrogen (H) atoms
D. a tropical molecule
B. the two oxygen (O) atoms
130. is a substance that dissolves in a solvent C. the one hydrogen (H) atom
A. adhesion D. the one oxygen (O) atom
B. solvent
136. This is one part of the Earth’s system that
C. suspension contains all of Earth’s water (on land and
D. solute underground).
131. Water, with nothing dissolved in it, will A. biosphere

freeze at what temperature? B. geosphere
A. 0◦ C C. atmosphere
B. 32◦ C D. hydrosphere

137. Water molecules have a strong attraction 142. Rainwater can dissolve chemicals that
for one another, which is called are on the ground. This is because water
A. cohesion
A. has capillary action
B. adhesion
B. is the universal solvent
C. density
C. evaporates
D. hydrophobic
D. is made of oxygen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
138. When liquid water changes to water va-
por, it is called 143. Which two subatomic particles are lo-
cated in the nucleus?
A. evaporation
A. Protons and Electrons
B. condensation
B. Protons and Neutrons
C. precipitation
C. Electrons and Protons
D. water cycle
D. none of above
139. Which of the following properties of wa-
144. What tool is used to measure the boiling
ter enables molecules to cling together as
point of water?
they move from the roots to the leaves of
plants? A. Stopwatch
A. Water expands as it freezes. B. Triple beam balance
B. Water is an excellent solvent. C. Thermometer
C. Water exhibits cohesive behavior. D. Meter Stick
D. Water moderates temperature. 145. Water keeps our climate moderate (not
too hot or cold) because-
140. Water has the ability to stick to other
A. water has a curved shape
water molecules as well as stick to other
substances. The combined force of at- B. it slowly releases heat in the winter
traction among water molecules and with warming the air above it.
the molecules of surrounding materials is C. it sticks together
called-
D. it has an electron bond.
A. surface tension
146. A a solvent is
B. specific heat
A. the sinking substance in a solution
C. capillary action
B. the dissolving substance in a solution
D. condensation
C. the substance that is dissolved in a so-
141. hydrogen and oxygen atoms in water lution
molecules are held together by D. none of above
A. polar covalent bonds
147. Water can travel up a surface, up a straw,
B. oxygen or through a plant using
C. adhesion A. capillary action
D. solution B. specific heat

C. nonpolar bonding 153. Where does cellular respiration take

D. high heat of vaporization place in the cell?

148. The partial negative charge at one end of A. Cell Membrane
a water molecule is attracted to a partial B. Nucleus
positive charge of another water molecule.
What is this type of attraction called? C. Mitochondria
A. a polar covalent bond D. Vacuole

B. an ionic bond
154. On the pH scale, bases have pH values
C. a hydration shell from to 14
D. a hydrogen bond
A. Greater than 7
149. Which of the following is the correct B. 7
equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
A. 6CO2 + 6H2O → 6O2 + C6H12O6 C. Less than 7
B. 6CO2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O → O2 D. 7.1

C. 6O2 + 6H2O → 6CO2 + C6H12O6
155. What are abiotic factors?
D. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6H2O + 6CO2
A. All of the living things in an ecosystem
150. Water has a high specific heat which
means it can hold a great deal of thermal
energy without rapidly increasing in tem- B. All of the non living things in an ecosys-
perature. What climate will this affect? tem
A. Cities that are close to Oceans and C. All of the living and nonliving things
large lakes combined
B. Cities that are near ponds or rivers D. A piece of a living thing
C. Deserts far from oceans
156. Some insects can stand on the surface of
D. none of above
water because water-
151. What property of water deals with ice A. is a good evaporative coolant
floating?
A. Cohesion B. has a high specific heat
B. Adhesion C. has a high boiling point

C. Density D. is cohesive and adhesive
D. Capillary Action
157. A(n) is a substance with a pH less
152. Molecules that stick to the same type of than 7
molecules.
A. Acid
A. cohesion
B. Alkaline
B. adhesion
C. hydrophilic C. Base
D. hydrophobic D. Buffer

158. The “film” that forms on top of water is 164. Which property of water molecules ex-
referred to as plains the other properties listed below?
A. Adhesion A. adhesion
B. Capillary action B. cohesion
C. Surface tension
C. hydrogen bond
D. Cohesion
D. surface tension
159. An object’s ability to float
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. density 165. The type of mixture in which the compo-
nents are NOT evenly mixed.
B. buoyancy
C. capillary action A. heterogeneous
D. none of above B. homogeneous
160. In ONE water molecule the hydrogen and C. solvent

oxygen atoms are held together by shar- D. solute
ing
A. protons 166. Water molecules are strongly attracted
to one another due to bonds, which
B. neutrons
causes
C. electrons
A. Hydrogen; Adhesion
D. nuclei
B. Hydrogen; Cohesion
161. In water, oxygen has a charge.
C. Ionic; Adhesion
A. positive
D. Ionic; Cohesion
B. negative
C. super 167. Water molecules act like MAGNETS be-
D. neutral cause of this property
162. You burn your feet on the sand at the A. capillary action
beach but find the ocean water is still very B. surface tension
cold
C. polar molecule
A. adhesion
D. normal molecule
B. cohesion
C. solvent 168. The temperature at which a substance
D. specific heat changes from liquid to gas (for water
this is 100 degrees Celsius, 212 degrees
163. What name is given to a mixture of wa- Fahrenheit)
ter and small undissolved particles?
A. boiling point
A. solubility
B. homogeneous B. melting point
C. solvent C. evaporation
D. suspension D. condensation

169. Which three are properties of water? C. hot

A. solvent, specific heat, water vapor D. cold

B. solvent, cohesion, adhesion
175. + O2 → 2H2O What is the product?
C. solid, cohesion, adhesion
A. →
D. cohesion, adhesion, structure
B. 2H2O
170. Which of the following characteristics of
water is not a result of hydrogen bond- C. 2H2+ O2
ing? D. none of above
A. adhesion
B. capillary action 176. Large bodies of water do not quickly
change in temperature due to
C. cohesion
A. water being a solvent.
D. All of the above are a result of hydro-
gen bonding. B. water having a high heat capacity.
171. What kind of molecule is water? C. water acting as a buffer.
A. Ionic D. water being non-polar.

B. Polar Covalent
177. How many protons are in one atom of
C. Nonpolar Covalent potassium (K)?
D. Metallic A. 9
172. When solution has more H+ than OH-, it B. 18
is considered to be..
C. 19
A. neutral
D. 38
B. acidic
C. basic 178. Water sticks well to many materials.
D. none of above What term relates to this property of wa-
ter?
173. What makes water a polar molecule? A. cohesion
A. It has fully positive and negative
B. adhesion
charges
B. it contains ionic bonds C. density
C. it is able to dissolve nonpolar sub- D. surface tension
stances
179. What percent of all water is available,
D. it contains partial positive and nega-
liquid, freshwater on Earth?
tive charges on its atoms
A. about 1%
174. High specific heat allows water tempera-
ture to remain B. 2%
A. stable C. 97%
B. out of control D. 71%

180. Hydrology means C. As water freezes, it takes up more hy-

A. the study of the atmosphere drogen, increasing its density
B. The study of water D. none of above
C. The water cycle 186. Which term refers to water having a

D. none of above slightly positive and a slighty negative
charge on its ends?
181. Term that means that unlike molecules A. cohesion
are attracted to one another as when wa-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ter molecules stick to the surface of a B. surface tension
penny. C. polar
A. adhesion D. adhesion
B. heterogeneous
187. Which of the following is LEAST likely to
C. solubility dissolve in water?
D. dissociation A. nonpolar fats and oils
182. Isotopes of the same element differ in B. polar sugar molecules
which of the following? C. salt made of a positive sodium ion and
A. Their number of neutrons. a negative chloride ion
B. Their number of protons. D. all of the substances will dissolve eas-
ily in water
C. Their number of electrons.
D. none of above 188. Water is able to dissolve many sub-
stances, and is commonly known as the-
183. Which force holds water molecules on the
A. universal solute
surface of cell walls?
B. universal compound
A. Adhesion
C. universal element
B. Capilliarity
D. universal solvent
C. Cohesion
D. Surface tension 189. How many hydrogens & oxygen atoms
are in a molecule of water?
184. The H-O-H bond of the water molecule
A. 2 Hydrogen & 2 Oxygen
has a bond angle of degrees.
B. 2 Helium & 1 Oxygen
A. 109.5
B. 105.5 C. 1 Hydrogen & 2 Oxygen
C. 104.5 D. 2 Hydrogen & 1 Oxygen
D. 107.5 190. An attraction between molecules of dif-

ferent substances
185. How does ice float?
A. Cohesion
A. As water freezes, the space between
molecules expand, decreasing its density B. Adhesion
B. As water freezes, it takes up more oxy- C. Surface Tension

gen from the air, increasing its density D. none of above

191. Water is a universal solvent because it B. Acid

C. Buffer

A. It can be found anywhere
D. Water
B. It freezes when it gets cold
197. This is one part of the Earth’s system
C. floats when frozen
which contains all of the gases the sur-
D. Dissolves most substances round the Earth.
192. The ability of water to dissolve many sub- A. atmosphere
stances is a result of water molecules be- B. geosphere
ing
C. biosphere
A. Polar
D. hydrosphere
B. Non-polar
C. Unstable 198. What is the effect that occurs during an
experiment?
D. Radioactive
193. Which of the following can water NOT
dissolve? B. dependent variable
A. Ionic Compounds C. constant
B. Polar Compounds D. none of above

C. Nonpolar Compounds 199. Which of these has more cohesion.
D. none of above A. pure water
194. What name is given to a solution that has B. soapy water
more H+ ions than pure water? C. they have the same cohesion.
A. an acid D. none of above
B. a base
200. What is the purpose of cellular respira-
C. a buffer
tion?
D. a solution
A. to break down food
195. Which of the following properties of wa- B. to create energy in the body
ter are beneficial to life?I. High specific
heatII. Evaporative coolingIII. Ice floats in C. to release energy from food
lakesIV. Dissolves many polar molecules D. there is none; it’s a waste of time
A. I and II
201. Which property of water can be used to
B. I, II, III explain why it is able to dissolve many
C. I and IV substances?
D. I, II, III, IV A. High heat of vapourisation
B. Polar structure
196. A(n) is a substance with a pH greater
than 7. C. High latent heat capacity
A. Base D. Strong cohesion

202. A base is a substance 207. This is an example of a protein.

A. That releases OH-ions when dissolved A. meats
in water B. vegetables
B. That releases H+ ions when dissolved C. oils
in water D. DNA
C. Does not release any ions when dis- 208. Water is able to dissolve substances
solved in water due to its
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. None of the above A. Polar; Polarity
B. Non-polar; Polarity
203. Which solution releases H+ in solution?
C. Polar; Non-polarity
A. Base
D. Non-polar; Non-polarity
B. Acid
209. Which end of a water molecule has a pos-
C. Buffer itive charge?
D. Water A. The hydrogen side
B. The oxygen side
204. Which atom(s) in a molecule of water
is/are partially positive? C. There is no positive charge
A. Oxygen D. Both sides are positive
B. Carbon 210. What is cohesion?
C. Nitrogen A. Water’s ability to stick to itself

B. Water’s ability to stick to other sub-
D. Hydrogen
stances
205. The physical property of water, resulting C. The strength of the cohesion of all the
from hydrogen bonding, that allows water water molecules combined
molecules to stick to each other is referred D. Tape, glue and other adhesives
to as:
211. When energy is added to water, it be-
A. Cohesion comes a at 100 degrees Celsius
B. Adhesion A. solid
C. Homeostasis B. liquid
D. Capillary Action C. gas
D. sublimination
206. The ability of a liquid to flow against
gravity in a narrow space such as a thin 212. Water’s ability to “stick together” and
tube form a skin on the top layer is known as
A. cohesion
A. Polarity
B. adhesion B. Surface Tension
C. surface tension C. Solubility
D. capillary action D. Specific Heat

213. On the pH scale, acids have values rang- C. its rarely found in the human body
ing from 0 to D. it can dissolve nutrients to move them

A. less than 7 throughout the body.
B. less than 5 219. Solubility is
C. 14 A. Melting.
D. 1
B. When something changes into some-
214. Water droplets sticking to the sides of thing else.
a glass is an example of this property of C. Has something to do with the sun.
water-
D. The ability of a solid, liquid, or gaseous
A. cohesion chemical substance to dissolve.
B. adhesion
220. Water is referred to as the ‘universal’
C. capillary action solvent because it
D. surface tension A. Dissolves everything
215. How much of Earth’s water is salt wa- B. Is dissolved by most things
ter? C. Dissolves most things
A. 50% D. Can be found anywhere
B. 66%
221. Which property of water allows it to
C. 75% form droplets when in liquid form?
D. 97% A. adhesion
216. What property of water was shown in B. cohesion
dropping water on to pennies? C. specific heat
A. Adhesion D. nature as a solvent
B. Cohesion
222. What is surface tension?
C. Polarity
A. Water’s ability to stick to itself
D. Solvent
217. The ability of one thing to stick firmly to stances
another. C. The strength of the cohesion of all the
A. Advertize water molecules combined
B. Adhesion D. Tape, glue and other adhesives
C. Administer 223. Water dissolves many substances so it is
D. Adstick called the
218. Water is considered essential to life be- A. wonderful water

cause B. capillary action
A. it occurs naturally C. water cycle
B. it is found in so many places D. universal solvent

224. Which answer best describes cohesion? A. Hydrogen

A. Water molecules are attracted to B. Covalent
other molecules C. Ionic
B. Water molecules are polar D. Polar Covalent
C. Water molecules are attracted to
other water molecules 230. Which of the following is an example of
COHESION?
D. Water moves up against gravity in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
plants A. water sticking to water
B. water sticking to glass
225. This is a function of lipids.
C. oil sticking to plastic
A. Stored energy
D. hydrogen sticking to oxygen
C. Muscle and other sturctures 231. The oxygen atom in water molecules due
to its electronegativity bears
D. Genetic information
A. 2 partially-ve charge
226. How many bonds can a nitrogen atom B. 2 partially +ve charge
make?
C. 1 partially-ve charge
A. 1
D. 1 partially +ve charge
B. 2
C. 3 232. Water’s attraction to other water
molecules
D. 4
A. adhesion
227. Why does water move from the roots to B. capillary action
the leaves of plants?
C. cohesion
A. Water is pushed by solutes
D. surface tension
B. Water is pulled by gravity
C. Capillary action pulls the water 233. A water molecule is made of
molecules like a chain A. All Hydrogen atoms
D. Water’s cohesion causes it to “pull” to- B. All Oxygen atoms
wards the leaves C. 2 Oxygen atoms and 1 Hydrogen atom
228. A solution with a pH of 7.0 would have
D. 2 Hydrogen atoms and 1 Oxygen atom
A. more H ions than OH ions 234. Water can hold a great deal of heat and
B. more OH ions than H ions help moderate the climate of a nearby
C. equal number of H and OH ions landmass because of which property?
D. None of these. A. specific heat

B. cohesion
229. bonds form through the electrical
force between two oppositely charged C. adhesion
ions, like salt, or sodium chloride (NaCl). D. polarity

235. Water sticks to surfaces C. Mixture

A. cohesion D. Solution

B. adhesion
240. Which of the following solvents is most
C. surface tension likely to dissolve an ionic lattice of sodium
D. high specific heat bromide?
A. Hexane
236. The temperature change between sea-
sons is gradual rather than sudden, espe- B. Cyclohexane
cially near the oceans. This is due to what
C. Water
property of water?
D. Ethanol
A. High specific heat
B. Low ice density 241. Because water has a positive charge and
C. Capillary action a negative charge, it is
D. Surface tension A. polar

B. normal
237. Describe COHESION.
C. negative
A. Water molecules attracted to other
substances. D. positive
B. Water molecules climbing upwards 242. CHALLENGE QUESTION:What does elec-
against the force of gravity. tronegative mean?
C. Water molecules dissolving many sub-
A. To have electronics that are negative
stances because of its polarity.
B. To reject all the electrons
D. Water molecules attracted to other
water molecules. C. To be “greedy” for all the neutrons
238. Water molecules bond in a crystalline D. To be “greedy” for all the electrons
form as the temperature of water drops.
243. Atoms of the same element with a differ-
This creates more space between water
ent number of neutrons
molecules. What characteristic of water
does this change describe? A. compound
A. density B. ionic
B. surface tension C. isotope
C. adhesion D. molecule
244. Which of these samples of H2O would
239. A sample of a nonmetal is composed of have the lowest density?
atoms. Each atom in the nonmetal contains
A. a sample at 200 degrees C
10 electrons. How is the nonmetal classi-
fied? B. A sample at 95 degrees C
A. Compound C. a sample at 40 degrees C
B. Element D. a sample at-20 degrees C

245. How can a water strider walk on water? 251. A student took out a cup of frozen wa-
A. It doesn’t ter from the freezer. At what tempera-
ture would the water begin changing from
B. It is heavy enough to bend the water a solid to a liquid?
C. It uses adhesion to its advantage
A. 0◦ C
D. The property of cohesion
B. 50◦ C
246. Water makes an upward curved menis-
cus in a graduated cylinder. What prop- C. 100◦ C
NARAYAN CHANGDER
erty of water accounts for the attraction D. 150◦ C
of the water to the glass?
A. Adhesion 252. If you are making Kool-Aid, what is the
B. Cohesion SOLVENT?
C. Hydrogen bonds A. Kool-Aid powder

D. Polar covalent bonds B. water
247. A mixture produced when one substance C. spoon
dissolves into another substance
D. container
A. solute
B. solvent 253. How many hydrogen atoms are in a wa-
ter molecule?
C. solution
248. Large bodies of water do not quickly fluc- B. 1

tuate in temperature. Why? C. 2
D. 0
B. Water has a high heat capacity.
C. Water acts as a buffer. 254. In which type of bond are electrons trans-
ferred?
D. Water is non-polar.
A. Non-polar Covalent Bonds
249. What is the chemical formula for water?
A. H20 B. Polar Covalent Bonds
B. h2o C. Ionic Bonds

C. H2O2 D. Hydrogen Bonds
D. H2O
255. This is when water is removed to make
250. Some insects and small organisms can a bond.
walk on water due to
A. Dehydration Synthesis
A. Adhesion
B. Hydrolysis
B. Capillary Action
C. Surface Tension C. Hydrophillic
D. Specific heat D. Hydrophobic

256. Which property of water provides the B. carbon

cooling effect of sweating? C. hydrogen

A. cohesiveness D. glucose
B. surface tension
262. The smallest unit of most compounds
C. high heat of vaporization A. atom
D. adhesiveness B. molecule
257. Which term refers to water having C. element
partial positive and a partial negative D. mixture
charge?
263. What are the three states of matter?
A. cohesion
A. Solid, liquid, and rain
B. surface tension
B. Solid, liquid, and gases.
C. polarity
C. Solid, vapor, and gases
D. adhesion
D. States of matter, liquid and gases
258. Hydrogen has a charge. 264. Water dissolves many ionic and polar sub-
A. Negative stances because of waters
B. Postive A. Ionic bonding
C. Neutral B. Covalent bonding
D. none of above C. Specific heat
D. Polarity
259. Why does ice stay at the top of oceans
instead of sinking to the bottom? 265. Plant roots are able to absorb water be-
A. Ice is colder than liquid water. cause of
A. evaporation
B. Ice expands and is less dense than liq-
uid water. B. capillary action
C. Ice is more dense than liquid water. C. surface tension
D. Ice is warmer than liquid water. D. universal solvent
260. A general definition of cohesion is the at- 266. The weak attractions between water
traction of: molecules are called
A. Covalent bonds
A. particles of the same substance
B. Ionic bonds
B. particles of a different substance
C. Polar bonds
C. particles of both the same and differ-
ent substances D. Hydrogen bonds
D. particles of neither the same or differ- 267. bonds form between ions.
ent substances A. ionic
261. The atoms in water that have a slight B. covalent
positive charge C. hydrogen
A. oxygen D. polar

268. the process through which ice releases 273. This is the monomer of a carbohydrate.
heat and prevents the loss of heat while A. nucleotide
freezing
B. amino acid
A. insulation
C. triglyceride
B. solvent
D. monosaccharide
C. hydrogen bond
274. The bond that holds the Oxygen and Hy-
D. capillary action drogen atoms together in a water molecule
NARAYAN CHANGDER
is a bond.
269. Which of these terms means that water
molecule stick to other water molecules? A. ionic
A. cohesion B. Hydrogen
C. Covalent
B. adhesion
D. Weak
C. specific heat
D. polarity 275. Acids
A. release hydrogen ions in solution
270. Which of the following water sources B. cause the pH of a solution to drop be-
would be considered readily available? low 7
A. water vapor C. have varied biological uses
B. lakes & rivers D. all of these choices are correct
C. ice 276. How many bonds can one water molecule
D. deep groundwater make with other water molecules?
A. 2
271. When you jump into the pool and “belly
flop” it hurts because you broke the B. 3
water’s- C. 4
A. adhesion D. 5
B. cohesion 277. What property of water allows Water
C. capillary action Strider Insects to sit on the surface of the
water?
D. surface tension
A. adhesion
272. Pure water is transparent. This property B. solvent
allows for
C. cohesion
A. water molecules to stick to each other. D. specific heat
278. This particle has a neutral charge
B. small insects to skate on the top of a
pond. A. electron
C. water to change states. B. proton
D. plants to survive deep in the ocean and C. neutron
at the bottom of riverbeds and lakes. D. atom

279. The pH scale is a range from: 285. Water molecules are attracted to other
A. 1-7 kinds of molecules because of the prop-
erty.

B. 0-14
A. Cohesion
C. 1-14
B. Adhesion
D. 1-20
C. Surface Tension
280. In a water molecule has the negative D. Universal Solvent
charge.
286. What is a molecule?
A. Hydrogen
A. The structure that results when atoms
B. Oxygen
are joined together by covalent bonds
C. Nitrogen B. when atoms share a pair of ele
D. Helium C. positively and negatively charged
281. This property of water allows insects to atoms
walk on top of the surface of a pond. D. none of above
A. cohesion 287. Water travels up from the roots of a tree
B. adhesion to the top because of
C. capillary action A. adhesion and cohesion
D. surface tension B. surface tension
C. specific heat capacity
282. Water sticks to water
D. density of water compared to ice
A. cohesion
B. adhesion 288. The main source of energy for all life
comes from
C. surface tension
A. the Earth
D. high specific heat
B. the moon
283. When water molecules stick to other wa- C. the sun
ter molecules, it is known as
D. the food we eat/make
A. adhesion
289. This is the amount of heat needed to in-
B. cohesion
crease the temperature of a certain mass
C. dissolving of a substance by 1 degree
D. dissociation A. cohesion
284. What name is given to a mixture that is B. adhesion
evenly mixed? C. capillary action
A. heterogeneous D. specific heat
B. homogeneous 290. In a molecule of water, which atom has
C. solvent has a positive charge?
D. suspension A. oxygen

B. hydrogen C. hydrosphere
C. both hydrogen and oxygen D. biosphere
D. neither oxygen or hydrogen
296. Does soapy water have a “skin”, which
291. What type of substance has an equal con- is caused by surface tension?
centration of H+ and OH-ions? A. Yes, it has a skin just like regular wa-
A. Acid ter.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Base B. It does not have a skin.
C. Neutral C. It has a bit of a skin.
D. none of above D. none of above
292. What numbers of the pH scale indicate 297. What percent of Earth’s waters are fresh
bases? waters?
A. 0-14
A. .5%
B. Less than 7
B. 3%
C. Greater than 7
C. 7%
D. Equal to 7
D. 18%
293. Water is valuable to industries and in
your car’s radiator as a coolant because 298. A(n) is a liquid that dissolves sub-
stances or the substance in which the so-
A. It absorbs a lot of heat before it
lute dissolves.
changes temperature
B. it can defy gravity A. solvent
C. because it is universal solvent B. solute

D. none of above C. mixture
D. molecule
294. Water sticks to other substances like
your hair, or a leaf because of which prop-
299. In a water molecule has the positive
erty?
charge.
A. adhesion
A. Hydrogen
B. cohesion
B. Oxygen
C. polarity
C. Nitrogen
D. specific heat
D. Helium
295. Which component of the Earth includes
the water above, on, or in the Earth’s 300. Mass per unit of volume (mass/volume)
crust? (This includes water in the oceans, A. density
seas, lakes, ground water, and atmo-
spheric moisture.) B. cohesion
A. lithosphere C. polarity
B. atmosphere D. adhesion

301. The products of cellular respiration are 306. Water has many unique properties be-
ATP energy, carbon dioxide, and cause of its?

A. oxygen A. liquid state
B. glucose B. number of atoms
C. carbon dioxide C. polarity
D. water D. negativity
307. Tastes Sour

302. How many bonds can an oxygen atom
make? A. Acids
A. 1 B. Bases
B. 2 C. Salts
C. 3 D. All
D. 4 308. Which term refers to water’s attraction

to different substances?
303. Ocean currents regulate the climate
A. polarity
around the world and make places like Lon-
don much more comfortable to live in B. cohesion
A. universal solvent C. surface tension
B. cohesion D. adhesion
C. adhesion 309. Which characteristic of water will allow

a paperclip to remain floating on water
D. specific heat
when the paperclip is gently placed on top
304. When water dissolves a substance, weak of the water?
charges on water molecules attract oppo- A. adhesion
sitely charged portions of the substance, B. surface tension
pulling them out into solution. Which
property of water accounts for this occur- C. solvent properties
rence? D. nonpolar
A. polarity 310. This is the tightness across the surface of
B. pH water caused by polar molecules pulling on
each other.
C. cohesion
A. cohesion
D. surface tension
B. adhesion
305. What are the products of photosynthe- C. capillary action
sis?
D. surface tension
A. water and carbon dioxide
311. If an element has an atomic number of
B. oxygen and glucose
26 and an atomic mass of 56, how many
C. oxygen and carbon dioxide neutrons does it have?
D. oxygen and water A. 26

B. 30 C. Ionic
C. 56 D. none of above
D. 82
317. A container of water in the liquid state is
312. A property of water that is vital to sup- heated to 100◦ C. At this temperature the
porting life its that water will-
A. water is transparent A. freeze
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. water can dissolve a wide variety of B. boil
substances
C. melt
C. Water is found naturally on Earth as a
liquid. D. condense
D. water molecules are not charged.
318. Caroline can make lemonade by mixing
313. What property did heating the oil and wa- the powder with water.
ter show? A. specific heat
A. heat of evaporation B. polarity
B. specific heat capacity C. adhesion
C. polar
D. adhesion
319. Positively and negatively charged atoms
314. Is the density of water ice lower, higher,
or the same as liquid water? A. molecule
A. Lower B. ions
B. Higher C. isotope
C. The same D. electrons
D. Um what is density again
320. Vaseline does not attract water because
315. Surface tension is the tendency of a liq- it is
uids surface to resist rupture when under
A. charged positively
tension or stress. What property of water
gives water this ability? B. hydrophilic (polar)
A. Adhesion C. hydrophobic (non-polar)
B. Density D. charged negatively
C. Cohesion
321. What do you call any substance that dis-
D. Solvent
solves another substance?
316. What type of bond holds together the in- A. Solvent
dividual hydrogen and oxygen atoms of a
single water molecule? B. Height
A. Covalent C. Atoms
B. Hydrogen D. Oxygen

322. In reference to water, what to do co- 327. This substance releases OH-into solution
hesion, surface tension, and adhesion all
A. Acid
have in common?

A. All are aspects of a crystalline struc- B. Base
ture C. Neutral
B. All are results of the structure of hy- D. none of above
drogen atoms
C. All are produced by ionic bonding 328. The water molecule has HYDROGEN
BONDING.
D. All are properties related to hydrogen
bonding A. A microscopic glue.
323. Even though a paper clip is denser than B. 007 James
water, it can sit on top of the water and C. An attractive force between molecules.
not sink.
A. adhesion
D. A substance used to repair cars.
B. cohesion
C. specific heat 329. Which answer means “water fearing”?
D. solvent A. Hydrophobic
324. Oxygen has a B. Hydrophilic

A. Negative charge C. Hydraulic
B. Positive charge D. Aquaphilic
C. Neutral charge
330. A substance composed of two or more el-
D. none of above ements or compounds that are not chemi-
cally combined is called a:
325. What is the gaseous form of water
called? A. mixture
A. Steam B. element
B. Water vapor C. compound
C. Vapor
D. polar substance
D. Water mist
331. Which is NOT a unique property of wa-
326. Water has several properties that make
ter?
it essential to life as we know it. Which
property of water is the most important A. Frozen water floats on liquid water.
for delivering nutrients to cells in the hu- B. Water covers most of the Earth’s sur-
man body? face and retains a large amount of heat.
A. High specific heat
B. Expansion upon freezing C. Water molecules stick to each other
C. Ability to dissolve many substances through hydrogen bonds.
D. Cohesive behavior D. Water cools very rapidly.

332. bond type formed between two different C. atoms share electrons evenly
water molecules D. none of above
A. insulation
338. How many atoms make up a molecule of
B. solvent water?
C. hydrogen bond A. 1
D. capillary action B. 2
C. 3
NARAYAN CHANGDER
333. What property of water does water
reaching the top of celery show? D. 4
A. Cohesion 339. CHALLENGE QUESTION:What is transpi-
B. Adhesion ration?
A. Process by which plants and trees re-
C. Surface Tension
move water from soil
D. Solvent
B. Process by which a plant “sweats”
334. Water is polar. What does that mean? C. Process by which a plant is trans-
A. it is a molecule with opposite charges ported to another soil sample
on opposite ends D. Process by which plants scientifically
unwind
B. it is a molecule with no charge
C. it is a molecule with identical charges 340. The component of a solution that gets dis-
on opposite ends solved.
D. it is a molecule with too many protons A. heterogeneous
B. homogeneous
335. Which is most acidic?
C. solvent
A. Baking Soda D. solute
B. Lemon Juice
341. Detergents like soap are partially polar
C. Black Coffee and partially nonpolar, so they
D. Milk A. Break up hydrogen bonds and reduce
the surface tension of water
336. Which of the following elements are non-
metals? B. Let water mix with the grease on your
skin to clean you
A. palladium (Pd) and zinc (Zn)
C. Reduce the cohesion of water
B. lithium (Li) and barium (Ba) molecules
C. beryllium (Be) and magnesium (Mg) D. All of these are correct
D. nitrogen (N) and sulfur (S) 342. What part of the experiment is kept the
337. How are covalent bonds formed? same?
A. when atoms transfer a pair of elec-
trons B. dependent variable
B. when atoms combine a pair of elec- C. constant
trons D. none of above

343. Water molecules tend to do this as the 349. The is the amount of heat it takes
temperature drops to the freezing point to raise the temperature of one gram of a
substance by one degree Celsius.

A. contract
B. expand A. Heat of vaporization
C. covalently bond B. Specific Heat
D. fall apart C. Capillary Action
D. Surface tension
344. Water moving up a drink straw, a sponge
absorbing water and water moving up a 350. Cohesion and Adhesion are the result of
stem of a plant are all examples of- which kind of chemical bond between wa-
A. adhesion ter and itself or water and other sub-
stances?
B. cohesion
A. Polar Covalent Bonds
C. capillary action
B. Hydrogen Bonds
D. surface tension
C. Ionic Bonds
345. When water molecules bond to the xylem D. Covalen Bonds
in plants, it is displaying the property of
A. Cohesion 351. A measure of how difficult it is to stretch
or break the surface of a liquid
B. Adhesion
A. Cohesion
C. Surface tension
B. Adhesion
D. Polarity
C. Surface Tension
346. Which portion of a water molecule has a D. none of above
positive charge?
A. none of it 352. The attraction that causes water and
other liquids to form drops on thin films
B. the hydrogens is called This is also water’s ability to
C. the oxygen be attraction to other water molecules.
D. all of it A. Adhesion
347. What is water’s technical name B. Cohesion
A. H02 C. Surface Tension
B. H3O D. Capillary Action
C. H2O 353. What is the attractive force between two

D. H2O2 bodies of different substances that are in
contact with each other? This is the prop-
348. Fresh water makes up what percent of erty of a water molecule that allows it to
earth’s water? stick to other substances.
A. 7% A. adhesion
B. 3% B. cohesion
C. 10% C. specific heat
D. 5% D. universal solvent

354. C is the C. the same

A. boiling point of water D. none of the above
B. freezing point of water
360. Water has a slightly positive end AND
C. dew point of water a slightly negative end, this means water
D. evaporation point of water has
355. When water is heated, the bonds are A. polarity

broken, and water stops being so
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. cohesion
A. Covalent; adhesive C. adhesion
B. Ionic; cohesive
D. specific heat
C. Hydrogen; cohesive
D. Hydrogen; adhesive 361. What two elements make up water?
A. Helium and oxygen
356. What is the ability of components to stick
together called? B. Hydrogen and oxygen
A. cohorsion C. helium and carbon
B. cohesion D. oxygen and carbon
C. contortion
362. A slight attraction that develops between
D. dohesion the oppositely charged regions of nearby
357. Drops of dew on a leaf owe their dome molecules
shaped appearance to A. hydrogen bonds
A. cohesion B. van der Waals force
B. adhesion C. ionic bond
C. the density of water D. covalent bond
D. cohesion, adhesion, and surface ten-
sion 363. What is the name for a substance the
gets dissolved?
358. Jeff can feel the water in a pot it still
only warm, even though he burnt his hand A. solvent
touching the metal pot B. solute
A. specific heat C. fresh water
B. adhesion D. sodium hydroxide
C. cohesion
364. Which types of compounds dissolve eas-
ily in water?*Hint:Like Dissolves Like
359. Complete the sentence.A substance that A. Polar and Nonpolar
is more basic has a pH than a sub-
stance that is acidic. B. Polar and Ionic
A. lower C. Nonpolar and Ionic
B. higher D. Covalent and Nonpolar

365. Which of the following properties of wa- A. oxygen

ter is due primarily to the polarity of the B. first hydrogen
water molecule?

C. second hydrogen
A. its lack of color
D. none of above
B. its lack of taste
C. its ability to dissolve substances 371. Ionic bonds occur when atoms elec-
trons.
D. its ability to produce buoyant forces
A. transfer
366. Large bodies of water do not quickly fluc-
B. share
tuate, or change, in temperature. Why?
C. merge
B. Water has a high heat capacity. D. none of above
C. Water acts as a buffer. 372. Why does ice float in water?

D. Water is non-polar. A. Because of stronger hydrogen bonds
at the surface
367. If you were a spider gliding across a pond
in the summer in Virginia, for what prop- B. The density of water as a solid is less
erty of water would you be most grate- than the density of water as a liquid
ful? C. Surface tension helps it float
A. high heat of fusion D. It is more dense
B. high specific heat
373. When a molecule has charged parts, that
C. cohesion means it ?
D. adhesion A. Has polarity
368. What is the right part of a chemical equa- B. Is nonpolar
tion called?H2 + O → H 2 C. Has surface tension
A. Reactants D. Is unique
B. Products
374. A has a definite volume but not a def-
C. Yields inite shape.
D. Chemical Equation A. liquid
369. A base is a solution with a pH greater B. solid
than
C. gas
A. 0
D. vapor
B. 7
375. Water’s most important property
C. 14
A. cohesion
D. 23
B. adhesion
370. In a molecule of water, which atom(s)
has(have) a partial negative charge? Se- C. hydrogen bonds
lect all that apply. D. high surface tension

376. When water freezes, the space between 382. Polar

molecules A. The first name for Mr. Bear.
A. Contract B. having a positive and negative end.
B. Combine C. The place where Santa Lives.
C. Condense D. A battery.
D. Expand
383. Water melts and freezes at-
377. Aquatic Plants and animals survive freez-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 10 degrees Celsius
ing temperatures because B. 100 degrees Celsius
A. Water can be found anywhere C. 212 degrees Celsius
B. Water is less dense as a solid D. 0 degrees Celsius
C. water is a polar molecule
384. A pH of 3 is how many times more acidic
D. Adhesion than a pH of 5?
378. Name the property:Water is a commonly A. 2
used because it dissolves most substances B. 20
A. adhesion C. 10
B. cohesion D. 100
C. solvent 385. Tastes bitter.
D. specific heat A. Acids
379. Water is called the because so many B. Bases
substances dissolve in it. C. Salts
A. Neutral D. All
B. Universal Solution
386. In a chemical reaction, bonds are broken
C. Universal Solvent and new bonds are formed that create new
D. Water Cycle substances. The bonds that are broken are
called what?
380. A completely dissolved solute in a sol-
A. Reactants
vent
B. Products
A. polar covalent bonds
C. Atoms
B. oxygen
D. Catalysts
C. adhesion
D. solution 387. What type of weak bond is formed when
the oxygen of one water molecule is at-
381. What percentage of water on Earth is tracted to the hydrogen of a different wa-
salt water? ter molecule?
A. 50% A. ionic
B. 75% B. covalent
C. 97% C. hydrogen
D. 70% D. metallic

388. The is the part of the solution that is B. adhesion

dissolved. C. specific heat

A. Smaller molecule D. universal solvent
B. Larger molecule
394. This is a function of nucleic acids.
C. Solute
A. Stored energy
D. Solvent
389. The type of bond water molecules form
C. Muscle and other sturctures
with each other and other substances
D. Genetic information
A. covalent
B. hydrogen 395. As liquid water becomes solid ice,
C. polar A. it floats on water
D. capillary B. the water molecules become more
widely spaced
390. Attraction between molecules of the
C. it becomes less dense
same substance
A. Cohesion D. all of the above
B. Adhesion 396. What is an example of an organism that

C. Surface Tension uses surface tension?
D. none of above A. a Mr. Schaperjahn

B. a water strider
391. Which is an agent of chemical weather-
ing? C. a fish
A. oxidation D. a human
B. actions by animals 397. What property of water allows water
C. freezing and thawing molecules to stick to each other?
D. plant roots A. cohesion
B. adhesion
392. In which state of water are the molecules
moving the fastest and far apart? C. specific heat
A. solid D. solvent
B. liquid 398. Water evaporates and condenses at-
C. gas A. 0 degrees Celsius
D. none of above B. 10 degrees Celsius
393. What is the force that holds molecules C. 100 degrees Celsius
of a single substance together and its D. 212 degrees Celsius
the property of water that allows one
water molecule to stick to other water 399. A solute is
molecules? A. the substance that is dissolved in a sol-
A. cohesion vent

B. the substance that floats in a solvent 405. A water molecule is made up of-
C. the substance that rises in a solvent A. one hydrogen and two oxygen
D. none of above B. two hydrogen and one oxygen
400. What is the only substance with a neutral C. two hydrogen and two oxygen
pH of 7? D. 4 hydrogen and 2 oxygen
A. Milk
406. In the reaction methane + oxygen turns
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Orange Juice into carbon dioxide + water, the methane
C. Water and oxygen are called
D. Blood A. reactants
B. products
401. The reason it takes a long time to heat
up water to boil noodles. C. neutrals
A. cohesion D. energizers
B. adhesion 407. What word describes a water molecule?

C. surface tension A. polar
D. high specific heat B. non-polar
402. Water stores heat effectively which C. normal

helps us to maintain homeostasis. Which D. universal
property of water is responsible for this?
408. A pure substance that consists entirely of
one type of atom
B. Cohesion
A. element
C. Adhesion
B. molecule
D. Capillary Action
C. electron
403. Name the property:Water gets soaked up D. isotope
by a paper towel
409. A substance that dissolves into liquid
A. adhesion
A. solvent
B. solvent
B. solute
C. cohesion
C. solution
D. polarity
D. none of above
404. What property of water allows for hy-
drogen bonding? 410. What does pH measure?
A. Water as a solvent A. the amount of hydrogen (H+) ions
B. Water is polar B. the amount of hydroxide (OH-) ions
C. Water has a high specific heat C. amount of water
D. Water is less dense as a solid D. all of the above

411. “Water Loving” is referred to as C. cohesion

A. Hydrophobic D. adhesion

B. Hydrophilic 417. To what does the term valance refer?
C. Hydroelectric A. Electrons in the innermost energy
D. Hydroloric level.
B. Protons in the innermost energy level.
412. This is an example of a lipid.
A. meats
C. Electrons in the outermost energy
B. vegetables level.
C. oils D. Protons in the outermost energy level.
D. DNA
418. The active ingredient in Windex (glass
413. Ice freezes at the top of a pond and pro- cleaner) is Ammonia. In a solution of wa-
tects the aquatic life underneath. What ter, ammonia acts as
property of water is KEY in this situation? A. a base
A. Cohesion B. an acid
B. Adhesion C. a powerful acid
C. Ice is less dense than liquid water D. a dissolver of metals
D. The top of a pond is always the coldest 419. Which statement describes movement of
part water molecules when frozen into ice?
414. Surface tension is caused by A. moving around slowly
A. strong cohesion between water B. vibrating but not moving
molecules C. moving far apart
B. strong adhesion between the water D. bumping into each other
molecules
420. Which of the following is an example of
C. condensation
heat capacity/specific heat?
D. water cycle
A. ice floats in water
415. The pH scale is inversely logarithmic, so a B. sweating lowers body temperature.
pH 2 solution has more H+ in solution
C. sugar disappears when added to wa-
than a pH 3 solution.
ter.
A. 10 x
D. it takes several weeks of warm tem-
B. 2 x peratures to raise lake water several de-
C. 100 x grees.
D. 1, 000 x 421. This is the monomer of a nucleic acid.
416. Why is water so good at dissolving so A. nucleotide
many substances? B. amino acid
A. it is polar C. triglyceride
B. it is less dense as a solid D. monosaccharide

422. What is meant by the fact that water is B. water spills easily.
a polar molecule? C. water tends to be see-through.
A. water has a slightly negative charge D. none of above
overall
B. water has no evident charge, unless in 428. What property of water results in the ac-
solid form cumulation of small amounts of water into
larger amounts of water? The results in
C. water has a very evident charge, but
the rivers, lakes, streams, and even the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
only in a gaseous form
oceans.
D. water has a slightly positive charge but
A. Cohesive Behavior
only as a liquid.
423. What is the boiling point of water
C. Ability to Moderate Temperature
A. 0 C
D. Universal Solvent
B. 100 F
429. The normal pH scale goes from
C. 50 C
D. 100 C A. 0-12
B. 0-14
424. Which property of water means that it
can dissolve almost any substance? C. 0-7
A. Unique density of ice D. 0-10
B. Neutral pH 430. Fresh water makes up only about 3% of

C. High Specific Heat all of the water on Earth. Glaciers are one
source of fresh water.How much of Earth’s
D. Universal Solvent fresh water is found as ice in glaciers and
425. Means “water loving”? icecaps?
A. Hydrophilic A. Less than 1%
B. Aquaphilic B. More than 97%
C. Aquaphobic C. About 69%
D. Hydrophobic D. About 31%
426. The raw materials or reactants of photo- 431. Which of the following properties of wa-
synthesis are ter enables it to move from the roots to
the leaves of plants?
A. sugar and water.
A. Water expands as it freezes.
B. sugar and oxygen.
B. Water is an excellent solvent.
C. carbon dioxide and water.
C. Water exhibits cohesive behavior.
D. carbon dioxide and oxygen.
D. Water moderates temperature.
427. Surface tension is the property of water
in which 432. Due to its polarity, water doesn’t mix
A. water molecules at the surface tend to with substances like
stick together. A. polar; oil

B. polar; salts 438. Droplets of water sticking to the side of

C. Non-polar; oil a glass.

D. Non-polar; salts A. cohesion
433. What is a mixture of chemicals that react B. solvent

with a base/acid to keep pH in a particular C. adhesion
range?
D. specific heat
A. catalyst
B. enzyme 439. According to the article, what is the full
chemical name of water?
C. water
A. H-2-0
D. buffer
B. hydrogen dioxide
434. Because a water molecule has a negative
end and a positive end, it displays C. hydrogen oxide
A. specific heat D. water
B. polarity 440. Large bodies of water, such as lakes and
C. cohesion oceans, do not quickly fluctuate in temper-
D. adhesion ature. What is the reason for this phe-
nomenon?
435. Which statement explains why water
A. Water is an acid.
molecules stick together?
A. both sides are negative B. Water is a versatile solvent.
B. one side has a positive charge and the C. Water has a high heat capacity.
other side has a negative charge D. Water acts as a buffer.
C. one side has a negative charge adn the
other side has a neutral charge 441. A physical change in matter from a solid
to a liquid when heat is added.
D. both sides are positive
A. Melting Point
436. How many bonds can a hydrogen atom
make? B. Boiling Point
A. 1 C. Freezing Point
B. 2 D. none of above
C. 3
442. Why is water considered a polar
D. 4 molecule?
437. When the temperature on Earth drops A. The oxygen end is slightly negative and
suddenly, the land cools down faster than the hydrogen end is slightly positive
the sea, due to B. The hydrogen end is slightly negative
A. high specific heat capacity and the oxygen end is slightly positive
B. density C. The hydrogen and oxygen are cova-
C. surface tension lently bonded
D. adhesion D. Because it is hydrophobic

443. Why is water a universal solvent? C. Slowly, without adding much energy
A. It’s chemical reactions allow it to solve D. Quickly, by adding no energy
B. It can dissolve in more substances 449. This is the monomer of a lipid.

than any other liquid A. nucleotide
C. It dissolves more substances than any B. amino acid
other liquid
C. triglyceride
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. It is the first identifiable liquid in the
universe D. monosaccharide
444. A solution has a pH of 7.0. What would 450. This is the monomer of a protein.
happen to the pH if H ions were added? A. nucleotide
A. pH would go up B. amino acid
B. pH would go down C. triglyceride
C. pH would stay the same
D. monosaccharide
D. None of these
451. Tendency of molecules of the same kind
445. when a solute does not completely dis- to stick to one another
solve in the solvent
A. cohesion
A. oxygen
B. adhesion
B. cohesion
C. solution
C. adhesion
D. polar molecule
D. suspension
446. The reason water has unique properties 452. Why does water ice have a lower density
than liquid water?
A. polar
A. Because it floats
B. non polar
B. Because it is a crystal
C. adhesion
C. Because the molecules expand in vol-
D. cohesion
ume as water freezes into a crystal
447. The combination of protons and neutrons D. Because ice is colder than water
is equal to the
A. atomic number 453. This is one part of the Earth’s system
which consists of all the Earth’s land and
B. atomic mass
its features (mountains, plains, plateaus,
C. electrons etc.)
D. overall charge A. geosphere
448. Waters temperature changes B. biosphere
A. Quickly, without adding much energy C. hydrosphere
B. Slowly, by adding a lot of energy D. atmosphere

454. Water’s temperature stays relatively 460. The is a property of a system in

which two points have opposite character-
istics, such as charges (positive/negative)

A. stable
or magnetic poles.
B. unstable
A. polarity
C. different
B. opposites
D. changing
C. cohesion
455. Which of the following substances would
D. adhesion
have the greatest concentration of H+
ions? 461. Which of the following is the strongest
A. Ammonia with pH 13 acid?
B. Water with pH 7 A. 1
C. Milk with pH 5 B. 5
D. Lemon juice with pH 2 C. 3
456. There are in water. D. 8

A. 2 oxygen and 1 hydrogen atoms 462. Fill in the blanks:Oil is than water as
B. 3 hydrogen atoms well as , with evidence being that oil
sits on top of water as well as seperates
C. 3 oxygen atoms
and cannot be dissolved in water.
D. 2 hydrogen and 1 oxygen atoms
A. cooler; polar
457. If you are making Kool-Aid, what is the B. more dense, polar
SOLUTE?
C. less dense, non-polar
A. water
D. cohesive; polar
B. Kool-aid powder
C. spoon 463. What is adhesion?
D. container A. Water’s ability to stick to itself

458. Water that has a definite shape and def- stances
inite volume is called a
C. The strength of the cohesion of all the
A. Solid water molecules combined
B. Liquid
D. Tape, glue and other adhesives
C. Gas
464. Which properties of water are a result
D. none of above
of only cohesion? 1 The water has a high
459. A occurs when matter changes from surface tension. 2 Water moves up xylem
one state to another. vessels. 3 Water is an excellent solvent.
A. solid A. 1, 2 and 3
B. mass B. 1 and 2 only
C. state of change C. 1 only
D. matter D. 3 only

465. Which of the following is a category of C. surface tention

ways humans use water?
D. capillary action
A. Agriculture
B. Industry 471. A doesn’t have a definite volume or
shape.
C. Transportation
A. solid
D. All of these
B. liquid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
466. The evaporation of water from off the
C. matter
surface of the skin helps to cool the or-
ganism. Which property of water allows D. gas
such?
472. The process by water travels up the roots
and stems to the rest of the plant
B. High latent heat of vaporisation
A. insulation
C. High latent heat of fusion
B. solvent
D. Unusual Density
C. hydrogen bond
467. Covalent bonds are when atoms elec- D. capillary action
trons.
A. swap 473. The unique properties of water enable
life to exist on Earth. Which of these is
B. share
a property of pure water?
C. combine
A. It dissolves many substances.
D. none of above
B. It has a low heat absorption capacity
468. A molecule in which opposite ends have C. Its solid form is more dense than its
opposite electric charges liquid.
A. cohesion
D. water is a terrible solvent
B. polar molecule
C. hydrogen bond 474. This particle has a positive charge
D. nonpolar molecule A. electron

B. proton
469. Most of water’s properties occur because
it is C. neutron
A. A polar covalent D. atom
B. Made with oxygen
475. What describes a substances’s ability to
C. A polar ionic dissolve?
D. Makes up 75% of the Earth A. solubility
470. Water’s ability to stick to glass is B. homogeneous
A. adhesion C. solvent
B. cohesion D. suspension

476. The is the part of the solution that 482. Water dissolves salt because
dissolves the other substance. A. it has cohesion

A. Large molecule B. it is hidrogenoxide
B. small molecule C. it is a supersolvent
C. Solvent D. it has surface tension
D. Solute 483. What property of water allows for wa-
477. What is water’s molecular formula ter to act as a temperature regulator for
the world?
A. H2O
A. Cohesive Behavior
B. H2O2
C. O2H
C. High Specific Heat
D. CO2 D. Universal Solvent
478. Water moving through a paper towel is 484. Water has a high surface tension. What
an example of- property of water allows an insect to walk
A. cohesion on water?
B. adhesion A. Adhesion
C. capillary action B. Cohesion
D. surface tension C. Polar covalent bonds
D. Non-polar covalent bonds
479. What substances are produced by cells to
prevent sharp, sudden changes in pH in- 485. Water exists in different states on
side the cells? earth
A. acids A. Three
B. bases B. Two
C. buffers C. One
D. suspensions D. Four
480. Paper clips are able to float on water be- 486. Water appears to bulge out in a spherical
cause of droplet when is a large factor.
A. Adhesion
A. adhesion
B. Capillary action
B. capillary action
C. Cohesion
C. surface tension
D. Density
487. In which type of bond are electrons
481. What donates a proton? shared unequally?
A. acid A. Non-polar covalent bond
B. base B. Polar covalent bond
C. neutron C. Ionic bond
D. ruler D. Hydrogen bond

1.5 pH 68
488. Earth’s temperatures change depending A. A Country.

on location. Because of this, we know that
on Earth B. Four principle conditions in which mat-
ter exists; solid, liquid, gas, and plasma.
A. water is found in all 3 phases
B. water is only ever a liquid
C. A place where things really mean
C. water cannot be a solid something.
D. water is polar
D. The condition something is in.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
489. Water is this type of molecule due to the
uneven sharing of electrons 491. Which of the following is the correct
A. polar shape of the water molecule?
B. acidic A. Hexagonal
C. basic
B. Heptagonal
D. negative
C. Tetrahedral
490. Ms. Jaye asked the class to list the
States of matter. D. Cylindrical
1.5 pH
1. What is a solute? C. N
A. The substance that does the dissolving D. O
in a solution.
4. Symbol of lead is
B. The substance that is dissolved into
the solution. A. Ld
B. Ag
C. The mixing of different substances.
C. Pb
D. The process in which neutral
molecules lose or gain electrons D. Li
2. The pH of a solution is tested, and it is 5. Human blood has a pH between 7.35 and
found to be a basic solution. Of the follow- 7.45. Which of the following best de-
ing choices, what could the pH have been? scribes human blood?
A. 3 A. strongly acidic
B. 9 B. slightly acidic
C. 7 C. strongly basic
D. slightly basic
D. 5
6. Which of these statements describes how
3. Most of the mass in your body is composed
monomers combine and create macro-
of which element?
molecules?
A. H A. amino acids combine to make proteins
B. C

1.5 pH 69
B. glucose molecules combine to make 12. If you added NaOH, a strong base, to wa-
nucleic acids ter the water solution would have its pH

C. nucleic acids combine to make starch
D. proteins combine to make glucose A. Increase
B. Decrease
7. Which is least likely a primary function of
proteins? C. Stay the Same
A. to act as an organic catalyst D. none of above
B. to supply short term energy 13. What does the pH scale range from?
C. to build and repair damaged cells A. 0-10
D. to defend against foreign invaders B. 2-15
C. 1-5
8. Why is water the “universal solvent?”
D. 0-14
A. More things will dissolve in water than
any other substance. 14. What is the expected charge on a Bromine,
B. When other things get wet they will not Br, ion?(Use a periodic table)
dissolve. A. +1
C. It is recognized worldwide. B. +2
D. The adhesion properties allows water C. -1
to stick to other molecules D. -2
9. Which bonds are the strongest? 15. Red litmus paper turns blue when dipped
A. Covalent Bond in a solution. What type of solution do you
B. Ionic Bond have?
C. Hydrogen Bond A. acid
D. none of above B. base
C. neutral
10. If two or more atoms bond together
by sharing unpaired electrons, and they D. not enough information
equally share these electrons the bond be- 16. What is the expected charge on a Calcium,
tween the atoms would be considered a Ca, ion?(Use a periodic table)
bond
A. +1
A. Polar Covalent
B. +2
B. Nonpolar Covalent
C. -1
C. Ionic D. -2
D. H Bond
17. A weak acid or base that can prevent
11. What bond holds Oxygen to Hydrogen sharp sudden change in ph is called a
A. Covalent Bond A. Buffer
B. Hydrogen Bond B. Stopper
C. Ionic Bond C. Basic

1.5 pH 70
18. What is the symbol for magnesium? 24. can resist the change of pH when you
A. Mg add acids or bases.
B. Ma A. strong acids
C. M B. water
D. Mn C. strong bases
D. buffers
19. Household bleach has a pH of 12. Deter-
mine if it’s an acid, base, or neutral.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
25. In salt water, salt is the
A. acid A. solvent
B. base B. solute
C. neutral C. solution
D. not enough information D. none of above
20. If we are making Kool-aid with sugar, 26. Water has a pH of , meaning that it is
Kool-aid powder, and water, which part neutral.
is the solvent?
A. 0
A. water
B. 14
B. powder
C. 1
C. sugar
D. 7
D. powder and sugar
27. “Alkaline” is another word for a sub-
21. What is not a use for water in the body?
stance that changes pH paper to blue. This
A. waste removal means “alkaline”=
B. building proteins A. base
C. transportation of molecules B. acid
D. insulation C. buffer
22. Which organic compounds necessary for D. none of these
life are formed by a sugar bonded to a
phosphate group and a nitrogenous base? 28. Healthy environments for life have a pH
closest to:
A. lipids
A. 1
B. proteins
B. 3
C. nucleic acids
C. 7
D. carbohydrates
D. 10
23. Buffers help keep pH constant by adding
or absorbing 29. What is [ ] shorthand for?
A. H+ A. Polarity
B. Na+ B. Temperature
C. Cl- C. Increasing
D. electrons D. Concentration

1.5 pH 71
30. What is the symbol for sodium? 36. Why is Carbon used for all of life’s major
A. s biomolecules, such as Carbohydrates, Pro-
teins, Nucleic Acids, and Lipids?

B. So
A. Carbon can form 4 bonds
C. N
B. Carbon is relatively stable
D. Na
C. Carbon is relatively common on Earth
31. What is a hydrogen bond? D. All of the Above
A. attraction between molecules of the
same substance 37. A pH of 14 is a
B. substance that is dissolved in a solu- A. strong acid

tion B. weak acid
C. weak attraction between a hydrogen C. Strong base
atom and another atom D. Weak base
D. way plants transport water through
their tissues 38. Why would a potato have a buffering sys-
tem?
32. At water temperature is water the most A. To survive if its environment changes
dense?
B. To vary the pH according to the envi-
A. 100 degrees C ronment
B. 4 degrees C C. To keep the pH of the potato low
C. 0 degrees C D. To keep the pH very acidic
D. -4 degrees C
39. Water’s tendency to stick to itself is called
33. In saltwater, water is the
A. solvent A. cohesion
B. solute B. adhesion
C. solution C. surface tension
D. none of above D. capillary action
34. What is the symbol for carbon? 40. What is the symbol for phosphorus?
A. Ca A. Po
B. Cr B. Ph
C. Co C. Ps
D. C D. P
35. Which of the following is an acid? 41. Which is considered neutral?

A. shampoo A. pH of 4
B. baking soda B. pH of 9
C. orange juice C. pH of 14
D. water D. pH of 7

1.5 pH 72
42. The heat required to raise the temperature A. Dipole-Dipole, H Bond, Ion-Dipole, Co-
of the unit mass of a given substance by 1 valent
degree Celsius is known as B. Dipole-Dipole, Ion-Dipole, H Bond, Co-
A. Specific Heat valent
B. H Bond C. Covalent, H Bond, Ion-Dipole, Dipole-
Dipole
C. Polar Covalent
D. Covalent, Dipole-Dipole, Ion-Dipole, H
D. Intermolecular Forces
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Bond
43. The amount of energy required to raise 48. Substances that help organisms minimize
the temperature 1◦ C for every kilogram is changes in pH are
called ?
A. bases
A. Thermal Energy
B. acids
B. Specific Heat
C. buffers
C. Temperature D. none of above
D. Kinetic Energy
49. If the pH of a solution is 8, it is a
44. What term refers to the fact that water A. strong acid
has a partial negative and positive charge
B. weak base
on one molecule?
C. strong base
A. Hydrogen bonds
D. weak acid
B. Polarity
C. Magnetism 50. Which of the following is not paired cor-
rectly?
D. Covalent bonds
A. lemons-acid
45. If the pH of milk changes very little when B. oven cleaner-base
acid or base is added, the milk probably
C. soap-acid
contains
D. coffee-base
A. more acid
B. more base 51. The pH scale 8-14 are
C. buffers A. acids
B. bases
D. none of above
C. neutral
46. A solution with a pH of 8.6 is D. none of above
A. Acidic
52. Which of these pH values would indicate
B. Basic that a solution is a weak base?
C. Neutral A. 4
D. none of these B. 5.6
47. Which of the following is the correct order C. 8
from Weakest to Strongest? D. 13

1.5 pH 73
53. Which characteristic of life is best repre- 59. Why were the biological samples generally
sented by buffers? good buffers?

A. Growth and Development A. Water is a poor buffer
B. Using energy
B. They need to maintain a pH of 8.0 at all
C. Adaptation times
D. Homeostasis C. All living organisms need to maintain
54. What type of ion is found in an acid? homeostasis in terms of pH
A. H+ D. The samples came in liquid form
B. OH-
60. What is the symbol for nitrogen?
C. H2O
A. N
D. Hydroxide
B. Ni
55. A solution has a pH of 13.1. Which de-
scription is most appropriate? C. Ne
A. Weak Acid D. No
B. Strong Acid
61. A substance that has a greater concentra-
C. Strong Base
tion of hydrogen ions (H+) than hydroxide
D. Weak Base ions (OH-)H+ > OH-
56. Water sticking to other substances is an A. Acid
example of
B. Base
A. adhesion
C. Neutral
B. cohesion
C. surface tension D. none of above
D. none of above
62. What holds H to O within a single H2O
57. Water is neutral because molecule?
A. The number of H+ ion is equal to OH- A. Ionic Bonds
ions
B. Polar Covalent Bonds
B. The number of H+ ion is greater to OH-
ions C. Nonpolar Covalent Bonds
C. The number of H+ ion is less to OH- D. H Bonds
ions
D. none of above 63. How many bonds does a H atom typically
form?
58. a base has a pH of
A. 1
A. lower than 7
B. 2
B. higher than 7
C. 7 C. 3
D. it only has a pOH D. 4

1.5 pH 74
64. If a pH is too basic, what can be added to C. Co

make the pH more acidic? D. C
A. Sulfuric Acid
70. The pH scale measures
B. Sodium Hydroxide
A. the strength of an acid.
C. Water B. the strength of hydrogen ions.
D. Calcium Carbonate C. the concentration of hydrogen ions.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
65. The elements found in nucleic acids but not
carbohydrates and lipids are D. the concentration of an acid
A. nitrogen and sulfur 71. What is the ph of water
B. nitrogen and phosphorus A. 7
C. carbon and hydrogen B. 1
D. iron C. 14
D. none of above
66. What is the charge of proton?
72. What is the only substance with a neutral
A. Positive
pH of exactly 7?
B. Negative
A. Milk
C. Neutral
B. Orange Juice
D. none of above C. pure water
67. What is a solvent? D. ammonia
A. The substance that does the dissolving 73. What charge does an Oxygen atom have
in a solution. in a water molecule?
B. The substance that is being dissolved A. Positive
in a solution. B. Negative
C. The mixing of different substances. C. Neutral
D. The process in which neutral D. none of above
molecules lose or gain electrons
74. What is the main property of water?
68. Surface tension of water is higher than A. Ice
most other liquids due to created by
the H bonds between water molecules B. Adhesion
C. Cohesion
A. Capillary Action
D. Polarity
B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion 75. If a substance is acidic, what could be
added to raise the pH?
D. Specific Heat
A. Sulfur
69. What is the symbol for calcium? B. Nitrogen
A. Ca C. Vinegar
B. Cr D. Baking Soda

1.5 pH 75
76. Tomato juice has a pH of 4. Determine if 82. What type of bond holds 2 molecules of
it’s an acid, base, or neutral. water together?

A. acid A. hydrogen bond
B. base B. ionic bond
C. neutral C. covalent bond
D. not enough information D. none of above
77. what number is considered neutral on the 83. Which is the stronger acid?
pH scale?
A. pH 1
A. 4
B. pH 4
B. 12
C. pH 8
C. 7
D. 10 D. pH 5
78. What is the charge on the Oxygen side of 84. Water has a neutral pH, meaning pure wa-
water? ter is not an acid or a base because it has
a pH of
A. -2
A. 0
B. +2
B. 1
C. Slightly negative
C. 7
D. Slightly Positive
D. 14
79. What is the charge on the Hydrogen side
of water? 85. What is the charge of an electron?
A. -2 A. Positive
B. +2 B. Negative
C. Slightly negative C. Neutral
D. Slightly Positive D. none of above
80. What is the symbol for hydrogen? 86. A bond formed between the metals Cu and
A. Hy Ag be ?
B. H A. Covalent
C. He B. Hydrogen
D. Ho C. Ionic
81. Blood contains compounds called that D. Metallic
allow small amounts of acids or bases to
be absorbed without harmful effects. 87. What is the symbol for oxygen?
A. buffers A. Ox
B. enzymes B. O
C. precipitates C. Og
D. esters D. Oh no

1.5 pH 76
88. What is a solution that has an excess of 94. The density of water where water
hydroxide (OH-) ions? molecules spread out when frozen and
A. pH=6.5 float occurs because of the waters
A. hydrogen bonds
B. acid
B. ionic bonds
C. neutral
C. covalent bonds
D. base
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
89. What is the symbol for boron?
95. A weak acid would have the pH of ?
A. Be
A. 6
B. B
B. 8
C. Ba
C. 1
D. Br D. 14
90. A substance is tested with phenolphthalein 96. The human body is primarily composed of
and no change is observed. The substance water, since water has a high heat capac-
in most likely ity (High Specific Heat), this makes
A. a base easier in changing environments
B. an acid A. Maintaining Homeostasis
C. neutral B. Having a Metabolism
D. not enough information C. Natural Selection
D. Preventing Mutations
91. An extremely strong base would have a
pH of: 97. What is the symbol for potassium?
A. 1 A. P
B. 7 B. K
C. 9 C. Po
D. 14 D. Ks
92. A solution with a pH of 2.3 is 98. the more H+ ions the

A. stronger the acid
A. Acidic
B. weaker the acid
B. Basic
C. it neutralizes
C. Neutral
D. none of above
D. none of these
99. Carbon allows carbon based molecules to
93. Water sticking to water is an example of form
A. adhesion A. Chains
B. cohesion B. Branches
C. surface tension C. Rings
D. none of above D. All of the Above

1.5 pH 77
100. When sugar is dissolved in koolaid, 105. A bitter taste and a slippery feel are clues
koolaid is the that a solution is probably a(n)
A. base

A. reactant
B. solute B. salt
C. solvent C. hydrate
D. acid
D. solution
106. An acid has a pH
101. In order to join two or more monomers in
A. higher than 7
the creation of a polymer, a condensation
reaction must occur. This involves B. lower than 7
A. the removal of a water molecule C. 7
D. greater than 14
B. the separation of two water molecules
107. The physical combination of two ore more
C. the addition of a water molecule substances is called a
A. Mixture
D. the creation of a glucose bond
B. solution
102. If you mix salt into water the salt will C. suspension
disassociate and dissolve forming saltwa-
D. none of above
ter. In this example the water would be
consider the 108. If you add HCl, a strong acid, to water
A. Solution the pH of the solution would
A. Increase
B. Solvent
B. Decrease
C. Solute
C. Stay the same
D. All of the Above
D. none of above
103. If an acid is combined with a base of equal 109. Hydrolysis involves
strength, the result will most likely be
A. Removal of a water molecule to join
A. a neutral solution. two monomers
B. a stronger acid. B. Addition of a water molecule to join
C. impossible to tell without testing the two monomers
pH. C. Addition of a water molecule to break
apart a polymer
D. a stronger base
D. Removal of a water molecule to break
104. The substance being dissolved in a solu- apart a polymer
tion.
110. Water is made of
A. sands A. 2 hydrogens and 1 oxygen
B. solute B. 1 hydrogen and 2 oxygens
C. solvent C. 1 oxygen and 1 hydrogen
D. alloy D. none of above

1.6 Isomers 78
111. Which of the following is NOT TRUE D. they speed up the rate of chemical re-
about enzymes? actions
A. they are proteins 112. Acids typically taste
B. they can change shape when tempera- A. sour

ture or pH changes B. sweet
C. they are used up in chemical reactions C. both
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
1.6 Isomers
1. The molecular formula for heptene is C. Carbonates
A. C4H10 D. Ethane
B. C7H14 6. What do alkanes and alkenes have in com-
C. C5H12 mon?
D. C7H16 A. have the same general formula
2. What is the general formula of an alkene B. have similar physical properties
A. 2n+2 C. can decolourise brown bromine water
B. CnH2n+2
D. undergo substitution reaction
C. CnH2n
D. CnHn 7. Conformations of nbutane are
A. Antiperiplanar
3. Energy released for conversion of chair
form to halfchairform B. Anticlinal
A. 11kcal/mole C. Synclinal
B. 12kcal/mole D. All
C. Both 8. In a stereoisomer, means “on the

D. None same side” and means “across
from.”
4. How many position isomers exist for hex- A. cis; trans
ene?
B. cis; L
A. three
C. D; L
B. two
D. trans; cis
C. five
D. four 9. How many structural isomers, which
are esters, have the molecular formula
5. Which is an organic compound? C4H8O2?
A. Carbon Dioxide A. 2
B. Carbon Monoxide B. 3

1.6 Isomers 79
C. 4 D. aromatic compounds
D. 5 15. How many carbon atoms are in propane?

10. A double bond between two carbon atoms A. 1
consists of B. 2
A. 2 sigma bonds C. 3
B. 1 sigma bond and 1 pi bond D. 4
C. 2 pi bonds
16. Optcial isomers have:
D. The bonding scheme varies depending
on the molecule A. polarised light
B. non-superimposable mirror images
11. Factors affecting stability of conforma-
tions are C. mirror images
A. Tosional strain D. superimposable mirror images
B. Angle strain 17. The energy required to rotate the ethane

C. Vanderwaals strain molecule about c c bond is called
D. All A. Torsional energy
B. Angle strain
12. By using method of cyclization cis form of
maleic acid form C. Hydrogen bonding
A. Maleic anhydride D. All
B. Fumaric acid 18. A compound capable of forming optical iso-
C. Tartaric acid mers:
D. Lactic acid A. has a carbon with 4 different groups
B. is at least 4 carbons long
13. OPtical isomers
C. has a mirror image
A. reflect polarised light in opposite direc-
tions D. reflects plane polarised light
B. rotate polarised light in opposite direc- 19. Energy used for the conversion of stag-
tions gered form to eclipsed form of ethane is
C. reflect plane polarised light in oppo- A. 3 kcal/mole
site directions B. 4kcal/mole
D. rotate plane polarised light in opposite C. 5kcal
directions
D. 6kcal
14. Alkenes are:
20. What is the shortest chain-length alkane
A. saturated, because they do not have to have structural isomer?
the maximum number of hydrogen atoms
A. Ethane
B. unsaturated, because they do not have
the maximum number of hydrogen atoms B. Butane
C. unsaturated, because they have the C. Hexane
maximum number of hydrogen atoms D. Pentane

1.6 Isomers 80
21. Which of the following is an unsaturated A. 2

compound? B. 3
A. dichloroethane C. 4
B. Pentanol
D. 5
C. 2-methylbutene
27. Which of the following is true about struc-
D. propane-1, 2-diol
tural isomers?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
22. Which of the following homologous series A. Have the same molecular formula
does NOT have a functional group?
B. Have different physical and chemical
A. Alkanes properties.
B. Alkenes C. Have the same number of elements
C. Alcohols D. all of the above
D. Carboxylic acids
28. Hydrocarbons are compounds that contain
23. In boat confirmations of cyclohexane 3 and A. Carbon and Nitrogen
6 hydrogens exhibit
B. Carbon and Hydrogen
A. Fragpole intetactions
C. Carbon, and Oxygen
B. Angle strain
D. Carbon, Oxygen, and Hydrogen
C. Torsional strain
D. None 29. Which of the following could contain a
triple bond?
24. Which of the following compounds is an
A. C4H10
isomer of pentane?
B. C4H8
A. 2, 2-dimethyloctane
C. C4H6
B. 2-methylbutane
C. 1-methylpropane D. C4H12
D. 1-methylpentane 30. propyl is a
25. What operation would transform 2, 2 A. three carbon chain

dimethylbutane into hexane? B. three carbon side chain
A. Adding one carbon and three hydrogen C. triple bond
atoms.
D. none of above
B. Moving a methyl group to the other end
of the molecule. 31. Which is the characteristic of enan-
tiomers?I SuperimposeII Optically activeIII
C. Moving both methyl groups, one to
ChiralIV Do not have plane of symmetry
each end of the molecule
A. I and II
D. Rotating the molecule.
B. I, II and III
26. How many structural isomers, which are
aldehydes, have the molecular formula C. II, III and IV
C5H10O? D. all above

1.6 Isomers 81
32. If an alkane has different groups bound C. hex

to the double-bonded carbon atoms that
D. non
are on the same side of the molecule, it is

called a 38. In absolute method functional group in cis
A. Trans stereoisomer isomer located cis to each other can be con-
B. Structural isomer verted to
C. cis stereoisomer A. Cyclic lactones

D. alter-bound B. Anhydrides
33. How many isomers have the molecular for- C. Amides

mula C5H12? D. All
A. 2
39. The number of structural isomers of molec-
B. 3 ular formula C4H9Br is
C. 4 A. 5
D. 5
B. 4
34. How many structural isomers are there C. 3
with the molecular formula C3H6BrCl?
D. 2
A. 4
B. 5 40. name the group that has a single bond
C. 6 A. alkenes
D. 7 B. alcohols
35. Molecules with the same molecular for- C. alkanes
mula but different structural formula are D. ethers
called, , ,
A. isomers 41. To draw a trans geometric isomers, the car-
B. functional group bons should?
C. isotopes A. be all in a straight line

D. homologous series B. be bent the same direction
C. be bent in opposite directions
36. Restriction of rotation about the c=c is re-
sponsible for D. be single bonded.
A. Geometrical isomerism
42. What is a structural isomer?
B. Stereoisomerism
A. Same molecular formula but different
C. Metamerism structural formula.
D. All
B. Different elements
37. This prefix means 7 C. Different bonds in the structure.
A. but D. Change in the position of the functional
B. hept group.

1.6 Isomers 82
43. How many isomers exist for C5H12? 49. How many structural isomers does pen-
A. 2 tane have?
B. 3 A. 3
C. 4 B. 4
D. 5 C. 5
D. 1
44. Which of the following compounds is an ex-
ample of hydrocarbon? 50. Which of the following elements must be
NARAYAN CHANGDER
present in any organic compound?
A. CO2
A. Carbon
B. C2H6
B. Oxygen
C. C2H5OH
C. Potassium
D. CH3COOH
D. Hydrogen
45. Which of the following is the functional
group of alcohols? 51. Chiral carbons will produce
A. carbon-carbon double bond A. structural isomers
B. hydroxyl B. optical isomers

C. polymers
C. carboxyl
D. monomers
D. carboxylate ester
52. How many carbon atoms are in butane?
46. Which pair of compounds are isomers?
A. 1
A. NO2 and N2O4
B. 2
B. P2O5 and P4
C. 3
C. HCOOH and CH3COOH
D. 4
D. CH3OCH3 and C2H5OH
53. There are two main forms of isomerism,
47. How many structural isomers exist for which are?
hexane
A. Structural isomerism and Stereoiso-
A. three merism
B. two B. Stereoisomerism and Physical iso-
C. five merism
D. four C. Chemical isomerism and Stereoiso-
merism
48. What are the conditions required for sub-
D. Structural isomers and Geometric Iso-
stitution reaction of alkanes?
mers
A. High temperature and excess halogen
54. Which one of the following is saturated?
B. Sunlight/ UV light and excess halogen A. water
B. C4H8
C. High pressure and excess halogen C. C4H10
D. Sunlight/ UV light and excess oxygen D. C5H8

1.7 Organic Compounds 83
55. Different xray analysis methods used for 57. Which one of the following is a pair of func-
determination of geometrical isomerism is tional group isomers?

A. Nmr A. CH3COOCH2CH3 and CH3CH2COOCH3
B. Uv
C. Mass B. (CH3)2CHCH(CH3)2 and (CH3)3CCH2CH3
D. All
C. CH3CH2OCH3 and (CH3)2CHOH
56. How many structural isomers with an un- D. ClCH2CH2CH=CH2 and CH3CH=CHCH2Cl
branched carbon chain have the molecular
formula C4H8Br2? 58. A structural isomer of pentane is?
A. 4 A. 2, 2-dimethyl butane
B. 5 B. 2-methyl butane
C. 6 C. 1-methyl propane
D. 7 D. 1-methyl pentane
1.7 Organic Compounds

1. Amino acids are the monomer of 5. Sugars and starches are examples of
A. Carbohydrates A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
B. Lipids
C. Nucleic Acids
D. Proteins C. Proteins
2. Nucleotides are the monomer of D. Nucleic Acids
A. Carbohydrates
6. Also known as simple sugars, these are
B. Lipids the monomers of carbohydrates.
C. Nucleic Acids
A. lipids
D. Proteins
B. nucleotide
3. How many bonds can carbon form?
C. monosaccharide
A. 2
B. 3 D. monomer
C. 4
7. What property of water makes it the ‘uni-
D. 5 versal solvent’?
4. The test for Sugars is A. it is a polar molecule
A. Biurets
B. it is an ionic compound
B. Iodine
C. Benedicts C. it contains hydrogen bonds
D. Brown paper bag D. it steals electrons from other atoms

8. Muscle is an example of 14. Which organic compounds end in “-ase”

A. Protein such as lactase and maltase?
B. Carbohydrates A. Carbohydrates
C. Nucleic Acid B. Lipids
D. Lipid C. Nucleic Acids

D. Proteins
9. Which of the following formulas is inor-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ganic? 15. These organic molecules are used by the
A. CHO body to store and transmit the genetic
code.
B. CH
A. Carbohydrates
C. SiO
B. Lipids
D. CHCOOH
C. Proteins
10. Amino acids are the monomers of D. Nucleic Acids
A. Carbohydrates
16. What are the building blocks of proteins?
B. Lipids
A. Amino Acids
C. Proteins
B. Nucleotides
D. Nucleic Acids
C. Nitrogen Bases
11. Waxes, oils and fats are examples of D. Fatty Acids
A. Carbohydrates
17. What is the monomer for proteins?
B. Lipids
A. Monosaccharides
C. Proteins
B. Fatty Acids
D. Nucleic Acids
C. Nucleotides
12. Which element is needed in all organic com- D. Amino Acids
pounds?
A. oxygen 18. Carbohydrates are made of
B. carbon A. C H O
C. nitrogen B. C H O N
D. sodium C. C H O N P
D. C H O N S
13. What is the function of Carbohydrates?
A. They strengthen the muscles 19. Phospholipids are an important part of the
B. They help determine what goes in and A. Mitochondria

out B. Cell membrane
C. They build up tissues C. cell wall
D. They give energy to the body D. Chloroplast

20. Building blocks of polymers. 26. Used to monitor glucose levels in the
A. monomer blood.

B. polypeptide A. Insulin
C. monosaccharide B. Hemoglobin
D. glycerol C. Enzymes
D. Cellulose
21. Which is a function of lipids?
A. to supply cells with quick-release en- 27. General formula of Alkene is
ergy A. CnH2n+2
B. to provide the body with insulation B. CnH2n
C. to store genetic information C. CnH2n+1OH
D. to regulate cell processes D. CnH2n+1COOH
22. Nucleic acids contain: 28. Proteins are made of

A. phosphorous A. C H O
B. nitrogen B. C H O N
C. sulfur C. C H O N P
D. none of above D. C H O N S
23. The energy needed to start a reaction 29. Glucose, cellulose (fiber), fructose and
A. activation energy starch are examples of this organic
molecule:
B. adhesion energy
A. Carbohydrates
C. chemical energy
B. Lipids
D. cohesion energy
C. Proteins
24. Waterproofs, insulates, builds cell mem- D. Nucleic Acids
branes and stores energy long-term
A. Carbohydrates 30. What are the monomers of an enzyme?
B. Lipids A. Monosaccharides
C. Proteins B. Fatty Acids
D. Nucleic Acids C. Nucleotides

D. Amino Acids
25. Which is not a use or function of protein?
A. forms enzymes and hormones 31. What is the job of lipids
B. muscles and movement A. store and transmit genetic info
C. forms structural proteins (hair, skin B. main source of energy

and nails) in the body C. control rates of reactions
D. quick energy D. store energy and insulate

32. Is the name of single bonded, saturated 38. Is the name of doubled bonded, unsatu-
hydrocarbons. rated hydrocarbons.
A. Alkanes A. Alkanes
B. Alkenes B. Alkenes
C. Alkynes C. Allkynes
D. Tanins D. Tanins
NARAYAN CHANGDER
33. The branch of chemistry that studies 39. Fatty acids are the monomer of
carbon-containing substances A. Carbohydrates
A. Analytical Chemistry B. Lipids
B. Organic Chemistry C. Nucleic Acids
C. Inorganic Chemistry D. Proteins
D. Biochemistry
40. Sugar is an example of a
34. Nucleotides are the monomers of A. Nucleic Acid
A. Carbohydrates B. Protein
B. Lipids C. Carbohydrate
C. Proteins D. Lipid
D. Nucleic Acids
41. A is a substance that is made of 2
35. Nucleotides are monomers of or more elements that are chemically com-
A. Carbohydrates bined.
B. Lipids A. atom
C. Proteins B. cell
D. Nucleic Acids C. element

D. compound
36. What type of bond is formed by the shar-
ing of a pair of electrons by two atoms? 42. Which is NOT an example of Carbs?
A. ionic A. Potato
B. metallic B. Corn
C. covalent C. Pasta
D. electronic D. Lettuce
37. This organic compound is used for food or 43. Which organic compounds end in “-ose”
short term energy. such as glucose and sucrose?
A. Protein A. Carbohydrates
B. Carbohydrates B. Lipids
C. Lipids C. Nucleic Acids
D. Nucleic Acid D. Proteins

44. Sugars usually end in C. Changing the pH

A. -ose D. none of above

B. -ace 50. What is the general formula for saturated
C. -ats hydrocarbons?
D. -ids A. CnH2n
45. Monosaccharides are the monomers of B. CnHn+1
A. Carbohydrates C. CnH2n+1
B. Lipids D. CnH2n+2
C. Proteins 51. The organic molecules that are used as

D. Nucleic Acids long-term energy storage are called
A. Carbohydrates
46. What happens when enzymes are heated
to a high temperature? B. Lipids
A. The enzymes die. C. Proteins
B. The shapes of the enzyme are altered D. Nucleic Acids

or denatured 52. Fats, oils, waxes, and blubber are exam-
C. The enzymes’ amino acid sequence ples of
changes. A. Carbohydrates
D. The enzymes remain the same B. Lipids
47. A feature of organic compounds NOT found C. Nucleic Acids
in inorganic compounds is the presence of D. Proteins
A. ionizing chemical groups
53. Which one is NOT a biomolecule?
B. electrons
A. nucleic acid
C. carbon items covalently bonded to
each other B. fire
D. hydrogen bonds C. protein

D. carbohydrate
48. Fatty acids such as butter and oils, waxes
and phospholipids are examples of this or- 54. Used for genetic information and instruc-
ganic molecule: tions for proteins
A. Carbohydrates A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids B. Lipids
C. Proteins C. Nucleic Acids
D. Nucleic Acids D. Proteins
49. Which of the following will NOT denature 55. Used for gene expression and growth and
an enzyme? repair
A. Increase Tempearture A. Carbohydrates
B. Smashing the enzyme B. Lipids

C. Nucleic Acids C. Cellulose

D. Proteins D. Chitin
56. What is correct function for a carb? 62. What is the monomer of carbohydrate?
A. build and repair body tissues A. chitin
B. body’s main source of energy B. starch
C. helps keep immune system functioning C. sucrose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. glucose
D. cushions organs 63. The element is found in all of the or-
57. Enzymes are considered to be ganic compounds.
A. Iron
A. Lipids
B. Nitrogen
B. Carbohydrate
C. Carbon
C. Protein
D. Oxygen
D. Nucleic Acid
64. What are used to monitor pH levels in the
58. Monomer is a glycerol and 3 fatty acids cell?
(triglyceride)
A. Regulators
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
B. Lipids
C. Buffers
C. Proteins
D. Proteins
D. Nucleic Acids
65. The simplest sugar
59. This organic compound is used for short A. glycogen
term energy.
B. sucrose
A. Protein
C. glucose
B. Carbohydrates
D. proteins
C. Lipids
66. Organic compounds are always based on
D. Nucleic Acid
what element?
60. What is a substance called if it speeds up A. hydrogen
a chemical reaction? B. water
A. reusable C. carbon
B. catalyst D. arsenic
C. specific
67. In Carbohydrates are simple, and
D. fragile complex.
61. This polysaccharide is important to the A. fats, oils
structure of plant cell walls B. nutrients, energy
A. Starch C. oils, fats
B. Glycogen D. sugars, starches

68. The substance that the enzyme binds to is C. cells store energy from fats and oils
called a(n)? for later use

A. Carbohydrate D. cells store energy from the nutrients
B. Substrate produced
C. Product 74. Nucleic acids and lipids have which of the
D. Protein following in common?
A. Both are made of fatty acids
69. Enzymes, Insulin, and Hemoglobin are ex-
amples of B. Both contain carbon
A. Carbohydrates C. Both are made of nucleic acids
B. Lipids D. Both are instructions for proteins
C. Nucleic Acids
75. Lipids are made of
D. Proteins
A. C H O
70. All of the following elements are common
B. C H O N
to organic compounds EXCEPT
C. C H O N P
A. iodine
B. hydrogen D. C H O N S
C. phosphorous 76. These are called the “quick energy” foods

D. oxygen A. carbohydrates/sugars
71. What is the job of nucleic acids B. protein
A. store and transmit genetic info C. fats/lipids
B. main source of energy D. nucleic acids
C. insulation
77. Which macromolecule stores energy, in-
D. fight disease sulates us, and makes up the cell mem-
brane?
72. The type of polysaccharide which serves
as a strengthening tissue in the cell wall A. lipids
of plants is B. proteins
A. cellulose
C. carbohydrates
B. glucose
D. nucleic acids
C. lactose
D. fructose 78. The element is found in all organic com-
pounds.
73. What is the function of Lipids? A. Iron
A. cells store energy from the sugars pro-
B. Nitrogen
duced
C. Carbon
B. cells store energy from the starches
produced D. Oxygen

79. All organisms contain four organic C. minimum

molecules. Which group of molecules con- D. experimental
tains fatty acids and glycerol, is insoluble
in water, and functions in long term en- 85. Which is not a chemical element needed to
ergy storage? build sugars?
A. carbohydrates A. Carbon
B. nucleic acids B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. proteins
D. lipids D. Hydrogen
80. What is the purpose of an enzyme? 86. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
A. give permission for the reaction A. sucrose
B. raise activation energy B. starch
C. speed up reactions C. chitin
D. control how many reactions occur D. amino acid
81. Which is a Carbohydrate’s monomer? 87. Is the name of triple bonded, unsaturated
hydrocarbons.
A. Sugar
A. Alkanes
B. Amino acids
B. Alkenes
C. Monosacharide
C. Alkynes
D. Nucleotide
D. Tanins
82. The primary purpose the body uses
monosaccharides for is? 88. A monosaccharide is a
A. Building muscles A. carbohydrate

B. lipid
B. Helping the Immune System
C. nucleic acid
C. Immediate Energy
D. protein
D. Generating Heat
89. When proteins are broken down, what do
83. What type of macromolecule are en-
you get?
zymes?
A. sugars
A. Protein
B. amino acids
B. Carbohydrate
C. starches
C. Lipid
D. nucleotides
D. Nucleic Acid
90. DNA and RNA are examples of
84. The pH at which an enzyme is most effi-
cient or works the best is called the A. Carbohydrates
pH of an enzyme. B. Lipids
A. neutral C. Nucleic Acids
B. optimum D. Proteins

91. Which of the following statements about B. carbohydrates

enzymes is NOT true? C. lipids

A. enzymes are reusable D. nucleic acids
B. enzymes work best at specific pH and
97. is the alkene with 3 carbons in its chain.
temperatures
A. Ethene
C. enzymes are lipids
B. Propene
D. enzymes are proteins
C. Methene
92. The 4 macromolecules are D. Decene
A. vitamins, lipids, water, micronutrients 98. Used to carry oxygen in red blood cells.
A. Insulin
B. micronutrients, macronutrients, wa-
ter, vitamins B. Hemoglobin
C. Enzymes
C. Lipids, Waxes, Vitamin A, Water
D. Cellulose
D. Carbohydrates, Lipids, Proteins, Nu-
cleic Acids 99. Starches such as pasta, bread, rice and
potato are examples of
93. What is the item that an enzyme breaks
down? A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
A. Substrate
C. Proteins
B. Active Site
D. Organs
C. Product
D. none of above 100. Which one is NOT a function for Carbohy-
drates?
94. Used to lower the activation energy to A. Short Term Energy
speed up reactions.
B. Cell walls
A. Insulin
C. Digestion
B. Hemoglobin
D. Plant Structure
C. Enzymes
101. A fatty acid is unsaturated if it
D. Cellulose
A. contains hydrogen
95. Which of the following is a lipid? B. contains carbon-carbon double bonds
A. cholesterol C. contains a carboxyl group
B. cellulose D. bonds to a nucleotide
C. glucose 102. If an alkane has 10 carbon atoms, how
D. protein many hydrogen atoms will it have?
A. 20
96. Which group of organic molecules serve as
long-term energy storage and make the B. 22
cell membrane is? C. 40
A. proteins D. 42

103. Used for quick energy and in the cell wall C. protein channels
of plants
D. active site
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids 109. Which of the following is a food source
for a carbohydrate?
C. Nucleic Acids
A. Apple
D. Proteins
B. Bread
NARAYAN CHANGDER
104. What element must be present for a
molecule to be considered organic? C. Rice
A. nitrogen D. all of the above

B. water 110. Used for energy storage and resistant to
C. hydrogen water
D. carbon A. Carbohydrates
105. = energy storage for animals in liver B. Lipids
& muscles C. Nucleic Acids
A. Starch D. Proteins
B. Glycogen
C. Cellulose 111. Proteins, Carbohydrates, and Lipids are
all examples of
D. Chitin
A. Elements
106. Which macromolecule contains C, H, and
B. Atoms
O in a 1:2:1 ratio?
A. carbohydrate C. Organic Compounds
B. lipid D. Inorganic Compounds
C. protein 112. Monosaccharides are the monomer of

D. nucleic acid
107. are composed out of carbon (C), hy- A. Carbohydrates

drogen (H), oxygen (O), nitrogen (N), and B. Lipids
phosphorus (P) (CHONP)
C. Nucleic Acids
A. Carbohydrates
D. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. Proteins 113. Which of the following items is NOT a
polysaccharide?
D. Nucleic Acids
A. chitin
108. Where do substrates bind on an en-
zyme? B. lactose
A. voltage-gated channels C. starch
B. surface receptor D. glycogen

1.8 Enzymes and Metabolism 93
114. Which of the following organic com- 117. What does it mean for an enzyme to be
pounds is the main source of energy for denatured?
living things? (Quick Energy)

A. Substrate is changed
A. carbohydrates B. Active Site is changed
B. lipids C. Product is changed
C. nucleic acids D. Enzyme works more efficiently
D. proteins
118. This organic compound is used for long
115. Potatoes, Glucose, Cellulose, and Glyco- term energy.
gen are examples of A. Protein
A. Carbohydrates B. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids C. Lipids
C. Nucleic Acids D. Nucleic Acids
D. Proteins
119. These organic compounds are formed us-
116. All polymers are made up of ing the directions found in DNA.
A. monosaccharides A. Carbohydrates
B. monomers B. Nucleic Acids
C. proteins C. Lipids
D. None of these D. Proteins
1.8 Enzymes and Metabolism

1. Cyanide is a toxin that stops the mitochon- 3. A positive test for starch shows
dria from producing ATP. If cyanide were A. a purple/violet color
introduced into your cells, it is probably
acting as a(n) B. light blue
A. activator C. yellow/orange
B. coenzyme D. black/purple
C. inhibitor 4. The interaction between 2 or more

D. substrate polypeptidesis known as the structure
of a protein.
2. Choose the incorrect statement on Km. A. primary
A. The unit for length is cm. The unit for B. secondary
Km is substrate concentration
C. tertiary
B. Km is the value of [S] when the veloc-
ity is half Vmax D. quaternary
C. Km can be obtained directly from 5. System of metabolism where larger parti-

Lineweaver-Burke plot cles are broken down into smaller.
D. Km is a Michaelis-Menten constant A. anabolism

B. catabolism 11. Which of the following is not a product of

glycolysis?
C. circulation
A. FADH2
D. macrobolism
B. NADH
6. ATP is a very important molecule because C. ATP
of the energy it provides. What functional
group provides this energy? D. Pyruvate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Hydroxyl 12. What causes the synthesisation of protein
B. Carboxyl to become slower?
C. Amine A. Casein protein

B. Trypsin
D. Phosphate
C. Lactose
7. In the chemiosmotic model, ions dif-
D. Substrates
fuse from the intermembrane space to the
inner membrane space (matrix). As a re- 13. Which of the following is correctly
sult ADP is converted to ATP. paired?
A. Calcium A. hydrolysis and anabolsim
B. Chloride B. hydrolysis and catabolism
C. Hydrogen C. dehydration synthesis and catabolism
D. Potassium D. dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis
8. What does ATP synthase do? 14. Catabolic pathways

A. Create ATP in chemiosmosis. A. Supply energy for cells
B. Break down ATP in chemiosmosis. B. Are endergonic
C. Break down NADPH. C. Don’t need enzymes
D. Create NADPH. D. none of above
15. The process of breaking down large

9. What does the “TP” in ATP stand for?
molecules
A. 2 phosphates
A. Anabolism
B. 3 phosphates
B. Catabolism
C. 2 proteins C. Dehydration
D. 3 proteins D. Synthesis
10. Where is starch hydrolyzed? 16. Reactions that build up molecules
A. mouth and stomach A. catabolic reaction
B. mouth and small intestine B. anabolic reaction
C. small intestine and liver C. thermal expansion
D. small intestine and mouth D. reactants and products

17. Which list correctly shows anabolism? 23. How do enzymes speed up chemical reac-
A. molecule-cell-tissue-organ-system- tion?

organism A. Increasing activation energy
B. molecule-tissue-system-organ B. Decreasing activation energy
C. Organism-system-cell-tissue-organ
C. Increasing deactivation energy
D. systems-organs-cell-tissue-organism
D. Decreasing deactivation energy
18. The process that involves an end product
acting as an inhibitor of an earlier step in 24. What does Gibbs Free Energy tell us?
a metabolic pathway is called
A. How much energy is given off by a re-
A. Feedback Inhibition action.
B. Competitive Inhibition B. The tendency of a reaction to become
C. Protein Denaturing “random”
D. Allosteric Activation C. How spontaneous a reaction is.
19. in a cell, biochemical reactions occur at a D. none of above
rate to protect the living processes.
A. high 25. ATP is called a cell’s “energy currency” be-
cause
B. low
C. moderate A. ATP catalyzes all metabolic reactions.
D. none of above B. most of the energy that drives

metabolism is supplied by ATP.
20. Enzymes are made up of these repeating
monomers. C. glucose is made of ATP.
A. monosaccharides D. ATP allows one organelle to be ex-
changed for another between cells.
B. amino acids
C. nucleotides 26. If the concentration of a reactant is in-
D. phospholipids creased, the reaction rate will
21. Molecule the enzyme works on A. increase

A. substrate B. decrease
B. product C. stay the same
C. solvent D. none of above
D. enzyme
27. A chemical reaction that has a positive
22. People that are lactose intolerant is lack- change in G is correctly described as
ing the
A. endergonic
A. substrate
B. the enzyme B. exergonic
C. optimal pH C. spontaneous
D. monomer fructose D. exothermic

28. sum of all chemical reactions 34. The enzyme that fixes CO2 from the atmo-
A. chemosynthesis sphere into a usable form is
B. cellular respiration A. rubisco.
C. metabolism B. insulin.
D. photosynthesis C. rhodopsin.
29. Reactants capable of interacting to form D. immunoglobulins.
products in a chemical reaction must first
NARAYAN CHANGDER
overcome a thermodynamic barrier known 35. Which of the following is not a property of
as the reaction’s enzymes?
A. entropy A. Enzymes are not consumed in the reac-

tion.
B. activation energy
B. A small amount of enzymes is enough
C. equilibrium point
to catalyse a reaction.
D. free-energy content
C. Enzymes increase the activation en-
30. Maltase is the enzyme that breaks apart ergy of the reaction.
A. maltose D. Enzymes can only work on one or a few
B. lactose substrates.
C. sucrose 36. These bind to the enzymes and alter the
D. Peptidase active site. They are ions or small inor-
ganic molecules. The substrate cannot fit
31. In glycolysis, is oxidized and is re- without these present.
duced.
A. Cofactors
A. glucose, NAD+
B. Feedback inhibitors
B. pyruvate, NAD+
C. glucose, NADH C. pH neutralizers
D. pyruvate, NADH D. Coenzymes
32. The monomer of carbohydrates 37. Immunoglobulins are also known as

A. disaccharides A. antibodies.
B. peptides B. hormones.
C. sugars C. actin and myosin.
D. monosaccharides D. prosthetic groups.
33. When water is added to split a molecule,
the reaction is known as a(n) reac- 38. The sum total of all chemical reactions that
tion. occur within an organism is it’s
A. dehydration synthesis A. metabolism.

B. condensation B. enzyme-driven reaction.
C. hydrolysis C. glycolysis.
D. super magical D. activation energy.

39. After a substrate binds to an enzyme, 44. Stored energy that results from the posi-
tion or shape of an object is called
A. the substrate and enzyme are joined
A. Thermal

permanently
B. the enzyme can start the reaction B. Potential
again once the products are released C. Kinetic
C. the enzyme cannot be used in the reac- D. Gravitational
tion again
45. Which of the following represents a de-
D. the enzyme is destroyed in the chemi- crease in potential energy?
cal reaction A. NADH → NAD+
40. Enzymes function by the activationen- B. ADP → ATP
ergyBy doing so, the rate of biochemical C. glucose → pyruvate
reactions in thecell is accelerated. D. none of above
A. lowering
46. The capacity to do work
B. increasing A. Metabolism
C. maintaining B. Power
D. none of above C. Energy
D. Cellular Respiration
41. In which processes are macromolecules
broken down into monomers? 47. what controls a metabolic pathway
A. Anabolism and catabolism A. enzymes
B. Catabolism and hydrolysis B. chemicals
C. Hydrolysis and reduction C. intermediates
D. Reduction and anabolism D. energy

48. A competitive inhibitor
42. In which type of Inhibition where the in-
hibitor binds to the same active site of the A. binds to the allosteric site, blocking the
substrate? substrate
B. binds to the active site, blocking the
A. Uncompetitive
substrate
B. Non competitive C. has a different shape than the enzyme
C. Competitive
D. All of the above D. lowers the activation energy of a reac-
tion
43. The maintenance of an organism’s internal
49. Noncompetitive inhibitors bind to the
environment is called:
site.
A. compensating A. Active
B. homeostasis B. Allosteric
C. balancing C. Noncompetitive
D. routine D. Tertiary

50. ATP is produced using energy from re- C. The upper most region
actions, while ATP is used in cells to pro- D. Co-factor
vide energy for reactions.
A. exergonic; exergonic 56. ATP generally energizes a cellular process
by
B. endergonic; endergonic
A. releasing heat upon hydrolysis
C. exergonic; endergonic
B. acting as a catalyst
D. endergonic; exergonic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. releasing ribose to drive reactions
51. Enzymes and hormones are both examples D. direct chemical transfer of a phos-
of: phate group
A. proteins
57. Oxygen gas
B. lipids
A. O
C. nucleic acids
B. O2
D. carbohydrates
C. aa
52. “Energy cannot be created nor destroyed”, D. O4
describes which law of thermodynamics?
58. What are the enzymes called when they
A. First
are at low temperature?
B. Second A. Denatured
C. Third B. Killed
D. This is not associated with the law of C. Inactive
thermodynamics.
D. Normal
53. the body’s use of molecules for energy and
growth 59. What happens to the enzyme after a chem-
ical reaction?
A. system
A. It is recycled by a lysosome
B. starch
B. It is transported to a different part of
C. metabolism the body
D. protein C. It can be reused
54. Energy due to motion is energy. D. It becomes bodily waste
A. Potential 60. Anabolic pathways
B. Energy A. are usually highly spontaneous chemi-
C. Kinetic cal reactions
D. Friction B. consume energy to build up polymers
from monomers
55. Which domain of an enzyme is non- C. release energy as they degrade poly-
protein? mers to monomers
A. Active site D. consume energy to decrease the en-
B. The stabilizing body tropy of the organism and its environment

61. The chains of amino acids folding or form- B. pH

ing a helix due to hydrogen bonding is C. Competitive Inhibitors
known as the structure of a protein.

D. Carbohydrates
A. primary
B. secondary 67. The site is where the noncompetitive
inhibitor stops the substrate from entering
C. tertiary
the enzyme.
D. quaternary
A. active
62. Molecules with different chemical identi- B. induced
ties compared to what they started from
C. allosteric
A. Reactants
D. temporary
B. Products
68. Outline the central dogma of molecular bi-
C. Autotrophs
ology.
D. Heterotrophs
A. DNA → RNA → Protein
63. In an Exergonic reaction, energy is B. RNA → DNA → Protein
A. Absorbed C. Protein → DNA → RNA
B. Created D. Protein → RNA → DNA
C. Destroyed
69. Lipids are made of
D. Released
A. cholesterol and fatty acids
64. The point at which there’s an equal like- B. glycerol and fructose
lihood that the reactants will combine to
make a product or that the product will C. steroids and cholesterol
break down to re-from the reactants. D. glycerol and fatty acids
A. disequilibrium
70. How do enzymes increase the speed of
B. terminal gradient chemical reactions?
C. equilibrium A. reducing the number of products
D. ionic maintenance B. reducing the activation energy
65. Which of the following reaction produces C. increasing the temperature of the cell
large molecules such as carbohydrates and
proteins? D. increasing the concentration of reac-
A. Anabolism tants
B. Catabolism 71. Secretory vesicles will move towards the
C. Hydrolysis to secrete extracellular enzymes
D. Respiration A. plasma membrane and fuse with it
66. Which of these do NOT affect enzyme ac- B. nucleous and fuse with it
tivity? C. ribosome nd fuses with it
A. Temperature D. none of above

72. Which molecule has the highest potential C. complex sugars (starch)
energy? D. triglycerides
A. ATP
78. How animals get the nitrogen they need
B. ADP
A. from the air they breathe
C. AMP
B. from the water they drink
D. none of above
C. from the food they eat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
73. Oxidation involves D. from the Sun
A. gaining electrons; gaining oxygen
79. Glucose is broken down into pyruvate in a
B. losing electrons; losing oxygen process known as
C. gaining electrons; losing oxygen A. glycolysis
D. losing electrons; gaining oxygen B. electron transport
74. An example of an autotroph C. the Krebs cycle
A. Pine tree D. phosphorylation
B. Lady Bug 80. All enzymes are

C. Chicken A. Lipids
D. Earthworm B. Proteins
C. Phospholipids
75. At temperatures above 40-45 degrees,
proteins D. Carbohydrates
A. create so many products that body pro- 81. Which of the following reactions would de-
cesses go too fast and the body overheats crease entropy within a cell?
A. anabolic
B. grow bigger and acquire more amino B. catabolic
acids
C. diffusion
C. denature and no longer function
D. digestion
D. slow down metabolism but keep func-
tioning 82. Enzymes are
A. proteins that function as catalysts and
76. the name of the enzyme is derised b
are not used up in the reaction
adding
B. broken down in reactions that require
A. -ase
energy input
B. -ing
C. used up in chemical reactions.
C. -ies
D. not needed for catabolic reactions
D. none of above
83. What is the living process of Anabolisme?
77. Benedict’s tests for A. Cellular respiration
A. proteins B. Hydrolysis of protein and carbohy-
B. simple sugars (glucose) drate

C. Protein synthesis C. Cellular Respiration

D. none of above D. Glycolisis

84. The following information is about the ap- 89. Which molecule enters Kreb’s Cycle?
plication of enzyme in industrya) removes A. Pyruvate
the seed coats from cereal grainsb) ex-
tracts agar jelly from seaweedsWhich of B. Glucose
the following is the enzyme? C. Acetyl CoA
A. zymase D. reducing powers
B. amylase
90. Which of the following is a statement of
C. protease the first law of thermodynamics?
D. cellulase A. Energy cannot be created or destroyed.
85. Which two systems work together to
maintain homeostasis while transporting B. The entropy of the universe is decreas-
oxygen throughout the body and removing ing.
carbon dioxide? C. The entropy of the universe is constant.
A. circulatory and respiratory
B. respiratory and excretory D. Energy cannot be transferred or trans-
formed.
C. circulatory and digestive
D. respiratory and digestive 91. Where does the substrate bind to?
A. the active site
86. Which of the following reactions is an oxi-
dation reaction? B. the cis face
A. Glucose + 6O2 → 6CO2 +6H20 C. the allosteric site
B. NAD+ + 2e-+ H+ → NADH D. the trans face
C. 1/2O2 +2H+ + 2e-→ H2O 92. Enzymes has an active site with a con-
D. ADP + Pi → ATP figuration that complementsa specific
molecule.
87. Babies do not have well developed di-
A. specific (1)
gestive systems for breaking down pro-
teins; therefore baby food is prepared af- B. substrate (2)
ter treatment with which enzyme? C. random(1)
A. Protease D. molecules (2)
B. Lipase
93. BONUS! Lesson 3:The manipulation of
C. Carbohydrase metabolic pathways to optimize their pro-
D. Synthase duction of a desired substance.
88. The process by which organic molecules A. Metabolic retention

are broken down to release energy B. Metabolic elimination
A. Photosynthesis C. Metabolic engineering
B. Metabolism D. Metabolic sativa

94. The “lock and key hypothesis” attempts C. tertiary

to explain the mechanism of?
D. quaternary
A. Vacuole formation
B. Pinocytosis 100. Before entering Krebs Cycle, pyruvate
is:
C. Sharing of electrons
A. Oxidized
D. Enzyme specificity
B. Reduced
95. The first law of thermodynamics states
NARAYAN CHANGDER
that energy is C. Isomerized to Acetyl-CoA
A. created D. Phosphorylated
B. destroyed
101. Which of the following functions as a
C. conserved coenzyme in cellular respiration?
D. created and destroyed A. ribozyme
96. What happens to an enzyme when it is de- B. vitamin A
natured?
C. vitamin B
A. Activation energy is lowered.
D. vitamin K
B. It becomes stronger.
C. It loses its shape. 102. Aquatic animals produce and insects
D. Activation energy is raised. produce as their nitrogenous waste
A. ammonia, urea
97. A process that transforms one or more
molecules into molecules with different B. ammonia, uric acid
chemical identities.
C. urea, ammonia
A. Food chain
D. uric acid, ammonia
B. Equilibrium
C. Cellular metabolism 103. The chains of amino acids folding or turn-
D. Chemical reaction ing on themselves is known as the
structure of a protein.
98. What 3 letters do enzymes typically end A. primary
in?
B. secondary
A. -ose
B. -ase C. tertiary
C. -ese D. quaternary
D. -tic
104. The “regenerator” of the Krebs Cycle is:
99. The sequence of amino acids forming a A. Oxaloacetate
polypeptide is known as the structure
of a protein. B. Acetyl-CoA
A. primary C. Citrate
B. secondary D. α -Ketoglutarate

105. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions 110. Bacteria that can get energy by making
without being used up. What is another their own food and by consuming food
name for these enzymes? from the environment

A. metabolizers A. Chemoautotrophs
B. catalysts B. Heteroautotrophs
C. hydrolyzers C. Photoheterotrophs
D. Decomposers
D. proteins
111. The active site of an enzyme is the region
106. Protons are pumped out of the in the that
ETC.
A. binds with the allosteric site
A. Matrix
B. binds with the substrate
B. Cristae C. binds with allosteric inhibitors
C. InterMembrane Space D. is inhibited by a coenzyme or a cofac-
D. Mitochondrion tor
112. Which of the following is/are catabolic

107. In which of the following systems is en-
reaction(s)?(1) amino acids → polypep-
tropy increasing?
tide + water(2) triglyceride → fatty acids
A. Putting together a puzzle + glycerol(3) glucose + oxygen → carbon
B. Putting books on a shelf dioxide + water + energy
A. only
C. Breaking a plate
B. only
D. Filling a jar of salt
C. and (2) only
108. These are organic molecules that change D. and (3) only
the shape of the active site. They are
needed to be present for substrate and en- 113. Exothermic reactions
zyme bindings. A. Absorb energy
A. Feedback inhibitors B. Release energy
B. Coenzymes C. Release Color
C. Hydrogen bonds D. Absorb Color
D. Catalase 114. The rate of a chemical reaction means
A. amount of product formed
109. What type of food stain is suitable to be
washed using biological washing powder B. speed of reaction
that contains lipase? C. concentration of reacting particles
A. Carbohydrate D. combining reactants with products
B. Lipids 115. In an Exergonic reaction, heat is
C. Proteins A. Absorbed
D. Cellulose B. Created

C. Destroyed 121. Where does ETC occur?

D. Released A. Mitochondrial matrix
116. Increasing the substrate concentration B. Outer mitochondrial membrane
in an enzymatic reaction could overcome C. Inner mitochondrial membrane
which of the following?
D. Cytosol
A. allosteric inhibition
B. competitive inhibition 122. Enzymes need certain environmental con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. noncompetitive inhibition ditions in order to function properly. What
happens when enzymes are heated to a
D. denaturization of the enzyme high temperature?
117. The mechanism by which the end product A. they die
of a metabolic pathway inhibits an earlier
B. they denature
step in the pathway is called
A. metabolic inhibition C. they change their amino acid sequence
B. feedback inhibition
D. they work better
C. irreversible inhibition
D. allosteric regulation 123. Identify the reaction that takes in energy
from the environment (e.g. to make larger
118. Bacteria that do not require oxygen are molecules from smaller ones).
A. Aerobic A. Endothermic reaction
B. Anaerobic
B. Respiration
C. Toxic
C. Catabolic reaction
D. Extremophiles
D. Homeostasis
119. What happens when animals die
124. A type of Metabolism that builds up
A. Their nitrogen compounds dissipate
molecules into bigger things is
into the air
B. Their nitrogen compounds will return A. catabolism
to the soil B. macrolism
C. Their nitrogen compounds produce C. biolism
toxic gas
D. anabolism
D. Their nitrogen compounds combine
with oxygen 125. After the enzyme and substrate bind to-
gether and perform the reaction, what
120. Which process requires an input of en-
does the substrate become?
ergy
A. endergonic reactions A. a substrate
B. exergonic reactions B. an enzyme

C. Hydrolysis C. a product
D. cellular respiration D. an active site

126. This enzyme is a tertiary structure. It 131. What reduces the productivity of en-
can be found in one of the cell’s organelles zymes by blocking substrates from enter-
called a peroxisome, break substrates, ing active sites?

such as hydrogen peroxide, into two prod- A. noncompetative inhibitor
ucts.
B. competative inhibitors
A. Lactase
C. coenzymes
B. Maltase
D. cofactors
C. Erepsin
132. The scientific law that states energy is
D. Catalase conserved and can neither be created nor
destroyed is
127. Chemicals carried by the bloodstream in
animals (or the sap in plants) that affect A. the 1st Law of Thermodynamics
the activity of cells that recognize them. B. the 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
They also carry the cells’ signals from one
C. atomic Law
part of the body to another.
D. the law of gravity
A. hemoglobin
B. platelets 133. The part of the enzyme that the substrate
bonds to is called the
C. leptos
A. active site
D. hormones
B. activation energy
128. The “Final Electron Acceptor” of the ETC C. bond site
is D. peptide bond
A. Oxygen
134. Which term most precisely describes the
B. Nitrogen cellular process of breaking down large
C. CO2 molecules into smaller ones?
D. H2O A. catabolism
B. metabolism
129. Zinc and Iron
C. anabolism
A. Coenzymes
D. dehydration
B. Cofactors
135. heat energy is measured in
C. Organic
A. watts
D. none of above
B. Calories
130. Which enzyme works best at pH 1.5- C. calories
2.5? D. thermals
A. Lipase
136. Enzymes will make a reaction go and
B. Pepsin use energy.
C. Trypsin A. faster, less
D. Amylase B. faster, more

C. slower, less 142. The currency of life

D. slower, more A. DNA
B. Dollars
137. Which enzyme breaks down hydrogen
C. ATP
peroxide to water and oxygen gas?
D. RNA
A. sucrase
B. lactase 143. Which of the following is an example of
an exergonic reaction?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. amylase
A. cellular respiration
D. peroxidase B. protein synthesis
138. A degradative process such as cellular C. nerve conduction
respiration can also be known as D. muscle contraction
A. catabolic pathway 144. The analogy of a neat room that is more
B. kinetic pathway organized but less stable than a messy
room, which is disorganized but more sta-
C. endergonic pathway ble means that the messy room has “
D. anabolic pathway “ entropy.
A. high
139. Which of the following is true about the
B. low
enzyme and its function?
C. moderate
A. Rennin:Clots milk
D. chemical
B. Pepsin:Emulsifies milk
145. Energy from food comes in the form of
C. Trypsin:Digests fat
A. AMP
D. Erepsin:Hydrolyses fat
B. ADP
140. Which of these is most likely an en- C. ATP
zyme? D. none of above
A. Sucrose
146. The binding of the substrate and enzyme
B. Galactose places stress on what type of bond? (This
C. Fructose bond breaks after the reaction.)
A. ionic
D. Amylase
B. covalent
141. What reaction occurs at a high rate to pro- C. metallic
tect the living processes?
D. hydrogen
A. Biochemical
147. A state of randomness or disorder where
B. Metabolism usable energy decreases is called
C. Cataabolism A. free energy
D. Anabolism B. activation energy

C. endergonic 153. Which of the following is not an enzyme

D. entropy A. protease

B. sucrase
148. Enzymes lower the activation energy of
a reaction by C. amylase
A. stressing the bonds in the substrate D. pectin
molecule.
154. The following are products of cellular res-
B. increasing the net energy output of the piration except
reaction.
A. Energy
C. reacting with the allosteric site of the
B. Water
substrate.
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. none of above
D. Oxygen
149. The process that, in the presence of oxy-
gen (O2), breaks down food molecules to 155. Which statement is TRUE about glycoly-
produce energy for the cell-is a catabolic sis?
process. A. Carbon dioxide is produced
A. Cellular respiration B. Lactic acid is produced
B. Catabolic reaction C. Glucose is oxidized into pyruvate
C. Cellular metabolism D. Glycolysis requires oxygen
D. Neomycin biosynthesis 156. For catabolism you need
150. The function of insulin is A. ADP + PP
A. a hormone. B. ATP
B. packing of DNA. C. AMP + PP
C. catalysis. D. none of above
D. blood clotting. 157. The process by which glucose broken
down to into smaller molecules
151. A high fever could
A. Photosynthesis
A. denature enzymes
B. Metabolism
B. Competitively inhibit enzymes
C. Cellular Respiration
C. Remove amine groups
D. Glycolisis
D. none of above
158. When plants convert the sun’s energy
152. The molecule an enzyme is working on is into food, which type of energy does the
called the: sun energy become?
A. Substrate A. kinetic
B. Cofactor B. chemical
C. Inhibitor C. thermal
D. Coenzyme D. none of above

159. This happens due to involuntary contrac- 165. Which of the following would not dena-
tions of voluntary muscles to warm up ture an enzyme
A. Shivering A. low temperature
B. Sweating B. high temperature
C. Blood vessels expand C. low pH
D. Blood vessels contract/get smaller D. high pH
160. In a chemical reaction, are what you 166. Which of the following is an enzyme?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
have at the end A. lactose
A. Products B. adenosine
B. Molecules C. protease
C. Reactants D. phosphate
D. Substances
167. The level of structure most important to
161. The site of glycolisis enzyme function is the structure.
A. Ribosome A. primary
B. Chloroplast B. secondary
C. Mitochondira C. tertiary
D. Cytoplasm D. quaternary
162. Anything added to a system that speeds 168. In general, enzymes do NOT:
up or starts a reaction A. bind permanently to their substrates
A. chemical B. have names ending in-ase
B. reactant C. have their function changed with ex-
C. option tremely high temperatures
D. Catalyst D. react with a specific substrate
163. Which of the following would decrease 169. Which of the following statements re-
the rate at which an enzyme works. garding enzymes is not true?
A. an increase in enzymes A. enzymes are proteins
B. an optimal temperature B. enzymes are not affected by heat
C. a high pH C. enzymes change the rate of reaction
D. an optimal pH D. enzymes remain unchanged at the end
of a catalytic process
164. The interaction between multiple
polypeptides or prosthetic groups is 170. The longest known polypeptide is and
known as the structure of a protein. contains amino acids.
A. primary A. titin; 30, 000
B. secondary B. aspartame; 3, 000
C. tertiary C. insulin; 300, 000
D. quaternary D. catalase; 3, 000, 000

171. Condensation between two amino acids 176. What information do we need to perform
results in a , joined by a bond. a calculation of Gibbs Free Energy?

A. dipeptide, peptide A. Enthalpy of the reaction.
B. dipeptide, ester B. Entropy of the reaction.
C. disaccharide, peptide C. The temperature of the reaction in
D. disaccharide, ester Kelvin.
172. On an enzyme, the site that attaches to D. All of the above are needed.
a substrate
177. The measure of average kinetic energy of
A. Polypeptide all the particles within an object is called
B. Base
C. Substrate A. temperature
D. Active site B. conduction
173. Activation energy is required to start a C. radiation

chemical reaction. What is activation en- D. heat
ergy?
A. The maximum amount of energy used 178. The products of photosynthesis are
B. The minimum amount of energy re- A. water and carbon dioxide
quired form the activated complex
B. oxygen and water
C. The energy of the reactants
C. sugar and cabon dioxide
D. The energy possessed by the products
D. oxygen and sugar (glucose)
174. How many FADH2 molecules are pro-
duced by 1 turn of the Krebs Cycle? 179. In the electron transport chain reactions,
when do the electrons have the highest po-
A. 1
tential energy?
B. 2
A. As they leave NADH (or FADH2).
C. 3
B. As they enter enter the third embed-
D. 4 ded protein complex.
175. Which of the following is true for anabolic C. As they combine with combine oxygen
reactions? to form water.
A. They are spontaneous and breakdown D. none of above
molecules.
B. They are nonspontaneous and break- 180. Vitamin C
down molecules. A. Cofactor
C. They are spontaneous and build B. Coenzyme
molecules.
C. Competitive inhibitor
D. They are nonspontaneous and build
molecules. D. none of above

181. A type of regulation in which the buildup 186. This is the most important factor about
of a product can slow down a reaction an enzyme that determines what job it will
because product clinging to an active site do in the body.
blocks the entry of substrates. A. The sugars that make up the enzyme
A. feedback inhibition
B. The nucleic acids that make up the pro-
B. product inhibition tein
C. competitive inhibition C. The shape of the enzyme
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. noncompetitive inhibition D. The fatty acids that make up the pro-
182. A noncompetitive inhibitor decreases the tein
rate of an enzyme reaction by
187. Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that
A. binding at the active site of the enzyme will fit its active site. What is this called?
A. Reusability
B. changing the shape of the enzyme’s ac-
B. Denaturation
tive site
C. changing the free energy change of the C. Specificity
reaction D. Fragility
D. acting as a coenzyme for the reaction
188. The group of organisms that use the pro-
183. What is the molecule(s) that an enzyme cess of homeostasis includes
causes to chemically react called? A. mammals, only
A. Active Site B. animals, only
B. Substrate C. plants and animals
C. Allosteric molecule
D. all living things
D. Product
189. are proteins with complicated 3-D
184. When the temperature or pH causes the shapes, which are keys molecules for
enzyme to change so it no longer works, metabolism
this is called
A. amino acids
A. Allosteric
B. enzymes
B. Substrate
C. alpha helix proteins
C. Denature
D. glycoproteins
D. Active Site
185. What is the function of an enzyme? 190. The assembly of complex structures or
molecules (a protein or nucleic acid, for ex-
A. enzymes break themselves into small ample) from smaller components (amino
pieces acids or nucleotides, for example)
B. enzymes slow down chemical reac-
A. Electrochemical gradience
tions
B. ATP
C. enzymes speed up chemical reactions
D. enzymes combine products to form re- C. synthesis
actants D. photosynthesis

191. What is the role of Michaelis-Menten 196. Which of these is NOT true?
equation? A. Enzymes can denature (change shape)

A. To calculate the free energy when the temperature gets too high.
B. Mathematically explain the relation- B. Enzymes can only be used once in a
ship of enzyme’s velocity and the sub- chemical reaction.
strate concentration C. Extreme pH can denature enzymes.
C. Mathematically explain the saturation D. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions.
of enzyme in substrate
D. To simplify Lineweaver-Burke plot 197. What are the parts of the ATP molecule?
A. grana, thylakoids, stroma
192. Which of the following is an enzyme in-
hibitor? B. matrix, inner membrane, outer mem-
brane
A. Iron
C. adenine, ribose, phosphate groups
B. Mercury
D. NADH, NADPH, FADH
C. Penicillin
198. Which of the following suffixes indicate
D. Vitamin B
a sugar?
193. If ADP is phosphorylated then what is A. -ase
this indicating in the reaction?
B. -ose
A. ADP is forming into ATP
C. -hydrate
B. ADP is becoming AMP
D. -ol
C. ADP is being used to power other re-
actions 199. What is the living process of
Catabolism?
D. ADP is being created by the reaction
A. Protein synthesis
194. Why does enzyme activity decrease
B. Cellular respiration
when it is in solution that has either a too
high or too low pH? C. Hydrolysis of protein and carbohy-
drate
A. All enzymes only work in neutral solu-
tions D. none of above
B. Enzyme activity remains unchanged in 200. Where is energy stored in ATP?
different pH’s
A. in the bonds between phosphate
C. The shape of the active site changes
B. in oxygen
D. The shape of the substrate changes
C. in sugar
195. NADH is a form of NAD+. D. in nitrogenous base
A. Reduced
201. Metabolism is
B. Oxidized A. a constant supply of energy from food
C. Catabolized
D. Hydrolized B. an increase of entropy in an organism

C. all the energy transformation reac- 207. Bacteria that make their own food from
tions in an organism chemicals in the environment are
D. biochemical pathways involved in syn- A. Chemoautotrophs
thesis of macromolecules B. Photoheterotrophs
202. How many CO2 molecules are produced C. Photochemotrophs
by the Krebs Cycle for a molecule of glu- D. Heterotrophs
cose?
208. Energy is released from ATP when
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 2
A. a phosphate group is added
B. 4
B. adenine bonds to ribose
C. 6
C. ATP is exposed to sunlight
D. 3
D. a phosphate group is removed and
203. Where is the protein synthesised during bonds to another molecule
the production of extracellular enzyme? 209. Once a new product leaves an enzyme,
A. Golgi Apparatus the enzyme is unchanged and ready for the
B. Nucleus next substrate. What is this called?
A. reusable
C. Ribosome
B. catalyst
D. Lysosome6
C. specific
204. Whenever energy is transformed, there D. fragile
is always an increase in the
A. free energy and enthalpy of the uni- 210. How many H+ are pumped out of the ma-
verse trix from 1 NADH?
A. 1
B. free energy of the universe
B. 2
C. entropy of the universe
C. 3
D. enthalpy of the univers
D. 4
205. All of the chemical reactions that occur
within an organism are referred to as: 211. Which is not part of the net products of
Glycolysis?
A. Enzymes
A. 2 ATP
B. Macromolecules
B. 2 NADH
C. Metabolism
C. 2 Pyruvate
D. Activation Energy D. 2 CO2
206. Which of the following binds to the active 212. Which of the following can cause a pro-
site of an enzyme? tein’s shape to change?
A. water A. A) pH
B. ATP B. B) high temperatures
C. substrate C. Both A and B
D. another enzyme D. Neither A nor B

213. How can the enzymatic reaction be in- C. Inhibitor

creased if the active sites of enzymes are D. Substrate
saturated with substrates?

A. Add more substrates 219. What is the function of NADP+?
B. Add more enzymes A. It absorbs light
C. Increase the temperature B. It is an electron carrier
D. none of above C. It is a light-reflecting pigment
D. It acts as long-term energy storage
214. A catalyst works by
A. changing the order of the reaction 220. The Law of Conservation of Energy
states:
B. increasing the temperature
A. Energy can created or destroyed but
C. lowering the activation energy
not transformed
D. making the activated complex
B. Energy cannot be created or de-
215. As substrate concentration increases, the stroyed, it can only transformed
rate of reaction is initially reduced in C. Energy can’t be created, destroyed or
compared to a reaction without an in- transformed
hibitor present.
D. none of above
A. competitive inhibition
221. What makes an enzyme substrate spe-
B. non-competitive inhibition
cific?
C. both competitive and non-competitive
A. Size
inhibition
B. Shape
D. none of above
C. Name
216. What enzyme in the ETC is responsible
D. Location it is found in
for generating the ATP molecules?
A. ATPase 222. Some factors can change the shape of an
enzyme and when an enzyme’s shape has
B. ATP synthase
changed it no longer works. When this
C. Hexokinase happens we say that the enzyme has been
A. denatured
217. Organisms that can make their own food
B. altered
A. Autotroph
B. Heterotroph C. modified
C. Eukaryote D. renatured
D. Prokaryote 223. Enzymes are an example of
218. Which of the following helps enzyme to A. Lipids

function well? B. Carbohydrate
A. Product C. Protein
B. Cofactor D. Nucleic Acid

224. The function of collagen is 230. Most digestive enzymes undergo

A. tensile strengthening. A. photosynthesis
B. membrane transport.
B. hydrolysis
C. immunity.
C. dehydration synthesis
D. muscle contraction.
D. condensation
225. Which factors increase the rate of a reac-
tion.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
231. Production of glutamate is whereas
A. increasing temperature production of glutamine is
B. increasing concentration A. reductive amination, amidation
C. increasing surface area B. reductive amination, amination
D. all of these
C. reductive amination, transamination
226. proteins break down into
D. non of above
A. sucrose
B. amino acids 232. In non-competitive inhibition, the enzyme
is able to reach the same maximum
C. glucose
rate of reaction because some of the en-
D. lipids zymes are to react.
227. Which of these is most likely an enzyme? A. always, available
(Based on the suffix)
B. not, available
A. Sucrose
C. always, unavailable
B. Galactose
C. Fructose D. not, unavailable
D. Amylase
233. can cause denaturation of proteins be-
228. A process in which plants, algae, and pho- cause vibrations within the molecule break
tosynthetic prokaryotes capture the en- the intermolecular bonds.
ergy of sunlight and use it to make sug-
A. Heat
ars and other organic molecules through
the process of B. Acids
A. Photosynthesis C. Bases
B. Photon regeneration D. Cold
C. Electron energization
D. Chlorophyll charging 234. What structure mediates and controls the
formation of polypeptides?
229. ADP + P =
A. ribosome
A. ADPP
B. nucleus
B. ATP
C. ADDP C. mitochondria
D. Adenosine Diphosphate D. golgi apparatus

235. Metabolisme always occur even when B. acidic/basic optimum

we are sleeping. C. inhibition optimum

A. true
D. pH optimum
B. False
241. ATP or energy molecules carry the energy
C. I dont know
to what type of reaction?
D. none of above
A. catabolic
236. This is the cause for a substrate becoming B. hypertonic
two products:
C. anabolic
A. Hydrogen bond breaks from stress
D. exergonic
B. ATP cuts it
C. energy coupling 242. The is all of the proteins in a cell, tis-
sue, or organism.
D. none of above
A. genome
237. describes the general process of
breaking down large molecules into sam- B. proteome
ller ones. C. nucleosome
A. metabolism D. none of above
B. anabolsim
243. The theory that all substrates fit into a
C. catabolism specific enzyme with some conformation
D. dehydration change is called
A. induced fit
238. What effect does a chemical reaction that
breaks down a starch molecule to produce B. condensed fit
many glucose molecules have on the en- C. lock and key
tropy of the system.
D. jig saw fit
A. it increases entropy
B. it decreases entropy 244. The presence of fiber would indicate the
food sources is from
C. it has no effect on entropy
A. bacteria
D. none of above
B. animals
239. This type of inhibition competes for space
at the active site. C. plants
A. Noncompetitive D. water
B. Induced 245. Metabolism is best described as
C. Cofactoral A. synthesis of macromolecules
D. Competitive B. breakdown of macromolecules
240. The most effective pH range that each en- C. control of enzyme activity
zyme has is called the D. control of enzyme activity in te synthe-
A. competitive inhibitor sis and breakdown of macromolecules

246. How do enzymes make reactions go 251. Which of the following is part of the first
faster? law of thermodynamics?
A. They lower the activation energy of the A. energy cannot be created or destroyed
reaction
B. They decrease the energy of the reac- B. entropy of the universe is constant
tants C. kinetic energy is stored energy
C. They raise the activation energy of the D. energy cannot be transferred or trans-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
reaction formed
D. They decrease the energy of the prod- 252. How many ATP are gained through gly-
ucts colysis?
A. 0
247. With what 3 letters do enzymes typically
end? B. 2
A. -ose C. 4
B. -ase D. 30-38
C. -ese 253. What substance is needed to assist some

types of enzymes to function properly?
D. -tic
A. product
248. A term used to describe a process that B. substrate
does not require oxygen to happen C. inhibitor
A. Aerobic D. cofactor
B. Anaerobic
254. The folding and coiling into a three dimen-
C. Fermentation sional structure based on interactions be-
tween R-groups is known as the struc-
ture of a protein.
249. Any substance that is acted upon by an A. primary
enzyme is called a(n)? B. secondary
A. Coenzyme C. tertiary
B. Substrate D. quaternary
C. Vitamin 255. Sucrase has an optimum temperature of
D. Polypeptide 37 C and an optimum pH of 6.2. What
would happen if the pH changed from 6 to
250. Which chemical is classified as an en- 3?
zyme? A. Sucrase would continue to work the
A. Galactose same
B. The reaction sucrase catalyzes would
B. Lipid
speed up
C. Protease
C. The reaction sucrase catalyzes would
D. Manganese dioxide slow down

D. none of above B. needs to be consumed to fulfill our re-

quirements
256. What is an example of an autotroph?

C. is already being produced in our body
A. Bear
D. is needed by E.coli
B. Lion
C. Palm tree 262. Which of the following would NOT dena-
ture an enzyme?
D. Human
A. HIGH temperature
257. What is the role of denitrifying bacteria
B. LOW pH
A. change nitrate back into nitrogen gas
C. HIGH pH
B. change nitrogen gas into nitrate
D. LOW temperature
C. absorb carbon dioxide in the soil
D. release oxygen gas into the atmo- 263. All of the chemical reactions in an organ-
sphere ism’s cells are called
258. A substance that speeds up reactions A. chemotrophy

without changing the produced substances B. thermodynamics
A. product C. autotrophy
B. reactant D. metabolism
C. heat
264. Main cellular energy molecule
D. catalyst
A. ATP
259. How many FADH2 molecules are pro-
B. ADP
duced by 1 molecule of glucose?
A. 1 C. cAMP
C. 3 265. Which of the following involves a de-

D. 4 crease in entropy?
A. dehydration synthesis reactions
260. If the environment gets cold, we will of-
ten shiver in order to: B. reactions that separate monomers
A. keep body temperature the same as C. depolymerization reactions
the external temperature
D. hydrolysis reactions
B. decrease body temperature
C. increase body temperature 266. he enzyme is represented by a ‘
D. regulate blood pressure A. lock

B. key
261. Essential amino acids .
C. desk
A. examples are glutamate and glu-
tamine D. none of above

267. Which of the following statements are 272. Catabolic pathways

false? A. combine molecules into more energy-
A. Glycolysis can occur with or without rich molecules
oxygen B. are spontaneous and do not need en-
B. Glycolysis is the first step in both zyme catalysis
anaerobic and aerobic respiration C. are endergonic
C. Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria D. supply energy, primarily in the form of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Glycolysis produces 2 ATP, 2 Pyru- ATP, for the cell’s work
vates, and 2 NADH 273. What is an advantage of using lactase in
an immobilised state in the food manufac-
268. The second law of thermodynamics
turing industry?
states that entropy of a system tends to
A. It functions within cells
A. increase B. It dissolves in multiple solvents
B. decrease C. It converts cellulose to glucose
C. stay constant D. It is less likely to become denatured
D. fluctuate wildly 274. An example of an heterotroph

A. Pine tree
269. Combination of anabolic and catabolic re-
actions B. Venus Fly Trap
A. metastasis C. You
B. anacatabolism D. Algae
C. catabolism 275. Blocks substrate from binding to active

site
D. metabolism
A. coenzymes
270. In the final step of glycolysis ATP is made B. cofactors
through the process of:
C. substrate
A. Substrate Level Phosphorylation
D. inhibition
B. Oxidative Phosphorylation
276. The breaking of bonds between R-groups
C. Photo-Phosphorylation
results in a conformational change in a pro-
D. RedOx Reactions tein called
271. Which of the following statements is not A. denaturation.

true about enzymes? B. insolubility.
A. Enzymes are protein C. a genome.
B. Enzymes are organic catalysts D. a peptide bond.
C. Digestive enzymes are intracellular 277. Which amino acid participate directly in
D. Enzymes are not active at a tempera- the urea cycle?
ture of 40◦ C A. Aspartate

B. Alanine 283. The active site of an enzyme is where

C. Fumarate A. Substrates bind

D. Glutamine
B. Products enter
278. is stored energy.
C. Allosteric regulators bind
A. Potential
D. none of above
B. Kinetic
C. None of the above 284. An enzyme is an
D. All of the above
A. mostly made up of proteinsand is pro-
279. Which process is the largest contributor duced by living cell organism
to the release of CO2
B. mostly made up of carbohydratesand
A. Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs Cycle is produced by living cell organism
B. Pyruvate Oxidation C. mostly made up of lipidsand is pro-
C. Glycolysis duced by living cell organism
D. Oxidative Phosphorylation D. none of above
280. Living organisms control pH within their
tissues. What is the reason for regulating 285. What is the energy molecule for all living
pH? cells?
A. All parts of the body must have the A. ADP
same pH in order to survive
B. ATP
B. Many reactions can only happen at spe-
cific pH levels C. Protein
C. pH affects osmosis D. Sugars
D. Control of active transport is achieved
by pH 286. Enzyme is an organic catalyst that is
mostly made up of
281. the ability to do work
A. energy A. Carbon
B. Matter B. Protein
C. photons C. Substrate
D. potential energy
D. Energy
282. In the production and secretion of an ex-
tracellular enzyme, what would happen to 287. How many amino acids are naturally oc-
the process if endoplasmic reticulum is ab- curring (synthesized by ribosomes)?
sent?
A. 19
A. Proteins are not modified
B. 20
B. Proteins are not synthesised
C. Proteins are not transcribed C. 21
D. Proteins are not secreted D. 22

288. After the substrate binds to the enzyme’s 293. Which is NOT a key idea that explains the
active site, the active site is altered to huge range of possible polypeptides?
reach the A. They could be any length.
A. transition state. B. There are 20 amino acid possibilities.
B. allosteric site. C. The amino acids could be in any order
C. reaction path. or combination.
D. net amount of energy. D. Prokaryotes only use 10 amino acids.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
294. Which of the following factors would you
289. What happens with extreme changes oc-
not expect to influence the action of en-
cur in the pH of enzymes?
zymes?
A. They denature A. Temperature of the cytoplasm
B. They mutate B. The amount of reactant in the cell
C. They all become quaternary structures C. pH of the cytoplasm
D. Relative humidity
D. They produce too many products
295. What is the definition of a heterotroph?
290. The lock-and-key analogy for enzymes A. An organism that can make it’s own
applies to the specificity of enzymes food.
A. as they form their tertiary and quater- B. An organism that breaks down decay-
nary structure ing material.
B. binding to their substrate C. An organism that has to eat other or-
ganisms to obtain energy.
C. interacting with water
D. An organism that only eats plants.
D. interacting with ions
296. H+ come back into the matrix because
291. This model means that the enzyme of:
changes its shape to accommodate to the
shape of the substrate. A. Magic
B. Facilitated Diffusion
A. Induced Model
C. Diffusion
B. Fluid Mosaic Model
D. Osmosis
C. Lock and Key Model
297. In the body, catalysts are called
D. Watson and Crick Model
A. reactants
292. Organisms get their energy to do work B. macronutrients
from energy.
C. enzymes
A. solar energy
D. ribosomes
B. chemical energy
298. Which of the following properties of en-
C. thermal energy
zymes can be explained with the ‘lock-
D. nuclear energy and-key’ model?

A. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions. 303. Which of the following is true for anabolic
pathways?

B. Enzymes are protein molecules. A. they do not depend on enzymes
C. Enzymes are specific in action. B. they are usually spontaneous chemical
reactions
D. Enzymes work best at their optimum
conditions. C. they consume energy to build poly-
mers from monomers
299. If the temperature is reduced to 27 de-
D. They release energy as they degrade
gree celcius, a reaction rate will
polymers to monomers
A. increase
304. Choose the pair of terms that correctly
B. decrease
completes this sentence:Catabolism is to
C. stay the same anabolism as is to
D. none of above A. exergonic; endergonic
300. Which is NOT true? B. free energy; entropy
A. Enzymes speed up chemical reactions C. work; energy
B. Enzymes react best at a specific tem- D. entropy; enthalpy

perature
305. In extreme temperatures, the are dis-
C. Enzymes only control ONE type of reac- rupted and the enzyme denatures.
tion
A. active and allosteric sites
D. Enzymes are made of lipids B. cofactors and coenzymes
301. What effect do changes in pH have on en- C. hydrogen bonds
zymes? D. Substrates
A. All enzymes increase in activity as pH
increases 306. Which of the following is an exergonic re-
action?
B. The activity of all enzymes is reduced
by a pH below or above 7 A. Hydrolysis of ATP
C. Low pH causes irreversible denatura- B. Phosphorylation of ADP

tion in all enzymes C. Carbon fixation and reduction in the
D. Extreme pH can alter the active site of Calvin cycle
all enzymes D. none of above
302. What is the term for metabolic pathways 307. What is the evaporation of a liquid to cool
that release stored energy by breaking the body?
down complex molecules?
A. Shivering
A. anabolic pathways
B. Sweating
B. catabolic pathways C. Blood vessels expanding
C. fermentation pathways D. Blood vessels constricting/ getting
D. thermodynamic pathways smaller

308. Which of the following describes the role C. ATP synthesis

of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the nitrogen D. anabolic reaction
cycle? Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert
A. nitrates intro nitrogen gas 314. What kind of enzyme is used to ten-
derises meat and separates the fish skin?
B. ammonia into proteins
A. Amylase
C. nitrogen gas into ammonia
B. Lactose
D. proteins into nitrates
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Lipase
309. the substrate is represented by a D. Protease
A. key
315. Reduction involves
B. chair
A. gaining electrons; gaining oxygen
C. cake
B. losing electrons; losing oxygen
D. none of above
C. gaining electrons, losing oxygen
310. helps warm the human body when D. losing electrons; gaining oxygen
we are cold.
A. sweating 316. How many carbon atoms does each pyru-
vate feed into the Krebs Cycle?
B. shivering
A. 1
C. inhaling oxygen
B. 2
D. exhaling carbon dioxide
C. 3
311. A long chemical cascade in which one of D. 4
the products that forms in the cascade acts
as an inhibitor of an earlier step in the cas- 317. To produce one glucose molecule the
cade. Calvin cycle must turn
A. Competitive inhibition A. Once.
B. Noncompetitive inhibition B. Three times.
C. Feedback inhibition C. Twice.
D. Energy coupling D. Six times.
312. The law of thermodynamics states 318. Reactions that break down molecules
that entropy is always increasing. A. anabolic
A. first B. burning
B. second C. catabolic
C. third D. thermal
D. zeroth
319. Enzymes activity can be slowed down or
313. To do work, living systems will pair an stopped by enzyme inhibitors such as lead
catabolic reaction with a(n) or
A. exergonic reaction A. Alkaline Metals
B. oxidative reaction B. Acid

C. Mercury D. Thermal
D. Cofactor
321. Glucose

320. A baseball held by a pitcher has en-
A. Its surface is 12 watts
ergy.
A. Kinetic B. GIVE
B. Chemical C. flat
C. Potential D. C12H12O12

2. The Cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
2.1 Cell Theory
1. Which of these is an organ? C. Robert Hooke
A. blood cells D. Aristotle
B. the stomach 5. Which scientist is known for famously
C. connective tissue naming the cell after tiny rooms in a
D. the respiratory system monastery?
A. Bill Nye
2. What is the scientific term for maintaining
a constant internal environment? B. Theodor Schwann
A. biological balance C. Robert Hooke
B. homeostasis D. Aristotle
C. internal regulation 6. Which is NOT true of the cell theory?

D. xenobiographic balance A. All living organisms are composed of
cells.
3. What did Matthias Schleiden specialize
in? B. All cells come from preexisting living
cells.
A. Botany
C. All cells have a nucleus, which acts like
B. Chemistry the brain of the cell.
C. Social sciences D. The cell is the most basic part of a liv-
D. Math and logic ing organism.
4. All plants are made of cells. This was dis- 7. Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cells have
covered by which of the following in common
A. Matthias Schleiden A. relatively the same size
B. Rudolf Virchow B. both have a nucleus

2.1 Cell Theory 125
C. both have ribosomes 13. This does not contain a nucleus

D. both have mitochondria to make en- A. Eukaryotic cell

ergy B. Prokaryotic cell
C. Both
8. According to the cell theory, which answer
is incorrect? D. Neither
A. All organisms are composed of cells 14. Those organisms that are made of more
than 2 cells are referred to as
B. If needed, a plant cell can evolve into
an animal cell A. unicellular
B. multicellular
C. Cells come from preexisting cells
C. colonized
D. Cell is the smallest (fundamental) unit
D. Michael Jackson
of life
15. The idea that all living things are composed
9. The smallest unit of life. of cells. Cells are the basic units of struc-
A. homeostasis ture and function in living things, and new
cells are produced from existing cells
B. growth
A. unicellular
C. cell B. Cell Theory
D. reproduction C. cell
D. organ system
10. The first observation of cells by Robert
Hooke was seen in which organic matter? 16. What is the basic structural and functional
unit of all living things?
A. Cork
A. atom
B. Bacteria
B. cell
C. Oak leaf
C. bacteria
D. Fruit fly D. animalcules
11. How many cells do humans have? 17. He looked at the scrapings of his teeth
with a microscope and described them as
A. 100 Million
“animalcules.”
B. 100 Billion A. Anton van Leewenhoek
C. 200 Billion B. Rudulph Virchow
D. 100 Trillion C. Theodor Schwann
D. Robert Hooke
12. A compound microscope
18. Which organelle is the protein factory?
A. has one lens
A. Ribosomes
B. has more than one lens B. Mitochondria
C. uses electrons to create an image C. Centriole
D. uses lasers to create a 3-D image D. Lysosomes

2.1 Cell Theory 126
19. Which organism listed below is a prokary- 25. Made of only ONE cell.
ote?
A. Unicellular
A. dog
B. Multicellular
B. human
C. sunflower C. Organization
D. bacterial cell D. Reproduction
20. Which organelle is missing in prokaryotic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
26. Controls what enters and leaves the cell
cells?
A. nucleus A. Mitochondria
B. DNA B. Cell Membrane
C. ribosomes C. Cell Wall
D. plasma membrane
D. Nucleus
21. Cells are often called “the of life.”
A. bread 27. What are we learning in science????!!
B. road map A. Biology

C. building blocks B. Scientific method
D. meaning C. Energy transformation
22. Which part of the Cell Theory describes D. none of above
how an amoeba can make a copy of itself
through reproduction?
28. Cara and Chuck were looking at pond wa-
A. All living things are made up of cells ter through a microscope. They saw small
B. Cells can appear spontaneously square crystals in their slide. Cara won-
dered what it was. Chuck said it could not
C. Cells arise from pre-existing cells
be any living thing because it was not
D. An organism is made up of one or more
cells A. round
23. Humans are made of what type of cell? B. moving

A. Prokaryotic C. small enough
B. Eukaryotic D. made of cells
C. Neither
D. none of above 29. Unlike a prokaryotic bacteria cell, a virus,
like the one in the image
24. Viruses are not considered living organ-
A. has a lipid cell wall
isms because they are not composed of-
A. DNA B. has no genetic material
B. Protein C. cannot reproduce on its own
C. Cells D. does not contain any organic
D. RNA molecules

2.1 Cell Theory 127
30. What is spontaneous generation? 35. What was Schleiden convinced of?
A. life only comes from single-celled or- A. All plants are made of cells

ganisms B. All animals are made of cells
B. life can emerge from non-living C. All cells are prokaryotic
sources
D. None of the above
C. life can randomly end at any time
36. Cell theory is important to what area of
D. life starts when cells divide science?
31. Who was Robert hooke? A. Biology
A. He made the first compound micro- B. Chemistry

scope. C. Physics
B. Confirmed that all cells come from D. Geology
cells.
37. In the sequence from simplest to most com-
C. A scientist who created the term “cell, plex level oforganization, which level is
“ when looking at a cork under a micro- one level more complex thancells?
scope. A. Organs
D. He discovered that all cells come from B. Organisms
preexisting cells.
C. Tissues
32. This scientist concluded that animals and, D. Organ Systems
in fact, all living things are made of cells:
38. Which scientist discovered that all plants
A. Hooke come from cells?
B. Leeunwenhoek A. Hooke
C. Schleiden B. Schleiden
D. Schwann C. Schwann
D. Remak
33. Who first observed that all cells come from
pre-existing cells? 39. The smallest units of life in plants are-
A. Robert Hooke A. Tissues
B. Rudolph Virchow B. Cells
C. Matthias Schleiden C. Organs
D. Theodor Schwann D. Organisms

40. Identify the characteristics of life:“The
34. A worm turns away from light is an exam- baby became too heavy for his car seat in
ple of a worm a matter of months.”
A. reproducing A. Growth
B. doing cellular respiration B. Reproduction
C. having cells C. Use Energy
D. responding to its environment D. Homeostasis

2.1 Cell Theory 128
41. Which of the following is NOT a cell the- 47. This scientist observed live cells and ob-
ory. served greater detail while looking at
A. All non-living things are made of cells pond water under a microscope:
B. All cells come from pre-existing cells A. Hooke
C. Cells are the basic unit of structure B. Leeunwenhoek
and function of all living things
C. Virchow
D. none of above
D. Schwann
NARAYAN CHANGDER
42. Which organelle is found in a prokaryote?
48. How many cells does the human brain
A. Vacuole
have?
B. Ribosome
A. 100 Million
C. Chloroplast
B. 100 Billion
D. Mitochondria
C. 200 Billion
43. Which three scientists are credited for the
creation of The Cell Theory? D. 100 Trillion
A. Schwann, Schleiden, and Virchow 49. Which term refers to the movement of
B. Hooke, Leewenhoek, Captain Hook molecules from an area of higher concen-
C. Virchow, Leewenhoek, and Schwann tration to an area of lower concentration?
D. Schleiden, Schmeiden, Steve A. active transport
44. which microscope can magnify 1, 000, 000 B. concentration

times C. diffusion
A. stereoscope D. none of above
B. electron
50. Which part of the microscope MAGNIFIES
C. compound
an object?
D. none of above
A. Diaphragm
45. Who’s work did Rudolf Virchow steal to
B. Objective lenses
solve an argument?
A. Albert Einstein C. Adjustment knobs
B. Robert Remak D. Light source

C. Robert Hooke 51. What is an individual form of life that is ca-
D. none of above pable of growing, taking in nutrients, and
usually reproducing (organ systems work-
46. Which scientist stated that all cells come
ing together)?
from other cells
A. Cellular Theory
A. Virchow
B. Schwann B. Cells
C. Von Walker C. Organisms
D. Hooke D. Atoms

2.1 Cell Theory 129
52. Xylem tissue transports water inside C. Robert Hooke

plants. Xylem tissue is made up of- D. Rudolf Virchow

A. Organs
58. An organism’s ability to control its internal
B. Cells environment is called:
C. Organisms A. compensating
D. Organ Systems
B. homeostasis
53. What did Anton Van Leeuwenhoek name C. balancing
his microscopic discovery?
D. routine
A. bacteria
59. This is a double layer of phospholipids that
B. cells
creates a barrier between the cells inter-
C. microbes nal and external environments; it controls
D. animalcules what comes in or out of the cell (selective
permeable)
54. Which statement about all living organ- A. Nucleus
isms is true?
B. Cilia
A. They have limbs
C. Cell membrane
B. They produce their own food
D. Flagella
C. They breathe air
D. They have at least one cell 60. A(n) is a collection of all of the abiotic
factors and biotic factors in an entire re-
55. The includes the entire planet and all gion.
of its living and nonliving parts.
A. habitat
A. biosphere
B. ecosystem
B. community
C. community
C. ecosystem
D. ecological niche
D. lithosphere
61. Which of the following statements repre-
56. In order to sustain life, all cells must sents part of the cell theory?
A. digest nutrients and water A. All cells have nuclei.
B. excrete waste and fluids B. All cells have a cell wall.
C. must be able to maintain a homeosta- C. All organisms have many cells.
sis environment (aka cellular respiration
D. All cells come from other cells.
and regulation)
D. All of the above 62. Prokaryotic cells have
57. “All animals are made of cells”. This fact A. a nucleus

was discovered by B. homeostasis
A. Matthias Schleiden C. no nucleus
B. Theodor Schwann D. none of above

2.1 Cell Theory 130
63. What tool do you use to view the cells? C. Proteins

A. metric ruler D. Nucleic Acids
B. centrifuge 69. Robert Hooke named the small compart-
C. microscope ments that made up the cork after the
rooms monks lived in.
D. pipette
A. organelles
64. Who believed In free cell formation, where
B. membranes
cells spontaneously appeared?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. mocroscopes
A. Matthias Jakob Schleiden
D. cells
B. Rudolf Virchow
C. Theodor Schwann 70. Who was the first person to see cells under
the microscope and give them a name?
D. none of above
A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
65. Which of the following scientist is known B. Robert Hooke
for saying “All plants are made of cells?”
C. Theodor Schwann
A. Schwann
D. Matthias Schleiden
B. Schleiden
71. What did Robert Hooke experiment on?
C. Remak
A. A cork
D. Jansen
B. A piece of clothing
66. Which one is not part of The Cell Theory C. An animal sample
A. All organisms are composed of one or D. A piece of bamboo
more cells.
72. Compared to the eukaryotic cell, prokary-
B. All living and non-living things have otic cells are
cells.
A. more complex
C. The cell is the basic unit of structure
and organization in organisms. B. less complex
C. full of membrane-bound organelles
D. All cells come from preexisting cells.
D. very large
67. Tissues working together to perform spe-
cialized functions are called- 73. Made many cells.
A. Organs A. Unicellular
B. Cells B. Reproduction
C. Organ Systems C. Multicellular
D. Organisms D. Organization
74. Coronavirus is what type of cell?
68. Which macromolecule is composed of Car-
bon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, and A. Eukaryotic
Phosphorus B. Prokaryotic
A. Carbohydrates C. Neither
B. Lipids D. none of above

2.1 Cell Theory 131
75. This scientist was the first to identify cells 80. Which of the following is what we call
and name them after looking at cork un- “nonliving” organisms?
derneath a microscope:

A. Biotic
A. Hooke B. Unicellular
B. Leeunwenhoek C. Multicellular
C. Schleiden D. Abiotic
D. Virchow
81. Bacteria are among the smallest organ-
isms on Earth, while humans are among
76. Which of the following scientists concluded
the most complex. What is the basic unit
that all animals are made of cells?
of life common to bacteria, humans, and all
A. Virchow other living organisms?
B. Hooke A. Carbohydrates
C. Schleiden B. Chloroplasts
D. Schwann C. Organs
D. Cells
77. After 200 years of scientific evidence, in
what year did the Cell Theory develop? 82. For any activity such as running, jumping
A. 1757 and hunting, animals have to use energy
obtained from food. What organelle per-
B. 1593 forms a similar function within a cell to fuel
C. 1839 cellular activities?
D. 1665 A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
78. What is the benefit of the development of
C. Vacuole
the cell theory?
D. Cell membrane
A. Cells have made microscopes get bet-
ter. 83. Which of the following is not a function of
B. There is less biologist today. the cell?
C. There is more disease on Earth now. A. Reproduction
D. Scientist now know much more about B. Growth

cells and bacteria which is a benefit to all- C. Sleeping
human.
D. Protection
79. Who was the scientist that looked at cork 84. The smallest unit that can perform the ba-
under a microscope? sic activities of life is
A. Alfred Wegner A. a cell
B. Howard Hess B. a tissue
C. Robert Hooke C. an organ
D. Mattias Schleiden D. an organism

2.1 Cell Theory 132
85. An organism, such as a nematode worm, 91. The combined observations of Hooke,
may have only 1000 cells. It should be Schleiden, Schwann, Virchow & Von
classified as being Leeuwenhoek helped form:
A. virus A. Cell Theory
B. bacteria B. Cell Law
C. unicellular
C. Cellular Respiration
D. multicellular
D. Cellular Organelles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
86. Scientist who proposed that all plants are
made of cells 92. Complex organisms require a large number
A. Theodor Schwann of cells that
B. Matthias Schleiden A. are specialized and work together.
C. Rudolf Virchow B. resist being attacked by viruses and
D. Robert Hooke bacteria.
87. Abiotic factors in an environment include C. will keep the organism warm.
A. producers D. can retain more water than a small

number of cells.
B. decomposers
C. predators and prey 93. Which technology was essential for the de-
D. sunlight and water velopment of the cell theory?
88. What type of organisms does the cell the- A. telescopes

ory apply to B. antiseptics
A. bacteria C. microwaves
B. multicellular organisms
D. microscopes
C. plants and animals
D. all of the above 94. All of the factors listed are abiotic factors
of an underwater ecosystem EXCEPT the
89. To make the object appear larger using a
microscope is to increase the A. sunlight
A. magnification B. water currents
B. resolution C. fish population
C. intonation D. water temperature
D. diaphragm
95. What was Robert Hooke looking at when
90. Which type of cell appeared first on he discovered cells?
earth?
A. a piece of cork (part of a dead plant)
A. Prokaryotic cells
B. Eukaryotic cells B. a piece of leaf
C. Animal cells C. a piece of animal tissue

D. Plant cells D. a sample of tooth scum

2.1 Cell Theory 133
96. Which of the following is the smallest unit 101. When observing cells, which of the fol-
of life that can carry out all life functions? lowing optical tools is most appropriate?
A. Hand lens

A. the mitochondria
B. the vacuoles B. Telescope
C. the nucleus C. Petri dish
D. the cell D. Microscope
97. Photosynthesis in plant cells and cellular 102. What did Rudolf Virchow add on to the
respiration in animal cells perform a simi- Cell Theory?
lar function, which is to- A. All plants are made up of cells
A. obtain energy for cellular activities. B. All animals are made up of cells
B. remove waste resulting from cellular C. Cells come from pre-existing cells
activities. D. Cells division is called Mitosis
C. respond to stimuli from the environ- 103. What is the smallest unit that can carry
ment. on all functions of life?
D. provide oxygen to the cells. A. cells
98. Who was the first to observe and describe B. elements
cells, by noting that the cells in a wine cork C. molecules
resembles the living quarters of monks or D. organelles
prisoners?
A. Robert Hooke 104. Which of these structures do prokaryotes
and eukaryotes share?
B. Gregor Mendel
A. Nucleus
C. Theodor Schleiden
B. Cell wall
D. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
C. Organelles
99. Many scientists classify viruses as non- D. Ribosomes
living. The single, MOST important reason
why viruses are classified as non-living is 105. Who discovered and named cells while
that they looking at cork?
A. Captain Hook
A. do not contain nuclei
B. Robert Hooke
B. are not composed of cells
C. Matthais Schleiden
C. are not able to reproduce
D. Rudolf Virchow
D. do not contain nucleic acid
106. Which of the following statements is NOT
100. What did Schleiden and Schwann dis- part of the cell theory?
agree on?
A. The cell is the basic unit of life.
A. How cells were formed.
B. All organisms are composed of cells.
B. If cells were real C. All cells come from the division of pre-
C. What a cell is vious existing cells.
D. Everything is made up of cells D. All cells are made up of tissue.

2.1 Cell Theory 134
107. A tiny cell structure that carries out a spe- C. organization

cific function within a cell.
D. response to stimuli
A. organelle
B. cell 113. Rocks are not living because
C. nucleus A. they never move
D. ribosomes B. they aren’t needed for humans
108. Who was Rudolf Virchow? C. they are not made of cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. He created the term “The Cell.” D. they don’t break down
B. He discovered that all animals are
made of cells. 114. Rudolph Virchow’s observations helped
to disprove was commonly held belief of
C. He discovered that all plants are made the time?
of cells.
A. evolution
D. He discovered that all cells come from
preexisting cells. B. the existence of molecules
109. A doctor who stated that all living cells C. spontaneous generation
come from other living cells (part 3 of the D. atomic models
cell theory)
A. Hooke 115. Who was the first contribution to the Cell
Theory?
B. Schwann
A. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
C. Van Leewenhoek
D. Virchow B. Robert Hooke
C. Matthias Schleiden
110. Convinced others that cells come only
from other cells. D. Theodor Schwann
A. Schleiden
116. Vacuoles remove waste in a cell. In an an-
B. Hooke imal, which organ system performs a com-
C. Schwann parable function?
D. Virchow A. Circulatory system
111. All cells come from cells. B. Integumentary system
A. pregnant C. Excretory system
B. pre-existing D. Skeletal
C. paternal
117. What did Leeuwenhoek call his findings
D. pin size
A. Mitochondria
112. Adjusting to changes in internal and ex-
ternal environments. B. Animalcules
A. homeostasis C. Cell
B. growth D. Cell wall

2.1 Cell Theory 135
118. Homeostasis in a cell is a way for a cell B. mitochondrion

to stay
C. ribosome

A. Growing
D. none of above
B. Balanced
C. Dividing 124. Which scientist concluded all plants are
made of cells?
D. Protected
A. Leewenhoek
119. Who took credit for the conclusion that
B. Shwann
all cells come from preexisting cells by bor-
rowing the work of another scientist and C. Shleiden
publishing it as their own? D. Virchow
A. Robert Remak
125. The invention of the made it possi-
B. Rudolf Virchow
ble for people to discover and learn about
C. Robert Hooke cells.
D. No of these A. Telescope
120. which microscope gives a 3-D view of an B. Graduated cylinder
object, we can look at living things
C. Calculator
A. stereo
D. Microscope
B. compound
C. electron 126. The is the basic unit of structure and
function of living organisms
D. none of above
A. atom
121. Evolution is
B. cell
A. a quick change in a species
C. matter
B. no change in a species
D. all other answers are correct
C. change in a species over time
D. the interaction of living things and 127. What did Schwann conclude?
their environment A. All living things have cells
122. A group of cells that have similar func- B. All plants have cells
tions? Examples are nervous, epithelial,
C. The Mitochondria is the powerhouse of
muscle and connective
the cell
A. cells
D. Cells come from pe-existing cells
B. tissues
C. organs 128. Where do cells come from?
D. atoms A. Dead cells

B. Soil
123. Which organelle is the control center of a
cell? C. Outer space
A. nucleus D. Other living existing cells

2.1 Cell Theory 136
129. Something that has never shown the C. the light microscope
characteristics of life and never will. D. the scanning electron microscope
A. dormant
135. Which scientist first viewed LIVING cells
B. nonliving
underneath a microscope?
C. living
A. Robert Hooke
D. dead
B. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
NARAYAN CHANGDER
130. This is the most basic unit of life C. Matthias Schleiden
A. atom D. Theodore Schwann
B. cell
136. Which one is NOT part of the cell theory?
C. nucleus
A. Cells are the basic unit of life
D. DNA
B. All cells come from preexisting cells
131. What does the “ B “ mean in the ABC cell
C. All living things are made up of atoms
theory
D. All living things are made up of cells
A. cells come from pre existing cells
B. All living things are made of one or 137. Who was Theodor Schwann?
more cells
A. He discovered that all animals were
C. Cells are the (basic) unit of life made of cells.
D. none of above B. He discovered that all cells come form
preexisting cells.
132. Which scientist stated “all animals are
made of cells”? C. He discovered that all Plants are made
of cells.
A. Jansen
D. Came up with the term “The Cell.”
B. Schwann
C. Schleiden 138. What does “ A” mean in the ABC of cell
theory
D. Hooke
A. All living things are made up of one or
133. Which statement best describes a bacte- more cells
rial cell?
B. Cells are the ( basic) unit of life
A. It contains more than one cell.
C. Cells come rom pre existing cells
B. It is a complete organism.
D. none of above
C. It is part of a larger organism.
D. It contains different kinds of cells. 139. What was Robert Hooke looking at in a
microscope when he discovered the cell?
134. Which invention from the 17th century al-
A. Skin
lowed for the development of modern cell
theory? B. Fur
A. x-rays C. Cork
B. computers D. Leaf

2.1 Cell Theory 137
140. Which scientist observed animal cells and 146. Cell theory states “All living things
came to the conclusion that all animals
A. are made of many cells.”
were made of cells?

A. Anton van Leuwenhoek B. are made of one or more cells.”
B. Robert Hooke C. are made of carbon.”

C. Matthias Schleiden D. are made of atoms. “
D. Theodor Schwann
147. This is surrounded by a cell membrane
141. A group of tissues that perform a similar A. Eukaryotic Cell
function is called (Examples include the
heart, lungs or stomach) B. Prokaryotic Cell
A. cells C. Both
B. tissues D. Neither
C. organs
148. Cell theory also states that
D. organ system
A. bacteria are eukaryotic cells
142. Viruses CANNOT
B. animals are prokaryotic cells
A. be crystallized
C. cells come from other cells (cell divi-
B. live in bacteria
sion or splitting apart)
C. reproduce on their own
D. cells are awesome!
D. cause disease in plants
143. Who looked at cork and named the cell? 149. Heart muscle is BEST described as
A. Robert Hooke A. the same kind of cells working to-

gether.
B. Van Leeuwenhoek
B. different systems working together.
C. Robert Brown
D. Francesco Redi C. the same kind of organs forming a sys-
tem.
144. Who concluded that all cells come from
D. different organs performing a func-
existing cells?
tion.
A. Leewenhoek
B. Virchow 150. Which is not true of the cell theory?
C. Schleiden A. All living organisms are composed of
D. Hooke cells.
B. All cells have a nucleus, which acts like
145. All existing cells are produced by other the brain of the cell.
A. living pre-existing cells
C. All cells come from preexisting living
B. dead cells cells.
C. atom cells D. The cell is the most basic part of a liv-
D. animal cells ing organism.

2.1 Cell Theory 138
151. German botanist who determined plants B. Virchow

are composed of cells. C. Schleiden
A. Hooke D. none of above
B. Schwann
157. An amoeba is a one-celled organism.
C. Schleiden Which of the statements about amoebas is
D. Virchow supported by the cell theory? An amoeba-
A. has a globular, undefined size and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
152. According to Cell Theory, which of the fol-
lowing is a correct statement about mush- shape.
rooms (which are fungi) and a person B. moves slowly using a pseudopod.
(which is an animal)? C. contains organelles called chloro-
A. They reproduce in the same way plasts.
B. They are made from cells D. must obtain energy and releases
waste.
C. They undergo photosynthesis
D. They can quickly evolve 158. Who said cells come preexisting cells?
A. Mattias
153. Who created the first microscope?
B. Schleiden
A. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
C. Schwann
B. Matthias Schleiden
D. Virchow
C. Robert Hooke
D. Theodor Schwann 159. What is a multi-cellular organism
A. An organism with made up of one cell
154. Who was the first to describe and name
cells while viewing dead plant cells? B. An Organism with made up of 2 or
more cells
A. Hooke
C. A bacteria
B. Schliden
D. A molecule without any cells
C. Schwann
D. Virchow 160. Which statement is a part of the cell the-
ory?
155. Identify the characteristics of life:“Eating A. all cells come from preexisting cells
a good breakfast and getting plenty of
sleep will help the athlete run longer.” B. bacteria are prokaryotic cells
A. Growth C. eukaryotic cells are complex
B. Reproduction D. humans are multicellular
C. Use Energy 161. Who first observed that all animals are
D. Homeostasis made of cells?
A. Robert Hooke
156. Who was the first person to view and
name “cells” when he observed cork B. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
cells? C. Matthias Schleiden
A. Hooke D. Theodor Schwann

2.1 Cell Theory 139
162. Which of the following is not under the C. contain water

Cell Theory? D. none of above

A. Cells are the basic unit of life
168. What theory suggests that life comes
B. All organisms are made up of cells from non-living matter?
C. Cells came from other cells A. Cell Theory
D. A cell is an indestructible particle B. Spontaneous Generation
163. The discovery and creation of which piece C. Miasma Theory
of equipment led to the discovery of cells? D. Endosymbiotic Theory
A. telescope
169. Which scientist created the first com-
B. microscope
pound microscope that was later used to
C. periscope observe cells?
D. blahblahscope A. Schwann
164. Which statement below is true? B. Virchow
A. Cells pop out from nowhere C. Leeuwenhoek
B. All cells come from pre-existing cells D. Jansen
C. Cells are created from thin air 170. Who looked at cork under the microscope
D. Cells come from dead cells. and created the name “cell” for the struc-
tures he saw?
165. Which scientist invented the very first op-
A. Robert Hooke
tical microscopes and was also the first
person to view single-celled organisms liv- B. Van Leeuwenhoek
ing in pond water? C. Robert Brown
A. Robert Hooke D. Francesco Redi
B. Theodor Schwann
171. Which is NOT part of the Cell Theory?
C. Mattias Schleiden
A. All cells come from existing cells
D. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
B. Microscopic organisms are not made
166. Which of the following statements sup- of cells
ports the cell theory as it is stated today? C. All living things are made of one or
A. Not all cells are alive. more cells
B. Cells must contain a nucleus. D. Cells are the basic unit of structure
C. All abiotic are composed of more than and function in living things
one cell 172. This scientist concluded that plants are
D. Cells come from preexisting cells made of cells:
through cell division. A. Virchow
167. Enzymes are important because they B. Schwann
A. contain genetic material C. Schleiden
B. speed up chemical reactions D. Leeunwenhoek

2.1 Cell Theory 140
173. Which of the following is NOT one of the 178. The Cell Theory states:I. All living things
main tenets of the cell theory? must have a cell wallII. All living cells re-
A. Cells must contain DNA quire glucose for survivalIII. The basic unit
of life is a cell
B. All living things are made of cells
A. I only
C. Cells can only come from other cells
B. II only
D. Cells are the basic unit of life
C. III only
NARAYAN CHANGDER
174. Cells are the basic structural and func-
D. I and III
tional units of life.
A. Plants have cells but animals do not. 179. Which one of the following characteris-
B. They are both made of one or more tics must a cell have in order to be clas-
cells. sified as a eukaryotic cell?
C. They both come from the same kind of A. Two or more circular chromosomes
cell. B. No membrane bound organelles
D. They both come from a non-living or- C. A cytoskeleton attached to the cell
ganism. membrane
175. Who was Zacharias Jansen? D. A cell wall made of cellulose
A. He created the first compound micro-
180. Which tool could help you see a plant
scope.
cell?
B. Discovered that all plants are made of
A. filter
cells.
C. Discovered the first living cells and B. microwave
called them animalcules. C. microscope
D. Discovered that all animals are made D. electromagnet
of cells.
181. A cat is living because
176. Which of the following are characteristics
of living things (characteristics of life)? A. it breathes
A. breathing, eating, evolving B. it reproduces on its own
B. movement, response to stimuli, en- C. it eats
ergy D. all of these are correct
C. growing, homeostasis, reproduction
182. which microscope has 2 lenses, the speci-
D. energy, cells, a brain
men must be very thin for the light to shine
177. Animal and Plant Cells are through
A. Shopkoytes A. electron
B. Eukaryotes B. stereoscope
C. Prokaryotes C. compound
D. The building blocks of non-living things D. none of above

2.1 Cell Theory 141
183. Which of these is NOT part of the cell the- 188. Why did Robert Hooke name them cells?
ory
A. Because they reminded him of the cells

A. All cells come from pre existing cells monks slept in.
B. All living things are made of cells B. Because he thought it was a cool name.
C. Cells are the basic unit of life
D. Cells are microscopic C. Because they are small like a cell.
D. none of above
184. Scientist who first observed living cells in
pond water; called cells animalcules 189. Which scientist discovered the existence
A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek of cells by looking at pieces of cork under
a microscope?
B. Robert Hooke
A. Robert Hooke
C. Robert Brown
B. Theodor Schwann
D. Zacharias Janssen
C. Anton Van Leuwenhoek
185. What is the function of a cell wall?
A. to protect and support the cell
B. to prevent oxygen from entering the 190. Which of the following scientists stated
cell that “All cells come from pre-existing
cells”? His idea was stolen by Virchow.
C. to perform different function in each
cell A. Remak
D. none of above B. Schwann

C. Schleiden
186. Which of the following does NOT cor-
rectly correspond to the Endosymbiotic D. Jansen
Theory?
191. Stores food and water for the cell.
A. Prokaryotic cells evolved before eu-
karyotic cells. A. Cytoplasm
B. The mitochondria was once a prokary- B. Cell Wall

otic cell. C. Vacuole
C. The centriole was once a prokaryotic D. Nucleus
cell.
D. The chloroplast was once a prokary- 192. If it does not rain for a long period of
otic cell. time, plants’ leaves will begin to wilt or
sag. They have used up the water that
187. This is an organism made of one cell. they stored in their
A. multicellular A. Vacuole
B. unicellular B. Chloroplast
C. colonial C. Mitochondria
D. plant kingdom D. none of above

2.1 Cell Theory 142
193. Which scientist is recognized for improv- B. Golgi Body

ing the microscope lens? C. Vacuole
A. Hooke D. Cytoplasm
B. Leeuwenhoek
199. This scientist proposed that all cells come
C. Schwann
from other cells:
D. Virchow
A. Leeunwenhoek
NARAYAN CHANGDER
194. Sieve-tube cells and companion cells B. Schleiden
work together totransport sugar and nu-
C. Schwann
trients inside plants. Together, sieve tube
cells and companion cells form- D. Virchow
A. Tissue 200. Which is not a part of cell theory?
B. Organ A. All organisms are made of cells
C. Organ System B. All existing cells come from preexist-
D. Organism ing cells
195. A substance that cannot be broken down C. All matter is composed of living cells
into simpler elements is a(n) D. The cell is the most basic unit of life
A. carbohydrate 201. Which of the following is NOT a function
B. particle of all living things?
C. element A. reproduction
D. none of above B. growth
196. Who was the first scientist to view divid- C. movement
ing cells D. use of energy
A. Leewenhoek
202. Who discovered that all cells come from
B. Virchow other living cells and had research that
C. Schwann lead to the last major principle of cell the-
ory?
D. Hooke
A. Matthias Schleiden
197. Why are microscopes important when
B. Theodore Schwann
studying most cells?
C. Robert Hooke
A. Most cells are very large.
D. Rudolf Virchow
B. Most cells are very small.
C. Most cells move very quickly. 203. Who proposed that all animals are made
of cells?
D. Most cells are dead.
A. Virchow
198. What is the name of the gel-like fluid that
is found between the cell membrane and B. Leeuwenhoek
the nucleus? C. Schwann
A. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Schliden

2.1 Cell Theory 143
204. What did Hooke first examine? C. is the smallest unit that can perform
A. Pond water all the processes necessary for life

B. Plant cells D. none of above
C. Cork 210. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of
D. Animal fat life?
205. What structures are all living things com- A. movement

posed of? B. ability to reproduce
A. Eukaryotes C. maintain homeostasis
B. Prokaryotes D. responds to stimuli
C. Cells
211. What is the smallest unit considered to
D. Organs be alive?
206. Lastly cell theory states A. Tissues
A. cells don’t do much B. Atoms
B. cells are microscopic C. Cells
C. all living things are made up of cells D. Organisms
(either unicellular or multicellular)
D. bacteria aren’t cells 212. What type of cell are bacteria?
A. Prokaryotic
207. The is the basic unit of sturucture and
function of organisms B. Eukaryotic
A. atom C. Neither
B. cell D. none of above
C. matter
213. Which of the following is stated in the cell
D. all other answers are correct theory?
208. Which botanist observed plans under a A. Cells cannot be classified into prokary-
microscope and noticed that all plants otes and eukaryotes
were made of cells? B. Viruses are the smallest cells
C. Not all cells have nuclei
B. Robert Hooke
D. All living things are made of one or
C. Robert Remak more cells.
D. Theodor Schwann
214. Life comes from non-living molecules is
209. Prokaryotic known as
A. are single celled organisms that do not A. Abiogenesis
have a nucleus or membrane bound or-
B. Biogenesis
ganelles
B. a protective layer that covers the the C. Endosymbiosis
cells surface and acts as a barrier D. none of above

2.1 Cell Theory 144
215. Plants captures solar energy to make 220. Who discovered that cells come from pre-
their own food in a process called photo- existing cells and whose research lead to
synthesis. This is an example of which the major principles of cell theory?
characteristics of life?
A. obtain and use energy B. Robert Hooke
B. cellular organization C. Zacharias Janssen
C. growth and development D. Rudolf Virchow
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. adaptation through evolution
221. In an organism, the brain directs the body
216. Matthias Schleiden studied what kind of how to respond to stimuli from the envi-
living thing? ronment. In a cell, this function is per-
formed by the-
A. Cows
A. cell membrane.
B. Animals in general
B. chloroplasts.
C. Plants
C. mitochondria.
D. Fungi
D. nucleus.
217. What did Schwann make his research
222. Which one of the following is a character-
with?
istic of life?
A. Animal tissues
A. Photosynthesis
B. A cork
B. Adapting to your environment/ sur-
C. A plant sample roundings
D. none of above C. Expelling toxins
D. Breathing
218. Cells in many-celled organisms
A. all look the same 223. He advanced the cell theory with his con-
clusion that cells could only come from
B. are often quite different from each
other cells:
other
A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
C. are the same size in every part of the
organism B. Rudolph Virchow
D. none of above C. Theodor Schwann
D. Robert Hooke
219. Who was the first person to see cells
under a microscope and give them the 224. Which scientists helped contribute to cell
name? theory?
A. Anton van Leeuwekhoek A. Schleiden, Schwann, and Virchow
B. Robert Hooke B. Hooke, Darwin, and Schwann
C. Theodor Schwann C. Schleiden, Pasture, and Watson
D. Matthias Schleiden D. Virchow, Watson, and Crick

2.1 Cell Theory 145
225. The idea that all living things are com- 231. All living things
posed of cells, the cell is the basic unit of
A. are made of cells
structure and function, and all cells come

from cells is known as the B. are organisms
A. Theory of relativity C. need energy
B. Agenda Theory
D. all of the above
C. Cell Theory
D. Theory of naturalization 232. A group of the same type of cells that
work together for a purpose are called-
226. Which of the following is NOT a part of
the cell theory. A. a tissue
A. All non-living things are made of cells B. an organ
B. All cells come from pre-existing cells
C. an organ system
C. Cells are the basic unit of structure
and function of all living things D. an unicellular organism
D. none of above
233. Which of the following is not part of the
227. The most basic unit of life is cell theory?
A. a cell A. cells must contain DNA
B. an organ
B. all living things are made from cells
C. an organ system
C. cells can only come from other cells
D. a tissue
D. cells are the basic unit of life
228. Which scientist gave cells their name?
A. Schwann 234. Anton van Leeuwenhoek made his own
B. Von Leeuwenhoek version of the microscope and discovered
something very odd when he looked a the
C. Hooke
gunk on his teeth. What did he discover?
D. Virchow
A. Cells
229. Reproduction that involves two parents.
B. Bacteria
A. sexual
B. asexual C. Cavities
C. creates clones D. Influenza

D. leads to extinction
235. Process of becoming larger by adding
230. The invention of the microscope made it cells and/or by increasing cell size.
possible for people to discover
A. Growth
A. skin
B. Reproduction
B. plants
C. cells C. Response to Stimuli
D. none of above D. Homeostasis

2.1 Cell Theory 146
236. Which of the following structures would C. cell wall

be used to identify a prokaryotic cell?
D. golgi body
A. cell membrane, nucleus, and DNA
B. cell wall, flagella, and chloroplasts 242. The jellylike substance that contains pro-
teins, nucleic acids, minerals, ions, and or-
C. cytoplasm, smooth and rough endo- ganelles is what?
plasmic reticulum
A. Prokaryote
D. cell membrane, ribosomes, and a chro-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mosome B. Nucleus
237. the photosynthesis equation is C. Cytoplasm
A. 6CO2+6H2O+sunlight C6H12O6+6O2 D. Eukaryote
243. Which is NOT a part of cell theory?

B. nothing
A. Anything that moves is made of cells
C. H2O
B. All cells come from other cellsAll cells
D. CO2
come from other cells
238. Prokaryotic cells do not have C. All living things are made of cells
A. DNA D. Cells are the basic units of structure &
B. Cell Membrane function
C. Cytoplasm
244. Unlike the cell wall, the cell membrane
D. Nucleus
A. is made of chromatin
239. Who first observed that all plants are
B. produces energy for the cell
made of cells?
A. Robert Hooke C. is found in all cells
B. Anton van Leeuwenhoek D. none of above

C. Matthias Schleiden 245. What does “C “ mean in the ABC cell the-
D. Theodor Schwann ory
240. Which is NOT an example of a single- A. Cells are the (basic) unit of life
celled organism? B. Cells come from pre existing cells
A. Parameicum C. all living things are made of one or
B. Triceratium more cells
C. Protozoa D. none of above
D. Euglena
246. Organelles are
241. This thin layer protects the cell and regu- A. the same as organs
lates what substances enter and leave the
cell. B. small specialized structures in a cell
A. cell membrane C. particles that make an atom
B. cell D. not really important

2.1 Cell Theory 147
247. What are all living things made of? B. Hooke and Schwann
A. DNA C. Virchow and Hooke

B. organs D. Schwann and Leuwenhoek
C. cells 253. The cell theory was NOT complete until
D. organ systems Rudolph Virchow discovered that
248. Genetic information is stored in the nu- A. Cells are alive.

cleus of all single or multicellular cells B. There are 2 types of cells:Prokaryotic
called and Eukaryotic.
A. Eukaryotes C. The cell is found in both plants and an-
imals.
B. Prokaryotes
D. All cells come preexisting living cells.
C. Organelles
D. Cytoplasm 254. The plasma membrane’s main role in the
cell is
249. Which scientist first observed living cells
A. getting rid of waste
and was later accredited for discovering
bacteria? B. organizing molecules
A. Robert Hooke C. metabolizing food
B. Anton van Leuwehoek D. maintaining homeostasis
C. Matthias Schleiden 255. Which macromolecule(s) have the ele-
D. Robert Remak ments Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen?
A. Proteins & Nucleic Acids
250. When many organ systems work to-
gether it can form B. Carbohydrates & Lipids
A. organ C. Lipids & Proteins
B. cells D. Carbohydrates & Nucleic Acids
C. organ system 256. Which scientist discovered that all cells
D. organism come from the division of pre-existing
cells?
251. This scientist proposed that all cells come A. Theodor Schwann
from other cells (the third part of the cell
theory): B. Robert Remak
A. Leeunwenhoek C. Robert Hooke
B. Schleiden D. Matthias Schleiden
C. Schwann 257. Cell theory states that
D. Virchow A. cells are the basic building block of life
252. The two scientists responsible for discov-

ering that both plant and animal tissue is B. cells are cool
madeof cells are ? C. cells are microscopic
A. Schwann and Schleiden D. cells cannot be destroyed

2.1 Cell Theory 148
258. Which of the following is NOT one of the B. Cell organelles are the smallest units
main components of the cell theory? of life.
A. Cells must contain DNA C. All cells have the same internal struc-
B. All living things are made of cells tures.
C. Cells can only come from other cells D. All living things are made up of cells.
D. Cells are the basic unit of life 264. This is only single-celled
A. Eukaryotic Cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
259. A group of cells that work together is
called B. Prokaryotic cell
A. an organ C. Both
B. tissue D. Neither
C. an organism
265. Which is NOT consistent with Cell The-
D. an organ system ory?
260. What is the function of a cell membrane? A. All cells come from pre-existing cells
A. to control which substances enter and B. All living things are made of cells
leave the cell C. All cells are identical in structure and
B. to perform different functions in each function
cell D. Cells are the basic units of structure
C. to form a hard outer covering for the and function
cell
266. Who named and discovered the cell?
D. none of above
A. Democritus
261. The third part of cell theory states:“All B. Matthias Schleiden
cells come from prehistoric cells.”
C. Robert Hooke
A. False
D. Rudolf Virchow
B. True
C. Yep 267. Which typeof cell has membrane bound
organelle?
D. Not even close
A. Prokaryotic cells
262. Who proposed that all plants are made of
B. Bacteria cells
cells?
C. Eukaryotic cells
A. Hooke
D. E-coli bacterium
B. Leeuwenhoek
C. Schliden 268. Scientist who proposed that cells come
from other cells.
D. Schwann
A. Theodor Schwann
263. Which statement about the cell theory is
correct? B. Mathias Schleiden
A. New cells form from old cells that have C. Rudolf Virchow
died. D. Robert Hooke

2.1 Cell Theory 149
269. Sugar molecules can combine with one an- D. none of above
other to form large molecules called
275. There are three principles of the Cell The-

A. starches
ory. Which of the following is NOT one?
B. proteins
A. Cells are the basic structure and func-
C. enzymes tion of life.
D. none of above
B. All living things are made of one or
270. Which of the following is NOT a charac- more cells.
teristic of all living things? C. The cell is the basic unit of matter.
A. growth and development
B. ability to move
C. response to the environment 276. How small are viruses?
D. ability to reproduce A. Microscopic
271. Cell Theory states: B. Sub-microscopic

A. All living cells must have a cell wall. C. As big as Bacteria
B. All living cells require glucose for sur- D. As big as Animal Cells
vival.
277. Who proposed that all cells come from
C. Cells are the basic units of life for a
pre-existing cells after viewing cell divi-
cell.
sion using a microscope?
D. All cells contain a nucleus
A. Virchow
272. Which of the following is NOT a function
B. Leeuwenhoek
of the cell?
A. Sleeping C. Hooke
B. Reproduction D. Schwann
C. Protection 278. The basic unit of life is the
D. Growth
A. Atom
273. what did Schleiden conclude? B. Cell
A. All animals have cells C. Compound
B. All plants have cells
D. Energy
C. All plants have Chlorophyll
D. All animals have a cell wall 279. Similar types of cells form tissues. What
is the next level of complexity formed
274. Which is a statement of the Cell Theory? from the grouping of tissues?
A. An object in motion stays in motion un- A. organs
less something stops it
B. organelles
B. Cells come from pre-existing cells
C. organisms
C. All living things are NOT composed of
cells D. organ systems

2.1 Cell Theory 150
280. Cells come only from what? 285. Reproduction that only involves one par-
ent.
A. existing cells
A. sexual
B. nucleus
B. asexual
C. fission
C. impossible
D. budding
D. increases genetic diversity
281. The levels of organization from the sim-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
286. what is the control center in a cell
plest to the most complex are
A. mitochondria
A. Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems,
organism B. DNA
B. Organisms, organs, tissues, cells, or- C. nucleus
gan systems D. movement
C. Cells, organs, organ systems, tissues, 287. are the basic unit of living things.
organism
A. Kittens
D. Tissues, cells, organs, organism
B. Organisms
282. What did the cells Hooke discovered re- C. Cells
mind him of? (Why did he name them
D. Organelles
cells?)
A. It reminded him of his mother 288. Robert Hooke said that the cork looked
like
B. It reminded him of sugar cubes
A. tiny rooms
C. It reminded him of his favorite band
B. large sections
D. It reminded him of little rooms
C. tiny goats
283. Two examples of organ systems in the D. large lamas
human body are-
289. The basic unit of structure and function in
A. digestive system and respiratory sys- a living things.
tem
A. chloroplast
B. circulatory system and fluid system
B. nucleus
C. blood system and food system
C. cell
D. nervous system and stomach system
D. cell membrane
284. Which term refers to the diffusion of wa- 290. The scientist who first see and identify
ter molecules through a selectively perme- the cork “cells” using a microscope was
able membrane?
A. engulfing A. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
B. active transport B. Robert Hooke
C. osmosis C. Robert Brown
D. none of above D. Matthias Schleiden

2.1 Cell Theory 151
291. Which scientist determined that all plants C. Prokaryotic

are made up of one or more cells?
D. Eukaryotic

A. Robert Hooke
B. Theodor Schwann 297. What does “cells come from other cells”
mean?
A. When cells move they need another
D. Robert Virchow
cell to go with it.
292. Which term refers to the movement of B. Cells can be created out of thin air.
materials through a cell membrane with-
out using the cell’s energy? C. Cells are only created by other cells.
A. passive transport D. Animal cells come from plant cells.

B. collision 298. The is the smallest structural and
C. active transport functional unit of a living thing.
D. none of above A. cell
293. Who are the three scientists credited B. mitochondria
with creating the Cell Theory? C. nucleus
A. Schlieden, Schwann, Virchow D. golgi body
B. Schindler, Schmeil, Vanderhoot
C. Schwimmer, Shanazzek, Van Halen 299. Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes do not
have:
D. none of above
A. DNA
294. Which organelles release chemicals that
B. cytoplasm
break down large food particles into
smaller ones? C. cell walls
A. vacuoles D. a membrane bound nucleus
B. lysosmes
300. What type of cells do not have ANY mem-
C. Golgi bodies brane bound organelles?
D. none of above A. Eukaryotic cells
295. Single-celled organisms can function like B. Prokaryotic cells
the nervous system of an organism be-
C. Human cells
cause they have the ability to-
A. respond to stimuli. D. Mitochondria cells
B. remove wastes. 301. The basic units of structure and function
C. obtain energy. for both plants and animals are
D. produce energy A. cells
296. First type of cell to appear on Earth? B. organs

A. Plant C. systems
B. Animal D. tissues

2.1 Cell Theory 152
302. Which type of cell is larger? 307. Which scientist was the first to discover
cells in 1665?
A. Eukaryote
A. Robert Hooke
B. Bacteria
B. Anton van Leewenhoek
C. Prokaryote
C. Schwann
D. Protist
D. Schleiden
303. A gazelle running away from a hunting
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lion is an example of 308. also known as the “powerhouse”
A. homeostasis A. cell membrane
B. responding to stimuli B. storage
C. growing and developing C. cytoskeleton
D. reproducing D. mitochondria
304. What is cell theory? 309. Which scientist was the first to discover
cells and coined the term “cells”?
A. A scientific theory that describes the
properties in cells A. Rudolf Virchow
B. The theory that represents the outside B. Matthias Schleiden
of cells C. Robert Hooke
C. The theory that describes the move- D. Anton van Leewenhoek
ment of a cell
310. This contains a nucleus
D. All the above
A. Eukaryotic Cell
305. What was Hans and Zacharias Janssen
B. Prokaryotic cell
contribution to the creation of the cell the-
ory? C. Both
A. They discovered cells D. Neither
B. They created compound microscopes 311. All cells
so cells could be seen
A. come from other dead cells
C. They came up with the Theory of Spon-
taneous Generation B. come from other living cells
D. They determined all cells come from C. crystallize out of the air
other cells. D. none of above
306. Which of the follow is not a system which 312. This scientist observed live cells and ob-
works to make up a human being? served greater detail:
A. Nervous system A. Hooke
B. Skeletal system B. Leeunwenhoek
C. Sleep system C. Virchow
D. Circulatory system D. Schwann

2.1 Cell Theory 153
313. How does magnification occur in an elec- 319. What type of cells HAVE membrane
tron microscope? bound organelles?

A. an electron beam creates an image A. Eukaryotic cells
B. light is reflected by an electron beam B. Prokaryotic cells
C. light is changed into electrons by a con-
C. Chloroplast cells
vex lense
D. none of above D. Mitochondria cells
314. What did Leeuwenhoek examine? 320. Who modified the Cell Theory after
A. Cork Schleiden and Schwann had concluded it?
B. Pond water A. Marie Curie
C. Plant cells B. Rudolf Virchow
D. Animal fat C. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
315. Who discovered and named cells? D. Nikola Tesla
A. Captain Hook
321. Who first observed living cells and mi-
B. Robert Hooke
croorganisms and called them “tiny ani-
C. Zacharias Janssen malcules?”
D. Rudolf Virchow A. Robert Hooke
316. All organisms are made of: B. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
A. organelles C. Matthias Schleiden
B. cytoplasm
D. Theodor Schwann
C. DNA
D. cells 322. A tulip opens in the morning at sunrise
and closes in the evening at sunset.
317. The first part of the cell theory states
that all organisms are composed (made of) A. All living things have cells
B. All living things use energy
A. one or more cells
C. All living things respond to their envi-
B. millions of cells ronment
C. one cell D. All living things grow
D. atoms
323. The Cell Theory states
318. Water, wind, rocks are examples of what
type of factor? A. atoms create all matter
A. Abiotic B. living things evolve
B. Biotic C. the cell is the backbone of all matter
C. Unicellular D. cells are the basic unit of structure and
D. Multicellular organization of organisms

2.1 Cell Theory 154
324. Which of the following best describes the 329. Which of these scientists was the first
function of mitochondria? person to observe what are now called
A. they convert energy from food bacteria?
molecules into energy the cell can use A. Anton von Leeuwenhoek
B. Matthias Schleiden
B. they store energy from sunlight
C. Rudolf Virchow
C. they produce nucleic acids that re-
D. Robert Hooke
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lease energy
D. none of above 330. Which organelle controls what goes into
and out of the cell?
325. What happened that allowed cells to be
studied? A. Cell wall
A. Cells increased in size. B. Nucleus
B. Scientists began to work together. C. Cytoplasm
C. Scientists became smarter. D. Cell membrane
D. The microscope was invented and im-
proved. 331. The second part of the Cell Theory states
326. Who settled the argument between A. atoms create all matter
Schleiden and Schwann?
B. living things evolve
A. Robert Hooke
C. the cell is the backbone of all matter
B. Rudolf Virchow
D. cells are the basic unit of structure and
C. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
organization of organisms (cells are the
D. Charles Darwin basic building blocks of life)
327. He discovered that all plants were made 332. Which scientist discovered unicellular or-
of cells, which contributed to the develop- ganisms and called them “animalcules” be-
ment of the cell theory: cause they reminded him of tiny animals?
A. Anton van Leeuwenhoek A. Schleiden
B. Robert Hooke
B. Schwann
C. Theodor Schwann
C. Leewenhoek
D. Hooke
328. Who noted that all animals are made of
cells and helped write the first two parts 333. Scientist who proposed that all animals
of cell theory? are made of cells
A. Rudolf Virchow A. Theodor Schwann

B. Anton van Leeuwenhoek B. Rudolf Virchow
C. Theodor Schwann C. Mathias Schleiden
D. Robert Hooke D. Robert Hooke

2.1 Cell Theory 155
334. Which of the following is NOT a premise C. Two

of the cell theory?I. All cells arise from
D. Five
other cellsII. All living things require wa-

ter for survivalIII. All living things are only 340. The best size for a cell is:
composed of cells
A. Small
A. I only
B. Medium
B. II only
C. I and II C. Large
D. II and III D. Submicroscopic
335. What caused scientists to discover the 341. What did Schleiden and Schwann both dis-
existence of cells? cover individually?
A. the invention of the microscope A. Spontaneous generation of cells is an
B. the invention of the telescope incorrect theory
C. the invention of the stereoscope B. All living things are composed of one
or more cells
D. the invention of the toothbrushoscope
C. All cells have organelles
336. What tool do you use to view cells?
D. All living things engage in metabolic
A. metric ruler functions
B. magnifying glass
C. microscope 342. Cell theory is one of the great unifying
theories of
D. petri dish
A. biology
337. When observing cells, which of the fol-
B. chemistry
lowing pieces of equipment is most appro-
priate? C. physics
A. Hand lens D. physical science
B. Telescope
343. All living things
C. Petri dish
A. Move
D. Microscope
B. Use energy (eat)
338. The basic unit of life is called a (n)
C. All of these are correct
A. atom
D. Need water
B. compound
C. cell 344. All living things to make more living
things.
D. energy
A. reproduce
339. How many principles to the cell Theory
are there? B. develop
A. Three C. grow
B. Four D. adapt

2.1 Cell Theory 156
345. are the basic unit of life. C. number of mitochondria

A. DNA D. cell count
B. RNA
351. This is the smallest unit of an organism;
C. Cells it is enclosed by a membrane and performs
D. Takis life functions.
A. Atoms
346. Which term refers to the movement of
B. Cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
materials through a cell membrane when
the cell’s energy is required? C. Matter
A. osmosis D. Elements
B. passive transport
352. What was Robert Hooke’s contribution
C. active transport to cells?
D. none of above A. He developed the cell theory.
347. Who came to the conclusion after much B. He first used the term “cell” to de-
study and observation that all cells are cre- scribe what he was seeing.
ated by other living cells? C. He said that cells come from other
A. Robert Hooke cells.
B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek D. He was the first person to build a mi-
croscope.
D. Robert Remak 353. The cell theory was developed as a result
of which of the following?
348. Specialized cells are found only in
A. The sole use of a microscope in labs
A. many-celled organisms
B. Observations and conclusions of many
B. bacteria scientists
C. animals C. An English scientist, Robert Hooke
D. none of above D. A Dutch scientist, Anton Van Leeuwen-
hoek
349. If a cell contains a cell membrane, a cell
wall, and ribosomes, what kind of cell 354. Cells were first identified by Robert
could it be? Hooke in the 1600’s, in which speci-
A. Prokaryotic cell only mens?
B. Eukaryotic cell only A. leaf of a sweet pea
C. Either a prokaryotic or eukaryotic cell B. wings of a fruit fly
D. Neither a prokaryotic or eukaryotic C. cells of wine cork
cell D. single celled organisms
350. Cells are shaped according to their 355. Which is NOT a part of the cell theory?
A. size A. Cells are the basic building block for liv-
B. function ing things.

2.1 Cell Theory 157
B. All living things are made up of one or 361. What are the two types of cells?
more cells. A. Prokaryotic & Eukaryotic

C. Animal cells are more advanced than B. Bacteria & Eukaryotic
plant cells.
C. Eukaryotic
D. Cells come from other cells.
D. Animal & Plant
356. A gel-like fluid in which many different
organelles are found. 362. This scientist used flies and meat to de-
termine how maggots were created.
A. cell membrane
A. Francesco Redi
B. nucleus
B. Leeuwenhoek
C. organelle
C. Needham
D. cytoplasm
D. Spallanzani
357. Why is a microscope the most appropri-
363. A group of different tissues working to-
ate tool when studying most cells?
gether is-
A. Most cells are very large.
A. an organ
B. Most cells are very small.
B. an organ system
C. Most cells move very quickly. C. a prokaryote
D. Most cells are dead. D. a cell
358. The German botanist that discovered that 364. Having specialized structures with spe-
plants were made of cells was named: cialized functions.
A. Schleiden A. growth
B. Hooke B. reproduction
C. Virchow C. multicellular
D. none of above D. organization
359. Fred was observing a leaf and a rock with 365. Which invention was crucial to the devel-
a microscope. Which part of the the cell opment of the Cell Theory?
theory might she be investigating?
A. Magnifying glass
A. Cells come from pre-existing cells.
B. Microscope
B. Groups of cells join to form tissues.
C. Barometer
C. All organisms are made up of cells.
D. Petri dish
D. Cells are the basic unit of life.
366. is credited with being the first scien-
360. Robert Hooke discovered the cell in tist to observe cork cells.
A. 1665 A. Leewenhoek
B. 1839 B. Shleidon
C. 1645 C. Hooke
D. 2020 D. none of above

2.1 Cell Theory 158
367. The second part of Cell Theory states:“All B. Plant cells have cell walls and chloro-
living organisms are made up of cells.” plasts.
A. True C. Plant cells have chloroplasts and ribo-
somes.
B. False
D. Plant cells have chloroplasts and mito-
C. I don’t know
chondria.
D. If you say so
373. Which scientist suggested that all plants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
368. What does the term resolution refer to? are made of cells?
A. how many lenses a microscope uses A. Hooke
B. how much light is needed to see an im- B. Virchow
age C. Schwann
C. how well structures close together can D. Schleiden
be distinguished
374. Which organelles store food and other
D. none of above materials needed by the cell?
369. Who Discovered the Cell? A. ribosomes
A. Albert Einstein B. vacuoles
B. Robert Hooke C. chloroplasts
D. none of above
C. Rudolf Virchow
D. Captain Hooke 375. Rocks are not living because
A. they never move.
370. What most limits cell size?
B. they aren’t needed for humans.
A. Distance
C. they are not made of cells.
B. Water
D. they don’t break down.
C. Oxygen
376. obtain and use energygrow and develo-
D. none of above preproducerespond to their environment-
371. What is an organism? These items may be classified as
A. characteristics of plants
A. A group of similar cells that perform a
common function B. characteristics of animals
B. A group of organs working together to C. characteristics of insects
do a job in the body D. characteristics of living things
C. A collection of tissues that work to- 377. Which scientist viewed a piece of cork un-
gether der a simple microscope and first used the
D. A living thing term “cell”?
A. Robert Hooke
372. What structures distinguish a plant cell
from an animal cell? B. Anton Von Leeuwenhoek
A. Plant cells have cell walls and ribo- C. Matthias Schleiden
somes. D. Theodore Schwann

2.1 Cell Theory 159
378. This scientist was the first to identify C. Transmission electron microscope
cells and name them: D. Simple light microscope

A. Hooke
384. Identify the characteristics of life:“Our
B. Leeunwenhoek cat had a litter of kittens yesterday morn-
C. Schleiden ing.”
D. Virchow A. Growth
B. Reproduction
379. The lysosomes of a cell help to break
down larger food molecules into smaller C. Use Energy
molecules. What organ system functions D. Homeostasis
in this manner?
385. Microscopic single-cells that do not have
A. Digestive system a nucleus or other membrane-bound or-
B. Nervous system ganelles.
C. Lymphatic system A. DNA
D. Integumentary system B. RNA
C. Eukaryotes
380. The ability to maintain a stable internal
environment. D. Prokaryotes
A. homeostasis 386. Who noted that animals are made of cells

and concluded that all living things are
B. response to stimuli
made of cells and cell products?
C. organization
A. Rudolf Virchow
D. growth
B. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
381. Who observed the first cell wall, and C. Theodor Schwann
coined the word cell? D. Robert Hooke
A. Robert Hooke
387. There are three tenets of the Cell Theory.
B. Rudolph Virchow Which of the following is NOT a tenet?
C. Matthias Schleiden A. Cells are the basic structure and func-
D. Theodor Schwann tion of life.
B. All living things are made of one or
382. Which of the following controls move-
more cells.
ment of materials in and out of a cell?
C. The cell is the basic unit of matter.
A. Cell wall
B. Cell membrane
388. Which choice is NOT part of the cell the-
C. Cytoplasm
ory.
D. Nucleus
A. All organisms are composed of cells.
383. What type of microscope bends light and B. Cells are the basic unit of life.
uses multiple lenses to magnify a cell? C. All cells come from previous cells.
A. Compound light microscope D. Cells are always the same size and
B. Scanning electron microscope shape.

2.2 Structure and Function of the Cell 160
389. Which of these is a characteristic of ALL 393. A cell’s metabolism is caused by

living things? A. A growth spurt in the cell.
A. respond to external stimuli
B. The cell dividing.
B. absorb complex food molecules
C. Chemical reactions inside the cell.
C. produce offspring by means of sexual
reproduction D. The cell’s defense system.
D. use energy to actively move through 394. What was the contribution of Zacharias
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the environment Jansen?
390. Homeostasis A. He created the first compound micro-
A. keeping conditions balanced within an scope.
organism. B. He created the first simple microscope.
B. increase in size.
C. chemical reactions inside a cell. C. He came up with “cell theory.”
D. protection against enemies. D. Invented the cheese burger
391. English scientist that cut a thin slice of 395. Which scientist claimed Sir Isaac New-
cork and looked at it under his microscope. ton’s work on gravity was not Newton’s
To him, the cork seemed to be made up of but was based on their work in physics in-
empty little boxes, which he named cells stead?
A. Hooke A. Hans Janseen
B. Schwann B. Rudolf Virchow
C. Van Leewenhoek C. Robert Hooke
D. Schleiden
D. Theodor Schwann
392. The respiratory system is made up of the
airways, lungs, and respiratory muscles. 396. Cell theory states:
The lungs are classified as- A. All living cells must have a cell wall.
A. Organs B. All living cells require glucose for sur-
B. Cells vival.
C. Organ System C. The basic unit of life is a cell.
D. Tissue D. All cells contain a nucleus
2.2 Structure and Function of the Cell

1. What does hydrophobic mean? 2. Phospholipids spontaneously assemble
into a bilayer in an aqueous environment
A. Likes water as a friend
because-
B. Dissolves in water
A. The phosphate heads are repelled by
C. Loves water water
D. Hates water B. The phosphate heads form covalent

bonds with water 8. Cells whose DNA is held in a nucleus are

C. The lipid tails are attracted to water

D. The lipid tails are repelled by water A. prokaryotic
B. cytoplasm
3. Water, oxygen and carbon dioxide move
C. eukaryotic
across the permeable cell membrane by
D. mitochondria
A. diffusion 9. Which of the following organelles will you
B. facilitated diffusion NOT find in an animal cell?
C. endocytosis A. Cell membrane
D. exocytosis B. Cell wall
C. Golgi Apparatus
4. Which is used to make proteins in the cell?
D. Lysosome
A. nucleus
B. golgi apparatus 10. Which of the following is NOT a principle
of the cell theory?
C. ribosomes
A. Cells are the basic units of life.
D. vesicles
B. All living things are made of cells.
5. Vesicles that carry digestive enzymes are C. Very few cells reproduce.
classified as:
D. All cells are produced by existing cells.
A. Lysosomes
B. Golgi bodies 11. What is another term for “selectively per-
meable”?
C. Vacuoles
A. Porous
D. none of above
B. Acts like a switch
6. Which of the following organelles provides C. Permanent
extra support for the cell, gives it shape,
D. Semipermeable
is mostly made up of cellulose, and found
in plant cells? 12. Cells are the smallest unit of life that can
A. endoplasmic reticulum independently.
B. cell membrane A. replicate
C. cell wall B. sleep
D. nucleus C. reprimand
D. move
active transport? 13. Many organs make up a(n)
A. facilitated diffusion A. tissue
B. osmosis B. organ system
C. diffusion C. cell
D. endocytosis D. molecule

14. Which structure contains DNA and controls 19. The smallest unit that is able to perform
the cells processes? the basic functions of life are called
A. mitochondria A. an organ system
B. vaculole B. an organ
C. nucleus C. a cell
D. a tisue
D. golgi
NARAYAN CHANGDER
20. The statement “Cells are produced only
15. The smallest unit of an organism that car- from existing cells” is part of the .
ries on the functions of life
A. cell theory
A. cell
B. fluid mosaic model
B. tissue
C. lock and key model
C. organ D. living theory
D. organ system
21. Your gums are swollen. How will rinsing
16. Which of the following is a function of the with warm salt water help the swelling?
cell membrane? A. swollen gums will absorb the salt
A. breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, B. salt lowers the temp
and proteins from foods C. salt goes against the concentration
B. stores water, salt, proteins, and carbo- gradient
hydrates D. water in the gums will diffuse out of
C. synthesizes proteins and other macro- the cells
molecules 22. These structures are found in plant cells
D. regulates the movement of materials only
into and out of the cell A. cell wall, cell membrane
17. Controls the movement of materials in and B. mitochondria, chloroplast
out of the cell. C. cell wall, cytoplasm
A. Cell Membrane D. chloroplast, cell wall
B. Mitochondria 23. What is the green pigment called inside
C. Cytoplasm the chloroplast that gives it that green col-
oration?
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum
A. Chlorophyll
18. What organelle stores water, food and B. cytoplasm
waste?
C. ink
A. cytoplasm D. gangrene
B. lysosomes
24. What organelle breaks down glucose to re-
C. vacuole lease energy for the cell?
D. mitochondria A. nucleus

B. lysosomes 30. The part of a eukaryotic cell that directs

C. mitochondria cell activities and contains genetic informa-
tion stored in DNA

D. vacuole
A. chloroplasts
25. This is part of the endoplasmic reticulum
that is used to synthesize lipids as well as B. vacuoles
detoxify drugs and alcohol. There are no C. nucleus
ribosomes.
D. none of above
A. Vesicles
B. Lysosomes 31. What is the function of the lysosome?
C. Rough ER A. all of these
D. Smooth ER B. break down organelles that have out-
26. is the ability of a cell to regulate it- lived their usefulness
self and maintain an internal or equi- C. break down lipids, carbohydrates, and
librium. proteins
A. Homeostasis, level D. Remove waste
B. Equilibrium, level
32. What is it called when molecules move
C. Homeostasis, balance
across the cell membrane from an area of
D. Equilibrium, balance high concentration to an area of low con-
27. Unlike the cell membrane, the cell wall is centration through a carrier protein?
A. found in all organisms. A. Diffusion

B. composed of a lipid bilayer. B. Osmosis
C. a flexible barrier. C. Active Transport
D. made of tough cellulose fibers. D. Facilitated Diffusion
28. What does the cell membrane do for both
33. This organelle helps plants keep their rigid
plant and animal cells?
(stiff) structure.
A. Controls passage of materials.
A. cell wall
B. Controls all cell processes.
B. cell membrane
C. Preventing a cell from bursting due to
osmosis. C. chloroplast
D. Packaging cell products for export. D. nucleus
29. What organelle collects, modifies, pack- 34. A organism is made of many cells, each
ages, and distributes molecules for the specialized to do certain jobs.
cell.
A. Eukaryotic
A. golgi apparatus
B. nucleus B. Multicellular
C. ribosomes C. Prokaryotic
D. cell Membrane D. Unicellular

35. Small structures in cells are called: 40. The small structures inside cells with spe-
A. molecules cific functions that work together for the
cells life processes are called (they are sim-
B. ribosomes ilar to our own organs)
C. organelles A. organism
D. atoms B. tissue
36. Specialized structures that carry out spe- C. organ
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cific cell functions are called: D. organelles
A. Organelles
41. Aid in cell division
B. Proteins
A. cytoplasm
C. Carbohydrates
B. cytoskeleton
D. Animalcules
C. centrioles
37. Which is the correct order of Levels of Or-
ganization? D. none of above
A. Cell> Tissue> Organ> Organ Sys- 42. When organisms are cold, they begin to
tems> Organism shake/shiver. What process does this rep-
B. Organ System> Cell > Organism> resent?
Tissue> Organ A. Photosynthesis
C. Tissue> Cell> Organism> Organ> B. Homeostasis
Organ System
C. Diabetes
D. Organism> Organ System> Tissue>
Organ> Cells
38. Which of the following best describes the 43. Which cellular process takes place in the
function of the Golgi apparatus within ribosomes that are bound to the endoplas-
plant and animal cells? mic reticulum?
A. to regulate cell division A. The breakdown of waste material
B. to break down food B. The conversion of radiant energy to

glucose
C. to create new genetic material
C. The synthesis of new proteins
D. to transport and modify proteins
D. The replication of nucleic acids
39. This protein serves as a tunnel across the
membrane into the cytoplasm of the cell. 44. Pressure that must be applied to prevent
Functions like an open doorway between osmotic movement across a selectively
the interstitual fluid and the cytoplasm. permeable membrane.
A. Channel Proteins A. osmotic pressure
B. Pumps B. diffusion pressure
C. Carrier Proteins C. facilitated diffusion
D. Cholesterol lubricated passageways D. cellular pressure

45. Which of the following is directly in- 50. An animal cell that is surrounded by fresh
volved in the transportation of materials water will burst because the osmotic pres-
inside/within the cell? sure causes

A. Endoplasmic Reticulum A. water to move into the cell.
B. Vacuole B. water to move out of the cell.
C. Lysosome C. solutes to move into the cell.
D. Mitochondria D. solutes to move out of the cell.
46. The cell membrane is selectively perme- 51. Allows materials in/out of the nucleus?
able, which means A. Cell membrane
A. All materials can enter and leave the B. plasma membrane
cell
C. nuclear membrane
B. Certain things can enter while others D. animal membrane
cannot
C. The cell manually sorts through all ma- 52. Which cellular organelle would allow plant
terials cells to produce glucose?
D. Only certain cells can interact with the A. ribosomes

cell. B. cytoplasm
47. The organelles in plant cells that contain a C. chloroplasts

green pigment are the D. mitochondria
A. mitochondria 53. Facilitated Diffusion uses a to aid in
B. bilayer lipids diffusion, but they do not require energy
to function
C. chloroplasts
A. Protein channels
D. golgi apparatus
B. Pumps
48. Match the definition with the wordA prop- C. Vesicles
erty of cell membranes that allows some
substances to pass through, while others D. none of above
cannot 54. The diffusion of water molecules only
A. Cell Membrane through a membrane
B. Selectively Permeable A. osmosis
C. Cell B. diffusion
D. Cell Wall C. cell theory
D. none of above
49. Made of a double lipid bilayer.
A. cell wall 55. Structure in a cell that receives proteins
and other newly formed materials from
B. cell membrane
the ER, packages them, and distributes
C. endoplasmic reticulum them to other parts of the cell.
D. Golgi A. Golgi Body

B. Endoplasmic Reticulum C. nucleus

C. Mitochondria D. golgi apparatus
D. Cell Wall
56. This organelle controls the cell’s main ac- an organism.
tivities; DNA is also found here. (Anal- A. cell
ogy:cockpit of an airplane)
B. nucleus
A. vacuole
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. cytoplasm
B. chloroplast
D. chromosomes
C. nucleus
62. The cell membrane is semi-permeable,
D. mitochondria
which means
57. “Storage tanks” Can hold food, water or A. All materials can enter and leave the
waste for the cell cell
A. Ribosomes B. Certain things can enter while others
B. Vacuole cannot
C. Chloroplast C. The cell manually sorts through all ma-
terials
D. Nucleolus
D. Only certain cells can interact with the
58. A group of cells that perform similar func- cell.
tions is called a (an)
A. organ 63. What do both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells contain?
B. organ system
A. membrane-bound organelles
C. tissue
B. linear chromosomes
D. division of labor
C. cytoplasm
59. One difference between prokaryotes and D. a nucleus
eukaryotes is that
A. nucleic acids are found only in prokary- 64. Eukaryotic cells contain a
otes A. cell
B. mitochondria are found in larger quan- B. nucleus
tities in eukaryotes
C. city hall
C. the golgi apparatus is found only in
D. electron
prokaryotes
D. prokaryotes have no nuclear mem- 65. This forms a boundary between the inside
brane of the cell and the outside of the cell.
A. Cell Membrane
60. In an analogy, I might refer to this or-
ganelle as “the boss” of the cell. B. Lipid Cleric Layer
A. mitochondria C. Membrane Gate
B. lysosome D. Protein Receptors

66. The rigid outer covering of plant cells con- B. Methyl orange
taining cellulose to give shape and support C. Janus green-B Janus green b

A. gel-like coating
D. All the above
B. chitin
72. Besides the cytoplasm, where else do we
C. cell wall
find ribosomes?
D. cytoskeleton
A. Vacoule
67. These organelles synthesize (make) pro- B. Cell Membrane
teins. They can be found on the Rough ER
or in the cytoplasm. C. Endoplasmic Reticulum
A. Lysosomes D. Lysosome
B. Ribosomes 73. This structure regulates the passage of
C. Vacuole water, food and waste into and out of the
cell.
D. Cell wall
A. nucleus
68. If you were to compare the function of a
cell to the function of a city, which of the B. vacuole
following organelles would the be city’s C. cytoplasm
power plant? D. cell membrane
A. nucleus
74. What structure is responsible for making
B. lysosome
proteins?
C. mitochondria
A. Nucleus
D. golgi complex
B. Mitochondria
69. This structure is a storage area for the cell. C. Golgi Apparatus
Plants usually have one large one.
D. Ribosome
A. Lysosome
B. Vacuole 75. The functional unit of life is called
C. Ribosome A. Cell
D. Golgi Body B. Egg
70. I am a gel like substance that supports the C. Nucleus

other organelles D. None of these
A. cell membrane
76. This type of cell has no nucleus, but it has
B. CO2 a cell wall and ribosomes, but no other or-
C. cytoplasm ganelles.
D. chlorine A. Plant cells
B. Animals Cells
71. stain is used to observe mitochondria
in cell. C. Bacteria
A. Methylene blue D. none of above

77. What does the “fluid mosaic model” mean 82. Eukaryotic cells are much larger and have
about the cell membrane? more specialized functions than prokary-
otic cells because they contain , which
A. It can dissolve into fluid.
carry out specialized activities.
B. The cell is mostly made of mosaic
A. organelles
molecules.
B. ribosomes
C. It looks like a flexible pattern.
C. DNA
D. Somebody else should name these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. cytoplasm
things.
83. Cells use active transport proteins to
78. Substances too large to pass through the
A. obtain molecules they need
cell membrane enter the cell in a process
called B. break down molecules
A. endocytosis C. engulf large particles
D. detect the charge of molecules
C. exocytosis 84. How does a cell maintain homeostasis?
A. Regulates what enters and leaves the
D. active transport
cell
79. Function of ribosomes Function of ribo- B. Flexibility
somes C. Protective barrier
A. Lipid synthesis Lipid preparation D. Structure and support
B. Protein synthesis Protein preparation 85. This scientist discovered and named the
C. Both cell.
D. Carbohydrate metabolism Starch A. Robert Hooke
metabolism B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
C. Goldberg
80. hold/store water, one large one is found
in plant cells D. Mathias Schleiden
A. nucleolus 86. Who am I:I am a non living but play an im-

portant role in saving a plant’s life.
B. ribosomes
A. Vacuole
C. golgi bodies
B. ribosomes
D. vacuoles
C. Nucleus
81. What organelle is used as storage? D. Cell wall
Hint:plants have a large one that filled
87. This type of cell expands and contracts to
with water.
allow for movement.
A. Vacuole A. nerve cell
B. Cell B. platelet
C. Cell Wall C. muscle cell
D. Ribosome D. bone cell

88. Which is true about aerobic cellular respi- 93. Describes the arrangement of the cell mem-
ration? brane as flexible, bendable, and made of
many parts.

A. It produces more oxygen than anaero-
bic respiration A. The Fluid Mosaic Model
B. It produces more ATP than anaerobic B. The Major Mobility Model
respiration
C. The Crazy Cell Model
C. It produces less ATP than anaerobic
respriation D. The Maze Model
D. It produces more latic acid than anaer- 94. Basic structure of a virus includes a capsid,
obic respriation , envelope, and
89. Rod-shaped cell structures that convert en- A. receptors, nucleic acids
ergy in food molecules to energy the cell B. protein coat, DNA or RNA
can use to carry out its functions.
C. capsule, nuclear membranes
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
D. attachment, cell membranes
B. Golgi Body
C. Mitochondria 95. The mitochondria
D. Cytoplasm A. Controls what enters and leaves the
cell
90. This organelle acts like a gatekeeper, al-
lowing some materials to pass through it, B. Performs photosynthesis to make food
but not others. for the cell.
A. Cytoplasm C. Contains the chromosomes and is
known as the “brain” of the cell.
B. Cell Membrane
D. Breaks down food to produce energy
C. Mitochondria
for the cell.
D. Vacuole
96. What is the relatively constant internal
91. Has membrane bound organelles physical and chemical conditions of a cell
A. Prokaryotes or organism known as?
B. Eukaryote A. homeostasis
C. both B. cell specialization
D. none of above C. level of organization
92. Which organism is made up of cells that D. cellular communication
have both a cell membrane and a cell
wall? 97. Storage of materials
A. desert mouse A. Cell Wall

B. human B. Chloroplasts
C. maple tree C. Vacuoles
D. zebra D. Nucleus

98. Photosynthesis occurs at the cell level. C. chlorpolasts

Which organelle is necessary for photosyn- D. cytoplasm
thesis?
A. mitochondria 104. What structures surround and protect a
plant cell?
B. chloroplast
A. a cell wall that has an inner and outer
C. ribosomes lining.
D. nucleus B. a cell membrane that has an inner and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
99. This organelle controls what goes in and out lining
out of plant and animal cells. C. a cell wall that is surrounded by a cell
A. Cell Wall membrane
B. Cell Membrane D. a cell membrane that is surrounded by
a cell wall.
C. Cytoplasm
D. 105. The plasma membrane
A. encloses the contents of a cell.
100. Which organelle is the storehouse for
most of a cell’s genetic information? B. allows material to enter and leave the
cell.
A. mitochondrion
C. is selectively permeable.
B. centriole
D. All of the above
C. chloroplast
D. nucleus 106. Which component of the cell membrane
functions actually creates the barrier be-
101. I am the control center of the cell and tween the inside and outside of the cell?
house the DNA. Who am I?
A. carbohydrates
A. Cytoplasm
B. cholesterol
B. Nucleus
C. phospholipids
C. Ribosome
D. proteins
D. Golgi Apparatus
107. Which plant organelle stores water?
102. A rigid outer layer that surrounds the
A. nucleus
cells of plants that gives extra support and
protection. B. ribosome
A. Plant cell C. lysosome
B. Chloroplast D. vacuole
C. Cytoplasm 108. In an animal cell, which among the follow-
D. Cell Wall ing organelles has its own DNA?
103. Both plant and animal cells contain this A. Chloroplast

organelle. B. Leucoplast
A. chlorophyll C. Chromoplast
B. cell walls D. Mitochondria

109. Site of photosynthesis in plants 115. Endosymbiosis gave rise to which or-
A. Ribosomes ganelle(s)?

B. Vacuole A. Golgi bodies
B. Chloroplasts and Mitochondria
C. Chloroplasts
C. Ribosomes and Nuclei
D. Cell Time
D. The rough and smooth endoplasmic
110. Which two macromolecules offer energy reticulum
storage to the cell?
116. DNA is found in which cell organelle
A. Lipids and carbohydrates
A. Ribosomes
B. lipids and nucleic acids
B. Lysosomes
C. nucleic acids and proteins
C. Nucleus
D. proteins and carbohydrates
D. Cytoplasm
111. What is the main function of ribosomes?
117. Which type of cell looks more square?
A. synthesize proteins
A. Animal Cells
B. destroy worn out organelles
B. Plant Cells
C. produce DNA C. Both Plants and Animal Cells
D. none of above D. Skin cells
112. The cell membrane is composed of a 118. This type of cell serves as a protective
A. phospholipid bilayer barrier and makes up the largest organ in
the human body.
B. single layer of phospholipids
A. bone
C. carbohydrate bilayer
B. skin
D. single layer of carbohydrates
C. red blood cell
113. Which of the following is not a character- D. white blood cell
istic of a Prokaryotic cell?
A. unicellular 119. Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells have
which feature in common?
B. floating DNA
A. A nucleus
C. very small
B. Mitochondria
D. complex
C. A plasma membrane
114. Function of the cell membrane to not al- D. Endoplasmic reticulum
low the substance or substances to pass
through the membrane. 120. Basing on the presence and absence of nu-
cleus cells are of types. Cells are clas-
A. permeable
sified by whether they have a nucleus
B. impermeable or not.
C. semi-permeable A. 2
D. none of above B. 3

C. 4 126. This organelle stores and protects the

D. None is none DNA that contains information for the cell.
It is covered by a double membrane.
121. This organelle is in all eukaryotic cells. It A. Nucleolus
is the control center of the cell because it
holds the DNA. B. Mitochondria
A. Mitochondria C. Nucleus
B. Nucleus D. Cytoskeleton
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Chloroplasts 127. A solution that is hypertonic to a cell has
D. Ribosomes A. more solutes than the cell
B. fewer solutes than the cell
122. Phagocytosis is
C. the same concentration of solutes as
A. the process in which extensions of cy-
the cell
toplasm surround and engulf large parti-
cles and take them inot the cell D. too many solutes
B. a type of active transport 128. Which cells are typically green?
C. a process that involves energy A. Animal cells
D. all of the answers are correct B. Blood cells
123. An organelle found in cells of plants and C. Plant cells
some other organisms that captures the D. Fungus cells
energy from sunlight and converts it into
chemical energy. 129. Most plants appear green because chloro-
phyll
A. vacuole
A. absorbs green light.
B. mitochondrion
B. absorbs violet light.
C. chloroplast
C. does not absorb green light.
D. cell wall
D. does not absorb violet light.
124. Which organelle makes energy using high
carbon sugars. 130. This organelle moves substances within
the cell and has pipelike structures (Anal-
A. vacuole
ogy:city buses or transportation vehicles)
B. cell membrane
A. endoplasmic reticulum
C. endoplasmic reticulum B. vacuole
D. mitochondria C. mitochondria
125. Which organelles are only found in plant D. lysosome
cells?
131. Which process always involves the move-
A. Cell Wall and cell membrane ment of materials from inside the cell to
B. Cell wall and chloroplast outside the cell?
C. cell wall and ribosomes A. difusion
D. cell membrane and vacuole B. exocytosis

C. endocytosis B. vacuole
D. osmosis C. golgi apparatus

132. Most of the cell membrane is made of D. chloroplast
A. Lipids 138. Inside of cell, outside of nucleus-holds ev-

B. Carbs erything in place, jelly like
C. Proteins A. lysosomes
D. Nucleic acids B. organelle

C. cell
133. What do we call the inside of the cell?
D. cytoplasm
A. Cytoplasm
B. Organelle 139. A single-celled organism that lacks a
membrane-bound nucleus, mitochondria,
C. Nucleus or any other membrane-bound organelle .
D. Cytoskeleton A. Prokaryote
134. How do prokaryotic cells divide? B. Eukaryote
A. Mitosis C. Nucleus
B. Binary Fission D. Single-celled organism
C. Meiosis 140. A cell is
D. Cell Cycle A. the basic unit of structure and function
135. gel-like substance where work happens in living organism
within the cell B. an organism
A. Cytoplasm C. a basic part of everything that we see
B. Mitochondria D. found only in animals, not plants
C. DNA 141. Which does NOT require energy to oc-
D. Chloroplasts cur?
136. This particular type of transport protein A. Passive Transport

will attach to needed molecules and move B. Active Transport
them across the membrane C. Endocytosis
A. Channel Proteins D. Exocytosis
B. Pumps
142. What does it mean for cells to be differ-
C. Carrier Proteins entiated?
D. Cholesterol lubricated passageways A. It can perform the same tasks for
137. An organelle in cells that modifies, sorts, prokaryotes
and packages proteins and other materials B. It can change function spontanteously
from the endoplasmic reticulum for stor-
age in the cell or release outside the cell. C. It can perform a specific task for the
A. endoplasmic reticulum organism

D. It can change shape depending on the 148. Powerhouse of the cell, organelle that is
task the site of ATP ( energy production ) and
cellular respiration in plants and animals.
143. In cells, the structure that contains the
A. Nucleus
cell’s genetic material in the form of DNA.
B. Ribosomes
A. nucleolus
C. Mitochondria
B. chromosome
D. Vacuoles
C. DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. nucleus 149. When the volume of a cell increases, its
surface area
144. Which cell structure is found in plant and A. increases at the same rate
animals cells and controls what can come
B. remains the same
into or leave a cell?
C. increases at a faster rate
A. cell membrane
D. increases at a slower rate
B. cytoplasm
C. nucleus 150. This process is performed in plants and
some protists where they use light energy
D. vacuole to convert water and carbon dioxide into
oxygen and sugars (glucose).
145. The basic structural and functional unit of
all living organism is A. photosynthesis
A. cell B. cellular respiration
B. cell wall C. cell theory
C. cell membrane D. cytoskeleton
D. chloroplasts 151. Which organelle is called the “suicide

bag” of the cell?
146. This organelle is like a recycling center for
A. Lysosomes
the cell. It breaks down old materials. It
is like a vacuum cleaner that cleans up the B. Golgi apparatus
waste in cells. C. Plastids
A. Ribosomes D. Mitochondria
B. Lysosomes
152. What is the nucleus Job
C. Mitochondria A. Brain
D. Chloroplasts B. Smarties
147. What structure is in plant cells but not C. Holding Water
animal cells? D. Having a Ball
A. Cell Membrane
153. strengthens and stabilizes the cell
B. Mitochondria membrane.
C. Cell Wall A. Carbohydrates
D. Vacuole B. Proteins

C. Phospholipids 159. I need energy! I am going to eat a

good lunch. Then, the food molecules will
D. Cholesterol
get broken down and absorbed into the

cells. Then in the mitochondria, the glucose
154. Which of the following is not a use of pro-
(food) meets with oxygen and this process
teins that are created by the cell?
happens!
A. Building materials
A. Fermentation
B. Hormones
B. Cellular Respiration
C. Enzymes C. Photosynthesis
D. Lubricants D. Glycolysis
155. One example of a prokaryote is a 160. What organelle controls the cell’s activi-
A. fungus ties and holds the DNA?
B. bacteria A. mitochondria
C. animal B. cell membrane
D. plant C. nucleus
D. golgi body
156. This part of the cell is referred to as a
fluid-based substance that contains all of 161. Gelatin-like substance that contains or-
the organelles. ganelles
A. Rough ER A. nucleus
B. Smooth ER B. cell membrane
C. Ribosomes C. cytoplasm
D. Cytoplasm D. cell membrane
162. Most functions of a eukaryotic cell are

157. What structure uses light to do photosyn-
controlled by the cell’s:
thesis?
A. cell wall
A. vacuole
B. ribosomes
B. mitochondria
C. nucleus
C. chloroplast
D. mitochondria
D. nucleus
163. A flexible boundary that controls the
158. An organism that is made up of one or movement of substances into and out of
more cells is called a(n) organism. the cell
A. unicellular A. Cell Membrane
B. multicellular B. Transport Proteins
C. prokaryotic C. Vacuole
D. structural D. Peroxisome

164. This process releases energy by break- 169. One sugar molecule, two sugar molecules,
ing down glucose (sugar) and other food or a long chain of sugar molecules make up
molecules in the presence of oxygen. A. carbohydrates
A. cellular respiration B. lipids
B. photosynthesis C. nucleic acids
C. cell theory D. proteins
D. cytoskeleton
NARAYAN CHANGDER
170. What structures in animals have a similar
function as a cell wall?
165. The movement of water across a selec-
tively permeable membrane without the A. Blood
use of any energy is called B. Mouth, Nose, and Ears
A. endocytosis C. Brain and Nerves
B. diffusion D. Skin and Bones
C. active transport 171. Which organelle exists in the eukaryotic
D. osmosis cell but not prokaryotic cell?
A. nucleus
166. This structure of the cell regulates what B. DNA
goes into and out of the cell through its
bilipid layer. C. ribosomes
A. cell wall D. cell wall
B. gel-like capsule 172. Unicellular organisms are

C. nucleus A. Always prokaryotic
D. cell membrane B. Always eukaryotic

C. Made of many cells
167. attached to rough endoplasmic retic- D. Made of one cell
ulum. The roughest living tissue was
attached to the 173. In eukaryotic cells, the cell’s genetic infor-
A. Lysosomes are lysosomes mation is found in the
A. ribosomes
B. Ribosomes
B. lysosomes
C. Both
C. nucleus
D. none of above
D. cell membrane
168. What organelle is responsible for energy
174. A network of threadlike protiens that are
production?
joined together
A. nucleus A. lipids
B. mitochondria B. proteins
C. ribosome C. cytoskeleton
D. cell membrane D. none of above

175. The cell membrane is which means it 180. control center of cell
allows some molecules in and keeps other A. cell
molecules out.

B. nucleus
A. Homeostasis
C. ribosomes
B. Selectively permeable
D. none of above
C. non-selective permeable
181. Uses energy from sugar to make energy
D. none of above for the cell
176. A sperm cell is unique in that it is de- A. Chloroplast

signed to move around. Because of this, B. Mitochondria
it needs to turn food (usually sugar) into C. Nucleus
energy. What organelle would you expect
to be VERY plentiful in sperm cells. D. Cell Membrane
A. Chloroplasts 182. A can of air freshener is sprayed in the op-

posite side of the room. Ten minutes later
B. Mitochondria you start to smell the scent. This is an ex-
C. Cell Wall ample of
D. Lysosomes A. diffusion
B. active transport
177. Organelles that package cellular materi-
C. endocytosis
als and transports them within the cell or
out of the cell. D. osmosis
A. Golgi Body 183. Genes are located in
B. Endoplasmic reticulum A. cytoplasm
C. Large central vacuole B. lysosome
D. Lysosomes C. chrpmosomes
D. plastids
178. What do plant cells have that animal cells
do not? 184. Multicellular eukaryotic autotrophs be-
long to which kingdom?
A. Phospholipid and bi-layer
A. Animalia
B. Chloroplasts and cell walls
B. Fungi
C. Mitochondria and flagella
C. Plantae
D. cell wall and cell membrane D. Protista
179. The basic unit of all forms of life. 185. This organelle contains digestive en-
A. nucleus zymes. These enzymes can digest, or
break down, food particles, cells, worn out
B. cell or damaged parts.
C. DNA A. ribosomes
D. nuclear envelope B. cilia

C. flagella 191. What is contained in the cell nucleus?

D. lysosomes A. DNA
B. vacuoles
186. Which of the following is NOT found in
C. prokaryotic cells
the nucleus?
D. lysosomes
A. cytoplasm
192. What is the function of the cytoplasm?
B. nucleolus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Stores water and mineral ions
C. chromatin
B. It holds all the organelles in place
D. DNA C. Controls what enters and leaves the
cell
187. Consists of a jellylike substance that con-
D. Supports the cell
tains many organelles.
A. ribosomes 193. A saltwater snail is placed in freshwater.
What happens to its cells?
B. cytoplasm
A. They shrink
C. chloroplasts B. They swell
D. cell wall C. Nothing happens
D. none of above
188. A rigid structure that surrounds the cell
membrane for support and protection of 194. This organelle is a large fluid-filled con-
the cell. tainer located in the cytoplasm of a plant
cell. It stores water, waste, and helps
A. Chloroplasts
maintain the right pressure.
B. Cell Wall A. Lysosome
C. Cell Membrane B. Central Vacuole
D. Cytoplasm C. Flagella
D. Centrioles
189. Active transport requires
195. The coloured organelles which are found
A. energy
in plants only are
B. the nucleus A. chlorophyll
C. chloroplasts B. vacuoles
D. lysosomes C. WBC
D. plastids
190. Another term for maintaining an internal
balance is 196. What is the term for the diffusion of wa-
ter across a semipermeable membrane?
A. Equality
A. osmosis
B. Babycakes B. equilibrium
C. Homeostasis C. transport
D. Balance D. isotonic

197. Converts food into usable energy for the C. Cytoplasm

cell
D. Mitochondria

A. Mitochondria
B. Chloroplast 203. Which process occurs inside the chloro-
plasts?
C. Nucleus
A. detoxification
D. Vacuole
B. ribosome assembly
198. Which organelle breaks down large mate-
rials such as food and recyles cell parts? C. photosynthesis
A. ribosome D. protein synthesis
B. lysosome
204. What is the structure that produces pro-
C. endoplasmic reticulum tein for the cell?
D. mitochondrion A. golgi
199. have 2 functions in the cell membrane. B. mitochondria
1.) They act like gatekeepers, only let cer-
tain things in. 2.) Enzyme receptors em- C. chloroplast
bedded in the membrane. D. ribosome
A. Carbohydrates
205. The name of, part of, or look of some-
B. Proteins
thing
C. Phospholipids
A. Cytoplasm
D. Cholesterol
B. Function
200. A cell structure that controls which sub-
C. Structure
stances can enter or leave the cell.
A. Cytoplasm D. Nucleus
B. Cell Wall 206. Small nonpolar molecules cross the cell

C. Nuclear Membrane membrane through the process of-
D. Cell Membrane A. Facilitated diffusion
201. What is the role of the cell membrane? B. Simple diffusion
A. Create ATP C. Osmosis
B. Create protiens D. Exocytosis
C. Regulate temperature
207. The packaging and distribution center of
D. Regulate the transport of in and out
the cell is the
202. I am the tough exterior that protects A. nucleus
plant cells and gives them their shape.
Who am I? B. golgi apparatus
A. Cell wall C. central vacuole
B. Cell membrane D. nuclear envelope

208. The purpose or job of something C. Nucleolus

A. Function D. New Moon
B. Nucleus
214. The diffusion of WATER across a semi-
C. Structure
permeable membrane is
D. Cytoplasm
A. osmosis
209. Which organelle’s function is to break B. diffusion
down materials?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. endocytosis
A. nucleus
B. vacuole D. exocytosis
C. golgi body 215. Nucleus is separated from cytoplasm by

D. lysosome A. nuclear membrane
210. In many cells, this is the structure that B. nucleoplasm
controls the cell’s activities.
C. organs
A. Cell membrane
D. cell membrane
B. Organelle
C. Nucleolus 216. The protein maker
D. Nucleus A. nucleus
211. What is the function of nucleus? B. ribosome
A. Structure that organizes motion of C. centriole
chromosomes.
D. vacuole
B. Structure that contains DNA and di-
rects the cell 217. Rigid structure that encloses the cell
C. Membrane that surrounds and pro- membrane. Supports a plant. A tough,
tects the cell protective barrier that surrounds the outer
D. Stack of membranes that packages membrane.
chemicals A. Cell membrane
212. The double membrane surrounding the nu- B. Cell wall
cleus is called the C. Cytoplasm
A. nucleolus
D. Nucleus
B. nuclear wall
C. nucleoplasm 218. What organelle is called the “power-
house” of a cell?
D. nuclear envelope
213. The holds the DNA, and controls the
functions of plant and animal cells. B. Nucleus
A. Nucleus C. Mitochondria
B. Nuclear Membrane D. Nucleolus

219. Another term for equilibrium is 225. Cell walls are made of
A. Equality A. lysosomes

B. Babycakes B. ribosomes
C. ER
C. Homeostasis
D. cellulose
D. Balance
226. In animal and plant cells, the is the
220. The cell was first discovered by: powerhouse of the cell where cellular res-
A. Matthias Jakob Schleiden piration occurs.
A. cytoplasm
B. Theodor Schwann
B. vacuole
C. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
C. chloroplast
D. Robert Hooke
D. mitochondria
221. What is diffusion 227. This organelle turns the light energy into
A. active transport a simple sugar.
B. passive transport A. Mitochondria

B. ER
C. cell division
C. Chloroplast
D. cell mutation
D. Nucleus
222. The human brain is an example of a(n) 228. Which tool is most likely used to produce
A. cel a clear image of very tiny structures inside
a cell?
B. tissue
A. light microscope
C. organ
B. magnetic resonance imaging
D. organism
C. electron microscope
223. In a eukaryotic cell, where is the DNA? D. computer model
A. in the nucleus 229. molecules have “heads” and “tails”
and are found in the plasma membrane.
B. floating freely in the cytoplasm
A. phospholipid
C. in the chloroplasts
B. protein
D. in the ribosomes
C. ribosome
224. Which structure produces energy for the D. DNA
cell?
230. This takes substances into a cell
A. mitochondria
A. endocytosis
B. nucleus B. exocytosis
C. golgi C. both
D. endoplasmic reticulum D. none of above

231. What is a Vacuble cell? C. Lysosomes

A. A Stores Malecules needed by a cell D. Golgi apparatus
B. A isolates material that may be harm- 237. In which organelle, of a eukaryotic cell, is
ful to the cell the cell’s DNA located?
C. All above A. Mitochondria
D. none of above B. Golgi Body
232. Which of the following organelles is re- C. Nucleus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sponsible for making ribosomes in a cell? D. Cytoplasm
A. cell membrane
238. A group of cells in an organism that have
B. centriole similar structure and function
C. vacuole A. Tissue
D. nucleolus B. Organism
233. This structure produces protein in the C. Cells
cell. D. Vacuole
A. Ribosomes 239. The function of this organelle is to store
B. Cytoplasm water. Large ones are found in plants.
C. Nucleus A. Lysosome
D. Lysosomes B. Golgi Body
234. Cells with no nucleus:Prokaryote::cells C. Cytoplasm

with nucleus:?? Cells without a nucleus D. Vacuole
Protonucleus::Cells with a nucleus:??
240. Which organelle is like the security gate
A. Eukaryote true nucleus because it controls what materials enter
B. Multi cellular and leave the cell? It also protects and
supports.
C. Unicellular
A. cell membrane
D. None is none
B. cell wall
235. Which of the following organelles is typ-
C. ribosome
ically found only in animal cells?
D. golgi apparatus
A. ribosomes
B. lysosomes 241. What is the correct order of organization
C. chloroplast A. tissues-cells-organs-organ systems-
organism
D. Golgi complex
B. cell-tissue-organs-organ systems-
236. Which of these organelles is directly in- organism
volved in the production of membrane pro- C. organism-cells-tissues-organ systems-
teins? organism
A. Mitochondria D. tissues-cells-organs-organ sytems-
B. Smooth ER organism

242. In an analogy, I might refer to this or- C. Cytoplasm

ganelle as “jell-0” like fluid in the empty D. Plastid
spaces of the cell.

A. chloroplast 248. What is the name of the transport pro-
tein that is embedded through the entire
B. cell membrane
cell membrane. This transport protein al-
C. nucleus lows for movement of larger molecules in
D. cytoplasm and out of the cell.
A. Integral Proteins
243. I am a double-membraned cell organelle.
I produce energy-rich molecules called ATP. B. Peripheral Proteins
I have my own genetic material. Who am C. Glycoproteins
I?
D. Phosphate Proteins
A. Cell membrane
B. Nucleus 249. ONLY found in a plant cell
C. Plastid A. lysosome
D. Mitochondrion B. cell membrane
C. chloroplast
244. Break down/ recycle old parts and
waste D. nucleus
A. Cell Theory 250. These proteins are only found on the out-
B. lysosomes side or inside surface of the cell mem-
C. nucleus brane.
D. cytoplasm A. Integral Proteins

B. Peripheral Protein
245. Name the prokaryote?
C. Glycoprotein
A. animal cell
D. Phosphate Protein
B. plant cell
C. bacteria 251. Found inside the nucleus and produces ri-
bosomes.
D. fungi cell
A. Nucleus
246. Which organelle is like the warehouse be-
cause it stores materials? B. Nucleolus
A. vacuole C. Chrloroplasts
B. endoplasmic reticulum D. Golgi Bodies
C. golgi apparatus 252. Moving a solute up its concentration gra-
D. lysosomes dient requires-
A. ATP
247. Who am I:I am like a laboratory where
many chemical reactions take place. B. the solvent to be water soluble
A. Cell membrane C. phagocytosis
B. Nucleoplasm D. transport vesicles

253. Only eukaryotic cells have D. is the site of most cellular chemical re-
A. membrane-bound organelles actions.
B. DNA 259. Which form of transport permits water to
C. ribosomes move over a semi-permeable membrane?
D. cell membranes A. Osmosis
254. This organelle takes food and turns it into B. Active Transport
ENERGY for plant and animal cells.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Diffusion
A. Chloroplast
D. Facilitated Diffusion
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosome 260. Prokaryotes have an approximate size
D. Ribosome of
255. Which of the following is not a part of A. 1 nanometer (nm)

the current cell theory? B. 1 micrometer (um)
A. All cells contain identical organelles
C. 1 millimeter (mm)
B. All living things are made of cells
D. 1 centimeter (cm)
C. The cell is the basic unit of life and
function
261. Stores materials in the cell.
D. Cells come from other cells by binary
fission or mitosis A. chloroplast
B. lysosome
256. Stain used to observe nucleus
A. Methyl orange C. cell membrane
B. Methylene blue D. vacuole
C. Saffranine
262. Which of the following organisms are
D. All The above prokaryotes?
257. cells that contain a true nucleus A. plants
A. prokaryotes B. animals
B. eukaryotes
C. bacteria
C. carbohydrate
D. all of the above
D. plant cells
258. The cell membrane 263. A cell organelle that is responsible for
waste removal in the cell.
A. alters and packages proteins and
lipids. A. Golgi Body
B. converts glucose to other energy B. Endoplasmic reticulum
molecules.
C. Large central vacuole
C. controls which substances enter and
exit the cell. D. Lysosomes

264. Which organelle makes proteins using 269. Which organelle is considered to be the
coded instructions that come from the nu- “garbage collector” of the cell?
cleus?

A. Rough ER
A. Golgi apparatus B. vacuole
B. vacuole C. lysosome
C. mitochondrion D. nucleus
D. ribosome 270. A protein that detects a signal molecule
and performs an action in response is
265. Match the definition with the word Pow- called a
erhouse of the cell
A. receptor
A. Nucleus B. ligand
B. Cell C. vesicle
C. Mitochondria D. proton
D. Organelles 271. This organelle converts solar energy into
chemical energy (glucose) during photosyn-
266. What is found in both plant and animal
thesis; it contains chlorophyll which makes
cells but is much larger in plant cells?
plants green.
A. Nucleus A. Chloroplast
B. Mitochondria B. Cell wall
C. Chloroplast C. Smooth ER
D. Vacuole D. Rough ER
267. An effect of osmosis where the outside 272. What do vacuoles do?
solution has a lower concentration than A. They actually do not have an important
the solution inside the cell. Movement of role
water molecules into the cell causes it to B. They protect the cell
swell.
C. They are the brain of the cell
A. isotonic
D. storage area for cells; water storage
B. exotonic in plants
C. hypertonic 273. what is a Eukaryotic cell?
D. hypotonic A. A animals cell
B. A plant cell
268. A group of tissues that work together to
perform closely related functions. C. A animals cell and a plant cell
A. organ system D. none of above
B. tissue 274. Plant cells do not contain centrioles.

When the plant cell divides through mito-
C. organ
sis, what structure helps the plant cell to
D. specialized cells divide?

A. Cell Plate 280. Which types of organisms are Prokary-

B. Cell Wall otes?
A. Protists
C. Vacuole
B. Plants
D. Chloroplasts
C. Fungi
275. A group of similar cells that perform the D. Bacteria
same function.
281. If a goat has 12 chromosomes in all it’s
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. tissue
somatic cells, how many chromosomes will
B. organelle it have after mitosis?
C. mass A. 6
D. tendon B. 24
276. Hooke’s discovery of cells was made ob- C. 12

serving D. 36
A. living algal cells 282. The densely packed area of a cell that has
B. living human blood cells the DNA and controls the cell’s activities.
C. dead plant cells A. Chloroplast
D. dead protist cells B. Golgi Bodies

C. Nucleus
277. Tiny cell structures that carry out specific
D. Mitochondria
functions within the cell.
A. membranes 283. A stiff structure outside the cell mem-
brane
B. nucleus
A. cytoskeleton
C. organelles
B. cell membrane
D. animalicules
C. cell wall
278. Cells arise from Cells arise from . D. cytoplasm
A. Cells 284. The smallest units of life in all living
B. Cell organelles things are
C. Pre existing cells A. cells
D. none of above B. mitochondria
C. cytoplasm
279. An organelle involved in breaking down
lipids, proteins, carbohydrates, damage D. Golgi apparatus
organelles, and bacteria are 285. The liquid material in the nucleus is
A. Golgi Appaparatus A. chromosomes
B. Vesicles B. nucleolus
C. Vacule C. nucleoplasm
D. Lysosomes D. bacteria

286. How does a cell membrane help maintain B. Nucleus

homeostasis for a cell? C. Mitochondria

A. Regulates what enters and leaves the D. Vacuole
cell
B. Flexibility 292. How are chloroplasts like mitochondria?
C. Protective barrier A. They can both use energy from sun-

light.
D. Structure and support
B. They look alike.
287. The ability to allow only certain C. They both contain DNA.
molecules into or out of the cell.
D. They are both found in animal cells.
A. Semipermeability
293. The act like storage closets because
B. Permeability
they can store food and water.
C. Impermeability
A. cell membranes
D. Unpermeability
B. cytoplasm
288. This organelle modifies proteins and pack- C. chloroplasts
ages them for distribution outside the cell
D. vacuoles
A. Golgi body
294. In which of the following organelles is a
B. Endoplasmic reticulum
cell’s ATP produced?
C. Flagella
A. mitochondrion
D. Transport Vesicle
B. endoplasmic reticulum
289. Which of the following is a function of the C. golgi apparatus
Golgi apparatus?
D. lysosome
A. storing genetic information
295. Which type of cell has no membrane-
B. recycling waste products of the cell
bound nucleus?
C. providing a protective barrier
A. eukaryotic plant cell
D. processing and storing proteins
B. eukaryotic animal cell
290. Which of the following are embedded C. prokaryotic cell
in the phospholipid bilayer and help sub- D. none of above
stances pass through?
A. lipids 296. Ok, no more fun stories. Here’s a defini-
tion:the movement of molecules across the
B. proteins cell membrane from LOW to HIGH concen-
C. cholesterol tration. But wait there’s more!!!!! It needs
D. carbohydrates energy to do this!!
A. Passive Transport
291. The is a densely packed area in a cell
that contains the genetic material-DNA-for B. Diffusion
controlling the cell’s activities. C. Osmosis
A. Chloroplast D. Active Transport

297. Which organelle prepares proteins into C. chloroplasts

vesicles to transport from one area of a D. cell wall
cell to another?
A. gogli apparatus 303. Stack of membranes that packages and
transports materials in the cell
B. chloroplasts
C. rough ER A. Golgi Body (apparatus)
D. mitochondrion B. Nucleus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cell Wall
298. Which of the following instruments can
be used to observe cells? D. Cell Membrane
A. Barometer 304. What is a Photoynthesis cell?
B. Microscope
A. A process of capturing sunlight and
C. Periscope synthesizing glucose
D. Telescope B. A oxygen from carbon dioxide and wa-
ter
299. makes proteins
C. All above
A. nucleus
B. ribosomes D. none of above
C. lysosomes 305. Relatively constant internal physical and

D. vacuoles chemical conditions that organisms main-
tain.
300. I am very present in muscles in order to
A. equilibrium
provide massive amounts of ATP for move-
ment and exercise. Who am I? B. homeostasis
A. Nucleus C. cellular balance
B. ER D. isotonic
C. Mitochondria
306. The structure that regulates what enters
D. Ribosomes and leaves the cell is called the
301. Which organelle is like the control room A. nucleus
because it contains DNA and controls the B. cell wall
cell activities?
C. nuclear membrane
A. Lysosomes
D. plasma membrane
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus 307. Most of the cell membrane is made of this
D. Cell membrane macromolecule:
A. Lipids
302. Bacteria, protist, animal and plant cells
all have a B. Carbohydrates
A. cell membrane C. Proteins
B. nucleus D. Nucleic acids

308. holds materials like water and is very 313. What is the “Powerhouse” of the cell
large in a plant cell A. Vacuoles

A. nucleus B. Mitochondria
B. golgi body C. Lysosomes
C. chloroplast D. Chloroplast
D. vacuole 314. The organelle that precesses a lot of
molecules for the cell-like protein folding.
309. Why is the cell membrane like a window
screen? A. nucleus
A. They both allow everything to pass B. cell membrane
through. C. mitochondria
B. Neither allow anything to pass through. D. ER
315. This organelle is like a train station in
C. They both allow certain things to pass a city. It can be found in both plant and
through, while blocking the passage of animal cells. This organelle has passage-
others. ways within the cell that carry proteins
D. They are not similar to each other at and other materials from one part of the
all. cell to another.
310. In many cells, the structure that controls
the cell’s activities is the B. ET
A. cell membrane C. Golgi Bodies
B. organelle D. Nucleolus
C. nucleolus 316. What is the function of the cell membrane,

in ALL living organisms?
D. nucleus
A. Provides support and structure in the
311. the movement of water across the cell cell.
membrane B. Synthesizes protein for ATP for the cell.
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion C. Storage of raw materials (food) and
ATP for the cell.
C. Wave action
D. Regulates the transport of materials
D. Dehydration
into and out of the cell.
312. Structures that have specialized func- 317. The acts as the gate of a cell because
tions. Most organelles are surrounded by it allows materials to pass in and out of
membranes cells.
A. organelles A. mitochondria
B. lipids B. nucleus
C. nucleus C. cell wall
D. none of above D. cell membrane

318. what is the function of the choloro- 324. Proteins are made on the
plasts? A. mitochondria
A. make food (sugar) through photosyn- B. ribosomes
thesis
C. nucleus
B. make ribosomes
D. plasma membrane
C. make ATP energy
325. The process by which particles move from
D. controls the cells functions an area of high concentration to an area of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
319. Which best describes rough ER? low concentration is known as
A. studded with ribosomes A. cytoplasm

B. diffusion
B. protected by vesicles
C. homeostasis
C. connected to Golgi Apparatus
D. membranes
D. stored in the vacuole
326. This helps modify and package macro-
320. Where does chemical reactions happen in- molecules to be transported out of the cell
side the cell? through a vesicle.
A. Cell membrane A. Cytoplasm
B. Vacuole B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Cytoplasm C. Mitochondria
D. Cell wall D. Golgi apparatus
321. Which early scientist first discovered and 327. Which organelle is responsible for making
named cells? proteins?
A. Robert Brown A. Nucleus
B. Theodore Schwann B. Nucleolus
C. Matthias Schleiden C. Lysosomes
D. Robert Hooke D. Ribosomes
322. Temporary storage within the cell 328. What is the function of a lysosome?
A. preparing protein
A. Vacuole
B. making food
B. Plasma membrane
C. breaking down wastes
C. Transport Proteins
D. food storage
D. Peroxisome
329. Which of the following is the non-living
323. Which organelle produces ribosomes? part of the cell?
A. Nucleolus A. Cell membrane
B. Cell Membrane B. Mitochondrion
C. Nucleus C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria D. Cell wall

330. Which organelles are the sites of photo- 335. I am fluid filled within the cell
synthesis where solar energy is converted A. Mitochondrion
to chemical energy stored in food.

B. Vacuole
A. chloroplasts
C. cytoplasm
B. mitochondria
D. Cell membrane
C. lysosomes
336. Stem cells are:
D. vacuoles
A. specialized cells with specific func-
331. Which structure is directly responsible for tions in the body
the formation of proteins within the cell?
B. cells that are undifferentiated and can
A. lysosomes differentiate into any cell type
B. vacuoles C. reproductive cells
C. centrioles D. cells that can only do one job
D. ribosomes 337. Found in the nucleus, where ribosomes
are made?
332. The is like JELL-O, and is a gel-like
fluid that fills plant and animal cells, and A. nucleus
is where the organelles are found. B. chromosomes
A. Cytoplasm C. ribosomes
B. Cell Membrane D. nucleolus
C. Cell Wall
338. moves substances within a cell (pipe like
D. JELL-O structures)
333. Which of the following is NOT TRUE A. endoplasmic reticulum

about cells? B. nucleus
A. There are many different types with C. cytoplasm
different structures and functions. D. vacuole
B. In humans, the nucleus is usually
bright red and the mitochondria are bright 339. Found in plant cells; traps energy from
blue. the sun to make food
C. They are microscopic. A. Cell Wall

B. Cell Membrane
D. Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic are exam-
ples. C. Mitochondria
D. Chloroplasts
334. Where are adult stem cells primarily
found? 340. Joy took the notes shown below while
A. Blood learning about cells.* Forms boundary be-
tween a cell and the outside environment
B. Bone Marrow
* Controls the movement of materials into
C. Brain and out of the cell
D. Spleen A. endoplasmic reticulum

B. cell membrane 346. This organelle is the “powerhouse” of

C. cell wall the cell; it breaks down food to release
energy (Analogy:power plants or food pro-
D. nucleus cessing plants of a city)
341. Which of the following pairs INCOR- A. vacuole
RECTLY matches a cell structure with its
function? B. mitochondria
A. cell membrane:protein synthesis C. nucleus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. nucleus:information (DNA) storage D. ribosome
C. vacuole:storage
347. Purpose of using glycerine on material
D. chloroplast:energy conversion
342. Which organelle prepares proteins and A. To prevent dehydration

sends them to the Golgi after they are
B. To add more color mixing the color
made; this organelle is covered in ribo-
somes? C. Both
A. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum D. none of above
B. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
348. It helps cells to function and it’s in the
C. Golgi Body
center of the cell.
D. Mitochondria
A. cell membrane
343. This type of cell has no membrane bound
B. nucleus
organelles and no nucleus
A. prokaryote C. vacuole
B. eukaryote D. chloroplast
C. symkaryote
349. Nucleus contains the following
D. plant cell
A. Nucleolus central consum
344. What contains the information for mak-
B. Genetic material is janyu material
ing proteins?
C. Both
A. ribosome
B. lysosome D. Nuclear membrane
C. DNA 350. This organelle is in both plants and ani-
D. golgi apparatus mals. It is a barrier between the cell and
the environment. It controls what goes in
345. What is the function of the cell mem- and out of a cell.
brane?
A. cell wall
A. Produces ATP
B. Produces proteins and lipids B. cell membrane
C. Keep the organelles in place C. cell organelles
D. Control what enters and leaves the cell D. mitochondria

351. The command center of the cell which con- curly hair. This transfer of characteristics
tains DNA/chromosomes, as well as the is due to the transfer of
nucleolus. A. Mitochondria

A. ribosomes B. Chromosomes
B. cell membrane C. Lysosomes
C. nucleus D. Chloroplasts
D. endoplasmic reticulum 357. The majority of the cell membrane is
made of which macromolecule?
352. What organelle controls the cell and di-
rects the cell’s activities? A. Lipids
B. Carbs
A. ribosomes
C. Proteins
B. nucleolus
D. Nucleic acids
C. nucleus
358. What distinguishes a eukaryotic cell from
D. organelle
a prokaryotic cell is the presence of
353. This structure packages and distributes A. A cell wall
proteins throughout the cell. B. A nucleus
A. Golgi Body C. DNA
B. Lysosome D. Ribosomes
C. Ribosome 359. Enclosed by a cell membrane, with many
D. Mitochondria organelles, round shaped.
A. Chloroplast
354. Groups of organs that perform the same
function is called ? B. Cell Wall
C. Animal cell
A. tissue
D. Plant cell
B. organ
C. organ system 360. In a plant cell, this organelle stores wa-
ter.
D. organism
A. central vaculoe
355. A highly folded membrane that trans- B. chloroplast
ports the protein from the Ribosome to the C. cell wall
Golgi Apparatus
D. mitochondria
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
361. The Cell does have a nucleus, where the
B. Flagella
DNA is protected by the Nuclear Mem-
C. Golgi apparatus brane
D. Transport Vesicle A. Prokaryotic Cells
B. Eukaryotic Cells
356. If your father has brown eyes, you may
also have brown eyes. If your mother has C. Prekaryotic cells
curly hair, you might also end up having D. Aqua karyotic cells

362. Which scientists first named the cells? 368. Water moves into a cell when the solu-
A. Hooke tion surrounding the cell is
B. Schwann A. hypertonic
C. Schleiden B. hypotonic
D. none of above C. isotonic
363. The smallest unit of life is D. concentrated
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. a protist 369. Rod-shaped structure, pass on traits of
B. an atom cell to new cell?
C. bacteria A. lysosomes
D. a cell B. chromosomes
364. What is the cell organelle that stores wa- C. nucleolus
ter and nutrients called? D. ribosomes
A. The chloroplast
B. The lysosomes 370. What is the function of the smooth endo-
plasmic reticulum?
C. The vacuole
A. synthesis of membrane lipids and
D. The mitochondria detoxification of drugs
365. What is the function of the mitochon- B. break down organelles that have out-
dria? lived their usefulness
A. modify, package and ship proteins C. break down lipids, carbohydrates, and
B. Make proteins proteins
C. Make energy (ATP) D. protein synthesis
D. Removes waste
371. What is the tonicity of a vacuole relative
366. Which of the following are similarities be- to the freshwater environment?
tween a plant cell and an animal cell? A. hypertonic
A. Both have a nucleus.
B. hypotonic
B. Both have a cell wall.
C. isotonic
C. Both have chloroplasts.
D. none of above
D. Both have chlorophyll.
372. When cells form a vesicle to take in ma-
367. This organelle has two membranes, and
terials, which form of transport is occur-
supplies energy (ATP) to the cell. It also
ring?
has its own DNA.
A. Ribosomes A. Endocytosis
B. Golgi Apparatus B. Exocytosis

C. Cell wall C. Facilitated Diffusion
D. Mitochondria D. Osmosis

373. What is one obvious difference between 378. All the parts of a cell are called?
plant and animal cells? A. Organelle

A. Plants have chloroplast and a large B. Cell
vacuole. animals do not
C. Ribosome
B. Animals have mitochondria and plants
do not D. Cell Membrane
C. Animals have a very thin cell wall 379. Which statement is NOT part of the Cell
Theory?
D. Plant cells have lysosomes and animal
cells do not A. Only animals are made of cells.
B. Cells are the basic unit of structure
374. The genetic material (DNA) in plant and
and function in all living things.
animal cell is found in the
C. All living things are made of cells.
A. central vacuole
D. New cells come from existing cells.
B. ER
C. mitochondria 380. Which process requires no energy from
the cell?
D. nucleus
A. exocytosishypotonic
375. What determines the function of a spe- B. endocytosis
cialized cell?
C. active transport
A. the type of RNA in the cell
D. facilitated diffusion
B. the number of ribosomes in the cell
381. Specialized structures that work together
C. the number of chromosomes in the cell
inside a cell are called
A. organelles
D. the active genes in the cell
B. prokaryotes
376. Which of the following is an example of C. eukaryotes
a prokaryotic cell?
D. nuclei
A. an amoeba
B. a virus 382. Very Primitive cells
A. Prokaryotic Cells
C. a bacterium
B. Eukaryotic Cells
D. a liver cell
C. Prekaryotic cells
377. The cell membrane is selectively perme-
D. Aqua karyotic cells
able. What does “selectively permeable”
mean? 383. In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes carry-
A. Anything can enter. ing genetic information are found in the
B. Nothing can enter. A. Ribosomes
C. Some things can enter, while other B. Lysosomes
things can’t enter. C. Nucleus
D. none of above D. Cell Membrane

384. Transportation network for the cell, 390. The only organelles would be ribosomes
moves (transports) materials around in that are used for the production of pro-
the cell teins
A. Lysosome A. Prokaryotic Cells
B. Nuclear Membrane B. Eukaryotic Cells
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum C. Prekaryotic cells
D. Centriole D. Aqua karyotic cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
385. Fluid that surrounds the organelles 391. Which statements are true about cells?
A. Cytoplasm A. Most cells are so small that they can
only be seen with a microscope.
B. Pudding
B. All living things are made up of cells.
C. Water
C. Cells are alive and are the smallest liv-
D. Cell Wall ing things.
386. Controls the cell and contains DNA D. All of the statements are true.
A. Nucleus 392. Which function do the lipids in a cell con-
B. Mitochondria trol?
C. Chloroplast A. a protective membrane
D. Cell Wall B. hold genetic information
C. transport
387. Just like Coke is a type of soda, is a
type of D. communication
A. diffusion, osmosis 393. Control center ; contains DNA; appeared
B. concentration, equilibrium purple under the microscope
C. equilibrium, concentration A. Nucleus
D. osmosis, diffusion B. Mitochondria

C. Cell Membrane
388. The difference between prokaryotic and
eukaryotic cells involves the presence of D. Vacuole
A. a nucleus 394. Which organelle uses energy from sun-

light to make sugar?
B. genetic material in the form of DNA
A. mitochondria
C. chloroplasts
B. nucleus
D. a cell membrane
C. chloroplasts
389. You are made up of
D. vacuoles
A. eukaryotic cells
395. Every cell contains certain structures that
B. prokaryotic cells perform specialized functions for the cell.
C. plant cells What are these structures called?
D. bacterial cells A. organelles

B. tissues 401. What is The function for the Mitochon-

dria?
C. cells
A. Make Protein

D. organs
B. Smooth E.R.
396. How was the first cell observed? C. Energy
A. from pond water under a microscope D. Drake
B. from a piece of cork tree bark under a 402. break down (digest) worn out cell parts,
microscope mostly in animal cells
C. by a human looking at it with their A. cytoplasm
naked eye B. lysosomes
D. none of above C. mitochondria
D. vacuoles
397. In what organelle is the genetic material
(DNA) found inside? 403. Encloses the cell, it acts like a gatekeeper,
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum allowing some materials to pass through it
but not others.
B. Golgi Complex
A. Chloroplasts
C. Nucleolus
B. Cell Wall
D. Nucleus C. Cell Membrane
398. What is NOT found in an animal cell? D. Cytoplasm
A. mitochondria, golgi bodies 404. What makes up the cell membrane?

B. vacoule, ribosome A. Lipid Monolayer
B. Lipid Bilayer
C. cell membrane, mitochondria
C. Protiens
D. cell wall, chloroplast
D. Carbohydrate Chains
399. What fluid can be found in cells that holds
405. allow cells to recognize each other
organelles?
and act like ID tags.
A. Blood A. Carbohydrates
B. Plasma B. Proteins
C. Chlorine C. Phospholipids
D. Cytoplasm D. Cholesterol
406. Match the definition with the wordGel-
400. Who am I:I help paramaecium to loco-
like fluid that protects the other or-
mote
ganelles
A. Cilia
A. Cytoplasm
B. Pseudopodia B. Slime
C. Cell membrane C. Blood Cells
D. Microfilament D. Gunk inside of the cell

407. What is the main function of the chloro- 412. This is the control center of the cell.
plasts in a plant cell? A. Nucleus
A. They produce proteins. B. Nuclear Membrane
B. They store water and food. C. Chloroplasts
C. They perform photosynthesis. D. Golgi Aparatus
D. They protect cells from the surround-
413. When a protein needs to be made, which
ing environment.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
organelle is responsible for this task?
408. What kind of organism is made of many A. Nucleus
cells, each with a special function?
B. Ribosomes
A. Multicellular
C. Golgi Body
B. Eukaryotic D. Mitochondria
C. Prokaryotic
414. A series of chemical reactions that con-
D. Unicellular vert light energy, water, and CO2 into the
food-energy molecule glucose and give off
409. All of the following are principles of the
oxygen
cell theory EXCEPT
A. fermenation
A. all living things are made of one or
more cells B. photosynthesis
B. all living things are made of one or C. carbohydrates
more cells D. none of above
C. water is the main ingredient in every
415. An organelle that captures energy from
cell
the sunlight in order to use it to produce
D. the cell is the smallest unit of life food in plant cells is
410. A rigid layer of nonliving material that A. Chromatin

surrounds the cells of plants and some B. Chloroplast
other organisms. C. Cytoplasm
A. Cell Wall D. Cell Membrane
B. Cell Membrane
416. All cells share certain functions necessary
C. Cytoplasm for life. Which of the following is not a
D. Ribosome function performed by every cell?
A. Take in energy
411. Organelles where photosynthesis occurs,
are green due to chlorophyll pigment found B. gets rid of wastes
in them. C. performs photosynthesis
A. Chloroplasts D. replicates to make new cells
B. Cell Wall
417. A structure made up of different types of
C. Cell Membrane tissue and performs a specific job.
D. Cytoplasm A. cells

B. tissue 423. A nucleus is found in what type of cell?

C. organ A. Prokaryotic

D. organ system B. Eukaryotic
C. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
418. The little rooms where monks live are
known as D. Neither prokaryotic or eukaryotic
A. chambers 424. Which organelle is present in bacteria
B. cells (prokaryote) and plant cells but not animal
cells
C. closets
A. cell mebrane
D. cupboards
B. lysosome
419. jello-like material, fills the space be- C. cell wall
tween cell organelles, is where many
D. nucleus
chemical reactions occur
A. cytoplasm 425. Hold/store water, mainly found in plant
cells
B. chromatin
A. nuclolus
C. chloroplast
B. ribosomes
D. cell membrane
C. golgi bodies
420. This organelle is found only in Eukary- D. vacuoles
otes
426. Which of the following does NOT contain
A. DNA
a nucleus?
B. cell membrane A. plant cell
C. ribosome B. bacteria
D. Nucleus C. animal cell
421. Which organelle contains enzymes that D. fungi cell
break down damaged cell parts?
427. What is happening during cytokinesis?
A. centriole
A. Spindle fibers form and the nuclear
B. lysosomes membrane dissolves
C. vacuole B. Nuclear membrane reforms and you
D. mitochondria have two nuclei
C. The cytoplasm divides, finishing mito-
422. Cells that are not yet specialized, like sis
stem cells, are said to be:
D. Chromosomes move to the center of
A. Undifferentiated the cell
B. Specialized
428. Used to scan at the atomic level! Can ac-
C. Disfunctional tually see the atoms of an object.
D. Inactive A. TEM

B. SEM 434. Controls what enters/leaves a cell

C. STM A. cell membrane
D. ATM B. Nuclear membrane
429. A cell organelle consisting of RNA and C. cell wall
protein found throughout the cytoplasm in
a cell; the site of protein synthesis. D. cytoplasm
A. golgi apparatus 435. helps keep the phospholipid tails
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. ribosome from sticking together and makes it more
C. mitochondrion fluid.
D. endoplasmic reticulum A. Carbohydrates

B. Proteins
430. Function of the cell membrane to block
the movement of certain sizes, shapes and C. Phospholipids
kinds of particles from entering the cell.
D. Cholesterol
A. permeable
B. impermeable 436. What are the small structures inside
of cells that carry out specific functions
C. semi-permeable
called?
D. none of above
A. Animalcules
431. When molecules pass through a cell mem-
B. Organelles
brane using special proteins called trans-
port proteins C. Tissues
A. facilitated diffusion D. Organs
B. diffusion
437. Which organelle’s function is to regulate
C. osmosis
what goes in and out of the nucleus?
D. none of above
A. cell membrane
432. Which organelle would you expect to find
B. nuclear membrane
in plant cells but NOT animal cells?
C. nucleolus
A. mitochondria
B. ribosome D. cytoplasm
C. chloroplast 438. Which of the following is a substance that
D. endoplasmic reticulum is found between the cell membrane and
the nucleus, which primarily consists of
433. Which structure provides protection to water and holds organelles?
the plant cell and gives it its shape?
A. cytoplasm
A. plasma membrane
B. vacuole B. chloroplast
C. cell wall C. mitochondria
D. endoplasmic reticulum D. cell membrane

439. Organisms whose cells do not have a nu- C. mitochondria

cleus are called D. vacuole

A. Eukaryotes
445. A cell organelle that stores materials such
B. Multicellular as water, salts, proteins, and carbohy-
C. Unicellular drates.
D. Prokaryotes A. vacuole
B. lysosome
440. Cell structure that forms passageways in
which proteins and other materials are car- C. ribosome
ried through the cell. D. vesicle
A. Golgi Body
446. Has Mitochondria
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
A. Prokaryotes
C. Lysosome
B. Eukaryote
D. Cell Membrane C. both
441. The organism containing only a single cell D. none of above
is called
447. Which of the following is the best descrip-
A. unicellular organism tion for an organelle?
B. multicellular organism A. Anything that it living
C. organelle B. A part of the body that carries out a
D. all of these specific function
442. During diffusion, molecules tend to move C. A cell that performs a particular role in
the boost
A. up the concentration gradient
D. A structure inside cells that performs
B. from an area of lower concentration to a specific job
an area of higher concentration
448. This organelle is like a highway. It can be
C. in a direction that doesn’t depend on
found in both plant and animal cells. This
concentration
organelle processes proteins and other ma-
D. down the concentration gradient terials.
443. A flexible covering that protects the in- A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
side of a cell from the envirtonment out- B. ET
side a cell
C. Golgi Bodies
A. cell wall
D. Nucleolus
B. cell membrane
449. Which organelle is found in BOTH eukary-
C. cytoskeleton
otes and prokaryotes.
D. organelles A. cytoplasm
444. breaks down food to release energy B. chloroplasts
A. nucleus C. nucleus
B. lysosomes D. mitochondria

450. DNA is the genetic material of a cell. It C. bacteria

contains all of the instructions a cell needs D. eukaryotes
in order to function. In which structure
is DNA located within plant and animal 455. This is the rigid outer layer of a plant cell
cells? that protects it and gives it shape
A. the nucleus A. Cell Wall
B. the Golgi apparatus B. Cell Membrane
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the ribosomes C. Ribosomes
D. the centrioles D. Vacuole
451. A cell is discovered that has a membrane- 456. This is part of the endoplasmic reticulum
bound nucleus and organelles.This organ- that is used to make proteins that will be
ism also has a cell wall and large vacuoles used by other cells. It is lined with ribo-
for storing water.Which group would this somes.
organism most likely be put into?
A. Vesicles
A. bacteria
B. Lysosomes
B. protist
C. Rough ER
C. plant
D. Smooth ER
D. fungi
457. Material within the cell apart from the
452. What is the cell organelle that stores wa- nucleus.
ter, food and waste called?
A. Cell Wall
A. The cytoplasm
B. Ribosome
B. The lysosomes
C. Lysosome
C. The vacuole
D. Cytoplasm
D. The mitochondria
458. Has MITOCHONDRIA.
453. Plant cells and animal cells possess many
of the same organelles. Which of the fol- A. Plant Cell Only
lowing organelles, however, would be in- B. Animal Cell Only
dicative of a plant cell rather than an ani- C. Both
mal cell?
D. none of above
A. nucleus
B. ribosome 459. There are some similarities between
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Which of
C. mitochondira the following structures is found in both
D. chloroplast prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
454. Plants, animals, and fungus are all exam- A. lysosome

ples of B. mitochondrion
A. prokaryotes C. nucleus
B. unicellular organisms D. cell membrane

460. What process occurs during meiosis that C. a cell

causes genetic variation?
D. an organ

A. Cytokinesis
B. Prophase II 466. Which organelle is responsible for photo-
synthesis?
C. Nondisjunction
A. Chloroplast
D. Crossing-over
B. Mitochondria
461. are membrane-covered structures
that contain al the materials necessary to C. Nucleus
life. D. Cell Wall
A. organs
467. No energy required for things to move
B. cells into and out of the cell through the cell
C. organisms membrane
D. tissues A. passive transport
462. Structures which tend to be much larger B. active transport
in plant cells to hold larger amounts of wa- C. osmosis
ter
D. cellular respiration
A. cell wall
B. chloroplasts 468. Which organelle in plant cells captures
C. vacuoles the energy in sunlight?
D. lysosomes A. Cell Wall

B. Nucleus
463. How many viable egg cells are produced
during oogenesis in females? C. Chloroplasts
A. 1 D. Vacuole
B. 2
469. Cell organelles work together to main-
C. 3 tain
D. 4 A. homeostasis
464. Many different organelles that are used B. eukarya
to carry out a variety of cellular functions
C. prokarya
A. Prokaryotic Cells
D. organisms
B. Eukaryotic Cells
C. Prekaryotic cells 470. Usually, the largest organelle in a cell is
the
A. cell membrane
465. What is the basic unit of structure and
function in living things called? B. nucleus
A. an atom C. ribosome
B. an organelle D. vesicles

471. This can be found in the nucleus, and are A. Golgi bodies
tiny strands that contain the instructions B. endoplasmic reticulum
for directing the cell’s functions.
C. lysosomes
A. DNA/Chromatin
D. vacuoles
B. Chloroplasts
477. Sacs used for storage water and miner-
C. Golgi Bodies
als are called They are very large in
D. ER plants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
472. organelle that acts as cellular storage A. mitochondria
A. vacuole B. ribosomes
B. prokaryote C. nucleus
C. none D. vacuole
D. none of above 478. A reaction that eukaryotic and prokary-
otic cells can use to obtain energy from
473. What do viruses need to reproduce? food when oxygen levels are low
A. they need genetic material A. cell respiration
B. They need a host cell B. fermentation
C. They need bacteria C. photosynthesis
D. They need insulin D. none of above
474. Select the part of the cell that is the re- 479. Cells only come
gion between the cell membrane and the
A. from prokaryotes
nucleus.
B. from other cells dividing
A. Organelle
C. from fungi
B. Nucleus
D. from eukaryotes
C. Chromatin
D. Cytoplasm 480. Which of the following can be found in
the cytoplasm and on the surface of the
475. What structure acts like a doorway al- endoplasmic reticulum?
lowing larger and more polar molecules A. mitochondria
through the membrane?
B. centrosomes
A. carbohydrates
C. ribosomes
B. proteins
D. centrioles
C. hydrophilic heads
481. Which structure is NOT found in animal
D. lipids
cells?
476. A series of folded membranes from the A. cell wall
nucleus to the cell membrane that produce, B. cell membrane
package and transport proteins through
the cell; may or may not have ribosomes C. mitochondrion
on its surface. D. vacuoles

482. Cells are differentiatied so that they can these cells are protists, plants, fungi, and
perform certain tasks. Which cells are animals. Has a nucleus.
matched up correctly with their task?

A. Animal cell
A. Muscle Cells-Allow males to reproduce B. Eukaryotic cell
C. Prokaryotic cell
B. Nerve Cells-Fight Infections
D. Plant cell
C. Human Sperm Cells-Carry Impulses
488. This component of the cell membrane al-
D. Red Blood Cells-Carry Oxygen
lows the transport of specific substances
483. Which organelle would not be found in an- across a cell membrane.
imal cells? A. glycoprotein
A. Smooth ER B. glycoplipid
B. Chloroplast C. cholesterol
C. Mitochondria D. protein channel
D. Ribosome 489. The hydrophilic regions of a membrane
protein are most likely
484. An organism made of only one cell is
called . A. present only in muscle cells
A. Eukaryotic B. associated with the fatty acid region of
the lipids
B. Mutlicellular
C. either on the surface or inserted into
C. Monocellular the interior of the membrane
D. Unicellular D. exposed on the surface of the mem-
brane
485. When two haploid cells unite to form a
diploid cell, what is this process called? 490. A type of cell lacking a membrane-
A. Mitosis enclosed nucleus and membrane-enclosed
organelles. Organisms with prokaryotic
B. Spermatogenesis
cells (bacteria and archaea) are called
C. Zygote prokaryotes. Does not have a nucleus.
D. Fertilization A. Plant cell
B. Nuclear Membrane
486. All living things are made of cells, accord-
ing to what? C. Prokaryotic cell
A. theory of life D. Eukaryotic cell
B. cell rules 491. When looking at the cell membrane,
C. cell hypothesis where are the lipid tails located?
D. cell theory A. Inner part of the bilayer
B. Outer part of the bilayer
487. A type of cell with a membrane-
enclosed nucleus and membrane-enclosed C. At the end of the bilayer
organelles. Examples of organisms with D. Goes through each end of the bilayer

492. Match the definition with the wordCon- 497. A cell wall is NOT in which type of cell
trol center of the cell A. plants
A. Mitochondria B. animals
B. Nucleus C. fungi
C. Mrs. Betz D. none of the above
D. Organelles 498. These are passageways in the cell that
carry proteins and other materials from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
493. Onion cells are plant cells, but they are one part of the cell to another.
not green. This means they do not contain
any of a certain kind of organelle. Because A. Golgi Body
they are plant cells, however, they look B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
kind of rectangular. What organelle gives C. Ribosome
onion their shape?
D. Nucleolus
A. Cell Wall
499. Which part of the cell processes sub-
B. Chloroplasts
stances (proteins, etc) and then transports
C. Vacuoles them from one part of the cell to another?
D. Ribosomes A. Golgi bodies
B. Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
494. Which of the following cell structures cap-
tures and stores the sun’s energy in plant C. Ribosomes
cells, but not in animal cells? D. Lysosomes
A. chloroplast 500. This structure packages and distributes
B. mitochondria proteins out of the cell.
C. Golgi complex A. Golgi Body
D. endoplasmic reticulum B. Lysosome

C. Ribosome
495. The type of cellular transport that re- D. Mitochondria
quires no energy.
A. Active Transport 501. Where the genetic material is found in the
cell
B. Protein Pumps
A. nucleolus
C. Passive Transport B. cytoplasm
D. Endocytosis C. nucleus
496. Sac inside a cell that acts as a storage D. chloroplast
area. 502. Modern cells
A. Vacuole A. Prokaryotic Cells
B. Organelle B. Eukaryotic Cells
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum C. Prokaryotic cells
D. Chloroplast D. Aqua eukaryotic cells

503. Where are lipids formed? 509. These substances are formed by joining
A. Rough ER many small molecules together

B. Smooth ER A. lipids
B. carbohydrates
C. Nucleus
C. macromolecules
D. Ribosomes
D. nucleic acids
504. All living things are made of
510. The nucleus of the cell is responsible for
A. atoms
A. altering and packaging proteins and
B. cells
lipids.
C. bacteria B. converting light energy into food en-
D. plants ergy.
505. Another name for plasma membrane is C. breaking down molecules to produce
energy.
A. cell wall D. controlling the activities of the cell.
B. Nuclear membrane 511. This is a series of sac-like tunnels that

have ribosomes attached. The main func-
C. Cell membrane
tion of this organelle is to make and pro-
D. plasma membrane cess proteins.
506. In what direction do particles naturally A. Nucleus
diffuse? B. Rough ER
A. Up the concentration gradient C. Smooth ER
B. Down the concentration gradient D. Golgi apparatus
C. Across the concentration gradient 512. The cell theory applies to
D. Over the river and through the woods A. bacteria only
507. Which organelle is found in BOTH a plant B. plant cells and animal cells only
cell and an animal cell C. only multicellular organisms.
A. chloroplast D. all living cells
B. cell wall
513. Which organelle in a cell is responsible for
C. mitochondria maintaining cellular homeostasis?
D. cilia A. cell wall
508. The cell membrane is also called the B. cytoplasm
C. mitochondria
A. Nucleus Membrane D. cell membrane
B. Plasma Membrane 514. This is a fluid region in which cell struc-
C. Phosphorous Membrane tures are found.
D. Insane Membrane A. Nucleus

B. Cell Membrane C. Structure

C. Vacuoles D. Function
D. Cytoplasm
521. This cell part uses energy from the sun to
515. This part of the cell is where most of life’s make food for the plant.
processes take place and contains both the A. Cell Wall
cytoskeleton and organelles.
B. Cell Membrane
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Chloroplasts
B. mitochondria
C. cytoplasm D. Vacuole
D. nucleolus 522. This type of cell needs a cell wall and

chloroplasts
516. The kitchen of the cell is called
A. Plant cell
A. Cell wall
B. Vacuoles B. Animal Cell
C. Nucleus C. Bacteria
D. Plastids D. none of above
517. The basic unit of all living things 523. This long tail appendage created by
A. cells MTOC’s aids the cell in swimming.
B. nucleus A. Flagella
C. animals B. Cilia
D. organs C. Microfiliaments
518. Cholesterol D. Golgi apparatus
A. Is bad 524. Make proteins; found in nucleolus, in the

B. provides stiffness and structure to the cytoplasm or on rough ER
cell’s semipermeable membrane A. lysosomes
C. Is good B. mitochondria
D. helps with facilitated diffusion
C. chloroplasts
519. Where is DNA stored in a cell? D. ribosomes
A. Lysosomes
525. Small, round cell structure containing
B. Golgi Complex chemicals that break down large food par-
C. Ribosomes ticles into smaller ones.
D. Nucleus A. Ribosome
520. The Control center of the cell, holds DNA B. Vacuole
A. Nucleus C. Lysosome
B. Nuclear Membrane D. Flagellum

526. Animal cells DO NOT have C. Mitochondrion

A. Mitochondria D. Cell wall

B. Lysosomes
532. Which type of transport requires an input
C. Vacuoles of energy?
D. Chloroplasts A. Passive Transport
527. What do you have when organ systems B. Osmosis
work together? C. Simple Diffusion
A. organs D. Active Transport
B. organism
533. Tissues combine to form
C. cells
A. nucleus
D. tissue
B. organism
528. packages proteins for delivery to other C. cells
parts of the cell
D. organs
B. ribosomes 534. What is the function of the golgi appara-
tus?
C. Golgi body
A. modify, package and ship proteins
D. lysosomes
B. Make proteins
529. If a cell loses water to its environment,
C. Make energy (ATP)
what is true about the environment?
D. Removes waste
A. It is hypotonic to the cell
B. It is hypertonic to the cell 535. suspends organelles in the cell
C. It has a greater water potential than A. cytoplasm
the cell B. cell membrane
D. It has a lower solute concentration C. cell wall
than the cell
D. ribosomes
530. The movement of substances from an
area of higher concentration to an area of 536. Which substance is NOT found inside the
lower concentration vacuole?
A. osmosis A. Water
B. active transport B. Dissolved minerals
C. diffusion C. Sugars
D. none of above D. DNA
531. Carries out the chemical process known 537. Eukaryotic cells and prokaryoitic cells
as cellular respiration. both have:
A. Vacuole A. ribosome, mitochondria, nucleus
B. Nucleus B. DNA, ribosomes, cell membrane

C. chloroplast, cell membrane, ribo- 543. This organelle packages, sort and dis-
somes tribute cell products (Analogy:mail room or
Wal-Mart distribution center)
D. nucleus, ribosomes, cell memebrane
A. cell membrane
538. Major component of the lipid bilayer cell B. mitochondria
membrane.
C. golgi body
A. Cholesterol
D. lysosome
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Channel Proteins
544. Which organelle is only found in a plant
C. Phospholipids cell?
D. Glycolipid/glycoprotein complexes A. nucleus
B. chloroplast
539. Mainly found in plant cells
C. mitochondria
A. nucleus
D. cell membrane
B. cell wall
545. What is a plasma cell membrane?
C. cell membrane
A. Made up of a Phospholipid Bilaver
D. lysosome
B. It surrounds the cells and allows
540. In plant cells, this structure captures en- molecules into and out of the cell
ergy from the sun to produce food. C. All above
A. Ribosomes D. none of above
B. Cell Wall 546. The main function of the cell wall is to
C. Vacuoles A. support and protect the cell.
D. Chloroplasts B. store DNA
C. move materials in and out of the cell
541. Used to scan the surface of an object, like
an insect or something like that. D. build protein
A. TEM 547. What’s Emily’s favorite Korean food?

B. SEM A. jjambbong
B. ramen
C. STM
C. Ddeokboki
D. ATM
D. Miyeokguk
542. Unlike passive transport, active trans-
548. Structure in an animal cell that helps to
port requires
organize cell division
A. concentration gradients A. Nucleus
B. diffusion B. Nucleolus
C. energy from the cell C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. vesicles D. Centriole

549. Which component of the cell membrane C. Fat

functions to help move larger materials D. ATP
across the membrane?

A. carbohydrates 555. These are macromolecules that form
when long chains of molecules called nu-
B. cholesterol cleotides join together
C. phospholipids A. nucleic acid
D. proteins B. macromolecules
550. These structurest transport ions and C. lipids
other materials across the membrane. D. carbohydrates
Used in Facilitated Diffusion.
556. What type of transport uses transport
A. Transport Proteins
(channel) proteins to help molecules move
B. Plasma membrane from higher to lower concentrations?
C. Vacuoles A. Protein Pumps
D. Spindle Fibers B. Diffusion
551. Which cell structure is responsible for as- C. Facilitated Diffusion
sembling proteins? D. Osmosis
A. nucleus
557. This is a smaller molecule that combines
B. vacuole to form proteins.
C. ribosome A. Amino Acid
D. mitochondrion B. Carbohydrate
552. Tubules act as sites for protein synthesis C. Lipid

D. Nucleic Acid
A. IS 558. are organelles responsible for digest-
B. Golgi complex Golgi complex ing certain materials within the cell.
C. Both A. vacuoles
D. none of above B. chloroplasts
C. lysosomes
553. releases energy for cells to use, most
common in animal cells D. cell membrane
A. mitochondria 559. A cell organelle that breaks down lipids,
B. ribosomes carbohydrates, and proteins into small
molecules that can be used by the rest of
C. lysosomes
the cell.
D. nucleolus
A. vesicle
554. What do all cells use for energy? B. vacuole
A. Carbs C. lysosome
B. Protein D. chloroplast

560. Organelle that captures light energy from 565. Which part of the cell SURROUNDS the
the sun to make glucose sugar through cell and DIRECTS MATERIALS into and out
photosynthesis of the cell?
A. mitochondria A. Chloroplast
B. cell wall B. Cell Wall
C. chloroplast C. Cell Membrane
D. Golgi bodies D. Ribosome
NARAYAN CHANGDER
561. Which structures carry out cell move-
566. Surrounds the cell, regulates what en-
ment?
ters/leaves cell, maintains homeostasis
A. cytoplasm and ribosomes
A. vacuole
B. nucleolus and nucleus
B. cell wall
C. microtubules and microfilaments
C. cell membrane
D. chromosomes
D. lysosome
562. Identify which of these is NOT a major
difference between plant and animal cells. 567. This is a system of membranous tubules
and sacs in eukaryotic cells that functions
A. Only plant cells have a cell wall.
as a path along which molecules move
B. Only animal cells have mitochondria. from one part of the cell to another. Can
C. Animal cells do NOT contain chloro- be rough or smooth.
plasts. A. Mitochondria
D. Plant cells have a large central vac- B. Chloroplast
uole.
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
563. Which of these is an example of an un- D. Centrioles
safe practice in a lab?
A. detecting an odor by moving air toward 568. The spherical organelles that are the site
you with your hand of protein synthesis in a cell are the
B. pulling your hair into a ponytail when A. ribosomes
working with fire
B. vesicles
C. testing a substance by tasting it
C. lysosomes
D. watering a plant without wearing
D. golgi bodies
gloves
564. In an analogy I might refer to this or- 569. A structure within a cell that performs a
ganelle as the “power house of the cell”. specific function is called a(n)
A. nucleus A. organelle
B. mitochondria B. organ tissue
C. lysosome C. tissue
D. ribosome D. biocenter

570. What is a maze of tubular passage- 575. This is the “powerhouse” of the cell that
ways that lead from the nuclear membrane converts food to energy.
through the cytoplasm.

A. Mitocondria
A. cell membrance B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. ER C. Nucleus
C. Cytoplasm D. Lysosome
D. Ribosomes 576. Which process is occurring when a vesicle
fuses with the cell membrane and releases
571. Of the scientists listed, who first ob- its contents outside the cell?
served living cells under a microscope?
A. endocytosis
A. Leeuwenhoek
B. phagocytosis
B. Schleiden
C. exocytosis
C. Schwann D. osmosis
D. Darwin
577. Which of the following macromolecules is
572. The nucleus includes all of the following NOT part of the cell membrane?
EXCEPT A. Lipids
A. cytoplasm B. Carbohydrates
B. a nuclear envelope C. Proteins
C. DNA D. Nucleic Acids
D. a nucleolus 578. Match the definition with the word Carry

incoming information from the sensory re-
573. A large macromolecule that does not dis- ceptors to the brain and spinal cord
solve in water A. The Brain
A. nucleic acid B. Sensory Neurons
B. protien C. The Heart
C. lipid D. Selectively Permeable
D. carbohydrate 579. Which organelle converts energy found in
food into a form that cells can use?
574. Plants use energy from sunlight, wa-
ter, and carbon dioxide to produce sugar. A. Mitochondria
Which structure is found only in plant cells B. Ribosomes
and helps plants capture energy from sun-
C. Nucleus
light?
D. Nucleolus
A. Vacoule
580. Is the structure located in a plant and an-
B. Nucleus
imal cell that is home to DNA, where new
C. Cell membrane cells are made and directs cell activity
D. Chloroplast A. Nucleus

B. Ribosomes 586. This is the protective outer layer in both

cell types, that allows certain things in and
C. Mitochondria
out of the cell.
D. Vacuoles
A. Ribosome
581. If water is flowing into and out of an an- B. Mitochondria
imal cell at equal rates, what type of envi- C. Cell Wall
ronment is the cell in?
D. Cell Membrane
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Hypertonic
587. An effect of osmosis where the outside
B. Hypotonic solution has a higher concentration than
C. Isotonic the solution inside the cell. Movement of
water molecules out of the cell causes it to
D. No enough information shrink.
582. The nucleus is like the of the cell. A. hypertonic
A. foot B. isotonic
B. hand C. hypotonic
D. homeostatic
C. stomach
D. brain 588. In humans, the mitochondrion is only in-
herited through the
583. Vacuoles are large sized in cells. The A. Mother
voids are in large cells.
B. Father
A. Plant C. Godmother
B. Animal D. Godfather
C. Both
589. Which component of the cell membrane
D. Bacteria bacteria functions to add strength and flexibility to
the membrane?
584. Thin strands of genetic material floating
A. carbohydrates
in the nucleus are called
B. cholesterol
A. ER
C. phospholipids
B. golgi apparatus
D. proteins
C. DNA/Chromosomes
590. Plant cells are capable of making their
D. lysosomes own food by photosynthesis. What spe-
cialized organelle do they have for captur-
585. ONLY found in plant cells
ing the energy from sunlight?
A. nucleus A. cell membrane
B. cell wall B. cell wall
C. cell membrane C. chloroplast
D. lysosome D. mitochondrion

591. What is the main function of the central A. lysosome

vacuole in a plant cell?
B. cell membrane

A. to break down molecules to release en-
C. vacuole
ergy
D. endoplasmic reticulum
B. to store water and other materials
C. to absorb energy from the Sun to pro- 597. A particularly active cell might contain
duce food large numbers of
D. to contain the cell’s genetic material A. chromosomes
592. A cell that can change its shape would be B. vacuoles
well suited for C. mitochondria
A. receiving and transmitting nerve im- D. walls
pulses
B. covering the body surface 598. The empty blank looking structures in the
cytoplasm is
C. moving to different tissues through
narrow openings A. plasma membrane
D. All of the above B. nucleus
C. plastids
593. This organelle provides the general shape
and support for the cell. D. vacuoles
A. Cytoplasm
599. Smooth ER lacks:
B. Cytoskeleton
A. nuclei
C. Golgi Apparatus
B. ribosomes
D. Vesicles
C. chloroplasts
594. This organelle creates ATP. D. lysosomes
A. Nucleus
600. How many cells are produced at the end
B. Ribosome
of meiosis?
C. Mitochondria
A. 2 diploid cells
D. ER
B. 4 haploid cells
595. Where is the genetic material found in the C. 4 diploid cells
cell?
D. 2 haploid cells
A. Nucleolus
B. Cytoplasm 601. Which macromolecule contains genetic in-
formation?
C. Nucleus
A. lipids
D. Chloroplast
B. nucleic acids
596. this organelle contains enzymes that
C. carbohydrates
breaks down big molecules to smaller
molecules (Analogy:garbage disposal) D. protein

602. Which structure controls what enters and 608. Viruses reproduce by taking over normal
leaves the cell? healthy cells and their nucleic acid into
A. cell wall the cell.
B. nucleus A. rejecting
C. plasma membrane B. attaching
D. golgi C. injecting
603. This type of cell sends messages through-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. projecting
out the body in the form of electrical im-
puses. 609. Which cell organelle is where proteins are
A. nerve made?
B. gamete A. nucleus
C. muscle B. vacuole
D. skin
C. mitochondrion
604. The control centre of all the activities of
D. ribosome
a cell is
A. nucleoplasm 610. Which of the following is NOT part of the
B. nucleus cell membrane?
C. organelles A. Lipids
D. cytoplasm B. Carbs
605. What is the process in which a plant C. Proteins
makes usable energy?
D. Nucleic Acids
A. ATP
B. Cellular Respiration 611. Which of the following are NOT compo-
C. Oxygen nents of plasma membrane
D. Transmission A. Cholestrol
606. The power house of cell is called B. Phospholipid
A. Cell wall C. Sclereid
B. Nucleus D. Protein
C. Mitochondria
D. Ribosomes 612. Which organelles are the powerhouses of
the cell because they convert chemical en-
607. Which organelle shapes, supports, and ergy in food to usable energy for the cell?
protects the cell?
A. chloroplasts
A. cell membrane
B. centrioles
B. cell wall
C. vacuole C. mitochondria
D. endoplasmic reticulum D. vesicles

613. Which structures are present in animal A. ER

and plant cells?
B. Lysosome

A. Vacuole, nucleus and chloroplast
C. Vacuole
B. Nucleus, cell wall, cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria
C. Nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm
D. Cell membrane, chloroplast, cell wall 619. Which is an example of a prokaryote?
614. This component of the cell membrane pro- A. Fungus

vides stability and flexibility for the struc- B. Bacteria
ture.
C. Plants
A. glycoprotein
D. Animals
B. glycoplipid
C. cholesterol 620. This part of the cell that is used for stor-
D. protein channel age.
A. Nucleus
615. Who was the first person to observe cells
under a microscope and when? B. Cell Membrane
A. Robert Boyle, in 1674 C. Mitochondria
B. Robert Brown, in 1641 D. Vacuole
C. Robert Hooke, in 1665
621. Which organelle controls the cell?
D. Robert Clive, in 1659
A. Nucleus
616. What is the purpose of the cilia and flag-
ella on a prokaryotic cell? B. Mitochondria
A. Movement C. Ribosome
B. Food Gathering D. Chloroplast
C. Reproduction
622. Which organelle do plant cells use to
D. Remove Waste make their food?
617. This outermost layer protects and sup- A. Nucleus
ports the cells of plants and some other B. Mitochondria
organisms.
C. Ribosome
A. Cell Membrane
D. Chloroplast
B. Cell Wall
C. Cytoplasm 623. This type of cell contains DNA
D. Golgi Apparatus A. prokaryotic
618. Vesicle filled with digestive enzymes B. eukaryotic
that break down lipids, carbohydrates,
C. both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
and proteins into monomers. Recycle dam-
aged or unused organelles. D. neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic

624. One important organelle that helps main- C. are found in prokaryotes
tain homeostasis by moving supplies from D. destroy cell products
one part of the cell to the other is the
A. endoplasmic reticulum 630. Fluid present in vacuole
B. mitochondrion A. Cell plasm is cell fluid

B. Cytoplasm is visible
C. nucleus
C. Cell sap Riktika Rasam
D. cytoplasm
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All the above
625. What organelle controls what can en-
ter/leave animal AND plant cells? 631. Where proteins are made in the cells.
A. vacuole A. Nucleus
B. cell wall B. Ribosomes
C. cell membrane C. Mitochondria
D. lysosome D. Vacuoles
626. This type of cell carries oxygen through- 632. Organs working together to perform a
out the body. function of the body
A. gamete A. TIssue
B. platelet B. Organism
C. white blood cell C. Organ System
D. red blood cell D. Structure
627. collect sunlight which it converts to sug- 633. What organelle is associated with the
ars that the plant cell uses production of proteins?
A. chloroplasts A. nucleus
B. ribosome
B. cytoplasm
C. mitochondria
C. cell wall
D. cell membrane
D. mitochondria
634. The invention of the made the discov-
628. A group of organs that work together to
ery of cells possible.
perform a specific function or group of func-
tions A. telescope
A. Organ System B. horoscope
B. Circulatory System C. microscope
C. Nucleus D. gyroscope
D. Cells 635. Protoplasm = cytoplasm +
629. how are chloroplasts and mitochondria A. Cell plasma is a liquid
similar? They both B. Cell membrane
A. produce energy products C. Nucleoplasm is the nucleus
B. are found in animal cells D. All The above

636. specialized structure that performs im- B. Ribosome

portant cellular functions within a eukary-
C. Cytoplasm
otic cell

D. Nucleus
A. organelle
B. cytoplasm 642. In a plant cell, the acts like the Great
C. all the above Wall of China, because it protects and sup-
ports the cell.
D. centrioles
A. cell wall
637. This organelle is a dense, spherical re-
gion inside the nucleus where ribosomes B. cell membrane
are made. C. cytoplasm
A. Nucleolus D. mitochondria
B. Nucleus
643. cells are irregular in shape?
C. Nuclear envelope
D. Cytoplasm A. Thrombocytes
B. leukocytes
638. This structure is a passageway though
out the cell. C. erythrocytes
A. Ribosome D. none of above
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
644. where cellular respiration takes place giv-
C. Nucleus ing cells much needed energy
D. Cell Membrane A. chloroplasts
639. This organelle surrounds the cell and con- B. mitochondria
trols what enters/leaves the cell (Anal-
C. nucleus
ogy:gates or doors of the school)
A. Golgi body D. endoplasmic reticulum
B. cell wall 645. How much interstitial fluid is found in the

C. cell membrane human body?
D. vacuole A. 3 gallons
640. a single celled organism is called B. 3 pints

A. multicellular C. 5 gallons
B. bicellularbicellular D. 50 gallons
C. polycellular
646. Cell membranes are made up of
D. unicellular
A. lipid bilayers
641. Jelly-like substance that fills space be-
B. mitochondria
tween organelles. The “roads” of the
cell. C. carbohydrates
A. Chloroplast D. ribosomes

647. The cell theory states that all organisms C. Reflex

are made of cells; cells are the most basic D. Cell Membrane
unit of life; and
A. all existing cells from by free-cell for- 653. The higher the magnification, the you
mation see of the specimen.
B. all cells have a nucleus A. more
C. all existing cells are produced by other B. less
NARAYAN CHANGDER
living cells
C. higher
D. all cells are eukaryotic
D. lower
648. The outermost layer of a plant cell
654. It maintains the shape of the plant, pro-
A. Cell Wall tect the cell, and helps regulate the cell’s
B. Centrioles uptake of water.
C. Chloroplast A. Chromosomes
D. Cell membrane B. Chloroplasts
649. A group of organs that work together to C. Cell Wall
perform a major function is an organ D. Chromatin
A. system
655. What type of cell does not have a nu-
B. column
cleus?
C. bank
A. eukaryotic
D. stack
B. prokaryotic
650. This type of protein is needed to move C. plant cell
things by active transport across the mem-
brane D. animal cell
A. Channel Proteins 656. A fluid like vesicle that stores water and
B. Pumps provides support for the cell.
C. Carrier Proteins A. Golgi Body
D. Cholesterol lubricated passageways B. Endoplasmic reticulum
651. allow cells to recognize each other. C. Large central vacuole
A. Carbohydrates D. Lysosomes
B. Proteins 657. Which term describes the relatively con-
C. Phospholipids stant internal physical conditions of an or-
D. Cholesterol ganism?
A. cell specialization
652. Match the definition with the word Rapid,
unlearned, involuntary response B. homeostasis
A. Reproduction C. permeability
B. Cell Wall D. unicellularity

658. This organelle helps plants keep their C. Mitochondria

rigid structure. D. Golgi bodies

A. Cell wall
664. Controls the passage of materials inside
B. Cell membrane and outside of the cell.
C. Chloroplast A. Cellmembrane
D. Nucleus B. Cytoplasm
659. Plants perform photosynthesis through C. Cell wall
this organelle. It captures energy from the D. Endoplasmic reticulum
sun and uses it to produce food for the
cell. 665. create proteins for plant and animal
A. Chlorophyll cells.
B. Chloroplasts A. Ribosomes
C. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
D. Golgi Apparatus C. Golgi Bodies
D. Lysosomes
660. Cell walls is found in
A. plant cells only 666. Which cell structures are sometimes
found attached to the endoplasmic reticu-
B. animal cells only
lum?
C. both (a) and (b)
A. chloroplasts
D. none of them
B. nuclei
661. This small structures break down materi- C. mitochondria
als in the cell.
D. ribosomes
A. Cholorplasts
667. What role does Cholesterol play in the
B. Ribosomes
phospholipid bilayer?
C. Lysosomes
A. Holds the two phospholipid layers to-
D. Golgi Body gether.
662. The powerhouse of the cell is the It B. Provides food for the cell membrane
converts energy from food into energy the C. Acts as a lubricant for transport pro-
cell can use teins.
A. Mitochondrion D. Acts as a self destruct mechanism for
B. Golgi body the cell.
C. Nucleus 668. The act like the restaurants of a plant
D. Ribosomes cell because they create food.
663. What organelle receive, packages & dis- A. vacuoles

tributes proteins and other materials? B. chloroplasts
A. Endoplasmic Reticulum C. mitochondria
B. Nucleus D. cell walls

669. What is the small dark structure in the C. coughing

nucleus that produces ribosomes? D. flinching
A. Rough ER
675. A jellylike fluid inside the cell in which the
B. Nucleolus
organelles are floating in.
C. Smooth ER
A. Cell Membrane
D. Chromatin
B. Chloroplast
670. In what organelle does photosynthesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cell Wall
occur?
D. Cytoplasm
A. mitochondria
B. stomata 676. The internal membrane system found in
C. xylem eukaryotic cells; the place where lipid com-
ponents of the cell membrane are assem-
D. chloroplast bled.
671. Which organelle is the “packing center” A. ribosome
for the cell?
C. golgi apparatus
B. Nucleus
D. lysosome
C. Lysosome
D. Golgi apparatus 677. A group of similar cells combine to form
A. organ
672. What is the function of the vacuole?
A. A gel-like fluid that holds all the or- B. organisms
ganelles in place C. organelles
B. Uses sunlight to perform photosynthe- D. tissue
sis
678. What is the principle role of the mitochon-
C. Stores water and nutrients
dria in cells?
D. Uses oxygen to transform energy into
a form the cell can use A. to eliminate wastes
B. to produce energy
673. Amino acids are linked together into pro-
teins by which of the following bond C. to provide support
types? D. to fight disease
A. Noncovalent bonds
679. Unique character of plant cell is to pos-
B. Phosphodiester bonds sess nu is a characteristic of plant
C. Peptide bonds cells.
D. none of the above A. Cell membrane
674. Which of the following is NOT a reflex? B. Cell wall is not visible
A. sweating C. Both
B. screaming D. Nucleus

680. A group of similar cells that perform a A. nucleus

particular function. B. cytoskeleton

A. organ C. cell membrane
B. tissue D. genetic material
C. specialized cells 686. The major difference between prokary-
D. muscles otes and eukaryotes is that
681. I am way bigger in plant cells than I am A. prokaryotes do not have a nucleus
in animal cells. What am I? B. prokaryotes do not have ribosomes.
A. Golgi Apparatus C. prokaryotes do not have a cell mem-
brane.
B. Nucleus
D. prokaryotes do not contain DNA
C. Vacuole
D. Ribosomes 687. What is the function of the cell wall?
A. Supports the cell and gives it a regular
682. stiff, protective outer layer of plant cells shape.
that give them their shape
B. Controls the movement of substances
A. cell membrane into and out of the cell.
B. nuclear membrane C. Contains DNA, which is the genetic in-
C. cell wall formation of the organism.
D. cytoplasm D. Site where chemical reactions take
place.
683. This directs all activity in the cell. The
688. Which cell structure is correctly paired
“boss” of the cell.
with its primary function?
A. Mitochondria
A. ribosome-movement
B. Vacuole
B. mitocondria-energy production
C. Chloroplast C. vacuole-cell division
D. Nucleus D. nucleus-storage of nutrients
684. A network of protein filaments in a eu- 689. The “brain of the cell, controls the cell,
karyotic cell that gives the cell its shape contains DNA (cellular instructions)
and internal organization and is involved
A. Cell Wall
in movement.
B. Ribosomes
A. centriole
C. Nucleus
B. golgi apparatus
D. Vacuole
C. lipid bilayer
690. changes and packages cell products
D. cytoskeleton
A. nucleus
685. In biology class, Zach observes cells. B. cell wall
Each cell has a structure that separates
the inside of the cell from the environment. C. vacuole
Which structure is Zach observing? D. golgi body

691. Organisms with cells that have a nucleus C. none

are called . . .
D. none of above
A. Archaea
B. Bacteria 697. Which organelles are like custodians in
that they remove waste, and break down
C. Eukaryotes and recycle macromolecules?
D. Prokaryotes
A. ribosomes
692. A dog and a blue whale have the same
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. golgi apparatus
size of
C. chloroplasts
A. Heart
D. lysosomes
B. cells
C. lungs 698. Eukaryotes usually contain
D. Brain A. a nucleus.
693. Match the definition with the wordA cell B. specialised organelles
structure that controls which substances C. genetic material
can enter or leave the cell.
D. all of the above
A. Cell Wall
B. Cell Membrane 699. Makes energy for the cell.
C. Selectively Permeable A. cell membrane
D. Blood Cells B. vacuole
694. What happens when a person becomes C. mitochondria
dehydrated D. ribosome
A. Interstitial fluid becomes low
B. Interstitial fluid becomes too high 700. Bricks from a wall, walls forms a room,
rooms form a house, and a house forms a
C. the blood cells begin to rupture building.What is a wall in this flowchart if
D. A shift in tonicity occurs the building is a human being??
695. The organelles that break down lipids, A. Cell

sugars, and proteins into small molecules B. Tissue
that can be used by the cell are called
C. Organ
A. vacuoles
D. Organ system
B. lysosomes
C. ribosomes 701. Small structures in the cytoplasm that do
special jobs.
D. microfilaments
A. Nucleus
696. controls what enters and leaves cell, sep-
arates inside of cell from outside of cell B. Ribosomes
A. plasma(cell) membrane C. Organelles
B. cell D. Vacuoles

702. The part of the cell that makes protein. 708. Small vesicles that digest materials in the
A. Vacuoles cell using enzymes.

B. Ribosomes A. Ribosomes
B. Lysosomes
C. Golgi Apparatus
C. Nucleus
D. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria
703. This type of cell may reproduce asexually
or sexually. 709. All living things are composed of cells,
cells are the basic units of structure and
A. prokaryotic function in living things, and new cells are
B. eukaryotic produced from existing cells
C. both prokaryotic and eukaryotic A. Cell Theory
D. neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic B. Scientific Thought
C. Cell System
704. what’s the difference between prokary-
otes vs. eukaryotes? D. Brain Food
A. Prokaryotes have nucleus 710. a group of tissues that perform a specific
B. Eukaryotes do not have a nucleus function or group of functions
C. Prokaryotes have a cell wall A. Organ
D. Eukaryotes do have a nucleus B. Cell
C. Body System
705. What does polar mean?
D. none of above
A. Unequal charge
711. Hen’s egg is a
B. Equal charge
A. Organ system
C. Arctic area
B. Organ
D. Bear that drinks Coca-Cola
C. cell
706. What structure do plant and animal cells D. Tissue
use to store water?
A. Vacuole 712. Which of the following functions as a
recognition site for interactions between
B. Mitochondria cells?
C. Lysosomes A. Phospholipids
D. Ribosomes B. Cholesterol
707. This organelle helps with detoxification C. Fatty acids
and the production of lipids. D. Glycolipids
A. Golgi Apparatus
713. A is a rigid layer that surrounds a
B. Nucleus plant cell, providing structural support.
C. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum A. cell membrane
D. Cell membrane B. chloroplast

C. cell wall 719. Which of the following is the driving force

for simple diffusion?
D. nucleus
A. Concentration gradient
714. Chromosomes are found in B. ATP hydrolysis
A. nucleus C. ADP hydrolysis
B. nucleolus D. Phosphorylation
C. nucleoplast 720. In what organelle is the genetic material
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. vacuole found inside?
715. The membrane that separates nucleus
B. Golgi Complex
with cytoplasm
C. Nucleolus
A. Plasma membrane
D. Nucleus
B. Cell wall is the shield
721. form the two layers of the cell mem-
C. Nuclear membrane
brane.
D. All the above A. Carbohydrates
716. Network of sacs responsible for making B. Proteins
protein. Where ribosomes bring molecules C. Phospholipids
to build proteins. D. Cholesterol
722. What is the basic unit of an organism?
B. Ribosomes
A. Chloroplast
C. Nucleus B. Organelle
D. Mitochondria C. Organ
717. The movement of molecules from higher D. Cell

concentration to lower concentration is 723. Function of the cell membrane to allow
A. diffusion substances to flow freely through, in and
out of the cell.
B. cell divisionactive transport
A. permeable
C. active transport
B. impermeable
D. tonicity
C. semi-permeable
718. Which type of transport would be most D. none of above
directly affected by a mutation in mito-
724. Which organelles help provide cells with
chondria?
energy?
A. Simple diffusion A. mitochondria and chloroplasts
B. Osmosis B. rough endoplasmic reticulum
C. Active transport C. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D. Facilitated diffusion D. Golgi apparatus and ribosomes

725. Which organelle breaks down food into C. nucleus

particles the cell can use? D. Endoplasmic Reticulum

A. Golgi apparatus
731. Membrane-bound organelles that use
B. endoplasmic reticulum light energy to make food-a sugar called
C. mitochondrion glucose-from water and carbon dioxide in
D. lysosome a process known as photosynthesis
A. chloroplasts
726. Which cell organelle helps break down
food molecules to release ATP energy? B. organelles
A. ribosomes C. nucleus
B. mitochondria D. none of above
C. vacuole 732. The is like JELL-O, and is a gel-like

fluid that fills plant and animal cells, and
D. nucleus
surround the organelles.
727. During mitosis, the somatic cells do not A. Cytoplasm
separte properly. What does this cause?
B. Cell Membrane
A. Nondisjunction
C. Cell Wall
B. Zygote
D. JELL-O
C. Mutation
733. What is a difference between eukaryotic
D. Polypeptide Bond
cells and prokaryotic cells?
728. How many layers thick is the lipid bi- A. Only prokaryotic cells have cytoplasm.
layer?
A. 1 B. Only eukaryotic cells have a cell mem-
B. 2 brane
C. 3 C. Only prokaryotic cells have genetic ma-
terial.
D. 4
D. Only eukaryotic cells have membrane-
729. Which is not true about Prokaryotic bound organelles.
cells?
734. This is a sac-like structure that contains
A. They do not have a nucleus. digestive enzymes. It may digest waste
B. They have DNA. materials or even dead cells.
C. They are larger than Eukaryotic cells. A. ER
D. Examples include cyanobacteria and E. B. Lysosome
coli. C. Vacuole
730. Which organelle packages up waste to be D. Vesicle
eliminated?
735. An organelle found in plant cells where
A. Golgi Complex photosynthesis occurs, it makes food from
B. ribosomes sun and water

A. Cytoplasm 741. Thin, flexible barrier around a cell; regu-

B. Plant cell lates what enters and leaves the cell
C. Cell Wall A. Cell Membrane
D. Chloroplast B. Cytoplasm
736. Which of the following organelles forms C. Atom
a boundary between a cell and the outside
D. Element
environment and controls the movement
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of materials into and out of the cell?
742. Provides support and protection for the
A. endoplasmic reticulum cell, while also controlling the movement
B. cell membrane of materials in and out of the cell.
C. cell wall A. Cellular Membrane
D. nucleus B. Nucleus
737. What is a good analogy for a cytoplasm C. Ribosomes
A. Jello D. Vacuole
B. Door
C. Gives organelles an object to float in 743. Where does cellular respiration take
place?
D. In plant and animal cells
A. mitochondria
738. Trisomy 21 is a genetic disorder caused
by B. chloroplast
A. Mutations C. nucleus
B. Nondisjunction D. Golgi complex
C. Gene linkage
D. Crossing-over 744. Which of the following is a network of
proteins that supports and gives shape to
739. What is a sac-like structure used to store a cell?
water and nutrients? These are much
A. vesicles
larger in plant cells?
A. Lysosomes B. vacuole
B. Mitochondria C. cytoskeleton
C. Vacuoles D. cytoplasm
D. Golgi Body
740. A group of organs that work together to a prokaryote?
perform a specific function.
A. dog
A. specialized cells
B. tissue B. tree
C. organ C. mushroom
D. organ system D. bacteria

746. Who am I:I am like a gate of school which evolution and all other aspects of life sci-
allows only students and teachers to pass ences.
through me, making me “semi/selectively

A. surface area-to-volume ratio
permeable”.
B. cell hypothesis
A. Cell wall
C. cell theory
B. Cell membrane
C. Cytoplasm D. cell evolution
D. Nucleolus 752. The organelles that clean plant and ani-

mal cells by using chemicals to break down
747. Moves stage up and down for focusing; food and worn out cell parts are
large amounts
A. Lysosomes
A. Fine Focus Knob
B. Mitochondria
B. Large Focus Knob
C. Nucleolus
C. Coarse Adjustment Knob
D. Fine Adjustment Knob D. Cell Wall
748. Cells have particular structures that per- 753. Chloroplasts in plant cells are where this
form specific jobs. These structures are process takes place.
known as A. cellular respiration
A. organs B. photosynthesis
B. tissues C. protein production
C. systems D. glycolysis
D. organelles
754. What surrounds the cytoplasm of all cells
749. An organism that is made up of one cell and controls what goes in and out of the
is called a(n) organism. cell?
A. eukaryotic A. Cell Membrane
B. unicellular B. Cell Wall
C. multicellular C. Cellophane
D. structural D. Cellulose
750. A(n) is any living thing.
755. The process by which particles tend to
A. organism move from an area where they are more
B. cell concentrated to an area where they are
less concentrated.
C. atom
A. diffusion
D. prokaryote
B. osmosis
751. The lists 3 basic characteristics of all
C. endocytosis
cells and organisms and is the fundamen-
tal study of organisms, medicine, heredity, D. exocytosis

756. Uses energy from the sun to make food C. Nucleus

for the plant. D. Golgi Body
A. Cell Wall
762. Which best explains the function of a cell
B. Cell Membrane membrane?
C. Chloroplasts A. offers protection from the outside en-
D. Vacuole vironment
B. provides a framework to help the cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
757. What makes up Tissues?
move
A. Cells
C. provides a framework to help the cell
B. Tissues move
C. Organs D. removes viruses from inside the cell
D. Organ Systems
763. Structure in plant cells and some other or-
758. Channels in the cell wall that allow the ganisms that capture energy from sunlight
exchange of substances between adjacent and uses it to produce food.
cells. A. Mitochondria
A. Peroxisome B. Ribosome
B. Plasmodesma C. Cytoplasm
C. Plasmodesmata D. Chloroplast
D. Vacuole
764. Where are proteins made? These
759. Describes the arrangement of the cell are small, grain-like or rod shaped or-
membrane as bendable and made of many ganelles.
parts. A. Golgi body
A. The Fluid Mosaic Model B. Mitoichondrion
B. The Major Mobility Model C. Chromosomes
C. The Crazy Cell Model D. Ribosomes
D. The Maze Model
765. Which of the following structures is
760. Which component of the cell membrane found in a plant cell and is the rigid struc-
helps cells recognize each other? ture that surround the cell membrane and
provides support and protection to the
A. carbohydrates cell?
B. cholesterol A. cell wall
C. phospholipids B. cell membrane
D. proteins C. cytoskeleton
761. Control center of cell that holds the ge- D. cytoplasm
netic material.
766. In comparing eukaryote and prokaryote
A. Lysosome cells, which increases the eukaryote’s com-
B. Mitochondria plexity?

A. DNA 772. Breaks down glucose to release energy

for the cell
B. nucleus

A. chloroplast
C. cell membrane
B. lysosomes
D. membrane bound organelles
C. mitochondria
767. Which structures do plant cells have that D. vacuole
animal cells do NOT have?
773. Which of the following best describes the
A. cell wall
function of ribosomes in animal and plant
B. large central vacuole cells?
C. chloroplasts A. to transport food particles
D. all of these B. to generate energy
C. to convert light energy to chemical en-
768. This organelle is a gel-like fluid that
ergy
takes up most of the space inside the cell.
D. to make proteins
A. Cytoplasm
B. Cell Membrane 774. Which plant organelle transforms light
into glucose to use as food?
C. Vacuole
A. Mitochondria
D. Golgi Body
B. Vacuoles
769. Uses chemical to break down food and C. Chloroplasts
worn out cell parts. D. Nucleus
A. Lysosomes
775. Controls what goes in and out of the cell
B. Golgi Bodies
A. Cell Membrane
C. Vacuoles B. Nucleus
D. Cytoplasm C. Nuclear Membrane
770. Smallest cell organelles in cells are D. Animal cell
A. Ribosomes 776. Which organelle is made of DNA and
B. Lysosomes are lysosomes found in the nucleus?
A. Chloroplast
C. Mitochondria Mitochondria
B. Cytoplasm
D. Vacuole empty
C. Chromosomes
771. Inner space in mitochondria is known as D. Mitochondria
777. Small finger like projections make from

A. Christ’s grace
microtubules that move the cell or move
B. Stroma Stroma materials around.
C. Matrix A. Cilla
D. None is none B. Flagellum

C. Fingerlings 783. Name the outermost layer of a plant cell

that protects and supports it.
D. Lemmings
A. Cell Membrane
778. Information that directs all of the cell’s
B. Cell Wall
functions.
A. Genetic Material C. Golgi Apparatus
B. Mitochondria D. Cytoplasm
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Chloroplast 784. Saclike structures that store materials
D. Lysosome such as water, salts, proteins, and carbo-
hydrates.
779. The process of diffusion in which A. Nucleus
molecules pass across the membrane
through cell membrane channels. B. Ribosomes
A. osmosis C. Organelles
B. aquaporin D. Vacuoles
C. active transport 785. Pandas have 30 chromosomes in their

D. facilitated diffusion somatic cells, how many chromosomes
would there be in their gametes?
780. This organelle moves materials through- A. 30
out the cell.
B. 15
C. 60
B. Ribosomes
D. 12
C. FedEx
D. Golgi Complex 786. Which characteristic do most plants have
in common?
781. Which phrase describes passive trans- A. they are unicellular
port?
B. they are prokaryotic
A. requires transport proteins
C. they produce seeds
B. requires no energy from the cell
D. they all have cell wall and chloroplast
C. requires isotonic solution
D. requires facilitation by enzymes 787. A is a membrane-bound sac found
in cells that contains digestive enzymes
782. Ribosomes are the cell organelle that which break down complex molecules or
structures.
A. produce energy for the cell.
A. mitochondrion
B. Produce proteins
B. vacuole
C. Break down broken cell parts.
C. chloroplast
D. Make food for the cell using the sun’s
energy. D. lysosome

788. Which of the following organelles are B. mitochondria

found in both animal and plant cells? C. vacuole

A. chloroplast D. ribosome
B. cell wall
794. Which of the below is NOT considered an
C. central vacuole organelle?
D. mitochondria A. Nucleus
789. Which organelle help keeps the cell’s B. Chloroplast
shape and moves organelles within the C. Mitochondria
cell?
D. Cell membrane
A. Cytoskeleton
795. Nucleus plays main role in important func-
B. Cytoplasm
tion of the cell. The function is The nu-
C. Chloroplasts cleus plays a major role in one of the
D. Cell Membrane main functions of the cell. That function
790. As the gatekeeper, I allow some things

A. Cell division
in and out of the cell.
B. Nuclear division
A. cell wall
C. Binary fission
B. lysosome
D. All the above
C. cell membrane
D. cytoplasm 796. What does hydrophilic mean?
A. Fills water up
791. Which of the following is NOT a correct
pairing of structure with function? B. Hates water
A. Golgi Apparatus:breakdown of com- C. Loves water
plex molecules D. Only associates with water if it has to
B. Mitochondrion:production of ATP
797. A unicellular organism that lacks a nu-
C. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum:synthesis cleus.
of proteins
A. eukaryote
D. Chloroplasts:photosynthesis
B. cell
792. Nucleus in 1831 discovered by 1831, C. organelle
discovered the nucleus. D. prokaryote
A. Robert Hook
798. Which of the following organelles con-
B. Robert Brown Robert Brown tains enzymes that can be used to break
C. Robert Hill Robert Hill down materials in animal cells?
D. none of above A. lysosome
793. Which organelle makes proteins using in- B. vacuole

structions from the nucleus? C. Golgi apparatus
A. cell membrane D. nucleolus

799. All living organisms are made of 804. The cell wall
A. cells A. Controls what enters and leaves the
cell.
B. organs
B. Provides structure and support for the
C. tissues
plant cell.
D. muscles C. Is a flexible out layer of the cell.
800. The stores food, water, wastes, and D. Is the transportation system of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
other materials in both plant and animal cell.
cells. 805. A gel like fluid that takes up most of the
A. Vacuole space inside the cell. The organelles are
B. Mitochondria found scattered throughout it.
A. Chloroplasts
C. Ribosomes
B. Cell Wall
D. Chromatin
C. Cell Membrane
801. What is the main difference between D. Cytoplasm
plant and animal cells?
806. What power do you start with when us-
A. Animal cells are eukaryotes and plant ing a microscope?
cells are not
A. High
B. Plant cells are eukaryotes and animal
B. 100X magnification
cells are not
C. Low
C. Animals cells have cell walls and plant
cells do not D. 400X magnification
D. Plant cells have cell walls and animal 807. Rough ER has attached to it
cells do not A. Nucleosomes
802. A thin flexible envelope that surrounds B. Golgi apparatus
the cell; pores control what goes in and C. Ribosomes
out? D. Chromosomes
808. The cell is the basic unit of
B. nuclear membrane A. organisms
C. cell membrane B. life
D. centrioles C. survival
803. this organelle holds materials like wa- D. human
ter and other products for storage (Anal- 809. A type of active transport in which the
ogy:water tower) vesicle inside the cell carries a particle to
A. lysosome the cell membrane. The membrane of the
vesicle sticks to and becomes part of the
B. vacuole
cell membrane. The particle is forced out
C. nucleus of the cell.
D. cell membrane A. diffusion

B. endocytosis 815. Which means of particle transport re-

C. exocytosis quires input of energy from the cell?

D. osmosis A. diffusion
B. osmosis
810. Contains chlorophyll and is where photo-
synthesis takes place. Found in plant cells C. facilitated diffusion
only. D. active transport
A. mitochondria
816. This organelle is mostly found on the ER
B. chloroplast but can be found in other areas within the
C. vacuole cytoplasm. Where protein synthesis oc-
curs.
D. cytoplasm
811. Match the definition with the wordA sac-
like organelle that stores water, food, and B. Chloroplast
other materials. C. Ribosomes
A. Wagon D. Nucleus
B. Vacuole
817. Which cell structure contains the cell’s ge-
C. Cell Wall netic material and controls the cell’s activ-
D. Cell Membrane ities?
A. organelle
812. The smallest functional and structural
unit of a living thing is called a(n) B. nucleus
A. cell C. cell envelope
B. organism D. cytoplasm
C. atom
818. What is found in both plant and animal
D. nucleus cells but is much larger in plant cells be-
cause it helps to provide structure and sup-
813. Cell organelles contain digestive enzymes
port?
A. Nucleus
A. Lysosomes are lysosomes
B. Mitochondrion
B. Ribosomes
C. IS C. Chloroplast
D. Mitochondria Mitochondria D. Vacuole
814. Which of the following, found ONLY in 819. Which of the following organelles is/are
plant cells, provides structure? common to plant and animal cell?
A. cell wall A. chloroplasts
B. chloroplast B. wall made of cellulose
C. mitochondria C. mitochondria
D. vacuole D. centrioles

820. An effect of osmosis where the concen- C. Carbohydrates

tration is the same inside and outside the D. Nucleic Acids
cell. Water molecules move at the same
rate in both directions. 826. Controls functions of cells and contains
A. hypertonic genetic material
B. isotonic
B. Nucleus
C. hypotonic
C. Microscope
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. osmotic pressure
D. Element
821. A cell membrane has pores that allow cer-
tain materials to pass through. This is a 827. Which organelle controls what goes in
type of cell membrane. and out of all cells?
A. Permeable A. Cell Membrane
B. In high concentration B. Golgi Apparatus
C. At equilibrium C. Mitochondria
D. In low concentration D. Ribosomes
822. Which phrase best describes rough ER? 828. Uh oh, someone heated fish in the mi-
crowave. At first, I couldn’t smell it all
A. studded with ribosomes the way across the room. But now, the
B. protected by vesicles molecules have spread out evenly through-
C. connected to the Golgi apparatus out the room and EVERYONE smells it!!
D. stored in the central vacuole A. passive transport

B. diffusion
823. These structures will form a channel, or
a carrying mechanism, to allow passage C. osmosis
through the cell membrane D. facilitated diffusion
A. Transport Proteins 829. Which organelle is present in plant cells
B. Cholesterol lubricated pumps but not animal cells?
C. Phospholipids A. cell membrane
D. Sodium potassium pumps B. endoplasmic reticulum
C. chloroplast
824. This structure is a storage area for the
cell. D. mitochondria
A. Lysosome 830. A cell organelle that converts the chemi-
B. Vacuole cal energy stored in food into compounds
that are more convenient for the cell to
C. Ribosome
use.
D. Golgi Body A. mitochondrion
825. Which organelle assembles proteins? B. chloroplast
A. Lipids C. lysosome
B. Ribosomes D. ATP

831. Which of the following is an organ of the 836. Organisms composed of many cells are
digestive system? called

A. stomach A. Prokaryotic
B. epithelial tissue B. Eukaryotic
C. kidney C. Unicellular
D. heart D. Multicellular
832. Which organelle uses digestive enzymes 837. What makes a muscle cells different from
to break down old cellular components a nerve cell?
and/or invading bacteria/virsus and recy-
A. They have different DNA to make them
cles those components to other organelles
those specialized cell types.
for use in building new macromolecules?
B. They have different portions of acti-
A. Gap junction
vated DNA.
B. Nucleus
C. They experience different environmen-
C. Golgi Body tal influences.
D. Lysosome D. They have different genes.
833. The diffusion of water across a selec- 838. Ribosomes are the cell organelle that
tively permeable membrane is called
A. Break down food to produce energy for
A. osmotic pressure. the cell.
B. osmosis. B. Produce proteins for the cell.
C. pinocytosis. C. Break down broken cell parts.
D. active transport.
D. Make food for the cell using the sun’s
834. Which statement is FALSE about plant energy.
cells?
839. Discuss the polarity of the phospholipid
A. They have large vacuoles bilayer
B. Leaf cells have many chloroplasts A. Phosphate heads are polar, the tails
C. Root cells have many mitochondria are not polar
D. They have cells walls and cell mem- B. Both the phosphate heads and the lipid
branes tails are polar
C. the phosphate heads are not polar, but
835. In pure water, a red blood cell from an
the lipid tails are polar
animal will swell and burst, but a leaf cell
from a plant will not. Which structure in D. There is no polarity in the phospholipid
the leaf cell will prevent the plant cell from bilayer
bursting?
840. Which organelle’s function is to transport
A. cell membrane materials from one part of the cell to an-
B. cell wall other via tubes?
C. mitochondrion A. golgi body
D. nucleus B. nucleus

C. mitochondia 846. The jelly like substance in the cell is called

D. endoplasmic reticulum the
A. chromosomes
841. This organelle makes proteins and are
the round substances located on the rough B. cytoplasm
endoplasmic reticulum (Analogy:lumber or C. lysosomes
brick yards)
D. cytokinesis
A. ribosomes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. nucleus 847. A ballerina is finishing her dance perfor-
C. mitochondria mance, and she notices she is struggling to
breathe and hardly has the energy to fin-
D. lysosoe ish performing. Which organelle is most
842. Which of the following is a major princi- affected?
ple upon which cell theory is based? A. golgi apparatus
A. All cells form by free-cell formation. B. mitochondria
B. All cells have DNA C. centriole
C. All organisms are made of cells D. nucleus
D. All cells are eukaryotic
848. Rigid, outermost layer of the plant cell
843. A group of 2 or more tissues that carry
out the same function is an A. nucleus
A. Tissue B. cell membrane
B. Cell C. cell wall
C. Organ System D. cytoplasm
D. Organ
849. Which organelle labels substances (pro-
844. What are the tiny structures that carry teins, etc) with messages (hormones) so
out jobs inside cells called? that they can be used in the cell or outside
of the cell?
A. membranes
B. nucleus A. ER
C. organelles B. golgi bodies

D. animalicules C. ribosomes
845. This structure is in plant cells and not an- D. lysosomes

imal cells. It is outside of the cell mem-
850. Animal cells have all of the following ex-
brane and adds more support/structure to
cept
the plant.
A. Cell membrane A. mitochondria
B. Cell Nucleus B. chloroplasts

C. Cell Wall C. a nucleus
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum D. a cell membrane

851. Which of the following organelle is found 857. Which of the following is found in both
in a plant cell but not in an animal cell? plant and animal cells?

A. cell membrane A. Cytoplasm
B. lysosome B. Chloroplast
C. cell wall C. Cell Wall
D. nucleus D. Chlorophyll
852. Which of the following is found inside a
prokaryote? 858. States that all living things are made of
one or more cells, the cell is the smallest
A. cytoplasm unit of life, and all new cells come from
B. DNA preexisting cells
C. ribosomes A. macromolecules
D. all of these B. cell theory
853. This organelle makes proteins. C. passive transport
A. Cell membrane D. cell membrane
B. Nucleus
859. When cells form a vesicle to release ma-
C. Ribosome terials, which form of transport is occur-
D. ER ring?
854. Has cytoplasm A. Endocytosis
A. Prokaryote B. Exocytosis
B. Eukaryote C. Facilitated Diffusion
C. both D. Osmosis
D. none of above
860. Differentiated structure within a cell that
855. Which organelle’s function is to package performs a specific function
and ship proteins around and out of the A. Organelle
cell?
B. Cell Wall
B. golgi body C. Organ system
C. ribosome D. Organism
D. nuclelous 861. A flexible double-layered sheet that
856. Which organelle sorts, modifies and pack- makes up the cell membrane and forms a
ages molecules for storage in the cell or barrier between the cell and its surround-
secretion out of the cell? ings.
A. Mitochondria A. cell membrane

B. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum B. cell wall
C. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum C. nuclear membrane
D. Golgi Body D. lipid bilayer

862. converts sunlight into chemical energy 868. What is the function of the rough endo-
A. cell plasmic reticulum?
B. lysosomes A. to make energy

C. chloroplast B. modify and transport proteins made by
the ribosomes on it
D. none of above
C. store water and other vital molecules
863. The function of the cell (plasma) mem-
D. to make new membranes and neutral-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
brane is
ize toxins
A. monitor what enters the cell and act as
a protective barrier 869. In diffusion
B. fight bacteria and viruses that enter A. water moves from a high concentra-
the cell. tion to a low concentration
C. make sure each cell reproduces cor- B. water moves from a low concentration
rectly to a high concentration
D. make sure each cell can move C. molecules move from a high concen-
tration to a low concentration
864. What is made in the nucleolus?
D. molecules move from a low concentra-
A. DNA tion to a high concentration
B. Protiens
870. Cells with a nucleus and membrane-
C. Ribosomes
bound organelles are called
D. ATP
A. prokaryotes
865. Which organelles are unique to plant B. eukaryotes
cells?
C. bacteria
A. ribosomes
D. protists
B. vacuoles
C. chloroplasts 871. This organelle is a rigid outer layer that
protects plant cells.
D. centrosomes
A. Cell Membrane
866. Bacteria B. Cell Wall
A. Prokaryotes
C. Nucleus
B. Eukaryote
D. Chloroplast
C. both
872. This type of cell can survive in condi-
D. none of above
tions without oxygen, such as deep ocean
867. Never use this knob on high power. trenches.
A. Fine A. prokaryotic
B. Large B. eukaryotic
C. Coarse C. both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
D. Small D. neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic

873. Fluid inside a cell that contains salts and 879. Tissues work together to make the fol-
other molecules lowing.
A. cells

A. cytoplasm
B. nucleus B. organs
C. organelles C. organ systems
D. none of above D. organism
874. contains enzymes (proteins that speed up 880. a carbohydrate/complex that is involved
digestion and chemical reactions0 in intercellular communication and cell
recognition
A. lysosome
A. Recognition marker
B. ribosome
B. Transport protein
C. nucleus
C. Phospholipid
D. golgi body D. Cholesterol channel
875. Transport proteins play a role in both 881. Food is moved into the cell by
A. passive and active transport A. endocytosis
B. exocytosis and endocytosis B. pinocytosis
C. diffusion and vesicle transport C. exocytosis
D. phagocytosis and passive transport D. osmosis
876. Enclosed by a cell wall, one large vacuole, 882. A cell structure that serves as an internal
contains chloroplast, square shaped. delivery system for the cell.
A. Cell Wall A. Golgi Body
B. Plant cell B. Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Animal cell C. Large central vacuole
D. Chloroplast D. Lysosomes
877. The organelle that are fluid-filled sacs 883. Group of cells
that store water, food, wastes, salts, or A. Organ
pigments. B. Tissue
A. ER C. Organism
B. Chloroplast D. Function
C. Vacuole 884. This organelle exists in pairs and is
D. Cell wall shaped like a cylinder. It produces micro-
tubules and helps during cell division (mi-
878. Where does photosynthesis occur? tosis).
A. Chloroplast A. chloroplast
B. Glucose B. Centriole
C. Nucleus C. nucleolus
D. Mitochondria D. Cytoskeleton

885. Which organelle is responsible for the C. The chloroplasts

production of energy?
D. The cell membrane
A. Cytoplasm
B. Chloroplast 891. This organelle creates energy for both
plant and animal cells. Known as the
C. Mitochondria “powerhouse”
D. Nucleus
A. Chloroplast
886. Function of Plastids
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Mitochondria
A. Provide color to plant parts C. Golgi Body
B. Participate in life processes. Partici-
D. Nucleus
pating in metabolism
C. Storage in function. 892. Control the cell’s activities; contains the
D. All the above cell’s DNA
A. mitochondria
887. Where are ribosomes produced?
B. cell membrane
A. Nucleolus
B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. nucleus
C. Golgi body D. golgi body

D. Vessicle 893. This cell part is in ALL cells. It is the gel-
888. The main function of chloroplasts is: like substance that provides cell shape.
A. To control what enters and leaves the A. Chloroplasts

cell. B. Chromosomes
B. To break down sugar to release energy C. Cytoplasm
for the cell.
D. Mitochondria
C. To control all activities of the cell.
D. To produce sugar (glucose) for the cell 894. Which structure is found only in eukary-
using the sun’s energy. otic cells?
889. Genetic variation among species is A. DNA

caused by B. Phospholipid membrane
A. Substitution C. Nuclear membrane
B. Asexual Reproduction D. Cytoplasm
C. Mitosis
895. Nucleic acid is found in both prokaryotic
D. Meiosis
cells and eukaryotic cells:
890. Which cell structure plays the biggest role A. True
in the movement of liquids into and out of
the egg? B. False
A. The nucleus C. I don’t know what Nucleic Acid is.
B. The cytoplasm D. none of above

896. This structure controls what can enter 902. I am the “security gate” of the cell and
and leave a cell. controls what enters and leaves. Who am
I?

A. Nucleus
B. Cytoplasm A. Cell wall
C. Cell Membrane B. Golgi Apparatus
D. Golgi Body C. Cytoplasm
D. Cell membrane
897. Despite differences in size and shape, all
cells must have cytoplasm and a . . . 903. Which organelle breaks downs material
A. cell wall and waste products?
B. cell membrane A. ER
C. mitochondrion B. golgi bodies
D. nucleus C. ribosomes
898. Mitosis occurs in D. lysosomes

A. Somatic cells 904. Which organelle stores food, water, and
B. Sperm & Egg waste?
C. Gametes A. vacuole
D. Sex Cells B. lysosome
C. ribosomes
899. Which statement best describes the cell
membrane? D. ER
A. It synthesises proteins 905. In animal cells, are important for cell
B. It allows the plant cell to become division and reproduction because they or-
turgid ganize the spindle upon which the cell’s
C. Respiration occurs here chromosomes are pulled apart.
D. It is a partially permeable membrane. A. vacuoles

B. ribosomes
900. Chloroplast is found in
C. lysosomes
A. Plant cell only
D. centrioles
B. Animal cell only
C. Both of these 906. A student observes a plant cell under a
microscope using the low power (4x) ob-
D. None of these
jective. If the eyepiece has a magnification
901. Which phrase best describes the property of 10x, what would be the total magnifi-
of selective permeability? cation of the cell?
A. some molecules pass A. 10x
B. all ions pass B. 40x
C. large molecules pass C. 100x
D. all molecules pass D. 400x

907. Where are proteins made? 913. Which of the following cell structures
A. Golgi body forms a barrier between the cell and en-
vironment in plant cells, but not in animal
B. Mitochondrion cells?
C. Chromosomes
A. DNA
D. Ribosomes
B. nucleus
908. What fluid fills the space inside of the cell
and holds organelles in place? C. cell wall
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Blood D. ribosomes
B. Plasma
914. Converts energy from food to energy the
C. Chlorine cell can use
D. Cytoplasm
A. Mitochondria
909. In a hypotonic solution, the concentration
B. Vacuole
of solutes outside the cell is lower than
the C. Nucleus
A. concentration of fluids in the mem- D. Atom
brane
B. concentration of osmosis 915. No Nucleus just a nucleod area where the
single strand of DNA can be found
C. concentration of diffusion in the mem-
brane A. Prokaryotic Cells
D. concentration of solutes inside the cell B. Eukaryotic Cells
910. This is the cell’s “control center.” C. Prekaryotic cells
B. Golgi Body
C. Nucleus 916. Which organelles are involved in the pro-
cess called endocytosis?
D. Cell Wall
A. ribosomes
911. Plasma membranes
A. are part of only a small number of cells. B. vesicles
C. centrioles
B. contain genes. D. chloroplasts
C. are made of DNA.
D. are thin coverings that surround cells. 917. The smallest unit that can carry out all
activities associated with life is
912. What is the purpose of photosynthesis?
A. the organelle
A. make glucose
B. the atom
B. make ATP
C. make light C. a tissue
D. release carbon dioxide D. the cell

918. A is composed of a phosphate and 924. Protects the cell from the outside environ-
glycerol head and 2 fatty acid chain tails. ment. (Only Plants)
A. Cell Membrane

A. phospholipid
B. Carbohydrate B. Chloroplasts
C. Cholesterol C. Cell Wall
D. Protein D. Vacuoles
919. Match the definition with the wordAn 925. This type of cell is found in males and is
organelle found in plant and algae cells responsible for reproduction.
where photosynthesis occurs A. sperm cell
A. Organelle B. egg cell
B. Cell C. muscle cell
C. Chlorophyll D. nerve cell
D. Chloroplast 926. Numerous hairlike organelles that pro-
920. Cushions and protects the internal or- trude from the surface of a cell and are
ganelles? packed in tight rows are called
A. chloroplasts A. flagella
B. vacuole B. microtubules
C. actin filaments
C. cytoplasm
D. cilia
D. cell membrane
927. Both plant and animal cells have
921. This is found inside the nucleus.
A. cell wall.
A. DNA/genetic material
B. mitochondria.
B. Ribosomes
C. chloroplasts.
C. Lysosomes
D. a large central vacuole.
D. Vacuole
928. Structures made of DNA that contain ge-
922. Organelle that digests harmful particles netic information used to carry out cell
and cleans the cell? functuins
A. lysosomes A. chromosomes
B. ribosomes B. heredity
C. chromosomes C. nucleus
D. cytoplasm D. organs
923. What technology was used to develop 929. Membrane packages that carry molecules
cell theory? around the cell or out of the cell.
A. Microwaves A. Golgi Apparatus
B. Telescopes B. Vacuole
C. Antibiotics C. Lysosome
D. Microscopes D. Vesicles

930. Who was the first person to describe a 936. Examples include kidney, liver, heart,
cell? brain, stomach, bladder, intestines
A. Robert Hooke A. cell
B. Anton vonLeuvenheok B. tissue
C. James Schlieden C. organ
D. none of above D. organ system
931. Which organelles are responsible for con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
937. For cells to stay alive they require what
verting glucose into chemical energy? type of SA:V?
A. vacuoles A. Large SA, Large V
B. ribosomes
B. Small SA, Large V
C. mitochondria
C. Large SA, Small V
D. cytoskeletons
D. Small SA, Small V
932. The theory of Endosymbiosis explains
938. Which is NOT a macromolecule?
A. The origin of eukaryotes A. carbohydrates
B. How species develop B. nucleic acids
C. How bacteria live C. proteins
D. Why cells rely on one another D. water
933. Which kind of cell is prokaryotic, may or 939. Gives the cell its shape
may not have a cell wall, and has no mem-
A. cell wall
brane bound organelles?
B. cell membrane
A. Animal
C. cytoskeleton
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi D. cytoplasm
D. Plant 940. Which organelle is responsible for cellular

respiration?
934. Projection that moves prokaryote
through its environment. A. Cell Membrane
A. Golgi Body B. Mitochondria
B. Organelle C. Chloroplasts
C. Mitochondria D. R
D. Flagellum 941. surrounds the cell; controls what en-
935. Cell theory was proposed by ters/leaves cell; maintains homeostasis
A. Theodor Schwann Theodor Schwann A. vacuole
B. Schleden B. cell wall
C. Both C. cell membrane
D. Rudolph Virchoea Rudolph Virchoea D. lysosome

942. What organelle is also known as the D. All living organisms are composed of
“gate keeper”? cells.

A. nucleus 948. Which of the following is the only cell or-
B. mitochondria ganelle that is capable of converting light
C. ribosome energy into chemical energy?
D. cell membrane A. vacuole

B. mitochondrion
943. Cells are measured in
C. chloroplast
A. Millimeter
B. Micron
949. Plant cells have a large membrane-bound
C. Micromillimeter
space in which water, waste products, and
D. centimeter nutrients are stored. This place is known
as a
944. What is another name for cell mem-
brane? A. mitochondrion
A. Great Wall of China B. chloroplast
B. Berlin Wall C. golgi apparatus
C. Plasma Membrane D. central vacuole
D. Cell Wall 950. A thin, flexible barrier that surrounds all
cells; regulates what enters and leaves the
945. has two types smooth and rough; work
cell.
on membranes and proteins
A. cell wall
A. endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
B. nuclear membrane
B. ES
C. cell membrane
C. all the above
D. cytoskeleton
D. none of above
951. The Golgi apparatus is an organelle that
946. Which of the following is NOT a phase of
mitosis?
A. receives proteins and lipids from the
A. Interphase endoplasmic reticulum.
B. Prophase B. labels the molecules made in the en-
C. Metaphase doplasmic reticulum with tags that specify
D. Telophase their destination.
C. releases molecules in vesicles.
947. Which of the following is not a postulate
of cell theory? D. All of the above
A. Cell is the basic unit of life. 952. Alpha helix and beta pleated sheets are
B. All cells develop from pre-existing part of what level of protein structure?
cells. A. primary
C. All living cells have cell walls. B. secondary

C. tertiary 958. This fluid in the cell is where the or-

ganelles are found. It contains water and
D. quaternary
chemicals the cell needs.
953. A living thing A. Blood
A. Cytoplasm B. Cytoplasm
C. Plasma
B. Organism
D. Vacuole
C. Function
NARAYAN CHANGDER
959. Has nucleus
D. Cell Wall
A. Prokaryotes
954. A process by which glucose, a sugar, is B. Eukaryote
broken down into smaller molecules
C. both
A. glycolysis D. none of above
B. fermentation
960. Which has ribosomes?
C. photosynthesis A. Prokaryote
D. none of above B. Eukaryote
955. Reflexes are rapid, unlearned, ac- C. both

tions. D. none of above
A. voluntary 961. What is the function of chloroplasts?
B. involuntary A. photosynthesis
C. sensitive B. Protects plant cells
D. controlled C. Store food and water

D. Lipid synthesis
956. The movement of molecules down a con-
centration gradient through transport pro- 962. An organelle that takes in sunlight en-
teins in the cell membrane is a type of ergy, carbon dioxide, and water to make
food
A. selective transport
A. cell membrane
B. osmosis B. cell wall
C. energy expenditure C. mitochondria
D. facilitated diffusion D. chloroplast
957. Which phrase best describes the function 963. A rigid structure that surrounds the cell
of mitochondria? membrane for support and protection of
the cell (found in only in plants and fungi).
A. Located in the cytoplasm
A. Chloroplasts
B. Bacteria-sized organelle B. Cell Wall
C. Converts energy for cell use C. Cell Membrane
D. Contains a folded inner membrane D. Cytoplasm

964. Cells present in living organism differ in C. large & hydrophobic

A. numbers D. large & hydrophilic

B. size
970. The can be found in plant and an-
C. shape imal cells, and receive proteins and mate-
D. all of these rials from the ER, packages them, and dis-
tributes them.
965. Allows materials to come in and out of
A. ER
the cell
A. Cell Wall B. Golgi Bodies
B. Cell Membrane C. Cell Membrane

C. Vacuole D. none of above
D. Mitochondria 971. Name the outermost layer of a plant cell
966. The movement of substances through a that protects and supports it. Rigid outer
cell membrane only by using the cell’s en- wall, provides structure to the plant cell.
ergy A. Cell Membrane
A. cell theory B. Cell Wall
B. osmosis C. Golgi Apparatus
C. active transport D. Cytoplasm
D. none of above
972. Which organelle maintains cell shape,
967. Which scientists discovered all animals moves cell parts, and helps cells move?
are made of cell?
A. ribosome
A. Hooke
B. golgi apparatus
B. Schwann
C. cytoskeleton
C. Schlieden
D. cell wall
D. none of above
973. The other name of cell membrane is
968. This structure surrounds the cytoplasm
of all cells and controls what enters and A. plasma membrane
leaves the cell. B. nuclear membrane
A. Cell Membrane
C. cell wall
B. Cellophane
D. none of these
C. Cell Wall
D. Cellulose 974. breaks down Hydrogen peroxide
A. Vacuole
969. What type of molecule has the most diffi-
cult time passing through the membrane? B. Plasma membrane
A. small & hydrophobic C. Transport Proteins
B. small & hydrophilic D. Peroxisome

975. What is the function of the ribosomes? B. cytoplasm

A. Transport proteins C. organelle
B. Make proteins D. nucleus
C. Package and ship proteins
981. The cytoplasm
D. Store water, food, and wastes
A. Is the gel-like fluid that holds other or-
976. all living things are composed of cells; ganelles in place.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
that cells are the basic units of structure B. Breaks down food to produce energy
and function; and new cells comes from ex- for the cell.
isting cells.
C. Is known as the “brain” of the cell.
A. cell theory
D. Is where photosynthesis takes place.
B. cells
982. Which organelles contain enzymes that
C. mitochondria
break down old cell parts?
D. none of above
A. centrosomes
977. This type of cell has a nucleus and mem- B. lysosomes
brane bound organelles.
C. vacuoles
A. prokaryote
D. chloroplasts
B. eukaryote
C. bacteria 983. All cells have a:
D. plant cell A. Nucleus

B. Plasma membrane
an organism is the . . . C. Cell wall
A. Cell D. Buddy
B. Chloroplast 984. Which of the following is the main func-
C. Lysosome tion of the nucleus of the cell?
D. Ribosome A. Manufactures protein
B. Contains genetic information
979. The technique in which cellular compo-
nents are coloured for better observation C. Transports materials in and out of the
is called: cell
A. Staining D. Conducts photosynthesis
B. Dyeing 985. The movement of water molecules across
C. Colouring a membrane that does not let all materials
pass through it is known as
D. Pigmenting
A. exocytosis
980. What is the term for the jellylike sub-
stance that is contained inside the cell B. pumping
membrane? C. endocytosis
A. DNA D. osmosis

986. Which of the following is not true of the 992. Which of the following do all living organ-
cell membrane? isms have in common?
A. Cells are held up by cell walls

A. It is semipermeable.
B. It allows only certain items to enter or B. The method to get water and food into
leave the cell. their cells
C. It is made out of nucleic acids C. Cells are made from pre-existing cells
D. It is a double layered membrane.
D. Special cells that can do many differ-
987. What are pseudopodia? ent things
A. Vacuole of amoeba 993. What is the fluid inside a cell called?
B. Eye of amoeba A. Endoplasimic Reticulum
C. False feet of amoeba B. Orange Juice
D. Heart of amoeba C. Water
988. When an organism has cells with a nu- D. Cytoplasm
clues, they are called 994. Vesicle that holds water and food. There
A. Archaea may be multiple small ones in animal cells
B. Bacteria A. Nucleus
C. Prokaryotes B. Vacuole
D. Eukaryotes C. Ribosome
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum
989. What is the main function of the Golgi Ap-
paratus? 995. What organelle is associated with the as-
A. communicate with other cells sembly of proteins?
A. nucleus
B. convert solar energy to chemical en-
ergy B. ribosome
C. process and deliver proteins C. mitochondria
D. copy genetic information D. cell membrane
990. Gasoline is to a car as glucose is to a 996. Long chains of amino acid molecules
A. carbohydrates
A. mitochondrion
B. proteins
B. nucleus
C. lipids
C. vacuole
D. macromolecules
D. cell wall
997. What is the jelly like substance that fills
991. Cell is discovered by the inside of a cell
A. Robert Brown A. cytoplasm
B. Robert Hooke B. chloroplasht
C. John Mendal C. mitochondria
D. Charse Darwin D. ribsome

998. An organism whose cells contain a nu- 1003. Which is the diffusion of water?
cleus. A. Diffusion
A. prokaryote B. Osmosis
B. eukaryote C. Exocytosis
C. organelle D. Pinocytosis
D. cell 1004. A series of chemical reactions that con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
vert the energy in food molecules into a
999. A series of pancake-like folded mem-
usable form of energy called ATP
branes that gather simple molecules and
make into more complex substances; pack- A. glycolysis
ages and transports B. diffusion
A. endoplasmic reticulum C. cellular respiration
B. Golgi bodies D. none of above
C. vacuoles 1005. Which cell organelles play a role
D. lysosomes in energy production by either build-
ing food molecules or breaking them
1000. This organelle is a rigid structure that down?I.nucleusII.mitochondrionIII.chloroplastIV.cell
gives plant cells protection, support and membrane
shape. A. I, II, III, and IV
A. Cell membrane B. III and IV only
B. Cell wall C. I and II only
C. Vacuole D. II and III only
D. Endoplasmic reticulum 1006. directs all of the cell’s activities using
DNA instructions
1001. Which organelle’s function is to synthe-
size or make proteins? A. nucleus
B. mitochondria
A. ribosome
C. endoplasmic reticulum
B. mitochondria
D. lysosome
C. nucleolous
1007. Found in plant cells but not in animal
D. chloroplast
cells and provides protection
1002. Eukaryotic cells A. Cell Membrane
A. Are the smallest cells in the world. B. Nucleus
B. Have DNA in a membrane-bound nu- C. Mitochondria
cleus. D. Cell Wall
C. Are only found in single-celled organ-
1008. Outside cell boundary that controls
isms.
which substances can enter or leave the
D. Only come in one color:navy blue. cell.

A. Cytoplasm 1014. Which of these types of cells DO NOT

have a nucleus?
B. Chloroplast

A. Prokaryotic
C. Cell Wall
B. Eukaryotic
D. Cell Membrane
C. Animal cell
1009. Unlike a eukaryotic cell, a prokaryotic D. Plant Cell
cell does not have
1015. Which organelle assembles proteins
A. DNA from amino acids?
B. a cell membrane A. Lipids
C. cytoplasm B. Ribosomes
D. a nucleus C. Carbohydrates
D. Nucleic Acids
1010. Which organelle transports proteins and
synthesizes lipids? 1016. Where is the DNA located in an eukary-
A. golgi apparatus otic cell?
B. cell membrane A. Inside the nucleus
C. chloroplast B. Floating in the cytoplasm

C. Inside the ribosomes
D. Moving along the ER
1011. This type of cell is lacking a nucleus
1017. First to observe the Nucleus of plant
A. prokaryotic cells.
B. eukaryotic A. Robert Brown
C. both prokaryotic and eukaryotic B. Matthias Schleiden
D. neither prokaryotic nor eukaryotic C. Matthias Schleiden
D. Carl Heinrich Braun
1012. Which organelles supply energy to a
cell? 1018. What is the most abundant chemical in
A. mitochondria a cell?
A. Lipid
B. centrosomes
B. Carbohydrate
C. vacuoles
C. Protein
D. ribosomes
D. Water
1013. ER:transportation::Golgi:?? ER:Transportation::Logistics:??
1019. Diffusion of water through a selectively
permeable membrane.
A. Vertical storage A. diffusion
B. secretion B. osmosis
C. Both C. passive transport
D. none of above D. exocytosis

1020. In an analogy, I might refer to this or- C. Golgi Complex

ganelle as the “gatekeeper” of the cell. D. ER
A. nucleus
1026. This organelle is a double layer of phos-
B. golgi apparatus
pholipids that creates a barrier between
C. cytoplasm the cell’s internal and external environ-
D. cell membrane ments. It is selectively permeable and con-
trols what enters and exits the cell.
1021. Descriptions are shown below. Which
NARAYAN CHANGDER
describes a eukaryotic cell? A. Nucleus
A. no ribosomes B. Cilia
B. free-floating DNA C. Cell membrane
C. DNA contained in nucleus D. Flagella
D. simple with no membrane-bound or- 1027. Cells which lack nuclear membrane are
ganelles
A. eukaryotic cells
1022. Match the definition with the wordA
B. prokaryotic cells
tiny cell structure that carries out a spe-
cific function within the cell. C. single cells
A. Player D. multicells
B. Organelle
1028. Which of the following is not found in
C. Reflex the nucleus?
D. Selectively Permeable A. DNA
1023. This cell organelle breaks down food to B. Nuclear Envelope
release energy. Its known as the power C. Nucleolus
plant of the cell.
D. Golgi Apparatus
B. Mitochondria 1029. The size to which a cell can grow is lim-
ited by its
C. Ribosomes
D. Cell Wall A. location
B. structure
1024. What is the function of the golgi body?
C. function
A. Protein Synthesis
D. surface area
B. Pack, sort, & ship materials
C. Control center of the Cell 1030. Contains enzymes used to digest and re-
D. Storage for food, water, and waste cycle food/substances in the cell
A. vacuole
1025. What organelle helps with cell diges-
tion? B. lysosomes
A. Lysosomes C. mitochondria
B. Ribosomes D. ribosomes

1031. Which organelle is not found in animal C. central vacuole

cells?
D. vesicles

A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria 1037. Which organelle transports protein
throughout the cell?
C. Chloroplast
A. Cytoplasm
D. Ribosomes
B. Lysosomes
1032. Which organelles are like the assembly
workers because they make proteins for C. Cell Wall
the cell? D. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)
A. vesicles
1038. The constant random motion of particles.
B. ribosomes This movement of course is KINETIC
C. mitochondria A. Brownian motion
D. centrioles
B. Red Shift
1033. This organelle can be found inside the C. Karmatic movement
nucleus, and produces ribosomes.
D. Climatic movement
A. Nucleus
B. Nucleolus 1039. The outer covering of a bacteria cell is
C. New Moon called the
D. New Balance Shoe A. flagella

B. cytoplasm
1034. Which of the following releases oxygen
into the atmosphere for other organisms C. cell wall
to use? D. cilia
A. Cellular Respiration
B. Photosythesis 1040. Small, grain-like structure in the cyto-
plasm of a cell where proteins are made.
C. Chemosynthesis
A. Vacuole
D. Transpiration
B. Flagellum
1035. Which of the following are NOT found
C. Ribosome
in animal cells
A. chloroplasts and cytoplasm D. Cell Membrane
B. chloroplasts and cell wall 1041. The movement of substances through a
C. cell wall and cell membrane cell membrane without using the cell’s en-
ergy
D. mitochondria and nucleus
A. passive transport
1036. A plant will wilt and die if it does not
have enough water in the B. diffusion
A. lysosomes C. osmosis
B. nucleus D. none of above

2.3 Transport Into and Out of the Cell 256
1042. Proteins that need to be exported out 1044. Which substance makes up the macro-
of the cell will be synthesized at- molecule carbohydrate?
A. Free ribosomes A. amino acid
B. The nucleus B. nucleic acids
C. Mitochondria C. vitamins
D. The rough ER D. glucose/sugar
1043. These organelles release energy from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
food through the process of cellular respi- 1045. This organelle is the location of protein
ration. synthesis. It is lined with ribosomes.
A. Golgi Complex A. Vesicles

B. Mitochondria B. Lysosomes
C. Lysosome C. Rough ER
D. Ribosomes D. Smooth ER
2.3 Transport Into and Out of the Cell

1. This cell structure helps organisms main- B. Nucleic Acid
tain homeostasis by controlling what sub- C. Lipid
stances may enter or leave cells.
D. Protein
A. vacuole
B. nucleus 5. Both side of a selectively-permeable mem-
brane are equal. The sides are
C. cell membrane
A. isotonic
D. cell wall
B. hypertonic
2. This uses energy C. hypotonic
A. endocytosis D. none of above
B. exocytosis
6. Solubility is defined as
C. both
A. the ability to catch on fire
D. none of above
B. the ability to be dissolved
3. Large particles being encased in a vesicle C. the ability to fly.
and brought into the cell.
D. the ability to get on Mrs. D’s nerves.
A. endocytosis
7. Mixture of two or more substances uni-
B. exocytosis
formly dispersed.
C. passive transport
A. solute
D. active transport B. immiscible
4. What type of macromolecule is ATP/ADP? C. solution
A. Carbohydrate D. concentration

8. Type of passive transport across a plasma 14. In diffusion, membrane proteins help
membrane with the aid of carrier (trans- molecules across the membrane
port) proteins; does not require ATP

A. molecular
A. Facilitated Diffusion
B. facilitated
B. Osmosis
C. simple
C. Phagocytosis
D. guided
D. Hydrophilic
9. When molecules are spread evenly across 15. A cell moves particles from a region of
the cell membrane, is reached. lesser concentration to a region of greater
concentration by
A. difference
A. facilitated diffusion
B. transportation
B. active transport
C. equilibrium
D. solution C. passive transport
D. osmosis
10. Which type of transport moves materials
and REQUIRES the use of energy? 16. Molecules diffusing with the concentration
A. Passive Transport gradient through a protein channel is
B. Active Transport A. Facilitated Diffusion
C. Both Passive and Active Transport B. Simple Diffusion
D. none of above C. Active Transport
11. The process of taking material into the cell D. Osmosis
by infolding the cell membrane is called
A. endocytosis 17. Which of the functions is not true about
the cell membrane?
B. exocytosis
A. maintains a stable internal environ-
C. diffusion ment through homeostatis
D. homeostasis
B. it controls what enters and leaves the
12. Osmoregulation is the regulation of? cell
A. glucose C. It blocks some molecules while allow-
ing others
B. heat
C. water D. it creates phospholipids
D. nutrients 18. Which of the following is true about active

transport?
13. Tumors are formed when
A. cells are healthy. A. It requires energy
B. cells are in interphase. B. It requires carrier

C. cell division is interrupted. C. It requires a concentration gradient
D. cell division is unregulated. D. All of the above statements are true

19. When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solu- C. Isotonic

tion water D. Cell Wall
A. moves from the inside of the cell to the
solution 25. Which of the following is correct about the
Golgi?
B. moves from the solution to the inside
of the cell A. Digests waste materials
C. moves equally in and out of the cell B. Protection and Support
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of these C. Modifies and packages molecules
20. Sugar molecules cross the cell membrane D. cellular movement
by
26. If you looked at red blood cells under a mi-
A. active transport croscope and saw the blood cells exploded,
B. facilitated diffusion what would you say happened?
C. osmosis A. The cells were placed in a hypotonic so-
D. endocytosis lution.
B. the solution was isotonic.
21. Not permitting passage of a substance or
substances C. The solution was hypertonic.
A. passive transport D. none of above
B. exocytosis
27. Spraying cologne in a corner of the room
C. impermeable and someone on the opposite corner smells
D. osmosis it is an example of what?
A. Osmosis
22. When particles move out of a cell through
facilitated diffusion, the cell B. Facilitated diffusion
A. gains energy C. Active transport
B. uses energy D. Diffusion
C. releases energy
28. What are the reactants for photosynthe-
D. does not use energy sis?
23. What is another word that can be used to A. Glucose and Carbon Dioxide
describe “homeostasis”? B. Oxygen and Water
A. STABLE
C. Glucose, Oxygen, and Energy
B. EQUAL
D. Carbon Dioxide, Water, and Energy
C. COMPLETE
D. CORRECT 29. Repels or does not like water
A. hydrophilic
24. A cell membrane that consists of two phos-
pholipid layers B. hydrophobic
A. Phospholipid bilayer C. bilayer
B. Impermeable D. none of above

30. The cell membrane maintains 35. If cells are placed in a strong sugar solu-
tion, water will
A. Energy

A. pass from the sugar solution to the
B. The cell looking good
cells
C. Phospholipid bilayer
B. pass back and forth
D. Homeostasis/Equilibrium C. pass from the cells to the sugar solu-
tion
31. During diffusion
D. stay in the cell
A. substances (things) moves from high
to low concentration 36. All Eukaryotic organisms have this
B. water moves when energy is used A. Nucleus
C. large or oddly shaped molecules move B. Cell Wall
across a cell membrane
C. Centrioles
D. water moves from high to low concen- D. Chloroplasts
tration
37. What forms the channels and pumps in the
32. Which of the following molecules pass eas- phospholipid bilayer?
ily through the cell membrane, requiring lit-
tle help? A. carbohydrates
B. proteins
A. sodium
C. hydrophilic heads
B. glucose
D. lipids
C. oxygen and carbon dioxide
D. lipid 38. Which of the following does not require en-
ergy
33. What is the difference in passive and ac- A. diffusion
tive transport?
B. endocytosis
A. Active transport requires energy while
C. active transport
passive transport does not
D. Sodium-Potassium pump
B. Both types of transport require energy
39. The movement of particles from an area of
C. Passive Transport moves molecules high concentration to an area of low con-
against the gradient centration.
D. Passive transport requires energy and A. active transport
active does not B. diffusion
34. HYPER means C. osmosis

D. random movement
A. Low
B. High 40. Sodium ions are “pumped” from a re-
gion of lower concentration to a region of
C. Equal
higher concentration in the nerve cells of
D. Fat humans. This process is an example of

A. diffusion 46. In our lab what substance passed through

B. passive transport the cell membrane?
A. Starch
C. osmosis
B. Sugar
D. active transport
C. Soap
41. If a molecule passes through a protein, but
D. Water
goes down a gradient, it is called
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. active transport 47. What would happen to a houseplant if you
water it with salt water (a hypertonic so-
B. endocytosis lution)?
C. facilitated diffusion A. Its cells would not change shape
D. exocytosis B. The plant cells would get bigger
42. If there is 5 percent water inside a cell and C. The cells would lose water and the
5 percent water outside a cell plant would wilt
A. more water will move inside the cell D. None above
B. more water will move outside the cell 48. Osmosis is is the movement of across
C. There will be no movement of water a membrane.
cells A. food
D. none of above B. energy
43. Glucose molecules moving against the con- C. oxygen

centration gradient from low to high. D. water
A. Diffusion 49. The process where only water is allowed
B. Osmosis to pass through the cell membrane from a
high to low concentration.
C. Active Transport
A. meiosis
D. none of above
B. respiration
44. What is an isotonic solution?
C. diffusion
A. When solutions are in equilibrium D. osmosis
B. When the solution has more solute
50. What is the order of the phases of mito-
C. When the solution has less solute sis?
D. Has a greater pressure A. anaphase, prophase, metaphase,
telophase
45. What is the function of ATP in living
things? B. prophase, anaphase, metaphase,
telophase
A. provides energy for cells
C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
B. stores genetic information
telophase
C. provides structure in the nucleus D. prophase, metaphase, telophase,
D. none of above anaphase

51. The air freshener spread throughout the 56. Carbon Dioxide is in high concentration in
room by the body cells and moves with the concen-
tration gradient (from high to low concen-

A. osmosis
tration) into the blood stream by this pro-
B. diffusion cess
C. active transport A. Facilitated Diffusion
D. magic!
B. Simple Diffusion
52. A cell with a 5% salt solution is placed into C. Active Transport
a beaker with a 10% salt solution. This
solution is considered to be to the cell. D. Osmosis
A. Isotonic 57. What form of active transport is the out-

B. Hypertonic ward transport of large particles through
a transport protein?
C. Hypotonic
A. Endocytosis
B. Exocytosis
53. A plant cell with a 20% salt solution is
placed into a beaker with a 10% salt solu- C. Primary Active Transport
tion. What will happen to the plant cell? D. Secondary Active Transport
A. Cytolysis
58. to pump a solute across a membrane
B. Plasmolysis against its gradient requires work; the cell
C. It will shrink must expend energy
D. It will swell A. active transport
54. How does the cell membrane help maintain B. passive transport
homeostasis for the cell? C. osmosis
A. By Providing a circular structure for all D. gated channels
cells
B. By making proteins to provide the cell 59. Many cells also release large amounts of
with energy material from the cell, a process known as
C. By regulating the transport in and out

of the cell A. exocytosis
D. By storing food as future energy for B. endocytosis

the cell C. protein synthesis
55. Particles too large to enter the membrane D. osmosis
need help from channel proteins no
energy is required. 60. Which is true of passive transport?
A. active transport A. Moves from low to high concentration
B. passive transport B. Requires energy
C. facilitated diffusion C. Moves from high to low concentration
D. none of above D. Moves against the gradient

61. Which of the following is not true about C. Mitosis

facilitated diffusion?
D. Endoyctosis
A. It requires energy
B. It requires carrier 67. Passive transport requires no
C. It requires a concentration gradient A. concentration gradients
D. It requires sodium pump B. osmosis
62. What type of solution do hospitals put into C. motion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
you through an IV? D. energy
A. hypotonic solution
B. hypertonic solution 68. Which type of solution has the same solute
concentration inside of and outside of the
C. isotonic solution cell?
D. none of above A. Hypertonic
63. Which of these processes require energy? B. Hypotonic
A. Diffusion C. Isotonic
B. Osmosis
D. none of above
C. Active transport
D. none of above 69. The packages and processes material
before it exports out of the cell.
64. Which of the following would diffuse
A. Vacuoles
through a cell membrane the most easily?
A. a large polar molecule B. mitochondria
B. a large nonpolar molecule C. Golgi apparatus
C. a small polar molecule D. nucleus
D. a small nonpolar molecule
70. This process uses pressure to push sub-
65. How does the cell membrane maintain stances through the cell membrane.
homeostasis? A. Filtration
A. Regulates what enters and leaves the
B. Active Transport
cell
B. Flexibility C. Osmosis
C. Protective barrier D. Endocytosis
D. Structure and support
71. Movement of materials from high to low
66. A type of active transport that releases concentration through a protein channel.
particles that were enclosed from a cell A. Facilitated diffusion
when the membrane of the vesicle fuses
with that of the cell membrane B. Simple diffusion
A. Exocytosis C. Osmosis
B. Osmosis D. Endocytosis

72. Diffusion does not require the cell to ex- A. Osmosis

pend ATP. Therefore, diffusion is consid- B. Metabolism
ered a type of

C. A selectively permeable membrane
A. exocytosis
D. Fermentation
B. phagocytosis
C. passive transport 78. The phase in mitosis where chromosomes
move away and are pulled apart by spin-
D. active transport dles to opposite sides of the cell.
73. When both inside and outside of a cell have A. prophase
the same amount of water it is said that B. anaphase
the cell has reached a state of
C. metaphase
A. Osmosis
D. telephase
B. Diffusion
79. Molecules will move from an area of high
C. Equilibrium
concentration to an area of low concentra-
D. none of above tion until they reach
74. Something is when some molecules A. osmosis
can cross the membrane while others can- B. equilibrium
not.
C. selective permeability
A. Selectively (or Semi) Permeable
D. diffusion
B. Totally Transparent
80. If a damaged cell enters mitosis
C. Liquid Licorice
A. The daughter cell will be healthy.
D. Heavily Patrolled
B. The daughter cell will be damaged.
75. Molecules that need help getting through
C. The cell will enter the G0 phase.
the plasma membrane use with type of
transport? D. The cell will go to S phase.
A. diffusion 81. A form of bulk transport in which materials
B. osmosis are transported from the inside to the out-
side of the cell in membrane-bound vesi-
C. facilitated diffusion
cles that fuse with the plasma membrane.
D. active transport
A. Endocytosis
76. ALL living cells have this in common B. Exocytosis
A. Nucleus C. Osmosis
B. Cell Membrane D. Diffusion
C. Cell Wall 82. Which process involves the movement of
D. Mitochondria molecules from high concentration to low
concentration?
77. allows some things to enter and leave
cells, while keeping other things in the cell A. Endocytosis
or keeping other things out of the cell. B. Active transport

C. osmosis D. none of above

D. phagocytosis 88. What does selectively-permeable mean?
83. Cell differentiation is most directly regu- A. Allow certain things to enter and leave
lated by the cell
A. ATP B. Nothing gets through
B. DNA C. The cell lets only large substances
C. Lipids through
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Sugars D. none of above
84. The substance in which a solute is dis- 89. In which solution will water move into and
solved out of the cell at the same rate?
A. sands A. Hypertonic
B. solvent B. Hypotonic
C. alloy C. Isotonic
D. negative particles D. Plasmolysis
85. Cells transport material across a cell mem- 90. Which example describes diffusion?
brane without using energy (high to low
A. Water moving across a semi-
concentration)
permeable membrane
A. Passive transport
B. Baking cookies and smelling them
B. Concentration throughout the house
C. Endocytosis C. Ions moving through an ion channel
D. Active Transport D. All of the above
86. The cell membrane is semipermeable. 91. Facilitated diffusion allows certain kinds of
What does semipermeable mean? compounds that are normally blocked by
A. Molecules always move from high to the cell membrane to cross the cell mem-
low brane. All of the following are examples
B. All things can enter and leave the cell of compounds that move by facilitated dif-
fusion except
C. The cell only let’s water in
A. water
D. It only lets some things enter and
leave the cell B. sodium
C. potassium
87. Why is energy needed for active trans-
port? D. glucose
A. because you are moving with the gra- 92. ATP is
dient
A. cell energy
B. because you are moving against the
gradient. B. sugar
C. because you are moving small C. your teachers intials

molecules D. only used by mitochondria

93. You put a cell into a solution, the cell 99. In osmosis, which substance moves from
grows. Is the solution hypotonic or hyper- one place to another?
tonic to the cell? A. Sugar

A. hypertonic B. Oxygen
B. hypotonic C. Water
C. isotonic D. Carbon dioxide
D. not enough information 100. In which organelle does cellular respira-
94. All of the following are types of passive tion take place?
transport except A. Nucleus
A. facilitated diffusion B. Chloroplast
B. simple diffusion C. Mitochondria
C. osmosis D. ER
D. endocytosis 101. Why can’t you drink salt water?
A. It’s hypertonic to your cells
95. The diffusion of water through a semi-
permeable membrane is called? B. It’s hypotonic to your cells
A. Osmosis C. It’s isotonic to your cells
B. Cell wall D. It’s paratonic to your cells
C. Diffusion 102. What is missing from the photosynthe-
D. Respiration sis equation?6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Energy →
C6H12O6 + 6
96. What is the function of vacuoles? A. NaCl
A. make protein B. energy (ATP)
B. store genetic information C. O2
C. storage of salt, H2O, food, and waste D. CO2
D. transports material outside the cell 103. A process in which cells surround and en-
97. HYPO means gulf substances that are TOO BIG to enter
the cell is known as
A. Low
A. Pinocytosis
B. High
B. Phagocytosis
C. Equal C. Endocytosis
D. Fat D. Receptor-mediated
98. Which process takes substances into a 104. In which phase does the cell spend most
cell? of it’s life?
A. endocytosis A. Interphase
B. exocytosis B. Nuclear Division
C. both C. Telophase
D. none of above D. Mitosis

105. an area with a large amount of particles 111. Which term means “water-fearing”?
is A. Adhesion
A. low concentration B. Polar
B. high concentration C. Hydrophilic
C. diffusion D. Hydrophobic
D. osmosis
112. When both inside and outside of a cell
106. Particles too large to enter the membrane have the same amount of water it is said
NARAYAN CHANGDER
need help from channel proteins but no en- that the cell has reached a state of
ergy is required is the process of A. osmosis
A. active transport B. equilibrium
B. passive transport C. diffusion
C. facilitated diffusion D. hypertonic
D. none of above
113. Movement of molecules from an area of
107. What type of solution has more solutes high concentration to an area of low con-
and less water than a cell that it contains? centration through a lipid bilayer
A. Isotonic A. Facilitated diffusion
B. Hypertonic B. Diffusion
C. Hypotonic C. Osmosis
D. None of the Above D. none of above
108. A person’s tongue cells after finishing 114. What is homeostasis?
eating a salty french fry would A. How the body releases oxygen
A. get smaller B. Passive transportation
B. get bigger C. How the body regulates itself for sur-
C. remain the same vival
D. none of above D. Active transport
109. Oxygen is released during 115. Homeostasis is
A. Cellular respiration A. same as reproduction
B. Photosynthesis B. maintaining/stability in a cell
C. Breathing C. making ATP for cell
D. Fermentation D. allowing cells to move
110. Most active transport proteins use en- 116. Which of the following is NOT occuring
ergy from the breakdown of: during interphase?
A. nucleus A. Cell growth
B. cell membrane B. DNA being copied
C. ATP C. DNA condensing
D. mitochondria D. Two new cells are made

117. If the sodium concentration inside a cell 122. What form of active cell transport is
is greater than outside the cell, how can a the movement of fluid droplets into a cell
cell take in more sodium? through the formation of a transport pro-

A. osmosis tein?
B. diffusion A. Osmosis
C. active transport B. Pinocytosis

C. Primary Active Transport
D. passive transport
118. If a cell is placed in an environment with
MORE oxygen OUTSIDE the cell than in- 123. Osmosis is the movement of
side, the cell will A. Large molecules
A. gain oxygen B. Water
B. lose oxygen C. Oxygen
C. gain water D. Helper protein
D. lose water 124. Exocytosis is an example of what type of
119. Water can pass through the cell mem- transport?
brane by simple diffusion, but it can hap- A. facilitated diffusion
pen more quickly with the channel proteins B. active transport
called aquaporins. What is the diffusion of
water called?
D. osmosis
A. simple diffusion
B. osmosis 125. What are the carbohydrates in the cell
membrane for?
C. active transport
A. to form channels and pumps
D. none of above
B. to help cells identify one another
120. Cell transport is C. to make the membrane strong
A. The movement of materials in and out D. none of above
of the cell.
B. The movement of a cell from one place 126. The lipid bilayer describes
to another. A. a type of transport
C. The movement of substances within a B. the cell membrane
cell. C. the nucleus
D. Cells moving other substances around. D. the cell wall
121. Transport proteins that allow ions to pass 127. What part of the phospolipid is hydropho-
through the cell membrane are called bic?
A. marker proteins A. The head
B. ion channels B. The tail
C. receptor proteins C. The whole thing
D. sodium-potassium pump D. none of above

128. A cell will in a hypertonic solution. C. Exocytosis

A. swell D. none of above
B. shrink 134. The cell membrane contains channels and
C. will not change pumps that help move materials from one
D. will explode side to the other. What are these channels
and pumps made of?
129. When the concentration of particles in- A. carbohydrates
side of a cell is the same as the concen-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tration of particles outside of the cell. B. lipids
A. active transport C. bilipids
B. concentration D. proteins
C. diffusion 135. When a cell is placed in a hypotonic solu-

D. equilibrium tion (less concentrated), water
130. What process occurs when WATER dif- solution
fuses across a membrane?
A. endocytosis of the cell
B. mitosis C. moves equally in and out of the cell
C. osmosis D. none of these
D. nuclear fission
136. If the water concentration in a cell is 90%
131. Diffusion of water across a selectively and the water concentration outside the
permeable membrane cell is 95%, what direction will the water
A. osmosis move?
B. diffusion A. Into the cell
C. facilitated diffusion B. Out of the cell
D. none of above C. The water will not move

D. none of above
132. Which type of cellular transport moves
molecules from low concentrations to high 137. The movement of molecules across a
concentrations requiring energy? membrane from high concentration to low
A. Osmosis concentration is called:
B. Diffusion A. Osmosis
C. Passive Transport B. Diffusion
D. Protein Pumps C. Endocytosis

D. Active Transport
133. Which type of active transport uses
transport proteins to help pump molecules 138. A human white blood cell engulfs a bacte-
across the membrane? rial cell by:
A. Membrane pumps A. exocytosis
B. Endocytosis B. phagocytosis

C. pinocytosis C. Active Transport

D. none of above D. Osmosis

139. If you smell dinner cooking from the liv- 144. is reached when there are stable in-
ing room, this is an example of ternal and external cell conditions.
A. Facilitated diffusion A. Energy
B. Diffusion B. Active transport
C. Osmosis C. Homeostasis
D. Phagocytosis D. Passive transport
140. Which molecule synthesized by plants is 145. What form of active cell transport is the
a major source of energy for cellular pro- movement of substances against the con-
cesses in both plants and animals? centration gradient through transport pro-
A. Wax teins and uses ATP directly?
B. Nucleic acid A. Exocytosis

C. Glucose B. Primary Active Transport
D. Chlorophyll C. Secondary Active Transport
D. Pinocytosis
141. If you drink salt water, your cells will
start to lose water. This is because the 146. A membrane that keeps out some
salt is solution Molecules but allows others to pass
A. Hypotonic Solution A. semi-permeable
B. Hypertonic Solution B. permeable
C. Isotonic Solution C. diffusion
D. none of above D. concentration gradient
142. Molecules like glucose and amino acids 147. This is a heterogeneous mixture in which
move across the cell membrane from an particles settle out unless it is constantly
area of high concentration to an area of stirred.
low concentration through a carrier pro-
A. colloid
tein. This is an example of:
B. suspension
A. Diffusion
C. solution
B. Osmosis
D. alloy
C. Active Transport
D. Facilitated Diffusion 148. Cell membrane is important for maintain-
ing
143. When you eat, amino acids, glucose, and
fatty acids move into your blood stream A. Organelles
by B. Homeostasis
A. Facilitated Diffusion C. Energy
B. Simple Diffusion D. none of above

149. Which process removes substances from 155. A state of biological balance
a cell?
A. homeostasis
A. endocytosis
B. turgor pressure
B. exocytosis
C. both C. hypotonic
D. none of above D. plasma membrane
150. The difference in the concentration of a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
156. If a cell that has 2% sugar solution is
substance from one location to another is placed in a beaker of 2% sugar solution,
called which direction will the water move?
A. diffusion
A. Into the cell
B. osmosis
B. Out of the cell
C. concentration gradient
C. In and out at equal rates
D. Water will not move at all. The cell is
151. When particles move from areas of high
at equilibrium.
concentration to areas less concentrated,
this has taken place.
157. What type of transport involves the
A. diffusion movement of water from high to low con-
B. mitosis centrations?
C. endocytosis A. Diffusion
D. photosynthesis B. Active Transport
152. What happens to the cell when you place C. Facilitated Diffusion
them in hypertonic Solution?
D. Osmosis
A. The size of the cell increases.
B. The cell size decreases. 158. What happens to a plant cell that is
C. Has no effect placed into a hypotonic solution?
D. none of above A. It shrinks
153. What is ATP? B. Plasmolysis
A. energy C. It swells
B. a protein D. Cytolysis
C. a lipid
D. matter 159. An animal cell placed in a hypertonic
(salty) solution will
154. This process gets rid of wastes.
A. Shrink
A. endocytosis
B. Swell
B. exocytosis
C. osmosis C. Stay the same
D. diffusion D. none of above

160. The movement of materials across the 165. Which substances may pass through a cell
cell membrane without using cellular en- membrane by simple diffusion?
ergy is called

A. starch and protein
A. active transport B. protein and fat
B. sodium-potassium pump C. carbon dioxide and water
C. passive transport D. carbon dioxide and starch
D. endocytosis 166. Ions move through ion channels by
161. The movement of molecules against a con- A. endocytosis
centration gradient requiring energy B. simple diffusion
A. simple diffusion C. passive transport
B. facilitated diffusion D. active transport
C. active transport 167. which of the following terms means the
D. osmosis movement of water from high concentra-
tion to low concentration
162. Which of these processes releases en- A. diffusion
ergy? B. prokaryotes
A. diffusion C. osmosis
B. fermentation D. concentration
C. exocytosis 168. Which term means “water-loving”?
D. respiration A. Cohesion
163. Which is an example of osmosis? B. Nonpolar
A. potassium ions moving in and out of an C. Hydrophilic
animal cell D. Hydrophobic
B. water moving into the root cells of a 169. During osmosis
plant
A. water moves from high to low concen-
C. carbon dioxide moving into the leaf tration
cells of a plant B. large or oddly shaped molecules move
D. oxygen moving into the bloodstream across a cell membrane
from the lungs C. water moves when energy is used
164. If a cell containing 5% salt is placed into D. proteins are built
a glass of water with 20% salt, the water 170. The most important organelle in cell
is compared to the cell. transport
A. hypertonic- A. E.R.
B. hypotonic B. cytoplasm
C. isotonic C. nucleus
D. none of above D. cell membrane

171. This type of endocytosis is used by the B. Active Transport

cell to take in large molecules or tiny or- C. Both Passive and Active Transport
ganisms.
D. Neither Passive nor Active Transport
A. Pinocytosis
B. Protein pumps 177. Which of the following includes endocyto-
sis and exocytosis?
C. Phagocytosis
D. Exocytosis A. Passive Transport
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Active Transport
172. What is the significance of the cell mem-
brane? C. Both Passive and Active Transport
A. Provides protection D. Neither Passive now Active Transport
B. Maintains homeostasis 178. Ideally, your cells should be in a(n)
C. Give a cell hydrophobic ends solution
D. Provides cholesterol A. isotonic
173. Which type of transport moves materials B. hypertonic

across the cell membrane? C. hypotonic
A. Passive Transport D. isometric
B. Active Transport
179. The movement of water through a mem-
C. Both Passive and Active Transport brane
D. none of above A. Diffusion
174. If the external environment of a living B. Osmosis
cell has a greater concentration of salt C. Active transport
than the cytoplasm within the cell, the cell
will tend to D. Passive transport
A. divide 180. When the concentration of the substance
B. excrete salt on both sides of the cell membrane is the
same, is reached.
C. increase its size
A. pressure
D. lose water
B. solution
175. Molecules diffuse until they reach a state
of C. diffusion
A. Dynamic Equilibrium D. equilibrium

B. Hypertonicity 181. Packages proteins into vesicles and ships
C. Hypotonicity them out.
D. Active Transport A. Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. Ribosomes
176. Which of the following moves molecules
from HIGH → LOW concentrations? C. Golgi Apparatus
A. Passive Transport D. Nucleus

182. All the following molecules are part of 187. The sodium-potassium pump
the cell membrane except A. uses passive transport

A. cholesterol. B. is a carrier protein
B. lipids. C. is located in the cytoplasm of a cel
C. proteins. D. transports sugar molecules
D. nucleic acids. 188. Which type of cellular transport moves
molecules from low concentrations to high
183. Lets some things pass through but not concentrations?
others
A. Osmosis
A. Selectively permeable
B. Diffusion
B. Selectively impermeable
C. Passive Transport
C. Partially permeable D. Protein Pumps
D. Particularly permeable
189. Particles are removed from a cell (pushed
184. Which of the following is an enzyme filled out).
organelle that breaks down waste in the A. Endocytosis
cell? B. Exocytosis
A. lysosomes C. Permeable
B. chloroplast D. In high concentration
C. mitochondria 190. The difference in the concentration of a
D. Golgi apparatus substance from one location to another is
called
185. What organelles are only found in PLANT A. diffusion
cells
B. osmosis
A. lysosomes & centrioles
C. concentration gradient
B. cell wall & chloroplasts
C. nucleus & nucleolus
191. Channel proteins are a type of transport
D. mitochondria & ribosomes protein in the cell membrane. They are im-
portant for which of the following?
186. What is the name of the process in which
molecules move from an area of high con- A. cell identification
centration to an area of low concentra- B. moving materials in and out of the cell
tion across a selectively permeable mem-
brane?
C. sending signals to other cells
A. Diffusion D. communication
B. Osmosis
192. Waste products are moved out of the cell
C. Active Transport by
D. Facilitated Diffusion A. endocytosis

B. diffusion 198. Bringing a solid into a cell using energy.

C. exocytosis A. Endocytosis
D. osmosis B. Phagocytosis
C. Hypotonic
193. What are the main components of the cell
membrane? D. none of above
A. DNA, transport proteins, sugar 199. If a cell is placed in a 0.7M salt solution
with a pressure potential of 2.0 bars at
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Carbohydrates, phospholipids, water
265K, what will the water potential be?
C. Phospholipids, transport proteins,
cholesterol A. -28.8 bars
D. Proteins, water, DNA B. -40.7 bars

C. -30.6 bars
194. A difference in the concentration of a sub-
D. -3.5 bars
stance across a distance
A. Concentration Gradient 200. What term is used to describe the move-
ment across a membrane from an area of
B. Osmosis high concentration to an area of low con-
C. Hypertonic Solution centration?
D. Impermeable A. Endocytosis
195. The student sitting next to you just came B. Osmosis
from gym class and forgot to take a C. Exocytosis
shower. D. Diffusion
A. Diffusion
201. Which of these substances will diffuse
B. Osmosis OUT of cells in our bodies?
C. Active Transport A. Carbon dioxide
D. none of above B. Air
196. What is required for facilitated diffusion C. Water
to take place D. none of above
A. Concentration gradient 202. In passive transport, in what direction do
B. Energy particles move?
C. Transport molecule A. High to low concentration
D. Transport molecule and concentration B. Out of the cell
gradient C. Low to high concentration
197. What organelle is responsible for home- D. Into the cell

ostasis in the cell? 203. A cell will swell when it is placed in a(n)
A. cell wall A. hypertonic solution
B. cell membrane B. isotonic solution
C. nucleus C. hypotonic solution
D. cytoplasm D. none of above

204. Made up of two layers 209. Which of the following are all passive
processes that do NOT require ATP (en-
A. bilayer
ergy)?

B. mosiac
A. diffusion, osmosis, facilitated diffusion
C. permeable
D. none of above B. diffusion, osmosis, active transport
C. active transport, phagocytosis, osmo-
205. In the phospholipid bilayer, the heads and
sis
tails react differently.
D. none of above
A. Hydrophobic heads facing in while the
hydrophilic tails face out 210. During interphase, the DNA is in the form
B. Hydrophobic tails facing in while the of
hydrophilic heads face out. A. chromatin
C. No relationship to water so it does not B. chromosomes
matter which way the head and tails face. C. chromatids
D. centromeres
D. none of above
211. What molecule absorbs sunlight for pho-
206. What happens during S phase? tosynthesis?
A. Somatic cells are formed. A. chloroplast
B. The cell enters mitosis. B. thylakoid
C. Chromosomes tighten and spindle C. grana
fibers are formed. D. chlorophyll
D. DNA is replicated. 212. The cell membrane is primarily made of
207. Molecules move across the cell membrane A. phospholipids
from an area of high concentration to an B. proteins
area of low concentration through a car-
C. carbohydrates
rier protein?
D. nucleic acids
A. Diffusion
B. Osmosis 213. is the simplest type of passive trans-
port.
C. Active Transport
A. equilibrium
B. diffusion
208. In an isotonic solution, the cell will C. exocytosis
A. shrink D. endocytosis
B. swell up 214. The movement of water from high to low
C. stay the same size concentration through a membrane is
D. it depends on what the solution is A. osmosis

made of B. diffusion

C. facilitated diffusion 220. Due to the higher concentration of oxy-

gen in the air than your blood, oxygen
D. active transport
goes from the lungs into the red blood cells
215. what are two types of passive trans- by
port? A. Facilitated Diffusion
A. endo and exocytosis B. Simple Diffusion
B. cookies and milk C. Active Transport
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. active and passive D. Osmosis
D. Osmosis and diffusion 221. When liquid enters a cell through a vesi-
cle, it is called
216. Which is true about active transport?
A. Phagocytosis
A. It requires energy B. Pinocytosis
B. it does not require energy C. Receptor-Mediated
C. It moves substances down the concen- D. none of above
tration gradient
222. Why does diffusion NOT require ATP?
D. it moves material from high to low con-
centration A. Because the molecules involved have
high kinetic energy
217. In a hypertonic solution, the cell B. Because the molecules involved are
A. Gets smaller charged
B. Gets bigger C. Because the molecules involved al-

ready have ATP
C. Stays the same
D. Because the molecules involved have
D. Bursts low, to no kinetic energy
218. The process of releasing energy from 223. Which of the following is moved across
food is called: the plasma membrane by facilitated diffu-
sion?
A. Plant respiration
A. water
B. Human circulation
B. glucose
C. Body perspiration
C. carbon dioxide
D. Cell respiration
D. oxygen
219. A cell with a 5% salt solution is placed 224. Diffusion is the movement of
into a beaker with a 10% salt solution.
What will happen to the cell? A. proteins from low to high concentra-
tion
A. It will shrink
B. water from low to high concentration
B. It will swell
C. sugar from high to low concentration
C. No change
D. particles from high to low concentra-
D. Cytolysis tion

225. The concentration of water is higher in 230. Which of the following properties allows
the soil than in plant root cells. Water for cellular movement?
moves into root cells of a plant by

A. Protective barrier
A. Facilitated Diffusion B. Homeostasis
B. Simple Diffusion C. Flexibility
C. Active Transport D. Regulation of materials
D. Osmosis
231. In passive transport, substances move
226. Which of the following substances would across the cell membrane the concen-
have the most trouble crossing the mem- tration gradient
brane by diffusing through the bilayer? A. AGAINST
A. water B. WITH
B. oxygen C. ALONG
C. carbon dioxide D. BETWEEN
D. a sodium ion 232. why do cells move things in and out?
227. If there is more water outside the cell A. they are bored
than inside the cell, the solution is B. why not
A. hypertonic C. homeostatis, yo!
B. isotonic D. kittenskittens
C. hypotonic 233. A cell may transport a substance in
D. heteromitomonotonic if the substance is too large to cross the
membrane.
228. In the given scenario what will happen?
A. lysosomes
An egg with a dissolved shell is placed in
pure water for 48 hours. B. ribosomes
A. Water will move in and out of the cell C. vesicles
equally, and the cell with neither shrink D. cytoplasm
nor swell.
234. What does it mean that a cell membrane
B. The egg will gain water and swell. is semipermeable?
C. The egg will lose water and shrink. A. It allows all substances inside.
D. none of above B. It allows some substances inside.
229. loss of turgor pressure causing the C. It allows no substances inside.
plasma membrane to pull away from the D. none of above
cell wall
235. Active transport requires , moves ma-
A. Diffusion
terials from , and goes the concen-
B. Pinocytosis tration gradient.
C. Plasmolysis A. No energy, low to high, against
D. Active Transport B. ATP, high to low, with

C. ATP, low to high, with C. Both Passive and Active Transport

D. ATP, low to high, against D. Neither Passive nor Active Transport
236. Which of these lists presents the stages 242. The calcium concentration in the root cells
of the cell cycle in the correct order? of certain plants is higher than in the sur-
A. interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis rounding soil. Calcium may continue to en-
ter the root cells of the plant by the pro-
B. cytokinesis, mitosis, interphase cess of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. mitosis, interphase, cytokinesis A. diffusion
D. interphase, cytokinesis, mitosis B. respiration
237. The control center of the cell. C. active transport
A. Nucleus D. protein synthesis
B. Nuclear Membrane
243. How do potassium ions enter the cell?
C. Chloroplasts
A. active transport
D. Golgi Aparatus
B. diffusion
238. Allows a cell to get rid of large sub- C. endocytosis
stances
D. pinocytosis
A. exocytosis
244. The movement of molecules from an area
B. pinocytosis
of high concentration to an area of low con-
C. phagocytosis centration.
D. none of above A. Osmosis
239. In the given cellular transport processes, B. Respiration
which do NOT use energy? C. Diffusion
A. Sodium-Potassium Pump Transport D. Active Transport
B. Facilitated Diffusion
245. Molecules using simple diffusion move
C. Endocytosis from
D. Exocytosis A. high to low concentrations
240. Will allow some molecules to pass while B. low to high concentrations
restricting others C. no concentrations
A. penetrate D. both concentrations
B. actively permeable
246. Molecules travel across the plasma mem-
C. selectively permeable brane until equilibrium is reached. Another
D. passive transport name for equilibrium is
241. Which of the following requires energy to A. Concentration

take place? B. Homeostasis
A. Passive Transport C. Gradient
B. Active Transport D. none of above

247. What is exocytosis? 252. One way to get rid of slugs in your gar-
den is to sprinkle salt on them so they
A. A type of passive transport that re-
shrivel up.

moves material from the cell.
A. Diffusion
B. A type of passive transport that adds
material to the cell. B. Osmosis
C. A type of active transport that removes C. Active Transport

material from the cell. D. none of above
D. A type of active transport that adds ma- 253. How many layers is the lipid bilayer?
terial to the cell.
A. 1
248. The movement of molecules from an area B. 2
of high concentration to areas of low con- C. 3
centration until equilibrium is reached.
D. 4
A. osmosis
254. In a solution, salt is considered the
B. diffusion
A. solvent
C. plasmolysis
B. solute
D. cytolysis
C. solution
249. The cell membrane is to materials like D. none of above
oxygen and nutrients
255. A type of active transport that expels ma-
A. impermeable terials out of the cell
B. permeable A. Diffusion
C. allergic B. Pinocytosis
D. toxic C. Endocytosis
D. Exocytosis
250. Plants make food through
256. What is the main reason why plant cells
A. osmosis undergo photosynthesis?
B. atoms A. They need more water.
C. photosynthesis B. They need sugar.
D. nitrogen C. The need high levels of oxygen.
D. none of above
251. In facilitated diffusion, a is needed to
help molecules move across the cell mem- 257. When the process of mitosis is correctly
brane. completed, the daughter cells should con-
A. lipid tain exact copies of all of an organisms’s
genes. Which biomolecule contains all of
B. amino acid an organism’s genes?
C. carbohydrate A. Carbohydrate
D. protein B. Lipids

C. Proteins 263. Bringing things into a cell using energy

D. Nucleic acids A. exocytosis
B. endocytosis
258. Which of the following structures serves
as the cell’s boundary from its environ- C. pinocytosis
ment? D. none of above
A. mitochondrion 264. Which of the following moves molecules
WITH the concentration gradient?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. cell membrane
C. chloroplast
B. Active Transport
D. channel protein
C. Both Passive and Active Transport
259. What form of passive cell transport D. Neither Passive now Active Transport
moves particles down its concentration
gradient using transport proteins. 265. Why are diffusion and osmosis important
to cells?
A. It allows them to take in materi-
B. Osmosis als/substances without using energy.
C. Diffusion B. It allows them to reproduce.
D. Exocytosis C. It allows them to absorb sunlight.
D. It allows cells to use all energy.
260. What is the membrane around the NU-
CLEus called? 266. What part of a phospholipid is hy-
A. nuclear membrane drophilic?
A. The head
B. mitochondria
B. The tail
C. cell membranecell emmbrane
C. All of it
D. nucleolus
D. None of it
261. In which solution will water move out of 267. Osmosis is the diffusion of through a
the cell resulting in the cell shriveling up? selectively permeable membrane.
A. Hypertonic A. water
B. Isotonic B. salt
C. Hypotonic C. potassium
D. none of above D. protein
268. A solution that causes a cell to swell is
262. The cell membrane is made mostly of
called a
A. phospholipid monolayer and proteins A. hypertonic
B. phospholipid bilayer and proteins B. hypotonic
C. proteins and carbohydrates bilayer C. isotonic
D. triglycerides and carbohydrates D. none of above

269. Diffusion is the movement of molecules 274. The concentration of solutes is less out-
from an area of concentration to an side the cell than inside; cell takes in water
concentration and swells

A. High, low A. Diffusion
B. Low, high B. Hypotonic Solution
C. Low, low, C. Hypertonic Solution
D. High, high D. Isotonic Solution
270. which of the following macromelecules 275. What process does a multi-cellular or-
are a prominent part of animal tissues that ganism use to replace its damaged body
function in insulation, helping animals con- cells?
serve heat? A. mitosis
A. carbohydrates B. meiosis
B. lipids C. replication
C. proteins D. transcription
D. nucleic acids 276. Moving “Big stuff” out
A. Endocytosis
271. What kind of energy is used in active
transport? B. Exocytosis
A. ENERGY IS NOT USED IN ACTIVE C. Diffusion
TRANSPORT!!!!! D. Osmosis
B. Solar Energy 277. DNA will condense into
C. ATP A. Centromeres
D. Mechanical Energy B. Chromosomes
272. RNA and DNA are which type of organic C. Nuclei
compound? D. Spindle fibers
A. carbohydrate 278. Type of movement through a cell mem-
B. protein brane using ATP from low to high concen-
tration
C. lipid
D. nucleic acid
B. Active Transport
273. What form of active cell transport is the C. Facilitated Diffusion
movement of one substance against its
concentration gradient by copling it to the D. Exocytosis
movement of another molecule and uses 279. All of the following statements are true
ATP indirectly? about prokaryotic cells EXCEPT
A. Primary Active Transport A. No nucleus
B. Exocytosis B. They are simple and small
C. Osmosis C. Have a cell wall
D. Secondary Active Transport D. Have organelles

280. The is the thing being dissolved in a 285. When cells take in food by surrounding
solution. and engulfing it; uses cellular energy, cel-
lular “eating”
A. solute
A. Plasmolysis
B. solvent
B. Phagocytosis
C. substance
C. Pinocytosis
D. stuff
D. Concentration
NARAYAN CHANGDER
281. A protein in the cell membrane involved
in the movement of molecules into and out 286. Active transport
of cells
A. uses ATP as an energy source
A. Pumps
B. can move solutes up a gradient
B. Phospholipids
C. requires the cell to expend energy
C. Diffusion
D. all of these
D. Carrier (Transport) Protein
287. When cells take in food particles through
282. What do human red blood cells, when active transport, what is it called?
placed in hypertonic solutions, undergo?
A. Pinocytosis
A. crenation
B. Phagocytosis
B. phagocytosis
C. Exocytosis
C. plasmolysis
D. Osmosis
D. turgidity
288. What is another name for the cell mem-
283. The purpose a channel protein that is em- brane?
bedded in the membrane is to
A. Protein
A. allow certain substances to enter or
B. Plasma Membrane
leave the cell without using energy
C. Phospholipid
B. strengthen the outer boundary
D. none of above
C. store fluid in the cell
D. transfer hereditary material to off- 289. Which of the following show the correct
spring order of levels of organization from small-
est to largest.
284. During the process of diffusion
A. Cell-Tissue-Organ-Organ System-
A. A cell absorbs large particles Organism
B. Particles move from areas of lower B. Cell-Organ-Tissue-Organ System-
concentration to high concentration Oranism
C. Cell gets rid of large particles C. Cell-Organ System-Organ-Tissue-
Organism
D. Particles move from areas of higher
concerntration to low concerntration D. none of above

290. In our lab what substance did not passed 295. What type of biomolecule is used during
through the cell membrane? facilitated diffusion to allow large parti-
cles in or out of the cell?

A. Starch
A. Carbohydrates
B. Sugar
B. Lipids
C. Soap
C. Proteins
D. Water
D. Nucleic acids
291. Osmosis is the diffusion of what
296. What are the 2 kinds of passive trans-
molecule?
port?
A. water
A. Osmosis and engulfing
B. protein
B. Engulfing and transport proteins
C. Na+ and K+ C. Diffusion and osmosis
D. any molecule along a concentration D. Permeable and impermeable
gradient
297. lipids and some proteins are assembled
292. What will happen if a cell that is 20% and stored.
water is placed in a beaker that is 70%
A. Golgi Apparatus
water?
B. Nuclear Membrane
A. Nothing will happen
C. Ribosomes
B. Water will enter the cell and cause it
to swell-Hypotonic D. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Water will leave the cell and cause it 298. The function of the plasma membrane is
to shrink-Hypertonic
D. Water will stay in the cell A. to regulate what enters and leaves the
cell.
293. Which cellular structure in plants is re-
B. fight bacteria and viruses that enter
sponsible for photosynthesis?
the cell.
A. Nucleus C. provide rigid support and protection to
B. Cell membrane the cell.
C. Mitochondrion D. make sure each cell can move
D. Chloroplast 299. Cell membrane
294. Which of the following organisms do not A. cell membrane only allows molecules
have cell walls? to move in; they cannot move out.
A. plants B. cell membrane is impermeable (does

not let anything in)
B. animals
C. cell membrane allows molecules to en-
C. fungi ter and leave the cell
D. bacteria D. none of above

300. Which statement is correct? 305. What does “bilayer” mean?

A. Plants don’t do photosynthesis. A. one layer
B. Plants only do photosynthesis. B. two layers
C. Animals are the only organisms that do C. laminated

cellular respiration. D. bilateral
D. Animal and Plant cells do cellular res- 306. Which of the following is not a character-
piration. istic of enzymes?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
301. Which of the following moves materials A. specific to one type of substrate
in and out of the cell? B. may be denatured in extreme temper-
atures and pHs
C. lowers the activation energy of a reac-
B. Active Transport tion
C. Both Passive and Active Transport D. can only be used one time
D. Neither Passive now Active Transport
307. The process of active transport requires
the most direct use of
302. Most cell membranes are composed prin-
cipally of A. carbon dioxide
A. DNA and ATP B. ATP
B. proteins and lipids C. amino acids

D. glucose
C. chitin and starch
D. nucleotides and amino acids 308. The movement of water is called-
A. Simple diffusion
303. What does the cell use to transport sub-
B. Osmosis
stances too large to pass through the mem-
brane? C. Active transport
A. vesicles D. Endocytosis
B. lipids 309. When a substance moves from an area of

low concentration to an area high concen-
C. lysosomes
tration. This requires an input of energy
D. ribosomes of the cell. What is the process called?
A. active transport
304. What does cellular respiration produce
(make)? B. passive transport
A. Carbon dioxide and oxygen C. cellular transport
D. none of above
B. Glucose (sugar), water, and ATP en-
ergy 310. Osmosis is the diffusion of across a
C. Carbon dioxide, water and energy selectively permeable membrane.
(ATP) A. food
D. none of above B. air

C. water 316. Which of these is a waste product of fer-

mentation?
D. oxygen

A. DNA
311. A cell with a 20% salt solution is placed B. water
into a beaker of pure water. What will
C. carbohydrates
happen to the cell?
D. lactic acid
A. It will shrink
B. Plasmolysis 317. Which of the following is an example of
osmosis?
C. No change
A. Oxygen exiting leaves after photosyn-
D. Cytolysis thesis
B. A raisin swelling in a cup of water
312. All of the following require ATP energy
EXCEPT C. Water changing from a liquid to a gas
A. facilitated diffusion D. Oxygen moving into an animal cell
B. pinocytosis 318. A. Choses what enters and exits
C. exocytosis A. semi permeable

B. hydrophilic
D. Na+/K+ pump
C. mosiac
313. Before cells can divide, what must be D. none of above
copied?
319. In a hypotonic solution, the cell will
A. mitochondria
A. shrink
B. cytoplasm
B. swell up
C. DNA
C. stay the same size
D. Cell Wall D. become cancerous
314. What is the first phase of Mitosis? 320. How does water pass through the cell
A. Prophase membrane
A. directly through the lipid bilayer
B. Metaphase
B. through a water ion pump
C. Anaphase
C. through water carrier proteins
D. Telophase
D. through channel proteins just for wa-
ter
315. What a cell needs to transport particles
by active transport? 321. If the concentration of solute is higher in-
A. Sun side of a cell than it is outside of the cell,
where will water move?
B. Wind
A. Water will have no net movement be-
C. Energy tween the two areas
D. Channels B. Water will flow out of the cell

C. Water will flow into the cell 327. Which of the following can best describe
a cell membrane?
D. none of above
A. eletrochemical
322. Molecules move against the concentra-
B. fluid-mosaic
tion gradient from areas of high concentra-
tion to areas of low concentration during C. sandwich
D. unit membrane
NARAYAN CHANGDER
328. The release (exit) of large particles from
B. active transport the cell is
C. facilitated diffusion A. pinocytosis
D. osmosis B. phagocytosis
C. endocytosis
323. nerve cells release neurotransmitters
across gapsand secretion of proteins and D. exocytosis
wastes
329. a kind of lipid that consist of 2 fatty acid
A. Exocytosis groups (tails) and one phosphate group
B. Endocytosis (head)
C. Diffusion A. Cholesterol
D. Facilitated Diffusion B. Trans Fat

C. Carbohydrate
324. The amount of particles in a given space.
D. Phospholipids
A. diffusion
330. Which of the following forms of cell trans-
B. concentration
port DOESN’T use ATP?
C. permeable
A. Endocytosis
D. active transport B. Diffusion
325. What can only be found in plant cells? C. Exocytosis
A. Cell membrane D. Antiport Pumps
B. Vacuole 331. What organelle of the cell produces en-
C. Chloroplast ergy?
D. Mitochondrion A. Mitochondria
B. Golgi Body
326. What would happen if a plant cell is
placed in a hypotonic solution? C. Vesicle
D. Vacuole
A. The cell wall breaks
B. The vacuole expands 332. If you looked at red blood cells under a mi-
croscope and saw that several of the blood
C. The cytoplasm shrinks
cells had burst, what would you say hap-
D. The cell membrane shrinks pened?

A. The cells were placed in a hypotonic so- D. movement of water across a mem-
lution. brane

B. The cells were placed in a hypertonic
338. The release of large particles, often
solution.
waste materials from the inside of the cell
C. The cells were placed in an isotonic so- to the outside of the cell.
lution.
A. Osmosis
D. none of above
B. Exocytosis
333. What is the cell membrane? C. Endocytosis
A. Permiable D. Diffusion
B. Semi-Permiable
339. Small polar molecules like O2 enter a cell
C. Nonpermiable
through
D. Hard
A. simple diffusion
334. If a cell has a concentration of 15% salt B. osmosis
solution on the inside and the environment
is 12% on the outside, what type of solu- C. facilitated diffusion
tion is the environment? D. phagocytosis
A. Hypotonic
340. When an animal cell is placed in a hypo-
B. Hypertonic tonic environment, what would happen to
C. Isotonic the cell?
D. none of above A. An animal cell will swell
B. An animal cell will shrink
335. Cellular respiration occurs in which or-
ganelle? C. An animal cell will secrete enzymes
A. mitochondria D. An animal cell will remain unchanged
B. nucleus
341. Which of the following moves molecules
C. Golgi body from LOW → HIGH concentrations?
D. lysosome A. Passive Transport
336. Passive transport requires B. Active Transport
A. concentration gradients C. Both Passive and Active Transport
B. no energy D. Neither Passive nor Active Transport
C. motion
342. Larger molecules and clumps of material
D. energy can also be actively transported across the
cell membrane by processes known as
337. Which activity can occur without the use
of energy? A. endocytosis
A. contraction of muscle tissue B. endocytosis and exocytosis
B. protein synthesis in a cell C. exocytosis
C. active transport of minerals D. protein pump action

343. A group of similar types of cells that 348. A balance that an organism maintains by
work together to do a specific job is called regulating what goes into and out of the
a/an cell.
A. tissue A. Hypertonic
B. organ B. Homeostasis
C. Plasmolysis
C. stem cell
D. Hypotonic
D. organ system
NARAYAN CHANGDER
349. Which of the following is not a type of
344. Which of the following is not a form of passive transport?
passive transport? A. Osmosis
A. active transport B. Diffusion
B. moving oxygen from high to low con- C. Endocytosis
centration D. Facilitated Diffusion
C. diffusion 350. How do humans osmoregulate?
D. osmosis A. With use of the contractile vacuole.
B. By filtering water in the nephron in the
345. The mitochondria
kidney.
A. produces energy C. Through sweating out pores.
B. causes cell division D. Humans are not osmoregulators.
C. is not an organelle 351. This is a term that means “cell eating”
D. is found in a prokaryote and describes a type of endocytosis
A. active tranport
346. Many plants have waxy coatings on
B. pincocytosis
some surfaces. This coating reduces wa-
ter loss because it is not water permeable. C. phagocytosis
This waxy coating is which of the follow- D. exosytosis
ing types of organic molecule?
352. Two examples of passive transport are
A. carbohydrate
A. Earth and Sun
B. lipid B. Diffusion and Osmosis
C. nucleic acid C. Energy and Wind
D. protein D. None of the above
347. Which of the following does not require 353. A type of passive transport that requires
energy to take place? channel proteins to move larger molecules
through the membrane is
B. Active Transport B. diffusion
C. Both Passive and Active Transport C. osmosis
D. Neither Passive nor Active Transport D. vesicle transport

354. The movement of substances through a C. controls what enters and leaves the
cell membrane with the use of cell energy cell

A. Osmosis D. makes ribosomes
B. Diffusion 360. Helicase is a protein that breaks the hy-
C. Passive Transport drogen bonds between complementarys-
D. Active transport trands of DNA to allow DNA replication oc-
cur. What type of biomolecule contains the
355. A type of active transport that brings par- code for making helicase?
ticles into a cell when the cell membrane A. Carbohydrate
encloses a particle to make a vesicle
B. Lipids
A. Diffusion
C. Protiens
B. Passive Transport
D. Nucleic acids
C. Active Transport
361. Which of the following transport pro-
D. Endocytosis
cesses moves the molecules against a con-
356. Active transport requires to move centration gradient?
materials across the cell membrane. A. Active transport
A. proteins B. Diffusion
B. sunlight C. Facilitated diffusion
C. oxygen D. Osmosis
D. energy 362. Osmosis is the movement of
357. Some molecules need the help of mem- A. salt
brane proteins to move molecules from ar- B. sugar
eas of high concentration to areas of low
concentration. C. water
A. active transport D. none of these
B. facilitated diffusion 363. A membrane that allows certain

molecules to pass is called
C. diffusion
A. impermeable.
D. osmosis
B. permeable.
358. Cells make solutions that help the cell re-
C. semipermeable.
sist changes in pH. These are called
D. none of above
A. osmosis
B. diffusion 364. Each cell has of DNA with en-
zymes controlling the expression of spe-
C. active transport
cific genes, leading to a variety of cells.
D. buffers A. two copies
359. The cell membrane B. multiple copies
A. controls the cell and contains DNA C. an identical copy
B. is used for structure and support D. different copies

365. Exocytosis is a 370. What does osmosis require?

A. type of passive transport A. Energy production
B. mechanism by which cells ingest other B. A concentration gradient
cells
C. A water potential gradient
C. transport process in which vesicles
D. A semipermeable membrane
are formed from pouches in the cell mem-
brane 371. How is osmosis different that diffusion?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. way for cells to release large A. Diffusion is only water while osmosis
molecules, such as proteins can be any substance.
366. Made up of many pieces B. Osmosis is only water while diffusion
can be any substance.
A. bilayer
C. Diffusion involves all gases and osmo-
B. mosiac
sis involves all liquids.
C. permeable
D. none of above
372. What form of active cell transport is the
367. Controlling what goes into or out of the movement of solid particles into a cell
cell without energy is called through the formation of a transport pro-
tein?
A. active transport
A. Endocytosis/Phagocytosis
B. endocytosis
B. Diffusion
C. Secondary Active Transport
D. exocytosis
D. Osmosis
368. Carbon Dioxide is in high concentration in
the body cells and moves with the concen- 373. What is Osmosis?
tration gradient into the blood stream by
A. equal concentration
this process
B. diffusion of water through a
selectively-permeable membrane
B. Simple Diffusion
C. movement of sugar through a mem-
C. Active Transport brane
D. Osmosis D. non-polar tail
369. What am I? I’m a real “powerhouse”. I 374. What part of the cell membrane protects
break down glucose to make ATP. the cell from foreign particles?
A. Cell membrane A. Phospholipid Bilayer
B. ribosome B. Hydrophobic Tail
C. mitochondria C. Carbohydrate Receptors
D. lysosome D. Cholesterol

375. When the concentration is the same on C. Translation

both sides of the membrane, the two so- D. Mutation
lutions will be , which means “same

strength.” 381. If the volume of a cell increases when it
A. isotonic is placed in a solution, that solution is said
to be to the cell
B. hypotonic
A. hypertonic
C. hypertonic
B. subatomic
D. brazen
C. isotonic
376. attracted or likes to water D. hypotonic
A. hydrophilic
382. This cell organelle helps organisms main-
B. hydrophobic tain homeostasis by controlling what sub-
C. hydromesic stances may enter or leave cells.
D. none of above A. vacuole
B. nucleus
377. Proteins and polysaccharides that are too
large to move into a cell through diffusion C. cell membrane
or active transport move in by D. cell wall
A. exocytosis 383. Which type of transport best describes
B. endocytosis the cell membrane of a paramecium mov-
ing to engulf a food particle?
C. ion channels
A. exocytosis
D. the sodium-poatssium pump
B. active transport
378. The process by which the nuclear material
C. diffusion
is divided equally between two new cells
D. endocytosis
A. mitosis
B. cancer 384. How does a solution become supersatu-
rated?
C. spindle
A. dissolve lots of solute in it.
D. centromere
B. dissolve a little solute in it.
379. Low concentration gradient to High. C. dissolve more solute than you should
A. Passive Transport be able to.
B. Active Transport D. dissolve a super amount of solvent in
it.
C. Facilitated Diffusion
D. none of above 385. Which of the following correctly pairs a
biomolecule to its function?
380. Before a cell goes through cell division, A. Enzyme:makes cell membrane’s phos-
the DNA in the nucleus must undergo pholipid bilayer
A. Replication B. Cellulose:makes the cell walls of all
B. Transcription plant cells

C. Cholesterol:Stores genetic informa- C. Proteins

tion
D. Nucleic acids
D. Glucose:Increase the rate of a reac-
tion 391. Removing materials from a cell in vesicles
is called
386. Active transport is the movement of
large materials across a cell membrane A. osmosis
from to concentration B. diffusion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. high to low C. exocytosis
B. low to high D. endocytosis
C. high to high
392. Aerobic Respiration means
D. low to low
A. that organisms must breathe air
387. This type of mixture contains two or
B. that organisms break down complex
more substances that are visibly distin-
organic molecules to yield energy
guishable.
A. homogeneous C. that oxygen is produced
B. heterogeneous D. that oxygen is necessary
C. solution 393. The movement of water from a high con-

D. colloid centration to a low concentration is called
A. diffusion
388. Fermentation refers to the conversion of
to B. osmosis
A. a sugar, a fatty acid C. facilitated diffusion
B. a sugar, an alcohol or an acid D. active transport
C. a sugar, energy-rich compounds
394. Two different solutions are separated
D. an alcohol or an acid, a sugar by a membrane permeable only to water.
How will molecules move?
389. Controlling what goes into or out of the
cell with the help of energy is called A. solutes will move by dissolving
A. active transport B. water will move by active transport
B. endocytosis C. solutes will move by osmosis
C. passive transport D. water will move by osmosis
D. exocytosis
395. Which of the following is NOT a type of
390. What type of biomolecule is a major part Active Transport?
of the cell membrane because it creates a A. Membrane Pumps
thin hydrophobic layer that helps maintain
selective permeability? B. Endocytosis
A. Carbohydrates C. Exocytosis
B. Lipids D. Osmosis

396. This moves substances in vesicles C. Equal

A. endocytosis D. Mammal

B. exocytosis
402. Proteins are produced at this organelle.
C. both
A. golgi body
D. none of above
397. What gives the cell membrane struc-
ture? C. cytoskeleton
A. Carbohydrate Receptors D. cilia

B. Channel Proteins 403. Which of the following BEST describes the
C. Cholesterol tonicity associated with homeostasis?
D. ATP A. Hypotonic
398. What process do ion channel use to move B. Isotonic
ions across the cell membrane? C. Hypertonic
A. pumping D. Osmosis
B. respiration
C. passive transport 404. What structure of the cell forms a frame
that holds the cell up in the cytoplasm?
D. active transport
A. centrioles
399. What is endocytosis?
B. cell wall
A. A type of passive transport that re-
moves material from the cell. C. flagella
B. A type of passive transport that adds D. cytoskeleton

material to the cell.
405. The path that water molecules take into
C. A type of active transport that removes the cell is
material from the cell.
A. through cholesterol
D. A type of active transport that adds ma-
terial to the cell. B. between globular proteins
C. between phospholipids
400. The movement of water across a mem-
brane moving with the concentration gra- D. through peripheral proteins
dient is called
406. When a cell is placed in a hypertonic
(more concentrated) solution water
B. osmosis
C. active transport solution
401. ISO means of the cell
A. Low C. moves equally in and out of the cell
B. A lot D. none of these

407. the sodium-Potassium pump usually 412. What kind of transport does not require
pumps energy?
A. potassium ions out of the cell A. Active
B. sodium ions into the cell B. Vacuole
C. potassium ions into the cell C. Passive

D. Na/K Pump
D. calcium ions into the cell
413. Molecules diffusing with the concentra-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
408. Some molecules can easily pass through tion gradient (from high to low concentra-
the plasma membrane and other molecules tion) through a protein channel is
cannot pass
A. Phospholipids
B. Simple Diffusion
B. Passive Transport C. Active Transport
C. Impermeable D. Osmosis
D. Selectively Permeable
414. Which type of solution has a greater so-
lute concentration INSIDE of the cell?
409. Integral proteins with sugar chains at-
tached that stick out on the exterior sur- A. Hypertonic
face of the cell membrane helps recognize B. Hypotonic
“self” and are called?
C. Isotonic
A. amino acids
D. none of above
B. lipoproteins
415. One way a cell maintains homeostasis is
C. glycoproteins by controlling the movement of substance
D. none of above across
A. Golgi Bodies
410. What is something that prokaryotic and
B. mitochondria
eukaryotic cells have in common?
C. cell membrane
A. They have a nucleus.
D. Cell wall
B. They are multi-cellular.
416. Which of these is NOT a type of passive
C. They have DNA.
transport?
D. They have organelles that are A. Endocytosis
membrane-bound.
B. Osmosis
411. The process that moves oxygen across C. Diffusion
the cell membrane into the cell is called
D. Facilitated diffusion
A. diffusion
417. Water will tend to move across a barrier
B. osmosis until is reached.
C. active transport A. endocytosis
D. phagocytosis B. exocytosis

C. equilibrium B. swell because water diffuses out of

D. freezing the cell

C. shrivel because water diffuses out of
418. A molecular mechanisms in which ions or the cell
molecules are transported across a cellular
membrane requiring the use of an energy D. none of above
source 423. DIFFUSION is an example of trans-
A. Pumps port where molecules move from →
B. Transport Protein
A. Passive ; High → Low
C. Facilitated Diffusion
B. Passive ; Low → High
D. Phagocytosis
C. Active ; High → Low
419. A scientist treats a cell with a chemical
D. Active ; Low → High
that destroys the ribosomes. As a result,
which cell process will be stopped? 424. A molecule that diffuses down a concen-
A. osmosis tration gradient goes from an area of
concentration into an area of concen-
B. respiration
tration.
C. photosynthesis
A. high, low
D. protein synthesis
B. low, high
420. The diffusion of water C. passive, active
A. Active transport D. active, passive
B. Diffusion 425. FACILITATED DIFFUSION is an example of
C. Osmosis transport where molecules move from
D. Engulfing →
421. Some celery sticks were placed in dis-
tilled water. What type of solution are B. Passive ; Low → High
they in? What will happen to the celery C. Active ; High → Low
sticks? D. Active ; Low → High
A. hypotonic, the celery sticks increase in
size 426. What do you call to the movement of wa-
ter across a membrane?
B. hypertonic, the celery sticks reduce in
size A. Diffusion
C. isotonic, the celery sticks remains in B. Endocytosis

size C. Exocytosis
D. none of above D. Osmosis
422. if you put a plant in salt water it will 427. What organelles is NOT found in a
A. swell because water diffuses into the PROkaryote
cells A. nucleus

B. cell membrane 433. Which type of passive transport occurs

C. Chromosomes (DNA)DNA when molecules move randomly from high
to low concentration like color dye in a
D. ribosomes beaker?
428. Movement of materials through a vesicle A. Facilitated diffusion
into the cell that requires energy is B. Osmosis
A. exocytosis C. Diffusion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. endocytosis D. none of above
C. osmosis
434. What do the following terms have
D. simple diffusion in common?-diffusion-osmosis-facilitated
diffusion
429. What are the 2 parts of a phospholipid?
A. They require energy to move materials
A. Hydrophobic head, hydrophilic tails
B. Hydrophobic heads, hydrophobic tails B. They move from a low concentration to
C. Hydrophilic heads, hydrophobic tails a high concentration
D. Hydrophilic heads, hydrophilic tails C. They move move materials DOWN the
concentration gradient
430. Which forms of transport uses en- D. They require ATP
ergy(ATP)?
A. Endocytosis 435. What kind of solution has an equal move-
ment of water into and out of the cell?
B. Osmosis
A. Hypertonic
C. Passive
B. Hypotonic
D. Diffusion
C. Isotonic
431. Cellular Transport is important for D. none of above
A. Energy
436. Molecules moving from low concentra-
B. Instability tion to high concentration is an example
C. Disequilibrium of
D. Homeostasis A. Active Transport
B. Passive Transport
432. If a gummy bear is placed in salt wa-
ter, the mass of the gummy bear will de- C. Osmosis
crease because water will move out of the D. none of above
gummy bear. What process does this rep-
resent? 437. Diffusion is the movement of molecules
from
A. osmosis
A. An area of low concentration to an
B. fermentation
area of high concentration
C. respiration B. An area of high concentration to an
D. diffusion area of low concentration

C. An area of equilibrium of an area of 443. Which type of solution does water escape
high concentration the cell causing it to shrivel?

438. During which type of transport do B. Hypotonic
molecules move from HIGH to LOW con- C. Isotonic
centration?
D. none of above
B. Active Transport 444. The type of transport that goes against
C. Both Passive and Active Transport the concentration gradient and requires en-
ergy is
D. none of above
439. What condition occurs when too much wa-
B. facilitated diffusion
ter moves into the cell and the cell mem-
brane bursts? C. active transport
A. Plasmolysis D. none of above
B. Exocytosis
445. Which is an example of how humans
C. Endocytosis maintain homeostasis in bad environmen-
D. Cytolysis tal conditions?
440. Which of the following maintains home- A. sweating in the heat

ostasis within the cell? B. shivering in the heat
A. Passive Transport C. digesting amino acids
B. Active Transport D. regulating glucose levels
C. Both Passive and Active Transport
D. Neither Passive now Active Transport 446. How do molecules prefer to move along
a concentration gradient?
441. OSMOSIS is an example of transport A. From low to high concentrations
where molecules move from →
B. Molecules will not flow one way or the
other
B. Passive ; Low → High
C. Towards molecules they can bond with
C. Active ; High → Low
D. Active ; Low → High D. From high to low concentrations
442. The process by which a cell gets rid of
447. The process of engulfing or bringing large
large particles by creating vacuoles that
particles into the cell.
become part of the cell membrane
A. Diffusion A. passive transport
B. Exocytosis B. endocytosis
C. Endocytosis C. exocytosis
D. Passive Transport D. diffusion

448. The “ingredients” for photosynthesis 453. The cell membrane of the red blood cell
are will allow water, oxygen, and carbon diox-
ide to pass through. Because other sub-
A. Water and glucose (sugar)
stances are blocked from entering, this
B. Water and oxygen membrane is called
C. Carbon dioxide and water (and sun- A. perforated
light)
B. semi-permeable
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. non-conducive
449. Diffusion and Osmosis are both vital to D. permeable
cell function. Diffusion and osmosis are
similar in that they are both types of- 454. Most active transport proteins use en-
ergy from the breakdown of in order
A. Protein synthesis processes to move substances against the concentra-
B. passive transport processes tion gradient.
C. cellular replication processes A. nucleus
D. cellular metabolism processes. B. cell membrane
C. ATP
450. What are the reactants for cellular respi-
ration? D. mitochondria
A. Oxygen and Water 455. Structure that controls the cellular traffic
B. Glucose and Carbon Dioxide of the cell.
C. Oxygen and Glucose A. Ribosome
D. Water and Carbon Dioxide B. Cell Membrane

C. Mitochondria
451. In a sample of salt water, NaCl would be
considered the D. Cell Wall
A. Solution 456. The movement of materials like oxygen

and glucose into or out of the cell without
B. Solute
energy is called
C. Solvent
A. active transport
D. Solvation
B. endocytosis
452. Which is NOT true about simple diffu- C. passive transport
sion? D. exocytosis
A. It is a form of passive transport
457. Which type of transport moves materials
B. This transport is typical for large WITHOUT the use of energy?
molecules
C. It is how O2 and CO2 travel across the
membrane B. Active Transport
D. Molecules travel with the concentra- C. Both Passive and Active Transport
tion gradient D. none of above

458. If a red blood cell is placed into a hyper- 463. Smoke escaping from chimney.
tonic solution, what effect would it have A. Diffusion
on a cell?

B. Osmosis
A. There would be no effect on the cell
C. Active Transport
B. The cell would shrink D. none of above
C. The cell would swell
464. Which term describes a cell bursting after
D. The cell would burst taking in too much water?
459. The dispersal of ink in a breaker of water A. turgid
is an example of B. cytolysis
A. osmosis C. plasmolysis
B. diffusion D. isotonic
C. active transport 465. The purpose of the cell membrane is to
D. facilitated diffusion A. control passage of material into and
out of the cell
460. Which if the statements below is not true B. package cell products for export
of eukaryotic cells?
C. store fluid in the cell
A. they make up bacteria
D. transfer hereditary material to off-
B. they can make unicellular or multicel- spring
lular organisms
466. A characteristic common to both diffusion
C. they have a nucleus and active transport is that
D. they have membrane bound organelles A. enzymes are required
461. What is the equation for calculating per- B. oxygen is moved across a membrane
centage change? C. ATP is needed
A. % change = (final mass / original D. the movement of molecules occurs
mass) x 100
467. If a freshwater plant is placed in saltwa-
B. % change = (original mass / final ter, what will happen to the plant?
mass) x 100 A. Salt will enter the plant’s cells
C. % change = (change in mass / original B. Water will enter the plant’s cells
mass) x 100
C. Water will enter and exit the cell in
D. % change = (original mass / change equal amounts
in mass) x 100
D. Water will exit the plant’s cells
462. What does “high concentration area” 468. Some substances are too big to be
mean? pumped across the cell membrane. They
A. Spread out may enter or leave the cell by vesicle trans-
port requiring energy from the cell. When
B. Tightly packed together
a vesicle is engulfed and enters the cell, it
C. Uncrowded is called
D. Spacious A. endocytosis

B. exocytosis B. shrink
C. osmosis C. stay the same size
D. none of above D. impossible to tell
469. The movement of molecules against a con- 474. Which of the following includes diffusion,
centration gradient osmosis, and facilitated diffusion?
A. simple diffusion A. Passive Transport
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. facilitated diffusion B. Active Transport
C. active transport C. Both Passive and Active Transport
D. osmosis D. Neither Passive now Active Transport
470. What is the term that means “a solu- 475. What is the difference between active
tion that causes a cell to swell due to wa- and passive transport?
ter moving into the cell because there is a A. Active does not need energy and pas-
lower concentration of solute outside the sive uses ATP (energy)
cell ‘’?
B. Active uses ATP (energy) and passive
A. hypotonic solution does not need energy
B. hypertonic solution C. Active stores transport proteins and
C. isotonic solution passive releases
D. passive transport D. Active uses hormones and passive
does not
471. Which of the following can easily pass
through the cell membrane? 476. Condition that occurs if too much water
A. Large molecules leaves the cell and cell collapses.
B. Ions A. Plasmolysis
C. Hydrophilic molecules B. Osmosis
D. Hydrophobic molecules C. Cytolysis

D. Exocytosis
472. How is homeostasis important to the sur-
vival of organisms? 477. Which term describes the stable internal
A. Homeostasis makes organisms grow conditions of an organism?
bigger and taller. A. cell specialization
B. Homeostasis helps organisms locate B. homeostasis
food. C. permeability
C. Homeostasis allows organisms to reg- D. unicellularity
ulate their temperature.
D. Homeostasis makes all organisms hi- 478. Cellular “drinking”; A type of endocy-
bernate. tosis in which the cell takes fluid and
dissolved solutes into small membranous
473. A cell in a hypotonic solution will vesicles; uses cellular energy
A. swell A. Pinocytosis

B. Phagocytosis B. Endocytosis
C. Exocytosis C. Passive Transport

D. Osmosis D. Exocytosis
479. Which type of passive transport focuses 484. What form of passive cell transport is the
on the movement of water through the movement of water molecules through the
membrane? cell membrane into an area of higher con-
A. Facilitated diffusion centration?
B. Osmosis A. Exocytosis
C. Diffusion B. Facilitated Diffusion
D. none of above C. Osmosis
D. Diffusion
480. Molecules that cannot directly diffuse
across the membrane pass through special 485. In the given scenario what will happen?
protein channels in a process known as An egg is placed in pure water for 48
hours.
A. diffusion A. The egg will gain water and swell.
B. endocytosis B. Water will move in and out of the cell
C. exocytosis equally, and the cell with neither shrink
D. facilitated diffusion nor swell.
C. The egg will lose water and shrink.
481. The active transport of small molecules or
ions across a cell membrane is generally D. none of above
carried out by transport proteins, or 486. Which type of passive transport uses
that are found in the membrane itself. transport proteins to transport items such
A. protein pumps as glucose through the membrane?
B. channel proteins A. Facilitated diffusion
C. lipids B. Osmosis
D. carbohydrates C. Diffusion
482. When an organism maintains a stable in- D. none of above
ternal environment by properly regulating
487. Cell membrane surrounds a particle and
all of its body systems
encloses it (for large particles)
A. cell transport
A. Endocytosis
B. heterogenous
B. Exocytosis
C. active transport
C. Permeable
D. homeostasis
D. In high concentration
483. A type of active transport where the cell
surrounds and take in a substance; forms 488. Solutions are composed of .
a vesicle A. salts and solutes
A. Concentration B. solvents and salts

C. solutes and alloys C. Kidneys

D. solutes and solvents D. Photosynthesis
489. What statement is true of the cell mem- 494. The movement of water across the cell
brane? membrane from areas of high concentra-
A. It is fluid and flexible. tion of water to areas of low concentration
of water
B. It is rigid and breaks easily.
A. endocytosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. It is only found in eukaryotic cells.
B. osmosis
D. All of the above are true.
490. All the different types of cells in the hu- D. pinocytosis
man body such as sperm, neurons, smooth
muscle, bone, and red blood cells have dif- 495. Active transport occurs through which
ferent structures and functions because of type of biomolecule
A. Carbohydrates
A. differentiation
B. Lipids
B. synthesis
C. Proteins
C. osmosis
D. Nucleic acids
D. chemotaxis
496. The major function of ribosomes is to
491. The process of engulfing food or liquid
A. Make fats
particles into the cell.
B. Synthesize protein
A. Osmosis
C. Digest protein
B. Exocytosis
D. Make sugars
C. Endocytosis
D. Diffusion 497. The concentration of solutes is greater
outside of the cell than inside; cell loses
492. What form of passive cell transport water and shrinks
spreads particles from a region of high con-
A. Impermeable
centration to low concentration without
using energy? B. Hypotonic Solution
A. Exocytosis C. Hypertonic Solution
B. Osmosis D. Isotonic Solution
C. Exocytosis 498. Active transport requires , and moves
D. Diffusion materials from concentration, and
goes the concentration gradient.
493. Which of the following is the best exam-
ple of osmosis? A. No energy, low to high, against
A. NA/K Pump B. ATP, high to low, with
B. Water moving though the cell mem- C. ATP, low to high, with
brane D. ATP, low to high, against

499. Which of the following macromolecules A. Passive transport

are a prominent part of animal connective B. Endocytosis
tissue such as cartilage and keratin?

C. Exocytosis
A. Carbohydrates
D. Osmosis
B. lipids
C. proteins 505. What macromolecules help to make the
cell membrane?
D. nucleic acids
A. Proteins
500. Which of the following is responsible for B. Carbohydrates
getting complex molecules across the cell
C. Phospholipids
membrane?
D. All of the above
A. Lipids
B. Carbs 506. Materials that can move across a mem-
brane with passive transport include
C. Proteins
A. water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide
D. Nucleic Acids
B. starch and other polysaccharides
501. The dispersal of food coloring in a beaker C. DNA and RNA
of water is an example of
D. large proteins
A. osmosis
B. diffusion 507. Why is diffusion and osmosis important
to cells?
C. active transport
A. It allows them to take in materials
D. facilitated diffusion without using energy.
502. The structure most responsible for main- B. It allows them to reproduce.
taining cell homeostasis, because of its se- C. It allows them to absorb sunlight.
lective permeability is the
D. It allows cells to use all energy.
A. cytoplasm
508. Permeable means
B. plasma membrane
A. things can pass through
C. mitochondria
B. the concentration levels are different
D. cell wall
C. it is permanent
503. What might happen to a freshwater plant
D. things are stuck
that is placed into saltwater?
A. Cells will swell 509. Which of these statements best describes
the function of the cell membrane?
B. Plasmolysis
A. It allows things to freely enter and exit
C. Cytolysis the cell
D. There will be no change B. it controls which substances enter and
504. The process by which a cell membrane exit the cell
surrounds and encloses a large particle to C. it prevents substances from entering
bring it into the cell the cell

D. it prevents substances from leaving C. Glucose and Oxygen

the cell D. Carbon Dioxide and Water
510. The first stage of mitosis when chromo- 515. The movement of molecules from high to
somes start becoming visible in the micro- low concentration, that requires NO en-
scope is called: ergy
A. anaphase A. Hydrophilic
B. prophase B. Isotonic Solution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. telophase C. Active Transport
D. metaphase D. Passive Transport
511. In the intestines, sodium pumps move 516. When cells take in a liquid through active
sodium (Na) out of your digested food into transport, what is it called?
your intestine cells from low concentration
in your food to high concentration in the A. Exocytosis
cell. What kind of cell transport is this? B. Phagocytosis
A. Facilitated Diffusion C. Pinocytosis
B. Simple Diffusion D. Osmosis
C. Active Transport 517. Homeostasis refers to the necessity of an
D. Osmosis organism to maintain constant or stable
internal condition. What structure helps
512. During passive transport, molecultes cells maintain homeostasis by regulating
move from an area of concentration to the movement of materials into and out of
an area of concentration. a cell?
A. higher, lower A. A chloroplast
B. lower, higher B. Nuclear membrane
C. higher, equal C. Cell membrane
D. lower, equal D. Mitochondrion
513. Continuous and random movement of par- 518. Bringing a liquid into a cell using energy.
ticles with no further change in concentra-
tion. A. Endocytosis
A. dynamic equilibrium B. Pinocytosis
B. active transport C. Exocitosis
C. passive transport D. none of above
D. diffusion 519. A raisin that is surrounded by fresh wa-

ter will
514. What are the products for Photosynthe-
sis? A. grow
A. Glucose, Oxygen, and Energy(ATP) B. shrink
B. Carbon Dioxide, Water, and En- C. stays the same

ergy(ATP) D. none of above

520. Facilitated diffusion is the movement of 525. What is the purpose of the cell mem-
materials into and out of the cell brane?

A. with the use of energy A. Make proteins for the cell
B. with the use of proteins but no energy B. Controls what comes in and out of the
cell
C. by moving water C. Produces energy for the cell
D. by using ATP D. Transports stuff around the cell
526. What is the movement of molecules from

521. The sodium-potassium pump usually
high to low concentration?
pumps
A. diffusion
A. only potassium ions and sugar
molecules B. osmosis
B. potassium ions out of the cell C. facilitated diffusion
C. sodium ions into the cell D. active transport
D. potassium ions into the cell 527. What is embedded in the phospholipid bi-
layer?
522. A cell with a 10% salt solution is placed
A. proteins
into a beaker with a 40% salt solution.
How will water move? B. salt
A. It will leave the cell C. water
B. It will enter the cell D. none of above
C. It will move in and out equally 528. Phospholipids are molecules that have
D. There will be no movement A. one polar phosphate head and two non-
polar fatty acid tails
523. Movement of molecules from an area of B. one polar phosphate head and two po-
higher concentration to an area of lower lar fatty acid tails
concentration
C. optional proteins
A. Isotonic Solution
D. barrier proteins
B. Endocytosis
529. The diffusion of particles through the cell
C. Active Transport
membrane from high to low concentration
D. Diffusion is called
524. What part of the cell membrane causes A. exocytosis

organ rejection in people who receive or- B. active transport
gan transplants or blood transfusions? C. passive transport
A. phospholipids D. osmosis
B. cholesterol
530. In which solution will water move into
C. glyocoproteins the cell resulting in the cell bursting?

B. Isotonic C. cell wall

C. Hypotonic D. ribosomes
D. none of above 536. What does photosynthesis produce
531. An ISOTONIC solution has a(n) con- (make)?
centration of solute (dissolved stuff) than A. Carbon dioxide and water
inside the cell. B. Glucose (sugar) and oxygen
A. lower
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Oxygen and water
B. equal D. none of above
C. higher
537. Active transport requires the use of
D. none of above by the cell
532. The fluid mosaic model describes the cell A. DNA
membrane as B. ATP
A. a double layer of protein C. RNA
B. two layers of carbohydrates D. protein
C. a double layer of phospholipids with
538. What kind of solution causes water to fill
protein molecules embedded within it
the cell until it swells and pops?
D. one layer of protein
A. Hypertonic
533. internal pressure of a cell due to water B. Hypotonic
held there by osmotic pressure of the cell
C. Isotonic
membrane against the cell wall
D. none of above
A. Pinocytosis
B. Turgor Pressure 539. What are 3 types of active transport?
C. Hydrophobic A. Riding a bike, Running through the
mountains, walking on the beach
D. Extracellular
B. Osmosis, Diffusion, Facilitated Diffu-
534. Facilitated-diffusion carrier proteins and sion
cell-membrane pumps both
C. Sodium/potassium Pump, Endocyto-
A. require an input of energy sis, Exocytosis
B. are specific for the kinds of sub- D. Throwing a ball, Playing tennis, driving
stances they transport a car
C. transport substances up their concen- 540. If a plant cell’s pressure potential is 2
tration gradients bars and the solute potential is-3.5 bars,
D. carry out active transport what is the resulting water potential?
535. which of the following transports mate- A. 1.5 bars

rial within the cell? B. 3.5 bars
A. Golgi apparatus C. -1.5 bars
B. Endoplasmic reticulum D. -2.5 bars

541. What are the two types of cell trans- 546. A cell that neither gains or loses water
port? when it is immersed in solution is

A. Passive and Active A. isotonic to its environment
B. Passive and Facilitated B. hypotonic to its environment
C. Active and Facilitated C. hypertonic to its environment
D. None of the above D. metaboliccaly inactive
547. As a result of diffusion, the concentration

542. In pure water, a red blood cell from an
of many types of substances
animal will swell and burst, but a leaf cell
from a plant will not. Which structure in A. always remains greater inside a mem-
the leaf cell is responsible for this differ- brane.
ence? B. eventually becomes balanced on both
A. cell membrane sides of a membrane.
B. cell wall C. always remains greater on the outside

of a membrane.
C. mitochondrion
D. becomes imbalanced on both sides of
D. nucleus a membrane.
543. In a nerve cell, ATP energy is used to 548. The diffusion of water through a selec-
pump sodium (Na) out of the cell and tively permeable membrane is called
potassium (K) into the cell. This is an ex- A. osmosis
ample of
B. diffusion
B. Simple Diffusion
D. gardation
C. Active Transport
549. A cell in an isotonic solution will
D. Osmosis
A. swell
544. What causes a plasmolyzed cell? B. shrink
A. An isotonic solution C. stay the same size
B. A hypotonic solution D. impossible to tell
C. A hypertonic solution 550. Diffusion can be used in
D. An isoosmotic solution A. Plants and Animals
545. Which of the following is NOT one of the B. Only Plants

4 organelles that all prokaryotes and eu- C. Only Animals
karyotes have in common? D. Only Humans
A. Plasma Membrane
551. What are the end products of cellular res-
B. Genetic Material piration?
C. Ribosomes A. carbon dioxide, water, energy
D. Cell Wall B. oxygen and water

C. water and amino acids 556. Which is an an example of homeostasis?

D. carbon dioxide, nitrogen, ammonia A. Going outside
B. Exercising
552. Which cell structure is largely responsi-
ble for maintaining homeostasis within the C. Shivering when cold
cell? D. Balancing on one foot
A. Cell Membrane
557. Cells use energy to move materials
B. Lysosomes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
across a membrane (low to high concentra-
C. Mitochondria tion).
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum A. Active transport
B. Passive transport
553. Why can’t we place a freshwater fish in
ocean? C. Diffusion
D. Osmosis
A. because it is going to require a lot of
energy. 558. If a cell is placed in a 0.5M sucrose solu-
B. because water will move into the fish tion in an open beaker that is 18 degrees
causing the cells to burst. C, what will the solute concentration be?
C. because water will move out of A. -12.09 bars
the fish which will cause the cells to B. -13.10 bars
shrink/shrivel.
C. -12.34 bars
D. none of above
D. -1.20 bars
554. Molecules move along or down the con- 559. The only difference between simple diffu-
centration gradient from areas of high con- sion and facilitated diffusion is?
centration to areas of low concentration
during A. Simple diffusion requires energy
A. endocytosis B. Facilitated Diffusion requires energy
B. exocytosis C. Both move substances from low to

high concentration
C. active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion uses transport
D. facilitated diffusion proteins
555. Which of the following best describes the 560. Which molecule(s) are not found in the
overall structure of the cell membrane? cell membrane?
A. A phospholipid bilayer with embedded A. Phospholipids
proteins.
B. Channel Proteins
B. A carbohydrate membrane with em- C. Nucleic Acids
bedded amino acids.
D. Carrier Proteins
C. A protein bilayer with embedded phos-
pholipids. 561. Which type of solution makes a cell
D. Nucleic acid membrane with embed- shrink?
ded proteins. A. Hypotonic

B. Hypertonic A. Diffusion
C. Isotonic B. Active Transport

D. none of above C. Facilitated Diffusion
D. Osmosis
562. What will happen when a cell is placed in
a hypertonic solution? 567. Which of the following modes of cellular
A. Water exits the cell transport does NOT require energy?
B. Solutes exit the cell A. Facilitated Diffusion
C. Water enters the cell B. Protein Pumps

C. Endocytosis
D. Solutes enter the cell
D. Exocytosis
563. What is facilitated diffusion?
568. A balloon is filled with lemon juice and
A. Transport that uses proteins to help
placed in a box. After 2 days Mary opens
move molecules across the membrane.
the box and the box smells like lemons be-
B. Movements of substances through a cause of
membrane. A. osmosis
C. When molecules spread from High to B. endocytosis
Low concentration on their own.
C. diffusion
D. When pressure pushes something
D. plasmolysis
through a membrane.
569. Movement of molecules from an area of
564. Diffusion of water molecules through a
high concentration to an area of low con-
semipermeable membrane from a place of
centration through a protein channel
higher concentration to a place of lower
concentration; passive transport A. diffusion
A. Osmosis B. faciliated diffusion
B. Endocytosis C. osmosis
C. Pumps D. none of above
D. Permeable 570. Which of the following do NOT

A. animal cells
565. Which of the following terms refers to a
membrane allows some molecules to pass B. bacteria cells
through while blocking other molecules? C. plant cells
A. Homeostatic D. fungi
B. Selectively permeable 571. The fluid-mosaic model of the cell mem-
C. Hydrophobic brane suggests that the membrane is pri-
marily composed of
D. Passively permeable
A. proteins and starches
566. If a molecule moves into a cell from B. carbohydrates and lipids
low concentration to high concentration,
what type of transportation is being per- C. sugars and proteins
formed? D. proteins and lipids

2.4 Cell Communication 310
572. Matt uses a microscope to look at slides C. Active transport

of plant cells. He sees a cell with two D. Diffusion
nuclei that have visible chromosomes. In
which stage of cell division is this cell? 577. A solution with the same concentration of
A. anaphase water and solutes as inside a cell, resulting
in the cell retaining its normal shape
B. prophase
C. telophase
B. isotonic solution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. interphase
C. hypotonic solution
573. When the smell of perfume spreads
D. hypertonic solution
throughout a room, it is an example of
A. passive transport 578. Which of these phases of mitosis take
place first?
B. diffusion
A. anaphase
C. active transport
B. telophase
D. osmosis
C. prophase
574. What organelle PRODUCES proteins?
D. metaphase
A. ribosomes
579. small compartment enclosed by a mem-
B. centrioles
brane formed during transport of material
C. lysosomes during endo + exocytosis
D. nucleus A. vesicles
575. The term used to describe when some B. large vacuole
molecules are able to pass through a mem- C. mitochondria
brane and others are not.
D. lysosome
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion 580. What would happen to a cell placed in a
hypotonic solution?
C. Selective Permeability
A. Water would move out of the cell caus-
D. Equilibrium ing it to shrink
576. Spraying Axe body spray in a corner of B. Salt would move out of the cell causing
the room and someone on the opposite cor- it to shrink/
ner smells it is an example of what? C. Water would move into the cell caus-
A. Osmosis ing it to swell
B. Facilitated diffusion D. The cell would remain the same size.
2.4 Cell Communication

1. Which of the following is involved in many A. cAMP
human medicines for disease?
B. Calcium concentration

C. G-protein pathways 6. Which of the following causes apples to

ripen?
D. receptor tyrosine kinases

A. neurotransmitters
2. Which of the following is the most likely
B. ethylene gas
response to a signal that reaches the cell’s
nucleus? C. influx of calcium
A. regulate gene expression (turning D. pathogen
genes on or off)
7. Mitosis results in
B. surpress metabolism
A. 2 identical diploid cells
C. regulate ligand-gated ion channels
B. 2 unique haploid cells
D. initiation of apoptosis
C. 4 unique diploid cells
3. Cytokinesis usually, but not always, fol- D. 4 identical haploid cells
lows mitosis. If a cell completed mitosis
but not cytokinesis, the result would be a 8. How does mitosis in plant cells differ from
cell with mitosis in animal cells?
A. a single large nucleus A. animal cells form a cell plate
B. two nuclei B. plant cells form a cell plate
C. two nuclei but with half the amount of C. plant cells go through the process in
DNA reverse
D. none of above D. plant cells go through two rounds of
mitosis while animal cells just do one
4. The following describes during mito-
sis. The chromatin condenses and spindle 9. Water-soluble ligands bind to recep-
fibers form at each side of the cell. The tors, and lipid-soluble ligands bind to
chromosomes begin to form and nuclear receptors.
membrane disappears.
A. intracellular; intracellular
A. prophase
B. intracellular; membrane-bound
B. anaphase
C. membrane-bound; membrane-bound
C. metaphase
D. membrane-bound; intracellular
D. telophase
10. Binding of a signal molecule to which type
5. Describe what occurs when the ligand of receptor leads to a change in the con-
binds to the receptor. centration of ions on opposite sides of the
A. confirmation change in shape of recep- plasma membrane?
tor A. receptor tyrosine kinase
B. ligand passes through the membrane B. g-protein linked receptor
C. phosphorylation of ligand C. ligand-gated ion channel
D. receptor binds additional ligands D. second messenger

11. Besides the ability of some cancer cells to 16. Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals
divide uncontrollably, what else could log- results in the formation of
ically result in a tumor? A. one haploid gamete
A. enhanced anchorage dependence B. three diploid gametes
B. changes in the order of cell cycle C. four diploid gametes
stages
D. four haploid gametes
C. lack of appropriate cell death
17. ADHD is caused by an imbalance in which
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. inability to form spindles
of the following neurotransmitters?
12. If an organism reproduces asexually, its A. Serontonin
offspring will be B. Dopamine
A. Genetically different from each other C. Epinephrine
B. Produced from specialized cells known D. Melatonin
as gametes
18. Which of the following is NOT a response
C. Genetically identical to the parent
by the cell from a signal transduction path-
D. Produced as a result of fertilization way?
13. A signaling molecule that cannot cross the A. cell growth
phospholipid bilayer and must bind to the B. secretion of molecules
membrane receptors on the surface.
C. gene expression
A. Apoptosis D. all options are responses
B. Synaptic signaling
19. Which of the following is involved in many
C. Hydrophobic Ligands human medicines?
D. Hydrophilic Ligands A. cAMP
14. Cancer refers to B. G-protein pathways
A. controlled cell growth and replication C. Calcium concentration
B. garbage D. Tyrosine kinase
C. more garbage 20. The somatic cells derived from a single-

D. uncontrolled cell growth and replica- celled zygote divide by which process?
tion A. meiosis
B. mitosis
15. During which checkpoint does the cell check
its surroundings to determine if the cell C. binary fission
is healthy enough to move to the next D. none of above
phase?
21. Which of the following is a chemical mes-
A. G2 Checkpoint
sage that usually travels through the
B. Metaphase Checkpoint bloodstream to target cells?
C. Cytokinesis Checkpoint A. hormone
D. G1 Checkpoint B. local regulator

C. endocrine cell 27. Which of the following is an example of a

D. none of above second messenger?
A. cAMP

22. Why do we need meiosis?
B. GTP
A. To double the number of chromosomes C. insulin
going into sex cells
D. epinephrine
B. To halve the number of chromosomes
going into sex cells 28. What is an organic compound that is made
by glands in the body (pituitary, thyroid,
C. To triple the number of chromosomes
etc) that is used in long distance communi-
cation between cells?
D. To not change the number of chromo- A. Hormones
somes going into sex cells
B. Neurotransmitters
23. Which plant hormone is a gas? C. Synapse
A. auxin D. Carbohydrates
B. gibberellin 29. cAMP is a second messenger derived from
C. ethene which molecule?
D. cytokinin A. Cholesterol
B. ATP
24. An enzyme that de-phosphorylates pro-
teins C. Adenine
D. GTP
A. Protein Phosphatases
B. ATP Synthase 30. The general name for an enzyme that
transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a
C. Kinase protein is
D. Adenyl Cyclase A. phosphorylase.
25. All foreign materials that cause a response B. phosphatase.
from the immune system are called C. protein kinase
A. Antigens D. none of above
B. Active Immunity 31. Cells that ingest pathogens are
C. Antibodies A. plasma cells
D. Antibiotics B. phagocytic cells
C. helper T cells
26. Meiosis I separates , while Meiosis II
separates D. antibodies
A. sister chromatids; tetrads 32. Local Messengers are NOT
B. homologous chromosomes; sister A. Autocrine
chromatids B. Paracrine
C. homologous chromosomes; tetrads C. Neural or Synaptic Signals
D. tetrads; homologous chromosomes D. Endocrine

33. The stage in a cell’s life when it is not in C. paracrine signalling

the process of dividing. D. endocrine signalling
A. telophase
39. Which of the following is not involved in
B. anaphase
the transduction phase of a cell signal?
C. interphase
A. cAMP
D. metaphase
B. phosphorylation cascade
NARAYAN CHANGDER
34. Which of our body parts would be webbed C. Calcium ions
if it weren’t for apoptosis?
D. ligands
A. head
B. hands/feet 40. When a neuron responds to a particu-
lar neurotransmitter by opening gated ion
C. arms/legs channels, the neurotransmitter is serving
D. butt as which part of the signal pathway?
35. cell that takes pieces of eaten pathogen A. relay molecule

from macrophage and displays them to be B. endocrine molecule
recognized
C. signal molecule
A. APC
D. receptor
B. helper T
C. B cell 41. Which part of the Cell Cycle takes the
longest?
D. none of above
A. Interphase
36. What is the purpose of the cell cycle? B. Mitosis
A. To create new daughter cells
C. Prophase
B. To prevent cancer from developing
D. Cytokinesis
C. To help the body fight viruses and bac-
teria 42. The causes of cancer may include which of
the following?
D. none of above
A. environmental influences
37. During what phase of the cell cycle does
cell division occur? B. UV radiation
A. Interphase C. viruses
B. M phase D. all of these

C. S phase 43. Which is not a part of a signal transduction
D. G2 phase pathway?
A. response
38. type of cell signalling in which the cells are
in direct contact with each other B. transcription
A. autocrine signalling C. transduction
B. juxtacrine signalling D. receptor

44. There are a TOTAL of chromosomes in B. Organization

human body cells. C. Homeostasis

A. 23 D. Adaptation
B. 46
50. Signal amplification is most often achieved
C. 92 by
D. scientists don’t know A. an enzyme cascade
45. Time period between cell divisions. B. binding of multiple signals
A. Anaphase C. branching pathways
B. Mitosis D. action of adenylyl cyclase
C. Cytokinesis 51. Cyclins are small proteins that bind to and
D. Interphase activate CDK enzymes during the process
of:
46. Phosphorylation cascades are often used
A. endocytosis
for
B. cell respiration
A. reception
C. osmosis
B. responses
D. mitosis
C. amplification
D. termination 52. Which is the first checkpoint in the cell cy-
cle where a cell will be caused to exit the
47. Endocrine signaling cycle if this point is not passed
A. Protein that has GTP or GDP attached A. Go
to it
B. G1
B. Signaling molecule that is a first mes-
C. G2
senger
D. M
C. An enzyme that adds a phosphate to a
protein 53. A common second messenger that is de-
D. Distributes a signal throughout a multi- rived from ATP
cellular organism. An example is hor- A. Cyclic AMP (cAMP)
mones.
B. ADP + P
48. Which of the following is NOT a part of C. ATP Synthase
mitosis? D. Phosphatase
A. prophase
54. Starting with a zygote, a series of 3 cell
B. anaphase divisions would produce an early embryo
C. metaphase with how many cells?
D. interphase A. 6
49. A feedback loop best fits which character- B. 8

istic of life? C. 9
A. Cells D. 16

55. Apoptosis involves all but which of the fol- B. steroid

lowing? C. cAMP
A. activation of cellular enzymes D. ATP
B. fragmentation of the DNA
61. Phosphorylation cascades that involve a
C. cell-signaling pathways series of protein kinases are useful for sig-
D. replication of the cell nal transduction because
A. They are the signal reception
NARAYAN CHANGDER
56. Receptor tyrosine kinase is activated by
A. dimerization B. They have the ability to amplify the
original signal
B. phosphorylation by 6 ATP
C. They decrease the number of
C. binding of 2 signal molecules molecules used
D. all of these are correct D. They are species specific
57. A cell containing 92 chromatids at 62. A human zygote should have chromo-
metaphase of mitosis would, at its com- somes inside.
pletion, produce two nuclei each containing
A. 46
how many chromosomes?
B. 23
A. 12
C. 92
B. 16
D. 64
C. 23
D. 46 63. Type of local communication where cells se-
crete substances that affect only nearby
58. Signal receptor protein in the plasma mem- cells because the substances are readily
brane that responds to the binding of a sig- absorbed or rapidly broken down
naling molecule by activating a G-Protein
A. Signaling Cascade
A. G-Protein Coupled Receptor
B. Endocrine Signaling
B. Ligand-Gated Ion Channel
C. Paracrine Signaling
C. Tyrosine Kinase
D. Synaptic Signaling
D. none of above
64. The cell cycle is important because it al-
59. cAMP binds to and phosphorylates the lows for
catalytic portion. A. Reproduction in some organisms
A. Phosphorylase B. Growth and development of organisms
B. Adenylyl cyclase
C. Protein kinase C. Replacement of worn out cells
D. ATP D. All of thee above
60. A molecule that specifically binds to an- 65. A protein pore in cell membranes that
other (usually larger) molecule such as a opens or closes in response to a ligand al-
receptor lowing or blocking the flow of specific ions
A. Ligand A. Ligand-Gated Ion Channel

B. G-Protein Coupled Receptor 70. Put the following stages of the cell cycle
C. Tyrosine Kinase in order:G2, S, G1, M.

D. none of above A. G1, S, G2, M
B. S, G1, G2, M
66. What is the function of protein kinases?
C. G1, M, G2, S
A. activate proteins by dephosphorylat-
D. M, G1, S, G2
ing them
B. activate proteins with cAMP 71. A small molecule that specifically binds to
another molecule, usually a larger one
C. change membrane potential
A. is called a signal transducer.
D. activate proteins by phosphorylating
them B. is called a ligand.
C. is called a polymer.
67. In what way do ligand-receptor interac-
tions differ from enzyme-substrate reac- D. none of above
tions? 72. What determines whether a signal
A. The ligand signal is not usually metab- molecule binds on the surface or enters
olized into useful products the cell?
B. Inhibitors never bind to the ligand- A. size
binding site B. polarity
C. Reversibility never occurs in ligand- C. ability to cross the membrane
receptor interactions.
D. all of these are correct
D. none of above
73. The “effect” of a given stimulus is the
68. Signaling molecules that can cross the A. response
plasma membrane and bind to intracellular
receptors. B. stimulus
A. Synaptic signaling C. cause
B. Hydrophilic LIgands D. result
C. Hydrophobic Ligans 74. Condition in which cells exhibit loss of con-

tact inhibition, uncontrolled growth, and
D. Apoptosis
the ability to invade tissue and metasta-
69. During which process do cells enter pro- size.
grammed cell death, during which time A. cancer
DNA is chopped up, organelles are frag-
B. apoptosis
mented, the cell shrinks and parts of the
cell are packaged into vesicles and re- C. cell cycle
moved by scavenger cells? D. cytokinesis
A. Apoptosis
75. Human cells communicate with one an-
B. Catastrophism other to function as a
C. Cytokinesis A. biofilm
D. Phagocytosis B. tissue

C. molecule 81. In which phase of mitosis does the nu-

D. atom cleus disappear, centrioles move to the
poles, and chromosomes condense into sis-
76. The process of engulfing a bacterium or ter chromatids?
virus particle by a macrophage is known A. Prophase
as
B. Metaphase
A. Phagocytosis
C. Anaphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Pinocytosis
D. Telophase
C. T cell
D. Dendritic cell 82. This type of endocytosis is used by the cell
to take in large molecules or food.
77. Once a cell completes mitosis, what hap- A. Pinocytosis
pens to MPF?
B. Protein pumps
A. It is completely degraded
C. Phagocytosis
B. it is exported from the cell
D. Exocytosis
C. the cyclin component of MPF is de-
graded 83. Which checkpoint is responsible for ensur-
D. the Cdk component of MPF is degraded ing nondisjunction does not take place?
A. G1 checkpoint
78. Adrenaline is released from your adrenal
glands to affect various systems in the B. G2 checkpoint
body. This is an example of signaling. C. S checkpoint
A. synaptic D. M checkpoint
B. endocrine
84. Which type of signaling mechanism is most
C. paracrine likely used for communication between
D. autocrine two neighboring cells?
A. Steroid hormones.
79. Which of the following is NOT a hormone?
B. Molecules released in the extracellular
A. gastrin space.
B. secretin C. Endocrine signaling.
C. glucagon D. Molecules released in the blood
D. adenylyl cyclase stream.
80. The spindle fibers which attach to the chro- 85. Phase of mitosis in which chromosomes
mosomes are made up of: move toward the poles of the spindle.
A. microfilamens A. anaphase
B. microtubules B. metaphase
C. intermediate filaments C. prophase
D. peptidoglycan D. telophase

86. What word means programmed cell C. difficulty carrying on metabolism

death? D. all three

A. apoptosis
92. Which is true of transcription factors?
B. mitosis
A. They regulate the synthesis of DNA in
C. Ced-9
response to a signal.
D. bleb
B. Some transcribe ATP into cAMP.
87. Bacteria use quorum sensing for virulence C. They control which genes are ex-
expression. This type of signaling informs pressed.
bacteria that there are enough of them to
D. none of above
A. attack the host.
B. reproduce and exchange DNZ. 93. In what phase does chromatin condense to
form chromosomes?
C. attract parasites
A. Mitosis
D. none of above
B. Interphase
88. What are the two main types of yeast cells
C. Prophase
involved in sexual reproduction?
D. Anaphase
A. A and alpha
B. Alpha and Beta 94. Which of the following is NOT a role of mi-
C. A and B tosis?
D. Male and Female A. growth

B. gametes
89. Local signalling between a signal releasing
cell and neighboring cells is called C. tissue repair
A. hormonal D. asexual reproduction
B. endocrine 95. Protein kinases activate other relay pro-
C. synaptic teins by adding a(n) to them.
D. paracrine A. phosphate
90. Where is the second messenger calcium B. ATP molecule

typically found when not in the cytoplasm C. cAMP
as a part of a cell signaling pathway? D. GTP
96. One of two genetically identical chromoso-
B. Golgi Bodies
mal units that are the result of DNA repli-
C. Nucleus cation and are attached to each other at
D. Mitochondrion the centromere.
A. sister chromatids
91. Failure to maintain homeostasis could re-
sult in: B. homologous chromosomes
A. lack of internal balance C. centrioles
B. eventual death D. none of above

97. Most hormones are proteins. Which other A. activator

molecule type can serve as hormone? B. inhibitor
A. Carbohydrates C. buffer
B. Lipids
D. cell
C. Nucleic Acids
103. Neurotransmitters are used in signal-
D. none of above
ing.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
98. During what stage does the G1, S and G2 A. synaptic
phases happen?
B. paracrine
A. Interphase
C. juxtacrine
B. M phase
D. endocrine
C. Mitosis
104. Which of these is NOT a response by the
D. Cytokinesis
body to the release of epinephrine?
99. The three stages of the cell cycle are , A. faster heart rate
mitosis, andcytokinesis.
B. tightening of lung muscles
A. interphase
C. release of sweat
B. anaphase
D. hair on arms stands up
C. metaphase
D. prophase 105. What two components make an active
MPF
100. If a cell has 8 chromosomes at metaphase A. a growth factor and a mitotic factor
of mitosis, how many chromosomes will it
have during anaphase? B. ATP synthetase and a protease
A. 1 C. cyclin and tubulin
B. 2 D. cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase
C. 4 106. is when cells secrete growth factors
D. 16 that stimulate cells nearby to grow and di-
vide.
101. How bacteria communicated to all
A. Endocrine signaling
“glow” simultaneously the fluores-
cent gene expression was regulated by B. Paracrine signaling
population density. C. Synaptic signaling
A. quorum quotient D. Hormonal signaling
B. quorum sensing
107. Which of the following is a correct asso-
C. quorum glowing ciation?
D. quorum majority A. kinase activity and the addition of a ty-
102. Gymnema tea binds to taste receptors rosine
and blocks sugars from binding to recep- B. GTPase activity and hydrolysis of GTP
tors. The tea could be known as a(n) to GDP

C. adenylyl cyclase activity and the con- 113. Proteins produced by B cells and designed
version of cAMP to AMP to mark antigens to be destroyed, specific
to the antigen.

D. none of above
A. Antigens
108. The “fuzz” on your teeth in the morning
B. Active Immunity
is an example of what?
C. Antibodies
A. biofilm
D. Antibiotics
B. saliva
C. dry toothpaste residue 114. A series of chemical reactions that relay
chemical message inside the cell; may am-
D. bacterial hormomes
plify the signal
109. Cardiac muscle cells are directly con- A. reception
nected to each other using protein-lined B. transduction
channels that enable the heart muscle cells
to contract in unison C. response
A. autocrine signalling D. activation
B. juxtacrine signalling 115. What role do protein kinases serve?

C. paracrine signalling A. remove phosphate groups to deacti-
D. endocrine signalling vate enzymes
B. inactivate cAMP to AMP
110. recognizes the shape of APC
C. add phosphate groups to activate en-
A. APC zyme’s
B. Helper T D. activate G proteins
C. B Cell
116. Neurons send signals with neurotrans-
D. none of above mitters through:
111. Which enzyme produces cAMP? A. direct contact through gap junctions
A. G protease B. long distance signaling in the blood-

stream
B. adenylyl cyclase
C. local signaling across the synaptic
C. phosphatase cleft
D. protein kinase D. none of above
112. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that 117. A signal molecule that binds to a plasma-
helps regulate membrane protein is a
A. Learning and memory A. ligand
B. Pain and pleasure B. second messenger
C. Muscle movements C. protein kinase
D. Mood, sleep, and emotions D. receptor protein

118. Measurements of the amount of DNA 123. What is the point of a feedback loop?
per nucleus were taken on a large num- A. To provide the body with more energy
ber of cells from a growing fungus. The
measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to B. To provide the body with more food
6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage C. To make sure the conditions in the
of the cell cycle was the nucleus with 6 body are always changing
picograms of DNA? D. To make sure the conditions in the
A. G0 body remain stable
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. G1 124. The final activated molecule in a signaling
C. S pathway may function as a what?
D. G2 A. transcription factor
119. If a cell has 20 chromosomes and under B. second messenger

goes mitosis twelve times how many chro- C. kinase
mosomes will the daughter cell have?I D. phosphatase
A. 20
125. What is the role of the spindle during mi-
B. 40 tosis?
C. 240 A. It divides the cell in half.
D. 10 B. It duplicates the DNA.
120. When you start with 1 cell, at the end of C. It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
mitosis, how many identical cells will you
have? D. It helps separate the chromosomes.
A. 1
126. Put the following stages of mitosis in or-
B. 2 der:anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and
C. 3 telophase.
D. 4 A. prophase, metaphase, telophase,
anaphase
121. What does NOT happen during inter-
phase? B. prophase, anaphase, metaphase,
telophase
A. growth
B. DNA replication telophase
C. obtaining nutrients D. prophase, telophase, metaphase,
D. cell divison anaphase
122. The mitotic spindle (microtubules) plays a 127. A cell is found to have 10 units of DNA
role in which process? after mitosis, how many units would be
A. cytokinesis found at the end of G1?
B. condensation of chromatin into chro- A. 0
mosomes B. 5
C. dissolving the nuclear membrane C. 10
D. separation of sister chromatids D. 20

128. Identify the correct sequence of cell sig- C. Endocrine

naling. D. exocrine

A. Activation, Reception, Transduction
134. The uncontrolled division of cells that re-
B. Transduction, Reception, Activation sults in malignant growth
C. Reception, Transduction, Activation A. tissues
D. Reception, Activation, Transduction B. cancer
129. direct signaling across gap junctions C. mitosis
A. paracrine D. anaphase
B. autocrine 135. Programmed cell death is called
C. juxtacrine A. apoptosis
D. endocrine B. cytokinesis
130. Where does the ligand bind to initiate sig- C. interphase
nal transduction? D. cancer
A. glycolipids
136. If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at
B. nucleus anaphase, how many chromosomes are
C. phosphorylation cascade there in each daughter cell following cy-
tokinesis?
D. receptor
A. 10
131. In cell signaling, the small molecule that B. 20
specifically binds to a larger on during sig-
nal reception is called a C. 30
A. polymer D. 40
B. transducer 137. An ordered sequence of events in eukary-

otes that involves cell growth and nuclear
C. ligand
division; consists of the stages G1, S, G2,
D. terminator and M.
132. Cancerous tumor cells release self- A. cell cycle
sustaining growth signals to themselves, B. binary fission
leading to uncontrolled cell division
C. cytokinesis
A. autocrine signalling
D. cancer
B. juxtacrine signalling
138. What is the name of the signaling
C. paracrine signalling
molecule that triggers a transduction path-
D. endocrine signalling way?
133. Which of these means “signaling by A. ligand
touching another cell?” B. GTP
A. Juxtacrine C. kinase
B. paracrine D. phosphatase

139. Consider this pathway:epinephrine → re- 144. Diffusion allows cells to take in small par-
ceptor → cAMP → protein kinase → tran- ticles that can pass through the cell mem-
scription factors. Identify the secondary brane. How are large particles taken in?
messenger. A. Endocytosis
A. epinephrine B. Exocytosis
B. G protein-coupled receptor C. Mitosis
C. adenylyl cyclase D. Photosynthesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. cAMP 145. Chromosomes and genes are replicated
during
140. Which of the following is an APC (antigen
A. prophase
presenting cell)?
B. telophase
A. regulator T cell
C. metaphase
B. macrophage
D. interphase
C. helper T cell
146. To respond to a signal, a cell must have
D. cytotoxin T cell a(n) molecule that can detect the sig-
nal.
141. How many chromosomes do human so-
matic cells (body cells) have? A. paracrine
B. receptor
A. 23
C. autocrine
B. 48
D. responder
C. 46
147. What enzyme activates proteins by
D. 92
adding a phosphate to them?
142. Which of the following is a protein that A. kinase
can hold several other relay proteins as B. phosphatase
it binds to an activated membrane recep-
C. phosphorylase
tor?
D. ATPase
A. transcription factor
148. The hormone that lowers blood sugar is:
B. kinase
A. Insulin
C. phosphatase
B. Glucagon
D. scaffold
C. Cortisol
143. These cells produce antibodies that bind D. GnRH
to antigens so they can be identified and
149. How many stages are there to cell con-
destroyed by macrophages.
versation?
A. Macraphage A. 4
B. T Cells B. 6
C. B Cells C. 3
D. none of above D. 87

150. Site where sister chromatids of a chromo- C. paracrine signalling

some are held together. D. endocrine signalling

A. centromere
156. If there are 20 chromatids in a cell at
B. centriole metaphase, how many chromosomes are
C. cell plate there in each daughter cell following cy-
tokinesis?
D. spindle
A. 10
151. Cancerous cells may have B. 20
A. lots of cytoplasm C. 30
B. large or multiple nuclei D. 40
C. normal shape
157. Specifically, what does a signaling
D. normal functions molecule bind to in order to start trans-
duction?
152. These biomolecules are the main building
blocks of you. They are large and complex A. A transducer protein
and special ones do jobs all over your body B. A relay protein
as catalysts. C. A receptor protein
A. Proteins D. A signaling protein
B. Carbohydrates
158. Which of the following molecules can
C. Lipids pass through the plasma membrane un-
D. Nucleic Acids aided?
A. epinephrine
153. Apoptosis is
B. insulin
A. random cell death
C. acetylcholine
B. the biological term for cancer
D. estrogen
C. programmed cell death
159. What is the amplification of a series of
D. prevention of cell death
kinases called?
154. The cleavage furrow in cytokinesis is me- A. phosphorylation cascade
diated by
B. kinase cascade
A. microtubules C. phosphatase cascade
B. microfilaments D. ATPase cascade
C. intermediate filaments
160. Membrane receptors that attach phos-
D. All of thiese phates to specific animo acids in proteins
are
155. Parathormone is released from the
parathyroid glands and attaches to recep- A. not found in humans.
tors one bone and kidney cells, causing the B. called receptor tyrosine-kinases.
release of Ca2+ into the blood C. a class of GTP G-protein signal recep-
A. autocrine signalling tors.
B. juxtacrine signalling D. none of above

161. In which stage of the cell cycle does the 166. The point of contact between a neuron
DNA replicate? and a target cell is called a:
A. G1 A. Hormone Hangout
B. S B. Synapse
C. G2 C. Relapse
D. Mitosis D. Transduction Junction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
162. Insufficient production during childhood 167. An example of LOCAL cell communication
results in dwarfism, while overproduction is:
results in gigantism. A. White blood cells bumping into each
A. Insulin other sharing antigen info
B. Follicle stimulating hormone B. Neurons communicating across a

synapse
C. Oxytocin
C. Hormones traveling through the blood
D. Human growth hormone stream to target tissues
163. Which of these means “signaling from D. none of above

close distances?”
168. Many cancer cells signal themselves to
A. Paracrine grow and divide. This is an example of
B. Endocrine signaling.
C. Exocrine A. long distance
D. Juxtacrine B. autocrine
C. paracrine
164. the phase of mitosis in which the sister
D. hormone
chromatids separate (pull apart) from each
other 169. Which organisms will display a cleavage
A. prophase furrow?
B. metaphase A. Prokaryotes
C. anaphase B. Eukaryotic animal cells
D. telophase C. Eukaryotic plant cells
D. none of above
165. Cancer cells make and respond to their
own growth signals, which leads to uncon- 170. Programmed cell death; involves a cas-
trolled continuation of the cell cycle. This cade of specific cellular events leading to
is an example of death and destruction of the cell.
A. endocrine signaling. A. apoptosis
B. paracrine signaling. B. cancer
C. autocrine signaling. C. cell cycle
D. juxtacrine signaling. D. G0

171. What are the two main phases in the cell C. decreases blood vessel diameter
cycle? D. decreases blood glucose levels

A. Prophase and Metaphase
177. What is located in the plasma membrane
B. G1 and S and catalyzes ATP to cAMP?
C. Interphase and Mitotic Phase A. G protein
D. Mitosis and Cytokinesis B. protein kinase
172. If a parent cell has 23 chromosomes, how C. adenylyl cyclase
many chromosomes will each new daugh- D. protein phosphatases
ter cell have after it divides?
178. Which best describes the role of p53 pro-
A. 46 chromosomes tein in the cell cycle
B. 26 chromosomes A. it makes sure organelles are properly
C. 43 chromosomes replicated
D. 23 chromosomes B. it makes sure that the cytoplasm is
equally divided
173. Hormone regulation operates under C. it make sure DNA is free of errors
which type of feedback mechanism?
D. It makes sure the DNA is copied
A. positive feedback
179. A cell’s DNA has become damaged be-
B. negative feedback
yond repair, the cell undergoes which of
C. zero feedback the following processes?
D. Hormones are not regulated A. cytokinesis
174. What hormone is responsible for the B. signal transduction pathways
“fight or flight” response? C. exocytosis
A. Testosterone D. apoptosis
B. Cortisol 180. What is a function of the second messen-
C. Epinephrine ger IP3?
D. Parathyroid Hormone A. bind to and activate protein kinase A
B. activate transcription factors
175. Where do the mitotic spindles originate?
C. convert ATP to cAMP
A. at the centromeres
D. bind to and open ligand-gated chan-
B. at the centrosomes nels
C. at the cell membrane
181. The binding of a ligand to a receptor is
D. at the nuclear envelope involved in what stage of cell communica-
tion?
176. What is one effect epinephrine has on
liver cells? A. response
A. uptake glucose to store as glycogen B. transduction
B. break glycogen down to release glu- C. inhibition
cose D. reception

182. How many stages are there in cell signal- C. glucose

ing? D. AMP
A. One
188. Which of the following describes cell ac-
B. Two tivity during the G1 phase of the cell cy-
C. Three cle?
D. Four A. the cell undergoes mitosis
B. the cell increases in size and produces
NARAYAN CHANGDER
new organelles
long-distance cell signaling?
C. DNA is replicated
A. Cell-cell recognition in animal cells
D. the cell is in a resting place
B. Synaptic signaling in the nervous sys-
tem 189. The first stage of the cell cycle during
C. Hormonal signaling in humans which the cell matures and prepares to di-
vide and copies its DNA; The stage the cell
D. Plasmodesmata in plant cells
stays in the most
184. When a cell releases a signal molecule A. interphase
into the environment and a number of
B. prophase
cells in the immediate vicinity respond, this
type of signaling is C. metaphase
A. autocrine signaling. D. anaphase
B. paracrine signaling. 190. What part of the neuron contains the neu-
C. endocrine signaling rotransmitter?
D. synaptic signaling. A. axon

B. axon terminal
185. When a signaling cell secretes a ligand to
a cell that it is physically connected to: C. dendrite
A. direct contact D. synapse
B. local signaling 191. One cellular response to a signal is apop-

tosis, otherwise known as programmed
C. long distance signaling
cell
D. none of above
A. division
186. Which of the major receptors reacts by B. death
forming dimers?
C. growth
A. G protein coupled receptors
D. reproduction
B. ligand-gated ion channels
192. Among the following, the term that in-
C. steroid receptors
cludes the others is
D. receptor tyrosine kinase A. interphase
187. What molecule is cAMP made out of? B. nuclear division
A. ATP C. mitosis
B. GTP D. cell cycle

193. Which of the following is a short distance C. Theyno longer carry receptors for sig-
short-term instantaneous form of cell-to- nal molecules
cell communication:

D. Theyno longer produce cyclins
A. Circulating hormones
199. Stage of interphase in which chromo-
B. Local hormones
somes are replicated.
C. Gap junctions
A. S
D. Apoptosis
B. G1
194. Why do cells go through cell division C. G2
A. Growth D. G0
B. Reproduction
200. Which of the following is a long distance
C. Repair long-term form of cell-to-cell communica-
D. All of the above tion?
195. What is it called when two RTKs receive A. Circulating hormones
signals and come together? B. Local hormones
A. dimer C. Gap junctions
B. doubler D. Apoptosis
C. relay
201. What class of macromolecules are tran-
D. receptor scription factors?
196. We will cover three main types of mem- A. carbohydrates
brane receptors. Which is NOT one of B. nucleic acids
them?
C. proteins
A. G-protein receptors
D. lipids
B. Receptor Tyrosine Kinases
C. Ligand-gated ion channels 202. Which of the following converts cAMP to
AMP?
D. Plasmodesmata-regulated receptors
A. phosphodiesterase
197. Molecules that bind to membrane recep-
tors and can lead to a cell response are B. protein phosphatase
called what? C. GTPase
A. signalers D. adenylyl cyclase
B. ligands
203. Small molecule or ion that is released in
C. glycoproteins the cell in response to an extracellular sig-
D. second messengers nal and leads to a cellular response
A. Second Messenger
198. Why do neurons and some other special-
ized cells divide infrequently? B. Ligand
A. Theyno longer have active nuclei C. Receptor
B. Theyhave been shunted into G0 D. Kinase

204. A copy a chromosome made during cell di- 209. The binding of a ligand to a ligand-gated
vision are called: ion channel can cause the channel to
A. daughter chromatids A. open
B. sister chromatids B. close
C. cell chromatids C. both answers can be correct
D. sister chromosome D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
205. Local signaling in animals is called what?
210. In response to foreign antigens, T-cells in
A. paracrine the immune system release a growth fac-
B. endocrine tor which stimulates cell division of these
same T-cells.
C. hormone
D. gap junctions
206. During labor, oxytocin is released by the
posterior pituitary gland, binding to re- C. paracrine signalling
ceptors in uterine muscle cells, resulting D. endocrine signalling
in uterine muscle contraction during child
birth 211. An example of endocrine cell communica-
tion is:
A. White blood cells bumping into each
other sharing antigen info
B. Neurons communicating across a
D. endocrine signalling synapse
207. What is a benefit of signal transduction C. Hormones traveling through the blood
pathways? stream to target tissues
A. they prevent cells from communicating D. none of above
with each other
B. they help cells to perform hydrolysis 212. Plant cells have for cell to cell commu-
nication.
C. they lower activation energy required
for metabolic reactions A. gap junctions
D. they enable cells to amplify a message B. plasmodesmata

from a signal molecule C. desmosomes
208. Transmembrane protein that extends D. tight junctions
from the outside to the inside of a plasma
membrane. The outside face provides a 213. What type of receptor does insulin bind
binding site for specific signal molecules. to?
A. Endocrine signaling A. G protein linked
B. Membrane receptors B. protein kinase
C. Paracrine signaling C. ion channel
D. Neurotransmitters D. intracellular

214. Allows for communication between plant 219. Which is NOT considered FIRST line of de-
cells fense?

A. Desmosomes A. White Blood Cells
B. Tight Junction B. Skin
C. Gap Junction C. Hair

D. Mucous Membranes
D. plasmodesmata
220. Nerve and muscle cells are in this phase:
215. What could be the cause for a cell to un-
dergo apoptosis? A. G0
B. G1
A. DNA Damage
C. S
B. Nutrient deficiency
D. G2
C. Radiation
221. What is Apoptosis?
D. All of the above
A. Cell programmed Death
216. For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful B. Inflammation of cell
for treating cancer cells, which is the most
C. Phagocytosis
desirable?
D. Plasmolysis
A. limit all apoptosis
B. does not alter metabolically active 222. Paracrine signaling
cells A. involves secreting cells acting on
nearby target cells by discharging a local
C. interferes with cells entering G0
regulator into the extracellular fluid.
D. interferes with rapidly diving cells
B. requires nerve cells to release a neu-
rotransmitter into the synapse.
217. G proteins are regulated by which
molecule? C. occurs only in paracrine yeast cells.
A. GTP D. none of above
B. ATP 223. The 3 steps of signal transduction in or-

der are
C. inorganic phosphate
A. reception, transduction, response
D. Glucose
B. response, transduction, reception
218. A series of enzymatic reaction with the C. reception, response, transduction
enzymes being used repeatedly and the
D. transduction, reception, response
products magnifying each reaction as the
sequence progresses. 224. Which molecule acts as a second messen-
A. Signal transduction pathway ger in the cascade by which epinephrine
stimulates the activation of the enzyme
B. Signaling Cascade glycogen phosphorylase?
C. Ligands A. Adenosine
D. Endocrine Signaling B. Cyclic AMP

C. Adenylyl cyclase 230. Why are steroid hormones able to pass

D. none of above through the cell membrane?
A. Steroid hormones diffuse through ion
225. Which description results in inhibition of channels
signal transduction?
B. steroid hormones are hydrophobic
A. An inactive molecule that blocks the ac-
tive site of the receptor C. steroid hormones are hydrophilic
B. Binding of a ligand to a receptor D. steroid hormones bind to G protein
NARAYAN CHANGDER
coupled receptors
C. Amplification of the signal
D. Second messengers 231. Which of the following is NOT a type of
asexual reproduction?
226. Which type of chemical signaling occurs
A. fusion
when a hormone travels through the blood-
stream to target cells? B. binary fission
A. endocrine signaling C. budding
B. paracrine signaling D. regeneration
C. juxtacrine signaling
232. An example of a positive feedback loop
D. autocrine signaling is
227. Structure across a dividing plant cell that A. Childbirth
signals the location of new plasma mem- B. Blood Pressure regulation
branes and cell walls.
C. Body Temperature regulation
A. cell plate
D. All of the above
B. cleavage furrow
C. centriole 233. Why must the nuclear envelope disap-
pear in prophase?
D. centromere
A. so that the spindle fibers can be syn-
228. Enzymes that can rapidly remove phos- thesized
phate groups from proteins are called B. so that the microtubules can attach to
A. protein kinases centromeres
B. protein phosphatases C. so that the cytoplasm can divide
C. phosphorylation cascade D. so that the chromosomes can con-
D. second messengers dense
229. Which type of cell junction allows chemi- 234. type of cell signalling where the ligand
cal messages to travel quickly from cell to is produced at a location distant from its
cell? target cell(s)
A. Tight junctions A. autocrine signalling
B. Gap junctions B. juxtacrine signalling
C. Desmosomes C. paracrine signalling
D. none of above D. endocrine signalling

235. In order for an individual to have normal 240. Animal cells can communicate with adja-
vision, then they must have which two recent cells through
ceptors in their eyes? A. plasmodesmata

A. Rods and cones B. gap junctions
B. RGCs and bipolar cells C. hormones
C. Axons and rods D. synaptic signals
D. Fovea and cones 241. During which stage of the cell cycle does
mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
236. During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA A. Interphase
replicated?
B. S phase
A. G1 phase C. M phase
B. S phase D. G1 phase
C. G2 phase 242. Indentation in the plasma membrane of
D. M phase animal cells during cell division
A. cleavage furrow
237. Which of the following is characterized
B. cell plate
by a cell releasing a signal molecule into
the environment, followed by a number C. centriole
of cells in the immediate vicinity respond- D. centromere
ing?
243. Negative Feedback Loops:
A. paracrine signaling
A. amplify processes
B. endocrine signaling B. prevent small changes from getting
C. long distance signaling larger
D. hormonal signaling C. are initiated during childbirth
D. are found only in plants
238. An action by the target cell, often turning
genes on and off: 244. Which of the following are part of the
stages of cell signaling?
A. reception
A. Reception
B. transduction B. Transduction
C. response C. Response
D. none of above D. All of the above
239. Cells can communicate with one another 245. Where do the microtubules of the spindle
via: originate during mitosis in both plant and
animal cells?
A. chemical messengers
A. centromere
B. hormones B. centrosome
C. gap junctions C. centriole
D. all of these D. chromatid

246. The chromosomes that pair up at the be- 251. paracrine signals affect
ginning of meiosis, are called A. the cell that sent the signal
A. sister chromatids B. the cell that sent the signal and the sur-
B. diploid pairs rounding cells
C. homologous chromosomes C. only the surrounding cells but not itself
D. none of above
D. no cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
247. Means:“programmed cell death”
252. In which phase of mitosis do the sister
A. Natural Killer Cell chromatids line up on the equator of the
B. Mitosis cell?
A. Prophase
C. Apoptosis
B. Metaphase
D. CD4 and CD8
C. Anaphase
248. Which of the substances below is a pro- D. Telophase
tein that can hold several other relay pro-
teins as it binds to an activated membrane 253. Which term describes centrioles begin-
receptor? ning to move apart in animal cells?
A. Third messenger A. telophase
B. Scaffolding protein B. anaphase
C. Ligan C. metaphase
D. Active transcription factor D. prophase
249. Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a 254. Which of the following can activate a pro-
series of five cell divisions would produce tein by transferring a phosphate group to
an early embryo with how many cells? it?
A. cAMP
A. 4
B. G Protein
B. 8
C. protein kinase
C. 16
D. protein phosphatase
D. 32
255. Insulin is secreted by:
250. Morphine and other opiates cause a state
A. α -cells in the pancreas
of euphoria. This “happy” feeling is due to
the increased release of what neurotrans- B. β -cells in the pancreas
mitter? C. β -cells in the liver
A. Dopamine D. α -cells in the liver
B. Heroin
256. How are ligands cell-specific?
C. Serotonin
A. Each cell has a different response to
D. Cannabinoid the ligand.

B. Each cell has different receptors to B. antigen

bind to the ligand C. antibody

C. Each cell has different relay molecules D. neutrop
based on the ligand.
D. Each cell has different processes for 262. Phase of mitosis during which chromo-
endocytosis. somes are aligned at the equator of the
cell.
257. If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how A. metaphase
many centromeres are there?
B. anaphase
A. 10
C. prophase
B. 20
D. telophase
C. 30
D. 40 263. What do secondary messengers do?
A. transport a signal through the lipid bi-
258. Which of the following is a protein main- layer
tained at constant levels throughout the
cell cycle that requires cyclin to become cat- B. relay a signal from the outside to the
alytically active? inside of the cell
A. MPF C. relay message from the inside of the

membrane throughout the cytoplasm
B. protein kinase
D. dampen the message
C. cyclin
D. cdk 264. diabetes is a disease that affects your
body’s ability to produce or use
259. What is the name of the signaling A. energy
molecule in cell communication?
B. insulin
A. ligand
C. oil
B. receptor
D. none of above
C. operon
D. inhibitor 265. How do bacteria sense local population
density?
260. Us to 60% of all medicines used today A. quorum sensing
exert their effects by influencing what
structure in the cell membrane? B. bacteria sensing
A. tyrosine-kinase receptors C. signal sensing
B. growth factors D. population sensing
C. gated-ion channel receptors 266. Which of these cells never divides?

D. G proteins A. Skin cell
261. Anything that triggers an immune re- B. Liver cell

sponse is a/n C. Nerve cell
A. lymph cell D. Blood cell

267. These biomolecules are fats, oils, waxes B. M

and steroids. They are also a result if we C. G1
eat too many carbohydrates and why we
don’t melt in water. D. S
A. Carbohydrates 273. Which is not a membrane receptor?

B. Lipids A. G protein-coupled receptor
C. Nucleic Acids B. Receptor tyrosine kinase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Enzymes C. Ligand-gated ion channel
268. One very common receptor protein in eu- D. Intracellular receptor

karyotes is the 274. Which of the following would be an ex-
A. G protein-coupled receptor ample of paracrine signaling in animals?
B. cAMP receptor A. neurotransmitter acetylcholine
C. phosphorylation receptor B. hormone epinephrine
D. ATP receptor C. neurotransmitter norepinephrine
D. growth factor
269. One difference between cytokinesis in
plant and animal cells is that 275. An example of LONG-DISTANCE cell com-
A. animal cells form a cell plate; plant munication is:
cells do not A. White blood cells bumping into each
B. plant cells do not through cytokinesis other sharing antigen info
C. plant cells form a cell plate B. Neurons communicating across a
synapse
D. plant cells form a cleavage furrow
C. Hormones traveling through the blood-
270. Which is NOT a part of a signal transduc- stream to target tissues
tion pathway?
D. none of above
A. response
276. A molecule that binds to the particu-
B. transcription
lar three-dimensional structure of another
C. transduction molecule’s receptor site is known as a(n)
D. reception A. responder.
271. Which of the following statements is true B. receptor.
of cytokinesis C. ligand
A. takes place in plant cells only D. none of above
B. completes the cell cycle 277. Which of the below is not a step in signal
C. organizes DNA transduction pathway
D. occurs in prophase A. Activation
272. Which of the following is not a part of B. Reception

interphase? C. Response
A. G2 D. Transduction

278. The first phase of mitosis is called . C. ATP phosphatase

A. telophase D. cAMP kinase

B. metaphase
284. When does DNA replication occur?
C. anaphase
A. S phase of the cell cycle
D. prophase
B. during mitosis but not meiosis
279. How bacteria communicated to all “re- C. in animal cells but not plant cells
lease toxins” simultaneously was reg-
ulated by population density. D. as the nuclear envelope breaks down
early in mitosis
A. quorum quotient
B. quorum sensing 285. ATP each lose TWO phosphates to adeny-
lyl cyclase. After losing two phosphate
C. quorum glowing ATP becomes
D. quorum majority
A. ADP
280. Which of the following can activate a pro- B. Adenylyl phosphate
tein by transferring a phosphate group to
C. Protein kinase
it causing a phosphorylation cascade?
D. cyclic AMP (cAMP)
A. cAMP
B. G Protein 286. The inflammation response is triggered
C. protein kinase by
D. protein phosphatase A. Histamines

B. Anti-histamines
281. The phase of mitosis where the nuclear
membrane formsis called . C. Cytokines
A. anaphase D. Interferon
B. prophase 287. This is the cell cycle checkpoint that
C. metaphase makes sure the correct number of chromo-
somes are present and attached to micro-
D. telophase
tubules.
282. the change in cell activity that results A. G1 Checkpoint
from the binding of the ligand to the re-
ceptor B. G2 Checkpoint
A. reception C. M Checkpoint
B. transduction D. G0 Checkpoint
C. integration 288. What does a cell require to respond to a
D. response certain signal molecule?
A. receptor for the signal
283. What creates cAMP by converting ATP to
cAMP? B. scaffold protein
A. adenylyl cyclase C. inactive enzyme
B. cAMP synthase D. phosphorylation cascaed

289. The cell carries out normal functions dur- 294. What is the name of the pathway that
ing.. occurs when a signal is received and then
converted into a cellular response?
A. interphase
A. transduction
B. cytokinesis
B. reception
C. mitosis
C. catabolic
D. none of above
D. anabolic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
290. What is the name of the molecule that 295. G1 is associated with what event?
is used in long distance signaling; travels
from one gland to another location to trig- A. normal growth and cell function
ger the signal? B. DNA replication
A. hormone C. The beginning of mitosis
B. neurotransmitter D. breakdown of the nuclear membrane
C. ion 296. Any signal molecule that binds to a recep-

tor is called a
D. none of above
A. Neurotransmitter
291. After mitosis is complete, the new cells: B. Ligand
A. are all identical C. Receptor
B. are half identical and half different D. Acetylcholine
C. are all different 297. Long distance signaling in animals is
D. are all stretched out called what?
A. paracrine
292. Which of the following hormones helps to
B. endocrine
regulate sleep and circadian rhythms?
C. hormone
A. Serotonin
D. gap junctions
B. Melatonin
298. What form of communication is used to
C. Dopamine
communicate from one cell to multiple cells
D. Progesterone that might have a longer distance?
A. Antigen Presenting Cell
sis. The chromosomes line up along the B. Local Regulator
middle of the cell and the spindle fibers C. Hormone
attach to each chromosome at the cen-
D. Metabolic Pathways
tromere.
A. prophase 299. What is the most likely fate of animal
cells that lack receptors for lacal paracrine
B. metaphase signal molecules?
C. anaphase A. unable to grow and divide
D. telophase B. unable to respond to hormone signals

C. intracellular signal pathways would be 305. DNA is replicated at this time of the cell
blocked cycle

D. would grow and divide normally A. G0
300. Which of the following is a short distance B. G1

short-term form of cell-to-cell communica- C. S
tion that can occur within the same cell or D. G2
nearby cells?
A. Circulating hormones 306. Where would you find a receptor for a
steroid hormone?
B. Local hormones
A. in the cytoplasm because steroids are
C. Gap junctions polar
D. Apoptosis
B. in the cytoplasm because steroid are
301. type of cell signalling where the ligand is nonpolar
produced by the cell and binds to receptors C. on the membrane because steroids
on the same cell are polar
A. autocrine signalling D. on the membrane because steroids
B. juxtacrine signalling are nonpolar
C. paracrine signalling 307. Chromosomes are made up of two identi-

D. endocrine signalling cal sister
A. chloroplasts
302. The point on the chromosome where the
two chromatids are held together is the B. nuclei
A. centromere C. chromatids
B. centriole D. gens
C. chromosome 308. To respond to a signal, a cell must have

D. chromatid a(n) molecule that can detect t he signal.
A. receptor
303. What is the result of mitosis?
B. ligand
A. 1 cell
C. responder
B. 2 genetically identical cells
D. none of above
C. 2 genetically different cells
D. 4 genetically identical cells 309. The secretion of a signal molecule by a
cell into the local environment, followed by
304. The “cause” for something to happen is a response by cells in the immediate vicin-
the ity is an example of
A. response A. hormonal signaling
B. effect B. synaptic signaling
C. stimulus C. endocrine signaling
D. homeostasis D. paracrine signaling

310. Molecules that provide binding sites for C. Cytokinesis

signaling molecules and when activated ini-
D. Apoptosis
tiate a series of reactions that activates a
cellular response.
316. What do second messengers do? (We
A. Signal Cascade will learn this today.)
B. Apoptosis A. transport a signal through the lipid bi-
C. Neurotransmitters layer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Membrane receptors B. relay a signal from the outside to the
inside of the cell
311. What word means “to make more of”
when talking about signal molecules? C. relay message from the inside of the
A. amplify mebrane throughout the cytoplasm
B. spotify D. dampen the message
C. phosphorylate
317. There are three stages in cell signaling.
D. augment Which is NOT one of them?
312. Which two ions are involved in the con- A. Response
duction of nerve impulses?
B. Reception
A. calcium and potassium
C. Translocation
B. sodium and potassium
C. calcium and phosphate D. Transduction
D. magnesium and sulfate 318. Proteins that are found in the cytoplasm
313. Hydrophilic means or nucleus of a cell that provide binding
sites for specific signal molecules.
A. water-loving
A. Membrane receptors
B. water-fearing
C. nonpolar B. Signal Cascade
D. lipid soluble C. Hydrophilic Ligands
314. Which of these phases does not have a D. Intracellular receptors

checkpoint?
319. The stage of cellular reproduction in
A. G1/S which nuclear division occurs; process
B. S/G2 in which a parent nucleus produces two
C. G2/M daughter nuclei, each having the same
number and kinds of chromosomes as the
D. Mitosis right before sister chromatids parent nucleus.
separate
A. mitosis
315. Which of the following is NOT a stage of
the cell cycle? B. S phase
A. Interphase C. cytokinesis
B. Mitosis D. binary fission

320. When a cell is in late anaphase of mitosis, D. from G2 of interphase through

which of the following will we see? metaphase

A. chromosomes clustered tightly at the 326. What is the name of the stretch of DNA
center where RNA polymerase binds?
B. breaking down of the nuclear envelope A. operator
B. promoter
C. a clear area in the center of the cell
C. enhancer
D. formation of two daughter nuclei
D. origin
321. Bacteria (prokaryotes) reproduce using
327. Programmed cell death
A. budding
A. Apoptosis
B. binary fission
B. Hydrophobic ligand
C. spores
C. Conclusion
D. seeds & pollen
D. Catalase
322. The longest phase of the cell cycle
328. What happens during anaphase of mito-
A. prophase sis?
B. interphase A. sister chromatids separate
C. metaphase B. nuclear envelope breaks down
D. mitosis C. the spindle forms
323. First recognizes foreign body and eats it D. matching chromosomes separate
and displays it to the other cells
329. Which of the following is NOT a reason
A. Macraphage we need mitosis.
B. T Cells A. Growth
C. B Cells B. Recovering from injuries
D. none of above C. Replacement of dead cells
324. Glucagon is secreted by: D. Sexual reproduction
A. α -cells in the pancreas 330. Measurements of the amount of DNA
B. β -cells in the pancreas per nucleus were taken on a large num-
C. β -cells in the liver ber of cells from a growing fungus. The
measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6
D. α -cells in the liver picograms per nucleus. In which stage of
325. During which phases of mitosis are chro- the cell cycle would the nucleus contain 6
mosomes composed of two chromatids? picograms of DNA?
A. from interphase through anaphase A. Go
B. from G1 of interphase through B. G1

metaphase C. S
C. from anaphase through telophase D. G2

331. Progesterone uses which of the following 336. Chromosomes first become visible during
signal pathways? which phase of mitosis?
A. Endocrine A. telophase
B. Paracrine B. prophase
C. Autocrine C. metaphase
D. Direct D. anaphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
332. Paracrine signaling is involved in which 337. When a ligand binds to the target cell it
of the following? is called:
A. Hormonal communication A. reception
B. Chemical signals that can only travel B. transduction
limited distances between cells
C. response
C. Autostimulation of a cell
D. none of above
D. Signaling that must travel through the
bloodstream 338. The activation of receptor tyrosine kinase
is characterized by
333. Which of the following signal molecules
A. dimerization and phosphorylation
does not interact with cell surface recep-
tors? B. Ip3 binding
A. Insulin C. a phosphorylation cascade
B. Glucagon D. GTP Hydrolysis
C. Testosterone 339. The process of transduction usually be-
D. Gastrin gins
A. when the chemical signal is released
334. A cell converting a chemical signal into a
from the alpha cell
cellular response is known as
B. when the signal molecule changes the
A. energetics
receptor protein in some way
B. transduction
C. after the target cell divides
C. ligand response
D. when the hormone is releaed from the
D. transformation gland into the blood
335. A cell in the nervous system must com- 340. Which of the following occurs in both mi-
municate to cells that are very close by, tosis and meiosis?
but they are not actually in contact. What
A. Crossing over between homologous
type of signaling does this exemplify?
chromosomes
A. autocrine signaling
B. Separation of sister chromatids
B. endocrine signaling
C. Separation of homologous chromo-
C. saccharine signaling somes
D. paracrine signaling D. Reduction of chromosome number

341. What turns off proteins by removing a C. signal receptors

phosphate? D. phosphatase

A. kinase
347. Proteins that are involved in the regula-
B. phosphatase tion of the cell cycle and that show varia-
C. phosphorylase tions in concentration during the cell cycle
D. ATPase are called:
A. ATPases
342. DNA is replicated during of the cell
cycle. B. Kinases
A. G1 C. Cyclins
B. S D. Kinetochores
C. G2 348. Process by which a signal on a cell’s sur-
D. G0 face is converted to a specific cellular re-
sponse is a series of steps.
343. Long term effects of cell signaling usually
A. Signal Transduction Pathway
affect which part of the cell?
B. Kinase Reaction
A. Cell membrane
C. Ligand Response Model
B. DNA
D. none of above
C. Ribosomes
D. None of the above 349. If both unicellular and multicellular or-
ganisms utilize similar cell communication
344. Proteins that are involved in the regula- methods, this suggests
tion of the cell cycle, and that show fluctu-
A. that they’re awesome
ations inconcentration during the cell cycle,
are called B. they’re un-related
A. kinetochores. C. they come from a common ancestor
B. cyclins. D. they do not share evolutionary history
C. centrioles. 350. Which is a common second messenger?
D. proton pumps. A. cAMP
345. What type of macromolecule are receptor B. Na+
molecules? C. K+
A. nucleic acid D. G Protein
B. protein
351. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme
C. carbohydrate involved in regulation of signal transduc-
D. lipid tion pathways?
346. What determines whether a cell is a tar- A. protein kinase

get cell for a particular signal molecule? B. lipase
A. phosphorylation cascade C. protein phosphatase
B. cAMP D. GTPase

352. What does DNA Replication mean? 358. What is the first step of apoptosis?
A. DNA is made. A. the organelles fragment
B. DNA makes new cells. B. the cell is engulfed by a scavenger
C. DNA copies itself. C. the DNA is destroyed
D. DNA starts the cell cycle. D. The cell blebs
353. A B cell that is actively making antibodies 359. An enzyme that phosphorylates other
NARAYAN CHANGDER
is called a(n) proteins, usually by transfering a phos-
A. memory B cell phate group from a molecule of ATP
B. plasma cell A. Protein Kinase
C. Helper T cell B. ATP Synthase
D. Naive B cell C. Adenyl Cyclase

D. Phosphatase
354. What type of transmembrane receptor
forms dimers? 360. Which of the following describes the or-
A. tyrosine kinase der of the steps in mitosis?
B. G-protein A. metaphase, telophase, anaphase,
prophase
C. gated ion channel
B. telophase, anaphase, metaphase,
D. none of above prophase
355. Regents Check C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
A. the appropriate antibodies telophase
B. ribosomes that produce adrenaline D. prophase, anaphase, metaphase,

telophase
C. appropriately shaped receptors
D. genes that break down adrenaline 361. Which of the following happens when a
cell divides?
356. Which of the following does not occur dur- A. Each daughter cell receives its own
ing mitosis? copy of the parent cell’s DNA.
A. replication of DNA B. The cell has DNA overload.
B. condensing of the chromosomes C. It becomes more difficult for the cell
C. spindle formation to get enough oxygen and nutrients.
D. disappearance of the nuclear envelope D. The cell’s volume increases.
357. The second messenger produced by the 362. After a cellular response, how is it termi-
action of many protein hormones is: nated?
A. cAMP A. separate the ligand and receptor
B. Adenylate Cyclase B. block the transduction pathway
C. G-Protein C. it will keep responding
D. Epinephrine D. send out a different signal

363. The two types of feedback systems that 368. During which checkpoint does the cell
help organisms maintain homeostasis are: check to make sure the chromosomes are
properly attached to the spindle fibers.

A. positive and negative
A. G2 Checkpoint
B. receptor and effector
B. G1 Checkpoint
C. static and dynamic
C. Metaphase Checkpoint
D. minor and major
D. Nucleus Checkpoint
364. A person who is having an anaphylactic
reaction is given an inject of epinephrine. 369. Marijuana causes an increased release of
The purpose of this is primarily to: dopamine due to the in marijuana mim-
icking the natural inhibitory neurotrans-
A. Dilate pupils mitter
B. Open air passage ways A. THC; Dopamine
C. Increase blood sugar B. THC; Anandamide
D. Dilate blood vessels in muscles C. Anandamide; THC
365. Movement of the chromosomes during D. GABA; Cannabinoid

anaphase would be most affected by a
370. Transduction step traditionally amplifies
drug that prevents
the signal, which of the following are NOT
A. nuclearenvelope breakdown involved with transduction?
B. elongationof microtubules A. secondary messengers
C. shortening of microtubules B. phosphorylation cascade
D. formationof a cleavage furrow C. protein modification
D. ligands
366. messengers, such as cyclic AMP
(cAMP) are molecules that relay and am- 371. Which of the following is the stage where
plify intracellular signals. the cell no longer divides?
A. Primary A. G0
B. Secondary B. G1
C. Tertiary C. S
D. Quaternary D. G2
367. Initial stage of interphase in which the 372. During what stage of the cell cycle would
cell grows and checks for readiness to di- you expect to see the least amount of cel-
vide. lular growth and synthesis taking place?
A. G1 A. S
B. G0 B. G1
C. G2 C. G2
D. S D. M

373. This is the cell cycle checkpoint that 378. Caffeine is an inhibitor of phosphodi-
makes sure DNA has been replicated cor- esterase. Therefore, the cells of a person
rectly during S phase. who has recently consumed coffee would
have increased levels of
A. G1 Checkpoint
B. G2 Checkpoint A. phosphorylated proteins
C. M Checkpoint B. GTP
D. G0 Checkpoint C. cAMP
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. adenylyl cyclase
374. Stage at which cells have temporarily or
permanently exited the cell cycle and are 379. Which of the following is a chemical mes-
non-dividing. sage that usually travels long distances
A. G0 through the bloodstream to target cells?
B. G1 A. hormone
C. G2 B. local regulator
D. S C. neurotransmitter
D. antigen
375. How do cells maintain their membrane
potential?
380. Kinases are de-activated when
A. By using sodium-potassium pumps to
A. phosphate is removed by a phos-
actively (with ATP) transport ions
phatase
B. By using sodium-potassium pumps to
B. GTP attaches to them
passively (without ATP) transport ions
C. ligand is released from the receptor
C. simple diffusion
D. apoptosis occurs
D. osmosis
376. Examples of these biomolecules are DNA 381. What do killer T-cells do?
and RNA A. Kill all of the helper T-cells.
A. Nucleic Acids B. Create antibodies to be produced into
B. Carbohydrates the blood stream.
C. Lipids C. Destroy cells that have been infected.
D. Proteins D. none of above
377. Which of the following describes the pur- 382. This junction allows communication be-
pose of the mitosis cell cycle? tween two animal cells with adjoining
plasma membrane channels.
A. To make more of the same cells.
A. Desmosomes
B. For growth and repair.
B. TIght Junctions
C. To prevent the cell from becoming too
large. C. Gap Junctions
D. All of the above. D. Plasmodesmata

383. An enzyme that converts ATP to cAMP in B. Synapse

response to a signal C. Cholesterol

A. Adenyl Cyclase D. Monty
B. ATP Synthase
389. A pathway that begins with a 1st mes-
C. Kinase senger then has 3 steps. 1. Reception, 2.
D. Phosphatase Transduction, 3. Response. This sequence
transforms a signal into a specific cell re-
384. The holds the replicated sister chro- sponse.
matids together.
A. Signaling Cascade
A. centriole B. Signal Transduction Pathway
B. chromosomes C. Synapse
C. centromere D. Ligands
D. cycles
390. A signaling molecule that binds to a larger
385. A cell containing 50 chromatids at molecule is called a
prophase of mitosis would, at its comple- A. ligand
tion, produce two nuclei containing how
B. G protein
many chromosomes?
C. transducer
A. 10
D. tyrosine kinase
B. 25
C. 50 391. What is the mechanism of protein ki-
nases?
D. 100
A. activate proteins by dephosphorylat-
386. Stages of the cell cycle (G1, S, G2) during them
ing which growth and DNA synthesis occur B. activate proteins with cAMP
when the nucleus is not actively dividing.
C. change membrane potential
A. interphase
D. activate proteins by phosphorylating
B. cytokinesis them
C. M phase
392. The stage of mitosis where the sister
D. G0 chromatids separate:
387. What turns on proteins by adding a phos- A. prophase
phate? B. anaphase
A. kinase C. telophase
B. phosphatase D. metaphase
C. phosphorylase 393. Matures in the thymus gland
D. ATPase A. Macraphage
388. What do you call it when two neurons B. T Cells
communicate through neurotransmitters? C. B Cells
A. Hormones D. none of above

394. If a red blood cell is put in a salt solution, 399. If cells in the process of dividing are sub-
what will happen to the cell? jected to colchicine, a drug that interferes
A. Shrink with the functioning of the spindle appa-
ratus, at which stage will mitosis be ar-
B. Swell rested?
C. Stay the same A. anaphase
D. Burst B. prophase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
395. Chemical that travels in the body and act C. telophase
on specific target cells in other parts of the
D. metaphase
body to change their functioning.
A. Hormones 400. Put the following in order:G2, G1, S, mi-
tosis, cytokinesis.
B. Steroid
A. G1, G2, S, Mitosis, cytokinesis
C. Receptor
D. Modulator B. G1, S, G2, Mitosis, cytokinesis
C. G1, G2, S, cytokinesis, mitosis
396. What does a protein kinase do?
D. G1, S, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis
A. removes phosphates
B. transfers phosphates from ATP to pro- 401. Tyrosine kinases are responsible for
teins transferring which molecule?
C. activates an enzyme A. phosphate
D. none of above B. oxygen
C. hydrogen
397. Binding of a signaling molecule to which
type of receptor leads directly to a change D. ADP
in the distribution of ions on opposite sides
of the membrane? 402. Endocrine signals are
A. phosphorylated tyrosine kinase dimer A. Short distance
B. ligand-gated ion channel B. Only used during stressful times

C. receptor tyrosine kinase C. Long distance
D. G protein-coupled receptor D. Part of the rebel alliance
398. Why are second messengers named as 403. Why did Sutherland’s epinephrine exper-
such? iment only work with intact liver cells?
A. They trigger a second cellular re- A. the intact cells contained a second
sponse messenger
B. They are the second molecule in a B. the intact cells contained more glyco-
phosphorylation cascade gen
C. Signaling molecules are considered C. the intact cells had fewer receptors for
the first messenger epinephrine
D. They are the second molecule that de- D. the intact cells contain more calcium
phosphorylates proteins ions

404. Which of the following is not a class of 409. The specific molecular control signal sub-
recepetor molecule? stances in the cytoplasm of cells are pro-
teins known as

A. G-protein
B. tyrosine kinases A. kinases & cyclins
C. ligand-gated ion channel B. enzymes & cytosines
D. cAMP C. helicases & ligases
405. Long distance signals involving hormones D. polymerases & primases
are signals.
A. paracrine 410. Chromosomes are used ONLY during cell
B. synaptic division because
C. endocrine A. it makes DNA easier to separate

D. none of above B. it makes DNA easier to read
406. Plant cell walls have gaps called plasmod- C. cells always use chromosomes
esmata that allow them to communicate di-
D. cells never use chromosomes
rectly with adjacent cells.
A. autocrine signalling 411. A series of steps inside the cell that
B. juxtacrine signalling passes along a message:
C. paracrine signalling A. reception
D. endocrine signalling B. transduction
407. A group of cells is assayed for DNA con- C. response
tent immediately following mitosis and is
found to have an average of 8 picograms D. none of above
of DNA per nucleus. Those cells would
have picograms at the end of the S phase 412. The primary purpose of vaccines is to
and picograms at the end of G 2.
A. induce inflammation
A. 8; 8
B. activate the immune system to pro-
B. 8;16 duce memory cells
C. 16;16
C. stimulate natural killer cells
D. none of above
D. initiate the innate immune response
408. Which of the following is a protein syn-
thesized at specific times during the cell 413. Which of the following is a potential re-
cycle that associates with a kinase to form sponse for the cell?
a catalytically active complex?
A. Conformational Change of Receptor
A. PDGF
B. Transcription Factor
B. MPF
C. protein kinase C. Phosphorylation Cascade
D. cyclin D. Release of Ca2+ from Smooth ER

414. Chemical signal pathways 419. Cell structure that organizes the mitotic
spindle for chromosome movement during
A. operate in animals, but not in plants.
animal cell division.
B. are absent in bacteria, but are plenti-
A. centriole
ful in yeast.
B. centromere
C. involve the release of hormones into
the blood. C. chromatid
D. often involve the binding of signal D. cell plate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
molecules to a protein on the surface of 420. What activates G proteins?
a target cell.
A. GDP
415. After a ligand binds, the intracellular do- B. ATP
main of a receptor protein changes , ini- C. ADP
tiating transduction of the signal.
D. GTP
A. color
421. The cell cycle is regulated at the molecular
B. size
level by a set of proteins known as
C. shape A. ATPases.
D. none of above B. separaseproteins
416. A protein that forms an ion channel C. cohesions
through a membrane is most likely D. cyclins
A. a peripheral membrane protein 422. The termination of cell signaling requires
B. a phospholipid which of the following?
C. an enzyme. A. removal of the ligand
D. a transmembrane protein B. removal of the receptor

C. apoptosis
417. Which term refers to cells signaling to D. converting of GDP to GTP
themselves?
A. Paracrine 423. Identical cells formed during cell division
are called:
B. Autocrine
A. daughter organelles
C. Endocrine B. daughter cycles
D. Somatricine C. daughter nucleus
418. What does a protein phosphatase do? D. daughter cells
A. removes phosphates 424. Hormones like epinephrine travel from
the signaling cell to target cells by:
B. transfers phosphates from ATP to pro-
teins A. direct contact
C. activates an enzyme with a signal B. local signaling
molecule C. long distance signaling

425. The site of transmission of electric nerve 430. The uncontrolled division of cells can lead
impulses between two nerve cells (neu- to:
rons) is called

A. cancer
A. Hormones
B. mitosis
B. Synapse
C. meiosis
C. Cholesterol
D. cellular recombination
D. Monty
431. What do secondary messengers, like
426. Which is a general term for enzymes that cAMP, do?
activate or inactivate other proteins by
A. transport a signal through the lipid bi-
phosphorylating them?
layer
A. MPF
B. relay & amplify a signal from the out-
B. protein kinase side to the inside of the cell
C. cyclin C. relay & amplify a message from the in-
side of the membrane throughout the cy-
D. none of above
toplasm
427. Long distance signaling molecules are D. dampen the message
known as what?
432. What form of communication is used to
A. paracrine
communicate from one cell to another cell
B. endocrine with no distance?
C. hormones A. Antigen Presenting Cell
D. gap junctions B. Local Regulator
428. Which term describes centromeres uncou- C. Hormone

pling, sister chromatids separating, and D. Metabolic Pathways
the two new chromosomes moving to op-
posite poles of the cell? 433. The phase of mitosis in which the sister
chromatids separate from each other
A. telophase
A. prophase
B. anaphase
B. metaphase
C. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. prophase
D. telophase
429. If you are unable to clot your blood ef-
fectively then you may be diagnosed with 434. In which stage of cell signaling does the
this medical condition. ligand bind to its receptor?
A. Hemophilia A. Response
B. Sickle Cell B. Reception
C. Anemia C. Transduction
D. Myelofibrosis D. none of above

435. Kinases are enzymes that are generally 441. Transforming Growth Factor is a ligand
involved in what process? that signals to embryonic cells during or-
A. Redox reactions gan formation. TGF diffuses and binds to
receptors found on nearby cells.
B. Endocytosis
C. Phosphorylation
D. Exocytosis
436. Enzymes that transfer phosphate groups
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. endocrine signalling
to a protein are known as
A. Ligands 442. Protein that cycles in quantity as the cell
cycle progresses; combines with and acti-
B. Receptor proteins
vates the kinases that promote the events
C. Protein phosphatases of the cycle.
D. Protein kinases A. cyclin
437. Hormones are used in signaling. B. kinase
A. endocrine C. phosphatase
B. juxtacrine D. ligand
C. autocrine
443. Uncontrolled cell division which usually
D. paracrine leads to tumors and disease is called:
438. The organ system responsible for circulat- A. Metaphase
ing hormones is the: B. Cytokinesis
A. endocrine system C. Cancer
B. urinary system D. Diabetes
C. circulatory system
444. First phase of mitosis; characterized by
D. integumentary system the condensation of the chromatin; chro-
439. Which type of cell divides most fre- mosomes are visible, but scattered in the
quently? nucleus.
A. Liver cell A. prophase
B. Skin cell B. metaphase
C. Blood cell C. anaphase
D. Nerve cell D. telophase
440. In cell signaling, how is the flow of spe- 445. type of cell signalling where the ligand is
cific ionsregulated? released and will affect cells in its “neigh-
borhood”
A. Opening and closing of ligand-gated
channels A. autocrine signalling
B. Transduction B. juxtacrine signalling
C. Cytoskeleton rearrangement C. paracrine signalling
D. Endocytosis D. endocrine signalling

446. Synaptic Signaling occurs in which type of 451. What are the properties of a signal
cell? molecule that is most likely to bind to a
receptor that is on the outside of the cell

A. Muscle cell
membrane?
B. Nervous System cell
A. small, nonpolar, hydrophobic
C. White Blood Cell
D. Red Blood B. large, polar, hydrophilic
C. small, polar, hydrophilic
447. Which signaling molecules can cross the
cell membrane on their own and do not D. large, nonpolar, hydrophobic
need to bind to receptor proteins?
452. What is the name of the molecule used in
A. steroid hormones (nonpolar lipids)
signal transduction pathways that readily
B. ions (small, very polar) diffuse and broadcast signals quickly?
C. glucose (large and polar) A. secondary messengers
D. protein hormones (large and polar)
B. ligand
448. The signaling molecule behaves as a , C. kinases
the term for a molecule that specifically
binds to another molecule. D. phosphatases
A. ligand 453. Whenever the cell cycle malfunctions a
B. kinase cell may become
C. intracellular transducer A. wild
D. phosphatase B. cancerous
449. One difference between cancer cells and C. bad
normal cells is that cancer cells
D. noncancerous
A. are unable to synthesize DNA
B. are arrested at the S phase of the cell 454. Signaling molecule that is a first messen-
cycle ger.
C. continue to divide even when they are A. Apoptosis
tightly packed together
B. Signal Transduction Pathway
D. are always in the M phase of the cell
cycle C. Synapse
D. Ligand
450. The process of transduction usually be-
gins
455. If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24
A. when the chemical signal is released chromosomes, a butterfly egg would con-
from the alpha cell. tain
B. when the signal molecule changes the A. 48
receptor protein in some way.
B. 24
C. after the target cell divides.
C. 12
D. after the third stage of cell signaling is
completed. D. none of above

456. How is a cell in prophase of mitosis differ- 461. A molecule that binds to the particular
ent from a cell in Prophase I of meiosis? three-dimensional structure of a receptor
site is known as a(n)
A. A spindle forms in the mitotic cell
A. regulator
B. Twice as many chromosomes in the
meiotic cell B. ligand
C. Paired homologous chromosomes in C. receptor

the meiotic cell D. ion channel
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Half as many chromosomes in the mei- 462. What is a phosphorylation cascade?
otic cell
A. travelling of hormones through the
457. What are the three parts of signal trans- blood
duction pathway? B. facilitated diffusion of hydrophilic
A. reception, transduction, response molecules through a channel protein
C. the removal of a phosphate from a
B. reception, amplification, transcription
molecule
C. confirmation, transduction, transcrip- D. a series of molecules that are sequen-
tion tially phosphorylated
D. confirmation, amplification, response
463. Distributes a signal throughout a multi-
458. Almost all signaling pathways result in cellular organism. An example is hor-
which response? mones.
A. transcription factor activation A. Paracrine signaling

B. Endocrine signaling
B. second messenger production
C. Synaptic signaling
C. kinase activity
D. Neurotransmitters
D. phosphatase activity
464. Molecules that bind to membrane recep-
459. Your Kidneys are the organs responsible tors are called what?
for
A. signals
A. Clotting of blood B. ligands
B. Body temperature C. glycoproteins
C. Regulating how much water is in your D. second messengers
body
465. In animal cells, some cells can commu-
D. none of above nicate by a shared cytoplasm thanks to
these “tunnels” between two adjacent
460. Endocrine glands secrete
cells.
A. Hormones A. plasmodesmata
B. Neurotransmitters B. connective tissue channels
C. A wide range of chemical substances C. gap junctions
D. none of above D. ligand channels

466. The nasty on your teeth in the morning is 471. The final stage of the cell cycle is called:
an example of what? A. Interphase

A. biofilm B. mitosis
B. saliva C. cytokinesis
C. dry toothpaste residue D. daughter cells
D. bacterial hormomes
472. What answer best describes the cell com-
467. Each of the following numbered pro- munication Autocrine?
cesses are involved in signal transduc- A. Cell responding to its own chemical
tion pathways:I. Response II. Reception III. message
Transduction Which of the following repre-
B. Cell responding to a neighboring cell
sents the sequence of events in a typical
signal transduction pathway? C. Cell responding to hormones circulat-
ing in the blood
A. I, II, III
D. Cells responding to signals sent by di-
B. III, I, II
rect contact
C. II, III, I
473. The structure of coiled DNA and proteins
D. III, II, I that forms in the cells nucleus prior to mi-
tosis is
468. cyclic AMP or cAMP is a
A. centromere
A. first messenger
B. centriole
B. second messenger
C. chromosome
C. hormone
D. chromatid
D. protein
474. Which type of cell will remember what
469. Asexual reproduction primarily involves the antigen looks like and produce a rapid
the process of secondary response?
A. interpolation A. Plasma B cells
B. Mitosis B. Memory B cells
C. pollination C. Plasma T cells
D. spermatogenesis D. Memory T cells
470. When a plant cell goes through cell divi- 475. Which of the following is a type of signal
sion, molecule that can pass through the lipid bi-
A. the 2 new nuclei are separated by the layer and bind to a receptor within the cy-
cell membrane pinching off. toplasm?
B. 4 new cells are formed A. protein
C. a cell plate forms, dividing the 2 new B. ion

nuclei C. steroid
D. None of the above D. water

476. The three stages of cell signalling are C. Protein Kinase

A. paracrine, local, and synaptic D. Ligand
B. reception, transduction, and response 482. A complex of microtubules and associated
proteins that attach to and separating the
C. transcription, translation, and folding chromatids during cell division.
D. alpha, beta, and gamma A. mitotic spindle
B. centromere
477. Stage of interphase following chromo-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
some replication in which the cell prepares C. cell plate
for mitosis. D. cleavage furrow
A. G2
483. Cells that are in a nondividing state are
B. G1 in which phase?
C. G0 A. G0
D. S B. G2
478. Paracrine signals C. G1
A. act on the cells that made them. D. S
B. move through the blood and act on 484. What is the term for any chemical signal
cells far from their source. that binds to another substance (often a
C. act on cells that are near to those that larger one)?
secrete them. A. Ligand particle
D. do not act through receptors. B. Shmoo particle
479. Phosphorylation C. Alpha particle
A. always inactivates a protein D. Protein particle
B. always activates a protein 485. In plants, which are most likely to travel
through plasmodesmata?
C. can either activate or inactivate a pro-
tein A. membrane bound organelles
D. none of above B. condensed, duplicated chromosomes
C. branched polysaccharides
480. Division of the cytoplasm following mito-
sis or meiosis. D. small, water-soluble molecules
A. cytokinesis 486. An example of DIRECT cell communication
B. cell cycle is:
C. S A. White blood cells bumping into each
D. G0
481. Which of the following is a secondary synapse
messenger? C. Hormones traveling through the blood
A. cAMP stream to target tissues
B. ATP D. none of above

487. Which of the following can inactivate a 492. A small signal molecule that specifically
protein by removing a phosphate group binds to a different, larger molecule is
from it? called a

A. cAMP A. ligand
B. G Protein B. substrate
C. protein kinase C. kinase
D. protein phosphatase D. receptor
488. Feedback loops are important because 493. Choose the correct order of communica-
they allow organisms and the environment tion.
to A. reception, response, transduction
A. change based on new inputs B. transduction, reception, response
B. fall apart C. response, transduction, reception
C. change based on new outputs D. reception, transduction, response
D. maintain balance 494. An example of DISTANCE cell communica-
tion is:
489. What is a G protein?
A. White blood cells bumping into each
A. specific type of membrane-receptor
protein
B. protein on the cytoplasmic side of a
synapse
membrane
C. Hormones traveling through the blood
C. membrane-bound enzyme
stream to target tissues
D. relay protein
D. none of above
490. Ligand binding sites 495. Which cells are responsible for broadcast-
A. must be the right shape to have the lig- ing the “enemy” in the acquired immune
and attach to it response and activating B cells and cyto-
toxic (killer) T cells?
B. are often found freely floating in the
bloodstream A. Killer-T Cells
C. are typically made from phospholipids B. B Cells
C. Helper-T Cells
D. A and C D. Antibodies
491. A water soluble gas that moves through 496. Final phase of mitosis; daughter cells are
the plant. located at each pole.
A. Auxin A. telophase
B. Cytokinin B. metaphase
C. Ethylene C. prophase
D. Gibberellin D. anaphase

497. What class of macromolecules includes C. No clue

transcription factors?
D. Could be, could not be
A. carbohydrates
B. nucleic acids 503. In our food lab last Friday, gymnema tea
binds to taste receptors and blocks
C. proteins from binding.
D. lipids
A. water
498. Glucose levels in the blood are controlled
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. glucose
by the:
C. protein
A. Pancreas
D. cellulose
B. Thyroid
C. Parathyroids 504. Which of these cells divides the least?
D. Adrenal Glands A. Liver cell
499. Which neurotransmitter is involved in the B. Skin cell
“Fight or Flight” response? C. Blood cell
A. Acetylcholine D. none of above
B. Epinephrine
C. Serotonin 505. Which hormone promotes the kidneys to
reabsorb water?
D. Dopamine
A. testosterone
500. Glucagon, released from the pancreas, at-
B. insulin
taches to receptors in the liver, resulting in
the breakdown of glycogen stores and an C. ADH
increase in blood sugar D. adrenaline
B. juxtacrine signalling 506. This biomolecule is used to make energy
for our cells. The simplest is glucose, a
C. paracrine signalling monosaccharide.
D. endocrine signalling A. Carbohydrates
501. What activates adenylyl cyclase? B. Lipids
A. epinephrine binding to it C. Nucleic Acids
B. an activated G protein D. Proteins
C. cAMP
507. Plasmodesmata in plant cells are analo-
D. a protein kinase
gous to what structure in animal cells?
502. Response in the process of cell communi- A. Tight junctions
cation is the regulation of transcription or
cytoplasmic activities. B. Gap junctions
A. True C. Adhesion junctions
B. False D. Vacuoles

508. Animals send hormones hormones B. G1 Checkpoint

through the body via:
C. Interphase Checkpoint

A. the air
D. Metaphase Checkpoint
B. the bloodstream
C. the digestive system 510. Programmed cell death is known as
D. none of above A. mutation
509. During which checkpoint does the cell B. termination
check to make sure the DNA is copied cor-
rectly. C. cytokinesis
A. G2 Checkpoint D. apoptosis

3. Cell Respiration
NARAYAN CHANGDER
3.1 ATP—Adenosine Triphosphate
1. What type of carbon-based molecule is glu- A. Cytosine
cose? B. Guanine
A. carbohydrates C. Thymine
B. proteins D. Uracil
C. nucleic acids
5. How many phosphates are in ATP?
D. lipids
A. 2
2. After ATP gets broken, to what molecule B. 3
does the released phosphate attach?
C. 1
A. protein D. 0
B. lipid
6. A nitrogen base (adenine), sugar ring (ri-
C. carbohydrate bose), and 3 phosphate groups that are
D. nucleic acid held together with high energy bonds is
the structure of
3. In the ATP/ADP cycle, what causes energy
A. ATP
to be released?
B. ADP
A. The breaking of the bond between the
5-carbon sugar and the 1st phosphate C. Breaking bond
group D. Carbon based molecule
B. The addition of a phosphate group
7. What kind of activities require the use of
C. The removal of a phosphate group the ATP-PC energy system?
D. The addition of glucose A. High power explosive movements
4. What is the complementary base pair to B. Muscular endurance activities

Cytosine in DNA? C. Aerobic Endurance

3.1 ATP—Adenosine Triphosphate 361
D. Flexibility D. through protein synthesis
8. Which of the following results in the STOR- 13. Which chemical reaction provides energy

AGE of energy in terms of the ATP/ADP for the cell?
cycle?
A. ADP → ATP + P
5-carbon sugar and the 1st phosphate B. ADP + P → ATP
group
C. ATP + P → ADP
D. ATP → ADP + P
C. The removal of a phosphate group
D. The addition of glucose 14. At what speed are ATP produced using the
ATP-PC system?
9. What biological macromolecule is usually
used to build muscle and other cellular A. Slow
structures instead of being used for en-
B. Medium
ergy?
A. carbohydrates C. Fast
B. lipids D. Explosive
C. proteins
15. What is an autotroph?
D. sugar
A. an organism that can make their own
10. amino acids are connected with bonds food.
to form
B. an organism that cannot make their
A. peptide; proteins own food
B. peptide; lipids
C. Herbivore
C. hydrogen; proteins
D. Omnivore
D. hydrogen; lipids
11. What are the two categories of 16. What do all cells use as energy?
metabolism? A. Carbs
A. Gluten and Sucrose
B. Protein
B. Catabolic and Anabolic
C. Fat
C. Metaphor and Simile
D. ATP
D. Glucose and Lactose
12. Where does your body get the energy for 17. Physiological Role Diagram-The ‘found
reattaching a third phosphate to ADP, cre- ‘image would best be titled
ating ATP?
A. Active Site
A. from your cells
B. Enzyme-Substrate Complex
B. from the breakdown of macro-
molecules C. Allosteric Activation
C. from nucleic acids D. Allosteric Inhibition

18. What does the second law of thermody- 23. About how many molecules of ATP can be
namics state? generated from one molecule of glucose?
A. Energy can’t be converted without the A. 2
loss of usable energy B. 6
B. Energy can be converted with the loss C. 36
of usable energy D. 4
C. Energy can’t be converted
24. Which carbon-based molecule is least
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Energy remains the same in all sys- likely to be used as an energy source?
tems A. carbohydrates
19. What are the parts of an ATP molecule? B. lipids
A. adenine, thylakoids, stroma C. protein
D. none of above
B. stroma, grana, chlorophyll
C. adenine, ribose, phosphate groups 25. What is combined in photosynthesis to
make glucose?
D. NADH, NAHPH, FADH
A. H2O and CO2
20. What do plants give off after photosynthe- B. O2 and H2O
sis? C. H2O and O2
A. Oxygen D. O2 and CO2
B. carbon 26. The synthesis of ATP
C. nitrogen A. stores energy
D. hydrogen B. releases energy
C. destroys cells
21. The energy needed for muscle contraction
comes from D. none of above
A. soda 27. During photosynthesis, a sugar called glu-

cose is formed as a product. Afterward,
B. calcium
what does the chloroplast do with the
C. myosin products made in photosynthesis?
D. ATP A. photosynthesis releases energy
B. photosynthesis stores energy
22. Which of the following results in the stor-
age of energy in terms of the ATP/ADP C. photosynthesis makes ATP
cycle? D. photosynthesis makes ADP
A. The breaking of the bond between the 28. An ATP molecule contains how much Phos-
5-carbon sugar and the 1st phosphate phate
group A. 3 Phosphates
B. The addition of a phosphate group B. 2 Phosphates
C. The removal of a phosphate group C. 1 Phosphate
D. The addition of glucose D. No Phosphate

29. When molecules are being broken down in B. Adenosine Diphosphate

a chemical reaction it is called
C. Adenosine Triphosphate

A. anabolism
D. all above
B. catabolism
C. photosynthesis 35. Substrates bind to enzymes at their
D. uptake A. synthesis gap

B. product
30. ATP provides the energy needed to carry
out many cell functions. Which of the fol- C. reactant
lowing processes does not require ATP? D. active site
A. making more ATP
36. When organisms use ‘chemicals’ to make
B. muscle contraction
carbon-based molecules, this is called
C. active transport of protein across a ?
membrane
A. photosynthesis
D. passive transport of oxygen across a
cell membrane B. chemotherapy
C. chemosynthesis
31. What is the role of Creatine Kinase
D. phototherapy
A. To break down Phosphocreatine
B. To break down ATP 37. How many strand of nucleic acids does
C. To break down Creatine DNA consist of?
D. To produce Phosphocreatine A. 1
B. 2
32. Where do you get energy to reattach the
3rd phosphate to ADP? C. 3
A. From broken down food. D. 4
B. From the sun.
38. What particle is released to provide the en-
C. From water. ergy spark from the ATP molecule
D. From running. A. Potassium
33. What is the pigment that reflect orange, B. Phosphate
red, and yellow; accessory pigments in
C. Adenosine
photosynthesis
D. Thymine
A. chlorophyll
B. caretonoids 39. What is the only usable source of energy
C. Xanthophylls in the body?
D. flavonoids A. Adenosine Tri-phosphate

B. Glucose
34. What will ATP become when it loses a
phosphate? C. Synovial fluid
A. Adenosine Monophosphate D. Carbohydrates

40. Photosynthesis energy while cellular B. ADP

respiration energy. C. ATP synthase
A. uses; releases
D. chemosynthesis
B. releases; uses
46. The chemical energy used for most cellular
C. uses; uses
processes and functions is found in
D. releases; releases
A. ATP
NARAYAN CHANGDER
41. What is the energy currency of the cell; B. ADP
also known as adenosine triphosphate
C. carbohydrates
A. ATP
D. the sun
B. ADP
C. NADPH 47. Organisms that make their own food are
called
D. ATT
A. heterotrophs
42. Power lifting, 100 Meter sprint and discus
would be used by which energy system B. autotrophs
A. Aerobic C. homotrophs
B. Lactic acid D. polytrophs

C. ATP/PC 48. Which of the following is a heterotroph.
D. Anaerobic glycolysis A. Dog
43. In the ATP/ADP cycle, what causes energy B. Oak Tree
to be stored? C. Sunflower
A. The breaking of the bond between the D. Algae
5-carbon sugar and the 1st phosphate
group 49. How is energy released in ATP?
B. The addition of a phosphate group A. The bonds between the 2nd and 3rd
C. The removal of a phosphate group phosphate break
D. The addition of glucose B. The bonds between the 1st and 2nd
phosphate break
44. What are the series of reactions in which
energy from ATP and NADPH is trans- C. ATP releases a phosphate to an ADP
ferred to molecules of glucose D. The bonds between the 1st and 3rd
A. Calvin cycle phosphate break
B. light reactions 50. Where is the most energy stored in an ATP
C. ATP reactions molecule?
D. chlorophyll reactions A. in the adenosine
B. between the 1st and 2nd phosphates
45. An enzyme that conducts phosphorylation
(adding of phosphate groups) C. between the 2nd and last phosphates
A. ATP D. in the ribose

51. Which of the following can be compared to 56. In ATP where is the energy stored?
a battery in need of recharging? (empty A. Between the adenine and ribose bonds
wallet)

A. ADP B. Between the 2nd and 3rd bond in the
B. ATP phosphate
C. Ribose C. Between the the adenine and phos-

phate bonds
D. Adenosine
D. In the glucose bonds of the carbon
52. Cells obtain their energy through the pro- 57. The ATP-PC system is utilised during what
cess of Cellular Respiration. Cellular respi- exercise intensity?
ration is what type of reaction?
A. Sub-maximal intensity (<85% MHR)
A. endothermic
B. High Intensity (85% MHR)
B. exothermic C. High Intensity (95% MHR)
C. synthetic D. At rest
D. photosynthetic
58. Which of the following is NOT part of
ATP?
53. What would be formed if we removed two
phosphate groups from ATP? A. 3 phosphates
A. Adenosine B. 2 phosphates
B. Adenosine triphosphate C. Nitrogenous base

D. Sugar
C. Adenosine diphosphate
D. Adenosine monophosphate 59. After photosynthesis, plants store their
energy as .
54. What type of energy is glucose? A. chlorophyll
A. carbohydrate B. pigment
B. protein C. glucose (sugar)
C. nucleic acid D. Oxygen
D. lipid 60. Where does the cellular process occur the
most?
55. Evolution:Likely The F0 and F1 units of
A. Mitochondria
ATP Synthase evolved
B. Nucleus
A. Separately, then joined to form new
functionality. C. Prokaryotic Cell
D. Cell Membrane
B. Together to develop an efficient ATP
synthesizing machine. 61. All the following when ATP changes to
C. Divergently. At one point there was ADP EXCEPT
only one subunit. A. phosphate bond is broke
D. none of above B. phosphate is released

C. energy is released 67. Osmosis is the movement of water

D. phosphate bond is formed molecules across a gradient. If a plant cell
is placed in a hypertonic solution what hap-
62. What enzyme breaks down Adenosine Tri- pens to the plant cell?
Phosphate? A. plant cell will stay the same
A. ATPase B. plant cell will begin to shrink
B. Adenosinase C. plant cell will begin to swell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Creatine Kinase D. none of above
D. ADP 68. The monomer of a lipid is called
63. What is the ultimate source of energy for A. a nucleotide
life on Earth? B. a monosaccharide
A. glucose C. an amino acid
B. sunlight D. a fatty acid
C. ATP 69. What does ATP become after it is used for
D. none of above energy?
A. It does not change
64. What two carbon-based molecules provide
the same amount of energy? B. Garbage
A. carbohydrates and lipids C. Adenosine diphosphate

D. Adenine monohydrate
B. carbohydrates and proteins
C. lipids and proteins 70. What is an enzyme that catalyzes the
breakdown of ATP into ADP and a free
D. carbohydrates and nucleic acids
Phosphate
65. What does a autotroph do? A. ATTase
A. Hunt for their food B. ADPase
B. Makes their own food C. NADPase
C. Doesn’t go through photosynthesis D. ATPase
D. Lacks mitochondria 71. What is the substance that is changed in a
chemical reaction
66. Evolution-The F0 region seems to be simi-
A. catalyst
lar to
B. solution
A. DNA Helicase that separates DNA dur-
ing its replication C. product
B. The molecular motor that powers flag- D. reactant
ella
72. A reaction is a chemical reaction in
C. The RNA Polymerase molecule that which more energy is stored than re-
transcribes mRNA leased.
D. The molecular motor that powers cilia A. Endergonic

B. Exergonic C. AMP
C. exocytosis D. Mr. Trout’s Energy drinks. (do not pick

D. endothermic this answer)
73. The most energy is stored in the bonds be- 78. In the absence of light, some organisms
tween which phosphate groups make their own carbon-based molecules
using chemicals. This process is known as
A. between ribose and the 1st phosphate
group A. photosynthesis
B. between the first and second phos- B. protein synthesis
phate group C. chemosynthesis
C. between the second and third phos- D. DNA synthesis
phate group
79. What is the substance that is produced in
D. none of above
a chemical reaction
74. What does the first law of thermodynam- A. catalyst
ics state?
B. solution
A. Energy is created and convert.
C. product
B. Energy can be converted but can’t be
destroyed D. reactant
C. Energy can’t be converted but can’t be 80. Muscles use a lot of cellular energy be-
destroyed cause they are highly functional. Which
D. Energy energy can be created and de- organelle would be in abundant to provide
stroyed. that energy?
A. Nucleus
75. Which terms best describe autotrophs?
B. Endoplasmic
A. Plants; producers
C. Vacuole
B. Animals; producers
D. Mitochondria
C. Plants; consumers
D. Animals; consumers 81. Which of the following can be compared to
a fully charged battery?
76. Which of the choices lists the macro-
A. ADP
molecule based on what your body breaks
down first to get ATP? B. ATP
A. Carbohydrates, lipids, protein C. Adenosine
B. Lipids, carbohydrates, protein D. Ribose
C. Carbohydrates, protein, lipids 82. Which nitrogen base found in ATP
D. Protein, lipids, carbohydrates A. adenine
77. Which contains more energy? B. cytocine
A. ATP C. guanine
B. ADP D. thymine

83. What is released in cellular respiration? 89. Structure and Function-The portion of the
A. H2O and O2 and energy ATP Synthase that actually rotates to
‘build’ the ATP molecule is the Sub-
B. H2O and CO2 unit.
C. H2O and CO2 and energy A. F0
D. H2O and O2 B. F1
84. Cells use energy for C. F2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. maintaining homeostasis and eliminat- D. F0 and F1 both rotate.
ing wastes 90. Photosynthesis takes in CO2, Water and
B. transmitting impulses and cellular Sunlight and Bulids what Molecule?
movement A. Ribulose
C. active transport and protein synthesis B. Glucose (C6H12O6)
C. Galactose
D. all of the above D. Carbonate
85. ADP has how many phosphate molecules? 91. What is the only thing recycled in the ATP
A. 1 > ADP cycle?
B. 3 A. ADP
C. 4 B. Nitrogen base (adenine)
D. 2 C. 3rd phosphate
D. Phosphates
86. Which of these nitrogenous bases is NOT
in DNA? 92. Which of the following molecules can be
A. Uracil compared to a battery in need of recharg-
ing? (also like an empty wallet)
B. Thymine
A. ADP
C. Cytosine
B. ATP
D. Guanine
C. Ribose
87. Which organelle makes sugar? D. Adenosine
A. Chloroplast 93. Where is DNA found in cells?
B. Mitochondria A. nucleus
C. Nucleus B. ribosomes
D. Vaculoe C. endoplasmic reticulum
88. What is C6H12O6-sugar produced in the D. phospholipid bilayer
dark reactions 94. What is the fluid that fills the chloroplast
A. fructose A. chlorophyll
B. sucrose B. stroma
C. ribose C. thylakoid
D. glucose D. glucose

95. What sugar is found in ATP? 101. What organelle makes most of the ATP
A. deoxyribose and is called the power plant of the cell?

B. sucrose A. ribosomes
B. lysosomes
C. ribose
C. organelles
D. glucose
D. mitochondrion
96. By products for ATP-PC
102. Which form of cellular transport would
A. H2O, CO2 and heat
not occur if there were no ATP present
B. Lactic Acid, H2O and CO2
A. Active Transport
C. No by-products are produce B. Diffusion
D. none of above C. Osmosis
97. How many hydrogen bonds form between D. Facilitated Diffusion
Cytosine and Guanine?
103. What is ATP made of?
A. 1
A. Adenine, 3 carbon sugar (ribose), 3
B. 2 phosphate groups
C. 3 B. 2 adenine, 4 carbon sugar (ribose), 2
D. 4 phosphate groups
C. Adenine, 5 carbon sugar (ribose), 4
98. In which organelle does photosynthesis oc-
phosphate groups
cur?
D. Adenine, 5 carbon sugar (ribose),
A. Mitochondria
three phosphate groups
B. Chloroplast
104. Which type of biological macromolecule
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum stores the most energy?
D. Lysosome A. carbohydrates
99. What does CP stand for? B. lipids
A. Creatine Product C. proteins
B. Creatine Phosphate D. nucleic acids
C. Crazy Phosphate 105. Which of the following is components can
D. Creatine Phosporus transform ADP to ATP?
A. Adenosine
100. How many ATP molecules can be replen-
ished from a single creatine phosphate B. Phosphate group
molecule? C. Nitrogenous Base
A. 1 D. Ribose
B. 3 106. What must an organism do in order to
C. 10 make ATP?
D. 1000 A. Exercise

B. Consume and break down food B. lipids

C. Spend time in the sun C. protein
D. Release waste in the environment D. none of above
107. Which is not part of metabolism? 113. What is the pigment that absorbs red and
A. Cellular Respiration blues and reflects green; primary pigment
in photosynthesis
B. Photosynthesis
A. chlorophyll
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Resting
B. caretonoids
D. Muscle Contractions
C. Xanthophylls
108. Different Species: of the 17 genes D. flavonoids
that build HUMAN ATP synthase are
‘housed’ in the Mitochondrial DNA. 114. The low energy molecule ADP is con-
A. 2 verted into the high energy molecule ATP
when
B. All 17
A. cell functions are performed
C. 1
B. a phosphate is gained
D. 8
C. a phosphate is released
109. Which contains the most energy? D. sunlight is added
A. carbohydrates
115. How long does the ATP-PC system last?
B. lipids
A. 2mins+ Long term energy
C. proteins
B. 0 seconds up to 2 minutes Short term
D. none of above high intensity
110. Where is the fuel source found for the C. Immediate high intensity (0-
ATP/PC system 10seconds)
A. Food D. none of above
B. Muscles 116. How is ADP related to ATP?
C. Oxygen A. They both have an “A” and a “P”
D. none of above B. ATP is ADP with one more phosphate
111. ADP is an abbreviation for: C. ADP is ATP with one more phosphate
A. aniline diphosphate. D. ADP is ATP with a “D”
B. adenine diphosphate. 117. Plants need from the air for photo-
C. adenosine diphosphate. synthesis
D. adenosine triphosphate. A. oxygen
112. Which carbon-based molecule stores the B. soil

most energy? C. carbon dioxide
A. carbohydrates D. sugar

118. Which macromolecule that animals con- C. good and bad

sume stores the most energy? D. big and small

A. Carbohydrates
124. The Red part of the following reaction
B. Lipids pathway is called the C6H12O6 + 6O2
C. Proteins → 6CO2 + 6H2O + eneregy
D. Nucleic Acids A. The in’s
B. The Products
119. Valerie learned that photosynthesis
makes sugar called glucose. She is later C. The Reactants
taught that glucose is used to make ? D. The out’s
A. CO2
125. Which form of macromolecule monomer is
B. phosphate groups ATP?
C. ADP A. Nucleotide
D. ATP B. Carbohydrate
120. What is the name of the nitrogenous base C. Protein
that helps make up ATP? D. Lipid
A. Adenine 126. What is the subunit of a protein?
B. Guanine A. Monosaccharides
C. Thymine B. Amino Acids
D. Cytosine C. Fatty Acids
121. If there’s an excess amount of glucose in D. Nucleotides
the human body, it is stored in the liver as
127. Which is the equation to make up ATP?
A. cellulose A. ADP + P + energy = ATP

B. ATP + P + energy = ATP
B. starch
C. ATP + P + energy = ADP
C. glycogen
D. ADP + P + energy = ADP
D. lipids
128. How is energy released from ATP?
122. An elite 100m sprinter would predomi-
nantly use which energy system during a A. adding a phosphate
race? B. making a new bond
A. ATP-PC Energy System C. removing the 3rd phosphate
B. Anaerobic Glycolysis Energy System D. adding a protein
C. Aerobic Energy System 129. Where is ATP formed in the cell?
D. none of above A. mitochondria
123. What are the two types of transport? B. nucleus
A. fast and slow C. chloroplast
B. passive and active D. cytoplasm

130. How is ATP used? It is used as 136. is the most important biological
A. The building block of proteins molecule that provides energy.
B. An energy source for diffusion A. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
C. The building block of DNA and RNA B. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
molecules C. NADPH
D. An energy source for cell processes D. NADP
131. What is the function of the ATP 137. Which organism makes their own energy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
molecule? source?
A. Carries/stores energy for cell func- A. bacteria
tions. B. fungi
B. Groups together with high energy C. algae
bonds.
D. paramecium
C. Make proteins.
D. Turns sunlight from the sun into sugar. 138. ATP’s scientific name is
A. Adenosine Diphosphate
132. What process is ATP used for the most?
B. Adenosine Monophosphate
A. Passive transport
C. Adenosine Triphosphate
B. Active transport
D. Adenosine Biphosphate
C. Cellular Process
D. ATP > ADP cycle 139. Which of these is NOT part of a nu-
cleotide?
133. Which molecule is most commonly broken A. 5-carbon sugar
down to make ATP?
B. Phosphate group
A. ADP
C. Glucose
B. lipid
D. Nitrogenous base
C. protein
D. carb 140. ATp gives us?
A. Sunlight
134. Where does the energy for ATP produc-
tion come from? B. Energy
A. Nucleic Acid C. Chemicals
B. Protein D. Sun
C. Lipid 141. What are the series of reactions taking

D. Carbohydrate place in the thylakoid membrane in which
light is absorbed and energy is transferred
135. What are lipids composed of? to molecules of ATP and NADPH
A. Monosaccharides A. Calvin cycle
B. Amino Acids B. dark reactions
C. Fatty Acids C. light reactions
D. Nucleotides D. ATP reactions

142. When molecules are being built by chem- 148. What molecule absorbs sunlight during
ical reactions it is called photosynthesis?

A. anabolism A. Epidermis
B. catabolism B. thylakoid
C. fermentation C. the leaf
D. respiration D. chlorophyll
143. Which phrase best describes the function 149. What is the fuel for ATP-PC
of ATP molecule? A. glucose
A. ATP absorbs energy B. phosphocreatine
B. ATP increases energy C. fatty acids
C. ATP stores energy D. fats
D. ATP creates energy
150. How many hydrogen bonds form be-
144. energy tween Adenine and Thymine?
A. atp adenosine triphosphate A. 1
B. potential energy is stored in the bonds B. 2
of an atp molecule C. 3
C. if a bond is broken energy is released D. 4
D. none of above
151. Which of the following is NOT a compo-
145. Which carbon based molecule is LEAST nent of ATP?
likely to be broken down to make ATP? A. Glucose
A. carbohydrates B. Adenosine
B. sugars C. Phosphate
C. lipids D. Ribose
D. proteins
152. What is the electron carrier produced in
146. Anabolic process is a(n) process in- the light reactions
volving the of energy. A. ATP
A. synthesis:release B. ADP
B. synthesis:use C. NADPH
C. breaking apart:release D. ATT
D. breaking apart:use
153. What is the complementary base pair to
147. What macromolecule is ATP? Adenine in DNA?
A. Lipid A. Cytosine
B. Nucleic Acid B. Guanine
C. Protein C. Thymine
D. Carbohydrate D. Uracil

154. Muscles use a lot of cellular energy and B. Chloroplast

need a large amount of energy (ATP) made C. Golgi Apparatus
in these..
D. Nucleus
A. Nucleus
B. Chloroplast 160. All of the chemical reactions within a cell
are categorized as the cell’s
C. Vacuole
A. Activation energy
D. Mitochondria
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Energy
155. Which form of cellular transport requires C. Metabolism
would not occur if there were no ATP
present D. Ability to do work
A. Active Transport 161. Plyometric training should be used to

train which energy system?
B. Diffusion
A. ATP-PC Energy System
C. Osmosis
B. Anaerobic Glycolysis Energy System
C. Aerobic Energy System
156. What happens when ATP forms into
D. none of above
ADP?
A. Hydrolysis 162. A scientist is observing a nucleic acid un-
der a microscope. What else will they
B. Dehydration Synthesis
likely observe?
C. Conversion
A. Monosaccharides
D. Denaturation
B. Amino Acids
157. What is the gel-like substance inside of C. Fatty Acids
cells called?
D. Nucleotides
A. Photoplasm
163. Plants store their energy in a process
B. Photosynthesis
called Photosynthesis. Photosynthesis is
C. Cytoskeleton which type of reaction?
D. Cytoplasm A. exothermic
158. What molecule breaks the phosphate B. endothermic
bonds? C. exosynthetic
A. water D. photosynthetic
B. methane 164. is the process by which particles
C. ethanol move from an area of high concentration
D. carbon dioxide to an area of lower concentration.
A. diffusion
159. Different Species:Plant ATP Synthase of
their are almost identical to those of B. osmosis
modern day bacteria. C. facilitated diffusion
A. Mitochondria D. active transport

165. How many Adenosine molecules are B. Protein

there in one ATP? C. Lipids

A. One D. ATP
B. Two
171. The ‘building’ of ATP is a hydrolysis reac-
C. Three
tion, meaning is released by the chem-
D. None ical reaction.
166. Why do we need food? A. Hydrogen Ion
A. ATP is not good for long term energy B. Water (H2O)
storage C. Hydronium (H3O)
B. ATP works best for short term storage D. Hydroxide (OH-)
172. What is the difference between ATP and

C. When you eat, your body ingests glu-
ADP?
cose, which keeps producing ATP and ADP
A. ADP powers movement, while ATP
does not
D. All of the above
B. ATP has three phosphates; ADP has
167. Which cellular organelle is responsible for two
manufacturing ATP?
C. ATP contains adenine and ribose,
A. Ribosome while ADP does not
B. Nucleus D. ATP has less energy than ADP
C. Mitochondria
173. What is the organelle that “makes” en-
D. Chloroplast ergy for the cell?
168. What type of bond holds together the A. chloroplast
sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA/RNA? B. mitochondria
A. covalent C. cytoplasm
B. hydrogen D. nucleus
C. ionic
174. How do organisms produce ATP?
D. James
A. break down macromolecules
169. The molecule that stores energy to be
B. performing photosynthesis
used by the cell is
C. removing a phosphate from ADP
A. ADP
D. removing a phosphate from ATP
B. ATP
C. DNA 175. Where is the site of photosynthesis
D. CO2 A. chlorophyll
170. What do all cells use as its energy B. chloroplast

source? C. chromosome
A. Carbohydrates D. chlorine

176. What is recycled in the ATP-ADP cycle? C. fructose

A. only the ATP D. galactose
B. only the ADP
182. Catabolism is a process involving the
C. both ATP and ADP of energy.
D. nothing is recycled
A. synthesis; release
177. The organelle inside every plant cell B. breaking apart; release
NARAYAN CHANGDER
where photosynthesis takes place is called
C. synthesis; use
A. stroma D. breaking apart; use

B. mitochondria 183. Different Species:Plant/Chloropalst ATP
C. thylakoid synthase are powered by Hydrogen ions
D. chloroplast produced by proteins.
A. Photosynthetic
178. In what part of the cell does photosyn-
thesis occur? B. Aerobic
A. Nucleus C. Anaerobic
B. Chloroplast D. Digestive
C. Epidermis
184. How does ADP become ATP?
D. Vacuole
A. We change the letter
179. ATP is a high energy molecule that is
B. Ribose sugar is added
utilized in almost all cellular processes.
Which macromolecule is ATP an example C. Adenine is added
of?
D. A phosphate group is added
A. Carbohydrate
B. Lipid 185. Where does the energy to make ATP
come from?
C. Protein
A. Nucleic Acid
D. Nucleic acid
B. Protein
180. What macromolecule can you not get ATP
from? C. Lipid
A. Nucleic Acid D. Carbohydrate/glucose

B. Carbohydrates 186. Which cell organelle is the site for manu-
C. Lipids facturing ATP?
D. Proteins A. Ribosome
181. The energy to make ATP comes from B. Nucleus

A. glucose C. Mitochondria
B. sucrose D. Chloroplast

187. Which of the following can be compared 193. is the ability to do work.
to a battery in need of recharging? A. Employment

A. ADP B. Energy
B. ATP C. Capability
C. Ribose D. Activation
D. Adenosine
194. Where does the energy for ATP come
188. How many nucleic acids does DNA consist from?
of? A. Nucleic Acid
A. 1 B. Protein
B. 2 C. Lipid
C. 3 D. Carbohydrate
D. 4 195. Organisms that cannot make their own
189. Which carbon-based molecule is most food and must obtain energy from exter-
commonly broken down to make ATP? nal sources are called
A. proteins A. autotrophs
B. carbohydrates B. heterotrophs
C. plants
C. lipids
D. none of above
D. nucleic acids
196. What is an enzyme that catalyzes the re-
190. What is the splitting of water into elec-
action in which a free Phosphate is added
trons, hydrogen protons, and oxygen us-
to an ADP molecule
ing light and enzymes
A. ADP synthase
A. photokinesis
B. ATP polymerase
B. photosynthesis
C. ATP synthase
C. photolysis
D. ATT synthase
D. photophosphate
197. Where is the energy stored in ATP
191. In what process is ATP produced? molecules
A. Mitochondria A. In the Ribose Sugar
B. Energy B. In the Adenine group
C. Adenine C. In the Phosphate bonds
D. Cellular respiration D. In the Bank
192. What is the term that is used to describe 198. The original source of energy in most
every chemical reaction in the body? ecosystems is
A. Breathing A. water
B. Seeing B. photosynthesis
C. Metabolism C. carbon in the carbon cycle
D. Running D. the sun

199. Which macromolecule produces the most A. electron auto acceptor

ATP when broken down? B. electron transport chain
A. 1 g lipid C. electron auto energizer
B. 1 g protein D. electron transporter
C. 1g Carb 205. Which of the following activities would
D. 1 g sugar best suit the ATP-PC energy system?
A. 100m Sprint
NARAYAN CHANGDER
200. transport does not require cellular en-
ergy. B. 50 mile bike ride
A. fast C. Walking
B. slow D. Marathon
C. passive 206. If ATP and ADP work together in a cycle,
D. active you can come to the assumption that
A. ATP, ADP, and phosphates are not
201. Which of the following results in the re- reusable
lease of energy in terms of the ATP/ADP
B. Phosphates have to leave the cell once
cycle?
used.
C. ATP, ADP, and phosphates are all
5-carbon sugar and the 1st phosphate
reusable.
group
D. none of above
C. The removal of a phosphate group 207. All of the energy in living things begins
with?
D. The addition of glucose
A. ATP
202. Energy is released from ATP when B. Glucose
A. a phosphate group is added C. Sun
B. adenine bonds to ribose D. Oxygen
C. a phosphate group is removed 208. Which is considered to be a lower energy
D. ATP is exposed to sunlight molecule?
A. ARP
203. is the study of the flow and transfor-
mation of energy in the universe B. AGT
A. thermodynamics C. ATP
B. Thermochemistry D. ADP
C. thermophysics 209. Which gas is removed from the atmo-

sphere during photosynthesis?
D. thermoenergy
A. hydrogen
204. What are the series of proteins and en- B. oxygen
zymes located in the thylakoid membrane
that use the energy from electrons to cre- C. nitrogen
ate ATP? D. carbon dioxide

210. Which form of cellular transport would 216. What are the disc like structures found
not occur if ATP is not present? within the chloroplast that are the site of
the light reactions

A. Active Transport
B. Diffusion A. chlorophyll
C. Osmosis B. stroma
D. none of above C. thylakoid
211. What is the process whereby some or- D. glucose

ganisms gather sunlight energy and use it 217. transport requires cellular energy.
to produce complex carbohydrates
A. fast
A. chlorophyll actiation
B. slow
B. bioluminescence
C. passive
C. respiration
D. photosynthesis D. active
212. What is the most likely cause of fatigue 218. is like a rechargeable battery.
in a runner completing a 100m sprint? A. Energy
A. dehydration B. Food
B. accumulation of lactic acid C. Molecules
C. depletion of muscle glycogen D. ATP/ADP
D. depletion of phosphate creatine
219. How is ADP converted into ATP?
213. Where is the energy held in ATP?
A. Light energy is added
A. Ribose
B. A phosphate is removed
B. Adenine
C. A phosphate is gained
C. Bond holding last phosphate group
D. Osmosis occurs
D. none of above
220. When a phosphate attaches to a molecule,
214. The sum of all chemical reactions carried that molecule is
out in an organism is
A. phosphated
A. metabolism
B. phosphorylated
B. ATP
C. substrate C. phosphotized
D. enzyme D. none of above
215. How long does our bodies initial ATP stor- 221. The best appropriate analogy of ADP is a
age last?
A. 2-3 seconds A. Energizer Battery
B. 10 seconds B. Fully Charged Battery
C. 60 seconds C. Depleted (Dead) Battery
D. 20 minutes plus D. Energizer Bunny

222. The usable energy molecule that is used C. NADP

in nearly all cellular processes. D. ATT
A. ATP
228. Which macromolecule has the ability to
B. glucose produce the most ATP per molecule?
C. enzymes A. carbohydrates
D. CO2 B. lipids/fats
C. proteins
NARAYAN CHANGDER
223. Which macromolecule provides just about
the same amount of energy as carbohy- D. nucleic acids
drates?
229. In a cell, a phosphate group is added to
A. Lipids ADP to form ATP. Which of the following
B. Proteins best describes the importance of the for-
mation of ATP?
C. Nucleic Acids
A. It connects amino acids.
D. Vitamins and minerals
B. It provides energy for the cell.
224. What element is considered the building C. It creates new polysaccharides.
block of life?
D. It catalyzes chemical reactions.
A. carbon
230. An Analogy of an ATP Molecule is a
B. hydrogen
A. Empty Battery
C. oxygen
B. 1/2 full battery
D. none of above
C. a Donut
225. Organisms who convert light energy into D. Charged Battery
energy are called autotrophs.
A. Chemical 231. Complete this sentence. Metabolism is
B. Physical
A. the sum of all reactions that take place
C. Synthetic in the body.
D. Kinetic B. covers some of the reactions that take
place in the body.
226. What organelle is considered to be the
“gatekeeper” for plant and animal cells? C. the total amount of energy used sub-
tracted from the total amount consumed.
A. Cell Wall
B. Cytoplasm D. none of above
C. Nucleous
232. Where does the energy for making ATP
D. Cell Membrane usually come from?
227. What is adenosine diphosphate, created A. nucleic acids
when phosphate breaks free from ATP B. proteins
A. ATP C. lipids
B. ADP D. carbohydrates

3.2 Glycolysis 381
233. How many ATP molecules can be made B. in the elements (C, H, O, etc)
from breaking down one molecule of glu- C. in the protein
cose?

D. in the fat
A. 4
B. 146 236. Which of the following reactions directly
provides chemical energy for most cell
C. 36 functions?
D. 9 A. ADP → ATP + P
234. What is a high energy molecule with 3 B. ATP → ADP + P
phosphates? C. ATP → ATP + P
A. ATP D. ADP → ADP + P
B. ADP
237. Cellular respiration occurs in the
C. Ribose
A. chloroplast
D. Adenine
B. mitochondria
235. Where does food store chemical energy? C. golgi body
A. in the bonds D. nucleus
3.2 Glycolysis
1. Which of the following processes creates B. 4 CO2
the most ATP during aerobic cellular respi- C. 5 CO2
ration?
D. 8 CO2
A. glycolysis
4. Which is not an input of glycolysis?
B. fermentation
A. Glucose
C. electron transport chain
B. ATP
D. Kreb’s cycle
C. NAD+
2. How would you describe cellular respira- D. CO2
tion?
A. Sunlight and CO2 make ATP 5. Glycolysis results in the total production
of:
B. ATP and O2 are used to make sugars
A. 2 ATP
C. Carbon-based molecules from food
B. 4 ATP
and oxygen are used to make ATP
C. 4 NADH
D. ATP and CO2 are used to make ADP
and Water D. 2 Acetyl CoA
3. For every one glucose, how many CO2 is 6. In glycolysis, glucose will be converted in
produced in the krebs cycle including the to the following final product ?
transition reaction phase? A. citrate (citric acid)
A. 6 CO2 B. oxaloacetate (oxaloacetic acid)

3.2 Glycolysis 382
C. pyruvate (pyruvic acid) 12. Carbohydrate like sucrose and fructose are
converted to glucose by enzyme
D. Acetyl CoA
A. Invertase
7. Hydrogen ions are pumped from the to B. Hexo kinase
the
C. Isomerase
A. matrix; intermembrane space
D. Dehydrogenase
B. intermembrane space; matrix
NARAYAN CHANGDER
13. The NET result of a single glycolysis run is
C. matrix; cytoplasm the formation of
D. intermembrane; cytoplasm A. 2 NADH and 2 ATP
8. The removal of 1C from pyruvate forms a B. 2 NADH and 4 ATP
2C acetyl compound. What is added to it C. 4 NADH and 2 ATP
to form acetyl coA?
D. none of above
A. enzyme A
14. bis phospho glyceric acid is converted to 3
B. enzyme B phospho glyceric acid by
C. coenzyme AB A. Kinase
D. coenzyme A B. Phosphorylase
C. Dehydrogenase
9. What produces ATP during glycolysis?
D. Isomerase
A. chemiosmosis
B. oxidative phosphorylation 15. The first step of glycolysis results in the
formation of:
C. substrate level phosphorylation
A. Glucose-6-Phosphate
D. fermentation
B. Fructose-6-Phosphate
10. How many NADH molecules are produced C. ATP
by a molecule of glucose through the D. 1, 6 Bis-PhosphoGlycerate
Krebs’ Cycle?
16. What is the net gain of ATP during glycol-
A. 2
ysis?
B. 3
A. 1
C. 4 B. 2
D. 6 C. 4
11. The overall goal of cellular respiration is to D. 34
make: 17. Glycolysis means
A. Glucose A. Breakdown of glucose
B. ATP B. Formation of glucose
C. Oxygen C. Both
D. Water D. None

3.2 Glycolysis 383
18. What was the net gain of ATP from glycol- 24. What are the products of aerobic respira-
ysis? tion?

A. 1 A. Glucose and oxygen
B. 2 B. Carbon dioxide and water
C. 3 C. Lactic acid
D. 4 D. Carbon monoxide
19. Which stage of aerobic respiration re- 25. What process happens after glycolysis but
quires ATP? before the citric acid cycle?
A. Krebs Cycle A. coenzyme A is broken off of pyruvate
B. Pyruvate B. a carbon atom is added to pyruvate to
C. Glycolysis make a four carbon compound
D. Hexokinase C. glucose is split and produces two

molecules of pyruvate
20. When glycolysis occurs, D. pyruvate is oxidized
A. a molecule of glucose is split
26. How many C atoms does acetyl CoA con-
B. two pyruvate are made tain?
C. some ATP is produced A. 1
D. all of these B. 2
21. What molecule is glucose broken into dur- C. 3
ing glycolysis? D. 4
A. pyruvic acid
27. Since there are 2 pyruvates, the Krebs cy-
B. citric acid cle runs time(s).
C. oxaloacetate
A. 2
D. carbon dioxide
B. 3
22. Gluconeogenesis predominanly occurs is C. 4
A. liver D. 1
B. brain
28. Before a molecule of glucose can be broken
C. sketelal muscle down to release energy,
D. skeletal and cardiac muscles A. one ATP molecule must be added to
glucose
23. Pyruvate is fermented when ?
B. two phosphate groups must be at-
A. oxygen is not present tached to glucose
B. oxygen is present C. three ATP molecules must be added to
C. when glucose split into two pyruvate glucose
molecules D. one ATP molecule must be taken away
D. none of the above from glucose

3.2 Glycolysis 384
29. released during the citric acid cycle. 35. Which of the following is not a require-
A. Water ment for glycolysis?
B. Carbon dioxide A. Oxygen
C. Ethnaol B. ATP
D. Methane C. NAD+
D. Glucose
30. The products of Alcoholic Fermentation are
36. FAD forming into FADH2 is a type of what
NARAYAN CHANGDER
reaction?
A. Glucose, O2, Ethyl alcohol
A. Oxidation
B. Ethanol, CO2
B. Reduction
C. ATP, CO2, H2O
C. Hydration
D. none of above
D. Decarboxylation
31. This process releases chemical energy from
sugars and other carbon-based molecules 37. The name of the process that takes place
to make ATP when oxygen is present. when organic compounds are broken down
in the absence of oxygen is
A. photosynthesis
A. respiration.
B. light-independent reaction
B. oxidation.
C. cellular respiration
C. fermentation.
D. light-dependent reaction
D. lactic acid
32. What is the main purpose of the Krebs cy-
38. What is the net amount of ATP produced
cle?
in glycolysis?
A. to produce ATP
A. 29
B. to produce electron donators B. 2
C. to produce water C. 4
D. to produce carbon dioxide D. 8
33. Fructose 6 phosphate is converted fructose 39. The process of breaking down a glucose
1, 6 bis phosphate by molecule to release energy is called
A. Hexo kinase A. Hydrolysis
B. Aldolase B. Glycogenolysis
C. Phospho fructo kinase C. Glycolysis
D. Enolase D. Gluconeogenesis
34. Which enzyme adds a phosphate to F-6- 40. How many NET ATP does glycolysis pro-
P? duce?
A. PhosphoFructoKinase A. 1
B. Hexokinase B. 2
C. Aldolase C. 3
D. Pyruvate Kinase D. 4

3.2 Glycolysis 385
41. For each NADH2, 3 ATP are made. For C. Dehydrogenase

each FADH2, 1 ATP is made. How many D. Isomerase
ATP are made in total during the ETC?

A. 32 47. The energy in ATP is stored
B. 38 A. in the bond between the second and
third phosphate
C. 36
B. in the bond between the first and sec-
D. 34
ond phosphate
42. How many ATP are produced in glycolysis C. in the bond between the adenosine
A. 2 and the first phosphate
B. 8 D. I like turtles
C. 6 48. The final electron acceptor in electron
D. 4 transport chain is
43. These 2 ATP are broken into 2 ADP. This A. NAD+
allows to join onto glucose, energizing B. FAD
it.
C. Oxygen
A. 2 phosphate groups
D. Water
B. 2 ADP
C. 2 ribose 49. How many molecules of NADH are pro-
duced during glycolysis?
D. 2 adenosine
A. 2
44. What end product of alcoholic fermenta- B. 4
tion is important in the baking industry?
C. 6
A. Lactic Acid
D. 8
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. ATP 50. How many ATP molecules are required to
start glycolysis?
D. Alcohol
A. Four
45. Which of the following terms means the
chemical addition of a phosphoryl group B. Three
(PO3-) to an organic molecule. C. Two
A. oxidation D. One
B. phosphorylation
51. Look at your diagram. Which of the follow-
C. reduction ing is the reactant of aerobic and anaerobic
D. decarboxylation respiration?
A. acetyl CoA
46. phospho glyceric acid forms 2 phospho
glyceric acid by B. ethanol
A. Phospho glycero mutase C. PGAL
B. Kinase D. pyruvate

3.2 Glycolysis 386
52. The starting point of the Kreb’s Cycle C. Glycogen

A. Acetyl CoA and Citrate D. Glucagon
B. Oxaloacetate and Acetyl CoA 58. Where is ATP synthase located in the mi-
C. Acetyl CoA and Isocitrate tochondrion?
D. Acetyl CoA and CO2 A. cytosol
B. electron transport chain
53. Pyruvate, the end product of glycolysis,
C. outer mitochondria membrane
NARAYAN CHANGDER
enters the citric acid cycle after it has is
converted to D. inner mitochondria membrane
A. Iso-citrate 59. What is a disadvantage of fermentation as
B. Fumerate a process?
C. Acetyl-CoA A. It produces too much ATP
D. Acetaldehyde B. It only produces 2 ATP
C. It occurs in the absence of oxygen
54. Which enzyme is used to produce reduced
NAD? D. It is only for quick bursts of energy
A. Enolase 60. After the NAD removes 2 hydrogen from

each PGAL, what does it become?
B. Adolase
A. NADH2
C. Phosphoglucoisomerase
B. FADH2
D. Dehydrogenase
C. ATP
55. The removal of carbon from pyruvate to D. ADP
form carbon dioxide is known as ?
A. decarboxylation 61. During the transition step, pyruvic acid is
by NAD and is removed to form
B. dehydrogenation Acetyl-CoA.
C. phosphorylation A. Oxidized, CO2
D. oxidation B. Reduced, CO2
56. Phospho enol pyuruvic acid forms pyruvic C. Oxidized, O2
acid by D. Reduced, O2
A. Enolase 62. How does glycolysis lead to ATP synthe-
B. Pyuruvate kinase sis?
C. Dehydrogenase A. Glucose provides the phosphate for
ADP to synthesize ATP
D. Kinase
B. Glycolysis splits the glucose molecule
57. A polysaccharide of glucose that serve as to create G3P
the energy reservoir found in liver and
C. High energy electrons are stored in
muscles.
NADH for the ETC
A. Glycolysis D. Acetyl CoA is synthesized for the Krebs
B. Glycogenesis cycle

3.2 Glycolysis 387
63. What is the name of the 1st step of cellular 68. These are formed during the cycle which
respiration? carries electrons and hydrogen ions to the
Electron Transport Chain.

A. Glycolysis
A. CO2 and H2O
B. Kreb’s Cycle
B. NAD+ and FAD
C. ETC
C. NADH and FADH
D. Anaerobic respiration
D. GTP and CO2
64. How glycolysis affects cellular pH?
69. How many NADH+H are produced in gly-
A. acidification colysis
B. alkalinization A. 1
C. pH cycling B. 2
D. no effect on pH C. 4
D. 0
65. The process of cellular respiration
70. Name of enzyme that forms glucose 6
A. is performed only by organisms that phosphate from glucose is
are incapable of photosynthesis
A. Hexo kinase
B. is performed by autotrophs and het-
erotrophs B. Isomerase
C. Aldolase
C. occurs before plants are able to carry
out photosynthesis D. Enolase
D. occurs only in animals 71. Which of the following is the end product
of glycolysis?
66. Which enzyme adds a phosphate to
Fructose-6-Phosphate? A. acetyl CoA
B. oxaloacetic acid
A. Phosphofructokinase
C. pyruvate
B. Hexokinase
D. citrate
C. Aldolase
72. The inner membrane of the mitochondria
D. Pyruvate Kinase
has an increased surface area due to
67. How are photosynthesis and cellular respi- numerous foldings. These foldings are
ration related? called:
A. stroma
A. Photosynthesis Products = cellular
respiration reactants B. cristae
B. Photosynthesis Reactants = Cellular C. matrix
Respiration Products D. ER
C. The other two options are both correct
73. What is the name of the enzyme that re-
moves one carbon from pyruvate to form
D. none of above carbon dioxide?

3.2 Glycolysis 388
A. Decahydrogenase 79. How many carbons does pyruvate con-

tain?
B. Decarbohydrase
A. 1
C. Dehydrogenase
B. 2
D. Decarboxylase
C. 3
74. molecules of ATPs are invested and to- D. 4
tal molecules of ATPs are formed in the
80. The enzyme that produces G3P & DHAP
NARAYAN CHANGDER
end of glycolysis.
is:
A. One; two
A. Hexokinase
B. Two; four
B. Aldolase
C. Two; two
C. PhosphoFructoKinase
D. Four; four D. Enolase
75. Location of glycolysis is 81. What happens to your pulse when you ex-
A. Cytoplasm ercise?
B. Mitochondria matrix A. It increases
C. Mitochondria membrane B. It decreases

C. It stays the same
D. Nucleus
D. none of above
76. Choose the first phase of Glycolysis
82. What are the two molecules that glucose
A. Energy payoff phase makes?
B. Energy power phase A. ADP
C. Energy saving phase B. Pyruvate
D. Energy investment phase C. Oxygen
D. ATP
77. What is the name of the process that helps
make beer and wine? 83. When ATP is utilized rapidly and forms ATP
A. Fermentation and AMP from ADP, this happens in the
presence of the enzyme
B. Alcoholic fermentation
A. Adenylate Kinase
C. Lactic acid fermentation B. Hexokinase
D. Glycolysis C. Phosphatase
78. Where does aerobic respiration take D. Cyclase
place? 84. Which enzyme phosphorylates glucose?
A. Cytoplasm A. Hexokinase
B. Mitochondria B. Phosphofructokinase
C. Stroma C. Isomerase
D. Thylakoid D. Dehydrogenase

3.2 Glycolysis 389
85. Which molecules are made during the B. Electron transprot chain
Krebs Cycle to power the electron trans- C. Krebs cycle
port chain?

D. Ctyoplasm
A. ATP and CO2
B. ATP and NADH 91. What is needed to start the Krebs Cycle?
C. NADH and FADH2 A. 2 pyruvates
D. ADP, NAD+ and FAD+ B. 2 ATP
C. 6 CO2
86. Both phosphates are removed from each
PGAL and are used to create D. 8 NADH2
A. ATP 92. What type of enzyme is responsible for ini-
B. ADP tiating the process of glycolysis?
C. Sunlight A. Phosphotase
D. Glucose B. Kinase
C. Phosphorylase
87. Which is not a product of lysis in glycoly-
sis? D. Hydrolase
A. triose phosphate 93. Which is a product of Kreb’s Cycle?
B. fructose 1, 6 biphosphate A. Carbon dioxide
C. PGA B. Glucose
D. G3P C. Pyruvate
88. The ETC makes water. To make this wa- D. Water
ter, where do the hydrogen atoms come
from? 94. What is one of the reactants of cellular res-
piration?
A. glucose
A. energy
B. pyruvate
B. glucose
C. NADH and FADH2
C. carbon dioxide
D. oxygen
D. water
89. Approximately how many ATP’s are pro-
duced per 1 molecule of glucose that un- 95. What is the major energy generating step
dergoes aerobic cellular respiration? in glycolysis?
A. 2 A. Phosphofructokinase
B. 118 B. Hexokinase
C. 36 C. Phosphoglycerate kinase
D. 15 D. Glyceraldehyde-3-P dehydrogenase
90. Where does acetyl coA go after the link 96. What is the ATP generated during glycoly-
reaction? sis used for?
A. Glycolysis A. to fuel cell processes

3.2 Glycolysis 390
B. to pay for the Krebs cycle 102. Which is not an output of Glycolysis?
C. to make proteins A. NADH
D. to replicate DNA B. ATP
C. O2
97. Which is a product of the ETC?
D. Pyruvate
A. Carbon dioxide
103. This enzyme transforms the six mem-
B. Glucose bered ring of glucose-6-phosphate into a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Oxygen five membered ring.
D. Water A. aldolase
B. phosphofructokinase
98. What happens to your breathing rate
C. phosphoglycerate mutase
when you exercise?
D. phosphoglucose isomerase
A. It increases
104. What are two of the products of glycoly-
B. It decreases
sis?
C. It stays the same A. 2 pyruvate and 4 net ATP
D. none of above B. 2 triose phosphate and 2 net ATP
99. It is where the end product of the pathway C. 2 NADH and 4 net ATP
inhibits an upstream process. D. 2 NADH and 2 net ATP
A. Metabolic pathways 105. Which of these is a product of cellular res-
B. Reaction site piration?
C. Allosteric Inhibition A. ATP

B. Carbon dioxide
D. Feedback Inhibition
C. Water
100. How many NAD are used during both D. All of these are a product of cellular
turns of the Krebs Cycle? respiration
A. 8
106. The most important control element in the
B. 2 mammalian glycolytic pathway is
C. 6 A. Phosphofructokinase
D. 4 B. Pyruvate Kinase
C. Phosphate Dehyrogenase
101. After intense activity, your muscles feel
D. Pyruvate Carboxylase
sore because of
A. the accumulation of NAD+ 107. Which reactions in glycolysis are NOT ir-
reversible?
B. the accumulation of lactic acid
A. phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
C. the accumulation of ATP
B. fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1, 6-
D. the accumulation of carbon dioxide bisphosphate

3.2 Glycolysis 391
C. glucose to glucose 6-phosphate 113. Glucose 6 phosphate is converted to fruc-

D. glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate to fructose 6 phosphate by enzyme
A. Hexokinase

tose 1, 6-bisphosphate
B. Phospho fructose isomerase
108. Which of the following is NOT an input
for glycolysis? C. Aldolase
A. glucose D. Dehydrogenase
B. ADP 114. What is the starting material for glycoly-
C. NAD+ sis?
A. pyruvate
D. pyruvic acid
B. acetyl CoA
109. the loss of hydrogen or electrons is
C. glucose
known as
D. G3P
A. dehydration
B. hydrogenation 115. What stage of cellular respiration does
glycolysis occur in?
C. reduction
A. Stage 1
D. oxidation
B. Stage 2
110. Glucose is a simple sugar, or monosaccha- C. Stage 3
ride, that belongs to what macromolecular D. Stage 4
group?
A. lipids 116. What accepts the H2 at the end of the
Krebs Cycle? (Hint:water is formed)
B. proteins
A. Oxygen
C. carbohydrates
B. Glucose
D. nucleic acids
C. Carbon
111. What is the correct order for aerobic cel- D. ATP
lular respiration?
117. What are the two reactants of cellular
A. glycolysis→ETC→ Krebs Cycle respiration?
B. ETC→glycolysis→Krebs Cycle A. C6H12O6 & 6CO2
C. glycolysis→Krebs Cycle→ETC B. 6 CO2 & 6H2O
D. Krebs Cycle→glycolysis→ETC C. C6H12O6 & 6O2
112. The activity of the enzyme increases D. 6CO2 & 6O2
when the ATP/AMP ratio is lowered and 118. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in your
is stimulated as the energy charge muscles after a workout because your cells
falls. are struggling to get
A. Glycolysis A. Glucose
B. Krebs Cycle B. Sunlight
C. HMP Shunt C. Oxygen
D. ETC D. Water

3.2 Glycolysis 392
119. The initial reaction of the Krebs cycle pro- B. Triosephosphate isomerase
duces:
C. Phosphohexose Isomerase
A. Glucose and pyruvate
D. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydro-
B. H2O and CO2 genase
C. CO2, acetyl-CoA, and NADH
125. The first enzymes that convert glucose
D. Coenzyme A and NADH into glucose-6-P are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
120. Pyruvate is readily to be converted to the A. Hexokinase
following substances EXCEPT
B. PFK1
A. Alanine
C. Phosphofructokinase
B. Acetyl CoA
D. Aldolase
C. Lactic acid
D. Phosphoenolpyruvate 126. Glycolysis will result in the production of
?
121. How many ATP molecules are synthe-
A. 2 ATP
sized from 4 ADP molecules?
A. 2 B. 4 ATP
B. 4 C. 4 NADH
C. 6 D. 2 Acetyl CoA
D. 1 127. How many NADH2 are produced after
122. In the breakdown of glucose, a phospho- both turns of the Krebs Cycle?
rylated six-carbon compound is split into A. 2
two three-carbon compounds called
B. 4
A. PGAL
C. 6
B. 3-PGA
D. 8
C. ATP
D. NADH 128. Number of steps in glycolysis is
A. 10
123. What is the starting molecule for glycol-
ysis? B. 11
A. Glucose C. 9
B. ADP D. 8
C. Oxygen
129. What are the end products of Glycoly-
D. Pyruvic Acid sis?
124. What enzyme that rapidly inter-converts A. 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 Pyruvate
the molecules dihydroxyacetone phos-
B. 4 ATP, 2 NADH, 1 Pyruvate
phate (DHAP) and glyceraldehyde 3-
phosphate (G3P)? C. 2 ATP, 1 NADH, 2 Pyruvate
A. Hexokinase D. 4 ATP, 2 FADH2, 2 Pyruvate

3.2 Glycolysis 393
130. What enzyme is responsible during the 135. An inhibitor is a molecule that binds to
splitting of fructose 1.6-Bisphosphate into the enzyme
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) and Di-

A. and speeds up the enzymes function
hydrocyacetone phosphate (DHAP)?
B. slows down or stops the enzymes func-
A. Triose phosphate isomerase tion
B. Aldolase C. is always irreversible
C. Pyruvate D. is always reversible
D. Phosphoglycerate mutase
136. What are the products of glycolysis?
131. When NAD+ becomes NADH it has A. 2 ATP, 2 NADPH, 2 pyruvate
A. lost electons B. 2 ADP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate
B. gained protons only C. 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate
C. made ATP D. 2 ADP, 2 NADPH, 2 pyruvate
D. gained electrons
137. Glucose is made more reactive by the ad-
132. It is the degradative and break down of dition of ?
complex molecules such as proteins, <br A. 2 Oxygen molecules
/>polysaccharides and lipids, to a few sim-
ple<br />molecules. B. 2 ATP molecules
A. Anabolic C. 2 NAD+ molecules
B. Metabolism D. 2 phosphate molecules
C. Catabolic 138. Fermentation enables glycolysis to con-
D. Glycolysis tinue under
A. anaerobic conditions
133. What is the main function of glycolysis?
B. aerobic conditions
A. To rearrange the glucose molecule to
be broken down C. photosynthetic conditions
B. To split the glucose molecule to re- D. hydrophobic conditions
lease energy 139. How many ATP were made in total from
C. To recreate acetyl CoA for the krebs cy- glycolysis?
cle A. 1
D. To absorb and store energy in ATP B. 2
molecules
C. 3
134. A disaccharide is a molecule formed by D. 4
two monosaccharides, or simple sugars.
Maltose is a disaccharide made out of 140. In the ETC, what is the last electron ac-
+ molecules bound together. ceptor?
A. Glucose & Lactose A. water
B. Glucose & Fructose B. oxygen
C. Glucose & Sucrose C. NAD
D. Glucose & Glucose D. FAD

3.2 Glycolysis 394
141. What product of fermentation must be cy- C. Isomerase

cled back into Glycolysis to keep it going?
D. Dehydrogenase
A. NAD+
B. FAD 147. The Krebs Cycle begins when Acetyl-CoA
(2C) joins Oxaloacetic Acid (4C) to form
C. NADPH
D. None of these choices.
A. Citric Acid (6C)
142. In which steps ATP is used
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Fumaric Acid (4C)
A. Glucose to glucose 6 phosphate
C. Malic Acid (4C)
B. Fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1, 6
bis phosphate D. a-Ketoglutaric Acid (5C)
C. Glucose 6 phosphate to fructose 6
148. Cellular Respiration pairs several re-
phosphate
actions together to synthesize ATP
D. A and B
A. redox
143. Respiration uses and , and pro-
B. endergonic & exergonic
duces &
A. CO2 & ATP, O2 & glucose C. acid-base
B. O2 & glucose, CO2 & ATP D. single replacement
C. CO2 & glucose, O2 & ATP
149. Which enzyme reduces NAD+ to NADH?
D. O2 & ATP, CO2 & glucose
A. Enolase
144. In glycolysis, glucose is converted into
two molecules of B. Adolase
A. citric acid C. Phosphoglucoisomerase

B. oxaloacetic acid D. Dehydrogenase
C. pyruvic acid
150. The starting molecule for glycolysis is
D. Acetyl CoA
A. ADP
145. Phosphofructokinase and fructose 1, 6-
bisphosphatase are reciprocally controlled B. pyruvic acid
by in the liver C. citric acid
A. fructose 2, 6-bisphosphate D. glucose
B. fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
C. fructose 6 phosphate 151. Besides alcohol, What is the product of
alcoholic fermentation?
D. glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
A. Glucose
146. What is the enzyme that forms PGAL and
DHAP from fructose 1, 6 bis phosphate B. Carbon dioxide
A. Aldolase C. Oxygen
B. Kinase D. Pyruvic acid

3.2 Glycolysis 395
152. Fructose is a structural isomer of glucose. 158. Glycolysis of 1 glucose molecule has a net
In the first stage of glycolysis, glucose- ATP gain of
6-phosphate is converted into fructose-6-

A. 1
phosphate by the enzyme
B. 2
A. hexokinase
C. 4
B. aldolase
D. 8
C. enolase
D. isomerase 159. Glucose enters cells and is committed to
glycolysis with the addition of:
153. There are 10 steps in glycolysis, how A. PFK Enzymes
many enzymes catalyze these steps?
B. -PO4 from ADP
A. 8
C. -PO4 from ATP
B. 9
D. Electrons from ATP
C. 10
D. 11 160. During glycolysis, glucose is broken down
into how many molecules of pyruvic acid?
154. The conversion of lactate to pyruvate in A. 2
the hepatocyte cytosol yields
B. 3
A. NADH
C. 4
B. NADH+
D. 1
C. NAD+
D. AMP+Pi 161. Which is not a waste product of cellular
respiration?
155. Muscle acidification during exercise is A. Water
due to accumulation of
B. Heat
A. lactate
C. Carbon Dioxide
B. oxalacetate
D. Oxygen
C. ethanol
D. phosphate 162. What is the total ATP production in gly-
colysis?
156. The products of the link reaction are A. 23
A. pyruvate and carbon dioxide B. 46
B. carbon dioxide and co-enzyme A C. 2
C. carbon dioxide, acetyl coA and NADH D. 4
D. NADH and carbon dioxide
163. Which of these is broken down into pyru-
157. Glycolysis consists of reactions. vic acid?
A. 10 A. glucose
B. 9 B. oxygen
C. 19 C. water
D. 9.5 D. none of above

3.2 Glycolysis 396
164. In glycolysis, glucose is converted to A. C6H12O6 + ATP → 6CO2 + 6H2O +

A. CO2 and H2O. ATP
B. CH2O + O2 → CO2 + 6H2O + ATP
B. Pyruvate
C. C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O +
C. NAD+ and ADP
ATP
D. none of above D. C6H12O6 + 6CO2 → 6O2 + 6H2O +
165. Which of the following is the correct ATP
NARAYAN CHANGDER
equation for aerobic cellular respiration? 170. What is the only useable form of en-
A. 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 + ergy?
ATP A. ADP
B. 6O2 + C6H12O6 → 6H2O + 6CO2 + B. ATP
ATP
C. Glucose
C. C6H12O6 + 6H2O → 6CO2 + 6O2 + D. sugar
ATP
D. 6O2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6CO2 + 171. What is the first stage of aerobic respira-
ATP tion called?
A. Citric acid (Kreb’s) cycle
166. The energized glucose splits apart, creat-
B. Calvin cycle
ing 2
C. Glycolysis
A. PGAL
D. ETC
B. Pyruvate
C. NAD 172. Which of the following is a conversion
from light energy to chemical energy?
D. FAD
A. turning on a stove to heat dinner
167. Which of the following products is not cre- B. turning on a lamp
ated by glycolysis?
C. making toast in a toaster
A. Pryuvate D. growing an apple tree
B. ATP
173. The energy of moving electrons
C. Lactic Acid
A. Gravitational Energy
D. NADH
B. Chemical Energy
168. If oxygen is not present what process C. Energy Conversion
will occur in yeast cells? D. Electrical Energy
A. Alcoholic fermentation
174. In what part of the cell does glycolysis
B. Respiration take place?
C. Photosynthesis A. Ribosome
D. Lactic acid fermentation B. Mitochondria
169. The overall equation for cellular respira- C. Nucleus
tion is: D. Cytoplasm

3.2 Glycolysis 397
175. This molecule contains two phosphate B. 3 phospho glyceraldehyde to 1, 3-bis

groups phospho glyceric acid

A. ADP C. 1, 3 bis phospho glyceric acid to 3 phos-
pho glyceric acid
B. ATP
D. All
C. Mitochondria
D. Nucleus 181. Most of the energy in ATP is stored
A. in the bond between the second and
176. What is the ultimate goal of Fermenta- third phosphate
tion?
B. in the bond between the first and sec-
A. to make more ATP for the cell ond phosphate
B. to make more NADH for the Electron C. in the bond between the adenosine
Transport Chain and the first phosphate
C. to remake NAD+ for Glycolysis D. I like turtles
D. to make glucose for the cell
182. What are the three main steps of glycol-
177. Which process is responsible for generat- ysis?(choose 1 answers)
ing the most high energy electron carriers A. Phosphorylation of fructose-2-
such as NADH? phosphate
A. Link Reaction B. Cleavage of fructose 1, 3-diphosphate
B. Glycolysis
C. Electron Transport Chain C. Oxidative Phosphorylation of 6-
phosphate
D. Krebs Cycle
D. ATP is generated.
178. The “fuel” for the Kreb’s cycle is
183. Glycolysis literally translates to:
A. CO2
A. sugar-taking
B. H2O
B. Glucose-making
C. GTP
C. sugar-baking
D. Acetyl-CoA D. Glucose-breaking
179. Glycolysis is a metabolic pathways thatI. 184. How many electrons are passed to each
Produces ATPII. Produces NAD+III. Pro- carrier NAD+ molecule to produce NADH in
duces pyruvateIV. Occurs in cytoplasm glycolysis?
A. I, II, III A. 2
B. I, II, IV B. 8
C. I, III, IV C. 5
D. I, II, III, IV D. 4
180. In which step NADH + H Is produced in 185. Where in the cell does aerobic respiration
glycolysis take place?
A. Phospho enol pyuruvate to pyuruvate A. Nucleus

3.2 Glycolysis 398
B. Cytoplasm 191. What organ plays a central role in all

metabolic processes in the body?
C. Mitochondria
D. Cell membrane A. Pancreas
B. Kidney
186. After NADH is created during glycolysis,
where does it go? C. Gastrointestinal Tract
A. to the Krebs Cycle D. Liver
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. to the Electron Transport Chain 192. At the end of glycolysis, each molecule of
C. Out of the cell glucose has yielded 2 molecules of , 2
molecules of , and a net of 2 molecules
D. to your mom’s house of
187. The first step in getting energy in the cell A. FAD; NAD+; ADP
by breaking down glucose is known as B. CO2; NAD+; ADP
A. the Krebs cycle C. H2O; CO2; ATP
B. electron transport D. pyruvate, NADH, ATP
C. fermentation
193. Which process is responsible for making
D. glycolysis
Acetyl Co-A?
188. Which 3-carbon molecule is one of the fi- A. Glycolysis
nal products of glycolysis?
B. Krebs Cycle
A. Pyruvate
C. Link Reaction
B. ADP
D. Electron Transport Chain
C. 2-Phosphoglycerate
D. Glucose 194. In the second step of glycolysis glucose 6
phosphate is rearranged to form
189. What is the second stage of aerobic res- A. Glyceraldehyde 3 phospate
piration?
B. 3 phosphoglycerate
A. Calvin cycle
C. fructose 6 phosphate
B. Kreb’s cycle
D. glucose 1, 6 bisphosphate
C. Glycolysis
D. ETC 195. A. ChemiosmosisB. Pyruvate OxidationC.
Electron Transport ChainD. GlycolysisE. Cit-
190. What is the first enzyme that transforms ric Acid CycleList the stages of Cellular Res-
glucose to glucose-6-phosphate (G6P)? piration in order
A. Hexokinase (HK) A. D, B, E, C, A
B. Triose phosphate isomerase (TIM) B. D, E, B, A, C
C. Phosphoglycerate kinase (PGK) C. E, B, C, D, A
D. Phosphofructokinase (PFK) D. A, B, D, C, E

3.2 Glycolysis 399
196. Fructose 1, 6-biphsophate (6C) will split C. lower the activation energy
in to ? D. increase inhibition

A. 1 x triose phosphate
202. Glycolysis produces which has
B. 2 x triose phosphate carbon atoms
C. 3 x triose phosphate A. glucose, 6
D. 4 x triose phosphate
B. pyruvate, 2
197. During fermentation, yeast produces CO2 C. acetyl CoA, 3
and
D. pyruvate, 3
A. lactic acid
203. Where does the Krebs cycle take place?
B. alcohol
A. Cytoplasm
C. hydrogen
B. Inner Mitochondrial Membrane
D. water
C. Outer Mitochondrial Membrane
198. Which process in eukaryotic cells will pro-
D. Mitochondrial Matrix
ceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is
present or absent? 204. What is always the first step in respira-
A. electron transport tion?
B. glycolysis A. Fermentation
C. the citric acid cycle (Krebs) B. Kreb’s Cycle
D. oxidative phosphorylation C. Electron Transport Chain
199. How are lactic acid and alcoholic fermen- D. Glycolysis

tation similar? 205. Purpose of glycolysis is oxidation of glu-
A. They have the same products cose to
B. They have the same reactants A. Pyruvic acid
C. They both require oxygen B. Acetyl co A
D. They occur in the same organisms C. All
200. How many ATP are used during glycoly- D. Both

sis 206. Which of the following happens in glycol-
A. 2 ysis?
B. 4 A. Glucose is split into pyruvate
C. 8 molecules
D. 6 B. Glucose is split into water and carbon

dioxide
201. Enzymes are useful for chemical reactions C. Glucose is made by joining oxygen and
because they water
A. increase the activation energy D. Glucose is made by joining carbon diox-
B. decrease the rate of reaction ide and water

3.2 Glycolysis 400
207. Glycolysis occurs in the 213. What is the net gain of ATP at the end of
A. mitochondrial matrix cell respiration?
A. 32
B. inner membrane
B. 34
C. cytoplasm
C. 36
D. cell membrane
D. 38
208. produces the most ATP.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
214. Molecules that act as high energy elec-
A. Aerobic respiration
tron carriers during cellular respiration are
B. Anaerobic respriation A. ADP and ATP
C. Glycolysis B. NADH and FADH2
D. Photosynthesis C. NADPH and ADP
209. Where does the link reaction take place? D. carbon dioxide and water
A. Inner mitochondrial membrane 215. Gluconeogenesis is a process.
B. Cytoplasm A. anabolic
C. Mitochondrial matrix B. catabolic
D. Outer mitochondrial matrix C. hyperbolic
210. How many ATP molecules are invested to D. androbolic
start glycolysis?
216. Where in the cell does glycolysis take
A. 2 place?
B. 4 A. cytoplasm
C. 6 B. mitochondria
D. 1 C. nucleus
D. cell membrane
211. What part of cellular respiration pro-
duces carbon dioxide? 217. Which of these is a reactant of glycoly-
A. glycolysis sis?
B. the link reaction A. pyruvic acid
C. the citric acid cycle B. oxygen
D. chemiosmosis C. glucose
D. none of above
212. Which molecule is an isomer of
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate? 218. Oxidation is the of electrons.
A. Phosphoenol pyruvate A. loss
B. 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate B. gain
C. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate C. sharing
D. Glucose D. transfer

3.2 Glycolysis 401
219. What is the molecule called that mito- 225. If 10 NADH2 and 2 FADH2 drop off their
chondria produce when they respire glu- H2 during the ETC, then how much water
cose? is produced?

A. ATP A. 12
B. ADP B. 6
C. DNA C. 38
D. 80p D. 36
220. Glycolysis requires 226. Which of the following enzyme catalyzes

A. ATP in the fourth step of glycolysis?
B. Oxygen A. Phosphofructokinase
B. Aldolase
C. sunlight
C. Phosphoglucose isomerase
D. NADP+
D. Phosphoglyceratekinase
221. How much ATP is required to start gylcol-
ysis? 227. A poison which inhibits the activity of any
cytochrome in the ETC will result in the fol-
A. 1
lowing reaction:
B. 2
A. Excess ATP
C. 3
B. oxygen production
D. 4
C. Insufficient ATP
222. Which substrate is used in the last step D. water synthesis
of glycolysis?
228. Where does the pyruvic acid produced by
A. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
glycolysis go next?
B. Pyruvate
A. the Calvin Cycle
C. Phosphoenolpyruvate
B. the electron transport chain
D. 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate
C. the Krebs Cycle
223. What does Glycolysis mean? D. back through the glycolysis process
A. Splitting of sugar
229. How much energy, in kJ, can be release
B. Combining of sugar by 4 ATP
C. Splitting of ATP A. 30.5
D. Combining ATP and NADP B. 61
224. Chemiosmosis occurs as H+ ions move C. 91.5
through in the cristae, making ATP. D. 122
A. foldings 230. The major energy generating step during
B. ATP synthase glycolysis is
C. protein channels A. hexokinase
D. none of above B. phosphofructokinase

3.2 Glycolysis 402
C. phosphoglycerate kinase 236. In the first stages of glycolysis glucose

(6C) will be converted in to ?
D. glyceraldehyde-3-P dehydrogenase
A. Pyruvic acid
231. During which phase of cellular respiration B. Citric 1, 6-phosphate
is pyruvic acid produced?
C. Acetyl coA
A. glycolysis
D. Fructose 1, 6-biphosphate
B. calvin cycle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
237. NADH is produced by the oxidation of:
C. kreb’s cycle
A. G3P
D. electron transport
B. DHAP
232. How many high-energy electrons are C. PEP
passed to the carrier NAD+ to produce
D. 1, 3 BPG
NADH in glycolysis?
A. 2 238. in which organisms does lactic acid oc-
cur?
B. 8
A. Animals, yeast, plants
C. 5
B. humans, plants, bacteria, animals
D. 4
C. Animals only
233. Which of the following is not part of cel- D. yeast only
lular respiration?
239. The structure of ATP is most like that of
A. electron transport a
B. glycolysis A. simple sugar
C. Krebs cycle B. fatty acid
D. Calvin cycle C. amino acid
D. nucleotide
234. Which enzyme converts DHAP into PGAL
240. What is always the first step/process in
A. Phospho triose isomerase
either type of respiration?
B. Hexo kinase
A. Fermentation
C. Aldolase B. Kreb’s Cycle
D. Dehydrogenase C. Electron Transport Chain
235. will cleave the hexose into two D. Glycolysis

molecules of triose. 241. Glycolysis takes place in
A. Hexokinase A. Aerobic respiration
B. Glucokinase B. Anaerobic respiration
C. Aldolase C. Fermentation
D. Enolase D. All

3.2 Glycolysis 403
242. Which type of Cellular Respiration occurs B. two

when oxygen is NOT present?
C. ten

A. Fermentation
D. thirty-six
B. Anaerobic Respiration
C. Aerobic Respiration 248. Where does glycolysis occur?
D. Both Fermentation and Anaerobic Res- A. mitochondrial matrix

piration B. cytoplasm
243. What is the end product of glycolysis C. inner membrane of mitochondria
given 1 molecule of glucose? D. outer membrane of mitochondria
A. 2 ATP, 4 NADH, 2 pyruvate
249. The role of NADH is to
B. 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate
C. 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 4 pyruvate A. provide glycolysis with activation en-
ergy
D. 4 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate
B. produce pyruvate
244. Along with 2ATP, what is produced dur-
C. act as “energy taxis”
ing glycolysis?
D. split glucose
A. 6CO2
B. 6O2 250. During which step of cellular respiration
C. C6H12O6 is carbon dioxide released?
D. 2 pyruvate A. Calvin Cycle

B. Glycolysis
245. Finish the phrase:“As the bonds in glu-
cose are and rearranged, energy is C. Kreb’s cycle
“ D. electron transport
A. broken, released
251. Glycolysis depends upon a continuous
B. built, trapped
supply of glucose and
C. broken, trapped
A. NADH
D. built, released
B. pyruvate
246. When you eat fruits and vegetables,
C. NAD+
chemical bonds are releasing stored en-
ergy, this is D. H2O
A. chemical energy 252. In cellular respiration, the electron trans-
B. thermal energy port chain takes place in
C. electrical energy A. the outer membrane of the mitochon-
D. sound energy drion
B. the inner membrane mitochondrion
247. How many ATP’s are produced during gly-
colysis? C. the cytoplasm
A. zero D. the cell nucleus

3.2 Glycolysis 404
253. How many ATP are formed in glycoly- C. Heart

sis?
D. Kidney
A. 6ATP
B. 4ATP 259. Phosphorylation is the process of adding
of a what group? from a molecule derived
C. 2ATP
ATP
D. 1ATP
A. sulfhydryl group
254. In which part of the mitochondria does
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. amino group
glycolysis take place?
C. phosphate group
A. intermembrane space
B. Matrix D. hydroxyl group
C. Cristae 260. Cellular respiration is a

D. none of the answers are correct A. anabolic reaction
255. The effect of increased levels of hydrogen B. catabolic reaction
ions in the intermembrane space of the mi-
tochondria is C. endergonic reaction
A. Increase ATP production D. synthesis reaction

B. Decreased levels of oxidative phospho-
261. In glycolysis, how many molecules of
rylation
NADH are formed?
C. Increased levels of water in intermem-
A. 1
brane space
D. Decreased levels of chemiosmosis B. 2
C. 3
256. Glycolysis requires and glucose to
start D. 4
A. ATP
262. Which molecule is an isomer of
B. water Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate (G3P)?
C. sunlight A. DHAP
D. NADP+
B. PEP
257. Which of the following is a coenzyme as- C. Pyruvic Acid
sociated with glycolysis?
D. 1, 3 BPG
A. NAD+
B. FAD+ 263. What are the two produces of aerobic
C. CoEnzyme A respiration?
D. O2 A. Glucose & oxygen
258. Which organ excretes carbon dioxide? B. Carbon dioxide & water
A. Lungs C. Lactic acid
B. Liver D. Carbon monoxide

3.2 Glycolysis 405
264. Which of the following processes in gly- 269. Where do the products of glycolysis (
colysis is not reversible? other than atp go?)

A. 3-phosphoglycerate to 2-phosphoglycerate A. The Krebs Cycle
B. The Electron Transport Chain (ETC)
B. fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1, 6 C. all of the above
bisphosphate
C. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate to 1, 3-
bisphosphoglycerate 270. The addition of a phosphate to another
molecule is called
D. glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-
phosphate A. oxidation
B. reduction
265. It is the primary energy currency of cells C. phosphorylation
and it used to fuel the activities in the en-
tire organism. D. decarboxylation
A. NADH 271. As the electrons from hydrogen atoms

move across the carriers, energy is given
B. ADP
off to change
C. ATP A. ADP to ATP
D. NAD B. ATP to ADP
266. Glycolysis occurs predominantly in C. NAD to NADH2
A. cytosol D. FAD to FADH2
B. mitochondria 272. How many pyruvates are used during

both turns of the Krebs Cycle?
C. endoplasmic reticulim
A. 2
D. nucleus
B. 4
267. Aerobic respiration occurs in the presence C. 6
of
D. 8
A. nitrogen
273. The ETC provides the energy needed to
B. carbon dioxiide make the majority of the cell’s ATP in a
C. oxygen process known as:
D. carbon monoxide A. chemiosmosis

B. substrate level phosphorylation
268. The ability to keep producing energy even
C. oxidative phosphorylation
when no oxygen is present is called
D. none of above
A. Photosynthesis
274. What is the function of Di hydroxy ace-
B. Glycolysis
tone 3 phosphate
C. Fermentation
A. It converts back into 3 phospho glcer-
D. Oxidation aldehyde

3.2 Glycolysis 406
B. It doesn’t do anything 280. What is the net production of ATP, pyru-

C. It forms fructose 6 phosphate vate, and NADH when one molecule of glu-
cose undergoes glycolysis?
D. None
A. 4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvate
275. When put in the electron transport chain, B. 4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 4 pyruvate
NADH and FADH2 can produce ATP re-
C. 2 ATP, 2 NADH, and 2 pyruvate
spectively.
D. 2 ATP, 1 NADH, and 1 pyruvate
A. 1 & 2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 2 & 4 281. What does FADH2 and NADH bring to the
electron transport chain?
C. 3 & 2
A. Oxygen
D. 2 & 3
B. Water
276. Which steps show ATP production C. Electron
A. Phospho enol pyuruvate to pyuruvate D. ATP
B. 1, 3 bis phospho glyceric acid to 3 phos- 282. Which of the following processes occur in
pho glyceric acid the cytoplasm?
C. 3 phospho glyceraldehyde to 1, 3 bis A. Glycolysis
phospho glyceric acid
B. Alcoholic Fermentation
D. A and B
C. Lactic Acid Fermentation
277. Glucose is broken down during which pro- D. All of these
cess?
283. Glycolysis splits glucose into 2 molecules
A. Calvin cycle
of
B. Glycolysis A. Acetyl CoA
C. Krebs Cycle B. pyruvate
D. Photosynthesis C. citric acid
278. The link reaction produces: D. fructokinase
A. Glucose and pyruvate 284. What is the FINAL end product of glycol-
B. H2O and CO2 ysis?
C. CO2, acetyl-CoA, and NADH A. 2 pyruvates
D. Coenzyme A and NADH B. 2 glucose
C. 2 ATP
279. Larger molecules are separated to form
smaller molecules, as in the case of res- D. 2 NAD
piration where glucose is broken down to 285. This molecule contains three phosphate
form carbon dioxide and water. groups
A. Anabolic reaction A. ADP
B. Catabolic reaction B. ATP
C. Metabolism C. Mitochondria
D. Glycolysis D. Nucleus

3.2 Glycolysis 407
286. What is needed to start the ETC? 292. What is the general term used for the
anaerobic degradation of glucose to obtain
A. 10 NADH2 and 2 FADH2
energy?

B. 2 NADH2 and 10 FADH2
A. anabolism
C. 2 ATP and 2 pyruvates B. oxidation
D. 38 ATP and 6 H2O C. metabolism
287. Glycolysis takes place in the D. fermentation
A. mitochondria 293. In the link reaction one molecule of pyru-

vate will produce ?
B. cell membrane
A. pyruvate and carbon dioxide
C. cytoplasm
B. carbon dioxide and co-enzyme A
D. nucleus
C. carbon dioxide, acetyl coA and re-
288. Which is a product of glycolysis? duced NAD
D. Reduced NAD and carbon dioxide
A. 2 molecules of pyruvic acid
B. 1 molecule of glucose 294. Where does the ETC take place?
C. NAD+ A. Cytoplasm
D. oxygen B. Cristae of mitochondria

C. Matrix of mitochondria
289. Which molecule isn’t an energy carrier? D. none of above
A. FADH2
295. Which is the only organism that performs
B. NADH alcoholic fermentation?
C. oxygen A. Mammals
D. ATP B. Trees
C. Mushrooms
290. Glycolysis has a net gain of how many
ATP molecules? D. Yeast
A. 2 296. Prior to entering the Krebs Cycle, each

pyruvate molecule loses electrons, hydro-
B. 4
gen ions, and a carbon, forming an energy-
C. 6 rich molecule of
D. none of above A. Acetyl-CoA
B. Citrate
291. What happens in lysis?
C. Oxaloacetate
A. glucose becomes fructose
D. Malate
B. glucose becomes pyruvate
297. After an additional phosphate is added to
C. glucose destabilizes
each PGAL, PGAL is by the loss of 2 H
D. glucose becomes triose phosphate atoms to

3.2 Glycolysis 408
A. Oxidized, NAD 303. Glucose molecules commonly enter cells

B. Oxidized, FAD through
A. GLUT4 Transporters
C. Reduced, NAD
B. Symports with Sucrose
D. Reduced, FAD
C. Antiports with Na+
298. Mitochondria have their own and D. Na/K Pump action
DNA floating in the matrix
304. Which of the following activates glycoly-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. ions
sis?
B. ATP
A. Fructose-2, 6-biphosphate
C. water
B. Glucose-6-phosphate
D. ribosomes C. GTP
299. In the absence of oxygen, follows gly- D. ATP
colysis.
305. Enzymes that make or break down ATP
A. the link reaction are called
B. the citric acid cycle A. isomerases
C. fermentation B. polymerases
D. the calvin cycle C. kinases
D. chimases
300. How many ATP molecules are produced
during fermentation? 306. The NADH2 and FADH2 drop off their H2
A. zero (oxidation) to
B. two A. Cytochrome carriers
C. ten B. Cytoplasm
C. Antibodies
D. thirty-six
D. Schwann cell nuclei
301. How many carbons does acetyl CoA con-
tain? 307. The waste product produced during the
Krebs cycle is
A. 1
A. Oxygen
B. 2
B. Water
C. 3
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. 4
D. ATP
302. Glycolysis rearranges a 6-carbon glucose 308. Which of the following compounds is
molecule into two 3-carbon molecules of: phosphorylated in glycolysis?
A. rubisco A. glucose
B. pyruvate B. water
C. pyrokinase C. 1, 3 DPGA
D. pyrosomes D. PGAL

3.2 Glycolysis 409
309. Where does aerobic respiration occur? B. matrix of mitochondria

A. glucose molecule C. christae of mitochondria

B. mitochondria D. none of above
C. cytoplasm
315. The process of using electrons to pump H+
D. chloroplast to create an electrochemical gradient that
310. Glycolysis results in a net gain (profit) of must flow through a protein is called:
how many ATP? A. Chemiosmosis
A. 0 B. Fantasia
B. 2 C. Induced Fit
C. 3 D. Electrolysis
D. 1
316. What type of fermentation occurs in most
311. What is the correct equation for cellular organisms, including animals?
respiration?
A. Aerobic
A. 6O2 + C6H12O6 → 6CO2 + 6H2O +
Energy B. Alcoholic
B. 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy → 6CO2 + C. Citric Acid

6H2O D. Lactic Acid
C. 6CO2 + 6H2O → 6O2 + C6H12O6 +
Energy 317. Kinases belong to
D. 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy → 6O2 + A. transferases

C6H12O6 B. oxidoreductases
312. Pyruvate carboxykinase is located pre- C. hydrolases
dominantly in D. lyases
A. nucleus
318. What is the net/overall amount of ATP
B. mitochondria and cytosol
made in Glycolysis?
C. endoplasmic reticulum
A. 1
D. peroxisomes
B. 2
313. What cells in the body may undergo lactic
C. 32
acid fermentation during exercise?
D. 36
A. Muscle cells
B. Fat cells 319. What substance in glycolysis is oxidized
C. Liver cells by NAD+?
D. Skin cells A. NADH

B. PGAL
314. where does glycolysis take place in the
cell? C. pyruvate
A. cytosol D. DHAP

3.2 Glycolysis 410
320. The conversion of glucose to two 3- C. Dephosphorylation

carbon compounds is the result of what D. Reduction
process?
A. the citric acid cycle 326. What sugar starts off glycolysis?
B. glycolysis A. Glucose
C. the electron transport chain B. Citric Acid
D. oxidative phosphorylation C. Pyruvic Acid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
321. Which of the following is not true of gly- D. Acetyl CoA
colysis?
327. What is the total amount of ATP that is
A. it is the first stage of cellular respira- produced from anaerobic respiration?
tion
A. 2 ATP From Glycolysis/ 0 ATP from Fer-
B. it occurs in the cytoplasm
mentation
C. it only occurs if oxygen is present
B. 0 ATP total
D. means the breakdown of sugar
C. 4 ATP from Glycolysis/ 0 ATP from
322. Which of the following is NOT component Krebs Cycle
in electron transport chain? D. 400 ATP from Anaerobic Respiration
A. Cytochrome
328. What breaks down glucose?
B. Flavoprotein
A. Pyruvic acid
C. Cytochrome c
D. ATP synthase B. ATP
C. Enzymes
323. How many total ATP are made at the end
of cell respiration? D. NADH
A. 32 329. Before the pyruvate that has been gener-
B. 34 ated by glycolysis can be oxidized, it must
be transported into a mitochondrion. This
C. 36
is accomplished by:
D. 38
A. Succinyl-CoA
324. What is the waste energy from respira- B. Nicotine adenide dinucleotide
tion given off as?
C. Coenzyme A
A. Heat
D. Lactic dehydrogenase
B. Light
C. Sound 330. Which 3-carbon molecule is the final prod-
D. Kinetic uct of glycolysis?
A. Phosphoenol Pyruvate
325. Which reaction adds a molecule of phos-
phate? B. Pyruvate
A. Oxidation C. 2-phosphoglycerate
B. Phosphorylation D. ATP

3.2 Glycolysis 411
331. Where does glycolysis take place in 337. The number of ATP molecules produced
cells? out of Krebs Cycle is:

A. Cytoplasm A. 2
B. Mitochondrial cristae B. 3
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum C. 4
D. Mitochondrial matrix D. 0
332. Reduction is the of electrons. 338. What is the net yield of ATP produced by
glycolysis?
A. loss
A. 4
B. gain
B. 2
C. sharing
C. 1
D. transfer
D. none of above
333. phospho glceraldehyde is converted to 1,
3 bis phospho glyceric acid by the enzyme 339. Which reaction removes a molecule of
phosphate?
A. Dehydrogenase
A. Oxidation
B. Aldolase
B. Phosphorylation
C. Kinase
C. Dephosphorylation
D. Isomerase
D. Reduction
334. How many H2O are used during both
340. The end result of the process turns NAD+
turns of the Krebs Cycle?
into NADH
A. 2
A. true
B. 4 B. false
C. 6 C. maybe
D. 8 D. not sure
335. What process takes place if NADH is un- 341. phospho glyceric acid forms phospho enol
able to be oxidized? pyuruvic acid by
A. Krebs Cycle A. Enolase
B. Electron Transport Chain B. Aldolase
C. Chemiosmosis C. Dehydrogenase
D. Fermentation D. Kinase
336. Which of the following is not a require- 342. In the first step of glycolysis glucose get
ment for the Krebs Cycle? converted into
A. NAD+ A. Glucose-6-P
B. FAD+ B. Fructose-6-P
C. Water C. Galactose-6-P
D. Pyruvate D. Sugarose-6-P

3.2 Glycolysis 412
343. A futile cycle of both pathways would C. FADH2

waste how many ATP per cycle? D. oxygen
A. 4
349. α -1-6 glycosidic linkage in glycogen is
B. 3
cleaved by
C. 6
A. debranching enzyme
D. 1
B. glycogen synthase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
344. In the first steps of Glycolysis, one Glu- C. glycogen phosphorylase
cose is broken into what?
D. glycogen hydrolase
A. 2 molecules of ATP
B. 2 molecules of PGAL 350. In krebs cycle, what do you call the 4-
carbon compound that reacts with acetyl-
C. 2 molecules of NADH coA to produce citric acid?answer choices
D. 2 molecules of lactic acid
A. oxaloacetate
345. At the END of Glycolysis, Glucose is bro- B. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
ken down to 2 molecules of what? phosphate
A. pyruvic acid C. RuBP
B. lactic acid D. glycerate-3-phosphate
C. NADH
351. What molecule is regenerated during the
D. ATP process of fermentation?
346. What is the end product of glycolysis? A. glucose
A. Pyruvate B. ATP
B. Glucose C. NAD+
C. GA-3-p D. pyruvic acid
D. Fructose
352. How many carbons are there in an acetyl
347. What happens when carbon dioxide coA?
mixes with water A. 2
A. carbonic acid is made and pH goes B. 3
down
C. 4
B. hydrogen peroxide is made
D. 6
C. pH levels go up
D. nothing 353. Which of the following is NOT an OUTPUT
for glycolysis?
348. During the link reaction (a.k.a. transition
A. ATP
reaction), electrons from pyruvate are ac-
cepted by: B. NADH
A. NAD+ C. pyruvic acid
B. NADH D. carbon dioxide

3.2 Glycolysis 413
354. The chemical reactions of the Citric Acid 359. Increase the surface area available for
Cycle take place in ATP synthesis

A. Inner mitochondrial membrane A. cristae
B. Outer mitochondrial membrane B. matrix
C. Mitochondrial matrix C. inner membrane

D. outer membrane
D. Intermembrane space of mitochondria
360. Embden meyerhoff parnas pathway is
355. Pyruvate carboxylase is an allosteric en- also called
zyme activated by
A. Glycolysis
A. acetyl CoA
B. Kreb cycle
B. Carboxylase
C. Electron transport chain
C. AMP D. All
D. NAD+
361. This reaction causes the burn in muscle
356. During glycolysis, glucose is broken down cells because the lack of oxygen
into how many molecules of pyruvate? A. lactic acid
A. 2 B. Glycolysis
B. 3 C. Cellular Respiration
C. 4 D. fermentation
D. 1 362. What are the two main products of the

Krebs Cycle?
357. Kinase catalyzes the conversion of Glu- A. H2O and CO2
cose to Glucose-6-Phosphate, Fructose-6-
Phosphate to Fructose-1, 6-Phosphate, 1, B. ATP and CO2
3DPGA to 3PGA, and PEP to Pyruvate. It C. ATP and O2
can be inferred that kinase is responsible D. ADP and H2O
for what process?
A. oxidation 363. oxidation is and reduction is
A. loss of electrons, gain of electrons
B. phosphorylation
B. gain of electrons, loss of electrons
C. reduction
C. gain of oxygen, loss of oxygen
D. chemiosmosis
D. gain of protons, loss of protons
358. Which of the following is not an end prod-
364. After glucose-6-p what does it convert
uct of the Kreb’s cycle?
to?
A. FADH2 A. Glucose
B. CO2 B. Pyruvate
C. pyruvate C. Enolase
D. ATP D. Fructose-6-p

3.2 Glycolysis 414
365. Which substance is NOT necessary for C. Phospho enol pyuruvic acid
glycolysis to happen? D. A and B
A. Oxygen
371. After the NAD+ receives electrons, what
B. Glucose does it change to?
C. ADP A. ATP
D. NAD+ B. NADH
366. In the presence of oxygen, cellular respi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. ADP
ration takes place in two stages. They are D. none of above
A. glycolysis and fermentation
372. For each triose phosphate that is con-
B. electron transport chain, then fermen-
verted in to pyruvate (pyruvic acid) two
tation
hydrogens are produced. What does this
C. glycolysis, then aerobic respiration cause to happen?
D. glycolysis, then the Calvin cycle A. Triose phosphate is reduced / NAD+
is reduced
367. Reaction to convert phosphoenolpyru-
vate to pyruvate is highly exergonic that B. Triose phosphate is oxidised / NAD+
produces is reduced
A. ATP C. Triose phosphate is oxidised / NAD+
is oxidised
B. GTP
D. none of above
C. Water
D. Carbon dioxide 373. Fermentation requires
A. sunlight
368. This is the first step of cellular respira-
tion B. oxygen
A. Glycolysis C. no oxygen
B. Lactic Acid Fermentation D. no sunlight
C. Alcoholic Fermentation 374. If Fructose-1, 6-BisPhosphate is put
D. Aerobic Respiration through glycolysis the net result would
be:
369. At the end of the Kreb’s cycle, where is
A. 2 ATP
most of the energy from the original glu-
cose stored? B. 4 ATP
A. in CO2 C. 4 NADH
B. in ATP D. 2 FADH2
C. in NADH 375. Glycolysis results in the net gain of:
D. in pyruvate A. 2 ATP
370. Fructose 1, 6 bis phosphate forms B. 4 ATP
A. 3 phospho glceraldehyde C. 4 NADH
B. Di hydroxy acetone 3 phosphate D. 2 Acetyl CoA

3.3 Anaerobic Respiration—Fermentation 415
376. What process is found in both aerobic and 377. After glycolysis is complete, if there are
anaerobic metabolism? still anaerobic conditions in a human,
occurs.

A. the Kreb’s cycle
A. alcohol fermentation
B. oxidative phosphorylation
B. lactic acid fermentation
C. the citric acid cycle C. Krebs cycle/citric acid cycle
D. glycolysis D. electron transport chain
3.3 Anaerobic Respiration—Fermentation

1. What is the ultimate ORIGINAL source of 5. What is the function of a carbohy-
energy for living things drate?(Why do I need this before a work-
A. Sugar out?)
B. Sun A. Quick energy

C. Moon B. Movement
D. Carbon Dioxide C. Stores genetic information
D. Speeds up reactions
2. When there is not enough oxygen in your
body 6. The expression “feel the burn” means that
A. You stop aerobic respiration and start a person exercising is goes through
lactic acid fermentation A. lactic acid fermentation
B. You start aerobic respiration B. alcoholic fermentation
C. You stop anaerobic respiration C. photosynthesis
D. You stop lactic acid fermentation and
D. aerobic respiration
start aerobic fermentation
7. Ethanol is a product of which type of res-
3. Aerobic respiration is different from anaer-
piration?
obic respiration in that aerobic respiration
needs A. Aerobic
A. chlorophyll B. Anaerobic in animals
B. carbon dioxide C. Fermentation
C. glucose D. none of above
D. oxygen
8. What’s missing from this equation for aer-
4. perform cellular respiration in the presence obic respiration?Glucose + → CO2 +
of oxygen Water
A. anaerobic respiration A. Oxygen
B. aerobic respiration B. Nitrogen
C. lactic acid fermentation C. Ethanol
D. alcoholic fermentation D. Lactic acid

9. Which of these equations shows fermenta- C. Lactic acid

tion? D. Carbon monoxide
A. Glucose + Oxygen → CO2 + Water
15. product of glycolysis
B. Glucose → Lactic Acid
A. lactic acid
C. Glucose → Ethanol + CO2
B. yeast
D. none of above
C. alcoholic fermentation
10. During your respiraton experiment, how
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. pyruvic acid
are anaerobic conditions created?
16. energy in the cell
A. using an fermentation lock (airlock)
A. ATP
B. using boiled and cooled water
B. ADP
C. using a layer of oil over the surface of
the reaction mixture C. NADPH
D. all of the above D. FACH
11. Fermentation occurs when there is a lack 17. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in
of A. bread dough
A. oxygen B. any environment containing oxygen
B. water C. muscle cells
C. glucose D. mitochondria
D. carbon dioxide 18. There are types of fermentation
12. To rid the body of lactic acid, oxygen is A. 1
needed; the amount of oxygen required to B. 2
break down lactic acid is referred to as
C. 3
A. Oxygen debt
D. 4
B. Oxygen levels
19. Adam’s body is producing a product in his
C. Kinetic energy
muscles that is causing them to hurt. What
D. none of above is the name of this product?
13. Which product of fermentation helps bread A. Lactic acid
to rise? B. oxygen
A. Ethanol C. carbon dioxide
B. CO2 gas D. none of above
C. Glucose 20. Which is true of aerobic respiration but not
D. none of above true of anaerobic respiration?
14. What are the products of anaerobic respi- A. CO2 is produced
ration in an animal cell? B. ATP is produced
A. Glucose and oxygen C. water is produced
B. Carbon dioxide and water D. alcohol is produced

21. How do cells release energy stored in C. DNA

ATP?
D. 80p

A. by releasing adenosine in ATP
B. by trapping ATP from carbohydrates 27. What kind of respiration does yeast do
when there is no oxygen present?
C. by breaking a phosphate bond in ATP
D. by combining ATP molecules in chloro- A. Aerobic Respiration
phyll B. Fermentation
22. What gas is released by plants during pho- C. Photosynthesis
tosynthesis?
D. none of above
A. sulfur
B. carbon dioxide 28. What is the total net gain of ATP at the
end of aerobic respiration?
C. oxygen
D. hydrogen A. 2 ATP
B. 34 ATP
23. makes your muscles feel tired and sore af-
ter intense exercise C. 36 ATP
A. ATP D. 38 ATP
B. yeast
29. The mitochondria is responsible for
C. lactic acid
D. pyruvic acid A. photosynthesis
24. When respiration occurs without oxygen, B. anaerobic respiration

it is called . C. aerobic respiration
A. aerobic D. fermentation
B. anaerobic
C. light-dependent 30. Which of these equations shows aerobic
respiration?
D. reversible
25. Which type of respiration produces the
most energy B. Glucose → Lactic Acid
A. Anaerobic C. Glucose → Ethanol + CO2

B. Aerobic D. none of above
C. Both produce the same amount
31. stage of cellular respiration that occurs
D. none of above with or without oxygen
26. What is the energy molecule called that mi- A. fermentation
tochondria produce when they break down
glucose? B. glycolysis
A. ATP C. lactic acid

B. ADP D. pyruvic acid

32. What is cellular respiration? B. photosynthesis would increase

A. the breakdown of glucose to release C. photosynthesis would stay the same
ATP
D. none of above
B. the breakdown of glucose to release
NADH 38. Aerobic respiration produces how many
C. the breakdown of glucose to release ATP molecules
FADH A. 2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. the breakdown of glucose to release B. 26
carbon
C. 36
33. Fermentation occurs in a cell’s . D. 50
A. cell membrane
39. Where does aerobic respiration occur in an-
B. cytoplasm
imal cells?
C. mitochondrion
A. nucleus
D. nucleus
B. chloroplasts
34. Which type of respiration does this equa-
C. mitochondria
tion show?Glucose + Oxygen → CO2 +
Water D. cytoplasm
A. Aerobic 40. Anaerobic Cellular respiration is called an
B. Anaerobic anaerobic because it doesn’t use
C. Fermentation A. light
D. none of above B. exercise
35. When animals exercise with a lack of oxy- C. oxygen
gen their muscles can form D. glucose
A. lactic acid
41. What molecule does both respiration begin
B. alcohol
with?
C. minions
A. oxygen
D. oxygen
B. carbon dioxide
36. Which type of respiration does not need
C. glucose
oxygen?
D. light
A. Aerobic
B. Anaerobic 42. Where does anaerobic respiration occur in
C. Lactic cells?
D. none of above A. cytoplasm

B. chloroplast
37. What would happen if the plant population
decreased? C. mitochondria
A. photosynthesis would decrease D. nucleus

43. Cellular Respiration’s goal is to 48. What is the chemical equation for aerobic
respiration?
A. make water

A. glucose + oxygen carbon dioxide
B. make ATP
+ water + energy
C. make glucose
B. glucose lactic acid + energy
D. make oxygen C. glucose carbon dioxide + ethanol
+ a little energy
44. Which describes the difference between
aerobic and anaerobic cellular respira- D. none of above
tion?
49. Why is lactic acid built up in our muscles
A. anaerobic requires oxygen, while aer- during aerobic respiration?
obic does not
A. lactic acid is not built during aerobic
B. aerobic requires oxygen, anaerobic respiration
does not
B. glucose is incorrectly metabolized
C. anaerobic respiration is never found in C. there is a lack of oxygen, a vital fuel
animals source in producing ATP
D. aerobic respiraiton is only found in an- D. there is not enough ATP provided
imals
50. What is a negative effect of Fermenta-
45. What are the products of anaerobic cellular tion?
respiration?
A. It produces less energy
A. glucose and oxygen B. It produces lactic acid which burns
B. carbon dioxide and water C. It produces less carbon dioxide
C. carbon monoxide D. Both A and B
D. lactic acid
51. recycles during fermentation
46. Which molecule is not produced during A. NAD+
anaerobic respiration? B. NADPH
A. water C. FADH
B. lactic acid D. NAPH
C. carbon dioxide
52. Which element is required during aerobic
D. ethanol respiration?
47. Which of the following is true about anaer- A. oxygen

obic respiration? B. hydrogen
A. It is a fast process. C. nitrogen
B. It allows organisms to live in places D. none of above
with little oxygen.
53. The two main types of fermentation are
C. It evolved before aerobic respiration. called
D. all of the above A. alcoholic and aerobic

B. aerobic and anaerobic 59. The small holes in bread are formed by bub-
C. alcoholic and lactic acid bles of gas, which is produced by alco-
holic fermentation in
D. lactic acid and anaerobic
A. H2O
54. Yeast can undergo respiration to produce B. CO2
carbon dioxide, but what other product
does it make? C. O2
A. lactic acid D. C6H12O6
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. alcohol 60. Site of Fermentation in humans
C. hydrogen A. Fermentation does not take place in
D. water humans, only yeast
55. Fermentation involves which stages of cel- B. Fermentation takes place in the cyto-
lular respiration? (1) glycolysis, (2) the plasm
Krebs cycle, (3) electron transport. C. Fermentation takes place in the mito-
A. 1 only chondria
B. 1 and 2 only D. Fermentation only takes place in plant
cells
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All 3 61. Fermentation makes ATP entirely from gly-
colysis. Since it takes place in the cyto-
56. Adenosine triphosphate is more commonly plasm of the cell, the mitochondria are
known as
A. inactivated
A. ADP
B. also involved
B. ATP
C. not involved
C. DNA
D. none of above
D. Sugar
62. The greatest amount of ATP is produced
57. During strenuous exercise, our muscles are
during
in oxygen dept when:
A. fermentation
A. they have used up all their energy
B. anaerobic respiration
B. they have run out of ATP
C. they are respiring anaerobically C. glycolysis
D. they have cramps D. aerobic respiration
58. Cellular respiration uses 1 molecule of glu- 63. What does it mean for something to be
cose to produce approximately anaerobic?
A. 2 ATP A. It requires CO2
B. 4 ATP B. It does not require CO2
C. 32 ATP C. It requires oxygen
D. 36 ATP D. It does not require oxygen

64. This exits the stomata and is the key to C. two molecules of pyruvic acid
unlocking the energy from glucose
D. two molecules of ATP

A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide 70. What will most likely be the result if all of
the mitochondria are removed from a plant
C. ATP cell?
D. Sunlight
A. It will be unable to carry out respira-
65. Which type of respiration releases the tion.
most energy? B. It will lose water through osmosis.
A. Aerobic C. It will break down the ribosomes in the
B. Anaerobic cell.
C. Fermentation D. It will be unable to photosynthesize
D. none of above
71. Atoms are bonded together to make
66. Which of these equations shows anaerobic A. molecules
respiration in animals?
B. organelles
B. Glucose → Lactic Acid C. cells
C. Glucose → Ethanol + CO2 D. other atoms

D. none of above 72. Which type of respiration needs oxygen?
67. What is the chemical equation for anaero- A. Aerobic
bic respiration in yeast?
B. Anaerobic
A. glucose carbon dioxide + ethanol
+ a little energy C. Lactic
B. glucose lactic acid + energy D. Fermentation

C. glucose + oxygen carbon dioxide 73. Where does anaerobic cellular respiration
+ water + energy take place in eukaryotic cells?
D. none of above A. Mitochondria
68. To make large amounts of energy, an eu- B. Ribosomes
karyotic cell must use oxygen and
C. Cytosol
A. glucose
D. Cell Membrane
B. water
C. carbon dioxide 74. Which type of respiration does this equa-
tion show?Glucose → Ethanol + CO2
D. light
A. Aerobic
69. In glycolysis, each glucose molecule is bro-
ken down into B. Anaerobic in animals
A. six molecules of carbon dioxide C. Fermentation
B. four molecules of ATP D. none of above

75. Fermentation is a type of 81. How many ATP are produced in aerobic res-
A. Aerobic Respiration piration?
B. Anaerobic Respiration A. 2
C. Lactic Acid B. 28
D. 38
76. This is a raw material of cellular respira-
tion that comes from food 82. How many ATP are produced in Alcoholic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Oxygen respiration?
B. Carbon dioxide A. 2
C. Sunlight B. 33
D. Glucose C. 4
D. 36
77. Which yields more energy and is ideal
in animals requiring energy for life pro- 83. What is required to carry out fermentation
cesses? or anaerobic respiration?
A. Aerobic Respiration A. glucose
B. Alcohol Fermentation B. the absence of oxygen
C. Lactic Acid Fermentation C. glucose and the abscense of oxygen
D. All of these are equally awesome D. none of above
78. This is referred to as the energy currency 84. Which process produces 36 ATP, carbon
of the cell dioxide and water?
A. ADP A. photosynthesis
B. ATP B. aerobic respiration
C. Mitochondria C. lactic acid fermentation
D. Nucleus D. mitosis
79. This respiration produces 36 molecules of 85. Which of the following is not needed for
ATP photosynthesis to occur?
A. Fermentation A. sunlight
B. Anaerobic Respiration B. carbon dioxide
C. Aerobic Respiration C. water
D. Photosynthesis D. oxygen
80. This type of respiration produces 2 86. Which of the following is needed for cell
molecules of ATP respiration to occur?
A. Aerobic Respiration A. energy
B. Anaerobic Respiration B. carbon dioxide
C. Cellular Respiration C. glucose
D. None of the Above D. water

87. an important way of making ATP without 93. Which type of respiration does this equa-
oxygen tion show?Glucose → Lactic acid

A. fermentation A. Aerobic
B. aerobic organisms
B. Anaerobic in animals
C. lactic acid
C. Fermentation
D. pyruvic acid
D. none of above
88. Which of the following organisms can per-
form alcoholic fermentation? (1) yeast, 94. Which is not a product of cellular respira-
(2) humans, (3) bacteria. tion?
A. 1 only
A. oxygen
B. 1 and 2
B. carbon dioxide
C. 1 and 3
C. water
D. 1, 2, and 3
D. ATP
89. What molecule does respiration begin
with?
95. What do tired muscles and yeast have in
A. oxygen common?
B. carbon dioxide
A. They both go through anaerobic respi-
C. glucose ration
D. light B. They both go through aerobic respira-
90. Breathing heavily after running a race is tion
your body’s way of C. They have nothing in common
A. making more citric acid.
D. none of above
B. restarting glycolysis.
C. repaying an oxygen debt. 96. Which compounds are produced by the two
main types of fermentation?
D. stopping the electron transport sys-
tem. A. NAD+ or ATP
91. This is also known as Cellular Respiration B. alcohol or lactic acid
A. Photosynthesis C. glucose or carbon dioxide
B. Fermentation D. ADP or ATP
C. Anaerobic Respiration
D. Aerobic respiration 97. The energy needed to win a 1-minute
footrace is produced mostly by
92. Muscle soreness and fatigue is caused by
A. lactic acid fermentation
A. alcoholic fermentation
B. cellular respiration
B. lactic acid fermentation
C. glycolysis C. using up store of ATP
D. chemiosmosis D. breaking down fats

98. The purpose of cellular respiration is to C. oxygen

make
D. water
A. food from energy
B. ATP from glucose 104. Fermentation is cellular respiration with-
out which molecule?
C. heat for the organism
A. CO2
D. oxygen
B. O2
99. Which organ breaks down lactic acid?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. C6H12O6
A. heart
D. none of above
B. liver
C. lung 105. The air bubbles and spongy texture of
D. urinary bladder bread are due to which process?
A. lactic acid fermentation
100. How do yeast produce ATP when there is
no oxygen available? B. glycolysis
A. lactic acid fermentation C. alcoholic fermentation
B. aerobic respiration D. the Krebs cycle
C. alcoholic fermentation
106. Both alcoholic fermentation and lactic
D. photosynthesis acid fermentation
101. What happens to the process of photo- A. start with pyruvic acid.
synthesis at night?
B. recycle NAD+ from NADH.
A. the process slows down / stops
C. allow glycolysis to continue.
B. the process speeds up
D. All of these
C. the process still continues at regular
speed 107. Which word equation shows anaerobic
D. none of above respiration in yeast?
102. This is the “powerhouse” of the cell. A. glucose → ethanol

Most of an eukaryotic cell’s energy is B. glucose → ethanol + carbon dioxide
made here.
C. glucose → lactic acid
A. mitochondria
D. glucose → lactic acid + carbon diox-
B. ribosomes ide
C. chloroplasts
108. The expression “feel the burn” means
D. nucleus
that a person exercising is doing
103. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in your A. lactic acid fermentation
muscles after a workout because your cells
are struggling to get . B. alcoholic fermentation
A. glucose C. photosynthesis
B. sunlight D. aerobic respiration

3.4 Aerobic Respiration 425
109. This term refers to the production of ATP C. NADH, NAD+

without oxygen being present. D. oxygen, NAD+

A. anaerobic
115. During lactic acid fermentation, NAD+ cy-
B. prokaryotic cles back to allow to continue.
C. biogenic A. Kreb Cycle
D. organic B. Lactic Acid
110. Anaerobic respiration C. Glycolysis
A. doesn’t require CO2 D. Pyruvic acid
B. requires CO2
116. The process carried out by yeast that
C. doesn’t require oxygen causes bread to rise is
D. requires oxygen A. alcoholic fermentation
111. What are the reactants in the equation B. lactic acid fermentation
for cellular respiration? C. cellular respiration
A. oxygen and lactic acid D. yeast mitosis
B. carbon dioxide and water
117. What products are made by yeast in
C. glucose and oxygen sugar water with NO oxygen
D. water and glucose A. 36 ATP
112. Fermentation occurs in the cell’s B. alcohol and carbon dioxide
A. cytoplasm C. lactic acid
B. nucleus D. orange juice
C. cell membrane 118. What molecule is broken down to provide
D. cristae energy for life processes?
A. oxygen
113. How many ATP molecules are created by
fermentation? B. carbon dioxide
A. 0 C. glucose
B. 2 D. water
C. 12 119. in bread dough use alcoholic fermen-
D. 36 tation and produce carbon dioxide gas
114. Complete this sentence:Most living A. Yeast

things use to make from glucose. B. Bacteria
A. oxygen, ATP C. germs
B. ADP, oxygen D. ATP
3.4 Aerobic Respiration

1. The precise locations of phosphorilative C. C612O6 + 2 AP + 3 pi→2 lactic acid

oxidative is in + 2 ATP
A. mitochondrion D. none of above
B. cytoplasm
7. The removal of the outer phosphate group
C. mitochondrial matrix by the process of releases energy.
D. mitochondrial inner membrane A. Ribose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
2. Which one of the following is produced B. Water
as a waste product during aerobic respi- C. Hydrolysis
ration?
D. Active-Transport
A. oxygen
B. glucose 8. NADH and FADH2
C. carbon dioxide A. carry energy/electrons to the ETC.
D. energy B. bind with Acetyl CoA.
C. make pyruvic acid
3. Glycolysis yields a net energy profit of
ATP molecules per molecule of glucose. D. make water.
A. 0 9. Which molecule is the reactant of Glycoly-
B. 1 sis?
C. 2 A. water
D. 4 B. glucose
4. Which gas is used to release energy from C. carbon dioxide
substances in organisms? D. ATP
A. carbon dioxide
10. Which of the following processes produces
B. oxygen CO2? I. Glycolysis II. Alcohol (ethanol) fer-
C. nitrogen mentation III. Lactic acid production
D. argon A. I
5. ATP is- B. II
A. Adenosine triphosphate C. I and II
B. Adenine tri phosphate D. I, II, and III

C. Adenosine triphosphate 11. What process(es) occur within the inner
D. Adenosine di phosphate mitochondrial membrane/cristae?
A. Kreb’s Cycle
6. * Lactic acid fermentation:
B. Electron Transport Chain
A. C6H12O6 (glucose)+ 2 ADP + 2 pi→2
lactic acid + 2 ATP C. Chemiosmosis
B. C6H12O6 (glucose)+ 4 ADP + 1 pi→9 D. Both Electron Transport Chain AND
lactic aci + 3 ATP Chemiosmosis

12. The Kreb’s Cycle is also called the C. 3

A. Calvin Cycle D. 4

B. Citric Acid Cycle
18. What organelle do protists use to maintain
C. Lactic Acid Cycle water balance?
D. Acetyl CoA Cycle
A. nucleus
13. Where is the PRECISE LOCATION of link re- B. contractile vacuoles
action’s process?
C. flagella
A. Mitochondrial Matrix
D. cilia
B. Cytoplasm/Cytosol
C. Inner Mitochondrial Membrane 19. The purpose of cellular respiration is to
D. Inner Mitochondrial Membrane A. make water
14. How many molecules of acetyl coA will en- B. make ATP
ter the Krebs cycle per glucose molecule? C. make glucose
A. 1 D. make oxygen
B. 2
C. 3 20. The Electron Transport Chain is a series of
chemical reactions in which energy is trans-
D. 4 ferred to form a large amount of what
molecule?
15. The reactants for aerobic cellular respira-
tion are A. glucose
A. oxygen and glucose B. oxygen
B. oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water C. pyruvic acid
C. light, carbon dioxide and water D. ATP
D. ATP, ADPP, phosphate
21. Input of the Krebs cycle steps is
16. Which step of cellular respiration makes
the most ATP? A. pyruvate
A. Glycolysis B. acetyl co enzyme A

B. Krebs Cycle C. water
C. Electron Transport Chain D. Oxaloacetate
D. Light Dependent Reactions
22. ATP is made through which of the follow-
17. Considering only glycolysis and the conver- ing mechanisms in the Kreb’s Cycle?
sion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA, how many A. Substrate-level phosphorylation
NADH molecules will be produced from one
glucose molecule? B. Oxidative phosphorylation
A. 1 C. Photophosphorylation
B. 2 D. None of these

23. What two hydrogen and electron carriers and a carbon atom to form an energy-rich
are produced in Glycolysis and the Krebs molecule called ?
cycle
A. Acetyl-CoA
A. ATP and CO2
B. Citrate
B. CO2 and Water
C. Oxaloacetate
C. NADH and FADH2
D. Malate
D. ATP Synthase and Oxygen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
29. Fermentation
24. What are the products of Aerobic Respira-
tion in humans? A. requires a ton of oxygen and makes lit-
tle ATP.
A. Ethanol and Carbon Dioxide
B. occurs without oxygen and produces a
B. Lactic Acid and Energy
large amount of ATP.
C. Glucose and Oxygen
C. requires no oxygen and produces a
D. Carbon Dioxide, Water and Energy minimal amount of ATP through glycolysis
25. How many ATP are made during glycolysis D. none of above
and the Krebs cycle?
30. What’s the chemical formula for glucose?
A. 2
A. 6C6H12O6
B. 4
B. C12H6O12
C. 6
C. C6H12O6
D. 8
D. CHO
26. The products of aerobic cellular respiration
are 31. Which one of the following is true for aer-
A. oxygen and carbon dioxide obic respiration?
B. oxygen and glucose A. some of the released energy keeps the
body warm.
C. ATP, carbon dioxide, and water
B. some of the released energy lowers
D. water and glucose
the body temperature.
27. Cellular respiration is the process that our C. some of the released energy is wasted.
cells use to
A. convert sugar (glucose) into energy D. none of above
(ATP)
B. break food down into smaller 32. The products of the link reaction are
molecules (sugars) A. pyruvate and carbon dioxide
C. makes acid B. carbon dioxide and co-enzyme A
D. breathe C. carbon dioxide, acetyl coA and re-
duced NAD
28. Prior to entering the Krebs Cycle, each
pyruvate molecule loses hydrogen atoms D. Reduced NAD and carbon dioxide

33. Which gas produces most of the bubbles in C. Hydrolysis

bread dough? D. Active-Transport

A. oxygen
39. Where does the Krebs Cycle occur?
B. methane
A. chloroplast
C. carbon dioxide B. mitochondria
D. water vapour C. nucleus
34. When hydrogen ions (protons) are pumped D. cytoplasm
across the inner mitochondrial membrane, 40. Where does respiration takes place in hu-
they form a proton gradient. ATP is then man body?
formed by a process known as:
A. only in heart.
A. glycolysis
B. only in muscles.
B. Krebs cycle
C. only in brain.
C. chemiosmosis
D. all parts of human body.
D. substrate-level phosphorylation
41. What is the first stage of aerobic respira-
35. NAD and FAD are in the Krebs cycle. tion (after glycolysis) called?
A. oxidized A. Citric acid cycle
B. reduced B. Calvin cycle
C. carboxylated C. Glycolysis
D. phosphorylated D. ETC
42. At the end of the ETC and Chemiosmosis,
36. Which of the following organelles is re-
what binds to the electrons and H+’s?
sponsible for cellular respiration?
A. H2O
A. Mitochondria
B. ATP
B. Nucleus
C. O2
C. Endoplasmic Reticulum
D. CO2
D. Ribosome
43. The Krebs cycle known as the
37. What is the very interior of the mitochon- A. Citric acid cycle
dria called?
B. Calvin cycle
A. stroma
C. Cicardian cycle
B. mitochondrial media
D. Reduce cycle
C. mitochondrial matrix
44. Which of the following is NOT produced
D. mitoplasm during aerobic respiration?
38. ATP is very soluble in and easily trans- A. water
ported within the cell B. ATP
A. Ribose C. ethanol
B. Water D. water vapour

45. Which organism go through cellular respi- 51. In the following equation, which elements
ration? are reactants?oxygen + glucose → carbon
A. animals dioxide + water
B. plants A. water and carbon dioxide

B. carbon dioxide
C. both animals and plants
C. glucose
D. none
D. oxygen and glucose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
46. Anaerobic respiration produces
amount of energy 52. In cell respiration, what is the name of the
process where glucose is broken down into
A. Large pyruvate?
B. Great A. glycolysis.
C. Small B. electron transport chain.
D. none of above C. link reaction
47. ATP becomes ADP when it D. Krebs cycle
A. loses a phosphate 53. How many reduced FAD molecules are pro-
B. is exposed to sunlight duced by 1 turn of the Krebs Cycle?
C. gains a phosphate A. 1
D. gains energy B. 2
C. 3
48. Anaerobic means
D. 4
A. with oxygen
54. After Krebs Cycle, how many Carbon
B. without oxygen
atoms from the original glucose molecule
C. to run for a long time remain?
49. Hydrogen ions moving from the intermem- B. 1
brane space into the mitochondrial matrix C. 3
is called D. 2
A. chemiosmosis
55. Which of the following not correct about
B. phosphorylation Breathing
C. oxidation A. it is a physical process
D. reduction B. it involve exchange of gases
50. Which is an electron carrier? C. it involve various enzymes
A. NADPH D. all of the above
B. ETC 56. An giraffe exhales
C. Glucose A. carbon dioxide & water
D. Lactic Acid B. ATP and carbon dioxide

C. carbon dioxide & glucose 62. Which process produces the most ATP?
D. glucose & oxygen A. glycolysis

B. Krebs’ cycle
57. Which of the following organisms car-
ries out cellular respiration?I. bacteriaII. C. Electron transport
plantsIII. humans D. fermentation
A. I only
63. Glycolysis takes place at-
B. III only
A. Cytoplasm
C. II and III
B. Mitochondria
D. I, II, and III
C. Nucleus
58. Where does energy come from? D. Chloroplast
A. Light 64. What gas do we breathe in to help us
B. Food respire
C. Oxygen A. Carbon Dioxide
D. Carbon Dioxide B. Oxygen
C. Nitrogen
59. During electron transport, protons are
pumped out of the mitochondrion at each D. Methane
of the major sites except for
65. What are final totals of molecules pro-
A. Complex I duced in the Kreb’s Cyclefor two complete
B. Complex II turns?
C. Complex III A. 1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2
D. Complex IV B. 2 ATP, 10 NADH, 2 FADH2
C. 2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2
60. Which stage of cell respiration creates
the CO2 that must be exhaled from our D. 1 ATP, 5 NADH, 1 FADH2
lungs? 66. The ATP made during glycolysis is gener-
A. glycolysis ated by
B. krebs cycle A. substrate-level phosphorylation
C. electron transport chain B. electron transport
D. photosynthesis C. photophosphorylation
D. chemiosmosis
61. How many ATP produced for each FADH2
that enter the electron transport chain 67. What is the second stage of aerobic respi-
from Kreb’s cycle? ration (after glycolysis)?
A. 1 A. Calvin cycle
B. 2 B. Kreb’s cycle
C. 3 C. Glycolysis
D. 4 D. ETC

68. Which produces the most ATP per molecule 74. What are final totals of molecules pro-
of glucose? duced in the Kreb’s Cycle?
A. Glycolysis A. 1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2
B. Lactic acid fermentation B. 2 ATP, 10 NADH, 2 FADH2
C. Aerobic respiration C. 2 ATP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2
D. Anaerobic respiration D. 1 ATP, 5 NADH, 1 FADH2

75. What describes anaerobic cell respira-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
69. Aerobic means
tion?
A. requiring from water. A. glucose breaks down to pyruvate
B. requiring from air. B. carbon dioxide fixation
C. requiring from plasma. C. No ATP formation
D. none of above D. Occurs in mitochondrion
70. What does respiration release? 76. What are the products of cell respiration?
A. Oxygen A. glucose & oxygen
B. Glucose B. water, carbon dioxide, & ATP
C. Energy C. glucose & ATP
D. none of above D. water, carbon dioxide, & oxygen

77. Amount of energy release during hydroly-
71. In oxygen deprivation, muscles convert sis of one ATP-
pyruvate to , and in this step gain
A. 20.5 KJ
A. lactate; ATP
B. 60 KJ
B. alcohol; ATP
C. 80 KJ
C. ATP; NADH
D. 30.5 KJ
D. lactate; NAD+
78. The removal of carbon from a molecule in
72. Breathing is the form of carbon dioxide is known as
A. Breaking down food
A. decarboxylation
B. Making noise
B. dehydrogenation
C. Inhaling and Exhaling Air
C. phosphorylation
D. Producing energy from food
D. oxidation
73. Which food component provides humans 79. During the Krebs cycle, each acetyl group
with glucose? entering the cycle yields:
A. protein A. 1 ATP, 2 NADH, and 3 FADH2
B. fibre B. 1 ATP, 3 NADH, and 1 FADH2
C. lipids C. 3 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2
D. carbohydrates D. 4 ATP, 2 NADH, and 1 FADH2

80. How can photosynthesis be related to cel- C. To break down glucose

lular respiration? D. To break down ADP

A. What’s produced (made) by one is
needed (the reactants) for the other 86. See the reaction below.C6H12O6 + 6O2
→ 6CO2 + 6H2OHow much Respiratory
B. They both produce the same products
Quotients is?
C. They both have the same reactants
(need the same things) A. 0.5
D. These 2 processes have nothing in B. 0.2

common C. 0.7
81. When is CO2 released? D. 1
A. Kreb’s Cycle 87. When is Oxygen taken in by the cells?
B. Calvin Cycle
A. Kreb’s Cycle
C. ETC
B. Calvin Cycle
D. none of above
C. ETC
82. In the Kreb cycle, the 2 carbon compound D. none of above
adds to the 4 carbon compound to make
a: 88. In eukaryotes, glycolysis occurs in the:
A. 2 Carbon compound called acetate A. mitochondrial inner membrane
B. 4 Carbon compound called oxaloacetic B. cytosol
acid
C. mitochondrial matrix.
C. 6 Carbon compound called Citric Acid
D. Golgi complex
D. NADH
89. All living organisms use energy. The
83. What do cells use digested food for?
most common immediate source of energy
A. Growth is adenosine triphosphate (ATP) which is
B. Make a new substance used in every cell for the movement of ions
against a concentration gradient, known
C. Release energy
as
D. All of the above
A. Ribose
84. This process uses NADH and FADH2 to pro- B. Water
duce ATP
C. Hydrolysis
A. fermentation
D. Active Transport
B. glycolysis
C. krebs cycle 90. How is glucose carried around the body?
D. oxidative phosphorylation A. In blood
85. What is the purpose of the Krebs’ cycle? B. In the bones
A. To make the electron carriers C. In the muscles
B. To make ATP D. Through the air

91. Another name for the citric acid cycle is the 97. Prior to entering the Krebs Cycle, each
A. Calvin cycle pyruvate molecule loses a carbon, forming
an energy-rich molecule of
B. Electron transport chain
A. Acetyl-CoA
C. Light dependent reactions
B. Citrate
D. Kreb’s cycle
C. Oxaloacetate
92. What type of living thing did we use to
D. Malate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
observe fermentation?
A. Bacteria 98. Starting with one molecule of glucose, the
B. Yeast “net” products of glycolysis are
C. Foxes A. 2 NAD+, 2 H+, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and
2 H2O
D. Little Bugs
B. 2 NADH, 2 H+, 2 pyruvate, 2 ATP, and
93. Acetyl coA combines with to form cit- 2 H2O
rate (6C)?
C. 2 FADH2, 2 pyruvate, 4 ATP, and 2 H2O
A. NAD
B. FAD D. 6 CO2, 6 H2O, 2 ATP, and 2 pyruvate.
C. Oxaloacetate
99. How do plants get the carbon that they
D. Carbon dioxide
need?
94. All of the following are functions of the cit- A. from the air
ric acid cycle except
B. from water
A. production of ATP
C. from the soil
B. production of NADH
D. from fertilizer
C. production of FADH2
D. adding electrons and protons to oxy- 100. NADH and FADH2 release what into the
gen, forming water mitochondrial matrix?
95. The precise locations of glycolysis is in A. H+
A. mitochondrion B. electrons
B. cytoplasm C. both H+ and electrons
C. mitochondrial matrix D. neither H+ and electrons
D. mitochondrial inner membrane 101. What is anaerobic respiration?
96. How many times does the Kreb’s Cycle A. Anaerobic respiration transfers en-
“turn” per glucose? ergy from glucose to cells.
A. 1 B. It occurs when oxygen is present.
B. 2 C. It transfers small amounts of energy
C. 3 quickly.

102. Which process involves the release of molecules will be produced from one glu-
energy from food substances in all living cose molecule?
cells?

A. 1
A. breathing B. 2
B. nutrition C. 3
C. respiration D. 4
D. digestion
108. Energy released by the electron transport
103. During aerobic respiration, oxygen is: chain is used to pump H+ ions into which
location?
A. formed from water
A. Cytosol
B. reduced to water
B. Mitochondrial Outer Membrane
C. oxidized to water
C. Mitochondrial Inner Membrane
D. decarboxylated to water
D. Mitochondrial Intermembrane Space
104. Which of the following do we NOT use 109. Where is the PRECISE LOCATION of krebs
the energy gained through respiration cycle’s process?
for:
A. Movement
B. Cytoplasm
B. Growth and Repair
C. Inner Mitochondrial Membrane
C. Sleeping
D. Outer Mitochondrial Membrane
D. Building new molecules
110. Prior to the Kreb’s Cycle, the 2 pyruvic
105. Which of the following represents the cor- acids must first be converted into what?
rect pairing of location and process? A. 2 NADH
A. Glycolysis-stroma B. 2 ATP
B. Kreb’s Cycle-cytoplasm C. 2 RuBP
C. Electron Transport Chain-inner mem- D. 2 Acetyl CoA
brane/cristae
111. Which is the correct equation for respira-
D. Chemiosmosis-intermembrane space
tion?
106. What are the folds of the inner membrane A. O2 + glucose → CO2 + H2O
of the mitochondria called? B. CO2 + H2O → O2 + glucose
A. cristae C. O2 + glucose→ CO2
B. matrix D. CO2 + H2O → glucose
C. thylakoids
112. Which of the following is an electron
D. grana donor for Complex II in electron transport
chain?
107. Considering only glycolysis and the
conversion of pyruvate molecules to A. NAD+
acetyl CoA molecules, how many NADH B. FADH2

C. NADH 118. During Chemiosmosis, H+’s diffuse

through what protein, making ATP?
D. FAD
A. Chlorophyll
113. How many reduced NAD molecules in the B. ATP Synthase
Krebs cycle per molecule of glucose?
C. Cytochrome c
A. 2
D. ATPase
B. 3
NARAYAN CHANGDER
119. Cells use oxygen to release the energy
C. 4 stored in a type of sugar called
D. 6 A. sucrose
B. glucose
114. Cellular respiration harvests the most
chemical energy from which of the follow- C. fructose
ing? D. maltose
A. Substrate-level phosphorylation 120. The number of ATP molecules produced
B. Oxidative phosphorylation out of Krebs Cycle for 1 molecule of glu-
cose is:
C. Converting oxygen to ATP
A. 2
D. Transferring electrons from organic
molecules to pyruvate B. 3
C. 4
115. Which chemical symbol represents a prod- D. 0
uct of aerobic respiration?
A. C6H1206 121. What process is the opposite of aerobic
respiration?
B. 02
A. anaerobic respiration
C. CO2 B. cellular respiration
D. none of above C. photosynthesis
116. How is oxygen taken into the body? D. lactic acid fermentation
A. Through food 122. Where is the PRECISE LOCATION of

oxydative phosphorylation’s process?
B. Through the lungs
C. Through the skin
B. Cytoplasm
D. none of above
117. Respiration is D. Outer Mitochondrial Membran
A. Breaking down food 123. Humans can respire aerobically and
B. Making noise anaerobically. Which are products of both
aerobic and anaerobic cell respiration in hu-
C. Inhaling and Exhaling Air mans?
D. Producing energy from glucose A. ATP and carbon dioxide

B. ethanol and ATP 129. What carries O2 and CO2

C. Lactate and carbon dioxide A. Really tiny people

D. water and carbon dioxide B. red blood cells
C. white blood cells
124. which kind of cells would have the most
mitochondria? D. none of above
A. brain cells 130. Where is the PRECISE LOCATION of gly-

colysis’s process?
B. bone cells
C. plant cells
B. Cytoplasm/Cytosol
D. muscle cells
125. Approximately, how many ATP molecules D. Outer Mitochondrial Membrane
are made during the ETC stage of aerobic
respiration? 131. How is carbon dioxide removed from the
body?
A. 4
A. Through the lungs
B. 32
B. Through faeces
C. 23
C. Through the skin
126. Krebs Cycle takes place in the: 132. What is the net gain of ATP per molecule
A. Cytoplasm of glucose during fermentation of glucose
to lactate?
B. Mitochondrial Matrix
A. 0
C. Ribsome
B. 2
D. InterMembrane Space
C. 4
127. Running, breathing, heartbeat, chewing D. 36
all represent which use of energy?
133. H+ move down their concentration gradi-
A. Protein synthesis ent by back into the matrix.
B. Muscle contraction A. osmosis
C. Active transport B. facilitated diffussion
D. none of above C. simple diffusion
D. active transport
128. How many reduced FAD molecules are
produced by 1 molecule of glucose? 134. After the Krebs Cycle only a small por-
A. 1 tion of the energy of glucose has been con-
verted to ATP. At this point the majority
B. 2 of usable energy is contained in ?
C. 3 A. Reduced NAD and FAD
D. 4 B. Carbon Dioxide

3.5 The Krebs Cycle 438
C. Acetyl-CoA A. Ethanol and Carbon Dioxide

D. Citrate B. Lactic Acid and Energy
135. In which of the following Glycolysis will C. Glucose and Oxygen
not occur- D. Carbon Dioxide, Water and Energy
A. Bacterial cell
137. The Kreb’s Cycle is also known as:
B. Plant cell
C. Animal cell A. The Pyruvic Cycle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Virus B. The Respirational Cycle
136. What are the products of Anaerobic Res- C. The Citric Acid Cycle
piration in yeast? D. The Berk Cycle
3.5 The Krebs Cycle

1. How many molecules of acetyl CoA at- 5. Which is a reduction reaction?
tached to coenzyme A are produced from a A. ATP changing to ADP
single molecule of glucose in Krebs cycle?
B. Maltose changing to glucose
A. 1
C. FAD changing to FADH2
B. 2
C. 3 D. NADPH changing to NADP
D. 4 6. Citric acid is formed when
2. Plants cannot release energy from glucose A. acetyl CoA joins a 4 carbon molecule
using B. carbon dioxide is formed
A. glycolysis
C. pyruvate joins ATP
B. photosynthesis
D. ATP become ADP
C. the Krebs cycle
D. cellular respiration 7. What is the second step of Cell Respira-
tion?
3. Before entering the Krebs cycle, pyruvate
A. Glycolysis
is
B. Krebs Cycle
A. Oxidized
B. Reduced C. Calvin Cycle
C. Isomerized to Acetyl-CoA D. Electron Transport Chain
D. Phosphorylated 8. What molecule enters the Krebs Cycle from
4. The krebs cycle occurs in the: glycolysis?
A. Cytoplasm A. pyruvic acid

B. Mitochondria B. citric acid
C. Nucleus C. Acetyl-CoA
D. None D. glucose

9. Which process least amount of ATP in A. I and II only

cells? B. I and III only

A. Glycolysis C. II and III only
B. Citric Acid cycle D. I, II and III
C. Lactic acid Fermentation
15. How much ATP molecules produce in a
D. Pyruvate Oxidation
Kreb’s Cycle?
10. The innermost compartment in the mito- A. 4
chondrion and the Krebs cycle reaction site
B. 2
is the?
C. 5
A. the matrix
D. 0
B. acetyl-CoA
C. pyruvic acid 16. Glycolysis, Pre-Krebs, and the Krebs cycle
all contribute this to the electron transport
D. acetic acid
system?
11. Since there are three carbon atoms in the A. NADH
pyruvic acid, the other two rearrange to
form acetic acid, which is then joined by a B. FADH2
C. O2
A. FAD D. ATP
B. atp molecules 17. In Krebs cycle, if 12 molecules of NADH
C. matrix are produced over a period of time, how
D. coenzyme many FADH2 are produced?
A. 2
12. What is a product of the Electron Transport
Chain? B. 24
A. CO2 C. 4
B. O2 D. 12
C. C6H1206 18. NADH H+ → NAD+ is a reaction that
D. H2O demonstrates
A. oxidation
13. The Krebs cycle produces
B. reduction
A. oxygen
C. activation
B. lactic acid
C. carbon dioxide D. all of these
D. glucose 19. Before entering Krebs Cycle, pyruvic acid

is:
14. Cyanide binds to an allosteric site of cy-
tochrome oxidase in the electron trans- A. Oxidized (reacts with oxygen to pro-
port chain. Which are true?I-ATP produc- duce CO2)
tion stopsII-non-competitive inhibition is B. Combined (reacts with oxygen to pro-
occuringIII-oxygen receives the electrons duce a larger molecule)

C. Decomposed 25. and are molecules similar to NAD+

D. Burned and NADH.
A. ADP, ATP
20. What 2-carbon compound is produced in
B. FAD, FADH2
the intermediate step that occurs before
the Krebs Cycle? C. FAD, ATP
A. Carbon Dioxide D. ADP, FADH2
B. Acetyl CoA 26. During the conversion of pyruvic acid to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. NADH acetyl coA, what molecules are produced
D. FADH A. 2 ATP, 2 FADH2, and 6 NADH
B. 2 NADH, 2 CO2
21. Acetyl-CoA adds the carbon acetyl
group to a 4 carbon molecule that was C. 2 NADH, 2 ATP
already present, creating a 6 carbon D. 3 NADH, 1 CO2, 1 FADH2, 1 ATP
molecule called citric acid.
27. What does the Krebs Cycle produce?
A. 3
A. Oxygen
B. 5
B. Glucose
C. 2
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. 1
D. Carbon dioxide
22. What is the another name for Krebs cy- 28. In the introductory transitional reaction
cle? prior to entering the Krebs Cycle, each
A. Citric acid cycle pyruvate molecule loses electrons, hydro-
B. Dicarboxylic acid cycle gen ions, and a carbon, forming an energy-
rich molecule of
C. Nitric acid cycle
A. Acetyl-CoA
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
B. Glucose
23. The removal of carbon from a molecule in C. ATP
the form of carbon dioxide is known as
D. Malate
A. decarboxylation
29. Which process is most closely associated
B. dehydrogenation with mitochondrial membranes?
C. phosphorylation A. glycolysis
D. oxidation B. Krebs cycle
24. Where does the Electron Transport Chain C. fermentation
occur? D. oxidative phosphorylation
A. inner membrane of mitochondria
30. What is one thing that is NOT related to
B. cytoplasm The Kreb’s Cycle?
C. cell A. Carbon Dioxide
D. in outer space B. FAD+

C. Pyruvates C. ATP
D. NADPH D. Glucose

31. Kreb’s Cycle is also known as? 37. How many ATP are made from 1 Acetyl
A. Link Reaction CoA in Kreb’s cycle?
B. Glycolysis A. 1
C. Citric Acid Cycle B. 2
D. The Pyruvic Cycle C. 4
D. 6
32. Where do NADH and FADH2 go after they
are created in the krebs cycle? 38. How are electrons extracted from the citric
A. back to the cytoplasm acid cycle for use in the electron transport
chain?
B. to glycolysis
A. Reduction of ATP and GTP
C. to the ETC
B. Reduction of NAD+ and FAD
D. to the turtle farm. I love turtles.
C. Oxidation of NAD+ and FAD
33. What are the products for Cell Respira-
D. Oxidation of ATP and GTP
tion?
A. CO2 + H20 39. The Krebs cycle is a biochemical pathway,
this is the reactant to this process or the
B. Sugar + CO2
beginning compound to start it:
C. Sugar + O2
A. ATP
D. CO2 + H20 + 38 ATP
B. acetyl-CoA
34. In the Krebs cycle, the carbon atoms in a C. Carbon dioxide
three-carbon molecule are released in
D. all
A. one molecule of water
40. Which of the following compounds are in-
B. three molecules of oxygen
volved in oxidative decarboxylation dur-
C. three molecules of carbon dioxide ing the Krebs cycle?I OxaloacetateII Isoci-
D. one molecule of glucose trateIII alpha-ketoglutarate
A. I only
35. carcon oxaloacetate will be converted into
during condensation process B. I and II only
A. 6C Isocitrate C. II and III only
B. 6C Citrate D. I, II and III
C. 4C Succinate 41. Which of the following combination is
D. 4C Succinyl CoA true?
36. Which of the following is not a product of A. 4C Malate, 5C Oxaloacetate

the Krebs Cycle? B. 4C Isocitrate, 5C Succinyl CoA
A. NADH C. 4C Fumarate, 5C alpha-ketoglutarate
B. FADH2 D. 4C Citrate, 5C Succinate

42. Pyruvate Oxidation creates a specific num- 47. Which of the following does not happen
bered carbon molecule at the end of it’s during Pyruvate oxidation?
process. What is the number of carbons A. A CO2 portion is removed per molecule
for this molecule? of pyruvate.
A. 2 B. NAD+ is reduced
B. 3 C. Coenzyme A is attached to the remain-
C. 6 ing acetic acid portion (acetyl group).
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 1 D. Oxygen is oxidized
43. What are the reactants for the 3rd step of 48. After 5 glucose molecules have been bro-
CR? (what goes in to step #3) ken down in the cell, which pH value would
most likely present the in matrix of the mi-
A. Pyruvate tochondria.
B. Glucose A. 6
C. NADH, FADH, and O2 B. 2
44. How many times does Kreb’s Cycle turn D. 7
for each molecule of glucose?
49. In pyruvate oxidation, which of the follow-
A. twice ing is oxidized?
B. once A. Pyruvate
C. three times<br /> B. NAD+
D. it does not turn C. Acetyl CoA
D. none of above
45. Which are the following are the net
products of the Krebs cycle for one glu- 50. Kreb’s cycle occurs in the
cose molecule (excluding the link reaction
A. Cytoplasm
phase)?
B. Outer membrane of mitochondrion
A. 2CO2, 2NADH, 2ATP, 2FADH2
C. Matrix of mitochondrion
B. 3CO2, 3NADH, 2ATP, 2FADH2
D. Inner membrane of mitochondrion
C. 4CO2, 6NADH, 2ATP, 2FADH2
D. 6CO2, 4NADH, 2ATP, 2FADH2 51. Pyruvate Oxidation takes place in the:
A. Cytoplasm
46. The reaction that occurs after glycolysis,
B. Matrix
but before the Krebs Cycle, uses pyruvate
and Coenzyme A as reactants to then pro- C. Ribsome
duce D. InterMembrane Space
A. Glucose and ATP
52. Which molecule is not an important
B. H2O and CO2 molecule regarding Cellular Respiration?
C. CO2, acetyl-CoA, and NADH A. H2O
D. O2, ATP and NADH B. NADH

C. O2 58. Which of the following pass high-energy

D. CO2 electrons to the electron transport chain?
A. NADH and FADH2

53. The number of ATP molecules produced by B. ATP and ADP
the Krebs Cycle per glucose molecule is
C. citric acid
A. 2
D. acetyl-COA
B. 3
59. Which process does not take place during
C. 4 transition stage of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
D. 0 A. Reduction
54. How many molecules of acetyl CoA, an B. Oxidation

acetyl group attached to ‘coenzyme A’, C. Decarboxylation
are produced from a single molecule of glu- D. Addition of Coenzyme A
cose for participation in the Krebs cycle?
60. During the Krebs cycle, I Malate is gener-
A. 2 atedII decarboxylation occursIII substrate-
B. 1 level phosphorylation occurs
C. 4 A. I only
D. 3 B. I and II only
C. II and III only
55. is being reduced in the Krebs cycle
D. II, II and III
A. CO2
61. When citric acid is broken down, is
B. NADH + H+ given off as waste.
C. NAD+ A. Citric Acid
D. FAD B. Carbon Dioxide
C. Oxygen
56. After glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and
Kreb’s cycle, how many total NADH are D. NAD+
made from one glucose? 62. Which molecule is oxidised to produce
A. 2 FADH2?
B. 4 A. 4C molecule
B. citric acid (6C)
C. 6
C. oxaloacetic acid (4C)
D. 10
D. 5C molecule
57. What is the Krebs Cycle?
63. During biochemical reactions, NAD+ be-
A. second stage of cellular respiration comes
B. chemical substance that an organism A. NADD
requires to live B. NADH
C. electron carrier involved in glycolysis C. NADS
D. none of above D. NADI

64. Whats another name for the Krebs Cycle? B. feedback inhibition slows down cellu-
A. Citric Acid Cycle lar respiration
B. Kerby C. feedback inhibition speeds up cellular

respiration
C. FADH2
D. the cell receives a signal that there is
D. Calvin Cycle a need for more ATP
65. How many carbons are there in the pyru- 70. Which of the following is NOT a product of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
vate? glycolysis?
A. 1 A. NADH
B. 2 B. pyruvic acid
C. 3 C. ATP
D. 4 D. glucose
66. What happens to the NADH and FADH2
71. The total number of ATP molecules pro-
generated in the krebs cycle?
duced out of Krebs Cycle for one molecule
A. Exit the cell. of glucose is:
B. NADH turns into NADPH, FADH turns A. 2
into FAD
B. 3
C. NADH turns into NAD+, FADH turns
C. 4
into FAD in ETC
D. 0
D. NADH turns into NAD+, FADH turns
into FAD in Glycolysis 72. The number of ATP molecules produced out
of Krebs Cycle is per glucose:
67. What happens when pyruvate is con-
verted to acetyl CoA in the link reaction? A. 2
A. Decarboxylation B. 1
B. Phosphorylation C. 4
C. Hydrolysis D. 0
D. Reduction of pyruvate 73. During cellular respiration, where is NADH
produced?
68. How many steps are there in the Krebs cy-
cle? A. The mitochondrial intermembrane
space
A. 8 steps
B. 9 steps B. The cytosol and mitochondrial matrix
C. 10 steps C. The cytosol
D. 11 steps D. The endoplasmic reticulum
69. What happens when ATP accumulates in a 74. What is the starting material for the Krebs
cell? cycle?
A. the rate of cellular respiration does A. glucose

not change B. pyruvate

C. acetyl CoA 80. What is the process that convert 5C alpha-

ketoglutarate to Succinyl CoA?
D. G3P
A. Oxidative decarboxylation

75. NADH from the Krebs Cycle moves on to B. Oxidation & phosphorylation
the
C. Hydration
A. Calvin Cycle D. Substrate-level phosphorylation
B. Citric Acid Cycle
81. During the Krebs cycle, what molecules are
C. Electron Transport Chain lost into the atmosphere when they are ex-
D. Glycolysis haled?
A. carbon dioxide
76. How many NADH molecules are produced B. oxygen
by a molecule of glucose through pyruvate
oxidation and the Krebs’ Cycle? C. water
D. glucose
A. 2
82. What are the products of the Krebs cycle?
B. 4
A. CO2, H2O, and ATP
C. 6
B. ATP, CO2, NADH, and FADH2
D. 8
C. CO2, H2O, and glucose
77. What happens to pyruvate before it enters D. NADH, H2O, FADH2, and ATP
the Krebs cycle?
83. The purpose of the link reaction (pyruvate
A. It is oxidized to form acetyl Co-A oxidation step 2) is to
B. It reduces coenzyme A A. Convert pyruvate into Acetyl CoA while
making some CO2 and NADH
C. It is reduced to form citric acid
B. Convert ADP into ATP
D. It oxidizes ATP
C. Break down glucose into pyruvate
78. How much ATP is produced in the Krebs cy- D. Break down pyruvate into CO2
cle from each acetyl CoA that is inputted?
84. What is the third step of Cell Respiration?
A. 0 A. Glycolysis
B. 1 B. Krebs Cycle
C. 2 C. Calvin Cycle
D. 3 D. Electron Transport Chain
79. What process produced the pyruvic acid 85. NAD+ is

molecules? A. A vitamin
A. Photosynthesis B. The reduced form of a oenzyme re-
quired for glycolysis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Oxidized form of a coenzyme required
C. Glycogen for the Kreb’s cycle
D. Glycolysis D. All of the above

86. Which of the following steps in the Krebs 91. The first and final organic molecule of the
cycle directly produces a molecule of ATP? Krebs Cycle is:
A. Citrate-Isocitrate A. Oxaloacetate
B. Isocitrate-α -ketoglutarate B. Acetyl-CoA
C. Citrate
C. succinyl CoA-succinate
D. G3P
D. succinate-fumarate
92. Glycolysis results in a net gain of how
NARAYAN CHANGDER
87. Which of these processes takes place in many ATP?
the cytoplasm of a cell? A. 0
A. glycolysis B. 2
B. electron transport C. 4
C. Krebs cycle D. 1
D. photosynthesis 93. In what part of the mitchondria does the

electron transport chain occur?
88. How many NADH are produced in pyru- A. Inner mitochondrial membrane cristae
vate oxidation if you started with 1 glu-
cose in glycolysis?
B. Outer mitochondrial membrane
A. 2 C. Cytoplasm
B. 1 D. Ribosomes
C. 3 94. Citric acid is broken down back to a 4 car-
D. 6 bon molecule and more carbon dioxide is
89. This is the gas released during the kreb cy- A. required
cle:
B. released
A. Carbon dioxide C. collected
B. Carbon monoxide D. consumed
C. Hydrogen gas 95. What are the reactants for the Electron
D. none Transport Chain?
A. NADH, FADH2, and Oxygen
90. At the end of the krebs cycle the 6 carbons
B. H+ ions and ATP
in the original molecule are converted to
carbon dioxides during pyruvate oxi- C. Oxygen and Sugar
dation and carbon dioxides during the D. CO2, H2O and ATP
krebs cycle.
96. Where is the krebs cycle located?
A. 2, 4
A. Outer mitochondria membrane
B. 4, 2 B. Matrix
C. 1, 5 C. Cytoplasm
D. 5, 1 D. Inner membrane

97. How many NADH molecules are produced 103. What is the order of stages in cellular res-
by a molecule of glucose through the piration?
Krebs’ Cycle for 1 molecule of glucose?

A. Krebs Cycle, Glycolysis, ETC (electron
A. 2 transport chain)
B. 3 B. ETC (electron transport chain), Krebs
C. 4 Cycle, Glycolysis
C. Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, ETC (electron
D. 6
transport chain)
98. Where is the pyruvic acid is transported? D. (this is the correct answer trust me:)
A. Chloroplast
104. Krebs Cycle takes place in the of the
B. Golgi Body mitochondrion:
C. Mitochondria A. Cytoplasm
D. Nucleus B. Matrix
99. krebs cycle C. Ribosome
A. matrix D. Intermembrane Space
B. cytoplasm 105. The purpose of the Kreb’s cycle is to

C. outer compartment A. Break down glucose into pyruvate
D. cristae membrane B. Break down acetyl CoA into CO2, ATP,
and electrons
100. How many FADH2 are made from 1
C. Convert ADP to ATP
Acetyl CoA in Kreb’s cycle?
D. Convert oxygen into water
A. 1
B. 2 106. Pyruvic acid must be first converted into
what molecule before it enters the krebs
C. 4 cycle?
D. 6 A. RuBP
101. The molecule needed to start the reac- B. citric acid
tions of the cycle is remade with every C. acetic acid
A. turn D. CoA
B. twist
107. Which is true about these coenzymes?I-
C. step NAD+ and FAD will be reused in
D. cycle glycolysisII-NAD+ will be reused in glycol-
ysis, the link reaction and Krebs cycleIII-
102. The number of reactions in the Kreb’s Cy- FAD will be reused in the link reaction and
cle is Krebs cycle
A. 4 A. I only
B. 7 B. I and III only
C. 10 C. II only
D. 14 D. II and III only

108. Every time a carbon is lost in the krebs B. 25%

cycle it attached to a C. 50%
A. ADP
D. 75%
B. oxygen
114. What is decarboxylation?
C. NAD+
D. glucose A. Removal of water
B. Removal of CO2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
109. What are the products for the 2nd step
of CR? (what comes out of step #2) C. Addition of CO2
A. Pyruvate, NADH, and 2 ATP D. Addition of water
B. CO2, NADH, FADH, and 2 ATP 115. Krebs cycle can also build precursors for
C. H2O and 34 ATP which molecules
D. none of above A. glucose
110. How many times is a molecule decar- B. Amino Acids and nucleic Acids
boxylated in the Krebs cycle per glucose C. Carbohydrates and lactic acid
molecule? D. Pentoses
A. 1
116. Which of the following organelles is most
B. 2
directly responsible for aerobic cellular res-
C. 3 piration?
D. 4 A. Mitochondria
111. In the Krebs Cycle; Acetyl-CoA joins up B. Nucleus
with a 4 carbon compound (oxaloacetic C. Endoplasmic Reticulum
acid) to form
D. Ribosome
A. acetate
B. pyruvate 117. The conversion of glucose to two
molecules of pyruvate is the result of what
C. glucose
process?
D. citric acid
A. the krebs cycle
112. Pyruvate oxidation occurs in the B. glycolysis
A. cytosol outside the mitochondrion C. the electron transport chain
B. the intermembrane space of the mito- D. oxidative phosphorylation
chondrion
C. in the mitochondrial matrix 118. In the presence of oxygen, glycolysis is
followed by
D. the outer membrane of the mitochon-
drion A. lactic acid fermentation
B. alcoholic fermentation
113. How much of the glucose is left after the
Krebs cycle? C. photosynthesis
A. 0% D. the Krebs cycle

119. Who created the krebs cycle? 125. In Krebs cycle, malate and NAD+ come to-
A. ??? gether to from oxaloacetate. What is the
chemical reaction?

B. Tim Krebs
A. Hydration
C. Hans Krebs B. Decarboxylation
D. Mike Krebs C. Dehydration
120. What is the input for the Krebs Cycle D. Oxidation
A. 2 Acetyl CoA 126. In Kreb’s Cycle

B. 2 ATP A. Energy is stored in the formed of ADP
C. 2 FADH2 B. Energy is release from ADP
C. Energy is release from ATP
D. 6 NADH
D. Energy is stored in the form of ATP
121. What process pumps H+ ions across the
intermembrane space? 127. In the electron transport chain, Oxygen
acts as
A. Alcoholic Fermentation
A. a carrier of electrons, passing elec-
B. Krebs Cycle trons down the chain
C. Electron Transport Chain B. a reducing agent
D. Glycolysis C. the final electron acceptor
D. a coenzyme
122. The starting molecule for the Krebs cycle
is 128. In what organelle does cell respiration
take place?
A. glucsoe
A. Mitochondria
B. NADH
B. Chloroplast
C. pyruvic acid
C. Golgi Apparatus
D. Acetyl CO A D. Nucleus
123. Which of the following is not an end prod- 129. How many carbon dioxide are made from
uct pyruvate oxidation? 2 Acetyl CoA in Kreb’s cycle?
A. NADH A. 1
B. CO2 B. 2
C. acetyl-CoA C. 4
D. ATP D. 6
130. How many carbons are there in an oxoac-
124. The Krebs cycle does NOT occur if
etate?
A. oxygen is present A. 5
B. oxygen is not present B. 1
C. glycolysis occurs C. 3
D. carbon dioxide is present D. 4

131. From one glucose molecule, the number of C. transport H+ ions

ATP molecules produced out of Krebs Cycle
D. split water molecules
is:
A. 2 137. When protons are pumped outside the
B. 3 matrix, across the inner membrane
C. 4 A. water is made
D. 0 B. a concentration gradient of H+ ions
NARAYAN CHANGDER
(protons) is created
132. How many molecules of ATP profit are
C. NADH gets reduced
produced in the entire aerobic breakdown
of glucose (glycolysis, Krebs, ETC)? D. CO2 is produced
A. 36
138. The bridge reactions connect between:
B. 25
A. glycolysis and the Krebs cycle
C. 32
B. the Krebs cycle and the ETC
D. 5
C. The cytoplasm and glycolysis
133. In one turn of the cycle, how many of the D. Glycolysis and the ETC
products are formed?
A. 1 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 FADH2, 1 CO2 139. What is another name for the Kreb cy-
cle?
B. 1 ATP, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, 2 CO2
A. Glycolysis cycle
C. 2 ATP, 2 NADH, 1 FADH2, 1 CO2
D. 2 ATP, 3 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 CO2 B. Electron transport channel
C. Citric Acids cycle
134. where does the krebs cycle happen
D. It only has one name
A. fluid in the mitochondria
B. Outer membrane of the mitochondria 140. What is used to make carbon dioxide,
C. In the cristae spaces NADH, ATP, and FADH2?
D. In the cytoplasm A. Acetyl-CoA

B. Citric acid
135. Pyruvate oxidation occurs in the
C. Glycolysis acid
A. Cytoplasm
D. Acetic acid
B. Outer membrane of mitochondrion
C. Matrix of mitochondrion 141. What term is used for ATP synthesis
D. Inner membrane of mitochondrion coupled to electron transport and proton
movement?
136. The energy of the electrons passing along A. Chemiosmosis
the electron transport chain is directly
used to B. Oxidation
A. make lactic acid C. Glycolysis
B. make citric acid D. Cell respiration

142. How many turns of the Kreb’s cycle does C. 6

it take for one glucose molecule to go D. 10
through catabolism?

148. The Krebs Cycle occurs twice for each
A. 1
original glucose molecule. Each turn of the
B. 2 cycle produces how many ATP molecule?
C. 3 A. 5
D. 4 B. 2
143. How many ATP molecules are produced C. 1
out of Krebs Cycle for 1 glucose molecule? D. 3
A. 2 149. How many turns of the Krebs cycle per
B. 3 glucose molecule?
C. 4 A. 1
D. 0 B. 2
C. 3
144. In eukaryotes, electron transport occurs
in the D. 4
A. inner mitochondrial membrane (ma- 150. Pyruvate is the end product of glycolysis,
trix) it enters the Kreb’s Cycle after it has con-
verted to
B. nucleus
A. Lactic Acid
C. cell membrane
B. Acetic Acid
D. cytoplasm
C. Acetyle-CoA
145. An ATP will be formed in the D. None of the above
A. Oxidative decarboxylation
151. The following are the products of the
B. Isomerization kreb cycle.
C. Substrate level phosphorylation A. ATP only
D. Oxidation & phosphorylation B. NADH, FADH2, ATP and Carbon Dioxide
146. What is the first step of Cell Respira-
tion? C. NADH only
A. Glycolysis D. Pyruvate and NADH
B. Krebs Cycle 152. During the intermediate process of cellu-

lar respiration, the oxidation of pyruvate,
C. Calvin Cycle
which of the following does NOT occur?
D. Electron Transport Chain
A. NAD+ is reduced
147. After glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and B. An electron donor is produced (NADH)
Kreb’s cycle, how many net ATP are made
from one glucose? C. Carbon dioxide is produced
A. 2 D. A 3-carbon molecule of Acetyl CoA is
B. 4 produced

3.6 Structure of the Mitochondrion 452
153. The inner most interior of the mitochon- D. NAD+

dria, where the Krebs Cycle happens is
called the 157. In the bridge reaction, each pyruvate
molecule loses electrons, hydrogen ions,
A. Mitochondrial membrane
and a carbon, forming an energy-rich
B. Mitochondrial matrix molecule of
C. Mitochondrial stroma A. Acetyl-CoA
D. Mitochondrial chloroplast B. Citrate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
154. What are the reactants for Cell Respira- C. Oxaloacetate
tion? D. Malate
A. CO2 + H20
158. Which passes high energy electrons into
B. Sugar + CO2
the electron transport chain
C. Sugar + O2
A. NADH & FADH2
D. CO2 + H20 + 38 ATP
B. ATP & ADP
155. Acetyl CoA is derived from C. citric acid
A. Glucose D. acetyl CoA
B. Acetyl CoA
159. The number of ATP molecules produced
C. Carbon dioxide
per glucose molecule that undergoes the
D. Pyruvate Krebs Cycle and its introductory transi-
tional reaction is:
156. What does acetyl-CoA combine with to
produce citric acid? A. 2
A. 4-carbon compound B. 3
B. 2-carbon compound C. 4
C. pyruvic acid D. 0
3.6 Structure of the Mitochondrion

1. The difference in pH between the mitochon- A. Intermembrane space higher; matrix
drial matrix and the intermembrane space lower
is maintained by
B. Matrix higher; intermembrane space
A. Glycolysis lower
B. Link Reaction C. Both are in equilibrium
C. Krebs Cycle D. Varies depending on environment
D. ETC 3. How many membranes does the mitochon-

dria have?
2. Which option correctly describes the rela-
A. 1
tive pH in different parts of the mitochon-
dria. B. 3

C. 2 9. A structure not found in animal cells

D. 0 A. cell wall

4. How many major domains are subdivided B. cell membrane
in the inner mitochondrial membrane? C. nucleus
A. 2 D. mitochondria
B. 1 10. What are the names of the membranes of
C. 4 the mitochondria?
D. 3 A. Cristae and electron
B. outer membrane and inner membrane
5. What is the cristae?
A. proteins responsible for the import of
C. outer mitochondrial and inner mito-
mitochondrial matrix proteins
chondrial membrane
B. energy transducers
D. none of above
C. many deep folds that are characteris-
tics of the inner mitochondrial membrane 11. What is a porins?
A. proteins
D. none of above B. ATP
6. In contrast, the inner membrane are C. integral proteins that have relatively
large internal channel surrounded by a
A. freely permeable to molecules like
barrel of β strands
ATP, NAD, and coenzyme A
D. the what?
B. have large channels
C. impermeable; all molecules and ions 12. What is a mitochondrial fusion?
require special membrane transporters to A. A what?
gain entrance to the matrix.
B. Where mitochondria can fuse with one
D. none of above another
7. which of the following is part of the mito- C. interconnected tubular network
chondria D. none of above
A. outer membrane
13. Which one of the following is a function of
B. DNA mine?
C. matrix A. Controlling the cell
D. all of the above B. respirating the cell
8. Contains enzymes for the linking reaction C. Holding all organelles
and Krebs cycle. D. Protecting the cell from the outside
A. cristae 14. Which is the best term to describe the
B. matrix shape of a mitochondria?
C. inner membrane A. Cone shaped
D. outer membrane B. Rod shaped

C. Spherical 20. What am I?

D. Plesiomorphic A. A Cell
B. A plant
15. Found in most animal cells
C. A bacteria
A. vacuole, cell membrane, mitochondria
D. An Organelle
B. Mitochondria, chloroplast, nucleus 21. Which of the following carry out photosyn-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
thesis?
C. cytoplasm, nucleus, mitochondria
A. bees
D. cell wall, cell membrane, nucleus
B. red algae
16. Matrix has a like consistency owing C. humans
to the presence of a high concentration of
D. mushrooms
water-soluble proteins.
A. water 22. Has transport proteins to move pyruvate
into mitochondria.
B. dry
A. cristae
C. gel
B. matrix
D. air
C. inner membrane
17. What absorbs energy from visible light? D. outer membrane
A. Chlorophyll 23. How do I look Like?
B. Chloroplast A. Square
C. Stroma B. Rectangular
D. Carbon Dioxide C. Circular
D. Oval
18. In eukaryotes, which organelle uses oxy-
gen as a mean of energy extraction? 24. Vacuoles are small in whereas vac-
uoles are large and prominent in
A. Rough ER
A. Plant cell, Animal cell
B. Golgi
B. Animal cell, Plant cell
C. Nucleus
C. none of the above
D. Mitochondria
D. none of above
19. The cell structure that contains the cell’s 25. The outer membrane composed of %
genetic material (DNA) is the? lipid by weight.
A. cytoplasm A. 20
B. chloroplast B. 15
C. nucleus C. 40
D. cell membrane D. 50

26. What organism give rise to all of the B. cell wall

oxygen-dependent prokaryotes and eu- C. cell membrane
karyotes?

D. mitochondrion
A. Protist
B. Aerobes 32. What is the function of the intermembrane
space of the mitochondria?
C. Anaerobes
A. space where H+ ions accumulate
D. Cyanobacteria quickly for ATP synthesis
27. The inner membrane of the mitochondria is B. space where electrons accumulate for
studded with which molecules? ATP synthesis
A. Integral proteins and ATP dehydroge- C. to increase the surface area to volume
nase ratio for ATP production
B. ATP synthase molecules D. none of above
C. Lipids and glycolipids 33. How much does the mitochondria occupy in
D. Cholinesterase inhibitors a mammal liver cell?
A. 15%
28. Where do the light-dependent reactions oc-
cur? B. 30-35%
A. thylakoid membrane C. 20%
B. stroma D. 15-20%
C. lumen 34. Choose the correct property for the vac-
D. mitochondria uole of a plant cell.
A. Thick layer around the cell
29. A cell structure that is a rigid layer that
supports the cell and provides shape is B. Contains large amount of water
the? C. Contains non green pigments
A. cell membrane D. Contains green pigments
B. cell wall
35. is the powerhouse of the cell
C. cytoplasm
A. Golgi body
D. nucleus
B. Mitochondria
30. The cell structure that converts the sun’s C. None of the above
energy into food (sugar) is the? D. none of above
A. mitochondrion
36. The cell structure that converts the energy
B. chloroplast in food into usable energy for the cell is
C. cell wall the?
D. cell membrane A. mitochondrion
31. A cell boundary that controls what enters B. cell wall

and leaves the cell? C. chloroplast
A. cytoplasm D. nucleus

3.7 Oxidative Phosphorylation 456
3.7 Oxidative Phosphorylation

1. NADH dehydrogenase: 6. As electrons travel down the electron
transport chain, they release
A. Transfer electrons
A. ADP
B. Oxidizes glucose
B. Energy
C. is the ultimate source of energy in the
citric acid cycle C. ATP
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Hydrogen ion
D. Transfer phosphate to ATP
7. Which of the following components of the
2. ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is driven electron transport chain only accepts elec-
by trons, and does not donate them?
A. H+ movement A. Cytochrome b
B. electron movement B. FMN
C. NADH movement C. Oxygen
D. FADH2 movement D. Coenzyme Q
3. What are the byproducts of cellular respi- 8. Catalyzes the oxidation of succinic acid to
ration? form fumarate and the reduction of coen-
zyme Q10 to ubiquinone (QH2).
A. NADH and ATP
A. NADH-Coenzyme Q Oxidoreductase
B. oxygen and heat
B. Succinic-Coenzyme Q Oxidoreductase
C. FADH2 and NADH C. Coenzyme Q-cytochrome C Reductase
D. CO2 and H2O D. Cytochrome c Oxidase
4. Which process takes place in the presence 9. How many ATP molecules are produced
of oxygen and produces nearly 20 times during complete breakdown of glucose in
as much as ATP as glycolysis alone? a liver cell?
A. photosynthesis A. 28
B. lactic acid fermentation B. 30
C. aerobic respiration C. 36
D. alcoholic fermentation D. 39
10. Which of the following is an electron donor

5. How many ATP molecules are produced per
for succinate dehydrogenase in electron
FADH2?
transport chain?
A. 1 A. NAD+
B. 2 B. FADH2
C. 3 C. NADH
D. 4 D. FAD

11. Which molecule enters the Krebs Cycle di- C. citric acid
rectly? D. acetyl CoA

A. Pyruvate
17. Describe what would happen if the mito-
B. Glucose chondrial inner membrane was ruptured.
C. Acetyl CoA A. ATP synthesis would be inhibited
D. reducing powers B. ATP synthesis would be promoted
12. Which of the following is necessary for ox- C. The electron transport chain would in-
idative phosporylation to occur? crease in activity
A. ATP D. The electron transport chain would de-

crease in activity
B. carbon dioxide
18. Complex V spans the IM space and con-
C. oxygen
tains a portion that is found in the matrix,
D. actic acid its function is to catalyze ATP synthesis
from ADP + Pi.
13. NADH generate?
A. Cytochrome
A. 1 ATP
B. Flavoprotein
B. 2 ATP
C. Cytochrome c
C. 3 ATP
D. ATP synthase
D. 4 ATP
19. Which direction are protons pumped during
14. Electron transport helps establish a the electron transport chain?
that powers ATP production.
A. Into the mitochondrial matrix
A. proton gradient B. Into the intermembrane space
B. vacuole C. Into the cytosol
C. peroxisome D. Into the thylakoid
D. power vault
20. Definition:The movement of proton across
15. ATP synthase synthesis ATP and release membrane through ATP synthase catalyze
ATP into the synthesis of ATP
A. innermembrane of mitochonndria A. Electron transport chain(ETC)
B. matrix of mitochondria B. Chemiosmosis
C. intermembrane space of mitochondria C. Oxidative Phosphorylation

D. Krebs Cycle
D. outermembrane of mitochondria 21. Which part of the cell will have the highest
pH due to cellular respiration?
16. Which passes electrons from the original
glucose molecule into the electron trans- A. cytosol
port chain B. matrix
A. NADH & FADH2 C. intermembrane space
B. ATP & ADP D. thylakoid

22. Which of the following substance is not di- 27. Which of the following gets pumped into
rectly involved in oxidative phosphoryla- the intermembrane space?
tion?
A. FADH2
A. NADH and FADH2
B. O2
B. ADP
C. H+
C. Glucose
D. Oxygen D. NAD+
NARAYAN CHANGDER
23. The primary role of oxygen in cellular res- 28. How much ATP per glucose produce dur-
piration is to ing Oxidative Phosphorylation in active
A. yield energy in the form of ATP as it is cells?
passed down the respiratory chain. A. 2 ATPs
B. act as an acceptor for electrons and
B. 6 ATPs
hydrogen, forming water.
C. combine with carbon, forming CO2. C. 18 ATPs
D. combine with lactate, forming pyru- D. 38 ATPs

vate.
29. What is the final product of the Oxidative
24. Cyanide is a metabolic poison that stops Phosphorylation?
the electron transport chain by directly
blocking the actions of A. ATP
A. NAD+ B. NADH
B. NADH dehyrogenase C. FADH2
C. ATP sythase D. ADP
D. Cytochrome oxidase
30. What does NADH do during cellular respi-
25. The enzymes and molecules in cells only ration?
recognize as the energy-provided coen-
zyme A. it delivers its electron load to the first
electron carrier molecule
A. ADP
B. it is reduced to form NAD+
B. ATP
C. Glucose C. it is chemically converted into ATP
D. NADH D. it acts as the final electron acceptor
26. Which of the following is not a feature of 31. FUN FACT:How many ATPs are synthe-
oxidative phosphorylation? sized from the energy carried by NADH
A. Direct transfer of phosphate from a and FADH2 (on average)?
substrate molecule to ADP
A. 1 NADH = 1 ATP; 1 FADH2 = 1 ATP
B. An electrochemical gradient across
the inner mitochondrial membrane B. 1 NADH = 2 ATP; 1 FADH2 = 1 ATP
C. A membrane bound ATP synthase C. 1 NADH = 3 ATP; 1 FADH2 = 2 ATP

D. A proton motive force D. 1 NADH = 2 ATP; 1 FADH2 = 3 ATP

32. Complex 1:transfers 2 e-and 4 protons to 37. The ATP made during fermentation (includ-
the IMS ing glycolysis) is generated by which of
the following?

A. NADH-Coenzyme Q Oxidoreductase
A. the electron transport chain
B. Succinic-Coenzyme Q Oxidoreductase
B. substrate-level phosphorylation
C. Coenzyme Q-cytochrome C Reductase
C. chemiosmosis
D. Cytochrome c Oxidase
D. oxidative phosphorylation
33. What is pyruvate? 38. The main purpose of anaerobic respiration
A. A six carbon molecule is to
B. a molecule formed at the end of glycol- A. produce oxygen
ysis B. replenish NAD+ for glycolysis
C. the molecule that starts the citric acid C. replenish oxaloacetic acid for the
cycle Krebs cycle
D. the end product of the electron trans- D. produce ATP
port chain
39. In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as hydro-
34. During which of the following phases gen ions(H+) pass through:
does substrate-level phosphorylation take A. The outer mitochondrial membrane
place? B. ATP Synthase
A. the citric acid cycle C. A series of electron carriers
B. glycolysis and the citric acid cycle D. None of the above
C. the electron transport chain
40. Where is the location of ETC occur?
D. glycolysis A. inner membrane of mitochondria in-
cluding matrix
35. What type of chemical reaction in which a
substance gains electron? B. Inner membrane of mitochondria in-
cluding outer membrane
A. Reduction
C. Inner membrane of mitochondria in-
B. Oxidation cluding intermembrane space
C. Decarboxylation D. Inner membrane of mitochondria in-
D. Dehydrogenation cluding cristae
41. The final electron acceptor in respiration is

36. The electron transport chain (ETC) makes
that chemically combines with to
water. To make this water, where do the
produce by the enzyme cytochrome ox-
hydrogen atoms come from?
idase.
A. glucose A. water:hydrogen:oxygen
B. pyruvate B. hydrogen:oxygen:water
C. NADH and FADH C. hydrogen:water:oxygen
D. oxygen D. oxygen:hydrogen:water

42. Identify which process happens immedi- B. 32-34

ately BEFORE the citric acid cycle? C. 2-4
A. ETC and oxidative phosphorylation D. 48-50
B. glycolysis
48. After strenuous exercise, a muscle cell
C. Calvin cycle would contain decreased amounts of
D. fermentation and increased amounts of
A. glucose ATP
NARAYAN CHANGDER
43. A patient is in septic shock and his tissues
are poorly perfused and oxygenated. The B. ATP glucose
major end product of glucose metabolism C. oxygen lactic acid
in these tissues will be an accumulation of
which of the followings? D. lactic acid ATP
A. Pyruvate 49. Which of the following is not a feature of

oxidative phosphorylation?A.B.C.D.
B. Lactate
A. Direct transfer of phosphate from a
C. Acetyl CoA
substrate molecule to ADP
D. Citrate
B. An electrochemical gradient across
44. What stage produces the greatest amount the inner mitochondrial membrane
of ATP? C. A membrane bound ATP synthase
A. Chemiosmosis D. A proton motive force
B. Krebs Cycle
50. Energy released by the Electron Transport
C. Electron Transport Chain Chain is used to pump proton into which
D. Glycolysis location?
A. Cytosol
45. What is the final electron acceptor in the
electron transport system? B. Mitochondrial outer membrane
A. Cytochrome C C. Mitochondrial inner membrane
B. Ubiquinone D. Mitochondrial intermembrane space
C. Oxygen 51. What is the product of NADH when under-
D. Water goes oxidation?
A. NAD+ + H+
46. Where does oxidative phosphorylation
take place? B. NADH+ + H+
A. Cytosol C. NaD+ + H+
B. Matrix of mitochondria D. NA+ + H+
C. Innermembrane of mitochondria 52. What is the final electron acceptor?
D. Intermembrane space of mitochondria A. Dehydrogenase
47. How many ATP are produced during Elec- B. NADH

tron Transport Phosphorylation? C. Water
A. 25-27 D. Oxygen

3.8 Chemiosmosis 461
53. Which of the following will yield the most 54. What is the final product of the Electron
ATP when consumed? Transport Chain?

A. fat A. ATP
B. protein B. NADH
C. glucose C. FADH2
D. starch D. ADP
3.8 Chemiosmosis
1. As protons flow back across the mem- port chain work (why is it that electrons
brane, ATP synthesis is catalyzed by move from one part of the chain to an-
A. proton-motive force other)?
B. substrate level phosphorylation A. Reduction and oxidation
C. pumping of protons B. Anabolism
D. electron transport C. Diffusion
2. By what principle does the electron trans- D. Exocytosis

4. Photosynthesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
4.1 Photosynthetic Pigments
1. Light energy is captured and stored in C. Argon
which of the following molecules
D. Oxygen
A. Oxygen
B. ATP & NADPH 5. The light dependent reaction occur in the
C. ADP & NADP+ A. Stomata
D. CO2 B. Stroma
2. How does the redness in leaves protect C. Thylakoid
them?
D. Mitochondria
A. The red blocks sun damage.
B. The red helps them fall off. 6. The process of manufacturing food by the
leaves.
C. The red helps them be seen by birds.
D. none of above A. Transpiration
3. The 2 bean shaped cells that make up the B. Photosynthesis

stomata are C. Pollination
A. Guard cells D. Venation
B. Wall cells
C. Chloroplasts 7. Other than photosynthesis, what function
do pigments have
D. Thylakoids
A. Protection
4. What waste gas is produced by photosyn-
thesis? B. Take in CO2
A. Carbon Dioxide C. Store oxygen

B. Nitrogen D. Remove toxins

4.1 Photosynthetic Pigments 463
8. The light independent reactions are also 14. The pigment responsible for yellow and or-
called the ange colors in leaves is:

A. Calvin Cycle A. anthocyanins
B. storage reactions B. chlorophyll
C. the Kreb cycle
C. carotenoids
D. the ion cycle
D. melanin
9. Cretinoids, xanthophils and anthocyannins
are all 15. What does the stem of the plant do?
A. Pigments A. It makes food for the plant.
B. Proteins B. It takes in the water from the ground.
C. Pores in the plant
D. Green C. It transports water to the other parts
of the plant.
10. The part of leaf attached to stem.
D. It exchanges gases with the surround-
A. Petiole
ings.
B. Lamina
C. Bud 16. A combination of all the wavelengths with
in the visible light portion of the electro-
D. Veins magnetic spectrum will result in which of
11. What is the name of the pigment in plants the following colors?
that absorb sunlight for photosynthesis? A. White
A. chloroplast B. Red
B. thylakoid
C. Violet
C. grana
D. Blue
D. chlorophyll
17. The product of the Calvin cycle is
12. What are the 3 key ingredients needed for
photosynthesis A. glucose
A. glucose, oxygen, carbon dioxide B. polysaccaride
B. carbon dioxide, water, glucose C. CO2
C. water, soil, sunlight
D. Water
D. sunlight, water, carbon dioxide
18. The part of the plant that has chlorophyll
13. Why do most plants have many different
is
pigments?
A. Roots
A. To absorb more wavelengths of light
B. To reflect many colors B. Flowers
C. To attract a mate C. Stem
D. To attract herbivores D. Leaves

19. What energy source is required for the pro- C. chlorophyll

cess of photosynthesis to occur D. carotenoids
A. Water
25. The structure that allows gases to enter
B. Sunlight
and exit plant leaves
C. Radiation
A. Thylakoid
D. Nutrients
B. Stomata
NARAYAN CHANGDER
20. What provides the energy to allow chloro- C. Roots
phyll to do photosynthesis?
D. Stems
A. Glucose
B. Heat 26. What is the name of the yellow pigments
found in leaves?
C. Visible light
A. carotenoids
D. Oxygen
B. chlorophyll
21. What is the reason that leaves end up be-
C. anthocyanins
ing brown?
D. tannins
A. Brown helps to block the sun.
B. Frost kills all of the other pigments. 27. What is the name of the red pigments
Brown is the only one that survives. found in leaves?
C. Brown is not as easily seen by birds, A. anthocyanins
so birds won’t eat the leaves.
B. carotenoids
D. none of above
C. chlorophyll
22. Leaf color change is dependent on: D. tannins
A. daylight savings time
28. Which of the following is the green sub-
B. shorter days and longer nights stance that helps plants to make food?
C. the phase of the moon A. Chlorophyll
D. solar flares B. Roots
23. The stack of membrane in the chloroplast C. Leaves
are called
D. Spores
A. Stroma
29. In the Calvin cycle energy stored during
B. Thylakoids
the light dependent reactions in ATP and
C. Pigments NADPH is
D. ATP A. Stored in the bonds of sugar molecules
24. The pigment responsible for red, purple,
and blue in leaves is: B. Released in to the atmosphere
A. anthocyanins C. Returned to the soil
B. blueminoid D. Destroyed

30. Humans are considered heterotrophs be- 35. This is the organelle where the “magic” of
cause photosynthesis occurs

A. we are able to cook our food A. Chloroplast
B. we are omnivores B. Chlorophyll
C. we do not need energy to survive C. Chlorox
D. we consume other organisms in order D. Vacuole
to get energy
36. Where is chlorophyll found in a plant cell?
31. Autotrophs are A. Nucleus
A. organisms that stay to themselves out B. Cytoplasm
in nature
C. Chloroplasts
B. organisms that generate their OWN D. Cell wall
food
C. organisms that get their energy from 37. What is the brown pigment called?
other organisms A. tankin
D. organisms that only eat plants B. tanner
32. What is photosynthesis? C. tannin

D. none of above
A. The process in which humans eat their
food 38. When is Water used in photosynthesis
B. When a photographer takes a photo. A. During the light dependent reactions
C. To get your pictures from the photo lab. B. During the light independent reactions
D. The process in which plants make their C. Water is a byproduct of photosynthe-

food. sis
33. Why are some leaves red? D. Water is recycled during photosynthe-
sis
A. The chlorophyll is red and not green
B. Pigments in the plant cells make the 39. helps in making food for the plant.
cells red A. flower
C. To deter organisms from eating them B. root
D. none of above C. leaf
D. none of above
34. Chlorophyll is the location of which pro-
cess 40. Pigments are found in the
A. Cellular Respiration A. Stroma
B. Photosynthesis B. Thylakoid
C. Glucose Production C. Mitochondria
D. Digestion D. Nucleus

4.2 The Chloroplast 466
41. Light dependent reactions C. Carbon dioxide

A. Happen at night D. Sugar
B. Capture energy from the sun
43. Most plants are green because chlorophyll
C. Release CO2
A. absorbs green wavelengths of light
D. Require Oxygen
B. absorbs blue and yellow wavelengths
42. The waste product of the light dependent of light
reactions is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. reflects green wavelengths of light
A. Water D. is an optical illusion caused by the
B. Oxygen transmission of light
4.2 The Chloroplast

1. What role do pigments play in photosyn- 5. What are the byproducts of the light-
thesis? dependent reaction?
A. Make plants green, which is calming A. ADP and NADP+
B. Capture sunlight B. ATP and NADPH
C. Absorb water in roots C. NADPH
D. Take in CO2
D. none of above
2. What part of the cell is a mitochondria
found in? 6. Where does the oxygen released by the
light dependent reaction come from?
A. Nucleus
B. Cytoplasm A. NADPH
C. Wall membrane B. ATP
D. none of above C. Water
3. Glucose production will happen within D. Carbon Dioxide

me.
7. cells open and close the stomata
A. Chloroplast
A. palisade
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus B. guard
D. Ribosome C. xylem
D. epidermis
4. What is one thing that eukaryotic (plant
and animal) cells DO have that prokaryotic
8. Has double membranes
(bacteria) cells DO NOT have?
A. Nucleus A. Chloroplast
B. Cell Wall B. Mitochondria

C. Cytoplasm C. Both
D. Cell Membrane D. none of above

9. What is the usable form of energy for the 15. What is the Thylakoid?
cell A. Space surrounding the grana

A. ATP B. Flattened disc-shaped structures
B. NADPH C. Colorless fluid
C. ADP D. none of above
D. none of above 16. What gas does the process of photosyn-
thesis release into the atmosphere?
10. is a stack of thylakoids A. oxygen
A. Granum B. carbon dioxide
B. Stomata C. water
C. Stroma D. nitrogen
D. Chloroplast 17. I am the site of aerobic cellular respira-
tion.
11. What is the smallest living thing?
A. Chloroplast
A. An organism B. Mitochondria
B. A cell C. both
C. A protein D. none of above
D. An atom 18. The inner membrane of mitochondria is
usually, highly convoluted forming a series
12. Carbon dioxide is used as a reactant here of infoldings known as
A. Chloroplast A. thylakoids
B. Mitochondria B. cristae
C. Both C. grana
D. none of above D. lamella
19. Which colors are absorbed by the chloro-
13. In what form is the energy that comes
phyll?
from the sun
A. red and blue
A. electromagnetic radiation
B. green
B. radiant energy
C. red and green
C. thermal energy D. yellow and blue
D. none of above
20. Which of the following organelles converts
14. The sun gives the chloroplasts glucose into ATP and is known as the pow-
erhouse of the cell?
A. energy
A. Endoplasmic Recticulum
B. sugar B. Ribosomes
C. water C. Mitochondria
D. none of above D. Chloroplasts

21. What organelle(s) would say this:“I 27. It is a plants principal pigment, green
would be found inside a cyanobacterium, in color, located in the thylakoid mem-
which is a bacterial cell that does photo- branes.
synthesis.” A. chlorophyll
A. mitochondrion only B. carotenoids
B. chloroplast only C. xanthophyll
C. both mitochondrion and chloroplast D. carotene
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. neither mitochondrion nor chloroplast
28. Plants need for photosynthesis
22. Photosynthesis occurs in the A. oxygen
A. Mitchondria B. soil
B. Cytoplasm C. carbon dioxide
C. Chloroplast D. sugar
D. Cell Wall 29. Oxygen is use as a reactant here
23. The gel-like material that surrounds the A. Chloroplast
grana is called B. Mitochondria
A. lamellae C. Both
B. granum D. none of above
C. thylakoid
30. What is the Grana?
D. stroma
A. Stacks of thylakoids.
24. What is the mitochondria? B. Stacks of lamella
A. The power house of a house C. Colorless fluid
B. The power house of a cell D. none of above
C. The main function of a cell 31. Where in the chloroplast does the light-
D. A basketball independent reaction occur
25. How many glucose molecules are produced A. Thylakoid membrane

in photosynthesis B. Stroma
A. 1 C. Inter-membrane space
B. 6 D. inner membrane
C. 3 32. Chloroplast, structure within the cells of
D. 4 plants and green algae that is the site of
photosynthesis, the process by which light
26. Pigments define the Chloroplasts: energy is converted to
A. Smell A. kinetic energy
B. Taste B. potential energy
C. Color C. chemical energy
D. Shape D. a stuffed animal

33. What are the reactants of photosynthesis 39. What is the fluid like structure found in
Chloroplasts?
A. carbon dioxide and water

A. Stroma
B. glucose and water
B. Thylakoid
C. hydrogen and carbon dioxide
C. Cell Wall
D. none of above
D. Slime
34. Most of the chloroplast cells are found in
40. Chlorophyll is green pigment that
the
A. absorbs green light and reflects red
A. upper epidermis light
B. pallisade mesophyll layer B. absorbs blue light and reflects green
C. lower epidermis light
D. stomata C. absorbs red light and reflects blue
light
35. Organelle that produces glucose D. absorbs light and reflects blue light
A. Chloroplast
41. Which of the following is NOT a product of
B. Mitochondria the light-dependent reactions?
C. Both A. Oxygen
D. none of above B. NADPH
C. ATP
36. Does the Animal cell have a chloroplast?
D. Glucose (Sugar)
A. Yes
42. What parts create the double membrane?
B. No
A. Intermembrane Space
C. I Dont Know
B. Outer and inner membrane
D. none of above
C. Inner and Intermebrane Membrane
37. What is the gel-like fluid that surrounds D. none of above
the organelles in a cell called?
43. Krebs cycle occurs here
A. Chromatin
A. Chloroplast
B. Cytoplasm
B. Mitochondria
C. Chloroplast
C. Both
D. Cytoskeleton
D. none of above
38. “Endosymbiosis” means 44. I can be found in plant cells.
A. Living together A. Chloroplast
B. Living inside B. Mitochondria
C. Entering together C. Both
D. Joining together D. none of above

45. Organelle that makes ATP 50. To convert the energy of glucose into the
usable form of ATP is a function of
A. Chloroplast
B. Mitochondria A. Cell Wall
C. Both B. Cytoplasm
D. none of above C. Nucleus

D. Mitochondria
46. The first law:the law of conservation of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
energy 51. What is the correct equation for photosyn-
A. The energy that is lost is usually con- thesis
verted into thermal energy A. 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Light → C6H1206
B. Energy can be converted from one to + 6 O2
another, but it cannot be created nor de- B. 6 C20 + 6 H2O + Light → C12H6O6
stroyed + 5 O2
C. Entropy increases C. 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Light → C6H6O6 +
D. none of above 7 O2
D. 6 CO + 6 H2O + Light → C5H12O6
47. In which organelle does photosynthesis
happen in plants?
52. I can be found in animal cells.
A. Mitochondria
A. Chloroplast
B. Chloroplast
B. Mitochondria
C. plant cell
C. Both
D. chlorophyll
D. none of above
48. What does the chloroplast need to com-
plete photosynthesis.? 53. The principal pigment in plants is:
A. Sunlight energy, water, carbon dioxide, A. carotene

oxygen B. chlorophyll
B. dirt, water, oxygen C. chloroplast
C. oxygen and sugar D. nucleus
D. none of above
54. What is the purpose of the mitochondria?
49. Where is the Stroma located? A. The mitochondria makes glucose and
A. Surrounding chloroplast and inside the releases oxygen.
inner membrane B. The mitochondria breaks down glu-
B. Surrounding grana and inside the cose to make ATP.
outer membrane C. The mitochondria will produce pro-
C. Surrounding grana and inside the in- teins.
ner membrane
D. The mitochondria will absorb light en-
D. none of above ergy.

55. What is the function of the phloem? B. The inside membrane of a plant
A. to move water down from the leaves C. Double membrane

B. to move nutrients down from the D. cytoplasm
leaves
C. to move spores down from the leaves 61. Sugar and the products of photosynthesis
move through the plant in
D. to move food down from the leaves
A. the phloem cells
56. The xylem in a plant transports WHAT
throughout the plant? B. the xylem cells
A. Sunlight C. the root hair cells
B. Oxygen D. palisade mesophyll layer
C. Blood
62. Photosynthesis reactions take place here
D. Water
A. Chloroplast
57. Light-dependent and light-independent re-
actions take place here B. Mitochondria
A. Chloroplast C. Both
B. Mitochondria D. none of above
C. Both
63. Thylakoids are arranged in stacks called
D. none of above
58. Food producers of plant cells A. Lamellae

A. Chloroplast B. Stroma
B. Mitochondria
C. Granum
C. Both
D. Glucose
D. none of above
64. I would be found within a photosynthetic
59. What is the correct order of biological hi-
protist (Eukaryotic cell)
erarchy from smallest to largest?
A. Tissue, Cell, Organ, Organ System, Or- A. Chloroplast
ganism B. Mitochondria
B. Cell, Tissue, Organelle, Organ, Organ- C. both
ism
D. none of above
C. Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, Or-
ganism
65. Muscle cells would contain a lot of me.
D. Organism, Organ System, Organ, Cell,
A. Chloroplast
Tissue
B. Mitochondria
60. What does a mitochondria look like in-
side? C. Both
A. a football D. none of above

66. A green molecule in chloroplasts that ab- 71. The fluid like substance found inside the
sorbs some energy in visible light. This chloroplast is called
molecule has two forms, a and b, which A. Cytoplasm
absorb blue and red light from the visible
light. B. Stroma
C. Thykloids
A. ATP synthase
D. Cell Wall
B. chlorphyll
72. What is the name of the genetic material
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. stroma
of chloroplast?
D. thylakoid
A. DMA
67. CO2 Energy to Glucose to Starch is what B. DNA
A. Simple diffusion C. NBA
B. The cell theory D. none of above
C. Photosynthesis 73. Photosynthesis is the process of:
D. Cellular Respiration A. Turning Oxygen into Carbon Dioxide
B. Turning Food into Energy
68. Why is ATP crucial to the cell?
C. Turning a Gas into a Liquid
A. ATP is the form of energy the cell
needs for its activities. D. Turning Sunlight into usable energy
B. ATP is the form of light needed for 74. The two main stages of photosynthesis
plants to produce glucose. are the
C. ATP comes from the breakdown of glu- A. light reactions and respiration
cose in the mitochondria. B. dark reactions and the Calvin cycle
D. ATP forms from ADP and a phosphate C. light reactions and the Calvin cycle
group. D. dark reactions and fermentation
69. In which two layers of the leaf are most 75. The leaf has a shiny, waxy cuticle around
active chloroplasts found? it to
A. Palisade and spongy mesophyll A. increase the rate of photosynthesis
B. Epidermis and stomata B. attract more light
C. xylem and phloem C. control water loss
D. Roots and spongy mesophyll D. stop carbon dioxide and oxygen gases
escaping
70. Which of the following is NOT a product of 76. Plants gather the sun’s energy with light
the light reactions? absorbing molecules called:
A. Oxygen A. chloroplast
B. NADPH B. pigments
C. ATP C. proteins
D. Glucose (Sugar) D. enzymes

77. What pigment absorbs sunlight for photo- 83. Water production (product) will happen
synthesis? within me.

A. chloroplast A. Chloroplast
B. thylakoid B. Mitochondria
C. grana C. both
D. chlorophyll D. none of above
78. what is energy 84. Leaves look green because

A. a cells ability to do work A. they eat their vegetables
B. all of the chemical reactions in a cell B. to blend into their environment
C. mainly found in leaf cells C. they contain a molecule named chloro-
D. none of above phyll
D. they are sick
79. Xylem and phloem are examples of tis-
sue 85. what is a stack of thylakoids called
A. Spores A. granum/grana
B. Nonvascular B. cellular wall
C. Seeds C. lysosome
D. Vascular D. starch grain
80. What makes up the Stroma? 86. What organelle(s) would say this:”I can
A. the sticky liquid surrounding the be found in animal cells.”
chloroplast A. mitochondrion only
B. the smelly liquid surrounding the B. chloroplast only
grana C. both mitochondrion and chloroplast
C. Colorless fluid surrounding the grana D. neither mitochondrion nor chloroplast
D. none of above
87. What organelle(s) would say this:“Muscle
81. What organelle(s) would say this:“Water cells would contain a lot of me.”
production would happen inside of me.” A. mitochondrion only
A. mitochondrion only B. chloroplast only
B. chloroplast only C. both mitochondrion and chloroplast
C. both mitochondrion and chloroplast D. neither mitochondrion nor chloroplast
88. what type of sugar does photosynthesis
82. I contain chlorophyll create
A. Chloroplast A. glucose
B. Mitochondria B. galactose
C. Both C. fructose

89. How many carbon dioxide molecules are 95. Transpiration helps the plant
used to make 1 glucose? A. make more sugars at night
A. 1 B. move water from the roots to the stem
B. 6 and leaves
C. 4 C. move sugars from the leaf to be stored
D. 2 in the stem & roots
D. make more chloroplasts
90. What is the name of the process that uses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
light to split water molecules 96. What organelle(s) would say this:“Oxygen
A. photosystem 1 gas production will happen inside of me.”
B. photosynthesis A. mitochondrion only
C. photolysis B. chloroplast only
D. photosystem 2 C. both mitochondrion and chloroplast
91. Contains chlorophyll and other pigments
A. Chlorplast 97. What organelle(s) would say this:“My
main goal is to make a lot of ATP energy.”
B. Mitochondria
A. mitochondrion only
C. Both
B. chloroplast only
D. none of above
C. both mitochondrion and chloroplast
92. Which of the following organelles is the D. neither mitochondrion nor chloroplast
control center of the cell and contains
DNA? 98. Amyloplasts are responsible for what?
A. Nucleolus A. The color in fruit
B. Endoplasmic Recticulum B. Converting light to energy
C. Golgi Apparatus C. Storing starch
D. Nucleus D. none of above
93. Which one of the following biochemi- 99. What structure resembles a stack of pan-
cal processes occurs within the mitochon- cakes in the chloroplast
dria? A. lumen
A. Photosynthesis B. grana
B. Cellular respiration C. stroma
C. Protein synthesis D. thylakoid
D. Calvin cycle
100. Saclike photosynthetic membrane, con-
94. What is the main function of chloroplast? tains chlorophyll.
A. Mitosis A. thylakoid
B. Meiosis B. stroma
C. Translation C. grana
D. Photosynthesis D. pigment

101. My main goal is to produce a lot of ATP 106. i contain pigments to help capture light
energy. energy.
A. Chloroplast

A. Chloroplast
B. Mitochondria B. Mitochondria
C. Chromoplast C. nucleus
D. atracolis
D. All of the above
107. Which is NOT a component of the modern
102. Which of the following is a double mem- cell theory?
brane bound organelle?
A. A cell is the smallest living unit of all
A. Nucleus organisms
B. Chloroplast B. All living things are made of cells
C. Mitochondria C. All cells come from other pre-existing
cells
D. All of the above
D. All cells have a nucleus
103. Saclike photosynthetic membranes in 108. I contain the pigment Chlorophyll.
chloroplast are called:
A. Chloroplast
A. grana
B. Mitochondria
B. thylakoid
C. Both
C. stroma D. none of above
D. chlorophyll
109. Which of the following controls which
104. What is the process where the energy in molecules can enter or leave the chloro-
light is used to break up a molecule of wa- plast?
ter? A. Outer Membrane
A. hydrolysis B. Inner Membrane
B. photolysis C. Stroma
D. none of above
C. glycolysis
D. nicolysis 110. What molecule is represented by
C6H12O6
105. In what type of cells are chloroplasts A. Sugar
found? B. Glucose
A. Prokaryotic plant cells contain chloro- C. Carbon dioxide
plasts.
D. Oxygen
B. Eukaryotic plant cells contain chloro-
plasts. 111. I contain my own DNA
A. Chloroplast
C. Prokaryotic animal cells contain
chloroplasts. B. Mitochondria
D. Eukaryotic animal cells contain chloro- C. Both
plasts. D. none of above

112. What type of cell is a mitochondria a part 118. Which type of cells has a chloroplast?
of? A. Prokaryote
A. Endothelial Cells. B. Plant Cell
B. Eukaryota Cell C. Animal Cell
C. Yobhona Cell D. none of above
D. Prokaryota Cell
119. I am found in plant cells.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
113. Gases pass in and out of a leaf through A. Chloroplast
the what? B. Mitochondria
A. vascular tissue C. Both
B. mouth hole D. none of above
C. stomata
120. Thermodynamics
D. cell wall
A. The study of flow and transformation
114. Photosynthesis converts light energy of energy in the universe
into energy B. Energy can be converted from one to
another, but it cannot be created or de-
A. Electromagnetic
stroyed
B. Chemical
C. The energy that is lost is usually con-
C. Potential verted into thermal energy
D. Physical D. none of above
115. The Calvin Cycle takes place in the: 121. Where do the light-dependent reactions
happen?
A. Stroma
A. mitochondria membrane
B. Thylakoid
B. thylakoid membrane
C. Grana
C. stroma
D. Stomata
D. central vacuole
116. Plastids are absent in
122. Carbon dioxide gas is produced here
A. animals and plants
A. Chloroplast
B. fungi and animals
B. Mitochondria
C. animals, bacterium and fungi C. Both
D. None of these D. none of above
117. Are found in an animal cell 123. Calvin cycle occurs here
A. Chloroplast A. Chloroplast
C. Both C. Both

124. The role of the guard cell is to C. Both

A. help control the temperature of the D. none of above

plant
B. control how much water enters the 130. Which of the following biochemical reac-
leaf tions occur in the chloroplasts?
C. control how much glucose is stored A. Protein synthesis occurs in chloro-

plasts.
D. control the movement of water vapour
& gases B. Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts.
125. Pancake shaped compartments filled

C. Kreb’s cycle occurs in chloroplasts.
with chlorophyll, that form stacks called
grana inside the chloroplast. D. Cellular respiration occurs in chloro-
plasts.
A. chloroplast
B. stroma 131. I replicate by division.
C. grana A. Chloroplast
D. thylakoids B. Mitochondria
126. I would be found within a photosynthetic C. Both
protist. D. none of above
A. Chloroplast
132. Stacks of thylakoids.
B. Mitochondria
A. grana
C. Both mitochondria and chloroplast.
D. None of the above. B. pigment
C. chlorophyll
127. The Calvin Cycle happens within me
D. stroma
A. Chloroplast
B. Mitochondria 133. What is the main chemical compound that
C. Both stores and releases energy?
D. none of above A. ATP

B. Cytoplasm
128. What is the pigment in chloroplasts that
performs photosynthesis? C. PTP
A. Chlorosynthesis D. Oxygen
B. Chlorophyll
134. Oxygen gas production (product) will
C. ADP happen within me.
D. Electron Transport A. Chloroplast
129. Aerobic cellular respiration occurs here B. Mitochondria
A. Chloroplast C. both
B. Mitochondria D. none of above

135. Cellular respiration is used to make the C. To reflect green light

product
D. To make sugars
A. DNA
B. RNA 141. Captures light energy from the sun
C. tRNA A. Chloroplast
D. ATP B. Mitochondria
136. the mitochondria is found in C. Both
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. plant cells D. none of above
B. animal cells 142. Plants need to take in oxygen gas for res-
C. both piration
D. none of above A. only at night
137. Oxygen gas production will happen B. only during the day
within me. C. both during the day & the night
A. Chloroplast D. none of above
B. Mitochondria
C. Both 143. What is made during the light indepen-
dent reactions?
D. none of above
A. ATP
138. Which of the following organelles cap-
B. NADPH
tures energy from sunlight and uses it to
produce food (glucose) in plant cells? C. sugar
A. Chloroplasts D. fat
B. Chromosomes
144. Which of the following organelles con-
C. Chromatin trols what enters and exits a cell and is
D. Chlorophyll considered selectively / semipermeable?
139. The important gases, carbon dioxide and A. Cell Wall

oxygen, enter and leave the leaf through B. Cell Membrane
the
C. Cytoskeleton
A. upper epidermis
D. Cytoplasm
B. phloem
C. stomata 145. A reaction that requires light, occurs in
the thylakoids, and breaks down water to
D. guard cells
produce oxygen.
140. What is the main purpose of the light re- A. light-independent reactions
actions?
B. chemosynthesis
A. To provide the energy and electrons
for the calvin cycle C. light-dependent reactions
B. To capture energy and make sugar D. photosynthesis

146. What organelle(s) would say this:“I con- 152. What does the outside look like?
tain pigments to capture light energy.” A. A net

A. mitochondrion only B. Scales
B. chloroplast only C. Skin
C. both mitochondrion and chloroplast D. see through
153. What does the mitochondria do?
147. Why are chloroplasts important? A. Takes sugar molecules and bakes a
A. Because they are cake ;)
B. They collect energy for the plant B. Breaks sugar molecules down into En-
C. they play a really special role in photo- ergy, CO2 and water. This process is
synthesis called Cellular Respiration
D. none of above C. Creates sugar out of Energy, CO2 and

Water
148. What do the chloroplasts do for the cell? D. none of above
A. Produce food
154. Where do the dark reactions take place?
B. Play monopoly
A. thylakoid membrane
C. make lysosomes
B. lumen
D. none of above
C. stroma
149. Fluid portion of the chloroplast located D. none of above
outside the grana, like the chloroplasts cy-
toplasm. 155. Product of photosythesis
A. stroma A. Plastid
B. thylakoid B. Chromoplast
C. protoplasm C. Amyloplast
D. chlorophyll D. Chlorophyll
150. Which organelle collects sunlight? 156. What is the first step in photosynthesis?
A. Thylakoid A. calvin cycle
B. Inner Membrane B. dark-dependent reaction
C. Stroma C. light-dependent reaction
D. Outer Membrane D. none of above
151. Which of the following controls what 157. Carbon dioxide gas production (product)
goes in and out of the cell? will happen within me.
A. Inner Membrane A. Chloroplast
B. Outer Membrane B. Mitochondria
C. Stroma C. both
D. Thylakoid D. none of above

158. In the , energy from the sun is used to 164. Which electron carrier is used in photo-
make ATP synthesis?
A. light-independent reaction A. NADH / NAD+
B. dark reaction B. ATP / ADP
C. light-dependent reaction C. DLT + CSR 4EVR
D. Calvin cycle D. You know, that one.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
159. Are found in a plant cell 165. Muscle cells have lots of these
C. Both C. Both
160. what traps the sunlight in a chloroplast 166. What is the main purpose of the light de-
pendent reactions?
A. the plant
A. To provide the energy for the calvin cy-
B. matrix cle
C. ribosome B. To capture energy and make sugar
D. chlorophyll C. To reflect green light
161. What does chlorophyll do? D. To make sugars
A. Uses the sun energy to make sugars. 167. Which of these structures are NOT in
B. Makes dirt for the pigs. Chloroplasts
C. Makes proteins for the ribosomes. A. Stroma
D. none of above B. Thylakoid

C. Inner Membrane
162. The water needed for photosynthesis
D. Cristae
comes into the leaves through the
A. upper epidermis 168. What connects the thylakoid together?
B. stomata A. Intermembrane
C. guard cells B. Stroma Lamella
D. xylem cells C. Grana
D. none of above
163. Glucose production (product) will happen
within me. 169. Contain thylakoids and stroma
C. both C. Both

170. What is generated within the mitochon- 176. What are electron carrier molecules?
drial matrix?
A. Molecules that transfer high energy

A. ADP electrons to other molecules
B. ATP
B. Molecules that carry energy from one
C. AMP reaction to another
D. APP C. Molecules that make ATP
171. What organelle(s) would say this:“I can D. Molecules that have little dogs that fit
be found in plant cells.” in their purse
B. chloroplast only 177. what is the stroma
C. both mitochondrion and chloroplast A. type of plant

D. neither mitochondrion nor chloroplast B. liquid in a chloroplast
172. This molecule is similar to ADP. It carries C. the outside of a mitochondria
hydrogen ions.
D. what traps the sunloght in a chloro-
A. NADP+ plast
B. NADPH
178. What is the name of the simple sugar that
C. ADP+H
is produced in photosynthesis?
D. ATP-P
A. Sucrose
173. What organelle(s) would say
this:“Glucose production would happen B. Dextrose
inside of me.” C. Glucose
D. Lactose
B. chloroplast only
C. both mitochondrion and chloroplast 179. The reason animals cannot photosynthe-
size is that they lack
A. a nucleus
174. The fluid portion of the chloroplast out-
side the thylakoid is known as: B. a cell wall
A. grana C. a chloroplast
B. stroma D. a mitochondria
C. thylakoid membrane
D. none of above 180. Which of the following is the collection of
sacks containing chlorophyll?
175. In mitochondria, cristae acts as sites for
A. Stroma
A. Protein synthesis
B. Pigment
B. phosphorylation of flavoprotein
C. breakdown of macromolecules C. Thylakoid
D. oxidation of reduction reactions D. Outer Membrane

181. Which of the following is NOT a reactant 187. What part of the plant cell performs pho-
of the dark reactions? tosynthesis?
A. NADPH A. The Mitochondrion
B. ATP B. The Nucleus
C. Oxygen C. The Chloroplast
D. Carbon dioxide D. The Cell Wall
182. The part of the chloroplast that absorbs
NARAYAN CHANGDER
188. what is the main function of the mitochon-
lights is called dria
A. Thylakoid A. to give energy to the cell
B. Grana B. remove waste
C. Stroma C. to hold DNA
D. Chlorophyll D. protect the cell
183. How many thylakoids are in the Grana? 189. What fluid is within a thylokoid
A. 10-20 A. Stroma
B. 5-10 B. Chloroplast
C. 15-20
C. Chlorophyll
D. none of above
D. Plastid
184. Which of the following does NOT contain
190. Water & soluble nutrients move through
eukaryotic cells?
the plant in
A. You
A. the phloem cells
B. Bacteria
B. the xylem cells
C. Protists
C. the root hair cells
D. Plants
D. palisade mesophyll layer
185. What is the waxy coating that protects
the leaf from water loss and microbe pen- 191. Krebs and the Electron Transport Chain
etration called? both happen within me
A. The upper epidermis A. Chloroplast
B. The vascular bundle B. Mitochondria
C. The palisade mesophyll C. Both
D. The cuticle D. none of above
186. Which of the following is NOT part of the 192. What organelle do Chloroplasts compare
vascular bundle in a leaf? to:
A. Bundle sheath cells A. Mitochondria
B. Guard cells B. Cell Wall
C. Phloem C. Smooth ER
D. Xylem D. Rough ER

193. Where do the dark reactions (Calvin cy- D. Use NADPH to release carbon
cle) take place?
199. A light absorbing molecule.

A. pigment
B. lumen
B. thylakoid
C. stroma
C. grana
D. none of above
D. stroma
194. A green molecule in chloroplasts that ab-
sorbs some energy in visible light but re- 200. Which of these is not a function of chloro-
flects green light. plast?
A. ATP synthase A. Helps the plant produce amino acid
B. chlorphyll B. Holds water
C. stroma C. Help the plant fight off disese
D. thylakoid D. Help induce photosynthesis
195. Carbon dioxide gas production will hap- 201. & are organelles that definitely
pen within me. arose from endosymbiosis.
A. Chloroplast A. Rough ER & Smooth ER
B. Mitochondria B. Mitochondria & Flagellum
C. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Chloroplast & Mitochondria
D. Ribosome D. Chloroplast and Golgi apparatus
196. Can the plant cell produce food on its 202. Oxygen exits from here as a waste prod-
own? uct
A. Yes A. Chloroplast
B. No B. Mitochondria
C. Maybe C. Both
197. What color is reflected by the chlorophyll 203. This is a molecule that is similar to ATP
A. red A. NADPH
B. green B. NADP+
C. blue C. NADPY
D. none of above D. ATP-Y
198. In green plants, the primary function of 204. What is a chloroplast

the Calvin cycle is to A. a shark
A. Use ATP to release carbon B. A structure in a plat cell that creates a
B. Split water to release oxygen. process called photosynthesis
C. Construct simple sugars from carbon C. part of a nucleolus
dioxide. D. energy

4.3 Photosystems 484
205. what provides the cell with energy C. Both

A. chloroplasts D. none of above
B. mitochondria 211. The waxy, waterproof layer that covers
C. both most leaves is called the what?
D. none of above A. spore
206. Ribosomes present in the Plastid and Mi- B. cuticle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tochondria are responsible for which of the C. seed coat
following
D. xylem
A. Lipid synthesis
212. Which of the following is the liquid inside
B. Structural support
the chloroplast?
C. Protein synthesis
A. Outer Membrane
D. None of these
B. Inner Membrane
207. Turn inorganic carbon (CO2) into an or- C. Stroma
ganic form of carbon (glucose)
D. Pigments
A. Chloroplast
213. The theory of Endosymbiosis explains
B. Mitochondria
A. The origin of eukaryotes
C. Both
B. How species develop
D. none of above
C. How bacteria live
208. What is the name of the process that
D. Why cells rely on one another
turns carbon dioxide into glucose?
A. Chlorophyll 214. The theory that mitochondria and chloro-
plasts were once ancient prokaryotic is
B. Photosynthesis
called
C. Calvin Cycle
A. endosymbiotic theory
D. none of above
B. seed theory
209. Have circular DNA C. primordial soup
A. Chloroplast D. origin of life
B. Mitochondria
215. The chloroplast contains a pigment called
C. Both
D. none of above A. Thylakoid
210. Water production will happen within me B. Granulum
A. Chloroplast C. Chlorophyll
B. Mitochondria D. ATP
4.3 Photosystems

4.3 Photosystems 485
1. The products of photosynthesis, ATP & 7. During the Photosystems oxygen is re-
NADPH, are used as fuel to run which cy- leased into the air. Which molecule is the
cle? oxygen released from?

A. Calvin Cycle A. carbon dioxide
B. Krebs Cycle B. water
C. Photo Cycle C. glucose
D. Fermentation cycle D. protein
2. Which of the following is like a “fully 8. ATP-P =
charged battery” of energy?
A. ADP
A. ATP
B. ATP
B. ADP
C. AMP
C. AMP
D. NADP
D. NADP+
9. Why are green leaves green?
3. What is formed during Photosystem 2?
A. Chlorophyll reflects green light
A. ATP
B. Chlorophyll absorbs green light
B. NADPH
C. Chlorophyll absorbs blue and green
C. NAD+
light
D. glucose
D. none of above
4. What colors of visible light do plants ab-
10. What is the primary pigment in chloro-
sorb the best?
plasts that performs photosynthesis?
A. reds, blues, violets
A. Xanthophyll
B. green
B. Chlorophyll A
C. orange, red, yellow
C. Caretene
D. none of above
D. ATP synthase
5. What is the final product of Photosystem
1 11. Tiny packets of light energy from the sun
are called
A. NADPH
A. photons
B. ATP
B. electrons
C. NADP+
C. ATP
D. glucose
D. NADPH
6. Where does the plant get H+ to make
NADPH? 12. Photons are used to
A. air A. split water molecules
B. water B. split sugar molecules
C. sugar C. split carbon dioxide
D. sun D. split ATP

4.4 Light-Dependent Reactions 486
13. The Photosystems take place in the 14. The products of Photosystem 1 and Photo-
system 2 are
A. thylakoid
A. ATP, NADPH
B. stroma
B. ATP, NADH
C. stomata C. ATP, glucose
D. mitochondria D. ATP, FADH2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
4.4 Light-Dependent Reactions
1. is the process by which autotrophs B. granum
trap energy from sunlight to build carbo- C. chloroplast
hydrates (food).
D. stroma
A. Glycolosis
B. Photosynthesis 6. Which of the following is NOT a reactant
of the Calvin Cycle?
C. Krebs Cycle
A. NADPH
D. Anaerobic Respiration
B. ATP
2. The final products of the light dependent C. Oxygen
reactions are:
D. Carbon dioxide
A. ATP and NADPH
7. What is the source of the carbon dioxide
B. ADP and NADPH
that is used in photosynthesis?
C. sugar and oxygen
A. sunlight
D. water and carbon dioxide
B. the soil
3. ATP gets formed in the light dependent re- C. the atmosphere
action by which process?
D. the plant
A. Chemiosmosis
8. What is the unit of light?
B. Photosmosis
A. proton
C. Diffusion
B. photon
D. Active Transport
C. photosystem
4. calvin cycle occurs in the
D. none of above
A. stroma
9. Which of the following is a REACTANT
B. thylakoid of the light dependent reaction (what is
C. cytoplasm needed/what goes into)?
D. matrix A. oxygen
5. The gel-like material that surrounds the B. water
thyllakoid stacks is called C. carbon dioxide
A. chlorophyll D. NADPH

10. Which step is the beginning of photosyn- 15. Which of these conditions would decrease
thesis? the rate of photosynthesis in a plant?

A. Pigments in photosystem I absorb A. Above average precipitation
light. B. Changing the daylight hours from 14
B. ATP and NADPH produce high energy hrs to 10 hrs
sugars C. Changing the CO2 concentration from
C. High energy electrons move through 380 ppm to 410 ppm
the electron transport chain. D. All of these choices
D. Pigments in photosystem II absorb
16. Non-cyclic photophosphorylation involves
light.
A. both photosystem 1 & 2
11. What happens to the O2 created in the
B. z-scheme
light phase?
C. ATP synthesis
A. Is transferred to the Calvin Cycle
D. all options
B. Donates its electrons to the Chloro-
phyll molecules 17. Light-dependent reaction happen in ?
C. Provides a carbon to form the unstable A. Thylakoids
6-carbon molecule B. Stroma
D. Diffuses out through the stoma C. Chloroplasm
12. Which compound is a metabolic intermedi- D. Intermembrane of chloroplast
ate of the light-independent reactions in
photosynthesis? 18. It is the first of two stages in the pro-
cess of photosynthesis. During the light
A. ATP reactions, photosystem II and photosys-
B. PGA tem I absorb light energy and produce ATP,
NADPH, and O2
C. RuBP
A. Light Dependent Reaction
D. NADPH
B. Light Independent Reaction
13. Which of the following is NOT a reactant C. Cellular Respiration
of the light reactions?
D. Glycolysis
A. Light
B. Water 19. Sunlight is used during photosynthesis to-
C. Carbon dioxide A. Break down the xylem

B. Break down the stomata
D. none of above
C. Break down the water
14. Which of the following are autotrophs?
D. Capture the water
A. deer
20. What does an electron being “excited”
B. plants
mean?
C. leopards A. It has been released from a water
D. humans molecule

B. It has lost energy. 26. Cyclic photophosphorylation differs from

C. It has gained energy. non-cyclic photophosphorylation in that
is not made from the process.
D. It has been accepted by an electron
carrier. A. ATP.
B. PGAL.
21. What is produced by chemiosmosis?
C. NADH.
A. ATP
D. NADPH
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Oxygen
27. What is the final electron acceptor for
C. Water
cyclic photophosphorylation?
D. Protons
A. NADP+
22. When electrons get excited by receiving B. Ferredoxin (Fd)
light energy, they travel down the C. Photosystem I reaction center
A. electron transport chain D. oxygen
B. stroma
28. The molecule in which a high-energy elec-
C. mitochondria tron from an excited pigment molecule
D. cytoplasm such as P680* is transferred during pho-
tosynthesis
23. The combined action of photosystem II and
A. Cytochrome Complex
photosystem I in which electrons flow in a
linear manner to produce B. Primary electron acceptor
A. Cyclic electron flow C. Plastoquinone
B. Noncyclic electron flow D. Plastocyanin
C. Cyclic proton flow 29. The only color reflected by leaves is:
D. Noncyclic proton flow A. black
24. In photosynthesis, the oxygen atoms in B. green

H2O (water) are C. blue
A. energized. D. red
B. reduced. 30. Which of the following is the source of the
C. broken down. oxygen released during photosynthesis?
D. oxidized. A. CO2
B. NADPH
25. What is required for both the light-
dependent and light-independent reactions C. ATP
to proceed? D. H2O
A. energy
31. What is the purpose of the light dependent
B. CO2 reaction?
C. water A. to create water
D. ATP and NADPH B. to make energy

C. to reflect green light 37. H+ move from a high concentration in the

D. to create havoc space to a low concentration in the stroma
by which process?

32. Name the pigment at the reaction centre A. Chemiosmosis
of photosystems I and II
B. Photosmosis
A. chlorophyll a
C. Diffusion
B. carotene
D. Active Transport
C. xanthophyll
D. reaction centre 38. light energy is absorbed by the
A. thylakoid
33. Protons (H+) move into the thylakoid due
to B. chlorophyll
A. the concentration gradient in the mito- C. grana
chondria D. stroma
B. gravity 39. Which molecule is waiting to pickup elec-
C. chemiosmosis trons?
D. the energy released by the movement A. ADP
of electrons through the electron trans- B. ATP
port chain
C. NADPH
34. Which substance from the light-dependent D. NADP+
reactions of photosynthesis is a source of
energy for the Calvin Cycle? 40. Which space has the highest H+ concentra-
A. ADP tion in a chloroplast?
B. H2O A. Thylakoid space
C. NADPH B. Stroma
D. pyruvic acid C. Intermembrane space
D. Matrix
35. Which of the following is NOT a product of
the light dependent reaction (1st stage of 41. Which of the following is NOT a product of
photosynthesis)? the Calvin Cycle?
A. Oxygen A. NADP+
B. NADPH B. NADPH
C. ATP C. ADP
D. Glucose (Sugar) D. G3P (to form glucose)
36. Where in the chloroplast does the Calvin 42. What comes out of the light DEPENDENT
Cycle take place? reactions?
A. thylakoids A. ATP, NADPH, oxygen
B. matrix B. ATP, oxygen
C. stroma C. ADP, NADP+, glucose
D. nucleus D. ATP, glucose

43. Name an accessory pigment. B. 2

A. Chlorophyll a C. 3
B. melanin D. 4
C. melanone 49. What happens most of the G3P molecules
D. carotene in the last step of the dark reactions
(Calvin cycle)?
44. Where does the electron-acceptor
A. They are used to make glucose.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
molecule transfer electrons?
A. photosystem I B. They are reshuffled to make CO2 by
adding ATP.
B. photosystem II
C. They exit the cycle.
C. the thylakoid space
D. They are reshuffled to make RuBP by
D. the electron transport system adding ATP.
45. Where does light reactions take place? 50. What photosystem(s) are involved in the
A. Stroma light reaction?
B. Thylakoid A. Photosystem 1
C. Cytoplasm B. Photosystem 2
D. none of above C. Both
D. none of above
46. Which of the following is directly associ-
ated with Photosystem I? 51. Which of the following formulas repre-
A. harvesting light energy to make ATP sents photosynthesis?
B. receiving electrons from the thylakoid A. 6 H2O + 6 O2 = C6H12O6 + 6 CO2
membrane ETC B. 6 H2O + 6 CO2 = C6H12O6 + 6 O2
C. generation of molecular oxygen C. C6H12O6 + + 6 O2 = 6 H2O + 6 CO2
D. extraction of hydrogen electrons from
the splitting of water D. none of above
47. Using you knowledge of diffusion from a 52. Where/when is glucose synthesized?
previous chapter what would you call A. Photosystem II
the movement of H ions from an area of
high concentration to an area of low that B. Photosystem I
required a “helper” protein?? C. Calvin Cycle
A. osmosis D. Glycolysis
B. diffusion 53. The reactants in the chemical equation for
C. facilitated diffusion photosynthesis are:
D. active transport A. sugar and water
48. How many G3P molecules make one B. water and carbon dioxide
molecule of glucose? C. water and oxygen
A. 1 D. sugar and oxygen

54. When oxygen is released as a result of 59. Which products of light-dependent reac-
photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of tions are used in the Calvin cycle to help
form reduced organic compounds.

A. reducing NADP+
A. Oxygen, ATP, NADPH, and CO2
B. splitting water molecules
B. Water and CO2
C. chemiosmosis
C. Light, Water, and CO2
D. electron transfer in photosystem II
D. ATP and NADPH
and I
60. Plants need carbon dioxide from their en-
55. What is produced by the photolysis of two vironment to produce glucose during which
water molecules? stage of photosynthesis?
A. O2 + 4H+ + 4e- A. The light-dependent stage
B. O2 + 4H+ + 2e- B. The light-independent stage (The
C. 1/2 O2 + 2H+ + 2e- Calvin Cycle)
C. The electron transport chain
D. 1/2 O2 + 2H+ + 4e-
D. ATP formation
56. Which substance from the light-dependent
reactions of photosynthesis is a source 61. In what organelle within a plant cell does
of energy for the light-independent reac- the Calvin Cycle occur?
tions? A. mitochondria
A. ADP B. chloroplast
B. H2O C. nucleus
C. NADPH D. endoplasmic reticulum
D. pyruvic acid 62. What is released at each step of an elec-

tron transport chain?
57. The 5-Carbon molecules that the Calvin Cy- A. ultraviolet wavelengths
cle starts and ends with, is called
B. electrons
A. PGA
C. photons
B. G3P
D. energy
C. RuBP
63. Which reactant used in the Calvin Cycle?
D. RuDp
A. water
58. NADPH2 and ATP produced by the light- B. carbon dioxide
dependent reactions are used to reduce
C. oxygen
what?
D. glucose
A. Carbon Dioxide
64. What is the fate of the electrons produced
B. Carbon Monoxide
during the photolysis of water?
C. Oxygen
A. Combine with another oxygen atom to
D. Hydrogen produce oxygen gas

B. Remains in the thylakoid space to be 70. Which statement about the light-
used during ETC independent reactions in photosynthesis
C. To recover electron deficiency in pho- is true?
tosystems A. They occur in the thylakoids.
D. Used as final electron acceptor B. They produce ATP and NADPH.
65. Which one of these is NOT a product of the C. They release oxygen as waste.
photolysis of water? D. They comprise the Calvin cycle.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Oxygen atom
71. Chlorophyll absorbs and light from
B. Proton the light the most.
C. Electron A. purple and green
D. ATP B. red and blue
66. What reactants are needed for the Calvin C. black and orange
cycle? D. yellow and green
A. Carbon dioxide
72. Chemiosmosis creates molecules of
B. Carbon dioxide, ATP and NADPH
A. ATP
C. Carbon dioxide and glucose
B. NADPH
D. Oxygen and water
C. NADP
67. What is the primary function of cyclic elec-
D. C6H12O6
tron flow?
A. to produce additional NADPH 73. Where is chlorophyll found in the chloro-
plast?
B. to produce additional ATP
C. to produce additional oxygen A. in the stroma
D. to produce additional carbon dioxide B. within photosystems

C. in the ATP synthase
68. In the light dependent reaction, ATP is
formed by D. in the electron carrier molecule
A. photophosphorylation 74. Which of the following is NOT a reactant
B. substrate level photophosphorylation of the light independent reactions?
C. substrate photophosphorylation A. NADPH
D. phosphorylation B. ATP
C. Oxygen
69. As the excited electrons lose energy along
the electron transport chain, they are fuel- D. Carbon dioxide
ing the process of:
75. Where are the photosystems specifically
A. Light capturing event located in the thylakoid?
B. Chemiosmosis A. on the outside edge of the thylakoid-
C. Photolysis outer membrane
D. none of above B. in the inner thylakoid space

C. in the thylakoid membrane 81. It is important to create a concentration of

D. this is a trick question they are not in H+ in the thylakoid space so that the H+
can diffuse through to create

a thylakoid
A. ATP synthase, ATP
76. ATP and NADPH
B. NADH, NADPH
A. Store energy C. proton pump, protons
B. Release Energy D. none of above
C. Make sugar
82. Which of the following is an example of a
D. Have high polarity HETEROTROPH?
77. Which of the following is NOT a limit- A. Grass

ing factor for photosynthesis? (It is not B. Algae
needed for photosynthesis) C. Lemon Tree
A. light D. Bear
B. oxygen
83. Which of the following does not require
C. carbon dioxide ATP?
D. temperature A. Walking
B. Chewing Food
78. What is reduced by photosystem I?
C. Diffusion
A. ADP
D. Nerve Impulses
B. NADP+
C. NAD 84. What two products from the light reac-
tions are needed in the Calvin Cycle?
D. FAD
A. glucose and water
79. The gel-like material that surrounds the B. water and carbon dioxde
grana is called ;also the location of
C. NADPH and ATP
where light independent reactions occur
D. NADP+ and ADP
A. lamellae
B. granum 85. Plants produce oxygen when they photo-
synthesize. Where does the oxygen come
C. thylakoid from?
D. stroma A. splitting water molecules
80. Which substance from the light-dependent B. ATP synthesis

reactions of photosynthesis is a source or C. the electron transport chain
input for the light-independent reactions? D. chlorophyll
A. ADP
86. Which of the following is not produced in
B. H2O the light reaction?
C. NADPH A. oxygen
D. pyruvic acid B. ATP

C. sugar 92. During reduction, PGA reacts with ATP and

D. none of above NADPH. What does ATP contribute to the
reaction?
87. What is the primary function of the light
A. carbon
reactions of photosynthesis?
A. To produce glucose B. hydrogen ions
B. To produce NADPH and ATP C. electrons

D. phosphate group
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. To use ATP
D. To produce RuBP
93. The principal chemical compound that living
88. The green photosynthetic pigment found in things use to store energy is
chloroplasts of plants that absorbs light A. DNA
energy required for photosynthesis.
B. ATP
A. ribosome
B. chlorofoam C. H2O
C. chlorophyll D. CO2
D. thylakoid 94. Is water (H2O) a reactant or product of
89. Which of the following is a PRODUCT photosynthesis?
of the light dependent reaction (what is A. Product
made/produced)?
B. Reactant
A. sunlight
C. Neither answer
B. water
C. NADP+ D. Both answers
D. NADPH 95. What is the function of photosynthetic pig-

ments in light dependent reaction?
90. Where does photoactivation of electrons
take place A. to absorb light energy
A. Photosystems I and II B. to breakdown the water molecule
B. Photosystem I only C. to trap the light energy
C. Photosystem II only
D. to transfer the light energy to the re-
D. Electron Transfer Chain action center
91. What is the process whereby light energy
96. What is the purpose of splitting water in
is captured by plant, algal, or bacterial
PS2 of the light dependent reaction?
cells and is used to synthesize organic
molecules from CO2 and H2O (or H2S)? A. Provides e-for PS2 and H+ for the thy-
lakoid space
A. Protein Synthesis
B. Hydrolysis B. To produce Oxygen for animals
C. Photosynthesis C. There is no purpose
D. Chemical Synthesis D. none of above

97. What is the function of NADP+ in non- B. Photosystem II

cyclic photophosphorylation? C. Photosystem I

A. It absorbs light D. Chlorophyll c
B. It is a final electron acceptor
103. Where are Photosystems I and II found?
C. It is a light-reflecting pigment
A. in the stroma
D. It acts as long-term energy storage
B. in the Calvin cycle
98. Which of the following move through the C. in the thylakoid membrane
electron transport chain?
D. in the thylakoid space
A. Protons
104. Which of the following is not needed to
B. Electrons
start the light reaction
C. Water
A. H2O
D. Carbon Dioxide
B. ADP + P
99. The location of the light dependent reac- C. CO2
tions
D. none of above
105. How does most of the water needed by
B. stroma
the plant get into its leaves?
C. cytoplasm
A. It enters through the stomata
D. mitochondria
B. The roots absorb it and then it travels
100. Which term is the part of photosynthesis up the stem
when light energy is captured and trans- C. It’s made during a chemical reaction in
ferred to a molecule, such as ATP? the leaf
A. light-independent reactions D. The flowers capture water and deliver
B. cellular respiration it to the leaves
C. light-dependent reactions 106. Which process occurs during the light de-
D. photosynthesis pendent reaction of photosynthesis?
A. ATP, CO2 and H2O are produced
101. What is the maximum absorption of light
wavelength in PSII B. CO2 is used to produce carbohydrates
A. 700 nm
C. ATP and O2 are produced
B. 680 nm
D. RuBP is phosphorylated
C. 400-500 nm
D. 650-750 nm 107. The enzyme for photolysis of water is lo-
cated in
102. A distinct complex of proteins and pig- A. photosystem 1
ment molecules in chloroplasts that gener-
ates oxygen from water during the light B. photosystem 2
reactions of photosynthesis C. calvin cycle
A. Carotenoid D. all options

108. Light dependent reaction uses while 113. Which substance from the light-
light independent reaction uses dependent reactions of photosynthesis is
a source of electrons and hydrogen for the
A. carbon dioxide molecule; water and
Calvin Cycle?
light
A. ADP
B. light ; carbon dioxide molecule and wa-
ter B. H2O
C. water and light; carbon dioxide C. NADPH
NARAYAN CHANGDER
molecule
D. pyruvic acid
D. water ; carbon dioxide molecule and
light 114. What is the final product of Photosystem
with P700 reaction center?
109. The energy required to pump H+ ions into
A. NADPH
the H ion reservoir comes from the
B. ATP
A. ATP molecules
C. NADP+
B. Electron Transport Chain
D. glucose
C. Light
D. Thylakoid Membrane 115. Gel-like material that fills the space of
the chloroplast is the
110. What happens when light energy excites
A. stroma
electrons in photosystem II?
B. thylakoids
A. Oxygen ions are released into the thy-
lakoid space. C. cytoplasm
B. Water molecules are created. D. mitochondria
C. Electrons are released into the elec- 116. In which type of environment are plants
tron transport system. most likely to use a C4 pathway of carbon
D. Hydrogen is released as waste. fixation?
A. cold and wet
111. Where does sunlight transfer energy to
the electrons? B. cold and dry
A. Photosystems I and II C. hot and wet
B. Photosystem I only D. hot and dry
C. Photosystem II only 117. Protons move into the thylakoid due to
D. Electron Transfer Chain the
A. concentration gradient in the stroma
112. The H+ concentration gradient is used to
B. Brownian motion of the protons.
A. make NADPH
C. peer pressure of the cool electrons in
B. split a water molecule
the stroma.
C. generate ATP
D. movement of electrons through the
D. form water electron transport chain

118. How many carbon atoms are in RuBP? A. ATP is produced

A. 2 B. NADPH is produced

B. 3 C. Glucose is produced
C. 4 D. Oxygen is produced
D. 5 124. The first process in the light reactions of
photosynthesis is
119. Which of the following about the LIGHT
DEPENDENT REACTION is false? A. ATP formation
B. . light absorption
A. High-energy electrons move through
the electron transport chain. C. oxygen release
B. ATP and NADPH are used to produce D. splitting of water
high-energy sugars. 125. Which enzyme joins CO2 and RuBP?
C. ATP synthase helps in making NADPH. A. NADP+ reductase
B. RUBISCO
D. Pigments in photosystems II and I ab-
C. ATP synthase
sorb light.
120. The flat sac (disk) in a chloroplast where
photosynthesis takes place 126. Which of the following events occurs in
the light reactions of photosynthesis?
A. chlorophyll
A. NADP+ is produced
B. pigment
B. ATP is consumed to yield ADP
C. thylakoid
C. carbon dioxide is fixed in organic
D. Calvin cycle molecules
121. Which of the following colors is not ab- D. light is absorbed and funneled to
sorbed by chlorophyll pigments? reaction-center chlorophyll a
A. green 127. Choose the statement that best describes
B. blue light reaction.
A. It converts CO2 to sugar molecule
C. violet
B. It converts light energy to chemical en-
D. none of above
ergy of ATP and NADPH
122. Carbon dioxide and oxygen both enter C. It takes place in the stroma
and leave the leaf at the D. none of above
A. pore
128. Which of the following equations repre-
B. spongy measophyll sents the overall chemical reaction for pho-
C. guard cells tosynthesis?
D. stomata A. 6O2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2
B. C6H12O6 + 6H2O→ 6O2+ 6O2
123. Which of the following does NOT hap-
pen during the light dependent reactions C. 6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12O6+ 6O2
of photosynthesis? D. 6O2 + 6H2O→ C6H12O6 + 6CO2

129. Chlorophyll in Photosystem I regains its 134. Stacks of disk shapes that contain chloro-
lost electrons from phyll within the chloroplast are
A. H2O A. stroma
B. Sunlight B. mitochondria
C. Electrons jumping off the ETC from C. thylakoids
Photosystem II D. ribosomes
D. ADP returning from the Calvin Cycle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
135. Which of the following is not a product of
SHOW ANSWER photosynthesis?
130. What is used to reduce NADP in the light A. carbon dioxide
dependent reactions of photosynthesis? B. oxygen
A. Conversion of ATP into ADP +Pi C. sugar
B. Electrons from photosystem I D. none of above
C. Protons from the thylakoid space 136. The hydrogen ions from splitting water
D. Oxygen from the photolysis of water are used directly to
A. make NADPH
131. The energy lost by electrons as they
move from PS II to PS I is used to B. make glucose
A. add H+ to NADP to form NADPH C. absorb light

D. make ATP
B. move H+ from the stroma to the thy-
lakoid space 137. After reaching an excited state, electrons
C. move H+ from the thylakoid space to jump from the chlorophyll molecules to the
the stroma
D. move the electrons to PS I A. stroma
B. photosytem 2
132. What is the waste-product of light-
C. electron transport
dependent reaction?
D. H+ ion reservoir
A. oxygen
B. water 138. What photosystem(s) are involved in the
light dependent reaction?
C. carbon dioxide
A. Photosystem 1
D. none of above
B. Photosystem 2
133. What is the name of the enzyme involved C. Both
in ATP production? D. none of above
A. ATP synthase
139. What feature of carbon makes it most
B. ADP synthase suitable as a basis for life?
C. ATP synthize A. It is abundant in nature
D. ADP synthize B. Its bonding properties

C. Its reactivity to light C. NADP

D. Its presence in the early atmosphere D. NADPH2

of Earth
145. How do electrons get from PS II to PS I?
140. What is the purpose of splitting water A. They diffuse from high to low
in non-cyclic photophosphorylation of the
B. they follow the ATP synthase channel
light dependent reaction?
C. they follow the ETC
A. Provides electron for PSII and H+ for
reduction of NADP+ D. NADP+ guides them
B. To produce CO2 for plants 146. is a protein attached to the thylakoid
C. There is no purpose membrane that helps synthesize ATP each
time a H+ exits the thylakoid.
D. none of above
A. ATP synthase
141. What is the function of NADPH and ATP? B. ADP
A. They absorb light C. NADPH
B. The power the light-dependent reac- D. Proton pump
tions
147. Which is required for the light-dependent
C. They are light-reflecting pigments reactions in photosynthesis to occur?
D. Provide energy, electrons, and hydro- A. H2O
gen to the Calvin cycle.
B. ATP
142. What is the fluid inside the chloroplast C. NADPH
called?
D. CO2
A. The mitochondria
148. Where does photoactivation (excitation
B. The chloroplast by light) of electrons take place?
C. The cytoplasm A. Photosystems I and II
D. The stroma B. Photosystem I only
143. What is the fate of the hydrogen ions pro- C. Photosystem II only
duced during the photolysis of water? D. Electron Transfer Chain
149. light energy is used to split
produce oxygen gas
A. glucose
B. Remains in the thylakoid space to be
used during ETC B. water
C. To recover electron deficiency in pho- C. oxygen
tosystems D. ATP
D. Used as final electron acceptor 150. Plants are classified as
144. What provides the energy for the Calvin A. autotrophs
cycle? B. photoautotrophs
A. ATP C. heterotrophs
B. ADP D. chemoautotrophs

151. Which molecule is carrying electrons? A. light energy

A. ADP B. ATP and NADPH
B. ATP C. chemical energy
C. NADPH D. rubisco
D. NADP+
157. The is a gel-like material within the
152. Water is split during chloroplast that corresponds to the cyto-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
plasm of the original bacterium.
A. photosystem 1 of the light dependent
reaction A. Stroma
B. photosystem 2 of the light dependent B. Thylakoid
reaction
C. Grana
C. calvin cycle
D. Lamella
D. cell respiration
158. Where does the Calvin Cycle occur?
153. Which process occurs during the light-
dependent reactions in photosynthesis? A. thylakoid
A. Water molecules are split. B. stroma
B. Carbon fixation occurs. C. lumen
C. PGA is reduced. D. mitochondria
D. RuBP is regenerated. 159. What goes into the light DEPENDENT re-
154. Examples of photosynthetic accessory actions?
pigments are A. ATP, NADPH, light, water
A. chlorophyll b and carotenoids. B. light, water
B. chlorophyll a and carotenoids. C. ATP, light, water
C. chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b. D. ADP, NADP+, light, water
D. carotenoids and DNA.
160. Where does the Calvin cycle take place?
155. Chlorophyll absorbs and light A. stroma of the chloroplast
from the light.
B. thylakoid membrane
A. purple and green
C. outer membrane of the chloroplast
B. red and blue
D. interior of the thylakoid membrane
C. black and orange
D. yellow and green 161. The light-dependent reaction takes place
in the
156. n the chemical equation for photosynthe-
sis, carbon dioxide and water are con- A. mitochondria
verted to glucose and oxygen.6CO2 + B. thylakoids
6H2O ®C6H12O6 + 6O2Which compo-
C. ribosomes
nent could be added to complete this chem-
ical equation? D. stroma

162. Autotrophs (producers) can perform pho- C. P650

tosynthesis because they have- D. none of above

A. Mitochondria
168. Besides ATP and O2, what other com-
B. Ribosomes pound is produced as a result of the light
C. A Nucleus dependent reactions?
D. Chloroplasts A. NADPH (reduced NADP)
B. NADP+
163. Which of these is NOT found in the ETC in
non-cyclic photophosphorylation? C. Glucose
A. Plastoquinone D. ADP
B. Ferredoxin 169. What is a waste product of Photosystem

2?
C. Cytochrome complex
A. Oxygen
D. NADH dehydrogenase
B. Water
164. How many parts is water broken up into C. Carbon Dioxide
during the LDR?
D. Sugar
A. 1
170. What is the fate of the oxygen atom pro-
B. 2
duced during the photolysis of water?
C. 3
D. 4 produce oxygen gas
165. What does a leaf need in order for photo- B. Remains in the thylakoid space to be
synthesis to occur? used during ETC
A. sunlight C. To recover electron deficiency in pho-
tosystems
B. darkness
D. Used as final electron acceptor
C. cold weather
171. Which compound is produced during re-
D. soil
generation?
166. In a light-dependent reaction, water and A. PGA
sunlight is needed to make oxygen and
B. G3P
C. RuBP
A. carbon dioxide
D. rubisco
B. sugar
172. Which molecule is formed when the pro-
C. ATP
tein ferrodoxin transfers electrons to an
D. chlorophyll electron carrier?
167. What is the maximum wavelength that A. ATP
can be absorbed by Photosystem I? B. ADP
A. P680 C. NADP+
B. P700 D. NADPH

173. Which of these is NOT a component of the 178. Where is the site of the light-dependent
ETC in cyclic photophosphorylation? reactions?
A. Plastoquinone A. Stroma
B. Ferredoxin B. Thylakoid membranes
C. Cytochrome complex C. Chlorophyll
D. Plastocyanin D. Chemiosmosis
179. How does carbon dioxide get into the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
174. Where does the light independent reac-
leaves of a plant?
tion take place?
A. It’s absorbed by the roots
A. Matrix
B. It’s made in a chemical reaction in the
B. Stroma stem
C. Thylakoid membrane C. It enters through the stomata
D. Cytoplasm D. It goes through the flowers
175. Which of these statements is TRUE re- 180. Which of the following is NOT a product
garding photoactivation? of Light Dependent Reaction?
A. Proton molecules will energise elec- A. ATP
trons B. Glucose
B. Only occurs in photosystem I C. O2
C. It caused electron deficiency in reac- D. NADPH
tion centres
181. Which of the following is NOT a product
D. Requires CO2 absorption of the dark reactions?
176. What is the chemical equation for photo- A. NADP+
synthesis? B. NADPH
A. 6 CO2 + 6 H2O sunlight→ 6 O2 C. ATP
and C6H12O6
D. Glucose
B. ATP + NADPH → NADP+ and ADP
182. How does the Calvin cycle differ from the
C. 6 O2 and C6H12O6 sunlight→ 6 light-dependent reactions? It
CO2 + 6 H2O
A. requires light
D. ADP and NADP+ → ATP and NADPH
B. takes place in the stroma
177. It is an energy intermediate that pro- C. takes place in the grana
vides the energy and electrons to drive the D. takes place in the chloroplasts
Calvin cycle during photosynthesis
183. In the Calvin Cycle, carbon from CO2 is
A. NADP+
added to one molecule of RuBP to create
B. ATP
C. NADPH A. RUDP
D. NAPDH B. An Unstable 6 Carbon Molecule

C. PGA 189. What is the primary function of the light-

D. 2 3-carbon molecules dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

A. To produce glucose
184. Which color is not used by the chlorophyll
B. To produce NADPH and ATP
pigments (I.e., which color is reflected and
not absorbed)? C. To use ATP
A. green D. To produce RuBP
B. blue 190. Where does the photosystem get its elec-

C. yellow tron
A. Electron transport chain
D. red
B. Light energy
185. Which product is the main out out of the
C. By splitting water molecules
Calvin Cycle?
D. Reduction of carbon dioxide
A. oxygen
B. water 191. Which of these are NOT the products of
cyclic photophosphorylation?
C. carbon dioxide
A. ATP
D. glucose
B. NADPH
186. What substance is produced at the end of C. O2
the light dependent reaction? D. CO2
A. NADPH
192. The light reactions occur in the and
B. NADP the dark reactions take place in the
C. Carbon dioxide A. Chloroplast / thylakoid membrane
D. Glucose B. stroma / thylakoid
187. Which molecule acts as a carrier for high C. mesophyl / stomata

energy electrons during photosynthesis? D. thylakoid membrane / stroma
A. ATP 193. Which reactions do not cause a net re-
B. CO2 lease of energy?
C. NADP+ A. ADP combines with inorganic phos-
phate to form ATP
D. H2O
B. ATP releases inorganic phosphate to
188. After the excited electrons are captured form ADP
by the primary electron acceptor, water is C. Loss of hydrogen from reduced NAD
split in a process known as what?
D. Oxidation of reduced FAD
A. photosynthesis
194. A membrane-bound compartment in the
B. photolysis
chloroplast, which is the site of the light-
C. chemiosmosis dependent reaction of photosynthesis.
D. electron transport chain A. chlorophyll

B. thylakoid 200. When electrons in the reaction-center

C. cell membrane chlorophyll become so excited; they escape
to a nearby
D. chloroplast
A. primary electron acceptor molecule
195. The first protein electrons come across B. secondary electron acceptor molecule
during photosynthesis is called:
A. photosystem 1
C. chloroplast
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. photosystem 2
D. cellular membrane
C. chromatin d
201. A student is collecting the gas given off
D. mitochondria
from a plant in bright sunlight at a tem-
196. are small discs found within the perature of 270C the gas being collected
chloroplast that contains components im- is probably
portant for photosynthesis A. ATP
A. Carotenoid B. Oxygen
B. Stroma C. Carbon dioxide
C. Thylakoid
D. Vaporized water
D. Lamella
202. If you were asked to sort cards into
197. Where does oxygen gas was produced? drawers, a drawer marked “Packets of
A. By splitting the water molecules Light” would receive cards referring to
B. Excitation of electron in reaction cen- A. photons.
ter B. protons.
C. Electron transport chain C. electrons.
D. Photosystem I D. grana.
198. What is the name of the enzyme involved
203. Which is the first step in the scientific
in ATP production during light dependent
method?
reaction?
A. ask a question
A. ATP synthase
B. conduct background research
B. ADP synthase
C. ATP synthize C. construct a hypothesis
D. ADP synthize D. perform an experiment
199. Plants are examples of because they 204. The energy of a photon first used to
can make their own food during photosynthesis photosynthesis?
A. autotrophs A. split a water molecule
B. heterotrophs B. energize an electron
C. consumers C. produce ATP
D. herbivores D. synthesize glucose

4.5 The Calvin Cycle 505
205. ADP and NADP+ 208. Adenosine Triphosphate is created after

A. Store energy an H+ passes through

A. The Stroma
B. Release energy
B. The Calvin Cycle
C. Store glucose
C. ATP Synthase
D. Fix carbon dioxide
D. The electron transport chain
206. Which is a graph of the rate of photosyn-
thesis? 209. In what part of photosynthesis is water
broken down?
A. absorption spectrum
A. The Calvin Cycle
B. action spectrum
B. The Dark Reactions
C. electromagnetic spectrum
C. Photosystem 1 of the ETC
D. none of the options D. Photosystem 2 of the ETC
207. The organelle where photosynthesis 210. What do plants need for the photosynthe-
takes place sis process?
A. mitochondria A. a camera and tripod
B. nucleus B. light, carbon dioxide, and water
C. chloroplast C. roots, flowers, and bees
D. golgi apparatus D. soil, air, and oxygen
4.5 The Calvin Cycle

1. The phase of the Calvin Cycle in which G3P C. stroma
combines with ATP to make more RuBP.
D. none of above
A. Carbon Fixation
B. Reduction 4. Which of the following is NOT a reactant
of the dark reactions (Calvin Cycle)?
C. Regeneration
A. NADPH
D. none of above
B. ATP
2. Because plants carry out photosynthesis,
they are considered C. Oxygen
A. heterotrophs D. Carbon dioxide

B. autotrophs 5. Temperatures that are too high can slow
C. consumers photosynthesis because
D. unicellular A. stomata stay open
3. Where do the Calvin Cycle take place? B. enzymes are ruined
A. thylakoid membrane C. there is not enough CO2
B. lumen D. there is too much water

6. Which of the following is NOT a product of B. stoma

the dark reactions (Calvin Cycle)? C. roma
A. NADP+ D. thylakoid
B. NADPH
12. The equation for photosynthesis is
C. ATP
A. C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O
D. G3P (to form glucose)
+ Sunlight
NARAYAN CHANGDER
7. What happens to the remaining G3P B. 6 O2 + 6 H2O + Sunlight → C6H12O6
molecules in the last step of the Calvin Cy- + 6 CO2
cle?
C. 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + Sunlight →
A. They are used to make glucose. C6H12O6 + 6 O2
B. They are reshuffled to make CO2 by D. C6H12O6 + 6 CO2 → 6 O2 + 6 H2O
adding ATP.
13. This molecule helps add a phosphate do a
depleted energy molecule.
A. PS 2
adding ATP.
B. PS 1
8. What is the Co2 acceptor in the first step
of the Calvin Cycle? C. Electron Transport Chain
A. 3-phosphoglycerate D. ATP Synthase
B. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate 14. The final step of the Light Dependent

C. ribulose 1, 5-bisphosphate Phase involves the creations of
D. rubisco A. NADPH
B. Glucose
9. What does cam plants store
C. ATP
A. H20
D. CO2
B. CO2
C. Sunlight 15. How many G3P (PGAL) molecules does it
take to make one molecule of glucose?
D. Carbon Dioxide
A. 1
10. Which of the following is NOT a reactant
B. 2
of the light independent reactions (Calvin
Cycle )? C. 3
A. NADPH D. 4
B. ATP 16. Which of the following is NOT a product of
C. Oxygen the dark reactions (light independent)?
D. Carbon dioxide A. NADP+
11. Carbon dioxide gas can enter a plant leaf B. NADPH

through a C. ATP
A. stroma D. G3P (to form glucose)

17. The Calvin Cycle occurs in the B. Dog

A. Thylakoid C. Mushroom

B. Grana D. Human
C. Inner membrane of chloroplast
23. Most plants carry out the pathway in
D. Stroma
photosynthesis.
18. Which enzyme catalyzes the 5 carbon A. CAM
RuBP?
B. C4
A. Rubisco
C. C3
B. Amylase
D. none of above
C. PGA Carboxylase
D. Trypsin 24. What is the main electron carrier found in
plants?
19. Which part of the leaf is involved in con-
serving water in dry conditions? A. ATP
A. stroma B. NADP+
B. chloroplast C. FADH2
C. veins D. RUBP
D. stomata
25. Electrons reach an excited state after
20. What happens to the remaining G3P strikes the chlorophyll in the thylakoids.
molecules that do not get converted into
glucose in the last step of the dark reac- A. water
tions? B. sunlight
A. They are used to make glucose. C. oxygen
B. They are reshuffled to make CO2 by D. NADP+
adding ATP.
C. They exit the cycle. 26. The energy that drives the Calvin cycle is
found in
adding ATP. A. ATP and NADPH
21. What is the part of the plant that is re- B. Glucose and 3-carbon sugars
sponsible for gas exchange? C. Stomata and cellulose
A. Stomata D. water and carbon dioxide
B. Chloroplast
27. The third stage in the Calvin Cycle is:
C. Chlorophyll
D. Mitochondria A. Regeneration
B. Carbon Fixation
22. Which of the following is an example of an
AUTOTROPH? C. Reduction
A. Appletree D. none of above

28. How many triose phosphate molecules 34. What is the main product of the Calvin Cy-
make one molecule of glucose? cle?
A. 1 A. Stroma
B. 2 B. Thylakoids
C. 3 C. Glucose
D. 4 D. Water
35. Produces NADPH
NARAYAN CHANGDER
29. When carbon first enters the Calvin cycle,
what molecule does it combine with? A. light reactions alone
A. PGA B. the Calvin cycle alone
B. G3P C. both the light reactions and the Calvin
C. RuBP cycle
D. ATP D. neither the light reactions nor the

Calvin cycle
30. An alternate name for the G3P compound
36. Carbon Fixation is the step of the
is called
Calvin Cycle.
A. PGA
A. 1st
B. RuBP
B. 2nd
C. PGAL C. 3rd
D. RUBISCO D. 4th
31. Cam plants have a different adaptation to 37. Which of the following would have affect
what climate the rate of photosynthesis?
A. cold and wet A. amount of water
B. hot and dry B. carbon dioxide concentration
C. both C. temperature
D. none of the above D. all of these
32. What do CAM plants store 38. After 12 G3P molecules are created, 10
A. water are used to regenerate , while the
other 2 are used to create
B. oxygen
A. RuBP, C6H12O6
C. sunlight
B. Glucose, CO2
D. carbon Dioxide
C. ATP, Glucose
33. How many carbons does G3P have? D. Glucose, RUBP
A. 1
39. How many PGALs molecules make one
B. 3 molecule of glucose?
C. 2 A. 1
D. 6 B. 2

C. 3 45. Light energy is used to

D. 4 A. split water into H and O

40. To bring in nonliving carbon (CO2), link B. weld C, H and O together
it to other carbon molecules, and use it C. make water
to make organic compounds is a process D. none of above
called
A. carbon fixation 46. carbon sugar that combines with CO2 in
the Calvin Cycle
A. 3-PGA
C. light reaction
B. G3P
D. fermentation
C. RuBP
41. What molecule joins with carbon dioxide D. Glucose
to start the calvin cycle?
A. RuBP 47. Because C4 and CAM plants keep their
stomata closed to avoid losing water,
B. Oxygen what ends up building up inside the plant
C. G3P that leads to photorespiration?
D. PGA A. CO2
42. In the Calvin Cycle, which enzyme helps B. O2

keep the cycle going? C. Electrons
A. Hydrolase D. H+
B. Rubisco 48. The type of plant that has their stomata
C. Pepsisco only slightly open during the day
D. Re-starterase A. C3
43. In the chemical reaction of photosynthesis, B. C4

photoautotrophs combine carbon dioxide C. CAM
and water to produce sugar and which of D. none of above
the following?
A. Oxygen 49. Which of the following is not true about
Calvin Cycle
B. G3P
A. it only happens during the dark
C. ATP
B. it can happen on daytime or night time
D. 3 PGA
44. What is the five carbon chain called that C. it only happens during daytime
begins the Calvin cycle? D. none of above
A. Gyceralehyde Phosphate
50. To bring in nonliving carbon (CO2) and use
B. Ribulose biphosphate it to make organic compounds is a process
C. Glucose called
D. Adenosine diphosphate A. carbon fixiation

B. cellular respiration B. Thylakoid membrane

C. catabolic reactions C. Mitochondria
D. mitosis D. Nucleus
51. Which one is produced during the light in- 56. What is the chemical formula for carbon
dependent reactions? dioxide?
A. ATP A. H2O
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. NADPH B. CO2
C. Glucose C. CHO2
D. Water D. CO2H
52. What happens to the remaining PGAL 57. The two main stages of photosynthesis
(G3P) molecules in the last step of the dark are the
reactions? A. light reactions and respiration
A. They are used to make glucose. B. dark reactions and the Calvin cycle
B. They are regenerated to make CO2 by C. light reactions and the Calvin cycle
adding ATP.
D. dark reactions and fermentation
D. They are regenerated to make RuBP by 58. During the regeneration step of the Calvin
adding ATP. Cycle, what molecules are converted into
RuBP?
53. Which of the following is NOT a reactant A. PGA
of the dark reactions (light independent)?
B. NADPH
A. NADPH
C. Glucose
B. ATP
D. G3P
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide 59. What happens to the remaining carbon
molecules in the last step of the Calvin cy-
54. Increasing temperature can increase en- cle?
zyme activity to a certain point. Then A. They are used to make glucose.
what happens?
B. They are reshuffled to make CO2 by
A. The enzymes have completed all the re- adding ATP.
actions so stop
B. The enzymes have been denatured or
destroyed D. They are reshuffled to make RuBP by
adding ATP.
C. Nothing-the rate continues to increase
all the time 60. It is important to create a concentration of
D. none of above H+ in the thylakoid space so that the H+
can be transported through to create
55. Where does the Calvin Cycle happen?
A. Stroma A. ATP synthase, ATP

B. NADH, NADPH 66. What does carbon combine with to form

C. sodium potassium pump, protons glucose?
A. NADPH

D. none of above
B. ATP
61. What is the energy conversion during pho-
tosynthesis? C. RuBP
A. chemical → light D. G3P
B. thermal → electrical 67. In C4 plants, the Calvin cycle

C. chemical → electrical A. Takes place at night
D. light → chemical B. Only occurs when the stomata are
closed
62. The second stage in the Calvin Cycle is:
C. Takes place in the mesophyll
A. Regeneration
D. Takes place in the bundle-sheath cells
B. Carbon Fixation
68. Which organisms perform Photosynthe-
C. Reduction
sis?
D. none of above
A. Only Autotrophs
63. Which of the following is true of the Calvin B. Only Heterotrophs
Cycle?
C. Autotrophs and Heterotrophs
A. carbon dioxide and energy (ATP and D. none of above
NADPH) are used to make organic com-
pounds 69. The reactants for the Light Dependent Re-
B. energy is absorbed from sunlight and actions are
converted to chemical energy stored in A. water, sunlight, glucose
ATP and NADPH B. oxygen, NADPH, ATP
C. Occurs in the thylakoid C. water, oxygen, sunlight
D. Occurs in the cytoplasm D. water, sunlight, ADP, and NADP+
64. The six carbon intermediate initially made 70. oxygen becomes attached to RuBP during
in the Calvin Cycle is unstable and breaks
into two molecules of
A. C3 pathway
A. ATP
B. C4 pathway
B. G3P
C. Calvin-Benson Cycle
C. RuBP D. Photorespiration
D. PGA
71. In the Calvin Cycle, and from the
65. Which type of plant fixes carbon only at light dependent reactions convert PGA into
night? G3P
A. C3 A. O2, ATP
B. C4 B. CO2, H2
C. CAM C. ADP, NADPH
D. all of these D. NADPH, ATP

72. Calvin cycle is sometimes called the light- 77. The energy provided by ATP comes from
independent reactions because what?
A. light is not required for the Calvin cycle A. Adenosine
to move forward B. The phosphate groups
B. light is required C. The bonds between the phosphate
C. it is something animal cells do groups
D. green light is absorbed during this D. The excited electron
NARAYAN CHANGDER
step 78. In order to efficiently create 1 glucose
molecule, the Calvin Cycle must occur how
73. What binds to CO2 during the first step of
many times?
Calvin cycle?
A. 3
A. NADPH
B. 6
B. ATP
C. 1
C. RuBP
D. 12
D. G3P
79. Which product is produced by the splitting
74. Where do we find C4 and CAM plants? of water during the light-dependent reac-
A. Cold, dry places tions of photosynthesis?
B. Cold, wet places A. NADPH

B. oxygen
C. Hot, dry places
C. glucose
D. Hot, wet places
D. carbon dioxide
75. What enzyme helps fix carbon from car-
bon dioxide to RuBP in the “normal” path- 80. Light Dependent Phase involves the cre-
way? ation of , an electron carrier.
A. PEP A. NADPH
B. Glucose
B. Rubisco
C. ATP
C. Hydrogen
D. CO2
D. Photosystem I
81. Why do CAM plants open their stomata at
76. The Calvin Cycle has 3 main stages. These night
stages are Carbon Fixation, Reduction and
Regeneration of RuBP. They all lead to a A. It just happens
final product. What is the final product of B. To take in oxygen
the Calvin Cycle? C. To collect Carbon Dioxide
A. NADPH and ATP D. None of the above
B. glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P)
82. The type of plant that opens their stomata
C. NADPH and ADP only at night is
D. NADH+ and ATP A. C3

B. C4 B. Decreases
C. CAM C. Stays the same

83. Which of the events listed below occur in 88. In order for regeneration to occur 5 G3P
the light reactions of photosynthesis? molecules are required. Which then un-
dergoes a complex series of reactions and
A. NADP is produced. forms
B. NADPH is reduced to NADP+. A. 3 carbon sugars
C. Carbon dioxide is incorporated into B. 3 molecules of RuBP
PGA.
C. 4 PGA
D. Light is absorbed and funneled to
D. 6 ATP
reaction-center chlorophyll a.
89. When humans burn fossil fuels, most of
84. Increasing carbon dioxide can increase pho- the carbon quickly enters the as carbon
tosynthesis, but only to a maximum rate dioxide.
because
A. Water
A. There are not enough RuBP molecules
B. Atmosphere
C. Sun
B. Oxygen cannot leave fast enough
D. Air
C. Large amounts of CO2 cannot fit in the
chloroplast 90. Enzyme that catalyzes the creation of a 3C
D. Calvin cycle can only go as fast as the sugar from a 1C carbon dioxide
light reactions A. Nabisco
B. Rubisco
85. What is the fuel for the Calvin Cycle?
C. 3GP
A. ATP & NADPH
D. Catalase
B. ADP & NADPH
C. FADH2 & ATP 91. what part of the chloroplast does the
Calvin cycle take place
D. ATP & NAD+
A. outer membrane
86. The Calvin Cycle stage of photosynthesis B. thylakoid
happen where?
C. stroma
A. stroma of chloroplast D. inner membrane
B. mitochondrial matrix
92. How many molecules are present in re-
C. stem duction that ATP and NADPH reduce?
D. thylakoid membrane (HINT:Reuben is cut in half!)
A. 1
87. If a plant receives more carbon dioxide,
what happens to the rate of photosynthe- B. 2
sis? C. 3
A. Increases D. 4

93. Which of the following is true of the Light 98. the light independent reaction takes place
Reactions? in the
A. carbon dioxide and energy (ATP and A. thylakoids
NADPH) are used to make organic com-
B. mitochondria
pounds
B. energy is absorbed from sunlight and C. nucleua
converted to chemical energy stored in D. stroma
ATP and NADPH
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Occurs in the stroma 99. What happens to the majority of the G3P
molecules in the last step of the dark reac-
D. Occurs in the cytoplasm tions?
94. A plant using the C4 pathway will A. They are used to make glucose.
A. fix CO2 into a four carbon sugar in- B. They are reshuffled to make CO2 by
stead of a three carbon sugar adding ATP.
B. close the stomata during the day C. They exit the cycle.
C. produce a four carbon sugar instead of
glucose
adding ATP.
D. not need ATP from the light reactions
100. What is the final product made during the
95. When does light dependent reactions take light independent reactions?
place?
A. ATP
A. Day time
B. NADPH
B. Night time
C. Any time C. sugar
D. Never a good time D. fat
96. What happens to G3P molecules not made 101. What enzyme helps fix carbon from car-
into sugars in the last step of the dark re- bon dioxide in the “C4 or CAM” path-
actions? way?
A. They are used to make ATP A. PEP
B. They are reshuffled to make CO2 by B. Rubisco
adding ATP.
C. Hydrogen
D. Photosystem I
adding ATP. 102. Which one of the following plants are
more adapted to dry climates?
97. What is made during the Calvin Cycle?
A. ATP A. C3
B. NADPH B. C4
C. sugar C. B4
D. fat D. A2

103. What happens to the NADP+ and ADP 108. When hydrogen ions are pumped from
formed after NADPH and ATP are used in the stroma across the thylakoid membrane
the Calvin Cycle? and into the lumen, the result is the

A. they ‘recycle’ back to the light reac- A. formation of ATP.
tions B. reduction of NAD+.
B. they are used to make G3P C. restoration of the Na+/K+ balance
across the membrane.
C. neither:they don’t exist
D. creation of a proton gradient.
D. none of above
109. Which of the following affects the rate of
104. How many molecules in reduction that photosynthesis?
ATP and NADPH reduce go on to become
A. amount of water
another RuBP regenerated?
B. carbon dioxide concentration
A. 1
C. temperature
B. 2
D. all of these
C. 3
110. How many carbons does RuBP have?
D. 4
A. 3
105. What does the arrow in a chemical equa- B. 4
tion mean? C. 5
A. equals D. 6
B. produces 111. Main products of the Calvin Cycle
C. yields A. Oxygen, NADP+, ADP
D. means B. Glucose, CO2, ADP
C. ADP, NADP+, Glucose
106. Which organelle performs photosynthe-
sis? D. ATP, NADPH, Oxygen
A. Chloroplast 112. What is the main purpose of the Calvin

Cycle?
B. Mitochondria
A. Make ATP
C. Chlorophyll
B. Make NADPH
D. Vacuoles
C. Make Glucose
107. plants like cacti, succulents, and D. Make NAD+
pineapple only open their stomata for CO2
113. The type of plant that opens their stom-
uptake at night.
ata all day long is
A. C3
A. C3
B. C4 B. C4
C. CAM C. CAM

114. In the Calvin Cycle, and from the 119. Protons (hydrogen ions) move into the
light dependent reactions aid in converting thylakoid due to the
carbon dioxide into glucose. A. concentration gradient in the stroma
A. O2, ATP B. Brownian motion of the protons.
B. CO2, H2 C. peer pressure from the electrons in
C. ADP, NADPH the stroma.
D. NADPH, ATP D. movement of electrons through the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
electron transport chain
115. How many molecules in reduction that
120. What molecules created in the light de-
ATP and NADPH reduce go on to become
pendent reactions supply the energy to run
part of a glucose molecule?
the Calvin cycle?
A. 1 A. ATP & NADPH
B. 2 B. ADP & NADH
C. 3 C. chlorophyll & ATP
D. 4 D. carotenoids & chlorophyll
116. To bring in inorganic carbon (CO2) and in- 121. The process which joins together ADP and
corporate it into organic compounds is a P is called
process called A. ATP Creation
A. carbon fixiation B. Glycolysis
B. cellular respiration C. Active Transport
C. catabolic reactions D. Chemiosmosis
D. regeneration 122. What is the second stage of the Calvin
Cycle?
117. What is the product of the Calvin Cycle?
A. Carbon fixation
A. RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase
B. Reduction
B. Rubisco
C. Regeneration of RUBP
C. G3P D. Secondary
D. 3-PGA
123. Which of these would be considered a C4
118. What is a limiting factor? Pathway plant?
A. cactus
A. The factor which increases the rate of
a reaction B. sugar cane
B. The factor that limits the reaction rate C. oak tree
D. aglae
C. The factor that limits the rate at which
124. Corn and sugarcane are examples of
an enzyme is destroyed
plants that carry out the pathway in
D. none of above photosynthesis.

A. CAM 130. The first stage in the Calvin Cycle is:

B. C4 A. Regeneration

C. C3 B. Carbon Fixation
D. none of above C. Reduction
D. none of above
125. The six carbon sugar initially made in the
Calvin Cycle is unstable and breaks into 131. Which enzyme joins RuBP to Carbon Diox-
two molecules of ide?
A. ATP A. G3P
B. G3P B. RuBisco
C. RuBP C. ATP Synthase
D. 3-PGA D. PGA
132. The purpose of the Electron Transport
126. What is created during the Calvin cycle?
Chain is
A. ATP
A. To produce CO2
B. NADPH B. To produce ATP
C. sugar C. To make glucose
D. fat D. To make NADH
127. Which of these will not affect photosyn- 133. After 12 G3P (triose phosphate)
thesis? molecules are created, 10 are used to re-
A. Light generate , while the other 2 are used
to create
B. Temperature
A. 5-C compound (RuBP:Ribulose 1, 5-
C. Glucose Availability bisphosphate), C6H12O6
D. Carbon Dioxide B. Glucose, CO2
128. In the Calvin Cycle, carbon from CO2 is C. ATP, Glucose
added to one molecule of 5-C compound D. Glucose, RUBP
(RuBP:Ribulose 1, 5-bisphosphate) to cre-
ate 134. The reactants of the Calvin cycle are
A. RUDP A. ATP, NADPH, Carbon Dioxide

B. water, sunlight, ADP, NADP+
B. An Unstable 6 Carbon Molecule
C. glucose
C. PGA
D. oxygen and glucose
D. 2 3-carbon molecules
135. How many carbons does RuBP have orig-
129. Which is not a C4 plant? inally?
A. Cactus A. 6
B. Corn B. 3
C. Sugar cane C. 4
D. Crab grass D. 5

136. Which of the following is a CAM plant? 141. Glucose’s chemical formula is C6H12O6.
A THREE carbon molecule is produced at
A. Corn
the end of ONE Calvin Cycle that goes on to
B. Sugar cane make up the glucose molecule. How many
C. Crabgrass Calvin Cycles does it take to make ONE glu-
cose molecule with six total carbons?
D. Pineapple
A. 1
137. What is the name of the sugar that is pro- B. 2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
duced during the dark stage of photosyn-
C. 3
thesis?
D. 4
A. Sucrose
142. The phase of the calvin cycle in which
B. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
RuBP and CO2 combine to make an unsta-
C. Glucose ble intermediate 6 carbon compound that
D. Lactose immediately breaks down to PGA (phos-
phoglycerate).
138. Which is the correct formula for photo- A. Reduction
synthesis?
B. Regeneration
A. CO2 + H2O → (in sunlight) C6H12O6 C. Carbon Fixation
+ O2
D. Phosphorylation
B. sunlight + CO2 + H2O → C6H12O6 +
O2 143. What of the following items is made
(product) during the light independent re-
C. C6H12O6 + O2 → (in sunlight) CO2 +
actions?
H2O
A. ATP
D. CO2 + H2O → C6H12O6 + O2 + sun-
light B. NADPH
C. sugar
139. Cacti and pineapples are examples of
D. oxygen
plants that carry out the pathway in
photosynthesis. 144. What does carbon dioxide combine with
A. CAM to (eventually) form glucose?
A. NADPH
B. C4
B. ATP
C. C3
C. RuBP
D. none of above
D. G3P
140. How many PGAL (G3P) are regenerated
145. Which of the following is a way to in-
to make RuBP?
crease the rate of photosynthesis?
A. 2 A. Increase oxygen levels
B. 3 B. Decrease CO2 levels
C. 5 C. Increase light intensity
D. 6 D. Decrease water level

146. The light dependent phase occurs in the C. Carbon Fixation

D. Glycolysis

A. Stroma
152. In the Calvin Cycle, CO2 is added to RuBP
B. Thylakoid Membrane which creates
C. Chlorophyll A. ribulose bisphosphate
D. Chloroplast Membrane
B. an unstable 6-carbon molecule
147. Where do the light independent reactions C. PGAL
(Calvin Cycle ) take place?
D. rubisco
153. Rate of photosynthesis as light inten-
B. lumen
sity
C. stroma
A. increases, increases
D. matrix
B. decreases, increases
148. The products of the Light Dependent Re- C. increases, decreases
actions are
D. none of above
A. oxygen, ADP, NADP+
154. In order to create ONE glucose molecule,
B. oxygen, ATP, NADPH
the Calvin Cycle must occur how many
C. glucose times? (How many CO2 molecules must
D. water, sunlight, glucose go through the cycle?)
A. 3
149. What is the name of the simple sugar that
is most commonly produced in photosyn- B. 6
thesis? C. 1
A. Sucrose D. 12
B. Dextrose
155. What does carbon combine with in the
C. Glucose beginning of the Calvin Cycle to form glu-
D. Lactose cose?
A. NADPH
150. What is the first stage of the Calvin Cy-
cle? B. ATP
A. Carbon fixation C. RuBP
B. Reduction D. G3P
C. Regeneration of RUBP 156. During the Calvin Cycle, carbon from CO2
D. Primary is added to create
151. Which of the following is the first phase A. RUDP

of the Calvin Cycle. B. A 6-carbon sugar molecule
A. Reduction C. PGA
B. Kreb D. 3-carbon molecules

157. In the process of efficiently creating 3 glu- C. The heating of a solid, such as a rock.
cose molecules, how many PGA molecules D. none of above
would be produced?
A. 18 163. In which stage do RuBP and CO2 combine
to make an unstable intermediate 6 carbon
B. 6
that immediately breaks into PGA?
C. 36
A. Reduction
D. 12
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Regeneration
158. What converts the ATP to ADP.
C. Carbon Fixation
A. Pa
D. Phosphorylation
B. Pi
C. Pt 164. Taking in CO2 from the atmosphere and
turning it into glucose is called
D. Pe
A. Reduction
159. Which of these would be considered a
B. Regeneration
CAM pathway plant?
C. Carbon Fixation
A. cactus
B. corn D. Chemiosmosis
C. elm tree 165. Plants can close their stomata when the
D. algae temperature is hot
A. To prevent water loss
160. Oxygen, electrons, and H+ ions are pro-
duced during the Light Dependent Reac- B. To prevent loss of oxygen
tions when C. To prevent loss of carbon dioxide
A. light strikes the thylakoid
D. To bring in more carbon dioxide
B. light splits a water molecule
166. The CO2 used in the Calvin Cycle origi-
C. carbon dioxide diffuses through the
nates from
stoma
D. NADP+ carries an electron A. The light phase
B. The breakdown of the remaining G3P’s
161. The Calvin Cycle occurs in the
A. Stroma
C. Diffusion through the stoma
B. Thylakoid Membrane
D. Lumen of the Thylakoid
C. Enzyme ATP Synthase
D. Chlorophyll 167. How many PGAL (G3P) molecules make
one molecule of glucose?
162. What is the greenhouse effect?
A. 1
A. The warming of a planet due to
B. 2
trapped radiation.
B. The cooling of Earth due to air pollu- C. 3
tion. D. 4

168. Which of the following is both a reactant 173. How many molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate
and product of the Calvin Cycle? is synthesized from the reaction between
6 CO2 and 6 RuBP?

A. ATP
A. 3
B. NADPH
B. 6
C. CO2
C. 12
D. G3P
D. 16
169. When it is chilly and raining outside,
174. The Calvin Cycle phase in which PGA in
there is no photosynthesis taking place.
converted to G3P with the help of ATP and
What is the limiting factor?
NADPH. G3P gains electrons in the pro-
A. Temperature cess.
B. Rainfall A. Carbon fixation
C. Carbon Dioxide B. Reduction
D. none of above C. Regeneration

D. none of above
170. How many ATP do you need in one turn
of the Calvin Cycle? 175. Does the Calvin Cycle require light?
A. 1 A. yes
B. 6 B. no
C. depends on the amount of carbon diox-
C. 9
ide
D. 12
D. none of above
171. What are C3 plants? 176. What are the raw materials of photosyn-
A. These plants are the best when it thesis?
comes to storing water due to their ex- A. oxygen and carbon dioxide
tremely dry environments
B. oxygen and glucose
B. These plants mostly just reduce the
C. carbon dioxide and water
rate of photorespiration
D. water and glucose
C. plants that do the calvin cycle in the
mesophyll cells 177. The major atmospheric byproduct of pho-
tosynthesis is
D. none of above
A. carbon dioxide
172. What is the ultimate product of the Calvin B. oxygen
Cycle?
C. water
A. Glucose
D. glucose
B. NADPH
178. Which factor would not increase the pro-
C. ATP
duction of glucose by photosynthesis in
D. electrons plants?

4.6 Photorespiration 522
A. freezing temperatures B. no-acidic solutions provide more H+

B. extra rainfall C. yes-acidic solutions provide more H+
C. increased carbon dioxide levels D. none of above
D. increased sunlight exposure 180. The products of the Calvin cycle are
A. ATP, NADPH
179. The acidity of a chloroplast or mitchon-
drial environment can impact the rate of B. oxygen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
reaction C. glucose, ADP, NADP+
A. yes-acidic solutions provide more H+ D. water, sunlight
4.6 Photorespiration
1. At night time with zero light, what gas 5. The mass of a 300 foot tall Redwood
would be collected the most from a plant? comes mostly from
A. oxygen A. the soil
B. hydrogen B. the water
C. carbon dioxide C. the sunlight
D. water vapor D. the carbon dioxide in the air
6. Which plants, evolutionarily, came first?
2. C3 Plants are a higher risk of Photorespi-
ration when A. CAM Plants
A. It is hot and dry outside. B. C4 Plants
C. C3 Plants
B. It is cool and damp outside.
D. none of above
C. It is hot and damp outside.
D. It is cool and dry outside. 7. Photorespiration has a ‘net negative’ af-
fect on a plant because
3. CAM plants temporarily store CO2 in A. A plant toxin is produced.
A. Malic Acid Molecules B. A ‘useless’ product is produced.
B. Four Carbon Molecules C. A ‘harmful to humans’ form of glucose
C. They don’t they are at risk for Pho- is produced.
torespiration. D. none of above
D. Carboxylic Acid 8. Why would gardeners use red lights when
growing plants indoors?
4. At night time with zero light, what gas
would be collected the most? A. because it looks cool
B. plants reflect more red light
A. oxygen
C. plants absorb more light in red region
B. carbon dioxide
of light
C. hydrogen D. they are trying to change the pigment
D. water vapor of the plant

9. Which process occurs only under anaerobic D. none of above

conditions?
15. Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide enter a leaf

A. Krebs cycle
through the
B. Fermentation
A. Stomata
C. E.T.C.
B. Cuticle
D. Glycolysis
C. Leaf Margin
10. What form of energy do we use to stay D. Guard Cells
alive?
A. Sunlight 16. At 95 degrees in the daylight, what gas is
likely to be collected the most?
B. Glucose
C. ATP A. carbon dioxide
D. Fat B. oxygen
C. water vapor
11. What organelle is responsible for aerobic
respiration? D. hydrogen
A. chloroplast 17. C3 Plants are called this because they pro-
B. nucleus duce
C. mitochondria A. 3 Carbon PGA as part of the Calvin Cy-
D. lysosome cle
B. 3 Carbon Rubisco as part of the Calvin
12. Where does the energy of the Sun end up Cycle
in the glucose molecule?
C. 3 Carbon Ribulose Bisphosphate as
A. Hydrogen atoms
part of the Calvin Cycle
B. Oxygen atoms
D. none of above
C. Chemical bonds
D. Carbon atoms 18. On a 95 degree day in the daylight, what
gas is likely to be collected from a plant
13. Which is NOT correct about autotrophs? the most?
A. They include the plants A. carbon dioxide
B. They make their own food B. water vapor
C. They use the energy of sunlight C. oxygen
D. They can’t make their own food D. hydrogen
14. C4 plants prevent Photorespiration by 19. In aerobic conditions, one glucose molecule
A. Storing CO2 in a form that can be used can produce
during times their stomata are closed.
A. 2 ATP
B. Keeping their stomata open at all
B. 26-30 ATP
times to prevent low CO2 levels.
C. A special carrier protein that prevents C. 32-36 ATP
the entrance of Oxygen into leaves. D. 38-40 ATP

20. What gas do we breathe out that is needed 26. Which plants take in CO2 at night and
by plants? store it in vacuoles as ‘malic acid’?
A. oxygen A. CAM Plants
B. carbon dioxide B. C4 Plants
C. nitrogen C. C3 Plants
D. water vapor D. C2 Plants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
21. What organelle allows for photosynthesis 27. Plants that DO NOT have a way of ‘pre-
to occur? venting’ Photorespiration are known as
A. mitochondria
B. chlorophyll A. C3 Plants
C. chloroplast B. C4 Plants
D. lysosome C. CAM Plants
22. What are the two substances that are re- D. C2 Plants
quired for respiration?
28. Which process produces the bulk of the
A. Carbon dioxide and water ATP in aerobic respiration?
B. Oxygen and glucose A. Glycolysis
C. Sunlight and carbon dioxide B. Kreb’s cycle
D. Carbon dioxide and glucose C. E.T.C.
23. Plants close their stomata to conserve D. Fermentation
A. Oxygen
29. Photosynthesis changes
B. Carbon Dioxide
A. organic molecules into inorganic
C. Water molecules
D. Energy B. inorganic molecules into organic
molecules
24. Which of the following is the pigment re-
sponsible for reflecting green light? C. sunlight into inorganic molecules
A. borophyll D. proteins into lipids
B. chloroplast 30. Photorespiration occurs when is used
C. chlorophyll in the Calvin Cycle instead of Carbon Diox-
D. thylakoid ide gas.
A. Water Vapor
25. These cells will control the opening and
closing of the ‘stomata’. B. Oxygen Gas
A. Palisade Mesophyll Cells C. Hydrogen Ion
B. Phloem Cells D. none of above
C. Xylem Cells 31. Which one is NOT a function of the stom-
D. Guard Cells ates?

4.7 C-4 Photosynthesis 525
A. Helps maintain homeostasis of the C. Helps prevent loss of water

plant

B. Regulates the exchange of gases D. Allows sunlight to enter the plant
4.7 C-4 Photosynthesis

1. Which of the following gas could get dis- C. two PGA
appear from the atmosphere if all the pho- D. two G3P
tosynthetic activity were to stop
6. How does carbon dioxide in the atmo-
A. Nitrogen
sphere become incorporated as carbon into
B. CO2 living things?
C. Hydrogen A. through photosynthesis
D. Oxygen B. through cellular respiration
C. through deposition
2. The purpose of The Calvin Cycle is to
D. through decomposition
A. Fix Carbon
7. NADH and ATP are produced during which
B. Synthesize Glucose Molecules
part of photosynthesis?
C. Metabolize Water Molecules
A. light-dependent
D. Metabolize Carbon Dioxide B. light-independent
3. On hot, dry days, C3 plants shift into this C. Calvin cycle
less efficient process because O2 levels D. mitochondria
rise.
8. What do the light reactions produce?
A. Photorespiration
A. ATP, NADPH, O2
B. Photosynthesis
B. H2O, O2, Glucose
C. Photoabsorption
C. NADP+, ADP + P, O2
D. Photoreactivity D. NADPH, H2O, ATP
4. Which of the following plants fixes carbon 9. Why should stomata close?
dioxide at night?
A. to avoid water loss
A. Sugarcane. B. to avoid oxygen loss
B. Cactus. C. to replenish lost CO2
C. Oryza sativa. D. none of above
D. Hibiscus rosa-sinensis. 10. In chloroplast, the site of coupled oxida-
5. When carbon dioxide binds with RuBP it tion reduction reaction is the
creates a 6 Carbon compound that is bro- A. outer membrane
ken apart into B. inner membrane
A. two pyruvates C. Thylakoid membrane
B. two acetyl CoA D. Stromal Space

11. For which one of the following physiologi- C. the production of massive amounts of
cal studies 12CO2 and 13CO2 are used? ATP in the thylakoid
A. Estimate the rate of photosynthesis D. water being pulled out of the plant
B. Determine rate of photorespiration
17. CO2 acceptor in C3 plants is
C. The ration of C4 and CAM pathways of
CO2 fixation A. Phosphoglyceric acid
D. The ration of C3 and C4 pathways of B. Ribulose monophosphate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
CO2 fixation
C. Ribulose 1, 5 bisphosphate
12. Process of formation of ATP from ADP
D. Phosphoenol pyruvate
while harvesting the photon is referred as
A. Photophosphorylation 18. The enzyme that binds the CO2 with a 5C
B. Photorespiration compound in carbon fixation is:
C. Phosphorylation A. NADH dehydrogenase
D. Respiration B. RuBisCO
13. The visible product of photosynthesis is C. ATP Synthase
A. Glucose D. none of above
B. Starch
19. Which has to occur first in PS???
C. Cellulose
D. Fructose A. Light Dependent Reactions
14. Why do CAM plants close their stomata B. Light Independent Reactions
during the day? C. Creb’s Cycle
A. It just happens D. Calvin Cycle
B. To reduce evaporation
C. To collect Carbon Dioxide 20. Where do the light reactions take place in-
side a chloroplast?
A. stroma
15. Photosynthesis goal is to
B. lamellae
A. convert light energy into glucose en-
ergy C. chloroplast membrane
B. use light energy to make oxygen gas D. thylakoid membrane
C. convert sugar energy into ATP
21. At midnight, what is happening in the leaf
D. convert sugar energy into oxygen gas of a plant?
16. Photorespiration involves A. Respiration
A. the production of oxygen gas during B. Photosynthesis
the break down of sugar
C. Photosynthesis and respiration
B. the breakdown of sugar when CO2 lev-
els are low. D. None of the above

22. Rubisco is important in which step of pho- 27. which is a false statement about C4 light
tosynthesis independent reactions?

A. energizing the electrons in chlorophyll A. called photorespiration
B. used by corn and sugar cane
B. carbon fixation when CO2 is connected C. closes stomata on hot days
to RUBP during calvin cycle
D. produces PEP
C. regeneration phase as RUBP is made
during calvin cycle 28. Plants obtain CO2 into the chloroplast by
D. reduction of the carbon chain during A. active transport
the calvin cycle B. diffusion
23. What does CAM plants store? C. facilitated diffusion

D. endocytosis
A. H2O
B. Sunlight 29. Where does C3 Pathway occur?
C. CO2 A. bundle sheath cells
D. O2 B. guard cells
C. mesophyll cells
24. During dark phase of photosynthesis
D. none of above
is oxidized and is reduced.
A. CO2 and Water 30. Compared to C3 plants, C4 plants
B. Water and CO2 A. ) have higher rates of photorespiration.
C. Water and NADP

B. cancontinue to fix CO2 even at rela-
D. NADPH2 and CO2 tively low CO2 concentrations and high
oxygen concentrations.
25. Using the Calvin Cycle Diagram. How
many Carbon Dioxide Molecules are re- C. do not use rubisco for carbon fixation.
quired to ‘build’ One molecule of G3P?
A. Six D. grow better under cool, moist condi-
tions.
B. Three
31. Intermediate metabolite which is formed
C. One
during the light independent reaction in
D. Five photosynthesis is
26. Photosynthesis is important because A. NADH

B. Oxygen
A. it provides the oxygen we breathe and
the food we consume to survive C. Ribulose bisphosphate
B. it provides the carbon dioxide we D. Water
breathe
32. ATP is made during the light reaction using
C. it provides the Earth with fresh water all of the following EXCEPT
D. it makes plants green A. proton pump

B. hydrogen ion gradient C. 5

C. electron energy from photosystem II D. 6
D. NADPH donating electrons 38. For which one of the following physiologi-
33. Photosynthesis is made possible by HIGH cal studies 13CO2 and 12CO2 are used?
ENERGY that create an electrical cur- A. Estimate the rate of photosynthesis
rent.
B. Determine rate of photorespiration
A. electrons
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The ratio of C4 and CAM pathways of
B. carbon dioxide CO2 fixation
C. water D. The ratio of C3 and C4 pathways of CO2
D. glucose fixation
34. Plants that store CO2 at night as an acid 39. C4 Where does the calvin cycle occur?
in a vacuole are called (First to last)
A. C3 plants A. mesophyll > bundle sheath
B. C4 plants B. bundle sheath > mesophyll
C. CAM plants C. bundle sheath only
D. none of above D. mesophyll only
35. For the process of photosynthesis all ex- 40. Photosynthetic sulphur bacteria get hydro-
cept one of the following items are essen- gen ions for CO2 reduction from
tial. Point out the exception A. Water
A. CO2, optimum temperature B. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Glucose and oxygen C. Molecular hydrogen
C. Water and Minerals D. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Light and chlorophylls
41. Why does photorespiration occur?
36. Why are C4 plants able to photosynthesise A. stomata are closed and CO2 levels are
with no apparent photorespiration? too low.
A. They use PEP carboxylase to initially fix B. stomata are closed and O2 levels are
CO2 too low.
B. They conserve CO2 more efficiently. C. stomata are open and too much water
C. They exclude oxygen from their tis- is leaving the plant
sues. D. stomata are open and the plant re-
D. They do not participate in Calvin cycle. ceives too much CO2
37. How many carbon dioxide molecule must 42. What does a C4 plant do?
be added to RuBP to make a single A. stores CO2 in a separate cell from its
molecule of glucose? photosynthetic cell during the day
A. 3 B. stores CO2 in a vacuole during the
B. 4 night.

C. can’t store CO2 so it sufferes pho- 48. The first even that happens to CO2 in
torespiration Calvin Cycle turns it into

D. can’t store CO2 so it speeds up cellular A. a 2 carbon compound (phosphoglyco-
respiration in order to make more CO2 late)
43. In photosynthetic cells, synthesis of ATP B. a 3 carbon compound (PGA)

by chemiosmosis occurs during C. a 4 carbon compound (malate)
A. photosynthesis only D. none of above
B. cellular respiration only
49. Photorespiration involves a long, ineffi-
C. both photosynthesis and cellular respi- cient, and tedious process of converting
ration phosphoglycolate back into PGA with the
D. photophosphorylation only help of
A. chloroplast and ER
44. In C4 plants, reactions that fix CO2 into
four carbon compounds occur in B. peroxisomes and mitochondria
A. Guard cells C. nucleus and ribosomes
B. Epidermal cells D. none of above
C. Mesophyll cells 50. During the operation of C2 oxidative pho-
D. Bundle-sheath cells tosynthetic cycle, which of the following
metabolites are transported from chloro-
45. CAM plants are adapted to which cli- plast to peroxisome
mate?
A. Glycerate
A. cold and wet
B. Seine
B. hot and dry
C. Glycine
C. both
D. Glycolate
51. Which of the following is the reason why
46. What three things do plants need for the
C4 plants create malate as an intermediate
process of photosynthesis?
molecule.
A. Sunlight, oxygen, and sugar
A. to avoid Photorespiration by oxygen
B. Water, soil, and oxygen
B. to keep oxygen deposits high
C. Sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water
C. to make water vapor exit the through
D. Carbon dioxide, oxygen, and soil the stomata
47. Which of the following are products of the D. none of above
light reactions of photosynthesis that are
utilised in the Calvin cycle? 52. Use the Light Reaction Diagram. The pur-
pose of Pq, Pc, and Fd are to
A. Electrons and H+
A. Transport electrons between carrier
B. CO2 and glucose proteins
C. ATP and NADPH B. Transport hydrogen ion between car-
D. ADP, Pi and NADPH rier proteins

C. Transport Oxygen between carrier pro- 58. The Calvin Cycle is ‘driven/controlled’ by
teins.
D. Transport Carbon Dioxide between car- A. Enzymes
rier proteins B. Sunlight
53. In calvin cycle C. Carbon Dioxide
A. Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate undergoes D. Heat
dephosphorylation 59. Which plant would have the most oxygen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. ATP is formed during dephosphoryla- produced in 1 hour?
tion of fructose A. plant given red light only
C. 1, 3 di PGA undergo phosphorylation B. plant given blue light only
D. none of these C. plant given white light
D. plant given green light only
54. Most of the Hydrogen Ion “created” dur-
ing the Light Dependent Reaction is primar- 60. Emerson effect proves
ily used to A. concept of two photosystem in plant
A. Produce NADPH B. photophosphorylation
B. Produce ATP C. photorespiration
C. Produce Oxygen Gas D. there are light and dark reactions in
D. Produce Glucose photosynthesis
61. What happens to the oxygen levels if a
55. Where does the CAM put malate at night?
plant were left in the dark over night?
A. mitochondria A. go up due to photosynthesis
B. vacuole B. go down due to cell respiration
C. nucleus C. stay the same since stomata are
D. none of above closed
D. none of above
56. Plants use the following reactants for the
light reaction 62. Light reaction of photosynthesis results in
formation of
A. Water and CO2
A. O2
B. Water and NADPH
B. NADPH2
C. Water and NADP+
C. ATP
D. NADPH and ATP
D. All of these
57. In green plant photosynthesis, the electron 63. As carbon dioxide levels increase, what
donor for the light dependent reaction is happens to the temperature?
A. carbon dioxide A. It also increases
B. oxygen B. It decreases
C. RuBP C. It stays the same
D. water D. There is no correlation

64. Which of the following would have the C. oxidized during the Calvin cycle
least affect on photosynthetic rate? D. reduced during the Calvin cycle

A. increase the temp from 20 C to 30 C
70. Which of the following need oxygen to sur-
B. increasing the CO2 from 400 ppm to vive?
600ppm
A. Plants
C. increasing the light intesity from 40
Watts to 60 Watts B. Animals
D. increasing the amount of O2 from 20% C. Plants and animals
to 30% in the air D. None of the above
65. The calvin cycle takes place in 71. In a plant cell, where are ATP synthase
A. stroma complexes located?
B. thylakoid membrane A. thylakoid membranes only
C. chlorophyll B. inner mitochondrial membranes only
D. granum C. thylakoid membrane and inner mito-
chondrial membranes
66. An increase in CO2 in the air would most D. thylakoid membrane and plasma mem-
likely branes
A. increase photosynthesis
72. The herbecide, dichlorophenyldimethy-
B. increase cell respiration
lurea, is an inhibitor of
C. increase photorespiration
A. Shikimate pathway for biosynthesis of
D. increase transpiration aromatic amino acids
67. During light phase of photosynthesis B. electron transport from P680 to P700
is oxidized and is reduced. C. branched chain amino acid pathway
A. CO2 and Water D. electron transport from P700 to ferre-
B. Water and CO2 doxin
C. Water and NADP 73. Why C4 plants are able to carry out pho-
D. NADPH2 and CO2 tosynthesis efficiently?
A. They do not involve in Calvin cycle
68. In C4 plants, reactions that fix CO2 into
four-carbon compounds occur in B. They use PEP carboxylase to fix carbon
dioxide
A. Guard cells.
C. They are adapted to cold climates
B. Mesophyll cells.
D. They conserve water efficiently
C. Epidermal cells.
D. Bundle-sheath cells. 74. During noncyclic photophosphorylation all
of the following occur EXCEPT
69. The NADP+ is A. ATP is made using electron energy that
A. oxidized during the light reaction will leave on NADPH
B. reduced during the light reaction B. results in oxygen gas being produced

C. water is split (photolysis) C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.

D. electrons from photosystem 1 return D. 3-phosphoglycerate.
back to photosystem 1
81. The source of CO2 during Calvin cycle in C4
75. molecules of RuBP in C3 cycle is regener- plant is
ated from A. Malic acid
A. 4 molecules of G3P B. OAA
B. 5 molecules of 3 PGA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. PEP
C. 5 molecules of G3P D. RuDP
D. 6 molecules of G3P
82. Which is sensitive to longer wavelength of
76. If the proton (H+) pump in the thylakoid light?
was not working which molecule could not
A. Photolysis
be made during the light reaction?
B. PS I
A. NADPH
C. PS II
B. ATP
D. Photophosphorylation
C. Water
D. Oxygen gas 83. What does CAM stand for?
A. Crassulacean Acid Metabolism
77. CO2 in C4 plants are bind with
B. Carbon Acid Metabolism
A. RuBP
C. Canvas Acid Metabolism
B. Pyruvate
D. Core Acid Metabolism
C. Malate
D. none of above 84. To produce 3 glucose molecules ATP
and NADPH2 molecules are required.
78. What is FALSE about the calvin cycle
A. 54, 36
A. uses the light reactions products
B. 54, 30
B. produces a three carbon sugar (G3P)
C. 36, 60
C. produces carbon dioxide
D. 18, 12
D. produces NADP+
85. Photosystems are made of
79. Which plant LACKS CO2 storage method
A. chloroplasts
A. C3
B. chromosomes
B. C4
C. chlorophyll
C. CAM
D. cytoplasm
D. none of above
86. In chemiosmosis in mitochondria, protons
80. In CAM plants, carbon dioxide is fixed for flow from the intermembrane space into
the first time to the matrix, whereas in chemiosmosis in
A. Ribulose bisphosphate. chloroplasts, protons flow from
B. Phosphoenolpyruvate. A. stroma into the cytosol

4.8 CAM Plants 533
B. stroma to the thylakoid space B. When there is not enough water

C. thylakoid space to the stroma C. When there is not enough carbon diox-

D. intermembrane space to the stroma ide
D. none of above
87. Light independent reaction occurs in
A. Stroma. 92. The key output of ONE Calvin Cycle is
B. Thylakoid space. A. One G3P molecule
C. Intermembrane space. B. One Glucose molecules
D. Thylakoid membrane. C. Three RuBP molecules
88. Flattened sacs of internal membranes as- D. Six Oxygen Molecules
sociated with photosynthesis are called
93. Rubisco binds with both carbon dioxide
and oxygen in
A. Chloroplasts.
A. C3 plants
B. The stroma.
C. Cristae. B. C4 plants
D. Thylakoids. C. CAM plants

D. C4 plants
89. Absorption spectrum of chlorophyll is max-
imum in light 94. Light independent reaction involves I
A. red O2 fixation. II Endergonic reaction. III Re-
duction and regeneration of RuBP.
B. blue
C. yellow A. I only.
D. blue-violet B. III only.

C. I and II.
90. Molecules that absorb light energy are
called D. II and III.
A. stromas 95. Why are most plants green?
B. chloroplasts
A. Chlorophyll reflects green light
C. pigments
B. Chlorophyll absorbs green light
D. none of above
C. Carotenoids reflect green light
91. When should stomata open? D. Green is the best color for plant
A. When not enough oxygen is available growth
4.8 CAM Plants

1. Where do Date Palms often grow? B. Oasis
A. Baja California C. Mojave Desert

4.8 CAM Plants 534
D. Rocky Mountains 8. How much rain falls in the desert?

2. The spines of a cactus are A. 10 inches
A. Stems B. more than 10 inches
B. Specialized Leaves C. less than 10 inches
C. Flowers D. none at all
D. Fruit 9. Desert plants that undergo CAM are called
NARAYAN CHANGDER
3. Cam plants have adapted to what climate plants
A. cold and wet A. C4

B. hot and dry B. C1
C. both C. C2
D. none of the above D. C3
4. CAM plants are often found in what type 10. Typical plants (approximately 85%) use
of environments? the method of photosynthesis.
A. deep sea fixed to the ocean floor A. CAN
B. floating in the open ocean B. CAM
C. hot deserts, salty soils, limited water C. C3
D. cooler mountain areas D. C4
5. How do Dodders survive? 11. What best describes the climate in the
A. They make their own sugar desert?
B. They gather their own water A. warm
C. They do everything other plants do B. hot
D. They steal sugar from other plants C. dry
6. What is adaptation does the Joshua Tree D. windy
use?
12. In CAM plants, carbon dioxide converts to
A. Rely on timed rainfall for water stor-
age
A. PEP
B. Produce fruit all year round
B. Malic Acid
C. Stay active all year round
C. Oxygen
D. Water
7. During the day, desert plants use malic
acid for 13. What does “CAM” stand for?
A. Oxygen A. Carbon Addition Metabolism
B. Hydrogen B. Complex Heat Metabolism
C. Carbon C. Calvin Acid metabolism
D. Breathing D. crassulacean acid metabolism

4.8 CAM Plants 535
14. plants like corn and sugar cane close A. C3

their stomata during hot days and have B. C4
the Calvin cycle occurring in special cells

around the leaf veins. These special cells C. CAM
are called bundle-sheath cells. D. none of above

5. Cell Division
NARAYAN CHANGDER
5.1 The Cell Cycle
1. What disease is caused by 3 chromosomes C. divides the cytoplasm
on the last pair?
D. produces a new cell
A. Down Syndrome
B. Turner’s Syndrome 5. What are the parts of a nucleotide in
DNA?
C. Klinefelter’s Syndrome
A. Phosphate, ribose, base
D. Patau Syndrome
B. Ribose, deoxyribose, base
2. During interphase, is replicated.
C. Adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine
A. ATP
D. Phosphate, deoxyribose, base
B. DNA
C. RNA 6. How many cell cycle checkpoints are
there?
D. FBI
A. 1
3. The cell cycle is monitored as each cell
B. 2
passes through
C. 3
A. S phase
D. 4
B. checkpoints
C. interphase 7. Which of the following explains why a cell
D. cytokinesis has to divide?
A. volume increases
4. During interphase, a cell grows, dublicates
organelles, and B. surface area decreases
A. copies DNA C. it will starve
B. divides the nucleus D. it will die from cytoplasm poisoning

5.1 The Cell Cycle 537
8. Spindle fibers attach and chromosomes 13. The cycle in which cells undergo growth
start to line up in the middle of the cell. and division
Name that stage!

A. Cell Cycle
A. Prophase B. Interphase
B. Metaphase C. Mitosis
C. Anaphase D. Cytokinesis
D. Telophase
14. A protein called p53 can keep cells from
9. If the M checkpoint is not cleared, what dividing. To prevent cell division, this pro-
specific stage of mitosis will be blocked? tein most likely stops
A. Anaphase A. osmosis
B. Metaphase B. mitosis
C. Prophase C. respiration
D. Telophase D. mutation
10. Which of the following best describes the 15. What stage of the cell cycle follows S
function of cell regulators? phase?
A. Tells the cell when it is ok (or not ok) A. G1

to divide. B. G2
B. Gives chemical signals torepair errors C. M
prior to mitosis. D. Cytokinesis
C. Ensures that no mistakeshave been
16. The absorption of nutrients is determined
made prior to cell division.
by
D. All of the above.
A. The cell’s volume
11. Which of the following events does NOT B. The cell’s surface area
take place during interphase? C. The cell’s ribosomes
A. Cell grows to mature size D. The cell’s DNA
B. DNA and organelles are copied
17. Diploid Cells are represented by
C. Cell prepares for division
A. 2n
D. Chromosomes line up in the middle of
B. n
the cell.
C. 4n
12. Substage of interphase in which the cell
D. 1/2 n
prepares for nuclear division and creates
a protein to make microtubules for cell di- 18. Cells of organisms must go through cell di-
vision vision for?
A. Interphase A. growth
B. G1 B. repair of damaged cells
C. Synthesis C. replacement of dying cells.
D. G2 D. All of these

19. Ultraviolet light can prevent the cell cycle A. chromatids

from occurring properly. Which of these B. centromere
phases will it affect the most?
C. chromosome
A. Mitosis
D. mitosis
B. Synthesis
C. Gap 1 25. Checks for DNA damage and DNA replica-
tion completeness.
D. Gap 2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. G1 checkpoint
20. What cell division process do prokaryotic B. G2 checkpoint
cells go through
C. Spindle checkpoint
A. Binary Fission
D. DNA polymerase
B. Binary Fuison
C. DNA replication 26. The cell cycle is controlled mainly by regu-
latory at key checkpoints.
D. none of above
A. proteins
21. Compared to small cells, large cells have B. neurons
more trouble
C. cells
A. making copies of their DNA
D. axons
B. producing daugher cells
C. moving needed materials in and waste 27. A fruit fly body cell has 8 chromosomes.
products out After MITOSIS, how many chromosomes
will each of the 2 daughter cells have?
D. dividing
A. 4
22. In this step of interphase, DNA is repli- B. 16
cated (copied) and centrioles are dupli-
cated. C. 8
A. S D. none of above
B. G2 28. In the G2 stage of cell division, are

C. G1 made.
D. M A. organelles
B. structures for cell division
23. What part of the cell cycle results in the
splitting of the new cells? C. proteins
A. Interphase D. all of the above
B. Mitosis 29. How many of chromosomes in a normal hu-

C. Metaphase man body cell?
D. Cytokinesis A. 23 chromosomes
B. 36 chromosomes
24. What is the structure in which DNA, hered-
itary material that controls cell activities, C. 46 chromosomes
can be found. D. none are correct

30. the process in which one cell divides to 36. Match the definition with the word. A re-
form two daughter cells peating series of events that describes the
life of a cell.

A. cell division
B. binary fission A. Cell division
C. cell cycle B. Cell cycle
D. DNA replication C. Cell growth
31. What structures hold sister chromatids to- D. none of above
gether in replicated chromosomes?
37. This is the cell cycle checkpoint that makes
A. Centrioles sure environmental conditions are ideal for
B. Chromatin cell survival.
C. Centromeres A. G1 Checkpoint
D. Spindle Fibers B. G2 Checkpoint
32. DEFINE:What is replication? C. M Checkpoint
A. process in which DNA is copied D. I Checkpoint
B. when the nucleus divides
38. What happens in mitosis during
C. a type of photosynthesis metaphase?
D. final stage of the cell cycle A. Spindle fibers disappear
33. Which of the following is true about G0? B. Duplicated chromosomes pull apart
A. G0 is the stage right before cell divi- alone the metaphase plate
sion C. The nuclear membrane disappears
B. G0 is the stage the cell enters when it D. The duplicated chromosomes line up
isn’t going to divide among the metaphase plate in the middle
C. G0 is the stage where cells divide of the cell
D. G0 is part of S phase
39. the process consisting of four phases dur-
34. In cell division, when does the nucleus di- ing which the nucleus divides, and two ge-
vide? netically IDNETICAL nuclei result
A. During Interphase A. mitosis
B. During Mitosis B. meiosis
C. During Cytokinesis C. cell cycle
D. During G0 D. cell division
35. the relaxed phase of chromosomes (looks
like a ball of yarn) 40. this structure produces the spindle fiber
A. chromatin A. chromatid
B. chromosomes B. chromatin
C. chromatid C. centromenere
D. none of above D. centriol

41. Which of the following phases does the cell 46. Which cell structure produces the spindle
have TWO nuclei? fibers?
A. telophase A. Centromeres
B. anaphase B. Centrioles
C. metaphase C. Chromatids
D. prophase D. Ribosomes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
42. Chromosomes line along the center of the 47. What type(s) of cells undergo mitosis?
cell A. sex cells
A. anaphase B. gametes
B. prophase C. body cells
C. metaphase D. sperm and egg cells
D. telophase 48. The daughter cells (gametes) have
DNA compared to the parent cell after
43. At the end of the G1 phase, there’s a check-
meiosis.
point. What is this checkpoint probably
checking for? A. the same
A. To see if the cell has grown enough B. half as much
B. To see if the DNA was correctly repli- C. double
cated D. identical
C. To make sure the cell does not have
49. During which part of the cell cycle is DNA
cancer
replicated?
D. To make sure that the enzymes aren’t
A. interphase
amalyzed
B. mitosis
44. Which checkpoint ensures sister chro- C. cytokinesis
matids are positioned to be split cor-
rectly? D. none of above
A. G1 checkpoint 50. The cytoplasm is divided between the cells
B. G2 checkpoint splitting the cell into two. Name that
Stage!
C. S checkpoint
A. Cytokinesis
D. M checkpoint
B. Interphase
45. DNA replication occurs in what phase of C. Prophase
cell cycle?
D. Metaphase
A. Interphase
51. Place the stages of mitosis in the correct
B. Growth phase
order.
C. Mitotic phase
A. Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase,
D. Synthesis Phase Anaphase

B. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, C. The cell splits into two new daughter
Telophase cells

C. Prophase, Telophase, Anaphase, D. The cell makes a copy of its DNA
Metaphase
57. The phases of mitosis in the correct order
D. Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase,
Anaphase A. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
telophase
52. A membrane that encloses the cells nucleus
B. metaphase, prophase, anaphase,
and separates the chromosomes from the
telophase
rest of the cell is
C. anaphase, metaphase, prophase
A. cell membrane
telophase
B. cell wall
D. prophase, anaphase, metaphase,
C. nuclear membrane telophase
D. spindle fibers
58. Which is NOT a phase of the cell cycle?
53. This process is the programmed death of a A. Interphase
cell
B. Cytokinesis
A. stem cell
C. Mitosis
B. regulation
D. Duplication
C. apoptosis
D. cytocide 59. Spindle fibers originate from the
A. Centriole
54. uncontrolled cell growth =
B. Chromosome
A. apoptosis
C. Chromatid
B. cancer
D. Centromere
C. spindle
D. cytokinesis 60. The phase of mitosis that is characterized
by the arrangement of all chromosomes
55. What is the longest stage of the cell cycle along the equator of the cell is called
called; in other words, in which stage does
A. telophase
a cell spend most of its life?
B. metaphase
A. Cytokinesis
C. anaphase
B. M phase
D. prophase
C. Interphase
D. G1 Phase 61. I am the first stage of mitosis during which
the nuclear envelope and nucleolus disap-
56. Interphase has 3 stages; G1, S, and G2. pear (nucleus disappears)
What happens during synthesis?
A. interphase
A. Cells grow and carry out normal func-
tions B. prophase
B. Cells copy organelles and prepare for C. metaphase

a critical checkpoint D. anaphase

62. A scientist is trying to discover a new 67. The structure of coiled DNA and proteins
treatment to stop cancer cell from divid- that forms in the cells nucleus during
ing. In the cancer cells, which of these pro- prophase is known as a
cesses will stop if the treatment is success- A. centromere
ful?
B. centriole
A. chemosynthesis
C. chromosome
B. binary fission
D. chromatid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. genetic recombimation
68. Which of these is NOT a source of genetic
D. mitosis variation
63. In this step of interphase, the cell pre- A. cytokinesis
pares for cell division by forming other or- B. crossing over
ganelles or proteins that the cell may need C. independent assortment
to divide.
D. fertilization
A. S
69. Which of the following describes the pur-
B. G1
pose of the mitotic cell division?
C. G2
A. To make more of the same cells.
D. M B. For growth and repair.
64. Which of the following is correct? C. To prevent the cell from becoming too
large.
A. S phase, cell division
B. M phase, cell growth
70. Which of the following represents the
C. G1 phase, DNA replication
phases of mitosis in their proper se-
D. G2 phase, preparation for division quence?
A. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
65. Which of the following terms means cyto-
telophase
plasmic division?
B. interphase, prophase, metaphase,
A. interphase anaphase
B. mitosis C. interphase, prophase, metaphase,
C. cytokinesis telophase
D. cell cycle D. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,

telophase, cytokinesis
66. A substance that is known to cause cancer
71. The division of the cytoplasm and the
is known as a
plasma membrane following the division
A. Carcinogen of the nucleus resulting into two cells, each
having its own nucleus and cytoplasm sur-
B. Pathogen
rounded by a plasma membrane. What
C. Virus phase am I?
D. Deregulator A. G1 Phase

B. S Phase 78. During which stage of interphase does the

C. Metaphase cell replicate its DNA?

D. Cytokinesis A. G!
72. Finish the DNA sequence?TGAACG B. S

A. TGAAGC C. G2
B. ACTTGG D. All 3 stages
C. ACTTGC
79. a chromosome is made of two sister
D. TCGGG
A. chromatid
73. The first three phases of the cell cycle are
collectively known as B. chromatin
A. interphase C. centromenere
B. mitosis D. centriol
C. cytokinesis
80. Which parts of the DNA molecule are held
D. cell division
together by covalent bonds?
74. Why do cells undergo mitosis?
A. Deoxyribose sugar and a phosphate
A. to replace damaged cells group
B. create new chromosomes B. 2 nitrogenous bases
C. obtain energy from sunlight
C. Ribose and a nitrogenous bases
D. release energy from food
D. A phosphate group and a nitrogenous
75. I am the center of the cell at which the chro- base
mosomes line up
A. poles 81. The following describes during mito-
sis. The chromatin condenses and spindle
B. spindle
fibers form at each side of the cell. The
C. equator nuclear membrane breaks apart.
D. centriole A. prophase
76. is defined as division of the nucleus. B. metaphase
A. cell cycle C. anaphase
B. interphase
D. telophase
C. mitosis
D. cytokinesis 82. After cell division, the new cells are re-
ferred to as:
77. A pair of similar chromosomes are called:
A. Brother cells
A. homocycular
B. homologous B. Twin cells
C. homocellular C. Daughter cells

D. homonucleus D. none of above

83. How do multi cellular organisms grow, re- C. It is a secret

pair and reproduce cells? D. It’s a painting technique
A. meiosis
89. Normal mitotic cell division results in each
B. mitosis daughter cell having
C. migrate and differentiate A. half the number of chromosomes
D. osmosis B. the same number and kind of chromo-
somes as the parent
NARAYAN CHANGDER
84. Which of the following is the correct
acronym for the stages of the cell cycle? C. the same number but different kinds of
chromosomes as parents cells
A. IPMATC
D. twice the number of chromosomes as
B. MPIATC
the parent cell
C. CAPMIT
90. How does the surface area/volume ratio
D. IMATCP
change as the size of the cell increases?
85. What type of environmental factors can be A. It increases
the cause of cancer? B. it decreases
A. radiation from xrays or the sun C. it remains the same
B. chemicals D. it is not affected by cell size
C. smoking
91. In this phase, the cell is preparing for the
D. all of the options cell division in the mitotic stage.
86. These undifferentiated cells can become A. Go
specialized cells after receiving a chemical B. G1
signal.
C. G2
A. stem cells
D. S
B. generic cells
92. Responsible for making sure that the cell
C. blank cells
has enough nutrients and is the proper
D. empty cells size.
87. What process must happen before cells A. G1 checkpoint
start to divide? B. G2 checkpoint
A. DNA must be replicated C. M checkpoint
B. DNA must undergo respiration D. G0 checkpoint
C. Organelles must divide
93. Which phase of mitosis is where the chro-
D. Organelles must be replicated mosomes line up in the middle of the cell?
88. What is a chromosome? A. Prophase
A. It is condensed DNA B. Metaphase
B. It is the proteins that DNA wraps C. Anaphase

around D. Telophase

94. A cell spends 90% of its time in which 99. Which of the following is true about inter-
stage? phase?

A. Interphase A. Interphase is the stage between G0
and G1
B. M Phase
B. Interphase is the stage where a cell
C. Cytokinesis
typically spends most of its time
D. S Phase C. Interphase is composed of G0, G1, S,
95. Responsible for making sure that the cell G2 and M
is ready to divide D. Interphase is a period of rest for the
cell
A. G1 checkpoint
B. G2 checkpoint 100. Which is true in both mitosis and meio-
sis?
C. M checkpoint
A. Production of haploid cells
D. G0 checkpoint
B. Division of two cells into four
96. Bacteria (also called prokaryotes) do not C. Cytokinesis after nuclear division
have a nucleus. To reproduce, they use a
D. Formation of genetically identical cells
process called
A. Mitosis 101. What happens during G2 phase?
B. Meiosis A. The cell grows by producing more pro-
teins and organelles.
C. Binary Fission
B. DNA replication occurs.
D. Lysogenic Cycle
C. The cell grows and prepares for cell
97. What three components make up a nu- division with the appearance of centro-
cleotide? somes.
A. a deoxyribose, a phosphate, and an en- D. Mitosis and cytokinesis occurs.
zyme 102. DNA normally exists in its long winding
B. a phosphate, an enzyme, and a nitroge- form known as
nous base A. Chromatin
C. an enzyme, a deoxyribose, and a ni- B. Chromosomes
trogenous base
C. Chromatids
D. a phosphate, a deoxyribose, and a ni-
D. Centrioles
trogenous base
103. The cell cycle is responsible for:
98. Which checkpoint of the cell cycle checks
for the proper and complete replication of A. A caterpillar that grows larger over the
DNA? summer
B. A seal that is swimming through icy wa-
A. G2
ter
B. G1
C. A maple tree that is losing its leaves in
C. Spindle checkpoint autumn
D. Cytokinesis D. All of the above

104. The cell cycle is C. During Cytokinesis

A. the process of cells circling throughout D. During G0
the body
110. p53 activates which of the following?
B. the process of splitting the organelles
A. Tumor suppressor genes
B. cell cycle
C. a process where one cell gets energy
C. DNA repair proteins
D. the sequence of stages of growth and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
division that a cell undergoes D. uncontrolled cell division
105. Which of the following describes the 111. If you look at a cell under a microscope,
location of the chromosomes during which phase is it MOST likely to be in?
metaphase? A. Cytokinesis
A. located in the nucleus of the cell B. M phase
B. scattered throughout the cytoplasm C. Interphase
C. clustered at each pole of the cell D. G1 Phase
D. lined up along the equator of the cell 112. A cell spends % of its cycle in
106. What happens in the S phase? A. 100, interphase

B. 10, cytokinesis
A. cell growth
C. 40, mitosis
B. replication
D. 90, interphase
C. preparing for mitosis
D. nothing 113. What is a term for programmed cell
death?
107. A haploid cell from a male camel has 35 A. apoptosis
chromosomes. What type of cell is this?
Choose all that apply B. necrosis
C. cell death
A. Sperm
D. doom
B. Egg
C. Heart Cell 114. Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupt-
ing
D. Muscle Cell
A. the cell cycle
108. programmed cell death = B. red blood cell formation
A. apoptosis C. DNA replication
B. cancer D. ATP synthesis
C. spindle
115. What is the longest stage of the cell cycle
D. cytokinesis called?
109. In cell division, when does the entire cell A. Cytokinesis
divide? B. M phase
A. During Interphase C. Interphase
B. During Mitosis D. G1 Phase

116. Sister Chromatids separate from each 121. In eukaryotes, the first step in cell divi-
other sion is , and the second step is cytoki-
nesis.

A. prophase
A. mitosis
B. telophase
B. checkpoints
C. anaphase
C. segregation
D. metaphase
D. daughter
117. An organism body cell (parent cell) have 122. Proteins that direct cells to speed up or
30 chromatin (chromosome) at the start of slow down the cell cycle.
interphase. How many chromosome is ex-
pected in the resulting daughter cell after A. growth factor
mitosis? B. human growth hormone
A. 60 C. cancer
B. 10 D. tumor
C. 15 123. Which of the following is NOT a phase in
D. 30 the cell cycle process?
A. G1
118. The ensures that our body’s grow and B. G2
repairthemselves.
C. M
A. The cell growth
D. all of these are part of the cell cycle
B. The cell repair
124. When an animal cell goes through cytoki-
C. The cell recycle nesis,
D. The cell cycle A. a cell plate forms dividing the 2 new
nuclei.
119. How is meiosis different from mitosis?
B. the cell membrane pinches off the 2
A. Mitosis is asexual and meiosis is not, new cells.
B. Mitosis occurs in all cells except sex C. 4 new cells are formed.
cells
C. Mitosis has 1 PMAT phase and Meiosis
has 2 PMAT Phases 125. Binary fission
D. All choices are correct. A. Is how gametes form.

B. Is how body cells form.
120. The cell cycle consists of the G1, S, G2,
C. Is a form of asexual reproduction.
and the phase.
D. is how mammals reproduce.
A. G3
126. The phase of mitosis in which the spindle
B. M
fibers shorten and the sister chromatids
C. G4 separate from each other
D. A A. prophase

B. metaphase 132. A human usually has chromosomes in

each somatic cell.
C. anaphase
A. 6
D. telophase
B. 22
127. What must occur during interphase so C. 4
that each daughter cell receives the correct
D. 46
number of chromosomes after mitosis and
cytokinesis?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
133. The replication of a DNA molecule begins
A. DNA transcription when the strands are separated between
the
B. Protein synthesis
A. Phosphate bonds
C. DNA editing
B. Deoxyribose molecules
D. DNA replication
C. Ribose molecules
128. At the end of mitosis is complete D. Nitrogenous bases
A. Metaphase 134. Non dividing state of the cell cycle
B. Telophase A. Interphase
C. Anaphase B. Mitosis
D. Cytokinesis C. Telophase
D. Cytokinesis
129. In what phase of mitosis does DNA con-
dense into visible chromosomes? 135. What causes genetic variation in meio-
sis?
A. Prophase
A. chromosomes lining up
B. Anaphase
B. crossing over of chromosomes
C. Telophase
C. separation of chromosomes
D. Metaphase D. chromosomes pulling apart
130. The “G” in G1 stands for 136. During the phase, DNA is replicated.
A. great A. G1
B. growth B. S
C. gap C. G2
D. germ D. M
137. A repeating sequence of growth and divi-

131. The result of meiosis is:
sion
A. two diploid cells A. Mitosis
B. two haploid cells B. Interphase
C. four diploid cells C. Cell Cycle
D. four haploid cells D. Somatic

138. In what stage of the cell cycle does DNA D. Nuclear membrane reappears
replicate?
143. What can the cell cycle also be called?

A. G1
B. G2 A. Cell growth
C. Synthesis B. DNA Replication
D. Cytokinesis C. Preparation for Mitosis
139. What are the four phases of Mitosis D. Cell Divison
A. Telephone Phase, Metaphor phase, 144. The process of mitosis and cytokinesis
Anaphase, Prophase produce two identical
B. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase,
A. daughter cells
Telophase
C. Telophase, Anaphase, Prephase B. strands
D. none of above C. chromosomes
140. What is the order of cell division? D. chromatids
A. Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase, 145. Substage of interphase in which the cell

Metaphase, Cytokinesis prepares for nuclear division and a protein
B. Interphase, Prophase, Telophase, that makes microtubules for cell division is
Metaphase, Cytokinesis synthesized
C. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, A. Interphase
Telophase, Cytokinesis
B. G1
D. Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase,
Anaphase, Cytokinesis C. Synthesis
D. G2
141. The phase in the life cycle of a cell
wherein the cell grows in size, replicates 146. Which cell cycle checkpoint makes sure
its DNA, and prepares for cell division. (In- that the chromatids are correctly attached
cludes G1, S, and G2 phases.) What phase to the spindle fibers?
am I?
A. G1 checkpoint
A. Telophase
B. Anaphase B. S checkpoint
C. Interphase C. G2 checkpoint
D. Prophase D. M checkpoint
142. Which of the following cannot be at- 147. Pairs of similar chromosomes are called
tributed to Telophase?
A. Chromatids return to chromatin fibers A. chromosomes
B. homologous chromosomes
B. Nucleolus reappears
C. cytokinesis
C. Cytoplasmic organelles get evenly dis-
tributed in both daughter cells D. DNA

148. Compared to the number of chromosomes 153. I am the stage of mitosis where the sister
contained in a body cell, how many chro- chromatids are pulled apart
mosomes would normally be contained in
A. interphase
a gamete?
B. metaphase
A. The same number
C. anaphase
B. One-fourth as many
D. telophase
C. Twice as many
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Half as many 154. When homologous chromosomes match
up, they form a structure call a
149. Chromatid pairs separate and move to op-
posite ends of the cell A. tetrad (pair of chromosomes, one from
mom and one from dad)
A. Metaphase
B. triad
B. Telophase
C. diploid
C. Interphase
D. quad (group of 4 replicated chromo-
D. Anaphase somes, 2 from mom and 2 from dad)
150. The result of mitosis is two nuclei with
155. Cells spend 90% of their time in this
a duplicate set of chromosomes. The cell
stage of the cell cycle. This is the reason
splits to make daughter cells. The two
you would see most cells in this stage if
new cells then begin the cell cycle all over
viewed under a microscope.
again beginning with interphase.
A. Prophase
A. Cell division
B. Metaphase
B. Cytokinesis
C. Anaphase
C. Mitosis
D. Interphase
D. Telophase
151. Sister chromatids are held together by a 156. Cells of organisms must replicate for
what purposes?
A. Centrioles A. growth
B. Chromosomes B. repair of damaged cells
C. Chromatids C. reproduction
D. Centromeres D. All of the above
152. The chromosomes align in the middle of 157. How many chromosomes does a human
the cell occurs during which stage? egg or sperm (gamete) cell have?
A. Anaphase A. 23
B. Metaphase B. 46
C. Interphase C. 42
D. Telophase D. 26

158. Which is not a part of interphase? C. obtain energy from sunlight.

A. G1 D. release energy from food.

B. G2
164. Which cells undergo cell division?
C. M
D. S A. prokaryotic cells only
B. Eukaryotic cells only
159. Match the definition to the word. An ab-
normal mass of cells. C. Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
A. Tumor D. none of above
B. Big cells
165. These form during prophase and attach
C. Growth of cells
to chromosomes at the centromere to pull
D. none of above them apart during cell division
160. Human somatic sells contain 46 chromo- A. prophase
somes; during meiosis, haploid SEX CELLS
B. nucleus
are formed with chromosomes each.
A. 46 C. spindle fibers
B. 23 D. gene
C. 92
166. of the cell’s life is spent during what
D. 54 stage?
161. A(n) is a stage in the eukaryotic cell A. Prophase
cycle at which the cell examines internal
and external cues and “decides” whether B. Anaphase
or not to move forward with division. C. Metaphase
A. checkpoint D. Interphase
B. chromosome
C. interphase 167. What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
D. tumor A. Haploid cells
162. Which of the following is NOT a reason B. Diploid Cells

we need MITOSIS? C. Skin Cells
A. Growth D. Liver Cells
B. Recovering from injuries
C. Replacement of dead cells 168. What usually happens when cells come
into contact with other cells?
D. Reproducing
A. they divide more quickly
163. Cells need to produce new cells in order
to B. they stop growing
A. replace cells that have died. C. they produce cyclins

B. create new chromosomes. D. they produce p53

169. phase of the cell cycle in which the 175. Put the following stages of the mitosis
cell grows rapidly and performs many cell cycle in the correct order
metabolic processes
A. Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
A. growth Phase 1
B. Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Interphase
B. growth phase 2
C. mitosis C. Cytokinesis, Interphase, Mitosis
D. tumor D. Mitosis, Interphase, Cytokinesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
170. the process by which bacterial cells di-
176. Two new cells after cytokinesis are
vide
called
A. binary fission
A. Clones
B. cell division
C. DNA replication B. Daughter cells
D. synthesis phase C. sister chromatids
171. When a cell divides, what do we call the D. sex cells

2 new cells?
A. mother cells 177. The regular sequence of growth and divi-
sion that cells undergo is known as the
B. father cells
C. daughter cells
D. son cells B. photosynthesis
172. The uncontrolled division of cells C. replication

A. meiosis D. cell cycle
B. cancer
178. Results of cell division or mitosis include
C. nondisjunction
all of the following EXCEPT?
D. crossing over
A. growth
173. Contains the genetic material and serves
as the control center of the cell B. repair damaged cells
A. nuclear membrane C. replace damaged cells
B. spindle fibers D. dead cells
C. nucleus
D. telophase 179. Last year Diana was 5 feet tall. This
year, Diana is 5’5” tall. What cellular pro-
174. The process of a cell growing, preparing cess allowed her to grow?
for division, and dividing into 2 new cells.
A. Mitosis
A. mitosis
B. Meiosis
B. cell cycle
C. replication C. Interphase
D. none of above D. Cell division

180. What takes place during mitosis? 185. How many stages are in mitosis only?
A. Mitosis and cytokinesis A. 1

B. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and B. 2
telophase C. 3
C. G1 phase, S phase, G2 phase, and M D. 4
phase
186. Which cell cycle checkpoint makes sure
D. G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase that chromosomes are duplicated and
checks for damage of the replicated DNA?
181. What do genes encode for?
A. G1 checkpoint
A. Lipids B. S checkpoint
B. Fats C. G2 checkpoint
C. DNA D. M checkpoint
D. Proteins 187. Human eggs and sperm are , and each
has chromosomes.
182. A daughter cell that resulted from a mi-
totic division has 24 chromosomes. How A. diploid, 23
many chromosomes did the parent cell B. diploid, 46
have? C. haploid, 23
A. 6 D. haploid, 46
B. 12 188. The material of chromosomes which is
C. 24 made up of proteins and DNA is called
D. 48 A. Centromere
B. Chromatid
183. The stage where DNA condenses into
C. Karyotype
chromosomes and the chromosomes are
visible. D. Chromatin
A. Prophase 189. The structure in the nucleus that is

formed from DNA is called a
B. metaphase
A. chromosome
C. anaphase
B. organelle
D. Telophase
C. membraneds
184. How many chromosomes are in a human D. ribosome
somatic cell? Is this a diploid or a hap-
190. Begins after G1 checkpoint New DNA is
loid?
replicated Two DNA copies are made
A. 46, Diploid
A. G1
B. 46, Haploid B. S phase
C. 23, Diploid C. G2
D. 23, Haploid D. none of above

191. This Check Point checks cell size, nutrient 197. In Meiosis if the parent cells has 40 chro-
availability, growth factors and DNA dam- mosomes, then how many will the daugh-
age. ter cells have
A. G2 A. 40
B. S B. 10
C. M C. 20
D. G1 D. 18
NARAYAN CHANGDER
192. Nondisjunction is related to a number
of serious human disorders. How does 198. During telophase
nondisjunction cause these disorders? A. DNA lines up in the middle of the cell
A. alters the number of zygotes and DNA attaches to spindle fibers
B. alters the chromosome structure B. centrioles and spindle fibers appear
C. alters the number of gametes C. Each DNA gets pull to the opposite
D. alters the number of chromosomes sides of the cell
D. 2 new nuclei form
193. During cytokinesis, the divides.
A. cytoplasm 199. are mechanisms involving proteins
B. daughter and enzymes that regulate or control the
cell cycle
C. proteins
A. Cycles
D. checkpoints
B. Synapses
194. What are the life stages of a cell called?
C. Check Points
A. cell cycle
D. Spindles
B. mitosis
C. cytokinesis 200. In order for a cell to continue past G1, the
D. cell plate cell must pass the
A. G0 checkpoint
195. During which phase of mitosis do the
chromosomes line up along the middle of B. G2 checkpoint
the cell? C. G1 checkpoint
A. prophase D. mitosis checkpoint
B. telophase
201. The sister chromatids of each chromo-
C. metaphase
some are separated (come apart) and
D. anaphase move to opposite ends of the cell. Name
196. The division of the nucleus is known as: that Stage!
A. Synthesis A. Prophase
B. Mitosis B. Metaphase
C. G1 C. Anaphase
D. G2 D. Telophase

202. Uncontrolled growth can result in: 207. What happens during the S-phase of the
cell cycle?
A. G0 phase

A. a cell doubles in size
B. S phase
B. chromosomes form
C. Replication
C. DNA replicates
D. Cancer
D. none of above
203. When cells go through mitosis repeatedly 208. Which of these is a risk factor for devel-
without entering interphase, this results oping cancer?
A. arthritis A. growing older
B. cancer B. genetic inheritance
C. mutation C. exposure to carcinogens (toxins that
can damage DNA)
D. diabetes
D. all of the above
204. A cell produces more cells by first copying
209. Which of these must occur during the S
its
phase of the cell cycle so that two daugh-
A. centioles ter cells can be produced during the Mitosis
B. DNA phase?
A. the DNA must be replicated
C. chromatids
B. the chromosomes must be joined
D. cell membranes
C. the cytoplasm must be separated
205. What is a genome? D. the cell membrane must be split
A. A pair of two daughter cells. 210. Cells of organism must replicate for?
B. The genetic material of an organism. A. growth
It consists of DNA.
B. repair of damaged cells
C. A pair of two sister chromatids.
C. replacement of dying cells.
D. The cytoskeletal structure of eukary- D. All of the above
otic cells that forms during cell division
to separate sister chromatids between 211. The process that causes cells to becomes
daughter cells. specialized to a specific function
A. multipotent
206. What is the purpose of mitosis?
B. apoptosis
A. To increase the surface area of a cell
C. differentiation
B. To allow cells to divide for growth, re-
D. cancer
pair, and renewal
C. For increasing genetic variation within 212. During which stage of the cell cycle does
a species DNA replication occur?
D. To allow for DNA replication and pro- A. telophase

tein synthesis B. interphase

C. metophase 218. What is it called when cancer spreads

from one area of the body to another?
D. photosynthesis
A. metastasis
213. Which of the following is a form of asex- B. tumor creep
ual reproduction?
C. immigration
A. Mitosis D. mission creep
B. Meiosis
219. In human beings, which factor determines
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cell division the sex of an individual?
D. Interphase A. Number of chromosomes
B. Presence of Y chromosome
214. The shape of a DNA molecule
C. Pairing with the X chromosome
A. helix D. Formation of genetically identical cells
B. double helix
220. What is the longest phase of The Cell Cy-
C. twisted ladder cle?
D. coiled A. prophase
B. interphase
215. What is a series of events a cell goes
through as they grow and divide? C. metaphase
D. mitosis
A. Cell Division
B. Cell Cycle 221. Put the following stages of Interphase in
the correct order
C. Cytokinesis
A. G1, S, G2
D. Mitosis B. S, G1, G2
216. Which of the following is NOT a function C. G1, G2, S

of cell division? D. G2, S, G1
A. for growth or to add bulk 222. Nuclear membranes form, cell begins to
B. to repair injured tissues pinch to begin splitting describes:
A. Prophase
C. to replace dead cells
B. Metaphase
D. to provide extra cells for the body
C. Anaphase
217. What is the main stage in which the cell D. Telophase
grows, carries out its normal functions,
and duplicates its DNA 223. the form of a chromosome that looks like
an “X” when going through cell division.
A. cytokinesis
A. duplicated chromosome
B. meiosis B. chromatin
C. interphase C. chromatid
D. mitosis D. none of above

224. Zygote is C. DNA

A. a form of bacteria. D. none of above

B. The process of cell division.
230. Which phase is the reverse of prophase?
C. The cell that forms from fertilization.
A. interphase
D. What we call the haploid sex cells.
B. metaphase
225. What forms when there are uncontrolled
and non-stop cell division? C. anaphase
A. Mitosis D. telephase
B. Cancer cells 231. Which term best describes the type of
C. Cytokinesis cell division in which parent cells produce
D. Homeostasis daughter cells with the same number of
chromosomes as the parent cells?
226. What happens when something goes A. mitosis
wrong during mitosis?
B. meisosis
A. Nothing
B. cancer C. spermatogenisis
C. diabetes D. oogenisis
D. the cells die 232. Why do organisms use the cell cycle?
227. The Chromosome number in a certain fish A. to grow
is 20. How many chromosomes would be
B. to make sugar
found in bone cells of this fish?
A. 10 C. to get energy
B. 20 D. to make unique cells

C. 23 233. How would the time it takes for nutrients
D. 40 to reach the center of the cell change as a
cell gets smaller?
228. A sub-phase in the interphase wherein
the cell primarily duplicates its DNA via A. It does not affect the rate of diffusion
semiconservative replication. What phase B. increases
am I?
C. decreases
A. Telophase
D. none of above
B. S Phase
C. Prophase 234. What two processes make up the M
stage?
D. Interphase
A. fermentation & mitosis
229. Your chromosomes are made up of tightly
coiled up strands of B. mitosis & cytokinesis
A. Chromatids C. glycolysis & cytokinesis
B. Nucleus D. G1 & G2

235. The part of the cell cycle that divides the 241. Which is more associated with mitosis
cytoplasm of the cell than with meiosis?
A. Synthesis Phase A. Crossing over
B. G1 Phase B. Nondisjunction
C. G2 Phase C. Production of sex cells
D. Cytokinesis D. Identical daughter cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
236. The stage of mitosis in which the chromo-
242. Which disease is caused by a cell continu-
somes divide into sister chromatids
ing to go through the cell cycle, leading to
A. metaphase a mass of cells?
B. prophase A. Diabetes
C. telophase B. Alzheimer’s Disease
D. anaphase C. Cancer
237. Which of the following cells is a gamete? D. none of above
A. egg
243. What is it called when a cell goes through
B. bone “programmed cell death”?
C. heart A. metastasis
D. muscle B. apoptosis
238. consists of the G1, S, and G2 phases C. totipotent
of the cell cycle.
D. multipotent
A. Mitosis
B. cell cycle 244. What are the subunits of DNA and their
function
C. Mitosis
A. Nucleotides that store information
D. Interphase
B. Monosaccharides that provide quick
239. Radiation is often used for cancer therapy energy for the cell
because it can trigger
C. Lipids that store energy and provide in-
A. the immune system sulation
B. apoptosis D. Proteins that provide the building
C. cells to skip the cell cycle blocks and structural components of or-
ganisms
D. further cell mutation
240. Before cells can divide, what happens to 245. The amount of nutrients needed is deter-
the DNA? mined by
A. It is replicated A. The cell’s volume
B. It increases in size B. The cell’s surface area
C. It is divided in half C. The cell’s Rough ER
D. It decreases in size D. The cell’s Smooth ER

246. Sister chromatids are joined together at B. Metaphase

the C. Anaphase

A. equator D. Telephase
B. chromosome
252. The female sex cell is called
C. centromere
A. zygote
D. ends
B. sperm
247. The longest phase of mitosis. Chromo-
C. fertilization
somes condense and become visible Spin-
dles form go help separate chromosomes. D. egg
Nucleolus disappears and the nuclear enve-
253. This check point of the cycle dictates
lope breaks down.
whether the cell will continuously divide or
A. Prophase stop, and it also checks the cell size, pres-
B. Metaphase ence of growth factors and damage of the
DNA.
C. Anaphase
A. G1 checkpoint
D. Telophase
B. G2 checkpoint
248. Cells are taking in nutrients Proteins are
being synthesized Organelles are dupli- C. S checkpoint
cated D. M checkpoint
A. G1 254. Cancer promoting substances are called:
B. S phase A. Tumors
C. G2 B. Carcinogens
D. none of above
C. Cyclins
249. A spindle fiber is a specialized form of D. Malignant
A. microtubule
255. If an organism starts with one cell and
B. centrosome this cell has 10 chromosomes how
C. centriole many CELLS will there be after cell divi-
sion?
D. chromosome
A. 1
250. When does replication of chromosomes
B. 2
occur in animal cell meiosis?
C. 10
A. Before Meiosis I and Meiosis II
D. 20
B. Before Meiosis II Only
C. Before Meiosis I Only 256. Why do cells go through mitosis?
D. During Prophase I and Prophase II A. to make food from sunlight
251. The stage where chromosomes condense B. to create proteins

and the nucleus becomes visible C. to get air into the cells
A. Prophase D. to reproduce, grow and repair/replace

257. Affects only males, occurs when an X 262. What forms during prophase and later at-
chromosome is present. Results in 47 chro- tach and move chromosomes?
mosomes A. Chromatid
A. Down Syndrome B. Nuclei
B. Turner’s Syndrome C. Nucleolus
C. Klinefelter’s Syndrome D. Spindles
D. Patau Syndrome 263. the division of the cytoplasm is called
NARAYAN CHANGDER
258. Which of the following is not related to A. mitosis
mitosis? B. interphase
A. Germ cells C. cytokinesis
B. Chromosomes D. somatic
C. DNA replication 264. During which phase of the cell cycle
D. Somatic cells would you be able to see DNA polymerase
at work?
259. What does DNA polymerase do during A. G1
replication?
B. S
A. binds nucleotides together and cor-
C. G2
rects base pair errors
D. M
B. transmits messages that are trans-
lated into proteins 265. Which of the following is true about mu-
C. attracts amino acids to the ribosomes tations?
for assembly A. Mutations involve any change in the se-
D. recognizes and points out new origins quence of bases in a cell’s DNA
of replication B. Mutations are always harmful to the
cell
260. What are the steps of the cell cycle in or-
C. Mutations are never inherited by
der?
daughter cells after cell division
A. Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
D. All of the above
B. Interphase, Cytokinesis, Mitosis
266. Which phase of the cell cycle is the
C. Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Interphase longest?
D. Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase A. Interphase
261. During which process is the cytoplasm di- B. Metaphase

vided into two new cells? C. Anaphase
A. Interphase D. Telophase
B. Mitosis 267. an abnormal mass of cells
C. Cytokinesis A. mitosis
D. DNA Replication B. cancer

C. cytokinesis B. G2
D. tumor C. G1

D. M
268. DEFINE:What is mitosis
A. stage of the cell cycle during which the 273. What is the correct term for “develops in
cell’s nucleus divides the middle plane of a plant cell separating
it into two daughter cells during cell divi-
B. first stage of the cell cycle
sion”?
C. the process of replication
A. cell
D. the final stage of the cell cycle B. cell cycle
269. What happens in prophase of mitosis? C. cell plate
A. The chromosomes become visible; nu- D. centriole
cleus disappear; spindles form
274. The correct order of prokaryotic cell divi-
B. The chromosomes align in the middle sion is:
of the cell
A. DNA replication→Chromosome
C. The sister chromatids separate separation→Growth
D. The chromosomes uncoil into chro- B. Growth→Cytokinesis→DNA replica-
matin; nucleus reappears; spindles disap- tion
pear
C. DNA replication→Chromosome
270. What is the name of the female gamete separation→Cytokinesis
cell? D. none of above
A. Sperm 275. Define apoptosis.
B. Egg A. Cell repair
C. Skin B. Programmed cell death
D. Lung C. Protein synthesis
271. One difference between a regular cell and D. DNA replication
a cancerous cell is 276. In which stage of the cell cycle does the
A. that cancer cells continually cycle cell split into two?
through mitosis A. Mitosis
B. cancer cells spend the majority of their B. G1
time in the G1 phase
C. Cytokinesis
C. cancer cells always stop at check
D. S
points
D. nothing is all that special about cancer 277. The purpose of meiosis is to form
cells cells.
A. body
272. In this step of interphase, the cell carries
out routine functions, grows in size, and B. sex
makes new proteins and organelles. C. somatic
A. S D. brain

278. Programmed Cell Death is called C. meiosis

A. Cell Division D. telekinesis
B. Apoptosis 284. The correct order for the parts of mitosis
C. Meiosis are
D. Cytokineses A. prophase, interphase, metaphase,
anaphase
279. What does the “S” phase stand for?
B. telophase, anaphase, metaphase,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
What its function
prophase
A. Slow phase where DNA sleeps
C. interphase, prophase, metaphase,
B. Synthesis phase where DNA grows telophase
C. Synthesis phase where DNA is copied D. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
D. none of above telophase
280. The basic building block of all living or- 285. During anaphase
ganisms is A. DNA lines up in the middle of the cell
A. tissue and DNA attaches to spindle fibers
B. centrioles and spindle fibers appear
B. cell
C. Each DNA gets pull to the opposite
C. organ
sides of the cell
D. organ system
D. DNA gets copied
281. All living things are composed of cells.
286. What the two major phases of the eu-
Which action is not accomplished by re-
karytoic cell cycle
peated cell division?
A. Mitosis and DNA replication
A. a plant using sunlight to make its own
food B. DNA replication and Cytokinesis
B. a broken bone growing back together C. Mitosis and Cyotkinesis
C. a plant developing new leaves D. none of above
D. a baby growing into a teenager 287. The division of the nucleus is know as
what?
282. is the uncontrolled growth of cells, of-
A. Synthesis
ten resulting in a tumor or mass of abnor-
mal cells B. G2 Phase
A. Cancer C. Mitosis
B. Apoptosis D. G1 Phase
C. Radiation 288. Simon looks at an image of a slide and no-
D. none of above tices that all of the chromosomes are lined
up in along the middle of the cell. He is
283. the splitting of one cell into two. likely looking at a cell that is in
A. cytokinesis A. prophase
B. mitosis B. metaphase

C. anaphase 294. What are chromosomes?

D. telophase A. They attach to the DNA and pull it to

the sides
289. Chromosomes that have corresponding
traits from the opposite sex parent are B. They contain mitochondria
called: C. They contain ribosomes
A. Heterogeneous chromosomes D. DNA packaged into threadlike struc-
B. homologous chromosomes tures
C. Mother and Father chromosomes 295. What would happen if interphase didn’t
D. Grandmother and grandfather chromo- happen first?
somes A. Cells wouldn’t form correctly
290. A human body cell usually has how many B. Chromosomes wouldn’t form at all
chromosomes? C. There would not be enough chromo-
A. 6 somes
B. 22 D. Nothing would happen
C. 4 296. During metaphase

D. 46 A. DNA lines up in the middle of the cell
and DNA attaches to spindle fibers
291. Budding
B. centrioles and spindle fibers appear
A. is a from of asexual reproduction.
C. 2 new identical cells are created
B. is how gametes are formed.
D. DNA gets copied
C. is how diploid body cells are produced.
297. The shortest of all the phases. Cen-
D. is your best friend. tromeres line up among the imaginary
plate. Spindle fibers connect the cen-
292. To function efficiently, a good shape for tromere of each chromosome to the two
a large cell is pairs.
A. A sphere A. Prophase
B. A cylinder B. Metaphase
C. A cube C. Anaphase
D. none of above D. Telophase
293. During which phase of mitosis does the 298. Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the for-
nuclear envelope form? mation of-
A. telophase A. a belt of protein threads
B. anaphase B. a cell plate
C. interphase C. spindle fibers
D. metaphase D. centrioles

299. Which phase of mitosis do chromosomes 304. The phase following metaphase and pre-
pull apart to opposite ends? ceding telophase of cell divisions, and high-
A. metaphase lighted by the separation and movement
of chromosomes from the metaphase plate
B. anaphase towards the poles of the spindle. What
C. interphase phase am I?
D. telophase A. Anaphase
B. Telophase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
300. If a body cell of a chimpanzee contains
48 chromosomes, a gamete produced by C. Metaphase
a chimpanzee will contain how many chro-
mosomes? D. Interphase
A. 24 chromosomes 305. A cell with only half the normal number

B. 36 chromosomes of chromosomes is called a cell.
C. 48 chromosomes A. haploid
D. 96 chromosomes B. prokaryotic
301. Nucleolus and nuclear membrane start to C. heterotrophic

disappear, chromatin condenses into chro- D. eubacterial
mosomes, and spindle fibers start to form.
Name that Stage! 306. What would most likely result if mitosis
was NOT accompanied by cytokinesis
A. Interphase
A. 2 cells each one nucleus
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase B. 2 cells each without a nucleus
D. Anaphase C. one cell with 2 identical nuclei

D. one without a nucleus
302. The final stage of cellular division in-
volves the separation of the two nuclei 307. Cancer is the uncontrolled division of cells.
along with the cytoplasm into two new In other words, it is uncontrolled
daughter cells. This process is known as
A. Mitosis
A. cytokinesis B. Meiosis
B. repiration C. Cytokinesis
C. meiosis D. Interphase
D. mitosis 308. Sister chromatids separate and move
303. The end of meiosis results in to each apart along the spindle fibers. Each chro-
other. matid is now one individual chromosome.
A. 2 cells that are identical A. Prophase
B. 4 cells that are identical B. Metaphase
C. 2 cells that are not identical C. Anaphase
D. 4 cells that are not identical D. Telophase

309. What are the phases that takes place dur- 314. When DNA is tightly coiled (during mito-
ing Interphase? sis) it is called (a):

A. Mitosis and cytokinesis A. Chromatin
B. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and B. Chromosome
telophase C. Chromatids
C. G1 phase, S phase, G2 phase, and M D. Chromosine
phase
315. What part of the cell cycle results in the
D. G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase
splitting of the cytoplasm
310. The reason most cells have to divide is A. Interphase
due to: B. Mitosis
A. High acidity within its environment C. Metaphase
B. Mutated DNA D. Cytokinesis
C. Surface Area:Volume ratio
316. Which is less likely to be a function of mi-
D. A faulty G2 checkpoint tosis?
311. A sub-phase in the interphase of the cell A. Organism growth
cycle wherein the cell continues to grow B. Body tissue repair
and then prepares for cell division. What
C. Gamete development
phase am I?
D. Asexual reproduction
A. Anaphase
B. Metaphase 317. In which stage of the cell cycle is the cell
preparing for division?
C. G1 Phase
A. G1
D. G2 Phase
B. S
312. Mitosis makes sure that all daughter cells C. G2
are
D. M
A. genetically identical, diploid
318. Some scientists name the stage where
B. genetically identical, haploid cells carry out their normal functions but
C. genetically diverse, diploid are unlikely to divide. The name they give
D. genetically diverse, haploid this stage is
A. G0
313. Which of the following best describes
B. G1
why cells divide through the process of mi-
tosis? C. G2
A. To prevent cells from becoming too D. G3
large.
319. During interphase, a cell grows, dupli-
B. To make more of the same cells. cates organelles, and
C. For growth and repair of injuries. A. copies DNA
D. All of the above. B. divides the nucleus

C. divides the cytoplasm 325. Which molecule adds the new nucleotides
D. produces a new cell (bases) during DNA replication?
A. DNA Ligase
320. The process of where one cell becomes
B. DNA Polymerase
two cells, is called
C. DNA Helicase
A. photosynthesis
D. Centromere
326. The cells produced by the process of meio-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. anaphase
sis are called:
D. the cell cycle A. gametes
321. In metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes B. somatic cells
A. form and the nuclear envelope disap- C. body cells
pears. D. skin cells
B. are pulled toward opposite ends of the 327. is defined as division of the cyto-
cell. plasm.
C. chromosomes line up along the equa- A. cell cycle
tor of the cell
B. interphase
D. chromosomes begin to decondense C. mitosis
and the two new nuclei begin to form.
D. cytokinesis
322. The last part of the cell cycle, where
328. The two main phases of the cell cycle are
the cell finishes dividing into two cells, is
, andcell division
called ?
A. interphase
A. prophase
B. Gap phase
B. cytokinesis
C. M phase
C. interphase
D. S-phase
D. duplication
329. Cells spend the majority of their lives in
323. What do centrioles do? A. Interphase
A. Attach 2 sister chromatids together B. Mitosis
B. Pull the nuclear membrane apart C. Synthesis
C. Pull chromosomes apart D. Gap 2
D. Condense during Interphase 330. A cell containing 28 chromosomes under-
goes mitosis and cell division. How many
324. Which of the following is NOT a phase of chromosomes will each of the daughter
the cell cycle? cells contain?
A. M phase A. 7
B. S phase B. 14
C. R phase C. 28
D. Interphase D. 56

331. Before a cell can proceed to mitosis from 336. Which describes the activities of a cell
the gap 2 stage of the cell cycle, it must- thatinclude cellular growth and cell divi-
sion?

A. double in size
A. Mitosis
B. complete a full cell cycle
B. Cell Cycle
C. undergo cytokinesis
C. Cytokinesis
D. pass a critical checkpoint D. Chromatin
332. A growth disorder in cells that starts 337. After cell division, the new cells are re-
when an apparently normal cell begins to ferred to as cells.
grow in an uncontrolled and invasive way A. cytoplasm
is called
B. daughter
A. a DNA aberration C. proteins
B. chromosomal condensation D. segregation
C. syngamy 338. The cell membrane pinches in, dividing the
D. cancer cytoplasm into 2 cells
A. Metaphase
333. A Goat has a diploid number of 60. What
B. Anaphase
is the number of chromosomes in one of its
gametes? C. Telephase
A. 60 D. Cytokinesis
B. 30 339. The process by which haploid sex cells

form is called
C. 100
A. Mitosis
D. 120
B. Meiosis
334. G1, S, and G2 phases are combined into C. fertilization
one long phase called D. replication
A. interphase 340. One of the reasons why mitosis occurs in
B. mitosis humans
C. cytokinesis A. growth
B. hormones
D. cell cycle
C. enzymes
335. What cells in your body proceed quickly D. immune system response
through the cell cycle?
341. Where does DNA synthesis happen in eu-
A. Skin cells karyotic cells?
B. Hair follicle cells A. cytoplasm
C. Both skin and hair cells B. mitochondria
D. Neither of these two proceed quickly C. nucleus
through the cell cycle D. Golgi apparatus

342. “Cyto” in cytokinesis means 348. What is DNA composed of?

A. Cell A. Sugars, salts, and hydrogen bonds
B. Breaking
B. Phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a ni-
C. Lipid trogenous base
D. Two C. A nitrogenous base, hexose sugar, and
343. When does the following take polyphosphate
place:Spindle fibers shorten, pulling the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. A phosphate sugar, Ribonucleic acid,
chromosomes apart so that chromatids and hydrogen
travel to the opposite poles.
A. Anaphase 349. In a eukaryotic cell, which of the follow-
B. Metaphase ing processes directly involves DNA?
C. Telophase A. translation
D. Prophase B. active transport of ions
344. What type of cell results from meiosis? C. cellular respiration
A. diploid D. replication of chromosomes
B. haploid
350. The cell spends most of its time in (in be-
C. octoploid
tween) which phase?
D. decaploid
A. anaphase
345. What is the process of cell division that
forms two nuclei? B. interphase
A. homologous chromosomes C. prophase
B. mitosis D. metaphase
C. cell cycle
351. The process by which a cell divides into
D. chromosomes
two daughter cells is called
346. In which stage of the cell cycle does nu-
A. cell division
clear splitting take place?
A. G2 B. metaphase
B. S C. interphase
C. Mitosis D. G1
D. Cytokinesis
352. What macromolecule group does DNA be-
347. DEFINE:What is a chromosome? long to?
A. an organelle found only in a plant cell A. carbohydrates
B. process in which DNA is copied
B. lipids
C. regular sequence of growth and divi-
sion that cells undergo C. nucleic acids
D. doubled rod of condensed chromatin D. proteins

353. What is the result of meiosis I? 358. How many chromosomes do human body
A. 2 daughter cells with different genetic cells have?

information A. 23
B. 2 daughter cells with the same genetic B. 46
information
C. 92
C. 46 daughter cells with different ge-
netic information D. None of these
D. 2 daughter cells with the same genetic 359. What are the different checkpoints in or-
information der?
354. What is the longest phase in the cell cy- A. M checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and G1
cle? checkpoint
A. Mitosis B. G1 checkpoint, S checkpoint, G2 check-
point, and M checkpoint
B. Interphase
C. Cytokinesis C. G1 checkpoint and G2 checkpoint
D. Prophase D. G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and M

checkpoint
355. The cell cycle in prokaryotes produces
cells that are the as the parent cell by 360. Which processes is most important for
a process called the replacement of worn out body cells?
A. Different:sexual reproduction A. diffusion
B. Same:mitosis B. meiosis
C. Same:meiosis C. mitosis
D. Equal:binary fission D. absorption
356. Mitosis can be described as 361. The normal function of a tumor suppres-
A. a process where the nucleus divides sor gene is
two separate times A. to produce growth signals
B. where the cells formed have 1/2 the
B. to code for proteins that inhibit, or
number of chromocomes
slow, cell division
C. a process that results in a nucleus
C. to cause the cell to move faster
containing half of the number of chromo-
through the cell cycle
somes
D. to attack cancer cells in the body
D. none of the above are correct
357. DNA is replicated during the stage of 362. The division of the cytoplasm following
Interphase. mitosis
A. G1 A. cytoplasm
B. S B. cytokinesis
C. G2 C. telophase
D. M D. mitosis

363. In sexual reproduction, chromosome re- 368. What takes place during M phase?
duction is necessary to A. Mitosis and cytokinesis
A. ensure that all offspring have the cor- B. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and
rect diploid number of chromosomes telophase
B. ensure that all offspring have the cor- C. G1 phase, S phase, G2 phase, and M
rect haploid number of chromosomes phase
C. ensure that all daughter cells are iden- D. G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tical
D. none of above 369. About what percent of a cell’s life cycle
is spent in interphase?
364. Which acronym accurately portrays the A. 50-55%
order of the cell cycle?
B. 70-75%
A. IPMATC
C. 80-85%
B. ICMATP
D. 85-90%
C. IGMATC
370. Identical halves of a chromosome are
D. IMAGTC
called?
365. Which process divides the nucleus into A. Cousins
two nuclei?
B. Chromatids
A. DNA Replication
C. Centromere
B. Mitosis
D. Centrosome
C. Cytokinesis
371. How many times does meiosis go through
D. Reproduction
P-M-A-T?
366. Chromosomes are visible and spindle A. 23
fibers start to appear
B. 46
A. prophase
C. 1
B. metaphase
D. 2
C. telophase
372. Signals the cell to move on the next
D. anaphase stage
367. Which of the following shows the correct A. Centrioles
order for mitosis B. Chromatids
A. Prophase, telophase, anaphase, C. Chromosomes
metaphase
D. Cyclins
B. telophase, metaphase, anaphase,
prophase 373. Which cell cycle checkpoint determines
C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, whether the DNA has been replicated cor-
telophase rectly?
D. prophase, metaphase, telophase, A. The G2 checkpoint

anaphase B. The DNA synthesis checkpoint

C. The cell growth checkpoint 379. What holds the replicated sister chro-
matids together?
D. none of above

A. Centromere
374. Cells must pass through a critical check-
B. Centriole
point during which stages of the cell cy-
cle? C. Chromosomes
A. G1 D. Cycles
B. G2 380. Chromatids are held together by a
C. M phase A. spindle fiber
D. All of these are correct. B. centromere
375. What pair of chromosomes determine C. cell plate
gender in humans? D. centriole
A. 19th
381. Put the stages of mitosis in the correct
B. 21st order.
C. 23rd A. prophase-metaphase-anaphase-
D. 25th telophase
B. metaphase-anaphase-prophase-
376. Each of the two threadlike strands in a telophase
chromosome
C. anaphase-prophase-telophase-
A. Chromatid metaphase
B. Diploid D. telophase-metaphase-prophase-
C. Haploid anaphase
D. Sperm 382. phase of the cell cycle in which the cell

makes final preparations to divide.
377. During , the nucleus of the cell di-
vides. A. mitosis
A. Mitosis B. growth Phase 1
B. cell cycle C. growth phase 2
C. chromosomes D. tumor
D. synthesis 383. Which phase of mitosis is where the

chromosomes condense and become visible
378. The phase that starts mitosis is “X” shapes?
A. prophase A. Prophase
B. metaphase B. Metaphase
C. anaphase C. Anaphase
D. telophase D. Telophase

384. When does the following take 389. There is ample supply of energy and raw
place:Chromosomes condense, the nucleus materials available.
disappears, centrioles form and spindle A. G2 checkpoint
fibers form.
B. G1 checkpoint
A. Prophase
C. M checkpoint
B. Interphase
D. G1, G2, and M checkpoints
C. Anaphase
390. If a cell has 24 total chromosomes in G1
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Telophase phase, how many chromosomes will each
385. The nucleus divides into 2 nuclei during of the two new daughter cells have?
A. 6
A. Mitosis B. 12
B. Replication C. 24
C. Cytokinesis D. 48
D. none of above 391. We are the opposite sides of the cell

A. poles
386. After meiosis II the daughter cells will
contain chromosomes if the original B. centromere
cell contained 78. C. chromosome
A. 78 D. equator
B. 39 392. I am the phase of the cell cycle (not a mi-
C. 23 tosis phase) during which the DNA makes
a copy of itself
D. 46
A. Prophase
387. A type of CdK-cyclin complex that pro-
B. Metaphase
motes mitosis and peaks in concentration
at the end of mitosis. C. Anaphase
A. p53 D. Interphase
B. RAS gene 393. DEFINE:What is interphase?

C. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF) A. regular sequence of growth and divi-
sion that cells undergo
D. Maturation (Mitosis) Promoting Factor B. first stage of the cell cycle
(MPF) C. process in which DNA is copied
388. Chromosome movement in mitosis and D. doubled rod of condensed chromatin

meiosis is regulated by 394. The cell spends most of it’s life in
A. microtubules A. mitosis
B. microfilaments B. cytokinesis
C. intermediate filaments C. Interphase
D. All of thiese D. None of the above

395. During normal mitotic cell division, a par- C. S checkpoint

ent cell having four chromosomes will pro- D. M checkpoint
duce two daughter cells each containing

401. What are the stages of the cell cycle?
A. four daughter cells
A. I, M Phase, and C
B. two chromosomes
B. PMAT
C. eight chromosomes
C. I and C
D. sixteen chromosomes
D. None of these
396. What type of gene prevents the cells
with damage from continuing through the 402. Having only one copy of each chromsome
cell cycle? A. haploid
A. tumor supressor B. diploid
B. proto-oncongene C. triploid
C. stem cell suppressor D. octoploid
D. stem cell initiator 403. In the synthesis phase of the cell cycle, a
body cell copies its DNA. This DNA replica-
397. Mitosis creates tion occurs in preparation for which of the
A. egg cells following?
B. sperm cells A. mitosis
C. somatic cells B. cellular respiration
D. gametes C. facilitated diffusion
D. translation
398. What is a checkpoint in the cell cycle?
A. A check to see if the cell is ready to 404. Cell division occurs to allow for
move on A. Growth
B. A stoplight B. Reproduction
C. A green light C. Repair
D. Something that makes sure that cells D. All of the above
die
405. After mitosis the number of chromo-
399. Mitosis is made up of how many somes in the newly created cells will be:
phases? A. Half the number of the original cell
A. 4 B. The same number as the original cell
B. 5 C. Twice as much as the original cell
C. 6 D. none of above
D. 7 406. or more of the cell cycle is spent here.
400. What is not the prerequisite for clearance A. Interphase
at the G2 checkpoint? B. Mitosis
A. G1 checkpoint C. Cytokinesis
B. G2 checkpoint D. Anaphase

407. If the DNA in a cell is damaged, what will C. Metastaasis

happen when it undergoes mitosis? D. checkpoint
A. The damage is repaired before it di-
vides. 413. The region of a chromosome where two
sister chromatids are held together is
B. That cell will never divide.
called a
C. Each new cell that is produced will
A. spindle
have the damage.
B. centromere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. One of the new cells will have the dam-
age, but the other one will not. C. nucleosome
408. What is the longest phase in MITOSIS? D. centriole
A. Prophase 414. Which of these is paired correctly?

B. Metaphase A. Adenine-GuanineCytosine-Thymine/Uracil
C. Interphase
D. Anaphase B. Adenine-CytosineGuanine-Thymine/
Uracil
409. Gametes are
C. Adenine-Thymine/ UracilCytosine-
A. Haploid Guanine
B. Diploid D. Adenine-UracilCytosine-Guanine/
C. Body cells Thymine
D. Homologous Chromosomes 415. All types of asexual reproduction involve
410. In which stage of the cell cycle does the the process known as
cell duplicate its DNA? A. mitosis
A. G1 B. fertilization
B. S C. artificial pollination
C. G2 D. reduction division
D. Mitosis
416. The “M” in M phase is referring to
411. The stage of mitosis in which chromatids A. Mitosis
are replicated, spindle fibers begin to form,
and the nuclear membrane disintegrates B. Membrane
A. metaphase C. Mass
B. prophase D. Mangrove
C. telophase 417. Which of the following phases is the DNA
D. anaphase in CHROMATIN form?
A. interphase
412. Type of tumor that remains at original
site B. metaphase
A. Benign C. anaphase
B. Malignant D. none of above

418. The pinching off of the cell membrane in 423. The DNA has been completely replicated
animal cells to begin the process of cytoki- and checked for errors.
nesis?

A. G2 checkpoint
A. cell wall B. G1 checkpoint
B. cell plate C. M checkpoint
C. cleavage furrow D. G1, G2, and M checkpoints
D. cleavage churro
424. Asexual reproduction will result in
419. Cells undergo cell division, which in- A. Identical offspring to the parent
volves both mitosis and cytokinesis.
B. Twins
A. G1 C. Meiosis
B. S D. Non-identical offspring to the parent
C. G2
425. Plant and animal cells divide differently.
D. M phase What organelle in a plant is responsible for
420. Why is sexual reproduction better than this?
asexual reproduction? A. Cell wall
A. It gives an advantage to organisms to B. Cytoplasm
be different than the rest, if the environ- C. Cell membrane
ment changes.
D. Chloroplast
B. It is better for all organisms to be the
same. 426. The phase of mitosis when chromosomes
align in themiddle is called
C. It happens faster.
A. anaphase
D. It helps skin cells divide faster to heal
wounds. B. prophase
C. telophase
421. In which organelle is DNA stored in a eu-
karyotic cell? D. metaphase
A. Cytoplasm 427. Checks for cell size, nutrients, growth fac-

B. Nucleus tors, and DNA damage.
C. Chromosomes A. G1 checkpoint
B. G2 checkpoint
D. Ribosomes
C. Spindle checkpoint
422. The word “cycle” in cell cycle refers
D. DNA polymerase
to the of growth, DNA duplication,
and cell division that occurs in eukaryotic 428. In which stage of the cell cycle is protein
cells. and organelle synthesis?
A. repetition A. G1
B. randomness B. G2
C. rapidness C. S
D. retention D. Cytokinesis

429. Any substance that is known to cause C. Lung cancer

cancer is called a D. Cervical cancer
A. carcinogen
435. Chromatin refers to DNA that is
B. nicolyte
A. old and needs to be dissolved.
C. pathogen
B. completely unwound and ready for
D. retrovirus
replication.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
430. When is apoptosis initiated? C. tightly bound into chromosome-like
A. When DNA damage is repaired. structures.
B. When cells are removed from the cell D. relaxed like a bowl of spaghetti.
cycle.
436. Does the number of chromosomes in mi-
C. When DNA damage cannot be re- tosis change?
paired.
A. Yes
D. none of above
B. no
431. During which phase of the cell cycle are
C. none of these its asexual
the chromosomes lined up in the middle of
the cell? D. none of above
A. metaphase 437. During which stage of the cell cycle does
B. prophase the cell membrane pinchthe cell into two
C. telophase daughter cells?
D. allophase A. telophase
B. interphase
432. What happens in the G2 phase?
C. prophase
A. cell growth
D. cytokinesis
B. replication
C. preparing for mitosis 438. Where does a cell contain it’s genetic ma-
terial?
D. nothing
A. nucleus
433. When during the cell cycle are chromo-
somes visible? B. nucleolus
A. Interphase C. cytoskeleton
B. When they are being replicated D. golgi

C. During cell division 439. is the uncontrolled growth and divi-
D. During the G1 phase sion of cells.
A. Cancer
434. What disease did Henrietta Lacks die
from? B. Apoptosis
A. Thyroid cancer C. Cytokinesis
B. Breast cancer D. Meiosis

440. One long strand of DNA is called a C. G2 checkpoint

A. nucleus D. M checkpoint

B. nucleolus
446. In animal cells, the cell membrane pinches
C. chromosome in, dividing the cytoplasm into 2 cells
D. centromere A. Metaphase
441. During the cell cycle, which phase does B. Anaphase
the cell spend most of its time? C. Telephase
A. cytokinesis D. Cytokinesis
B. interphase
447. A male shark has 40 chromosomes in
C. prophase each of its sex cells. How many would be
D. metaphase present in its body cells?
442. What is the first checkpoint of the cell cy- A. 20

cle? B. 40
A. Mitosis checkpoint C. 80
B. G1 checkpoint D. 160
C. G2 checkpoint
448. After mitosis and cytokineses, one cell be-
D. none of above comes
443. Crucial to cell cycle control and assembles A. Two identical cells
during interphase B. Two genetically different cells
A. Chromosome
C. Four identical cells
B. Chromatin
D. Four genetically different cells
C. Chromatid
449. An individual has three number 21 chro-
D. Cyclin
mosomes. Which is most likely the cause?
444. In what stage are chromosomes sepa- A. Disjunction
rated and moved to opposite poles?
B. Crossing over
A. prophase
C. Gene mutation
B. metaphase
D. Nondisjunction
C. anaphase
D. telophase 450. the phase in mitosis where chromosomes
line up in the middle of the cell and the nu-
445. At this checkpoint, cell size and protein cleus disapears.
reserves are assessed, and most impor-
A. prophase
tantly, the proper duplication of chromo-
somes is assessed. B. metaphase
A. G1 checkpoint C. anaphase
B. S checkpoint D. telephase

451. If a liver cell has 10 chromosomes, how 457. During which stage of the cell cycle does
many does a sperm cell have from the the nucleus divide?
same species?
A. interphase
A. 20
B. mitosis
B. 10
C. 5 C. endocytosis
D. 40 D. cytokinesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
452. In which type of cells will mitosis occur?
458. When does the following take place:the
A. egg cells cytoplasm is cut, producing two new
B. sperm cells daughter cells.
C. jail cells A. Cytokinesis
D. Body cells except the sperm and egg B. Prophase
cells
C. Anaphase
453. Which of the following produces identical
nuclei in cells? D. Metaphase
A. osmosis
459. Which of the following does not make up
B. mitosis the interphase part of the cell cycle?
C. pollination
A. G1 Phase or G1 Phase
D. fertilization
B. Mitosis
454. These respond to events outside the cell.
C. G2 or Gap 2 Phase
A. Centrioles
B. Chromatids D. S phase or Synthesis Phase
C. Internal regulators
460. During most of interphase, DNA is found
D. External regulators in a relaxed form called
455. The two main stages of cell division are A. chromosome
called
B. centromere
A. mitosis & interphase
B. synthesis & cytokinesis C. centriole
C. the M phase & the S phase D. chromatin

D. mitosis & cytokinesis
461. Uncontrollable cell growth is known as
456. During which state of the cell cycle is DNA
Replicated?
A. obesity
A. Interphase
B. cancer
B. Prophase
C. Anaphase C. diabetes
D. Cytokinesis D. hepatitis

462. Students in a science class use a micro- 467. During the Cell Cycle, when does DNA
scope to look at a collection of onion cells. replication occur?
Which phase will most of the cells the stu-

A. During Interphase
dents observe most likely be undergoing?
B. During Mitosis
A. Interphase
C. During Cytokinesis
B. Mitosis
D. During M phase
C. Cytokinesis
D. Gap 1 468. The word cytokinesis has the prefix
cyto-that refers to a cell and the suffix-
463. Why is the metaphase important? kinesis that refers to division or move-
A. The DNA gets copied and the cell ment. Therefore, cytokinesis is the pro-
grows and develops cess where a cell’s cytoplasm
B. The DNA lines up so exact copies can A. divides
be pulled to each side B. multiplies
C. The nuclear membrane disappears C. increases
and the spindle fibers appear
D. evaporates
D. Two identical daughter cells are
formed 469. If there are 20 chromosomes in the nu-
cleus before mitosis, how many will there
464. During which stage of the cell cycle does
be in each new daughter cell after cytoki-
the cell spend a majority of its time?
nesis?
A. Prophase
A. 10
B. Interphase
B. 20
C. Metaphase
C. 40
D. Cytokinesis
D. 200
465. We are the parts of the chromosome that
have the same DNA. We are held together 470. There is adequate room in the environ-
by a centromere. ment for more cells.
A. chromosome A. G2 checkpoint
B. centriole B. G1 checkpoint
C. centromere C. M checkpoint
D. sister chromatids D. G1, G2, and M checkpoints
466. Which checkpoint appears to regulate 471. After meiosis is complete how many cells
whether the cell in G0 or not? will there be?
A. G2 checkpoint A. 1
B. G1 checkpoint B. 2
C. M checkpoint C. 3
D. G1, G2, and M checkpoints D. 4

472. Mitosis is the stage of the cell cycle dur- 477. Which of the following is true about DNA
ing which replication?
A. the cell’s nucleus divides into two new A. It results in 1 completely old and 1
nuclei completely new molecule of DNA
B. the cell’s DNA is replicated B. DNA ligase unzips the DNA to begin
replication
C. the cell divides into two new cells
C. Only one side of the DNA strand is
D. the cell’s cytoplasm divides replicated
NARAYAN CHANGDER
473. In anaphase of mitosis, chromosomes D. It is a semi-conservative process
A. form and the nuclear envelope disap- 478. The phase following prophase and preced-
pears. ing anaphase of cell divisions, and high-
lighted by the alignment of condensed
B. are pulled toward opposite ends of the
chromosomes along the metaphase plate.
cell.
What phase am I?
C. chromosomes line up along the equa-
A. Metaphase
tor of the cell
B. G2 Phase
D. chromosomes begin to decondense
and the two new nuclei begin to form. C. Interphase
D. G1 Phase
474. G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phaseare all
parts of 479. If a parent cell going through mitosis
starts with 22 chromosomes, how many
A. prophase chromosomes will be in the daughter
B. telophase cells?
C. interpahse A. 22
D. anaphase B. 11
C. 44
475. The cell membrane splits and 2 new
D. 15
daughter cells are formed
A. Metaphase 480. A cell with two of each kind of chromo-
some
B. Anaphase
A. Diploid
C. Telephase
B. Haploid
D. Cytokinesis C. Sperm
476. I am the main event in telophase. I am D. Egg
the splitting of the cell membrane and cy-
481. Which statement is true about the cell cy-
toplasm.
cle?
A. spindle A. It requires carbon dioxide
B. cytokinesis B. Eukaryotes do it
C. centromere C. It is only for epidermal cells
D. centriole D. none of above

482. In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell 488. Which one is not a checkpoint?
A. Grows A. G0 checkpoint

B. Matures B. G1 checkpoint
C. Carries on normal activities C. G2 checkpoint
D. All of the above D. Spindle checkpoint
489. the phase in mitosis where chromosomes

483. Meiosis is the
line up in the middle of the cell
A. nuclear division of gametes A. prophase
B. nuclear division of body cells B. metaphase
C. division of body cells C. anaphase
D. division of sex cells D. telephase
484. What is the order of interphase? 490. The final phase following anaphase of cell
divisions, and highlighted by the complete
A. G1, G2, S
separation of the chromosomes. What
B. S, G1, G2 phase am I?
C. G1, S, G2 A. Cytokinesis
D. G2, S, G1 B. Telophase
C. G1 Phase
485. What happens at the end of interphase?
D. S Phase
A. the cell splits into 2 identical cells
491. I am the second stage of mitosis during
B. the cell’s nucleus divides
which chromosomes line up in the middle
C. the DNA unwinds of the cell
D. the cell prepares for mitosis A. interphase
B. prophase
486. How many chromosomes does a normal
human body cell contain? C. metaphase
A. 23 D. anaphase
B. 44 492. Homologous chromosomes comes to-
C. 47 gether to form tetrads during which
phase?
D. 46
A. Prophase I
487. What happens during the cell cycle when B. Prophase II
a cell becomes cancer? C. Mitosis
A. Checkpoints repeat D. Interphase
B. Checkpoints don’t function properly
493. A jelly-like substance found inside a cell
C. Mitosis is repeated surrounding its organelles is
D. Cells shrink A. cytokenisis

B. cytoplasm B. Metaphase
C. mitosis C. Interphase
D. epithelial D. Telophase
494. During mitosis, DNA is found in the con- 499. There are 2 nucli in one cell
densed form called a
A. telophase
A. chromosome
B. prophase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. centromere
C. centriole C. anaphase
D. chromatin D. metaphase
495. Distinct chromosomes begin to spread out 500. Which of these is not a significance of
into a tangle of chromatin. Nuclear enve- meiosis?
lope reforms. Spindle fibers break apart. A. Chromosome number is halved
Nucleolus becomes visible in each daugh-
ter cell. B. Maternal and paternal chromosomes
get mixed up
A. Prophase
C. Chiasmata
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase D. Production of ribosomes
D. Telophase 501. how many chromosomes in a human body

cell?
496. In what phase do the chromosomes get
pulled apart into sister chromatid to oppo- A. 23
site sides of the cell? B. 46
A. Prophase
C. 100
B. Interphase
D. none of above
C. Metaphase
D. Anaphase 502. Which pair is correct?
A. M phase, cell growth
497. Which of the following occurs before cell
division? B. G2 Phase preparation for mitosis
A. A cell must enter G0 C. S phase cell division
B. A cell needs to replicate and evenly di- D. G1 phase DNA replication
vide its DNA
C. A cell only needs to grow prior to divi- 503. the stage in the cell cycle where cells
sion spend the majority of their lifetime.
D. A cell only needs to evenly divide its A. mitosis

DNA prior to division B. meoisis
498. Chromatin is found during which phase? C. interphase
A. Prophase D. anaphase

504. the process in which all of the nuclear B. G1 Phase

DNA is copied C. Metaphase

A. cell division D. Anaphase
B. synthesis phase
510. Which process produces the most varia-
C. interphase
tion within a species?
D. DNA replication
A. Asexual reproduction
505. If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the B. Binary fission
haploid number is
C. Mitosis
A. 18
D. Sexual reproduction
B. 9
511. The final part of the cell cycle and actually
C. 27
contains two separate processes:Mitosis
D. 36 and Cytokinesis
506. In DNA, the 2 strands are A. Cell Cycle
A. Parallel B. Cell Division
B. Perpendicular C. Mitosis
C. Antiparallel D. Cyclin
D. Antiperpendicular 512. During what phase of the cell cycle does
507. During mitosis chromosomes meet in the the cell grow?
middle to get divided into two daughter A. G1 phase
cells in a phase called: B. S phase
A. prophase C. M phase
B. anaphase D. Cytokinesis
C. metaphase
513. Which cell cycle checkpoint verifies cell
D. telophase
size and checks for nutrients and materi-
508. In the eukaryotic cell, it is the longest als to make DNA?
stage of the cell cycle and generally its A. G1 checkpoint
function is to prepare the cell to division
B. S checkpoint
process.
C. G2 checkpoint
A. Interphase
D. M checkpoint
B. Mitotic phase
C. Synthesis Phase 514. Binary Fission is a type of cell divi-
sion.
D. All of the above
A. Eukaryotic
509. The first period in the interphase wherein
the cell primarily grows in cell size. What B. Prokaryotic
Phase am I? C. Division
A. S Phase D. none of above

515. Which of the following occurs during 521. In this phase, the cell is preparing for the
G1? cell division of the mitotic phase.
A. Macromolecules are synthesized A. Go
B. The DNA replicates B. G1
C. The nucleus divides
C. G2
D. The entire cell divides
D. S
516. Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
After mitosis, you would expect a result- 522. Which of the following lists, in order, the
ing fruit fly daughter cell to have- phases of mitosis?
A. 16 chromosomes. A. interphase, metaphase, anaphase,
B. 46 chromosomes. telophase
C. 8 chromosomes. B. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
D. 4 chromosomes. telophase
517. A cell loses the ability to control its rate C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, in-
of cell division is called terphase
A. specialized D. prophase, anaphase, metaphase,

telophase
B. differentiation
C. cancer 523. Body Cells are
D. none are correct A. Haploid
518. Which of the following is not a step in B. Diploid
mitosis?
C. Gametes
A. Telophase
D. prokaryotic
B. Prophase
C. Anaphase 524. The first phase of mitosis is called
D. Cytokinesis A. telophase
519. The division of the nucleus is called B. prophase
A. mitosis C. anaphase
B. interphase
D. metaphase
C. cytokinesis
D. somatic 525. During which phase of mitosis do the sis-
ter chromatids separate and move to op-
520. Which disease is caused by a problem in posite poles of the cell?
the regulation of the cell cycle?
A. metaphase
A. cancer
B. Down syndrome B. prophase
C. diabetes C. telophase
D. sickle cell anemia D. anaphase

526. What is the correct order of the growth 531. The formation of a cell plate is a charac-
phases of the cell cycle? teristic of

A. G1 phase, G2 phase, S phase, and then A. cytokinesis in plant cells
M phase. B. cytokinesis in animal cells
B. G1 phase, S phase, M phase, and then
C. both A and B
G2 phase.
D. neither A nor B
C. G1 phase, S phase, G2 phase, and then
M phase. 532. Genetic material is called (1) and then re-
D. S phase, M phase, G1 phase, and then ferred to as (2) and is clearly visible during
G2 phase. (3)
A. Chromatid (2) Chromosomes (3) Cell
527. In which part of Interphase are the chro-
Division
mosomes replicated?
A. G0 B. Chromosomes (2) Chromatid (3) Mito-
sis
B. G1
C. Chromatid (2) Chromosomes (3) Mito-
C. S sis
D. G2 D. Chromosomes (2) Chromosomes (3)
528. If the S-phase was eliminated from the Mitosis
cell cycle, the daughter cell would
533. the process in which the nucleus of the
A. have half the genetic material found in cell divides
the parental cell
A. cancer
B. be genetically identical
B. mitosis
C. be genetically identical to the parent
C. mitosis
cell
D. tumor
D. synthesize the missing genetic mate-
rial on their own 534. Cancer often results in a tumor, or a mass
529. During normal mitosis, a parent cell hav- of abnormal cells that are smaller than nor-
ing 46 chromosomes will produce two mal. Which part of the cell cycle is affected
daughter cells each containing the most?
A. 23 chromosomes A. Mitosis
B. 46 chromosomes B. Synthesis
C. 92 chromosomes C. Gap 1
D. 4 chromosomes D. Gap 2
530. What occurs during interphase? 535. During what phase of the cell cycle does
DNA MAKE copies or replicate?
A. Two cells are formed
A. G1 phase
B. The nucleus disappears
C. Chromosomes line up in the middle of B. S phase
the cell C. G2 phase
D. DNA synthesized and cell grows D. M phase

536. What is the final step in the cell cycle? C. thyroid hormones
A. Cell grows in the G1 phase D. mutagens
B. Cell divides through mitosis 542. This is the cell cycle checkpoint that
C. DNA replicates in the S phase makes sure the chromosomes are lined up
D. Cytoplasm divides through cytokinesis in the middle of the cell and are attached
to microtubules/spindle fibers.
537. A substance capable of causing cancer is A. G1 Checkpoint
NARAYAN CHANGDER
called a
B. G2 Checkpoint
A. Radiation
C. M Checkpoint
B. Genome
D. I Checkpoint
C. Carcinogen
D. Spindle Fiber 543. Which is characteristic of the group of dis-
eases known as cancer
538. What stage is a cell in when cleavage is A. uncontrolled cell division
present in the cell division?
B. the formation of sex cells
A. Interphase
C. meiotic cell division in body cells
B. Prophase
D. the rapid formation of spindles
C. Cytokinesis
D. Metaphase 544. Decide if the following describes mitosis,
meiosis, or both. Daughter cells are iden-
539. What is the longest stage of the cell cy- tical to parent cells.
cle?
A. Mitosis
A. Interphase
B. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Both
C. Cytokinesis
D. none of above
D. Prophase
545. Cells spend most of their life in which
540. Where are chromosomes located in a stage of the cell cycle?
cell?
A. mitosis
A. Nucleus
B. meoisis
B. Ribosome
C. interphase
C. ER
D. anaphase
D. Mitochondria
541. Which molecules act as gatekeepers for overall process of mitosis?
each checkpoint of the cell cycle because
different types accumulate during the cell A. Diploid → Diploid
cycle phases? B. Diploid → Haploid
A. p53 gene C. Haploid → Haploid
B. cyclins D. Haploid → Diploid

547. Which of the following is NOT a reason 552. What happens during Cytokinesis?
why cells need to remain small?
A. The cell duplicates its contents (ex. or-

A. to efficiently obtain nutrients ganelles, DNA, etc.)
B. to efficiently obtain waste products B. The DNA coils into chromosomes
C. to efficiently remove waste produces
C. The cytoplasm and its contents divide
D. to efficiently send signals to the center
of the cell D. The nuclei and its contents divide
548. When does the following take 553. the two halves of a chromosome after
place:Spindle fibers attach to the cen- DNA has been replicated
tromeres of chromosomes and line them
A. centromeres
up along the middle of the cell.
A. Metaphase B. sister chromatids
B. Anaphase C. spindle
C. Prophase D. tissues
D. Telophase
554. Cancer is a disease that occurs when the
549. Lung cancer cells do not respond to the is no longer regulated.
signals that regulate the growth of normal
lung cells. Which process is not regulated A. chromosomes
in the cancerous cells? B. Mitosis
A. meiosis C. prokaryotes (or bacteria)
B. mitosis
D. cell cycle
C. fertilization
D. transpiration 555. The stages of cell division called
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and
550. Following the mitosis cell cycle, telophase occur during which stage of the
daughter cells are produced which are ge- cell cycle?
netically ( identical to / different from )
the original parent cell. A. G1
A. 4 ; different B. S
B. 4 ; identical C. M
C. 2 ; different D. C
D. 2 ; identical
556. Match the word with the definition. The
551. A 2n cell of a bat has 44 chromosomes, process in which one cell divides to form
how many chromosomes will you find in two daughter cells.
one of his gametes
A. DNA replication
A. 23
B. 22 B. Cancer
C. 44 C. Cell division

557. During cytokinesis in plant cells C. mass of damaged cells

A. the cell wall breaks. D. mass of blue cells
B. a cell plate forms, and the cell splits in 563. Cells go through additional growth.
two.
A. G1
C. a cell plate forms inside the two new
B. S
cells.
C. G2
D. the cell loses some of its DNA.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. M phase
558. The sequence of stages of growth and di-
vision that a cell undergoes is called 564. During what stage are sister chromatids
separated and move to opposite poles?
A. cell
A. Prophase
B. cytoplasm
B. Metaphase
C. cell cycle
C. Anaphase
D. mitosis
D. Telophase
559. Humans have pairs of chromosomes. 565. In which stage of the cell cycle does the
A. 21 cell grow in size?
B. 23 A. G1
C. 46 B. S
D. None of the above C. G2
D. Mitosis
560. What must occur during the cell cycle
to ensure proper division of the chromo- 566. Normal cells become cancer cells when
somes? A. regulation of cell growth and division
A. The cell must grow in size occurs
B. The mitochondria must divide B. cells respond to control mechanisms
C. The DNA of the cell must replicate C. cells pass through G1
D. The cell membrane must dissolve D. cells do not respond to checkpoints
561. An organism has 50 chromosomes in its 567. Crossing over creates

skin cells. How many chromosomes would A. male genotype
its new daughter cells have? B. genetic variation (differences)
A. 50 C. DNA replication
B. 25 D. mitosis
C. 100
568. Which is NOT a phase of the Cell Cycle?
D. 45
A. Duplication
562. A tumor is a B. Cytokinesis
A. mass of DNA C. Mitosis
B. mass of normal cells D. Interphase

569. What is the correct expansion for DNA? C. cell division ends with cytokinesis
A. Deoxynucelic acid D. most of the cell growth occurs during

B. Dioxynucleic acid the G2 phase
C. Dioxyribonucleic acid 575. A human cell has 46 chromosomes before

mitotic division. How many chromosomes
D. Deoxyribonucleic acid
will the daughter cells after mitosis.
570. Cycle of growth and division that cells un- A. 12
dergo is
B. 23
A. replication C. 46
B. the cell cycle. D. 92
C. interphase.
576. Daughter cells created by mitosis have
D. mitosis.
A. half of the parents genetic material
571. What type of cell is not yet specialized B. twice the parent cell’s genetic material
and can be turned into any type of cell?
A. skin cell C. an exact copy of the parent cell
B. blood cell D. have a brand new DNA structure
C. nerve cell 577. In which phase does the nuclear mem-
D. stem cell brane start to disappear?
572. The cell cycle is controlled by regulatory A. prophase

at three key checkpoints. B. metaphase
A. cytoplasm C. anaphase
B. mitosis D. telephase
C. segregation 578. A cell went through the process of apop-
D. proteins tosis after this checkpoint found that the
DNA was not replicated completely.
573. phase of the cell cycle that includes the A. S
G1, S, and G2 phases
B. G1
A. synthesis phase
C. M
B. cell cycle
D. G2
C. interphase
579. The attachment of nucleotides to form a
D. DNA replication
complementary strand of DNA during repli-
574. Which of the following is NOT a correct cation
statement about the events of the cell cy- A. is accomplished by DNA polymerase
cle? B. is accomplished only in the presence
A. interphase is usually the longest phase of tRNA
C. prevents separation of complemen-
B. DNA replicates during the S phase tary strands of RNA

D. is the responsibility of the proofread- 585. Prophase occurs in which phase of the cell
ing enzymes cycle?
A. M phase
580. The division of chromosomes is called?
B. S phase
A. anaphase
C. G0
B. mitosis
D. Interphase
C. cytokineses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. G0 586. The process of mitosis usually involves?
A. chromosome duplication and synapsis
581. In which stage of the cell cycle is protein
and organelle synthesis. The cell prepares
for mitosis. B. DNA replication and seperation of
chromatids
A. G1
C. tetrad formation and fertilization
B. G2
D. reduction in chromosomes number
C. S
and format
D. Cytokinesis
587. What is the division of cytoplasm called?
582. What is the final result of meiosis
A. chromosome
A. 4 daughter cells/different
B. mitosis
B. 4 daughter cells/ identical
C. cytokinesis
C. 2 daughter cells/ identical
D. the cell cycle
D. 2 daughter cells/ different
588. The longest stage of mitosis
583. During which phase does the cell actu-
A. metaphase
ally separate into two individual daughter
cells? B. prophase
A. Prophase C. telophase
B. Cytokinesis D. anaphase
C. Interphase 589. What is the correct order of the stages of
D. Metaphase mitosis?
A. Metaphase, prophase, telophase,
584. If the message never gets through for a
anaphase
cell to stop dividing and it just keeps divid-
ing over and over again, what can form? B. Telophase, prophase, anaphase
metaphase,
A. cancerous tumor
C. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
B. freckle
telophase
C. goosebump
D. Anaphase, telophase, metaphase,
D. scab prophase

590. Cylinder shaped organelles found in ani- 596. The individual strands on duplicated chro-
mal cells that help form spindle fibers are mosomes are called

A. centriole A. Centromeres
B. centromere B. daughters
C. chomatid C. Chromatids
D. chromosome D. Karyotypes
591. The end result of mitosis is
597. The mitotic cell division of a tomato cell
A. 2 genetically different daughter cells differs from the mitotic cell division of an
B. 4 genetically identical daughter cells earthworm cell in that?
C. 2 genetically identical daughter cells A. form a spindle
D. 4 genetically different daughter cells B. form a cell plate
592. M phase, known as cell division is made C. have centrioles
up of two parts. What are they? D. have cell membranes
A. mitosis and cytokinesis
B. interphase and mitosis 598. The condensation of chromatin into chro-
mosomes is a characteristic of which phase
C. interphase and cytokinesis of mitosis?
D. none of above A. Metaphase
593. Which pair of nitrogenous bases will form B. Anaphase
a bond in a DNA molecule?
C. Telophase
A. cytosine and adenine
D. Prophase
B. adenine and thymine
C. guanine and thymine 599. The chromatids are pulled to opposite
D. thymine and cytosine ends of the cell during which phase of mi-
tosis?
594. Which process allows for an organism to A. prophase
increase the number of body cells during
development? B. metaphase
A. meiosis C. anaphase
B. budding D. telophase
C. mitosis
600. If the diploid number of chromosomes
D. conjugation of a dog is 92, how many chromosomes
595. Why are HeLa cells important? would be in each gamete at the end of
meiosis?
A. they are immortal
A. 39 chromosomes
B. they are used to create vaccines
B. 46 chromosomes
C. they have been used to test the effects
of zero gravity in space C. 78 chromosomes
D. all choices are correct D. 184 chromosomes

601. Which of the following explains why a 606. How many chromosomes does a human
cell’s size is limited? cell have?
A. volume increases faster than surface A. 42
area B. 46
B. surface area increases faster than vol- C. 24
ume
D. 64
C. homeostasis is disrupted by a cell that
is too large 607. How many times does the cell divide in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. both a and c are correct mitosis?
A. Once (PMAT)
602. I am the center of the chromosome (the
button) that holds the sister chromatids to- B. 4 times
gether C. 2 times
A. chromosome D. none of these
B. centromere 608. the stage of mitosis in which the nu-
C. spindle clear membrane reforms and the nucleus
D. centriole divides
A. metaphase
603. By making one of me, plant cells complete
cytokinesis B. prophase
A. cleavage furrow C. telophase
B. cell plate D. anaphase
C. equator 609. What do the cells look like at the end of
D. spindle mitosis?
A. different from original cell
604. division of the cytoplasm, resulting in
two daughter cells B. similar to the original cell
A. cytokinesis C. identical to the original cell
B. cancer D. none of these
C. mitosis 610. Interphase does NOT include:
D. tumor A. G1
605. What does the replication of DNA during B. G2
interphase ensure (make sure of)? C. Synthesis
A. Crossing-over occurs prior to cell divi- D. Mitosis
sion.
B. Mutations are corrected before the the cell prepare for mitosis?
cell divides.
A. G1 phase
C. Genetic variation is created in daugh-
ter cells. B. S phase
D. Each daughter cell gets an exact copy C. G2 phase
of the cell’s DNA. D. M phase

612. What is cancer? 617. How many chromosomes are in human so-
A. The heart does not receive enough matic cells? Gametes?

blood. A. 46 ; 23
B. Sudden disruption of blood flow to part B. 23 ; 46
of the brain. C. 36 ; 18
C. Blood filled weak spot. D. 18 ; 36
D. Uncontrolled growth and spread of ab-
normal cells. 618. What type of cell will form a cell plate
during mitosis?
613. Chromosome refers to the two chro- A. Haploid cells
mosomes separating and moving to oppo-
site ends of the cell. B. Plant Cells
C. Animal Cells
A. proteins
D. Diploid Cells
B. segregation
C. cytoplasm 619. The cell cycle is the
D. proteins A. series of events that cells go through
as they grow and divide
614. Which statement best describes chromo-
B. period of time between birth and death
somes?
of a cell
A. They carry out cellular respiration
C. time from prophase until cytokinesis
B. They consist of the pigment chlorophyll
D. time it takes for one cell to undergo mi-
tosis
C. Their structure is only visible during in-
terphase 620. The structures that hold together sister
chromatids
D. They consist of tightly coiled strands of
DNA and proteins A. tissues
B. chromosomes
615. This develops in the middle plane of a
plant cell separating it into two daughter C. spindle
cells during cell division. D. centromeres
A. cell wall
621. What happens in the first part of Inter-
B. cell plate phase?
C. cell membrane A. Mitosis
D. cytoplasm B. Cell Growth
616. In what part of the cell cycle does the C. DNA Replication
DNA make a copy of itself? D. Anaphase
A. Interphase 622. After which phase of mitosis does cytoki-
B. Prophase nesis begin?
C. Telophase A. prophase
D. Cytokinesis B. metaphase

C. anaphase D. chromosomes begin to decondense

D. telophase and the two new nuclei begin to form.
623. What happens during the S phase? 628. Each chromosome contains two identical
A. A checkpoint over the connection of
the spindle fibers A. chromatids
B. The cell grows B. chromosomes
C. DNA is replicated
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. chromatin
D. The cell enters the G0 phase
D. centromeres
624. The synthesis (S) phase is characterized
by 629. DEFINE:What is cytokinesis
A. cell division A. the first stage of the cell cycle
B. the division of cytoplasm B. final stage of the cell cycle
C. DNA replication
C. stage of the cell cycle during which the
D. replication of mitochondria and other cell’s nucleus divides
organelles
D. process in which DNA is copied
625. The time between cell divisions in the life
cycle of the cell is called 630. Which type of tumor does not cause
A. anaphase harm?
B. interphase A. Benign tumor
C. prophase B. Malignant tumor
D. metaphase C. Metastatic tumor
626. Which of the following is true of malig- D. none of above
nant tumors?
A. They do not require treatment 631. is a critical point where stop and go
signals can regulate the cycle
B. They are easily removed through
surgery A. Metastasis
C. They can cause tumors in other parts B. Checkpoint
of the body
C. Malignant
D. They contain cells that stay clustered
together D. Benign
627. In telophase of mitosis, chromosomes 632. What stages of the cell cycle make up in-
A. form and the nuclear envelope disap- terphase?
pears. A. Prophase, Metaphase, and Telophase
B. are pulled toward opposite ends of the B. Gap 1, Synthesis, and Cytokinesis
cell.
C. Gap 1, Gap 2, and Synthesis
tor of the cell D. Anaphase, Prophase, and Cytokinesis

633. If an organism starts with one cell and 638. Cancer cells:
this cell has 10 chromosomes how A. Lose the ability to divide
many CHROMOSOMES will each new cell

B. Divide more slowly than normal cells
have after cell division?
C. Spend less time in Interphase
A. 1
D. Spend less time in mitosis/cytokinesis
B. 2
C. 10 639. Which is an example of a tumor suppres-
sor gene?
D. 20
A. apoptosis
634. Why is it so important to replicate DNA?
B. proto-oncogenes
A. so that each daughter cell is unique C. p53
B. to release energy D. oncogenes
C. to make sure that the daughter cells
are genetically identical to the parent cells 640. What is the correct term for “cylinder-
shaped organelles found in animal cells
which help to form spindle fibers during
D. all of the above cell division”?
635. If a species’ liver cell has 10 chromo- A. centriole
somes (5 pairs), how many chromosomes B. nucleus
does a sperm cell have from the same
C. spindle fibers
species?
D. cytokinesis
A. 20
B. 10 641. How many daughter cells are produced in
mitosis?
C. 5
A. 4 new cells
D. 40
B. 2 new cells
636. Organelles and chromosomes are copied C. One new cell
during
D. none of these
A. cytokinesis.
B. the first stage of the eukaryotic cell cy- 642. Which checkpoint is correctly described
cle. below?
C. the third stage of the eukaryotic cell A. G1:ensure cells are resting
cycle. B. G2:ensures the DNA is copied
D. the second stage of the eukaryotic cell C. M ensures the cells are the right size
cycle. D. none of the above are correct
637. Which of the following is NOT a phase of 643. What does shape does a chromosome re-
MITOSIS? semble during metaphase?
A. Prophase A. I
B. Metaphase B. L
C. Anaphase C. X
D. Interphase D. none of the above

644. During cytokinesis DNA is not damaged before cell enters mi-
A. DNA lines up in the middle of the cell tosis.
and DNA attaches to spindle fibers A. G1 checkpoint
B. Cell membrane pinches to make 2 new B. G2 checkpoint
identical daughter cells C. M checkpoint
C. Each DNA gets pull to the opposite D. none of above
sides of the cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 2 new nuclei form 650. Which is a function of cyclins?
A. Cyclins are carbohydrates that regu-
645. When cancer spreads to other areas of late DNA replication during the mitosis
the body, it is said to have phase of the cell cycle.
A. metastisized B. Cyclins are glycoproteins that repair
B. benigned DNA in the beginning of cell cycle.
C. tumored C. Cyclins are proteins that regulate
D. localized when and how often a cell divides.
D. none of above
646. The chemical colchicine districts cell divi-
sion. Which cell process would most likely 651. When cells are in Mitosis, what form is
stop of colchicine were added to a culture the genetic material in?
of human liver cells? A. DNA Helix
A. Mitosis B. Chromosomes
B. Meiosis C. Chromatin
C. Crossing over D. None of the above
D. Active transport
652. A chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber
647. What does G1 stand for? by the
A. First growth phase A. nucleolus
B. Ground phase B. deep furrow
C. Regrowth phase C. centromere
D. none of above D. centriole
648. Stage in which the cells nuclear material 653. The nuclear membrane breaks down oc-
divides and seperates curs during which stage?
A. G1 A. Interphase
B. Synthesis B. Metaphase
C. G2 C. Prophase
D. Mitosis D. Telophase
649. Ensures all of the chromosomes have 654. This checkpoint ensures that integrity of
been replicated and that the replicated Chromosome Separation by making sure

the chromosomes are correctly attached to 660. DNA is copied in the S part of this stage.
the spindle fibers. Name that Stage!

A. G1 A. Interphase
B. S B. Prophase
C. G2
C. Metaphase
D. M
D. Anapahse
655. Programmed cell death is known as
A. Apoptosis 661. What is apoptosis?
B. Oncogene A. Programmed cell death (cell sui-
C. Proto-oncogene cide) to prevent the spread of mu-
tated/cancerous cells.
D. Tumor suppressor gene
B. A type of cell division done by most of
656. What happens in nondisjunction? your body cells.
A. Chromosomes don’t separate cor- C. The final separation into two daughter
rectly causing genetic disorders cells and completion of the cell cycle.
B. There is no such thing as nondisjunc-
D. Sperm and egg cells.
tion
C. Cells divide 662. A cell that does not divide will enter
D. Cells collide phase.
657. Which of the following is true about cells A. G1

in the G0 phase? B. Interphase
A. These cells will not be dividing C. S
B. These cells divide very slowly
D. G0
C. These cells divide continuously
D. None of the above 663. During which cycle can you identify chro-
mosomes
658. In the S stage of interphase
A. G1 phase
A. the cell grows
B. the nucleus divides B. G2 phase
C. the cell membrane divides C. S phase

D. the DNA is replicated D. M phase
659. Replication is when 664. Which stage of the cell cycle usually lasts
A. the cell makes a copy of its DNA in nu- the longest?
cleus
A. prophase
B. the cell forms 2 identical cells
B. cytokenesis
C. the cell produces 2 sets of organelles
C. interphase
D. the cell continues to complete the
same function D. telophase

665. During interphase, the DNA is replicated 670. DNA coils into chromosomes during which
to create two complete sets of DNA. The phase of mitosis?
DNA is copied during which stage of the A. prophase
cell cycle?
B. metaphase
A. G1
C. anaphase
B. S
D. telophase
C. G2
671. Which term refers to the sequence of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. M
events that cells go through as they grow
666. A haploid cell of a tiger has 19 chromo- and divide?
somes, how many chromosomes will you A. active transport
find in one of his gametes B. cell cycle
A. 38 C. protein synthesis
B. 19 D. cellular respiration
C. 9
672. Why do cells undergo cell division?
D. Cannot be determined
A. Reproduction in unicellular organisms
667. Why is DNA important B. Worn out or damaged cells are re-
A. it provides the instructions/blueprint placed
for a cell C. Growth in multicellular organisms
B. it makes energy D. All answers are correct
C. it stores wastes 673. A cell containing one of each kind of chro-
D. it is responsible for making food mosome
A. Diploid
668. The genome of a goldfish contains 96
chromosomes. How many chromosomes B. Haploid
will each daughter cell have after mitosis C. Sperm
is complete?
D. Egg
A. 48
674. In what phase do the organelles disperse
B. 96 out into the daughter cells, and the cell pre-
C. 192 pares for cytokinesis?
D. 24 A. Prophase
B. Interphase
669. By using me, animal cells go through cy-
tokinesis. I look like an indentation in the C. Mitosis
cell membrane where it is pinching in. D. Telophase
A. cleavage furrow
675. During DNA replication, Okazaki frag-
B. cell plate ments are produced when
C. cytokinesis A. The lagging strand is made
D. centromere B. The leading strand is made

C. DNA is being repaired 681. in the cell cycle ensure that the cell is
D. Mutations happen ready to proceed before it moves on to the
next phase of the cycle.

676. How many daughter cells does Meiosis
A. segregation
create?
A. 2 B. proteins
B. 4 C. cytoplasm
C. 8 D. Checkpoints
D. 1
682. Which of the following is not a phase of
677. What is malignant? mitosis?
A. A substance capable of causing cancer A. metaphase
in living tissue.
B. telophase
B. Is a cancerous tumor.
C. anaphase
C. Is a non-cancerous tumor.
D. interphase
D. A substance that is not capable of caus-
ing cancer. 683. What happens in Interphase?
678. During the phase, the cell’s DNA is A. The cells are at rest before the active
copied in the process of DNA replication. division phase starts
A. Interphase B. The cells are producing more nuclei
B. cell cycle
C. The cells are synthesizing DNA, RNA,
C. synthesis and proteins
D. Mitosis D. The cells all go into G0 phase and with-
draw from the cell cycle
679. How many chromosomes does a human
somatic cell have?
684. The cells produced via meiosis are called:
A. 42
A. gametes
B. 46
B. somatic cells
C. 23
D. 64 C. body cells
D. skin cells
680. Which of the following cannot be at-
tributed to Metaphase?
685. What are the three phases of inter-
A. Chromosomes arrange themselves phase?
along the equator
A. G3, S, G5
B. Spindle fibers get attached to the cen-
tromeres B. G1, S, G2
C. Spindle fibers get attached to the nu- C. DNA replication, Chromosome separa-
cleosome tion, Cytokinesis

686. All chromosomes are attached to the spin- 691. Cells enter a resting state in
dles. A. G0
A. G2 checkpoint B. G1
B. G1 checkpoint C. G2
C. M checkpoint D. G3
D. G1, G2, and M checkpoint
692. Which of the following is NOT a way
that cell division solves problems of cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
687. On a human karyotype, what chromo-
some pair would have a mutation when growth?
there is a diagnosis of Klinefelter’s Syn- A. provides each daughter cell with its
drome? own copy of DNA
A. The first pair of chromosomes B. Increases the mass of the original cell
B. The second pair of chromosomes
C. increases surface area to volume ratio
C. The 21st pair of chromosomes
D. The 23rd pair of chromosomes
D. reduces the volume of each cell
688. Why are the new bases of the two DNA
693. When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA
strands added in opposite directions during
replicated?
replication?
A. G1
A. Because DNA polymerase works in
only one direction B. G2
B. Because the bases are positively and C. S

negatively charged D. M
C. It increases efficiency 694. Which event occurs during interphase
D. It prevents mutations A. centrioles appear
689. During mitosis, the are sorted and B. the cells grow
separated to ensure that each daughter C. spindle fibers begin to form
cell receives a complete set.
D. centromeres divide
A. prokaryotes (or bacteria)
695. phase of the cell cycle in which the cell’s
B. chromosomes DNA is copied
C. Mitosis A. binary fission
D. synthesis B. cell cycle
690. Cell division in occurs by binary fis- C. synthesis phase
sion. D. DNA replication
A. Mitosis
696. During interphase
B. chromosomes
A. DNA lines up in the middle of the cell
C. prokaryotes (or bacteria) and DNA attaches to spindle fibers
D. Interphase B. 2 new nuclei form

C. 2 new identical cells are created 702. A process where one cell forms two iden-
D. DNA gets copied tical daughter calls is called

A. cell cycle
697. Which part of the cell cycle is divided
into prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and B. interphase
telophase? C. meiosis
A. interphase D. cytokinesis
B. mitosis
703. The total number of cells in an organism
C. cytokinesis increases as a result of which process?
D. none of above A. respiration
698. Cytokinesis is the creation of two identi- B. photosynthesis
cal cells called C. cell division
A. children cells D. fermentation
B. new cells
704. Which of the following is not a reason
C. daughter cells
cells divide?
D. son cells
A. The cell gets too big to process and
699. Which stage of the cell cycle is MOST crit- transport nutrients
ical for ensuring that daughter cells are B. New cells are needed for growth
identical?
C. DNA cannot be copied quickly enough
A. G1 in large cells
B. S D. Surface area-to-volume ratio becomes
C. Prophase too large
D. G2 705. Which phase of mitosis is where the chro-
700. Which of the following best describes matids are being pulled apart to opposite
apoptosis? ends of the cell?
A. Programmed cell death. A. Prophase
B. Nucleic division. B. Metaphase
C. Uncontrolled cell growth. C. Anaphase
701. Which of the 3 main stages involves the 706. Which phase of the cell cycle ensures that
cytoplasm dividing to form 2 daughter identical copies the parent cell DNA are
cells? made for the daughter cells?
A. Interphase A. G1
B. Mitosis B. Mitosis
C. Cytokinesis C. G2
D. none of above D. S phase

707. What does a cell make during the synthe- B. cellular growth
sis stage of the cell cycle? C. DNA replication
A. more organelles D. viral transformation
B. a copy of DNA
713. Which of these does not happen in
C. daughter cells Prophase 1 of meiosis?
D. more surface area A. Nucleus breaks down
B. Chromosomes cross over in tetrads
NARAYAN CHANGDER
708. The stage of mitosis in which the chro-
mosomes line up along the cell’s equator C. Independent assortment
and the spindle fibers attach to the cen- D. Spindle fibers begin to attach to cen-
tromeres tromeres
A. metaphase
714. Which is formed during telophase in a
B. prophase plant cell?
C. telophase A. cell wall
D. anaphase B. cleavage furrow
709. Which phase of mitosis is associated with C. cell membrane
formation of the nuclear envelope? D. cell plate
A. Prophase 715. Normal cells become cancer when
B. Metaphase A. regulation of cell growth and division
C. Anaphase occurs
D. Telophase B. cells do not respond to checkpoints of
the cell cycle
710. Cell division in animal, plant, fungi, and
C. cells respond to control mechanisms
protists cells is called
D. cell pass through G1
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis 716. The cell cycle can be describe as which of
the following?
C. Hydrolysis
A. Organelles working together
D. Dehydration synthesis
B. The cytoplasm is dividing
711. The cell cycle is regulated by this C. A series of events that cells go through
A. cyclins as they grow and divide
B. stem cells D. The cell membrane allowing for differ-
ent molecules to pass in and out of the
C. cyclin-dependent kinases
cell.
D. both cyclins and cyclin-dependent ki-
nases 717. Two identical copies of a chromosome is
A. centromere
712. Interphase contains three stages, includ-
ing the G1 and G2 stages. Which of the B. centrosome
following occurs during these gap stages? C. chromatid
A. separation of chromosomes D. chromosome

718. As a cell grows, it 723. The G in G1 and G2 stands for

A. places more demands on its DNA A. gap

B. uses up food and oxygen more quickly B. growth
C. gap/growth
C. has more trouble moving enough ma- D. none of these
terials across its cell membrane
724. Each side of a replicated chromosome is
D. all are true known as a
A. Centromere
719. A student was told to count the number
of chromosomes of a cell by observing it B. Sister Chromatid
under a microscope. What phase of the cell C. Fragment
cycle would the student have to observe? D. Homologous pair
A. G1
725. What process duplicates the DNA during
B. G2 interphase?
C. S A. Replication
D. M B. Duplication
C. Mitosis
720. What occurs after cytokinesis is com-
D. Cytokinesis
pleted?
A. The cell organizes its microtubules 726. When DNA is tightly coiled it is called
(a):
B. The cell begins to replicate its DNA
A. Chromatin
C. The cell enters G1
B. Chromosome
D. The cell enters G2 C. Chromatids
721. A picture to show the appearance and D. Chromosine
number of chromosomes used to determine 727. Squirrels have 40 chromosomes in its
if there is a disease caused by a genetic diploid cells. How many chromosomes will
mutation? you find in their egg cells
A. Nondisjunction A. 40
B. Karyotype B. 23
C. Diploid C. 20
D. Haploid D. Not enough information to answer the
question
728. Chromosomes duplicate, the cell grows
the cell first (1st) grow?
and develops
A. G1 phase A. Metaphase
B. S phase B. Telophase
C. M phase C. Interphase
D. Cytokinesis D. Anaphase

729. I am the final stage of mitosis during 735. The phase of the cell cycle that occupies
which chromosomes become less visible most of an average cell’s life is-
A. prophase A. interphase
B. metaphase B. prophase
C. telophase C. metaphase
D. anaphase D. cytokinesis
730. What is the role of spindle fibers during
NARAYAN CHANGDER
736. What is the name given to the two new
mitosis? cells formed at the end of cell division?
A. separate chromosomes A. mother cell
B. breaks down nuclear membrane
B. daughter cells
C. duplicates DNA
C. sister chromatids
D. divides the cell in half
D. chromatin
731. The process of crossing over occurs in
what phase of meiosis? 737. What occurs during G1?
A. anaphase 1 A. Checkpoint after S phase
B. prophase 1 B. Chromosomes line up at the equator.
C. prophase 2 C. The cell grows and develops.
D. telophase 1 D. Spindle fibers separate chromosomes
to opposite poles of the cell.
732. Are the cells in Mitosis identical or
unique? 738. Cells replicate DNA.
A. Identical A. G1
B. Unique B. S
C. It’s random C. G2
D. none of above D. M phase
733. Interphase is the phase of the cell cycle 739. How many stages are in mitosis?
that includes which of the following stages
A. 1
A. Growth 1, anaphase, and synthesis B. 2
B. Growth 1, synthesis, and growth 2 C. 3
C. Growth 1, cytokinesis, and mitosis D. 4
D. Growth 1, synthesis, and mitosis 740. Which step is not part of interphase in
734. Which is not a phase of the cell cycle? the cell cycle?
A. Interphase A. mitosis
B. Mitosis B. G1
C. Cytokinesis C. S
D. Duplication D. G2

741. The thread like form of DNA is called C. to highlight the checkpoints
A. chromosomes D. to show that it repeats over and over

B. chromatid 747. What are the enzymes that are involved
C. chromatin in DNA Replication?
D. histones A. Lactase, Helicase, Polmase
742. The checkpoints that regulate the cell cy- B. Helicase, DNA Polymerase, Ligase
cle can fail when becomes damaged. C. DNA Polymerase, Lactase, Enzymase
A. DNA D. DNA Polymerase, Helicase, Lactase
B. Cell Membrane 748. All human have chromosomes
C. Mitochondria A. 23
D. Ribosomes B. 46
743. BONUS:How long is the whole cell cycle C. Diploid
for most animal cells? D. Haploid
A. 2-3 days
749. During which stage of interphase does
B. 24 hours the cell prepare for division?
C. 2-3 hours A. G1
D. 23 hours B. S
744. The Gap 1, Synthesis, and Gap 2 stages C. G2
of the cell cycle make up D. All 3 stages
A. interphase
750. What happens during Mitosis?
B. prophase
A. The nucleus of the cell divides
C. telophase
B. The cytoplasm of the cell divides
D. cytokinesis
C. The cell divides
745. Affects only females, occurs when there D. none of above
is a partial or complete absence of the 2nd
sex chromosome. Results in monosomy 751. During which phase in the cell cycle do the
and 45 chromosomes. number of cells increase?
A. Down Syndrome A. Interphase
B. Turner’s Syndrome B. Mitosis
C. Klinefelter’s Syndrome C. Synthesis
D. Patau Syndrome D. Metaphase
746. Why is the Cell Cycle often represented 752. the phase in mitosis where chromosomes
as a circle? split and are pulled by spindles toward op-
A. Because it is easy to draw posite sides of the cell.
B. Because cell cycles has a distinct be- A. prophase

ginning and end point B. anaphase

C. metaphase 758. How many chromosomes does a human

D. telephase somatic (body) cell have?
A. 46
753. We are the threads that pull the sister
B. 23
chromatids apart during anaphase
C. 42
A. poles
D. 26
B. centriole
759. What is it called when the gametes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. spindle
meet?
D. centromere
A. meiosis
754. What part of the cell cycle is responsible B. fertilization
for replacing old cells? C. cell division
A. Mitosis D. mitosis
B. Meiosis
760. What makes up the sides(backbone) of
C. Prophase the DNA “ladder”?
D. Interphase A. Deoxyribose sugars bonded to phos-
phate groups
755. How many parts are there to the cell cy-
B. Hydrogen bonded molecules
cle?
C. 2 nitrogenous bases
A. 2
D. Nitrogenous bases bonded to sugars
B. 3
C. 4 761. Cells grow, carry out normal functions,
and copy their organelles.
D. 5
A. G1
756. Each arm of the chromosome is called a B. S
C. G2
A. Centromere D. M phase
B. Chromosome
762. All of these are stages of mitosis, except
C. Replication
A. prophase
D. Chromatid
B. metaphase
757. When does the following take C. telophase
place:Chromatids reach poles, chromo- D. interphase
somes unwind, nucleus reforms, and cell
membrane pinches in. 763. If a somatic cell has 10 chromosomes and
it goes through mitosis and cytokinesis,
A. Telophase
how many chromosomes are in the daugh-
B. Anaphase ter cells?
C. Interphase A. 10 chromosomes
D. Cytokinesis B. 5 chromosomes

C. 20 chromosomes 769. In what phase do the chromosomes line

up in the middle of the cell?
D. 15 chromosomes
A. Cytokinesis

764. What are cyclins and cyclin dependent ki- B. Metaphase
nases?
C. Prophase
A. regulatory proteins D. Telophase
B. carcinogens
770. What is benign?
C. mitotic proteins A. A substance capable of causing cancer
D. mutagens in living tissue.
765. What is the first stage of the cell cycle
called? C. Is a non-cancerous tumor.
A. Interphase
ing cancer.
B. Mitosis
771. Which of the following phases is not in-
C. Cytokinesis cluded in interphase?
D. Prophase A. G1
B. S
766. Which one of these is characteristic of
cancer cells? C. G2
D. M
A. They undergo apoptosis.
B. They do not respond to growth in- 772. Chromosomes are made up of two
hibitors which are held together by a
A. Chromatids ; Chromosome
C. They respond to growth inhibitors.
B. Chromatids ; Centromere
D. none of above
C. Chromosomes ; Chromatids
767. If a molecule of DNA has 30 adenine D. Centromeres ; Chromatin
bases, then it must have
773. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells
A. 30 Cytosine bases have lost the ability to control their
B. 30 Thymine bases A. size
C. 30 Guanine bases B. spindle fibers
D. all of the above C. growth rate
D. surface
768. What is the nondividing stage or resting
stage of the cell cycle called? 774. Chromosomes are formed and the nuclear
membrane dissolves during the phase.
A. G0 Stage
A. prophase
B. G1 Stage B. metaphase
C. G2 Stage C. anaphase
D. G3 Stage D. telophase

775. The correct sequence of mitosis: 780. Why is crossing over important?
A. metaphase, anaphase, telophase, A. It ensures variety in offspring
prophase B. More sex cells
B. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, C. It insures there are less sperm cells
telophase
D. It makes sure there are more spindle
C. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, fibers.
telophase
781. Cells that have the ability to become any
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. telophase, metaphase, prophase,
anaphase cell type are called
A. stem cells
776. DEFINE:What is the cell cycle?
B. tumor cells
A. doubled rod of condensed chromatin
C. cyclins
B. process in which DNA is copied
D. regulators
C. regular sequence of growth and divi-
sion that cells undergo 782. If your were to examine a sample of
1000 cells, in which of the phases listed
D. a type of cellular respiration
below would you expect to find most of
777. What is the correct order of the 4 phases the cells?
of mitosis? A. Interphase
A. Telophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, B. Metaphase
Prophase
C. Anaphase
B. Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase,
D. Telophase
Telophase
C. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, 783. Cancer that has the ability to spread
Telophase A. somatic
D. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, B. benign
Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis
C. malignant
778. Checks damage to DNA and other exter- D. diploid
nal factors are evaluated.
A. G1 checkpoint
sis. The spindle fiber splits the centromere
B. G2 checkpoint and the chromatids move to opposite sides
C. M checkpoint of the cell.
D. none of above A. prophase
B. metaphase
779. What happens in cytokinesis?
C. anaphase
A. The cell fully splits into two cells
D. telophase
B. The cell digests its extra DNA
C. The cell prepares for mitosis 785. Apoptosis is
D. There are eight important checkpoints A. programmed cell death

there B. mysterious cell death

C. programmed cellular mutation 791. The process by which a cell nucleus di-
D. mysterious cellular mutation vides is called:

A. interphase
786. Checks for chromosome attachment to
B. mitosis
the spindle at the metaphase plate.
C. cytokinesis
A. G1 checkpoint
D. cell cycle
B. G2 checkpoint
C. Spindle checkpoint 792. What happens during crossing over?
D. DNA polymerase A. Chromosomes collide
B. Chromosomes die
787. After mitosis, the cytoplasm and or-
ganelles are divided between the two new C. Chromosomes exchange genetic mate-
forming cells in a process called rial
A. centriole D. Chromosomes replicate
B. chromatin 793. What type of cells does meiosis occur in?

C. cytokinesis A. Sperm Cells Only
D. centromere B. Egg Cells Only
C. Both Gametes
788. Which of the following is a type of pro-
tein that regulates the cell cycle? D. Daughter Cells
A. actin 794. Which phase of mitosis do the chromo-
B. myosin somes line up in the middle?
C. cyclin A. metaphase
D. pepsin B. prophase
C. interphase
789. The first phase of a cell cycle where a cell
is doing its normal every day job, growing, D. anaphase
and increasing the number of its organelles 795. Which is the longest stage of the cell cy-
is: cle?
A. G1 A. G1
B. G2 B. S
C. Mitosis C. Mitosis
D. S D. Cytokinesis
790. The plasma membrane consist of: 796. These respond to events inside the cell.
A. One phospholipid bilayer A. Centrioles
B. Two phospholipid bilayers B. Chromatids
C. Three phosophlipid bilayers C. Internal regulators
D. none of above D. External regulators

797. Cell division that results in four geneti- C. During telophase

cally different haploid cells. Used to pro- D. During prophase
duce gametes in sexual reproducing organ-
isms 803. What is the Identical cell formed during
A. Mitosis cell division Called?
A. Daughter Nucleus
B. Meiosis
B. Daughter Cycle
C. Diploid
C. Daughter Cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Haploid
D. Daughter Organelles
798. occurs when the cell cycle is no longer reg-
ulated 804. At the end of the mitotic cell cycle, a cell
divides into two cells. What must happen
A. cytokinesis
before the cell divides?
B. mitosis
A. the number of organelles triples
C. cancer
B. chromosomes must be copied
D. tumor C. four nuclei must be formed
799. Cells that rarely divide will spend most D. the membrane thickens
of their time in what particular phase of
the cell cycle? 805. A disorder in which some of the body’s
cells lose the ability to control growth.
A. Go
A. growth factor
B. G1
B. human growth hormone
C. G2
C. cancer
D. S
D. tumor
800. Our DNA is located in the of our cells.
806. In prophase of mitosis, chromosomes
A. mitochondria
A. form and the nuclear envelope disap-
B. cytoplasm pears.
C. nucleus B. are pulled toward opposite ends of the
D. chloroplasts cell.
tor of the cell
for a cell to divide?
D. chromosomes begin to decondense
A. Growth
and the two new nuclei begin to form.
B. Repair
807. If a fruit fly has 8 chromosomes in each
C. Cloning
of its body cells, how many chromosomes
D. Reproduction will be in each daughter cell after mitosis?
802. Chromatin condenses to form discrete, A. 2
visible chromosomes- B. 4
A. Early in G1 C. 8
B. During S D. 16

808. Unicellular organisms, such as bacteria, A. G1 checkpoint

reproduce asexually through a process B. G2 checkpoint
known as

C. M checkpoint
A. Binary Fission
D. none of above
B. Conjugation
C. Meiosis 814. Which part of the cell cycle does the cyto-
plasm pinch off and a new daughter cell is
D. Mitosis
formed that is identical to the parent cell.
809. Which event takes place during anaphase A. Interphase
II of meiosis?
B. Mitosis
A. Nuclear membrane breaks down
C. Cytokinesis
B. Sister chromatids separate
D. none of above
C. Spindle fibers break down
815. What is carcinogen?
D. Cytoplasm divides
A. A substance capable of causing cancer
810. At what stage during mitosis does the nu- in living tissue.
clear envelope break up?
A. Metaphase
C. Is a non-cancerous tumor.
B. Prophase
C. Anaphase ing cancer.
D. Telophase
816. Which of the following represents chro-
811. Cells grow bigger Continue to make pro- mosome # during fertilization?
teins Energy is replenished Stops at G2 A. n+n=2n
checkpoint
B. n=n
A. G1
C. 2n=n+n
B. S phase
D. 2n=2n
C. G2
D. none of above 817. One advantage of sexual reproduction to
asexual is
812. If a somatic (body) cell in a butterfly
A. it is fast
contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg
would contain B. large numbers of offspring are pro-
duced
A. 3
C. offsrping are genetically different
B. 6
C. 12 D. offspring are identical
D. 24 818. Which of the following molecules are

bonded together by hydrogen bonds in
813. Determines whether all the sister chro- DNA?
matids are correctly attached to the spin-
dle microtubules before the cell enters the A. Nitrogen bases
irreversible anaphase stage. B. Deoxyribose and phosphate

5.2 Cell Division and Cancerous Cells 612
C. Deoxyribose and nitrogenous bases D. telophase

D. Phosphate and nitrogenous bases 820. The outputs of mitosis and cytokinesis
819. Which phase does the CHROMATIN con- are genetically identical cells with
dense and can now be seen under a micro- of chromosomes compared to the original.
scope? A. 4; a different number
A. interphase B. 2; a different number
B. prophase C. 2; the same number
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. metaphase D. 4; the same number
5.2 Cell Division and Cancerous Cells

1. The two halves of the doubled chromo- 5. Condition in which a cell grows without
some (X shaped) structure control and divides too much
A. centromeres A. tumor
B. sister chromatids B. cancer
C. spindle C. mitosis
D. radiation
D. tissues
6. Most cancer can also be described as
2. A condition in which neither of two alleles what?
for a gene is dominant or recessive.
A. controlled cell division
A. codominance B. cell death
B. heterozygous C. cell cycle
C. diploid D. uncontrolled cell division
D. haploid 7. Most cancer begin as an abnormal cell
growth that is not malignant but a
3. When mitosis begins, DNA will condense
from chromatin into A. altered
B. benign
A. Centrioles
C. metastasis
B. Chromosomes
D. angiogenesis
C. Nuclei
8. What part of cell division does this hap-
D. Spindle fibers
pen? The cell divides in half. The cyto-
plasm divides and the cell “pinches” into
4. Where are mutations found in DNA?
two nearly equal parts.
A. In the phosphates A. telophase
B. In the sugars B. anaphase
C. In the nitrogen bases of nucleotides C. cytokinesis
D. All of these D. metaphase

9. During which phase of mitosis does the B. 46

nuclear envelope reform and the nucleoli C. 92
reappear?

D. 47
A. interphase
B. prophase 15. What is a stem cell?
C. metaphase A. a cell that has a stem
D. telophase B. an unspecialized cells from which dif-
ferentiated cells develop
10. A structure in the nucleus that contains ge-
netic material is called C. cells that are found in plant stem
A. genetic material D. cells that are found in bacteria only
B. code 16. Cell division results in
C. nucleus A. genetically non identical cells
D. chromosome B. genetically identical cells
11. Which is not a phase in interphase? C. none of the above
A. gap 1 D. none of above
B. gap 2
17. Which of the following is not a checkpoint
C. synthesis in the cell cycle?
D. cytokinesis A. G1 checkpoint
12. What triggers the cell’s passage past the B. G2 checkpoint
G2 checkpoint into mitosis? C. M checkpoint
A. MPF D. S checkpoint
B. PDGF
18. If a sex cell contains 10 chromosomes,
C. cyclin
how many chromosomes are in the body
D. Cdk cells?
13. Identify which is NOT an advantage of A. 5
asexual reproduction? B. 10
A. the ability to produce a great number C. 15
of offspring
D. 20
B. only 1 parent needed for reproduction
19. Which of the following can control the cell
C. less energy needed to reproduce cycle?( In other words turn the cell cycle
on and off).
D. creates genetic variety in the popula-
tion A. external factors
B. internal factors
14. What is the diploid number of cells found
in a human body cell? C. cyclins (enzymes)
A. 23 D. all of these

20. After cell division, each daughter cell has B. Apoptosis

A. a lower surface area/volume ratio C. Cellular suicide
than the parent cell D. Cellular aging
B. a higher surface area/volume ratio
26. Meiosis results in this many MORE daugh-
than the parent cell
ter cells than mitosis
C. more DNA in its nucleus than the par-
A. 1
ent cell
B. 2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. less DNA in its nucleus than the parent
cel C. 4
D. 8
21. Which of the following is a type of protein
that regulates/controls the cell cycle? 27. How many daughter cells are produced
A. actin from meiosis?
A. 10
B. myosin
B. 6
C. cyclin
C. 4
D. pepsin
D. 2
22. Cell division in eukaryotes is called
while in prokaryotes it is 28. Through what process do cells become spe-
cialized so they can perform specific func-
A. mitosis; cytokinesis tions within organisms?
B. mitosis; interphase A. mitosis
C. mitosis; binary fission B. binary fission
D. mitosis; cell cycle C. differentiation
23. How many chromosomes does each daugh- D. fertilization
ter cell contain compared to the mother cell
29. cell with two of each kind of chromosome
immediately after cell division?
(2n)
A. the same number A. meiosis
B. half as many B. chromosome
C. twice as many C. diploid
D. four times as many D. haploid
24. M phase produces 30. Which statement is true of both mitosis
A. Identical daughter cells and meiosis?
B. Different daughter cells A. both are involved in asexual reproduc-
tion
C. Identical parent cells
B. both occur only in reproductive cells
D. Different parent cells
C. the final number of chromosomes is re-
25. Which of the following best describes duced by half in both
senescence? D. DNA replication occurs before division
A. Programmed cell death of the nucleus

31. When do homologues line up in the middle 37. The phase that occurs before mitosis is
of a cell? known as

A. metaphase A. prophase
B. metaphase I B. interphase
C. metaphase II C. metaphase
D. none of above D. cytokinesis
32. Proto-oncogenes can mutate into
38. The shortest stage of mitosis. Begins with
A. oncogenes the two sister chromatids of each pair sud-
B. tumor suppressor genes denly part. Each chromatid thus becomes
a chromosome. What phase is this?
C. DNA repair proteins
A. Telophase
D. none of above
B. Anaphase
33. Before the nucleus can divide, what must
be copied? C. Prophase
A. mitochondria D. Metaphase
B. cytoplasm 39. Eosin is used to stain which part of the

C. DNA cell?
D. cell wall A. Nucleus
34. This is a cause of cancer B. Cheek
A. Genes C. Cytoplasm
B. Tobacco D. Mitochondria
C. Sunlight 40. During which phase in the cell cycle does
D. All of this (and more!) mitosis happen?
35. During what phase of the cell cycle does A. G1 phase

the cell divide into two cells? B. S phase
A. Cytokinesis C. G2 phase
B. Mitosis phase D. M phase
C. S phase
41. Which of the following describes sister
D. G2 phase
chromatids?
36. Which of the following are external regu- A. Identical copies of each other
lators of the cell cycle?
B. “One from mom and one from dad”
A. cyclins
C. Chromosome 5 from Mom, chromo-
B. growth factors some 5 from dad
C. mitotic spindles D. Coiled up DNA that separates during
D. cancer cells meiosis 1

42. In plants cells, what is the structure that 48. After DNA duplication, the chromosomes
forms in between the divided nuclei? :each chromatin fiber becomes densely
A. cell membrane coiled and folded making chromosomes
smaller and shorter
B. cell plate
A. decondensed
C. cleavage furrow
D. none of above B. duplicates
C. condensed
NARAYAN CHANGDER
43. In a population of 100 men, how many will
develop cancer at some point during their D. disappear
lifetime?
A. 0 49. If abnormal cells remain at the original site
they are called
B. 50
A. benign tumor
C. 75
D. 100 B. malignant tumor
44. Cyclins are a family of closely related pro- C. all of the above
teins that D. none of above
A. regulate the cell cycle
50. What is the longest stage (the stage
B. produce p53
where cells spend most of their time) of
C. cause cancer the cell cycle called?
D. work to heal wounds A. Cytokinesis
45. Division of the cytoplasm and organelles. B. M phase
A. Mitosis C. Interphase
B. Metaphase
D. G1 Phase
C. Cytokinesis
D. Cytoplasm 51. Crossing over helps promote
46. Which part of the nucleus starts to appear A. male genotype

during telophase? B. genetic variation
A. centromere
C. DNA replication
B. centrosome
D. mitosis
C. nuclear membrane
D. spindle fibers 52. Which of the following is the correct order
for the phases of the cell cycle?
47. has 1 division
A. G1, M, G2, C, S
A. mitosis
B. meiosis B. S, G1, G2, M, C
C. both C. G1, G2, S, M, C

D. none of above D. G1, S, G2, M, C

53. If an intestinal cell in a butterfly con- C. Divide their cytoplasm

tains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg cell D. Replicate their cytoplasm
would contain

A. 12 chromosomes 59. the period of the cell cycle when the cells
is not dividing, accounts for about 90% of
B. 6 chromosomes
time, divided into G1, S and G2
C. 3 chromosomes
A. interphase
D. 24 chromosomes
B. mitosis
54. Normal cellular activities, such as protein
C. chromatin
synthesis, occur primarily during
D. anaphase
A. prophase
B. metaphase 60. What term refers to a chemical or other
C. anaphase agent that causes a mutation in DNA?
D. interphase A. a carcinogen
B. a mutagen
55. A haploid cell
C. a contagion
A. has 2 sets of chromosomes
B. has more than two sets of chromo- D. an option
somes
61. DNA Replication occurs during which part
C. has half the number of original chromo- of the cell cycle?
somes
A. G phase
D. cannot undergo meiosis
B. S phase
56. Cells that have the ability to become any C. M phase
type of specialized cell in the body are
called: D. P phase
A. cell membranes 62. Which of the following involves a “swap-
B. stem cells ping “ of DNA between homologous chro-
mosomes?
C. nerve cells
D. cardiac cells A. Independent Assortment
B. Crossing Over
57. A tumor is considered if it won’t
spread and it’s not dangerous. C. Mitosis
A. benign D. Cytokinesis
B. malignant 63. When bacteria cells divide, where does
C. malformed their DNA replicate?
D. dangerous A. nucleus
58. Cytokinesis allows cells to B. cytoplasm
A. Divide their nucleus C. chloroplast
B. Replicate their nucleus D. mitochondria

64. A mutation first affects which part of 70. Chromatin is made up of DNA that wraps
DNA? around proteins at regular intervals. What
A. Phosphates is the name of these proteins?
B. Sugars A. centromeres
C. Nucleotides/Nitrogen Bases B. telomeres
D. All of these C. histones
65. During which phase(s) of mitosis are chro- D. chromosomes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
matids visible?
71. In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell
A. anaphase only
cycle is regulated by
B. prophase, anaphase and metaphase
A. centrioles
C. metaphase only
B. cyclins
D. anaphase and interphase
C. spindle fibers
66. Which of the following stages contains no
trace of nuclear membrane? D. the nuclear membrane
A. Prophase 1 72. Identify the correct order of the phases of
B. Telophase 2 Interphase.
C. Anaphase 1 A. G2, S, G1
D. Prophase 2 B. G1, S, G2
67. Which is NOT a method used to treat can- C. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase,
cerous tumors? Telophase
A. chemotherapy D. G1, G2, S
B. radiation
73. In normal cell division the daughter cell
C. surgery
D. eating ice cream
A. Is different from the original cell with
68. may prevent apoptosis, and the defec- no major errors or mutations
tive cell can replicate.
B. Is identical to the original cell with no
A. Mutations major errors or mutations
B. Salutations C. Is identical to the original cell with
C. RNA many mutations
D. Mitosis D. none of above
69. Each daughter cell ends up with the
74. What is another name for sex cells?
number of as the
A. gametes
A. chromosomes, parent cel, same
B. parent cell, same, chromosomes B. wametes
C. same, daughter cell, chromosomes C. sametes
D. same, chromosomes, parent cell D. lametes

75. An uncontrolled division of abnormal cells C. telophase

in a part of the body is D. anaphase

A. cancer
81. Which item listed below is not associated
B. cell division with the cell cycle?
C. cell cycle A. CDK
D. mitosis B. Cyclins
76. The origin of most malignant tumors are: C. Phosphorylation
A. clonal D. BRCA-1
B. monoclonal 82. Tumors can be and

C. multiclonal A. blue and maroon
D. polyclonal B. good, bad
C. bred, mast
77. The final stages of mitosis should have
how many cells? D. benign, malignant
A. 1 83. Which biopsy type uses a needle and is the
B. 2 least invasive?
A. Autopsy
C. 3
B. surgical biopsy
D. 46
C. vivisection
78. In the G2 stage of the cell cycle, the cell
D. Fine needle aspiration
A. divides into 2 daughter cells 84. The spreading of cancerous cells is called
B. undergoes apoptosis A. metastasis
C. copies its DNA B. carcinogenesis

C. angiogenesis
D. checks to make sure the DNA was com-
pletely and accurately copied D. homeostasis
79. The stage where chromosomes condense 85. During this cell cycle check point the cell
and the nuclear membrane begins to break checks for correctly replicated DNA
apart A. G1 or Growth Phase 1
A. Prophase B. G2 or Growth Phase 2
B. metaphase C. Mitosis Phase
C. anaphase D. Cytokinesis
D. Telephase 86. how is cancer most commonly caused
80. The final stage of mitosis during which A. smoking and tabaco
chromosomes become less visible: B. infections
A. prophase C. breathing
B. metaphase D. all of the above

87. Which phase during interphase doe this C. fertilization

happen? The cell increases in size and pro-
D. pacification
duce new organelles and proteins
A. G2 93. Chromosomes line up in the middle of the
B. G1 cell
C. S A. prophase
D. G3 B. metaphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
88. When a eukaryotic cell is not dividing, its C. anaphase
genetic material can be found in the form D. telophase
of very long thin fibers called
A. chromatin 94. A mutation is
B. chromosomes A. A temporary change in DNA.

C. the nucleolus B. A permanent change in DNA.
D. RNA C. Both.
89. stages of interphase D. none of above

A. G1, M, G2 95. Mitosis is the division of the cytokine-
B. M, C, S sis is the division of the
C. G1, S, G2 A. cytoplasm, nucleus
D. P, M, G1 B. cytoplasm, DNA
90. Daughter cells are genetically identical to C. DNA, nucleus
the parent and each other. D. nucleus, cytoplasm
A. mitosis
B. meiosis 96. Which molecule is synthesized during the
S phase?
C. both
A. carbohydrates
D. none of above
B. DNA
91. In which phase of the cell cycle does the
C. lipids
cell grow and prepare for DNA replication
A. G1 D. proteins
B. S 97. What is a secondary tumor?
C. G2 A. The original site of cancer growth, be-
D. M nign, not harmful
92. The process that occurs in the formation of B. The movement of cancerous cells form
sex cells by which the number of chromo- the original site
somes is reduced by half. C. The growth of tumors at new sites af-
A. meiosis ter metastasis, harmful
B. mitosis D. none of above

98. During which phase do chromosomes un- B. Cell membrane

coil, nuclear envolope forms, and spindle C. Centromere
fibers dissolve?

D. Chromatin
A. prophase
B. metaphase 104. While mitosis splits the contents of the
nucleus between the daughter cells, cytoki-
C. anaphase neses
D. telophase A. uses microfilaments to pinch the cell in
99. Which of the following is a feature of a two in animals
plant cell division that distinguishes it from B. forms a cell plate in plant cells
an animal cell dividing? C. divides the cytoplasm and organelles
A. a cell plate forms between the daughter cells.
B. a cleavage furrow forms D. all of these
C. cytokinesis does not occur 105. controls the way cells function.
D. four new cells are present A. DNA
100. Which cell cycle checkpoint verifies cell B. ribosome synthesis
size and checks the original DNA for dam- C. mitochondrial energy production
age?
D. enzyme activity
A. G1 checkpoint
106. Products formed by mitosis are,
B. S checkpoint
A. 4 genetically identical cells
C. G2 checkpoint
B. 2 genetically identical cells
D. M checkpoint
C. 4 genetically different cells
101. Which of the following is not a stage of
D. 2 genetically different cells
the Cell Cycle?
A. Interphase 107. After a cell goes through cell division
there are chromosomes in each new
B. Regeneration
daughter cells?
C. Mitosis
A. the same number
D. Cytokinesis
B. Identical to each other
102. cell division allows organism to grow, re- C. Identical to parents
pair damaged structures, and D. All of these are true
A. reproduce
108. Which phase of the cell cycle makes sure
B. produce energy that identical copies of parent cell DNA are
C. died made for the daughter cells?
D. give energy A. G1
103. The spindle fiber attaches to which of the B. G2

following: C. S
A. Nuclear membrane D. Mitosis

109. A contractile ring forms a cleavage fur- 115. Cells are most efficient, in other words,
row and the cell splits in two during they can most effectively bring in nutrients
cytokinesis and get rid of waste when they are
A. Animal cell A. Large
B. Plant cell B. small
C. Fungal cell C. active
D. Bacterial cell D. Specialized
NARAYAN CHANGDER
110. In what phase is DNA replicated? 116. Cytoplasmic division is also known as
A. G1 A. cytokinesis
B. S-Phase B. mitosis
C. G2 C. interphase
D. Cytokinesis D. cytotoxic
111. a picture of a cell’s chromosomes 117. What phase of interphase does DNA repli-
A. sister chromatids cate?
B. centromere A. G1
C. homologous chromosomes B. S
D. karyotype C. G2
D. G0
112. Homologous chromosomes separate dur-
ing, 118. In humans, mitosis is used for which of
A. anaphase 1 of meiosis the following:
B. anaphase 2 of meiosis A. Growth
C. anaphase of mitosis B. Repair
D. prophase C. Renewal
D. All of the above
113. During which phase of mitosis do the
chromosomes condense, become thick and 119. The cell cycle is a cycle a cell undergoes
are visible? with the purpose to
A. Prophase A. reproduce
B. Metaphase B. cycle
C. Anaphase C. circle
D. Telophase D. restart
114. If a cell is not properly growing during G1 120. What type of cells may never undergo mi-
of the cell cycle then may occur. tosis and make new cells?
A. cancer A. blood cells
B. uncontrolled cell growth B. skin cells
C. apoptosis C. nerve cells
D. all of these D. stomach cells

121. Type of reproduction that requires the B. lung

most time to happen. C. bone

A. Asexual D. liver
B. Sexual
127. After G2, the cell has
C. Bilingual
A. duplicated its DNA
D. Monopolistic
B. duplicated its organelles
122. Homologous chromosome pairs (tetrads)
C. divided
exist during which phase?
D. created two gametes
A. Prophase 1 of meiosis
B. Prophase 2 of meiosis 128. Another term for specialized cells is
C. Prophase of mitosis A. Evolution
D. All prophase stages in Mitosis and B. Adaptation
Meiosis C. Differentiation
123. Mutations can be caused by factors. D. Natural Selection
A. internal 129. During which phase of mitosis are chro-
B. external mosomes pulled apart at the centromere?
C. internal and external A. Prophase
D. extraterrestrial B. Metaphase
124. paired chromosomes with genes for the C. Anaphase
same traits (one inherited from mom and D. Telophase
the other from dad)
130. During the metaphase, the line up in
the middle, and each attaches to one of the
B. centromere spindle fibers.
C. homologous chromosomes A. nucleus
D. karyotype B. cell wall
125. What is metastasis? C. chromosomes
A. The original site of cancer growth, be- D. none of above
nign, not harmful
131. Colchicine is a chemical that freezes cells
B. The movement of cancerous cells form in metaphase by preventing chromosomes
the original site from moving to opposite sides of the cell.
C. The growth of tumors at new sites af- It is most likely affects which part of the
ter metastasis, harmful cell?
D. none of above A. chromosome structure
126. What type of cancer kills the most people B. spindle fibers
each year? C. cell membrane
A. pancreatic D. nuclear membrane

132. During the cell creates organelles and 137. At which sub-stage of Meiosis does cross-
begins metabolism, which is the first stage ing over take place
in interphase A. Pachytene
A. G1 B. Zygotene
B. S C. Diplotene
C. G2 D. Diakinesis
D. M 138. Mitosis is essential to life because it
NARAYAN CHANGDER
133. Abnormal mass of tissue that results A. contains 4 stages for gametes
when cells divide more than they should B. maintains genetic continuity
or do not die when they should. C. controls cell functions
A. polyp D. provides energy for the cells
B. tumor 139. What is a primary tumor?
C. melanin A. The original site of cancer growth, be-
D. biopsy nign, not harmful
B. The movement of cancerous cells form
134. During which phase do cells spend most the original site
of their lives?
C. The growth of tumors after metastasis,
A. mitosis harmful
B. interphase D. none of above
C. anaphase 140. Which of the following is NOT a reason
D. prophase for mitosis in humans.
A. Growth
135. Give the correct sequence of apoptosis:1.
B. Recovering from injuries
Nucleus begins to break2. Nucleus conden-
sation and formation of bleb3. Phagocyto- C. Replacement of dead cells
sis of apoptotic bodies. D. Reproducing
A. 1, 2, 3 141. During which phase do sister chromatids
B. 2, 3, 1 separate and move to opposite poles?
C. 3, 2, 1 A. prophase
D. 2, 1, 3 B. metaphase
C. anaphase
136. In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell DNA
D. telophase
is copied.
A. G1 142. If a mutation occurs in an expressed gene,
it will most directly affect the structure of
B. S a cell’s
C. G2 A. ATP
D. mitosis/cytokinesis B. proteins

C. energy source 148. While in the womb, the webbed fingers

D. membrane of the embryo undergo programmed cell
death, also known as

143. Any change in the sequence of DNA is A. apoptosis
A. transgenic shift B. cytokinesis
B. Single Genotype C. carcinogen
C. Monohybrid Trait D. stem cells
D. Mutation
149. In order to enter the cell cycle a cell must
144. In the G2 stage of cell division, . be stimulated from outside. What type of
A. the cell prepares all cellular structures molecule provides this stimulation?
for mitosis A. Cyclins
B. the cell proof-reads the DNA. B. Cyclin-dependent kinases
C. the cell makes sure it still has enough C. growth factors
nutrients for the next stages of cell divi- D. Polymerases
sion.
D. all of the above 150. When DNA makes a copy of itself.
A. Replication
145. Which of the following is a good reason
for why tobacco smoke is considered a car- B. Copying
cinogen? C. Repeating
A. It causes mutations leading to cancer. D. Daughter Cells
151. Cancer is the breakdown of what normal
B. It causes mutations leading to apopto- body process?
sis.
A. Internal respiration
C. It causes mutations leading to inhibi-
tion of cell division. B. External respiration
D. none of above C. Cell division
D. Cellular respiration
146. Name the structure that forms at the end
of telophase in a plant cell 152. Where is the female gamete produced?
A. Cell wall A. egg
B. Cleavage Furrow B. ovary
C. Cell Plate C. sperm
D. Spindle fibers D. testes
147. Name the growth phase of the cell cycle 153. At the end of MITOSIS, you have
for both Mitosis and Meiosis. cells
A. metaphase A. identical
B. telophase B. different
C. interphase C. identical twins
D. anaophase D. variety

154. How many chromosomes in a normal hu- C. Both

man sex cell? D. none of above
A. 46
160. The surface area-to-volume ratio of a cell
B. 23 affects its ability to
C. 92 A. obtain necessary resources and elimi-
D. 2 nate waste product
B. exchange chemicals and energy with
155. A tumor that is only in the area where it
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the environment
began
C. make needed proteins
A. freckle
D. A and B
B. metastasis
161. Martha’s colon cancer has NOT spread.
C. malignant tumor
When abnormal cells are only found in the
D. benign tumor tissue of origin, this refers to:
156. True or false-living things grow by each A. dysplasia
individual cell growing in size B. hyperplasia
A. True C. in situ
B. False D. invasiveness
C. Neither 162. Metastasis is
D. none of above A. the spread of cancer from one part of
the body to another.
157. What is the term for using drugs to treat
cancer? B. the growth of tumors in the lungs
A. Surgery C. cancer of the blood cells
B. Radiation D. cancer that is found in connective tis-
sues
C. Chemotherapy
163. Which type of reproduction takes the
D. Hormonal treatments
shortest amount of time?
158. During what phase of the cell cycle does A. Asexual
the cell divide the copied DNA into two sep-
B. Sexual
arate copies?
C. Monopolistic
A. Cytokinesis
D. Bilingual
B. Mitosis phase
164. The chromatin fibers become more tightly
C. S phase
coiled, condensing into discrete chromo-
D. G2 phase somes observable with a light microscope.
What phase is this?
159. Tell whether the given event in cell divi-
sion happens during Mitosis only, Meiosis A. Interphase
only, or Both.Formation of gametes B. Anaphase
A. Mitosis C. Prophase
B. Meiosis D. Cytokinesis

165. The structure of coiled DNA that forms in 171. During which phase is DNA replicated?
the cells nucleus prior to mitosis is
A. M

A. centromere
B. G1
B. centriole
C. chromosome C. S
D. chromatid D. G2
166. The process by which a nucleus divides to
form two identical nuclei is known as
cells go through mitosis?
A. Cell division
A. Developement
B. Cytokinesis
C. Mitosis B. Growth
D. Cancer C. Reproduction
167. Cytokinesis occurs at the same time as or D. Repair

immediately following
A. telophase 173. Mutations that neither help nor hurt or-
ganisms are known as
B. anaphase
A. Beneficial
C. prophase
D. metaphase B. Harmful
168. The jelly like substance inside a cell refers C. Neutral

to the: D. None of these
A. chromosome
B. cytoplasm 174. If a normal body cell in a butterfly con-
tains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg
C. ribosome
would contain how many chromosomes?
D. lysosome
A. 3
169. A cell with a defective p53 gene is likely
to B. 6
A. Divide normally C. 12
B. Stop dividing D. 24
C. Combat tumors
D. Accumulate chromosomal damage 175. Cells who do not proceed through the cell
cycle properly and divide uncontrollably
170. Which part of the cell cycle does NOT in- are indicative of:
clude a checkpoint
A. Nondisjunction
A. Synthesis
B. Down Syndrome
B. G1
C. G2 C. Cancer
D. Mitosis D. Parkinson’s Disease

176. A patient was just told that he has can- C. cell division repressor genes are not
cer. What medical term will be used by mutated
the doctor to document these positive test
D. apoptosis occurs all the time
results?
A. Prognosis 182. the 2 rod-like parts that make up a chro-
B. Mitosis mosome are called
C. Diagnosis A. chromatids
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Meiosis B. spindle fiber
177. cell growth and production of a new or- C. centriole
ganells and enzymes are characteristic of D. cell division
prophase
A. interphase 183. Each duplicated chromosome has two
B. metaphase each containing identical DNA molecules
C. energy A. daughter cells

D. cytokinesis B. sister chromatids
178. Bacteria reproduce asexually by a pro- C. homologous chromosomes

cess called D. none of above
A. replication
184. If the “2n “ number is 10, how many
B. meiosis
chromosomes do gametes have?
C. mitosis
A. 10
D. binary fission
B. 5
179. Excessive, uncontrolled cell division is
C. 20
one way of thinking about
A. meiosis D. 15
B. mitosis 185. Body cells are also called

C. cancer A. Somatic cells
D. proteins
B. Lymphocytes
180. At the end of mitosis, there are: C. Gametes
A. 2 cells, genetically identical
D. Leukocytes
B. 2 cells, genetically different
C. 4 cells, genetically identical 186. Which of the following does a chromo-
some contain?
D. 4 cells, genetically different
A. One long DNA molecule.
181. Cells can become cancerous when:
B. One long RNA molecule.
A. mutations accumulate in the genes
that control cell division C. One long sequence of amino acids.
B. no mutations occur D. A single gene for a protein.

187. the stage in the cell cycle where cells C. cytoplasmic division
spend only 10% of their time
D. none of above

A. interphase
B. mitoisis 193. The cell cyle is regulated by
C. meiosis A. cyclins
D. prophase B. CDK’s
188. The final stage of the cell cycle, in which C. hormones

the cell’s cytoplasm divides distributing D. CDK’s and cyclins
the organelles into each of the two new
daughter cells. 194. What type of cells will most likely result
A. interphase in uncontrolled cell growth due to muta-
tions in your genes?
B. mitosis
A. bone cells
C. anaphase
B. cardiac cells
D. cytokinesis
C. cancer cells
189. If mitosis occurred without cytokinesis,
the outcome would be D. breast cells
A. one cell without a nuclei 195. Cell differentiation is when:
B. one cell with 2 identical nuclei
A. cells undergo mitosis
C. 2 cells without a nuclei
B. cells become specialized (into skin
D. 2 cells, each with one nuclei cells, nerve cells, etc.)
190. Cells spend most of their time in of C. cells undergo apoptosis
the cell cycle
D. cells become cancerous
A. cytokinesis
B. cell division 196. What are the two major periods of the
cell cyle?
C. mitosis
A. Interphase & Prophase
D. interphase
B. Cell-Division & Cytokinesis
191. DNAP adds free nucleotides to
the ends of primers C. Interphase & Cell-Division
A. DNA, 3’ D. Interphase & Cell-Happiness

B. DNA, 5’ 197. Cells divide when tissues and organs are
C. RNA, 3’
D. RNA, 5’ A. copied
192. What is the purpose of interphase? B. injured

A. growth and metabolism C. divided
B. nucleic division D. replaced

198. Two daughter nuclei begin to form. What 204. If the message inhibiting cell division is
phase is this? blocked, what will most likely result?
A. Telophase A. uncontrolled cell division
B. Anaphase B. decreased cell division
C. Prophase
C. apoptosis
D. Metaphase
D. nothing
199. What is the order of Mitosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. MAPT 205. Tell whether the given event in cell divi-
sion happens during Mitosis only, Meiosis
B. PMAT
only, or Both.Formation of two daughter
C. TAMP cells
D. AMPT A. Mitosis
200. Which lifestyle choice is the best way to B. Meiosis
prevent most forms of skin cancer?
C. Both
A. not smoking
D. none of above
B. avoiding sun exposure during peak
hours
206. Put the following in order:(Growth Phase
C. eating healthy and nutritious foods 2 or G2, Growth Phase 1 or G1, Mitosis,
D. exercising regularly S-Phase, Cytokinesis
201. Which phase of the cell cycle does the A. G1, G2, S, Mitosis, cytokinesis
number of cells increase? B. G1, S, G2, Mitosis, cytokinesis
A. G1 C. G1, G2, S, cytokinesis, mitosis
B. S
D. G1, S, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis
C. G2
D. Mitosis 207. What structure assists in the cell division
of plant cells?
202. the assembly of spindle microtubules
starts at the A. cell wall
A. centrosome B. chloroplast
B. centromere C. central vacuole
C. centrioles D. cell plate
D. cytokinesis
208. The process of creating daughter cells is
203. the cell increases in size during which called
phase of the cell cycle?
A. meiosis
A. G1
B. S B. apoptosis
C. G2 C. mutation
D. M D. mitosis

209. What phase of the cell cycle where the D. none of above
cell continuously grow and prepare for cell
division by producing proteins that is im- 214. Replicated chromosomes remain attached

portant for chromosome and mitotic spin- to each other at a region called the
dle formation?
A. centriole
A. G0 phase
B. centromere
B. G1 phase
C. G2 phase C. centerpart
D. Synthesis phase D. centralpark
210. A cell that has 68 chromosomes under- 215. Which of the following is carcinogenic?
goes mitosis. How many chromosomes
does each of the 2 daughter cells have? A. hotdogs
A. 68 B. pineapple
B. 136 C. rice
C. 34 D. eggs
D. 23
216. Uncontrolled cell division is a characteris-
211. Which of the following correctly de-
tic of
scribes angiogenesis?
A. Growth of blood vessels that provides A. cancer
a tumor with nutrients and oxygen B. meiosis
B. Movement of cancer cells through the C. budding
body inducing the production of more red
blood cells. D. sporulation
C. The orderly destruction of a “bad” cell
217. The end of the cell cycle results in the final
division of the cytoplasm. This is called
D. none of above
A. Cytokinesis
212. What types of cell have their DNA en-
closed in a nucleus? B. Telophase I
A. Prokaryotic C. Telophase II
B. Eukaryotic D. None of these
C. Bacterial Cells
218. This is a special phase where the cell is
D. All Cells
considered to be in resting state (from di-
213. Why would a cell not move on at the M vision).
checkpoint? A. G0 phase
A. It has not grown large enough
B. G1 phase
B. It’s DNA did not replicate properly
C. G2 phase
C. The spindle fibers are not properly at-
tached to the centromere D. Synthesis phase

219. During interphase, 224. Myc is an example of a(n)

A. the cell divides into 2 unique daughter A. DNA repair gene
cells. B. proto-oncogene
B. the cell’s chromosomes are duplicated. C. apoptotic gene
D. metabolic gene
C. the cell’s chromosomes condense into
chromatids. 225. What phase of the cell cycle does the size
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of the cell increase:
D. the cell divides into 2 identical daugh-
ter cells. A. G1
B. S
220. Which structure is responsible for the
movement of chromosome during nuclear C. G2
division? D. M
A. centriole 226. Cancer affects
B. chromatin A. Unicellular organisms
C. kinetochore B. Multicellular organisms
D. spindle fibers C. Most unicellular organisms
D. Humans only
221. What is an oncogene?
A. A mutated gene that promotes uncon- 227. The process in which a normal cell be-
trolled cell division comes a cancer cell is called
B. A gene that normally suppresses the A. metastasis
cell cycle B. cytokinesis
C. A gene that regulates mitosis C. angiogenesis
D. none of above D. carcinogenesis
222. Which term refers to the gene recombina- 228. Which term below describes a “sponta-
tion that happens during prophase I? neous change in a gene?”
A. crossing-over A. mutation
B. cytokinesis B. malignant
C. metastasize
C. cell plate
D. carcinogen
D. cleavage furrow
229. Normal cells spend most of their time in
223. a change in a gene or chromosome what state?
A. mutation A. Interphase
B. fertilization B. Mitosis
C. heterozygous C. Cytokinesis
D. homozygous D. Apoptosis

230. the number of people per 100, 00 that C. If the DNA is damaged
develop cancer each year is the; D. All of the Above

A. incidence rate
236. In which of the following does DNA repli-
B. mortality rate cation NOT occur
C. survival rate A. Interphase of mitosis
D. diagnosis rate B. Interphase 1
231. In what phase of the cell cycle does the C. Interphase 2
DNA replicate? D. None of the above
A. G1 237. In humans, the 4 daughter cells of meio-
B. S sis contain
C. G2 A. 46 chromosomes
D. Mitosis B. 23 chromosomes
C. 92 chromosomes
232. For what reason or reasons must cells of
an organism replicate? D. No chromosomes
A. Multicellular organism growth. 238. The Gardisil vaccine has been advertised
to reduce the rates of cervical cancer; how-
B. Repair of damaged cells.
ever, this immunization works for males
C. Replacement of dying cells. and females alike against which viral in-
D. All of these are true. fection common among young adults?
A. Hepatitis B
233. Which approach would effectively and
noninvasively address most forms of can- B. mononucleosis
cer? C. HPV
A. early diagnosis D. herpes
B. early treatment 239. A tumor becomes invasive enough to
C. prevention impair the functions of one or more organs,
thus an individual with this type of tumor
D. surgical intervention
is thought to have cancer
234. In which phase of mitosis do chromo- A. benign
somes become visible?
B. malignant
A. prophase C. all of the above
B. interphase D. none of above
C. metaphase
240. Later in cell division, the two sister chro-
D. telophase matids of each duplicated chromosome sep-
arate and move into two new
235. What are some checkpoints that can pre-
vent cell division? A. nuclei
A. If the cell is short of nutrients B. cytoplasms
B. If the DNA within the nucleus has not C. they don’t move
been replicated D. none of above

241. The uncontrolled division of cells will re- 247. consists of G1, S, and G2 stages
sult to A. Interphase
A. psoriasis B. Metaphase
B. cancer C. Telophase
C. diabetes D. Cytokenesis
D. heart attack
248. The fertilized egg is termed a/an
NARAYAN CHANGDER
242. A mammogram is a A. gamete
A. x-ray of breast tissue B. allele
B. a surgery to remove tumors C. homolog
C. removal of great tissue D. zygote
D. machine that creates images
249. How many parents are needed for asex-
243. Certain tasks of cells ual reproduction?
A. Organ System A. zero
B. Structure B. one
C. Specialization C. two
D. Biotic D. twelve
244. Beth was diagnosed with breast cancer 250. What is the jellylike portion of the inside
that has spread to her bone? Her cancer of a cell called?
is: A. genes
A. metastatic B. membrane
B. benign C. cytoplasm
C. malignant D. nosocomial
D. nosocomial
251. One difference between cell division in
245. Meiosis is the key process in the produc- plant cells and in animal cells is that plant
tion of cells have
A. body cells A. centrioles
B. RNA B. centromeres
C. white blood cells C. a cell plate
D. gametes D. chromatin
246. What stage in cell cycle that allows an ex- 252. This is the longest part of a cells life cycle
act copy of the DNA to be synthesized? and includes the G1, S and G2 phases.
A. G0 phase A. Metaphase
B. G1 phase B. Prophase
C. G2 phase C. Cytokinesis
D. Synthesis phase D. Interphase

253. Henrietta Lacks died from C. CAT scan

A. lung cancer. D. EKG

B. tuberculosis.
259. A newly replicated chromosome consists
C. cervical cancer. of two identical “ “ chromatids
D. research performed by a hospital.
A. sister
254. In which stage of mitosis do nucleolus and B. brother
nuclear envelope disappear and turn into
fragments? C. cousin
A. anaphase D. son
B. metaphase 260. Cancer treatments include
C. prophase A. Chemotherapy
D. telophase
B. Radiation
255. Research has shown that uncontrolled C. Surgery
cell growth and development can lead to
which of these diseases? D. All of the above
A. AIDS 261. Chromatid pairs line up in the middle of
B. dyslexia the cell.
C. cancer A. Metaphase
D. Down Syndrome B. Telophase
256. What process is necessary for the inher- C. Anaphase
ited traits of an organism to be passed D. Interphase
along by sexual reproduction?
A. meiosis 262. The phase during mitosis where chromo-
B. mutation somes line up in the middle of the cell is
C. mitosis
A. prophase
D. fission
B. anaphase
257. The cell that undergoes mitosis is often
C. metaphase
called the cell.
A. parent D. telophase
B. daughter 263. The American Cancer Society has stated
C. son that one-third of all cancers are caused
by:
D. mother
A. air pollution
258. Using sound waves to create images of
areas within the body. B. pesticide exposure
A. ultrasound C. smoking
B. MRI D. UV rays

264. Identify which organism uses binary fis- C. Metaphase

sion? D. Cytokinesis
A. star fish
270. What is cell differentiation?
B. hydra
A. The process where unspecialized cells
C. bacteria become different in structure and func-
D. aspen tree tion.
B. When DNA controls the cell cycle.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
265. The original DNA is:A G A G A G A
GWhich answer choices shows ONE muta- C. The ability of cells to make more cells.
tion in the original DNA?
A. A G T G A G A G D. The ability of cells to maintain home-
B. A G A G T G C G ostasis.
C. A G A G A G A G 271. The process of mitosis and cytokinesis
D. A G A G C C C C produces two identical:
A. daughter cells
266. Sperm cells are
B. strands
A. haploid
C. chromosomes
B. diploid
D. chromatids
C. triploid
D. tetraploid 272. Primary CNS lymphoma affects the
A. brain and spinal cord
267. In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell pre-
pares for cell division. B. bones and bone marrow
A. G1 C. body’s immune system
B. S D. the skin and lining of the organs
C. G2 273. Cell growth during G1 and G2 ensures
D. mitosis/cytokinesis cells are after division
A. Half the size
268. In a cell having a diploid number of
10, how many chromatids are present at B. The correct size
metaphase of mitosis? C. Double the size
A. 10 D. none of above
B. 5
274. It is the the first stage of the cell cycle
C. 20 during which the cell matures and prepares
D. 2 to divide and copies its DNA.
269. In what stage does the cytoplasm di- A. interphase

vide? B. prophase
A. Interphase C. metaphase
B. Prophase D. anaphase

275. Each body cell in an erthworm contains C. PDGF

36 chromosomes. HOw many chromo-
D. p53
somes are in each of its gametes?

A. 54 281. Which molecules act as gatekeepers for
B. 36 each checkpoint of the cell cycle?
C. 72 A. p53 gene
D. 18 B. cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases
276. As a cell increases in size, the surface C. thyroid hormones

area to volume ratio D. none of above
A. increases
282. Which phase does this describe:Two iden-
B. decreases tical sets of chromosomes reach the poles,
C. stays the same the spindle breaks down, and the nucleus
D. none of above and nucleolus reappear.
A. prophase
277. What type of cells are gametes?
B. metaphase
A. sex cells
C. anaphase
B. body cells
C. cancer cells D. telophase
D. stem cells 283. The structure that holds together sister

chromatids is called
278. What word refers to a non cancerous tu-
mor? A. centriole
A. metastatic B. centromere
B. benign C. spindle fibers
C. malignant D. chromosome
D. in situ
284. DNA replicates during,
279. Which type of tumors remain clustered
and can be removed? A. the S phase of the cell cycle
A. malignant B. prophase
B. benign C. metaphase
C. black D. telophase
D. carcinogens
285. The activity of helicase exposes
280. Halts cell division if it detects damaged A. Template parent strands
DNA; can either fix, force G0, or apopto-
sis. B. Complementary daughter strands
A. RAS C. Primers
B. MPF D. RNA polymerase

286. What do cells divide C. The area that has the most cancer
A. to allow for diffusion of nutrients and D. The area that has the least cancer
waste
292. Chromatin is best defined as:
B. to produce new cells during an organ-
ism’s growth A. DNA bound to histones
C. to replace damaged cells B. DNA bound to centrosomes
D. all of the above C. Duplicated DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
287. In which phase one can observe the chro- D. Sister chromatids
mosomes aligned in the equatorial line? 293. In which stage are cells most susceptible
A. Prophase to DNA mutations?
B. Metaphase A. G1
C. Anaphase B. S
D. Telophase C. G2
288. If an animal has 10 chromosomes in its D. G0
skin cells, how many chromosomes will be
found in its gametes? 294. Non-cancerous tumors are called Can-
cerous tumors are called
A. 20
A. metastatic ; malignant
B. 10
B. malignant ; benign
C. 5
C. benign ; malignant
D. 15
D. benign ; metastatic
289. Which is NOT true of the phases of the
cell cycle? 295. If the S-phase was eliminated from the
cell cycle, the daughter cell produced by the
A. During G1 phase, the organelles dou-
cell cycle would-
ble.
B. During G2 phase, growth occurs. A. have half the genetic material found in
the parental cell
C. During S phase, the DNA is replicated
B. be too large
D. During M phase, mitosis occurs.
C. be genetically identical to the parent
290. it would take divisions for one origi- cell
nal cell to produce 128 new cells D. synthesize the missing genetic mate-
A. ten rial on their own
B. two
296. What is the surface area to volume ratio
C. seven of a cube that is 2mm x2mm x 2mm
D. five A. 2:1
291. How does cancer begin? B. 3:1
A. mutated DNA C. 4:1
B. a tumor D. 8:1

297. Egg cells are , meaning they only have 302. Cytokinesis usually occurs after mitosis.
half of the normal chromosome count. If a cell completed mitosis but not cytoki-
nesis, what would be the result?

A. diploid
A. a cell with one nucleus
B. haploid
B. a cell with one really large nucleus
C. triploid
C. a cell with two nuclei
D. tetraploid
D. none of these are correct
298. Humans have 46 chromosomes. After 303. A female is and a male is
mitosis and cytokinesis, how many chro-
A. XX, XY
matids does each daughter cell have?
B. XY, XX
A. 23
C. XX, XXY
B. 46
D. X, Y
C. 92
304. The production of four haploid gametes
D. Impossible to know from one mother cell is completed during
299. Throughout the cell cycle, there are check- A. anaphase meiosis I
points that B. telophase meiosis I
A. inspect the cells to make sure they are C. prophase meiosis II
developing normally D. telophase meiosis II
B. send the cells to resting states 305. During mitosis, a parent cell with four
C. check on the cells to make sure they chromosomes will produce two daughter
are there cells, each with
D. inspect the cells for accuracy A. sixteen chromosomes
B. eight chromosomes
300. What is the surface area to volume ratio
C. two chromosomes
of a cubic cell with each side 2cm?
D. four chromosomes
A. 12:1
306. What is being replicated (copied) during
B. 54:27
interphase?
C. 3:1 A. DNA
D. 2:1 B. mitochondria
301. A polyploid cell C. glucose

D. lysosomes
A. has 2 sets of chromosomes
B. has more than two sets of chromo- 307. The definition of a tumor is
somes A. a cancerous growth
C. has half the number of original chromo- B. an abnormal growth of tissue
somes C. a spreading of cancerous tissue
D. cannot undergo meiosis D. a mole or other skin blemish

308. Cell division in a plant cell differs from an 314. Which president signed the National Can-
animal cell in that plant cells cer Act of 1971 and declared “ war on can-
A. form a spindle cer”?
B. form a cell plate A. Clinton
C. have centrioles B. Jefferson

C. Nixon
D. have a cell membrane
D. Reagan
NARAYAN CHANGDER
309. Proteins that stimulate cell division are
called what? 315. The process by which the cytoplasm of a
eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells
A. cancer cells
is called
B. growth factors
A. mitosis
C. apoptosis B. cytokinesis
D. histones C. binary fission
310. Which of these cells would be produced D. telophase
through meiosis?
316. In both mitosis and meiosis, sister chro-
A. skin cells matids separate during anaphase, but
B. liver cells there are haploid nuclei produced by
meiosis compared to diploid nuclei by
C. brain cells
mitosis.
D. sperm cells
A. 6, 3
311. Some examples of carcinogens are; B. 4, 2
A. car accidents and traffic stress C. 2, 4
B. organic and steamed foods D. 3, 6
C. cholesterol and fat 317. What types of cells undergo mitosis of-
D. UV light, radium and coal tar ten?
312. What do stem cells do? A. hair
A. Responsible for replication. B. skin

C. muscles
B. They lay dormant until they are needed
to replicate and regrow cells. D. brain
C. Make blood. 318. cytokinesis usually but not always fol-
D. Kill germs. lows mitosis. if a cell completed mitosis
but not cytokinesis, the result would be a
313. Offspring are genetically and physically cell with
identical or clone like.
A. two nuclei
A. Sexual B. a single large nucleus
B. Asexual C. high concentration of actin and myosin
C. Both
D. none of above D. two abnormally small nuclei

319. Which disease causes cancer of blood C. triggers DNA replication

cells? D. promotes spindle formation at the end

A. Sickle Celled Anemia of G2
B. Diabetes 325. The resulting cells in meiosis and mitosis
C. Leukemia are called the cells.
D. Insomnia A. daughter
B. sons
320. The stage of mitosis where the chro-
matids move away from each other or sep- C. mother
arate is D. father
A. prophase 326. Why do cells divide?
B. anaphase A. All of the above
C. telophase B. To repair
D. metaphase C. To replace
321. Sister chromatids are separated at the D. To copy and divide
during anaphase 327. Carcinogens can be described as;
A. Centromere A. cancer of the skin cells
B. Telomere B. things that treat cancer
C. Centrosome C. Things that cause cancer
D. Chromatin D. things that protect from cancer
322. Before a cell can divide, what must hap- 328. In animal cells, what happens before the
pen? cell splits in two?
A. Nothing, it is always ready to divide A. cell membrane forms
B. The number of chromosomes must be B. cell plate forms
cut in half C. cleavage furrow
C. The DNA must be copied D. none of above
D. The number of chromosomes must
329. Which of the following is the accurate se-
triple.
quence of phases in Interphase?
323. What does cancer lead to? A. Mitosis-cytokinesis-S phase-Go phase
A. Tumor B. G1-G2-S
B. virus C. G1-S-G2
C. bacteria D. S-G1-G2
D. none of above 330. Mitosis allows cells to
324. Cyclin D A. Divide their nucleus
A. triggers entry into G1 B. Replicate their nucleus
B. prepares DNA for replication in S- C. Divide their cytoplasm
phase D. Replicate their cytoplasm

331. No genetic variation 337. Requires gametes such as a sperm and an

A. Sexual egg.
A. Sexual
B. Asexual
B. Asexual
C. Both
C. Both
D. none of above
D. none of above
332. Before cell division takes place, DNA has
338. Damage that causes a change in DNA is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
to make an exact copy of itself. This is
called called
A. duplication A. Anaphase
B. Replication
B. fertilization
C. a protein
C. hybridization
D. a mutation
D. replication
339. Which of these cells divides the least
333. meoisis results in the production of quickly?
A. 2 haploid cells A. Liver cell
B. 2 diploid cells B. Skin cell
C. 4 haploid cells C. Blood cell
D. 4 diploid cells D. none of above
334. And finally, cancer can also be caused 340. Which part of mitosis does this happen?
from The individual chromosomes move to oppo-
site sides of the cell.
A. carcinogenic chemicals
A. telophase
B. Too much sugar
B. anaphase
C. Drinking too much coffee
C. metaphase
D. germs from someone who has cancer
D. prophase
335. The stage where chromosomes condese
and the nucleus is visible 341. p53 is a very important
A. tumor suppressor gene
A. Prophase
B. proto onco gene
B. metaphase
C. oncogene
C. anaphase
D. none of above
D. Telephase
342. What type of cells have not begun to dif-
336. What is the purpose of cytokinesis? ferentiate into specialized cells?
A. cell metabolism and growth A. gametes
B. nucleic division B. stem cells
C. cytoplasmic division C. somatic cells
D. none of above D. neurons

343. If cells in the process of dividing are sub- C. Both

jected to colchicine, a chemical that inhibits D. none of above
the formation of spindle fibres, at which

stage will mitosis end? 349. Who is your FAVORITE BIOLOGY
A. Prophase TEACHER?
B. Metaphase A. Mrs. Smith OF COURSE!!!
C. Anaphase B. Tiger King
D. Telophase C. President Trump
344. Cancer cells that spread throughout the D. Senator BIden

body. 350. This is a lump of unregulated tissue in the
A. benign body
B. mutagen A. Caricnoma
C. malignant B. Sarcoma
D. tumors C. Tumor
345. Right after a bone breaks, cells at the D. Cyst
edge of the injury
351. In which stage of the cell cycle are cells
A. Stop dividing most susceptible (likely to experience) to
B. Begin to divide rapidly mutations?
C. Form a thin layer over the edge of the A. G1
injury B. S
D. Develop a defect in a gene called p53
C. G2
346. Which of the following is a possible cause D. G0
of cancer?
352. Which family of proteins regulates the
A. Certain chemical exposure
timing of the cell cycle in eukaryotes?
B. Radiation exposure
A. Chromatids
C. Certain viral exposure
B. DNA and RNA
D. All are possible causes of cancer
C. Cyclins
347. Mitosis differs in plant cells compared to D. Chromosomes
animal cells in that plant cells form
A. a spindle 353. If you started with 68 chromosomes in
the nucleus of an animal cell and it went
B. cell plate
through meiosis, how many chromosomes
C. cell membrane would each gamete contain?
D. centromeres A. 68
348. Meiosis B. 34
A. Sexual C. 136
B. Asexual D. 30

354. An advantage of sexual reproduction 359. DNA replication is needed for

over asexual reproduction is that sexual A. mitosis only
reproduction
B. meiosis
A. takes less time
C. mitosis & meiosis
B. requires more time
D. either mitosis or meiosis depending on
C. provides genetic diversity the type of cell.
D. produces identical offspring 360. During which phase of the cell cycle does
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the cell spend the most time?
355. A cell with a defective p53 gene is likely
to A. Mitosis
A. stop responding to growth regulators B. Cytokinesis

C. Interphase
B. stop dividing to produce daughter cells
D. none of above
C. generate hormones that combat tu- 361. Tell whether the given event in cell divi-
mors sion happens during Mitosis only, Meiosis
D. produce cells without a defective p53 only, or Both.Production of somatic cells
gene A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis
356. During which stage of cell division do the
chromosomes shorten, condense, and be- C. Both
come visible? D. none of above
A. Interphase 362. tumors tend to be less dangerous
B. Prophase than tumors.
C. Metaphase A. malignant; benign
D. Anaphase B. benign; malignant

C. metastatic; benign
357. “Covid-19” is D. none of these
A. The name of Mrs. Smith’s 1st child
363. During which part of the cell cycle does
B. The name of a fancy perfume DNA replication occur?
C. The name of a virus A. G1
D. The name of your dog B. S
C. G2
358. The replication of DNA is being affected
in a cell, which phase is responsible for this D. M
change? 364. cancer cells
A. G1 A. divide too frequently
B. S phase B. divide too quickly
C. G2 C. ignore checkpoints
D. Mitosis D. all of the above

365. What is the female gamete? 371. Methylene blue should be used to stain
A. sperm which part of the cell?

B. ovary A. Elodea
C. teste B. Nucleus
D. egg C. Cytoplasm
366. DNA replication occurs during D. Skin

A. interphase 372. Which of the following is NOT an exter-
B. anaphase nal factor that will promote cell growth
C. metaphase A. An increase in growth hormone
D. telophase B. A decrease in growth hormone
367. Mutations that help an organism survive C. Death of nearby cells
are known as D. Decrease in surface area to volume ra-
A. Beneficial tio
B. Neutral
373. Skin, hair and nails are a product of:
C. Harmful
A. Meiosis
D. None of These
B. Mitosis
368. Which stage of the cell cycle do cells
spend the most time? C. Both
A. Cytokinesis D. none of above

B. Mitosis 374. Which type of reproduction causes only
C. Interphase some organisms to die when other organ-
D. Prophase isms of the same species get a disease?
A. asexual
369. In telophase of mitosis the mitotic spindle
disaapears and the nuclear envelope reap- B. sexual
pear. This is opposite of what happens in C. monopolistic
A. prophase D. bilingual
B. metaphase
C. interphase 375. Nutrients to the tumor cells becomes
insufficient when it is actively growing.
D. s-phase What process take place when there is a
growth of new blood vessels to support
370. Which is not a characteristic of a cancer-
the tumor cells.
ous cells.
A. Cancer cells lacks differentiation A. metastasis
B. Cancer cells have abnormal nuclei B. carcinogenesis

C. Cancer cells undergoes apoptosis C. proto-oncogenesis
D. Cancer cell undergo metastasis D. angiogenesis

376. The cancer cells are still in the place C. pneumonia

where they started and have not spread
D. AIDS
at all.
A. stage 0 381. Name the event wherein the paternal and
B. stage 1 maternal chromosomes change their mate-
rial with each other in cell division
C. stage 2 and 3
A. Crossing over
D. stage 4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Synapsis
377. Which of the following phrases best de-
scribes cancer? C. Bivalent Formation
A. absence of cyclins in the DNA D. Dyad formation

B. multiple gene mutations on a chromo- 382. What role does the mitotic spindle (spin-
some of DNA dle fibers) play in cell division?
C. uncontrolled cell growth caused by mu- A. It breaks down the nuclear membrane
tations in genes that control the cell cycle
B. It replicates DNA
D. presence of genetic defects caused by
hereditary disorders C. It separates the chromosomes
378. What is a good way to prevent skin can- D. it divides the cell
cer?
383. Sperm, egg, pollen
A. not smoking
A. n
B. Avoiding sun exposure
B. that
C. not drinking
D. excercise C. Somatic cells
D. Diploid
379. What is cell specialization or differentia-
tion? 384. A diagnostic procedure that involves re-
A. The process where unspecialized cells moving a tissue sample from a patient.
become different in structure and func- A. biopsy
tion.
B. lipotripsy
B. When DNA controls the cell cycle.
C. pathogenesis
C. The ability of cells to make more cells.
D. oncology
D. The ability of cells to maintain home-
385. Stage in which the cell’s nuclear material
ostasis.
divides and separates
380. this disease can be the result of genetic A. G1
changes and can develop over long periods
of time B. Synthesis
A. als C. G2
B. cancer D. Mitosis

386. A benign tumor differs from a malignant A. G1 phase, DNA replication

tumor in that a benign tumor B. G2 phase, preparation for mitosis

A. is cancerous C. S phase, cell division
B. spreads from the original site
D. M phase, cell growth
C. does not metastasize and spread
392. If a cancerous tumor has not spread and
D. typically causes health problems
is only found in the place of origin it could
387. During Mitosis, a parent cell that has be referred to as:
46 chromosomes will produce 2 daughter A. Metastatic
cells, each containing chromosomes
B. Invasive
A. 23
C. In situ
B. 46
D. Benign
C. 92
D. 22 393. Which of the following animal cells has
already undergone meiotic cell division?
388. An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called A. Sperm cell
a
B. Muscle cell
A. tumor
C. Nerve cell
B. cyst
D. Red blood cell
C. lesion
D. polyp 394. What phase are cells in the longest?
A. Interphase
sion happens during Mitosis only, Meiosis B. Metaphase
only, or Both.Separation of chromatids C. Anaphase
A. Mitosis D. Telophase
B. Meiosis
395. What portion of the cell cycle involves the
C. Both actual dividing?
D. none of above A. interphase
390. When examining actively dividing cells B. mitosis
under a microscope, in which stage will
C. Gap 1
most of the cells be in?
D. Gap 2
A. Prophase
B. Anaphase 396. A mutation is defined as:
C. Telophase A. A change in the cell’s structure
D. Interphase B. Anything that changes in an embryo
391. Which pair includes a phase of the cell cy- C. Any change in the physical features of
cle and a cellular process that occurs during a human
that phase? D. A change in the DNA sequence

397. What happens in Mitosis? C. 2

A. Removing old cells D. 20
B. Growing, Replicating DNA, cell func- 403. The stage where chromosomes condese,
tion pair up, and the nucleus starts to dissolve
C. Dividing & making new cells A. Prophase
D. Apoptosis B. metaphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
398. When a cell undergoes specialization or C. anaphase
differentiation, D. Telephase
A. it’s DNA changes.
404. Which phase of Mitosis does this happen?
B. it becomes more specialized depend- The centrioles move to opposite sides of
ing on which part of the DNA gets acti- the cell and stretch out the spindle fibers.
vated. This causes the chromosomes to line up sin-
C. it divides instantly, forming new cells gle file down the middle of the cell.
D. its DNA gets copied for cell division. A. prophase
B. anaphase
399. An example of an external regulator on
cell division is C. metaphase
A. Skin healing after a deep cut D. telophases
B. Cyclins 405. During this stage of cell division the cell
C. P53 gene copies the DNA
D. None of these A. G1
B. G2
400. Which is in sequence of the cell cycle.
C. S
A. C-M-G1-S
D. M
B. G1-S-G2-M
406. In human beings, mitosis is necessary
C. G1-G2-S-M
for:
D. M-S-G1-G2
A. growth and repair of tissues
401. The nucleus of cancer cell when compared B. formation of the gametes, or sex cells
to a normal cell is:
A. equivalent C. reproduction of another individual
B. smaller D. reducing the number of chromosomes
C. larger
407. Cells that have 2 sets of chromosomes
D. multifaceted are called:
402. How many cells would there be after five A. Haploid
divisions? B. Diploid
A. 10 C. Binary
B. 5 D. Gametes

408. Which of the following is not a way that C. Examples of Asexual Reproduction
genes for cell cycle regulatory proteins can D. Types of Tumors
be damaged?

A. cell crowding 414. We can see all 46 chromosomes during
metaphase, image them, and line them up
B. carcinogens to see how they compare. This image is
C. inherited mutations called a:
D. exposure to certain viruses A. microscope
409. Which of the following is a tumor sup- B. karyotype
pressor gene? C. person
A. MFAP2 which creates 1P3 D. cool picture bro
B. EV14 which creates p33
415. which event does not occur during
C. TP53 which creates p53 protein prophase in an animal cell?
D. none of above A. chromosome condense
410. the process in which the cell makes an ex- B. spindle begins to form
act copy of the DNA in its nucleus is C. chromosome replicate
A. centriole D. nuclear envelope disperses
B. energy
416. Describes a cell that has two sets of chro-
C. Replication mosomes, one from each parent
D. prophase A. diploid
411. During S phase, B. haploid
A. The cell is growing C. somatic
B. DNA is replicated D. body
C. chromosomes move to the opposite 417. Bacteria have developed resistance to an-
sides of the cell tibiotics. Because of this antibiotics don’t
D. the cell divides kill many bacteria caused illnesses.What
kind of mutation is this for the bacteria?
412. Which hallmark of cancer is mainly re-
A. Helpful
sponsible for all other cancer characteris-
tics B. Harmful
A. Genetic changes (mutations) C. Neutral
B. Angiogenesis D. none of above
C. Sustained cell growth 418. Where do sister chromatids attach for lin-
D. Resisting cell death (Apoptosis) ing up?
413. These are examples of:Surgery A. Centrioles

Chemotherapy Radiation B. centromeres
A. Treatments for Cancer C. chromosomes
B. Mutations D. nuclear envolope

419. Which of the following cell types is C. oncogene

formed by meiosis? D. tumor suppressor gene
A. muscle cells
425. produces cells identical to parents
B. sperm cells
A. mitosis
C. skin cells
B. meiosis
D. blood cells
C. both
420. Which of the following is NOT a charac-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
teristics of a cancer cell?
A. bigger nucleus 426. Which of the following is true regarding
checkpoints?
B. lack contact inhibition
A. Cyclin is made at a constant rate by cell
C. always stay in the same place in the
unless signaled otherwise
body & doesn’t invade
B. CDK is used up each time the cell di-
D. have unusual numbers of chromo-
vides
somes
C. MPF is a combination of cyclin and bi-
421. The phase of mitosis where by spindle cycles
fibers pull chromosomes to opposite ends
D. Cyclin is an enzyme
of the cell
A. prophase 427. In which stage are cells prepared for cell
division?
B. metaphase
A. cytokinesis
C. anaphase
B. interphase
D. telophase
C. karyokinesis
422. In what stage do sister chromatids move
D. s phase
apart?
A. Metaphase 428. Genetic factors such as are a frequent
cause of cancer.
B. Prophase
A. mitosis
C. Anaphase
B. the sun
D. Telophase
C. mutations
423. What are somatic cells
D. DNA
A. body cells
B. sex cells 429. If the diploid chromosome number of a
cloned plant is 12, the chromosome num-
C. cancer cells ber of the plant cell used to produce the
D. stem cells cloned plant is
424. A physical, chemical, or biological agent A. 3

that causes cancer is called a(n) B. 6
A. carcinogen C. 12
B. virus D. 24

430. A tumor is considered if it will spread 435. During which stage of cell division is the
and form tumors in other areas of the cytoplasm divided resulting in 2 identical
body. cells?

A. benign A. Interphase
B. malignant B. Anaphase
C. malformed C. Telophase
D. Cytokinesis
D. dangerous
436. Which of the following describes a pur-
431. What is the network of fibers extending pose for mitosis?
from the centrioles-made of microtubules
to which chromatids attach and are pulled A. For asexual reproduction
apart? B. For growth and repair.
A. centrioles C. To prevent the cell from becoming too
large.
B. spindle
C. chromatids
D. nucleolus 437. What is the main difference between can-
cer cells and normal cells?
432. The term used to describe the spread of A. normal cells and cancer cells both
cancer to other areas of the body is grow slowly
A. leukemia B. cancer cells grow at a faster rate than
normal cells
B. tumor
C. normal cells grow at a faster rate than
C. metastasis cancer cells
D. carcinoma D. cancer cells and normal cells both
grow rapidly
433. The two main stages of cell division are
called 438. The process by which cells become spe-
A. mitosis and interphase cialized in order to perform different func-
tions is called:
B. synthesis and cytokinesis
A. cell differentiation
C. the M phase and the S phase B. gene expression
D. mitosis and cytokinesis C. cellular reproduction
434. An ordered sequence of events in the life D. attachment
of a cell. Creates two identical daughter
439. which of the following is found only in
cells.
eukaryotic cells?
A. interphase A. cell membrane
B. mitosis B. cytoplasm
C. chromatin C. nucleus
D. cell cycle D. DNA

440. Why is apoptosis required? C. Skin

A. Glycolysis D. All of the above
B. Cell division:Meiosis and mitosis 446. Many of the events of mitosis depend on
C. Growth and elimination of threats such mitotic spindle fibers which begin to form
as viruses and DNA damage in the during prophase
D. none of above A. nucleus
B. cytoplasm
441. How many daughter cells are produced at
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the end of meiosis? C. cell membrane
B. 2 447. HPV (human papiloma virus) can lead to
C. 3 what kind of cancer?
D. 4 A. cervical cancer
B. breast cancer
442. The cell cycle is made up of 2 main
stages:Interphase and Mitosis. What are C. ovarian cancer
the phases of Interphase? D. uterine cancer
A. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, 448. Tumors are
Telophase
A. A big fatty lump
B. S1, G, S2
B. mass of abnormal cells that can grow
C. G1, S, G2 uncontrollably
D. G1, GO, G2 C. Something that sticks out from your
443. Tell whether the given event in cell divi- body
sion happens during Mitosis only, Meiosis D. It’s not a tumor
only, or Both.DNA replication
449. When cells divide they make two
A. Mitosis cells.
B. Meiosis A. daughter
C. Both B. son
D. none of above C. Mom
444. In , a cell goes through two cell divi- D. Dad
sions and produces 4 daughter cells.
450. Which of the following is a method in
A. meiosis which cell division solves problems for the
B. mitosis cell?
C. interphase A. Increases the surface area to volume
ration.
D. prophase
B. Reduces the volume of the cell.
445. Meiosis can be carried out by cells in the C. increases the availability of nutrients
A. Liver to entering a cell.
B. Testes D. All of these are true.

451. do not enter the G1 phase, but go into 456. If one side of DNA is A-T-T-C-A-G-T the
a G0 stage, therefore do not replicate. matching base pairs would be

A. skin A. A-T-T-C-A-G-T
B. cancer B. T-A-A-G-T-C-A
C. brain or nerve C. A-T-G-C-C-G-T
D. bone D. none of above
452. Stability genes ensure that 457. What body system typically kills cancer
cells before they are numerous enough to
A. a cell with damaged DNA is killed off cause problems?
B. damaged DNA is removed A. the immune system
C. damaged DNA is preserved B. the digestive system
D. damaged DNA is repaired C. the circulatory system
453. What is the cell cycle in order? D. the nervous system
A. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase, 458. Which of these is NOT a part of the Cell
and Cytokinesis Theory?
B. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and A. Cells sell shelly some seashells
Telophase
B. Cells are the basic unit of living things.
C. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase,
Anaphase, Telophase, and Cytokinesis C. All living things are one or more cells
D. Cytokinesis, Anaphase, Prophase, In- D. Cells come from cells
terphase, and Metaphase
459. Angiogenesis in important for all of the
454. What are the checkpoints of the cell cycle purposes below EXCEPT
made up of?
A. Tissue growth
A. Mutagens
B. Healing
B. Mutations
C. Embryological development
C. Carcinomas
D. Mitosis
D. Proteins
460. Cancerous, can invade nearby tissue and
455. Which of the following statements cor- spread to other parts of the body.
rectly describes meiosis? A. malignant
A. Meiosis does not occur in reproductive B. benign
cells.
C. metatasis
B. The cells produced at the end are iden-
tical D. melanin
C. the cells produced at the end contain 461. What structure is found in prokaryotic
half the # of chromosomes cells, but not in eukaryotic cells?
D. cells divide only once during meiosis A. a singular, circular chromosome

B. a chromosome wrapped around many 467. In prophase, a of fibers that attach

histones to the centromere of the chromosomes.
C. a chromosome found in the nucleus A. spindle
D. mitotic spindle (spindle fibers) B. windle
C. swindle
462. A cancerous tumor’s function closely re-
D. strand
sembles which part of the human body?
468. In the 2nd part of cell division, the cyto-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. blood vessel
plasm divides. This is called
B. body system
A. interphase
C. organ
B. mitosis
D. muscle C. cytokinesis
463. what is the cause of most uncontrolled D. anaphase
cell division?
469. What type of cells can divide and renew
A. growth of genes themselves for long periods of time, re-
B. depth of genes main undifferentiated in form, and differ-
entiate into a variety of specialized cells?
C. treatment of genes
A. cancer cells
D. mutation of genes
B. brain cells
464. the joining of a sperm and egg C. stem cells
A. fertilization D. animal cells
B. meiosis 470. Cell respiration will be the dominant cel-
C. mitosis lular process
A. in G1 phase
D. genetics
B. in S phase
465. What is the best way to address most C. in G2 phase
forms of cancer?
D. during mitosis
A. Prevention
471. During mitosis,
B. early detection
A. the cell divides
C. surgery
B. the nucleus divides
D. radiation C. the cytoplasm divides
466. What cellular organelle organizes the D. none of above
framework of microtubles involved in cell
472. tightly coiled DNA that contains the ge-
division?
netic code
A. centrioles A. meiosis
B. sister chromatids B. chromosome
C. centromeres C. diploid
D. spindle D. haploid

473. Cellular “old age” or the point at which a 478. Which term refers to a tumor that is
mature cell will no longer divide is called not deemed cancerous and has not invaded
nearby tissues?

A. apoptosis
A. metastatic
B. differentiation
B. malignant
C. redifferentiation
C. benign
D. senescence
D. carcinoma
474. Why is the S phase important for cell di-
vision? 479. What is the likely result if there is a muta-
tion in the genes responsible for the check-
A. To ensure there is enough DNA for the points in the cell cycle?
daughter cells
A. Tissues
B. To make sure sister chromatids sepa-
B. Organs
rate properly
C. Cancer
C. To ensure cytokinesis takes place
D. Reproduction
D. To ensure there are no mutations
480. The uncontrolled growth of a cell is
475. The division of the cytoplasm. In animal caused from
cells a cleavage furrow appears. In plant
cells, a cell plate forms. What phase is A. too many cells
this? B. cells getting too big
A. Telophase C. cells behaving abnormally
B. Anaphase D. all of the above
C. Prophase 481. Adult stem cells of a given organ or tissue
D. cytokinesis typically produce?
A. Only the type of cells that are unique
476. During which phase of mitosis do the to that tissue
chromosomes line up along the middle of
the dividing cell? B. All types of cells of all tissues
C. Most types of cells of all tissues
A. prophase
D. Some types of cells of all tissues
B. interphase
C. metaphase 482. Cancer is
D. anaphase A. a premature stop in the cell cycle.
B. uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells
477. The dark staining structures that carry in the body.
the genetic material
C. programmed cell death.
A. centromeres
D. cells that go through apoptosis
B. chromosomes
483. Which type of cell division involves rip-
C. tissues
ping “double” chromosomes into “single”
D. sister chromatids chromosomes?

A. Mitosis 489. an organism has a haploid chromosome

B. Meiosis number n=12. how many tetrads will
form during meiosis?
C. Both
D. Neither A. 3
B. 4
484. What is special about the G1 checkpoint
compared to the others? C. 6
A. It’s the only one where DNA gets D. 12
NARAYAN CHANGDER
checked.
B. It’s the only checkpoint a cell could 490. If cancerous cells travel throughout your
never pass. body, the cells have gone through a pro-
cess known as:
C. All cells report to this checkpoint
D. none of above A. Metastisize
485. Which of the following is NOT an exam- B. Migration

ple of asexual reproduction? C. Flowing
A. strawberry plants expanding by vege- D. Locomotion
tative runners
B. strawberry plants using flowers to cre- 491. The cell cycle is regulated by
ate seed inside a red fruit
A. cyclins
C. a hydra budding
B. chromosomes
D. binary fission
C. centromeres
486. Which of the following cells is produced
by mitosis? D. none of above
A. Egg
492. What does “pluripotent” mean?
B. Sperm
A. able to divide and make many different
C. Zygote
types of cells
D. Skin
B. not able to divide
487. What is melanoma?
C. can only divide and make one cell type
A. cancer of blood cells
B. cancer of lung cells
D. if it divides, it will make a cancerous
C. cancer of brain cells tumor
D. cancer of pigmented cells
493. What process involves the division of cell
488. the number of people per 100, 00 that cytoplasm?
die from cancer each year is the;
A. Meiosis I
A. incidence rate
B. mortality rate B. Meiosis II
C. survival rate C. Cytokinesis

D. diagnosis rate D. Karyokinesis

494. Which of the following processes is NOT C. Metaphase

an example of a purpose for mitosis? D. Telophase

A. Growth
500. If you started with 24 chromosomes in
B. Repair of damaged cells the nucleus of an animal cell and it went
C. Replacement of dead cells through mitosis, how many chromosomes
would each new cell contain?
D. Sexual reproduction
A. 24
495. What is the job of internal or external B. 12
regulators?
C. 48
A. To decide if a person is hungry
D. 21
B. To help a person to digest their food
501. Which type of biopsy, also called a cytol-
C. To determine when a cell needs to di-
ogy test, uses a very thin needle, does not
vide or to stop dividing
cut through skin, but sometimes does not
D. To let a person know when they need remove enough tissue for a definite diag-
to get out of the cold nosis?
496. A cells size is limited by what? A. core needle aspiration biopsy
A. surface area to volume ratio B. fine needle aspiration biopsy
B. the cells life span C. excision biopsy
C. it’s not limited D. endoscopic biopsy
D. the type of cell 502. A zygote grows into a blastocyst, and

eventually an embryo, by which process?
497. Which of the following cells has the abil-
A. Meiosis
ity to form any tissue in the body?
B. Mitosis
A. blastoycst
C. Binary fission
B. pluripotent
D. Fertilization
C. multipotent
503. The incidence of cancer would be highest
D. totipotent
in which person?
498. Which type of reproduction results in ALL A. 15 year old African-American boy
the organisms of a species dying when a
B. 3 year old Asian male
disease affects the population?
C. 48 year old Pacific-Island male
A. asexual
D. 70 year old white male
B. sexual
504. The first step of mitosis, where chromo-
C. monopolistic
somes become visible and nuclear mem-
D. linguistic brane dissolves.
499. What is the first stage of the cell cycle A. Prophase
before cell division begins? B. Metaphase
A. Interphrase C. Anaphase
B. Replication D. Telophaes

505. Process that includes two cell divisions. C. In situ

A. Mitosis D. Invasive
B. Meiosis
511. Cells grow and divide to make copies of
C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis themselves or to produce
D. none of above A. new cells
506. In plant cytokinesis, cellulose is laid B. old cells
down forming
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. bacteria
A. a middle lamella D. atoms
B. cell walls
512. During prophase of mitosis, each chromo-
C. a cell plate some of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair
D. a plasma membrane of identical structures called
507. Duplication of chromosomes occurs in A. chromatid
which of these phases in a cell cycle B. sister chromosomes
A. M-Phase C. DNA transcript
B. G1 Phase D. sister chromatids
C. G0-Phase
513. Crossing over occurs in
D. S-Phase
A. prophase of mitosis
508. When a cell goes through mitosis, the B. prophase I of meiosis
daughter cells
C. interphase
A. are genetically unique from the mother
cell D. during all stages of meiosis I
B. are genetically identical to the mother 514. Why does DNA replication have to oc-
cell cur?
C. are used in sexual reproduction A. So that it can fix any mistakes the cell
D. have half the number of chromosomes made during division
as the mother cell B. So that the cell can get bigger
509. Agents (things) that can cause cancer are C. So that each new cell will have a full
called set of chromosomes after mitosis
A. Tumors D. So that each cell has a back-up copy of
B. Carcinogens its DNA
C. Cyclins 515. During the process of meiosis, chromo-
D. Malignant somes replicate
A. once, during interphase I
510. During which phase of tumor develop-
ment is the mass considered malignant? B. once, during interphase II
A. Dysplasia C. twice, during prophase I and II
B. Hyperplasia D. twice, during interphase I and II

516. Oncogenes result in which of the follow- 521. Which of these phases of mitosis is de-
ing outcomes? scribed incorrectly?

A. cell cycle arrest, apoptosis and sur- A. prophase-nuclear envelope breaks
vival down
B. DNA repair, cell cycle acceleration and B. metaphase-the chromosomes are
survival aligned in the middle of the cell
C. accelerated cell growth, cell cycle ar- C. telophase-the nuclear envelopes re-
rest and survival forms in the daughter cells
D. accelerated cell growth, increased cell D. anaphase-the chromosomes de-
division and survival condense
522. During which phase in the cell cycle does
517. If you look at a cell and the nuclear enve-
the cell copy its DNA?
lope is gone and cells have condensed into
chromosomes, the cell is in what stage? A. G1 phase
A. prophase B. S phase
B. metaphase C. G2 phase
C. anaphase D. M phase
D. telophase 523. Goes through P.M.A.T two rounds

A. Mitosis
518. A stage in carcinogenesis where cells stay
place. B. Meiosis
A. Hyperplasis C. Osmosis
B. Dysplasia D. Transcription
C. In situ 524. What is one reason why we need meio-

sis?
D. Malignant
A. To double the number of chromosomes
519. How many chromosomes are produced going into sex cells
during mitosis? B. To halve the number of chromosomes
A. 23 going into sex cells
B. 46 C. To triple the number of chromosomes
C. 44
D. To not change the number of chromo-
D. 38
somes going into sex cells
520. A chronic cough, blood tinged sputum, 525. If a cancerous tumor has spread by grow-
and dyspnea are symptoms of which can- ing in to neighboring tissue it can be re-
cer? ferred to as:
A. Lung A. Metastatic
B. Breast B. Invasive
C. Skin C. In situ
D. Leukemia D. Benign

526. Before cells divide, the chromosomes 532. Last phase of mitosis in which the spindle
must fibers break down, chromosomes unwind
A. replicate and the nuclear membrane begins to form
around each of the two sets of chromatids
B. divide
A. prophase
C. disappear
B. metaphase
D. break
C. anaphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
527. What causes cancer?
D. telo phase
A. Mutations in DNA
B. eating healthy 533. Increases Genetic Diversity (DNA in off-
spring is different than parents)
C. Exercise
D. none of above A. Asexual
B. Sexual
528. A cell spends most of its life in
C. Both
A. Anaphase
B. Interphase D. none of above
C. Metaphase 534. What is the process by which multicellu-

D. Prophase lar organisms produce more cells?
529. During which stage of the cell cycle does A. Cell Division
the cell membrane pinch the cell into two? B. Chromosomes
A. telophase C. Chromatin
B. interphase D. DNA
C. prophase
D. cytokinesis 535. Chromosomes contain what?
A. DNA
530. Sex cells are also called
B. RNA
A. Somatic cells
C. FBI
B. Gametes
C. Germ cells D. GNC
D. Lymphocytes 536. A parent cell that has a diploid number

of 46 pairs of chromosomes undergoes mi-
531. If a cell containing 14 chromosomes un-
tosis. How many chromosomes will the
dergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes
daughter cells have?
will the resulting daughter cells have?
A. 7 A. 13
B. 14 B. 23
C. 28 C. 46

537. Cancer is caused by a change in DNA. B. somatic cell

What is a change or damage to DNA C. diploid cell
called?

D. nerve cell
A. Mutation
B. Replication 543. The sea star will regenerate an arm if
needed. What cellular process is directly
C. Altercation responsible for this regeneration?
D. Abberation A. meiosis
538. Each daughter cell ends up with the B. transpiration
number of as the in mitosis. C. mitosis
A. chromosomes, parent cel, same D. respiration
B. parent cell, same, chromosomes
544. What is one goal of cellular differentia-
C. same, daughter cell, chromosomes tion/specialization?
D. same, chromosomes, parent cell A. To create specialized cells to help or-
539. Which of the following are reasons a cell ganism maintain homeostasis.
will divide? B. To many cells.
A. Repair damaged cells C. To make stem cells
B. growth D. to make single celled organisms
C. Replace dead cells 545. could produce an egg cell
D. All of these A. mitosis
540. Which is a way to prevent cancer? B. meiosis
A. Healthy diet C. both
B. Limit exposure to sunlight D. none of above
C. Avoid smoking 546. Which part of mitosis does this happen?
D. All of the above A nuclear membrane forms around each
group of chromosomes.
541. All BUT one event will occur during Meio-
sis II? That is A. telophase
A. homologous chromosomes pair up B. metaphase
B. sister chromatids move to opposite C. prophase

ends of the cell D. anaphase
C. nuclear membrane form around newly 547. What ultimately causes cancer cells to be-
separated chromosomes have differently than healthy cells?
D. spindle fibers align chromosomes A. Mutations in their DNA
along the equator of the cell
B. Sending improper signals to surround-
542. What type of cell is produced following ing cells
meiosis? C. Responding improperly to chemical
A. gamete cell signals

D. They fail to replicate their DNA in inter- 553. A Carcinogen is

phase. A. The formation of cancer cells
548. During which phase does the cell dupli- B. A substance that causes cancer
cate its DNA? C. A substance that prevents cancer
A. M Phase D. A cancer cell
B. G1 554. Mitosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. S A. is sexual
D. G2 B. is asexual
549. During this stage the cell grows and dou- C. requires mutations
ble sin size. D. requires two parent cells
A. G1 555. Which of the following cells is undifferen-
B. G2 tiated?
C. M A. cardiac muscle cell
D. S B. nerve cell
C. liver cell
550. Which DNA structure provides a set of in-
D. stem cell
structions for a cell to make specific?
A. cell 556. What structure connects the duplicate
halves of sister chromatids?
B. gene
A. chromatin
C. nucleus
B. centromere
D. ribosome
C. microtubule
551. In this phase of the cell cycle, the nucleus D. spindle
of the cell divides and each new nucleus
gets a full set of DNA. 557. Which of the following are reasons that
the cells of an organism might divide?
A. G1
A. growth
B. S
B. repair of damaged cells
C. mitosis
D. cytokinesis
D. All of the above
552. As a result of meiosis, the daughter cells 558. Where does a eukaryotic cell contain it’s
are to each other genetic material?
A. siimilar A. nucleus
B. identical B. nucleolus
C. not identical C. cytoskeleton
D. not happy D. golgi apparatus

559. Where does DNA replication occur in eu- B. Apoptosis

karyotic cells? C. Oncogene

A. The nucleus D. Polymerase
B. The cytoplasm
565. In eukaryotic cell division, the process of
C. Ribosomes cytoplasmic division is called
D. Mitochondria A. cytokinesis
560. In animal cells a pair of is located at B. cytomeiosis
the center of the C. cytoplasmosis
A. centrioles, centrosome D. cytomitosis
B. microtubules, centrioles
566. What is the final stage of the cell cycle?
C. centrosome, centrioles
A. Telophase
D. centrosome, microtubules
B. Metaphase
561. A structures that contain identical copies C. Cytokinesis
of DNA joined together by the centromere
D. Prophase
and eventually separated during cell divi-
sion. 567. DNA replication ensures cells have of
A. chromatin the genome after division
B. chromosomes A. A complete copy
C. sister chromatids B. 1/2 a copy
D. spindle apparatus C. 2 copies
D. Many copies
562. What part of the DNA plays a part in cell
age? 568. What is a disadvantage to asexual repro-
A. RNA duction?
B. telomeres A. It is more efficient for cells
C. telescopes B. It uses less resources than sexual re-
production
D. ribosomes
C. cells lack traits to be able to adjust to
563. During which phase is DNA replicated (or the environment
copied)? D. organisms reproducing sexually must
A. interphase obtain a mate
B. prophase 569. Which part of the cell cycle ensures that
C. telophase an identical copy of the original DNA of the
D. metaphase parent is made?
A. G1
564. is a process of recognising defective
cells, programming cell death, and replac- B. G2
ing with normal cells. C. S
A. Mitosis D. Mitosis

570. Once the sister chromatids separate they B. human growth hormone
are considered to be individual C. cancer
A. chromatids D. tumor
B. chromosomes
576. Term for a group of more than 100 dis-
C. centromeres eases in which abnormal cells divide with-
D. DNA out control.
A. biopsy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
571. Cancer is
A. Uncontrolled cell division B. epiodemiology
C. cancer
B. Normal cell division
D. mortality
C. A protein
D. A type of DNA 577. During mitosis, when do sister chro-
matids separate?
572. Which of the following events may lead
A. prophase
to genetic variation in living organisms?
B. metaphase
A. Prophase I, metaphase I & anaphase I
C. anaphase
B. Propase I, prohase II & metaphase I D. never
C. Prophase I, metaphase I & fertilisa- 578. How do you know when chromosomes
tion are homologous pairs?
D. Metaphase I, anaphase I & fertilisa- A. when they are together
tion
B. when they are different
573. Cancer may present as C. when they have the same genes and
A. few dividing cells with organized ar- are the same height
rangement D. when they have different genes and
B. many dividing cells with disorganized are not the same height
arrangement
579. In the 1st part of cell division, the nucleus
C. normal shape of the cell divides. This is called
D. normal functions A. mitosis
574. Which of these checkpoints determines if B. cytokinesis
cell division has occurred properly? C. interphase
A. M checkpoint D. metaphase
B. G1 checkpoint 580. What phase is a cell in if the chromo-
C. G2 checkpoint somes are all lined up down the middle?
D. none of above A. Anaphase
575. Mass of rapidly dividing cells that can B. Metaphase

damage surrounding tissue. C. Prophase
A. growth factor D. Telophase

581. The number of people diagnosed with can- 586. Body cells, somatic cells
cer each year per 100, 000 people refers A. n
to?

B. 2n
A. diagnosis rate
C. Haploid
B. mortality rate
D. Gametes
C. survival rate
587. The human karyotype
D. incidence rate
A. is haploid
582. Chromosomes replicate and divide during
B. shows 23 pairs of chromosomes
which phase of interphase?
C. is from a gamete
A. gap 1
D. all of the above
B. synthesis
C. gap 2 588. Which type of gene is likened to a gas
pedal of a car when it gets stuck in the
D. none of above “on” position it will keep on moving.
583. What occurs in meiosis but NOT mitosis A. Tumor suppressor gene
A. crossovers between homologous chro- B. Proto-oncogene
mosomes C. Gene Flow
B. crossovers between sister chromatids D. carcinogen
589. Which biopsy involves removing the
C. spindle formation
whole tumor?
D. chromosome number is conserved
A. Autopsy
584. Which type of biopsy uses a very thin B. surgical biopsy
needle; which does not cut through the C. vivisection
skin and sometimes does not remove
enough tissue for a definite diagnosis? D. Fine needle aspiration
A. core needle aspiration biopsy 590. A cell that contains a complete set of chro-
B. fine needle aspiration biopsy mosomes (1 from each parent) is called
C. excision biopsy
A. Diploid
D. endoscopic biopsy
B. Haploid
585. What happen during replication in the S C. Zygote
D. Embryo
A. The number of chromatids doubled.
591. Medical researchers are interested in
B. The number of chromosomes doubled.
stem cells because they?
A. are found in all types of tissues
C. The number of homologous chromo-
somes doubled. B. can produce different cells types
D. The amount of energy in mitochondria C. are highly specialized
doubled. D. are found only in embryos

592. Uncontrolled growth of cells is known 597. In interphase what occurs?

as?
A. Replication of DNA, shrinking, Cell Col-
A. a tumor lapse
B. cancer B. Apoptosis
C. mass of abnormal cells C. Growth, Replication of DNA, and Cell
Function
D. all of the above
D. Duplication
NARAYAN CHANGDER
593. Which of the following generally requires
“2 hits” and leads to loss of function? 598. If you were to observe a sample of divid-
ing cells, which phase would MOST of the
A. tumor suppressor gene
cells be in?
B. proto-oncogene
A. Interphase
C. Gene Wilder
B. Cytokinesis
D. Genie In A Bottle
C. Telophase
594. Which effect is most likely caused by D. Prophase
nondisjunction during meiosis?
599. What is organized DNA called?
A. an increase in nuclei
A. Genes
B. an extra chromosome
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
C. only two types of nitrogenous bases
C. Chromosomes
D. increased survival benefits from traits
D. Nucleus
595. The diploid number of chromosomes of a
dog is 28. During Meiosis I, one of the ho- 600. Which of the following properly describes
mologous chromosome pairs does not sep- interactions at the G2 checkpoint?
arate. How many chromosomes are there
A. cyclin binds with MPF to make CDK
in any one of the gametes that would be
produced? B. MPF enters the cell through the mem-
brane
A. 13
C. A certain level of MPF allows the cell
B. 14
cycle to continue past the checkpoint
C. 27
D. None of these are true
D. 28
601. In order for a tumor to be cancerous to
596. identical halves of the duplicated chromo- must
some joined together by a centromere
A. Be benign
A. gametes
B. Be malignant and metastasize
B. sister chromatids
C. Be malignant and not metastasize
C. centromere
D. Be benign and spread to parts of the
D. homologous chromosomes body

602. What kinds of things cause mutations? C. replication of mitochondria and other
A. Chemicals organelles

B. UV rays D. the division of cytoplasm
C. Extreme Heat 608. Another name for a sex cell is a:
D. All of these
A. gamete
603. A mutation can only be passed down if it B. embryo
is in what kind of cell?
C. bone cell
A. Body
D. muscle cell
B. Somatic
C. Sex 609. Which of the following would NOT be con-
D. Stem sidered a carcinogen?
A. healthy fruits & vegetables
604. The original and mutated DNA have been
transcribed below. What kind of mutation B. tobacco smoke
is shown? Original:ACU AUGMutated:ACC C. X-rays
AUG
D. UV rays
A. Insertion
B. Deletion 610. What substance would directly stimulate
C. Substitution angiogenesis
D. Bifurcation A. VEGF
B. HIF1B
605. The ensures growth and repair of an
organism. C. Proto-oncogenes
A. The cell growth D. P 53
B. The cell repair
611. Mutations, toxins, radiation, the sun,
C. The cell recycle and some pathogens are possible for
D. The cell cycle cancer.
606. The division of the cytoplasm following A. causes

mitosis resulting into two identical copies B. helpers
of the originelle cell called daughter cells
C. steps
A. cytoplasm
D. chemicals
B. cytokenisis
C. telophase 612. How many cells are created at the end of
Mitosis?
D. mitosis
A. 1
607. The synthesis (S) phase is characterized
by B. 2
A. DNA replication C. 3
B. cell division D. 4

613. These are examples of:chemicals in 618. Which is NOT an internal carcinogen?
cigarette smokeradiation nitrates in pro- A. Chemical Exposure
cessed foodsartificial sweeterHeavy met-
als such as mercury and lead B. Hereditary factors
A. Carcinogens C. Cell Checkpoints
B. Predispositions D. Abnormal hormone levels
C. Mutations 619. A ball of cells made from the extra divi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Tumors sions of a cancer cell
A. radiation
614. As a cell increases in size, the RATE of
diffusion will B. metastasis
A. increase C. tumor
B. decrease D. chemotherapy
C. stay the same 620. Where are the checkpoints in the cell cy-
D. none of above cle, for cancer.
A. G1
615. happens in G1
B. G2
A. The first gap, the cell is growing and
developing C. end of mitosis
B. The DNA doubles D. all the choices
C. The second gap, the cell is doing its job 621. is a critical point where stop and go
molecular signals can regulate the cycle
D. The cell divides A. Metastasis
616. Uncontrolled cell growth and division is B. Checkpoint

called C. Malignant
A. Parkinson’s Disease D. Benign
B. Progeria 622. At the end of mitosis you have cells
C. Cancer A. identical
D. Checkpoints B. different
617. The kinases that drive the cell cycle are C. identical twins
actually present at a constant concentra- D. variety
tion in a growing cell, but much of the time
they are inactive. To be active, kinases 623. Cancer kills because it normal tissue
must be attached to a and the function of that tissue
A. centromere A. forms, assist
B. centrosome B. invade, stop
C. chromosome C. invade, disrupt
D. cyclin D. out grows, enhances

624. A cancerous tumor that does not spread B. metaphase

to other areas C. anaphase

A. benign D. telophase
B. carcinogenic
630. Cancer of the body’s blood-forming tis-
C. malignant sues.
D. metastisized A. leukemia
625. Which of the following is NOT a phase of B. carcinoma
interphase? C. sarcoma
A. M Phase D. lymphoma
B. G1
631. Which structures attach to the chromo-
C. S somes in order to move them around the
D. G2 cell during mitosis?
A. Cleavage furrow
626. Doctor who specializes in treating can-
cer. B. Spindle fibers
A. Oncologist C. Centromeres
B. Epidemiologist D. Centrioles
C. Dermatologist 632. Which of the following is NOT a gamete
D. Neurologist (sex cell)?
A. egg
627. Each single chromosome contains one
very lone, linear DNA molecule that carries B. sperm
several hundred to a few thousand C. skin cell
A. genes D. all of the above are gametes
B. chromosomes
633. During which stage of cell division are
C. genomes chromosomes pulled to opposite ends of
D. phenotype the cell?
A. Prophase
628. Which of the following are checkpoints
that the cell must pass before dividing? B. Metaphase
A. Have enough nutrients C. Anaphase
B. Be large enough to divide D. Telophase
C. Have correctly copied all DNA 634. The nuclear membrane breaks downs.
D. All of the above The chromosomes coil up and condense.
The 1st and longest phase of Mitosis.
629. Which phase does this describe:The spin- A. prophase
dle separates the chromatids to form indi-
vidual chromosomes and they move away B. anaphase
from each other towards the poles. C. metaphase
A. prophase D. telophase

635. What is the stage of cell cycle where C. obtaining enough food
the cell starts to grow and the growth D. expelling wastes
is mostly attributed to the doubling of
water content, the organelles, and other 641. The process in which cells become special-
biomolecules? ized to perform specific functions is called:
A. G2 phase A. differentiation
B. G1 phase B. cell cycle
C. cytokinesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Synthesis Phase
D. G0 phase D. mitosis
636. Haploid cells are seen 642. An accumulation of cancer cells creates a:
A. Mutation
A. After Meiosis 1
B. Tumor
B. After Metaphase of Mitosis
C. Bruise
C. After Telophase of Mitosis
D. Abscess
D. Before Anaphase 1 of Meiosis
643. What do cyclins regulate?
637. What is it called when a sperm and egg
meet? A. cancer
B. mitosis
A. meiosis
C. the cell cycle
B. fertilization
D. seasons
C. cell division
D. mitosis 644. In eukaryotes, chromatin (DNA) is
packed into what structure?
638. Reproduction that combines genetic ma- A. nucleosomes
terial of two organisms
B. centrosomes
A. Sexual Reproduction
C. spindles
B. Asexual Reproduction
D. chromosomes
C. Fertilization
645. The goal of cell division is
D. Budding
A. Growth
639. An abnormal mass/group of cancer cells B. Repair
is called a
C. Move materials out of the cell
A. tumor
D. Both Growth and Repair
B. cyst
646. These are the same size and have the
C. lesion
same genes at the same locations, but are
D. polyp not identical.
640. All of the following are problems that A. Homologous chromosomes
growth causes for cells EXCEPT B. Homozygous chromosomes
A. more demands on DNA C. Sister chromatids
B. excess oxygen D. Analogous chromosomes

647. The spreading of cancer from its original C. brain

source is called D. muscles

A. mitosis
653. What term refers to cell division in eu-
B. specialization
karyotes?
C. metastasis
A. binary fission
D. synthesis
B. budding
648. A species of birds has a chromosome num- C. mitosis
ber of 44, therefore all of the cells of these
birds would have chromosomes. D. chromatin
A. 11 654. Eukaryotic cells store their genetic infor-

B. 22 mation(DNA) in
C. 33 A. Chromosomes
D. 44 B. Centromeres
C. karyotypes
649. What process do bacteria use to carry out
cell division? D. Proteins
A. Mitosis 655. Apoptosis functions to
B. Binary Fission A. allow proper form of developing em-
C. Meiosis bryos
D. Parthenogenesis B. remove cells that are damaged or dis-
eased
650. Cell division is one way through which
C. reduce cell number
A. organisms can gain more energy.
D. all of these
B. organisms can grow.
C. organisms can mate with other organ- 656. Imagine there was a dragon that was oc-
isms. toploid. What would its ploidy number
look like?
D. none of above
A. n
651. Which checkpoint requires a cell to be of
adequate size in order to move to the next B. 2n
phase in the cell cycle? C. 4n
A. G1/S checkpoint D. 8n
B. G2 checkpoint
657. If cells grow too large, they have more
C. G0 checkpoint trouble
D. M checkpoint A. Dividing
652. Why types of cells may not undergo mi- B. Producing daughter cells
tosis at all? C. Storing materials and waste products
A. hair D. Moving needed materials in and waste
B. skin products out

658. Together, the G1 phase, S phase, and G2 664. Cancer cells can reproduce rapidly be-
phase make up cause they
A. The cell cycle A. are smaller than normal cells
B. Interphase B. skip interphase
C. Cyclins
C. undergo mitosis more slowly
D. None of these
D. spend less time in interphase
659. The recruitment & generation of blood
NARAYAN CHANGDER
vessels & lymph vessels is called 665. Sickle Cell Anemia is caused by a muta-
tion, it causes hemoglobin to not work cor-
A. Angiogenesis
rectly. What does hemoglobin do?
B. Carcinogenesis
A. Makes cells round
C. Metastasis
B. Carries Oxygen
D. Mitosis
C. Makes blood plasma
660. Which is NOT a normal reason for apop-
tosis? D. None of these
A. Destroy old or worn out cells 666. In its condensed form, the duplicated
B. Destroy damaged or dangerous cells chromosome has a narrow ‘waist’ at a
C. Encourage division of cancer cells specialized region called the where the
two sister chromatids are most closely at-
D. Break down unwanted tissue in em- tached
bryos
A. centrioles
661. Division of the nucleus.
B. cytokinesis
A. Cytokinesis
C. centromere
B. Mitosis
C. Prophase D. none of above
D. Interphase 667. The correct order of the phases of mitosis

662. cells are made and meiosis could be abbreviated as:
A. Mitosis A. MAPT
B. Meiosis B. PAMT
C. Binary Fission C. TPAM
D. Exocytosis D. PMAT
663. Failure of this stage prior to mitosis
668. During mitosis, when do homologous
would result in daughter cells without a
chromosomes separate?
sufficient amount of DNA
A. prophase
A. S-phase
B. Gap 1 B. anaphase
C. cytokinesis C. telophase
D. anaphase D. never

669. Which is NOT a purpose of angiogenesis 674. The chromosomes line up across the mid-
dle of the cell
A. Delivery of oxygen to the cells

B. So cells in tissues can travel to other A. Anaphase
places B. Interphase
C. Delivery of nutrients to cells C. Prophase
D. Removal of wastes from cells D. Metaphase
670. During , centrioles form and create 675. This type of gene tells cells to stop divid-
spindle fibers ing
A. nucleophase A. proto oncogene
B. interphase B. onco gene
C. prophase C. tumor suppressor gene
D. metaphase D. none of above
671. Which type of reproduction causes bacte-
676. What is another reason we need meio-
ria of a species to have the exact same
sis?
DNA as each other?
A. So the offspring has genes from both
A. asexual
parents
B. sexual
B. So the offspring has genes from one
C. monopolistic parent
D. linguistic C. So the offspring has genes from nei-
ther parents
672. The 3 MAIN causes of cancer are
D. So the offspring makes its own genes
A. viruses, radiation, & hazardous chemi-
cals 677. The cell cycle is essential to life because
B. radiation (eg. UV), mutations, and it
hereditary A. contains 4 stages for gametes
C. mutations, hereditary, and carcino- B. makes identical copies of somatic cells
gens
D. all the above C. controls cell functions
673. What is the main consequence if body D. provides energy for the cells
cells accumulate DNA mutations that dam-
age the signals that regulate the cell cy- 678. cell structure that joins chromatids of a
cle? chromosome
A. AIDS A. sister chromatids
B. cancer B. centromere
C. miscarriage C. homologous chromosomes
D. Down’s syndrome D. karyotype

679. egg and sperm (sex cells) C. Interphase

A. gametes D. Nuclear Division
685. Neural stem cells from the brain can dif-
C. centromere ferentiate into
D. homologous chromosomes A. only specialized brain cells .
680. Cancer is related to what? B. specialized brain cells and specialized
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. muscular functions-especially exer- skin cells.
cise C. all types of specialized cells.
B. breathing D. only specialized blood cells.
C. cellular functions-especially cell divi-
sion 686. Cells are either in
D. reproduction A. intercourse, DNA

B. Interphase, mitosis
681. Which phase does this describe:The chro-
mosomes migrate to the center of the cell C. interphase, meiosis
or the equatorial plate. Each centromere is D. Outerphase, Mitosis
connected to two spindle fibers, one from
each pole. 687. Which of the following would NOT result
A. prophase in tumor formation.
B. metaphase A. Too much cell division
C. anaphase B. Hypoxic conditions
D. telophase C. Not enough cell death
682. The uncontrolled growth of a cell is due D. Damaged suppressors
to
688. The cell cycle stage at which the animal
A. too many organelles cell membrane pinches inward to create
B. cells getting too big a cleavage furrow dividing the cytoplasm
into two cells
C. cells behaving abnormally
D. all of the above A. metaphase
B. anaphase
683. Some cells are constantly being
C. telophase
A. copied
D. cytokinesis
B. divided
C. replaced 689. As a cell grows, its increases more
D. repaired than its
A. length, volume
684. In what part of the cell cycle do cells
spend the majority of their time? B. width, surface area
A. S-Phase C. volume, surface area
B. Cytokinesis D. none of these

690. Which phase does this describe:Chromosomes B. production of gametes

become visible and are scattered in the C. repair
cell. The nuclear membrane and nucleolus

are no longer present. The spindle fiber D. development in the embryo
forms. 696. if the parent cell has 12 chromosomes,
A. prophase how many chromosomes does each daugh-
B. metaphase ter cell have after mitosis?
C. anaphase A. 6
D. telophase B. 12
C. 24
691. How many rounds of division do cells go
through in meiosis D. 46
A. one 697. In mitosis, the end product is

B. four A. 2 haploid cells
C. two B. 2 diploid cells
D. none C. 4 haploid cells
D. 4 diploid cells
692. During the cell will divide in order to
produce two exact replica cells 698. What does mitosis do?
A. G1 (First Gap) A. regulates the cell cycle
B. S (Synthesis) B. promotes spindle formation
C. G2 (Second Gap) C. suppresses cancer
D. M (Mitosis) D. results in the division of two geneti-
cally identical nuclei
693. A number that describes how likely it is
that an event will occur 699. Tell whether the given event in cell divi-
A. probability sion happens during Mitosis only, Meiosis
only, or Both.Synapsis
B. likelihood
A. Mitosis
C. fractions
B. Meiosis
D. percents
C. Both
694. Which of the following make up the M D. none of above
stage?
A. fermentation, mitosis 700. If there are 20 chromosome in the egg
cells, how many chromosomes would be
B. mitosis, cytokinesis found in the sperm cells of the same
C. glycolysis, mitosis species?
D. glycolysis, cytokinesis A. 10
695. which of the following does not occur by B. 40

mitosis? C. 20
A. growth D. 80

701. The process that produces genetically C. 2

IDENTICAL daughter cells D. 0
A. Mitosis
707. Process where one cells divides and sep-
B. Meiosis arates into two cells
C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis A. G1
D. none of above
B. Synthesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
702. testing for the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes C. G2
can help to determine a patient’s likelihood
D. Mitosis
of developing what kind of cancer?
A. cervical cancer 708. Malignant tumors
B. breast cancer A. Do not spread to other parts of the
body
C. ovarian cancer
B. Invade and destroy surrounding tis-
D. uterine cancer
sues
703. Which of the following is NOT a function C. Instruct a slow down of cell growth
of mitosis in humans?
D. None of these
A. repair of wounds
709. Mitosis makes and Meiosis makes
B. growth
.
C. production of reproductive cells
A. Gametes, Clones
D. multiplication of body cells
B. 4, 2
704. A cancerous tumor is called C. Eggs, Sperm
A. benign D. Clones, Gametes
B. malignant
710. A scientist examines cancerous stomach
C. apoptosis cells. Which stage of the cell cycle would
D. cyclin they find a lot of?
A. mitosis
705. Which type of protein prevents the cells
with damage from continuing through the B. cytokinesis
cell cycle? C. interphase
A. tumor supressor D. none of above
B. tumor initiator
711. Which phase during interphase doe this
C. stem cell suppressor happen? DNA replicates; each chromo-
D. stem cell initiator some divides to form sister chromatids
706. How many cells are produced during A. G1 Phase

telophase I? B. G2 Phase
A. 4 C. S Phase
B. 8 D. P Phase

712. A carcinoma is what? 717. During interphase

A. a chemical that causes cancer A. the mitotic spindle appears

B. a cancer that originates in the epithe- B. two new daughter cells are formed
lial layer of the skin or in the linings of in-
ternal organs. C. the mature cell prepares itself by mak-
ing a copy of DNA
C. a genetic component
D. a new nuclear membrane appears and
D. a car
the mitotic spindle disappears
713. Stem cells are used to
718. The process of the cell cycle produces two
A. make clones identical:
B. create new species of animals A. daughter cells
C. make babies
B. strands
D. grow different types of tissues
C. chromosomes
714. During which stage of cell division does D. chromatids
a cleavage furrow or cell plate begin to
form? 719. Any substance that causes cancer by
A. Interphase either damaging genes or disrupting
metabolic processes is called a:
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase A. Halogen
D. Cytokinesis B. Pathogen
C. Carcinogen
715. type of nuclear division that produces 4
haploid daughter cells that are all geneti- D. Mutagen
cally different
720. A guinea pig cell has 64 chromosomes.
A. meiosis
After mitosis, each daughter contains
B. chromosome chromosomes.
C. diploid A. 128
D. haploid B. 64
716. Which would most likely produce a muta- C. 32
tion that is passed on to offspring?
D. 16
A. radiation changing the DNA sequence
in skin cells 721. The phase of mitosis where the nuclear
B. a gamete with an extra chromosome membrane reappears is called .
forming A. anaphase
C. tobacco smoke altering the genes in B. prophase
lung cells
C. metaphase
D. exposure to chemicals altering nerve
cell function D. telophase

722. Identify the correct order of the phases 727. In meiosis, the daughter cells have
of mitosis. the amount of DNA as the parent cell.
A. interphase, metaphase, prophase, A. a third of
anaphase B. half of
B. metaphase, prophase, anaphase, C. the same
telophase
D. none of
728. During meiosis I, what happens?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
telophase
D. telophase, interphase, metaphase, A. Sister chromatids are split
anaphase B. Homologous chromosomes are split
C. Four cells are created
723. Which type(s) of cells replicate fre-
quently? D. None of the other choices are correct
A. liver 729. What are the products of the meiotic cell
B. skin division?
C. blood A. 2 haploid daughter cells

B. 2 diploid daughter cells
D. bone
C. 4 haploid daughter cells
724. According to cell theory,
D. 4 diploid daughter cells
A. All organisms are composed of cells
730. Which of the following would cause a cell
B. Cells are alive and the basic living units to enter the cell cycle to go through mito-
of organization in all organisms. sis?
C. All cells come from other cells. A. density dependent inhibition
D. All of the above. B. anchorage dependency
725. The organize a spindle of fibers that C. a growth factor
attach to the centromere of the chromo- D. apoptosis
somes.
731. How does cell differentiation occur?
A. centromeres
A. certain genes are activated
B. centrioles
B. p53 triggers apoptosis
C. centriomes
C. cyclins are activated to progress
D. chromosomes through the cell cycle
726. The TNF-alpha (death signal that initiates D. the mitotic spindle pulls chromosomes
apoptosis) receptor is what type of recep- to opposite sides of the cell
tor? 732. produces 4 daughter cells
A. GPCR A. mitosis
B. Ligand-gated channel B. meiosis
C. Serine/ threonine receptor C. both
D. Tyrosine Kinase receptor D. none of above

733. In which stage of cell division does C. haploid; mitosis

crossing-over take place?
D. chromosome; zygote

A. anaphase
B. metaphase 739. How many cell divisions take place in
meiosis?
C. prophase
A. One
D. telophase
B. Two
734. During which phase of the cell cycle is the
cell growing and preparing for cellular di- C. Four
vision? D. Eight
A. cytokinesis
B. prophase 740. Which type of reproduction leads to in-
creased genetic variation on a popula-
C. anaphase tion?
D. interphase A. Parthenogenesis
735. The stages of mitosis are sometimes re- B. Asexual reproduction
ferred to as
C. Sexual reproduction
A. PMAT
D. Vegetative reproduction
B. PMAP
C. MPTA 741. During what phase do the chromosomes
D. ATPM start to appear and the nuclear membrane
starts to disappear?
736. Chemotherapy is
A. Telophase
A. A cell process
B. Metaphase
B. Using drugs to treat cancer systemi-
cally C. Anaphase
C. A change in a cell’s DNA D. Prophase
D. Using radiation to treat cancer locally
742. What kind of a gene is p53?
737. What component of cells would a cancer A. Proto-Oncogene
researcher analyze when studying the life
cycle of a cell? B. Oncogene
A. genes C. Tumor Suppressor Gene
B. membrane D. Proto-Tumor Suppressor Gene
C. cytoplasm
743. Which is NOT an external carcinogen?
D. nosocomial
A. Chemical Exposure
738. Sperm and egg combine to make a diploid
which grows up through B. Alchohol
A. zygote; mitosis C. Viruses
B. zygote; meiosis D. Mutations to genes

744. a cellular structure carrying genetic mate- 749. Mitosis represents about % of the
rial, found in the nucleus. Consists of one whole cell cycle.
long strand of DNA. A. 1%
A. Chromosome B. 10%
B. ccentromere C. 50%
C. interphase D. 75%
D. sister chromatid 750. This is when cells are told to stop func-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tioning and die
745. During which phase of cell division does
the cell double in size and replicate its A. Metastasis
DNA? B. Benign
A. Prophase C. Apoptosis
B. Telophase D. Regulation
C. Interphase 751. What would be a way to decrease your
D. Metaphase risk of cancer?
A. Smoke cigarettes
746. When meiosis is complete, how does DNA B. Use a tanning bed
in the daughter cells compare to the DNA
from the original parent cell? C. Use sunscreen
A. half as much and genetically the same D. Get a bunch of x-rays for fun
752. This phase is when the cytoplasm fully
B. twice as much and genetically the separates, creating 2 separate cells. What
same is this phase?
C. half as much and genetically different A. Endocytosis
D. twice as much and genetically differ- B. Exocytosis

ent C. Cytokinesis
D. Metaphase
747. Which of the following best describes can-
cer as a disease? 753. Tumors may proliferate and form new tu-
mors by entering blood vessels and lymph
A. Transmitted by insects
vessels, this spread of cancer is called
B. Caused by infected water
A. benign
C. Uncontrolled cell growth B. malignant
D. Transmitted through the air C. metastasis
748. Which stage of the cell cycle involves the D. none of above
division of the cytoplasm? 754. Which of these can cause cancer?
A. Anaphase A. viruses
B. Telophase B. lack of sleep
C. Cytokinesis C. lack of exercise
D. Prophase D. high-sugar diet

755. Mitosis is an example of what type of C. reproduction

reproduction? D. results

A. sexual reproduction
761. What is a chemical or physical agent that
B. asexual reproduction interacts with DNA and causes a genetic
C. aerobic respiration alteration?
D. transfer reproduction A. mutagen
B. oncogene
756. Which of the following is a description of
C. tumor-suppressor gene
a cancer cell?
D. proto-oncogene
A. regular, ellipsoid shape
B. few connections with other cells 762. What does telomerase do in cancer cells
and stem cells?
C. grow as uniform layer
A. extends the 5’ end of a chromosomal
D. all the above DNA strand
757. Not cancerous, does not invade nearby B. shortens the 5’ end of a chromosomal
tissue or spread to other parts of the DNA strand
body. C. extend the number of times a cell can
A. benign divide
D. shortens the number of times a call
B. metatasis
can divide
C. dysplasis
763. Growth of new blood vessels that is a
D. hyperplasia sign of a malignant tumor is called
758. Trisomy 21 is the result of , an error A. Angiogenesis
of chromosomes not separating properly. B. Metastasis
A. translocation C. Germline mutation
B. inversion D. Cardiovascular disease
C. single base pair mutations 764. During this stage in interphase, the cell
D. nondisjunction grows, carries out normal functions, and
copy their organelles.
759. Name a way to protect yourself from ul- A. G1
traviolet radiation.
B. Synthesis
A. sun bathing
C. G2
B. sitting on the beach
D. Mitosis
C. limit exposure sit in the shade
765. How do cancerous cells compare to nor-
D. swimming in the pool mal cells?
760. Cell division is important to the pro- A. They are bigger
duction of an offspring. B. They divide faster
A. repiration C. They die more quickly
B. repairing D. All of these

766. Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell B. Differentiation

cycle in which phase? C. Asexual
A. interphase D. Specialization
B. prophase
772. The number of people alive at some point
C. metaphase
after they have been diagnosed with can-
D. anaphase cer refers to:
A. Survival rate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
767. UV light, radium, and coal tar are exam-
ples of: B. Mortality rate
A. Carcinogens C. Incidence rate
B. Inherited predispositions D. Occurrence rate
C. Modifiable environmental risk factors
773. a cell with one copy of each chromosome
D. Chemotherapy treatments (n)
768. When cells are grown in a laboratory, A. meiosis
which of the following is a factor that can B. chromosome
stop normal cells from dividing?
C. diploid
A. contact with other cells
D. haploid
B. growth factors
C. a cut in the skin 774. the football shaped structure consisting
of thin fibers
D. injection of cyclin
A. spindle
769. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells B. centromere
have lost the ability to regulate their
C. chromatid
A. Size
D. chromosome
B. Cell cycle
C. Spindle fibers 775. The cell is carrying out its typical func-
tions, not engaged in preparing for cell di-
D. Surface area
vision
770. The main contributing factor for most A. S-phase
cases of uncontrolled cell division that oc-
B. Gap 0
curs in human cancers is:
C. Cytokinesis
A. Mutation of genes
D. Anaphase
B. Replication of genes
C. Transcription of genes 776. Most prokaryotes reproduce through
which process
D. Translation of genes
A. sexual reproduction
771. When a starfish grows a new body off a
broken arm, what kind of reproduction is B. binary fission
this? C. meiosis
A. Sexual D. budding

777. Sister chromatids are- B. Meiosis

A. found only when a cell is not actively C. Both

dividing D. none of above
B. tightly linked together at the cen-
tromere 783. What happens when cancer occurs?
C. formed when chromosomes align A. control of the cell cycle becomes im-
along the metaphase plate paired
D. non-identical B. apoptosis
C. cells get stuck in G1
778. Reasons that a cell duplicates:
D. cells cannot divide
A. Replace
B. Growth 784. Sister chromatids are only present
C. Repair/Reproduce A. a. just after cytokinesis through the
D. All of the Above end of G1
B. b. just after metaphase through
779. In which phase of the cell cycle does the telophase
replication of DNA occurs?
C. c. just after S phase through separa-
A. G1 phase tion in metaphase
B. S phase D. during all of Interphase
C. G2 phase
785. Cells that experience stress, such as DNA
D. M phase damage, and do not pass certain internal
780. The time from the beginning of one cell di- checkpoints can go through programmed
vision to the beginning of the next is the cell death. This is called
A. Cell cycle A. Reduction division
B. Mitosis B. Apoptosis
C. Meiosis C. Homologous chromosomes
D. None of these D. Mitosis
781. A cancer causing agent is best known as 786. Which phase during interphase does
a(n) this happen?Organelles replicate and
molecules needed for cell division are pro-
A. carcinogen
duced; the shortest phase of interphase.
B. mutation
A. G2 Phase
C. inheritance
B. G1 Phase
D. metastasis
C. S Phase
782. Tell whether the given event in cell divi- D. Cytokinesis
only, or Both.Two consecutive nuclear divi- 787. The series of events take place in a eu-
sion karyotic cell between cell divisions
A. Mitosis A. Cell Life

B. Cell Cycle 793. A chromosome has two homologous

parts held together by a centromere.
C. Mitosis
What are those two parts?
D. Cytokinesis
788. Trisomy 21 is also known as B. sister cells
A. Turner Syndrome C. daughter cells
B. Patau Syndrome D. daughter chromatids
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Down Syndrome 794. In telophase,
D. Edward Syndrome A. chromosomes cross over
B. DNA is synthesized
789. Which of the follwoing structures is most
complex? C. a membrane forms around the new nu-
clei
A. cell
D. a cell wall forms around the new nuclei
B. organ system
795. In eukaryotic cells, DNA is separated into
C. organ
linear pieces called
D. tissue
A. Chromosomes
790. In what stage does the nuclear membrane B. Chromotids
start to disappear? C. Chromotins
A. Metaphase D. Sister Chromotids
B. Prophase
796. During interphase to prepare for mitosis,
C. Anaphase a cell grows, duplicates organelles, and
D. Telophase
A. copies DNA
791. In which part of the cell cycle does the
B. divides the nucleus
cytoplasm divide?
C. divides the cytoplasm
A. Interphase
D. produces a new cell
B. Nuclear Division
797. More complex organisms reproduce this
C. Cytokinesis
way . . .
D. S-Phase
A. Sexually
792. In most animals, a cell will contain the fol- B. Asexually
lowing number of chromosomes after mito- C. Both
sis:
D. none of above
A. n
798. During this phase of the cell cycle, the cell
B. 2n
membrane, cytoplasm and organelles split
C. 4n and 2 new daughter cells are formed.
D. 8n A. Metaphase

B. Anaphase 804. Cells of organism make mitosis for?

C. Telephase A. growth

D. Cytokinesis B. repair of damaged tissue
799. Most cells grow in a single layer and
stop growing when they touch each other. D. All of the above
What types of cells continue growing? 805. Which phase does the preparation for mi-
A. cancer cells tosis take place?
B. animal cells A. G1
C. plant cells B. G2
D. skin cells C. S
D. M
800. Throughout the years, research per-
formed using HeLa cells made advances 806. During this phase the two copied
against genomes get separated properly.
A. polio. A. G1 or Growth Phase 1
B. cancer. B. G2 or Growth Phase 2

C. Mitosis Phase
C. tuberculosis.
D. Cytokinesis Phase
D. all of these.
807. In meiosis, the haploid number of chromo-
801. Which of these is in the correct order? somes in a human sex cell is:
A. S; G1; G2; M A. 46
B. G1; S; G2; M B. 92
C. M; G2; S; G1 C. 22
D. G2; S; M; G2 D. 23
802. The process in which the cell cytoplasm is 808. DNA replication is described as a pro-
divided to form 2 daughter cells is known cess
as A. Conservative
A. mitosis B. Semi-conservative
B. cytokinesis C. Hemi-conservative
C. synthesis D. Anti-conservative
D. fertiliztion 809. After fertilization, the zygote contains
28 chromosomes. What is the haploid
803. What is the end product of cytokinesis number?
A. 2 identical daughter cells A. 28
B. 2 genetically unique daughter cells B. 14
C. 4 identical daughter cells C. 56
D. 4 genetically unique daughter cells D. 46

810. What is the end product of Mitosis? 815. In plant cells, what forms in telophase
that aids cell division?
A. One daughter cell
A. cell wall
B. Two identical daughter cells
B. centrioles
C. Two different daughter cells
C. large vacuoles
D. Three identical daughter cells
D. cell plate
811. The stages of cell division called 816. What is an tumor suppressor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and
A. A mutated gene that promotes uncon-
telophase occur during which stage of the
trolled cell division
cell cycle shown in the diagram above?
B. A gene that normally suppresses the
A. G1 cell cycle
B. S C. A gene that regulates mitosis
C. G2 D. none of above
D. M 817. The process by which cells become spe-
cialized is known as?
812. During which phase does the nuclear
membrane disappears, centrosomes disap- A. stem cell research
pear, and the spindle apparatus forms? B. embryonic development
A. interphase C. totipotent cell strucutre
B. prophase D. cell differentiation
C. metaphase 818. How is DNA damage triggered in apopto-

sis?
D. anaphase
A. Through other caspases
813. In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell B. Through anti-apoptotic factors
cycle is controlled by internal regulators
C. Through BCL-2
called
D. Through CAD
A. Centrioles
819. Which phase might be for a cancerous cell
B. Spindle fibers
to undergo apoptosis?
C. Cyclins A. G1
D. The nuclear envelope B. G2
814. Corn (Zea mays) has 20 chromosomes. C. G0
How many chromosomes will each daugh- D. S
ter cell have after mitosis and cytokinesis
820. Replicated or duplicated Chromosomes
occurs?
are made up of two identical sister
A. 5 chromosomes A. chloroplasts
B. 10 chromosomes B. nuclei
C. 20 chromosomes C. chromatids
D. 30 chromosomes D. gens

821. What is the role of protein kinases? 826. Which term below means “cancer cells
can travel/spread to other parts of the
A. remove phosphate groups to deacti-
body?”

vate enzymes
A. angiostasis
B. trigger apoptosis
B. angiostatin
C. add phosphate groups and energy to
C. metastasize
activate enzymes
D. tumor
D. stop the cell cycle
827. mitosis results in the formation of two
822. A fertilized egg is called daughter cells
A. Hereditary A. energy
B. Genes B. cytokinesis
C. fermentation
C. Mitosis
D. A and B
D. Zygote
828. After S phase
823. Which of the following is the shortest A. the cell has duplicated its organelles
phase of mitosis in which the chromosome
B. the cell has divided
line up in the middle of the cell and the
spindle fibers connect to the centromere? C. the cell has duplicated its DNA
A. prophase D. the cell has created two egg cells
B. metaphase 829. Which organelle is critical for cell divi-

sion?
C. telophase
A. Centrioles/Centrosomes
D. anaphase
B. Cilia
824. Which of the following occurs during mi- C. Vacuoles
totic anaphase? D. Vesicles
A. centromeres of each chromatid divide 830. If a cancerous tumor has spread by en-
tering the circulatory or lymphatic systems
B. sister chromatids separate and establishing itself elsewhere in the
body it can be referred to as:
C. daughter chromosmes begin to move
towards opposite poles of the cell A. Metastatic
B. Invasive
D. all of the above
C. In situ
825. The division of the cytoplasm is called cy- D. Benign
tokinesis. When does cytokinesis occur?
831. The nuclear membrane dissolves during
A. After the synthesis phase
A. Prophase
B. After interphase B. Metaphase
C. After telophase C. Anaphase
D. After anaphase D. Telophase

832. Why are stem cells important? 837. A sperm fertilizes an egg in the fallopian
tube of the female reproductive system,
A. They have specialized DNA
each containing 23 chromosomes. How
B. They are incapable of becoming cancer many chromosomes are in the resulting zy-
cells gote?
C. They have the potential to undergo cell A. 23
division
B. 46
D. They have the potential to develop into
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 12
other cell types
D. 92
833. A parent cell has 10 chromosomes. If one
daughter cells after mitosis has 9 single 838. Cells that work together to perform the
chromosomes and the other has 9 single same function
chromosomes and 1 double chromosome A. organs
when did the error occur? B. tissues
A. prophase C. organ system
B. metaphase D. cancer
C. anaphase
839. Which therapy can be used to treat
D. telophase cystic fibrosis, Parkinson’s disease, ALS,
Alzheimer’s Disease, hemophilia, and cer-
834. What is programmed cell death called? tain cancers?
A. obstruction A. cryotherapy
B. bad mojo B. hormone therapy
C. apoptosis C. chemotherapy
D. synthesis D. gene therapy
835. Which is NOT a characteristic of a cancer 840. What phase shows the chromosomes
cell? lined up in the middle?
A. active telomerase A. Prophase
B. telomeres that can lengthen B. Metaphase
C. responds to an apoptotic signal C. Anaphase
D. cannot respond to an apoptotic signal D. Telophase
836. This develops in the middle of a plant cell 841. Which is of the following is not an exam-
separating it into two daughter cells dur- ple of cell differentiation?
ing cytokinesis A. Stem cells from bone marrow develop
into blood cells
A. cell wall
B. Bone marrow cells are used to repair
B. cell plate
damage to heart tissue
C. cell membrane
C. a leaf cell divides as a plant leaf grows
D. cytoplasm

D. A fertilized egg develops limbs and a C. Both

hand D. none of above

842. The spread of cancer from one part of the
848. Activities or choices that will affect your
body to another.
health.
A. mortality
A. lifestyle factors
B. malignant
B. biogenetics
C. metatasis
C. healthy choices
D. morbidity
D. habits
843. Mitosis is the process by which
A. Cells get bigger 849. Substances known to promote cancer are
called
B. Cells get smaller
A. nucleotides
C. Body cells divide into two
B. growth factors
D. Cells die
C. carcinogens
844. When a cell is not actively dividing, it is
D. malignant
in what phase?
A. interphase 850. Which of the following is NOT a role of
B. anaphase the tumor suppressor gene?
C. prophase A. Inhibiting the cell cycle

D. telophase B. Stimulating repair of damaged DNA
C. Promoting cell adhesion
845. Which substances must reach their peak
before a cell can complete mitosis? D. Promoting angiogenesis
A. cyclins and MPF 851. which statement correctly describes ho-
B. cyclins only mologous chromosomes?
C. MPF only A. they are form during meoisis
D. Cdk’s and MPF B. they are held together by centromeres
846. Cell division is also known as
C. they are identical
A. interphase
B. meiosis D. they carry the same genetic informa-
tion
C. mitosis
D. replication 852. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of mitosis?
A. Growth
only, or Both.Crossing-over B. Repai of damaged cells
A. Mitosis C. Replacement of dead cells
B. Meiosis D. Reproducing

853. Medical research involving stem cells is 858. is the ability of a tumor to attract
important for new blood vessels which deliver nutrients
A. To test the effectiveness of new drugs and oxygen.
A. Metastasis
B. The generation of cells and tissues B. Carcinogenesis
that can be used in cell based therapies C. Angiogenesis
D. Tumor suppression
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. To understand the consequences of
turning genes off and on 859. The type(s) of cells that NEVER divide
D. All of the above and stay in Go of interphase are
A. a. blood
854. Growing from one single cell to trillions
of specialized cells that perform different B. b. skin
functions is a process that is regulated by: C. c. nerve
A. DNA D. both a & c
B. mitochondria 860. The body cells of a horse contain 64 chro-
C. ATP mosomes. How many chromosomes would
D. carbohydrates be present in cells produced through meio-
sis?
855. Cells that can no longer divide are in: A. 64 chromosomes
A. S phase B. 32 chromosomes
B. Go phase C. 63 chromosomes
C. Metaphse D. 128 chromosomes
D. G1 phase
861. How many chromosomes are found in a
856. Tell whether the given event in cell divi- human adult egg cell?
sion happens during Mitosis only, Meiosis A. 23
only, or Both.Alignment of chromosomes
during metaphase B. 46
A. Mitosis C. 23 pairs
B. Meiosis D. 46 pairs
C. Both 862. Mitosis involves which type of cells?

D. none of above A. Sex Cells
857. Whenever the cell cycle malfunctions and B. Bacteria

the checkpoints cannot control the cells, C. Prokaryotes
can develop. D. Body or Somatic Cells
A. covid
863. The amount of time to complete the cell
B. cancer cycle of a cancer cell is than a normal
C. cure cell.
D. corona A. longer

B. shorter 869. Which of the following statements is NOT

C. the same a characteristic of cancer cells?

D. none of above A. Uncontrolled growth
B. Disorganized cell layers
864. The sequence of growth and division of a
cell C. Normal nuclei
A. cell cycle D. Do not undergo cellular death (or apop-
tosis)
B. mitosis
C. anaphase 870. A stage of cancer where cell divides more
rapidly.
D. cancer
A. mutation
865. Plants have rapid cell division within
their meristematic tissue, such as is found B. dysplasia
at the root tips. What kind of cell division C. hyperplasia
allows a plant to grow?
D. In situ
A. Binary fission
B. Mitosis 871. When cancer spreads to other parts of
the body, it’s called
C. Meiosis
A. Metastasis
D. Replication
B. Benign
866. What is the symbol or abbreviation for
C. Apoptosis
diploid?
D. None of these
A. 1N
B. 2N 872. The cell cycle control system
C. 3N A. indicates that cells must be attached
D. 4N to their neighboring cells in order to divide
properly
867. Which is not a phase of mitosis? B. indicates that cells stop dividing when
A. prophase they touch other cells
B. metaphase C. is influenced by growth factors that
C. anaphase bind to cell receptors
D. cytokinesis D. all of the above
868. What type of cancer is a female patient 873. the process of nuclear division in eu-
predisposed to if she has already been di- karyotic cells, divided into prophase,
agnosed with HPV? metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
A. Breast A. interphase
B. Ovarian B. mitosis
C. uterine C. chromatin
D. Cervical D. cell cycle

874. For each of the following state if the cell 880. Eukaryotic chromomes are made up of
is haploid or diploid.a. Sperm cell = b. A. centromeres
nerve cell = c. Egg cell = d. stomach cell =
B. chromatin
A. haploid, diploid, diploid, diploid
C. chromatids
B. diploid, haploid, haploid, diploid
D. centrioles
C. diploid, haploid, diploid, haploid
881. Chromosomes carry identical sets of
D. haploid, diploid, haploid, diploid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
what in their sister chromatids?
875. How many cell divisions are in Meiosis? A. proteins
A. one B. carbon molecules
B. two C. genetic information
C. four D. phospholipids
D. eight 882. In which stage of the Cell Cycle is a DNA-
876. Which phrase best describes cancer? replicating enzyme used?
A. absence of cyclins A. Resting
B. multiple gene mutation B. Synthesis

C. Reproducing
C. uncontrolled cell growth
D. Growing
D. presence of genetic defects
883. What will happen to the cell if cytokinesis
877. The sequence of events in which cells go
does not take place?
through to grow and divide is known
A. One cell without a nucleus will be pro-
A. active transport
duced.
B. Two cells without a nucleus will be pro-
C. cell cycle duced.
D. chemotherapy C. One cell with two identical nuclei will
be produced.
878. What does not happen during interphase
D. Two cells with one nucleus each will be
A. cell grows produced.
B. cell makes a copy of its DNA
884. During which phase of the cell cycle is
C. The cell prepared to divide DNA copied?
D. The cell divides A. Interphase
879. When do cells undergoing mitosis become B. Prophase
haploid? C. Anaphase
A. After Metaphase D. Cytokinesis
B. After Cytokinesis 885. The cell cycle is most often represented
C. After Telophase as a chart
D. They are always diploid A. data

B. t 891. Cancer-associated mutations change

key:
C. pie

A. Cardiac functions
D. p
B. muscular functions
886. What type of biopsy removes the entire C. cellular functions
lesion?
D. neurological functions
A. aspiration
892. Loose DNA is referred to as The DNA
B. internal
is in this form during
C. excision A. chromatin; interphase
D. incision B. chromatin; prophase
887. Which DNA structure provides a set of in- C. chromosomes; interphase
structions for a cell to make specific pro- D. chromosomes; metaphase
teins?
893. Cells make copies of themselves to re-
A. cell place cells.
B. nucleus A. unhappy
C. gene B. damaged
D. ribosome C. smelly
D. fake
888. Substances known to produce or promote
cancer are called 894. Cancer tumors result from
A. Kinases A. rapid cell division
B. Carcinogens B. rapid DNA replication
C. Cyclins C. slow cell division
D. Malignancies D. long interphase
889. The basic unit of life is called a 895. is a process of recognizing defective
cells, letting them die, and replacing with
A. atom normal cells.
B. compound A. Mitosis
C. cell B. Apoptosis
D. energy C. Interphase
D. Metaphase
890. During which phase does the cytoplasm
divide into two identical cells? 896. Which level of organization is repre-
A. mitosis sented by a group of different tissues
working together to perform a complex
B. metaphase function?
C. interphase A. Cell
D. cytokinesis B. Tissue

C. Organ 902. Which type of cancer amounts for the

highest number of deaths each year>
D. Organism
A. breast
897. The sex chromosomes of a male are
B. lung
A. XX C. colorectal
B. XY D. prostate
C. YY
NARAYAN CHANGDER
903. A group of diseases involving abnormal
D. VV cell growth that might spread to other
parts of the body
898. Meiosis produces four cells with how
many chromosomes in them? A. cancer
A. 46 B. mutagen
C. mutation
B. 41
D. primary tumor
C. 38
D. 23 904. If the diploid number of chromosomes in
carrots is 18, the haploid number is
899. Humans have 46 chromosomes. After A. 18
both meiosis divisions, how many chro-
matids does each daughter cell have? B. 9
A. 23 C. 27
B. 46 D. 36
C. 92 905. Which of the following types of pro-

tein could be coded by a tumor-suppressor
D. Impossible to know
gene?
900. During this cell cycle checkpoint the cell A. A protein that forms part of a growth
checks that it has grown big enough to di- factor signalling pathway.
vide again. B. A protein that helps prevent apoptosis.
A. G1 or Growth Phase 1
B. G2 or Growth Phase 2 C. A protein that controls the movement
through the cell cycle.
C. Mitosis Phase
D. none of above
D. Cytokinesis
906. What phase is a cell in if the chromo-
901. A human egg cell should have chromosomes are moving away to opposite ends
somes inside. of the cell?
A. 46 A. Anaphase
B. 23 B. Metaphase
C. 92 C. Prophase
D. 64 D. Telophase

907. as mitosis begins, a condensed chromo- 912. Gardasil is a vaccine that can treat what
some consists of two viral infection that has been linked to cer-
vical cancer?

A. centromeres
A. AIDS
B. centrioles
B. malaria
C. chromatins
C. SARS
D. chromatids
D. human papilloma virus (HPV)
908. Which cell replication process allows in-
913. Why is using umbilical cord blood benefi-
dividuals to be different from their par-
cial?
ents?
A. non-invasive
A. mitosis
B. can be stored & used later
B. cytokinesis
C. contains stem cells
C. meiosis
D. all of the above
D. interphase
914. Which of these organisms relies on mito-
909. Chromosomes that are paired together sis for reproduction?
because they are similar in size, shape,
A. grumpy cat
and the genes they carry are called:
B. angry bird
A. equal chromosomes
C. unicellular paramecium
B. homologous chromosomes
D. squishy jellyfish
C. equivalent chromosomes
915. If there are 16 chromosomes in the egg
D. ambiguous chromosomes
cells of an organism, how many chromo-
910. Which lifestyle factor is the best way to somes would be found in its muscle cells?
prevent most forms of skin cancer? A. 16
A. not smoking B. 32
B. avoiding sun exposure during peak C. 8
hours D. 64
C. exercising regularly
916. What are stem cells?
D. eating healthy and nutritious foods
A. Specialised cells.
911. What process occurs in BOTH mitosis and B. Unspecialised cells.
meiosis C. Blood.
A. crossovers in prophase I D. none of above
B. separation of sister chromatids
917. What’s the difference between a stem
C. anaphase II cell and a differentiated cell?
D. division of two genetically identical nu- A. Stem cells don’t have a function
clei whereas differentiated cells do.

B. Stem cells grow in animal cells C. spindle

whereas differentiated cells grow in a
D. tissues
swamp.
C. Stem cells cure cancer whereas differ- 923. Most human cells contain two copies of
entiated cells cure AIDS. each gene. These copies are called?
D. none of above A. Phenotypes
918. What are two purposes of the cell cycle? B. Alleles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Cell Death and Cell Division C. DNA
B. Cell Growth and Repair D. telomeres
C. Cell Growth and Cell Death
924. During , the nuclear envelope breaks
D. Cell Division and Apoptosis
down
919. Longest stage of mitosis. The centro- A. prohase
somes are now at opposite ends of the
cells. the chromosomes convene on the B. metaphase
equatorial plate. What phase is this? C. telophase
A. Telophase D. interphase
B. Anaphase
925. Which of the following can lead to uncon-
C. Prophase
trolled cell growth (cancer)?
D. Metaphase
A. Proto-oncogene
920. What is the role of P53 B. Oncogene
A. To stimulate continues cell prolifera-
C. Tumor suppressor gene
tion (mitosis)
B. To assist the process of angiogenesis D. DNA repair system
C. To suppress the division of abnormal 926. The entire sequence of growth and divi-
cells sion of a cell
D. To assist the tumor cells in metastasis A. cell cycle
921. What happens during the S phase of In- B. mitosis
terphase?
C. anaphase
A. Cells divide
D. cancer
B. Cells grow and make protein
C. Cells copy their DNA 927. What kind of cells are made during mito-
sis called?
D. Cells Die
A. Somatic
922. the two halves of the doubled chromo-
some structure B. Gametes
A. centromeres C. Haploid
B. sister chromatids D. None of the above

928. What is a mutation? B. radiation therapy

A. A mistake in DNA which can lead to C. cancer surgery

cancer D. mitotic spindling
B. A complete copy of DNA
934. The process where cells become special-
C. A change in DNA which doesn’t cause ized for a specific structure or function
an issue during multicellular development is called
D. A mistake in your body that is caught what?
and removed A. meiosis
929. What system in the human body can rec- B. apoptosis
ognize foreign cells like cancer cells? C. cell differentiation
A. digestive system D. cell growth
B. immune system
935. Cell division allow organisms to do every-
C. nervous system thing except
D. urinary system A. repair
930. Which of the following DOESN’T increase B. evolve
genetic variation? C. grow
A. Sexual Reproduction D. reproduce
B. Mitosis
936. The diploid number of chromosomes of a
C. Meiosis dog is 28. During Meiosis I, one of the ho-
D. Independent Assortment mologous chromosome pairs does not sep-
arate. How many chromosomes are there
931. Which of the following normally results in one of the gametes?
from meiosis in a human cell that contains
A. 13
46 chromosomes?
B. 14
A. an egg cell with 46 chromosomes
C. 27
B. a liver cell with 23 chromosomes
D. 28
C. a sperm cell with 23 chromosomes
D. a blood cell with 46 chromosomes 937. Cancer affects
A. humans only.
932. Unicellular organisms (prokaryotes) use
mitosis for: B. unicellular organisms only
A. cellular repair C. multicellular organisms only
B. cellular growth D. multicellular and unicellular organ-
isms.
C. development
D. asexual reproduction 938. A scientist specializing in biomedical re-
search for cancer may analyze which cellu-
933. Using drugs or medicines to destroy can- lar component when studying the life cycle
cer cells. of a cell?
A. chemotherapy A. Cell membrane

B. cytoplasm 944. daughter cells produced asexually are

C. genes A. identical to each other
D. ribosome B. identical to parent cell
C. different from each other
939. the two copies of each gene contained in
the cells are called D. identical to each other and parent cell
A. chromosomes 945. During what phase of meiosis does cross-

ing over occur?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. alleles
A. prophase I
C. genotypes
B. metaphase I
D. telomeres
C. prophase II
940. What disease may be the result of ge- D. telophase II
netic changes over a long periods of time?
946. Cancer cells have mutations that
A. Hemophilia
A. allow unregulated cell growth
B. Cancer
B. turn off programmed cell death
C. Hepatitis
C. Both
D. Lupus
D. none of above
941. What happens to the amount of DNA in 947. What happens in cancer cells?
the S phase of Interphase?
A. The DNA mutates and is passed along
A. Amount of DNA decreases to the daughter cells. Division happens
B. Amount of DNA doubles rapidly and cancer spreads.
C. Amount of DNA x4 B. The daughter cells do not divide
D. Amount of DNA stays the same C. The parent cell does not divide
D. One daughter cell is bigger than the
942. If a cell has 8 chromosomes, how many other daughter cell
chromosomes will each of its daughter
cells have after mitosis? 948. chart that shows all possible allele com-
binations for a genetic cross
A. 4
A. Punnett Square
B. 6
B. trait chart
C. 8
C. family tree
D. 16
D. pedigree
943. A cell’s location within the helps de- 949. What is a difference between normal and
termine how it will differentiate cancerous cells?
A. embryo A. cancerous cells do not stick together
B. phase B. cancerous cells cannot do mitosis
C. heart C. cancerous cells can specialize
D. brain D. cancerous cells obey signals

950. How do you protect yourself from skin C. Nixon

cancer?
D. Clinton

A. Sunscreen in summer when it is sunny
956. All organisms start life as ?
B. Sunscreen daily A. a developed embryo
C. Sunscreen in summer
B. a blastocyst
D. Sunscreen daily and no tanning beds
C. one cell
951. Cells go through mitosis
D. pluripotent cells
A. so an organism can grow
B. so parts of an organism can heal after 957. Stem cell research is controversial be-
injury cause in involves?
C. so an organism can maintain home- A. social issues
ostasis
B. ethical issues
D. all of these
C. educational issues
952. A duplication process of cells
D. economical issues
A. mitosis
B. metaphase 958. During , DNA is coiled up into individ-
ual with the help of histone proteins.
C. telophase
D. prophase A. interphase; chromatin
953. During which stage of cell division do sis- B. interphase; chromosomes

ter chromatids line up along the center of C. prophase; chromatin
the cell?
D. prophase; chromosomes
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase 959. The process of cancer cells spreading from
C. Anaphase one body area to another
D. Telophase A. mitosis
954. Which of the following is NOT genetically B. benign

programmed? C. metastasis
A. Glycolysis D. tumor
B. Lipolysis
C. Necrosis 960. Stage of the cell cycle in which the cell’s
nuclear material divides and separates
D. Apoptosis
A. G1
955. which president declared “war on cancer”
in 1971 B. Synthesis
A. Trump C. G2
B. Obama D. Mitosis

961. The phase of mitosis during which the nu- C. 2 genetically different cells
clear envelope fragments and the nucleoli D. 4 genetically different cells
disappear is called
A. interphase 967. Which therapy may be use to treat cystic
fibrosis, Parkinson’s disease, amyotrophic
B. prophase lateral sclerosis (ALS), Alzheimer’s dis-
C. metaphase ease, hemophilia, and certain cancers?
D. telophase A. cryotherapy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
962. A chromosome is packaged B. hormone therapy
A. DNA C. chemotherapy
B. Protein D. gene therapy
C. Carbohydrates 968. At what stage do cells spend most of

D. Lipids their time in?
A. Cytokinesis
963. The chromosomes that pair up during
meiosis, are called chromosomes. B. Mitosis
A. homozygous C. Interphase
B. asexual D. Prophase
C. homologous 969. Which of the following best describes can-

D. heterozygous cer?
A. absence of cyclins in the DNA
964. Which of the following distinguishes
prophase 1 of meiosis from prophase of B. Multiple gene mutations on a chromo-
mitosis? some of DNA
A. Spindle forms C. Uncontrolled cell growth caused by

mutations in genes that control the cell cy-
B. Chromosomes become visible cle.
C. Nuclear membrane breaks down D. Presence of genetic defects caused by
D. Pairing of homologous chromosomes hereditary disorders.
965. Chemotherapy treatments have a side ef- 970. In an animal cell, cytokinesis involves
fect of hair loss because chemotherapy: of the cell membrane before the 2 cells di-
A. affects only hair follicles vide
B. kills all dividing cells, such as hair folli- A. disintegration

cles B. disappearance
C. affects only the scalp C. pinching off
D. kills only skin cells D. cell plate
966. Products formed at the end of meiosis 971. Cells divide for three important reasons:1
are, 2.Repair3.Reproduction
A. 2 genetically identical cells A. growth
B. 4 genetically identical cells B. happiness

C. wealth 977. When a cell is not dividing, and even as it

D. respiration duplicates the DNA in preparation for cell
division, each chromosome is in the form a

972. Cells come from cells. of along thin fiber
A. molecular A. chromosome
B. pre-existing B. sister chromatid
C. dead C. chromatin
D. multiple D. none of above
973. What type of cells does chemotherapy 978. Which term below means “new blood
target? vessel growth?”
A. Only cancer cells A. angiostasis
B. All rapidly dividing cells B. angiostatin
C. All cells with a mutation C. metastasize
D. All cells with a oncogene D. tumor
974. If you started with 12 chromosomes in 979. During which phase of mitosis do the
the nucleus of a plant cell and it went chromosomes line up on a plane lo-
through meiosis, how many chromosomes cated equal distance from the two spindle
would each sperm in a pollen grain con- poles?
tain? A. interphase
A. 12 B. prophase
B. 6 C. metaphase
C. 24 D. anaphase
D. 20
980. During which stage of interphase does
975. the point at which crossing over has the cell double in size and produce a sec-
taken place between homologous chromo- ond set of cell organelles, and carry out
some is called normal cell functions?
A. centriole A. G1
B. chiasma B. S
C. centromere C. G2
D. metaphase plate D. All 3 stages
976. the passing of traits from parents to off- 981. What best causes genetic variation in
spring meiosis?
A. heredity A. chromosomes lining up
B. genetics B. crossing over of chromosomes
C. mutation C. separation of chromosomes
D. hybrid D. chromosomes pulling apart

982. During what stage does the G1 check- B. 46

point happen? C. 92
A. G2 phase D. Impossible to know
B. S phase
988. What enzyme do some cells have that can
C. M phase increase the length of telomeres?
D. G1 phase A. DNA polymerase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
983. In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell B. RNA polymerase
grows bigger. C. DNase
A. G1 D. telomerase
B. S
989. The method of reproduction used by
C. G2 prokaryotic organisms (bacteria), in which
D. mitosis/cytokinesis the organism divides into two genetically
identical organisms is called
984. The first stage of the cell cycle during
which the cell matures and prepares to di- A. conjugation
vide and copies its DNA B. meiosis
A. interphase C. sexual reproduction
B. prophase D. binary fission
C. metaphase 990. What phase shows the chromosomes sep-
D. anaphase arating?
985. During which stage of interphase does A. Prophase

the cell form the special structures that B. Metaphase
will be needed for division? C. Anaphase
A. G1 D. Telophase
B. S
991. MPF is a dimer consisting of
C. G2
A. a growth factor and mitotic factor
D. All 3 stages
B. ATP synthase and a protease
986. In the normal cellular processes, which C. cyclin and a tubulin
genes inhibit cell division?
D. cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase
A. mutant genes
B. oncogenes 992. What are the phases in order of the cell
cycle?
C. proto-oncogenes
A. Interphase, Prophase, Metaphase,
D. tumor-suppressant genes Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis
987. Humans have 46 chromosomes. During B. Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase, Cy-
prophase, how many chromatids does the tokinesis
cell have? C. Interphase, Mitosis, Telophase,
A. 23 Anaphase

D. Cytokinesis, Interphase, Metaphase, 998. The division of the nucleus is and the
Telophase division of the cell membrane/cytoplasm
is

993. this therapy may be effective in treat-
A. mitosis and meiosis
ing many diseases including cystic fibrosis,
ALS, hemophilia and certain cancers B. mitosis and cytokinesis
A. gene therapy C. cytokinesis and mitosis
D. meiosis and mitosis
B. hormone therapy
C. heat therapy 999. Taking samples from the body for clues
that might indicate certain diseases.
D. radiation therapy
A. pathology
994. In what stage do chromosomes align in B. oncoloy
the center of the cell?
C. radiology
A. prophase D. genealogy
B. metaphase
1000. Stem cells can be obtained from
C. anaphase
A. embryos
D. telophase B. some adult tissues
995. The phase of mitosis during which the nu- C. umbilical cord blood
clear envelope fragments and the nucleoli D. all of the above
disappear completely is called-
1001. One difference between a cancer cell
A. interphase and a normal cell is that
B. anaphase A. Cancer cells divide uncontrollably
C. metaphase B. Normal cells divide uncontrollably
D. telophase C. Cancer cells cannot make copies of
DNA
996. A diploid cell
D. Normal cells cannot make copies of
A. has 2 sets of chromosomes DNA
B. has more than two sets of chromo- 1002. The cells produced in M phase enter
somes
A. G1
C. has half the number of original chromo-
B. S
somes
C. G2
D. cannot undergo meiosis
D. G0
997. What type of reproduction due unicellular
1003. The cell cycle generally takes about
organisms go through?
hours to complete.
A. asexual A. 12
B. sexual B. 24
C. unisexual C. 36

5.3 Meiosis 704
1004. Where is DNA located in the cell? D. half your chromosomes from your
A. golgi body mother and half from your father.
B. lysosomes 1009. The time between cell divisions in the
C. Nucleus life cycle of the cell is called, the resting
D. Mitochondria phase
A. anaphase
1005. Meiosis makes cells with the origi-
nal number of chromosomes. B. interphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Half C. prophase
B. Twice D. metaphase
C. Same
1010. When a cell undergoing mitosis is
D. none of above viewed under the microscope, the chromo-
1006. A tumor that has spread somes are being pulled to opposite sides
of the cell. What phase is it in?
A. benign tumor
A. Prophase
B. malignant tumor
C. radiation B. Metaphase
D. peanut butter C. Anaphase

D. Telophase
1007. Sarah inherits a new mutation from her
mother. During which stage of cell division
1011. Meiosis results in
did the mutation likely occur?
A. two unique daughter cells
A. Prophase of Mitosis
B. Prophase 1 of Meiosis B. four identical daughter cells
C. Telophase of Mitosis C. two identical daughter cells
D. Cytokinesis of Meiosis 1 D. four unique daughter cells
1008. How are your chromosomes inherited? 1012. A cell having a diploid number of 10 has
A. most of your chromosomes from your a haploid number of,
mother A. 5
B. most of your chromosomes from your
B. 10
father
C. 2
C. a random number of chromosomes
from each parent D. 20
5.3 Meiosis
1. The nucleus during prophase I. C. become visible
A. beomes dark D. is reversed
B. dissappears 2. A cell contains half the usual number

5.3 Meiosis 705
of chromosomes. 8. Gametes include ALL of the following EX-

A. dipolid CEPT
A. sperm cells

B. haploid
B. egg cells
C. homologous
C. haploid cells
D. meiosis
D. body cells
3. Sperm and egg cells are an example of
what? 9. In what type of organs are the cells that
enter Meiosis I found?
A. gametes
A. Liver
B. chromosomes
B. Sex organs (ovaries and testes)
C. meiosis
C. Heart
D. stages D. Pancreas
4. One of the possible products of meiosis is 10. Chromosome that are the same size and
have the same genes are called
A. osteocystes A. Homologous
B. separated sister chromatids B. Homologous Chromosomes
C. sperm C. Hetrologous Chromosomes
D. lymphocytes D. Sister Pair
5. How many gametes are produced during 11. A human zygote should have chromo-
meiosis? somes.
A. 10 A. 12
B. 6 B. 23
C. 4 C. 46
D. 2 D. 92
6. Which phase of meiosis I is the step before 12. In meiosis, if the regular cell is 2n, what
cytokinesis? are the gametes going to be?
A. 2n
A. Prophase I
B. 4n
B. Metphase I
C. 1n
C. Anaphase I
D. 10n
D. Telophase I
13. What occurs during meiosis but not mito-
7. DURING WHICH PHASE OF MEIOSIS DOES sis?
GENETIC VARIATION INCREASE
A. Spindles are formed from micro-
A. PROPHASE II tubules.
B. PROPHASE I B. Chromosome number is conserved.
C. ANAPHASE I C. Homologous chromosomes pair up.
D. ANAPHASE II D. Centromeres split.

5.3 Meiosis 706
14. Independent assortment contributes to ge- C. 100%short

netic diversity. When does independent D. none of above
assortment occur?
A. Prophase I 20. Cells that have only one chromosome from
each pair
B. Metaphase I
A. meiosis
C. Anaphase I
B. haploid
D. Prophase II
C. homologous
NARAYAN CHANGDER
15. The union of egg and sperm to form a new D. diploid
offspring is
21. During which actions can an exchange of
A. zygote
genetic information occur during meiosis,
B. fertilization rather than during mitosis?
C. homologous pairing A. assortment and alignment
D. meiosis B. alignments and crossing over
16. NORMAL HUMANS HAVE 46 CHROMO- C. crossing over and replication
SOMES, HOW MANY WILL THE GERM D. assortment and crossing over
CELLS HAVE AFTER MEIOSIS?
22. In Meiosis, we start with 1 parent cell and
A. 46 end up producing daughter cells (either
B. 23 sperm or egg)
C. 12 A. 1
D. 92 B. 2
17. Homologous chromosomes start to sepa- C. 3

rate to opposite sides of the cell. Chro- D. 4
matids remain attached.
23. Which is a characteristic of the pairs of sis-
A. Anaphase l ter chromatids that are visible during meio-
B. Prophase l sis?
C. Telophase ll A. They result from the replication of DNA
before meiosis.
D. Interphase
B. They are only present in meiosis I.
18. Mitosis is the process of making
C. They split apart during metaphase I in
A. body cells meiosis.
B. sex cells (sperm and egg) D. They are only present in meiosis II.
C. Blood cells
24. In which phase do the sister chromatids
D. none of above split apart?
19. Two heterozygous (Tt)tall pea plants are A. Anaphase
crossed. Which describes their offspring? B. Metaphase
A. 50% tall and 50% short C. Prophase
B. 75%tall and 25% short D. Interphase

5.3 Meiosis 707
25. is when DNA copies itself and occurs 30. In the picture above, a small, aquatic ani-
during interphase mal called a hydra is reproducing. Which
term best describes the process shown in

A. replicates
the picture?
B. grows
A. budding
C. shrinks
B. binary fission
D. matches
C. sporulation
26. Mitosis produces how many daughter D. fertilization
cells?
31. Which process initiates the passage of half
A. 6 of a parent’s DNA to offspring?
B. 4 A. meiosis
C. 8 B. mitosis
D. 2 C. fertilization
27. The human X and Y chromosomes D. differentation
A. are both present in every somatic cell 32. How many stages are in Meiosis?
of males and females alike.
A. 2
B. are of approximately equal size and
B. 8
number of genes.
C. 4
C. are almost entirely homologous, de-
spite their different names. D. 23
D. include genes that determine an indi- 33. The purpose of Meiosis includes
vidual’s sex.
A. cloning
28. What happens to the sister chromatids in B. genetic diversity
meiosis II? C. 2 cells
A. They duplicate D. diploid cells
B. They are divided
34. In which phase of meiosis do two cells di-
C. They are not present vide to make 4?
D. They remain together A. Telophase II/Cytokinesis
29. . If an organism has an N number of 10 B. Anaphase II
chromosomes (haploid # of 10), how many C. Telophase I/Cytokinesis
chromosomes are in a somatic cell (body
D. Prophase II
cell) of this organism (what is the diploid
#)? 35. DNA is found where in the cell?
A. 20 A. Nucleus
B. 40 B. Vacuole
C. 5 C. Ribosome
D. 100 D. Mitochondria

5.3 Meiosis 708
36. During meiosis, how many times does a C. bottom

cell divide? D. opposite
A. 1
42. How many times in meiosis does the cell
B. 2 divide (cytokinesis)?
C. 4 A. 2
D. 6 B. 4
37. The concentrations of cyclins rise and fall C. 3
NARAYAN CHANGDER
in cells at certain times.What times are D. 1
these?
43. Heterozygous is when
A. Day and night
A. the alleles are the same
B. Seasons of the year
B. the alleles are different
C. Stages of mitosis and interphase
C. the alleles are absent
D. Developmental stages in the life cycle
D. the alleles are present
38. What is the chromosome number in a hu- 44. Diploid cells are represented by this abbre-
man gamete with non-disjunction? viation:
A. 46 A. 2n
B. 45 B. n
C. 24 C. 4n
D. 23 D. 1/2 n
39. When homologous chromosomes pair up 45. What is the name of the process in which
during meiosis, they form a structure call DNA (genetic information) is exchanged
a during meiosis?
A. triad A. crossing under
B. diploid B. crossing over
C. tetrad C. melding
D. quadrad D. blending
40. The process of mitosis can produce what 46. What determines gender in humans?
kind of cells? A. the X and Y chromosome
A. sex cells B. chromosome 21
B. gametes C. codominance
C. skin cells D. epistasis
D. homologous pairs of cells 47. Goes through P.M.A.T twice
41. During metaphase I the tetrads line up in A. Mitosis
the of the cell. B. Meiosis
A. middle C. Osmosis
B. end D. Transcription

5.3 Meiosis 709
48. What are the two divisions in Meiosis? 53. How many times in meiosis does the cell
divide?
A. I and II
A. 2

B. III
B. 4
C. IV and I
C. 3
D. I and III D. 1
49. What does an egg contribute to the em- 54. Meiosis occurs in the organs of which body
bryo that a sperm does not contribute? system?
A. polar bodies A. muscle
B. organelles B. nervous
C. circulatory
C. DNA
D. reproductive
D. germ cells
55. Which process that occurs during meiosis
50. What happens in Anaphase II contributes to a germ cell having unique
genetic material?
A. Sister chromatids sparate and move
toward opposite poles A. spindle formation
B. Chomosomes line up single file down B. transcription
the middle of the cell C. replication
C. Nuclei re-form D. crossing over
D. Tetrads split up and move toward op- 56. During this phase homologous chromo-
posite poles somes stick together in a process called
synapses:
51. How many cycles of Prophase, Metaphase, A. Interphase
Anaphase and Telophase occur in Meiosis?
B. Prophase I
A. 1 C. Prometaphase I
B. 2 D. Metaphase I
C. 3 57. What is the purpose of Meiosis II?
D. 4 A. To add 46 more chromosomes
B. To increase genetic diversity
52. is an early step in sexual reproduc-
tion in which chromosomes separate and C. To add 23 more chromosomes
randomly segregate during cell division to D. To create a gender
make gametes that have one chromosome
of each type. 58. After Interphases, Meiosis will begin. The
whole point of meiosis is to make
A. mitosis
A. DNA
B. meiosis B. gametes
C. metaphase C. chromosomes
D. prophase D. fried chicken

5.3 Meiosis 710
59. Includes the pairing up and crossing over 64. What happens between meiosis I and
of homologous chromosomes. meiosis II that reduces the number of chro-
mosomes?
A. Mitosis
A. Crossing-over occurs.
B. Meiosis
B. Metaphase occurs
C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis
C. Replication occurs twice.
D. none of above
D. Replication does not occur.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
60. What is the term used for the shuffling
of genetic information that is seen in 65. The type of cell division that is responsible
Prophase I? for the production of egg and sperm cells
is
A. Teleportation
A. meiosis
B. Translation
B. mitosis.
C. Mitosis
C. budding.
D. Crossing Over
D. binary fission
61. What forms when two different chro-
matids of the same homologous pair cross 66. Which of the following increases genetic
over? variation among the products of meiosis
by reshuffling genetic information among
A. Daughter centromere
the homologous chromosome pairs during
B. Chiasma prophase 1?
C. Chromosome mutation A. translocation
D. Telomere B. crossing over
62. During anaphase I separate while dur- C. synapsis

ing anaphase II separate. D. independent assortment
A. Spindle fibers / centrioles
67. Name this Phase of Meiosis-Chromatids
B. heterozygous alleles / homozygous al- separate
leles
A. Anaphase 1
C. homologous chromosomes / sister
B. Anaphase 2
chromatids
C. Metaphase 1
D. sister chromosomes / homologous
chromosomes D. Metaphase 2
63. Oogenesis typically results in the produc- 68. Meiosis makes variety by all the ways EX-
tion of CEPT
A. Three eggs and polar bodies A. crossing over of homologous pairs
B. One egg and three polar bodies B. separation of pairs
C. One diploid ovum C. independent assortment
D. Four sperm cells D. the creation of the sister chromatids

5.3 Meiosis 711
69. What type of cell is created by the process 75. Meiosis II must take place because each of
of meiosis? our new cells still has too much
A. cytoplasm

A. tumor cells
B. platelets B. chromatin
C. gamete cells C. DNA
D. stem cells D. none of above
70. Name this Phase of Meiosis-Cytoplasm di- 76. This type of genetic recombination occurs
vides, 2 cells are formed. in metaphase I
A. Anaphase 1 A. Crossing Over

B. Independent Assortment
B. Anaphase 2
C. Fertilization
C. Telophase 1
D. none of above
D. Telophase 2
77. The correct scientific name for ‘sperm’ or
71. How many chromosomes would a cell have ‘egg’
during metaphase I of meiosis if it has 12
A. Body Cell
chromosomes?
B. Somatic Cell
A. 6
C. Growing Cell
B. 12
D. Gamete
C. 24
D. 36 78. If a diploid cell of a beetle has 10 chromo-
somes, how many chromosomes will be in
72. in the cell cycle, what is the next stage af- one stomach cell from this beetle?
ter TELOPHASE? A. 2
A. Metaphase B. 5
B. propmetaphase C. 10
C. cytokinesis D. 20
D. interphase 79. The purpose of Meiosis is to produce
73. Dominant alleles are represented by a: what?
A. Organ cells
A. Male gene
B. Skin cells
B. lowercase letter
C. Sex cells
C. recessive trait
D. none of above
D. capital letter
80. A human skin cell is meaning that it
74. What type of cell passes on mutations? contains total chromosomes.
A. skin cell A. Haploid, 23
B. nerve cell B. Diploid, 46
C. red blood cell C. Diploid, 23
D. egg cell D. Haploid, 46

5.3 Meiosis 712
81. During which stage does the cell surface 87. In Metaphase I, each pair of homologous
area to volume ratio decrease? chromosomes is randomly arranged as to
A. Interphase whether the paternal or maternal chromo-
some is on a particular side of the equator.
B. Metaphase This is known as
C. Telophase A. synapsis
D. Cytokinesis B. crossing-over
82. When does a dividing cell go from diploid C. independent assortment
NARAYAN CHANGDER
to haploid? D. tetrad formation
A. end of Mitosis
88. deoxyribonucleic acid, a self-replicating
B. end of Meiosis I material present in nearly all living organ-
C. end of Meiosis II isms as the main constituent of chromo-
D. none of above somes. It is the carrier of genetic infor-
mation
83. Which phrase best describes meiosis I? A. Chromosome
A. duplication of paired chromosomes. B. DNA
B. fusion of sister chromatids C. mitosis
C. division of homologous chromosomes D. ribosome
D. creation of two diploid cells
89. Which of the following cells undergo meio-
84. is the process in sexual reproduction in sis?
which male and female reproductive cells A. Sperm cell
join to form a new cell.
B. Liver cell
A. fertilization
C. Unicellular organisms
B. meiosis
D. All of these
C. mitosis
D. gamete 90. Which genotype represents a true-breed?
A. BB
85. Meiosis begins with how many parent
cells? B. Bb
A. 1 C. BbGG
B. 2 D. BBGg
C. 3 91. As organisms develop they change from a

D. 4 single zygote to a complex system of tis-
sues and cell types. The process by which
86. When a sperm and egg cell meet they a cell becomes specialized in order to per-
form? form a specific function is called?
A. Zygote A. Fertilization
B. gamete B. Meiosis
C. daughter cell C. Mitosis
D. diploid D. Differentiation

5.3 Meiosis 713
92. the chromosomes become visible, and the 97. The two new cells formed from Meiosis
nucleus dissolves. Homologous chromo- I are because they contain half of
somes pair up to form tetrads, crossing the chromosomes of the original cell that

over occurs started meiosis.
A. metaphase I A. haploid
B. prophase II B. daploid
C. prophase I C. saploid
D. anaphase II D. frankenstein
98. Name this Phase of Meiosis-Nuclear mem-

93. Process that begins with a diploid parent
brane reforms, cytoplasm divides, 4 cells
cell.
are formed.
A. Mitosis
A. Cytokinesis
B. Meiosis
B. Interphase
C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis C. Telophase 2
D. none of above D. Telophase 1
94. During which phase in the cell cycle DNA 99. How many times does each stage of PMAT
replicated? occur in meiosis?
A. G1 A. 1
B. S B. 2
C. G2 C. 3
D. Mitosis D. 4
95. Chromatin is visible during this phase: 100. Which of the following occurs during
Anaphase I?
A. Interphase
A. Chromosomes cluster at the two poles
B. Prophase I of the cell.
C. Prometaphase I B. Crossing over occurs
D. Metaphase I C. Chromosomes align down the center
of the cell.
96. Which phrase best describes the term
D. One version of each chromosome
genome?
moves toward a pole (sides).
A. the genetic makeup of a chromsomes.
101. How many chromosome pairs are there
in a somatic cell?
B. the genes that make up an organism.
A. 23
C. the locations of a specific set of genes.
B. 26
D. the sum of an organism’s physical C. 43

traits. D. 46

5.3 Meiosis 714
102. Which of these cells would undergo meio- C. 1 x

sis?
D. 0.5 x
A. skin cells
B. liver cells 108. How many PAIRS of chromosomes are
found in humans?
C. brain cells
A. 46
D. sperm cells
B. 23
103. Which of the following is NOT a gamete?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 32
A. egg
B. sperm D. 24
C. skin cell 109. Independent assortment occurs during

D. all of the above are gametes A. Prophase I
104. If an intestinal cell in a butterfly contains B. Prophase II
24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would
contain C. Metaphase I
A. 3 D. Metaphase II
B. 6
110. a reproductive process that involves two
C. 12 parents that combine their genetic mate-
D. 24 rial to produce a new organism, which dif-
fers from both parents
105. Escherichia coli are a common type of bac-
A. asexual reproduction
teria. To reproduce, they go through the
process of B. zygote
A. mitosis. C. sexual reproduction
B. meiosis. D. mitosis
C. binary fission.
D. interphase. 111. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and
Telophase are the stages of
106. MEIOSIS PRODUCES 4 CELLS, THEY ARE A. Meiosis I
A. N
B. Meiosis II
B. 2N
C. Meiosis III
C. 3N
D. Replication
D. none of above
107. If the amount of DNA in a haploid ga- 112. Which type of cell division has 8 stages?
mete is represented by ‘x’, what is the net A. Prophase
quantity of DNA in a cell from the same or-
ganism at the start of meiosis? B. Metamorphisis
A. 4 x C. Meiosis
B. 2 x D. Sister chromatid division

5.3 Meiosis 715
113. Daughter cells created by meiosis II have 119. One difference between mitosis and
A. half the parents DNA meiosis is meiosis requires
A. two cell divisions

B. exact copy of the parent’s DNA
B. extra chromosomes
C. twice the parent’s DNA
C. two mother cells
D. created their own DNA from scratch
D. DNA replication
114. Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that
120. The cell spends most of its time in which
A. homologous chromosomes synapse portion of the cell cycle?
B. DNA replicates before division A. anaphase
C. The chromosome number is reduced B. interphase
D. Sister chromatids separate during C. prophase
anaphase D. metaphase
115. process of reproduction involving a single 121. Crossing-over occurs during:
parent that results in offspring that are ge-
A. anaphase 1
netically identical to the parent
B. metaphase 1
A. Asexual reproduction
C. prophase 1
B. Sexual reproduction
D. prophase 2
C. Chromosomes
D. Bilateral Reproduction 122. Which of the following represents chro-
mosome number during fertilization?
116. What is the process of splitting cells? A. n = n
A. Cleavage B. n+n = 2n
B. Budding C. 2n+2n = 4n
C. Crossover D. 2n-n = n
D. Cytokinesis 123. Meiosis is significant within a population
117. Mitosis occurs in cells. because it increases the-
A. number of mature males
A. somatic
B. genetic variations in the population
B. sex
C. amount of genetically modified organ-
C. gamete isms
D. none of above D. number of new alleles available
118. The restoration of the diploid chromo- 124. One difference between cell division in
some number after halving in meiosis is plant and animal cells is during cytokinesis
due to plant cells have-
A. Fertilization A. cleavage
B. Synapsis B. a cell plate
C. Chiamata C. chromosomes
D. DNA replication D. centrioles

5.3 Meiosis 716
125. How many chromosomes are there in a A. I only

somatic cell? B. I and II only
A. 23 C. II and III only
B. 26 D. I, II and III
C. 43
131. During which phase of meiosis does the
D. 46 nuclear membrane reappear around chro-
mosomes?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
126. A is formed when when each chromo-
some pairs with its corresponding homolo- A. Prophase I
gous chromosome. B. Metaphase II
A. Tetrade C. Anaphase I
B. Spindle Fiber D. Telophase II
C. A Cell
132. When does crossing over occur?
D. Haploid Cell
A. Interphase
127. a photograph or picture of chromosomes B. Prophase 1
grouped in ordered pairs is a
C. Prophase 2
A. pedigree
D. Metaphase 1
B. Punnett Square
C. Venn Diagram 133. term used to refer to chromosomes that
each have a corresponding chromosome
D. Karyotype with similar genes in the same location.
128. Chromosomes (not replicated) finish mov- A. homologous
ing towards the poles in this phase: B. centromere
A. Metaphase II C. synapsis
B. Anaphase II D. matching
C. Telophase II
134. What kinds of cells undergo Meiosis?
D. Prometaphase II
A. Germ
129. How many chromosomes are in a cell at B. Bacteria
the end of mitosis?
C. Plant
A. 23
D. Fungi
B. 26
C. 43 135. If a dog has 39 chromosomes in its sex
cell, how many chromosomes are in its
D. 46 body cell?
130. Which of the following processes take A. 19
place during interphase in animal cells?I. B. 39
Spindle formationII. Transcription and
translationIII. Increase in numbers of mi- C. 58
tochondria D. 78

5.3 Meiosis 717
136. How many cells are produced during B. The chromosome number per cell is
meiosis I? conserved.

A. 4 C. Sister chromatids are separated.
B. 8 D. Four daughter cells are formed
C. 2
142. The haploid number of chromosomes for
D. 0 humans is
137. Which cell would be produced during A. 46

meiosis? B. 43
A. skin cell C. 23
B. bone cell D. 26
C. sperm cell
143. A haploid cell has
D. blood cell
A. three sets of chromosomes
138. In which phase do the chromosomes line B. one set of chromosomes
up?
C. two sets of chromosomes
A. Interphase
D. four sets of chromosomes
B. Telaphase
C. Prophase 144. In Telophase II Haploid cell form.
D. Metaphase A. 4
B. 2
139. During which phase of mitosis do sister
chromatids get pulled apart? C. 3
A. Metaphase II D. none of above
B. Anaphase II 145. occurs at the same time as Telophase
C. Prophase I II.
D. Telophase I A. Each newly forming cell gets a nucleus.
140. How many chromosomes from each pa-

B. Chromosomes uncoil to form chro-
ternal pair are contained in each daughter
matin.
cell at the end of meiosis I?
C. 4 haploid gametes are being formed.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 146. Which of these choices is made from the
process of mitosis?
D. 4
A. Egg
141. Which of the following happens at the
B. Sperm
conclusion of meiosis I?
A. Homologous chromosomes are sepa- C. Sex Cell
rated. D. Skin Cell

5.3 Meiosis 718
147. Separation of homologues occurs during 153. Which type of cells in the human body are
A. Mitosis made through the process of meiosis?
A. gametes
B. Meiosis I
B. somatic cells
C. Meiosis II
C. all cells in the body
D. Fertilization
D. diploid cells
148. GgTt x GgTtWhat would the phenotypic
154. Which of the following sequences repre-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ratio be for the cross above?
sents chromosome # during fertilization?
A. 8:8 A. 2n→ n + n
B. 9:3:3:1 B. n + n → 2n
C. 4:4:4:4 C. n → n
D. 1:2:1 D. 2n → 2n
149. which of the following is not found in 155. How many times does the nucleus divide
plant cells? in meiosis
A. cell plate A. 0
B. actin and myosin filaments B. 1
C. microtubule organizing center C. 2
D. cleavage furrow D. 3
156. In this event, two cells split into the final
150. The result of meiosis is four daughter cells:
A. two diploid cells A. Cytokinesis
B. two haploid cells B. Interkinesis
C. four diploid cells C. Interphase
D. four haploid cells D. none of above
151. Replicated chromosomes spit into sepa- 157. Nuclear membrane breaks down
rate chromosomes and begin moving to- A. Prophase
wards the poles during this phase:
B. Metaphase
A. Metaphase II C. Anaphase
B. Anaphase II D. Telophase
C. Telophase II
158. What are homologous chromosomes?
D. Prometaphase II A. Pairs of chromosomes with different
152. What does meiosis create? genes on each.
B. Pairs of chromosomes with the same
A. Skin cells
genes on each.
B. Reproductive (or sex) cells
C. Pairs of chromosomes with no genes.
C. Only egg cells D. Pairs of chromosomes with the wrong
D. Nerve cells genes on each.

5.3 Meiosis 719
159. A cell is 2n=10, what will its gamete look B. prophase, metaphase, telephase,
like? anaphase

A. 2n=10 C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and
B. n=20 telophase
C. n=10 D. meiosis I, meiosis II, meiosis III, meio-

sis IV
D. n=5
165. Which of the following can occur because
160. In humans, the 22 pairs of chromosomes
of the exchange of homologous chromo-
that don’t include the sex chromosomes
some parts during the process of meiosis?
are called
A. loci A. random mutations
B. polysomes B. decreased gamete number
C. autosomes C. offspring with unique combinations of

traits
D. somatic chromosomes
D. decreased number of alleles on each
161. At fertilization, what happens to the sex chromosome
cells?
A. They retain half of their chromosomes. 166. If the Diploid number of chromosomes
in a carrots is 18, the haploid number
(think:sperm/egg) would be:
B. half of the cells copy their DNA twice.
A. 18
C. their nuclei fuse to from one nucleus.
B. 9
D. one becomes an egg, and one be-
comes a sperm cell. C. 27
D. 36
162. What happens to the centrioles during mi-
tosis? 167. Two chromosomes that have the same
A. go to opposite ends structure and genes, but may contain dif-
B. stay the same ferent alleles are called
C. move to the middle A. gametes

D. disappear B. alleles
C. chromatids
163. What is the haploid number for humans?
D. homologs
A. 46
B. 23 168. In which phase of meiosis does one cell
C. 10 divide into two?
D. 52 A. Telophase II/Cytokinesis
B. Anaphase II
164. What are the stages of Meiosis I (In or-
der). C. Telophase I/Cytokinesis
A. phase I, phase II, phase III, phase IV D. Prophase II

5.3 Meiosis 720
169. What is unique to Prophase I-is that the A. offspring will be Rr

duplicated chromosomes pair up to form B. offspring will be RR
C. round seeds will be recessive to wrin-
A. a centrosome kled
B. a tetrad D. Wrinkled will be observed in half of off-
C. the mitotic spindle spring
D. sister chromatids 175. Gamete (sex) cells undergo meiosis to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
170. In which stage of meiosis do sister chro-
matids separate? A. double the number of chromosomes
A. Anaphase II B. halve the number of chromosomes
B. Anaphase I C. triple the number of chromosomes
C. Prophase I D. replicate chromosomes
D. Metaphase II 176. Meiosis results in the production of
171. During meiosis, how many haploid daugh- A. 2 diploid cells
ter cells are produced? B. 2 haploid cells
A. 2 C. 4 haploid cells
B. 4 D. 4 diploid cells
C. 23
177. Diploid Cells are represented by the sym-
D. 46 bol
172. is a source of genetic variation that A. 2n (2 of each chromosome)
results from the random alignment and al- B. n (1 of each chromosome)
location of homologous chromosomes to
offspring cells during meiosis. C. 4n
A. Crossing Over D. 1/2 n
B. Independent Assortment 178. Haploids are also called cells.

C. Meiosis A. daughter
D. Fertilization B. sister
173. PHOTOSYNTHESIS REACTANTSC02+H20→ C. parent

C6H12O6+O2 D. grandparent
A. C02+H20 179. An organism has 16 chromosomes in its
B. C6H12O6+O2 skin cell. How many chromosomes are in
C. C02+H20→ C6H12O6+O2 its heart cells?
D. ALL ARE TRUE A. 16

B. 32
174. R=round seedr=wrinkled seed.Cross
a homozygous round with a wrinkled. C. 8
Which statement predicts the results? D. 64

5.3 Meiosis 721
180. When a sperm & egg join during fertiliza- C. 4, identical

tion, the resulting cell is D. 4, different

A. called a zygote
186. During which phase of the cell cycle does
B. diploid
DNA replicate (double)?
C. a somatic cell
A. Interphase
D. all of the above
B. Prophase
181. Name the growth phase of the cell cycle C. Metaphase
that Mitosis and Meiosis have in common.
D. Telophase
A. metaphase
B. telophase 187. What is non-disjunction?
C. interphase A. when homologous chromosomes sepa-
rate
D. anaphase
B. when sister chromatids separate
C. when homologous chromosomes fail
meet and combine together to make one
to separate
new cell?
D. none of above
A. meiosis
B. fertilization 188. The end result of Meiosis
C. cell division A. 2 identical cells
D. mitosis B. 4 identical cells
183. exchange of genetic material between ho- C. 2 with 1/2 amount of chromosome
mologous chromosomes during prophase I D. 4 with 1/2 amount of chromosome
of meiosis
A. tetrad 189. Which 2 cells would be more genetically
similar to each other?
B. crossing over
A. 2 gametes produced by the same per-
C. sexual reproduction son
D. sister chromatids B. 2 somatic cells produced by the same
184. Homozygous is when person
A. the alleles are the same C. 2 eggs produced by the same woman
B. the alleles are different D. 2 sperm produced by the same man

C. the alleles are absent 190. Where do the 2 cells that enter into Meio-
D. the alleles are present sis II come from?
A. Skin cells
185. After meiosis, there are daughter
cells that are genetically B. Interphase
A. 2, identical C. Sex organs
B. 2, different D. Meiosis I

5.3 Meiosis 722
191. During Meiosis, what stage will occur C. Meiosis II

next? See Figure M-8. D. Mitosis and Meiosis I
A. Prophase
197. ” When the fibers pull the homologous
B. Telophase I
chromosomes towards the opposite ends
C. Metaphase I of the cells.”
D. Anaphase I A. Anaphase I
192. What phase do homologous chromosome
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Prophase I
pairs line up in the center of the cell?
C. Metaphase II
A. Prophase I
D. Anaphase II
B. Metaphase I
C. Metaphase II 198. a type of cell division that results in four
daughter cells each with half the number of
D. Anaphase II chromosomes of the parent cell, as in the
193. If a horse has 64 chromosomes in each production of gametes and plant spores.
of its body cells, how many chromosomes A. genetic variation
will be in each gamete cell after meiosis?
B. meiosis
A. 32
C. mitosis
B. 64
D. diploid
C. 96
D. 128 199. What is the final product of Meiosis II?
A. 4 diploid cells
194. Synapsis occurs during
A. Prophase of mitosis B. 2 diploid identical cells
B. Prophase I of meiosis C. 4 haploid cells

C. Prophase II of meiosis D. 2 haploid cells
D. Both a and b are correct 200. What is the end goal of meiosis?
195. Type of reproduction in which a single par- A. to repair injured cells
ent passes a complete copy of its genetic B. to destroy unhealthy cells
material to its offspring. Offspring is ge-
netically identical to the parent. C. to create sperm and eggs
A. Sexual D. to manufacture energy for cells
B. Fertilization 201. In Anaphase I, the are separated by
C. Asexual the pulling of the spindle fibers to opposite
D. Autosome poles of the cell.
A. homologous pairs of chromosomes
196. Homologous chromosomes pair up
(synapsis) during: B. sister chromatids
A. Mitosis C. centromeres
B. Meiosis I D. centrosomes

5.3 Meiosis 723
202. In which stage of meiosis does crossing 208. Which phrase best describes the process
over occur? of meiosis?
A. occurs in body cells

A. Interphase
B. Prophase I B. results in genetically identical cells
C. Metaphase II C. happens only in haploid cells
D. produces haploid gametes
D. Anaphase II
209. division of the cytoplasm to form two
203. When plants go through cytokinesis, they separate daughter cells
must form a new cell
A. cytokinesis
A. nucleus
B. telophase
B. wall C. anaphase
C. mitochondria D. prophase
D. nucleolus 210. What is the time between cell divisions
204. A complete set of chromosomes. in the life cycle of the cell called?
A. anaphase
A. diploid number
B. interphase
B. haploid number
C. prophase
C. polyploid number
D. metaphase
D. triploid number
211. RE-ORDERS THE BASE SEQUENCE
205. Meiosis is responsible for: ;EXAMPLE TO CREATE MORE GENETIC
DIVERSITY(ATA-CCG) TO (TTA-GGC)
A. Staying the same
A. CROSSING OVER
B. Similar cells
B. MITOSIS
C. Creating identical cells
C. ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION
D. Genetic Diversity D. none of above
206. Haploid cells are represented by 212. Haploid and diploid are referring to num-
A. 2n ber of what?
B. n A. cells
B. chromosomes
C. 1/2 n
C. zygotes
D. 4n
D. divisions
207. How many chromosomes are in a human
213. Homologous chromosomes move to oppo-
gamete?
site poles of a cell during
A. 46 A. Anaphase II
B. 23 B. Anaphase I
C. 22 C. Metaphase I
D. 44 D. Telophase I

5.3 Meiosis 724
214. Which of these choices is NOT a reason C. Impossible to know

for mitosis taking place in a multi-cellular D. none of above
organism?
A. Growth 220. Which processes are involved in the de-
velopment of cancer?I. Mutations occur
B. Repairing Wounds
in proto-oncogenes.II. Oncogenes prevent
C. Asexual Reproduction cancer.III. Oncogenes affect cell cycle reg-
D. Making Sex Cells ulatory proteins.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. I and II only
215. This is an unspecialized cell.
B. I and III only
A. egg cell
C. II and III only
B. sperm cell
D. I, II and III
C. stem cell
D. somatic cell 221. What is the end result of mitosis?
216. Chromosomes form tetrads during A. 2 non-identical daughter cells

A. Meiosis l B. 2 identical daughter cells
B. Meiosis ll C. 4 non-identical daughter cells
C. Mitosis D. 4 identical daughter cells
D. Interphase 222. Creates 2 identical daughter cells
217. which is not a source of genetic varia- A. mitosis
tion? B. interphase
A. independent assortment of chromo-
C. meiosis
somes
D. nucleus
B. cross-over
C. random fertilization 223. What happens to the chromosome num-
ber during meiosis?
D. mitosis
A. It doubles
218. During which phase of the meiotic cell cy-
cle does DNA Replication occur? B. It stays the same
A. Interphase C. It divides in half
B. Prophase D. It becomes diploid

C. Metaphase 224. Homologous chromosomes pair up side-
D. Telophase by-side in tetrads along the middle of the
cell during what kind of cell division?
219. If a parent cell has 88 chromosomes, fol-
A. Mitosis
lowing MITOSIS, the daughter cells will
have chromosomes. B. Meiosis
A. 44 C. Both
B. 88 D. Neither

5.3 Meiosis 725
225. Which of the following carry the same ge- B. replication

netic information? C. synthesis

A. sister chromatids D. translation
B. X and Y chromosomes
231. specialized process during which the num-
C. all autosomes
ber of chromosomes is reduced by half,
D. all haploid cells this is a type of cell division
226. If there are 20 chromosomes in the egg A. Mitosis
cells, how many chromosomes would be B. Meiosis
found in the sperm cells of the same
C. Pedigree
species?
D. none of above
A. 10
B. 20 232. Meiosis is necessary for which reproduc-
tive event to occur?
C. 40
A. vegetative budding
D. 80
B. binary fission
227. Somatic (body cells) in a human usually
have amount of chromosomes. C. cloning
A. 6 D. fertilization
B. 22 233. chromosomes split & begin to move to op-

C. 4 posite ends
D. 46 A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
228. Chromosomes of a homologous pair sep-
arate from each other during: C. Anaphase
A. Anaphase I D. Telophase
B. Anaphase II 234. Place the phase of mitosis in the correct
C. Metaphase I sequence. See Figure M-1.
D. Prophase II A. A, B, C, D
B. B, A, C, D
229. is the process of cell division that re-
sults in the formation of cells with half the C. D, C, A, B,
usual number of chromosomes. D. D, C, B, A
A. meiosis
235. A cat has a total of 38 chromosomes in
B. mitosis its body cells. How many in its gametes
C. meiosis I and meiosis II (germ/sex cells)?
D. mitosis II A. 38
230. Chromosomes exchange genetic material B. 19

during C. 76
A. crossing over D. 10

5.3 Meiosis 726
236. When a sperm and egg are fertilised 241. Which of the following cell types could
(combined together) they make one brand have 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome?
new cell, that will grow into an organisms.
A. Sperm
That one original cell is known as a:
A. Bloat Goat B. Egg
B. Happy Goat C. Female somatic cell

C. Sad Goat D. Male somatic cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Zygote
242. At the start of Meiosis II, which of the
237. The process by which a cell divides into following is NOT true?
two genetically identical daughter cells is A. There are two cells.
called-
B. The cells are haploid.
A. interphase
B. meiosis C. The chromosomes are paired up as ho-
mologues.
C. cell division
D. DNA is present as two sister chro-
D. mitosis
matids joined at the centromere.
238. Chromosomes that are similar in size,
shape and the genes they contain. 243. The division of the cytoplasm of a eukary-
otic cell is called
A. Autosomes
A. mitosis
B. Sex Chromosomes
C. Homologous Chromosomes B. binary fission
D. X & Y Chromosomes C. cytokinesis
239. The phase of mitosis, meiosis I, or meio- D. M phase

sis II that is characterized by the arrange-
244. A zygote of a human contains how many
ment of all chromosomes along the equa-
chromosomes?
tor of the cell is called:
A. telophase A. 1
B. metaphase B. 22
C. anaphase C. 46
D. prophase D. 23
240. Which of the following do chromosomes
245. Homologous chromosomes
become visible, centrioles move to oppo-
site ends, nuclear membrane breaks down, A. are the same size and contain the
& spindle fibers appear? same genes in the same locations
A. Prophase B. Are attached to each other
B. Metaphase C. Look similar
C. Telophase D. Have the same number of bands if you
D. Anaphase are looking at a karyotype

5.3 Meiosis 727
246. Which type of reproduction involves two 251. Which of these choices is a product of mi-
parents and results in offspring that are tosis?
not genetically identical to either parent?

A. egg
A. Binary fission
B. sperm
B. Asexual reproduction
C. sex cell
C. Sexual reproduction
D. skin cell
D. Vegetative reproduction
252. Sister chromatids are pulled apart during
247. Which of these is a primary benefit of this phase of meiosis
meiosis and sexual reproduction to a pop-
A. Anaphase ll
ulation?
B. Telophase ll
A. an increase in the chromosome num-
ber C. Metaphase l
B. new forms of proteins D. Prophase l
C. new combinations of genes 253. In this phase of meiosis the sister chro-
D. new alleles in the population matids are pulled to opposite ends and sep-
arated.
248. Select the best description of a chromo-
A. anaphase II
some.
B. telaphase II
A. material used to form the cell mem-
brane C. metaphase II
B. tightly wound DNA that is ready for cell D. none of above
division
254. Which events occur during both mitosis
C. long, stretched out strands of DNA and meiosis?
D. molecules that form the sex cells A. Production of haploid cells from diploid
cells
249. Meiosis occurs in two stages:meiosis I
and B. Crossing over
A. mitosis C. Separation of the chromatids from
each chromosome
B. meiosis II
D. Production of genetically different
C. interphase
cells
D. S phase
255. When do centromeres split apart during
250. In Anaphase II, the separate. meiosis?
A. Homologues A. anaphase I
B. Sister Chromatids B. anaphase II
C. Tetrads C. metaphase I
D. Centrioles D. metaphase II

5.3 Meiosis 728
256. If a cell has a HAPLOID number of 5, 262. Scientists use this word to refer to a
what is the DIPLOID number? “pause” in between meiosis I and meio-
A. 5 sis II. During this phase, centrosomes repli-
cate but chromosomes do not.
B. 10
A. Cytokinesis
C. 15
B. Interkinesis
D. 2.5
C. Interphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
257. In Metaphase II the chromosomes line up
D. none of above
single file down the of the cell.
A. Opposite 263. Which of the following cells are gametes
(sex cells)?
B. Middle
A. Heart, Liver
C. Bottom
D. Top B. Nerve, Sperm
C. Ovum (egg), sperm
258. Reproduction in which gametes from two
parents unite D. Muscle, skin
A. sexual 264. division of the cell nucleus
B. asexual A. Cytokinesis
C. budding B. Mitosis
D. binary fission C. Meiosis
259. A diploid human cell contains D. S phase
A. 23 chromosomes 265. Which of the following results during
B. 46 chromosomes meiosis?
C. 48 chromosomes A. 4 sperm cells and 4 egg cells are pro-
D. 42 chromosomes duced
B. 1 sperm cell and 1 egg cell are pro-
260. Meiosis produces how many cells at the duced
end?
C. 4 sperm cells and 1 egg cell are pro-
A. 1
duced
B. 2
D. 2 sperm cells and 2 egg cells are pro-
C. 4 duced
D. 6
266. During this phase, homologous pairs of
261. series of events that cells go through as chromosomes move towards the center of
they grow and divide the spindle as the spindle forms:
A. cell cycle A. Prophase I
B. prophase B. Prometaphase I
C. M Phase C. Metaphase I
D. Interphase D. Anaphase I

5.3 Meiosis 729
267. Half of your DNA comes from your 272. A human has 46 chromosomes in their
and the other half from your body cells. What is the haploid number?

A. mother and father A. 46
B. brother and sister B. 92
C. father and granhdfather C. 23
D. grandmother and aunt D. 12
273. Mitosis creates daughter cells that

268. If there are 22 chromosomes in the nu-
are identical to the parent cell.
cleus of a toad skin cell, a toad egg would
contain chromosomes. A. 4 haploid
A. 22 B. 2 haploid
B. 44 C. 4 diploid
D. 2 diploid
C. 11
D. 33 274. Human are diploid, and human
are haploid.
269. A cat has a total of 38 chromosomes in A. sex chromosomes autosomes
its body cells. How many in its gametes?
B. autosomes sex chromosomes
A. 38
C. somatic cells gametes
B. 19
D. gametes somatic cells
C. 76
275. Chromosomal DNA is duplicated in this
D. 10 stage of the meiosis cell cycle.
270. In humans, Haploid cells (sperm/ovules) A. interphase
have 23 chromosomes, how many will B. prophase l
Diploid cells have?
C. metaphase1
A. 12.5
D. G2
B. 12
276. Haploid cells have how many chromo-
C. 23 somes in humans?
D. 46 A. 2
271. Which is the best definition of meiosis? B. 23

C. 46
A. One diploid cell divides to produce four
haploid cells D. 64
B. One diploid nucleus divides to produce 277. The table in Figure M-7 lists the number
four haploid nuclei of chromosomes in different cells of a pea
C. One diploid cell divides to produce four plant undergoing cell division. Which cell
haploid nuclei is undergoing meiosis?
D. One diploid cell divides to produce 4 A. Cell 3

diploid cells B. Cell 1

5.3 Meiosis 730
C. Cell 4 283. What is another name for down syn-

drome?
D. Cell 2
A. Trisomy 18
278. In what stage do chromosomes line up B. Trisomy 21
along the equatorial plane?
C. Trisomy 13
A. interphase
D. Trisomy 23
B. prophase
284. The human diploid number is:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. metaphase
A. 92
D. anaphae B. 46
279. exchanges genetic information be- C. 23
tween non-sister chromatids D. 2
A. Crossing over 285. Daughter cells of mitosis are genetically
B. Independent assortment , while daughter cells of meiosis genet-
ically
C. Fertilization
A. identical, identical
D. none of above
B. different, different
280. If a Diploid cell has 20 chromosomes, how C. different, identical
many will a haploid have? D. identical, different
A. 20
286. Based only on the sex chromosomes in
B. 10 typical human egg and sperm cells at fer-
tilization, the probability of producing a fe-
C. 15
male is
D. 40 A. 25%
281. Which of the following statements is true B. 50%
of homologous chromosomes? C. 75%
A. they are exact copies. D. 90%
B. they contain the same genes. 287. Meiosis has how many stages?
C. they divide during meiosis II. A. 1
D. they connect to each other. B. 2
C. 3
282. specialized cell involved in sexual repro-
D. 4
duction
A. gamete 288. During which phase do chromosomes be-
come visible because DNA starts to con-
B. meiosis dense?
C. haploid A. Prophase
D. genetic variation B. Telophase

5.3 Meiosis 731
C. Anaphase 294. Which process goes through P.M.A.T.

D. Metaphase two times? (Has two divisions)

A. Mitosis
289. A tomato plant cell has 24 chromosomes.
B. Meiosis
How many chromosomes will each daugh-
ter cell have after the cell undergoes a mi- C. Osmosis
totic division? D. Transcription
A. 6 chromosomes each 295. Why does meiosis reduce the number of
B. 12 chromosomes each chromosomes in the haploid cells?
C. 24 chromosomes each A. because haploid are happier than
diploids
D. 48 chromosomes each
B. 2 haploids will combine to make a
290. When we see chiasmata under a micro- diploid
scope, that lets us know which of the fol- C. haploids have the normal number of
lowing has occurred? chromosomes that we need to continue
A. asexual reproduction the human species
B. meiosis II D. none of above
C. anaphase II 296. During prophase I the chromosomes
D. prophase I and become
A. Condense and become clear
291. Sperm and egg cells are?
B. Condense and become visible
A. haploid
C. Condense and become thick
B. Diploid
D. Condense
C. Meiosis
297. What is one advantage of chromosomes
D. IDK
crossing over?
292. The process of meiosis results in A. The offspring are identical to the par-
daughter cell with half the number of chro- ents
mosomes. B. the offspring are resistant to viruses
A. 1 C. the offspring are born live, instead of
B. 2 from eggs
C. 3 D. The offspring inherit a wider variety of
genetic information
D. 4
298. If a somatic (body) cell in a butterfly con-
293. During this phase, chromosomes are first tains 24 chromosomes (diploid), a butter-
visible: fly egg would contain (haploid)
A. Interphase A. 3
B. Prophase I B. 6
C. Prometaphase I C. 12
D. Metaphase I D. 24

5.3 Meiosis 732
299. The area of the cell membrane that B. metaphase II

pinches in and eventually separates the di-
C. telophase
viding cell
A. cell plate D. cell wall
B. cleavage furrow 305. When chromosomes fail to separate cor-

C. cell plate rectly during anaphase of meiosis, what
can occur?
D. telophase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. extra chromosomes are found in the
300. Which of the following occurs in meiosis sex cell
but not in mitosis?
B. chromosomes of the sex cell are dou-
A. chromosome replication
bled
B. synapsis of chromosomes
C. chromosomes of the sex cell are
C. production of daughter cells halved
D. alignment of chromosomes at the
D. meiosis never completes
equator
301. Which of the following is the shortest & 306. In meiosis, when do homologous chromo-
molecules required for cell division are pro- somes line up in the middle?
duced? A. metaphase 2
A. G1 Phase B. metaphase 1
B. G2 Phase
C. prophase 2
C. S Phase
D. anaphase 1
D. Interphase
302. In Prophase II, the reforms and the 307. The number and appearance of an indi-
spindle fibers attach to each chromosome. vidual’s chromosomes, including the size,
patterns and centromere position is called
A. mitotic spindle a(n)
B. centrosomes A. autosome
C. nucleus
B. karyotype
D. cell plate
C. chiasmata
303. chiasmata are most closely related to
D. sporophyte
which of the following?
A. crossing-over 308. If a regular body cell has 50 chromosome,
B. fertilization how many would a Haploid cell from Meio-
sis would have?
C. cytokinesis
A. 100
D. mitotic cell division
B. 5
304. Sister chromatids form a line in the mid-
dle of the cell. C. 50
A. metaphase I D. 25

5.3 Meiosis 733
309. Each half of a replicated chromosome is B. prophase I

called a C. haploid

A. homoolougous D. sister chromatids
B. sister chromatid
315. When one or more nucleotides are lost
C. brother chromatid
during chromosomal crossover in meiosis,
D. cromoatin this is called-
310. How many daughter cells result from a A. deletion mutation
parent cell in meiosis? B. insertion mutation
A. 2 C. substitution mutation
B. 4 D. gene duplication
C. 6
316. Meiosis and mitosis are processes that
D. 8 occur in an organism during reproduction.
The process of meiosis results in which of
311. If a sexually reproducing organism has
the following?
48 chromosomes in its body cells, how
many chromosomes did it inherit from each A. two diploid cells
parent? B. four haploid cells
A. 24 C. four genetically different diploid cells
B. 48 D. two genetically identical haploid
C. 12 daughter cells
D. 14 317. is the division of the cytoplasm to
312. When segregation occurs during make two new cells.
anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chro- A. optokinesis
mosomes
B. metokinesis
A. combine
C. cytokinesis
B. separate
D. none of above
C. cross over
318. A process called also occurs during
D. mutate
Prophase I. During this time homologous
313. Is the DNA copied in S phase following chromosomes exchange genetic informa-
meiosis I? tion.
A. yes A. crossing jordan
B. no B. crossing over
C. sometimes C. miss swap
D. none of above D. train
314. containing two complete sets of chromo- 319. The chromosome number is reduced from
somes, one from each parent. diploid to haploid during
A. diploid A. Mitosis

5.3 Meiosis 734
B. Meiosis I A. A sex cell does not contain chromo-

C. Meiosis II somes.
D. Interphase B. A sex cell contains homologous chro-

mosomes.
320. How does mitosis produce two geneti- C. A sex cell has the same number of
cally identical nuclei? chromosomes as a body cell.
A. By separation of homologous chromo- D. A sex cell has half the amount of ge-
somes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
netic material as a body cell.
B. By separation of sister chromatids
325. When does independent assortment oc-
C. By division of the cytoplasm into two cur?
equal cells
A. prophase 1
D. By division of the nuclear membrane
B. prophase 2
into two equal parts
C. telophase 1 and telophase 2
321. When do chromosomes replicate in sex D. metaphase 1 and anaphase 1
cells?
A. Before Meiosis I and Meiosis II 326. Which of the following alleles is homozy-
gous recessive?
B. Only before Meiosis I
A. Tt
C. Only before Meiosis II
B. tt
D. During Mitosis
C. TT
322. Which processes always occur in meiosis D. T
but not normally in mitosis?I. Chiasmata
formationII. Random orientation of homol- 327. A kidney cell is an example of which type
ogous chromosomesIII. Separation of ho- of cell?
mologous chromosomes A. Sex
A. I and II only B. Germ
B. II and III only C. Somatic
C. I and III only D. Haploid
D. I, II and III
328. How many divisions are in meiosis?
323. What occurs in meiosis but NOT in mito- A. 1
sis?
B. 2
A. chromosome replication
C. 3
B. production of daughter cells
D. 4
C. synapsis
329. You are viewing a patients karyotype.
D. alignment of chromosomes along the You see 23 chromosomes total. There are
metaphasal plate no homologous chromosomes. Which cell
324. How does a sex cell differ from a body are you viewing?
cell? A. Egg cell

5.3 Meiosis 735
B. Zygote 335. During which phase of mitosis do homol-

ogous chromosomes line up at the equator
C. Skin cell
of the cell?

D. White blood cell
A. Prophase I
330. Cell grows, performs its normal functions, B. Telophase II
and prepares for division; consists of G1,
S, and G2 phases C. Metaphase I
A. M Phase D. Metaphase II
B. Cytokinesis 336. What is the process that occurs during

C. Mitosis meiosis that causes genetic variation?
D. Interphase A. cytokinesis
B. prophase I
331. What are STEM cells?
C. crossing-over
A. Cells that only cause cancer
D. genetic mutations
B. Cells that can specialize into any other
cell 337. is random chromosome alignment re-
C. Cells that divide uncontrollably and al- sulting in variation
ways cause tumors A. Crossing over
D. Cells that take cellfies B. Independent assortment
332. When does DNA replicate? C. Fertilization
A. interphase D. none of above
B. prophase I
338. Which of the following is the proper se-
C. telophase I quence of mitosis?
D. cytokinesis A. anaphase, metaphase, prophase,
telophase
333. sister chromatids separate
B. telophase, prophase, metaphase,
A. anaphase I anaphase
B. anaphase II C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
C. anaphase III telophase
D. telophase II D. metaphase, telophase, anaphase,
prophase
334. Each newly formed cell will forma
around the chromosomes. 339. Humans have how may chromosomes?
A. nucleus A. 112
B. stringly thingly B. 46
C. DNA C. 8
D. Chromosome D. 67

5.3 Meiosis 736
340. This type of genetic recombination occurs C. DNA

during sexual reproduction D. gametes
A. Crossing over
346. What is one advantage of sexual repro-
B. Independent assortment duction?
C. Fertilization A. offspring are identical to parents
D. none of above B. offspring are resistant to viruses
341. Which of the following phases is the first C. offspring are born live, rather than
NARAYAN CHANGDER
step in mitosis? See Figure M-4. from eggs
A. metaphase D. offspring inherit a wider variety of ge-

netic information
B. telophase
347. What are the phases of mitosis in order?
C. prophase
A. Pro-Meta-Ana-Telo-Cyto
D. anaphase
B. Telo-Pro-Meta-Ana-Cyto
342. When during the cycle are chromosomes C. Ana-Telo-Meta-Pro-Cyto
visible?
D. Cyto-Telo-Ana-Meta-Pro
A. only during interphase
348. Nuclear membrane reforms around sepa-
B. only when they are being replicated
rated sister chromatids, cleavage furrow
C. only during M phase (cell division) or cell wall forms.
D. only during the G1 phase A. anaphase II
343. MITOSIS B. telophase I
A. INCREASES GENETIC VARIATION C. telophase II
B. ALLOWS TRAITS TO BE PASSED ON TO D. cytokinesis II
OFFSPRING 349. What phase does one cell begin to pre-
C. PRODUCES 2 IDENTICAL DAUGHTER pare to divide by having the nuclear mem-
CELLS brane disappear and spindle fibers ap-
pear?
D. ALL ARE TRUE
A. Prophase I
344. What is the phase in mitosis where chro-
B. Prophase II
mosomes are pulled apart by spindles to
opposite sides of the cell? C. Metaphase I
A. prophase D. Telophase II
B. anaphase 350. If the haploid number of an organism is 8,

how many different varieties of gametes
C. metaphase
are possible, not considering the effects of
D. interphase crossing over?
345. Meiosis is a type of cell division that pro- A. 256
duces: B. 128
A. zygotes C. 64
B. chromosomes D. 16

5.3 Meiosis 737
351. What do mitosis and meiosis have in com- 356. Which is a source of genetic variation in
mon? sexually reproducing organisms?
A. meiosis

A. Both start with diploid cells.
B. Both promote genetic variation. B. stem cells
C. Both occur in unicellular organisms. C. crossing over

D. cytokinesis
D. Both produce identical daughter cells.
357. all of the following are true of meiosis
352. You inherited except
A. most of your chromosomes from your A. cross-over occurs during prophase I
mother B. there is no replication of chromo-
B. most of your chromosomes from your somes between meiosis I and meiosis II
father
C. a random number of chromosomes C. in plants, spindle fibers are attached
from each parent to the centriole
D. half your chromosomes from your D. synapsis occurs during prophase I
mother and half from your father. 358. At the end of meiosis I, two cells are cre-
ated, both having chromosomes.
353. When a segment of a chromosome disso-
ciates and reattaches to a different nonho- A. 23
mologous chromosome often causing devi- B. 46
ating effects is called C. 92
A. translocation D. none of above
B. transduction 359. DNA must before meiosis can occur.
C. transcription A. replicate
D. crossing over B. dissolve
C. grow larger
354. At fertilization the male and female sex
cells will provide D. shrink
A. Double of their chromosomes each 360. tetrads separate

B. One/third of their chromosomes each A. metaphase II
C. All of their chromosomes each B. anaphase II
C. anaphase I
D. Half of their chromosomes each
D. cytokinesis I
355. In the division of a cell shown in Figure
361. Meiosis creates daughter cells that
M-6, what is produced?
are unique from the parent cell.
A. son cells A. 4 haploid
B. sperm cells B. 2 diploid
C. diploid cells C. 4 diploid
D. ovum cells D. 2 haploid

5.3 Meiosis 738
362. A cell with a diploid number of 12 chro- 367. The type of reproduction in which the ge-
mosomes undergoes meiosis. What will be netic material from two different cells com-
the product at the end of meiosis? bine
A. 2 cells each with 12 chromosomes A. budding
B. 4 cells each with 6 chromosomes B. chromosomes
C. 2 cells each with 6 chromosomes C. diploid
D. 4 cells each with 12 chromosomes D. sexual reproduction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
363. What percentage of chromosomes nor- 368. What is the diploid number for humans?
mally found in the body cells of an organ-
A. 46
ism do gamete cells contain after meiosis?
B. 23
A. 25%
C. 10
B. 50%
D. 52
C. 60%
D. 100% 369. Crossing over is important because
A. It prevents mutations from entering
364. Two processes that increase genetic vari-
the gametes.
ation during meiosis are crossing over and
B. It allows for even distribution of chro-
mosomes in the gametes.
A. Synapsis
C. It allows for more genetic diversity of
B. Tetrad
gametes.
C. Independent assortment
D. It allows for genetic uniformity of ga-
D. Gameiosis metes.
365. During which stage of meiosis does the 370. In which phase of meiosis I do the homol-
tetrad occur? ogous chromosomes reach opposite sides
of the cell?
A. interphase I
A. Anaphase I
B. prophase I
B. Prophase I
C. prophase II
C. Metaphase I
D. Telophase I
366. What equation represents what happens
to the chromosome number during fertiliza- 371. The four daughter cells created by meio-
tion? sis are:
A. n+n=2n A. Haploid and genetically identical
B. n=n B. Haploid and genetically different
C. 2n=n+n C. Diploid and genetically identical
D. 2n=2n D. Diploid and genetically different

5.3 Meiosis 739
372. Which of the following is a gamete, pro- C. crossing over

duced during Meiosis? D. variation

A. Skin
378. Which phrase best describes the process
B. Hair of crossing over?
C. Ovule A. Pairs of homologous chromosomes ex-
D. Blood change segments.
B. Pairs of sister chromatids exchange
373. Which of the following alleles is homozy- segments.
gous dominant?
C. Pairs of homologus chromosomes be-
A. A come linked.
B. Aa D. Pairs of sister chromatids become
C. AA linked.
D. aa 379. During which phase of the cell cycle is the
cell growing and preparing to divide?
374. What do the letters inside a Punnett
Square represent? A. Gap 1
A. phenotypes of parents B. Synthesis
B. genotypes of offspring C. Gap 2

D. Mitosis
C. testcrosses of offspring
D. chromosomes of parents 380. During this phase, replicated chromo-
somes become visible but they do not stick
375. In Metaphase II, line up on equatorial together in pairs:
plane.
A. Interkinesis
A. homologous pairs of chromosomes B. Prophase II
B. single chromosomes (made up of 2 sis- C. Prometaphase II
ter chromatids)
D. Metaphase II
C. tetrads
381. Homologous chromosomes pair up during
D. centrosomes
prophase I to for a
376. Compared with mitosis, the process of A. Telephad
meiosis results in-
B. Tetrad
A. greater number of cell chromosomes C. Metaphas
B. greater volume of cell cytoplasm D. Inseil
C. greater number of daughter cells
382. Hair color and eye color are examples of
D. greater amount of genetic material a person’s
377. any heritable difference between individ- A. recessive traits.
uals of the same species. B. dominant alleles.
A. changes C. genotype.
B. haploid D. phenotype.

5.3 Meiosis 740
383. If the daughter cells each have 16 chro- C. anaphase I

mosomes after cell division, what was the
D. anaphase II
number of chromosomes in the parent cell?
See Figure M-2.
389. What are gametes?
A. 16
A. sex cells
B. 6
B. body cells
C. 32
C. human cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 4
D. plant cells
384. It is the process of dividing the DNA of a
cell into two new nuclei. 390. Which of the following is an example of
A. mitosis a biological trait?
B. meiosis A. personality
C. cytokinesis B. hair style
D. cell division C. eye color
385. Human cells have how many pieces of D. regional accent

chromatin?
391. independent cells begin to form dur-
A. 0 ing
B. 23
A. Two, form
C. 14
B. Four, form
D. 46
C. One, form
386. In mitosis, if the parent cell is 2n, what
D. Five, form
are the daughter cells going to be?
A. 2n 392. chromosomes that is two copies of each
B. 4n pair and have the same sequence of genes
and the same structure
C. 1n
A. homologous chromosomes
D. 6n
B. alleles
387. Meiosis creates
C. dipliod
A. 2 daughter cells
D. genotypes
B. 4 daughter cells
C. 3 daughter cells 393. At the end of Meiosis II you have made
gametes.
D. 5 daughter cells
A. 4 haploid
388. At which stage of meiosis are sister chro-
matids separated from each other? B. 4 daploid
A. prophase I C. 4 suploid
B. prophase II D. 4 chromosomes

5.3 Meiosis 741
394. This law describes how each homologous 400. Which of the following terms means nu-
pair separates independently of any other clear division?
pairs during Anaphase I of meiosis

A. interphase
A. Law of Segregation
B. mitosis
B. Law of Independent Assortment
C. Law of Gravity C. cytokinesis
D. Law of Mathematical Order D. cell cycle
395. What happens to the polar body? 401. At this point in time, replicated chromo-
A. It eventually becomes an egg somes (not paired) are aligned in the cen-
B. It eventually becomes a sperm ter of the cell:
C. It becomes a diploid cell A. Prophase II

D. It is broken down and discarded B. Prometaphase II
396. How copies of each gene are there in a C. Metaphase II
somatic cell?
D. Anaphase II
A. 1
B. 2 402. The exchange of genetic material be-
tween two homologous chromosomes is
C. 3
called
D. 4
A. swapping
397. Which phase of Meiosis has the repli-
cated chromosomes form pairs with its ho- B. crossing over
mologs and crossing-over occurs? C. mitosis
A. prophase I
D. cytokinesis
B. metaphase I
C. anaphase I 403. Meiosis involves cell divisions
D. telaphase I A. 1
398. Where does non-disjunction occur? B. 2
A. Metaphase C. 3
B. Anaphase D. 4
C. Prophase
D. Telophase 404. If a stem cell (body cell) has 24 chromo-
somes, how many will it have at the end
399. A human zygote (fertilized egg) should of meiosis?
have chromosomes inside.
A. 24
A. 46
B. 12
B. 23
C. 92 C. 6
D. 64 D. the number varies per species

5.3 Meiosis 742
405. Through the process of meiosis, sex cells and are inherited from a male and female
containing one of each chromosome type parent are termed
are created. These sex cells are also A. gametes
known as
B. alleles
A. alleles
C. zygote
B. genes
D. homologs
C. gametes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
411. Chromosomes uncoil
D. chromatids
A. Prophase
406. Replicated chromosomes finish moving B. Metaphase
towards the poles in this phase:
C. Anaphase
A. Prometaphase I
D. Telophase
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I 412. What type of chromosomal abnormality
do people with Down Syndrome have?
D. Telophase I
A. trisomy 21
407. The end of mitosis results in B. monosomy 21
A. 2 cells that are identical C. recessive inheritance
B. 4 cells that are identical D. dominant inheritance
C. 2 cells that are not identical 413. Sister chromatids of haploid cell condense
D. 4 cells that are not identical and nuclear membrane dissolves around
sister chromatids
408. After undergoing one round of DNA repli-
A. prophase I
cation, the cell appears to be dividing with-
out further replicating its DNA. Which pro- B. metaphase I
cess is the cell most likely undergoing? C. anaphase I
A. mitosis D. prophase II
B. meiosis
414. Which of the following is influenced by
C. mutation both genetics and behavior?
D. multiplication A. eye color
409. Females have and males have B. hair texture

chromosomes. C. blood type
A. XX, XY D. body weight
B. XY, XX 415. When does interphase occur?
C. XX, XX A. after meiosis
D. XY, XY B. before meiosis
410. The pair of chromosomes that contain the C. the third phase
same genes (but may be coded differently) D. fourth phase

5.3 Meiosis 743
416. Meiosis occurs in divisions? C. identical


B. 2 422. What is a germ cell?
C. 3 A. Cells on the skin exposed to a lot of
D. 4 germs
417. Mutations that occur in sex cells can be B. Special somatic cells that undergo Mi-
passed from parent to offspring during. tosis
A. cloning C. Special somatic cells that undergo

Meiosis
B. budding
D. Cells that are produced through Meio-
C. binary fission sis (haploid)
D. sexual reproduction
423. Which stage is it when sister chromatids
418. Meiosis plays a more significant role in seperate in meiosis?
reproduction than mitosis in which of the A. metaphase 2
following?
B. anaphase 1
A. increasing the process of asexual re-
production C. anaphase 2
B. increasing the variability of genetic in- D. telophase 2

formation 424. The teacher tells her class that some cells
C. more rapidly reproducing undergo meiosis and form haploid cells.
D. more efficiently using energy Which group of cells are formed by meiotic
division?
419. The gametes (sperm or egg) in a human A. sperm cells
have chromosomes
B. muscle fiber cells
A. 46
C. skin cells
B. 92
D. erythrocytes (red blood cells)
C. 23
D. 10 425. chromosomes at opposite ends & nuclear
membrane reappears
420. When a cell contains two sets of chromo- A. Prophase
somes it is said to be
B. Telophase
A. haploid
C. Anaphase
B. diploid
D. Metaphase
C. bichromosomal
D. double haploid 426. When an area of a chromatid is ex-
changed with the matching area on a chro-
421. At the end of Meiosis I, two cells are matid of its homologous chromosome,
created. occurs.
A. haploid A. mutagenesis
B. diploid B. hybridization

5.3 Meiosis 744
C. crossing over 432. The chromosomes that pair up during

synapsis of meiosis, are called chromo-
D. fertilization
somes.
427. FERTILIZATION OCCURS WHEN A. homozygous
A. THE SPERM UNITES WITH THE EGG B. asexual
B. THE SPERM UNDERGO MEIOSIS C. homologous
C. THE EGG UNDERGOES MEIOSIS D. genes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. THE EGG AND SPERM UNDERGOES 433. Meiosis is a process of
MEIOSIS A. Chromosomes
428. What is the recipe or instructions for B. Homologous
life? C. Cell division
A. DNA D. gametes
B. RNA 434. What characteristic would a child not in-
C. Centromere herit from parents?
D. none of above A. freckles

B. eye color
429. At which stage of meiosis do chromatids
C. hair style
separate?
D. dimples
A. Metaphase I
B. Metaphase II 435. Creates 4 unique daughter cells
A. mitosis
C. Anaphase I
B. interphase
D. Anaphase II
C. meiosis
430. At the start of Meiosis I you had one D. nucleus
cell.
436. tetrads line up at the center of the cell
A. haploid
A. prophase I
B. diploid
B. metaphase I
C. trapnoid
C. prophase II
D. shrampnoid
D. metaphase II
431. The most common trisomy is that of chro- 437. the precursor of a new plant cell wall that
mosome 21 which leads to forms during cell division and divides a cell
A. Tortoiseshell phenotype A. cell membrane
B. Cri-du-chat syndrome B. cell wall
C. Down syndrome C. phospholipid bilayer
D. Klinefelter syndrome D. cell plate

5.3 Meiosis 745
438. What phase does crossing over occur in? C. Prophase

A. Prophase I D. Interphase

B. Metaphase I
444. During which phase of meiosis is the chro-
C. Anaphase I
mosome number reduced?
D. Prophase II
A. anaphase I
439. When an organism has two alleles at a B. metaphase I
particular locus that are different, the or-
ganism is called C. telophase I
A. purebred D. telophase II
B. dominant
445. Segregation/Independent Assortment
C. heterzygous occurs during
D. recessive A. Metaphase 1
440. Which term correctly describes the forma- B. Anaphase ll
tion of female gametes through the pro-
cess of meiosis? C. Prophase l
A. intergenesis D. Telophase l
B. oogenesis
446. heritable variations in a population.
C. spermatogenesis
A. diploid
D. macrogenesis
B. tetrad
441. If a diploid cell from a worm has 60 chro-
C. homologous
mosomes, how many will be in one egg cell
(gamete)? D. genetic variation
A. 60
447. The homolougous chromosom up and
B. 30 move towards the opposite ends of the cell
C. 2 during
D. 120 A. metaphase I
442. The purpose of sexual reproduction and B. metaphase II
meiosis is to form cells. C. Anaphase I
A. body
D. Anphase II
B. sex
C. somatic 448. Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes at
the of the chromosome.
D. brain
A. chromatin
443. Which phase of the cell cycle is considered
“neutral” or “dormant?” B. centriole
A. Telaphase C. centromere
B. Metaphase D. brother chromatid

5.3 Meiosis 746
449. DNA has that determines traits of an A. Crossing over

organism.
B. Anaphase II
A. freckels
C. Meiosis II
B. chromatin
D. e. Separation of homologs
C. stringy
D. gene 455. Gametogenesis is the term for
A. the production of gametes.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
450. one of two identical “sister” parts of a
duplicated chromosome B. the fertilization of eggs.
A. chromosomal apparatus C. the development of polar bodies.
B. chromatin D. the movement of sperm.
C. chromatid
456. With mitosis you get , cells, but
D. chromatiel with meiosis, you get ,
451. A sex cell from an organism con- A. 4, different, 2, identical
tains 31 chromosomes.How many chro-
B. 4, identical, 2, different
matids would this cell have contained in
metaphase II of meiosis? C. 2, different, 4, identical
A. 62 D. 2, identical, 4, different
B. 94
457. are made during Meiosis
C. 124
A. gametes
D. 248
B. dna
452. One of the two halves of a chromosome.
C. frailse
A. chromatid
D. analyse
B. spindle fiber
C. homologue 458. This type of cell division goes through
two rounds of PMAT.
D. replicant
A. Mitosis
453. Which meiotic division more closely re-
B. Meiosis
sembles mitosis?
A. Meiosis I C. Osmosis
B. Meiosis II D. Transcription
C. Both resemble mitosis closely. 459. The chromosomes to make chromatin
D. Both have significant differences from again.
mitosis.A replicated chromosome and a bi- A. split
valent.
B. form
454. Chiasmata are what we see under a mi-
C. merge
croscope that let us know which of the fol-
lowing is occurring? D. uncoil

5.3 Meiosis 747
460. having a single set of unpaired chromo- 465. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the for-
somes mation of

A. gamete A. two genetically different diploid cell
B. meiosis B. four genetically differed haploid cells
C. haploid C. four genetically identical diploid cells
D. diploid D. four genetically identical haploid cells
461. A given eukaryotic organism has 46 chro- 466. If there are 48 chromosomes in the skin
mosomes in its karyotype. We can there- cells of an organism, how many chromo-
fore conclude which of the following? somes would be found in the organism’s
sperm cells?
A. It must be human.
A. 48
B. It must be a primate.
B. 24
C. It must be an animal.
C. 96
D. Its gametes must have 23 chromo-
somes. D. 12
462. If a haploid cell has 5 chromosomes, how 467. Crossing over is

many will be found in diploid cells?
A. important in genetic recombination
A. 5
B. what makes a cell become cancerous
B. 10
C. a key process that occurs during mito-
C. 15 sis
D. 20 D. an important mechanism in chromo-
some repair
463. How many pairs of chromosomes are in
your cells? 468. In Anaphase II, sister chromatids
A. 23 A. combine
B. 19 B. split up
C. 12 C. duplicate
D. 10 D. dissolve
464. What would you call the failure of one 469. A sex cell from an organism contains
or more pairs of homologous chromosomes 31 chromosomes.How many chromosomes
or sister chromatids to separate normally would this cell have contained at the start
during meiosis? of meiosis?
A. nondisjunction A. 62
B. anaphase I B. 94
C. nondiploidy C. 124
D. karyotype D. 248

5.3 Meiosis 748
470. A cell with a pair of every chromosome 476. If a pea plant were homozygous reces-
(full set of DNA) is called sive for height, how would it’s genotype
A. diploid cell be represented?
B. haploid cell A. Tt
B. TT
C. gamete
C. tt
D. sex cell
D. tT
NARAYAN CHANGDER
471. When does DNA replicate itself?
477. Meiosis produces
A. meiosis
A. diploid sex cells
B. during fourth phase
B. diploid body cells
C. interphase
C. haploid sex cells
D. anaphase
D. haploid body cells
472. How many cells are formed at the end of
478. In which stage of the life of a cell is the
Meiosis II?
nucleolus always visible?
A. 2
A. ananphase
B. 3
B. telophase
C. 4 C. cytokinesis
D. 8 D. interphase
473. Male gamete 479. The two cells at the end of Meiosis I
A. ovum A. Rarely continue into meiosis II
B. polar body B. Function as gamete
C. sperm C. Are diploid
D. oocyte D. Are haploid
474. In which phase of meiosis does each chro- 480. In which phase of meiosis do the homolo-
mosome line up single file in the middle of gous chromosomes remain paired and line
the cell? up in the middle of the cell?
A. Metaphase II A. Metaphase II
B. Prophase I B. Anaphase I
C. Metaphase I C. Metaphase I
D. Prophase II D. Prophase I
475. Takes place only in reproductive organs 481. Each division of Meiosis is divided into 4
phases:
A. Mitosis
A. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase,
B. Meiosis Telophase
C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis B. Prophase, Metaphase, Morphase,
D. none of above Antropicphase

5.3 Meiosis 749
C. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, 487. the spindles dissolve and two haploid
Peanutphase cells begin to form

D. none of above A. telophase I
482. During what stage of meiosis does cross- B. cytokinesis I

ing over occur? C. telophase
A. prophase I of meiosis I D. synapsis
B. anaphase II of meiosis II 488. A cell with a diploid number of 24 under-
C. telophase I of meiosis I goes meiosis, how many chromosomes are
D. metaphase II of meiosis II in each daughter cell?
A. 6
483. Which fluid is sampled to try to detect
chromosomal abnormalities in a fetus? B. 12
A. Placental C. 24
B. Umbilical D. 48
C. Amniotic 489. Why do organism do Meiosis

D. Spinal A. To make sperm and eggs
484. The term for when an individual gains an B. to become extinct

extra chromosome C. avoid illness
A. trisomy D. build immunity
B. euploid 490. Uncoiled stringy DNA is called
C. aneuploid A. DNA
D. monoploid B. meiosis
485. Name this Phase of Meiosis- C. chromatin
Chromosomes line up along the Middle, D. both a and b
not in homologous pairs.
A. Metaphase 1 491. Linked genes are
B. Anaphase 1 A. located on different chromosomes of

the same size and shape
C. Anaphase 2
B. located on the same chromosome
D. Metaphase 2
C. rarely inherited together
486. The processes of meiosis and fertilization D. none of above
help ensure the survival of the species by
providing each generation with the same 492. The nuclear membrane reforms around 2
number of sets of chromosomes during
A. gametes A. telophase
B. chromosomes B. anaphase
C. body cells C. metaphase
D. offspring D. prophase

5.3 Meiosis 750
493. separate during anaphase II of meio- C. pollination

sis.
D. fertilization
A. Homologous Chromosomes
B. Sister Chromatids 499. What happens during telaphase I?
C. Daughter Cells A. homologous chromosomes line up

D. Parent Cell B. homologous chromosomes pair up
494. What is the diploid number of chromo- C. homologous chromosomes begin sep-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
somes for humans? arate into two cells.
B. 46 500. The cell grows, replicates DNA and pre-
C. 12 pares for cell division.
D. 4 A. telophase
495. Which of the following is not true about B. interphase
meiosis? C. anaphase
A. crossing over may occur D. metaphase
B. the resulting cells end up with a hap-
loid number of chromosomes. 501. Produces genetically varied daughter
C. it involves two cell divisions cells.
D. the parent cell’s DNA is copied exactly A. Mitosis

between each daughter cell B. Meiosis
496. If carrots have a diploid number of 18, C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis
then the haploid number is D. none of above
A. 3
B. 9 502. During which phase of meiosis does the
homologous chromosomes get pulled to op-
C. 24 posite sides of the cell?
D. 36 A. prophase I
497. How many chromosomes does each body B. metaphase I
cell of a human have?
C. anaphase I
A. 48
D. telaphase I
B. 46
C. 23 503. Meiosis occurs in the testes in men and
the in women.
D. 2
A. uterus
498. When an egg and sperm combine to form
a zygote, what is this process called? B. cervix
A. mitosis C. ovaries
B. meiosis D. stomach

5.3 Meiosis 751
504. During which phase are the chromosomes 509. Which of the following is the phase
pulled away to opposite poles? where cells do most of their growing, in-
crease in size and make new proteins and

A. Prophase
organelles
B. Metaphase
A. G1 Phase
C. Anaphase
B. G2 Phase
D. Telophase
C. S Phase
505. The 2 daughter cells at the end of Mitosis D. Interphase
have how many chromosomes compared
to the original? 510. You get one homologous chromosome
A. Half from your and one from your
B. Same A. dad, mom
C. One-Third B. brother, sister
D. None C. grandmother, grandfather
D. the stork, the stork
506. What is the first phase of Meiosis II?
A. Prophase II 511. Which of the following alleles is het-
B. Metaphase II erozygous?
C. Anaphase II A. Bb
D. Telophase II B. BB
C. bb
507. Name this Phase of Meiosis-Spindle
Fibers move homologous chromosomes to D. B
opposite sides.
512. In Metaphase I, tetrads line up along the
A. Anaphase 1
B. Anaphase 2 A. mitotic spindle
C. Prophase 1 B. centrosomes
D. Prophase 2 C. equatorial plane
508. The difference between anaphase of mi- D. contractile ring
tosis and anaphase I of meiosis is that
513. If a fruit fly contains 8 chromosomes.
A. the chromosomes line up at the equa-
How many chromosomes are in the ga-
tor
metes that fruit fly if it produces sexu-
B. centromeres do not exist in anaphase ally.
I
A. 8
C. Chromatids do not separate at the cen-
B. 6
tromere in anaphase I
C. 4
D. Crossing over occurs only in anaphase
of mitosis D. 2

5.3 Meiosis 752
514. Body cells are also called cells. 520. During meiosis, homologous chromo-
A. normal somes can exchange DNA in a process
known as-See Figure M-10.
B. prokaryotic
A. crossing over
C. pathogens
B. replication
D. somatic
C. cytokinesis
515. These are the final products of meiosis:
D. internal fertilization
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Gametes
B. Organelles 521. The haploid number for a human cell is
C. Cytosol A. 23
516. What is the usual cause of Down’s syn- C. 92
drome? D. 0
A. 21 pairs of chromosomes
B. Trisomy 21 522. What is one event that may occur during
Telophase I?
C. Non-disjunction of sex chromosomes
A. Tetrads may line up down the middle
D. Fertilization of the egg by two sperm of the cell
517. Which phase in meiosis II is where the B. Chromatin may condense to form visi-
chromosomes line up in the middle? ble chromosomes
A. anaphase II C. The nucleus of each cell may reap-
B. metaphase II pear as two independent cells are being
formed
C. telaphase II
D. none of above D. none of the above
518. The term for a cross that involves just on 523. How many divisions take place in mito-
trait, such as pod shape, is called a sis?
A. homozygous cross A. 1
B. test cross B. 2
C. monohybrid cross C. 3
D. dihybrid cross D. 4
519. cell division in which a nucleus divides
524. A human usually has this many chromo-
into two nuclei containing the same num-
somes in his or her somatic cells.
ber of chromosomes
A. Meiosis A. 6
B. Mitosis B. 22
C. sexual reproduction C. 4
D. cytoplasm D. 46

5.3 Meiosis 753
525. if a cell has 24 chromosomes how many 530. What is the differences between meiosis
will it have at the end of mitosis II and mitosis?

A. 6 A. forms 4 daughter cells instead of 2
B. 12 B. goes through 2 cycles
C. 24 C. the cells are not identical to each other
D. 48
D. All the above
526. Homologous replicated chromosomes in 531. the cells produced by the process of meio-
a pair split into separate replicated chro- sis are
mosomes and begin moving towards the
poles during this phase A. diploids
B. autosomes
A. Metaphase I
C. haploids
B. Anaphase I
D. centrosomes
C. Telophase I
D. Interphase 532. At this point in time homologous pairs of
chromosomes are aligned in the center of
527. What happens when crossing over occurs the cell:
during meiosis? A. Prophase I
A. Sisters chomatids separate B. Prometaphase I
B. Homologous chromosomes separate C. Metapahse I
C. Gamete cells are formed D. Anaphase I
D. Chromosomes exchange genetic infor- 533. When do sister chromatids separate dur-
mation ing Meiosis?
A. Metaphase I
528. Which of the following does NOT happen
during Telophase II? B. Metaphase II
A. the nuclei reform C. Anaphase I

D. Anaphase II
B. each cell begins to split evenly in two
C. the chromosomes duplicate 534. In what phase is the DNA of the cell repli-
cated or copied?
D. the nuclei contain a haploid number of
chromosomes A. Interphase
B. Prophase I
529. A human usually has xx amount of chro-
C. Telophase I
mosomes.
D. Metaphase I
A. 6
535. Meiosis produces cells in the haploid
B. 22
state. In which process is the chromosome
C. 4 number restored to the diploid state?
D. 46 A. ovulation

5.3 Meiosis 754
B. fertilization 541. An earthworm has 36 chromosomes in

C. nondisjuction each of its diploid cells. How many chromo-
somes would be in each of its gametes?
D. spermatogenesis
A. 12
536. Which of the following occurs when chro-
mosomes are replicated and synthesis of B. 18
DNA molecules occurs? C. 24
A. S phase D. 36
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. G1 phase
C. G2 phase 542. What are the structures that attach to &
guide chromosomes into place during both
D. Mitosis mitosis and meiosis?
537. If there are 30 chromosomes in the blood A. centromeres
cells, how many chromosomes will be in
the bone cells? B. spindle fibers
A. 15 C. chromatin
B. 60 D. nuclear membranes
C. 30
543. A zygote is a
D. 120
A. fertilized egg
538. Before mitosis or meiosis can begin, DNA
B. haploid cell
must go through Interphase. This is when
C. small organism
A. DNA replicates D. type of chromosome
B. DNA splits
544. you are observing a mammal’s cell under
C. DNA forms chromosomes a microscope. The cell appears to be di-
D. Chromosomes cross over viding, without having first replicated its
DNA. Which process is the cell most likely
539. If an intestinal cell in a butterfly contains
undergoing?
24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would
contain chromosomes. A. mitosis
A. 3 B. meiosis
B. 6 C. mutation
C. 12 D. multiplication
D. 24
545. Normal body cells, with a regular number
540. is the appearance of an organism, or of chromosomes, are known as
how it looks
A. sex cells
A. phenotype
B. ratio B. gametes
C. recessive trait C. somatic cells
D. heredity D. special cells

5.3 Meiosis 755
546. Which of the following is unique to meio- 552. An individual with more than the correct
sisE)none of the above number of chromosome sets is called

A. nuclear membrane breaks down A. diploid
B. DNA organizes into chromosomes B. haploid
C. crossing-over C. euploid
D. chromosomes align along the central D. polyploid
plate of the cell
553. Which process makes variation / genetic
547. In which phase do the chromosomes di- diversity possible?
vide? A. Mitosis
A. Metaphase B. Meiosis
B. Telephase C. Both
C. Prophase D. None
D. Anaphase 554. A haploid human cell contains
548. control center of the cell A. 23 chromosomes
A. mitosis B. 46 chromosomes
B. cytoplasm C. 48 chromosomes
C. nucleus D. 42 chromosomes
D. RNA 555. In a heterozygous genotype, the al-
lele takes over in the phenotype.
549. Which of the following is the division of
the cytoplasm? A. recessive
A. Mitosis B. dominant
B. Meiosis C. lower case letter
C. Cytokinesis D. both
D. Interphase 556. During which phase of meiosis does inde-
pendent assortment occur?
550. G = green, g = yellowThe genotype for a
yellow plant is A. Metaphase I
B. Anaphase I
A. GG
C. Metaphase II
B. Gg
D. Anaphase II
C. gg
D. all of the choices result in yellow 557. During cytokinesis (division of the cyto-
plasm), animal cells create a ; plant
551. Different forms of a gene are called cells create a
A. alleles A. cell plate; cleavage furrow
B. DNA B. nuclear membrane; cell plate
C. organisms C. cleavage furrow; cell plate
D. meiosis D. cleavage furrow; nuclear membrane

5.3 Meiosis 756
558. How many times does interphase occur in D. Interphase happens once during Meio-
meiosis? sis
A. one
564. If a human cell has 46 chromosomes, how
B. two many chromosomes are found in each cell
C. three at the end of mitosis?
D. none A. 23
559. What happens to the chromosomes in in- B. 92
NARAYAN CHANGDER
terphase BEFORE meiosis I begins? C. 46
A. cytokinesis D. varies
B. apoptosis
565. Diploid cells are represented by
C. DNA replication
A. n
D. fertilization
B. 2n
560. fuses gametes to form offspring with C. 4n
genes from each parent
D. 1/2 n
A. Crossing over
B. Independent assortment 566. Interphase occurs during??
C. Fertilization A. M only
D. none of above B. G1 and G2
561. During this phase, replicated chromo- C. G1, S, G2
somes move towards the center of the D. G1, S, G2, M
spindle as the spindle forms:
A. Prophase II 567. A meerkat has 36 total chromosomes in
each body cell. After meerkat cells un-
B. Prometaphase II dergo the process of meiosis, each gamete
C. Metaphase II will have
D. Anaphase II A. 16 chromosomes
562. What are sex cells from Meiosis called? B. 18 chromosomes
A. Somatic C. 36 chromosomes
B. Gametes D. 72 chromosomes
C. Diploid 568. a threadlike structure of nucleic acids and
D. None of the above protein found in the nucleus of most living
cells, carrying genetic information in the
563. Which of the statement is false about IN- form of genes.
TERPHASE?
A. Lipid
A. Cell grows during interphase
B. Chromosome
B. DNA is replicated during S-phase
C. Interphase only happens in Mitosis C. Nucleus
and not Meiosis D. Mitochondria

5.4 Meiosis and Genetic Variation 757
569. This type of genetic recombination occurs B. prophase II

in prophase I C. anaphase II

A. Crossing over
D. anaphase I
B. Independent assortment
C. Fertilization 574. In Meiosis, the chromosomes go through
crossing over, this leads to:
D. none of above
A. Genetic variation
570. if a cell has 24 chromosomes at the begin- B. Identical daughter cells
ning of meiosis how many chromosomes
will it have at the end of meiosis? C. To replication of genes
A. 6 D. No me acuerdo sir
B. 12 575. A normal human zygote should have
C. 24 chromosomes inside.
D. the number varies with the species. A. 46
571. What is the longest part of the cell cy- B. 23
cle? C. 92
A. Interphase D. 64
B. Mitosis
576. The cells produced during meiosis are
C. G1 called:
D. G2
A. gametes
572. An organism has 20 chromosomes in its B. somatic cells
skin cell. How many chromosomes are in
C. body cells
its gamete cells?
A. 20 D. skin cells
B. 10 577. What is the primary cause of genetic vari-

C. 40 ation during meiosis?
D. 15 A. chromosomes lining up
B. “crossing over” of chromosomes
573. homologous chromosomes separate dur-
ing C. separation of chromosomes
A. prophase I D. chromosomes pulling apart
5.4 Meiosis and Genetic Variation

1. A change in a single nucleotide in a gene D. Isolated Mutation
sequence is called a
2. When homologous chromosomes meet up
A. Point Mutation and find each other during prophase I,
B. Single Error what is it called?
C. Frameshift mutation A. Tetrad

B. Crossing Over B. 25% red and 75% white

C. Sister Chromatids C. 100 White
D. Synapsis D. 50% red 50% red
3. A cross between two tall garden pea 8. If you have a male with large wings (DD)
plants produced 314 tall plants and 98 and a female with small wings (dd). What
short plants. What genotypes are the par- allele stands for large wings?
ents? A. D
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. TT and tt B. d
B. TT and Tt C. Dd
C. Tt and Tt D. dd
D. TT and TT
9. Why is it important that gametes be ge-
4. Which of these is the part of the cell that netically different than parent cell?
contains hereditary material, aka DNA ge- A. For genetic variety-survivability of
netic material? species
A. interphase B. So we aren’t clones of each other
B. chromosomes C. So sperm are special
C. embryo D. So gametes are haploid
D. zygote
10. A somatic cell with 20 chromosome under-
5. Choose the right option for meiosisI. Four goes MIEOSIS, how many chromosomes
haploid cells are producedII. Produces ga- will each daughter have?
metes and genetic variation in organism- A. 20
sIII. Responsible for growth and repair
B. 10
A. I
C. 40
B. I AND II
D. none of above
C. I, II AND III
D. I AND III 11. What is the best definition of DNA?
A. The nucleic acid responsible for coding
6. The physical appearance or the way a gene for an organism’s traits
looks is known as it’s
B. DNA that is packed up tightly (individu-
A. genotype ally or in copies) > or ><
B. allele C. One version of a specific gene
C. gene D. The physical traits that can be ob-
D. phenotype served
7. Two heterozygous red flower (white flow- 12. In humans, the gamete (haploid) chromo-
ers are recessive) are crossed. What is the some number is , while the zygote
phenotype? (diploid)chromosome number is
A. 75% red and 25% white A. 23 46

B. 46 23 A. XHXh
C. 32 64 B. XhXh

D. 64 32 C. XHXH
13. If a heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed D. XhY

with a short pea plant, what are the pos- 18. Choose the right option for meiosisI. Four
sible genotypes of the future offspring? haploid cells are producedII. Produces ga-
A. 100% Tt metes and genetic variation in organism-
B. 50% Tt, 50% tt sIII. Produces gametes and genetic varia-
tion in organisms
C. 75%Tt, 25%tt
A. I
D. 25%TT, 50%Tt, 25%tt
B. I AND II
14. In Andalusian fowls, black individuals (BB) C. I, II AND III
and white individuals (bb) are homozy-
gous. Heterozygous individuals are grey D. I AND III
(Bb). What is the genotype ratio for a
19. Gregor Mendel contributed to genetics by
cross between a grey fowl and a white
concluding that traits are
fowl?
A. not inherited from one generation to
A. 2 BB:2 Bb:0 bb
another
B. 0 BB:4 Bb:0 bb
B. inherited by the next generation
C. 0 BB:2 Bb:2 bb
C. only expressed in one specific genera-
D. 1 BB:2 Bb:1 bb tion
15. What causes genetic variation/diversity D. characteristics that come only from
in meiosis? the pure breeds
A. chromosomes lining up 20. The pattern of inheritance in which there
B. crossing over of chromosomes are three or more possible alleles for a
trait is
C. separation of chromosomes
A. Incomplete dominance
D. chromosomes pulling apart
B. Codominance
16. Choose the right option for MITOSISI.
C. Polygenic Inheritance
Daughter cells are genetically identicalII.
Occurs only in body cellsIII. Responsible D. Multiple Alleles
for growth and repair
21. What is a phenotype?
A. I
A. One version of a specific gene
B. I AND II
B. DNA that is packed up tightly (individu-
C. I, II AND III ally or in copies) > or ><
D. I AND III C. When a genotype has 2 copies of the
17. Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disor- recessive allele
der. Which genotype represents a female D. The traits of an organism that can be
who is a carrier for hemophilia? observed

22. An organism’s appearance is known as its 28. In which of the following phases is DNA
A. heredity duplicated?
B. phenotype A. Mitosis
C. genotype B. Interphase
D. pedigree C. Meiosis
23. Any change in the sequence of DNA is a D. Anaphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. recombination
B. mutation 29. A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a tall plant
(Tt). What is the genotype?
C. chromatin
A. 2 TT:2 Tt:0 tt
D. independent assortment
B. 1 TT:2 Tt:1 tt
24. Genetic allow some organisms to be
better adapted to the environment. C. 2 TT:1 Tt:1 tt
A. variations D. 0 TT:0 Tt:4 tt
B. domination
30. What happens in S phase of interphase?
C. linkage
D. weakness A. Organelles double
25. This all is covered up when a dominant al- B. DNA is replicated

lele is present C. Cell Wall is destroyed
A. recessive
D. Cell divides
B. dominant
C. incomplete dominance 31. Given the parents AABbCc x AabbCc, as-
sume simple dominance and independent
D. co-dominant
assortment. What proportion of the
26. Crossing a red flower and a white flower progeny will be expected to phenotypi-
results in a pink flower. You can assume cally resemble the first parent?
flower color is an example of
A. 1/4
A. incomplete dominance
B. 1/8
B. codominance
C. 3/4
C. complete dominance
D. recessive D. 3/8
27. Sexual reproduction in animals depends on 32. The two-letter code that describes the ge-
the production of gametes. Which of these netic traits of an organism is called the
processes produces gametes in animals?
A. GENOTYPE
A. mitosis
B. PHENOTYPE
B. fertilization
C. meiosis C. GENE
D. binary fission D. none of above

33. If a father is AA and a mother is AB, C. 3

what is the probability for a child with AB D. 4
blood?

A. 0% 39. The chromosomes that pair up during meio-
sis, are called chromosomes. They
B. 25% are considered to have the same struc-
C. 50% ture/size.
D. 75% A. heterozygous
34. The process of the cell cycle where the nu- B. asexual
cleus divides to create two identical nuclei C. homologous
is called D. genes
A. Interphase
40. A homozygous dominant dog with brown
B. Mitosis fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog
C. Meiosis with brown fur. What are the percentages
D. Mutation of the possible genotypes?
A. 100% BB
35. is a type of mutation in which a se-
quence is copied more than once during B. 75% BB and 25%Bb
replication C. 50 % BB and 50% Bb
A. deletion D. 50% Bb and 50% bb
B. duplication 41. If the regular number of chromosomes of
C. inversion Carrots is 18, the number of chromosomes
D. translocation found in a carrot’s sex cells is
A. 18
36. A personal with type AB blood has which
genotype? B. 9
A. type A C. 27
B. AA D. 36
C. IAIA 42. TRansferring a male gamete from one

D. IAIB flower to afemale gamete in a differ-
ent flower (by hand, asdone by Gregor
37. Homologous pairs separate during Mendel)
A. anaphase I A. Cross pollination
B. anaphase II B. Self pollination
C. prophase II C. Single pollination
D. telophase I D. Transfer pollination
38. How many alleles does someone have for 43. How many chromosomes does an adult ga-
a genotype? mete carry?
A. 1 A. 46
B. 2 B. 23

C. 92 49. What process occurs during meiosis that

can result in chromosomal disorders?
D. 52
A. crossing over
44. is a type of mutation in which a seg- B. non-disjunction
ment of DNA is reversed (or flipped) in or-
der C. anaphase I
A. deletion D. prophase II
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. duplication 50. If two heterozygous tall plants are
crossed, and tall is dominant. What would
C. inversion
be your expected phenotypes?
D. translocation A. 100% tall
45. What fraction of offspring from the cross B. 75% tall, 25%short
AaBB x Aabb will be heterozygous for C. 50% tall, 50%short
both traits?
D. 25% tall, 75% short
A. 1/16
51. Which of the following cell divisions is re-
B. 1/4 sponsible for cellular growth and repair?
C. 1/2 A. mitosis
D. 3/16 B. meiosis
C. miosis
46. Which of the following are the genotype?
D. myeosis
A. Tt, Ww
B. Red, White 52. What shows the possible combinations
of alleles that can result from a genetic
C. Red, Rr cross?
D. none of above A. bar graph
47. What chromosome is affected by Down’s B. pie chart

Syndrome? C. punnett square
A. 23 D. co-dominant graph
B. 18 53. the blending of two traits
C. 13 A. blending
D. 21 B. recessive trait
C. incomplete dominance
48. Which term describes the different forms
of a gene D. homozygous
A. Chromosome 54. An organism has 36 chromosomes in its

genome (all the chromosomes it has).
B. Allele
What would be the correct diploid num-
C. DNA ber?
D. Punnett Squares A. 36

B. 72 60. *Two copies of chromosomes that share

C. 18 similar genes, but may have different al-
leles are called:

D. 2
55. How many gametes are produced at the B. Chromie Homies
end of meiosis II?
C. Replicated chromosomes
A. 2
D. homologous chromosomes
B. 3
61. Normal-AGA-TTC-ATA-GCGMutant-AGA-
C. 4
TTC-AAT-AGC-G
D. 8
A. deletion frameshift
56. All of the following create genetic varia- B. insertion frameshift
tion EXCEPT..
C. substitution
A. Mutations
D. nonsense
B. DNA Replication
62. Which of the following cell division allows
C. Law of Independent Assortment
for gamete cells, within which they are not
D. Crossing Over identical cells?
57. Which of the following genotypes is het- A. mitosis
erozygous? B. meiosis
A. Bb C. mytosis
B. BB D. binary fission
C. bb 63. An example of polygenic inheritance is
D. B A. Skin Color
58. If something is homozygous, it can also be B. hitch hikers thumb
called C. blood types
A. phenotype D. none of above
B. genotype
64. Which of Mendel’s laws states that alleles
C. hybrid are separated during meiosis?
D. purebred A. Law of Dominance
59. Autosomes are B. Law of Segregation
A. chromosomes found in autotrophs, C. Law of Independent Assortment
only D. Law of Meiosis
B. chromosomes that automatically cor- 65. leads to genetic variation
rect all errors in the DNA
A. mitosis
C. chromosomes that determine traits
other than sex B. meiosis
D. chromosomes that determine the sex C. both
of the individual D. none of above

66. Heredity is the passing of traits from 71. The exchange of pieces of chromatin be-
to tween homologous chromosomes during
Prophase I of meiosis is called
A. predators to prey
B. water to rain A. independent assortment
C. parents to offspring B. mutation
D. fungi to protists C. crossing over

D. random fertilization
NARAYAN CHANGDER
67. Two similar chromosomes that you get
from your parents are called (these are 72. The failure of one or more pairs of homol-
also known to have same structures) ogous chromosomes or sister chromatids
A. homologous chromsomes to separate “normally” during meiosis is
called
A. nondisjunction
C. sex chromsomes
B. crossing over
D. autosome chromosomes
C. nondiploidy
68. What process occurs in metaphase I that
D. independent separation
leads to genetic diversity?
A. Crossing Over 73. Process used to make more of its own kind,
B. Independent assortment but with only one parent
C. Synapsis A. sexual reproduction
D. Tetrad alignment B. asexual reproduction

C. development
69. A couple who are both carriers for the gene
for cystic fibrosis What is the probability D. growth
that their child will have cystic fibrosis?
74. Chromosomes that code for the same
A. 0% genes (traits), but may have different al-
B. 25% leles are known as
C. 50% A. sister chromatids
D. 75% B. homologous chromosomes
C. Haploid
70. What is the best definition of a genotype
that is heterozygous? (Ex-Rr) D. Centromere
A. When a genotype has a dominant and
recessive allele
unite(fuse)?
B. When a genotype has 2 copies of the
A. meiosis
recessive allele
B. fertilization
C. When a genotype has 2 copies of the
dominant allele C. cell division
D. none of above D. mitosis

76. Choose the right option for meiosisI. Ho- 81. What is one cause of genetic variation in
mologous chromosomes pair togetherII. meiosis?
Centromeres divide and sister chromatids

A. chromosomes lining up
are separated by spindle fibersIII. Sister
chromatids split at anaphase B. crossing over of chromosomes
A. I C. separation of chromosomes
B. I AND II D. chromosomes pulling apart
C. I, II AND III
82. A red flower (Rr) is crossed with a white
D. I AND III flower (rr). What is the genotype?
77. Another word for homozygous is A. 0 RR; 0 Rr:4 rr
A. purebred B. 2 RR; 0 Rr:2 rr
B. hybrid C. 4 RR; 0 Rr:0 rr
C. heterozygous D. 0 RR; 2 Rr:2 rr

D. dominant 83. Which of the following genotypes is ho-
mozygous recessive?
78. is a type of mutation in which a portion
of a chromosome breaks off and attaches A. RR
to a different chromosome B. Rr
A. deletion C. rr
B. duplication D. None of the Above
C. inversion
84. Cross Two Homozygous plants ( RRYY x
D. translocation
rryy ) R = round seeds, r = wrinkled
79. What type of inheritance do two alleles seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
have if their traits blend together? What percent will have Round and Yellow
seeds?
A. Incomplete Dominance
A. 0%
B. Co-Dominance
B. 25%
C. Mendelian Inheritance
C. 50%
D. Homozygous Inheritance
D. 100%
80. A woman with blood genotype I(A)i mar-
ries a man with blood genotype I(B)i. 85. Males have for their sex chromosomes,
What is the probability that they would while females have for their sex chro-
have a child with type O blood? mosomes.
A. 1/1 A. XY, XX
B. 1/2 B. XX, XY
C. 1/3 C. XO, XX
D. 1/4 D. XY, YY

86. Blood type is an example of 91. What is an allele?

A. heterozygous trait A. The genetic traits that can only be ob-
served in DNA
B. homozygous trait
B. Also known as sex cells (egg and
C. codominance trait
sperm)
D. sex linked trait C. One version of a specific gene
87. Which source of genetic variation is NOT a D. The nucleic acid responsible for coding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
result of sexual reproduction? for an organism’s traits
A. Crossing over 92. What are the three ways meiosis can in-
B. Independent assortment (due to ran- troduce genetic variability in its’ daughter
dom orientation cells?
C. Gene mutation A. synapsis, tetrad, crossing over
D. Random fertilization B. crossing over, splitting chromatids, ho-

mologous chromosomes lining up
88. What is a genotype? C. crossing over, independ. assortment,
A. 1 copy of each chromosome random sperm fertilizes egg
B. The genetic traits that can only be ob- D. none of above
served in DNA
C. One chromosome from each parent that is homozygous recessive? (Ex-rr)
that has the same type of information but A. When a genotype has a dominant and
might have different alleles (versions) recessive allele
D. When a genotype has 2 copies of the B. When a genotype has 2 copies of the
dominant allele recessive allele
89. Which phrase best describes Meiosis? C. When a genotype has 2 copies of the
dominant allele
A. occurs in body cells
D. none of above
B. makes genetically identical cells
C. happens in haploid cells 94. What describes the physical appearance of
a trait?
D. makes cells that are genetically differ-
ent A. allele
B. genotype
90. Crossing over between nonsister chro-
C. phenotype
matids during meiosis is significant in
heredity. This process most likely leads D. karyotype
to an increase in which of the following?
95. How can the cells that result from a mei-
A. the expression of dominant traits otic division II be genetically described?
B. number of gametes A. Two new genetically identical cells
C. the occurrence of polyploidy B. Four new genetically identical cells
D. genetic variation C. Four new genetically different cells

D. Four genetically identical & different 101. Which would be considered a somatic
cells cell?
A. Sperm cell

96. If an organism’s diploid number (2n) is 46,
what is its haploid (n) number? B. Egg Cell
A. 46 C. Skin Cell
B. 92 D. All of these
C. 23 102. The inherited combination of alleles is
known as the offspring’s
D. 2
A. heredity
97. Which of the following is NOT a somatic
B. phenotype
cell?
C. genotype
A. Sperm Cell
D. redigree
B. Skin Cell
103. Snap dragon color is a incomplete domi-
C. Muscle Cell
nant trait. A red flower (RR) is crossed
D. Red Blood Cell with white flower (rr)? What color are
flowers that are Rr?
98. XY means
A. Red
A. this person has 45 chromosome and
FEMALE B. Red and White
C. White
B. this person has 43 pairs chromosome
and FEMALE D. Pink
C. this person has an extra chromosome 104. What organism did Mendel study?
and MALE A. pea plants
D. this person is missing a chromosome B. onions
and MALE
C. mice
99. If the four existing children in a family are D. cats
all sons, what chance would there be that
the next child would also be a son? 105. Diploid means
A. 75% A. having two copies of each chromo-
some
B. 50%
B. having one copy of each chromosome
C. 25%
C. having two of each cell
D. 20%
D. having one of each cell
100. The technique known as karyotyping is 106. Crossing over happens in which phase of
used to detect abnormalities in what? Meiosis?
A. chromosomes A. Prophase I
B. ribosomes B. Metaphase I
C. blood and urine C. Anaphase I
D. amniotic fluid D. Telophase I

107. occurs when a male gamete (sperm) from gene C 2% of the time. Which genes
combines with a female gamete (egg). are most likely linked?
A. sporulation A. A-B
B. fertilization B. B-C
C. fission C. A-C
D. regeneration D. none of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
108. What is another name for body cells? 113. What does meiosis exclusively produce?
A. sex cells A. Babies
B. gametes B. Gametes
C. zygotes C. Somatic cells

D. Nuclei
D. somatic cells
114. An animal with a diploid number of 36
109. A mode of reproduction in which an or-
chromosomes will have chromosomes
ganism arises from two organisms and in-
in itsgametes and chromosomes in its
herits half of its DNA from each parent
somatic/body cells.
A. Sexual Reproduction
A. 18 18
B. Asexual Reproduction B. 18 36
C. Cloning C. 36 18
D. Fragmentation D. 36 36
110. Nondisjunction can result in 115. Chromosomes that have similar genes
A. trisomy conditions (but not exactly the same genetic info) 1M
/ 1P are called
B. monosomy conditions
A. Tetrads
C. additional sex chromosomes
B. Homologous chromosomes
D. all of these
C. Bivalents
111. Gene A, B, and C are on the same chro- D. Sister Chromatids
mosome. Gene A separates from gene B
15% of the time and gene B separates 116. A mosquito has 6 chromosomes. How
from gene C 2% of the time. How far many chromosomes would their egg and
apart are genes A and C in gene map? sperm cells have?
A. 2 map units A. 2
B. 15 map units B. 3
C. 17 map units C. 6
D. 30 map units D. 12
112. Gene A, B, and C are on the same chro- 117. How many cells are created during
mosome. Gene A separates from gene B Telophase II?
15% of the time and gene B separates A. 1

B. 2 B. DNA that is packed up tightly (individu-

C. 3 ally or in copies) > or ><

D. 4 C. The genetic traits that can only be ob-
served in DNA
118. Which best describes nondisjunction? D. The physical traits that can be ob-
A. an inherited mutation carried in an egg served
or a sperm
123. What has DNA?
B. an error in meiosis where chromo-
somes fail to separate A. animals
C. when chromosomes fuse together dur- B. plants

ing mitosis C. bacteria
D. when homologous chromosomes D. all of the above
trade segments
124. If something is heterozygous, it is also
that is homozygous dominant? (Ex-RR) A. purebred
A. When a genotype has a dominant and B. hybrid
recessive allele
C. dominant
B. When a genotype has 2 copies of the
recessive allele D. recessive
C. When a genotype has 2 copies of the 125. Different versions or forms of the same
dominant allele gene are called-
D. none of above A. Sex Cells
120. A phenotype is B. Chromosomes
A. Dominance C. Alleles
B. Physical appearance D. Nitrogen Bases
C. Recessiveness 126. Germ cells go through:

D. Letter Combinations A. mitosis
121. A human being has a body cell that has 46 B. meiosis

chromosomes. What is the haploid number C. DNA replication
found in a gamete? D. none of above
A. 23
127. Chromosome mutation involving a seg-
B. 46 ment of a chromosome breaking off and
C. 69 attaching to a non-homologous chromo-
D. 92 some.
A. Deletion
122. What is the best definition of chromo-
somes? B. Inversion
A. A section of DNA that codes for a spe- C. Translocation

cific trait D. Duplication

128. Brown (B) is dominant over white (b). 133. Which of the following is NOT a source of
Which genotype is a purebred for brown genetic diversity?
fur? A. mutation
A. BB B. segregation of homologs
B. Bb C. independent assortment of homolo-
C. bb gous pairs
D. All of the above D. mitosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
134. For every one cell that goes through meio-
129. is a type of mutation in which part
sis, how many become an egg? (hint:4
of a chromosome (or sequence) is left out
cells are made but how many become an
during replication
egg)
A. deletion
A. 1
B. duplication
B. 2
C. inversion C. 3
D. translocation D. 4
130. In fertilization, what happens to the egg 135. having two of the same genes for the
and sperm cell? trait (sometimes called purebred).
A. They combine together, to put together A. homozygous
their DNA
B. hetrozygous
B. half of the cells copy their DNA twice C. protein
C. they only keep have their chromo- D. chromosome
somes
136. Unique gametes are produced by which
D. none of above
of the following?
131. A child born with blood type O could have A. Independent assortment during meio-
parents with all of the following blood sis I.
types except ? B. Independent assortment during meio-
A. iAi and iBi sis II.
B. iBi and ii C. Selective assortment during meiosis I.
C. iAi and iAi
D. Selective assortment during meiosis
D. iAiB and ii
II.
132. Sex cells are produced through the pro- 137. If a stem cell has 24 chromosomes, how
cess of many will it have at the end of meiosis?
A. mitosis A. 24
B. cytokinesis B. 12
C. binary fission C. 6
D. meiosis D. the number varies per species

138. According to , genes that are closer 143. Having two of the same alleles for the
together on a chromosome, have a higher same trait
chance of being inherited together.

A. heterozygous
A. Gene Linkage B. chromosome
B. Crossing Over C. protein
C. Probability D. homozygous
D. none of above
144. A green pea plant (GG) is being crossed
139. Meiosis is a more specific type of cell di- with a green pea plant (Gg). What is the
vision (of germ cells, in particular) that re- phenotype?
sults in , either eggs or sperm, that con- A. 100 % rainbow
tain half of the chromosomes found in a B. 50% yellow and 50% green
parent cell.
C. 100% green
A. meiosis cells
D. 100% yellow
B. mitosis cells
145. For every one cell that goes through meio-
C. gametes
sis, how many become a sperm cell
D. trametes
A. 1
140. What mutation has occurred here? T-G- B. 2
A-C-C-AT-G-A-G-C-A
C. 3
A. Substitution D. 4
B. Deletion
146. Crossing over occurs in which meiotic
C. Insertion phase?
D. Frameshift A. cytokinesis II
141. having two different genes for a trait B. anaphase I
(sometimes called hybrid). C. metaphase II
A. protein D. prophase I
B. homozygous 147. Which processes DOES NOT increase ge-
C. heterozygous netic variation directly during sexual re-
D. genotype production?
A. Crossing over
142. What would be blood groups of the
B. ransom assortment
progeny of heterozygous father with
blood group A and mother homozygous for C. mutations
B? D. Random fertilization
A. A and B
148. the passing of genetic traits from parent
B. AB and A to offspring.
C. O A. heredity
D. AB and B B. trait

C. gene 154. Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a

baby. What is the chance the baby is blue
D. allele
eyed?
149. Fertilization A. 0 %
A. happens randomly B. 25%
B. is controlled by the sperm cells C. 50%
C. is controlled by the egg cells D. 75%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. results in individuals have identical 155. A phenotype is the
traits to their parents A. letter combination
150. B-black, b-brown. Two black mice mate B. dominant gene
and have some black and some brown mice. C. recessive gene
What is the genotype of the parents?
D. physical appearance
A. BB x Bb
156. Which sex chromosome combination is
B. BB x bb
for a female?
C. Bb x Bb A. XY
D. Bb x bb B. XX
151. How many daughter cells are produced C. YY
when meiosis is completed? D. XXY
A. 46 157. Meiosis produces daughter cells that
B. 23 are:
C. 4 A. genetically identical
D. 2 B. genetically different
C. zygotes
152. How many alleles (letters) does a child
D. germ cells
get from each parent for each trait?
A. 1 158. XX means
B. 2 A. this person has an extra chromosome
and FEMALE
C. 3
B. this person is missing a chromosome
D. 4 and FEMALE
153. Which of the following is homozygous re- C. this person has an extra chromosome
cessive and MALE
A. Rr D. this person is missing a chromosome

and MALE
B. RR
159. During meiosis the resulting gametes
C. rr
have the number of chromosomes as
D. all of them the parent cell.

A. double 165. In fruit flies eye color is carried on the X

B. triple chromosome. RED is dominant to WHITE.
What is the sex and color of the follow-

C. half ing:XrY
D. a quarter A. female red
160. The two ways to increase genetic varia- B. female white
tion during meiosis are crossing over and C. male red
D. male white
A. Synapsis
B. Tetrad 166. When homologous chromosomes fail to
separate during Anaphase I or sister chro-
matids fail to separate during Anaphase II
D. Gameiosis it is called
161. Germ cells (cells that make egg and A. Karyotype
sperm cells) go through: B. Down Syndrome
A. mitosis C. Non-disjunction
B. meiosis D. Crossing Over
C. DNA replication
167. Trait will always show up in an organism
D. none of above if the allele is present
162. One reason for Mendel’s success with ge- A. recessive
netic studies of peas was that he B. dominant
A. used only hybrid pea plants C. incomplete dominant
B. used peas with large chromosomes D. codominant
C. studied large numbers of offspring
168. If a purebred, normal feathered bird (FF)
D. discovered the sources of variation in
is crossed with a frizzy-feathered bird
peas
(ff) how many different phenotypes would
163. forms haploid cells you have?
A. mitosis A. 1
B. meiosis B. 2
C. both C. 3
164. The allele pairs or combination an organ- 169. Which sex chromosomes would indicate a
ism hasGg, BB, Tt, hh typical human male?
A. genotype A. XX
B. allele B. X
C. gene C. XY
D. phenotype D. XXY

170. Having two different alleles for a trait is 175. A person with Turner syndrome has only
called one X chromosome. This means one of
A. homozygous their gametes was missing a chromosome.
Which of the following is why gametes
B. heterozygous sometimes lack a complete chromosome?
C. protein A. Incomplete dominance
D. genotype B. Nondisjunction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
171. Male and female reproductive cells are C. Inversion mutation
collectively known as: D. Substitution mutation
A. spores 176. The man who studied genetics and came
B. pollen up with genetics is
C. gametes A. Watson
D. somates B. Crick
C. Mendel
172. Unattached earlobes (E) is dominant. At-
tached earlobes (e) is recessive. A woman D. Darwin
with the genotype (Ee) and a man with
177. Most of the cell cycle consists of
the genotype (ee) have a child. What is
the time between cell division? Also, the
the probability that the child is heterozy-
cell performs everyday activities including
gous?
cellular respiration and cellular regulation.
A. 0% Also, DNA replication occurs during this
B. 25% stage of the cell cycle?
C. 50% A. Mitosis
D. 75% B. Meiosis
C. Interphase
173. Which of the following laws claims that
alleles will come together independently D. none of above
of each other in the offspring? 178. What are separated during the first mei-
A. Law of Independent Assortment otic division
B. Law of Probable Expression A. chromatids
C. Law of Typical Collection B. chromosomes
D. Law of Assorted Assignment C. haploids
D. diploids
174. The idea that homologous pairs separate
randomly into either of the cells produced 179. How many haploid daughter cells are pro-
after meiosis I is called duced after meiotic division of one cell?
A. segregation A. 1
B. independent assortment B. 2
C. fixed assortment C. 3
D. ordered pairs D. 4

180. Which of the following is a recessive phe- C. The expression of one of your parents
notype traits

A. bb D. The set of genes in our DNA which is
B. Bb responsible for a particular trait
C. BB 186. What process re-establishes the diploid
D. blue eyes chromosome number?
A. MITOSIS
181. Which of the following laws claims that
alleles will separate during meiosis, one B. MEIOSIS
going to half the sex cells, the other allele C. fertilization
going to the other half.
D. duplication
A. Law of Domination
B. Law of Segregation 187. Which of the following describes how al-
leles will be inherited without influencing
C. Law of Speciation each other?
D. Law of Genetics
A. Law of Independent Assortment
182. Which of the following genotypes would B. Law of Segregation
be considered heterozygous?
C. Law of Fertilization
A. BB
D. Law of Mitosis
B. gg
C. Ff 188. How many rounds of division are in meio-
sis?
D. TT
A. 1
183. Sex linked traits are typically carried on B. 2
the
C. 3
A. Y chromosome
D. 4
B. X chromosome
C. both X and Y chromosomes 189. Recessive alleles are-
D. neither X and Y chromosomes A. capital
184. What are alleles B. lowercase
A. different forms of the same gene C. both

B. an alternate step of the cell cycle D. neither
C. body cells 190. What type of cells are produced through
D. another name for gametes the use of meiosis?
A. an individuals skin cells
185. Which of the following is the CORRECT
definition for a genotype? B. an individuals red blood cells
A. The physical expression of a gene C. an individuals white blood cells
B. A strand of DNA made up of multiple D. an individuals gamete cells (sperm or
mutations egg cells).

191. Choose the right option for meiosisI. C. adjunction

Homologous chromosomes pair togetherII. D. adjoint
Centromeres divide and sister chromatids
are separated by spindle fibersIII. Occurs 195. How are locations of genes determined in
only in reproductive cells gene maps?
A. I A. How often chromosomes separate in
B. I AND II anaphase 1
B. frequency of genes separating by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. I, II AND III
crossing over
D. I AND III
C. how homologous pairs pair up in
192. If alleles look like Aa in a genotype it is metaphase 1
said to be
D. frequency of cells separating in cytoki-
A. homozygous nesis
B. heterozygous
196. How would you describe the cells pro-
C. incomplete dominant duced by meiosis?
D. codominant A. 2 identical diploid cells
193. A cross of a red cow with a white bull B. 2 identical haploid cells
produces all road offspring. This type of C. 4 genetically unique diploid cells
inheritance is known as
D. 4 genetically unique haploid cells
A. codominance
B. incomplete dominance 197. If an organism’s haploid (n) number is 5,
what is the number of chromosomes in the
C. multiple alleles somatic cells (diploid 2n)?
D. “breed time: A. 5
194. When meiosis goes wrong, it is called B. 10
A. monozygotic C. 15
B. nondisjunction D. 20

6. Heredity
6.1 Basics of Probability

1. It is an event with one or more outcomes? 4. A basket contains 5 purple pencils and 9
brown pencils. If two pencils are picked
A. Intersection of events
at random one after the other without re-
B. Simple event placement, then what is the probability
that both the pencils are purple?
C. Union of events
A. 9/182
D. Compound event
B. 5/182
2. A bag of marbles contains 5 red, 7 purple, C. 2/91
and 3 blue marbles. If one marble is cho-
D. 10/91
sen at random, what is the probability that
the marble is NOT blue? 5. Theoretical Probability is?
A. 4/5 A. What Should happen
B. 1/5 B. What does happen
C. 3/5 C. What Will Happen
D. 2/5 D. What I want to Happen
6. What is the probability of drawing a black

3. Arlene Joy got coins from her pocket which
5 from a standard deck of playing cards?
accidentally rolled on the floor. If there
were 8 possible outcomes, how many A. 1/2
coins fell on the floor? B. 4/52
A. 3 C. 1/13
B. 8 D. 1/26
C. 4 7. Rolling a 15 on a number cube is
D. 16 A. Impossible

6.1 Basics of Probability 778
B. Certain 13. It is a set of all possible outcomes of an

C. Unlikely experiment.
D. Equally Likely A. Probability
B. Event
8. Classify the following statement as an ex-
ample of classical, empirical, or subjective C. Sample Space
probability.After grading the first chapter D. Outcome
test the teacher stated that if grades did
NARAYAN CHANGDER
not get better about 1 out of every 4 stu- 14. Flipping a coin, rolling a die, rotating a
dents would not pass the class. spinner, and predicting the weather are all
examples of
A. Classical
A. Outcomes
B. Empirical
C. Subjective B. Experiment
D. none of above C. Simple event

D. Sample Space
9. You roll two die.What is the probability
you will roll a 4 or roll an odd number? 15. If Mrs. Mack polls the class and asks,
A. 1/6 “What is your favorite pizza topping?”
Suppose that the responses include:10%
B. 3/6
cheese; 30% pepperoni; 25% sausage;
C. 3/36 5% ham. What percent of the class have
D. 4/6 another opinion?
10. Draw one card from a standard deck. Find A. 20%

P(black and a 10) B. 30%
A. 17/52 C. 35%
B. 2/13 D. This cannot be calculated.
C. 4/13 16. Colin puts cards with the numbers 1-40
D. 1/26 written on them in a bag. Maggie draws
a card without looking. Which is Maggie
11. The set of all possible outcomes of a prob-
most likely to draw? A number that is
ability experiment is the
A. Divisible by 3
A. probability experiment
B. Divisible by 4
B. outcome
C. event C. Divisible by 5
D. sample space D. none of above
12. These are the results of an experiment or 17. A balanced die is rolled. What is the prob-
an element of a sample space. ability of rolling a number that is not 3?
A. Experiment A. 0
1
B. Event B. 6
5
C. Sample Space C. 6
D. Outcome D. 1

18. Toss three coins. The probability that all 23. It is the measure or estimation of how
three are Heads is likely an event will occur.

A. 3/8 A. Experiment
B. 1/8 B. Probability
C. 3/2 C. Sample Space
D. 7/8 D. Event
19. Experimental Probability is: 24. A bag contains 10 red balls and 7 blue
balls. A ball is drawn at random. The prob-
A. What Will happen
ability that ball drawn is not red is
B. What actually happens A. 7
C. What should happen B. 10/17
D. What I think Happens C. 7/17
20. The following balls are placed in an urn:5 D. 3/17
red, 4 yellow, 7 blue, and 7 green. One
ball is randomly drawn from the urn. 25. Find the experimental probability:Roll
What is the probability that the ball is ei- dice:1, 3, 3, 4, 4Rolling a 1?
ther yellow or green? A. 3/5
A. 5/23 B. 1/6
B. 9/23 C. 2/5
C. 11/23 D. 1/5
D. 7/23 26. The possible results of an experiment
21. The letters that form the word ALGEBRA A. outcomes
are placed in a bowl. What is the probabil- B. event
ity of choosing a letter other than “A”?
C. experiment
A. 2/7
D. probability
B. 5/49
27. What is the probability of picking a di-
C. 5/7
amond from a standard deck of play-
D. 10/49 ing cards which has 13 cards in each of
four suits:spades, hearts, diamonds and
22. IDENTIFY AS SAMPLE SPACE, PROBA- clubs?
BILTY, EVENT, SAMPLE POINT, EXPERI-
MENT OR OUTCOME:GETTING A HEAD IN A. 1/13
A SINGLE TOSS OF COIN B. 1/4
A. PROBABILITY C. 4/13
B. EVENT D. 1/2
C. SAMPLE SPACE
28. Slips of paper marked with the numbers 1,
D. SAMPLE POINT 2, 3, 4, and 5 are placed in a box. After

mixing, two slips are drawn. How many C. 117

possible outcomes are there? D. none of above
A. 5
33. A dartboard has 4 equal sections, of which
B. 10 2 are orange. What is the probability that
C. 15 a dart will land in an orange section?
D. 25 A. 1/2
B. 2/4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
29. A bag contains 30 pieces of candy. There
are 15 grape, 7 cherry, 3 lemon, 5 straw- C. 50%
berry. What is the probability of drawing D. All of the above
a lemon?
A. 3 34. Which word best describes the probability
that I will see a flying COW today?
B. 1/10
A. Certain
C. 3/10
B. Impossible
D. 30%
C. Likely
30. Draw one card from a standard deck. Find
D. Very unlikely
P(ace of diamonds)
A. 1/13 35. The faces of a 6-sided number cube are la-
beled 1-6. If you roll a pair of number
B. 1/4
cubes, what is the theoretical probability
C. 4/13 that both will come up on the number 4?
D. 1/52 A. 1/36
31. There are 12 men on the basketball team. B. 16/36

2 are centers, 5 are guards, the rest a for- C. 4/9
wards. What is the probability that out of
D. 1/30
two players chosen at random they would
be a guard and a forward? 36. When tossing a coin, what are the possible
A. 25/132 outcomes?
B. 25/144 A. Head
C. 22/144 B. Tail
D. 24/132 C. Head and Tail
D. None
32. A radio host plans to play one song from
each of 3 CDs by a single artist. The first 37. When rolling a regular 6-sided cube one
CD includes 12 songs. the second CD in- time, what are the possible outcomes?
cludes 14 songs, and the third includes 13
songs. How many different combinations A. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
are possible? B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
A. 39 C. 1, 6
B. 2184 D. 2, 4, 6

38. Branch of Mathematics that deals with un- A. 2/19

certainty.
B. 1/10

A. Algebra
C. 1/25
B. Geometry
D. 1/45
C. Statistics
D. Probability 44. A spinner has 3 equal sections that are red,
white, and blue. What is the probability of
39. You give the answer to a probability prob- not landing on blue? Use the complement
lem as 6/5. The teacher marks it wrong. to find the probability.
Why?
A. 1/3
A. It should have been 5/6.
B. 2/3
B. Its not written as a percent.
C. 0
C. Its more than 1.
D. 1
D. Its not written as a decimal.
45. The probability of Asher’s soccer team win-
40. What is half of two plus two?
ning its next game is 7/10. What is
A. 1 the probability of not winning their next
B. 2 game?
C. 3 A. unlikely
D. 6 B. 3/10
41. It is a process that has a number of pos- C. 1/2

sible outcomes by which an observation is D. impossible
obtained
A. event 46. There are 4 queens in a standard deck of
52 cards. You pick one card at random.
B. experiment What is the probability of not picking a
C. sample point queen? Use the complement to find the
probabiliity.
D. sample
A. 3/4
42. Jazlyn has 4 quarters, 10 dimes, and 3
nickels in her wallet. What is the likeli- B. 1/13
hood of her choosing a penny? C. 12/13
A. certain D. 4/52
B. likely
47. An activity that gives us various results is
C. unlikely a/an
D. impossible
A. Probability
43. A bag has 2 yellow marbles and 8 brown B. Outcome
marbles. Nancy takes out two marbles
C. Experiment
without replacing the marbles. What is the
probability that they will both be yellow? D. Event

48. A list of all possible outcomes 53. Roll a die one time. Find P(a number less
than 7).
A. sample space
A. 0
B. probability
B. 1
C. odds
C. 7/6
D. experimental probability
D. 1/6
49. What is an outcome?
54. How many ways can A, B, C, D, E be ar-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The result of an experiment ranged?
B. The chance or likelihood of an event A. 120
C. A fraction, decimal, or a percent B. 225
D. An activity that gives various results C. 3, 125
D. 2, 125
50. Determine whether the event is impossi-
ble, unlikely, as likely as not, likely, or 55. Find the probability of rolling a 7 on a sin-
certain. You flip a fair coin and the coin gle, 1-6 sided die.
will land heads up. A. 1/6
A. impossible B. 7/6
B. unlikely C. 0
C. as likely as not D. 7/7
D. likely 56. a set whose elements are obtained de-
pending on the given conditions
51. How many license plates consisting of
three letters followed by three numbers A. event
are possible when no repetition is al- B. experiment
lowed?
C. outcomes
A. 26 x 25 x 24 x 10 x 9 x 8 = 11232000
D. sample space
B. 26 x 26 x 26 x 10 x 10 x 10 = 17576000
57. What is the probability of randomly pick-
ing a number from 1 to 10 that is even
C. 26 x 25 x 24 x 9 x 8 x 7 = 7862400 and randomly picking a number from 1 to
D. 26 x 26 x 26 x 9 x 9 x 9 = 12812904 10 that is odd?
A. 1/4
52. If i have numbers from 1 to 100.i have to
select one number at random.What is the B. 2/5
probaility that selected number is a perfect C. 2/7
square? D. 1/3
A. 0.1
58. The result of a single trial of a probability
B. 0.01 experiment.
C. 1 A. outcome
D. 0.8 B. event

C. sample space B. 1-P(all)

D. income C. P(none)-1

59. Way of presenting sample space having an D. 1-P(none)
idea of, “if there are p ways to do one
64. What is the sample space when you toss
thing, and q ways to do another thing,
two coins?
then there are p x q ways to do both
things A. S={HH, TT}
A. Tree diagram B. S={HT, TH}
B. Fundamental counting principle C. S={HH}
C. Listing D. S={HH, HT, TH, TT}
D. Table 65. Which events are dependent?
60. How many outcomes are there with toss- A. selecting a king from a standard 52
ing a coin and rolling a dice? card deck and then a queen without re-
A. 2 placing the king
B. 6 B. Flipping a coin and rolling a 4-sided die
C. 12
C. Having two children both with blue
D. 24 eyes
61. Two marbles are randomly drawn from a D. Making 2 three-pointers in a row dur-
bag containing 3 purple, 1 blue, and 1 yel- ing a basketball game
low marble. The first marble drawn is not
replaced. Find the probability of drawing a 66. There is a 0% chance that the earth is the
first a blue marble and then a second mar- closest planet to the sun. Describe the like-
ble that is yellow. lihood of the event given its probability.
A. 1/20 A. unlikely
B. 1/25 B. certain
C. 2/25 C. likely
D. 1/10 D. impossible
62. Which word best describes the probability 67. Rolling two dice once. What is the proba-
that it will rain today? bility that the sum is 7?
A. 1 million chance A. 1/6
B. never B. 2/5
C. Likely C. 1/8
D. unlikely D. 2/7
63. In a sequence of independent events, the 68. In a deck of 52 cards, if one card is se-
probability that at least one event is suc- lected at random. What is the probability
cessful is equal to that the card drawn is a red card?
A. 1 A. 0.5

B. 0 4 74. If a coin is tossed once, what is the proba-

C. 0.3 bility of getting a head?
1
D. 0.2 A. 4
2
B.
69. Rolling a 15 on a single dice 3
1
A. Impossible C. 2
3
B. Certain D. 4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Unlikely 75. IN A GIVEN SET, (1, 2, 3, 4), WHAT IS THE
D. Equally Likely PROBABILITY OF HAVING AN ODD NUM-
BER?
70. Find the probability of having exactly one
head while tossing two coins simultane- A. 3/12
ously B. 2/10
A. 2/4 C. 1/4
B. 1/4 D. 2/4 OR 1/2
C. 3/4
76. The probability it will rain in Cleveland to-
D. 1
day is 3/5. The probability it will rain in
71. A farmer has 17 sheep and all but 9 die. Toledo today is 0.65. Which event is more
How many are left? likely?
A. None A. It will rain in Cleveland today.
B. 8 B. It will rain in Toledo today.
C. 9 C. Neither. Both are equally likely.
D. 17 D. Not enough information
72. If you roll one die, what is the probability 77. An experiment has 2828 possible out-
of getting an even number or a multiple of comes, all equally likely. An event can oc-
3? cur in 7 ways. Find the probability that
A. 1/3 the event occurs.
1
B. 2/3 A. 4
C. 1/2 28
B. 7
D. 1/6 C. 0
73. A farm has 5 brown cows and 10 white D. 1
cows. A fence is open and two cows es-
cape. What is the probability that it will 78. What is the probability of rolling a 5 on a
be a brown cow, then a white cow? standard die?
A. 1/9 A. 1/5
B. 2/9 B. 5/6
C. 5/21 C. 1/6
D. 10/21 D. 5

79. Probability is between which two num- 84. What does union of event consist?
bers? A. all the elements in event A and set B.

A. 0-100 B. the common elements in event A and
B. 5-10 set B.
C. 0-1 C. all the elements in event A but not in
event B.
D. none of above
D. all the elements in event B but not in
80. A school has 5 entrance gates and 4 exit event A.
gates. In how many different ways can
one enter and exit from the school? 85. The wind blew through his hair as the boy
watched the clouds roll in. As the waves
A. 9 grew bigger and bigger, he decided it was
B. 12 time to ride home. What is the boy do-
ing?
C. 15
A. eating breakfast
D. 20
B. sailing
81. You have a jar of jelly beans in front of C. riding his bike
you with 12-lime, 17-papaya, 5-mango
and 13-bubble gum. What is the probabil- D. playing with his friends
ity, as a fraction, of selecting either a lime
86. What is sample space?
or bubble gum followed by a papaya?
A. a process with an uncertain result
A. 425/2209
B. a possible result of an action
B. 65/223
C. a list of all possible outcomes of an
C. 2/5 event
D. 204/567 D. a single outcome or group of outcomes
82. An unlikely chance event is closer to what 87. There are 2 violet balls and 4 pink balls
number? in a bag. If two balls are drawn one af-
A. 0 ter the other, then what is the probability
of getting violet first and pink next, if the
B. 1 first ball drawn is replaced?
C. -1 A. 1/3
D. none of above B. 2/9
83. Two fair coins are tossed. What is the C. 1/6
probability of getting at most one head? D. 1/4
(Hint:Create a sample space)
88. What must be true for a number to be a
A. 1/2
probability?
B. 3/4
A. can’t be zero
C. 1/4
B. The number must be between-1 and 1,
D. 1 inclusive.

C. Could be any number 94. A box has 3 limes, 5 grapes, and 2 or-
D. The number must be between 0 and 1, anges. If you were to randomly select a
inclusive. fruit from this box without looking, what
is the probability of not selecting a lime?P
89. Given a standard deck of cards, what is (NOT lime)
the probability of randomly choosing a red A. 3/10
card or a black card
B. 30%
A. 26/52 or 1/2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 7/10
B. 52/52 or 1
D. Answer Not Here
C. 13/52 or 1/4
D. 18/52 or 9/26 95. Getting number 15 when rolling a dice is
A. Impossible
90. How many 9’s are there between 1 and
B. Unlikely
100?
C. Certain
A. 10
D. Equally Likely
B. 99
C. 13 96. If there is a 40% chance for rain, then
there is a 60% chance that it will not rain.
D. 20
What rule in probability does the 60% con-
91. When rolling a 6-sided die, the probability clusion represent?
of rolling a number less than 1 is A. Probability Assignment Rule
A. 0 B. Disjoint Rule
B. 1/6 C. Subtraction Rule
C. 1 D. Complement Rule
D. 2/6
97. Which example shows a result that is im-
92. Given a standard deck of cards, what is possible?
the probability of randomly choosing an A. The sun will rise tomorrow
eight?
B. It will snow today
A. 1/4
C. You will have two birthdays this year
B. 1/3
D. You will roll a 4 on a die
C. 1/2
98. In his Halloween bag, Jack got 3 Twix,
D. 1/13 8 Snickers, 5 Lollipops, and 4 Reese’s.
93. Sarah rolls a standard die 120 times. How Jack pulls candy out of his bag at random.
many times can she expect to roll a number What is the probability of Jack pulling out
larger than 4? a Twix or a Snickers on one try?
11
A. 120 A. 20
24
B. 60 B. 20
11
C. 40 C. 40
24
D. 20 D. 400

99. Rolling a 15 on a 6-sided number cube is 104. Draw one card from a standard deck.
Find P(diamond)
A. Impossible

A. 8%
B. Certain
B. 25%
C. Unlikely
C. 31%
D. Equally Likely
D. 2%
100. Evan has 6 red marbles and 2 green mar-
105. Using the list from the last page, which
bles in a bag. What is the likelihood of him
phrase describes Jerri’s chance of choosing
choosing a green marble?
the correct combination on her first try?
A. certain
A. 1 chance in 3
B. likely
B. 1 chance in 6
C. unlikely C. 1 chance in 9
D. impossible D. none of above
101. A dice (numbered 1-6) is rolled 20 times. 106. A bag contains 30 pieces of candy. There
How many times will a number less than are 15 grape, 7 cherry, 3 lemon, 5 straw-
4 show? berry. If you were to randomly select
A. 5 a candy without looking inside the bag,
what is the probability of selecting a
B. 10 lemon?
C. 15 A. 3
D. Never B. 1/10
102. Eshye Gnine Cayabyab is a good stu- C. 3/10

dent. The probability that she studies and D. 30%
passes her test is 4/5. If the probability
that she studies is 7/9. What is the prob- 107. IN A GIVEN SET OF NUMBERS, (1, 2, 3,
ability that she passes given that she stud- 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10), WHAT IS THE PROB-
ies? ABILITY OF HAVING A 10?
A. 36/35 A. 1/10
B. 2/10
B. 35/36
C. 1/12
C. 1/6
D. 2/12
D. 1/10
108. Given a standard deck of cards, what
103. The chance of an event happening is is the probability of randomly choosing a
called Club?
A. Event A. 1/5
B. Result B. 1/2
C. Outcome C. 26/52 or 1/2
D. Probability D. 13/52 or 1/4

109. Draw one card from a standard deck. 114. Probability is

Find P(4 or club) A. the chance that some event will occur.
A. 17/52
B. 2/13 B. a game that involves coins.
C. 4/13 C. a guarantee.
D. none of above
D. 1/26
115. Suppose you toss two fair coins once,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
110. What 3 positive numbers give the same how many possible outcomes are there?
result when multiplied and added to-
gether? A. 1
B. 2
A. 1, 3, and 4
C. 4
B. 1, 2, and 3
D. 8
C. 4, 5, and 6
116. Rolling an even number on a number cube
D. 4, 6, and 7
is
111. Find the probability of rolling a 7 on a A. Impossible
single die. B. Certain
A. 1/6 C. Equally Likely
B. 7/6 D. Likely
C. 0 117. Type of event in which the first does af-
D. 7/7 fect the second.
A. dependent event
112. It is the probability that a certain out-
come will occur as determined through rea- B. independent event
soning and calculation. C. probability
A. Experimental probability D. odds
B. Theoretical probability 118. One card is drawn from a shuffled deck.
What is the probability it is an Ace?
C. Mathematical probability
4
A. 52
D. All of the above
1
B. 52
113. A container consists 2 red flags, 3 blue 13
C. 52
flags, and 3 yellow flags. If Seth chooses
4
two flags to keep, what is the probability D. 36
of choosing a red flag and then a yellow
119. Find the total possible outcomes of
flag?
throwing two dice simultaneously
A. 3/28 A. 6
B. 3/32 B. 12
C. 5/8 C. 36
D. 5/64 D. None of these

120. Given a standard deck of cards, what is 125. Roll a die one time. Find P(even num-
the probability of randomly choosing a red ber).
card face card?

A. 1/2
A. 13/52 or 1/4 B. 1/3
B. 26/52 or 1/2 C. 3/6
C. 12/52 or 3/13 D. 2/6
D. 6/52 or 3/26 126. A bag contains 6 quarters, 2 dimes, and 8
pennies. What is the probability of picking
121. The letters that form the word MATHE- a penny?
MATICS are placed in a bowl. What is the
probability of choosing a “M”? A. 5/11
B. 5/6
A. 8/121
C. 1/3
B. 4/11
D. 8/16 = 1/2
C. 2/11
D. 4/121 127. If a dice is rolled 300 times, how many
times would you predict a roll of a 1 or a
122. If you draw one card from a standard 6?
deck, what is the probability of drawing A. 50
a spade or a red card? B. 100
A. 13/52 C. 150
B. 26/52 D. 75
C. 39/52 128. It is the set of all possible outcomes in an
D. Not possible experiment.
A. Event
123. What is the probability of flipping a coin
and getting tails? B. Sample space
A. 1/2 C. Experiment
D. Sample point.
B. 1/3
C. 1/4 129. The probability of it raining today is 30%.
What is the probability that it will NOT
D. Never, Tails never fails. rain?
124. WHAT IS THE SIGNIFICANCE OF PROBA- A. 30%
BILITY IN REAL-LIFE PROBLEMS? B. 70%
A. IT HELPS IN PREDICTING OUTCOMES C. 100%
D. 0%
B. IT IS A NUMBER.
130. If I flip a coin 10 times, how many times
C. IT SOLVES THE PROBLEM. should I get heads?
D. IT HAS NO SIGNIFICANCE A. 1

B. 10 136. The results of experiments

C. 3 A. outcomes
D. 5 B. chances
C. events
131. Rolling an even number on a dice is
D. sample sapce
A. Impossible
B. Certain 137. At Papa John’s you are deciding on what
NARAYAN CHANGDER
you want for dinner. The pizza offers 8
C. Equally Likely
different meats, 4 different cheeses, 3 dif-
D. Likely ferent crust types and 2 different sauces.
How many different pizzas do you have to
132. How many outcomes are in the sample choose from?
space for tossing one coin?
A. 32
A. 1
B. 192
B. 2
C. 40, 320
C. 4
D. 51, 200
D. 8
138. If the probability of an event is 0.99,
133. There are 6 red marbles, 5 green mar- which of the following best describes the
bles, and 4 yellow marbles in a bag. If Joe event?
picks 2 marbles one after the other with-
out replacement, then what is the proba- A. The event will never occur
bility that both are red in color? B. There is a small chance that the event
A. 2/5 will occur
B. 1/21 C. The event is likely to occur

D. The event will definitely occur
C. 4/25
D. 1/7 139. It is the complete list of all possible out-
comes of an experiment.
134. The probability of getting a ‘7’ when you
A. Experiment
roll a die.
B. Sample Point
A. 0.5
C. Sample Space
B. 1
D. Event
C. 0
D. 0.25 140. I have 4 yellow marbles and 8 blue mar-
bles in a bag. What is the probability that
135. Roll a die one time. Find P(rolling a 4). I will pick a blue?
A. 1/4 A. Likely
B. 2/3 B. Unlikely
C. 1/6 C. Certain
D. 1/2 D. Impossible

141. Given a standard deck of cards, what is 146. In the experiment of rolling a single die,
the probability of randomly choosing an what does event P consist if the outcomes
even number GIVEN THAT it is a red card? must be even numbers?

Given that changes the denominator!!
A. P={2, 4, 5}
A. 2/52 or 1/26
B. P={2, 4, 6}
B. 2/26 or 1/13
C. P={1, 3, 5}
C. 8/71
D. P={1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
D. 10/26 or 5/13
147. What is the probability of spinning a spin-
142. Thinking about the list of the numbers for ner that has 5 equal sections marked 1
Jerry’s locker combination which describes through 5 and landing on an even num-
his chances for opening the combination? ber?
A. 1 chance in 3 A. 1/5
B. 1 chance in 6 B. 2/3
C. 1 chance in 9 C. 1/2
D. none of above D. 2/5
143. Rolling a 15 on a 6-sided die is
148. What goes around the world but stays in
A. Impossible a corner
B. Certain A. life
C. Unlikely B. a jar of peanut butter
D. Equally Likely C. stamps
144. How do you write 0.02 as a percent? D. Elmo
A. 20% 149. Probability theory is nothing but common

B. 200% sense reduced to calculation
C. 2% A. may not be
D. .02% B. False
C. True
145. Approximate the probability of the fol-
lowing event:Picking a card with a vowel D. not sure
on it from a box of cards in which each let-
ter of the alphabet is written(Hint:There 150. Determine the probability of the follow-
are 5 vowels and 21 consonants in the al- ing even occuring:You flip a fair coin and
phabet.) the coin will land heads up.
A. 5/21 A. 0
B. 5/26 B. 1/4
C. 21/26 C. 1/2
D. 3/13 D. 1

151. Rolling a 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6 on a dice is 156. Find the probability of NOT rolling a 2 on

a single fair 6-sided die.
A. Impossible
A. 1/6
B. Unlikely
B. 2/6
C. Likely
C. 5/6
D. Certain
D. 2
152. When rolling a 6 sided die, what is the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
probability of rolling either an even num- 157. The ratio of the number of favorable out-
ber or a 5? comes to the number of possible outcomes
when all possible outcomes are equally
A. 1/2
likely
B. 5/6
A. experiment
C. 2/3
B. Fundamental Counting Principle
D. 1/12
C. experimental probability
153. An event M has m possible outcomes and D. theoretical probability
event N has n possible outcomes. The total
number of outcomes of event M followed 158. Is it less likely, more likely, equally likely
by event N is . or impossible to roll and even number on
1 die roll?
A. outcomes
A. less likely
B. Fundamental Counting Principle
B. more likely
C. independent events
C. equally likely
D. experimental probability
D. impossible
154. When 3 coins are tossed, the probabil-
ity of getting 3 heads is 0.125.What is 159. If a rooster lays a egg on a slanted roof
the probability of getting fewer than 3 which side will it fall?
heads?
A. down
A. 0.875
B. up
B. 0.375
C. left
C. 0.125
D. there is no egg
D. 0.625
160. Determine the likelihood of the following
155. The set of all the possible outcomes is event:Drawing a red card from a standard
called: deck of cards.
A. Result A. 1/2
B. Sample Space B. 13/52
C. Probability C. 1/4
D. Event D. 4/52

161. The probability that two cards drawn 166. Is it more likely, less likely, certain or im-
with out replacement froma standard pack possible to select of red marble from a box
3
of cards will both be hearts is 51 What is of marbles that have 12 white marbles?

the probability that the two cards drawn A. more likely
are not both hearts.
B. less likely
48
A. 51 C. certain
3
B. 52 D. impossible
3
C. 49 167. A balanced dime is tossed three times.
48 The possible outcomes are represented in
D. 49
the table. HHH-HTH-THH-TTH-HHT HTT-
162. How many different 4 letter codes can be THT-TTTFind the probability that none of
formed from the letters M, A, T, H? the tosses come up tails.
A. 6 3
A. 8
B. 24 1
B. 2
C. 120 1
C. 8
D. 256 D. 0
163. The odds in favor of receiving a gift are 168. One card is drawn from a shuffled deck.
5:16. Find the probability of Henry receiv- What is the probability it is a King or a
ing a gift. Club?
16
A. 16/5 A. 52
17
B. 5/21 B. 52
28
C. None of these C. 52
30
D. 5/16 D. 52
164. The odds against a customer ordering 169. If two dice are rolled, the total outcomes
dessert are 5:1. What is the probability are
of a customer ordering dessert? A. 1
A. 1/4 B. 6
B. 1/5 C. 12
C. 1/6 D. 36
D. None of these 170. A regular deck contains 52 cards, 2 of
which are red eights. Assuming the cards
165. Choose the sample space for flipping are dealt randomly, which is the probabil-
three coins. ity that the first card dealt will be a red
A. {H, T, H} eight?
B. {HH, HT, TH, TT} A. 1/26
C. {HHH, HHT, HTH THH, TTH, THT, HTT, B. 1/13
TTT} C. 1/52
D. {HHH, TTT, HHT, TTH} D. 2/13

171. The set of all outcomes not included in the B. 1/12

event is the C. 1/6
A. complement D. 1/9
B. P(event)
177. What is the probability of rolling an even
C. as likely as not number on a die?
D. probabilty A. 0.25
B. 0.5
NARAYAN CHANGDER
172. Possible results of an event
A. outcomes C. 0
B. compound event D. 1
C. simple event 178. A 4 digit PIN is selected. What is the

probability that there are no repeated dig-
D. probability
its?
173. Rolling a 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, or 6 on a number A. 5, 047
cube is
B. 3, 042
A. Impossible
C. 15, 120
B. Unlikely D. 720
C. Likely
179. Draw one card from a standard deck.
D. Certain Find P(ace)
174. A box has 3 limes, 5 grapes, and 2 or- A. 1/13
anges. What is the probability that you B. 1/4
will get a fruit that is NOT a lime?
C. 4/13
A. 3/10
D. 1/52
B. 30%
180. Jon made 15 out of 35 free throws.
C. 7/10
What is his experimental probability as a
D. Answer Not Here fraction?**SIMPLIFY THE FRACTION!**
175. At a New Car Dealership a particular A. 3/7
model comes in 4 trim levels, 5 differ- B. 15/35
ent colors, and 3 different interiors. How C. 1/2
many different versions of this car model
can be created from these options? D. 5/7
A. 180 181. Suppose on your first try you get a bag

that contains sand, so you throw it away.
B. 23
Which phrase tells your chances of choos-
C. 12 ing the bag of candy on your second try?
D. 60 A. 1 chance in 1
176. Rolling a pair of dice, find P(rolling dou- B. 1 chance in 2
bles). C. 1 chance in 3
A. 1/2 D. none of above

182. If a 6 SIDED 1-6 die is rolled once, what 187. It is a branch of mathematics that provide
is the probability of getting an even num- quantitative description of the likely occur-
ber? rence of the specific event.

1
A. 4 A. Probability
2 B. Experiment
B. 3
3 C. Outcome
C. 6 OR 1/2
D. 3 D. Event
4
183. A sports announcer claims that Sheila 188. Classify the following statement as an
has a 90% chance of breaking the world example of classical, empirical, or sub-
record in the100-yard dash. jective probability.Jane tosses a coin 50
times and gets heads 28 times.
A. Intuition
A. Classical
B. Relative frequency/ experience
B. Empirical
C. Equally likely outcomes
C. Subjective
D. none of above
D. none of above
184. Which one is the sample space for flipping
3 coins? 189. A subspace of the sample space that con-
sists of one or more outcomes is
A. {H, T}
A. outcome
B. {H1, H2, H3, T1, T2, T3}
B. space
C. {HHH, TTT, HTH, THT, TTH, HHT}
C. event
D. {HHH, TTT, HTH, THT, TTH, HHT, HTT,
THH} D. probability experiment
185. Ben has a basket of 5 red balls, 3 yellow 190. What is the total number of possible out-
balls, and 2 green balls. What is the prob- comes if you draw a card from a deck of
ability that the probability he randomly playing cards?
chooses will be red? A. 13
A. 1/2 B. 26
B. 1/5 C. 39
C. 1/10 D. 52
D. 5/8
191. Given a standard deck of cards, what is
186. Find the probability of not rolling a 2 on the probability of randomly choosing the 7
a single die. of hearts?
A. 1/6 A. 1/4
B. 2/6 B. 1/52
C. 5/6 C. 1/26
D. 2 D. 1/13

192. An event with P(E) < 0.05 is considered 197. Which of the following are possible sam-
ples spaces for tossing 2 coins?
A. normal
A. {H, T, H, T}
B. likely
B. {HH, HT, TH, TT}
C. unusual
C. {H, T}
D. certain
D. {T, H}
193. Change this decimal to a percent. 0.528
NARAYAN CHANGDER
198. How do you write 0.2 as a percent? (mul-
A. 528% tiply by 100!)
B. 52.8% A. 20%
C. 5.28% B. 200%
D. 52% C. 2%
194. The cafeteria is serving three kinds of D. .02%

sandwiches:tuna (T), chicken, (C), and
199. A bag of marbles has 8 red marbles and
peanut butter (P). They are also serving
6 purple marbles. Jennifer will randomly
a choice of two drinks:milk (M) or water
select 1 marble from the bag. What is
(W). Which is the complete set of possibil-
the probability that she will select a pur-
ities of combinations?
ple marble?
A. TW, CW, PW
A. 6/8
B. TW, TM, TW, CW, PW
B. 3/4
C. TW, TM, CW, CM, PW, PM
C. 6/14
D. none of above
D. 3/7
195. The letters A, B, C, and D are used to form 200. If P(E) = 0.07, then the probability of
four-letter passwords for entering a com- ‘not E’ is:
puter file. How many passwords are pos-
sible if letters can be repeated? A. -0.93
A. 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 = 256 B. 0.93
B. 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 = 24 C. 9.3
C. 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 = 16 D. 1.07
D. 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 10 201. The probability of flipping a coin and land-

ing on tails is 1/2.If you flip the coin 100
196. What is the probability of choosing an 8 times, approximately how many times
from a deck of cards? could you expect to land on tails?
A. 1/13 A. 50 times
B. 8/52 B. 100 times
C. 4/26 C. 200 times
D. 1/52 D. none of above

202. If you roll a number cube 36 times, ap- 207. The theoretical probability of rolling an
proximately how many times could you ex- even number on a dice.
pect to land on the 3?

A. 3/6
A. 12 times B. 1/2
B. 15 times C. 1/6
C. 6 times D. 5/6
D. 1 time
208. Which of the following can not be a prob-
203. You flip a coin two times. What is the ability?
probability that you will land on tails both A. 4/3
times?
B. 0.001
A. 1/4
C. 1
B. 1/2
D. 0
C. 3/4
209. A single card is chosen at random from a
D. none of above
standard deck of 52 playing cards. What
is the probability of choosing a king or a
204. It is just one of the possible outcomes.
club?
A. Experiment
A. 1/52
B. Outcome
B. 16/52
C. Sample point
C. 17/52
D. Fundamental counting principle.
205. A bag holds five different colors of 210. In a 500-ticket draw for an educational
M&Ms. The probability of selecting green prize, Ana’s name was written on 41 tick-
is 1/12, orange is 1/4, yellow 1/6, and ets. What is the probability that she
brown is 5/12. What is the probability of would win?
selecting a blue M&M?
A. 0.082
A. 1/12
B. 0.41
B. 5/12
C. 0.122
C. 1/6
D. 0.82
D. 1/2
211. How many possible choices of outfit can
206. If you have 3 pennies how many possible be made if Melvin has 10 shirts, 5 pairs of
outcomes are there? pants, and 3 pairs of shoes?
A. 4 A. 100
B. 6 B. 150
C. 9 C. 200
D. 8 D. 250

212. What is a certain event? 217. Rolling a 1, 2, 3, or 4 on a number cube

is
A. an event with a 100% probability of oc-
curring A. Unlikely
B. an event with a 50% probability of oc- B. Likely
curring C. Certain
C. an event with a 0% probability of oc- D. Equally Likely
curring
NARAYAN CHANGDER
218. Only one possible outcome for an event
D. An unlikely event
A. sample space
213. A jar contains 2 pink, 6 red, and 4 blue B. simple event
marbles. If you pick one marble without C. compound event
looking, what is the probability that the
marble you pick will be blue? D. theoretical probability
A. 5/6 219. An ice cream parlor has six different fla-

vors. They have 4 toppings and 2 types of
B. 1/2
cones. How many possible ice cream com-
C. 1/3 binations are there?
D. 1/6 A. 24
B. 48
214. A probability near 1 is
C. 6
A. never going to happen
D. 12
B. very likely to happen
220. What is the sample space for choosing 1
C. probably never going to happen jelly bean from a jar of 4 red, 7 blue, and
D. equally likely to happen 2 green jellybeans?
A. 4, 7, and 2
215. P(A) = 0.13. Find P(Ac).
B. red, blue, green
A. 0.13
C. 2 green
B. 0.87
D. 4 red
C. 13%
221. What is the probability of choosing a 4 or
D. 1.3 5 from a deck of cards?
216. The probability that a randomly chosen A. 1/13
American is a Republican is 0.35. What B. 2/13
is the probability that a randomly chosen
C. 8/13
American is not Republican?
D. 2/52
A. 0.35
222. Is it more likely, less likely, equally likely
B. 0.65
or impossible to select a boy on a field trip
C. 0.75 from group of 35 students with 12 girls?
D. 0.50 A. more likely

B. less likely C. 1/20

C. equally likely D. 20/20

D. impossible
228. Three coins are tossed. How many differ-
223. The probability based on frequency of ent ways can they fall?
outcomes during an experiment A. 2
A. experimental probability B. 4
B. fundamental counting principle C. 6
C. mutually exclusive event D. 8
D. dependent event
229. What is the probability of choosing the
224. Rolling a 15 on a number cube or a die letteri from the word probability?
A. impossible A. 1/10
B. equally likely B. 2/11
C. certain C. 2/2
D. likely D. 1/10
the probability of randomly choosing a 7
the probability of randomly choosing NOT
or an 8?
a face card?
A. 4/52 or 1/13
A. 52/52 or 1
B. 13/52 or 1/4
B. 12/52 or 3/13
C. 8/52 or 2/13
C. 40/52 or 10/13
D. 13/26 or 1/2
D. 13/52 or 1/4
226. Todd forgot the first two numbers of his
locker combination. The numbers can be 231. It is the well defined-results in an exper-
any number 1 through 9. What is the prob- iment.
ability that he will guess the first num- A. Outcome
ber incorrectly and the second number cor-
B. Event
rectly?
A. 1/81 C. Sample Space
B. 8/81 D. Sample
C. 1/2 232. An experiment consists of rolling a fair

D. 2/9 number cube. Find the theoretical proba-
bility of rolling a number greater than 3.
227. In a cup are the numbers 1-20. Find the
A. 4, 5, and 6
theoretical probability of picking an even
number. B. 3/6
A. 10/20 C. 3
B. 1/2 D. 1/2

233. Find the experimental probabil- 238. There are 15 girls and 13 boys in 6th pe-
ity:Andrew rolled a die and these are the riod. If Coach Mullins randomly selects a
results:1, 3, 3, 4, 4P(3) = member of 6th period, what is the proba-
A. 3/5 bility that she will select a boy?
B. 1/6 A. 13/15
C. 2/5 B. 1/2
D. 1/3 C. 15/40
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 13/28
234. Find the probability of rolling greater
than a 1 on a single die. 239. Danny has 20 chocolates. 5 are milk
A. 6/6 chocolates, 10 are dark chocolates, and 5
are white chocolates. What is the proba-
B. 5/6
bility of getting a milk chocolate or a dark
C. 4/6 chocolate?
D. 1/6 A. 3/4
235. A day of the week is chosen at random. B. 1/2
What is the probability of choosing a Mon- C. 1/15
day or Tuesday?
D. 3/10
A. 1/7
B. 2/14 240. If one event can occur in m ways and an-
other event can occur in n ways, then the
C. 2/7 number of ways the two event happen in
D. None of the above sequence is given by
236. There are three bags in front of you. One A. m + n

contains candy. The other two contain B. mn
sand. What are your chances of choosing C. m-n
the bag that contains candy?
D. mn
A. Not very likely
B. very likely 241. Find the experimental probabil-
ity:Results of Rolled dice:1, 3, 3, 4, 4,
C. a sure thing
5, 6, 2Rolling a 1?
D. none of above
A. 7/8
237. In a standard deck of 52 cards there are B. 0/8
13 diamonds and 13 hearts (red) and 13
C. 2/8
spades and 13 clubs (black). Find the prob-
ability of choosing a card at random that D. 1/8
is a spade OR a 7
242. Find the experimental probabil-
A. 1/52 ity:Andrew rolled a die 5 times and these
B. 1/13 are the results:1, 3, 3, 4, 4P(1) =
C. 4/13 A. 3/5
D. 17/52 B. 1/6

C. 2/5 248. A standard coin has two sides. One side

D. 1/5 is heads and one side is tails. A coin is
tossed 55 times. If the coin lands on tails

243. A restaurant offers 5 appetizers, 3 main 30 times, what is the experimental proba-
courses and 4 desserts. How many differ- bility of landing on tails?
ent meals are available?
A. 6/11
A. 12
B. 1/2
B. 30
C. 2/55
C. 45
D. 1/15
D. 60
244. The set of all possible outcomes of an ex- 249. An event is
periment A. a result you could get in an experiment
A. sample space
B. event B. the set of all possible outcomes
C. experiment C. a set of one or more outcomes
D. results D. the liklihood ngsomething happening
245. Given a standard deck of cards, what is 250. If a die is rolled once, what is the proba-
the probability of randomly choosing a di- bility of getting an even number?
amond? 1
A. 4
A. 1/13
2
B. 3
B. 13/52 or 1/4
1
C. 18/42 or 3/7 C. 2
3
D. 9/30 or 3/10 D. 4
246. In a pet store, there are 6 puppies, 4 ger- 251. Mom and dad have four daughters, and
bils, and 7 parakeets. If a pet is chosen at each daughter has one brother. How many
random, what is the probability of choos- people are in the family?
ing a puppy or a parakeet?
A. 3
A. 11/17
B. 2
B. 13/17
C. 4
C. 10/17
D. 7
247. In drawing a card from a deck of 52 cards, 252. A number that indicates the likelihood of
which of the following cannot be a sample an outcome happening is the definition of
point?
A. King A. outcome
B. Jack of Diamonds B. sample space
C. Queen of Spades C. probability
D. Ace of Hearts D. experiment

253. In a cup are the numbers 1-20. Find the 258. These are one or more outcomes in an
theoretical probability of picking a number experiment. It is a subset of the sample
divisible by 5. space.
A. 4/20 A. Experiment
B. 1/5 B. Event
C. 5/20 C. Outcome
D. 1/4 D. Sample Space
NARAYAN CHANGDER
259. It is the subset of the sample space.
254. Classify the following statement as an
example of classical, empirical, or subjec- A. Sample
tive probability.Sally needs to roll a four B. Outcome
to win the game of Candy Land and has a
C. Event
1/12 chance of winning on the next roll.
D. Result
A. Classical
B. Empirical 260. You flip 3 coins. What is the probability
that all three come up heads?
C. Subjective
A. 3/8
D. none of above
B. 1/3
255. Rolling a pair of dice, find P(sum is 5). C. 7/8
A. 11% D. 1/8
B. 25% 261. Theoretically what is your chance of mak-
C. 17% ing a free throw?Pick out your answer
written as a percent.
D. 22%
A. 25%
256. How do you find compound probability? B. 50%
A. Multiply your probabilities C. 75%
B. Add your probabilities D. 100%
C. Divide your probabilities 262. Probability can be written as
D. Subtract your probabilities A. a fraction
257. A standard coin has two sides. One side B. a decimal

is heads and one side is tails. A coin is C. a percent
tossed 400 times. Using the theoretical D. all of the above
probability, how many times should the
coin land on heads? 263. A jar contains 4 white chips, 5 purple
chips, and 1 black chip. Chips are selected
A. 200
randomly one at a time, and are not re-
B. 100 placed.P(white, then purple, then black)
C. 300 A. 1/36
D. 50 B. 2/39

C. 5/41 sock. What is the probability that you will

D. 6/43 pick a brown, then black sock?

A. 1/11
264. How many outfits are possible with 5
B. 1/18
pairs of jeans, 8 t-shirts, and 2 pairs of
shoes? C. 1/36
A. 15 D. 2/33
B. 40 269. A standard dice is rolled. What is the
C. 80 probability that a 2, 4, OR 6 will be rolled
D. 10 A. 0.5
B. 1
265. Henry figures that if he guesses on a true-
C. 1.5
false question, the probability of getting it
right is 50% . D. 0
A. Intuition 270. Probability can be expressed as a number
B. Relative Frequency/ Experience between and
C. Equally likely outcomes A. 0 and 100
D. none of above B. 0 and 10

C. 0 and 1
266. If the occurrence of one event does not
D. -1 and 1
affect the occurrence of another event, the
two events are 271. Which of the following numbers could
A. dependent possibly be a probability?
B. conditional A. -0.123
C. indentical B. 0.24
D. independent C. 2.56
D. 1.01
267. A menu has 6 different sandwiches, with
3 choices of potato chips, 3 types of salad 272. Jim has 2 blue, 2 green, and 2 black socks.
and 5 different beverages. How many dif- He picks out 2 socks, one after another.
ferent lunch combinations consisting of a Determine the probability of him getting a
sandwich, chips and beverage can be or- matching pair of blue socks.
dered? A. 2/15
A. 30 B. 1/9
B. 17 C. 2/9
C. 90 D. 1/15
D. 270
273. An experiment consists of rolling a fair
268. In a drawer, there are 6 white socks, 4 number cube. Find the theoretical proba-
black socks, and 2 brown socks. You pick bility of rolling a 3.
out a sock, replace it, then pick out a 2nd A. 1/6

B. 3/6 278. What is the probability of a coin land-

C. 1 ing on tails at least three times when it
is flipped four times?
D. 1/2
A. 1/16
274. An ice cream shop offers a choice of three B. 1/4
types of cones and 31 flavors of ice cream. C. 1/2
A customer gets to choose a cone and a
type of ice cream. How many different 1- D. 7/16
NARAYAN CHANGDER
scoop ice cream cones can a customer or-
279. The Right to Health lobby claims that the
der?
probability of getting an erroneous medi-
A. 2 cal laboratory report is 0.40, based on a
B. 3 random sample of 200 laboratory reports,
of which 80 were erroneous.
C. 34
A. Intuition
D. 93
B. Relative frequency/ Experience
275. Which of the following show a simple C. Equally likely outcomes
event? D. none of above
A. Getting a sum of 6 in rolling a dice.
280. An event with a probability of one
B. Choosing a “King” from a deck of
A. experimental probability
cards.
B. outcome
C. Rolling an “even number.”
C. certain event
D. Getting a Tail when tossing a coin.
D. permutation
276. There are 15 girls and 15 boys in 8th pe-
riod. If Terry randomly selects a member 281. What is the probability of something that
of 8th period, what is the probability that is impossible to happen?
she will select a boy? A. 100%
A. 15/15 B. 50%
B. 1/2 C. 25%
C. 15/40 D. 0%
D. none of above 282. A set of all possible outcomes is known
as-
277. Given a standard deck of cards, what
A. a list
is the probability of randomly choosing
an eight GIVEN THAT it is a black card? B. a complement
GIVEN THAT changes the denominator!! C. a sample space
A. 2/26 or 1/13 D. an event
B. 2/52 or 1/26
283. What is the probability of flipping a coin
C. 2/13 and getting heads?
D. 2/28 or 1/14 A. 1/2

B. 1/3 289. Roll a die one time. Find P(a number

C. 1/4 greater than 3 or odd).

D. Never, Tails never fails. A. 0
B. 1/2
284. A bag has 10 marbles:3 blue, 2 yellow, 4
red, and 1 purple.What is the probability C. 5/6
of picking out a purple marble? D. 1/6
A. 3/10
290. What is the probability of a coin land-
B. 1/10 ing on heads twice when it is flipped four
C. 4/10 times?
D. none of above A. 15/16
285. Rolling a 15 on a standard number cube B. 7/8

(a die) is C. 5/8
A. Impossible D. 3/8
B. Certain
291. A box containing 10 slips of paper num-
C. Unlikely bered 1-10. What are the possible out-
D. Equally Likely comes when you randomly picked numbers
that are multiples of 3?
286. Tossing two coins is an example of
what? A. E={1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
A. Experiment B. E={3, 6, 9}
B. Sample space C. E={3, 6, 9, 12, 15, ..}

C. Outcome D. E= {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
D. Event 292. A box has 3 limes, 5 grapes, and 2 or-
anges.P (NOT lime)
287. There is a three digit number. The second
digit is four times as big as the third digit, A. 3/10
while the first digit is three less than the B. 30%
second digit. What is the number?
C. 7/10
A. 234
D. Answer Not Here
B. 141
C. 575 293. Mrs. Moreno has a box containing 6 lip-
sticks, 4 eye shadows, 6 eye liners, and
D. 267
5 mascaras. If she randomly chooses one
288. Probability can be between what two item from the box, what is the probability
numbers? that she will grab a lipstick?
A. 10 and 20 A. 3/7
B. 0 and 100 B. 15/21
C. 0 and 1 C. 5/7
D. All Numbers are possible D. 6/21

294. It refers to any subset of sample space. 299. A spinner has 5 equal sections marked 1
A. Event through 5. What is the probability of not
landing on 4? Use the complement to find
B. Sample Space the probability.
C. Sample Point
A. 0
D. Experiment
B. 4/5
295. The probability that a women likes the C. 1/5
color blue is 10%. The probability of being
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a women is 40%. What is the probability D. 1
that the a women is chose given they liked 300. A container has 1 blue block and 3 yellow
the color blue? blocks. You want to make the probability
A. 4 of randomly selecting a green block equal
B. .4 to 50%. How many green blocks should
you add?
C. .1
A. 1 green block
D. .25
B. 4 green blocks
296. What is the probability of not rolling a 5
on a standard number cube? Use the com- C. 10 green blocks
plement to find the probability. D. 5 green blocks
A. 1/6
301. Jacob’s piggy bank has18 quarters, 20
B. 5/6 dimes, 24 nickels, and 43 pennies. He
C. 1/4 chooses a coin, does not replace it, then
chooses another. What is the probability
D. 4/5
that he chose a dime then a nickel?
297. How many elements are in the sam- A. 9/52
ple space for the following experi-
ment:Selecting one month from the months B. 4/91
of the year C. 44/105
A. 1 D. 11/26
B. 6
302. In a one and one situation, a player has
C. 9 an 80% free throw accuracy. What is the
D. 12 probability that he/she will get 2 points?
298. A store sells shirts that are either small, A. 1.60

medium, or large. The colors are either red, B. 0.64
blue, green, or white. What is the prob- C. 0.16
ability someone will select a large green
shirt? D. 0.20
A. 1/3 303. What is the probability of getting a head
B. 1/7 when you toss a coin?
C. 1/9 A. 1/3
D. 1/12 B. 1/2

C. 2 C. 60
D. 1/4 D. 30

304. Javeon entered a raffle to win a movie
ticket. The probability that he wins a 309. In a math class of 30 students, 17 are
movie ticket is 8/17. Find the odds in fa- boys and 13 are girls. On a unit test, 4
vor of him winning a movie ticket. boys and 5 girls made an A grade. If a
student is chosen at random from the class,
A. 8/9 what is the probability of choosing a girl or
B. 9/8 an A student?
C. 8/17 A. 22/30
D. 9/17 B. 17/30
305. Rolling a pair of dice, find P(sum is 7 or C. 13/30
11).
A. 50%
B. 16% 310. You are given a bag of M&M’s. There
C. 17% are 5 blue, 2 yellow and 3 green M&M’s.
What is the chances of choosing a blue
D. 22%
M&M?
306. A new credit card has been issued to
A. Definite
2000 customers. Of these customers,
1400 hold a Visa, 300 hold an AA card, B. 50/50
300 hold a Paypal card. Find the probabil-
C. Impossible
ity that a random chosen customer holds a
Visa or AA card, given they hold a Visa. D. Unlikely
A. 17/14
311. If you roll two dice, how many possible
B. 12/17
outcomes?
C. 14/17
A. 1
D. 14/17
B. 12
307. Rolling a 1 on a dice is
C. 36
A. Impossible
B. Certain D. 360
C. Likely
312. Ten balls numbered one through ten are
D. Unlikely placed in an urn. One ball is selected at
random. P(not a 6) =
308. The six faces of a fair number cube are
numbered 1 through 6. If the cube is rolled A. 1/10
240 times, what is the expected number
B. 6/10
of times a 4 will be rolled?
A. 100 C. 9/10
B. 40 D. 4/10

313. Find the probability of selecting a black 318. Rolling a pair of dice, find P(sum > 9).
checker from a bag of 6 black and 4 red A. 1/2
checkers, replacing it and selecting another
black. B. 1/12
A. 9/25 C. 1/6
D. 1/9
B. 1/4
C. 2/23 319. A number from 1 to 10 is chosen at ran-
dom. What is the probability of choosing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 3/41
a 5 or an even number?
314. Find the experimental probability:Roll A. 3/5
dice:1, 3, 3, 4, 4P(1) =
B. 1/2
A. 3/5 C. 1/5
B. 1/6 D. None of the above
C. 2/5
320. On a 6-sided die, which is more likely?
D. 1/5
A. Rolling an odd number
315. An unprepared student takes a 3- B. Rolling an even number
question true/false quiz in which he
C. They are both equally likely.
guesses the answers to all 3 questions.
What is the probability he gets all 3 cor- D. none of above
rect?
321. IDENTIFY AS SAMPLE SPACE, PROBA-
A. 1/2 BILTY, EVENT, SAMPLE POINT, EXPERI-
B. 1/3 MENT OR OUTCOME:KING OF SPADES
C. 1/6 A. SAMPLE POINT
D. 1/8 B. SAMPLE SPACE
C. EVENT
316. If a letter is chosen at random from the
word PERSEVERANCE, what is the proba- D. PROBABILITY
bility that the letter chosen is E? 322. The probability of an event occurs is a
A. 1/8 number between
B. 1/3 A. 0 and 1
C. 1/4 B. 100 and 200
D. 1/2 C. 5 and 10
D. 0 and 1000
317. The letters that form the word ALGEBRA
are placed in a bowl. What is the proba- 323. You flip a nickel three times.Find the prob-
bility of choosing the letter “A”? ability that all flips will land on tails.
A. 2/7 A. 1/2
B. 5/49 B. 1/4
C. 5/7 C. 1/6
D. 10/49 D. 1/8

6.2 Law of Dominance 809
6.2 Law of Dominance

1. The physical characteristics of an organism B. Variety
that is expressed. John has blue eyes and
C. Phenotype
brown hair.
A. gene D. Allele
B. phenotype
6. What type of plant did Mendel use for his
C. genotype experiements?
D. probability
A. Fruit Trees
2. Timmy wants to cross parent mice to pro- B. Pea Plants
duce offspring with black fur and offspring
with white fur. If black fur color (B) is C. Squash Plants
dominant to white fur (b), what should be D. Potato Plants
the genotypes of the parent mice?
A. BB and BB 7. The gene that is hidden unless both genes
B. bb and bb are present.
C. BB and Bb A. dominant
D. Bb and Bb B. recessive
3. A student’s mother is heterozygous for at- C. homozygous
tached earlobes, a recessive trait. The stu-
dent’s father is also heterozygous for that D. heterozygous
trait. What is the % likelihood that this
student has attached earlobes? 8. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is inherited as a re-
cessive condition. A man with PKU mar-
A. 0%
ries a woman without any alleles for PKU.
B. 25% What is the probablity that their child will
C. 50% inherit PKU?
D. 75% A. 100%
4. If a cross between two mice produce 10 B. 75%
black mice and 3 white mice. Which skin
C. 50%
color is dominant?
A. white D. 0%
B. black
9. Sally’s genotype is heterozygous. Her
C. none genotype is written as
D. both A. D D
5. The appearance of an organism, such as B. D d
smooth versus wrinkled seeds, is referred
to as a: C. d d
A. Genotype D. none of above

10. The gene for black fur (B) is dominant 15. A specific characteristics. Mendel looked
over the gene for white fur (b) in mice. at 7 different in peas such as color and
A homozygous dominant female and a shape.
heterozygous male produce 200 offspring
A. trait
during their lifetime. Approximately how
many offsping would be expected to be ho- B. allele
mozygous dominant? C. self-pollination
A. 25 D. cross-pollination
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 50
16. What do the 4 boxes inside a punnett
C. 100 square show?
D. 200 A. The genotypes of the parent
11. The gene that is expressed. Brown eyes B. The probable genotypes of the off-
are over blue. spring
A. dominant C. The definite genotypes of the offspring
B. recessive
D. The definite phenotypes of the off-
C. homozygous
spring
D. heterozygous
17. What would be the genotype if a recessive
12. One of a number of different forms of a character is expressed phenotypically?
gene. The two for pea color is yellow
A. HH
and green.
B. Hh
A. trait
C. hh
B. allele
D. hH
C. self-pollination
D. cross-pollination 18. DIFFERENT alleles for the same trait. Sue
has 1 gene for brown eyes and 1 gene for
13. The allele that is expressed most often. blue eyes so she is
A. dominant A. dominant
B. trait B. recessive
C. allele C. homozygous
D. recessive D. heterozygous
14. Which of the following would be a homozy- 19. What are the genotypes for a dominant
gous recessive individual? phenotype of “A Tall Head”.
A. aa A. Tall
B. Aa B. Short
C. AA C. TT, Tt
D. both aa & AA D. tt

20. Round seed shape is dominant to wrinkled 25. An example of a genotype is:
seed shape in pea plants. What genotypic
A. A tall pea plant.
ratio would you expect to see in the off-

spring if you cross two pea plants with B. R and r
wrinkled seeds? C. TtHH
A. 1RR:2Rr:1rr
D. Hemophiliac
B. 2RR:2Rr:0rr
C. 0RR:4Rr:0rr 26. In pea plants, tall (T) is a dominant trait. A
homozygous tall pea plant is crossed with
D. 0RR:0Rr:4rr
a homozygous short pea plant. What is
21. Tay-Sachs disease is a lethal, autosomal the probability that the offspring will be
recessive genetic disorder. If both parents tall?
are heterozygous carriers of the disease, A. 25%
what are the chances of them having a
child who is also a heterozygous carrier for B. 50%
Tay-Sachs? C. 75%
A. 25% D. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75% 27. If purebred tall peas are crossed with pure-
bred dwarf peas, the offspring will always
D. 100% be tall. This illustrates Mendel’s law of . .
22. Which of the following is a heterozygous .
genotype? A. Segregation
A. AA B. Dominance & Recessive
B. ff
C. Independent Assortment
C. Gg
D. MM
28. The allele that is hidden unless both genes
23. A sequence of DNA that codes for a pro-
are present.
tein and thus determines a trait. There are
hundreds of on each chromosome. A. dominant
A. gene B. trait
B. phenotype C. allele
C. genotype
D. recessive
D. probability
29. The genetic makeup (allele combination) of
24. Mendel’s principle of segregation states
an organism is referred to as a:
that factors separate during:
A. Genotype
A. Fertilization
B. Cross-Pollination B. Phenotype
C. Seed Dispersal C. Trait
D. Gamete Formation D. Dominance Factor

6.3 Law of Segregation 812
30. How many alleles do organisms have for A. 75%

each trait that they express?
B. 50%
A. One
C. 25%
B. Two
D. 0%
C. Three
D. Four 35. If a pea pod is heterozygous for green,
what would be its genotype?
31. Mendel took the pollen from one pea plant
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and placed it onto the pistil of a second pea A. GG
plants. This is B. Gg
A. trait
C. gg
B. allele
D. gG
C. self-pollination
D. cross-pollination 36. The likelihood that a particular event will
occur. Both Randal and I have blue eyes
32. In guinea pigs the allele for rough coat (R) so the that Baby Ethan will have blue
is dominant to the allele for smooth coat eyes was 100%.
(r). A heterozygous guinea pig is crossed
with a homozygous recessive guinea pig. A. gene
What percentage of offspring will be ho- B. phenotype
mozygous recessive?
C. genotype
A. 0%
D. probability
B. 25%
C. 50% 37. The genetic makeup of an organism. John
D. 100% has 2 genes that are homozygous reces-
sive for eye color {e e }
33. If Blue (B) is dominant to Yellow (b). What
would be the phenotype of an organism A. gene
who’s genotype is Bb? B. phenotype
A. blue C. genotype
B. yellow
D. probability
C. green
D. blue and yellow 38. Sally’s genotype is heterozygous. Her
genotype is written as..
34. Freckles are caused by a dominant allele
(F). A man who has freckles (his mother A. D D
had no freckles) marries a freckled woman B. d d
with a homozygous genotype. What per-
C. D d
centage of their children are likely to have
no freckles? D. none of above
6.3 Law of Segregation

6.3 Law of Segregation 813
1. Haploid means what? (Number) 7. What do the letters inside the grid of a
A. 1 Punnett square represent?

A. phenotypes of parents
B. 2
B. genotypes of offspring
C. 3
C. testcrosses of offspring
D. 6
D. chromosomes of parents
2. The allele that is expressed over another.
8. is the form of division that divides a
A. Dominant diploid cell into haploid cells.
B. Recessive A. Mitosis
C. Genotype B. Meiosis
D. Phenotype C. Fusion
D. Genetics
3. Recessive alleles are represented by:
A. a ratio 9. Having two different alleles for a trait (ex-
ample Hh):
B. a percentage
A. homozygous
C. capital letters
B. heterozygous
D. lower-case letters
C. dominant
4. If a pea plant were homozygous recessive D. purebred
for height, how would its alleles be repre-
sented? 10. This law describes how each member of a
homologous pair is pulled randomly to one
A. TT side or another in anaphase I
B. Tt A. Law of Segregation
C. tt B. Law of Independent Assortment
D. tT C. Law of Gravity
5. What occurs during ‘crossing over’? D. Law of Mathematical Order
A. Chromosomes split 11. Which process is necessary for sexual re-

production but not for asexual reproduc-
B. Chromosomes form
tion?
C. Chromosome pieces switch
A. production of new cells
D. Chromosomes duplicate B. division of cells
6. Having two of the SAME alleles for a trait C. meiosis
(example HH or hh): D. copying of genetic material
A. homozygous
12. A sperm cell and an egg cell EACH have
B. heterozygous how many chromosomes?
C. recessive A. 23
D. dominant B. 46

6.4 Monohybrid Cross 814
C. 32 18. Gregor Mendel is known as the father of

D. 56
A. Modern Medicine
13. Changes in DNA that cause variation.
B. Father of the Green Revolution
A. mutation
C. Father of Genitics
B. population
D. The Pea Plant Man
C. extinction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above 19. The variety of genes and alleles that exist
in organisms
14. When is a recessive allele expressed in off-
spring? A. independent assortment
A. when two copies are present B. chromosomal abnormalities
B. when parents have no dominant alleles C. genetic diversity

D. mutations
C. when the offspring is heterozygous
20. Which of the following is a phenotype?
D. when one copy is present
A. Aa
15. is the physical expression of a trait, or B. red hair
how it looks
C. heterozygous
A. phenotype
D. BB
B. ratio
C. recessive trait 21. A muscle cell from a male duck has 80 chro-
mosomes. How many chromosomes would
D. heredity be found in a sperm cell from this duck?
16. Diploid means what? (Number) A. 160
A. 2 B. 80
B. 3 C. 40
C. 4 D. 20
D. 1
22. The Law of Segregation states that alleles
17. One gene from a pair is called an separate during the process of
A. Trait A. Mitosis
B. Allele B. Meiosis
C. Genotype C. Fertilization
D. Phenotype D. Replication
6.4 Monohybrid Cross

1. Genetics is the study of B. mitosis
A. meiosis C. reproduction

D. heredity 8. If you had a black rat, how could you

tell it’s genotype was homozygous or het-
2. each pair of alleles separate during the for- erozygous?

mation of egg and sperm.
A. There is no way to determine
A. law of segregation
B. monohybrid cross B. Breed it with a purebred brown rat
C. alleles C. Look at at its parents
D. heredity D. Breed it with a heterozygous rat
3. Tt X TtWhat percentage of the offspring 9. What is another way of saying an organ-
will be short?T = tall t = short ism is “pure breeding ‘’?
A. 100%
A. It is homozygous
B. 75%
B. It is dominant
C. 50%
C. It is recessive
D. 25%
D. It is heterozygous
4. A red flower (Rr) is crossed with a white
flower (rr). What is the genotypic ratio? 10. In some chicken, feather color is a co-
A. 0 RR; 0 Rr:4 rr dominant trait. If a black chicken (BB) is
B. 2 RR; 0 Rr:2 rr crossed with a white chicken (bb), what is
the phenotype of the offspring?
C. 4 RR; 0 Rr:0 rr
A. Black
D. 0 RR; 2 Rr:2 rr
B. White
5. trait
C. Black and white spotted
A. Punnett square
B. blue D. Gray
C. characteristics of an organism con- 11. Which is homozygous dominate?
trolled by genetics
A. BB
D. AA
B. bb
6. Recessive alleles are written using
C. Bb
A. capital
B. lowercase D. BW
C. both 12. In german shepherds, pointy ears (P) are
D. neither dominant to floppy ears (p). What is the
genotype of a german shepherd that is het-
7. How many alleles does each person carry erozygous for pointy ears?
for a trait?
A. PP
A. 1
B. 2 B. Pp
C. 3 C. pp

13. Purebred A. 75%

A. Dd B. 50%
B. gG C. 25%
C. JJ D. 0%
D. JK 19. Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair
14. If a heterozygous mother with brown eyes (s).What is the genotype for an offspring
with long hair?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mated with a father who is homozygous
dominant for brown eyes. Create a Pun- A. SS
nett square to determine the percentage B. Ss
of offspring would have brown eyes?
C. ss
A. 100%
D. none of above
B. 75%
C. 50% 20. Tall plants are dominant over short plants.
What are the genotype percentages for
D. 25% the following cross?Tt X Tt
15. Homozygous dominant A. TT = 50%, Tt = 25%, tt = 25%
A. D B. TT = 75%, Tt = 0%, tt = 25%
B. dd C. TT = 0%, Tt = 100%, tt = 0%
C. Dd D. TT = 25%, Tt = 50%, tt = 25%
D. DD 21. A genotype is
16. Free ear lobe is dominant to attached, a A. the listing of the alleles for the trait
couple who have free ear lobes have a B. the physical appearance of the trait
child with an attached ear lobe, What are
the genotypes of the couple? C. the separation of the chromosomes
A. Ee x EE D. the letters seen on the outside of the
Punnett square
B. Ee x Ee
C. EE x EE 22. A woman with curly hair marries a man
who is heterozygous for straight hair.
D. ee x Ee Which of the following will represent the
17. Which of these gene pairs are heterozy- woman’s genotype?
gous? A. ss
A. Aa B. Ss
B. AA C. SS
C. aa D. none of above
D. Both b and c 23. If short hair (L) is dominant to long hair (l),
18. Using the Punnett Square from #6. What then to determine the genotype of a short-
is the percent chance that the offspring haired animal it should be crossed with
will be white? A. LL

B. Ll 29. inherited characteristic that is only ex-

C. ll presses when no other characteristic is
present

D. all of these
A. dominant
24. An organism’s genetic make-up: B. recessive
A. phenotype C. genotype
B. genotype D. phenotype
C. dominant
30. the physical characteristics that result
D. recessive from genes
25. Change in DNA sequence resulting in the A. phenotype
appearance of a new allele B. genotype
A. fertilization C. heterozygous
B. mutations D. homozygous
C. cross-fertilized 31. Which of the following traits of a dog is
D. self-fertilized inherited from its parents?
A. the presence of fleas in its fur
26. What is the genotype for a pea plant het-
erozygous for round seeds (R), and ho- B. the color of its fur
mozygous recessive for green seeds (y)? C. the ability to sit up and beg
A. Ry D. the habit of barking to go outside
B. RRyy
32. Gregor Mendel mostly worked with gar-
C. RrYy den pea plants, their scientific name be-
D. Rryy ing:
A. Pisum alurium
27. G = green, g = yellowThe genotype for a
yellow plant would be: B. Petromyzon marinus
A. GG C. Pesus plantus
D. Pisum sativum
B. Gg
C. gg 33. bb is an example of
D. All of the above A. homozygous dominant
B. homozygous recessive
28. What is the chance that a recessive phe-
notype will result from a cross between C. heterozygous
a homozygous dominant and homozygous D. none of these
recessive organism?
34. Incomplete dominance is a form of inheri-
A. 100% chance
tance where
B. 50% chance A. One allele is dominant over the other
C. 25% chance B. One allele is expressed in a different
D. This is impossible location than it should be

C. One allele is not completely expressed B. Proteins

over another allele C. Alleles
D. One allele eats the other
D. Nucleotides
35. What did Mendel call the two kinds of
40. An allele that is expressed whenever it is
traits exhibited by the pea plants (one
present
coming from the father, one from the
mother)? A. genotype
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Genesis B. recessive
B. Elective traits C. phenotype
C. Alleles D. dominant
D. Quadrants
41. In sharks, big fins are dominant (F) and
36. Which of these crosses could have a geno- small fins are recessive (f). What is the
typic ratio of 1:0? genotype of the homozygous big fins?
A. Dd X Dd A. ff
B. DD X dd B. FF
C. DD X Dd C. Ff
D. Dd X dd D. fF
37. What is the locus? 42. phenotype
A. Two genes that occupy the same posi- A. DNA
tion on homologous chromosomes
B. physical appearance of an organism
B. A section of DNA sequence encoding a
single protein C. eye color
C. A fixed location on a strand of DNA D. genetic makeup of an organism

where a gene or one of its alleles are lo-
43. Which of the following if NOT an example
cated
of a phenotype?
D. The unit of heredity
A. Aa
38. Tall plants are dominant to short plants. B. green plants
Determine the genotype and phenotype ra-
tios for a homozygous recessive female C. purple petals
and a homozygous dominant male. D. tall stems
A. 2:4 TT 2:4 tt2:4 tall 2:4 short
44. What is the ONLY genotype an individual
B. 4:4 Tt4:4 tall can have that will express the recessive
C. 2:4 TT 2:4 Tt4:4 tall phenotype?
D. 1:4 TT 2:4 Tt 1:4 tt3:4 tall 1:4 short A. DD
B. Dd
39. The different forms of a gene are known
as C. dd
A. Codons D. none of above

45. Green is dominant to yellow. Two het- the offspring of the cross BbTt x BBtt will
erozygous green plants are crossed. What have black fur and long tails?
are the genotypes of the offspring?

A. 0%
A. 100% Gg B. 25%
B. 50% GG, 50% Gg
C. 50%
C. 25% GG, 50% Gg, 25% gg
D. 100%
D. 75% Gg, 25% gg
51. . An organism would need two copies of
46. A homozygous dominant mom mated with this type of allele in order for its trait to
a father that is homozygous recessive. be seen.
Create a Punnett square to determine the
A. Dominant
possible genotypes?
B. Recessive
A. Ff only
C. Neutral
B. FF & ff
C. Ff & ff D. none of above
D. ff only 52. The brown fur color is dominant. If the

mother is a homozygous brown fur (BB)
47. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair is and the father is a homozygous white fur
dominant over the allele for long hair.B = (bb), what is the phenotype ratio?
short b = longWhat genotype would a het-
erozygous short haired guinea pig have? A. 1 Brown:3 White
A. BB B. 4 Brown
B. bb C. 3 Brown:1 white
C. Bb D. 2 Brown:2 white
D. none of above 53. In dogs, there is a hereditary deafness
caused by a recessive gene, “d.” A ken-
48. First generation
nel owner has a male dog (Gilbert) that
A. Class she wants to use for breeding purposes, if
B. F1 possible. The dog can hear. What are the
possible genotypes for Gilbert?
C. Genes
A. DD or dd
D. Eggs
B. DD only
49. The genotype, “aa” is considered to be:
C. Dd only
A. dominant
D. DD or Dd
B. codominant
54. Gregor Mendel is known as the:
C. recessive
A. Father of DNA and Chromosomes
D. hybridized
B. Father of Inheritance
50. T4-Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to
brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are domi- C. Father of Modern Genetics
nant to long tails (t). What percentage of D. Father of Protein Synthesis

55. Tt is- 61. An organism that inherits two different al-

A. homozygous dominant leles for a trait
B. homozygous recessive A. homozygous
C. heterozygous B. genotype
D. none of these C. phenotype
56. Which of the following genotypes is ho- D. heterozygous
mozygous dominant?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. A 62. Red flowers (R) are dominant to white
flowers (r). What percentage of the off-
B. Aa
spring will be white if I cross the following
C. AA parents? Rrxrr
D. aa A. 25%
57. The genotype “Gg” is considered to be: B. 100%
A. homozygous dominant C. 0%
B. heterozygous
D. 50%
C. homozygous recessive
D. heterozygous recessive 63. Which of the following genotypes is writ-
ten correctly?
58. different forms of the same gene are
called A. THTH
A. alleles B. TTHH
B. genetics C. TtTt
C. p generation D. ThHt
D. law of segregation
64. Mendel crossed what organism in his in-
59. A dog gives birth to 5 puppies. What vestigations?
percentage of the chromosomes does each
puppy share with the mother? A. Peas
A. 25% B. Flies
B. 50% C. Pigs
C. 75% D. Humans
D. 100%
65. Curly hair is recessive, and straight hair
60. If I cross a homozygous dominant parent is dominant. Which letter will represent
with a homozygous recessive parent all straight hair (select all that apply)
the offspring will be what?
A. S
A. Homozygous dominant
B. Heterozygous dominant B. Ss
C. Heterozygous C. s
D. Homozygous recessive D. none of above

66. In snapdragons, flower color is controlled 71. What are the blood types of the possible
by incomplete dominance. If a red flower children that a woman (type O) and man
(RR) is crossed with a white flower (rr), (type AB) can have?

what is the phenotype of the offspring? A. O and AB
A. Red B. O and A
B. White C. O and B
C. Pink D. A and B
D. Yellow
72. Which of the following represents a “ho-
67. Which of the following is an example of a mozygous dominant” individual?
homozygous recessive genotype? A. Ff
A. Gg B. TT
B. AA C. tt
C. FF D. none of above
D. ff 73. How many alleles (letters) does each per-
son carry for a particular trait?
68. A heterozygous round seeded plant (Rr)
is crossed with a homozygous dominant A. 1
round seeded plant (RR). What percentage B. 2
of the offspring will be homozygous dom-
inant? C. 3
D. 4
A. 100%
B. 75% 74. The study of heredity and the variation of
inherited characteristics
C. 50%
A. gene
D. 25%
B. genetics
69. R=red, r=pink. Cross two heterozygous C. meiosis
plants. What would the genotype possi-
bilities be of the offspring? D. hybrid
A. RR, rr 75. T = tall an t = shortTT and Tt would result

B. RR, Rr, rr in the following phenotype-make a pun-
nett square
C. Rr, rr
A. short
D. RR, Rr
B. tall
70. What are the gametes for BbDd? (USE C. medium sized
FOIL)
D. neither tall or short
A. B, b, D, d
76. Brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes.
B. BD, bD, Bd, bd
Which letter will indicate a recessive al-
C. BD, BD, Bd, bd lele? (select all that apply)
D. bD, bD, bd, bd A. B

B. b C. 25% tall, 75% short

C. Bb D. 0% tall, 100% short
D. none of above
82. which of the following are examples of re-
77. What is another name for “true breed- cessive alleles?
ing?” A. D, e, K, L
A. Heterozygous B. D, E, K, L
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Purebred/Homozygous C. d, e, k, l
C. Hybrid D. none of above
D. Cross Pollinating
83. Genetics is
78. Which is a homozygous dominant geno-
A. a cross involving one set of traits
type?
B. passing of traits from parent to off-
A. AA
spring
B. aa
C. branch of biology that studies heredity
C. Aa
D. AB D. multiple alleles
79. If brown fur is dominant and white fur is
84. What are the offspring’s possible pheno-
recessive what is the phenotype of the fol-
types?Brown fur is dominant. White fur
lowing Rabbit:aa
is recessive.Both parents were heterozy-
A. Brown gous with brown fur.
B. White A. 100% White fur
C. Speckled B. 50% Brown fur 50% White fur
D. Spotted C. 100% Brown fur
80. In a flowering plant species, red flower D. 75% Brow fur 25% White fur
color (R) is dominant over white flower
color (r). What is the genotype of any 85. The Father of Genetics
red-flowering plant resulting from this A. Watson
species?
B. Crick
A. rr
C. Mendel
B. R
D. Darwin
C. RR
D. RR or Rr 86. The hereditary information that deter-
mines a single trait
81. T = tall t = shortCross a plant that is ho-
A. genotype
mozygous tall with a plant that is homozy-
gous short.What is the phenotype ratio? B. phenotype
A. 100% tall, 0% short C. alleles
B. 75% tall, 25% short D. genes

87. which are the gametes for parent who are B. allele
heterozygous
C. hybrid

A. Hh x hh
D. trait
B. HH x HH
C. Hh x Hh 93. If a homozygous dominant allele (AA) is
crossed with a homozygous recessive al-
D. hh x hh
lele (aa), all of the resulting offspring will
88. Which of the following represents a ho- be
mozygous recessive individual? A. Homozygous dominant
A. DD
B. Heterozygous
B. Dd
C. Homozygous Recessive
C. dd
D. none of above
D. none of above
89. Which gentotype would be considered het- 94. Which term means having two of the same
erozygous? alleles for the trait.
A. Rr A. homozygous
B. RR B. hetrozygous
C. rr C. protein
D. YY D. chromosome
90. What are the blood types of the possible
children that a woman (type O) and man 95. What is a gene?
(type AB) can have? Use a Punnett square A. An entire chromosome that codes for
if you need to. a trait
A. O and AB B. a piece of clothing
B. O and A C. a piece of a DNA on chromosome that
C. O and B codes for a trait
D. A and B D. Chemical messengers in your brain
that code for a trait
91. What is codominance?
A. A trait where one trait is dominant and 96. In guinnea pigs, black eyes are dominant
the other is reccesive to red eyes. A male guinnea pig that is het-
B. A trait where neither traits are domi- erozygous is crossed with a female that is
nant homozygous recessive. What are the ex-
pected phenotypes of their offspring?
C. A trait where both traits a reccesive
A. Red Eyed and Black Eyed
D. A trait where both traits are dominant
B. Only Red Eyed
92. One of the two forms of a gene is called
a(n) C. Only Black Eyed
A. genotype D. none of above

97. In plants, being short is the recessive C. heterozygous

gene.Two heterozygous plants are crossed. D. genotype
What is the phenotypic ratio of the off-
spring?You must show your work for full 102. Sections of DNA that code for a trait
credit! A. Epigenetics
A. 1:2:1 B. Genetics
B. 1:2:3 C. Mutations
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 2 ; 2 D. Genes
D. 3:1 103. Wrinkled seed (r) are recessive to
smooth seeds. Show a wrinkled seed
98. In guinea pigs, black hair is dominant to
plant crossed with a heterozygous smooth
white hair and short hair is dominant to
seed plant. What is the chance that the
long hair. What would be the phenotype
offspring will be smooth and what will its
of a guinea pig with the genotype Bbss?
genotype be?
A. Black hair, long hair
A. 50% RR
B. Black hair, short hair
B. 75% Rr
C. White hair, long hair C. 75% RR
D. White hair, short hair D. 50% Rr
99. Assuming that the probability of having a 104. An allele that is masked whenever the
female child is 50% and the probability of dominant allele is present
having a male child is 50%, what is the
A. homozygous
probability that a couple’s first-born child
will be male and the second born will be B. heterozygous
female? C. recessive
A. 0% D. dominant
B. 25% 105. Dad is homozygous dominant for brown
C. 50% eyes. This will be indicated by
D. 100% A. One capital letter, one lowercase
B. Two capital letters
a Recessive Allele? C. two lower case letters
A. BB D. none of above
B. B 106. What does the law of independent as-
C. a sortment state?
A. Factors are distributed dependently.
D. A
B. Traits are distributed to gametes inde-
101. Which term means having two different pendently.
alleles for a trait.
C. Factors are distributed to gametes in-
A. protein dependently.
B. homozygous D. Factors are assorted.

107. inherited characteristic that is always ex- C. trihybrid

press
D. quadhybrid

A. phenotype
B. genotype 113. A homozygous brown bunny is crossed
with a homozygous black bunny. If black
C. dominant
fur is a dominant trait, and brown is a re-
D. recessive cessive, what are the chances of getting a
brown bunny?
108. What would tt be considered?
A. homozygous dominant A. 100 %
B. homozygous recessive B. 0 %
C. heterozygous C. 75 %
D. heterozygous dominant D. 25 %
109. Brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes.
114. What is the next step in completing this
Which letter will indicate a dominant al-
problem?
lele? (select all that apply)
A. B A. Fill in the boxes in the punnett square
with potential offspring
B. b
B. Determine the gametes and put them
C. Bb
on the outside of the punnett square
D. none of above
C. Determine the potential outcome by
110. In pea plants purple flowers are domi- listing genotypic and phenotypic ratios
nant to white.What are the parental geno-
D. none of above
types needed to produce 100% white
flowers?
115. The passing of traits from parents to off-
A. pp x pp spring through genes is
B. PP x PP
A. mitosis
C. Pp x Pp
B. asexual reproduction
D. Pp x Pp
C. sexual reproduction
111. What is another way of saying “pure-
bred ‘’? D. heredity
A. homozygous 116. what is the definition of Heterozygous?

B. dominant
A. when an individual has two sets of the
C. recessive same allele
D. heterozygous B. when it is neither dominant or reces-
112. In a cross, one pair of contrasting sive
traits are being crossed. C. A pair of alleles where one is dominant
A. monohybrid and one is recessive.
B. dihybrid D. none of above

117. Black is dominant to brown. Millie is a 122. A characteristic that an organism can
heterozygous black bat (Bb). She meets a pass on to its offspring through its genes
homozygous brown bat (bb). What is the A. protein
chance their offspring is brown?
B. trait
A. 0 %
C. DNA
B. 50 %
D. gene
C. 25 %
123. Who is considered the “Father of Genet-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 75 %
ics?”
118. In a cross of Bb x Bb, what percentage A. James Watson
of the offspring are expected to have a re- B. Francis Crick
cessive phenotype?
C. Gregor Mendel
A. 25%
D. Albert Einstein
B. 50%
124. Alternate forms of a gene
C. 75%
A. geneotype
D. 100%
B. alleles
119. In pea plants, purple flowers are domi-
C. mutations
nant to white flowers. If two white flow-
ered plants are crossed, what percentage D. recessive
of their offspring will have white flow-
125. What are the offspring’s possible pheno-
ers?
types?Brown fur is dominant. White fur
A. 100% is recessive.One parent is homozygous for
B. 75% brown fur as the other is heterozygous.
C. 25% A. 100% White fur

B. 50% Brown fur 50% White fur
D. none of above
C. 100% Brown fur
120. heredity material of the cell
D. 75% Brow fur 25% White fur
A. DNA
B. Phenotype a Dominant Allele?
C. Genotype A. a
D. Nucleosome B. A
121. A carrier of a genetic disorder who does C. b
not show symptoms is likely to be to D. aa
transmit it to offspring
127. Use the Punnett Square from the pre-
A. heterozygous for the trait and able
vious question #6. What is the percent
B. homozygous for the trait and unable chance that the offspring will be white?
C. homozygous for the trait and able A. 75%
D. heterozygous for the trait and unable B. 50%

C. 25% 133. A homozygous dominant mom mated

D. 0% with a father that is homozygous reces-
sive. Create a Punnett square to deter-

128. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair is mine how many of the offspring will have
dominant over the allele for long hair.B = freckles
short b = longWhat genotype would a ho- A. 0
mozygous recessive guinea pig have?
B. 4
A. BB
C. 3
B. bb
C. Bb D. 1
D. none of above 134. In cacti, long arms (A) are dominant to

short arms (a). Suppose 2 heterozygous
129. A round seed plant (R) is dominant to a cacti are crossed. What percentage of
wrinkled seed plant (r). What parental their offspring are expected to have short
genotypes will produce offspring that are arms?
50% homozygous dominant and 50% het-
erozygous? A. 0%
A. Tt x TT B. 25%
B. Tt x tt C. 75%
C. TT x TT D. 100%
D. tt x tt
135. parent 1:GgBBparent 2:ggBbFind the ga-
130. In a cross of Ss x ss, what is the expected metes for parent 1.
phenotype ratio in the offspring? A. GB, GB, gB, gB
A. 3:1 B. gB, gb, gB, gb
B. 1:2:1 C. Gg, BB, GB, GB
C. 1:1
D. gg, Bb, gB, gb
D. 4:0
136. An allele whose trait always shows up in
131. Punnett Squares show the possibilities of the organism when the allele is present.
combining in the process of
A. recessive allele
A. alleles, fertilization
B. dominant allele
B. genes, meiosis
C. hidden allele
C. alleles, meiosis
D. present allele
D. body cells, fertilization
132. Female gametes 137. Dominant alleles are-

A. sperm A. capital
B. pollen B. lowercase
C. genes C. both
D. eggs D. neither

138. Second generation 143. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair
is dominant over the allele for long hair.B
A. F1
= short b = longWhat genotype would a
B. F2 purebred short haired guinea pig have?
C. F3 A. BB
D. F4 B. bb
139. What predicts genetic outcomes? C. Bb
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. genetic engineering D. none of above
B. punnet square 144. A flower color is an example of a/an

C. probability A. genotype
D. none of above B. phenotype
140. Dominant:Smiley (E) Recessive:Frowning C. character

(e)What is the genotype of a person who D. allele
is frowning?
145. You can determine the phenotype of a
A. EE
flower color by
B. Ee
A. looking at the color of the parents.
C. ee
B. looking at the flower color of the off-
D. none of above spring.
141. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair C. looking at the flower.
is dominant over the allele for long hair.B D. none of above
= short b = longA purebred short haired
guinea pig is crossed with a long haired 146. A green pea plant (GG) is being crossed
guinea pig. What percentage of their off- with a green pea plant (Gg). What is the
spring will have short hair? phenotype ratio of the offspring?
A. 100% A. 100 % rainbow
B. 75% B. 50% yellow and 50% green
C. 50% C. 100% green
D. 25% D. 100% yellow
142. G = green g = yellowCross two 147. What is it called when a allele that codes
plants that are heterozygous for green for a specific trait is not completely domi-
pods.What is the phenotype ratio? nant over the other?
A. 25% green, 75% yellow A. Incomplete Dominance
B. 25% green, 75% yellow B. Codominance
C. 50% green, 50% yellow C. Weak Allele
D. 75% green, 25% yellow D. Homozygous

148. The process of passing traits from par- 153. What is a Punnett square used to pre-
ents to offspring dict?

A. traits A. possible genotypes & phenotypes of
offspring
B. heredity
B. possible genotypes & phenotypes of
C. genes
the parents
D. genotype
C. determine the actual outcome of ge-
149. Can you curl your tongue up on the sides? netic crosses
Tongue-curling in humans is a dominant ge- D. determine how many offspring a cou-
netic trait. Suppose a man who is Tt for ple will have
tongue-curling marries a woman who is
also Tt for this trait. What are the pos- 154. Reproductive cells produced by sexually
sible genotypes of the offspring? reproducing organisms
A. TT, Tt, tt A. gametes
B. TT or tt B. genes
C. Tt C. sperm
D. TT D. eggs
150. Dad is homozygous recessive for freckles. 155. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair is
His genotype will be indicated by dominant over the allele for long hair.B =
short b = longWhat would the cross be for
A. One capital letter, one lowercase
two heterozygous guinea pigs?
B. Two capital letters
A. BB X BB
C. Two lower case letters
B. BB X Bb
D. none of above
C. Bb X Bb
151. In a dihybrid cross D. bb X bb
A. one trait is crossed.
156. An organism with two different alleles
B. two traits are crossed. for a trait is said to be:
C. four boxes are needed for the punnett A. recessive
square.
B. hybrid
D. mom’s alleles are dominant.
C. dominant
152. Which law states that alleles for differ- D. purebred
ent traits separate independently during
meiosis? 157. Hybrid
A. Law of Independent Assortment A. OO
B. Law of Segregation B. he
C. Law of Genetics C. HH
D. Law of Separation D. gG

158. A dihybrid cross shows the possible out- 163. Which of the following is an example of
comes of a homozygous dominant genotype?
A. two alleles A. Gg
B. two parents B. Ff
C. two traits/characters C. GG
D. a self pollination D. aa
164. the genetic makeup of an individual is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
159. Mendel established the Law of Segrega-
tion. Each gamete produced by a parent known as it’s
contains only allele for a trait. A. genotype
A. 1 B. phenotype
B. 2 C. alleles
C. 3 D. heterozygous
D. 4 165. When Grey fur is dominant to brown fur
the Genotypic Ratio for the cross between
160. G = green g = yellowCross two a heterozygous mouse and a brown mouse
plants that are heterozygous for green is
pods.What are the phenotype percent-
A. GG 1:Gg 2:gg 1
ages?
B. Grey 3:Brown 1
A. 25% green, 75% yellow
C. GG 0:Gg 2:gg 1
B. 25% green, 75% yellow
D. Grey 2:Brown 2
C. 50% green, 50% yellow
D. 75% green, 25% yellow 166. If Aa is self-crossed, what is the geno-
typic ratio?
161. A homozygous dominant round seeded A. 1/2Aa:1/2aa
plant is crossed with a homozygous reces-
B. 1/4AA:1/2Aa:1/4aa
sive wrinkled seeded plant. What are the
genotypes of the parents? C. 3/4AA:1/4aa
A. RR X rr D. None of the above
B. Rr X rr 167. Different forms of a gene
C. rr X rr A. Chromosomes
D. RR X Rr B. Alleles
C. Mutations
162. In plants, tall (T) is dominant to short
(t). Perform the following cross:Tt x Tt. D. Gametes
What is the probability of producing a 168. The following items are examples of
short plant? Items:eye color, hair color, height
A. 0% A. homozygous alleles
B. 25% B. genotype
C. 50% C. heterozygous alleles
D. 75% D. phenotype

169. T = tall t = shortTT x Tt would result in 175. How can two parents with brown eyes
the following phenotype: have a child with blue eyes?

A. all short A. The parents may both have recessive
genes for blue eyes.
B. all tall
B. The child was born during the winter
C. TT and Tt
C. Eye color in humans is not an inherited
D. neither tall or short trait
170. Physical appearance of a trait; expres- D. The child was deprived of oxygen dur-
sion of the genotype ing its birth
A. genotype 176. Brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes.
B. genes Determine the genotype and phenotype ra-
tios for a homozygous dominant female
C. alleles and a homozygous dominant male.
D. phenotype A. 1:4 BB 2:4 Bb 1:4 bb3:4 Brown eyes 1:4
blue eyes
171. AA is an example of
B. 4:4 BB4:4 Brown eyes
A. homozygous dominant
C. 2:4 BB 2:4 Bb4:4 Brown eyes
D. 3:4 BB 1:4 Bb4:4 Brown eyes
C. heterozygous
177. The physical expression of a genetic trait
D. none of these
is called a
172. The father of genetics is A. mutation
A. Peabody B. genotype
B. Crick C. crossing over
C. Mendel D. phenotype
D. Watson 178. If all offspring of a cross have the geno-
type Aa, the parents of the crosses would
173. Different forms of genes: most likely be
A. alleles A. AA x aa
B. phenotype B. Aa x Aa
C. genotype C. Aa x aa
D. homologous chromosomes D. AA x Aa
174. In a cross of Aa x Aa, what is the ex- 179. If a bird with normal feathers and a ho-
pected genotype ratio in the offspring? mozygous dominant genotype mates with
a frizzy feathered bird, what percentage
A. 3:1
of their offspring would be expected to
B. 1:2:1 have frizzy feathers?
C. 1:1 A. 0%
D. 4:0 B. 12.5%

C. 25% 185. a form of a trait that is covers another

D. 50% trait is said to be
A. dominant
180. RR
B. recessive
A. Homozygous dominant
C. heterozygous
B. Homozygous recessive
D. homozygous
C. Heterozygous
186. Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disor-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Hybrid der. Which genotype represents a male
181. A student’s mother is homozygous for at- with hemophilia?
tached earlobes, a recessive trait. The stu- A. XHXh
dent’s father is a heterozygous for the de- B. XhXh
tached earlobes. What is the percent like-
lihood that this student has attached ear- C. XHY
lobes? D. XhY
A. 100% 187. Different forms of genes for a single trait
B. 75% are
C. 50% A. heterozygous
D. 25% B. dominant
C. alleles
182. A Phenotypic ratio could also be written
as a phenotypic probability such as D. homozygous
A. Grey 50%:Brown 50% 188. A cross between a dominant homozygous

B. Grey 2:Brown 2 tall pea plant and homozygous recessive
would yield ratios of
C. GG 0%:Gg 50%:gg 50%
A. 1 homozygous tall:3 heterozygous tall
D. GG 0:Gg 2:gg 2
B. 1 homozygous tall:1 heterozygous tall
183. Which is a possible haploid (gamete) C. 3 homozygous tall:1 heterozygous tall
genotype?
D. All heterozygous tall
A. Blue eyes
189. Smooth seeds are dominant over wrin-
B. Aa kled seeds.What is the genotype ratio for
C. A the following cross?Nn X NN
D. Brown eyes A. NN = 100%, Nn = 0%, nn = 0%
B. NN = 50%, Nn = 25%, nn = 25%
184. What are the names of Gregor Mendel’s
two laws? C. NN = 50%, Nn = 50%, nn = 0%
A. Assortment and Division D. NN = 25%, Nn = 50%, nn = 25%
B. Segregation and Combination 190. Where sperm is contained within a plant
C. Combination and Division A. eggs
D. Segregation and Assortment B. ovules

C. pollen 196. Which of the following statement is TRUE

D. genes about allele?

A. Alleles are codes for recessive traits
191. Mendel’s first Law states that each allele
must separate and be placed into an indi- B. Alleles are alternative form of genes
vidual sperm or egg. This is known as the C. Recessive allele produces phenotype
Law of: for heterozygous
A. Segregation D. When both alleles are same, the indi-
B. Independent Assortment vidual is heterozygous
C. Hybridization 197. basic physical and functional unit of
D. Assimilation heredity made up of DNA, defined by its
location on a chromosome
192. An allele whose trait only shows up when
A. trait
no dominant allele is present.
B. Genes
A. hidden allele
B. dominant allele C. deoxyribonucleic acid
C. recessive allele D. chromosome
D. present allele 198. One of the following is a genotype of a

recessive trait
193. T=tall, t=short. Cross a heterozygous
and a homozygous recessive. What are A. Cc
the chances of an offspring being tall? B. CC
A. 1 out of 4 or 25% C. cc
B. 2 out of 4 or 50% D. C
C. 3 out of 4 or 75%
199. In rats, black coat color is dominant over
D. 4 out of 4 or 100% white coat color. If some of the offspring
194. In a dihybrid cross, pairs of contrast- of a cross between a black rat and a white
ing traits are being crossed. rat are white, the black rat must have
been-
A. one
B. two
B. heterozygous
C. three
C. homozygous recessive
D. four
D. none of above
195. What is NOT a possible genotype for
someone with type B blood? 200. What would Rr be considered?
A. BB A. heterozygous
B. BO B. homozygous dominant
C. AB C. homozygous recessive

201. A homozygous guinea pig with beauti- example, a father provides how many of
ful, luscious hair breeds with a heterozy- his alleles for eye color)?
gous short-haired, but still very ravishing A. 1
guinea pig. What percentage chance is
there for the offspring to inherit their par- B. 2
ent’s long, luscious hair? C. 3
A. 0.25 D. 4
B. 0.5 206. Mendel knew that some traits were
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 0.75 and some were.
D. 1.0 A. dominant and neutral
B. dominant and recessive
202. Human blood type is determined by multi-
ple alleles (A, B, and O). Which ratio would C. recessive and neutral
result from a cross between a man with D. recessive and negative
Type AB blood and a woman with Type O
blood? 207. Axial flowers are dominant over terminal
flowers. What is the phenotypic ratio for
A. 0% Type A, 50% Type O
the following cross?Aa X aa
B. 75% Type A, 25% Type B
A. 4:0
C. 50% Type A, 50% Type B
B. 3:1
D. 100% Type O C. 2:2
203. In a punnett square where are the parent D. 1:3
alleles written?
208. Aa is an example of
A. Top and inside the boxes
B. Only on the left and right side of the
boxes. B. homozygous recessive
C. heterozygous
C. outside of the boxes (top and left side)
D. none of these
D. All on the top side of the boxes 209. Black is dominant to brown. Millie is a
heterozygous black bat. She meets a ho-
204. A homozygous round seeded plant is
mozygous brown bat. What is the chance
crossed with a homozygous wrinkled
their offspring is NOT black?
seeded plant. What percentage of the off-
spring will be homozygous recessive?R = A. 0.0
roundr = wrinkled B. 0.5
A. 75% C. 0.25
B. 50% D. 0.75
C. 25%
210. What symbol in a monohybrid cross rep-
D. 0% resents children?
205. How many alleles (letters) does a child A. P

get from EACH parent for each trait (For B. F2

C. F1 216. Which trait is masked in the heterozy-

gous condition?
D. F3

A. Dominant trait
211. Where eggs are contained within a plant
B. Recessive trait
A. pollen
C. Incomplete trait
B. sperm
D. Codominant trait
C. ovules
217. The mom is homozygous dominant for no
D. genes freckles. Which of the following repre-
sents her genotype? (select all that ap-
212. The genotypes of AA and Aa can be de-
ply)
scribed as:
A. Ff
A. recessive
B. FF
B. dominant
C. ff
C. codominant
D. none of above
D. non-dominant
218. An individual who has two of the same
213. A homozygous white mouse is crossed allele is said to be
with a heterozygous black mouse. Black
is dominant to white. What is the geno- A. Homozygous
type ratio? B. Hemizygous
A. 4Bb C. Homologous
B. 2bb:2BB D. Heterozygous
C. 2Bb:2bb
219. In dogs, long hair (L) is dominant to
D. 4bb short hair (l). What is the phenotype of a
dog that is homozygous dominant for this
214. The outward characteristics that people trait?
show due to their genetic material.
A. Long hair
A. Homozygous
B. LL
B. Heterozgyous
C. Short Hair
C. Genotype
D. Ll
D. Phenotype
220. A distinguishing characteristic that can be
215. Genetic makeup of an individual inherited is a(n)
A. genotype A. cross
B. phenotype B. allele
C. F1 C. gene
D. F2 D. trait

221. Homozygous recessive A. 25%

A. TT B. 50%
B. AA C. 75%
C. aA D. 100%
D. tt
227. If a fly with red eyes and the genotype
222. If a man that can taste PTC (Tt) has chil- (Rr) is crossed with a brown eyed fly,
dren with a female non-taster, what is the what percentage of the offspring would
NARAYAN CHANGDER
percent chance their child will be able to have red eyes?
taste PTC?
A. 255
A. 25%
B. 50%
B. 40%
C. 67%
C. 50%
D. 75%
D. 75%
228. A cross between a red flower and a white
223. Fusion of egg and sperm from two differ-
flower produces red and white spotted
ent plants
flowers. Which type of inheritance pattern
A. fertilization is indicated by these results?
B. mutations A. polygenic
C. cross-fertilized B. codominance
D. self-fertilized C. multiple alleles
224. Tall plants are dominant over short D. incomplete dominance
plants. What is the phenotype ratio for
the following cross?Tt X Tt 229. Punnett Square #2In plants tall is domi-
A. 100% tall, 0% short nant to short.Cross one homozygous dom-
inant with one homozygous recessive
B. 75% tall, 25% short plant.What is the phenotypic ratio?
C. 50% tall, 50% short A. 1:2:1
D. none of above
B. 2:2
225. How many alleles do we get from each C. 4
parent for each trait?
D. none of above
A. one
B. two 230. Round seeds (R) are dominant over wrin-
kled seeds (r). What percentage of the
C. three offspring will be round from the following
D. four cross?Rr X Rr
226. Long tongues (T) are dominant to short A. 100%
tongues in green tree frogs. What is the B. 75%
probability that two frogs that are het-
erozygous for long tongues could produce C. 50%
offspring with short tongues? D. 25%

231. Black fur is dominate to ginger fur in cats. 236. If a woman has type A blood and her child
A heterozygous Black cat is crossed with has type O blood, the father must have
a homozygous recessive ginger cat. What which of the following blood types?

is the ratio for the offsprings? A. A, B, or O
A. 2BB:2Bb B. A or O
B. 3Bb:1bb C. AB or B
C. 2Bb:2bb D. O only
D. 4bb:1Bb 237. In chickens, feather color is codominant.
If a black chicken BB is mated with one
232. . Alleles of this type tend to ‘mask’ other
that is black and white (BW) what are the
traits when they are present
chances of having a chicken that is black
A. Dominant and white?
B. Recessive A. 50%
C. Neutral B. 0%
D. none of above C. 25%
D. 100%
233. A parent that has 2 dominant alleles for
a trait is for that trait. 238. Glaucoma (an eye disease) is dominant
to normal vision. If you cross a woman
A. homozygous recessive
who is homozygous normal for vision and
B. heterozygous dominant a man who is heterozygous for glaucoma.
C. homozygous dominant What is the probability that they have a
child with glaucoma?
D. none of above
A. 0%
234. In a cross of Hh x hh, what percentage of B. 100%
the offspring are expected to be heterozy-
C. 50%
gous?
D. 75%
A. 25%
B. 50% 239. If I cross the following parents, what are
the possible genotypes? Parents:RRxrr
C. 75%
A. Rr and rr
D. 100%
B. Rr
235. If the results of a testcross reveal that C. RR and Rr
all offspring resemble the parents being D. Rr, RR and rr
tested, then it may be concluded that the
parents are 240. What is the primary function of the chro-
mosome?
A. heterozygous
A. Relay messages between different
B. polygenic
cells in animals
C. homozygous
B. Release energy by breaking down food
D. recessive molecules

C. Store the genetic instructions needed 245. T=tall, t=short. Cross a heterozygous
to specify traits and a homozygous recessive. What would
the genotype possibilities be of the off-
D. Transport waste materials rapidly out
spring?
of the cell
A. Tt, tt
241. Red flowers are dominant to white. A B. TT, Tt, tt
heterozygous flower is crossed with a
white flower. What is the genotypic ra- C. TT, Tt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tio? D. TT, tt
A. 0 RR; 0 Rr:4 rr 246. Two offspring from #9 are mated. What
B. 2 RR; 0 Rr:2 rr would the phenotypic ratio be from this
cross? Make a new Punnett square and
C. 4 RR; 0 Rr:0 rr remember that horned is recessive.
D. 0 RR; 2 Rr:2 rr A. 3 (hornless):1 (horned)
242. What is the meaning of the word B. 2 (hornless):2 (horned)

“trait”? C. 4 (hornless):0 (horned)
A. A distinguishing feature or character- D. 0 (hornless):4 (horned)
istic, such as hair color, eye color, etc.
247. In flowers, purple color is dominant to
B. A sequence of DNA that codes for a pink and short is dominant to tall. Cross a
specific trait flower that is heterozygous for both traits
C. An “option” for the trait such as pink with another flower that is pink and tall.
flowers (P) versus white flowers (p) What is the percentage of the flowers be-
ing pink and short?
D. none of above
A. 75%
243. W=white hairw= non-white hairIf you B. 25%
cross a horse with WW and a horse with C. 4
ww what fraction of the offspring would
D. 1/2
be expected to have white hair?
A. none 248. What do you call the physical expression
of a gene?
B. 3/4
A. genotype
C. 1/2
B. dominant
D. all C. phenotype
244. A tall plant (T) is dominant to a short D. allele
plant (t). If all offspring are heterozygous,
249. The following letters:Aa, DD, bB, yy, are
what are the genotypes of the parents?
all examples of:
A. TT x tt A. genotypes
B. Tt x Tt B. phenotypes
C. TT x TT C. chromosomes
D. tt x tt D. amino acids

250. Brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes. C. Triploid (3 copies of each gene).
Which genotype represent a person with D. Tetraploid (4 copies of each gene).
blue eyes? (select all that apply)

256. When a person has two of the same alle-
A. BB
les for a gene, they are said to be
B. Bb
A. Heterozygous
C. bb
B. Homozygous
D. none of above C. Hemizygous
251. Which of the following represents D. none of above
a “genotype” versus “phenotype” in
Mendel’s pea plants? 257. A breed of chicken shows codominance
for feather color. One allele codes for
A. Purple flowers versus Pp black feathers, another codes for white
B. Pp versus purple flowers feathers. The feathers of heterozygous
chickens of this breed will be:
C. white versus purple flowers
A. all black
D. none of above
B. all white
252. An organism’s genetic makeup, or allele C. all gray
combinations
D. speckled black and white
A. Recessive
258. Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer.
B. Genotype
She has a scar on her right cheek. She is
C. Phenotype good at swimming. Which of her traits did
D. Heterozygous Magda most likely inherit?
A. height
253. Which is a possible diploid (par-
ent/offspring) genotype? B. the scar
A. A C. ability to swim
B. Brown eyes D. ability to play drums
C. a 259. The correct punnett square on the last

slide was
D. Aa
A. A
254. What is considered to be the phenotype?
B. B
A. Double stranded chromosomes C. C
B. The physical trait that is expressed D. D
C. The combination of genes
260. What is the phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid
D. All of the genetic information cross of 2 heterozygous parents?
255. Gametes (sperm and egg) cells are con- A. 3:4:3:6
sidered: B. 1:2:3:4
A. Haploid (1 copy of each gene). C. 9:3:3:1
B. Diploid (2 copies of each gene). D. 8:4:3:1

261. The passing of genetic traits from parent 266. Given the following, what are the possi-
to offspring is known as ble genotypes? Parents:Yyxyy
A. heredity A. Yy
B. trait B. yy
C. gene C. Yy and YY
D. allele D. Yy and yy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
262. A woman with curly hair mated with the 267. What is the correct prediction when cross-
man who is heterozygous for straight hair. ing a homozygous dominant parent with a
Create a Punnett square to determine the homozygous recessive parent in dihybrid
possible genotypes? cross?
A. heterozygous & homozygous recessive A. 75% dominant, 25% recessive
B. 1:2:1
B. homozygous dominant & homozygous
recessive C. 9:3:3:1
C. heterozygous D. 100% heterozygous

D. heterozygous & homozygous dominant 268. How many different ways can a domi-
nant genotype be represented?
263. What did Gregor Mendel discover in the
results of his first set of crosses? A. 1
A. Only the dominant trait appeared! B. 3
B. The offspring were all different! C. 2
C. Only the recessive trait appeared! D. 4
D. The plants were more healthy 269. Which of the following represents the
264. What is a dominant trait? possible F2 genotype(s) resulting from a
cross between plant with blue flowers
A. The trait that controls how you solve (BB) and white flowered plant (bb)?
problems
A. Bb only
B. The trait that is “covered up” by the
recessive trait. B. BB only
C. The trait that “covers up” the reces- C. BB and Bb

sive trait. D. BB, Bb and bb
D. The trait that controls your personality
270. Mom is heterozygous for brown eyes.
265. Which of the following terms refers to Which of the following represent her geno-
the different possibilities of a gene? type
A. chromosome A. Bb
B. DNA B. BB
C. Punnett Squares C. bb
D. allele D. BB & Bb

271. R-round-wrinkled What is the genotype C. testcross

of wrinkled? D. fertilization

A. RR
277. Process of characteristics transmitted
B. rr from parent to offspring
C. Rr A. traits
D. none of above B. heredity
272. Which of the following are examples of C. genes
Dominant alleles? D. genotype
A. D, e, K, L
278. Which of the following genotype is one in
B. D, E, K, L which the recessive must show?
C. d, e, k, l A. Gg
D. dd, ee, kk, ll B. Ff
273. Who is the father of genetics? C. rr
A. Peabody D. AA
B. Starsky 279. What did Mendel discovery in the second
C. Hutch set of crosses (of hybrids)?
D. Mendel A. The recessive trait reappeared!

B. The dominant trait reappeared!
274. What is the correct phenotype ratio when
crossing two heterozygous parents in a di- C. The ratio was a 1:4
hybrid cross? D. All the offspring were true-breeding
A. 100% heterozygous 280. Black fur on mice is dominant over brown
B. 1:2:1 hair on mice, which is recessive. If a ho-
mozygous (BB) mouse and a another het-
C. 3:1
erozygous mouse (Bb) was crossed, then
D. 9:3:3:1 what is the chance of a baby of the two
mice being heterozygous?
275. A human zygote (fertilized egg) is consid-
ered: A. 0 %
A. Haploid (1 copy of each gene). B. 25 %
B. Diploid (2 copies of each gene). C. 50 %
C. Triploid (3 copies of each gene). D. 75 %
D. Tetraploid (4 copies of each gene). 281. If we cross TT with tt, what is the prob-
ability that the offspring will have Tt?
276. Crossing an organism with an unknown
genotype with one that is homozygous re- A. 0%
cessive for the trait B. 50%
A. cross-fertilized C. 75%
B. self-fertilized D. 100%

282. Which is a homozygous recessive geno- 287. What is the most accurate purpose of a
type? Punnet Square?
A. AA A. To make children
B. aa B. To predict the outcome of breeding
C. Aa two organisms
D. Blue eyes C. To see people’s alleles
D. To chose your children
283. A woman with curly hair mated with the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
man who is heterozygous for straight hair. 288. A black haired mother had a genotype of
Create a Punnett square to determine the pp and a heterozygous blonde haired fa-
ratio of offspring that will have curly hair. ther had a genotype of Pp. The couple
A. 1/2 found out they are going to have siblings.
What’s the probability that all two out of
B. 3/4 the four babies will have black hair?
C. 1/4 A. 1/2
D. 4/4 B. 1/8
284. In pea plants, purple flowers are domi- C. 1/4
nant to white flowers. A white flowered D. 1/6
plant is crossed with a plant that is het-
erozygous for purple flowers. What per- 289. What are the different forms of a gene?
centage of the offspring will have purple A. allele
flowers?
B. gene
A. 100%
C. trait
B. 75%
D. DNA
C. 50%
D. none of above 290. An organism’s appearance or other de-
tectable characteristic
285. What is an example of a phenotype? A. genotype
A. Gg B. phenotype
B. Genetic makup C. genetics
C. blue skin D. heterozygous
D. The trait that is masked in the het-
erozygous condition. 291. The dominant allele for height in a partic-
ular plant is tall, and the recessive allele
286. . In a monohybrid cross between two is short. If both parents are heterozygous
organisms heterozygous for a particular for height, which ratio of offspring will the
trait (Ff), what would be the predicted ra- parents produce based on Mendel’s law of
tio of the offspring’s genotypes? segregation?
A. 1FF:3 Ff:1 ff A. 4 tall:0 short
B. 1 FF:2Ff:1 ff B. 3 tall:1 short
C. 2 FF:2 Ff C. 1 tall:3 short
D. 3Ff:1 ff D. none of above

292. In german shepherds, pointy ears (P) are 297. What did Gregor Mendel use to discover
dominant to floppy ears (p). What is the the principles that rule heredity?
genotype of a german shepherd that has

A. Pea Plant
floppy ears?
B. Pigeons
A. PP
C. Pear trees
B. Pp
D. Photosynthesis
C. pp
298. If the dog (Gilbert) is homozygous for
D. none of above having normal hearing, what are the
chances the offspring will be deaf when
293. Brown hair is dominant over light hair. mated with a deaf female?
If a homozygous parent (Aa) is crossed
with a heterozygous recessive parent (aa), A. 0%
their children will have B. 50%
A. Only Brown Hair C. 25%
B. Only Light Hair D. 75%
C. Some brown and some light 299. An allele (T) for tongue-rolling is domi-
D. none of above nant over non-tongue rolling. What would
be the genotypes of both parents if all of
294. Physical characteristics are known as the offspring in the F1 generation are non-
tongue rolling?
A. genotypes
A. TT X Tt
B. phenotypes
B. Tt X tt
C. blood types C. tt X tt
D. heredity D. TT X tt
295. Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a 300. R=red, r=pink. Cross two heterozygous
baby. What is the chance the baby is blue plants. What are the chances of an off-
eyed? (B=brown eyes and b=blue eyes) spring being red?
A. 0 % A. 1 out of 4, 25%
B. 25% B. 2 out of 4, 50%
C. 50% C. 3 out of 4, 75%
D. 75% D. 4 out of 4, 100%
301. A tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a

296. The genetic information inside an individ-
short pea plant (tt). What percentage of
ual.
the offspring will be tall?
A. Homozygous A. 100%
B. Heterozygous B. 75%
C. Genotype C. 50%
D. Phenotype D. 25%

302. In pea plants purple flowers are dom- 307. When a plant with red flowers (RR) is
inant to white flowers. What parental crossed with a plant that has white flow-
genotypes would produce offspring that ers ( WW), the resulting offspring has pink
are all homozygous for the purple trait? flowers ( RW). If two pink flowers are
crossed, what is the probability of having
A. TT + tt
a pink flower?
B. TT + TT
A. 0%
C. tt + tt
B. 25%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Tt + Tt
C. 50%
303. Which of the following is an example of D. 75%
a GENOTYPE?
308. The Law of Segregation states that when
A. 25% two combine during fertilization, the
B. Blue offspring have factors controlling a
specific trait.
C. 1:2:1
A. mitochondria, 5
D. Bb
B. traits, 2
304. A male beetle has the genotype Ttbb. If
C. gametes, 2
this beetle mates with a female with geno-
type TTBb, what is the chance their off- D. genes, 3
spring will have the genotype TtBb?
309. if all offsprings are hybrid, what are the
A. 12.5% parents
B. 25% A. HH x Hh
C. 50% B. HH x hh
D. 75% C. hh x hh
305. If short hair (L) is dominant to long hair D. Hh x Hh

(l), then what fraction of the offspring pro- 310. Which of the following genotypes is a
duced by a cross of Ll x ll will be homozy- purebred?
gous dominant?
A. Bb
A. 1/2
B. Gg
B. 1/4
C. bb
C. 1/3
D. Dd
D. none (no chance of this offspring)
311. How many alleles (letters) do each per-
306. Fusion of egg and sperm son carry for a trait?
A. ovules A. 1
B. mutations B. 2
C. fertilization C. 3
D. pollen D. 4

312. father of genetics B. AA

A. Gregor Mendel C. AO

B. James Watson D. OO
C. Dr. Robbins
318. Tall is dominant to short. A homozygous
D. Francis Crick tall plant is crossed with a short plant.
What will be the phenotypes of the off-
313. Which of the following represents a “het-
spring?
erozygous” individual?
A. Tt A. 100% tall
B. dd B. 50% tall, 50% short

C. FF C. 75% tall, 25% short
D. none of above D. 25% tall, 75% short
314. Which of Mendel’s Principals states that 319. In pea plants, Tall stems (T) are dominant
the two alleles contained by a parent sep- to short stems. Cross a homozygous tall
arate from each other during gamete for- plant with a homozygous recessive plant.
mation? What is the phenotypic ratio of this cross?
A. Principal of Dominance A. 75% tall; 25% short
B. Principal of Segregation B. 100% Tt
C. Principal of Independent Assortment C. 4 tall:0 short
D. none of above D. 100% Heterozygous
315. A is a segment of DNA that codes for 320. If a scientist sought to determine the
a particular protein, which leads to a par- genotype of an animal with a dominant
ticular trait. phenotype, which animal should he breed
A. Gene it with?
B. Allele A. one with a dominant phenotype
C. Codon B. one with a recessive phenotype
D. Nucleotide C. one with a heterozygous genotype
316. An organism that inherits two identical D. one with a homozygous dominant
alleles for a trait genotype
A. heterozygous
321. In german shepherds, pointy ears (P) are
B. homozygous dominant to floppy ears (p). What is the
C. dominant genotype of a german shepherd that is ho-
mozygous dominant for pointy ears?
D. recessive
A. PP
317. What is the genotype of a person with
B. Pp
type A blood, who had a father with type
O blood? C. pp
A. AB D. none of above

322. Which represents the genotype of a ho- 327. Organisms that have 2 identical alleles
mozygous condition? for a particular trait are said to be
A. Bb A. hybrid
B. BC B. dominant
C. bb C. homozygous
D. heterozygous
D. bc
NARAYAN CHANGDER
328. Which of the following is NOT a geno-
323. An organism’s appearance or other ob- type?
servable characteristics:
A. heterozygous
A. phentoype
B. a trait such as tall
B. genotype
C. Bb
C. recessive D. homozygous recessive
D. dominant
329. What is the definition phenotype?
324. A parent that has 2 different alleles for A. Physical apperance
a trait (Aa) is referred to as being for B. Genetic makeup
that trait.
C. A unit of heredity
A. heterozygous recessive
D. The likelihood that a specific event will
B. homozygous occur
C. heterozygous 330. In pea plants purple flowers are dom-
D. heterozygous dominant inant to white flowers. What parental
genotypes would produce offspring that
325. What are the offspring’s possible pheno- are all heterozygous for he purple
types?Brown fur is dominant. White fur flower?
is recessive.One parent is homozygous for A. PP x pp
brown fur as the other is heterozygous.-
make a punnett square B. Pp x pp
A. 100% White fur C. pp x pp

D. PP x PP
B. 50% Brown fur 50% White fur
C. 100% Brown fur 331. T = tall an t = shortTT and Tt would result
in the following phenotype
D. 75% Brow fur 25% White fur
A. short
326. Fusion of sperm and egg from the same B. tall
plant
C. medium sized
A. fertilization D. neither tall or short
B. testcross
332. Which of the following is a homozygous
C. cross-fertilized genotype?
D. self-fertilized A. Gg

6.5 Backcross or Testcross 847
B. Kk A. rr
C. HH
B. TT

D. Oo
C. Ff
333. Which example would show the reces-
sive trait? D. none of above
6.5 Backcross or Testcross

1. If you cross a heterozygous Tall plant A. homozygous dominant
with a homozygous recessive (short plant), B. homozygous recessive
which of the following allele combinations
would be correct? C. heterozygous
A. TT X Tt D. choices B & C
B. TT X TT 6. Which of the following would NOT work to

make a triangle with the two side lengths
C. Tt X Tt
of 2 and 6?
D. Tt X tt
A. 6
2. Advantage of steel over concrete B. 7
A. Elasticity C. 5
B. Brittleness D. 4
C. Non corrosive 7. A test-cross occurs to determine the geno-
D. None of the above type of an organism displaying a dominant
phenotype. If alleles for the trait are A
3. Does a triangle with these side lengths ex- and a, what is the genotype of the par-
ist?15, 12, 9 ent if one offspring displays the recessive
A. Yes trait?
B. No A. AA
C. I don’t know. B. Aa
D. Cannot be determined C. aa
D. none of above
4. The symbol fy represent
8. A true-breeding dominant parent breeds
A. tensile strength
with a true-breeding recessive parent. If
B. ultimate strength alleles for the given trait are B and b,
C. yield strength 100% of the offspring will have the geno-
type of:
D. nominal strength
A. BB
5. To discover whether an animal showing B. bB
the dominant trait is homozygous or het-
erozygous, it must be crossed with an an- C. Bb
imal that is: D. bb

9. In mice brown (B) is dominant to black 14. Which set of numbers may represent the
(b). A brown mouse is mated with a black lengths of the sides of a triangle?
mouse. Twelve brown mice are produced.
A. {2, 5, 9}
The brown mouse’s genotype is:
A. BB B. {6, 6, 7}
B. Bb C. {6, 4, 2}
C. bb D. {7, 8, 1}
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above 15. If you cross a homozygous dominant Tall
10. If you cross a heterozygous Tall plant plant with a homozygous recessive (short)
with a homozygous recessive (short plant), plant, which of the following offspring per-
which of the following offspring percent- centages would be correct?
ages would be correct? A. 25% Tall; 75% short
A. 25% Tall; 75% short B. 50% Tall; 50% short
B. 50% Tall; 50% short C. 75% Tall; 25% short
C. 75%Tall; 25% short
D. 100% Tall; 0% short
D. 100% Tall; 0% short
16. A cube has a length of 3 inches. Find the
11. What cross-section is formed by slicing volume.
through a cube parallel to any face?
A. 9 inches3
A. rectangle
B. 12 inches3
B. parallelogram
C. square C. 27 inches3
D. triangle D. 18 inches3
12. Two tall pea plants are crossed, produc- 17. What units do we use when calculating sur-
ing 105 tall plants & 32 short plants. The face area?
genotypes of the tall parent plants are:
A. Units
A. Tt & Tt
B. Square untis
B. TT & Tt
C. Cubic units
C. Tt & tt
D. none of above
D. tt & tt
18. For the following cross AABBCCDDEE X
13. The properties that need to be considered
AABBCCDDEE; what is the probability for
by designers when specifying steel con-
an offspring to have AABBCCDDEE?
struction products are listed except;
A. Durability A. 1
B. Strength B. 1/4
C. Flexibility C. 1/8
D. Toughness D. 1/16

19. In African-violet plants, purple flowers are C. bb

dominant to white flowers. You purchase D. a reliable conclusion can’t be reached
an African-violet plant with white flowers.

It’s genotype could be represented as: 24. How much gift wrap is needed to wrap a
gift 5 inches long, 8 inches wide and 10
A. PP (capital letter)
inches tall?
B. Pp
A. 80 in2
C. pp (lower case)
B. 340 in2
D. none of above C. 400 in2
20. What units do we use when calculating vol- D. 160 in2
ume?
25. What cross-section is formed by slicing
A. Units through a cube perpendicular to any face?
B. Square units A. rectangle
C. Cubic units B. Square
D. none of above C. Parallelogram
21. Which of these lengths CANNOT represent D. Triangle

the sides of a triangle? 26. The vertical elements of the I-Beam is
A. 32, 34, 60 A. web
B. 28, 30, 58 B. flange
C. 13, 20, 27 C. width
D. 2, 4, 5 D. depth
22. Joy wants to create a box with a volume 27. A rectangular brick has a length of 5 cen-
of 8 cubic units. Which dimensions would timeters, a width of 9 centimeters and a
work? height of 20 centimeters. What is the sur-
face area of that brick?
A. length:8 unitswidth:8 unitsheight:8
units A. 650 cm2
B. length:2 unitswidth 4 unitsheight:3 B. 600 cm2
units C. 525 cm2
C. length:4 unitswidth:2 unitsheight:2 D. 450 cm2
units
28. Sections do not reach the plastic moment
D. length:2 unitswidth:4 unitsheight:1 (Mp) due to the local buckling of one or
unit more of the element in the cross-section
are called semi-compact sections, and they
23. In mice brown (B) is dominant to white
are classified under Class
(b). A brown mouse is mated with a white
mouse. Twelve brown mice are produced. A. Class 1
The brown mouse’s genotype is: B. Class 2
A. BB C. Class 3
B. Bb D. Class 4

29. A test-cross occurs to determine the geno- C. Class 3-Semi-Compact Section

type of an organism displaying a dominant D. Class 4-Slender Section
phenotype. If alleles for the trait are A
and a, what is the genotype of the parent 34. If you cross a homozygous dominant Tall
if all offspring display the dominant trait? plant with a homozygous recessive (short)
plant, which of the following allele combi-
A. AA
nations would be correct?
B. Aa A. TT X tt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. aa B. TT X Tt
D. none of above C. Tt X Tt
30. Two brown-eyed parents have a child with D. tt X tt
blue eyes. The best explanation is: 35. The classification process of a cross section
A. a mutation occured before the child depends on the following parameters:
was born A. width to thickness ratio c/t
B. both parents carry the allele for blue B. type of element
eyes C. the steel grade
C. both parents are pure for brown eyes D. all answer
D. none of above
36. Condition:Flange is Class 1, Web Class 2;
31. How many classes of cross section defined A. Thus, the section belongs to Class 1
by EC3 defines? B. Thus, the section belongs to Class 2
A. 1 C. Thus, the section belongs to Class 3
B. 2 D. Thus, the section belongs to Class 4
C. 3 37. A test-cross involves:
D. 4 A. An organism displaying a dominant
phenotype and an organism displaying a
32. True-breeding is:
recessive phenotype
A. Where members of the same species B. Two organisms displaying dominant
reproduce phenotypes
B. Where parents with matching homozy- C. Two organisms displaying recessive
gous alleles reproduce phenotypes
C. Where parents with matching het- D. none of above
erozygous alleles reproduce
38. Tall is dominant in pea plants. Two tall
D. none of above pea plants are crossed, producing 105 tall
33. Sections do not reach the design strength plants & 32 short plants. The genotypes
due to the local buckling as a result of of the tall parent plants are:
higher aspect ratios are classified under A. Tt & Tt
Class B. TT & Tt
A. Class 1-Plastic Section C. Tt & tt
B. Class 2-Compact Section D. tt & tt

6.6 Law of Independent Assortment 851
39. Can the sides of a triangle have lengths 3, 41. For the following cross AaBbCcDdEe X
4, and 9? AaBbCcDdEe; what is the probability for
an offspring to have AaBbCcDdEe?

A. Yes
B. No A. 1
C. I don’t know B. 1/8
D. Cannot be determined C. 1/16
40. Sections that reaches the plastic moment D. 1/32
(Mp) and unable to retain the plastic mo-
ment due to the local buckling are classi- 42. The horizontal elements of the I-Beam is
fied under Class
A. Class 1-Plastic Section A. web
B. Class 2-Compact Section B. flange
C. Class 3-Semi-Compact Section C. width
D. Class 4-Slender Section D. depth
6.6 Law of Independent Assortment

1. Law of Segregation is when 4. One version of a gene
A. alleles separate individually from each A. autosome
other B. sex chromosome
B. genes for each trait separate individu- C. hybrid
ally from each other
D. allele
C. one allele masks the presence of an-
other allele 5. According to the Law of Segregation, al-
D. homologous chromosomes pair with leles are separated during the process of
other genes
A. Mitosis
2. the genetic makeup of an organism
B. Meiosis
A. heterozygous
C. Osmosis
B. punnet square
D. Translation
C. genotype
D. none of above 6. Crossing over occurs in ?
A. Diplotene
3. What does the prefix hetero-in heterozy-
gous mean? B. Metaphase
A. same C. Pachytene
B. different D. Zygotene
C. dating 7. Having two copies of the same allele

D. human A. Heterozygous

6.7 Incomplete Dominance 852
B. Dominant D. Classification
C. Homozygous 10. What base always pairs with thymine?
D. Recessive A. Thymine
8. Having two different alleles for a gene B. Cytosine
C. Guanine
A. Homozygous
D. Adenine
B. Heterozygous
NARAYAN CHANGDER
11. Which nitrogenous bases make up the
C. Dominant
rungs of a DNA molecule?
D. Recessive
A. adenine, thymine, guanine, and cyto-
9. The study of genes and inheritance sine
A. Ecology B. adenine, thymine, uracil, and cytosine
B. Genetics C. adenine, uracil, guanine and cytosine
C. Evolution D. adenine, thymine, guanine, and uracil
6.7 Incomplete Dominance

1. If a Homozygous red snapdragon and B. White
a Heterozygous pink snapdragon were C. Red with white specks
crossed-what percentage of the offspring
would be homozygous white? D. Pink
A. 0% 4. two different alleles (one cap, one lower)
B. 25% A. homozygous
C. 50% B. heterozygous
D. 75% C. offspring
2. A parent with the alleles IAIB could pro- D. none of the above
duce offspring with which types of blood?
5. What blood type is the “universal donor”
A. Type A because it can be donated to anyone?
B. Type B A. A
C. Type AB B. B
D. Type A, Type B, or Type AB C. AB
3. In snapdragons, flower color is controlled D. O
by incomplete dominance. The two alleles
are red (R) and white (W). The heterozy- 6. A pattern of inheritance in which a trait is
gous genotype is expressed as pink.What carried on one of the sex-determining chro-
phenotype is a plant with the genotype mosomes.
RW? A. Mendelian Inheritance
A. Red B. Co-dominance

C. Incomplete dominance 12. A black chicken (B) and a white rooster

D. Sex-linked inheritance (W) mate and produce a gray offspring.
Which of the following represent a gray

7. If a man with blood type A and a woman offspring?
with blood type B produce an offspring,
what might be the offspring’s blood type? A. BB
A. AB or O B. WW
B. A, B, or O C. BW
C. AB only D. None of them
D. A, B, AB, or O
13. Which of the following best represents a
8. A red cow (RR) is crossed with a white Dd-symbolized genotype?
bull (rr) and produce an offspring that is
red (Rr). A. Dominant
A. codominance B. recessive
B. incomplete dominance C. Heterozygous
D. Homozygous
D. none of above
9. Which type of inheritance causes both 14. A woman has type B blood and her hus-
traits to be expressed equally in the het- band has type O blood. What must be
erozygote? the woman’s genotype, if they have a child
with type O blood?
A. Complete Dominance
A. IB i
B. Incomplete Dominance
C. Co-Dominance B. IB IB
D. Sex-linked C. ii
10. If A and B are codiminant and mom and D. type B blood

dad both have AB blood types what can
the blood types of the children be? 15. Having two different alleles for a trait
A. A, B and AB A. Heterozygous
B. Only A B. Alleles
C. Only B
C. Mutation
D. A, B, AB, and O
D. Homozgous
11. Joe-Bob has type AB blood. His wife,
Billie-Joe, has type O blood. What are the 16. What are the major blood types?
possible genotypes of their offspring?
A. A B AB C
A. AB
B. A B C D
B. Ai
C. ii C. A AB B O
D. All of these are possible D. A B AB D

17. A white mouse with brown eyes is crossed 22. Parents with Type B blood
with a black mouse with red eyes. The A. may have children only with blood type
white mouse is recessive for both of its B
traits. The black mouse is dominant for
both of its traits.The best expression of B. may have children only with blood type
this cross would be O
A. BBRR x bbrr C. may have children with blood type O
and B
B. BBRr x BbRr
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. may have children only with blood type
C. BbRR x BbRr
A
D. BBrr x BBRR
23. In snapdragons, heterozygous have pink
18. The type of dominance that Mendel under- flowers, whereas homozygous have red
stood was and white flowers. When plants with
A. co-dominance red flowers are crossed with plants with
white flowers, what proportion of the off-
B. incomplete dominance
spring will have pink flowers?
A. 1/4
D. He understood them all.
B. 2/4
19. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait C. 3/4
found on the x chromosome. Complete
D. 4/4
a cross between a woman who has
hemophilia and a normal man.What are 24. A homozygous dominant brown mouse is
the chances of a child having hemophilia? crossed with a heterozygous brown mouse
A. 100% (tan is the recessive color).
B. 75% A. 100 % tan
C. 50% B. 100 % brown
D. 25% C. 50 % brown and 50% tan
20. Capital letters are used to represent D. 75 % brown and 25 % tan
alleles.
25. What blood type cannot be produced in the
A. recessive offspring of two type AB parents?
B. dominant A. O
C. hybrid B. AB
D. purebrid C. B
21. Which of the following pairs of genotypes D. A
result in the same phenotype?
26. if red hair (R) and white hair (W) are
A. BO and OO codominant, what is the phenotype of a
B. BB and AB bunny with genotype RW
C. BB and AA A. pink fur
D. BB and BO B. red and white fur

C. red fur C. hh
D. white fur D. XhXh

27. What type of blood can receive any type 32. Feather color in a species of birds is inher-
of blood? ited in an incomplete dominance pattern.
A. A BB=black feathers; bb=white feathers and
Bb=blue feathers. If a black and blue bird
B. B mate, what will be the chances of them
C. AB having a white feathered offspring?
D. 0 A. 0%
B. 25%
28. If a father is IA IA and a mother is IAIB,
what is the probability for a child with AB C. 50%
blood type? D. 100%
A. 0%
33. An individual’s blood type is determined
B. 25% by
C. 50% A. environment
D. 75% B. genetics
29. Some flowers are controlled by codomi- C. both environment and genetics
nance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers D. your children’s blood type
(BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).Cross a
red flower with a blue flower. Predict the 34. Is it possible for a type A mother and type
phenotypic ratios of the offspring. B father to have a type O child
A. 1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue A. no
B. 2 red, 2 blue B. yes if they are both homozygous
C. 4 speckled C. yes if they are both heterozygous
D. 1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue D. yes if there is a mutation

35. When BOTH traits show up in the off-
30. What is an Epistasis trait?
spring.
A. traits controlled by more than one
A. Codominance
gene
B. genes with more than two alleles
C. Complete Dominance
C. when the phenotypic expression of
one gen depends on the presence of an- D. none of above
other gene
36. “The offspring’s phenotype has indepen-
D. organisms with 2 identical alleles dent and equal expression of both parental
phenotypes”
31. Hemophilia is a x-linked disorder. A
woman is a carrier for the disorder. Which A. Incomplete dominance
is the correct genotype? B. Codominance
A. Hh C. Complete dominance
B. XHXh D. none of above

37. If two parents are heterozygous for type 42. Tall is dominant to short. What is the geno-
A blood, what is the probability that their type for short?
offspring would have type O blood?
A. TT
A. 100 % B. Tt
B. 75% C. tt
C. 50% D. none of above
D. 25%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
43. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait
38. When there is a dominant and recessive found on the x chromosome. Complete a
allele, the dominant allele shows up in the cross between a woman who is a carrier
phenotype. and a man who is normal.What are the
chances, if they have a daughter, that she
A. Codominance is a carrier?
B. Incomplete Dominance A. 100%
C. Complete Dominance B. 75%
39. Radish color is completely dominant, red D. 25%

and white are pure breeding colors. While
44. If a homozygous red snapdragon and a het-
heterozygous are purple.Cros a red radish
erozygous pink snapdragon were crossed-
with a white.
what would the parent genotypes be?
A. 4 purple
A. RR x WW
B. 1 red, 2 purple, 1 white
B. RW x RW
C. 2 red, 2 white
C. RR x RW
D. 1 red, 1 purple, 2 white
D. WW x RR
40. In squirrels, bushy tails are dominant and 45. An allele that is masked when a dominant
thin tails are recessive. What is the geno- allele is present
type of a squirrel with a thin tail?
A. Genotype
A. AA
B. Phenotype
B. aa
C. Recessive
C. Aa
D. Dominant
D. none of above
41. another name for homozygous heterozygous genotype?
A. dihybrid A. HH
B. genotype B. Hh
C. hybrid C. hh
D. purebreed D. none of above

47. What is a possible phenotype of a child C. Genetics

that results from a woman with type AB
D. Variation
blood and a man with type A blood?

A. OO 53. The genetic make up of an organism .It is
B. type O expressed in letters
C. AA A. a. allele
D. type A B. phenotype
48. Some flowers are controlled by codomi- C. genotype
nance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers
D. hybrid
red flower with a blue flower.
54. Which of the following are genotypes for
A. 1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue blood type B?
B. 2 red, 2 blue A. IA IA and IA IB
C. 4 speckled
B. IB IB and ii
D. 1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue
C. IB IB and IB i
49. This type of inheritance pattern shows
both traits in possible offspring D. IA IB and IA IB
A. a. codominance 55. In some chickens, the gene for feather

B. incomplete dominance color is controlled by codominance. The al-
C. complete dominance lele for black is B and the allele for white is
W. The heterozygous phenotype is known
D. dominant pattern as erminette. What is the genotype for
50. A polygenic trait is affected by erminette feathered chickens?
A. one gene A. BB
B. many genes B. WW
C. zero genes C. Bb
D. none of above D. BW
51. when one allele is not completely domi-
nant over the other-blending of two traits 56. In snapdragons, flower color exhibits in-
complete dominance. When crossed, red
A. Codominance (RR) and white (WW) flowers make pink
B. Complete dominance flowers (RW). Complete a cross between
C. incomplete dominance a pink flower and a red flower. Find the
phenotype ratio.
D. none of these
A. 1 red:1 pink
52. A branch of biology that deals with the
study of Heredity. B. 4 red:0 pink
A. Botany C. 4 pink:0 white

B. Zoology D. 1 pink:1 white

57. In cattle red coats are represented as RR, C. 50%

and white coats are represented as WW. D. 75%
What is the genotype for Roan color?
62. A woman heterozygous for type A blood
A. RR
marries a man heterozygous for B blood.
B. RW What is the probability they will produce
C. WW offspring with AB blood?
D. none of above A. 0&
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 25%
58. Some flowers are controlled by codomi-
nance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers C. 50%
(BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).Cross two D. 75%
speckled flowers. What is the phenotypic
63. If Mom has heterozygous A blood type
ratio?
(AO) and dad has heterozygous B blood
A. 1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue type (BO). What blood types can their chil-
B. 2 red, 2 blue dren have?
C. 2 blue, 2 speckled A. Only AB
D. 1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue B. Only A
C. They can have A, B, AB, and O
59. The entire genetic makeup of an organism
or the combination of genes for one or D. Only O
more specific traits is 64. If a Homozygous red snapdragon and
A. genetic variation a Heterozygous pink snapdragon were
crossed-what percentage of the offspring
B. genotype
would be Heterozygous Pink?
C. gene
A. 0%
D. allele
B. 25%
60. Some flowers are controlled by codomi- C. 50%
nance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers D. 75%
red flower with a speckled flower. What 65. The different forms of a gene are called
are the possible phenotypes? A. traits
A. 50% red, 50% speckled B. pollinators
B. 50% red, 50% blue C. alleles
C. 50% blue, 50% speckled D. hybrids
D. none of above 66. If a pink flower (RW) is crossed with a
white flower (WW). How many of the off-
61. If one parent has type AB blood and the
spring will be Red (RR)?
other parent has type O, what is the per-
centage chance that they will have a child A. 0%
with type AB blood? B. 25%
A. 0% C. 50%
B. 25% D. 100%

67. Tool used to predict the combinations of al- 72. In humans, hair texture is an example
leles in a genetic cross. of incomplete dominance. Curly hair and
straight hair blend to make wavy hair.

A. Principle of dominance
What genotype do people with wavy hair
B. Independent Assortment have?
C. Punnett square A. Aa
D. Codominance B. AA
68. Having two identical alleles for the same C. aa
trait D. none of above
A. Gene 73. another name for heterozygpous
B. Homozygous A. dihybrid
C. Expression gene B. hybrid
D. Heterozygous C. genotype
69. In a certain species of animal, black fur (B) D. purebreed
is dominant over tan fur (b). Which type
74. Which term(s) best describes the inheri-
of dominance does this cross show?
tance of human blood types?
A. incomplete dominance and multiple al-
B. Incomplete Dominance leles
C. Codominance B. codominance and epistasis
D. Polygenic Inheritance C. codominance and multiple alleles
70. In cattle red coats are represented as D. incomplete dominance and codomi-
RR, and white coats are represented as nance
WW.What is the genotype for Roan (light 75. How are Incomplete Dominance and
reddish brown) color? Co Dominance different than a normal
A. RR Mendelian cross?
B. RW A. There is no difference
C. WW B. The heterozygous genotype has a
unique phenotype
D. none of above
C. There is no heterozygous genotype
71. Black bird feathers are (B) while white
D. There is only one phenotype regard-
bird feathers are (b), and the heterozy-
less of genotype.
gote is incompletely dominant with a blue
color. What is the genotype of a black 76. A “universal recipient” would have what
bird? blood type?
A. BB A. A
B. Bb B. B
C. bb C. AB
D. BW D. O

77. condition in which both alleles for a gene A. BB

are expressed when present-both traits
B. Bb
are visible
C. bb
A. Codominance
B. Dominance D. Bb and bb
C. Complete dominance 82. Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which

D. Incomplete dominance allows them to be Black (BB), White (bb),
NARAYAN CHANGDER
or gray (Bb) as shown on this Punnett
78. How many alleles does an individual have square. What percentage of the offspring
for each trait? will be white?
A. 1 A. 25
B. 2 B. 50
C. 3
C. 0
D. 4
D. 100
79. The hair form gene shows incomplete dom-
inance. Straight hair (ss), curly hair (cc), 83. When two alleles are different this is
and wavy hair (cs) is incomplete dominant. called
Mr. and Mrs. Anderson both have wavy A. homozygous
hair (cs). What percentage of their chil-
dren will also have wavy hair (cs)? B. purebred
A. 25% C. heterozygous
B. 50% D. none of above
C. 75%
84. Which of Mendel’s Principals states that
D. 100% no two genes should influence each others
inheritance?
80. The hair form gene shows co-dominance.
Straight hair (SS) is dominant, curly hair A. segregation
(CC) is recessive, and wavy hair (SC) is B. independent assortment
heterozygous. Mr. and Mrs. Anderson
both have wavy hair (SC). What percent- C. dominance
age of their children will also have wavy D. none of above
hair (SC)?
A. 25% 85. A plant shows incomplete dominance in
size. A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a
B. 50%
medium plant (TS). What fraction of plants
C. 75% will also be tall?
D. 100% A. 100 %
81. In an incomplete dominant cross, B codes B. 75%
for red flowers and b codes for white
C. 50%
flowers. Which genotype will show white
flowers in the phenotype? D. 25%

86. If a homozygous red snapdragon and a het- 91. “The offspring’s phenotype is an inter-
erozygous pink snapdragon were crossed, mediate (blended) phenotype of the two
what would the phenotypic ratio of the off- parental phenotypes”

spring be? A. Incomplete dominance
A. 1RR:2RW:1WW B. Codominance
B. 2RR:2RW:0WW
C. Complete dominance
C. 0RR:2RW:2WW
D. none of above
D. 2RR:0RW:2WW
92. Snap dragon color is a co-dominant trait.
87. What is a possible genotype for Type A A red flower (RR) is crossed with white
blood? flower (WW)? What color are flowers
A. AO that are RW?
B. A A. Red and white
C. AB B. Red
D. Type A C. Pink
88. The phenotype of a heterozygote is a mix D. none of above
between both traits is explaining which
93. R = tongue rolling, r = no tongue rolling.
type of dominance?
An individual who is Rr can roll their
A. Codominance tongue. What type of inheritance pattern
B. Incomplete Dominance does this follow?
C. Complete Dominance A. Complete Dominance
D. none of above B. Incomplete Dominance
89. In some carnations, flower color exhibits C. Co-Dominance

codominance. Identify the correct geno- D. Sex-linked
types for red, white, and speckled carna-
tions. 94. In a certain species of animal, black fur
(B) is dominant over tan fur (b). If two
A. Red = RR, white = rr, speckled = Rr heterozygous parents were crossed what
B. Red = RR, white = WW, speckled = would the parent genotypes be?
rw A. BBxbb
C. Red = RR, white = ww, Speckled =
B. BBxBb
Rw
C. BbxBb
D. Red = RR, white = WW, speckled =
RW D. bbxBb
90. A trait that only shows up if two recessive 95. A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a
alleles are present (bb) White flowered plant (WW). The gene for
petal color in these plants expresses in-
A. recessive trait
complete dominance. What percentage of
B. dominant trait the offspring will have pink (RW) flow-
C. hybrid trait ers?
D. none of above A. 0%

B. 25% 101. Cross a blue and red flower. What would

C. 50% the offspring be if they follow codomi-
nance?
D. 100%
A. blue
96. a trait that is masked, wont show up first B. red
A. dominant trait C. purple
B. genotype D. blue dotted red or red dotted blue
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. recessive trait
102. A tool used to predict the ratio or percent-
D. hair color age of the possible genes that an offspring
will have
97. Which of the following is not a polygenic
trait? A. microscope
A. skin and hair color B. stethoscope
B. eye color C. probe
C. height D. Punnet Square
D. colorblindness
103. In human eye color, B represents the dom-
98. This is when a trait is controlled by more inant brown eye gene and b represents the
than one gene. recessive blue eye gene. If two parents
have the genotypes Bb and BB, what is the
A. Multiple alleles likelihood that a child from these parents
B. Polygenetic inheritance would have blue eyes (genotype bb)?
C. Codominance A. O%
D. Incomplete Dominance B. 50 %
C. 75 %
99. Polygenic traits are influenced by
D. 100 %
A. several genes
B. both by the environment and by genes 104. identical alleles (two caps or two lower-
case)Example:BB, bb
C. linked genes A. heterozygous
D. codominant genes B. homozygous
100. In mice. coat color is incompletely dom- C. dominant

inant. Black and white are homozygous. D. dihybrid
Brown mice are heterozygous.What is the
genotype for a brown mouse? 105. An organism’s physical appearance
A. BB A. DNA
B. Bb B. Phenotype
C. bb C. Genotype
D. none of above D. Mutation

106. A man of heterozygous blood group A B. recessive and located on the Y chromo-
and a woman of blood group AB have a some.
child. What are the chances of them hav-

C. recessive and located on the X chromo-
ing a child with blood group B? some.
A. 25% D. recessive and located on the Y chromo-
B. 50% some.
C. 100% 111. polygenic means that control a char-
D. 75% acteristic
A. many genes
107. How are Incomplete Dominance and
Codominance different than a normal dom- B. single genes
inant/recessive cross? C. 3 genes
A. There is no difference D. no genes
B. The heterozygous genotype has a
112. What is the chance of two parents with
unique phenotype
blood types AB and O producing an off-
C. There is no heterozygous genotype spring with blood type O?
D. There is only one phenotype regard- A. 0%
less of genotype.
B. 25%
108. When the offspring has a mix or blend of C. 50%
the parents’ traits.
D. 100%
A. Codominance
113. Which blood types are considered as
the rarest and the most common blood
C. Complete Dominance groups.
D. none of above A. the rarest AB-and the most common
O+
109. Feather color in a species of birds is inher-
ited in an incomplete dominance pattern. B. the rarest A+ and the most common
BB=black feathers; bb=white feathers and B+
Bb=blue feathers. If two blue birds mate C. the rarest B-and the most common AB-
what will be the genotypic ratio of their
offspring?
D. the rarest AB+ and the most common
A. 1:2:1 O-
B. 3:1 114. Radish color is incompletely dominant,
C. 1:1 red and white are homozygous colors,
D. All blue while heterozygous are purple.Cross a red
radish with a white.
110. Colorblindness is more common in males A. 4 purple
than in females because the allele for col-
orblindness is B. 1 red, 2 purple, 1 white
A. dominant and located on the X chromo- C. 2 red, 2 white

some. D. 1 red, 1 purple, 2 white

115. When one allele is not completely ex- C. 1

pressed over the other, resulting in a third D. 2
phenotype that is a combination.
A. Codominance 121. If two parents have type AB blood, what
is the probability that their child will have
B. Incomplete Dominance type O blood?
C. Complete Dominance A. 0%
D. none of above
B. 25%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
116. Two traits are blended or create a “new” C. 50%
trait
D. 100%
A. complete dominance
122. What would the alleles of a person with
type AB blood be?
C. codominance
A. IAIi
D. none of above
B. IBIi
117. When there are MORE than two alleles C. IiIi
for a trait this is an example of
D. none of these
123. Lowercase letters are used to represent
B. Multiple alleles
alleles.
C. Polygenic inheritance
A. recessive
D. none of above
B. dominant
118. For human blood types, the A and B allele C. hybrid
follow which pattern of inheritance?
D. purebrid
B. codominance 124. An yellow jellyfish mates with a blue jel-
lyfish. All of the offspring are green.
C. simple dominance
D. none of above
119. When one allele for a trait covers up the C. codominance
expression of another
D. multiple alleles
B. codominance 125. Hemophilia is a x linked trait. A normal
man marries a woman that is a carrier.
C. Complete Dominance What are their chances of having a child
D. none of above with the disorder?
120. How many PAIRS of chromosomes do hu- A. O%

mans have? B. 50%
A. 23 C. 25%
B. 46 D. 100%

126. The different forms of a gene are called (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).Cross two
speckled flowers.

A. traits A. 1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue
B. hybrids B. 2 red, 2 blue
C. alleles C. 2 blue, 2 speckled
D. cohybrid D. 1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue
132. which one of these are NOT an exception
127. Some flowers are controlled by codom-
to Mendel?
inance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers
(BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).Cross two A. homozygous
speckled flowers. Predict the phenotypic B. incomplete dominance
ratios of the offspring.
C. polygenic traits
A. 1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue D. codominance
B. 2 red, 2 blue
133. Radish color is completely dominant, red
C. 2 blue, 2 speckled and white are pure breeding colors. While
D. 1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue heterozygous are purple.Cros a white
radish with a purple.
128. The different traits represented by a sin- A. 4 purple
gle letter are called
A. traits
C. 2 purple, 2 white
B. hybrids
C. alleles
134. Radish color is completely dominant,
D. none of above red and white are pure breeding colors.
While heterozygous are purple.Cross a red
129. Phenotype
radish with a white. What is the pheno-
A. Physical trait typic ratio?
B. Number of chromosomes A. 4 purple
C. Genetic makeup B. 1 red, 2 purple, 1 white
D. none of above C. 2 red, 2 white
130. Some Cattle species can exhibit dom-
inance in nature because they come in red, 135. Some flowers are controlled by codom-
white, or Roan inance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers
A. Co (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).Cross a
red flower with a speckled flower. What
B. Incomplete is the phenotypic ratio?
C. Complete A. 2 red, 2 speckled
D. none of above B. 2 red, 2 blue
131. Some flowers are controlled by codom- C. 2 blue, 2 speckled
inance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers D. none of above

136. When both traits are EQUALLY domi- B. 25%

nant. C. 50%
A. Codominance D. 100%
142. A trait that is always expressed when
C. Complete Dominance
present (Bb or BB).
D. none of above
A. dominant trait
NARAYAN CHANGDER
137. What types of blood can a person with B. recessive trait
AB RECEIVE?
C. purebred trait
A. B only
D. hybrid trait
B. AB, A, B, O
143. If a father with blood type AB has a child
C. AB and O only
with a mother who has blood type A, what
D. A only blood type can their child not have?
138. ABO blood grouping system is an exam- A. AB
ple of B. A
A. incomplete domiance C. B
B. complete dominance D. O
C. codominance
144. In a certain species of animal, black fur
D. bad romance:) (B) is dominant over tan fur (b). If two
139. Which of the following is a hybrid? heterozygous parents were crossed what
percentage of the offspring would be ho-
A. BB mozygous dominant?
B. bb A. 0%
C. Bb B. 25%
D. none of above
C. 50%
140. Which is a true statement about people D. 75%
with the genotype AB for blood type?
145. An organism’s appearance or other de-
A. They can have only type O children
tectable characteristic is a what?
B. Two of the alleles are codominant
A. phenotype
(equally expressed).
B. gene
C. They exhibit a type O phenotype
C. allele
D. They are homozygous for blood type A
D. genetic variation
141. A man that is heterozygous for type A
blood (IAi) has children with a woman that 146. Incomplete Dominance Question 3:A pink-
is homozygous for type B blood (IBIB). flowered plant is crossed with a white-
What percentage of offspring will have flowered plant. What is the probability of
type A blood? producing:c. A white flowered plant?
A. 0% A. 25%

B. 50% 152. A man that is homozygous for type A

C. 75% blood (IAIA) has children with a woman
that is heterozygous for type B blood (IBi).

D. 110% What percentage of offspring will have
type A blood?
147. When one allele is not completely dom-
inant over the other-BLENDING of two A. 25%
traits.
B. 50%
A. Codominance
C. 75%
B. Complete dominance
C. Incomplete dominance D. 100%
D. none of these
153. In humans, having dimples is dominant
148. It is physical traits or appearance over not having dimples. If both parents
are heterozygous for dimples, what is the
A. Phenotype
likelihood that their children will have dim-
B. Genotype ples?
C. Allele A. 25%
D. Hybrid
B. 50%
149. Which type of inheritance causes both C. 75%
traits to be expressed equally in the het-
erozygous offspring? D. 100%
154. Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink
B. Incomplete Dominance and white. What type of inheritance is
C. Co-Dominance this?
D. none of above A. Complete Dominance
150. An orange jellyfish mates with a green B. Incomplete Dominance
jellyfish. All of the offspring are blue.
C. Codominance
D. Polygenic Inheritance
C. codominance 155. Incomplete Dominance Question 3:A pink-
D. none of above flowered plant is crossed with a white-
flowered plant. What is the probability
151. If a colorblind male marries a woman of producing:(Work out Punnett Square on
who is a carrier, what percentage of their Paper)a. A pink-flowered plant?
FEMALE children will be colorblind?
A. 50%
A. 0%
B. 25%
B. 25%
C. 50% C. 75%
D. 100% D. 100%

156. Samar has a rose bush of white flowers 161. the characteristics of a trait that you can
in her garden. She crossed them with red see
flowers. She was surprised that all off- A. phenotype
spring are red spotted white. Which law
of heredity is indicated in this case? B. genotype
A. codominance C. dominant
B. incomplete dominance D. recessive
162. In some chickens, the gene for feather
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. dominance
D. dihybrid color is controlled by codominance. The al-
lele for black is B and the allele for white is
157. Which of the following genotypes code W. The heterozygous phenotype is known
for the blood type AB? as erminette. What is the genotype for
black feathered chickens?
A. IA IA and IA IB
A. BB
B. IA IB only
B. bb
C. IA IB and IB i
C. BW
D. ii only
D. WW
158. A calico cat shows both the traits for or-
ange fur and black fur. What kind of allele 163. Snap Dragons exhibit dominance in
expression is this? nature because they come in red, white, or
pink
A. Co
B. Codominance
B. Incomplete
C. Complete
D. Recessive
D. none of above
159. Radish color is incompletely dominant,
red and white are pure breeding colors. 164. In chickens, feather color is codominant.
While heterozygous are purple.Cross a red If a black chicken BB is mated with one that
radish with a white radish. What is the ra- is black and white (BW), what is the prob-
tio of the offspring? ability of having a chicken that is black and
white?
A. 4 purple
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 2 red, 2 white
C. 3/4
D. 100%
160. results in a phenotype that is a blend
of a certain trait in an allele pair. 165. If a homozygous red snapdragon and
a heterozygous pink snapdragon were
A. Co-dominance crossed-what percentage of the offspring
B. Sex-linked traits would be Heterozygous Pink?
C. genetic mutations A. 0%
D. incomplete dominance B. 25%

6.8 Codominance 869
C. 50% D. 75%
6.8 Codominance

1. If a mother has a genotype of AB for C. A and O
blood type, and the father has a geno- D. B and O
type of OO, what percentage of the off-
spring could have the possibility of inher- 6. The alleles of a gene are found where?
iting blood type O?
A. at the same locus on non-homologous
A. 0% chromosomes
B. 25% B. at the same locus on homologous chro-
C. 50% mosomes
D. 100% C. at different locations on homologous
chromosomes
2. What does a Punnett Square help you do?
D. at different locations on non-
A. Determine the ratio of phenotypes homologous chromosomes
B. Determine the ratio of genotypes
7. What is the probability of a man with Type
C. Predict possible traits the offspring
AB blood and a woman with Type O blood
will have
having an offspring with Type O blood?
D. All of the above
A. 100%
3. A man with type O blood has children with B. 50%
a woman who is heterozygous for type A
blood. What is the probability that their C. 25%
children will have type A blood? D. 0%
A. 0%
8. Which of the following is true about blood
B. 25% type O?
C. 50% A. It contains antigen A only.
D. 100% B. It contains antigen B only.
4. Alleles that are the same are called C. It contains both antigen A and antigen
A. homozygous B.
B. heterozygous D. It doesn’t contain antigen A or antigen

B.
C. dominant
D. recessive 9. How many autosomes are there in a hu-
man sperm?
5. What are the possible phenotypes for the
A. 1
children of a mother with Type O blood and
a father with Type AB blood? B. 22
A. AB and O C. 23
B. A and B D. 46

6.8 Codominance 870
10. which blood type is the universal donor (all 15. H= normal blood clotting h=hemophilia
people can receive it)? XHXh x XHY What is the probability
A. O that any of their offspring will have
hemophilia?
B. AB
A. 4/4
C. A
B. 3/4
D. B
C. 2/4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
11. Black (BB) chickens crossed with White D. 1/4
(WW) chickens result in spotted chickens
due to codominance. If 2 spotted chick- 16. What is the phenotype of a person with
ens are crossed what is the percentage of the genotype AO?
black chickens? A. type A
A. 0% B. type O
B. 25% C. AA
C. 50% D. OO
D. 100%
17. is when the alleles are neither domi-
12. Males are more likely to suffer from a sex- nant nor recessive. As a result, both alle-
linked disease or disorder because les are seen in the offspring.
A. males are the weaker sex A. Codominance
B. males have less DNA B. Punnett squares
C. males have 1 X chromosome, so the C. Complete dominance
disorder is more likely to be expressed D. Incomplete dominance
D. none of above
18. How are incomplete dominance and codom-
13. In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. inance different than a normal Mendelian
Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What cross?
is the sex and eye color of flies with the A. There is no difference
following genotype:X R Y?
B. The heterozygous genotype has a
A. male with white eyes unique phenotype
B. female with white eyes C. There is no heterozygous genotype
C. male with red eyes D. There is only one phenotype regard-
D. female with red eyes less of genotype.
14. A type of inheritance in which both alle- 19. is a form of inheritance in which nei-
les for a gene are expressed so that both ther allele is completely dominant over the
traits are visible is known as other allele.
A. Codominance A. Codominance
B. Incomplete dominance B. Punnett squares
C. Nondisjunction C. Complete dominance
D. none of above D. Incomplete dominance

6.8 Codominance 871
20. The doctor tells you that you have type A C. homozygous dominant
blood. What are the possible genotypes D. none of these
you could have?

A. OO 25. If a person with straight hair and a person
with curly hair create offspring with wavy
B. AB hair, what pattern of inheritance is seen?
C. AA or AO A. Incomplete Dominance
D. BB or BO B. Dominance & Recessiveness
21. Gregor Mendel cross-pollinated red and C. CoDominance
white snapdragon flowers. What informa- D. Multiple Alleles
tion indicates that incomplete dominance
was achieved? 26. occurs when the dominant and reces-
A. The offspring had homozygous alleles sive traits are blended in the heterozygous
genotype.
B. The offspring had a recessive allele
A. Codominance
C. The offspring were pink
B. Punnett squares
D. The offspring were red with white
stripes C. Complete dominance
D. Incomplete dominance
22. In screech owls, red feathers are dominant
over gray feathers. If two heterozygous 27. If an organism with a homozygous domi-
red-feathered owls are mated, what per- nant trait was mated in a test cross, all
centage of their offspring would be ex- the F1 offspring would be
pected to have red feathers?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. heterozygous
C. 75%
D. 50% homozygous;50% heterozygous
D. 100%
23. If a a gene in roses shows incomplete dom- a gene with more than 2 alleles (multiple
inance, what would be the flower color of alleles)?
an offspring produced from a red rose and
A. Roan Animals
a blue rose?
B. Spotted Chickens
A. Red
B. Blue C. Blood Type
C. Red and blue D. Snapdragon Flower Color
D. Purple 29. are proteins that are found on the sur-

face of some red blood cells.
24. In which of the following would both
codominant phenotypes be seen in the off- A. genes
spring? B. alleles
A. heterozygous C. Rh factors
B. homozygous recessive D. immunoglobins

6.8 Codominance 872
30. Some flowers are controlled by codomi- C. A

nance. Red flowers are codominant to blue D. B
flowers.Cross two speckled (blue and red
flowers). 35. A fish with red scales (RR) and a fish with
A. 1 red, 2 speckled (blue + red), 1 blue blue scales (BB) creates a fish with a com-
bination of both red and blue scales. What
B. 2 red, 2 blue pattern of inheritance is this?
C. 2 blue, 2 speckled (blue + red) A. Incomplete Dominance
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 1 red, 1 speckled (blue + red), 2 blue B. Nondominance
31. Jellyfish occur in a blue (BB) and yellow C. Co-Dominance
(YY) form. Due to incomplete dominance D. Dominance & Recessiveness
a third type of jellyfish are found that are
green. What is the genotype of the green 36. In horses, Chestnut horses (C) and White
jellyfish? horses (W) are Codominant.The Heterozy-
gous horse is called a Roan horse. Cross a
A. BB
Chestnut horse with a Roan horse.What is
B. YY the genotype of the Chestnut horse?
C. BY A. CC
D. GG B. WW
32. trait shown by lower case letters C. CW
A. dominant D. WC
B. recessive 37. Identify the genotype for females.
C. sex-linked A. XY
D. codominant B. XX
33. In some chickens, the gene for feather C. X

color is codominant. B=Black feath- D. XXYY
ers; W=white feathers and BW=erminette
38. What is the genotype of a person who is
(black and white checkered feathers). If
heterozygous for type B blood?
two erminette chickens are crossed what
would be the probability of black chick off- A. IBIB
spring? B. IBi
A. 0% C. IAIB
B. 25% D. IAi
C. 50%
39. If a black chicken and an erminette chicken
D. 100% were crossed, what is the probability that
they would have an erminette chick?
34. Which blood type is he universal recipi-
ent (a person with this blood type can get A. 50%
blood from any other type)? B. 25%
A. O C. 100%
B. AB D. 0%

6.8 Codominance 873
40. Hemophilia and colorblindness are both 45. What is it called when neither allele is
dominant and two traits are blended?

A. sex-linked traits A. Co-dominance
B. dominant traits B. Incomplete Dominance
C. found mostly in females C. Pedigree
D. found mostly in infants D. Sex-linked
41. In plants known as “four o’clocks”, the 46. In which of the following is the codominant
allele for red-flowers is incompletely dom- phenotype seen in the offspring?
inant over the allele for white-flowers.
What percent of the offspring would you A. heterozygous
expect to be pink in a cross between one B. homozygous recessive
white flower and one pink flower?
C. homozygous dominant
A. 0%
D. none of these
B. 25%
47. In mice coat color is incompletely domi-
C. 50%
nant. Black and white mice are homozy-
D. 100% gous. Grey mice are heterozygous.What
is the genotype for a grey mouse?
42. Traits shown by capital letters
A. BB
A. dominant
B. Bb
B. recessive
C. bb
C. sex-linked
D. none of above
D. codominant
43. In cows, red hair is codominant with white 48. A Shorthorn cow has a red and white
hair. A heterozygous cow will be the color mixed coat called roan. There are both red
roan which means it would have hairs and white hairs in the coat. What is
the genotype for codominant roan color?
A. white hair
A. RR
B. red hair
B. RW
C. red and white hair
C. WW
D. orange hair
D. rw
44. In blood types, if an offspring inherits the
alleles A and B they will have type AB 49. When one allele is not completely domi-
blood. What type of inheritance pattern nant over the other blending of two
does this demonstrate? traits.
A. incomplete dominance A. Codominance
B. polygenic inheritence B. Complete dominance
C. multiple alleles & codominance C. Incomplete dominance
D. recessive genes D. Epistatic Trait

6.8 Codominance 874
50. is when both the dominant trait and 55. What is it called when both traits are ex-
recessive trait are seen in the phenotype. pressed and neither allele is dominant?
A. Codominance A. Incomplete Dominance
B. Punnett squares B. Codominance
C. Complete dominance C. Pedigree
D. Incomplete dominance D. Heterozygous
NARAYAN CHANGDER
51. Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked trait. 56. Which of the following refers to a com-
Which genotype represents a male with plete dominant cross?
normal vision? A. One allele completely dominates over
A. XNXN the other.
B. XYN B. The two alleles are equally seen in the
C. XNY heterozygous genotype.
D. XnY C. The two alleles are blended in the het-

erozygous genotype.
52. In plants known as “four o’clocks”, the D. Neither allele is seen in the pheno-
allele for red-flowers is incompletely dom- types.
inant over the allele for white-flowers.
What would a heterozygous four o’clock 57. Condition in which both alleles for a gene
look like? are expressed when present both
A. Red traits are visible.
B. White A. Codominance
C. Pink B. Dominance
D. Red with white stripes C. Complete dominance

D. Incomplete dominance
53. If two white rabbit produce a black off-
spring, the parent’s genotypes for color 58. What must occur for a girl to be color-
must be: blind?
A. heterozygous A. each parent must be colorblind
B. homozygous black B. each parent must have the dominant
C. homozygous white allele for colorblindness
D. not enough information was given C. each parent must have the recessive
allele for colorblindness
54. In cows, red hair is codominant with white D. her father must have normal vision
hair. Cross a purebred white cow with a
purebred red bull. What percent of the off- 59. Which cross could produce a child with type
spring will be roan (red and white hairs)? O (ii) blood?
A. 0% A. Ai x ii
B. 50% B. AA x ii
C. 75% C. BB x Ai
D. 100% D. BB x ii

6.9 Multiple Alleles 875
60. If two roan cows are mated, what percent is the chance they will have a child with a
of the offspring will also be roan? homozygous genotype?

A. 0% A. 0%
B. 25% B. 25%
C. 50% C. 50%
D. 100% D. 75%
61. Which of the following is NOT an example 65. Which of the following does NOT apply to
of a polygenic trait? incomplete dominance?
A. Blood Type A. Alleles mix/blend in between both alle-

les
B. Height
B. Both alleles show up equally in the off-
C. Skin Color spring
D. Eye Color C. Neither allele is dominant
62. Alleles that are different are called D. A third phenotype is created
A. heterozygous 66. If a woman has type A blood and her son

has type O blood, which of the following
B. homozygous
could NOT be the blood type of the fa-
C. dominant ther?
D. recessive A. Type A
63. If one parent is heterozygous for type A B. Type B

blood and the other parent is homozygous C. Type O
for type B blood, what is the probability D. Type AB
they could have a child with type B blood?
A. 0% 67. Which human phenotype combination is un-
able to produce offspring with blood type
B. 25% O?
C. 50% A. A and B
D. 100% B. B and O
64. Two parents have blood type A, and they C. O and A

are both heterozygous for this trait. What D. AB and O
6.9 Multiple Alleles

1. Organisms that have two identical alleles D. Dominant
for a particular trait are said to be
A. Hybrid 2. A type B man (genotype BO) marries a
woman with type A (AA) . What percent
B. Heterozygous
chance will they have of making a type AB
C. Homozygous offspring?

A. 0% 8. This is when multiple genes code for a sin-

B. 25% gle trait
C. 50% A. Polygenic
D. 100% B. Pleiotropy
C. Linked genes
3. A man has blood type A and a woman has
blood type B . What are the possible blood D. Codominant genes
types of their kids? 9. ABO Blood groups is an example of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. A or B only A. incomplete dominance
B. AB only B. co-dominance
C. A, B, AB only C. multiple alleles
D. A, B, AB, or O D. two of these
4. A single gene has 3 or more alleles. These 10. Look at this cross:XBXb x XBY What pro-
are called portion of the male children are color-
A. multiple genes blind?
B. multiple alleles A. 100%
C. codominance B. 75%
D. polygenic traits C. 50%
D. 25%
5. If a man with type AB blood has a child
with a woman who is type A (A i) blood, 11. What type of inheritance controls blood
which is NOT a possibility for the child? types in humans?
A. A A. incomplete dominance
B. B B. polygenic inheritance
C. AB C. multiple alleles
D. O D. recessive genes
6. Mom has Type A blood, Dad has Type A 12. Which of the following is a type of poly-
blood. What are the possible blood types genic inheritance?
(phenotypes) of the children? A. weight
A. Type A only B. freckles
B. Type O only C. blood types
C. Type A or Type O D. colorblindness
D. Type AO only
13. The differences in the sets of alleles be-
7. Multiple alleles for a trait means tween individuals in a population is
A. multiple parents A. allele
B. multiple offspring produced B. genotype
C. 3 or more sources of genes C. genetic variation
D. none of above D. gene

14. A woman has type B blood and her hus- B. only AB

band has type O blood. What must be
C. A, B, or O
the woman’s genotype, if they have a child

with type O blood? **You are figuring out D. A, B, or AB
the mothers genotype**
20. Which blood type(s) can receive blood
A. BO from anyone?
B. BB
A. A
C. OO
B. B
D. type B
C. AB
15. If a gene is found only on the X chromo- D. O
some and not the Y chromosome, it is said
to be what? 21. Shows this specific trait even if only one
A. sex-linked trait parent carries it
B. polygenic trait A. recessive
C. codominant trait B. homozygous
D. incomplete dominance trait C. dominant
16. The rH factor determines what part of the D. heterozygous
blood type?
22. If a trait is not sex-linked, it is
A. + or-
A. autosomal
B. the number of antigens
B. dominant
C. the number of antibodies
D. aggulation C. recessive
D. polygenic
17. Height in humans is an example of
A. incomplete dominance 23. In a cross of Bb x Bb, what fraction of the
offspring can be expected to express dom-
B. codominance
inant alleles?
C. multiple alleles
A. 3/4
D. polygenic inheritance
B. 1/4
18. What pattern of non-Mendelian inheri-
C. 1/2
tance is shown by ABO blood group?
D. 4/4
A. Codominance
B. Incomplete Dominance 24. Chromosome that is not a sex chromo-
C. Multiple Alleles some
D. X-linked A. Chromosome
B. Autosome
19. If two AB people marry, what blood
types(s) could their children have? C. Sex Chromosome
A. A or B D. Homologous pair

25. If Norma has Huntington’s disease and her B. 50% white, 50% black
husband, Bob, does not, what is the chance
C. 25% white, 50% checkered, 25% black
that their only son, James, will inherit
Huntington’s?
A. 50% D. 100% grey
B. 0% 31. Suppose a white-furred rabbit breeds with

C. 100% a black-furred rabbit and all of their off-
spring have a phenotype of gray fur. What
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 75%
does the gene for fur color in rabbits ap-
26. blending of traits as phenotypes in an off- pear to be an example of?
spring A. codominance
A. codiminance
C. dominance
C. Mendel Genetics
D. mosaicism
D. none of above
27. How many different genotypes for the 32. Which is the genotype of a male with a
dominant trait exist? dominant sex-linked trait carried on the X
chromosome?
A. one
A. XDY
B. two
C. three B. XDXD
D. none C. XDYD
28. The genetic make-up of an organism; all D. XdY

the genes that an organism has
33. The physical look of a trait
A. genotype
A. genotype
B. phenotype
B. phenotype
C. dominant
D. recessive C. allele
D. Mendelian inheritance
29. A couple has two children, both of whom
are boys. What is the chance that the par-
34. Even there are several different sources of
ents’ next child will be a boy?
alleles, each trait ONLY contains
A. 0%
A. 3 or more alleles from the top of family
B. 50% tree
C. 25% B. 2 alleles, one from mom and one from
D. 75% dad
30. If two checkered chicks (BW) are crossed, C. one allele, from the gene of the domi-
what are the offspring? nant parent
A. 100% checkered D. none of above

35. Both traits are showing up in the offspring B. codominance

phenotypes C. multiple alleles

A. codominance D. polygenetic inheritance
B. dominant traits
41. What principle states that, during gamete
C. incomplete dominance
formation, genes for different traits sep-
D. Mendel genetcs arate without influencing each other’s in-
heritance?
36. How many different alleles for a person’s
blood type are there in the human popula- A. Principle of Dominance
tion? B. Principle of Probabilities
A. 1 C. Principle of Independent Assortment
B. 2 D. Principle of Segregation
C. 3
42. Down Syndrome results from a(n)
D. 4 chromosome.
37. Chromosomes form tetrads (pairs of ho- A. extra
mologous chromosomes) during B. missing
A. Interphase C. enlarged
B. Prophase I of meiosis D. weak
C. Metaphase I of meiosis
43. Name the proteins on the surface of red
D. Anaphase II of meiosis blood cells.
38. The pattern of inheritance in which there A. Antibodies
are three or more possible alleles for a
B. Antigens
trait is
C. Plasma
D. Collagen
B. Codominance
C. Polygenic Inheritance 44. You have two rose plants, both with pink
flowers. You cross the two plants and find
D. Multiple Alleles
that, while most of the offspring are pink,
39. If a persons genotype was AABbCc for some are red and some are white. What
height. How many genes do they have for kind of inheritance pattern is this?
this trait? A. Incomplete dominant
A. 6 B. Codominant
B. 3 C. Mendellian Dominant
C. 4 D. Multiple allele
D. 5
45. Look at this cross:XB XB and Xb YWhat
40. Three or more possible alleles of a gene proportion/percent of the male children
that determines a trait are colorblind?
A. incomplete dominance A. 100%

B. 75% 51. Identify the homozygous dominant geno-

C. 25% type:
D. 0% A. FF
B. Ff
46. You have two dogs, one white and one
brown. They have puppies, and all of C. ff
the puppies are brown and white spotted!! D. none of above
What is the inheritance pattern?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Mendelian dominant 52. A normal human has pairs of auto-
somes and pair(s) of sex chromo-
B. incomplete dominant somes.
C. multiple allele A. 23, 1
D. co-dominant
B. 22, 1
47. Which blood type is the universal Donor? C. 1, 22
A. OO D. 1, 23
B. AB
53. You have two pea plants, one with pur-
C. B ple flowers and one with white flowers.
D. O When you cross them, all of the flowers
are purple. What is this inheritance pat-
48. Micrograph images of chromosomes used tern?
to study possible disorders are called:
A. Incomplete dominant
A. telomeres
B. Codominant
B. centromeres
C. Mendellian Dominant
C. karyotypes
D. Multiple allele
D. pedigrees
54. If a trait is sex-linked, then affected fe-
49. The observable characteristics or traits of
males will have
an organism
A. affected fathers and affected sons
A. genotype
B. affected fathers and unaffected sons
B. phenotype
C. dominant C. unaffected fathers but affected sons
D. homozygous D. none of above
50. A genetic trait that appears in every gen- 55. Do a Punnett Square. blood reproduce.
eration of offspring is called . What is true of this genetic cross?
A. dominant A. 50% type O:50% type AB
B. recessive B. 50% type B:50% type A:25% type O
C. phenotypic C. 25% type AB:50% type B:25% type A
D. superior D. 50% type AB:25% type A:25% type B

56. What is the genotype of a female with 61. Blood transfusions require that the person
type B blood, who had a father with type get blood from a donor with antigens that
O blood? are

A. AB A. the same
B. AO B. different
C. BO C. the same or different; doesn’t matter
D. OO D. none of above
57. If an individual possesses two recessive al- 62. A man has blood type A (heterozygous)
leles for the same trait, the individual is and a woman has blood type B (heterozy-
said to be gous). What are the possible blood types
of their kids?
A. homozygous for the trait.
A. A or B only
B. heterozygous for the trait.
B. AB only
C. haploid for the trait
C. A, B, AB only
D. mutated
D. A, B, AB, or O
58. If the offspring of a cross have the blood
groups O and A the genotypes of parents 63. How many alleles does each individual in-
could be herit for their blood type?
A. IAIA and IAIO A. 1
B. IA IO and IA IO B. 2
C. IAIA and IAIA C. 3
D. IAIA and IoIo D. 4
59. The coat color in rabbits, that comes in four 64. A carrier is represented by what symbol?
common alleles:C, cch, ch, c is an example
A. Clear
of
B. Shaded
A. incomplete domiance
C. Half Shaded
B. multiple alleles
D. 1:4 ratio
D. none of above 65. A man with blood type B has children with
a woman who is blood type A. They have
60. If a Type O person marries a Type AB per- eight children, four have AB blood and four
son, what blood type(s) could their chil- have type B blood. What are the parents’
dren have? genotypes?
A. A or B A. IAIA and IBIB
B. only AB B. IAi and IAIB
C. A, B, or O C. IAi and IBIB
D. A, B or AB D. IAIA and IBi

66. Which best describes epistasis? 71. blood type AA x blood type BB= type AB
in offspring blood type
A. An allele that changes the genotype of
another allele A. codominance
B. A gene that changes the genotype of B. incomplete dominance
another gene
C. dominant and recessive genes
C. An allele that controls or masks the ex-
D. none of above
pression of another allele
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. A gene that controls or masks the ex- 72. If both parents have Type AB blood, what
pression of another gene is the chance that they will be able to pro-
duce Type AB offsprings?
67. Traits such as skin color and height happen-
ing from the interaction of many different A. 25 %
alleles is called: B. 50 %
A. incomplete dominance C. 75 %
B. co-dominance D. 100 %
C. polygenic traits
73. Which blood type can receive any other
D. luck of the draw blood type?
68. A person’s blood type indicates the type of A. Type-A
on the surface of their blood cells. B. Type-B
A. antiseptic C. Type-O
B. antidote D. Type-AB
C. antibiotic
74. If two parents have the same phenotype,
D. antigen
and their child has a different phenotype,
69. What type(s) of blood can a person with what do we know about the parents’
type B blood safely RECEIVE? genotypes?
A. A and AB A. homozygous recessive
B. B and AB B. homozygous dominant
C. A and O C. heterozygous
D. B and O D. none of above
70. Which of the following is NOT a trait 75. Why are there so many phenotypes for hu-
that is considered to be a polygenic inheri- man blood types (what causes there to be
tance? more than just 2 phenotypes)?
A. size A. multiple alleles
B. height B. incomplete dominance
C. color C. total dominance
D. hemophilia D. non dominance

76. If the offsprings have the blood groups O 82. The X-linked recessive trait of color-
and A the genotype of parents would be blindness is present in 5% of males. If
a mother who is a carrier and father who

A. IAIA and IAi
is unaffected plan to have children, what
B. IA i and ii is the probability of having a male who is
C. IAIA and IAIA color-blind?
D. IA i and IBi A. 50%
77. An individual who is heterozygous for a B. 25%
recessive disorder is called a(n)-
C. 75%
A. carrier
B. pedigree D. 1%
C. autosome 83. Which of the following inheritance pat-

D. affected terns explains how a particular version
of a regulatory gene can activate or de-
78. What are the possible blood types of off-
activate a gene that controls a particular
spring from two type B parents?
trait?
A. Type A, Type B, Type O
A. codominance
B. Type B only
B. pleiotropy
C. Type B, Type O
D. Type B, Type AB C. epistasis
79. What type of antigens can be found on the D. incomplete dominance

surface of RBC’s when someone has blood
type O? 84. Process in sexual reproduction in which
male and female reproductive cells join to
A. A form one new cell
B. B
A. Fertilization
C. AB
B. Genotype
D. none
C. Segregation
80. Which of the following traits is controlled
by multiple alleles in humans? D. Phenotype
A. Blood type
85. A male and female bison that are both
B. Hemophilia heterozygous for normal skin pigmenta-
C. Sickle cell anemia tion (Aa) produce an albino offspring (aa).
D. Male pattern baldness Which of Mendels principles exlain(s) why
the offspring is albine?
81. Which is NOT a polygenic trait in humans?
A. dominance only
A. Hair color
B. dominance and segregation
B. Skin color
C. Eye color C. independent assortment only
D. Dimples D. segregation only

86. Which sex can be carriers of colorblindness C. IAIB

and not have symptoms of the condition?
D. ii
A. Just males
B. Just females 92. Mendel’s law of dominance means
C. Both sexes A. genes from parents are dominant in
D. none of above the offspring
B. one allele of a gene is dominant over
87. When you have two of the same alleles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the other
A. dominant
C. two genes are both showing up in the
B. homozygous offspring
C. recessive
D. blending of traits results in a new phe-
D. heterozygous notype
88. Which is the best description of the events
93. What is the recessive disorder in which a
that take place during anaphase II?
person cannot break down an amino acid
A. Homologous chromosomes separate and produces toxicity that causes learning
B. Homologous chromosomes line up disabilities?
along equator A. PKU
C. Replicated chromosomes become visi-
B. Cystic-Fibrosis
ble
D. Sister chromatids separate and mi- C. Tay-Sachs
grate to opposite poles D. Huntington’s
89. Epistasis is the interaction between
genes. 94. Four alleles determine if a rabbit is white,
brown, or gray. This is an example of
A. 2
B. 4
A. polygenic traits
C. 3
B. multiple alleles
D. 16
C. codominance
90. Which of the following is a source of ge-
netic variation for meiosis? D. none of above
A. Independent assortment 95. A heterozygous type A woman has chil-

B. Random fertilization dren with a heterozygous type B man.
C. Crossing-over What percentage of their offspring will be
AB?
D. All of the above
A. 0%
91. If a person has type B blood, the pheno-
type is B. What can the genotype be? B. 25%
A. IBIB or IBi C. 50%

B. IAIA or IAi D. 75%

6.10 Gene Interactions 885
96. A person has A blood type. What is his A. A

genotype? B. B

A. IAIA only C. AB
B. IAi only D. O
C. could be IAIA or IAi
99. The type of inheritance shown when a red-
D. ii only flowered plant is crossed with a white-
97. For any given trait there may be more than flowered plant and only pink flowers are
two choices for alleles, the trait may be in- produced is
herited on more than one gene or chromo- A. inbreeding
some, and there are many types of inheri- B. incomplete dominance
tance patterns it may follow, however, for
each trait you may only inherit how many C. polygenic inheritance
alleles? D. multiple alleles
A. 1 100. Black fur x white fur= gray fur in the off-
B. 2 spring of rabbits, BB x WW =BW
C. 23 A. codominance
D. 46 B. dominant genes
98. The blood type that is the universal donor C. incomplete dominance
because anyone can receive it is D. Mendel genetics
6.10 Gene Interactions

1. What characteristic did Darwin observe 3. All of the following are examples of poly-
about the finches on the Galapagos Is- genic traits except:
lands? A. hair color
A. Their feathers B. skin color
B. Genotypes C. frizzle genes
C. Their beaks
D. height
D. Their body sizes
4. A woman who has blood type O has a child
2. Hemophilia is a sex-linked disease. A with a man that is blood type AB. What is
woman who is a carrier of the disease the % chance of heterozygous type B in
has a child with a man who doesn’t have their offspring?
the disease. What is the probability that
A. 25%
they will have offspring as carriers of
hemophilia? B. 0%
A. 50% C. 50%
B. 75% D. 100%
C. 0% 5. Which of the following is not a mechanism
D. 25% for biological evolution?

6.11 Sex-Infl uenced Inheritance 886
A. Mutation 8. A mutation that does NOT show up

B. Genetic Drift through protein function is called
C. Inheritance of acquired characteris- A. deletion mutation
tics B. inversion mutation
D. Natural Selection C. silent mutation
6. A red flower is crossed with a white D. transverse mutation
flower the result are pink flowers. This
NARAYAN CHANGDER
is an example of: 9. When one base replaces another, this is a
A. multiple alleles common type of mutation called what?
B. dominant/recessive A. Insertion
C. codominance B. Substitution
D. incomplete dominance C. Inversion
7. Hemophilia is a sex-linked disease. A D. Deletion
woman who is a carrier of the disease has
10. What type of gene mutation has occurred
a child with a man who doesn’t have the
here? Normal-AGA-TTC-ATA-GCGMutant-
disease. What are the genotypes of the
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
mom and dad?
A. M-XHXH D-XHY A. Deletion (causing a frameshift)
B. M-XHXh D-XhY B. Insertion (causing a frameshift)
C. M-XHXh D-XHY C. Substitution
D. M-XHXh D-XHYH D. Nonsense
6.11 Sex-Infl uenced Inheritance

1. Do the punnett square in your head:If a C. A non-sex chromosome
man who is colorblind (XbY) marries a D. A sex-determining chromosome
woman who who has no history of color-
blindness in her family, what is the chance 3. A single gene has 3 or more alternative
they would have a color blind child? forms. These are called
A. 0 A. heterozygotes
B. 100 B. multiple alleles
C. 50 C. epistatic
D. 75 D. polygenic
4. Science of managing and analyzing biolog-
2. Which of the following best defines an au-
ical data using advanced computers.
tosome?
A. Bioinformatics
A. A chromosome that does things auto-
matically B. Genomics
B. A chromosome that is least common in C. Forensics
a human set of chromosomes D. Human Genome Project

5. is a process that occurs in female mammals 10. The sex of a child is determined by
in which one of the X chromosomes is ran- A. whether the father’s sperm contains
domly turned off in each cell

an x or y chromosome
A. codominance B. whether the mother’s egg contains an
B. complete dominance x or y chromosome
C. X chromosome inactivation C. the age of the parents

D. none of above
D. karyotype
11. Angelman syndrome is a result of a dele-
6. Siblings that develop from a single fertil- tion on
ized egg that splits in two are called:
A. chromosome 15 from mom.
A. conjoined twins
B. chromosome 15 from dad.
B. dizygotic twins
C. chromosome 15 from grandmother.
C. fraternal twins D. chromosome 15 from grandfather.
D. identical twins
12. trait that is produced by two or more
7. A baby has type AB blood. What could the genes
genotypes of the baby’s parents be? A. linkage map
A. IAi x ii B. polygenic trait
B. IBIB x IBIB C. multiple alleles
C. IAIA x IBi D. codominance
D. ii x ii 13. An allele is
A. A version of a gene
8. How many recessive genes does a carrier
female have for colorblindness? B. Another word for a gene
A. 1 C. Always different on homologous chro-

mosomes
B. 2
D. Another word for flavour
C. 0
14. If a trait shows up more commonly in men
D. none of above than women it is probably
9. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive dis- A. not inherited
order. A woman with hemophilia mar- B. on the x chromosome and dominant
ries an unaffected man whose father had
C. on the x chromosome and recessive
hemophilia. What percentage of their
daughters will have hemophilia? D. on a normal body chromosome
A. 0% 15. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive

disorder. If the daughter of a couple is col-
B. 25%
orblind, what are the two possible geno-
C. 50% types of her mother?
D. 100% A. XAXA and XAXa

B. XAXA and XaXa 20. Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked dis-

order. Which genotype represents a male
C. XAXa and XaXa
with normal vision?
D. Cannot be determined
A. XNXN
16. Which of the following is the best exam- B. XnXn
ple of “nature” in the Nurture v. Nature C. XNY
debate?
D. XnY
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. living in an urban environment
21. A trait that only appears in one sex is
B. prenatal care
A. sex-influenced.
C. being raised in a bilingual home
B. sex-limited.
D. genetic makeup
C. X-inactivated
17. Hemophilia is recessive diseases carried on D. genomic imprinting
the X chromosome. Can a male be a carrier
of the disease? 22. Males are more likely to inherit a sex
linked trait?
A. Yes
A. True, because they only receive one X
B. No
chromosome
C. Maybe B. False, because they only recieve one X
D. none of above chromosome
C. True, because they receive two X chro-
18. Sex-influenced traits are mosomes
A. dominant in one sex but recessive in D. False, because they receive two X
the other. chromosomes.
B. seen only in one sex.
23. A dad who is heterozygous for type B
C. traits that are the result of X- blood has a child with a woman who is het-
inactivation. erozygous for type A blood. What % will
D. traits that appear in one sex more of- have bloodtype AB?
ten than the other. A. 0%
B. 25%
19. Muscular dystrophy is a sex-linked re-
cessive disorder. A man with muscular C. 50%
dystrophy marries a woman who doesn’t D. 100%
have this disease. Half of their daughters
and half of their sons develop this disease. 24. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive
What is the genotype of the mother? disorder. A normal woman whose father
A. XNXN was colorblind marries a man with nor-
mal color vision. What percentage of their
B. XNXn sons will be colorblind?
C. Xn A. 0%
D. XN B. 25%

C. 50% 30. Prader-Willi syndrome is a result of a dele-

D. 100% tion on

A. chromosome 15 from mom.
25. Chromosomes that have the same se-
quence of genes and the same structure B. chromosome 15 from dad.
are C. chromosome 15 from grandmother.
A. homologous chromosomes D. chromosome 15 from grandfather.
B. alleles 31. Universal blood donors have type
C. phenotypes blood.
D. genotypes A. A
B. AB
26. Which of the following is TRUE?
C. B
A. Sex chromosomes determine gender
D. O
B. Males have XY; Females have XX
C. non-sex chromosomes are called auto- 32. Milk production is an example of
somes A. a sex-influenced trait.
D. all of these B. a sex-limited trait.
C. genomic imprinting.
27. The “nature’ part of the nature/nurture
controversy refers to: D. X-inactivation.
A. the behavioral we acquired throughout 33. Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked dis-
our lives order. Which genotype represents a fe-
B. the environment male who is colorblind?
C. the biological dispositions we’re born A. XNXn
with B. XnXn
D. the outside world C. XNXN
28. Which chromosome contains more genes? D. XnY
A. The X chromosome 34. The reason why sex chromosomes have

B. The Y chromosome they name they do is because they
A. Are not autosomes
C. They are homologous, so they contain
the same amount of genes. B. Are unique in how they look
D. none of above C. Are not able to be paired with any
other chromosomes
29. Which of the following is the best exam-
D. Determine the sex for the organism
ple if “nurture” in the Nurture v. Nature
controversy? 35. Study of genes and their function.
A. your chromosomes A. Forensics
B. your DNA B. Bioinformatics
C. genetic mutations C. Genomics
D. environment D. Human Genome Project

6.12 Linked Genes 890
36. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive D. 50%

trait. A colorblind woman marries a male
with normal color vision. What is the per- 37. An individual’s sex is determined by
cent chance of them having a color blind
A. 1 of 23 chromosomes
son?
A. 0% B. 2 of 46 chromosomes
B. 25% C. 4 of 92 chromosomes
C. 100% D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
6.12 Linked Genes
1. Genes that are not sex-linked are found on 5. Which DNA fragment bands move faster
chromosomes and farther in a gel electrophoresis?
A. sex A. there is no way to tell
B. autosomal B. the largest ones
C. somatic C. the smallest ones
D. gametic D. none of these
2. How do you find the expected number? 6. Thomas Morgan did genetic research on
A. ratio from punnett square multiplied to Drosphila (fruit flies) because
total A. they have four large pairs of chromo-
B. ratio from punnett square divided by somes
total B. they have many easily observable ge-
C. ratio from punnett square multiplied netic traits
by observed number C. they produce many offspring.
D. ratio from punnett square minus ob-
D. all options are correct
served number
7. A gene on the Y chromosome that deter-
3. Recombinant frequencies are often re-
mines maleness is called:
ferred to as
A. map units A. AB
B. micrometers B. SRY
C. millimeters C. ABC
D. none of above D. Barr Body
4. crossing over in organisms is responsible 8. Thomas Morgan used what notation to il-
for lustrate a dominant trait?
A. dominance of gene A. +
B. segregation of alles B. upper case letter
C. recombination of linked genes C. lower case letter
D. linkage between genes D. none of above

9. What was the result of breeding a white- 14. Linked genes are located on
eye fly and a red-eye fly? A. the X chromosome but not the Y chro-

A. All of the offspring had white eyes. mosome.
B. All of the offspring had red eyes. B. the same chromosome.
C. All of the offspring were male. C. the Y chromosome but not the X chro-
mosome.
D. all females are red eyed while all
males are white eyed D. different chromosomes.
15. Crossing-over of parts of chromosomes:

10. A human male will normally transmit the
geneson his X chromosome to A. has no effect on genetic linkage
A. his sons B. usually decreases the number of ge-

netic combinations in a population
B. his daughters
C. can increase the number of genetic
C. half of his sons and half of his daugh- combinations in a population
ters
D. none of above
D. all of his children
16. There are 80% parental and 20% recombi-
11. What is an exception to Mendel’s law of nant in a cross. Its recombinant frequency
independent assortment? is:
A. crossing over A. 80
B. gene linkage B. 20
C. 10
C. law of segregation
D. 40
D. meiosis
17. Hunt used what animals to study gene link-
12. crossing over in doplotene organisms is re- age?
sponsible for
A. fruit flies
A. dominance of gene
B. bears
B. segregation of alles
C. bees
C. recombination of linked genes D. dogs
D. linkage between genes
18. Crossing over occurs during
13. A and B are linked genes. In a study of A. meiosis 1
100 offspring, 80 parental genotypes for B. Mitosis
A and B, while 20 were recombinants. A
and B are how many map units apart? C. meiosis 2
A. 10 D. meiosis 1 and 2
B. 5 19. If the distance between A/B is 0.12 mu

and gene C is on the opposite side of A
C. 20
with respect to B at a distance of 0.23 mu,
D. 30 Which is the central gene in this map

A. B 25. A X-linked gene in fruit flies controls the

B. A patterns of the wings. XB has a barred
pattern and Xb doesn’t have bars. A
C. C male with barred wings is mated to a non-
D. Data insufficient barred female. What would be the geno-
type(s) of their female offspring?
20. Causes genes to not segregate indepen-
dently. Causes genes to be more likely to A. XBXB
be inherited together. Represents an ex- B. XbXb
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ception to Mendel’s Law of Independent
assortment. C. XBXb
A. Gene linkage D. XBb
B. Epistasis
26. Polyploidy is important to the field of
C. Polygenic traits
A. medicines
D. Codominance
B. genetics
21. Two genes that are on the same chromo-
C. agriculture
some may show independent assortment
if D. heredity
A. they are immediately next to each
27. Suppose the cross-over percentages for
other
three gene pairs are:A to B = 9.5%, B to C
B. they are very far apart = 14.5%, and A to C = 5%. Which of the
C. they are found on a sex chromosome following sequences could represent the
D. they contain mutations order of these genes on a chromosome?
A. CAB
22. The linkage group in man are
B. ABC
A. 46
B. 23 C. CBA
C. 22 D. ACB
D. 24 28. Restriction Enzymes . . .
23. Beard growth and milk production are ex- A. cut DNA at precise locations
amples of traits that are:
B. help bacteria to pick up DNA
A. Sex-inactivated
C. move DNA through a gel
B. Sex-influenced
D. copy DNA
C. Sex-limited
D. none of above 29. The 1:1 ratio of males and females in hu-
mans is due to
24. Linked genes will only cross over during
A. Prophase II A. male mitosis
B. Prophase I B. female mitosis

C. Metaphase I C. male meiosis
D. Metaphase II D. female meiosis

30. What is the purpose of gel electrophore- 36. Which chromosomes do crossing over?
sis? A. homologous chromosomes

A. helps cut DNA B. heterogenous chromosomes
B. count the genes in DNA C. linked chromosomes
C. separates DNA based on size D. all chromosomes
D. allows for an exact replicated organ- 37. map unit is equal to:
ism
A. 1 nm
31. showed the relative locations of genes B. 1% recombination
on a chromosome.
C. 1 chromosome
A. genes
D. 1 mutation
B. linkage map
38. A drawing that shows the sequence of
C. gene map genes on a chromosome and can be created
D. none of above using data collected about crossing-over.
A. chromosome mapping
32. Who coined the term linkage
B. gene linkage
A. Correns
C. karyotype
B. Mendel
D. none of above
C. Morgan
D. DeVries 39. How do you find critical value?
A. where degrees of freedom lines up
33. What charge is DNA? with significance level
A. positive B. where significance level lines up with
B. negative chi-square
C. neutral C. the difference between total and chi-
square
D. none of above
D. degrees of freedom minus significance
34. The recombination frequency of two linked level
genes can be determined by performing a
40. Alleles that are inherited on the X or Y
A. tescross chromosomes:
B. monohybrid cross A. multiple alleles
C. dihybrid cross B. sex-linked genes
D. none of above C. codominance
35. Which organisms are most likely to have D. polygenic inheritance
polyploidy? 41. The recombinant offspring
A. animals A. look like the parents
B. humans B. have the genotype of the parents
C. plants C. do NOT look like either parent
D. camels D. none of above

42. How does crossing over contribute to 47. Recombination is also known as
greater genetic diversity? A. Independent Assortment
A. It results in the exchange of proteins B. Crossing over
B. It reduces the number of chromo- C. Random Segregation
somes in each cell.
D. Random Assortment
C. It produces new combinations of alle-
les. 48. Genes that are located in the same chro-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mosome?
D. none of above
A. Chromosome Map
43. Human height is controlled by B. Genetic Recombination
A. TT or Tt C. Linked Genes
B. Many genes. It is a polygenic trait. D. Fruit Fly
C. Mutations 49. Suppose that the distance between two
D. A single gene. genes on a linkage map is 7 units. The
cross-over frequency between the two
44. If two genes are inherited together, this genes is
means that they are
A. 0.7%
A. Present on different chromosmes
B. 7%
B. Present far away on same chromo- C. 70%
some
D. 700%
C. Present close together on same chro-
mosome 50. What is the map distance if the follow-
ing offspring are produced:345 wild, 8
wild/yellow, 10 vestigial/wild, 325 yel-
45. Which significance level (column) do you low/vestigial? (note:these are not given
look at when finding the critical value? as percents!)
A. .50 A. 97.3
B. 2.6
B. .10
C. 18
C. .05
D. 1.8
D. .01
51. The following are results of crossing
46. Each body cell of a goat contains 60 chro- a female fly (AaBb) with a male fly
mosomes. The number of chromosomes in (aabb). AaBb 1005aabb 1000Aabb
a goat egg cell, produced by meiosis, will 200aaBb 210Which two genotypes are
be the recombinant offspring?
A. 15 A. AaBb & Aabb
B. 30 B. AaBb & aaBb
C. 60 C. Aabb & aaBb
D. 120 D. AaBb & aabb

52. What is the purpose of PCR? C. 1n

A. To produce millions of copies of DNA. D. trisomy 21

B. To produce millions of copies of a spe- 57. the new combination of genes produced
cific region of DNA by crossing over and independent assort-
C. To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence ment.
A. genetic recombination
D. To watch polymerase work. B. polygenic trait
C. epistasis
53. Because males have only one X chromo-
some, they are considered to be D. gene linkage
A. homozygous 58. If two genes are carried on the same chro-
mosome, which is correct?
B. heterozygous
A. they assort independently
C. hemizygous
B. they will show 50% recombination
D. none of above
C. they are linked
54. In fruit flies, the genes A and B are linked. D. none of above
The following are results of crossing a fe-
male fly (AaBb) with a male fly (aabb). 59. The new combination of genes produced by
AaBb 1005 aabb 1000 Aabb 200 aaBb crossing over and independent assortment
210 Which two genotypes are the recom- is described as
binant offspring? A. genetic recombination
A. AaBb & Aabb B. gene linkage
B. AaBb & aaBb C. polyploidy
C. Aabb & aaBb D. linked genes
D. AaBb & aabb 60. Which of the following describes linked
genes?
55. Which observation of Morgan’s is evidence
A. Genes located on same chromosome
that crossing over occurs?
B. Genes located on homologous chromo-
A. Linked genes are sometimes inherited somes
separately.
C. Genes located on same location on
B. Some dominant traits are always in- same chromosome
herited together.
D. Genes located on X and Y chromosome
C. Inheritance of gene combinations is
not random. 61. Radish plants have 18 chromosomes in
each of its leaf cells. How many chro-
D. Fruit flies have only two groups of mosomes would most likely be found in a
linked traits. radish ovary?
56. The cell produced when a male gamete A. 36
fuses with a female gamete. B. 18
A. zygote C. 9
B. haploid D. 6

62. Chromosomes normally occur as homolo- 67. In preparation for an electrophoresis pro-
gous pairs in cedure, enzymes are added to DNA in or-
A. An autosome. der to
B. A sperm cell. A. convert the DNA into gel
C. An egg cell. B. cut the DNA into fragments
D. A gamete. C. change the color of the DNA
D. produce longer sections of DNA
63. If the distance between A/B is 0.12 mu
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and gene C is on the opposite side of A 68. How do you find degrees of freedom?
with respect to B at a distance of 0.23 mu,
A. one less than the number of outcomes
What is the order of the gene linkage map
A. both A-B-C and C-B-A are possible
B. one less than the population
B. A-B-C
C. total number divided 2
C. C-A-B
D. total number times 2
D. The linkage map cannot be detemined
as the ratio is not 1:1 69. The uniting of male and female gametes.
64. There is 30% recombination frequency be- A. mitosis

tween two genes. The distance between B. meiosis
them in unit map is: C. fertilization
A. 15 D. nondisjunction
B. 30
70. Crossing over only happens between
C. 60
A. Any two chromosomes
D. 80
B. Homologous chromosomes
65. Homologous chromosomes will have simi-
C. Sister chromatids
lar genes on them. However, they could
have different versions of these genes. D. None of the above
These different versions are called
71. Two genes on a given chromosome that are
A. Mutants most likely to be inherited together are
B. Recombinants A. 6.8 map units apart.
C. Alleles B. 10 map units apart.
D. Mendel’s code C. 2 map units apart.
66. A testcross is a genetic cross where one D. 18.5 map units apart
parent is automatically and the other is
72. The map distance between the genes A
either homozygous dominant or heterozy-
& B is 3 units between B&C 10units and
gous.
between C&A 7 units.The order of the
A. homozygous recessive genes in the linkage map constructed on
B. heterozygous the above data
C. homozygous dominant A. A, B, C
D. none of above B. A, C, B

6.13 Sex-linkage 897
C. B, C, A B. Criminal Investigations
D. B, A, C C. Sequence Endangered Species DNA

73. Mendel did not observe linkage due to D. All of the above
A. There were many chromosomes to
76. Two genes are 25 map units apart on the
handle
same chromosome. They show a recombi-
B. chracters he studied were located on nation frequency of
different chromosomes
A. 50%
C. he did not have powerful microscope
B. 25%
D. he studied pure plants
C. 12.5%
74. Crossing over takes place during
D. 100%
A. anaphase
B. prophase 1 77. Which is a possible source of genetic vari-
ation during meiosis?
C. metaphase 2
D. telophase 2 A. Mitosis
B. Crossing over of chromosomes.
75. What applications can gel electrophoresis
be used for? C. DNA replication
A. Parental Testing D. Protein synthesis.
6.13 Sex-linkage
1. Which structure will be found in the nu- A. 50%
cleus of a body cell in a woman? B. 25%
A. X allele
C. 75%
B. X chromosome
D. 100%
C. Y allele
D. Y chromosome 4. When a woman, heterozygous for normal
vision, mates with a colorblind male, what
2. Photograph of chromosomes grouped in or- percentage of their offspring could be col-
dered pairs orblind?
A. pedigree A. 25%
B. Punnett Square B. 50%
C. Venn Diagram C. 75%
D. Karyotype D. 0%, but all would be carriers.
3. Male patterned baldness is X linked reces- 5. Which genetic abnormality can be identi-
sive. If a male that does express male pat- fied through karyotyping?
terned baldness has a child with a female
who is a carrier, what are the chances they A. point mutation
will have affected offspring? B. recessive allele

C. extra chromosomes 11. What percent of your genes did you get
D. sex-linked allele from your dad? your mom?
A. 25%
6. Look at this cross:XB Xb x Xb YWhat pro- B. 50%
portion/percent of the male children are
colorblind? (colorblind is sex-linked reces- C. 75%
sive trait) D. 100%
A. 100% 12. What happens in an inversion mutation?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 50% A. The DNA sequences is repeated
C. 25% B. Nucleotides get deleted
D. 0% C. A section of the chromosome gets
flipped
7. Which of the following is NOT a sex-linked D. a piece of the chromosome is lost
trait?
13. What causes mutations?
A. Color-blindness
A. Mistakes in replication or environmen-
B. Muscular Dystrophy tal substances
C. Huntington disease B. The amino acids
D. Hemophilia C. Passed down by genetics
D. It’s how your born
8. Chromosome mutation involving loss or
gain of a chromosome in the gametes. 14. Genetic mutations can be
A. Deletion A. beneficial, harmful, or neutral
B. Inversion B. beneficial only
C. Translocation C. harmful only

D. neutral only
D. Nondisjunction
15. Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disor-
9. Sex-linked genetically inherited traits: der. Which genotype represents a fe-
A. can appear in both males and females male who is an unaffected carrier for
hemophilia?
B. are only found in males A. XHXh
B. XhXh
C. are only found in females
C. XHXH
D. XhY
10. Chromosomes that contain genes for char-
16. are chromosomes that contain genes
acteristics that are unrelated to sex
for characteristics unrelated to sex.
A. gene therapy A. autosomes
B. linked genes B. microsomes
C. autosome C. cosmos
D. cells D. inheritance

17. What type(s) of blood can a person with 22. How many recessive genes does a carrier
O+ RECEIVE? female have for colorblindness? (Color-
blindness is an x-linked recessive trait.)

A. O+ and O-
A. 1
B. O+, only
B. 2
C. O-, only
C. 0
D. O+, A+, B+, AB+
D. none of above
18. What antigens are present in a person
23. Human height comes in many different phe-
with type B-blood?
notypes. It is an example of
A. B, only
A. incomplete dominance.
B. B and Rh B. codominance.
C. A and Rh C. polygenic inheritance.
D. A, only D. epistasis.
19. What do we use pedigrees for? 24. Positive blood types can DONATE to what
type(s) of blood?
A. To look at families
A. Negative, only
B. To make determinations about the off-
spring B. Positive, only
C. To track traits in families C. Both Positive and Negative
D. Nothing D. none of above
25. What would the genotype be of a color-

20. How can genetic counselors predict genetic
blind male?
disorders/
A. XNY
A. by studying karyotypes and pedigree
charts B. XNYn
B. by taking pictures of a baby before it is C. XnY

born D. XnYn
C. by exploring new methods of genetic 26. A mysterious disease is caused by a reces-
engineering sive allele on chromosome #1. Scott has
D. by eliminating codominant alleles in the disease. What is Scott’s genotype?
the parents A. DD
21. Skin tone is determined by three different B. dd

gene pairs. Therefore, it is considered a C. XdXd
D. XdY
A. sex-linked trait
27. In humans, which pair of chromosomes are
B. polygenic trait the sex chromosomes?
C. codominant trait A. 21st pair
D. incomplete dominance trait B. 22nd pair

C. 23rd pair 33. Identify the following mutation:Original

D. 24th pair DNA:ATCGTC
A. Substitution (Point)
28. Genes located strictly on the x-
chromosome B. Insertion (frameshift)
A. gene therapy C. Deletion

B. genetic trait D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. multiple allele trait 34. Which statement about the human sex
D. x-linked gene chromosomes is correct?
A. All boys have two Y chromosomes.
29. (1822-1884) An Austrian botanist who
developed the foundational laws of genet- B. Everybody has at least one X chromo-
ics. some.
A. Mendelian traits C. Girls have a Y chromosome and an X
B. segregation chromosome.
C. Mendel D. Nobody has two X chromosomes.
D. monohybrid 35. What does a vertical line coming down

from a square and circle that are connected
30. If a person with AB blood has children with by horizontal line indicate?
a person with type O blood, which will be
the possible blood types of their children? A. They are cousins
A. A and O B. The children
B. AB and O C. Aunts and Uncles
C. A and B D. none of above
D. B and O 36. Chromosomes that determine the body
31. In sex-linked inheritance, carriers can be characteristics
A. Allosomes
A. Only males B. Autosomes
B. Males and females C. Karyotype
C. Only females D. Sex linkage
D. none of above
37. A mysterious disease is caused by a reces-
32. What happens in a translocation muta- sive allele on the X chromosome. Bryan
tion? has the disease. What is Bryan’s geno-
type?
A. They all live normaly
A. DD
B. They all repeat each other
B. dd
C. Different chromosomes exchange
pieces with each other C. XdXd
D. Something happens D. XdY

38. Which term means “same alleles”? C. Punnett square

A. heterozygous. D. Graph

B. genes.
44. Gene A causes Gene B to be able to do its
C. homozygous. job. Therefore, this is an example of
D. DNA. A. polygenic inheritance.
39. What would the genotype be of a color- B. epistasis.
blind male? (Colorblindness is a x-linked C. incomplete dominance.
recessive trait.)
D. sex-linked traits.
A. XNY
B. XNYn 45. A law stating that the arrangement of a
pair of alleles in gametes is random and
C. XnY independent.
D. XnYn
A. pedigree diagram
40. A man has three daughters.What is the B. theory of acquired characteristics
chance of his next child being a daughter?
C. theory of blended traits
A. 0%
D. law of independent assortment
B. 25%
C. 50% 46. If a red (RR) and white (rr) flower are
crossed, resulting in 100% Rr, what phe-
D. 75% notypes would be seen according to the
rules of in-complete dominance.
41. Chromosome mutation involving loss of a
piece of chromosome. A. red
A. Deletion B. white
B. Inversion C. pink
C. Translocation D. red and white
D. Removal
47. Versions of genes
42. Traits controlled by genes on the x chromo- A. alleles
some
B. pure line
A. multiple allele trait
C. Punnett square
B. autosome
D. probability
C. x-linked trait
D. nondisjunction 48. Type of traits that are inherited by Boys
more often than girls.
43. A chart that shows the relationships
A. Autosome Recessive
within a family and the inheritance of a ge-
netic trait is called a B. Autosome Dominant
A. Pedigree C. Sex Linked Dominant
B. Karyotype D. Sex Linked Recessive

49. Who does a son inherit a sex linked allele C. human genome
from? D. nondisjunction
A. His mother only
55. Cells are formed by the division of existing
B. His father only
cells. Four different cells are shown.Which
C. Either his father or mother cell is produced by meiosis?
D. none of above A. Nerve cell
50. ATTTGAGCC-OriginalATTGAGCC-MutatedThe
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Sperm cell
example above is an example of a
C. Palisade cell
A. Insertion-Frameshift
D. White blood cell
B. Deletion-Substitution
C. Deletion-Frameshift 56. Where are genes located?
D. All of the above A. On the chromosome, in the nucleus

B. On the nucleus inside the chromosome
51. Gametes are produced by the process of
C. on the ribosome in the mitochondria

A. mitosis
B. meiosis D. on the moon
C. crossing-over 57. The woman who is colorblind marries a

D. replication man with normal vision. What is the prob-
ability that their sons will be colorblind?
52. How many pairs of autosomal chromo-
A. 0%
somes do humans have
A. 22 B. 25%
B. 2 C. 50%
C. 44 D. 100%
D. 46 58. The X and Y chromosomes are known as
the chromosomes.
53. If a gene is found on the X chromosome, it
is said to be what? A. sex
A. a sex-linked trait B. autosome
B. a polygenic trait C. biological
C. a codominant trait D. genetic
D. an autosomal trait
59. Which combination of sex chromosomes re-
54. This DNA is made up of about 3 billion base sults in a male?
pairs and divided into thousands of genes
A. XX
on 23 pairs of chromosomes, all the DNA
in the human species is found here B. YY
A. pedigree C. XY
B. x-linked gene D. none of above

60. Who is more likely to have a sex-linked 65. Hemophilia is recessive diseases carried on
recessive disorder (such as hemophilia or the X chromosome. Can a male be a carrier
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy)/ of this sex linked disease?

A. Males A. Yes
B. Females B. No
C. Both sexes have an equal chance. C. Maybe
61. Albinism is an inherited condition in which 66. Color blindness is X linked recessive, what
pigment does not develop in the skin, hair are the chances a color blind female and a
and eyes. The allele for albinism is reces- normal male will have affected male chil-
sive.What are the chances of albino par- dren?
ents having an albino child?
A. 100%
A. 0%
B. 75%
B. 25%
C. 50%
C. 75%
D. 25%
D. 100%
67. A rabbit has genes for black fur. However,
62. Tongue rolling is dominant to non-tongue
another gene causes these genes not to
rolling. What are the chances a female
work. This is an example of
who cannot roll her tongue and a homozy-
gous male who can will have children that A. Polygenic Inheritance.
cannot roll their tongue? B. Epistasis.
A. 0% C. Sex-linked Traits.
B. 100% D. none of above
C. 50%
68. H= normal blood clottingh=hemophiliaXHXh
D. 25% x XHYWhat is the probability that their
63. A snapdragon is red, white, or pink. This daughters will have hemophilia?
means it is determined by A. 100%
A. Mendelian genetics. B. 75%
B. incomplete dominance. C. 50%
C. codominance. D. 0%
D. sex-linked inheritance.
69. A chicken is black, white, or black and
64. Characteristics that are encoded in DNA white. This is controlled by
A. genetic trait A. Mendelian inheritance.
B. gene therapy B. incomplete dominance.
C. sex-linked gene C. codominance.
D. pedigree D. sex-linked inheritance.

70. If your mom has the genotype XaXa for a 75. If you are missing or have an extra base
trait, do you automatically have the same at the end of your mutated DNA . What
trait? Why? type of mutation occurred?
A. Yes, she has two recessive alleles A. Substitution
B. Yes, there is only one type of allele B. Frameshift
C. Duplication
C. No, I have to get DNA from dad too
D. Insertion
D. No, I am a boy and don’t get DNA from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mom 76. If a red blood cell has no antigens on its
surface, what is its blood type?
71. The sequence of all 3 billion base pairs of
A. A
human DNA identified by scientists
B. B
A. genetic trait
C. AB
B. Human Genome Project
D. O
C. x-linked trait
77. Hemophilia is a recessive condition. A
D. gene therapy hemophilic man marries a normal homozy-
gous woman. What is the probability that
72. If one strand of DNA had the sequence their son will have hemophilia?
ATCCGGTAC, what is the sequence on the
other strand A. 100%
B. 75%
A. UAGGCCAUG
C. 50%
B. I don’t know
D. 0%
C. TAGGCCATG
78. Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked dis-
D. CATGGCCTA order. Which genotype represents a male
with normal vision? (’c’ is replaced by an
73. Who can a father pass a sex linked gene
‘n’ since technically colorblindness is reces-
to?
sive, so normal vision is dominant and cap-
A. Sons only italized)
B. Daughters only A. XNXN
C. Both sons and daughters B. XnXn
C. XNY
D. none of above
D. XnY
74. For the metamorphosis of the tadpoles,
79. A T T T G A G C C-Original A T T G A G C C-
which of the following elements must be
MutatedThe example above is an example
available in water?
of a:
A. Chlorine
A. Insertion-Frameshift
B. Carbon B. Deletion-Substitution
C. Sulphur C. Deletion-Frameshift
D. Iodine D. All of the above

80. Look at this cross:XB XB:Xb YWhat pro- 85. When a red cow is mated to a white
portion/percent of the male children are bull, all offspring are roan. What are the
colorblind, which is recessive? chances of having roan offspring if two

roan cattle are mated?
A. 100%
A. 50%
B. 75%
B. 100%
C. 25%
C. 0%
D. 0%
D. 75%
81. Shows how traits are passed from gener-
ation to generation within a family, tools 86. Coat color in labs is an example of:
used in studying inheritance patterns A. Polygenic Traits
A. x-linked trait B. Epistasis
B. pedigree C. X-Chromosome Inactivation
C. animal cells D. X-linked traits (same as sex-linked)
D. gene therapy
87. Which of the following can lead to men-
struation in a 21 year old woman during
82. The term used to describe the number of
ovulation?A. Sperms available for fertili-
chromosomes in an egg or sperm cell is
sation.B. Oviducts blocked.C. Sperms not
A. diploid available for fertilisation.D. Oviducts not
B. gamete blocked
C. haploid A. A & B
D. zygote B. B & C
C. A & C
83. Adenine bonds with
D. B & D
A. Guanine
88. Which sex chromosomes are present in all
B. Thymine
mature human sperm cells?
C. Cytosine
A. both X and Y chromosomes
D. Adenine B. either X or Y chromosomes
84. What is the purpose of using a pedigree? C. only X chromosomes
A. To determine the average age of a fam- D. only Y chromosomes
ily
89. Pair of human chromosomes that consist
B. To find out family histories and medical of the x and y chromosomes
records
A. genetic trait
C. To find out whether a couple can have
a boy or a girl B. sex chromosome
C. autosome
D. To trace the inheritance of a certain
trait through generations D. gene therapy

90. In humans, what number chromosome pair C. sex-linked trait

are considered to be the sex chromo-
D. biology
somes?
A. 21 96. Traits that are controlled by only one gene
B. 22 and have a clear dominant and recessive
form.
C. 23
A. Mendelian traits
D. 24
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. non-Mendelian traits
91. A carrier is a who have the disor-
der, but carries a recessive allele. C. pedigree
A. Male, does D. sex-linked trait

B. Female, does not 97. What types of antigens are present in a
C. Male, does not person with O+ blood?
D. Female, does A. A and B
92. Negative blood types can DONATE to what B. Rh, only
types of blood? C. A, B and Rh
A. Negative, only D. None
B. Positive, only
C. Both Negative and Positive 98. How many sex chromosomes do humans
have?
D. none of above
A. 23
93. Chromosome mutation involving a seg-
B. 46
ment of a chromosome breaking off and
flipping before reconnecting. C. 1
A. Deletion D. 2
B. Inversion
99. In a pedigree, what shape represents a
C. Translocation male?
D. Duplication A. circle
94. Type of Trait that is carried on the X or Y B. square
Chromosomes.
C. triangle
A. Sex Linked Trait
D. diamond
B. Co-Dominance
C. Complete Dominance 100. Chromosome mutation involving the re-
peat of a piece of chromosome.
D. Incomplete Dominance
A. Deletion
95. traits controlled by genes on the sex chro-
mosomes B. Inversion
A. pedigree C. Translocation
B. genetic trait D. Duplication

101. The type of inheritance in which alleles C. menstruation, menopause

are found on the X chromosome D. menarche, menopause

107. What type(s) of blood can a person with
B. Codominance
B-blood RECEIVE?
C. Sex-linked inheritance
A. B-, B+, AB-, AB+
D. Polygenic inheritance
B. B-and O-
102. What is the genotype of a male that
C. B-, B+, O-, O+
shows the phenotype of an X linked reces-
sive trait? D. B-and AB-
A. Xy 108. Chart that shows the relationships within
B. Xry a family
C. XRy A. Pedigree
D. Xry r B. Karyotype
103. Who could a daughter inherit a sex linked C. T chart
alled from? D. Key
A. Her mother only
109. If a colorblind male marries a woman
B. Her father only
who is a carrier, what percentage of their
C. Either parent FEMALE children will be colorblind? Do the
D. none of above Punnett square.
A. 0%
104. Colorblindness is more common in males
because it is controlled by B. 25%
A. Mendelian inheritance. C. 50%
B. Incomplete dominance. D. 100%
C. codominance.
110. Inserting normal genes into cells with mu-
D. Sex-linked inheritance. tant genes, result in treatment or cures for
some genetic disorders
105. R = round seeds, r = wrinkled seeds Y =
yellow seeds, y = green seeds What is the A. gene therapy
phenotype of RRYY? B. genetic trait
A. round and green
C. nondisjunction
B. wrinkled and yellow
D. animal cells
C. wrinkled and gree
D. round and yellow 111. What determines the sex of a baby?
A. the father’s blood group
106. Reproductive life of a woman lasts from
to B. the father’s chromosomes
A. menopause, menarche C. the mother’s blood group
B. menarche, menopause D. the mother’s chromosomes

6.14 Crossover 908
112. Epistasis is when the expression of one C. forms hydrogen bonds

gene is masked or modified by another
D. carries instructions for the traits
A. chromosome
B. allele 115. Which organelle is DNA usually found
in?
C. gene
A. cell membrane
D. person
B. vacuole
113. A person who has one recessive and one
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dominant allele for a trait is called a(n) C. chloroplast
A. carrier D. nucleus
B. domineer 116. Alleles A and B both show themselves
C. passer completely in a heterozygous disease.
D. none of above Therefore, it is considered a
A. sex-linked trait
114. What is the purpose of the sequences of
nucleotides in DNA? B. polygenic trait
A. gives DNA the shape needed C. codominant trait
B. prevents mutations D. incomplete dominance trait
6.14 Crossover
1. Distance between two linked genes upon A. A, B, C
a chromosome is measured in cross over B. A, C, B
units, is
C. B, C, A
A. Ratio of crossing over between them
D. B, A, C
B. Cross-over value
C. Number of other genes between them 4. The percentage of crossing over will be
more if
D. None of these A. Linked genes are located far apart

from each other
2. The word ‘crossing over’ is given by B. Linked genes are located close to each
A. Bateson other
B. Darlington C. Genes are not linked
C. Morgan D. Genes are located in a different cell
D. Muller 5. Tetrad formation occurs in ?
3. The map distance between genes A and B A. Diplotene
is 3 units, between B and C 10 units and B. Pachytene
between C and A 7 units. The order of the
genes in a linkage map constructed on the C. Zygotene
above data would perhaps be D. Leptotene

6.14 Crossover 909
6. Arrange the phases of prophase I in order. 12. Which statement is NOT true about Kary-
A. Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene otypes

DiploteneDiakinesis A. Chromosomes (pairs 1-22) are ar-
B. Zygotene Leptotene Pachytene Diaki- ranged by size
nesis Diplotene B. Sex chromosomes are found at the end
C. Leptotene Diakinesis Pachytene Zy-
gotene Diplotene C. A normal karyotype has 46 chromo-
D. DiakinesisZygotene Leptotene somes or 23 pairs
Diplotene Pachytene D. Having missing or extra chromosomes
does not indicate a disorder
7. What is the unit of crossing over
A. Cistron 13. Coupling and repulsion are the two faces
of
B. Muton
A. Crossing over
C. Recon
B. Linkage
C. Chiasmata
8. Linkage was first observed in D. Mutation
A. Field pea
14. Mendel observed that some characters
B. Sweet pea did not assort independently. Later re-
C. Pea searchers found it to be due to
D. Grass pea A. Crossing-over
9. Homologous chromosomes have B. Linkage
A. same size C. Dominance of one trait over the other
B. same shape D. Amitosis
C. same genetic content 15. Mendel did not recognize the linkage phe-
D. all of these nomenon in his experiments because
A. There were many chromosomes to
10. Crossing-over occurs in the handle
A. Leptotene stage B. Characters he studied were located on
B. Pachytene stage different chromosomes
C. Anaphase stage C. He did not have powerful microscope
D. Diakinesis stage D. He studied only pure plants
11. Exchange of genetic material between 16. Crossing over that results in genetic re-
chromatids of homologous chromosomes combination in higher organisms occurs be-
during meiosis is called tween
A. Synapsis A. Two daughter nuclei
B. Chiasmata B. Two different bivalents
C. Transformation C. Sister chromatids of a bivalent
D. Crossing over D. Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent

6.14 Crossover 910
17. Linkage decreases the frequency of C. 7

A. Hybrid D. 9
B. Dominant allele
23. Crossing over in diploid organism is re-
C. Recessive allele sponsible for
D. Both (a) and (b)
A. Dominance of genes
18. Genetic recombination occur through B. Linkage between genes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Mitosis and fertilization C. Segregation of alleles
B. Mitosis and meiosis
D. Recombination of linked allele
C. Meiosis and fertilization
D. None of the above 24. In maize chromosome number is 2n = 20.
The number of linkage groups in it shall be
19. Percentage of crossing over is more A. 20
when..?
B. 40
A. Genes are located in a different cell
B. Genes are not linked C. 10
C. Genes are located close to each other D. 5
25. What will be the number of linkage groups

D. Genes are located apart from each in maize if it has 10 pairs of chromosomes
other
A. 5
20. What is beneficial about crossing over in
B. 10
meiosis?
A. nothing C. 20
B. genetically identical D. 30
C. genetic variation 26. In order to calculate map distance of genes
D. prevents cancer on a chromosome, one must know the
21. For the preparation of genetic maps, the A. Number of mutant genes
recombination frequencies between genes B. Recombination frequency of each gene
are additive over short distances but not locus
over long distances due to
C. Cross over percentage
A. Multiple cross overs
D. Non-cross over percentage
B. Lethal mutation
C. Epistasis 27. How many chromatids are there in homol-
ogous chromosomes?
D. Synaptonemal complex
A. 1
22. Number of linkage group in Pisum sativum
is B. 2
A. 2 C. 3
B. 5 D. 4

6.15 Linkage Mapping 911
28. How many chromosomes are there in ho- B. Bateson and Punnet
mologous chromosomes? C. Sturtevant

A. 1 D. Bridges
B. 2
30. Crossing over causes
C. 3
A. Expression of recessive genes
D. 4
B. Synapsis between homologous chro-
29. Linkage in Drosophila was first discovered mosomes
by C. Recombination between linked genes
A. Morgan D. Linkage between dominant genes
6.15 Linkage Mapping

1. How many genes can be mapped with the A. Independent assortment failed to oc-
help of a double crossover? cur
A. 3 B. Segregation failed to occur
B. 2
C. There was some error in data analysis,
C. 4 the progeny of a test cross are always 1:1
D. either 2 or 3
2. Crossingover occurs between D. This is because of a lethal gene influ-
ence
A. Homologous Non sisters
B. Homologous Sisters 4. How many progeny will be have if we
C. Between both homologous sisters and have 3 genes that are being mapped?
non sisters A. 9
D. Occurs between different crhomo-
somes B. 8
C. 4
3. The progeny of a test cross is not in a 1:1
ratio, this means D. 6
6.16 The Pedigree

1. What should you do after getting your from the first generation have?
hands soapy? A. 2
A. Rinse them off. B. 4
B. Turn off the faucet. C. 5
C. Put lotion on your hands. D. 6
D. Dry them off.
3. A codes for 6 fingers, a codes for 5. An
2. How many kids did the mother and father individual with the genotype AA would

6.16 The Pedigree 912
have C. siblings
A. 6 fingers and not be a carrier D. couples
B. 6 fingers and be a carrier 9. Down Syndrome is an example of
C. 5 fingers A. Sex-linked disorderr
D. none of above B. Autosomal disorder
4. When the genotype consists of a dominant C. nondisjunction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and a recessive allele, the phenotype will D. none of above
be like the allele.
10. How many alleles does a child get from
A. dominant
each parent for a trait?
B. recessive
A. 1
C. both
B. 2
D. neither
C. 3
5. Why do you wash your hands? D. 4
A. to give them exercise
11. In a pedigree, individuals that are carriers
B. to get rid of germs are represented as shapes that are
C. to get dirty A. Not shaded
D. to do your homework B. Fully shaded
6. A is a chart or family tree that tracks C. Half shaded

which members of a family have a particu- D. none of above
lar trait.
12. A cross between a red rose and a white
A. Punnett square rose results in 100% pink roses. When
B. Pedigree pink roses are self-pollinated, the proba-
ble phenotypic ratio seen in their offspring
C. Karyotype
would be
D. History Check
A. 75% pink, 25% white
7. If nondisjunction occurs during meiosis, B. 75% red, 25% white
A. some gametes may have an extra copy C. 100% pink
of some genes
D. 25% red, 50% pink, 25% white
B. only 2 gametes may form instead of 4
13. Black hair color is dominant to white hair
C. the gamete cannot join another to
color in mice. Determine the phenotypic ra-
form an organism
tio for the offpring of a heterozygous black
D. the gametes redistribute chromo- mouse and a white mouse.
somes after meiosis
A. 4 Black:0 White
8. What is offspring? B. 3 Black:1 White
A. children C. 2 Black:2 White
B. parents D. 0 Black:4 White

14. Which answer best describes codominant 20. What genetic disorder is when a person’s
alleles? blood clots very slowly or not at all?
A. Down Syndrome

A. Both are equally dominant
B. Both are equally recessive B. Hemophilia
C. Neither are dominant or recessive C. Cystic Fibrosis
D. none of above D. Sickle-Cell
15. An Inherited Disorder caused by a reces- 21. In a pedigree are circles and organisms
sive allele who express the trait under study are
A. Cystic Fibrosis A. females / not shaded in

B. males / not shaded in
B. Polydactyly
C. females / shaded in
C. Measels
D. males / shaded in
D. Cirrhosis of the Liver
22. Which of the following genotypes could
16. In humans, the male has not belong to the offspring of parents rep-
A. One X chromosome resented by genotypes Bb x bb?
B. Two X chromosomes A. BB
C. Two Y chromosomes B. Bb
D. One X and one Y chromosome C. bb
D. all of these genotypes are possible for
17. A fish’s body is covered in what? their offspring
A. feathers
23. Viruses are
B. scales
A. producers
C. fur
B. consumers
D. spikes
C. parasites
18. Other disorders are caused by changes in D. decomposers
the overall structure or number of what?
24. If you have a half shaded shape in your
A. Alleles pedigree, it represents what?
B. Genes A. That the person is diseased
C. Chromosomes B. That the person is deceased
D. none of above C. That the person is not born yet
19. A chart or family tree that tracks which D. That the person is a carrier of a dis-
members of a family have a particular trait ease or trait
or disease. 25. a circle on a pedigree represents a
A. Carrier A. male
B. Karyotype B. female
C. Pedigree C. dominant
D. Genome D. recessive

26. Which genotype is homozygous domi- C. X-linked recessive

nant? D. Autosomal recessive
A. HH
32. A chart that displays family relationships
B. Hh indicating traits or disorders
C. hh A. Punnett square
D. none of above B. Pedigree
27. Of 12 hamsters just born, 9 have brown C. Karyotype chart
NARAYAN CHANGDER
fur and 3 have white fur. The trait for D. none of above
white fur is considered to be
33. In a pedigree, if an organism is half shaded
A. recessive in and half not shaded in, what are two
B. weak terms that are correct about that organ-
ism?
C. strong
A. heterozygote / carrier
D. dominant
B. homozygote / carrier
28. When working to find genotypes of indi- C. heterozygote / affected
viduals in a pedigree, you may need to use
a D. homozygote / affected
A. Punnett square 34. If the male or female does not have the
trait listed in the pedigree chart, then the
B. Dihybrid cross
circle or square is
C. Karyotype chart
A. empty
D. none of above
B. fully shaded
29. How many pairs of chromosomes are usu- C. half-shaded
ally found in human body cells? D. spotted, like a leopard
A. 46
35. Of sixteen rabbits just born, thirteen have
B. 2 brown fur and three have white fur. The
C. 23 trait for white fur is considered to be
D. 123, 997 A. recessive
B. bossy
30. A heterozygous genotype is represented
by a(n) circle or square. C. stronger
A. empty D. dominant
B. fully shaded 36. Codominance is when

C. half-shaded A. traits blend together when heterozy-
gous
D. invisible
B. Both traits are shown when heterozy-
31. If significantly more males show the trait gous
than females, it is most likely C. There is one true dominant and one
A. X-linked dominant true recessive allele
B. Autosomal dominant D. both traits are recessive

37. If long noses are dominant to short noses, 42. A parent with genotype SsYy could pro-
the genotype Nn will be duce what gametes?

A. A short nose A. SY, Sy, sY, sy
B. A long nose B. SY, SY, sy, sy
C. A medium nose C. Sy, Sy, Sy, Sy

D. Sy, Sy, sY, sY
D. No nose (gasp!)
43. There are no differences between family
38. A horizontal line in a pedigree chart be- trees and pedigree charts.
tween two parents represents
A. true
A. mating (reproduction)
B. false
B. best friends
C. Who knows?
C. frenemies D. Who cares?
D. offspring
44. In what disorder does a person have an
39. Raylene inherited certain physical charac- extra copy on its 21 chromosome?
teristics from her parents. Which of these A. Down Syndrome
follow is not an inherited characteristic? B. Sickle-Cell
A. blue eyes C. Hemophilia
B. wavy, red hair D. Cystic Fibrosis
C. dimpled cheeks 45. Is a tomato a fruit?
D. long fingernails A. Yes
40. Hemophilia is a recessive sex-linked trait. B. No
If H = normal & h = has hemophilia, C. Umm.
which genotype represents a male with D. Some consider it.
hemophilia.
A. XHY 46. What would indicate a normal human
male?
B. XHXh
A. XX
C. XhXh
B. X
D. XhY C. XY
41. Which term correctly describes an individ- D. XXY
ual with a pair of the same alleles for a
47. Name the condition in which gene that are
trait?
NOT allele interact
A. homologous A. Dosage compensation
B. heterozygous B. Epistasis
C. homozygous C. cystic fibrosis
D. heterologus D. Huntington

48. Which of the following combinations of C. brother

sex chromosomes represent a female?
D. sister
A. XY
B. XXY 54. If a circle or square is completely shaded
in, this means
C. XX
A. he or she is affected
D. none of above
B. he or she is unaffected
NARAYAN CHANGDER
49. When 2 pea plants heterozygous for
C. he or she is a carrier only
height (Tt) are crossed, what is the ratio
of the resulting genotypes (TT:Tt:tt)? D. none of above
A. 1:2:1
55. Name the condition in which an individual
B. 2:1:1 has one copy of the x chromosome inacti-
C. 0:3:1 vated
D. 0:2:2 A. Dosage compensation

B. Epistasis
50. What is Donald Trump’s middle name?
C. cystic fibrosis
A. Ralph
B. John D. Huntington
C. Kevin 56. In humans, the 23rd pair of chromosomes

D. David are called:
A. Autosomes
51. In a pedigree chart, men are represented
by B. Sex chromosomes
A. Circles C. Chromatids
B. Diamonds D. Gender chromosomes
C. Squares
57. Which genotype is homozygous reces-
D. none of above sive?
52. Which of the following conditions results A. HH
in mucus lining the lungs, liver, and diges- B. Hh
tive tract?
C. hh
A. cystic fibrosis
D. none of above
B. sickle cell anemia
C. Tay-Saachs 58. How long should you wash your hands
D. Hunington’s for?
A. about 15 minutes
53. All males receive their X chromosome from
their B. about 15 days
A. mother C. about 15 seconds
B. father D. about 15 hours

59. In a pedigree, individuals that are unaf- 64. An individual with two different alleles for
fected are represented as shapes that are a specific trait is said to be

A. Not shaded A. homozygous
B. Fully shaded B. heterogenous
C. Half shaded C. homogenous
D. none of above D. heterozygous
60. Complex molecule that carries genetic 65. In a certain species of rabbits, black coat
information that defines an organism’s color is dominant over brown coat color.
traits. It is stored in the nucleus. What is the probability of producing a rab-
bit with brown coat color from two rabbits
A. Protein that are both heterozygous for black coat
B. DNA color?
C. RNA A. 0%
D. Glucose nucleic acid (GNA) B. 25%
C. 75%
61. If White phenotype is Recessive then its
genotype will be D. 100%
A. aa 66. In a pedigree chart, a male is represented

B. AA by a
C. Aa A. circle
D. None of the above B. square

C. rhombus
62. A pea plant is heterozygous for height (Tt)
D. triangle
and it is crossed with a homozygous short
(tt) plant. Use a Punnett square to deter- 67. What does a double line mean?
mine the probability of one of their off-
spring being short. A. double mint gum
A. 100% B. twins
B. 75%% C. double relation
C. 50% D. double trouble
D. 25% 68. The variety of skin color in humans comes

about partly because more than 4 different
63. If a trait SKIPS a generation, it is an indi- genes control this trait. This is an example
cation that the trait is of
A. dominant A. Codominance
B. recessive B. Incomplete dominance
C. incompletely dominant C. multiple alleles
D. co-dominant D. polygenic traits

69. What animal has wings, a beak, and can 74. In a pedigree the circle represents a
fly? A. male
A. dog B. female
B. cow C. child
C. bird D. adult
D. mosquito 75. Which of these would best be described as
a phenotype?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
70. If you wash your hands often, you can
PREVENT germs from spreading. What A. blue eyes
does PREVENT mean? B. mutation
A. gross C. Bb
B. stop D. Tt
C. grow 76. One dog carries homozygous, long-haired

traits (SS), and its mate carries homozy-
D. wash
gous short-haired traits (ss). Use a Pun-
nett square to determine the probability
71. This genetic disorder causes a reduc-
of one of their offspring having long hair.
tion/absence of melanin in the skin, hair
and eyes. Located on chromosome 6, this A. 100%
disorder is common throughout the animal B. 75%
kingdom.
C. 50%
A. Anemia
D. 25%
B. Albinism
77. Which of the following could be the geno-
C. Myopia type of a carrier?
D. Hemophilia A. BB
B. Hh
72. An individual with heterozygous genes is
represented by a(n) circle or square. C. tt
A. empty D. DD
B. fully shaded 78. Select the recessive genotype

C. half-shaded A. TT
D. striped (like a zebra) B. Tt
C. tt
73. How many alleles does an individual carry
D. None
for a certain trait?
A. 1 79. Achondroplasia is an autosomal disease,
there for it affects which chromosome
B. 2 pair:
C. 3 A. 4
D. 4 B. 23

C. 24 85. If the male or female has the trait listed

D. 46 in the pedigree chart, then the circle or
square is

80. Color Blindness is a sex linked disease. A. empty
Therefore, it HAS to affect which pair of
B. fully shaded
chromosomes?
C. half-shaded
A. 21
D. spotted, like a leopard
B. 23
C. 24 86. Who would use a pedigree?
D. 1-22 A. Doctor
B. Scientist
81. How did a man go outside in rain without
protection, and not have a hair on his head C. Grandma
get wet? D. All of the above
A. He was bald 87. Which gene is heterozygous?
B. He had an umbrella A. TT
C. It wasn’t raining. B. Tt
D. He was Aquaman. C. rr
82. Each generation in a pedigree is marked D. YY
with
88. What does a horizontal line between a
A. Arabic numerals square and a circle mean?
B. Names of individuals A. They are siblings
C. Roman numerals B. They are cousins
D. none of above C. They are married (”together”)
83. Which of the following terms applies to D. They are the children
traits, such as human eye color, that are 89. What shape represents a female in a pedi-
controlled by more than one gene? gree?
A. polygenic A. Circle
B. mutants B. Square
C. carriers C. Diamond
D. homozygous recessive D. Triangle
84. A vertical line in a pedigree chart repre- 90. Today doctors use tools such as to help
sents diagnose genetic disorders?
A. parents A. History Charts
B. offspring B. Tables
C. pets C. Karyotypes
D. mascots D. Genes

91. Phenotype refers to the of an individ- 97. Achondroplasia is an autosomal disease.

ual Can a male be a carrier for this disease?
A. genetic makeup A. Yes
B. physical appearance B. No
C. recessive alleles C. Yes, if he has two X chromosomes.
D. dominant alleles D. Not enough information.
92. Besides genetics, what else influences an
NARAYAN CHANGDER
98. Viruses are found in
organism’s genotype?
A. air
A. environment
B. water
B. diet
C. soil
C. stage of the organism’s life cycle
D. none of these D. all of these
93. Doctors STERILIZE their tools before using 99. Genes code for
them on patients. What do you think STER- A. Protein
ILIZING does?
B. Fats
A. spread germs
C. Other nucleic acids
B. grows germs
D. Carbohydrates
C. eats germs
D. kills germs 100. In humans, chromosomes 1-22 are
called:
94. Which pair of chromosomes carry the
A. Autosomes
genes that determine sex in humans?
B. Sex chromosomes
A. Pair 1
C. Chromatids
B. Pair 46
C. Pair 13 D. Carotenoids
D. Pair 23 101. Heredity information for traits is located

in
95. The genotype Aa is called . . .
A. chromosomes on genes
A. Homozygous recessive
B. genes of chromosomes
B. Hybrid
C. Purebred C. lysosomes in cytoplasm
D. Homozygous dominant D. the mitichondria
96. A parent with genotype YyRR could pro- 102. nonliving particle that can reproduce
duce which gametes? within a living cell
A. YR, YR, yR, yR A. endospore
B. Yy, Rr, yy, rr B. virus
C. Yr, Yr, yr, yR C. vacuole
D. YR, YR, yr, yr D. nucleus

6.17 Mutations 921
103. What is the symbol for an affected 106. Gregor Mendel developed some basic
male? principles of heredity by

A. Half Circle A. crossing pea plants
B. Half Square B. breeding fruit flies
C. Full Shaded Circle C. cutting off the tails of mice
D. Full Shaded Square D. growing bacteria in a laboratory
104. If Black phenotype is Dominant then its 107. What is the symbol for an Affected
genotype will be Male?
A. Half Circle
A. BB
B. Half Square
B. Bb
C. Full Shaded Circle
C. bb
D. Full Shaded Square
D. Both BB and Bb
108. Color Blindness is a sex-linked disease.
105. A pedigree chart tracks specific Therefore, it is located on which chromo-
trait(s). some?
A. one A. Y chromosome
B. two B. X chromosome
C. three C. Any of the 46 chromosomes
D. 15 D. Any autosome
6.17 Mutations
1. What does a nonsense mutation do? 3. What do genes do?
A. Change one amino acid to a stop codon. A. Give the body chromosomes.
B. Control the DNA.
B. Change one amino acid to a different C. Control the production of proteins.
amino acid.
D. none of above
C. Change one amino acid to a start
codon. 4. These molecules are made up of amino
acids.
D. none of above
A. proteins
2. A mutation can be passed to offspring only B. bases
if it takes place in this kind of cell
C. ribosomes
A. skin cell
D. nucleii
B. gamete cell
5. When an extra base has been added to the
C. somatic cell
sequence of bases, this is what type of mu-
D. blood cell tation?

6.17 Mutations 922
A. Substitution C. deletion
B. Deletion D. insertion
C. Inversion
11. Where does translation take place in the
D. Insertion cell?
6. Mutations during translation are harmful A. nucleus
because B. cytoplasm
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Everything after the mutation will be C. on tRNA
translated more quickly
D. none of above
B. everything after the mutation is trans-
lated incorrectly 12. A chromosome is found to be shorter than
C. Translation will fail to start it’s homologous match. Which type of mu-
tation would this most likely be?
D. none of above
A. insertion
7. What is the mRNA strand that would re-
sult from the DNA template strand CCTA? B. deletion
A. GGAT C. translocation
B. CCAT D. inversion
C. GGAU 13. What is the name of the process by which
D. CCAU information from DNA is copied into RNA?
8. Changes in DNA sequences that affect ge- A. replication

netic information are known as B. transcription
A. replications C. translation
B. transformations D. mutation
C. translations
14. In an unmutated strand of DNA having 40
D. mutations molecules of thymine means you also have
9. What type of chromosome disorder causes 400 molecules of?
a sex cell to have either one too many chro- A. Adeninie
mosomes or one too few chromosomes:
B. Cytosine
A. translocation
C. Guanine
B. inversion
D. none of above
C. nondisjunction
D. none of above 15. mutations cause changes in traits be-
cause?
10. When there is one less base on the mRNA
A. mutations affect nucleosynthesis
strand than the DNA strand it is a mu-
tation B. Mutations affect gamete production
A. missense C. mutation affect meiosis
B. nonsense D. mutations affect protein synthesis

6.17 Mutations 923
16. What happens in Translocation? B. The substrate will no longer be able to

A. They all live normaly bind to the active site

C. It could lose all its strength
B. They all repeat each other
D. The active site will no longer be able to
C. Different chromosomes cross-over
bind to the substrate
with each other
D. Something happens 22. How can sickle cell disease be diagnosed?
A. Karyotype
17. Having extra chromosomes may actually
be good for plants but lethal for animals. B. Blood test
This is called C. Physical
A. polyploidy D. X-Ray
B. chromosomality 23. which of the following mutations results in
C. haploid the loss or addition of a single nucleotide,
changing the DNA triplets
D. diploid
A. missense
18. Identify which of the following is a genetic
B. nonsense
mutation disease..
C. frameshift
A. Common head cold
D. silent
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Heart attack 24. A mutation occurs to a gene in a body cell
that results in tumors growing along a per-
D. Chicken pox son’s nerves or under the skin. They in-
crease the chances of the person having
19. A gene mutation caused by the substitu-
learning disabilities. The impact of this mu-
tion of one nucleotide (base) for another
tation on the organism is
A. Frameshift
A. beneficial.
B. Point Mutation
B. harmful.
C. Deletion
C. neutral.
D. Insertion D. none of above
20. What is the relationship between proteins 25. Which of the following is an example of a
and DNA? hurtful mutation?
A. The code found in a protein determines A. Developing cancer
a DNA molecule’s sequence.
B. Makes the organism faster
B. DNA is made up of protein molecules.
C. Makes the organism a predator
C. DNA contains the codes for proteins.
D. Develops sharp claws
D. none of above
26. An environmental factor that can cause a
21. What happens if the shape of an enzyme change in the DNA of an organism is called
is changed due to a mutation? a
A. The enzyme denatures A. toxin

6.17 Mutations 924
B. mutagen 32. Mutations can be caused by things in the

C. nitrogenous base environment except for
D. nucleotide A. radiation
B. clouds
27. A mutation can be passed to offspring only
if it takes place in a(n) cell. C. chemicals
A. sex D. viruses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. rare
33. Original:ATC CATMutation:ATC GCATWhat
C. diploid mutation occurred?
D. none of above
A. deletion
28. What is the three base sequence of mRNA B. insertion
that codes for a single amino acid?
C. silent
A. Anticodon
D. transverse
B. Codon
C. Protein 34. Mutations that are neither harmful nor
D. none of above helpful:
A. are neutral and have a negative effect
29. Which type of mutation is normally more
on an organism
severe because they affect more than one
codon? B. are neutral and have no effect on an
A. Point Mutations organism
B. Substitution mutations C. are neutral and have both a positive

and negative effect on an organism
C. mutations where A’s are replaced with
T’s D. none of above
D. Frameshift Mutaitons
35. Which shows a mutated segment of DNA?
30. Mutations can benefit humans because ATTCGC
they can: A. UAAGCG
A. Cause illness B. TAAGCG
B. Make an organism more suited to live
C. TAGGCG
in its environment.
C. Make organisms live shorter lives D. none of above
D. Cause organisms to grow extra limbs. 36. The process to go from DNA to mRNA is
31. Chromosomes are
A. Tightly wound strands of DNA A. translation
B. Tightly wound proteins B. transcription

C. Found in the mitochondria C. replication
D. Not important for cell division D. none of above

6.17 Mutations 925
37. Cell mutations within a DNA sequence are A. A section of mRNA that codes for a
A. unnatural events that are harmful to polypeptide chain

genetic diversity B. A section of DNA that codes for a pro-
tein
B. unnatural events that always affect
the phenotype C. A section of DNA that codes for a
polypeptide chain
C. natural events that produce genetic di-
versity D. A section of mRNA that codes for a pro-
tein
D. natural events that always affect the
phenotype 43. tRNA plays a role in which of the follow-
ing?
38. What kind of mutations exist?
A. picking up the amino acid specified by
A. neutral mutations the anticodon
B. all of these B. recognizing the appropriate codons in
C. beneficial mutations mRNA
D. harmful mutations C. translating codons into amino acids
D. all of these are correct
39. A mutation that occurs in the gametes
of an organism will most likely be trans- 44. Beneficial mutations can lead to this occur-
ferred to? ring:
A. The siblings of the organism A. genetic disorders
B. The organism itself B. evolution
C. The offspring of the organism C. somatic cell mutations
D. The mating partner of the organism D. none of above
40. If a mutation is beneficial to an organism, 45. Genes determine our:

this mutation is likely to A. parents
A. increase in the population B. traits
B. decrease in the population C. chromosomes
C. go extinct D. mutations
D. have a harmful effect
46. The process that uses mRNA to make
41. What disease can be diagnosed with a amino acids, then proteins, is known as:
karyotype? A. Replication
A. Sickle cell disease B. Transcription
B. Down syndrome C. Translation
C. Hemophilia D. Mutation
D. Colorblindness
47. What is it called when a point mutation
42. What is the best A level definition of a messes up several amino acids?
gene? A. Chromosomal Mutation

6.17 Mutations 926
B. Reading Frame Mutation 53. When one nitrogen base is added to a

C. Frameshift Mutation DNA strand, what type of mutation has
occurred?
D. Amino Acid Mutation
A. Deletion mutation.
48. Which chromosomal mutation “flips” a B. Insertion mutation.
portion of the chromosome causing the sec-
C. Chromosomal mutation.
tions not to match up?
D. Point mutation.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. insertion
B. deletion 54. Gene:ABC New Gene:BBCWhat mutation
A. deletion
C. invertion
B. insertion
D. translocation
C. substitution
49. produces an extra copy of all or part of a D. transversion
chromosome:chromosomal mutation
A. deletion 55. The main function of tRNA is to
A. carry a message that, when translated,
B. translocation
forms proteins
C. inversion
B. form a portion of ribosomes
D. duplication
C. string together complementary RNA
50. Which of the following can increase the and DNA strands
rate of mutation? D. bring amino acids from the cytoplasm
A. UV Radiation to the ribosomes
B. Viruses 56. What Are Mutations?

C. toxic chemicals A. change in a nucleotide sequence
D. All of the above B. change in appearance of an organism
C. random copying of cells
51. An organism’s is its genetic make up,
or two alleles. D. a duplication of a whole chromosome
A. genotype 57. What situation causes a translocation?

B. phenotype A. Part of the chromosome is missing
C. jeans B. Part of the chromosome is attached
backwards
D. phonetype
C. Part of the chromosome breaks off and
52. All of the following are inherited traits of attaches to a different chromosome
organisms except for: D. Part of a chromosome is duplicated
A. fur color
58. Mutations that cause dramatic changes in
B. opposable thumbs protein structure are often
C. ability to perform tricks A. harmful
D. pupil size B. helpful

6.17 Mutations 927
C. neutral 65. if a single nucleotide base is added or

D. none of above deleted the entire reading frame will?

A. shift, causing a frameshift mutation
59. YOU NEED YOUR CODON CHART!
B. move, causing a delection
A. substitution-silent
B. substitution-missense C. move, causing an addition
C. substitution-nonsense D. shift, causing a deletion
D. frameshift 66. When only 1 protein is affected by a mu-
60. When a nitrogen base is added to a gene, tation, it is most likely a
this is called a mutation. A. chromosomal mutation
A. deletion B. genetic mutation
B. insertion C. gene mutation
C. substitution D. environmental mutation
D. point
67. A scientist has inserted human insulin
61. A mutation in which only one nucleotide is genes into the DNA of some bacteria in
altered is called a: order for them to begin producing insulin.
A. Frameshift Mutation This is an example of
B. Deletion Mutation A. codominant genes
C. Point Mutation B. mutations
D. Insertion Mutation C. selective breeding
62. What type(s) of mutations cause a frame- D. genetic engineering
shift to occur?
68. What are the three types of mutation?
A. Additions
B. Deletions A. Insertion, Deletion, Subsitution
C. Both additions and deletions B. Deletion, Newstion, Subsitution
D. Point mutations C. Newstion, Deletion, Insertion
63. DNA molecule segment is:TTACGCAAG D. Insertion, Newstion, Substitution
A. Substitution 69. Inversion

B. Insertion A. involves two nonhomologous chromo-
C. Inversion somes, part of one breaks off and is trans-
D. Translocation ferred to the other.
B. occurs when a piece of chromosome is
64. What point mutation changes one base?
lost or removed
A. Substitution
C. is when a segment of a chromosome
B. Insertion flips and reattaches
C. Deletion D. occurs when a gene sequence is re-
D. none of above peated

6.17 Mutations 928
70. Tay-Sachs is caused by a mutation in the B. lucky

gene. C. random event
A. GENE D. transmutation
B. HEXA
76. A monomer of DNA is called a(n)
C. HEXAGON
A. Monosaccharide
D. TASA
B. Amino Acid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
71. Consider this DNA nucleotide se- C. Triglyceride
quence:ACG GTT CTA GACWhich mutation
will result in a frame shift? D. Nucleotide
A. substitution of T for the first A in the 77. Which of the following mutations is most
sequence likely to create a nonfunctional protein in
a eukaryotic organism.
B. deletion of GTT from the sequence
A. a deletion of a nucleotide in an intron
C. insertion of C at the start of the se-
quence B. a deletion of a nucleotide near the be-
ginning of an exon
D. substitution of ATA for ACG in the se-
quence C. a deletion of one nucleotide in the last
codon of the last exon
72. The type of mutation in which a base is left
D. none of above
out or removed from a gene
A. substitution 78. What is the purpose for anti-codons?
B. insertion A. to ensure the correct amino acid is
dropped off
C. deletion
B. to match the strand of DNA
D. none of above
C. to decode a sequence of 4 nucleotides
73. A possible mutagen is into an amino acid
A. anticodon D. to make me hate biology
B. translocation
79. A mutation where one single nucleotide is
C. hemoglobin changed is a
D. ultraviolet light A. chromosome mutation
74. A mutation is any change in the of a B. gene mutation
gene or chromosome. C. mutagen
A. DNA D. none of above
B. mRNA 80. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair
C. rRNA with this partial strandATG TGA CAG
D. none of above A. ATG TGA CAG
75. If a mutation does not change the amino B. TAC ACT GTC
acid in a protein this is called C. GTA AGT GAC
A. slient mutation D. CAT TCA CTG

6.17 Mutations 929
81. A mutation that affects a group of genes 87. The correct amino acid sequence for
is part of a gene is Alanine-Glycine-Proline-
Serine-Asparagine-Stop. After a substi-

A. gene mutation
tution mutation the same amino acid se-
B. mutagen quence was alanine-serine-proline-serine-
C. chromosome mutation asparagine-stop. What type of mutation
D. none of above is this:
A. missense
82. Mutations can occur in the chromosomes
B. silent
of all types of cells. Mutations that are
passed on to offspring must occur in C. nonsense
A. gametes. D. none of above
B. body cells. 88. mutations produce an extra copy of all
C. stem cells. or part of a chromosome.
D. somatic cells. A. Nondisjunction
B. Translocation
83. when you have two different genes
C. Duplication
A. heterozygous
D. Deletion
B. dominant
89. refers to the full set of chromosomes
C. homozygous
according to descending order manner with
D. none of above respect to its size & shape.
84. A desert animal with extra thick fur/hair A. Karyotype
would be B. Pie diagram
A. Harmful C. Bar Graph
B. Neutral D. All
C. Beneficial 90. Changes that occur in your body cells are
D. Happy A. germ cell mutations
85. The type of mutation in which a base is B. somatic cell mutations
added to a gene C. mutagens
A. substitution D. gene
B. insertion
91. How can polyploidy be used as an advan-
C. deletion tage?
D. none of above A. Polyploidy gives an organism extra
chromosomes.
86. DNA is copied into RNA using
B. Polyploidy makes flowers and fruits
A. DNA Polymerase smaller.
B. RNA Polymerase C. Polyploidy can make flowers and fruits
C. DNA Helicase bigger.
D. RNA Helicase D. none of above

6.17 Mutations 930
92. Where do mutations occur? 98. In DNA, Adenine bonds with

A. DNA and RNA A. Guanine
B. DNA B. Thymine
C. RNA C. Cytosine
D. mRNA and tRNA D. Adenine
93. What significant role does DNA play in the 99. is a mutation in which a new base is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
formation and development of an organ- added.
ism? A. Deletion
A. encodes information B. Inversion
B. provides protection from disease C. Substitution
C. produces food material D. Insertion
D. releases energy 100. The process where mRNA is read and
94. What is a barr body? made into an amino acid chain.
A. An inactivated X chromosome A. Transcription
B. An activated X chromosome B. Translation

C. Transportation
C. An inactivated Y chromosome
D. Transient
D. An active Y chromosome
101. original chromosomeABC-DEFmutated
95. Normal-GAG-CTC-GAC-AGAMutantGAG
chromosomeAED-CBF
CTC-CAC-AGA
A. duplication
A. no mutation
B. translocation
B. substitution
C. inversion
C. insertion
D. none of above
D. deletion
102. How are similarities passed from parent
96. Identify the INSERTION mutation form the to offspring?
following:ATG CCA AAT
A. through teaching
A. ATG TCA AAT
B. through learning
B. ATG CCT AAA T
C. through blood
C. ATC CA AT
D. through genes
D. ATG CCA AAT
103. A factor in the environment that can
97. Another name for a point mutation is: cause a mutation
A. Substitution A. mRNA
B. Frameshift B. tRNA
C. Insertion C. Protein
D. Deletion D. Mutagen

6.17 Mutations 931
104. The final product resulting from the cellu- 109. Type of mutation that changes one nitro-
lar process of transcription is ? gen base into a different nitrogen base is

A. An exact copy of DNA
A. a point mutation.
B. A complimentary strand of mRNA
B. a frame-shift mutation.
C. A complimentary strand of tRNA
C. an addition mutation.
D. A strand of multiple amino acids held
D. a deletion mutation.
together with peptide bonds
110. The processes of deletion, insertion, and
105. Changes in the DNA sequence that affect substitution can alter genes in a skin cell.
the expression of genetic information are The altered genes will most likely be
called passed on to
A. infiltrations A. sperm cells
B. mutations B. egg cells
C. replications C. every cell that develops from that skin
cell
D. transformations
D. only a few of the cells that develop
106. Identify the following mutation:Original from that skin cell
DNA:ATCGTC Mutated DNA:AATCGTC
111. Domestic cats have 38 chromosomes in
A. Substitution their skin cells. How many chromosomes
B. Insertion are in the gamete of a domestic cat?
C. Deletion A. 76
C. 19
107. Mutations that do not affect the individ- D. 9
ual organism but can be passed on to the
organism’s offspring are called: 112. The genetic code carries
A. somatic cell mutations A. molecules through the cell membrane
B. cancer B. ATP across the cytoplasm
C. germ cell mutations C. instructions for translating informa-
tion into proteins
D. none of above
D. lysosomes around to kill bacteris
108. A mutation that results in the nucleotide
113. What type of chromosomal mutation
sequence of the DNA or RNA for a specific
gains a copy of the same genes it already
gene is called:
has?
A. chromosome mutation A. Duplication
B. allele mutation B. Inversion
C. point mutation C. Deletion
D. none of above D. Translocation

6.17 Mutations 932
114. Original:A A U U G G C CMutated:A U U U C. During the G phase of interphase

G G C CWhat kind of mutation occurred? D. During meiosis
A. Substitution
120. What mutation has occurred here? orig-
B. Addition inal DNA sequence:T-G-A-C-C-Amutated
C. Deletion DNA sequence:T-G-A-C-A
D. Frameshift A. Substitution
B. Deletion
115. What are mutations?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Insertion
A. Changes in RNA
D. no mutation
B. Changes in DNA
121. When a cell divides after cytokinesis (in
C. Both
Mitosis), what do we call the 2 new cells?
D. none of above
A. parent cells
116. What type of chromosomal mutation B. son cells
gains extra genes that it did not have be- C. identical daughter cells
fore?
D. different daughter cells
A. Duplication
122. A change in the natural sequence of bases
B. Inversion
in DNA structure is called a
C. Deletion
A. mutation.
D. Translocation
B. reconstruction.
117. Mutations that occur at a single point in C. revolution.
the DNA sequence are: D. translation.
A. frameshift
123. An example of a mutation where a piece
B. point of chromosome breaks off and attaches to
C. deletion another chromosome is called
D. none of above A. trisomy
B. translocation
118. What does it mean to be a genetic car-
rier? C. inversion
A. They could pass it along to their chil- D. deletion
dren. 124. A nonsense substitution mutation in a
B. They don’t have the disease them- gene does the following:
selves. A. switches the codon to a stop codon be-
C. Both are true. fore it should have thus shortening the
length of the protein
D. none of above
B. changes one amino acid to different
119. What one is not a way in which muta- one
tions typically arise. C. does not change the amino acid being
A. Exposure to mutagens added.
B. During DNA replication D. none of above

6.17 Mutations 933
125. change in one DNA base pair. Instead 130. The function of is to combine with pro-
of substituting one amino acid for another, teins to form ribosomes.
the cell to stop building a protein A. rRNA

A. Nonsense mutation B. tRNA
B. Missense mutation C. mRNA
C. Silent mutation D. DNA
D. Deletion mutation 131. What term describes when mRNA is read

3 consecutive letters (bases) at a time and
126. Choose the nucleotide sequence of the it codes for a single amino acid?
RNA strand that would be complementary A. Codon
to the following strand:GTAGTCA
B. Anticodon
A. UATUAGA C. Polypeptide
B. ACGACTG D. Gene
C. CAUCAGU 132. What point mutation adds one base?
D. CATCAGT A. Substitution
B. Deletion
127. DNA molecule segment is:TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. C. Insertion
This is an example of mutation. D. none of above
A. Substitution 133. What type of chromosomal mutation
B. Deletion loses genes?
C. Insertion A. Duplication
B. Inversion
D. Inversion
C. Deletion
128. What does a missense mutation do? D. Translocation
A. Change one amino acid to a stop codon. 134. Mutations that occur at a single base in
the DNA sequence are:
B. Change one amino acid to a different A. frameshift
amino acid. B. point
C. Change one amino acid to a start C. deletion
codon.
D. insertion
D. none of above
135. Involve changes in one or a few nu-
129. Which are the 4 DNA bases? cleotides. This is because they occur at a
single point in the DNA sequence.
A. RNA, adenine, thymine, guanine
A. Point Mutation
B. uracil, adenine, guanine, thymine, B. Single Mutation
C. adenine, thymine, cytosine guanine C. Frameshift Mutation
D. RNA, DNA, ribosome, protein D. none of above

6.17 Mutations 934
136. What is the definition of DNA mutation? 142. This is the triplet of bases on the end of
A. The original DNA strand a tRNA molecule
B. The strand with four pairs A. Anticodon
C. A change in the DNA strand B. Codon
D. The strand in a double helix
C. Protein
137. when one or more nucleotides are in-
D. none of above
serted
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. addition 143. Chromosome:ABCDEFMutation:ACEFCDWhat
B. deletion chromosomal mutation occurred?
C. insertion A. deletion
D. remake
B. substitution
138. What kind of mutation removes DNA?
C. inversion
A. Deletion
D. insertion
B. Insertion
C. Substitution
144. Which of the following are examples of
D. none of above mutagens?
139. What happens in Inversion? A. UV Radiation
A. Its repeated B. Viruses
B. They all get deleted
C. toxic chemicals
C. A section of the chromosome gets
flipped D. All of the above
D. they start to cross-over
145. This type of mutation occurs when a part
140. Observe the amino acid sequence of the DNA is not duplicated or is lost dur-
below.Before:METHIONINE-VALINE- ing DNA replication.
PROLINE-LYSINE-LEUCINEAfter:METHIONINE-
VALINE-PROLINE-SERINE-LEUCINEWhat A. Deletion
type of mutation is shown above? B. Duplication
A. deletion
C. Insertion
B. insertion
C. substitution D. Invertion
D. frame shift
146. Many mutations
141. The genetic code
A. Occur randomly
A. is composed of lipids
B. Occur because of bad eating habits
B. is composed of protein
C. is composed of carbohydrates C. Occur because of lack of exercise
D. is composed of nucleotides D. none of above

6.17 Mutations 935
147. What is the main purpose of the se- 152. A substitution mutation that results in a
quences of nitrogen bases? change in the amino acid being added is
called a(n):

A. gives DNA the shape needed for trans-
lation A. silent mutation
B. prevents mutations when coding for B. nonsense mutation
amino acids C. missense mutation
C. forming the hydrogen bonds between D. none of above
the bases
153. The “on/off” switch for an operon is
D. carries instructions for the traits of an
called the
orgainsm
A. promoter
148. When a mutation shifts the reading B. enhancer
frame during translation a
C. operator
A. deletion occurs.
D. gene
B. point mutation occurs.
154. A mutation that does NOT alter the pro-
C. frameshift mutation occurs.
tein production is called a
D. blank mutation occurs. A. deletion mutation
149. is a chromosomal mutation that re- B. inversion mutation
moves an entire chunk of code. C. silent mutation
A. Translocation D. transverse mutation
B. deletion
155. What results if a gene sequence (code) is
C. inversion changed.
D. substitution A. An organism would die.
B. Nothing would occur.
150. Name that mutation. Original strand of
DNA:A A T C G T CMutated strand of C. A negative mutation would occur.
DNA:T A A T C G T C D. A change to the protein would occur.
A. insertion
156. What type of chromosomal mutation re-
B. substitution moves genes and then re-attaches the
genes out of order?
C. deletion
A. Duplication
D. duplication
B. Inversion
151. Mutations can C. Deletion
A. increase the amount of protein D. Translocation
B. decrease the amount of protein
157. What does a silent mutation do?
C. change the structure of the protein
A. Change one amino acid to a different
D. all of the above amino acid.

6.17 Mutations 936
B. Change one amino acid to a stop codon B. Extra toes on a foot

C. Loss of skin color pigmentation
C. Changes a DNA base, but ends up cod-
D. All of the above
ing for the same amino acid.
D. none of above 163. Original DNA:CAT GATNew DNA:CAT
ATWhat mutation occurred?
158. Identify the SUBSTITUTION mutation
A. deletion
form the following:ATG CCA AAT
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. substitution
A. ATG TCA AAT
C. tranverse
B. ATG CCT AAA T
C. ATC CA AT D. insertion
D. ATG CCA AAT 164. DNA sequences can often be used to de-
termine relationships between
159. What is the role of operons in prokaryote
gene expression? A. nutritional needs
A. It makes the genes prokaryotes be B. organisms

turned on C. habitats
B. It accounts for the regulation of gene D. none of above
activity in response to the needs of the
cells 165. Mutated DNA sequences that can be
passed from parent to offspring
C. To make DNA for the gene
A. occur in somatic cells (body cells)
D. To make the gene turn of and off
B. occur in gametic cells (sex cells)
160. When grandma’s cookie recipe changed
from 1 cup of brown sugar to 10 cup of C. are rejected by meiosis
brown sugar, this is an example of a D. only occur if the parent is exposed to
mutation. harmful substances
A. insertion
166. Which of the following is not considered
B. deletion a mutagen?
C. inversion A. Cigarette smoking
D. none of above B. UV rays
161. Mutations can be C. Coca cola
A. Harmful D. Processed foods & preservatives
B. Beneficial 167. Changes the number of DNA bases by re-
C. Neutral moving a piece of DNA.
D. All of the Above A. Deletion
B. Insertion
162. A mutation could cause which of the fol-
lowing: C. Invertion
A. Two differently colored eyes D. Translocation

6.17 Mutations 937
168. A mutation can occur if a base pair is , 173. If the mutation changes the entire amino
deleted, or substituted for another. acid that is coded for, this is called a
mutation

A. modified
B. added A. missense
C. transferred B. silent
D. none of above C. frameshift

D. point
169. During Transcription produces a molecule
that is complimentary to a template strand
174. Why are framshift mutations harmful?
of DNA. What is it?
A. They cause chromosomes to break
A. DNA
B. Every amino acid following the muta-
B. tRNA
tion will be different
C. mRNA
C. They cause the DNA to relocated
D. rRNA
D. They burn out your clutch
170. What situation causes an inversion?
175. Which mutation would be beneficial?
A. Part of the chromosome is missing
A. A white colored moth.
B. Part of the chromosome is attached
backwards B. A green colored moth.
C. Part of the chromosome breaks off and C. A black colored moth.
attaches to a different chromosome
D. It depends on which is best suited to
D. Part of a chromosome is duplicated survive in the environment.
171. Which gene point mutation will be most 176. Changes to the number or structure of
likely to have a REALLY BAD effect on the chromosomes are called chromosomal mu-
function of a protein? tations. Which of the following is NOT a
A. a base substitution type of chromosomal mutation?
B. a base deletion near the start of the A. deletion
coding sequence
B. duplication
C. a base deletion near the end of the cod-
C. inversion
ing sequence, but not the stop codon
D. translation
D. two of the above
172. one nucleotide is preplacced with a differ- 177. What mutation would cause a protein to
ent nucleotide be shorter then normal?
A. addition A. Insertion
B. substitution(point) B. Start codon found
C. deletion C. Stop Codon Found
D. inversion D. Inversion

6.17 Mutations 938
178. In order for offspring to get a genetic mu- C. Trisomy 21

tation, the mutation must occur in what D. Trisomy 23
type of cell?
A. Cells with no nucleus. 184. Name that mutation.Original strand of
DNA:T G C G T A A TMutated strand of
B. Any body cell after birth.
DNA:T G G G TA A T
C. Cells with no cell wall or cell mem-
brane. A. insertion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Cells like eggs or sperm cells that are B. substitution
undergoing reproduction. C. deletion
179. What are structural changes to genes? D. duplication
A. proteins 185. Genetics is the branch of science dealing
B. genetic information with
C. mutations A. development of human
D. traits B. evolutionary study
180. When grandma’s cookie recipe changed C. transfer of genetic material
from 350 degrees to 550 degrees, this is D. none of above
an example of a mutation
A. deletion 186. In which types of cells must mutations oc-
cur in order for the mutation to be passed-
B. substitution
on to future generations?
C. inversion
A. Somatic cells
D. none of above
B. Genes
181. The important enzyme related with tran- C. Gametes
scription is;
D. Alleles
A. gyrase
B. DNA polymerase 187. What is an example of a beneficial muta-
tion?
C. RNA polymerase
D. ligase A. ability to digest milk
B. cancer
182. the genetic code for the gene
C. hemophilia
A. phenotype
B. genotype
C. homozygous 188. A rabbit that has short deformed legs and
D. none of above cannot jump or run fast would have a
A. Harmful mutation
183. What do experts say is the most common
form of Down Syndrome? B. Beneficial mutation
A. Trisomy 47 C. Neutral mutation
B. Trisomy 46 D. normal life

6.17 Mutations 939
189. The chromosomes of the human body 194. A very negative mutation that will result
A. exist in 23 pairs in all cells except gain the DNA sequence shifting the sequence
over in any direction.

metes
B. each contain thousands of genes A. Frameshift
B. Substitution
C. form right before cells divide
C. Replication
D. all of these apply
D. Translation
190. Which of the following would least likely
happen as a result of a mutation in a per- 195. A mutation that removes 1 base from the
son’s body cells? DNA sequence.
A. skin cancer A. Deletion
B. the person’s offspring have mutated B. Insertion
cells C. Substitution
C. no chage in the functioning of their D. Missense
cells
196. The process where mRNA is translated
D. reduced functioning of their cells
into amino acids happens in what part of
191. occurs when part of one chromo- the cell?
some breaks off and attaches to an- A. Nucleus
other:chromosomal mutation B. Mitochondria
A. deletion C. Cytoplasm
B. translocation D. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. inversion
197. What is the final step in protein synthe-
D. duplication sis? mRNA→protein
192. What situation causes a deletion? A. transcription
A. Part of the chromosome is missing B. translation
B. Part of the chromosome is attached C. replication
backwards D. none of above
198. Something in the environment that in-
creases the risk of mutations is
D. Part of a chromosome is duplicated
A. gene
193. In genetic engineering: B. mutation
A. The DNA of an organism is manipu- C. mutagen
lated
D. germ cell mutation
B. Mutations to an organism occur
199. Insertions and deletions of nitrogenous
C. Newly “engineered” traits could be bases can also be called mutations be-
beneficial or harmful to an organism. cause they move the sequence one way or
D. All of the above the other

6.17 Mutations 940
A. frameshift 205. In order for natural selection to occur,

B. stick shift Charles Darwin stated we must begin with
a population of organisms that has genetic
C. silent
A. competition.
D. superceded
B. engineering.
200. What is the mRNA sequence that C. reproduction.
complements the following DNA se- D. variation.
quence:TATAAACGCTAGGCAG
NARAYAN CHANGDER
206. An operon consists of all the the follow-
A. ATATTTGCGATCCGTC ing EXCEPT
B. AUAUUUGCGAUCCGUC A. operator
C. TATAAACGCTAGGCAG B. promoter
D. UTUTTTGCGUTCCGTC C. regulatory gene
201. When are the chances of mutation in- D. genes of the operon
creased? 207. What pairs with Thymine (T)?
A. When we are exposed to carcinogens A. Adenine (A)
and certain types of radiation B. Thymine (T)
B. When you are exposed to radiation C. Guanine (G)
C. I dont know D. Cytosine (C)
D. none of above 208. If you are a boy, what percent of your
202. A mutation is? genes did you get from your dad?
A. 25%
A. Any change in DNA
B. 50%
B. Any change in RNA
C. 75%
C. Any change in the genetic code
D. 100%
D. none of above
209. Original Strand:ATCCCGCATMutated
203. What pairs with Adenine (A)? Strand:ATCGCCGCATWhat type of muta-
A. Guanine (G) tion?
A. Insertion
B. Cytosine (C)
B. Deletion
C. Adenine (A)
C. Substitution
D. Thymine (T)
D. Gene
204. A mutation is a change in an organism’s 210. Which of these bases does not exist in
RNA?
A. Cell A. C
B. DNA B. T
C. Phenotype C. U
D. Ribosome D. A

6.17 Mutations 941
211. An organisms is its physical appear- 216. The rearrangement of whole blocks of
ance or visible trait. genes.Involve changes to a triplet result-
ing in a different amino acid.

A. genotype
A. translocation
B. hybrid
B. gene mutation
C. phenotype
C. deletion
D. purebred
D. missive substitution
212. If a gene mutation codes for a smaller 217. When one base or part of a gene is incor-
bird beak, and the bird lives on an is- rectly removed from a section of DNA or
land where the food source is composed of RNA it is a mutation.
large seeds, would the mutation be bene-
ficial, neutral, or negative? A. Insertion
B. Deletion
A. beneficial
C. Translocation
B. neutral
D. Frameshift
C. harmful
D. none of above 218. Which of the following could be used to
model the structure of a DNA molecule?
213. Cri-du-Chat Syndrome is caused by what A. a snowflake
kind of mutation? B. a ladder
A. translocation C. a three-dimensional cube
B. inversion D. none of above
C. deletion 219. Conditions caused by mutations that oc-
D. addition cur in genes are called what?
A. Cancers
214. reverses the direction of parts of a chro-
mosome:chromosomal mutation B. Genetic Disorders
A. deletion C. Mutagens
D. Insertions
B. translocation
C. inversion 220. Original Strand:ATG CCC TAGMutated
Strand:CTG CCC TAGWhat type of muta-
D. duplication tion?
215. When a nitrogen base (nucleotide) is re- A. Substitution
moved from a gene, this is called a mu- B. Deletion
tation.
C. Insertion
A. removal D. Frameshift
B. deletion
221. Polyploidy generally occurs when errors
C. substitution occur in
D. insertion A. meiosis

6.17 Mutations 942
B. mitosis 227. Mutations result in which of the follow-

ing?
C. DNA replication
A. Changes in DNA sequence
D. cytokinesis
B. Genetic variation in a species
222. Non disjunction of chromosomes occurs C. Differing amino acid sequence
during?
D. All of the above
A. Meiosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Mitosis
chromosomeABC-JKLGH-IDEF
C. Replication
A. translocation
D. none of above
B. duplication
223. When a portion of a chromosomes breaks C. inversion
off, flips around backwards and reat- D. none of above
taches this is called a(n)
229. The DNA triplets that code for amino
A. deletion mutation
acids are common to
B. translocation mutation
A. humans only
C. inversion mutation
B. plants and animals
D. none of above C. prokaryotes
224. A change in DNA or chromosomes D. all living things
A. Mitosis 230. A frameshift mutation can occur with ei-
B. Meiosis ther or mutations.
C. mutation A. Addition, division

B. Deletion, substitution
D. Osmosis
C. Insertion, substitution
225. What type of mutation is the follow-
D. Insertion, deletion
ing:AGTTACCAGGC to AGTTTACCAGGC
A. deletion 231. In order to fit within a cell, DNA becomes
more compact by
B. inversion
A. breaking apart into separate genes
C. insertion
B. extending to form long, thin molecules
D. translocation
226. mRNA is read in chunks of three, called C. wrapping tightly around associated
proteins
D. being enzymatically changed into a
A. quadralets
protein
B. anticodons
232. Which of the following units are repeat-
C. codons
edly joined together to form a strand of
D. capsids DNA?

6.17 Mutations 943
A. amino acids 238. Which type of mutation is MOST LIKELY

B. nucleotides to cause the greatest disruption?

C. fatty acids A. Frameshift
D. polysaccharides B. Silent
233. Which event would most likely cause a C. Point
change in a genetic sequence in an organ-
ism? D. none of above
A. eating certain foods high in saturated
fats 239. Mutations that increase an organism’s
ability to survive and reproduce are:
B. strenuous physical activity
A. harmful
C. exposure to radiation
D. a sudden exposure to cooler tempera- B. helpful
tures C. not important
234. involves the loss of all or part of a chro- D. none of above
mosome:chromosomal mutation
A. deletion 240. What is the function of mRNA?
B. translocation
A. provide energy for the duplication of
C. inversion cells
D. duplication
B. stores food material for keeping cells
235. A frameshift mutation could result from alive
A. a base insertion only. C. preventing mutations
B. a base deletion only. D. carrying the gentic message
C. a base substitution only.
D. either an insertion or a deletion of a 241. What is a tumor?
base.
A. a group of cells in the bloodstream
236. Doctors use medicine to treat cancer
B. a mass of normal cells
through
A. chemotherapy C. a mass of cells dividing uncontrollably
B. radiation
C. removal of the tumor D. a mass of cells that don’t divide
D. none of above
242. Possible negative consequences of muta-
237. Radiation, drugs, chemicals, smoking are tions could be genetic and cancer.
all examples of
A. diversity
A. genes
B. disorders
B. mutations
C. mutagens C. dominance
D. none of above D. duplication

6.17 Mutations 944
243. Which of the following correctly de- 248. The separation of DNA fragments using
scribes what a mutation is? electric current is called
A. A change in the DNA code of an organ- A. gel electrophoresis
ism B. karyotyping
B. A change to a gene of an organism C. chromosome painting
C. A change to the nucleotide sequence D. polymerase chain reaction
D. All of these answers are correct
NARAYAN CHANGDER
249. Polyploidy is the condition in which
244. Mutation alters DNA sequence, but has A. a piece of a chromosome breaks off
no apparent detectable effect on a pheno- and reattaches
type or a function
B. an organism has an extra set of chro-
A. Insertion mosomes.
B. Missense mutation C. a mutagen speeds the mutation rate.
C. Nonsense mutation D. an insect develops a resistance to a
D. Silent mutation pesticide.
245. is when chromosomes do not 250. How do you know when to begin trans-
fully/evenly separate during cellular di- lating a strand of mRNA?
vision. A. look for AUG
A. Nondisjunction B. start at the beginning
B. Conjugation C. look for ATG
C. Mitosis D. when Ms. H tells me to
D. Meiosis
251. Normal:TTACGCAAG Mutated:TTACGCAAC.
246. Gene (point) mutations that are caused This is an example of mutation.
by an extra nucleotide base being added A. Substitution
or one being deleted out is that shifts the
B. Insertion
order of the codons is called a(n)
C. Inversion
A. missense mutation
D. Translocation
B. frameshift mutation
C. substitution mutation 252. Identify the DELETION mutation form the
following:ATG CCA AAT
D. none of above
A. ATG TCA AAT
247. Original:TTA-CGC-AAG Mutated:TTT- B. ATG CCT AAA T
ACG-CAA-G. This is an example of
mutation. C. ATC CA AT
A. Substitution D. ATG CCA AAT
B. Deletion 253. what is an operon?

C. Insertion A. a part of a ribosome
D. Inversion B. a part of a Rna

6.17 Mutations 945
C. a unit made up of linked genes that B. 2 eggs & 2 polar bodies

code for proteins needed to do a specific C. 1 egg & 3 polar bodies
task

D. 3 eggs & 1 polar body
D. needed for dna replication
259. Which type of mutation adds one or more
254. mutation occurring in a human can be
base pairs?
passed from parent to offspring when it
occurs in a A. Insertion
A. lung cell, due to exposure to a toxic gas B. Substitution
C. Deletion
B. gamete formed in the ovary D. none of above
C. body cell undergoing mitosis
260. In a DNA molecule, which of the follow-
D. heart cell with chromosome damage ing bases pair together?
255. Identify the DELETION mutation from the A. adenine and cytosine
following DNA sequence:ATG CCA AAT B. thymine and adenine
A. ATG TCA AAT C. thymine and guanine
B. ATG CCT AAA T D. cytosine and thymine
C. ATC CA AT
261. If a mutation only changes the nucleotide
D. ATG CCA AAT sequence for a single protein, then it is
256. If a mutation occurs, leaving 12 bases, known as a
what is the maximum number of amino A. gene mutation
acids that could be coded for by this DNA B. chromosomal mutation
segment?AAC-GCC-GTC-CGC-TAG
C. translocation
A. 2
D. nondisjunction mutation
B. 3
C. 4 262. What are two main types of Mutations?
D. 5 A. Genes and Chromosomal
B. Genes and Genetic
257. Below is an analogy of a mutation using
words. Identify the type of mutation and C. Genetic and Repulsive
the effect.Normal:THE FAT CAT ATE THE D. none of above
RATMutation:THE FAT ATA TET HER AT
A. substitution; missense 263. In gene mutations when one incorrect nu-
cleotide accidently replaces the correct nu-
B. deletion; missense cleotide during DNA replication or tran-
C. deletion; frameshift scription this is called a mutation
D. insertion; frameshift A. deletion mutation
258. In human females, what is the result of B. frameshift mutation

one primary sex cell undergoing meiosis? C. substitution mutation
A. 4 eggs D. none of above

6.17 Mutations 946
264. Which DNA component makes up the ge- 269. Nondisjunction of autosomal chromo-
netic code? somes, such as chromosome number 21,
can result in disorders like
A. hydrogen bonds
A. Down syndrome
B. deoxyribose sugar
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. phosphate groups
C. Turner’s syndrome
D. nitrogen bases
D. Sickle-cell anemia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
265. On the rough draft version of mRNA, 270. When do mutations occur?
what is spliced together to make the ma-
ture mRNA? A. During DNA replication.
B. During protein synthesis.
A. introns
C. A mutation can occur any time.
B. exons
D. none of above
C. Poly-A tail
D. G-cap 271. Some genetic disorders and diseases,
such as cystic fibrosis or sickle cell anemia,
266. The type of mutation in which a base re- are the result of
places another base is A. mutations
A. substitution B. genetic engineering
B. insertion C. selective breeding
C. deletion D. the environment
D. none of above 272. causes a premature stop codon to arise,

this is an example of a substitution muta-
267. An insertion mutation is when: tion
A. part of a chromosome from a non ho- A. missense
mologous pair gets added into a chromo- B. nonsense
some
C. silent
B. portions of two non homologous chro-
D. none of above
mosomes switch places.
C. chromosomes don’t separate properly 273. What do hurtful mutations do?
during meiosis A. Decrease chances of survival
D. none of above B. Increases changes of survival
C. Decreases likelihood of developing
268. Chloroplast is to glucose as a ribosome is
cancer
to
D. Increases likelihood of developing can-
A. DNA cer
B. protein
274. A point mutation is usually what type of
C. lipid mutation
D. molecule A. Frameshift

6.17 Mutations 947
B. Insertion 280. In genetic is an alteration in the nu-

C. Deletion cleotide sequence of the genome

D. Substitution A. Mutation
B. Segregation
a codon? C. Both
A. AUG D. None
B. ACTG
281. What pairs with Cytosine (C)?
C. RNA
A. Guanine (G)
D. DNA
B. Cytosine (C)
276. How many codons equals 1 amino acid?
C. Adenine (A)
A. 1
D. Thymine
B. 2
C. 3 282. During fertilization, you receive chro-
mosomes from your father and from
D. 4 mother
277. Selective Breeding is A. 23
A. The process humans use to breed or B. 46
reinforce desired traits into a particular
organism C. 69
B. The process animals use when select- D. none of above

ing their mates
283. A cell begins to produce a new type of
C. The process that ensures only organ- protein. This is most likely due to an alter-
ism with the best traits will survive ation of the
D. none of above A. structure of the cell membrane
278. Mutations that cause dramatic changes in B. sequence of bases in a section of a
protein structure are often ? chromosome
A. harmful C. chemical makeup of the cytoplasm
B. helpful D. shape of the antibodies produced by
C. neutral the nucleus
D. none of above 284. Which is the mRNA molecule that
279. Which type of ribonucleic acid is like a pro- would be transcribed from this DNA tem-
tein synthesis factory? plate:TGGCAAGTACGT
A. mRNA A. ACCGTTCATGCA
B. tRNA B. UGGCAAGUACGU
C. rRNA C. UCCGUUCUUGCU
D. RNA D. ACCGUUCAUGCA

6.17 Mutations 948
285. Silent mutations D. the portion of the chromosome altered

A. turn a codon into a stop codon, which by the mutation
causes the protein to be smaller than it is 291. When mutations occur in the body cells
supposed to be. and affect the individual organism, this
B. change a single amino acid. type of mutation is referred to as a(n)
C. cause no change to the protein they A. somatic cell mutation
create.
B. germ cell mutation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
C. gamete mutation
286. A change in the DNA sequence can be a D. none of above
292. Mutations can be a result of

A. protein
B. error A. Environmental Exposure
C. mutation B. Lack of sleep
D. mutagen C. Not enough exercise

D. none of above
287. What point mutation adds in extra DNA?
A. Substitution 293. Addition and deletion mutations result in
a effect.
B. Insertion
A. frame-shift
C. Deletion
B. small
D. none of above
C. Inversion
288. How many amino acids are coded for by
D. changing
this sequence of nucleotides:ATG GGA ACT
CCA 294. This mutation replaces 1 base with a dif-
A. 4 ferent base.
B. 2 A. frameshift
C. 6 B. Deletion
D. 12 C. Insertion
289. Which organelle is DNA found in? D. Substituion
A. cell membrane 295. What type of equipment is used show
B. vacuole the differences and similarities in DNA se-
quences among various types rodents?
C. chloroplast
A. restrictive enzyme technology and gel
D. nucleus
electrophoresis
290. A mutagen is B. microscopes and DNA staining technol-
A. a gene that has an altered mutation ogy
B. something that causes a mutation C. spectrometry and gas chromatogra-
C. any change in a nucleotide sequence phy
of DNA D. blood typing equipment

6.17 Mutations 949
296. What is the function of the ribosome in a 301. Mutations are passed on to offspring if
cell? they exist in what type of cell?

A. To take DNA and turn it into amino A. somatic and gametes
acids B. gametes only
B. To take RNA and read the codons to as- C. somatic only
semble amino acids
D. none of above
C. To take amino acids and stamp them
together into RNA 302. What does DNA stand for?
A. Deoxyribonucleic acid
D. To take proteins and stamp them into
amino acids. B. Denitrogenous acid
C. Deribonucleic acid
here? T-G-A-C-C-AT-G-A-C-C-A-A D. Diribonucleic acid
A. Base Substitution 303. What type of mutation happens to just

one base.
B. Base Deletion
A. Chromosome Mutation
C. Base Insertion
B. Point Mutation
D. Frameshift
C. DNA Mutation
298. Identify the SUBSTITUTION mutation D. Deletion Mutation
from the following DNA sequence:ATG CCA
AAT 304. Mutations:
A. are permanent changes in the DNA se-
A. ATG TCA AAT
quence or structure
B. ATG CCT AAA T
B. produce allelic variation
C. ATC CA AT C. are more likely to be harmful than ben-
D. ATG CCA AAT eficial
D. all of the above
299. TRANSLATE this RNA sequence:AUGCAAUGA
305. Copying DNA to RNA is called
A. Met-Glu-Stop A. transcription
B. Met-His-Stop B. translation
C. Thr-Glu-Stop C. duplication
D. Thr-Pro-Stop D. none of above

306. Put the scientists in order accord-
300. Which will most likely cause variations to ing to who looked at polyploidy
occur within a species? first.WendalBennettLevinTate
A. competition A. Bennett, Levin, Tate, Wendal
B. mutation B. The given order is correct.
C. mutualism C. Tate, Wendal, Levin, Bennett
D. predation D. Levin, Wendal, Bennett, Tate

6.17 Mutations 950
307. In order for a mutation to be passed A. Deletion mutation.

on from parent to offspring, the mutation B. Addition mutation.
must occur in
C. Chromosomal mutation.
A. somatic cells
D. Point mutation.
B. gametes
C. brain cells
chromosomeAC-DEFThis is a muta-
D. any cell of the body tion.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
308. What is a type of Mutation? A. frameshift
A. Deletions B. point
B. Insertions C. deletion
C. Base Substitutions D. none of above
D. All of the Above 314. Which of the following does not cause
mutations?
309. There are two types of mutations
A. X-rays
A. substitution and expression
B. Chemicals like tobacco or pollutants
B. transcription and translation
C. Drinking water
C. mitosis and meiosis
D. UV rays
D. gene mutation and chromosomal muta-
tions 315. Which 2 molecules form the sides (back-
bone) of the DNA ladder?
310. Look at the following sequence:THE FAT
A. deoxyribose sugar and adenine
CAT ATE THE RAT. Delete the first H and re-
group the letters in groups of three (write B. deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen
out the new groups of three). What type bond
of mutation is this? C. deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
A. Insertion D. deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
B. Translocation 316. A Mutation is:
C. Deletion A. a chemical that kills cells
D. Transversion B. a process that reads DNA
311. The stripes on a chromosome represent C. a change in the nucleotide sequence of
different types of: DNA
A. Patterns D. a type of enzyme
B. Colors 317. changes the number of DNA bases in a
C. Genes gene by adding a piece of DNA
D. Mutations A. Insertion
B. Invertion
312. When one nitrogen base is removed from
a DNA strand, what type of mutation has C. Duplication
occurred? D. Translocation

6.17 Mutations 951
318. What type of mutation has occurred A. substitution-silent

here? T-G-A-C-C-A T-G-A-G-C-A B. substitution-missense

A. Substitution C. substitution-nonsense
B. Deletion D. frameshift
C. Insertion
324. RNA contains the sugar
D. Frameshift
A. ribose
319. A mutation that occurs in the gametes B. deoxyribose
of an organism will most likely be trans-
C. glucose
ferred to which of the following?
D. lactose
A. The siblings of the organism
B. The offspring of the organism 325. Which of the following statements is NOT
true regarding mutations?
C. The other organisms living nearby
A. Mutations are always harmful.
D. The mating partner of the organism
B. Mutations may be helpful.
320. Guanine bonds with C. Mutations generate the raw material
A. Adenine for natural selection.
B. Guanine D. Mutations create variety in the gene
C. Cytosine pool.
D. Thymine 326. Which of the following is an example of

a helpful mutation?
321. What are the three components of a nu-
cleotide? A. Develops speed
B. Develop a tumor
A. sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
C. Loses hearing
B. sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
D. Loses camflauge
C. sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
D. sugar, phosphate, protein 327. Which is a part of the DNA that consists
of a sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous
322. Types of point mutations include of gas?
nitrogenous bases
A. DNA
A. insertions
B. nucleotide
B. deletions
C. base
C. substitutions D. mutation
D. all of these
328. Melanoma is a skin cancer that occurs in
323. YOU NEED YOUR CODON CHART! Sup- the melanocyte cells of the body. What
pose the following DNA sequence was could be a cause of melanoma?
mutated from GAGAGAGAGAGAGAGAAC A. vitamin A deficiency
to GAGACAGAGAGAGAGAAC. What type
of mutation has occurred?HINT:Transcribe B. antibiotics that destroy pigments
first! C. a genetic mutation in somatic cells

6.17 Mutations 952
D. clotting of blood in the melanocyte 334. What is the correct mRNA strand from
cells this DNA?CAC-GTG-ACA-GCG
329. What are are large molecules made of A. GTG-CAC-TGT-CGC

amino acids? B. CAC-GUG-ACA-GCG
A. proteins C. GUG-CAC-UGU-CGC
B. genetic information D. none of above
C. traits 335. What type of chromosomal mutation re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. mutations moves genes and then re-attaches the
genes backwards?
330. Translocation mutations are when
A. Duplication
A. A single N-base is changed.
B. Inversion
B. A single N-base is added.
C. Deletion
C. Part of a chromosomes is
D. Translocation
flipped/backwards.
D. Part of a chromosome break off and at- 336. Which of the following is the site of trans-
taches to a new location. lation?
A. vacuole
331. Mutations in one of the following cells
will be passed from parents to offspring. B. lysosome
Which one? C. nucleus
A. skin cell D. ribosome
B. brain cell 337. What is it called when a point substitu-
C. muscle cell tion mutation has no effect?
D. Gamete A. Substitution Mutation
B. No Mutation
332. The failure of chromosomes to separate
during meiosis causing one cell to have C. Silent Mutation
more or less chromosomes than the other D. none of above
is called:
338. What are the three types of gene muta-
A. Insertion
tion?
B. Translocation
A. Insertion, Deletion, Subsitution
C. Nondisjunction
B. Deletion, Newstion, Subsitution
D. Inversion
C. Newstion, Deletion, Insertion
333. Human cell contain no. of chromo- D. Insertion, Newstion, Substitution
some
339. The banding patterns that gel elec-
A. 44 trophoresis results in can be used
B. 42 A. to produce proteins
C. 46 B. to compare various genomes for simi-
D. 48 larities

6.17 Mutations 953
C. make copies of DNA 345. What are some causes of mutations?

D. analyze DNA structures A. Chemicals or UV radiation

B. The amino acids
340. Point mutations occur
C. Passed down by genetics
A. when one or very few nitrogen bases
are involved D. It’s how your born
B. when deletions are involved only 346. is when a section of code is moved
C. when insertions are involved only from one chromosome to another
D. when one section of the chromosome A. Translocation
is involved B. Inversion
341. original chromosomeABC-DEFmutated C. deletion

chromosomeABBC-DEF D. duplication
A. duplication 347. occurs when a segment of the chro-
B. point mosome is represented two or more time
in the chromosome.
C. frameshift
A. Duplication
D. none of above
B. Deletion
342. Which of the following best describes a C. Inversion
mutation?
D. Translocation
A. A change in a gene
B. A section of a chromosome that codes 348. If a protein is produced with 25 amino
for a particular trait. acids rather than 110, what is the most
probable explanation?
C. Anything that can damage a gene
A. a missense mutation
D. A distinguishing quality that can be
B. a nonsense mutation
passed from one generation to another.
C. a silent mutation
343. What pairs with Guanine (G)?
D. none of above
A. Adenine (A)
349. Penicillin is an antibiotic that was discov-
B. Thymine (T) ered in 1928. Today, many species of bac-
C. Cytosine (C) teria have acquired resistance to penicillin.
D. Guanine (G) This adaptation occurred as the result of
A. mutualism.
344. This molecule carries genetic information
B. symbiosis.
from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the
cytoplasm. C. genetic mutation.
A. rRNA D. divergent evolution.
B. tRNA 350. Point mutation involves
C. mRNA A. deletion
D. DNA B. insertion

6.17 Mutations 954
C. duplication 357. A protein that binds to the operator and

D. changes in single base pair blocks the RNA polymerase
A. regulator
351. Mutations are
B. repressor
A. always good
C. activator
B. always good
C. always neutral D. corepressor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. can be good, bad, or neutral 358. Substances like radiation and other cer-
tain chemicals are known as mutagens be-
352. What do mutations change?
cause
A. DNA
A. they cause cancer
B. Chromosomes
B. they cause mutations in the sequence
C. Genes of DNA
D. none of above C. they generate muteness
353. What is the definition of an allele? D. they damage proteins, which then
A. A types of gene changes the sequence of DNA
B. An alternate form of a gene 359. Most gene regulation happens at which
C. Maternal and paternal chromosome step along the way?
D. A specific section of DNA A. translation
354. Why would a frameshift be more harm- B. transcription

ful? C. signal transduction
A. It changes all the code downstream D. DNA replication
B. Only one nucleotide is changing
360. This type of mutation occurs when a
C. All mutations are harmful section of chromosome is doubled or re-
D. It can’t correct iself peated.
355. What point mutation removes one base? A. Duplication

A. Deletion B. Substitution
B. Insertion C. Inversion
C. Substitution D. Frameshift
D. none of above 361. Gene mutations may result in
356. Inversion mutations are when A. an incorrect protein being produced
A. A single N-base is changed. B. a reduced number of chromosomes in
B. A single N-base is added. the future cell
C. Part of a chromosomes is C. the length of the protein may increase
flipped/backwards.
D. Part of a chromosome break off and at- D. homologous chromosomes may not
taches to a new location. pair

6.17 Mutations 955
362. Genes that make an abnormal red blood 368. Gene:ABCDEFMutation:ABEFCDWhat mu-
cell have an abnormal sequence of tation occurred?

A. Amino Acids A. deletion
B. Sugars B. substitution
C. Bases
C. inversion
D. Proteins
D. insertion
363. A chromosome mutation that occurs
when part of a chromosome goes missing 369. If Chargaff found that a sample of DNA
is called a(n): has 30% THYMINE, how much GUANINE
would he have calculated to be there?
A. frameshift mutation
B. nondisjunction mutation A. 30%
C. deletion mutation B. 20%

364. What type of mutation occurs when a sin- D. 60%

gle nucleotide is substituted for another?
370. This type of substitution codes for a stop
A. Silent codon
B. Missense
A. Missense
C. Point Mutation
B. Nonsense
D. Frameshift mutation
C. Silent
365. Mutagens can
D. Deletion
A. weaken the DNA strand and cause it to
break apart 371. What type of gene mutation results from
B. interfere with base pairing the insertion or deletion of nucleotides and
alters the entire amino acid sequence from
C. both of these
that point forward?
D. neither of these
A. Frameshift
366. change in the DNA sequence
B. Missense
A. protein
C. Nonsense
B. error
D. Silent
C. mutation
D. mutagen 372. Mutations affect the of a protein. Be-
cause of this the proteins is affected as
367. what are some environmental influences
well.
on gene regulation?
A. gene, function
A. sunlight
B. temperature B. sequence, gene
C. nutrition C. shape, function
D. all of the above D. none of above

6.17 Mutations 956
373. when you have two of the same genes 378. A gene mutation affects..
A. heterozygous A. a lot of DNA.
B. recessive B. one or a few nucleotides.
C. homozygous C. many proteins.
D. none of above D. all DNA.

379. Insertions and deletions are what type of
374. A missense mutation results from
mutation?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. a base substiution that causes no A. Strong mutations
change in amino acid
B. Frameshift mutations
B. a base substitution that causes a
C. Point Mutations
change in one amino acid
D. Nonsense mutations
C. a base change that codes for a stop
D. a base insertion or deletion 380. What are the building blocks of proteins
called?
375. When part of a chromosome from one non A. DNA
homologous chromosome switches places B. RNA
with part of a chromosome from another
non homologous chromosome, this is called C. Ribosomes
mutation D. Amino Acids
A. insertion 381. Mutations occurring in humans can be
B. translocation passed to its offspring when it happens in
C. inversion A. somatic cells
D. none of above B. liver cells

C. sperm or egg
376. Which of the following is typical of muta- D. body cell during mitosis
tions?
382. what does a promoter do?
A. They result in new genetic sequences.
A. it allows a gene to be transcribed
B. They are caused only by the events of B. it creates a DNA segment
mitosis. C. it is another word for ribosomes
C. They occur to meet the needs of a D. it is another word for RNA
species.
383. What happens if the shape of a structural
D. They do not occur at random. protein changes?
377. A segment of DNA that codes for a pro- A. lose their strength if the shape is
tein is changed, making them useless for provid-
ing support
A. gene
B. They will denature
B. mutation
C. If a structural protein changes, it may
C. mutagen not be able to provide support
D. chromosome mutation D. I dont know

6.17 Mutations 957
384. Transcribe the following DNA strand into C. Deletion

mRNA-3’ CGT 5’
D. Translocation

A. GCA
B. GCU 390. phenotypes that shows both traits
C. CGA A. semi-dominant
D. CGU B. heterozygous
385. Down’s syndrome involveds non- C. codominance

disjunction of chromosome number D. none of above
A. 22
391. What do helpful mutations do?
B. 23
A. Increases chances of survival
C. 21
B. Decreases changes of survival
D. 19
C. Increases chances of developing can-
386. Which of the following mutations results cer
from one nucleotide being substituted for
another? D. Decreases skills
A. Deletion 392. Mutation is important in providing
B. Frameshift A. easier ways to classify organisms.
C. Insertion
B. stability to an organism within a popu-
D. Point lation.
387. agents in the environment that can C. new genes that may lead to new ge-
change DNA are known as: netic traits.
A. fragrances D. nonsense mutations to identify weaker
B. enzymes organisms.
C. genes 393. Which of the following disorders is
D. mutagens caused by a missense mutation?
388. A scientists who manipulates organismal A. Muscular dystrophy

DNA (like cloning) is called a? B. Sickle Cell Anemia
A. Genetic Engineer C. Ty Sachs
B. Geneticist D. none of above
C. Doctor
394. Mutations can be at two levels, or
D. Teacher
389. What type of chromosomal mutation A. genes or chromosomes

does one chromosome gain extra genes
from a different chromosome? B. DNA or RNA
A. Duplication C. nuclear or ribosomal
B. Inversion D. cellular or tissue

6.17 Mutations 958
395. does not cause a change in amino acid se- C. amino acid
quence, this is an example of a substitu- D. base pair
tion mutation
A. missense 401. In a point mutation, this would have the
worst effect on the function of the protein
B. nonsense
A. an insertion or deletion near the end
C. silent of a gene
D. none of above B. an insertion or deletion at the begin-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
396. A frameshift mutation would result from ning of the gene
C. an insertion at the middle of the gene
A. a base deletion only D. a base substitution
B. a base substitution only
402. Anything in the environment that can
C. either an insertion or deletion of a change or damage DNA is called a
base
A. Envirogene
D. a base insertion only
B. Poison
397. Disorders, such as sickle cell anemia, are C. Mutagen
the result of mutations of the
D. Mutant
A. brain.
403. a change in the nucleotide sequence of
B. chromosomes.
DNA
C. heart.
A. is a mutation
D. nucleolus.
B. can be a mutation or an epigenetic
398. DNA is the template for change
A. amino acids C. is an epigenetic change
B. tRNA D. always leads to a permanent change in
DNA
C. mRNA
D. sugars 404. True or false; A mutation can be inherited
A. True
399. What process occurs during meiosis that
can result in chromosomal disorders such B. False
as trisomy or monosomy? C. Dont know
A. crossing over D. I dont understand
B. non-disjunction
405. What is it called when a mutation has no
C. anaphase I effect on the amino acid sequence in the
D. prophase II final polypeptide?
400. A linear code of three sequential bases on A. Substitution mutation

one side of a DNA molecule is a B. No mutation
A. codon C. Silent mutation
B. gene D. Replication mutation

6.17 Mutations 959
406. one base is changed to a different base C. The overall health of the organism.
A. substitution D. The structure of a protein.

B. deletion
412. mutations are
C. insertion
A. always bad
D. none of above
B. never bad
407. What kinds of mutations drive evolu-
tion? C. only bad if the mutation makes it more
difficult for the organism to survive
A. Harmful
D. none of above
B. Harmful or beneficial
C. Neutral 413. Gene:ABCDEFMutation:ACEFCDWhat mu-
D. Beneficial tation?
A. deletion
408. In a molecule of double-stranded DNA,
the amount of Adenine present is always B. substitution
equal to the amount of C. inversion
A. cytosine D. insertion
B. guanine
C. thymine 414. A permanent change in DNA is called
what?
D. uracil
A. Genetic disorders
409. When grandma’s cookie recipe changed
B. Mutation
from 2 cups chocolate chips to 2 chocolate
chips this is an example of a mutation. C. Gene Expression
A. insertion D. Mutagen
B. deletion
415. Which of these is the direct result of an
C. duplication error in the transcription of a DNA nu-
D. none of above cleotide?
410. Which two thing are found on a molecule A. The nuclear membrane is ruptured.
of tRNA? B. Amino acids do not bond to tRNA.
A. amino acids; anticodons C. A codon sequence is incorrect.
B. amino acids; codons D. Transportation of mRNA does not oc-
C. ribose sugar; proteins cur.
D. deoxyribose sugar; codons
416. Chromosomes are found
411. A genetic mutation will most immediately A. only in muscle cells
affect
B. in the genes of the cell
A. The number of chromosomes within
each cell of the body. C. in the nucleus of the cell
B. The ability of the organism to survive. D. in the proteins of the cell

6.17 Mutations 960
417. What can be the cause of a single gene C. chemicals

mutation? D. viruses
A. asexual reproduction
423. What type of mutation changes the struc-
B. normal DNA replication ture of chromosomes?
C. base sequence change in DNA A. Multiple Point Mutations
D. an absence of mutagens B. Chromosomal Mutation
C. Structural Mutation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
418. What kind of mutation is the result of an
insertion? D. none of above
A. Silent Mutation 424. The process that scientists and farmers
B. Missense mutation use to create bigger and better things is
called
C. Nonsense mutation
A. selective breeding
D. Frameshift mutation
B. agricultural selection
419. What situation causes a duplication? C. Punnett squares
A. Part of the chromosome is missing D. genetics
B. Part of the chromosome is attached
425. What is the first step in protein synthe-
backwards
sis? DNA → mRNA
A. transcription
B. translation
D. Part of a chromosome is duplicated
C. replication
420. Which RNA bases would pair with TAC- D. mutation
GAA in transcription?
A. AUGCUU 426. Which of these types of substitution mu-
tations would have no effect on the amino
B. ATGCTT acid sequence and would not change the
C. GCATCC protein:
D. GCAUCC A. silent
B. missense
421. consists of a piece of DNA that is abnor-
mally copied one or more times. C. nonsense
A. Deletion D. none of above
B. invertion 427. What is non coding DNA?

C. insertion A. DNA that codes for a specific protein
D. duplication B. DNA that does not code for a protein
C. Non coding DNA is DNA that ia not in-
422. Mutations can be caused by all of the fol-
volved with making amino aicds, but con-
lowing except
trol if a gene is expressed by having on
A. radiation and off switches
B. global warming D. All of the above

6.17 Mutations 961
428. DNA holds the code for (DNA makes) C. during metaphase
A. lipids D. during telophase

B. carbohydrates 434. In proteins, the amino acid order is deter-
C. protein mined by
D. sugar A. nitrogenous bases in RNA
B. random placement
429. What is a visual display of the chromo-
somes arranged by size, shape, and band- C. nitrogenous bases in DNA
ing patterns? D. there is no order
A. syndrome
435. If a mutation makes it difficult for an or-
B. amniocentesis ganism to survive, the mutation is
C. karyotype A. not passed on to offspring
D. pedigree B. passed on to offspring
430. The process of going from DNA to mRNA C. beneficial
is called D. none of above
A. Transcription
436. original DNA sequence:ATC-AGCTmutated
B. Translation DNA sequence:ATTC-AGCTType of muta-
C. Transportation tion?
D. Transient A. insertion
B. substitution
431. Which event results in a change in the
number of chromosomes in a cell? C. deletion
A. crossing over D. no mutation
B. deletion 437. What is the definition of polyploidy?

C. insertion A. Semi-aquatic, egg-laying mammal of
action.
D. nondisjunction
B. Condition where an organism has ex-
432. This type of mutation is a change in one tra sets of chromosomes.
DNA base pair that results in the substitu-
C. Genetic mutation that causes old men
tion of one amino acid for another in the
to lose their hair.
protein made by a gene.
D. Condition where an organism lacks
A. Nonsense
chromosomes.
B. Missense
438. UV rays, chemicals, and x rays are exam-
C. Insertion
ples of
D. Deletion
A. mutations
433. DNA replication happens B. mutagens
A. before Mitosis C. pesticides
B. during prophase D. all of these

6.17 Mutations 962
439. Sickle cell anemia is a disease that affects B. Deletion

one trait the shape of red blood cells. C. Insertion
Where was the “code” change most likely
made? D. Inversion
A. on the trait 445. Non dis-junction results in

B. on the whole chromosome A. inversion
C. on the gene B. dis-location
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. on the mutation C. frame shift
440. This type of mutation occurs when a sin- D. trisomy, such as down syndrome
gle nitrogen base or part of a gene is in- 446. Any change in the sequence of DNA nu-
correctly removed from a strand of DNA cleotides or chromosomes is called a
or RNA.
A. mutation
A. Insertion
B. single genotype
B. Duplication
C. monohybrid trait
C. Inversion
D. transgenic shift
D. Deletion
447. This type of mutation occurs when a sin-
441. Each codon has nitrogen bases. gle nitrogen base or part of a gene is added
A. 2 incorrectly to a strand of DNA or RNA.
B. 3 A. Insertion
C. 4 B. Duplication
D. 6 C. Inversion
D. Deletion
442. How many nucleotides equal 1 amino
acid? 448. Use of high energy waves to treat cancer
A. 1 is
B. 2 A. chemotherapy
C. 3 B. radiation
D. 4 C. removal of the tumor
D. none of above
443. What is a general term for something
that causes a mutation to occur? 449. If a mutation occurs in a somatic cell, you
A. Mutagen can expect
B. Carcinogen A. your offspring to inherit the mutation.
C. Poison B. all cells that replicate from that cell to
contain the mutation.
D. Toxin
C. the DNA from that cell will disassem-
444. DNA molecule segment is:TTACGCAAG ble and reorganize.
This is an example of mutation. D. the mutation will slowly fade and cor-
A. Substitution rect itself.

6.17 Mutations 963
450. Which of the following is not a Mutagenic 455. In eukaryotes, DNA never leaves the nu-
factor(causes mutations). cleus of the cell. Therefore, the genetic in-
formation is carried from the nucleus to the

A. X-rays
protein producing mechanisms by
B. Chemicals we smoke or eat
A. amino acids
C. Drinking water
B. RNA
D. Tanning C. glucose
451. True or False:The total number of nu- D. phospahtes
cleotides is changed during a substitution.
456. A type of substitution in which no amino
A. True:The total number of nucleotides acids change is called
increases.
A. Missense
B. False:The total number of nucleotides B. Nonsense
stays the same.
C. Silent
C. True:The total number of nucleotides
D. Deletion
decreases.
D. False:Not enough information is given. 457. What is it called when body cells grow
uncontrollably
452. What is mutagenesis? A. Spinal Stenosis
A. Multiple mutations. B. Anemia
B. The production of mutations. C. Cancer
C. Mutations that are gene specific. D. none of above
D. The study of mutations. 458. Gene mutations such as an insertion or
deletion cause
453. What are the possible effects of muta-
tions? A. missense
A. Good or beneficial B. nonsense
B. Not good or harmful C. frameshift

D. silent
C. Neutral or no effect
D. All of the choices 459. The genetic code depends on
A. the sugar phosphate backbone
454. What happens when the genetic code in
a gene is altered? B. the alignment and sequence of genes
on a chromosome
A. This situation has never occurred
C. the hydrogen bonds
B. A defective protein is produced, caus-
D. the covalent bonds
ing a mutation.
C. The genetic code is corrected by the 460. are gene mutations that involve one
lysosomes. or a few nucleotides.
D. Nothing changes; the correct proteins A. Frameshift mutations

are still made. B. Point mutations

6.17 Mutations 964
C. Gene mutations 466. What do gene mutations change?

D. Substitution mutations A. DNA
461. A point mutation B. RNA
A. is the insertion of a nucleotide in the C. Proteins
DNA sequence
D. Lipids
B. is the deletion of a base
C. is when one nucleotide is substituted
NARAYAN CHANGDER
467. Mutations are only passed on to off-
for another spring when they happen in
D. affects all the codons in a gene that fol-
A. somatic cells
lows it.
B. gamete cells
462. a change in one DNA triplet that may re-
sult in a new triplet that codes for a stop C. prokaryotic cells
codon instead of an amino acid is known
D. the mitochondria
as
A. missense 468. Which of these types of mutations do you
B. nonsense believe are most detrimental to the proper
formation of the protein? (In other words
C. frameshift
which of these has the most effect on the
D. silent amino acid sequence?)
463. Mutations are A. frameshift
A. Harmful B. silent
B. Harmful or beneficial
C. missense
C. Neutral
D. none of above
D. Harmful, neutral, or beneficial
464. If AUGCCG is the original sequence, and 469. What is the definition of a mutation?
AGCCG is the mutated sequence, what A. The original DNA strand
type of mutation do you have?
A. Insertion B. An identical copy of DNA
B. Point C. A change in the DNA strand

C. Substitution D. The strand in a double helix
D. Deletion
470. When one or more bases in DNA are re-
465. What kind of mutation occured in the placed with incorrect bases it is called a
sex chromosome of an individual with the mutation.
genotype XXY?
A. Substitution
A. base deletion
B. Inversion
B. inversion
C. base insertion C. Deletion
D. nondisjunction D. Insertion

6.18 Nondisjunction 965
471. Which type of mutation would the 474. Silent or neutral mutations indicate
following be:Normal-GAG-CTC-GAC- A. the amino acid sequence will change.
AGAMutantGAG-CTC-CAC-AGA

B. the amino acid sequence will stay the
A. no mutation
same.
B. substitution
C. are chromosomal mutations only.
C. insertion
D. will always make an incorrect protein.
D. deletion
475. The process to go from mRNA to a pro-
472. Why are mutations a good thing? tein is called
A. they are a source of genetic variation
A. transcription
B. they give people superpowers
B. rRNA
C. they are never a good thing
C. replication
D. none of above
D. translation
473. A mutation may be passed along to hu-
man offspring 476. Frameshifts may be caused by:
A. through mitosis only. A. Insertion and deletion
B. through meiosis only. B. Insertion and silent
C. through both mitosis and meiosis. C. Insertion and missense
D. through neither mitosis nor meiosis. D. Insertion, deletion, and missense
6.18 Nondisjunction
1. How many copies of each chromosome B. the M phase and the S phase.
should be present in the cells of a normal C. cytokinesis and mitosis.
human?
D. synthesis and cytokinesis.
A. 1
4. In humans, mitosis produces chromo-
B. 2
somes and chromosomes after Meio-
C. 3 sis
D. 4 A. 46, 46
2. Which is NOT a condition that arises from B. 92, 46
non disjunction? C. 46, 23
A. Klinefelter Syndrome D. 23, 23
B. Down Syndrome 5. What chromosomal abnormality causes
C. Turner’s Syndrome Down’s Syndrome?
D. Hurler Syndrome A. Trisomy 47
3. The two main stages of the cell cycle are B. Trisomy 46
called C. Trisomy 21
A. mitosis and interphase. D. Trisomy 23

6. The chromosomes that pair up during the 11. ? provides 4 genetically different,
first division of meiosis are called chro- haploid sperm while ? produces 1
mosomes. viable egg and 3 polar bodies.
A. homozygous A. Spermatogenesis; oogenesis
B. asexual B. Oogenesis; spermatogenesis
C. homologous C. Mitosis; meiosis
D. genes D. Meiosis; mitosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
12. Which of the following monitors a cell’s
7. When chromosomes fail to separate cor-
progress from phase to phase during the
rectly during meiosis, what can occur?
cell cycle?
A. extra chromosomes are found in the
A. cyclins
sex cell
B. lipids
B. chromosomes of the sex cell are dou-
bled C. microtubules
C. chromosomes of the sex cell are D. calcitonin
halved 13. DNA is replicated in the phase of
D. meiosis never completes A. G1 phase, interphase II
8. A human egg contains B. G1 phase, interphase
A. 22 autosomes and an X chromosome C. S phase, interphase
B. 22 autosomes and an Y chromosome D. G2 phase, interphase
C. 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes 14. New nuclear membranes form around chro-
mosomes and the cell begins to separate
D. 44 autosomes and an X and a Y chro-
during what phase?
mosome
A. Anaphase
9. Which of the following can a karyotype B. Telophase
not tell you?
C. Interphase
A. Whether someone has Down syn-
drome D. Metaphase
B. Whether someone has a monosomy 15. An egg contains

C. What gender someone is A. 22 autosomes and an X chromosome
D. Whether someone has Tay-Sachs B. 22 autosomes and an Y chromosome
C. 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes
10. How many chromosomes are in a typical
human somatic cell? D. 44 autosomes and an X and a Y chro-
mosome
A. 23
16. One difference between cell division in
B. 22
plant cells and in animal cells is that plant
C. 44 cells have
D. 46 A. centromeres.

B. centrioles. C. a karyotype
C. chromatin. D. autosomes

D. a cell plate. 23. During normal mitotic cell division, a par-
17. A picture of paired chromosomes is a ent cell having sixteen chromosomes will
produce two daughter cells, each contain-
A. sister chromatid ing
B. centromere A. thirty-two chromosomes.
C. syndrome B. two chromosomes.
D. karyotype C. sixteen chromosomes.
18. If an organism’s diploid number is 24, its D. eight chromosomes.
haploid number is
24. The likely cause of genetic disorders is
A. 24
A. Nondisjunction
B. 12
B. Overfertilization
C. 6
C. Uncontrolled Meiosis
D. 2
D. Translocation
19. Which term refers to a picture of an indi-
25. The cell cycle is the
vidual’s chromosomes, used to detect ge-
netic conditions? A. time from prophase until cytokinesis.
A. synapsis B. period of time between the birth and
the death of a cell.
B. tetrad
C. time it takes for one cell to undergo mi-
C. centriole
tosis.
D. karyotype
D. series of events that cells go through
20. The cells produced by meiosis are called: as they grow and divide.
A. sex cells/gametes 26. The presence of an abnormal number of
B. somatic cells chromosomes in a cell is called
C. body cells A. Euploidy
D. skin cells B. Aneuploidy
C. Monoploidy
21. Non-disjunction occurs in
D. Polyploidy
A. Only mitosis
B. Only meiosis 27. The failure of homologous chromosomes to
separate properly during meiosis is called
C. Both mitosis and meiosis
D. none of above A. fertilization
22. Chromosome pairs 1-22 are referred to as B. cell cycle
A. sex chromosomes C. nondisjunction
B. sister chromatids D. cytokinesis

28. When can a mutation be passed on to off- 33. Meiosis goes through
spring? A. PMAT twice.
A. only when the mutation is present dur- B. PMAT four times.
ing or occurs during mitosis
C. Nondisjunction twice.
B. only when the mutation is present dur-
ing or occurs during meiosis D. Nondisjunction four times.
C. when the mutation occurs during mito- 34. What would indicate a human male?
sis or meiosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. XX
D. when the mutation occurs in somatic B. X
cells
C. XY
29. Which best describes trisomy? D. XXY
A. inheriting three copies of a specific
chromosome 35. A picture of all the chromosomes in a nu-
cleus paired up is a
B. inheriting three complete sets of chro-
mosomes A. sister chromatid
C. when three chromosomes fuse to- B. centromere
gether C. syndrome
D. when a child inherits one less than the D. karyotype
normal diploid number
36. What is the only condition we studied that
30. Crossing over results in is a monosomal disorder?
A. a female genotype A. Klinefelters
B. a phenotype replication B. Down’s
C. genetic diversity C. Turners
D. a male genotype D. XYY
31. Tetrads are formed when two homologous 37. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells
chromosomes unite in meiosis. What could have lost the ability to control their
occur during the formed tetrad?
A. spindle fibers
A. crossing over could happen
B. size
B. the cell would stop dividing
C. surface area
C. the cell could die
D. growth rate
D. the cell would turn into a cancer cell
38. A diploid cell of a normal male human con-
32. Chromosomes condense from long stands tains
into rod like structures that are visible dur-
ing which phase? A. 22 autosomes and two Y-chromosomes.
A. Prophase
B. 22 pairs of autosomes and two Y-
B. Interphase chromosomes.
C. Telophase C. 22 pairs of autosomes, one X and one
D. Metaphase Y-chromosome

D. 22 autosomes and two X- D. None of these

chromosomes
40. What does meiosis provide that mitosis

39. Which of the following would be consid- doesn’t?
ered a Gamete cell? A. extra gametes
A. Egg Cell B. genetic variability
B. Sperm Cell C. polar bodies
C. Both of these D. genetic duplicity

7. The Molecular Basis of Inheritance
NARAYAN CHANGDER
7.1 The Search for Inheritable Material
1. What did Erwin Chargaff conclude from his 4. A set of traits an organism receives from
experiments? its parents
A. Nitrogen bases are held together by A. heredity
peptide bonds
B. DNA
B. A and T, C and G always occur in equal
amounts C. chromosome
C. Proteins are the carriers of genetic in- D. allele

formation
5. What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
D. C and G rarely occur in eukaryotic or-
ganisms A. adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and gua-
nine
2. An inherited characteristic is knows as B. adenine, thymine cytosine, and gua-
a(n): nine
A. Pedigree C. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gyl-
B. Trait cerol
C. Chromatid D. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glu-
D. Chromosome cose
3. The process of DNA replication occurs in 6. What is the site where DNA separates and
which organelle? replication occurs?
A. Cytoplasm A. Replication sites

B. Ribosome B. Replication spoons
C. Nucleus C. Replication split
D. Mitochondria D. Replication forks

7.1 The Search for Inheritable Material 971
7. What is found in the nucleus? 13. The enzyme that constructs the new
A. Chromosomes strand of DNA during replication is known
as

B. DNA
A. DNA Helicase
C. Genes
B. DNA Polymerase
D. All of the options
C. DNA Ligase
8. The work of Erwin Chargaff allowed Wat-
son and Crick to determine the rules of D. RNA Polymerase
A. protein synthesis 14. Which cell components are responsible for

B. transcription the inherited traits that a pea plant pos-
sesses?
C. hydrogen bonding
A. Chromosomes, mitochondria, vac-
D. nitrogen base pairing
uoles
9. Erwin Chargaff discovered what feature B. DNA, Nucleus, Chromosomes
regarding DNA
C. Genes, Cytoplasm, Cell Membrane
A. The Helical structure
D. DNA, Proteins, Chloroplasts
B. The constant ratio of the bases
C. The Sugar-Phosphate Backbone 15. Organisms pass traits from one generation
to the next. Traits are
D. The length of a strand of DNA
A. located in the chromosome of each cell
10. Which shows the correct complementary
base pairing for DNA?
B. found in the vacuoles of each cell.
A. C-A, T-G
C. found in the cytoplasm of each cell
B. A-G, C-T
D. acquired at the time of birth.
C. C-G, U-A
D. T-A, G-C 16. In order for replication to occur, which
bonds needs to be broken?
11. Which would be an example of a trait
shaped by their environment? A. hydrogen bonds (between the sugar
and phosphate)
A. Eye color
B. hydrogen bonds (between the bases)
B. Hair color
C. covalent bonds (between the sugar
C. Language they speak
and phosphate)
D. Height
D. covalent bonds (between the bases)
12. Which enzyme is responsible for unwind-
ing and unzipping the DNA during replica- 17. In a certain gene, 15% of the DNA is
tion AND transcription? thymine, how much of it is adenine?
A. DNA Helicase A. 15
B. DNA Polymerase B. 35
C. DNA Ligase C. 30
D. RNA Polymerase D. 70

7.1 The Search for Inheritable Material 972
18. Watson and Crick were the first to suggest 24. DNA replication produces molecules of
that DNA is DNA.
A. the shape of a double helix A. 2 Identifcal
B. a protein molecule B. 2 Different
C. the genetic material C. 4 Identical
D. a short molecule D. 4 Different
25. By using radioactive isotopes, Hershey
NARAYAN CHANGDER
19. Which sugar is contained in DNA
and Chase were able to conclude that
A. Dextrose is/are the carrier(s) of genetic informa-
B. Ribose tion.
C. Deoxyribose A. DNA
D. Glucose B. Proteins
C. Carbohydrates
20. A gene is
D. Lipids
A. A series of sister chromatids
B. Heterozygous (Bb) 26. The basic unit of heredity is called a(n):
C. Homozogous (BB) A. Gene
D. A unit of heredity B. Allele
C. Phenotype
21. Replication use to make more
D. Genotype
A. DNA, RNA
27. From his work with mice and pneumonia-
B. RNA, RNA
causing bacteria, Frederick Griffin discov-
C. DNA, DNA ered
D. DNA, Protein A. Replication
22. Given the following sequence- B. Transcription
ATGCGTGACGATAThe complimentary se- C. Transformation
quence would be D. Translation
A. ATGCGTGACGATA
28. Another scientist proposed a triple helix
B. UACGCACUGCUAU structure of DNA. What was their name?
C. TACGCACTGCTAT A. Rosalind Franklin
D. TACGTCGATATGE B. Maurice Wilkins
23. Which of the following pairs identifies the C. Linus Pauling
PURINE nitrogen bases? D. Erwin Chargaff
A. Cytosine and Thymine
29. DNA Replication occurs in which phase of
B. Adenine and Thymine interphase?
C. Adenine and Guanine A. G1
D. Cytosine and Guanine B. S

7.2 Structure of Nucleic Acids 973
C. G2 A. Amino Acids
D. Mitosis B. Proteins

30. A segment of DNA that contributes to the C. Nucleic Acids
inheritance of a particular trait.
D. Carbohydrates
A. chromosome
B. allele 32. What are threadlike structures found in
C. gene the nucleus?
D. RNA A. Chromosomes
31. The work of scientists including Griffin, Av- B. DNA
ery, Hershey & Chase and Franklin helped
C. Genes
us to determine the are responsible for
carrying genetic material. D. Alleles
7.2 Structure of Nucleic Acids

1. A mRNA strand has the following set of 4. DNA is found in ?
nucleotides ACGUUCAGCAUC. A teacher A. cell membrane
asked the students to organize the strand
to represent sets of codons. What is the B. vacuole
correct answer to that the students gave? C. chloroplast
A. ACGU UCAG CAUC D. nucleus
B. ACG UUC AGC AUC
5. Which nucleic acid forms ribosomes?
C. AC GU UC AG CA UC A. mRNA
D. AC GUU CA GCA UC B. DNA
2. Which of these is not found in DNA? C. tRNA
A. adenine D. rRNA
B. thymine 6. Which base is not found in RNA?
C. phosphate A. adenine
D. ribose B. cytosine
3. The nucleotides with nitrogen bases made C. thymine
of 2 rings are known as , while the nu- D. uracil
cleotides with nitrogen bases made of 1
ring are known as 7. What is the difference between DNA and
RNA in terms of bases?
A. purines, pyrimidines
A. RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
B. pyrimidines, purines
C. dirings, monorings B. RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
D. birings, unirings

C. RNA contains uracil in place of guanine 13. Which of the following store and transmit
hereditary information?
D. RNA contains uracil in place of cyto- A. Carbohydrates
sine
B. Lipids
8. What bonds changes and what into C. Proteins
A. AT to AU D. Nucleic acids
B. AU to AT
NARAYAN CHANGDER
14. The two strands making up the DNA dou-
C. CG to CU ble helix molecule
D. none of above A. contain ribose and deoxyribose in op-
posite strands.
9. Name the location where strands begin to
separate. B. are held together by hydrogen bonds.
A. replication spoon C. are attached through a phosphate to
B. replication fork hold the strands together.
C. synthase D. contain uracil but not thymine.
D. prokaryote 15. What is the distinction between short tan-

dem repeats (STRs) and genes?
10. Nucleotides come together to form what
kind of DNA structure? A. STRs have greater amounts of guanine
A. stem and leaf helix
B. STRs have greater amounts of cyto-
B. compound helix
sine
C. double helix
C. STRs are not replicated
D. triple helix
D. STRs are not transcribed
11. Which of the four major biological macro-
molecules can be easily identified by the 16. Amino acids are linked into polypeptides
nitrogen base and phosphate found in its through a process called a in which
structure? water is removed and a covalent bond is
formed.
A. carbohydrate
A. Dehydration Reaction
B. lipid
B. Hydrolysis
C. protein
C. Dehydrolytic Regulation
D. nucleic acid
D. Hydrolytication Reaction
12. How many atoms can a Carbon atom po-
tentially bind to? 17. Which of these is NOT found in RNA?
A. 1 A. ribose sugar
B. 2 B. uracil
C. 3 C. cytosine
D. 4 D. thymine

18. What does it mean that the strands of DNA 23. What is mRNA?
are “antiparallel?” A. This type of RNA carries amino acids
to the ribosome

A. that A always matches with T and C al-
ways matches with G B. This type of RNA is used as a messen-
B. that the two sides are held together by ger, in the shape of a straight strand, con-
weak Hydrogen bonds tains codons, matches up with anticodons
C. that they run in opposite directions

C. This type of RNA is found in the ribo-
D. that they can only be replicated in one somes
direction D. none of above
19. Which contains guanine? 24. how do bases in DNA attach to each other
A. DNA A. phosphodiester bonds
B. RNA B. condestion reactions
C. hydrogen bonds
C. Both
D. nitrogen bonds
D. none of above
25. What is helicase?
20. The primary structure of a protein A. this enzyme unzips the DNA double he-
A. the sequence of amino acids lix
B. interactions between polypeptides B. This molecule is double-stranded
C. This molecule is single-stranded
C. only hydrogen bonds between R
groups D. none of above
D. disulfide bridges, ionic bonds, or other 26. DNA Replication occurs

interactions between R-groups A. during Anaphase I
B. during Prophase I
21. How many different kinds of polypeptides,
each composed of 12 amino acids, could be C. during S phase of Interphase
synthesized using the 20 common amino D. during Metaphase
acids?
27. The repeating units in both DNA and RNA
A. 412 are called
B. 1220 A. hydrogen bonds
C. 20 B. nucleic acids
D. 2012 C. nucleotides
D. amino acids
22. What is the function of nucleic acids?
28. what do all organic bases contain
A. Stores energy
A. oxygen
B. Stores genetic information B. hydrogen
C. Movement C. carbon
D. Physical structure D. nitrogen

29. Name of the covalent bond which holds nu- 34. insulin is:
cleotides together. A. Structural protein
A. Phosphodiester Bond B. Hormonal protein
B. Amino Bond C. Transport protein
C. Nucleic Bond D. Defensive protein
D. Peptide Bond 35. The shape of DNA found in bacteria, mi-

tochondria, and chloroplasts is best de-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
30. What energy molecule is made up of nu- scribed as a
cleic acids? A. short chain
A. glucose B. long chain
B. ATP C. triple helix
C. peptase D. ring
D. none of above 36. The structure of DNA is because the

2 strands of nucleotides are equidistant
31. Which contains deoxyribose sugar? from one another and they are oriented in
opposite directions.
A. DNA
A. anti-parallel
B. RNA
B. parallel
C. Both
C. conservative
D. none of above D. semiconservative
32. What is replication? 37. Which of the following is the correct base
paring rule for RNA?
A. Process by which DNA is copied, oc-
curs only in the nucleus and involves only A. A pairs with U, and C pairs with G
DNA, process involves 2 enzymes B. A pairs with G, and T pairs with C
B. Process by which DNA is coded into C. A pairs with T, and C pairs with G
RNA D. A pairs with C, and G pairs with T
C. Process where peptide bonds are 38. The monomers of nucleic acids are
formed between amino acids
A. Nucleotides
D. none of above
B. Amino Acids
33. What is transcription? C. Glycerol
A. This process creates proteins D. Glucose
B. This process occurs in the cytoplasm 39. The function of RNA is
C. This process by which DNA is coded in A. Transmit heredity information

RNA, occurs in the nucleus and involves B. Stores hereditary information
both DNA and RNA, this process creates C. Lays down primers
RNA
D. Seals gaps in the sugar-phosphate
D. none of above backbone

40. Complementary nitrogen base pairs are 45. Which scientist discovered transforma-
held together by (The type of bonds tion?
that hold one side of the DNA molecule to A. Avery

the other.)
B. Griffith
A. metallic bonds C. Khorana
B. hydrogen bonds D. Chargoff
C. ionic bonds 46. What is the product of translation?
D. covalent bonds A. DNA
B. mRNA
41. Which of the following is true of prokary-
otic DNA?None, some or all may be cor- C. tRNA
rect. D. proteins
A. It is linear 47. Complementary base pairing link
B. It is contained in a single chromosome together-
A. sugars
C. It is found in the nucleus B. nitrogenous bases
D. It is associated with histone proteins C. phosphate groups
D. amino acids
42. Enzymes are an example of which macro-
molecule? 48. The sides of a DNA molecule are made of
A. Fatty Acid and Glycerol
A. Carbohydrates
B. Sugar and Phosphate
B. Lipids
C. Amino Acids and Peptides
C. Proteins
D. Nitrogenous Bases and Enzymes
D. Nucleic Acids
49. Who is responsible for discovering DNA
43. The sugar that is in the backbone of DNA base pairing rules?
is called A. J. Watson & F. Crick
A. fructose B. O. Avery
B. ribose C. R. Franklin
D. Chargaff
C. glucose
50. What is the function of helicase?
D. deoxyribose
A. removes supercoiling ahead of the
44. Which bonds are created during the forma- replication fork
tion of the primary structure of a protein? B. adds complementary nucleotides to a
A. Peptide bonds newly replicating strand
B. Hydrogen bonds C. separates the two strands of a DNA

molecule
C. Disulfide bonds
D. prevents separated DNA strands from
D. Phosphodiester bonds coming back together again

51. Enzymes lower the activation energy of 57. Nucleotide bases pair in DNA through
chemical reactions which in turn speeds
A. hydrogen bonds between complemen-
them up. They also are not consumed dur-
tary bases
ing the reaction. This makes them a
B. polar covalent bonds between comple-
A. Catalyst
mentary bases
B. Reactant
C. sugar bonds between complementary
C. Substrate bases
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Products D. none of the choices
52. Monomers which make up nucleic acids
58. In the DNA double helix, the two back-
A. nucleotides bones run in opposite 5→ 3 directions
B. amino acids from each other, an arrangement referred
C. monosaccharides to as
D. lipids A. Anti-sequence
B. Anti-parallel
53. The word saccharide means:
A. sugar C. Sequence
B. glucose D. Parallel
C. sweetener 59. The monomer that makes up a nucleic acid
D. carbohydrate is called a:
54. Which would best distinguish a nucleic acid A. Chloroplast
from a carbohydrate? B. Chromosome
A. presence of carbon C. Nucleotide
B. presences of adenine D. none of above
C. presence of fatty acids
D. presence of amino acids 60. Which of the following is considered as a
quaternary protein:
55. What is the ratio of elements in nucleic A. Transthyretin
acids?
B. Hemoglobin
A. 1:2:few
B. 1:1 C. Collagen
C. 1:2:1 D. All choices are correct

D. none 61. Which describes the components of a nu-
56. What part of the virus enters inside the cleotide of DNA?
bacteria? A. Ribose, phosphate group, uracil
A. Carbohydrates B. Ribose, phosphate group, cytosine
B. Lipids C. Deoxyribose, phosphate group, uracil
C. Proteins D. Deoxyribose, phosphate group, ade-
D. DNA nine

62. How many different types of reactions can C. Many carbon isotopes are radioactive.
an eznyme facilitate? (Types, not total
number)

D. Many carbon allotropes occur in na-
A. 1 ture
B. Infinite
68. What maintains the secondary structure of
C. 17 a protein?
D. Depends on the enzyme
A. Peptide bonds
63. What nucleotide base does RNA contain B. Hydrogen bonds
that DNA does not?
C. Disulfide bonds
A. adenine (A)
D. Ionic bonds
B. cytosine (C)
C. uracil (U) 69. Which contains cytosine?
D. thymine (T) A. DNA
64. The building blocks in RNA are: B. RNA
A. Nucleotides C. Both
B. Nucleosides D. none of above
C. Amino acids
70. How many base pairs are there in one full
D. DNA turn of the DNA double helix?
65. What is never found in RNA? A. 4
A. Adenine B. 10
B. Cytosine C. 16
C. Thymine D. 64
D. none of above
71. Adenine, Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine
66. How many carbon atoms are there in a ri- are what?
bose and a deoxyribose sugar molecule?
A. Phosphates
A. Six
B. Sugars
B. Five
C. Nucleotides
C. Three
D. Eight D. Bases
67. Which characteristic BEST explains why 72. What elements make up Proteins?
carbon is relevant to living organisms? A. C, H, O, N, (S)
A. Carbon is the most common element
B. C, H, O, N
on Earth.
C. C, H, O, N, P
B. Carbon can form a wide variety of
molecules. D. C, H, O

73. How would the following DNA sequence, 79. A segment of DNA that codes for a partic-
ACGTTGCATGGCA, be transcribed? ular protein which in turn codes for a
A. UGCAACGUACCGU trait is called a
A. mutation
B. TGCAACGTACCGT
B. nitrogen base
C. ACGTTGCATGGCA
C. phosphate group
D. ACGUUGCAUGGCA
D. gene
NARAYAN CHANGDER
74. If you have 40 adenine in a DNA molecule,
80. What are 2 types of nucleic acids?
how many thymine can you expect?
A. Fatty Acids and Glycerol
A. 20
B. DNA and RNA
B. 30
C. Amino Acids and Enzymes
C. 40
D. Monosaccharides and Polysaccha-
D. 50 rides
75. Adenine matches with what in RNA? 81. How many phosphate groups are found in
a molecule of ATP?
A. guanine
A. 1
B. cytosine
B. 2
C. thymine
C. 3
D. uracil
D. 4
76. Which is NOT part of a nucleotide? 82. DNA codes for genes which are used to
A. Amino Group make
B. Phosphate Group A. lipids
C. Sugar B. proteins
D. Nitrogenous Base C. RNA
D. carbon
77. Nucleosomes are involved in
83. What does the function of DNA depend on
A. supercoiling of chromosomes
A. phosphodiester bonds
B. regulation of transcription
B. base pairings
C. both of these
C. hydrogen bonds
D. neither of these
D. condensation reactions
78. Which of the following is the monomer of 84. The ‘backbone’ or ‘ribbon’ of the DNA
a nucleic acid? strand is made of:
A. Amino Acid A. phosphate and sugar
B. Monosaccharide B. phosphate only
C. Nucleotide C. phosphate and base
D. Nitrogenous Base D. sugar and base

85. The purpose of DNA ligase 90. The difference between the sugar in DNA
and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in
A. to replace RNA primers with DNA dur-
DNA:

ing replication
A. Is a six-carbon sugar and the sugar in
B. to join Okizaki fragments during repli-
RNA is a five-carbon sugar
cation
B. Can form a double-stranded molecule
C. to add RNA nucleotides during tran-
scription C. Can attach to a phosphate
D. Contains one less oxygen atom
D. to add the poly-A tail to pre-mRNA
91. What happens during translation?
86. Which nucleic acid carries amino acids to
ribosomes? A. Copying of DNA to produce DNA
A. mRNA B. Copying of DNA to produce mRNA

C. Copying of DNA to produce tRNA
B. DNA
D. Polypeptide synthesis
C. tRNA
D. rRNA 92. Which type of interaction stabilizes the al-
pha (α ) helix and the beta (β ) pleated
87. What is the term used for a protein sheet structures of proteins?
molecule that assists in the proper folding A. Hydrophobic interactions
of other proteins? B. Nonpolar covalent bonds
A. Tertiary protein C. Hydrogen bonds
B. Chaperonin D. Peptide bonds
C. Enzyme protein
93. What is a start codon?
D. Renaturing protein A. This always reads:AUG, This begins ev-
ery polypeptide chain, This codes for me-
88. What is the purpose of your DNA and
thionine, If a missense mutation occurs in
RNA?
this codon, the protein will never be trans-
A. code for proteins lated
B. provide support to the nucleus B. This is a set of 3 nucleotides on mRNA
C. serves as a catalyst in chemical reac-
tions C. This is a set of 3 nucleotides on tRNA
D. provide energy for your ribosomes D. none of above
94. Which of the following molecules is respon-

89. Which part of an amino acids gives the
sible for storing genetic information in a
molecule its function?
cell?
A. R-Group A. nucleic acid
B. Amino Group B. protein
C. Carboxyl Group C. carbohydrate
D. Hydrogen D. lipid

95. What is the type of virus that infects bac- B. ATA, GCG and TGC
teria?
C. AUA, GCG and UGC
A. Invader virus
D. TAT, CGC and ACG
B. Virobacteria
C. Bacteriovirus 101. How many amino acids would be linked
together to form a protein based on the
D. Bacteriophage DNA sequence-ATGGCTCGATCA?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
96. Which is a function of nucleic acids? A. 1
A. defense B. 2
B. speed up reactions C. 3
C. movement D. 4
D. store genetic information
102. The amount of adenine is always equal to
97. This macromolecule functions to store the amount of
heredity information and carry out protein
A. amino acid
synthesis-
A. Carbohydrates B. thymine
B. Lipids C. cytosine
C. Proteins D. guanine
D. Nucleic Acids 103. VNTR’s are
98. What is the monomer of nucleic acids? A. repetitive non-coding sequences of
A. Glycerol DNA
B. Monosaccharides B. not transcribed into mRNA
C. Amino Acids C. used in DNA profiling
D. Nucleotides D. all of these
99. After DNA is “unzipped”, which enzyme is 104. What are the monomers for Nucleic
responsible for adding nucleotides to the Acids?
exposed nitrogen bases?
A. Monosaccarides
A. topoisomerase
B. Amino Acids
B. DNA polymerase
C. Nucleotides
C. ligase
D. Nitrogen Acids
D. primase
100. The antisense strand on the DNA 105. When coiled together, DNA looks like a:
molecule coding for three codons of a gene A. Single Helix
isTATCGCACGWhat are the anticodons of
B. Double Helix
the three tRNA molecules that correspond
to this sequence? C. Triple Helix
A. UAU, CGC and ACG D. Broken Ladder

106. The loss of a protein’s native structure: C. Disulfide bridges

A. Denaturation D. All choices are correct

B. Renaturation
112. What is the DNA Polymerase?
C. Activation
A. shortened version of the words de-
D. Dehydration
oxyribonucleic acid
107. Injected mice with bacteria. B. This enzyme is used in transcription
A. Griffith C. This enzyme creates a polymer of DNA,
B. Watson & Crick enzyme used to to add new strands of DNA
C. Hershey & Chase to the template strand
D. Franklin D. none of above
108. What is the ribosome? 113. Which of the following describes a DNA
A. This is a protein that can be found float- strand that would be most stable at high
ing free in the cytoplasm or attached to temperatures?
the rough ER, SITE OF PROTEIN SYNTHE- A. 25% A/T and 75% C/G
SIS, translation begins when mRNA and
B. 50% A/T and 50% C/G
tRNA attach to this
B. This begins every polypeptide chain C. 75% A/T and 25% C/G
C. This ends translation D. 100% A/T and 0% C/G

D. none of above 114. Molecule X contains a long chain of
109. The unique sequence of amino acids to AMINO ACIDS. What is molecule X?
form a polypeptide A. Carbohydrate
A. Primary Structure B. Lipid
B. Secondary Structure C. Protein
C. Tertiery Structure D. Nucleic Acid
D. Quaternary Structure
115. Which is a double stranded molecule?
110. DNA molecules are composed of long
chains of A. DNA
A. amino acids B. RNA
B. nucleotides C. Both
C. fatty acids D. none of above
D. monosaccharides
116. The two strands in a DNA molecule are
111. Which type of bond(s) that exists be- A. anti-parallel
tween the R group of a protein showing
a tertiary structure: B. parallel
A. Ionic C. hexagonal
B. Van der waals D. bimodal

117. Which base is only found in RNA? C. This process only involves one enzyme
A. Uracil
B. Thymine D. none of above
C. Adenine 123. Tertiary structure of protein is referred

D. Guanine to:
A. The sequence of amino acids in
118. What is the most important biomolecules polypeptide chain
that serves as the blueprint of life?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. The alpha helices and beta-pleated
A. carbohydrates sheet
B. lipids C. Three dimensional shape of protein
C. nucleic acids D. The number and arrangement of multi-
D. proteins ple folded protein subunits
119. Which of the following is not true about 124. All organic compounds contain the ele-
RNA ment
A. RNA contains Ribose A. carbon
B. RNA is single stranded B. nitrogen
C. RNA contains Uracil C. phosphorus
D. RNA makes DNA D. sulfur
120. Which nucleic acid carries messages to ri- 125. Which of the following are nitrogenous
bosomes? bases of the pyrimidine type?
A. mRNA A. Guanine and adenine
B. DNA B. Cytosine and uracil
C. tRNA C. Thymine and guanine
D. rRNA D. Ribose and deoxyribose
121. The generic name for the monomer that 126. Which of these is not part of a nu-
makes up lipids is: cleotide?
A. nitrogenous base A. sugar
B. nuclear base B. phosphate
C. amino acids C. nitrogen base
D. nucleotide D. phospholipid
122. What is translation? 127. Each triplet of nucleotides in mRNA that
A. This process only opens a portion of specifies a particular amino acid is called-
the DNA called a gene A. a codon
B. This process creates proteins, occurs B. an anitcodon
in the cytoplasm, involves ribosomes,
where peptide bonds are formed between C. an intron
amino acids, involves tRNA D. an exon

128. The coiling of a polypeptide due to hydro- 133. Who took the first picture of DNA?
gen bonding between amino acids A. Franklin

A. Primary Structure B. Hershey and Chase
B. Secondary Structure C. Chase and Crick
C. Tertiery Structure D. Watson and Crick
D. Quaternary Structure
134. WHAT ARE DNA AND RNA MADE OF
129. The two DNA strands are joining together A. bases
by:
B. nucleotides
A. Phosphodiester bonds
C. phosphate
B. Hydrogen bonds
D. none of above
C. Pebtide bonds
D. DNA bonds 135. Which of the following is NOT one of the
three groups comprising the nucleotide?
130. If in any organism a DNA molecule is A. R group
24% cytosine, how much adenine will that
DNA molecule contain? B. phosphate
A. 24% C. nitrogenous base
B. 26% D. pentose sugar
C. 48% 136. Which sequence of DNA would be comple-

mentary to this sequence?ATG TGA CAG
D. 52%
A. ATG TGA CAG
131. What is the significance of Taq poly-
B. GTA AGT GAC
merase?
C. TAC ACT GTC
A. it catalyzes the production tRNA
molecules D. CAT TCA CTG
B. it can withstand the heating needed 137. Which bond is present between two
for PCR amino acids?
C. it can catalyze the production of both A. Glycosidic Bond
DNA and mRNA
B. Phosphodiester bond
D. it does the proofreading during
prokaryotic replication C. Ester Bond
D. Peptide Bond
132. In the double helix structure of nucleic
acids, cytosine hydrogen bonds to: 138. The genetic material in cells is called
A. Deoxyribose A. RNA
B. Adenine B. Gene
C. Thymine C. DNA
D. Guanine D. Neuclotide

139. The polymer which folds into proteins B. Hydrogen Bond

A. Polypeptide C. Covalent Bond
B. Amino Acids D. Glycosidic Bond
C. Nucleic Acids
145. What is a silent mutation?
D. Polynucleotides
A. This begins every polypeptide chain
140. The tertiary structure of a protein B. This does not code for an amino acid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. the sequence of amino acids C. This is a type of substitution mutation
B. interactions between polypeptides which does not change the amino acid se-
quence, This type of substitution mutation
C. only hydrogen bonds between R
is not shown on the genetic level
groups
D. none of above
D. disulfide bridges, ionic bonds, or other
interactions between R-groups 146. At which level of protein structure are
interactions between the side chains (R
141. Which molecule is found in both DNA and
groups) most important?
RNA?
A. Primary
A. Ribose
B. Uracil B. Secondary
C. Amino acid C. Tertiary
D. Phosphate D. Quaternary
142. What other macromolecule makes nucleic 147. Which base is ONLY found in DNA?
acids? A. Cytosine
A. lipids B. Guanine
B. carbohydrates C. Thymine
C. proteins D. Adenine
D. none of above
148. Select the correct functions of nucleic
143. What is the significance of nucleic acids acids:
for cells? A. Store and transmit genetic information
A. They generate energy for the cell and contains the instructions to make pro-
teins.
B. They restrict what enters and leaves
the cell. B. insulation
C. They support and maintain the shape C. Contains the information to make car-
of the cell. bohydrates
D. They provide all instructions for cellu- D. energy storage
lar activities.
149. The third level of protein structure caused
144. What type of bond links two nitrogenous by hydrophillic/hydrophobic interactions
bases? of R-groups
A. Peptide bond A. Primary Structure

B. Secondary Structure B. 15
C. Tertiery Structure C. 20

D. Quaternary Structure D. 25
150. Nitrogen Bases for DNA:
155. What do we call DNA replication since
A. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Uracil new DNA has 1 parent strand and 1 new
strand?
B. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Phos- A. Conservative
phate
B. Semiconservative
C. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and
Thymine C. Dispersive
D. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Sulfur D. none of above
151. Which events take place in DNA replica- 156. Which contains uracil?
tion?I. Formation of messenger RNAII. Un-
winding of DNA double helixIII. Formation A. DNA
of complementary strands by DNA poly- B. RNA
merase
C. Both
A. I and II only
D. none of above
B. I and III only
C. II and III only 157. How many different trinucleotides can be
D. I, II and III made using the DNA nucleotides?
A. 4
152. The bonding of two amino acid molecules
to form a larger molecule requires B. 20
A. The release of a water molecule C. 16
B. The release of a carbon dioxide D. 64
molecule
C. The addition of a nitrogen atom 158. The joining of two adjacent nucleotide in
DNA strand is by:
D. The addition of a water molecule
A. Peptide bond
153. The end result of amino acids joining to-
gether in translation is a B. Hydrogen bond
A. polysaccharide C. Phosphodiester bond

B. protein D. Glycosidic bond
C. DNA
159. This enzyme has proofreading abilities.
D. RNA
A. ligase
154. There are different amino acids which
B. helicase
can provide the many different possible se-
quences of proteins in our body. C. primase
A. 10 D. DNA polymerase

160. Which strand of DNA would pair with 5’- C. Both

GATCT-3’ D. none of above
A. 5’-CTAGA-3’
166. What is the name given to the opposite
B. 5’-CUAGA-3’
process of condensation polymerisation?
C. 5’-AGATC-3’
A. neutralisation
D. 5’-TCTAG-3’
B. addition
NARAYAN CHANGDER
161. What are the components of each nu- C. hydrolysis
cleotide?
D. none of above
A. glucose, water, and cellulose
B. adenine, thymine, and cytosine 167. the bond between two mononucleotides
is called?
C. a phosphate group, a sugar molecule,
and a nitrogen A. carbon carbon double bond
D. a phosphate group, a five-carbon B. hydrogen bond

sugar, and an amino acid C. phosphodiester bond
162. Nucleotides are held together by D. disulfide bond

bonds.
168. Which is a single stranded molecule?
A. metallic bonds
A. DNA
B. James Bond
B. RNA
C. ionic bonds
C. Both
D. covalent bonds
D. none of above
163. How many polynucleotide strands are
found in a tRNA molecule? 169. Which is the correct pairing?
A. 1 A. A-C
B. 2 B. A-T
C. 3 C. A-G
164. The structure of DNA can be described as 170. Who discovered the structure of DNA and
a: won a Nobel Prize?
A. trapeziod A. Franklin
B. double helix B. Hershey and Chase
C. concentric circle C. Chase and Crick
D. acute angle D. Watson and Crick
165. Which contains adenine? 171. The secondary structure of a protein

A. DNA A. the sequence of amino acids
B. RNA B. interactions between polypeptides

C. only hydrogen bonds between R 177. Which cell structure is responsible for as-
groups sembling amino acids into proteins?

D. disulfide bridges, ionic bonds, or other A. mitochondria
interactions between R-groups B. ribosomes
172. The percentage of thymine in the DNA of C. nucleus
an organism is approximately 30%. What D. nucleolus
is the percentage of guanine?
178. Which has 4 nitrogen bases?
A. 70%
A. DNA
B. 30%
B. RNA
C. 40%
C. Both
D. 20%
D. none of above
173. Which of the following elements make up
nucleic acids? 179. What differentiates one protein from an-
other?
A. C, H, O
A. size of amino acids
B. C, H, O, N
B. color of amino acids
C. C, H, O, N, P
C. sequence of amino acids
D. C, H, O, Ca, S
D. chemical structure of amino acids
180. The substance doing the reacting (water
flow of information in eukaryotic cells?
in hydrolysis for example) during a chemi-
A. DNA → RNA → proteins cal reaction
B. DNA → proteins → RNA A. Reactant
C. RNA → DNA → proteins B. Substrate
D. proteins → DNA → RNA C. Catalyst
175. Sides or backbones of DNA molecules are D. Products

made up of? 181. What is the central dogma of molecular
A. Alternating sugars-phosphates biology?
B. Nitrogen and Phosphate A. RNA-protein-DNA
C. Alternating sugar-sulfur B. RNA-DNA-protein
D. Carbon and Hydrogen C. DNA-protein-RNA
D. DNA-RNA-prtein
176. If a nucleic acid has six carbon, how many
oxygen’s does it have? 182. What is the monomer of Proteins?
A. 6 A. Nucleotides
B. 9 B. Amino Acid
C. 12 C. Fatty Acids
D. cannot be determined D. Monosaccharides

183. If the mRNA code is CCUGAUGCA, what C. G2 (2nd Growth)

would the corresponding DNA code be? D. M (Mitotic)
A. GGACTACGT
189. Which technique was used to determine
B. GGTCUACGU the double-helical structure of DNA?
C. GGACTACGT A. electrophoresis
D. CCTGATGCA
B. chromatography
NARAYAN CHANGDER
184. Which contains ribose sugar? C. centrifugation
A. DNA D. X-ray crystallography
B. RNA
190. Of the following functions, the major pur-
C. Both pose of RNA is to:
D. none of above A. Transmit genetic information to off-
spring
185. If one strand of DNA has the sequence G-
C-C-A-T-A, the sequence of bases on the B. Function in the synthesis of protein
complementary DNA strand will be C. Act as a pattern or blueprint to form
A. A-T-T-G-C-G DNA
B. C-G-G-U-A-U D. Form the genes of higher organisms
C. G-C-C-A-T-A 191. There are phosphate groups on ATP
D. C-G-G-T-A-T and on ADP.
A. 3 / 2
186. Which nucleic acid only exists in the nu-
cleus? B. 3 / 3
A. mRNA C. 2 / 3
B. DNA D. 2 / 2
C. tRNA 192. The difference between the amino acid
D. rRNA glycine and the amino acid proline is found
in the:
187. What does the universal nature of the ge-
A. Amino group
netic code allow?
B. Carboxyl group
A. Change of genetic code in the same
species C. R group
B. Transfer of genes between species D. Peptide bonds
C. Formation of clones 193. Which of the following researchers took
D. Infection by bacteria key photographs of DNA?
188. In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA A. Watson and Crick
replication take place? B. Chargaff and Avery
A. G1 (1st Growth) C. Hershey and Chase
B. S (Synthesis) D. Franklin and Wilkins

194. A certain gene in a bacterium codes for a 199. DNA Spiral Structure is known as a:
polypeptide that is 120 amino acids long. A. Double Helix
How many nucleotides are needed in the

mRNA to code for this polypeptide? B. Double Rope
C. Double Strand
A. 30
D. none of above
B. 40
C. 360 200. The substance being reacted in a chemical
reaction
D. 480
A. Substrate
195. A piece of DNA was analysed and 15% B. Catalyst
of its nucleotides were adenine. What per-
C. Products
centage would be uracil?
D. Reactants
A. 0%
B. 15% 201. Which of the following describes the role
of DNA polymerase III?
C. 35%
A. Attaching complementary nucleotides
D. 70% together during replication
196. DNA and RNA are similar because they B. Attaching codons to anticodons
both contain C. Attaching DNA nucleotides to the
growing DNA strand during replication
A. deoxyribose.
D. Attaching amino acids to tRNA
B. double helices.
molecules
C. thymine.
202. Which of these chemical “tags”, if at-
D. nucleotides. tached to a nucleosome, would inhibit gene
expression?
197. DNA & RNA are examples of-
A. methyl group
A. Proteins
B. acetyl group
B. Nucleic Acids
C. both of these
C. Carbohydrates
D. neither of these
D. Lipids
203. nucleic acids are
198. What are the 4 nitrogen bases in DNA? A. hydrophilic
A. adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and gua- B. hydrophobic
nine
C. neither
B. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glyc-
D. both
erol
C. adenine, thymine cytosine, and gua- 204. Other than the nucleus, DNA can be found
nine in what two organelles?
D. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glu- A. mitochondria and ribosomes

cose B. mitochondria and lysosomes

C. mitochondria and chloroplasts 210. antiparallel stands of nucleotides run in:

D. chloroplasts & ribosomes A. opposite directions
B. the same direction
205. What is the product of transcription?
C. base pairs
A. DNA
D. chromosomes
B. mRNA
211. Short fragments that result from the
C. tRNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
discontinuous synthesis of the lagging
D. proteins strand.
A. Semiconservative
206. The location on an enzyme where the sub-
strate and enzyme bind to each other. B. Okazaki fragments
A. Active Site C. Chromatid

D. Chromosome
B. Enzymatic Process
C. Enzymatic Abscess 212. What is a characteristic of uracil?
D. Active Area A. the ability to bond with adenine
B. the ability to bond with thymine
207. Which structure in a nucelotide is differ-
C. the ability to bond with cyotsine
ent among the 5 different nucleotides?
D. the ability to bond with guanine
A. R-Groups
B. Phosphate Group 213. Which has 4 different types of nitrogen
bases?
C. Sugar
A. DNA
D. Nitrogenous Base
B. RNA
208. Which of the following bonds are broken C. Both
during DNA replication? D. none of above
A. hydrogen bonds between bases
214. If mRNA has a codon CAU, what is
B. phosphodiester bonds the corresponding anticodon on the tRNA
C. covalent bonds between bases molecule?
A. CAT
D. ionic bonds between bases and phos-
phate groups B. GUA
C. CAU
209. Important to the structural integrity of
plant cells, this is the single most popular D. GTA
polysaccharide in the world. 215. The protein of milk is
A. Starch A. Lactose
B. Glycogen B. Casein
C. Cellulose C. Maltose
D. Chitin D. Lactose and Casein are correct

216. All organisms contain DNA and RNA. B. Amino Group

What are the subunits of DNA and RNA? C. Carboxyl Group

A. simple sugars D. R-Group
B. amino acids
222. What is replicated by a semi-
C. carbohydrates conservative process?
D. nucleotides A. Messenger RNA (mRNA) only
217. Upon chemical analysis, a particular B. Messenger RNA (mRNA) and transfer
polypeptide was found to contain 100 RNA (tRNA) only
amino acids. How many peptide bonds are C. Messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA
present in this protein? (tRNA) and DNA only
A. 101 D. DNA only
B. 100
223. How many bonds are between adenine
C. 99 and thymine or uracil?
D. 98 A. 1
218. Hemoglobin, which transports oxygen in B. 2
the blood, is an example of- C. 3
A. Carbohydrate D. 4
B. Lipid
224. In the structure of DNA which one of the
C. Protein following binds with cytosine?
D. Nucleic Acid A. Guanine
219. If one side of the DNA reads:TTGACTAGG, B. Thymine
then the complementary set of bases on C. Uracil
the other side would read:
D. Adenine
A. TTGACTAGG
B. AACTGATCC 225. Which of the following is not part of a
DNA nucleotide?
C. AATCGAACTT
A. double helix
D. AAGTCATCC
B. five-carbon sugar
220. Which of the following is NOT a nitrogen C. nitrogen base
base found in DNA?
D. phosphate group
A. adenine
B. thymine 226. What happens during transcription?
C. uracil A. the sense strand of DNA is used as a

template to make mRNA
D. guanine
B. the antisense strand of DNA is used as
221. Which of these is NOT part of an amino a template to make mRNA
acid? C. the code in mRNA is read to make a
A. Phosphate Group polypeptide

D. several ribosomes attach to DNA to 232. Which scientist discovered number

make mRNA and then polypeptides thymine equals number adenine and num-
ber cytosine equals number guanine?
227. Multiple polypeptides at a tertiary level
A. Avery
of structure working together in a large
complex B. Griffith
A. Primary Structure C. Khorana
D. Chargoff
B. Secondary Structure
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Tertiery Structure 233. Thymine comprised 36% of the nitro-
gen bases present in a sample of double
D. Quaternary Structure stranded DNA. What was the percentage
of guanine in the sample?
228. Which organic molecule is paired with its
basic building block? A. 14%
A. carbohydrate:amino acids B. 28%
C. 36%
B. nucleic acid:nucleotides
D. 64%
C. lipid:monosaccharides
D. protein:fatty acid 234. Which of the following descriptions best
fits the class of molecules known as nu-
229. In RNA, thymine is replaced by: cleotides?
A. Adenine A. A nitrogenous base and a phosphate
group
B. Guanine
B. A nitrogenous base and a pentose
C. Thymine sugar
D. Uracil C. A nitrogenous base, a phosphate
group, and a pentose sugar
230. If one series of bases reads:TTGACTAGG,
D. A pentose sugar and a purine or pyrim-
then the complementary set of bases
idine
would read:
A. TTGACTAGG 235. Which scientist discovered nucleic acids
hold genetic information?
B. AACTGATCC
A. Avery
C. AATCGAACTT
B. Griffith
D. AAGTCATCC C. Khorana
231. Which 2 people used their model to pre- D. Chargoff
dict how DNA’s chemical structure enables
236. The three elements that make up most of
it to function?
all 4 types of macromolecules
A. Mendeleev & Moseley A. Water, Oxygen, & Hydrogen
B. Watson & Crick B. Carbon, Hydrogen, & Oxygen
C. Thomson & Boyle C. Nitrogen, Hydrogen, & Oxygen
D. none of above D. Nitrogen, Phosphorus, & Sulfur

237. If 30% of the bases in a DNA molecule 243. In RNA, which nucleotide pairing is cor-
are adenine, what percentage of the bases rect?
are guanine?

A. AT, CG
A. 20% B. AT, AND
B. 30% C. AU, TG
C. 35% D. AU, CG
D. 70%
244. Which is a nucleic acid?
238. The term used to describe the structure A. DNA
of DNA in humans.
B. RNA
A. Single Helix
C. Both
B. Double Helix D. none of above
C. Single Spiral
245. Nucleosomes are made of
D. Double Spiral
A. DNA only
239. What type of bond holds the nitrogenous B. RNA only
bases together?
C. DNA and histones
A. peptide bond
D. DNA, RNA and histones
B. phosphate bond
246. what is directly responsible for tRNA
C. ionic bond
molecules having the correct amino acids
D. hydrogen bond attached to them?
240. ATP is a which provides to cells A. the codon
A. Nucleic Acid / Energy B. the anticodon
B. Protein / Energy C. the amino acid attachment sequence
at end of tRNA
C. Nucleic Acid / Support
D. tRNA activating enzymes
D. Protein / Support
247. What kind of bond holds the two strands
241. The backbone of DNA is made up of of DNA together?
& units.
A. Hydrogen bonds
A. sugar & base
B. Ionic bonds
B. sugar & phosphate
C. Polar bonds
C. base & phosphate
D. Covalent bonds
D. phosphate & phosphate
248. New messenger RNA is made through the
242. what is the pentose sugar in DNA called process of-
A. ribose A. transcripton
B. ribosome suagr B. translation
C. deoxyribose C. transposition
D. DNA sugar D. replication

249. The sequence of nucleotides in a section D. one with two new strands and the
of RNA is:GCCAUACGAUCGWhat is the other with two original strands
base sequence of the DNA sense strand?
255. Which has phosphate groups?
A. CGGUAUGCUAGC
A. DNA
B. GCCATACGATCG
B. RNA
C. CGGTATGCTAGC
C. Both
D. GCCAUACGAUCG
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
250. Which contains thymine?
256. What are the monomers for Proteins?
A. DNA
A. Nucleic Acids
B. RNA
B. Amino Acids
C. Both
C. Monosaccarides
D. none of above
D. Nucleotides
251. Which best explains how DNA directs
protein synthesis? 257. Why is it crucial that living things are able
A. composition of nucleotides to replicate their DNA?
B. double-stranded spiral-helix A. Each cell must have its own DNA
C. location of the deoxyribose molecule B. Less copies of DNA are needed when
a new cell is created
D. arrangement of the nitrogenous bases
C. A cell needs multiple copies of DNA
252. Who discovered that VIRUSES have nu- D. Only muscle cells need DNA
cleic acids too?
A. Franklin 258. Where does DNA store genetic informa-
tion of a cell?
B. Hershey and Chase
A. Brain
C. Chase and Crick
B. Nucleus
D. Watson and Crick
C. Mitochondria
253. Which of the following best describes a
D. none of above
DNA molecule?
A. made of amino acids 259. Which of the following would be the
mRNA sequence made during transcription
B. contains ribose
from the DNA sequence ATGGCTCGATCA
C. contains Uracil
A. UACCGAGCUAGU
D. double helix
B. TACGCATUTCUTC
254. DNA replication results in two DNA C. UACCGCUCACCA
molecules,
D. TACGCATACAGCA
A. each one with two original strands
B. each one with two new strands 260. What monomer makes up proteins?
C. each one with one new strand and one A. Amino Acids
original strand B. Nucleotides

C. Monosaccahrides C. may contain thymine

D. Glycerol D. contains ribose sugar

261. How many different types of nucleotides 267. What is anti-codon?
exist?
A. This enzyme creates a polymer of DNA
A. 4
B. 3 B. This enzyme unwinds the DNA double
C. 2 helix
D. 1 C. This is a set of 3 nucleotides on tRNAIf
mRNA reads AUG, this will read UACThis
262. The monomer for Nucleic acids are called forms hydrogen bonds with mRNA in the
what? ribosome
A. monosaccharide D. none of above
B. amino acid
268. Which of the following options, A-D, are
C. fatty acid the pyrimidine bases found in DNA?
D. nucleotides
A. uracil and thymine
263. Guanine forms phosphodiester B. thymine and cytosine
bond(s) with cytosine.
C. adenine and thymine
A. One
D. cytosine and uracil
B. Two
C. Three 269. Which is made up of nucleotides?
D. None, they form hydrogen bonds A. DNA

B. RNA
264. DNA contains the sugar
C. Both
A. Deoxyribose
D. none of above
B. Glucose
C. Ribose 270. When an enzyme unfolds due to ex-
tremes in environmental conditions.
D. Lipids
A. Denaturation
265. How many parts does a nucleotide
have? B. Unaminologic Genesis
A. Two C. Unaminologic Catalysis

B. Eight D. Naturationism
C. Three 271. Which protein interacts with DNA to form
D. none of above chromosomes?
A. Transmembrane protein
266. Which of the following does NOT describe
RNA? B. Histone
A. single stranded C. Uracil
B. may contain uracil D. Genome

272. During DNA replication, the two strands C. A pairs with G and T pairs with C.
of a double helix separate and new nu- D. They are running in the same direction.
cleotides attach themselves to the original
bases. What would the complementary 278. Which scientists were credited with dis-
strand be for the sequence ATTGCGAGCTG covering the structure of DNA?
A. CGGATACATCG A. Avery and Chargaff
B. ATTGCGAGCTA B. Watson and Crick
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. GTCGAGCGTTA C. Hershey and Chase
D. TAACGCTCGAC D. Mendel and Griffith
273. What sugar is found in RNA? 279. Which of these is NOT a way that pre-
mRNA is processed in eukaryotic cells?
A. Ribose
A. introns are removed
B. Fructose
B. exons are spliced together
C. Glucose
C. a poly-A tail is attached
D. Deoxyribose
D. a promotor region is unblocked
274. In RNA, adenine always pairs with:
280. Built models of DNA.
A. uracil
A. Avery
B. cytosine
B. Watson & Crick
C. guanine
C. Hershey & Chase
D. thymine
D. Franklin
275. What is the purpose of DNA replication?
281. DNA is a what molecule
A. Cut the DNA A. big
B. Make more cells B. stable
C. Apoptosis C. unstable
D. Duplicate the DNA D. none of above
276. How many nucleotides make a codon? 282. Which of the following is NOT a compo-
A. 1 nent of a DNA nucleotide?
B. 2 A. phosphate
C. 3 B. nitrogen base
D. 6 C. deoxyribose sugar
D. ribose sugar
277. The two DNA strands are said to be com-
plementary to each other because? 283. If a cell DNA contains 20% Adenine,
A. The bases on one side are not the what percent of the cells DNA will be
same. Thymine?
B. The bases on one side are complimen- A. 10%

tary to the bases on the other side. B. 20%

C. 30% 289. What is the location in the cell for trans-

D. 40% lation?

A. nucleus
284. If a researcher investigating a RNA
strand discovers it contains 36% uracil, B. mitochondria
which of the following identifies the C. ribosome
amount of cytosine?
D. chloroplast
A. 14%
290. What elements make up Nucleic Acids?
B. 28%
A. C, N, O, H, (S)
C. 64%
B. C, N, O, H, P, (S)
D. cannot be determined
C. C, N, O, H, P
285. Which of the following sequences repre-
sent the complementary DNA sequence to D. C, N, O
the DNA strand-AGATCCGTA 291. Which best explains the function of the
A. TGATGGCAT sequence of nucleotides?
B. CTCGAATAT A. It provides energy.
C. TCTAGGCAT B. It carries genetic information
D. CTCGAATAT C. It allows DNA to be successfully
286. Which part of the nucleotide is negative? D. It determines the shape of the DNA
molecule.
A. The sugar
B. The base 292. Which of the following is correctly
matches:ATT GTA CGA
C. The phosphate
D. none of above A. TAA CAT GCT
B. ATT GTA CGA
287. Why is RNA necessary to act as a mes-
senger? C. TAA GTA TCG
A. mRNA is small enough to fit through D. GCC ACG TAC

nuclear pores. 293. A process in which DNA has the unique
B. DNA is too big to fit through nuclear ability to make an exact copy of itself.
pores A. Replication
C. There’s too much information in an en-
B. Translation
tire DNA molecule.
C. Transcription
D. All of these are correct.
D. Reduction
288. A nucleotide that can be found in both
DNA and RNA would look like 294. Which of these is true about DNA?
A. phosphate group, sugar, thymine A. Has a double helix
B. phosphate group, sugar, uracil B. Has a single helix
C. Phosphate group, sugar, guanine C. Contains uracil
D. phosphate group, ribose, guanine D. none of above

295. What is one the function of RNA C. Carbohydrates

A. to transfer genetic information from D. Lipids
dna to the ribosomes
301. Analysis of a molecule of DNA found it
B. genetic info storage to contain 200 adenine bases, 20% of the
C. growth and repair total number of bases in the strand. How
many phosphate groups did it contain?
D. insulation
A. 200
NARAYAN CHANGDER
296. The following are part of the information- B. 400
storage molecule of a cell except:
C. 800
A. Uracil
D. 1000
B. DNA
302. What is semiconservative?
C. RNA
A. One new strand pairs with one old
D. none of above
strand, A portion of this word means “par-
297. The nucleoside structure is referred to: tially”, This is a term used to describe DNA
replication
A. Nitrogenous base, sugar and phos-
phate B. A change in the DNA sequence
B. Nitrogenous base and phosphate only C. This begins every polypeptide chain
D. none of above
C. Nitrogenous base and sugar only
D. Sugar and phosphate only 303. Which biomolecules are found in all organ-
isms?
298. What principle is necessary to preserve
A. glucose, maltose, fructose, sucrose
the sequence of DNA during replication?
B. adenine, cytosine, thymine, guanine
A. Base pairing is complementary.
C. chlorophyll, chitin, pepsin, glycogen
B. One gene codes for one polypeptide.
D. cholesterol, phospholipid, cellulose,
C. Substrates are specific to enzymes. gibberellin
D. The genetic code is universal.
304. Which nucleic acid, could contain the
299. The bond which links two amino acids to- triplet of bases ACT?
gether A. DNA
A. Peptide B. mRNA
B. Disulfide C. tRNA
C. Phosphodiester D. rRNA
D. Glycemic 305. Which of the following is NOT part of a
nucleotide?
300. Contains the elements Carbon, Hydrogen,
and Nitrogen. Does NOT contain phospho- A. Nitrogenous Base
rus. B. Phosphate Group
A. Proteins C. Pentose Sugar
B. Nucleic Acids D. Fatty Acid

306. The α helix and the β pleated sheet are 311. An unknown molecule contains a sugar
both common polypeptide forms found in and a phosphate group. It is likely what?
which level of protein structure?

A. carbohydrate
A. Primary B. protein
B. Secondary C. lipid
C. Tertiary D. nucleic acid
D. Quaternary 312. Which of the following contains the ge-
netic code for protein synthesis?
307. Which best describes the difference be-
tween DNA and RNA? A. carbohydrate
A. DNA is an amino acid and RNA is a nu- B. lipid
cleic acid. C. protein
B. DNA contains phosphate and RNA con- D. nucleic acid
tains potassium.
313. If cells are grown in a medium containing
C. DNA has a nitrogenous base and RNA radioactive 15N, which of these molecules
has a carbon base. will be labeled?
D. DNA contains deoxyribose sugar and A. both proteins and nucleic acids
RNA contains ribose sugar.
B. proteins only
308. Which ones are purines? C. amylase only
A. Adenine and Guanine D. nucleic acids only
B. Adenine and Thymine 314. which molecule is normally the by-
C. Cytosine and Guanine product of a condensation reaction?
D. Cytosine and Thymine A. hydrochloric acid
B. ammonia
309. If a DNA molecule is 22% adenine in any
organism, which percentage of thymine C. water
will that DNA molecule contain? D. carbon dioxide
A. 22% 315. Which of the following nitrogenous bases
B. 28% are present ONLY in an RNA molecule?
C. 44% A. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Thymine
D. 56% B. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Ribose
C. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Uracil
310. The element nitrogen is present in all of
the following except: D. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, Deoxyri-
bose
A. Monosaccharides
316. What is the composition of the backbone
B. Proteins
of DNA?
C. DNA
A. Alternating sugar and phosphate
D. Amino acids molecules

B. Complementary base pairs 322. Which characteristic of a substrate deter-

C. Alternating sugar and base molecules mines which enzyme it is able to bind to?
A. Shape
D. A polysaccharide B. Temperature
317. What is the shape of DNA? C. Color
A. Double Hyperbola D. pH
B. Paraolic 323. Which of the macromolecules contain ni-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Double Helix trogen?
D. Linear A. proteins only
B. nucleic acids only
318. What contains information for making
the body’s proteins? C. proteins and lipids
A. Proteins D. nucleic acids and proteins
B. Nucleic Acids 324. Which of these is not a protein:
C. Carbohydrates A. Insulin
D. Lipids B. Hemoglobin
319. Which scientist discovered that the se- C. Antibody
quence of bases determines the protein it D. Cholesterol
will make?
325. Analysis of a sample of DNA found that
A. Avery
20% of the bases were adenine. What
B. Griffith percentage of the bases are pyrimidines?
C. Khorana A. 20%
D. Chargoff B. 30%
320. Humans have stranded DNA and C. 60%
stranded RNA D. 50%
A. Single / Single
326. DNA and RNA are examples of what
B. Double / Single
A. Nucleotides
C. Double / Double
B. bases
D. Humans do not have RNA
C. nucleic acids
321. Nitrogen bases for RNA: D. none of above
A. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Uracil
327. The macromolecule that is diverse and
functions as structure, support, transport,
B. Adenine Guanine, Cytosine, and Sulfur movement, defense, and regulation is-
A. Carbohydrates
C. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and
Thymine B. Lipids
D. Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine, and Phos- C. Proteins
phate D. Nucleic Acids

328. If a cell has 20% adenine in it, what % 334. How many carbons form the sugar in the
of cytosine must it have? backbone?

A. 10% A. 3
B. 20%
B. 4
C. 30%
C. 5
D. 80%
D. 6
329. What unique ability does DNA have be-
cause it is double-stranded? 335. How many bonds are between guanine
A. it serves as genetic material in all and cytosine?
viruses
A. 1
B. it can serve as a template for its own
copying B. 2
C. it can move around the cells C. 3
D. none of the choices D. 4
330. is the genetic material in all living
336. Forms the outside structure of the double
things.
helix
A. DNA
A. Sugar Phosphate Backbone
B. RNA
C. Protein B. Nitrogenous Base
D. All of these are correct. C. Phosphodiester Backbone
331. What can lipids be used for? D. Polypeptide Backbone

A. Energy Storage
337. What are Nucleic Acids made up of?
B. Immediate energy
A. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Nitro-
C. Information storage gen
D. speed up reactions
B. Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen,
332. What shape is a ribose sugar molecule? and sometimes sulfur
A. triangle C. Carbon Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen,
B. square and Phosphate
C. pentagon D. Carbon, Hydrogen, and Oxygen
D. hexagon
338. The monosaccharides sugar that found in
333. Which bond is present in the sugar and the nucleic acids:
phosphate group in a nucleotide?
A. Ribose
A. Phosphodiester bond
B. Glucose
B. Peptide Bond
C. Ester Bond C. Fructose
D. Glycosidic Bond D. Adenine

7.3 DNA Replication 1004
339. Which element is not found in nucleic 341. What are the single sugars that are the
acids building blocks of carbohydrates?
A. carbon A. monosaccharides
B. sulfur B. disaccharides
C. hydrogen C. polysaccharides
D. phosphorus D. amino acid
340. If a gene has 30 nucleotides, how many
NARAYAN CHANGDER
amino acids does it have? 342. Which nucleotide is only found in RNA
A. 3 A. Thyamine (T)
B. 10 B. Uracil (U)
C. 60 C. Guanine (G)
D. 90 D. Adenine (A)
7.3 DNA Replication

1. What are the functions of genes? A. ribose sugar and base
A. instructions for producing proteins B. ribose sugar and phosphate group
B. instructions for producing DNA C. nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar
C. instructions for producing lipids D. deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
D. they have no function group
2. Yesterday we learned about DNA Replica- 5. How does DNA helicase unwinds the dou-
tion, how many steps did we say there ble helix DNA?
were?
A. By joining the nucleotide bases
A. 3
B. By separating the double stranded
B. 5 DNA
C. 7 C. By breaking the hydrogen bonds be-
D. 9 tween complementary bases
D. By forming the hydrogen bonds be-
3. What direction does DNA Polymerase read
tween complementary bases
a DNA molecule in?
A. 5’ to 3’ 6. the exact replication of DNA is possible
B. 3’ to 5’ due to
C. It depends on the shape of the DNA A. mitosis

D. The DNA does not get read B. the genetic code
C. the base-pairing rules
4. The DNA nucleotide is composed of three
parts. Which two components make up the D. the fact that the DNA molecules are en-
nucleotide backbone? closed within a DNA nucleotide

7. Which of the following enzymes adds new 12. is “reading” the mRNA to chain to-
nucleotides to build the new strand of gether amino acids
DNA?

A. transcription
A. Helicase B. translation
B. Primase C. photosynthesis
C. DNA Polymerase D. mitosis
D. Ligase 13. Which is the fourth step?
8. Which form of chromatin is less com- A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA
pact and therefore, more accessible to en- strand
zymes? B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer
for new nucleotide bases.
A. Euchromatin
C. DNA polymerase builds new strands
B. Heterochromatin by bring in new nucleotide bases.
C. Chromatid D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag-
D. Euchromatin and Heterochromatin are ging strand
equally compact.
14. prevent the reformation of double he-
lix
9. Polymerase epsilon:
A. SSB protein
A. synthesizes the RNA primer, initiates
DNA synthesis and the lagging strand B. Polymerase I
B. repair DNA C. Gyrase

D. Ligase
C. replicate mitochondrial DNA
D. synthesizes the leading strand, filling 15. Replication is referred to as
DNA gaps after removal of primer A. conservative
B. semi-conservative
10. The enzyme that comes first temporarily
gets the single strand ready to add new C. quasi-conservative
nucleotides is called “The Initializer” or D. mostly liberal
A. Helicase 16. What type of bond hold the base pairs to-
B. Primase gether in a molecule of DNA?
C. Polymerase A. hydrogen bonds
D. Nuclease B. phosphodiester bonds
C. covalent bonds
11. This nucleic acid is single stranded
D. motherly bond
A. DNA
17. After DNA replication there is/are
B. RNA strand(s) of DNA.
C. Both A. one
D. none of above B. two

C. three 23. Third Step to DNA Replication.

D. four A. Termination
B. Elongation
18. What is the name of new strand that is
produce from original strand (3’-5’)? C. Replication Dork Formation
D. none of above
A. Leading strand
B. Lagging strand 24. Where do new strands of DNA grow
from?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Complementary strand
A. Salad fork
D. Original strand
B. Fish fork
19. Which enzyme seals okazaki fragments to- C. Replication Fork
gether on the lagging strand? D. Pitch Fork
A. Topoisomerase
25. What occurs during DNA replication?
B. Helicase
A. The DNA is copied into RNA
C. Polymerase B. The DNA makes an exact copy of itself
D. Ligase
C. The DNA is converted to a protein
20. Which enzyme is responsible for checking
DNA for errors, and fixing it? D. The DNA is converted to lipids
A. DNA Polymerase 26. If DNA Polymerase is reading the follow-

ing sequence:3’-AATCGC-5’ what will the
B. DNA Primase
enzyme add to the growing DNA strand?
C. DNA Helicase A. 5’-GCGATT-3’
D. RNA Polymerase B. 5’-TTAGCG-3’
21. Enzyme that breaks hydrogen bonds (un- C. 5’-AATCGC-3’
zips) D. 3’-AATCGC-5’
A. Ligase 27. If you examined DNA that was currently
B. Polymerase replicating, you would find
C. Primase A. some long strands of DNA and some
short ones (Okazaki fragments)
D. Helicase
B. only long strands
22. What is the flow of genetic information C. only short strands (Okazaki fragments)
in cells from DNA to protein? (Central
Dogma)
D. 1 double helix
A. RNA to DNA to protein
28. DNA Original strand:5’-CCGGATGCATAG-
B. DNA to RNA to protein 3’DNA complementary strand:
C. protein to DNA to RNA A. 5’-GGCCTACGTATC-3’
D. RNA to protein to DNA B. ‘3-GGCCUACGUAUC-5’

C. 3’-GGCCTACGTATC-5’ 34. Fill in the complementary bases according

to the base-pair rule in DNA:A T C C A G
D. ‘5-GGCCUACGUAUC-3’

A. T U G G T C
29. In messenger RNA each codon specifies a
B. T A G G T C
particular
C. T A C G T G
A. nucleotide
D. T A C C A C
B. amino acid
C. nucleic acid 35. Which enzyme is responsible for maintain-
ing telomeres?
D. DNA strand
A. Hexokinase
30. The number of codons in the genetic code B. Telomerase
is
C. Topoisomerase
A. 66
D. Helicase
B. 46
C. 23 36. If a strand reads:3’ A A A T T T C 5’The
matching strand would read
D. 64
A. 5’ T T T A A A G 3’
31. What does CsCl stand for? B. 3’ T T T A A A G 5’
A. Cestrate Chlorine C. 5’ A A A T T T C 3’
B. Cesium Chloride D. 3’ U U U A A A G 5’
C. Cesium Chlorotine
37. Once the primers have been replaced, DNA
D. none of above joins the gaps in the Okazaki frag-
ments
32. Polymerase alpha
A. primase
A. repair DNA
B. cohesive
B. replicate mitochondrial DNA
C. parisase
C. synthesizes the RNA primer, initiates
DNA synthesis and the lagging strand D. ligase
D. Synthesizes the leading strand, filling 38. What determines the traits of an organ-
DNA gaps after removal of primer ism?
A. The length of DNA molecules
33. Proteins that DNA winds itself around to
for Chromosomes B. The way nucleotides are paired in the
two strands of DNA
A. Histone
C. The order of nucleotides in DNA
B. Double Helix
molecules
C. Chromatin
D. The proportions of A, T, C, and G in DNA
D. Chromatin molecules

39. What nucleotide base matches with ade- 45. What was the third solution that the was
nine in DNA replication? bacteria was placed in?
A. guanine A. 15N
B. cytosine B. 14N
C. thymine C. CsCl
D. uracil D. ClCs
NARAYAN CHANGDER
40. Which bases are considered pyrimidines?
46. What are the fragments of replicated
A. C and T DNA called that are made on the lagging
B. A and T strand?
C. C and G A. Okazaki fragments
D. A and G B. Kawasaki fragments
41. Polymerase is able to replicate the new C. Suzuki fragments

DNA along the leading strand. D. Nagasaki fragments
A. continuously
47. What is the name of the combined struc-
B. only in short fragments ture of DNA that has wrapped itself
C. very slowly around a histone?
D. prokaryotically A. Nucleotide
42. What is the complementary strand of:3’ B. Nucleosome

ACCGTCGAT 5’? C. DNA-Histone Complex
A. 5’ TGGCAGCTA 3’ D. Secondary Structure of DNA
B. 5’ UGGCAGCUA 3’
48. Where does DNA replication take place?
C. 3’ TGGCAGCTA 5’
A. Nucleus
D. 3’ UGGCAGCUA 5’
B. Ribosome
43. Which is larger guanine or cytosine
C. Cytoplasm
A. guanine because it’s a purine
D. Golgi Body
B. guanine because it’s a pyrimidine
C. cytosine because it’s a purine 49. Prokaryotic Replication is different be-
cause it
D. cytosine because its a pyrimidine
A. only has one replication bubble that
44. How many different DNA nucleotides are moves in one direction
there?
B. has many replication bubbles that
A. impossible to count move in both directions
B. 12 C. more complex than eukaryotic replica-
C. 6 tion
D. 4 D. is non-circular

50. Place the following in sequential order1. 55. What enzyme is responsible for closing
Recoil2. Straightens the double helix3. Okazaki Fragments?
Breaks Hydrogen bonds4. Adds Free nu-

A. DNA polymerase
cleotides
B. Ligase
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. RNA polymerase
B. 3, 4, 2, 1
D. Helicase
C. 3, 2, 4, 1
D. 2, 3, 4, 1 56. Which strand grows continuously towards
the replication fork?
51. Helicase is an enzyme in the nucleus that A. Lagging Strand
has which function?
B. DNA strand
A. It ‘unzips’ the DNA molecule by break-
ing the bonds between the bases C. Replicating strand
B. It is responsible for adding new nu- D. Leading strand
cleotides to the old strands
57. Which of the following is true about DNA
C. It closes the DNA molecule polymerase?
D. It fuses the gaps in the sugar- A. It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’ di-
phosphate backbone rection
52. Which strand is copied faster? B. It can synthesize DNA in the 3’ to 5’ di-
rection
A. Leading
C. It can synthesize mRNA in the 3’ to 5’
B. Lagging direction
C. Neither (same speed) D. It can synthesize mRNA in the 5’ to 3’
D. none of above direction
53. If DNA Polymerase is responsible for syn- 58. What does DNA polymerase I do?
thesizing DNA on the Leading Strand, A. add nucleotides after helicase un-
what enzyme synthesizes DNA on the Lag- winds the double helix
ging Strand?
B. replace RNA primer with DNA
A. Primase
C. relieve strain ahead of the replication
B. RNA Polymerase fork
C. DNA Polymerase D. protect the strands of DNA from re-
D. Helicase forming hydrogen bases
54. Adds nucleotides to the newly synthesized 59. Which of the following does not affect
strand of DNA DNA replication?
A. DNA polymerase I A. Antiparallel nature of DNA
B. DNA polymerase III B. End specificity of polymerase
C. Primase C. SSB protein
D. Ligase D. Helicase

60. The first repair of mistakes during DNA C. 3’-TACGAGTCGA-5’

replication is made by D. 5’-TACGAGTCGA-3’
A. the mismatch repair system
66. The strand builds continuously.
B. DNA polymerase.
C. excision repair. A. Lagging
D. post-replication repair. B. Ligase

C. Leading
61. Okazaki fragments are bonded (glued) to-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
gether by the enzyme D. Telomeres
A. DNA Polymerase 67. What are the gaps between the newly
B. Ligase synthesized DNA on the lagging strand
C. RNA primase called?
D. Helicase A. Okazaki fragments

B. Polymer gaps
62. What enzyme is used to jin the Okazaki
Fragments? C. Helicase fragments
A. leucoanthocyanidin reductase D. Acidic gaps
B. laccase
68. What do enzymes do?
C. liagase
A. Speed up chemical changes
D. lysozyme
B. Start chemical changes
63. How many enzymes involved in DNA repli- C. Slow down chemical changes
cation?
D. nothing
A. 5
B. 7 69. This short strand of RNA is needed for
DNA polymerase to begin adding nu-
C. 6
cleotides
D. 8
A. ori
64. What enzyme is responsible for signaling B. starter
the starting pont for DNA Replication?
C. primer
A. helicase
D. replication fork
B. ligase
C. primase 70. Semiconservative Replication means each
D. there are no RNA primers during DNA new strand of DNA is composed of one ,
Replication or one strand from original DNA molecule,
and one new strand.
65. The DNA sequence of the parent strand is
A. First Strand
5’-ATGCTCAGCT-3’. What is the sequence
of the daughter strand? B. Original Strand
A. 3’-UACGAGUCGA-5’ C. Starting Point
B. 5’-UACGAGUCGA-3’ D. 5’ to 3’

71. Which base pairs with thymine? C. DNA primer-for both prokaryotes and
A. Adenine eukaryotes

D. RNA primer-for both prokaryotes and
B. Thymine
eukaryotes
C. Cytosine
77. What does DNA ligase do?
D. Guanine
A. break hydrogen bonds between bases
72. Which enzyme joins together Okazaki
fragments? B. add new nucleotides
A. DNA pol I C. fill gaps between nucleotides (for ex-
B. Helicase ample, at Okazaki fragments)
C. Ligase D. prevent the double helix from re-
forming hydrogen bonds
D. Primase
78. This enzyme is used to remove short RNA
73. Which enzyme is responsible for form-
bases
ing phosphodiester bonds between the
Okazaki fragments? A. Topoisomerase
A. Ligase B. DNA Helicase
B. Helicase C. Exonuclease
D. Telomerase
C. DNA Polymerase 1
D. DNA Polymerase 3 79. Enzyme that connects the DNA to the back-
bone (glues)
74. What is the function of DNA ligase?
A. Ligase
A. Transcribe DNA into RNA B. Polymerase
B. Synthesize RNA primers C. Helicase
C. Separate double-stranded nucleic D. Primase
acids
80. What are the name of the fragments that
D. Create phosphodiester bonds
are created on the lagging strand during
75. Which of the following enzymes remove DNA replication?
supercoiling in replicating DNA ahead of A. binding proteins
the replication fork?
B. fragmenting lagging strand
A. DNA polymerases C. okazaki fragments
B. Helicases D. coding strands
C. Primases
81. What prevents the separated DNA strands
D. Topoisomerase from coming back together?
76. Pick the correct pair with respect to A. DNA polymerase
primers used in DNA replication. B. Primase
A. RNA primer-for prokaryotes only C. Single-stranded binding proteins
B. DNA primer-for eukaryotes only D. Topoisomerase

82. Codons are attached to which molecule? 88. This enzyme ONLY works in one direction
A. mRNA which is 5’→ 3’
B. tRNA A. DNA Polymerase
C. rRNA B. DNA Helicase
D. DNA C. Topoisomerase
83. Which radioactive element was used in D. Telomerase
Meselson and Stahl’s experiments?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
89. The ends of the linear chromosomes are
A. 14C maintained by
B. 15N A. helicase
C. 32P
B. primase
D. 35S
C. DNA pol
84. are sections of DNA that are produced D. telomerase
during the process of DNA replication and
are part of the lagging strand. 90. Which DNA enzyme seals small gaps to fin-
A. Okazaki fragments ish DNA replication?
B. Replication forks A. Helicase
C. Template strands B. DNA polymerase
D. Antiparallels C. Primase
85. Which enzyme adds the RNA primer? D. Ligase
A. helicase
91. An enzyme that adds complementary nu-
B. polymerase cleotides to the template strand of the
C. ligase unzipped double helix until the entire
D. primase molecule has been replicated.
A. RNA Polymerase
86. The cell membrane pinches in, cutting the
cytoplasm into 2 cells B. DNA Polymerase
A. Metaphase C. Helicase
B. Anaphase D. Ligase
C. Telephase
92. A-T base pairs in a DNA double helix
D. Cytokinesis
A. a. are not accessible to DNA binding
87. Which is one way that DNA replication is proteins.
similar in eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic
B. form three hydrogen bonds with each
cells?
other
A. Number of replication forks
C. are of a different length than G-C base
B. Use of the enzyme DNA polymerase pairs.
C. Occurs in the cell nucleus D. are chemically distinct from G-C base
D. Occurs in the cytoplasm pairs.

93. Okazaki fragments form on the: 98. Which enzymes are necessary to produce
A. lagging strand recombinant DNA?

B. leading strand A. DNA polymerase and ligase
C. base-pairs B. Restriction enzymes and topoiso-

merase
D. 5’ end
C. Restriction enzymes and DNA poly-
94. What does a nucleosome consist of? merase
A. DNA and histones D. Restriction enzymes and ligase
B. DNA and chromatin
99. Since DNA cannot be fully unwound, many
C. Chromatin and nucleotides make replication more efficient
D. Mature RNA and histones A. jigsaws
95. What is the name of the enzyme that B. ligases

marks the starting point for DNA replica- C. synthesizers
tion?
D. origins of replication
A. Primase
B. Timase 100. What does DNA helicase do?
C. Ligase A. relieve stress in DNA in front of the

replication fork
D. Rigase
B. unwind the double helix by breaking hy-
96. What is the role of DNA ligase in the elon- drogen bonds
gation of the lagging strand during DNA C. add nucleotides to the new strand of
replication? DNA
A. It catalyzes the lengthening of telom-
D. add an RNA primer to the new strand
eres.
of DNA
B. It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to
make a primer. 101. Which of the following complementary
base pairs are correct?
C. It unwinds the parental double helix.
A. A-T
D. It joins Okazaki fragments together.
B. A-G
97. What is the function of DNA polymerase
I? C. T-C
A. To add appropriate nucleotides in the D. G-U

3’ → 5’ direction
102. Which enzyme fixes the Okazaki frag-
B. To remove the RNA primers and re- ments in the lagging strand?
place them with DNA
A. Helicase
C. To join together the Okazaki fragments
B. Polymerase
C. Ligase
D. To join together both strands of DNA to
the histones D. Primerase

103. In DNA replication, complementary base 109. During replication Primase

pairing occurs between
A. unzips the double helix
A. Cytosine and uracil
B. Tells DNA polymerase where to add
B. Adenine and guanine bases (nucleotides)
C. Adenine and uracil
C. Glues DNA segments together
D. Adenine and thymine
D. adds complementary bases to DNA
104. Who said, “The amount of A = the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
amount of T, and the amount of G = the 110. How does Ligase help with DNA Replica-
amount of C”? tion.
A. Chargaff A. unzips & unwinds the DNA Helix, to
B. Avery start Replication.
C. Griffith B. adds new nucleotides to make new
D. Franklin DNA.
105. Which scientist(s) discovered complemen- C. bonds/glues new nucleotides together

tary base pairing in nucleotides? to finish Replication.
A. Rosalind Franklin D. none of above

B. Pauling
111. Which enzyme is used to unwind the he-
C. Chargaff lix ahead of the replication fork?
D. Watson and Crick A. topoisomerase
106. Which enzyme copies DNA? B. helicase
A. DNA polymerase C. polymerase
B. DNA helicase
D. ligase
C. RNA polymerase
D. RNA helicase 112. The Okazaki fragments are joined to-
gether by
107. Nucleotides are made uo of a sugar, phos-
phate, and ? A. Helicase
A. nitrogenous base B. DNA ligase
B. cholesterol C. Single-stranded binding protein
C. nucleic acid D. Topoisomerase
D. fatty acid
113. What is added one by one during replica-
108. What molecule gets synthesized during tion?
DNA replication?
A. Deoxyribonucleotides
A. DNA
B. RNA B. Ribonucleotides
C. Protein C. DNA Polymerase

D. Ribsomes D. Single Stranded Binding proteins

114. Which base pairs with guanine? A. Replication

A. Adenine B. Translation

B. Thymine C. Transcription
C. Cytosine D. Chargaff’s Rule
D. Guanine 120. and 5’ refer to
115. What does the enzyme DNA helicase do A. How effectively the helicase works
within a cell? B. What direction the nucleotides are
A. unzips the DNA by breaking hydrogen pointing
bonds C. Where the RNA primer attaches
B. matches up base pairs D. Okazaki’s famous experiment
C. finds free floating nucleotides and
brings them to DNA 121. If the sequence of the 5’-3’ strand is AAT-
GCTAC, then the complementary sequence
D. it helps to break apart the backbone of has the following sequence:
DNA
A. 3’-AATGCTAC-5’
116. What is the name of the proteins that B. 3’-CATCGTAA-5’
DNA wraps around in order to condense?
C. 3’-TTACGATG-5’
A. Single Stranded Binding Proteins
D. 3’-GTAGCATT-5’
B. Histones
C. Tertiary Structures 122. This enzyme is responsible for adding an
RNA primer to the template strand of DNA
D. Nucleosomes
A. helicase
117. After THIS enzyme is finished, DNA poly- B. DNA polymerase
merase knows where to start laying down
new bases. C. ligase
A. Primase D. primase
B. Topoisomerase 123. The 5’ end of the DNA growing strand
C. Ligase during DNA replication
D. Helicase A. is the part of the strand that is added
last
118. DNA parent strand:TGCCATTGCATDNA B. does not contain a phosphate group on
daughter strand: the ribose.
A. CATTGCCATGC C. is the part of the strand that is added
B. ACGGTAACGTA first.
C. ACGGUAACGUA D. is the end of both strands of DNA in a
D. TGCCATTGCAT double helix.
119. The rule stating that the bases in a nucleic 124. Which enzyme assembles new nu-
acid always pairs up in the same way:A=T cleotides?
and G=C. A. Topoisomerase

B. Helicase 130. Which is the second step?

C. DNA Polymerase A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA
D. Ligase strand
125. Which of the following is required for B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer
DNA replication to occur? for new nucleotide bases.
A. DNA helicase C. DNA polymerase builds new strands

by bring in new nucleotide bases.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA polymerase D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag-
ging strand
D. all of these
126. Which enzyme proofreads the DNA after 131. A nucleotide includes ?
replication to catch any mistakes? A. pentose sugar
A. primase B. nitrogenous base
B. proof-read-ase C. phosphate group
C. DNA polymerase
D. all of the above
D. helicase
132. Describes the twisted ladder-like shape
of a DNA molecule
edly joined together to form a strand of
DNA? (This is the MONOMER of DNA.) A. Nitrogen Base
A. amino acids B. Hexagon
B. nucleotides C. Double Helix
C. fatty acids
D. none of above
D. polysaccharides
133. If DNA polymerase could add bases in the
128. Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation
3’ to 5’ direction, there would be no need
of the leading strand?
for
A. RNA polymerase
A. Okazaki fragments
B. Helicase
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA polymerase
C. Primase
D. Ligase
D. Helicase
129. What is the function of the single-strand
binding protein during DNA replication? 134. Which of the following accurately de-
A. Synthesizing RNA primers scribes the base pairing rules for DNA?
B. Ensure both strands are replicated at A. A-T, G-C
similar rates
B. A-G, C-T
C. Prevent the separated strands from
reannealing C. T-G, A-C
D. Recruit DNA polymerase D. A-A, T-T, G-G, C-C

135. A eukaryotic cell lacking helicase during C. Single Stranded Binding Proteins
DNA replication would
D. Primase

A. be unable to proofread the newly syn-
thesized strand 141. During replication, what enzyme adds
B. would make the DNA strands at incor- complimentary bases?
rect locations A. helicase
C. be unable to unwind the DNA helix B. synthesase
D. none of above C. ligase
136. Which molecule is paired with its correct D. polymerase
role in protein synthesis?
A. Nucleus-forms peptide bonds 142. A nucleotide consists of:
B. Ribosome-carries DNA instructions A. A phosphate and a base

C. mRNA-joins amino acids B. A phosphate and a sugar
D. tRNA-transfers amino acids C. A base and an amino acid
137. The DNA double helix is built (written) in D. A base, phosphate, and sugar
the
143. DNA polymerase III adds the appropriate
A. 5’ to 3’ direction to the end of the new strand, using
B. 3’ to 5’ direction the template strand as a guide
C. 3’ to 3’ direction A. Deoxyribose nucleoside triphosphates,
D. 5’ to 5’ direction 5”
B. Nucleotides, 3’
138. Where on the DNA molecule does replica-
tion start? C. Deoxyribose nucleoside triphosphates,
A. At one end 3’
B. At both ends D. Nucleotides, 5’

C. At the origin 144. Who discovered the base pairing rules
D. In the exact middle of the molecule while observing the components of DNA?
139. Which model is correct for DNA replica- A. Chargaff

tion? B. Rosalind Franklin
A. Conservative C. Watson and Crick
B. Semiconservative D. none of above
C. Dispersive
145. Which bases are considered purines?
D. none of above
A. A and T
140. What is responsible for preventing the
opened DNA strands from reannealing? B. C and T
A. Topoisomerase C. A and G
B. Okazaki Fragments D. C and G

146. What type of molecules are important for 152. When new DNA molecules are formed, al-
DNA Replication to function properly? most all errors are detected and fixed by
A. Proteins A. the correct nucleotide.
B. Lipids B. the sugar-phosphate backbone.
C. Carbohydrates C. DNA polymerase.
D. All of these D. one DNA strand.
153. Why are the replicated strands called
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the arrangement of the sides of the DNA semi-conservative?
molecule A. Each strand has half of the original
A. Bonding strand of DNA in it
B. Alternating B. The DNA likes to hide some of its base
pairs
C. Anitparallel
C. Its playing hide and seek
D. Parallel
D. Each strand has one base from the
148. What are the nucleotides made of? original strand
A. Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base 154. In what part of Interphase does DNA
B. Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base replication take place?
C. Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine A. G1
D. Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine B. S
C. G2
149. The enzyme that unzips the DNA to pre-
pare for replication is D. M
A. Helicase 155. the new continuous complementary DNA
B. Topoisomerase strand synthesized along the template
strand in the mandatory 5’ → 3’ direc-
C. DNA polymerase tion.
D. Primase A. Lagging Strand
150. The primer is composed of B. Leading Strand
A. amino acids C. Okazaki fragments
B. RNA only D. none of above
C. DNA only 156. Which of the following would most likely
D. RNA and DNA cause a mutation?
A. the placement of ribosomes on the en-
151. Which enzyme has the job of preventing
doplasmic reticulum
the DNA from super-coiling?
B. the insertion of a nucleotide into DNA
A. Helicase
C. the movement of transfer RNA out of
B. Topoisomerase the nucleus
C. Ligase D. the release of messenger RNA from
D. DNA Polymerase DNA

157. Changes in DNA sequences that effect ge- C. equal to

netic information is called D. none of above

A. mutations
163. The directionality of DNA is said to be ,
B. replication because it is side by side by goes in oppo-
C. mitosis site directions.
D. meiosis A. Anti-directional
B. Parallel
158. Which of the following strands would be
C. Anti-parallel
more stable at a higher temperature?
D. Anti-uniform
A. AATTAATTAATT
B. CCGGCCGGCCGG 164. This enzyme synthesizes short RNA se-
quences to guide DNA Polymerase
C. ATCGATCGATCGAT
A. Primers
D. CGATCGATCGATCG
B. DNA Primase
159. The process of making RNA (i.e. mRNA) C. DNA Polymerase
from DNA is called D. Topoisomerase
A. Replication
165. DNA replication can happens at
B. Transcription site(s) in Eukaryotic cells but site(s) in
C. Translation porkaryotic cells.
D. Protein synthesis A. one, multiple
B. two, one
160. The RNA primers must be replaced with
C. multiple, one
the appropriate deoxyribose nucleotides.
The enzymes that accomplishes this is D. multiple, multiple
called: 166. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is
A. Primase used to
B. DNA polymerase I A. insert DNA from one organism into a
new host.
C. DNA polymerase II
B. screen for a particular gene.
D. DNA polymerase III
C. produce many copies of a selected
161. The sugar molecule in DNA is called: DNA sequence.
A. glucose D. none of above
B. fructose 167. What is the first step of DNA Replica-
C. deoxyribose tion?
D. ribose A. free nucleotides match with a tem-

plate
162. Is 14N’s density heavier, lighter, or B. DNA coils up tightly
equal compared to 15N?
C. DNA helicase unzips the DNA
A. heavier D. DNA uncoils from its double helix
B. lighter shape

168. Translation happens in the- C. single strand binding proteins

A. Nucleus D. topoisomerase
B. Ribosome 174. The enzyme used to join fragments of
C. Chloroplast DNA is
D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum A. DNA polymerase
169. A nucleotide does not contain B. DNA ligase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. an amino acid C. Endonuclease
B. a phosphate group D. Primase

C. a carbon group 175. Which of the following describes why
D. a nitrogen base there is a leading and lagging strand in
DNA replication?
170. What are pyrimidines in DNA? A. DNA is antiparallel
A. Types of nucleotides B. DNA is negatively charged
B. Types of base pairs C. DNA has a phosphate group
C. Types of sugars
D. DNA has hydrogen bonds
D. Types of bases
176. The “Central Dogma” states that the
171. During the process of protein synthesis, a flow of genetic information is in the direc-
section of the DNA molecule is copied into tion of
which other molecule?
A. DNA →RNA→ protein
A. nucleic DNA
B. RNA → DNA → RNA
B. cytoplasmic DNA
C. protein → RNA → DNA
C. messenger RNA
D. RNA → DNA → protein
D. transfer RNA
177. Which of these occurs fourth?
172. Guanine always hydrogen bonds with Cy-
A. Topoisomerase uncoils the DNA
tosine. This is an example of:
B. DNA polymerase adds new nu-
A. Contemplation Proclamation Perspira-
cleotides
tion
C. Ligase seals the DNA fragments
B. Confusatory Base Maturation
D. Primase adds primers
C. Compligatory Nitrogenase
D. Complementary Base Pairing 178. Which of these occurs 2nd
173. Proteins that bind to and stabilize he sin- A. Helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds
gle strands of DNA exposed when helicase B. Topoisomerase uncoils the DNA
unwinds the double helix in preparation C. DNA polymerase adds new nu-
for replication. cleotides
A. helicase D. Ligase seals the DNA fragments to-
B. primer gether

179. DNA replication runs from ‘ to ‘ C. Newly separated DNA strands and
and is said to be newly synthesized DNA strands

A. 5, 3, antiparallel D. Newly separated DNA strands and the
B. 3, 5, antiparallel unreplicated DNA
C. 5, 3, parallel 185. In DNA the sides of the double helix is
D. 3, 5, parallel made of
A. deoxyribose and phosphates
180. This enzyme helps helicase unzip DNA by
relieving supercoiling B. adenine and guanine
A. Topoisomerase C. thymine and cytosines
B. Exonuclease D. none of above
C. DNA Primase 186. Which enzyme glues the fragments of
D. DNA Polymerase DNA together on the lagging strand?
181. Which of the following enzymes is re- A. Helicase
sponsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds B. Ligase
between nucleotides?
C. DNA Polymerase
A. DNA polymerase
D. Primase
B. Helicase
C. Primase 187. This enzyme will replace the spaces
the RNA Primers ‘had been’ to DNA nu-
D. DNA ligase cleotides.
182. Which molecule uses DNA as a template A. Ligase
to carry instructions out of the cell? B. DNA Polymerase
A. tRNA
C. Helicase
B. rRNA
D. RNA Primase
C. mRNA
188. Which shows the correct complementary
D. DNA Polymerase
strand of DNA ATG?
183. The fragments on the lagging strand that A. ATG
are made up of repeating segments of DNA
and RNA Primers B. TAG
A. okazaki fragments C. TAC

B. Primase D. CGC
C. Polymerase 189. The enzyme that unzips the DNA to pre-
D. unused DNA pare for replication (”The Unzipper”)
A. helicase
184. Replication fork is the junction between
the two B. replicase
A. Unreplicated DNA C. polymerase
B. Newly synthesized DNA D. synthase

190. Why must there be a lagging strand dur- C. Primase

ing DNA synthesis? D. Polymerase
A. The lagging strand ensures replication
of both strands occurs at a similar rate 196. A DNA nucleotide may be made up of a
phosphate group, along with
B. DNA is antiparallel
C. The lagging strand helps conserve en- A. deoxyribose sugar and uracil
ergy B. deoxyribose sugar and thymine
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. DNA is a polyanion C. ribose sugar and adenine
191. Polymerase delta: D. ribose sugar and cytosine
A. synthesizes the RNA primer, initiates 197. What are the 4 key players in DNA Repli-
DNA synthesis and the lagging strand cation?
B. repair DNA
A. Helicase, Primase, DNA Polymerase,
C. replicate mitochondrial DNA Ligase
D. synthesizes the leading strand, filling B. Melpicase, Helicase, Primase, Qin-
DNA gaps after removal of primer topace
192. What do we call the spot where DNA C. Dopicase, Melopase, Colipace,
replication begins? Metaphase
A. Random Sampling D. none of above
B. Original Nucleotide
198. DNA is copied during
C. Duplication Bubble
A. Translation
D. Origin of Replication
B. Transcription
193. Amino acids are joined together in order C. Reproduction
to form
D. Replication
A. DNA
B. ribosomes 199. What is the role of RNA primers, which
are needed to form the lagging strand?
C. proteins
D. RNA A. To allow RNA polymerase to bind
B. To allow DNA polymerase to bind
194. Which nitrogen base does RNA have that
DNA does not? C. To allow DNA primase to bind
A. Thymine D. To allow DNA ligase to bind
B. Adenine 200. The strand builds in segments instead
C. Uracil of continuously.
D. Cytosine A. Lagging
195. What enzyme is used to copy DNA B. Ligase
A. Ligase C. Leading
B. Helicase D. Telomeres

201. DNA Template strand:AATGCTAGCTDNA 207. This specialized enzyme will connect
Complementary strand: Okazaki Segments that have been created
on the Lagging strand.

A. UUAGCAUCGA
B. AATGCTAGCT A. RNA Primase
C. TTACGATCGA B. DNA Primase
D. GGCTATGATC
C. DNA Ligase
202. DNA replication is semiconservative. D. Helicase
What does this mean?
A. 2 completely new DNA molecules 208. Short stretch of nucleotide
B. 2 DNA molecules that each contain a A. probe
strand of the original
C. 1 new DNA molecule and 1 old B. primer
D. 1 new molecule of DNA C. locus
203. You can find Okazaki fragments on D. oligonucleoside

A. The Lagging Strand
209. What is the goal of DNA replication?
B. The Leading Strand
A. to make RNA
C. both strands of DNA
D. the enzymes used to help with DNA B. to ensure that every cell has a com-
Replication plete set of identical DNA
204. Who discovered the structure of DNA? C. to make proteins

A. Gregor and Mendel D. to complete the cell cycle
B. Thomas and Morgan
210. Removes the RNA primer and adds DNA
C. Watson and Crick
nucleotides to fill in the gap
D. Darwin and Pasteur
A. DNA polymerase III
205. Which of the following is the function of
topoisomerase? B. ligase
A. Build up primer C. primase
B. Relieve strain due to supercoiling D. DNA polymerase I
C. join the DNA fragments
D. Break H bonds 211. When an enzyme cuts open a DNA
molecule, what type of bonds are being
206. DNA polymerase generates new dna in broken?
the to direction
A. Covalent Bonds
A. 3’ to 5’
B. Hydrogen Bonds
B. easiest
C. 5’ to 3’ C. Ionic Bonds
D. 9 to 5 D. Peptide Bonds

212. Which is the third step? 217. Polymerase beta:

A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA A. synthesizes the RNA primer, initiates
strand DNA synthesis and the lagging strand
B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer B. synthesizes the leading strand, filling
for new nucleotide bases. DNA gaps after removal of primer
C. DNA polymerase builds new strands C. Repair DNA
by bring in new nucleotide bases. D. replicate mitochondrial DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag-
ging strand 218. The enzyme separates the two tem-
plate strands of a DNA molecule by break-
213. Which enzyme is responsible for adding ing the hydrogen bonds that hold them to-
nucleotides during replication? gether.
A. Helicase A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA polymerase B. Helicase
C. DNA Ligase C. DNA ligase
D. Primase D. Topoisomerase
219. What does primase do?

214. Which of the following start the synthe-
sis of a new DNA? A. add DNA to the new strand
A. RNA primer B. add RNA primers for DNA polymerase
to work from
B. DNA polymerase III
C. close the gap between nucleotides
C. Okazaki fragment
D. relieve strain ahead of the replication
D. DNA ligase
fork
215. Which enzyme is responsible for gluing 220. Okazaki fragments are unified into a sin-
and connecting parts of newly created gle continuous strand by the use of this
DNA fragments together (”The Gluer”)? enzyme
A. Topoisomerase A. DNA Helicase
B. DNA Polymerase B. DNA Ligase
C. Ligase C. Topoisomerase
D. Primase D. Telomerase
216. Which molecule carries amino acids to the 221. The method of DNA replication is known
ribosomes? as
A. mRNA A. Conservative
B. tRNA B. Semi-Conservative
C. DNA C. Parallell
D. ATP D. Anti-Parallel

222. are the macromolecule that include C. DNA regneration

DNA and RNA D. DNA redistribution

A. nucleic acid
228. What is the function of a helicase enzyme
B. proteins
during DNA replication?
C. amino acid
A. Unwind the double stranded DNA
D. lipids
B. Scan for mismatches
223. Second step to DNA replication. C. Add primers to the lagging strand
A. Primer Binding D. Fix breaks in the sugar-phosphate
B. Replication fork formation. backbone
C. Elongation 229. The process of making proteins on the
D. none of above ribosome based on the instructions from
messenger RNA is called
224. Which of the following is the end product
of translation? A. transcription
A. DNA B. replication
B. amino acid C. translation
C. RNA D. mitosis
D. Protein 230. Replication occurs once every cell gener-
ation during
225. This enzyme is capable of breaking Hy-
drogen bonds found between the bases of A. S phase
DNA B. T phase
A. Topoisomerase
C. C phase
B. DNA Helicase
D. A phase
C. DNA Polymerase
231. The method of DNA replication is known
D. Exonuclease
as:
226. If a strand reads:3’ A A A T T T C 5’The A. Semi-conservative
complementary strand of DNA would read
B. Conservative
A. 5’ T T T A A A G 3’ C. Dispersive
B. 3’ T T T A A A G 5’ D. Complementary
C. 5’ A A A T T T C 3’ 232. Which enzyme is responsible for adding
D. 3’ U U U A A A G 5’ nucleotides (”The Builder”)?
A. Topoisomerase
227. What term names the process during
which DNA is copied prior to cell division? B. DNA Polymerase
A. DNA polymerase C. Ligase
B. DNA replication D. Primase

233. If a sample of DNA has 20% ADENINE, 239. DNA Polymerase is an enzyme in the nu-
how much GUANINE will it have? cleus that has which function?
A. 30% A. It ‘unzips’ the DNA molecule
B. 20% B. It adds new nucleotides to the old
strands of the DNA Molecule
C. 80%
C. It is responsible for degrading old DNA
D. 60%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
234. What prevents DNA strands from rean- D. It fuses the gaps in the sugar-
nealing at the replication fork? phosphate backbone
A. Helicase 240. The process of DNA replication is called
B. Topoisomerase semi conservative because it results in
C. Ligase A. none of these
D. Single-stranded binding proteins B. Two DNA molecules. One original
molecule and one with two new strands
235. The process that makes an exact copy of
a cell’s DNA is called C. two exact copies with new strands
A. conservation. D. two identical molecules, each with 1
B. preservation. original strand and one new.
C. replication. 241. The ability of the genetic material to
D. synthesis. provides the genetic variability required
for evolution to occur in a population.
236. In eukaryotes, DNA is located in the A. Store information
A. cytoplasm B. Be replicated
B. nucleus C. Undergo changes
C. cell membrane D. All are correct
D. ribosome 242. If a fruit fly has 40% Guanine in it’s DNA,
237. Which is not a type of point mutation? how much Adenine does it have?
A. 10%
A. substitution
B. 20%
B. addition
C. 30%
C. substrction
D. 40%
D. translocation
243. The two strands of a DNA molecule are
238. A DNA nucleotide contains all of the fol- held together by bonds between their
lowing, except base pairs.
A. Deoxyribose A. covalent
B. Phosphate group B. hydrogen
C. Nitrogenous base C. ionic
D. Cholesterol D. peptide

244. Which of the following must happen first B. the order (sequence) of the nitrogen
in order for DNA replication to occur? bases

A. DNA polymerase binds to the leading C. the colour of the nitrogen bases
strand D. the frequency (number) of nitrogen
B. DNA is unwound bases
C. Hydrogen bonds form between bases 250. What does topoisomerase do?
D. chromosomes condense A. relieve stress in DNA in front of the
245. Okazaki fragments are a result of replication fork
A. Semiconservative replication B. unwind the double helix by breaking hy-

drogen bonds
B. Discontinuous replication
C. add nucleotides to the new strand of
C. DNA Polymerase DNA
D. Single Stranded Binding Proteins D. add an RNA primer to the new strand
of DNA
246. What are the four nitrogen bases for
DNA? 251. Chargraff’s Rule says that
A. Uracil, Thymine, Adenine, and Gaunine A. Adenine will be equal to Thymine
B. Cytosine will be equal to Thymine
B. Cytosine, Thymine, Adenine, Guanine
C. Uracil will be equal to Guanine
C. Thymine, Adenine, Lytosine, Guanine
D. Adenine will be equal to Cytosine
D. Thymine, Adenise, Guanine, Cytosol
252. What does DNA replication produce?
247. What enzyme is responsible for telling
A. one identical copy of DNA
DNA Polymerase where to start?
B. one nonidentical copy of DNA
A. Helicase
C. two identical copies of DNA
B. Ligase
D. two nonidentical copies of DNA
C. RNA Primse
D. Okazaki Fragments 253. Which of the following will NOT gener-
ally cause mutations?
248. A short sequence of nucleotides reads A. radiation
GGACAGAGCGCAGACGA. In which type of
molecule could this sequence be found? B. DNA replication
A. DNA molecule only C. chemicals
B. RNA molecule only D. viruses
C. Both in a DNA and an RNA molecule 254. Which enzyme is responsible for adding
D. In double-stranded DNA only new bases?
A. Topoisomerase
249. What determines the code, or informa-
tion, of a DNA molecule? B. DNA Polymerase
A. the shape (structure) of the nitrogen C. Ligase

bases D. Primase

255. The last stage of chromatin packing pro- 260. Once replication in a DNA molecule is com-
duces plete, each new DNA molecule contains
A. nucleosome A. two new strands.
B. histones B. 3 exact copies of strands.
C. looped domain C. one new strand and one old.
D. metaphase chromosome D. two old strands.

261. The DNA is found in the nucleus of what
NARAYAN CHANGDER
256. Before DNA can replicate it has to type of organisms?
A. Separate the two strands A. Bacteria
B. Find 4 new strands B. Eukaryotes
C. Ask its mom C. Prokaryotes
D. none of above D. Viruses
257. Which of the following does DNA poly- 262. What did the first solution that the bacte-
merase NOT do? ria was placed in during the Meselson and
Stahl experiment contain?
A. connects nucleotides (in the new
strand) through covalent bonds A. 15N
B. CsCl
B. Matches the template nucleotides with
free nucleotides C. 14N
C. proofreads D. 13N
D. It does all of these functions 263. DNA polymerase joins to synthesize
a new complementary strand of DNA.
258. Which is the correct order of DNA Repli-
A. nucleotides
cation steps?
B. cell membranes
A. Unwinding & Unzipping, Base Pairing,
Joining C. dipoid cells
D. monocells
B. Joining, Base Pairing, Unwinding & Un-
zipping 264. What breaks apart the hydrogen bonds
C. Base Pairing, Unwinding & Unzipping, between two strands of DNA?
Joining A. Histone
D. Unwinding & Unzipping, Joining, Base B. Helicase
Pairing C. Exonuclease
259. The enzyme used to separate the double D. Endonuclease
helix into 2 single strands is: 265. A transcribing enzyme is
A. Helicase A. helicase
B. DNA polymerase III B. ligase
C. Gyrase C. RNA polymerase
D. Lipase D. rRNA

266. Which enzyme starts adding RNA nu- C. Meleson Shahl experiment
cleotide segments to mark starting point D. none of above
for replication?

A. helicase 272. The bonds that hold the two strands of
DNA together come from
B. RNA primase
A. the attraction of phosphate groups
C. DNA polymerase
B. strong bonds between bases and sug-
D. ligase ars
267. Which enzyme glues the Okazaki frag- C. carbon to carbon bonds in the sugar
ments together? D. weak hydrogen bonds between the
A. Helicase bases
B. Polymerase 273. The enzyme that splits open the DNA cre-
C. Ligase ates what’s called a fork-where the DNA
D. Primerase separates into the lagging strand and the
strand.
268. What is responsible for holding the two A. leading
strands of the DNA double helix to-
gether? B. leveraging
A. hydrogen bonds C. Okazaki
B. alleles D. ligase
C. London dispersion forces 274. The replication of lagging strands of DNA

D. deoxyribose sugars differs from the replication of leading
strands in that
269. Which enzyme is responsible for adding A. Primase is not required
the RNA primer
B. RNA primers are not required
A. Helicase
C. DNA ligase is not needed.
B. Topoisomerase
D. DNA synthesis proceeds in the 3’ to-5’
C. primase direction.
D. DNA Polymersase 1
275. Which of the following enzymes leaves
270. Complementary base pairing is “primers” on the DNA strand to tell an-
A. Adenine will be equal to Thymine other enzyme where to start building?
B. Cytosine will be equal to Thymine A. Helicase
C. Uracil will be equal to Guanine B. Primase
D. Adenine will be equal to Cytosine C. DNA Polymerase

D. Ligase
271. What is the name of the experiment
that determined DNA replication is semi- 276. Helicase breaks the following bonds be-
conservative? tween nitrogenous bases:
A. Meleson and Stahl experiment A. Hydrogen bonds
B. Meselson and Stahl experiment B. Covalent bonds

C. Phosphodiester bonds 282. All of the following are true of purine

bases, EXCEPT.
D. Ionic bonds
A. contain two rings
277. If a segment of double-stranded DNA has B. contain the element nitrogen
40 percent A, how much of it is C?
C. capable of forming hydrogen bonds
A. 40
D. Cytosine is an example
B. 10
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 15
the structure of DNA?
D. 20 A. double helix
278. What is the correct complimentary strand B. sugar-phosphate backbone
for the following DNA? ATCGAG C. nucleotide polymer
A. TACGAG D. contains adenine-uracil pairs
B. ATCGAG 284. Before a cell divides, it duplicates its DNA
C. TAGCTG in a copying process called during the
S phase of the cell cycle.
D. TAGCTC
A. replication
279. This short segment of nucleotides will act B. hydrolysis
as a ‘start’ or attachment site for DNA
C. photosynthesis
Polymerase.
D. mitosis
A. RNA Primer
B. DNA Primer 285. A sample of DNA is analyzed, the percent-
age of Adenine is found to be 27% What
C. Okazaki Segment is the percentage of Guanine?
D. Kosak Sequence A. 27%
280. What is the sugar in DNA called? B. 54%

C. 23%
A. Ribose
D. 46%
B. Deoxyribose
C. Phosphate 286. All of the enzymes below are involved in
the replication of DNA except
D. Uracil
A. DNA helicase
281. Which direction do new Nucleotides get B. DNA polymerase
added? C. Primase
A. 5’ to 3’ D. RNA polymerase
B. 3’ to 5’
287. Which is NOT a function of DNA?
C. It could be both
A. to signal when an organisms is in need
D. none of above of a basic necessity

B. to carry genetic information from one B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer
generation to the next for new nucleotide bases.

C. to determine the characteristics and C. DNA polymerase builds new strands
traits of an organism by bring in new nucleotide bases.
D. easily copied for the process of cell di- D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag-
vision ging strand
288. Which of the following is correct with re- 293. Before a cell divides, it duplicates its DNA
spect to DNA replication? in a copying process called replication dur-
A. Enzyme Helicase is used to stabilize ing the phase of the cell cycle.
the ssDNA A. S
B. Enzyme DNA Pol. I is the main poly- B. M
merizing enzyme
C. G1
C. Enzyme ligase is used to employ RNA
D. G2
primers
D. Okazaki fragments are made up of de- 294. The two strands of DNA run in opposite
oxynucleotides directions. This is called
289. What are the 2 pyrimidines? A. Double helix
A. adenine & guanine B. Anti parallel

B. adenine & thymine C. Anti perpendicular
C. thymine & cytosine D. double stranded
D. thymine & guanine 295. Which type of sugar is in DNA?
290. The repetitive sequences of DNA on the A. Deoxyribose
ends of chromosomes (TTAGGG) B. Ribose
A. telomeres C. Table sugar
B. telomerase D. There is no sugar in DNA.
C. Okazaki fragments
296. The backbone of DNA is made up of:
D. primer
A. Nucleotides and sugar
291. The principle Watson and Crick created
B. Sugar and Phosphates
that said adenine pairs with thymine and
guanine pairs with cytosine is called C. Sugar and Nucleotide bases
A. base pairing D. Bases and Phosphates
B. super coiling 297. In eukaryotes, nearly all the DNA is
C. replication found in the
D. substitution A. cell wall
292. Which is the first step? B. mitochondria
A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA C. cytoplasm

strand D. nucleus

298. Niitrogenous bases are joined by which C. Ligase

type of bond? D. Primase
A. polar bonds
304. What is the LAST step of the completion
B. covalent bonds of DNA replication?
C. ionic bonds A. Telomeres are added to ends of DNA
D. hydrogen bonds B. Ligase glues Okazaki fragments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
299. In replication, a single strand from the C. DNA polymerase proofreads
original DNA molecule is used as a for D. Topoisomerase relieves supercoiling
the new strand. (helps make an exact
copy) 305. The sequence of bases on one strand of
DNA is AGC CTA. After replication, what is
A. Pattern
the sequence of bases on the complemen-
B. Template tary (opposite) strand?
C. Copy A. AGC CTA
D. Xerox B. CTA GGC
300. The lagging strand is composed of seg- C. GAT CCG
ments known as: D. TCG GAT
A. Pkazoki fragments
306. The enzyme that unwinds the DNA to pre-
B. Brgan fragments pare for replication is
C. Ruzucki fragments A. helicase
D. Okazaki fragments B. replicase
301. What is the function of Ligase? C. polymerase
A. Glues DNA. D. ssBP
B. Unzips 2 strands of DNA. 307. The enzyme that matches up new nu-
cleotides with the original strand is called
C. Build new strand by replicating.
D. Makes Primer.
A. DNA helicase
302. What keeps the DNA strands apart dur- B. DNA polymerase
ing DNA replication?
C. RNA polymerase
A. DNA gyrase
D. RNA helicase
B. DNA helicase
308. The enzyme that attaches free nu-
C. DNA primase
cleotides to the newly unzipped old
D. single-stranded binding proteins strands is called
303. Which enzyme is responsible for adding A. DNA Polymerase
nucleotides? B. Lactase
A. Topoisomerase C. DNA Acitase
B. DNA Polymerase D. Polyatomic Ligase

309. This enzyme is responsible for creating A. thymine

telomeres added to the ends of DNA B. guanine

A. Topoisomerase C. cytosine
B. Telomerase D. bodine
C. DNA Helicase 315. Which base pairs with cytosine?
D. DNA Primase A. Adenine
310. Which of the following components is not B. Thymine
involved during the formation of the repli- C. Cytosine
cation fork?
D. Guanine
A. single-strand binding proteins
316. Which of the following enzymes is re-
B. helicase sponsible for joining the Okazaki frag-
C. origin of replication ments?
D. ligase A. DNA polymerase
B. Helicase
311. In DNA, nitrogen base pairs are held to-
gether by C. Primase
A. hydrogen bonds D. DNA ligase
B. ionic bonds 317. How many DNA are there if two DNA is
C. covalent bonds replicated four times?
A. 16
D. peptide bonds
B. 30
312. Which enzyme is responsible for adding
C. 32
nucleotides to the new strands during DNA
replication? D. 8
A. Topoisomerase 318. Primase (leading strand synthesis)
B. DNA Polymerase A. holds DNA polymerase in place during
strand extension
C. Ligase
B. extends the leading strand
D. Helicase
C. catalyzes the synthesis of the RNA
313. Which enzyme is responsible for adding primer, and provides a starting point of
the free nucleotides to the replicating RNA or DNA polymerase to begin synthe-
DNA? sis of new strand
A. DNA Helicase D. none of the above
B. DNA Ligase 319. Which enzyme is responsible for joining
C. DNA polyermase the Okazaki fragments?
D. RNA Polymerase A. Ligase
B. Helicase
314. If the base on the original strand is ade-
nine, then is added to the newly form- C. DNA Polymerase 1
ing strand. D. DNA Polymerase 3

320. Which base pairs with adenine? C. 20

A. Adenine D. 60
B. Thymine
326. bonds hold the complementary parent
C. Cytosine strands together.
D. Guanine A. Phoshodiester
321. Which of the following is a base that is B. Hydrogen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
NOT contained in DNA? C. Covalent
A. Adenine D. Ionic
B. Thymine
327. This Y shaped region where DNA is un-
C. Uracil wound to start replication is called
D. Guanine
A. replication fork
322. DNA template strand:3’-TTAACGATGGCA- B. Leading strand
5’DNA complementary strand:
C. Lagging strands
A. 3’-AAUUGCUACCGU-5’
D. replication splicing
B. 3’-ATTGCTACCGT-5’
C. AATTGCTACCGT 328. Replicate the following strand of
DNA:AATCATGGA
D. 5’-AATTGCTACCGT-3’
A. AATCATGGA
323. What monomers are repeatedly joined to- B. TTAGTACCT
gether to form a strand of DNA?
C. UUAGUACCU
A. amino acids
D. GGATAUCUA
B. nucleotides
C. fatty acids 329. Rosalind Franklin’s “Photo 51” allowed
Watson and Crick to determine the of
D. polysaccharides
DNA.
324. Which enzyme is responsible for forming A. Shape
covalent bonds between the Okazaki frag-
ments? B. Backbone
A. Ligase C. Nitrogen bases
B. Helicase D. Hydrogen bonds

C. DNA Polymerase 330. The strand that continuously replicates
D. Primase towards the direction of replication is
known as
325. If the percentage of DNA is made of 30%
A. The lagging strand
Thymine, what is the correct percentage of
Guanine? B. The leading strand
A. 30 C. The double helix
B. 15 D. both strands

331. Single base substitutions are called as 336. Enzyme that unwinds the DNA
A. mutations A. ligase

B. point mutations B. DNA Polymerase
C. replication C. primase
D. helicase
D. recombination
337. What are the fundamental packaging
332. What is the function of DNA Poly- units of eukaryotic chromosomes?
merase?
A. Nucleosomes
A. Glues DNA.
B. Centromeres
B. Unzips 2 strands of DNA. C. Histones
C. Makes Primer. D. Nucleoids
D. Build new strand by replicating.
338. DNA replication occurs during which
333. A strand that has the base sequence 5’-
TACGTT-3’ produces a strand with the com- A. interphase-G1
plimentary base sequence B. interphase-S
A. 3’-ATGCAA-5’ C. interphase-G2
B. 5’-GTTACT-3’ D. mitosis
C. 3’-TATTGG-5’ 339. DNA holds the code for
D. 5’-ATGCAA-3’ A. lipids
B. carbohydrates
334. After DNA replication there are two new
copies of DNA made of C. protein
A. all new nucleotides D. sugar
B. all old nucleotides rearranged 340. Which enzyme removes the RNA primer
during replication?
C. one old strand and one new strand of
DNA A. RNA primase
D. random nucleotide base pairs B. DNA polymerase I
C. DNA helicase
335. What does the last step of DNA accom-
D. DNA polymerase III
plish? Which two enzymes are used in this
process? 341. During DNA replication, the leading
A. Proofreading strand is easily distinguishable from the
lagging strand because
B. DNA Polymerase I and DNA Poly-
A. Helicases only attach to the leading
merase III
strand
C. Proofreading, DNA Polymerase I and
B. the lagging strand is synthesized in
DNA Polymerase III
separate pieces called Okazaki fragments
D. none of above

C. DNA ligase is attached to the leading 347. A stretch of chromosome that codes for a
strand trait can be called?
D. none of above A. Chromatid
B. Replication Fork
342. are used to speed up the process of
DNA replication C. Gene
A. nucleotides D. Base Pair

348. Which of the following is not true of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. phosphodiester bonds
lagging strand during DNA replication?
C. enzymes
A. It is made from 5’ → 3’
D. okazaki fragments
B. It is made in the same direction as the
343. which of the following enzymes is the leading strand
principal replication enzyme in E.coli? C. It is made by stopping and starting
A. DNA polymerase I again
B. DNA polymerase II D. RNA primers help it to be made
C. DNA polymerase III 349. If a DNA molecule is 18% Guanine which

of the following is correct
D. None of these
A. 18% cytosine, 32% adenine, 32%
344. What kind of bond holds one nucleotide thymine
to another one above it or below it? B. 32% cytosine, 18% adenine, 32%
A. ionic thymine
B. glycosidic C. 18% cytosine, 64% adenine, 64%
thymine
C. hydrogen
D. 32% cytosine, 32% adenine, 18%
D. phosphodiester thymine
345. DNA strands move in an antiparallel pat- 350. Which of these occurs 3rd?
tern, what does this mean? A. Primase adds primers
A. the strands move in opposite direc- B. Topoisomerase uncoils the DNA
tions
C. DNA polymerase adds new nucletides
B. the strands move in the same direction
D. Ligase seals the DNA fragments to-
C. they crisscross each other gether
D. none of above 351. Which of the following enzymes is re-
sponsible for synthesizing the new DNA
346. The percentage of A + G equals strand?
A. 26% A. DNA polymerase
B. 50% B. Helicase
C. 80% C. Primase
D. 100% D. DNA ligase

352. What do single strand DNA-binding pro- 357. is a special enzyme that replicates the
teins do? telomeres, the ends of the chromosomes in
eukaryotic cells

A. add nucleotides after helicase un-
winds the double helix A. Helicase
B. replace RNA primer with DNA B. DNA Ligase
C. relieve strain ahead of the replication C. Topoisomerase
fork D. Telomerase
D. protect the strands of DNA from re-
358. The enzyme that unwinds the DNA to pre-
forming hydrogen bases
pare for replication
353. Which is the strand that replicates just as A. helicase
quickly as the replication fork opens up? B. replicase
A. Leading strand C. polymerase
B. Lagging strand D. synthase
C. Parent strand
359. The contains
D. Daughter strand
A. Leading Strand / Okazaki Fragments
354. Which enzyme breaks the hydrogen B. Lagging Strand / Okazaki Fragments
bonds between the two DNA strands in
C. Leading Strand / Topoisomerase
order to separate them in order to start
replication? D. Lagging Strand / dispersive replica-
tion
A. Topoisomerase
B. Helicase 360. Which of these is a function of DNA?
C. DNA polymerase A. Replicate Cells

B. Create a genome
D. Ligase
C. Store Genetic Information
355. The enzymes responsible for adding nu-
D. Change in accordance with the envi-
cleotides to the exposed DNA template
ronment
bases are:
A. replicases 361. If one strand of DNA has the sequence
TTACCG, the sequence of the other strand
B. DNA polymerases of the same molecule will be
C. nucleotidases A. AATGGC
D. helicases B. TTACCG
356. What explains imperfect ratios of paired C. AACGGC
bases? D. AATGGG
A. Evolution
362. In prokaryotes, DNA replication begins at
B. Displacement the
C. Mutation A. replication fork
D. Pairing B. ori

C. chromosome C. It has a uniform diameter.

D. terminus D. It is a right-handed helix.
363. Which molecule picks up amino acids and 368. What enzyme is responsible for unzip-
brings them to the ribosome? ping the DNA strands to prepare for repli-
A. mRNA cation?
B. tRNA A. DNA polymerase

B. Helicase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. rRNA
D. DNA C. primase
D. unzip-a-gene
364. Which enzyme uncoils the DNA?
A. Topoisomerase 369. During DNA replication, the enzyme
bonds together the new side of the DNA
B. Helicase
A. helicase
C. Polymerase
B. ligase
D. Ligase
C. synthase
365. In a double helix, the direction of the nu- D. polymerase
cleotides in one strand is opposite to their
direction in the other strand. The strands 370. What part of the cell cycle is the DNA in
are a cell’s nucleus replication?
A. parallel A. Prophase
B. homologous B. Metaphase
C. anti-parallel C. Interphase
366. With regards to DNA replication along 371. In the second step breaks the bonds
the template strand, what event takes which hold the complementary parent
place first? strands together.
A. DNA polymerase begins adding RNA A. gyrase
nucleotides
B. primase
B. DNA polymerase begins adding DNA
C. helicase
nucleotides
D. single-stranded binding proteins
C. DNA ligase joins the Okazaki frag-
ments 372. What does mRNA do?
D. primase adds a primer made of RNA A. provides information from DNA to ribo-
nucleotides. somes
367. Which statement about DNA structure is B. transfers amino acids to the ribo-
false? somes
A. The 3 prime end is phosphorylated C. makes up ribosomes
B. It is a double-stranded helix. D. builds proteins

373. What is the LAST enzyme used in DNA 379. DNA unwinding is done by
replication A. Ligase

A. Topoisomerase B. Helicase
B. Telomerase C. Topoisomerase
C. DNA Polymerase
D. Hexonuclease
D. DNA Ligase
380. The stem cells in your intestinal walls di-
374. All of the following can cause mutations vide frequently. Therefore, these cells are
in DNA except likely to
A. chemicals. A. Have high levels of telomerase
B. radiation. B. Have very low levels of telomerase
C. mistakes in replication. C. Lack DNA polymerase
D. extreme temperatures D. Lack Okazaki Fragments
375. What are Okazaki fragments made of? 381. Changes in DNA sequences that effect ge-
A. DNA only netic information is called
B. RNA only A. mutations
C. DNA and RNA B. mitosis
D. Protein C. replication
376. What is the name of the shape of DNA? D. meiosis
A. Single Helix 382. In prokaryotes, DNA molecules are lo-
B. Double Helix cated in the
C. Double Stranded A. cytoplasm
D. Semiconservative B. mitochondria
377. New Nucleotides are added to the C. nucleus

end of an existing DNA strand. D. ribosomes
A. 3’ 383. What type of bond forms between the
B. 5’ two strands of DNA?
C. 1’ A. Polar Covalent
D. 4’ B. Hydrogen
378. DNA replication results in two DNA C. Ionic
molecules, D. Phosphodiester
384. Where does translation occur?
B. each one with two new strands
A. ribosomes in the cytoplasm
C. each one with one new strand and one
original strand B. ribosomes in the nucleus
D. one with two new strands and the C. in the nucleus

other with two original strands D. outside of the cell

385. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair C. adenine-guanine; thymine-cytosine.

with this partial strand D. uracil-thymine; guanine-cytosine.
A. ATG TGA CAG
391. Which of the following is a function of
B. TAC ACT GTC telomeres?
C. GTA AGT GAC A. To protect the ends of chromosomes
D. CAT TCA CTG B. To help make Okazaki fragments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
386. In what direction does the Leading strand C. To protect DNA polymerase
run? D. To promote cancer
A. 3’ → 5’
392. Polymerase gamma:
B. 5’-→ 3’
A. synthesizes the RNA primer, initiates
C. It doesn’t matter DNA synthesis and the lagging strand
D. Both directions B. Repair DNA
387. Which of these occurs first? C. replicate mitochondrial DNA
A. Helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds D. synthesizes the leading strand, filling
DNA gaps after removal of primer
B. The DNA uncoils
C. DNA polymerase adds new nu- 393. Mistakes during replication can result in
cleotides A. variation
D. Primase adds primers B. mutation
388. Which scientist(s) stated that DNA con- C. evolution

tains phosphorus while proteins contain D. All of the above
sulfur?
394. If a person suffered from a disorder
A. Meselson & Stahl where their DNA fragments were unable
B. Hershey & Chase to fill in the missing slots in between
the fragments of the lagging strand, they
C. Watson & Crick
would most likely have a disorder that af-
D. Franklin & Watkins fected which enzyme?
389. Which of the following carries amino A. DNA Helicase
acids to the site of protein synthesis? B. DNA Ligase
A. mRNA C. DNA polyermase
B. rRNA D. RNA Polymerase
C. tRNA
395. What is a mistake called when copying
D. nRNA DNA?
390. The base-pairing rules state that the fol- A. Mutation
lowing are base pairs in DNA: B. Okazaki fragment
A. adenine-thymine; uracil-cytosine. C. Replication
B. adenine-thymine; guanine-cytosine. D. none of above

396. The enzyme that relaxes the supercoiling C. semi-conservatively

of DNA to enable the template strands to D. none of above
be unwound and separated is:

A. helicase 402. DNA Polymerase can only move in the 5’
to 3’ direction. Therefore, the new strand
B. primase that is formed in the 3’ to 5’ direction is
C. gyrase/topoisomerase the
D. ligase A. leading strand
397. Any mistake during replication would re- B. lagging strand
sult C. leaping strand
A. variation D. longing strand
B. mutation
403. Experiment that radioactively labeled the
C. evolution proteins and DNA of bacteriophages to de-
D. All of the above termine if DNA or protein was the trans-
forming agent
398. Replicate this strand:ACCGGATT
A. Avery
A. TCCGGATT
B. Watson & Crick
B. AGGCCTAA
C. Messelson & Stahl
C. TGGCCTAA
D. Hershey & Chase
D. CCGGAATT
404. In humans, DNA replication occurs inside
399. DNA polymerase the
A. Is an enzyme A. Cytoplasm of cells
B. Adds new nucleotides to the template B. Mitochondria of cells
strand
C. Chloroplast of cells
C. Proofreads DNA strands to see that
D. Nucleus of cells
they are correct
D. All of these are functions of DNA poly- 405. DNA polymerase moves in the to
merase direction
A. 3’ to 5’
edly joined together to form a strand of B. easiest
DNA? (These are the monomers of DNA.) C. 5” to 3”
A. amino acids D. 9 to 5
B. nucleotides
406. First step to DNA Replication.
C. fatty acids
A. DNA strands bind together.
D. polysaccharides
B. Build Polymerase.
401. How is DNA replicated? C. Unzip double helix structure of the
A. conservatively DNA.
B. dispersively D. none of above

407. is to DNA and is to RNA 412. On the lagging strand in replication, the
Okazaki Fragments must be joined by
A. Ribose / Deoxyribose
which enzyme?
B. Phosphodiester bonds / 2’ Hydroxyl A. DNA polymerase
group
B. ligase
C. Nucleotides / Nucleosomes
C. primase
D. Deoxyribose / Ribose D. helicase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
408. On the ‘lagging strand’ of DNA replica- 413. How many DNA molecules are in a single
tion DNA is build in short segments (100- chromosome?
200 bases long) known as A. One
A. RNA Primer B. Two
B. DNA Primer C. Four
C. Okazaki Segments D. The number varies
D. Kosak Sequence 414. Seals the Okazaki fragments together

A. DNA Polymerase
409. The nucleic acid DNA is composed of
B. ligase
A. sugar, protein, and nitrogenous bases. C. helicase
D. primase
B. protein, nitrogenous bases, and phos-
phate. 415. The molecule that unzips the DNA to pre-
pare for replication is a(n)
C. nitrogenous bases, phosphate, and
RNA. A. enzyme
B. carbohydrate
D. sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous
bases. C. nucleic acid
D. lipid
410. Synthesizes a short fragment of RNA
that allows DNA polymerase III to bind 416. Which enzyme fixes the Okazaki frag-
ments by “gluing them together” in the
A. ligase lagging strand?
B. DNA polymerase I A. Helicase
C. primase B. Polymerase
D. helicase C. Ligase
D. Primerase
411. What part of the cell cycle does replica-
tion occur? 417. This enzyme helps helicase unzip DNA by
relieving stress
A. S phase
A. Topoisomerase
B. Prophase B. Exonuclease
C. Metaphase C. DNA Primase
D. G1 D. DNA Polymerase

418. Before a cell divides, its DNA must first 424. What are the two segments of the sepa-
rated DNA called?

A. Replicate A. leading and lagging
B. Replace
B. laughing and lagging
C. Turn into a helix
C. leading and ligase
D. be isolated.
D. looking and listening
419. In RNA, adenine goes with
A. adnine 425. If a molecule of DNA is made up of 40%
B. cytosine Adenine, what percentage is Thymine?
C. thymine A. 20%
D. uracil B. 40%
420. What scientist risked years of life to cap- C. 10%
ture an X-Ray image of a DNA Molecule?
D. 80%
A. Rosalind Franklin
B. Watson and Crick 426. Which scientists determined that DNA
was a double helix?
C. Chargaff
D. none of above A. Franklin & Watkins
421. DNA replication is described as SEMI- B. Hershey & Chase

CONSERVATIVE, which results in two DNA C. Meselson & Stahl
molecules,
D. Watson & Crick
B. each one with two new strands 427. What does tRNA do?
C. each one with one new strand and one A. provides information from DNA to ribo-
original strand somes
D. one with two new strands and the
B. transfers amino acids to the ribo-
other with two original strands
somes
422. DNA replication has steps
C. makes up ribosomes
A. 1
D. builds proteins
B. 3
C. 4 428. If a DNA template strand is 5’ T T C G A
D. 5 G 3’, what will the complementary strand
be?
423. What is the correct sequence?
A. 5’ A A G C T C 3’
A. RNA → DNA → Protein
B. 3’ A A G C T C 3’
B. Protein → RNA → DNA
C. DNA → RNA → Protein C. 3’ A A G C T C 5’
D. DNA → Protein → RNA D. none of above

429. What enzyme replaces RNA primer on 435. Which enzyme has the job of unzipping
the leading strand with DNA? the double helix?
A. Polymerase III A. Helicase
B. Ligase B. Polymerase
C. Polymerase I C. Ligase
D. Helicase D. Primerase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
430. What are the 2 purines? 436. in gel electrophoresis, charged DNA
migrates toward the end of the gel;
A. adenine & guanine
fragments travel further
B. adenine & thymine
A. positively, negative, smaller
C. thymine & cytosine B. positively, negative, larger
D. thymine & guanine C. negatively, positive, smaller
431. Which strand forms Okazaki Frag- D. negatively, positive, larger
ments?
437. DNA polymerases III (leading-strand syn-
A. Leading strand thesis)
B. Lagging strand A. cuts the leading strand
C. Left strand B. extends the leading strand
D. Right strand C. catalyzes the synthesis of the RNA
primer
432. DNA replicates through what process?
D. option a and b
A. Conservative replication
B. Semiconservative replication 438. This force holds two bases together (Ex-
ample:A bonded to T)
C. Dispersive replication
A. Covalent bond
D. Disparative replication
B. Hydrogen bond
433. Match he nucleotide with its complemen- C. Nucleotide bond
tary nucleotide. (DNA to DNA).Cytosine-
D. Ribose bond
A. Thymine
439. Polymerization of nucleic acids always
B. Guanine
proceeds in a to direction.
C. Adenine
A. 3’ to 5’
D. none of above
B. 3’ to 3’
434. When does replication occur? C. 5’ to 3’
A. G0 phase D. 5’ to 5’
B. G1 phase
440. Why does DNA replicate?
C. G2 phase A. To create another copy for the new cell
D. S phase

B. To create a duplicate copy in case the 446. DNA replication results in

original gets damaged A. 2 completely new DNA molecules

C. To create a new copy to replace the
B. 2 DNA molecules that each contain a
damaged original
strand of the original DNA molecule
D. none of above
C. 1 new DNA molecule and 1 original
441. Which represents the bases of mRNA? DNA molecule
A. A U C G D. 2 DNA molecules, each with original
and new parts of DNA interspersed
B. A T U G
C. A T C G 447. Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
D. U T C G discovered that DNA is replicated:
A. Conservatively
442. This enzyme will ‘lay down’ short seg-
ments of RNA that allow the Polymerase B. Non-conversely
enzyme to attach to the DNA about to be C. Semi-conservatively
replicated.
D. none of above
A. RNA Primase
448. Which of the following things does a nu-
B. DNA Primase
cleotide NOT contain?
C. DNA Ligase
A. a sugar
D. Helicase
B. a nitrogen base
443. Which is the correct order of enzymes in C. a phosphate
DNA Replication?
D. a polymerase
A. helicase, primase, polymerase, ligase
B. helicase, polymerase, ligase, primase 449. Which of the following describes the 5’
end?
C. primase, ligase, helicase, polymerase
A. phosphate attached to the pentose
D. ligase, helicase, polymerase, primase
sugar
444. DNA is built in the B. hydroxyl attached to the pentose sugar
A. 3’-3’ direction
B. 5’-5’ direction C. nitrogenous base attached to the pen-
C. 3’-5’ direction tose sugar
D. 5’-3’ direction D. the next nucleotide attached to the

pentose sugar
445. Why is the produced DNA strands consid-
ered semi-conservative? 450. DNA template strand:5’-GACTCATAGC-
3’DNA complementary strand:
A. made of two old strands of dna
A. 3’-CTGAGTATCG-5’
B. made of two new strands of dna
B. 5’-CTGAGTATCG-3’
C. made of one hold strand and one new
strand of dna C. 3’-CUGAGUAUCG-5’
D. none of above D. 5’-CUGAGUAUCG-3’

451. What type of mutation is rep- C. DNA polymerase

resented in the second strand of
D. Ligase
DNA?TACGGCACTTACGGACT
A. Deletion 457. For TWO AMINO ACIDS to be coded for,
B. substitution how many NITROGEN BASES are needed?
C. insertion A. 1
D. no mutation B. 3
NARAYAN CHANGDER
452. One difference between DNA and RNA is C. 6
that D. 9
A. Only RNA has the base Uracil
B. only RNA contains the base Thymine 458. Enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare
for replication
C. only RNA contains the base Cytosine
A. polymerase III
D. only RNA contained the base Guanine
B. helicase
453. When does DNA replication occur during
the cell cycle? C. topoisomerase
A. G1 phase D. ligase
B. G2 phase
459. What is the function of Primase?
C. S phase
A. Builds DNA.
D. Prophase
B. Unzips 2 strands of DNA.
454. Why is an RNA primer necessary?
C. Glues DNA.
A. DNA can only form base pairs with RNA
D. Makes Primer.
B. RNA polymerase can only add RNA 460. Known as the initializer (starter), it
C. DNA polymerase needs a 3’ end of a makes the primer, so DNA can determine
nucleotide to add more where to begin work.
D. It is not necessary A. ligase
455. What did Avery believe is responsible for B. helicase
transformation? C. DNA polymerase
A. DNA
D. primase
B. RNA
C. Ribosomes 461. Which enzyme is responsible for making
RNA?
D. Mitochondria
A. DNA polymerase
456. Which enzyme breaks the hydrogen
bonds between the two DNA strands? B. RNA enzymase
A. Topoisomerase C. RNA polymerase
B. Helicase D. RNA proliferase

462. The separation of the two single strands C. translation

of DNA creates a ‘Y’ shape. This describes D. DNA Polymerase

A. an enzyme. 467. Because each strand can be used to make
the other strand, the strands are said to
B. unzipping.
be
C. a replication fork.
A. complimentary
D. a primer.
B. supplementary
463. mutations occur between homolo- C. equal
gous chromosomes, whereas muta-
tions occur between non-homologous chro- D. twin
mosomes 468. What is the second step of DNA replica-
A. somatic; germline tion?
B. duplications; translocation A. adding complimentary nucleotides
C. substitution; addition B. closing the DNA strands
D. deletion; deletion C. unzipping DNA
464. What are the main functions of DNA poly- D. none of above
merase?
469. After the DNA is unzipped, reads
A. breaks hydrogen bonds and exposes the DNA and determines which NEW nu-
bases cleotides to add to the parent strand.
B. holds DNA strands apart and attracts A. DNA helicase
bases
B. DNA Polymerase
C. zips and unzips the double-stranded
DNA C. Replication Forks
D. binds nucleotides and corrects base D. replication Bubbles
pair errors
470. What direction does DNA Polymerase
465. A scientist isolates a cell line character- build the new strands of DNA?
ized by unusual cell division. In these cells, A. 5’ to 3’
many small fragments of DNA are found.
A defective enzyme may be responsi- B. 3’ to 5’
ble. C. North to South
A. DNA ligase D. Pole to Pole
B. DNA polymerase I
471. Which of the following help(s) to hold the
C. DNA polymerase III DNA strands apart while they are being
D. Primase replicated?
A. RNA primase
466. What is the process that copies informa-
tion from DNA into RNA? B. single-strand binding proteins
A. protein synthesis C. DNA polymerase I
B. transcription D. DNA ligase

472. Who is credited with constructing the C. Determining base pairing rules
first model of DNA structure? D. Discovering the process of genetic
A. Watson and Crick transformation
B. Rosalind Franklin 478. Starting with 15N15N (heavy) DNA, and
C. Chargaff after one generation in the 14N medium,
D. Dumbledore Escherichia coli cells will contain
A. all 15N14N (hybrid) DNA.
473. Name the enzyme that unzips the DNA to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
prepare for replication. B. half 15N15N DNA (heavy) and half
14N14N DNA (light).
A. helicase
C. half 14N14N (light) DNA and half
B. replicase 15N14N (hybrid) DNA.
C. polymerase D. all 14N14N (light) DNA.
D. synthase
479. Which of these occurs last?
474. Site where replication begins A. DNA polymerase adds new nu-
A. Polymerase action site cleotides
B. Replication fork B. DNA polymerase adds new nucle-
C. Replication Origin toides
D. In the front C. Ligase seals the DNA fragments

D. Primase adds primers
475. Which of the following enzymes starts
the DNA replication process by unzipping 480. In DNA replication the is synthesized
the DNA strand? continuously in the direction of the replica-
A. Helicase tion fork.
B. Primase A. lagging strand
C. DNA Polymerase B. leading strand
D. Ligase C. parent strand

D. niece strand
476. What did Meselson & Stahl discover?
A. A=T, C=G 481. What does rRNA do?
B. bacterial transformation A. provides information from DNA to ribo-

somes
C. DNA is semi-conservatively replicated
B. transfers amino acids to the ribo-
somes
D. RNA primers
C. makes up ribosomes
477. What was Watson and Crick’s main sci- D. builds proteins
entific accomplishment?
A. Building the first accurate model of 482. What is the first step in DNA replication
DNA A. nucleotides are added to complimen-
B. Isolating strains of pneumonia causing tary strands
bacteria B. Breaking the weak hydrogen bonds

C. creating two semi-conservative 488. The pairing of in DNA is the key fea-
strands ture that allows DNA to be copied.

D. copying DNA A. nucleotides
B. nitrogen bases
483. Which enzyme is responsible for laying
down DNA nucleotides from 5’ to 3’ direc- C. chromosomes
tion? D. codons
A. DNA Polymerase III
489. Specific chromosomal locations from
B. DNA Polymerase I where replication begins are called as
C. DNA Polymerase II A. locus
D. DNA Ligase B. origin of replication
484. The primer used for DNA replication C. loci

D. chromosomal arms
A. is a short strand of RNA added to the
5’ end of the template strand. 490. Which enzyme is responsible for adding
B. is needed only once on a leading nucleotides to the free three prime end
strand. A. Helicase
C. remains on the DNA after replication. B. Topoisomerase
D. is added to only one of the two tem- C. DNA Polymerase 3
plate strands.
D. DNA Polymerase 1
485. In DNA replication, new nucleotides are 491. Amino acids are the building blocks of
added to a growing DNA by
A. DNA
A. DNA helicase
B. RNA
B. DNA polymerase I
C. Atoms
C. DNA polymerase III
D. Proteins
D. RNA primase
492. Which of the following is/are true of
486. Which of these enzymes is not a part of nucleosomes?I. They contain six histone
DNA Replication? proteinsII. They control gene expressionIII.
A. Helicase They help in DNA supercoiling
B. Topoisomerase A. I only
C. Ligase B. II only
D. Hexokinase C. II and III only

D. I, II and III
487. DNA codes for
493. Which of the following reactions is re-
A. Carbohydrates
quired for proofreading during DNA repli-
B. Lipids cation by DNA Polymerase III?
C. Proteins A. 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity
D. Nucleotides B. 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity

C. 5’ to 3’ endonuclease activity 499. A scientist observes a base sequence of

D. 3’ to 5’ endonuclease activity AGCTAGCTAGCT. Which of the following
would be the complimentary strand?
494. Which scientists proved that DNA replica- A. TGCATGCATGCA
tion is semi-conservative?
B. TCGATCGATCGA
A. Hershey and Chase
C. TAGCTAGCTAGC
B. Watson and Crick
D. TTAAGGCCTTCC
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Meselson and Stahl
500. What is the name of the fragments of the
D. Franklin and Wilkins lagging strand in the selected picture?
495. The principal enzyme involved in DNA A. Binding proteins
replication is called B. Fragmenting lagging strand
A. DNA Helicase C. Okazaki segments
B. DNA Polymerase D. Coding strands
C. DNA Ligase
501. DNA is replicated during which part of the
D. DNA Primase cell cycle?
496. Choose the correct statement A. G phase

B. S phase
A. Primer is a short DNA strand synthe-
sised by Primase C. D phase
B. Primer is a short RNA strand synthe- D. Y phase
sised by Primase
502. Which enzyme proofreads and removes
C. Primer is a short DNA strand synthe- RNA Primase
sised by Helicase
A. DNA Ligase
D. Primer is a short RNA strand synthe-
B. DNA polymerase I
sised by Helicase
C. DNA polymerase III
497. RNA is read in sections called:
D. DNA Helicase
A. Triplets
503. DNA strand has the following bases
B. Genes AAGCCA what are the bases on the com-
C. Codons plementary strand
D. Genes A. GGCTTA
B. TTGGGA
498. This enzyme is responsible for linking
Okazaki fragments together C. CCAGGT
A. helicase D. TTCGGT
B. DNA polymerase 504. Bacterial chromosome
C. ligase A. has linear DNA
D. primase B. located inside nucleus

C. associates with large amount of pro- C. 5’ to 3’

teins
D. 3’ to 5’

D. has circular DNA
505. What do we call the process of turning 511. What enzyme is responsible for laying
DNA into mRNA? down the RNA primers during DNA Repli-
cation?
A. Translation
A. Helicase
B. Transcription
C. Replication B. RNA Primase
D. none of above C. Ligase
506. Cytosine always pairs with D. There are no RNA primers during DNA
Replication
A. Adenine
B. Thymine 512. You isolate a cell strain in which the join-
C. Uracil ing together of Okazaki fragments is im-
paired and suspect that a mutation has oc-
D. Guanine
curred in an enzyme found at the replica-
507. Where are amino acids joined together to tion fork. Which enzyme is most likely to
make polypeptides? be mutated?
A. Nucleus A. Ligase
B. Nucleolus B. Polymerase I
C. Golgi apparatus
C. Polymerase III
D. Ribosomes
D. Topoisomerase
508. What is the backbone of DNA made of?
A. Nitrogen bases 513. An mRNA molecule is produced in the step
of protein synthesis:
B. Amino acids
C. Double H A. replication
D. Sugar & Phosphate B. transcription
509. Daughter cells always end up with C. duplication

DNA to the parent cell after mitosis D. translation
A. diferrent
B. twice 514. The enzyme used to join bits of DNA is
C. half
D. identical A. DNA ligase
B. DNA helicase
510. DNA nucleotides are added from
A. 3’ to 3’ C. DNA polymerase
B. 9’ to 5’ D. RNA primase

515. Where are free nucleotides added to a 520. DNA polymerase starts on the end of
newly growing strand? the template strand but builds on the
A. to the 5’OH group of the previous de- new strand.
oxyribose sugar A. 3’, 5’-3’
B. to the 5’OH group of the previous phos- B. 5’, 5’-3’
phate group C. 3’, 3’-5’
C. to the 3’OH group of the previous de- D. 5’, 3’-5’
NARAYAN CHANGDER
oxyribose sugar
D. to the 3’OH group of the previous phos- 521. which of the following contains a ribose
phate group sugar?
A. DNA
516. Which component of DNA specifies the
traits of an organism? B. RNA
C. protein
A. 5-carbon sugar (deoxyribose)
D. codon
B. hydrogen bonds
C. phosphate groups 522. What is the end result of replication?
D. nitrogenous base pairs A. Two new identical strands of DNA
B. One parent strand and one daughter
517. To prevent supercoiling, which enzyme
strand of DNA
would play it role?
C. Two new and different strands of DNA
A. Single-strand protein
B. Primase
D. One new strand of DNA
C. Topoisomerase
523. The separation of the two single strands
D. Polymerase I
of DNA creates a ‘Y’ shape?
518. DNA replication is carried out during cell A. enzyme
cycle by a series of (ending in-ase).
B. unzip
A. enzymes
C. A replication fork
B. molecules
D. none of above
C. pseudocells
524. DNA Replication is the process of turning
D. polymemes 1 DNA molecule into
519. Before DNA polymerase III can begin its A. 1 DNA molecule
job, what must happen? B. 2 DNA molecules
A. DNA polymerase I must create a base C. 3 DNA molecules
for it to start at
D. 4 DNA molecule
B. Primase lays down thymine and cyto-
sine 525. DNA is a polymer made of monomers
C. DNA polymerase III doesn’t need any (building blocks) called:
help A. Amino acid
D. Primase lays down RNA primers B. Ribose

C. Fatty acid 531. Enzyme that catalyse the synthesis of

D. Nucleotides DNA is called

A. Polymerase
526. Which scientists developed the first “pic-
ture” of DNA using X-ray crystallogra- B. Helicase
phy? C. Ligase
A. Watson & Crick D. Gyrase
B. Fred Griffith 532. On the lagging strand, DNA is:
C. Erwing Chargaff A. not copied
D. Rosalind Franklin B. copied continuously
527. If a DNA fragment is made of 20% C. copied backwards in pieces
Thymine, how much Cytosine is there? D. discarded
A. 20% 533. Failure of cell division after DNA
B. 60% replication-
C. 30% A. Mutation
D. 40% B. Proofreading
C. Polyploidy
528. What are bacteriophages
D. none of these
A. Viruses
B. Carbohydrates 534. Which enzyme is needed to start DNA
replication?
C. Protein
A. DNA Polymerase
D. Lysosomes
B. Topoisomerase
529. When the DNA replication process is com- C. Ligase
pleted what is the result?
D. Primase
A. Two exact copies of the original strand
of DNA 535. Known as the gluer, this enzyme glues
B. Two different strands of DNA DNA fragments together during the lag-
ging stage.
C. Strands that complement each other
A. ligase
D. Two new organisms
B. primase
530. Thymine makes up 42% of the nu- C. DNA polymerase
cleotides in a sample of DNA from an or-
D. helicase
ganism. Approximately what percentage
of the nucleotides in this sample will be 536. Match he nucleotide with its complemen-
cytosine? tary nucleotide. (DNA to DNA).Adenine-
A. 42% A. Thymine
B. 31% B. Guanine
C. 16% C. Cytosine
D. 8% D. none of above

537. What part of a nucleotide accounts for C. Replication Forks

the genetic variation between individu- D. replication Bubbles
als?
A. phosphate 543. What does semi-conservative replication
mean?
B. nitrogenous base
A. each molecule of DNA is made of one
C. deoxyribose new and one old strand of DNA
D. sugar B. that half of the old DNA molecule is not
NARAYAN CHANGDER
538. Protein synthesis takes place in two usable to make new proteins
parts: C. that DNA replication uses a lot of en-
A. Transcription then translation ergy
B. Replication then transcription D. half of the DNA does not have a func-
tion
C. Translation then transcription
D. Replication then translation 544. The synthesise of DNA by DNA poly-
merase occurs in
539. DNA replication is
A. 3’ to 5’ direction
A. conservative
B. 5’ to 5’ direction
B. Non-conservative
C. 5’ to 3’ direction
C. semi-conservative
D. 3’ to 3’ direction
D. none
545. A DNA strand has the following bases:A
540. When synthesizing a new DNA strand, A G C C A. What are the bases on its com-
DNA polymerase writes plementary strand?
A. 5’ to 3’ A. A A G C C A
B. 3’ to 5’ B. A C C G A A
C. 3’ to 5’ or 5’ to 3’ C. T T C G G T
D. none of above D. C C A T T C
541. Which of these enzymes is responsible 546. Why does DNA stay in the nueclus?
for breaking the hydrogen bonds which
“unzips” the DNA molecule? A. To protect it from becoming damaged.
A. Topoisomerase
B. It is lazy.
B. Primase
C. It is grounded.
C. Helicase
D. It cannot move.
D. zippase
547. Which of the following statements is/are
542. An enzyme called breaks the hydro- correct for DNA replication?I. It oc-
gen bonds and unzips the original parent curs during interphase.II. It is semi-
DNA molecule. conservative.III. It is a stage in protein
A. DNA helicase synthesis.
B. DNA Polymerase A. I only

B. II only 553. Which of the following is not a base

C. I and II only found in DNA?

D. I, II and III A. adenine
548. The enzyme that comes first temporarily B. thymine

gets the single strand ready to add new C. cytosine
nucleotides is called
D. uracil
A. Helicase
B. Primase 554. What does the growth solution (second
C. Polymerase solution the bacteria was placed in) con-
tain?
D. Nuclease
A. 15N
549. Fragments of DNA are bonded together
B. 14N
by the enzyme , making the new DNA
complete. C. CsCl
A. DNA Polymerase D. none of above
B. Ligase
555. The direction of DNA synthesis:
C. Helicase
D. Telocase A. 5’ to 3’
B. 3’ to 5’
550. Each new strand of DNA is produced by
using the original strand as a C. Depends on which strand is being repli-
A. template cated
B. source of bases D. One Direction

C. polymerase
556. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair
D. none of above with this partial strand? CAT TCA CTG
551. Which enzyme “glues” Okazaki frag- A. GUA AGU GAC
ments together?
B. TAC ACT GTC
A. DNA polymerase
C. GTA AGT GAC
B. Ligase
D. CAT TCA CTG
C. Helicase
D. Primase 557. A template strand of DNA is 3’TAG-
GCATTGCA 5’What is the complementary
552. Which of the following enzymes glues DNA strand that is created from this tem-
together the fragments on the lagging plate during replication?
strand?
A. 5’ TGCAATGCCTA 3’
A. Helicase
B. Primase B. 5’ TAGGCATTGCA 3’
C. DNA Polymerase C. 5’ AUCCGUAACGU 3’
D. Ligase D. 5’ATCCGTAACGT 3’

7.4 DNA Makes RNA Makes Protein 1056
558. The short primer sequence is synthesised B. DNA polymerase requires an open 5’
by .. end
A. Helicase C. DNA polymerase requires ATP
B. Topoisomerase D. DNA polymerase requires a promoter
C. DNA polymerase
560. Most of mistakes during DNA replication
D. Primase are corrected by
559. Which of the following explains why DNA A. DNA ligase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
polymerase requires primase for synthesis
B. DNA polymerase
of a new strand?
A. DNA polymerase requires an open 3’ C. gyrase
end D. helicase
7.4 DNA Makes RNA Makes Protein

1. The main function (job) of tRNA is to B. RNA has uracil that pairs with adenine;
A. carry a message that, when translated, DNA has thymine that pairs with adenine.
forms proteins
B. form a portion of ribosomes C. The sugar in DNA is ribose; the sugar
in RNA is deoxyribose.
C. string together complementary RNA
and DNA strands D. There are no differences.
D. bring amino acids from the cytoplasm 5. What type of RNA brings the genetic code
to the ribosomes from the nucleus to other parts of a cell?
2. is a type of RNA that carries each A. RNA polymerase
amino acid to a ribosome during protein
B. rRNA
synthesis
C. mRNA
A. tRNA
B. RNA D. tRNA
C. rRNA 6. The energy molecule in cellular respiration

D. mRNA is called
A. ATP
3. Translation takes place
B. ADP
A. cytoplasm at ribosomes
B. nucleus C. DNA
C. golgi body D. glucose

D. outside the cell 7. A is a sequence of three nucleotides
that specify an amino acid to be added to
4. What is one difference between DNA and
a polypeptide.
RNA?
A. DNA is a single strand; RNA is a double A. valine
strand. B. nucleotide

C. anticodon 13. A codon is found on which molecule?

D. codon A. mRNA

B. tRNA
8. what is it called when chromatin wraps
C. rRNA
around histones?
D. DNA
A. nucleosome
14. What are the three main types of RNA?
B. histone
A. Messenger RNA, Ribosomal RNA, and
C. dna Transfer DNA
D. chromatin B. Adenine, Thymine, and Cystonine
C. Amino Acid, Uracil, and Ribosome
9. Which of the following are found in BOTH
D. RNA, DNA, and Polymearse
DNA and RNA?
A. ribose 15. The original strand of DNA is. (TAC GGT
ACA TAA)What will be the complementary
B. deoxyribose mRNA strand that goes with it.
C. thymine A. AUG GGT UGU UAA
D. phosphate group B. TAC GGT TGA ATT
C. AUG CCA UGU AUU
10. What is the second step in protein synthe-
D. none of above
sis?
16. The molecule that transports the amino
A. Translation
acid to the ribosome is called the
B. Transcription A. DNA
C. Synthesis B. mRNA
D. Metaphase C. tRNA
D. rRNA
11. The process of transcription results in the
formation of 17. Which scientist produced X ray patterns
that showed the fibers of DNA to be
A. DNA
twisted?
B. Proteins A. Watson
C. lipids B. Crick
D. RNA C. Franklin
D. Wilkins
12. These building blocks consist of a sugar,
phosphate, and nitrogen base. 18. The process of ribosomes reading mRNA to
make a protein is known as
A. Ribose
A. Replication
B. Nucleotide B. Transcription
C. Gene C. Translation
D. Protein D. Magic

19. I am made up of nucleotides. 25. Most mutations are

A. DNA A. Beneficial
B. RNA B. Harmful
C. both C. Neutral
20. Which type of RNA is produced during tran- 26. The “bottom loop” of transfer RNA.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
scription? A. The codon
A. mRNA B. The promotor
B. tRNA C. The anticodon
C. rRNA D. none of above
D. DNA
27. Which is the correct sequence of the “cen-
21. Where does protein synthesis takes tral dogma of genetics?”
place? A. protein to DNA to RNA
A. vacuole B. RNA to DNA to protein
B. ribosome C. RNA to protein to DNA
C. chloroplast D. DNA to RNA to protein
D. mitochondria
28. How many letters or nitrogen bases make
22. Which of the following can replicate it- a codon in RNA?
self? A. 1
A. rRNA B. 2
B. mRNA C. 3
C. tRNA D. 6
D. DNA
29. In eukaryotes, DNA
23. A human usually has what amount of indi- A. is located in the ribosomes.
vidual chromosomes.
B. is located in the nucleus.
A. 6
C. is circular.
B. 22
D. floats freely in the cytoplasm.
C. 4
D. 46 30. What would be the complementary DNA
strand for the following nucleotide se-
24. Translation takes place in the quence?TCG ATA CGA
A. ribosome A. AGC ATA GCT
B. chloroplast B. AGC TAT GCT
C. nucleus C. AGC UAU GCU
D. mitochondria D. UGC TUT GCT

31. Which type of mutation is expressed in the B. 2 daughter cells, each with 40 chromo-
following:AUG ACG UGG → AUG CGU GG somes

A. Deletion C. 4 daughter cells, each with 40 chromo-
B. Insertion somes
C. Duplication D. 2 daughter cells, each with 10 chromo-

somes
D. Substitution
37. Proteins are created when
32. Which is the correct mRNA molecule that
A. When a string of amino acids fold into
would be transcribed from this DNA tem-
a specific, complex 3-dimensional struc-
plate:TAGCCA
ture
A. ATCGGT
B. A string of amino acids bond with a nu-
B. AUCGGU cleotide
C. UCCGUU C. tRNA matches an amino acid to it’s
D. ACCGUU codon
D. When monosaccharides bond to make
33. Three mRNA bases that are read together
polysaccharides.
are known as what?
A. Codon 38. What gas is given off by a plant as a
byproduct during photosynthesis?
B. Anticodon
A. carbon dioxide
C. Triplet
B. nitrogen
D. Amino acid
C. hydrogen
34. When a cell goes through Mitosis, the DNA D. oxygen
makes an copy of itself.
A. similar 39. What enzyme builds RNA using DNA as a
template?
B. different
A. RNA polymerase
C. identical
B. DNA polymerase
D. none of above
C. Ribosomes
35. What is the correct codon for the DNA D. Helicase
strand:CGA
A. CGA 40. Brings the amino acids to the ribosome
B. CGT A. mRNA
C. GCU B. tRNA
D. CGU C. rRNA
D. DNA
36. A cell with 40 chromosomes undergoes mi-
tosis. The result would be: 41. For proteins to be made, DNA must be
A. 2 daughter cells, each with 20 chromo- copied into
somes A. Chromosomes

B. Chromatin 47. Why do some gene mutations have no ef-

C. RNA fect?
D. cytoplasm A. Some nucleotide sequences are unim-

portant.
42. What is assembled during transcription? B. They are never passed on to the off-
A. transfer RNA spring.
B. messenger RNA C. More than one nucleotide sequence
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. DNA replication may code for the same amino acid.
D. court proceedings D. They only affect males.
43. Which of the following is NOT a gene mu- 48. What is the name for the copy of DNA
tation? formed in the nucleus?
A. deletion A. tRNA
B. insertion B. rRNA
C. substitution C. mRNA
D. inversion D. uRNA
44. Transcribe the sequence of DNAATTCA- 49. What strand of mRNA would be produced
GAGG from the strand of DNA shown below?GCT
AAG
A. ATTCAGAGG
A. GCA UUG
B. TAAGACTCC
B. CGA UUC
C. UAAGUCUCC
C. CGA TTC
D. UACGAUCGG
D. GCT AAG
45. What is the name given to the spiral struc-
ture including complimentary nucleotide 50. What are proteins composed of?
strands making DNA? A. DNA
A. RNA B. A Single Helix
B. nucleotide C. Amino Acids
C. double helix D. RNA
D. hydrogen bond 51. The circular DNA found in bacteria
46. In order to digest milk, the human body A. Plaster
must manufacture a protein called lactase. B. Plasmids
When the digestive system requires lac-
tase, it manufactures the protein based on C. Chromatin
information stored in what molecule? D. Chromatids
A. DNA 52. What will be the resulting mRNA from this
B. ATP DNA sequence:GAT-TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT?
C. CO2 A. CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA
D. H2O B. GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT

C. CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA C. RIBOSME
D. CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG D. RIBOSE

53. What is the transcribed mRNA strand for 59. With respect to normal base pairing, when
CATTAA a molecule of DNA replicates, thymine will
A. GUAAUU most likely pair with
B. GTAATT A. adenine
C. AUGGUU B. cytosine
D. CATTAA C. guanine
54. A polypeptide is made up of D. uracil
A. Amino acids 60. Contains the bases adenine, thymine, gua-

B. Enzymes nine and cytosine
C. All of the above A. DNA
D. none of above B. RNA
C. Both
55. DNA is copied during a process called
D. none of above
A. translation
B. transcription 61. With the help of RNA, which organic
C. replication molecule does DNA encode?
D. transformation A. With the help of RNA, which organic

molecule does DNA encode?
56. Select the correct statement. B. lipids
A. Your DNA is the exact same as your sib-
C. nucleic acids
lings.
D. proteins
B. Your DNA is the exact same as your
mom. 62. A base pair substitution is the:
C. Your DNA is unique to you. A. addition or deletion of a nitrogen base.
D. You DNA is the exact same as your dad.
57. What does each gene have instructions for B. replacement of one nitrogen base with
making? another.
A. a cell C. none of the above.

B. a ribosome D. none of above
C. a protein 63. Genes contain instructions for assembling
D. RNA
A. Nucleosomes
58. THE ORGANELLES WHERE PROTEINS ARE
ASSEMBLED B. Proteins
A. NUCLEUS C. Purines
B. GOLGI BODY D. Pyrimidines

64. The definition of gene is 70. Which two processes are involved in pro-
A. DNA that codes for an amino acid tein synthesis?
A. Replication and Transcription
B. Chromosomes that code for a trait
B. Replication and Translation
C. DNA that codes for a nucleotide
C. Transcription and Translation
D. DNA that codes for a protein
D. none of above
65. Which nucleic acid carries amino acids to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the ribosome during protein synthesis? 71. Where is a cap placed on the pre-mRNA?
A. DNA A. 5’
B. rRNA B. 3’
C. tRNA C. both ends
D. mRNA D. it’s not put on the pre-mRNA
66. Which pair of nucleotides are held together 72. Transcription starts with and results in
by hydrogen bonds?
A. A and U A. DNA / mRNA
B. A and G B. mRNA / DNA

C. mRNA / tRNA
C. G and C
D. mRNA / Amino Acid Chain
D. U and G
73. Which molecules make up a DNA nu-
67. Which of the following is true of RNA?
cleotide?
A. contains ribose
A. ribose, uracil, and phosphate
B. contains thymine B. ribose, thymine, and phosphate
C. is double stranded C. deoxyribose, uracil, and phosphate
D. only found in the nucleus D. deoxyribose, thymine, and phosphate
68. Which nucleotide is complementary to ade- 74. Which cell structure is where proteins are
nine? assembled?
A. adenine A. Nucleus
B. thymine B. Cell membrane
C. cytosine C. Ribosome
D. guanine D. none of above
69. What is way to describe a protein? 75. Which enzyme unzips DNA?
A. a chain of amino acids A. Helicase
B. polypeptide B. Polymerase
C. codon C. Ligase
D. anticodon D. Single Strand Binding Proteins

76. Which type of mutation is likely to cause A. amino acids

the most damage to a protein? B. nucleotides

A. Point
C. fatty acids
B. Substitution
D. polysaccharides
C. Silent
82. Mutations within the DNA sequence of an
D. Frameshift
organism can-
77. What combines together to make a pro- A. result in alterations that are harmful to
tein? an organism.
A. Amino Acid B. result in alterations that do not affect
B. RNA the organism.
C. Ribosome C. result in alterations that are helpful to
D. DNA an organism.
D. all of the above
78. Why are insertion and deletion mutations
usually more serious than substitutions? 83. What type of RNA acts like a delivery
A. They change every codon after the mu- truck, delivers amino acids to the ribosome
tation. for protein synthesis, and then leaves
empty again, to go collect another amino
B. They can be passed on to offspring. acid?
C. They always cause some form of can- A. transfer RNA
cer.
B. messenger RNA
D. The mutation only occurs at one point
in the DNA. C. ribosomal RNA
D. mitochondrial RNA
79. Which factor can affect the epigenome?
A. nutrition 84. TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence:TACGTTACT
B. exercise
C. stress A. AUGCAAUGA
D. all of these factors can affect the B. ATGCAATGA

epigenome C. AUGGATUGA
80. Sequence of 3 consecutive nucleotides that D. TACGTTACT
code for one amino acid
85. a Y-shaped point that results when the
A. Anti-codon two strands of a DNA double helix sepa-
B. Protein rate so that the DNA molecule can be repli-
cated
C. Codon
A. helicase
D. none of above
B. replication fork
81. Which of the following monomers are re-
peatedly joined together to form a strand C. cytosine
of DNA? D. nucleotide

86. A is a change in the genetic material of C. amino acids

a cell
D. fatty acids
A. transformation
B. mutation 92. Which shows the correct complementary
DNA strand of ATG?
C. alteration
A. ATG
D. point mutation
B. TAC
NARAYAN CHANGDER
87. Type of point mutation that has no change
on the protein being made. C. TAG
A. Nonsense Mutation D. CGC

B. Missense 93. What RNA molecule transports amino
C. Silent Mutation acids to a ribosome to build a polypeptide
D. none of above chain (protein)?
A. messenger RNA (mRNA)
88. Which does not carry out its function in the
ribosomes? B. transfer RNA (tRNA)
A. mRNA C. small interfering RNA (siRNA)
B. tRNA D. ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
C. rRNA
94. The process by which the DNA is copied in
D. DNA the S phase of mitosis is
89. How many amino acids would be linked to- A. Transcription
gether based on the DNA sequence ACG-
B. Translation
TAGCGGATT?
A. 1 C. Mitosis
B. 2 D. Replication
C. 3 95. There are types of amino acids

D. 4 A. 4
90. Which of the following is NOT associated B. 5
with Okazaki fragments?
C. 20
A. RNA polymerase
D. 64
B. DNA ligase
C. primase 96. Three special sequences of mRNA; UGA,
UAG, UAA.
D. DNA polymerase
A. Start Codons
91. Which of the following are monomers of
nucleic acids? B. Stop Codons
A. monosaccharides C. Promoter Regions
B. nucleotides D. none of above

97. What is the best summary of transcrip- 103. Which of the following is the start
tion? codon?

A. DNA→mRNA A. UAG
B. DNA→Protein B. AUG
C. mRNA→Protein
C. ATC
D. Protein→mRNA
D. AUC
98. In DNA which is a correct base pairing?
104. Which of the following nitrogen bases is
A. A with G
NOT present in RNA?
B. G with T
A. adenine
C. A with U
B. thymine
D. A with T
C. cytosine
99. A plasmid containing foreign DNA
D. guanine
A. recombinant DNA
B. a vector (cloning vector) 105. Additions and Deletions lead to what
C. both answers are correct type of mutation?
D. none of above A. Frameshift Mutation
100. Which is not one of the three types of B. Missense Mutation

RNA? C. Silent Mutation
A. mRNA (messenger) D. none of above
B. rRNA (ribosomal)
106. What is the mRNA strand that would be
C. tRNA (transfer)
created from this DNA strand?T A C A G G
D. nRNA (nitrogen) CCT
101. Human body cells each have 46 chromo- A. A C G T C C G G A
somes in their nuclei. Meiosis is necessary
B. A U G U C C G G A
in order to ensure that each gamete pro-
duced in the human body has- C. T U G G G C C A T
A. 12 chromosome D. U T G U C C G G U
B. 23 chromosomes
107. Which is a step in the process of produc-
C. 46 chromosomes ing transgenic bacteria?
D. 92 chromosomes
A. A plasmid is used to replace a faulty
102. Where does the mRNA go when it leaves gene in a human cell.
the nucleus? B. A human gene is inserted into a bacte-
A. Mitochondria rial plasmid.
B. Cytoplasm C. A chain of bacterial amino acids is in-
C. Golgi apparatus serted into human DNA.
D. Cell membrane D. none of above

108. Chromosomes split apart and chromatids C. None of the above

are pulled to opposite poles. D. Both A and B
A. metaphase
114. Which type(s) of RNA are involved in
B. anaphase translation?
C. prophase A. Transfer RNA (tRNA)
D. telophase B. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
109. During transcription, this type of ribonu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
cleic acid is responsible for copying the D. all RNA listed
DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.
A. tRNA 115. What does cytosine pair with in DNA?
B. mRNA A. adenine
C. rRNA B. uracil
D. dRNA C. thymine
D. guanine
110. What is the name given to the first step
of protein synthesis? 116. Why do we need proteins?
A. transcription A. To taste good
B. translation B. Everything is made of or by them
C. translocation C. Do digest our food
D. protein synthesis D. to make pizza
111. The genetic code has an “alphabet” that 117. Which enzyme adds nucleotides to the
codes for newly formed DNA strand?
A. 16 anti codons A. DNA helicase
B. 16 codons B. DNA ligase
C. 20 amino acids C. DNA polymerase
D. 64 amino acids D. DNA primase
112. Which type of molecule contains an an- 118. E. coli genomic DNA differs from a eu-
ticodon and carries an amino acid to the karyotic chromosome in that E. coli DNA
ribosome?
A. has a single centromere
A. DNA
B. has telomeres
B. mRNA
C. is circular
C. tRNA
D. does not undergo supercoiling
D. rRNA
119. Point mutations are changes in just one
113. What is true about inbreeding? base pair of a gene. How many types of
A. maintain desired characteristics point mutations are there?
B. a possible genetic disorder could oc- A. There aren’t different types of point
cur mutations.

B. 2 125. In which process is the genetic code of a

C. 3 DNA molecule is transferred to a messen-
ger RNA molecule?

D. 4+
A. DNA Replication
120. The backbone of DNA molecule is made
of: B. Translation
A. A-T-C-G C. Transcription
B. mRNA
D. Photosynthesis
C. sugar and phosphate
D. ribose sugar 126. The mRNA codon for methionin is
121. Identify the complimentary strand of A. TAC

DNA for this piece of DNA here. (Both DNA
B. UAC
no RNA)ATCCCTGCATTTAACG
A. TAGGCATTCCGGATGC C. ATG
B. TAGGGACGTAAATTGC D. AUG
C. TAGGGAGCATTTAACG
127. A mutation is a in the nucleotide base
D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
sequence of a gene.
122. In the strand of DNA below how many
A. wrinkle
codons will be coded for. How many
bases make up a codon from a piece of B. change
DNA.ATCGCTACTATACGGGCC
C. bump
A. 5
D. tumor
B. 6
C. 0 128. A form of RNA that makes up part of the
D. 7 structure of a ribosome & assists in trans-
lation.
123. What is the process in which protein syn-
thesis happens? A. tRNA
A. DNA→RNA→ Proteins B. mRNA
B. DNA→Proteins→RNA
C. rRNA
C. Protein→DNA→RNA
D. Protein Synthesis→ Transcription→Translation
124. This is a DNA strand. Which is the mRNA 129. The “central dogma” states that genetic
strand that would be made through tran- information flows from
scription?
A. Protein→mRNA→DNA
A. AUGCUU
B. Protein→DNA→mRNA
B. GCATCC
C. AGTCTT C. mRNA→DNA→Protein
D. GCAUCC D. DNA→mRNA→Protein

130. If a DNA strand reads ATT CGT CTA, what B. 5 amino acids
would the complementary mRNA strand C. 7 amino acids
read?
D. 9 amino acids
A. TAA GCA GAT
B. CGA TGA GUT 136. Which is one reason scientists produce
transgenic organisms?
C. UAA GCA GAU
A. to create new habitats for endangered
D. TAA GCA GUT species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
131. Which compound is not part of the DNA B. to control microorganisms in the soil
nucleotide? C. to prevent habitats from being de-
A. adenine stroyed
B. ribose D. to treat certain types of diseases
C. thymine 137. Which is the correct sequence for Molec-
D. deoxyribose ular Biology Dogma?
A. protein → trait → DNA → mRNA
132. How does DNA help to form proteins?
B. DNA → protein → mRNA → trait
A. It creates proteins using nucleotides.
C. DNA → mRNA → protein → trait
B. It forms the bonds between amino
acids. D. none of above
C. It creates reactants for proteins to be 138. What do we call it when one or more of
made. the DNA bases are different, which could
D. It gives instructions for the amino acid cause traits to be different?
sequence. A. replication
133. Within the eukaryotic cell, where does B. transcription
transcription occur? C. translation
A. Nucleus D. mutation
B. Cytoplasm
139. What are the subunits that are strung to-
C. Ribosome gether to make proteins?
D. none of above A. monosaccharides
134. Which molecule brings the amino acid to B. nucleotides
the ribosome? C. amino acids
A. DNA D. fatty acids
B. mRNA 140. A mutation where a base is added is
C. tRNA called a
D. rRNA A. deletion
135. nucleotides will provide how many B. insertion

codons? C. translocation
A. 3 amino acids D. substitution

141. How is do RNA and DNA differ? 146. Which type of RNA contains the codons
and is translated into proteins?
A. DNA contains adenine, RNA contains

thymine A. mRNA
B. DNA contains a sugar and RNA does B. tRNA
not C. aminoacyl-tRNA
C. DNA is double stranded, RNA is single D. rRNA
stranded
147. How many combination of A, C, G and U
D. DNA is found in the cytoplasm, RNA is exist
only in the nucleus
A. 12
142. Which of the following accurately de- B. 43
scribes a pyrimidine?
C. 64
A. It has two rings like cytosine
D. 81
B. It has two rings like adenine
148. Which of these people was an American
C. It has one ring like thymine scientist who discovered that certain nitro-
D. It has one ring like guanine gen bases are always equal in any sample
of DNA?
143. Every three bases on a strand of mRNA
is a that codes for
B. Erwin Chargaff
A. Codon / mitochondria
C. James Watson
B. anti codon / chloroplast
D. Maurice Wilkins
C. codon / anticodon
149. An enzyme that regulates RNA synthesis
D. none of above
A. RNA
144. A nucleotide is the monomer of nucleic B. Semiconservative replication
acids. It is made up of three parts:a phos-
phate, a 5-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous C. RNA polymerase
base. According to thebase pair rule for D. Ribosomal RNA
DNA, Adenine pairs with:
150. What is the monomer of a protein?
A. Thymine
A. nucleotide
B. Guanine
B. amino acid
C. Cytosine
C. monosaccharide
D. none of above
D. glycerol
145. The nucleotide Cytosine pairs with 151. mRNA stands for
A. Adenine A. my RNA
B. Guanine B. messenger RNA
C. Thymine C. mitosis RNA
D. Cytosine D. mutated RNA

152. Which is an example of a transgenic ani- 157. The process of making mRNA (messenger
mal? RNA) from DNA is called
A. Dog A. Replication
B. Lion B. Transcription
C. Mouse that carries a florescent green C. Translation
protein D. Protein synthesis
D. Cat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
158. The genetic material of an organism is
composed of
153. What type of mutation results when a
single nucleotide is exchanged for a differ- A. lipids
ent nucleotide? B. proteins
A. deletion C. deoxyribonucleic acids
B. addition D. complex carbohydrates
C. substitution 159. Which of the following is not true about
D. translocation protein synthesis?
A. Translation produces a polypeptide
154. Which of the following is not a type of from mRNA
RNA?
B. Transcription is the production of
A. Messenger RNA mRNA from DNA
B. Polymerase RNA C. Translation occurs before transcrip-
tion
C. Transfer RNA
D. tRNAs read the mRNA and assemble
D. Ribosomal RNA
the amino acids
155. Ultraviolet rays from the sun can cause 160. Mutations are good.
mutations that may ultimately lead to
which of the following? A. True
B. False
A. skin cancer
C. Absolutely not
B. sickle cell
D. Could be
C. hemophilia
161. What type of bond holds the 2 strands of
D. Down Syndrome
DNA together to form the double helix?
156. What kind of mutation would have the A. Hydrogen
greatest effect on the protein? B. Peptide
A. Missense-1 amino is changed C. Carbon
B. Silent-no amino acids are changed D. Covalent
C. Frameshift-all amino acids after the
162. CARRIES INSTRUCTIONS FOR MAKING
mutation are changed
PROTEINS FROM THE NUCLEUS TO A RI-
D. none of above BOSOME

A. MESSENGER RNA 168. A DNA nucleotide is made up of a nitro-

B. TRANSFER RNA gen base and a

C. RIBOSOMAL RNA A. ribose sugar and a phosphate
D. CODON B. deoxyribose sugar and a phosphate
163. What is the protein in the “house” anal- C. ribose sugar and a deoxyphosphate
ogy? D. glucose and a phosphate
A. the building site
169. A deadly virus accumulates several mu-
B. copy of the blueprints tations that have made it easier to repro-
C. the finished house duce and survive. These mutations would
be considered
D. the delivery truck
A. Beneficial
164. Transcription occurs where?
B. Harmful
A. ribosomes
C. Neutral
B. the cytoplasm
D. None of these
C. the nucleus
D. the rough ER 170. If you have a codon AUC what is the an-
ticodon that complements it?
165. What enzyme unwinds the double helix
during replication and transcription? A. TAG
A. Helicase B. UAG
B. tRNA C. AUG
C. RNA polymerase D. UAC
D. mRNA
171. If there is 30% cytosine in DNA how
166. A molecule is observed traveling to the much guanine would be in the cell?
ribosome where it undergoes a change by
A. 60% guanine
releasing an attached subunit. Which may
best describe this molecule? B. 70% guanine
A. DNA C. 30% guanine
B. mRNA D. 25% guanine
C. rRNA
172. A single strand of DNA contains 830 ade-
D. tRNA nine, 929 cytosine, 774 guanine and 615
167. How many nitrogen bases (letters) code thyminebases.How many guanine bases
for 3 amino acids? would be in the complementary strand?
A. 3 A. 615
B. 6 B. 774
C. 9 C. 830
D. 27 D. 929

173. What is the term for making an mRNA 179. Which one of these scientists used X-ray
copy of DNA? diffraction to study DNA?
A. Transcription A. James Watson
B. Translation B. Francis Crick
C. Folding C. Rosalind Franklin
D. Coding D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
174. what is the backbone made of? 180. What type of mutation occurs when a
piece of a chromosome is lost during cell
A. deoxyribose
division?
B. phosphate
A. Deletion
C. phosphate and deoxyribose B. Inversion
D. nitrogenous bases C. Addition
175. Where do all cells come from? D. Translocation
A. plant cells 181. Which of the following delivers the cor-
B. old cells rect amino acid to the ribosome for protein
synthesis?
C. new cells
A. tRNA
D. preexisting cells
B. mRNA
176. Which of the following carries the coded
C. rRNA
message from the nucleus to the ribo-
some? D. DNA
A. rRNA 182. During protein synthesis, amino acids in
B. mRNA the cytoplasm are picked up by molecules
of and taken to the ribosome.
C. tRNA
A. tRNA
D. DNA
B. mRNA
177. Permanent change in a cell’s DNA C. mitochondrial DNA
A. Operon D. nuclear DNA
B. Double Helix
183. All of the following statements are true
C. Mutation of a DNA molecule except that it-
D. Nucleosome A. is made up of lipids.
178. Enzymes make reactions go by B. contains nucleotides.
the activation energy of the reaction. C. stores genetic information.
A. faster:lowering D. duplicates itself.
B. slower:lowering 184. Carries the genetic code template out of
C. slower:raising the nucleus
D. faster:raising A. mRNA

B. tRNA 190. What are the four nitrogenous bases of

DNA?
C. rRNA

A. Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, and Glyc-
D. DNA
erol
185. What are the thread-like stained struc- B. Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, and Glu-
tures present in the nucleus known as? cose
A. chromosome C. Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, and Gua-
B. chromatid nine
C. chromatin D. Adenine, Thymine, Cytoplasm, and

Guanine
D. chloroplast
191. Identify the complementary DNA
186. Photosynthesis is the process by which strand:ATTACGAT
A. plant cells create glucose and oxygen A. GAAGTGCA
B. cells use oxygen to produce energy B. TAATGCTA
from food
C. TCTUCAAA
C. cells grow and reproduce
D. CGGCACG
D. cells breakdown food without using en-
ergy 192. What would be the tRNA anticodon for
the mRNA codon CAG?
187. Transfers and brings amino acids to ribo-
A. GTC
somes during protein synthesis
B. GUC
A. messenger RNA (mRNA)
C. CUG
B. ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
D. CAG
C. transfer RNA (tRNA)
D. RNA Polymerase 193. Where does translation (protein synthe-
sis) occur?
188. Made of monomers of nucleotides
A. nucleus
A. Carbohydrates
B. ribosome
B. Lipids
C. chloroplast
C. Proteins
D. mitochondria
D. Nucleic Acids
194. The process by which a nucleus divides
189. DNA codes for which determine into two new identical nuclei is called
A. mRNA, tRNA A. cell division
B. mRNA, ribosomes B. interphase
C. proteins. traits C. meiosis
D. proteins, peptide bonds D. mitosis

195. Genes are found on B. UAG

A. chromosomes C. AUC
B. alleles D. ATC
C. proteins
201. During eukaryotic transcription, an RNA
D. anthers molecule is formed that is
196. What usually occurs due to a frameshift A. complementary to both strands of
DNA.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mutation?
A. A change in the amino acids after the B. identical to an entire strand of DNA.
mutation C. double-stranded and inside the nu-
B. Normally nothing is affected cleus.
C. Only one amino acid in a protein being D. complementary to part of one strand
change of DNA.
D. none of above 202. DNA replication is considered because
it uses the old strands as templates?
197. What does the enzyme telomerase do?
A. RNA
A. Adds extra DNA
B. wasteful
B. Adds proteins
C. semiconservative
C. Adds primers
D. Adds phosphates D. aggressive
198. DNA replication results in 2 new DNA 203. DNA condenses into chromosomes and nu-
molecules: clear membrane dissolves.
A. each with two new strands A. metaphase
B. one with two new strand and one with B. anaphase

the two original strands C. interphase
C. each one with one new and one origi- D. prophase
nal strand
204. Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?
D. each with two original strands
A. Nucleus
199. How many nucleotides are needed to
B. Ribosome
specify three amino acids?
C. Cytoplasm
A. 3
D. Mitochondria
B. 6
C. 9 205. Which of the following would be consid-
ered a mutagen?
D. 12
A. Chemicals
200. If the DNA sequence is ATC, what would
be the anticodon that would carry the cor- B. UV radiation
rect amino acid? C. X-Rays
A. TAG D. All of These

206. Scientists can transform plant cells with- C. Codons pair with the amino acids
out using plamids by D. Codons and DNA polymerase help to
synthesize ribosomes

A. injecting DNA into the plant cells.
B. removing the plant cell walls and then 212. How does DNA code to become a protein
mixing the cells with DNA.
A. DNA-mRNA-tRNA-protein-amino acid
C. Both A and B. B. DNA-tRNA-mRNA-amino acid-protein
D. None of the above. C. DNA-mRNA-tRNA-amino acid-protein
207. The codon is found on D. DNA-amino acid-mRNA-tRNA-protein
A. tRNA 213. Every three letters (example:ATC) in DNA
B. DNA codes for one
C. mRNA A. Amino Acid
D. rRNA B. Nucleotide
C. Fatty acid
208. Which is a use of genetically engineered
bacteria? D. Carbohydrate
A. making human insulin 214. How does DNA determine a trait such as
eye color of an organism?
B. DNA fingerprint for blood left at a
crime scene A. It interacts with proteins that control
eye color.
C. producing corn that is resistant to her-
bicides B. It codes for mRNA that directly deter-
mines eye color.
D. none of above
C. It codes for proteins that directly de-
209. The anti-codon is found on termine eye color.
A. tRNA D. It produces pigments that make up eye
B. DNA color.
C. mRNA 215. During DNA replication, a DNA strand

that has the bases CTAGGT produces a
D. rRNA
strand with the bases
210. Which of these contains the anti-codon? A. AGCTTG.
A. mRNA B. GATCCA.
B. tRNA C. GAUCCA.
C. rRNA D. TCGAAC.
D. Your little sister 216. The DNA present in a chromosome carries
information that determines the structure
211. What is the purpose of the codons in a
and therefore the function of
messenger RNA molecule?
A. Lipids
A. Codons determine the order of the
amino acids a protein B. Bases
B. They help bond the nucleotides to- C. Carbohydrates
gether D. Proteins

217. Who were the first guys to build a model 223. In a portion of a gene, the nitrogenous
of a DNA molecule? base sequence is T-C-G-A-A-T. Which ni-
A. Larry, Moe, and Curley Joe trogenous base sequence would normally
be found bonded to this section of the
B. Watson and Crick gene?
C. Watson and Holmes
A. A-C-G-T-A-A
D. Superman and Batman
B. A-C-G-U-U-A
NARAYAN CHANGDER
218. What would the DNA sequence be for the C. A-G-C-T-T-A
following section of RNA?UGA-UUC
D. U-G-C-A-A-U
A. ACTAAG
B. TCUTTG 224. The inside rungs or steps of the DNA lad-
C. GAAUCU der are made up of?
D. UCCTGA A. Hydrogen Bonds

B. Nitrogen bases
219. What is the process of turning DNA into
mRNA? C. Sugar
A. Central Dogma D. Phosphate
B. Transcription
225. Which part of a DNA molecule represents
C. Translation encoded information?
D. Trapezoid A. phosphate
220. DNA is said to replicate B. sugar
A. dispersively. C. guanine
B. semiconservatively. D. hydrogen bond
C. conservatively.
D. none of these 226. Which best describes the information con-
tained in genes?
221. What is the Central Dogma Order of A. instructions for assembling pyrim-
Molecular Biology or Life? idines
A. RNA-protein-DNA
B. instructions for assembling purines
B. RNA-DNA-protein
C. instructions for assembling proteins
C. DNA-protein-RNA
D. instructions for assembling plasmids
D. DNA-RNA-protein
227. Which of the following would be a nu-
222. What has been an advantage of produc-
cleotide found in DNA
ing transgenic plants?
A. using more pesticides A. Ribose + phosphate + uracil
B. increasing the food supply B. Deoxyribose + phosphate + uracil

C. producing clones C. Deoxyribose + phosphate + adenine
D. studying human genes D. Ribose + phosphate + adenine

228. Which represents the correct order of 234. DNA and RNA have many structural sim-
“the central dogma of molecular biol- ilarities. What do DNA and RNA have in
ogy”? common?

A. protein to DNA to mRNA to trait A. Purine bases (A and G)
B. DNA to mRNA to protein to trait B. Primidine bases (C and T)
C. DNA to protein to mRNA to trait C. Type of sugar
D. trait to DNA to protein to mRNA D. Attached proteins
229. What is another name for a protein? 235. The primary function of ribosomes is to
A. a chain of nucleotides A. Produce DNA from RNA
B. polypeptide B. Produce RNA from proteins
C. codon C. Produce proteins using instruction
from the nucleus
D. anticodon
D. Produce RNA from DNA and Proteins
230. Hox genes determine an animal’s
236. What must happen to the DNA molecule
A. body plan. before mRNA can be created?
B. size. A. DNA must duplicate itself
C. skin color. B. the 2 DNA strands must separate
D. eye color. C. DNA needs to exchange bases with
231. DNA and RNA are which type of macro- RNA
molecule? D. nothing needs to happed to the DNA
A. carbohydrate molecule
B. lipid 237. Transcription takes place here (in a eu-

karyotic cell)
C. nucleic acid
A. Nucleus
D. protein
B. Ribosomes
232. A DNA molecule with the sequence
C. Mitochondria
AGCTCA was used as a template for mak-
ing mRNA. What would be the sequence of D. Vacuole
that mRNA molecule? 238. Unlike DNA, RNA contains
A. TCAGCA A. a phosphate group
B. UCGAGU B. thymine
C. AGCUCA C. guanine
D. ATGACT D. uracil
233. RNA contains what sugar? 239. How many bases are in one codon?
A. ribose A. 1
B. deoxyribose B. 2
C. glucose C. 3
D. lactose D. 4

240. What is the DNA sequence that created 245. Deoxyribose is the sugar present in the
this mRNA strand AUCGCCAU nucleotide
A. UAGCGGUA A. DNA
B. TAGCGGTA B. RNA
C. ATACGGCUA C. Both
D. TAGCGGUA D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
241. During protein synthesis, amino acids in 246. Which of these stores information?
the cytoplasm are picked up by molecules
A. lipids
of
B. carbohydrates
A. tRNA
C. proteins
B. mRNA
C. mitochondrial DNA D. DNA
D. nuclear DNA 247. Which type of RNA takes the amino acids
to the ribosome?
242. In the process of translation, the ribo-
some is the site where- A. tRNA
A. DNA strands are separated and copied. B. mRNA

C. rRNA
B. information from DNA is copied to RNA. D. none of above
248. A nucleotide does NOT contain

C. amino acid chains are assembled from
information in the mRNA. A. a sugar
D. Free floating amino acids are picked B. polymerase
up by tRNA. C. a nitrogen base
243. copies instructions in DNA and carries D. a phosphate group
these to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm
249. The Process of creating RNA from DNA
A. DNA
A. Transcription
B. mRNA
B. Translation
C. tRNA
C. Replication
D. rRNA
D. none of above
244. What would happen if we did not have
start codons? 250. Which of these is when a protein is being
built?
A. Polypeptide chains would continue to
grow A. DNA transcription
B. Amino acids would bind to tRNA B. RNA transcription
C. Protein synthesis wouldn’t occur C. RNA translation
D. mRNA would form a double strand D. DNA translation

251. is found in the cytoplasm of the cell 256. Fermentation is also known as
and has the anti-codon on it which is com- A. anaerobic respiration
plimentary to the codon. This molecule car-

ries or transfers amino acids to the ribo- B. aerobic respiration
some to be put together in a specific order C. photosynthesis
to make a protein
D. lactic acid
A. mRNA
257. What are the primary components of a
B. tRNA nucleotide?
C. DNA A. base, phosphate, and sugar
D. Nucleotide B. acid, base, and phosphate
252. The central dogma states that informa- C. base, oxygen, and phosphate
tion flows from D. acid, chlorine, and hydrogen
A. RNA to DNA to polysaccharide
258. During replication, what would be the
B. DNA to RNA to proteins complimentary strand to CCTAGCT?
C. RNA to DNA to proteins A. TTGCATG.
D. DNA to polysaccharides to RNA B. AAGTATC.
253. What do proteins do? C. CCTAGCT.

D. GGATCGA.
A. Help with structure and function of tis-
sues and organs 259. How many nucleotides are needed to
B. Destroy the structure and function of make 2 amino acids?
tissues and organs A. 3
C. Play 2k for 5 hours straight B. 6
D. Nothing C. 9
254. Carries copies of DNA’s genetic material D. 12

from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
260. How many amino acids are coded for by
A. messenger RNA (mRNA) the strand of mRNA shown:CGAUAC
B. Protein A. 1
C. Ribosome B. 2
D. 4
255. What is the process called of turning RNA
to proteins? 261. DNA sequencing is a technique used to
A. Central Dogma Order A. Identify the bases if tRNA
B. Transcription B. Identify the bases of the mRNA
C. Translation C. Identify the bases of RNA
D. Replication D. Identify the order of DNA bases

262. The process by which the information car- 267. is the process of copying information
ried in genes is used to make proteins or from DNA onto mRNA that will later be
direct other cell activities. used to make a protein.
A. protein synthesis A. Translation
B. translation B. Transcription
C. transcription C. Protein Synthesis
D. gene expression D. Replication
NARAYAN CHANGDER
268. The backbone (sides) of the DNA and RNA
263. Which molecule makes up the ribosome?
molecules are made of alternating
A. DNA A. nitrogen bases and phosphates
B. mRNA B. sugars and nitrogen bases
C. tRNA C. phosphates and sugars
D. rRNA D. nitrogen bases
264. The correct order of molecules involved in 269. Which molecule is created as a result of
protein synthesis is transcription?
A. messenger RNA, transfer RNA, DNA, A. DNA
polypeptide B. mRNA
B. DNA, messenger RNA, polypeptide, C. tRNA
transfer RNA
D. none of above
C. transfer RNA, polypeptide, DNA, mes-
senger RNA, DNA 270. What organelle is the site of protein syn-
thesis?
D. DNA, messenger RNA, transfer RNA,
polypeptide A. Nucleus
B. Ribosome
265. The process of transcribing an mRNA
C. Mitochondria
strand from a DNA template is called
D. Chloroplast
A. Replication
B. Transcription 271. a gene mutation in which a nucleotide is
added:
C. Translation
A. Insertion
D. Protein Synthesis
B. deletion
266. What organelle is the site of transla- C. Inversion
tion? D. substitution
A. Nucleus
272. DNA is called the “blueprint of life” be-
B. Ribosome cause
C. Mitochondria A. it is like a fingerprint.
D. Chloroplast B. it has the color blue.

C. it contains the codes for building an or- C. Proteins

ganism.
D. none of above

D. it can relay messages to other
molecules. 278. What is the name for when the RNA info
is used to produce a protein?
273. “Natural” clones exist outside of a lab
setting. Which of the following is one ex- A. transcription
ample of this phenomenon? B. transcribation
A. Identical twins C. translation
B. Siblings
D. replication
C. Fraternal twins
D. Sexual Reproduction 279. A type of RNA that associates with pro-
teins to form ribosomes.;
274. During transcription, what does messen-
A. Intron
ger RNA do?
B. RNA
A. It delivers DNA’s instructions for mak-
ing proteins. C. Messenger RNA
B. It constructs proteins out of random D. Ribosomal RNA
amino acids.
C. It strings together two complementary 280. X rays, ultraviolet light, and radioactive
DNA strands. substances that can change the chemical
nature of DNA are classified as
D. It strings together two complementary
RNA strands. A. hydrolytic enzymes
B. mutagens
275. What is the process called when DNA is
made into mRNA. C. cyclins
A. translation D. growth regulators
B. transcription
281. Which macromolecule is made up of
C. transcribe amino acids?
D. translate
A. carbohydrate
276. The process where the mRNA code is read B. lipid
and creates a protein is called
C. nucleic acid
A. transcription
D. protein
B. translation
C. interpretation 282. mRNA is made in the process called
D. formation A. mitosis
277. The master blueprint of all life. B. replication

A. DNA C. translation
B. RNA D. transcription

283. Amino acids are bonded together by a 289. What is the correct order to make a pro-
A. hydrogen bond tein?
A. Protein, DNA, RNA
B. peptide bond
B. RNA, DNA, Protein
C. ionic bond
C. DNA, RNA, Protein
D. they are not bonded
D. Protein, RNA, DNA
284. A segment of DNA is called a
290. Which of the following is not part of a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Chromosome nucelotide?
B. Gene A. Fatty Acid Chain
C. Phenotype B. Five-Carbon Sugar
D. Genotype C. Phosphate Group
285. MOLECULES MADE UP OF LONG CHAINS D. Nitrogen Base
OF AMINO ACIDS 291. If the original DNA sequence is:ACC TGA
A. BACTERIA TGT. What mutation happened in this se-
quence:AAC CTG ATG T
B. RIBOSE
A. Deletion
C. PROTEINS
B. Insertion
D. SUGAR
C. Substitution
286. What type of organic molecule is DNA D. None of these
and RNA?
292. Which molecules form the backbone of
A. protein
DNA?
B. carbohydrate
A. Glucose and Phosphate
C. nucleic acid
B. Deoxyribose and Nucleotides
D. lipid C. Deoxyribose and Phosphate
287. The long strandlike structures in the nu- D. Ribose and Nucleotides
cleus that are made of DNA are
293. Which of the following would be a DNA
A. organelles nucleotide?
B. genes A. phosphate, deoxyribose, uracil
C. chromsomes B. phosphate, deoxyribose, thymine
D. popcornosomes C. phosphate, ribose, uracil
288. Base pairs in a DNA strand are held to- D. phosphate, ribose, thymine
gether by what type of bonds? 294. What nitrogen base is only found in RNA
A. covalent A. guanine
B. hydrogen B. uracil
C. ionic C. adenine
D. James D. thymine

295. Which two scientist developed the double 301. What is one section of DNA that carries
helix model of DNA? the information to make one specific pro-
tein called?

A. Watson and Crick
B. Darwin and Wallace A. Gene
B. Chromosome
C. Franklin and McDermitt
C. mRNA
D. Perry and Tyler
D. tRNA
296. A mutation that produced a stop codon
too early is known as a 302. Which of the following is incorrect regard-
ing RNA?
A. Missense mutation
A. RNA contains uracil
B. Nonsense mutation
B. RNA can only be found inside the nu-
C. Frameshift mutation cleus
D. Duplication C. RNA is single stranded
297. Which type of cell passes on mutations? D. RNA contains genetic information
A. skin cell 303. Cellular respiration takes place in
B. red blood cell A. chloroplasts
C. egg cell B. mitochondria
D. liver cell C. the nucleus
298. What subunit makes up DNA? D. endoplasmic reticulum
A. Nitrogen base 304. What is the point on mRNA at which pro-

tein synthesis begins?
B. Amino Acid
A. start codon
C. Proteins
B. fast triplet
D. Nucleotides
C. beginning of the strand
299. The DNA strand is read in what direction D. stop codon
for replication?
A. 5’ → 3’ 305. How do we describe two bases that fit
together like puzzle pieces such as C and
B. 3’ → 5’ G?
C. 5’ → 5’ A. opposite
D. 3’ → 3’ B. complementary
300. DNA carries the instructions for making C. copies
what? D. nucleotides
A. Proteins
306. What stores the code for making an indi-
B. Hydrogen bonds vidual protein?
C. Nitrogen bases A. DNA
D. Double Helix B. a gene

C. a chromosome C. Ribosome
D. transfer RNA D. none of above
307. What molecules do both DNA and RNA
313. Set of 3 nitrogen bases that are com-
contain?
plementary to a codon and are found on
A. uracil tRNA.
B. nucleotides A. peptide bond
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. thymine B. polypeptide
D. deoxyribose
C. anti-codon
308. DNA is copied during a process called D. amino acid
A. replication.
B. translation. 314. What is made during transcription?
C. transcription. A. mRNA
D. transformation B. proteins
309. The job of tRNA is to C. DNA
A. carry amino acids to the ribosomes D. RNA polymerase

B. carry ribosomes to the ER
315. Where in the cell is DNA found in a Eu-
C. carry mRNA out of the nucleus karyotic cell?
D. carry glucose to mitochondria A. cytoplasm
310. is the process of forming a strand of B. nucleus
RNA from a strand of DNA.
C. nucleolus
A. Transcription
D. Golgi Body
B. Translation
C. Protein Synthesis 316. Which is an example of a gene SUBSTITU-
D. Genetic Code TION mutation?
A. TAC → AGG
311. With respect to normal base pairing,
when a molecule of DNA replicates, B. TAC→ AU
thymine will pair with C. TAC → AUUG
A. adenine
D. TAC → AUG
B. cytosine
C. guanine 317. What type of bond join the nitrogen
bases together in DNA?
D. uracil
A. covalent
312. Within the cell, where does translation
occur? B. hydrogen
A. Nucleus C. mutual
B. Cytoplasm D. peptide

318. DNA is located in which organelle of eu- B. Cancer

karyotic cells? C. Surgery

A. nucleus D. Medicine
B. cell wall
324. Which 2 molecules form the sides of the
C. ribosome DNA ladder?
D. vacuole A. deoxyribose and adenine
319. The traits of an organism are passed to B. deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
its offspring on small coded strands of C. sugar and the nucleus
DNA material called D. deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
A. heredity
325. What type of bond holds the bases in
B. genes DNA together?
C. mitosis A. covalent
D. recessive traits B. ionic
320. What is produced during transcription? C. carbon
A. Protein D. hydrogen
B. tRNA 326. If a chemical is applied to a cell that kills
C. mRNA the ribosome, which process would NOT
occur?
D. DNA
A. ATP production
321. sex cell; sperm or egg B. photosynthesis
A. gamete C. transcription
B. somatic cell D. translation
C. autosome
327. Which of the following mutations would
D. fertilization be passed on to offspring?
322. Which of the following is a correct differ- A. change in nitrogenous bases of a
ence between RNA and DNA? sperm or egg cell
A. RNA is single stranded and DNA is dou- B. change in shape of muscle cell
ble stranded C. change in nitrogenous base of a skin
B. RNA is double stranded and DNA is sin- cell
gle stranded D. mutations cannot be passed on to off-
spring
C. DNA uses Uracil and RNA uses
Thymine 328. Pair the relationships.Mitochondria:ATP
D. RNA has deoxyribose and DNA has ri- (energy)
bose A. Chloroplast:Lipids
323. What is a disease in which cells grow and B. Cell Membrane:Molecules
divide uncontrollably? C. Ribosome:Protein
A. Radiation D. ER:Nucleic Acid

329. Which of the following is true about plas- 334. During transcription, the genetic informa-
mids? tion for make in protein is rewritten Which
A. small circular piece of DNA found in hu- molecule is formed during transcription?
mans A. transfer RNA
B. small circular piece of RNA B. ribosomal RNA
C. small circular piece of DNA that is lo- C. messenger RNA
cated in bacteria D. transcriptional RNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. small linear piece of DNA located in 335. How many different nitrogen bases are
plants found in DNA?
330. Translation and protein synthesis is oc- A. 1
curring at the ribosome. If the tRNA an- B. 2
ticodon being matched at the ribosome is
C. 3
AUG, what would be the matching mRNA
codon? D. 4
A. UAC 336. During transcription, the between
B. AGA base pairs are broken.
C. TAC A. phosphate bonds

B. peptide bonds
D. TAG
C. hydrogen bonds
331. What carries genetic information out of D. double bonds
the nucleus?
A. tRNA 337. A DNA nucleotide may contain
A. ribose, uracil, and a polypeptide.
B. rRNA
B. deoxyribose, cytosine, and a lipid.
C. mRNA
C. deoxyribose, thymine, and a phos-
D. dRNA
phate group.
332. A group of 3 bases is known as D. ribose, adenine, and thymine.
A. Anticodon 338. Which nucleotide is complementary to
B. Codon adenine in DNA?
C. Organelle A. adenine
D. A strand B. thymine
C. cytosine
333. A child’s eye color resembles the eye
color of his parents. Which biomolecule D. guanine
is DIRECTLY responsible for the inheritance 339. What cellular process is responsible for
of eye color? the growth of an organism?
A. carbohydrates A. Mitosis
B. DNA B. Respiration
C. proteins C. Osmosis
D. RNA D. Diffusion

340. The genetic code is read three “letters” C. In the Golgi

at a time, so that each “word” is three D. In the nucleolus
bases long and corresponds to a single

amino acid. What is each three-letter 346. Which of the following is in charge of
“word” in mRNA know as? bringing amino acids to ribosomes to make
proteins?
A. an anitcodon
A. mRNA
B. a codon
B. rRNA
C. a decoding band
C. DNA
D. a gene
D. tRNA
341. Which sequence of DNA bases would be
347. Chargraff’s base pairing rules state that
the opposite side of this:ATG TGA CAG
because a pyramidine ( ring) pairs with
A. ATG TGA CAG a purine ( ring), the helix has uniform
B. TAC ACT GTC width. Fill in the blanks.
C. GTA AGT GAC A. single, double
D. CAT TCA CTG B. double, single
C. single, single
342. What is the correct order of protein syn-
thesis? Remember Dr. Pepper! D. double, double
A. RNA DNA protein 348. THE PROCESS OF COPYING A GENE INTO

MESSENGER RNA
B. DNA RNA protein
A. AMINO ACID
C. protein DNA RNA
B. HYDROGEN
D. protein RNA DNA
C. TRANSCRIPTION
343. Which of the following is true? D. TRANSLATION
A. RNA is usually single-stranded.
349. Which molecules are involved in protein
B. DNA is usually single-stranded. synthesis?
C. DNA contains uracil. A. transfer RNA, introns, and mutagens
D. RNA contains thymine. B. messenger RNA, introns, and riboso-
mal RNA
344. In which part of a Eukaryotic cell does
DNA replication occur? C. ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA, and mu-
tagens
A. cytoplasm
D. messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and
B. nucleus transfer RNA
C. ribosome
350. DNA is made up of repeating units
D. vacuole called?
345. Where does the process of translation oc- A. nucleus
cur? B. nucelotomes
A. At the ribosome C. nucleotides
B. In the nucleus D. RNA

351. How many nucleotides are in a codon? 357. The synthesis of an RNA molecule from a
A. 1 DNA template, or pattern is called
B. 2 A. translation
C. 3 B. mutation
C. transcription
D. none of above
D. RNA interference
352. During which cellular process does
358. The process of transferring the codons to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
telophase occur?
the amino acids ends with what codon?
A. translation
A. Stop
B. transcription
B. Terminal
C. mitosis
C. End
D. interphase
D. Cancel
353. Which type of mutation involves substi-
tuting one nitrogen base for another along 359. The importance of mitosis in eukaryotic
a section of DNA? cells is?
A. Frameshift A. Growth and Repair
B. Point B. Formation of sex cells (gametes)

C. Reproduction
C. Addition
D. none of above
D. Deletion
360. In DNA, A pairs
354. What is the relationship between DNA
and chromosomes? A. A
A. Chromosomes are made of DNA B. U
B. DNA is made of chromosomes C. T
C. DNA and chromosomes are the same D. G
thing. 361. Which nitrogen base always pair with
D. All of the above are correct thymine?
355. what does mRNA do? A. uracil

B. adenine
A. carry info from genes to ribosomes
C. cytosine
B. carry amino acids to ribosomes
D. guanine
C. help with RNA splicing
D. make up ribosomes 362. Which stage of interphase is necessary to
ensure that each daughter cell has a copy
356. Anti-codons of DNA?
A. have the same letters as the codons A. growth 1
B. have the opposite letters to codons B. growth 2
C. always contains the base thymine C. synthesis
D. are in DNA only D. cytokinesis

363. Which type of mutation could result in an C. Ribosome

abnormal amino acid sequence? D. Chargaff’s Rules

A. Deletions
369. Which happens during S phase of the cell
B. Insertions cycle so that two daughter cells can be pro-
C. Substitutions duced during M phase?
D. Any mutation could cause an abnormal A. the DNA must be replicated
acid sequence B. the chromosomes must be joined
364. Which of the following is not part of C. the cytoplasm must be separated
RNA? D. the cell membrane must expand
A. Thymine
370. Which are the basic units of a DNA nu-
B. Uracil cleotide?
C. Adenine A. a pair of nitrogen bases
D. Cytosine B. a section of three nitrogen bases
365. The DNA sequence ACTCG produces which C. a single nitrogen base, a sugar, and a
mRNA sequence during transcription? phosphate
A. TGAGC D. a joined pair of nitrogen bases, a
sugar, and a phosphate
B. UGAGC
C. ACTCG 371. If the mRNA strand is AUG CAU, what
anticodons would match up with these?
D. ACUCG
A. TAC GTA
366. When amino acids are bonded together, B. UAC GUA
what kind of molecule do they make?
C. AUG CAU
A. nucleic acid
D. TAC GTT
B. polysaccharide
372. If a DNA sequence consists of 12 nu-
C. lipid
cleotide bases, how many amino acids will
D. polypeptide be translated?
367. Which nitrogen base does RNA have in- A. 12
stead of thymine? B. 4
A. adenine C. 3
B. uracil D. 20
C. guanine
373. What technique did Rosalind Franklin use
D. cytosine to discover that DNA is a double helix?
368. A change in DNA that affects genetic ma- A. X-Ray Crystallography
terial B. Liquid Chromatography
A. Polyploidy C. DNA Composition Analysis
B. Mutation D. Injecting Bacteria into Mice

374. RNA has two main differences when com- 379. What three parts make-up the sub unit
pared to DNA apart from its helix struc- of DNA?
ture is
A. Five Carbon Sugar, Phosphate Group
A. Sugar is ribose and has uracil instead and Nitrogenous Base
of thymine
B. Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine
B. Sugar is ribose and has uracil instead
C. Five Carbon Sugar, Phosphate Group
of adenine
and Hydrogen Bases
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Sugar is deoxyribose and has adinine
D. Adenine, Cytosine and Guanine
instead of thymine
D. none of above 380. Which of the following are needed in ini-
tiation of transcription?
375. The linear DNA found in eukaryotic cells
A. Primase
is called
B. DNA polymerase
A. plasmid
C. TATA box
B. chromatin
D. Helicase
C. chromosomes
D. nucleus 381. What is the name for the noncoding (por-
tion of RNA that is removed) regions of
376. Which group contains the three main the pre-mRNA?
types of RNA that are always used in pro-
A. anticodons
tein synthesis?
B. codons
A. mRNA, miRNA, and rRNA
C. exons
B. mRNA, miRNA, and tRNA
D. introns
C. mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA
D. mRNA, tRNA, and RNAi 382. What are the three pieces of a nu-
cleotide?
377. Unlike DNA, RNA contains
A. phosphate, sugar, nitrogenous base
A. thymine.
B. phosphade, sugar, nitrogenous base
B. phosphates.
C. phosphate, sugar, hydrogen base
C. uracil.
D. none of above
D. adenine.
383. Set of techniques used to obtain identi-
378. How many nucleotide bases are needed cal copies of an adult organism from its
to code for 5 amino acids? somatic cells.
A. 5 A. Cloning
B. 10 B. DNA sequencing
C. 15 C. PCR

384. Which mutation in DNA affects only one 389. Transcription and translation of a gene
nucleotide in a sequence? composed of 30 nucleotides would form a
protein containing no more than amino

A. inversion
acids.
B. frameshift
A. 15
C. addition
B. 25
D. substituion C. 10
385. A strand of DNA reads ACTGGA. The RNA D. I’ll take the L cuz I don’t know
strand that would be copied from it would
390. What type of bond holds nitrogen base
read
pairs come together?
A. ACTGGA
A. Sulphur bonds
B. TGACCT B. Ionic bonds
C. UGACCU C. Hydrogen bonds
D. UAGCCT D. Covalent bonds
386. Semiconservative DNA replication results 391. What portion of a DNA molecule indicates
in two DNA molecules, a gene (code for making a protein)?
A. each one with two original strands A. the sequence of sugars
B. each one with two new strands B. the sequence of nitrogen bases
C. each one with one new strand and one C. the sequence of phosphates
original strand D. the sequence of hydrogen bonds
D. one with two new strands and the 392. Which of the following process turns
other with two original strands mRNA into an amino acid sequence?
387. A group of 3 consecutive nitrogenous A. Cellular Respiration
bases that either code for a specific amino B. Replication
acid or marks the end of a protein is called
C. Transcription
A. gene expression
D. Translation
B. codon
393. What is the correct DNA complementary
C. protein synthesis base to AAT CGT TAC
D. an anticodon A. AAT GCA TAC
388. Which of the following best describes B. TTA CGT ATG

how DNA and RNA are similar? C. TTA GCA ATG
A. they both contain A and T D. UUA GCA AUG
B. They both have a double helix 394. The purpose of replication is to
C. They are both composed of 5 different A. create two identical DNA molecules
nucleotides
B. split the DNA strand, like a zipper un-
D. they both have C and G zipping

C. make mRNA 400. What are the four bases found in DNA?
D. create amino acids for building pro- A. Adenine, Thymine, Guanine and Cyto-
teins sine
395. Which phrase best describes transla- B. Uracil, Thymine, Adenine and Guanine
tion?
A. converts mRNA into amino acid C. Guanine, Phosphate, Adenine,
chain(protein) Thymine
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. catalyzes bonds between amino acids D. Adenine, Uracil, Guanine and Cytosine
C. produces RNA from DNA molecules
401. A codon typically carries sufficient infor-
D. recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
mation to specify a(an)
396. A change in the nucleotide sequence of a A. single base pair in RNA
strand of DNA is best defined as which of
the following? B. single Amino Acid
A. photosynthesis C. entire protein
B. mutation D. single base pair in DNA
C. osmosis
402. Transcribe the following DNA
D. respiration strand:TACGAA
397. What type of gene mutation has occurred A. AUGCUU
here?T-G-A|C-C-A-C-C |A
B. ATGCTT
A. Substitution
C. GCATCC
B. Frameshift-Deletion
C. Frameshift-Insertion D. GCAUCC
D. none of above 403. From which molecules are mRNA

molecules transcribed?
398. What are the amino acids for this DNA
strand?TAG CCA GCA A. tRNA
A. isoleucine, proline, alanine B. rRNA
B. lysine, proline, arginine C. DNA
C. isoleucine, glycine, arginine
D. proteins
D. leucine, gluyine, alanine
404. I am generally found both inside and out-
399. At one time, how many amino acids are side of the nucleus
connect to a molecule of tRNA?
A. DNA
A. 2
B. 3 B. RNA
C. 1 C. both
D. tRNA doesn’t hold amino acids D. none of above

405. Which of the following are found in both 410. How many amino acids exist?
DNA and RNA? A. 2020

A. phosphate groups, guanine, and cyto- B. 200
sine
C. 20
B. ribose, phosphate groups, and ade-
D. 2
nine
C. deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and 411. What is the best description of transla-
guanine tion?
D. phosphate groups, guanine, and A. DNA→mRNA

thymine B. DNA→Protein
C. mRNA→Protein
406. Which best represents the flow of genetic
information? D. Protein→mRNA
A. DNA-protein-RNA 412. In what process is mRNA synthesized?

B. Protein-RNA-DNA A. Transcription
C. RNA-protein-DNA B. Translation
D. DNA-RNA-protein C. DNA Replication

D. Mitosis
407. What is the job of tRNA in protein syn-
thesis? 413. The process of copying a gene’s DNA se-
quence into a sequence of RNA is called:
A. It is the blueprint of the genetic code
A. Transcription
B. it reads the mRNA
B. Translation
C. it brings Amino Acids to the ribosome
C. Splicing
D. it is not involved in protein synthesis D. Protein Synthesis
408. After DNA replication, the two DNA 414. In order for protein synthesis to occur,
molecules that are made mRNA must leave the nucleus and travel
A. are semi-conservative to
A. a ribosome in the cytoplasm
B. are mutated
B. a mitochondria in the cytoplasm
C. leave the nucleus
C. a vacuole in the cytoplasm
D. cannot replicate again
D. a chloroplast in the cytoplasm
409. A is a long chain of amino acids that
415. Which type of RNA functions as a copy of
makes proteins
the genetic code
A. codon A. tRNA
B. polypeptide B. mRNA
C. protein C. rRNA
D. anticodon D. dRNA

416. What amino acid is represented by the C. mitochondria

codon CAA? (Use charts)
D. ER
A. Met
B. Glu 422. The codon (set of 3 nitrogen bases) codes
for 1 of 20
C. Tyr
D. Arg
B. RNA
417. In RNA, the base thymine (T) is replaced
NARAYAN CHANGDER
with this base C. genes
A. Cytosine D. amino acids

B. Guanine 423. Which kind of RNA is a messenger that
C. Uracil carries the instructions from the DNA to
D. none of above the ribosomes?
A. mRNA
418. Which is NOT a true statement?
B. rRNA
A. DNA has 2 strands, RNA has 1
B. DNA and RNA can both leave the nu- C. tRNA → RNA:TAG CCT AAA
cleus GTCRNA:AUC GGA UUU CAG
C. DNA and RNA have different nitrogen D. none of above

bases
424. Which of these is correct?
D. DNA has deoxyribose, RNA has ribose
sugar A. DNA → mRNA → amino acid chain
(protein)
419. What are the small sections of DNA that
B. DNA → protein → mRNA
are the cell’s instructions on how to make
a specific trait? C. mRNA → DNA → protein
A. chromosomes D. protein → DNA → mRNA
B. genes
425. The monomers units of DNA and RNA are
C. RNA
A. amino acids
D. ribosomes
B. monosaccharides
420. In RNA, uracil takes the place of the DNA
C. nucleotides
nitrogen base called
A. guanine D. fatty acids
B. cytosine 426. What are the small sub-units that make
C. thymine up a protein called?
D. adenine A. Bases
421. Where is DNA and RNA made? B. Phosphates

A. nucleus C. Amino acids
B. cytoplasm D. Nucleotides

427. How are the amino acids linked together 432. Which of the following places the prod-
during translation? ucts in the correct order that they are
made in a cell?

A. by creating peptide bonds
A. mRNA → DNA → Protein
B. by creating hydrogen bonds
B. DNA → mRNA → protein
C. by creating covalent bonds
C. protein → DNA → mRNA
D. by creating phospate bonds D. tRNA → rRNA → DNA
428. Which RNA bases would pair with the 433. What is the correct order?
DNA sequence TACGAA in transcription? A. Transcription then Translation
A. AUGCUU B. Translation then transcription
B. ATGCTT C. Translation then replication
C. GCATCC D. Replication then Translation
D. GCAUCC 434. Where does DNA Replication occur?

A. nucleus
429. What is the correct amino acid sequence
B. ribosome
for the RNA code AUG CCA GUA UGA
C. chloroplast
A. Met-Pro-Ala-Val
D. mitochondria
B. Met-Pro-Val-Stop
435. Which part of the DNA double helix struc-
C. Tyr-Gly-His-Stop ture is important in helping code for pro-
D. Tyr-Gly-Arg-His teins?
A. nitrogen bases
430. Where is the TATA box found?
B. hydrogen bonds
A. in the promoter sequence of prokary- C. deoxyribose sugar
otes
D. phosphate group
B. in the terminator sequence of prokary-
otes 436. In DNA replication, the following seg-
ment of DNA would have which comple-
C. in the promoter sequence of eukary- mentary segment:CGTACTTGATCA
otes
A. CGTACTTGATCA
D. in the terminator sequence of eukary-
B. GCATGAACTAGT
otes
C. Both are incorrect
431. If an mRNA codon is AGU, which of the D. none of above
following would be the appropriate tRNA
anticodon? 437. What is the purpose of transcription?
A. To make new proteins
A. TCA
B. To make mRNA
B. UGA
C. To use the genetic code
C. AGU
D. To break proteins down into amino
D. UCA acids

438. Transcribe the following:3’-TACCCGTAT- C. DNA contains thymine and RNA con-
5’ tains uracil
A. 5’-AUGGGCAUA-3’ D. DNA is made of nucleotides and RNA is
B. 3’-AUGGGCAUA-5’ not
C. 5’-AUGCCGAUA-3’ 443. Which scientist(s) discovered that in any

sample of DNA, the amount of A = T and
D. 5’-ATGCCGATA-3’
the amount of C = G?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
439. What is the complementary messenger A. Griffith
RNA sequence for the following DNA se-
B. Avery
quence:CAAGGT
C. Chargaff
A. GTTCCA
D. Franklin
B. CAAGGU
C. GUUCCA 444. In a portion of a gene, the sequence is T-C-
G-A-A-T. What is the complimentary DNA
D. CAAGGT sequence?
440. Which of the following is a difference be- A. A-C-G-T-A-A
tween RNA and DNA? B. A-C-G-U-U-A
A. RNA uses the sugar ribose instead of C. A-G-C-T-T-A
deoxyribose
D. U-G-C-A-A-U
B. RNA uses uracil instead of thymine
C. RNA is single stranded while DNA is 445. Which best describes the process of trans-
double stranded lation?
A. Translation occurs within he nucleus.
D. All of these are correct
B. Translation involves copying a DNA
441. What will happen if a base sequence of strand.
a strand of DNA is changed from ATG to
C. An mRNA strand is produced by the
ATC?
process of translation.
A. the mRNA will be changed from UAC to
D. A growing protein chain is produced by
UAG
the process of translation.
B. The tRNA will be changed from UAC to
TAC 446. Which enzyme checks the bonds and fixes
mistakes in DNA replication?
C. the mRNA will be changed from TUC to
TUG A. Helicase
D. the tRNA will be changed from CAU to B. Polymerase
CAC C. Ligase
442. What is the difference between DNA and D. Single Stranded Binding Proteins
RNA 447. Which of the following is a circular DNA
A. DNA has uracil and RNA has thymine from bacteria that can hold a foreign
B. DNA is involved in transcription and gene?
RNA is involved in translation A. plasmid

B. restriction enzyme 453. The DNA double helix model used today
C. ligase is the product of research done by scien-
tists

D. protein expression
A. Watson and Crick
448. Which of the following nucleic acids com-
bines directly with amino acids? B. Hershey and Chase
A. DNA, only C. Pauling and Franklin
B. Messenger RNA, only D. Chargaff and Griffith
C. Transfer RNA, only
454. Carries the genetic code to the ribosome
D. DNA, messenger RNA, transfer RNA
A. mRNA
449. THE THREE LETTER WORD OF A TRANS-
FER RNA B. tRNA
A. BACTERIA C. rRNA
B. CHROMATIN D. DNA
C. ANTICODON
D. CODON 455. The complete instructions for making an
organism, consisting of all the genetic ma-
450. If a gene had three bases in the order of terial in that organism’s chromosomes.
CTG, what order would their pairs be in?
A. genome
A. CTG
B. epigenome
B. AGC
C. genetic markers
C. GAG
D. GAC D. RNA codon
451. Which of the following monomers are re- 456. Identify the sequence of RNA nucleotides
peatedly joined together to form a nucleic transcribed from a DNA template sequence
acid like DNA or RNA? of TAA GGG CAT
A. amino acids A. AUU CCC GTU
B. nucleotides
B. AUU CCC GUA
C. fatty acids
C. UUU CCC GUA
D. polysaccharides
D. UUU GGG GUA
452. What “message” does mRNA carry?
A. the genetic code that, when translated, 457. What is the name given to the short
forms proteins stretches of DNA formed on the lagging
B. orders for making ribosomes, a cell’s strand?
protein factories A. Okazaki fragments
C. the order of base pairs in complemen- B. Hiorshimi fragments
tary RNA strands
C. introns
D. the number of codons in an individual
reading frame D. Chargraff’s fragmentation

458. In a strand of DNA, if it contains 20% of C. ribosome

Thymine, then how much Guanine would
D. endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
be present?
A. 30% 464. Which nucleic acid carries the copy of the
B. 20% DNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm to
serve as a template for making proteins?
C. 80%
A. DNA
D. 10%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. rRNA
459. Which type of RNA conveys genetic infor-
mation from DNA and takes it to the ribo- C. tRNA
some? D. mRNA
A. mRNA
465. The bonds that hold the nitrogenous
B. tRNA bases together in the middle of a strand
C. rRNA of DNA are
D. nRNA A. Strong Covalent Bonds
460. Proteins are unique because B. Watson and Crick split tide bonds
A. their anticodons are always the same C. Weak Hydrogen bonds.
B. amino acid sequences differ among D. Nuts and bolts of DNA.
proteins
C. they are made at different organelles 466. Where are anticodons found?
D. they are made in the nucleus A. on mRNA

B. on DNA
461. Codons each code for
A. a protein C. on rRNA
B. an enzyme D. on tRNA
C. an amino acid 467. AAA-TGC toAAG-TGCis a mutation
D. a nucleotide A. point (base) substitution
462. RNA that forms during transcription & B. inversion
carries the instructions for making pro-
C. frameshift
teins from the nucleus to the cytoplasm .
A. tRNA D. base deletion
B. mRNA 468. A codon consists of 3 nucleotides. If a
C. rRNA codon has the nucleotides AUG, its is
UAC.
D. none 0f the above
A. ribosome
463. mRNA is created in which organelle of a
cell? B. tRNA
A. nucleus C. anticodon
B. mitochondrion D. rRNA

469. Which of the following is the site of DNA C. 3

replication in eukaryotes? D. 4

A. vacuole
475. If A % of DNA is 30 and G % is 20. What
B. nucleus is the % of thymine?
C. ribosome A. 25
D. cytoplasm B. 20
C. 32
470. For this DNA strand, what is the comple-
mentary DNA strand?TTA GCC CGA D. 30
A. TTA GCC CGA 476. In eukaryotic cells, where does DNA repli-
B. AAU CGG GCU cation take place?
C. AAT CGG GCT A. cytoplasm

B. nucleus
D. AGC CCG ATT
C. ribosome
471. The sequence of DNA below is part of a D. vacuole
gene. How many amino acids are coded
for by this segment? 5’ ATCAGCGCTGGC 477. Look at your codon chart. Which codon
3’ would NOT make the amino acid Arg?
A. 4 A. CGU
B. 8 B. AGA
C. 12 C. CGC
D. 20 D. AGC
478. What types of bonds hold DNA bases to-
472. What is Thymine replaced with in RNA?
gether?
A. Uracil
A. peptide
B. Guanine B. hydrogen
C. Adenine C. covalent
D. Cytosine D. ionic
473. Which of the following are mutagens? 479. There are different amino acids.
A. UV radiation A. 20
B. X-rays B. 30
C. pollution C. 64
D. all of the them D. 122
480. Translation is the process where
474. GATCACGGG The sequence of DNA is part
of a gene. How many amino acids are A. mRNA is created in the Nucleus
coded for by this segment? B. mRNA is decoded to form a protein
A. 9 C. glucose molecules are made
B. 5 D. is where lipids are synthesised

481. Which of the following is a protein that B. transcription

acts as DNA scissors? C. translation
A. plasmid
D. none of above
B. restriction enzyme
487. In mRNA, each codon specifies a particu-
C. ligase
lar
A. nucleotide
NARAYAN CHANGDER
482. Which of the following is not a nitroge- B. amino acid
nous base found in DNA?
C. purine
A. Adenine
D. pyrimidine
B. Cytosine
C. Guanine 488. Proteins are polymers made of
monomers called
D. Uracil
A. nucleotides
483. what is a gene mutation that occurs when
one mutation is substituted for another nu- B. lipids
cleotide? C. amino acids
A. frameshift D. nitrogen bases
B. substitution
489. The nucleus contains DNA. Which state-
C. deletion ment BEST describes how DNA controls the
D. inversion working of the cell?
A. It codes for proteins.
484. Because of complementary base pairing,
the amount of B. It inhibits division of cells.
A. adenine equals the amount of thymine C. It helps in energy transformation.
D. It regulates traffic in and out of the
B. guanine equals the amount uracil cell.
C. guanine equals the amount of thymine
490. The type of RNA that carries the message
from DNA is
D. cytosine equals the amount of thymine
A. mRNA
485. The order of nitrogenous bases in DNA B. tRNA
determines the order of in proteins.
C. rRNA
A. nucleic acids
D. All of these
B. lactic acids
C. Phosphates 491. Contains a phosphate group
D. amino acids A. DNA
B. RNA
486. The process of making more DNA is
called: C. Both
A. replication D. none of above

492. When DNA is transcribed to RNA C. GTA AGT GAC

A. A pairs with U D. CAT TCA CTG

B. C pairs with U
498. What process involves in making another
C. A pairs with T copy of DNA?
D. C pairs with T A. Replication
493. Translate the following mRNA into a B. Transcription
strand of amino acids, or a protein. A U C. Translation
GCGAUUCGAG
D. none of above
A. met-arg-phe-glu
B. met-ala-arg-glu 499. Which enzyme is needed to unwind and
unzip the double helix in order to make a
C. met-ala-lys-leu copy of it?
D. none of above
A. DNA helicase
494. TRANSCRIBE the DNA strand to a mRNA B. DNA ligase
strand T A C G C T A A G C T C
C. DNA replicase
A. A T G C G A T T C G A G
D. DNA polymerase
B. A U G C G A U U C G A G
C. A U C G C A U U C G A G 500. Where does transcription happen?
D. none of above A. nucleus

B. cytoplasm
495. A change in the genetic code =
C. ribosome
A. trait
D. chloroplast
B. genotype
C. phenotype 501. Which of the following is an example of
a mutagen?
D. mutation
A. chemical
496. Which enzyme is responsible for remov-
ing the RNA primer once nucleotides have B. replication
been added by DNA polymerase III? C. mitosis
A. DNA polymerase I D. meiosis
B. DNA helicase
502. If there is 14 % Cytosine in a strand of
C. RNA primase DNA how much Thymine will be in that
D. DNA ligase same strand. (Hint) You will need to do
some very simple math to get this accu-
497. The following strand of DNA is repli- rate.. THINK
cated:ATG TGA CAGWhich of the options
A. 14%
is the complementary strand of DNA that
would be synthesized during replication? B. 28%
A. ATG TGA CAG C. 36%
B. TAC ACT GTC D. 72%

503. Fill in the complementary sequence that 509. The tRNA binds to specific codons. What
RNA would code off of this DNA se- part of the tRNA binds with a specific
quenceA T C G T T C A T A A G C A T codon?
A. TAG CAA GTA TTCGTA A. anti-codon
B. UAG CAA GUA UUCGUA
B. mRNA
C. TUG CUU GTU TTCGTU
C. rRNA
D. UAG UAA GTA TTUGTA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. antisense
504. Where in the cell does translation occur?
A. in the DNA 510. RNA differs from DNA in which way?
B. in the nucleus A. RNA is single stranded
C. in the Golgi Apparatus B. RNA does not have the base Thymine
D. at the ribosome
C. RNA has the base Uracil
505. Which of these is DNA being copied into
D. All of these are correct
new DNA?
A. Replication 511. Which of the following is not found in a
B. Transcription nucleotide of RNA?
C. Translation A. phosphate group
D. Mutation B. nitrogen base
506. Any change in the nucleotide sequence of C. deoxyribose sugar
a gene is called
D. ribose sugar
A. a mutation
B. a codon 512. Mutations can be
C. a translation A. Beneficial
D. an anticodon
B. Harmful
507. What enzyme seals the DNA back to-
C. Neutral
gether after replication?
A. Helicase D. All of these
B. Ligase
513. Which event takes place first during DNA
C. DNA Polymerase replication?
D. RNA Polymerase A. a single-stranded RNA molecule is
508. What is the complementary base of ade- formed
nine in DNA? B. tRNA links to the amino acids
A. cytosine
C. Free nucleotides are bonded together
B. thymine in the correct sequence
C. guanine D. The DNA molecule “unzips” along
D. uracil weak hydrogen bonds

514. What is the correct order of information C. Translation

transfer in a living organism? D. Replication

A. DNA to RNA to Protein
520. What is the end product of transcrip-
B. protein to DNA to RNA
tion?
C. RNA to DNA to protein
A. a single-stranded molecule of mRNA
D. RNA to protein to DNA
B. a double-stranded molecule of DNA
515. True or false:RNA is double-stranded. C. a chain of amino acids
A. true D. a single-stranded molecule of tRNA
B. false
521. makes up the structural part of a ri-
C. it depends on the type bosome.
D. none of above
A. mRNA
516. An mRNA molecule is produced in the step B. DNA
of
C. rRNA
A. replication
D. tRNA
B. transcription
C. duplication 522. Before cells make new cells for growth
or repair, the DNA must be copied. This
D. translation process is called
517. A chemical modification of DNA that does A. transcription
not affect the nucleotide sequence of a B. translation
gene but makes that gene less likely to be
expressed. C. replication
A. methylation D. mutation
B. acetylation 523. How much of the DNA is copied into
C. transcription mRNA during transcription?
D. translation A. An entire chromosome
518. Where does transcription take place in eu- B. All of the DNA that is in the nucleus
karyotes? C. An entire gene
A. nucleus D. Only a few bases at a time
B. cytoplasm
524. DNA is a spiral ladder-shaped structure
C. ribosome with the sides of the ladder representing
D. endoplasmic reticulum which components?
A. glucose molecules
519. What is the process called of turning DNA
into RNA? B. a pair of nitrogenous bases
A. Central Dogma Order C. alternating sugars and phosphates
B. Transcription D. alternating proteins and phosphates

525. RNA contains which sugar? C. replication

A. deoxyribose D. bio engineering
B. Ribose
531. RNA to RNA:CAU GGC
C. glucose
A. GUA CCG
D. fructose
B. GTA CCG
526. If the DNA sequence AGCTG mutates to C. CTG GGC
the DNA sequence AGGCTC-what type of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mutation is this? D. CAT GGC
A. Frameshift (Addition) 532. What are the 4 nitrogen bases? (DNA)

B. Frameshift (Deletion) A. adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and gua-
C. Silent nine
D. Substitution B. adenine, thymine cytosine, and gua-
nine
527. The structure of a nucleotide consists of
C. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gyl-
a
cerol
A. A phosphate, A deoxyribose sugar, a
D. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glu-
nitrogenous base
cose
B. A phosphate base, Ribose sugar, a ni-
trogen 533. What characteristic do all living things
C. DNA, RNA, Protein share?
D. DNA, Protein, Amino Acids A. The are all multicellular

B. They all contain genetic material
528. Which mRNA strand represents a se-
quence of nucleotides? C. They all use mitosis to reproduce
A. AU GG UG CC AG GC D. They all need oxygen to live
B. AUG GUG CCA GGC 534. RNA splicing only happens in which type
C. AUGG UGCC AGGC of organisms?
D. AU GGU GC CAG GC A. eukaryotes
529. A is a small ring of DNA found in a B. prokaryotes

bacterial cell. C. exons
A. virus D. introns
B. plasmid
535. A mutation that shifts the “reading
C. gene bullet frame” of the genetic message by insert-
D. PCR ing or deleting a nucleotide is called a
A. point mutation
530. The process of mRNA being read by tRNA
to create a protein is called B. frameshift mutation
A. transcription C. insertion
B. translation D. deletion

536. DNA and RNA are biomolecules in the cat- B. ATA CGC AGT
egory of C. UAU GCG UCA

A. Proteins D. UAT GCG AGT
B. Lipids
542. A strand of DNA contains the fol-
C. Nucleic Acids lowing bases:ACGTCA. After TRANSCRIP-
D. Carbohydrates TION, which complementary bases would
be formed?
537. The monomers for proteins are
A. TGCAGT
A. nucleic acids B. UGCAGU
B. amino acids C. GTACTG
C. fatty acids D. AGCUGA
D. polypeptides
543. what would be the complementary
538. What is one characteristic that is true DNA strand to the following sequence-
about both DNA and RNA? ATTCGCTTACCCGAGATA
A. single stranded A. TAAGCGAATGGGCTCTAT
B. contain genes B. TAAGCGAATGGGCTCTAT
C. have the base uracil C. UAAGCGAAUGGGCUCUAU
D. used as a template D. TTAGCGTATGGGCCCATA
539. Thirty percent of a particular DNA strand 544. What is the rule for base pairing in RNA
is made of adenine. During transcription, A. A→T
a new mRNA molecule is made from this B. C→G
DNA strand. Which is most correct about
C. A→U
the mRNA molecule produced?
D. U→T
A. 50% is cytosine
B. 40% is guanine 545. When using your codon chart, what se-
quence can you use to find the correct
C. 30% is thymine
amino acid?
D. 30% is uracil A. DNA
540. What would be next in the DNA strand B. mRNA
sequence?TCG ATA CGA C. tRNA
A. AGC ATA GCT D. Any of these will do
B. AGC TAT GCT
546. The instructions for the synthesis of a
C. AGC UAU GCU particular protein are carried from the nu-
D. UGC TUT GCT cleus of a cell to the cytoplasm by
A. DNA molecules
541. What would be the resulting mRNA
strand made in transcription from the fol- B. ribosomes
lowing DNA segment:ATA CGC AGT C. polypeptides
A. TAT GCG TCA D. messenger RNA

547. Which is an example of an inherited char- C. ribosome

acteristic?
D. mitochondria
A. dyed pink hair
B. brown eyes 553. During replication the enzyme adds
new nucleotides to the new DNA strand.
C. red lips from lipstick
A. helicase
D. pierced ears
B. replication fork
NARAYAN CHANGDER
548. Which base is normally used in the syn-
C. DNA polymerase
thesis of RNA but not in the synthesis of
DNA? D. replication
A. adenine
554. How many amino acids are carried on 1
B. uracil tRNA molecule
C. guanine A. 2
D. cytosine B. 4
549. DNA that has been produced from 2 dif- C. 1
ferent sources D. 8
A. plasmid
555. is to transcription as is to trans-
B. reverse transcriptase
lation.
C. recombinant DNA
A. mRNA; protein
D. recognition site
B. Amino Acid; mRNA
550. Which part of the DNA molecule deter- C. Ribosome; nucleus
mines an organism’s traits?
D. mRNA; tRNA
A. hydrogen bond
B. phospholipid group 556. In eukaryotes, DNA:
C. sugar-phosphate backbone A. floats freely in the cytoplasm
D. complementary base pairing B. is found in the nucleus
551. Both DNA and RNA: C. is wrapped within the ribosome
A. are single stranded molecules D. is circular
B. contain the same four nucleotide
557. A strand of DNA with the sequence A-C-T-
bases
T-G serves as a template to form a strand
C. have the same five carbon sugar of mRNA with the sequence U-G-A-A-C.
D. are nucleic acids During which process would this happen?
A. replication
552. Where in the cell does transcription oc-
cur? B. transcription
A. nucleus C. translation
B. cytoplasm D. meiosis

558. Which of the following mutation types B. translation, transcription

are LEAST likely to cause a change in a pro- C. replication, translation
tein?

D. transcription, replication
A. Addition
B. Deletion 564. Which 2 components make up the nu-
cleotide backbone?
C. Frameshift
A. ribose sugar and base
D. Point
B. ribose sugar and phosphate group
559. The Human Genome Project has made di-
C. nitrogen base and deoxytibose sugar
agnosing genetic disorders easier.Once a
genetic disorder is diagnosed, can be D. deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
used as a possible treatment. group
A. cell cultures 565. Enzymes are which macro-molecule?
B. gene therapy A. protein
C. DNA fingerprinting B. carbohydrate
D. PCR C. lipid
560. I include bases guanine, cytosine, and D. nucleic acid
adenine.
566. A mutation could be
A. DNA
A. a change in the DNA sequence
B. RNA
B. a change in a gene
C. both
C. a change in the number of chromo-
D. none of above somes
561. Who used X ray diffraction to better un- D. all of these
derstand DNA?
567. What is rRNA’s job?
A. Franklin
A. carry messages
B. Watson and Crick
B. transfer amino acids
C. Chargaff
C. make proteins
D. Mendel
D. none of above
562. Which of the following are all types of
proteins? 568. RNA to RNA:UAG CAU
A. Hormones, enzymes and nitrates A. AUC GUA
B. Antibodies, enzymes and plasmids B. ATC CAT
C. Hormones, receptors and antibodies C. TAG CAT
D. Receptors, antibodies and nitrates D. ATG GAU
563. DNA to RNA is called , while RNA to 569. Which of the following are types of mu-
protein is called tations?
A. transcription, translation A. transfer

B. exon 575. The genetic code is always read

C. frameshift A. 3 bases at a time in the same direction.
D. cross-over
B. 4 bases at a time in the same direction.
570. What is one major difference between
DNA and RNA? C. 3 bases at a time and the direction
A. DNA is single stranded varies.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 4 bases at a time and the direction
B. RNA contains the sugar deoxyribose
varies.
C. DNA contain the nitrogen base
Thymine 576. Codons consist of nucleotide(s).
D. RNA is double stranded A. 3

B. 4
571. What is considered to be our blueprints?
C. 2
A. DNA D. 1
B. RNA
577. The purpose of nucleic acids like DNA and
C. Nucleus RNA is to store and pass along
D. Protein A. Water
B. Minerals
572. A polypeptide chain makes up a
C. Genetic Information
A. protein
D. Energy
B. DNA
578. A portion of mRNA is coded CUG. The cor-
C. mRNA responding DNA is coded
D. tRNA A. GAC
B. GTC
573. UV light from the sun is an example of a
because it can cause mutations. C. CTG
A. Mutagen D. CAG
B. Mutation 579. What end does DNA polymerase add the

nucleotides to (new strand)?
C. Meiosis
A. 5’
D. none of above
B. 3’
574. How many steps are there in protein syn- C. both 3’ and 5’
thesis
D. the end with the phosphate
A. 1
580. What is the term for three mRNA bases
B. 2 that code for one single amino acid?
C. 3 A. protein
D. 4 B. nucleotide

C. nitrogen base 586. Which of the following is the correct com-

plementary strand of DNA to the following
D. codon
template sequence?ATAGCG

581. TCC-AGA-CCC toTCC-AAC-CCis a mu- A. UAUCGC
tation B. CGCTAT
A. point (base) substitution C. TATCGC
B. frameshift-base addition D. CGCUAU
C. frameshift-base deletion 587. Codes for a single protein
D. inversion A. DNA
B. Gene
582. Which two bases have a two ring struc-
ture rather than one? C. Chromosome
A. guanine and adenine D. Chromatin
B. guanine and thymine 588. Which scientist is credited with taking a

“picture” of DNA using x-ray crystallogra-
C. cytosine and guanine
phy?
D. adenine and thymine A. James Watson
583. How many bases on mRNA create a B. Howard Stern
codon. C. Francis Cricket
A. 3 D. Rosalind Franklin
B. 30 589. If one DNA strand has a code GATTA then
C. 3000 its complementary strand will have the
code:
D. 2
A. ATAAT
584. Which strand is ALWAYS used with a B. CTAGT
codon chart to determine amino acid se- C. CTAAT
quence?
D. CTATT
A. DNA
590. DNA is copied during a process called
B. mRNA which results in an identical copy of itself.
C. tRNA A. Photosynthesis
D. rRNA B. Transcription
C. Replication
585. What is the template for mRNA?
D. Translation
A. DNA
B. tRNA 591. Which process involves using a gene, or
a section of DNA, to make a strand of
C. rRNA mRNA?
D. proteins A. replication

B. translation 597. Which is a difference between DNA and

C. transcription RNA
A. RNA is double stranded
D. mutation
B. RNA is not made of nucleotides
592. A strand of DNA contains the follow- C. RNA contains Uracil instead of
ing bases:ATCGAT. After DNA replication, Thymine
which complementary bases are formed?
D. RNA does not contain a sugar
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. UAGCUA
598. A change in a CHROMOSOME is called:
B. TAGCTA
A. Gene expression
C. CGATAG
B. Gene mutation
D. GUACGA C. Chromosome mutation
593. DNA Replication occurs at what phase of D. Replication
the cell cycle?
599. What organelle is the site of translation?
A. G1 (Where proteins are put together.)
B. S A. Nucleus
C. G2 B. Ribosome
D. M C. Mitochondria
D. Chloroplast
594. Amino Acids combine to made a polypep-
tide, or 600. How many codon combinations of A, C, G
and U exist
A. DNA
A. 12
B. protein
B. 43
C. lipid
C. 64
D. mRNA D. none of above
595. What is the complementary strand of 601. What scientists discovered the shape and
TACGTATCAAC? structure of DNA?
A. ATGCATGTTG A. Watson and Crick
B. TACGTATCAAC B. Walton and Cricket
C. ATGCATAGTTC C. Darwin and Mendel
D. AUGCAUACUUG D. Hershey and Chase
602. Ribosomal RNA is a form of RNA that
596. What is the main difference between the
four nucleotides that makeup DNA? A. makes up a ribosome and catalyzes
protein synthesis
A. bonds
B. carries amino acids to the ribosome
B. bases
C. transfers the genetic code to the nu-
C. sugars cleus
D. uracil D. copies the genetic code from DNA

603. What type of bonds connect nitrogen C. As a sequence of nucleotides

bases in the DNA molecule D. In the ratio of adenine to guanine

A. covalent
609. In proteins, the amino acids are bonded
B. phosphate together by bonds.
C. sugar A. sulfuric
D. hydrogen B. peptide
604. If a DNA sample has 40% CYTOSINE, C. hydrogen
how much THYMINE will it have? D. nitrogen
A. 10%
610. Where does transcription occur?
B. 20%
A. Nucleus
C. 40%
B. Cytoplasm
D. 60%
C. Mitochondria
605. What step in protein synthesis comes be- D. Golgi apparatus
fore translation?
611. What are the monomers of proteins?
A. mRNA is used to make a protein
A. glycerol
B. mRNA is made from DNA
B. monosaccharides
C. Ribosome makes protein
C. amino acids
D. tRNA connects to mRNA
D. fatty acids
606. What type of RNA carries amino acids to
ribosomes? 612. What kind of organic molecule is DNA?
A. tRNA A. Protein
B. Nucleic Acid
B. mRNA
C. Lipid
C. RNA
D. Carbohydrate
D. RNA Polymerase
613. What part of our cells houses our DNA?
607. How many nucleotides code for each
amino acid? A. cytoplasm
A. 1 B. cell membrane
B. 2 C. nucleus
C. 3 D. ribosomes
D. 64 614. Which type of RNA carries amino acids to
the growing peptide chain?
608. How is information for a specific protein
carried on the DNA molecule? A. mRNA
A. As a pattern of phosphate and sugars B. rRNA
B. In the double helix shape of the con- C. tRNA

densed chromosome D. dRNA

615. What is the only start codon? C. AACTGAA

A. ATC D. AACUGAA
B. AUG 621. The codon is located on the
C. Quinney A. DNA
D. TAC B. mRNA
616. What does replication produce? C. tRNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. DNA D. rRNA
B. RNA 622. During DNA replication this enzyme is re-
C. proteins sponsible for “unzipping” the DNA helix
D. amino acids
A. DNA helicase
617. Why are your chromosomes arranged in B. DNA polymerase
pairs?
C. RNA polymerase
A. Scientists have no idea
D. Amylase
B. Because you get one from your mom
and one from your dad 623. The ribosome serves as
C. Because pairs can divide easier A. The power house of the cell.
D. Because DNA is awesome B. storage area
C. site for protein synthesis.
618. A sequence of 3 nitrogen bases on mRNA
that codes for an amino acid. D. None of the above
A. Anticodon 624. Which process occurs first in protein syn-
B. Codon thesis?
C. Amino Acid A. translation
D. DNA Polymerase B. transcription

C. replication
619. How many amino acids are coded for in
D. bio engineering
this sequence of nucleotides (codons). ATG
GGA ACT CCA 625. Which pair of bases would be found in
A. 4 DNA?
B. 6 A. G-C
C. 2 B. A-U
D. 12 C. T-G
D. T-U
620. Which of the following is the comple-
mentary mRNA sequence to this DNA 626. Where does the process of DNA replica-
strand:AACTGAA tion occur in the cell?
A. UUGACUU A. Nucleus
B. TTGACTT B. Ribosome

C. Anywhere 632. Which type of mutations can be inher-

ited?
D. none of above

A. somatic cell mutations
627. Which of these is not a base found in
B. gamete cell mutations
DNA?
C. base substitution mutations
A. Adenine
D. frameshift mutations
B. Thymine
C. Guanine 633. Which base pairs would be found in a
cell?
D. Uracil
A. adenine-guanine
628. An organism has a body cell with 28 chro- B. cytosie-thymine
mosomes. How many chromosomes will
C. uracil-ytosine
be in a gamete of this organism?
D. cytosine-guanine
A. 28
B. 14 634. If there is 16% guanine, what should the
percentage of thymine be?
C. 56
A. 16%
D. 7
B. 32%
629. Why is DNA fingerprinting used? C. 34%
A. To determine who is the child’s father D. 68%
B. Link suspects to a crime scene
635. In the 2nd step, mRNA is read at the ri-
C. determine if a family relationship exist bosome to make an amino acid chain.
between two people
A. Transcription
D. all of the above B. Mitosis
630. A base that forms bonds with Cytosine C. Translation
is D. Photosynthesis
A. Guanine
636. DNA polymerase and RNA polymerase
B. Adenine are similar in that they
C. Thymine A. are both enzymes
D. Uracil B. both are involved in making new poly-
mers
631. what is mRNA
C. both can be found doing work in the
A. complementary copy of DNA cell nucleus
B. an exact copy of DNA D. all of these things are true
C. What genes are made of
637. Josh is assigned a project in class to make
D. what brings amino acids to the ribo- a strand of m-RNA from DNA.The DNA
some code that he has been assigned is CGG TCG

AGT GAT. What would be the correct code 642. If a cell has 40 chromosomes, how many
for Josh to use in his transcription? chromosomes will each of its daughter
cells have after mitosis?
A. GCC AGC TCA CTA
A. 40
B. GCC UGC TCA CTU
B. 25
C. GCC AGG TGA CTA
C. 20
D. GCC AGC UCA CUA
D. 12
NARAYAN CHANGDER
638. Which is the greatest consequence of
643. How does translation start?
transcription being blocked in the nu-
cleus? A. A start anticodon on tRNA
A. The DNA would not be copied into RNA. B. A start codon on DNA
C. A tart codon on mRNA
B. The RNA would not be copied into DNA. D. A start codon on mRNA
644. In DNA, Adenine pairs with

C. The mRNA would not be transferred to
rRNA. A. Guanine
D. The protein would not be assembled in B. Cytosine

the cytoplasm. C. Thymine
D. Uracil
639. Which of the following tells the Ribosome
to START? 645. One Codon =
A. AUG A. 1 protein
B. UGG B. 1 amino acid
C. UGA C. 1 RNA sequence
D. UCA D. 1 DNA strand
640. Flexible base pairing between some tR- 646. A gene mutation in which a single base
NAs & codons where 3rd base can mis- pair in DNA has been changed is called a
match?
A. wobble A. point mutation
B. gobble B. frameshift mutation

C. insertion
C. autonomy
D. deletion
D. mismatch
647. Which best explains why DNA replication
641. What bonds hold DNA bases together? in the human body is significant?
A. nitrogen bonds A. It produces RNA strands.
B. hydrogen bonds B. It is necessary for protein synthesis.
C. phosphorus bonds C. It replaces any damaged DNA cells.
D. carbon bonds D. It is needed for cell division.

648. How are amino acids held together? B. UCAGUCU

A. By the centromere C. ACUGACA

B. By the peptide bond D. UGTCUGU
C. By the metaphase plate
654. Cancer Cells
D. By the nucleus
A. Are good
649. The process of making mRNA from DNA B. Do not respond to contact inhibition
is called.
C. Do not respond to any treatment
A. Replication
D. none of above
B. Transcription
655. The two strands of a DNA double helix
C. Translation
are
D. Protein synthesis
A. purines
650. In humans, where does DNA replication B. pyrimidines
take place?
C. complementary
A. cytoplasm
D. identical
B. ribosome
C. nucleus 656. Type of RNA that transports amino acids
to the ribosomes
D. vacuole
A. Transfer RNA
651. Which statement is TRUE regarding DNA B. Messenger RNA
and RNA?
C. Ribosomal RNA
A. DNA’s sugar is ribose; RNA’s sugar is
deoxyribose D. Transcription
B. DNA is single stranded; RNA is double 657. What makes DNA different from RNA?
stranded
A. they type of phosphate
C. DNA contains thymine; RNA contains
B. the type of sugar
uracil
C. having C pair with G
D. DNA is in cytoplasm; RNA is in nucleus
D. Having A’s
652. What is the monomer (building block) of
proteins? 658. Which of the following describe a clone?
A. Monosacchrides A. The DNA of the clone is identical to the
DNA of the parent
B. Polysaccharides
B. Clones can happen naturally
C. amino acids
C. Clones can be made in labs
D. Triglycerides
D. All of the answers are correct
653. If the coding strand of DNA has the fol-
lowing sequence:AGTCAGAwhat would be 659. I am generally found both inside and out-
the sequence of the transcribed RNA? side of the nucleus [in eukaryotic cells].
A. AGUCAGA A. DNA

B. RNA 665. During protein synthesis, the RNA se-

C. both quence UAC GAU CUA, is produced from
then DNA sequence ATG CTA GAT. Which
D. none of above process is occurring?
660. What RNA strand will pair up with A. translation
GGTAAC? B. transcription
A. CCATTG C. transmutation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. GGAUUG D. transformation
C. CCAUUG 666. How many nucleotide bases make up a
D. TTAUUG code for an amino acid?
A. 3
661. Where does transcription and translation
occur in order? B. 2
A. ribosome, nucleus C. 5
D. 4
B. nucleus, mitochondria
C. nucleus, chloroplast 667. What is tRNA’s job?
D. nucleus, ribosome A. carry messages
B. transfer amino acids
662. Who realized that A is always equal to T
and C is always equal to G? C. make proteins
A. Franklin D. none of above
B. Watson and Crick 668. is made during transcription and

is made during translation.
C. Chargaff
A. mRNA / a protein
D. Mendel
B. a protein / mRNA
663. Which of the following is found in RNA C. Ribosome / Nucleus
but not in DNA?
D. mRNA / tRNA
A. adenine
669. What enzyme is responsible for proof-
B. uracil
reading and adding base pairs to the ex-
C. guanine posed DNA strands?
D. thymine A. DNA helicase
B. DNA ligase
664. What type of mutation occurs when part
of a chromosome is missing after replica- C. RNA primase
tion? D. DNA polymerase III
A. deletion
670. How many base pairs are there in one full
B. insertion DNA “twist”?
C. inversion A. 2
D. translocation B. 4

C. 8 676. Which base can pair with two other nitro-

gen bases?
D. 10

A. Adenine
671. This type of chromosomal mutation B. uracil
causes parts of a chromosome to break off
C. Cytosine
& attach to another:
D. Thymine
A. Inversion
677. Codons contain bases
B. Duplication
A. 1
C. Deletion
B. 3
D. Translocation
C. 6
672. Genetic info flows in one direction. Which D. 9
best represents this flow?
678. Which sequence of DNA bases would com-
A. DNA-protein-RNA plement this partial strand:ATG TGA CAG
B. Protein-RNA-DNA A. ATG TGA CAG
C. RNA-protein-DNA B. TAC ACT GTC
D. DNA-RNA-protein C. GTA AGT GAC
D. CAT TCA CTG
673. Which of the following processes turns
DNA into mRNA? 679. There are possible codon combina-
tions.
A. 4
B. Replication
B. 5
C. Transcription C. 64
D. Translation D. 128
674. What enzyme initiates DNA replication? 680. The name for the ends of DNA that have
been produced by a restriction enzyme
A. DNA polymerase
A. sticky ends
B. tRNA
B. DNA fragments
C. RNA polymerase C. recombinant DNA
D. mRNA D. none of above
675. Which of these is RNA being used to as- 681. Codons are a
semble amino acids? A. set of 2 nitrogenous bases that repre-
A. Replication sent a protein
B. Transcription B. set of 3 nitrogenous bases that repre-

sent an amino acid
C. Translation
C. set of 2 nitrogenous bases that repre-
D. Mutation sent an amino acid

D. set of 3 nitrogenous bases that repre- C. helps mRNA leave nucleus

sent a protein D. carries information to make protein
682. How is a mutation caused?
688. In DNA, Adenine bonds with , and Cy-
A. changing the tRNA tosine bonds with
B. a mutagen, or something that changes A. Guanine, Thymine
the DNA
B. Thymine, Guanine
C. cancer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Uracil, Guanine
D. none of above
D. Thymine, Uracil
683. Where does the nitrogen base attach on
the backbone? 689. Which process do the animals in the food
A. sugar web use to convert energy from food into
ATP?
B. phosphate
C. hydrogen bond
B. osmosis
D. nucleotide
C. photosynthesis
684. What are the backbones (sides) of the
D. transcription
DNA structure made up of?
A. repeating phosphates and sugars 690. Which of the following sub-units units
B. nitrogen bases are repeatedly joined together to form a
strand of DNA?
C. nucleotides
A. amino acids
D. adenine and thymine
B. nucleotides
685. Who was credited with the discovery of
C. fatty acids
the structure of DNA?
D. monosaccharides
B. Erwin Chargaff 691. Which of the following is the sugar found
C. Watson and Crick in RNA?
D. Albert Einstein A. Ribose
B. Maltose
686. Nucleotide pairing is always
C. Deoxyribose
A. purine and purine
B. pyrimidine and pyrimidine D. Amylose
C. purine and pyrimidine 692. Which of the following is the template for
D. none of the above-pairing is random the production of RNA within a cell?
A. DNA
of the 5’ cap added in RNA processing? B. protein
A. site of attachment of ribosome C. ATO
B. protect mRNA from degradation D. carbohydrate

693. What is the correct order? A:mRNA B. animals

arrives at ribosomeB:DNA is copied by C. fungus
RNA Polymerase C:mRNA Leaves Nucle-

usD:Amino Acids Are Bonded Together to D. all of these
make a proteinE:tRNA brings Amino Acids
699. What is the complementary strand to this
to ribosome
DNA?AAT CAG GTA CCG AAC
A. B, C, E, A, D
A. TTA CAG CAT GGC TTG
B. B, C, A, E, D
B. TTA GTC CAT GGC TTG
C. A, C, E, D, B
C. UUA GUC CAU GGC UUG
D. C, E, A, D, B
D. TTA GUC CAT CCG TTG
694. Which cell activity must occur in order for
700. what makes the rungs of the ladder?
mitosis and meiosis to take place?
A. deoxyribose & phosphate
A. translocation
B. nondisjunction B. deoxyribose
C. DNA replication C. phosphate
D. RNA transcription D. nitrogenous bases
695. DNA to DNA:GCA AAG TCC 701. Where does the process of transcription
occur in the cell?
A. CGT TTC AGG
A. Nucleus
B. CGU UUG AGG
B. Ribosome
C. GCA AAG TCC
C. Anywhere
D. ATA TAT ATA
D. none of above
696. Which of the following sequences could
be RNA? 702. Different cells in your body (example:a
heart cell and skin cell) have
A. ACCTGT
A. different DNA and different RNA
B. CGCATT
B. the same DNA and different RNA
C. AUGCUU
C. different DNA and the same RNA
D. none of above
D. the same DNA and the same RNA
697. Which process is used to copy DNA in the
nucleus? 703. What are proteins made of?
A. replication A. Ribosomes
B. transcription B. Pedigree
C. translation C. Amino Acids
D. none of above D. 2 nitrogen bonds
698. In which organism(s) does respiration oc- 704. The type of RNA that makes up ribo-
cur? somes is
A. plants A. mRNA

B. tRNA 710. Which of these are parts of a nucleotide

C. rRNA in DNA?
D. dRNA A. adenine + phosphate group +

thymine
705. What do we call the shape a DNA B. deoxyribose + phosphate group +
molecule takes? polymerase
A. double-stranded
C. deoxyribose + phosphate group +
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. double helix guanine
C. sugar-phosphate backbone D. ribose + phosphate group + uracil
D. pentagon
711. Do prokaryotic cells go through mitosis
706. What do tRNA bring to the ribosome? why
A. glucose A. Yes they have a nucleus
B. fatty acids B. No they have a nucleus
C. nucleotides C. Yes they do not have a nucleus
D. amino acids D. No they do not have a nucleus
707. What parts make up the middle of the
712. Set of nitrogen bases that are comple-
DNA double helix?
mentary to one codon
A. phosphate
A. peptide bond
B. nitrogen bases
B. polypeptide
C. sugars
C. anti-codon
D. nucleotides
D. amino acid
708. What type of mutation does
the second sequence of DNA 713. What must match in order for amino acids
have?Original:GACTCCCTGMutation:GACTCCATG to be linked into a polypeptide (protein)?
A. DNA codon and mRNA codon
A. Frameshift Mutation
B. mRNA codon and the tRNA anticodon
B. Point Mutation
C. DNA & DNA codon
C. Insertion Mutation
D. polysaccharides
D. Deletion Mutation
709. Which of the following is not a possible 714. The central dogma of biology states that
cause of mutations? information flows in one direction from
A. x rays A. DNA to RNA to Protein
B. radiation B. Protein to DNA to RNA

C. chemicals C. RNA to protein to DNA
D. enzymes D. DNA to protein to RNA

715. Which enzyme is responsible for adding C. ligase

a primer so DNA polymerase III can attach
D. primase
to start adding nucleotides to the exposed

DNA strands? 721. Which of these is not a type of RNA?
A. DNA ligase
A. mRNA
B. RNA primase
B. nRNA
C. DNA polymerase I
C. rRNA
D. DNA helicase
D. tRNA
716. The represents the shape of the dna
molecule. 722. DNA is made up of
A. Helix A. Ribosomes
B. Double Helix B. Amino Acids
C. Ladder C. Nucleotides
D. Quartenary D. None of these
717. The subunits that make up DNA that con-
tain a sugar, phosphate, and a base are 723. Which of the following molecules is made
called during transcription?
A. genes A. DNA
B. chromosomes B. tRNA
C. nucleotides C. protein
D. RNA D. mRNA
718. What is a polymer of amino acids? 724. Which of the following brings amino acids
A. proteins to the ribosome?
B. lipids A. mRNA
C. DNA B. tRNA
D. Carbohydrates C. rRNA
719. What is DNA REPLICATION? D. DNA
A. DNA → DNA
725. Which of the following displays
B. DNA → mRNA the correct order of protein synthe-
C. mRNA → DNA sis? 1. DNA →RNA→Protein2.
RNA→protein→DNA3. DNA→protein→RNA4.
D. mRNA → protein
Protein→DNA→RNA
720. In DNA replication, which enzyme is A. 1
responsible for building the new DNA
strand? B. 2
A. helicase C. 3
B. polymerase D. 4

726. How many codons:AAU GCG AUG GGG 732. What is the function of the 5’ cap on
CGC mRNA?
A. 9 A. Stability of mRNA
B. 5 B. Directs the movement of mRNA to a ri-
C. 3 bosome
D. 15 C. Helps transcription occur in the cyto-
plasm
727. Which amino acid is specified by the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Helps transcription occur on the ribo-
mRNA code CCC?
some
A. Gly
733. What is the complementary tRNA anti-
B. Pro
codon to the following mRNA codon:AUG
C. Ala
A. UAC
D. Lys
B. TAC
728. Which of the following is the blueprint for C. ATG
the production of RNA within a cell?
D. AAC
A. DNA
B. protein 734. What is the function of transfer RNA?
C. ATO A. It is a part of the ribosome.
D. carbohydrate B. It bonds to other RNA molecules, lead-
ing to their destruction.
729. Smaller segments of RNA that transport
C. It delivers the correct amino acid to
amino acids to the ribosomes
the ribosome.
A. mRNA
D. It carries the information coding for
B. tRNA the amino acid sequence of a protein.
C. rRNA
735. Photosynthesis takes place in
D. DNA
A. chloroplasts
730. A change or mistake in the DNA sequence B. mitochondria
can cause
C. lysosomes
A. Mutation
D. the nucleus
C. Cancer 736. In order for DNA instructions to move
from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the
D. Mitosis
cytoplasm of a cell, an RNA copy of a DNA
731. ANYTHING that causes a mutation-X- strand must be made. This process, which
rays, chemicals, UV rays, etc takes place in a cell’s nucleus is called
A. Mutagens A. translation
B. Enzymes B. mutation
C. Growth regulators C. DNA replication
D. DNA helicase D. transcription

737. The process of creating RNA using DNA 743. A mutation in which a stop codon is
as the template is reached before the polypeptide is com-
pleted.

A. translation
B. transcription A. Missense
C. translocation B. Nonsense
D. Transylvania C. Frameshift
D. none of above
738. What are small segments of a chromo-
some that help code for a trait? 744. Which molecule carries the instructions
A. Genes (genetic code) from the nucleus to the cy-
toplasm?
B. Nucleotides
A. mRNA
C. Proteins
B. ribosome
D. Carbohydrates
C. DNA
D. RNA polymerase
a mutation?
A. subsitution 745. Which of the following is an example of
the degeneracy of the genetic code?
B. insertion
A. The genetic code is not degenerate
C. deletion
B. Tthe first two bases specify the amino
D. all of the answers listed
acid
740. What of the following shows the correct C. Each codon specifies more than one
sequence for the production of a protein? amino acid
A. DNA → Protein → RNA D. A given amino acid has more than one
B. Protein → RNA → DNA codon
C. RNA → DNA → Protein 746. Process where the cell uses information
D. DNA → RNA → Protein from mRNA to produce proteins
A. synthesis
741. In translation, each codon has an anti-
codon on which codes for a(n) . B. translation
A. rRNA, ribosome C. transcription
B. DNA, nucleotide D. replication
C. mRNA, protein 747. Which characteristic can best distinguish
D. tRNA, amino acid between two different proteins?
742. Uncoiled & spread out DNA is known as? A. the presence of nitrogen in the pro-
teins
A. Chromosomes
B. the sequence of amino acids in the pro-
B. Chromatin teins
C. Centromere C. the number of amino acids found in the
D. Chromatids proteins

D. the location of the peptide bonds in the 754. If one side of the helix is CACTGG, the
proteins complementary side would be
748. The sides of the DNA “Ladder” are made A. CACTGG
up of: B. GGTCAC
A. Alternating phosphates and sugars C. GTGACC
B. Nitrogen bases D. GTGUCC
C. Hydrogen bonds 755. The correct order of molecules involved in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Protein chains protein synthesis is
749. Translation is performed by: A. mRNA, tRNA, DNA, polypep-

tide/protein
A. Ribosomes
B. DNA, mRNA, polypeptide, tRNA
B. Mitochondria
C. tRNA, polypeptide, DNA, mRNA, DNA
C. Golgi Bodies
D. DNA, mRNA, tRNA, polypep-
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum tide/protein
750. Where does transcription take place? 756. What is the term for a three-nucleotide
A. nucleus sequence that codes for an amino acid?
B. cytoplasm A. base
C. ribosome B. codon
D. none of above C. amine
751. Both RNA and DNA contain D. serine
A. 5 sugar 757. Which event is not part of the process of

B. the same bases DNA replication?
C. phosphate A. Nitrogen base pairs are formed

B. Hydrogen bonds are broken
D. none of above
C. A double stranded molecule unwinds
752. One human disease is caused by a change
D. Ribosomes are synthesized
in one codon in a gene from GAA to GUA.
This disease is the result of 758. In RNA, is the sugar in the nucleotide.
A. a mutation A. ribose
B. a meiosis error. B. RNA polymerase
C. crossing-over. C. stop codon
D. polyploidy. D. lactose
753. What type of RNA moves to the ribosome 759. If a DNA sample has 40% ADENINE, how
to start protein synthesis? much THYMINE will it have?
A. tRNA A. 10%
B. mRNA B. 20%
C. rRNA C. 40%
D. nRNA D. 60%

760. Which of the following is not found in 765. The anti-codon

tRNA? A. contains a sequence the same as the
codon

A. adenine
B. guanine B. contains a sequence complementary
to the codon
C. cytosine
C. contains the base thymine
D. thymine
D. none of above
761. What portion of the DNA molecule makes 766. During the process of , the genetic
up the DNA backbone? message from DNA is transformed into
A. nitrogenous bases mRNA.
B. hydrogen bonds A. transcription
B. translation
C. sugar and phosphate
C. translocation
D. bonds
D. transplantation
762. Where does translation take place in the 767. Cytokinesis begins during which phase of
process of protein synthesis? mitosis?
A. Translation takes place in the nucleus. A. prophase
B. anaphase
B. Tanslation is not part of protein synthe-
C. metaphase
sis
D. telophase
C. Translation occurs in the ribosome.
768. What happens in a point mutation?
D. Translation occurs only when two per-
sons speak two different languages. A. A base is deleted
B. A base is inserted
763. A mRNA is 336 nucleotides long in its cod-
C. A base is duplicated
ing section. What is the maximum num-
ber of amino acids in the protein translated D. A base is substituted
from this mRNA? 769. Carries the amino acid used to make a
A. 112 protein
B. 336 A. mRNA
C. 672 B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. 1008
D. none of above
764. A string of nucleotides that contain the
770. Which of these is DNA being copied into
information to make a specific protein
RNA?
A. Ribose A. Replication
B. Amino Acids B. Transcription
C. tRNA C. Translation
D. Gene D. Mutation

771. CHARACTERISTICS THAT ARE PASSED ON 776. A strand of DNA has 14% adenine. What
FROM PARENTS TO THEIR OFFSPRING is the percentage of guanine?
A. BACTERIA A. 14%
B. CODON B. 36%
C. ANITCODON C. 72%
D. HEREDITY D. 28%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
772. A codon consists of how many nu- 777. If 20% of a DNA sequence is thymine, T,
cleotides what percentage of the sample is made up
A. 1 of cytosine, C?
B. 2 A. 15%
C. 3 B. 30%
D. 4 C. 35%
773. What is the function of the poly-A tail in D. 50%

mRNA?
778. For what purpose do cells undergo DNA
A. to add modified guanin to the 3’ end of replication?
the mRNA
A. To make additional copies of enzymes.
B. to indicate the site of translational ter-
mination
B. To make exact copies of DNA for all
C. to code for the binding of RNA poly- new cells.
merase to the DNA
C. To make high energy molecules in the
D. to help protect the mRNA from degra- form of ATP.
dation by hydrolytic enzymes
D. To make a copy of the DNA to be trans-
774. How does DNA code for proteins in a ported to the ribosomes.
cell?
779. is the passing of traits from parents
A. by creating a new double helix struc- to offspring.
ture
A. Heredity
B. by using its phosphate and sugar
molecules B. Cloning
C. by adding more hydrogen bonds to its C. Deoxyribonucleic Acid, or DNA
structure D. none of above
D. by arranging certain nitrogen bases of
780. The process by which the genetic code
a cell in a particular order
of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is
775. Structure of a DNA strand is called
A. Helix A. Translation
B. Double Helix B. Transcription
C. Intertwined Strands C. Replication
D. Strands D. Transformation

781. Why does the DNA double helix have a 786. Which base, found in DNA, is absent from
uniform diameter? RNA?

A. Purines pair with pyrimidines A. adenine (A)
B. C nucleotides pair with A nucleotides B. thymine (T)
C. Deoxyribose sugars bind with ribose C. cytosine (C)
sugars D. guanine (G)
D. Nucleotides bind with nucleoside
triphosphates 787. Cytosine and Thymine are
A. bases that bond in DNA
782. How many amino acids are found on one
tRNA? B. bases that do not bond in DNA
A. 20 C. held together by nitrogen bonds

B. 4 D. held together by hydrogen bonds
C. 1 788. What would be the complementary DNA
D. 3 strand to the given strand of ATCGTA
A. GCATCG
783. A segment of DNA has this base se-
quence:ACG TAG TCA GTA. Which is the B. TAGCAT
base sequence of the complementary DNA C. ATGCTA
strand? D. CATGAC
A. TGC ATC AGT CAT
789. If a strand of DNA had bases in the fol-
B. CAT GCT GAC TGC lowing order-ATCCGTC, what would be the
C. ACG TAG TCA GTA replicated complementary strand?
D. UGC AUC AGU CAU A. UAGGCAG
784. The nitrogen bases inside DNA are B. ATCCGTC
bonded together by bonds. C. TAGGCAG
A. phosphate D. TUGGCTG
B. nitrogen 790. The process of synthesizing mRNA from
C. hydrogen a DNA template is called:
D. covalent A. transcription
785. Which trait distinguishes DNA from B. translation
RNA? C. transformation
A. DNA contains uracil, while RNA con- D. translocation
tains thymine.
791. What is the three nucleotide sequence
B. DNA contains deoxyribose and RNA found on a tRNA molecule?
contains ribose.
A. anti codon
C. DNA is single-stranded, while RNA is
double-stranded. B. codon
D. DNA converts glucose to ATP, while C. nitrogen base
RNA directs protein synthesis. D. nucleotide

792. This cannot leave the nucleus C. protein synthesis

A. DNA D. translation
B. RNA 798. Insertion, deletion, and substitution are
C. Both all examples of a change in a genetic se-
D. none of above quence which is also referred to as (a)
A. Gene
793. A strand of DNA has the sequence GAT-
TACA. What will be the sequence of the B. Amino Acid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
complementary strand of DNA? C. Ribose
A. ACATTAG D. Mutation
B. GATTACA
799. A strand of DNA is composed of 40%
C. CTATTGA Adenine bases. What percent of bases
D. CTAATGT must be Guanine?
A. 40%
794. Anticodons on tRNA pair with
B. 20%
A. mRNA condons
C. 10%
B. tRNA condons
D. 80%
C. DNA condons
D. amino acids 800. The is a collection of codons of mRNA,
each of which directs the incorporation of a
795. How are genes and proteins related? particular amino acid into a protein during
A. Proteins are made of parts of genes. protein synthesis.
B. Genes contain the code to make pro- A. polypeptide
teins. B. enzyme collection
C. Genes and proteins are both made of C. genetic code
DNA.
D. anticodon
D. Proteins are used to build genes.
801. Which type of mutation would occur if the
796. DNA is copied into RNA in a process DNA sequence ATGGCG became AGGCG?
called
A. substitution
A. replication
B. insertion
B. transcription
C. deletion
C. translation
D. replication
D. transformation
802. Which component of DNA determines the
797. The process by which the sequence of traits of an organism?
bases of an mRNA is converted into the se-
quence of amino acids of a protein is called A. Nitrogen Bases
B. Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
A. transcription C. Hydrogen bonds
B. transformation D. none of above

803. Why is the sequence of A, T, C, G impor- C. 3

tant in DNA? D. 4

A. gives DNA strength
809. How many mRNA bases does the ribo-
B. determines proteins produced
some “read” at one time?
C. defines ability for organism to repro-
A. 2
duce
B. 3
D. allows DNA to unwind
C. 4
804. Doctors diagnose a patient with a non-
lethal mutation that causes no phenotypic D. 6
or genotypic effects. Which type of mu-
810. Which of the following statements best
tation is most likely to cause a nonlethal
summarizes the first step of protein syn-
mutation?
thesis?
A. Duplication
A. mRNA to protein
B. Duplication
B. ribosomes to nucleus
C. Insertion
C. protien to DNA
D. Substitution
D. DNA to mRNA
805. Nucleotides and amino acids are both
811. Most mutations
A. Monomers
A. have no effect on an organism.
B. Polymers
B. are fatal to an organism.
C. Atoms
C. are helpful to an organism.
D. Large Molecules
D. are harmful to an organism.
806. In mRNA, each codon tells you which
the tRNA should get 812. What will be the resulting RNA from this
A. nucleotide DNA sequence:GAT-TAC?
B. amino acid A. CTA-ATG
C. purine B. GAU-UAG
D. pyrimidine C. CUA-AUG
D. CAT-ACA
807. How many bases are found in a codon?
A. 9 813. Means “to write across” The stage of
protein synthesis in which DNA is used as
B. 2
a template to make a complementary sin-
C. 1 gle strand of RNA
D. 3 A. transcription
808. How many nitrogenous bases are there B. translation
A. 5 C. replication
B. 2 D. gene expression

814. In comparison to a DNA strand, mRNA is C. ligase

D. primase
A. shorter and single stranded
820. mRNA gets information from DNA and
B. longer and single stranded carries it out of the nucleus to the ribo-
C. shorter and double stranded some where proteins are assembled. Ev-
ery three bases on a strand of mRNA are
D. longer and double stranded
called
NARAYAN CHANGDER
815. RNA is a A. Amino Acid
A. Single strand B. Anti Codon
B. Double strand C. Codon
C. Triple strand D. None of the Above
D. none of above
821. A change in our genetic material or in-
816. Which of the following is the correct structions can lead to a:
mRNA strand to the following template se- A. trait
quence?GGATCA B. transcription
A. CCTAGT C. mutation
B. AGTCCT D. translation
C. AGUCCU
822. What is the use of the drugs to treat a
D. CCUAGU disease?
817. Which of the following takes the genetic A. Radiation
code from the nucleus to the ribosome? B. Surgery
A. DNA C. Medicine
B. deoxyribose D. Chemotherapy
C. tRNA
823. The process of making a strand of mRNA
D. mRNA from DNA is known as
818. A mutation that involves one or a few nu- A. Replication
cleotides is called B. Transcription
A. a mutagen. C. Translation
B. an inversion. D. Mitosis
C. a point mutation.
824. Which cell activity must occur in order be-
D. a translocation. fore cell divisions like mitosis and meiosis
to take place?
819. In DNA replication, which enzyme is re-
sponsible for adding nucleotides and proof- A. translocation
reading? B. nondisjunction
A. helicase C. DNA replication
B. polymerase D. RNA transcription

825. What is the location in the cell for tran- 830. What forms the backbone of DNA?
scription? A. Nitrogen bases

A. nucleus B. Alternating sugar and phosphate
B. cytoplasm groups
C. ribosome C. Deoxyribose
D. none of above
D. mitochondria
831. Which RNA bases would pair with GGG
826. The side chains of a DNA molecule is made CCC in transcription?
of which two components?
A. CCC GGG
A. deoxyphosphate molecules and de-
B. GGG CCC
oxyribose sugars
C. AAA UUU
B. deoxyphosphate molecules and ribose
sugars D. UUU AAA
C. phosphate molecules and ribose sug- 832. Which of the following is a complicated
ars series of steps that make proteins from
coded instructions in DNA?
D. phosphate molecules and deoxyribose
sugars A. plasmid
827. Transcribe the following sequence of DNA
into RNA:AAG CTT TGC C. ligase
A. TTC GAA ACG
B. UUC GAA ACG 833. Because of base pairing in DNA, the per-
centage of
C. TTC GUU UCG
A. A in DNA is about equal to the percent-
D. UUC GUU UCG age of G
828. A is a group of three bases on a tRNA B. T in DNA is about equal to the percent-
molecule that are complementary to the age of A
three bases of a codon of mRNA C. A in DNA is much greater than the per-
centage of T
A. enzyme group
D. C in DNA is much greater than the per-
B. anticodon
centage of G
C. codon
834. what happens when a codon codes for
D. amino acid chain “stop”?
829. The building blocks of proteins are know A. the DNA stops replicating
as B. tRNA stops adding amino acids to a
A. amino acids growing amino acid chain
C. mRNA stops the process of replication
B. nucleotides
C. alkali acids
D. rRNA stops the process of transcrip-
D. bases tion

835. How many amino acids are coded for 840. Anticodons are attached to which
in the following sequence of mRNA nu- molecule?
cleotides? CGAUACAGUAGC A. mRNA
A. 3 B. tRNA
B. 4 C. rRNA
C. 6 D. DNA
D. 12
NARAYAN CHANGDER
841. New mRNA is made through the process
836. What is located on the 3’ end of DNA? of:
A. Hydrogen A. duplication
B. Phosphate group B. transcription
C. Nitrogenous base C. translation
D. Hydroxyl group D. replication
842. Transgenic organisms are

837. Which sequence of mRNA bases would
pair with this partial strand of DNA:ATG A. The ones that acts as vehicles to trans-
TGA CAG port the DNA
A. ATG TGA CAG B. The ones that join segments of DNA
B. UAC ACU GUC C. The ones that have recieved the new
gene
C. GTA AGT GAC
D. The ones that cut a specific sequence
D. none of above of DNA
838. During the process of meiosis, part of one 843. Transcription takes place in the
chromosome detaches and reattaches to a
different chromosome in the parent cell of A. cytoplasm
an individual. Which of the following mu- B. ribosome
tations has occured? C. mitochondrion
A. Translocation D. nucleus
B. Duplication
844. How are DNA and RNA similiar?
C. Inversion
A. They have nucleotides.
D. Deletion
B. They have the same sugar.
839. All macro-molecules are made of build- C. They have the same bases.
ing blocks called monomers. What are the
D. They are double strands.
building blocks of nucleic acids, like DNA
and RNA, called? 845. An enzyme that breaks the hydrogen
A. nucleotides bonds holding the base pairs together as
it UNWINDS and UNZIPS the double he-
B. nitrogen bases
lix, allowing new nucleotides to bind to
C. sugar-phosphate the single strands by base pairing.
D. A-T-C-G A. ligase

B. RNA polymerase B. CTG AAT

C. DNA Helicase C. GAC UUA

D. DNA polymerase D. CUG AAU
846. The genetic code of an organism is deter-
mined by 851. What amino acid is represented by the
codon UUA?
A. the number of amino acids in its cell
A. Phenylalanine
B. the speed at which polypeptides are
produced B. Tyrosine
C. the shape of ribosomes in its cell C. Leucine
D. the sequence of nitrogen bases in its D. Stop codon
DNA
852. Process by which a DNA template strand
847. If AGCUCGAGU was mutated to ACCUC-
is used to create messenger RNA.
GAGU what would happen?
A. The amino acid sequence would be A. Transcription
shorter. B. Translation
B. The identity of one amino acid would C. Replication
change.
D. none of above
C. The amino acid sequence would re-
main unchanged.
853. Which type of RNA functions as a
D. The identities of all amino acids would blueprint of the genetic code from DNA?
change.
A. mRNA
848. What mode of information transfer does
B. tRNA
not directly occur in the cell?
A. DNA to DNA C. RNA polymerase
B. DNA to RNA D. rRNA

C. DNA directly to Protein
854. How is the shape of DNA described?
D. All of these occur in a cell
A. Single helix
849. The four nitrogenous bases present in an
B. Single stranded
RNA strand are;
C. Double helix
A. uracil, thymine, guanine, and adenine
B. adenine, guanine, cytosine, and D. Round
thymine
855. The process of copying DNA into RNA?
C. adenine, guanine, uracil, and thymine
A. Transcription
D. adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil
B. Translation
850. Transcribe the following DNA strand:CTG
AAT C. Replication
A. GAC TTA D. none of above

856. During replication, which new comple- 861. The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is
mentary strand will be arranged from the part of a gene. How many amino acids
DNA template CGC GTA TCA? are coded for by this message?
A. GCG CAU AGU A. 4
B. GCG CAT AGT B. 8
C. 12
C. GCG CAU AGT
D. 20
D. GTG TAG ATG
NARAYAN CHANGDER
862. Which of the following is not a form of
857. Which of the following holds the original RNA?
coded information for making proteins?
A. tRNA
A. rRNA B. mRNA
B. mRNA C. pRNA
C. tRNA D. rRNA
D. DNA 863. DNA is the principal enzyme involved
in DNA replication.
858. Which describes the process of using a
virus vector and a corrected gene to re- A. Helicases
place a faulty or absent piece of DNA that B. Polymerase
causes a disease? C. Uracil
A. karyotyping D. Purines
B. gene therapy 864. Building units or monomers of Proteins.
C. nondisjunction A. nucleotides
D. DNA fingerprinting B. polypeptides
C. amino acids
859. Which is the DNA complement of ATA
GCG GCC? D. none of above
A. TAT CGC GCC 865. The segments of RNA that are cut out are
called.
B. ATA GCG GCC
A. exons
C. TAT CGC CGG
B. introns
D. UAU CGC CGG
C. morons
860. Bacteria are awesome! They D. none of above
A. produce restriction enzymes 866. Which scientist(s) used x-rays to photo-
B. contain plasmids that can act as graph the helical shape of DNA
cloning vectors A. Franklin
C. can act as a host cell to make human B. Watson and Crick
insulin C. Hershey
D. all of these are correct D. Watson and Franklin

867. What is the role of hydrogen bonds in the which complementary segment of
structure of DNA? mRNA:CGTACTTGATCA
A. GCAUGAACUAGU

A. to code for proteins
B. to synthesize proteins B. CGTACTTGATCA
C. to separate the strands C. Both are incorrect
D. none of above
D. to connect the base pairs
873. Which base is normally used in the syn-
868. DNA has a strand; RNA has a thesis of RNA but not in DNA?
strand.
A. adenine
A. double/double
B. uracil
B. double/triple
C. cytosine
C. double/single D. guanine
D. single/single
874. Which scientists are credited with discov-
869. Which is the correct sequence to making ering the double helix structure of DNA
a protein? A. Franklin and Crick
A. DNA → mRNA → polypeptide chain B. Hershey and Chase
B. DNA → polypeptide chain → mRNA C. Watson and Crick
C. mRNA → DNA → polypeptide chain D. Watson and Franklin
D. polypeptide chain → DNA → mRNA 875. I generally remain in the nucleus [in eu-
karyotic cells].
870. Which of the following changes in DNA is A. DNA
likely to have the greatest effect on the
resulting peptide? B. RNA
C. both
A. in a strand of DNA, one C is changed to
aT D. none of above
B. a G is inserted at the beginning of a 876. Which of the following terms means that
gene in each molecule of DNA made during repli-
C. a G is inserted at the end of a gene cation there is one original strand and one
new strand?
D. in a strand of DNA, one T is changed to
A. Antiparallel
aC
B. Semi-conservative
871. DNA Replication occurs before C. Complementary base-pairing
A. Mitosis D. none of above
B. The Cell Cycle
877. Which RNA brings amino acids?
C. Translocation A. rRNA
D. Transcription B. tRNA
872. In DNA transcription, the follow- C. mRNA
ing segment of DNA would have D. none of above

878. As part of its structure, a known gene B. deoxyribose, thymine, and a phos-
contains the base sequence AATCGA. An phate group
alteration of the sequence to AACCGA is C. ribose, uracil, and a polypeptide
known as
D. ribose, adenine, and thymine
A. deletion
B. disjunction 884. Which of the following RNA molecules is
a copy of a sequence on DNA that has the
C. mutation recipe for one protein?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. segregation A. Cytoplasmic RNA
879. How is the DNA sequence AATTA repli- B. Messenger RNA
cated in a new strand during semiconser- C. Ribosomal RNA
vative replication?
D. Transfer RNA
A. AATTA
B. AATAA 885. Which of the following correctly de-
scribes the parts of a nucleotide found in
C. TTATT DNA?
D. TTAAT A. adenine + phosphate group +
thymine
880. According to Chargaff’s rule, Cytosine al-
ways pair with B. cytosine + phosphate group + gua-
nine
A. Adenine
C. deoxyribose + phosphate group +
B. Uracil
polymerase
C. Thymine
D. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cy-
D. Guanine tosine
881. Which enzyme is responsible for adding 886. What does mRNA stand for?
nucleotide bases during REPLICATION?
A. Transfer RNA
A. Primase
B. Ribosomal RNA
B. DNA Polymerase
C. Messenger RNA
C. Ligase
D. Deoxyribose RNA
D. none of above
887. In which phase does DNA synthesis oc-
882. In DNA, A pairs with T, but in RNA A pairs cur?
with
A. prophase
A. U
B. anaphase
B. C C. telophase
C. T D. interphase
D. G
888. What DNA will pair with the strand CATC-
883. A DNA nucleotide may contain CGATT?
A. deoxyribose, cytosine, and a lipid A. GUAGGCUAA

B. GTAGGCTAA B. sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base

C. CATGGCAA C. sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

D. GTACCGTTA D. sugar, phosphate, protein
889. Where does Translation occur in a cell? 895. The monomers of DNA are
A. Nucleus A. monosaccharides
B. Ribosome B. fatty acids
C. Golgi Apparatus C. amino acids
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum D. nucleotides
890. Which of the following tells the Ribosome 896. Which is a description of an anticodon?
to STOP? A. a set of 3 nitrogen bases
A. UAC B. opposite of a codon
B. UGG C. code on mRNA
C. UGA D. Found on DNA
D. UCA
897. what chart can be used to determine the
891. The process by which RNA is made from amino acid sequence of a protein
DNA A. codon chart
A. synthesis B. triplet chart
B. translation C. amino acid chart
C. transcription D. anti-codon chart
D. replication
898. Transcribe this DNA sequence to
892. Amino acids form a chain to make mRNA:AAACCGGCC
A. ladders A. UUUGGCCGC
B. nucleotides B. TTTGGCGGG
C. protiens C. TTTGGCCGG
D. steak D. UUUGGCCGG
893. A mutation where a different base is 899. Replicate the following strand of
used in the place of another is a DNA:ATG TGA CAG
A. deletion A. ATG TGA CAG
B. insertion B. TAC ACT GTC
C. translocation C. GTA AGT GAC
D. substitution D. CAT TCA CTG
894. What are the three components of a nu- 900. Which of the following show the correct
cleotide in DNA & RNA? flow of genetic information?
A. sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base A. DNA to RNA to Protein

B. Protein to RNA to DNA 906. The synthesis of an RNA strand from a

C. RNA to Protein to DNA DNA template is called
D. DNA to Protein to RNA A. transcription
B. replication
901. What is a promoter?
A. A eukaryotic gene containing se- C. translation
quences of nucleotides. D. synthesis
B. A region of DNA which have specific
NARAYAN CHANGDER
907. The function of tRNA is to
base sequences that signal enzymes to
bind to that region. A. synthesize DNA.
C. A region of DNA with that produces en- B. synthesize mRNA.
zymes. C. form ribosomes.
D. none of above D. transfer amino acids to ribosomes.
902. DNA making RNA is called:
908. A chain of amino acids is called
A. Translation
A. Polymer chain
B. Transcription
B. Polypeptide Chain
C. Transference
C. RNA chain
D. Translocation
D. Protein Synthsis Chain
903. Use Transcription:TAT GGC ATC
909. What is an example of a neutral muta-
A. UAU CCG AUG
tion?
B. AUA CCG UAG
A. None of these
C. GCG AAU CGU
B. a disease
D. none of above
C. a change in eye color
904. A scientist cloned a goat. Which of
D. lactose intolerance
these is a true statement about the cloned
goat? 910. What is the correct amino acid sequence
A. It has new genes and traits for the mRNA code AUGCCA
B. It lacks the genes for reproduction A. Met-Leu
C. It has the genes that are identical to B. Met-Pro
the original goat
C. Tyr-Gly
D. It looks the same but has different
D. Tyr-Pro
genes.
905. Where are the nitrogen bases located on 911. During DNA replication, which enzyme
a DNA molecule? unzips and unwinds the DNA strands?
A. on one strand of the DNA A. Topoisomerase
B. in the center of the two strands B. Ligase
C. on both strands of the DNA C. RNA primase
D. none of above D. Helicase

912. Which displays the correct flow of genetic C. Transcription

information? D. Translation

A. DNA→ RNA→protein
918. Which two scientists are credited with
B. RNA→DNA→ protein
discovering DNA?
C. protein→ RNA→ DNA
A. Hershey and Chase
D. protein→ DNA→RNA
B. Franklin and Crick
913. What type of mutation results when a C. Watson and Crick
single nucleotide is exchanged for a dif-
ferent nucleotide and a stop codon is in- D. Hershey and Franklin
serted?
919. The enzyme that unwinds and unzips the
A. deletion double helix is
B. missense mutation A. DNA polymerase
C. nonsense mutation B. RNA polymerase
D. translocation C. RNA helicase
914. DNA contain instructions for assembling D. DNA helicase
920. What type of gene mutation has oc-

A. nucleosomes. curred here?Normal AGA|TTC|ATA|GCG
B. proteins. AT|AGC|G
C. pyrimidines. A. deletion frameshift
D. purines. B. insertion frameshift
915. Where in the cell does the fist step (tran- C. substitution
scription) of protein synthesis take occur? D. nonsense
A. in the cell membrane
921. What is the name for the coding (por-
B. on the rough ER tion put back together) regions of the pre-
C. in the nucleus mRNA?
D. at the ribososmes A. anticodons
916. Which combination shows the complimen- B. codons

tary base pairing for DNA? C. exons
A. C-A, T-G D. introns
B. C-G, U-A
922. A scientist needs to create an exact copy
C. A-G, C-T of a cell’s DNA. What process is required?
D. T-A, G-C A. differentiation
917. RNA making a protein is called: B. DNA replication
A. Transmutation C. mutation
B. Transferrance D. protein synthesis

923. What determines the order of amino C. destroys amino acids before protein
acids in a protein? synthesis occurs
A. The number of DNA bases D. blocks movement of RNA polymerase
B. The order of phosphates 929. What are the building blocks for DNA?
C. The order of DNA bases in a gene A. carbohydrates
D. How clever the ribosome is B. nucleotides
924. Which process results in two copies of a C. lipids
NARAYAN CHANGDER
double helix of DNA? D. proteins
A. DNA replication
930. A segment of DNA containing 10
B. Transcription molecules of Thymine will also contain 10
C. Translation molecules of what?
D. Chempsynthesis A. Adenine
B. Guanine
925. An RNA polymer is composed of subunits
known as C. Cytosine
A. polysaccharides D. Nucleus
B. ribose molecules 931. The four nitrogenous bases of DNA are
C. nucleotides A. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil
D. uracil molecules
B. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and
926. The job of tRNA is to thymine
A. carry amino acids to the ribisomes C. Adenine, guanine, ribose and deoxyri-
B. carry ribisomes to the ER bose
C. carry glucose to mitochondria D. Adenine, deoxyribose, cytosine, and
D. carry mRNA out of the nucleus uracil
932. Which process involves making a strand
927. are produced when DNA from another
of amino acids, or a protein, from a strand
species is inserted into the genome of an
of messenger RNA?
organism, which then begins to produce
the protein encoded on the recombinant A. replication
DNA. B. translation
A. vectors C. transcription
B. plasmids D. mutation
C. transgenic organisms
933. A tRNA that carries the amino acid me-
D. gene guns thionine pairs with which type of codon?
928. A repressor protein A. serine codon
A. prevents DNA synthesis B. tRNA codon
B. attaches to ribosomes during transla- C. start codon
tion D. anticodon

934. Which enzyme pairs nucleotides together C. RNA → DNA → Protein

during replication and also “proofreads” D. DNA → RNA → Protein
the new DNA strand and corrects any mis-

takes? 940. Which is made during transcription?
A. DNA polymerase A. DNA
B. Ligase B. mRNA
C. Helicase C. rRNA
D. Primase D. tRNA
935. Which is NOT a way RNA differs from 941. The 3 base code in DNA or mRNA, such
DNA? as TAG, is called a
A. Contains a single strand A. ion
B. Contains Uracil (U) instead of Thymine B. exon
(T) C. intron
C. Contains the sugar ribose D. codon
D. Contains an extra nitrogen base 942. What base pairs with T?
936. The monomers of proteins are A. A
A. amino acids B. T
B. nucleotides C. C
C. RNA D. G
D. ribosomes 943. Name the 3 amino acids within a polypep-
tide
937. What nitrogen base is in DNA but NOT
RNA? A. Codon, Anticodon, and mRNA
A. uracil B. TAC, GTA, TGG
B. thymine C. Alaine, Arginine, and Levine
C. guanine D. Answer is not here
D. adenine 944. The process of making mRNA from DNA

is called what?
938. Most mutations
A. Replication
A. are lethal
B. Translation
B. are beneficial
C. Protein Synthesis
C. are harmful
D. Transcription
D. are neutral (no effect)
945. An original DNA segment, TTAGCATGA, is
939. What is the relationship between a pro- mutated to TTAGCATA. What type of gene
tein, a cell, and DNA? mutation has occurred?
A. DNA → Protein → RNA A. point mutation, missense
B. Protein → RNA → DNA B. point mutation, substitution

C. frameshift mutation, insertion 951. What are long strands of DNA that are
D. frameshift mutation, deletion tightly packed together?
A. Gene
946. Where in the cell does the second step of
B. Chromosome
protein synthesis occur?
C. Nucleotides
A. in the DNA
D. DNA
B. in the nucleus
952. Which type of RNA is copied from DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. in the Golgi Apparatus
(transcription) and made in the nucleus?
D. at the ribosome
A. mRNA
947. Where does the process of transcription B. rRNA
take place?
C. tRNA
A. In the cytoplasm
D. none of above
B. At the ribosome
953. What type of bond holds together the
C. In the nucleus
two strands of the DNA double helix?
D. Outside the cell
A. Hydrogen Bond
948. The type of bond that holds bases on nu- B. Peptide Bond
cleic acids together are C. Ionic Bond
A. nitrogen bonds D. Disulfide Bond
B. peptide bonds
954. Stem cells may be used to repair dam-
C. hydrogen bonds aged tissue, what are sources for stem
D. nucleic bonds cells.
A. Umbilical Cord
949. Which has the Human Genome Project
been useful in determining? B. Embryo
A. the gender of an individual C. Bone Marrow
B. the frequency of crossing-over during D. All these choices

meiosis 955. What will be the complementary DNA se-
C. whether a fetus has Down Syndrome quence resulting from the following:GAT-
D. whether individuals could carry genes TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT?
for a certain condition A. CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA
B. GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT
950. Which of the following terms describes
the process of the uptake of recombinant C. CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA
plasmids into bacteria cells? D. CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG
A. rDNA technology
956. How many nitrogen bases are in a
B. transferrence codon?
C. transformation A. 0
D. rDNA plasmid B. 1

C. 3 962. What process uses DNA to form RNA?

D. 20 A. transcription

B. translation
957. Which of the following bases is found
C. replication
only in RNA?
D. none of above
A. Adenine
963. What is a Codon?
B. Guanine
A. 4 base pairs that transfer to amino
C. Thymine acids
D. Uracil B. 3 base pairs that transfer to amino
acids
958. What type of mutation calls for the same
C. 3 base pairs that transfer to DNA
amino acid resulting in the same protein as
the original section of DNA? D. 3 base pairs that transfer to mRNA
A. Missense 964. DNA to DNA:ATG GTC
B. Nonsense A. TAC CAG
C. Frameshift B. AAA GGG
C. UAC CAG
D. Silent
D. ATG GTC
959. Monomers are monosaccharides (sugars)
965. How is “Protein Synthesis” referred to
A. Carbohydrates in Molecular Biology?
B. Lipids A. Chargaff’s Rule
C. Proteins B. Central Dogma
D. Nucleic Acids C. Watson Crick Model

D. Natural Selection
960. If a sample of DNA contains 20% Ade-
nine, how much Guanine is present? 966. Cells must control gene expression so
that
A. 20%
A. their genes will be expressed only
B. 30% when needed
C. 60% B. their genes will always be expressed
D. 80% C. their genes will never be expressed

D. genetic disorders can be corrected
961. One strand of DNA is to the other side
to form its structure 967. What is the correct amino acid sequence
for the mRNA code AUGCCA? (Use chart)
A. Translated
A. Met-Leu
B. Transformed B. Met-Pro
C. Replicated C. Tyr-Gly
D. Transcribed D. Tyr-Pro

968. Which of the following can travel both C. GAC UAU

in the nucleus and into the cytoplasm of
D. GUA ATC
a cell?
A. DNA 974. The process of decoding mRNA to assem-
B. mRNA ble proteins is called
C. tRNA A. translation
D. rRNA B. transcription
NARAYAN CHANGDER
969. Compared to the parent cell after mitosis, C. transformation
daughter cells are- D. replication
A. differentiated
975. In DNA, if there are 18 Adenine then
B. more motile there are 18
C. less specialized
A. Guanine
D. genetically identical
B. Thymine
970. What is the correct sequence of the trans- C. Cytosine
fer of information in most organisms?
D. Adenine
A. protein to DNA to RNA
B. RNA to DNA to protein 976. What part of our cells holds our DNA?
C. DNA to RNA to protein A. cytoplasm
D. RNA to protein to DNA B. cell membrane
971. Which of the following describes the C. nucleus
structure of DNA?
D. ribosomes
A. a twisted ladder called a double helix
B. a single strand called a double helix 977. Where in a DNA molecule would you find
the hydrogen bonds?
C. a circle called a double helix
A. Between the phosphate and sugar
D. two strands called a single helix
B. Between the sugar and nitrogen bases
972. Which type of point mutations are
frameshift mutations?
C. Between the nitrogen bases
A. substitution and deletion
D. At the phosphates
B. deletion and insertion
C. insertion and substitution 978. DNA sequence is ACAGTGC. How would
this be coded on mRNA?
D. substitution only
A. TGTCACG
973. What mRNA bases would match with this
sequence of DNA:C T G A T A B. UGUCACG
A. GAC TAT C. GUGACAU
B. CAG UAU D. CACUGUA

979. Ribose is sugar present in the nucleotide 985. Which of the following is not a difference
A. DNA in DNA and RNA?

B. RNA A. DNA uses Deoxyribose and RNA uses
Ribose
C. Both
D. none of above B. DNA is double stranded and RNA is sin-
gle stranded
980. What gives a protein its unique shape?
C. DNA uses Uracil and RNA uses
A. the unique sequence of amino acids in Thymine
its polypeptide chain
D. DNA uses Thymine and RNA uses
B. the unique folding due to the sequence Uracil
of amnio acids in the polypeptide chain
C. hydrogen bonding & unique interac- 986. The triplet code in DNA such as “GAT”
tions between the ‘R’ groups codes for
D. all of these A. RNA
981. Which process is used to make mRNA B. Amino Acids
from the DNA in the nucleus? C. Proteins
A. transcription
D. Additional DNA
B. translation
C. replication 987. For the original code CTGGAG, what type
mutation is CTGGGG?
D. none of above
A. deletion
982. Where does translation occur in the cell?
B. insertion
A. nucleus
C. substitution
B. cytoplasm on a ribosome
C. Golgi body D. translocation
D. cell membrane 988. This one cuts specific sequence of DNA in

983. Which best describes the shape of a DNA recombinant DNA
molecule? A. Transfer Vectors
A. single helix B. DNA ligases
B. double helix C. Restriction enzymes
C. single strand
D. none of above
D. t-shaped strand
989. if the DNA is ATT CGG TAT what is the
984. The process of transcription occurs in the
mRNA? Transcribe it please
A. TAA GCC ATA
A. Ribosome
B. Cytoplasm B. UAA GGC AUA
C. prokaryotic bacterial C. UAA GCC AUA
D. Nucleus D. TAA GCC ATT

990. What monomers are DNA and RNA con- 996. Consider the DNA sequence below:TAC
sisted of? GCA CTG The sequence was exposed to
A. nitrogen base radiation and formed this mutated se-
quence:TAC GCA GTA CTG What type of
B. nucleotides mutation is this an example of?
C. sugar-phosphate backbone A. addition
D. blood B. substitution
C. point
NARAYAN CHANGDER
991. Which type of mutation has a greater ef-
fect on the resulting protein? D. deletion
A. Point mutation (substitution) 997. Are all mutations harmful?
B. Frameshift mutation A. Yes, they are caused by toxic chemi-
C. They have the same effect cals and radiation
D. Neither affects the protein B. No, all mutations are beneficial
C. Yes, mutations cause fatal diseases
992. What enzyme in the nucleus helps mRNA
form? D. No, some can be useful in a changing
environment
A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA polymerase 998. Scientists produced oil-eating bacteria by
A. making bacteria polyploid.
C. pepsin
B. inbreeding bacteria.
D. nuclease
C. inducing mutations in bacteria.
993. Which of the correct mRNA codon for Ly- D. hybridizing bacteria.
sine? (Use your chart)
A. AAG 999. In RNA transcription the base A pairs
with
B. AAU
A. U
C. AAC
B. G
D. ACG
C. C
994. In RNA, A pairs D. A
A. A 1000. Chains of form
B. U A. chromosomes; bases
C. T B. genes; bases
D. G C. proteins; amino acids
995. A segment of DNA that codes for a pro- D. amino acids; proteins
tein is called a 1001. The central dogma states:
A. Enzyme A. DNA→RNA→DNA
B. Mutation B. RNA→Proteins →DNA
C. Gene C. DNA→RNA→Proteins
D. Complimentary D. Proteins→RNA→DNA

1002. A substance that causes a genetic muta- 1007. Adding or deleting DNA bases and caus-
tion is called a ing the reading frame to shift is called a(n)

A. acid A. Inversion
B. chemical B. Translocation
C. poison C. Substitution
D. Frameshift
D. mutagen
1008. In prokaryotes and eukaryotes, DNA
1003. There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. replication happens
Which of the following is true?
A. before cell divison
A. Several different codons can specify
B. after cell division
the same amino acid.
C. around the histones
B. Each codon specifies a different amino
acid. D. in the nucleus
C. Some amino acids have no link to a 1009. which unzips dna double helix?
codon. A. dna helicose
D. Each amino acid is specified by only B. dna primase
one codon.
C. dna helicase
1004. Before new cells are produced, what D. dna polymerase
process needs to happen?
1010. Which of the following cuts DNA into
A. Transcription small pieces?
B. Translation A. dissolving blue dye
C. DNA Replication B. restriction enzymes
D. Protein synthesis C. surgically cutting DNA under micro-
scope
1005. Which of the following can self replicate D. none of above
(make a copy of itself)?
1011. Which of the following bases is not
A. Glucose found in the nucleotides that make up
B. DNA DNA?
C. Fatty Acid A. adenine
D. Starch B. thymine
C. cytosine
1006. Molecules of DNA are composed of long
D. uracil
chains of
A. amino acids. 1012. During transcription, an RNA molecule is
formed
B. fatty acids.
A. that is double-stranded.
C. monosaccharides.
B. that is complementary to both strands
D. nucleotides. of DNA.

C. that is identical to part of a single 1018. Discovered Bacterial Transformation

strand of DNA.
A. Fredrick Griffeth
D. inside the nucleus.
B. Erwin Chargaff
1013. What separate parts make up a pro- C. Rosalind Franklin
tein?
D. Martha Chase
A. Ribosome
1019. What represents the “building site” or
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. rRNA
place of construction in the house anal-
C. Ribose ogy?
D. Amino acid A. r RNA
1014. Transcribe the following DNA sequence B. m RNA
to the complementary mRNA sequence. C. ribosome
TAC CGG CTG
D. t RNA
A. AUG GCC GAC
B. AUG GCC GAG 1020. Cytosine makes up 38% of the nu-
cleotides in a sample of DNA from an or-
C. AUG CGG GAC
ganism. approximately what percentage
D. GUA GCC GAC of the nucleotides in this sample will be
thymine?
1015. DNA & RNA are which of the follow-
ing? A. 12
A. Nucleic Acids B. 24
B. Amino Acids C. 31
C. Proteins D. 38
D. Carbohydrates 1021. If a mutation occurs in a body cell, will
the trait be passed onto the organism’s
1016. THE SUBUNITS THAT ARE CHEMICALLY
offspring?
BONDED TOGETHER IN PROTEINS
A. AMINO ACID A. No, the trait is in a somatic cell
B. ADENINE B. Yes, the trait is in a somatic cell
C. CHROMOSOMES C. No, the trait must be in a sex cell
D. HYDROGEN D. Yes, the trait is in a sex cell
1017. What is the name of the second step of 1022. Where do nucleotides joined to each
protein synthesis? other
A. transcription A. sugar and phosphate backbone
B. translation B. membranes
C. transportation C. polynucleotide
D. protein synthesis D. adenine to cytocine

1023. How are DNA and RNA molecules C. Amino Acids

alike? D. Lipids

A. They are both double stranded
1029. Which of the following describes a nu-
B. They both contain nitrogen bases. cleotide found in RNA?
C. Their nitrogen bases always pair A-T A. Deoxyribose, phosphate, and thymine
and C-G.
B. Ribose, phosphate, and thymine
D. They are found in the nucleus and at
the ribosomes. C. Deoxyribose, phosphate, and uracil
D. Ribose, phosphate, and uracil
1024. What type of bond holds together the
nitrogenous bases of DNA? 1030. What two parts of a nucleotide do not
A. Hydrogen Bonds change throughout the structure of DNA?
B. Ionic Bonds A. Five-Carbon Sugar and Nitrogen Base
C. Covalent Bonds B. Phosphate Group and Nitrogen Base
D. Carbon Bonds C. Five-Carbon Sugar and Phosphate
Group
1025. A nucleotide does NOT consist of a
D. All components remain the same
A. nitrogen base throughout the DNA structure?
B. 5 carbon sugar
1031. What enzyme builds DNA in DNA repli-
C. phosphate group cation?
D. polymerase A. Helicase
1026. The process by which a cell becomes spe- B. Polymerase
cialized for a specific structure or function. C. Ligase
A. cell multiplication D. Single Stranded Binding Proteins
B. cell division
1032. Which of the following is created in the
C. mitosis nucleus and carries the genetic code to the
D. cell differentiation cytoplasm?
A. DNA
1027. Process by which a protein is made from
RNA B. mRNA
A. Transcription C. tRNA
B. Translation D. rRNA
C. Replication 1033. Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, a
D. none of above phosphate and this
1028. DNA is a polymer made of monomers A. mRNA

called B. tRNA
A. Nucleotides C. Nitrogen Base
B. Proteins D. Peptide bond

1034. DNA is replicated using the model 1040. Enzyme involved in DNA replication that
A. conservative joins individual nucleotides to produce a
DNA molecule
B. dispersive
A. RNA polymerase
C. semiconservative
B. helicase
D. none of above
C. lactase
1035. The main enzyme involved in linking in-
D. DNA polymerase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dividual nucleotides into DNA molecules is
A. DNA Polymearse 1041. DNA is typically found in cells in the
B. Ribose form of a very long strand that is coiled
many times and contains thousands or mil-
C. RNA Polymearse lions of nitrogen bases. Which term best
D. Transfer DNA describes this very long molecule of DNA?
1036. Where does Translation take place? A. chromosome
A. Cytoplasm B. gene
B. Nucleus C. allele
C. Ribosome D. nucleotide
D. Plasma Membrane
1042. DNA has instructions to build
1037. Which of the following is the correct A. operons
transfer of genetic information?
B. mutagens
A. RNA DNA Protein
C. nucleosomes
B. Protein RNA DNA
D. proteins
C. DNA RNA Protein
D. RNA Protein DNA 1043. DNA cannot leave the nucleus therefore
it makes a copy of itself. This process is
1038. What type of nucleic acid carries infor- known as-
mation from the nucleus of a cell to the
cytoplasm? A. transcription
A. DNA B. translation
B. mRNA C. mutation
C. rRNA D. cellular respiration
D. tRNA 1044. This a section of a mRNA:AUG CCA UUG
1039. Write the complementary DNA strand GAA ACG CCGHow many codons are found
for:CGA-TAT-AAC in this strand of mRNA?
A. CGU-AUA-TTC A. 3
B. GCU-UTU-TTG B. 6
C. GCT-ATA-TTG C. 9
D. GCU-AUA-UUG D. 18

1045. In human cells, DNA: B. translation creates proteins here

A. floats freely in the cytoplasm C. the DNA is stored here

B. is found in the nucleus D. new DNA is made by the process of
C. is wrapped within the ribosome replication
D. is circular 1051. What type of bonds hold each amino
1046. Which of the following would be the acid together in a polypetide or protein?
complementary base sequence to this DNA A. hydrogen bonds
strand:TCAGAACTG
B. peptide bonds
A. AGTCTTGAC
C. double bonds
B. CAGTTCTGA
D. carbon bonds
C. TCAGAACTG
D. AGUCUUGAC 1052. The 5 carbon sugar one would find in
RNA.
1047. Contains the bases adenine, uracil, cyto-
A. Deoxyribose
sine and guanine
A. DNA B. Polymerase
B. RNA C. Ribose
C. Both D. none of above
D. none of above 1053. Which of the following is never found in
1048. brings the amino acids to the ribo- DNA?
some. A. deoxyribose
A. mRNA B. uracil
B. tRNA C. thyamine
C. rRNA D. phophate
D. DNA
1054. Ribosomes are made up of sub-
1049. A chemical is applied to cells which pre- units.
vents the formation of RNA. A disruption
A. 4
of this process would most likely have a di-
rect impact on which other process within B. 3
the cell?
C. 5
A. ATP production
D. 2
B. photosynthesis
C. DNA replication 1055. A triplet of mRNA is called a
D. protein synthesis A. codon

B. anticodon
1050. Which of these is NOT true about the
nucleus? C. amino acid
A. transcription takes place here D. peptide bond

1056. Look at your codon chart. What is 1061. During replication, the function of DNA
the RNA sequence for this amino acid polymerase is to:
chain:LYSINE-GLYCINE-STOP A. binds nucleotides together
A. AAA-CCC-UAA B. receives messages
B. AAA-GGG-UAA C. locate replication sites
C. AAG-AUC-CGA D. send messages
D. AAG-GGG-UUU
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1062. Which type of RNA is made in the nu-
cleus?
1057. Where does transcription occur in eu-
karyotic cells? A. mRNA
B. rRNA
A. Nucleus
C. tRNA
B. Ribosome
D. none of above
C. Cytoplasm
D. Rough E.R. 1063. What is TRANSCRIPTION?
A. DNA → mRNA
1058. DNA controls traits through the order of B. mRNA → protein
its
C. DNA → amino acids
A. phosphates
D. amino acid → sugar
B. sugars
1064. Transcription is the production of
C. carbons from
D. nitrogen bases A. protein, RNA
1059. Where is the site of protein synthesis B. RNA, DNA
A. ribosome C. DNA, RNA

D. DNA, protein
B. nucleus
C. chloroplast 1065. Translation occurs in the
D. cytoplasm A. office
B. cytoplasm
1060. Which statement best describes a C. nucleus
gene?
D. cell membrane
A. A gene contains a code for building a
carbohydrate. 1066. When substitution of bases do not
change the protein structure (amino acid)
B. A gene contains chromosomes inher-
this type of mutation is known as
ited during sexual reproduction.
A. Point Mutation-Substitution
C. A gene contains the code for building
a protein. B. Frameshift Mutation-Insertion
D. A gene is the segment of a protein in C. Point Mutation-Silent

the nucleus. D. Frameshift Mutation-Deletion

1067. Deoxyribose is the in DNA. 1073. a gene mutation in which a nucleotide is

A. phosphate group. lost or deleted.

B. sugar. A. insertion
C. nitrogenous base. B. deletion
D. None of the above; DNA is not named C. inversion
after part of the molecule. D. substitution
1068. Transcribe the following DNA se-
quence:AAT TAG GGC TCG 1074. The DNA in a chromosome carries infor-
mation which determines the order of
A. AAT TAG GGC TCG
A. Proteins
B. TTA ATC CCG AGC
B. Sugars
C. UUA AUC CCG AGC
D. TTU UTC CCG UGC C. Amino acids
D. Bases
1069. What sugar helps to make up DNA?
A. ribose 1075. Before mitosis begins, what happens be-
B. deoxyribose fore the nucleus begins dividing?
C. nucleic acid A. The cytoplasm separates.

D. phosphate B. The sister chromatids separate.
1070. Factory for making a protein C. The homologous chromosomes cross

over.
A. mRNA
D. The DNA replicates.
B. ribosome
C. mitochondria 1076. How many amino acids would results
D. none of above from the following:AAU GCA UAG CAC
GAU
1071. Specific proteins produced in a cell are A. 15
directly related to the
B. 5
A. number of mitochondria in the cell
B. types of ribosomes in the cell C. 8
C. sequence of sugars and phosphates in D. Impossible to tell

the cell
1077. The MOST accurate way to determine
D. sequence of nucleotides in the DNA the evolutionary relationship between
1072. During DNA replication, a DNA strand two animals is through the examination of
that has the bases CTAGGT produces a A. common behaviors
strand with the bases
B. similar physical features
A. TCGAAC.
C. DNA or protein sequences of shared
B. GATCCA. genes.
C. AGCTTG. D. fossilized ancestors that they may
D. GAUCCA have in common.

1078. The main difference between the four 1083. Who developed the double helix model
nucleotides that make up DNA is that they of the DNA molecule?
have different A. Darwin
A. sugars B. Watson and Crick
B. uracil C. Franklin & McDevitt
C. bonds D. Hardy & Weinberg
D. bases 1084. Which type of RNA carries amino acids
NARAYAN CHANGDER
to the ribosome during translation?
1079. What is the five carbon ring of sugar in
DNA called? A. rRNA
A. Deoxyribose B. nRNA
C. tRNA
B. Ribose
D. mRNA
C. Glucose
D. Nucleotides 1085. Which of the following sequences best
describes the flow of information that
1080. Scientists have concluded that repeated takes place when a gene directs the syn-
exposure to high doses of X-rays can lead thesis of a cellular component?
to cancer in individuals. How does the X- A. RNA-DNA-RNA-PROTEIN
ray exposure result in cancer? B. DNA-RNA-PROTEIN
A. by mutating the DNA C. PROTEIN-RNA-DNA
B. by damaging the mitochondria D. DNA-AMINO ACID-RNA-PROTEIN
C. by rupturing the plasma membrane 1086. Which of the following is not a nitrogen
D. by damaging the ribosomes base in DNA?
A. Adenine
1081. What type of macro-molecules are DNA
and RNA? B. Cytosine
A. Protein C. Uracil
B. Carbohydrate D. Thymine
C. Nucleic Acid 1087. Write the mRNA for the following

DNA:AAA-GGG-TTT
D. Lipid
A. TTT-CCC-AAA
1082. The DNA and RNA of ALL organisms con- B. UUU-CCC-AAA
tain the same
C. TTT-CCC-UUU
A. adenine, cytosine, guanine, and phos-
D. UUU-GGG-AAA
phate
B. uracil, cytosine, guanine, and sugar 1088. How many amino acids are in a codon?
A. 3
C. thymine, adenine, guanine, and phos-
phate B. 2
D. uracil, phosphate, cytosine, and ade- C. 4
nine D. 1

1089. What is an exon? 1094. During replication, the DNA template

was exposed to show the sequence ACG.
A. section of mRNA that codes for protein
How will the complementary strand be ar-

ranged?
B. section of mRNA that does not code for
protein A. ACG
C. section of tRNA that codes for protein B. CAT
D. section of rRNA that codes for protein C. GTA

D. TGC
1090. Nitrogen bases are held together by-
A. Nitrogen bonds 1095. The genetic code of a DNA molecule is
determined by a specific sequence of
B. Carbon bonds
A. ATP molecules
C. Hydrogen bonds
B. sugar molecules
D. Amino Acids
C. chemical bonds
1091. What is the correct complimentary DNA
D. molecular bases
strand for the following DNA molecule?
ATC GAG
1096. What is NOT a main difference between
A. TAC GAG RNA and DNA?
B. ATC GAG A. The sugar in RNA is ribose, not deoxyri-
C. TAG CTC bose
D. none of above B. DNA is double-stranded

C. RNA has thymine, DNA has uracil
1092. A certain gene codes for a polypep-
tide that is 120 amino acids long. Ap- D. RNA is single-stranded
proximately how many nucleotides long is
the mRNA that codes for this polypeptide 1097. Each set of three bases representing an
likely to be? amino acid on a mRNA molecule known as
?
A. 360
A. tRNA
B. 480
B. nucleotide
C. 40
C. ribosome
D. 30
D. codon
1093. Who were the main scientists that were
involved with the discovery of the struc- 1098. Write the complementary RNA
ture of DNA? strand.ACC GTA TTA CGA GGG
A. Linnaeus and Darwin A. UGG CAU CCU GCU CCC
B. Watson, Crick and Franklin B. UGG CAT CCU GCT CCC
C. Hooke and Van Leeuenhoek C. TGG CAT AAT GCT CCC
D. Edison and Bell D. UGG CAU AAU GCU CCC

1099. Carries amino acids to the ribosome 1104. The sequence of bases in one strand of
A. DNA DNA is AGTC. The sequence of bases in the
complementary strand is
B. tRNA
A. ACTG
C. mRNA
B. GACU
D. rRNA
C. TCAG
1100. What are telomeres? D. CTGA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. extra DNA at the ends of chromosomes 1105. Which organelle is the location where
that code for proteins protein is made?
B. DNA that gets longer with every round A. Ribosome
of replication
B. Nucleus
C. Repeating segments of DNA that get C. Cytoplasm
shorter with every round of replication
D. Nucleotide
D. DNA sequences that are cut out by the
spliceosome 1106. Proteins are made by linking together
A. fatty acids
1101. Which type of RNA brings the informa-
tion in the genetic code from the nucleus to B. nucleotides
other parts of the cell? C. RNA
A. rRNA D. amino acids
B. tRNA 1107. The sugar-phosphate backbone inside
C. mRNA DNA is bonded together by
D. RNA polymerase A. hydrogen bonds
B. nitrogen bonds
1102. When does a polypeptide chain stop
forming? C. covalent bonds
A. when the DNA molecule tells it to D. phosphate bonds
B. when tRNA is released by the ribo- 1108. How many types of RNA are there?
some A. 1
C. when the ribosome reaches a stop B. 2
codon
C. 3
D. when mRNA releases the polypeptide D. hundreds
chain
1109. Three consecutive nucleotides in an
1103. Process of using DNA to make a strand mRNA molecule that specify an amino acid
of mRNA is called is a(n)
A. Translation A. codon
B. Transcription B. anticodon
C. Replication C. amino acid
D. Synthesis D. peptide bond

1110. What is created during transcription? 1116. For RNA, What is thymine replaced
A. tRNA with?

B. DNA A. Uracil
C. mRNA B. mRNA
D. proteins C. tRNA
D. Ribo
1111. Suppose you can read the sequence of
bases on only one strand of the double he- 1117. Which base pairs with A in a DNA
lix. What would you use to figure out the molecule?
sequence on the other strand? A. C
A. central dogma B. G
B. x-ray crystallography C. T
C. Chargaff’s rules D. U
D. base pairing rules
1118. The nucleic acid responsible for bringing
1112. Each organism has a unique combination individual amino acids to the ribosome is
of characteristics encoded in molecules of A. tRNA
A. protein B. DNA
B. enzymes C. mRNA
C. carbohydrates D. rRNA
D. DNA
1119. During semiconservative replication,
1113. How many amino acids can be repre- the DNA sequence ACT results in which
sented by a single 3-base DNA sequence? sequence on the new strand?
A. 1 A. ACT
B. 3 B. TCA
C. 6 C. TGA
D. 8 D. UGA
1114. Where is mRNA transcribed? 1120. Which enzyme is responsible for un-
winding and unzipping DNA for replica-
A. in the nucleus
tion?
B. in the ribosome A. DNA helicase
C. in the protein B. DNA ligase
D. in the chromosome C. DNA polymerase III
1115. How many stop codons are there? D. RNA primase
A. 1 1121. Which of the enzymes were not dis-
B. 2 cussed during transcription?
C. 3 A. ligase
D. 4 B. helicase

C. lipase B. TAC
D. dna polymerase C. UTC
1122. How many different Amino Acids are D. UAC

there? 1127. The building blocks of DNA & RNA con-
A. 15 sisting of a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate
B. 20 group, and a nitrogen-containing base.
A. Monosaccarides
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 22
B. Fatty Acids
D. none of above
C. Nucleotides
1123. During transcription, what mRNA se-
D. Amino Acids
quence would be made from this piece of
DNA:CCG TAA? 1128. In order for DNA instructions to move
A. AUG CUU from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the
cytoplasm of a cell, an RNA copy of a DNA
B. GGC AUU
strand must be made. This process, which
C. GCA ATT takes place in the cell nucleus, is called
D. none of above A. translation
1124. Which of the following are in both DNA B. mutation
and RNA? C. DNA replication
A. ribose, phosphate group, and adenine D. transcription
B. Deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and
1129. What makes up a codon?
guanine
A. 2 amino acids
C. phosphate groups, guanine, and cyto-
sine B. 3 amino acids
D. Phosphate groups, guanine, and C. 2 nucleotides
thymine D. 3 nucleotides
1125. Which of the following is a nucleotide 1130. THE PROCESS OF MAKING PROTEINS
found in DNA? USING THE MESSENGER RNA MOLECULE
A. ribose + phosphate group + uracil A. TRANSLATION
B. deoxyribose +phosphate group+cytosine B. TRANSCRITION
C. REPLICATION
C. ribose + phosphate group + thymine D. MITOSIS
D. deoxyribose + phosphate group + 1131. What is the name of the enzyme used
uracil during DNA replication?
A. RNA polymerase
1126. Which of the following is the correct
tRNA anti-codon for the mRNA codon B. DNA polymerase
AUG? C. DNA helicase
A. AUG D. RNA ligase

1132. What sugar does RNA contain? 1138. Suppose a double-stranded DNA
A. phosphate molecule was shown to have 15% ade-
nine bases. What would be the ex-

B. ribose pected percentage of guanine bases in that
C. fatty acid molecule?
D. Sugra A. 15%
B. 35%
1133. DNA consists of a 5 carbon sugar called
C. 85%
A. Ribose
D. Not enough information
B. Deoxyribose
C. Cytosine 1139. Building blocks of DNA
D. Uracil A. nitrogen bases
B. nucleotides
1134. A clone is
C. phosphates
A. recombinant DNA
D. sugars
B. a transgenic organism
C. plasmid 1140. What enzyme adds base pairs during
replication?
D. genetically identical
A. helicase
1135. What structural problem prevent ade-
nine from pairing with guanine? B. ligase
A. the bases are both short C. DNA polymerase
B. the bases are both long D. Lactase
C. they lack phosphate groups 1141. A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitro-
D. they lack sugar groups gen base form the building blocks of which
organic compound?
1136. What is the role of rRNA in protein syn- A. carbohydrates
thesis?
B. nucleic acids
A. Brings the Amino Acids
C. lipids
B. It is the copied DNA code
D. proteins
C. Reads tRNA
D. Reads mRNA 3 bases at a time 1142. Based on Chargaff’s rule for base pair-
ing, if a DNA molecule contains 30.9%
1137. What is the complementary DNA strand adenine, what is the MOST likely percent-
to this segment of DNA:ATA CCG? age of thymine?
A. ATA CCG A. 19.8%
B. UAU GGC B. 22.2%
C. TAT GGC C. 29.8%
D. AUA CCG D. 17.1%

1143. The conversion of the information in A. the use of living organisms (usually
mRNA into a sequence of amino acids that bacteria) to make a product or solve a
make up a specified protein problem.
A. Transcription B. the use of living organisms to make
money.
B. Translation
C. the use of bacteria to clean spills.
C. Replication
D. the use of living organisms to improve
D. Gene Expression
NARAYAN CHANGDER
agricultural yield.
1144. Which correctly outlined the central 1149. Where does Transcription occur in the
dogma cell?
A. DNA → mRNA → rRNA A. Nucleus
B. DNA → tRNA → protein B. Ribosome
C. DNA → mRNA → protein C. Golgi Apparatus
D. DNA → amino acid → protein D. Endoplasmic Reticulum
1145. In RNA, the nitrogen base replaces 1150. Which enzyme is needed to bring free
that was present in DNA. nucleotides to create a new strand of DNA
A. A, U (adenine, uracil) in DNA replication?
B. C, G (cytosine, guanine) A. DNA helicase
C. U, T (uracil, thymine) B. DNA ligase
D. U, A (uracil, adenine) C. DNA replicase

D. DNA polymerase
1146. Both DNA and RNA contain a five-
carbon sugar. This sugar is 1151. If a gene had two bases in the order of
AC, what would their pairs be?
A. ribose in both DNA and RNA.
A. TG
B. deoxyribose in both DNA and RNA.
B. GT
C. deoxyribose in DNA and ribose in RNA.
C. AG
D. deoxyribose in RNA and ribose in DNA. D. TA
1152. Where is DNA located?

1147. Choose the complementary strand to
the DNA strand below:C G A T G G A T A. ribosome
TC B. cytoplasm
A. CGA TGG ATT C C. nucleus
B. TAG CAA GCC T D. none of above
C. GCT ACC TAA G
1153. Look at your codon chart. The codon
D. ATC GTT CGG A CAA will code for the amino acid
1148. What is the definition of biotechnol- A. Stop

ogy? B. Met

C. glu 1160. The two types of folding in the sec-

D. his ondary structure are
A. alpha-helix & beta-pleated sheets

1154. Translation occurs in the
B. polypeptide & nucleotide
A. nucleus
C. globular & fibrous
B. mitochondria
D. none of above
C. cytoplasm
1161. Which factor most affects the order of
D. golgi apparatus
amino acids in a protein?
1155. The five carbon sugar found in RNA A. the DNA located in the nucleus of the
A. Ribose cell
B. Deoxyribose B. the cell in which the protein is located
C. Glucose C. the amount of ATP available for a cell’s
use
D. Lactose
D. the area in the cell where proteins are
1156. Which process involves making a strand produced
of mRNA, from DNA?
1162. tRNA is involved in
A. Replication
A. carrying amino acids
B. Transcription
B. carrying ribosomes
C. Translation
C. carrying glucose
D. none of above
D. carrying lipids
1157. RNA is different from DNA in
1163. Where does transcription take place in
A. RNA is single stranded the cell?
B. RNA has uracil A. mitochondria
C. RNA has the sugar ribos B. on the ribosome
D. All of these C. in the cytoplasm
1158. Each combination of three nitrogen D. in the nucleus
bases on messenger RNA forms a (an) 1164. What is a restriction enzyme?
A. anticodon A. Enzyme that cuts DNA
B. codon B. Enzyme that add to the DNA strand
C. enzyme C. Enzyme that builds proteins
D. nucleic acid D. Enzyme that breaks down lipids
1159. In RNA, the code word AUG that speci- 1165. DNA passes information to RNA during
fies methionine also serves as a(n) the process of
A. anticodon A. translation
B. stop codon B. transcription
C. termination codon C. transponder
D. start codon D. transtran

1166. Where does protein synthesis (transla- C. Quintification

tion) take place? D. None above.
A. in the nucleus
1172. What is the name of 3 bases on mRNA
B. in the cytoplasm on ribosomes called?
C. outside of the cell A. gene
D. none of the above B. triplet
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1167. Where is DNA found in eukaryotic C. codon
cells? D. anticodon
A. Cytoplasm
1173. What would be the initial result if a DNA
B. Vacuole molecule did NOT replicate accurately?
C. Cell Membrane A. infertility of the organism
D. Nucleus B. incorrect protein synthesis
1168. If there is 30% guanine in an or- C. increase in reproduction rate
ganism’s genome how much thymine is D. immediate death of the organism
present?
1174. What two molecules make up the sides
A. 30% of DNA?
B. 40% A. cytosine and guanine
C. 20% B. purine and pyrimidine
D. 15% C. sugar and phosphate
1169. Another name for GMO (Genetically D. codon and anti-codon
Modified Organism) is
1175. Which of these is NOT a stop codon?
A. Transgenic
A. UAG
B. Transplanted
B. UGG
C. Transducted
C. UAA
D. Plasmid
D. UGA
1170. The end products of cellular respiration
1176. What enzyme assembles the correct
are
bases during transcription?
A. carbon dioxide, water, and ATP
A. DNA Polymerase
B. ATP and light energy
B. RNA Polymerase
C. glucose and oxygen
C. Helicase
D. oxygen and carbon dioxide
D. Ligase
1171. Change or altercation of the genetic ma- 1177. If there were fewer ribosomes in the
terial within the cell. cell, how might that affect the rate of pro-
A. Mutation tein synthesis?
B. Genetic drift A. Rate would increase

B. Rate would decrease 1183. Which portions of mRNA are cut out be-
cause they do not code for proteins?
C. Rate would remain unchanged

A. codons
D. none of above
B. anticodons
1178. What bases should pair with the follow- C. introns
ing strand? GGATT
D. exons
A. GGATT
1184. A mutation that replaces one nitrogen
B. CCTAA
base with a different one is called
C. GCATA
A. substitution
D. TTACG B. insertion
1179. Transfers amino acids to help assemble C. deletion
proteins D. inversion
A. mRNA
1185. Instead of Thymine as a nitrogen base,
B. tRNA RNA has
C. rRNA A. Adenine
D. dRNA B. sugar
C. uracil
1180. The synthesis of a protein from an
mRNA template is called D. phosphate
A. transcription 1186. What kind of RNA makes a ribosome?

B. replication A. mRNA
C. translation B. tRNA
D. synthesis C. rRNA
D. siRNA
1181. In a strand of DNA where is the genetic
code found? 1187. Because there are 64 codons and only
20 amino acids, which of these is true?
A. 5 carbon Sugar
A. more than one codon can make the
B. phosphate group same amino acid
C. Order of nitrogenous bases B. each codon makes a different amino
D. None of the above acid
C. each amino acid is coded for by only
1182. The role of a master plan in a building is one codon
similar to the role of which molecule?
D. we are missing 44 amino acids
A. mRNA
1188. Which of these shows the correct order
B. DNA
for the central dogma of molecular biol-
C. tRNA ogy?
D. rRNA A. DNA to protein to RNA

B. RNA to DNA to protein 1194. What does Guanine pair with?

C. protein to DNA to RNA A. Cytosine
D. DNA to RNA to protein B. Guanine
1189. A strand of DNA has these bases:AGC C. Adenine

CAT GTA TAC What is the complementary D. Thymine
DNA strand?
1195. What is the monomer of DNA and RNA?
A. ACG GAT CTA TAG
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. amino acids
B. TCG GTA CAT ATG
B. nucleotides
C. TGC CTA GAT ATC
C. fatty acids
D. UCG CUA CAU AUG
D. monosaccharide
1190. The end of the growing RNA strand
1196. Which is the correct order of the cell cy-
in transcription to which RNA polymerase
cle?
can add nucleotides?
A. S-G1-M-G2
A. 3’
B. G1-G2-S-M
B. 5’
C. G1-S-G2-M
C. 1’
D. M-G1-G2-S
D. 2’
1197. What kind of bonds form between ade-
1191. For this DNA sequence, TAG ATG GGA nine and thymine and glutamine and cyto-
CTA, which is the amino acid sequence? sine?
(Use your chart)
A. ionic bonds
A. Val-Leu-Leu-Phe
B. covalent bonds
B. Ile-Tyr-Pro-Asp
C. H bonds
C. Glu-Asp-Gly-Ser
D. none of above
D. Ile-Cys-Trp-Asp
1198. What type of bonds hold the nitrogen
1192. What is the complementary mRNA se- bases in the DNA rungs together?
quence for this DNA codon?GGA
A. ionic bonds
A. CCU
B. hydrogen bonds
B. CCT
C. peptide bonds
C. GGT
D. james bonds
D. AAC
1199. Which of the following would cause a
1193. What amino acid always starts the pro- frameshift mutation?insertiondeletionsubsitution
cess of translation?
A. Valine A. 1 and 2
B. Proline B. 2 and 3
C. Serine C. 1, 2, and 3
D. Methionine D. 1 and 3

1200. The order of nitrogen bases determines 1205. What is the complementary base to cy-
what about proteins? tosine in DNA?

A. amino acids A. uracil
B. nucleotides B. thymine
C. codons C. guanine
D. anticodons D. adenine
1206. What enzyme transcribes DNA into

1201. A set of 3 nitrogenous bases on a tRNA
mRNA?
molecule that are complementary to the
bases of a codon on an mRNA molecule is A. DNA polymerase
called B. RNA polymerase
A. a Codon C. helicase
B. gene expression D. rRNA
C. an Anticodon 1207. Largest to smallest
D. protein synthesis A. nucleotide, DNA, chromosome, nu-
cleus, cell
1202. Whose job is it to bring amino acids
from the cytoplasm to the ribosome during B. DNA, chromosome, nucleus, cell, nu-
translation? cleotide
A. rRNA C. cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA, nu-
cleotide
B. mRNA
D. nucleus, nucleotide, DNA, chromo-
C. tRNA some, cell
D. DNA
1208. DNA fingerprinting works because
1203. What would the amino acid sequence A. Most genes are dominant
be from a mRNA with the following se- B. All organisms contain RNA
quence:AUGCAGCAAUGG
C. The most important genes are differ-
A. met-gln-gln-trp ent among most people
B. met-gln-gln-stop D. No two people, except identical twins,
C. tyr-val-val-thr have exactly the same DNA
D. gln-gln-trp 1209. The nucleotide Thymine pairs with
1204. What sentence would represent a point A. Guanine

mutation if the original sentence read “I B. Cytosine
love ripe red strawberries.” C. Adenine
A. I love blueberries. D. Uracil
B. I love wipe red strawberries.
1210. What enzyme proofreads DNA after
C. I lorv ewip ere dstrawberries. replication has occurred?
D. I hate strawberries. A. Ligase

B. Helicase 1216. What makes up the genetic code in

DNA?
C. DNA Polymerase III
A. the phosphate group
D. DNA Polymerase I
B. the nitrogen bases
1211. The anticodon is located on C. the deoxyribose sugar
A. DNA D. the ribose sugar
B. mRNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1217. Who made a 3-D model of DNA after
C. tRNA studying other scientists work?
D. rRNA A. Franklin
B. Watson and Crick
1212. mRNA occurs during this process
C. Chargaff
A. Translation
D. Mendel
B. Transcription
C. Replication 1218. RNA has these 4 nitrogenous bases
D. Delivery A. Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine and Gua-

nine
1213. If Chargaff found that a sample of DNA B. Adenine, Uracil, Cytosine and Guanine
has 20% ADENINE, how much GUANINE
would he have determined to be there?
C. Adenine, Uracil, Thymine and Guanine
A. 30%
B. 20% D. Adenine, Cytosine, Guanine and
Thymine
C. 80%
D. 60% 1219. A mutation where a single nucleotide is
replaced is known as a
1214. The amino acid sequence of a polypep- A. Point mutation (substitution)
tide chain comprises the structure of
the protein. B. Frameshift mutation
A. Primary C. Insertion
D. Chromosomal mutation
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary 1220. What are the complementary bases for
this sequence of DNA:A T G C A T
D. Quaternary
A. UACGUA
1215. Basic building block of protein B. TACGTA
molecules
C. AACCAT
A. amino acid
D. AUTGCT
B. nucleotide
1221. In which process is the creating an
C. nitrogenous base
amino acid chain using the encoded mes-
D. karyotype senger RNA?

A. DNA Replication 1227. How many codons are needed to specify

B. Translation for five amino acids?

C. Transcription A. 3
D. Photosynthesis B. 5
1222. I am a nucleic acid. C. 15
A. DNA D. 30
B. RNA 1228. Which of the following statements is

C. both true about gene regulation in prokary-
otes?
D. none of above
A. Promoters determine whether a gene
1223. In a portion of a gene, the nitroge- is expressed.
nous base sequence is T-C-G-A-A-T. What
mRNA would this sequence make? B. Expressed genes make more DNA.
A. A-C-G-T-A-A C. DNA-binding proteins determine
whether a gene is expressed.
B. A-G-C-U-U-A
D. RNA polymerase regulates gene ex-
C. A-G-C-T-T-A
pression.
D. U-G-C-A-A-U
1229. In RNA processing, the coding sequence
1224. Which form of RNA carries amino acids
that remains in the final mRNA.
from the cytoplasm to the ribosome?
A. Translation
A. amino RNA
B. ribosomal RNA B. Codon
C. transfer RNA C. Transcription

D. messenger RNA D. Exon
1225. A base that is present in RNA but not in 1230. Which enzyme is responsible for bindng
DNA is the Okazaki fragments together on the
A. Thymine lagging strand?
B. Uracil A. DNA ligase

C. Cytosine B. DNA polymerase I
D. Adenine C. RNA primase
1226. During translation, this type of ribonu- D. DNA helicase

cleic acid is responsible for delivering
amino acids to help make a protein. 1231. Base pair for DNA is
A. mRNA A. A-T and C-G

B. rRNA B. A-C and T-G
C. tRNA C. U-A and C-G
D. dRNA D. U-C and A-G

1232. Which most directly affects the se- C. tRNA

quence of amino acids in a protein?
D. rRNA
A. the DNA in the nucleus of the cell
B. the amino acids found in the cytoplasm 1237. Which of the following is the comple-
mentary mRNA strand for this strand of
DNA? ATT-GCG-AGT
C. the type of cell in which the protein is
made A. UAA-CGC-TCA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. the region of the cell in which the pro- B. UAA-GCG-UCA
tein is made C. UAA-CGC-AGT
1233. If a portion of a DNA strand has the D. UAA-CGC-UCA
base sequence ACGACG, what will be the
base sequence of the mRNA strand tran- 1238. “Gene expression or activation” means
scribed?
A. TCGACG A. protein(the trait) is made using DNA’s
B. TGCTGC code.
C. UCGACG B. DNA is replicated
D. UGCUGC C. lipids are stored
1234. The DNA strand below has been cut by D. none of above
a restriction enzyme. If this strand was
put onto a gel, what band numbers would 1239. How many chromosomes are in a human
be shaded in?CTTG|CGATTG|CAGTACGC cell?
A. 4, 6, 8 A. 48
B. 4, 5, 12 B. 23 pairs
C. 6, 8, 2 C. 23
D. 4, 14 D. 21
1235. Recombinant DNA objective is 1240. What kind of sugar is found in DNA?
A. To give a new characteristic A. Glucose
B. To eliminate a characteristic
B. Fructose
C. To give a manipuation
C. Sucrose
D. To eliminate a protein
D. Deoxyribose
1236. Every copy of a particular protein manu-
factured by a cell shows the same incorrect 1241. Who first suggested that DNA is a dou-
amino acid at the same point in its struc- ble helix?
ture. According to the central dogma of A. Franklin and Wilkins
molecular biology, in which structure does
this error originate? B. Miller and Urey
A. DNA C. Watson and Crick
B. mRNA D. Jones and Lambert

1242. Which of the following describes an in- 1247. Sections of DNA that code for proteins
herited trait? are called

A. Baby bears figure out how to climb A. genes
trees quickly B. mRNA
B. Bears learn where the best berries C. amino acids
grow
D. helixes
C. The bear is wet because he’s been
catching salmon. 1248. What does RNA contain that DNA does
D. Bears have thick, shaggy fur not?
A. Thymine
1243. What is the central dogma of biology?
B. Uracil
A. RNA makes DNA and DNA makes a pro-
tein C. Adenine
B. DNA makes proteins and proteins D. Love

make RNA 1249. The complete process by which cells
C. DNA makes RNA and RNA makes a pro- make proteins
tein A. translation
D. RNA makes a protein and DNA B. transcription
1244. What structure in a cell is the site for C. gene expression
making proteins? D. protein synthesis
A. ribosomes
1250. what does rRNA do?
B. mitochondria
A. carry info from genes to ribosomes
C. lysosome
B. carry amino acids to ribosomes
D. Golgi body
C. help with RNA splicing
1245. Identify a similarity between DNA and D. make up ribosomes
RNA.
A. They are both double stranded 1251. Where does replication and transcrip-
tion take place?
B. They both contain nitrogen bases.
A. Cytoplasm
C. Their nitrogen bases always pair A-T
and C-G. B. Nucleus
D. They are found in the nucleus and at C. Ribosome

the ribosomes. D. Plasma Membrane
1246. Rosalind Franklin was the first to sug- 1252. Which of these is part of the description
gest that DNA is of protein?
A. a short molecule A. a folded chain of amino acids
B. the shape of a double helix B. a folded chain of carbohydrates
C. a protein molecule C. a branched chain of fatty acids
D. the genetic material D. a branched chain of nucleic acids

1253. Where in the cell does transcription take 1259. Which of the following is a difference
place? between DNA and RNA?
A. cytoplasm A. DNA contains one strand, RNA con-
B. nucleus tains two
C. ribosome B. DNA contains uracil, RNA contains
D. cytoskeleton thymine
C. DNA contains deoxyribose, RNA con-
1254. Plasmid Activity:what does the LONG
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tains ribose
GREY sequence of DNA represent?
A. plasmid DNA D. DNA is made up of nucleotides, RNA is
not
B. DNA containing insulin gene
C. restriction enzymes 1260. Which type of mutation is expressed in
the following:AUG AGG GUC UUU → AUG
D. none of above
AGG GUC UCU
1255. Which of the DNA strands will code A. Deletion
for the amino acid sequence shown be-
low?Glycine - Serine - Glycine B. Insertion
A. A C T C C T T C T C. Substitution
B. T C T C C G T C G D. none of above
C. C C T C C G T C G
1261. A triplet (3 bases) of mRNA is called a
D. C C T T C G C C T
A. codon
1256. Which of the following would copmlete
the mRNA strand for CAG (DNA) B. anticodon
A. CAG C. amino acid
B. AUG D. peptide bond
C. GUC
1262. Which of the following is not part of a
D. UAC molecule of DNA?
1257. what does dna stand for? A. deoxyribose
A. ribonucleic acid B. nitrogenous base
B. deoxynucleic acid C. phosphate
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. ribose
D. deoxyribose
1263. Which answer represents the correct or-
1258. According to the base pairing rules for
der of protein synthesis?
DNA, the percentage of
A. mRNA→ DNA → protein
A. adenine > thymine
B. adenine = thymine B. protein → DNA → mRNA
C. adenine = guanine C. DNA → mRNA → protein
D. cytosine <guanine D. protein → mRNA → DNA

1264. Which is the organelle that makes pro- B. Chargaff and Crick
teins? C. Watson and Crick and Wilkins

A. Nucleus D. Wilkins and Watson
B. Ribosomes
1270. What type of bonds occur between
C. Rough ER
amino acids?
D. Golgi Apparatus
A. sugar bonds
1265. is a single-stranded nucleic acid that B. ionic bonds
contains the sugar ribose
C. hydrogen bonds
A. DNA
D. peptide bonds
B. tRNA
1271. What prevents the DNA strand from re-
C. RNA
forming once DNA helicase has unwound
D. rRNA and unzipped it?
1266. Which ribosome part contains a tRNA af- A. single nucleotide repeating proteins
ter it has dropped off its amino acid & is B. DNA polymerase I
about to exit?
C. RNA primase
A. A site
D. single strand binding proteins
B. P site
C. E site 1272. Once the DNA is copied into RNA, it goes
to what organelle to begin protein synthe-
D. B site sis?
1267. The sequence of the DNA segment be- A. nucleus
low is part of a gene. How many B. rIbosome
amino acids are coded for by this seg-
ment?ATCAGCGCTGGC C. cytoplasm
A. 4 D. centriole
B. 8 1273. Normal:TTA|CGC|AAG C .This is mu-
C. 12 tation.
D. 20 A. Substitution
B. Frameshift-Insertion
1268. Transcription takes place in the ,
while translation takes place in the C. Inversion
A. cytoplasm; nucleus D. Translocation
B. mitochondria; chloroplast 1274. Which monomers combine to make a
C. nucleus; cytoplasm protein?
D. cell membrane; cellular matrix A. Amino Acids
1269. Scientists given credit for the structure B. Nucleotides

of DNA C. Monosaccharides
A. Watson, Rosalind and Avery D. DNA

1275. The men accredited with discovering the C. GGAUUA

shape of DNA were D. GGUTTU
A. Fred and Barney
1281. Given the sequence of DNA nucleotide
B. Tom and Jerry bases TTAGCCTTG, give the complemen-
C. Watson and Crick tary strand of mRNA produced during tran-
D. Bo and Luke scription.
A. AAAAAAAHH
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1276. What type of bond holds the DNA
strands together? B. AAGGUAGUA
A. hydrogen C. AAUCGGAAC
B. ionic D. AAUTGCCTA
C. nonpolar covalent 1282. I include the base thymine.
D. polar covalent A. DNA
1277. The type of RNA that carries amino B. RNA
acids is C. both
A. mRNA D. none of above
B. tRNA
1283. Which of these substances stores and
C. rRNA transmits the information that specifies
D. DNA the traits of an organism?
A. DNA
1278. How many types of amino acids are
there? B. RNA
A. 15 C. enzymes
B. 21 D. carbohydrates
C. 22 1284. What are the bases that can be found in
D. 20 DNA?
A. adenine, thymine, uracil, cytosine
1279. Which part of DNA determines a per-
sons traits B. thymine, cytosine, phosphate, guanine
A. phosphate
C. cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
B. deoxyribose sugar
D. guanine, thymine, uracil, cytosine
C. ribose sugar
D. nitrogenous base (ATGC) 1285. Which type of RNA delivers the genetic
code to the ribosome?
1280. During DNA replication, what would be
the complementary strand to the original A. rRNA
DNA segment of GCTAAT? B. mRNA
A. CGATTA C. tRNA
B. GGATTAC D. tmRNA

1286. Complete the sentence:Recombinant 1292. Which strand is complementary to the

DNA consists of a of an organism following DNA sequence:ATG-CCC-AAT
and it into a different one.

A. TAC-GGG-TTA
A. gene, inserting, isolating B. UAC-GGG-UUA
B. gene, isolating, inserting
C. ATC-GGG-AAT
C. inserting, isolating, gene
D. none of above
D. isolating, gene, inserting
1293. Which is true about the bases of DNA
1287. A term used to describe a long chain of and RNA?
amino acids produced during translation.
A. RNA has uracil instead of thymine
A. Nucleotide sequence
B. RNA has uracil instead of adenine
B. Polypeptide
C. RNA has uracil instead of guanine
C. Ribosome
D. none of above
D. none of above
1294. Which nitrogen base CAN’T you use dur-
1288. The process by which DNA makes a copy ing transcription?
of itself is called
A. adenine
A. synthesis
B. uracil
B. translation
C. cytosine
C. transcription
D. thymine
D. replication
1295. Transcription takes place
1289. RNA is different from DNA because
A. cytoplasm at ribosomes
A. RNA is single stranded
B. RNA has uracil B. nucleus
C. RNA has the sugar ribose C. golgi body
D. All of these D. outside the cell
1290. When these bond together, they form a 1296. In messenger RNA, each codon specifies
protein a particular
A. Amino Acids A. nucleotide
B. Peptide Bonds B. purine
C. Ribose C. amino acid
D. Nucleotides D. pyrimidine
1291. The anticodon is located on 1297. Where is mRNA made?

A. DNA A. in the nucleus
B. mRNA B. in the ribosome
C. tRNA C. in the mitochondria
D. none of above D. in the vacuole

1298. The process where DNA is transcribed to C. AUGCUU

mRNA happens in what part of the cell? D. none of above
A. Nucleus
1304. Two strands of nucleotides winding
B. Mitochondria
around each other like a twisted ladder is
C. Cytoplasm known as a
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum A. Double helix
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1299. The central dogma of molecular biology B. Helicses
is centered upon the process of protein syn- C. Pyrimidine
thesis, in which the information from DNA
is transcribed and translated, resulting in D. Deoxyribose
multiple amino acids being joined to form
1305. The enzyme that directs the formation
of the correct sequence of mRNA.
A. lipids
A. Helicase
B. proteins
B. Polypeptase
C. carbohydrates
C. RNA Polymerase
D. nucleic acids
D. none of above
1300. What sugar is contained in RNA?
1306. In RNA, uracil takes the place of the
A. Deoxyribose DNA nitrogen base
B. Ribose
A. guanine
C. Sucrose
B. cytosine
D. Sweet n Low
C. thymine
1301. The enzyme DNA Polymerase D. adenine
A. builds up DNA during replication.
1307. Which of the following types of RNA
B. unzips DNA during replication. carries instructions for making proteins to
C. rearranges DNA during replication. the ribosome?
D. nourished DNA during replication. A. mRNA
1302. During transcription, is converted to B. rRNA

C. tRNA
A. sugars; ATP D. All of the above
B. DNA; mRNA
1308. The DNA strand is read in which direc-
C. mRNA; protein tion for TRANSCRIPTION?
D. codons; anticodons A. 3’ → 5’
1303. Which Seq could be found in RNA? B. 5’ → 3’
A. ACCTGT C. 3’ → 3’
B. CGCATT D. 5’ → 5’

1309. Which statement below BEST summa- C. DNA Polymerase

rizes the tole of the DNA molecule in D. RNA Polymerase
cells?

A. guides cell division. 1315. Where is DNA or genes located in the
cell?
B. protects cells from infection.
A. Cytoplasm
C. provides the instructions for making
proteins. B. Chromosomes
D. regulates the chemical processes that C. Ribosomes

provide the cell with energy. D. Nucleus
1310. What process is responsible for healing 1316. What is the DNA sequence for the fol-
cuts? lowing mRNA codons? GCU UAC
A. Reproduction of skin cells A. CGA ATG
B. Transporting of waste by blood B. CGU UTG
C. Signals transported by nerve cells C. GCT TTG
D. Exchange of oxygen in the lungs D. GCA ATC
1311. The results of mutation are 1317. Protein molecules around which DNA is
tightly coiled in chromatin
A. can be bad.
A. Histones
B. can be good.
B. Whey
C. cannot show.
C. Casein
D. can be good, bad or neutral.
D. Hemoglobin
1312. Which of the following carries all of a
living thing’s genetic information? 1318. An RNA molecule is
A. tRNA A. double helix
B. DNA B. always double stranded
C. rRNA C. usually double stranded
D. mRNA D. single stranded
1313. Provide quick energy 1319. Include sugars (ex. glucose) and
starches
A. Carbohydrates
A. Carbohydrates
B. Lipids
B. Lipids
C. Proteins
C. Proteins
D. Nucleic Acids
D. Nucleic Acids
1314. Which enzyme unwinds DNA to be repli-
cated? 1320. The form of RNA that carries amino
acids to the mRNA, where they are joined
A. Ligase together to make proteins. Translates the
B. Helicase 3-letter codon of mRNA to amino acids

A. tRNA 1326. Who discovered that the two strands in

DNA run in opposite directions?
B. rRNA
C. mRNA A. Rosalind Franklin
D. none of these B. Watson and Crick

C. Griffith
1321. RNA has the sugar
D. Hersey and Chase
A. ribose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. deoxyribose 1327. The type of bond that forms between
two amino acids is called
C. glucose
A. nucleic bonds
D. lactose
B. peptide bonds
1322. Which of the following terms refers to
C. hydrogen bonds
the two strands of the DNA double helix
running in opposite directions? D. nitrogen bonds
A. semi-conservative
1328. What RNA is a copy of a gene found on
B. antiparallel DNA?
C. inverted strands A. mRNA
D. perpendicular B. tRNA
1323. In RNA the base T is replaced with C. rRNA
A. U D. cRNA
B. G 1329. Which information transfer doesn’t oc-
C. C cur in a cell?
D. A A. DNA to DNA
B. DNA to Protein
1324. Which nucleic acid contains the base
thymine? C. DNA to RNA
A. DNA D. All occur in a live cell
B. mRNA
1330. Which describes how mRNA is used by
C. rRNA a cell?
D. tRNA A. It is used to transfer genetic informa-
tion.
1325. Transcribe the following piece of
DNA:ATCGTA B. It is used to replicate DNA for mitosis.
A. UAGCAU
C. It is used to check DNA for mutations.
B. TAGCAT
C. ATCGTA
D. It is used to move information to other
D. AUCGUA cells.

1331. An amoeba, a single-celled protist, is ex- 1336. Which molecule travels from the nucleus
posed to a chemical known to cause DNA to the cytoplasm?
mutations. A segment of DNA changes

A. mRNA
from TAC CCC CAT ACG to TAC CCC CCA
TACG. What type of mutation was caused B. tRNA
by the mutagen? C. rRNA
A. base substitution D. DNA
B. insertion 1337. As part of its structure, a known gene
C. inversion contains the base sequence AATCGA. Af-
ter being exposed to UV radiation, the se-
D. deletion quence now reads AATCCGA. This is an ex-
ample of a
1332. In which organelle does translation take
place? A. deletion mutation
B. substitution/point mutation
A. RNA
C. an insertion mutation
B. Chromosome
D. segregation
C. Ribosome
1338. The function of tRNA is to
D. Nucleus
A. produce a copy of mRNA
1333. Where are genes found? B. break the hydrogen bonds of DNA
A. cytoplasm C. transfer amino acids during transla-
B. ribosomes tion
D. separate sister chromatids
C. DNA
D. only some cells 1339. The mRNA codon AAC codes for
A. arginine
1334. How do you know this sequence is
B. isoleucine
RNA:AUGAACUCU
C. aspartic acid
A. Uracil
D. asparagine
B. guanine
1340. How many mRNA nucleotides make up
C. adenine
a codon? ex. (A-U-G)
D. cytosine A. 1
1335. Which molecule controls ALL cell activi- B. 3
ties because it controls what proteins are C. 5
made?
D. 15
A. tRNA
1341. A mutation where a base is left out of
B. DNA a genetic sequence is a
C. mRNA A. translocation
D. rRNA B. deletion

C. insertion 1347. What are mutations that occur when a

nucleotide is added or deleted and it causes
D. substitution
a shift in how the codons are read?
1342. During DNA replication, a complemen- A. point mutations
tary strand of DNA is made for each orig-
B. substitution
inal DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the
original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new C. silent mutations
strand will be D. frameshift
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. TTGCATG
1348. Mutations that occur when one nu-
B. CCTAGCT cleotide is changed into another is a
C. AAGTATC mutation
D. GGATCGA. A. frameshift
B. point
1343. Which one is not a stopping Codon?
C. deletion
A. UAG
D. none of above
B. UAA
C. AUG 1349. Which of the following would be
the complementary base sequence
D. UGA would be complementary to this DNA
strand:CAGGTCT
1344. DNA and RNA share all of the following
bases except: A. CAGGTCT
A. Adenine B. GUCCAGA
B. Cytosine C. GACCAGA
C. Guanine D. GTCCAGA
D. Thymine 1350. Which process turns DNA into mRNA?
1345. The purpose of translation is to make A. rRNA
A. proteins B. tRNA
B. RNA C. Translation
C. nucleotides D. Transcription
D. ribosomes 1351. Changes in pH and temperature can

damage an enzymes active site. What is
1346. How are the DNA strands arranged? this called?
A. parallel A. unreliability
B. anti-parallel B. catalyst
C. perpendicular C. specific
D. irregularly D. Denaturing

1352. Protein Synthesis is often represented 1357. The genetic code determines the order
as:DNA → mRNA → protein. Which of of
the following is step 2 of protein synthe-

A. Bases in a protein
sis?
B. Amino acids in a protein
A. Transcription
C. Amino acids in an mRNA strand
B. Translation
D. Sugars in a DNA strand
C. Replication
1358. Which of the following statements best
D. Respiration
summarizes the second step of protein syn-
1353. Which of the following best defines a thesis?
gene? A. mRNA to protein
A. A diploid cell containing two sets of B. ribosomes to nucleus
chromosomes C. protein to DNA
B. A unit made up of chromosomes that D. DNA to mRNA
control for a specific trait
1359. Which type of RNA functions as a
C. A segment of DNA that codes for a par-
blueprint for the genetic code?
ticular protein
A. mRNA
D. All the other answers are correct.
B. tRNA
1354. Which of the following displays the cor-
C. rRNA
rect order of DNA replication? 1. mRNA
travels to the ribosome2. DNA unzips3. D. RNA polymerase
mRNA is formed4. tRNA brings amino
1360. Which of the following is created di-
acids to form a protein
rectly from DNA?
A. 4-2-3-1 A. tRNA only
B. 2-3-1-4 B. mRNA only
C. 2-4-3-1 C. tRNA and mRNA
D. 4-2-1-3 D. proteins
1355. I include the base uracil. 1361. A codon consists of the bases Ade-
A. DNA nine, Guanine, and Cytosine in that order.
Which amino acid would that code for?
B. RNA
A. Cysteine
C. both
B. Phenylalanine
D. none of above
C. Serine
1356. A promoter is a D. Tryptophan
A. binding site for DNA polymerase
1362. The process of DNA replication occurs
B. binding site for RNA polymerase just before
C. start signal for transcription A. cytokinesis
D. stop signal for transcription B. replication

C. mitosis 1369. A mutation in an organism can be

D. nucleosynthesis A. helpful
1363. What is mRNA’s job? B. harmful
A. carry messages C. has no effect
B. transfer amino acids D. all of the above
C. make proteins
1370. What is the complementary strand for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
the following sequence:ATG TGA CAG
1364. Which type of RNA takes the instruc-
A. ATG TGA CAG
tions from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
A. mRNA B. TAC ACT GTC
B. tRNA C. GTA AGT GAC
C. rRNA D. CAT TCA CTG
D. RNA polymerase
1371. Which of the statements below is
1365. Who was given credit for determining false?
the shape of DNA?
A. The genetic code is overlapping
A. Avery
B. The genetic code is universal
B. Watson and Darwin
C. Watson and Crick C. Degenerate codons specify the same
amino acids
D. Franklin and Crick
D. The genetic code is a triplet
1366. What organelle reads the mRNA and
finds the correct amino acid? 1372. Protein synthesis is a process that uses
A. DNA DNA, RNA and ribosomes to build proteins,
The protein are built from their building
B. Nucleus
blocks. What are the building blocks of
C. Ribosome proteins called?
D. Chloroplast A. nucleotides
1367. In prokaryotes, DNA is located in the B. proteins
A. nucleus
C. amino acids
B. cytoplasm
D. carbohydrates
C. ribosome
D. mitochondria 1373. One thing responsible for your traits is
genetics. What’s one OTHER thing?
1368. Base pair for RNA is
A. How hard your study for school
A. A-T and C-G
B. A-C and T-G B. Environment
C. U-A and C-G C. How you treat other people

D. U-C and A-G D. What your parents look like

1374. What is it when a new cell expresses C. 4

the traits of a heart cell?
D. 6

A. cell division
B. cell replication 1380. The small parts or monomers that make
up proteins are called
C. cell reproduction
A. nucleotides
D. cell specialization
B. amino acids
1375. Where does the process of translation
occur in the cell? C. anticodons
A. Nucleus D. subunits
B. Ribosome 1381. DNA controls the traits of an organism
C. Anywhere through the arrangement of its
D. none of above A. Phosphate molecules
1376. What type of bonds hold together the B. Nucleotides
nitrogen bases in a DNA molecule? C. Chromosomes
A. Nitrogen bases D. Hydroxyl group
B. Nucleotides
C. Amino Acids 1382. What is a possible effect of an error dur-
ing transcription?
D. Hydrogen bonds
A. The virus will enter the lytic cycle.
1377. Mutation of skin cells will most likely
B. The wrong protein will be produced.
result in ?
A. Offspring will have mutated cells C. The DNA will have a missense muta-
tion.
B. Skin cancer
D. The organism will become transgenic.
C. Skin cell will not work properly
D. No change in the functioning of skin 1383. Packs DNA into tiny spaces?
cells A. Chromatin
1378. What is the correct sequence of DNA B. Spindle fibers
that transcribed this RNA sequence?AUG
C. Nucleosome
CCA GAC
A. TAC GGT CTG D. none of above
B. UAC GGU CUG 1384. What aspect of the DNA molecule en-
C. TAC GGU CUG codes hereditary information concerning
an organism’s traits?
D. UAC GGU CTG
A. the molecular mass
1379. The number of nitrogen bases in a codon
is B. the sequence of base pairs
A. 2 C. the distribution of electrical charges
B. 3 D. the folded three-dimensional shape

1385. Translation is best summarized by which 1391. How many amino acids are coded for by
of the following? this segment? AUGCCGUGAGGA
A. mRNA to DNA A. 1
B. DNA to protein B. 6
C. mRNA to protein
C. 4
D. nucleus to ribosome
D. 12
1386. A REGION OF A DNA MOLECULE
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. DOUBLE HELIX 1392. during transcription, what does mRNA
do?
B. DEOXYRIBOSE
C. GENE A. It strings together two complementary
RNA strands
D. HYDROGEN
B. It constructs proteins out of random
1387. Which of the following is an enzymatic amino acids.
protein that acts as DNA glue?
C. It strings together two complementary
A. plasmid DNA strands
D. It delivers DNA’s instructions for mak-
C. ligase ing proteins.
1393. An error in DNA replication can cause
1388. Which of the following bases is NOT
found in RNA? A. mutations
A. Thymine B. cancer
B. Adenine C. genetic variations
C. Guanine D. all of the above
D. Cytosine
1394. The sequence of DNA that contain in-
1389. Which illustration of a chromosomal structions for making proteins are called
change best represents a chromosome mu-
tation known as a deletion? A. genes
A. ABCDEFG-> ABCDEF B. amino acids
B. ABCDEFG-> ABEDCFG C. mRNA
C. ABCDEFG-> ABCDEFGH D. tRNA
D. ABCDEFG-> ABCDEFGKMN
1395. is a type of RNA that combines with
1390. What determines the shape and function proteins to form ribosomes
of a protein?
A. tRNA
A. The type of bases in DNA
B. How the protein folds B. mRNA
C. The number of amino acids C. RNA

D. The order of amino acids D. rRNA

1396. What happens in RNA processing and B. A T U G

where does it occur? C. A T C G

A. 5’ cap and 3’ poly A tail added, in nu-
D. U T C G
cleus
B. 3’ cap and 5’ poly A tail added, in cyto- 1401. What is the science of forensics deal
plasm with?
C. introns cut out and exons reattached, A. Farming (plants and animals)
nucleus B. Crime
D. introns cut out and exons reattached, C. Medical
cytoplasm
D. Computers
1397. In comparison to a DNA strand, a
1402. Which form of RNA reads the instruc-
A. mRNA strand is shorter and single
tions for protein assembly?
stranded
A. amino RNA
B. mRNA strand is longer and single
stranded B. ribosomal RNA
C. mRNA strand is shorter and double C. transfer RNA
stranded
D. messenger RNA
D. mRNA strand is longer and double
stranded 1403. What is the name of the enzyme that
is used to “Unzip” the DNA to begin DNA
1398. Which scientist(s) built the 3D model of replication?
the DNA double helix?
A. Ligase
A. Watson and Crick
B. DNA Polymerase
B. Hershey and Chase
C. Helicase
C. Franklin
D. Primase
D. Char gaff
1404. What two molecules make up the back-
1399. Which diagram correctly models the pro-
bone of DNA?
cess of protein synthesis?
A. Sugar, Phosphate
A. DNA, Transcription, RNA, Replication,
Protein B. Protein, Amino Acid
B. DNA, Replication, RNA, Transcription, C. Phosphate, Amino Acid
Protein D. Sugar, Protein
C. DNA, Transcription, RNA, Translation,
Protein 1405. A segment of DNA called a codes for
a specific .
D. DNA, Translation, RNA, Translation,
Protein A. codon, amino acid
B. allele, trait
1400. Which best represents the sequence of
bases on mRNA? C. gene, protein
A. A U C G D. genome, organism

1406. ? are added to the ends of DNA 1411. mRNA is read into amino acids during
strands to increase the cell’s longevity. what process?
A. 5’ cap A. transcription
B. Poly-A tails B. transfer
C. Topoisomerases C. translation
D. Telomeres D. transition
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1407. DNA is able to control cellular activities 1412. mRNA is analogous to
most directly by regulating the process of
A. the original blueprints
A. meiotic division
B. a copy of the blueprints
B. protein synthesis
C. the finished house
C. active transport
D. the building site
D. selective breeding
1413. is a type of RNA that carries copies
1408. A chromosomal alteration, in which one of instructions for the assembly of amino
or more pairs of homologous chromosomes acids into proteins from DNA to the rest of
fail to separate normally during meiotic the cell
cell division, is know as
A. RNA
A. an addition
B. mRNA
B. crossing over
C. tRNA
C. nondisjunction
D. rRNA
D. translocation
1414. Which of the following is a change in
1409. Which best describes stem cells? the DNA sequence that affects genetic in-
formation?
A. stem cells can only come from em-
bryos A. Mutation
B. stem cells can only come from adult B. replication
bone marrow
C. transcription
C. stem cells do not ever change
D. translation
D. stem cells can develop into different
specialized cells 1415. The synthesis of a new double strand of
DNA begins when the two strands of the
1410. During DNA replication, DNA is made original DNA
into what?
A. are separated by the breaking of hy-
A. mRNA drogen bonds between nitrogen bases
B. amino acids B. acts as a template
C. DNA C. attracts a nitrogen base
D. tRNA D. destroys the entire genetic code

1416. Which of the following flow charts rep- C. Copies of DNA molecules are made.
resents the process of protein synthesis?
D. Transfer RNA is made from messenger
A. RNA → DNA → Protein

RNA.
B. DNA → Protein → RNA
1422. Which sequence could be found in RNA?
C. DNA → RNA → Protein
A. ACCTGT
D. RNA → Protein → DNA
B. CGCATT
1417. Which of these is used to transcribe
mRNA? C. AUGCUU
A. DNA D. GGTACT
B. proteins
1423. If the template strand of DNA is AGATG-
C. rRNA CATC what is the complementary strand?
D. tRNA A. TCTACGTAG
1418. A protein is being assembled when B. CTACGTAGA
A. DNA is being translated. C. AGATGCATC
B. RNA is being transcribed.
D. AGACGTCTA
C. RNA is being translated.
D. DNA is being transcribed. 1424. How many amino acids are used to
make up the all of the proteins in the hu-
1419. A segment of mRNA has the base se- man body?
quence UGU CAA ACU CGA. What is the
A. 16
base sequence of the original DNA seg-
ment? B. 20
A. ACA GUU UGA GCU C. 23
B. TCT GUU UGA GCU D. 46
C. ACA GTT TGA GCT
D. GAG TCC CTG TAC 1425. DNA is important to the cell because it
A. contains the genetic code
1420. Transcription of the sequence TTAAG
produces which sequence? B. makes up the cell membrane
A. TTAAG C. duplicates the DNA helicase
B. UUAAG D. none of above
C. AAUUC
1426. If a DNA strand reads ATT CGT CTA,
D. AATTC
what would the mRNA strand read?
1421. What happens during the process of A. TAA GCA GAT
translation?
B. CGA TGA GUT
A. The cell uses information from mes-
senger RNA to produce proteins. C. UAA GCA GAU
B. Messenger RNA is made from DNA. D. TAA GCA GUT

1427. Makes up the 2 subunits of the ribo- 1432. What is the overall process of making
some. proteins?
A. DNA A. Mitosis
B. mRNA B. replication
C. tRNA C. protein synthesis
D. rRNA D. substitution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1428. DNA is always replicated in the to 1433. The tRNA anticodon GGG carries the
direction. amino acid
A. none of these A. proline
B. 5’ to 3’ B. glycine
C. 3’ to 5’ C. valine
D. either 3’ to 5’ or 5’ to 3’ D. phenylalanine
1429. mRNA being made from DNA in the nu- 1434. Which of the following biomolecule can
cleus is the process of . . . self-replicate?
A. Translation A. Nucleic Acid
B. Replication B. Carbohydrates
C. Transcription C. Proteins
D. Cell Division D. Lipids
1430. What is an example of a genetic muta- 1435. What type of bonds form between base
tion? pairs?
A. An extra nucleotide is added during A. nitrogen
DNA replication. B. peptide
B. An mRNA strand is copied incorrectly. C. hyrdrogen
D. hydrogen
C. A bacterial cell placed in a petri dish
begins to divide uncontrollably. 1436. How many codons:AAU GCG AUG
D. A child does not look like either one of A. 9
its parents exactly. B. 1
1431. A tRNA (#1) attached to the amino acid C. 3
lysine enters the ribosome. The lysine D. 15
binds to the growing polypeptide on the
other tRNA (#2) already in the ribosome. 1437. The process of using RNA to make a pro-
Where does tRNA (#2 move to next? tein is called
A. A site A. Replication
B. P site B. Transcription
C. E site C. Translation
D. exit tunnel D. Cell Division

1438. Which scientists created the 3D struc- B. 30%

ture of DNA: C. 40%

A. Watson and crick D. 60%
B. hershey and chase
1443. Genetic information usually flows in one
C. griffith and chargaff
specific direction. What of the following
D. pauling and franklin best represents this flow?
1439. How many pairs of homologous chromo- A. DNA-Protein-RNA
somes do humans have? ( one homolo- B. DNA-RNA-Protein
gous chromosome is two chromatids put
C. RNA-DNA-Protein
together)
D. Protein-RNA-DNA
A. 23
B. 46 1444. If the DNA gene code was ATTCCGGATG,
mRNA would read:
C. 2
A. ATTGGCCTAC
D. 44
B. TAAGGCCTAC
1440. Which of the following displays the cor-
C. UAAGGCCUAC
rect order of DNA replication? 1. Sugar
and phosphate groups form the side of D. UAACCGGUAC
each new strand2. DNA unzips3. The
bases attach from a supply in the cyto- 1445. A VERY LARGE MOLECULE
plasm4. DNA unwinds A. MICROMOLECULE
A. 4-2-3-1 B. BACTERIA
B. 2-4-1-3 C. MACROMOLECULE
C. 2-4-3-1 D. ORGANELLES
D. 4-2-1-3
1446. What is made during translation?
1441. The anticodon of a particular tRNA A. transfer RNA
molecule is
B. messenger RNA
A. complementary to the corresponding
C. Proteins
mRNA codon.
D. Spanish Rice
B. complementary to the corresponding
triplet in rRNA. 1447. Which is NOT a difference between RNA
C. the part of tRNA that bonds with a spe- and DNA?
cific amino acid. A. RNA is single stranded and DNA is dou-
D. catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme. ble stranded
1442. Katie is analyzing a particular DNA B. RNA contains Uracil, DNA doesn’t
strand that’s composition is 20% adenine. C. DNA has to stay in the nucleus, RNA
Which of the following represents the per- doesn’t
cent thymine? D. RNA has extra proteins attached and
A. 20% DNA doesn’t

7.5 Gene Mutation 1188
1448. Which of the following is a chromosomal 1449. What are the three base segments of
mutation? mRNA called?
A. inversion A. anticodons
B. insertion B. codons
C. point mutation C. triplets
D. substitution D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
7.5 Gene Mutation
1. A DNA strand that originally reads 5’- C. DNA
GATATC-3’ undergoes a mutation that D. It could be any of these
changes it to 5’-GATCATC-3’. This is an
example of what type of mutation? 5. Cells are able to control genes by turning
A. Insertion genes on and off. This process is known
as what?
B. Point mutation
A. Transcription
C. Nonsense mutation
B. Gene expression
D. Deletion
C. Genetic functioning
2. Proteins carry out all of the following cell D. Operator system
functions except:
A. regulating what enters and exits the 6. A type of substitution that results in a pre-
cell. mature short, unfinished protein
B. containing all the cell’s genetic infor- A. Missense
mation. B. Nonsense
C. helping the cell to reproduce. C. Silent
D. providing support and structure for the D. Deletion
cell
7. Mutations are permanent changes in
3. THE BAT PAT THE CAT mutated to THE BAT
ATT HEC AT. What type of mutation shows A. Cell Lifespan
here? B. Proteins
A. Deletion C. Genes
B. Insertion D. DNA
C. Substitution 8. What segments get REMOVED during RNA
D. Inversion Processing?
4. What bio molecule do mutations first man- A. Introns

ifest themselves in? B. Exons
A. mRNA C. DNA
B. Proteins D. tRNA

9. There are two types of gene mutations C. Frameshift Mutation

D. Gene Duplication

A. substitution and expression
B. transcription and translation 15. Normal-GAG-CTC-GAC-AGAMutantGAG-
CTA-CCA-CAG-A
C. point mutation and frameshift
A. no mutation
D. Turtles and X-Men
B. point mutation or substitution
10. Takes place in an organisms body cells and
can therefore affect the organism C. insertion
A. Germ-cell Mutation D. deletion
B. Somatic cell mutation
16. A base-pair substitution that results in a
C. Deletion codon that codes for a different amino
D. Inversion acid.
11. The code for a protein is found in which of A. non-sense mutation

the following cell structures? B. silent mutation
A. in DNA only C. missense mutation
B. in genes only
D. deletion mutation
C. in DNA and genes only
D. in DNA, genes, and chromosomes 17. a substance or agent that can induce ge-
netic mutation.
12. If the codon is “CUU” what would be the
A. carcinagen
complimentary tRNA anticodon?
A. GAA B. mutagen
B. CUU C. insertion
C. GTT D. deletion
D. CAA
18. Normal:TTACGCAAG Mutant:TTACGCAAC .
13. What is a neoplasm? This is mutation.
A. A cluster of cells with the same mis- A. Base Substitution
sense mutation.
B. Base Insertion
B. An individual cell that with a missense
mutation. C. Base Inversion
C. A group of cells that has lost the ability D. Translocation
to regulate their growth and division.
19. Which defines a codon in DNA or mRNA?
D. A new clump of cells.
A. pair of nucleic acid and sugar
14. When a nucleotide is added to a DNA se-
quence, which of the following will occur? B. pair of phosphate and sugar
A. Point Mutation C. three-base code
B. Silent Mutation D. two-base code

20. A type of mutation that changes one nu- B. proto-oncogenes

cleotide and causes a change in ONE amino C. pyrimidine dimers
acid,
D. carcinogens
A. missense
B. silent 26. Identify the gene mutation:Normal-GAG-
CTC-GAC-AGAMutantGAG CTC-CAC-AGA
C. nonsense
A. no mutation
D. frame shift
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. substitution
21. Which organelle is DNA usually found in
C. insertion
when in a Eukaryotic cell?
D. deletion
A. cell membrane
B. cytoplasm 27. What are the four nucleotide bases of
DNA?
C. chloroplast
A. A, C, C, G
D. nucleus
B. A, U, C, G
22. A frameshift mutation ultimately ends up
C. M, R, N, A
affecting the position of the
A. Reading frame D. A, T, C, G
B. Nucleus 28. Enzyme required for transcription is

C. Cytoplasm A. DNA polymerase
D. Centrioles B. Helicase
23. occurs in an organisms gametes, and does C. Ligase

not affect the organism but can be passed D. RNA polymerase
on to offspring.
29. A segment is lost from one chromosome
A. Germ-cell Mutation
and is added to its homologue.
A. inversion
C. Deletion
B. duplication
D. Inversion
C. insertion
24. What is the name of the stretch of DNA D. missive substitution
where RNA polymerase binds? (gene ex-
pression => textbook chapter 8.6) 30. Cri du Chat syndrome is due to
A. operator A. deletion at chromosome 9
B. promoter B. deletion at chromosome 5
C. enhancer C. inversion at chromosome 2
D. origin D. duplication at chromosome 3
25. Which of these do not contribute to the de- 31. DNA:T T A A G G What is the matching
velopment of cancer? mRNA strand?
A. Constitutive genes A. A A U U C C

B. U U A A C C 37. What happens when the Anticodon and

Codon match up
C. A A T T C C

A. the amino acid is delivered
D. T T A A C C
B. the protein is released
32. If one nucleotide is replaced with an incor- C. the mRNA is released
rect one, this is what type of mutation?
D. the rRNA is released
A. Substitution
38. Insertions and Deletions usually cause
B. Deletion what type of mutation?
C. Addition A. Point Mutations
D. Frameshift B. Frameshift Mutations
C. Polyploidy
33. Small segments of DNA that code for pro-
teins are D. none of above
A. mRNA 39. The passing of traits from parents to off-
B. gene spring is
A. heredity
C. chromosome
B. monohybrid cross
D. exon
C. p generation
34. If the DNA sequence “AUGGGACCUCCU” D. none of above
was changed to “AUGGGAAACCUCCU”
this would result in: 40. What is the type of mutation called when
one base replaces another?
A. A point mutation
A. Insertion
B. A silent mutation
B. Substitution
C. A frameshift mutation
C. Inversion
D. none of above D. Deletion
35. Location of ribosome synthesis. 41. Mutation in which a single base is replaced,
A. nucleus potentially altering the gene product.
B. nucleolus A. substitution mutation

B. silent mutation
C. ribosome
C. gene mutation
D. mitochondria
D. frameshift mutation
36. A type of substitution in which a different
42. Disorders resulting from nondisjunction
amino acid is being encoded is called
(such as Down’s Syndrome) occur because
A. Missense A. a gene is duplicated
B. Nonsense B. a chromosome is duplicated
C. Silent C. a gene is rearranged
D. Deletion D. a chromosome is rearranged.

43. Ultraviolet light often causes which type D. because helicase unzips the DNA
of mutation?
49. Genes build that build traits.
B. Pyrimidine Dimers A. chromosomes
C. Methylated DNA B. DNA

D. Cancer C. proteins
44. Which type of mutations are heritable D. mutations
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Mutations in somatic cells 50. A man, who has red-green colorblindness,
B. Mutations in germ line cells and his wife, who is a carrier for color-
blindness, have a colorblind son. What is
C. Mutations in germ line cells and so-
the probability that their next son will also
matic cells are both heritable.
be colorblind?
D. It depends on the specific mutation.
A. 0%
45. What turns on and off prokaryotic genes? B. 25%
A. differentiation
C. 50%
B. environmental changes
D. 100%
C. gene therapy
D. RNA processing 51. a mutation in which one or more pairs of
nucleotides are removed from a gene
46. Which part of mRNA is eliminated during
A. silent mutation
RNA processing?
A. introns B. insertion mutation
B. exons C. deletion mutation

C. Poly-A tail D. missense mutation
D. splicosomes 52. If one nucleotide is removed from the DNA
47. What is a somatic mutation? sequence, this is what type of mutation?
A. Occurs in our sex chromosomes. A. Substitution
B. Gets passed along to offspring. B. Deletion
C. Occurs in cells that don’t get passed C. Addition
along. D. Frameshift
D. none of above
53. Because some amino acids can be coded for
48. Why must transcription occur where DNA by multiple codons, this type of mutation
can be found? is possible.
A. because DNA can’t leave A. Nonsense Mutation
B. because ribosomes are in the nucleus
B. Missense Mutation
C. Degenerate Mutation
C. because DNA polymerase is found
there D. Silent Mutation

54. This is an example of mutation.Original- C. Insertion

GAG-CTC-GAC-AGAMutated-GAG-CTC- D. Translocation
ACA-GA

60. Substitution mutations are also known as
A. no mutation
A. frameshift
B. substitution
B. point
C. insertion
C. insertion
D. deletion
D. deletion
55. In a , one base is changed to a different
base 61. The biomolecule made of amino acids
A. nucleic acid
A. deletion
B. protein
B. substitution
C. carbohydrates
C. insertion
D. none of above
D. none of above
62. A mutation that occurs when one or more
56. Which of the following mutations results of the bases of DNA are added
in a non-functional protein because a stop
codon appeared too early in the mRNA se- A. Substitution
quence? B. Insertion
A. Frameshift C. Deletion
B. Missense D. none of above
C. Nonsense 63. What is the name of the process for chang-
D. Silent ing DNA into RNA?
A. RNA processing
57. one or more nucleotides are added to a
gene B. transcription
C. translation
A. insertion mutation
D. none of above
B. frameshift mutation
C. point mutation 64. How many codons are needed to specify 3
amino acids?
D. substitution
A. 1
58. True or False. Almost every cell in your B. 3
body has a full set of DNA?
C. 6
A. True
D. 9
B. Maybe
65. A permanent change in the DNA sequence
C. False
that makes up a gene.
D. none of above
A. protein
59. Which one is not chromosomal mutation B. error
A. Deletion C. mutation
B. Duplication D. mutagen

66. Name the mutation that happens when an C. It is typically single stranded.
extra base has been added to the sequence D. It has three main distinct types.
of bases.
A. Substitution 72. What types of living organisms have no
genetic material at all?
B. Deletion
A. Insects
C. Inversion
B. Bacteria
D. Insertion
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Plants
67. A mutation that occurs with the change of
one base of the DNA code into another is D. All living organisms have genetic mate-
called rial
A. Substitution 73. Separation of DNA using electric current is

B. Insertion called ?
C. Deletion A. Gel Electrophoresis
D. none of above B. Chromosome painting
C. polymerage chain reaction
68. The process of transcription starts at
D. Restrictive Enzyme Sorting
A. AUG, the start codon.
B. UAA, the start codon. 74. In order for mutations to be passed to off-
C. GUA, the start codon. spring, they must occur in:
D. TAG, the start codon. A. Body cells

B. Somatic cells
69. Normal-AGA-TTC-ATA-GCGMutant-AGA-
TTC-TAG-CG C. Gametes
A. deletion frameshift D. Diploid cells
B. insertion frameshift 75. Which of the following is not an example
C. point mutation or substitution of a point mutation?
D. nonsense A. Silent mutation
70. The study of evolution from a genetic point B. Nonsense mutation

of view C. Missense mutation
A. population genetics D. Frameshift mutation
B. microevolution
76. Frameshift mutation is caused by base
C. gene pool insertion or deletion except in the case
D. allele frequency where the number of base pair involved
is
71. All of the following are TRUE about ribonu-
A. one
cleic acid EXCEPT
B. two
A. It contains the sugar deoxyribose
B. It contains the bases adenine, uracil. C. three
guanine and cytosine. D. seven

77. A mutation in this type of cell can not be 82. If the structure of DNA were likened to a
passed on to offspring ladder, what would make up the “support-
ing structure” (not the “rungs”) of the lad-

A. Gamete
der?
B. Sperm
A. amino acids and sugars
C. Somatic
B. nucleotide bases, including thymine
D. Sex
C. nucleotide bases, including uracil
78. A mutation that stops the production of D. sugar-phosphate molecules
protein too early is called a mutation.
A. nonsense 83. Which of these are not changes to a proto-
oncogene that would contribute to the de-
B. missense velopment of cancer?
C. silent A. retroviral insertions
D. frameshift B. apoptosis
79. Frameshift mutations are the result of C. missense mutations
what occurrence? D. chromosomal translocation
A. A nucleotide-pair substitution
84. Which of these processes begin with an
B. A mutation that changes one amino mRNA molecule?
acid to another.
A. DNA Replication
C. Insertions or deletions that are not a
multiple of three. B. Transcription
D. A mutation that changes an amino acid C. Translation

codon to a stop codon D. None of them
80. Describe the relationship between genes, 85. Genes are located in which part of a cell?
chromosomes, and DNA A. vacuole
A. DNA is made up of pieces of chromo- B. cytoplasm
somes that contain genes.
C. chromosome
B. Chromosomes are regions on a gene
made of DNA D. ribosome
C. Genes are pieces of DNA located on 86. A mutation that changes one amino acid is
chromosomes. called a mutation.
D. DNA is made up of chromosomes A. Nonsense
found on genes. B. Missense
81. A piece of one chromosome breaks off and C. Silent
joins onto another chromosome. D. Frameshift
A. translocation
87. mutation causing incorrect grouping of the
B. gene mutation remaining codons downstream from the
C. deletion mutation
D. missive substitution A. insertion mutation

B. frameshift mutation 93. As a fertilized egg divides, the cells differ-

entiate because they
C. point mutation
D. substitution A. can clump together
B. contain a lipid bilayer
88. Where do mutations most often occur?
C. have specific genes activated
A. Ribosome
D. metabolize sugars rapidly
B. DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. tRNA 94. What does cell differentiation mean?
D. Nucleus A. Process by which a cell absorbs nutri-
ents.
89. If the correct DNA sequence was ACCGAT
but in the current cell it reads ACGGAT, B. Process by which a less specialized
which process had the error? cell becomes a more specialized cell.
A. replication C. Process by which a specialized cell be-

comes a less specialized cell.
B. translation
D. Process by which cells enter the cell
C. transcription cycle.
D. mutation
95. The enzyme that is responsible for proof-
90. Most prokaryotes reproduce through reading the addition of nucleotides during
A. Meiosis replication and fixing any mistakes it finds
B. Apoptosis A. repair system enzyme
C. Metastasize B. DNA polymerase
D. Binary fission C. RNA polymerase

D. DNA mutase
91. determined by dividing the number of a
certain allele by the total number of alleles 96. Mutations usually
of all types in the population
A. Are helpful
A. population genetics
B. Are harmful
B. microevolution
C. Are awesome
C. gene pool
D. allele frequency D. happen spontaneously
92. The condition in which an organism has ex- 97. Are mutations in body cells, like your liver
tra sets of chromosomes is called and blood, heritable (passed on)?
A. Polyploidy A. Yes
B. mutagens B. No
C. mutations C. Sometimes

98. Which of the following sequences of 103. Down syndrome occurs when there is a
processes correctly reflects the central partial or full copy of
dogma?

A. an encrypted file
A. protein synthesis, transcription, trans-
lation B. motor neurons
B. protein synthesis, translation, tran- C. ribosomes

scription D. Chromosome 21
C. transcription, translation, protein syn-
thesis 104. What is the role of mRNA?
D. translation, transcription, protein syn- A. making energy available for cellular ac-
thesis tivities
99. a piece of one chromosome breaks off B. creating bonds to form biomolecules
and attaches to a non homologous chromo- C. producing sugars to assist with repli-
some cation
A. translocation D. providing information to form proteins
B. nondisjunction
C. point mutation 105. Identify the Frameshift Deletion mutation
from the following DNA sequence:ATG CCA
D. substitution AAT
100. the loss of a piece of chromosome due to A. ATG TCA AAT
breakage
B. ATG CCT AAA T
A. Germ-cell Mutation
C. ATC CA AT
C. Deletion D. ATG CCA AAT
D. Inversion 106. An insertion or deletion change to way

DNA or RNA is read so they are called
101. When one base is replaced with another,
mutations.
this is a common type of mutation called
what? A. nonsense
A. Frameshift Insertion B. missense
B. Point C. silent
C. Inversion
D. frameshift
D. Frameshift Deletion
107. Errors during DNA replication, repair or
102. Identify the SUBSTITUTION mutation
recombination can lead to base-pair sub-
from the following original DNA:ATG CCA
stitutions. Such changes are called
AAT
A. A. conditional mutations.
A. ATG TCA AAT
B. ATG CCT AAA T B. A. mutagens.
C. ATC CA AT C. spontaneous mutations
D. ATG CCA AAT D. A. saltatory changes.

108. A mutation that does NOT change the pro- 113. A frameshift mutation:
tein that is produced is called a A. Involves the addition or deletion of one
A. deletion mutation or more nucleotides
B. inversion mutation B. Results in a new codon sequence
C. silent mutation C. Results in a new amino acid sequence
D. transverse mutation
D. All of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
109. What type of gene mutation has occurred 114. A mutation that occurs when one or more
here?Normal gene:G-A-C-T-C-AMutated of the bases of DNA are lost is called
gene:G-A-T-C-T-C-A
A. Substitution
A. Base Substitution B. Insertion
B. Base Deletion C. Deletion
C. Base Insertion D. none of above
D. Base Inversion 115. Changes in the nucleotide sequence of
DNA are called:
110. What type of bonds are forming during
translation? A. Mutations
B. Nondisjunction
A. Peptide bonds
C. Disfigurements
B. Hydrogen bonds
D. Absolute errors
C. Acid bonds
116. change in a DNA sequence that affects ge-
D. none of above
netic information
111. Which of the following provides the best A. point mutation
description of the function of genes? B. gene mutation
A. ridding cells of waste C. mutation
B. producting energy D. silent mutation
C. controlling the production of certain 117. A mutation that changes the “reading
proteins frame” of the DNA sequence is called a:
D. relaying information about the environ- A. Substitution
ment B. Frameshift mutation
112. Cell mutations are ? C. Point
D. Nondisjunction
A. Unnatural and harmful
B. Unnatural and always affect the organ- 118. What part of the tRNA complements the
ism mRNA when the two bond?
A. amino acid
C. Natural and produces genetic diversity
B. D-loop
D. Natural and always affect the organ- C. active site
ism D. Anticodon

119. At which site in the ribosome does tRNA 124. Chromosome mutations affect entire
attach an amino acid to the growing A. Nucleotides
polypeptide chain.

B. Genes
A. A site
C. Codons
B. P site
D. none of above
C. E site
125. Identify the DELETION mutation from the
D. R site following original DNA:ATG CCA AAT
120. How many amino acids are in the A. ATG TCA AAT
protein produced by this DNA se- B. ATG CCT AAA T
quence (NOT counting the STOP com-
C. ATC CA AT
plex)?ATCGTACTGGGTATGTCGGCGTATCGCCA
D. ATG CCA AAT
A. Five 126. A mutation is a-
B. Six A. Change in nucleotides in DNA or a
C. Seven change in amount, number or shape in
chromosomes
D. Nine
B. A change only in nucleotides of DNA
121. The process of making a copy of DNA C. A change only in chromosome amount,
A. Point mutation number, or shape
B. DNA replication D. Something caused by a carcinogen
C. Silent mutation 127. When one nucleotide base is replaced
D. Gene mutation with a different one
A. Substitution mutation
122. When an extra base has been added or
B. Deletion mutation
inserted to the sequence of bases, this is
what type of mutation? C. Insertion mutation
A. Substitution D. Duplication mutation
B. Deletion 128. body cells are called
C. Inversion A. gametes
D. Insertion B. skins cells only
C. somatic cells
123. The production of offspring from a single
eukaryotic parent that does not involve D. sperm cell
the joining of gametes is called The 129. ATTTGAGCC-Original DNAATTGAGCC-
offspring is genetically identical to the par- Mutated DNAThe example above shows
ent. a , which is a mutation.
A. Binary fission A. Insertion-Frameshift
B. Mitosis B. Deletion-Substitution
C. Sexual reproduction C. Deletion-Frameshift
D. Asexual mitotic reproduction D. All of the above

130. What does the lactose do to the Operon? 135. The biomolecule that carries genetic
traits
A. Blocks transcription because of the en-
ergy it provides A. nucleic acid
B. Allows the repressor to be unbind from B. protein
the Operator. C. carbohydrates
C. The lactose binds the lactose and D. none of above
stops transcription 136. contain genes that determine the sex of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Allows for the transcription to speed an individual
A. Sex Chromosome
131. A mutation that changes a single nu-
B. Autosome
cleotide, but does not change the amino
acid created. C. Chromosome Map
A. deletion mutation D. Lethal Mutations
B. gene mutation 137. Original DNA segment:TTACGCAAG
C. silent mutation A. Substitution

B. Insertion
D. point mutation
C. Inversion
132. Any change in the sequence of DNA is D. Translocation
called a
138. A shift in the reading frame of genes are
A. transgenic shift usually caused by an insertion or
B. Single Genotype A. a substitution
C. Monohybrid Trait B. an addition
D. Mutation C. a deletion
D. an operator
133. Which do DNA and RNA have in com-
mon? 139. Adding or deleting DNA bases and caus-
ing the reading frame to shift is called
A. Both are double stranded. Look at this example:THE CAT HATTTH ECA
B. Both contain ribose molecules. THA T
C. Both contain phosphate groups. A. Inversion

B. Translocation
D. Both contain uracil.
C. Substitution
134. Which of these processes happen in the D. Frameshift mutation
on a ribosome in the cytoplasm of a Eu-
karyotic cell? 140. What percent of your genes did you get
from your dad?
A. DNA Replication
A. 25%
B. Transcription B. 50%
C. Translation C. 75%
D. None of them D. 100%

141. The middle piece of the chromosome falls C. Silent

out and rotates 180◦ and then rejoins D. Deletion

A. inversion
147. Identify the Point mutation from the fol-
B. gene mutation
lowing DNA sequence:ATG CCA AAT
C. insertion
A. ATG TCA AAT
D. missive substitution
B. ATG CCT AAA T
142. Involve changes to a triplet resulting in a C. ATC CA AT
different amino acid.
D. ATG CCA AAT
A. translocation
B. missive substitution 148. A mutation that does not affect the pro-
tein at all
C. deletion
D. inversion
B. inversion mutation
143. What is a mutation that does NOT show
C. silent mutation
up through protein function called?
B. inversion mutation 149. This is an example of
C. silent mutation mutation.Original-T-G-A-C-C-AMutated-T-
G-A-G-C-A
A. Substitution
144. When there is an error in a single nu- B. Deletion
cleotide, this is called what type of muta-
tion? C. Insertion
A. Frameshift D. Frameshift
B. Deletion 150. equal to the number of individuals with a
C. Addition particular phenotype divided by the total
number of individuals in the population
D. Point
A. phenotype frequency
145. What is the complimentary mRNA se-
quence to the DNA sequence A-T-T-G-C-A. B. hardy-weinberg genetic equilibrium
A. T-A-A-C-G-T C. gene pool
B. U-A-A-C-G-T D. allele frequency

C. U-A-A-C-G-U 151. Where does the DNA code get changed
D. T-A-A-G-C-U into RNA?
A. nucleus
146. A type of substitution in which no amino
acids change is called mutation. B. cytoplasm
A. Missense C. ribosome
B. Nonsense D. none of above

152. Normal:TTA-CGC-ACG .This is muta- 157. a stop codon is added instead of amino
tion. acid
A. Base Substitution A. missense mutation
B. Base Insertion B. insertion mutation
C. chromosomal mutation
C. Base Inversion
D. non-sense mutation
D. none of above
158. Kinases and cyclins are internal factors
NARAYAN CHANGDER
153. The manifestation of an organism’s ge- that (practice test on Schoology)
netic material in the form of specific traits A. cause apoptosis
is known as
B. control the cell cycle
A. gene expression C. cause cancer cells to break away
B. protein synthesis D. prevent mitosis
C. DNA replication 159. What mutation has occurred
D. mutation here:Original DNA:ACC GTA GGG ATC CGA-
Mutated DNA:ACC GTA GGA TCC GA
154. What would be the result if a gene se- A. Substitution
quence was changed from ACCGAT to ACG-
B. Insertion
GAT?
C. Deletion
A. at most two amino acids would be
changed. D. Mitosis
B. at most, only one amino acid would be 160. One half of a chromosome is called?
changed. A. Chromatin
C. all the amino acids would be changed. B. Telomere
C. Centromere
D. none of above D. Chromatid
155. A piece of the chromosome detches, turns 161. If a single nucleotide were removed from
180 degrees, and reattaches a gene sequence, what would result?
A. A missense point mutation
A. deletion
B. A deletion frameshift mutation
B. duplication
C. An insertion frameshift mutation
C. inversion
D. A silent point mutation
D. translocation
162. What is the type of gene mutation
156. A molecule of DNA is made up of occurred here? Normal-AGA-TTC-ATA-
GCGMutant-AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
A. amino acids and proteins
A. deletion
B. ATP and enzymes B. insertion
C. paired nucleotides C. substitution
D. receptor enzymes D. Inversion

163. A type of mutation that changes one nu- 168. Deletion is

cleotide but does not cause a change in A. the addition of one or more nu-
amino acid.

cleotides.
A. missense B. the removal of one or more nu-
B. silent cleotides.
C. nonsense C. the replacement of one or more nu-
D. frameshift cleotides.
D. when a codons shift nucleotides
164. What would be the immediate result of a are regrouped due to a mutation.
gene mutation in an organism?
A. Better reproductive success 169. Causes death, often before birth
B. Better sugar production A. Sex Chromosome
C. Change in production of a specific pro- B. Autosome

tein C. Chromosome Map
D. Change in health D. Lethal Mutations
165. Insertion is 170. Mutations can be caused by

A. the addition of one or more nu- A. A failure of DNA to copy itself correctly
cleotides.
B. the removal of one or more nu- B. Radiation
cleotides. C. Chemicals
C. the replacement of one or more nu- D. All are correct
cleotides.
D. when a codons shift nucleotides 171. Which of the following environmental fac-
are regrouped due to a mutation. tors is most likely to cause a mutation?
A. Oxygen produced by plants
166. What is true about mutations?
B. Clean Water
A. Cancer is caused by mutations.
C. Deer meat
B. Mutations are never passed to the off-
spring. D. Sunlight exposure
C. Mutations only affect one gene at a 172. A nonsense mutation results in

time. A. A truncated protein
D. Mutations do not help people adapt. B. A slightly altered polypeptide chain
167. Mutagens are C. A shift in the reading frame
A. Organisms that have been mutated or D. The regulatory sequence being al-
changed. tered.
B. Substances that cause mutations. 173. Which of the following double checks
C. New alleles made my mutations. DNA to make sure it was replicated cor-
D. Dangerous traits that can kill a rectly? (G2 checkpoint)
species. A. Repair enzyme

B. Cyclin C. Mitosis
C. RNA Polymerase D. Sexual reproduction
D. Metastasize 179. A molecule that carries or transfers the
amino acid used to make a protein
174. This is an example of
mutation.Original-AGA-TTC-ATA-GCGMutated- A. mRNA
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G B. rRNA
A. deletion C. tRNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. insertion D. none of above
C. substitution 180. What rule applies to DNA?
D. nonsense A. parallel
175. Sometimes a mutation happens and no B. perpendicular

amino acids end up being changed (like C. antiparallel
how ACC and ACG both code for “Threo- D. none of above
nine). What word do you think scientists
use to describe when this happens? It is a 181. What is the end result of a DNA muta-
mutation. tion?
A. Missense A. everything stays the same
B. Nonsense B. new proteins are affected
C. the nucleus explodes
C. Silent
D. nothing
D. Deletion
182. What type of mutation has occurred
176. A break may occur at two points on the here? T-G-A-C-C-A
chromosome and the middle falls out.
A. Point
A. inversion
B. Deletion
B. duplication
C. Insertion
C. insertion
D. Frameshift
D. deletion
183. What makes silent mutations possible?
177. Deletions and Insertions are two of what A. Gene regulation
type of mutation?
B. The degeneracy of the genetic code
A. Frameshift
C. Post transcriptional alterations
B. Silent D. Frameshifts
C. Point
184. Found on , genes determine which
D. Substitution your cells will make.
178. prokaryotic cells are divided by which A. proteins, genes
process? B. chromosomes, proteins
A. Binary fission C. genes, chromosomes
B. Splitting in two D. genes, blastula

185. A change in an organism’s DNA is called 190. Occurs when the DNA change does not al-
ter the amino acid sequence of the polypep-
tide.

A. Translocation
A. Frameshift Mutation
B. Mutation
B. Insertion
C. Error
C. Missense mutation
D. Replication
D. Silent Mutation
186. mutation that shifts the “reading” frame 191. Which of these processes happen in the
of the genetic message by inserting or nucleus of a Eukaryotic cell?
deleting a nucleotide
A. DNA Replication
A. deletion mutation B. Transcription
B. silent mutation C. Translation
C. frameshift mutation D. None of them
D. substitution mutation 192. The addition of one or more nucleotide
base pairs into a DNA sequence
187. A change in the structure of a chromo-
some A. deletion mutation
A. chromosomal mustation B. insertion mutation

C. point mutation
B. non-sense mutation
D. non-sense mutation
C. gene mutation
193. A chromosomal fragment breaks off, flips
D. frameshift mutation
around backwards and reattaches
188. is a chromosomal mutation in which A. Germ-cell Mutation
extra chromosomes are added and can be B. Somatic cell mutation
very beneficial to some plants, making
then sturdier and stronger. C. Deletion
D. Inversion
A. Inversion
B. Polyploidy 194. Imagine that a mutation occurs so that
the codon UAU mutates to UAA. What
C. Hox Genes type of mutation occurs? ACA AUU CGG
D. Transversion UAU GAG UUU AGC
A. Silent mutation
189. Mutations in are heritable, mean-
B. Non-sense mutation
ing they can be passed from parent to off-
spring. C. Deletion
A. Body cells D. Missense mutation
B. Sex cells (gametes) 195. Four different nucleotides are used as

building blocks of DNA. Which of the fol-
C. Hormone cells
lowing can be used to distinguish one nu-
D. Transcription proteins cleotide from another?

A. The nitrogenous base 201. Insertion and Deletion both result in

B. The shape of the deoxyribose sugar A. addition of one or more nucleic acids
C. The length of the phosphate group B. removal of one or more nucleic acids
D. The type of fatty acid C. replacement of one or more nucleic
acids
196. Gene mutations could occur D. frameshift nucleic acids are sepa-
A. during replication rated from their original trio
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. during transcription 202. Substitution is
C. during translation A. the addition of one or more nu-
cleotides.
D. during any of these processes
B. the removal of one or more nu-
197. What part of the DNA molecule is respon- cleotides.
sible for specific traits in an organism? C. the replacement of one or more nu-
A. number of hydrogen bonds that hold cleotides.
the nitrogen bases together D. When a codons shift nucleotides
B. number of carbons in DNA are regrouped due to a mutation.
C. sequence of nucleotide bases 203. When a chromosome undergoes a dele-

tion mutation, information is
D. sequence of phosphates
A. repeated
198. one nucleotide replaces another B. lost
A. translocation C. reversed
B. nondisjunction D. none of above
C. point mutation 204. Which type of gene mutation would most
D. substitution likely lead to the biggest change in the
amino acid sequence?
199. Which of the following is an example of A. Point Mutation in the middle of the
a mutation that can impact humans? gene
A. Brown eyes B. Silent Mutation near the beginning of
B. five fingers on a hand the gene
C. colorblindness C. Insertion near the beginning of the
gene
D. red hair
D. Deletion near the end of the gene
200. Mutations are only passed on to off-
205. A change in the sequence of the nu-
spring when they happen in
cleotides in a gene
A. somatic cells (regular body cells) A. gene mutation
B. gamete cells (egg & sperm) B. mutation
C. prokaryotic cells C. silent mutation
D. the mitochondria D. point mutation

206. The lac operon genes only become ex- 212. Which of the following is NOT a reason
pressed if: cells divide? (read carefully)

A. lactose binds to the repressor A. Surface area-to-volume ratio becomes
B. glucose binds to the repressor too large
C. lactose binds to the operator B. DNA cannot be copied quickly enough

in large cells
D. the repressor binds to the operator
C. New cells are needed for growth
207. In RNA, which base is replaced with D. The cell gets too big to process and
Uracil? transport nutrients
A. Guanine
213. What mutation has occurred here?T-G-A-
B. Thymine C-C-AT-G-A-G-C-A*Hint:You may want to
C. Cytosine transcribe and then use your codon chart.*
D. Adenine A. Point
208. What is the principle role of DNA? B. Frameshift Deletion
A. keep a spiral helix (ladder) shape C. Frameshift Insertion
B. carry the genetic code D. Point Silent
C. provide energy for the cell 214. Which type of substitution mutation
D. remove harmful wastes could be just as harmful as a frameshift
mutation?
209. is the activation of a gene that results A. a silent mutation, which codes for the
in transcription. same amino acid.
A. Gene expression B. a missense mutation, which codes for
B. Eukaryotic expression a different amino acid.
C. Gene technology C. a nonsense mutation, which codes for
D. Prokaryotic expression a premature stop.
D. none of above
210. When homologous pairs of chromosomes
don’t separate from each other during 215. What are amino acids?
meiosis, this is called A. The building blocks of cells
A. translocation B. The building blocks of fats
B. inversion C. The building blocks of proteins
C. nondisjunction D. The building blocks of ribosomes
D. deletion
216. What is CREATED during the process of
211. Cancer is an example of a mutation. translation?
A. Somatic Cell A. mRNA
B. Germ Cell B. tRNA
C. Gamete C. protein
D. Lethal D. energy

217. A piece of a chromosome is copied and re- 222. A change in a SINGLE gene is called:
mains within the chromosome
A. Gene expression
A. deletion
B. Gene mutation
B. duplication
C. Replication
C. inversion
D. Chromosome mutation
D. translocation
223. Generally speaking, males have an XY
NARAYAN CHANGDER
218. Something that causes a mutation is
chromosome, and females have an XX
called
chromosome. However, not everyone is
A. a mutagen born this way. What is it called when
B. a pathogen someone has an XXY chromosomes?
C. an anitgen A. down syndrome

D. the next gen B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Archaeopteryx
219. This type of cell is not yet specialized, but
has the ability to turn into a variety of spe- D. dinosaurs
cialized cell types. It is used in research to
treat a variety of medical ailments and dis- 224. Which of the following is NOT a type of
eases. chromosomal mutations?
A. stem cell A. deletion
B. bone cell B. repetition
C. nerve cell C. duplication
D. gamete D. inversion
220. A mutation occurs when: 225. A frameshift mutation results in
A. A gene is perfectly copied and passed A. the addition of one or more nu-
on to a child. cleotides.
B. There is a mis-copy in a gene passed
B. the removal of one or more nu-
onto a child making the child’s genes dif-
cleotides.
ferent from the parents.
C. the replacement of one or more nu-
C. A chromosome divides, making a copy
cleotides.
D. a shift in the reading frame; nu-
D. A cat walks on six toes instead of five.
cleotides are regrouped due to a mutation
221. A is a protein that binds to the oper-
ator and blocks RNA polymerase 226. Where are mutations found?
A. Regulator A. In the offspring

B. Activator B. In our food
C. Repressor C. In the genes
D. none of above D. In the DNA molecule

227. A chromosome fails to separate from its 232. Which gene mutation would lead to no
homologue during meiosis change in the resulting amino acid se-
quence?

A. translocation
A. Substitution
B. nondisjunction
B. Point
C. point mutation
C. Silent
D. substitution
D. Frameshift
228. Non-disjunction involving the X chromo- 233. Which of the following is true of of malig-
somes occurs during oogenesis and pro- nant tumors? (practice test on Schoology)
duces two kinds of eggs, XX and O (no
A. They do not require treatment.
X chromosomes). If normal sperms fertil-
ize the two types of eggs, which are the B. They are easily removed through
possible genotypes produced? surgery.
A. XX AND XY C. They can cause tumors in other parts

of the body.
B. XYY AND XO
D. They contain cells that stay clustered
C. XXY AND XO together.
D. YY AND XO 234. Which of the following is an example of
a beneficial mutation?
229. A physical or chemical agent that can
cause a change in DNA is called what? A. When an organism’s lifespan becomes
shorter.
A. Gene Expression
B. When an organism becomes unable to
B. Protein reproduce.
C. Mutagen C. When an organism’s body becomes de-
formed.
D. mRNA
D. When an organism develops immunity
230. chemical or physical agents in the envi- to a disease.
ronment are called
235. If one nucleotide is inserted into the DNA
A. glycogens sequence, this is what type of mutation?
B. mutagens A. Substitution
C. polution B. Deletion
C. Addition
D. none of above
D. Frameshift
236. Identify the gene mutation:NORMAL-
here? TGA-CCATGA-CA
GCA-TTA-CGCMUTTER-CCA-TTA-CGC
A. Base Substitution
A. insertion
B. Base Deletion B. deletion
C. Base Insertion C. insertion frameshift
D. none of above D. substitution

237. Replacing the amino acid serine with the 242. Assembles RNA during transcription
amino acid glycine would be an example of A. RNA Polymerase
which of the following mutations?
B. Mutations
A. Frameshift
C. Gene Expression
B. Missense
D. Point Mutation
C. Nonsense
243. What segments are KEPT (and eventually
D. Silent
NARAYAN CHANGDER
get expressed in the resulting protein) dur-
ing RNA Processing?
238. Which of the following is a correct state-
ment: A. Introns
B. Exons
A. When DNA is mutated, it shows imme-
diately in your body C. DNA
B. When DNA is mutated, the cell immedi- D. tRNA
ately dies
244. What type of gene do cancer researchers
C. When DNA is mutated, our cells can fix often “turn off” in order to study cancer?
the mutation A. proto-oncogense
D. none of above B. oncogenes
239. In evolution, mutations are a source of C. constitutive genes
random D. tumor supressor genes
A. variation 245. Organisms whose DNA is NOT in a nu-
B. illness cleus are
C. defects A. bacteria
D. traits B. fungi
C. plants
240. How do you know when to STOP trans-
D. none of above
lating a strand of mRNA?
A. look for STOP on the decoder 246. Hydroxylamine is a mutagen. It converts
cytosine to a compound which pairs up
B. stop at the end of the strand with adenine. If DNA is treated with hy-
C. you don’t droxylamine, the mutation which results is
an example of a base
D. when Ms. H tells me to
A. deletion
241. A nonsense mutation produced B. insertion.
A. stop codon C. inversion.
B. wrong amino acid D. substitution.
C. A shift in the reading frame 247. Something that causes a mutation is
D. The regulatory sequence being al- called a-
tered. A. Mutagen

B. Carcinogen 253. How does the formation of a new allele

C. DNA mutation (version of a gene) happen?

D. Chromosomal mutation A. With a mutation of an existing allele
248. What mutation has occurred here?TGA- B. Disfunction of the ribosomes

CCATGA-GCA C. A new allele is inserted into the organ-
A. Substitution ism
B. Deletion D. none of above
C. Insertion 254. A geneticist found that a particular muta-
D. Frameshift tion had no effect on the polypeptide en-
coded by a gene. This mutation probably
249. Specialized cells in our body express
involved:
(textbook pg 148)
A. all of the genes contained in the cell’s A. Deletion of one nucleotide
DNA. B. Alteration of the start codon
B. approximately 90% of the genes it pos- C. Insertion of one nucleotide
sess.
D. Substitution of one nucleotide
C. basal regulated genes released by the
brain. 255. When the spliceosome binds to a pre-
D. only specific genes it needs to carry mRNA transcript, where does it typically
out its function. attach?
A. to the exons
250. What is the most common DNA repair
mechanism B. to the 5’UTR
A. Apoptosis C. to the 3’UTR
B. Nucleotide Excision Repair D. at certain sequences along an intron
C. Methyl Directed Mismatch Repair
256. A cell with the ability to turn on any of
D. Ames Test
its genes
251. When a substitution occurs and there is a A. Somatic
change to one amino acid in the sequence
it is called B. Gamete
A. missense C. Stem
B. nonsense D. Nerve
C. silent
257. the chromosomes that are not directly in-
D. exciting volved in determining the sex of an indi-
vidual
252. What causes mutations to happen?
A. Sunlight A. Sex Chromosome
B. Food B. Autosome
C. Genes C. Chromosome Map
D. Allele D. Lethal Mutations

258. . In sickle-cell anaemia, B. The mutations are corrected before

A. valine is substituted with proline. translation
B. valine is substituted with glutamic acid. C. The reading frame is not affected
D. none of above
C. glutamic acid is substituted with pro-
line. 264. A piece of one chromosome detaches and
reattaches to a different chromosome
D. glutamic acid is substituted with va-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
line. A. deletion
B. duplication
259. any substance that produces cancer.
C. inversion
A. carcinagen
B. mutagen D. translocation
C. insertion 265. Which one is not chromosomal aberra-

D. deletion tion
A. Deletion
260. A base pair substitution can result in all
of the following except B. Duplication
A. Missense mutation C. Insertion
B. Frameshift Mutation D. Translocation
C. Silent Mutation
266. gene mutation in which a single base pair
D. Nonsense mutation in DNA has been changed
261. the substitution removal or addition of a A. deletion mutation
single nucleotide
B. point mutation
A. translocation
C. silent mutation
B. nondisjunction
D. gene mutation
C. point mutation
D. substitution 267. What does a gene do?
A. Controls sugar production
262. What is the type of mutation that hap-
pens when a base has been added to the B. Controls production of a gas
sequence of bases?
C. Controls reproduction
A. Substitution
D. Controls production of proteins
B. Deletion
C. Inversion 268. Without mutations, we would not have
in species, which results in evolution.
D. Insertion
A. males and females
263. In silent substitution mutations, how is it
B. variation
possible that no amino acids are changed?
C. offspring
A. Several codons (3-base sequences)
can make the same amino acid D. cancer

269. What is one of the reasons why gene reg- cells carry oxygen, which becomes more
ulation is important? difficult for people who have sickle cell
anemia. Is this mutation harmful, benefi-

A. They prevent genetic disor-
der/disease. cial, or neutral?
B. To ensure all available genes in the cell A. harmful

are expressed. B. beneficial
C. So that only the required genes for C. neutral
each specialized cell expressed.
D. none of above
D. Gene regulation is how your brain re-
places DNA 275. What system does the cell use to correct
mutations that are constantly occurring in
270. Identify the gene mutation:NormalAGC- your DNA?
TTA-CGT-AAAMutantACT-TAC-GTA-AA
A. DNA repair
A. insertion frameshift
B. Frameshift mutation
B. deletion frameshift
C. Point mutation
C. insertion
D. Allele fix
D. nonsense
276. When several genes are affected by a mu-
271. What kind of mutation is the result of a tation, it is probably a result of a mu-
base deletion? tation.
A. Silent Mutation A. Mutagen
B. Missense mutation B. Chromosomal
C. Nonsense mutation C. Point
D. Frameshift mutation D. Harmful
272. A point substitution can result in all of the
277. diagram that shows the linear order of
following except
genes on a chromosome
A. Sex Chromosome
B. Frameshift Mutation
B. Autosome
C. Silent Mutation
C. Chromosome Map
D. Nonsense mutation
D. Lethal Mutations
273. In a cell, gene mutations affect:
278. One possible result of chromosomal
A. the production of nucleic acids. breakage can be that a fragment reat-
B. the production of lipids. taches to the original chromosome in a re-
verse orientation. This is called
C. the production of carbohydrates
A. deletion.
D. the production of proteins.
B. inversion
274. Sickle cell anemia is a condition that
causes red blood cells to change from C. disjunction
round to a half-moon shape. Red blood D. translocation

279. Which of the following are known muta- C. having a finger that is double-jointed
gens? D. having blue eyes
A. Ultra Violet radiation
284. A cell in Gap 1 has 4 chromosomes. How
B. Viruses many chromosomes would be present dur-
C. Some chemicals and toxins like those ing prophase for the same cell?
found in tobacco smoke and vape juice. A. 2
D. All of these are known mutagens. B. 4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
280. What mutation has occurred C. 6
here:Original DNA:TCA GGA CTA ATG AAA- D. 8
Mutated DNA:TCA GGA CAT AAT GAA A
285. What type of biomolecule does DNA pro-
A. Substitution
vide the instructions for building?
B. Insertion
A. proteins
C. Deletion
B. carbohydrates
D. Meiosis C. lipids
281. A mutation that still produces the same D. all of the above
amino acid is called a mutation.
286. The gene product is
A. nonsense
A. Promoter, Operator, Gene, Terminator
B. missense
C. silent B. Polypeptide Chain
D. frameshift C. DNA
282. Scientist plan to analyze DNA to iden- D. Oncogenes
tify species. What technology would they
287. If below is the wild-type DNA sequence,
use?
which one shows a point mutation?5’-
A. Gel Electrophoresis ATTCGC-3’
B. Microscopes and DNA Staining A. 5’-AATTCGC-3’
C. Spectrometry and Gas Chromatogra- B. 5’-ATCCGC-3’
phy
C. 5’-ATCGC-3’
D. Blood Typing
D. 5’-ATTCGC-3’
283. Which of the following would be a bene- 288. Many mutations are caused by:
ficial effect of a mutation?
A. Environmental factors
A. a weakened immune system which pre-
vents you from fighting off illness B. Natural causes
B. improved resistance to drought condi- C. Cellular disfunction

tions in corn plants D. Copying errors

7.6 The Genetics of Viruses and Bacteria 1215
7.6 The Genetics of Viruses and Bacteria

1. What provides direct energy for the 6. Can a virus be good?
virus?
A. Only when it kills my enemies
A. food
B. Naw, son
B. its host
C. maybe
C. the sun
D. yes, when a scientist uses it for gene
D. a parasite therapy
2. How many Domains are currently in the 7. What is the lytic and lysogenic cycle have
tree of life? in common?
A. one A. The host cell dies
B. two B. The virus dies
C. three C. The virus inserts its genetic informa-
tion into the host cell
D. six
D. copies of the virus are immediately re-
3. The whiplike tail on some bacteria that leased from the host
help them move
8. Genetic material in cells is
A. Nucleoid
A. DNA
B. Pili
B. nucleus
C. Flagella
C. energy
D. Cilia
D. protein
4. What part of a virus is the protein cap-
sule that houses the genetic material 9. The organism that a virus enters and uses
(DNA/RNA)? is called a
A. tail A. host
B. nucleus B. parasite
C. capsid C. guest
D. glycoprotein D. brujeria
5. A virus invades and reproduces inside a liv- 10. The cycle of a viral infection followed repli-
ing cation through the cells is called
A. bacteria A. lysogenic
B. DNA B. lytic
C. animal C. metabolic
D. cell D. none of these

11. Which of these is an animal virus? 17. Influenza infects a cell and causes it to lyse
A. Tobacco mosaic virus immediately. Which type of virus is in-
fluenza?
B. bacteriophage
A. Lytic
C. influenza
B. Lysogenic
D. none of above
C. Bacterial
12. go through the lytic cycle and are con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sidered to be nonliving.
A. viruses 18. is when members of the same species
B. bacteria cells have differences.
C. Archaea cells A. variation
D. prokaryotes B. adaptation
13. Viruses are not alive because they do not C. natural selection
D. evolution
A. have DNA
19. Most bacteria are surrounded by a strong
B. release energy structure that acts like a shield for the
C. reproduce virus called the ?
D. have protein A. Cell Wall
14. The ability of bacteria to survive even af- B. Cell Membrane

ter antibiotic treatment is called C. Protein Coat
A. cellular respiration D. none of above
B. endospore formation
20. Why are advantageous traits more likely
C. antibody resistance to be passed onto offspring?
D. antibiotic resistance A. Because they are more likely to sur-
15. Which domain contains all organisms that vive and reproduce.
have a nucleus? B. Because they come from dominant al-
A. Archae leles.
B. Bacteria C. Because they come from recessive al-
leles.
C. Eukarya
D. Because the trait is an acquired pheno-
D. Protista
type.
16. What 2 domains are the most closely re-
lated? 21. Viruses destroy
A. Bacteria/ Archeabacteria A. all cells
B. Archeabacteria/ Eukarya B. host cells
C. Eukarya/ Bacteria C. prokaryotic cells
D. Animalia/ Bacteria D. any organism it comes in contact with

22. is a type of bacterial reproduction that C. cell membrane

involves two bacteria sharing genetic in- D. ribosomes
formation on plasmids via a pilus.

A. Transduction 28. Bacteria are called because their ge-
netic material is not contained in nuclei.
B. Transformation
C. Conjugation A. carbohydrates
D. none of above B. proteins

C. eukaryotes
23. Viruses can be good when used for
D. prokaryotes
A. Spreading influenza
B. Creating Bacteriophages 29. Why do doctors suggest people get a flu
C. Making other viruses vaccine every year?
D. Gene Therapy A. Flu viruses replicate more rapidly over

time
24. Viruses are considered nonliving because
B. Flu viruses can mutate from year to
they-
year
A. cannot multiply
C. Vaccines are absorbed by the body af-
B. use energy to grow ter a year
C. are smaller than bacteria D. Vaccines get stronger over time
D. do not show all of the characteristics
of life 30. Viruses
A. have many cells
25. is used to prevent viral diseases while
are used to kill bacteria . B. are misfolded proteins
A. vaccine; antibiotics C. are a protein coat around genetic ma-
B. antibiotics; vaccine terial
C. antibiotics; antibiotics D. endospores
D. none of above 31. What is the 1st step of virus infection?
26. Bacteria cells share which of the following A. Entry
organelles in common with plant and ani- B. Attachment
mal cells?
C. Replication
A. cell membrane, RER
D. Assembly
B. cell wall, mitochondria
C. nucleus, ribosomes 32. AIDS, influenza, and Ebola are examples
D. ribosomes, cytoplasm of diseases caused by microbes called-
A. viruses
27. Bacteria cells have all of the following EX-
CEPT which? B. parasites
A. mitochondria C. bacteria
B. genetic material D. fungi

33. Symptoms of HIV do not show up immedi- 39. What do viruses have in common with liv-
ately because the virus can ing cells? They both
A. stay dormant for years A. store genetic information
B. mutate quickly B. have chloroplasts
C. stay outside the cell for a long time C. use glucose for cellular respiration
D. none of above D. have endoplasmic reticulum
34. The process of breaking down sugars to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
get energy is called 40. HIV is an example of which type of virus?
A. Photosynthesis A. Lysogenic
B. Fermentation B. Bacterial
C. Heterotroph C. Lytic
D. Autotroph D. None of the above
35. A is made of genetic material and a 41. A man with hemophilia (a recessive, sex
protein coat. linked condition) has a daughter of normal
A. virus phenotype. She marries a man who is nor-
B. bacterium mal for the trait. If the couple has four
sons, what is the probability that all four
C. archaea will be born with hemophilia?
D. protist A. 1/2
36. is when every member of a species has B. 1/4
died.
C. 1/8
A. evolution
D. 1/16
B. extinction
C. adaptation 42. Which of the following lists Linnaean tax-
D. variation omic grouping in the correct order from
general to specific?
37. Reasons that viruses are considered to be A. phylum, order, family, genus
nonliving is because
B. kingdom, order, class, phylum
A. They are not cellular
B. They cannot reproduce on their own C. family, phylum, genus, species
C. They cannot make proteins D. class, order, species, genus

D. all of the above 43. is a type of bacterial reproduction
38. When a virus invades a living cell, its that involves bacteria absorbing DNA frag-
takes over the cell’s functions. ments from the environment.
A. outer coat A. Transduction

B. genetic material B. Transformation
C. core C. Conjugation
D. cytoplasm D. none of above

44. The host range of a virus is determined by C. Nucleus

A. the enzymes carried by the virus. D. RNA

B. the enzymes produced by the virus be-
fore it infects the cell. 50. a virus is a cell.
C. the proteins on its surface and that of A. bigger than

the host. B. smaller than
D. whether its nucleic acid is DNA or RNA. C. the same size as
45. Ants belong to the kingdom of organ- D. another word for
isms.
A. protista 51. What do viruses have in common with liv-
ing cells? They both
B. fungi
A. store genetic information
C. plantae
B. have chloroplasts
D. animalia
C. use glucose for cellular respiration
46. Bacteria reproduce by which is when
one cell splits into 2 identical cells. D. have endoplasmic reticula
A. budding 52. Which statement is true about viruses?
B. binary fission A. Viruses can eat and metabolize food.
C. conjugation
B. Viruses can reproduce only using a
D. sexual reproduction host cell.
47. Bacteria have short, fine, hairlike ap- C. Viruses can reproduce on their own at
pendages called any time.
A. plasmids D. Viruses contain DNA, so they are alive.
B. flagella
53. Viruses that enter cells and immediately
C. spirillia begin to multiply are
D. fimbriae A. Multiplicative Viruses
48. Semi conservative B. Active Viruses
A. Replicated DNA contains one parent C. Hidden Viruses
strand and 1 new one
D. Radical Viruses
B. The site of DNA replication
C. The bulge in replicating DNA as it is 54. Vaccines
opened by proteins A. Prevent people from coming in contact
D. The site of DNA replication with viruses
49. Which of the following is NOT a possible B. give the immune system a preview of
part of a virus? the virus
A. Capsid C. Prevent all viral infections
B. DNA D. Only work on small children

55. Needs host cell to reproduce. 61. Which statement about bacteria is true?
A. Virus A. All bacteria are prokaryotes
B. Bacteria B. All bacteria are eukaryotes
C. Fungus
C. All bacteria are autotrophs
D. Protozoan
D. All bacteria are heterotrophs
56. Bacteria have a cell membrane
62. What 2 kingdoms are bacteria divided
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. True
into?
B. False
A. bibacteria/Eubacteria
C. Some do, some don’t
B. Eubacteria/ Archeabacteria
D. Only in certain temperature conditions
C. Archeabacteria/ Bibacateria
57. What is a way to become immune to a dis-
ease without first having the disease? D. tulebacteria/ bibacteria
A. antibiotics 63. One of the differences between bacteria
B. Anti-retroviral drugs and viruses is that
C. Vaccinations A. viruses are living and bacteria are non-
D. Exposure Therapies living
58. A couple who are both carriers for the gene B. bacteria are living and viruses are non-
for cystic fibrosis have two children who living
have cystic fibrosis. What is the proba- C. viruses are biotic and bacteria are abi-
bility that their next child will have cystic otic
fibrosis?
D. viruses are prokaryotic and bacteria
A. 0% are eukaryotic
B. 25%
64. Which statement regarding viruses is
C. 50%
true?
D. 75%
A. a virus can only reproduce inside of a
59. A is a living thing that a virus or para- living cell
site uses for resources or shelter.
B. viruses do not contain DNA
A. bacterium
C. viruses are unicellular
B. archaea
D. viruses are generally larger than cells
C. paramecium
D. host 65. What is a vaccine?
60. Which of these is a plant virus? A. a girl’s name.
A. tobacco mosaic virus B. something that helps the body fight
B. bacteriophage viruses.
C. influenza C. a purple fruit from France.
D. polio D. something completely different.

66. A fungus is an example of a 71. How do bacteria move?

A. prokaryote A. flagella

B. eukaryote B. cilia
C. yeast C. they don’t
D. photosynthetic organism D. none of above
72. Domain includes organisms with a true

67. is when one cell reproduces by division
nucleus.
in half to become two cells.
A. Bacteria
A. conjugation
B. Archaea
B. binary fission
C. Eukarya
C. parasitism
D. none of above
D. natural selection
73. .RNA viruses require their own supply of
68. This virus attacks the white blood cells (im- certain enzymes because
mune cells) of the human body. Eventually, A. host cells rapidly destroy the viruses.
the immune system cannot handle the vi-
B. these enzymes translate viral mRNA
ral invasion. This makes the body prone
into proteins.
to attack from other viruses and bacteria.
What is the name of this infectious viral C. host cells lack enzymes that can repli-
disease? cate the viral genome.
A. AIDS D. these enzymes cannot be made in host
cells.
B. Cancer
C. Diabetes 74. Viruses that don’t go immediately into ac-
tion but wait until conditions are right to
D. none of above attack are considered
69. Domain includes prokaryotic organ- A. Multiplicative Viruses

isms that live in harsh environment. B. Active Viruses
A. Bacteria C. Hidden Viruses
B. Archaea D. Radical Viruses
C. Eukarya 75. The cycle of a viral infection, replication

and destruction of a cell is called
D. none of above
A. lysogenic
70. What do viruses and bacteria have in com- B. lytic
mon?
C. metabolic
A. ribosomes
D. none of these
B. cell wall
76. Which of the following occurs after a virus
C. plasma membrane
attaches to a host cell in the viral repro-
D. genetic material duction process?

A. The host cell dies 82. This infectious viral disease has many
B. The virus dies symptoms, from chills, fever, and aching
muscles to coughing and sneezing to nau-
C. The virus inserts its genetic informa- sea and vomiting. The symptoms show up
tion into the host cell within 2-7 days after the cell is infected.
D. copies of the virus are immediately re- This is an example of?
leased from the host
A. Lytic Cycle
77. Is a virus alive?
B. Lysogenic Cycle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Yes
C. Meiosis
B. Sure is
D. none of above
C. Most Def’
D. Naw, son 83. Process by which bacteria reproduce asex-
ually
78. Which type of bacteria can live in
harsh conditions and are considered ex- A. binary fission
tremophils? B. transduction
A. Archaebacteriqa
C. transformation
B. Eubacteria
D. none of above
C. Caperia
D. exempleria 84. Where the better adapted organisms sur-
vive to pass traits along to offspring.
79. What are the parts of a virus?
A. inner core and protein coat A. Evolution
B. left and right ventricles B. Natural Selection

C. inner and outer core C. Extinction
D. none of the above D. Artifical Selection
80. What was the name of the ship Darwin 85. Are bacteria unicellular, multicellular or
traveled the world on? both?
A. HMS Beagle
A. unicellular
B. SS Beagle
B. multicellular
C. HMS Bugle
D. SS Bugle C. both
D. none of above
81. What reason(s) are given to explain
whether a virus is alive? 86. Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by
A. Viruses are not made up of cells lysing?
B. Viruses do not use their own energy to A. lytic
grow
B. mitosis
C. Viruses do not respond to their sur-
roundings C. lysogenic
D. All of the above D. S phase

87. are anything special about an organ- 93. Why are viruses like parasites?
ism that helps it to survive. A. They make their own food

A. genetic material
B. They use their own energy to develop
B. acquired traits
C. They multiply
C. adaptations
D. They harm the cells they enter
D. responses
94. Which disease is not caused by bacteria?
88. What is most likely the purpose of the pro-
tein coat surrounding a virus? A. Strep throat
A. protect it from being degraded B. Pneumonia
B. replicate vDNA inside the host cell C. Food poisoning
C. produce proteins within the host cell D. Influenza (the Flu)
D. destroy the nucleus of the host cell
95. Viruses are made up of
89. an organism that lives in or on another is
A. Nucleus, membrane
called a
B. Capsid, nucleus
A. parasite
B. paramedic C. Capsid, nucleic acid
C. pasadena D. Mitochondria, nucleus

D. pair of dice 96. Which of the following infectious organ-
90. Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic isms is the smallest?
material to lay dormant while the host cell A. paramecium
reproduces? B. bacteria
A. lytic
C. virus
B. mitosis
D. prokaryote
C. lysogenic
D. S phase 97. A tiny non-living particle that invades and
then multiplies inside of a living cell is
91. What is gene therapy? called a:
A. when the virus acts as a messenger to A. vaccine
carry DNA to a diseased cell.
B. virus
B. When a gene talks about its youth.
C. bacteriophage
C. Who’s Gene?
D. none of above
D. none of the above.
92. Bacteria reproduce asexually by 98. What does a virus have on the outside?
A. spores A. a protein coat

B. conjugation B. a fur coat
C. fixation C. crispy skin
D. binary fission D. membrane

99. A virus acts like a when it invades a 105. The theory of evolution by natural se-
cell and destroys it when it multiplies. lection means that what is changing over
A. bacteriophage time?
B. host A. The inherited traits of a population.
C. parasite B. The acquired traits of a population.
D. enemy cell C. Hair color and eye color

D. Attractive features.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
100. Producers such as grass and trees
A. make their own food 106. A virus can be classified by its type of
B. eat other organisms for food A. mitochondria
C. make carbon dioxide B. chromosomes
D. decompose dead organisms C. nucleic acid
101. Prokaryotes are unlike all other organ- D. carbohydrates

isms in that their cells
107. What feature do viruses have in common
A. do not have a nucleus with animal cells?
B. have organelles A. ability to form proteins at the ribo-
C. have cell walls somes
D. none of above B. existence of lipids in cell membranes
C. presence of genetic code in nucleic
102. Mutations are a change in what?
acid
A. DNA
D. production of energy by a mitochon-
B. tRNA drion
C. genotype
108. A infection involves the phage com-
D. phenotype bining its DNA with the host cells DNA. Of-
ten hiding for years.
103. cell in which a virus reproduces
A. lysogenic
A. endospore
B. host cell B. lytic
C. bacteriophage C. vaccine
D. plasmid D. vinerial
104. Algae belong to the kingdom of or- 109. A virus can only ‘replicate’ (reproduce)
ganisms. when it
A. protista A. has enough food
B. fungi B. gets big enough
C. plantae C. is attached to a host cell
D. animalia D. feels like it

110. When a red and white individual produce 115. A virus acts like a
pink offspring it is called: A. leukocyte

A. codominance B. parasite
B. multiple alleles C. parachute
C. incomplete dominance D. paramedic
D. epistasis
116. The outside of a virus is called a capsid
111. In our bird beak lab, we showed how and is made up of
A. different beaks are adapted to eat dif- A. cytoplasm

ferent food B. protein
B. how all birds will go extinct C. carbohydrates
C. how all birds need different amounts D. lipids
of food
117. How many parts does a virus have?
D. different beaks have no effect on sur-
vival A. One
B. None
112. Archaea are similar to eukaryotes
than Bacteria. C. too many to count
D. 2
A. more
B. less 118. Taxonomy is the scientific way of
C. as A. collecting DNA/RNA
D. none of above B. naming and classifying organisms
C. forming genetics
113. Bacteria that help break down dead ma-
terial in the environment are called D. collecting ecological artifacts
A. vaccines 119. Bacteria get new genetic information by

B. decomposers exchanging it with other bacteria. This is
called
C. oats
A. replication
D. none of above
B. binary fission
114. A retrovirus is different from other C. conjugation
viruses because retroviruses have at
D. transfusion
their core.
A. RNA and Reverse Transcriptase En- 120. break down energy in dead things to
zymes get food.
B. RNA and Transcriptase Enzymes A. Protists
C. DNA and Reverse Transcriptase En- B. Fungi

zymes C. Animals
D. DNA and Transcriptase Enzymes D. Plants

121. The 3 shapes of bacteria are 127. A man with hemophilia (a recessive, sex
A. square, rod, round (sphere) linked condition) has a daughter of normal
phenotype. She marries a man who is nor-
B. rod, round (sphere), spiral mal for the trait. What is the probability
C. spiral, cylinder, crystal that a son will be a hemophilic?
D. rod, disc, cylinder A. 1/4
122. Scientists do NOT use binomial nomencla- B. 1/8
ture to name viruses because viruses are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 1/2
not
A. able to be seen D. 1/16
B. alive 128. What type of macromolecule are restric-

C. Latin tion enzymes?
D. classified A. nucleic acid
123. What does a virus have on the inside? B. carbohydrate
A. DNA, but never RNA C. protein
B. RNA but never DNA D. lipid
C. DNA or RNA
129. Living things need all of the following to
D. neither DNA or RNA survive EXCEPT
124. Which viral life cycle reproducing viruses A. water and air
as soon as the genetic content enters the
host then kills its host cell by lysing? B. food
A. lytic C. a place to live
B. mitosis D. sleep
C. lysogenic
130. There are some structures which are
D. S phase unique to viruses and not found in cells.
125. What is the difference between the lytic These include:I. Protein capsid II. Nucleic
and lysogenic virus reproductive cycles? acids III. Cell wall
A. lysogenic is longer A. I only

B. they are the same B. II only
C. Lytic is longer C. I and II only
D. Both are different each time D. II and III only
126. Binary fission is a type of reproduc-
131. The name Canis lupis is an example of a
tion that bacteria do.
A. domain and kingdom
A. sexual
B. asexual B. one clade
C. random C. binomial nomenclature
D. none of above D. phylogeny

132. The “instructions” for all of the cell’s C. produces toxins in the host cell
activities, located in the cytoplasms, is D. protects the host cell from bacteria
called

A. ribosomes 138. How does the DNA of a bacteriophage en-
ter a host cell?
B. cell wall
A. injection
C. genetic material
B. endocytosis
D. flagellum
C. conjugation
133. Most viruses contain D. binary fission
A. nucleic acids.
139. How could you describe the size of a
B. ribosomes. virus?
C. mitochondria. A. Smaller than bacteria
D. cytoplasm. B. Larger than a parasite
134. How can we prevent viruses from spread- C. About the size of a dime
ing? D. Smaller than a proton
A. vaccines
140. How are viruses named?
B. not washing hands
A. Using binomial nomenclature
C. no education
B. Named based on which genus and
D. antibiotics species they are most similar to
135. If a segment of DNA is 5’-TGA AGA CCG- C. They are not given a permanent name
3’, the resulting RNA strand from the tran- D. Named after the place they were dis-
scription of this would read: covered, the disease they cause or the
A. 5’-TGA AGA CCG-3’ person who identified it
B. 5’-UGA AGA CCG-3’ 141. Which of the following can be effective
C. 3’-CGG UCU UCA-5’ in preventing the onset of viral infection
in humans?
D. 3’-ACU UCU GGC-5’
A. taking vitamins
136. A small, non-living particle that invades B. getting vaccinated
a living cell and then reproduces inside of
it is called C. taking antibiotics
A. antibacteria D. taking nucleoside analogs that inhibit
transcription
B. bacteria
C. genetics 142. Which best describes the basic structure
of a virus?
D. virus
A. nucleic acid strand surrounded by a
137. How does a virus cause a person to de- protein coat
velop the common cold? B. a tail surrounded by a protein coat
A. invades the host cell to reproduce C. a tail surrounded by a carbohydrate
B. removes energy from the host cell coat

7.7 Viruses and Prions 1228
D. nucleic acid strand surrounded by a B. Archaea

carbohydrate coat
C. Protist
143. What happens in the lytic cyle? D. Fungi
A. Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
B. Virus quickly kills the host cell 145. An antibiotic is a drug that selectively
kills
C. Virus sleeps inside of the host cell
A. viruses
D. Virus stay dormant for a long time
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. bacteria
144. is the domain of prokaryotes that can
live in very harsh environments. C. fungi
A. Bacteria D. all of the above
7.7 Viruses and Prions

1. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease is 5. Where do enveloped viruses get their en-
A. a spongiform encephalopathy of hu- velope?
mans A. They are created when the viral DNA is
B. caused by a viroid created
C. initiated by an oncogenic virus B. from the host’s cell membrane
D. also called “mad cow disease” C. They build them after they leave the
host cell
2. Infectious naked strands of RNA that af-
D. none of these options
fect plants are called
A. viroids 6. What is a Viroid made of?
B. virions A. DNA
C. spikes B. DNA and RNA
D. bacteriophage C. RNA
3. Infectious protein particles are called D. virus
A. spikes 7. When a cow with bovine spongiform en-
B. viroids cephalopathy dies, the prions
C. virions A. also die
D. prions B. still infectious
4. Viruses exhibit all the following except C. slowly denatured
D. will reproduce
A. shape
8. A common method for cultivating viruses
B. genes in the lab is to use in vitro systems called
C. ability to infect cells cultures.
D. metabolism A. egg

B. cell 14. are composed of

C. bacteriophage A. Capsids:capsomeres

D. embryo B. Capsomeres:capsids
C. Virion:nucleic acids
9. Which of these is not considered a capsid
shape? D. Nucleic acid:virions
A. helical 15. Which of these processes can viruses carry

out on their own?
B. polyhedral
A. go through metabolism
C. dodecahedral
B. respond to environmental conditions
D. complex
C. reproduce
10. Particles of protein without a nucleic acid D. none of these
that affect the shapes of the host’s pro-
teins are calle: 16. Mad Cow’s disease is caused by a(n):
A. bacteriophages A. virus
B. emerging viruses B. prion
C. prions C. bacterium
D. viroid
D. pathogens
17. What root words generated the name Pri-
11. DNA viruses typically replicate in the ons?
A. Nucleus A. Proton invasion of People
B. Cytoplasm B. People Running Poorly
C. Ribosome C. Protein Ruminant Protease
D. Cell Membrane D. Proteinaceous Infectious Particle
12. What structures are used by bacterio- 18. Infectious particles that cause neurodegen-
phages to attach to host cell receptors? erative diseases such as Kuru and mad cow
disease are called
A. nucleic acids
A. viroids
B. tail fibers
B. virusoid
C. viral sheaths
C. prions
D. capsid heads
D. retrroviruses
13. Brain disease caused by prions can be 19. Which of the following is NOT used as a
treated with criterion to classify viruses?
A. antibiotics A. biochemical tests
B. antiviral agents B. morphology
C. herbal medication C. nucleic acid
D. no treatment D. size

20. Which of the following requires helper 26. Groups of UNRELATED viruses are often
virus? grouped by
A. Virus A. evolutionary history
B. Viroid B. routes of infection
C. Virusoid C. intermediate host
D. Prion D. nucleic acid
27. Viruses can have
NARAYAN CHANGDER
21. Persistent viruses that can reactivate peri-
odically are A. only DNA
A. cytopathic B. only RNA
B. inclusion bodies C. Both DNA and RNA
C. oncoviruses D. DNA OR RNA, but never both
D. chronic latent viruses 28. Viruses that infect bacteria are called
A. viroids
22. What is the protein coat that surrounds a
virion’s nucleic acid called? B. prokaryotes
A. prion C. bacteriophages
B. capsid D. prion
C. envelope 29. Some virions have a phospholipid layer
D. viroid called a(n)
A. prion
23. Host cells of viruses include
B. capsid
A. animals
C. envelope
B. plants D. viroid
C. bacteria
30. Which of the following is FALSE about
D. all of these prion disease?
24. What was the quote in the photo on the A. prion disease only occurs in human
slide introducing Kuru? (slide 9) B. caused by misfolded form of prion pro-
A. but the meat underneath is very sweet. tein
C. infectious agent responsible for neu-
B. I have no idea. rodegenerative diseases
C. but the meat is delicious. D. Prions infect humans and animals
when they eat infected meat.
D. sure I will pick this one.
31. Viroids differ from viruses is that they lack
25. What is a capsid? a
A. viral reproduction A. Protein capsid
B. type of nucleic acid B. nucleic acid
C. prokaryotic cell C. Mitochondria
D. protein coat that protects a virus D. All answer is correct

32. What differentiates Prions from being as- C. syncytia

sociated with bacteria, viruses and fungi? D. inclusion bodies

A. Structure
38. What do ALL virionS have that a viroid
B. Transmission strategy does not?
C. Lack of nucleic acids A. nucleic Acid
D. Function B. capsid
33. What is the method of transmission for C. an envelope
CJD? (Creutzfeldt-Jackob Disease) D. a sheath
A. Sporadic
39. Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a
B. Hereditary monolayer of virus-infected cells in a cul-
C. Acquired ture are called
D. All of the above A. colony
B. patch
34. Diagnosis of viral infections sometimes in-
volves analyzing the patient’s blood for C. plaque
specific that the immune system pro- D. pocks
duces against the virus.
40. Which of the following is true of prions?
A. antibodies
A. They can be inactivated by boiling at
B. antigens 100 ◦ C.
C. complement proteins B. They contain a capsid.
D. glycoproteins C. They are abnormal form of protein,
35. Which of these infectious agents do not PrP.
have nucleic acid? D. They can be reliably inactivated by ir-
A. viroids radiation
B. viruses 41. Herpes simplex 1 virus can remain silent

for extended periods of time. This period
C. bacteria
of viral activity is said to be
D. prions
A. chronic
36. What classification of cell is a virus? B. latent
A. Prokaryote C. acute
B. Viroid D. persistent
C. Eukaryote
42. What is the symptom of the novel prion
D. none of these disease?
37. Mammalian viruses capable of starting tu- A. Kidney stones
mors are B. Diarrhea and autonomic neuropathy
A. oncoviruses C. fever
B. latent D. who knows!?!

7.8 Transposons 1232
43. Viroids are comprised of a few hundred 44. Viruses that infect bacteria are specifically
base pairs called
A. Double-stranded DNA A. viroids
B. Single-stranded DNA B. bacteriophage
C. Double-stranded RNA C. prions
D. Single-stranded RNA D. satellite viruses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
7.8 Transposons
1. fills the single stranded gaps in mech- 5. The direct repeat within the IS element has
anism of bacterial IS element transposi- a length of
tions A. 20 bp
A. RNA polymerase B. 11-15 bp
B. DNA polymerase C. 5-11 bp
C. RNA ligase D. 3-7 bp
D. DNA ligase
6. -What is the maximum application of the
2. -According to Barbara McClintock, what VNTR-minisatellites?
percentage of the maize plant genome is A. Fingerprint
made up of ETs? B. paternity determination
A. 60-70% C. Microorganism identification
B. 60-75% D. Determination of organisms
C. 70-85%
7. -Which technique uses restriction en-
D. 75-90 zymes?
3. Hybrid dysgenesis is caused by which of A. electrophoresis
the following transposable element? B. PCR
A. Non-composite transposon C. PCR-RFLP
B. LINE D. None of the above
C. P-element 8. The defining property of transposable ele-
D. Ac-element ments is
A. Replicative
4. -Which countries participated in the first
draft of the human genome project? B. Non-replicative
A. United States, China, Argentina and C. Motility
Spain D. Non-motility
B. United States, China, Japan, Uruguay
9. -What are the main types of transposable
C. Canada, UK, Germany and France elements?
D. Canada, UK, Paraguay and France A. All of them are correct

7.8 Transposons 1233
B. DNA retrotranposons and transposons 15. An insertion sequence or IS element is a

short sequence moves from one loca-
tion to another

C. Endogenous viruses and retrotranspo-
son A. DNA
D. Retrotransposons and DNA trans- B. RNA
posons C. mRNA
10. The enzyme that catalyzes the transposi- D. tRNA
tion of an IS element is called
16. Direct repeats in the IS element are
A. Transposase present
B. Integrase A. Within the transposon
C. Transcriptase B. Upstream the inverted repeat
D. Polymerase C. Within the inverted repeat
11. In bacteria, transposons jump from D. Downstream the inverted repeat
A. Plasmid DNA to chromosomal RNA 17. Transposons in bacteria usually carry addi-
B. Chromosomal DNA to plasmid DNA tional gene for
C. Plasmid RNA to chromosomal DNA A. Plasmid resistance

B. DNA resistance
D. Chromosomal RNA to plasmid DNA
C. Antigen resistance
12. The IS elements can be identified by the
D. Antibiotic resistance
presence of
A. Antibiotic resistance gene 18. The central block of the composite trans-
posable element consists a gene for
B. Endonuclease cleavage site
A. Transposase
C. 50 bp inverted repeat
B. Antibiotic resistance
D. Integrase site
C. Integrase
13. Retrotransposons use to make DNA D. Lactamase
copy from RNA
A. Polymerase 19. LTR-retrotransposons are abundantly
found in
B. Reverse transcriptase
A. Bacteria
C. Invertase
B. Virus
C. mammals
14. Which of the following functions is not per- D. Yeast
formed by transposase?
20. is important characteristics of IS se-
A. Restriction of the IS element
quence 5’-3’ end 5-11bps are generated
B. Integration of the transposon from target site DNA
C. Formation of the RNA intermediate A. Direct repeat
D. Restriction of the host genome B. Indirect repeat

7.9 The Human Genome 1234
C. Inverted repeat 26. -By what other name are ETs known?
D. none of above A. cell viruses
21. DNA mediated transposition includes B. intracellular parasites
A. Viral retro transposons C. cell parasites
B. Eukaryotic transposons D. cell parasites
C. Non-viral retro transposons
27. -By what other name are Retrotrans-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
posons known?
22. Conservative transposons refers to the A. endogenous retroviruses
movement of elements
B. virus endogens
A. Large
B. Small C. Retrovirus endogenos
C. Medium D. exogenous retroviruses
D. none of above 28. The first transposable elements was dis-
23. -What is possible to place when knowing covered by
the sequence of a DNA fragment in a hy- A. James Watson
bridization sequencing?
B. Barbara McClintock
A. first base game
C. Francis Crick
B. oligonucleotide set
C. game of ceders D. none of above
D. RNA sequences 29. LINE and SINE are examples of

24. -What does LTR mean in transposons? A. LTR retrotransposon
A. Long Endings of Repeats B. Composite transposon
B. Means Repeat Telomere Lengths C. Non-LTR retrotransposon
C. Repeats of long endings
D. Ac-element
D. Means Repeat Telomere Lengths
30. Which of the following about the P-
25. -What percentage approximately of the
element is false?
ETs constitute in the human genome?
A. 25 bp inverted repeats
A. From 48 to 51 %
B. From 48 to 50 % B. 2907 bp long element
C. From 50 to 60 % C. Encodes for transposase
D. between 47 and 48 D. DNA transposon
7.9 The Human Genome

1. How many different genes can a person A. 250
have?
B. 2, 050

C. 20, 500 7. All the genes in the human genome are re-
D. 25, 000 ferred to
A. exome

2. The sex of an offspring is determined by B. exume
A. the mother. C. genome
B. the father. D. genomics
C. both parents. 8. Karyotypes are useful for detecting
D. the offspring. A. Missing or extra chromosomes
3. Which use of biotechnology most benefits B. All genetic disorders

North Carolina agriculture? C. Cystic Fibrosis
A. producing human vaccines D. Huntington’s Disease
B. producing disease resistant crops 9. People with Down syndrome have
C. producing new medicines from bacte- A. 45 chromosomes.
ria B. 46 chromosomes.
D. producing enzymes to eliminate pollu- C. 47 chromosomes.
tants D. no X chromosomes.
4. The pieces of DNA that are seen in the DNA 10. A phenotype that results from a dominant
fingerprint are called: allele must have at least dominant al-
lele(s) present in the parent(s).
A. Genes
A. one
B. Granules
B. two
C. Fragments
C. three
D. Composites
D. four
5. The large scale catologing of the structure 11. a technique used to separate nucleic acids
and function of proteins in the human body or proteins according to size and charge in
is called an agarose or acrylamide gel
A. Genomics A. genetic engineering
B. Proteomics B. vector
C. Gene Study C. gel electrophoresis
D. Haplotypes D. two-dimensional gel electrophoresis
12. Cells that can differentiate into any type of
6. Which of the following can be used to cut
cell and are used to cure disease are cate-
DNA so it can be studied?
gorized as
A. restriction enzymes A. specialized cells
B. gel electrophoresis B. cloning cells
C. karyotypes C. somatic cells
D. haplotypes D. stem cells

13. The chromosomes that DO NOT determine C. may use a pedigree

sex are called D. shows locations of genes
A. sex chromosomes
19. What genetic disorder results in 45 chro-
B. autosomes mosomes in each of the body cells?
C. gene markers (3.2.2)
D. pedigree partners A. Turner’s syndrome
B. Down syndrome
NARAYAN CHANGDER
14. The percentage of the human genome
that had been mapped when the HGP an- C. Klinefelter’s
nounced its completion was D. Jacobs syndrome
A. 90%
20. What does the Ethical, Legal and Social Im-
B. 99.99% plications program do?
C. 100% A. Allows the project to whatever neces-
D. none of above sary to gather information
B. Ensures the government oversees the
15. a group of individuals that can have
project
healthy offspring together
C. Takes care of the animals used in the
A. community project
B. population D. Addresses issues raised by the project
C. biomes
21. A lab technique used in crime fighting
D. individuals to prove a suspects innocence or guilt is
16. Egg cells have known as:
A. an X chromosome A. genetic engineering

B. PCR
B. a Y chromosome
C. electrophoresis
C. an X or a Y chromosome
D. gene therapy
D. none of above
22. The Human Genome Project allowed the
17. What is the name of the human chromoso-
first accurate estimates of the number
mal disorder that results in an extra chro-
of different genes in the human genome.
mosome #21? (3.2.1)
What was a typical estimate, based on the
A. Down syndrome results of the Human Genome Project?
B. Turners A. 46
C. Jacobs B. 64
D. Klinefelter’s C. 25 000
18. which of the following best describes chro- D. 1 000 000
mosome mapping? 23. The failure of chromosomes to separate
A. allele length is studied during meiosis is called
B. uses gel electrophoresis A. nondisjunction.

B. X-chromosome inactivation. C. 3 billion

C. Turner’s syndrome. D. 7.5 billion

D. Down syndrome.
29. These cut DNA into smaller pieces.
24. A child’s gender (male or female) is deter-
mined by A. Restriction enzymes
A. the female parent. B. Gel electrophoresis

B. the male parent. C. Ozaki fragments
C. none of the above. D. Scissors
D. none of above
30. Which of these is not a way in which
25. The commonly used Vectors used for biotechnology can benefit agriculture?
cloning pieces of DNA so that they can be
A. increase crop population
sequenced later, are BAC and YAC. What
does BAC stand for? B. reducing the loss of crops to insects
A. Bacterial Artificial Chromosome C. producing better-tasting fruits
B. Baked Artificial Cake D. improving farm machinery
C. Biotechnology And Cry genes
D. none of above 31. The full set of genetic information in an or-
ganism’s DNA.
26. Which is NOT an impact of the Human A. Karyotype
Genome Project?
B. Pedigree
A. Medical Advancements
B. Availability of new jobs C. Genome
C. Aid in Child Support D. Autosome

D. Aid in FBI investigations
32. The specialized field of studying whole
27. What is the Human Genome Project? genomes, including genes and their func-
tions, is called
A. Research project that mapped the hu-
man genome A. genomics
B. Research project that created the hu- B. bioinformatics
man genome
C. the Human Genome Project
C. Research project where the human
genome was broken D. information science
D. Research project which ended the hu- 33. All alleles in a population
man genome
A. allele pool
28. how many dna base pairs make up the hu-
man genome? B. gene pool
A. 5 million C. population genetics

B. 2 billion D. pool of gens

34. The area in Biology that uses high speed B. CF

computational devices for storing enor- C. PKU
mous amount of data, retrieval and analy-
sis is called D. Huntington’s
A. Bioinformatics 40. DNA has a charge.
B. Biotechnology A. positive
C. Biostatistics B. opposite
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above C. negative
35. How many nucleotides make up DNA? D. attractive
A. 2
41. A way to cure genetic disorders by insert-
B. 4 ing normal genes into cells with mutant
C. 6 genes.
D. none of above A. gene therapy
36. Which food group must people with B. genomics

Phenylketonuria or PKU avoid in order to C. life enhancing drugs
prevent mental retardation? D. magic
A. Carbohydrates
42. Which of the following best describes ge-
B. Fats/Lipids
netic counseling?
C. Proteins
A. identifies suitable embryos
D. Nucleic Acids
B. uses gel electrophoresis
37. What is the circular piece of DNA found in C. may use a pedigree
bacteria called?
D. shows locations of genes
A. homologous chromosome
B. sister chromatid 43. A family record that shows how a trait is
inherited over several generations is called
C. plasmid
a
D. arabinose
A. karyotype
38. Heterozygous people with one sickle cell B. Punnett square
allele and one normal allele also show re-
sistance to C. pedigree
A. malaria D. periodic table

B. yellow fever 44. Organisms that contain genes from a dif-
C. strep throat ferent organism are called-
D. measles A. Transgenic
B. Recombinant
39. A human disorder caused by a dominant
gene is C. Cloned
A. Tay-Sachs D. Restricted

45. How many TOTAL chromosomes do hu- B. DNA polymerase

mans have? C. cyborg

A. 2 D. plasmid
B. 44
51. Because the X chromosome contains genes
C. 46 that are vital for normal development, no
D. 23 baby has been born
A. with one X chromosome.
46. Many non human model organisms have
also been sequenced through Human B. with three X chromosomes.
Genome project. The nematode among the C. without an X chromosome.
following is D. with four X chromosomes.
A. Drosophila 52. Making an identical copy of an entire or-
B. Arabidopsis ganism is
C. Caenorhabditis elegans A. genetic transformation
D. none of above B. therapeutic cloning
C. reproductive cloning
47. Which chromosome in Human Genome has
the fewest genes? D. transcriptive cloning
A. Chromosome X 53. alternate form of a gene
B. Chromosome Y A. allele
C. Autosome 13 B. exome
D. Chromosome 1 C. genotype type
D. phenotype
48. Scientists have identified about 1.4 mil-
lion locations where SNPs occur in humans. 54. GMO stands for
What does it mean? A. Genetically Made Organism
A. Single Nucleotide Polymorphism B. Growing More Organisms
B. Severo Nichoa Penzyme C. Genetically Modified Organism
C. Several Nematode Poisins D. Growing Many Organisms
D. none of above 55. Where do genes come from?
49. What year did the Human Genome Project A. The mother
end B. The father
A. 2018 C. Both parents
C. 2003 56. Which is the best definition of DNA?
D. 2097 A. a spiral ladder
50. enzyme that recognizes a certain DNA se- B. something in your cells
quence and cuts the DNA strand C. the recipe for making an organism
A. restriction enzyme D. none of above

57. a technology that combines biological sci- B. O chromosome

ence, computer science, and information C. X chromosome
technology to enable the discovery of new
biological insights and unifying principles D. #21 chromosome
A. bioethics 63. Individual beliefs that motivate people to
B. bioinformatics act one way or another
C. genetic engineering A. Facts
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. polymerase chain reaction B. Alternatives
C. Values
58. Haploid content of human DNA has
base pairs D. Arguments
A. 4.6 x 106 64. This is a chart used to analyze the pattern
B. 48502 of inheritance that shows the relationships
in a family.
C. 3.3 x 10 9
A. pedigree
D. none of above
B. genotype
59. Most genetic disorders are caused by the
expression of C. genome
A. recessive alleles D. karyotype
B. 2 dominant alleles 65. How many chromosomes does one human

C. one dominant allele cell contain?
D. sex-linked heredity A. 40
B. 46
60. The study of the genome is known as HIDE
ANSWER C. 48
A. Biology D. none of above
B. Genomics 66. Which would be reduced as a result of the
C. Genes development of pest-resistant crops?
D. Heredity A. use of organic fertilizers
B. use of chemical insecticides
61. The Human Genome Project is an attempt
to C. practice of crop rotation techniques
A. sequence every person’s DNA. D. practice of hydroponic farming tech-
niques
B. sequence the DNA of every human
gene. 67. Which chromosome in Human Genome has
C. cure infectious human diseases. more genes?
D. identify all restriction enzymes A. Chromosome 1
62. Most sex-linked genes are found on the B. Chromosome 2

C. Chromosome 3
A. Y chromosome D. none of above

68. How many base pairs (bp) are in the hu- 74. What is recombinant DNA?
man genome?
A. DNA containing genes foreign to that

A. 1 billion bp organism
B. 4 billion bp B. DNA which has been impacted by epi-
C. 3 billion bp genetics
D. 3.5 billion bp C. DNA that has restriction enzymes
69. The discovery of recombinant DNA al- D. DNA that has been sequenced
lowed researchers to
75. when was the human genome project for-
A. split, splice, and copy DNA
mally launched?
B. duplicate DNA faster and cheaper
A. 1990
C. store larger amounts of DNA
B. 1985
D. none of above
C. 1999
70. Crossing two individuals that have similar
desirable characteristics is called D. 1995
A. cloning 76. The genomes of two unrelated humans are
B. genetic engineers % the same.
C. gene therapy A. 90.0
D. inbreeding B. 0.1%
71. Which technique would most likely be used C. 78%
by forensic scientist?
D. 99.9%
A. Gene cloning
B. Gene therapy 77. How can a segment of bacterial DNA be
added to a human DNA?
C. DNA fingerprinting
D. Karyotyping A. By using similar restriction enzymes
that produce complementary sticky ends
72. Who was the first adult mammal success-
fully cloned?
B. By using ECORI enzymes in humans
A. Dolly the Sheep and BAMHI in bacteria
B. Copy Cat the Cat C. By using gel electrophoresis
C. Donald Trump the Donald
D. By using ligase enzymes
D. Agouti Gout the Mouse
78. What is a scientific family tree called that
73. Which situation is most likely to raise eth-
tracks a trait through generations
ical questions about using biotechnology?
A. Pedigree
A. increased crop yields
B. new vaccine development B. Tree of Life
C. increased job opportunities C. Trait Tracker
D. genetically modified food crops D. Genetic Analyzer

79. An organism in which foreign genes have C. transformation

been incorporated is called a: D. shock
A. recombinant organism
85. What is the benefit of geneticially modi-
B. transgene recombinant fied organisms?
C. polymorphism A. They may be better looking or more
D. transgenic organism productive/effective
B. They are easily reproduced
NARAYAN CHANGDER
80. How many types of chromosomes humans
have? C. They are higher in population
A. 22 D. They live longer/stronger
B. 23 86. The main goal of the Human Genome

Project was to
C. 24
A. identify the unique parts of each per-
D. 46
son’s DNA
81. Sperm cells have B. identify genes responsible for human
A. an X chromosome disease
B. a Y chromosome C. determine the entire sequence of hu-

man DNA.
C. an X or a Y chromosome
D. identify the structure of the DNA
D. none of above molecule
82. The DNA fragments in Human Genome 87. The structure of the DNA molecule was dis-
Project were sequenced using automated covered by
DNA sequencers that was based on the
A. Gregor Mendel
principle developed by
B. Charles Darwin
A. Fredrick Grifith
C. James Watson and Francis Crick
B. Watson and Crick
D. none of above
C. Frederick Sanger
88. What is one of the pros of Herbicide use?
D. Har Gobind Khorana
A. It makes weeding easier and cheaper
83. What year was the human genome project for farmers
started?
B. It keeps animals away from crops
A. 1990 C. Plants grow taller and stronger
B. 1999 D. It makes more organic crops
C. 2003
89. Which of the following genetic disorders
D. 1987 results from nondisjunction?
84. a method for getting plasmid DNA into bac- A. hemophilia
terial cells B. PKU
A. cloning C. Sickle Cell Anemia
B. restriction enzymes D. Turner’s Syndrome

90. A cell that has not yet differentiated into 95. Gene located on the X or Y chromosome
a specialized cell A. Homozygous dominant

A. germ cell B. nondisjunction
B. somatic cell C. Sex-linked gene
C. stem cell D. Autosomal Disorder
D. gamete
96. What year was the Human Genome
91. What is DNA sequencing? Project (HGP) started?
A. The total of genes carried by an individ- A. 1990
ual or cellCoding genes in order to identify B. 1999
single nucleotide
C. 2003
B. polymorphisms
D. 1987
C. Deciphering the functions of various
parts of the human genome 97. All of the DNA of the human species is
D. The process of identifying the order of know as
the bases in DNA A. human genome
92. Which of the following form(s) a Barr B. chromosomes

body? C. genetics
A. one of the Y chromosomes in a male D. genetic traits
cell
98. How many chromosomes are shown in a
B. one of the X chromosomes in a male normal human karyotype?
cell
A. 2
C. one of the X chromosomes in a female
cell B. 23
D. both of the X chromosomes in a female C. 44

cell D. 46
93. We share 90% of our genome with what 99. a technique for making millions of copies
animal? of a specific region of DNA
A. Pig A. DNA ligase
B. Rat B. restriction enzymes
C. Monkey C. gel electrophoresis
D. Mouse D. polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
94. About how many genes are there in the 100. How are the X and Y chromosomes dif-
human genome? ferent?
A. 2, 500 A. Only one is an autosome
B. 20, 500 B. The X is smaller than the Y
C. 205, 000 C. The Y carries fewer genes than the X
D. none of above D. Only females have Y

101. Which of the following is an AUTOSOMAL C. Dystrophin

RECESSIVE genetic disorder?
D. none of above
A. Colorblindness
B. Huntington’s disease 107. The Human Genome Project was com-
pleted in .
C. Cystic Fibrosis
A. September 1999
D. Down syndrome
B. February 2001
102. A graphic representation of an individ-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ual’s family tree is a C. April 2003
A. Punnet square D. none of above
B. cladogram
108. It is the transfer of genetic material for
C. pedigree the purpose of treating human disease.
D. karyotype A. chemotherapy
103. Two selective breeding techniques are? B. gene therapy
A. Cloning and Genetic Engineering C. gene transfer
B. Cloning and Inbreeding
D. gene editing
C. Inbreeding and Genetic Engineering
D. Inbreeding and Hybridization 109. Which of the following best describes
DNA fingerprinting?
104. The unpaired nucleotides produced by the
A. allele length is studied
action of restriction enzymes are referred
to as B. shows locations of genes
A. sticky end. C. uses gel electrophoresis
B. base sequence. D. may use a pedigree
C. single strands.
D. restriction fragments. 110. What is the probability that a human
sperm cell will carry a X chromosome?
105. The methodology focused on identifying A. 50%
all the genes, both coding and non cod-
ing sequences and assigning functions, is B. 100%
called C. 25%
A. Expressed Sequence Tags
D. 0%
B. Sequence Annotation
C. Gel electrophoresis 111. The first living organism to be genetically
mapped was
D. none of above
A. bacteria
106. Largest known human gene is at 2.4
million bases B. the fruit fly
A. Desktrophin C. the garden pea
B. Disctropin D. none of above

112. For an XX female to express a recessive B. Gel Electrophoresis

sex-linked trait, she must have
C. restriction enzymes

A. a Y chromosome.
D. RNA
B. an inactivated allele.
C. two recessive alleles. 118. In humans, a normal male has
D. two dominant alleles. A. one X chromosomes only
113. DNA pieces can then be separated and B. two X chromosomes
compared using a process called C. one X and one Y chromosome
A. gel electrophoresis
D. two Y chromosomes
B. DNA Puzzle Pieces
C. RFLPs 119. visible trait
D. Agrose Gel A. phenotype
114. process that splits molecules into groups B. genes

of same size by forcing them through pores C. genotypes
in gel
D. chromosomes
A. gel electrophoresis
B. gel splitting 120. Issues that refer to people’s moral values
C. sequencing or the code of conduct by which they live
D. none of the above A. Social issues
115. Which is most important when investigat- B. Legal issues

ing ethical issues in biotechnology? C. Cultural issues
A. cost of the technology D. Ethical issues
B. advantage of the technology
121. Which of the following can be observed
C. public opinion of the technology
in a karyotype?
D. benefits of the technology outweighing
the harm A. a change in a DNA base
B. an extra chromosome
116. In order to insert a human gene into plas-
mid, both must C. genes
A. code for the same gene product. D. alleles
B. be cut by the same restriction enzyme.
122. Photograph of chromosomes grouped in
ordered pairs is called a
C. originate from the same type of cell.
A. pedigree
D. have identical sequences.
B. Punnett Square
117. This type of agent acts as molecular scis-
sors that can cut DNA in specific location C. Venn Diagram
A. Guanine D. Karyotype

123. Which area of biotechnology would most B. anthropology

likely create ethical issues within human
C. environmental science
society?
A. insulin production by bacteria D. none of above
B. organ cloning for use in transplants
129. Which is a concern of scientists when ge-
C. genetic engineering to improve agri- netically modifying plants?
cultural yields
A. Plants will pass on diseases to animals.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. DNA and forensic testing of crime
scene evidence
B. There will be a decrease in biodiver-
124. All of the following are advantages of sity.
GMO’s except
C. Plants will have a longer growing sea-
A. pest resistant crops son.
B. more nutritional foods
D. There will be a decrease in revenue for
C. unknown long term health effects pesticide manufacturers.
D. creating more human insulin
130. Disorder where the brain deteriorates
125. Protein for transporting Cl-ions doesn’t starting about age 30-40. Lose ability to
work; Thick mucuos clogs lungs and diges- walk, talk, think→ early death; Caused by
tive organs extra CAG repeats in the code
A. Huntington’s Disease A. Turner’s Syndrome
B. Cystic Fibrosis
B. Cystic Fibrosis
C. Achondroplasia
C. Huntington’s Disease
D. Albinism
D. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
126. d pair of chromosomes:XX or XY
A. sex chromosomes 131. In the process of , breeders cross two
genetically different individuals
B. somatic
C. gametes A. inbreeding
D. autosomes B. cloning
127. What do we call the genes that determine C. PCR

gender (male or female)? D. hybridization
A. X/Y
B. A/B 132. Chromosomal disorder where a male has
an extra X chromosome(3.2.2)
C. M/F
A. Down syndrome
D. none of above
B. Turners
128. The Human Genome Project’s greatest
application lies in the field of C. Jacobs
A. medicine D. Klinefelter’s

133. Which is a genetic engineering advance- 138. Which term refers to a farmer choosing
ment directly related to a career in biotech- the best corn from this year to plant next
nology? year?

A. improving solar energy collection A. natural selection
B. transporting textiles at higher rates B. selective breeding
C. creating crop foods that resist insect C. genetic engineering
pests D. genetic transformation
D. repairing historical sites with quality
materials 139. a unique area of DNA where individuals
differ by a single nucleotide; important in
134. What is another name for Down Syn- mapping the genome
drome? A. variable number tandem repeats
A. Trihybrid (VNTR)
B. Trisomy 21 B. restriction enzyme
C. Trisomy 46 C. length polymorphism
D. Monohybrid D. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
135. A boy who is colorblind inherited the dis- 140. There are autosomes in humans.
order from his A. 2
A. Mother B. 23
B. Father C. 46
C. Either Parent D. 44
141. Name the human mutation in cell recep-
136. One of the goals of the Human Genome tor protein that affects transport of salt
Project is to across the cell membrane (3.2.1)
A. increase the number of genes in the A. cystic fibrosis
human genome B. hemophilia
B. map the location of only the most im- C. diabetes
portant genes on each chromosome
D. PKU
C. clone the entire human genome in bac-
teria 142. Which of the following is an AUTOSOMAL
DOMINANT genetic disorder?
D. determine the nucleotide sequence of
the entire human genome A. Colorblindness
B. Huntington’s disease
PGD? C. Down syndrome
A. identifies suitable embryos D. Tay-Sachs disease
B. uses gel electrophoresis 143. A characteristic that is encoded in DNA.
C. allele length is studied A. genome
D. shows locations of genes B. sex-linked gene

7.10 Recombinant DNA 1248
C. genetic trait 148. The work done to map out the entire ge-
nomic sequence in humans was called
D. down syndrome
A. gene mapping
144. A human egg cell might contain (3.2.1) B. the Human Genome Project
A. 22 autosomes and an X chromosome C. Operation Transposon
B. 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome D. Genome Sequence Project (GSP)
C. 45 autosomes and an X chromosome
NARAYAN CHANGDER
149. The main goal of the Human Genome
D. 45 autosomes and a Y chromosome Project (HGP) was to:
A. Identify the unique parts of each per-
145. During electrophoresis, the pieces of son’s DNA.
DNA travel the farthest through the gel.
B. Identify genes responsible for human
A. largest diseases.
B. smallest C. Identify genes responsible for human
behavior.
C. colored
D. Determine the entire sequence of hu-
D. neutral
man DNA.
146. Human males have 150. What is the role of the restriction en-
A. one X chromosome only. zyme?
B. two X chromosomes. A. cut the DNA into fragments

B. transfer the DNA to another source
C. one X and one Y chromosome.
C. clone the DNA needed
D. two Y chromosomes.
D. add the DNA into the wells in the elec-
147. A person that has ONE copy of an AU- trophoresis machine
TOSOMAL RECESSIVE allele and does not
151. What was the purpose of the Genome
express the trait, but can pass it along to
project?
his/her offspring is called a
A. To identify Human DNA
A. mutant
B. To learn about what our kids will look
B. carrier like
C. diseased C. To find unknown diseases
D. normal D. To make perfect children
7.10 Recombinant DNA

1. What is the example of restriction enzyme D. PovIII
A. BamHI
2. How many times do you want a restriction
B. SamH2
enzyme to cut a human genome in order to
C. EkaII cut out the gene of interest to insert into

a plasmid? 7. What is the disadvantage of cDNA as com-

pared to genomic library?
A. through the gene

A. cDNA does not contain non-coding in-
B. on either side of the gene trons
C. through the gene and on either side of B. size of cDNA is smaller
the gene
C. cDNA does not have the complete in-
D. twice on each side of the gene formation on the genome of an organism
3. Why is bacteria carrying a plasmid with

D. fewer types of clones are composed in
antibiotic resistance genes are important
cDNA library
in cloning technique?
A. Kills other pathogens 8. In order for DNA molecules to undergo re-
combination they
B. Helps in screening process
A. they must be from the same species
C. Produce vaccines for commercial pur- B. their strands must separate as in repli-
poses cation
D. Protects themselves from the environ- C. must be cut and spliced at specific nu-
mental factors cleotide sequences
4. Another name for restriction enzymes is D. undergo lysis
A. Taq polymerase 9. T5-GMO stands for

B. Restriction endonuclease A. Genetically Made Organism
B. Growing More Organisms
C. Restriction sites
C. Genetically Modified Organism
D. DNA helicase
D. Growing Many Organisms
5. In the production of insulin cDNA, what is
10. The product formed from the combination
the step right after single-stranded cDNA
between two DNAs from 2 different or-
produced?
ganisms is called
A. degradation of mRNA A. Bioengineering
B. single-strand cDNA acts as template B. Biotechnology
to produce second strand of cDNA
C. Recombinant DNA
C. ligation cDNA D. Genetic Engineering
D. introduction of the rDNA
11. The use of antibiotic medium at the end of
this process:
6. Bacteria cells without any plasmid will die
because they are killed by the A. selects for plasmids containing partic-
ular DNA fragments.
A. X-gal
B. select for bacteria containing plasmids
B. water
C. ampicillin C. selects for bacteria lacking plasmids.
D. archea D. prevents contamination of the medium

12. The cell that able to receive recombinant D. Able to express the gene of interest
DNA for cloning purpose known as
18. Who are the only people that have identi-
A. vector cal DNA fingerprints?
B. target DNA A. a mother and her children
C. plasmid B. faternal twins
D. host cell C. identical twins
13. A bacteria with a human-insulin gene D. all of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
could
19. Restriction enzymes are
A. be ingested as medicine A. DNA unwinding enzymes
B. produce insulin medicine B. DNA joining enzymes
C. causes deadly diseases C. DNA cleaving enzymes
D. cure diabetes D. DNA synthesis enzymes
14. Which enzyme “glues” DNA fragments to- 20. A is required to transfer genes from
gether by phosphodiester bond? one organism to another.
A. restriction enzymes A. vector
B. DNA ligase B. reverse transcriptase
C. DNA polymerase C. transport molecule
D. DNA helicase D. genetic probe
15. Which of the important characteristics of 21. In the screening process, clones that me-
plasmid vectors used in recombinant DNA tabolize X-gal turn
technology below is FALSE? A. yellow
A. able to accept foreign DNA in MCS B. white
B. able to replicate freely in host cell C. red
C. posses selectable genetic marker D. blue
D. posses DNA of interest
22. Which of the following is an enzymatic pro-
16. What is a plasmid? tein that join DNA fragment between gene
A. coiled DNA of interest and plasmid?
B. Linear DNA A. plasmid

C. circular DNA
C. ligase
D. all of the above
17. Which of the following is NOT belong to
host cell 23. Enzyme used in PCR
A. Able to accept recombinant DNA A. T4 DNA polymerase
B. Able to accept accept target DNA B. T7 DNA polymerase
C. Able to maintain structure of recombi- C. Taq polymerase
nat DNA D. T7 RNA polymerase

24. Which of the following could be used as a B. The gene of interest is inserted into a
vector for a human gene? plasmid

A. Bacterial Plasmid C. The plasmid is inserted into the gene
B. Bacteria of interest
C. A mitochondria D. none of above

D. mRNA 30. T6-Modifying DNA in an organism to pro-
duce new genes is referred to as
25. The restriction site recognized by BamHI
is A. Bioengineering
A. GGCATT B. Biotechnology
B. GCCATT C. Genetic Engineering
C. GAATTC D. Recombinant DNA
D. GGATCC
31. What is the enzymatic function of restric-
26. An enzyme that cut DNA molecules at a tion enzymes?
specific “recognition site” is called
A. To add new nucleotides to the growing
A. DNA polymerase strand of DNA.
B. RNA polymerase B. To join nucleotides during replication.
C. Restriction enzyme C. To join nucleotides during transcrip-
D. tRNA tion.
D. To cleave nucleic acids at specific
27. What is restriction enzyme
sites.
A. Enzyme in plasmid
B. Enzyme that recognize and cut at spe- 32. Enzymes used to cut genes in recombinant
cific base sequence DNA research are
C. Enzyme that join okazaki fragment A. ligases

D. Enzyme that join the plasmid and gene B. restriction enzymes
of interest C. transcriptases
28. The fragments of chromosomes split by re- D. DNA polymerases
striction enzymes
33. What is cDNA?
A. have fused ends
A. Complimentary DNA produced from a
B. form a circle
DNA templete
C. have specific sequences of nucleotides
B. Complimentary DNA produced from an
RNA templete
D. have random sequences of nucleotides
C. Complimentary DNA produced from an
29. During insertion step, mRNA templete
A. The recombinant plasmid is inserted D. Complimentary DNA produced from a
into a host cell cDNA templete

34. What are the typical characteristics of a 39. Which of the following sequences can form
cloning vector? a palindrome?
A. Bacterial cells cannot survive without A. GGCATC
it when grown under certain conditions.
B. GGCCGG
B. It contains restriction sites that allow
C. GGGCCC
the insertion of foreign DNA segments.
D. CCGCCC
C. It can replicate in bacterial cells.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All of the above. 40. Recombinant DNA technology is to produce
35. Cell that receive recombinant DNA for

A. aminoacyl
cloning purpose
B. desired protein
A. Host cell
C. carrier protein
B. plasmid
D. channel protein
C. DNA target
D. Gene of interest 41. A clone can be BEST thought of as a(n)
created in the lab.
A. identical twin
plasmid?
B. GMO
A. A section of DNA
C. science fiction experiment
B. Circular DNA found in bacteria
D. none of above
C. DNA that has genes from different or-
ganisms 42. EcoRI restriction enzyme cuts plasmid at
D. A bundle of DNA the following sites EXCEPT
A. G and C bond
37. Which of the following model organisms is
often used in rDNA technology to make in- B. Specific sequences
sulin? C. Palindromic sequences
A. small squid D. Specific restriction sites
B. mouse
43. Gene Cloning
C. fruit fly
A. involves joining together DNA
D. E. coli molecules of 2 different sources to pro-
duce new genetic combinations
38. State the enzyme that produce sticky en-
zyme B. usually involves plasmids (as vectors)
and bacteria (as host cells)
A. PovI
C. is a process to produce non-
B. SmaI
genetically identical copies of certain
C. BamHI genes
D. EcoR2 D. none of above

44. What two enzymes are needed to produce 50. The “natural” use of restriction enzymes
recombinant DNA? by bacteria is to

A. Endonuclease, transcriptase A. integrate viral DNA
B. Endonuclease, ligase B. destroy viral DNA
C. Polymerase, ligase
C. repair “sticky ends”
D. Transcriptase, ligase
D. copy the bacterial genes
45. DNA can be synthesized using RNA as tem-
plate through the action of 51. If two double-stranded DNA molecules are
A. RNA polymerase used at the beginning of a polymerase
chain reaction (PCR) process, how many
B. reverse transcriptase
double-stranded DNA molecules can be ob-
C. ligase tained after two cycles?
D. DNA polymerase A. 2
46. During ligation process to form recombi- B. 4
nant DNA, which bond is formed?
C. 8
A. Peptide bond
D. 32
B. Hydrogen bond
C. Glycosidic bond 52. What is the example of host cell?
D. Phosphodiester bon A. x-gal
47. Enzyme that can introduce a small gap of B. E.coli
2 to 3 nucleotides in DNA are
C. ampicillin
A. S1 nuclease
D. DNA ligase
B. Restriction Endonuclease
C. Lambda exonuclease 53. A protein of interest is
D. none of above A. the entire genome of the organism
48. Is used to make copies of the recombinant B. a section of DNA (a gene) that codes
dna for a protein
A. Bacteria C. a protein that can be used to treat a
B. Plasmid disease
C. Restriction enzymes D. a protein that has an interesting shape
D. none of above
54. Which of the following is true in regards
49. Using living things or parts of living things to gene therapy? We insert a
to produce a product or solve a problem
A. Vaccine
A. biotechnology
B. tissue culturing B. Protein
C. bioremediation C. Gene
D. transgenic D. Lipid

55. What is the main cause for B- 60. Plasmid are important in biotechnology be-
galactosidase can not be produce? cause they are
A. Because lacZ gene is distrupted/non A. a vehicle for the insertion of foreign
functional DNA into bacteria.
B. because B-galactosidase is broken B. surfaces for respiratory process in
C. Because hydrolyze x-gal sugar is bacteria.
formed C. recognition site on recombinant DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. lac z gene is iintact strand.
D. enzyme cuts DNA into restriction frag-
56. During screening, white colonies are the ments.
bacteria that
A. Carry recombinant plasmid 61. Which of the following organisms produce
restriction enzymes?
B. Died
A. Bacteria
C. Carry non recombinant plasmid
B. Yeast
D. Has No plasmid
C. Retrovirus
57. T5-The entire collection of genes within hu-
D. Bacteriophage
man cells is referred to as the
A. human genome 62. In order to insert a foreign gene into a plas-
B. karyotype mid, both must
C. pedigree A. have identical DNA sequences
D. gene map B. originate from the same type of cell

C. be cut by the same restriction enzyme
transgenic organism?
D. be of the same length
A. Changing bacterial DNA by adding
genes to it 63. Which has the correct order of the Recom-
B. Any organism that has DNA from a dif- bination Procedure Steps?
ferent species A. CleaveSpliceInsert
C. Any organism that has DNA from the B. SpliceCleaveInsert
same species
C. CleaveInsertSplice
D. A tool used by scientists to separate
chunks of DNA D. InsertSpliceCleave
59. what cuts DNA into small fragments 64. Enzyme used in RNA labelling
A. restriction enzyme A. DNA polymerase
B. ligands B. Taq polymerase
C. Polymerase chain reaction C. RNA polymerase
D. gel electrophoresis D. Topoisomerase

65. Restriction endonuclease with same se- 70. Which enzyme helps join the foreign DNA
quence specificity and cut site into the new DNA?
A. DNA Polymerase

A. Isoshizomer
B. Neoschizomer B. DNA ligase
C. Restriction enzyme
C. Isocaudomer
D. Reverse transcriptase
D. none of above
71. Which of the following is used as se-
66. Which of the following enzymes joins the lectable marker?
paired sticky ends of DNA fragments? A. Ampicillin resistance gene
A. DNA ligase B. Plasmid resistance gene
B. DNA polymerase C. Salmonella resistance gene
C. reverse transcriptase D. Penicillin resistance gene
D. restriction enzymes 72. What enzyme forms covalent bonds be-

tween restriction fragments?
67. T6-GMO’s are an example of foreign A. DNA primase
genes being inserted into an organism.
B. DNA helicase
GMO’s are referred to as
C. DNA ligase
A. Recombinant Organisms
D. DNA polymerase
B. Clones
73. If a linear piece of DNA contains 3 recog-
C. Transgenic Organisms nition sites for a restriction enzyme. How
D. Transgenes many pieces will be produced when the re-
striction enzyme cuts the DNA?
68. Which of these fields are most likely re- A. 2
lated to the use of biotechnology?
B. 3
A. construction and engineering C. 4
B. medicine and agriculture D. 5
C. water treatment and electricity gener- 74. Exo Klenov fragment has
ation
A. 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity
D. communication and computer technol-
B. 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity
ogy
C. 5’ to 3’ polymerization activity
69. GAATTC3’ is a restriction site widely D. All the above
used by restriction enzyme which produces
sticky ends. The enzyme is 75. Which of the following palindromic base
sequence identify by EcoRI
A. BamHI
A. 5’ GATTTC 3’
B. HindIII B. 5’ GATTCC 3’
C. EcoRI C. 5’ GAATCC 3’
D. SmaI D. 5’ GAATTC 3’

76. DNA is created by using the from a 81. Which genetic marker will be altered if a
bacteria and splicing a section of DNA into plasmid accepted a gene of interest during
it. cloning process?
A. recombinant, plasmid A. LacZ gene
B. cloning, ribosome B. Ampicillin resistant gene
C. transcription, translation C. LacY gene
D. gene of, mitochondria D. LacA gene
NARAYAN CHANGDER
82. Restriction enzymes cleave DNA by cutting
77. Enzyme that removes a phosphate group
the
from 5’ ends of DNA
A. hydrogen bond between the nitroge-
A. Acid phosphatase
nous base pair
B. Lambda exonuclease
B. phosphodiester bond between the de-
C. Alkaline phosphatase oxyribose sugar and phosphate group
D. Terminal transferase C. glycosidic bond between the deoxyri-
bose sugar and nitrogenous base
78. Which of the following pairs is INCOR- D. covalent bond in the nitrogenous base
RECTLY matched?
A. Target DNA-gene of interest 83. The following statements are the benefits
of using restriction enzymes in recombi-
B. Restriction enzyme-Cuts DNA nant DNA technology EXCEPT
molecule at specific sites
A. Its action is specific
C. DNA ligase-mapping human chromo-
B. Can be used outside of the cell
somes
C. Naturally present in most bacteria
D. Plasmid as a vector-isolated from bac-
teria D. Prevent viral infection
79. Which restriction enzyme listed below 84. In bacteria, the restriction enzymes is used
was isolated from E. coli bacteria? to
A. EcoRI A. clone DNAs

B. modify sticky ends
B. HindIII
C. destroy viral DNAs
C. HaeII
D. integrate viral DNAs
D. SmaI
85. What happens during the Anneal step of
80. DNA molecules with complementary sticky PCR?
ends associate temporarily by
A. Primers are created.
A. ionic bonds
B. The primers attach to the target DNA
B. covalent bonds region.
C. hydrogen bonds C. Primers copy the new DNA strand.
D. phosphodiester bonds D. Primers sequence DNA

86. Combining DNA from 2 different organ- C. without any plasmid

isms is called D. recombinant that doesn’t contain tar-
get DNA

A. Bioengineering
B. Biotechnology 92. cDNA is different from normal DNA be-
C. Recombinant DNA cause cDNA is synthesised from
D. Genetic Engineering A. plasmids
B. single-stranded DNA
87. Creating a transgenic organism is an exam-
C. mRNA
ple of
D. double-stranded DNA
A. PCR
B. Genetic Engineering 93. What is a cDNA?
A. collection of total genomic DNA
C. Gel Electrophorsis
B. non-coding RNA molecule (containing
D. Gene Therapy
about 22 nucleotides) found in plants,
88. Through natural mechanisms, recombina- C. complementary DNA molecules syn-
tion occurs during crossing over between thesized from mRNA
A. members of the same species. D. small interfering Ribonucleic Acid, is a
class of double-stranded RNA molecules
B. members of different species.
C. homologous chromosomes 94. Which of the following is a circular DNA
from bacteria that can carry a foreign
D. base pairs on any adjacent chromo- gene?
somes
A. plasmid
89. DNA containing genes from a foreign B. restriction enzyme
donor
C. ligase
A. plasmid D. protein expression
B. restriction enzymes
95. Which one below is not the characteristic
C. recombinant DNA of plasmid?
D. gene A. Able to express the cloned genes
90. This are the tools in recombinant DNA tech- B. small, circular, double stranded DNA
nology except molecules found in certain bacteria
A. Modifying enzyme C. can replicate independently

D. carry few genes such as genes coding
B. DNA donor
for resistance to antibiotics
C. Host cell
96. When DNA is manipulated and moved from
D. Lac z one source to another it is known as
91. Screening is important to identify clones of A. genetic engineering
host cells that carry B. electrophoresis
A. recombinant DNA C. gene therapy
B. non-recombinant DNA D. GMO

97. An enzyme that is used to identify exons 102. From where does Taq polymerase come?
A. Lambda exonuclease A. Bacteria that live in hydrothermal
vents/hot springs.
B. S1 nuclease
B. Cambodia
C. Terminal transferase
C. The rain forest
D. Restriction Endonuclease
D. none of above
98. The goal of genetic engineering is to?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
103. What is the function of PCR?
A. eliminate antibiotic resistance in bac-
teria A. Make copies of DNA
B. isolate disease-causing plasmids B. Delete a fragment of DNA

C. Identify a disease
C. transfer of viral genes
D. Produce new fragments
D. modify cells to correct a defect or pro-
duce a desired product 104. A bacteria with human genes could be
called a
99. Which is not a GMO?
A. clone
A. transgenic bacteria
B. eukaryote
B. corn with pesticide produce genes
C. transgenic organism
C. cloned sheep
D. stem cell
D. tomatoes with genes to last longer
105. What is the modifying enzymes used to
100. Once the gene and plasmid have been cut combine DNA fragments?
with a restriction enzyme, another enzyme
A. RNA polymerase
called is used to join the pieces of DNA
together. B. reverse transcriptase
A. polymerase C. DNA ligase
B. ligase D. DNA polymerase
C. dehydrogenase 106. Restriction enzymes are isolated from

D. lactase A. Bacteria
101. Why does E. coli with no plastid is dena- B. Bacteriophages

tured in ampicilin? C. Viruses
A. The heat from surrounding increase D. Proteins
denaturating process
107. What is example of host cell
B. The medium is too acidic for the bacte-
ria A. e.coli and yeast
C. The bacteria does not have cloning vec- B. dna ligase

tor with ampR C. cDNA for insulin production
D. none of above D. plasmid

108. An organism in which foreign genes have 113. When oil spills occur, what is used to
been incorporated is called a break down hydrocarbons in oil before it
was cleaned up

A. Recombinant organism
B. Transgene A. Nitrobacter sp.
C. Recombinant B. Pseudomonas bacteria
D. Transgenic organism C. Nitrosomonas sp.
109. in producing insulin by genetic engineer- D. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

ing, what is the first step to take?
114. Which one of the following is TRUE about
A. isolate insulin from pancrease host cell?
B. isolate insulin mRNA from pancreas A. The cell that prevent plasmid from mul-
C. isolate insulin DNA from pancreas tiplying
D. isolate insulin from animal tissue B. The cell that unable to receive cDNA
through transformation
110. Which of the following are TRUE of re-
striction enzymes? I. It restricts transcrip- C. Plasmid is an example of host cell
tionI. II. It is found in all eukaryotic cells. D. The cell that able to receive recombi-
III. It acts on palindromic sequences. IV. It nant DNA for cloning purpose
is sensitive to changes in temperature and
pH. 115. The extra chromosomal, self-replicating,
A. I and II closed, double stranded and circular DNA
B. I and III molecule is generally termed as
C. II and IV A. chromosome
D. III and IV B. plasmid
C. genomic DNA
111. In blue-white screening, what do blue
colonies represent? D. bactriophage
A. cells that have not taken up the plas-
116. Plasmid is
mid vector
B. cells with recombinant plasmids con- A. Host cell
taining a new insert B. DNA vector
C. cells containing empty plasmid vectors C. Bacteria
D. Gene of interest
D. cells with a non-functional lacZ gene
117. The process of putting recombinant DNA
112. Which of DNA sequence below would be
into an organism is called
a palindromic sequence?
A. AGCGCT A. Transformation
B. AGCAGC B. Ligating
C. AAAGGG C. Amplification
D. ACACAC D. Screening

118. What is plasmid? 124. Choose the correct tool that allows the
A. Modifying enzyme target gene to be joined permanently into
a plasmid.
B. Host cell
A. DNA cloning vector
C. DNA cloning vector
B. Host cell
D. DNA donor
C. Modifying enzymes
119. Why is a bacteria host often used?
D. Restriction enzymes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. To connect the sequences.
125. Which of the following statements are
B. Fast reproduction.
the benefits of using plasmid as a vector
C. To cleave. in recombinant DNA technology EXCEPT
D. none of above A. Can accept foreign genes
120. Which of the following is not a cloning B. Can replicate independently in bacte-
vector? ria
A. Plasmid C. Has a circular shape
B. Cosmic D. Can be cleaved by restriction enzymes
C. YAC 126. Palindromic sequences in DNA
D. Bacteriophage A. Reflect the same sequence on two op-
121. blue colony is posite sides
A. Lac Z gene is disrupted B. Are not useful in recombinant DNA ex-

periments.
B. carry non-recombinant plasmid
C. Form “blunt” ends when cut by restric-
C. lac Z cannot produce B-galactosidase tion enzymes
enzyme
D. bacterial cell without any plasmid
127. What is the objective of recombinant
122. what type of bonds that cleave by restric-
DNA technology?
tion enzymes?
A. To join and recombine DNA fragments
A. Phosphodiester bond
B. hydrogen bond
B. To produce genetically identical copies
C. covalent bond of certain genes
D. ionic bond C. To modify and recombine DNAs to pro-
duce desired products
123. Gene cloning refers to the
D. To eliminate antibiotic resistance in
A. production of large number of copies
bacteria
of the gene being cloned
B. production of asexual progeny from a 128. What was used for the transformation of
single individual or a cell E. coli?
C. both a and b A. mRNA
D. none of these B. recombinant DNA

C. restriction enzyme 134. Enzyme used to join cohesive ends, blunt

D. modifying enzyme ends and linkers

A. E coli DNA ligase
129. Which of the following enzyme is re-
quired for end to end joining of DNA? B. T4 DNA ligase
A. DNA ligase C. Topoisomerase
B. Restriction enzyme D. none of above
C. RNA polymerase
D. DNA polymerase 135. During screening, blue colonies is the bac-
teria that
130. Transgenic organisms contain
A. Carry non recombinant plasmid
A. genes from other species.
B. Carry recombinant plasmid
B. cells of another organism.
C. No plasmid
C. genes of only one parent.
D. one or more human genes. D. Died
131. What happens in the Denature step of 136. Which category does the following
PCR? biotechnology fall under?Doctors have
A. The DNA nucleotides are broken apart. used genetic testing to devise the first
treatment for A disease in 20 years.
B. The base-pairing rules for DNA are re- A. Forensic
versed.
B. Agricultural
C. The double-stranded DNA is separated
into two single strands of DNA. C. Medical
D. none of above D. Consumer Goods
132. An organism that has had its genes ma- 137. Enzyme that can phophorylate 5’ end of
nipulated by genetic engineering is consid- DNA
ered as
A. Terminal transferase
A. transgenic
B. Polynucleotide kinase
B. crossbred
C. transmutant C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. culitvars D. Lambda exonuclease
133. What happen to the bacteria that did not 138. Which of the following is NOT a tool used
receive any foreign plasmid during trans- in genetic engineering?
formation of gene cloning?
A. plasmid
A. form white colony in X-gal
B. form blue colony in X-gal B. restriction enzyme
C. form colorless colony in X-gal C. DNA helicase

D. do not form any colony on X-gal D. DNA ligase

139. What is the purpose of the Extension 144. Splicing together DNA from 2 different
step of PCR? organisms is called
A. To create the primers. A. biotechnology
B. To allow polymerase to create the com- B. bioengineering
plementary strands of DNA. C. recombinant DNA technology
C. To extend the time it takes to produce D. genetic engineering
DNA.
145. The enzyme used to join the DNA frag-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. To allow substrates to copy DNA se- ments
quences. A. Topoisomerase
140. What is the function of gel electrophore- B. DNA ligase
sis C. DNA polymerase
A. Catalyses the formation of phosphodi- D. Reverse transcriptase
ester bond
146. At what temperature does the denatura-
B. Carry foreign DNA to host cell tion step of PCR occur?
C. Bind to target gene A. 95◦ C
D. Seperates restriction fragments ac- B. 50◦ C
cording to their sizes C. 72◦ C
D. none of above
141. An example of plasmid is
A. sCOS1 147. Restriction enzymes
A. Cut DNA at a specific site
B. pYAC
B. Can be used to cleave gene of interest
C. pUC18
D. λ 2001 C. Can be used to cut vector DNA
142. The method used to produce DNA frag- D. Do all of these things
ments 148. mRNA is converted to cDNA by
A. is known as amplification. A. Ligase enzyme
B. is heating a solution of DNA. B. Reverse Transcriptase enzyme
C. uses restriction enzymes. C. Restriction Endonuclease enzyme
D. isolate DNA molecules from the nu- D. RNA polymerase enzyme
cleus. 149. Which of the following sequences in dou-
ble stranded DNA is most likely to produce
143. Which of these might be a biotechnology
sticky end fragments when treated with a
product?
restriction enzyme
A. vaccine A. 5‘-CTAAGC-3‘3‘-GATTCG-5‘
B. modified enzyme B. 5’-TTCCTT-3’3’-AAGGAA-5’
C. protein hormone C. 5’-GAATTC-3’3’-CTTAAG-5’
D. all of the above D. 5’-TCAGTC-3’3’-AGTCAG-5’

150. Thermophilic polymerase with lowest er- C. Gel Electrophoresis

ror rate D. Gene Splicing

A. Taq
156. The first human hormone produced suc-
B. Vent
cessfully by using DNA recombinant tech-
C. Pfu nology is
D. none of above A. human growth hormone
151. Which one or more of these can be used B. insulin
as a vector?i. Bacterium ii. Plasmid iii. E. C. adenosine deaminase
coli iv. Bacteriophage
D. thyroxin
A. i & ii
B. ii & iii 157. Generally a plasmid vector contains what
elements?i ampicillin resistanceii lac Ziii
C. i & iii origin of replicationiv point of mutation
D. ii & iv
A. i only
152. circular DNA that is used as a vector to B. i and ii only
put DNA into it
C. i, ii and iii only
A. Bacteria
D. all of above
B. Restriction enzymes
C. Plasmids 158. State the modifying enzyme that in-
volved in gene cloning
D. none of above
A. Restriction enzyme
153. White colonies are formed. It is meant B. DNA Ligase
Bacteria containing
C. RNA polymerase
A. non-recombinant plasmid
D. Peptidyl transferase
B. do not receive any plasmid
C. recombinant plasmid 159. DNA ligase links two DNA fragments
by bonds.
D. ampicillin
A. circular; covalent
recombinant DNA? B. palindromic; covalent
A. A section of DNA C. linear; covalent
B. Circular DNA found in bacteria D. linear; hydrogen

C. DNA that has genes from different or- 160. The restriction site recognized by EcoRI
ganisms is
D. A bundle of DNA A. GGCATT
155. What breaks DNA into fragments? B. GAATTC
A. Ligase C. GCCATT
B. Restriction Enzyme D. GGATCC

161. what colour of colonies produced if D. none of above

the bacteria is containing non-recombinant
plasmid? 167. restriction enzymes is
A. blue A. protect bacteria from viral infection
B. white B. cut the target DNA
C. black C. cut DNA producing blunt end
D. white and black D. all of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
162. Which of the following is NOT a tool used 168. Organisms that have DNA from a differ-
in recombinant DNA technology? ent species artificially inserted into their
A. Cloning vector cells are called
B. Restriction endonuclease A. bioremediated
C. DNA polymerase B. transgenic
D. DNA ligase C. cultured
163. Enzyme that can add homopolymer tails D. a clone
to 3’ ends of DNA
169. What is the function of a primer?
A. Terminal transferase
A. To identify the particular region of DNA
B. DNA polymerase to be copied by PCR.
C. Lambda exonuclease B. To create DNA nucleotides
D. Polynucleotide kinase
C. To copy DNA.
164. Lambda exonuclease cleaved DNA is an D. To maintain the temperature of the
excellent substrate for the enzyme PCR reaction.
A. DNA polymerase
170. What is transformation in recombinant
B. Terminal transferase DNA technology?
C. Polynucleotide kinase A. Insertion of foreign DNA into a cell
D. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Synthesis of mRNA from a DNA
165. Restriction enzymes molecule
A. cut open DNA to be modified C. Semiconservative replication shown
by DNA
B. piece together DNA sections
C. help digest proteins D. Synthesis of DNA molecule using
mRNA template
D. help assemble proteins
171. What does Ligase do to Recombinant
166. Plasmids are found in bacteria. Scientists DNA?
use plasmids to
A. Seal
A. Insert eukaryotic genes into bacteria
B. Replicate
B. insert eukaryotic genes into humans
C. insert clones into the parent organism C. Separate strands
D. none of above

172. Which of the following enzyme is used to 178. Which of the following process involve in
cut DNA molecule in rDNA technology the production of cDNA molecule?

A. ligase A. Transcription
B. phosphatase B. Translation
C. modifying enzymes C. Reverse transcription
D. restriction enzymes
D. Reverse translation
173. What is the product produce after step
insertion? 179. A cell is made up almost entirely of
A. DNA A. carbohydrates
B. Host cell B. proteins
C. Recombinant plasmid C. fats
D. Plasmid D. nucleic acids
174. Which folowing process is catalyzed by a 180. A cloning vector is
reverse transcriptase?
A. An agent that transfers a pathogen.
A. DNA to mRNA
B. An agent that transfers a foreign gene
B. DNA to cDNA
from one DNA molecule to another.
C. mRNA to DNA
C. An agent that transfers a DNA seg-
D. cDNA to mRNA ment to a RNA molecule.
175. Enzyme with high processivity D. An agent that transfers a RNA seg-
A. E coli DNA polymerase ment to a DNA molecule.
B. T4 DNA polymerase 181. Tranformation is
C. T7 RNA polymerase A. Insertion gene of interest into plasmid
D. Taq polymerase
176. A functional units of organisms that make B. Insertion recombinant plasmid into
up physical structures and act as chemical bacteria
messengers are called C. Isolation plasmid from bacteria
A. carbohydrates D. Cut the DNA donor
B. proteins
C. fats 182. What is the purpose of amplification?
D. nucleic acids A. To screen for recombinant bacteria

B. To join the recombinant DNA with the
177. Acts as molecular scissors and cuts DNA
host cell
A. Plasmids
C. To produce multiple copies of the de-
B. Restriction enzymes sired gene
C. Bacteria D. To prevent the bacteria from reproduc-
D. none of above ing

183. In gene cloning, antibiotic medium are 188. The first step to genetic engineering is:
used to A. isolate gene of interest
A. Selects for plasmids containing partic- B. Cut DNA strand
ular DNA fragments
C. Reconnect DNA fragements
B. Selects for bacteria containing recom-
D. Produce proteins
binant plasmids
C. Selects for bacteria lacking plasmids 189. What type of DNA fragments produced
by SmaI
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Selects against plasmids containing
human DNA fragments A. sticky ends
B. blunt ends
184. During screening, what happen to the
bacteria that no have plasmid C. no ends
A. Turn to blue colony D. the ends
B. Turn to purple colony 190. Arrange the correct step in gene cloning
C. Died A. Cut, isolation, insertion, screening
D. Turn to white colony B. Isolation, insertion, cut, transforma-
tion
185. Which would require the use of recombi-
C. Isolation, cut, insertion, transforma-
nant DNA?
tion, screening
A. Engineering bacteria to produce in-
D. Insertion, transformation, isolation
sulin
B. Crossing 2 varieties of apple 191. The function of is to transport amino
acids in the cytoplasm to the ribosome.
C. Breeding a donkey and horse to make
a mule A. rRNA
D. Creating a polyploid banana tree B. tRNA
C. mRNA
186. To produce desired protein should be
taken from any source like human, animal D. DNA
and plant. 192. The amplification of recombinant plas-
A. recombinant DNA mids occurs by
B. Target DNA A. The growth of the plasmid DNA
C. plasmid B. DNA replication of plasmids outside a
host cell
D. ligase
C. The process of growth and division of
187. An expression vector. the host cell
A. always contains an origin of replica- D. Transformation of bacterial cells
tion
193. double stranded cDNA is produced by
B. usually contains a gene that confers
antibiotic resistance to the bacterial host A. Ligase enzyme
C. always contains DNA segments for the B. Reverse Transcriptase enzyme
regulation of mRNA production C. Restriction Endonuclease enzyme
D. all of the above D. DNA polymerase enzyme

194. What are the source of gene of interest C. ligase

except?
D. agarose

A. Animal
B. Virus 200. These are the main tools used in recombi-
nant DNA technology except
C. Plant
A. host cells
D. Human
B. cosmid
195. How do scientists cut foreign DNA into
smaller strands? C. restriction endonuclease
A. restriction enzymes D. DNA polymerase

B. scissors 201. Which of the following enzymes are NOT
C. DNA ligase used in the production of a recombinant
D. modifying enzyme DNA?
A. DNA polymerase
196. Which ONE is not used in recombinant
DNA technology? B. DNA ligase
A. Cloning vector C. Restriction enzymes
B. RNA polymerase D. Restriction endonuclease
C. Target DNA
202. At what temperature does the Extension
D. DNA ligase step of PCR occur?
197. The recognition sites for restriction en- A. 95◦ C
zymes are usually..
B. 50-65◦ C
A. Acronyms
C. 72◦ C
B. Palindrome
D. none of above
C. Alliterations
D. Analogies 203. SmaI and XmaI are
198. DNA fingerprinting A. Isoshizomer
A. Can be used to identify individuals. B. Neoschizomer

B. Will have a combination of parents’ C. Isocaudomer
fragments for kids. D. none of above
C. Can be compared to evidentiary evi-
dence. 204. How does DNA fragments run through
the gel?
A. Negative to positive
199. How do scientists cut DNA into smaller
strands? B. Positive to negative
A. restriction enzymes C. Doesn’t matter
B. scissors D. Left to right

7.11 Cloning Genes 1268
205. DNA that has selected pieces of DNA in- A. bacteria are transferred into plasmid
serted into it cells
A. rDNA (recombinant DNA) B. viruses are transferred into bacterial
B. Bacteria cells cells
C. Plasmid C. plasmids are transferred into bacte-

rial cells
D. none of above
D. plasmids are transferred into viral
NARAYAN CHANGDER
206. Transformation is a process whereby: cells
7.11 Cloning Genes

1. What is Genetic Engineering? A. A section of DNA
A. the manipulation of an organism’s B. A bundle of DNA
genes C. Every cell in your body has 23 pairs of
B. a change in an organism’s genes genes
C. a random and abrupt disruption to D. All of the genetic material in your cells
DNA 5. What is bioremediation?
D. the manipulation of an organism’s ap- A. bacteria and microorganisms clean up
pearance pollution.
2. In the discovery of introns, a DNA B. learning bio
molecule called was formed that had the C. i don’t know
same nucleotide sequence as the gene that D. none of above
produced the mRNA
6. What was the purpose of the human
A. mDNA
genome project?
B. cDNA A. To know the purpose of each gene in
C. sDNA DNA
D. rDNA B. To know which type of stem cells to use
in research
3. Which of the following statements isTRUE C. To know which sections of human DNA
about developing cDNA? could best be used for cloning
A. Mature mRNA does not contains in- D. To know which genes are most easily
trons. edited in gene therapy
B. Mature mRNA directs the formation of 7. What is NOT a reason to genetically mod-
the DNA. ify plants?
C. DNA taken from the nucleus is used to A. To make the plants poisonous to in-
produced cDNA. sects
D. Both A and C are true. B. Make plants drought resistant
4. Which of the following best describes a C. To produce fewer plants
gene? D. Improve the nutrition of food grown

8. Sexual reproduction requires parents C. Bacterial DNA is incorporated into the

and asexual reproduction requires par- human genome
ents

D. Stem cells are used to cure a disease
A. 1, 1
14. in transformation and amplification, it
B. 2, 2 treat bacteria with
C. 2, 1 A. Carbon ions
D. 1, 2 B. Hydrogen ions
9. The cloned animal looks like the C. Calcium ions
A. egg donor D. Lactose
B. nucleus donor 15. What is used in DNA cloning?
C. host mother A. A segment of bacterial DNA from the
D. all of the above nucleoid
B. Plasmids from a bacteria
10. If a disease is dominant the chances of
passing the disease on is C. DNA from a recombinant bacterium
A. 1 in 2 D. DNA from a eukaryotic cell
B. 1 in 3 16. Which process allow the bacteria colonies
C. 1 in 4 to form before screening process?
D. 1 in 10 A. Transformation
B. Amplification
11. Which answer choice fits the follow-
ing statement:“DNA makes up discrete C. Insertion
recipes or programs called ?” D. Isolation
A. Deoxyriboses 17. What do we call biological scissors?
B. Phosphate Molecules A. Enzymes
C. Genes B. Inzymes
D. Carbon Sugars C. Outzymes
12. What is the process of making an identical D. Scissors
copy of an organism?
18. What color was the mouse you created?
A. clothing
A. Brown
B. closing
B. White
C. cloning
C. Black
D. Pink
13. Gene therapy is when: 19. What enzyme helps join the recombinant
A. A person’s genes are edited plasmid together after the restriction en-
B. New genes are added to a person’s zyme?
genome A. Restriction Enzymes

B. DNA Polymerase 25. What does it mean to “extract” DNA?

C. DNA Ligase A. take out
D. RNA Polymerase B. put in
20. “Remediate” means C. modify
A. to meditate D. delete
B. to solve a problem
26. Where are restriction enzymes naturally
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. to create a problem found?
A. in humans
21. What is a Stem cell? B. in bacteria
A. Undifferentiated cell of an embryo that C. in algae
can reproduce itself
D. they are not natural-all restriction en-
B. A cell that can differentiate and be un-
zymes are made in the lab
differentiated
C. Neither of these answers are correct 27. What is a GMO?
D. Both of these answers are correct A. A genetically modified organism
22. A surrogate is best described as B. An organism with altered DNA
A. the organism that carries the offspring C. An organism developed by scientists
to have desired traits
B. the sex cell that donates half the chro- D. All of the above
mosomes
C. the organism that donates the com- 28. Recombinant DNA technology is used .
plete set of chromosomes A. for gene therapy
D. none of above
B. to make a particular protein.
23. What is needed for both the Sanger C. to clone a specific piece of pro-
method and Pyrosequencing? tein/gene.
A. labelled nucleotides D. All of the above.
B. single stranded DNA
C. bases that terminate the chain 29. Transgenic Organisms (GMO’s) are:
D. ATP sulfurylase A. Organisms that have genes from a dif-

ferent species
24. Making changes in the DNA of an organism
B. Organisms who have received new
is
stem cells to cure a disease
C. Organisms whose DNA has been
B. artificial selection copied
C. genetic engineering D. Organisms whose entire genome has
D. genetic transformation been sequenced

30. What enzyme is used to ensure that the re- 35. “transgenic” refers to an animal that:
combinant DNA created is bonded together A. Has DNA from another organism
along the sugar-phosphate backbone? spliced into its genome

A. DNA polymerase B. Has undergone DNA modification
B. RNA polymerase C. Has unique genes for its species
C. ligase D. none of above
D. helicase 36. What happens during somatic cell nuclear
transfer (SCNT)?
31. cells are used to produce human pro-
A. An organism is naturally cloned
teins at an increased rate for gene ther-
apy. B. The DNA in a somatic cell is placed into
an egg cell
A. Plant
C. The DNA of an egg cell is placed into a
B. Human somatic cell
C. Animal D. An organisms does sexual reproduc-
D. Bacteria tion
37. The following are the steps taken during
32. Restriction Enzymes are . . . the cloning process.1. Transformation 2.
A. proteins Insertion 3. Isolation 4. Screening 5. Cut
B. DNA A. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
C. fats B. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
D. carbohydrates C. 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
D. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
33. Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO’s)
are: 38. What was the first mammal to be cloned?
A. sheep
A. The same thing as transgenic organ-
isms B. goat
B. Organisms who have received new C. cow
stem cells to cure a disease D. frog
C. Organisms whose DNA has been 39. An exact copy
copied A. replica
D. Organisms whose entire genome has B. twin
been sequenced
C. mirror
34. A circular piece of DNA, found in bacteria, D. oviduct
is called:
40. Another term for a body cell is a cell.
A. A plasmid A. blastocyst
B. mRNA B. zygote
C. Ribosome C. gamete
D. Nucleotide D. somatic

41. A farmer has bred his pineapple plants B. DNA ligase

from the sweetest pineapples from his last C. DNA polymerase
harvest to get even sweeter pineapple
plants. What is this an example of? D. DNA helicase
A. Selective breeding 47. In cloning, what is the purpose of the sur-
B. Natural selection rogate mother?
C. Extinction A. Donate her DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Mutagenesis B. Donate her egg cell
C. Incubate and carry the baby until birth
42. What are selectable marker?
A. a radium labelled marker
D. Nothing. She’s useless.
B. a type of sequence
C. resistant gene 48. What is clone?
D. a type of protein A. An identical copy of an organism

B. The offspring of a sexually reproducing
43. In attempts to confer special characteris- organism
tics upon plants, genetic engineers find
Agrobacterium tumefaciens to be an effec- C. An identical twin was born as an adult
tive vector for use with .
A. rice D. A transgenic organism
B. wheat 49. LacZ gene is used to?
C. barley A. Differentiate between transformant
D. soy beans and non transformant
B. Differentiate between clones with vec-
44. Why might people be against cloning?
tor plasmids and without vector plasmids
A. It’s creepy
B. It can cause unknown defects C. Differentiate between competent cells
C. It is detrimental to genetic diversity and non competent cells
D. All of the above D. Differntiate between negative and
false negative
45. Can two DNAs cut with different restric-
tion enzymes join together to form a re- 50. Scientists genetically engineer corn to be
combinant plasmid? immune to corn diseases. This is BENEFI-
CIAL because
A. Yes
B. No A. This causes corn to be less likely to re-
produce
C. -
B. This causes corn to be less likely to sur-
D. - vive
46. Which enzyme “glues” DNA fragments to- C. This causes corn to be smaller
gether during insertion? D. This allows increased production of
A. restriction enzymes corn

51. The purpose of selective breeding is to 56. Which is another term for selective breed-
A. Get bigger animals ing?

B. get smaller animals A. Artificial selection
C. create animals with desirable traits B. Natural Selection

D. create animals with bad traits C. Intelligent selection
D. none of above
52. insertion is
A. Insertion of fragments into plasmid 57. What is NOT an example of a somatic
DNA to form recombinant DNA cell?
B. Insertion of two enzyme and cut by A. Blood cell
DNA B. Sperm cell
C. Insertion of recognition sequence C. Skin cell
D. Insertion of DNA with different en- D. Muscle cell
zyme
58. The overall function of selective breeding
53. How was the nucleus removed from the
is to
egg cell?
A. Create organisms with desirable traits
A. It was dissolved out with chemicals
B. It was sucked out with a sharp pipette
B. Create bigger organisms
C. Create smaller organisms
C. It was left in the nucleus
D. Create animals with more genetic mu-
D. none of above
tations
54. What enzyme binds to the promotor of
the plasmid to transcribe the gene inserted 59. Which of the following could be used as a
into the plasmid? cloning vector for a human gene?
A. DNA polymerase A. Bacterial Plasmid
B. helicase B. Bacteria
C. RNA polymerase C. A mitochondria
D. ligase D. mRNA
55. What was the significance of Dolly the 60. What is an example of selective breeding
Sheep? by farmers?
A. She was the first organism ever cloned A. Mating 2 small chickens to create
more large chickens
B. She was the first adult animal to be B. Mating 2 large chickens to create more
cloned large chickens
C. She was the first animal cloned as an C. Mating 2 large chickens to create
embryo more small chickens
D. She was the first animal to be cloned D. Using a machine to change the DNA of
multiple times a chick

61. How many individual mice were used in 66. Genetic engineering has been used to do
the cloning process? all of the following EXCEPT .
A. 1 A. make plants resistant to frost
B. 2 B. make plants resistant to disease
C. 3 C. make plants more resistance to herbi-
D. 4 cides
D. All the above are correct
NARAYAN CHANGDER
62. Which of the following best describes “re-
combinant DNA?” 67. Which of the following could be used to
carry, clone and mass produce a human
A. DNA that has genes from different or-
gene?
ganisms
A. Bacterial Plasmid
B. DNA that has been combined with RNA
B. Bacteria
C. DNA that is used to make carbohy- C. A mitochondria
drates instead of proteins D. mRNA
D. DNA that has genes that have never
68. Oil sludge and straw or woodchips can be
been edited
composed as long as the microbes have the
63. The alternative selectable marker and right amount of
chromogenic substrate that selects re- A. moisture
combinants on the basis of their ability to
B. air
produce colour are
C. nitrogen
A. LacZ gene, X-gal
D. all of the above
B. α -galactosidase and X-gal
C. Amp R gene and X-gal 69. Genetic engineering has successfully trans-
ferred genes from eukaryotic cells into .
D. β -galactosidase and X-gal
A. plants
64. Humans have been choosing the best traits
B. bacteria
for domesticated plants and animals for
thousands of years. What is that called? C. animals
A. Genetic Engineering D. all of the above
B. Cloning 70. The restriction site recognised by SmaI is
C. Artificial Selection A. GGATCC
D. Natural Selection B. GGGCCC
65. Which of these would you not expect to be C. CCCGGG
a biotechnology product? D. GAATTC
A. Vaccine 71. In nature, when an embryo splits in two
B. Steroid and goes on to develop, it is called
C. Hormone A. Twinning
D. Modified enzyme B. Cloning

C. Duplicating D. it is what makes a complementary

D. Somatic cell transfer copy of the template DNA strand

72. What is the 1st and 5th step of gene 77. What is another name for reproductive
cloning? cloning?
A. isolation and insertion A. somatic cell nuclear transfer
B. insertion and isolation B. adult stem cell transfer
C. isolation and screening C. nucleic acid recombination
D. screening and cleave D. protein synthesis
73. Which of the following is a way or ways 78. Making an identical copy of a cell or tissue
of cleaning up contaminated soil? is
A. Burn in incinerators A. genetic transformation
B. Composting B. stem cell diffusion
C. both C. reproductive cloning
D. neither
D. therapeutic cloning
74. If two genetically identical individuals ex-
79. The advantages of Embryonic Stem cells in-
perience two different environments, any
clude?
changes observed can be attributed to:
A. Their environments A. Capacity for indefinite proliferation in
culture
B. Their genes
B. Can be differentiated into a variety of
C. Random chance cells including germ cells
D. none of above
C. Can be maintained as frozen stocks
75. The bt gene D. All of the above
A. makes a protein that kills the corn
borer 80. Stem cells can be found naturally in?
B. makes a protein that helps the corn A. Trophoblast

borer B. A Fertilized Egg (ES)
C. makes the corn grow faster C. None of these
D. makes the corn taste better D. I have no idea becasue I didn’t pay at-
tention
76. Why is DNA polymerase needed in the PCR
process? 81. What term is used to express creating an
A. they are the building blocks to make identical copy of a gene or organism?
more DNA
A. hybridization
B. it is used as a template to make more
B. inbreeding
DNA
C. cloning
C. it attaches to either end of the gene to
be copied D. gene splicing

82. A tube for eggs B. PCR analysis

A. embryo C. a restriction enzyme
B. elude D. recombinant DNA
C. estrus
88. The site where restriction enzymes cut are
D. oviduct a called:
83. Why are primers needed for the PCR pro- A. cut sites
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cess? B. restriction sites
A. they are what makes copy of the DNA C. recognition sites
B. they are used to build more copies of D. cleave sites
the DNA
89. Which of the following is NOT used in
C. they attach to sites on the DNA on ei-
cloning?
ther side of the DNA to be copied
A. Egg cell
D. they are what change temperature to
copy the DNA B. Somatic cell
84. The enzyme used to join pieces of DNA to- C. Sperm cell
gether is called D. Surrogate
A. DNA Ligase 90. In which ways can genetic engineering can
B. Restriction enzyme improve crops
C. Protease A. Make them pest or drought resistant
D. Carbohydrase B. Make them more nutritious
85. A molecule containing DNA from two dif- C. Make them larger
ferent organisms is called D. All answers are correct
A. a plasmid.
91. Screening to obtain the desired cloned cell
B. a polyploid. containing the cloned gene is definition of
C. a hybrid organism. A. Cloning
D. recombinant DNA. B. Screening
86. “Trans” means: C. Transformation & amplification
A. “Across” D. Hybridization
B. “New” 92. How many parent(s)are needed for asex-
C. “Different” ual?
D. “Many” A. 4
87. Which is used to cut DNA molecules at spe- B. 1

cific points? C. 9
A. gel electrophoresis D. 100

7.12 Tools and Techniques of Recombinant DNA 1277
7.12 Tools and Techniques of Recombinant DNA

1. What substance is used to “stain” the B. repeating sequences of bases
DNA for viewing under a UV light? C. specific genes in the DNA
A. ethidium bromide D. their homologous pair
B. bromothymol blue
3. Some restriction enzymes leave behind
C. TBE buffer “sticky ends” or tails of
D. agarose gel A. Repeating bases
2. What do restriction enzymes recognize in B. Exposed bases
order to cut the DNA into pieces? C. Paired bases
A. palindrome sequences of bases D. Restricted bases

8. Classification
NARAYAN CHANGDER
8.1 The Three-Domain Classification System
1. Who first proposed binomial nomenclature C. plantae
as a way of classifying organisms?
D. protista
A. Carl Linnaeus
B. Carl’s Jr. 5. How many kingdoms did we start with?
and how many are there now?
C. Charles Darwin
A. 4, 8
D. Henry Groseclose
B. 1, 6
2. The 2 kingdoms that make up Prokaryotes
are? C. 2, 6
A. Animals and Plants D. 3, 9
B. Protists and Fungi
6. The most general in the order of classifica-
C. Archaea and Bacteria tion is?
D. none of above A. Kingdom
3. The scientific name for an organism is B. Phylum
made from the:
C. Class
A. class and family name
D. Order
B. genus and species name
C. domain and kingdom name 7. The domain Eukarya has 4 kingdoms; pro-
tista, fungi, plantae and
D. kingdom and phylum name
A. Animalia
4. What kingdom’s organisms often live in su-
per harsh environments? B. Mammalia
A. archea C. Crustacea
B. animalia D. Amphibia

8.1 The Three-Domain Classification System 1279
8. Who was considered the father of modern 14. Which of the following organisms are most
taxonomy? DISTANTLY related?

A. Charles Darwin A. organisms that share a domain
B. Lineas Doman B. organisms that share a family
C. Carl Woese C. organisms that share a genus
D. Carl Linnaeus D. organisms that share a species
9. Term given to describe the two-name nam- 15. The science of describing, classifying, and
ing system is: naming living things is called:
A. dichotmous key A. Geology
B. binomial nomenclature B. Biology
C. 2 scientific names C. Taxonomy
D. binomial key D. Chemistry
10. The most specific of the classifications is? 16. How many Domains are there?Name
A. class them:
B. order A. 3; Archaea, Bacteria, Eukarya
C. genus B. 2; Bacteria, Eukarya
D. species C. 1; Eukarya
D. 3; Bacteria, Eukarya, Protists
11. Members of this kingdom never have a cell
wall 17. All members of this kingdom can make
A. Animalia their own food.
B. Plantae A. Plants
C. Archaebacteria B. Fungi
D. Protista C. Protista
D. Animalia
12. An example of an unicellular organism
would be: 18. Bacteria and archaea are similar because
A. monkey both
B. bacteria A. are eukaryotes
C. spider B. are prokaryotes
D. human C. have the same kind of cell wall

D. store their DNA in a nucleus
13. Which Kingdom is found in extreme envi-
ronments? 19. A scientific name consists of
A. Archaebacteria A. Genus and Order
B. Eubacteria B. Genus and Domain
C. Fungi C. Genus and species
D. Protists D. Kingdon and Phylum

8.2 Evolutionary Trends in Animals 1280
20. Organisms are the same when they B. Panthera tigris

can have offspring, then those can have C. panthera Tigris
more offspring.
D. panthera tigris
A. Class
B. Family 24. Members from this kingdom are not
known to cause any diseases.
C. Species
A. Eubacteria
D. Phylum
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Fungi
21. Fill-in-the-blank:Domain Kingdom C. Animal
Phylum
D. Archaebacteria
A. Order
25. An organism made up of more than one cell
B. Family
would be called:
C. Class
A. multicellular
D. Species
B. unicellular
22. What are the three domains? C. heterotroph
A. Archaea, Bacteria, and Eubacteria D. autotroph
B. Archaea, Protists, and Eubacteria
26. Plants and animals belong to which do-
C. Archaea, Bacteria, and Eukarya main?
D. Archaea, Fungi, Animalia A. bacteria
23. Which of the following is the correct way B. archaea

to show the scientific name for tiger? C. eukarya
A. Panthera Tigris D. none of above
8.2 Evolutionary Trends in Animals

1. The repetition of body parts along the 3. A flatworm lacks
length of an animal’s body is termed A. bilateral symmetry.
A. cephalization.
B. a true coelom.
B. coelomization.
C. mesodermal tissue.
C. segmentation.
D. bilateral symmetry and a true coelom.
D. compartmentalization.
4. Which structure insulates various internal
2. What kind of symmetry do flatworms
organs from the stresses of body-wall
have?
movement and bathes them in a liquid
A. They are asymmetrical through which nutrients and waste prod-
B. Radial symmetry ucts can diffuse?
C. Bilateral Symmetry A. a coelom
D. none of above B. mesoderm

8.3 Nine Common Animal Phyla 1281
C. a mantle B. forms the digestive tract.

D. a water-vascular system C. forms the space for all non-digestive

5. The coelom organs.
A. forms the nerve cord. D. is a solid mass of cells.
8.3 Nine Common Animal Phyla

1. A behavior that an animal must acquire D. Porifera
through experiences and observations is:
A. innate 6. The name “Felis catus” includes which of
the following ranks?
B. social
A. Genus and species
C. territorial
D. learned B. Kingdom and phylum
C. Class and order
2. What is the correct way of writing our sci-
entific name? D. Species and subspecies
A. homosapiens
7. What type of symmetry do adult echino-
B. homo sapiens derms exhibit?
C. Homo Sapiens
A. Asymmetry
D. Homo sapiens
B. Pentaradial symmetry
3. Birds, reptiles, mammals, amphibians and
C. Bilateral symmetry
fish all belong to which phylum?
A. Annelida D. Trilateral symmetry
B. Chordata 8. Which type of symmetry do most worms

C. Nematoda have?
D. Arthropoda A. radial
4. What type of symmetry do sponges B. bilateral
(Porifera) have?
C. no symmetry (asymmetrical)
A. asymmetrical
D. none of above
B. radial
C. bilateral 9. This phylum is characterized by spiny and
D. medial leathery skin, and has water vascular sys-
tems to help with movement.
5. Which animal phylum contains the follow-
A. Porifera
ing:Squirrel, dolphin, shark
A. Echinodermata B. Cnidaria
B. Chordata C. Chordata
C. Cnidaria D. Echinoderm

10. What type of symmetry do cnidarians 16. The scientific process of classifying organ-
have isms into groups based on their similarities
A. asymmetrical is called
A. Categorizing
B. bilateral
B. Grouping
C. radial
C. Taxonomy
D. none of above
D. Declassifying
NARAYAN CHANGDER
11. Most diverse and numerous INVERTE-
BRATE phylum? 17. Many different appendages-antennae,
claws, wings, shields, mouthparts.
A. Arthropoda
A. porifera
B. Nematoda
B. cnidaria
C. Chordata
C. arthropoda
D. Porifera
D. echinodermata
12. Which is not an example of cnidarians? 18. Which animal phylum do amphibians be-
A. jellyfish long to?
B. anenome A. chordata
C. hydra B. cnidaria
D. urchin C. arthropoda
D. annelida
13. To which phylum do vertebrates belong?
19. Organisms, like sponges, lacking body tis-
A. Chordata
sues and body symmetry belong to which
B. Cnidaria of the following phyla?
C. Echinodermata A. Cnidaria
D. Arthropoda B. Mollusca
C. Nematoda
14. Which phylum contains segmented earth-
worms? D. Porifera
A. Invertebrates 20. Animals in this phylum contain a water
B. Mollusca vascular system with tube feet used in lo-
comotion and feeding.
C. Anthropoda
A. echinodermata
D. Annelida
B. chordata
15. What does Nematoda mean? C. arthropoda
A. Threadlike D. mollusca
B. the flat worms
21. Which of the following would you consider
C. rings to be an learned behavior?
D. none of above A. A baby crying

B. A spider weaving a web 27. How many major animal phyla are there?
C. A fish sniffing A. 7

D. A dog sitting and shaking hands with B. 8
its paw on command. C. 9
D. 13
22. of all animals
A. sponges 28. What tool do scientist use to classify living
things?
B. worms
A. Rubric
C. invertebrates
B. Answer Key
D. vertebrates
C. Dichotomous Key
23. What phyla to all vertebrates belong in? D. Ruler
A. Chordates 29. Which is the only phylum to contain a back-
B. Porifera bone?
A. echinodermata
C. Echinoderms
B. arthropoda
D. Mammals
C. chordata
24. is a group of similar organisms that D. mollusca
can mate and produce offspring.
30. ectotherm vertebrate animals with scaly
A. Genus skins
B. Phlyum A. amphibians
C. Kingdom B. reptiles
D. Species C. birds
D. fish
25. Which rank contains the largest amount of
organisms? 31. Which of the following are classified as a
A. Genus mollusks?
A. Bees
B. Species
B. Slugs
C. Class
C. Frogs
D. Order
D. Monkeys
26. What invertebrate has a tube like body
32. Which of the following is the most diverse
that is divided into segments?
phylum?
A. segmented worm A. Arthropoda
B. echinoderm B. Chordata
C. arthropod C. Porifera
D. mollusk D. Echinodermata

33. What is a radula? 39. Which of the following animal classes do

A. A Tounge like sturcture used to scrape NOT have jaws?
plant matter into easy to eat pieces. A. Chondrichthyes
B. A part used to make protection. B. Amphibia
C. the fancy way to say “Tentacle” C. Agnatha
D. Movment D. Aves
34. How many animal classes are found within
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the phylum chordata? 40. Which Phylum has animals with a spinal
cord, backbone, skull, and a well devel-
A. 3 oped brain?
B. 4 A. Chordata
C. 6
B. Arthropoda
D. 7
C. Mollusca
35. Select the phyla with bilateral symmetry D. none of above
A. Cnidarians
B. Echinoderm 41. Sea stars, sea cucumbers, and sea urchins
belong to what invertebrate group?
C. Annelids
A. echinoderm
D. none of above
B. mollusk
36. Which animal phyla does this organism be-
long in? Animal has bilateral symmetry, a C. arthropod
head and an anus, segmented limbs and is D. segmented worm
covered in a hard exoskeleton.
42. Which domain do all organisms under King-
A. Porifera
dom Animalia belong?
B. Mollusca
A. Archae
C. Annelida
B. Eubacteria
D. Arthropoda
C. Eukarya
37. What phylum do worms belong to?
D. none of above
A. Annelid
B. Echinoderm 43. Which of the following is NOT true when
comparing scientific names and common
C. Porifera
names?
D. Chordate
A. Scientific names vary from place to
38. Which of the following is NOT one of the place.
phyla of invertebrates>
B. Common names vary from place to
A. Nematoda place.
B. Annelida C. Scientific names are in Latin.
C. Echinodermata D. There can be multiple common names
D. Amphibians for one organism.

44. Smallest taxonomic group with many sim- 50. What are the four Kingdoms of Eukarya?
ilar characteristics A. Archea, Bacteria, Fungi, Protist

A. domain B. Mammals, Birds, Reptiles, Fish
B. kingdom C. Phylum, Groups, Species, Genus
C. species D. Plants, Animals, Protist, Fungi
D. class
51. Which of the following do NOT go through
45. What type of symmetry is based off a cen- cephalization (no head)? Select all that ap-
tral axis point? ply.
A. asymmetry A. chordate
B. radial B. Annelid
C. bilateral C. Arthropoda
D. none of above D. Porifera
46. Most diverse and numerous VERTE- 52. Determine the characteristics of the Ne-
BRATE? mathelminthes (Nematoda) phylum.
A. Amphibia A. False body cavity
B. Reptilia B. No pores
C. Radial Symmetry
C. Aves
D. Complex organ system
D. Osteichthyes
53. Mollusks possess this type of skeleton.
47. What is the scientific name for an animal
without a backbone? A. endoskeleton
A. Spiney B. exoskeleton
B. Invertebrate C. hydrostatic
C. Spineless D. pneumo
D. Vertebrate 54. Invertebrates that have stinging cells and
take food into a central body cavity.
48. Which of the following animal classes does
A. echinoderm
NOT have lungs?
B. mollusk
A. Amphibians
C. flatworm
B. Mammals
D. cnidarian
C. Aves
D. Osteichthyes 55. An aquatic invertebrate of the phylum
Porifera that attaches to stones or plants
49. Birds, Reptiles, Mammals, Amphibians and that has a porous structure and a
and Fish all belong to which phylum? tough, elastic skeleton.
A. Annelida A. cnidarian
B. Chordata B. sponge
C. Nematoda C. mollusk
D. Arthropoda D. echinoderm

56. Which phyla name can be translated into C. bilateral

“spiny skin”? D. none of above
A. echinodermata
62. This phyla has feet and legs covered in
B. arthropoda scales, body covered in feathers, and are
C. porifera endothermic (warm-blooded). Identify the
phyla.
D. annelida
A. Amphibians
NARAYAN CHANGDER
57. Select the phyla with radial symmetry B. Reptiles
A. mollusk C. Mammals
B. Echinoderm D. Birds
C. Arthropod 63. Scientists classify living organisms by
D. none of above A. placing them in groups with organisms
that share similar characteristics.
58. What is the scientific name for animals
with a backbone? B. determining if the organism is harmful
or helpful
A. Invertabrate
C. the type of brain the organism has
B. Spineless
D. giving each one several different king-
C. Spiney dom names.
D. Vertebrate 64. Which phylum includes hookworms, pin-
59. Which phylum includes osteichthyes, chon- worms, and heart worms? They are also
drichthyes, agnatha, reptiles, amphibians, known as roundworms, and many are par-
mammals, and birds? asites.
A. Platyhelminthes
A. mollusca
B. Nematoda
B. echinoderms
C. Annelida
C. chordates
D. none of above
D. arthropods
65. The arthropod exoskeleton is made of
60. In Latin, this word means “soft”; however A. chitin
most animals in this group contain a hard
outer shell. B. melanin
A. arthropods C. resin
D. carbohydrates
B. echinodermata
C. mollusca 66. Which of the following is NOT a character-
istic of molluscs?
D. chordata
A. a true body cavity (coelom)
61. What type of symmetry that divides the B. usually a shell produced by a mantle
animal into left and right parts?
C. an eating organ called a radula
A. asymmetry D. three main body parts; head, thorax,
B. radial abdomen

67. Undergoes a process called molting in 73. Echinoderms have an internal skeleton and
which it sheds its chitinous exoskeleton. a system of fluid-filled tubes called a(n)

A. porifera
B. cnidaria A. water vascular system
C. arthropoda B. nervous system
D. echinodermata C. notochord
D. ampulla
68. Annelida means:
A. “pore bearing” 74. The word autotroph means?
B. “little rings” A. being able to produce its own food
C. “soft body” B. having to obtain food from another or-

ganism
D. “earth worm”
C. DNA is not in a nucleus
69. Who is known as the father of taxon- D. DNA is in a nucleus
omy?
A. Charles Darwin 75. Which of the following is unique to echino-
derms?
B. Gregor Mendel
A. bilateral symmetry
C. Justin Vanhorn
B. water vascular system
D. Carolus Linnaeus
C. radial symmetry
70. Class Aves, Class Reptilia, Class Oste- D. heterotrophic
ichthyes, Class Chondrichthyes, and Class
Mammalia all belong to which phylum? 76. All animals in Phylum Mollusca have
A. arthropods A. Unilateral symmetry
B. echinoderms B. Radial Symmetry
C. chordates C. Bilateral Symmetry
D. sponge D. Asymmetry
71. Which animal phylum do octopus and squid 77. What symmetry do all insects have?
belong to? A. Radial
A. mollusca B. Asymmetry
B. cnidaria C. Bilateral
C. platyhelminths D. none of above
D. annelida
78. Which phylum is “crunchy” (aka has an ex-
72. Jelly Fish oskeleton)?
A. Echinoderm A. Cnidaria
B. Cnidarian B. Arthropoda
C. Arthropod C. Chordata
D. Chordate D. Porifera

79. Salmon travel from the ocean into fresh- 84. What phylum is able to regenerate from
water rivers and swim upstream to where one limb, and includes starfish?
they were born in order to spawn (repro-
A. Echinoderms
duce). This is an example of what kind of
behavior? B. Chordates
A. Estivation C. Cnidarians
B. Competition D. Arthropods
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Migration 85. What is the process of regeneration?
D. Social Hierarchy A. When an animal sheds its exoskeleton.
80. Medusa (motile) and polyp (sessile)
forms. B. When an animal can clean the ocean
floor.
A. porifera
C. When an animal can regrow a body
B. cnidaria
part.
C. arthropoda
D. When an animal recycles plastic bot-
D. echinodermata tles and cans.
81. Which animal phyla have a mouth but no 86. Annelida, Echinodermata, Mollusca,
anus? Arthropoda, and Chordata share what sys-
tem?
A. cnidaria and platyhelminths
A. closed circulatory system
B. annelida and mollusca
B. complete digestive system
C. porifera and mollusca
C. open circulatory system
D. platyhelminths and annelida
D. excretory system
82. Contain specialized features like a strong,
muscular foot, and file-like feeding struc- 87. Which animal phyla have bilateral symme-
ture called a radula, and a characteristic try?
outer shell.
A. mollusca, arthropoda, cnidaria
A. mollusca
B. annelida, arthropoda, platyhelminths
B. chordata
C. cnidaria, platyhelminths, porifera
C. echinodermata
D. annelida, porifera, chordata
D. arthropoda
88. Which of the following have a swim blad-
83. The word multicellular means? der?
A. having only one cell A. Osteichthyes
B. having more than one cell B. Chondrichthyes
C. DNA is not in a nucleus C. Agnatha
D. DNA is in a nucleus D. Amphibia

89. What phylum do starfish belong to? 95. Which animal phylum contains:Spiders,
A. Porifera crabs, scorpions, insects?

B. Echinoderm A. Cnidaria
B. Arthropoda
C. Arthropods
C. Chordata
D. Annelid
D. Echinodermata
90. Which phylum has the following
classes:Insecta, Crustacea, Arachnida? 96. This phyla obtains oxygen through gills,
lives in water, uses fins to move, and is
A. Arthropoda the largest class of vertebrates. Identify
B. Chordata the phyla.
C. Mollusca A. Fish
D. none of above B. Amphibians
C. Reptiles
91. Unlike bones, an exoskeleton
D. Mollusks
A. is on the outside of the body
B. grows with the animal 97. all animals are:
C. is made of fur A. unicellular
D. is made of slime B. multicellular
C. autotrophic
92. Which animal class has feathers and low
density bones? D. heterotrophic
A. Mammalia 98. What are the domains of life?

B. Aves A. Kingdom, Phyllum, Class, Order, Fam-
ily, Genus, Species
C. Reptilia
B. prokaryotes and eukaryotes
D. Amphibia
C. Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Plants,
93. An invertebrate that has an external skele- Animals, Fungi, Protista
ton made of chiton, a segmented body, and D. Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya
jointed appendages.
A. echinoderm 99. Which of the following organisms belong
to Phylum Annelids?
B. cnidarian
A. Snake
C. arthropod
B. Salamander
D. segmented worm
C. Earth Worm
94. Which is an example of innate behavior? D. Snail
A. pond ducks flocking to be fed
100. Leeches and earthworms are examples of
B. bears leaning to catch fish this invertebrate group:
C. human babies speaking words A. echinoderms
D. birds chirping when hatched B. mollusks

C. segmented worms 107. Which phylum are considered sessile,

D. arthropods porous, filter feeders as they use their
choanocytes to pump water through their
101. Which phylum means “jointed foot”? bodies which is how they filter feed?
A. echinodermata A. porifera
B. arthropoda B. cnidaria
C. porifera C. mollusca
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. annelida
D. arthropoda
102. Animals with spiny skin belong to this
phylum: 108. hairy endotherm animals that feed their
babies milk
A. Chordata
A. mammals
B. Arthropods
B. marsupials
C. Echinoderms
D. Cnidarians C. monotremes
D. macropods
103. Choose an invertebrate
A. Turtle 109. The taxon with the largest amount of or-
B. starfish ganisms grouped together
C. shark A. Species
D. none of above B. Phylum
104. What level of classification of living C. Kingdom

things is below Kingdom? D. Domain
A. Domain
110. What type of symmetry is exhibited by
B. Phylum all vertebrates?
C. Genus A. Asymmetry
D. Species
B. Bilateral Symmetry
105. What is the classification level below do- C. Octagonal Symmetry
main?
D. Radial Symmetry
A. Phylum
B. Genus 111. Bilaterally symmetric animal with de-
fined head and tail region containing a cen-
C. Species
tralized nervous system, a gastrovascular
D. Kingdom cavity, no circulatory or respiratory sys-
106. Which is not an example of mollusks? tem.
A. snail A. nematoda
B. clam B. annelida
C. lobster C. platyhelminthes
D. octopus D. none of above

112. Select the products of photosynthesis: 118. Examples:leeches and earthworms

A. Oxygen and glucose A. nematoda

B. Glucose and carbon dioxide B. annelida
C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide C. platyhelminthes
D. Water and carbon dioxide D. none of above
113. What type of skeleton do echinoderms 119. Animals in this phylum have the ability to
have? regenerate.
A. Exoskeleton A. mollusca
B. Hydrostatic skeleton B. echinodermata
C. Endoskeleton C. arthropoda
D. Mesenteric skeleton D. chordata
114. The wildcat’s scientific name is Felis sil- 120. Which group gives examples of inverte-
vestris. What taxonmic levels do the sci- brates?
entific name include? A. worms, mollusks, and anthropods
A. genus & species B. arthropods, mammals, and worms
B. phylum & genus C. mammals, reptiles, and birds
C. kingdom & phylum D. none of the above
D. class & species 121. Competition occurs when:
115. Which phylum includes gastropods, A. organisms work in cooperative groups.
cephalopods, and bivalves?
A. arthropoda B. organisms fight over the same limited
resources.
B. echinodermata
C. an organism communicates through
C. mollusca body language.
D. chordata D. something that an organism naturally
116. This phylum is made of segmented does and not on learned experiences.
worms 122. A characteristic the organisms in the phy-
A. Annelida lum Porifera possess:
B. Mollusca A. Stinging cells.
C. Arthopoda B. The ability to photosynthesize.
D. none of above C. Have asymmetrical symmetry.
D. Have radial symmetry.
117. Which animal phylum has no specialized
tissues (most simple animal)? 123. Animals contain an exoskeleton.
A. Porifera A. porifera
B. Chordata B. cnidaria
C. Annelida C. arthropoda
D. Mollusca D. echinodermata

124. Animals in this phylum are based on 5- 130. Which animal phylum contains:Jellyfish,
part radial symmetry. corals, & anemones?
A. cnidaria A. Cnidaria
B. chordata B. Porifera
C. arthropoda C. Chordata
D. echinodermata D. Echinodermata
131. Seedless vascular plants reproduce by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
125. What phyla is the sea jelly in?
A. Cnideria
A. Seeds
B. Nidaria
B. Spores
C. Cnidaria
C. Pollen
D. Porifera D. Rhyzoid
126. Which two phyla contain radially sym- 132. Snails, octopi, and clams are examples of
metrical organisms? what invertebrate group?
A. Porifera and Cnidaria A. sponges
B. Cnidaria and Echinodermata B. arthropods
C. Echinodermata and Mollusca C. echinoderms
D. Porifera and Mollusca D. mollusks
127. Which is not an example of arthropods? 133. Which of the following is an example of
A. crab an animal from the Annelida phylum?
A. Tapeworm
B. grasshopper
B. Hookworm
C. starfish
C. Earthworm
D. spider
D. Whipworm
128. Arthropods have an outer shell called a/
an 134. Which of the following adaptations in-
creases flexibility and motion in annelids?
A. Endoskeleton
A. complete digestive tract
B. Exoskeleton
B. endoskeleton
C. Bones C. segmentation
D. Armor D. three tissue layers
129. An unsegmented, triploblastic animal 135. This phylum contains nematocysts-toxic
with a head, muscular foot and visceral harpoon-like structures contained in cnido-
massare the characteristics of cytes used in capturing prey and defense.
A. nematodes A. porifera
B. molluscs B. cnidaria
C. echinoderms C. arthropoda
D. chordates D. echinodermata

136. what phyla is aquatic filter feeders? 142. Identify the phyla which is an inverte-
A. Porifera brate.

B. Cnidaria A. Fish
C. Platyhelminthes B. Arthropods
D. Annelida C. Amphibians
137. Which of the following is/are true of an- D. Birds

imals? 143. Which of the following is a cephalopod
A. They are multicellular. (head-foot)?
B. They are eukaryotic. A. snail
C. They are consumers (heterotrophs). B. octopus
D. All choices are correct. C. slug
138. What does the term echinoderm mean? D. earthworm
A. tube feet 144. lobsters, crabs, ladybugs, spiders, but-
B. star shaped terflies
C. spiny skin A. mollusk
D. stomach foot B. arthopod
139. Which phylum has two distinct tissue lay- C. cnidarian
ers, the epidermis and gastrodermis, yet D. echinoderms
no organs?
A. porifera 145. endotherm vertebrate animals with
feathers
B. cnidaria
A. amphibians
C. echinodermata
B. reptiles
D. arthropoda
C. birds
140. An ant leaves a trail of scent to communi-
cate location of food. These chemical com- D. fish
munications is an example of: 146. Which of the following is a mollusk?
A. phermones
A. snail
B. body language
B. crab
C. hibernation
C. lobster
D. estivation
D. zebra
141. What is the defining characteristic of
cnidarians? 147. Soft bodies and shells belong to
A. tentacles A. Arthropoda
B. radial symmetry B. Mollusca
C. stinging cells C. Bilateral
D. larva D. Exothermic

148. animals with a backbone D. Brittle stars, sea cucumbers, sea

A. vertebrate stars, and sea urchins
B. invertebrate 154. What do insects use to see?

C. unicellular A. sensory lobes
D. multicellular B. bristles
149. Contains animals that have a dorsal C. simple eyes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
nerve cord that becomes the brain and D. compound eyes
spinal cord in most members.
155. Which domain do cnidaria belong to?
A. chordata
A. Animalia
B. echinodermata
B. Eukaryota
C. mollusca
C. Archaea
D. arthropoda
D. Eubacteria
150. Bees, shrimp, and spiders are examples
of what type of invertebrate? 156. Which phylum includes classes cubo-
zoans (box jellyfish), anthozoans (sea
A. echinoderm anemones), scyphozoans (true jellyfish),
B. sponge and hydrozoans (freshwater hydra)?
C. segmented worm A. mollusca
D. arthropod B. arthropoda
151. This type of plant includes roses, daises, C. cnidaria

and sunflowers. D. chordata
A. Gymnosperm 157. What is a Mantle
B. Angiosperm A. A part used to make a hard shell for a
C. Conifer mollusks body.
D. Seedless B. A part used for disposing waste prod-
ucts.
152. Insecta, arachnida, and crustacea belong
to which phylum? C. A pattern on the shell that shows that
the animal is poisonus.
A. arthropoda
D. Used to release a odor that attracts
B. echinodermata mates (even though some are under wa-
C. chordata ter).
D. cnidaria 158. Which of the following is an example of
153. Which of the following organisms belong a Porifera?
to phylum echinoderm? A. Sea Sponge
A. Snails, octopus, squid, and slugs B. Earthworm
B. Insects, crustaceans, and spiders C. Hookworm
C. Jelly fish, corals, and sea anemones D. Sea Anemone

159. has an endoskeleton C. underline both words

A. arthopods D. all of these must be used

B. mollusks
165. A frog in class Amphibia and a bird in
C. echinoderms class Aves would both belong to the same
D. none of above animal
A. Order
160. What is a seasonal movement of an
animal to another location to find food B. Family
called? C. Genus
A. camouflage D. Phylum
B. migration
166. These invertebrates have jointed ap-
C. grouping pendages, 3 body segments and an ex-
D. mimicry oskeleton
161. Which invertebrate phylum contains two A. Cnidarian

major life stages (polyp and medusa)? B. mollusks
A. Echinodermata C. arthopod
B. Chordata D. echinoderm
C. Cnidaria
167. Animals with stinging cells belong to this
D. Platyhelminthes phylum:
162. Which of the following is an example of A. Cnidarians
binomial nomenclature? B. Mollusks
A. Moon Jelly
C. Chordata
B. Jelly fish
D. Echinoderms
C. Chrysaora fuscescens
168. Which of the following is NOT an Arthro-
D. Cnidarian
pod?
163. What is the special structure of an arthro- A. Honey bee
pod that provides structure and protection
from the outside? B. Millipede
A. An endoskeleton C. Horseshoe crab
B. Spicules D. Eagle
C. An exoskeleton 169. Includes sea stars, sea lilies, sea urchins,
D. A shell sea cucumbers, and brittle stars.
A. arthropoda
164. What “rules” do you follow when writ-
ing a scientific name? B. mollusca
A. capitalize the first word C. cnidaria
B. lower case the 2nd word D. echinodermata

170. vertebrate animals with moist skins that 176. What phyla contains earthworms?
must return to the water to reproduce A. Invertebrates
A. amphibians B. Mollusca
B. reptiles C. Anthropoda
C. birds D. Annelida
D. fish 177. What percentage of animal species are in-
vertebrates?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
171. Which of the following animal phyla has
A. 4%
an exoskeleton?
B. 85%
A. cnidaria
C. 96%
B. mollusca
D. 50%
C. arthropoda
178. What is another name for annelid
D. chordata worms?
172. The word prokaryotic means? A. roundworms
A. having only one cell B. segmented worms
B. having more than one cell C. closed worms
D. flatworms
C. DNA is not in a nucleus
D. DNA is in a nucleus 179. Sponges get their food by filtering it from
the water. This makes them-
173. a naming system that gives each organ- A. filter feeders
ism a two-word scientific name
B. omnivores
A. genus C. plantavores
B. binomial nomenclature D. hermaphrodites
C. cladogram 180. Which one of the following statements is
D. dichotomous key FALSE?
A. Sponges lack true tissues.
174. Echinoderms have symmetry
B. Cnidarians have true tissue and radial
A. bilateral symmetry.
B. radial C. Annelids have a true body cavity
C. asymmetry (coelom) and bilateral symmetry.
D. none of above D. The phylum most closely related to
chordates is arthropods.
175. Who is the Father of Modern Taxonomy?
181. Which of the following is a gastropod?
A. Darwin A. snail
B. Einstein B. octopus
C. Newton C. clam
D. Linnaeus D. zebra

8.4 Characteristics of Mammals 1297
182. Which of the following animal phyla has D. Biological age

radial symmetry?
186. Which is a common name for animals in

A. athropoda Phylum Mollusca?
B. annelida A. Jelly Fish
C. platyhelminths B. Coral
D. cnidaria C. Snails
183. Which is not an example of echino- D. Worms
derms?
187. What phyla are bath sponges in?
A. anenome
A. Porifera
B. starfish
B. Porifera
C. urchin
C. Porifara
D. sea cucumber
D. Porigera
184. squid, snails, oysters, clams, mussels
188. Coelenterata (Cnidaria) typically have
A. cnidarian
A. stinging tentacles
B. annelid
B. shells
C. Mollusks
C. spiny skin
D. arthopoda
185. Your daily routine, such as when you go
to sleep, when you wake up, when you 189. What phylum do humans belong to?
eat your meals is controlled by your: A. Chordate
A. Biological clock B. Arthropod
B. REM cycle C. Echinoderm
C. Circadium Rythm D. Porifera
8.4 Characteristics of Mammals

1. What are the characteristics of birds? D. none of above
A. Has feathers 3. What are the characteristics of reptiles?
B. Has scales A. Has dry skin
C. Has fur B. Has moist skin
D. none of above C. Has hair or fur
2. What are the characteristics of fish? D. none of above
A. Has beak 4. What are the characteristics of insects?

B. Has fins A. Has 8 legs
C. Has legs B. Has 3 body parts

8.4 Characteristics of Mammals 1298
C. Has scales C. Brain stem

D. none of above D. Heart
5. What are the characteristics of mam- 10. A sheet of muscle located beneath the
mals? lungs that enlarges and contracts the chest
A. Produce milk for young cavity
B. Lay eggs A. gestation

B. placenta
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Have feathers
D. none of above C. diaphragm
D. uterus
6. *The importance of the senses varies from
one group of mammals to the next. Which 11. Keeping oxygenated and deoxygenated
pair work better blood separate results in
A. Human-Taste A. The delivery of nutrients and oxygen
B. Bat-Hearing more efficient
C. Whale-Vision B. The fast movement of carbon dioxide
D. Monkey-Smell C. Weakness of the blood circulation
D. Organism will adds more wastes
7. Which of the following factors would most
directly affect blood flow through the cir- 12. A saclike muscular organ where the em-
culatory system? bryo develops.
A. blood pressure A. gestation
B. blood sugar B. placenta
C. respiratory rate C. diaphragm
D. outside temperature D. uterus
8. What is meant by [ Double circulatory sys- 13. What are the characteristics of amphib-
tem]? ians?
A. Blood Passes Through The Heart Twice A. Has moist skin
Per Circuit
B. Has scales
B. Blood has two separated circuits
C. Has feathers
C. Pure blood is filtered twice
D. none of above
D. Oxygen passes Through The Heart
Twice Per Circuit 14. The amount of time the young stay in the
uterus before they are born is called .
9. This is responsible for coordinating con-
scious activities, memory, and the ability A. gestation
to learn B. placenta
A. Cerebellum C. diaphragm
B. Cerebral cortex D. uterus

8.5 Characteristics of Primates 1299
8.5 Characteristics of Primates

1. Which group classifies primates with large 6. These monkeys CAN have prehensile tails
eyes and ears that rely predominantly on
A. Old World
their sense of smell for hunting?
B. New World
A. anthropoids
C. Prosimians
B. haplorhines
D. apes
C. hominoids
D. stepsirrhines 7. Tarsiers share the trait of unfused frontal
suture with lemurs and lorises but that
2. Which of the following is NOT a trait trait is not useful because it is
that helps primates lead arboreal lives (in
A. a homologous trait
trees)?
B. an analogous trait
A. prehensile tails
C. a derived trait
B. short limbs
D. an ancestral trait
C. binocular vision
D. opposable toes and thumbs 8. Gibbons are
A. apes
3. Where did humans originate?
B. monkeys
A. Africa
C. sapiens
B. Europe
D. none of above
C. Asia
D. Australia 9. The early embryos of vertebrates (in the
case of mammals and birds) have gill slits,
4. Which of these species did Lucy belong which then disappear as development pro-
to? gresses, meaning that they may have a
pairing in the branch of evolution of fish.
A. Homo Sapien
A. False
B. Australopithecus
B. True
C. Neanderthal
C. half truth
D. Homo Habilis
D. half falsehood
5. What characteristic distinguishes South
American monkeys from African mon- 10. A/An (orangutan / human / gorilla / kan-
keys? garoo) is not a hominid.
A. Long, prehensile tails A. Kangaroo
B. Binocular vision B. Human
C. Grasping fingers and toes C. Gorilla
D. Opposable thumbs D. Orangutan

11. What are the changes that characterize bi- 17. Which is a characteristic of hominoids?
ological evolution? A. distinctive molars
A. Phenotypic and genetic B. prehensile tail
B. DNA or RNA sequence change C. quadruped motion
C. Solar radiation D. solitary behaviors
D. none of above
18. Which primate is most closely related to a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
12. A trait that helps to group together just bonobo?
anthropoids is A. chimpanzee
A. loss of the rhinarium B. gorilla
B. all nails C. human
C. fused mandible D. orangutan
D. 2.1.2.3. dental formula 19. At Neanderthal sites, evidence from burial
mounds, showing signs that people cared
13. Have a tail for the sick and injured, has led scientists
A. Apes to believe that Neanderthals had
B. Monkey A. creative minds.
C. Both B. a complex religion.
D. none of above C. a desire to make art.

D. a sense of community.
14. Bipedalism means
20. Which is an example of an ape?
A. to walk on two feet
A. lemur
B. to crouch while walking
B. monkey
C. to crawl
C. orangutan
D. none of above
D. tamarin
15. A hominid is
21. A derived trait for platyrrhines is
A. a bipedal primate
A. prehensile tail for grasping
B. the predecesor of apes
B. 2.1.3.3. dental formula
C. similar to primates C. 2.1.3.2. dental formula
D. none of above D. flat nose
16. Nostrils wide and slanted identify 22. The order Primates has species.
A. New World monkeys A. 4200
B. Old World monkeys B. 91
C. Prosimains C. 2277
D. apes D. 330

23. Include marmosets and tamarins 29. Most scientist believe Homo sapiens
A. Apes evolved in

B. Monkey A. Aftica
C. Both B. Asia
C. Northern Europe
D. none of above
D. South America
24. If you wanted to excavate fossils of the
earliest human ancestors, to what country 30. Nostrils close together and dry identify
might you travel? A. New World monkeys
A. Australia B. Old World Monkeys
B. China C. Apes
C. Kenya D. Prosimians
D. Iceland 31. What group is that primate from?
25. Lemurs are examples of A. cercopithecoid
A. Hominids B. catarrhine
B. Monkeys C. callitrichid
C. Prosimians D. cebid
D. Apes 32. This type of tail allows animals to hold and
grasp things.
26. Primates are adapted primarliy for
type motion. A. Prehensile
A. terrestrial B. Adaptable
B. sessile C. Multipurpose
C. fossorial D. Retractable
D. brachiation 33. New World monkeys are the five families
of primates that are found in the tropical
27. When did the first primates flourish? regions of
A. Stone age A. Africa
B. colonial era B. Africa and Asia
C. Paleocene epoch C. Central and South America
D. early 19th century D. Asia
28. Which trait shows you that the species is 34. Evolution is a set of various proofs for the
an ape? demonstration that evolution is a process
A. 2.1.2.3. dental formula (which you also of
have) A. Species
B. fused frontal suture B. Embryonic
C. loss of visible tail C. Living matter
D. opposable thumbs D. Official

35. The haplorrhine clade is defined by C. Small brains

(”defined by” is a good way to think D. Bipedalism
about the concept “derived”)
A. a wet nose (rhinarium) 41. Which group contains gorillas, and hu-
mans?
B. a claw on one toe
A. primates
C. 2.1.2.3. dental formula
B. anthropoids
D. loss of a tapetum lucidum (a.k.a. re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
flective tapetum) C. hominoids
D. hominins
36. A derived trait for primates is
42. Three physical changes in the process of
A. fused frontal suture
human evolution are
B. opposable thumb
A. Opposable thumb, free hands and
C. loss of the rhinarium Bipedalism
D. excellent sense of smell B. Bipedalism, decrease of the
brain/skull and increase of jaw/teeth
37. were the first homonids to create
and use stone tools, an ability that re- C. Bipedalism, increase of the brain/skull
duced selection pressures for large jaws and decrease of jaw/teeth
and teeth. D. none of above
A. Homo sapiens
43. A/An is a type of mammal character-
B. Homo erectus ized by opposable thumbs and binocular vi-
C. Homo habilis sion.
D. The australopithecus A. Hominid

B. Primate
38. Baboons are an example of
C. Mammal
A. apes
D. Reptile
B. old world monkeys
44. Scientists think that the closest living rel-
C. new world monkeys
ative to humans are
D. lemurs
A. lemurs
39. Have highly complex social relationships B. monkeys
A. Apes C. gorillas
B. Monkey D. chimpanzees
C. Both
45. These primates have a smaller brain and
D. none of above depend more on sense of smell.
40. What characteristic did early hominins A. New World monkeys
share with modern humans? B. Old World monkeys
A. Speech and language C. Prosimians
B. The inability to live in groups D. none of above

46. The by means of the comparison on 51. Which of the following is not an ape?
the stages of different classes of A. Chimpanzee
which have other sets on the process

B. Orangutan
A. embryology, embryonic, animals, evo-
C. Gibbon
lutionary
D. Tamarin
B. embryonic, mammal, evolution, herbi-
vore 52. Modern Humans are classified as the
C. embryo, animal, evolutionary, animals species
D. none of above A. Homo habilis

B. Neanderthal
47. Which is a characteristic of the Homo C. Homo sapiens
species
D. Hominid
A. elongated face
53. are a group of mammals that includes
B. heavy bones
humans, apes, monkeys, and lemurs.
C. large brain A. primates
D. large canines B. hominoids
48. What is the earliest primate fossil called? C. hominins
A. Altiatlasius D. none of above
B. Austalopithecine 54. Unlike old world monkeys, new world

monkeys
C. Equatorius
A. have prehensile tails
D. Proconsul
B. are diurnal
49. Cebids have a 2.1.3.3. dental formula C. live in societies
A. which is a good derived trait for the D. have binocular vision
group
55. The primate family tree does NOT include
B. which is a useless trait because it al-
A. lemurs
ready exists above Cebid on the chart
B. apes
C. but they lose a molar as they age
C. new world monkeys
D. helps to define cebids as a group
D. marsupials
50. Which is an example of arboreal pri-
56. Which of the following traits is useful for
mates?
grouping catarrhines together as a clade?
A. baboons on grassland A. 2.1.2.3 dental formula
B. gorillas on a moutain B. fused frontal sutures
C. humans in a dense forest C. the loss of tail
D. lemurs in a tree canopy D. Y-5 molars

9. Evolution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
9.1 Evidence for Evolution
1. Comparing DNA sequences shows A. behavioral isolation
A. How closely related organisms are B. temporal isolation
B. Traits that can become available C. geographic isolation
C. Evolution is not real D. genetic drift
D. That organisms have evolved from sev-
eral different organisms. 5. Giant fossil ferns have been found in
Canada. What conclusion can be drawn
2. DNA and RNA are known as types of from this evidence?
A. vestigial structures A. Canada once had a much warmer cli-
B. transitional fossils mate.
C. trace fossil B. Giant dragonflies once live among the

ferns.
D. genetic material
C. Canada was once covered by ancient
3. What do we call a chart that di- sea.
vides Earth’s history into different time
D. Dinosaurs once lived in Canada.
units.Examples:Eons, Eras, Periods
A. Fossil record 6. This kind of structure is when the struc-
B. Geologic time scale tures have the same function but have a
different structure. It shows adaptation
C. Evoluation not evolution.
D. Extinction A. analogous structure
4. What situation might develop in a popu- B. homologous structure
lation having some plants whose flowers
C. vestigial structure
open at midday and other plants whose
flowers open late in the day? D. none of above

9.1 Evidence for Evolution 1305
7. Which of the following is true about horse 12. Which scientist gets credit for developing
evolution? (1) Early horses were about the theory of natural selection
the size of a fox. (2) Early horses had toes.

A. Charles Darwin
(3) During evolution, their molars became
covered with cement B. Gregor Mendel
A. 1 only C. Benjamin Franklin
B. 1 and 2 D. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
C. 2 and 3
13. Which is an example of structural evidence
D. 1, 2, and 3
for evolution?
8. Which word is defined as the same struc- A. DNA similarities.
ture in different species indicating a com-
mon ancestor? B. finding similarities in the limbs of hu-
mans, bats and whales.
A. homologous structures
B. vestigial structures C. Looking at undeveloped organisms for
similar traits.
C. analogous structures
D. fossils of extinct animals.
D. DNA
9. The earliest part of Earth’s history is called 14. Fossils that help fill in the gaps between
the: two groups of organisms are called
A. Cenozoic A. helpful
B. Cambrian B. fossil record
C. Holocene C. transitional fossils
D. Precambrian D. none of above
10. Some organisms that share a common an-
15. Which kind of a structure is it? A bird’s
cestor have features that have different
wing and a human forearm
functions, but similar structures. These
are known as A. Homologous
A. vestigial structures B. Analogous
B. analogous structures C. Vestigial
C. homologous structures
D. Pharygeal Pouch
D. embryology
16. What is the most compelling (convincing)
11. For evolution to happen, this has to occur
evidence for evolution
first:
A. occurrence of mass extinction
A. an organism finds a new mate
B. and organism’s DNA changes B. the fossil record
C. The environment in which a species C. domestication of plants and animals
lives changes D. observed increase of mutation rates
D. the population increases across all species

17. What kind of a structure is it? A fish’s gills B. homologous structure

and our lungs C. vestigial structure
A. Homologous D. none of above
B. Analogous
23. An impression of an organism is left in
C. Vestigial rock
D. Heterozygous A. mineralization
NARAYAN CHANGDER
18. Which of the following is the collection of B. carbonization
life’s remains found in sedimentary rock? C. molds and casts
A. natural selection D. trace fossil
B. homologous structures
24. The fossil record shows that:
C. Charles Darwin
A. Most species have not evolved.
D. the fossil record
B. Some species are evolutionary transi-
19. The formation of a new species is a pro- tions between major groups of organisms.
cess known as , which is typically the
result of divergence. C. All species are today just as they were
A. microevolution when they were created.
B. gradualism D. All of the above.
C. punctuated equilibrium 25. This is the study of embryos and their de-
D. speciation velopment.
A. Embryology
20. The process by which organisms that are
best suited to a particular environment sur- B. Evolution
vive and reproduce C. Embryos
A. natural selection D. adaptation
B. evolution
26. On which islands did Darwin observe the
C. adaptation finches with different beaks?
D. none of above A. Canary Islands
21. What did the endosymbiont (cell living in- B. Hawaiian Islands
side another) receive from its host cell? C. Galapogos Islands
A. Shelter D. Aleutian Islands
B. Energy 27. Biogeography is:
C. Motility A. the movement of organisms across
D. Reproduction continents
22. This kind of structure is when the struc- B. the geographical distribution of
tures have the same function but have a species
different structure/form. C. the study of land mass movement
A. analogous structure D. the study of geography

28. The job or purpose of a part. 33. There is no evidence of past use for these
A. structure two vestigial structures, but they are still
part of us.

B. function
A. Arrector Pili and coccyx
C. divergence
B. Palmar Grasp Reflex and appendix
D. embryology
C. sinus and wisdom teeth
29. What is the most important factor that
contributes to a species evolving? D. none of above
A. environmental change 34. Similar structures with different purposes

B. how old a species is found in different species are known as
C. what the ancestors look like
A. vestigial structures
D. what time of year a species repro-
duces. B. DNA
30. Which of these answers could best de- C. homologous structures

scribe an investigation on animal popula- D. the fossil record
tion?
35. What is the process in which humans breed
A. a single cat that lives in her house
organisms for certain traits?
B. all of the pets owned by her class-
A. natural selection
mates
C. all of the cats in her neighborhood B. inheritance
D. the cats and dogs at a local animal C. artificial selection

shelter D. descent without modification
31. Which of following in NOT a critial part of 36. Honey badgers with shorter claws have
the theory of evolution? higher fitness than honey badgers with av-
A. overproduction erage and long claws. This is an example
B. consistent environment of
C. genetic variation A. directional selection
D. struggle to survive B. stabilizing selection

C. disruptive selection
32. Mutations are important because they
bring about D. none of above
A. death of the organism in which they de- 37. Which is LEAST LIKELY to push a species
velop toward extinction?
B. genetic variation needed for a popula-
A. Cutting down entire forest
tion to evolve
B. Putting animals in a zoo
C. benefits for the individual, not for the
population C. Polluting mountain streams
D. Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a D. Introducing new species to an ecosys-
population tem with no known natural predator

38. Evidence for the changes in a species phys- 43. Which is the best evidence listed for the
ical characteristics over long geologic peri- theory of evolution
ods can best be observed through a study
A. fossil record
of
B. climate change
A. biogeography
B. comparative molecular biology C. numerical data
C. comparative embryology D. religious information
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. the fossil record 44. Survival of the Fittest and Evolution were
proposed by what scientist?
39. Which of the following pieces of evolu-
tion evidence deals with comparing similar A. Charles Darwin
structures in various species? B. Albert Einstein
A. fossil record C. Steven Hawking
B. comparing embryology
D. Isaac Newton
C. comparing biochemistry
D. comparing anatomy 45. The forelimbs of a bird and a mammal are
examples of structures.
40. Which evidence of evolution would explain A. speciation
the similarities of these species that live in
different areas of the world? B. theory
A. Molecular Evidence C. homologous structures
B. Embryological Evidence D. natural selection
C. Geographical Distribution
46. Physical structures in two different organ-
D. Fossil Record isms that have structural similarity due to
a common ancestor
41. A type of fossil that provides indirect evi-
dence of the life of ancient organisms A. homologous structures
A. Index fossil B. analogous structures
B. Trace fossil C. vesitigial structures
C. Ancient organism remains D. common structures
D. Transitional species
47. is selection and variation that happens
42. The arm of a human, the flipper of a whale, more gradually. Over a short period of
and the wing of a bat all have similar bone time it is hard to notice. Over a long time,
structures. Therefore, these parts of the the population changes. Change is slow,
body would all be considered constant, and consistent
A. homologous structures A. Charles Darwin

B. vestigial structures B. Punctuated Equilibrium
C. transitional fossils C. Gradualism
D. common ancestors D. Evolution

48. The process by which population slowly C. 4 billion

change over time is called D. 4 trillion

54. What is suggested by the similarity of
B. speciation early embryos of different species of ver-
C. adaptation tebrates?
D. evolution A. no evolutionary relationships between
the groups
49. What is the study of organisms at the
B. recent common ancestry
early stages of development?
C. similar environments in the past
A. DNA studies
D. evolution from a distant common an-
B. embryology
cestor
C. extinction
55. What is the term for a feature that allows
D. fossil record
an organism to better survive and repro-
50. The time it takes for half of a radioactive duce in its environment?
isotopes to decay into stable isotopes is A. adaptation
called the
B. variation
A. isotope decay C. homologous structure
B. radiometric dating D. vestigial structure
C. half life
56. Which of these does NOT provide evidence
D. absolute age that evolution occured?
51. A structure that serves the same purpose, A. the fossil record
but is not made in the same way is called B. the physical differences between
A. a vestigial structure species
B. a homologous structure C. similar structures between species
C. an analogous Structure D. where an organism lives
D. a pheryngial structure 57. On what continent did Charles Darwin
make his observations?
52. Which scientist visited the Galapagos Is-
lands and came up with the theory of nat- A. North America
ural selection? B. Asia
A. Theodor Schwann C. Europe
B. Gregor Mendel D. South America
C. Charles Darwin
58. Identify the original genetic event that re-
D. Rudolf Virchow sults in resistance in bacteria or pests.
53. Which is closest to the accepted age of the A. mutation
Earth? B. natural selection
A. 4, 000 C. DNA
B. 4 million D. cloning

59. The white feathers of a snowy owl allow C. trace fossil

it to blend in with its environment during D. mold
the winter months (snow). This is an ex-
ample of 65. Which is the correct order for the 3 eras
A. Species on geologic time scale. This order is from
oldest to current.
B. Environmental Change
A. Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
C. Adaptation
B. Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Cenozoic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Variation
C. Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic
60. Scientist find dinosaur fossils in the bot-
tom of a cliff and mammals fossils in the D. none of above
middle layer, what can be inferred? 66. Which of the following DOES NOT support
A. dinosaurs ate plants the Theory of Evolution and common ances-
B. dinosaurs were eaten by the mammals try?
A. The Law of Superposition
C. they lived at the same time B. Embryology
D. dinosaurs lived before the mammals C. Homologous Structures
61. Modern mammals was during this era: D. none of above
A. Cenozoic 67. A change in a population or species over
B. Mesozoic time.
C. Paleozoic A. Embryology
D. none of above B. Common Ancestry
62. The fossil copy of an organism in a rock C. Evolution
A. cast D. Stasis
B. original material fossil 68. Scientists compare organisms’ DNA to sup-
C. trace fossil port the theory that all species share a
common
D. mold
A. separation
63. A is the most recent species
from which two different species have B. ancestor
evolved. C. population
A. structural DNA D. environment
B. common ancestor
69. The distribution of species over space and
C. primary ancestor time
D. none of above A. Embryology
64. The impression of an organism in a rock B. Fossil Record
A. cast C. bioGeography
B. original material fossil D. Anatomy

70. The theory of Natural Selection is based 75. Which of the following is NOT considered
on evidence for evolution?

A. the fossil record only A. Homologous structures
B. neither the fossil record nor observa- B. Vestigial Structures
tions of living organisms C. Genetic comparisons
C. observations of living organisms only D. Photosynthetic algae
D. on both the fossil record and observa-
tions of living organisms 76. The fossil record helps to show that organ-
isms
71. A branching diagram showing the succes- A. have remained exactly the same over
sive points of species divergence from a time
common ancestor.
B. have changed (evolved) over time
A. ancestry chart
C. have become extinct over time
B. evolutionary maze
D. have changed very little over time
C. divergence analysis
77. Structures that are very different in struc-
D. cladogram ture or anatomy but have similar functions
such as the wings of a bird and a butter-
72. What can be learned about a fossil using
fly.
relative-age dating?
A. Vestigial Structures
A. its age in years
B. Homologous Structures
B. its age compared to other fossils
C. Analogous Structures
C. its age based on radioactive decay
D. Cladogram
D. none of above
78. Which list contains examples of vestigial
73. Change over time is structures in humans?
A. evolution A. None of the lists contain examples of
B. generation vestigial structures in humans.
C. growth B. Appendix, wisdom teeth, Coccyx (tail
bones)
D. biogenesis
C. Appendix, stomach, large intestine
74. Is species A an B have very similar genes D. Brain, neurons, spinal cord
and proteins, what is probably ture?
A. Species A & B do not share a common 79. The process by which all organisms change
ancestor slowly over time because of slight gene
variations is called
B. Species A is younger than species B
A. convergent alliance
C. Species A & B share a common ances-
tor B. artificial selection
D. Species A evolved independently of C. gradualism

species B for a long period D. punctuated equlibrium

80. The comparing of similarities and differ- C. remains

ences of body structures in form and func- D. none of above
tion.
A. Analogous Structures 86. Which kind of a structure is it? A bat’s
wing and a butterfly’s wing?
B. Common Ancestry
A. Homologous
C. Comparative Anatomy
B. Analogous
D. Fossil Record
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Vestigial
81. The independent evolution of similar fea- D. Pharyngeal
tures in different lineages of species is
called 87. Structures that are very different in struc-
A. divergent evolution ture or anatomy but have similar functions
such as the wings of a bird and a butterfly.
B. convenient evolution Do not show common ancestry.
C. convergent evolution A. Vestigial Structures
D. deviation evolution B. Homologous Structures
82. Examples of analogous structures are C. Analogous Structures
A. the tails of mice and rats D. Cladogram
B. the limbs of humans and apes
88. Kayla Sharpe wants to know which of two
C. the wings of bats and birds fossilized shells evolved first. Which type
D. none of above evolutionary evidence should she exam-
ine?
83. Humans breed dogs for certain traits. A. Fossil
What is this practice called?
B. Anatomical
A. variation
C. Biochemical
B. adaptation
D. none of above
C. natural selection
D. artificial selection 89. Which word is defined as a reduced form
of a functional structure in 1 organism that
84. The study of where organisms live and shows up as fully functional in another?
how they got there is called A. homologous structures
A. ecology B. vestigial structures
B. biogeography C. analogous structure
C. entomology D. DNA
D. chemistry
90. Biogeography shows that all camels
85. The remains of once-living organisms are A. came from ancestors that lived in
called North Africa
A. fossils B. came from ancestors that lived in
B. amber North America

C. came from ancestors that lived in C. Quickly in bursts

North Egypt D. none of above

D. evolved from the llama
96. Scientists believe that all eukaryotes
91. This is any alteration in a structure of a share a common ancestry because the nu-
function that allows an organism to be bet- cleotides that make up all eukaryotic DNA
ter suited for its environment. are Choose the correct answer.
A. vestigial structures A. free
B. adaptation B. ancient
C. embryo C. complex
D. species D. the same
92. When a plant or animal no longer exists, 97. In genetic drift, allele frequencies change
it is because ofA
A. fossil A. mutations.
B. imprint
B. natural selection.
C. extinct
C. random chance.
D. cast
D. genetic equilibrium.
93. The major pieces of evidence for this the-
ory can be broken down into the fossil 98. Which of the following is not evidence for
record, embryology, comparative anatomy Evolution?
and molecular biology A. Vestigial Structures
A. Evidence of Evolution B. DNA comparisons
B. Homology C. Homologous structures
C. Phylogeny D. Climate change
D. Phenomena
99. If two organisms have similar traits of
94. Organisms descended from a common an- DNA they are probably
cestor. Organisms with a more recent com- A. share a common ancestor
mon ancestor are more closely related.
B. share a common environment
A. Common Ancestry
C. share a common population
B. Evolution
D. speciation
C. Sequential
D. Stasis 100. What is is the study of how and why
plants and animals live where they do?
95. Many scientists debate the rate at which
A. Evolution
species evolve. Which is NOT one of the
ideas? B. Adaptive Radiation
A. Slowly and gradually C. Biogeography
B. Only through extinction events D. Biogeology

101. An example of a vestigial structure is the B. backbone and hands

A. kangaroo pouch C. hands and feet
B. human tail bone D. tongue and mouth
C. cat forelimb
107. the pelvic bone in whales indicates
D. none of above
A. their ancestors were once terrestrial
102. Butterflies taste with their legs while hu- B. they never had any use for them
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mans taste with their tongues. In this
C. they’ve never had any function for
way, butterfly legs and human tongues
them
are structures
D. none of above
A. homologous
B. analogous 108. A category of structures that have a simi-
lar function, but are structurally different.
C. vestigial
A. Homologous structures
D. extinct
B. Analogous structures
103. The process by which populations slowly
change over time is called C. Vestigial structures
A. selective breeding D. Common core structures
B. adaptation 109. If an allele makes up one fourth of a popu-

C. sepeciation lation’s alleles for a given trait, its relative
frequency is
D. evolution
A. 100 percent.
104. This vestigial structure is believed to aid B. 75 percent.
our ancestors in the digestion of cellulose.
C. 25 percent.
A. Arrector Pili
D. 4 percent.
B. Palmar Grasp Reflex
C. sinuses 110. The appendix, which is not needed to sur-
vive, is conisdered to be a
D. appendix
A. Homologous Structure
105. In organisms that reproduce sexually, in-
B. Analagous Structure
herited variation is due mostly to
C. Vestigial Structure
A. mutations during gamete formation.
D. Homology
B. polygenic traits.
C. gene shuffling during gamete forma- 111. How are fossils created?
tion. A. Traces of organisms get turned into
D. the effects of radiation. stone.
106. When vertebrates are in the early stages B. Dead organisms are quickly buried for
of development (an embryo) they all pos- millions of years.
sess C. Animals get trapped.
A. gill slits and tails D. All of the above

112. This vestigial structure is believed to pro- 117. Organisms that have different traits
vide our ancestor with insulation and a de- when developing but have similar traits as
fense mechanism. adults must have:

A. Arrector Pili A. acquired them due to similar environ-
B. Palmar Grasp Reflex ments
C. sinuses B. shared a common ancestor
D. appendix C. same amount of time to evolve.
D. happened to due a coincidence.
113. Environmental changes that cause extinc-
tion occur on what time scale? 118. Comparing embryos at different stages
A. They occur instananeous of development can show different rela-
B. They are usually on the scale of a few tionships between species.
years A. Embryology
C. They are always on the scale of hun- B. Cladogram
dreds to thousands of years C. Homologous Structures
D. They can occur over shorter or longer D. Analogous Structures
time scales
119. Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on
114. What is artificial selection?
the idea(s) of
A. humans breed organisms for certain
A. heritable variation and natural selec-
characteristics
tion.
B. individuals that are better adapted to
B. use and disuse.
their environment
C. a tendency toward perfect, unchang-
C. inherited traits in a population change
ing species.
over generation
D. the transmission of acquired charac-
D. Charles Darwin noted the differences
teristics.
among finches
115. Determining the approximate order in 120. Which evidence show patterns of change
which rock layers were deposited is an im- in organisms from early life to modern
portant part of life?
A. relative age dating A. homologous structures

B. dinosaur period B. vestigial structures
C. absolute age dating C. fossils
D. carbon dating D. proteins
116. Deer fighting for a mate is an example of 121. This makes an organism more suited to
its enviornment
A. overproduction A. species
B. competition B. lifespan
C. variation C. adaptation
D. selection D. mutation

122. What structures do many vertebrates 127. Tiktaalik is an important because it

have early in their development to suggest shows how fish evolved into tetrapods.
a common ancestor? A. theory
A. pharyngeal pouches B. funny name
B. vestigial structures C. transition fossil
C. homologous structures D. omnivore
D. analogous structures
128. The fossil record help scientists
NARAYAN CHANGDER
123. Which of the following pieces of evolu- A. better understand the kinds of organ-
tion evidence deals with similar molecules isms that lived in the past
in related individual species?
B. better understand how the environ-
A. fossil record ment has changed over time
B. comparative embryology C. better understand how organisms
C. DNA comparison have evolved over time
D. comparative anatomy D. all of the above
124. The diagram above shows an embryo of 129. Whales are aquatic mammals that con-
different vertebrates at different stages tain a pelvis bone. Even though it does
of development. Which field of study not aid in its movement, the function must
would support the similarities in develop- have been used by a common ancestor of
ment as evidence for evolution? the whale. Thus, the pelvis is referred to
A. Geology as a(n)
B. Meteorology A. vestigial structure
C. Embryology B. analogous structure
D. Physiology C. homologous structure
D. none of above
125. The separation of populations by barriers
such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of wa- 130. Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all
ter is called have similar arm bones. What is the rea-
A. temporal isolation. son for this?
B. behavioral isolation. A. The function of these bones is the
same in all animals
C. geographic isolation.
B. They live in similar environments
D. genetic equilibrium.
C. They have a common ancestor
126. Island biogeography D. All organisms resemble humans
A. provides information on the migration
and evolution of the camel 131. Which of the following can be learned by
using the fossil record?
B. provides information on the migration
and evolution of the finch A. When organisms changed or evolved
C. provides information on the migration B. when organisms appeared on Earth
and evolution of the ape C. when organisms became extinct
D. none of above D. All the above

132. A characteristic that can be passed from 137. The preserved evidence of the activity of
parent to offspring through genes is called an organism
a

A. cast
A. resistance B. original material fossil
B. selective breeding C. trace fossil
C. genetic change D. mold
D. trait
138. Dead organism is compressed over time
133. Which of the following is not a piece of A. mineralization
evidence for evolution?
B. trace fossil
A. Homologous structures
C. carbonization
B. embryology
D. petrified fossil
C. fossil age
139. Which of the following is a fossil?
D. vestigial structures
A. a plant that has recently died
134. What process is most responsible for the
B. a group of organisms that can repro-
extinction of most species of plants and an-
duce
imals that have lived on Earth?
C. a structure or organ that no longer
A. gene mutation
functions
D. a trace of an organisms that existed in
C. selective breeding the past
D. decrease in reproduction
140. Age of reptiles was during this era:
135. Which of the following pieces of evolu- A. Cenozoic
tion evidence deals with structures com-
B. Mesozoic
mon in embryos that form differently or
for different purposes in adult form? C. Paleozoic
A. fossil record D. none of above
B. comparing embryology 141. Dolphins have the same arm structure as
C. comparing biochemistry wolfs, what type of evidence for evolution
does this represent?
D. comparing anatomy
A. DNA
136. Analogous structures: B. vestigial structures
A. Have the same function but come from C. homologous structures
different ancestors.
D. embryology
B. Have a different function but come
from the same ancestors. 142. This fossil shows the traits of an ances-
C. Have no function but come from differ- tor and its descendants. It shows links be-
ent ancestors. tween more than one species.
D. Have no function but come from the A. Fossil

same ancestors. B. Transitional Fossil

C. Fossil Fuels C. original material

D. There is no fossil D. trace fossil
143. An anatomical feature that no longer 148. Natural selection could not occur without
seams to have a purpose in the current
A. geographic isolation
form of an organism
B. variation in the population
A. Homologous structure
B. Analogous structure C. stable environments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Vestigial structure D. competition for unlimited resources
D. None of the above 149. Term that refers to the similarities in

physical characteristics between organ-
144. Which division of the geologic time scale isms that link us to a common ancestor
is the longest?
A. morphology
A. Eon
B. archaelogy
B. Period
C. paleontology
C. Era
D. brachiology
D. Epoch
145. How does embryology support the The- 150. Body parts similar are derived from a
ory of Evolution? common ancestor but have different func-
tions are called:
A. It shows that they have a common an-
cestor because of their similarities during A. Vestigial Structures
early development. B. Analogous Structures
B. It shows how organisms change over C. Homologous Structures
time.
D. Common Structures
C. It shows how some organisms have
similar bone structure, but different func- 151. Relative dating
tions. A. gives the exact age of rocks and fossils
D. none of above
146. A change in a sequence of DNA is called B. is when you date your cousin
a C. gives the approximate age of rocks
A. recombination D. tells us who to trust
B. single-gene trait.
152. This kind of structure are body parts that
C. polygenic trait have no function now and are now the re-
D. mutation. mains from an ancestor.
A. analogous structure
147. An insect encased in amber is what kind
of fossil? B. homologous structure
A. mold and cast C. vestigial structure
B. mineralized fossil D. none of above

153. Which of the following options is NOT C. Vestigial structures

one of the main evidences of evolution that D. none of above
we have studied in class?

A. The Fossil Record 158. Bird and butterfly wings have the same
functions but different structures. What
B. Biogeography type of evolutionary evidence is this?
C. Anatomical Evidence A. Analogous structures
D. Cosmology B. Embryological development
154. The principle of common descent helps ex- C. Genetic comparisons
plain why D. Homologous structures
A. well-adapted species have many off-
159. When you compare DNA or proteins to
spring.
support evolution, you are using what kind
B. conditions in an organism’s environ- of evidence?
ment ensures the organism’s survival.
A. anatomical evidence
C. birds and reptiles share a number of
B. molecular evidence
inherited characteristics.
C. fossil evidence
D. tigers are so different from cheetahs.
D. none of above
155. Which of these lists three influential sci-
entists whose ideas contributed to Dar- 160. The observation that the bone struc-
win’s theory of evolution? Choose the cor- ture found in the flippers of dolphins and
rect answer. whales is similar to that found in a hu-
man hand is evidence of a common ances-
A. Leclerc, Lyell, Malthus
try based on:
B. Lyell, Mendel, Wallace
A. Analogous structures
C. Grant, Leclerc, Wallace
B. Vestigial structures
D. Linnaeus, Malthus, Mendel
C. Transitional structures
156. What is the major type of evidence sci- D. Homologous structures
entists use to separate New Worlds Mon-
keys from Old World Monkeys and Great 161. This kind of structure is when the bones
Apes? have similar form but are used for differ-
ent functions.
A. Biogeography:The splitting of the con-
tinents. A. analogous structure
B. Biochemistry:DNA sequencing. B. homologous structure
C. Fossil Record C. vestigial structure
D. Anatomy D. none of above
157. are similar in function, different in 162. Jyquez is curious about the evolutionary
structure, and were not inherited from a relationship between a bear and a cow. He
common ancestor. examines various stages of their embry-
ological development and tracks their sim-
A. Homologous structures ilarities. Which type of evolutionary evi-
B. Analogous structures dence is he examining?

A. Fossil C. analogous structures

B. Anatomical D. DNA
C. Biochemical 168. Scientist who proposed the theory of Nat-
D. Embryology ural Selection.
163. The study of how animals, plants, and A. Hardy

other organisms have come to live where B. Weinburg
they do is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Darwin
A. comparative biochemistry D. Einstein
B. comparative embryology
169. What percent of carbon-14 would be left
C. world geography after 5730 years?
D. biogeography A. 100%
164. What can we discover by viewing em- B. 75%
bryos of different species? C. 50%
A. How close they are related in terms of D. 25%
evolution
B. What they will look like as adults 170. Which of the following pieces of evolu-
tion evidence deals with aged and identi-
C. Any vestigial structures that are fied fossils?
present
A. fossil record
D. The average age that they can live to.
B. comparative embryology
165. All are examples of evidence of evolution C. comparative biochemistry
EXCEPT
D. comparative anatomy
B. fossil record 171. The biochemical analysis of different
plants would be most useful in determin-
C. biodiversity ing
D. developmental (embryos) A. how plants reproduce asexually
166. The same species lives in the same area B. how plants pass favorable traits to
and have different appearances. What their offspring
term can be used to describe this? C. why some plants produce hemoglobin
A. overpopulation D. which plants may have a common an-
B. population cestor
C. extinction 172. Which kind of a structure is it? A whale’s
D. variation pelvis
167. same structure in different species indi- A. Homologous

cating a common ancestor B. Analogous
A. homologous structures C. Vestigial
B. vestigial structures D. Pharygeal Pouch

173. Which type of structures are anatomical 178. The process by which organisms change
features that are fully developed in one over time as a result of changes in herita-
group of organisms, but are reduced and ble physical or behavioral traits is known

functionless in other similar groups as
A. Homologous structures A. the germ theory
B. Analogous structures B. the theory of plate tectonics
C. Vestigial structures C. the big bang theory
D. Transitional structures D. the theory of evolution by natural se-
lection
174. A type of structure that is physically
present, but does not seem to serve a sig- 179. The two main sources of genetic variation
nificant function for an organism. are
A. Homologous structure A. genotypes and phenotypes.
B. Analogous structure B. gene shuffling and mutations.
C. Vestigial structure C. single-gene traits and polygenic traits.
D. Standard structure
D. directional selection and disruptive se-
175. Structures that are similar in form (struc- lection.
tures) with different functions such as the
wings of a bat and the arms of humans. 180. Mutations are important because they
bring about
A. Homologous Structures
A. death in the organisms in which they
B. Vestigial Structures
develop.
B. benefits for the individual, not the pop-
D. Molecular Homology ulation.
176. The greater the number of similarities be- C. genetic variation needed for a popula-
tween the molecules of any two species, tion to evolve.
the more recently the two species most D. equilibrium within a population.
likely shared a
181. Why do scientists look for fossils?
A. common ancestor
A. to calculate how radioactive fossils
B. home
are
C. parent
B. to derive evolutionary relationships
D. none of above
C. to learn how fossils are formed
177. When the last individual of a species D. to learn more about how these extinct
dies. organisms reproduced
A. biological evolution 182. If I wanted to look at DNA to study evo-
B. geologic tradegdy lution, I am using what evidence?
C. extinction A. comparative anatomy
D. cambrian period B. embryology

C. fossil record 188. The study of development is called

D. molecular A. embryology
183. The way something is designed or ar- B. scientific research

ranged. C. developmental studies
A. structure D. none of above
B. function
189. Which is not evidence for evolution?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. divergence
A. many animals have homologous struc-
D. embryology tures due to common ancestry
184. The KT boundary caused a massive B. Many animals have vestigial struc-
change in the environment, causing a what tures from an ancestor
type of evolution- C. We can observe changes in life forms
A. descent with modification by observing the fossil record
B. divergent evolution D. All of these are evidence for evolution
C. microevolution
190. Common ancestry is shown
D. punctuated equalibrium
A. If bones are similar
185. Which of the following is an example of B. if body systems are similar
homologous features?
C. If embryonic stages in the beginning
A. Wings in insects and birds are similar
B. The appendix in humans and horses D. All of these
C. Fins in fish and wings in birds
191. The opossum and kangaroo both incubate
D. The striped coat of a zebra and tiger their young in a pouch. This provides evi-
dence that they
186. If an organism has a vestigial structure,
that structure likely once had a function in A. are descended from a common ances-
a(n) Choose the correct answer. tor
A. early ancestor B. Have very similar skeletal structures
B. close relative C. belong to the same species
C. embryological stage D. must range great distances to eat
D. unrelated organism
192. A scientist should look at one of the fol-
187. A change in the inherited characteristics lowing to determine whether or not there
of an organism over time is is a common ancestor
A. evolution. A. how organisms migrated
B. development. B. how the organism reproduces
C. growth. C. what the organism eats
D. ancestry. D. the larval form of the organism

193. Which organisms are most likely to sur- 199. How does embryology support the Evolu-
vive? tion of species over time?

A. the best adapted A. It shows that they have a common an-
B. the fastest cestor because of their similarities earlier
on in development.
C. the strongest
B. It shows that they lived in the same en-
D. the most domesticated (tamed) vironment.
194. Wisdom teeth, the appendix, and the tail C. It does not give evidence for the evo-
bone are all examples of what in humans? lution of species.
A. vestigial structures D. none of above
B. homologous structures 200. Match the definition to the vocabulary
C. analogous structures word:The process in evolution where one
D. embryological structures species evolves into one or more types of
that animal.
195. The appendix, tailbone, and wisdom A. Adaptation
teeth are all examples of what type of
structure in humans? B. Speciation
A. Homologous C. Population
B. Analogous D. none of above
C. Vestigial 201. What is one reason that strawberries are

D. Modern surviving in the winter season?
A. they have larger leaves
196. The changes of species over time
B. they have genetic variations allowing
A. Embryonic them to be resistant to cold
B. Natural selection C. they reproduce more
C. Mimicry D. the color is dark
D. Evolution
202. What gas was necessary for complex (eu-
197. Which would be an example of a fossil? karyotic) life to evolve?
A. Sedimentary Rock A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oyster Pearl B. Oxygen
C. Dinosaur Footprint C. Dihydrogen monoxide
D. Rotting Log D. Methane
198. The remains or physical evidence of an or- 203. Genetic variation can be increased by
ganism that has been preserved. Choose the correct answer.
A. Cast A. overproduction
B. Mold B. heritable mutations
C. Fossil C. asexual reproduction
D. Intrusion D. individual adaptations

204. Structures that have the same function C. Timber

but different structures are D. Red
209. What type of evidence did was most
B. analogous structures likely use to reach his conclusion of species
C. vestigial structures with similar DNA are closely related?
D. embryology A. fossil evidence
B. structural evidence
NARAYAN CHANGDER
205. Which phrase best defines evolution by
natural selection? C. genetic evidence
A. an adaptation of a species to its envi- D. evidence from developmental patterns
ronment 210. If species A and B have very similar genes
B. a sudden replacement of one popula- and proteins, what is probably TRUE?
tion by another A. species A and B share a relatively re-
C. changes in a species as it becomes cent common ancestor
more perfect B. species A evolved independently of
D. a process of change in species over species B for a long period
time C. species A is younger than species B
206. A scientist is studying the evolutionary D. species A is older than species B
relationship between two species. He gets
211. In humans, the pelvis and femur (thigh
DNA and amino acid samples from vari-
bone) are involved in walking. In whales,
ous organisms of each species and ana-
the pelvis and femur
lyzes them. Which type of evolutionary
evidence is the scientist using? A. examples of fossils.
A. Fossil B. acquired traits.
B. Anatomical C. vestigial structures.
C. Molecular D. examples of natural variation.
D. none of above 212. What do fossils provide evidence for?
207. The tail bone, wisdom teeth, and ap- A. the history of life in the geologic past
pendix are all parts of the human anatomy B. why species became extinct in the past
that would be considered
A. homologous structures C. developmental patterns of living or-
ganisms
B. vestigial structures
D. the genetic similarities between living
C. fossils
and extinct organisms
D. extinct
213. Natural selection results in change over
208. fossils form when small creatures are time by acting on traits that are
trapped in tree sap and the sap hardens. Choose the correct answer.
A. Amber A. new
B. Lumber B. better

C. mutated 219. What is suggested by the similarity of

early embryos of different species of ver-
D. heritable
tebrates? Choose the correct answer.

214. Fossils typically provide evidence for evo- A. recent common ancestry
lution because B. similar environments in the past
A. they are millions of years old. C. evolution from a distant common an-
B. they exist in all types of rocks. cestor
C. they supply good samples of RNA. D. no evolutionary relationship between
the groups
D. They show patterns of biological
change. 220. This vestigial structure is believed to be
a remnant (leftover) of a tail.
215. By analyzing the DNA from different
A. Arrector Pili
species, scientists generated family trees
called B. Palmar Grasp Reflex
A. Genetic Tree C. coccyx
B. Genetic Code D. appendix
C. Family Tree 221. Organisms that have the most DNA se-
quences in common
D. Phylogenetic Tree
A. have the same number of legs
216. genetic drift results in B. Are the least related
A. increased diversity C. are randomly distributed
B. decreased genetic variation D. Are the most related
C. increased mutations 222. is a branch of geography that stud-
D. a loss of land ies the past and present distribution of the
world’s many species.
217. All of the fossils that have been discov- A. Biogeography
ered make up the
B. Geology
A. history of the world
C. Paleontolgy
B. fossil record
D. Geography
C. evidence chain
223. An example of a homologous structure
D. none of above
A. human arm and bird wing
218. A is a branching diagram that shows B. rat appendix and human appendix
evolutionary relationships. C. wing of butterfly and bird wing
A. cladogram D. none of above
B. table
224. A change in the inherited characteristics
C. derived character of population over time is
D. relationship tree A. evolution.

B. development. B. prokaryotic and anaerobic

C. growth. C. eukaryotic and aerobic
D. ancestry. D. eukaryotic and anaerobic
225. Why does more similar DNA between 230. Scientists tested a bat, a dog, a snake,
two species indicate a more recent com- and a human to see how their amino acids
mon ancestor? differed in a specific protein. This is a form
of
A. DNA mutations decrease over time
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Evidence from biochemistry
B. DNA mutations increase over time
B. Analogous structure
C. DNA does not mutate
C. Fossil record evidence
D. Similar DNA does NOT indicate a more
D. Evidence from vestigial structures
recent common ancestor
231. If two organisms have similar sequences
226. What is a vestigial structure? of DNA, they probably
A. A structure that is no longer useful A. share a common ancestor
B. Part of an animal that maintains home- B. share a common environment
ostasis
C. share a common population
C. A very important organ in mammals
D. speciation
D. Genetically modified organisms
232. The remains or imprints of once-living or-
227. This vestigial structure is believed to in- ganisms are called
dicate an infection as a response to the im- A. fossils
mune system, but other than this, they can
B. records
be removed without affecting the person’s
quality of life. C. remains
A. Arrector Pili D. none of above
B. Palmar Grasp Reflex 233. Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devo-
C. tonsils nian, Mississippian, Pennsylvanian, Per-
mian, Triassic, Jurassic, Cretaceous, Ter-
D. appendix tiary, Q uaternary all belong to:
228. Each rock layer is newer than the one be- A. Periods
low it B. Eons
A. law of superposition C. Epochs
B. geologic time scale D. Eras
C. Permian extinction 234. The strongest evidence for evolution
D. Paleozoic era from a common ancestor is
A. similar DNA sequences
229. Which types of organisms developed first
due to the early environmental conditions B. similar body structures
on Earth? C. similar embryological structures
A. prokaryotic and aerobic D. similar fossils

235. is change that comes in spurts. There 240. Which of the following have a similar
is a period of very little change, and then structures but have a different function in
one or a few huge changes occur, often each organism?

through mutations in the genes of a few
A. A dolphin fin and a shark fin
individuals.
B. Human fingernails and monkey finger-
A. Charles Darwin
nails
B. Punctuated Equilibrium
C. Front leg of a cat and the wing of a bat
C. Gradualism
D. Evolution D. The wing of a bumble bee and the wing
of a bird
236. The ability of an individual organism to
survive and reproduce in tis natural envi-
241. Which is an example of a analogous struc-
ronment is called
ture?
A. a bat wing and a bird wing
B. fitness
B. a cat arm and a human arm
C. evolution
C. a human arm and a whale fin
D. adaptation
D. none of above
237. Using DNA to determine which organisms
are related to others is called: 242. What were Earth’s first living organ-
isms?
A. Homologous Chromosomes
A. Photosynthetic eukaryotes
B. Molecular Biology
C. Vestigial Structures B. Photosynthetic prokaryotes
D. Pharyngeal pouches C. Anaerobic prokaryotes

D. Anaerobic eukaryotes
238. Which of these best represents a time pe-
riod in which an organism could evolve? 243. Which statement is true about natural se-
A. 5 days lection? Choose the correct answer.
B. 100 years A. It forms new traits.
C. 10, 000 years B. It acts on variable traits.
D. 2 decades C. It forms new genetic material.
239. finches on the Galapagos Island were D. It acts on genetic material directly.
similar in form except for variations of
their beaks. Darwin observed that these 244. The geologic time scale divides Earth’s
variations were useful for: history into units of:
A. attracting a mate A. time

B. defending territory B. miles
C. building nests C. rock
D. gathering food D. fossil record

245. show clear changes in an organ- C. artificial selection

ism over time, the environment organisms
D. disruptive selection
lived in, the time period the organism lived
in, and where the organism lived. 250. The Law of Superposition helps scientists
A. DNA to determine what?
B. Fossils A. The absolute age of rock layers
C. Vestigial Structures B. The age of fossils
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Homologous Structures C. The relative age of rock layers
246. Mutations within a DNA sequence are D. the super powers of squirrels
A. natural processes that produce ge-
netic diversity 251. A body part that is not used or not work-
ing by a modern organism but which was
B. natural processes that always affect needed by its ancestors is called a
the phenotype
C. unnatural processes that always af-
fect the phenotype B. Analogous Structure
D. unnatural processes that are harmful C. Vestigial Structure
to genetic diversity D. Pharyngeal Pouch
247. This can show the changes that occurred
over time for a specific type of creature. 252. If two organisms have similar traits of
Older fossils are found deeper than more DNA they probably share a common
recent fossils. A. ancestor
A. Phylogeny B. environment
B. Homologous Structures C. population
C. Fossil Record D. none of above
D. Vestigial Structures
253. Peter and Rosemary Grant
248. What is the fossil record?
A. spent more than 30 years studying Dar-
A. Are the remains or evidence of once- win’s tortoises
living organisms
B. studied the migration of the camel
B. Is the change over time in populations
of related organisms C. actually observed evolution by natural
selection taking place
C. Is made up of all the fossils ever dis-
covered on Earth D. none of above
D. Occurs when the last individual organ-
254. How do you define evolution?
ism of a species dies
A. a change in a population over time
249. What type of evolution do analogous
structures show? B. a change in an individual over time
A. convergent C. a change in a family over time
B. divergent D. a change in a community over time

255. Over time, adaptions can lead popula- 260. Studying the similarities in organisms de-
tions to experience velopment (inside eggs or wombs, etc)

A. environmental changes A. DNA
B. genetic changes B. Embryonic
C. geological changes C. Vestigial
D. extinction D. Homologous
261. When a farmer breeds only his or her

256. Which of the following pairs of structures
best livestock, the process involved is
is least likely to represent homology?
A. The wings of a bat and the arms of a
human B. artificial selection
B. The mitochondria of a plant and those C. artificial variation
of an animal D. survival of the fittest
C. The hemoglobin of a baboon and that 262. The study of evolution by studying the
of a gorilla development of the fertilized egg cell and
D. The wings of a bird and those of an in- its development into an organism is called
sect A. Molecular Biology
257. are features present in modern organ- B. Evolution
isms which are no longer in use. C. Embryology
A. DNA D. Paleontology
B. Vestigial structures 263. is involved in cellular respiration.
C. Fossils A. cytochrome c
D. Homologous structures B. cytoplasmic DNA
258. What is a structure that is similar across C. cytocrome c
species? D. none of above
A. vestigial 264. Match the definition to the vocabulary
B. homologous word:refers to organisms with traits best
suited to their environment being more
C. adaptaion
likely to survive and reproduce.
D. variation
A. Natural Selection
259. Which of the following would best deter- B. Adaptation
mine whether two plant species share a C. Population
recent common ancestor?
D. none of above
A. Flowering times
265. Protein sequences in one organism that
B. DNA sequences
resemble those of another suggest a
C. Stem lengths Choose the correct answer.
D. Habitat distribution A. coincidence

B. shared ancestry 271. The parts of organisms are more

C. great number of mutations likely to become fossils.
A. hard
D. lack of evolutionary relationship
B. soft
266. Which of the following pieces of evolu-
C. outer
tion evidence contain both homologous and
analogous structures? D. inner
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. fossil record 272. Which of the following would NOT be con-
B. comparative embryology sidered a fossil?
C. comparative biochemistry A. Imprints of claws in dried mud

B. teeth found on the jaw of an extinct di-
D. comparative anatomy
nosaur bone
267. is a scientist who studies fossils. C. a Wooly Mammoth preserved in ice
A. Paleontologist D. an x-ray of a fractured arm
B. Archaeologist 273. Which would be an example of a homolo-
C. Pathologist gous structure?
D. Pharmacologist A. a bird wing and a bat wing
B. a cat arm and a whale fin
268. Structures that no longer serve a pur-
pose. C. a dolphin fin and whale fin
A. Homologous structures D. a bird wing and a butterfly wing
B. gene pool 274. What is hardened tree sap called?
C. population A. coprolites
D. Vestigial structures B. index fossils
C. gastroliths
269. Group of organisms all of the same
species, living in the same place at the D. amber
same time.
275. Extinction occurs when a species
A. gene pool
A. has variation and the environment
B. population changes
C. species B. has little variation and the environ-
D. evolution ment changes
C. has variation and the environment
270. The founder of modern evolution theory stays the same
is considered to be
D. has little variation and the environ-
A. Charles Darwin ment stays the same
B. Gregor Mendel
276. Which scientist developed a theory of
C. Charles Lyell evolution by natural selection?
D. Alec Jefferies A. Charles Darwin

B. Charles Lyell D. remains of a once-living organism

C. Jean Baptiste Lamarck found in layers of rock, ice, or amber

D. none of above 282. Which of these would have the least ef-
fect on natural selection in a subspecies
277. Age of fish was during this era: of giraffes that is geographically isolated
A. Cenozoic from other subspecies of giraffes?
B. Mesozoic A. available niches
C. Paleozoic B. existing predators
D. none of above C. chromosome number
278. Human babies don’t do well if they are D. available food resources
born too small. If they are too big com- 283. Sharks & dolphins have the ability to
plications can occur during birth. Baby breath but the structures involved are
size should then be selected for by which quite different
method?
A. because they are incomplete struc-
A. stabilizing tures.
B. directional B. because of descent with modification.
C. disruptive C. because they are vistigial structures.
D. Beyonce is having twins D. because they are analogous struc-
279. What is made up of all the fossils ever tures.
discovered on Earth? 284. Natural selection acts directly on
A. Fossil record A. alleles
B. Trace fossils B. individual organisms.
C. Geologic time scale C. genes.
D. Biological evolution D. mutations.
280. Which of the following is an example of 285. What does Darwin’s theory of evolution
a vestigial structure? suggest?
A. the wings of a red-tailed hawk A. species change over time
B. the hind limbs of a house cat B. extinct species are not related to living
C. the fins of sharks species
D. the tailbone of a human C. different species can interbreed
281. Which of these answers best describes a D. animals that look alike are most
fossil? closely related
A. thick layers of rock 286. The study of the past and present geolog-
B. organism from which other organisms ical distribution of species and the patterns
are descended that emerge from such analysis.
C. body of an organism that died recently A. Common Ancestry

but has not decomposed B. Biogeography

C. Stasis 292. Comparisons of amino acid sequences be-

tween different organisms reveal evolu-
D. Sequential
tionary relationships
287. Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and A. DNA evidence
Cenozoic all belong to: B. Anatomical evidence
A. Epochs C. Fossil evidence
B. Eras D. evolution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Periods
293. All vertebrates have this structure which
D. Eons indicates that they are evolved from a dis-
tant same ancestor
288. A fossil is
A. A chambered heart
A. a dead rotten animal B. Lungs for breathing air
B. the remains of things that lived a long, C. kidneys to clean the blood
long time ago
D. Pharyngeal Pouches
C. a plant that dried up
294. Which of the following is NOT a true
D. none of above statement about fossil evidence?
289. About 225 million years ago, all of the A. We are still discovering fossils.
continents were part of one huge landmass B. Fossils are any remains including hu-
called mans.
A. Pacific C. Sonar and sonography equipment help
B. Pythagoras us locate buried objects.
C. Pangaea D. We have found all the fossils there are.
D. Pandora 295. Which of the following pieces of evolu-

tion evidence deals with structures com-
290. All the genes of all members of a particu- mon in embryos that form differently?
lar population make up the population’s A. fossil record
A. relative frequency B. embryology
B. genotype. C. molecular homology
C. phenotype. D. homologous structures
D. gene pool. 296. Archaeopteryx is a fossil that displays
a mix of characteristics belonging to both
291. If two organisms have similar traits of birds and dinosaurs. This makes Ar-
DNA they are probably chaeopteryx an example of a
A. share a common ancestor A. homologous structure
B. share a common environment B. modern-day bird
C. share a common population C. transitional fossil
D. speciation D. modern-day dinosaur

297. Which is a major underlying cause of 302. What did the host cell receive from its en-
mass extinctions? dosymbiont (cell living inside of it)?

A. Environmental change A. Shelter
B. Genetic change B. Motility
C. sedimentation C. Energy
D. evolution D. Reproduction
298. When farmers select animals or plants to 303. Which of the following is not an exam-
use for breeding, they look for ple of evidence in support of the theory of
Evolution
A. species that are perfect and unchang-
ing. A. Comparing DNA of humans and goril-
las
B. Comparing where organisms live
C. characteristics acquired during the
lifetime of the organism. C. Comparing developmental stages of
different organisms
D. natural variations that are useful or
beneficial. D. Comparing fossils of different organ-
isms
299. What is embryology?
304. Anatomical remnants (left over struc-
A. Adaptation. tures) that were important in the organ-
B. The study of fetus and embryo devel- ism’s ancestors, but are no longer used in
opment, and fertilization. the same way.
C. Evolution. A. Homologous Structures
D. The study of fossils. B. Analogous Structures
C. Vestigial Structures
300. Scientists think that dolphins and whales
may have evolved from a common ances- D. Comparative Anatomy
tor. What evidence supports this hypothe- 305. The most recent ancestral form or species
sis? from which two different species evolved
A. They swim the same way. is known as
B. They eat the same food. A. a common ancestor.
C. They live in the same area of the ocean. B. an embryonic stage.
C. development.
D. They have similar anatomies. D. evolution.
301. Protein sequences in one organism that 306. The study of organisms at their earliest
resemble those of another suggest a stage of life
A. coincidence A. embryology
B. lack of evolutionary relationship B. DNA
C. great number of mutations C. the fossil record
D. shared ancestry D. vestigial structures

307. If modern organisms have a lot of ho- 312. Which one of the options below would
mologous structures, what inference might we consider to be a vestigial structure in
paleontologists make about those organ- humans?
isms? A. Eyes
A. They are reptiles
B. Kidneys
B. One organism evolved from the other.
C. Lungs
C. The organisms have a common ances- D. Tailbone
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tor 313. Giraffes with average length necks have
D. none of above higher fitness than giraffes with long or
short necks. This is an example of
308. You know an organism is a species when
A. directional selection
A. They can fuse their gametes B. stabilizing selection
B. They can fuse their gametes and pro- C. disruptive selection
duce fertile offspring D. none of above
C. When they look alike
314. Recently, scientists have been able to use
D. When they survive
to find common proteins and amino
309. Who is the father of evolution? acids to determine how closely related
species are.
A. Darwin
B. Mendel A. DNA
C. Newton B. Vestigial structures

D. Einstein C. Fossils
D. Homologous structures
310. The fossil record shows thata. mb. c.
A. most organisms that ever lived on 315. When studying biogeography, the closer
Earth are now extinct. species are in distance,
B. fossils occur in a particular order. A. the more closely related they are
C. modern organisms have unicellular an- B. the more distantly related they are
cestors.
C. this indicates no relation
D. all of the above
D. none of above
311. The number of phenotypes produced for
a given trait depends upon 316. A bird that can easily outcompete other
birds for food and that can produce many
A. the number of genes that control the eggs has a high . Choose the correct an-
trait. swer.
B. which form of the trait is dominant.
A. fitness
C. the relative frequencies of the various
B. adaptability
alleles.
D. the relationship of allele frequencies C. mutation rate
to Mendelian ratios. D. life expectancy

317. This vestigial behavior refers to how ba- 322. Comparing DNA molecules or protein se-
bies cling on the hairy backs of their par- quence between organisms shows how
ents. closely related they are and how far to go

A. wisdom teeth back for the common ancestor.
A. Molecular Homology
B. Palmar Grasp Reflex
B. Phylogeny
C. sinuses
C. Fossil Record
D. appendix
D. Comparative Anatomy
318. Structures that have common evolution-
323. Evolution is called a theory because
ary origins, provide evidence for common
ancestor. A. we are not sure if it is true
A. Species B. there’s not enough evidence yet
B. Vestigial Structures C. scientific theories are supported by a
large amount of evidence
C. Population
D. none of these is true
D. Homologous Structures
324. Which type of body parts/structures
319. How would relative dating be used to de- serve similar functions, but do not share
termine the age of a fossil? similar structure and development (exam-
A. Fossils in layers closer to Earth’s sur- ple:bat wings and butterfly wings both
face are older. used for flight)
B. Fossils in deeper rock layers are older. A. Homologous Structures
B. Vestigial Structures
C. The age of fossils is compared using C. Analogous Structures
radioactive dating. D. none of above
D. DNA is taken from fossils
325. Structures are similar in appearance but
320. When all of the organisms of a species not in structure
have died it is called A. Vestigial
A. evolution B. Homologous
B. extinction C. Analogous Structures
C. adaptation D. Embryonic
D. natural selection 326. What are fossils?
321. Fossils of marine organisms high in the A. Are the remains or evidence of once-
Andes Mountains led Darwin to conclude living organisms
that Choose the correct answer. B. Is the change over time in populations
of related organisms
A. Earth is 6, 000 years old
C. A chart that divides Earth’s history into
B. an earthquake had taken place
different time units
C. great change can happen over time D. Occurs when the last individual organ-
D. interspecific variation had taken place ism of a species dies

327. Which of the following is NOT a Biologi- 332. Average beak size in flamingos is a favor-
cal Evidence of Evolution? able trait over thin or thick beaks. This is
A. Fossils an example of
B. Embryology A. directional selection
C. Comparative Anatomy B. stabilizing selection
D. Molecular Biology C. disruptive selection
D. none of above
328. Bird wings and butterfly wings are an
NARAYAN CHANGDER
example of (Same Function (Job) but dif- 333. Changes in species that allow that
ferent structure) Birds have bones, butter- species to survive changes in the environ-
flies do not. ment are called:
A. Homologous structure A. ecosystems
B. Analogous structure B. adaptations
C. Mimicry C. biomes
D. Camoflague D. alleles
329. Match the definition to the vocabulary
334. What type of evolution do homologous
word:a change or the process of change in
structures show?
which an organism or species becomes bet-
ter suited to its environment to survive. A. convergent
A. Adaptation B. divergent
B. Speciation C. artificial selection
C. Species D. disruptive selection
D. none of above 335. Which of the following pieces of evolu-
330. If scientist were to find 4 fossil that ap- tion evidence contain both homologous and
pear to be of the same ancestor, what can vestigial structures?
be concluded? A. fossil record
A. number of each fossil are similiar B. comparing embryology
B. members of the group living today live C. comparing biochemistry
together
D. comparing anatomy
C. fossils were found in the same rock
layer 336. If finches with large beaks and finches
with small beaks increase in a population
D. fossils have similar chacteristics
while finches with average sized beaks de-
331. Scientist theorize that oxygen buildup in creases, which pattern of natural selection
the atmosphere resulted from . has occurred?
A. respiration A. Directional selection
B. photosynthesis B. Disruptive selection
C. chemosynthesis C. Stabilizing selection
D. rock weathering D. none of above

9.2 Historical Context for Evolutionary Theory 1337
9.2 Historical Context for Evolutionary Theory

1. The form of natural selection where in- 6. Humans and bats having similar looking
dividuals with certain characteristics are forelimbs is which type of evolutionary ev-
more likely than others to obtain mates is idence?
A. sexual selection A. anatomical
B. stabilizing selection B. biochemical
C. disruptive selection C. embryological
D. directional selection D. geographical
2. What do we call differences among inher- 7. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed that or-
ited traits? ganisms
A. Variation A. have the ability to pass on traits ac-
quired during their lifetime.
B. Adaptation
B. have an innate tendency to become
C. Evolution simpler as time passes.
D. Speciation C. inherit all of the adaptations they dis-
play.
3. Who was Charles Darwin?
D. belong to species that never change.
A. A man who liked birds.
B. The man who studied natural selection 8. A population of organisms that are simi-
and became the foundation of modern evo- lar; those organisms that interbreed and
lutionary studies. produce fertile offspring
C. A doctor. A. binomial nomenclature
D. A lawyer. B. biological species
C. genus-species name
4. A state in which the allele frequency of a
population remain in the same ratios from D. speciation
one generation to the next 9. This person taught themself how to recon-
A. evolution struct the bodies of fossilized animals.
B. drift A. Lyell
C. speciation B. Anning
D. genetic equilibrium C. Darwin
D. Lamarck
5. Which of these factors should be compared
to best determine how closely species are 10. Which of the following is NOT a source of
related to each other? genetic variation?
A. number of genes A. Crossing over
B. location of chromosomes B. Sexual reproduction
C. physical similarities in body structure C. Mutations
D. sequence of amino acids D. Homologous structures

11. Which is an appropriate application for a C. genetic drift

phylogenetic tree? D. cloning
A. show how organisms are related
16. Wolves from the Arizona mesa were trans-
B. assign an organism a scientific name ferred to the Colorado Rockies after a
C. classify organisms based on charac- forest fire destroyed their habitat. They
teristics quickly became part of the local pack and
had offspring. This is an example of
D. show when organisms were discov-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ered by scientists A. Mutation
B. Natural Selection
12. which of the following is the universally
accepted theory of the origin of state? C. Genetic Drift
A. Social Contract Theory D. Gene Flow
B. Evolutionary Theory 17. This person’s discoveries set the stage for
a theory of gradual evolution over long pe-
C. Force Theory
riods of time.
D. Divine Origin Theory
A. Lyell
13. In a population of humans, the frequency B. Lamarck
of no dimples is 0.36. If having no dim- C. Anning
ples is the recessive phenotype, what is
the frequency of the recessive allele? D. Linnaeus
A. 0.6 18. What do you call all of the genes in a pop-

ulation?
B. 0.36
A. Gene pool
C. 0.64
B. Relative Frequency
D. 0.18
C. Genetic Drift
14. What does evolutionary FITNESS refer D. Allele pool
to?
19. Demonstrates the supposed stages of evo-
A. An organism’s ability to travel long dis-
lution
tances or move heavy objects
A. clade
B. An organism’s ability to fight off
stronger predators B. evolutionary classification
C. An organism’s ability to survive & com- C. biological species
pete D. Phylogenetic tree
D. An organism’s ability to survive & re- 20. A male firefly tries to mate with a female
produce firefly, but she does not recognize his rit-
ual dance and is not interested. What is
15. Which evolutionary mechanism, indepen-
the term for this?
dent of natural selection, recombination,
or mutation, will most likely result in rapid, A. geographical isolation
random changes in gene frequencies? B. behavioral isolation
A. gene flow C. inherited variation
B. migration D. sympatric speciation

21. In order for chemical evolution to occur on C. the recessive genotype

the early earth, which of the following is D. the dominant genotype
considered necessary?

A. volcanic activity 27. Which is the earliest and strongest bond
of unity
B. a high concentration of nitrogen
A. Religion
C. an absence of oxygen
B. Kinship
D. very hot temps
C. Culture
22. The total number of different alleles D. Common geography
present in a population is the?
28. Which of the following men developed a
A. genotype
theory of evolution very similar to Charles
B. phenotype Darwin’s around the same time that Dar-
C. gene pool win developed his theory?
D. gene flow A. Malthus
B. Lyell
23. The formation of new species as a result
of evolution C. Lamarck
A. speciation D. Wallace
B. genetics 29. What were Alfred Russell Wallaces contri-
C. evolution butions to the theory of evolution
D. adaption A. he worked to answer the question of

where do species come from
24. Each of the following is a condition neces- B. he worked with Darwin and shared
sary for natural selection to occur EXCEPT their ideas.
A. more offspring are born than can sur- C. he sold Darwin specimens
vive.
D. he wrote a book about Darwin called
B. population size is very large. Darwinism
C. fitness varies among individuals.
30. The allele frequency of p=0.40 What is
D. there is heritable variation among the percentage of Heterozygous Dominant
members of the population. genotype?
25. What do we call change over time? A. 0.80
A. Evolution B. 0.48
B. Natural Selection C. 0.32
C. Natural Variation D. 0.64
D. Speciation 31. Darwin’s theory was called evolution by
26. In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is the A. transformation
frequency of what? B. natural selection
A. The recessive allele C. selective breeding
B. the dominant allele D. darwinism

32. Phylogenetics is all about discovering C. Bottleneck effect

A. which organisms are more closely re- D. Genetic drift
lated to each other
37. Yellow toucan birds seek out one another
B. which organisms have more adapta- to make babies together and tend to avoid
tions the green toucan birds.
C. adaptations where organisms live in A. Genetic Drift
the world
B. Non-random mating
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. which organisms are most fit for their
environment C. Gene flow
D. Mutation
33. Genetic drift is more likely to be seen in a
population 38. According to the theory of evolution,
A. that has a low mutation rate. which of the following evolved first?
B. in which natural selection is occurring. A. photosynthetic prokaryote
B. anaerobic, heterotrophic prokaryote
C. that is very small. C. aerobic, heterotrophic prokaryote
D. for which environmental conditions D. heterotrophic eukaryote
are changing.
39. What does the Hardy-Weinberg equilib-
34. Which of the following evolutionary forces rium measure?
can introduce new genetic variation into a
A. changes in allele frequencies
population?
B. numbers of mutations
A. natural selection and non-random mat-
ing C. goodness of fit
B. natural selection and genetic drift D. genetic diversity
C. mutation and genetic drift 40. Which of the following is most likely to
D. mutation and gene flow cause a decrease in a predator popula-
tion?
35. What was the mission that led Darwin’s
A. fewer prey
boat to sea?
B. a reduction in competition
A. Discovering proof of evolution
B. Claiming South American land for C. more primary producer
Great Britain D. predator populations never vary
C. Looking for South American gold de- 41. current knowledge of human evolution is
posits considered incomplete because?
D. Mapping the South American coast- A. scientist are unwilling to research the
lines topic
36. The lack of allele variation in the northern B. most fossils are not complete enough
elephant seal population is an example of: to identify
A. Mutations C. there are no known fossils of humans
B. Founder effect D. the fossil record is full of gaps

42. The process by which new species develop C. Economic needs

A. rapid speciation D. Geographical needs

B. speciation 48. The Miller Urey Experiment showed
C. adaption A. how several species evolved from the
D. derived character same ancestor
43. In a population of bears, the frequency of B. early Earth had the right ingredients
q is 0.44. What is the frequency of p? for amino acids to form
A. 0.1936 C. how populations can evolve
B. 0.44 D. how animals die according to survival
of the fittest
C. 0.56
D. 0.22 49. An inheritable characteristic that gives a
survival advantage to the organism
44. What will most likely happen if a species
A. speciation
can no longer produce offspring?
B. adaption
A. it will become extinct
C. rapid speciation
B. it will evolve into another species
D. derived character
C. it will move into a new environment
and adapt 50. Which term refers to the process by which
D. it will begin to mutate into another or- individuals that are better suited to the
ganism environment survive and reproduce there-
fore passing down their genes to their off-
45. Darwin’s expedition took how many spring?
years?
A. Evolution
A. 3
B. Variation
B. 4
C. Adaptation
C. 5
D. 6
51. What motivated Darwin to finally publish
46. What process would farmers use to pro- his work?
duce vegetables that will grow in a specific
climate? A. His friend Thomas Huxley
A. evolution B. His wife Emma
B. genetic variation C. Reading a similar paper by Wallace
C. selective breeding D. The church
D. natural selection 52. As creatures become adapted to a partic-

ular environment, natural selection cause
47. What compelled to men to adopt animal a decrease in genetic diversity throughout
husbandry in place of hunting? the population. This type of natural selec-
A. Political needs tion is?
B. Social needs A. stabilizing seletion

B. transcription B. Bottleneck effect

C. disruptive selection C. Meteor effect
D. incomplete selection D. Natural selection
53. What do we call differences among herita- 58. The frequency of the recessive genotype
ble traits? in a population is 0.64. What is the fre-
quency of the heterozygous genotype?
A. Variation
A. 0.04
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Adaptation
B. 0.32
C. Evolution
C. 0.64
D. Speciation
D. 0.2
54. The name of Darwin’s first publication 59. An inherited behavior or physical charac-
was teristic that helps an organism survive and
A. Inheritance of Acquired Traits reproduce in its environment
B. Human Evolution A. Adaptation
C. On the Origin of Species by Means of B. Variation
Natural Selection, or the the Preservation C. Evolution
of Favored Races in the Struggle for Life
D. Trait
D. My Voyage on the Beagle
60. What ship did Charles Darwin travel on?
55. How do scientists organize living things? A. The Mayflower
A. by similarities and differences B. The USS Arizona
B. by shared characteristics and evolu- C. The HMS Beagle
tionary relationships
D. The USS Maine
C. by size and behavior
61. A population of 150 individuals has an
D. by differences allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant
allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for
56. The idea that acquired characteristics are
the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-
passed to later generations was devel-
Weinberg equation to determine the fre-
oped by
quency of the genotype (bb).
A. Darwin
A. 0.09
B. Aristotle
B. 0.42
C. Lamarck C. 0.49
D. Buffon D. 0.21
57. This occurs when a large population is 62. Who does Darwin share a birthday with?
drastically reduced by an event such as
A. Abraham Lincoln
a natural disaster; the population’s new
gene pool only contains alleles from the B. Mrs. Scott
survivors C. Isaac Newton
A. Founder effect D. George Washington

63. What are the Five Principles of Natural Se- C. genetic drift
lection?
D. speciation

A. Overproduction, Variation, Competi-
tion, Adaption, Extinction 68. What is variation?
B. Overproduction, Competition, Extinc- A. Things that vary.
tion, Evolution, Adaption,
B. Different in traits.
C. Overproduction, Variation, Competi-
tion, Adaption, Evolution C. Animals that are the same.
D. none of above D. Species that change.
64. Organisms with similar structures that 69. The allele frequency of p=0.20 What is the
come from different taxonomic groups il- percentage of the homozygous dominant
lustrate? genotype?
A. convergent evolution A. 0.80
B. divergent evolution
B. 0.04
C. coevolution
C. 0.32
D. parallel evolution
D. 0.64
65. The process of change by which new
species develop from preexisting species 70. Genetic differences between organisms of
over time the same species
A. evolution A. Variation
B. genetics B. Adaptation
C. drift
C. Behavior
D. fossil
D. Environment
66. Which of the following pairs of terms are
not related 71. Which is a source of genetic variation?
A. analogous structures-bat and butterfly A. mutations
wings
B. artificial selection
B. evolution-natural selection
C. exponential growth
C. vestigial structures-eyes in a blind fish
D. genetic bottlenecking
D. adaptive radiation-convergent evolu-
72. A trait that improves an organism’s abil-
tion
ity to survive and reproduce; the process
67. The process by which individuals that are of becoming adapted
better adapted to their environment sur- A. selection
vive and reproduce more successfully than
less well adapted individuals do B. drift
A. artificial selection C. speciation
B. natural selection D. adaption

73. The cause of artificial selection is C. Founder effect

A. The environment D. Gene flow
B. Humans 78. The shared unique features by which or-
C. Mutation ganisms are assigned to a particular clade
D. Gene Flow A. speciation
74. Salamanders usually have small, non- B. genus-species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
functional eyes. Scientist studying biolog- C. gene pool
ical evolution consider the salamanders’ D. derived character
eyes to be an example of?
A. homologous structure 79. Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents
the frequency of heterozygous individuals
B. an analogous structure
in a population?
C. incomplete adaptation
A. p2
D. vestigial organ
B. 2pq
75. What is natural selection? C. q2
A. Animals that have acquired traits to D. p2 + 2pq
survive and reproduce.
80. Which Hardy-Weinberg equation repre-
B. Animals who pick who they want to
sents the genotype frequencies in a pop-
mate with.
ulation?
C. People pick the mates for the animals.
A. p + q = 1
B. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
D. People change the DNA of animals to
make them have desired traits. C. p2 + pq2 + q2 = 1
D. p + 2pq + q3 = 1
76. Which of these is NOT part of Darwin’s
theory? 81. The allele frequency of p=0.20 What is the
A. Organisms with higher fitness tend to percentage of recessive genotype?
survive & reproduce A. 0.80
B. Organisms can change within a single B. 0.04
generation to adapt
C. 0.32
C. Organisms share a common ancestry
D. 0.64
D. Organisms must be able to compete
for resources to survive 82. What compelled people to devise ways for
ensuring a peaceful social order?
77. After a small group of individuals founds
a new population, allele frequencies in the A. His economic needs
new population differ from those in the B. The growing complexity of social rela-
original population tionships
A. Bottleneck C. Growing authority of the clan leader
B. Fixed alleles D. Acquisition of property

9.3 Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection 1345
9.3 Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection

1. Over many generations the features that 6. Scientists compare organisms’ DNA to sup-
help animals survive port the theory that all species share a
common
A. are passed on
A. separation
B. disappear
B. ancestor
C. change because of combinations
C. population
D. change through behavioral adaptation
D. environment
2. What is the best definition of evolution? 7. Which statement best describes the pro-
A. populations changing over time cess of evolution?
B. Populations getting bigger over time A. Populations can survive in different lo-
cations on earth
C. populations moving around the world
B. Environmental conditions limit the
D. individuals adapting to their environ- number of species on Earth
ment
C. Populations grow when resources are
3. Successful reproduction is defined as which abundant
of the following? D. The traits of a species can change over
A. Making lots of offspring. time
B. Producing many times in a short period 8. Which best helps scientist explore the re-
of time lationship between modern organisms and
ancestral species to create a system of bi-
C. Producing viable offspring, meaning ological classification?
they can reproduce themselves
A. fossils
D. All of the above
B. volcanic ash
4. Darwin and presented the idea of nat- C. DNA evidence
ural selection together in 1858. D. igneous rock layers
A. Alfred Russell Wallace
9. Genetic drift tends to occur in populations
B. Charles Lyell that
C. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck A. are very large
D. Thomas Malthus B. are small
C. are formed from new species
5. In the phrase, “survival of the fittest, “
the term ‘fittest’ refers to D. have unchanging allele frequencies
A. the best-adapted organisms 10. When individuals with certain inherited

traits are more likely to survive and repro-
B. the biggest organisms
duce than those with less favorable traits,
C. the smartest organisms occurs.
D. the fastest organisms A. genetic selection

B. natural selection 16. The situation in which allele frequencies of

C. favored survival a population remain constant is called
D. struggle for existence A. evolution
B. genetic drift
11. All species exhibit
C. genetic equilibrium
A. the same traits
B. variations
17. Biogeography is the study of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. colors
D. none of the above A. food preferences of an organism
B. the location of organisms on Earth
12. Darwin’s theory of evolution suggests
that C. DNA and RNA nucleotides
A. species change of time D. homologous structures
B. extinct species are not related to living 18. A trait that allows organisms to survive
species and reproduce better than others without
C. different species can interbreed the trait in a specific environment is a(n)
D. animals that look alike are the most A. accommodation
closely related B. adaptation
13. Which of the following describes fossils? C. variation
A. large organisms that live on Earth now D. selection
19. Overtime this will cause new species, once
B. traces of organisms that lived in the enough adaptations occur.
past
A. variation
C. the fate of all organisms now on Earth
B. overproduction
C. speciation
D. preserved in igneous rock
D. competition
14. A characteristic of an individual organ-
ism? 20. What was the name of the book Darwin
published?
B. Small A. How it is we evolved.
C. Trait B. What is evolution?
D. none of above C. The Origin of Species.

D. The Starting Point of All Life.
15. What is the advantage of having different
shaped beaks? 21. allows adapted organisms to survive
A. To look different from other species. and pass traits along to offspring.
B. To be able to eat the food readily avail- A. Evolution
able in the environment. B. Natural Selection
C. To protect itself against predators. C. Extinction
D. To protect itself against prey. D. Artifical Selection

22. When did Charles Darwin live? 28. Which of the following means “genetic
A. 1600s change over time”

B. 1700s A. natural selection
C. 1800s B. speciation
D. 1900s C. evolution
D. fitness
23. Which of the following factors is necessary
in order for natural selection to occur in a 29. What do organisms compete for?
species? A. Space
A. genetic variation within a population B. food and water
B. an abundance of food resources C. mates
C. a hospitable environment D. all of the above
D. a strong family structure
30. What was the name of the ship Charles
24. When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, Darwin sailed on?
some antelopes are killed and some escape. A. Boaty McBoaty Face
This is an example of
B. HMS Beagle
A. Common descent
C. HMS Britannia
B. Artificial Selection
D. HMS Bulldog
C. Natural selection
D. Fossils 31. Which of these would be considered an
adaptation of an animal that lives in the
25. Effect caused by species producing more snowy Tundra?
offspring than can survive A. A thick coat
A. overproduction B. Green colored skin
B. competition C. Large flat leaves
C. variations D. Webbed feet
32. The fact that some birds’ beaks are larger
26. Almost all adaptations started off as? than others illustrates
A. selective breeding A. fitness
B. physiological B. natural variation
C. structural C. vestigial organs
D. mutation D. homologous structures
27. Who developed the theory of evolution? 33. How do you “win” at natural selection?
A. Charles Darwin A. survive
B. Gregor Mendel B. go extinct
C. Rosalind Franklin C. survive & reproduce
D. James Crick D. none of above

34. If a rabbit species lives in an extremely 39. With favorable adaptations increase in
cold environment with their main predator frequency and bad ones decrease.
hunting at night and by sound, which mu-
A. competition
tation would be most favorable to the rab-
bit? B. variation
A. camouflage fur C. selection
B. a dense undercoat of fur underneath D. speciation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. bigger ears
40. What was Darwin’s favorite subject in
D. being more visibly active at night school?
35. Based on Darwin’s findings, what deter- A. Medicine

mines an organism’s ability to survive? B. Biology
A. Its ability to have babies C. History
B. Its ability to adapt to the environment D. Chemistry
C. Its ability to move out of a bad environ-
ment 41. Nature has a way of causing organisms
that inherit advantageous traits to survive
D. Its ability to win competitions and reproduce more successfully than the
ones that don’t. This process is known
36. if a storm hits, and several birds are blown
as..
to an island, the island birds are now
A. behaviorally isolated
B. Changing Theory
B. geographically isolated
C. Survival Idea
C. temporally isolated
D. none of above
D. mechanically isolated
37. The process of Natural Selection causes 42. What is important about evolution?
evolution. What is changing over time? A. Populations or groups of individuals of
A. The inherited traits of a population. the same species evolve.
B. The acquired traits of a population. B. Individuals also evolve over time.
C. The inherited traits of individuals C. Both populations and individuals

evolve over time.
D. The acquired traits of individuals
D. Populations or individuals do not
38. Part 3 of Darwin’s Theory addressed an or- evolve over time.
ganism that posses traits that will allow it
to prosper and reproduce is said to have. 43. Who was Charles Darwin married to?
A. Low fitness A. His sister
B. High fitness B. Alberta S. Jones
C. Lack of fitness C. His cousin
D. Slight fitness D. His Aunt

44. A wasp beetle has the same body mark- D. differences between various species’
ings as a wasp. this helps the wasp beetle mating preferences
because predators think it’s a wasp. This

adaptation is called ? 49. What year was Darwin born in?
A. behavior A. 1908
B. countershading B. 1808
C. camouflage C. 1809
D. mimicry D. 1909
45. Darwin developed his theory of natural se- 50. an example of what can happen due to be-
lection by the studying the unique life on havioral isolation
this chain of islands in the Pacific Ocean A. two species of frog mate at different
near South America. times of the year
A. the Andouilles B. a female bird will choose the male with
B. the Hawaiian Islands the best nest
C. the Galapagos Islands C. crossbreeding can occur
D. the Aleutian Islands D. birds eat whatever food source is avail-
able
46. Which is NOT a reason why Darwin waited
decades to publish his full scientific find- 51. Individuals in a population that have a
ings? variation which gives them an advantage
A. He wanted to make sure he had in their environment are more likely to
enough evidence. A. Survive and reproduce
B. He knew his findings would upset peo- B. Move to a different environment
ple. C. Change their characteristics to fit the
C. He did not believe his findings were ac- environment
curate. D. Die and not reproduce
D. all of the above
52. Over time, corn plants are bred to make
47. How did Darwin think life started? larger corn cobs and kernels. This is and
A. We evolved from apes example of
B. We evolved from fish A. selective breeding
C. We evolved from each other B. dichotomous key
D. We evolved from a simple cell C. natural selection
D. extinction
48. What does genetic variation describe?
A. similarities in the inherited traits of dif- 53. In the candy corn lab that we did in class,
ferent individuals the different M&M’s represented a popula-
B. similarities between species in an tion of organisms. What was the variation
ecosystem in this population?
C. differences in the inherited traits of dif- A. sizes of M&M

ferent individuals B. shapes of M&M

C. color of M&M 59. According to Darwin’s theory of natural se-

D. location of M&M lection, the individuals that tend to survive
are those that have
54. What is a characteristic that helps an or- A. variations best suited to the environ-
ganism survive and reproduce in its envi- ment.
ronment
B. the ability to change their bodies to fit
A. Species the environment.
B. Adaptation C. the best luck.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Fossil record D. the biggest body.
D. Phylogeny
60. In a particular population, sexual reproduc-
55. Organisms that are better adapted to the tion can produce
environment survive to pass traits to their A. many different phenotypes.
offspring
B. meiosis.
C. mutations.
B. Homeostasis
D. none of above
C. Selective Breeding
D. Extinction 61. Finches on the Galapagos Islands had dif-
ferent beaks in order to help them do
56. The struggle for existence against other what?
members of an organisms species is A. Build nests
A. Competition B. Fight off predators
B. Natural Selection C. Collect food sources
C. gene flow D. Compete with rivals
D. genetic drift
62. How can migration enhance the survival of
57. Based upon the conditions of the early organisms?
Earth, which forms of life most likely ap- A. Migration causes adaptations to occur
peared first? more frequently.
A. Prokaryotes and aerobic B. Migration helps organisms to avoid
B. Prokaryotes and anaerobic predators.
C. Eukaryotes and aerobic C. Migration requires organisms to exert
D. Eukaryotes and anaerobic a lot of energy.
D. Migration makes finding necessary re-
58. Intermediate fossil forms are important sources more likely.
evidence of evolution because they show
A. how organisms change over time 63. Which areas of study provide evidence for
evolution?
B. how animals behaved in their environ-
ments A. Fossil Records
C. how the embryos of organisms de- B. Embryology
velop C. Similar body structure
D. molecular homologies D. All the above

64. What type of species has the best chance 69. What is a change in an organism that al-
of surviving through significant environ- lows for it to survive in its environment?
mental change?

A. homologous
A. genetically-diverse species
B. vestigial
B. genetically homogeneous species
C. variation
C. species with highly-specialized traits
D. adaptation
D. none of above
70. Genetic drift is change in the allele fre-
65. Your parents have dark color skin and you quency of a population due to
have dark color skin. Which word de-
A. random chance
scribes this?
B. natural selection
A. Variation
C. non-random mating (sexual selection)
B. Heritability
C. Overproduction
D. artificial selection
D. Reproductive Advantage
71. What is a common ancestor?
66. When individuals at only one end of a bell
A. an animal that has a lot of offspring
curve of phenotype frequencies have high
fitness, the result is B. an animal from which two or more dif-
ferent species evolved
C. an animal that is related to many other
B. stabilizing selection
species
D. an animal that is good at escaping
D. genetic drift from predators
67. Over time, honey suckle flowers devel- 72. Part of natural selection in which some in-
oped a sweet smell to attract pollinators. dividuals die from starvation, competition,
This is and example of disease, or predation.
A. selective breeding A. overproduction
B. dichotomous key B. selective breeding
C. natural selection C. struggle to survive
D. extinction D. successful reproduction
68. Why might it be helpful for a species to 73. The dog breeds we have today were de-
have a lot of variations? veloped through:
A. They can’t be seen by predators A. Natural selection
B. If the environment changes, they B. Artificial selection (selective breeding)
might be better able to adapt
C. It is helpful in asexual reproduction C. Sexual selection
D. They don’t recognize each other D. Acquired selection

74. Who’s theory of evolution is most ac- 79. Some lizards have different size legs.
cepted today? Lizards with longer legs are able to better
access food. Overtime Lizards with short
A. Charles Darwin
legs became less common.What is the in-
B. James Hutton herited variation?
C. Thomas Malthus A. lizards
D. Charles Lyell B. long legs
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. leg size
75. Many animals in prehistoric times were
much larger than those that exist today. D. food
How did a larger body size aid in their
80. Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution by
survival during the colder climates of that
natural selection explains each of the fol-
time?
lowing EXCEPT how
A. They needed less food
A. species can become extinct.
B. They needed less water
B. inherited traits are passed from parent
C. It helped them run faster to offspring
D. It regulated body temperature C. species descend from common ances-
tors.
76. A(n) is the preserved remains or traces
D. evolution takes place in the natural
of an organism that lived in the past
world.
A. Species
81. Which variation would be most likely to
B. Fossil benefit any organism, regardless of envi-
C. Freddy ronment?
D. none of above A. the ability to produce energy more ef-
ficiently
77. Animals having to compete with their own B. the ability to swim deeper
kind for food and territory and mates are
examples of C. markings that help it blend into its
background
A. Struggle for existence
D. bigger claws and teeth
B. Evolution
82. This mechanism of evolution occurs when
C. Fitness
individuals migrate between populations.
D. Artificial Selection
A. Extinction
78. Which scientists proposed the idea that all B. Gene flow
the continents on the Earth were once one C. Genetic drift
landmass called Pangaea?
A. Hutton & Lyell
83. A change in the genetic make-up, appear-
B. Darwin & Lamark
ance, and behaviors of a species over time
C. Mendel & Malthus is called
D. none of these A. adaptation

B. natural selection 89. Where did Charles Darwin travel to?

C. evolution A. Australia

D. mutation B. Barbados
C. Galapagos
84. A bird that can easily out compete other
birds for food and that can produce many D. Trinidad
eggs has a high
90. What are the evidences for Evolution?
A. Fitness
A. Fossil Records
B. Adaptation
B. Embryology
C. Variation
C. Similar body structure
D. Evolution
D. All the above
85. Who created the theory of evolution?
91. When individuals with an average form of
A. Charles Darwin a trait have the highest fitness, the result
B. Charles Derwin is
C. Charlie Darwin A. not predictable
D. Chris Darwin B. disruptive selection

C. directional selection
86. Darwin called the ability of an organism to
survive D. stabilizing selection
A. variation. 92. What animals did Charles Darwin study

when at the Galapagos Islands?
B. fitness.
A. Giraffes
C. overproduction.
B. Seagulls
D. adaptation.
C. Seals
87. Natural selection is when decides who
D. Finches
survives and who doesn’t
A. nature 93. Differences between individuals of the
same species
B. humans
A. overproduction
C. animals
B. competition
D. years
C. variations
88. The more genetic variation a population D. none of the above
has, the more likely it is for some individ-
uals to 94. Species changing over time is
A. evolve A. Fitness
B. migrate B. Evolution
C. survive C. Artificial Selection
D. mutate D. Struggle for existence

95. Comparing one rock to another rock to de- 101. Comparing two individuals of a species,
termine the age is considered to be called evolutionary “fitness” would be best mea-
A. Absolute age sured by which of the following?
B. Relative age A. the length and width of the individuals
C. Actual age
B. the number of offspring
D. Predicted age
C. the mass of the food eaten in its life
NARAYAN CHANGDER
96. A factor that is necessary for the forma-
D. the mass of the individuals
tion of a new species is?
A. Species isolation 102. During the industrial revolution, there
are a bunch of pollutants in the city.
B. Selective breeding
Darker moths were able to reproduce
C. Natural selection more since they were able to blend with
D. Different mating behaviors their surroundings. Which word describes
this?
97. For the most part, evolution is:
A. Variation
A. a very rapid process
B. Heritability
B. a fast process
C. Overproduction
C. a moderately slow process
D. a slow process
103. Which of the following is true of varia-
98. Similar features that evolve through con- tion?
vergent evolution are called
A. It is necessary for natural selection.
A. analogous structures
B. It exists in almost all populations.
C. It is caused by mutations and sexual
C. environmental characters reproduction.
D. genetic characters D. All of the choices are correct.
99. What species did Charles Darwin observe
104. Some people are taller than others.
on the Galapagos Island?
Which word describes this?
A. monkeys
A. Variation
B. zebras
B. Heritability
C. penguins
C. Overproduction
D. tortoises
100. What do scientist consider when they per-
form cladistic analysis? 105. The knowledge of the species name of an
organism most importantly indicates for
A. only the DNA of organisms scientists-
B. all traits of organisms A. precisely where the organism lives in
C. derived characteristics the world
D. only physical similarities B. the life span of the organism

C. which organisms have reproductive 111. According to superposition, the fossils

potential with one another found in the lower layer of rocks are
than those found at higher layer

D. the color of external features
A. older
106. What word describes a trait that helps
an organism survive in its environment? B. same age
A. natural selection C. younger
B. mutation D. tougher
C. camouflage 112. The beaks of finches found on various

D. adaptation Galapagos Islands differed based on
A. the size of their island
107. action done on purpose to help with
B. the length of their wings
survival-by choice
C. the available food supply
A. structural adaptation
D. the predators that hunted them
B. behavioral
C. physiological 113. Enviromentals changes leads to
D. none of above A. variations
B. pollution
108. Who is Charles Darwin?
C. predation
A. Ms. Fairbanks’ distant cousin
B. Mr. Sayles’ long lost brother
C. The man who invented Pop-Tarts 114. Anatomically similar structures inherited
from a common ancestor are called what?
D. The man who discovered the Theory of
Evolution A. Similar features
B. A coincidence
109. Structures that have the same function
but are composed of very different materi- C. Homologous structures
als and suggest that there is not a common D. Vestigial structures
ancestor are called
115. An inherited trait that allows an organ-
ism to better survive in its environment.
B. analogous structures
A. variation
C. vestigial structures B. adaptation
D. embryology C. population
110. In the candy corn lab, which of the vari- D. mutation
ations helped the organisms survive the
most? 116. The same kinds of cells that grow in simi-
lar patterns in different but related organ-
A. blue isms produce
B. green A. homologous structures such as wings
C. orange and arms
D. brown B. the same kind of embryos

C. natural variations in a population C. Large Size

D. descent with modification D. Heightened Senses
117. If flowers with longer roots are able to 122. Any variation that can help an organism
get more water from the ground which of survive in its environment is called a(n):
the following would you expect to become
A. Adaptation
more common after a period of drought?
B. Characteristic
A. Flowers with short root systems
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Flowers with average root systems C. Competition
C. Flowers with the longest root systems D. Vestigial structure
123. Organisms that are the same species liv-

D. none of above ing in the same area
118. Unfortunately, most teenagers are A. friends
and give in to peer pressure rather easily. B. group
A. Habitat C. population
B. Substituted D. variation
C. malleable
124. What is a similar word for “evolution”?
D. Erosion
A. Short
119. Children will sometimes their upper
B. Strong
eyelids as a gross joke which will expose
the inside of their eyelids to others. C. Die
A. Invert D. Change
B. Contradict 125. What does being in Hardy-Weinberg equi-
C. robust librium mean for a population?
D. assumption A. The population is evolving
120. According to the Theory of Natural Selec- B. The population is not evolving
tion, what selects or determines traits are C. Equilibrium would gradually end
“better” than others?
D. Gene flow would occur but slowly
A. Environmental factors
126. What evidence of natural selection is
B. seasons
available today that was not available to
C. time Darwin?
D. the population of a species A. Organisms inherit traits
121. Which trait could be passed from parent B. Differences in genes create variation
to child that may not necessarily be bene- C. Humans can breed organisms for spe-
ficial for their survival. cific traits
A. Eye Color D. There is great variation among organ-
B. Long Legs isms

127. These cause variations. D. All of the above

A. mutations
133. A characteristic that makes an organism

B. adaptations well suited to its environment is called
C. overproduction a(n)?
D. descent with modification A. natural selection
128. What is the main idea of evolution? B. trait
A. The weaker survive and reproduce. C. adaptation
B. Everyone will survive and reproduce. D. variation
C. The strong survive and reproduce.
134. For natural selection to impact evolution,
D. None of these. which condition is not required?
129. What islands did Darwin do most of his A. selection pressures
research on?
B. inheritance of traits
A. Hawaiian Islands
C. genetic variation within a population
B. Malta Islands
C. Galapagos Islands D. each population occupies its own niche
D. Indonesia Archipelagos 135. geographical isolation can cause

130. Which best describes the purpose of mix- A. increased mating
ing gene pools?
B. extinction
A. increases the number of organisms
C. speciation
B. promotes genetic variation
D. decreased competition
C. reduces genetic variation
D. none of above 136. Evolutionary theory predicts that fea-
tures of ancestors that no longer have a
131. An inherit characteristic that increases function for that species will over time
and organism’s ability to survive and re- until they are lost.
produce is a (n)
A. become smaller
A. vestigial structure
B. speciation B. become larger
C. analogous structure C. remain unchanged

D. adaptation D. none of above
132. According to Darwin’s theory of natural 137. Which of the following is evidence of evo-
selection: lution?
A. Populations tend to overproduce A. fossils
B. Some individuals are better adapted to B. the biology book
competition
C. spiders are poisonous
C. Limited resources put limits on popula-
tion growth D. people have hair

138. A structure that seems to serve no pur- 144. According to Darwin, in species could
pose in an organism is called: result from many over long periods of
A. Homologous time.
B. Vestigial A. population growth; births
C. Dichotomous B. mating; interactions
D. Fossilized C. big changes; small changes
139. What are the most studied animals in the D. extinction; deaths
NARAYAN CHANGDER
galapagos?
145. Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record
A. Finches
as
B. Tortoises
A. evidence that Earth was thousands of
C. Turtles years old
D. Lizards
B. a detailed record of evolution
140. Who wrote a book about human overpop- C. interesting but unrelated to the evolu-
ulation that influenced Darwin’s thinking. tion of modern species
A. Gregor Mendel
D. evidence that traits are acquired
B. Jean Baptise Lamarck through use or disuse
C. Thomas Malthus
146. Evolution is a change in the frequency of
D. Alfred Russell Wallace from one generation to the next.
141. Charles Darwin’s Theory of Evolution A. dominant physical traits
helped to explain
B. a specific allele
A. how our solar system has changed
over time C. habitat
B. the age of the earth D. offspring
C. how fossils are formed
147. What is the gradual change in species
D. how living things change over time over time?
142. Dog breeding is an example of this. A. Evolution
A. Natural Selection B. Adaptation
B. Fossils C. Natural Selection
C. Artificial Selection
D. none of above
D. Fitness
148. How old do Paleontologists believe the
143. Charles Darwin
Earth is?
A. developed the theory of extinction
A. 2015 years old
B. developed the theory of natural selec-
tion B. 3.6 billion years old
C. Both answer options are correct. C. 4.6 billion years old
D. None of these answers is correct. D. 4.6 million years old

149. Where did he go to school (as a kid)? C. a change in the population size of a
A. Shrewsbury species

D. a change in the climate of a region
B. New Haven
C. VVHS 155. Darwin believed that it was not easy to
survive in nature. There was always a risk
D. New World Charter School
of running out of food, water, space or get-
150. When did Darwin die? ting eaten by a predator. What are these
dangers called?
A. 1982
A. variations
B. 1828
B. natural selections
C. 1928
C. environmental pressures
D. 1882
D. species
151. A group of individuals of the same species
156. Which of the following is NOT a cause of
that live and reproduce in the same place
Evolution
is called
A. Overproduction
A. a community.
B. Variations among organisms
B. a species.
C. Competition
C. a population.
D. Selective Breeding
D. a civilization.
157. The formation of new species is called
152. The introduction of what gas allowed for
A. extinction
more complex life to exist on Earth?
B. embryology
A. oxygen
C. speciation
B. carbon dioxide
D. microevolution
C. sulfur oxides
158. Natural selection is a process by which
D. water vapor
organisms that are better adapted to their
153. Individuals in a population that have a environment tend to
variation which gives them an advantage A. increase in size
in their environment are more likely to
B. migrate
A. survive and reproduce. C. evolve new traits
B. die and not reproduce. D. survive
C. move to a different environment.
159. Behavioral changes of individuals of a
D. change their characteristics to fit the species that allow for better survival. (Ac-
environment. quired traits)
154. What is evolution? A. Variation
A. a way of measuring time B. Adaptation
B. a change in the traits of a species over C. Behavior
time D. Environment

160. Adaptation is C. Creation of life from nonliving materi-

A. the process that makes an organism als
look better D. Evolution through natural selection
B. the process in which weak organisms
165. Characteristics that allow a population to
are killed off
become better suited to its environment
C. the process in which an organism be-
comes better adapted to its environment A. accommodations
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. adaptations
D. the process in which oxygen is trans- C. variations
formed into glucose
D. selections
161. The trace remains of an organism that
lived long ago are called and are most 166. If it suddenly became colder what varia-
commonly preserved in tions would be beneficial
A. minerals, all kinds of rock A. Thick Fur & Short Necks
B. layers, granite B. Long Necks
C. fossils, sedimentary rock C. Thick fur & Longs Necks
D. natural selection D. Short Necks & Stripes
162. Method by which a geologist can calcu- 167. To ensure the survival of a species, organ-
late not only the order of all organisms in isms must be able to
many layers, but also the absolute age of
the rock by knowing the half-life of an iso- A. kill competitors
tope B. reproduce successfully
A. radiometric dating C. obtain enough food
B. relative dating D. maintain homeostasis
C. absolute dating
168. One of the major elements of natural se-
D. none of above lection is that all species have
163. Genetic Drift is more likely to happen in A. choices
B. similarities
A. aquatic populations
C. stability
B. small populations
D. variation
C. terrestrial populations
D. older populations 169. Effect caused by limited food and other
resources
164. Which describes spontaneous genera-
A. overproduction
tion?
B. competition
A. All cells come from other cells
C. variations
B. Prokaryotes endocytosed other
prokaryotes to form eukaryotes D. none of the above

170. A is the collection of fossils and the 175. What does kinetics mean?
order in which they appear in layers of sed- A. Frequency of 1000 cycles/second
imentary rock

B. Relating the the movement of bodies
A. Fossil Record
C. Not moving
B. Homologous Structures
D. Removing of bone
176. Where did Darwin record his findings
D. Sedimentary Rock
from his travels?
171. Darwin called the ability of an organism A. In the book the Voyage of the Beagle
to survive and reproduce B. In the book Looking to South America
A. Variation C. In the book Travels on a Sea Fairing
B. Fitness Vessel
C. Overproduction D. In the book South American Mapped
D. Adaptation 177. Natural selection and evolution work on

what level of life organization?
172. A trait that helps an organism survive
A. individuals
and reproduce is a(n)
B. biomes
C. populations
B. Genotype
D. ecosystems
C. Phenotype
178. The remains of an individual that existed
D. Adaptation
in the past.
173. Eventually, Darwin realized that all liv- A. Natural Selection
ing things were engaged in a because B. Fitness
there were not enough resources for all of
them. C. Evolution
A. genetic ritual D. Fossil
B. fight to the death 179. who was Charles Darwin

C. temporary competition A. starbucks owner
D. struggle for existence B. a bird
C. a christian
174. Natural selection is only one process in
D. a naturalist
evolution. What is one other process that
can cause a change in a species over time. 180. How do adaptations help animals?
A. Reproduction A. To hide from predators
B. Disease B. to hunt for food
C. Mutation C. to survive in their habitats
D. All of these D. All of these are correct

181. What was Darwin’s designated role on 186. In science, theories are:
the Beagle? A. an educated guess
A. documenting the journey as the ship’s B. a known fact
journalist
C. absolute and unchangeable
B. studying animals and plants as the D. the best explanation for a set of data
ship’s naturalist or observations
C. providing food for the crew as the
187. All mutations and adaptations usually
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ship’s cook
lead to what process?
D. taking care of the passengers as the
ship’s surgeon
B. behavioral
182. Over time all animals (and plants) de- C. natural selection
velop adaptations that help them
D. genetic engineering
A. develop new adaptations
188. Individuals in a population are not all
B. thrive and survive
A. compatible.
C. change the way they interact with their
B. identical.
environment
C. the same species.
D. change their behaviors
D. living in one ecosystem.
183. Adaptation that involves color, shape, or
189. What are the most studied animals in the
other physical characteristics
Galapagos Islands?
A. structural adaptation
A. Finches
B. behavioral adaptation B. Tortoises
C. physiological adaptation C. Turtles
D. none of above D. Lizards
184. What idea made Charles Darwin fa- 190. What was the name of the scientist who
mous? wrote a book called On the Origin of
Species by Means of Natural Selection?
A. Evolution
A. Lamarck
B. Animals
B. Einstein
C. Natural Selection
C. Washington
D. Medicine
D. Darwin
185. With only a small fraction can survive 191. What is the term for a feature that al-
with limited resources long enough to re- lows an organism to survive better in its
produce. environemtn?
A. competition A. variation
B. variation B. adaptation
C. selection C. homologous structure
D. speciation D. vestigial structure

192. Inherited trait that helps an organism sur- C. learned traits

vive is a(n)
D. none of above

A. Fossil
B. Adaptation 198. What does pneumothorax mean?
C. Ancestor A. Water in tonsils

D. Natural selection B. Air in the lungs
193. When certain genes make organisms C. Sand in eyes

more likely to survive and reproduce, D. Food in chest
which process can occur?
A. adaptation 199. Each fish gives birth to hundreds of fish,
most of which will not survive. Which
B. selection word describes this?
C. selected breeding A. Variation
D. isolation
B. Heritability
194. If you water your garden during the C. Overproduction
hottest hours of the day, will reduce
the amount of liquid the plants receive. D. Reproductive Advantage
A. Dominant 200. What does ostectomy mean?
B. Accurate A. Addition of all or part of heart
C. evaporation
B. Creation of all or part of lungs
D. Invert
C. Removal of all or part of a bone.
195. An animal that has thick fur, webbed flip- D. Making of all or part of ear
pers, and blubber would probably live in
A. the Artic Ocean 201. Behavioral changes of individuals of a
B. the Amazon Rain Forest species that allow for better survival. This
is an example of
C. a large freshwater lake
A. Variation
D. the Mohave Desert
B. Adaptation
196. A change in characteristics of a popula-
C. Behavior
tion over several generations.
A. evolution D. Environment
B. transition 202. The finches of the Galapagos islands dif-
C. variation ferent in what way and for what reason?
D. adaptation A. size of body, size of trees
197. Adaptations that can be passed to an or- B. location on specific islands, amount of
ganism’s offspring are called water
A. inherited traits C. coloration. types of predators
B. acquired traits D. beak shape, type of food available

203. When a farmer selects and breeds his or C. instrument to inspect kidneys
her best livestock, the process invovled
D. Instrument to inspect joints
is?
A. Natural selection 209. Brown mice survive and reproduce in
B. Artifical selection their desert environment better than
white mice because owls can see and eat
C. Selective breeding
the white mice more easily. In this situa-
D. Nature’s callin tion, what is doing the selecting?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
204. Genetic drift is a process that causes A. Owl
A. The genetic makeup of an entire popu- B. Desert Background
lation to disappear
C. Brown Mice
B. The genetic makeup of an entire popu-
lation to be altered D. White Mice
C. Organisms to better adapt to their en-
vironment
an environmental pressure?
D. Organisms to have the same DNA as
their parents A. the air pressure in the atmosphere
B. breeding between two members of the
205. Ability to survive and reproduce is known
same species
as
A. Fitness C. a lake that is gradually running out of
water
B. Evolution
C. Adaptation D. a fight between two members of the
same species
D. Common Descent
206. Combined alleles of all individuals in a 211. The white feathers of a snowy owl allow
population is called it to blend in better then those that have
brown feathers improving their reproduc-
A. phenothype tive rate. This is an example of
B. gene pool
A. Overproduction
C. mutation rate
B. Variation among organisms
D. allele frequency
C. Struggle for Existence
207. Another term for Natural Selection is:
D. Survival of the Fittest
A. Breeding
B. Commensulism 212. Differences among individual members of
C. Communism the same species are referred to as
D. Survival of the fittest A. variation
208. What does arthroscope mean? B. fitness
A. Instrument to inspect heart C. natural selection

B. Instrument to inspect stomach D. adaptation

213. Although he was initially sent to medical 218. Darwin believed that not all organisms in
school, what was Charles Darwin’s true a species would be able to survive and re-
passion? produce because

A. art A. random occurrence of death
B. mathematics B. limited resources
C. nature C. death from disease
D. writing D. extinction due to climate change
214. In his book The Origin of Species, Darwin 219. The differences among a species, like dif-
explained that evolution occurs by means ferent bird beaks, are called
of
A. genes.
B. variations.
B. happenstance
C. traits.
C. the Big Bang
D. theories.
220. If and then statements are usually the
215. what gave Charles Darwin the idea of structure of a
evolution?
A. hypothesis
A. google
B. conclusion
B. wikipedia
C. Theory
C. mans attempt to destroy mankind
D. law
D. finches in the Galapagos island
221. What is another name for natural selec-
216. After discussing the dress code, the tion?
teacher’s opinion of wanting longer skirt
A. survival of the smartest
requirements would from the students
wanting to wear shorter skirts. B. survival of the fastest
A. differ C. survival of the biggest
B. invert D. survival of the fittest
C. malleable 222. What happens to the frequency of favor-
D. benign able traits in a species over time?
A. Favorable traits become more com-
217. When every organism of a species has
mon
died.
B. Favorable traits become less common
A. Evolution
C. The frequency of favorable traits does
C. Extinction not change
D. Artificial Selection D. none of above

223. Identify way(s) that organisms can be 228. All rabbits living in a particular area
compared to provide evidence of evolution would be an example of a(n)
from a common ancestor. A. population
A. DNA B. species
B. physical traits C. fossil
C. fossil D. individual organism
D. all of the above
229. Darwin believed that all species had a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
224. Darwin gathered a large number of ob- common
servations and facts on which he based his A. ancestor
theories. Which of the following types of
B. environment
evidence was NOT available in Darwin’s
lifetime? C. ecosystem
A. fossil evidence D. grandmother
B. anatomical evidence 230. An example of stuctural/physical adapta-
C. genetic evidence tion is
D. geographical distribution A. blood type

B. bioluminescence
225. Which of the following events do biolo-
C. camouflage
gist consider a random change?
D. migration
B. speciation 231. Behavioral changes of individuals of a
species that allow for better survival.
A. Variation
D. genetic drift
B. Adaptation
226. For Darwin, how have animals and plants C. Behavior
survived?
D. Environment
A. Through luck
B. Through natural selection 232. The term microevolution refers to
C. Through careful management A. speciation

B. macroevolution
D. Through choice
C. small-scale changes in a population
227. Organisms with traits that are favorable
D. large-scale changed in a population
to their survival and reproduction are
likely to pass on their genes to the next 233. What is Charles Darwin known for?
generation, and thus common in the
A. He discovered a common ancestor for
population
all living organisms on Earth
A. more, less B. He developed the idea of evolution
B. more, more C. He developed the theory of natural se-
C. less, less lection
D. less, more D. he discovered a new species

234. “Survival of the Fittest” describes which A. The same traits

theory B. Variations

A. natural selection C. Colors
B. gravity D. Different shapes
C. heredity 240. Which statement is true about evolu-
D. string theory tion?
235. When a farmer breeds only specific live- A. Individual organisms can evolve dur-
stock to make the best produce, it is called ing a single lifespan.
B. Darwin and Wallace both came up with
the idea that species can transform into
different species over time
B. selective breeding/artificial selection
C. Humans evolved from chimpanzees
C. heritable variation
D. Only the strongest survive
D. survival of the fittest
241. Another term for natural selection is
236. An animal’s color or pattern that helps it A. survival of the fattest
blend into its surroundings
B. survival at all costs
A. Environment
C. survival of the slowest
B. Mimicry
D. survival of the fittest
C. Camouflage
242. According to Darwin’s theory on natural
D. none of above selection, the traits that survive and con-
tinue in future generations are-
237. Charles Darwin called the ability of an or-
ganism to survive and reproduce in its spe- A. caused by response to stress
cific environment B. made by environmental change
A. diversity. C. already present in the population
B. evolution. D. introduced by immigrating species
C. adaptation. 243. What country was Darwin born in?
D. fitness. A. Europe
238. There is a competition for limited re- B. England
sources within and between resources. C. Scotland
This is known as a(n) D. Ireland
A. struggle for existence
244. Populations of species which do not
B. evolution adapt to their environment can eventually
C. adaptation become
D. fitness A. Humans
B. Extinct
239. In the first part of Darwin’s theory of
Natural Selection, every species exhibits C. Stronger
what? D. Angry

9.4 Types of Selection 1368
245. What was the primary goal of the Bea- 248. Which statement about adaptations is
gle’s voyage? true?
A. to transport passengers to North A. They are inherited.
America
B. They are developed quickly.
B. to search for new forms of medicine
C. They cannot change over time.
C. to map the coast of South America
D. They are the same in every species.
D. to explore the Southern hemisphere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
246. What does evolution mean? 249. A characteristic that is passed from par-
ents to offspring is
A. To change something
A. variation
B. To change and adapt over time
C. To lose some original features B. heritable
D. To improve ssomething over time C. natural selection
247. Different species, such as chimpanzees D. population

and humans, are very similar to each other,
250. Any variation that can help a species sur-
suggesting they came from the same an-
vive in a given environment is called
cestor.
A. Fitness A. an adapatation
B. Natural Selection B. a characteristic

C. Common Descent C. a homologous structure
D. Artificial Selection D. a vestigial structure
9.4 Types of Selection

1. When has speciation occurred? D. Divergent speciation
A. When populations no longer look the 3. The emergence of new rivers or streams is
same a type of isolation.
B. When populations no longer have the
A. Temporal
same frequency of alleles
B. Mechanical
C. When populations are living in differ-
ent environments C. Behavioral
D. When populations can no longer inter- D. Geographic
breed
4. What do you think is an adaptation?
2. A speciation in which new species evolve A. A trait that helps an organism adapt to
from a single ancestral species while inhab- its environment
iting the SAME geographic region.
B. An organism that survives best in an
A. Sympatric speciation environment
B. Allopatric speciation C. A person who studies adapting ani-
C. Complex speciation mals

D. a random chance event that shapes B. a longer period of time than natural se-
the population lection

C. the same amount of time as natural se-
5. When a population grows past the ecosys-
lection
tem’s carrying capacity, what happens to
the population? D. none of above
A. It continues to grow higher and higher. 10. Organisms with good traits survive and
pass on those traits. Those with bad traits
B. The population starts to die off and re- do not.
turns to the carrying capacity. A. Natural selection
C. The population will go extinct due to B. Isolation
lack of resources.
C. Evolution
D. none of above
D. Mutation
6. An extreme phenotype is favored causing
11. The females of two species of fruit fly,
the alleles to shift toward that phenotype
Drosophila melanogaster and Drosophila
A. Disruptive Selection simulans release slightly different mating
B. Directional Selection hormones called pheromones, which are
used to attract male mates.
C. Stabilizing Selection
A. Geographic isolation
B. Behavioral isolation
7. The eye structures of cephalopods, such C. Temporal isolation
as the blue ringed octopus, and mammals
evolved independently to perform very D. none of above
similar functions. This type of evolution
12. Organisms with the most beneficial traits
is called
will survive and reproduce. This is com-
A. Allotopic separation monly known as
B. Convergent evolution A. DNA
C. Divergent evolution B. variations.
D. Sympatic association C. fittness.
D. ecosystems.
8. In convergent evolution, organisms share
physical similarities because they 13. Orcas occur in the same habitat but some
A. have a common ancestor are avoiding each other and do not inter-
breed. They have different diets, vocal be-
B. live in the same enviornment
havior, and social structures. What type
C. develop homologous structures of speciation is this?
D. are closely related A. Allopatric
9. Artificial selection takes B. Sympatric
A. a shorter period of time than natural C. Complex

selection D. Covergent

14. Robins typically lay fours eggs. If more 19. Where do adaptations come from?
then four eggs are produced then the baby A. The individual organism decides to
chicks are malnourished while smaller egg adapt
numbers result in no viable (able to live)
baby chicks. This is an example of B. Mutations that give an organism an ad-
vantage in its environment
A. stabalizing
C. Genetic recombination during meiosis
B. disruptive
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. direction D. Both mutations and genetic recombi-
D. none of the above nation are sources of adaptation
20. When the Grand Canyon in Arizona

15. In a forest ecosystem, which of the follow-
formed, two populations of one squir-
ing is NOT an example of a limiting factor
rel species were separated by the giant
that would greatly affect a rabbit popula-
canyon. This is an example of speci-
tion?
ation.
A. a rainy season
A. Allopatric
B. a disease that causes rabbits to die
B. Sympatric
C. grass available to eat C. Simple
D. the population of hawks that eat rab- D. Divergent
bits
21. Genetic diversity decreases and individu-
16. Artificial selection is also known as als at the center of the curve have higher
A. natural selection fitness.
B. selective hearing A. Disruptive Selection

B. Directional Selection
C. genetic manipulation
17. The ability of an organism to survive and
reproduce is known as 22. Occurs when stable environment favours
the intermediate phenotype
A. Adaptation
A. Directional selection
B. Trait
B. Disruptive selection
C. Fitness
C. Stabilizing selection
D. Variation
D. Inbeeding
18. A new river forms and splits two popula- 23. Ability of an organism to survive and re-
tions, causing speciation produce in its environment
A. Sympatric A. evolution
B. Allopatric B. adaptation
C. Extreme C. fitness
D. Convergent D. speciation

9.5 Sources of Variation in a Population 1371
24. On average, human newborns weigh 7.2 A. Geographical barrier separates popu-
pounds. Due to this increased frequency lations
of the average, it must be the most suc-

B. genetic variance rules
cessful weight.
C. different species live
D. species are in the same area
27. Occurs when changing environment favors
one extreme phenotype
D. artificial selection A. stabilizing selection
25. What type of natural selection is B. Directional selection
this:Small turtles are too weak to protect C. Disruptive selection
themselves from predators and large tur-
D. Outbreeding
tles are too slow to hide from predators.
Average-sized turtles have high fitness. 28. Occurs when environmental conditions
A. Disruptive Selection fluctuate between two opposite extreme
values.
B. Directional Selection
A. Artificial selection
B. Distruptive selection
D. none of above
C. Directional selection
26. In Sympatric speciation D. Stabilizing selection
9.5 Sources of Variation in a Population

1. The combined genetic information of all A. 46
the members of a particular population is B. 23
called a
C. millions
A. phenotype
D. parents to give chromosomes
B. single-gene trait
C. gene pool 4. Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural
selection was partly based on his ob-
D. heterozygous trait servation on finches in the Galapagos
Archipelago. These birds show
2. How an animal protects itself Adapta-
tion:Skunk and its spray A. hybridisation
A. Defense B. adaptive radiation
B. Hibernation C. convergent evolution
C. Locomotion D. progressive evolution
D. Migration 5. Function is
3. How many chromosomes come from each A. the way something looks
parent? B. how something sounds

C. what something does 11. All the populations in a specific area or re-
gion
D. the role of an organism
A. community
6. What shape graph do you see for many B. ecosystem
examples of continuous variation?
C. population
A. A straight line downwards
D. species
B. A straight line upwards
NARAYAN CHANGDER
12. A unit of genetic material that determines
C. A bell-shape
a trait
D. A flat line
A. Carrier
7. Which term refers to the process by which B. DNA
individuals that are better adapted to their C. chromosome
environment are more likely to survive
and reproduce? D. Gene
A. natural selection 13. What is the first cloned mammal?

B. overproduction A. goat
C. competition B. cat
D. variation C. sheep
D. cow
8. A gene pool typically contains two or more
14. Haploid numbers of chromosomes are usu-
ally found in the of an organism.
A. alleles
A. tissues
B. people
B. body cells
C. cells
C. sex cells
D. chromosomes
D. zygotes
9. An organism that survives longer is more
15. Chromosomes that look the same and have
likely to produce offspring
genes for the same traits, but not neces-
A. less sarily the same versions of the genes are
B. the same amount called
A. Homologous chromosomes
C. more
B. alleles
D. no
C. genes
10. What does it mean to survive? D. gametes
A. To stay alive
16. Which is a characteristic of heredity?
B. To grow
A. behaviors taught by parents to off-
C. To have energy spring
D. To be born B. behaviors learnt by observing others

C. passing of physical characteristics C. Cross breeding

from parents to offspring D. Don’t know? Choose me

D. none of above
22. natural selection is affected by or
17. This type of cell division results in cells traits that are different in members of the
that have 23 chromosomes. same species.
A. mitosis A. camouflage
B. Meiosis B. variations
C. gametes C. ancestor
D. sex cells D. evolution
18. a state of greatly reduced body activity 23. SCNT stands for . . .
that is used to conserve food stored in the
body A. Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer
A. ejection B. Somatic Cell Natural Transcription
B. hibernation C. Somatic Cell Nerve Transfer
C. conditioning D. Skin Cell Nuclear Translation
D. migration 24. Which of the following is a disadvantage
19. Down Syndrome is caused by nondisjunc- of asexual reproduction?
tion, when the chromosomes fail to sepa- A. The organisms are smaller
rate during Meiosis. This results in an ex-
B. Increase in physical variation
tra 21st chromosome. What causes this
disease? C. genetic similarity and less likely to sur-
vive environmental change
A. Genetics only
D. takes a relatively short amount of time
B. Environmental only
C. Both 25. A resting state through the winter. Adap-
D. Neither tation:Bear sleeping in a cave during the
winter months
20. Which one of this is FALSE about impor- A. Locomotion
tance of Variation
B. Hibernation
A. Act as source of evolution.
C. Migration
B. Can adapt to environment change.
D. Defense
C. Increase the ability of a species to sur-
vive in changing environment. 26. The place or environment where an organ-
D. Can make an organism live longer. ism naturally lives
A. function
21. What are on of these shows less variety
when it is breed? B. habitat
A. Out breeding C. community
B. In breeding D. ecosystem

27. What is another process that can occur dur- 32. A human sex cell e.g sperm or egg con-
ing meiosis and increases the number of tains
different genotypes that can appear in off- A. 46 chromosomes
spring?
B. 12 chromosomes
A. crossing over C. 23 chromosomes
B. mitosis D. none of above
C. asexual reproduction 33. Behavioral adaptations are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. relative frequency A. the things animals do to survive
B. the physical characteristics of an ani-
28. The two main sources of genetic variation
mal or plant
is and
C. only found in mammals
A. mutations and gene shuffling
D. only found in humans
B. mutations and people
34. Mating between closely related individu-
C. gene shuffling and chromosomes als among or
D. phenotypes and genotypes A. Out breeding
B. In breeding
29. What is needed for natural selection to
take place? C. Cross breeding
A. Adaptations and Variations only D. Non of above
B. Adaptations, Variations, Competition, 35. Continuous variation is usually influenced

and Selection by what?
C. Competition and Variations only A. the environment only

B. Inheritance only
D. Adaptations, Mutations, Species,
Biome C. Inheritance and the environment
30. Discontinuous variation is influenced by
which? 36. The raccoon has hands and feet. Why
would the raccoon need this adaptation?
A. The environment only
A. to fight
B. Inheritance only B. to help them find and pick up food
C. The environement and inheritance C. to hang from trees
D. none of the above D. to dig a tunnel
31. What is the example of Continuous Varia- 37. Fill in the blanks:The number of pro-
tion? duced for a given trait depends on how
many control the trait.
A. Height
A. phenotype and genes
B. Eye colour B. genotypes and genes
C. Hair C. phenotypes and polygenes
D. Blood group D. genotypes and alleles

38. The following information is about two in- 43. Natural selection causes
dividuals, X and Y.*Individual X:presence A. species to change over time
of a dimple*Individual Y:no dimpleWhich

of the following factors causes the differ- B. mutations to occur
ence in the trait between the two indi- C. extinction
viduls? D. species to become weaker over time
A. mutation
44. Organisms are more likely to survive and
B. genetics
reproduce if they are better adapted, this
C. hormone is known as?
D. environment A. variation
39. Certain cats have striped fur. Regardless B. selective breeding
of where they live or have their kittens, C. mutualism
their kittens also have striped fur.
A. Stripes are genetic
B. Stripes are environmental 45. Blending in with the environment is-
C. There is no way to know A. natural selection

D. none of above B. imitation
C. mimicry
40. What type of graph is usually used to rep-
resent discontinuous variation? D. camouflage
A. Bar chart 46. Selective breeding is where decides
B. Pie chart which traits should be passed on
C. venn diagram A. Nature
D. line graph B. A human
41. Organism which can successfully adapt C. Mr. Holt

with the environment changes, reproduce D. The illuminati
and continue its generation. The one which
does not adapt will extinct. These refer to 47. The theory of states that species
evolve slowly over a relatively slow
time.
A. migration
A. behavioral
B. speciation
B. evolution
C. adaptation
D. isolating mechanism
D. speciation
42. Differences between the features of differ-
ent individuals 48. Which is not a type of adaptation?
A. Natural Selection A. structural
B. Adaptation B. predatory
C. Phenotypic variation C. physiological
D. Environmental Changes D. behavioral

49. Why do animals use camouflage? 55. What word fits in the blank:Today, ,
A. To look pretty molecular biology and evolutionary theory
work together to explain how inheritable
B. To stay safe variation appears and how natural selec-
C. To play Hide and Go Seek tion operate on that variation.
D. To eat food A. genetics
50. Differences that exist naturally among B. chemistry
members of a population or species ?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. cells
A. mutation
D. phenotypes
B. adaptation
C. variations 56. Which of the variations is caused by ge-
netic factors only?
D. evolution
A. Intelligence
51. The space, conditions and all the living and
non-living things around an organism is its B. Language
C. Blood group
A. home
D. Skin colour
B. environment
C. neighborhood 57. A is a hollow area in sediment in the
shape of an organism or part of an organ-
D. ecosystem ism.
52. Sources of variations include and A. mold
?
B. cast
A. sexual reproduction, mutations
C. petrified fossil
B. asexual reproduction, mutations
C. biological evolution, genetics D. trace fossil
D. biological evolution, genetics 58. A mode of reproduction by which an organ-

53. Asexual reproduction produces offspring ism arises from a single organism and in-
with herit the identical genes of that parent
A. half of a single parent’s genes A. Asexual Reproduction

B. the same genes as the parent B. Sexual Reproduction
C. a mix of genes from two parents C. Genetic Variation
D. lots of genetic variation D. Alleles
54. As a species evolve, they develop and
59. Human DNA is packaged in the cell into
others
A. 6 pairs of chromosomes
A. old traits, save
B. new traits, save B. 18 pairs of chromosomes
C. old traits, lose C. 23 pairs of chromosomes
D. new traits, lose D. 12 pairs chromosomes

60. The term for the formation of new and dis- 65. Which of the following is an example of
tinct species over the course of evolution discontinuous variation?
is

A. Weight
A. speciation B. blood type
B. biological species concept C. height
C. reproductive barrier D. Hand span
66. Problems with selective breeding include
61. Which of the following cannot be inher- A. Better animals
ited? B. More Meat
A. Pneumonia C. Animals can have bad health problems
B. Sickle-Cell Anoemia
C. Down’s Syndrome D. More diversity
D. Colour Blindness 67. A giraffe has a long neck in order to better

reach leaves to eat. This is an example of
62. Which statement is correct about discontin-
uousvariation?
A. an adaptation
A. It is a quantitative variation B. environment
B. It is influenced by genetic and environ- C. response
mental factors
D. stimulus
C. An example is weight
68. MUTATIONS, Fertilization, Meiosis, Ran-
D. The characteristics in this variation fall
dom assortment, and Crossing over are all
into distinct categories
sources of in humans
63. Genetic information is stored in which part A. VARIATION
of the cell B. DNA
A. nucleus C. MUTATIONS
B. cytoplasm D. SIMILARITY
C. cell membrane
69. What are sources of genetic variation?
D. mitochondria
A. mutations
64. Variation in a trait may be due to the B. genetic recombination
change in a genetic material.What do you C. mutations and genetic recombination
call this type of change?
D. mutations and migrations
A. radiation
70. How was Dolly different from virtually all
B. mutation
other sheep on Earth?
C. inversion
A. She was grown in an incubator, not the
D. deletion womb of a ewe

B. She lived much longer than ordinary C. can migrate to an island from the main-
sheep land
C. She had no father D. all have exactly the same traits.
D. Her genetic code included pieces of 76. A trait that helps a living thing survive.
goat DNA
A. instinct
71. Which of the following is NOT an example B. mimicry
of environmental variation?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. camouflage
A. Hair colour
D. adaptation
B. Weight
C. Shoe size
single gene trait?
D. Blood type
A. widow’s peak
72. a molecule that is present in all living cell B. hair color
and contains the information that deter-
C. skin color
mines the traits that a living thing inherits
and needs to live D. height
A. DNA 78. An example of a physical adaptation is
B. nucleotide A. a turtle hiding inside its shell
C. RNA B. The spikes on a porcupine fish
D. mutation C. a rabbit burrowing underground
73. Does Artificial Selection involved human in- D. a viper biting when threatened
tervention? 79. The statement below are causes of envi-
A. Yes. ronmental variation except
B. No. A. Food supply.
C. I don’t know. B. Crossing over.
D. none of above C. Climate
D. none of above
74. An inherited trait that helps those organ-
isms that have it to survive 80. features that help identify something
A. niche A. appearance
B. structure B. characteristics
C. characteristic C. behaviors
D. adaptation D. structures
75. A species is a group of similar organisms 81. is the process by which parts of ho-
that mologous chromosomes are exchanged be-
A. Can mate with each other and produce tween on another.
fertile offspring A. Mutation
B. can live together on an island B. Reproduction

C. Meiosis 87. How many cells are produced by a repro-

D. Recombination ductive cell during meiosis?

A. 1
82. Which of the following best represents in-
B. 2
breeding?
C. 3
A. removing DNA from an organism
D. 4
B. changing traits based on environment
88. Most traits are controlled by
C. crossing 2 similar animals
A. one gene
D. crossing 2 different animals
B. two genes
83. What is a trait? C. two or more genes
A. plant D. none of above
B. an adaptation
89. What must members of the same popula-
C. a characteristic or feature tion be able to do?
D. none of above A. Reproduce with each other
B. Fight each other
84. DNA is located in the
C. They must look the same
A. brain
D. They must act the same
B. liver
C. molecule 90. modes of Speciation:i. sympatricii. al-
lopatriciii. natural selectioniv. genetic
D. cell nucleus variation
85. Why is genetic variation important? A. i, ii, and iii
A. It makes sure your offspring doesn’t B. i and iii

have any genetic disorders C. i and ii
B. It decreases the chance of mutations D. ii and iii
C. it increases the chance that your pop- 91. In the year 2000 there are 1000 rabbits
ulation will survive and in the year 2050 there are 2500 rab-
D. it makes sure division happens prop- bits. Has evolution occurred?
erly A. Yes
86. A involves a change in the genetic code B. No

of an organism. Because this change oc- C. There is not enough information to tell
curs in the genetic code, it is passed on to
future generations. D. none of above
A. Morphology
92. Student eye colour could be considered
B. Mutation what type of data
C. Gene Flow A. Discontinuous
D. Genetic Drift B. Independent

C. Continuous 98. Which adaptation would NOT help a hawk

D. Colours catch a mouse?
A. Hollow Bones
93. Which of these is an example of inherited
variation only? B. Good eye sight
A. Eye colour C. Talons
B. Height D. Camouflage
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Weight 99. Which one of the following shows discon-
D. Skin colour tinuous variation?
A. Eye colour
94. Made up of a nitrogen base, a sugar, and
a phosphate B. Height
A. nitrogen base C. Strength
B. double helix D. Weight
C. rungs of the ladder
100. Domestic animals have been breed for
D. nucleotide specific, favorable traits. When humans
control the breeding it is?
95. In sexual reproduction, the offspring re-
ceives percent of the genetic material A. sexual reproduction
of each parent. B. selective breeding
A. 25 C. manipulative reproduction
B. 50 D. sheltered breeding
C. 75
101. There are 100 rabbits and 50 of them are
D. 100 brown, what is the relative frequency of
brown?
96. Which one of the following is an environ-
mental variation? A. 25%
A. Attached ear lobes B. 50%
B. Eye colour C. 75%
C. Male or female D. 100%
D. Short hair
102. Which parts of an organism are more
97. Being able to move around to find re- likely to fossilize?
sources that animals need. Adaptation:A A. the soft parts-skin, muscle
bunny hopping around looking for food.
B. the hard parts-bones, shells, stems
A. HIbernation
C. all parts can become fossilized easily
B. Locomotion because the organism becomes buried by
C. Migration sediments
D. Food Obtainment D. none of above

103. Mutations are a source of 108. A is a solid copy of the shape of an

organism.
A. Variation

A. mold
B. Disease
B. cast
C. Polypeptide
C. petrified fossil
D. none of above
D. trace fossil
104. An identical twins have different trait in
109. What word describes the process of hav-
height. What is the cause of differences in
ing the advantageous traits that helps an
this trait?
organism survive and reproduce?
A. Environmental factor
B. Genetic factor B. adaptation
C. Abnormal mitosis C. mutation
D. Chromosome fail to separate D. genetic engineering
105. Color or pattern that helps an animal 110. Some animals move great distances as
blend in with its habitat Adaptation:polar the seasons change. What is this called?
bears in the Artic A. hibernation
A. Hibernation B. migration
B. Locomotion C. habitat
C. Camouflage D. coloration
D. Migration 111. How an animal gets food?
106. Which of these is an example of varia- A. Defense
tion? B. Camouflage
A. Identical twins having identical DNA. C. Food Obtainment
B. Two potato plants that are clones of D. Life Cycle
each other.
112. What are two main sources of Genetic
C. Two Guinea pigs having different Variation?i. Genetic Variationii. Chromo-
coloured fur. somal Mutationiii. Gene Mutationiv. Envi-
D. Two human beings having similar body ronmental Variation
parts. A. i and iii
107. What is speciation? B. i and ii

C. ii and iii
A. The change from one species into two
or more distinct species. D. ii and iv
B. The movement of a group of organisms 113. A trait that helps a living thing survive in
into a new area. its current environment
C. The ability to mate and reproduce. A. instinct
D. The death of an entire species. B. mimicry

C. camouflage 119. An animal that is hunted as food

D. adaptation A. prey
114. What is called, when all the of the species B. predator
has died?
C. decomposer
A. Evolution
B. Natural selection D. producer
C. Extinction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
120. What type of graph do we use for discon-
D. Artificials Selection tinuous variation?
115. State 2 type of isolation:i. Pre- A. A bell-shape
zygoteii. Founder effectiii. Post-zygoteiv.
Bottleneck-effect B. Bar chart
A. i and iv C. Line graph
B. i and iii
D. Scatter Graph
C. i, ii, iii and iv
D. non of above 121. Evolution is a change in over time.
116. Most adaptations that help an organism A. Populations
survive are passed on from parent to child
as traits? B. Individuals
A. adaptable C. Ecosystems
B. physical D. none of above
C. more
D. inherited 122. Which of the following statements is true
about the variation?
117. Out breeding which is when the desired
traits has found in A. variation is caused by genes
A. One organism B. variation is caused by the environment
B. Two organism
C. Related organism C. variation can caused by both genes
D. none of above and the environment
118. Which of the following sources can cause D. none of theabove

genetic variation in sexual reproduction?I
Random fertilisation II Cell mutationIII 123. A natural process in which new organ-
Crossing over during prophase IIIV Inde- isms are created and the species continues
pendence assortment during metaphase I
A. population
A. I AND II
B. niche
B. I AND IV
C. II AND IV C. reproduction
D. III AND IV D. behavior

124. Which of the following are genetically in- 129. What is one advantage of variation
herited human characteristics that are not among species?
affected by any changes in the environ-

A. Everybody is unique and can feel indi-
mental conditions?I Skin colour II Blood vidual.
groupIII Presence of a dimpleIV Height
B. Stronger genes are inherited which re-
A. I and II duces the risk of diseases wiping out a
B. I and III certain species.
C. II and III C. It creates a sense of different cultures
across the world.
D. III and IV
D. none of the choices
125. Factors that cause speciation:i. isola-
tionii. genetic driftiii. hydridizationiv. 130. Which of the following does not cause
adaptive radiation variation?
A. i and iii A. Crossing over

B. Random fertilisation
B. i, ii, iii and iv
C. Separation of sister chromatids
C. iv and ii
D. Independent assortment of chromo-
D. ii, iii and iv somes
126. Which of the following cause chromoso- 131. What is Variation?
mal abnormalities?I DeletionII InversionIII
SubstitutionIV Insertion A. Difference between organisms caused
by genetics.
A. I AND II
B. Difference between organisms caused
B. I AND III by the environment.
C. II AND IV C. Difference between organisms caused
D. III AND IV either by genetics or the environment.
D. Difference between organisms caused
127. What factors affect natural selection? by radiation
A. Overproduction, competition, and ge-
132. When an organism completely dies out, it
netic variation
is called
B. competition
A. Adaption
C. overproduction and genetic variation B. Extinction
D. genetic variation and niche C. Fossilization
128. What is the number of chromosomes in D. Mutation
an individual with Turner’s Syndrome?
133. Two group of organism are categorized
A. 45 as a different species if the organism
B. 46 A. can freely interbreed
C. 47 B. have intermediate form
D. 48 C. produce fertile offspring

D. undergo complete reproductive isola- 139. a slight change in a rabbit’s ability to hear
tion (cannot interbreed) its predators better and help it survive is
A. an adaptation.
Inherited variation? B. a vestigial structure
C. an acquired trait
A. Eye colour
D. an isolation
B. Blood type
140. Process by which organism that are best
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Skin colour
suited to a parricular environment survive
D. All of the above and reproduce
135. Traveling done by an animal to find food A. variations.

and water. Adaption:birds flying south for B. mutation.
the winter C. natural selection.
A. Camouflage D. erosion
B. Migration 141. A group of organisms which are similar
C. Hibernation to each other and can combine to have off-
spring
D. Locomotion
A. species
136. If there is a shift in the environment, or- B. characteristic
ganisms will respond by or they will C. club
become extinct.
D. organisms
A. migrating
142. Species with variation are likely
B. adapting to survive.
C. dying A. more, less
D. starving B. less, less
C. less, more
137. How do you know if evolution has oc-
cured? D. more, more
A. The population increases 143. What does it mean to reproduce?
B. The relative frequencies change A. to eat things
C. The population decreases B. to make things pretty
C. to produce energy
D. The animals die
D. to produce new living things
138. A giraffe has a long neck. Why would the
144. Differences between members of the
giraffe need this adaptation?
same species are called
A. to keep warm
A. predators
B. to reach food high above the ground B. traits
C. to have room to eat more C. selections
D. to catch birds D. variations

145. Anything that helps an animal survive in C. migration.

its environment.
D. variation.

A. counter-shading
B. mimicry 151. The passing of physical characteristics
from parent to offspring is called
C. adaptation
A. recessive
D. camouflage
B. dominant
146. A general name for a sex cell (egg or
sperm) is a: C. heredity
A. zygote D. brown eyes

B. gene 152. During the winter months when re-
C. offspring sources such as food and water may be
D. gamete scarce, some animals
A. go into estivation
147. Which is an example of a trait that is
an adaptation for cold climate but not for B. ignore their circadian rhythms
warm climate? C. go into hybernation
A. thick fur and fat D. use warning colorations
B. long claws
C. camoflauge 153. Genetic drift, or changes in allelic fre-
quency due to chance factors, occurs in pop-
D. poisonous chemicals ulations that are very
148. Organisms belonging to the same A. mobile
can usually mate and produce fertile off-
B. isolated
spring.
A. physical C. small in number
B. homologous structures D. closely adapted to local environments

C. species 154. An organism that hunts and feeds on an-
D. ancestor other organism is a
149. Plants with spines and waxy leaves are A. prey

well suited for life in which environment? B. producer
A. Desert C. predator
B. Temperate forest D. decomposer
C. Grassland
155. Hybrid vigour also called as
D. Tropical Rainfroest
A. Heterozygous individuals
150. The gradual change in a species over time
is called B. Intermediate variants
A. mutation. C. Heterosis
B. evolution. D. Non of above

156. Heavy metals lead, mercury can interfere 161. Traits that help an organism survive are
with the process in which DNA is copied, called
if this process goes wrong, the daughter A. evolution
cells will get faulty DNA when the cell di-
vides. Chemicals which can cause muta- B. natural selection
tions are called C. adaptations
A. mutations D. habitats
B. mutagens 162. The success of an organism in surviving
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. meiosis and reproducing is a measure of its
A. fitness
D. genetic mutations
B. adaptioan
157. What do you call PERCENTAGES of alle- C. speciation
les?
D. gene pool
A. Relative Frequency
163. What is the importance of variation to a
B. Allele Frequency
species?
C. Population Frequency A. Reduces survival
D. evolution B. Decreases the diversity
158. A group of organisms of the same species C. Increases the risk of extinction
A. ecosystem D. Increases the ability to adapt to envi-

ronmental changes
B. community
164. The study of heredity is called
C. population
A. genetics
D. group
B. heterozygous
159. Which type of data would student height C. purebred
be categorized as? D. genotypes
A. Categorical
165. What is the scientific term for an animal
B. Continuous that is eaten by another animal?
C. Discontinuous A. predator
D. Normal B. dinner
C. prey
160. Which of the following would increase
the number of different alleles in a popula- D. stupid
tion? 166. A Porcupine has sharp quills. Why would
A. crossing over a porcupine need this adaptation?
B. gene mutation A. to protect itself
C. random fusion of gametes B. to keep warm
D. independent assortment of chromo- C. to kill its prey
somes D. to cover its skin

9.6 Evolution of a Population 1387
9.6 Evolution of a Population

1. What are the two main sources of genetic What is the frequency of homozygous dom-
variation in living things? inant individuals? Give your answer as a
A. Equilibrium and Relative Frequency decimal to the nearest hundredth.
B. Mutations and Gene Shuffling A. .40
C. Single-gene and Polygenic traits B. .36
D. Asexual Reproduction and Gene Pools C. .16

D. .60
2. What type of speciation involves isolation
due to behavior such as sexual selection or 7. Any change in the allelic frequencies in a
habitat differentiation? population that is due to chance is called
A. Allopatric A. genetic drift
B. Sympatric B. founder effect
C. Both C. Hardy-Weinberg
D. none of above D. natural selection
3. A is any change in a sequence of DNA 8. Genetic variation can arise from a random
change in the DNA of a gene. The change
A. mistake
is called a(n)
B. mutation
A. mutation
C. mishap
B. gene flow
D. manipulation
C. gene pool
4. Gene shuffling includes independent as- D. allele
sortment as well as
9. What factor describes when populations
A. Mutations
increase because animals are moving into
B. Mitosis a population?
C. Asexual Reproduction A. Emigration
D. Crossing Over B. Limiting Factors
5. Two species that are closely related be- C. Immigration

come increasingly different through D. Exponential Growth
A. divergent evolution 10. Which combination of characteristics in a
B. disruptive selection population would provide the greatest po-
C. convergent isolation tential for evolutionary chage?
D. competitive relationships A. small populations, few mutations

B. small populations, many mutations
6. Within a population of 500 butterflies, the
color purple is dominant over the color C. large populations, few mutations
white. 200 of the butterflies are white. D. large populations, many mutations,

11. A mountain range prevents two types of A. Sexual Selection

goat from mating, causing the gene pool B. Natural Selection
to become less varied. This is this an ex-
ample of? C. Gene Flow
A. Behavioral Isolation D. Genetic Drift
B. Temporal Isolation 17. When a few individuals start a new colony,
C. Geographic Isolation it results in:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Gene Flow A. the founder effect
B. More variety in the NEW population
12. What is allele frequency?
C. Extinction due to the bottleneck effect
A. how many alleles make up an organ-
ism
D. Mutation due to disruptive selection
B. how often alleles show up in a popula-
tion 18. Over time, the movement of people on
C. which alleles make up an organism Earth has steadily increased. This has al-
tered the course of human evolution by in-
D. which alleles show up in a population
creasing
13. , not individual organisms, can evolve A. nonrandom mating
over time.
B. geographic isolation
A. Species
C. genetic drift
B. Populations
D. gene flow
C. Communites
19. All of these are pre-zygotic barriers EX-
D. Ecosystems
CEPT
14. What are the two main sources of genetic A. Behavioural
variation?
B. Temporal
A. extinction and mutations
C. Mechanical
B. extinction and recombination
D. Hybrid Sterility
C. reproduction and recombination
D. mutations and recombination 20. Directional selection will favor
A. extreme traits.
15. The creation of a new species
B. average traits.
A. isolation
C. one phenotype over another.
B. speciation
D. none of above
C. gene pool
D. diversity 21. TheFY3 gene plays a role in immune re-
sponsesin flies. In one population, there
16. Mechanism of evolution that occurs when are two alleles, and the frequency of
females decide to mate with organisms oneallele is 0.60. If the population is at
that have the best traits or the ability to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is the-
fight. frequency of heterozygotes?

A. 0.12 27. Pattern of natural selection that results in

B. 0.24 the extremes being suppressed and the in-
termediate being favored.

C. 0.36
D. 0.48
B. disruptive selection
22. What does natural selection act on?
C. stabilizing selection
A. Genotype
D. balancing selection
B. Alleles
C. Phenotype 28. What is convergent evolution?
D. DNA A. evolution toward similar traits in unre-
lated species
23. A single-gene trait is best described as
B. evolution toward different traits in
A. a trait controlled by two or more genes. closely related species
C. elimination of a species from Earth
B. a trait controlled by a single gene that
has two alleles. D. the rise of two or more species from
one existing species
C. a trait controlled by exactly 3 alleles.
D. a trait controlled by more than four 29. Which is an example of temporal isola-
genes. tion?
A. flowers that bloom in different months
24. When allele frequencies remain constant it
is called
B. birds that have different mating calls
A. Evolution
C. fruit flies that mate in different loca-
B. Genetic Equilibrium
tions
C. Genetic Change
D. squirrels that have different fur colors
D. Genetic Drift
30. The pollen (sperm) of a flowering plant
25. Which of the following is NOT considered
cannot fertilize the egg cell of a nearby
regarding whether or not a population is
flowering plant of its kind. What type of
in a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
reproductive barrier is this?
A. none of the choices
A. behavioral isolation
B. temporal isolation
C. population size
C. gametic isolation
D. mutations
D. geographic isolation
26. A shaped curve is typical of polygenic
trait distribution 31. living parts of an ecosystem
A. mountain A. limiting factors
B. circular B. biotic factors
C. bar C. abiotic factors
D. bell D. specialists

32. What is the observable change in the al- B. Muations

lele frequencies of a population over time
C. Phenotypes
called?
D. Alleles
A. selection
B. microevolution 38. Movement of individuals into a population
C. distribution A. community ecology
D. recombination B. species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
33. Which of the following can result in a pop- C. population
ulation looking more similar over time and
can be described as selection against both D. immigration
extremes of a trait?
39. This term means “change over time”?
A. Evolution
B. Extinction
C. Global Warming
D. species selection
D. Selective Breeding
34. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, pq
stands for 40. The model that predicts evolution occurs in
A. heterozygous individuals rapid bursts followed by long periods of no
change is called
B. homozygous individuals
C. homozygous recessive individuals A. gradualism
D. homozygous dominant individuals B. punctuated equilibrium

C. adaptive radiation
35. Different mating behaviors
A. temporal D. convergent evolution
B. behavioral 41. Which mechanism causes a change in allele

C. geographic frequency?
D. other A. temporal isolation
36. the natural home or environment of an an- B. mutations

imal, plant, or other organism. C. natural selection
A. habitat use D. all answers are correct
B. biodiversity
42. The movement of alleles from one popula-
C. extinction
tion to another is:
D. habitat
A. gene flow
37. The number of produced for a given
B. genetic drift
trait depends on how many genes control
the trait. C. microevolution
A. Genotypes D. founder effect

43. What part of hardy weinberg repents ho- 48. In a population of foxes, tail length shows
mozygous recessive a normal distribution. On a graph, this
frequency would produce what kind of

A. p2
curve?
B. 2pq
A. shifted right
C. q2
B. doubled
D. 1
C. tall and thin
44. Graph showing the number of survivors D. bell-shaped
in different age groups for a particular
species. 49. Individuals that survive long enough to re-
produce have a high level of
A. artificial selection
A. fitness
B. survivorship curve
B. adaptation
C. carrying capacity
C. hormones
D. population density
D. stamina
45. Evolution is
50. characters are similar characteristics
A. a change in the allele frequencies of a
that have evolved separately in two un-
population over time.
related organisms.
B. a change in the allele frequencies of an
A. analogous
individual over time.
B. homologous
C. the gene pool.
C. cladistic
D. a result of the Hardy-Weinberg princi-
ple. D. phylogenic
46. Two organisms change in response to each 51. The number of individuals of one species in
other forming a specialized relationship. an area.
A. Coevolution A. ecosystem
B. Convergent Evolution B. community
C. Gradualism C. biodiversity
D. Extinction D. population
47. According to the Skittle/bead lab, Genetic 52. What factor describes when populations
drift (bottleneck or founder) tends to decrease because animals are moving out
genetic variation (diversity) of a population?
A. Increase A. Emigration
B. Decrease B. Limiting Factors
C. Stabilize C. Immigration
D. Exaggerate D. Exponential Growth

53. A change in an allele’s frequency in a pop- B. population

ulation C. community
A. microevolution D. ecosystem
B. allele population
59. What does the variable q represent?
C. mutation
A. Frequency of the heterozygote geno-
type
NARAYAN CHANGDER
54. Sharks and dolphins both have streamlined B. Frequency of the homozygous reces-
bodies that allow them to move through sive genotype
water efficiently, this is an example of
C. The frequency of the recessive allele
which type of evolution?
D. The frequency of the dominant allele
A. Divergent
B. Coevolution 60. When two populations no longer inter-
breed, what is the result?
C. Convergent
A. genetic equilibrium
D. Artificial
B. reproductive isolation
55. A measurement of the number of people
per given unit of land C. stabilizing selection
A. population size D. recombinant DNA
B. population ecology 61. During the ice ages, the black bears of Eu-
C. limiting factors rope increased in size.
D. population density A. Directional

B. Stabilizing
56. When a zebra & horse mate, they create
a zorse. Zorses are most often sterile. C. Disruptive
What type of reproductive barrier is this? D. none of above
A. behavioral isolation
62. A is a group of organisms that breed
B. hybrid sterility with one another and produce fertile off-
C. gametic isolation spring.
D. mechanical isolation A. Species
B. Population
57. Largest number of individuals of a popula-
tion that a environment can support C. Community
A. exponential growth D. Ecosystem
B. survivorship curve 63. Which of the following factors WILL NOT
C. limiting factors disrupt equilibrium?
D. carrying capacity A. natural selection
58. A is a group of individuals of the same B. mutation

species that interbreed. C. random mating
A. species D. immigration

64. What is the term used when all individuals 69. The ability of an organism to survive and
of species die? reproduce in its specific environment

A. Evolution A. diversity.
B. Natural Selection B. evolution
C. Extinction C. adaptation
D. Artificial Selection D. fitness
70. The combined alleles of all individuals in a

population is called the population’s
teristics of a stable, non-evolving popula-
tion? A. phenothype
A. the population is small B. gene pool

C. mutation rate
B. there is no migration in or out of the
population D. allele frequency
C. there is no natural selection in the pop- 71. is/are the primary source of new
ulation traits that emerge within a population.
D. mating in the population is random A. change in population size
B. change in the environment
66. limiting factor that affects all populations
in similar ways, regardless of population C. natural selection
size D. mutations
A. density dependent factors
72. Which option is not a source of genetic
B. density independent factors variation?
C. r-selected species A. Genetic Recombination
D. extinction B. Meiosis
C. Crossing-Over
67. In the equation p + q = 1, which letter rep-
resents recessive traits? D. Mitosis
A. p 73. In a population of birds, intermediate beak

size is selected against, and both very
B. q
small and very large beak sizes are fa-
C. 1 vored. What type of selection is this an
example of?
D. none of these
A. directional
68. What type of isolation occurred if the B. disruptive
finches evolved on different islands?
C. normal
A. reproductive isolation
D. stabilizing
B. ecological competition
74. In genetic terms, is any change in the
C. geographic isolation
relative frequency of alleles in a popula-
D. behavioral isolation tion.

A. evolution A. immigration
B. genetic equillibrium B. community ecology
C. speciation C. population
D. founder effect D. species
75. isolation occurs when two or more 80. An individual’s ability to survive and re-
species reproduce at different times. produce
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Behavioral A. Fitness
B. Substantial B. Adaptation
C. Temporal C. Variation
D. Geographic D. Gene pool
76. The genitalia of the male damselfly varies 81. What do we call the selective breeding of
in shape. Certain males can only hold onto organisms, by humans, for specific desir-
& mate with females whose genitalia fit. able characteristics?
What type of reproductive barrier is this? A. Natural Selection
A. behavioral isolation B. Artificial Selection
B. temporal isolation C. Animal Independence
C. gametic isolation D. Darwinism
D. mechanical isolation
82. Nonliving components of environment.
77. A population of 150 individuals has an al- A. limiting factors
lele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant al-
B. population size
lele (B). Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation
to determine the frequency of the geno- C. biotic factors
type (Bb). D. abiotic factors
A. 0.09
83. An organism’s ability to survive and repro-
B. 0.42 duce in its environment refers to its
C. 0.49 A. Fitness
D. 0.21 B. Variation
78. Which is a mechanism for change in allele C. Selection
frequency? D. Mutation
A. gene flow
84. How well an organism survives and repro-
B. genetic drift duces in its environment can be described
C. natural selection as its
D. all answers are correct A. fitness

B. homologies
79. The study of how interactions between
species affect community structure and or- C. common descent
ganization D. analogies

85. If two species form a hybrid that is not 90. The is the total of all genes, or genetic
viable it is what kind of reproductive bar- information, in any population, usually of
rier? a particular species.

A. Prezygotic A. gene frequency
B. Postzygotic B. gene pool
C. Allopatric C. swimming pool

D. the good stuff
D. Sympatric
91. Any heritable characteristic that increases
86. The number of phenotypes produced for a an organism’s ability to survive and repro-
trait depends on duce in its environment
A. organism choice. A. traits
B. genetic drift. B. adaptation
C. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. C. resistance
D. how many genes control the trait. D. genes
87. If 98 out of 200 individuals in a population 92. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the let-
express the recessive phenotype, what ter p stands for
percent of the population would you pre- A. heterozygous individuals
dict would be heterozygous? B. homozygous individuals
A. 70% C. homozygous recessive individuals
B. 30% D. homozygous dominant individuals
C. 42% 93. Artificial selection has been a big factor in
D. 49% the evolution of:
A. Dogs
88. Situation in which allele frequencies
change as aresult of the migration of small B. Panda bears
subgroup of a population is known as: C. Snakes
A. founder effect D. Jellyfish
B. genetic bottleneck 94. Temporal isolation occurs when two differ-
C. random mating ent populations
D. natural selection A. develop different mating behaviors

B. become geographically separated
89. different populations that live together in
C. reproduce at different times
a defined area
D. interbreed
A. biodiversity
95. Which of the following would NOT be con-
B. ecosystems
trolled by Hox genes during the develop-
C. extinction ment of a vertebrate embryo?
D. communities A. the formation of ribs

B. the gender of the embryo 101. Selective pressures are often caused by
C. the length of the neck
D. the number of limbs A. adaptations
96. The phenotypes for a typical polygenic
trait can often be expressed as C. genetic variation
A. A bell shape curve D. natural selection
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. An S shape curve 102. What does it mean if a population’s allele
C. A J curve frequencies do not match the allele predic-
tion of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
D. Carrying capacity (The population is not?)
97. A pattern in which species experience long, A. equal
stable periods interrupted by brief periods B. stabilizing
of rapid evolutionary change is called
C. evolving
A. convergent evolution
D. recombining
B. coevolution
C. adaptive radiation 103. A term that typically describes a species
that no longer has any known living indi-
D. punctuated equilibrium
viduals.
98. Reproductive isolation results in A. extinction
A. reduction of gene flow B. communities
B. adaptation C. emmigration
C. natural selection D. biosphere
D. mutation
104. What kind of isolation occurs when
99. What is a group of organisms of the same two populations of birds have different
species that live in a specific geographical courtship dances?
area and interbreed? A. geographic isolation
A. Habitats B. sexual isolation
B. Organisms C. temporal isolation
C. Population D. behavioral isolation
D. Reproductive Quality
105. Populations of antibiotic-resistant bacte-
100. Change in a population over time. ria are the result of the process of
A. natural selection A. natural selection.
B. survival of the fittest B. temporal isolation.
C. evolution C. genetic drift.
D. none of above D. artificial selection.

106. The allele frequencies of a population are 112. Formation of new allele combinations
more likely to change if A. mutation

A. the population size is increased
B. positive selection
B. no immigration or emigration occurs
C. deletion event
C. mating is not random
D. recombination
D. the mutation rate decreases
113. When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg
107. When two species reproduce at a differ- Equilibrium. What is not happening to the
ent times, the situation is called: species?
A. temporal selection
A. Survival
B. temporal drift
B. Reproduction
C. temporal isolation
C. Death
D. temporal effect
D. Evolution
108. Which of the following would NOT be an
adaptation? 114. Who is known for his development of the
theory of evolution?
A. Long, strong running legs
A. Einstein
B. Claws with a powerful grip
C. camouflage B. Mendel
D. A defective heart valve C. Darwin

D. Hooke
109. The sum total of all genes in a population
is known as the 115. The process by which two species evolve
A. Genetic equilibrium in response to changes in each other over
time. An evolutionary change in one or-
B. Genetic drift
ganism may also be followed by a corre-
C. Gene pool sponding change in another organism
D. Gene frequency A. coevolution
110. In the equation p + q = 1, which letter B. convergent evolution
represents dominate traits?
C. divergent evolution
A. p
D. none of above
B. q
C. 1 116. Allele frequency is
D. none of these A. the number of times a gene occurs in
a gene pool.
111. A population is
B. the number of times an allele occurs in
A. A group of one species in one area a gene pool, as a percentage of the total
B. Multiple species that live in one area occurrence for all alleles for that gene in
the gene pool.
C. All of the living and nonliving things in
an area C. genetic equilibrium.
D. None of these D. unrelated to evolution.

117. Mechanism of evolution that occurs when 122. Describes how well an organism can sur-
different species of trees release their vive and reproduce in its environment
pollen at different times of the year. A. fitness
A. Temporal Isolation B. adaptation
B. Behavioral Isolation C. natural selection
C. Gene Flow D. none of above
D. Geographic Isolation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
123. growth whose rate becomes ever more
118. What is the observable change in the rapid in proportion to the growing total
gene pool of a population over time number or size.
called? A. exponential growth
A. selection B. ecosystem ecology
B. microevolution C. artificial selection
C. distribution D. survivorship curve
D. recombination
124. Where were the Galapagos finches pre-
119. Form of reproductive isolation in which dicted to have originated?
two populations develop differences in A. South America
courtship rituals or other mating behaviors B. North America
that prevent them from breeding. Ex. dif-
ferent songs or different colors C. Antartica
A. Behavioral isolation D. Europe
B. Directional selection 125. A chance occurrence that negatively af-
C. Disruptive selection fects a population because the population
is small.
D. Gene pool
A. genetic drift
120. The measure of how common a certain al- B. mutation
lele is in the population.
C. speciation
A. population genetics
D. migration
B. gene pool
126. When unrelated species evolve similar
C. Hardy Weinberg equilibrium
characteristics because they live in similar
D. allele frequency environments.
121. A measure of how commonly a particular A. Convergent Evolution
allele occurs in a population is known as B. Coevolution
the
C. Adaptive Radiation
A. gene pool
D. Divergent Evolution
B. allele frequency
127. Which of the following is not an assump-
C. mutation rate tion required for Hardy-Weinberg equilib-
D. phenotype rium?

A. Random mating B. The frequency of the homozygous

B. No mutations genotype.

C. Population size must fluctate C. The frequency of the recessive allele.
D. The frequency of the homozygous dom-
D. No selection is occuring
inant.
128. What is the ratio of a particular allele to
133. Which factor could cause speciation?
the total of all other alleles of the same
gene in a given population called? A. geographic isolation
A. gene pool B. reproductive isolation
B. genome C. behavioral isolation
C. gene count D. all of these can cause speciation
D. gene frequency 134. In a population of lizards, the smallest
and largest lizards are more easily preyed
129. One species of flower blooms in the upon than medium-sized lizards. What
spring, the other in the fall. They can not kind of natural selection is MOST likely to
interbreed bc.. occur in this situation?
A. Behavioral isolation A. genetic drift
B. Temporal isolation B. sexual selection
C. Mechanical isolation C. stabilizing selection
D. Hybrid sterility D. directional selection
130. The change in the genetic make up of a 135. characters may or may not be simi-
population is called lar between two organisms but they de-
A. Population veloped from a common ancestor.
B. Random mating A. homologous
C. Evolution B. analogous
D. None of these C. cladistic
D. phylogenic
131. The principle states that allele fre-
quencies in a population will remain con- 136. Natural selection results in change over
stant unless one or more factors cause time by acting on traits that are
those frequencies to change.
A. heritable
A. Darwin-Wallace
B. new
B. Watson-Crick
C. mutated
C. Hershey-Chase
D. better than the best
D. Hardy-Weinberg
137. Natural selection states that organisms
132. In the Hardy-Weinberg theorem, p refers are best suited for their environment if
to what? they and
A. The frequency of the dominant allele. A. Survive and Reproduce

B. Survive and Predate A. natural selection

C. Survive and Parasitize B. r-selected species
D. Survive and Adapt C. k-selected species
D. population ecology
138. Using the equation p + q = 1, if p = .25,
what does q =? 143. The evolution of a new species is:
A. .65 A. speciation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. .85 B. coevolution
C. .75 C. convergent evolution
D. 0 D. natural selection
139. The total collection of genes in a popula- 144. part of Earth in which life exists including
tion at any one time. land, water, and air or atmosphere
A. population genetics A. biosphere
B. gene pool B. growth rate
C. gene flow C. ecosystems

D. biodiversity
D. allele frequency
145. Which of the following must occur for spe-
140. The combined genetic information of all
ciation to happen?
members of a particular population forms
a A. geographic isolation
A. gene pool. B. reproductive isolation
B. niche. C. temporal isolation
C. phenotype. D. behavioral isolation
D. population. 146. Occurs when individuals near the center

of the curve have higher fitness than indi-
141. A particular environment experienced viduals at either end.
high rainfall over several seasons. During
A. disruptive selection
these wet years, small seeds were much
more common than large seeds. Finches B. stabilizing selection
with smaller beaks thrived, and produced C. directional selection
more offspring than finches with larger D. natural selection
beaks.
147. A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equi-
A. Directional
librium. The gene of interest has two alle-
B. Stabilizing les, with 16% of the population portray-
C. Disruptive ing the recessive phenotype. What is the
frequency of the dominant allele?
D. none of above
A. 84%
142. A process in which individuals that have B. 60%
certain inherited traits tend to survive and
reproduce at higher rates than other indi- C. 48%
viduals because of those traits. D. 36%

148. Which kind of mutation has the greater C. Bottleneck Effect

potential to affect the evolution of a pop- D. Migration
ulation?

A. mutation to a body cell 153. Immigration and emigration are exam-
ples of
B. mutation to a somatic cell
A. gene flow.
C. mutation to a gamete
B. genetic drift.
D. mutation to a diploid cell
C. bottleneck.
149. If 98 out of 200 individuals in a popula- D. founders effect.
tion are homozygous recessive, what per-
cent of the population would you predict 154. Rapid decrease in population due to an
would be heterozygous? environmental factor.
A. 70% A. adaptation
B. 30% B. bottleneck effect
C. 42% C. mutation
D. 49% D. geographic isolation
150. The genetic differences in between organ- 155. A distinct difference in size or appearance
isms that allow for adaptations to occur in between the sexes of an animal
a population.
A. Sexual Dimorphism
A. phenotype
B. Analogous Structures
B. vestigial structure
C. Homologous Structures
C. mutation
D. Vestigial Structures
D. natural variations
156. Which definition best matches the term
151. When allelic frequencies remain un- population?
changed, a population is in genetic equilib-
rium. This statement expresses which of A. A measurement of people for a specific
the following? area
A. genetic drift B. All the inhabitants of a particular area
B. Hardy-Weinberg principle
C. human beings in general
C. sympatric speciation
D. the increase in the number of people
D. prezygotic isolating mechanism in a particular area
152. A migratory bird unknowingly accumu- 157. How many phenotypes exist for a single-
lates a few seeds of the hwagha plant in gene trait?
her feathers and drops them in an area
where those plants did not live before. A. 1
This is an example of B. 2
A. Founder Effect C. 3
B. Predation D. 4

158. A is a random change in genetic infor- 164. In a population of field mice, coat color
mation. ranges from light tan to dark brown.
A. allele Medium brown mice are found in greater
abundance due to their ability to blend in
B. genotype with their surroundings.
C. variation
A. Directional
D. mutation
B. Stabilizing
159. Which trait on the finches did Darwin
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Disruptive
study the most?
D. none of above
A. Wings
B. Feathers 165. A consists of all genes, including all
the different alleles, that are present in a
C. Beaks population.
D. Talons
A. gene pool
160. Type of reproductive isolation that occurs B. allele pond
when physical land barriers separate two
C. genetic equillibrium
populations
A. Behavioral isolation D. genetic drift
B. Geographical isolation 166. Why is genetic drift not a type of natural

C. Temporal isolation selection?
D. Genetic isolation A. It’s random; not due to advantages
that the individual has
161. A random change in a small population’s
B. It’s due to the environment, rather
allele frequency is known as
than chromosomal changes
A. a gene pool
C. Humans are involved, making genetic
B. genetic drift drift artificial selection
C. variation D. none of above
D. fitness
167. Which lizard color increased in frequency
162. Disruptive selection will favor because they were able to warm up
A. extreme traits. faster?
B. average traits. A. Brown
C. one phenotype over another. B. Red
D. none of above C. Black
163. The random change in allele frequencies D. none of above
is:
168. Occurs when individuals at the upper and
A. genetic drift lower ends of the curve have higher fit-
B. gene pool ness than the individuals near the middle.
C. natural selection A. directional selection
D. speciation B. disruptive selection

C. stabilizing selection B. Natural Selection

D. natural selection C. Non-random mating

169. isolation occurs when two popula- D. Mutation
tions are capable of interbreeding but have
differences in courtship rituals or other re- 174. the number of individuals in a population
productive strategies that involve behav- A. population size
ior.
B. abiotic factors
A. Behavioral
C. population distribution
B. Substantial
D. population ecology
C. Temporal
D. Geographic 175. Coevolution is a process in which
species:
170. The evolution of a new species from an
existing species is A. Evolve similar traits in different envi-
ronments
B. Become different from each other
B. isolation
C. Become extinct
C. speciation
D. Evolve in response to changes in each
D. genetic variation
other
171. Polyploidy means
176. A reproductive barrier that prevents mat-
A. having more than two copies of each ing from ever taking place is a:
chromosome
A. Postzygotic Barrier
B. having just one copy of each chromo-
some B. Prezygotic Barrier
C. having extra chromosomes from a C. Natural Selection
completely different species D. Species-specific Barrier
D. having some duplicated chromosomes
177. Many members of one species in an area
172. When allele frequencies change due to mi-
A. ecosystem
gration of a small subgroup of a population
it is known as the . B. community
A. founder effect C. biodiversity
B. mutation theory D. population
C. genetic drift
178. Whether or not a variation is an adapta-
D. disruptive selection tion is dependent on the organism’s
173. A few deer wander out of their native A. Environment
woods into a completely new park where
B. Genotype
no deer had ever been before. They go on
to create an entirely new population. C. Phenotype
A. Genetic Drift D. Selection

179. Gene flow involves C. singular

A. Natural disasters killing most of the D. disruptive
members of a population
184. The process of choosing parent organisms
B. Individuals moving into and out of the for desired characteristics is called
population
C. Selective mating
B. Artificial selection
D. Small changes because of the environ-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. random selection
ment
D. genetic manipulation
180. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, which
of the following represents homozygous 185. Which are evidence for evolution?
recessive traits? A. Fossil Records
A. p2 B. Embryology
B. q2 C. Molecular Evidence
C. 2pq D. All the above
D. 1
186. Which colored lizard was more easily
181. A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equi- seen by predators?
librium. The gene of interest has two al- A. Brown
leles, with 16% of the population por- B. Red
traying the recessive phenotype. Which
percentage of the population is heterozy- C. Black
gous? D. none of above
A. 48% 187. In Darwin’s finches, beak size affects the
B. 36% mating call by changing the sound of the
C. 16% song. Birds with a medium sized beak at-
tract fewer mates due to the unpopularity
D. 24% of their mating call.
182. A trait that is controlled by two or more A. Directional
genes are described as B. Stabilizing
A. polypeptide traits C. Disruptive
B. polyzygot traits D. none of above
C. polypocket traits
188. Species that reproduce early in their life
D. polygenic traits span and produce large numbers of usually
small and short-lived offspring in a short
183. When individuals at one end of the curve period.
have higher fitness than individuals in the
middle or at the other end, selection A. artificial selection
takes place. B. logistic growth curve
A. directional C. r-selected species
B. stablizing D. k-selected species

189. A mechanism of evolution that changes 194. A group of individuals that belong to the
the frequency of alleles due to chance. same species and live in the same area

A. genetic drift A. population
B. mutation B. immigration
C. speciation C. species
D. community ecology
D. gene flow
195. explains how two or more or-
190. Selection by humans for breeding of use- ganisms could evolve similar traits even
ful traits from the natural variation among though they are not related to each other.
different organisms
A. k-selected species
B. reproductive isolation
C. derived characters
C. exponential growth D. hybrid vigor
196. Two species that are related but evolve
191. The total and permanent disappearance to become different is:
of a species from Earth is called A. divergent evolution
A. radiation B. disruptive selection
B. coevolution C. convergent evolution
C. extinction D. competitive relationships
D. equilibrium 197. Which is not an element of Natural Selec-

tion
192. One species splitting into two species is A. Over production
called
B. Struggle to Survive
A. Mass extinction
C. Differential Reproduction
B. Speciation
D. Genetic Drift
C. Sexual Selection
198. Genetic variation can result from
D. None of these
A. mutation.
193. A population of frogs has 37 individuals B. sexual reproduction.
who are brown in color and 194 individu-
C. lateral gene transfer.
als who express the dominant green color.
What is the dominant allele frequency for D. all of these.
this population?
199. Determine the expected numbers of or-
A. 0.2 ganisms with genotype BB if the frequen-
cies are as follows in a population with a
B. 0.4
total size of 150:f(BB)=0.16, f(Bb)=0.48,
C. 0.6 and f(bb)=0.36.
D. 0.8 A. 24

B. 72 205. In a population of bears, the frequency of

C. 54 the recessive allele is 0.44. What is the
frequency of the dominant allele?
D. 150
A. 0.1936
200. Which of the following represent the
genotype with two different alleles? B. 0.44
A. heterozygous C. 0.56
D. 0.22
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. dominant
C. codominant
206. Which of the following is NOT a condition
D. homozygous for Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
201. The of an allele is the number of times A. No mutations
the allele occurs in a gene pool, compared
B. Random Mating
with the number of times other alleles for
the same gene occur. C. No natural selection
A. founding D. Gene flow
B. percentage
207. When closely related species evolve in
C. gene pool
different directions they become increas-
D. relative frequency ing different
202. Superficially similar features molded by A. Divergent Evolution
natural selection in very different species
B. Convergent Evolution
are classified as what kind of structures?
A. vestigial C. Gene Pool
B. homologous D. Gene Flow

C. analogous
208. The more genetic variation a population
D. comparative has, the more likely it is that some individ-
uals will
203. A change in a gene pool due to chance.
A. Genetic drift A. evolve
B. gene pool B. migrate

C. Founder effect C. survive
D. Bottleneck effect D. mutate
204. When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg 209. Which animal did the Grants research to
equilibrium, what is NOT happening to the test Darwin’s hypothesis?
species?
A. turtles
A. Survival
B. Reproduction B. finches
C. Death C. fish
D. Evolution D. cats

210. What type of speciation involves geo- 215. A trait is controlled by one gene that
graphic isolation? has two alleles.

A. Allopatric A. single-gene
B. Sympatric B. polyenic
C. Both C. polytypic
D. none of above D. lone-allele
211. Traits, such as human height, that are con- 216. The movement of genes into or out of a
trolled by more than one gene are known population.
as A. sexual selection
A. single-gene traits. B. genetic drift
B. polygenic traits. C. bottleneck effect
C. recessive traits. D. gene flow
D. dominant traits. 217. Genetic drift is a process.
212. What are sources of inherited genetic A. random
variation? B. directed
A. mutations C. selection-driven
B. genetic recombination D. uniformitarian
C. mutations and genetic recombination
218. The process by which organisms in nature
D. mutations and migrations with variations most suited to their local
environment survive and leave more off-
213. The study of populations in relation to spring.
the environment, including environmental
influences on population density and dis- A. fitness
tribution, age structure, and variations in B. natural selection
population size. C. evolution
A. population density D. none of above
B. population ecology
219. A type of genetic drift in which small
C. population distribution groups of organisms separate from a
D. population size larger population and form new small
colonies.
214. Which of the following conditions is
A. Gene Flow
MOST likely to result in changes in allele
frequencies in a population? B. Founder Effect
A. absence of natural selection C. Natural Selection
B. small population size D. Artificial Selection
C. no migrations into or out of a popula- 220. factor that limits a population more as
tion population density increases
D. none of above A. density independent factors

B. logistic growth curve 226. Carrying Capacity is

C. r-selected species A. the capacity of what one person can
D. density dependent factors carry per day
B. how many animals you have in your
221. An earthquake changes the allele fre-
daily bag limit at the end of the year
quencies in a population change by killing
off several people. This is: C. wildebeest at a watering hole with ze-
bras
A. bottleneck effect
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. the maximum number of population
B. founder effect
size that the ecosystem can support
C. coevolution
D. speciation 227. A group of similar organisms that can
breed and produce fertile offspring.
222. All of the following are examples of ge- A. community ecology
netic drift EXCEPT
B. species
A. bottleneck effect.
C. immigration
B. founder effect.
D. population
C. natural selection.
D. none of above 228. When using the morphological species
concept, you must be careful of species
223. A situation in which allele frequencies looking the same because of
change as a result of migration of a small
subgroup of a population is known as the A. Sexual selection
founder effect B. Macroevolution
A. bottleneck effectr C. Convergent Evolution
B. founder effect D. Adaptation
C. genetic drift
229. Which definition best matches the term
D. evolutionary effect population density?
224. What type of genetic drift occurs when A. human beings in general
the population size is greatly decreased? B. number of people in a particular area
A. Founder Effect C. A measurement of people for a spe-
B. Bottleneck Effect cific area
C. Gene Flow D. All the inhabitants of a particular area
D. Reduction Effect
230. The five factors that can lead to evolu-
225. For genetic equilibrium to be maintained, tion are gene flow, genetic drift, mutation,
there can be no natural selection, and
A. parasites A. sexual selection
B. diseases B. controlled mating
C. water C. emigration
D. mutations D. immigration

231. All genes present in a population is C. That is very small

called:
D. For which environmental conditions

A. Genetic Drift are changing
B. Gene Flow
237. Organisms with the most advantageous
C. Gene Pool traits will survive. This is commonly
D. none of above known as
232. The process of forming a new species. A. theory of evolution

A. survival of the fittest B. variations
B. natural selection C. survival of the fittest
C. evolution D. ecosystems
D. speciation
238. The combined alleles of a population is:
233. Similarity of early embryos of different A. gene pool
species of vertebrates suggests?
B. allele frequency
A. no evolutionary relationships between
the groups C. mutation rate
B. recent common ancestry D. phenotype
239. What is an example of artificial selec-
D. evolution from a distant common an- tion?
cestor
A. Letting dogs choose their own mate
234. Which answer best shows an animal’s
B. Letting plants pollinate on their own
adaptation to the tropical rain forest?
A. camouflage in a tree frog C. Crossing a labrador and a poodle to
create a labradoodle
B. the long neck of a giraffe
D. none of above
C. an elephant’s long trunk
D. migration of birds in winter 240. Which evolutionary mechanism is neces-
sary for evolution to occur?
235. Rate of increase or decrease of a popula-
tion A. genetic drift
A. biosphere B. gene flow
B. growth rate C. nonrandom mating
C. generalists D. mutation
D. specialists
241. species with narrow niches
236. Genetic drift is most likely to impact a A. specialists
population
B. biotic factors
A. That has a low mutation rate
C. generalists
B. In which natural selection is occurring
D. growth rate

242. The situation in which allele frequencies 247. A problem in all populations influenced by
in the gene pool of a population remain con- the bottleneck effect is that
stant is called A. genetic variation is lost
A. evolution B. alleles cannot become fixed
B. genetic drift C. offspring inherit harmful alleles
C. genetic equilibrium D. chance no longer affects them
NARAYAN CHANGDER
248. Random changes in an organism’s DNA
243. What causes competition to occur in an A. isolation
environment?
B. gene pool
A. Good conditions make resources plen-
tiful. C. mutation
B. Organisms struggle for a limited re- D. evolution

source. 249. new species arise as a result of geo-
C. Members of a population have differ- graphic isolation
ent roles. A. geographic isolation
D. A population falls below the environ- B. reproductive isolation
ment’s carrying capacity.
C. allopatric speciation
244. The Hardy-Weinberg principle describes D. sympatric speciation
the conditions within which does NOT
occur. 250. The six factors that can lead to evolution
A. reproductive isolation are gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, nat-
ural selection, isolation and
B. genetic drift
A. sexual selection
C. evolution
B. controlled mating
D. migration
C. emigration
245. Which of the following is a mechanism D. immigration
that can cause the evolution of a popula-
tion? 251. What is the Hardy-Weinberg Equation?
A. gene flow A. p + q = 1
B. genetic drift B. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
C. natural selection C. p2 + pq2 + q2 = 1
D. all answers are correct D. p + 2pq + q3 = 1
246. environmental factors that restrict popu- 252. Mutations that improve an individual’s
lation growth ability to survive and reproduce are
A. population density A. harmful
B. biotic factors B. beneficial
C. limiting factors C. neutral
D. abiotic factors D. chromosomal

253. Natural selection on single-gene traits D. frequency of homozygous recessive

can lead to changes in and thus to evo- genotypes
lution.

258. English natural scientist who formulated
A. allele dominance a theory of evolution by natural selection
B. allele frequencies A. community ecology
C. adaptations B. species
D. natural selection C. population
254. movement of individuals out of a popula- D. Charles Darwin
tion
259. Species that produce a few, often fairly
A. growth rate large offspring but invest a great deal of
B. communities time and energy to ensure that most of
C. emmigration those offspring reach reproductive age.
D. extinction A. population ecology

255. There was once a large population of
cheetah, but about 12, 000 years ago C. r-selected species
most of the cheetahs were killed off be- D. k-selected species
cause of human activity and only a few
survived. What is this an example of? 260. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of temporal isolation?
A. Bottleneck Effect
A. birds with different songs
B. Genetic Drift
B. species that reproduce at different
C. Founder Effect times of the year.
D. Natural Selection C. species that are awake at different
256. The African seed cracker beaks are se- times of the day.
lected in the smallest variety or the largest D. none of above
variety as best suited to the environment.
Which type of selection does this repre- 261. Although their large and elaborate tail
sent feathers make male peacocks more con-
spicuous to predators and hinder their abil-
A. stabilizing ity to fly, female peacocks prefer bright
B. disruptive colored tails in mates. What is this an ex-
C. directional ample of?
D. sexual A. Sexual Selection

B. Gene Flow
257. What does “2pq” represent in the Hardy-
Weinberg equation? C. Genetic Drift
A. frequency of dominant alleles D. No Mutations
B. frequency of homozygous dominant 262. This mechanism of evolution occurs when

genotypes populations migrate.
C. frequency of heterozygous genotypes A. Extinction

B. Gene flow 268. The movement of alleles into or out of a

C. Genetic drift population
D. Natural Selection A. evolution
263. The movement of alleles from one popu- B. natural selection

lation to another is called C. gene flow
A. founder effect D. genetic drift
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. microevolution
C. genetic drift 269. In which type of selection do certain
traits increase mating success?
D. gene flow
A. sexual
264. The formation of new species
B. natural
A. Speciation
C. artificial
B. Evolution
D. stabilizing
D. Mutations 270. Genetic drift resulting from a disaster
that drastically reduces population size is
265. Forming of a new species by evolution
called
from pre-existing species.
A. Speciation A. natural selection
B. Extinction B. gene flow

C. Gradualism C. the founder effect
D. Punctuated equilibrium D. the bottleneck effect
266. Which option does contribute to genetic 271. the practice and business of recreational
variation? travel based on concern for the environ-
A. lateral gene transfer ment
B. mitosis A. extinction
C. 1 round of cell division B. biodiversity
D. splitting of the egg during develop-
C. habitat use
ment
D. ecotourism
267. A population diverges and becomes re-
productively isolated. Which of the fol- 272. Which type of selection favors the aver-
lowing is the best description of that phe- age (intermediate) phenotype?
nomenon?
A. stabilizing
A. speciation
B. bottleneck B. directional
C. postzygotic isolation C. disruptive

D. sexual selection D. boom and bust

273. Hawks eat snakes. Snakes evolved to 278. The process in which a single species or
have skin coloration that lets them blend small group of species has evolved into
into their environment. Hawks evolved to several different forms that live in differ-

have excellent eyesight. What is this an ent ways.E.g. Darwin’s finches
example of? A. convergent evolution
A. Coevolution
B. Character displacement
C. Resource partitioning
D. coevolution
D. Mutualistic partner
279. Two species of squirrels separated by the
274. is the formation of new species. Grand Canyon are an example of
A. Mutations A. behavioral isolation.
B. Speciation B. geographical isolation.
C. Artificial Selection C. temporal isolation.
D. Development D. post zygotic barriers.
275. The lava released by a volcanic eruption
280. The emergence of new rivers or streams
separates two populations of a species of
that separates a population from reproduc-
monkey. What does this represent?
ing is a type of isolation.
A. biological isolation
A. Temporal
B. geographical isolation
B. Mechanical
C. Behavioral
D. anatomical isolation
D. Geographic
276. This mechanism of evolution occurs when
populations migrate, by immigration or 281. When unwanted organisms develop re-
emigration. sistance to the methods humans use to kill
them
A. Extinction
A. biological resistance
B. Gene flow
B. genetic resistance
C. Genetic drift
C. animal resistance
D. none of above
277. A bumble bee has just enough weight to
open up the snapdragon flower and get the 282. Gene flow occurs
nectar/pollen inside. Other insects cannot A. when natural forces act on existing
do this. This adaption is an example of variation
B. when two populations mix, but do
A. convergent evolution not mate
B. co-evolution C. when new individuals are added to
C. divergent evolution a population
D. speciation D. when a population is split

283. Darwin’s finches, where one 14 species 288. The type of genetic drift that follows the
evolved from a common ancestor is called colonization of a new habitat by a small
group of individuals is called
A. Magic A. the Hardy-Weinberg principle
B. Adaptive Radiation B. the founder effect
C. Sexual Selection C. directional selection

D. the bottleneck effect
D. Hybridization
NARAYAN CHANGDER
289. What part of hardy weinberg repents ho-
284. All the living and non-living things that mozygous domiance
interect in an area.
A. p2
A. extinction
B. q2
B. ecosystems C. 2pq
C. communities D. 1
D. biosphere
290. isolation occurs when two popula-
tions are separated by geographic barriers
285. The of two populations must be-
such as rivers or mountains.
come separated for them to become new
species. A. Behavorial
A. Relative frequencies B. Substantial
B. Gene pools C. Temporal

D. Geographic
C. Random mating
D. Phenotypes 291. Ability of bacteria or to resist the effects
of an antibiotic
286. A population that is not undergoing nat- A. natural selection
ural selection displays what type of distri-
B. photosynthesis
bution?
C. symbiosis
A. normal
D. antibiotic resistance
B. disruptive
292. What do Hox genes control?
C. directional
A. gene duplication
D. stabilizing
B. mutations
287. The cardinal and the blue jay do not re- C. patterns of embryonic development
produce due to a difference in their mating
D. molecular clocks
songs. This is an example of
A. geographic isolation 293. Any change in the relative frequency of
alleles in the gene pool of a population
B. habitat isolation over time is known as
C. gametic isolation A. variation
D. behavioral isolation B. evolution

C. stabilizing selection B. consists of all genes present in a

species including all alleles for each gene.
D. founder effect

294. Mutations and the genetic recombination C. consists only of genes, not alleles.
that occurs during sexual reproduction are
D. cannot be affected by mutation.
both sources of
A. genetic variation. 299. This factor causes a population to de-
crease due to members moving out.
B. stabilizing selection.
A. mortality
C. genetic equilibrium.
B. emigration
D. genetic drift.
C. natality
295. Occurs when individuals at one end of the D. immigration
curve have a higher fitness than the indi-
300. The study of energy flow and the cycling
viduals in the middle or at the other end.
of chemicals among the various biotic and
It causes the entire curve to move.
abiotic components in an ecosystem.
A. exponential growth
B. ecosystem ecology
C. disruptive C. population ecology
D. natural selection D. r-selected species
296. a plot that shows how the initial expo- 301. In small populations, individuals that
nential growth of a population is slowed carry a particular gene may leave more de-
and finally brought to a standstill by limit- scendants than other individuals
ing factors
A. genetic flow
A. logistic growth curve B. natural selection
B. natural selection C. genetic trade
C. ecosystem ecology D. genetic equilibrium
D. r-selected species
302. What is an example of behavioral isola-
tion?
297. Genetic Drift is more likely to lead to loss
of allele types in A. birds singing different songs for mat-
ing
A. aquatic populations
B. the Colorado river dividing squirrels
B. small populations
C. the orchids in the rain forest pollinat-
C. terrestrial populations ing at different times of year
D. older populations D. the ocean separating turtles in the
Galapagos islands
298. A gene pool
A. consists of all genes present in a pop- 303. Consists of all genes present in a popula-
ulation including all alleles for each gene. tion, including all alleles for each gene
A. allele frequency

B. gene pool B. stabilizing selection.

C. variation C. directional selection.
D. biodiversity D. neutral selection.
304. The founder effect is an example of which 309. What is a Mass Extinction?
mechanism of evolution? A. When an organism dies off from Earth
A. gene flow
B. When multiple species or organisms
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. genetic drift
die off from Earth
C. A type of trait
D. all answers are correct
D. none of above
305. The is the loss of genetic variation
that occurs when a population is reduced 310. A change in a DNA, gene or chromosome.
due to a cataclysmic event that changes A. traits
their environment. B. genotype
A. bottle neck effect C. mutation
B. founder effect D. allele
C. cataclysmic effect
311. Many traits are controlled by two or
D. global climate change more genes and are called traits.
306. In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, what A. single-gene
does q2 represent? B. polygenic
A. The percentage of the recessive allele C. polytypic
D. lone-allele
B. The percentage of the dominant allele
312. If 49 out of 100 individuals in a pop-
ulation express the recessive phenotype,
C. The percentage of the population that what percent of the population would you
is homozygous recessive predict to be homozygous dominant?
D. The percentage of the population that A. 70%
is homozygous dominant
B. 30%
307. A random change in allele frequency is C. 42%
called .
D. 9%
A. founder effect
313. If p = .63 and q = .37, which decimal
B. mutation
would represent the likelihood that an or-
C. genetic drift ganism would be heterozygous in a popu-
D. relative frequency lation in genetic equilibrium?
A. 0.65
308. The type of selection in which individuals
of average size have greater fitness than B. 0.47
small or large individuals have it called C. 0.37
A. disruptive selection. D. 0.02

314. Formation of new allele combinations in C. temporal

offspring D. behavioral

A. Microevolution
320. An observable change in the allele fre-
B. Speciation quencies of a population over time.
C. Mutations A. gene flow
D. Recombination B. directional selection
315. A biological is a group of interbreed- C. normal distribution
ing populations that is reproductively iso- D. microevolution
lated from other groups.
A. species 321. Physical barriers, such as mountains or
canyons, separating populations is:
B. family
A. geographic isolation
C. phylogeny
B. behavioral isolation
D. hybrid
316. Which is a mechanism that causes a
D. reproductive isolation
change in allele frequency?
A. gene flow 322. All of the genetic information found in a
population.
B. genetic drift
A. population
B. genetic drift
D. all answers are correct
C. evolution
317. Which of the following cannot introduce
D. gene pool
new alleles into a population’s gene pool?
A. Mutation 323. For genetic equilibrium to be maintained,
there cannot be into or out of the pop-
B. Natural selection
ulation.
C. Gene Flow
A. communication
D. All of the above introduce new alleles
B. cooperation
into the population
C. movement
318. What is a gene pool?
D. parasites
A. all the traits seen in a population
B. all the alleles seen in a population 324. Let’s say we are breeding bunnies with
the allele combinations for fur (FF or Ff)
C. all the hair colors seen in a population and furless (ff). What is the gene fre-
quency of the allele F if we have 40 F alle-
D. none of these les and 60 f alleles?
319. A new river forms and divides two popu- A. 100

lations of frogs, causing speciation. B. .4
A. sympatric C. .6
B. allopatric D. 2.5

325. When individuals choose traits possessed 330. An organisms ability to reproduce and
by the opposite sex it is called pass on its genes to the next generation
A. Mutation is best described as what?
B. Gene Flow A. reproducibility
C. Genetic Drift B. baby making powers

D. Sexual Selection C. fitness
D. robustness
NARAYAN CHANGDER
326. A change in the genetic composition of a
population as a result of descending from
331. We can demonstrate natural selection by
a small number of colonizing individuals is
graphing data using a
called:
A. bar graph
A. founder effect
B. line graph
B. bottleneck
C. genetic drift C. bell curve
D. gene flow D. pie chart
327. What is geographic isolation? 332. Speciation is the formation of

A. Members of a population live together A. new species.
within an geographic boundary B. zygotic barriers.
B. Members of a population may become
C. isolating mechanisms.
isolated from one another by geographic
boundaries D. Hox genes.
C. An isolation that is geographic
333. Sexual dimorphism is often a result of
D. None of these
328. In organisms that reproduce sexually, A. Females selecting traits she desires in
most variation that can be inherited is due a male
to B. Males being more likely to survive than
A. mutations during gamete formation females
B. polygenic traits C. Males and females competing for lim-
ited resources
C. gene recombination during sexual re-
production D. Artificial selection by humans
D. the effects of radiation
334. Which of the following can produce a du-
329. the variety of life in the world or in a par- plicate gene?
ticular habitat or ecosystem. A. chromosome replication during mito-
A. population size sis
B. biosphere B. crossing-over during meiosis
C. habitat use C. neutral mutation during transcription
D. biodiversity D. genetic drift during reproduction

335. What do you call the differences in a trait, 340. Many genes have at least two forms, or
like eye color (blue, brown, green, gray,
)?

A. traits
A. genes B. functions
B. variations C. alleles
C. traits D. partners
D. theories 341. the process by which organisms use habi-
tats from among the range of options they
336. If finches with average sized beaks in- encounter
crease in a population while finches with
A. biodiversity
large and small sized beaks decrease,
which pattern of natural selection has oc- B. habitat
curred? C. extinction
A. Directional selection D. habitat use
B. Disruptive selection 342. How is genetic drift different from natu-
C. Stabilizing selection ral selection?
A. Genetic drift prevents natural selec-
D. Sexual Selection
tion.
337. Microevolution of a population is charac- B. Genetic drift occurs by chance alone.
terized by C. Genetic drift only occurs in marine
A. stable allele frequencies. species.
B. changing allele frequencies. D. Genetic drift is a method used for

breeding.
C. stable phenotype frequencies.
343. When individuals at the upper and lower
D. changing phenotype frequencies. ends of the curve have higher fitness than
individuals near the middle, selection
338. Extra Credit:On your answer sheet de-
takes place.
scribe the dumbest conversation you have
overheard recently. A. directional
A. Put B. stablizing
C. singular
B. your answer
D. disruptive
C. on the
344. When individuals near the center of the
D. Answersheet
curve have higher fitness than individuals
at either end of the curve, selection
339. species with broad niches
takes place.
A. biotic factors
A. directional
B. emmigration B. stablizing
C. specialists C. singular
D. generalists D. disruptive

9.7 Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium 1420
345. The numbers of times an allele occurs in A. Divergent Evolution

a gene pool, compared to the number of B. Convergent Evolution
times other alleles for the same gene oc-
cur, explains which of the following? C. Gene Pool
A. relative family members D. Gene Flow
B. relative functions 350. Traits controlled by more than one gene
C. relative fractions are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. relative frequency A. epigenetic.
346. Passing of genes between individuals B. single-gene traits.

OTHER than from parents to offspring is C. polygenic.
called D. caused by founder effect.
A. gene flow.
351. structures are reduced in size or func-
B. Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium.
tion.
C. allelic frequency.
A. vestigial
D. lateral gene transfer.
B. homologous
347. a description of how individuals are dis- C. cladistic
tributed with respect to one another
D. phylogenic
A. population size
B. population distribution 352. What does speciation mean?
C. population ecology A. the formation of a new allele
D. population density B. the formation of a new species

C. the formation of a new animal
348. The normal shuffling of alleles during
meiosis results in D. the formation of a new gene
A. mutations 353. Two birds with different courtship dances
B. hybridization show
C. reproduction A. behavioral isolation.
D. recombination B. geographical isolation.
349. Evolution toward similar characteristics C. temporal isolation.

in unrelated species D. postzygotic barriers.
9.7 Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium

1. Random evolutionary changes in a small B. natural selection
breeding population resulting from random C. mutations
changes in gene frequencies are referred to
as D. genetic drift
A. gene flow 2. What part of the Hardy Weinberg formula

is used to determine the allele frequency of 7. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p repre-

homozygous dominant genotypes (AA)? sents

A. p2 A. the frequency of the dominant allele
B. 2pq B. the frequency of the recessive allele
C. q2 C. the frequency of homozygous domi-
nant individuals
D. none of above
D. the frequency of homozygous reces-
3. Which Hardy-Weinberg equation repre- sive individuals
sents the allele frequencies in a popula-
tion? 8. Hardy Weinberg states the idea of
A. p + q = 1 A. Population genetics
B. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 B. Population habitat
C. p2 + pq2 + q2 = 1 C. Population food resources
D. p + 2pq + q3 = 1 D. Population predators
9. A bird that can easily outcompete other

4. In a population of humans, the frequency
birds for food and that can produce many
of no dimples is 0.36. If having no dimples
eggs has a high
is the recessive phenotype, which variable
do you now have? A. IQ
A. p B. mutation rate
B. p2 C. fitness
C. q D. adaptability
D. q2 10. How many chromosomes are in a human
somatic cell?
5. In order for a recessive X-linked trait to
appear in a female, she must inherit a re- A. 46
cessive allele from B. 23
A. Neither parents C. 52
B. Both parents D. 26
C. Only her father 11. Which of the following are true about pop-
D. Only her mother ulation genetics?
A. Describes the frequency of alleles and
6. If 49 out of 100 individuals in a population
genotypes for the entire population
express the recessive phenotype, 49/100
or 0.49 would represent B. Artificial breeding is by selective cross-
ing
A. p
C. Frequency for allele and genotype is
B. p2
dependent on dominance and recessive-
C. q ness of alleles?
D. q2 D. none of above

12. A randomly selected group from a family 17. There are three different genotypes result-
would show more genetic variation than a ing from a monohybrid self cross. How
randomly selected group from a many different genotypes would there be
from a dihybrid self cross?
A. genus
A. 4
B. class
B. 8
C. kingdom
C. 10
D. domain
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 16
13. The population of peppered moths in Eng-
18. What percentage of the offspring are ho-
land changed from white to black in 50
mozygous recessive when you cross two
years
heterozygotes for a trait?
A. stabilizing selection
A. 25%
B. sexual selection
B. 50%
C. directional selection C. 75%
D. disruptive selection D. 100%
14. All of the following should be used to con- 19. What do you call all of the alleles in a pop-
struct evolutionary trees EXCEPT ulation?
A. DNA sequencing comparison A. Gene pool
B. morphological similarities and differ- B. Relative Frequency
ences C. Genetic Drift
C. physical relationsips D. Allele pool
D. fossil records
20. Female water frogs tend to be attracted to
15. While performing an experiment, it is im- the males with the loudest and most dis-
portant to: tinctive mating call. This is an example of
A. change the control setup A. natural selection

B. gene flow
B. test many different variables at the
same time C. genetic drift
C. reach a conclusion D. sexual selection
D. record observations and measure- 21. In a cross of a round hybrid pea with a true
ments breeding round parent (Ww x WW), what
genotypic proportions would be observed
16. If the allele frequency of T is 0.3, what is in the offspring?
the frequency of t?
A. Half heterozygous, half homozygous
A. 0.9 dominant
B. 0.09 B. Half round, half wrinkled
C. 0.7 C. All heterozygous
D. 0.49 D. All round

22. Which of these equations represents the 27. What part of the Hardy Weinberg formula
correct Hardy-Weinberg equation for geno- is used to determine the allele frequency of
type frequencies in a population? homozygous recessive genotypes (aa)?

A. p + q = 1 A. p2
B. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 B. 2pq
C. p2 + pq2 + q2 = 1
C. q2
D. p + 2pq + q3 = 1
D. none of above
23. A 1:1 phenotypic ratio in a test cross indi-
cates that 28. T7. If a population has the following geno-
A. the alleles are dominant type frequencies:AA = 0.42, Aa = 0.46,
and aa = 0.12, what are the allele frequen-
B. one parent must have been homozy-
cies?
gous dominant
C. the dominant parent was a heterozy- A. A = 0.42, a = 0.12
gote B. A = 0.6, a = 0.4
D. the alleles segregated randomly C. A = 0.65, a = 0.35
24. what is the process by which more favor- D. A = 0.84, a = 0.24
able adaptations become more common?
A. evolution 29. In H-W Equilibrium, what is p?
B. natural selection A. hilarious genotype
C. lamarkism B. heterozygous genotype
D. convergence C. the homozygous recessive genotype
25. A few deer wander out of their native D. the homozygous dominant genotype
woods into a completely new park where
no deer had ever been before. They go on 30. X-linked recessive disorders are more
to create an entirely new population. This likely to affect which gender?
is an example of-
A. Males
A. Gene Flow
B. Females
C. Genetic Drift C. Both Equally
D. Mutation D. No one can have the disorder
26. Some traits are byproducts of other ma- 31. If the recessive allele has a frequency of
jor adaptations. For example, in order for 0.75 what is the frequency of the domi-
birds to better fly they have nant allele?
A. heavier, solid bones
A. p= 0.75
B. only one ovary and kidney instead of 2
B. q = 0.75
C. large and round bodies C. p= 0.25

D. to ingest large amounts of red bull D. q= 0.25

32. If the frequency of recessive allele is 0.2, B. stabilizing selection

what is the frequency of the homozygous C. genetic equilibrium
recessive individuals?
D. genetic drift
A. 0.04
B. 0.16 38. If the dominant allele has a frequency of
0.6 what is the frequency of the recessive
C. 0.4
allele?
D. 0.8
A. p= 0.4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
33. Genetic drift affects these populations B. q = 0.4
more significantly
C. p= 0.6
A. small populations
D. q= 0.6
B. large populations
39. If the frequency of two alleles in a gene
C. all populations equally
pool is 90% A and 10% a, what is the
D. large and small populations the same frequency of individuals in the population
with the genotype Aa?
34. What genotype is present most among the
progeny (F2) of a dihybrid cross (AaBb x A. 0.81
AaBb)? B. o.09
A. AaBb C. 0.18
B. AAbb D. 1.01
C. aaBB
40. Which of the following is likely due to sex-
D. AABB ual selection?
35. What is a population? A. Camoflauge
A. all of the individuals in a species B. Bright coloration in males
B. a group of localized organisms C. Bright coloration in both sexes
C. a group of localized organisms that D. Mimicry
can mate and produce FERTILE young
41. Population genetics and synthetic theory
D. groups of species living in the same
of evolution were developed mostly in the
area
century.
36. The source of all new alleles is A. 18th
A. gene flow B. 19th
B. natural selection C. 20th
C. mutations D. 21st
D. genetic drift
42. If 81% of the population is homozygous
37. Mutations, crossing-over, genetic recom- recessive for a given trait, what is the
bination, and random fertilization are all predicted frequency of homozygous dom-
sources of inant?
A. genetic variation A. .81

B. .9 A. Controlled Variable
C. .1 B. Dependent Variable

D. none of the above C. Independent Variable
43. Crossing over occurs in which phase of D. System Variable

meiosis? 48. The allele frequency of p=.20 What is the
A. Metaphase 1 percentage of Heterozygous genotype?
B. Metaphase 2 A. .80
C. Prophase 1 B. .04
D. Prophase 2 C. .32
D. .64
44. If undisturbed by other forces, random
sexual reproduction among members of a 49. The allele frequency of p=.20 What is q?
large population in nature leads to
A. .80
A. changes in gene frequencies B. .04
B. generations of unchanged gene fre- C. .32
quencies
D. .64
C. new traits
D. a change in the frequencies of 2pq, but 50. If there are 10 people and 5 of the have
not p2 or q2 black hair (Bb) and 5 have blonde hair (bb).
What is the frequency of b?
45. What does the Hardy-Weinberg equation A. 0.5
measure?
B. 0.25
A. changes in allele frequencies
C. 0.75
B. numbers of mutations
D. 0.09
C. goodness of fit
51. of the population has the recessive pheno-
D. genetic diversity
type. What is the frequency of the reces-
46. “If the forest is clear-cut (cutting down all sive genotype?
the trees in an area of forest), then it will A. .04
result in drier soils because there will not
B. .32
be any trees to protect the soil from sun-
light” is an example of: C. .64
A. A theory D. .2
B. A hypothesis 52. If there are 100 people, 50 of them are Tt,
C. A conclusion 30 of them are TT and 20 of them are tt,
what are the p and q frequencies?
D. An analysis
A. p=0.55 q=0.45
47. Which of the following is the factor that re- B. p=0.30 q=0.70
searchers manipulate so that it is the only
factor allowed to vary systematically in an C. p=0.7 q=0.3
experiment? D. p=0.45 q=0.55

53. Traits shaped by sexual selection 58. Which of the following conditions can re-
A. improve males ability to survive sult in evolution in a population?
B. involve heritable preferences in mates A. all mating is totally random.

for males B. mutation is not occurring.
C. improve reproduction more than they C. natural selection is not occurring.
hurt survival D. none of the above
D. tend to show up in females more
NARAYAN CHANGDER
59. Which of the following is not a condition
54. If XB = normal vision and Xb = colour blind, that needs to be met in order for a popula-
what are the chances of a colour blind fe- tion to be in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?
male having a colour blind son if she has A. No Natural Selection
children with a man with normal vision?
B. No Gene Flow
A. 100%
C. No Sexual Selection
B. 75%
D. No Death or Reproduction
C. 50%
D. 0% 60. A population of 150 individuals has an
allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant
55. A few deer in a small population are killed allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for
by hunters. Both of these deer carry a rare the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-
recessive allele. Allele frequencies in the Weinberg equation to determine the fre-
population change as a result. This is an quency of the heterozygotes in the popu-
example of: lation.
A. Genetic drift A. 0.09
B. Sexual selection B. 0.42
C. Non-random mating C. 0.49
D. Mutation D. 0.21
56. Who came up with the theory of Natural 61. If there are 10 people, 5 of them have Bb,
Selection? 3 of them have BB and 2 of the have bb,
A. Lamark what is the frequency for p and q?
B. Darwin A. p= 0.55 q=0.45
C. Watson and Crick B. p=0.5 q=0.6
D. Goodall C. p=0.3 q= 0.7

D. p=0.25 q=0.75
57. In a diploid species, each individual pos-
sesses 62. What does p represent in a population?
A. all the alleles found in the gene pool A. dominant allele
B. three or more alleles for each locus B. recessive allele
C. two alleles for each locus C. no mutation
D. one allele for each locus D. mutation

63. Which of the following is the equation that 68. The allele frequency of p = 0.20.What is
you would use for Hardy-Weinberg? q?
A. .80

A. p + 2q = 1
B. 2p + 2q = 1 B. .04
C. 2p + q = 1 C. .32
D. p + q = 1 D. .64
64. In nature, we tend to find Hardy Weinberg 69. What do you call the total number of genes
equilibrium in a population?
A. Gene pool
A. all over
B. Relative Frequency
B. only in ideal tropical locations
C. Genetic Drift
C. only in very isolated places like islands
D. Allele pool
D. nowhere 70. “The sum total of the genetically inherited
changes in the individuals who are mem-
65. A population of 150 individuals has an bers of a population” is a description of:
allele frequency of 0.6 for the recessive
A. genetic drift
allele.Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation
to determine the homozygous dominant B. non-random mating
genoptype frequency. C. evolution
A. 0.09 D. none of above
B. 0.36 71. of the population has the recessive pheno-
C. 0.49 type. What is the allele frequency for p?
D. 0.16 A. .04
B. .32
66. What evidence of evolution? Kangoaroos
are found only in Australia. C. .2
A. comparative embryology D. .8
B. comparative anatomy 72. An allele is
C. comparative biochemistry A. one of the bases of DNA
D. geographic distribution B. an alternative form of a gene
C. responsible for sex determination
67. If the frequency of dominant phenotype
is 0.36, what is the frequency of the D. found in mitochondria but not nucleus
dominant allele? Remember if the domi- 73. Which of the following is NOT an example
nant phenotype is 0.36, figure out the fre- of a mechanism to preserve variations in
quency of the homozygous recessive first. a population?
A. 0.2 A. asexual reproduction
B. 0.48 B. outbreeding
C. 0.6 C. balanced polymorphism
D. 0.8 D. north-south clines

74. What evidence of evolution? Giraffes 79. How are mutations a mechanism for evo-
have the same number of vertebrae in the lution?
neck as do humans?
A. They allow a species to decide to
A. comparative anatomy change their DNA and change their allele
B. comparative biochemistry frequency
C. comparative embryology B. They are a random change in the DNA

of a species that changes their allele fre-
D. geographic distribution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
quency
75. Which of these are a mechanisms (causes) C. Mutations are not real.
of microevolution (changes in allele fre-
quencies)? D. none of above
A. gene flow 80. T7. Within a population of 500 butterflies,

B. genetic drift the color purple is dominant over the color
white. 200 of the butterflies are white.
What is the frequency of homozygous dom-
D. all answers are correct inant individuals? Give your answer as a
decimal to the nearest hundredth.
76. If the value of Q is o.4, what should be the
value of P? A. .40
A. 0.6 B. .36
B. 0.8 C. .16
C. 0.5 D. .60
D. 0.4
81. What evidence of evolution? Human em-
77. Genetic drift is more likely to be extremely bryos have tails
impactful and change the allele frequencies A. comparative embryology
in a population-
B. comparative anatomy
B. In which natural selection is occurring C. comparative biochemistry
D. geographic distribution
C. That is very small
82. The wing of a bat and a humans’ arm have
D. For which environmental conditions different functions and appear very differ-
are changing ent. Yet, the underlying anatomy is basi-
cally the same. therefore, these structures
78. of the population has the recessive pheno-
are examples of
type. What is the frequency for Rr?
A. .04 A. geographic isolation
B. .32 B. analogous structures

C. .64 C. homology
D. .2 D. reproductive isolation

83. PKU (phenylketonuria) is due to a reces- 87. If the frequency of dominant phenotype is
sive allele. Which term in the Hardy- 0.36, what is the frequency of the domi-
Weinberg equation (p2+2pq+q2 = 1) cor- nant allele?

responds to the frequency of individuals A. 0.2
who have no alleles for PKU?
B. 0.48
A. q2
C. 0.6
B. p2
D. 0.8
C. 2pq
88. A population of 150 individuals has an al-
D. p2 + 2pq lele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant al-
lele. Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation
84. If the frequencies are as follows in a popu- to determine the recessive genoptype fre-
lation with a total size of 150:(BB)=0.16, quency.
(Bb)=0.48, and (bb)=0.36, determine the
expected numbers of organisms with geno- A. 0.09
type BB. B. 0.42
A. 24 C. 0.49
B. 72 D. 0.21
C. 54 89. T7. What does the variable q represent?
D. 150 A. Frequency of the heterozygote geno-
type
85. When organisms are better adapted to B. Frequency of the homozygous reces-
their environment they will survive and re- sive genotype
produce more successfully than organisms
less adapted. This process is called what? C. The frequency of the recessive allele
A. Genetic drift D. The frequency of the dominant allele
B. Natural selection 90. A population of 150 individuals has an al-

lele frequency of 0.7 for the recessive al-
C. Cloning
lele. Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to
D. Gene flow determine the heterozygous genotype fre-
quency.
86. In pea plant, tall (T) is dominant over A. 0.09
dwarf (t) and yellow (Y) is dominant over
green (g). In a test cross of true-breeding B. 0.42
tall, yellow plant and dwarf, green plant, C. 0.49
what proportion of the progenies are tall
D. 0.21
with yellow peas?
A. 0% 91. Genetic drift will have the greatest impact
on a population:
B. 25%
C. 50%
B. In which natural selection is occurring
D. 100%

C. That is very small C. family

D. For which environmental conditions D. domain
are changing
97. Cystic fibrosis is a recessive condition that
92. If you were testing how well different dish affects about 1 in 2, 500 babies in the Cau-
soap cleaned grease, the independent (ex- casian population of the US. Calculate the
perimental) variable would be the: frequency of carriers (heterozygous indi-
viduals) in the U.S. population.
A. Dishes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. .02
B. Water
B. .98
C. Dish Soap
C. 4x10-4
D. Type of Grease
D. .0392
93. In a population with two alleles, B and b,
98. Group of organisms capable of interbreed-
the allele frequency of b=0.4. What would
ing and producing fertile offspring.
be the frequency of heterozygotes if the
population is at equilibrium? A. species
A. 0.16 B. gene pool
B. 0.24 C. population
C. 0.48 D. homologous structure
D. 0.6 99. Evolution = change in over time

A. Theories
94. If we were to look at rabbits, we could
see evolution occur in a B. Ecosystems
A. population of rabbits C. Allele frequencies
B. rabbit species D. Individuals
C. rabbit fossil 100. The frequency of a rare disorder ex-

pressed as an autosomal recessive trait is
D. individual rabbit
0.0064. Using the Hardy-Weinberg law,
95. If a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equi- determine the frequency of carriers for the
librium, then disease in this population
A. It is not evolving A. 0.0127
B. Mutations and selective mating have B. 0.080
been taking place C. 0.147
C. The frequency of alleles has been fluc- D. 0.920
tuating
101. of the population has the recessive phe-
D. Selective pressure is causing specia- notype. What is the frequency of the het-
tion happen erogeneous genotype?
96. Which of the following is the LEAST inclu- A. .04
sive? B. .32
A. kingdom C. .64
B. species D. .2

102. Which is a mechanism for change in allele 107. In an experiment, the variable that is be-
frequency or an evolutionary force? ing measured is referred to as the

A. genetic drift A. Controlled Variable
B. nonrandom mating B. Measured Variable
C. natural selection C. Dependent Variable
D. all of the above D. Independent Variable
103. Yellow toucan birds seek out one another 108. If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink
to make babies together and tend to avoid flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve for
the green toucan birds. This is an example the frequency of the recessive allele.
of A. 0.28
A. Genetic Drift B. 0.14
B. Non-random mating C. 0.38
C. Gene flow D. 0.42
D. Mutation 109. T7. A population of 150 individuals has
an allele frequency of 0.3 for the domi-
104. Flower colour of snapdragons is an ex-
nant allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for
ample of incomplete dominance. If a
the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-
pink (CrCw) plant is crossed with a white
Weinberg equation to determine f(Bb).
(CwCw) plant, their progeny plants will
be: A. 0.09
A. 100% pink B. 0.42
B. 50% pink, 50% white C. 0.49
C. 25% red, 25% pink, 25% white D. 0.21
D. 25% white, 75% red 110. Which Hardy-Weinberg equation repre-
sents the dominant and recessive allele fre-
105. Evolution occurs over time because of quencies in a population?
changes to
A. p + q = 1
A. phenotype in the gene pool
B. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
B. Allele number in the gene pool
C. p2 + pq2 + q2 = 1
C. Allele frequency in the gene pool
D. p + 2pq + q3 = 1
D. Genie Population in the genie pool
111. Cyanobacteria were important in the ori-
106. Which of these is a condition that must gin of life on earth because they were able
be met for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? to undergo and produce
A. extremely small population size A. photosynthesis, oxygen
B. no natural selection B. photosynthesis, nitrogen
C. gene flow C. cellular respiration, oxygen
D. nonrandom mating D. cellular respiration, ATP

112. What part of the Hardy Weinberg for- 117. If the actual alleles do not match up with
mula is used to determine the allele fre- the allele frequency predicted by Hardy
quency of heterozygous genotypes (Aa)? Weinberg, what is happening?
A. p2 A. mutation
B. 2pq B. migration
C. q2 C. evolution
D. none of above D. natural selection
NARAYAN CHANGDER
113. When organisms choose their mates 118. There are 10 people, 2 of them have BB,
based on certain traits or behaviors (that 7 of them have Bb. What is the frequency
are not necessarily beneficial for the envi- for b?
ronment where they live), this is called
A. 0.65
A. sexual selection
B. 0.5
C. 0.75
C. genetic drift
D. 0.45
D. gene flow
119. A wild type is:
114. A population’s recessive allele frequency
is 25%.What is the frequency of the ho- A. the dominant allele
mozygous dominant genotype? B. the phenotype most commonly found
A. .5625 in nature
B. .3750 C. a trait found on the X chromosome
C. .0625 D. a codominant allele
D. .25
120. Any difference between organisms of the
115. The allele frequency of p = 0.20.What is same species
the frequency of the heterozygous domi- A. Homologous Structure
nant genotype?
B. Radioactive Dating
A. .80
C. Mutation
B. .04
D. Variation
C. .32
D. .64 121. An inherited characteristic that increases
an organism’s ability to survive and repro-
116. If the allele frequency of g is 0.91, what duce in its specific environment is called
is the allele frequency of G? a/an
A. 0.09 A. vestigial structure
B. 0.3 B. adaptation
C. not possible C. speciation
D. 8 D. analagous structure

122. Two species are in different environ- 127. Godfrey Hardy and Wilhelm Weinberg
ments and look very similar however, they concluded that gene pool frequencies are:
are not closely related. Their resemblance

A. inherently stable
is most likely an example of
B. inherently unstable
A. sexual selection
C. impossible to determine since we can
B. temporal isolation only observe phenotypes and not geno-
C. convergent evolution types
D. divergent evolution D. none of above
128. Genetic drift is associated with popula-

123. The AB blood type is an example of
tions
A. codominance
A. that have a low mutation rate
B. incomplete dominance B. in which natural selection is occurring
C. mutation
D. multiple allele C. that are very small
D. that are experiencing changes in their
124. When scientists use DNA to study evolu- environment
tion, what type of evidence for evolution
is this? 129. In a cross that follows a single trait, if
a homozygous dominant is crossed with
A. comparative anatomy
a heterozygote for a given trait, the off-
B. embryology spring would be
C. fossil record A. all of dominant phenotype
D. molecular B. a quarter of them with recessive phe-
notype
125. The study of where organisms live now
C. all homozygous dominant
and where they and their ancestor lived in
the past is called D. all homozygous recessive
A. biography 130. A population that fulfils all of Hardy-
B. geology Weinberg assumptions are said to be in
C. biogeography
A. progression
D. geography
B. evolution
126. If there are 25 people and 5 of them are C. imbalance
tt, 10 of them are Tt, and 10 of them are D. equilibrium
TT, what is the frequency for TT?
A. 0.2 131. The genetic description of an individual is
its genotype, whereas the genetic descrip-
B. 0.5 tion of a population is its
C. 0.4 A. phenotype
D. 0.1 B. gene pool

C. genetic drift 137. Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents

individuals expressing the dominant phe-
D. changes in allele frequencies
notype in a population?
132. Population geneticists now usually think A. p2
of evolution as being genetic changes in: B. 2pq
A. individuals C. q2
B. populations D. p2 + 2pq
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A and B 138. In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg
D. none of the above equilibrium, the frequency of the homozy-
gous recessive genotype is 0.25. What is
133. What does the variable p equal? the frequency of being heterozygous dom-
inant?
A. frequency of recessive allele
A. 0.5
B. frequency of dominant allele
B. 0.75
C. frequency of heterozygous
C. .25
D. frequency of homozygous dominant
D. 0.0625
134. If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink 139. Cystic fibrosis is a recessive condition
flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve for that affects about 1 in 2, 500 babies in
the frequency of the dominant allele. the Caucasian population of the US. Calcu-
A. 0.76 late the frequency of carriers in the U.S.
population.
B. 0.86
A. .98
C. 0.57
B. .06
D. 0.71
C. .02
135. Which is a mechanism for microevolution D. .04
(changes in allele frequencies?
140. If a population is suffering from genetic
A. gene flow drift, which of the Hardy-Weinberg condi-
B. genetic drift tions is not being met?
C. natural selection A. no gene flow
D. all answers are correct B. random mating

C. extremely large population size
136. The number of times, an allele occurs in a D. no mutations
gene pool.
A. Gene frequency 141. The allele frequency of p = 0.20.What
is the percentage of the recessive geno-
B. Allele frequency type?
C. Allele number A. 80%
D. Gene Population B. 4%

C. 32% B. Decrease
D. 64% C. Stabilize

142. The synthetic theory of evolution is D. Exaggerate
based at least in part on: 147. When allele frequencies in a population
A. a rejection of mutation as a source of change as a result of random events
evolution. or chance (and causes the population to
B. an acceptance of natural selection as shrink), this is called
a cause of evolution. A. immigration
C. a rejection of population genetics. B. genetic drift
D. B and C C. gene flow
D. sexual selection
143. A population’s recessive allele frequency
25%. What is the frequency of the het- 148. If there are 400 red flowers, 200 pink
erozygous genotype? flowers, and 100 white flowers. Solve
A. .5625 for the frequency of the dominant allele.
In situations in which there is no official
B. .3750
dominant/recessive, choose one to repre-
C. .0625 sent the recessive and in this case, choose
D. .25 white.
A. 0.76
144. In a population of cats, short hair is dom-
inant to long hair. If 16 percent of a B. 0.86
breeder’s cats have long hair, what is the C. 0.57
frequency of the recessive allele (q )?
D. 0.62
A. 0.16
149. In a population of cats, short hair is dom-
B. 0.84
inant to long hair. If 16% of a breeder’s
C. 0.4 cats have short hair, what is the frequency
D. 0.8 of the recessive allele?
A. 0.08
145. In a randomly breeding population, 16%
of them carry recessive trait. Assuming C B. .4
is dominant over c, what percent are the C. 0.6
carrier individuals?
D. .92
A. 36%
150. In a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg
B. 48% equilibrium, the frequency of the homozy-
C. 63% gous recessive genotype is 0.25. What is
D. 84% the allele frequency of A or p?
A. 0.5
146. According to Genetic drift (bottleneck or
founder) tends to genetic variation (di- B. 0.75
versity). C. .25
A. Increase D. 0.0625

9.8 Patterns of Evolution 1436
151. Which of the following is the equation B. Genetic drift

that you use for Hardy-Weinberg equilib-
C. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
rium?
A. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 D. none of above
B. p2 + q2 = 1
153. What are the possible blood types of an
C. p3 + q3 = 1 offspring from a type A mother and a type
D. p3 + 3pq + q3 = 1 AB father?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
152. “Changes in the allele frequency within A. A, B, AB and O
a population can occur due to random en- B. A, B and AB
vironmental events “ is the definition of
C. A and B
A. Mutations D. A only
9.8 Patterns of Evolution

1. Results in homologous structures like the C. Homologous Structure
arm bones of humans and cats. D. Vestigial Structure
A. Convergent evolution
5. What type of reproductive barrier sepa-
B. Divergent evolution rates species because one mates at dawn
C. Coevolution and the other at dusk?
D. none of above A. Habitat Isolation
2. Parts or traces of an ancient organism pre- B. Behavioral Isolation

served in rock are known as C. Temporal Isolation
A. fossil D. Embryo Isolation
B. amber 6. T12. Robins typically lay fours eggs. If
C. rocks more then four eggs are produced then
D. K-T boundary the baby chicks are malnourished while
smaller egg numbers result in no viable
3. Which of these is an example of a vestigial (able to live) baby chicks. This is an ex-
structure? ample of
A. Flipper of a whale A. stabalizing
B. Pelvic bones of a whale B. disruptive
C. The blowhole C. direction
D. Sonar ability D. none of the above
4. Bats, whales and gorillas having the same 7. Which type of evolution occurs in rapid
bones in their forelimbs is an example of.. bursts of time?
A. Trait A. extinction
B. Adaptation B. divergent evolution

C. convergent evolution C. Coevolution

D. punctuated equilibrium D. none of above

8. Slow change over timeHINT:Snakes 13. Hummingbirds have a beak just the right
slowly evolved from reptiles with shorter length to reach the nectar in the long car-
and shorter legs dinal flower. The cardinal flower’s pollen
A. Gradualism tube is just the right length for the hum-
mingbird to pick up pollen as it feeds.
B. Punctuated Gradualism
A. Convergent Evolution
C. Adaptive radiation
B. Divergent Evolution
D. Convergent Evolution
C. Coevolution
9. Humans are causing extiction in which D. none of above
ways?
14. Ostriches (birds) and giraffes (mammals)
A. By over hunting animals for food or
are both native to the savannahs of Africa.
products.
They eat food that is high off the ground
B. By destroying the natural habitat of and share the same characteristic of an
species. elongated neck.
C. By polluting the environments of the A. Convergent Evolution
world.
C. Coevolution
10. This kind of extinction is normal and is bal- D. none of above
anced out by the speciation rate
15. The beaver in North America and the capy-
A. Background extinction
bara in South America share a common an-
B. Planned extinction cestor, but have evolved over time to look
C. Mass extinction different. What type of evolution is this?
D. none of above A. convergent evolution
11. Slow changes over a long period of time.
C. extinction
A. Gradualism
D. coevolution
B. Extinction
C. Coevolution 16. T9. Which process allows for the evolution
of finches over time?
D. Convergent evolution
12. A form of evolution where two separate B. asexual reproduction
populations of the same species accumu-
lates enough differences over time to be- C. selective breeding
come two distinct species, becoming more D. ecological succession
and more dissimilar.
17. Which of the following is a proven fact by
A. Divergent Evolution scientists that may be altered with new in-
B. Convergent Evolution formation?

A. prediction C. speciation
B. hypothesis D. coevolution
C. scientific theory 23. T9. Evolution can occur at different rates;
D. law however, for evolution to occur, there
must be:
18. What is the process of many different
species evolving from a few called? A. variations within a species
B. extinction of the species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Adaptive radiation
B. Convergent evolution C. asexual reproduction
C. Punctuated evolution D. no change in the genes of an organism
D. Coevolution 24. Process where new species diverge in the

same geographical area due to different
19. Porpoise flippers, human arms, bat wings selection pressures
and elephat’s leg are different outwardly
but have similar form internally. This A. Evolution
shows they have B. Sympatric speciation
A. common ancestory C. Polyploidy
B. common eating behaviour D. Allopatric speciation
C. common habitat 25. Reproductive isolating mechanism (RIM)
D. all of the above that acts to prevent fertilization of egg by
sperm.
20. T9. When the DNA of an organism is al-
tered it is referred to as A. Prezygotic
A. Mutation B. Postzygotic
B. Gene Flow C. Premating
C. Genetic Drift D. Postmating
D. Sexual Selection 26. Changes over time in the allele frequencies

in a population (below species level)
21. In order to have a wide range of pheno-
types, a population must also have A. microevolution
A. competition for scarce resources. B. macroevolution
B. genetic variation. C. Gradualism
C. environmental stability. D. Punctuated Equilibrium
D. a very ancient population. 27. The Tasmanian devil is a marsupial that re-
sembles the North America wolf, which is
22. Other insects can not, but, a bumble bee a placental mammal.
has just enough weight to open up the
snapdragon flower and pollinate. This A. adaptive radiation
adaption is B. divergent evolution
A. convergent evolution C. founder effect
B. Divergent evolution D. convergent evolution

28. Every few hundred million years, some- 33. Cause of polyploidy
thing dramatic happens that affects
A. Mutation
species on a global scale resulting in a

loss of many species quickly B. Fetilisation
A. Macroevolutionary Extinction C. Non-disjunction
B. Background Extinction D. Meiosis
C. Mass Extinction 34. When two species share a common ances-
D. Adaptive Extinction tor but they develop different traits to live
in different environments.
29. Two species are closely related but have
become increasingly different through A. Convergent evolution
A. divergent evolution B. Divergent evolution
B. competitive relationships C. Coevolution
C. convergent evolution D. none of above

D. disruptive selection 35. Ants are the correct size and weight
needed to open the flowers for the peony
30. A salamander evolves a toxin; the snake
plant. The peony plant provides food for
predator evolves resistance; the salaman-
the ant and the ant fertilizes the peony’s
der evolves more toxicity; etc.
flowers. This is an example of
A. Coextinction
B. Coevolutionary arms race
B. Divergent evolution
C. Convergent evolution
C. Coevolution
D. Adaptive radiation
D. none of above
31. A process that results in the doubling of
chromosome number in an otherwise infer- 36. Which of the following is NOT a reason a
tile hybrid. species may become extinct?
A. non-disjunction A. competition
B. Mitosis B. reproducing
C. Disjunction C. habitat loss

D. Meiosis D. overhunting
32. Some organisms that share a common an- 37. Biologists have considered two patterns
cestor have similar body structures with for the rate of evolution:
different functions. The process leading to A. Gradualism and Punctuated gradual-
this outcome is known as ism
A. coevolution B. Gradualism and Spontaneous gradual-
B. convergent evolution ism
C. divergent evolution C. Evolution and Spontaneous evolution
D. artificial selection D. Evolution and Punctuated evolution

38. Which is NOT an example of evolution? 43. Which of the following processes is consid-
ered to be random?
A. Cheetas becoming faster over many
generations A. genetic mutation
B. All species of birds on the Galapagos B. natural selection
Islands descending from a common an- C. adaptive radiation
cestor
D. coevolution
C. Primates developing an opposable
44. Any factor that leads to genetic isolation.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
thumb
May be of various types.
D. A caterpillar turning into a butterfly
A. Meiosis
39. If two organisms are unable to interbreed B. Geographic isolation
and produce fertile offspring, they are con-
C. Reproductive isolating mechanism
sidered to be
D. Allopatric speciation
A. the same species
B. different species 45. Rare, loss of entire species due to a catas-
trophic event.
C. mutated
A. Mass extinction
D. none of above
B. Background extinction
40. Results in a symbiotic relationship like C. Total loss
flowers and their pollinators. D. Speciation
46. Vestigial structures are homologous struc-
B. Divergent evolution tures that are:
C. Coevolution A. Still used
D. none of above B. No longer used
C. Occasionally used
41. Two populations cannot mate with each
other even if they interact with each other. D. none of above
What is this is called?
47. The process by which unrelated organisms
A. temporal isolcation come to resemble one another is known as
B. reproductive isolation what type of evolution
C. behavioral isolation
B. punctuated equilibrium
D. geographic isolation
C. extinction
42. is the process by which populations D. gradualism
change in response to their environment.
48. Organisms that live in similar environ-
ments, such as the ocean, often have simi-
B. adaptation lar adaptations. This is often due to
C. reproductive isolation A. Sexual selection
D. divergence B. Gradualism

C. Coevolution B. imitations
D. Convergent evolution C. mimicry

49. What type of structure shows evolution D. camouflage
when birds, bats, and insects have wings 54. A hummingbird seems to specially de-
even though they don’t share a common signed to feed from a certain plant
ancestor?
A. Divergent
A. Analogous structures
B. Cnvergent
B. Homologous structures
C. Coevolution
C. Identical structures
D. none of above
D. Vestigial structures
55. When two species evolve because of how
50. When individuals of move into or leave a
they influence eath other, which usually
population it is called
results in a symbiotic relationship, this is
A. Mutation called:
B. Gene Flow A. extinction
C. Genetic Drift B. coevolution
D. Sexual Selection C. symbiosis
51. The evolution of an ancestral species into D. mutualism
different species that occupy different
56. What happened after the last mass extinc-
habitats.
tion? (be kind, we are quarantined:)
A. Continents formed into Pangaea
B. coevolution
B. Dinosaurs disappeared
C. speciation
C. Honeybees died off
D. adaptive radiation
D. Mrs. Dodge recorded the events on
52. A bumble bee has just enough weight to her clay tablet.
open up the snapdragon flower and polli-
57. Form of natural selection in which individ-
nate it, while others insects are not able
uals at one end of a distribution (or bell)
to do this. This is an example of
curve survive better than individuals in the
A. convergent evolution middle or at the other end of the curve.
B. co-evolution A. Directional selection
C. divergent evolution B. Disruptive selection
D. speciation C. Gene pool
53. Chameleons are reptiles that have the abil- D. Genetic equilibrium
ity to hide from predators and prey by
blending in with their environment. They 58. Which of the following does NOT increase
can change the pattern and/or color of genetic variation?
their skin. This ability is known as A. Gene flow
A. natural selection B. Crossing over

C. Mutations C. Coevolution
D. Asexual reproduction D. none of above
59. Which of the following concepts is a rela- 64. What is the Best Science class?
tionship between two animals that is so A. Biology
close that the evolution of one species af-
fects the evolution of the other? B. Latin
A. Adaptive Radiation C. Choir
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. AP World History
B. Subevolution
C. Coevolution 65. Ostriches are native to the savannahs of
Africa, while penguins live in the polar re-
gions. Although ostriches and penguins
60. Major transformations in anatomy, phy- are closely-related, they look very differ-
logeny, ecology, and behavior ent.
A. Macroevolutionary Patterns A. sexual selection
B. Evolutionary patterns B. coevolution isolation
C. Coevolution Patterns C. divergent evolution
D. Adaptive Patterns D. convergent evolution
61. Presence of vestigial body parts in organ- 66. Several species of turtles have a common
isms like coccyx in human and leg bones in ancestor but are now different from each
snakes other.
A. challenge prevailing beliefs A. Divergent
B. support idea on evolution B. Convergent

C. Coevolution
C. add up naturalist confusion
D. none of above
D. all of the above
67. The term for the formation of new and dis-
62. Organs of different organisms that have a
tinct species over the course of evolution
similar form due to a common origin are
is
A. speciation
A. Homoplastic
B. Homologous
C. microevolution
C. Vestigial
D. Analogous
68. Darwin’s finches are an example of this
63. The Galapagos finches evolved through pattern of evolution.
natural selection from a common mainland
ancestor into a wide variety of different A. Divergent
looking species. B. Coevolution
A. Convergent Evolution C. Convergent
B. Divergent Evolution D. Artificial

69. Two land birds-the ostrich and the emu- A. adaptations

have developed into fast runners with long B. natural selections
legs due to similar environmental pres-

sures. Oddly, they do not share a recent C. divergence
common ancestor even though they appear D. extinctions
very similar.
74. Which type of evolution shows a common
A. Divergent ancestor?
B. Convergent A. convergent
C. Coevolution B. divergent
D. none of above C. adaptive radiation
70. The condition in which there are barriers to D. both divergent and adaptive radiation
successful interbreeding between individu- 75. The first to propose that the mechanism
als of different species in the same commu- for the evolution of organisms is by natu-
nity is referred to as ral selection was
A. sexual dependency A. Malthus
B. reproductive isolation B. Lamarck
C. geographic isolation C. Darwin
D. adaptive radiation D. Wallace
71. The extinct pterosaurs (reptile) of the 76. Slow and steady small changes that occur
Jurassic period and the modern albatross in a species over time is
(bird) both evolved wings as well as a dis-
A. Gradualism
tinct long beak, but are not derived from
a common ancestor. B. Coevolution
A. Convergent Evolution C. Punctuated equilibrium
B. Divergent Evolution D. Divergent Evolution
C. Coevolution 77. When every member of a species dies, it
D. none of above is called:
A. influenza
72. Ostriches (birds) and giraffes (mammals)
B. epidemic
They eat food that is high off the ground C. extinction
and share the same characteristic of an D. population
elongated neck. This is an example of-
78. Two organisms that have a common an-
cestor but overtime evolved into different
B. Convergent evolution species. What is this called
C. Coevolution A. convergent
D. Hox genes B. divergent
73. enable an organism to survive in its C. coevolution
environment. D. none of above

79. In natural selection, the selective agent is 84. A scientist is examining a newly discov-
the ered species of bird to determine which
A. humans type it is most closely related to. The best
method to determine relatedness is
B. mutations
A. comparative embryology
C. breeders
B. the fossil record
D. environment
C. comparative anatomy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
80. What is an example of a vestigial struc-
D. DNA analysis
ture of a HUMAN?
A. Femur 85. Which type of isolation occurred when a
few finches were blown from the coast of
B. Wisdom Teeth
South America to the Galapagos Islands
C. Brain and then evolved into 14 different finch
D. Finger species?
A. geographical isolation
81. Genes for traits that help an organism be
more successful reproductively can be ex- B. behavioral isolation
pected to C. temporal isolation
A. Cause it to evolve into a new species D. none of above
B. Eventually be eliminated by natural se-
lection 86. The rapid evolution of a group following
its introduction into a new habitat or occu-
C. Cause the extinction of the species pation of newly available niches
D. Become more common in future
A. Coevolution
species
B. microevolution
82. When two or more species sharing a com-
mon ancestor become more different over
time, resulting from adaptations to differ- D. convergent evolution
ent environmental conditions
87. The idea that evolution seems to occur in
A. Divergent evolution spurts of time.
B. Convergent evolution A. stabilizing selection
C. Coevolution B. directional selection
D. Coextinction C. disruptive selection
83. Ostriches (birds) and giraffes (mammals) D. puntuated equilibrium
They share the same characteristic of a 88. The process of formation of new species
very long neck. (best answer)
A. Convergent evolution A. Evolution
B. Reproductive isolation B. Microevolution
C. Divergent evolution C. Macroevolution
D. Coevolution D. Speciation

89. Two species occur on different continents 94. The main idea that drives evolution
but look very similar. They are not closely A. Speciation
related. Their resemblance is most likely

an example of.
C. Adaptations
A. co-evolution
D. Variations
B. adaptive radiation
C. convergent evolution 95. Slow evolutionary changes over a long pe-
riod of time.
D. divergent evolution
90. What is the correct defintion of a species? B. Speciation
A. Same type of organisms living in an C. Divergent evolution
area.
D. Gradualism
B. Same type of organisms that can re-
produce. 96. The process by which better adapted or-
ganisms survive to pass traits along to off-
C. Organisms that can reproduce and fer- spring is
tilize offspring.
A. evolution
D. Organisms that can reproduce and
have fertile offspring.
C. extinction
91. T8. Darwin’s finches is an example of this D. artificial selection
type of evolution.
A. Divergent 97. An example of a physical adaptation is
A. an owl hunting at night
B. Coevolution
B. a rabbit’s large ears
C. Convergent
C. a rabbit burrowing underground
D. Artificial
D. a viper biting when threatened
92. New biological species made by the divi-
sion of a single species into many geneti- 98. An example of a behavioral adaptation is
cally different ones based on the adaption A. a penguin’s webbed feet
to many different environments is B. penguins huddling together for
A. Adaptive radiation warmth
B. Behavioral isolation C. a camel’s hump used to store water
C. Directional selection D. a polar bear’s white fur used for cam-
ouflage
D. Disruptive selection
99. When individual or a few species go ex-
93. Genetic Diversity is ULTIMATELY the result tinct due to local changes that they fail to
of: adapt to this is called
A. mutations A. Macroevolutionary Extinction
B. meiosis B. Background Extinction
C. migration C. Mass Extinction
D. viruses D. Adaptive Extinction

100. Which of the following ideas proposed by C. Sympartic

Lamarck was later found to be incorrect? D. Allopatric
A. Acquired characteristics can be inher-
105. Results in analogous structures like the
ited
flippers of whales and fins of sharks.
B. All species are descended from other A. Convergent evolution
species
C. Living things change over time
C. Coevolution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. There is a relationship between an or-
D. none of above
ganism and its environment
106. Which of the following processes is a new
101. A unique rock layer that marks an abrupt species formed by a physical barrier sepa-
transistion in the fossil record which im- rating a single population into two popula-
plies a mass extincion worldwide 65.5 mil- tions?
lion years ago.
A. Coevolution
A. K-T boundary
B. Allopatric Speciation
B. Evolution C. Adaptive Radiaiton
C. Indexed Fossil D. Bottleneck
D. Homoplasty
107. The differences in sparrow songs among
102. When two species do not share a common sympatric species of sparrows are exam-
ancestor but develop similar traits to live ples of
in a similar environment. A. geographic isolation
A. Convergent evolution B. convergent evolution
B. Divergent evolution C. behavioral isolation
C. Coevolution D. mechanical isolation
D. none of above 108. The process that produces a similar phe-
notype among unrelated groups of organ-
103. What type of evolution where there is a isms is
sudden, rapid change then no change for a
A. adaptive radiation
long time?
B. convergent evolution
A. Co-Evolution
C. mass extinction
B. Punctuated Equilibrium
D. coevolution
C. Divergent Evolution
109. A bumble bee has just enough weight to
D. Convergent Evolution open up the snapdragon flower and get the
104. Process of speciation-new species di- nectar/pollen inside. Other insects cannot
verging in geographically separated areas do this. What type of evolution is this?
where gene flow was prevented by geo- A. convergent evolution
graphic barriers B. coevolution
A. Evolution C. divergent evolution
B. Polyploidy D. speciation

110. Evolution can be defined as a 115. Sharks and dolphins both have stream-
A. change in the frequency of an allele in lined bodies that allow them to move
through water efficiently but they do not

a population over time
share a recent common ancestor. This is
B. change in the frequency of reproduc- an example of which type of evolution?
tion in a population
A. Divergent
C. change in the frequency of an allele in
an individual B. Coevolution
D. none of above C. Convergent
D. Artificial
111. A certain population of flowers only re-
produces in the winter. A neighboring
116. What adaptation makes the most sense
species only reproduces in the fall. This
for living in a cold snowy area?
is an example of:
A. gills
A. Temporal Isolation
B. colorful wings
B. Habitat Isolation
C. Mechanical Isolation C. white fur
D. Gametic Isolation D. striped skin
112. Protecting biodiversity aids in 117. What happens in divergent evolution?

A. Making more food available A. organisms become more similar
B. Making more medicines available B. organisms become less similar
C. Making it easier to discover new prod- C. species become more related
ucts
D. adaptive radiation always occurs
D. All of these answers are true
118. An anatomical feature that no longer
113. Which type of speciation occurred when seems to have a purpose in its current
finches living in different habitats on the form.
same island in the Galapagos stopped mat-
ing with each other because they were un- A. homologous structure
able to understand each other’s songs? B. analogous structure
A. geographical isolation C. vestigial structure
B. behavioral isolation D. embryologic structure
119. Sharks and dolphins are not related but
D. none of above
share some structures that have similar
114. Elimination of a species. functions.
A. Extinction A. Divergent
B. Gradualism B. Convergent
C. Coevolution C. Coevolution
D. Adaptive radiation D. none of above

120. Humans built a 6-lane highway that B. Divergent

separated two populations of field mice.
C. Coevolution
There is enough distance between the two
groups, that they will never meet in nature D. none of above
again. What type of reproductive isolation
is this? 125. What is a mass extinction?
A. behavioral isolation A. When all the species in a particular
B. temporal isolation area on earth suddenly go extinct
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. geographic isolation B. When multiple species from all over
D. none of above the earth suddenly go extinct
121. A difference of chemical scents used for C. When one species goes extinct due to
mating between two populations is an ex- habitat changes
ample of what kind of isolation? D. When all life on earth is wiped out
A. temporal
126. Which of the following processes leads to
B. behavioral
many new types of organisms?
C. geographic
A. Coevolution
D. disruptive
B. Allopatric Speciation
122. Whales, sharks, and penguins all have
streamlined bodies and fins/flippers for C. Adaptive Radiation
moving in water even though they belong D. Founder Effect
in different classes of animals (mammals,
fish, and birds) 127. Sometimes natural selection can lead to a
A. Convergent process that creates a new species. What
is this process called?
B. Divergent
C. Coevolution A. Genetic Variation
D. none of above B. Gene Flow
123. When two species influence or affect C. Genetic Drift

each other’s evolution through natural se- D. Speciation
lection.
A. divergent evolution 128. Form of reproductive isolation in which
B. coevolution two populations are separated by geo-
graphic barriers such as rivers, mountains,
C. punctuated equilibrium or bodies of water, leading to the forma-
D. mass extinction tion of two separate subspecies.
124. The Galloti atlantica and Galloti galloti A. Geographic isolation

lizards evolved through natural selection B. Mutation
from a common ancestor into a wide vari-
ety of different looking lizards. C. Sexual selection
A. Convergent D. Speciation

129. The first comprehensive theory of evolu- 134. Periods of rapid change followed by long
tion, which proposed that the mechanism periods of little to no changeHINT:Sudden
was an inner drive for improvement, was color changes in animals

proposed by A. Gradualism
A. Aristotle B. Punctuated Gradualism
B. Lamarck C. Adaptive radiation
C. Wallace D. Convergent Evolution
D. St Hillarie 135. Which process allowed for the evolution
of the Galapagos finches over time?
130. When an animal looks like another animal
it is called A. natural selection
A. camouflage B. asexual reproduction

C. selective breeding
B. mimicry
D. ecological succession
C. warning coloration
D. protective resemblance 136. The wings of robins and the wings of
dragonflies are examples of
131. When one species evolves in response to A. divergent adaptation
the evolution of another species.
B. convergent evoltuion
B. Divergent evolution D. punctuated equilibrium
C. Coevolution
137. When divergent evolution happens very
D. none of above quickly, it is known as:
132. Ants are the correct size and weight A. Coevolution

needed to open the flowers for the peony B. Adaptive radiation
plant. The peony plant provides food for C. Genetic drift
the ant and the ant fertilizes the peony’s
flowers D. Expansion
A. Coevolution 138. Descendants of an ancestral species may

diversify overtime into related species
B. Divergent Evolution adapted to different niches
C. Convergent Evolution A. Adaptive radiation (Divergent Evolu-
D. none of above tion)
B. Convergent Evolution
133. Living things have two kinds of adapta-
tions: Choose the best answer. C. Macroevolution
A. behavioral and physical D. microevolution
B. physical makeup and structural 139. A bumblebee has just enough weight to
open up the snapdragon flower and polli-
C. behavioral and structural
nate it, while other insects cannot. This
D. thrive and survive demonstrates an example of

A. convergent evolution C. hybrid

B. coevolution D. none of above
C. divergent evolution 145. What might be a good candidate for
D. speciation planned extinction?
140. The theory that evolution happens slowly A. A plant

and steadily B. An animal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Punctuated equilibrium C. A fungus
B. Gradualism D. A virus
C. Hardy-Weinburg equilibrium 146. Where does an off spring get its traits in
D. Divergent Evolution asexual reproduction?
A. From both parents
141. Abrupt appearance of new species in the
fossil records B. From only one parent
A. Gradualism C. From neither parent
B. Coevolution D. There are no traits handed down
C. Divergent Evolution 147. Flying fish, flying birds, and bats are ex-
D. Punctuated Equilibrium amples of which of the following?
A. convergent evolution & homologous
142. This kind of evolution is proven by DNA
structures
analysis and results in organisms with dif-
ferent ancestors becoming more alike as B. convergent evolution & analogous
they adapt to similar environments. structures
A. Convergent Evolution C. divergent evolution & homologous
structures
D. divergent evolution & analogous struc-
C. Coevolution
tures
D. none of above
148. A form of evolution where organisms
143. What describes the change in the genetic with different ancestors become more
make-up of a species over a period of alike as they adapt to similar environ-
time? ments or environmental pressures.
A. Species A. Convergent Evolution
B. Evolution B. Divergent Evolution
C. Gradualism C. Coevolution
D. Punctuated equilibrium D. none of above
144. A polyploid individual that contains ge- 149. Reproductive isolating mechanism (RIM)
netic material from the same parental that acts after fertilization of egg by
species. sperm.
A. Allopolyploid A. Prezygotic
B. autopolyploid B. Postzygotic

C. Premating B. Gradualism
D. Postmating C. Extinction

150. When species go extinct when they fail D. Speciation
to adapt to changing conditions (business
155. Large, irreversible changes in gene fre-
as usual).HINT:Less severe type of extinc-
quencies
tion
A. Macroevolutionary Extinction A. Evolution
B. Background Extinction B. Microevolution
C. Mass Extinction C. Macroevolution

D. Adaptive Extinction D. Mutation
151. The appearance of similar characteristics 156. A physical or behavioral trait that helps
in unrelated organismsHINT:Wings in birds an organism survive and reproduce in its
and bats. environment is called a what?
A. Adaptive radiation (Divergent Evolu- A. An adaptation
tion) B. A response to a stimulus
B. Convergent Evolution C. A mutation
C. Macroevolution D. Evolution
D. microevolution
157. T9. Which process is a cause of variation
152. When individuals from two populations in a species?
of squirrels can no longer successfully
A. metamorphosis
mate with one another, the chance that
speciation will occur B. cellular respiration
A. decreases C. sexual reproduction
B. becomes zero D. regulation
C. stays the same
158. How many days until the EOC?
D. increases
A. 1
153. What type of evolution is the follow- B. 2 weeks and 1 day
ing:Horse evolution shows long stable pe-
riods of little evolution interrupted by C. 3 weeks and 2 days
brief periods of rapid change. D. 2 days
A. Divergent Evolution
159. What type of isolation occurs when
B. Convergent Evolution species no longer breed because they mate
C. Gradualism at different times?
D. Punctuated Equilibrium A. temporal isolation
B. geographical isolation
154. Bursts of change followed by periods of
stability. C. behavioral isolation
A. Punctuated equilibrium D. none of above

160. The kit fox lives in the desert and has 165. What type of structure shows evolution
large ears with greater surface area that when arctic animals have white fur, short
keep the fox from getting overheated. The ears and limbs, and extra fat even though
red fox lives in the forest and has a red they don’t share a common ancestor?
coat that keeps it camouflaged. A. Analogous structures
A. Coevolution B. Homologous structures
B. Convergent Evolution C. Identical structures
C. Divergent Evolution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
166. Slow change over time, such as snakes
161. What is the most correct definition of slowly evolved from reptiles with shorter
evolution? and shorter legs
A. Change over time. A. Gradualism
B. Animals changing over time. B. Punctuated Gradualism
C. Organisms changing over time. C. Adaptive radiation
D. Species changing over time. D. Convergent Evolution
162. Periods of rapid change followed by long 167. In the past, humans chose specific dogs
periods of little to no change, such as sud- to mate in order to develop specific traits
den color changes in animals in each breed that were useful for humans.
A. Gradualism This was done using
B. Punctuated Gradualism A. natural selection
C. Adaptive radiation B. mutations
D. Convergent Evolution C. genetic engineering
163. T8. Two species are in different environ-
ments and look very similar. However, 168. What type of structure shows evolution
that are not closely related (analogous). when a cat’s leg, a human arm, a bat’s
Their resemblance is most likely an exam- wing, and whale’s flipper have different
ple of. functions even though they all are related
A. sexual selection species?
B. temporal isolation A. Analogous structures
C. convergent evolution B. Homologous structures
D. divergent evolution C. Identical structures
164. The evolution of an ancestral species into
an array of species that occupy different 169. Similar in function or appearance, but not
niches in origin or development.
A. convergent evolution A. Homoplasty
B. coevolution B. Homologous
C. speciation C. Analogous
D. adaptive radiation D. Vestigial

170. When a physical barrier separates and 175. Describes a pattern of long, stable peri-
population it is called ods interrupted by brief periods of more
rapid change

A. Geographic isolation
B. Reproductive isolation
B. coevolution
C. Allopatric speciation
C. punctuated equilibrium
D. Sympatric speciation
D. adaptive radiation
171. When a few species in an area are loss
176. A single species that has evolved into
due to things such as a forest fire it is
several different forms that live in differ-
called
ent ways has undergone
A. Mass extinction A. adaptive radiation.
B. Background extinction B. coevolution.
C. Speciation C. punctuated equilibrium.
D. Total loss D. mass extinction.
172. The scientific name for humans is 177. The death of every member of a species
A. Homo sapiens A. The flu
B. Homo neandertal B. epidemic

C. extinct
C. homo Sapiens
D. population
D. homo sapiens
178. The evolution of wolves and domesti-
173. Over time the African Elephant has cated dogs from a common ancestor, per-
evolved into several species specially haps the grey wolf is an example of
adapted to their environment.
A. Divergent
B. Convergent
C. Coevolution
C. Coevolution D. none of above
D. none of above
179. Evolution of two or more species from
174. A form of evolution where two species a common ancestor. May retain ancestral
having a close ecological relationship features in common.
evolve together such that one species A. Divergent
adapts to changes in the other, thereby af- B. Convergent
fecting each other’s evolution.
C. Parallel
D. Co-evolution
180. The large-scale events of speciation that
C. Coevolution
happen over hundreds or thousands of gen-
D. none of above erations are called

A. macroevolution B. convergent evolution

B. simplification C. divergent evolution
C. adaptation D. contrasting evolution
D. microevolution 186. The number of species on island depends
on the size of the island and its distance
181. When two organisms evolve in response
from mainland. This statement would
to the other
most likely be made by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Speciation
A. a geologist
B. Coevolution
B. an explorer
C. Gradualism
C. a philosopher
D. Convergent evolution
D. a biogeographer
182. The beaver in North America and the
187. The rapid speciation of one ancestral
capybara in South America share a com-
species into many descendant species is
mon ancestor, but have evolved over time
called
to look different
B. Punctuated equilibrium
B. Divergent
C. Coevolution
C. Coevolution
D. Divergent evolution
D. none of above
188. Who is at the most risk of going extinct?
183. Analogous structures share
A. large population
A. Similar function but different structure
B. genetically diverse population
C. few harmful mutations
B. Similar function and structure
D. small population
C. Similar structure but different function
189. All of the alleles of all the individuals in
D. none of above a population is referred to as:
A. Genetic equilibrium
184. The number of times a particular allele ap-
pears in a gene pool is known as the B. Fitness
A. population of the allele C. Genetic variation
B. relative percentage of the allele D. A gene pool
C. frequency of the allele 190. A number of different species arise from
D. evolution of the allele one common ancestor.
A. Adaptive Radiation (divergent evolu-
185. Some organisms that share a common tion)
ancestor have features that have differ-
ent functions, but similar structures. They B. Gradualism
have evolved via C. Coevolution
A. co-evolution D. Speciation

191. There are more than 750, 000 named 196. periods of stasis and periods of rapid
species of insects inhabiting a wide range change
of habitats. This is likely a result of which

A. adaptive radiations
of the following phenomena?
B. niche
A. microevolution
C. punctuated equilibrium
B. adaptive radiation
D. none of above
C. genetic drift
D. a bottleneck event 197. T8. Some organisms that share a com-
mon ancestor have features that have
192. The adaptations of wasps, flying fish, fly- different functions, but similar structures.
ing birds, and bats that allow them to fly This process is known as
are examples of:
A. co-evolution
A. punctuated evolution
D. contrasting evolution
D. gradual evolution
198. A slow constant rate of change is
193. Group of actively or potentially inter-
A. gradualism
breeding individuals reproductively iso-
lated from other groups B. gene flow
A. Family C. mutations
B. Species D. hybridization
C. Genus 199. New biological species made by the divi-
D. Phylum sion of a single species into many geneti-
cally different ones such as with Darwin’s
194. What type of speciation involves isola- finches
tion due to differences in mating rituals?
A. geologic isolation
B. Behavioral isolation
B. behavioral isolation
C. Directional selection
D. Disruptive selection
D. none of above
200. Two species that are closely related be-
195. Genetic diversity is ultimately/mainly come increasingly different through the
the result of process of
A. Mitosis A. divergent evolution
B. Mutations B. coevolution
C. Crossing over C. convergent evolution
D. Gene flow D. artificial selection

9.9 Modern Theory of Evolution 1456
201. when a species quickly fills up all niches 205. Evolution occurring quickly due to catas-
in an envriroment and rapidly diversifies trophic events after long periods of sta-
to use different resources sis.
A. punctuated equlibrium A. Homeostasis
B. adaptive radiations B. Gradualism
C. dynamic stasis C. Statsis
D. none of above D. Punctuated Equilibrium
NARAYAN CHANGDER
202. What type of isolation occurs when the 206. T9. In the past, humans developed va-
timing of reproduction is different be- rieties of dogs, such as the German shep-
tween two populations? herd and the bearded collie, using:
A. geographic A. natural selection of favorable traits
B. temporal B. mutations present only in body cells
C. behavioral C. recombination of genes during mitosis
D. selective
203. The Galapagos tortoises share a com- D. selective breeding for particular traits
mon ancestor but have necks of differing
207. The process by which two species evolve
lengths to best reach food in their environ-
in response to changes in each other over
ment. This is an example of
time
A. Co-evolution
B. Macroevolution
C. Coevolution
C. Convergent Evolution
D. none of above
D. Adaptive Evolution
204. Evolution can occur at different rates in
different species. However, for evolution 208. Which pattern of evolution results in one
to occur there must be species splitting into many over time?
A. variations within a species A. Convergent evolution
B. extinction of the species B. Sexual selection
C. asexual reproduction C. Coevolution
D. no change in the genes of an organism D. Divergent evolution
9.9 Modern Theory of Evolution

1. A well-tested concept that explains a wide D. scientific theory
range of observations is called a(an):
2. Evolution happens slowly.
A. hypothesis
A. Yes, it does happen slowly
B. experiment B. No, it dose not happen slowly
C. cause and effect C. Evolution can happen slowly, and it can

happen rapidly 8. Wings of a bat and wings or an insect are

D. none of above an example of this

A. Homologous Structure
3. What was Charles Darwin invited to be on
the HMS Beagel? B. Analogous Structure
A. A Naturalist C. Vestigial Structure
B. A Sailor D. None of the above
C. A Captain 9. Convergent Evolution is

D. none of above A. different species evolve similar traits
B. the different traits that can be inher-
4. Camouflage is an example of which type
ited within a population
of adaptation?
C. two or more species evolve adapta-
A. Behavioral
tions to each other’s influence
B. Structural
D. breeding of faster horses by humans
C. Physiological
10. What is the term for the preserved re-
D. none of above
mains of an ancient organism?
5. The Galapagos tortoises A. Fossils
A. evolved as the Galapagos islands sep- B. Vestigial organs
arated from each other
C. Homologous structure
B. are able to swim between islands to
D. More than one answer is correct
eat any available food
C. have differently shaped shells depend- 11. Fossilized tracks or other evidence of ac-
ing on which island they inhabit tivity of an organism.
D. all of the above A. trail
B. trace
6. What is a theory?
C. index
A. change over time
D. absolute
B. A well supported testable explanation
that can’t be proven 12. When the environment determines which
C. A well supported testable explanation heritable traits are most beneficial for sur-
that can be proven vival, which is being considered?
D. Ability of an organism to survive and A. Artificial selection
reproduce in its environment B. Natural selection
7. What chain of islands were significant to C. Environmental selection
Darwin’s theory of evolution? D. Mutation
A. Caimain 13. The Law of use and disusewhich of the fol-
B. Galapagos lowing is not true anabout it?
C. Bahamas A. Believed by Jean Baptiste
D. West Indies B. More you use it, the weaker it is

C. Less you use it, the weaker it is C. convergent structures

D. none of above D. embryological structures
14. What is a fossil? 19. Darwin’s most important observations

were made on the islands
A. structures that look different but are
made up of the same bones A. Hawaiin
B. preserved remains of present organ- B. Jamaican
isms
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Galapagos
C. preserved remains of ancient organ- D. none of above
isms
20. Homologous structures
D. change over time
A. different species evolve similar traits
15. The science of classifying living things ac-
B. related function, similar origin
cording to their similarities is called:
C. two or more species evolve adapta-
A. Biology
B. Zoology
D. similar function, different origin
C. Taxonomy
21. According to Darwin, evolution occurs
D. Taxidermy
A. in response to use of disuse of a char-
16. To which kingdom do the prokaryotic, acteristic
single-celled microorganisms that survive B. because of catastrophic geological
the extreme temperatures in geyser, the events
very cold habitats of the Arctic, or the
highly salty habitats of the ocean belong? C. by natural selection
A. Eubacteria D. within an individual’s lifetime
B. Fungi 22. What do we call parts of the body that

C. Archaebacteria are structurally similar to those of other
species?
D. Protista
A. Natural selection
17. Artificial Selection is B. Vestigial organ
A. breeding of faster horses by humans C. Homologous structure
B. the number of individuals who possess D. Fossils
favorable characteristics will increase in a
population 23. Each living species has descended, with
changes, from other species over time.
C. different species evolve similar traits
Darwin referred to this principle as de-
D. related function, similar origin scent with .
18. Structures that are reduced in size and A. variation
have no function are called B. evolution
A. vertebral structures C. modification
B. vestigial structures D. exception

24. What was the title of Darwin’s book? C. Babies

A. Evolutionary Change D. Clones

B. On the Origin of Species 30. reasoned that if the human popula-
C. Survival in the Galapagos tion continued to grow unchecked, sooner
D. Genetics and Perfection or later there would be insufficient living
space and food for everyone.
25. When was Charles Darwin born? A. Malthus
A. Feburay 12, 1809 B. Hutton
B. September 7, 1809 C. Lyell
C. March 1, 1809 D. Darwin
D. April 14, 1809
31. Successful adaptations enable organisms
26. The theory of evolution by states that to become better suited to their environ-
living things with beneficial traits produce ment and better able to survive and
more offspring than others do. A. reproduce
A. artificial selection B. carry on
B. adaptations C. thrive
C. natural selection D. eat
D. none of above
32. All living organisms are related to one an-
27. All the information that paleontologists other. This is the principle known as
have gathered about past life is called the descent.
A. same
A. geologic time B. difficult
B. geologic eras C. individual
C. fossil eras D. common
D. fossil record
33. The organs of many animals are so reduced
28. The scientist who proposed that individu- in size that they are just traces, of homolo-
als could pass down traits acquired during gous organs in other species. These organs
their lifetime was are called organs .
A. Jean Baptiste Lamarck A. vestigal
B. Charles Darwin B. homologous
C. Georges Cuvier C. structural
D. Charles Lyell D. lost
29. The early stages, or , of many animals 34. The evolution of beak sizes in Galapagos
with backbones are very similar. finches is a response to
A. Embryos A. how finches use their beaks
B. Stages B. the type of seeds available

C. whether the populations interbreed A. Adaptation

D. the particular island on which each B. Trait
finch lives C. Characteristic
35. Which of the following must exist in a D. fitness
population in order for natural selection to
act? 40. The diversity of organisms present on
Earth is the result of
A. genetic variation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Homeostasis
B. overproduction
B. Ecosystem stability
C. struggle for survival
D. all of the above
D. Harvesting
36. Proposed the inheritance of acquired char-
acteristics, which is the idea that children 41. Scientists classify organisms to
can inherit the characteristics that their A. Count the organisms quicker
parents gained, like muscles. He also pro-
posed the over time species became more B. Catch the organisms in the wild
complex C. Train the organisms to behave
A. Cuvier D. See how organisms are alike and dif-
B. Lamarck ferent from each other
C. Darwin 42. Strata is
D. Buffon A. traces or remains of ancient life
37. What does “Survival Of the Fittest” B. breeding of faster horses by humans
mean? C. the different traits that can be inher-
A. The best adapted organisms ited within a population
B. The biggest organisms D. rock layers
C. The fastest organisms 43. During his voyage on the Beagle, Charles
D. The smartest organisms Darwin made many observations
38. Darwin’s theory of evolution suggests A. in England

that B. in North America
A. species change overtime C. on the Galapagos Islands
B. extinct species are not related to living D. in Asia
species
44. Non-functional structures now but once
C. different species can interbreed
were used by ancestors
D. animals that look alike are the most
A. Vestigial structures
closely related
B. Analogous structures
39. A(n) is any inherited characteristic
that increases an organism’s chance of sur- C. Homologous structures
vival. D. none of above

45. A fossil is C. embryo studies

A. different species evolve similar traits D. direct observation of living species

B. traces or remains of ancient life 51. Remains of ancient organisms are called
C. rock layers A. Extinctions
D. species change over time
B. Fossils
46. Who disproved Lamarck’s Theory? C. Mutations
A. August Weismann D. Variations
B. Charles Darwin
52. Darwin noted that plant and animal breed-
C. Jean Baptiste ers would breed only the largest hogs, the
D. Esther and Joshua Lederberg fastest horses, or the cows that produced
the most milk. Darwin termed this process
47. When the humans determine which herita- selection .
ble traits are most beneficial, which is be- A. Natural
ing considered?
B. Formal
A. Artificial selection
C. Traditional
B. Natural selection
D. Artificial
C. Environmental selection
D. Mutation 53. Which of the following is NOT a factor that
affects the process of natural selection?
48. If a trait that was inherited from the par-
A. Overpopulation
ents increases an organism’s ability to
survive and then reproduce, what is this B. Fossils
trait? C. Competition
A. an adaptation D. Variations
B. an organisms fitness
54. why is variation important?
C. a mutation
A. It helps the animals vary
B. It makes animals the same so they all
49. Hutton and Lyell helped scientists recog- can survive
nize that Earth is many of years old C. It helps so they can’t get sick
A. hundreds D. It is an advantages for animals that
B. thousands can help in natural selection
C. millions 55. All plants and fungi are similar in that they
D. billions both always-
50. The strongest evidence for change over a A. have stems.

long period of time comes from: B. have cell walls.
A. DNA C. grow from the soil.
B. fossils D. perform photosynthesis.

56. Why is the fossil record incomplete? B. Tortoise

A. fossils get eroded away over time C. Fiddler crab
B. most organisms never became fossils D. Finch
C. scavengers and decomposers eat 62. What is not one of Darwin’s conclusions?
them too quickly A. Species vary around the world
D. all of the above B. Species vary locally
NARAYAN CHANGDER
57. The similarity in the body shape of a whale C. Species don’t vary over time
and of a fish is an example of
D. Species vary over time
A. divergent evolution
B. convergent evolution 63. What is another term that can be used for
survival of the fittest?
C. coevolution
D. vestigial structures A. artificial selection
B. modern descent
58. Which structures are homologous struc-
tures? C. choosing change
A. human arm & cat arm D. natural selection
B. dog’s nose & snake’s tongue
64. The means that members of each
C. wisdom teeth & an appendix species compete regularly to obtain food,
D. dolphin fin & fish fin living space, and other necessities of life.
59. Coevolution is A. fight for living
A. different species evolve similar traits B. desire to succeed

B. species change over time C. battle for survival
C. two or more species evolve adapta- D. struggle for existence
65. What was the name of the ship Darwin
D. the number of individuals who possess
sailed on?
population A. HMS Poodle
60. Which scientist came up with the same B. HMS Labrador

ideas as Darwin? C. HMS Beagle
A. Hutton D. HMS Terrier
B. Wallace
66. Scientists who study fossils are called
C. Lamarck
D. Malthus A. Geologists
B. Paleontologists
61. What organism did Lamarck use to explain
his theory? C. Fossil Scientists
A. Lobster D. Meteorologists

67. Differences among individuals of a species 73. Have human beings evolved from apes?
are referred to as
A. Yes and we evolved through natural se-

A. Natural variation lection
B. Natural selection B. Yes and we evolved through survival of
C. Adaptation the fittest
D. Fitness C. No but we share a common ancestor
68. Who started the theory of evolution? D. Yes and we evolved through adapting
to the environment
A. Allen Wallace
B. Charles Darwin 74. the process in which populations change
C. Albert Einstein over time
D. none of above A. basketball

69. Which of the following would NOT help an
organism become fossilized? C. evolution
A. shell D. mutation
B. skeleton
75. Genetic variation is
C. buried quickly with sediment
A. different species evolve similar traits
D. soft body parts
B. trace or remains of ancient life
70. Darwin realized that if the Earth could
change over time, then could change C. the number of individuals who possess
as well. favorable characteristics will increase in a
population
A. life
D. the different traits that can be inher-
B. mountains ited within a population
C. characteristics
D. genes 76. Darwin theorized that natural selection is
A. the mechanism of evolution
71. Strong evidence for evolution comes from
B. how modern species have come to ex-
A. nuclear physics
ist
B. phylogenetic trees
C. the explanation for beak variation in
C. works of philosophy finches
D. the fossil record D. all of the above
72. Which one of these is an example of arti-
77. What animals did Charles Darwin Study?
ficial selection?
A. size of finches beaks A. Cats.
B. length of tortoises’s neck B. Cows.

C. polar bear’s fur color C. Dogs.
D. dog breeding D. Finches.

78. Darwin collected the preserved remains of A. Wallace

ancient organisms, called B. Cuvier
A. Remains C. Buffon
B. Dead Things D. Malthus
C. Artifacts
84. The ability of an individual to survive and
D. Fossils reproduce in its specific environment is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
79. is the process by which modern organ- A. being in shape
isms have descended from ancient organ- B. fitness
isms.
C. vigor
A. Descending
D. strength
B. Evolution
C. Modification 85. Bird wings and butterfly wings are an ex-
ample of
D. Transformation
80. proposed the theory of evolution by B. Analogous structure
use and disuse.
C. Mimicry
A. Hutton
D. Camoflague
B. Lyell
C. Darwin 86. The ability to survive and reproduce is
called
D. Lamarck
A. Natural selection
81. When on the Galapagos, Darwin observed B. Fitness
the islands had very different
C. Adaptation
A. Locations
D. Struggle for existence
B. Climates
C. Humans 87. Which of the following is the type of adap-
tation that effects how an animal acts in a
D. none of above situation?
82. When more offspring are being produced, A. physiological
there is a competition of limited resources B. structural
this is known as:
C. behavioral
A. Struggle for Existence
D. none of above
B. Survival of the Fittest
C. Descent with Modification 88. The surroundings or conditions in which a
person, animal, or plant lives or operates.
D. Adaptation
A. Environment
83. This person worked with Darwin and had B. Starbucks
similar theories to him. He studied and col-
lected samples that showed how evolution C. Earth
worked D. Mars

89. Darwin’s theory explains C. nature

A. why some organisms have better fit- D. tortoises

ness than others
94. Some apple trees produce more apples
B. why species face a struggle for exis- than other tree. This is an example of
tence A. Natural variation
C. why giraffes have such long necks B. Survival of the fittest
D. all of the above C. Struggle fo existence
90. Natural selection is D. Natural selection
A. related function, similar origin 95. The theory of use and disuse stated that
organisms or lost certain traits during
B. the number of individuals who possess
their lifetime.
population A. removed
C. breeding of faster horses by humans B. acquired
D. traces or remains of ancient life C. dropped
D. took over
91. Which of the following is/are a source of
variation in insect color? 96. What was the driving force in nature that
explains Darwin’s finches developing dif-
A. Mutation ferent phenotypes?
B. Sexual reproduction A. Food availability
C. Both mutation and sexual reproduc- B. Predator selection
tion
C. Artificial selection
D. Neither mutation and sexual reproduc- D. A common ancestor
tion
97. Multicellular eukaryotes that are usually
92. A key concept in the modern theory of evo- mobile and obtain food from other organ-
lution explains: isms probably belong to the kingdom-
A. how new organs arise whenever an or- A. Eubacteria
ganism needs it. B. Protista
B. the continued increase in the human C. Fungi
population.
D. Animalia
C. genetic variations occur within a
species. 98. Darwin’s reasoning included which of the
following?
D. the presence of asexual reproduction
within a species. A. Darwin assumed that species can
change over time
93. Darwin determined that selects the B. Darwin knew that resources could
variations among organisms that are most grow faster than populations
useful for survival.
C. Darwin inferred that artificial selec-
A. people tion could change species over time
B. scientists D. all of the above

9.10 The Origin of Life 1466
99. What is darwin named the father of D. He thought that they had a common an-
A. Father of evulotion cestor
B. Father of our country 103. The inference that evolution occurs grad-
ually over time,
C. Father of evolution
A. is not supported by any fossil evidence
D. Fathar of evolution
100. Structures that have different mature B. is known as coevolution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
forms but develop from the same embry- C. is supported by many transitional
onic tissues are called structures . forms in the fossil record
A. embryonic D. was proposed by Lyell
B. vestigial
104. A group of mice becomes separated by
C. geopgraphical the formation of a river. Over time, the
D. homologous northern mice became smaller and whiter,
while the southern mice became larger and
101. Darwin argued that living things have browner. This is an example of:
been evolving on Earth for of years.
A. homology
A. Hundreds B. divergence
B. Thousands C. gigantification
C. Millions D. industrial melanism
D. Billions
105. Darwin realized that high birth rates and
102. What did Charles Darwin think when he a shortage of life’s basic needs would
saw the Finches? force organisms to compete for
A. He thought they were smart A. time
B. He thought they were the same B. humans
species C. resources
C. He thought they were pretty D. none of above
9.10 The Origin of Life

1. These scientists proved that organic and eubacteria joined forces to create this
molecules formed from inorganic molecules larger cell
present in the Earth’s early atmosphere
A. chloroplast
when given energy from lightening.
A. lennon and mccartney B. red blood cells
B. watson and crick C. streptococcus

C. einstein and newton D. eukaryotes
D. Miller and Urey
3. Which scientist disproved spontaneous
2. This theory describes how archaebacteria generation of large organisms by showing

maggots came from flies not from rotting B. The theory of DNA evolution and forma-
meat? tion

A. Redi C. The theory of RNA world
B. Needham D. The theory of Atmosphere
C. Spallanzani 9. What is the most critical thing for the de-
D. Pasteur velopmentof life on Earth?
A. oxygen
4. When many species die off in a short pe-
riod of time it is called B. carbon dioxide
A. climate change C. time
B. the Geologic Time Scale D. land
C. the fossil record 10. The area of the soil that contains the roots
of plants is called the
D. a mass extinction
A. subsoil
B. rhizosphere
observable trends in hominid evolution?
C. C horizon
A. Increase in brain capacity
D. none of above
B. A decrease in brain capacity
C. changes in jaw size 11. What is Abiogenesis?
D. development of bipedal locomotion. A. Life from Life

B. Non-Life from Life
6. Which type of chemical bond is formed
C. Life from Non-Life
when electrons are shared and is a
stronger bond that is not easily broken? D. Life
A. Ionic bond 12. What was the conclusion of the Redi’s ex-
B. Covalent bond periment?
C. Hydrogen bond A. The flies were created by the decom-
posing meat.
D. Van der Waals force
B. The flies were created from their eggs
7. What evidence do scientists have for mass
extinctions C. The flies were created from sweaty
A. rocks shirts.
B. fossils, volcanic ash and iridium in the D. The flies were created by the hot
fossil record broth.
C. dirt 13. Which organisms cannot make their own
D. none of above food
A. heterotrophic
8. This theory states that the microorganism
make a chemical reaction with the atmo- B. autotrophic
sphere. Choose the correct theory C. anaerobic
A. The theory of Clay D. prokaryotes

14. The first prokaryotes did not require oxy- form a “primordial soup” from which life
gen and were arose?
A. anaerobicc A. Oparin-Haldane
B. aerobic B. Miller-Urey
C. both aerobic an anaerobic C. Pasteur
D. none of above D. Spallanzani
20. Which of the following terms refers to life
NARAYAN CHANGDER
15. An environment that provides the things
an organism needs is its coming from other living things?
A. biotic factor A. Abiogenesis
B. habitat B. Biogenesis
C. ecosystem C. Spontaneous generation

D. Endosymbiosis
D. none of above
21. Dating using decay of radioactive isotopes
16. The release of oxygen into the atmosphere
is
was so massive that this happened to the
anaerobic bacteria A. relative dating
A. mass extinction B. geometric time scale
B. massive growth C. radiometric dating
C. evolution into eubacteria D. carbon dating
D. they grew larger 22. What eventually gave way to having oxy-
gen in Earth’s atmosphere?
17. What was the principal thing in all of the
A. photosynthetic organisms
theories?
B. meteorites
A. DNA
C. bacteria
B. RNA
D. amino acids
C. Organic molecules
D. none of above 23. Which of the following is not a character-
istic specific to all living things?
18. The forelimbs of a whale, human, and bat A. maintain homeostasis
all have similar bone structures therefor
are examples of B. grow and develop
C. reproduce
A. analagous structures
D. made of cells
B. vestigial structures
C. homologous structures 24. What was formed in the Miller-Urey ex-
periments?
D. convergent structures
A. amino acids
19. Which scientist(s) suggested early earth B. proteins
was very different from present day and
that lightning and volcanic activity cat- C. living cells
alyzed the creation of organic molecules to D. DNA

25. Which scientist(s) tested the primordial 30. Where does the energy for most food
soup model by using an electrical spark to webs originally come from?
produced amino acids from the molecules

A. the Sun
believed to be present on early Earth?
B. chemical reactions
A. Oparin-Haldane
B. Miller-Urey C. carbohydrates
C. Pasteur D. mitochondria
D. Spallanzani 31. Dinosaurs are the primary species in this

era.
26. RNA World Theory states that
A. precambrian
A. Life came from RNA
B. paleozoic
B. Life came from life
C. Life came from non living things C. mesozoic
D. Life came from outer space D. cenozoic
27. Memory, Personality, Emotions 32. If one organ is an exaptation of another or-
gan, then what must be true of these two
A. Cerebrum
organs?
B. Cerebellum
A. They are undergoing convergent evolu-
C. Brainstem tion.
D. none of above B. They are found together in the same
hybrid species.
28. Some of the earliest features (adapta-
tions) some animals developed to protect C. They are both homologous organs.
themselves from predators were D. They have the same function.
A. hard shells and a tails so that they
could move 33. The idea that life can only arise from living
things is the what term?
B. eyes to see predators
A. spontaneous generation
C. poison
D. legs to run away B. abiotic synthesis
C. prokaryotic cell
29. What were the results of the Miller-Urey
experiment? D. biogenesis
A. cyanobacteria produced oxygen 34. A fossil that is useful for dating and corre-
B. cells acquired mitochondria through lation the strata in which it was found
endosymbiosis A. radiometric dating
C. earth is 4.6 billion years old
B. index fossil
D. electricity passed through Earth’s
C. relative dating
early atmosphere created organic com-
pounds D. carbon dating

35. Which are the main processes for ho- 40. The first genes on Earth were probably
minization? A. DNA produced by reverse transcrip-
A. Bipedalism, Neoteny, Hands free, tase from abiotically produced RNA.
Brain Development, Language B. DNA molecules whose information
B. Bipedalism, Swimming, Hands free, was transcribed to RNA and later trans-
Brain Development, Language lated in polypeptides.
C. Bipedalism, Neoteny, Feet connected, C. auto-catalytic RNA molecules.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Brain Development, Language D. oligopeptides located within proto-
D. All of them are correct bionts.
36. What are the building blocks of DNA and 41. What is the idea that LIFE arises from
RNA? LIFE?
A. nucleotides A. biogenesis
B. amino acids B. spontaneous generation
C. proteins C. evolution
D. lipids D. genetics
42. Which polymer group is used as STORED

37. I am a multicellular organism that is het-
energy?
erotrophic and my cell wall is made of
chitin. What Kingdom am I in? A. carbohydrate
A. Eubacteria B. lipid
B. Plantae C. protein
C. Animalia D. none of above
D. Fungi 43. This scientist finally disproved sponta-
neous generation by designing a broth ex-
38. Oceans do not freeze in winter due to periment to confirm microorganisms could
whichproperty of water? be found in the air.
A. cohesion A. Pasteur
B. adhesion B. Darwin
C. high specific heat C. Needham
D. all of the above D. Redi
39. The apparatus in the Miller-Urey experi- 44. Miller and Urey used all of the following
ment was used to mimic what? substances to simulate Earth’s early atmo-
A. proteins sphere EXCEPT
B. Earth’s present conditions A. methane
C. early Earth’s conditions B. oxygen
D. they didn’t mean to mimic anything in C. ammonia

particular D. water vapor

45. Which concept refers to life arising from 50. Which of these is the basic unit of life in
non-living, inorganic chemicals? all living things?

A. Organic evolution A. tissue
B. Chemical evolution B. organ
C. Chemosynthesis C. cell
D. Photosynthesis
D. atom
46. How could you identify a pattern of punc-
tuated equilibrium? 51. The theory of endosymbiosis proposes
that chloroplasts were once which organ-
A. similar bone structures among species ism?
A. Autotrophic prokaryotes
B. identical genetic code among all
species B. Heterotrophic eukaryotes
C. fossil sequence that shows gradual C. Mutated macromolecules
changes over long time D. Parasites who fed on larger cells
D. fossil sequences that show rapid
changes over short periods of time 52. Put these organisms in order based on
their appearance on the early Earth.1.
47. The outside of cells are all made of Animals-Eukaryotic-heterotrophic cells2.
A. protein Photosynthetic Bacteria 3.Plants-
B. fat Eukaryotic-autotrophic cells 4.Het-
erotrophic bacteria
C. carbohydrate
A. 2-4-3-1
D. none of above
B. 1-2-3-4
48. Photosynthetic Bacteria produce by
taking in sunlight and to make their C. 2-3-4-1
own food. D. 4-3-2-1
A. Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide
53. Spontaneous Generation was a theory
B. Carbon Dioxide and Oxygen that tried to explain
C. Carbon Dioxide and Water
A. how life came to be from non-life
D. Water and Oxygen
B. how species changed over time
49. I am a multicellular, photosynthetic, ma- C. how new species came to be
rine organism with motile sperm cells. My
cell wall is made of cellulose. I grow D. how life got here from outer space
very fast and live my adult life attached
54. What is the idea that life can arise form
to rocks being pounded by waves. What
nonliving material?
Kingdom am I in?
A. Fungi A. biogenesis
B. Plantae B. evolution
C. Protista C. spontaneous combustion
D. Animalia D. spontaneous generation

55. If, like the horse, all of the transitional 60. Amino Acids are believed to have been
forms for a species are found in the fos- “held together” to form bonds by which
sil record, which model of evolution most material?
likely occurred in that species?
A. sand
A. punctuated equilibrium
B. lava
B. gradualism
C. clay
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. convergent evolution
61. What process created oxygen in early
56. The geologic time scale divides Earth’s his-
Earth?
tory into intervals of time defined
A. Photosynthesis
A. randomly.
B. Respiration
B. every 10, 000 years.
C. by fossils. C. Evolution
D. by major changes on Earth. D. Radioactive decay
57. Which of these are the ingredients NEEDED 62. Which one is not an evidence for evolu-
for life to form? tion?
A. organic macromolecules A. Paleontological Evidence
B. inorganic molecules B. Biochemical Evidence
C. methane C. Nutritional Evidence
D. atoms D. Geological Evidence
58. A long distinct period of history with a par- 63. If you see cardinals, blue jays and owls in
ticular feature or characteristic is a/an your back yard, this is an example of a
A. era A. community
B. epoch
B. population
C. age
C. ecosystem
D. geologic time scale
D. species
59. A repeating cycle whereby organic
molecules could have been brought to- 64. If the half-life of carbon-14 is about 6000
gether by energy from underwater vol- years, then a fossil that has one-sixteenth
canic gas bubbles and released into the the normal proportion of carbon-14 to
atmosphere where UV rays changed them carbon-12 should be about how many
further years old?
A. evolution syntheis A. 3000

B. primordial soup theory B. 12000
C. creation theory C. 18000
D. Bubble hypothesis D. 24000

65. The Geologic Time Scale is a record of C. Abiogenesis

A. Pangaea D. Spontaneous Genesis

B. dirt
71. What were the dominant animals of the
C. the history of the Earth preserved in Paleozoic Era?
rocks and fossils.
A. fish
D. a bunch of dead things.
B. reptiles
66. Which scientist designed a special flask
C. mammals
that allowed air in but kept microbes out
and once and for all disproved sponta- D. bacteria
neous generation?
72. What was the product of the Miller-Urey
A. Redi
Experiment?
B. Needham
A. Simple amino acids
C. Spallanzani
B. Simple nucleotides
D. Pasteur
C. Simple lipids
67. DNA and RNA D. Simple monosaccarides
A. carbohydrates
73. Which scientist(s) first created protocells
B. lipids
by heating amino acids?
C. proteins
A. Stanley Miller
D. nucleic acids
B. Sidney Fox
68. Why UV light provide energy? C. Harold Urey
A. To destroy molecules
D. Alexander Oparin
B. To the formation of organic molecules
74. Which of the following describes what the
C. To the formation of protocell first life form resembled?
D. To destroy protocells A. Eukaryotes

B. Plants
69. In Early Earth, which molecule was not
present in the atmosphere? C. Bacteria
A. Nitrogen D. Fungi
B. Carbon Dioxide
75. Disproved the theory of spontaneous gen-
C. Glucose eration 1668 while experimenting with
D. Oxygen meat, flies and maggots.
A. Linneaus
70. Scientific law that states organisms only
come from other organisms. B. Frances Redi
A. Spontaneous Generation C. Darwin
B. Biogenesis D. Clark

76. What ‘building blocks of life’ were made C. 200, 000 years ago
in the Miller Urey experiment? D. 4.5 billion years ago
A. amino acids
82. Many amino acids joined together create:
B. nucleic acids
A. enzyme
C. glucose
B. protien
D. lipids
C. nucleic acids
77. Has ribosomes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. carbohydrates
A. Prokaryote
83. Which of the following events came 1st
B. Eukaryote
A. inorganic molecules to organic
C. both molecules
D. none of above B. polymer to monomer
78. Mammals are the primary species in this C. prokaryotic cells to organic molecules
era
A. precambrian D. organic molecules to inorganic
B. paleozoic 84. Why do some scientists believe that RNA,
C. mesozoic rather than DNA, was the first genetic ma-
D. cenozoic terial?
A. RNA probably mutatedinto DNA
79. What theory replaced Spontaneous Gener-
ation? B. RNAhas both information storage and
catalytic properties.
A. Deep Sea Vent Theory
C. RNA can replicate more accurately
B. Theory of Biogenesis thanDNA.
C. Theory of Plate Tectonics D. RNA contains uracil in place ofthymine.
D. Theory of Relativity
85. I am enormous but mostly hidden under
80. Choose the correct levels of Organization soil. When sexually mature, I make spores
from lowest to highest in fruiting bodies that rise above the soil
A. population, community, ecosystem, or- and release millions of spores. I eat by ab-
ganism sorption of dead plant material in the soil.
What Kingdom am I in?
B. organism, population, community,
ecosystem A. Fungi
C. organism, population, ecosystem, B. Plantae

community C. Anamalia
D. none of above D. Eubacteria
81. Earth formed 4.5 billion years ago, but life 86. What gas did cyanobacteria produce
did not show until through photosynthesis?
A. 3.5 billion years ago A. oxygen
B. 1 million years ago B. nitrogen

C. hydrogen 92. This bacteria formed 3.5 bya and was pho-
D. fluorine tosynthetic and release oxygen into the at-
mosphere.

87. Which gas was believed to be absent from A. cyanobacteria
early Earth’s atmosphere
B. E. coli
A. Hydrogen
C. archae bacteria
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen D. mitochondria
D. Carbon 93. The most precise information to use when

making phylogenetic trees is
88. The speciation does not require
A. morphology
A. Time
B. molecular
B. Genetical affection from natural selec-
tion C. fossil
C. Geographical barriers D. synapomorphies
D. Cataclisms
94. where chemicals joined to make the first
89. Which of the following lists the three do- cells
mains accepted by most scientists? A. water
A. Bacteria, Protista, and Eukarya B. fossil
B. Bacteria, Fungi, and Protista C. oxygen
C. Eukaryotes, Archaea, and Bacteria
D. Earth
D. Archaea, Prokarytoe, and Eukaryote
95. Which of the following will most likely re-
90. Used raw meat to disprove that idea sult in variation within a species?
of Spontaneous Generation by concluding
that meat does not create flies. A. mutation
A. Francisco Redi B. genetic drift
B. Louis Pasteur C. bottleneck
C. Matthias Schleiden D. founder effect
D. Theodore Schwann 96. The theory of Punctuated Equilibrium helps
91. Which of the following ideas that pock- to answer
ets of air released from underwater hy- A. why there are so many species in the
drothermic vents created tiny area in world today
which organic compounds could form and
B. why there are so few transitional fos-
concentrate?
sils
A. Bubble hypothesis
C. why it takes so long for speciation to
B. Panspermia happen
C. Spontaneous generation D. why speciation can happen in only
D. Endosymbiotic theory some organisms

97. Humus is another word for C. ocean

A. organic matter D. rain
B. bacteria 103. It was once believed that organisms came
C. decaying plants from nothing. What was this called and
D. none of above which theory debunked this belief?
A. spontaneous generation, cell theory
98. The age of a rock compared to the ages of
B. spontaneous generation, theory of
other rocks is the rock’s
NARAYAN CHANGDER
evolution
A. absolute age
C. spontaneous generation, bubble the-
B. geologic age ory
C. sedimentary age D. spontaneous generation, string theory
D. relative age
104. Fossil evidence suggests life on Earth ar-
99. Based upon the conditions of the early rived
Earth (no oxygen), which most likely ap- A. 1.5 bya
peared first?
B. 4.6 bya
A. Prokaryotic and aerobic C. 3.8-3.5 bya
B. Prokaryotic and anaerobic D. 4-5 bya
C. Eukaryotic and aerobic
105. Fine soil particles like silt and clay that
D. Eukaryotic and anaerobic have been deposited by the wind create
100. Miller and Urey tried to mimic the “or- soil known as
ganic soup” of the early Earth and create A. eolian soil
life, but they were only able to produce a B. alluvial soil
few
C. loess soil
A. amino acids
D. none of above
B. elements
106. Single-celled prokarytoes that are clas-
C. organelles
sified by their ability to survive extreme
D. cells conditions are
101. Which kingdoms have photosynthetic or- A. bacteria
ganisms? B. archaea
A. fungi and plants C. protists
B. fungi and protists D. eukaryotes
C. protists and plants
107. Todays, Earth’s Atmosphere has mostly
D. plants and animals gases nitrogen and
102. The water used in the apparatus was A. carbon dioxide
used to mimic what part of early Earth? B. oxygen
A. sea C. gases
B. swimming pool D. carbon

108. One hypothesis of the endosymbiotic the- 113. Based upon the conditions of the early
ory suggests that heterotrophic prokary- Earth, which forms of live MOST likely ap-
otes that were able to use oxygen when peared first?

releasing energy from their food crawled
A. Prokaryotic and aerobic
into larger cells and became
B. Prokaryotic and anaerobic
A. chloroplasts
C. Eukaryotic and aerobic
B. mitochondria
D. Eukaryotic and anaerobic
C. nuclei
D. vesicles 114. The study of evolutionary relationships.
109. What did Miller/Urey and other scien- A. cladistics

tists prove? B. systematics
A. Life on early Earth required material C. phylogenetics
from space
D. synapomorphys
B. Cells survived in the primitive atmo-
sphere 115. Which is not true about genetic recombi-
nation?
C. Amino acids could be produced from in-
organic molecules A. It only affects one generation
D. Simple cells can be produced in a labo- B. It increases diversity
ratory
C. It allows new traits to appear
110. Fats, oils, waxes, cholesterol, hormones D. It add diversity to all future genera-
A. carbohydrates tions
B. lipids 116. All of the following are jobs of proteins

C. proteins EXCEPT
D. nucleic acids A. storing genetic information
B. structure
111. Which of the following was not present
in the atmosphere of the primitive Earth? C. speed up chemical reactions
A. Methane D. transport things through cell mem-
brane
B. Oxygen
C. Water 117. What discovery supports the hypothesis
D. Carbon dioxide that RNA was the genetic material in the
earliest organisms?
112. Approximately how far back in time does A. Ribozymes are RNA that can self-
the fossil record for life extend? replicated
A. 3.5 million years B. DNA does not require enzymes to repli-
B. 5.0 million years cate
C. 3.5 billion years C. RNA stores genetic
D. 5.0 billion years D. Chains of RNA forming lipids

118. Bacteria are an example of a cell. 124. I am prokaryotic and am found every-
A. Eukaryotic where. What kingdom do I belong to?
B. Prokaryotic A. Archaebacteria
C. animal B. Eubacteria
D. plant C. Protista
D. Fungi
119. Earth’s early atmosphere had no
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. gasses 125. Which are two types of prokaryotic
cells?
B. volcanoes
A. plant and bacteria
C. water vapor
B. plant and animal
D. free oxygen
C. animal and bacteria
120. Which kingdoms have some organisms D. cyanobacteria and archaebacteria
that can make their own food (autotrophic
)? 126. A type of fossil that records and organ-
A. Plantae and Animalia ism’s activity
B. Fungi and Plantae A. permineralization
C. Protista and Plantae B. trace fossil
D. none of above C. natural casts/molds

D. amber preserved fossils
121. Which came first?
A. Eukaryotes 127. Enzymes are proteins that regulate
B. Bacteria A. pheromones
C. Archaea B. nucleic acids
D. Both Eukaryotes and Archaea evolved C. chemical reactions

around the same time D. none of above
122. Which statement best describes condi- 128. What type of organisms created oxygen
tions on early Earth? for early life on Earth?
A. hot with volcanic activity and electrical A. Heterotrophic Bacteria
storms B. Photosynthetic Bacteria
B. dry land covered with volcanic dust C. Animals
C. cold oceans D. Plants
D. dark and dusty with abundant water
129. Living things need for dissolving
123. Which is classified as an ecosystem? chemicals
A. a bumble bee A. food
B. a bee hive B. water
C. bees, grass, trees, birds, frogs C. living space
D. bees, grass, frogs, water, sunlight D. stable internal conditions

130. From this experiment, Miller/Urey were 135. A trace of an ancient living thing
able to show that: A. fossil

A. Life on early Earth required material B. water
from space
C. oxygen
B. Cells survived in the primitive atmo-
D. evolution
sphere
C. Amino acids could be produced from in- 136. Genetic recombination through Meiosis is
organic molecules an important process. What effect does
this have on populations?
D. Simple cells can be produced in a labo-
ratory A. Decreases natural selection
B. Increases ability to adapt
131. Which of the following could NOT have
been part of earth’s early atmosphere? C. Decreases variation
D. Increases variation
A. Oxygen
B. Water vapor 137. A chemical experiment that simulated the
conditions through to be present on the
C. Carbon Dioxide early Earth, and tested the chemical origin
D. Methane of life under those conditions
A. Redi’s experiment
132. Bread, fruit, vegetables, and starches are
examples of B. Pastures Experiment
A. carbohydrates C. Miller-Urey Experiment
B. lipids D. Hardy Weinberg Effect
C. proteins 138. In Stanley Miller’s and Harold Urey’s ex-

periment what chemical was intentionally
D. none of above
left out?
133. How long time was create the life in the A. oxygen
earth? B. hydrogen
A. 4500 million years ago C. methane
B. 4600 million years ago D. ammonia
C. 3800 million years ago
139. Pasteur and Redi disproved abiogenesis.
D. 700 million years ago As a result of their work, what is known
about living things?
134. The intorduction of new genes into the
gene pool of a population occurs throgh the A. Living things come from other living
process of things
B. Cells divide to complete organisms
A. survival of the fittest
C. Cells are formed from inorganic mat-
B. mutation
ter
C. competition between organisms
D. Living things come from non-living
D. overproduction things

140. According to Redi’s Experiment C. From Fixism

A. Life appears always in the presence of D. From Lamarckism
life
146. The early Earth’s atmosphere was lack-
B. Life appeared from inorganic matter ing:
C. Flyes appear on rotten meat suddenly A. Carbon Dioxide
D. The use of filters does not avoid the B. Water
growing of flyes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Lightning
141. Who propused the Panspermiatic The- D. Oxygen
ory?
147. Why is Deep Sea Vent Theory is possi-
A. Richter (1865 A.D.)
ble?
B. Father Suarez (1548-1671 A.D.)
A. It has biological communities and en-
C. Aristotle ergy
D. Von Helmont (1577-1644) B. It is dark and no oxygen
142. The non-living parts of an organism’s en- C. It is high in the mountains
vironment are called D. Electric sparks happened
A. community
148. One hypothesis of the endosymbiotic the-
B. biotic factors ory suggests that prokaryotes capable of
C. habitat photosynthesis crawled into larger cells
and became
D. abiotic factors
A. chloroplasts
143. Soil that has been transported and de- B. mitochondria
posited by moving water is called
C. nuclei
A. fertile soil
D. vesicles
B. alluvial soil
149. Who was the first scientist to try to
C. eolian soil
disprove the idea of spontaneous genera-
D. none of above tion?
144. The Earth is about A. Redi
A. 4.5 million years old B. Needham
B. 2020 years old C. Spallanzani
C. 4.6 billion years old D. Pasteur
D. 3 billion years old 150. What common gas was not present in the
earliest atmosphere?
145. If evolution occurs on organisms because
of the use or lack of use or organs that is A. CO2
a model B. O2
A. From the Synthetic Theory C. NH3
B. From Artificial Selection D. CH4

151. Which property of water accounts for the 156. A community is a level in organization
others? that is

A. adhesion A. made of populations of different
species that live in the same place and
B. cohesion
interact.
C. high specific heat B. a single individual species of organ-
D. polarity isms that are similar.
C. all the individual organisms of the
152. An organism is no longer in existence it same species in the same place.
is said to be
D. none of above
A. endangered
157. What is a protocell?
B. threatened
A. It is a form of a living cell with ribo-
C. extinct somes
D. imaginary B. It is a form of a living cell with DNA
153. The remains of ancient organisms found C. It is a form of a living cell with RNA
in rock are considered D. It is a form of a living cell without ribo-
somes
A. radio active
B. fossils 158. is all of the living and nonliving things
in a given area.
C. extinct
A. a population
D. dead
B. a community
154. The experiment conducted by Redi using C. an ecosystem
raw meat in different open and closed con- D. the biosphere
tainers disproved what theory?
A. Primordial Soup 159. Who was the first person to propose the
theories of the origin of life?
B. Electric Spark Theory
A. Charles Darwin
C. Spontaneous Generation B. Charles Dickens
D. Endosymbyosis C. Charles Tainter
155. Which of the following best describes a D. Isaac Newton
protein?
160. Which of the following is a defining char-
A. Fats, oils, and waxes are examples of acteristic that all protobionts had in com-
proteins. mon?
B. One function of a protein is to provide A. the ability to synthesize enzymes
structure. B. a surrounding membrane or
C. Proteins contain C, H, and O in a 1:2:1 membrane-like structure
ratio. C. RNA genes
D. A protein’s monomer is a nucleotide. D. the ability to replicate RNA

161. The macromolecule that contains all of 166. Which ‘building block of life’ was NOT
our genetic material made in the Miller Urey experiment?
A. Nucleic Acid A. amino acids
B. Protein B. nucleic acids
C. Carbohydrate C. sugars
D. Lipid D. lipids
NARAYAN CHANGDER
162. What purpose did the sparks in Miller and
167. The results of dehydration synthesis can
Urey’s experiment serve?
bereversed by:
A. Heat
A. condensation
B. Lightening/Electricity
B. hydrolysis
C. Volcanic Activity
C. polymerization
D. Water Vapor
D. adding an amino group
163. Which is true regarding fever in hu-
mans? 168. Miller-Urey were able to create what in
the lab?
A. The sick individual is failing to main-
tainhomeostasis A. hydrogen
B. The body is regulating it’sinternal con- B. amino acids
ditions
C. sulfur
C. The individual is responsing to itsexter-
nal environment
D. The sick individual is temporarily lack- 169. One-celled organisms that live in moist
ing acharacteristic of life soil are called
164. Which of the following is the natural A. protozoa

law that states that living organisms come B. legumes
only from other living organisms and are
not created from nonliving materials? C. fungi
A. evolution D. none of above
B. oxidation 170. Which would lead to a change in gene fre-

C. biogenesis quency in a population?
D. abiogenesis A. Having a large population that stays in
one area
165. Which of the following terms is another
name for spontaneous generation? B. Mutations occuring within a small pop-
ulation
A. Abiogenesis
C. randomly mating within a large poppu-
B. Biogenesis lation
C. Chemical evolution D. Having a large population where they
D. Organic evolution are no mutations

171. Why is Panspermia theory accepted say- 177. Which organisms make their own food
ing life came from outer space?
A. heterotroph

A. Life was always on Earth
B. autotrophs
B. Molecules spontaneously form
C. animals
C. Molecules that make up life can be
found in space D. human
D. Life is everywhere
178. Which scientist was one of the first to dis-
172. Quickly pulling your hand off a hot stove prove spontaneous generation by showing
isconsidered a that flies were not created by meat?
A. Regulation A. Spallanzani
B. Response to the environment
B. Pasteur
C. Homeostasis
C. Redi
D. any of these are correct
D. Needham
173. Source of quick energy
A. carbohydrates 179. Under great amounts of pressure, it has
been seen in a laboratory that amino acids
B. lipids
can turn into
C. proteins
A. peptides
D. nucleic acids
B. polysaccharides
174. Which came last?
C. chains of nucleic acids
A. Prokaryotes
D. organisms
B. Dinosaurs
C. Eukaryotes 180. Which type of dating method can be used
D. the genetic code on rock layers by applying the Law of Su-
perposition?
175. The first “cell” that contained non-living
materials A. relative dating
A. protocell B. absolute dating
B. bobocell C. radioactive dating
C. photocell D. radiometric dating
D. none of above
181. How many domains are there in the most
176. Endosymbiosis gave rise to current tree of life?
A. golgi bodies
A. six
B. chloroplasts and mitochondrea
B. five
C. ribosomes and nuclei
C. three
D. the rough and smooth endoplasmic
reticulum D. two

182. Which mechanism is known as the pro- C. aerobic prokaryotes

cess in which organisms possessing certain
D. photosynthetic prokaryotes
genotypic characteristics make them bet-
ter fit to an environment, increasing their
187. Given off by cells that make their own
chances of survival and reproduction?
food
A. water
B. mutation
B. fossil
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. gene flow
C. oxygen
D. nonrandom mating
D. cells
183. What is suggested by the anatomical
similarity of different species of verte- 188. What is the idea that life can arise form
brates? NONLIVING material?
A. no evolutionary relationships between A. biogenesis
the groups
B. evolution
B. recent common ancestry
C. spontaneous combustion
D. spontaneous generation
D. evolution from a distant common an-
cestor 189. What type of speciation involves repro-
184. What is the spontaneous generation? ductive isolation?
A. The life forms arise after creating or- A. Allopatric

ganic matter B. Sympatric
B. The life forms arise spontaneously C. Both
from inanimate or inert matter
D. none of above
C. The life forms arise spontaneously
from microorganism 190. Louis Pasteur used a goose-neck flask
D. The life forms arise after multiple and demonstrated what?
chemical reactions
A. life spontaneously appears
185. Controls vital functions such as breathing B. life begins from other organisms
and heart rate
C. DNA is the building block
A. Cerebrum
D. Amino acids can be created artificially
B. Cerebellum
C. Brainstem 191. To say that an organism is heterotrophic
D. none of above means
A. it cannot reproduce asexually
186. The theory of evolution suggests that
earth’s first oxygen came from B. it cannot breathe oxygen gas
A. anaerobic eukaryotes C. it cannot make its own food
B. plants D. none of above

192. The electrical sparks in the Miller-Urey B. Limited food resources

experiment represent what condition of C. Limited beak variations
early earth?

D. Underproduction of offspring
A. The Sun’s energy
198. Plants that host rhizobia are called
B. Lightning
A. legumes
C. Volcanic eruptions
B. fungi
D. Cosmic radiation
C. nematodes
193. What gas were not present in ancient D. none of above
earth?
A. Carbon dioxide CO2 199. A plant obtains nutrients from the soil
and uses them through energy from
B. Oxygen
A. water
C. Ammonia
B. food
D. Methane/CH4
C. sunshine
194. Disproved the theory of Spontaneous D. none of above
generation in 1800s after his work with
S-shaped flasks. 200. Which of the following factors was MOST
important in the origin of life on Earth?
A. Charles Darwin
A. Lowlevels of solar energy
B. Francesco Redi
B. Competitionfor oxygen
C. Loius Pasteur
C. Bioticsynthesis of organic molecules
D. Clark
D. Natural selection acting on molecule-
195. “Endosymbiosis” means sand protobionts
A. Living together 201. Which scientist disproved the idea of
B. Living inside spontaneous generation once and for all by
using a specifically designed swan-necked
C. Entering together
flask to heat broth?
D. Joining together A. Spallanzani
196. This theory states that humans came B. Pasteur
from space via meteor or other element. C. Redi
A. Panspermia D. Needham
B. Special Creation
202. “Life formation did not take place on
C. Clay earth. It took place somewhere else in the
D. Endosymbiosis space or on any other planet and carried to
the earth. “. This statement belongs to:
197. Finch populations change due to climate.
A. Theory of biochemical evolution
When it became drier, larger beak shapes
thrived. What is a condition for these B. Extraterrestrial origin
changes to occur? C. RNA world
A. Fewer mutations D. Spontaneous origin

203. What provides evidence about the his- C. Eating plants

tory of life on Earth, and shows how or- D. UV protection
ganisms change through time?
209. The water used in the Miller-Urey appa-
A. fossil record
ratus was used to mimic what part of early
B. index fossil Earth?
C. geologic time scale A. sea
D. half-life B. swimming pool
NARAYAN CHANGDER
204. Which of the following is required for all C. ocean
life on earth? D. rain
A. Coffee 210. According to endosymbiosis, what did the
B. Water ancient cell living within the host receive
from its host?
C. Eating plants
A. Shelter
D. Jiggling and Sliding
B. Energy
205. The introduction of new genes from one C. Motility
population to another is
D. Reproduction
A. genetic drift
211. According to endosymbiosis, what did the
B. gene flow
ancient host cell receive from its the cell
C. reproduction living inside of it?
D. asexual reproduction A. Shelter
206. The first organisms to appear on earth B. Motility
were C. Energy
A. aerobic heterotrophs D. Reproduction
B. anaerobic heterotrophs 212. The idea that Earth’s early oceans had or-
C. cyanobacteria ganic molecules that became the first life
is called the
D. photosynthetic prokaryotes
A. bubble hypothesis
207. How many billions of years old is the uni-
B. radioactive dating theory
verse?
C. primordial soup hypothesis
A. 4.6 billion
D. miller-urey experiment
B. 4.6 million
213. Earth, and the rest of the solar system,
C. 14 billion
formed from a giant cloud of gas and dust
D. 14 million in space called a
208. Which of the following a building block A. protosun
required for all life on earth? B. nebula
A. Movement C. galaxy
B. Use of water D. comet

214. The apparatus in the experiment was C. geologic time scale

used to mimic what? D. relative dating

A. proteins
220. The era covers almost 90% of earth’s
B. Earth’s present conditions history.
C. early Earth’s conditions A. Paleozoic
D. they didn’t mean to mimic anything in B. Mesozoic
particular
C. Cenozoic
215. Amino Acids D. Precambrian
A. carbohydrates
221. Theory that eukaryotic cells formed
B. lipids
from a symbiosis among several different
C. proteins prokaryotic organisms is which theory?
D. nucleic acids A. cell theory
216. Red fish and blue fish were in separate B. endosymbiotic theory
ponds. A big flood allowed the ponds to C. theory of evolution
mix. Which evolutionary mechanism are
D. atomic theory
we seeing?
A. Genetic Drift 222. What is absolute age?
B. Natural Slection A. comparing a rock layer to other rocks
C. Gene Flow B. a measure of the radioactive decay of
isotopes
D. Mutation
C. measuring the dimensions of a rock
217. Why is water important to the cell?
D. comparing the rocks to the fossils in
A. So it grows leaves. the area
B. So it leaves and grows.
223. Which of the following concepts suggests
C. So it can do chemical functions. life on Earth came from meteorites(outer
D. So it can functionally chemicalize. space)?
A. Bubble hypothesis
218. The first eukaryot and all the branches
from life are an example of B. Panspermia
A. Convergent Evolution C. Spontaneous generation
B. Divergent Evolution D. Endosymbiotic theory
C. Mutated Evolution 224. What are ‘protobionts’?
D. Cataclism Evolution A. A collection of organic molecules sur-
219. Method of determining the age of a fos- rounded by a lipid membrane
sil by comparing its placement with that of B. Building blocks of lipids
fossils in other layer of rock. C. Complex catalysts that existed on
A. Index fossil early Earth
B. radiometric dating D. Abiotic polymers

225. Endosymbiotic theory states that chloro- 231. About how old is the Earth said to be?
plasts and mitochondria were once what? A. 4.6 billion years old
A. Bacteria engulfed by larger cells B. 4.6 million years old
B. Amino acids C. 800 billion years old
C. Large eukaryotes D. 800 million years old
D. Algae
232. The smallest unit which can be considered
life iscalled
NARAYAN CHANGDER
226. The electrical sparks mimicked?
A. The Sun’s energy A. a prokaryote
B. Lightning B. a LUCA
C. Volcanic eruptions C. a cell
D. Cosmic radiation D. a phospholipid
227. The Earth was ‘seeded’ with life by other 233. Asexual reproduction refers to
sources in the universe A. puberty
A. universal truth theory B. sexual maturity
B. panspermia C. an organism reproducing on its own
C. alien seeding theory D. genetic recombination between twod-
ifferent organisms
D. meteor shower hypothesis
234. Approximately how long ago did the
228. What area of science did Charles Darwin
earth form?
study and investigate?
A. 4.6 billion years ago
A. Evolution
B. 4.2 billion years ago
B. Astronomy
C. 3.8 billion years ago
C. Physics
D. 3. 6 billion years ago
D. Medicine
235. The Theory of Spontaneous Generation
229. Which type of water property explains was first comprehensively posited by?
water’s ability to stick to other material.
A. Aristotle
A. Cohesion
B. Von Helmont
B. Surface tension
C. Francesco Redi
C. Adhesion
D. Louis Pasteur
D. High specific heat
236. As a product in the Miller-Urey exper-
230. The formed from most of the material iment, the brown goo was made up of
in the cloud, in a central bulge in the disk. what?
A. planets A. nucleotides
B. sun B. glucose
C. planetesimals C. fatty acids
D. protoplanets D. amino acids

237. Which macromolecule is represented A. Lipid

by simple sugars and complex sugars B. Carbohydrate
(starches)?

C. Nucleic Acid
A. lipids
D. Protein
B. proteins
243. How are mitochondria and chloroplasts
C. carbohydrates
like bacteria cells?
D. nucleic acids
A. They divide by meiosis
238. This theory also proposed the formation B. They can make their own food
of insects from dew, frogs.
C. They have the same membrane-bound
A. Theory of Spontaneous Generation organelles
B. Theory of Special Creation D. They contain their own DNA
C. Abiogenesis Theory 244. Living things need for energy
D. Panspermiatic Theory A. food
239. Which macromolecule insulates us to B. water
keep us warm, makes up the cell mem- C. living space
brane, and can be used as a source of en-
D. stable internal conditions
ergy?
A. lipids 245. What does the Theory of Spontaneous
Generation say?
B. proteins
A. life comes from life
C. carbohydrates
B. life comes from nonliving
D. nucleic acids
C. life came from outer space
240. This theory states that organisms just ap- D. life came from RNA
peared.
A. Spontaneous Generation 246. In many of the mountainous regions of
the world, soil was formed by the action
B. Organic Evolution of
C. Endosymbiosis A. volcanoes
D. Cosmogony B. earthquakes
241. Living things need for cells to work C. neither a nor b
A. food D. none of above
B. water 247. Another theory of the origin of life on
C. living space Earth is that meteorites landed on Earth
bringing what type of molecules?
D. stable internal conditions
A. amino acids
242. The macromolecule that is made carbon B. carbohydrates
(C), Hydrogen (H), and Oxygen (O) in a
1:2:1 ratio. It often takes the shape of a C. aliens
ring. D. DNA

248. The idea that Earth’s early oceans had or- 253. What is the action or behavior an organ-
ganic molecules that became the first life ism takes when it reacts to a stimulus
is called the.. A. development
A. Primordial soup hypothesis B. response
B. Bubble hypothesis C. stimulus
C. Miller-Urey Experiment D. cell
D. Radioactive dating theory
NARAYAN CHANGDER
254. Located in the hindbrain, this structure is
responsible for coordinated movement and
249. The loss of ventral spines by modern balance
freshwater sticklebacks is due to natural
selection operating on the phenotypic ef- A. cerebellum
fects of Pitx1 gene B. brainstem
A. duplication (gain in number). C. pons
B. elimination (loss). D. medulla
C. mutation (change). 255. When a species completely disappears it
D. silencing (loss of expression). is called
A. the fossil record
250. The cell’s main source of energy is from B. an extinction
which macromolecule?
C. climate change
A. carbohydrates
D. a mass die off
B. lipids
256. What type of organism was the first to
C. proteins inhabit Earth?
D. nucleic acids A. anaerobic heterotrophic prokaryote
251. An environment that is lacking in free B. aerobic heterotrophic prokaryote
oxygen is called: C. anaerobic autotrophic prokaryote
A. Oxic D. aerobic autotrophic prokaryote
B. Anoxic 257. “Life on Earth began with simple RNA
C. Aerobic molecule that could copy itself without
help from any other molecule. “. This
D. Anerobic statement belongs to:
252. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are A. Theory of biochemical evolution
thought to be cells engulfed by a larger B. Chilly start
one.
C. Electric spark
A. plants D. RNA world
B. prokaryotic
258. How many theories of the origin of life
C. eikaryotic exists?
D. viruses A. 6

B. 8 264. Which would allow speciation to occur?

C. 7 A. Populations being able to migrate and

D. 10 mingle
B. Populations remaining the same for
259. What was the result of the Miller-Urey years
Experiment?
C. Islands forming, separating organ-
A. amino acids isms forever
B. nucleotides D. Climate change making it colder
C. lipids
265. What did Millery-Urey experiment hope
D. glucose to create?
260. Which is a longer time span? A. Early Earth’s Atmosphere and macro-
A. Eons molecules
B. Eras B. Late Earth’s Atmosphere and macro-

molecues
C. Periods
C. Spontaneous Generation
D. none of above
D. Deep Vent Theory
261. Miller and other scientists have shown
that: 266. In the endosymbiotic theory, endosym-
biosis gave rise to which organelles?
A. life on early Earth required material
fromspace A. Golgi bodies and DNA
B. cells survived in the primitive atmo- B. Chloroplasts and Mitochondria
sphere C. Ribosomes and Nuclei
C. amino acids and sugars could be pro- D. The rough and smooth endoplasmic
duced frominorganic molecules reticulum
D. simple cells can be produced in a labo-
267. In a water molecule hydrogen and oxy-
ratory
gen arebonded together by
262. The amount of time required for half of a A. Ionic bonds
radioactive isotope to decay
B. Covalent bonds
A. Half-Life
C. Hydrogen bonds
B. Radioactive Decay
D. Polar bonds
C. Paleozoic
D. Cambrian Explosion 268. The standard method used to divide the
Earth’s long natural history into manage-
263. The products of hydrolysis are: able parts is
A. two monomers A. Relative dating
B. a polymer and water B. Era
C. two polymers C. geologic time scale
D. a hydroxyl group and a H atom D. epoch

269. Organisms whose cells have NO nucleus 274. Which of the following contributed most
are classified as to the intense heat of the earth’s early at-
mosphere?
A. Eukaryotic
B. Prokaryotic A. Clouds of carbon dioxide, hydrogen,
and other gases
C. Dead
B. Frequent collisions with asteroids and
D. none of above metorites
NARAYAN CHANGDER
270. This theory of the origin of life states C. Lightening strikes and volcanic erup-
that living things come from nonliving mat- tions
ter. D. Closer proximity to the sun
A. spontaneous generation
275. There have been mass extinction
B. bubble hypothesis events in Earth’s history.
C. Primordial Soup theory
A. 3
D. Meteorite theory
B. 4
271. lightening and solar radiation provided C. 5
enough energy to transform atmospheric
D. 6
chemicals into biomolecules, which then ac-
cumulated in the massive ocean covering
276. The evolution of new species that occur in
the earth’s surface.
new or newly vacated habitats (like when
A. primordial soup theory the dinosaurs became extinct) is called?
B. meteorite theory A. Adaptive Radiation
C. bubble theory B. Post zygotic Barrier
D. spontaneous generation C. Sympatric speciation
272. Which concept refers to complex com- D. Pre zygotic Barrier

pounds form from simple compounds?
277. Early Earth had no:
A. Organic evolution
A. atmosphere
B. Chemical evolution
B. landmass
C. Chemosynthesis
C. ozone layer
D. Photosynthesis
D. cyanide within the atmosphere
273. What organelles in eukaryotes cells are
thought to have originated from prokary- 278. This explains that eukaryotic cells may
otic cells? have evolved from prokaryotic cells
A. Nucleus and centrioles A. Spontaneous Generation
B. Mitochondria and ribosomes B. Theory of Biogenesis
C. Mitochondria and chloroplast C. Endosymbiont Theory
D. chloroplast and ribosomes D. Law of Superposition

279. Used broth to conclude that cells can only C. living space
come from pre-existing cells. D. stable internal conditions

A. Louis Pasteur
285. What can we use Blast for?
B. Francisco Redi
A. Paleontological Evidence
C. Ruldolph Virchow
B. Geological Evidence
C. Biochemical Evidence
280. According to most scientists, which of the
following is NOT a characteristic of the D. Anatomical Evidence
first cell(s) 286. Which of the following scientists at-
A. aerobic tempted to prove spontaneous genera-
B. prokaryotic tion?
C. anaerobic A. Needham
D. heterotrophic B. Pasteur
C. Redi
281. To be made up of a single cell
D. Spallanzani
A. unicellular
B. multicellular 287. Which scientist(s) came up with the hy-
C. organism pothesis that life formed gradually from
nonliving materials over a long period of
D. stimulus time?
282. In what way are protocells similar to liv- A. Miller and Urey
ing cells? B. Sidney Fox
A. They have a semipermeable mem-
C. Pasteur and Redi
brane and can grow and divide
D. Oparin and Haldane
B. They contain genetic material
C. They have a phospholipid bilayer 288. This theory is most commonly associated
with organic chemist Alexander Graham
D. They contain true proteins similar to
Cairns-Smith. What theory is it?
the ones found in living cells
A. The theory of Electric storm
283. First scientist to disprove spontaneous
generation, showing that flies come from B. The theory of RNA world
other flies. C. The theory of Clay
A. Wallace D. none of above
B. Redi
289. Aristotle’s theory on the Origins of Life
C. Pasteur was called
D. Lyell A. Biogenesis
284. Living things need for shelter B. Spontaneous Generation
A. food C. Bubble Theory
B. water D. Endosymbiosis

290. Early Earth was dominated by which B. amino acids

gas?
C. lipids
A. Ammonia
D. proteins
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon Dioxide 296. The first cells are thought to have been an
D. Sulfur Dioxide accumulation of organic molecules. Called
protobionts, these first cells contained all
NARAYAN CHANGDER
291. Carbohydrates contain of the following capabilities, except
A. sugar A. Metabolism
B. fat B. Separation from the outer environ-
C. amino acids ment
D. none of above C. Replication
292. You actually do ‘have eyes in the back D. Photosynthesis
of your head’ because this region of the
brain responsible for visual processing is 297. “Life formation on the earth may have
right above the cerebellum! been takenplace due to supernatural or di-
A. temporal lobe vine forces”. This statement belongs to:
B. parietal lobe A. Theory of biochemical evolution
C. frontal lobe B. Simple begginings
D. occipital lobe C. RNA world
293. Which molecule is currently responsible D. Special creation
for loweringthe activation energy of most
biochemical reactions? 298. Which of the following concepts explains
A. DNA the presence of mitochondria and chloro-
plasts in eukaryotic cells?
B. RNA
C. ATP A. Bubble hypothesis
D. Proteins B. Panspermia
294. Plantlike organisms that contain no C. Spontaneous generation

chlorophyll are called D. Endosymbiotic theory
A. protozoa
B. legumes 299. In evolutionary terms, the more closely
related two different organisms are, the
C. fungi
A. more similar their habitats are
D. none of above
B. less similar their DNA sequences are
295. Which of the following was Stanley
Miller able toproduce in his 1953 experi- C. more recently they shared a common
ment? ancestor
A. prokaryotes D. more similar they are in size

300. RNA World Hypothesis states that A. Methane

A. RNA in the form of ribozymes may have B. Oxygen

represented the first life on Earth. C. Water
B. RNA is an important step in DNA tran- D. Carbon dioxide
scription and translation.
306. Which type of cell came first?
C. Amino Acids came first, RNA came
later. A. Both Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells
evolved around the same time
D. RNA was the first protobiont.
B. Prokaryotic
301. Organs and tissues that perform the C. Eukaryotic
same function is called ?
D. Plant
A. cells
307. Bacteria and amino acids were brought to
B. tissues earh
C. organ system A. Primordial soup theory
D. organs B. mass extinction
302. Which of the following most likely favor C. meteorite hypothesis
species survival in changing environmental D. alien theory
conditions?
308. What molecule essential for life is miss-
A. genetic recombination ing in ‘protobionts’?
B. number of offspring produced A. Carbohydrates
C. length of life cycle B. Nucleic acids
D. energy in gamete production C. Amino acids
303. Fertilizers provide plants with D. Lipids
A. insect repellent 309. In what year they discovered the microor-
B. nutrients ganism?
A. 1800
C. food
B. 1700
D. none of above
C. 1750
304. The lobe is used to process auditory D. 1850
information and contains the Broca’s area
and the Wernicke’s area. 310. These two scientists hypothesized (but
A. parietal never tested) that the early Earth atmo-
sphere contained the necessary molecules
B. temporal and energy sources to produce organic
C. frontal molecules.
D. occipital A. Oparin-Haldane
B. Darwin-Wallace
305. Which of the following was probably not
present in the atmosphere of the primitive C. Miller-Urey
Earth? D. Lyell-Hutton

311. Fossil remains of a trilobite are most 314. Phospholipids contain both a head
likely to be found in which type of rock? anda tail section.
A. igneous A. hydrophilic, hydrophilic
B. volcanic B. hydrophobic, hydrophobic
C. sedimentary C. hydrophilic, hydrophobic
D. metamorphic D. hydrophobic, hydrophilic
312. Which concept refers to life arising from
NARAYAN CHANGDER
315. Which of the following refers to the evo-
non-living molecules? lution of life from nonliving materials?
A. Organic evolution
A. physical evolution
B. Chemical evolution
B. organic evolution
C. Chemosynthesis
C. chemical evolution
D. Photosynthesis
D. microevolution
313. Why is Deep Sea Vent Theory a possible
explanation for life on Earth? 316. Metabolism is a very important charac-
teristic of life.What molecule replaced RNA
A. It has biological communities and en-
as the energy storagemolecule in most liv-
ergy
ing organisms?
B. It is dark and no oxygen
A. DNA
C. It has a light source and energy from
B. ATP
the vents
D. High levels of electricity are generated C. Proteins
there D. Sugars

10. Plants
10.1 Classification of Plants

1. Indefinite growth, produces seeds annu- 5. Sometimes animals may look very differ-
ally ent but still possess a body structure that
A. Annual would enable scientists to group them to-
gether. What do fish, amphibians, reptiles,
B. Biennial birds, and mammals have in common?
C. Perennial
A. lungs
B. legs for locomotion
2. Pine and cedar are examples of
C. backbones
A. gymnosperms
D. external skeletons
B. angiosperms
C. fungi 6. Which is true about a pine tree?
D. ferns A. it loses its leaves before winter
3. How many legs do insects have? B. it repoduces by making seeds in flow-
A. 2 ers
B. 4 C. it reproduces by making seeds in
C. 6 cones
D. 8 D. it reproduces by making spores
4. Which of the following is not an example 7. Plants that have vascular tissue
of gymnosperm?
A. club mosses
A. Cycas
B. Thuja B. ferns
C. Pinus C. nonvascular plants

D. Coffee D. vascular plants

10.1 Classification of Plants 1498
8. Which of the following is NOT a character- B. Vascular

istic of plants? C. Gymnosperms
A. Regulate the water cycle
D. Angiosperms
B. Are used in medicine
14. Which of the following plants is a thallo-
C. Provide food, air and habitat
phyte?
D. Organisms which feed on dead organ-
isms or waste from living organisms A. Marchantia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Selaginella
9. Jenn is studying a population of fish found
in a pond that has a decreasing carrying C. Ulva
capacity. Which of the following factors D. Funaria
would not decrease the carrying capacity
of her fish? 15. We know that animals kingdom are split-
ted into two major groups, there are
A. drought
B. flooding A. vertebrates and invertebrates
C. food shortages B. backbone and unbackbones
D. a freeze C. mammals and reptile

D. algae and mosses
10. Ferns and horsetails grow from under-
ground stems called 16. The part of the plant that keeps it upright
A. rhizomes and transports water from the roots to the
rest of the plant
B. rhizoids
A. Leaves
C. hyphae
D. tubers B. Stem
C. Flower
11. Name the thin roots that spread out in all
directions. D. Roots
A. fibrous roots 17. Animals without a backbone are called
B. phloem A. invertebrates
C. xylem B. vertebrates
D. taproot C. mammals
12. What is gymnsperms? D. birds
A. Plants that have seeds
18. The entire sequence of events in an organ-
B. Plants that have flowers ism’s growth, development, and reproduc-
C. Plants that absorbs water tion
D. Has water pipes A. Flowering Plant
B. Fertilization
13. are plants that produce naked, or not
covered, seeds. C. Germination
A. Nonvascular D. Life Cycle

19. What do taxonomists use to identify or- 25. Which of the following is the correct botan-
ganisms? ical nomenclature for a plant with the
genus Bellis and the species perennis?

A. DNA
B. Organelles A. Bellis Perennis
C. How the organism gets energy B. Bellis perennis
D. All of the Above C. Perennis bellis
20. process of converting light energy to chem- D. Perennis Bellis

ical energy and storing it as food
26. What do the tubes do?
A. Transpiration
A. Make the plant smell pretty
B. Hydrology
B. Make the plant live longer
C. Secondary Growth
C. Carry nutrients around the plant
D. Photosynthesis
D. none of above
21. Which vertebrate groups are warm
blooded (have a constant body temper- 27. Which of the following is another name for
ature) a non-vascular plant?
A. only mammals and birds A. Bryophyte
B. mammals, birds and reptiles B. Gymnosperm
C. only mammals C. Angiosperm
D. all vertebrates are warm blooded D. Seedless vascular plant
22. Plant in the spring and harvest in the fall
28. What do all mammals have in common?
A. Summer annual
A. four legs
B. Winter annual
B. gills
C. Spring annual
C. fur or hair
D. Fall annual
D. feathers or scales
23. How does an angiosperm protect its
seeds? 29. Mosses are
A. inside a cone A. vascular
B. with a fruit or flower B. nonvascular
C. with spores C. vertebrates
D. inside moss
D. invertebrates
24. All animals can be classified into two
groups. What are the two groups? 30. The process by which plants make food
A. Vertebrates & Invertebrates A. Photosynthesis

B. Animals & Insects B. phototropism
C. Warm Blooded and Cold Blooded C. embryo
D. none of above D. seeds

31. Gymnosperms are classified as which of 37. Where do most mammals live?
the following?
A. Sea
A. Native
B. Land
B. Vascular
C. Sky
C. Non-Native
D. Non-Vascular D. Underground
32. If you were to go outside and pick up a ran- 38. What do birds and mammals have in com-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dom plant, it is most likely a(n) these mon?
are the most abundant plants found
A. The mothers feed their young with milk
A. angiosperm
B. bryophyte B. Their bodies are covered in hair.
C. gymnosperm
C. They give birth to eggs.
D. gnetophyte
D. They are warm blooded.
33. one generation and then another repeated
A. sporophyte generation 39. Which vertebrate groups lay eggs
B. gametophyte generation A. Birds and fish only
C. alternate generations B. Birds and amphibians only
D. none of above C. Birds only
34. In general, how do roots respond to grav- D. Birds, reptiles, amphibians and fish.
ity?
A. roots grow upwards 40. The male reproductive part of a flower.
Some have one stamen, but some have
B. roots grow downwards
lots more. It is made up of a long thin fil-
C. roots stop growing ament & a knobby sac called the anther.
D. none of above A. anther
35. Which of the following plants is a B. stamen
bryophyte?
C. pistil
A. Ulva
D. filament
B. Marchantia
C. Chara 41. taproot system, vascular bundles in a ring,
D. Fern net like leaf veins, and an embryo with
two cotyledons are all characteristics of a
36. Vascular seed plants that produce seeds in
flowers are called
A. monocot
A. gymnosperms
B. angiosperms B. dicot
C. sporophytes C. angiosperm
D. gametophytes D. tricot

42. A small cell that grows into a new plant C. Vertebrate plants
A. spore D. Single-celled plants

B. germinate
48. Which of the following is a form of classi-
C. nymph fication based on the branching pattern of
D. none of above evolution?
43. are woody, needled, seeded plants A. Convergent evolution

that produce male and female cones. B. Dichotomous key
A. conifers C. Taxonomy
B. cycads D. Cladistics
C. peach trees
D. gnetophytes 49. Part of a plant that absorbs water and nu-
trients from the soil.
44. What is xylem? A. stem
A. in vascular plants, tissue that carries
B. leaf
water and nutrients from roots to the
other parts of a plant C. roots
B. a flowering plant whose seeds are sur- D. flower
rounded by fruit
C. a plant that does not produce seeds or 50. If a plant has cones and needle-like leaves,
flowers how would the plant be classified?
D. a plant that only produces seeds A. seed producing

B. nonvascular
45. Which type of animal is not cold-blooded?
A. mammal C. spore
B. fish D. flowering
C. amphibian 51. The plant kingdom is divided into two main

D. reptile groups:
46. I am small, I have many branches and I A. flowering & non-flowering

have a lot of flowers. What am I? B. spores & seeds
A. shrubs C. trees & plants
B. tree D. conifers & flowering plants
C. herbs
52. What has fur/hair
D. none of above
A. Mammal
47. Trees, wild flowers and grasses are all con-
sidered to be B. Bird
A. Vascular plants C. reptile
B. Nonvascular plants D. fish

53. Scientists classify animals into two major 58. The platypus has hair and makes milk for
groups. What are they? its young. To which group of animals does
A. Mammals and Birds the platypus belong?
A. amphibians
B. Vascular and Nonvascular
B. birds
C. Vertebrates and Invertebrates
C. mammals
D. Single Cellular and Multicellular
D. reptiles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
54. Why is a mushroom considered a het-
erotroph? 59. What is vascular?
A. It creates different types of food. A. Plants that have flowers and fruits?
B. It makes food through photosynthesis. B. Has water pipes.
C. Plants that have seeds found in cones?
C. It makes food through chemosynthe-
sis D. Absorbs water from around it’s self?
D. It obtains nutrients from its environ- 60. Hornworts are
ment
A. vascular
55. How do we classify organisms? B. nonvascular
A. We group organisms together accord- C. vertebrates
ing to unique characteristics
D. invertebrates
B. We group organisms together accord-
ing to shared characteristics 61. Nonvascular plants usually grow in:
C. We classify organisms according to A. damp, shady areas
when they appeared on Earth B. deserts
D. We classify organisms based on their C. arctic regions
size
D. sunny fields
56. This type of crop plant has a taproot sys- 62. Nonvascular plants
tem
A. reproduce by making seeds
A. Monocot
B. grow close to the ground
B. Dicot
C. are tall and thin
C. Monoecious
D. live in dry places and have long roots
D. Dioecious
63. Plants can be flowering or non-flowering.
57. What is the seed structure of a mono- Plants can reproduce using seeds or spores.
cotyledon? This pea plant reproduces using
A. One cotyledon A. spores
B. Two cotyledons B. seeds
C. No cotyledons C. stems
D. Three cotyledons D. leaves

64. What kinds of trees lose their leaves? B. seeds, cell to cell
A. deciduous C. xylem and phloem, cell to cell

B. evergreen D. xylem and phloem, seeds
C. nonvascular 70. What is the job of the vascular system in
D. nonwoody a plant?
65. Look at the picture of the service dog. A. it strengthens and supports the plant
Which are two learned behaviors the dog B. helps it to grow
would need to learn to be an effective ser-
C. transports food and water to all parts
vice dog?
of the plant.
A. how to follow commands sit, go,
D. all of the above
stay, etc
B. eye color 71. How are a fish and an amphibian alike?
C. fur color A. They grow legs when they get older
D. how to open doors for its owner B. Their body temperature changes with
the surroundings
66. The tubes that carry sugars and foods
C. They have fins to keep them upright in
throughout the plant.
the water
A. cambium
D. none of above
B. fibrous roots
72. Which of the following is not a criteria for
C. phloem
classification of plants?
D. taproot
A. Presence or absence of flowers, fruits
67. How do we call plants that have seeds, and seeds.
flowers and fruit? B. Whether the seeds are enclosed in a
A. Nonvascular plants fruit or not.
B. Seedless vascular plants C. Presence or absence of vertebral col-
umn.
C. Gymnosperms
D. Presence or absence of conducting tis-
D. Angiosperms
sues.
68. What does phloem carry up the stem
73. Mosses and liverworts have small, root-
A. Sugar like structures called
B. Water A. rhizomes
C. Oxygen B. rhizoids
D. All of the above C. hyphae
69. Vascular plants transport nutrients D. tubers
through tube-like structures known as
and non-vascular plants transport nutri- 74. Vascular plants are known as
ents from A. bryophytes
A. cell to cell, xylem and phloem B. gymnosperms

C. tracheophytes 80. A plant has roots, a stem, leaves, and has

flowers to produce seeds. How could a
D. xylophytes
plant with the above description best be
classified?
75. If mosses do not have true stems or roots,
how do they get water through them so A. dicotyledon
they can use photosynthesis? B. conifer
A. from cell to cell C. vascular plant
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. by xylem D. nonvascular plant
C. by phloem 81. a young plant contained in the seed
D. by drinking it A. embryo
B. cotyledons
76. fern leaves
C. pistil
A. fronds D. stamen
B. friends
82. These cone producing plants do not lose
C. leaves their leaves in the winter
D. rhizoids A. angiosperms
B. gymnosperms
77. This family of plants has seeds that form
in pods: C. flowering
D. spore producing
A. Monocot
B. Dicot 83. How are oak trees and moss alike?
A. They are both vascular plants
C. Legumes
B. they both make their own food
C. they are both nonvascular plants
78. What do we call the groups in which we D. they both have roots that take in water
classify organisms?
84. Which vertebrate groups have skin with
A. Taxons scales?
B. Categories A. Only fish
C. Sets B. Only reptiles
D. Functions C. Both fish and reptiles

D. Fish, reptiles and amphibians
79. Which of the following plant types makes
up about 80 percent of all plants? 85. What do the green tree frog and the
monarch butterfly have in common?
A. Non-native plants
A. They both have four legs.
B. Native plants B. They both lay eggs.
C. Vascular plants C. They both eat insects as adults.
D. Non-vascular plants D. They both migrate in the winter.

86. Fibrous roots, scattered vascular struc- 91. Flowering plants are easily classified be-
tures, parallel leaf veins, & a single cotyle- cause of the that they produce.
don embryo are all examples of a

A. cones
A. Monocot plant B. leaves
B. Dicot plant C. flowers and fruits
C. Tricot plant D. rhizomes
D. angiosperm
92. Scientists classify plants by:
87. The offspring receives genes from both its A. How they use photosynthesis
parents.
B. How they reproduce
A. meiosis
C. How they transport water
B. no production D. How they transport water and repro-
C. asexual reproduction duce
D. sexual reproduction 93. Which type of plant produces seeds that
usually develop inside a cone?
88. Using water from the soil, carbon dioxide
from the air, and energy from the sun to A. angiosperm
make food B. gymnosperm
A. classification C. ferns
B. xylem D. moss
C. photosynthesis
94. Conifers and Flowering Plants reproduce in
D. fertilization which conditions?
89. Which of the following is NOT true about A. Damp

vertebrates? B. Wet
A. Vertebrate bodies are more complex C. Dry
than those of invertebrates. D. none of above
B. There are many more invertebrates
than vertebrate. 95. Monocot leaf structures have:
A. veins resembling a net or web
C. Vertebrates can be divided into five
classes. B. veins parallel to each other
D. Vertebrates have no backbone. C. are non-vascular
D. veins perpendicular to each other
90. Plants under which of the following divi-
sions of cryptogams are called the amphib- 96. Which type of animal has hair/fur and
ians of the plant kingdom? gives milk to its young?
A. Thallophyta A. amphibian
B. Bryophyta B. reptile
C. Pteridophyta C. mammal
D. none of above D. fish

97. Plants are classified as non-flowering and shape, & smell are designed to help carry
flowering plants. Which of the following out the reproductive process.
is flowering plant?
A. petals
A. Moss
B. stamen
B. Fern
C. pistil
C. Durian tree
D. flower
D. Conifer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
103. They anchor the plant & absorb water &
98. the part on top of the stile; it is often
minerals. (mosses)
sticky & of the part that the pollen sticks
to A. roots
A. ovules B. hyphae
B. stile C. rhizoids
C. ovary D. rhizomes
D. stigma
104. What is the term for animals such as
99. Which animal below is a mammal? mammals that maintain a high body tem-
A. turtle perature by an internal heat source?
B. snake A. ectotherms
C. pelican B. endotherms
D. bear C. isotherms
100. Seed plants, such as flowering plants, are D. holotherms
also known as
105. Which of the following statements about
A. mosses human and insect bodies is true?
B. gymnosperms
A. Humans and insects both have four
C. liverworts limbs.
D. angiosperms B. Humans and insects both have internal
skeletons.
101. Why would plants such as mosses and
ferns in a tropical rain forest grow larger C. Humans and insects both have exter-
than similar plants in Canada? nal skeletons.
A. water D. Humans and insects both have internal
B. water and sun organs.
C. no difference 106. Conifer seed are produced in
D. none of the above A. Cones
102. They produce their plant. For many B. They don’t produce seeds
plants, these are the primary reproductive
C. Flowers
organs. They contain structures that make
the male & female gametes. Its color, D. none of above

107. Fruits contain C. Kleenex

A. leaves D. viscular tissue

B. stems
113. The two groups of seed plants are
C. seeds
A. angiosperms and gymnosperms
D. roots
B. vascular and nonvascular
108. Plants such as peas, beans, tomatoes,
C. spores and seeds
and squash can be labeled as
D. short and tall
A. flowering, vascular, seed bearing
B. non-flowering, non-vascular, spores 114. What do seedless vascular plants use to
C. non-flowering, vascular, spores produce?
D. flowering, non-vascular, seed bearing A. Abundant Supply of Sperm Cells

B. Flower
109. Where are the spores growing in
mosses? C. Spores
A. Under the leaves D. Eggs
B. In capsules
115. The part of a plant where it uses carbon
C. On the leaves dioxide, water, and sunlight to make its
D. In cones own food; where photosynthesis occurs
A. Roots
110. Which of these is an example of a vascu-
lar plant? B. Nonflowering Plant
A. moss C. Leaves
B. hornwort D. Stem
C. liverwort
116. -Has tap roots-Has leaves with network-
D. sunflower like veins-Has woody stemWhich of the
following plants has these characteris-
111. If a plant has leaves that show veins com-
tics?(Choose more than 1 answer)
ing out from the center of the leaf, what
kind of plant would produce them? A. Durian tree
A. monocot B. Paddy plant
B. dicot C. Maize Plant
C. cone bearing plant D. Rambutan tree
D. nonvascular plant
117. Plants reproduce through:
112. It conducts water & other materials in A. seeds
some plants. Xylem & phloem are the
most common, but there are other types. B. cones
A. vascular tissue C. spores
B. nonvascular tissue D. all of the above

118. How many classes of vertebrates are 124. How can nonseed producing plants repro-
there? duce?
A. 3 A. roots
B. 4 B. xylem
C. 5
C. phloem
D. 6
D. spores
119. What is the seed structure of a dicotyle-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
don? 125. Nathan is studying the plant part in which
A. One cotyledon food is made. Which plant part is Nathan
studying?
B. Two cotyledons
C. No cotyledons A. the plant’s stem
D. Three cotyledons B. the plant’s leaves
120. Which vascular plant is described as re- C. the roots

sembling a small evergreen tree; often D. the fruit
called ground pines
A. club mosses 126. What are vascular plants?
B. conifers A. plants that have thorns
C. ferns B. plants that have tube-like structures
D. horsetails that carry water, nutrients, and other sub-
stances throughout the plant
121. Gymnosperms produce seeds usually in
C. plants that do not need water
A. cones
D. all of these
B. flowers
C. fruit 127. Which of the following plants is a pteri-
D. spores dophyte?
122. A plant ovule in flowering and fruit- A. Spirogyra

bearing plants from which a new plant can B. Funaria
grow
C. Anthoceros
A. gymnosperm
D. Selaginella
B. spore
C. seed 128. A strawberry plant is an example of a
D. none of above The stem grows along the ground to
make new plants.
123. Means one growing season
A. leaf
A. annual
B. biennial B. potato
C. centennial C. cutting
D. perennial D. runner

129. Trees and shrubs are examples of 135. Sieve Plate

A. nonvascular plants A. end wall which is perforated with

pores
B. vascular plants
B. chemical product of photosynthesis
C. mosses
C. person or people who determined the
D. fungi name for a plant
130. What is the largest group of plants? D. none of above
A. nonvascular plants 136. What do plants take in from the air?
B. vascular plants A. water
C. fungi B. soil
D. algae C. carbon dioxide
D. oxygen
131. Non Flowering plants produce what in-
stead of seeds? 137. Photosynthesis is:
A. More leaves A. a plant that has green leaves or nee-
dles
B. They don’t make anything
B. a process plants use to make food and
C. Flowers oxygen
D. Cones C. a gas in the air
132. Mosses reproduce with the aid of D. none of these
A. seeds 138. Vascular Plants
B. spores A. Have Tubes
C. both of these B. Do Not Have Tubes
D. none of above C. Only grow in damp, swampy areas
D. Only grow in the jungle
133. Mosses and Ferns only reproduce success-
fully when they are 139. An angiosperm having two cotyledons
and leaves with branching veins.
A. Dry
A. Gymnosperm
B. Wet
B. Monocot
C. It does not matter
C. Dicot
D. none of above
D. Nonvascular plant
134. If the xylem in a young tree is damaged, 140. Which of the following animals are inver-
which process is first affected? tebrates?
A. . performing photosynthesis A. Tiger
B. transporting sugar to the roots B. Humans
C. transporting water to the leaves C. Snails
D. absorbing water from the soil D. Fish

141. Natalia classifies a plant as a fern. Which 146. The system of classification we use to-
of the following statements explains her day was developed by a Swedish scientist
choice? named
A. She sees cones on the plant. A. Carl Linnaeus
B. She sees spores on the plant. B. Alfred Nobel
C. She sees flowers on the plant. C. Eva Ekeblad
D. She sees needles on the plant. D. Anders Sparrman
NARAYAN CHANGDER
142. The common name for the organism in the 147. They use water to transport certain cells
phylum Bryophyta is involved in sexual reproduction. They
must have a wet period for reproduction
A. horsetail
to occur, but they don’t use as much wa-
B. clubmoss ter as nonvascular plants.
C. mosses A. God only knows!
D. fern B. seedless vascular plants
143. Another name for a backbone C. seedless grapes
A. invertebrae D. seeded plants
B. humerus 148. Which group of vertebrates feeds its

C. femur young milk (with mammary glands)
D. vertebrae A. mammals
B. both mammals and birds
144. Which vascular plant is described as al-
most all evergreen and have needlelike C. reptiles
leaves? D. amphibians
A. club mosses
149. What is NOT a characteristic of a mono-
B. conifers cot plant?
C. ferns A. parallel veins
D. horsetails B. flowers in multiples of three
145. Competition between two species occurs C. Fibrous Roots

when: D. Taproots
A. Mold grows on a tree that has fallen in
150. Requires two growing seasons to pro-
the forest
duce seeds
B. Chipmunks and squirrels eat sun-
A. Annual
flower seeds in a garden
B. Biennial
C. A crow feeds on the remains of a rab-
bit killed on the road C. Perennial
D. A lion stalks, kills and eats an antelope D. None of the Above

151. Name the grouping of tubes that carry B. the seed has the adult plant inside of it
water and food to all parts of the plant.

A. fibrous root C. the seed has the potential to become
B. phloem an adult plant
C. taproot D. the seed and adult plant both have

roots, stems, and leaves
D. vascular bundles
157. All plants are classified based on
152. The vascular plant kingdom is divided
into two main groups: A. Whether they have vascular tissue or
not
A. flowering & non-flowering
B. Whether they have flowers or not
B. spores & seeds
C. Whether they have cuticle or not
C. trees & plants
D. Whether they do photosynthesis or not
D. conifers & flowering plants
158. Which of the following does NOT accu-
153. Seedless plants reproduce with rately describe weeds?
A. spores A. Plants which are out of place and not
B. seeds intentionally sown
C. binary fission B. Serve as hosts for crop diseases
D. flowers C. Are mainly human inventions which
have been selected for particular traits
154. What type of stem does a monocotyledon
D. Plants which are competitive
have?
A. Root 159. Mushrooms are a type of fungus. What
characteristic of fungi makes them differ-
B. Branching
ent from plants?
C. Parallel
A. . Fungal cells are eukaryotic.
D. Bundle
B. Fungi are multicellular.
155. Which of the following is the least closely C. Fungi are heterotrophic.
related animal:Gray Wolf:Canis lupusAard- D. Fungi have cell walls.
wolf:Proteles cristatusCoyote:Canis la-
trans 160. Flower parts in dicots are in multiples
A. Coyote of?
B. Aardwolf A. 4
C. Gray Wolf B. 7
D. Need more information on body char- C. 3
acteristics D. 2
156. How is a seed related to the adult plant 161. Plant cells that are specialized for cell di-
it came from? vision are most likely found in what part
A. the adult plant does not produce seeds of the plant?
A. root tips

B. leaf epidermis 167. swollen area at the bottom

C. stem epidermis A. anther
D. vascular tissue B. ovary
C. ovules
162. tightly coiled young fronds; called this be-
cause they resemble the scroll of a violin D. stigma
head
168. A tightly coiled developing frond is called
A. violaheads
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a
B. bassheads A. tuber
C. fiddleheads B. fiddlehead
D. celloheads C. cotyledon
163. This type of crop plant has leaves with D. xylem
parallel veins and scattered vascular bun-
169. Non-Vascular plants need
dles
A. extra sunlight to grow
A. Monocot
B. no water to grow
B. Dicot
C. rich soil to grow
C. Monoecious
D. none of above
D. Dioecious
170. The vascular structure of a dicot (bean)
164. Plants that produce seeds formed by plant is:
cones or cone-like structures are classified
as A. vascular bundles in a ring
A. gymnosperms B. vascular bundles are scattered
B. angiosperms C. no noticeable vascular pattern
C. bryophytes D. vascular pattern varies by species
D. nonvascular 171. Name the tubes that carry water and

minerals from the roots of the top of the
165. Center vein of leaves plant.
A. Midrib A. fibrous root
B. Petiole B. vascular bundles
C. Side vein C. phloem
D. Lamina D. xylem
166. Identifies plants according to physical 172. Which is a way to classify plants based
characteristics on how it makes seeds?
A. Plant Classification A. vascular and nonvascular
B. Descriptive Classifcation B. spore-making and seed-making
C. Botanical Classification C. flowering or cone-bearing
D. None of the Above D. monocotyledon and dicotyledon

173. What plants get water and nutrients 178. Which of these is a gymnosperm?
from rhizoids? A. tulip

A. mosses B. daffodil
B. conifers C. apple tree
C. angiosperms D. pine tree
D. none of above
179. Mosses and liverworts have small root-
174. Since nonvascular plants do not have like structures called
tubelike structures to carry water and nu- A. rhizomes
trients, how do they get the necessary nu-
B. rhizoids
trients to all parts of the plant?
C. hyphae
A. through the leaves
D. tubors
B. through the air
C. through the stem 180. It protects the seeds and it is colorful.
D. none of above A. seeds

B. roots
175. A biologist observes that a plant speci-
men hasno true roots, stems, or leaves. C. flower
What term wouldshe use to describe this D. stem
plant?
181. What is a seed plant that does not
A. vascular flower?
B. flowering A. gymnosperm
C. wilted B. cotyledon
D. non-vascular C. cuticle
176. What does angiosperms mean? D. rhizoids
A. All of the above 182. Which type of animal lives partly in wa-
B. I don’t know!! ter and partly on land?
A. reptile
C. Absorbs water around its self
B. bird
D. Plants that have flowers an fruits.
C. insect
177. Two characteristics of a mammal are
D. amphibian
A. cold-blooded and live birth
183. Which of the following has an exoskele-
B. feathers or scales covering their bod- ton?
ies and warm-blooded
A. Foxes
C. fur or hair covering their bodies and
cold-blooded B. Birds
D. warm-blooded and make milk for their C. Lobsters

young D. Fish

184. How many divisions are cryptogams clas- C. Reproduces through spores
sified into? D. Reproduces by bearing cones
A. One
190. In the oceans plants are replaced by:
B. Two
A. Surtsey
C. Three B. Algae
D. Four C. Fronds
NARAYAN CHANGDER
185. Scientists classify plants into what 2 ma- D. None of the above
jor groups? 191. Which division of cryptogams include al-
A. vascular and nonvascular gae?
B. big and small A. Thallophyta
C. vertebrate and invertebrate B. Bryophyta
D. mammals and plants C. Pteridophyta
D. none of above
186. nonvascular plants; small, usually flat
plants live in moist, shaded areas. You can 192. What are the leaves of ferns called?
find them on rocks along a forest stream. A. Falcate Leaves
Grow by the mosses.
B. Deltoid Leaves
A. club mosses & horsetails
C. Obovate Leaves
B. slime molds D. Frond Leaves
C. black molds
193. Identifies plants by their use and lifecy-
D. liverworts & hornworts cle
187. They are found living in the root nodules A. Botanical classification
of leguminous plants. B. Descriptive classification
A. salmonella typhi C. Plant classification
B. lactobacillus bacteria D. None of the Above
C. vibrio cholerae 194. Plants that do not have roots, stems, or
D. rhizobium bacteria leaves are called-
A. vertebrates
188. Plants which require minimum moisture
B. invertebrates
A. Tropophytes
C. vascular
B. Xerophytes
D. nonvascular
C. Mesophytes
195. The part of a plant that allows it to ab-
D. none of above sorb water and nutrients from the soil
189. What is the common characteristic of fern A. Flower
and conifer? B. Leaves
A. Non-vascular C. Stem
B. Vascular D. Roots

196. The female reproductive part and is at the C. rhizoids

very center of the flower. The pistil has
D. vascular
three main sections.

A. anther 202. What is the process where plants lose
B. filament water through their leaves?
C. pistil A. Respiration
D. stamen B. Hydrotropism
197. A plant that does not have flowers and C. Transpiration

reproduces by making spores D. none of above
A. Nonflowering Plant
203. Leaflike structures positioned outermost
B. Pollination at the base of the flower. They protect
C. Flowering Plant the flower while it is developing. They are
D. Germination usually green.
A. stamen
198. To transfer pollen from the male reproduc-
tive structure to the female reproductive B. pollen
structure to fertilize flowering plants C. sepal
A. Stamen D. petals
B. Germination
C. Pollinate 204. What material traps the sunlight in
leaves?
D. Flowering Plant
A. oxygen
199. A plant species lives in an area with lim-
B. sugar
ited sunlight. Which physiological adapta-
tion would be most useful to the plant? C. chlorophyll
A. colorful flowers D. water
B. large leaves
205. Flowering plants (angiosperms) are split
C. deep roots into two further categories called:
D. thin cuticle A. monocotyledons & tricotyledons
200. What is a characteristic of a dicot plant? B. dicotyledons & monocotyledons
A. leaf veins resemble a net of web C. protists & spores
B. leaf veins are parallel D. seeding & seedless
C. Fibrous root system
206. Plants that lose their leaves in the fall.
D. flowers in multiples of three
A. coniferous
201. Plants with tubelike structures that
transport water are called B. deciduous
A. fronds C. fantabulous
B. fiddleheads D. Joniferous

207. Name the tubes that carry sugars and C. Ferns do not produce seeds and
foods throughout the plant. daisies do.
A. fibrous roots D. Ferns do not produce spores and
B. phloem daisies do.
C. xylem 213. What green chemical in the leaves traps

D. taproot sunlight?
A. chloroben
208. Leaves fall from deciduous trees in au-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. chloroplasts
tumn. The carbon in these leaves is re-
turned to the atmosphere through which C. chlorophyll
of the following processes? D. none of above
A. condensation
214. Vascular, seeded plants that contain
B. decomposition seeds in fruits are:
C. photosynthesis A. angiosperms
D. transpiration B. gymnosperms
209. A vascular plant that produces seeds on C. deciduous
the scales of female cones D. moss
A. Angiosperm 215. All plants can be classified into two
B. Gymnosperm groups. What are the names of the two
C. Monocot groups?
D. Dicot A. Seeded and Non-seeded

B. No chlorophyll and Chlorophyll
210. What classification would a crop plant
have if it has 1 cotyledon in it’s seed? C. Chloroplasts and No Chloroplasts
A. Monocot D. none of above
B. Dicot 216. Often the largest & most colorful parts

of a flower, providing the design & shape
C. Monecious
of a flower. They help attract the insect &
D. Dioecious animals that will help in pollination.
211. Which of these plants is nonvascular? A. petals
A. Apple tree B. stamen
B. fern C. pistil
C. dandelion D. sepals
D. moss 217. Vascular, seeded plants that contain
seeds in cones are:
212. Which of the following is true of ferns
and daisies? A. angiosperms
A. Ferns have flowers and daisies do not. B. gymnosperms
C. deciduous
B. Ferns have stems and daisies do not. D. moss

218. When using a dichotomous key to iden- C. Bacteria

tify organisms, what do we look at? D. none of above

A. physical features
224. Phenotypic Plasticity
B. weather patterns
A. large strengthened vein on the midline
C. environment
of a leaf
D. diet
B. plants develop adaptive phenotypic
219. Which of the following is NOT a cause for characteristics due to changes in theenvi-
biennial plants completing their life cycle in ronment
one year? C. thin layer of delicate tissue separating
A. Unusual variations in temperature the xylem and phloem which inducessec-
ondary growth
B. Plants growing too large
D. none of above
C. Climatic changes
D. Conditions of drought 225. Why are trees able to grow so tall?
220. Flowering plants are A. They are vascular.

A. vascular B. They are spores.
B. nonvascular C. They are angiosperms.
C. vertebrates D. They are nonvascualar.
D. invertebrates 226. Which explains why a lima been is a dicot
seed?
221. The process of transferring pollen from
an anther to a stigma A. one embryo in the seed
A. filament B. one food storage area in the seed
B. pollination C. two embryos in the seed
C. sexual reproduction D. two food storage areas in the seed
D. asextual reproduction
227. Flowering plants are called:
222. The easiest way to identify a conifer is A. pretty
to look at its
B. monocotyledons
A. seed
C. dicotyledons
B. leaf
D. angiosperms
C. fern
D. cone 228. All plants are They make their own
food.
223. Which domain contains organisms that
A. nonvascular
are unicellular, prokaryotic, and can cause
illness yet also make food such as yogurt. B. vascular
A. Eukarya C. consumers
B. Archaea D. producers

229. Plants that go dormant, or leafless, dur- 235. A shark is a

ing the year are considered A. fish
A. deciduous. B. mammal
B. herbaceous. C. amphibian
C. evergreen. D. reptile
D. woody.
236. What type of root does a dicotyledon
NARAYAN CHANGDER
230. What is an example of an amphibian? have?
A. Lizard A. Parallel root
B. Iguana B. Branching root
C. Platipus C. Taproot
D. Tadpole D. Fibrous root
231. Name the layer of cells that reproduce to 237. This type of crop plant has a fibrous root
make more xylem and phloem, allowing system:
the plant to grow wider each year. A. Monocot
A. fibrous roots B. Dicot
B. vascular bundles C. Monoecious
C. phloem D. Dioecious
D. cambium 238. Plants that have tube-like structures that
carry nutrients and water through the
232. An example of an angiosperm is
plant are
A. pine tree
A. vascular
B. sunflower B. nonvascular
C. moss C. vertebrate
D. fern D. invertebrate
233. Coiled up fronds of are called fiddle- 239. What is stored food in a seed called?
heads.
A. seed coat
A. leaves
B. ovary
B. club mosses
C. cotyledon
C. ferns
D. embryo
D. conifers
240. The thin, rootlike structures of mosses
234. Moss and Ferns reproduce by making are called
A. Spores A. fronds
B. Seeds B. fiddleheads
C. Tubes C. rhizoids
D. They can’t reproduce D. rhizomes

241. Photosynthesis takes place in the of 247. A tortoise belongs to the following group
a plant. of vertebrates

A. Roots A. Reptiles
B. Trunk B. Amphibians
C. Leaves C. Fish
D. Branch D. None of these groups because it has a
hard exoskeleton
242. Plants can be classified according to its
248. What is a spore?
A. size A. Part of a flowering plant that creates
B. nature of stem new plants
C. position of branches B. The inside of a seed
D. all of the above C. Part of a nonflowering plant that cre-

ates new plants
243. true mosses belong to this group D. Another name for a pinecone
A. bryophytes
249. A seed-like structure that produces a new
B. brayophytes planet (e.g., ferns or mosses)
C. plantae A. Stem
D. marvelousae B. Pistil
244. Which vascular plant is described as tall, C. Spore
hollow and jointed stem? D. Stamen
A. club mosses
250. Which statement concerning cotyledons
B. conifers is correct?
C. ferns A. Monocots have one cotyledon, dicots
D. horsetails have two
245. What is an adaptation? B. Monocots have two cotyledons, dicots

have one
A. A feature or behavior that helps an an-
imal survie. C. Monocots have one cotyledon, dicots
have more than two
B. The food that an animal eats.
D. the number of cotyledons does not
C. How energy moves in a food web. matter
D. none of above
251. A is a group of similar organisms that
246. Which structure transports water from can mate with each other and produce off-
the roots to the rest of the plant? spring that can also mate and reproduce.
A. xylem A. kingdom
B. phloem B. class
C. stem C. family
D. leaf D. species

252. chemical product of photosynthesis C. mammal

A. Stomata D. amphibian
B. Photosynthate
258. A pine tree is a coniferous tree. Where
C. Authority
are the seeds made in a pine tree?
D. Phenotypic Plasticity
A. in flowers
253. What type of stem does a dicotyledon B. in leaves
have?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. in cones
A. Root
B. Branching D. in roots
C. Parallel 259. How do nonvascular plants get their nu-

D. Bunches trients?
254. All plants producing uncovered seeds, A. directly from the environment
such as the conifers, would be considered B. through their roots
C. through their stems
A. bryophytes
D. with hyphae
B. angiosperms
C. gymnosperms 260. Which of the following is an inverte-
D. monerans brate?
A. frog
255. The most familiar type of plant.They do
not rely on water for fertilization. They B. worm
have vascular tissue & can be found in both
C. dog
wet & dry environments. Reproduce by
seeds. D. lion
A. seedless plants
261. plants have true roots, true stems,
B. seed plants and true leaves.
C. nonvascular seedless plants A. Protist
D. salad plants
B. Vascular
256. They are called ‘Amphibians of the plant C. Fungi
group’.
D. Non-vascular
A. mosses
B. ferns 262. Why do nonvascular plants grow close to
C. algae the ground?
D. fungi A. to get less sunlight
257. A penguin is a B. for protection

A. bird C. for space
B. fish D. to absorb water

263. Which choice below best completes the 269. Plants absorb water through the roots,
sentence? Most do not lay eggs. where does the water travel next?

A. arthropods A. leaf
B. fish B. stem
C. mammals C. seed
D. birds D. flower
264. Liverworts are 270. Name the root that continues to grow
A. vascular straight down into the soil and may have
other roots branching off of it.
B. nonvascular
A. fibrous root
C. vertebrates
B. taproot
D. invertebrates
C. vascular bundles
265. In which two groups does moss belong?
D. xylem
A. nonvascular and seed-producing
B. nonvascular and spore-producing 271. What are two common groups of plants?
(Most general grouping)
C. vascular and spore-producing
A. Monocots & Dicots
D. vascular and seed-producing
B. Vascular & non-vascular
266. What are two jobs of the stem? C. Flowers & Cones
A. transport food and water and shade
D. Seeds & spores
the root
B. age the tree and shade the root 272. Which of the following is an arachnid?
C. provide support and shade the root A. lobster
D. provide support, and transport food, B. centipede
water and nutrients C. crayfish
267. What is the body covering for mam- D. spider
mals?
273. There are classes of vertebrates.
A. scales
A. five
B. exoskeleton
B. six
C. fur/hair
C. twelve
D. dry scales
D. two
268. Which of the following do plants absorb
through their roots? 274. Sunflower plants are
A. soil A. flowering.
B. water B. invertebrates.
C. oxygen C. nonflowering.
D. sunlight D. vertebrates.

275. Invasive plants are also known as which C. mammals and reptiles
of the following? D. amphibians and fish
A. Native
281. Both gymnosperms and angiosperms
B. Vascular
C. Non-Native A. have flowers
D. Non-Vascular B. do not have seeds

C. are vascular
276. Plants have
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. are non-vascular
A. many cells
B. one cell 282. The two groups of seed bearing vascular
C. no cells plants are
D. none of above A. tracheophytes and bryophytes

B. zylem containing and phloem contain-
277. Which of the following is monocotyledon
ing
plant?
C. gymnosperms and angiosperms
A. Durian tree
B. Banana plant D. shoots and roots
C. Rose plant 283. Where does oxygen in the atmosphere

D. Mango plant that most organisms need to survive come
from?
278. These plants grow year after year. Most
A. plant respriation
woody plants are perennials.EX:tulips,
daisies B. plant photosynthesis
A. annual plants C. plant transpiration
B. biennial plants D. it its made by fungi
C. perennial plants
284. Plants that hold onto their leaves
D. none of above throughout the year are considered
279. True or False:Non vascular plants have A. deciduous.
roots, stems and leaves. B. herbaceous
A. True
C. coniferous
B. False
D. woody
C. Only non vascular plants have roots
stems and leaves 285. The fine dust-like powder that con-
D. none of above tains the male reproductive cells of seed-
bearing plants
280. Which two groups of animals would be
A. Pistil
least likely to survive in a dry desert envi-
ronment? B. Overy
A. arthropods and reptiles C. Pollen
B. fish and arthropods D. Stamen

286. A type of plant with a seed that has one C. classification system
food storage area D. organization system

A. monocot
292. What is the difference between an animal
B. dicot
and a plant?
C. vascular
A. Animals make their own food and
D. nonvascular plants do not.
287. What is another name for Dicotyledons? B. Plants make their own food and ani-
mals do not.
A. Monocot
B. Dicot C. Animals reproduce and plants do not.
C. One cotyledon D. Plants reproduce and animals do not.
D. Two cotyledons 293. short, fleshy underground stem which is

enlarged to store nutrients
288. phloem is
A. Cultivar
A. a vascular tissue that carries water
and nutrients from the roots up to the B. Midrib
stem and leaves. C. Tuber
B. a vascular tissue that carries food D. Hydrology
from leaves to the the roots.
C. another name for leaf. 294. Gymnosperms and angiosperms both
D. none of above A. are nonvascular

B. produce seeds
289. How do we call plants that have seeds,
but no flowers or fruit? C. produce fruit
A. Nonvascular plants D. produce flowers
B. Seedless vascular plants 295. What is the “most specific” level of clas-
C. Gymnosperms sification?
D. Angiosperms A. Family
290. Which of the following terms refers to B. Domain

the groupings of plants which consistent- C. Species
lyproduce plants of the same types? D. Phylum
A. Species
296. These types of plants are able to grow
B. Genus
taller because of the added support and
C. Family faster nutrient transport of xylem and
D. Kingdom phloem.
A. Seedless plants
291. What system is used for grouping similar
things together? B. Vascular plants
A. buddy system C. Seeded plants
B. filing system D. Nonvascular plants

297. Examples are tomato plants and oak 303. What classification would a crop plant
trees have if it as 2 cotyledons in each seed?
A. Fungi A. Monocot
B. Plantae B. Dicot
C. Protista
C. Monoecious
D. Animalia
D. Dioecious
NARAYAN CHANGDER
298. Mushrooms are types of
A. mosses 304. This is what the fronds are connected to.
It is an underground stem. Roots grow
B. algae downward from the rhizome into the soil.
C. fungi
A. rhizoids
D. bacteria
B. rhizzies
299. Ferns do not have seeds, they reproduce
with, C. ripcord
A. root D. rhizomes
B. spores
305. Almost all animals fall into one of two
C. flowers groups. These groups are
D. cones A. Mammals and amphibians
300. Which of the following have roots and B. a) Vertebrates and Plants
veins?
C. a) Vertebrates and Invertebrates
A. Ferns
D. a) Single cellular and multicellular
B. Flowering Plants
C. Conifers 306. Which of the following are two divisions
D. All of the Above of phanerogams?
301. Dicots are A. Thallophyta and Bryophyta

A. a subdivision of angiosperms that has B. Bryophyta and Pteridophyta
2 cotyledons
C. Gymnosperms and Angiosperms
B. a spore-bearing plant with taproots
D. Gymnosperms and Pteridophyta.
C. woody, tall conifers
D. a gymnosperm with naked seeds in 307. thin layer of delicate tissue separating
cones the xylem and phloem which inducessec-
ondary growth
302. Which animal lays eggs?
A. Phenotypic Plasticity
A. cheetah
B. python B. Authority
C. gibbon C. Vascular Cambium

D. rabbit D. Stomata

308. The part of the plant that is responsible C. Gymnosperms

for absorbing water and minerals from the D. Angiosperms
soil is the

314. Angiosperms are easily classified be-
A. stem
cause of the that they produce.
B. flower
A. cones
C. roots
B. leaves
D. none of above C. flowers and fruits
309. Which animal breathes with gills? D. rhizomes
A. trout 315. What do plants take in from roots?
B. turtle A. Air
C. snake B. Water
D. iguana C. Soil
310. I sometimes get confused by others to be D. Sunlight
a plant. I’m heterotrophic and digest de- 316. What two groups can all plants be
caying material. What kingdom to I belong grouped into?
to?
A. vascular and nonvascular
A. Archaebacteria
B. fungi and protists
B. Animalia
C. mosses and ferns
C. Fungi
D. algae and euglena
D. Plantae
317. Each contains the embryo of a new
311. Which of these is a way in which scien- plant
tists classify plants? A. leaf
A. by whether they have a cell wall B. stem
B. by how they get their energy C. seed
C. by whether they have a nucleus D. fern
D. by how they reproduce
318. Which of these is a way to classify plants
312. Scientists classify plants in order to based on how it reproduces?
A. Study them more easily A. vascular and nonvascular
B. Collect them more easily B. monocot or dicot
C. Earn more money C. heterotroph or autotroph
D. Fight insects that damage them more D. seed-producing or spore-producing

easily 319. what Is the definition of non-vascular?
313. “Evergreen plants” is a common name A. Has water pipes
for B. Absorb water from around it’s self
A. Nonvascular plants C. Plants that have flowers
B. Seedless vascular plants D. Plants that have seeds

320. is vascular tissue that carries food 326. Dolphins belong to which group of verte-
from leaves to the other parts of a plant. brates?
A. phloem A. Mammals
B. angiosperm B. Fish
C. xylem C. Amphibians
D. None of these D. Reptiles
321. stalk which joins a leaf and stem
NARAYAN CHANGDER
327. Ferns are plants.
A. Phenotypic Plasticity A. nonvascular
B. Stomata
B. seedless vascular
C. Petiole
C. angiosperm
D. Midrib
D. gymnosperm
322. The tubes that carry water and minerals
from the roots to the top of the plant. 328. Which kingdom contains members who
are prokaryotic?
A. phloem
A. Archaebacteria and Eubacteria
B. taproot
B. Archaebacteria and Protista
C. vascular bundles
C. Eubacteria and Animalia
D. xylem
D. Eubacteria and Fungi
323. plants do not have a complex system
to transport water, nutrients, and food 329. An angiosperm having one cotyledon and
through their bodies. parallel veins in their leaves.
A. vascular A. Gymnosperm
B. nonvascular B. Monocot
C. flowering C. Dicot
D. tall D. Nonvascular plant
324. Why is moss a nonvascular plant? 330. A snake is a
A. It has true roots, leaves, and stems
A. reptile
B. It has xylem and phloem
B. amphibian
C. It only has phloem
C. fish
D. It does not have true roots, leaves, or
stems D. mammal
325. Giving living things a two part name is 331. Which group of living things can make
called their own food?
A. Taxonomy A. Plants
B. Binomial Nomenclature B. Animals
C. Classification C. Fungi
D. Kingdom Phylum D. Bacteria

332. A part of a plant that has been clipped B. It is a moss plant.

and can produce a new plant is a
C. t is a flowering plant.

A. runner
D. It is a nonflowering plant.
B. cutting
C. tuber 338. What type of plants can grow tall?
D. bulb A. vascular
333. A plant having tissue made up of tubes B. nonvascular

that transport food and water through the C. flowering
plant
D. angiosperms
A. vascular plant
B. nonvascular plant 339. What does it mean to “classify” some-
thing?
C. moss
D. none of above A. To sort / categorized into groups
B. To dislocate objects
334. These cells have only one of each kind of
chromosome normally found in the organ- C. To move around
ism. D. To watch something grow
A. zygotes
340. Curdling of milk
B. zi goats
C. gamete A. salmonella typhi
D. haploid cells B. lactobacillus bacteria

C. vibrio cholerae
335. Bears, fish, and humans are examples
of- D. rhizobium bacteria
A. vertebrates
341. The many thin roots that spread out in all
B. invertebrates directions.
C. vascular A. cambium
D. vascular
B. fibrous roots
336. Package containing an embryo and food C. phloem
A. Seed D. taproot
B. Root
342. When a pine tree branch is broken,
C. Stem
protects the break from diseases and in-
D. Flower sects.
337. Marcelo uses a hand lens to examine the A. resin
petals of a plant. What can Marcelo con-
B. leaves
clude about the plant that produced the
petals? C. rhizoids
A. It is a fern plant. D. rhizomes

343. Mammals are covered with 349. The process by which the female repro-
A. Sand ductive cell (egg) is united with the male
reproductive cell
B. Hair
A. Fertilization
C. Water
B. Flower
D. Air C. Germination
344. Plant in the fall and harvest in the spring D. Stem
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Summer Annual 350. Penicillin an important antibiotic is ob-
B. Winter Annual tained from
C. Spring Annual A. fungus
B. algae
D. Fall Annual
C. plants
345. A plant that produces flowers, fruits and D. useful bacteria
seeds for reproduction
351. Which plant is not a vascular plant?
A. Germination
A. liverwort
B. Nonflowering Plant
B. club moss
C. Fertilization
C. horsetail
D. Flowering Plant
D. ginkgo
346. A plant is knocked over. The stem of the 352. Flowering plants belong to which group
plant started to grow upwards. What is of plants?
the name of this tropism?
A. Bryophytes
A. dormancy
B. Ferns
B. hydrotropism
C. Gymnosperms
C. gravitropism
D. Angiosperms
D. thigmotropism
353. Which type of plant produces flowers and
347. The water cycle would not occur if which fruit?
of the following were missing? A. angiosperm
A. bacteria B. gymnosperm
B. autotrophs C. cycads
C. carbon dioxide D. conifers
D. solar energy 354. What are the two things we can learn
from looking at the tree rings?
348. Ferns and mosses reproduce from
A. health of the tree and height of the tree
A. seeds
B. pollination B. age of the tree and health of the tree
C. spores C. hight of the tree and age of the tree
D. none of the above. D. age of the tree and support of the tree

355. Vascular plants 360. group of plants which are selected for de-
sirable traits and are maintainedthrough
A. produce seeds
propagation

B. are seedless
A. Cultivar
C. are leafless B. Photosynthesis
D. none of above C. Vascular Bundles
356. peat moss; it is used by gardeners & land- D. Radicle

scapers as a soil conditioner. It makes the 361. What is the science of classifying organ-
soil capable of holding more water. It was isms?
at one time used as bandages. It can also
be used as a fuel source. A. Classification
B. Biology
A. specialties
C. Taxonomy
B. sphagnum
D. Taxation
C. spearmint
362. Which is an example of a spore-producing
D. fertilization
plant?
357. One way humans can promote the sur- A. fern
vival of organisms in an ecosystem is to: B. fungi
A. decrease diversity in plant habitats C. pine tree
B. introduce new consumers to control D. redwood
autotrophs
C. release extra CO2 into the atmosphere teristic of animals?
to help autotrophs
A. All animals have a definite shape.
D. learn about the interactions of popula-
B. All animals are many-celled.
tion
C. All animals use energy.
358. What kind of skin does a reptile have? D. The cells of all animals have nuclei and
A. scales and slime organelles.
B. exoskeleton 364. Which of the following is NOT a type of

tissue found in plants?
C. moist skin
A. Dermal
D. dry, scaly
B. Non-Living
359. What gas is given off (released from the C. Vascular
plant) during respiration?
D. Ground
A. nitrogen
365. Which of the following is not an example
B. carbon dioxide of angiosperm?
C. oxygen A. Coffee
D. none of above B. Maize

C. Mango C. Pteridophytes
D. Christmas tree D. none of above
366. How many flower petal groups in a di- 372. What type of plant CANNOT grow tall?
cotyledon?
A. daisies
A. 1 or 2
B. roses
B. 3 or 6
C. vascular
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 4 or 5
D. 2 or 6 D. nonvascular
367. Why do ferns need water? 373. Which is an example of a Non-Vascular

A. to reproduce Plant?
B. to produce oxygen A. Moss

C. to produce carbon dioxide B. Any plant with flowers
D. to relocate C. Trees
368. Where do angiosperms produce their D. Ferns

seeds?
374. One way that humans could have a posi-
A. pollen tive impact on local environments is to:
B. cones
A. generate waste products as a result of
C. flowers technological advances
D. none of above B. use resources that are renewable
369. This is the science of classifying. C. increase planting large areas of one
crop
A. cryptology
B. biology D. increase the use of pesticides
C. economy 375. What is the biggest difference between

D. taxonomy warm & cold-blooded animals?
370. Animals that do not have a backbone are A. Their skin

called- B. Their body temperature
A. vertebrates C. Their surroundings
B. invertebrates D. Their feathers
C. vascular
376. The majority of gymnosperms are
D. nonvascular
A. cycads
371. have separate tissues for conduction
of food and water. B. conifers
A. Thallophytes C. ferns
B. Bryophytes D. mosses

377. Plants are officially classified according 382. Which three are non-seed producers?
to all of the following EXCEPT A. rose, tomato, sunflower

A. temperature requirements (cool- B. rose, lily, carnation
season, warm-season).
C. tomato, cucumber, sunflower
B. life cycles (annual, biennial, perennial).
D. hornwort, liverwort, fern
C. temperature tolerance (hardy, tender). 383. Animals that usually have the same body
temperature regardless of whether their
surroundings are worm or cold are called
D. life preference (indoor, outdoor,
greenhouse). A. warm blooded
B. cold blooded
378. Plants with seeds can be sorted into two
groups: and plants with flowers C. vertebrates
D. animals
A. plants with roots
B. plants with cones 384. A salamander is a
C. plants with stems A. amphibian
D. plants with leaves B. reptile

C. bird
379. Insect bodies are divided into how many
D. mammal
parts?
A. 1 385. Which of the following is an example of
a gymnosperm?
B. 2
A. moss
C. 3
B. monocot
D. 4
C. conifer
380. An example of a nonvascular plant is a D. fern
A. cedar tree 386. plants need two growing seasons to
B. apple tree fully develop.
C. horn wort A. annual
D. fern B. biennial
C. centennial
381. spongy ground plant; consists of two
sections-the green part & the rhizoids; the D. perennial
upper part consists of the stalk & the cap- 387. What type of root does a monocotyledon
sule have?
A. ferns A. Parallel root
B. club mosses B. Branching root
C. horsetails C. Taproot
D. mosses D. Fibrous root

388. Jane found a flower in the woods. It had B. geotropism

six petals and its leaves were long and
C. hydrotropism
slender with parallel veins. What type of
plant was it? D. thigmotropism
A. cone-bearing
394. The female reproductive part of a flower
B. dicotyledon
A. Pistil
C. monocotyledon
B. Stamen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
C. Stem
389. person or people who determined the
name for a plant D. Leaves
A. Authority 395. Which of the following organisms lack

B. Sieve Plate vascular tissue?
C. Stomata A. whisk ferns
D. none of above B. mosses
390. Grasses, dandelions, and tomato plants C. pine trees
are all examples of D. flowering plants
A. algae
396. Two characteristics of amphibians are
B. nonvascular plants
C. mosses
A. cold-blooded and hatch from eggs
D. vascular plants
B. warm-blooded and hatch from eggs
391. Plants that produce flowers are
C. live birth and moist skin
A. angieosperms
D. moist skin and warm-blooded
B. gymnosperms
C. big 397. Angiosperms produce seeds in
D. yellow A. cones
392. Sharks belong to which group of verte- B. fruit

brates? C. leaves
A. Mammals D. roots
B. Fish
398. This type of crop plant has leaves with
C. Amphibians
a network of veins and ring-like vascular
D. Invertebrates bundles
393. Trees growing next to a creek have more A. Monocot
roots on the side closer to the creek and
B. Dicot
fewer roots on the side away from the
creek. What is the name of this tropism? C. Monoecious
A. phototropism D. Dioecious

399. I have dry and rough skin, lay eggs, 405. How is a fish different from a jellyfish?
breathe with lungs, and am ectothermic A. A fish has a backbone.
(cold-blooded). What am I?

B. A fish is in the animal kingdom.
A. Fish
C. A fish can reproduce.
B. Mammals
D. A fish lives in water.
C. Amphibians
406. Which of the following is the most com-
D. Reptiles
mon plant part used to identify plants?
400. The tubes in vascular plants are found in A. Roots
the
B. Stems
A. roots, stems, leaves
C. Flowers
B. only leaves
D. Leaves
C. only roots
407. How many flower petal groups in a mono-
D. only stems cotyledon?
401. What is inside the fruit? A. 1 or 2
A. There are flowers. B. 3 or 6
B. There are pistils. C. 4 or 5
C. There are seeds. D. 2 or 6
D. none of above 408. It stores food, water, and waste in cells.
402. Ferns are a type of A. mitochondria
A. Vascular Seedless Plant B. lysosome
B. Nonvascular Plant C. vacuole
C. Angiosperm D. ER
D. Vascular Seed Plant 409. The process by which plants begin to
grow from a seed or spore
403. What does metamorphosis mean?
A. Pollination
A. Study of animals
B. Germination
B. More of phosis
C. Flowering Plant
C. Change in weather
D. Stamen
D. Change in form
410. What is a minute, typically single-cell re-
404. Which of the following kingdoms does productive unit capable of giving rise to a
NOT contain multicellular organisms? new individual without sexual fusion?
A. Plantae A. embryo
B. Fungi B. seed
C. Animalia C. spore
D. Monera D. angiosperm

411. Scientists classify living things into C. acorn and apple

A. 6 Kingdoms D. none of above
B. 2 groups
417. A vascular plant that produces seeds on
C. 4 Kingdoms cones
D. 20 groups A. Angiosperm
412. Animals that spend part of their time in B. Gymnosperm
the water and part on land are called
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Monocot
A. amphibians
D. Dicot
B. reptiles
C. fish 418. The sticky substance that protects a pine
tree from diseases and insects when a
D. birds branch is broken is called
413. Celina passed several plants on her walk A. fronds
to school. She saw a plant that produces
B. fiddleheads
cones and has long needle-like leaves.
Which of the plants did she most likely C. resin
see? D. tubers
A. fern
419. Vascular Bundles
B. pine tree
A. strand of conducting vessels in the
C. palm tree
stems or leaves of plants
D. tomato plant
B. evaporation of water into the atmo-
414. What do protists, plants, fungi, and ani- sphere from the stems and leaves of
mals ALWAYS have in common? They are plants
all C. thickening of roots and stems by cell
A. Multicellular division in the vascular cambium
B. Eukaryotic D. none of above
C. Prokaryotic
420. Plants are classified into two groups:
D. Consumers
A. long and short
415. Which of the following plant parts is NOT B. flowering and non-flowering
used to classify plants?
C. green and brown
A. Roots
D. none of above
B. Leaves
C. Flowers 421. Most plants are
D. Seeds A. Flowering Plants
416. Which are dry fruits of an angiosperm? B. Conifers
A. pecan and walnut C. Mosses
B. apple and peach D. Ferns

422. What do all vertebrates have in com- 427. Which of the following types of animals
mon? has lungs, moist skin, and lays eggs in the
water?

A. backbone
A. amphibians
B. warm-bloodedness
B. birds
C. same number of limbs
C. fish
D. same type of skin
D. reptiles
423. A plant that cross-pollinates
428. Animals whose babies drink their
A. reproduces within it’s own flower mother’s mild are called
B. reproduces with another plant of the A. mammals
same species
B. reptiles
C. reproduces with more than one other
plant of the same species C. birds
D. fish
D. reproduces with another species of
plant 429. People belong to what CLASS of ani-
mals?
424. Which plant would be considered non-
vascular? A. Humans
A. Fern B. Mammals
B. Oak tree C. Birds
C. Rose bush D. Amphibians
D. Liverwort 430. It develops from the flower

A. anther
425. evaporation of water into the atmo-
sphere from the stems and leaves of B. fruit
plants C. ovules
A. Photosynthesis D. watermelons
B. Transpiration
431. Xylem and phloem are found in
C. Radicle
A. all vascular plants
D. Geology
B. all nonvascular plants
426. What is the correct definition of FLOWER- C. all plants
ING plants?
D. all mosses
A. Plants with seeds that grow flowers
432. Which plant is nonvascular?
B. Plants that lose their leaves in the cold
months A. rose
C. Plants that don’t lose their leaves and B. moss

stay green year round C. conifer
D. none of above D. fern

433. Which of the following is non-flowering B. Fertilization

plant? C. Classify
A. Paddy plant
D. Pollination
B. Tomato plant
439. Plants which produce seeds that are cov-
C. Fern
ered by fruits are known as
D. Mango tree
A. gymnosperms
NARAYAN CHANGDER
434. What is the difference from the seeds of B. angiosperms
gymnosperms vs. the seeds of flowering
plants? C. bryophytes
A. The seeds of gymnosperms have a D. none of these
thick covering
440. Gametes combine at fertilization to make
B. The seeds of gymnosperms are round a new diploid cell which then grows into a
C. The seeds of gymnosperms have no new organism.
covering A. zygotes
D. The seeds of gymnosperms are always B. zi goats
found inside fruit
C. gametes
435. The two main groups of plants are D. haploid cells
A. Living and Non-Living
441. A frog is a vertebrate that can also be
B. Vascular and Non Vascular
classified as
C. Trees and Moss
A. an amphibian
D. Ferns and Flowers
B. a fish
436. Vascular plants that produce flowers are C. a reptile
.
D. an arthropod
A. Angiosperms
B. Gymnosperms 442. Lungs and moist skin are characteristics
of which of the following vertebrates?
C. Nonvascular
A. amphibians
D. Fungi
B. fish
437. large strengthened vein on the midline of
a leaf C. reptiles
A. Midrib D. lizards
B. Petiole 443. Means of grouping plants according to
C. Vascular Cambium their similarities
D. none of above A. Botanical Classification
B. Descriptive Classification
438. To arrange in a specific order or to group
plants by categories based on similarities. C. Plant Classification
A. Reproduction D. None of the Above

444. Spruce pines and evergreens are exam- B. dicot

ples of:
C. cone-bearing plant

A. angiosperms
D. nonvascular plant
B. non-vascular plants because they stay
green year round 450. Ferns are
C. gymnosperms A. vascular
D. None of these B. nonvascular
445. Animals that feed milk to their young are C. vertebrates
considered D. invertebrates
A. mammals
451. Which of the following is another term
B. reptiles
used for leaf edges?
C. insects
A. Leaf Margin
D. amphibians
B. Leaf Apex
C. Leaf Venation
teristic of plant that has monocotyledon
seed? D. Leaf Blade
A. Has parallel vein leaves 452. A stalk of celery was placed in water
B. Has tap root with red food coloring, What type of tissue
C. Has woody stem will probably turn red inside the celery?
D. Has one cotyledon A. phloem

B. xylem
447. Which of the following plant cells contain
thicker primary cell walls which have anun- C. chlorophyll
even thickness? D. pigment
A. Sclerenchyma cells
453. A flower-producing vascular plant in
B. Xylem cells
which the seed is enclosed in a fruit.
C. Parenchyma cells
A. Angiosperm
D. Collenchyma cells
B. Gymnosperm
448. How are mammals different from other
C. Conifer
vertebrates?
D. Fern
A. They use lungs to breathe.
B. They have cartilage instead of bones. 454. Which group do flowering plants belong
C. They produce milk to feed young. to?
D. They do not hibernate. A. ferns

B. mosses
449. If a plant has a flower that has five
petals, how would it be classified? C. seed plants
A. monocot D. coniferous plants

455. Photosynthesis:water + + sunlight = 460. Plants are living organisms.

oxygen + sugar A. unicellular prokaryotic
A. carbon monoxide B. unicellular eukaryotic
B. carbon dioxide C. multicellular eukaryotic
C. nitrogen D. none of above
D. helium 461. What are cold-blooded animals?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Animals that get heat from what they
456. Animals that begin their life in water and
eat.
live the rest of their life in land are called
B. Animals that get heat from their sur-
rounding.
A. Mammals
C. Animals that eat a lot of ice.
B. Amphibians
D. Animals that live on the land.
C. Reptiles
462. Vascular plants have that carry
D. Birds inside the plant.
457. are plants that produce flowers. A. stems/oxygen

B. flowers/seeds
A. Non-Vascular
C. tubes/nutrients
B. Invertebrates
D. roots/spores
C. Gymnosperms
463. part of the plant embryo which develops
D. Angiosperms from the primary root
458. These plants sprout, grow, & produce A. Gametophyte Stage
seeds in just one growing season. (1 year) B. Vascular Bundles
Herbaceous plants are annuals.EX:corn,
C. Radicle
marigolds
D. none of above
A. annual plants
464. Which of the following sea animals would
B. biennial plants
be classified as an invertebrate?
C. perinnial plants A. sailfish
D. none of above B. squid
459. Which of the following is a characteristic C. shark

of plantae individuals? D. seal
A. They are multicellular and most do not 465. Which vascular plant is described as hav-
move ing leafy branches called fronds
B. They have a cell wall and a nucleus but A. club mosses
no chloroplasts B. conifers
C. They acquire nutrients by ingestion C. ferns
D. They are prokaryotes D. horsetails

466. Look at the list below. Which are exam- 471. What do we call plants that are Ev-
ples of nonvascular plants? ergreen, have seeds, but no flowers or
fruit?

A. ferns
A. Nonvascular plants
B. mosses and liverworts
B. Seedless vascular plants
C. pine trees and junipers
C. Gymnosperms
D. tulips and violets
D. Angiosperms
467. The anther is filled with these. They con- 472. Flowers and trees fall into the kingdom
tain the male gametes of the flower. They
A. plants
have a unique shape, & size in each differ-
ent flower. B. animals
A. pollen grains C. fungi
D. bacteria
B. Skittles
C. haploid cells 473. Plants that produce seeds formed by
cones or cone-like structures are classified
D. petals as
468. Conifers (pine trees) reproduce by mak- A. gymnosperms
ing: B. angiosperms
A. male & female cones C. byrophytes
B. spores D. none of these
C. angiosperms 474. It produces a new plant

D. runners A. stem
B. root
C. seed
Dormancy?
D. leaf
A. A plant being cut down into a stump
475. Plants make their food through photosyn-
B. A plant wilting and drying out because
thesis. What three things do plants need
Mrs. Tyler forgot to water it:(
to do this?
C. A rabbit eating your mother’s garden A. sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide
flowers
B. sunlight, water, and oxygen
D. Plants losing their leaves for the win-
C. sunlight, oxygen and nitrogen
ter
D. none of above
470. Which is a way to classify plants based
476. I am tall, I am large and I have woody
on its seed leaves?
and strong trunk. What am I?
A. monocotyledon and dicotyledon A. vine
B. seed-producing and spore-producing B. shrub
C. vascular and nonvascular C. tree
D. cone-bearing and seed-bearing D. none of above

477. The main groups of vertebrates are 482. What kind of plants have tube-like struc-
tures to transport food and water through
A. mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians
the plant?
and fish.
A. mushrooms
B. Mammals, marsupials, monotremes
and birds B. algae
C. mammals, birds, reptiles and amphib- C. nonvascular plants
ians D. vascular plants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. mammals, reptiles and amphibians 483. A salamander has moist skin and lays
eggs. It breathes through lungs or gills,
478. Which of the following plants do NOT re-
depending on the species. A salamander is
produce using spores?
which type of animal?
A. Algae
A. fish
B. Strawberries B. amphibian
C. Ferns C. mammal
D. Mosses D. reptile
479. I have a nucleus, can perform photosyn- 484. Which of the following is a way plants
thesis and am multicellular. What kingdom move food and water?
do I belong to? A. monocot and dicot
A. Animalia B. cone-bearing and flowering
B. Archaebacteria C. vascular and nonvascular
C. Plantae D. spore-making or seed-making
D. Protist 485. Some plants grow from seeds, others,
such as mosses and liverworts, grow from
480. Owls are examples of
A. spores
A. Birds
B. eggs
B. Mollusks
C. seeds
C. Arthropods
D. nothing
D. Plants
486. Which of these is nonflowering?
481. What is taxonomy? A. tulip
A. the scientific study of how living things B. daffodil
are classified
C. apple tree
B. the name of Linneaus’ classification
D. pine tree
system
C. the process used by geologists to clas- 487. What is another name for monocotyle-
sify rocks dons?
D. the process of observing an organ- A. Monocot

ism’s behavior B. Dicot

C. One cotyledon 493. Which of the following has no roots?

D. Two cotyledons A. Mosses

B. Ferns
488. Animals that hunt other animals to eat
are called . C. Flowering Plants
A. prey D. Conifers
B. omnivores
494. Comparing or organizing things into
C. predators groups is called
D. carnivores A. Individualizing
489. Nonvascular plants do not have true B. Classifying
A. roots C. Coming together
B. stems D. Metamorphosis
C. leaves 495. The tropical rain forest exhibit at River-

D. all of these banks Zoo is extremely humid because
plants are losing a lot of water through
490. They transfer or receive the chromo- their leaves. What are the holes in their
somes. leaves called?
A. zygote A. guard cells
B. flowers B. stomata
C. gametes C. xylem
D. haploid cells D. none of above
491. Tool used by a taxonomist to identify an 496. Completes lifecycle in one growing sea-
unknown organism is a: son
A. dichotomous key A. Annual
B. binomial nmenclature B. Bienniel
C. scientific name C. Perennial
D. binomial key D. None of the Above
492. Why do scientist classify organisms? 497. Although the bald cypress tree loses its
leaves in the winter, its seeds are similar
A. Scientists classify organisms to make
to evergreen pine trees. How are bald cy-
their office tidy
press and pine tree seeds similar?
B. Scientists classify organisms to make
A. They are found in bulbs.
them easier to study.
B. They are found in cones.
C. Scientists classify organisms to make
things pretty C. They are found in fruits.
D. Scientists classify organisms for fun D. They are found in shells.

498. Which of these is NOT a way to classify C. Gymnosperms

plants?
D. Angiosperms
A. as vascular and nonvascular
B. as vertebrates and invertebrates 504. Which of the following terms best de-
scribes the pattern in which leaf veins are
C. as seed producing and spore produc-
organized?
ing
A. Leaf Margin
D. as deciduous and coniferous
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Leaf Apex
499. Vascular plants have tubes that carry
and to the rest of the plant. C. Leaf Venation
A. water and nutrients D. Leaf Blade
B. blood and water
505. Daisies, tulips and roses are examples
C. blood and nutrients of-
D. chlorophyll and water A. vertebrates
500. Non-vascular plants are not reproduced B. invertebrates
by seeds. How do they reproduce?
C. vascular
A. by spores
D. nonvascular
B. by fungus
C. by mold 506. Plants that have tubes inside of them to
D. by moss transport liquid
A. vascular plants‘
501. How do the seeds and spores of plants
compare? B. nonvascular plants
A. neither grows in soil C. rhizoids
B. Both occur in flowering plants D. conifers
C. both are parts for reproduction
D. only seeds grow into new plants 507. The process of making more organisms of
the same kind.
502. Why are mosses unable to grow tall? A. Flowering Plant
A. They are single-celled organisms.
B. Reproduction
B. They cannot reproduce.
C. Nonflowering Plant
C. They don’t gain enough nutrients from
photosynthesis and get little sunlight. D. Germination
D. They lack vascular tissue and must
508. Humans are part of the
transport nutrients cell to cell.
A. Animal Kingdom
503. “Flowering plants” is a common name for
B. Mammal Group
A. Nonvascular plants C. Vertebrates Group
B. Seedless vascular plants D. All of the above

509. What are three examples of nonvascular C. alternate generation

plants? D. none of above

A. grasses, daffodils and tomatoes
515. A network of hyphae is called
B. mosses, tomatoes and dandelions
A. sporangium
C. mosses, liverworts, hornworts
B. mycelium
D. ferns, mosses, grasses
C. algae
510. Authority D. sporangiophores
A. person or people who determined the 516. A stem that grows underground is a
name for a plant
A. leaf
B. end wall which is perforated with
B. potato
pores
C. cutting
C. chemical product of photosynthesis
D. bulb
D. none of above
517. Monocots are a subdivision of and
511. A dolphin is a have cotyledon
A. bird A. gymnosperms, cones for
B. mammal B. angiosperms, a single
C. reptile C. tracheophyte, double
D. fish D. vascular plants, no
512. Plants that have roots, stems, and leaves 518. Pitcher Plants and Venus Fly Traps are
are called what kind of plants?
A. vertebrates A. Nonvascular
B. invertebrates B. spores
C. vascular C. gynmnosperms
D. nonvascular D. carnivorous
513. Which is a NOT a characteristic that all 519. Redwood trees can grow to be very tall.
plants have in common? They can grow so tall because they are
A. All plants have tissues and organs. A. vascular
B. All plants have cell walls and chloro- B. deciduous
plasts. C. nonvascular
C. All plants are vascular. D. flowering
D. All plants make their own food. 520. Trees are an example of
514. This is when after fertilization, when the A. Flowering plants
stalk and capsule are produced. B. Ferns
A. sporophyte generation C. Conifers
B. gametophyte generation D. none of above

521. plants that don’t have vascular tis- 526. What is the main purpose of seeds in
suethey are seedless shorter plantssome- plants that have them?
times have parts that look like roots, A. To protect and distribute the zygote
stems, or leaves, but are not true roots,
stems, or leaves.live near water or shady B. To entice animals to eat the plant.
places C. To be fertilized by other plants.
A. vascular plant D. To store water for the mother plant.
B. nonvascular plants 527. Which structure in the leaf controls the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
opening and closing of the stoma?
C. seedless plant
A. cuticle
D. seed plants
B. epidermis
522. Most specific classification level C. guard cell
A. Kingdom D. spongy mesophyll
B. Class 528. Which of the following is a vascular plant
C. Family that flowers and produces a fruit which
contains seeds?
D. Species
A. angiosperm
523. plants need three or more years to B. dicots
fully develop. C. monocots
A. annual D. gymnosperm
B. biennial 529. All plants come from
C. centennial A. Soil
D. perennial B. Seeds
C. Flowers
524. What is one way that plants slow down
transpiration? D. Buds
A. make less sugar using photosynthesis 530. Paddy plant is an example of flowering
plants. Choose one characteristic of paddy
plant.
B. close their chloroplasts
A. Has woody stem
C. guard cells can close stomata
B. Has leaves with parallel veins
D. none of above
C. Has tap root
525. A plant with naked seeds is given the D. Consist of two cotyledons
name of?
531. Fibrous root system is present in
A. gymnosperm
A. monocotyledonous plant
B. angiosperm B. dicotyledonous plant
C. moss C. gymnosperms
D. none of above D. angiosperms

532. What are the 2 MAIN groups of plants? 538. Which group of vertebrates is found only
A. seed plants and seedless plants in water?

B. gymnosperms and angiosperms A. Fish
C. horsetails and ferns B. Crustaceans
D. vascular and nonvascular
C. Amphibians
533. What is the definition of classification? D. Fish and amphibians
A. To classify things to classify them
B. To group shoes together 539. Plants that reproduce from seeds can be
further divided into:
C. To group things together/ organize
based on similar characteristics A. monocots & dicots
D. To group things together to keep B. angiosperms & dicotyledons
things neat
C. conifers & flowering plants
534. Which group of vascular plants do NOT
make seeds? D. spores & conifers
A. Coniferous trees
540. Why is a fern a vascular plant?
B. Ferns
A. It grows from seeds.
C. Pines
D. Flowering Plants B. It grows from spores.
535. What do mammals breath with? C. It has tubes inside its stem.
A. Gills D. It has no tubes inside it leaves and
B. Lungs stems.
C. Skin
541. In what part of the plant cell do plants
D. Warm blood make their food?
536. Name the two types of seed-bearing vas- A. mitochondria
cular plants
B. chloroplast
A. gymnosperms and angiosperms
B. vascular and nonvascular plants C. nucleus
C. horsetails and club mosses D. none of above

D. mosses and liverworts
542. These produce the spores for the fern.
537. When plants are classified by how they They are on the underside of mature
transport water, scientists group them as fronds.
A. rhizoids
A. monocots or dicots
B. rhizomes
B. seedless or seed-bearing
C. vascular or nonvascular C. sori
D. angiosperms or gymnosperms D. sorry

543. Why do scientists classify plants and an- A. if the animal is warm or cold blooded
imals? B. if the animal has a backbone
A. To sort them by color C. if the animal can move on its own from
B. To sort them in groups based on simi- one place to another place
lar characteristics
D. if the animal can fly
C. To show how animals and plants are
different. 549. A(n) is an any part or characteristic
that helps a species survive or reproduce.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. To show how animals and plants are
the same. A. leaf
B. adaptation
544. Why do scientists classify animals?
C. flower
A. to learn more about animals
B. to show how they are related D. none of above
C. to organize their information 550. Seeds can survive for thousands of years
D. all of the above if they are
A. Cold and Dry
545. Which groups are warm-blooded?
B. Cold and Wet
A. fish and mammals
C. Warm and Dry
B. birds and amphibians
D. Warm and Wet
C. birds and mammals
D. birds and reptiles 551. the slender stalk above the ovary
A. stile
546. study of the movement, distribution and
quality of water on Earth B. ovary
A. Hydrology C. ovule
B. Radicle D. stamen
C. Authority 552. Trees, wild flowers, and grasses are all
D. Cultivar considered to be
547. What is the name of a type of chart (in A. vascular plants

your notebook) that is used by scientists B. nonvascular plants
and shows the two categories of plants
C. woody plants
and how they are broken down?
D. non-woody plants
A. dichotomous key
B. Grid 553. Which plant parts do scientists use to
classify plants?
C. key of knowledge
A. Mainly roots and leaves
D. none of above
B. Mainly flowers and seeds
548. Which of the following features would be
least likely to help you figure out which C. Mainly leaves and stems
group an animal belongs? D. All plant parts

554. A seed can move by wind, water, and C. Stem

D. Nutrient

A. clouds
B. singing 560. Who is known as the father of modern
taxonomy?
C. cars
A. Linnaeus
D. animals
B. Aristotle
555. A type of tree that does not produce flow-
C. Peterson
ers and stays green all year
D. Watson
A. gymnosperm
B. delicious 561. How would pine trees, wild flowers and
C. deciduous grasses be classified?
D. coniferous A. Vascular
B. Nonvascular
556. The science of finding patterns among liv-
ing things is called C. angiosperms
A. classification D. gymnosperms
B. kingdoms
562. These come in different shapes, but the
C. sorting most known is the Boston type.
D. groups A. vines
557. The capsule produces haploid spores. The B. daisies
spores will become new leafy parts which C. ferns
will produce another stalk & capsule.
D. mosses
A. sporophyte generation
B. gametophyte generation 563. Which of the following is not a character-
C. alternate generations istic of gymnosperms?
D. none of above A. Their stems are without branches.

B. Their leaves form a crown.
558. One way that mosses and ferns are sim-
ilar is they both C. They are mostly evergreen, perennial
and woody.
A. are flowering plants
D. Their flowers develop into fruits and
B. produce spores
seeds are formed within the fruits.
C. grow with little rainfall
D. are vascular plants 564. What produces the spores?
A. The Sori
559. A substance that an organism needs to
survive and grow. B. The Sorus
A. Leaves C. The Sporangium
B. Roots D. none of above

565. Crabs, jellyfish, and worms are examples B. From cell to cell
of- C. Through leaves
A. vertebrates D. Through roots
B. invertebrates
571. What type of animal is a whale?
C. vascular
A. amphibian
D. nonvascular
B. fish
NARAYAN CHANGDER
566. Which statement describes the role of C. mammal
flowers in plant survival?
D. reptile
A. Flowers can absorb carbon dioxide for
sugar production. 572. What do all Seedless Vascular plants
B. Flowers produce oxygen through cellu- have in common?
lar respiration. A. Spores
C. Flowers contain cells that carry out B. No seeds or flowers
photosynthesis. C. Specialized conducting tissues for
D. Flowers contain cells that produce ga- transporting substances
metes. D. All of the Above
567. what is photosynthesis 573. are vascular plants with tall, hollow,
A. a prossess used by plants to obtain jointed stems.
food A. liverworts
B. when cats explode B. mosses
C. chemidcal enegy C. horsetails
D. another word for fungus D. ginkgoes
568. Which is not example of non-flowering 574. What is Phloem?
plant?
A. female part of a flower
A. ferns
B. male part of a flower
B. mosses
C. in vascular plants, tissue that trans-
C. conifers ports nutrients that are made in the
D. orchids leaves to all parts of the plant
569. Animals that have a backbone are called D. the root system in the plant
A. vertebrate 575. Which of the following best describes

B. invertebrate vascular tissue?
C. insects A. Provides a protective covering for the

plant
D. crustaceans
B. Comprises the majority of the primary
570. How do nutrients move through nonvas- plant body
cular plants? C. Specializes in storage, photosynthesis
A. Along stems and support

10.2 Bryophytes 1549
D. Transports food, water, hormones and A. seed

minerals throughout the plant B. angiosperm

576. These plants sprout in one growing C. gymnosperm
season, but do not produce flowers &
D. spore
seeds until the next season. They do
not come back after the second growing 579. What do seeds need to germinate?
season.EX:forget-me-nots; black-eyed su-
sans A. warm temperature and water
A. annual plants B. oxygen and nutrients
B. biennial plants C. water and carbon dioxide
C. perennial plants D. oxygen and carbon dioxide
D. none of above
580. Fish breathe using
577. Miss Kearns’s class takes a nature hike. A. gills
How do the students identify a fern
plant? B. lungs
A. Look for petals and flowers C. muscles
B. Look for cones that grow along D. cold blooded
branches
581. The system we use to name species was
C. Look for brown spores underneath the invented by who and in which year?
leaves
A. Carl Linnaeus 1735
D. Look for fuzzy patches that grow near
the ground B. Carl Linnaeus 1852
578. A seed plant that does not produce a C. Carl Lewis 1642
flower D. Carl Lewis 1959
10.2 Bryophytes
1. Are spores formed by meiosis, mitosis or 3. Bryophytes have hair-like filaments called
asexual propagation? , to anchor the plant.
A. meiosis A. rhizoids
B. asexual propagation B. roots
C. mitosis C. sporophytes
D. none of above D. spores
2. The plant body is commonly differentiated
to form and like structure. 4. Examples of mosses are-
A. Stem and Leaf A. Polytrichum, Funaria, Fern

B. Stem and Root B. Polytrichum, Funaria, Sphagnum
C. Leaf and Branches C. Funaria, Fern, Sphagnum
D. Branches and Root D. Equisetum, Funaria, Selaginella

5. They do not true roots, , or leaves, B. Bryopsida

although the plant body has leaflike and C. Anthoceropsida
parts.
D. Bryophyta
A. possess, stems, stemlike
11. Plants with seeds in cones are called?
B. stemlike, possess, stems
A. gymnosperms
C. stems, stemlike, possess
B. angiosperms
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. flowers
6. Plants that do not have a well-developed D. mosses
system of tubes for transporting water
and other materials 12. Because do not have a way to trans-
port , they depend on a environ-
A. nonvascular plants ment.
B. vascular plants A. mosses, water, moist
C. chloroplasts B. water, moist, mosses
D. conifers C. moist, mosses, water
7. Beside producing spores, bryophytes can D. none of above
reproduce asexually by 13. Sporophylls in the form of cones/strobili
A. Gemmae cup are present in-
B. Budding A. Selaginella
C. Seed B. Equisetum
D. Sorus C. Fern
D. Both in Selaginella and Equisetum.
8. What is the gametophyte generation of
ferns called? 14. What is Bryophyta also called as
A. Protonema A. Reptile of the plant kingdom
B. Gemmacup B. Amphibians of the plant kingdom
C. Fiddlehead C. Animals of the plant kingdom
D. Prothallus D. None of these
9. The haploid form of the life cycle of a 15. It makes in a at the end of a
plant, characterized by ‘alternation of gen- A. spores, capsule, stalk
eration’ is called B. capsule, stalk, spores
A. seed C. stalk, capsule, spores
B. embryo D. none of above
C. sporophyte 16. Which plant is NOT a bryophyte?
D. gametophyte A. mosses
10. Group of bryophtes that has similar struc- B. liverworts
ture to the common plant is called as C. flowers
A. Hepaticopsida D. hornworts

17. this phrase describes the the general life 23. Mosses produce in a at the end of
cycle of plants. a

A. alternation of generation A. spores, capsule, stalk
B. alternation of gametophytes B. stalk, capsule, spores
C. alternation of sporophytes C. capsule, spores, stalk
18. The thallus forms a close to the 24. The produces eggs in the moss.
A. archegonia
A. leathery, rosette, ground B. antheridium
B. ground, leathery, rosette C. capsule
C. rosette, ground, leathery D. gamete
D. none of above
25. Which is the most suitable place for
19. Predominant stage of life cycle or main bryophtes to grow?
plant body of Pteridophytes is- A. A rocky and sandy environment
A. Sporophyte, 2n B. A wide grassland
B. Gametophyte, n C. A tropical forest
C. Gametophyte, 2n D. A cold and dry hill
D. Sporophyte, n
26. Spore from sporophyte of moss will form
20. What is Bryon = and Phyton = a young moss which is known as
A. Rock and Plants A. Protonema
B. Moss and Plants B. Protalium
C. Plants and Tissue C. Anteridium
D. Moss and Rock D. Archegonium
21. In bryophytes’ life cycle, how does a 27. Plants that reproduce from spores, for ex-
sperm cell get to an egg cell? ample ferns and mosses
A. through the help of water A. seedless plants
B. through self-pollination B. seed plants
C. through cross-pollination C. rhizoids
D. through the help of the wind D. angiosperms
22. Which two groups of plants depend on wa- 28. Which of the following terms refers to the
ter for reproduction? waxy coating on the outside of leaves?
A. Bryophytes and Angiosperms A. Cuticle
B. Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms B. Phloem
C. Bryophytes and Pteridophytes C. Stomata
D. Angiosperms and Gymnosperms D. Xylem

29. What do spores become after they are re- 35. Predominant stage of life cycle or main
leased from sporophytes? plant body of Bryophytes is-
A. liverworts A. Sporophyte, 2n
B. rhizoids B. Gametophyte, n
C. cryptophobic C. Gametophyte, 2n
D. gametophytes D. Sporophyte, n
30. How are mosses and ferns alike?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
36. They take the to make
A. They both have fronds A. energy, sun, food
B. They both reproduce without seeds
B. sun, energy, food
C. They both grow only at night
C. food, sun, energy
D. They both grow in the oceans
D. none of above
31. Which of the following structures allows
for gas exchange between a leaf and the 37. In Bryophytes the antherozoids are
atmosphere? A. biflagellate
A. Cuticle B. uniflagellate
B. Phloem C. multiflagellate
C. Stomata D. triflagellate
D. Xylem
38. Plants which along with lichens decompose
32. They can be found , but only in places rocks are-
that are and
A. Pteridophytes
A. worldwide, damp, humid
B. Bryophytes
B. humid, worldwide, damp
C. Gymnosperms
C. damp, humid, worldwide
D. Angiosperms
D. none of above
39. What is xylem’s function in a plant?
33. Leaf like appendages bearing sporangia in
Pteridophytes are- A. carries nutrients
A. Spore mother cell B. carries water upward from the roots
B. Sporophyll C. carries oxygen to the plant
C. Sporangium D. carries carbon dioxide away from the
D. Sporophyte plant
34. Protonema stage and leafy stage in 40. Dominant generation is gametophyte gen-
Bryophytes are two stages of- eration. This statement is TRUE for
A. Gametophyte A. pteridophytes
B. Sporophyte B. bryophytes
C. Rhizoids C. angiosperms
D. Leaves D. gymnosperms

41. Which of the following statements about 47. Where is moss least likely to grow?
green algae is true? A. in a damp cave

A. They are found in dry areas of land.
B. shady tree trunk
B. Evidence suggests that they were the
C. in a sunny field
first plants.
C. They are multicellular. D. none of above
D. Like other plants, they have special- 48. These are hair-like filaments that attach
ized structures. the bryophyte to the ground.
42. Mosses have roots called A. rhizoids
A. leaf B. roots
B. stem C. sporangia
C. Rhizoids D. none of above
D. none of above
49. Mosses is more closely related to
43. Which characteristic is not found in all
A. Hornwort
plants?
B. Vascular Plant
A. prokaryotic
B. photosynthetic C. Liverwort
C. eukaryotic D. none of above

D. have cell walls 50. Sporophyte of bryophytes is usually differ-
44. Ferns produce clusters of sporangia known entiated into
as on the underside of the sporo- A. foot, seta and capsule
phylls. B. root, stem and leaves
A. sori
C. root, stem and capsule
B. stoma
D. foot, seta and stem
C. rhizomes
D. strobili 51. Why are mosses (Bryophytes) so small?
A. They have no vascular system
45. What do male cones produce?
A. spores B. Their cells have no nuclei
B. pollen C. Their sporophyte form is haploid

C. eggs D. none of above
D. seeds 52. What is gametophyte?
46. Funaria belongs to A. The stage that produces sperm cells
A. Bryophytes and egg cells.
B. Pteridophytes B. The stage that produces spores.
C. Algae C. The stage that produces rhizomes.
D. None of these D. none of above

53. How many generations does “alternation 59. A substance that makes cells walls of a
of generations” involve? plant rigid are known as
A. 1 A. xylem
B. 2 B. phloem
C. 3 C. vascular tissue
D. none of above D. lignin
60. Economic importance of Pteridophytes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
54. Structure present in Bryophytes, that is
are-
differentiated into foot, seta and capsule
is- A. Medicinal purpose
A. Sporophyte B. Soil Binders
C. Ornamental Plants
B. Gametophyte
D. All of above
C. Rhizoids
D. Spore mother cell 61. The antherozoid nucleus fuses with egg
nucleus during fertilization and produces
55. Selaginella and equisetum are diploid
A. Bryophytes A. spores
B. Pteridophytes B. gametophyte
C. Thallophytes C. zygote
D. None of these D. flagella

62. When mosses and ferns reproduce, what
56. is flask shaped structure in do they produce in the first cycle?
bryophytes.
A. spores
A. Antheridium
B. fronds
B. Tuber
C. sperm
C. Adrocytes
D. egg
D. Archegonium
63. The joining of pollen and eggs in the female
57. Eggs are produced in cone is called?
A. Antheridia A. pollination
B. Sporangium B. germination
C. Archegonia C. fertilization
D. dispersal
D. Spores
64. Why do bryophytes have to be around wa-
58. Bryophytes are commonly called as- ter part of the year?
A. Snakes of plant kingdom A. So they are able to stay wet
B. Amphibians of plant kingdom B. So they can anchor in the soil better
C. First vascular plants C. So the sperm can swim to the egg.
D. Flowering plants D. So they can tolerate low temperatures

65. The first plants to evolve lived 71. Which of the following is a not character-
A. in water. istic of Pteridophytes?

B. on land. A. Sporophyte generation is dominant
C. in the desert. B. Gametophyte generation is dominant
D. in the air. C. Produce spores
D. Has true roots, stems and leaves
66. Capsule of Bryophyte produces spores
A. diploid 72. The reason why bryophyte can compete
B. motile well in harsh environment is
C. haploid A. Non-vascular plants

D. tetraploid B. Vascular plant
C. can reproduce asexually
67. Which of the following is NOT a character-
istic of pteridophytes? D. none of above
A. Sporophyte generation is dominant 73. All of the following are spore bearing vas-
B. Gametophyte generation is dominant cular plants except:
C. Produce spores A. club mosses
D. Has true roots, stems and leaves B. ferns
68. Bryophytes do not have the specialized C. horsetails
that other plants have to water D. rhizomes
and
A. internal tissue, transport, nutrients 74. Ferns: ::Mosses:Bryophytes
B. transport, internal tissue, nutrients A. Pteridophytes
C. internal tissue, nutrients, transport B. Angiosperm
D. none of above C. Gymnosperm
69. Alternation of generations in plants refers D. Atracheophytes

to the alternation of 75. How do bryophtes reproduce?
A. diploid and haploid stages
A. Photosynthesis
B. male and female stages
B. Spores
C. meiotic and mitotic stages
C. Pollination
D. spore and seed stages
D. none of above
70. Non-vascular plants belongs to which
group? 76. Leafy gametophyte is present in
A. pteridophytes A. Liverworts
B. bryophytes B. Hornworts
C. gymnosperms C. Moss
D. angiosperms D. Riccia

77. If the environment is good, most algae, B. Riccia

which are single celled stay in the
C. Marchantia
stage.
D. Ulva
A. zygotic
B. haploid 83. Which of the following has true leaves,
C. diploid stems, and roots?
D. gametophyte A. mosses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. bryophytes
78. Nonvascular seedless plants such as
mosses C. ferns
A. angiosperms D. none of above
B. gymnosperms
84. Bryophyta is mostly found in which area
C. bryophytes in
D. chloroplasts A. Moist shaded area in the hills
79. The cell walls are made of They use B. Beaches
or for
C. Desert
A. cellulose, spores, seeds, reproduction
D. Dry regions
B. spores, seeds, reproduction, cellulose 85. Common liverwort is found from

to biomes.
C. cellulose, reproduction, spores, seeds A. worldwide, polar, tropical
B. tropical, polar, worldwide
D. seeds, reproduction, cellulose, spores
C. polar, worldwide, tropical
80. Its body is simple and Rather than , D. none of above
it is has vegetative called a
A. flat, leaves, tissue, thallus 86. When sphagnum moss dies, it accumulates
into a substance known as:
B. thallus, leaves, flat, tissue
C. leaves, tissue, thallus, flat A. antherida
D. flat, tissue, thallus, leaves B. archaegonia

C. gametophytes
81. produces sperm in the moss.
D. peat
A. antheridium
B. archegonia 87. Some hornworts develop where of
C. capsule colonize the plant.
D. gamete A. openings, colonies, cyanobacteria

B. colonies, cyanobacteria, openings
82. Which of these is not an example of
Bryophyta C. cyanobacteria, colonies, openings
A. Moss D. none of above

88. In some , there are structures called 94. Moss can on bare
A. grow, rock

A. species, rootlike, rhizoids
B. rock, bare
B. rootlike, species, rhizoids
C. bare, houses
C. rhizoids, rootlike, species
D. none of above
D. none of above
95. Of the following locations, you would
89. It has , which are rootlike , that
most likely find mosses growing in
it to the soil.
A. rhizoids, filaments, anchor A. hot, dry, mineral-poor soil
B. filaments, anchor, rhizoids B. sandy soil near a beach

C. rhizoids, anchor, fillaments C. shaded grounded near a small pond
D. none of above D. exposed ground with direct sun
90. bryophytes grows on dead organic 96. A frond on a fern is known as a

matter
A. leaf
A. aquatic
B. root
B. parasitic
C. stem
C. saprophytic
D. cone
D. xerophytic
91. They provide for on 97. They absorb from their They must
live in a environment to
A. food, life, land
A. water, surfaces, moist, survive
B. life, land, food
B. moist, surface, water, survive
C. land, food, life
C. survive, moist, water, surfaces
D. none of above
D. survive, moist, surfaces, water
92. Lack true roots and use tiny hair-like
stems for absorption of water and nutri- 98. Male and female reproductive structure
ents from the soil present in liverwort are respectively-
A. Bryophytes A. Stamen and Pistil
B. Angiosperms B. Archegonium and Antheridium
C. Gymnosperm C. Antheridium and Archegonium
D. none of above
D. Androecium and Gynoecium
93. They have and organ that carry out
a certain for the whole organism 99. Bryophytes grow in
A. organs, systems, task A. damp shady areas

B. task, organs, systems B. desert
C. systems, organs, task C. water

100. Mosses and liverworts are called non- C. combination of forms

vascular plant because D. none of above
A. theylack motile sperm
106. Most bryophytes are only a few centime-
B. theylack seed
tres tall because they lack
C. theylack vascular tissue
A. vascular tissues
D. theylack true roots, stems and leaves
B. reproductive organs
NARAYAN CHANGDER
101. Pteridophytes are commonly known as- C. stems
A. First vascular plants D. leaves
B. Snakes of plant kingdom
107. The plant body not differentiated into
C. First terrestrial plants roots, stem and leaves is called
D. All of above
A. thallus
102. Which of the following statements is B. plant
false?
C. animal
A. Ferns are considered advanced over
D. none of above
mosses because ferns have roots.
B. Ferns are seedless plants. 108. Mosses prevent soil erosion because-
C. Ferns lack lignified vascular tissues. A. They secrete acids
D. The sporophyte generation of ferns is B. By forming dense mats in soil
the dominant phase in their life cycle.
C. They are primitive plant
103. The give the hornwort and a D. They grow in shady and dampy places
color.
A. cyanobacteria, nitrogen, blue-green 109. To which group do ferns belong?
B. nitrogen, cyanobacteria, blue-green A. Bryophytes
C. blue-green, nitrogen, cyanobacteria B. Pteridophytes

D. none of above C. Gymnosperms
D. Angiosperms
104. What type of environment are ferns most
likely found? 110. The most dominant phase in bryophytes
A. dry metagenesis is
B. hot A. Sporophyte phase which produces
C. cold spores
D. wet B. Gametophyte phase which produces

gametes
105. Is the zygote haploid, diploid, or a combi- C. Sporophyte phase which produces ga-
nation of these forms? metes
A. diploid D. Gametophytes phase which produces
B. haploid spores

111. When the dries out, the are 117. In Bryophytes generation is domi-
A. capsule, spores, released nant

B. released, spores, capsule A. Gametophyte
C. spores, released, capsule B. Sporophyte

C. Pterophyte
D. none of above
D. Psilophyte
112. All of these are bryophytes except:
118. Bryophyta are considered as a connecting
A. ferns
link between
B. mosses
A. algae and fungi
C. liverworts
B. thallophyta and ptcridophyta
D. hornworts C. pteridophyta and gymnosperms
113. The female reproductive organ in D. terrestrial fungi and aquatic fungi
bryophytes is
119. What is phloem’s function in a plant?
A. Antheridium
A. Carries nutrients
B. Sporophyte
B. Carries water upward from the roots
C. Archegonium
C. Carries oxygen to the plant
D. Antherozoid
D. Carries carbon dioxide away from the
114. In moss’ life cycle, how does a sperm cell plant
get to an egg cell?
120. Most members of the plant kingdom are
A. through the help of water to living on the land in many different
B. through self-pollination
C. through cross-pollination A. adapted, habitats
D. through the help of the wind B. adapted, climates
C. adapted, situations
115. It is usually the plant life to after
a D. adapted, houses
A. first, emerge, fire 121. Rhizomes are

B. fire, first, emerge A. leaves
C. emerge, fire, first B. roots
D. none of above C. stems
D. cones
116. Small, multicellular, free living, photosyn-
thetic gametophytic structure present in 122. Why Gymnosperms is more advance com-
Fern is- pared to Ferns?
A. Prothallus A. Non-vascularplants
B. Sporophyte B. Gametophytegeneration is dominant
C. Protonema C. Produceseed
D. Leafy stage D. Has trueroots, stems and leaves

123. Hornworts make inside of a , 128. Bryophtes consists of three classes which
hornlike are
A. spores, green, stalk A. Hepaticopsida, Pteridophyta, Antho-
ceropsida
B. green, stalk, spores
B. Hepaticopsida, Bryopsida, Antho-
C. stalk, spores, green ceropsida
D. none of above C. Bryopsida, Anthoceropsida, Monop-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sida
124. For dispersal of their seeds, gym-
nosperms mostly rely on D. Bryopsida, Hepaticopsida, Dyopsida
A. animals 129. It grows on soil and in damp

B. water A. moist, rocks, habitats
C. wind B. habitats, rocks, moist

C. rocks, habitats, moist
D. mechanical dispersal
D. none of above
125. Mosses are photoautotrophic living be-
ings so 130. Peat is obtained from and its uses is-
A. They obtain organic material from inor- A. Sphagnum, packing material due to wa-
ganic material ter holding capacity
B. Marchantia, packing material due to
B. They obtain inorganic material from or-
water holding capacity
ganic material
C. Sphagnum, used as food
C. They obtain organic material directly
from the ground D. Marchantia, used as food
D. They obtain the energy only from 131. Cryptogams group comprise plants like-
quemical reactions A. Gymnosperm, Angiosperm and
Bryophytes
126. The general life cycle of plants is called
B. Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Ferns,
Gymnopserm
A. alternation of generation
C. Algae, mosses and Ferns, Angiosperm
B. gametophyte
C. sporophyte D. Thallophyta, Bryophyta, Ferns, Algae,
D. gametes mosses
132. In fern’s life cycle, when does fertiliza-

127. They grow close to the and have
tion occur?
that act as to anchor them.
A. when the egg and sperm fuse
A. ground, rhizoids, roots
B. when spores germinate
B. roots, rhizoids, ground
C. when the young gametophyte releases
C. rhizoids, roots, ground sex cells

10.3 Tracheophytes 1561
133. Bryophytes are called Ambhibians of 136. What is found on the underside of a fern’s
plant kingdom because leaf?

A. they require water to complete the life A. rhizomes
cycle
B. fronds
B. they require land to complete their life
C. spores
cycle
D. stems
C. they require gametophyte and sporo-
phyte 137. A spore in bryophytes germinate to form
D. they are non-vascular plants A. gametophyte
134. Gemma cups are and present in- B. sporophyte
A. Unicellular, green asexual buds in C. both
Marchantia
D. none of above
B. Multicellular, non green asexual buds
in Marchantia 138. The meaning of word gymnosperm is
C. Multicellular, green asexual buds in A. naked-seed plant
Marchantia B. round-seed plant
D. Unicellular, non green asexual buds in C. sharp-seed plant
Marchantia
D. coated-seed plant
135. Which best describes the first plants to
evolve? 139. Female cone produce
A. produced flowers A. spores
B. produced cones B. cones
C. had vascular tissue C. pollen
D. had no vascular tissue D. eggs
10.3 Tracheophytes
1. The transports the of to all A. ancient, forest, Paleozoic
of the plant.
B. forest, Paleozoic, ancient
A. phloem, products, photosynthesis,
C. Paleozoic, ancient, forest
parts
B. products, photosynthesis, parts, D. none of above
phloem
3. It has leaves, stems, and It
C. photosynthesis, parts, phloem, prod- with instead of seeds.
ucts
A. true, roots, reproduces, spores
D. parts, phloem, products, photosynthe-
sis B. roots, reproduces, spores, true
C. reproduces, spores, true, roots
2. relatives of the horsetail dominated
the floor in the late era. D. spores, true, roots, reproduces

10.3 Tracheophytes 1562
4. Almost all plants have roots, stems, C. minerals, leaves, xylem, water
and The vascular meant that plants D. leaves, xylem, water, minerals
could grow
A. vascular, leaves, system, taller 10. The undergo The leaves are very
tiny and form a around the
B. leaves, system, taller, vascular
A. stems, photosynthesis, collar, node
C. system, taller, vascular, leaves
B. photosynthesis, collar, node, stems
D. taller, vascular, leaves, system
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. collar, node, stems, photosynthesis
5. Present-day have which are in D. node, stems, photosynthesis, collar
the
A. horsetails, rhizomes, deep, ground 11. They are native to tropical , but they
are also common in forests of both
B. rhizomes, deep, ground, horsetails
A. mountains, northern, hemispheres
C. deep, ground, horsetails, rhizomes
B. northern, hemispheres, mountains
D. ground, horsetails, rhizomes, deep
C. hemispheres, mountains, northern
6. It may on a relationship with D. northern, mountains, hemispheres
fungi.
A. depend, symbiotic, mycorrhizal 12. They are with leaves.
B. symbiotic, mycorrhizal, depend A. evergreen, needlelike
C. mycorrhizal, depend, symbiotic B. needlelike, evergreen
D. mycorrhizal, symbiotic, depend C. oak, orange

D. fluffy, green
7. They have tiny inside that the plant
uses to transport and throughout 13. In the stage, are carried by the
its and must find moisture in order to
A. tubes, water, food, body A. sporophyte, spores, wind, germinate
B. water, food, body, tubes B. spores, wind, germinate, sporophyte
C. food, body, tubes, water C. wind, germinate, sporophyte, spores
D. body, tubes, water, food D. germinate, sporophyte, spores, wind
8. At that time, some grew like over 14. Rabbits-foot fern grows in tropical and
meters biomes.
A. trees, 30, tall A. moist, subtropical
B. 30, tall, trees B. subtropical, moist
C. tall, trees, 30 C. dry, subtropical
D. none of above D. hot, subtropical
9. The conducts and the roots up 15. It can from the or as an in a

to the of the plant.
A. xylem, water, minerals, leaves A. grow, ground, epiphyte, tree
B. water, minerals, leaves, xylem B. ground, epiphyte, tree, grow

10.4 Pteridophytes 1563
C. epiphyte, tree, grow, ground A. pterophytes, vascular, seeds
D. tree, grow, ground, epiphyte B. vascular, seeds, pterophytes

C. seeds, pterophytes, vascular
16. are plants that do not make D. none of above
10.4 Pteridophytes
1. Thalloid body is found in 6. Where does photosynthesis occur in Whisk
A. Azolla Fern?
B. Marchantia A. Root
C. Cycas B. Leaves
D. Mustard C. Stem
D. Rhizome
2. If the antheridium and archegonium are
present in the different gametophytes 7. What produces tall aerial stems for Horse-
then it is called tail?
A. Monoecious A. Rhizome
B. Dioceous B. Strobilus
C. both Monoecious and Dioceous C. Node
D. none of these D. Root
3. The type of stele in Marsilea Rhizome is 8. The main plant body is
A. Mixed Protostele A. Vascular tissue
B. Dictyostele B. Sporophyte
C. Amphiphloic Siphonostele C. Microphylls
D. Ectophloic Siphonostele D. Gametophye
4. Which of the following is a heterosporous
9. The presence of nodes and internodes with
pteridophyte?
ridges and furrows in the internal anatomy
A. Pteris of stem is
B. Marsilea A. Selaginella
C. Selaginella B. Lycopodium
D. both Marsilea and Selaginella C. Pteris
5. Sorus in Dryopteris consist of a group of D. Equisetum
10. Pteridophytes is a broad term used to de-

A. archegonium scribe a group of seedless vascular plant
B. sporangium except:
C. antheridium A. Ferns
D. fronds B. Hornworts

C. Whisk Ferns C. Sporangia, Archegonia

D. Horsetail D. none of above
11. The reproductive structure of Marsilea is
17. During a Dryopteris sp. life cycle, meiosis
called
take place in the to produce haploid
A. Strobilus
B. Sporangiophore A. sporophyte, gemmae
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. both Strobilus and Sporangiophore B. gametophyte, spores
D. Sporocarp
C. sporophyte, spores
12. Which of the following is belonging to D. gametophyte, gamete
Pterophyta?
A. Agaricus sp. 18. Coenosorus is a term related to
B. Polytrichum sp. A. Marsilea
C. Pinus sp. B. Pteris
D. Dryopteris sp. C. both Marsilea and Pteris
13. Which of the following type of stele does D. Lycopodium
NOT occur in Lycopodium?
A. Protostele 19. Which of the following is a homosporous
pteridophyte
B. Haplostele
A. Marsilea
C. Plectostele
D. Siphonostele B. Selaginella
C. Lycopodium
14. Coralloid roots are present in
A. Pinus D. Azolla
B. Cycas 20. Which of the following plant is homo-

C. Riccia sporous
D. None A. Fucus
15. Example of pteropsida B. Funaria
A. Equisetum C. Lycopodium
B. Selanginella D. All of the above
C. Psilotum
21. Photosynthesis thalloid gametophyte also
D. Pteris
known as
16. A spore geminates into a prothallus which A. Sporangia
typically bears at the notch and at
the tip between the rhizoid. B. Prothallus
A. Antheridia, Archegonia C. Antherozoids
B. Archegonia, Antheridia D. Selanginella

22. Homosporous pteridophytes can form 28. Where do most of the horsetail inhabit?
A. Monoecious Gametophyte A. Dry and Marshy

B. Dioceous gametophyte B. Wet and Firm
C. both Monoecious and Dioceous game- C. Wet and Marshy
tophyte D. none of above
D. Directly sporophyte
29. The presence of T shaped peltate structure
23. The small leaves in pteridophytes are called Sporangiophore is found in
known as A. Selaginella
A. Macrophylls B. Lycopodium
B. Strobili C. Pteris
C. Sporophyll D. Equisetum
D. Microphylls
30. The internal anatomy of Equisetum shows
24. Pteridophytes are otherwise called A. Hydrophytic characters
A. Nonvascular cryptogams B. Xerophytic Characters
B. Vascular plants C. both Hydrophytic and Xerophytic char-
C. Seedless vascular plants acters
D. None of these D. None of these
25. Example of heterospory is 31. Pteridophytes are different from

A. Cycas bryophytes in having
B. Mustard A. Rhizoids
C. Gnetum B. Thallus
D. All of the above C. Gametophyte

D. Stele
26. All statements below is true about Se-
laginella sp. except 32. Which of the following plants does not pro-
A. classificationof Selaginella sp. is un- duce seed?
der phylumLycophyta A. cycas
B. free-livinggametophyte B. fern
C. produceone type of spores C. pines
D. antherozoidsswim towards ovum D. Gnetum sp
27. Ectocarpus belongs to 33. Generally Pteridophytes live in

A. Brown algae A. Hot climates
B. Red algae B. Xeric conditions
C. Green algae C. Tropical cilmate
D. none of above D. Temperate climate

10.5 Plant Tissue 1566
34. Where did meiosis occur in fern life cycle? B. Pinus

A. Gametophyte C. Conifers
B. Archegonium D. All of the above
C. Sporangium
39. Which of the following statements is TRUE
D. Antheridium about the prothallus of Dryopteris?
35. One of the major difference between A. Haploid and dependent on the sporo-
bryophytes and pteridophytes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
phyte generation
A. With respect to water conduction sys- B. Diploid and dependent on the gameto-
tem phyte generation
B. With respect to dominance of sporo- C. Haploid and free living
phyte
D. Diploid and free living
C. With respect to root stem and leaf
D. All of the above 40. Agar agar is obtained from
A. Gracillaria
36. Pteris can be easily identified by the pres-
ence of B. Gelidium
A. marginal sorus C. Few red algae
B. Megaphyllous leaves D. All of the above
C. Croziers 41. Leaf like appendages are called
D. All three
A. Sporophylls
37. The presence of trabeculae in the internal B. Equisetum
anatomy is the characteristic feature of
C. Vascular tissue
A. Lycopodium
D. Ornamentals
B. Selaginella
C. Equisetum 42. Biflagellate antherozoids are found in
D. All the three A. Riccia
B. Marchantia
38. Which of the following plants shows xero-
phytic adaptation C. Selaginella
A. Cycas D. All of the above
10.5 Plant Tissue

1. The tissues of the plant that store food and D. Meristematic
water are called
2. Periderm is what?
A. Dermal
A. the part that uptakes water
B. Vascular
B. a woody outer layer that replaces the
C. Ground epidermis

C. the part that uptakes food 8. What plant process on the roots and stems
D. support structure in roots helps increase the plant’s length?

A. primary growth
3. The cells of cork are dead and have a chem-
B. secondary growth
ical in their walls that makes them imper-
vious to gases and water. The chemical is C. photosynthesis
A. lignin D. cellular respiration
B. suberin 9. Regions immediately behind the root cap

C. cutin that contain actively dividing cells.
A. Phloem
D. wax
B. Guard Cells
4. Which of this tissues support the young C. Meristem
plants and woody plants?
D. Xylem
A. collenchyma tissue
B. parenchyma tissue 10. Meristematic tissues in plants are
A. localized and permanent
C. sclerenchyma tissue
B. not limited to certain regions
D. xylem tissue
C. localized and dividing cells
5. The process by which water evaporates D. growing in volume
out of a leaf is called
A. Transpiration 11. The tip of the bamboo plant keeps grow-
ing in length even after uprooting the plant.
B. Absorption this is due to the presence of
C. Transport A. lateral meristem
D. Vascular tissue B. intercalary meristem
6. Ability of a plant to endure extreme con- C. apical meristem

ditions by changing growth and develop- D. all the above
ment of plant organs
12. The flexibility in plants is due to a tissue
A. Petiole called
B. Micropropagation A. parenchyma
C. Pathogenic B. chlorenchyma
D. Plasticity C. collenchyma
D. sclerenchyma
7. Which of these locations do NOT have
meristematic tissues? 13. What does the Xylem transport?
A. Root tips A. Water and Minerals
B. Growing shoots B. Glucose
C. Nodes C. Blood
D. Bark D. Chlorophyll

14. What is true about sclerenchyma tis- C. Ground tissue

sues?A) Cells of this tissue are dead D. Sclerenchyma tissue
at maturity.B)They are long and nar-
row.C)Their cell walls are thickened due to 19. Tissue in a plant that is neither vascular
lignin.D)They have wider lumen. nor dermal is
A. A and B A. Vascular tissue
B. A, C and D B. Ground tissue
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A, B and C C. Filler tissue
D. all the above D. Dermal tissue
15. means flowering plant. 20. Fill in the blanks:Levels of organisa-
A. angiosperm tion:Cell → Tissue → → Organ sys-
tem → Organism.
B. gymnosperm
A. Plant Tissue
C. conifer
B. Multicellular organism
D. none of above
C. Organ
16. Some plants have commercial value. Those
D. Meristematic tissue
with commercial value includeI tall, big
trees-timberII Hopea (merawan)-resins 21. Function of xylem
and oilsIII Hibiscus-ornamentalIV Mango
A. Provide mechanical strength
trees-fruits
B. Conduction of water
A. I, II and III
C. Connection of food
B. I, III and IV
D. Both 1and 2
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV 22. If guard cells are swollen with water, then
the are more likely to be
17. These tissue serve as sites for synthesis,
such as photosynthesis, and storage for A. OPEN with stomata
produced products. B. CLOSED with no stomata
A. Ground tissues C. Cannot tell-the water amount doesn’t
B. Vascular tissues affect it at all.
C. Dermal tissues D. none of above
D. none of above 23. One of the following is not a function of

the stomata,
18. Which of the following is a simple tis-
sue that serves as a site for photosynthe- A. Directly participates in the process of
sis, provides supporting matrix for vascu- photosynthesis
lar tissue, and helps to store water and B. Helps with the exchange of gases
sugar? C. Helps to create water pressure forcing
A. Vascular tissue water upward
B. Collenchyma tissue D. All of the above

24. Similarities between primary growth and 30. Additional vascular tissue produced as sec-
secondary growth ondary growth in a root originates from
which cells?

A. increases the length of stems and
roots A. vascular cambium
B. growth occurs radialy B. endodermis
C. occur in woody plants C. phloem
D. none of above D. xylem
25. Structure of phloem consists all below, ex- 31. Lateral meristem is helpful for
cept? A. Increase in thickness
A. Sieve tube element B. longitudinal growth
B. Tracheids C. Increase in Length
C. Companion cell D. none of above
D. Sieve plate 32. Which is NOT a function of the parenchyma
26. what ground tissue type is like the stem cells?
cells of plants A. They contain chlorophyll and help in
A. collenchyma photosynthesis
B. parenchyma B. Provide buoyancy

C. Store food for the plant
C. sclerenchyma
D. Provides mechanical support
D. epidermis
33. Sieve tubes and companion cells are
27. What is function of dermal tissue.
present in
A. Regeneration
A. xylem
B. Transport of food B. phloem
C. Support C. cambium
D. Protection D. cork
28. What above-ground system of herbaceous 34. A petiole is?
plant is called?
A. the part that connects the leaf and
A. Root system stem together
B. Shoot system B. the tip of the root
C. Grounded system C. the petal of a flower
D. none of above D. a magical wizard
29. What pigment captures the energy in light 35. Tissue type that includes xylem and
during photosynthesis? phloem.
A. chlorophyll A. dermal
B. cell wall B. vascular
C. mitochondria C. ground
D. vacuole D. none of above

36. Xylem is 42. Which of the following statements are cor-

A. Simple permanent tissue rect about meristematic tissues?
A. Composed of cells that are incapable
B. Complex permanent tissue
of cell division
C. Meristematic tissue
B. Composed of a single type of cell
D. Protective tissue C. It is composed of cells that are able to
37. TIssue type found lining the outside of perform cell division
NARAYAN CHANGDER
plant organs. D. All the above
A. Dermal 43. Which type of plant cell has a thick pri-
B. Vascular mary cell wall and no secondary cell wall?
Hint:It is used to support the growing
C. Ground parts of the plant.
D. none of above A. parenchyma
38. The type of meristematic tissues present B. collenchyma
in the growing tip of roots and buds. C. schlerenchyma
A. Intercalary D. guard cells
B. Lateral 44. The terms annual, biennial, and perennial
C. Apical describe plant:
D. none of above A. primary growth
B. life cycle
39. The method of producing thousands of
C. secondary growth
plants through tissue culture is called
D. tissues organisation
A. somatic hybridiastion
B. totipotency 45. The three main tissue types in plants are?
A. Dermal, Vascular and epidermis
C. micro-propagation
B. Vascular, Dermal and Grouchy
D. none of above
C. Ground, Dermal and Veins
40. Which of these plant structures supports a D. Dermal, Ground and Vascular
plant so it does not fall over?
46. The tip of the root is called the
A. Seed
A. Root force
B. Root
B. Root guard
C. Leave
C. Root shield
D. Flower
D. Root cap
41. Procambium meristem tissue turns into 47. Colenchyma is found in
A. epidermis tissue A. fibre
B. primary vascular tissues B. petiole and veins
C. ground tissue C. fruits
D. periderm D. roots

48. Tissue culture technique is an efficient tool 53. In Plant Tissue Culture, the callus is grown
used in plant breeding for the following in plantlet by altering the concentration of
reasons EXCEPT

A. mass propagation of specific clones. A. Amino acid
B. useful for plant reproduced by asexual. B. Glucose
C. Hormone
C. production of high yield diseased
D. Al of the above
plants.
D. production of healthy or diseased-free 54. Scientist known as the father of tissue cul-
plants. ture
49. In plant tissue culture, what is the term A. Scleiden

ORGANOGENESIS means? B. Murashige
A. Formation of callus culture C. Gottlieb Haberlandt
B. Formation of root & shoot from callus D. Simon
culture
C. Genesis of organ 55. What is true about phloem tissues?A)
Transport organic compounds such as su-
D. None of the above croseB) Made up of sieve tube and com-
panion cellC) A type of ground tissuesD)
Distributed in leaf, stem and root
of roots?
A. A and B
A. to absorb water
B. A, C and D
B. to anchor plants
C. A, B and C
C. to produce food
D. A, B and D
D. to store food
51. Characteristic of phloem 56. Two main tissue types of plants:
A. made up dead cells A. Vascular and ground tissues
B. made of companion cells and sieve B. Meristametic and permanent tissues

tube C. Dividing and storage tissues
C. have uneven lignin thickening cell wall D. Assimilatory and ground tissues
D. consists pits to allow water movement 57. Given their function, you would expect
taproots like carrots and turnips to have
52. Meristems at the tip of roots and shoots large amounts of which tissue?
A. Lateral A. epidermal
B. Apical B. cork
C. Ploem C. parenchyma
D. none of above D. mesophyll

58. Which tissue provide support and strength 64. Component of xylem helps in lateral con-
to mature plants? duction of water
A. parenchyma tissue A. Tracheids
B. sclerenchyma tissue B. Vessels and tracheids
C. xylem tissue C. Xylem parenchyma
D. collenchyma tisssue D. Xylem fibers
65. Which type of plant cell has a thick primary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
59. Parenchyma cells are
cell wall and no secondary cell wall?
A. Relatively unspecified and thin walled
A. parenchyma
B. Thick walled and specialized
B. collenchyma
C. Lignified
C. schlerenchyma
D. guard cells
60. Function of Tracheid and vessels
66. What is the structure of the cell of col-
A. Tensile strenght lenchyma?
B. Mechanical support A. Cell wall thickened at the corners with
C. Transport of water cellulose
D. Stores food B. Evenly thickened cell walls with lignin
C. Thin cell wall with large vacuoles
61. Which of the following only have a pri-
mary cell wall? D. none of above
A. Parenchyma cell 67. Which is not a function of epidermis?

B. Sclerenchyma cell A. Protection from adverse condition
C. Collenchyma cell B. Gaseous exchange
D. Sieve tube cell C. Conduction of water
D. Transpiration
62. A group of similar cells to perform a spe-
cific function form 68. Which of the following is similar in struc-
A. organ ture to parenchyma cells except they have
thicker primary walls that are capable of
B. organ system giving exceptional strength to young ac-
C. organism tively growing organs of a plant?
D. tissue A. Meristems
B. Permanent tissues
63. Located at tip of stem & roots for primary
growth C. Sclerenchyma cells
A. lateral meristem D. Collenchyma cells
B. apical meristem 69. outer protective covering in plants
C. root hair A. collenchyma
D. hypocotyl B. parenchyma

C. epidermis 75. Plant tissue that helps in increasing the

lenght of the shoot and root.
D. cambium

A. Intercalary meristem
70. This tissue makes the plant hard and stiff. B. Apical meristem
A. Collenchyma C. lateral meristem
B. Epidermis D. permanent tissues
C. sclerenchyma 76. Which of the following is a complex tissue
D. collenchyma A. parenchyma
B. colenchyma
71. The contain the chlorophyll.
C. sclerenchyma
A. Buds D. xylem
B. Roots
77. which zone that occurs the process of vac-
C. Leaves uolation ( small vacuole fuse to form a
D. Flowers large vacuole )
A. zone of cell elongation
72. Vascular tissue elements, the xylem and B. zone of cell differentiation
the phloem form
C. zone of matured tissue
A. vascular bundles.
D. zone of cell division
B. vascular vessels.
78. Which tissue Have cell walls made of
C. a stem. pectin and hemicellulose
D. plants. A. parenchyma tissue
B. sclerenchyma tissue
73. There are more stomata on the lower side
of the leaf, because C. xylem tissue
D. collenchyma tisssue
A. rain does not run into the pore
B. it is cooler on the lower side so there 79. The two structures that limit transpiration
is less evaporation of water are known as
A. Guard cells and xylem
C. There is a higher contraction of carbon
dioxide on the lower surface. B. Stomata and guard cells
D. none of above C. xylem and phloem

D. stomata and phloem
74. which of this tissues are not known as
ground tissue? 80. This part of the plant is packed with chloro-
plasts
A. perenchyma tissue
A. Dermal tissue
B. collenchyma tissue B. Chlorophyll
C. epidermal tissue C. Sapwood
D. sclerenchyma tissue D. Mesophyll

81. To work out the age of a tree, you could 87. Parenchyma is present beneath the
count rings of A. collenchyma
A. schlerenchyma
B. epidermis
B. collenchyma
C. vascular bundles
C. phloem
D. cork cambium
D. xylem
88. Lignin is a substance that thickens the
82. Where is the site of photosynthesis in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
walls of
plants?
A. parenchyma cells
A. stomata
B. collenchyma cells
B. guard cells
C. sclerenchyma cells
C. chloroplasts
D. waxy cuticle D. meristematic cells
83. What process do plants go through to cre- 89. What is the name of the plant structure
ate glucose responsible for food production (photosyn-
thesis)?
A. Roots
B. Photosynthesis
B. Leaves
C. Light Reaction
C. Stem
D. Calvin Cycle
D. Flower
84. Xylem cells include
A. companion cells 90. The flexibility in plants is due to a tissue
called
B. trachieds
A. chlorenchyma
C. vessel elements
B. parenchyma
D. vessel elements and trachieds
C. sclerenchyma
85. Cork cells are made impervious to water
and gases by the presence of D. collenchyma
A. cellulose 91. The only dead cells in phloem
B. lipids A. companion
C. suberin B. sieve
D. lignin C. phloem fibres
86. Type of simple tissue found in edible parts D. phloem parenchyma
of fruit, and in abundance in vegetables
like potatoes. 92. Packaging tissue
A. parenchyma A. parenchyma
B. collenchyma B. collenchyma
C. xylem C. xylem
D. phloem D. phloem

93. Which tissue type does a majority of the 99. Disadvantages of Micropropagation
photosynthesis? A. expensive and time consuming

A. Dermis
B. expensive
B. Ground
C. time consuming
C. Mersitematic
D. none of above
D. Vascular
100. What Are The Two Sub-Tissues Of Com-
94. How many living cell does xylem has? plex Permanent Tissues
A. 1 A. Xylem and Phloem
B. 2
B. Parenchyma And Collenchyma
C. 3
C. Sieve Tubes And Companion Cells
D. 4
D. Xylem Parenchyma and Xylem Fibres
95. Which of the following is a type of scle-
renchyma tissue that are long and slender 101. Xylem and phloem are examples of
and are important commercially? A. epidermal tissue
A. Lignin B. connective tissue
B. Fiber C. protective tissue
C. Sclereids D. vascular tissue
D. Pectin
102. Which of the following is not a function
96. One function of a stem is to of plant roots
A. produce food for the plant to use. A. anchor the plant to the ground
B. . provide a place for insects to live. B. absorb water
C. . take in water and nutrients from the C. perform photosynthesis
soil.
D. none of above
D. hold up leaves so they can absorb sun-
light 103. Which type of modified stem is special-
ized for storing food?
97. The upward conduction of water and min-
erals by A. rhizomes
A. phloem B. bulb
B. cambium C. stolons
C. xylem D. tubers
D. epidermis 104. Which tissues includes the Apical Merist-
98. Girth of stem increases due to matic Tissue?
A. Apical Meristem A. Animal Tissue
B. Lateral Meristem B. Plant Tissue
C. Intercalary Meristem C. Permanent Tissue
D. Vertical Meristem D. Meristmatic Tissue

105. Which of these is made up of scle- 111. Select the one type of dead cell in
renchyma tissue? phloem.
A. Sugarcane A. Sieve tube cell
B. Wheat
B. Phloem fibres
C. Cotton
C. Companion cells
D. None
D. Phloem parenchyma
106. Cork cambium turns into
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. secondary xylem 112. In a plant, water is transported from the
B. secondary phloem roots to the
C. periderm tissue A. Flowers
D. none of above B. Seeds
107. If the xylem in a tree is damaged, which C. Leaves
process would affected?
D. Phloem
A. performing photosynthesis
B. transporting sugar tot the roots 113. What type of cells transport water UP
C. protecting the plant the stem?
D. absorbing water from the soil A. Xylem cells
108. Select the function for xylem B. Phloem Cells
A. Transport of food
C. Epidermal Cells
B. Transport of sugars
D. Root Cells
C. Transport of minerals
D. none of above 114. When a grass lawn is mowed, its meris-
tematic tissues get cut off. However, they
109. Chief conducting tissue for water and min-
still regrow. This is due to the presence of
erals that are absorbed by the roots
A. xylem A. lateral meristem
B. phloem B. intercalary meristem
C. collenchyma C. epidermis
D. chloroenchyma
D. apical meristem
110. During the growth of annual plants, the
food stored in the is used for germina- 115. The tissues which supports the young
tion before the leaves merge to carry out plant and woody plants.
photosynthesis
A. Collenchyma tissue
A. seed
B. Parenchyma tissue
B. cotyledon
C. root C. Sclerenchyma tissue
D. shoot D. Xylem tissue

116. Following is the characteristic of col- C. xylem

lenchyma
D. root

A. Isodiametric cells with thickened walls
122. Food creation, storage, and support dur-
B. Elongated cells with deposits of lignin ing/after growth.
C. Isodiametric cells with deposits of cel- A. Ground
lulose and pectin B. Vascular
D. Elongated cells with thickened corners
C. Dermal
117. The plant tissue responsible for trans- D. none of above
portation of substance is
A. vascular tissue 123. open and close the stomata.
B. meristematic tissue A. Guard cells
C. epidermal tissue B. Xylem
D. ground tissue C. Roots
118. In non woody plants the dermal tissue is D. Phloem
called the
A. xylem 124. Which tissue is considered as the matured
part of a plant that stop dividing?
B. epidermis
A. Meristem
C. phloem
D. periderm B. Permanent
C. Simple
119. Most of the chloroplast cells for photo-
synthesis are found in the D. Complex
A. upper epidermis
125. Change the underlined wordCollenchyma
B. pallisade mesophyll tissue provides buoyancy to the water
C. lower epidermis plants
D. stomata A. Chlorenchyma
120. There is more Intercellular space found in B. Sclerenchyma
this tissue C. Aernechyma
A. Collenchyma
D. none of above
B. Sclerenchyma
C. Parenchyma 126. The upward conduction of water and min-
erals occur by the-
D. Epidermis
A. phloem
121. The function of a is to absorb water,
store food, and anchor plants. B. cambium
A. phloem C. xylem
B. tissue D. epidermis

127. Tissue responsible for growth in length 133. Which of the following tissues has a very
thick secondary walls, usually filled with
A. Apical meristems
an organic substance?
B. cambiums
A. Collechyma tissue
C. parenchyma B. Parenchyma tissue
D. none of above C. Sclerenchyma tissue
D. Permanent tissue
128. Which is not a simple permanent tis-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sues? 134. A permanent tissue has lost its ability to
A. Meristem divide.Meristem tissue is a permanent tis-
sue
B. Collenchyma
A. True
C. Parenchyma B. False
D. Sclerenchyma C. Maybe
129. What is the function of vascular tissue? D. none of above
A. physical support of the plant 135. Modified parenchyma predominantly

found in the mesophyll tissues of leaves.
B. transport water and nutrients
A. chlorenchyma
C. defend against predators
B. collenchyma
D. none of above C. aerenchyma
130. Which of them is dead? D. xylem and phloem
A. Parenchyma tissue 136. Permanent tissues are made up of cells
that
B. Collenchyma tissue
A. have lost the power of division
C. Sclerenchyma tissue
B. may be living or dead
C. both a and b
131. Which component of XYLEM is living D. none of the above
A. Xylem fibre 137. While making bonsai, the meristem is
B. Xylem parenchyma removed from the plant.
A. Apical and Intercalary
C. sieve tube
B. Lateral and Apical
D. Vessels
C. Intercalary and Lateral
132. State the main tissues of vascular bundle D. none of above
in plant.
138. The main phloem cells are
A. xylem and phloem
A. sieve tube elements
B. tracheids and vessel elements B. companion cells
C. sieve elements and companion cells C. sieve tube elements & companions
D. none of above D. trachieds

139. What is the function of dermal tissues in 145. What are the cells that make up
plants? Phloem?
A. Spiracles

A. protect the outer layer
B. transport nutrients B. Sieve Tube Cells
C. grow new flowers C. Vessel Cells
D. none of above D. Tracheary Elements
140. Storage of food material is the function 146. The husk of coconut is made of?
of A. Collenchyma
A. Meristem B. Sclerenchyma
B. Collenchyma C. Intercalary meristem
C. Parenchyama D. Apical meristem
D. Sclerenchyma 147. Which of the following statements about
141. What tissue plays the role of metabolism, meristematic tissue is incorrect?
storage and support A. Thin-walled cells with large prominent
A. Dermal nuclei
B. Vascular B. Thick-walled cells with large intercellu-

lar spaces
C. Ground
C. Divide actively leading to growth
D. Meristemic
D. Small cells

AP Biology

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

AP Biology

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

MOST POPULAR AROUND THE WORLD

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

DESIGNED FOR SURE SUCCESS

JAI SHREE RAM

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

It is my deepest gratitude and warmest

To my mother JOYTSNA CHANGDER

who has been a constant source of Knowledge and in-

The aim of this publication is to sup-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

2 The Cell . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 124

3 Cell Respiration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 360

5 Cell Division . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 536

7 The Molecular Basis of Inheritance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 970

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

11 Animal Physiology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1759

12 The Human Immune System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1929

13 Animal Reproduction and Development . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1987

14.7 Humans and the Biosphere . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2285

15 Animal Behavior . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2302

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

16 Laboratory Review . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2400

C. Polar 15. A chemical bond where electrons are

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. negative and in a cloud C. Hydrogen bond

A. 10 17. What does the Law of Conservation of

C. outside of the nucleus C. 14

D. in the electron zone D. 17

C. hydrogen-2 has three protons B. 35 protons, 35 electrons, and 17 neu-

D. isotopes 29. The number of is most important in de-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

2. Which of the following describes an iso- D. ionic bond

A. Carbohydrates A. first shell (closest the nucleus)

1.3 Polar and Nonpolar Molecules

C. 9.5 8. Which of the following molecules contains

A. electron affinity. 11. The polarity of a bond is determined by

A. H D. None of the Above

B. F 12. What is the VSEPR theory used to pre-

3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. C 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. A

C. Polar Covalent 19. What type of bond happens between a

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

15. Energy required to raise the temperature A. a hydrogen bond

A. surface tension C. greater than 2.1

B. atom 40. All of the following molecules have polar

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

37. Which of the following geometries could C. ionic

38. Which of these is an amphiphilic C. Act as a catalyst in a reaction between

C. None of the above. H and F are sharing C. polar

CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

67. Which of the following covalent bonds is C. lost

C. Trigonal pyramidal A. no charges.

D. Linear B. slight positive and negative charges on

CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

78. Hydrogen bonding occurs between ad- C. ionic

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

100. Electronegativity is a measurement of B. Ethene is nonpolar and water is nonpo-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

B. Covalent 116. Which bond is most polar?