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Contents
1 Reproduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.1 Introduction to Reproduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.2 Asexual Reproduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 41
1.3 Sexual Reproduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 91
1.4 Events of Sexual Reproduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 124
2 Sexual reproduction in flowering plants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 131

2.1 Structure of a flower . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 131
2.2 Pre-fertilization events . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 142
2.3 Double fertilization . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 148
2.4 Pollination . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 148
2.5 Post-fertilization events, apomixis, and polyembryony . . . . . . . . . . . . 183
3 Human Reproduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 187

3.1 Introduction to the Reproductive System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 187
3.2 The Female Reproductive System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 241
3.3 The Male Reproductive System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 258
3.4 Gametogenesis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 269
3.5 Menstrual cycle . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 296
3.6 Embryonic Development . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 309
3.7 Parturition and Lactation Fertilisation, Pregnancy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 317
4 Reproductive Health . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 324

4.1 Birth Control . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 324
4.2 Sexually Transmitted Infections . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 325
4.3 Infertility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 332
5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 335

5.1 Introduction to Mendelian Genetics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 335
5.2 Monohybrid Cross - Mendel’s Laws of Dominance and Segregation 349
5.3 Dihybrid Cross - Law of Independent Assortment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 397
5.4 Non-Mendelian Genetics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 415
NARAYAN CHANGDER
5.5 Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 449
5.6 Sex Determination, Linkage and Chromosomal Disorders . . . . . . . . 454
5.7 Mendelian Disorders and Pedigree Analysis . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 469
6 The Molecular Basis Of Inheritance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 474

6.1 Discovery of DNA as the genetic material . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 474
6.2 Structure of DNA and RNA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 487
6.3 DNA Replication . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 544
6.4 Transcription and RNA processing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 602
6.5 Molecular Basis of Inheritance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 637
6.6 Regulation of Gene Expression . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 656
6.7 Human genome project . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 666
6.8 DNA fingerprinting . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 672
7 Evolution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 709
7.1 Formation of Earth and the Origins of Life . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 709
7.2 Evolution and Natural Selection . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 720
7.3 Evidence for Evolution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 783
7.4 Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Mechanisms of Evolution . . . . . . . . . 799
8 Human Health and Disease . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 845

8.1 Common Diseases in Human Beings . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 845
8.2 Types of Immunity and the Immune System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 856
8.3 HIV and AIDS . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 857
8.4 Cancer . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 880
8.5 Addiction and Dependence . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 947
9 Microbes in human welfare . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 957

9.1 Microbes in Human Welfare . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 957
10 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 964

10.1 Introduction to biotechnology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 964
1
10.2 Restriction digests, cloning and transformation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1036

10.3 Tools and processes of recombinant technology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1045

10.4 Applications of Biotechnology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1064
11 Biotechnology and its applications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1070

11.1 Applications in medicine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1070
11.2 Ethical concerns . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1071
12 Organisms and Populations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1078

12.1 Introduction to Ecology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1078
12.2 Organisms and their Environments . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1104
12.3 Population Ecology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1154
12.4 Population Interactions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1218
13 Ecosystem . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1234
13.1 Energy Flow through Ecosystems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1234
13.2 Ecological Succession . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1284
13.3 Nutrient Cycling . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1314
14 Biodiversity and Conservation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1325

14.1 Patterns of Biodiversity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1325
14.2 Loss of Biodiversity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1326
14.3 Conservation of Biodiversity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1329
1. Reproduction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 Introduction to Reproduction
1. A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each 4. The purpose of meiosis is to form cells.
of its sex cells. How many would be A. body
present in its body cells?
B. sex
A. 20
C. somatic
B. 40
D. brain
C. 80
D. 160 5. In plants, fertilization is the process by
which an
2. The transfer of pollen, containing the A. eggs in the ovary combines with the
sperm cells, to the female part of the pollen
flower.
B. animal carries pollen between plants
A. seed disperal
C. embryo grows into a plant
B. pollination
D. pollinators transfer pollen to the
C. germination stigma
D. fertilization
6. A developing baby from months three
3. Which type of asexual reproduction in- through nine is a
volves internal buds that help sponges sur- A. embryo
vive harsh conditions?
B. fetus
A. Budding
C. newborn
B. Gemmules
D. infant
C. Fragmentation
7. Which type of asexual reproduction has
D. Parthenogenesis been discovered in some species of lizards
E. Fission with regeneration and sharks?
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. D
1.1 Introduction to Reproduction 3
A. Budding 12. Plants that produce their seeds in wood-

B. Gemmules like cones.

A. gymnosperms
C. Fragmentation
B. legumes
D. Parthenogenesis
C. deciduous
E. Fission with regeneration
D. conifers
8. A characteristic that is passed from parent
to offspring 13. Where does an offspring get its traits in
asexual reproduction?
A. cloning
A. From both parents.
B. genetics
B. From only one parent.
C. inherited trait C. From neither parent.
D. generation D. There are no traits handed down.
9. The following are all reasons seeds may 14. In double fertilization, the second fertiliza-
need to travel away from the parent plant tion after fertilization of the egg occurs
EXCEPT with the
A. young plant has space to grow A. polar nuclei
B. young plant gets enough water and nu- B. synergids.
trients C. pollen
C. young plants get enough sunlight D. carpels
D. young plants get enough oxygen
15. In asexual reproduction, all of the off-
10. When the egg and sperm meet, it is known spring are:
as A. Physically Identical
A. intercourse B. Genetically Identical
B. orgasm C. Physically and Genetically Identical
C. fertilization D. Not Identical
D. ejaculation 16. During which stage of cell’s life is DNA
copied?
11. Which type of asexual reproduction is tak-
ing place? A planarian is a non-parasitic A. Interphase
flatworm. If a planarian was injured by a B. Mitosis
predator, it could re-grow its body parts. C. Cytokinesis
If the body parts were not eaten by the
predator, the part could re-grow into a D. Prophase
whole new planarian as well. 17. Embryo sac represents
A. Budding A. megaspore
B. Fission B. megagametophyte
C. Vegetative propagation C. megasporophyll
D. Regeneration D. megagamete
8. C 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. B

18. SB2c. Specialized cells in the humans un- 23. You can think of DNA as a great library
dergo a process that produces gametes. of information that exists to do one thing
What is this process called? only. What is that thing?
A. binary fission A. direct the building of different protein
B. meiosis molecules
C. fertilization B. Build other double helix models of in-

formation.
D. enzyme regulation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Tell the brain how to construct the
19. What happen during the menstruation body.
phase in menstrual cycle
D. Store data about what worked and
A. The uterine lining breaks down and is what did not.
discharged together with blood and unfer-
tilised ovum 24. During cleavage, each cell in the embryo is
called a ?
B. An ovum is released
A. Blastula
C. Uterine lining starts to rebuild and
thicken B. Blastocyst
D. none of above C. blastocoel
20. Requires only ONE parent creating a clone D. Blastomere

of themselves-no diversity, large amounts
25. If an organism is homozygous for a fea-
of offspring
ture how many proteins will it produce for
A. natural selection that feature?
B. selective breeding A. 1
C. sexual reproduction B. 2
D. asexual reproduction C. 3
21. Breasts develop D. 4
A. female 26. The female gonad which produces eggs is
B. male the ?
C. both A. Uterus
D. none of above B. Cervix
22. which two processes are involved in mi- C. Placenta

totic cell division D. Ovaries
A. nuclear duplication and cytoplasmic di-
27. Wind-pollinated flowers usually have
vision
and petals.
B. nuclear duplication and cytoplasmic
A. big bright
duplication
B. small bright
C. spermatogenesis and cytoplasmic du-
plication C. big dull
D. oogenesis and cytoplasmic divis D. small dull
19. A 20. D 21. A 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. D 27. D 28. A
28. Each parent randomly passes on of its C. Dioecious

two copies of each gene to its offspring. D. Monoecious

A. one
34. if a cell has 24 chromosomes how many
B. two will it have at the end of mitosis
C. three A. 6
D. none of above B. 12
29. Which of these statements is true? C. 24
A. All seeds need light to germinate. D. 48
B. All seeds need water to germinate. 35. An organic substance that can withstand
environmental extremes and cannot be de-
C. All seeds germinate best at high tem-
graded
peratures.
A. cuticle
D. All of the choices are true.
B. sporopollenin
30. A a single piece of coiled DNA found C. lignin
in the nucleus of cells; contains genes that
encode traits. D. cellulose
A. gene 36. Order the steps in fertilization of a

flower:1. Pollen is transferred to new
B. chromosome
flower.2. Pollinator is attracted to
C. trait flower.3. Pollinator goes to another
D. DNA flower.4.Pollinator picks up pollen on body
as it feeds.5. New flower is now fertil-
31. The gametophyte stage is the stage. ized.
A. android A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. haploid B. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5
C. diploid C. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5
D. triploid D. 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
32. If there are 16 chromosomes in the egg 37. The female sex hormones are
cells of an organism, how many chromo- A. Estrogen
somes would be found in its muscle cells?
B. Progesterone
A. 16 C. Both
B. 8 D. Neither
C. 32
38. Which of the following does not attract a
D. 64 pollintor to a flower?
33. Animal species having separate sexes are A. Oder
called ? B. Petal shape
A. Triploblast C. Color
B. Diploblast D. Magnetism
29. B 30. B 31. B 32. C 33. C 34. C 35. B 36. B 37. C 38. D 39. B
39. Facial hair 45. What is the male gamete called in plants?
A. female A. Sperm
B. Male B. Spermatozoa
C. both C. Pollen
D. none of above D. none of above
40. Replicates body cells. 46. Clownfish start out their lives as males,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. mitosis and then change into females later in their
development. This is called ?
B. meiosis
A. Simultaneous hermaphroditism
C. both
D. none of above B. Sequential hermaphroditism
C. Bipolar hermaphroditism
41. Is the genetic information in asexual repro-
duction identical or different compared to D. Reverse hermaphroditism
the parent? 47. which diagram correctly represents a step
A. Identical in the normal process of human reproduc-
B. Different tion?
C. It can’t be determined A. 2n+2n=n
D. none of above B. n+n=2n
C. 2n+n=3n
42. Female sex cell is a(n)
D. 2n+2n=4n
A. zygote
B. egg 48. This part of the seed will become the first
C. sperm stem
D. fertilized egg A. Epicotyl

B. Hypocotyl
43. Compare & Contrast Sexual VS Asexual
Reproduction C. Radicle
A. both only require one parent D. Cotyledons
B. sexual creates diverse offspring, and 49. Which insect is the main pollinator?
asexual makes uniform
A. Bee
C. sexual reproduction have larger popu-
B. Butterfly
lations
C. Ant
D. both require no special cells
D. Bat
44. What is the name for the outermost layer
of a seed that helps to protect it? 50. The joining of a sperm and egg is called
A. angiosperm A. reproduction
B. radicle B. gentically
C. cotyledon C. fertilization
D. seed coat D. inheritance
40. A 41. A 42. B 43. B 44. D 45. C 46. B 47. B 48. B 49. A 50. C
51. It is advantageous for an animal that is C. menopause

sessile, burrowing, or endoparasitic to be: D. adolsecence

A. radially symmetric
57. The reproductive part of a plant is called
B. motile
the
C. hermaphroditic
A. roots
D. diploblastic
B. stem
52. The enlarged base of the pistil that stores C. flower
the eggs of the plant is the
D. leaves
A. ovary
B. ovule 58. Is budding an example of asexual or sex-
ual reproduction?
C. stigma
A. sexual
D. style
B. both
53. What is it called if the two copies of a gene
C. asexual
for each feature are the same version?
D. neither
A. Samesee
B. Identical 59. Each gene version provides a unique
C. Homozygous to make a specific protein molecule in an
organism’s cells.
D. Heterozygous
A. Amino acid
54. The tube that brings urine and semen out B. Connection
of the body is
C. Shape
A. the urethra
D. Instruction
B. the uterus
C. the bladder 60. Creates the greatest diversity, & there-
fore the ability to survive changing envi-
D. the fallopian tube
ronments is
55. When a starfish grows a new body off a A. sexual reproduction
broken arm, what kind of reproduction is
this? B. asexual reproduction
A. Sexual C. cloning
B. Differentiation D. fragmentation
C. Asexual 61. What types of cells are found only in or-
D. Specialization ganisms that reproduce sexually?
A. blood cells
56. When a woman’s menstrual cycle becomes
irregular and stops B. neurons
A. ovulation C. skin cells
B. menstruation D. gametes
51. C 52. A 53. C 54. A 55. C 56. C 57. C 58. C 59. D 60. A 61. D 62. C
62. What is a fertilized egg cell called? C. Telophase

A. gamete D. Anaphase
B. meiosis 68. A stem cutting of a rose plant was planted
C. zygote in a pot. Weeks later, the cutting grew
D. mitosis roots and began to grow into a new rose
plant. Which process led to the formation
63. What is the name for an organism’s ge- of the new rose plant?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
netic material? A. pollination
A. DNA B. germination
B. Molecule C. sexual reproduction
C. Nucleotide D. asexual reproduction
D. Translation
69. Which of the following describes the main
64. In sexual reproduction the male produces advantages of sexual reproduction?
cells. A. requires lots of time/energy
A. Malex B. no new gene combos can arise
B. Quack C. diversity
C. Egg
D. looks identical to the parent
D. Sperm
70. This part of the seed will become the first
65. The part of the stamen that produces leaves
pollen grains is the
A. Epicotyl
A. anther
B. Hypocotyl
B. pistil
C. Radicle
C. filament
D. Cotyledons
D. ovary
71. Organisms that reproduce asexually gen-
66. uncontrolled cell division is a characteristic erally have offspring that are
of
A. unicellular.
A. cleavage
B. multicellular.
B. cancer
C. genetically varied.
C. oogenesis
D. genetically identical.
D. regeneration
72. A general name for a sex cell (egg or
67. Which of the following do chromosomes sperm) is a:
become visible, centrioles move to oppo-
site ends, nuclear membrane breaks down, A. zygote
& spindle fibers appear? B. gene
A. Prophase C. offspring
B. Metaphase D. gamete
63. A 64. D 65. A 66. B 67. A 68. D 69. C 70. A 71. D 72. D 73. B
73. Occurs in many complex organisms such as 79. The cells produced as a result of meiosis
plants, animals and fungi are called haploid . This is because they
each contain half the number of a full set of

A. mitosis
chromosomes. How many chromosomes
B. meiosis does haploid cell contain?
C. both A. 1
74. A gene carries coded information for the C. 46
creation of a D. 22
A. protein
80. can transport pollen but is not very ef-
B. nucleotide ficient.
C. golgi body A. Bees
D. lysosome B. Wind
75. Which organ produces sperm cells? C. Insects
A. testes D. Pollinators
B. epididymis 81. (a)
C. ovary A. self
D. prostate gland B. sexual
76. sperm cells are produced in the C. pollinate
A. prostate gland D. pollinator
B. testes E. flowers
C. penis F. asexual
D. seminalmvesicles G. seeds
H. cross
77. The muscle cells of an elephant contain 62
chromosomes. How many chromosomes 82. Compared to the offspring produced by
are in an elephant egg cell? sexual reproduction, the offspring pro-
A. 31 duced by asexual reproduction will be-
B. 62 A. less vulnerable to prey
C. 122 B. larger in size
D. 244 C. better adapted to their habitat
D. more genetically uniform
78. a lizard can secape from a predator by los-
ing its tail when caught. often the lizards 83. The beginning of growth or development
tail is replaced by the process especially after a period of inactivity.
A. grafting A. Germination
B. sporulation B. Translocation
C. gametogenesis C. Meristems
D. regeneration D. Transpiration
74. A 75. A 76. B 77. A 78. D 79. B 80. B 81. A 81. B 81. C 81. D 81. E
82. D 83. A
84. How many cells are produced in meiosis? C. Hair cells

A. 1 D. Liver cells
B. 2 90. During which part of the life cycle does the
C. 3 angiosperm embryo sprout?
D. 4 A. fertilization
B. pollination
85. If there are 20 chromosomes in the egg
C. germination
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cells, how many chromosomes would be
found in the sperm cells of the same D. reproduction
species?
91. male and female reproductive cells de-
A. 10 velop in specialized organs known as
B. 20 A. gonads
C. 40 B. gametes
D. 80 C. lymph glands
86. are attracted by aroma, bright colors, D. excretory glands
or sweet nectar. 92. Pubic and underarm hair
A. Pollinators A. female
B. Wind B. male
C. Humans C. Both
D. Animals D. none of above
87. A form of asexual reproduction where a 93. Mitosis occurs in cells.
sea anemones simply split in half A. somatic
A. budding B. sex
B. cloning C. gamete
C. simple splitting in half D. none of above
D. regeneration
94. Advantages of sexual reproduction are
88. Somatic cells (body cells) go through this A. selective breeding
type of division B. saves time
A. Mitosis C. saves energy
B. Meiosis D. genetic variation
C. Transformation
95. Each offspring receives copies of each
D. Mutations gene, one from each parent.
89. What type of cells are produced in meio- A. one
sis? B. two
A. Body Cells C. three
B. Gametes D. none of above
84. D 85. B 86. A 87. C 88. A 89. B 90. C 91. A 92. C 93. A 94. A 94. D
95. B 96. B
96. How many daughter cells are produced in 101. What is the main advantage of asexual
mitosis? reproduction?

A. 4 new cells A. Conserve time and energy
B. 2 new cells B. Formation of identical offspring
C. One new cell C. Genetic diversity of offspring
D. none of these D. Adapted to diverse environments
102. What do we call the concentration of sen-

97. The type of reproduction that requires two
sory tissues at the anterior end of an or-
parents
ganism?
A. inherited traits
A. cephalization
B. asexual
B. specialization
C. sexual C. differentiation
D. genetic D. gastrulation
98. Why are flower petals colored? 103. SB2c. Chromosomes that make up a pair
A. They attract different kinds of animals. (one chromosome from each parent) are
called chromosomes.
B. The colors attract different pollen.
A. Homozygous
C. The colors show which flowers are poi-
B. Heterozygous
sonous to bugs.
C. Homologous
D. They attract seeds.
D. Haploid
99. What does heterozygous mean?
104. All body cells in, sexual reproduction,
A. an organism that has the same alleles come from the original
for a trait (ex. TT or tt)
A. gamete
B. an organism that has different alleles
B. meiosis
for a trait (Tt)
C. shygote
C. When neither gene is fully dominant;
offspring is a mixture of both D. zygote
D. the different forms of a trait (hair 105. An offspring that resulted from sexual re-
color:brown, blonde, red, etc. production has most likely received
100. A mode of reproduction in which an or- A. only dominant genes from a single par-
ganism arises from two organisms and in- ent.
herits half of its DNA from each parent B. identical sets of genes from 2 different
A. Sexual Reproduction parents.
C. only chromosomes from one parent
B. Asexual Reproduction
and only genes from another parent.
C. Cloning
D. the same number of chromosomes
D. Fragmentation from a male parent and a female parent.
97. C 98. A 99. B 100. A 101. A 102. A 103. C 104. D 105. D 106. B
106. Radial cleavage is found primarily in C. transgender

which group? D. all of the above
A. Protostomes
112. What is External Fertilization consid-
B. Deuterostomes ered?
C. Both Protostomes & Deuterostomes A. Sexual
D. Neither Protostomes & Deuteros- B. Asexual
tomes
C. Budding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
107. The function of a protein molecule de- D. Nothing
pends on what?
113. This type of plant is does not have fruits
A. Shape/structure and how it connects
or flowers, most have seeds that are on
with other proteins
cones
B. How many proteins there are
A. perfect flowers
C. How sticky the protein is
B. conifers
D. How flexible the protein is C. gymnosperms
108. Which of these cells would undergo meio- D. angiosperms
sis?
114. Where does the fertilisation between
A. skin cells sperm and ovum occur?
B. liver cells A. Ovary
C. brain cells B. Fallopian tube
D. sperm cells C. Cervix
109. The solid ball of cells that results from D. Vagina
the dividing zygote is called ?
115. Daffodils are plants that can perform
A. Blastula both asexual and sexual reproduction.
B. Morula How does a daffodil population benefit
more by reproducing sexually?
C. Gastrula
A. It can reproduce more rapidly.
D. Blastomere
B. It can adapt faster to its environment.
110. I am a flower that produces nectar. What
C. It can increase the diversity of inher-
is the function of the nectar?
ited traits.
A. To provide food for the flower
D. It can eliminate unfavorable traits
B. To attract animals to disperse fruit from the gene pool.
C. To produce perfumes for man
116. Which seed is more likely to be dispersed
D. To attract pollinators by wind?
111. What gender has an X and a Y chromo- A. a bean seed
some? B. a maple seed with wings
A. male C. a cocklebur in a field
B. female D. none of above
CHECK GOOGLE PLAY BOOKS FOR ANSWERS KEYS

117. In mitosis, how many cells are made? C. petals

A. 2 cells with identical genetic informa- D. electrolytes

tion
122. Growth spurt
B. 2 cells with different genetic informa-
A. female
tion
B. Male
C. 4 cells with identical genetic informa-
tion C. both
D. 4 cells with different genetic informa- D. none of above
tion 123. The entire genome (or, “the book of
you”) is contained inside the of the
118. A baby elephant will receive what per-
cell.
centage of its genes from their mother?
A. mitochondria
A. 100%
B. cell wall
B. 75%
C. nucleus
C. 50%
D. lysosomes
D. 0%
124. What are stored in nucleus of sperm and
119. What is an ovary? ovum?
A. the female part of the flower that be- A. Water
comes a fruit
B. Genetic and hereditary information
B. the female part of the flower that ac- C. Gel layer
cepts the pollen
D. Tail
C. the male part of the flower that pro-
duces pollen 125. All of the following are disadvantages of
D. another name for the stem of the plant sexual reproduction EXCEPT:
A. energy consumption required to pro-
120. A saguaro flower typically blooms at duce gametes
night until mid-morning the next day. It is
B. reproductive behaviors may attract
bright white, bowl shaped, emitsa pleas-
predators
ant, fruity odor, and has platforms on
which to perch. What do you think polli- C. can lead to deadly competition be-
nates a saguaro flower? tween males
A. Bumblebee D. genetic diversity can can allow a
species to survive changing environment
B. Bat
C. Butterfly 126. Other animals besides bees can pollinate
flowers. These animals include:
D. fly
A. dogs, cats, birds, and bunnies
121. A pollinator benefits from a flower be- B. bats, hummingbirds, butterflies, and
cause it receives nutrients from the flies
A. honey C. horses, cows, pugs, and sheep
B. nectar D. elephants, giraffes, lions, and tigers

127. The genetic material of an offspring of B. petals

sexually reproducing organisms is best de- C. sepals
scribed as-
D. stament
A. identical to that of the other offspring
B. a copy of the genetic material of the 132. the bacterium clostridum tetani is found
mother on nearly two of these surfaces. a short
time after one or two of these bacteria en-
C. a copy of the genetic material of the ter a wound, a large number of them may
NARAYAN CHANGDER
father be found in the wound as a result of
D. genes from both parents, in unique A. regeneration
combinations
B. propagation
128. What is an irregular menstruation? C. asexual reproduction
A. Condition where a woman stop produc- D. gametogenesis
ing ovum
133. Which is an example of sexual reproduc-
B. Condition where a woman does not ex-
tion?
perience menstruation every month, has
too long or too short menstrual cycles A. yeast producing identical cells
C. Condition where a woman producing B. dolphins laying eggs
sperm C. cutting off the arm of a starfish
D. Condition where a woman start to D. Butterflies receive nectar when they
pregnant deposit pollen on flower
129. Are the cells in Mitosis identical or 134. When comparing the offspring of sexu-
unique? ally and asexually reproducing organisms,
A. Identical we would expect the genetic material of
the sexually reproducing organism to-
B. Unique
A. contain fewer mutations
C. It’s random
B. be lesser in quantity
D. none of above
C. be simpler overall
130. It is possible that ONE organism(without
D. show more variation
the help of a partner)produces an offspring
that is genetically IDENTICAL to itself.This 135. asexual reproduction primarily involves
type of reproduction is called the process of
A. sexual A. ovulation
B. fertilization B. pollination
C. asexual C. mitosis
D. mating D. spermatogenesis
131. The part of a flower that is essential for 136. Which of the following is a characteris-
the attraction of animal pollinators is/are tic of a disadvantage of Sexual Reproduc-
the tion?
A. pistil A. diverse offspring

B. identical to parent 141. Which answer choice is NOT a type of

C. time and energy

A. budding
D. adaptability
B. regeneration
137. SB2c. A scientist is trying to discover C. fertilization
a new treatment to stop lung cancer cells
D. binary fission
from dividing. In the cancer cells, which of
these processes will stop if the treatment 142. If there are 48 chromosomes in the skin
is successful? cells of an organism, how many chromo-
A. mitosis somes would be found in the organism’s
sperm cells?
B. meiosis
A. 48
C. binary fission
B. 24
D. genetic recombination
C. 96
138. Most single cell organisms reproduce in D. 12
which way?
143. Flower parts in dicots are in multiples
A. asexual of?
B. sexual A. 4 or 5
C. Fission B. 7
D. Budding C. 3
D. 2
139. What is a characteristic of sexual repro-
duction? 144. The production of plants by means of
spores that do not have male or female
A. diverse offspring
parts is called reproduction.
B. identical offspring
A. inherited
C. faster than asexual reproduction B. sexual
D. requires no energy C. sporic
140. Two spiders have different parents and D. asexual
different proteins for the feature stripe 145. In what stage are chromosomes sepa-
color. How will the spiders look compared rated and moved to opposite poles?
to each other?
A. prophase
A. The stripe color will look the same be-
cause they have the same proteins B. metaphase
C. anaphase
B. The stripe color will look different be-
cause they have different proteins D. telophase
C. One will have a red stripe and the 146. The passing of traits from one generation
other will have a purple stripe to the next, applies to all organisms
D. none of above A. heredity

B. cloning 152. Pollen from one flower is transported to

C. genetics a different flower
D. generation A. cross-pollination
B. fertilization
147. What name is given to the food store
within a seed? C. inherited trait
A. Monocot D. self-pollination
B. Dicot
NARAYAN CHANGDER
153. What is the male gamete called in ani-
C. Cotyledon mals?
D. Hilum A. Spermatozoa
148. A guinea pig cell has 64 chromosomes. B. Ovum
After mitosis, each daughter contains C. Pollen
chromosomes.
D. Bob
A. 128
B. 64 154. Male gamete in angiosperms are formed
by the division of
C. 32
D. 16 A. generative cell
B. vegetataive cell
149. What is the difference between sperm
and ovum C. microspore mother cell
A. Sperms are not able to move but D. microspore
ovums are able to move
155. After fertilization what does the ovule
B. Sperms are produced by testis but develop into?
ovum is produced by ovary
A. Fruit
C. Ovum is male gamete while sperm is
female gamete B. Bud
D. none of above C. Seed
D. Flower
150. Variations allows organisms to to
changes which is key to 156. Which is a type of Asexual Reproduction
A. adopt, surveying A. Sexual
B. adopt, birth
B. Binary fission
C. adapt, survival
C. Cells
D. adopt, survival
D. organism
151. Females make eggs everyday
157. How many cells are produced in Mitosis?
A. False, they make them every month
A. 1
B. False, they make them every year
B. 2
C. False, they are born with all the eggs
they’ll ever have C. 3
D. True D. 4

158. Which is the greatest benefit of sexual 164. A single cell divides to produce 4 daugh-
reproduction? ter cells, what process is occurring?

A. capable of reproducing by meiosis A. budding
B. ability to reproduce without a mate B. meiosis
C. ability to produce genetically different C. mitosis
offspring
D. binary fission
D. capable of producing offspring geneti-
cally identical to parent 165. What does HIV stand for?
A. Human Immune Deficiency Syndrom
159. This cell “engulfs” the generative cell
B. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
A. egg
C. Human Illness Virus
B. synergid
C. tube D. Hope Infection Vanishes
D. sperm 166. Asexual reproduction creates offspring

that are
160. Vertebrates have reproduction.
A. genetically identical to the parent
A. Ovoviviparous
B. different from the parent
B. Oviparous
C. different from each other
C. Viviparous
D. formed by 2 parents
D. All of these
167. The purpose of cell division is
161. Meiosis creates daughter cells that
are unique from the parent cell. A. growth
A. 4 haploid B. evolution
B. 2 diploid C. repair
C. 4 diploid D. reproduction
D. 2 haploid 168. A cell that has a full set of chromosomes
162. Which reproduction requires a mate? is called a cell.
A. asexual A. haploid
B. sexual B. diploid
C. neither C. triploid
D. none of above D. hetrolpoid
163. SB2c. During which phase of mitosis do 169. A coelom is a complex body cavity that
the chromosomes line up along the middle allows animals to grow to be all of the fol-
of the cell? lowing EXCEPT:
A. Prophase A. larger
B. Metaphase B. faster
C. Anaphase C. genetically diverse
D. Telophase D. more complex

170. How many times does a cell divide during D. A runner from a strawberry plant pro-
mitosis? duces genetically identical offspring.
A. once 175. A true body cavity completely sur-
B. twice rounded by mesoderm is known as ?
C. four times A. Acoelom
D. Cells don’t know how to divide; they B. Coelom
can only multiply! C. Pseudocoelom
NARAYAN CHANGDER
171. asexual reproduction of a diploid organ- D. Tricoelom
isms normally result n new organisms that
contain cells with 176. All of the offspring of an organism have
the same genetic material, which is identi-
A. more chromosomes that are found in cal to the parent organism?
the cells of the parent
A. makes its own food
B. the 2n number of chromosomes
B. goes away
C. the n number of chromosomes
C. live in a marine habitat
D. fewer chromosomes than found in the
D. reproduces asexually
cells of the parent
177. After the ovules are fertilized, what hap-
172. Which of the following responsible in pro-
pens to the ovary?
ducing ovum?
A. The ovary falls off.
A. Vagina
B. The ovary becomes a flower.
B. Uterus
C. The ovary becomes a seed.
C. Fallopian tube
D. The ovary becomes a fruit.
D. Ovary
178. Genes are instructions
173. What is the function of urethra?
A. Traits
A. Holds and protects the testes
B. Features
B. A channel to discharge sperms and
urine from the body C. Proteins
C. Produces male gametes D. Technology
D. Transfer sperms into the vagina of the 179. How many chromosomes does each body
female during copulation cell of a human have?
174. Which of these best describes a method A. 48

of sexual reproduction in plants? B. 46
A. Roots of a lily plant are cut and re- C. 23
planted. D. 2
B. Flowers from a carrot plant are polli-
nated and produce seeds. 180. Process that allows asexual reproduction
C. A potato planted in the ground grow a A. mitosis

new stem. B. meiosis

C. both 186. Pollen produced in the contain male

D. none of above sex cell.

A. ovary
181. a thin membrane called the protects
B. pistil
and cushion the developing baby
C. zygote
A. placenta
D. anther
B. umbilical cord
C. amniotic sac 187. How many sperm are able to fertilize an
egg?
D. Uterus
A. 1
182. They enclose the egg cells inside the B. 2
ovaries.
C. 3
A. ovules D. it depends
B. anther
188. What does the sepal do?
C. seeds
A. It is the protective covering of the
D. angiosperms flower bud.
183. The cells produced via meiosis are called: B. It is the colored portion that attracts
bees.
A. gametes
C. It produces pollen.
B. somatic cells
D. It produces the pistil.
C. body cells
189. Which part of the plant produces the male
D. skin cells
gametes?
184. in human females, how many egg cells A. Anther
are formed as a result of one primary sex B. Filament
cells undergoing normal meiotic cell divi-
sion? C. Ovary
A. 1 D. Sepal
B. 2 190. A is a specialized cell that can survive

harsh conditions.
C. 3
A. bud
D. 4
B. spud
185. A disadvantage of external fertilisation C. dud
is
D. spore
A. There can only be a low number of off-
spring 191. Pollen grains are produced by the
B. Many eggs are not fertilised and are A. anther
therefore, wasted B. flowers
C. The offspring is nurtured in the womb C. stigma
D. It takes a lot of energy D. pistal

192. Which of the following is the division of 197. Whether or not an organism reproduces
the cytoplasm? sexually or asexually, the offspring result-
ing from reproduction has traits that de-
A. Mitosis
pend directly on its parent’s or parents’-
B. Meiosis A. genetic material
C. Cytokinesis B. physical appearance
D. Interphase C. habitat location
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. migration patterns
193. How many parent(s)are needed for asex-
ual reproduction? 198. Which of the following is the phase
A. 4 where cells do most of their growing, in-
crease in size and make new proteins and
B. 1 organelles
C. 9 A. G1 Phase
D. 100 B. G2 Phase
C. S Phase
194. Mitosis creates daughter cells that
are identical to the parent cell. D. Interphase
A. 4 haploid 199. What is another reason we need meio-

sis?
B. 2 haploid
A. So the offspring has genes from both
C. 4 diploid parents
D. 2 diploid B. So the offspring has genes from one
parent
195. The joining of a sperm cell and an egg cell
is called C. So the offspring has genes from nei-
ther parents
A. fertilization
D. So the offspring makes its own genes
B. labor
200. An organism has copies of a gene for
C. asexual reproduction each feature.
D. magic A. 1
B. 2
196. The transfer of pollen from the male (a)
C. 3
A. anther
D. 4
B. stigma
201. Which color flower are bats and moths
C. pollination
most likely attracted too?
D. petal A. Red
E. ovule B. Blue
F. seed C. Purple
G. fermentation D. White

202. Insect dispersed pollen is usually sticky 207. The cells produced through meiosis are
and spiky so that it can called
A. sex cells (gametes)

A. attach to the pollinators’ body without
falling off easily B. somatic cells
B. prevent pollinators from eating them C. body cells
C. stay attached to the anther so that it D. skin cells
doesn’t attach to a pollinator
208. What are 3 requirements for germina-
D. be used as glue tion?
203. Plants that have female, male, and per- A. Air, water, and warmth.
fect flowers on the same plant B. Air, roots, seeds.
A. unogamous C. Air, seeds, sun.
B. multigamous D. Sun, soil, air.
C. gamous 209. Pollen formed in the male part of a flower
D. polygamous pollinates the female part of the same
flower
204. Started the study of genetics, he is A. cross-pollination
known as the Father of Genetics B. fertilization
A. Robert Hooke C. inherited trait
B. Gregor Mendel D. self-pollination
C. Anton von Leeuwenhoek 210. The DNA inside of a cell must first be
D. Alfred Wegener before the cell can divide.
A. duplicated (copied)
205. Which of the following alleles is homozy-
gous recessive? B. shrink
A. Tt C. destroyed
B. tt D. removed
C. TT 211. In general, asexual reproduction is used

by organisms.
D. T
A. simple
206. Simultaneous hermaphrodites are ani- B. extinct
mals that:
C. complex
A. Begin life as a female, but then be-
D. none of above
come male
B. Begin life as a male, but then become 212. Organisms inherit their genes through
female
A. science
C. Both donate and receive sperm during
mating B. cloning
D. Both donate and receive eggs during C. stork magic
mating D. sexual reproduction

213. A mode of reproduction by which an or- 219. This type of asexual reproduction re-
ganism arises from a single organism and grows part of an animal (ex:hydra, pla-
inherit the identical genes of that parent naria, crabs)
A. Asexual Reproduction A. binary fission
B. Sexual Reproduction B. budding
C. Genetic Variation
C. regeneration
D. Alleles
D. parthenogenesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
214. The type of reproduction that requires
only one parent 220. Menstruation
A. inherited traits A. female
B. asexual B. Male
C. sexual
C. Both
D. genetics
D. none of above
215. What part regulates the temperature of
the testes? 221. Through sexual reproduction,
A. embryo A. offspring are identical to their parents.
B. epididymis
B. the parents pick which genes they
C. scrotum want their offspring to have.
D. none of above C. an organism inherits only genes that
216. Which of the following is NOT a gamete? make it the strongest and most likely to
survive.
A. egg
D. an organism inherits a random combi-
B. sperm
nation of gene versions from its parents.
C. skin cell
D. all of the above are gametes 222. A sweet and viscous liquid located in
plants’ blossoms, leaves, and stems
217. Vertebrates mainly reproduce
A. pollen
A. Asexually
B. By cloning B. sperm
C. Sexually C. nectar
D. By budding D. aroma
218. If there are 30 chromosomes in the blood 223. The stalk that supports the anther of the
cells, how many chromosomes will be in stamen is the
the bone cells?
A. pistil
A. 15
B. 60 B. filament
C. 30 C. ovary
D. 120 D. style

224. What process occurs in order for body C. newborn

cells to reproduce? D. embryo

A. mitosis
230. Which of the following is not true about
B. meiosis pollen?
C. binary fission A. It is a male gamete cell
D. budding
B. It is made in the anther
225. The fluid ejaculated from the penis is C. It is not necessary for sexual repro-
A. sperm duction in plants
B. semen D. It shape depends on the method of dis-

persal
C. urine
D. none of above 231. If two organisms reproduce sexually,
then their offspring will exhibit a genetic
226. The genetic instructions are found in makeup that is-
within the DNA A. identical to only one parent
A. traits B. identical to all of its siblings
B. chromosomes C. a unique combination of traits
C. genes
D. the recessive traits of each parent
D. DNA
232. Which are plants that grow, mature,
227. Sexual reproduction requires parents flower, produce seeds, and die in one
and asexual reproduction requires par- growing season?
ents.
A. Annual
A. 1, 1
B. Biennial
B. 2, 2
C. Perennial
C. 2, 1
D. none of above
D. 1, 2
233. A human usually has a total of chro-
228. A allele is an allele which trait only mosomes in each of his/her BODY cells.
shows up when no dominant allele is
A. 6
present.
B. 23
A. hidden
C. 4
B. dominant
D. 46
C. recessive
D. present 234. Synonym for not active.
229. a fertilized egg during the first two A. dormant

months of pregnancy is called B. sterile
A. fetus C. spry
B. infant D. mobile

235. Genes are 241. The animal that emerges from a butterfly
A. Another name for denim egg is in a wormlike stage
B. Instructions for producing proteins A. chrysalis
C. Responsible for building proteins B. larvae
D. none of above C. metomorphosis
236. Strands of DNA are tightly coiled in D. incomplete metamorphosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. DNA
B. Base Pairs 242. Tiny yellow grains inside some flowers,
used by flowers to form seeds
C. Chromosomes
A. sperm
D. Mitochondria
B. egg
237. When organisms in a species have differ-
ent traits it means the species has C. bud
A. identical D. pollen
B. variation
243. These are small grains that contain a
C. multiples
plant’s male reproductive cells.
D. twin
A. stamen
238. A hydra has 32 chromosomes and repro-
duces by budding. How many chromo- B. anther
somes does its offspring have? C. pollen
A. 8
D. stigma
B. 16
C. 32 244. Plants like potatoes and strawberries re-
produce by
D. 64
A. regeneration
239. This type of plant is a flowering plant and
it’s seeds are contained in fruits B. binary fission
A. perfect flowers C. vegetative propagation
B. conifers D. budding
C. gymnosperms
D. angiosperms 245. Which are plants that grow and bloom
over the spring and summer, die back ev-
240. If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24 ery autumn and winter, and then return in
chromosomes, a butterfly egg would con- the spring?
tain chromosomes.
A. Annual
A. 3
B. Biennial
B. 6
C. 12 C. Perennial
D. 24 D. none of above

246. Small grains that contain a plant’s male C. live in a marine habitat
reproductive cells.
D. reproduces asexually

A. stamen
B. pollen 252. What happens in nondisjunction?
C. anther A. Chromosomes don’t separate cor-

rectly causing genetic disorders
D. stigma
B. There is no such thing as nondisjunc-
247. Which of the following is a phenotype? tion
A. Aa C. Cells divide
B. red hair
D. Cells collide
C. heterozygous
D. DNA 253. Human eggs and sperm are , and each
has chromosomes.
248. Sperm move towards the archegonium in A. diploid, 23
response to chemicals released by the fe-
male gametophyte is called B. diploid, 46
A. chemoreaction C. haploid, 23
B. chemotaxis D. haploid, 46
C. doyourtaxes
254. The sexual union to facilitate the recep-
D. getoffyouraxis tion of sperm by a female is:
249. The ovary, style, and the stigma make up A. Cephalization
the female part of a plant called the?
B. Copulation
A. stamen
C. Fertilization
B. petals
D. Cleavage
C. stem
D. carpel (pistil) 255. Male sex cell is a(n)
250. Prokaryotes reproduce asexually A. zygote

through- B. egg
A. Spore formation C. sperm
B. Vegetative propagation D. fertilized egg
C. Binary fission
256. Seed dispersal does not reduce competi-
D. none of above
tion between the seedlings and the parent
251. All of the offspring of an organism have plant for
the same genetic material, which is identi- A. light
cal to the parent organism. From this, we
can conclude that this organism- B. oxygen
A. makes its own food C. water
B. is unicellular D. nutrients

257. The part of the stamen that produces mi- C. fish

crospores that become pollen grains is the
D. flowers
A. anther 263. What type of reproduction is character-

B. pistil ized by the development of an embryo in-
side an egg within the mother’s body until
C. filament it hatches?
D. ovary A. Vivipary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
258. The sporophyte stage is the stage. B. Vertebrate reproduction
A. android C. Ovipary
B. haploid D. Ovovivipary
C. diploid
264. Differences in the structure of protein
D. triploid
molecules affect how they connect to other
259. You can become infected with HIV by protein molecules. This can result in differ-
ent
A. using contaminated IV needles
A. Organisms
B. casual contact
C. kissing without mouth sores B. Traits
D. toilet seats C. Mutations

D. Offspring
260. Which type of asexual reproduction is
common in colonial animals such a coral? 265. Some plants, like mosses, have special
A. Budding parts that produce tiny one-celled struc-
B. Gemmules tures called
C. Fragmentation A. spores
D. Parthenogenesis B. sperms
E. Fission with regeneration C. eggs
261. In sexual reproduction the cell receives D. flowers

the number of chromosomes from each
266. Which type of asexual reproduction in-
parent cell.
volves the unequal division of an organism
A. twice causing an outgrowth which may eventu-
B. the same ally fall off and form into a new organ-
ism?
C. double
D. half A. Budding
B. Gemmules
262. Which organism reproduce with External
Fertilization? C. Fragmentation
A. dogs D. Parthenogenesis
B. cats E. Fission with regeneration

267. The term meaningto distribute or spread B. sun

seeds C. germination

A. seed dispersal
D. reproduction
B. seed germination
273. DNA is made of chains of four smaller
C. seed disposal
molecules called:
D. seed fertilization
A. nucleotides
268. The transfer of pollen grains from the B. mitochondrial bases
male part of the flower to the female part
of the flower C. life blocks
A. pollination D. DNAblers
B. generation 274. This occurs after a tube grows down from
C. genetics the pollen grain through the style to the
ovary.
D. nectar
A. pollination
269. What is heredity?
B. germination
A. The passing of traits from parent to off-
spring C. fertilization
B. The passing of chromosomes from par- D. seed dispersal

ent to offspring
275. The rafflesia flower smells like rotting
C. Traits produced because of environ- meat and dung. This helps attract
mental influences
A. bats
D. Alterations in the nucleotide sequence
of genes B. flies
C. moths
270. Which are dry fruits of an angiosperm?
D. butterflies
A. pecan and walnut
B. apple and peach 276. Egg matures
C. acorn and apple A. female
D. none of above B. Male
271. A plant that has traits identical to the par- C. both

ent plant provides evidence that the plant D. none of above
A. resulted from sexual reproduction.
277. A form of asexual reproduction where a
B. resulted from asexual reproduction. piece falls off and can grow into a new
C. will develop many seeds. adult sponge
D. will have large leaves. A. budding
B. cloning
272. When we see growth, or when a seed
sprouts it shows C. grafting
A. pollination D. regeneration

278. Compare & Contrast Sexual VS Asexual kept the same in all of the trays. (Select
A. both only require one parent all that apply)
B. sexual creates diverse offspring, and A. the temperature of each tray (low,
asexual makes uniform medium, and high)
C. sexual reproduction have larger popu- B. number of seeds
lations C. amount of daily watering
D. both require no special cells
D. amount of lights on
NARAYAN CHANGDER
279. In what stage do chromosomes align in E. number of seeds that sprouted
the center of the cell?
A. prophase 284. Which of the following is NOT a pollina-
tor?
B. metaphase
A. bat
C. anaphase
D. telophase B. butterfly
C. scorpion
280. The result of meiosis is:
D. hummingbird
A. two diploid cells
B. two haploid cells 285. When the penis becomes engorged with
C. four diploid cells blood and hard, it is an
D. four haploid cells A. election
281. When animals change from one form to a B. evaporation

completely different form during their life C. erection
cycle
D. orgasm
A. regeneration
B. cloning 286. What do we call the head end of a bilat-
eral animal that has the sensory organs?
C. metamorphosis
D. chrysalis A. dorsal
B. posterior
282. A spider has a mutation to the fang gene.
What does this mean for the spider? C. ventral
A. It will have sharper fangs D. anterior
B. It will have longer fangs
287. What is it called if the two copies of a
C. It has a random change to its fang gene for each feature are a different ver-
gene sion?
D. There will be absolutely no change to A. Opposites
its fangs
B. Identical
283. In the germination lab, which of the fol-
C. Homozygous
lowing were some the controls in the ex-
periment? These are the things that you D. Heterozygous

288. DNA is replicated during of the cell 293. Two parents with brown hair have a child
cycle. together with red hair. How is this possi-
ble?

A. G1 Phase
A. The child inherited one copy of the
B. S Phase
gene from each parent and that combina-
C. G2 Phase tion of genes provided instructions for pro-
D. G0 Phase teins to make red hair.
B. When you mix brown and brown to-
289. Are the cells produced in meiosis identical gether you get red.
or unique?
C. It isn’t possible
A. Identical
D. none of above
B. Unique
294. Traits that attract pollinators are called
C. It’s random
pollinator (a)
D. none of above
A. syndromes
290. Pollination is the process by which the B. symptoms
pollen grains are transferred from the
C. synapsis
to the
D. synonyms
A. anther ovary
B. anther stigma 295. Which body fluid doesn’t carry the HIV
virus?
C. stigma ovary
A. Blood
D. stigma filament
B. Breast Milk
291. Which of these is NOT a function of the C. Urine
roots?
D. Semen
A. anchors the plant in the soil
B. support the plant in the soil 296. Reproduction can be divided into?
C. absorbs water and nutrients from the A. 2

ground B. 3
D. capture sunlight C. 4
292. Which type of asexual reproduction in- D. 5

volves an unfertilized egg that develops
297. What is reproduction?
into a complete individual?
A. Process of producing new individuals
A. Budding
B. Process of exchange of gases
B. Gemmules
C. Process that convert glucose into en-
C. Fragmentation
ergy
D. Parthenogenesis
D. Process that excrete waste products
E. Fission with regeneration from humans body

298. Pollination that depends dry conditions D. fish

and ample air currents is pollination. E. arthropod
A. animal
304. Passes along genetic material.
B. water
A. mitosis
C. wind
B. meiosis
D. none of above
C. both
NARAYAN CHANGDER
299. Other animals have chromosome D. none of above
numbers.
305. Which of the following is a disadvantage
A. the same for sexual reproduction?
B. larger A. a lot of time and energy is required for
C. different making gametes and finding mates
D. multiple B. offspring can be produced more
quickly than by asexual means
300. What is the male reproductive part of the
C. the genetic diversity makes organ-
flower?
isms respond differently to environmental
A. carpel changes
B. stamen D. the offspring are genetically different
C. ovary 306. What is the function of nectar?
D. none of above A. To provide food for the flower
301. Egg cells are produced in the B. To attract pollinators
A. fallopian tubes C. To attract animals to disperse the
fruits
B. uterus
D. To produce perfumes for Man
C. ovaries
D. vagina 307. What is the function of scrotum?
A. Secretes nutritional fluid for the
302. A complex molecule that carries genetic sperms
information which defines an organism’s
traits. It is stored in the nucleus of a cell. B. Holds and protect the testes
A. DNA C. Produces male gametes
B. protein D. A channel to discharge sperms and

urine form the body
C. RNA
308. What does the AIDS stand for?
D. glucose nucleic acid (GNA)
A. Acquired Infected Disease Syndrome
303. Which of the following animals groups is
B. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syn-
NOT a vertebrate?
drome
A. amphibian C. Attained Immune Deficiency Symp-
B. reptile toms
C. bird D. none of above

309. How do the sperm cells get from the 314. When sperm and egg cells come together
stigma to the ovules? outside the female’s body it is called

A. They slide down the petals to the bot- A. budding
tom of the flower. B. regeneration
B. They travel through pollen tubes( C. internal fertilization
style)
D. external fertilization
C. They travel along filaments.
315. How many alleles (letters) do each per-
D. Insects carry the sperm cells from the
son carry for a trait?
stigma to the ovules.
A. 1
310. In an animal, why would skin cells repro-
B. 2
duce
C. 3
A. growth
D. 4
B. evolution
C. repair 316. Another name for sex cells.
D. reproduction A. Semen
B. Gonads
311. Most deuterostomes show this type of
C. Gametes
coelom formation where this structure
forms as an outpocketing of the gut: D. Zygote
A. Enterocoelous 317. The following are all examples of an-
B. Schizocoelous giosperms EXCEPT
C. Acoelom A. apple trees
D. Pseudocoelom B. rosebushes
C. peas
312. Two basic ways that animals reproduce
are D. cypress
A. asexually, sexually 318. How many general methods of verte-

B. regeneration, budding brate reproduction are there?
C. regeneration, cloning A. 1
B. 2
D. sexually, cloning
C. 3
313. The cells produced as a result of mitosis
D. 4
are called diploid . This is because they
each contain a full set of chromosomes. 319. refers to the development of an em-
How many chromosomes does diploid cell bryo inside an egg within the mother’s
contain? body until it hatches.
A. 1 A. Vivipary
B. 23 B. Ovovivipary
C. 46 C. Ovipary
D. 22 D. All of these

320. Genetic variation is observed within a 325. Goes through P.M.A.T two rounds
species. What is another term for varia- A. Mitosis
tion?
B. Meiosis
A. difference
C. Osmosis
B. trouble
D. Transcription
C. similarity
D. illness 326. What is regeneration in asexual repro-
duction?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
321. The following are all examples of gym- A. Divison of sinle parent cell
nosperms EXCEPT
B. The ability of the fragments of some or-
A. cycads ganisms to grow and develop into new in-
B. rosebushes dividuals.
C. ginkgos C. Process of producing spores in the
sporangium.
D. cypress
D. Method of producing new plants from
322. What is a disadvantage of asexual repro- a vegatative part of a plant
duction?
327. A Goat has 60 chromosomes in its body
A. New species of organisms cannot
cells. What is the haploid number?
come into being.
A. 60
B. The offspring does not multiply rapidly
. B. 30
C. The offspring does not live for long. C. 100
D. All of these D. 120
323. dogs reproduce, 2 sex cells join together 328. Which organism reproduces though Inter-
& form offspring. The resulting offspring nal Fertilization?
is likely A. fish
A. to express only recessive traits B. amphibians
B. to be identical to ONE parent C. mammals
C. to share some traits from BOTH of its D. goldfish
parents
329. What process occurs in order for sex cells
D. none of above (gametes) to reproduce?
324. What is cross pollination? A. mitosis
A. when pollen goes from one flower to B. meiosis
another C. binary fission
B. when pollen goes across a physical D. budding
barrier
C. hen pollen goes from the stamen of a 330. What does testosterone affect?
flower to the pistil of the same flower A. development of the placenta
D. when pollen is carried down a river B. formation of a zygote

C. production of sperm cells 336. Compared to the amount in a normal hu-

man cell, a sperm cell will have
D. changes within an ovary

A. the same amount of chromsomes
331. refers to having two of the same alle- B. twice the amount of chromosomes
les for a particular trait (sometimes called
purebred). C. half the amount of chromosomes
A. Homozygous D. one fourth the amount of chromo-

somes
B. Hetrozygous
337. What does a fleshy fruit protect?
C. Protein
A. cones
D. Chromosome
B. petals
332. The offspring of an organism produced C. seeds
through asexual reproduction is always-
D. stamens
A. genetically identical to its parent
338. What is it called when the egg and sperm
B. created by vegetative propagation cell join?
C. made of cells with a cell wall A. zygote
D. different from its siblings B. gamete
C. fertilization
333. Some plants have three kinds of flowers
on the same plant D. mitosis
A. male, female, mate 339. The three parts of a seed are the:
B. male, single, double A. seed coat, cotyledon, embryo
C. male, female, perfect B. roots, stem, flower
D. perfect, male, single C. seed coat, flower, cotyledon
D. radicle, coleoptile, fibrous
334. is the passing of genetic traits from
parent to offspring. 340. A dog has 78 chromosomes in its body
cells. What is the diploid number?
A. Heredity
A. 78
B. Trait
B. 39
C. Gene
C. 1
D. Allele
D. 100
335. What percentage of chromosomes are 341. Which of the following shows the correct
handed down by a sperm cell? sequence?
A. 75% A. Blastula, zygote, morula, gastrula
B. 25% B. Morula, gastrula, zygote, blastula
C. 50% C. Gastrula, blastula, morula, zygote
D. 100% D. Zygote, morula, blastula, gastrula

342. The structures containing female repro- A. The stripe color will look the same be-
ductive cells. cause they have the same proteins
A. seeds B. The stripe color will look different be-
B. style cause they have the same proteins
C. gametes C. They must have different genes if they
have the same protein
D. anthers
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
343. A form of asexual reproduction where a
bud forms and then falls off a hydra to be- 348. Brightly colored parts of flowers that at-
come a new hydra tract insects.
A. budding A. petals
B. cloning B. pistils
C. grafting C. stamen
D. regeneration
D. filaments
344. Which type of asexual reproduction is
common in planarians and sea anemones? 349. Humans have pairs of chromosomes
in each of their body cells.
A. Budding
A. 12
B. Gemmules
B. 23
C. Fragmentation
C. 32
D. Parthenogenesis
E. Fission with regeneration D. 46
345. What is the process that involves the fu- 350. Parents reproduce and the new organism
sion of sperm and ovum is called
A. Reproduction A. stolons
B. Photosynthesis B. tubers
C. Fertilisation C. Zorlons
D. Respiration D. offspring
346. Seed development can take as long as 351. which is a true statement about normal
years. diploid cells
A. two
A. they contain only one chromosomes of
B. three each homologous pair
C. four B. they contain only half the the number
D. five of chromosomes that a re in a gamete
C. they contain homologous pairs of chro-
347. Two spiders have different parents but
mosomes
the same protein for the feature stripe
color. How will the spiders look compared D. they contain chromosomes that are all
to each other? of equal lenght

352. This type of asexual reproduction oc- 357. What is the advantage of radial symme-
curs by developing buds & breaking off try?
(ex:spider plants)

A. they can easily find food and mates
A. binary fission and avoid predators
B. budding B. they do not require much energy to sur-
vive
C. regeneration
C. they have the ability to sense food and
D. parthenogenesis predators from all directions
353. Fertilized egg is a(n) D. they have sensory organs and good
muscular control
A. zygote
358. Double fertilization is found without any
B. egg
exception in
C. sperm A. bryophytes
D. fertilized egg B. gymnosperms
354. How many chromosomes does the human C. angiosperms

genome contain? D. pteridophytes
A. 23 359. The purpose of seed dispersal is for the
B. 46 seeds to
C. 96 A. germinate at the same time
D. 14 B. move to the same place and grow

C. move further away from the parent
355. What is an advantage of sexual reproduc- plant
tion? D. compete with one another for minerals
A. smaller populations in the soil
B. cannot adapt easily 360. A type of asexual reproductioninstead of
C. adapts easily to new environments involving flowers and seedsother parts of
the plant are used for reproduction
D. requires no energy
A. conifers
356. Through sexual reproduction, each off- B. vegetative reproduction
spring can inherit a different combination C. spore reproduction
of gene versions. Therefore,
D. grafting
A. all offspring will be identical to their
parents 361. The stalks in a flower that produce the
male reproductive cells
B. siblings can have different traits from
each other and even from their parents. A. pistil
C. offspring will be identical to each other B. stamen
C. filament
D. none of above D. stigma

362. Which of the following is NOT a method B. asexual reproduction

of seed dispersal? C. both
A. water D. none of above
B. sunlight
368. Most multicellular organisms reproduce
C. wind when two parents each contribute a sex
D. animals cell to the offspring. This type of repro-
duction is called
NARAYAN CHANGDER
363. Which of the following is not a fruit? A. fertilization
A. eggplant B. mitosis
B. pumpkin C. meiosis
C. pepper D. sexual
D. cauliflower 369. Which process results in the production of
364. Every cell of every living thing on earth a zygote?
contains all the information it needs to cre- A. fertilization
ate and duplicate and make variations of: B. binary fission
A. itself C. budding
B. any other kind of cell D. meiosis
C. red blood cells 370. Production of sperm
D. none of above A. Female
365. Which type of asexual reproduction in- B. Male
volves the body of an organism breaking C. both
into two or more parts, each of which may
D. none of above
form a new organism?
A. Budding 371. Why does sexual reproduction result in
more genetic diversity than asexual repro-
B. Gemmules duction?
C. Fragmentation A. Traits from two parents are combined.
D. Parthenogenesis B. More organisms reproduce this way.
E. Fission with regeneration C. Offspring grow in different environ-
ments.
366. Voice deepens
D. Offspring come from identical parents.
A. female
B. Male 372. The egg cell of a koala contain 12 chro-
mosomes. How many chromosomes does
C. both a normal cell contain?
D. none of above A. 6
367. Passes genetic informationonto future B. 12
generations C. 24
A. sexual reproduction D. 36

373. This occurs directly AFTER a tube grows 378. The nitrogen base adenine is always
down from the pollen grain through the paired with the nitrogen base
style to the ovary.

A. cytosine
A. pollination
B. guanine
B. germination
C. thymine
C. fertilisation
D. nitrogen
D. seed dispersal
379. Once the egg is fertilized, activation of
374. Which of the following best describes the egg occurs and rapid changes result.
meiosis? All of the following changes occur EXCEPT:
A. It is carried out in all tissues theat re- A. Hardening of the egg lining
quire cell replacement
B. Swelling of the sperm nucleus
B. It occurs only in cells in the reproduc-
tive structures of an organism C. Decreased rate of protein synthesis
C. It happens in all of the tissues except D. Increased rate of cellular respiration

the brain and spinal cord
380. The endosperm is
D. It is the first stage of mitosis
A. haploid
375. Which of the following that responsible B. diploid
in producing sperm?
C. triploid
A. Scrotum
D. none of above
B. Prostate gland
C. Testis 381. When an egg has not been fertilized, it
leaves the body with the lining of the
D. Penis
uterus. This is known as
376. Which of the following is/are types of A. menstruation
pollination? A) wind pollination B) Insect
B. ovulation
pollination C) explosive pollination
C. fertilization
A. A only
B. A & B only D. pregnancy
C. All of the above 382. W = white hairw = non-white hairIf you

D. B only cross a horse with a WW gene pair and a
horse with ww gene pair, what fraction of
377. The male gonad which produces sperm is the offspring would be expected to have
the ? white hair?
A. Penis A. none
B. Testes B. 3/4
C. Prostate gland C. 1/2
D. Cowper’s gland D. all

383. Two ways for fertilization to occur 388. What are chromosomes?
A. internal, external A. different versions of genes
B. internal, budding B. condensed DNA
C. uncoiled DNA
C. internal, grafting
D. none of above
D. external, regeneration
389. Flowers form on the swollen tip of a flo-
384. Which of the following are behaviors that ral branch in an area known as the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
might put you at risk for acquiring HIV? A. receptacle
A. sharing contaminated needles B. stamen
B. sexual contact C. pistil
C. helping a bleeding person at an acci- D. ovary
dent 390. What is the immune system’s main pur-
D. all are risky behaviors pose?
A. Let’s germs into the body.
385. Gametes are made in
B. Helps your body fight off illness and
A. skin cells disease.
B. stomach cells C. The immune system produces illness
and bacteria.
C. reproductive systems
D. The immune system trap germs in an
D. the circulatory system organ so they do not spread.
386. Crossing over is important because 391. Any seed plant that has no woody stem.
A. It prevents mutations from entering A. monocot
the gametes. B. dicot
B. It allows for even distribution of chro- C. herbaceous
mosomes in the gametes. D. gymnosperm
C. It allows for more genetic diversity of 392. Which of the following is a part of the
gametes. process of sexual reproduction?
D. It allows for genetic uniformity of ga- A. budding
metes.
B. regeneration
387. What are some examples of SEXUAL re- C. pollination
production? D. fragmentation
A. fertilization, pollinization 393. After fertilization what does the ovary
B. binary fission, budding, regeneration, develop into?
vegetative, propagation A. Fruit
C. regeneration, fertilization, polliniza- B. Bud
tion C. Seed
D. fertilization D. Flower

394. Which of the following is (are) pollina- C. birds

tor? D. mammals

A. Birds
400. Creates unique set of DNA.
B. Bats
C. Bees A. mitosis
D. all of the above B. meiosis

C. both
395. A human has 46 chromosomes in their
body cells. What is the haploid number? D. none of above
A. 46 401. The male reproductive structure of a
B. 92 flower is the
C. 23 A. pistil
D. 12 B. ovary
396. What name is given to the small hole in C. stamen
the seed where water enters? D. ovule
A. Hilum
402. How many alleles (letters) does a child
B. Micropyle
get from each parent for each trait?
C. Testa
A. 1
D. Cotyledon
B. 2
397. In order to grow two of the exact same C. 3
plants, a person would reproduce them
asexually because the D. 4
A. genetic diversity is greater. 403. When an egg and sperm form an embryo,
B. offspring would be genetically identi- the offspring that is formed will have ge-
cal. netic traits that are
C. recessive traits would emerge. A. inherited from only one parent.
D. negative traits are suppressed. B. created by the environment.
398. It’s estimated that all the chromosomes C. passed on from two parents.
together house about 20, 000 individual D. learned from siblings.
instructions called
A. genes 404. What is a phenotype?
B. base pairs A. the expression of a trait; physical ap-
pearance.
C. chromatophores
B. the genetic makeup of an individual
D. lipids
C. an organism that has the same genes
399. Ovipary occurs in for a trait (ex. TT or tt)
A. amphibians D. the passing of traits from parent to off-
B. BOTH amphibians AND birds spring

405. The embryonic layer that forms the ex- B. Sparse bristles
cretory and reproductive systems is the:
C. Dense bristles
A. Endoderm
D. none of above
B. Mesoderm
C. Ectoderm 411. which of the following does not occur by
mitosis?
D. Exoderm
A. growth
406. All of the following use internal fertiliza-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. production of gametes
tion EXCEPT
A. all reptiles C. repair
B. birds D. development in the embryo

C. mammals 412. the chromatids of a double stranded chro-
D. salmon mosome are held together at a region
known as
407. The study of how heredity works
A. polar body
A. inherited traits
B. centromere
B. heredity
C. diploid
C. genetics
D. generation D. centriole
408. Which type of asexual reproduction in- 413. The process of crossing over occurs in
volves a piece of the parent organism be- what phase of meiosis?
coming detached then growing and devel- A. anaphase 1
oping into a completely new individual?
B. prophase 1
A. Budding
C. prophase 2
B. Gemmules
D. telophase 1
C. Fragmentation
D. Parthenogenesis 414. Where do the egg and sperm meet?
E. Fission with regeneration A. The ovary
409. Muscular organ where a baby develops B. The fallopian tube
A. Uterus C. The vas deferens
B. vagina D. At a party
C. fallopian tubes
415. The four differing nucleotide parts, called
D. Ovaries bases, are made of a few:
410. Zora has the genes R1R1 and has dense A. sugars
bristles. Anne has the same proteins for
B. phosphates
bristles as Zora. What will Ann look like
for the feature of bristles? C. nitrogenous bases
A. No bristles D. all of the above

1.2 Asexual Reproduction 41
416. The tip of the style that has sticky hairs B. amount of light
to trap pollen is the C. number of seeds that sprouted

A. stamen D. temperature of each tray
B. stigma
419. In plants, where does photosynthesis
C. ovary take place?
D. style A. roots
417. How many daughter cells are produced at B. branches
the end of meiosis? C. leaves
A. 1 D. flowers
B. 2
420. In a seed plant, the pollen grains are ac-
C. 3 tually tiny
D. 4 A. male gametophytes
418. In the germination lab, what data did you B. seed

collect from each tray? C. egg
A. amount of water D. female gametophytes
1.2 Asexual Reproduction

1. Which of the following is caused by cells D. Vegetative Propagation
dividing out of control?
4. . Which of the following statements is
A. Food poisoning TRUE about asexual reproduction?
B. Cold or fever A. The offspring that are produced are ge-
C. Cancer netically unique
D. Downs syndrome B. A mother and father are needed to pro-
duce offspring
2. Inherited traits are controlled by
C. A kitten is produced through asexual
A. genetic information in the genes reproduction
B. the environment a baby is born into D. Only one parent is required
C. the nucleus and mitochondria
5. What kind of animals can reproduce by
D. none of the above asexual ways?
3. During this type of asexual reproduction, A. Protazoa
plants produce genetically identical off- B. Mammals
shoots (clones) of themselves, which then
develop into independent plants? C. Sea animals
A. Binary Fission D. Insects
B. Sporulation 6. Yeast reproduce by

C. Regeneration A. Budding

B. Binary fission 12. Which is NOT a form of asexual reproduc-

C. Spore formation tion?
D. Vegetative reproduction A. binary fission

B. meiosis
7. Which method does mould use to produce
more mould on a piece of cheese or bread? C. budding
A. Budding D. parthenogenesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Binary fission
13. Which organisms reproduce by binary fis-
C. Spore formation sion where one single cell splits into two
D. Vegetative reproduction identical cells?
8. the uncontrolled division of cells that re- A. starfish and flatworm

sults in malignant growth B. giraffe and zebra
A. tissues C. bacteria and amoeba
B. cancer
D. spider plant and strawberry plant
C. mitosis
D. anaphase 14. The roots of this plant can give rise to a
new baby plant.
9. Which statement is true of plants and ani-
A. Bryophyllum
mals that reproduce asexually?
A. They have no genes B. Sweet potato
B. The have genes but no chromosomes C. Sugarcane

C. They have offspring that are exactly D. none of above
like the parent
15. Fully grown parent cells split into two
D. They have offspring that combine the
halves resulting in two daughter cells with
traits of two parents
the exact DNA as the parent.
10. after mitosis, how many daughter cell are A. Binary Fission
present
B. Budding
A. 1
C. Fragmentation
B. 2
C. 3 D. Vegetative Reproductions
D. 4 16. This method of artificial vegetative propa-

gation is when pieces of roots, stems, or
11. What is not working properly for muta-
leaves are cut off of a plant and replanted.
tions to occur in a cell?
A. Checkpoints/Regulators in Interphase A. Cuttings
B. Mitosis B. Graftings
C. Chromosomes C. Runners
D. none of above D. Bulbs

17. When an organism undergoes a period of 22. In which phase does the cell spend most of
growth then splits in two separate organ- it’s life?
isms, it is called

A. Interphase
A. Budding
B. Nuclear Division
B. Fission
C. Telophase
C. Fragmentation
D. Mitosis
D. Parthenogenesis
23. Sexual reproduction results in offspring
18. Which is a characteristic of asexual repro-
that are genetically to the parents
duction?
A. Identical
A. Half of the offspring have learned
traits similar to the parents B. Exact
B. All of the learned traits pass from par- C. Similar
ents to offspring D. Opposite
C. All of the inherited traits are the same
as the parents 24. Which is the primary advantage to sexual
reproduction over asexual reproduction?
D. Half of the inherited traits come from
two parents A. The offspring are identical to parents
19. Which type(s) of reproduction involves NO B. There is longer development time for
genetic diversity? offspring
A. asexual C. The offspring are born alive, rather
than from eggs
B. sexual
D. The offspring inherit a wider variety of
C. both
genetic information
D. none of above
25. Some lizards have different size legs.
20. Caves being formed by acid rain dissolving Lizards with longer legs are able to better
underground limestone access food. Over time, lizards with short
A. Weathering legs became less common.What is the suc-
B. Erosion cessful adaptation?
C. Deposition A. Lizards
D. none of above B. Long legs

C. Food
21. This type of asexual reproduction occurs
when specialized reproductive cells with D. Leg sizes
tough coatings are released from the par-
ent organism. 26. Process that produces sex cells (gametes).
A. Sporulation A. Mitosis
B. Budding B. Meiosis
C. Binary fission C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis
D. Regeneration D. none of above

27. Which of the following are associated with 32. Bacteria reproduce asexually by
asexual reproduction? A. budding
A. Eggs B. fragmentation
B. Flowers C. binary fission
C. Sporing D. cloning
D. Sperm 33. One key advantage of asexual reproduc-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion is
28. One disadvantage of asexual reproduction
is A. Offspring complete for food and space
A. A species cannot survive when preda- B. It allows organisms to reproduce
tors increase quickly
B. Large colonies can out compete other C. Extreme temperatures can wipe out
organisms for nutrients and water entire populations
C. Large numbers of offspring reproduce D. Offspring are different than parent or-
slowly ganism
D. Extreme temperatures can wipe out 34. Stem cells have the potential to
entire colonies A. divide rapidly
29. Production of a new plant from a portion B. increase the amount of DNA
of another plant is called- C. become many different types of cells
A. vegetative state D. invade other types of cells
B. vegetative propagation 35. Which of the folllowing is a DISADVAN-
C. tree planting TAGE of asexual reproduction?
D. spore formation A. There is great variation among off-
spring.
30. Amebas, paramecia, and bacteria repro- B. Offspring will get all good characteris-
duce by which type of asexual reproduc- tics of parents.
tion?
C. Offspring have difficulty in adapting to
A. Binary fission new environment.
B. Buding D. Adapting to the environment is always
C. Regeneration constant among the offspring.
D. Vegetative propagation 36. Goats, cows, yaks, and bison have 60
chromosomes in their body cells. How
31. Which type(s) of reproduction involves ge- many chromosomes would their sex cells
netically unique offspring-a variety? have?
A. asexual A. 60
B. sexual B. 30
C. both C. 23
D. none of above D. 4

37. Process that includes one cell division. C. Binary Fission

A. Mitosis D. Plants vs. Zombies

B. Meiosis
43. Which of the following is a concern associ-
C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis ated with cloning?
D. none of above A. high cost
38. During conditions inside our body are B. causing animals to become extinct
kept stable (the same) C. dinosaurs roaming the earth
A. homeopathic D. creating superhuman species
B. Homo sapian E. ethics(what is right and wrong)
C. homeostasis
44. The way a plant grows/moves toward
D. homologous water is called?
39. Diploid Cells are represented by A. phototropsim
A. 2n B. gravitropism
B. n C. hydrotropism
C. 4n D. thigmotropism
D. 1/2 n
45. How many daughter cells are produced
40. Which of these occurs in asexual reproduc- from meiosis?
tion but not in sexual reproduction? A. 10
A. Genes carry genetic information B. 6
B. An offspring is made of cells C. 4
C. The genetic information from two or- D. 2
ganisms combines
D. An offspring inherits a set of traits 46. Bacteria reproduce by dividing through a
identical to the parents process called binary fission. Which type
of reproduction is described above?
41. This form of asexual reproduction results A. Asexual
in the equal division of the parent cell.
B. Sexual
A. Regeneration
C. Meiosis
B. Budding
D. Fertilization
C. Binary Fission
D. Sporulation 47. How many parents are required for sexual
reproduction?
42. Cutting the roots from a carrot and allow-
A. 0
ing it to grow into a newly formed daugh-
ter carrot is called B. 1
A. Vegetative Reproduction C. 2
B. Cloning D. 3

48. True, False, or Unknown:Bacteria typically D. a combination of genetic material from

reproduces sexually each parent cell
A. True
54. (2n) → 4 (n)
B. False
A. mitosis
C. Unknown
B. meiosis
D. none of above
C. fertilization
49. DIVERSE
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
A. characteristic
B. reproduction 55. Flowers become fruits, which bear seeds.
C. offspring The seeds germinate to give new plants.
Name this type of reproduction.
D. different
A. Asexual reproduction
50. In , only one parent organism pro-
duces offspring. B. Sexual reproduction
A. sexual reproduction C. Vegetative propagation
B. asexual reproduction D. none of above
C. pollination process
56. When a new organism grows by mitosis
D. fertilization process and cell division on the body of its parent.
51. The process of producing offspring A. budding
A. Reproduction B. fission
B. Copulation C. regeneration
C. Parturition D. vegetative propagation
D. Fertilization
57. What type of asexual reproduction in-
52. Yeast and hydra reproduce by which volves a new organism growing by mitosis
method of asexual reproduction? and cell division?
A. Budding
A. binary
B. Vegetative propagation
B. budding
C. Binary fission
C. spores
D. Sporulation
D. vegetative
53. Some fungi can reproduce either asexually
or sexually, resulting in offspring with dif- 58. Scientists use radioactive decay to mea-
ferent characteristics. Sexually produced sure
offspring have
A. relative time
A. a complex level of cell organization
B. absolute time
B. a number of organelles in each cell
C. half-lives
C. a lesser risk of having mutations than
asexually produced offspring D. time of day

59. A certain species of grass is genetically 64. The three embryonic germ layers are
identical. The best explanation for this ob- A. mesoderm, andoderm, esxoderm
servation is that

B. ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
A. the species most probably reproduces
asexually. C. cleavage, gastrula, morula
B. the species most probably reproduces D. none of above
sexually.
65. Which organisms reproduce by budding?
C. the species most likely reproduces af- Click all that apply.
ter pollination by a particular species of
bee. A. hydra
D. the species most probably reproduces B. earthworm
after pollination by the wind. C. bacteria
60. Which of these organisms should be cate- D. yeast cells
gorized as only reproducing asexually?
66. Which of the following is an advantage of
A. Bacteria asexual reproduction? (chose all that ap-
B. Gorilla ply)
C. Rose A. Energy and time are not wasted find-
D. Fish ing a mate
B. Favorable conditions can be exploited
61. What is binary fission used for?
quickly
A. Reproduction only
C. It is generally faster that sexual repro-
B. Reproduction and repair duction
C. Repair only D. Every organism is identical having the
D. none of above same needs, requirements, and charac-
teristics
62. Who lives in a pineapple under the sea?
A. scooby 67. Rocks are not living because
B. patrick A. they never move
C. spongebob B. they aren’t needed for humans
D. deadpool C. they are not made of cells
63. one of the disadvantages of asexual repro- D. they don’t break down
duction is
68. This is when a new organism grows by mi-
A. species cannot survive when preda- tosis and cell division on the body of its
tors increase parent. The bud, or offspring is identical to
B. large colonies can out-compete other the parent. The bud, when large enough,
organisms for nutrients and water can break off of the parent and live on its
own. Examples of this include yeast, hy-
C. large number of offspring reproduce
dra and cactus
very slowly
D. extreme temperatures can wipe out A. Regeneration
entire colonies. B. Vegetative propagation

C. Fission 74. Which of the following identifies reproduc-

D. Budding tion in Spirogyra as sexual reproduction?
A. The cells of parent algae have nuclei
69. Joining of an egg cell and sperm cell from
two different organisms B. Each offspring contains chloroplasts
A. sexual reproduction C. Several offspring may be produced at
once
B. asexual reproduction
D. Genetic material is contributed by two
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. growth
parent cells
D. development
75. A new organisms that results from bud-
70. Which of the following are disadvantages ding that remains attached to its parent
of asexual reproduction? Select all that starts to form a
apply.
A. colony
A. Overcrowding possible
B. house
B. Inability to adapt to new environments
C. family
C. Quicker process
D. group
D. Produces more offspring
76. Genetically, two trees in a single poplar
71. Which BEST describes sexual reproduction
grove (field of trees) are like which human
in all animals?
relationship?
A. Egg and sperm join together
A. identical twins
B. Pollen and seed join together
B. mom and dad
C. Offspring have traits of only one par-
ent C. parent and child
D. Offspring are identical to one parent D. brother and sister
72. Which best describes one disadvantage of 77. Which of the following is part of asexual
asexual reproduction? reproduction?
A. It increases biodiversity A. one parent organism
B. It decreases biodiversity B. two parent organisms
C. It decreases population size C. meiosis
D. It increases combination of traits D. fertilization
E. It produces diverse offspring
78. How do the number of chromosomes in an
73. Which one of the following plants repro- asexually reproducing plant compare to its
duces by means of bulbs? parents?
A. The potato A. They are double the number.
B. The strawberry B. They are the same
C. The daffodil C. They are half the number
D. The spider plant D. They are triple the number

79. Temperature, light, air, water, and soil are 84. Production of a new plant from a portion
all parts of the environment of another plant

A. alive A. budding
B. biotic B. Vegetative propagation
C. abiotic
C. sporulation
D. living
D. fragmentation
80. Which statement describes why genetic
variation is beneficial to populations of or- 85. What parts of the chromosomes code for
ganisms? traits?
A. individuals look different from one an- A. Genes
other
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
B. only one parent is needed to produce
offspring C. Chromosomes
C. populations of the organism increase D. Nucleus
more rapidly
D. species can better survive environ- 86. True, False, or Unknown:Asexual repro-
mental changes duction requires more time and energy
than sexual reproduction
81. What are some advantages of asexual re-
production are:(select all that apply) A. True
A. it only requires one organism B. False

B. it takes less energy than sexual repro- C. Unknown
duction
D. none of above
C. offspring are already well-adapted for
the environment 87. If a human has 46 chromosomes, how
D. there is a lot of genetic variety many chromosomes does each body cell
(ex. skin cells, nerve cells, muscles cells)
82. What advantage do the offspring of a dan- have?
delion have by reproducing asexually?
A. 48
A. Reproduction occurs rapidly
B. 23
B. Reproductive competition is increased
C. Mating compatibility improves C. 24
D. Diversity increases between genera- D. 46
tions
88. What type of reproduction:Reproduction
83. If the environment changes for an Asexual that requires two parents
offspring, it will-
A. Asexual
A. Explode
B. Create another offspring B. Sexual
C. Fall in love C. Single

D. Die D. Double

89. Which of the following are types of asex- B. Organisms can be produced from un-
ual reproduction? fertilized eggs.
A. Binary fission C. during this type of reproduction the or-
B. Budding ganism divides in half
C. Sporulation D. A new organism is created from the
D. Regeneration roots, stems or leaves.
E. Vegetative propagation 95. By which process does yeast reproduce?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
90. Type of asexual reproduction where the A. budding
offspring grows out of the parent organ-
ism B. sporulation
A. vegetative propagation C. vegetative propagation

B. binary fission D. binary fission
C. budding
96. What is Aneuploidy?
D. regeneration
A. When the zygote will have an abnormal
91. Where is all the genetic material inside a number of all chromosomes
cell?
B. When the zygote will have an abnormal
A. nucleus number of one chromosome
B. vacuole C. What occurs when chromosomes do
C. cell membrane not fully separate during meiosis
D. ribosome D. What occurs when chromosomes do
not fully separate during mitosis
92. Bacteria reproduce by
A. Budding 97. What do you call the type of asexual repro-
B. Binary fission duction wherein a new organism grows by
mitosis and cell division on the body of its
C. Spore formation
parent?
D. Vegetative reproduction
A. fission
93. What does heredity mean?
B. regeneration
A. DNA being passed down from one gen-
eration to the next. C. budding
B. Passing down acquired characteristics D. cloning

to your offspring.
98. attaching a cutting of one plant to another
C. Leaving money in a will to your children plant
D. all DNA is kept in the nucleus
A. cutting
94. What is Sporulation? B. grafting
A. the organism produce its own spores.
C. painting
These spores are genetically identical to
the parent D. planting

99. Onions can reproduce from bulbs. One par- C. keep best quality traits
ent bulb generates daughter bulbs with du- D. all of the above
plicate genetic information. Which is the

MOST likely advantage of this kind of re- 104. A general name for the cell created after
production? an egg and sperm join
A. Population size remains constant A. zygote
B. Beneficial mutations are inevitable B. gene
C. Genetic variation is maximized C. offspring
D. Many offspring are produced rapidly D. gamete
105. Which of these is the BEST example of
100. What is the type of asexual reproduction
sexual reproduction?
when the parent breaks into two distinct
pieces which can live independently of each A. binary fission
other? B. budding
A. Binary Fission C. fusing of gametes
B. Budding D. fragmentation
C. Vegetative Propagation 106. Which is NOT an asexual reproductive
D. Fragmentation method?
A. parthenogenesis
101. Which of the following lists, in order, the
phases of mitosis? B. broadcast spawning
A. interphase, metaphase, anaphase, C. fission
telophase D. budding
B. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, 107. Which is an ADVANTAGE of sexual repro-
telophase duction over asexual reproduction?
C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, in- A. Sexual reproduction produces an off-
terphase spring more quickly
D. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, B. Sexual reproduction is less compli-
telophase cated
102. TRAIT C. Sexual reproduction results in more di-
versity
A. different
D. Sexual reproduction only requires one
B. a characteristic that describes you parent
C. babies or children
108. Simplest and easiest method of artificial
D. the same propagation, stem is cut from mother plant
and planted on soil
103. Which of the following is (are) an advan-
tage to asexual reproduction methods A. Cutting
A. faster time to a mature B. Budding
B. plant create large numbers of identical C. Grafting
plants D. Marcotting

109. Which of the following is not a form of B. red delicious apples and mackintosh
asexual reproduction? apples
A. Budding C. granny smith apples, red delicious ap-
B. Fragmentation ples and mackintosh apples
C. Hemaphroditism D. no apples
D. Spore formation 115. Equal division of the nucleus and UN-

EQUAL division of the cytoplasm occurs
NARAYAN CHANGDER
110. The way a plant grows/moves in re- during the process of
sponse to touch is called?
A. Budding
A. thigmotropism
B. Binary fission
B. gravitropism
C. Sporulation
C. hydrotropism
D. Grafting
D. phototropsim
116. Which is not a type of asexual reproduc-
111. What cellular process is directly responsi- tion?
ble for regeneration?
A. Binary Fission
A. Mitosis
B. Zoospores
B. Meiosis
C. Zygospores
C. Respiration
D. Meristem / Budding
D. Transpiration
E. Bacterial Conjugation
112. Which list has the stages of the cell cycle
in the correct order? 117. An example of an organism with binary
fission
A. interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis
A. bacteria
B. cytokinesis, mitosis, interphase
B. starfish
C. mitosis, interphase, cytokinesis
C. yeast
D. interphase, cytokinesis, mitosis
D. none of above
113. Prokaryotes (bacteria) reproduce asexu-
ally via- 118. The joining of a sperm cell and an egg cell
into a single unit called
A. spore formation
A. fertilization
B. bud creation
B. vegetative propagation
C. vegetative propagation
C. asexual reproduction
D. binary fission
D. sexual reproduction
114. A farmer grafts onto a granny smith ap-
ple tree a branch of a mackintosh apple 119. Bread mold, mushrooms, mosses, and
tree and a branch of a red delicious apple ferns reproduce by which method of asex-
tree. What would you expect to find grow- ual reproduction?
ing on this tree? A. Sporulation
A. granny smith apples, only B. Budding

C. Binary fission 125. An organism that has been reproduced by

asexual means receives of its chromo-
D. Vegetative propagation
somes from its one parent.

120. In animals, which structure passes the A. 3
mother’s DNA to offspring? B. 25%
A. sperm C. 50%
B. seeds D. 100%
C. pollen
126. This is when uniform offspring grow from
D. eggs a part of a parent plant. Parent plants
sends out runners. Where the runner
121. An important gas in making glucose and touches the ground, roots can grow. A
other essential substances manufactured new plant is produced even if the runner
and needed by plants. is broken apart Each new plant is uniform
A. carbon dioxide and identical to the parent.
A. Vegetative propagation
B. carbon monoxide
B. Regeneration
C. oxygen
C. Budding
D. hydrogen
D. Fission
122. Asexual reproduction has how many par-
127. What is Cloning?
ents?
A. develops an outgrowth which is de-
A. One
tached from the parent and becomes a
B. Two new individual.
C. One and a Half B. Organisms can be produced from un-
fertilized eggs.
D. Two or More
C. during this type of reproduction the or-
123. Which of the following is NOT a reason ganism divides in half
your body cells go through mitosis? D. only one parent provides DNA for the
A. to grow new organism, which would make the new
organism or offspring genetically identical
B. to replace old or missing cells to its one parent.
C. to create offspring
128. After meiosis is complete, the new cells:
D. to repair damage like a broken bone
A. are all identical
124. A human zygote should have chromo- B. are all different
somes inside. C. are half identical and half different
A. 46 D. are all stretched out
B. 23
129. Which of the following is NOT a type of
C. 92 asexual reproduction?
D. 64 A. fusion

B. budding 135. What is a mutation and how does it af-

fect genes?
C. regeneration
A. A mutation is a growth on an organism.
D. binary fission
B. A mutation is a copy of a gene.
130. The prefix uni-means C. A mutation is a change in an organisms
A. many genes.
B. the same D. A mutation is a feature of an organism.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. one 136. The joining of male and female sex cells
D. different A. asexual reproduction
B. internal fertilization
131. All of the following are a form of asexual
reproduction except for which one? C. pollination
A. budding D. fertilization
B. vegetative reproduction 137. Which of the following statements cor-

rectly describes binary fission?
C. animal regeneration
A. It grows from a part of an organism.
D. meiosis
B. It is the combination of two organsms.
132. Select the type of cell involved in meiosis. C. It produces daughter cells that are dif-
Note there may be multiple answers. ferent from the parent.
A. variegated cells D. It is the splitting of an organism to pro-
B. eggs cells duce two daughter cells.
C. body/skin cells 138. What do you call the cell that forms from
fertilization?
D. sperm cells
A. fertilized egg
133. Which of the following is a part of B. sperm cell
the process of sexual reproduction for
plants? C. zygote
D. egg cell
A. budding
B. regeneration 139. Through meiosis (sex cells), do you end
up with haploid or diploid cells?
C. pollination
A. Haploid
D. fragmentation
B. Diploid
134. Type of asexual reproduction that helps C. Neither
an organism regrow a damaged body part D. Both
A. binary fission
140. The development of an unfertilized egg
B. vegetative propagation into a new individual is known as:
C. budding A. oogenesis
D. regeneration B. biogenesis

C. parthenogenesis D. slower and more energy required to

D. hermaphroditism find a mate and exchange genetic material

146. What percentage of chromosomes are
141. Multicellular means
handed down by a parent cell in asexual
A. made of many cells reproduction?
B. made of one kind of cell A. 75%
C. made of only one cell B. 25%
D. none of above C. 50%
D. 100%
142. Genetically identical offspring are the
parent organism. 147. What type of asexual reproduction in-
A. opposite of volves a body part regrowing and forming
a new organism?
B. clones of
A. fision
C. superior to
B. budding
D. inferior to
C. regeneration
143. Why do we need meiosis? D. sexual reproduction
A. To double the number of chromosomes 148. Which of the following best describes can-
going into sex cells cer?
B. To halve the number of chromosomes A. absence of cyclins in the DNA
going into sex cells
B. Multiple gene mutations on a chromo-
C. To triple the number of chromosomes some of DNA
going into sex cells
C. Uncontrolled cell growth caused by
D. To not change the number of chromo- mutations in genes that control the cell cy-
somes going into sex cells cle.
144. What is true of all eukaryotic organ- D. Presence of genetic defects caused by
isms? hereditary disorders.
A. They are plants 149. What process do multi-cellular asexual
B. They are animals organisms use to reproduce?
A. Fertilization
C. They have nuclei in their cells
B. Meiosis
D. none of above
C. Mitosis
145. Which of these is true for asexual repro- D. Binary Fission
duction?
150. Bacteria reproduce asexually by a pro-
A. production of genetically identical off-
cess called
spring from one parent
A. replication
B. requires the fusion of two separate
parent cells B. meiosis
C. has the advantage of creating more ge- C. splitting in two
netic diversity D. binary fission

151. In which ways can genetic engineering B. Budding

can improve crops
C. Regeneration
A. Make them pest or drought resistant
D. Offspring
B. Make them more nutritious
C. Make them larger 157. In plants, asexual reproduction is most
likely to occur through the:
D. All answers are correct
A. seeds
NARAYAN CHANGDER
152. In sexual reproduction how many genes B. roots
does an offspring receive for each trait?
C. flowers
A. 1
D. leaves
B. 2
C. 3 158. What type of reproduction is mitosis?
D. 4 A. sexual
E. 5 B. asexual
153. Which process produces offspring from C. only in plants
two parents? D. only in animals
A. Asexual Reproduction
159. Nuclear membrane forms around chromo-
B. Sexual Reproduction somes and begins to separate.
C. Binary Fission
A. Anaphase
D. Budding
B. Telophase
154. Which is an example of asexual reproduc- C. Prophase
tion by regeneration?
D. Interphase
A. cloning sheep
B. lizard regrowing a tail 160. In cancer, some cells have lost their abil-
ity to control their
C. sea star arm producing a new organ-
ism A. division
D. strawberry plant producing stolons B. metabolic rate
C. size
155. A parent cell breaks into pieces and each
piece becomes a new offspring. D. cell nucleus
A. Binary Fission
161. Cell division in prokaryotes that forms
B. Budding two genetically identical cells is known as
C. Fragmentation
D. Vegetative Reproductions A. fission
B. bud
156. The product of the reproductive processes
of an animal or plant C. regeneration
A. Fission D. cloning

162. Which phrase does NOT describe asexual 167. Many plants reproduce asexual. Which
reproduction in organisms? of the following is not a form of plant

A. requires 2 parents
A. Underground roots tubers or bulbs
B. little variation in offspring
that can grow into new plants.
C. only one type of cell involved B. Binary Fission
D. duplicates its genetic material C. Plant runners like the spider plant, and
many berries
163. How much of its genetic material does an
offspring of a sexually-reproducing organ- D. Budding
ism receive from each parent?
168. What kind of reproduction starts with a
A. 100% small growth that gets larger and then
B. 75% falls off and makes a new organism?
A. binary fission
C. 50%
B. fragmentation
D. None
C. mitosis
164. What can cause cells to be unregulated? D. budding
A. Checkpoints or regulators not working E. runners
properly
169. It supplies chlorophyll with energy in or-
B. Cell deciding to do what it wants
der to produce glucose from photosynthe-
C. Cell deciding to divide when it wants sis.
D. none of above A. light
B. water
165. What is vegetative propagation?
C. soil
A. The process of when an organism has
the ability to grow back missing parts. D. air
B. The process when the parent cell di- 170. A child’s sex is determined by the sex
vides into two halves after the nucleus chromosomes of which person?
replicates. A. grandfather
C. The process occurs in plants in which B. grandmother
a new plant grows from a fragment of the
parent plant. C. mother
D. father
D. none of above
171. Which of the following is an advantage
166. What is mitosis used for? of sexual reproduction?
A. Growth only A. Genetic variation
B. Growth, and repair B. Down syndrome
C. Repair only C. Mutation
D. none of above D. New trait formed

172. The stage on the bacterial growth curve B. Meiosis

where a population of bacteria is stable is C. Mitosis
A. The lag phase D. Spore
B. The exponential or log phase
178. In this method two different varieties of
C. The stationary phase plants are joined and tied with a wet cloth.
D. The death phase A. Stem cutting
B. Layering
NARAYAN CHANGDER
173. Which is true of eukaryotic organisms?
A. They all reproduce asexually. C. Grafting
B. They are all plants. D. none of above
C. They are all animals. 179. What is the correct order of the phases
D. They all have cells with a nucleus. in mitosis?
A. telophase, metaphase, anaphase and
174. OFFSPRING prophase
A. babies or children B. anaphase, prophase, metaphase and
B. different telophase
C. the same C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase and
telophase
D. a characteristic that describes you
D. metaphase, anaphase, prophase and
175. How many parent(s)are needed for asex- telophase
ual?
180. Through mitosis, do you end up with hap-
A. 4
loid or diploid cells?
B. 1
A. Haploid
C. 9 B. Diploid
D. 100 C. Neither
176. In order to predict whether an organism D. none of above
would produce offspring that are diverse
or uniform, it would be most helpful to 181. What cells undergo mitosis? Click all that
know which of the following about the or- apply.
ganism? A. blood cells
A. Does its diet consist of many foods? B. bone cells
B. Does it reproduce sexually or asexu- C. human sperm cells
ally? D. human egg cells
C. What is the approximate mass of an
182. Which is not related to asexual reproduc-
adult?
tion
D. What is the climate like in its habitat? A. only requires 1 parent
177. What form of reproduction creates ga- B. Genetically identical to the par-
metes (reproductive cells)? ent/uniform offspring
A. Binary Fission C. less variation or biodiversity

D. easily adapts to changes in the envi- C. divide

ronment
D. change

E. fast population growth and requires
less energy and time 188. This type of asexual reproduction splits
one cell into two
183. Its offspring grows on the body of the
parent. A. binary fission
A. spores B. budding
B. budding C. regeneration
C. fragmentation D. parthenogenesis
D. regeneration
189. How many total chromosomes would a
184. A plant produces a new plant using a run- diploid human cell have?
ner. What type of reproduction is shown?
A. 23
A. Asexual
B. 46
B. Regeneration
C. 92
C. Sexual
D. X, Y
D. Sporulation
E. Fragmentation 190. vegetative propagation is a type of
185. Plants can reproduce sexually and asex- A. reproduction
ually. If one offspring is produced sexu- B. repairement
ally while the other is produced asexually,
what will only the sexually produced off- C. respiration
spring have? D. none of above
A. both inherited and acquired traits
191. Which reproduction does diverse off-
B. a new combination of traits
spring come from?
C. beneficial genetic traits
A. Asexual reproduction
D. a complete set of traits
B. Sexual reproduction
186. What causes genetic variation in meio-
C. Both asexual and sexual reproduction
sis?
A. chromosomes lining up D. Asexual offspring
B. crossing over of chromosomes 192. Yikes, you just fell and skinned your
C. separation of chromosomes knee! What process will replace your dam-
aged cells?
D. chromosomes pulling apart
A. meiosis
187. When a sperm cell fertilizes an egg cell,
the genes in both cells: B. replication
A. combine C. mitosis
B. replicate D. anaphase

193. An example of a plants response to stim- 198. is passed down from generation to
uli in its environment is generation
A. when a plant dies due to lack of water A. DNA
B. when a plant bends to reach the sun- B. RNA
shine C. CNA
C. when a plant grows taller than normal D. TNA
because of fertilizer
199. Which of the following organisms cannot
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All answers are correct reproduce both sexually and asexually?
A. paramecium
when a bud forms on the parent organism B. hydra
and then pinches off to form a new organ- C. amoeba
ism?
D. yeast
A. Binary Fission
200. One disadvantage of sexual reproduction
B. Budding is
C. Vegetative Propagation A. more energy needed
D. Fragmentation B. less energy needed
C. clone of parents
195. Which statement describes a characteris-
tic of both sexual and asexual reproduc- D. variation of offspring
tion? 201. Deltas forming at the mouths of rivers
A. The processes require egg cells are an example of:
B. New cells are produced A. Weathering

B. Erosion
C. Two parents are required
C. Deposition
D. The processes produce genetically
unique offsprings D. none of above
202. An underground stem is
196. What is the first phase of Mitosis?
A. grafting
A. Prophase
B. cutting
B. Metaphase
C. tuber
C. Anaphase D. flower
D. Telophase
203. Stem cutting is a common method of ar-
tificial vegetative propagation in which
197. Growing back a missing or lost body part
plant?
A. binary fission
A. Rose
B. budding B. Jasmine
C. sporulation C. Blueberry
D. regeneration D. Apple

204. Which of these organisms reproduces C. 27

through binary fission? D. 36

A. starfish
209. This type of asexual reproduction can
B. bacteria only happen in a laboratory and produces
C. hydra identical cells
D. coral A. regeneration
B. cloning
205. Offspring are genetically identical to
the one parent.Is this the result of sex- C. vegetative reproduction
ual or asexual reproduction? And how D. fission
would you characterize the offspring listed
210. n + n → 1 (2n)
above?
A. mitosis
A. Asexual reproduction with uniform off-
spring B. meiosis
B. Sexual reproduction with diverse off- C. fertilization
spring D. none of above
C. Asexual reproduction with diverse off- 211. Which is not a form of asexual reproduc-
spring tion?
D. Sexual reproduction with uniform off- A. fission
spring
B. meiosis
206. A hydra reproduces when an outgrowth, C. budding
or bud, forms and continues to develop un-
D. none of above
til if falls off of the parent. This is an ex-
ample of: 212. What is Asexual Reproduction?
A. Binary Fission A. This only requires one progenition to
B. Sporulation give birth to other organisms.
C. Budding B. This requires the union of a male and

a female progenitor to give birth to other
D. Vegetative Propagation organisms.
207. True, False, or Unknown:Human identical C. Is the process by means of which one
twins are a result of asexual reproduction or more life-forms produce new individu-
als.
A. True
D. none of above
B. False
C. Unknown 213. If a hydra is made of 32 chromosomes
in somatic cells, how many chromosomes
D. none of above will the offspring have?
208. If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the A. 32
haploid number is B. 64
A. 18 C. 16
B. 9 D. 8

214. Sponges are simple animals that when 219. A fisherman wants to alleviate his prob-
crushed, their fragments can able to repro- lem of starfish that are eating the oysters
duce to another individual. What do you in his oyster farm. He decides to cut the
call this type of asexual reproduction? starfish in half and throw it back into the
A. Fragmentation water. What process will the starfish un-
dergo, causing more problems for the fish-
B. Cloning erman?
C. Binary Fission A. Vegetative Propagation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Regeneration B. Regeneration
215. The stem of this plant can become a new C. Binary Fission
plant. D. Budding
A. Potato 220. What is TISSUE that carries water and nu-
B. Sugarcane trients from the roots to every part of the
C. Ginger plant?
D. All of theses A. xylem

B. pholem
216. In binary fission how does the DNA of the
C. gymnosperm
daughter cells compare to the DNA of the
parent cell? D. angiosperm
A. It is only half of the amount of DNA 221. Which animal does NOT reproduce
found in the parent. through regeneration?
B. It is identical. A. starfish
C. It is a mix of the parent’s DNA. B. sea urchins
D. It has some similarities and some dif- C. sea cucumbers
ferences.
D. sharks
217. Which of the following methods do bac- 222. Type of asexual reproduction that has a
teria that cause tooth decay and cavities tough outer shell and can withstand unfa-
reproduce? vorable conditions
A. Budding A. Buds
B. Binary fission B. Sporulation
C. Spore formation C. Grafting
D. Vegetative reproduction D. Regeneration
218. Pollination of a flower or plant with 223. An organism that needs two parents to
pollen from the same flower. reproduce is a(an)
A. Cross Pollination A. asexual reproducer
B. Self Pollination B. sexual reproducer
C. Budding C. non-producer
D. Meiosis D. consumer

224. All of the following are advantages of 229. Sexual reproduction provides for what to
GMO’s except occur?

A. pest resistant crops A. Cloning
B. more nutritional foods B. budding
C. unknown long term health effects C. Genetic stability
D. creating more human insulin D. Genetic variation
230. A form of asexual reproduction in which

225. Which statement best describes the pro-
offspring grow from a part of a parent
cess of asexual reproduction?
plant.
A. new organisms are usually genetically
A. cloning
identical to the parent
B. budding
B. the reproductive cycle involves the pro-
duction of games C. regeneration
C. nuclei of sex cells fuse to form a zygote D. vegetative propagation
D. it involves the production of genetic 231. What is Parthenogenesis?

copies
A. A new organism is created from the
roots, stems or leaves.
226. What type of asexual reproduction is
used by multi-cellular organisms like B. Organisms can be produced from un-
plants and animals? fertilized eggs.
A. Meiosis C. develops an outgrowth which is de-
B. Mitosis new individual.
C. Binary Fission D. A new organism is created from the
D. Fragmentation roots, stems or leaves.
227. Which landscape feature was most likely 232. Which statement reflects a way in which
formed by glacial activity? asexual reproduction is beneficial?
A. an eroded plateau A. it results in genetic variation

B. it requires a lot of time and energy
B. a flat floodplain
C. organisms can reproduce without a
C. a U-shaped valley
mate
D. a V-shaped valley
D. none of above
228. Reproduction involving a single organism 233. Offspring growing from part of a parent
where genetic copies of itself are made. plant
A. Sexual Reproduction A. asexual reproduction
B. Asexual Reproduction B. vegetative reproduction
C. Budding C. cloning
D. Pollination D. none of above

234. The way a plant grows/moves in re- B. offspring genes are identical to parent
sponse to gravity is called? C. offspring genes vary from parent
A. phototropims
D. can better adapt to environment and
B. hydrotropism disease
C. thigmotropism E. takes very little time and energy to re-
D. gravitropism produce
240. The offspring of sexual reproduction:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
235. The phase in mitosis where chromosomes
move away and are pulled apart by spin- A. receives half of its genetic material
dles to opposite sides of the cell. from each parent
A. prophase B. receives all of its genetic material from
B. anaphase one parent
C. metaphase C. receives genetic material from an out-
D. telephase side source
D. develops genetic material indepen-
236. Which is true about DNA? dent of any other source
A. Only animals have DNA in their cells
241. A method used by plant growers to clone
B. DNA research is simple and quick plants with desirable traits.
C. DNA contains many genes A. vegetative reproduction
D. None of the above are true.
B. budding
237. Crossing over helps promote C. tissue culture
A. male genotype D. fission
B. genetic variation E. regeneration
C. DNA replication
242. A single bacteria cell can copy its DNA and
D. mitosis divide into two identical cells. This is an
238. Which statement about sexual reproduc- example of which type of asexual repro-
tion is correct? duction?
A. two gametes combine during sexual A. Regeneration

reproduction B. Binary Fission
B. sexual reproduction is only used by or- C. Budding
ganisms in the animal kingdom
D. Vegetative Propaganda
C. an organism divides into two equal
parts during sexual reproduction 243. How do the cells in your body and inside
of plant bodies reproduce?
D. sexual reproduction is only used by
single-cell organisms A. binary fission
B. sexual reproduction
239. What are the advantages of sexual re-
production? Choose all that apply. C. budding
A. fast and efficient reproduction D. mitosis

244. Sexually reproducing species have an C. Cloning

advantage over asexually-reproducing D. Budding
species in their ability to

A. Reproduce easily 250. Which of the following produces uniform
offspring?
B. Increase in population quickly
A. external fertilization of frog eggs
C. Reproduce without a mate
forms tadpoles
D. Adapt
B. Internal fertilization of cats forms kit-
245. Which of the following structures are tens
NOT involved in asexual reproduction? C. pollination of flowers from different
A. Gametes plants
B. Stem D. conjugation of two different bacteria
C. Tuber E. budding of hydra produces a clone hy-
D. Root dra
246. The production of a new organism from 251. Which agricultural benefit can biotechnol-
two parents ogy provide?
A. Sexual Reproduction A. developing plants that are less depen-
dent on the sun for energy
B. developing plants that are less sensi-
C. Vegetative Propagation
tive to variations in environmental temper-
D. Fertilization atures
247. Runners, tubers, and plantlets are exam- C. developing plants with inheritable
ples of what type of asexual reproduction. traits unrelated to the genetic material
they contain
A. binary
D. developing plants that will not die
B. budding
C. spores 252. What is seed dispersal?
D. vegetative A. plant reproduction
248. an example of artificial vegetative prop- B. ability of plants to make food

agation is C. moving seeds to a new location
A. a cutting D. adaptation of plants to produce more
B. runners seeds
C. layering 253. When an offspring grows off the body of
D. rhizomes the parent
A. regeneration
249. If a organism divides into two new organ-
isms what is this an example of? B. budding
A. Asexual reproduction C. binary fusion
B. Sexual reproduction D. sporulation

254. What are the end products of binary fis- 258. A human body cell such as a skin cell
sion? has 46 chromosomes. How many chromo-
somes would the new skin cells have after
A. Two independent daughter cells that
the parent goes through mitosis?
are identical to each other
A. 23
B. One daughter cell that is genetically
different from the parent B. 46
C. Two independent daughter cells that C. 92
NARAYAN CHANGDER
are different from each other D. none of above
D. Two daughter cells that are genetically 259. Humans have how may chromosomes?
different from the parent cell
A. 112
255. Sexual Reproduction B. 46
A. results in genetic variation in the off- C. 8
spring D. 67
B. produces offspring that are identical to 260. Which of the following statements are
the parent TRUE about asexual reproduction?
C. decreases the chances of survival of A. The offspring that are produced are ge-
the species netically unique
D. results in genetic material being do- B. A mother and father are needed to pro-
nated to offspring by only one parent duce offspring
E. produces uniform offspring C. A kitten is produced through asexual
reproduction
256. Lila observed that a pond with clear wa- D. Only one parent is required
ter was covered up with a green algae
within a week. By which method of repro- 261. What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
duction did the algae spread so rapidly? A. Haploid Gametes
A. Budding B. Diploid Somatic Cells
B. Sexual reproduction C. Skin Cells
C. Fragmentation D. Liver Cells
D. Pollination 262. Dandelions are an example of this type
of asexual reproduction.
257. One of the key advantages of asexual re-
A. binary
production is
B. budding
A. offspring compete for food and space.
C. spores
B. large number of offspring reproduce
quickly. D. vegetative
C. extreme temperatures and wipe out 263. Which organism reproduces sexually?
entire colonies. A. Hydra
D. offspring are genetic clones. B. Flowering plant

C. Bacteria 269. an underground stem that has fleshy, col-

D. Starfish orless leaves

A. tuber
264. An example of an organisms that can typ-
B. bulb
ically reproduce through regeneration.
C. root
A. sea stars
D. gourd
B. sponges
C. planarians 270. Which of the facts is true about asexual
reproduction?
D. all of them
A. Takes only one mate to reproduce and
265. Which phase happens before Telophase? takes a longer time to reproduce
A. Interphase B. Takes a shorter amount of time to re-
produce and it takes two mates to repro-
B. Prophase duce
C. Metaphase C. Reproduces diverse offspring and
D. Anaphase takes a longer time to reproduce
D. Takes only one mate to reproduce and
266. If you cut a starfish into pieces, each
takes a shorter time to reproduce
piece can develop into a new starfish. This
is an example of which type of asexual re- 271. Select the type of cell involved in mitosis.
production?
A. variegated cells
A. Binary Fission
B. eggs cells
B. Vegetative Propagation
C. body/skin cells
C. Budding D. sperm cells
D. Fragmentation
272. occurs when a male gamete (sperm)
267. Reproduction of an organism by splitting combines with a female gamete (egg).
into two unequal parts is called A. sporulation
A. sporulation B. fertilization
B. vegetative propagation C. fission
C. budding D. regeneration
D. binary fission 273. Many wind-pollinated flowers have
E. fragmentation A. feathery stigmas and light pollen.
268. A human usually has xx amount of chro- B. feathery stigmas and sticky pollen.
mosomes. C. short stigmas and light pollen.
A. 6 D. short stigmas and sticky pollen.
B. 22
274. Where does a cell contain it’s genetic ma-
C. 4 terial?
D. 46 A. nucleus

B. nucleolus 280. In grafting the upper part is known as-

C. cytoskeleton A. Stock
D. golgi B. Scion
275. What was the name of the first cloned C. Parent plant
mammal? D. none of above
A. Molly
281. is a type of asexual reproduction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Polly in which a piece of a parent organism
C. Dolly breaks off to form an new organism (ex.
starfish).
D. Holly
A. fission
E. Mrs. Jung
B. budding
276. The offspring of a budding organism C. Regeneration
starts as a(n):
D. fertilization
A. growth on the parent’s body
B. colony of clones 282. Which of the following will produce di-
verse offspring
C. cutting from the parent
A. Binary fission of amoeba
D. unfertilized egg cell
B. vegatative propagation of strawber-
277. Mark all that are examples of asexual re- ries
production.
C. Budding of hydra
A. mitosis
D. external fertilization of fish
B. budding
E. Fragmentation of starfish
C. regeneration
D. meiosis 283. An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called
a
278. How much genetic material is provided by A. tumor
the parents in sexual reproduction?
B. cyst
A. 0% from each
C. lesion
B. 25% from each
D. polyp
C. 50% from each
D. 100% from each 284. A sperm cell unites with an egg cell to
form a zygote. Which process is taking
279. Methods of vegetative propagation place?
A. artificial A. Pollination
B. natural B. Asexual reproduction
C. both artificial and natural C. Fertilization
D. none of above D. Vegetative propagation

285. What type of asexual reproduction grow B. sexual reproduction

from a part of a parent plant?
C. fertilization

A. fission
D. asexual reproduction
B. budding
C. spores 291. True, False, or Unknown:Sexual reproduc-
tion occurs only with bacteria
D. vegetative
A. True
286. The stage of bacterial growth where a
B. False
population of bacteria undergo a period of
rapid growth is C. Unknown
A. The lag phase D. none of above
B. The exponential or log phase
292. All organisms
C. The stationary phase
A. Reproduce sexually
D. The death phase
B. Make their own food
287. Male and female reproductive cells are
C. Move
collectively known as:
D. Take in nutrients
A. spores
B. pollen 293. Planaria, sponges, and starfish repro-
C. gametes duce by which method of asexual reproduc-
tion?
D. offspring
A. Regeneration
288. Which of these is not a way in which
B. Sporulation
biotechnology can benefit agriculture?
C. Vegetative propagation
A. increase crop population
B. reducing the loss of crops to insects D. Budding
C. producing better-tasting fruits 294. Which of the following is NOT a form of

D. improving farm machinery asexual reproduction?
A. Budding
289. What are some disadvantages to sexual
reproduction? (select all that apply) B. Regeneration
A. it takes a lot of energy to find a mate C. Binary Fission
B. you don’t need another mate D. Formation of zygote
C. it requires a male and a female
295. Shortened underground stems that are
D. more genetic errors can occur enclosed in fleshy leaves (onions).
290. What do you call the type of reproduction A. rhizomes
in which the genetic materials from two
B. node
different cells combine, producing an off-
spring? C. bulbs
A. pollination D. tuber

296. The passing of physical characteristics 301. The offspring of Astrammina rara have
from parent to offspring genes identical to the parent. Which state-
ment best describes asexual reproduction
A. Heredity
by Astrammina rara?
B. Chromosome
A. Involves an egg and a sperm
C. Genes B. Requires a male and a female
D. Chemistry C. Reduces the variation in the offspring
NARAYAN CHANGDER
297. If a dog has 24 chromosomes, how many D. Increases the variation in the off-
sex cells does it have? spring
A. 24 302. What part of our cells holds our DNA?

B. 12 A. cytoplasm
C. 48 B. cell membrane
C. nucleus
D. 25
D. ribosomes
298. What type of organisms goes through the
303. Which of the following are involved in
process of sporulation?
A. ferns
A. sperm
B. mushrooms B. meiosis
C. molds C. fertilization
D. all of the above D. none of them
299. Which of the following describe a clone? 304. After removing a cutting from a parent
plant, farmers usually:
A. The DNA of the clone is identical to the
DNA of the parent A. fertilize the cutting only
B. Clones can happen naturally B. replace the parent plant with the new
cutting
C. Clones can be made in labs
C. plant the cutting in a different location
D. All of the answers are correct D. discard (throw away) the cutting
300. Which of the following best describes 305. When an offspring grows off a piece of
when spores or bacteria will grow and di- its parent
vide?
A. cloning
A. When they are inside a dying host or- B. regeneration
ganism
C. fission
B. When they are in an environment with
D. cloning
harsh conditions
C. When they are in an environment with 306. Process that produces four cells.
favorable conditions A. Mitosis
D. When the existing organism is dying B. Meiosis

C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis 312. The smallest unit of life

D. none of above A. atom

B. organism
307. Starfish can asexually reproduce by pro-
ducing offspring from a broken piece of the C. tissue
parent organism. This is an example of D. cell
A. budding
313. Which of the following statements is true
B. fragmentation about asexual reproduction?
C. binary fission A. Only one parent is required.
D. vegetative propagation B. A kitten is produced through asexual
reproduction.
308. Results of cell division or mitosis include
C. A mother and a father are needed to
all of the following EXCEPT?
produce.
A. growth
D. The offspring that are produced are ge-
B. repair damaged cells netically unique.
C. replace damaged cells 314. An organism that typically reproduces
D. dead cells through vegetative reproduction.
A. raspberries
309. How many parents are involved with
sexual reproduction? B. strawberries
A. none C. potatoes
B. 1 D. none of these
C. 2 E. all of these
D. 4 315. A multicellular organism that typically re-

produces through budding.
310. Hydra reproduce by
A. bacteria
A. Budding
B. hydra
B. Binary fission C. planaria
C. Spore formation D. yeast
D. Vegetative reproduction E. none of these
311. Which statement best explains how hu- 316. Which of the following is not the ways
mans grow? that fungi can reproduce?
A. Cells increase in size A. Sporing
B. Cells form a cell wall B. Binary fission
C. Cells undergo cell division C. Fragmentation
D. Cells merge to become larger D. Budding

317. (2n) → 2 (2n) 323. The process by which the nuclear material
A. mitosis is divided equally between two new cells
B. meiosis A. mitosis
C. fertilization B. cancer
D. none of above C. spindle
318. UNIFORM D. centromere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. babies or children
324. During budding, what is usually formed?
B. the same
A. A bud from the daughter cell
C. different
B. New DNA from the parent cell
D. a characteristic that describes you
C. An outgrowth from the parent organ-
319. Reproduction that combines genetic ma- ism
terial of two organisms
D. New stems and roots
A. Sexual Reproduction
B. Asexual Reproduction 325. All of the following are able to reproduce
through vegatative reproduction EXCEPT
C. Fertilization
D. Budding
A. raspberries
320. What kind of cells are diploid (for exam-
B. potatoes
ple, cells that go through asexual reproduc-
tion and end up with exact copies)? (select C. geraniums
all that apply) D. marigolds
A. Skin cells
B. Nerve cells 326. in meiosis, the daughter cells have
the number of chromosomes compared to
C. Blood cells the parent cell
D. Sex cells A. 1/3
321. An example of an organism with budding B. 1/2
A. bacteria C. 6/6
B. starfish
D. 2/2
C. yeast
D. none of above 327. Many unicellular eukaryotes reproduce
by this method.
322. Why do farmers choose to use GM crops
A. fission
rather than regular crops?
A. They are safer B. budding
B. They are more productive C. regeneration

C. They are less expensive D. mitotic cell division
D. They are less controversial E. vegetative reproduction

328. GMO stands for 333. What are some of the facts about asex-
A. Genetically Made Organism ual reproduction?

B. Growing More Organisms A. Takes only one mate to reproduce and
takes a longer time to reproduce
C. Genetically Modified Organism
B. Takes a shorter amount of time to re-
D. Growing Many Organisms produce and it takes two mates to repro-
329. Necessary for sexual reproduction duce
A. Mitosis C. Reproduces diverse offspring and

takes a longer time to reproduce
B. Meiosis
D. Takes only one mate to reproduce and
C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis takes a shorter time to reproduce
D. none of above
334. This is the simplest type of asexual repro-
330. Which of the following is not rules of cell duction. A single-celled organism divides
theory? to form two daughter cells of equal size.
A. All cells come from mitosis. A. Binary fission
B. All living organisms are composed of B. Budding
one or more cells.
C. Sporulation
C. The activity of an organisms depends
D. Vegetative propagation
on the activity of an entire organism de-
pends on the activity of its cells. 335. What do the children of asexual reproduc-
D. cells are the basic units of structure tion have in common with the parents?
and function in all organisms. A. Everything-they’re clones
331. Why do sexually reproducing organisms B. They can only reproduce once per life-
look like their parents? time.
A. Boys look more like their dads and girls C. They have exactly half of their parents’
look more like their moms genetic material.
B. They get half of their genetic material D. They have double their parents’ ge-
from one parent and half from the other netic material.
parent
336. An advantage of sexual reproduction is
C. They get more genetic material from
the parent they most resemble
A. less energy needed
D. They only get genetic material from
one parent B. variation in offspring
C. no variation in offspring
332. One parent producing offspring without
meiosis and fertilization D. more energy needed
A. asexual reproduction 337. Where does an offspring get its DNA in
B. vegetative reproduction asexual reproduction?
C. cloning A. from both parents
D. none of above B. from only one parent

C. from neither parent 342. In sexual reproduction, how much DNA is

given by each parent?
D. none of above
A. 10%
338. Process needed for growth and injury re- B. 30%
pair
C. 100%
A. Mitosis
D. 50%
B. Meiosis
343. Occurs when an animal offspring grows
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis from a piece of its parent.
D. none of above A. fission
B. vegetative
339. True, False, or Unknown:Sexual reproduc-
tion occurs with plants C. budding
A. True D. regeneration
B. False 344. What do budding, binary fission and

spore formation have in common?
C. Unknown
A. They require two parents
D. none of above
B. They require only one parent cell
340. What is Reproduction? C. They produce only one daughter cell
A. This only requires one progenition to D. They are all forms of sexual reproduc-
give birth to other organisms. tion
B. This requires the union of a male and 345. Genetically, two trees in a single poplar
a female progenitor to give birth to other grove arelike which human relationship?
organisms. A. Identical twins
C. Is the process by means of which one B. Mother and father
or more life-forms produce new individu-
als. C. Parent and child
D. none of above
D. none of above
346. What type of asexual reproduction has
341. Which of these statements about asexual specialized cells that can survive harsh con-
reproduction is FALSE? ditions for a long period of time?
A. Asexual reproduction requires only A. binary
one parent. B. budding
B. Asexual reproduction increases varia- C. spores
tions in a population.
D. vegetative
C. Asexual reproduction is carried out by
bacteria. 347. A clone has chromosomes as its par-
ent.
D. Asexual reproduction can produce
more offspring faster than sexual repro- A. half the number of
duction can. B. double the number of

C. half of the same 353. How are variations beneficial?

D. the same exact A. They can help a species if a certain an-

imal is overpopulated. It can help their
348. Tropism is population remain stable
A. a plants response to changes in its en- B. They can help a species survive if an
vironment animal tries to kill it
B. a behavior of plants
C. They can help a species survive if a dis-
C. when plants grow their stems, roots, ease break out. It can help them adapt to
leaves toward/away from stimulus changes in their environment
D. all answers are correct D. There is no benefit
349. Hydra reproduce by 354. Which type(s) of reproduction do bacteria
A. budding use?
B. fission A. asexual
C. regeneration B. sexual
D. sexual reproduction C. both
D. none of above
350. Which of these IS a disadvantage of asex-
ual reproduction? 355. Which type(s) of reproduction involves
A. Results in too much genetic variation TWO parents?
in a population A. asexual
B. Requires less time B. sexual
C. Enables organisms to produce large C. both
amounts of offspring
D. none of above
D. Results in little genetic variation within
a population 356. Yeasts, hydra, and cactus are examples
of what kind of asexual reproduction.
E. Requires less energy
A. binary
351. If a potato separates in pieces, can the
B. budding
pieces grow to become another potato?
(the environment is enough to grow) C. spores
A. Yes D. vegetative
B. No 357. Why are advantageous traits more likely
C. Depends to be passed onto offspring?
D. none of above A. Because they are more likely to sur-
vive and reproduce.
352. Which of the following is a disadvantage
to asexual reproduction B. Because they come from dominant al-
leles.
A. genetically identical offspring
C. Because they come from recessive al-
B. more able to adapt to changes leles.
C. faster generations D. Because the trait is an acquired pheno-
D. less time an energy type.

358. An ivy plant will reproduce a whole new 363. If an organism reproduces asexually, its
plant if a piece of stem and leaf is placed offspring will most likely be:
into water or soil. What type of artificial A. produced as a result of fertilization
vegetation propaganda is occurring?
B. Genetically identical to the parent
A. Cutting
C. Genetically different from each other
B. Layering D. Produced from specialized cells known
C. Grafting as gametes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Tissue culture 364. What do we call sex cells that only have
one chromosome from each pair of chromo-
359. Asexual reproduction requires somes?
A. Only one parent to produce offspring A. Diploid Cells
B. Two parents to produce offspring B. Autosomes
C. A combination of parents to produce C. Haploid Cells
offspring D. none of above
D. Two clones to produce offspring 365. Which of the following is the way plants
can reproduce asexually?
360. What kind of reproduction do mushrooms
use? A. Grafting
A. spore reproduction B. Pollination
C. Fragmentation
B. fragmentation
D. Budding
C. parthenogenesis
366. What type of reproduction takes place
D. budding
when one parent organism produces off-
E. runner spring without meiosis and fertilization?
A. pollination
361. These are all underground stems, the
“eyes” grow into new roots and shoots to B. sexual reproduction
grow a new plant. C. asexual reproduction
A. runners D. fertilization
B. tubers 367. Which of these statements about asexual
C. leaves reproduction is false?
D. stems A. Asexual reproduction requires only
one parent.
362. A form of asexual reproduction which B. Asexual reproduction increases varia-
may include runners, tubers and bulbs is: tions in a population.
A. Vegetative Propogation C. Asexual reproduction is carried out by
bacteria.
B. Binary Fission
D. Asexual reproduction can produce
C. Budding
more offspring faster than sexual repro-
D. Sporulation duction can.

368. In order for fertilization to occur, a 373. Generally, what type of organism uses
and must be present. asexual reproduction?

A. sperm A. Complex
B. egg B. Simple
C. both C. Underwater
D. none of above D. Extinct
369. Offspring growing on the body of its par- 374. If an offspring is produced through sexual
ent. reproduction, the offspring’s genetic mate-
rial is always-
A. budding
A. a copy of the genetic material of one
B. fission parent.
C. regeneration B. identical to the genetic material of its
D. meiosis siblings.
C. completely unrelated to that of its par-
370. Tubers reproduce by asexual reproduc- ents.
tion by sprouting off a new organisms
from the original tuber’s eye. Which of D. a blend of the genetic material of its
the following organisms reproduces in this parents.
fashion? 375. What is the relationship between DNA
A. Strawberries and chromosomes?
B. Potatoes A. Chromosomes are made of DNA
C. Orange B. DNA is made of chromosomes
D. Hydra C. DNA and chromosomes are the same
thing.
371. Which of the phrases should be placed D. All of the above are correct
in the middle section of a Venn Dia-
gram that is comparing/contrasting Asex- 376. Which of these phases of mitosis take
ual and Sexual Reproduction? place first?
A. Genetic information from two organ- A. anaphase
isms combines B. telophase
B. Genetic information passes to the next C. prophase
generation
D. metaphase
C. Involves mitosis, but not meiosis
377. Which organism would you classify as
D. Always involves meiosis sexually reproducing?
372. Prokaryotic cell division A. An amoeba that splits through binary
fission
A. budding
B. A starfish that reproduces by breaking
B. fission
off and regenerating parts of its body
C. regeneration C. A chicken egg that is fertilized by a
D. none of above rooster

D. A strawberry that reproduces through 383. If a hydra is made of 32 chromosomes,

runners in the ground how many chromosomes will the offspring
have?
378. Which organism reproduces through bi-
nary fission? A. 32
A. Stafish B. 54
B. Hydra C. 17
C. Bacteria D. 10
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above 384. Cell division in prokaryotes that forms
two genetically identical cells.
379. Which of these correctly describes layer-
ing? A. cloning
A. Lower branches are bent and buried B. budding
under the soil, and the tip is kept above C. fission
the soil.
D. regeneration
B. Stems are cut and planted into the soil.
385. Each human skin cell has pairs of chro-
C. Two different plants are joined at the
mosomes.
stem with a cloth.
A. 13
D. none of above
B. 18
380. Bacteria is an example of what type of
C. 23
asexual reproduction.
D. 46
A. fission
B. budding 386. Which is an example of a multicellular or-
ganism?
C. spores
A. amoeba
D. vegetative
B. bacteria
381. What process does a multi-cellular or-
C. worm
ganism use to replace its damaged body
cells? D. fungi
A. mitosis 387. Which statement best describes sexual
B. meiosis reproduction?
C. replication A. Cell division happens where one cell
D. transcription produces two exact copies
B. Reproduction happens very quickly
382. How does the DNA of asexually reproduc-
ing plant relate to its parent(s)? C. Only one parent needed
A. Its DNA is a combination of two par- D. Fertilization of an egg by a sperm

ents DNA 388. Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals
B. Its DNA has mutations results in the formation of
C. Its DNA is identical to its parent A. one haploid gamete
D. none of above B. three diploid gametes

C. four diploid gametes 394. The chromosomes that pair up during

D. four haploid gametes meiosis, are called chromosomes.

A. homozygous
389. Fungi reproduce asexually 3 different
ways. Which is NOT a method that fungi B. asexual
reproduce? C. homologous
A. Budding D. genes
B. Binary fission
395. In which phase of the cell cycle does DNA
C. Spore formation replication occur?
D. Fragmentation A. Mitosis
390. Which type(s) of reproduction do most B. S Phase
plants and animals use? C. G1 Phase
A. asexual
D. G2 Phase
B. sexual
396. Whiptail lizards are developed from un-
C. both
fertilized eggs. This is an example of what
D. none of above asexual reproduction
391. If a sex cell has 10 chromosomes, how A. Binary fission

many chromosomes will there be after fer- B. Budding
tilization?
C. Fragmentation
A. 5
D. Parthenogenesis
B. 10
C. 15 397. Put in order smallest to largest:
D. 20 A. Chromosome-DNA-Gene
B. Gene-DNA-Chromosome
392. When the offspring are identical to the
parent, this is reproduction? C. DNA-Gene Chromosome
A. Heredity D. Chromosome-Gene-DNA
B. Sexual
398. :A scientist is observing a new species of
C. Asexual organism. She observes that from genera-
D. Chromosome tion to generation many of the organisms’
offspring have adaptations that their par-
393. An example of Asexual Reproduction is ents did not have. This organism is most
likely reproducing through
A. your finger nails growing A. budding
B. antlers growing on a deer B. asexual reproduction
C. sea star growing a new sea star C. sexual reproduction
D. a tree growing from a seed D. binary fission

399. If a somatic cell in a butterfly contains 24 C. protists

chromosomes, a butterfly egg would con- D. mammals
tain
404. A certain strain of bacteria doubles every
A. 3
20 minutes. If 2 bacterial cells are placed
B. 6 in a beaker with food. How many bacte-
C. 12 rial cells would you expect in 2 hours?
D. 24 A. 128
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 16
400. How does the DNA of the offspring
formed from asexual reproduction com- C. 32
pare to the parent? D. 64
A. none of the DNA is transferred to the 405. What are two types of asexual reproduc-
offspring tion? (select all that apply)
B. half of the DNA is transferred to the A. Mitosis
offspring
B. Meiosis
C. the DNA of the offspring is identical to C. Regeneration
the DNA of the parent
D. Osmosis
D. none of these are correct
406. Which organism can reproduce by split-
401. The potato crop is raised by ting?
A. tubers A. bacteria
B. tube B. strawberry plants
C. stem C. ants
D. none of above D. sponges
402. Daffodils are plants that can perform 407. Offspring growing from a piece of its par-
both asexual and sexual reproduction. ent
How does a daffodil population benefit A. budding
more by reproducing sexually than asex-
B. fission
ually?
C. regeneration
A. It can reproduce more rapidly.
D. none of above
B. It can adapt faster to its environment.
C. It can increase the diversity of inher- 408. Which is the best example of sexual re-
ited traits. production?
A. DNA is 100% the same
D. It can eliminate unfavorable traits
from the gene pool. B. Offspring receive genetic material
from two parents.
403. Which of the following organisms does
C. A bacterium divides into offspring iden-
NOT primarily reproduce asexually?
tical to the parent.
A. bacteria D. Daughter cells receive all the genetic
B. arcahaea material of a parent cell.

409. What is one disadvantage of sexual re- 415. Which cell aids in sexual reproduction?
production? A. Nerve cell

A. Only one parent needed B. Skin cell
B. Off spring are exact copies of parents C. Muscle cell
C. Happens very quickly D. Egg cell
D. Needs two parents
416. Identical organisms growing from cells
410. Fission begins in a prokaryote when the grown in a laboratory
DNA molecule is A. asexual reproduction
A. destroyed B. vegetative reproduction
B. copied C. cloning
C. split D. none of above
D. enhanced
417. form of reproduction in which offspring
411. What word means “living”? grow from a part of a parent plant
A. acquired A. vegetative reproduction
B. abiotic B. animal regeneration
C. biotic C. cloning
D. community D. mitotic cell division
412. Which is an example of a single-celled or- 418. Which of the following statements is in-
ganism? correct?
A. bird A. Cell Division reproduce by binary fis-
sion and is sexual
B. cricket
B. Mushroom formed by spores and is
C. snake asexual
D. bacteria C. Dog formed by internal fertilization
413. This is the phase of meiosis in which two and is sexual
daughter cells form. D. Frog formed by external fertilization
A. prophase I and is sexual
B. metaphase I E. Hydra formed by budding and is asex-
ual
C. anaphase I
D. telophase I 419. Which example of regeneration is also
considered reproduction?
414. What type of asexual reproduction A. a starfish regrows a missing arm
wherein it occurs when an offspring grows
from a piece of its parent? B. a worm cut in half grows into two sep-
arate worms
A. budding
C. a deer grows a new antler to replace
B. fission a broken one
C. regeneration D. a lizard’s tail falls off and a new one
D. vegetative reproduction grows back

420. The leaves of this plant produces buds 426. Behavioral changes of individuals of a
in their margin which grows into a new species that allow for better survival. (Ac-
plant. quired traits)
A. Sugarcane A. Variation
B. Lotus
B. Adaptation
C. Bryophyllum
D. Tulsi C. Behavior
NARAYAN CHANGDER
421. Grafting’s advantage is: D. Environment
A. Less energy than other asexual repro-
duction ways 427. A type of asexual reproduction per-
formed in a laboratory that produces iden-
B. Happens faster tical individuals from a cell or from a clus-
C. Can get both plants’ good genetics ter of cells taken from a multicellular or-
D. None of it above ganism.
422. What is Regeneration? A. cloning

A. animal eating a plant B. regeneration
B. ability for an animal to grow a new C. fission
body part
C. ability of an animal to grow D. budding
D. creating a new generation of animals E. vegetative reproduction
423. What word means “not living”?
428. Other creatures that commonly reproduce
A. acquired through regeneration include all EXCEPT
B. abiotic
C. biotic A. hydra
D. community
B. sea urchins
424. All of the following are advantages of
asexual reproduction except C. sponges
A. produce varied offspring D. sea cucumbers
B. spread and colonize certain part of an
area 429. Which of the following is true about asex-
C. Reproduce without a mate ual reproduction?
D. produce a large number of offspring A. One mate and is slower
425. Takes place only in reproductive organs B. Slower and takes two mates
A. Mitosis C. Reproduces diverse offspring and is
B. Meiosis slower
C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis D. Takes only one mate to reproduce and
D. none of above is faster

430. Which of the following information is in- 435. This method multiplies the plants through
correct for sexual reproduction? its parts from a mother plant.

A. Requires two cells from different par- A. Artificial
ents
B. Asexual
B. creates genetically uniform offspring
C. Offspring have a better chance for sur- C. Natural
vival D. none of above
D. Offspring have increased resistance to
disease 436. Which is an advantage of sexual repro-
E. Creates more variation and biodiver- duction?
sity
A. It only needs one parent to produce off-
431. What is 1 significant issue with many Ge- spring.
netically Modified Organisms? B. It is a rapid process.
A. They are too expensive to be useful
C. It allows genetic variation.
B. Take a long time to make
C. May affect other organisms in their en- D. It produces identical offspring.
vironment
437. How do bacteria make the next genera-
D. Might evolve more quickly
tion?
432. Regeneration is a mechanism for: A. Budding
A. movement
B. Sexually
B. communication
C. defense C. Fragmentation
D. healing D. Binary Fission
433. Which statement does NOT describe 438. How much of your DNA do you receive
asexual reproduction? from your mother?
A. takes a short amount of time
A. 25%
B. provides genetic variation-all offspring
are different B. 50%
C. no mate required in order to repro- C. 75%
duce
D. 100%
D. provides no genetic variation-all off-
spring are the same
439. How are we able to make an exact ge-
434. A form of asexual reproduction used by netic copy of our dog?
many unicellular eukaryotes is
A. Budding
A. meiosis
B. Vegetative Reproduction
B. fission
C. mitotic cell division C. Cloning
D. regeneration D. Binary Fission

440. Which of the following is the starting 445. The production of a new organism from a
point of an offspring of a budding organ- single parent
ism? A. Sexual Reproduction
A. Colony of clones B. Vegetative Propagation
B. Unfertilized egg cell C. Fertilization
C. Cutting a part from the parent. D. Asexual Reproduction
D. Growth on the parent’s body.
446. The way a plant grows/moves in re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
441. A Venus fly trap plant closing its pedals sponse to light is called?
on a spider is an example of which type of A. gravitopism
tropism?
B. phototropsim
A. hydrotropsim
C. hydrotropism
B. gravitropsim
D. thigmotropism
C. thigmotropism
D. phototropism 447. Which statement below is correct about
asexual reproduction and sexual reproduc-
442. What kind of reproduction has a stem tion?
that grows along the ground and takes A. Asexual reproduction and sexual re-
root to become a new organism? production both involve one parent
A. binary fission B. Sexual reproduction involves making
B. fragmentation clones and asexual reproduction creates
C. mitosis unique offspring
D. budding C. Asexual reproduction creates clones

and sexual reproduction creates unique
E. runner offspring
443. What was the first mammal to be D. none of above
cloned?
448. What is an advantage of offspring pro-
A. cat duced from sexual reproduction?
B. dog A. Offspring may be unfit for the environ-
C. mouse ment in which they are formed.
D. sheep B. Traits are consistently conserved from
generation to generation.
444. What do you call the type of asexual re-
production performed in a laboratory that C. Offspring are able to have more advan-
produces identical individuals from a cell or tageous traits than their parents.
from a cluster of cells taken from a multi D. Offspring are smaller and more active
cellular organism? than their parents.
A. budding 449. What causes variations within a
B. fission species?
C. cloning A. Mutation and asexual reproduction
D. regeneration B. Mutation and sexual reproduction

C. Mitosis and asexual reproduction 455. Why do cells divide? Mark all the apply.
D. Mitosis and sexual reproduction A. to repair damaged cells

450. Process that includes two cell divisions. B. to stop cancer cells
A. Mitosis C. to replace old or dead cells
B. Meiosis D. growth of organism
C. Both Mitosis and Meiosis
456. True, False, or Unknown:Some organisms
D. none of above can reproduce both sexually and asexually
451. Which disadvantage is most related to A. True
asexual reproduction
B. False
A. slower process
C. Unknown
B. requires more energy
D. none of above
C. produces less offspring
D. there is no genetic diversity 457. How do bacteria reproduce?
452. Which of the following is not the ideas of A. mitosis
cell theory?
B. sexual reproduction
A. All living organisms are made up of one
C. meiosis
or more cells.
B. Cells are the basic units of structure D. binary fission
and function of all organisms.
458. Which of the following is NOT occuring
C. All cells reproduce by mitosis. during interphase?
D. All cells come from previously existing
A. Cell growth
cells.
B. DNA being copied
453. Which type of reproduction requires ga-
metes from a female and male? C. DNA condensing
A. Sexual Reproduction D. Two new cells are made

459. Which of these is NOT an advantage of
C. Binary Fission asexual reproduction.
D. Osmosis A. Enables organisms to reproduce with-
out a mate
454. Single-celled organelles that do not have
a nucleus or membrane-bound internal B. Requires less time and energy
structures are called-
C. Results in little genetic variation
A. organelles
D. Enables organisms to produce large
B. prokaryotes amounts of offspring
C. eukaryotes E. Enables plants to spread and colonize
D. autotrophs an area in a short period of time

460. A particular peach tree produces peaches B. Telescope

that are more resistant to disease than
C. Petri dish
other peaches. What method would repro-
duce these exact peaches? D. Microscope
A. use bees to pollinate the flowers
465. What is the TISSUE that carries food from
B. reproduce by cross-pollination of dif- a plant’s leaves to its cells?
ferent peach trees
A. xylem
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. increase the diversity in the peach tree
B. phloem
D. ensure that the peach tree reproduces
asexually C. photsynthesis
D. vascular tissue
461. A method known as the vegetative prop-
agation, using leaves, stems, roots and 466. How are genetic traits passed down from
bulbs as plant source. generation to generation?
A. Asexual
A. chromosomes
B. Natural
B. DNA
C. Artificial
C. genes
D. none of above
D. reproduction
462. Genetically identical offspring are called
467. Which involves flowers, seeds, and
fruit?
A. weird
B. clones A. sexual reproduction
C. aliens B. asexual reproduction
D. tissue culture C. cloning

D. none of above
463. What would be a possible disadvantage
of asexual reproduction. 468. What is the purpose of MITOSIS?
A. Ability to reproduce in the absence of
A. to create sex cells
a mate
B. to kill off body cells
B. Results in low genetic variation of the
species C. to repair or replace body cells
C. Allows for more genetic variation in D. none of above
the offspring
D. Takes less time to produce offspring 469. Which type(s) of reproduction includes
chromosomes being passed to offspring?
E. Ability to reproduce rapidly
A. asexual
464. When observing cells, which of the fol-
B. sexual
lowing pieces of equipment is most appro-
priate? C. both
A. Hand lens D. none of above

470. When a piece of cut is planted, roots 475. Which type(s) of reproduction produce
may form from the cutting, and then a full offspring?
plant develops.

A. asexual
A. leaves B. sexual
B. stem C. both
C. root D. none of above
D. bulb
476. Which scenario is likely to result in the
471. Development of an unfertilized egg. most diverse offspring? (choose the best
answer)
A. parthenogenesis
A. Asexual reproduction by budding
B. budding
B. Asexual reproduction by binary fission
C. sporulation
C. Sexual reproduction between two indi-
D. fertilization viduals in the same population.
472. Which of the following statements are D. Sexual reproduction between two indi-
true about asexual reproduction? (chose viduals from different continents.
all that apply)
477. When an organism grows back a part
A. Asexual reproduction requires only that it lost
one parent. A. fertilization
B. The offspring in asexual reproduction B. binary fission
are clones of the parent.
C. regeneration
C. The offspring in asexual reproduction
are produced by mitosis. D. budding
D. The offspring in asexual reproduction 478. Which type(s) of reproduction involves

are produced by meiosis. only ONE parent?
A. asexual
473. How many offspring are created from
asexual reproduction? B. sexual
A. One offspring C. both
B. two offspring D. none of above
C. three or more offspring 479. Which of following is not the advantages

D. none are correct of asexual reproduction?
A. Less energy
474. This method of asexual reproduction is
B. Happens faster
when a root, steam, or leaf of a plant
grows into a new plant. C. No partners required
A. Vegetative propagation D. Share the advantages from 2 parents
B. Sporulation 480. What do you call the female sex cell?
C. Budding A. egg cell
D. Regeneration B. sperm cell

C. diploid 486. Why do hydra reproduce sexually in the

D. haploid fall?
A. so it can produce new hydra more
481. What phase does the cell spend most of quickly
its time?
B. so its offspring will be identical to itself
A. Interphase
C. so the eggs survive the winter
B. Prophase D. it takes less energy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Anaphase
487. Which of the following is the first step of
D. Telophase cloning.
482. Which statement is always true about A. Transfer the somatic cell nucleus into
asexual reproduction? the enucleated egg cell.
A. it always requires 2 parents B. Isolate cells from the original (to be
cloned) and an egg donor
B. all the offspring looks just like the par-
ent C. Remove and discard the nucleus from
the egg cell.
C. it happens by joining two single-celled
organisms D. Implant the embryo into the surrogate
mother.
D. an embryo is formed in the process
488. Which statement reflects a way in which
483. Cell division in prokaryotes that produces asexual reproduction is beneficial? Select
2 genetically identical cells all that apply.
A. vegetative reproduction A. It results in genetic variation.
B. binary fission B. It requires a lot of time and energy.
C. budding C. Organisms can reproduce without a
D. fertilization mate.
D. It is a much quicker process.
484. after meiosis, there are daughter
cells. 489. Which type(s) of reproduction involves in-
volve a sperm + egg?
A. 1
A. asexual
B. 2
B. sexual
C. 3
C. both
D. 4
D. none of above
485. The time between cell divisions in the life
490. Which of the following can reproduce by
cycle of the cell is called
vegetative propagation? (mark all that
A. anaphase are correct)
B. interphase A. yeast
C. prophase B. carrot
D. metaphase C. onion

D. sponge 496. Attaching a cutting or branch of one plant

to another plant
E. potato

A. cutting
B. grafting
when one cell divides to form two identical
cells? C. painting
A. Binary Fission D. planting
B. Budding 497. The and cytoplasm divide equally dur-
C. Vegetative Propagation ing the type of reproduction known as bi-
nary fission.
D. Fragmentation
A. Plant
492. Type of asexual reproduction when one B. Nucleus
plant grows new plants
C. Bud
A. vegetative propagation
D. Stem
B. budding
C. regeneration 498. The transfer of pollen grain from the an-
ther to the stigma of the flower
D. binary fission
A. pollination
493. Which of the following describes asexual B. pollen grain
reproduction?
C. fertilization
A. the process of meiosis in a fruit fly
D. ovary
B. fertilization of a chicken egg
499. What is one disadvantage for asexual re-
C. binary fission in an amoeba
production?
D. the process of embryo development in
A. Happens very quickly
a mouse
B. Only needs one parent
494. Which of the following will only show if
C. Lack of genetic diversity
two alleles are present?
D. All offspring are exact copies of parent
A. a dominant trait
B. heterozygous 500. What is Sexual Reproduction?
C. a recessive trait A. This only requires one progenition to
give birth to other organisms.
D. hybrid
B. This requires the union of a male and
495. What does reproduce mean? a female progenitor to give birth to other
organisms.
A. They grow
C. Is the process by means of which one
B. They are living things
or more life-forms produce new individu-
C. Organisms make other organisms als.

501. Which types of organisms typically repro- unattached earlobes. Which of these pro-
duce by fission? cesses is responsible for the variety of
A. hydra traits in this family?
A. Binary Fisson
B. planaria
B. Sexual Reproduction
C. bacteria
C. Asexual Reproduction
D. plants
D. Regeneration
NARAYAN CHANGDER
502. part of a plant is removed to grow an-
other plant 507. Modern day cloning is only performed
A. cutting A. in the barn
B. planting B. in the house
C. tuber C. in a flower bed
D. eating D. in a laboratory
503. Production of an offspring through the 508. How many parents are needed in asexual
combination of egg and sperm reproduction?
A. 1
A. sexual reproduction
B. 2
B. fertilization
C. 3
C. diploid cell
D. 4
D. haploid cell
509. Some advantages of sexual reproduction
504. If a sexually reproducing organism has include:(select all that apply)
20 chromosomes in its body cells, how
many chromosomes did it inherit from each A. genetic variation
parent? B. improves chances of adapting to the
A. 40 environment
B. 20 C. helps species survive catastrophes
C. 10 D. it doesn’t take as much energy as asex-

ual reproduction
D. 5
510. Which type(s) of reproduction involves
505. How many chromosomes does a egg cell offspring identical to the parent?
and sperm cell in a human contain sepa-
A. asexual
rately?
B. sexual
A. 22
C. both
B. 23
D. none of above
C. 46
D. 47 511. In this type of asexual reproduction, a
new organism develops as an outgrowth
506. In Leslie’s family, two of the children of the parent. The nucleus divides equally
have attached earlobes and one child has and the cytoplasm divides unequally.

1.3 Sexual Reproduction 91
A. Budding A. runners
B. Regeneration B. tubers

C. Sporulation C. leaves
D. Vegetative propagation D. stems
512. It is the plant’s primary source of mois- 516. The natural method of planting seeds di-
ture and nutrients. rectly to the soil.
A. soil
A. Sexual method
B. water
B. Asexual method
C. leaves
C. Artificial method
D. roots
D. none of above
513. What is organized DNA called?
517. Genetically identical organisms grown
A. Genes
from cells in a laboratory.
B. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
A. asexual reproduction
C. Chromosomes
B. vegetative reproduction
D. Nucleus
C. cloning
514. Meiosis involves
D. zygote
A. the reproduction of body cells.
B. only one parent. 518. Before cells can divide, what must be
copied?
C. eggs in females and sperm in males.
A. mitochondria
D. an organism making an exact copy of
itself. B. cytoplasm
C. DNA
515. These are all types of stems that grow
along the ground. D. Cell Wall
1.3 Sexual Reproduction

1. What is the term used for when the pollen B. meiosis
is transferred to the pistol from the sta- C. Conjugation
men?
D. Fertilization
A. pollination
B. respiration 3. Both plants and animals can reproduce sex-
ually.
C. fertillization
A. True
D. none of above
B. False
2. By what process are sex cells produced? C. True on Wednesdays, False on Fridays.
A. mitosis

D. none of above 9. What organism reproduces using binary

fission?
4. During mitosis the parent cell produces:
A. coral
A. 2 daughter cells with the same number
of chromosomes as the parent cell. B. strawberries
B. 2 daughter cells with the half the num- C. bacteria

ber of chromosomes as the parents cell. D. sea star
C. 4 daughter cells with the same number 10. Name 2 nuclei in an embryo sac that
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of chromosomes as the parent cell. involved in fertilisation with male ga-
D. 4 daughter cells with half the number metes?
of chromosomes as the parent cell. A. Antipodal cell & synergid cell
5. In Meiosis if the parent cells has 40 chro- B. Polar nuclei & antipodal cell
mosomes, then how many will the daugh- C. Synergid cell & egg cell
ter cells have
D. Egg cell & polar nuclei
A. 40
11. Which part makes the pollen
B. 10
A. Stigma
C. 20
B. Style
D. 18
C. Filament
6. In the formation of embryo sac, only
D. Anther
megaspore (n) is developed into 8 nuclei.
A. 1 12. Select the odd one out w.r.t. wall layers
of microsporangium in flowering plants.
B. 2
A. Endothecium
C. 3
B. Middle layers
D. 4
C. Tapetum
7. The stalk that supports or holds up the an-
D. Integument
ther is the
A. style 13. When a starfish grows a new body off a
broken arm, occurs.
B. filament
C. ovary
B. differentiation
D. pistil
8. Which species can produce offspring that D. specialization
are genetically different from their par-
ents? 14. What solution helps the germination of
A. A species that has few variations pollen grain on stigma?
B. A species that reproduces asexually A. Salt solution
C. A species that reproduces sexually B. Acidic solution
D. A species that competes with a similar C. Alkaline solution
species D. Sugary solution

15. Sexual reproduction involves the fertilisa- 20. Why do flowers smell nice and they’re col-
tion of ored bright?

A. two ova A. So that they can make fruit
B. two eggs B. So that they can pollinate
C. two sperm C. So that they can attract birds and bees
D. two gametes
D. none of above
16. Pairs of chromosomes that have genes for 21. What specialized plant structure increases
the same traits arranged in the same or- the probability of successful reproduc-
der: tion?
A. haploid cells A. Brightly colored petals
B. diploid cells B. Strong roots
C. homologous chromosomes C. Dark green leaves
D. none of above D. The ability to hold in more water
17. A human zygote, like most other human 22. Which of the following DOES NOT repro-
cells, contains 46 chromosomes. How duce asexually?
many chromosomes does a zygote receive A. Humans
from the mother? B. Plants
A. 0 C. Bacteria
B. 23 D. Fungi
C. 46 23. The male part in the flower-
D. 92 A. Androecium
18. In a human, regular body cells have B. Stigma
chromosomes each. Sperm and egg have C. Calyx
chromosomes.
D. Stalk
A. 46, 46
24. A heterozygous crosses with a homozy-
B. 23, 23 gous dominant. What are the chances of
C. 46, 23 having BB?
D. 23, 46 A. 25%
B. 50%
19. Mark the odd option (w.r.t contrivances of
C. 75%
autogamy)
D. 100%
A. Homogamy
25. The transfer of pollen grains from the male
B. Cleistogamy
part of the flower to the female part is
C. Dicliny called
D. Bud pollination A. Transpiration

B. Pollination 31. A complete pollen grain consists of

C. Fertilization A. Tube nucleus only
D. Ovulation B. Generative nucleus only
26. Gametes are: C. Tube nucleus and generative nucleus

A. The sex cells D. Male gametes
B. A sperm cell 32. Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. An egg cell results in the formation of
D. All of the above A. one haploid cell
B. three diploid cells
27. The part of the flower that produces pollen
is the C. four diploid cells
A. filament D. four haploid cells
B. style 33. What is a segment of DNA called?
C. ovary A. Chromosome
D. anther
B. gene
28. What is the stamen? C. dominant trait
A. Protection for the flower and support D. nucleus
for the petals when in bloom
34. How many times male part undergoes mi-
B. contains the embryo sac
tosis to form male gametes?
C. male part of a flower
A. 1
D. connects the stigma to the ovary
B. 2
29. If a heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed C. 3
with a short pea plant, what are the pos-
sible genotypes? D. 4
A. 100% Tt 35. What organism reproduces using fission?

B. 50% Tt, 50% tt A. coral
C. 75% Tt, 25% tt B. strawberries
D. 25% TT, 50% Tt, 25% tt C. bacteria
30. The bottom part of a flower that protects D. sea star
the bud before the flower blooms (often
green an leaf-like) that encloses a devel- 36. How does independent assortment con-
oping bud tribute to variation?
A. Stigma A. In independent assortment, offspring

have a combination of their parents’
B. Style traits.
C. Sepal B. In independent assortment, new traits
D. Stamen emerge.

C. In independent assortment, offspring 42. Name the gametes in a plant

have a random chromosomes from each A. Egg & sperm
parent.

B. Egg & pollen
D. In independent assortment, chromo-
C. Pollen & sperm
somes switch genes.
D. none of above
37. Which nucleus is responsible for the direc-
43. In many fish species, the female digs a
tion of the pollen tube towards embryo
small hole in which to lay her eggs. Later,
sac?
the male visits and fertilizes the eggs.
A. Generative nucleus A. asexual reproduction
B. Tube nucleus B. sexual reproduction
C. Polar nuclei C. both
D. Triploid nuclei D. neither
38. Reproduction is when a(n) 44. This sticky top has the responsibility to
catch pollen. Its located at the top of the
A. new organism is made pistil.
B. organism dies A. stigma
C. organism eats food B. style
D. organism fights another organism C. ovary
D. anther
39. Intine is made of
45. Which structure is responsible for attract-
A. Sporopollenin
ing pollinators
B. Pecto-cellulose
A. Petals
C. Silica & cellulose B. Anther
D. Only cellulose C. Sigma
40. What organism reproduces using regener- D. Ovary
ation? 46. A diploid Cell resulting from the fusion of 2
A. coral haploid cells gametes and fertilized ovum.
B. strawberries A. Zygote
B. Diploid
C. bacteria
C. Haploid
D. sea star
D. Embryo
41. is the appearance of an organism, or
47. Requirements for successful reproduction
how it looks
are:
A. phenotype A. Finding a mate
B. ratio B. Fertilization
C. recessive trait C. Creating the offspring
D. heredity D. All answer choices

48. What organism reproduces using vegeta- 54. A reproductive process in which a sperm
tive regeneration? joins with the egg.
A. coral A. fertilization
B. strawberries B. egg
C. bacteria C. sperm
D. sea star D. asexual reproduction
49. What animal is an example of biolumines-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
55. Offspring means
cence?
A. babies or young
A. Birds
B. parents
B. Deer
C. grandparents
C. Jellyfish
D. cousins
D. Elephants
56. is the mathematical chance that some-
50. Organisms have to and until they thing will happen
are old enough to produce sex cells.
A. division
A. grow and develop
B. selective breeding
B. live and breath
C. ratio
C. die and regenerate
D. probability
D. none of above
57. What does the ovule become when fertil-
51. The part of a flower that contains the
ized?
pollen
A. Fruit
A. anther
B. ovary B. Stem
C. pistil C. Seed
D. stamen D. Sepal
52. When sexual reproduction what is 58. A disadvantage of sexual reproduction is

needed? A. Time and energy
A. pancake & P.B.J B. Desirable pets
B. Sperm & Eggs C. Better plants
C. Fertlizer & Water D. Developing traits to resist harsh envi-
D. Sperm & Egg Cell ronments
53. Which part the formation of pollen grain is 59. A structure that contains a young plant in
produced? a protective coating is called
A. Pollen sac in anther A. Spore
B. Ovule in ovary B. Seed
C. Style C. Sperm
D. Filament D. Ovary

60. Asexual reproduction can reproduce which 66. The chromosomes in your body
offspring?
A. exist in 23 pairs

A. Diverse offspring
B. include 2 sex chromosomes
B. Both diverse and uniform offspring
C. include 44 autosomes
C. Uniform offspring
D. all of the above
D. Asexual offspring
67. Which of these is NOT a pathogen?
61. The male part of the flower is known as
the A. Bacteria
A. stamen B. Virus
B. pistil C. Sand
C. ovary D. none of above
D. petal
68. The combination of alleles that codes for
62. Animals plant pollination and seed dis- the phenotype is called an organism’s
persal.
A. genetic variation
A. hurt
B. genotype
B. make no difference to
C. gene
C. destroy
D. allele
D. help
63. Each Stamen consists of a thin supporting 69. In interphase, a cell:

stalk called a(n) A. prepares for cell division
A. Filament B. DNA is replicated
B. Ovary C. organelles are duplicated
C. Stigma D. all of the above
D. Sepal
70. What is the female part of the plant re-
64. Sources of variations include and ? sponsible for housing the eggs?
A. sexual reproduction, mutations A. stigma
B. asexual reproduction, mutations B. style
C. biological evolution, genetics C. ovary
D. biological evolution, genetics
D. none of above
65. Which of the following plant provide safe
place to insect for laying eggs? 71. The main function of a flower is to
A. Sage plant A. produce nectar

B. Centaurea B. produce seeds
C. Ophrys C. beautify a garden
D. Amorphophallus D. conduct photosynthesis

72. Offspring have different genes C. Male:stamen; female:pistil

A. asexual D. Male:ovary; female:stamen
B. sexual 78. Which of the following most correctly de-
C. both fines heredity?
D. none of above A. The random resemblance between
cousins.
73. The stamen is made of the
B. The passage of genetic instructions
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Anther & filament from generation to generation.
B. Anther & petal C. The genetic passing of traits from cell
C. Fliament & ovary to cell.
D. Ovary & style D. The development of traits within a cell.
74. Mitosis is cell division by what type of re- 79. A wind-pollinated flower will have
production?
A. small petals, nectar and produce scent
A. asexual
B. small petals, large anthers and have a
B. sexual feathery stigma
C. asexual and sexual C. large anthers, coloured petals and pro-
D. none of the above duce nectar
D. large petals, small anthers and pro-
75. The diagram below shows two strawberry
duce scent
plants. Plant 2 is produced asexually
from Plant 1. If the leaf cells of Plant 80. The offspring from asexually reproduced
1 have 56 chromosomes, how many chro- organisms are
mosomes will be found in the leaf cells of
A. different than their parents
Plant 2?
B. identical to parents
A. 14
C. a combination of both parents
B. 28
D. a different species
C. 56
D. 112 81. Which of the following is a pollinator?
A. Birds
76. Reproduction results in new
B. Bees
A. parents
B. offspring C. Bats
C. grandparents D. All of the above
D. none of above 82. Which one of the following is not a stage

in sexual reproduction?
77. The flower of a plant is involved in repro-
duction. Which parts are male and which A. Germination
are female? B. Fertilisation
A. Male:style; female:filament C. Photosynthesis
B. Male:xylem; female:anther D. Pollination

83. A disadvantage of sexual reproduction is 89. Gynoecium is also called

that it A. Ovary

A. requires only one parent.
B. Pistil
B. produces offspring that are exact
C. Style
copies of parents.
D. none of above
C. happens very quickly.
D. needs two parents. 90. The female sex cell is called
A. zygote
84. Occurs when an offspring grows from a
piece of its parents: B. sperm
A. fission C. fertilization
B. budding D. egg
C. cloning
91. The formation of embryo sac begins with
D. regeneration a
85. Requires only one parent organism A. pollen mother cell (2n)
A. Sexual B. embryo sac mother cell (2n)
B. Asexual C. Ovule
C. Both D. Anther
D. none of above 92. Gives genetic variation
86. When Mendel crossed Tall x Tall= A. asexual
A. Tall B. sexual
B. Short C. both
C. Medium D. none of above
D. none of above
93. Diploid zygote will develop into and
87. The growth of a seed into a plant is called finally forms the complete seed.
A. Pollination A. embryo
B. Fertilisation B. endosperm
C. Seed and fruit formation C. testa
D. Germination D. wall of fruit
88. How many times in meiosis does the cell 94. Which animal disperses seeds the far-
divided? thest?
A. 2 A. birds
B. 4 B. mice
C. 3 C. bears
D. 1 D. squirrels

95. Which of the following is not a phase of 101. These parts attract insects
mitosis: A. Stem & leaves
A. Cytokinesis B. Stigma, Style & Ovary
B. Metaphase C. Anther & filament
C. Prophase D. Petals & nectary
D. Anaphase
102. Crossing over creates
NARAYAN CHANGDER
96. Sheep have 54 chromosomes in their A. male genotype
diploid cells. How many chromosomes
B. genetic variation (differences)
would a haploid sheep cell have?
C. DNA replication
A. 54
D. mitosis
B. 51
C. 27 103. The genetic variation among offspring is
called
D. 35
A. Diverse offspring
97. The colorful leaf-like structures of flowers B. Simple offspring
A. ovary C. Reproduction
B. pistil D. none of above
C. petal
104. Crossing over is
D. stamen
A. Homologous chromosomes wrap
98. Repair or grow missing tissue around each other and swap alleles
A. binary fission B. Random arrangement around equator
B. regeneration C. Different combinations of chromo-
somes migrate to each end of the cell
C. meiosis
D. Homologous pairs split randomly
D. budding
105. A positive aspect (thing) about asexual
99. Cell division in prokaryotes that forms reproduction is that
two genetically identical cells (cell splits in
half): A. there is no genetic diversity
B. it is easier, faster, and makes more off-
A. binary fission
spring
B. budding
C. there is genetic diversity
C. cloning
D. it requires a male and female
D. vegetative propagation
106. Flower petals are often colorful & have a
100. This stalk supports the stigma. scent to help with what process?
A. filament A. photosynthesis
B. style B. transpiration
C. ovary C. pollination
D. anther D. none of above

107. Crossing over helps promote 113. The carpel is made of the
A. male genotype A. Stigma & petals

B. genetic variation B. Stigma, style & ovary
C. DNA replication
C. Filament & anther
D. mitosis
D. Petals
108. How many alleles does a child get from
each parent for each trait? 114. Identify the correct order of develop-
A. 1 ment.
B. 2 A. Fertilization, Zygote, Embryo, Cell Dif-
C. 3 ferentiation
D. 4 B. Cell Differentiation, Zygote, Embryo,

Fertilization
109. Select the true statement.
C. Fertilization, Embryo, Zygote, Cell Dif-
A. Sexual reproduction is always better ferentiation
than asexual reproduction.
D. Zygote, Embryo, Fertilization, Cell Dif-
B. Asexual reproduction is always better
ferentiation
than sexual reproduction.
C. Both methods have positives and neg- 115. Gamete (sperm and egg) cells are pro-
atives. duced by
D. none of above A. Mitosis
110. What are small grains that contain a B. Cellular respiration
plant’s male reproductive cells?
C. Oxidation
A. stamen
D. Meiosis
B. pollen
C. pistil 116. What is the purpose of a fruit?
D. stigma A. It protects the seeds
111. Which of the following cells is a gamete? B. It’s tasty
A. egg C. It makes pollen
B. bone
D. It attracts pollinators
C. heart
D. muscle 117. If a human is composed of 46 chromo-
somes, how many chromosomes would be
112. Which part of the flower develops into a in a human SPERM (sex) cell?
fruit?
A. 23
A. Petals
B. Ovary B. 25
C. Anther C. 46
D. Stem D. none of above

118. How many nucleus are formed in an em- 123. What is the female part named for the
bryo sac? stalk where pollen grows after pollina-
tion?
A. 2
A. ovary
B. 4
B. style
C. 6
C. stigma
D. 8
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
119. How is the number of chromosomes in a
124. is a process that produces cells with
human sex cell different from the number
HALF the chromosomes.
in a human body cell?
A. Budding
A. A sex cell has 23 chromosomes and a
body cell has 46. B. Fragementation
B. A sex cell has 46 chromosomes and a C. Regeneration
body cell has 23. D. Meiosis
C. A sex cell has chromosomes that are
125. Which of the following is an advantage
half
of sexual reproduction over asexual repro-
D. A sex cell has chromosomes that are duction?
twice as long as those in a body cell.
A. It allows the offspring species tolook
just like the parent species.
120. Describe the amount of genetic variation
in organisms that reproduce asexually B. It ensures that all offspring willsurvive
if disease strikes.
A. Involves egg and sperm
C. It makes species more able toadapt to
B. requires male and female environmental changes.
C. reduces the variation in offspring D. It passes genetic information fromone
D. increases the variation in offspring parent to one offspring.
121. Eggs are created 126. Which of the following pollination is com-
mon amongst abiotic agents?
A. in the oviduct
A. Entomophily
B. in the ovary
B. Hydrophily
C. in the testes
C. Ornithophily
D. in the vas deferens
D. Anemophily
122. Genetic information is passed from par- 127. Species with variation are likely
ent to offspring to survive.
A. Asexual reproduction A. more, less
B. Sexual reproduction B. less, less
C. Both C. less, more
D. Neither D. more, more

128. Contains the ovules where the egg cells C. 50%

are produced D. 100%

A. Anther
134. Male reproductive cell in plants
B. Filament
A. sperm
C. Ovules
B. zygote
D. Ovary
C. egg
129. Fertilization that takes place inside the D. pollen
female organism’s body is
135. occurs when a male sex cell (sperm)
A. internal fertilization
combines with a female sex cell (egg).
B. gestation period
A. budding
C. external fertilization
B. fertilization
C. fission
130. For sexual reproduction to occur there D. regeneration
must be
136. The pollen-producing reproductive organ
A. only one parent
of a flower, consisting of an anther and a
B. two females filament.
C. two males A. stamen
D. a biological male and female B. pollen
131. The purpose of sexual reproduction and C. ovary

meiosis is to form cells. D. ovule
A. body 137. One male gamete fertilises an egg cell to
B. sex form
C. somatic A. diploid zygote
D. brain B. triploid nuclei
C. haploid embryo
132. Which organisms use external fertiliza-
tion? D. endosperm
A. birds and turtles 138. How does offspring produced by asexual
B. birds and fish reproduction compare to the parent cell?
C. fish and frogs A. All of its genetic information is the
same as the parent
D. snakes and turtles
B. 1/2 of its genetic infromation is the
133. An organism that has been reproduced same as the parent organism
by sexual reproduction received of its C. its genetic information is completely
chromosomes from the male parent. different from the parent organism.
A. 4 D. 1/4 of its genetic information is the
B. 25% same as the parent organisms.

139. The physical characteristics of an organ- 145. How do humans reproduce?

ism
A. Sexually
A. Genotype
B. Asexually
B. Phenotype
C. They don’t
C. Trait
D. Allele D. none of above
140. When a new organism grows on the body 146. Why is searching and finding a mate a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of its parent: disadvantage of sexual reproduction?
A. fission A. Searching can expose individuals to
B. budding predators, diseases or harsh environmen-
C. cloning tal conditions
D. regeneration B. Searching makes the animals cranky
141. Offspring’s genes are identical to each C. Finding a mate is difficult in the wild
other D. none of above
A. asexual
147. A sperm cell of a moth has 112 chromo-
B. sexual
somes. How many chromosomes are in the
C. both moth’s wing cells?
142. Male structure of the flower that con- B. 112
tains the anther
C. 224
A. stamen
D. 448
B. pistil
C. anther 148. G = green, g = yellowThe genotype for a
D. petal yellow plant is
143. They are small, rounded bodies present A. GG

inside the ovary B. Gg
A. Stalk C. gg
B. Ovules
D. all of the choices result in yellow
C. sepals
D. None of the above 149. Each body cell in an erthworm contains
36 chromosomes. HOw many chromo-
144. Which of the following is not an organism somes are in each of its gametes?
that reproduces using fragmentation:
A. 54
A. Algae
B. Planaria B. 36
C. Starfish C. 72

150. What is an example of dispersal by ani- 155. What are pollen grains produced by?
mals? A. the anther

A. Eating the fruit and seeds in a water- B. the stigma
melon.
C. the petals
B. dandelion
D. the filament
C. coconut
156. There are 26 chromosomes in the somatic
D. water washing a seed away from the cells of the Leopard Frog. The DIPLOID
grass number of the Leopard Frog is:
151. The dividing star fish will divide to pro- A. 26

duce more offspring. This is an example B. 13
of C. 52
A. fragmentation D. none of above
B. binary fission 157. Differences between members of the
C. vegetative propagation same species are called
D. budding A. predators
B. traits
152. What is the sexual organ of a green
C. selections
plant?
D. variations
A. Leaf
B. Flower 158. Animals that can sense smell, use to
attract a mate
C. Bud
A. scent
D. Shoot
B. feathers
153. Sexual reproduction: C. bright colors
A. produces genetically different organ- D. none of above
isms 159. Insects, Reptiles, and Mammals all at-
B. involves 2 parents tract potential mates with
C. requires an egg to be fertilized by a A. Scent
sperm B. Color
D. all of the above C. Plumage
D. none of above
154. Pollen is produced by which part of the
plant? 160. A litter of kittens contains no two kittens
A. stigma that are quite alike. All the kittens resem-
ble their parents. This is because cats re-
B. anther produce
C. stalk/filament A. asexually
D. ovary B. sexually

C. both ways B. Three microsporangia

D. neither asexually or sexually C. Four microsporangia
D. Only one microsporangium
161. A type of cell division that results in four
daughter cells each with half the number 166. Body cells of fruit flies contain 8 chromo-
of chromosomes. somes. Scientists used studies of flies to
A. Mitosis discover how egg and sperm are formed.
What did they observe?
B. Meiosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Body cell of offspring flies have 16
C. Pollination
chromosomes
D. Budding B. Sperm cells have 8 chromosomes
162. Name the male part of the plant C. Egg cells have 4 chromosomes
A. Stigma D. Body cells of offspring have 4 chromo-
B. Style somes
C. Stamen 167. A male reproductive structure in a flower

is called a(n)
D. Sepal
A. Stamen
163. What is one reason why we need meio-
B. Pistil
sis?
C. Ovary
A. To double the number of chromosomes
going into sex cells D. Stigma
B. To halve the number of chromosomes 168. The offspring of asexual reproduction are
going into sex cells genetically (select two)
C. To triple the number of chromosomes A. identical (the same)
going into sex cells B. diverse
D. To not change the number of chromo- C. different
somes going into sex cells
D. clones
164. Which one of the following statements is 169. Attracts pollinators to the flower with
correct? color and scent
A. After fertilisation, the ovule forms a A. Petal
seed.
B. Sepal
B. The embryo of a seed consists of the
testa and radicle. C. Ovary
D. Fruit
C. The radicle of the seed grows up-
wards. 170. This part of the plant produces seeds and
D. The plumule forms the future root of creates pollen.
the plant. A. roots
165. A typical angiospermic anther is bilobed B. flower
and tetragonal consisting of C. stem
A. two microsporangia D. leaves

171. is the study of how traits are passed 177. Occurs in bacteria, sponges, starfish
on, or inherited.
A. asexual

A. dominant traits
B. sexual
B. ratio
C. both
C. phenotype
D. none of above
D. genetics
172. Pollen grains are well-preserved as fos- 178. Which of the following cell types is
sils because of the presence of formed by meiosis?
A. Sporopollenin A. muscle cells

B. Cellulose B. skin cells
C. Pectin C. sperm cells
D. Carotenoids D. blood cells
173. A negative aspect (thing) about asexual 179. Why did Mendel choose to study pea
reproduction is that there is/are plants in order to learn how traits are
A. no genetic diversity passed from parent to offspring?
B. sperm and eggs being made A. Pea plants grow quickly
C. genetic diversity B. Pea plants are ultraviolet
D. possible difficulty in finding a mate if C. Pea plants are rare and expensive
you are a rare species
D. Pea plants are take years to grow
174. In which of the following plant the num-
ber of ovules in an ovary is one? 180. How does sexual reproduction contribute
to variation?
A. Mango
B. Orchids A. In sexual reproduction, offspring have
a combination of their parents’ traits.
C. Water melon
B. In sexual reproduction, new traits
D. Papaya
emerge.
175. No of whorls in a flower C. In sexual reproduction, the wrong
A. 3 number of chromosomes results in disor-
B. 2 ders.
C. 4 D. In sexual reproduction, offspring are

identical to their parents.
D. None
176. What are the major structures in the nu- 181. Which of these choices is made from the
cleus that are made of DNA called? process of mitosis?
A. gene A. Egg
B. DNA B. Sperm
C. chromosome C. Sex Cell
D. mitochondria D. Skin Cell

182. When an animal cell goes through cytoki- B. The Flowers are an important source
nesis, for human food.
A. a cell plate forms dividing the 2 new C. The flowers help attract animals that
nuclei. are needed to deliver pollen.
B. the cell membrane pinches off the 2 D. None of these are considerations for
new cells. reproduction.
C. 4 new cells are formed. 188. Dante wants to match the types of cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. None of the above with how they are produced. Which choice
correctly matches a type of cell with how
183. A multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium it is produced?
is found in
A. Egg cell → meiosis in males
A. Papaver
B. Sperm cell → mitosis in males
B. Michelia
C. Body cell → mitosis in females
C. Hibiscus
D. Body cell → meiosis in females
D. More than one option is correct
189. Requires gametes such as a sperm and an
184. The transfer of pollen from the stamen
egg.
(male) to the stigma (female)
A. Sexual
A. dispersal
B. Asexual
B. pollination
C. Both
C. germination
D. none of above
D. locomotion
190. What type of cells only contain 23 Chro-
185. Purple is dominant to pink. A heterozy-
mosomes?
gous flower would be what color?
A. Bone cells
A. Purple
B. Skin cells
B. Pink
C. Sex cells
C. Light purple
D. Liver cells
D. Purple and pink
191. Offspring’s genes aren’t just like one par-
186. A is formed when egg and sperm cells
ent’s genes
combine.
A. asexual
A. diploid
B. homologous chromosomes B. sexual
C. haploid C. both
D. zygote D. none of above
187. In what way are flowers adapted to help 192. Seeds will get caught in animals’ and
angiosperms reproduce? then fall off elsewhere.
A. The flowers store nutrients needed for A. skin

the plant to grow. B. paws

C. fur C. sperm cell

D. teeth D. brain cell

193. The cells that combine for sexual repro- 199. Why plants need to disperse their seeds
duction are called as far as possible?
A. sex cells
A. To cover more land area.
B. animal cells
B. Not to compete for resources.
C. simple cells
C. To be better than other plants.
D. none of above
D. To evolve faster.
194. The male reproductive part is known as
200. State the biological term for sex cells
A. Pistil A. Gammy
B. Stamen B. Gammon
C. Petal C. Gametes
D. Carpel D. Gazette
195. What is the first cloned mammal?
201. Action or process of fertilizing an egg
A. goat
A. Fertilization
B. cat
B. Budding
C. sheep
D. cow C. Pollination
D. Zygote
196. Produces new cells or offspring
A. asexual reproduction 202. Triploid nuclei will develop into to sup-
B. sexual reproduction ply nutrients for the growth of embryo.
C. both A. testa
D. neither B. wall of fruit
C. endosperm
197. Which of these processes is most impor-
tant for the replacement of worn-out body D. plumule
cells?
203. Heredity is defined as the passage of ge-
A. mitosis
netic instructions from one generation to
B. diffusion the next. Which of the following is NOT
C. meiosis an example of these genetic instructions
in humans?
D. absorption
A. Height
198. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of a body cell? B. Skin color
A. nerve cell C. Dimples
B. skin cell D. Spoken language

204. Pollen comes from one plant to another, 210. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
what is that called? ple of an asexual reproducing organism?
A. Attract A. Potato
B. Pollinate B. Onion
C. reproduce C. Koala
D. none of above D. Bacteria
205. Give NO genetic variation 211. What are the advantages of asexual re-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
production?
A. asexual
A. Can increase populations rapidly
B. sexual
B. lack of diversity and the offspring looks
C. both
the same as the parent.
D. none of above
C. Does not require a mate for reproduc-
206. What conditions are needed for germination to take place
tion D. It is complicated
A. Light, water, oxygen 212. What is the tube-like part of the flower
B. Water, oxygen, warmth that pollen grains move down?
C. Water, cold, oxygen A. anther
D. Dry, warmth, oxygen B. filament
207. Horses have 32 chromosomes in their C. style

haploid cells. How many chromosomes D. stamen
would be in a diploid horse cell?
213. The fertilisation in flowering plants is
A. 32 known as fertilisation.
B. 44 A. single
C. 83 B. double
D. 64 C. tripple
208. What is the sticky part of a plant where D. none of above
pollen grains land? 214. Another one male gamete fertilises with
A. ovary two polar nuclei to form
B. style A. diploid zygote
C. stigma B. triploid nuclei
D. none of above C. embryo
D. interguments
209. Heredity is the passing of traits from
to 215. Young of parent (new plant)
A. predators to prey A. gamete
B. water to rain B. runner
C. parents to offspring C. offspring
D. fungi to protists D. seed coat

216. Animals disperse seeds by C. Egg Cells

A. eating seeds and dropping waste later D. Pollination

on
222. the combination of genes for one or more
B. hiding seeds for late and not coming specific traits (the actual genetic makeup)
back for them
A. genotype
C. catching seeds on their fur and carry- B. phenotype
ing them to different places
C. Punnett square
D. none of the above
D. pedigree
217. Which reproduction involves flowers, 223. Mitosis:
seeds, and fruit?
A. Is known as cell division
B. occurs in body cells
C. produces genetically identical cells
C. cloning
D. all of the above
D. none of above
224. Why are flowers very colorful (and why
218. What organism reproduces using vegeta- do they produce odor? )
tive propagation? A. So people buy them
A. coral B. To make gardens look good
B. strawberries C. To attract pollinators
C. bacteria D. To attract sunlight
D. sea star 225. an organism’s appearance or other de-
tectable characteristics
219. The ovary, style, and the stigma make up
the female part of a plant called the A. phenotype
A. stamen B. genotype
B. petals C. pedigree
D. Punnett square
C. stem
D. pistil 226. Which describes a zygote cell?
A. diploid
220. What do you call the yellow dust that is
inside flowers? B. haploid
C. monoploid
A. Pollen
D. triploid
B. fruit
C. nectar 227. Which process results in 4 daughter
cells?
D. none of above
A. Mitosis
221. Fertilization is B. Meiosis
A. Egg and Sperm cells join C. Interphase
B. Sperm Cells D. Cellular respiration

228. When offspring grow from part of a par- 233. Plants can reproduce in various ways.
ent plant: What two specialized structures help a
plant reproduce?
A. fission
A. strong bark and large leaves
B. budding
B. no scent and brightly colored flowers
C. cloning
C. attractive scents and sturdy stems
D. vegetative regeneration
D. brightly colored flowers and attractive
NARAYAN CHANGDER
229. As humans grow, their bodies change. scents
Which statement best explains how hu- 234. Which of the following genotypes is a
mans grow? purebred?
A. Cells undergo cell division A. Bb
B. Cells form a cell wall B. Gg
C. Cells merge to become larger C. bb
D. none of above D. Dd
230. Budding is a process in which a new in- 235. How many daughter cells does mitosis
dividual is formed that is a clone of the produce?
parent. This type of reproduction is A. 1
A. Sexual B. 2
B. Sporulation C. 3
C. Asexual D. 4
D. Binary Fission 236. Reproduction in which the genetic mate-

rials from different cells combine pro-
E. Fragmentation
ducing an offspring is Sexual reproduction.
231. A human zygote should have chromo- A. 2
somes. B. 4
A. 46 C. 1
B. 23 D. 5
C. 92 237. is a set of instructions for an inherited
D. 64 trait; it can have multiple forms
A. gene
232. The fusion of the male gamete nucleus
with the female gamete nucleus to make B. phenotype
a zygote C. genotype
A. Pollination D. homologous chromosome
B. Germination 238. A plant that cross-pollinates
C. Dispersal A. reproduces with itself
D. Fertilisation B. reproduces with one other plant

C. reproduces with more than one other 244. How many male gamete are formed in
plant one pollen grain?

239. When the egg and sperm cells unite, this B. 4
is called C. 6
A. Fertilization D. 8
B. Zygote
245. The scientific study of heredity
C. Embryo
A. Genetics
D. Cell Differentiation
B. Allele
240. If 4 reproductive cells divide, then
C. Dominant
eggs will be produced.
D. Biology
A. 2
B. 4 246. What are the parts of the pistil?
C. 10 A. Stigma, Style, Ovary
D. 16 B. Stamen, Ovary, Anther
241. When homologous chromosomes match C. Anther, Filament, Style
up, they form a structure call a D. Filament, Stamen, Ovary
A. tetrad (pair of chromosomes, one from
mom and one from dad) 247. Asexual reproduction occurs (happens),
with
B. triad
A. sperm and eggs
C. diploid
B. a male and a female mating
D. quad (group of 4 replicated chromo-
somes, 2 from mom and 2 from dad) C. single organisms
242. External fertilization usually occurs in D. two parents

so that the egg and sperm cells do not dry
248. What process produces offspring from
out.
only one parent organism?
A. fertilization
A. Fertilization
B. internal
B. Germination
C. water
C. Sexual Reproduction
D. dry areas
D. Asexual Reproduction
243. Why are flower petals often colorful &
have a scent? 249. A clone is the product of
A. to attract humans A. asexual reproduction
B. to attract other plants B. sexual reproduction
C. to attract insects & animals C. mitosis
D. none of above D. meiosis

250. If an intestinal cell in a butterfly contains C. Mangifera indica

24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would D. Zea mays
contain
A. 3 chromosomes 256. Which part makes the egg
B. 6 chromosomes A. Stigma
C. 12 chromosomes B. Style
D. 24 chromosomes C. Ovary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
251. Meiosis occurs in the testes in men and
the in women. 257. Which is the female reproductive cell?
A. uterus A. sperm
B. cervix B. ovary
C. ovaries C. testes
D. stomach D. egg
252. The offspring of sexual reproduction are 258. Pollen grains collect on the of a
genetically flower, which is often sticky or feathery.
A. identical A. Anther
B. the same B. Stamen
C. different C. Ovary
D. clones D. Stigma
253. Which of following organisms can repro- 259. Bees carry from one plant to another.
duce sexually AND asexually A. water
A. Fish, Monkeys and Seahorses B. dirt
B. Starfish, Aphids and Monkeys C. pollen
C. Cactus, Mice and Sea Anemones D. nectar
D. Aphids, Sea Anemones and Starfish 260. Which process is nature cloning itself?
254. Which of the following is the female ani- A. Somatic Transfer
mal gamete? B. Mitosis
A. Sperm C. Meiosis
B. Egg D. Photosynthesis
C. Pollen
261. What percentage of chromosomes are
D. Teste handed down by the male’s cell?
255. Chasmogamous as well as cleistogamous A. 75%
both types of flowers are found in B. 25%
A. Commelina C. 50%
B. Arachis hypogea D. 100%

262. What can develop to resist harsh environ- 268. Seed dispersal reduces competition be-
ments that allow an organism to survive? tween the seedlings and the parent plant
for

A. Traits
B. Fertilization A. light
C. Selective Breeding B. oxygen
D. none of above C. water
D. nutrients
263. There are 22 chromosomes in the egg cell
of a Bat. The HAPLOID number of a Bat is: 269. What is the primary advantage of sexual
A. 22 reproduction when compared to asexual?
B. 11 A. There is a greater number of offspring
C. 44 B. There is more food available to off-
D. none of above spring.
C. There is a greater genetic variety in
264. Tongue rolling, earlobes, dimples, and offspring.
freckles are all examples of
D. There is a longer development time for
A. Purebreds offspring.
B. Genotypes
270. What is Binary Fission?
C. Traits
A. develops an outgrowth which is de-
D. Pedigrees
265. What happens to antlers after mating new individual.
season? B. the organism produce its own spores.
A. They fall off These spores are genetically identical to
the parent
B. They grow bigger
C. They shrink C. during this type of reproduction the or-
ganism divides in half
D. none of above
D. Organisms can be produced from un-
266. Genetic material is mixed fertilized eggs
A. asexual 271. The fertilized egg is termed a/an
B. sexual A. gamete
C. both
B. allele
D. none of above
C. homolog
267. If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24 D. zygote
chromosomes, a butterfly egg would con-
tain 272. Identical offspring are called..
A. 3 chromosomes A. Babies
B. 6 chromosomes B. Variants
C. 12 chromosomes C. Clones
D. 24 chromosomes D. none of above

273. Common in “simple” living things C. Sexual

A. asexual D. Sporulation
B. sexual
279. Meiosis produces sex cells that have half
C. both the number of chromosomes as the parent
D. none of above cell. Select all that are examples of sex
cells.
274. Which of the following are true about a A. Sperm Cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
virus?
B. Skin Cell
A. It is non-living
C. Egg Cell
B. It is not dead either.
D. Pollen
C. It contains DNA
E. Somatic Cell
D. All of these are true.
280. Which of the following option about tape-
275. What organism reproduces using bud-
tum is correct?
ding?
A. coral A. Nutritive tissue
B. strawberries B. Sporogenous tissue
C. bacteria C. Protective and haploid tissue
D. sea star D. External layer of microsporangium

wall
276. Which amongst these is NOT a part of the
pistil? 281. Which of the following produces identical
nuclei in cells?
A. stigma
A. pollination
B. stamen
B. mitosis
C. style
C. osmosis
D. ovary
D. fertilization
277. An advantage of sexual reproduction is
that it 282. Following are the whorls of a flower
A. allows genetic variation. A. Calyx
B. only needs one parent. B. Stigma
C. happens very quickly. C. Corolla
D. produces offspring are exact D. Style
copies of the parent.
283. Most cells spend most of their time in:
278. A plant produces a new plant using a
A. Mitosis
runner. What type of reproduction is dis-
played? B. Cytokinesis
A. Asexual C. Interphase
B. Regeneration D. none of above

284. What is the seed made from 290. If a child has red hair, they inherited a
A. The fertilised egg certain from their parents.

A. ratio
B. The ovary
B. trait
C. The anther
C. probability
D. none of above
D. sex chromosome
285. In , new plants are reproduced from
roots, stems, or leaves of the parent plant. 291. You get one homologous chromosome
from your and one from your
A. dad, mom
B. vegetative reproduction
B. brother, sister
C. budding C. grandmother, grandfather
D. regeneration D. the stork, the stork
286. What does pollen contain? 292. How are your chromosomes inherited?
A. dust A. most of your chromosomes from your
B. germs mother
C. sperm cells B. most of your chromosomes from your

father
D. none of above
C. a random number of chromosomes
287. My flowers are not sweet-scented and I from each parent
do not produce nectar. How am I likely D. half your chromosomes from your
dispersed by? mother and half from your father.
A. By wind 293. What is formed from the fertilized eggs
B. By insects inside the ovule?
C. By water A. new plants
D. By explosive action B. new babies
C. new eggs
288. Common in “complex” living things
D. none of above
A. asexual
294. What organisms reproduce by regenera-
B. sexual
tion? Mark all that apply.
C. both
A. ameba
D. none of above B. starfish
289. Bioluminescence means an animal C. lizard
A. glows to attract mates D. mosquito
B. swims in the ocean 295. What is variation?
C. floats to the surface A. A type of reproduction
D. none of above B. Similarities between individuals

C. Differences between individuals 301. Creates many offspring over time

D. none of above A. asexual
B. sexual
296. Which part of the flower protects the
flower until it blooms? C. both
A. petals D. none of above
B. sepals 302. After meiosis II the daughter cells will
NARAYAN CHANGDER
contain chromosomes if the original
C. anther cell contained 78.
D. stigma A. 78
297. Performed in laboratories and produces B. 39
identical individuals from a cell or from a C. 23
cluster of cells taken from a multicellular
D. 46
organism:
A. fission 303. Asexual Reproduction involves (se-
lect two)
B. budding
A. two parents
C. cloning
B. an organism cloning itself
D. regeneration
C. one “parent” (no true parents)
298. What is an example of wind dispersal? D. no organisms
A. coconuts 304. A clone can be BEST thought of as a(n)
B. pecans created in the lab.
A. identical twin
C. dandelions
B. GMO
D. grass seed
C. science fiction experiment
299. A cat has a total of 38 chromosomes in D. none of above
its body cells. How many in its gametes?
305. In angiosperms, what does the ovary be-
A. 38
come after fertilization?
B. 19
A. Petal
C. 76 B. Fruit
D. 10 C. Pistil
300. Seeds can be dispersed by animals, wa- D. Stamen
ter, and ? 306. What does DNA stand for?
A. wind A. Deoxyribonucleic acid
B. earthquakes B. Denitrogenous acid
C. fire C. Deribonucleic acid
D. blizzards D. Diribonucleic acid

307. Before mitosis or meiosis can begin, DNA 312. In one cell splits into two daughter
must go through Interphase. This is when cells

A. binary fission
A. DNA replicates B. budding
B. DNA splits C. regeneration
C. DNA forms chromosomes D. sexual reproduction
D. Chromosomes cross over 313. How many daughter cells does Meiosis
308. For sexual reproduction to occur (hap- create?
pen), there must be A. 2
A. sperm and eggs B. 4
B. two males C. 8
C. two females D. 1
D. a single organism 314. What are examples of displays in birds?

A. Exotic plumage (colorful feathers),
309. What must happen for fertilization to oc-
Dancing, Vocalization, Nest Making
cur in flowering plants
B. Dancing and Nest Making
A. The plant must be exposed to sunlight
during pollination C. Vocalization and Dancing
B. The sperm cells in the pollen tube must D. Nest Makingand Exotic Plumage
be able to reach the eggs in the ovules. 315. One cell that has both female and male
C. The eggs in the ovules must be able to reproductive cell
reach the top of the stigma where pollen A. mitosis
is trapped.
B. clone
D. All of these
C. pollination
310. How many cells are produced at the END D. zygote
of meiosis?
316. Sexual Reproduction involves par-
A. 1 ents.
B. 2 A. zero
C. 3 B. one
D. 4 C. two
311. Binary fission is a process in which a D. three

prokaryote, or bacteria, copies its DNA 317. A positive aspect (thing) about sexual re-
and produces two identical daughter cells production is that there is/are
A. asexual reproduction A. no genetic diversity
B. sexual reproduction B. all clones being produced
C. both C. genetic diversity
D. neither D. none of above

318. One of the advantages of sexual is that? A. Some individuals have the same genes
A. Speedy Process as others
B. Some genes are multiplied in
B. Needs a Mate
tetraploid organisms
C. Smaller Population
C. Some chromosomes are longer than
D. Can Live in Any Enviornment others
319. Plants D. Some individuals have different genes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
than others
A. grow big
B. resist diseases 324. Crossing-over is an efficient way to pro-
duce which increases genetic diversity
C. get sick often
A. genetic variation
D. none of above
B. genetic recombination
320. Compared with the genetic material of C. genetic elements
the original cell in the diagram above, each
D. none of above
of the two new cells contains-
A. half the genetic material of the parent 325. Sperm is created
cell A. in the testes
B. twice as much genetic material as the B. in the ovaries
parent cell
C. in the vas deferens
C. genetic material that is identical to the
D. in the oviduct
parent cell
D. new genetic material that is different 326. What is the purpose of the filament?
from that of the parent cell A. Supports the stigma
321. How many chromosomes does a normal B. Supports the anther
human cell contain? C. Supports the petals
A. 12 (6 pairs) D. It has no purpose
B. 22 (11 pairs) 327. Female reproductive organ that produces
C. 46 (23 pairs) eggs-
D. 202 (101 pairs) A. anther
B. ovary
322. Which of the following cell is binucleate
in an embryo sac? C. petal
A. Antipodal cell D. pista
B. Central cell 328. The male part of the flower is
C. Female gamete A. pistil
D. synergid B. sepal
323. What is meant by the term “genetic vari- C. ovaries

ation? ” D. stamen

329. Different forms of a gene are called 334. reproduction happens when sex cells
from both parents join.
A. Genotype

A. Asexual
B. Chromosomes
B. Sexual
C. Alleles
C. Binary fission
D. Traits
D. Budding
330. Which type of reproduction involves two 335. The transfer of pollen from anther of 1
parents and results in offspring that are plant to stigma of another is called
not genetically identical to either parent?
A. Fertilisation
A. Binary fission
B. Pollination
B. Asexual reproduction
C. Germination
C. Sexual reproduction D. Dispersal
D. Vegetative reproduction
336. If the diploid number of chromosomes in
331. In what part of the flower does fertiliza- carrots is 18, the haploid number is
tion take place? A. 18
A. anther B. 9
B. stigma C. 27
C. ovary D. 36
D. filament 337. Animals, wind, and water

A. pollen carriers
332. Which one of the following is a feature
of a wind-pollinated flower? B. pollinators
A. The flower has a large amount of C. pollen storage areas

pollen grains. D. pollen eaters
B. The carpels are located inside the 338. How many pairs of chromosomes do hu-
petals. mans have?
C. The stamen are located inside the A. 18
petals.
B. 23
D. The petals are brightly coloured. C. 26
333. When an egg is fertilized by a sperm cell, D. 46
a new, genetically different cell is formed.
339. Name the growth phase of the cell cycle
This is called a
for both Mitosis and Meiosis.
A. gamete A. metaphase
B. spore B. telophase
C. zygote C. interphase
D. embryo D. anaophase

340. The end of meiosis results in to each C. stigma and style

other. D. stigma and ovary
A. 2 cells that are identical
346. The cells produced via meiosis are called:
B. 4 cells that are identical
C. 2 cells that are not identical A. gametes
D. 4 cells that are not identical B. somatic cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
341. External fertilization is common for or- C. body cells
ganisms that live in: D. skin cells
A. Trees
347. An organism that reproduces uses binary
B. Water fission would be
C. Land A. Bacteria
D. Ummm, I’m pretty sure you didn’t B. Virus
teach us this C. Strawberry
342. The stage of the cell cycle that occupies D. Hydra
most of the cell’s life is
348. Occurs when an offspring generates a
A. G1 new organism from a piece of its parents:
B. Mitosis A. fission
C. G2 B. budding
D. interphase C. cloning
343. Budding is D. regeneration
A. a form of asexual reproduction 349. Viruses reproduce by
B. when a fragment produces a new or- A. Attaching to a host cell
ganism B. Inserting their DNA into the host cell
C. a genetically different organism C. Making the host cell replicate the virus
D. none of above D. All of the above
344. The different variations of the same trait 350. A female structure of the flower that con-
or characteristic. tains the stigma, style, and ovary
A. Gene A. anther
B. Chromosome B. petal
C. Allele C. stamen
D. DNA D. pistil
345. Which two parts of a flower make up the 351. The fruit flesh is developed from the
stamen? after double fertilisation.
A. anther and stigma A. ovule
B. anther and filament B. embryo sac

C. ovary C. 3
D. petals D. 4

352. Which of these cells would be produced 358. Which of the following is NOT a disadvan-
through meiosis? tage of asexual reproduction?
A. skin cells
A. do not need to mate
B. liver cells
B. little genetic variation
C. brain cells
C. mutations can occur
D. sperm cells
D. all susceptible to same disease
353. Which of the following does not describe
asexual reproduction? 359. Changes in a organism that affect its ap-
A. UNIFORM OFFSPRING pearance, how it behaves, and its func-
tions.
B. OFFSPRING A MIX OF PARENTS
A. complication
C. ONLY 1 PARENT
B. gamete
D. BINARY FISSION, REGENERATION,
BUDDING, VEGATATIVE PROPAGATION C. mutation
354. A clone is: D. zygote

A. a form of sexual reproduction 360. The stigma, the style and the ovary are
B. a human contained in the
C. a genetically identical organism to its A. stamen
parent
B. carpel
D. none of above
C. petals
355. Offspring’s genes are identical to parent D. seed
A. asexual
B. sexual 361. Where is pollen made?
C. both A. ovary
D. none of above B. petal
C. pistil
356. Asexual reproduction produces
A. Genetically different organisms D. anther
B. Organisms that look different 362. Selective Breeding
C. Genetically similar organisms A. Used to develop many types of plants
D. none of above and animals that have desirable traits
357. How many times of mitosis occurs to B. Agriculture/Farming:Better plants

form an embryo sac? and larger animals
A. 1 C. Creates desirable pets
B. 2 D. All answer choices

1.4 Events of Sexual Reproduction 124
363. Yeast reproduce by D. Blood and Sperm Cells

A. budding 367. Where does the pollen land
B. fission A. Stigma
C. regeneration B. Style
D. sexual reproduction C. Ovary
364. What is it called when a sperm and egg D. Petal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
meet?
368. Contains two complete sets of chromo-
A. meiosis somes (1 from each parent)
B. fertilization A. Diploid
C. cell division B. Haploid
D. mitosis C. Zygote
365. Asexual reproduction like mitosis pro- D. Embryo
duces
A. Two offspring cells with the same ge- ple of a plant that can clone itself?
netic material as the parent cell.
A. Strawberry
B. Two offspring cells with half genetic
material as the parent cell. B. Potato
C. Four offspring cells with the same ge- C. Onion

netic material as the parent cell. D. Corn
D. Four offspring cells with half the ge- 370. One of the biggest disadvantages of sex-
netic material as the parent cell. ual reproduction is that it
366. What are the gametes in animals called A. creates genetic diversity
A. Sperm and Pollen Cells B. produces clones
B. Egg and Pollen Cells C. requires more time and energy
C. Sperm and Egg Cells D. is faster that asexual reproduction
1.4 Events of Sexual Reproduction

1. Which is the site of fertilisation? B. FSH
A. Uterus C. LH
B. Vagina D. Progesterone
C. Fallopian tubes 3. What process happens when a sperm joins
D. Cervix with an egg?
2. Which female hormone maintains preg- A. Maturity

nancy? B. Pollination
A. Estrogen C. Fertilization

D. Germination 9. Which of the following is a modified root?

4. The asexual reproduction in the Spirogyra A. Potato

involves B. Sweet potato
A. Breaking up of filaments into smaller C. Ginger
bits D. Onion
B. Division of a cell into many cells
10. In a flower, the parts that produce male
C. Division of a cell into two cells and female gametes are-
D. Formation of a large number of buds A. Stamen and anther
5. The rapid spreading of bread mould on B. Filament and style
slices of bread are due to:(i) Presence of C. Anther and ovary
large number of spores in air (ii) Presence D. Stamen and style
of large number of thread-like branched
hyphae (iii) Presence of moisture and nu- 11. The part of a flower that contains the
trients (iv) Formation of round shaped spo- ovary and the ovule.
rangia A. Anther
A. (i) and (iii) B. Stamen
B. (ii) and (iv) C. Petals
C. (i) and (ii) D. Pistil
D. (iii) and (iv) 12. Vegetative propagation refers to the for-
6. In Rhizopus, tubular thread-like structures mation of new plants from the following
bearing sporangia at their tips are called existing organs of the old plants:
A. Stems, roots and flowers
A. Filaments
B. Stems, roots and leaves
B. Hyphae
C. Stems, flowers and fruits
C. Rhizoids
D. Stems, leaves and flowers
D. Roots
13. The correct sequence of organs in the male
7. The ratio of number of chromosomes in a reproductive system for the transport of
human zygote and a human sperm is: sperms is:
A. 2:1 A. Testis → vas deferens → urethra
B. 3:1 B. Testis → ureter → urethra
C. 1:2 C. Testis → urethra → ureter
D. 1:3 D. Testis → vas deferens → ureter
8. What process happens when pollen falls 14. Vegetative propagation refers to forma-
on a flower’s pistil? tion of new plants from-
A. Pollination A. Stem, root, flower
B. Pollen B. Stem, root, leaves
C. Maturity C. Stem, fruits, flower
D. Fertilization D. Stem, leaves, flower

15. contains all the information for making 20. What process happens when a small root
flowers, leaves, and every part of a plant. and a plant begin to grows out of a seed?
A. pollination A. Cone
B. embryo B. Cycle
C. DNA C. Flower
D. growth hormone D. Germination
NARAYAN CHANGDER
21. How much DNA does the sperm cell con-
16. What is NOT a possible way that pollina-
tribute to a new seedling.
tion can happen?
A. all of the DNA
A. sunlight
B. Most of the DNA
B. wind
C. Half of the DNA
C. insects
D. Almost none of the DNA
D. water
22. The ability of a cell to divide into several
17. Oral contraceptives prevent the cells during reproduction in Plasmodium is
called
A. Fertilisation
A. Budding
B. Implanatation
B. Reduction division
C. Entrance of sperms in vagina
C. Binary fission
D. Ovulation
D. Multiple fission
18. The number of chromosomes in parents
23. Characters transmitted from parents to
and offsprings of a particular species re-
offspring are present in
mains constant due to:
A. Cytoplasm
A. Doubling of chromosomes after zygote
formation B. Ribosome
B. Halving of chromosomes during ga- C. Golgi bodies

mete formation D. Genes
C. Doubling of chromosomes after ga- 24. Which Plant structures are used in repro-
mete formation duction? Check ALL that apply.
D. Halving of chromosomes after gamete A. Leaves
formation
B. Spores
19. Characters transmitted from parents to C. Flowers
offspring are present in D. Wind
A. Cytoplasm E. Cones
B. Ribosome
25. Reproduction is essential for living organ-
C. Golgi bodies isms in order to:
D. Genes A. Keep the individual organ alive

B. Fulfill their energy requirements C. Anther and ovary

C. Maintain growth D. Stamen and style

D. Continue the species for ever
32. The cover and protect the flower bud.
26. Ovulation takes place
A. Petals
A. At 28th day of menstrual cycle
B. Stamen
B. At 14th day of menstrual cycle
C. Sepals
C. At 7th day of menstrual cycle
D. Anther
D. At 21st day of menstrual cycle
27. The seeds of a flower are produced in the 33. Out of the following organs which has the
regenerative capacity?
A. Pistil A. lungs
B. Ovule B. liver
C. Stamen C. stomach
D. Sepal D. intestine
28. Examples of Asexual Reproduction
34. Budding occurs in which of the following
A. Vegetative Propagation organisms?
B. Budding A. Yeast
C. Fragmentation B. Amoeba
D. Spore Formation
C. Hydra
29. How does the pine tree reproduce? D. Plasmodium
A. By producing cones
35. Longitudinal binary fission takes place in-
B. By producing flowers
case of
C. By producing spores
A. Paramecium
D. none of above
B. Planaria
30. Which of the following organism repro-
C. Euglena
duces by multiple fission?
A. Leishmania D. Amoeba
B. Amoeba 36. The process of the division of cell into sev-

C. Plasmodium eral cells during reproduction in Plasmod-
ium is termed as:
D. Bacteria
A. Fragmentation
31. In a flower, the parts that produce male
and female gametes (germ cells) are B. Budding
A. Stamen and anther C. Multiple fission
B. Filament and stigma D. Binary fission

37. How many cells and nuclei are present in 42. A feature of reproduction that is common
the embryo sac? to Amoeba, Spirogyra and Yeast is that
A. 8 cells and 8 nuclei A. They reproduce asexually
B. 7 cells and 8 nuclei B. They are all unicellular
C. 1 cell and 1 nuclei C. They reproduce only sexually
D. 7 cells and 7 nuclei D. They are all multicellular
43. In the list of organisms given below,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
38. Hydra can reproduce via
those that reproduce by the asexual
A. Regeneration method are(1) Banana(2) Dog(3) Yeast(4)
B. Budding Amoeba
C. Sexual reproduction A. and (4)
D. All of the following B. , (3) and (4)
C. and (4)
39. In Spirogyra, asexual reproduction takes
place by D. , (3) and (4)
A. Breaking up of filaments into smaller 44. An organism capable of reproducing by

bits two asexual reproduction methods one
similar to the reproduction in yeast and
B. Division of a cell into two cells
the other similar to the reproduction in Pla-
C. Division of a cell into many cells naria is:
D. Formation of young cells from older A. Spirogyra
cells. B. Hydra
40. The rapid spreading of bread mould on C. Bryophyllum
slices of bread is due to: (i) Presence of D. Paramecium
large number of spores in air. (ii) Presence
of large number of thread-like branched 45. A feature of reproduction common to
hyphae. (iii) Presence of moisture and nu- amoeba, spirogyra and yeast is
trients. (iv) Formation of round shaped A. They reproduce asexually
sporangia.
B. They are unicellular
A. (i) and (iii)
C. They reproduce sexually
B. (ii) and (iv)
D. They are multicellular
C. (i) and (ii)
46. Which of the following is the correct se-
D. (iii) and (iv) quence of events of sexual reproduction in
a flower?
41. Daughter cells formed after the division of
zygote are known as A. Pollination, fertilization, seedling, em-
bryo
A. Blastula
B. Seedling, embryo, fertilization, pollina-
B. Blastomeres
tion
C. Morula C. Pollination, fertilization, embryo,
D. Blastocyst seedling

D. Embryo, seedling, pollination, fertiliza- 52. Spores are formed in a structure known as
tion
A. Sporangia

47. Offspring formed as a result of sexual B. Gametagia
reproduction exhibit more variations be-
cause C. Pollen sac
A. Sexual reproduction is a lengthy pro- D. Gemmule
cess
B. Genetic material comes from two par- 53. Characters that are transmitted from par-
ents of the same species ents to offspring during reproduction show
C. Genetic material comes from two par- A. Only similarities with parents
ents of different species B. Only variations with parents
D. Genetic material comes from many
C. Both similarities and variations with
parents
parents
48. Formation of the sperm from spermatids is D. Neither similarities nor variations
known as
A. Spermatogenesis 54. The correct sequence of reproductive
B. Spermiogenesis stages seen in flowering plants is
C. Spermiation A. Gametes, zygote, embryo, seedling

D. Cytokinesis B. Zygote, gametes, embryo, seedling
49. If a plant produces seeds that are sticky, C. Seedling, embryo, zygote, gametes
an most likely moves the seeds from D. Gametes, embryo, zygote, seedling
one place to another.
A. Wind 55. Which among the following are not the
B. Water functions of testes at puberty? (i) Forma-
tion of germ cells (ii) Secretion of testos-
C. Animal terone (iii) Development of placenta (iv)
D. Fire Secretion of estrogen
50. All of these animals are pollinators EXPECT A. (i) and (ii)
A. Bee B. (i) and (iii)
B. Bird C. (ii) and (iv)
C. Butterfly D. (iii) and (iv)
D. Fish
56. Which among the following does not repro-
51. Identify the diploid cell amongst the fol- duce by spore formation?
lowing
A. Penicillium
A. Secondary spermatocyte
B. Primary spermatocyte B. Yeast
C. Spermatid C. Mucor fungus
D. Spermatozoa D. Rhizopus

57. Which out of the following processes does 61. Pollination via wind is also known as
not lead to the formation of clones: A. Anemophily
A. Fertilisation
B. Hydrophily
B. Fission
C. Entomophily
C. Tissue culture
D. Malacophily
D. Fragmentation
58. The surgical method which prevents the 62. Reason for the greater similarities among
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sperms from reaching the ovum and preg- the offsprings produced by asexual repro-
nancy does not occur is: duction, is: (i) Asexual reproduction in-
volves only one parent (ii) Asexual repro-
A. IUCD duction involves two parents (iii) Asexual
B. Vasectomy reproduction involves gametes (iv) Asex-
C. Condom ual reproduction does not involve gametes
D. Tubectomy A. (i) and (ii)
59. A simple multicellular animal having ten- B. (i) and (iii)

tacles living in freshwater usually repro- C. (ii) and (iv)
duces by the asexual process of:
D. (i) and (iv)
A. Binary fission
B. Spore formation 63. What is Variation?
C. Budding A. Noticeable change in 2 different
species
D. Fragmentation
B. It is the copying during reproduction
60. The disease caused by micro-organism is important for maintaining the body de-
which reproduces by multiple fission is signs of different organisms to survive in
known as: the existing environment.
A. Kala-azar
C. It refers to the visible difference be-
B. Marasmus tween two individuals or among a group
C. Malaria of individuals or species.
D. Amoebiasis D. none of above

2. Sexual reproduction in flowering
plants
2.1 Structure of a flower

1. The take in water and minerals from C. respiration
the soil. D. root hairs
A. sepals
5. Name the openings on the underside of
B. pistil leaves.
C. roots A. Alveoli
D. stem B. Stomata
2. What anchor plants to the ground and ab- C. Pores

sorb water and nutrients? D. Veins
A. Roots 6. What is a cotyledon?
B. Stem A. A seed
C. Xylem B. A seed coat
D. Leaves C. A seed leaf
D. none of above
3. What is the waxy layer on leaves?
A. Chloroplasts 7. Which part of the flower is the most beau-
tiful and also attracts insects?
B. Plastic
A. The roots
C. Wax
B. The stem
D. Cuticle
C. The sepals
4. a process that allows a plant to get rid of D. The petals
excess water
8. Plants without vessels that carry water,
A. photosynthesis minerals, and food throughout the plant
B. transpiration are called?

2.1 Structure of a flower 132
A. flowering plants 14. Tick all of the functions of the leaf.

B. cone bearing plants A. Anchorage
C. nonvascular plants B. Photosynthesis
D. spore producing plants C. Sexual reproduction
9. Vascular tissue that transports water and D. Transpiration
minerals UPWARDS from a plant’s roots is E. Gas exchange
known as
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Cuticle 15. The process in which plants use chlorophyll
and light to make sugar/food and oxygen
B. Phloem is known as
C. Stomata A. spores
D. Xylem
B. photosynthesis
10. Pistil consists of several parts which are: C. vascular plants
A. Stigma D. flowering plants
B. Anther
16. What PART of the plant collects water?
C. Ovary
A. leaves
D. Ovule
B. flower
E. Style
C. roots
11. What is the tissue that is used to trans-
D. stem
port necessary materials throughout the
plant? 17. The process by which plants make food
A. Circulatory tissue A. Photosynthesis
B. Transport tissue B. phototropism
C. Vascular tissue C. embryo
D. Pathway tissue
D. seeds
12. Mosses are non-vascular, which means
18. What do we call the anther and the fila-
they do not have
ment together?
A. tissue
A. Stamen
B. blood
B. Pistil
C. chloroplast
C. Style
D. tubes
D. Stem
13. This part of plant supports the plant and
carries water. 19. What is the function of the sepal?
A. Root A. store the ovules
B. Stem B. protect the bud
C. Leaf C. create the pollen
D. Seed D. none of above

20. The sepal C. Fertilization takes place before Pollina-

A. smells good tion

B. protects and supports the flower D. The pollen has to come from a differ-
ent plant
C. attracts other animals
D. produces pollen grains 26. Which part of the plant makes the food?
21. What are the root’s job in a plant? A. roots
A. absorb water and sunlight B. stem
B. give off oxygen and absorb water C. leaf
C. make sugar and absorb water D. flower
D. anchor the plant to the ground and ab-
sorb water 27. Which of the following is NOT a function
of the flower?
22. This part of the plant takes in water and
nutrients from my habitat, and hold the A. Be attractive
plant in place. B. Female reproductive parts
A. flower C. Male Reproductive parts
B. seed
D. Control Hydration
C. root
D. cone 28. What is the sticky part of the flower that
catches pollen?
23. Transport water from cell to cell through
A. style
the cell wall.
A. vascular B. stigma
B. nonvascular C. ovary
C. mimicry D. petal
D. rhizoid
29. What is a pollinator?
24. Which of the following is NOT a female A. Animal that moves pollen from plant to
part of the flower? plant
A. filament
B. Animal that eats pollen
B. ovary
C. A plant that makes pollen
C. stigma
D. A plant that does not make pollen
D. style
25. Which of the following statements is true 30. Mitosis takes place in the zone of
about the fertilization process in flowers? A. Protection
A. The ovule which is in the ovary is fertil- B. Cell production
ized by the pollen
C. Elongation
B. The pollen grain contains the female
reproductive cell D. Differentiation

31. The filament 37. Plant cells that are specialized for cell divi-
A. holds up the anther sion are most likely found in what part of
the plant?
B. protects the petal
A. root tips
C. is the male part of the flower
B. leaf epidermis
D. catches pollen
C. stem epidermis
32. What is the depositing of seeds in new ar-
eas called? D. vascular tissue
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Scattering 38. Which of the following statements best de-
B. Dispersal scribes xylem’s function in the plant?
C. Disposal A. transpports water and minerals up
from the roots to the rest of the plant
D. Pollination
B. transports food down from the leaves
33. The function of a is to absorb water, to the rest of the plant
store food, and anchor plants.
C. transports water and minerals down
A. flower from the roots to the rest of the plant
B. leaf
D. transports food up from the leaves to
C. stem the rest of the plant
D. root
39. Which plant structure produces fruit and
34. What part of the flower must the pollen seeds so that the plant can reproduce?
tube grow down, to reach the egg? A. stem
A. Style B. roots
B. Stigma
C. flower
C. Filament
D. leaves
D. Anther
40. A plant species lives in an area with lim-
35. Part of a plant that holds and protects ited sunlight. Which physiological adapta-
seeds tion would be most useful to the plant?
A. roots A. colorful flowers
B. stem
B. large leaves
C. fruit
C. deep roots
D. leaves
D. thin cuticle
36. The part of the plants that supports the
plant, stores food, allows movement of 41. what are the three things a plant needs in
materials through vessels. order to make there own food
A. stem A. sunlight
B. roots B. water
C. root hairs C. carbon dioxide
D. leaves D. all of them

42. What is the function of a leaf? 48. Choose the correct types of flower and
A. Leaves are where photosynthesis their examples:

takes place A. Unisexual flower:hibiscus, rose
B. Leaves absorb water from the soil B. Bisexual flower:hibiscus, lily
C. Leaves help a plant reproduce C. Unisexual:corn, papaya
D. Leaves absorb minerals from the soil D. Bisexual:coconut, watermelon
43. First, pollen gets moved from the stamen 49. Stomata allow which of the following to
to the occur?
A. petal A. Carbon dioxide in and oxygen out
B. sepal B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide out
C. pistil C. Carbon dioxide and oxygen in
D. none of above D. Oxygen in and carbon dioxide out
44. Third, the pollen fertilizes the egg cell and 50. Colorful leaf like structure that attracts
they make a pollinators
A. human baby A. Petals
B. seed B. Sepal
C. llama C. Leave
D. none of above D. Stamen
45. What is the function of pollen grain? 51. Stem

A. contains male gametes A. supports the plant
B. contains females gametes B. Absorbs water
C. to attracts insect for pollination C. Part of a flower
D. to protects flower during bud stage D. Conducts photosynthesis
46. This part of the plant uses the sunlight to 52. Where can you find stomata?
produce food for the plant A. on the bottom of the flower petal
A. Flower B. on the bottom of the leaf
B. Cone C. in the ocean
C. Leaf D. in outerspace
D. Seed
53. Stamen is consists of:
47. The function of the flower is A. Stigma
A. Photosynthesis B. Anther
B. Transpiration C. Pollen grains
C. Sexual Reproduction D. Filament
D. Anchorage E. Style

54. Which structure in the leaf controls the 60. A flower produces nectar . What is the
opening and closing of the stoma? function of the nectar?
A. cuticle A. To provide food for the flower
B. epidermis
B. To attract pollinators
C. guard cell
C. To attract animals to disperse the
D. spongy mesophyll fruits
55. many main roots with smaller ones branch-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. To produce perfumes
ing off
A. herbaceous stem 61. Which statement is true?
B. woody stem A. Xylem transports food and phloem
C. fibrous root transports water
D. taproot B. Xylem transports food and minerals
56. The plant tissue that carries food DOWN- C. Phloem transports food and xylem
WARD from the leaves to the rest of the transports water
pant is the
D. Phloem transports minerals
A. Phloem
B. Stomata 62. root-like structures used to hold a plant in
place
C. Chlorophyll
D. Xylem A. vascular
57. Which is the female part of a flower? B. nonvascular

A. Sepal C. mimicry
B. Petal D. rhizoid
C. Pistil
63. Which group does NOT have roots?
D. Stamen
A. mosses
58. Extensions along the roots that increase
the root surface area are called? B. ferns
A. roots C. gymnosperms
B. root hairs D. angiosperms
C. leaves
D. stem 64. What do the leaves of a plant do?
59. Which of the following is NOT a part of the A. They make the food for the plant.
plant’s SHOOT system? B. They soak up the water from the
A. Flower ground.
B. Leaf C. They deliver water to the other parts
C. Stem of the plants
D. Root D. They make seeds

65. The pollen grains are found in this part of 71. What is the function of stigma?
the stamen. A. produces pollen grains

A. anther B. produces and protect the ovules
B. style
C. receives pollen grain
C. pistil
D. holds and supports the anther
D. filament
72. adapting characteristics of a stronger or-
66. In which type of growth response does the ganism for defense
plant grow in response to touch?
A. vascular
A. Hydrotropism
B. nonvascular
B. Heliotropism
C. mimicry
C. Geotropism
D. rhizoid
D. Thigmotropism
73. What is the function of the seed?
67. hard, rigid stem like bark
A. to be fertilized by pollen
A. herbaceous stem
B. to allow the flower to grow
B. woody stem
C. to protect the zygote
C. fibrous root
D. to absorb nutrients
D. taproot
74. What part of the flower will turn into a
68. These help the plant to reproduce sexually.
seed if fertilized by a pollen grain?
A. flowers
A. ovary
B. stems
B. anther
C. leaves
C. ovule
D. roots
D. filament
69. The male part of the flower.
75. The is the male part of the flower pro-
A. stamen duces pollen.
B. pistil A. pistil
C. pollen
B. petal
D. embryo
C. stamen
70. Identify the structure(s) responsible D. sepal
for producing ovules (eggs) and pollen
(sperm):A= Egg ProductionB=Pollen Pro- 76. Which structure of a plant is responsible
duction for anchoring it to the ground?
A. A = Pistil; B= Stamen A. Flower
B. A=Petals; B=Ovary B. Leaf
C. A= Stamen; B=Pistil C. Stem
D. none of above D. Roots

77. What is the role of the stamen? 83. A flower is made up of FOUR main parts,
A. create pollen which are:
B. structural support A. sepal
C. makes the flower attractive B. petal
D. none of above C. pollen grain

D. pistil
78. Trace the path that pollen takes:
E. stamen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Anther → Stigma → Style → Ovary
B. Ovary → Stigma → Anther → Stamen 84. What does the stem of the plant do?
C. Anther → Ovary → Stamen → Stigma A. It makes food for the plant

B. It soaks up the water from the ground
D. none of above C. It delivers water to the other parts of
the plant
79. Which is the male part of the flower?
D. It makes seed
A. Petal
B. Stamen 85. The sticky tip of the pistil
C. Pistil A. Stigma
D. Sepal B. Stamen
C. Ovary
80. Which part of the plant absorbs water and
minerals from the soil? D. Ovule
A. flower 86. Plants respond to stimuli such as light,

B. leaf touch, water or gravity. This is called a
C. roots A. tropism
D. stem B. dispersal
C. hormone
81. Which part of the plant absorb sunlight to
help feed the plant? D. photosynthesis
A. Stem 87. The difference between monocots and di-

B. Root cots are the number of ?
C. Seed A. Cotyledons
D. Leaf B. Pollen
C. Stamens
82. Openings in the outer cell layer of leaf sur-
faces that allow the exchange of water D. Embryos
and gases are called what? E. Seed Coats
A. Petiole 88. What part of the plant is responsible for
B. Stomata reproduction?
C. Phloem A. Flower
D. Xylem B. Leaves

C. Roots C. to keep bacteria out of the leaf

D. Stems D. to keep oxygen in the leaf

89. This part of a flower turns into fruit
95. What is the function of style?
around a fertilized seed.
A. holds and supports the anther
A. ovule
B. ovary B. receives pollen grains
C. stamen C. connects stigma to the ovary
D. none of above D. produces and protects the ovules
90. Other than transporting water, what is a 96. What structures aid in the absorption of
function of xylem? water in the plant?
A. making food
A. Xylem vessels
B. transporting food
B. Root hairs
C. helping support the plant
C. Leaves
D. catching light
D. lenticels
91. The female part of a flower is
A. carpel 97. Second, the pollen moves down the pistil
to the
B. stamen
A. egg cell
C. filament
D. sepal B. stamen
C. petals
92. The male parts of a flower are the and
the D. none of above
A. style
98. Mosses and ferns are seedless so they re-
B. filament produce by
C. anther
A. cones
D. pistil
B. flowers
93. The function of the petal is to C. spores
A. attract pollintors
D. pollen
B. Egg production
C. Pollen production 99. What does an ovule become when it is pol-
linated?
D. none of above
A. a seed
94. What is the function of the cuticle on a
leaf? B. a sprout
A. to keep water from entering the leaf C. a fruit
B. to keep water from leaving the leaf D. it stays an ovule

100. Which statements are true? 105. Roots perform all of the following func-
tions EXCEPT
A. Xylem vessels and tracheids are living
tissue and contain lignin A. Carrying out the light reactions of pho-
tosynthesis
B. Xylem vessels and tracheids are dead
tissue and contain lignin B. Anchoring the plant in the soil
C. Absorbing water and nutrients from
C. Phloem tissue contains lignin and is liv-
the soil
ing tissue
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Storing water and minerals
D. Phloem tissue does not contain lignin
and is dead at maturity 106. Forms fruit around the seeds
E. Phloem tissue does not contain lignin A. ovule
and is living tissue B. ovary
C. stamen
101. Which part of the male plant produces the
pollen? D. none of above
A. the filament 107. How else can pollen be moved besides
pollinators?
B. the anther
A. Sunlight
C. the stigma
B. Wind
D. the style
C. Snow
102. When the ovules become fertilized, they D. Hail
will create
108. What is the green leaf like structure that
A. Seeds protects the flower bud?
B. Fruit A. Sepal
C. Pollen B. Carpel
C. Petal
D. none of above
D. Stamen
103. What is pollination?
109. cells that open and close the stomata are
A. Movement of pollen from plant to plant A. Guard cells
B. Removal of pollen from the anther B. Wall cells
C. Arrival of pollen at the stigma C. Chloroplasts
D. Always carried out by animals D. Thylakoids
104. An organism who can make their own 110. Insects, birds, bats and butterflies can all
food from the sun is known as a- be called what during the process of polli-
nation?
A. Heterotroph
A. photographers
B. Eukaryote B. photosynthesizers
C. Autotroph C. germinators
D. Prokaryote D. pollinators

111. The outer single-layer group of cells cov- B. dicot

ering a plant is the- C. vascular

A. vascular tissue D. nonvascular
B. cambium cells
117. one main root with smaller ones branch-
C. circulatory tissue
ing off
D. epidermis
A. herbaceous stem
112. Pollination occurs when travels from B. woody stem
the male part of the flower to the female
C. fibrous root
part of the flower.
D. taproot
A. seed
B. wind 118. The female gamete in flowering plants is
found in a(n)
C. pollen
A. pollen grain
D. roots
B. ovule
113. Where can pollination happen?
C. ovary
A. Between pollen grains and pistil of the
same flower D. none of above
B. Between pollen grains and pistil of dif- 119. Phloem transports

ferent flowers of same species A. water from roots to rest of plant
C. Between pollen grains and pistil of the B. sugar from roots to rest of plant
different flowers of different species
C. water from leaves to rest of plant
D. Both (a) and (b) are correct
D. sugar from leaves to rest of plant
114. Which part of flower that usually have
bright coloured? 120. Why are fruits beneficial to a plant?
A. Sepal A. Protects the seed from predators
B. Filament B. Provide comfort for seed
C. Petal C. When organisms eat the fruit this pro-
vides a means of dispersal for seed
D. Style
D. Provide nutrients for the embryo
115. Photosynthesis occurs in the while
cellular respiration occurs in the 121. soft, green stem like a daisy
A. Chloroplast; Vacuole A. herbaceous stem
B. Vacuole; Mitochondria B. woody stem
C. Mitochondria; Chloroplast C. fibrous root
D. Chloroplast; Mitochondria D. taproot
116. A type of plant with a seed that has one 122. What part of the flower produces
food storage area pollen?
A. monocot A. Anther

2.2 Pre-fertilization events 142
B. Filament 127. Where would you find ovules

C. Ovary A. Ovary
D. Sepal B. Anther
C. Stamen
123. Part of the plant that is long, transport
nutrients, water and keep the plant stable D. Sepal
in the ground.
128. Where in the plant does photosynthesis
A. Roots
NARAYAN CHANGDER
occur?
B. Stem A. Flower
C. Petals B. Leaves
D. Leaves C. Stem
124. Which amongst these is NOT a part of D. Roots
PISTIL
129. Which part attracts insects and mammals
A. stigma to the flower
B. stamen A. sepal
C. style B. petal
D. ovary C. ovaries
D. style
125. Plants with tube-like vessels that carry
water, minerals and food throughout the 130. Monocots typically have flower parts in
plant (xylem and phloem) multiples of
A. vascular plants A. 4
B. nonvascular plants B. 5
C. flowering plants C. 2
D. spore producing plants D. 3
126. Which of these is not part of the stamen 131. Daffodils have venation.
A. filament A. Netted
B. anther B. Parallel
C. stigma C. Reticulate
2.2 Pre-fertilization events

1. Is needed for plants to produce seeds, is B. pollen
on top of the anther and it is the powder C. stem
that is moved from plant to plant.
D. leaves
A. roots 2. Pollination occurs when a produced by

the lands on and adheres to the 8. During the process of photosynthesis,

A. stigma, pollen tube, anther green plants produce

A. sunlight
B. pollen grain, anther, stigma
B. nitrogen
C. anther, pollen tube, stigma
C. sugar
D. stigma, anther, ovary
D. methane
3. Which reproductive part of a flower does
pollen comes from? 9. The pistil is a part
A. anther A. female
B. ovary B. male
C. style C. both
D. carpel D. neither
4. The bottom part of the pistil and where the 10. Where are seeds made?
seeds are produced. A. Sepal
A. stamen B. Pistil
B. anther C. Ovary
C. ovary D. Stigma
D. filament 11. Is made up of the anther and filament.
5. In angiosperms, a zygote and endosperm A. stamen
form as a result of B. pistil
A. germination. C. sepal
B. double fertilization. D. petals
C. pollination.
12. The outermost and innermost wall layers
D. seed dispersal. of a microsporangium in an anther are
6. Is made up of the stigma, style and ovary. A. Endothecium, tapetum
A. stamen B. Epidermis, endodermis
B. petals C. Epidermis, middle layers

D. Epidermis, tapetum
C. pistil
D. roots 13. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate
after fertilization are
7. Dioecy states
A. Synergies and primary endosperm cell
A. Uniseuality of flwer
B. Synergids and antipodal cell
B. Bisexuality of flower
C. Antipodal cell and primary endosperm
C. Bisexuality of plant cell
D. Unisexuality of a plant D. Egg and antipodals

14. The top part of the pistil and where the 19. The stigma is part of the
pollen goes from another flower. A. female
A. stem B. male
B. sepal C. both
C. stamen D. neither
D. stigma 20. When a plant reproduces vegetatively,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
15. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically A. meiosis produces a new gametophyte.
equivalent to: B. offspring are produced by mitosis
alone.
A. megaspore mother cell
C. only root tissue can be used to pro-
B. megaspore
duce new offspring.
C. megasporangium D. offspring will differ from the parent.
D. megasporophyll
21. Pick the female part
16. How many nuclei are contained within an A. Stigma
angiosperm embryo sac? B. Petal
A. two C. Stamen
B. four D. Pollen Grains
C. six 22. Wind pollinated flower characteristics usu-
D. eight ally include all EXCEPT
A. being small
17. A student viewing a cell with a micro-
scopeobserves a cell wall, a cell mem- B. producing large amounts of pollen
brane, and anucleus. The presence of C. being large
these structuresindicates that the student
D. none of above
is looking at a cell from a
A. rabbit 23. Characteristics that promote cross-
pollination include all EXCEPT
B. carrot
A. the anther and stigma being different
C. worm heights
D. fly B. having male only and femal e only flow-
ers
18. What structure forms during angiosperm
C. the anther and stigma being the same
fertilization but does not form during fer-
height
tilization among other types of plants?
D. having pollen and ovules mature at dif-
A. a haploid egg cell fernt times
B. a diploid zygote
24. What do seeds need in order to grow into
C. a haploid sperm cell healthy plants?
D. a triploid cell A. right amount of water and air

B. right amount of water, sunlight, air 30. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature
and a space to grow of

C. right amount of water, sunlight and air A. Synergids
B. Generative cell
D. none of above C. Nucellar embryo
25. Male structures in flowering plants include D. Aleurone cell
all EXCEPT
31. When pollen is moved from plant to plant
A. Stamen to produce more plants or fruits.
B. Anther A. pollination
C. Stigma B. germination
D. Filament C. photography
D. photosynthesis
26. What part of the flower will turn into a
fruit? 32. The process of formation of seeds without
A. petal fertilization in flowering plants is known
as
B. ovary
A. budding
C. ovule
B. apomixis
D. stamen
C. sporulation
27. Coconut water from a tender coconut is D. somatic hybridisation
A. Degenerated nucellus 33. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm de-
B. Immature embryo velops into
C. Free nuclear endosperm A. ovule
D. Innermost layers of the seed coat B. endosperm
C. embryo sac
28. Top part of the stamen and where the
pollen is produced. D. embryo
A. sepal 34. Flowers which have single ovule in the

ovary and are packed into inflorescence
B. pistil
are usually pollinated by
C. anther
A. water
D. petals B. bee
29. The specialized leaves of a flower that do C. wind
not produce gametophytes are the D. bat
A. carpel and stamens.
35. A pollen grain landing on a stigma of a
B. filaments and anthers. flower of the same species produces a
C. stigma and style. A. gametophyte.
D. sepals and petals. B. pollen tube.

C. flower. 42. at the tip of the pistil collects pollen

D. stamen. A. stigma
36. Scutellum is B. pistil
A. Grass embryo C. anther
B. Grass seed D. filliment
C. Grass fruit
43. In which part of the flower is pollen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Grass cotyledon
found?
37. Perisperm and endosperm differ in
A. Filament
A. Being a diploid tissue
B. Anther
B. Being a haploid tissue
C. Having no reserve food C. Ovary
D. Formation of perisperm by fusion of D. Xylem

the secondary nucleus with many sperms
44. Advantage of cleistogamy is
38. Stalk of the stamen.
A. Higher genetic variability
A. filament
B. More vigorous offspring
B. pistil
C. stem C. No dependence on pollinators
D. sepal D. Vivipary
39. Which of the following is NOT part of the 45. Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamouus
female structure of a flower? flower if
A. filament A. Pollen matures before maturity of
B. style ovule
C. stigma B. Ovule mature before maturity of pollen
D. ovary C. Both ovule and pollen matures simulta-
40. Which part of the flower holds the pollen? neously
A. Filament D. Both anther and stigma are of equal
B. Anther length
C. Stigma 46. In a flower, if megaspore mother cell

D. Petals forms megaspore, without undergoing
meiosis and if one megaspore develops
41. The middle part of the pistil and a tube into an embryo sac its nuclei would be
where the pollen goes down.
A. Haploid
A. stem
B. style B. Diploid
C. anther C. A few haploid, a few diploid

D. filament D. With variable ploidy

47. Which of the following fruit is produced by 53. A particular species of a plant produces,
parthenocarpy? light non sticky, numerous pollen grains
and long and feathery stigma. These mod-

A. brinjal
ifications facilitates the pollination by
B. apple
A. Insects
C. banana
D. jackfruit B. Water
C. Wind
48. In the embryo of a typical dicot and a grass
true homologous structures are D. Animals
A. Coleorhiza, coleoptile 54. Grafting usually works best when plants
B. Coleoptile, scutellum are
C. Cotyledon, scutellum A. growing.
D. Hypocotyl, radicle B. germinating.
49. How can a plant be pollinated? C. dormant.
A. wind D. pollinating.
B. water
55. An angiosperms, flowers are adaptations
C. animals for reproduction. Which of the following
D. all of the above does NOT usually describe flowers that
are pollinated by animals?
50. Characteristics of animal pollinated flow-
ers usually include all EXCEPT A. They are tiny.
A. being large B. They are brightly colored.
B. producing a lot of nectar C. They produce nectar to attract pollina-
C. producing less pollen tors.
D. being small D. They pollinate more efficiently than
wind-pollinated plants.
51. During microsporogenesis meiosis occurs
in 56. Rewards and attractants are required for
A. Endothecium A. entomophily
B. Microspore mother cell B. cleistophily
C. Microspore tetrad C. anemophily
D. pollen grains D. hydrophily
52. In a fertilized embryo sac, haploid, diploid,
triploid structures are 57. Which organ produces egg cells?
A. Synergid, zygote, PEN A. The vagina

B. Synergids, antipodal, polar nuclei B. The fallopian Tubes
C. Antipodal, synergids, PEN C. The uterus
D. Synergids, polar nuclei, zygote D. The ovaries

2.3 Double fertilization 148
2.3 Double fertilization

1. In both the male gametes take part in 4. Two cells will be fertilized by two male ga-
the fertilization i.e. the fertilization takes metes. name the cells?
place twice. A. polar nuclei and synergid cells
A. triple fusion B. synergid and antipodal cells
B. double fertilization C. egg and polar nuclei cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. syngamy D. egg and antipodal cells
D. microsporogenesis
5. The process of transfer of pollen grains
2. How many nuclei are there in the embryo from an anther to the stigma of a flower
sac? is known as
A. fertilization
A. 4
B. pollination
B. 6
C. megasporogenesis
C. 8
D. microsporogenesis
D. 10
6. Formation of sperm cell from the pollen
3. State the function of triploid endosperm? grain are comes from
A. provide space to developing embryo A. Generative nucleus
B. provide nutrient to developing embryo B. Tube nucleus
C. to digest stigma C. Polar nuclei
D. to attract the pollen D. Triploid nuclei
2.4 Pollination
1. Why do bees need nectar? 3. Which of the following statements de-
A. to eat scribes the function of stomata?
B. to sleep A. Stomata release pollen from plants.
C. for honey B. Stomata transport water to leaves.
D. to be sticky C. Stomata allow the exchange of gases.

D. Stomata absorb energy from sunlight.
2. Which of the following structures is part of
the female reproductive system in plants 4. A sterile bee specialized to collect food and
(carpel)? maintain the hive.
A. Stigma A. Fuzz
B. Petal B. Thorax of the Bee
C. Filament C. Stinger
D. Anther D. Worker honeybee

2.4 Pollination 149
5. A sharp organ (as of a bee) that is usu- 10. What part of the plant will form the seed
ally connected with a poison gland or oth- after fertilisation has occurred?
erwise adapted to wound by piercing and

A. Ovule
injecting a poison
B. Ovary
A. stinger
C. Stamen
B. workerbee
C. larvae D. Pistil
D. fuzz 11. Which of the following indicates the path-

way of water through a plant?
6. Pollination is a form of
A. root hair cell → xylem → stomata
A. allergy
B. stomata → root hair cell → xylem
B. fertilization
C. xylem → stomata → root hair cell
C. female flower part
D. none of above
D. new life
7. When fertilization has occurred the fertil- 12. Which of the following animals help to
ized ovule changes and so does the ovary. carry pollen grains from the anthers to the
What do they turn into? stigma? A) Ant B) Bee C) Butterfly D) Fruit
fly
A. The fertilized ovule turns into a seed
and the ovary turns into the fruit or pod. A. A and B only
B. The ovule grows bigger B. B and C only
C. The fertilized ovule turns into the fruit C. A, B, C only

D. The fertilized ovule turns into honey D. B, C and D only
8. what are the characteristics of plants pol- 13. In what part of a plant does the process
linated by water? of photosynthesis occur?
A. small amount of pollen produced A. flower
B. large amount of pollen produced B. xylem
C. Flowers are small and inconspicuous C. leaves
D. have nectar and odour D. roots
9. Which word fits this definition? “a 14. Which of these conditions would decrease
place that looks like nothing could possibly the rate of photosynthesis in a plant?
grow there”
A. Giving the plant more water
A. volcano
B. Changing the daylight hours from 14
B. crater hrs to 10 hrs
C. vent C. Increasing the amount of carbon diox-
D. recover ide
E. wasteland D. All of these choices

2.4 Pollination 150
15. Examples of these plants include mosses, 21. What might happen if pollinators, like
liverworts, and other plants with no bees, went extinct?
xylem or phloem
A. humans would have less food choices
A. dicot
B. there would be no more pretty flowers
B. vascular plant
C. humans would be glad there were less
C. monocot
insects
D. nonvascular plant
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
16. Why do seeds contain a ‘food store’? (se-
lect all that apply) 22. Flowers make Choose ALL that are cor-
A. Unable to photosynthesise rect
B. Require it for aerobic respiration A. Pollen
C. Allows photosynthesis to occur B. Nectar
D. Allows carbon dioxide to diffuse C. Flower Dust
through the stomata
D. Seeds
17. A stinging winged insect that collects nec-
tar and pollen, produces wax and honey, 23. I have air spaces within my fruit. What is
and lives in large communities. my likely dispersal method?
A. Honeybee A. Self-dispersal
B. Pollen
B. Water dispersal
C. Thorax of the Bee
C. Animal dispersal
D. Fuzz
D. Wind dispersal
18. Bird-pollinated flowers typically have
A. Large amounts of nectar 24. The stork uses its saw-like bill to cut up
the dead animals it eats. As a result, the
B. No fragrance
dead animals carcass is accessible to some
C. Large amounts of pollen bees for food and egg laying.
D. A dull colour A. commensalism
19. What is NOT needed for photosynthesis? B. mutualism
A. Carbon Dioxide C. parasitism
B. Water
D. none of above
C. Sunlight
D. Oxygen 25. State the ideal characteristics for disper-
sion by wind.
20. What is nectar?
A. Small, light and hair-like
A. nectar is water with salt
B. nectar is orange tea B. Big, light and fibrous husk
C. is a sweet liquid made by a flower C. Small, light and sharp hook

D. none of above D. Big, light and explode

2.4 Pollination 151
26. Energy from helps with the process of 31. Pollinators are important to plants be-
photosynthesis. cause (select three)

A. the Sun A. plants need pollination to reproduce
B. water B. they ensure cross pollination which is
needed for genetic diversity in plants
C. food
C. pollinators need to eat
D. the ground
D. pollinators feed the plants
27. Breaks seed dormancy and promotes E. without pollination we would not have
growth (can make fruit bigger) fruits and vegetables to eat
A. Auxin
32. Which is NOT a part of the pistil?
B. Gibberellin
A. stigma
C. Cytokinins
B. style
D. Ethene
C. ovary
28. To produce new plants using sexual re- D. anther
production, they would have to be grown
from 33. Which of the following is NOT a pollinating
agent?
A. Buds
A. Bees
B. Seeds
B. Butterflies
C. Cuttings
C. Fire
D. Grafts
D. Wind
29. Pollination is the process of transferring E. Mammals
pollen from the anther of one flower to the
of another flower. 34. The role of the guard cell is to
A. filament A. help control the temperature of the
plant
B. style
B. control how much water enters the
C. stigma leaf
D. ovary C. control how much glucose is stored
E. ovule D. control the movement of water vapor
& gases
30. Which word could describe the stigma in a
wind pollinated flower? 35. where does reproduction occur?
A. feathery A. Petal
B. sticky B. Leaf
C. smooth C. Stem
D. light D. Flower

2.4 Pollination 152
36. Pick ALL those that gather pollen from 41. Which insect most likely helps the milk-
flowers. weed pollinate?
A. People A. Bees
B. Animals B. Hummingbirds
C. Bees C. Spiders
D. Hummingbirds D. Ants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
37. What is fertilisation? 42. Why do parent plants want their seeds to
A. The pollen grain land on the stigma, a disperse far away from them?
tube grows down the style and the pollen A. Sadly, we all have to leave home at
grain fuse with the egg. some point!
B. The ovules land on the anther, a tube B. To stop competition for the same re-
grows down the filament and the ovules sources
fuse with the pollen grain C. The parent plant is jealous of the
C. The pollen grain land on the ovary, a seedling
tube grows into the ovules and the pollen D. The parent plant feels it is important
grain fuse with the ovules. that the seed goes travelling before it
D. none of above commits to its new home
38. Pollen grains are produced by 43. Insects are responsible for pollinating
A. the anther A. Flowers
B. the stigma B. Grass
C. the ovules C. Trees
D. the ovary D. Nothing
39. Why it is better for seeds to be scattered 44. My pollens are usually sticky and spiky so
far and wide? that they can Which one of the follow-
A. To provide shelter to other animals. ing answers is incorrect?
B. For plants to have better chance of A. stick onto the stigma properly
growing healthier. B. stay on the pollinators’ body without
C. For farmers to see which soil is good. falling off easily
D. none of above C. prevent pollinators from eating them

D. none of above
40. Which of the following structures is part
of the male reproductive system in plants 45. Leaves look green because
(stamen)? A. they eat their vegetables
A. Anther B. to blend into their environment
B. Style C. they contain a molecule named chloro-
C. Ovary phyll
D. Sepal D. they are sick

2.4 Pollination 153
46. The plant has grown 4 cm since yesterday. 52. What part of the flower will turn into a
A. qualitative seed?
A. ovary

B. quantitative
B. anther
C. both
C. ovule
D. neither
D. filament
47. Which statement is NOT true concerning
angiosperms? 53. What is the male part of the flower
called?
A. Angiosperms are vascular plants.
A. pistil
B. Angiosperms usually form a fruit to
B. petal
protect their seeds.
C. stamen
C. Angiosperms produce cones.
D. leaf
D. Angiosperms produce flowers.
54. Where does an insect PICK UP pollen usu-
48. The part of the pistil between the stigma ally?
and the ovary.
A. Stamen
A. Petal
B. Pistil
B. Style
C. Ovary
C. Pollen D. Petals
D. Filament
55. Aides the bee in gathering pollen and reg-
49. When a seed starts to grow, the embryo ulates the bee’s body temperature.
gets nutrients from the A. Fuzz
A. seed coat B. Stinger
B. large vacuole C. Honeybee
C. cotyledon D. Head of the Bee
D. chloroplast 56. I have long and feathery stigma that sticks
50. The transfer of pollen from one plant to out of the flower. How am I likely to be
another plant is called? pollinated by?
A. By wind
A. Seed transfer
B. By insects
B. Mating
C. By water
C. Pollination
D. By explosive action
D. Flowering
57. What is the scientific name for the root
51. The leaves on the plant are turning brown. that first emerges from the seed?
A. qualitative A. Radicle
B. quantitative B. Plumule
C. both C. Monocot
D. neither D. Dicot

2.4 Pollination 154
58. Which word fits this definition? “to 64. A flower produces a lot of pollen grains
go back to normal condition” that are light, small and smooth. It
A. volcano has long filaments that dangle out of the
flower. This flower is most probably
B. crater found on a I lalang II hibiscus plantIII maize
C. vent plant
D. recover A. I and II only
E. wasteland B. I and III only
NARAYAN CHANGDER
59. Where are the female gametes found? C. II and III only
A. In the anther D. I, II and III
B. In the stigma
65. What is in the garden that you can pick and
C. In the ovules it smells so wonderful?
D. none of above
A. Flower
60. What is inside of the Ovary? B. pollen
A. Stem C. seed
B. Oval
D. none of above
C. Ovule(s)
D. Petal 66. Complete the analogy:Daffodil is to seed
as hummingbird is to
61. Seedless vascular plants include-
A. Beak
A. angiosperms, gymnsperms, and club
mosses B. Wing
B. ferns, horsetails, and club mosses C. Nest

C. algae, flagellates, and sporozoans D. Egg
D. mosses and algae
67. Which structure houses a plant’s pollen
62. Pollination is prior to pollination?
A. Insects carry pollen from plant to A. stamen
plant. B. pistil
B. Birds take seeds.
C. petal
C. Pollen is carried by the wind and ani-
mals. D. stem
D. Both A and C. 68. Photosynthesis occurs in which part of the

plants
63. Which part of the plant absorb water?
A. Twigs A. stamen
B. Leaves B. pistil
C. Stem C. roots
D. Roots D. leaves

2.4 Pollination 155
69. Fill in the blank. Pollen sticks to bees while C. None of these
they are collecting D. none of above

A. fruit
75. What might happen if there are no pollina-
B. nectar tors, like bees, butterflies, and humming
C. money birds?
D. none of above A. Seeds are not produced.
B. Seeds are produced.
70. You see a flower with 6 petals. It is most
C. Humans would be glad there were less
likely a:
insects and animals for pollination.
A. Monocot
D. none of above
B. Dicot
76. One reason for the decline of bees is the
C. Conifer use of these pesticides.
D. Fern A. nectarines
71. Male reproductive parts of a plant B. neonicotinoids
A. Petals and ovary C. nutmeg
B. Ovary and ovule D. neuropharmacists
C. Anther and filament 77. Animals pollinate plants

D. Stigma and style A. on purpose by moving pollen and nec-
tar
72. Which of these are pollinators? B. because they dislike the taste of pollen
A. A bee and nectar
B. A dog C. accidentally when they feed on differ-
C. The wind ent flowers
D. by transferring pollen to humans
D. Water
E. All of the above and more 78. What does the text describe?
A. the process by which a seed grows
73. What is an example of water dispersal? into a flower
A. grass seed B. different ways pollen gets moved from
B. pine cones one part of the flower to another part of a
flower
C. coconuts
C. different flowers and the places where
D. dandelions
they grow
74. Why in wind pollinated flowers anthers D. none of above
are loosely attached to the Filaments
79. The root of a plant growing down.
A. So that the slight wind may move them
A. Positive Gravitropism
by which the pollen grains are been trans-
ferred. B. Negative Gravitropism
B. Wind can make the anthers to germi- C. Thigmotropism
nate D. Hydrotropism

2.4 Pollination 156
80. After fertilization, each forms a seed, C. Geitonogamy

while each forms a fruit. D. Dichogamy
A. ovary ovule
86. Seed structure that stores nutrients
B. ovule ovary
A. radicle
C. egg ovary B. plumule
D. pollen ovary C. testa
E. ovary pollen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. endosperm
81. What substance turns the sunlight into en- 87. What is the pistil?
ergy for the plant? A. the male part of the flower
A. Chlorophyll B. the female part of the flower
B. Carbon dioxide C. he fruit of the flower
C. Water D. the petals of the flower
D. Enzymes
88. Mechanisms that ensure self-pollination in-
82. Where do most plants start their life cy- clude:
cle? A. Chasmogamy
A. Roots B. Cleistogamy
B. Soil C. Both 1 and 2
C. Leaves D. None of the above
D. Seed 89. What plant structure attracts pollinators?
83. The male part of the plant that sits on top A. leaves
of the filament B. roots
A. Stamen C. stems
B. Stigma D. flowers
C. Anther 90. How does carbon dioxide get into the
D. Style leaves of a plant?
A. It’s absorbed by the roots
84. The waxy, waterproof layer that covers
B. It’s made in a chemical reaction in the
most leaves is called the what?
stem
A. spore
C. It enters through the stomata
B. cuticle D. It goes through the flowers
C. seed coat
91. rom where plants take energy to make
D. xylem their food?
85. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to A. Soil
stigma of same flower B. Water
A. Allogamy C. Sun
B. Autogamy D. Oxygen

2.4 Pollination 157
92. Chlorophyll absorbs light. C. Style

A. red-blue D. Pollen

B. yellow 98. Why is fruit formed around an apple
C. green seed?
D. light greens A. Fruit is formed around the seed to pro-
tect it.
93. what are the characteristics of a flower
B. Fruit is not formed around the seed.
that is pollinated by wind?
C. Fruit is everywhere.
A. small amount of pollen produced
D. Fruit is different color.
B. stigmas hang out of the flower
C. colorful petals 99. holds the anther up
D. sticky stigma A. ovary
B. pistil
94. Place the following categories in order
from LEAST to MOST specific:A) mono- C. carpel
cot, B) angiosperm, C) eukaryote, D) seed D. filament
plant
100. The fruit developed from the flower’s
A. B A C D
A. carpel
B. C D B A
B. stigma
C. D A B C
C. filament
D. A C D B
D. ovary
95. Which of the following describes dispersal
101. Select ALL of the environmental factors
of seeds?
that would increase transpiration.
A. Seeds are planted. A. Increased humidity
B. Transfer of pollen grains. B. Increased wind speed
C. Stay in one place. C. Increased temperature
D. Transport seeds. D. Decreased surface area
96. An immature form of other animals that 102. Which part of the flower is brightly
undergo some metamorphosis. coloured and attracts insects?
A. Larvae A. anther
B. Fuzz B. stigma
C. Queen honeybee C. petal
D. Head of the bee D. filament
97. What is the term given to a fertilised ovule 103. Which word fits this definition? “the
in a plant? opening of a volcano”
A. Seed A. volcano
B. Stamen B. crater

2.4 Pollination 158
C. vent 109. Sometimes animals will seeds and

D. recover then forget to come back for them.
E. wasteland A. carry
B. hide
104. Where is pollen produced
C. drop
A. Petals
D. eat
B. Ovary
110. My pods dry and split open suddenly
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Stigma
which throws their seeds for some dis-
D. Anther tance. What is my dispersal method?
105. Which of the following is/are types of A. Wind
pollination? A) wind pollination B) Insect B. Water
pollination C) water pollination D) explo-
sive pollination C. Explosion
A. B only D. Animal
B. A and B only 111. Pollen is mostly in color.

C. A, C and D only A. black
D. All of the above B. green
106. good eyesight, intelligent, mostly noc- C. blue

turnal, good sense of smell. These are D. yellow
all characteristics of Australian pollinators
that are: 112. A plant has big anthers that dangle out
from the flower on long filaments. It has
A. insects a long and hairy stigma. The pollen grains
B. birds are most probably transferred by
C. mammals A. animals
D. none of above B. wind
107. How can humans help pollinators? C. human
A. plant flowers that they like to drink the D. water

nectar from 113. Flowering plants, such as rose bushes
B. put them in zoos and cherry trees, -
C. give them water A. lack xylem and phloem
D. eat more fruit B. reproduce only by spores
108. The leaves of a flower are scientifically C. have cones to protect their seeds
known as D. are classified as angiosperms
A. petals 114. What is the baby plant in the seed
B. sepals called?
C. filaments A. pollen
D. stigma B. seedling

2.4 Pollination 159
C. embryo D. It is probably pollinated by an insect

D. zygote that is attracted to that color.

115. All the parts of the flower work together 120. The two structures that limit transpira-
to produce tion are known as
A. pollen A. Guard cells and xylem
B. seeds B. Stomata and guard cells
C. sticky stigma C. xylem and phloem
D. the ovule D. stomata and phloem
116. How can a plant disperse its seeds to a 121. Fruit

new location? A. protects and holds the seeds
A. By wind B. Vegetable
B. By water C. Fruit
C. By animals D. All of them
D. All of the above
122. How does most of the water needed by
117. What can you infer about flowers that the plant get into its leaves?
are pollinated by bats (which are noctur-
A. It enters through the stomata
nal animals)?
B. The roots absorb it and then it travels
A. They are probably located in caves.
up the xylem
B. They probably contain no pollen.
C. It’s made during a chemical reaction in
C. They probably bloom at night. the stem
D. They are probably very brightly col- D. The flowers capture water and deliver
ored. it to the leaves
118. Chlorophyll causes many plants to be 123. Why do fruits taste sweet?
what color?
A. So people buy them
A. yellow
B. So animals eat them and disperse the
B. green seeds inside
C. brown C. Insects are attracted to them
D. orange
D. So they will grow better
119. What can you infer about a brightly-
124. How does a honeybee collect pollen?
colored flower?
A. It swallows the pollen.
A. It can only be pollinated by birds, not
insects. B. It brushes against the pollen as it col-
lects nectar.
B. It has a greater chance of pollination
than a dull-colored flower. C. It puts the pollen in a special pouch in
C. Its pollen is probably the same bright its abdomen.
color. D. It rubs the pollen on its wings.

2.4 Pollination 160
125. Which word fits this definition? “an 130. cells open and close the stomata
opening in the Earth’s surface where gas, A. palisade
ash and magma erupt”
B. guard
A. volcano
C. xylem
B. crater
D. epidermis
C. vent
131. Choose the wrong feature of wind polli-
D. recover
NARAYAN CHANGDER
nated flowers.
E. wasteland A. Flowers are small
126. Which of the following is not a main form B. Long and Hang out
of assistance for the pollination of flow- C. Not brightly coloured
ers?
D. Produces smell
A. animals
132. The middle division of the body of an in-
B. wind
sect, to which the wings and legs are at-
C. heat tached.
D. insects A. Beehives
127. What chemical found in plant cells is able B. Larvae

to use the energy in sunlight to make C. Fuzz
food? D. Thorax of the Bee
A. cytoplasm
133. The main job of plant roots is
B. chlorophyll
A. to conduct photosynthesis and to pro-
C. lactic acid duce sugar
D. sulfuric acid B. to make seeds and prepare the plant
for pollination
128. Dispersion means to
C. to hold the plant in place and absorb
A. plant seeds water and minerals
B. pollinate plants D. to provide a tasty treat for the animals
C. transport seeds that dig them up and eat them
D. stay in one place 134. What structure of the plant holds the em-
bryo?
129. What is the main idea of this text?
A. Stem
A. Many people sneeze and get stuffy
B. Seed
noses in the springtime because of pollen.
C. Flower
B. The process of pollination makes it
possible for plants to make new seeds. D. Fruit
C. Corn has light and dusty pollen that 135. What changes can happen in the flower
can get blown long distances by the wind. after fertilization?
D. none of above A. ovules → seeds / ovary → fleshy fruit

2.4 Pollination 161
B. ovary → seeds / ovules → fleshy fruit 141. is the transfer of pollen grain from
C. stamen → seeds / stigma → fleshy the anther to the stigma within one flower
or between flowers of the same kind.

fruit
D. stigma → seeds / stamen → fleshy A. Reproduction
fruit B. Pollination
136. Angiosperms are often described as ubiq- C. Flowering
uitous since they are found in so many en- D. Germination
vironments. What is the best synonym for
“ubiquitous? ” 142. What part of the plant makes pollen?
A. Uncommon A. fruit
B. Omnipresent B. stamen
C. Sproadic C. Pistil
D. Intermittent D. none of above
137. What are the products of photosynthesis 143. What happens when plants are polli-
(what is made)? nated?
A. Glucose and Chlorophyll A. Flowers die
B. Glucose and Oxygen B. Seeds reproduce
C. Water and Light C. Bees eat nectar
D. Carbon dioxide and Water D. none of above
138. Vascular plants with seeds are split into 144. Which group shows the best answer for
what two groups? agents of pollination?
A. angiosperms & bryosperms A. fire, water, wind
B. gymnosperms & angiosperms
B. animals, fire, wind
C. gametophytes & sporophytes
C. wind, water, animals
D. sporophytes & gymnosperms
139. What part of the plant will form the fruit
after fertilisation has occurred? 145. An animal that transfers pollen from
plant to plant is known as a
A. Ovule
A. pollinator
B. Ovary
B. pollen carrier
C. Stamen
C. pollock gator
D. Pistil
D. pollen transferrer
140. The part of the flower that becomes
seeds 146. What is the MALE structure of the plant?
A. ovary A. Stamen
B. ovule B. Ovary
C. pollen C. Pistil
D. all of the above D. Chloroplasts

2.4 Pollination 162
147. Plants need to conduct photosynthe- 153. Which is NOT a characteristic of flowers
sis that are pollinated by wind?
A. Oxygen A. feathery stigma
B. Soil B. light
C. Carbon dioxide C. sweet nectar
D. Sugar D. small petals
NARAYAN CHANGDER
148. What can happen when a bee moves 154. What food does a plant create for itself?
pollen from one flower to another A. Sugar
flower?
B. Honey
A. The second flower loses its petals.
C. Water
B. The bee starts to make nectar.
D. Soil
C. The second flower plant makes new
seeds. 155. What is another name for a fertilized
D. none of above ovule?
A. a pistil
149. what is pollination by wind called?
B. a stamen
A. zoophily
C. an anther
B. aneamophily
D. a seed
C. airophilly
D. none of the above 156. Poison Ivy growing on a tree by touch.
A. Gravitropism
150. Where are the female sex cells found?
B. Phototropism
A. In the anther
C. Thigmotropism
B. In the stigma
D. Hydrotropism
C. In the ovules
D. none of above 157. What do the bees do when it travels from
one flower to another?
151. The female part of a flower is the A. Attract
A. Leaves B. reproduce
B. Stigma C. Pollinate
C. Pistil D. none of above
D. Flowers
158. According to the text, what process
152. Xylem and phloem are examples of makes it possible for plants to make new
tissue seeds?
A. Spores A. hibernation
B. Nonvascular B. recycling
C. Seeds C. pollination
D. Vascular D. none of above

2.4 Pollination 163
159. What are the small, green leaf-like struc- C. Animals

tures that protect the flower when it is a D. All of them
bud?

A. Seeds 165. Insect-pollinated flowers typically have
B. Pollen A. Small, inconspicuous flowers
C. Petals B. No scent
D. Sepals C. Light, powdery pollen grains
D. Relatively large, and often sticky
160. What part of the flower must the pollen grains of pollen
go down to reach the egg?
A. Pistil 166. When pollen fertilizes an ovule, it’s called
B. Stamen
A. Pollination
C. Flower
B. Fertilization
D. Anther
C. Photosynthesis
161. What is the pigment in chloroplasts that D. Condensation
performs photosynthesis?
A. Chlorosynthesis 167. Which of the followings are characteris-
tics of insect-pollinated flowers:
B. Chlorophyll
A. Large and brightly coloured petals.
C. ADP
B. Scented flowers.
D. Electron Transport
C. Parts of the stamens hang outside the
162. A relationship in which two species live flower.
closely together. D. Small sticky stigmas, and found within
A. resource the flower.
B. mutualism E. Do not produce nectar.
C. succession 168. This part of the bee has eyes, antennae
D. symbiosis and mouth.
163. pollen in wind pollinated flowers are , A. Head of the Bee

and B. Stinger
A. dry, smooth, heavy C. Pollen
B. wet, rough, light D. Fuzz
C. dry, smooth, light 169. What part of the flower catches the
D. wet, smooth, heavy pollen?
164. Which of them are agents of cross polli- A. Anther

nation. B. Style
A. Wind C. Stigma
B. Water D. Filament

2.4 Pollination 164
170. The of one flower receives pollen C. nectar

grains from another flower.
D. sugar
A. anther
B. ovary 176. When a plant bends towards a light
source, this is known as:
C. style
A. positive geotropism
D. stigma
B. negative geotropism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
171. Which function is shared by roots and
C. positive phototropism
stems, but not by leaves?
D. negative phototropism
A. Food production
B. Camouflage 177. Fusion of male and female gametes give
C. Structure and support
D. Reproduction A. zygote
B. fruit
172. The travels to the during fertiliza-
tion to form a seed. C. ovule
A. anther travels to the ovule D. pollen
B. pollen travels to the ovule
178. These types of plants are able to grow
C. anther travels to thestigma taller because of the added support and
D. pollen travels to the stigma faster nutrient transport of xylem and
phloem.
173. When pollen grains land on the stigma,
A. Seedless plants
each pollen grain produces
B. Vascular plants
A. sugary fluid
B. pollen tube C. Seeded plants
C. micropyle D. Nonvascular plants

D. style 179. Animals that help move pollen are called..
174. What are pollinators? A. pollen people
A. Pollinators are things that carry pollen B. pollen movers
from flower to flower
C. pollen groups
B. I don’t know
D. pollinators
C. Pollinator are a type of pollen that can
move on its own 180. Bees go from flower to flower are to get
D. none of above to what?
A. stamen
175. The yellow powder insects move from
the stamen to the pistil is called B. nectar
A. pollen C. pollen
B. Glucose D. none of above

2.4 Pollination 165
181. Flowering plants? 187. The male part of the flower is called
A. angiosperms A. stigma

B. gymnosperms B. stamen
C. mosses C. petal
D. ferns D. sepal
188. Wind-pollinated flowers typically have
182. Endosperm is formed during the double
fertilization by A. A scent
A. ovum and male gamete B. Nectar

C. Small, light and powdery pollen
B. two polar nuclei and one male gamete
D. Large and colourful petals
C. one polar nuclei and one male gamete
D. two polar nuclei and two male gamete 189. Which of the following parts of the flow-
ers continue to develop after fertilisa-
183. Which of these is not a plant organ? tion?
A. roots A. Stigma
B. xylem B. Pollen grain

C. Style
C. stems
D. Ovary
D. leaves
E. Ovule
184. Seeds need and warmth to germi-
190. Which is NOT a way that plants attract
nate.
pollinators?
A. water
A. Color
B. soil B. Shape/Structure
C. heat C. Smell
D. light D. Magnetism
185. What is a pistil? 191. What are the products of photosynthe-
sis?
A. stigma + style + ovule
A. water and carbon dioxide
B. filament + anther
B. oxygen and glucose
C. stigma + filament + pollen
C. oxygen and carbon dioxide
D. petal + sepal
D. oxygen and water
186. A relationship between two organisms in 192. What is the term for a plant’s food mak-
which both organisms benefit. ing process?
A. Mutualism A. Photosynthesis
B. Competition B. Fertilization
C. Parasitsm C. Pollination
D. Commensalism D. Carbonation

2.4 Pollination 166
193. are the part of the plant used in mak- 198. What part of the plant attracts bees to
ing new plants by making seeds and some- aid in pollination?
times fruit or vegetables. A. Petals
A. Roots B. Sepals
B. Flowers C. Stamen
C. Leaves D. none of above
D. Stems
199. A plant’s vascular system is most similar
NARAYAN CHANGDER
194. How does insect pollination benefit the to what system in the human body?
insect?
A. Circulatory
A. The insect uses the fertilized ovule as
B. Immune
food.
C. Nervous
B. The insect uses the plant’s nectar as
food. D. Digestive
C. The insect uses the plant’s pollen as 200. A flower benefits from a pollinator be-
food. cause the flower will be able to
D. The insect uses the plant’s leaves and A. reproduce
petals as food.
B. change color
195. Pollen moves from the C. grow thistles
A. stamen to the pistil. D. speak
B. pistil to the stamen.
201. Which seeds use the wind to travel from
C. stamen to the petal. their parent plant?
D. stigma to the sepal. A. Acorns
196. Which of them is a characteristic of wind B. Dandelion seeds
pollinated flowers
C. Apple seeds
A. These flowers are large with coloured
D. Coconuts
petals, to attract insects.
B. Male and female flowers are borne on 202. Part of pistil which turns to seed after
separate plants. fertilization
C. Pollen grains are produced in large A. Placenta
number B. Petals
D. They are usually small and are of dull C. Ovary
colours.
D. Ovules
197. Flowers pollinated by insects have
203. Why do humans care about pollination of
brightly coloured and scented
plants?
A. sepals
A. because they produce the crops that
B. petals we consume.
C. stigmas B. because we extract medicine from
D. stamens plants.

2.4 Pollination 167
C. because they look wonderful. 209. Which word fits this definition? “A
D. All of the above. BIG HOLE IN THE EARTH”

A. VOLCANO
204. What is part of the some plants that have
B. CRATER
seeds and is usually sweet?
C. VENT
A. The fruit
D. RECOVER
B. Pistil
E. WASTELAND
C. pollen
D. What 210. Why are flowers colourful?
A. To attract insects for pollination
205. If guard cells are swollen with water,
then the are more likely to be B. To produce good seeds from the flow-
ers
A. OPEN
C. To produce good fruits
B. CLOSED
D. To help the plant making food
C. Cannot tell-the water amount doesn’t
affect it at all. 211. After a pollen grain has reached the
stigma, it travels through the to reach
D. none of above
the ovary.
206. What is the main difference between the A. style
two types of cones produced by conifers? B. stalk
A. One is a monocot, one is a dicot C. stigma
B. ONe falls off the tree in autumn and the D. stem
other stays on
212. Gases pass in and out of a leaf through
C. One contains seeds, the other doesn’t
the what?
D. One contains chlorophyll, one doesn’t
A. vascular tissue
207. The mother of most of the bees in the bee- B. nasal pores
hive.
C. stomata
A. Worker Honeybee D. cell wall
B. Honeybee
213. Which does not belong in the female part
C. Queen Honeybee of the flower?
D. Larvae A. style
208. What are the agents required for cross B. stigma
pollination C. filament
A. Plants D. ovaries
B. Insects
214. The process of the pollen fusing with the
C. Water ovule is called
D. Wind A. pollination

2.4 Pollination 168
B. fertilisation 221. After being pollinated, a flower will pro-

C. germination duce a
D. reproduction A. seed
215. How many types of pollinaion are there B. another flower
A. 3 C. magic spell
B. 2 D. bird
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 4 222. What 3 things in a flower attract pollina-
D. 1 tors?
216. Who is the most famous pollenator? A. Big petals, chocolate flavor and deli-
cious honey inside.
A. Snake
B. Ant B. Colorful petals, yummy nectar and
long sepals.
C. Honey bee
C. Pale petals, long sepals and yummy
D. Sponge Bob
honey.
217. What will the ovlues become after fertil- D. Colorful petals, yummy nectar and
isation? strong scent.
A. Fruit
223. Photosynthesis can only occur in organ-
B. Seed
ism that has?
C. Flower
A. Cell wall
D. none of above
B. Chloroplast
218. What does a plant GIVE OFF during pho-
C. Vacuole
tosynthesis?
A. Pollen D. Epiderm
B. Oxygen 224. I have long and feathery stigma that

C. Carbon dioxide sticks out of the flower. How am I pol-
linated?
D. Chlorophyll
A. By wind
219. Glucose is a
B. By insects
A. sugar
C. By water
B. carbohydrate
C. source of quick energy D. By explosive action
D. all are correct 225. Which part of the flower is the tube
pollen goes through to meet the ovules?
220. There are how many agents.
A. 2 A. filament
B. 1 B. style
C. 3 C. stigma
D. none of above D. anther

2.4 Pollination 169
226. What is the center of the flower where B. Brightly coloured

the pollen sticks to called? C. Light and Smooth

A. the pollen dusters D. Produces smell
B. the stigma
231. What three conditions are required if a
C. the petals seed is to germinate (select all that apply)
D. the ovule A. Water
227. What do pollinators do? B. Oxygen
A. catch pollen with a sticky substance C. Temperature
B. carry pollen from the anther to the D. Carbon dioxide

ovules E. Nitrogen
C. use of most of the energy of the plant 232. Why do insects go to the flowers?
D. carry pollen from one plant to another A. to get pollen
228. What is the difference between self pol- B. to feed on nectar
lination and cross pollination? C. they like the colourful flowers
A. Silly Miss Megan-there is no differ- D. They like the smell
ence!
233. Honeybees and flowers have a mutually-
B. Self pollination is on the same plant, beneficial relationship. What does “mutu-
but cross pollination is where pollen from ally beneficial” mean?
that plant gets taken to another plant of
the same species. A. Both organisms benefit
B. One organism benefits but the other
C. Self pollination is done by the wind and
doesn’t
cross pollination is done by the bees.
C. One organism benefits but the other is
D. none of above
harmed
229. Check all of the ways that pollinators D. One organism benefits and the other is
help with pollination. unaffected
A. Pollinators move pollen from one 234. Which of the following is the correct
flower to another equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
B. Pollinators pick up seeds from the A. CO2 + light + H2O → O2 + Sugar
ground
B. CO2 + sugar + H2O → O2 + light
C. Pollinators move pollen from the sta-
men to the pistil C. O2 + light + H2O → CO2 + Sugar
D. CO2 + O2 + H2O → Light+ Sugar
D. Pollinators eat the pollen
E. Pollinators help the plant make new 235. The formula for glucose is
seeds A. C12 H22 O11
230. Choose the correct feature of wind polli- B. NaCl
nated flowers. C. NaOH
A. Produces Nectar D. C6 H12 O6

2.4 Pollination 170
236. Which category includes all the others? 242. The female part of the flower is called
A. Conifer A. stamen
B. Evergreen B. pistil
C. Pine C. leaf
D. Fir D. root
237. Place the events in sequence:A) pollen is
243. What can you infer about flowers that
NARAYAN CHANGDER
deposited on the pistil, B) pollen fertilizes
are pollinated by bats?
an egg, C) a honeybee collects pollen
A. They are probably located in caves
A. B C A
B. A C B B. They probably contain no pollen
C. C A B C. They probably bloom at night
D. B A C D. They are probably very brightly col-

ored
238. All of these are needed for the process of
photosynthesis except: 244. Place the following events in sequence:A)
Pollen is deposited on a pistil; B) Pollen
A. light energy from the sun
fertilizes an ovule; C) A honeybee collects
B. water pollen
C. oxygen A. B, C, A
D. carbon dioxide B. A, C, B
239. I have parachute like shape. What is C. C, A, B
likely my dispersal method?
D. B, A, C
A. Water
B. Wind 245. Which type of pollination is examplified
in the video? (Hint:Name the type of
C. Explosion pollination on the basis of the pollinating
D. Animal agent)
240. Why do living things reproduce? A. Entmophilous
A. Living things do not have a choice. B. Ornithophilous

B. To ensure continuity of their kind. C. Anemophilous
C. To ensure consistency in their kind. D. None
D. none of above 246. The very tiny grains produced by the
241. what is the name of pollination by wa- flower that fertilize the seeds and usually
ter? appear as fine yellow dust.
A. hygrophily A. Pollen
B. hydrophily B. Larvae
C. waterophily C. Fuzz
D. zoophilly D. Plants

2.4 Pollination 171
247. Which statement correctly identifies the A. A and B only

substance and direction it is transported in
B. B and C only
the xylem?

A. Water, only upwards C. C and D only
B. Glucose, only upwards D. A, B and C only

C. Water, up and down the plant 253. Bees’ original motive to go from flower
D. Glucose, up and down the plant to flower are to get to what?
248. A structure in which bees are kept, typi- A. stamen

cally in the form of a dome or box. B. nectar
A. Honeybee C. pollen
B. Larvae
D. none of above
C. Beehive
D. Fuzz 254. One role of the fruit of a flower is to
A. provide nutrition
249. In nature, flowers are pollinated by
and B. keep zygotes away
A. wind C. taste good to animals
B. water D. make the flower look pretty
C. butterflies
255. The shoot of a plant growing up.
D. humans
A. Positive Gravitropism
250. What gas do plants need to make their
own food through photosynthesis? B. Negative Gravitropism
A. oxygen C. Thigmotropism
B. carbon dioxide D. Hydrotropism
C. helium
256. What part of the plant absorbs carbon
D. neon dioxide?
251. A plant growing in response to the sun- A. stem
light. B. roots
A. Gravitropism
C. leaves
B. Phototropism
D. flower
C. Thigmotropism
D. Hydrotropism 257. what are the two types of pollination
A. Simple pollination
252. What are the characteristic of the seeds
dispersed by man and animals? A:Can B. Self pollination
float on water B:Sweet and juicyC:Have
C. Complex pollination
hooks or stiff hairs D:Have wing-like struc-
tures and are light D. Cross pollination

2.4 Pollination 172
258. The ovary is to the egg carton as the 264. Scientific name of Wind Pollination.
ovule is to the
A. Anemophilous
A. pollen
B. Hydrophily
B. style
C. Entomophily
C. seed
D. none of above
D. egg
265. When pollen is moved from one part of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
259. Which transport process occurs during
a flower to another to make seeds, this is
transpiration?
called
A. Diffusion
A. a life cycle
B. Osmosis
B. pollination
C. Active transport
C. seed movement
D. none of above
D. growing
260. What does scented mean?
266. I have large petals and are usually
A. colourful
brightly coloured. How am I pollinated?
B. very pretty
A. By animals
C. very quiet
B. By birds
D. smells nice
C. By insects
261. What is honey bee covered with all over
D. All of the above
its body when it helps in pollination?
A. Fur 267. Seeds and plants that remain inactive un-
B. Dust til the right conditions (light, weather, etc)
are called
C. Pollen Grains
A. pollen
D. Food particles
B. recycled
262. What are other unique ways of pollina-
C. flowers
tion?
A. Hand D. dormant
B. Brush 268. Bears and coyotes both consume large

C. Drone plant-eating mammals such as deer. When
the deer are in short supply, bears and coy-
D. All of the Above
otes may fight over the prey. This type of
263. How does pollen reach the ovule? biological interaction is called
A. Stigma → Style A. commensalism

B. Style → stigma B. mutualism
C. Ovary → stigma C. parasitism
D. Ovary → style D. competition

2.4 Pollination 173
269. Where is the seed made in the plant B. Competition

A. Leaf C. Parasitsm

B. Stem D. Commensalism
C. Sepal 275. What part of the beetles body does the
D. Ovary pollen stick to?
A. head
270. What is germination?
B. body
A. Germination is when a plant starts to
grow. C. legs
B. Germination is the production of new D. thorax
fruit to a plant. 276. Which is not an example of self-
C. Germination is when a seed is planted pollination?
in the soil. A. pollen falls from a flower onto it’s own
D. Germination is when roots start to stigma
grow down in the soil. B. the pollen from one flower falls onto
the stigma of a different plant
271. What part of the flower holds the
pollen? C. the pollen from one flower falls onto
the stigma of another flower of the same
A. stem
plant
B. anther D. none of above
C. pistil
277. Which choice correctly shows the gases
D. flower that enter and exit plants during photosyn-
272. What does the stigma of a flower feel thesis?
like? A. Enter:OxygenExit:Carbon dioxide
A. it is gooey B. Enter:Water vaporExit:Glucose
B. it is dry C. Enter:Carbon dioxideExit:Oxygen
C. it prickly D. Enter:LightExit:Water vapor
D. it is sticky 278. What structure has to form to allow
pollen to reach the ovule
273. Which hormone promotes seed germina-
tion? A. Enzymes
A. abscisic acid B. Pollen drill
B. ethylene C. Style tube

D. Pollen tube
C. gibberellin
D. auxin 279. What is photosynthesis?
A. a process used by plants to obtain food
274. A relationship between two organisms in
which one organism benefits and the other B. when roots make energy
is unharmed C. chemical energy
A. Mutualism D. another word for fungus

2.4 Pollination 174
280. The fruits hold inside of them. D. All of the above.

A. seeds
286. The produces pollen grains.
B. leaves
A. ovary
C. roots
B. anther
D. stems
C. stigma
281. Pollination makes seeds and those seeds
can grow into.. D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. pollen 287. I have parachute like structures. What is
B. honey my likely dispersal method?
C. fruit A. Self-dispersal
D. none of above B. Water dispersal
282. I have fibrous husk. What is my likely C. Animal dispersal
dispersal method?
D. Wind dispersal
A. Self-dispersal
B. Water dispersal 288. Why do seeds disperse?
C. Animal dispersal A. To move away for their parent plant
D. Wind dispersal B. Increase their chance of survival
283. What is the term for pollen being trans- C. Find enough space to get light, water
ferred from the stamen to the pistil? and nutrients from the soil.
A. Pollination D. All of these reasons
B. Germination
289. As the fruit develops, why do the petals,
C. Photosynthesis stamen, and sepals fall off?
D. Carbonation
A. The fruit absorbs them, which gives
284. What is the meaning of Phile in the fruit its color.
Anemophilous? B. They are no longer needed by the
A. Affinity plant.
B. Wind C. The petals, stamen, and sepals be-
C. Water come the skin of the fruit.
D. Pollination D. The flower has become dehydrated.
285. In self-incompatible species: 290. In what order does water pass through
A. Self-pollination does not lead to seed plant parts?
formation. A. Roots > stem > leaves
B. Pollen grains of a flower do not germi- B. Stem > leaves > roots
nate on the stigma of the same flower.
C. Roots > leaves > fruits
C. There is presence of similar self-
sterile genes. D. Roots > leaves > roots

2.4 Pollination 175
291. How does the pollen tube grow through 296. In a flower, what most likely happens
the style? when pollen from the stamen gets into the
ovary?

A. It releases acids
A. The plant dies.
B. It releases digestive enzymes
B. A seed develops.
C. The eats through it
C. The flower closes
D. none of above
D. The sepal changes color.
292. Which of these are one of the agents of
pollination? 297. Which is a pollinator
A. scorpion
A. Fire
B. elephants
B. Air
C. bees
C. Water
D. lions
D. Heat
298. The substance that makes plants green is
293. These help the plant to reproduce. known as
A. flowers A. Sepal
B. stems B. Stem
C. leaves C. Water
D. roots D. Chlorophyll
294. Which statement best describes pollina- 299. I have hooks to attach to animal fur.
tion? What is my dispersal method?
A. The transfer of pollen grains form the A. Wind
anther to the stigma B. Water
B. The transfer of pollen grains from the C. Explosion
stigma to the anther D. Animal
C. The transfer of pollen grains from the
300. The female bee that lays the egg is called
pistil to the stamen
the
D. A bee coming to a flower for nectar
A. worker
295. Which of the following statements de- B. queen
scribes the function of xylem? C. bees
A. Xylem stores extra nutrients for later D. drone
use by plants.
301. Name the floral rewards provided to an-
B. Xylem transports water and minerals
imals that help in pollination.
from roots to leaves.
A. Nectar
C. Xylem absorbs sunlight needed for
photosynthesis. B. Pollen Grains
D. Xylem delivers gases to plant stems C. Both 1 and 2
and leaves. D. None of these

2.4 Pollination 176
302. Which flower did the video suggest is the C. Grass is pollinated by wind, flowers
most beautiful? are pollinated by animals
A. Rose D. Grass has large, heavy pollen grains,
B. Tulip flowers have small, fine grains of pollen
C. Orchid
308. Seeds move by means of:
D. Milkweed
A. wind.
303. Moths and bats are attracted to flowers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. animals’ excrements.
of which color?
C. attaching to people and animals.
A. Red
B. Blue D. all of the above.
C. White 309. flowers that rely on birds for pollination

D. Purple have
304. flowers that rely on insects for pollina- A. large anthers exposed
tion have B. are often red
A. large anthers exposed C. produce lots of nectar at night
B. are often red
D. brightly coloured petals
C. produce lots of nectar at night
D. brightly coloured petals 310. The movement of pollen from one plant
to another is called
305. The reproductive cells in the flower are
A. dispersion
A. pollen B. pollination
B. ovules C. fruits
C. gametes D. seedlings
D. stigma
311. Bees see this color as black.
306. I have large petals and am unusually A. Red
brightly colored. How am I pollinated?
B. Yellow
A. By animals
B. By birds C. Blue
C. By insects D. Purple
D. All of the above
312. Which condition is NOT needed for germi-
307. How does the pollination of grass differ nation?
from the pollination of flowers? A. Water
A. Grass self-pollinates, flowers need to B. Oxygen
get pollen from other flowers
C. Light
B. Grass pollinates in the spring, flowers
pollinate in the fall D. Suitable temperature

2.4 Pollination 177
313. What is NOT a way that plants get polli- 319. What is the step that should take place
nated? just before fertilization?

A. wind A. Germination
B. animals B. Photosynthesis
C. electricity C. Pollination
D. water D. Transpiration
314. Pollen is to stamen as is to pistil. 320. Which characteristics of plants pollinated

by wind and insects is not true? Charac-
A. ovule
teristics Pollinated Pollinated by wind by
B. anther insects
C. honeybee A. Pollen Size Small Big
D. wind B. Style Long Short
315. How can flowers get pollinated? C. Stalk Long/ Outside the Short leaf
D. Scent Fragrant Fragrant
A. By using pollinators, like bees.
B. By using the wind. 321. Why the wind pollinated flowers aren’t
brightly coloured?
C. By self-pollination.
A. Need not attract insects because they
D. All of the above.
are pollinated by water
316. What is the male part of a flower? B. Need not attract insects because they
A. pistil are pollinated by wind
B. petal C. The colour of petals will give stamina

for pollination
C. stamen
D. None of these
D. stigma
322. Which of the following is true about the
317. What part of the seed contains the new relationship between bees and pollen?
plant?
A. pollen is food for bees
A. the embryo
B. Bees need pollen to fuel their busy
B. the seed coat days
C. the roots C. Bees use pollen to build their hives
D. all of the above D. All of the above
318. Which of the following can be found 323. Pollination is important because
growing on a gymnosperm?
A. pollen is important to bees.
A. Grapes
B. it is necessary for the production of
B. Flower seeds to create new plants and fruits.
C. Pineapple C. it is necessary to make more pollen.
D. Pine cone D. it is needed to help insects live.

2.4 Pollination 178
324. What is function of micropyle of seed? 330. State the characters ideal for dispersion
A. protects the seed by wind.
B. stores food A. Small, light and hair-like
C. attaches the seed to the ovary wall B. Small, light and sharp hooks
D. allows air and water to enter the seed C. Big, light and fibrous husk
325. Pollination is important because it helps D. Big, light and explode
in making new .
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. animals 331. Why do we need to protect bees?
B. plants A. Because they pollinate flowers and
C. pollinators that’s how most of our food can grow.
D. insects B. Because they are so beautiful.
326. Which word fits this definition? C. Because we eat them.

“anything that is found in nature that can D. none of above
be used by living things”
A. natural resources 332. A leaf is the broadest part of the plant
and this is good for photosynthesis be-
B. uproot
cause, the broad leaf
C. level
A. curls up when touched
D. scatter
B. increases surface area
327. What is the scientific name for the shoot
that first emerges from a seed during ger- C. catches rain water
mination? D. stores lipids for the plants
A. Testa
333. The spores of the flowering plants are
B. Radicle
dispersed by wind because the spores are
C. Cotyledon
D. Plumule A. big and flat
328. connects the stigma to the ovary B. dry and black
A. anther C. hairy and sticky
B. carpel
D. very tiny and light
C. style
D. fertilization 334. My flowers are not sweet-scented and
I do not produce nectar. How am I polli-
329. Select the features that you would find nated?
on an insect pollinated plant
A. By wind
A. Large/colourful petals
B. feathery stigma B. By insects
C. nectary C. By water
D. sticky stigma D. By explosive action

2.4 Pollination 179
335. What is pollen? B. Self-dispersal

A. a thick substance C. Animal dispersal

B. a watery substance D. Wind dispersal
C. a fine powdery substance 341. Define the term seed germination .
D. none of above A. This is the growth of a shoot
336. Pollinators are attracted to the bright B. process where an embryo sprouts
color of the of the flower. from a seed
A. petals C. the growth of a plant
B. water D. none of above
C. soil 342. Which of them is an example which helps
D. roots in water pollination.
337. Which of the below are examples of pol- A. Oxilas

linators (Select three) B. Commelina
A. Bat or Bird C. Vallesneria
B. Butterfly or Moth D. none of above
C. Tree or bush 343. What are the “female” parts of a plant
D. Grass or flower called?
E. Bees A. Stamen
338. What is an inference? B. Pistil

C. Stigma
A. Just a guess.
D. Petal
B. A statement based off of your observa-
tions. 344. A stalk that supports the anther.
C. The same as an observation. A. Sepal
D. Examples of something. B. Stigma
339. The male parts of a flower are C. Filament
A. Style D. Pollen Tube
B. Anther 345. Which plant hormone is a gas?
C. Filament A. auxin
D. Ovary B. gibberellin
340. The followings are descriptions of a type C. ethylene
of seed:It has pod structure.The pods split D. cytokinin
open when dry.Which of the following
seed dispersal methods matches the de- 346. Check ALL of the animals that are pollina-
scription given? tors.
A. Water dispersal A. moths

2.4 Pollination 180
B. butterflies 352. What covers the embryo?

C. worms A. Stem
D. bats B. Seed coat
E. eagles C. Flower
D. none of above
347. You can find seeds in the
353. Where does an insect DROP OFF pollen?
A. Stamen
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Stamen
B. Chloroplast B. Pistil
C. Ovary C. Petals
D. Stomata D. Sepals
348. The Xylem in plants transport what 354. The anther of an orchid acts like a
throughout the plant? A. dump truck
A. Sunlight B. catapult
B. Oxygen C. tornado
C. Blood D. cannon
D. Water 355. In which part of the flower is the pollen
made?
349. What is a flower called if it has both male A. roots
and female parts?
B. pistil
A. a happy flower
C. stamen
B. a perfect flower
D. leaves
C. an imperfect flower
356. What is the role of pollen in making new
D. an pristine flower plants?
350. What is the development of the seed into A. Pollen fertilizes the ovule, which be-
a plant called? comes a seed. Seeds become new plants.
B. Pollen makes fruit turn in to new plants
A. pollination
C. Pollen makes it easier to get seeds out
B. sprouting of fruit so that they can grow
C. germination D. Pollen is what makes fruit taste good,
D. none of above so animals will eat it and spread seeds.
357. What direction do roots grow?
351. grows up towards the light.
A. up
A. Roots
B. sideways
B. Stems
C. down
C. Leaves
D. it depends on the direction the seed is
D. none of above planted

2.4 Pollination 181
358. Which structure hold pollen before polli- 364. What does pollination mean?
nation? A. fertilization

A. Anther B. growing
B. Fillament C. seed dispersal
C. Petal D. absorbing sunlight
D. Sepal
365. Pollen has to be moved to the for pol-
359. Where is pollen stored? lination to happen.
A. ovary A. pistil
B. petal B. leaves
C. pistil C. stem
D. anther D. stamen
366. Select two ways that pollen can be trans-

360. I have hooks to cling to animal fur. What
ferred
is likely my dispersal method?
A. Magic carpet
A. wind
B. Insect
B. water
C. Wind
C. animals
D. Sub space portals
D. explosive action
367. What type of reproduction does a flower
361. What are the types of pollination go through?
A. SELF A. Asexual Reproduction
B. CROSS B. Sexual Reproduction
C. SAND C. Cloning
D. WATER D. none of above
362. Cross pollination results in 368. When the pollen and ovule join the ovary
A. flowers of the same DNA is called
B. flowers of different DNA A. pollination
C. flowers that will be genetically similar B. germination
D. flowers unable to reproduce C. fertilization

D. photosynthesis
363. Hormone related to the growth of the
plant in response to tropisms 369. Which statement about plant cells is
true?
A. Auxin
A. Plant cells can’t have both a nucleus
B. Cytokinins
and chlorophyll
C. Ethene B. Plant cells contain both nuclei and
D. Absisic acid chlorophyll

2.4 Pollination 182
C. Plant cells must have chlorophyll but 375. The roots absorb what for the plant?
don’t always have an nucleus
A. Water and Nutrients
D. Plant cells don’t contain chlorophyll or
B. Soil and Sun
nuclei
C. Warmth and Water
370. this part of the flower makes the pollen
D. Tap and Fibrous
A. stamen
B. stigma 376. Pollen moves from the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. sepal A. stamen to the stigma
D. none of above B. stigma to the stamen
371. What is the biggest pollinator for grass C. stamen to the chloroplast
and trees? D. stigma to the sepal
A. Animals
377. All the following are the plants dispersal
B. Wind
method except
C. Bees
A. By wind
D. Nothing
B. By water
372. What type of symbiosis is this? * Hermit
C. By animals
crabs find shells left by snails that have
died and move in.* Snails die and leave be- D. By explosion
hind their shells. E. By fire
A. commensalism
378. Inside a seed you will find an ‘embryonic’
B. mutualism
plant, it is made of two main parts, what
C. parasitism are they (select two answers)
D. predation A. Nectary
373. Which type of outbreeding devices B. Plumule
prevents both autogamy as well as
C. Radicle
geitonogamy?
D. Awesome
A. Monoecy
B. Dioecy 379. Deserts are hot and dry so an example of
C. Heterostyly a plant adaptation here is
D. Self Incompatibility A. long and deep root systems to absorb
ground water
374. Where does photosynthesis occur?
B. plants grow on each other to reach
A. in the chloroplast sunlight
B. in the roots C. dark in color to absorb sunlight
C. in the xylem D. grow on each other to protect from
D. in animal cells wind

2.5 Post-fertilization events, apomixis, and polyembryony 183
380. Where does the pollen have to land be- B. Flame of the Forest
fore a pollen tube can form?
C. Orchid

A. stigma
D. Maize
B. style
C. anther 386. Choose the characteristics of wind-
pollinated flowers.
D. ovary
A. They are usually small and are of dull
381. Some pollinators include: colours.
A. humming bird and bumble bees.
B. They generally have long anthers pro-
B. wasps and moths. truding out of the flower so that pollen
C. ants and beetles. grains get blown easily.
D. all of the above. C. They produce a large quantity of
pollen.
382. Which is not a cause of CCD?
D. The pollen grains are light so that they
A. Pesticides are easily carried away.
B. Cell Towers
C. Mites 387. Which symbols best describe para-
sitism?
D. Viruses
A. +, +
383. Which of the following is not a type of
pollination? B. +, -
A. Wind Pollination C. +, 0
B. Animal Pollination D. -, 0
C. Explosive Pollination
388. Choose the characteristics of insect-
D. Self Pollination pollinated flowers
384. How are seeds spread (seed dispersal? ) A. These flowers are large with coloured
A. Water petals, to attract the insects.
B. Air B. These are scented so that insects lo-

cate the flowers by smell.
C. Animal’s
C. These contain nectar as food for in-
D. All of the above
sects.
385. Which of the following plants is polli- D. These produce sticky pollen grain so
nated by the wind? that they may stick to the body parts of
A. Morning glory the insects.
2.5 Post-fertilization events, apomixis, and polyembryony

1. Pollen grains germinates 7. In angiosperms is the main reproduc-

tive organ
A. in anther
A. leaves
B. in ovary
B. flower
C. on stamen
C. style
D. on stigma
D. epicalyx
2. Papaya is a plant
NARAYAN CHANGDER
8. What is incorrect for generative cell?
A. Monoecious
A. Floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell
B. Dioecious
B. Having abundant food reserve
C. Both are correct
C. Spindle shaped
D. None of these D. Has dense cytoplasm and a nucleus
3. Modified trochophore larva is called 9. The ploidy of generative cell in a pollen
A. Planula larva grain is
B. Veliger larva A. haploid
C. cydippid larva B. diploid
D. Parenchymula C. triploid
D. tetraploid
4. is the process of transporting the male
gamete from the male flower parts to the 10. Fruit formation without fertilization is
female flower parts. called as
A. Asexual reproduction A. Parthenocarpy
B. Pollination B. Apomixix
C. Photosynthesis C. Polyembryony
D. Vasculation D. Fruiting
5. Cydippid is the larval form of 11. Function of flame cells is/ are
A. Excretion
A. Platyhelminthes
B. Respiration
B. Ctenophora
C. Osmoregulation
C. Cnidaria
D. Circulation
D. Mollusca
12. Which nucleus responsibles in the forma-
6. Apomixis the form of tion of pollen tube from the pollen grain?
A. asexual A. Generative nucleus
B. sexual B. Tube nucleus
C. gamete fusion C. Polar nuclei
D. all are correct D. Triploid nuclei

13. The major cause of pollen allergy is due to 19. Total number of microsporangia present in
A. Pistia a dithecous anther are

B. Cladophora A. 4
C. Parhenium B. 6
D. Mirabilis C. 2
D. 1
14. The pollination which occurs through birds
is called 20. The anemohilous flowers are having the
A. Chiropterophily following adaptation
B. Ornithophily A. Large and bright flowers

B. Less number of Pollen grains
C. Entomophily
C. consipicuous and more numbar of
D. Anemophily
pollen grains
15. Process in which seeds develop unfer- D. heavy pollen grains
tilised female gamete
21. Pollen tube is produced by
A. Polyembryony
A. Exine
B. Agamospermy
B. Intine
C. Apomixis
C. Both exine & intine
D. Parthenogenesis
D. Generative cell
16. The process of alteration of generation in
E. Sporopollenin
the life cycle of Cnidarians is called
A. Metamorphosis 22. Statocysts are the organ of equilibrium in
Phylum
B. Regeneration
A. Aschelminthes
C. Metagenesis
B. Annelida
D. Metamerism
C. Arthropoda
17. Seed dispersal can take place by apparatus
D. Aves
like
A. wings 23. Polyembryony is common in
B. pappus A. Liver fluke
C. calyx B. Pin worm
D. all of the above C. earthworm
D. round worm
18. tissue is responsible for producing
pollen grains in microsporangia. 24. Number of germ pores in dicots are
A. Endothecium A. 1
B. Tapetum B. 2
C. Epidermis C. 3
D. Sporogenous D. 4

25. Double fertilization is a characteristic fea- 28. Pollen viability for rice and wheat plant is
ture in
A. 30 hours
A. Pteridophytes
B. 3 months
B. Gymnosperms
C. 30 minutes
C. Mosses
D. 30 seconds
D. Angiosperms
26. The pathway of Porifera water transport 29. What results in seed formation?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
system is A. Asexual reproduction
A. Ostia→Osculum→Spongocoel B. Sexual Reproduction
B. Spongocoel-→Osculum-→Ostia
C. Mitosis
C. Osculum→ Ostia→ Spongocoel
D. None of the above
D. Ostia-→ Spongocoel→ Osculum
30. The condition in which pollen grains mature
27. Excretory system of round worms consist
first is called
of
A. Colloblasts A. Protandry
B. Spicule B. Protogyny
C. Renette gland C. Heterostyly
D. Coxal gland D. None of these

3. Human Reproduction
3.1 Introduction to the Reproductive System

1. Which ovarian phase is the final phase to C. Semen
occur? D. Mittelschmertz
A. Luteal
5. What does the male and female reproduc-
B. Ovulation
tive systems have in common?
C. Follicular
A. Both have gonads
D. Menstrual
B. Both make sperm
2. The base of the uterus with a small open-
C. Both pass through the urinary system
ing between the uterus and vagina.
D. Both make oocytes
A. Vagina
B. Cervix 6. Which of the following describes fertiliza-
C. Prostate tion?
D. Urethra A. cell differentiation to form a blastula

B. formation of germ layers in a deuteros-
3. What do the cells and tissues of the en-
tome
docrine system release to help maintain
homeostasis in the body? C. a sperm joining an egg to form a zy-
gote
A. electrical signals
D. sperm and egg production
B. hormones
C. neurotransmitters 7. The male reproductive cell is called
D. receptors A. Sperm
4. Sperm and fluids combine to form: B. Semen
A. Smegma C. Urethra
B. Schmaltz D. Testes

3.1 Introduction to the Reproductive System 188
8. hollow, muscular, pear-shaped organ 14. In the male reproductive system, what is
A. uterus the pair of organs that produce sperm and
testosterone?
B. semen
A. testes
C. vagina
B. vas deferens
D. ejaculation
C. prostate gland
9. Reproductive haploid cells are called
D. ovaries
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Somatic cells
B. Gametes 15. Which of the following best describes the
C. Zygote basic function of the testes in males?
D. none of above A. Generating sperm

B. Storing and transporting urine
10. The most important hormone produced by
the testes is C. Transporting semen
A. Testosterone D. Producing seminal fluid
B. FSH
16. How many chromosomes are found in a
C. Estrogen typical human gamete?
D. LH A. 46
11. the organ that removes urine from the B. 44
male body and that can deliver sperm to
the female reproductive system C. 23
A. Penis D. 22
B. Vagina 17. Which reproductive structure is correctly
C. Urethra paired withits function?
D. Testes A. uterus-usual site of fertilization
12. Which of these represent asexual repro- B. testis-usual location for egg develop-
duction? ment
A. one parent can produce offspring C. ovary-delivers nutrients to the embryo
B. sex cells are required D. sperm-transports genetic material
C. male sperm is not required
18. What is the exchange organ that contains
D. budding results in a new organism a network of blood vessels that allows the
embryo and mother to exchange materials
13. What does the term Gestation mean?
such as nutrients and waste?
A. The joining of the egg and sperm.
A. blood
B. The time it takes for the young to de-
velop inside the mother. B. amnion
C. The release of sperm. C. placenta
D. The release of an egg cell. D. uterus

19. the lining of the uterus that thickens as an 25. Which part protects and regulates the tem-
egg matures perature of the testis?

A. cervix A. urethra
B. endometrium B. scrotum
C. uterus
C. semen
D. none of above
D. none of above
20. Reproductive organs that produce eggs,
progesterone and estrogen 26. Abstinence is the process of:
A. cervix A. a person staying pure and only having
B. vagina sex with one or two people
C. ovaries B. a person staying pure in the eyes of

God and never having sex
D. none of above
C. a person staying pure until marriage
21. Semen contains and refraining from sex before marriage.
A. fructose
D. a person choosing only the best people
B. vitamin C to engage in sexual activity
C. prostaglandins
27. Male reproductive part of flower
D. all of these substances
A. pistil
22. A major male sex organ that produces and
stores sperm. B. stamen
A. Prostate Gland C. petals

B. Testicle D. sepals
C. Ovary
28. The meeting of a sperm and ovum(egg
D. Vas deferens cell).
23. The testicles in the male are similar to the A. Intercourse
in the female.
B. Implantation
A. Fimbria
C. Conception
B. Fallopian tube
D. Fertilization
C. Ovaries
D. Uterus 29. What would most likely happen to a preg-
nant woman if her progesterone levels
24. The ovaries
suddenly dropped?
A. produce egg cells and estrogen
A. She would give birth
B. are the male reproductive cells
B. Miscarriage
C. are the female reproductive cells
C. Negative feedback would occur
D. is a muscular organ where fertilized
eggs implant and develop D. Her waters would break

30. If the woman would have been a male, the A. Menstruation

clitoris would have been a/an: B. Gestation
A. testicle C. Conception
B. epidiymis D. Ejaculation
C. penis 36. What reproductive ailment caused by an
D. scrotum abnormal build up of mass of tissue in the
cervix?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
31. The nesting of a fertilized egg in the wall
of the uterus. A. ovarian cyst
B. vulvovaginitis
A. Implantation
C. cervical cancer
B. Fertilization
D. ovarian cancer
C. Conception
D. Menstruation 37. What word means the seed is growing?
A. Germination
32. What hormone is responsible for the
B. Propagation
“fight or flight” response?
C. Fertilization
A. Testosterone
D. Pollination
B. Cortisol
C. Adrenaline 38. glands that produces sperm and the male
hormone (testosterone)
D. Parathyroid Hormone
A. scrotum
33. Which parent determines the gender of off- B. semen
spring
C. prostate
A. Mother D. testes
B. Father
39. Which of the following is true of a zy-
C. Both gote?
D. Fate A. It forms into a blastocyst
34. Menstrual cycle happens at this time of fe- B. It is an unfertilized egg
male’s life. C. It produces haploid male gameto-
A. At birth phytes
B. At puberty D. It is made up of only one cell
C. At old age 40. In which asexual reproduction method

does the parent plant provide water and
D. At menopause
nutrients until the new plant develops
35. Every month, females shed off or rupture roots?
the walls of the uterus when pregnancy A. Cutting
fails to happen. This produces the dead B. Division
tissues and some blood that are released
once a month. Also known commonly as a C. Tissue Culture
Period. D. Layering

41. The human male reproductive system is 46. Abnormalities present in the cells that line
adapted for the production of the uterus may prevent the production
of offspring by directly interfering with

A. sperm and the delivery of these cells
which process?
for internal fertilization
A. the development of the embryo
B. gametes that transport food to the egg
B. the differentiation of gametes into zy-
C. zygotes and the development of these gotes
cells into a fetus
C. the secretion of estrogen by the ovary
D. hormones that stimulate placenta for-
mation in the male D. the production and release of egg cells
47. Which male reproductive structure con-

42. about how many sperm are ejaculated un-
nects with the testes and also stores
der normal circumstances
sperm?
A. Millions
A. epididymis
B. Hundreds B. scrotum
C. Hundred thousands C. seminal vesicles
D. Thousands D. testicle
43. What process happens where the lining of 48. What 2 hormones are needed to maintain
the uterus coming out through the vagina the lining of the endometrium?
(sometimes called ‘having a period’)? A. FSH and LH
A. Conception B. Estrogen and Progesterone
B. Fertilization C. FSH and Estrogen
C. Implantation D. LH and Progesterone
D. Menstruation
49. The Pathway of the Sperm:
44. In a rabbit, the embryo normally develops A. testes, vas deferens, seminal vesicles,
within the prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, ure-
thra
A. placenta
B. seminal vesicles, vas deferens, testes,
B. uterus prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, ure-
C. yolk sac thra
D. umbilical cord C. vas deferens, testes, seminal vesicles,
prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, ure-
45. The system composed of bones to help sup- thra
port and protect the body D. none of above
A. muscular system
50. A group of organs that work together to
B. endocrine system perform a major function in the body
C. skeletal system A. organ
D. nervous system B. organ system

C. tissue 56. Sex cells of females that can be fertilized

D. cell by sperm
A. ovaries
51. These are sex cells that are produced by
the testes and are needed to fertilize an B. eggs or ovum
egg. C. uterus
A. semen D. none of above
B. sperm
NARAYAN CHANGDER
57. The scrotum is an important adaptation in
C. ovary humanmales because the optimum temper-
D. zygotes ature for spermdevelopment is
A. 10 to 12 degrees below normal
52. Female reproductive part of flower bodytemperature
A. pistil B. 2 to 4 degrees below normal body tem-
B. stamen perature
C. petals C. 2 to 4 degrees above normal body tem-
perature
D. sepals
D. 10 to 12 degrees above normal
53. System composed of the brain, spinal cord, bodytemperature
and nerves that control the body
58. What is the name of the Endocrine Gland
A. nervous system
that is present inside of the Female Repro-
B. endocrine system ductive System?
C. skeletal system A. Pituitary Gland
D. spinal cord B. Uterus
54. This disease can be cured with antibiotics C. Ovaries
in the first two stages, but untreated, can D. Testes
cause damage to the heart, brain damage,
mental disorders, deafness, and blindness. 59. Where will a fertilized egg cell implant and
What is the disease? develop into a fetus?
A. Syphillis A. the bladder
B. Herpes B. the ureter
C. Uterine cancer C. the urethra
D. Chlamydia D. the uterus
55. Which is not a part of the external female 60. In both males and females, urine is stored
genitalia? in the ?
A. labia majora A. Urethra
B. cervix B. Anus
C. urethra C. Bladder
D. labia minora D. Stomach

61. Which gland may carry sperm that is re- 67. The process of making new sperm is called:
leased prior to ejaculation? A. spermatogenesis

A. Seminal vesicle B. spermatomaking
B. Prostate C. spermatoreguvination
C. Bulbourethral gland
D. spermatolysis
D. none of above
68. A human usually has total chromo-
62. The neck of the uterus. somes.
A. Ovary A. 6
B. Cervix B. 22
C. Vagina C. 4
D. Vulva D. 46
63. Which of the following is NOT the function 69. Also known as the birth canal
of male hormones?
A. cervix
A. Produces sperm cells.
B. vagina
B. Releases semen
C. ovaries
C. Keeps reproductive system in proper
function. D. cowpers gland
D. Prepares the growth of deposited 70. An organ that provides the chemical sub-
sperm cell. stancess needed by a fetus is called the
64. In which stage do sister chromatids split? A. ovary
A. Metaphase 1 B. uterus
B. Metaphase II C. placenta
C. Anaphase 1 D. fallopian tube
D. None of the above 71. Which is true about Asexual reproduc-
65. Which of the following is not a secondary tion?
sex characteristic in male? A. Insects are needed to transfer pollen.
A. deeper voice B. New plants grow from seeds.
B. broader sholders C. Offspring are genetically identical to
C. wider hips their parent.
D. facial hair D. Two types of gametes are involved.
66. After conception, where does the em- 72. Which structure of the male reproductive
bryo/fetus develop? system is suspended in a sac?
A. vagina A. scrotum
B. fallopian tubes B. testes
C. uterus C. penis
D. ovaries D. foreskin

73. Which structure is not essential in wind- C. the main sex hormone in animals
pollinated flowers? D. The Main reproductive hormone in
A. anther males
B. ovary 79. Sperm are formed in the
C. petal A. epididymis
D. stigma B. vas deferens
74. Which behavior would likely keep your C. seminiferous tubule
NARAYAN CHANGDER
nervous system especially your brain D. prostate
healthy?
80. Where in the female body do the egg and
A. smoking sperm fuse?
B. watching a scary movie A. Cervix
C. eating popcorn with butter B. Uterus
D. doing crossword or math puzzles C. Ovary
75. How do dandelions spread their seeds? D. Fallopian tube
A. water 81. The drinking of alcoholic beverages by a

pregnant woman is harmful to the develop-
B. earth
ment of her fetus. This is most damaging
C. fire early in a pregnancy because during this
D. wind time
A. the lungs of the fetus become func-
76. How do organisms get their traits?
tional.
A. They get thier traits from their environ-
B. alcohol can easily enter the mouth of
ment.
the fetus.
B. They inherit one copy of a gene from C. many of the essential organs of the fe-
their mother. tus are forming.
C. They inherit copy of a gene version D. the fetus cannot excrete wastes.
from their mother and father.
82. Which hormone does oestrogen negatively
D. They get their traits from the proteins
feedback on?
they eat.
A. FSH
77. These are the major female sex organs
B. Oestrogen
that produce ova or eggs.
C. LH
A. Ovary/ovaries
D. Progesterone
B. Testes/testicles
83. The structures that produce the seminal
C. Vulva
fluid is the
D. Penis
A. seminal vesicles & urethra
78. Testosterone is B. seminal vesicles & prostate gland
A. The main sex hormone in humans C. prostate gland & epididymis
B. The main sex hormone in females D. prostate gland & testes

84. What happens to the egg if no pregnancy C. uterus

occurs?
D. none of above

A. It is re-used
B. Is comes out with the next period 90. Male characteristics such as facial hair and
a deep voice are caused by
C. It disintegrates
A. testosterone
D. It is reabsorbed by the ovary
B. the thymus gland
85. Male and female sex cells are
C. estrogen
A. ovum and egg
D. adrenaline
B. sperm and egg
C. testes and ovary 91. Which layer of the uterus is made up of
smooth muscle?
D. sperm and ovary
A. perimetrium
86. Mae puts on her new winter scarf. Sig-
B. myometrium
nals are sent to her brain telling her that
the scarf is soft. Which sense provides her C. endometrium
brain with this information? D. cervix
A. pain
92. What is the role of the nervous system?
B. sight
A. to transport oxygen
C. touch
D. emotion B. to protect organs
C. to send and receive chemical mes-
87. What is the main organ of the excre- sages
tory/urinary systems?
D. to gather and respond to information
A. Lungs
B. Kidneys 93. When the zygote has undergone many cell
C. Stomach divisions to become a small mass of cells,
around day 12, it is known as a(n)
D. Heart
A. fetus
88. The structures that fill with blood in order B. cell
to cause erection of the penis are
C. egg
A. prostate tissues
D. embryo
B. erectile tissues
C. scrotum tissues 94. The tube inside the penis; semen and urine
D. gonadal tissues leave the body via this tube
A. urethra
89. What do you call the female sex cell which
can be fertilised by sperm? B. vas deferens
A. ovaries C. epididymis
B. eggs or ovum D. none of above

95. What is the process called in which an egg C. FSH

is released from the ovary into the fallop-
D. Testosterone
ian tube?
A. fertilization 101. What is a hormone produced by the fe-
B. implantation male’s ovaries?
C. ovulation A. Estrogen
D. menstruation B. Endometrium
NARAYAN CHANGDER
96. A sex cell (ovun-sperm) is produced by: C. Hygiene
A. mitosis D. Frimbria
B. meiosis 102. What are the female sex cells called?
C. simple cell division
A. Eggs
D. bipartition
B. Sperm
97. Our reproductive system helps us C. Fallopian
A. Sense the world around us. D. Uterus
B. Make offspring.
C. Stand up and move. 103. How do dandelions spread their seeds
(white fuzzy dandelions)?
D. Transport blood around our body.
A. water
98. Once the ovary, this plant part can be
B. earth
fleshy or hard. It also provides a cover-
ing for the seeds or ovules. C. fire
A. ovary D. wind
B. ovules
104. The skin covered sac that surround the
C. flower testes.
D. fruit A. Scrotum
99. If fertilisation doesn’t happen in what B. Prostate gland
stage of meiosis II does the secondary
oocyte reach? C. Cowper’s gland
A. Telophase D. Seminal vesicles

B. Prophase 105. What happens during labor?
C. Metaphase A. Strong muscular contractions push the
D. Anaphase baby out.
100. What is the name of the sex hormone for B. The fetus develops a heartbeat.
males? C. The umbilical cord is tied and cut.
A. Estrogen D. Strong muscular contractions of the
B. Progesterone uterus cause the cervix to enlarge.

106. The opening to the uterus is the C. Vagina

A. cervix D. Ovaries

B. vagina E. Cervix
C. ovary 112. muscular passageway that is also a birth
D. fallopian tube canal
A. uterus
107. What are the two main female sex hor-
mones that regulate the release of eggs B. cervix
and the production of female characteris- C. vagina
tics?
D. ovary
A. estrogen and progesterone
113. whats long but doesnt have and back
B. estrogen and testosterone
A. a spine from a binder
C. testosterone and progesterone
B. your leg
D. testosterone and endorphins
C. and rope
108. The womb D. your spine
A. Uterus
114. When semen is pushed through and out
B. Vagina of a males body through the urethra is a
C. Cervix process called
D. I dont know A. Ejaculation
B. Erection
109. Which of the following hormones is re-
sponsible for stimulating and maintaining C. Menstruation
milk production? D. Transportation
A. Androgen 115. This is the tube where semen can is trans-
B. Estrogen ferred by the penis. It is also called as
C. Progesterone the birth canal when a baby is about to be
born.
D. Prolactin
A. Ovary
110. What the unborn baby is called from B. Vagina
week 9 of pregnancy until birth.
C. Vulva
A. Zygote
D. Fallopian tube
B. Embryo
116. In which stage do homologous chro-
C. Fetus
mosomes line up double file along the
D. none of above metaphase plate?
111. The place where an unborn baby grows A. Telophase I
and develops is called the B. Metaphase II
A. Fallopian Tubes C. Metaphase I
B. Uterus D. none of above

117. The structure that makes nutrients most 123. What is the process of releasing an egg
directly available to a human embryo is the from the ovary called?
A. gamete A. Ovulation
B. ovary B. Fertilization
C. stomach C. Birth Canal
D. placenta D. Cervical Dilation
118. The produce the eggs. 124. Which reproductive organ that produce
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Fallopian Tubes eggs, progesterone and estrogen?
B. Uterus A. cervix
C. Vagina B. vagina
D. Ovaries C. ovaries
E. Cervix D. none of above
119. How do coconuts disperse their seeds? 125. The reproductive function of a plant takes
place in the:
A. wind
A. Pistil
B. water
B. Stamen
C. earth
C. Anther
D. heart
D. Flower
120. A man who receives a mumps vaccination
is less likely to get: 126. How long does an egg live inside the Fal-
lopian tube?
A. Testicular cancer
A. 12-24 hours
B. Prostate cancer
B. 3 days
C. Cryptorchidism
C. up to 5 days
D. Orchitis
D. one month
121. What do the ovaries do?
A. They store and produce sperm. 127. The reproductive system of a male mam-
mal provides
B. They store and produce ovum.
A. support for the internal development
C. They are muscular tubes that connect of theembryo
the uterus to the outside of the body.
B. materials through the placenta
D. They are the external part of the male
reproductive system. C. a means for the delivery of gametes
D. the ovaries for gamete production
122. The male gonad that produces sperm and
the male hormone testosterone is the 128. Top most part of pistil
A. Penis A. anther
B. Epididymis B. filament
C. Testis C. stigma
D. Cowper’s Gland D. style

129. Once a sperm matures, it travels through C. Conception

this tube D. Fertilization

A. Vas deferens
135. Which is not a part of the female repro-
B. Fallopian tube ductive system?
C. Ovaries A. cervix
D. Epididymis B. epididymis
130. Where does fertilization occur in the fe- C. fallopian tubes
male reproductive system? D. uterus
A. Fallopian tube
136. Females make primary oocytes everyday
B. Ovary
A. False, they make them every month
C. Uterus
B. False, they make them every year
D. Vagina
C. False, they are born with all the pri-
131. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome mary oocytes they’ll ever have
can be prevented by: D. True
A. A vaccine 137. Female erectile tissue between the labia
B. Antibiotics A. vagina
C. Diet and exercise B. labia majora
D. Avoiding risky behavior C. clitoris
132. What happends during fertilisation? D. cervix
A. The male sex cell touches the female 138. In day 1 of the ovarian cycle women are
sex cell. in which phase?
B. The baby develops. It takes nine A. Luteal
months.
B. Follicular
C. The baby is born.
C. Menstrual
D. The male sex cell goes into the small
D. Ovulation
intestine.
139. When egg and sperm nuclei join, the egg
133. A specific place along the length of a chro-
is fertilized to create a(n)
mosome where a given gene is located
A. embryo
A. Locus
B. fetus
B. Locust
C. zygote
C. Chromosome
D. ovary
D. none of above
140. Check all of the viral (incurable) sexually
134. The meeting of a sperm and ovum. transmitted infections:
A. Intercourse A. acquired immune deficiency syndrome
B. Implantation (HIV)

B. chlamydia 146. What type of twins would be born from

C. herpes one zygote splitting to become two em-
bryos?
D. genital warts (HPV)
A. identical twins
E. gonorrhea
B. fraternal twins
141. the reproductive organs that produce
sperm and testosterone C. triplets
A. prostate gland & seminal vesicle D. quadruplets
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. testes or testicles
147. What hormone needs to spike to signal
C. semen ovulation?
D. none of above A. FSH
142. The contraceptive pill contains which of B. LH
the following hormones?
C. Estrogen
A. FSH
D. Progesterone
B. LH
C. Adrenaline 148. In males the area where many end nerves
D. Oestrogen and/or Progesterone are gathered here which when stimulated
will send a message to the pleasure cen-
143. The periodic shedding of the lining of the ter of the brain. This will cause an erec-
uterus tion and eventually lead to an ejaculation
A. ovulation or orgasm.
B. menstruation A. penis
C. fertilization B. scrotum
D. Urination C. glanis
144. Which of the following secretes citrate D. none of above
and enzymes to break up the semen clot
during intercourse? 149. Fertilization, the joining of egg and
A. Leydig cells sperm, usually occurs in which organ?
B. Prostate gland A. vagina

C. Bulbourethral gland B. fallopian tubes
D. Seminiferous tubule C. uterus
E. Seminal vesicle D. vas deferens
145. The process of a seed coming out of its
150. Sperm is produced in the
dormant state and beginning to grow.
A. testes
A. germination
B. pollination B. vas deferens
C. reproduction C. urethra
D. symbiosis D. penis

151. Oogenesis results in the formation of: 157. The location that fertilisation occurs
A. 1 ovum; 2 polar bodies A. The ovary

B. 2 ova; 2 polar bodies B. The fallopian tube
C. 1 ovum; 3 secondary oocytes C. The uterus
D. 4 ova D. The vagina
158. An egg develops, goes into the oviduct,
152. Produces the male gamete and testos-
then travels to the uterus, breaking down
terone
lining uterus; this is known as
A. Testes A. Ovulation
B. Prostate B. Menstruation
C. Epididymis C. Fertilization
D. Ovary D. the menstrual cycle
153. hollow, muscular, pear-shaped organ 159. A sac that regulates the temperature of
where a fertilize egg get implanted the testes.
A. uterus A. Scrotum
B. semen B. Prostate gland
C. vagina C. Cowper’s gland
D. ejaculation D. Seminal vesicles

160. Which of these contraceptives are called
154. How do peas disperse their seeds? a barrier method?
A. Captain Planet A. The pill
B. Wind B. Condom
C. Bursting C. The rhythm method
D. Fire D. An implant
155. A “normal” pregnancy usually lasts 161. What do you call the process in which the
about how long? ovary releases a mature egg cell?
A. 40 weeks A. menstruation
B. 20 weeks B. oogenesis
C. 50 weeks C. ovulation
D. fertilisation
D. 32 weeks
162. How does an egg cell move through the
156. Pollination is the transfer of pollen from fallopian tube?
?
A. Via diffusion
A. Anther to stigma
B. Ciliated epithelial cells move it along
B. Style to ovary
C. Via gas exchange
C. Anther to filament D. It drifts through the liquid in the fallop-
D. Stigma to anther ian tube

163. Gametes form to make a 169. Which structure initially makes proges-
A. Haploid Zygote terone?
B. Diploid Zygote A. The egg
C. None of the above B. The ovary wall
D. none of above C. Corpus luteum

D. The placenta
164. HIV stands for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
170. The muscular organ which is the size of a
A. Human Immunological Virus
fist where fertilized eggs develop is
B. Human Deficiency Virus
A. uterus
C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
B. ovaries
D. Human Insexualdeficency Virus
C. vagina
165. Plants that produce cones and naked D. none of above
seeds
171. When does completion of meiosis occur?
A. angiosperms
A. Stage 1
B. gymnosperms
B. Stage 2
C. mosses
C. Fertilisation
D. ferns
D. Ovulation
166. Which part of the female reproductive
system produces egg? 172. Which of the following produces sperm
through spermatogenesis?
A. Ovary
A. Leydig cells
B. Testis
B. Prostate gland
C. Epipydidmus
C. Bulbourethral gland
D. Prostate
D. Seminiferous tubule
167. One thing that increases genetic diversity
is: 173. An ovum that has been fertilized and con-
tains half of Mother’s genes and half of
A. Crossing Over
Father’s genes
B. Meiosis II
A. spermatogenesis
C. Clones
B. Zygote
D. none of above C. Embryo
168. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma D. Fetus
is called
174. Most mammals have adaptations for
A. germination
A. internal fertilization and internal devel-
B. transpiration opment of the fetus
C. photosynthesis B. internal fertilization and external de-
D. pollination velopment of the fetus

C. external fertilization and external de- 180. What structure connects the testes with
velopment of the fetus the ductus deferens?

D. external fertilization and internal de- A. ejaculatory ducts
velopment of the fetus
B. urethra
175. Which term describes the narrow open- C. epididymis
ing of the uterus that extends into the
vagina? D. prostate gland
A. fundus 181. It is the meeting of a sperm and an ovum.

B. cervix A. Intercourse
C. vulva B. Implantation
D. labia majora
C. Conception
176. What is ovulation? D. Fertilization
A. The release of an egg into an oviduct.
182. At what week would a fully formed baby
B. The joining of an egg cell and a sperm most likely be born?
cell.
A. Week 40
C. The period of time when the female is
having her period. B. Week 30
D. The act of mating. C. Week 50
177. Which part of the brain controls balance D. Week 60

and body position?
183. Which of the following describes semen?
A. cerebrum
A. It is a combination of egg and sperm
B. medulla cells.
C. cerebellum B. It contains the fertilized egg.
D. impluses C. It contains sperm, hormones, and
178. producing one mature egg cell each month nutrient-filled fluids.
A. penis D. It is produced in the testicles.
B. ovaries 184. In human reproduction, which sequence

C. menstrual cycle of events if correct?
D. fertilization A. menstruation > ovulation > fertilisa-
tion > implantation
179. The egg cells is released from the ovary
into the B. menstruation > ovulation > implanta-
tion > fertilisation
A. Fallopian tube
C. ovulation > menstruation > fertilisa-
B. Uterus tion > implantation
C. Cervix D. ovulation > menstruation > implanta-
D. Vagina tion > fertilisation

185. The following structures involved in male C. The ovaries.

reproductive system: D. The cervix.
A. Scrotum
191. A fertilized egg is called
B. Seminal Vesicle
A. embryo
C. Cervix
B. zygote
D. Sperm duct
C. fetus
E. Ovary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
186. In which animal does the fertilized egg
192. This carries the egg to the uterus.
develop outside the mother’s body?
A. Fallopian tube
A. whales
B. Vagina
B. foxes
C. cervix
C. eagles
D. Ovary
D. rattlesnakes
193. The portion of erectile tissue that sur-
187. This is located at the bottom of the pistil rounds the urethra is the
and is where the eggs or ovules are held.
A. prepuce
A. Pollen
B. glans
B. Ovary
C. corpus spongiosum
C. Stigma
D. rete testes
D. Pistil
194. Which kind of asexual reproduction
188. The proliferation phase occurs during would a starfish grow back one of its parts
A. the first week of the menstrual cycle A. budding
B. the second week of the menstrual cy- B. regeneration/fragmentation
cle
C. vegetative propagation
C. the last two weeks of the menstral cy-
D. sporulation
cle
D. menopause 195. What is the process called when an egg
and sperm fuse?
189. The female structures of the flower
A. Fertilisation
A. Pistil
B. Zygote
B. Stigma
C. Embryo
C. Stamen
D. Mating
D. Ovary
196. If fertilization does not occur, the uterine
190. Where are egg cells stored and released lining will be shed and removed through
from? the
A. The uterus. A. Fallopian tube
B. The testes. B. vagina

C. uterus 202. The term “uterus” is another name for?

D. urethra A. the womb

197. Sperm + fluids from seminal vesicle and B. ovary
prostate gland is called C. placenta
A. semen D. vagina
B. testes or testicles 203. Which of the following are female sec-
C. scrotum ondary sex characteristics? (Choose all
D. none of above that apply)
A. wider hips
198. What hormone is released by the anterior
pituitary to stimulate division of spermato- B. pubic hair growth
gonia? C. broader shoulders
A. gnRH D. development of breast
B. FSH 204. IT is where a baby grows and develops
C. LH for approximately 9 months.
D. testosterone A. Stomach
B. Bladder
199. What is sperm count of a functionally
sterile male? C. Vagina
A. above 300 million/mL D. Uterus
B. below 300 million/mL 205. The inner layer of the uterus is the
C. below 150 million/mL A. endometrium
D. below 20 million/mL B. fimbriae
200. Sperm are created through meiosis in an C. corpus luteum
area of the testes called the seminiferous D. vulva
tubules. Through which structure do the
sperm travel to exit the testes? 206. The male gland that adds a nutrient filled
A. vas deferens fluid to the sperm.
B. seminiferous tubules A. Prostate gland
C. scrotoum B. Male gland
D. epididymis C. Female gland

D. Adrenal gland
201. The flower structure that contains the an-
ther and pollen. 207. A sperm’s tail is known as:
A. stamen A. scrotum
B. pistil B. flagellum
C. sepal C. acrosome
D. petal D. none of above

208. Identify the part being described:a hol- 214. What do the testicles do?
low, pear-shaped organ that receives and A. They are where babies grow and de-
hold fertilized egg cell velop before birth.
A. cervix B. They store and produce ovum.
B. fallopian tubes C. They store and produce sperm.
C. ovaries D. They are tubes that transport sperm
D. uterus out of the body.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
209. What is used to regulate many bodily pro- 215. It is the general term for the outer part
cesses? of the female genitalia.
A. Endocrine System, A. Vulva
B. hormones B. Vagina
C. blood vessels C. Clitoris
D. homeostasis D. Ovary
210. Which of these is NOT part of the PISTIL? 216. Points where chromatids cross over
A. stigma A. Christae
B. stamen B. Chiasmata
C. style C. Synapsis
D. ovary D. none of above
211. The primary function of the human male 217. When an organism splits into an exact
reproductivesystem is to copy of itself, this is an example of:
A. provide a site for fertilization A. Fission
B. produce and transport gametes B. Budding
C. protect and nourish the embryo C. Meiosis
D. prevent urine from leaving the body D. Regeneration
212. Which of the following secretes mucous? 218. Which process is the nesting of a fertil-
A. Bulbourethral gland ized egg in the wall of the uterus?
B. Seminal vesicle A. Implantation
C. Leydig cells B. Fertilization
D. Scrotum C. Conception
D. Menstruation
213. What do you call a sterilization proce-
dure that cuts the vas deferens to prevent 219. The system composed of muscles that
transport of sperm? help in movement
A. Ejaculation A. skeletal system
B. Tubal ligation B. digestive system
C. Abstinence C. muscular system
D. Vasectomy D. endocrine system

220. What gland helps your body respond to 225. The colorful flower structure that at-
danger? tracts pollinators.

A. Pituitary gland A. sepals
B. Adreanal gland B. pistils
C. Thyroid gland C. anthers
D. pancreas D. petals
226. The female sex hormone

221. A sex cell that contains an individual’s ge-
netic material A. Estrogen/Progesterone
A. Sperm B. testosterone
B. Ovum C. vagina
C. Gamete D. prostate gland
D. Chromosomes 227. After fertilisation the zygote increases in

size and travels down the Fallopian tube
222. Saclike structures that produce pollen to become embedded in the walls of the
grains are womb. This process is known as
A. Ovules A. implantation
B. Sepals B. ovulation
C. Anthers C. menstruation
D. Styles D. conception
223. The pathway of the sperm: 228. The tube that leads from each testis to
the prostate gland and urethra is called
A. testes, vas deferens, seminal vesicles,
prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, ure- A. vas deferens
thra B. fallopian tubes
B. seminal vesicles, vas deferens, testes, C. ovaries
prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, ure- D. uterus
thra
229. Which type of cell division split into two
C. vas deferens, testes, seminal vesicles,
identical cells
prostate gland, bulbourethral glands, ure-
thra A. Meiosis
D. none of above B. Inheritance
C. Mitosis
224. What are the small leaves called that pro-
tect the bud? D. none of above
A. sepal 230. Name the structure that produces a thin

milky fluid that aids in sperm motility and
B. petal
contributes to about 30% of overall se-
C. leaves men volume.
D. seed A. testis

B. seminal vesicle 236. What do mammals and birds have in com-

C. prostate gland mon when it comes to development?
D. bulbourethral gland A. hatch from eggs
231. What is surgically removed during a cir- B. embryo requires oxygen

cumcision? C. egg is fertilized by sperm
A. Foreskin D. live birth
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Cowper’s gland
237. What is also called the birth canal?
C. Scrotum
D. Vas deferens A. Uterus
B. vagina
232. There are many capillaries in this area to
allow for rich blood supply ;This is where C. ovary
a fertilized egg will embed. D. rectum
A. uterus
B. endometrium 238. The ejaculatory duct connects the vas def-
erens with the:
C. cervix
A. urethra
D. ovary
B. epididymis
233. The two hormones that maintain the lin-
ing of the uterus are: C. seminiferous tubules
A. FSH and estrogen D. foreskin
B. LH and estrogen
239. Once sperm are made they mature in this
C. estrogen coiled tube prior to ejaculation
D. Progesterone and estrogen A. penis
234. The two male reproductive organs that B. epididymis
produce most of the fluids that make up
C. sperm
semen are called
A. Testes & Epididymis D. none of above
B. Seminal Vesicle & Prostate 240. Some common physical changes in female
C. Vas Deferens and Urethra during puberty includes:
D. Scrotum and Penis A. Facial hair (mustache, beard) starts to
grow
235. The series of muscle contractions in the
uterus that help push the baby through the B. Voice-box enlarges and voice deepens.
birth canal is called C. Production of sperms begins and ejac-
A. delivery ulation occurs.
B. labor D. Menstruation and ovulation begin.
C. placenta E. Hair starts to grow in the pubic region
D. menstruation and armpits.

241. For a human zygote to become an em- 247. Which is not part of the reproductive sys-
bryo, it must undergo tem?

A. fertilization A. Anus
B. recombination B. Cervix
C. meiotic dvisions
C. Uterus
D. mitotic divisions
D. Prostate Gland
242. After a sperm matures, it travels into this
tube (that’s where the vasectomy occurs) 248. Which statement is true about epi-
A. urethra didymis?
B. epididymis A. A set of oily openings that release
C. vas deferens sperm
D. none of above B. A set of coiled tubes which transport

and stores sperm cells.
243. On what day of the cycle is ovulation?
C. Producer of male sex hormones.
A. Day 4
D. Transport mature sperm to the ure-
B. Day 8
thra.
C. Day 14
D. Day 28 249. When a male baby is born, the end of the
penis is covered by:
244. Once sperms are made they mature in the
coiled tube prior to ejaculation. The coiled A. prepuce
tube is called B. scrotum
A. penis C. foreskin
B. epididymis
D. testes
C. sperm
D. none of above 250. What is the role of the nervous system
in the body
245. Reproductive organ that provides a place
to support a developing human. A. to protect other organs and tissues
A. fallopian tube B. to send messages using blood cells
B. vagina C. to gather & respond to information
C. bladder D. to transport oxygen & carbon dioxide
D. uterus
251. What process occurs on the first day of
246. What is the human embryo called after the menstrual cycle?
the eighth week of development?
A. menstruation
A. zygote
B. an infant B. ovulation
C. a fetus C. implantation
D. a morula D. fertilization

252. What would be the result of cutting both 257. What is the term for the process where
the sperm ducts in a male animal? an egg is fertilised in a petri dish?
A. Male sex hormones would no longer A. IVF
circulate in the blood. B. INF
B. The animal would be unable to pass C. Test Tube Fertilisation (TTF)
urine.
D. AIH
C. The animal would be unable to develop
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sperms. 258. Production without the fusion of gametes
D. The animal would become sterile. A. Sexual Reproduction
253. Which Gland is responsible for sending
hormones to the Ovary to mature an egg C. None of the above
cell? D. none of above
A. Ovary
259. What is the female gland that secretes
B. Testes estrogen and progesterone?
C. Pituitary A. Testes
D. Gonads B. Pancreas
254. Which process is the meeting of a sperm C. Thymus

and ovum? D. Ovaries
A. Intercourse 260. What is the uterus
B. Implantation A. The womb where the baby grows
C. Conception B. Part of the brain
D. Fertilization C. Where the eggs come from
255. Which structure is correctly paired with D. Sensory organ

its function?
261. The birth canal is the
A. ovary-provides milk for newborns
A. ovaries
B. placenta-storage of released eggs B. fallopian tubes
C. uterus-produces estrogen C. cervix
D. testis-development of sperm D. vagina
256. System in the body that removes all 262. Which of the following hormones is se-
waste creted by the ovaries?
A. excretion A. estrogen
B. digestive system B. melatonin
C. excretory system C. progesterone
D. endocrine system D. two of these

263. Part which produces pollen C. The tail of the sperm enters the egg
A. style first.

B. stigma D. Sperm is released into the vagina.
C. anther 269. The path of the sperm is:
D. filament A. scrotum, testes, prostate, penis
264. Where in the female reproductive system B. bubourethral gland, seminiferous
will you find thousands of eggs? tubule, seminal vesicle, urethra
A. Uterus C. testis, epididymis, vas deferens, ure-
B. Ovaries thra
C. Fallopian tube D. seminiferous tubules, epidiymis,
prostate, urethra
D. Vagina
265. Which of the following is the nervous sys- 270. How many chromosomes are found in a
tem’s main control center? typical human gamete (sperm or egg)?
A. the brain A. 46
B. the peripheral nerve B. 44

C. the neuron C. 23
D. the spinal cord, which is made up of D. 22
peripheral nerves
271. Where does meiosis occur in the female?
266. reproductive organs that produce eggs
A. Cervix
and hormones
B. Uterus
A. cervix
B. vagina C. Ovary
C. ovaries D. Testicles
D. none of above 272. The male gamete, sperm, are formed in
the
267. A is formed when fertilization occurs.
A. epididymis
A. embryo
B. zygote B. vas deferens
C. fetus C. testes
D. sperm D. prostate
268. During intercourse the penis is placed in 273. who is clever students?
the vagina. Which one of the following A. make a smart choices
statements is not correct?
B. leave homework at home
A. The sperm travel towards the egg.
C. Does not hand in homework
B. The man releases millions of sperm
during intercourse. D. Doesn’t pay attention

274. Inability to have an erection or to sustain C. Directing sperm to the uterus

an erection D. Storing and transporting urine
A. Epididymitis
280. A structure in the body that is composed
B. Impotent of different kinds of tissue
C. Testicular cancer A. organ system
D. Orchitis B. organ
275. The eggs are produced in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. tissue
A. the ovaries. D. cell
B. the womb
281. Nonvascular plant?
C. the fallopian tube
A. fern
D. the cervix
B. moss
276. How many weeks, on average, does it C. pine tree
take for a baby to develop?
D. oak tree
A. 10 weeks
282. What do you call the passageway of the
B. 20 weeks
nutrients for and waste from the unborn
C. 30 weeks baby?
D. 40 weeks A. placenta
277. Male reproductive part of flower that B. oviduct
produces pollen. C. amniotic sac
A. anther D. zygote
B. stamen
283. A group of similar cells that perform the
C. filament same function
D. pistil A. cells
278. The process of making sperm begins in B. tissue
the male: C. organ
A. at birth D. organism
B. at puberty
284. What does heterozygous gene versions
C. halfway through each month mean?
D. once a month A. The two copies of a gene for each fea-
279. The reproductive system contains all the ture can be the different versions.
organs and tissues required for the produc- B. The two copies of a gene for a feature
tion of new individuals. Which of the fol- can be the same version.
lowing best describes the basic function of C. The two copies of a gene are used for
the ovaries in females? an organisms feature.
A. Transporting ova to the uterus D. The two copies of a gene provide in-
B. Produce eggs for fertilization structions for one protein.

285. The is the narrow, lower end of the C. Give the organism its genes
uterus that opens into the vagina. D. Pass on the genes to the offspring

A. Fallopian Tubes
291. Which structure in the male reproductive
B. Uterus system produces the sperm cells?
C. Vagina A. epididymis
D. Ovaries B. vas deferens
E. Cervix C. seminal vesicles
D. seminiferous tubules
286. The structure that draws the mature egg
into the Fallopian tube is the 292. The bottom of the style is this part which
A. fimbriae produces the eggs or ovules through meio-
sis.
B. cervix
A. Pollen
C. vagina
B. Ovary
D. corpus luteum
C. Stigma
287. Chimpanzees have 48 chromosomes in D. Pistil
each normal body cell. How many chro-
mosomes does a chimpanzee gamete con- 293. Which precautions should be taken to pre-
tain? vent the spread of HIV? 1) avoidance of di-
rect skin contact 2) wearing gloves when
A. 23 treating patients 3) not sharing soap with
B. 24 another 4) prevent exchange of body flu-
ids 5) treatment of blood to destroy virus
C. 46
A. 1, 2 and 3
D. 48
B. 1, 3 and 4
288. When does a woman experience lacta- C. 2, 3 and 5
tion?
D. 2, 4 and 5
A. During fertilization
294. The skin cells of an animal contain 8 chro-
B. After ovulation
mosomes. How many chromosomes will
C. During labor and deilvery be present in each of the gametes pro-
D. After childbirth duced by this animal?
A. 16
289. (? ? ) is the male sex hormone.
B. 8
A. Testosterone
C. 4
B. Estrogen
D. 2
C. Androgen
295. Where does implantation take place?
D. Androsterone
A. vagina
290. What do gene versions do? B. uterus wall
A. Make the proteins C. ovary
B. Provide instructions for proteins D. fallopian tubes

296. The thin stalk that supports the anther. 301. How do animals help disperse seeds?
A. Pistil A. Wind
B. Stamen B. They are farmers
C. Anther C. They eat fruits
D. Filament D. Fire
297. A 65 year old healthy male begins to 302. What is dilation?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
have difficulty starting to urinate, urinary
frequency, and nocturia. What MOST A. the thinning of the cervix
LIKELY is the cause? B. the widening of the cervix
A. Prostatic hypertrophy C. labor pains
B. Testicular cancer D. the baby crowning
C. Epididymitis
303. Menopause
D. Orchitis
A. when menstruation ends at death
298. How many chromosomes do gametes B. when menstruation ends in early age
have?
C. when menstruation ends in middle age
A. 13
D. when menstruation ends old age
B. 23
C. 46 304. Male organ in which semen and urine
leave the body
D. 28
A. Vagina
299. What part of male reproductive system B. Penis
that function as a sac that holds the
testes? C. Testes
A. Vas deferens D. Prostate Gland
B. Scrotum 305. The female gonads are the:
C. Penis A. Ovaries
D. Prostate gland B. Fallopian tubes
300. The passageways for the eggs as they C. Follicles
make their way toward the uterus and the
D. Mammary glands
place where the egg may be fertilized are
called the 306. What is the process called when a sperm
A. Fallopian Tubes and egg produce a zygote?
B. Uterus A. Reproduction
C. Vagina B. Excretion
D. Ovaries C. Fertilization
E. Cervix D. Sneezing

307. Occasionally, one or both testes do not eggreceives a fertilized egg retains the fer-
descend properly before birth. This condi- tilized egg
tion is known as:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4
A. Circumcision B. 4, 2, 3, 1
B. Cryptorchidism C. 2, 3, 4, 1
C. Orchitis D. 3, 4, 2, 1
D. Epididymitis
313. Referred to as the birth canal
308. The finger like projections that draws the A. Cervix
mature egg into the Fallopian tube is the B. Uterus
A. fimbriae C. Vagina
B. cervix D. Ovary
C. vagina
314. After Ovulation takes place, where does
D. corpus luteum the ova (egg) travel to?
309. Which area of the Female Reproduction A. Fallopian Tube

System is responsible for nourishing and B. Uterus
protecting a fertilized egg? C. Endometrium
A. Ovary D. Vagina
B. Fallopian Tube
315. The average woman will ovulate on what
C. Uterus day of her menstrual cycle?
D. Vagina A. 7th day
310. Which structure in male reproductive sys- B. 14th day

tem produce sperm? C. 21st day
A. Scrotum D. 3rd day
B. Testis 316. Which of the following includes a list of
C. Urethra pollinators?
D. Seminal Vesicle A. bees, cars, moths, hummingbirds
B. bees, moths, factories, butterflies
311. How many proteins do heterozygous
gene versions create? C. bees, butterflies, moths, humming-
birds, owls
A. One protein
D. bees, butterflies, moths, humming-
B. Two proteins birds
C. Three proteins
317. What is the function of vas deferens?
D. They are the same.
A. A muscular tube that passes upward
312. What is the correct organizational se- alongside the testes and transports ma-
quence of the functions of the uterus? de- ture sperm to the urethra.
velopment of fetusnourishes the fertilized B. Sperm storage organ.

C. Feces holding area. 323. The prostate

D. It produces sugar-rich fluid that pro- A. stores mature sperm
vides sperm with a source of energy to B. produces seminal fluid
help them move.
C. recycles undelivered sperm cells
318. Once sperm are made they mature in this D. produces testosterone
coiled tube
A. penis 324. This connects the ovary to the uterus.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. epididymis A. Penis
C. sperm B. Fallopian tube
D. none of above C. A and D
D. Uterus
319. Opening of uterus that dilates during de-
livery 325. Each spermatid
A. cervix A. divides by meiosis to produce four
B. vagina sperm cells
C. Fallopian tube B. divides by mitosis to produce four

sperm cells
D. none of above
C. divides by meiosis to produce two
320. What is epididymis? sperm cells
A. A set of coiled tubes that allow the D. differentiates into a sperm cell
growth and maturation of sperms.
326. Primary female sex organs
B. A long tube that releases the sperms
outside of the male’s body. A. testicles
C. A short tube that allows the sperms to B. Ovary/ovaries

move into the seminal vesicle. C. Gametes
D. The outer sex organ of male. D. Testes/testicles
321. mixture of sperm cells and fluids 327. Sperm move through the duct system of
A. scrotum men using:
B. semen A. gravity
C. vagina B. peristalsis
D. ejaculation C. hand pressure

D. viagra
322. of all the fluid that is in semen is added
by the: 328. A baby develops in this organ.
A. seminal glands A. uterus
B. prostate B. ovary
C. bulbourethral glands C. fallopian tube
D. adrenal glands D. none of above

329. What is the last organ to fully mature be- B. infertile

fore birth? C. immature

A. Lungs D. unreproduceable
B. heart
335. Which structure in male reproductive sys-
C. brain tem that transport the sperm out of the
D. ovaries body?
A. Testis
330. Sperm cells
B. Sperm duct
A. produce egg cells and estrogen
C. Urethra
B. are the male reproductive cells
D. Seminal vesicle
D. is a muscular organ where fertilized 336. What fluid contains millions of sperms
eggs implant and develop that is produced by the sex organs of
males?
331. How many weeks is considered full term
A. Testosterone
pregnancy?
B. Semen
A. 36 weeks
C. Urine
B. 42 weeks
D. Estrogen
C. 40 weeks
D. none of above 337. The release of a mature egg into an
oviduct is called
332. reproductive glands in which eggs are A. menstruation
produced
B. menstrual cycle
A. penis
C. ovulation
B. ovaries
D. fertilization
C. menstrual cycle
338. Choose all structures which are part of
D. fertilization
male reproductive system:
333. Name the structure that is considered one A. Bulbouretheral gland
of the three amigos that produces a thin
B. Seminal Vesicle
milky fluid that aids in sperm motility and
contributes to about 60% of overall se- C. Vagina
men volume. D. Sperm duct
A. testis E. Penis
B. seminal vesicle
339. What is the correct term for sex cells
C. epididymis (sperm and eggs in humans)?
D. bulbourethral gland A. Blastocysts
334. Sometimes, men and women are unable B. Zygotes
to reproduce, which is called C. Gametes
A. asexual D. Periods

340. System that ensures continuation of the 346. Where does semen go immediately after
species passing through the ejaculatory ducts?
A. reproductive system A. Outside the body
B. respiratory system B. Epididymis
C. endocrine system C. Urethra
D. digestive system D. Vas deferens
341. Which of the following is a female ga- 347. Sperm + fluids from seminal vesicle and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mete? prostate gland
A. sperm cell A. semen
B. egg cell B. testes or testicles
C. ovary C. scrotum
D. testicle D. none of above
342. Which structure in female reproductive 348. What is the main reproductive organ in
system where the fertilisation occur? females? What hormone does it secrete?
A. Uterus A. Testes:Estrogen
B. Ovary B. Testes:Testosterone
C. Vagina C. Ovaries:Estrogen
D. Fallopian tube D. Ovaries:Testosterone
343. That fusion of the male and female ga- 349. sac of skin surrounding the testicles
mete to form a zygote is known as? A. scrotum
A. fertilisation B. semen
B. menstruation C. vagina
C. pollination D. ejaculation
D. ejaculation
350. A muscular tube that transports sperm-
344. What is another term that is used for an filled semen.
Egg in the Female Reproduction System? A. Vas deferens
A. Ovum B. Fallopian tube
B. Sperm C. Scrotum
C. Ovary D. Penis
D. Speculum
351. In which asexual reproduction method
345. Flowers that include both male and fe- does the new plant grow in artificial me-
male reproductive structures dia under sterile conditions?
A. Plants A. Cutting
B. Perfect flower B. Division
C. Imperfect flower C. Tissue Culture
D. Weed D. Layering

352. Which statement is not true of the off- A. Start of the cycle
spring resulting from asexual reproduc-
B. Release of hormones.
tion?

C. Cause the egg in the ovary to mature.
A. They are produced by self-fertilisation.
B. They are produced from a single par- D. Capture the needed hormones.
ent.
358. What reproductive structure is described
C. Their cells have the same alleles. as a hollow, muscular, pear-shaped or-
D. Their cells have the same number of gan?
chromosomes. A. Uterus
353. The beginning of sexual maturation. B. Vagina
A. puberty C. Perineum
B. testosterone D. Ovary
C. glans
359. Which gland provides fluid that neutral-
D. estrogen izes acid and lubricates the urethra
354. What is the benefit of flowers on some A. Cowpers gland
plants?
B. Prostate gland
A. they make food
C. Pituitary gland
B. they provide heat
D. Seminal vesicle gland
C. they absorb water from the air
D. they attract birds and insects that 360. The role of the excretory system is to
spread pollen A. filter blood and remove liquid wastes
355. Where does fertilization take place? B. break down food for nutrients
A. ovaries C. remove solid wastes
B. cervix D. exchange gasses with the atmosphere
C. oviduct/Fallopian tube
361. Inner most layer of the uterus
D. uterus
A. perimetrium
356. Where in their female reproductive sys-
B. endometrium
tem is fertilisation most likely to take
place? C. myometrium
A. fallopian tube D. outermetrium
B. uterus
362. Site of sperm development
C. vagina
A. seminiferous tubules
D. cervix
B. vas deferens
357. During menstrual cycle, as pituitary
C. penis
glands releases hormones it results to an
important process which is D. prostate gland

363. Why is the scrotum located outside the C. uterus

body? D. cervix
A. The lower temperature is essential for
369. The duct that propels live sperm toward
sperm production.
ejaculation is the
B. To protect the testes from abdominal
A. vas deferens
trauma.
B. fallopian tube
C. To keep the testes away from the in-
C. seminiferous tubule
NARAYAN CHANGDER
fective potential of the digestive system.
D. The vas deferens provides a longer D. epididymis
pathway for the maturation of sperm. 370. In mammals, the placenta is essential to
the embryo for
364. What do we call a fertilized egg?
A. nutrition, reproduction, and growth
A. Sperm
B. nutrition, respiration, and excretion
B. Testosterone
C. locomotion, respiration, and excretion
C. Zygote
D. nutrition, reproduction, and excretion
D. Egg
371. How do different protein structures in
365. Protects and regulates the temperature cells determine traits?
of the testis
A. Different protein structures affect how
A. urethra they connect to other proteins molecules.
B. scrotum B. Different protein structures have no ef-
C. semen fect on connecting genes.
D. none of above C. Different protein structures can
change the gene.
366. What is the name of a female gamete? D. Different protein structures provide in-
A. Egg structions.
B. Sperm 372. The following choices are processes of
C. Zygote menstrual cycle. Which of these correctly
describes menstruation?
D. Diploid
A. An unfertilized egg.
367. What structure of the female reproduc-
B. A thick uterine lining.
tive system surrounds the vagina and is
made up of fat deposits? C. A fertilized egg.
A. perineum D. A developed union of egg and sperm
cell.
B. ovary
373. Which refers to the growth of the body
C. labia majora
parts at different rates?
D. uterus
A. puberty
368. Eggs are produced in the B. adolescent
A. ovaries C. growth spurt
B. fallopian tubes D. testosterone

374. At what age does the American Can- C. Vagina

cer Society recommend a baseline mammo-
D. Uterus
gram for women?

A. 20-30 years old 380. The female gonads are the
B. 35-40 years old A. Ovaries
C. 45-50 years old B. Uterus
D. 55-60 years old C. Fallopian Tubes
375. Testosterone directly affects the D. Clitoris
A. formation of a zygote
381. The skin covered sac that surround the
B. changes within an ovary testes is the
C. production of sperm cells A. Scrotum
D. development of a placenta B. Prostate gland
376. An easy way to remember the order of C. Cowper’s gland
hormones that are involved in the men-
D. Seminal vesicles
strual cycle is
A. POLF 382. When having intercourse, which struc-
B. LOPF tures do not come in contact with the Pe-
nis?
C. FLOP
A. Smaller lips
D. FOLP
B. Clitoris
377. The monthly changes that occur in a fe-
male’s reproductive system to prepare the C. Uterus
body for pregnancy is called the D. Vaginal orifice
A. fertility cycle E. Uterine tube
B. hormone cycle
383. What part of the external female geni-
C. menstrual cycle talia provides padding for the pubic bone?
D. implantation cycle
A. Clitoris
378. What could happen if a woman releases B. Labia minora
two eggs at once?
C. Mons pubis
A. Non-identical twins
D. Perineum
B. Identical twins
C. This cannot occur naturally 384. The reproductive organs that produce
D. Semi-identical twins sperm and testosterone is
A. prostate gland & seminal vesicle
379. Where a baby grows and develops for ap-
proximately 9 months. B. testes or testicles
A. Stomach C. semen
B. Bladder D. none of above

385. The end of the female reproductive cycle 390. the process when a sperm cell joins an
in middle age is called egg
A. menopause A. penis
B. gestation B. ovaries
C. menstrual cycle
C. cessation
D. fertilization
D. Granny syndrome
391. What are the tubes that connect the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
386. What is the main role of FSH? ovaries to the uterus?
A. Stimulates follicle to burst and release A. fallopian tubes
the ovum B. ureters
B. Stimulates rebuilding of the uterus C. urethra
wall D. colon
C. Stimulates one egg cell to develop (be- 392. Which of the following is part of the
come follicle) uterus?
D. Completes development of uterus wall, A. Areola
promotes glycogen storage
B. Perineum
387. Reproductive organ that connects the C. Fimbriae
uterus to the outside of the body (where D. Fundus
intercourse occurs) is
393. What is the function of the protective
A. vagina pouch that covers the testicles?
B. fallopian tube A. Scrotum
C. eggs or ovum B. used to regulate the temperature in
the testes
D. none of above
C. testes
388. These are the major male sex organs that D. produces sperm cells and semen
produce sperms.
394. In sexual reproduction, the female parent
A. Penis produces sex cells called
B. Vulva A. ovaries
C. Testes/testicles B. eggs
D. Ovary/ovaries C. sperm
D. estrogen
389. Where sperm go to mature for 2-3
months. 395. Which organelle is DNA usually found
in?
A. Seminal Vesicles
A. cell membrane
B. Urethra B. vacuole
C. Vas Deferens C. chloroplast
D. Epididymis D. nucleus

396. In asexual reproduction, do the offspring C. stigma

look identical to each other? D. style

A. No
402. During spermatogenesis, which of the fol-
B. Yes lowing cells is the first to become hap-
C. Kind of loid?
D. none of above A. primary spermatocyte
B. secondary spermatocyte
397. What is the main role of FSH in females?
C. sperm cells
A. Stimulates follicle to burst and release
the ovum D. spermatid
B. Stimulates rebuilding of the uterus 403. How does a developing fetus receive nu-
wall trients and oxygen?
C. Stimulates one egg cell to develop (be- A. It eats and breathes in the uterus.
come follicle) B. It doesn’t need nutrients and oxygen
D. Completes development of uterus wall, before it is born.
promotes glycogen storage C. The umbilical cord transfers nutrients
and oxygen from the placenta to the fetus.
398. The bulbourethral glands (Cowper’s
glands) produce D. The amnion contains all of the nutri-
ents and oxygen the fetus needs.
A. gametes
404. A male frog releases or secretes a fluid
B. semen
which contains sperm, over a cluster of the
C. lubricating mucus female frog’s eggs. What process is tak-
D. sperm ing place if the eggs are fertilized?
A. breeding
399. Sex cells have the number of chromo-
somes of other body cells. B. sexual reproduction
A. twice C. asexual reproduction
B. half D. none of above
C. same 405. what has four legs but cant walk

D. none of the above A. your self
B. dog
400. The urethra belongs to which reproduc-
tive system? C. your mom
A. Male D. chair
B. Female 406. What happens if an early embryo splits

just before implantation?
C. Both
A. Non-identical twins
D. none of above
B. Identical twins
401. Top most part of pistil (sticky) C. This cannot occur and would harm the
A. anther embryo
B. filament D. Semi-identical twins

407. What is it called when an fertilized egg B. Uterus > Ovary > fallopian tube >
implants on the Fallopian tube instead of cervix > vagina
the uterus? C. fallopian tube > Ovary > uterus >
A. non uterine pregnancy cervix > vagina
B. ectopic pregnancy D. Ovary > fallopian tube > uterus >
cervix > vagina
C. Fallopian tubal pregnancy
D. tubal ligation 413. Which part of the female reproductive
NARAYAN CHANGDER
system dilates during delivery?
408. What structure connects the ovary to the
A. cervix
uterus?
B. vagina
A. Fallopian tube
C. Fallopian tube
B. Cervix
D. none of above
C. Vagina
414. Twins that form from two separate eggs
D. none of above
that are fertilized by two separate sperm
409. In which organ does sperm production are called
take place? A. identical twins
A. Testes B. triplets
B. Penis C. quadruplets
C. Prostate D. fraternal twins
D. Vas deferens 415. The corpus luteum continues to secrete
410. Which is the correct order of human de- which hormone after ovulation?
velopment? A. FSH
A. fetus, embryo, zygote B. LH
B. zygote, embryo, fetus C. Estrogen
C. embryo, fetus, zygote D. Progesterone
D. zygote, fetus, embryo 416. What hormone causes ovulation to oc-
cur?
411. The shedding of the lining of the uterus
along with some blood once a month. Also A. FSH
called a monthly period. B. Oestrogen
A. Gestation C. LH
B. Conception D. Progesterone
C. Menstruation 417. The organ in which a fetus develops is
D. None of the above called
A. ovaries
412. Trace the pathway of the egg cell from
production to pregnancy. B. fallopian tubes
A. Cervix > ovary > fallopian tube > C. vagina
uterus > vagina D. uterus

418. What hormones are releases by the Pitu- D. 5-10 days after the start of menstrua-
itary Gland? tion

A. FSH, Oestrogen, LH and Progesterone
424. The lining of the uterus coming out
B. FSH, Oestrogen, and Progesterone through the vagina (sometimes called
C. FSH, LH and Progesterone ‘having a period’).
D. FSH and LH A. Conception
419. This is a common site of cancer in men. B. Fertilization

A. Prostate C. Implantation
B. Vas Deferens D. Menses
C. Epididiymis
425. Which of the following secretes alkaline
D. Urethra fluid?
420. What decides how much sugar is in your A. Seminal vesicle
blood? B. Seminiferous tubule
A. Pituitary gland
C. Prostate gland
B. Adreanal gland
D. Bulbourethral gland
C. Thyroid gland
D. pancreas 426. Where can the sperm cell find and fer-
tilise an egg cell inside a woman’s body?
421. Identify the part being described. Tubes
A. uterus
that connects the ovaries to the uterus.
B. ovaries
A. cervix
B. fallopian tubes C. fallopian tube
C. vagina D. cervix
D. fimbriae 427. The skin around the testes
422. The structure that has 3 layers of tissue A. urethra
to hold and nurture the fetus is the
B. scrotum
A. Fallopian tube
C. semen
B. vagina
D. none of above
C. uterus
D. ovary 428. What organelles are abundant in sperm
cells to provide energy for flagellum move-
423. When is ovulation most likely to occur? ment?
A. About halfway between the start of A. ribosomes
one menstruation and the next
B. lysosomes
B. At the start of menstruation
C. enzymes
C. 1-5 days before the start of menstrua-
tion D. mitochondria

429. A cancer occurs in a man’s organ, a small 434. Which female reproductive structure con-
walnut-shaped gland that produces semi- tains the ova?
nal fluid. A. fallopian tube
A. testes or testicles B. uterus
B. penis C. cervix
C. prostate gland D. ovary
D. none of above
435. Diploid spore-producing organism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
430. The time in a woman’s life when menstru- A. Gametophyte
ation usually no longer occurs B. Sporophyte
A. Late 50s C. Alternation of Generations
B. Mid 40s D. none of above
C. Early 20s
436. What does homozygous mean?
D. Teens
A. Two copies of a gene version that are
431. Caring for the male and female reproduc- different.
tive system includes: B. Two copies of a gene version that are
A. sexual abstinence the same.
B. self-exams C. Two copies of a gene that are mutated.
C. cleanliness D. Two copies of a gene that are used to

create another gene.
D. all of the above
437. What is the sterilization procedure that
432. What is an advantage of internal fertil- cuts the vas deferens to prevent transport
ization and development over external fer- of sperm?
tilization and development?
A. major surgery
A. there is a greater chance for genetic
B. Tubal ligation
variation
C. intraurethral device
B. only one sperm is needed to fertilize
the egg D. Vasectomy
C. genes can pass directly from the 438. The uterus

mother to the embryo A. produce egg cells and estrogen
D. the chance for zygote survival is in- B. are the male reproductive cells
creased
433. It is the nesting of a fertilized egg in the D. is a muscular organ where fertilized
wall of the uterus. eggs implant and develop
A. Implantation
439. What is designed to cushion and protect
B. Fertilization the growing fetus?
C. Conception A. placenta
D. Menstruation B. amniotic fluid

C. overaries 445. What would cause a positive Pap

D. placenta smear?

A. Herpes
440. Which structure produces progesterone in
B. Endometriosis
a 5 month pregnant woman?
C. Cervical cancer
A. The egg
D. Breast cancer
B. The ovary wall
C. Corpus luteum 446. Sperm leave the body through the
A. seminal vesicles
D. The placenta
B. ureters
441. Eggs of a flowering plant are contained
C. urethra
in
D. vas deferens
A. Pollen Grains
B. Anthers 447. The long stalk-like part that supports the
stigma.
C. Stamen
A. Filament
D. Ovules
B. Anther
442. ejection of sperm from the penis C. Stigma
A. scrotum D. Style
B. semen 448. What is the function of the epididymis?
C. vagina A. To secrete testosterone
D. ejaculation B. To store sperm until they mature
443. What is the main role of Progesterone? C. To hold the testes
A. Completes development of uterus wall, D. To act as a passageway for sperm

promotes glycogen storage from the urethra to the penis
B. Stimulates follicle to burst and release 449. Epididymis belongs to which reproductive
the ovum system?
C. Stimulates rebuilding of the uterus A. Male
wall B. Female
D. Stimulates one egg cell to develop (be- C. Both
come follicle) D. none of above
444. The inability of sperm cells to move nor- 450. A fertilized egg enters the uterus and em-
mally could prevent the production of off- beds itself into the lining of the uterus.
spring by interfering with This process is called
A. meiosis A. ovulation
B. fertilization B. implantation
C. mitosis C. fertilization
D. differentiation D. menstruation

451. An egg cell leaves the and goes into 457. What is the major male sex hormone?
the fallopian tube. A. Progesterone
A. Testicle B. Testosterone
B. Ovary C. estrogen
C. Uterus D. dopamine
D. Scrotum
458. The muscle layer of the uterus is the:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
452. The is the fetus’ link to life. A. endomenses
A. umbilical cord B. endometrium
B. fallopian tubes C. myomenses
C. placenta D. myometrium
D. none of above
459. Check all of the following which act as
453. What two things are found in the central mechanical barriers of birth control
nervous system? A. condoms
A. brain/spinal cord B. diaphragm
B. spinal cord/motor neurons C. cervical cap
C. motor/sensory neurons D. spermicides
D. only brain
460. Pathway for eggs-connect the ovaries to
454. Secrete nutrient-rich fluids that are the uterus
added to sperm to make semen A. ovaries
A. Testes and epididymis B. cervix
B. Prostate and vas deferens C. Fallopian tube
C. Prostate and seminal vesicles D. none of above
D. Epididymis and urethra
461. Which organ of the excretory system
455. Select the three parts of the female re- stores urine until the body is ready to elim-
productive system. inate it?
A. Ovaries, testicles and penis. A. ureters
B. Ovaries, sperm ducts and uterus. B. urethra
C. Ovaries, urethra and uterus. C. urinary bladder
D. Ovaries, uterus and vagina. D. urea
456. The male sex hormone 462. The fetus develops in the:
A. estrogen A. cervix
B. testosterone B. fallopian tube
C. progestrone C. perineum
D. prostate gland D. uterus

463. What is the process of an unfertilized egg C. It produces chromosomes

cell leaving the body?
D. none of above

A. dissolution
B. fertilization 469. What is the main male sex hormone that
is responsible for male characteristics such
C. elimination as deeper voice and facial hair?
D. menstruation A. estrogen
464. The organ that contains the urethra B. progesterone
where urine and semen leave the body.
C. testosterone
A. scrotum
D. none of above
B. penis
C. semen 470. Which structure in female reproductive
system produce ovum?
D. none of above
A. Fallopian tube
465. Which of these initiates the birthing pro-
cess in humans? B. Ovary
A. hormones causing contractions of the C. Uterus

uterus D. Cervix
B. the secretion of enzymes by the fetus
471. During menstruation, the bleeding is the
C. impulse signals from the placenta result of:
D. cell differentiation of the cervix A. Detachment of the myometrium
466. Which male reproductive structure sur- B. Deterioration of the endometrium
rounds the urethra?
C. A ruptured follicle
A. bulbourethral gland
D. A ruptured fallopian tube
B. testes
C. seminal vessicles 472. The male parent in sexual reproduction
produces sex cells called
D. prostate gland
A. sperm
467. A surrogate can be (select multiple
options!) B. vas deferens
A. a family member C. eggs

B. a friend D. testes
C. a stranger who volunteers 473. Genes that always show up in the off-
D. the legal mother spring
E. anyone over 50 A. Inheritance
468. Why is meiosis important? B. Dominant
A. It produces sex cells. C. Recessive
B. It produces diploid cells. D. XY Chromosome

474. is the hormone that causes female A. uterus

physical characteristics and aids in repro- B. fallopian tube
duction.
C. ovaries
A. insulin
D. vagina
B. adrenalin
C. testosterone 480. An egg develops, goes into the oviduct,
then travels to the uterus; this is known
D. estrogen as
NARAYAN CHANGDER
475. A plant egg is called an A. Ovulation
A. pollen B. Menstruation
B. ovule C. Fertilization
C. anther D. the menstrual cycle
D. ovary 481. One function of the male reproductive
system in mammals is to
476. This occurs on days 1 to 5 of the men-
strual cycle. A. produce insulin necessary for sexual
reproduction
A. The lining of the uterus remains in
place in preparation for the possible ar- B. transport eggs necessary for fertiliza-
rival of an early embryo. tion
B. Shedding of the lining of the uterus C. allow for delivery of gametes needed
for reproduction
C. An egg is released from the ovaries
D. provide protection for the developing
D. The lining of the uterus builds up
zygote
477. Where does the embryo implant and de-
482. The gametes that are made by males and
velop into a fetus?
that are needed to fertilize eggs.
A. Cervix
A. Sperm
B. Ovary
B. Egg
C. Uterus
C. Fallopian Tube
D. Fallopian tube D. Vas deferens
478. What gland should be checked for cancer 483. nourishes sperm.
yearly after age 45
A. Testicles
A. prostate
B. Epididymis
B. seminal vesicle
C. Semen
C. bulbourethral
D. Urethra
D. pituitary
484. How much DNA do you receive from one
479. What structures secrete progesterone parent in asexual reproduction?
and estrogen, and release an egg (ovum)
once a month during a womans menstrual A. 25%
cycle? B. 50%

C. 75% 490. Another name for the neck of the uterus

D. 100% A. The womb

B. The vagina
485. Where does fertilization of an ovum usu-
ally take place? C. The womb
D. The cervix
A. in the ovary
B. in the cervix 491. The sex cells that are made by the testes
and are needed to fertilize eggs
C. in the uterus
A. sperm
D. in the fallopian tube
B. vas deferens
486. The reproductive system is responsible C. epididymis
for D. none of above
A. filtering blood 492. What does FSH stand for and where is it
B. breaking down food made?
C. producing offspring A. Follicle stimulating hormone, ovary
D. exchanging gasses with the atmo- B. Follicle sensing hormone, pituitary

sphere gland
C. Follicle sensing hormone, ovary
487. Which part of the male anatomy DOES D. Follicle stimulating hormone, pituitary
NOT help produce a part of the final semi- gland
nal fluid used in reproduction?
A. Testicles 493. Mature sperm travels through this tube
to the prostate gland and seminal vesicles.
B. Seminal Vesicles
A. urethra
C. Prostate Gland B. epididymis
D. Urethra C. vas deferens
488. what is the first stage of labor? D. none of above
A. Placental 494. Which part of the male reproductive sys-

tem produces sperm?
B. expulsion
A. Ovary
C. dialation
B. Testis
D. none of above
C. Epipydidmus
489. The liquid that carries sperm. D. Prostate
A. Sperm 495. Kangaroos are mammals that lack a pla-
B. Erection centa. Therefore, they must have an al-
ternate way of supplying the developing
C. Semen embryo with
D. Egg Cell A. nutrients

B. carbon dioxide 501. The uterus play important parts in repro-

ductive system because:
C. enzymes
A. place where embryo is implanted
D. genetic information
B. produce sex hormone like estrogen
496. Produce the female gamete and the hor- C. place where foetus will develop
mone oestrogen
D. secretes mucus to help movement of
A. Ovary sperms
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Fallopian tube 502. Seminal fluid is the liquid in which sperm
C. Pituitary gland swims in. Which organs of the male re-
productive system produce this liquid. (2
D. Cervix Answers)
497. The bulging, rounded upper part of the A. Fallopian Tube
uterus is the: B. Prostate
A. cervix C. Epididymus
B. vagina D. Seminal vesicle
C. hymen 503. What structure produces estrogen and

progesterone?
D. fundus
A. Uterus
498. What gland controls all of the other B. Ovary
glands?
C. Cervix
A. Pituitary gland D. Vagina
B. Adreanal gland
504. The primary male hormone is
C. Pineal gland A. testosterone
D. pancreas B. estrogen
C. progesterone
499. A set of coiled tubes that connect to the
vas deferens. D. FSH
A. Fallopian tube 505. After leaving the Epididymis, where do
the sperm travel to?
B. Epididymis
A. Seminiferous Tubules
C. Urethra
B. Vas Deferens
D. Seminal Vesicle
C. Urethra
500. The tube or duct that carries live sperm D. Penis
from the testes during ejaculation is the
506. Where does fertilization usually occur?
A. vas deferens
A. ovary
B. fallopian tube B. uterus
C. ureter C. vagina
D. epididymis D. fallopian tube

507. What term is used to describe when a ma- B. Barthom’s gland

tured egg has been released into the Fal-
C. Epididymis
lopian Tube?

D. Testes
A. Menstruation
B. Fertilized Egg 513. Tiny male cell that unites with the female
C. Ovulation ovum to form a fertilized egg or zygote.
D. Ejaculation A. Testes
B. Scrotum
508. Check all of the hormonal contraceptives
C. Sperm
A. IUD
D. Semen
B. “The Pill”
C. “The Ring” 514. Thread-like stalk of the flower that holds
D. “The Shot” the anther upright.
E. implants A. style
B. stigma
509. Fertilization produces a single cell called
a(n) C. anther
A. embryo D. filament
B. zygote 515. What happens when a follicle ruptures?
C. fetus
A. Mensturation
D. egg cell
B. Menopause
510. Which is the function of semen, produced C. Ovulation
by prostate glands?
D. Lactation
A. to produce sperms
B. to protect the testis 516. When puberty takes place in girls, which
one of the following does not happen?
C. to provide nutrients to sperms
A. Womb grows bigger
D. to transport sperms
B. Shoulders broaden
511. After leaving the Seminiferous Tubules,
C. Eggs start producing
where do the sperm travel to next?
A. Epididymis D. Breasts enlarge
B. Vas Deferens 517. In the female reproductive system, what

C. Penis are the organs that make eggs and the fe-
male sex hormones?
D. Urethra
A. estrogens
512. What structure contains muscular tissue
B. eggs
that contracts during ejaculation to aid in
the expulsion of semen? C. fallopian tubes
A. Prostate gland D. ovaries

518. female sex cell: D. The organism inherits its genes

A. sperm through sexual reproduction.
B. hybrid 524. In human males, sperm cells are sus-
C. zygote pended in a fluid medium. The main advan-
tage gained from this adaptation is that
D. egg the fluid
519. Which part of the brain controls breath- A. removes polar bodies from the surface
ing?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of thesperm
A. neurons B. activates the egg nucleus so that it be-
B. medulla gins todivide
C. cerebellum C. acts as a transport medium for sperm
D. cerebrum D. provides currents that propel the egg
down theoviduct
520. During pregnancy, what is the primary
function of the placenta? 525. A fetus develops in the
A. to deliver blood to the fetus A. ovaries
B. to digest nutrients for the fetus B. fallopian tubes
C. to protect the fetus from injury C. uterus
D. to provide space for growth of the fe- D. cervix
tus
526. Each testis contains more than 30 meters
521. What part of a flower produces female of tiny, tightly packed (? ? ) tubules.
reproductive cells (OVULES)? A. seminiferous
A. anther B. seminary
B. ovary C. seminal
C. sepal
D. epididymal
D. filament
527. Which is the most valid reason why a
522. Which part of flower develops into fruit woman may be advised to give birth in
A. ovule hospital?
B. style A. The mother doesn’t want to be awake
when she gives birth
C. stigma
B. The father has an important date com-
D. ovary
ing up that he can’t miss
523. How do the proteins determine traits in C. Younger or Older mother
organisms?
D. To reduce stretch marks
A. They give instructions to the genes
B. It depends on how they connect with 528. The combining of a sperm cell and an egg
other proteins cell creates
C. The trait depends on what environ- A. Zygote

ment the organism lives in. B. Umbilial cord

C. uterus 534. This structure is used for both excretion

(urination) and reproductive funtions.
D. embryo

A. Urethra
529. How long can sperm live in the body of a B. Endometrium
women?
C. Cowper’s Gland
A. 3 days D. Scrotum
B. up to 5 days
535. On average, how many days does the
C. 2 days menstrual cycle last?
D. only 1 day 24 hours A. 7
B. 14
530. Which male reproductive structure con-
C. 21
nects the epididymis and the ejaculatory
duct? D. 28
A. seminal vesicles 536. the sex cells that are made by males and
that are needed to fertilize eggs.
B. urethra
A. Sperm
C. vas deferens
B. Egg
D. bulbourethral gland
C. Fallopian Tube
531. A pap smear is used to test for D. Vas deferens
precancerous cells on the females
537. Permits blood to move through the body
A. uterus to carry nutrients, oxygen, hormones, etc.
B. ovary A. respiratory system
C. cervix B. reproductive system
D. Fallopian tube C. circulatory system

D. none of these
532. What do the initials PID stand for?
538. Sperm travels through these vesicles to
A. Pelvic Immune Disorder the seminal gland to make semen.
B. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease A. Vas deferens
C. Perineal Inflammatory Disorder B. Fallopian tube
D. Perineal Immune Deficiency C. Ovaries

D. Epididymis
533. A photo of the chromosomes in a dividing
cell 539. The system used to take in oxygen to the
lungs
A. Karyotype
A. respiration
B. Synapsis B. respiratory system
C. Locus C. reproductive system
D. none of above D. circulatory system

540. Reproductive organ that connects the 545. A woman who is NOT sexually active
uterus to the outside of the body (where could still develop:
intercourse occurs)
A. Endometriosis
A. vagina
B. Chlamydia
B. fallopian tube
C. Gonorrhea
C. eggs or ovum
D. Syphillis
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
546. A primary spermatocytes
541. When does oogenesis begin?
A. divide by mitosis to produce two sec-
A. at birth ondary spermatocytes
B. before birth B. divide by meiosis to produce two sec-
ondary spermatocytes
C. at the onset of adulthood
C. divides by meiosis to produce four
D. at the onset of puberty
spermatids
542. Which of the following is the correct path D. divides by meiosis to produce two
of a sperm leaving the testis? spermatids
A. Rete testes-seminiferous tubules-
547. The endocrine system relies on the of
efferent ductules-epididymus vas defer-
the circulatory system to deliver its’ mes-
ens
sage to target cells in the body
B. Seminiferous tubules-Rete testes-
A. insulin
efferent ductules-Epididymus-vas defer-
ens B. axon
C. Epididymus-Rete testes-seminiferous C. blood
tubules-Efferent ductules-vas deferens
D. terminal branches
D. none of above
548. What is the tube through which sperm
543. When the egg and sperm join together, it passes from the testicles to the ejaculatory
is known as ducts?
A. intercourse A. Epididymis
B. ovulation B. Vas Deferens
C. fertilization C. Urethra
D. mitosis D. Seminal Vesicles
544. The beginning of menstruation is called 549. How are Identical twins made?
A. Menopause A. 1 egg 2 sperm egg splits
B. Oligomenorrhea B. 2 eggs 1 sperm
C. Menarche C. 1 egg 1 sperm egg splits
D. Premenstrual syndrome D. 2 egg 2 sperm

550. The period during which a girl sexually 555. What is the corpus luteum associated
matures is called with?

A. menstrual cycle A. Ovary
B. puberty B. Uterine tube
C. childhood C. Vagina
D. teens D. Cervix
551. The 3 functions of the MALE reproductive E. Ligament

system: 556. external organ which sperm leave the
A. produce sex hormones, produce eggs, body
provide nourishing environment for the A. penis
baby
B. ovaries
B. produce sex hormones, produce/store
sperm. deliver sperm to female reproduc- C. menstrual cycle
tive system D. fertilization
C. produce hormones, urination, cleans- 557. what slaps but does not have a hand
ing of reproductive organs
A. your hand
D. none of above
B. wave
552. Once sperm are made they move into this C. water
coiled tube
D. your body
A. epididymis
B. vas deferens 558. Testicular cancer is most common in what
age?
C. fallopian tube
A. Elementary boys
D. uterus
B. High school boys
553. The process of a seed coming out of its C. Young adult men
dormant state.
D. Men over 65 years old
A. germination
B. pollination 559. What two structures are located inside
the scrotum?
C. reproduction
A. Epididymis and prostate gland
D. symbiosis
B. Prostate gland and seminal vesicles
554. The hollow, tunnel-like structure through C. Seminal vesicles and testes
which menstrual blood and babies leave
the body is called the D. Testes and epididymis
A. Fallopian Tubes 560. Testosterone is produced by the

B. Uterus A. ovaries
C. Vagina B. hypothalamus
D. Ovaries C. anterior pituitary gland
E. Cervix D. testicles

561. A sac that is shaped like an upside-down 566. At what month do babies start to hear?
pear, with thick lining and muscles where a A. 3rd month.
fertilized egg (zygote) comes to grow into
a baby. Also called the womb. B. 2nd month
C. 5th month
A. Vagina
D. when they’re born in the 9th month
B. Cervix
567. The process of removing the foreskin
C. Fallopian tube
from the penis is:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Uterus A. Circumnavigation
562. Which of these is NOT a function of the B. Circumventing
reproductive system? C. Circumcision
A. release excess salts through the skin D. Circumcircular
B. allowing the survival of a species 568. The female reproductive structure that
C. fusing an egg cell and sperm cell to- serves as a passageway for the ova to the
gether to produce offspring uterus is the:
A. fallopian tube
D. producing the reproductive hormones
testosterone and estrogen B. perineum
C. vaginal canal
563. Which tube allows the passage of semen
and urine in males? D. ureter
A. Ureters 569. What is implantation?
B. Urethra A. Zygote adheres to the uterus lining

B. Early embryo adheres to the uterus lin-
C. vas deferens
ing
D. Penis C. Foetus adheres to the uterus lining
564. Sperm is released from the body through D. Zygote feeds off the uterus lining
the 570. Made up of 8 organs that release hor-
A. testes mones to control the metabolism and
growth of the body
B. vas deferens
A. excretory system
C. urethra
B. excretion
D. scrotum
C. endocrine system
565. The epididymis D. hormone system
A. all of these 571. The sperm moves because it has
B. is a very long coiled tube inside the A. flagello
scrotum. B. a tail
C. is where sperm mature. C. cilia
D. is where sperm are stored. D. hair

572. What is the LARGEST of the 3 parts of B. Seminal vesicles

your brain?
C. Testes

A. cerebellum
D. Prostate gland
B. cerebrum
C. spinal cord 578. If I step on a nail what type of neu-
ron take that signal TO the CENTRAL NER-
D. medulla VOUS SYSTEM?
573. What is the primary sex hormones of A. interneurons
males?
B. motor
A. Prostate gland
C. sensory
B. Testosterone
D. receptors
C. Urine
D. Semen 579. Part of flower that protects flower in bud
stage
574. How do pollinators benefit from flow-
A. pistil
ers?
A. pollen B. stamen
B. fun C. petals
C. nectar D. sepals
D. blood 580. The erectile tissue that is located on the
575. DNA inside of all of our cells makes dorsal surface of the penis is the
up chromosomes. In sex cells (egg and A. corpora cavernosa
sperm), the number of chromosomes is
B. corpus spongiosum
the number of chromosomes in normal hu-
man body cells. C. penile urethra
A. double D. membranous urethra
B. half
581. What is the name of the female sex cell?
C. triple
A. spermatogonio
D. the same as
B. oogonio
576. The part of the female reproductive sys-
C. sperm
tem where fertilization takes place
D. ovun
A. Uterus
B. Womb 582. How many months does it typically take
C. Vaginal opening for a fetus to fully develop?
D. Fallopian Tubes A. 9 months

B. 7 months
577. Where in the male reproductive system
is testosterone produced? C. 10 months
A. Ejaculatory duts D. one year

583. The muscular organ the size of a fist 589. The male sex cells
where fertilized eggs develop A. glans
A. uterus
B. sperm
B. ovaries
C. penis
C. vagina
D. urethra
D. none of above
590. The testes
584. Which hormone helps glucose get it into
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the cells of the body? A. produce egg cells and estrogen
A. Calcitonin B. are the male reproductive cells
B. Thyroxin C. produce sperm cells and testosterone
C. Insulin D. is a muscular organ where fertilized
D. Cortisol eggs implant and develop
585. The correct path of the egg is: 591. This system consists of body organs that
are involved with the production of off-
A. ovary, uterine tube, uterus, vagina
spring.
B. Fallopian tube, follicle, vagina uterus
A. Reproductive
C. labia, vestibule, follicle, ovary
B. Digestive
D. ovary, uterine tube, follicle, uterus
C. Endocrine
586. involves only one parent, all offspring
D. Nervous
are identical
A. Sexual 592. Which gland secretes insulin?
B. Asexual A. Pancreas
C. Mitosis B. Ovaries
D. Clevage C. Parathyroid
E. idk D. Thymus
587. Which of the following hormones is re- 593. The physiological purpose of the clitoris
sponsible for male secondary sex charac- is
teristics?
A. fetal development
A. Progesterone
B. maturation of the ovum
B. Androgen
C. pleasure
C. Estrogen
D. Luteinizing hormone D. receive the sperm from the male
588. Male and female gametes are 594. The female gamete is an
A. ovum and egg A. egg
B. sperm and egg B. ovum
C. testes and ovary C. oocyte
D. sperm and ovary D. all of these names apply

3.2 The Female Reproductive System 241
595. What is the name for the part of the sex 599. A mother goes to the doctor for a check
cells where the genetic material (chromo- up, and her doctor suggests to her to begin
somes) are located? letting the fetus listen to music and read-

ing to the fetus to help with brain devel-
A. Cytoplasm
opment. At what stage of development is
B. Nucleus the fetus most likely in?
C. Mitochondrion A. Weeks 1-2
D. Stomata B. Weeks 10-12
C. Weeks 18-20
596. Amphibians have all of the following
characteristics except D. Weeks 5-6
A. live on land and water 600. The male reproductive organ that stores
maturing sperm is the
B. have moist skin
A. Epididymis
C. eggs hatch on land
B. Vas Deferens
D. have an internal skeleton
C. Prostate GlandProstate Gland
597. How many proteins do homozygous D. Urethra
genes create?
601. Adds fluid to sperm to nourish and pro-
A. They are different
tect it
B. One protein A. penis
C. Two proteins B. prostate gland & seminal vesicle
D. Three proteins C. semen
598. chemical made by glands that tell cells to D. none of above

make something or respond in some way. 602. The release of an egg cell is called:
A. acid A. fertilization
B. enzyme B. ovulation
C. perspiration C. menstruation
D. hormone D. urination
3.2 The Female Reproductive System

1. During which phase of the menstrual cy- D. none of above
cle if an egg is not fertilized, it passes
through the uterus and the lining of the 2. Which of the following is called the “cud-
uterus breaks down and sheds. dle hormone”?
A. Follicular A. dopamine
B. Ovulatory B. serotonin
C. Luteal C. oxytocin

D. Acetylcholine 8. Narrow end of the uterus that opens into

the vagina; it stretches and extends to
3. Before a vaginal birth, the cervix dilates 10cm for a baby to be born.
how many centimeters?
A. Uterus
A. 5
B. Vagina
B. 10 C. Cervix
C. 20 D. Ovary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
9. The physiological purpose of the vagina is
4. Which is NOT true about the placenta? A. fetal development
A. Nutrients, gases, and wastes diffuse in B. maturation of the ovum
2 directions within it. C. digestion
B. It is formed after the egg has been fer- D. to receive the sperm from the male
tilized by a sperm cell.
10. Narrow end of the uerus that opens into
C. Found only in mammals, eg. humans
the vagina; it stretches and allows a baby
D. Maternal and fetal blood mix in this to be born.
structure. A. Uterus
5. Ovulation releases a(n) B. Vagina
A. primary oocyte C. Cervix
B. secondary oocyte D. Ovary
C. oogonia 11. How many stages of birth are there?
D. ovum A. 1
B. 2
6. Which one of the following is not diploid?
C. 3
A. germinal epithelial cell
D. none of above
B. oogonia
12. In females, what structure is the canal that
C. primary oocyte
joins the cervix. It is also known as the
D. secondary oocyte birth canal.
7. What is the correct sequence for human re- A. Uterus
production? B. Ovaries
A. fertilisation, ovulation, implantation, C. Vagina
birth D. Clitoris
B. ovulation, implantation, fertilisation,
13. The is the opening of the uterus
birth
A. cervix
C. implantation, fertilisation, ovulation,
birth B. vagina
D. ovulation, fertilisation, implantation, C. ovulation
birth D. uterus

14. Another name for the uterine lining is C. prostate gland

A. endometrial tissue/endometrium D. none of above

B. a fallopian tube
20. Which structures help to “sweep” the
C. urethral lining oocyte into the fallopian tube?
D. urethra A. fimbriae
15. The release of a mature egg cell from the B. cilia
ovary.
C. flagella
A. Fertilization
D. phospholipids
B. Ovulation
C. Menstruation 21. A female has a period when the sheds
its lining.
D. Ovaries
A. uterus
16. What transports the sperm from the testi-
B. vagina
cles to the prostate and the seminal vesi-
cles? C. ovary
A. bladder D. cervix
B. scrotum
22. How often are female eggs created?
C. vas deferens
A. Every month
D. testosterone
B. Every other month
17. In an embryo, the formation of many types C. All at birth
of tissues and organs occurs as a result of
the process of: D. None of the above
A. fertilization 23. This is the lining of the uterus.
B. cloning A. Cervix
C. differentiation
B. Fallopian Tube
C. Endometrium
18. The place where an unborn baby grows D. Ovaries.
and develops.
A. Ovaries 24. During which phase of the menstrual cycle
if a woman were to have intercourse dur-
B. Uterus
ing this time, the thick mucus captures the
C. Menstruation man’s sperm, nourishes it, and helps it to
D. Fallopian Tubes move towards the egg for fertilization?
A. Follicular
19. sperm is nourished by a sugary fluid from
the B. Ovulatory
A. seminal vesicle C. Luteal
B. cowper’s gland D. none of above

25. What are the 3 primary hormones in the B. vagina

male reproductive system? C. ovaries
A. testosterone D. ovum
B. estrogen
31. Primordial germ cell undergo mitosis
C. luteinizing hormone rapidly to form
D. follicle-stimulating hormone A. primary oocyte
E. progesterone
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. secondary oocyte
26. The is an external skin sac that holds C. Oogonium
the testes. D. Ovum
A. penis
32. What hormone initiates growth of follicles
B. scrotum in the ovaries?
C. semen A. FSH
D. testes B. LH
27. This produces a fluid that keeps sperm C. Estrogen
healthy. D. Progesterone
A. Bladder
33. What does STD stand for?
B. Scrotum
A. Standard transmitted disease
C. Seminal Vesicle
B. Sexually targeted diseases
D. Urethra
C. Sexually transmitted diseases
28. A membrane that partially closes the en- D. Severely targeted diseases
trance to the vagina is called the
A. mucosal layer 34. Passage that leads from the uterus to the
outside of the body.
B. hymen
A. Cervix
C. muscularis layer
B. Ovary
D. prepuce
C. Uterus
29. Identify the part being described:a loose, D. Vagina
pouch-like sac that protects and supports
the testes and sperm 35. Birth canal
A. scrotum A. fallopian tubes
B. vas deferens B. urethra
C. epididymis C. uterus
D. testes D. vagina
30. The fallopian tubes are to the vas deferens 36. A young man’s cancer that requires a self-
as the are to the testicles examination monthly is
A. uterus A. prostate cancer

B. ovarian cancer 42. During which phase of the menstrual cycle

C. testicular cancer does the dominant follicle releases its egg
from the ovary and captured in the fallop-

D. none of above ian tubes?
37. A male or female sex cell consisting of 23 A. Follicular
chromosomes
B. Ovulatory
A. Gamete
C. Luteal
B. Follicle
D. none of above
C. Puberty
D. Oogenesis 43. If a female leaves a tampon in too long a
rare but sometimes fatal bacterial illness
E. Ovulation could occur. This illness is known as
38. Female organ in which egg cells and sex A. Chicken pox
hormones are produced
B. Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)
A. Cervix
C. Old tampon syndrome (OTS
B. Ovary
D. Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)
C. Fallopian Tube
D. Uterus 44. In the female reproductive system this is
where fertilization occurs.
39. An unborn baby’s heart begins to beat how A. Uterus
long after fertilization?
B. Ovaries
A. 3-4 months
C. Vagina
B. 18-28 days
C. 5-6 months D. Fallopian Tubes
D. none of above 45. What structure in females is a small, sen-

sitive protrusion that is comparable to the
40. The “hood” which covers the clitoris is penis in males which is located where the
called the two labia minora meet?
A. labia minora
A. Vagina
B. labia majora
B. Clitoris
C. prepuce
C. Labia majora
D. uterus
D. Uterus
41. The passageways for the eggs as they
make their way toward the uterus and the 46. An organ that nourishes a fetus is called
place where the egg may be fertilized. the
A. Vagina A. ovary
B. Ovaries B. uterus
C. Uterus C. placenta
D. Fallopian Tubes D. fallopian tube

47. What part sweeps the mature egg from 53. The DUCT through which urine and semen
the ovaries? are discharged, but not at the same time.
A. ovum A. Penis
B. fallopian tubes B. Scrotum
C. fimbria C. Urethra
D. uterine lining D. Testicle
48. A time in a female’s life when she no
NARAYAN CHANGDER
54. They produce the sperm
longer produces sufficient hormones to
maintain a menstrual cycle is called A. Semen
A. attraction B. Tubules
B. menopause C. Testes
C. reproduction D. none of above
D. fertilization 55. The study of the female reproductive sys-
49. Tick on haploid cell in oogenesis. tem is called
A. secondary oocyte A. urology
B. primary oocyte B. meterology
C. polar body C. gynecology
D. oogonia D. histology
50. The female erectile tissue between the 56. Once inside the fallopian tube, the oocyte
labia is called the is moved along by
A. clitoris A. fimbriae
B. hymen B. cilia
C. inner labia C. flagella
D. vagina D. spindle fibers
51. Two small glands that secrete testos- 57. is the male sex hormone that controls
terone and produce sperm are the the production of sperm.
A. scrotum
A. testosterone
B. semen
B. semen
C. testes
C. scrotum
D. testosterone
D. penis
52. Where in the fallopian tube does fertiliza-
tion occur? 58. What is the function of puberty?
A. infundibulum A. to grow bigger
B. ampulla B. prepare body for reproduction
C. isthmus C. to under go psychological change
D. urethra D. to become a man

59. How many days each month is a woman C. increases the levels of LH and FSH
able to get pregnant?
D. causes ovulation to occur

A. 1
B. 3 65. The female organ of intercourse is the
C. 8 A. vagina
D. 30 B. clitoris
60. Either of 2 tubes through which an egg C. labia
travels each month on its way to the D. hymen
uterus.
A. Uterus 66. What hormone signal ovulation?
B. Fallopian Tubes A. FSH
C. Cervix B. LH
D. Ovary C. Estrogen
61. FSH and LH levels increase in response to D. Progesterone
A. an increase in progesterone 67. In the first stage of birthing, the cervix

must reach in order to begin “push-
B. a decrease in GnRH
ing”.
C. an increase in GnRH
A. 10 cm
D. ovulation
B. 1 cm
62. Pear shaped organ where the fetus grows
C. 10 mm
and develops until birth
A. Uterus D. 1 inch
B. Ovary 68. This is a pear-shaped organ that is located

C. Fallopian Tubes between the ovaries. It is also known as
D. Cervix the womb.
A. Uterus
63. The tube that carries sperm from the testi-
cles. B. Ovaries
A. Urethra C. Vagina
B. Testicles D. Urethra
C. Penis
69. Sperm and testosterone are produced
D. Vas Deferens
here.
64. The hormone “inhibin” is important be- A. Testes
cause it
B. Prostate Gland
A. prevents more follicles from maturing
and ovulating C. Vas Deferens
B. dialates the cervix D. Bladder

70. The process of releasing a mature ovum C. Sexual characteristics

into the fallopian tubes each month is D. Uterus
called
A. cervix 76. A fertilized egg is called a(n)
B. menstruation A. primary oocyte
C. ovulation B. secondary oocyte
D. uterus C. zygote
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. embryo
71. Another term for sexual intercourse is
77. Which of the following releases fluids dur-
A. coitus
ing sexual arousal?
B. erection
A. greater vestibular (Bartholin’s) gland
C. contraception
B. lesser vestibular (Skene’s) gland
D. conjugation
C. mammary glands
72. Fertilization usually occurs in the D. thyroid gland
A. ovaries 78. Produces female sex hormones
B. vagina A. testes
C. uterus B. cervix
D. fallopian tubes C. uterus
73. What’s the definition of the uterus D. ovary
A. Is an organism with strong muscular 79. Fertilization occurs within the
walls were the baby is made
A. fallopian tube
B. Is an organ with muscular walls were
B. vagina
the baby come outside
C. uterus
C. Is a muscle were the baby grows
D. anus
D. Is an organ with muscular walls were
the baby grows. 80. The surgical removal of a breast is called
a(n)
74. What are the 3 phases of the menstrual
cycle? A. hysterectomy
A. follicular phase B. vasectomy
B. hormonal phase C. mastectomy
C. luteal phase D. episiotomy
D. ovulatory phase 81. The male reproductive organ is the
75. How are called the fisical differences be- A. penis
tween men and women. B. testicle
A. Primary sexual characteristics C. sperm
B. Secondary sexual characteristics D. epididymis

82. Where are the fem. reproductive organs 88. The external genitalia of a female is called
located? the

A. In the highest abdomen A. uvula
B. In the lower abdomen B. vulva
C. No of the above C. uterus
D. none of above D. peritoneum
83. What’s the part of the uterus that leads to 89. The pouch of skin that contains the testi-
the vagina cles.
A. Cerbis A. Testicles
B. Carlyx B. Penis
C. Cervix C. Urethra
D. Xervis D. Scrotum
90. This occurs about two weeks after ovula-

84. The male reproductive organ.
tion and normally lasts three to five days.
A. Cervix
A. Fallopian Tubes
B. Penis
B. Menstruation
C. Testes
C. Fertilization
D. Vas Deferens D. Ovum
85. The structure that hold and nurture the fe- 91. A narrow tube that leads to the uterus.
tus (developing baby) is the Eggs released from the ovaries travel
A. fallopian tube through these to the uterus.
B. vagina A. Fallopian Tube
C. uterus B. Vagina
D. ovary C. Fertilization
D. Vagina
86. Fertilization occurs in the
A. fallopian tube 92. The shedding of the uterine lining is called
B. vas deferans
A. cervix
C. vagina
B. menstruation
D. cervix
C. ovulation
87. A developing fetus will grow here. D. uterus
A. Uterus
93. What is the vagina
B. Vagina
A. The part of outside, the vulva
C. Cervix B. The part that have an outside of the
D. Endometrium body

C. Is a muscular tube that connect the 99. The monthly discharge of the soft uterine
uterus with the outside of the body lining.
D. none of above A. Fertilization
B. Ovulation
94. The structure that provides protection and
C. Menstruation
cushioning for the vaginal and urethral
opening is the D. Urethra
A. labia majora 100. Which are the two tipes of Sexual char-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
acteristics?
B. cervix
A. Primary sexual characteristics
C. fimbriae
B. Sperm ova characteristics
D. endometrium C. Secondary sexual characteristics
D. Therty sexual characteristics
95. Fertilization of an egg by a sperm occurs
in the 101. In males, what is the loose pouch-like sac
A. fallopian tubes. of skin that hangs behind and below the
penis?
B. cervix.
A. scrotum
C. vagina B. testicles
D. ovary C. urethra
D. none of above
96. How long is the human gestation period?
102. which of the following statement is true
A. 40 weeks
about primary oocytes
B. 28 days A. undergo meiosis I forming secondary
C. 1 year oocyte
D. 12 weeks B. is a haploid cell
C. develop from oogonia
97. This produces egg cells and estrogen. D. arrested at prophase I until puberty
A. Vagina
103. The process of a mature egg being re-
B. Ovary leased into the fallopian tube is
C. Fallopian Tube A. pregnancy
B. menstruation
D. Vas Deferens
C. ovulation
98. This is the passageway from the uterus D. none of above
out of the body.
104. This contains urine.
A. Fallopian Tube
A. Testes
B. Cervix B. Bladder
C. Vagina C. Urethra
D. Seminal Vesicle D. Vas Deferens

105. Which is the route that sperm takes to A. Having “protected sex”
leave the male body? B. Picking the right partner

A. Testes, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, C. Abstaining from sexual activity
penis
B. Testes, epididymus, seminal vesicles,
penis 111. What female internal structure produce
eggs and hormones? These are small,
C. Testes, epididymus, urethra, penis
oval-shaped glands.
D. Testes, epididymus, vas deferens, ure-
A. Ovaries
thra
B. Fallopian tubes
106. The lower portion of the uterus which ex-
C. Uterus
tends into the vagina is the:
D. none of above
A. cervix
B. vulva 112. How long is the ovum in the fallopian
tubes?
C. ovary
A. 1 day
D. none of above
B. 2 days
107. The is a hollow, muscular organ that C. 3 days
nourishes and protects a developing fetus.
D. 4 days
A. cervix
113. How many premature egg cells is a fe-
B. ovulation
male baby born with?
C. uterus
A. About 2 million
D. vagina
B. About 400, 000
108. What hormones are released by the folli- C. About 2, 000
cle cells of the ovary? D. Zero. She doesn’t have any eggs until
A. FSH puperty.
B. LH 114. What is the life expectancy of the sperm
C. Estrogen cell inside the female reproductive tract?
D. Progesterone A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
109. Ovaries release a ripened egg every
month C. 72 hours
A. ovulation D. 92 hours
B. menstruation 115. A muscular tube leading from the cervix
C. puberty to the outside of the body is the:
D. ejaculation A. fallopian tube
B. labia majora
110. What is the only 100% fool-proof
method to keep from contracting an STD or C. vagina
becoming a parent before you are ready? D. none of above

116. How long is the whole menstrual cycle? 122. What is an ovum?
A. 1 week A. An ovary
B. 14 days B. A mature egg
C. 28 days-30 days C. A fertilized egg
D. 9 months D. A sunny-side-up egg
117. Essential materials needed for develop- 123. A fertilized ovum is called a(n)
ment are transported to a human fetus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
through the: A. zygote
A. reproductive hormones B. embryo
B. egg cell C. blastula
C. ovaries D. oogonia
D. placenta 124. What do the male reproductive organs
118. Females produce one mature egg cell each do?
month during a process called A. Move the sperm
A. Toxic Shock Syndrome B. Produce sperm and take care of it
B. Menstrual Cycle C. Produce and transport sperm
C. Ovulation D. Stores sperm
D. Estrogen
125. This produces semen.
119. The female gamete is the
A. Prostate Gland
A. sperm
B. Bladder
B. zygote
C. Epididymis
C. embryo
D. Vas Deferens
D. ovum
126. Which structure secretes the hormones
120. What are the two sex glands? There is estrogen, progesterone and inhibin?
one on the right side and one on the left
side. A. corpus luteum
A. uterus B. hypothalamus
B. ovaries C. anterior pituitary
C. vagina D. ovaries
D. hymen 127. This is a duct that carries urine from the
121. In human, how many chromosomes are bladder. In females it is located in front of
found in a primary oocytes . the vagina opening.
A. 23 A. Hymen
B. 46 B. Urethra
C. 69 C. Fallopian tube
D. 92 D. Uterus

128. Milk is produced by glands. 134. This is the passage that connects the
A. vestibular uterus with the outside of the body. It is
a canal inside the body with an external

B. mammary opening between the thighs.
C. cervical glands A. Uterus
D. areolar glands B. Ovaries
129. Narrow base of the uterus C. Vagina
A. urethra D. Urethra
B. cervix 135. What structure in males is the tube that

C. vagina carries urine from the bladder to outside of
the body and has the additional function of
D. ovary ejaculating semen when the man reaches
orgasm.
130. Uncontrolled ejaculation during sleep is
called A. prostate gland
A. orgasm B. penis
B. erection C. urethra
C. ejaculation D. scrotum
D. nocturnal emissions 136. Select TWO male secondary characteris-
tics
131. Mature sperm are stored here.
A. produce testosterone
A. Testes
B. growth of skeletal muscle
B. Urethra
C. enlargement of testis
C. Epididymis
D. production of FSH
D. Scrotum
137. This carries the egg cell from the ovaries
132. Female sex hormones are produced by to the uterus.
the
A. Endometrium
A. endometrium
B. Cervix
B. ovaries
C. Ovary
C. ova
D. Fallopian Tube
D. fallopian tubes
138. Which of the following is the male sex
133. How long does the bleeding last during gland listed with the appropriate sex hor-
menstruation? mone and sex cell.
A. 1 day A. Ovary, estrogen, egg
B. 1 hour B. Ovary, testosterone, egg
C. 1 week C. Testes, testosterone, sperm
D. 1 month D. a. Testes, estrogen, sperm

139. The testes can produce how many sperm 145. The is the passageway from the
a second? uterus to the outside of the body.
A. one A. menstruation
B. one hundred B. uterus
C. one thousand C. cervix
D. one million D. vagina
140. How about the route an egg takes?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
146. After conception, the fertilized egg then
A. Ovaries, epididymus, urethra moves to the , where it implants into
the lining of the uterine wall.
B. Ovaries, fallopian tubes, cervix
A. Uterus
C. Ovaries, fallopian tubes, uterus
D. Ovaries, uterus, clitoris B. Ovaries
C. Vagina
141. The principle “reward” neurotransmitter
in humans is called D. Cervix
A. norepinephrine 147. Which is an early sign of pregnancy?
B. dopamine A. missed period
C. melatonin B. nausea
D. oxytocin C. enlarged breasts
142. For this to occur a sperm cell must come D. all of the above
into direct contact with an egg cell.
148. Once an ovum is released from an ovary
A. Fallopian tube
B. Menstruation A. zygote forms
C. Fertilization B. menstruation starts
D. Ovulation C. it enters the fallopian tubes
143. A long, twisty, coiled tube where sperm D. ovarian cysts form
mature. It connects to and wraps along
the side/top of a testicle is the 149. The head of the sperm contain
A. epididymis A. semen
B. vas deferens B. testosterone
C. erection C. progesterone
D. seminal vesicle D. DNA
144. This carries sperm from the testes to the 150. Sperm is ejected from the male body
urethra. through the
A. Seminal Vesicle A. semen
B. Prostate Gland B. testes
C. Bladder C. scrotum
D. Vas Deferens D. penis

151. Choose the parts of the male reproduc- 157. Which of the following is the least ma-
tive organs (select 3 for points). ture form of “egg”?

A. scrotum A. primary oocyte
B. penis B. secondary oocyte
C. falopian tubes
C. ovum
D. prostate
D. oogonia
152. This carries sperm, semen and urine out
of the body. 158. After the egg leaves the fallopian tube, it
A. Testes enters the
B. Bladder A. vagina
C. Prostate Gland B. uterus
D. Urethra
C. ovaries
153. Another name for the elastic, muscular D. ovum
tube, which is the organ of intercourse for
a female is 159. Testicular cancer is surprisingly most com-
A. The vagina mon in males between the ages of
B. The birth canal A. 1-14
C. Both B. 15-35
D. none of above
C. 36-55
154. Vestibular glands are important because
D. 55-100
they
A. stimulate ovulation 160. Which hormones are secreted by the pitu-
B. help to lubricate the vagina itary gland? (select all correct)
C. produce milk A. Testosterone
D. produce estrogen B. Progesterone
155. Where are sperm produced? C. FSH
A. Testes D. ICSH
B. Ovaries
E. Oestrogen
C. Penis
D. Uterus 161. The hollow, tunnel-like structure through
which menstrual blood and babies leave
156. The risk of toxic shock syndrome is re- the body.
duced by
A. Uterus
A. performing monthly breast self-exams
B. practicing abstinence B. Vagina
C. bathing regularly C. Ovaries

D. changing tampons often D. Hymen

162. are the reproductive glands in which 168. Which male reproductive structure is re-
eggs are produced. sponsible for making testosterone and pro-
A. Ovaries ducing sperm cells?
B. Uterus A. vas deferens
C. Fallopian Tubes B. testicles

D. Vagina C. scrotum
D. prostate gland
NARAYAN CHANGDER
163. This is the opening of the uterus.
A. Vagina 169. The most common site of cancer in older
men is
B. Fallopian Tube
A. The prostate gland
C. Epididymis
B. The cowper’s gland
D. Cervix
C. The testicles
164. A reproductive disorder in which uterine
D. The penis
tissue migrates and grows in the ovaries
or fallopian tubes is called 170. Babies develop within the
A. vaginitis A. fallopian tube
B. pelvic inflammatory disease B. uterus
C. endometriosis C. vagina
D. toxic shock syndrome D. anus
165. The skin sack that holds the testes. 171. Which of the following does not con-
A. Bladder tribute to the production of the fluid called
B. Scrotum semen?
C. Prostate Gland A. cowper’s gland
D. Epididymis B. prostate gland
C. seminal vesicle
166. Male organ that allows a male to pass
semen and urine from his body. D. vas deferens
A. Penis 172. Which hormones are responsible for
B. Urethra changes in a women? (select all correct)
C. Testicles A. ICSH
D. Vas Deferens B. Testosterone
C. FSH
167. Oogenesis can be define as
D. Oestrogen
A. production of ovum in ovary
B. production of secondary oocyte in E. Progesterone
ovary 173. The surgical removal of the uterus is
C. production ovum in vagina called a(n)
D. production secondary oocyte in vagina A. hysterectomy

B. mastectomy 179. The egg cells of a female. They lie dor-

mant until puberty.
C. vasectomy

A. Ova or ovum
D. episiotomy
B. Sperm
174. In females, what structure contains
C. Vagina
sweat and oil-secreting glands?
D. Hymen
A. Labia majora
B. Labia minora 180. Folds of tissue over the vaginal opening
C. Bartholin’s glands A. Vulva
D. Clitoris B. Labia
C. Clitoris
175. On about what day of the menstrual cycle
does ovulation occur? D. Vaginal opening
A. 1 181. Where the embryo develops

B. 6 A. Testes
C. 14 B. Ovum
D. 28 C. Uterus
176. Just prior to ovulation, there is a surge in D. Puberty

due to a feedback mechanism with 182. The first two months (up to 8 weeks) of
estrogen. development in the uterus is called
A. LH; positive A. fetus
B. LH; negative B. embryo
C. progesterone; postive C. eggs
D. progesterone; negative D. ovum
177. Which organ stores sperm cells? 183. Oogenesis occur in
A. Testes A. uterus
B. Epididymis B. vagina
C. Penis C. cervix
D. none of above D. ovary
178. Sperm and other secretions from the male 184. Which hormone controls the development
reproductive system make up of male secondary sexual charecteristics.
A. scrotum A. testosterone
B. sperm B. oestrogen
C. semen C. testes
D. penis D. ovaries

3.3 The Male Reproductive System 258
185. Bag of skin that covers testicles 188. What are the hormones that the ovaries
A. semen produce?
A. Testosterone and estrogen
B. glands
B. Estrogen and FSH
C. scrotum
C. FSH and LH
D. epididymis
D. Estrogen and progesterone
186. During which phase of the menstrual cy-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cle, do hormones stimulate the growth of 189. The female sex organ through which a
about 15-20 eggs in the ovaries and in- baby passes during birth.
crease estrogen production? A. Uterus
A. Follicular B. Fallopian Tube
B. Ovulatory C. Vagina
C. Luteal D. Ovaries
D. none of above 190. If an egg that has been fertilized by a
sperm splits into two while it is in the fal-
187. Male organ in which sperm and sex hor- lopian tube, the beginning of two babies
mones are produced can start to grow. These are known as
A. Penis A. identical twins
B. Testicles B. fraternal twins
C. Vas Deferens C. triplets
D. Scrotum D. none of above
3.3 The Male Reproductive System

1. What are the male gametes? A. Vas deferens
A. testes B. Cowper’s gland
B. spermatozoa C. Penis
C. seminiferous tubules D. Epididymis
D. prostate glands
4. stage of development when reproductive
2. Which glands make a fluid that cleans the organs mature and the person becomes
urethra before sperm pass through it? able to reproduce.
A. Penis A. Infancy
B. Cowper’s gland B. Puberty
C. Prostate gland C. Adulthood
D. Seminal vesicle
D. Childhood
3. What is the tube called that carries the
sperm away from the testicles and stores 5. After meiosis..
them until they leave the body? A. 4 dipolid cells are formed

B. 2 aploid cells are formed 11. Where is the male sex hormone testos-
C. 2 diploid cells are formed terone produced?

D. 4 aploid cells are formed A. Penis
6. The urine and semen exit the penis through B. Testes

the C. Urethra
A. vas deference
D. Scrotum
B. ureter
C. urethra 12. Name the three types of accessory glands
in the male reproductive organs
D. none of above
A. seminal vesicles
7. The first day of a menstrual cycle is
A. when the egg is released from the B. led to the ejaculator
ovaries. C. vas deferens
B. the first day of bloody discharge. D. prostate gland
C. the first time uterus cramps are felt
E. Cowper’s gland
D. when the egg implants to the uterus.
8. The testicles are located outside of the 13. The pair of endocrine glands that produce
male body because: sperm are the?
A. the sperm have a shorter distance to A. Adreanal
travel during intercourse.
B. pancreas
B. more sperm can be created.
C. Ovaries
C. there is no room to fit the testicles in-
side the body. D. Testes
D. production of sperm best takes place
at a temperature lower then body temper- 14. Where is the male sex cell and hormone
ature. produced?
A. Scrotum
9. Sperm are stored in the:
A. epididymis B. Epididymis
B. prostate gland C. Testes

C. seminal vesicles D. Urethra
D. urethra
15. How many sperm does it take to fertilize
10. Which one of the following is not part of an egg?
the male reproductive system?
A. 1
A. Urethra
B. 21
B. Prostate gland
C. Seminal vesicles C. 100, 000, 000
D. Kidney D. 500, 000, 000

16. Which of the following IS NOT a function 21. An organ that functions as a producer of
of the Testicles? fructose fluid which is used by sperm as a
source of energy during activities.
A. They produce the sperm cells
A. Seminal Vesicles
B. They produce testosterone
B. Testis
C. They regulate temperature to maintain
the sperm cells C. Vas Deferens
D. They signal the bladder when to uri- D. Prostate Gland
NARAYAN CHANGDER
nate. E. Epididymis
17. Which hormone stimulates enlargement of 22. What is inside the scrotum (bag)
testes and causes development of sec- A. scrotum
ondary sex characteristics?
B. testes
A. LH
C. penis
B. Testosterone
D. foreskin
C. FSH
23. A major male sex organ that stores sperm.
D. Estrogen
A. Prostate Gland
18. you should do this once a month to help B. Testicle
detect any abnormalities or lumps
C. Epididymis
A. wear protective gear during contact
sports D. Vas deferens
B. shower or bathe 24. True sperm journey

C. physical check-up A. Testicles-Epididimis-Vas Deferens-
Seminal Vessels-Uretra
D. self-examination
B. Testicles-Scrotum-Vas Deferens-
19. Approximately how many sperm cells are Seminal Vesicles-Uretra
produced by each testicle daily by a mature C. Testicles-Epididimis-Vas Deferens-
male? Seminal Vessels-Penis
A. 5, 000 D. Epididymis-Testis-Seminal Vesicles-
B. 1 Vas Deferens-Uretra
C. 85 million E. Epididymis-Testis-Seminal Vesicles-
Vas Deferens-Penis
D. 123, 685
25. The external organs of the male reproduc-
20. Exam for Male Reproductive System tive system are the:
A. A A. testes and penis
B. B B. scrotum and penis
C. C C. foreskin and testes
D. D D. testes and urethra

26. A major male sex organ that produces 31. Erectile tissue in the penis that is hollow
sperm. and can be filled with blood from the arter-
ies causing an erection or tension is called

A. Prostate Gland
B. Testicle
A. darts
C. Ovary B. spongy body
D. Vas deferens C. cremaster
27. The vas deferens is a continuation of the: D. corpus cavernosum
A. testis 32. ( ) are stored in the epididymis, a network
B. scrotum of tubes located on the back of the testi-
cles.
C. epididymis
A. Eggs
D. urethra
B. Testosterone
28. What is the soft skin sack that contains C. Sperm
the testicles and controls the temperature D. Tadpoles
for sperm production?
A. Testicles 33. Which statement is true regarding male re-
production?
B. Penis
A. Puberty around 9-15 years
C. Scrotum
B. The number of testicles is 2 (pairs)
D. Semen
C. The testes produce sperm in the pro-
cess of spermatogenesis
29. Which of the following is not a secondary
male sex characteristic? D. Sperm will go to the egg without inter-
course, for example when swimming
A. Increased facial/body hair
E. The process of releasing sperm is
B. Lower voice
called fertilization
C. Thinner skin
34. Which anterior pituitary hormone is in-
D. Thickening & lengthening of bones volved in testosterone production?
30. What would happen if the testes were lo- A. LH (leutinizing hormone)
cated inside the body? B. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
A. Sperm would not be produced because C. testosterone
it is too warm.
D. inhibin
B. Testosterone levels would increase be-
cause of the warm temperature. 35. What is a possible consequence of a block-
age in the Vas Deferens?
C. The seminal vesicles would no longer
be needed. A. the seminal fluid won’t be expelled
D. Hormones from the testes wouldn’t be B. sperm won’t be produced

able to get into the blood. C. Fertilization won’t occur

D. mature sperm will not be transported 41. What is the term used to describe the re-
to the urethra in preparation for ejacula- lease of semen from the penis?
tion
A. Ejaculation
36. What is the part that expelled out the se- B. Secretion
men and the urine out of the body
C. Eject
A. Vas deferens
D. Expulsion
B. Testes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Penis 42. Inside the penis there is an special tissue
called
D. Seminal Vesicle
A. integunmentary tissue
37. When the spermatic cord becomes twisted B. muscle tissue
around a testicle causing severe pain and
even sterility C. erectile tissue
A. Testicular torsion D. epithelial tissue
B. prostate cancer
43. Following ovulation, how long does an egg
C. inguinal hernia have to be fertilized?
D. testicular cancer A. 12-24 hours
38. What is the tube through which urine and B. 5-7 days
semen are discharged? C. 1-2 hours
A. Penis D. 3 days
B. Scrotum
44. Which process only occurs in the male body
C. Urethra
A. erection
D. Semen
B. ejaculation
39. Which of the following is a viral infection
C. Menstruation
of the T cells?
D. Ovulation
A. HIV/AIDS
E. Fertilization
B. Herpes
C. Gonnorhea 45. What is the function of seminal vesicle?
D. Chlamydia A. A muscular tube that passes upward
alongside the testes and transports ma-
40. Which part of the male anatomy trans- ture sperm to the urethra.
ports the sperm cell into the Urethra?
B. Sperm storage organ.
A. Vas Deferens
C. Feces holding area.
B. Testicles
D. It produces sugar-rich fluid that pro-
C. Scrotum
vides sperm with a source of energy to
D. Epididymis help them move.

46. This pouch makes a fluid that gives sperm 51. What is the mixture of sperm cells and flu-
energy and helps them move? ids?

A. Seminal vesicle A. Testosterone
B. Prostate gland B. Deferens
C. Scrotum C. Semen
D. Vesicles
D. Penis
52. ( ) a tube like structure that functions in
47. Pairs of muscles found in the scrotum that sexual reproduction and the elimination of
work synergistically in controlling temper- urine.
ature are called
A. Cowper’s Gland
A. darts
B. Testicles
B. spongy body C. Bladder
C. cremaster D. Penis
D. corpus cavernosum 53. What makes sperm and testosterone, the
male hormone?
48. What pea-sized male reproductive struc-
ture is located inferior to the prostate? A. Testicles
A. vas deferens B. Prostate gland

C. Epididymis
B. testes
D. Penis
C. bulbourethral gland
D. seminal vesicles 54. What is the male sex cell?
A. Sperm cell
49. The Mother of Cell pada konteks spermato- B. Red blood cell
genesis adalah
C. White blood cell
A. Sel interstisial
D. Egg cell
B. Sel sertoli
55. It carries and stores sperm cells that are
C. lumen created in the testes.
D. Sel Leydig A. Fallopian tube
E. sel basal B. Epididymis
C. Urethra
50. What body part secretes the pre-ejaculate
that helps protect sperm from the acidic D. Seminal Vesicle
environment of the urethra?
56. which two organs produce semen
A. Ejaculatory Duct A. Vas deferens and scrotum
B. Seminal Vesicle B. prostate gland and seminal vesicles
C. Prostate Gland C. Penis and testes
D. Cowper’s Gland D. Prostate gland and epididymis

57. Males produce as their reproductive 63. What organs make the fluid for semen?
sex cell. A. Seminal vesicle and prostate gland
A. Sperm B. Seminal vesicle and cowper’s gland
B. Egg C. Prostate gland and cowper’s gland
C. Skin D. Penis and testicles
D. Brain
64. What are sex organs located outside the
body called?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
58. Where do sperm mature and become able
to swim? A. Circumcision
A. Epididymis B. Genitals
B. Vas deferens C. Erection
C. Urethra D. Internal organs
D. Penis 65. How long can a sperm live inside the ure-
thra of the female?
59. Sperm maturation occurs in the
A. One week
A. seminiferous tubules
B. Up to 5 Days
B. epididymis
C. 2 Days
C. vas deferns
D. Up to 6 Days
D. urethra
66. Where are sperm cells collected and con-
60. What is the name of the process for releas- tinue to mature?
ing a mature egg from the ovaries?
A. Epididymis
A. Ovulation
B. Penis
B. Menopause
C. Bladder
C. Menstration
D. Foreskin
D. Puberty
67. External male reproductive organs
61. A weakened or torn spot in the muscular (choose two answers)
wall holding the small intestines in. A. Testis
A. Testicular torsion B. Penis
B. prostate cancer C. Scrotum
C. inguinal hernia D. Epididymis
D. testicular cancer E. urethra
62. What is next to the testes and also stores 68. tube that passes through the penis and car-
sperm? ries urine or sperm
A. epididymis A. semen
B. scrotum B. urethra
C. seminal vesicles C. vas deferens
D. testicle D. scrotum

69. Sperm and other secretions from the male 75. The scrotum contains the:
reproductive system make up A. prepuce

A. Testosterone B. prostate gland
B. Sperm Cells C. seminal vesicles
C. Semen
D. testes
D. Male Reproductive System
76. What part of male reproductive system
70. During menopause what happens? that function as a sac that holds the testes
A. eggs are released twice at a time. at temperature below 37?
B. eggs are not released anymore A. Vas deferens
C. eggs continue to release at the same B. Scrotum
rate C. Penis
D. all her eggs are released at once. D. Prostate gland
71. What is a long muscular tube that carries 77. A pair of oblong organs where sperm cells
sperm from epididymis to the urethra? are made.
A. Scrotum A. Penis
B. Prostate Gland B. Scrotum
C. Vas deferens
C. Testicles
D. Seminal Vesicle
D. none of above
72. Which male reproductive structure is also
78. Sperm are produced in the:
part of the male urinary system?
A. prostate
A. testicle
B. seminal vesicles
B. seminal vesicle
C. urethra C. testes
D. ureter D. vas deferens
73. The sac that holds the testicles is 79. ( ) is the male sex hormone.
A. Testes A. Testosterone
B. Epididymis B. Estrogen
C. Ovaries C. Adrenaline
D. Scrotum D. Insulin
74. The process of human creation is described 80. The part of the sperm that penetrates the
in the Al-Quran ovum
A. Al-Mu’minun 12-14 A. Mitochondria
B. Unbelievers 12-14 B. Acrosome
C. Al-Mu’minun 22-24 C. Fluffy area
D. Supplies 1-4 D. Corona radiata
E. Supplies 11-14 E. Sperm tail

81. The prostate gland is approximately the 87. This walnut-sized gland makes fluid that
size of a: mixes with the sperm to form semen.
A. strawberry A. Seminal vesicle
B. peanut B. Epididymis
C. grape C. Prostate gland
D. baseball D. Cowper’s gland
88. Testes are adapted to produce
NARAYAN CHANGDER
82. This is the mixture of sperm cells and fluids
that protect and carry them through the A. body cells involved in embryo forma-
vas deferens tion
A. lymph B. immature gametes that undergo mito-
B. semen sis
C. blood C. sperm cells that may be involved in fer-

tilization
D. urine
D. gametes with large food supplies that
83. A female is born with nourish the embryo
A. all of her eggs 89. What is the organ through which urine and
B. none of her eggs semen leave the body.
C. 1, 000 eggs A. Scrotum
D. with half of her eggs B. Testicles
C. Penis
84. What cells secrete testosterone?
D. Testes
A. Sertoli cells
90. What occurs when the tissues of the penis
B. Spermatocytes
fill with blood?
C. Spermatids
A. Sperm
D. Leydig cells
B. Vas defernes
85. What holds the testicles and keeps them at C. Erection
the best temperature for making sperm? D. Epididymus
A. Sperm
91. When do males start to produce sperm
B. Penis cell?
C. Scrotum A. At birth
D. Testicles B. At adulthood
86. The sperm’s acrosome C. At puberty
A. contains nutrients D. At childhood
B. contains enzymes 92. Male sex hormones are called
C. has a high density of mitochondria A. Androgens
D. provides the blood-testis barrier B. Progesterone

C. FSH C. Seminal Vesicle

D. GnRH D. Vas Deferens

93. What is the name of the organ that fills 99. The technology that can be used in patients
with blood and becomes erect during sex? with prostate cancer is
A. Epididymis
A. vasectomy
B. Prostate gland
B. tubectomy
C. Penis
C. Operation
D. Vas deferens
D. Trans Urethral Resection of the
94. is to produce the fluid that nourishes and Prostate
transports sperm (seminal fluid).
A. Prostate gland 100. In the embryo, where are the testes
formed?
B. Seminal Vesicle
A. in the scrotum
C. Urethra
B. in the bladder
D. anus
C. in the abdomen
95. which is not a part of a female reproduc-
tive system D. in the thoracic cavity
A. cervix 101. Which statement is not compatible with
B. epididymis spermatogenesis?
C. fallopian tube A. The process of sperm formation
D. uterus B. Spermatozoids contained in the testes
cannot fertilize
96. What are the glands that secrete fluid to
carry sperm? C. occurs in the testes
A. Penis D. produce 1 functional spermatozoid cell
B. Epididymis
102. stimulates secondary sex characteristics
C. Semen in males and stimulates sperm production.
D. Seminal Vesicles A. Hypothyroidism
97. What are the male sex cells (gametes)? B. Hyperthyroidism
A. testes C. Testosterone
B. sperm D. Estrogen
C. seminiferous tubules
103. What is ejaculated from the penis?
D. prostate glands
A. Semen
98. What structure regulates the temperature
of the testes? B. sperm
A. Epididymis C. Fertilzation
B. Scrotum D. Urethra

104. What is the male gland that secretes 110. the sex cells of females that can be fertil-
testosterone? ized by sperm
A. Ovaries A. ovaries
B. Pituitary
B. eggs or ovum
C. Testes
C. uterus
D. Adrenal glands
D. none of above
105. A coiled structure located on the back side
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of the testicle. This is where sperm ma-
111. This structure has two func-
tures for about three weeks.
tions:Production of testosterone and
A. Urethra sperm.
B. Epididymis
A. Testicles
C. Ovaries
B. Prostate
D. Penis
C. Pituitary Gland
106. Which of the following is not a structure
in the male reproductive system? D. Penis
A. Vas deferens
112. What is the male sex cell that is needed
B. Ovary
for reproduction?
C. Penis
A. Seminal vesicles
D. Testes
E. Prostate B. Vas deferens
107. Where is the place where sperm mature C. Scrotum

and are stored? D. Sperm
A. Epididymis
B. Vas desferens 113. The gland that regulates the control of
spermatogenesis is
C. Urethra
D. Testes A. adrenal
B. hypothalamus
108. Which of these secrete testosterone?
A. Leydig cells C. testis
B. Sertoli cells D. pituitary
C. Smooth muscle
D. None of these 114. A female produces what kind of reproduc-
tive sex cell?
109. Another name for the sex cell is
A. Sperm
A. zygote
B. Egg
B. testicle
C. gamete C. Skin
D. hormone D. Brain

3.4 Gametogenesis 269
115. What is the whitish fluid made by the B. 14 days after the last day of a period.
prostrate gland and the sperm called when
C. about 7 days after the thrid day of a
mixed together?

period.
A. Sperm
D. 7 days after the last day of a period.
B. Semen
C. Nocturnal emission 119. What carries urine and sperm to the out-
D. Seminal Vesicles side of the body, but never at the same
time?
116. The organ that secretes 10
A. Prostate gland
117. is to both produce and store fluid that B. Epididymis
will eventually become semen.
C. Urethra
A. Prostate gland
B. Seminal Vesicle D. Vas deferens
C. Urethra 120. The head of the penis is what we called?
D. anus
A. Prostate gland
118. When will the ovaries release an egg B. Glans
(ovulate) during the Menstrual Cycle?
C. Root
A. about 14 days after the first day of a
period. D. Shaft
3.4 Gametogenesis
1. The primordial germ cells in oogenesis es- A. somatic cells
tablish themselves in the gonad of a fe- B. Ovary
male to initially form
C. Nerve cells
A. oocytes
D. Testicle
B. Obogony
C. ova 4. Each bivalent or tetrad observed during
meiosis is formed by
D. primordial follicles
A. four pairs of paired chromosomes
2. Chromosomes line up in g”single-file” dur- B. Two chromatids attached to a cen-
ing: tromere.
A. metaphase of mitosis C. two paired homologous chromo-
B. metaphase I of meiosis somes.
C. both D. any paired pair of chromosomes
D. neither 5. If a human diploid cell has 46 chromo-
somes the gametes have chromosomes
3. The process that allows the formation of
haploid gametes occurs in: (check 2 op- A. 23
tions) B. 46

C. 92 C. Neck
D. none of above D. Main part
6. What is gametogenesis? 11. It is from the moment of fertilization un-
A. It is a mitotic process that occurs in til the first two weeks, where the egg is
the sex cells. implanted in the uterus.
B. It is a meiotic process that results in A. germ stage
haploid cells. B. Fetal Stage
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. It is a meiotic process that results in C. embryonic stage
diploid cells.
D. none of above
D. none of above
12. In oogenesis, every 1 oogonium that un-
7. At what stage of mitosis do the sister chro- dergoes meiosis forms a
matids begin to separate into:
A. 1 functional ovum and 1 polar body
A. Prophase
B. 1 functional ovum and 3 polar bodies
B. metaphase
C. 2 functional ovules and 2 polar bodies
C. Anaphase
D. 3 functional ovules and 1 polar body
D. Telophase
E. 4 functional ova
8. Produces only one functional gamete
13. Sister Chromatid
A. Gametogenesis
A. uncondensed DNA
B. spermatogenesis
B. condensed DNA
C. Oogenesis
D. none of above C. replicated DNA
D. Replicated DNA that has paired up with
9. Regarding gametogenesis, which of the its match from the other parent.
following alternatives is (are) correct? I.
In oogenesis, non-functional cells called 14. An organism has a diploid chromosome
polocytes are produced. II. Spermatogo- number of 10. A cell, form this organism,
nia are formed after differentiation into in metaphase I of meiosis has:
sperm. III. Oogenesis, unlike spermatoge- A. 10 pairs of chromosomes
nesis, forms a single gamete.
B. 20 chromosomes
A. Only the
C. 10 chromosomes
B. Only II
D. none of above
C. Solo I y III
D. Solo III 15. What divides unequally during cytokinesis
for the female?
10. Part of the spermatozoon formed by an ax-
A. sperm cell
oneme, a pair of central microtubules and
nine peripheral pairs. B. the ovary
A. Acrosoma C. the cytoplasm
B. Flagellum D. all of the above

16. What is another name for an egg? 21. What is the small cell that originates from
the primary oocyte known as?
A. sperm

A. second order oocyte
B. polar bodies
B. oocyte
C. ovum
C. mature ovum
D. oogenesis
D. polar blood cell
17. Chromatin 22. If chromosomes fail top separate properly
A. uncondensed DNA during either anaphase I or ii, a chromoso-
mal error occurs known as
B. condensed DNA
A. disjunction
C. replicated DNA
B. crossing over
D. Replicated DNA that has paired up with
C. non-disjunction
its match from the other parent.
D. synapsis
18. A researcher of cell division observes that
23. What is a restriction point?
at one point human cells 1. double their
centromeres from 23 to 46. 2. have 46 A. A point at which a cell is prevented
chromosomes. 3. 23 chromosomes mi- from proceeding through the cell cycle.
grate towards one pole and 23 towards B. A point at which a cell has become com-
the other. With this information it can be mitted to proceeding through the cell cy-
correctly inferred that such cells can be ob- cle to cell division.
served in
C. A point at which the cell density in a
A. Meiosis I population has become too high and none
B. Meiosis II of the cells are allowed to divide.
D. None of theese
C. interface
D. Intercinesis 24. The Graafian Follicle, which appears 12h
before ovulation, contains a wide antral
19. Unlike gametes, body cells are called cavity around:
A. somatic A. primary oocyte
B. haploid B. ovum
C. secondary oocyte
C. semantic
D. Obogonia
D. sematic
25. There are 9840 sperms with 15 chromo-
20. A segment of DNA that codes for a somes. How many primary spermatocytes
trait/protein were there before first meiosis and how
A. Gene many chromosomes were there in each?
A. 2460 spermatocytes with 15 chromo-
B. GEne Pool
somes
C. Mutation
B. 4920 spermatocytes with 30 chromo-
D. DNA somes

C. 4920 spermatocytes with 15 chromo- D. spermatogonia and polocytes

somes E. primary spermatocytes and polocytes
D. 2460 spermatocytes with 30 chromo-
31. What are the phases of female meiosis
somes
A. Postnatal phase/Embryonic phase
26. If a cell that has 46 chromosomes divides
B. Postnatal phase
by meiosis, each cell produced at the end
of this process will contain how many chro- C. Embryonic phase/Rhodedendron
phase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mosomes?
A. 23 D. none of above
B. 46 32. In the anaphase of mitosis of a cell, 24
C. 69 centromeres are observed, therefore the
haploid number of chromosomes for that
D. 92 species is:
27. Ossification and growth end at this stage. A. 24
A. youth stage B. 12
B. Adult stage C. 6
C. childhood stage D. 8
D. none of above 33. What is the process when the diploid num-
ber is reduced by one half for the forma-
28. Male gametogenesis in humans takes ap- tion of gametes?
proximately?
A. meiosis
A. 41 dias
B. mitosis
B. 53 dias
C. photosynthesis
C. 65 dias
D. respiration
D. 74 dias
34. The sex of an embryo formed at fertiliza-
29. If a cell contains 66 chromosomes in its nu- tion is determined by:
cleus, how many chromosomes will each of A. The oocyte that will be fertilized.
its daughter cells have at the end of meio-
sis? B. The sperm that fertilizes the oocyte.
A. 99 C. The moment in which the union of cells
occurs.
B. 23
D. Physical characteristics of the embryo.
C. 66
35. Cellular division is important for which of
D. 33
the following processes?
30. In the process of gametogenesis, meiosis A. Growth of a multicellular organism.
II division takes place to form
B. Growth of a unicellular organism.
A. spermatozoa and ova C. Reproduction of a unicellular organ-
B. spermatids and ootids ism.
C. spermatocytes and oocytes D. A and C only

36. Chromosomes of a homologous pair sepa- 42. Reduces chromosomes by half

rate form each other during:
A. cell cycle

A. anaphase I
B. Gametogenesis
B. anaphase II
C. Mitosis
C. metaphase I
D. Meiosis
D. prophase
43. If a cell with 32 chromosomes divides by
37. It is the process by which one diploid cell meiosis, how many chromosomes will each
produces four haploid cells. nucleus contain at telophase I? (Assume
A. MIOSIS cytokinesis has occurred.)
B. MITOSIS A. 64
C. POLAR BODIES B. 48
D. MEIOSIS C. 32
D. 16
38. What type of cells are spermatids?
A. diploid 44. From what age to what age is childhood?
B. Haploid A. 0-6 years
C. somatic B. 6-12 years
D. stem C. 0-12 years
D. 6-15 years
39. Crossing-over occurs during:
A. anaphase 1 45. The process by which human beings in-
crease in size and develop into the shape
B. metaphase 1
and physiology of their mature state.
C. prophase 1
A. Development
D. prophase 2
B. Gametogenesis
40. The zygote of unicellular organisms C. Growth
A. always divides by mitosis D. Adult stage
B. can only divide by binary fission
46. A spermatogonium
C. may divide by meiosis
A. divides by mitosis to produce two sper-
D. always divides by meiosis matids.
41. How many chromatids will be present in B. divides by meiosis to produce four
meiotic prophase I for a 2n = 46 species? spermatids
A. 46 C. divides by meiosis to produce two pri-
mary spermatocytes
B. 23
D. divides by mitosis to produce a sper-
C. 92 matogonium and a primary spermato-
D. 184 cytes.

47. Which of the following pairs of structures 52. MEIOSIS PRODUCES 4 CELLS, THEY ARE
has the same amount of DNA?
A. N
A. An unreplicated chromosome and a
B. 2N
chromatid.
B. A replicated chromosome and a sister C. 3N
chromatid. D. none of above
C. A replicated chromosome and a biva-
53. What are the daughter cells that arise at
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lent.
the end of meiosis I?
D. An unreplicated chromosome and a bi-
valent. A. primary oocyte
B. secondary oocyte
48. A chromosomal disorder also known as tri-
somy 21 C. Ovogonio
A. Turner Syndrome D. polar corpuscle
B. Down Syndrome 54. What is the major difference between sex-
C. Klinefelter Syndrome ual and asexual reproduction?
D. Edward Syndrome A. Sexual reproduction does not require
cell division.
49. If gametes have 8 chromosomes, the cell
resulting from syngamy will have chro- B. Asexual reproduction cannot occur in
mosomes. diploid species.
A. 4 C. Asexual reproduction cannot occur in
eukaryotes.
B. 8
D. Asexual reproduction produces off-
C. 16
spring identical to the parent.
D. 2
55. In the G2 stage of cell division, are
50. When do centromeres divide? made.
A. Second mitotic division A. organelles
B. Second meiotic division
B. structures for cell division
C. Primary meiotic division
C. proteins
D. Trinary star division
D. all of the above
51. Gametogenesis is:
56. WHAT HORMONE REGULATES SPERMATO-
A. The transformation of CPGs into male GENESIS?
and female gametes.
A. LUTEINIZING HORMONE.
B. The transformation of CPGs in two
weeks B. REGULATORY HORMONE.
C. The transformation of the CPG in the C. TESTOSTERONE.
sixth week. D. SPERMATOCYTE STIMULATING HOR-
D. None MONE.

57. Crossing-over can occur between homo- C. 46

logues during
D. 92

A. zygotene
B. pachytene 63. When does crossing over occur?
C. leptotene A. Prophase 1
D. diplotene B. Prophase 2
58. What do haploid cells combine to create? C. Metaphase 1
A. Spermatocytes D. Metaphase 2
B. Zygote 64. Sustentacular cells with antigenic capacity
C. Oocytes (create blood vessels)
D. Gametes A. external teak
59. Chromosomes exchange genetic material B. internal teak
during C. follicular/parietal
A. crossing over D. Follicular / Cumulus
B. replication
C. synthesis 65. When does the maturation of oogonia be-
gin?
D. translation
A. In childhood
60. Homologous chromosomes pair up (synap-
B. In intrauterine development
sis) during:
A. mitosis C. at puberty
B. meiosis I D. in adulthood
C. meiosis II 66. Cell division that takes place in both fe-

D. interphase male and male gametogenesis
61. Gamete formation process/development A. Mitosis

and maturation process of male and fe- B. Meiosis
male sex cells
C. Apoptosis
A. Gametogenesis
D. none of above
B. spermatogenesis
C. Oogenesis 67. From 50 spermatocytes I, (2n 4c) that en-
ter meiosis, at the end of meiosis II are
D. none of above
obtained
62. A human cell has 46 chromosomes before A. 200 spermatids.
mitotic division. How many chromosomes
will the daughter cells have after mitosis. B. 200 sperm.
A. 12 C. 400 sperm.
B. 23 D. 400 spermatids

68. Without meiosis would gametogenesis oc- 73. A student when observing a germ cell un-
cur? der a microscope that there is a separation
A. Yes, gametogenesis is a completely of homologous chromosomes. You would
seperate process tell him that it corresponds to the stage:
B. No, the formation of sperm and egg is A. mitotic anaphase

done by meiosis B. Anaphase II
C. Yes, gametogenesis can go on without C. Metaphase H
NARAYAN CHANGDER
meiosis
D. Anaphasi H
D. Yes, mitosis is needed for gametogen-
esis 74. why does Meiosis 2 need to happen?
A. to separate the sister chromatids ( the
69. Which one of the following statements is
copies)
not true about meiosis?
B. to allow for crossing over
A. Meiosis occurs in reproductive cells.
C. to become haploid
B. Meiosis results in four haploid daugh-
ter cells. D. to create two cells
C. In meiosis, chromosomes do not ex- 75. Sperm that has been formed will be stored
change genetic material. temporarily and is the place where sperm
D. In meiosis, homologous pairs of chro- maturation is
mosomes are pulled apart. A. Scrotum
70. Meiosis allows generating genetic variabil- B. Epididymis
ity because:
C. Penis
A. Replicates or reproduces the same ge-
D. Testis
netic information
E. Ureter
B. 3 cell divisions occur in it
C. Crossing over of chromosomes occurs 76. What change occurs in chromosome struc-
ture between G1 and G2 phases of inter-
D. rearranges genetic information
phase?
71. The genes in a population A. By G2, they have become more tightly
A. Gene condensed.
B. GEne Pool B. They begin to be more actively tran-
scribed in G2 than G1.
C. Mutation
C. Chromosomes in G2 contain two linear
D. DNA
pieces of DNA while those in G1 have only
72. The term Asthenozoospermia refers to: one.
A. Ejaculated volume less than 1.5mL D. Chromosomes in G2 have a cen-
tromere which was not present in G1.
B. Sperm motility less than 32%
C. Absence of sperm in the sample 77. The process of a diploid gamete producing
D. Sperm concentration less than 15 mil- haploid sperm and egg cells is
lion A. gametogenesis

B. photosynthesis 82. Gametogenesis is

C. anaerobic respiration A. somatic cell formation

D. mitosis B. The formation of gametes through mi-
tosis
78. They are haploid cells that make up the
male gamete. C. The formation of gametes through
meiosis
A. Spermatogonia
D. sperm formation
B. spermatid
83. They are somatic cells:
C. Spermatozoon
A. sperm and skin cells
D. spermatocyte
B. Muscle cells and ova
79. What is the chiasmata?
C. The muscular and the capillaries
A. ,
D. Sperm and Eggs
B. m
84. The process in which sperm and egg cells
C. where crossing over occurs
join is
D. none of above
A. fertilization
80. How are meiosis and gametogenesis B. cytokinesis
linked in plants?
C. mitosis
A. Meiosis produces haploid gametes di- D. taxonomy
rectly.
B. Meiosis produces haploid gametes 85. The number of chromosomes in a daughter
that are then modified by the sporophyte cell that divides by meiosis is
to produce functional gametes. A. 46 pairs of chromosomes
C. Meiosis produces a haploid cell that di- B. 46 chromosomes
vides by mitosis to form a gametophyte, C. 23 pairs of chromosomes
which then produces gametes by mitosis.
D. 23 chromosomes
D. They are not linked in any way.
86. The germ cells of the ovaries, and where
81. Que es la gametogenesis the oocytes are produced is called
A. Es un proceso que se observa solo en A. oocytes
los humanos
B. Uogonia
B. Es el proceso en que se forman las
celulas asexuales C. ova
C. La gametogenesis no hace posible la D. primordial follicles

fecundacion 87. What is another name for an ovum?
D. Es el inicio de la division celular para A. nutrient
la formacion de gametos sexuales
B. polar body
E. Permiten que los gametos tanto mas-
culinos como femeninos contengan infro- C. egg
macion genetica completa D. hormone

88. Process in which homologous chromo- B. 2

somes exchange portions of their chro-
C. 4
matids during meiosis.
D. none of above
A. Meiosis
B. Crossing Over 94. Meiosis is the type of cell division involved
C. Homology in
D. Fission A. Gametogenesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Oogenesis
89. From what day of the embryonic devel-
opment of the yolk sac are spermatozoa C. Spermatogenesis
formed? D. All of the above
A. of the 21st
95. In which of these are 4 functional gametes
B. of the 28th
produced?
C. of the 23rd
A. Gametogenesis
D. of the 24th
B. spermatogenesis
90. THE EMBRYO DEVELOPES OUTSIDE THE
C. Oogenesis
MOTHER’S BODY, INSIDE AN EGG THAT
PROVIDES NUTRIENTS. D. none of above
A. LIVE THEM 96. Ends with menopause
B. OVOVIVIPARUS
A. Gametogenesis
C. oviparous
B. spermatogenesis
D. HATCHING
C. Oogenesis
91. What name is given to mature sperm? D. none of above
A. Spermatocyte
97. The female gonads are those structures
B. Spermatozoa
where the formation of gametes occurs.
C. Spermatogonium The female gonads are:
D. Spermatogonia A. the ova
92. Stage of the where they mate cor- B. sex cells
responds to
C. The ovaries
A. mitosis-chromatids-metaphase
D. sperm
B. meiosis-homologous-prophase I
C. mitosis-homologous-prophase 98. During which phase of meiosis does inde-
pendent assortment occur?
D. meiosis-non-homologous-metaphase
I A. Metaphase I
B. Anaphase I
93. How many secondary spermatocytes are
produced after the first round of meiosis? C. Metaphase II
A. 1 D. Anaphase II

99. At what stage does sperm maturation be- 105. The process of oogenesis results in
gin? A. one egg cell and three polar bodies

A. In childhood B. 4 sperm cells
B. before birth
C. one sperm cell and three polar bodies
C. at puberty
D. 4 egg cells
D. none of above
106. What is gametogenesis? What is meant
100. What is a cause of genetic variation? by gametogenesis?
(Mark all correct)
A. Formation of sperm
A. Independent assortment
B. Formation of ovumPembentukan ovum
B. Genetic recombination
C. Formation of gametes
C. Mitosis
D. Formation of gonadPembentukan go-
D. Apoptosis nad
101. The mother cell of the eggs is and the
107. What is oogenesis?
mother of the sperm is
A. formation of female eggs
A. ovogonia-spermatogonia
B. formation of male sperm
B. spermatogonia-obogonia
C. the oocyte being made into
C. ootid-spermatid
D. none of above D. the production of 3 polar bodies
102. WHAT TYPE OF CELLS STORE THE GE- 108. The number of functional sperm cells pro-
NETIC INFORMATION THAT IS PASSED TO duced in the process of spermatogenesis is
OFF-SPRING
A. BODY CELLS A. 2 sel
B. MITOSIS B. 4 sel
C. EGG C. 6 sel
D. SPERM D. 8 sel
E. EGG AND SPERM E. 10 sel
103. Nuclear envelope and nucleoli are built. 109. Spermatogenesis occurs in the
A. Telophase II A. epididymis
B. Anaphasi H B. seminiferous tubules
C. metaphor tall C. prostate glands
D. Metaphase H D. seminal vesicles
104. Which is the male sex cell? 110. The cells in the testes that produce testos-
A. Sperm terone are the
B. Egg A. sel cowper
C. Ovum B. sel bulbouretra
D. Secondary Spermatocyte C. cell leydig

D. sel sertoli C. mitosis & meiosis

E. sperm stem cells D. none of the above
111. WHAT IS OOGENESIS?
117. Spermatogenesis involves
A. The formation of female gametes.
A. Mitosis only
B. Germ cells that are inactive.
B. Meiosis only
C. All of the above.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above C. Mitosis followed by meiosis
D. none of above
112. When a plant cell goes through cell divi-
sion,
118. Asexual reproduction will result in
A. the 2 new nuclei are separated by the
cell membrane pinching off. A. Identical offspring to the parent
B. 4 new cells are formed B. Twins
C. a cell plate forms, dividing the 2 new C. Meiosis
nuclei
D. Non-identical offspring to the parent
119. At what temperature should the gonads
113. Meiosis I is while Meiosis II is
be for the process of spermatogenesis?
A. reductional-equational
A. -4 degrees from normal temperature.
B. equational-equational
C. equational-reductional B. -2 degrees from normal temperature.
D. reductional-reductional C. + 2 degrees from normal tempera-

ture.
114. What step precedes meiosis?
D. +4 degrees from normal tempera-
A. spaghettification ture.
B. ratification
C. reduction 120. Female Gametogenesis is also known as:
D. replication A. diploid cells
115. In what structure does the secondary B. Meiosis II

oocyte start Meoisis II? C. primary oocytes
A. Primary follicle D. Ovogenesis
B. Primordial follicle
C. Eiffel Tower 121. The process of egg formation is and
sperm is
D. Graafian follicle
A. oogenesis-spermatogenesis
116. During alternation of generations, cells
reproduce by what? B. spermatogenesis-oogenesis
A. mitosis C. oogenesis-spermiogenesis
B. meiosis D. none of above

122. Crossing over occurs between chromatids B. Gametogenesis

of their homologous chromosomes. This of- C. Growth
ten occurs in the phase

D. Adult stage
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase 128. At what stage is the primary oocyte ar-
rested?
C. Anaphase
A. pachytene
D. Telophase
B. cytothene
E. interface
C. diacine
123. The uniting of sperm and egg is called
D. diploteno
A. reproduction
129. Boys who have puberty experience
B. regeneration
changes in voice and body shape. These
C. fertilisation changes are influenced by hormones
D. germination A. gonadotropin
124. EACH PROCESS OF GROWTH AND DIVI- B. testosterone
SION OF CELLS RECEIVES THE NAME OF: C. adrenalin
A. MITOSIS D. estrogen
B. MEIOSIS E. androgen
C. CELL CYCLE
130. Meiosis II is also called
D. CANCER
A. reductional
125. In spermatogenesis, how many FUNC- B. equational
TIONAL haploid cells are formed?
C. Gestational
A. 1
D. Seasonal
B. 2
C. 3 131. What is the name of the first spermato-
genic cells?
D. 4
A. spermatids
126. The men’s CGP will become
B. Spermatogonia
A. Espermatozoide
C. secondary spermatocyte
B. ovum
D. primary spermatocyte
C. Red blood cell
132. What is the synonym of proliferative
D. White blood cell
phase?
127. Differentiation process, where there is A. sperm stage
an increase in the complexity of the body
and modification of parts of structures to B. ovogenic phase
carry out specific functions. C. spermatogonial phase
A. Development D. ovular phase

133. The secondary oocyte completes the sec- D. Growth

ond meiotic division: E. Division
A. before ovulation
139. Corpus luteum produces
B. at fertilization
A. hormone estrogen
C. at puberty B. hormon progesteron
D. during ovulation C. hormon testosteron
NARAYAN CHANGDER
134. The division of the nucleus is known as: D. ovum
A. Synthesis 140. In the S stage of interphase
B. Mitosis A. the cell grows
C. G1 B. the nucleus divides
D. G2 C. the cell membrane divides
D. the DNA is replicated
135. Meiosis results in
A. 2 haploid daughter cells 141. After what part of meiosis does a repro-
ductive cell become haploid?
B. 4 haploid daughter cells
A. Metaphase I
C. 2 diploid daughter cells
B. Meiosis I
D. 4 diploid daughter cells
C. Meiosis II
136. A 2n = 12 cell, in prophase II of meiosis D. Prophase I
will have
142. When we talk about female gametogen-
A. 12 single chromosomes. esis what do we mean:
B. 12 double chromosomes. A. spermatogenesis
C. 6 bivalents or tetrads. B. oogenesis
D. 6 double chromosomes. C. Mitosis
137. Which of the following options describes D. Meiosis
a fundamental function of meiosis? 143. It is the process of production of female
A. Keep the chromosome number of a gametes
species constant. A. Gametogenesis
B. Occur exclusively in reproductive or- B. spermatogenesis
gans (gonads).
C. Ovogenesis
C. Produce diploid cells from a haploid. D. Proliferation
D. Have a long prophase I.
144. Sex cells are also known as and are
138. Indicate which are the three phases of ga- formed through the process known as
metogenesis: A. Gametos-gametogenesis
A. Maturation B. gonads-meiosis
B. Multiplication C. Gametos-mitosis
C. Differentiation D. none of above

145. The chromatids of each double chromo- 150. What is the process of making an ovum
some separate and move towards the op- called?
posite poles of the cell, that is, the DNA is

A. spermatogenesis
distributed equally.
A. Anaphasi H B. oogenesis
B. metaphor tall C. oocyte
C. Prophase I D. none of above
D. Anaphase II
151. Where do primitive germ cells migrate
146. Meiosis occurs when: from?
A. One diploid cell forms 2 haploid cells. A. Gametogenesis
B. One diploid cell forms 4 haploid cells.
B. ovaries
C. One haploid cell forms 4 haploid cells.
C. Testicles
D. none of above
D. Yolk sac
147. Which of the following occurs during
Anaphase I? 152. What are gametes and what is their func-
A. The chromatids seperate and move to tion?
opposite ends of the cell.
A. specialized sex cells that together
B. The pairs of homologous chromo- form the zygote
somes line up in the center of the cell.
B. specialized sex cells that make sure
C. The cytoplasm divides and 2 new cells the cell is stable
are formed.
C. specialized sex cells that create the
D. Homologous chromosomes are pulled
sperm cell only
to opposite ends of the cell.
D. specialized sex cells that create the
148. Microsporogenesis is the process of form-
DNA strands
ing microspores or pollen grains. During
the process, meiosis divides. During meio- 153. Cells of organism must replicate for?
sis II, microsporogenesis is formed.
A. 2 haploid microspores A. growth
B. 2 diploid microspores B. repair of damaged cells

C. 2 triploid microspores C. replacement of dying cells.
D. 4 haploid microspores D. All of the above
E. 4 diploid microspores
154. The separation of sister chromatids oc-
149. Which of the following sex cells has a tail curs in the stage called
and is motile?
A. mitotic anaphase
A. sperm cells
B. egg cells B. Anaphase II
C. all of the above C. Metaphase H

D. none of the above D. Anaphasi H

155. It is the division of the cytoplasm into B. haploid

two parts, with the approximate distribu- C. triploid
tion of cellular cellular structures
D. tetraploid
A. Prophase
B. Anaphase 161. IS THE FORMATION OF MALE GAMETES
CALLED?
C. metaphase
A. Oogenesis.
D. Telophase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. spermatogenesis.
E. cytokinesis
C. None of the above.
156. Begins at puberty and continues through-
D. none of above
out life
A. Gametogenesis 162. The nuclear membrane breaks down oc-
curs during which stage?
B. spermatogenesis
A. Interphase
C. Oogenesis
B. Metaphase
D. none of above
C. Prophase
157. Humans have pairs of chromosomes.
D. Telophase
A. 21
B. 23 163. The hormone that plays a role in the
process of sperm formation and regulates
C. 46 male secondary development is
D. None of the above A. Testosterone
158. Just after telophase I, each cell contains: B. Progesterone
A. 1 full set of chromosomes, each with 2 C. FSH
chromatids D. LH
B. 2 full sets of chromosomes, each with
E. Androgen
2 chromatids
C. 1 full st of chromosmes, each with a 164. Structure responsible for the formation
single chromatid of male sex cells:
D. none of above A. Sertoli cells
B. Leydig cells
159. Where does Spermatogenesis occur?
C. seminiferous tubule
A. Semiferous tubules
D. Different conductor
B. Fallopian Tubes
C. Vas deferens 165. It is the process by which spermatozoa
are formed.
D. Prostate
A. Gametogenesis
160. All forms of gametogenesis result in the
production of cells with what characteris- B. Oogenesis
tic chromosome number? C. spermatogenesis
A. diploid D. none of above

166. What is the function of Sertoli cells? 171. chromosomes that are genetically the
Apakah fungsi sel Sertoli? same; one inherited from mom the other
from dad

A. To form spermsUntuk menghasilkan
sperma A. allele
B. To provide nutrients to sperm cell- B. DNA
sUntuk membekalkan nutrien kepada sel C. homologous chromosomes
sperma
D. homologue
C. To secrete testosteroneMerembeskan
testosteron 172. What is Meiosis called in females?
A. Meiosis 2
D. To assist the movement of spermUntuk
membantu pergerakan sperma B. Mitosis
C. Spermatogenesis
167. How many days are necessary for the
complete cycle of spermatogenesis to take D. Oogenesis
place? 173. The holds the replicated sister chro-
A. 70-90 days matids together.
B. 30-41 days A. centriole
C. 90-100 days B. chromosomes

C. centromere
D. 15-22 days
D. cycles
168. Biological molecule; blueprint of life
174. There are 78 cells with 18 chromosomes.
A. Gene How many daughter cells will there be af-
B. GEne Pool ter mitosis and how many chromosomes
are there in each?
C. Mutation
A. 78 cells with 18 chromosomes
D. DNA
B. 156 cells with 9 chromosomes
169. Where does oogenesis take place? C. 112 cells with 9 chromosomes
A. OVULOS D. 156 cells with 18 chromosomes
B. OVARIES 175. A cell with a diploid number of 24 under-

goes meiosis, how many chromosomes are
C. FALLOPIAN TUBE
in each daughter cell?
D. testicles A. 6
170. It is the process of conversion of haploid B. 12
spermatids to spermatozoa. C. 24
A. spermiogenesis D. 48
B. Meiosis I 176. The female gamete is the:
C. Meiosis II A. ovum
D. diploid spermatids B. sperm

C. NDlS 182. FERTILIZATION OCCURS WHEN

D. none of above A. THE SPERM UNITES WITH THE EGG
B. THE SPERM UNDERGO MEIOSIS
177. Uncontrollable cell growth is known as
C. THE EGG UNDERGOES MEIOSIS
A. obesity D. THE EGG AND SPERM UNDERGOES
MEIOSIS
B. cancer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. diabetes 183. In this type of cell vision, 4 daughter cells
are produced with half the genetic informa-
D. hepatitis
tion of their mother cells.
178. What is the second phase of fertiliza- A. Meiosis
tion?
B. Mitosis
A. Corona radiate penetration
C. cytokinesis
B. Penetration of the zona pellucida D. interface
C. Fusion between the oocyte and sperm
membranes 184. In the process of gametogenesis, which
of the following cells is haploid?
D. none of above
A. Oocyte I
179. In which phase of mitosis does the forma- B. spermatogonium
tion of the color spindle occur?
C. Ovogonio
A. metaphase
D. polocito I
B. Prophase
C. Telophase 185. Male gametogenesis and consists of the
formation of spermatozoa in the testicles
D. Anaphase
A. Gametogenesis
180. The process of differentiation of sper- B. spermatogenesis
matids to spermatozoa is called:
C. Oogenesis
A. spermatogenesis
D. Spermatogonia
B. spermiohistogenesis
186. In oogenesis, the first meiotic division
C. Gametogenesis
completes during the development of
D. Oogenesis
A. primordial germ cells to oogonium.
181. During meiosis II, microsporogenesis is B. oogonium to primary oocytes.
formed.
C. primary oocytes to secondary oocytes.
A. 2 haploid microspores
D. secondary oocyte to ovum.
B. 2 diploid microspores
187. IN THE GROWTH STAGE IN SPERMATO-
C. 2 mikorospora triploid
GENESIS?
D. 4 haploid microspores A. The spermatogonia enlarge and be-
E. 4 diploid microspores come secondary spermatocytes.

B. The spermatogonia decrease in size 193. Meiosis creates

and become primary spermatocytes. A. 4 identical diploid cells

C. None of the above. B. 4 genetically different haploid cells
D. none of above C. 4 identical haploid cells
188. The process of spermatogenesis results in D. 4 genetically different diploid cells
A. one egg cell and three polar bodies 194. A cell with only half the normal number
B. 4 sperm cells of chromosomes is called a cell.
C. one sperm cell and three polar bodies A. haploid
D. 4 egg cells B. prokaryotic
C. heterotrophic
189. In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell
D. eubacterial
A. Grows
B. Matures 195. What name is given to the cells that at-
tach to Sertoli cells?
C. Carries on normal activities
A. Secondary spermatocytes
D. All of the above
B. Spermatogonia
190. How many autosomal chromosomes are C. Primary spermatocytes
found in an oocyte II of a species with chro-
mosome number 2n= 64? D. Spermatids
A. 32 196. The cells resulting from meiosis undergo

B. 31 a transformation adapting to the function
they are going to fulfill
C. 30
A. Proliferation
D. 63
B. growth phase
191. Which of the following is NOT true of C. differentiation phase
p53?
D. Mitotic and growth phase
A. it is a gene
197. Name the growth phase of the cell cycle.
B. it is a protein product tha taffects the
expression of other genes A. metaphase
C. it is often referred to as a “tumor sup- B. telophase
pressor” C. interphase
D. all are true D. anaophase
192. DURING WHICH PHASE OF MEIOSIS 198. Where do you find spermatogonia?
DOES GENETIC VARIATION INCREASE
A. Attached to the germinal epitheliium of
A. PROPHASE II the seminiferous tubule
B. PROPHASE I B. Attached to the Sertoli cells
C. ANAPHASE I C. Attached to Leydig cells
D. ANAPHASE II D. In the epididymis

199. The number of functional egg cells pro- 204. How many chromosomes are in a human
duced in the process of oogenesis is gamete?
A. 1 sel A. 12
B. 2 sel B. 23
C. 3 sel C. 46
D. 4 sel D. 92
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. 5 sel 205. Which of the following hormones is not
involved in Spermatogenesis? Antara
200. A change in the sequence of nucleotides hormon-hormon berikut yang manakah
that code for a trait; creates alleles tidak terlibat dalam spermatogenesis?
A. Gene A. TestosteroneTestosteron
B. GEne Pool B. ProgesteroneProgesteron
C. Mutation C. FSH
D. DNA D. LH
206. Cytoplasmic division is also known as

201. From what age to what age is adoles-
cence? A. cytokinesis
A. from 10 to 15 years B. mitosis
B. from 12 to 20 years C. interphase

D. cytotoxic
C. from 12 to 18 years
D. none of above 207. Human gametes are haploid, for this rea-
son they contain
202. In what month do the oogonia reach their A. 46 pairs of chromosomes
maximum level of multiplication (7 mil-
B. 23 chromosomes
lion)?
C. 23 pairs of chromosomes
A. Second month
D. 46 chromosomes
B. Third month
C. Fourth month 208. Alternate form of a gene
A. allele
D. Fifth month
B. DNA
203. Which meiotic division more closely re- C. homologous chromosomes
sembles mitosis?
D. homologue
A. Meiosis I
209. Synapsis occurs during:
B. Meiosis II
A. prophase of mitosis
C. Both resemble mitosis closely.
B. prophase I of meiosis
D. Both have significant differences from
mitosis.A replicated chromosome and a bi- C. prophase II of meiosis
valent. D. none of above

210. Which of the following events does not C. meiosis I is more unique while meiosis
occur during prophase? II is more like mitosis

A. Condensation of chromosomes. D. the main difference is the purpose of
B. Formation of the mitotic spindle. each pattern
C. Duplication of the DNA. 215. Why does crossing over occur?

D. Fragmentation of the nuclear mem- A. to make sure the gametes are correct
brane. B. to properly carry out metaphase
211. Homologous Chromosomes: C. to recombine RNA
A. are paternal and maternal chromo- D. to recombine DNA
somes of the same shape and size that
216. What is the end product of Oogenesis?
have genes for the same traits
Apakah hasil akhir Oogenesis?
B. are chromosomes that have differ-
A. 1 secondaru oocyte and 3 polar bod-
ent shapes and sizes that have different
ies1 oosit sekunder dan 3 jasad kutub
genes
B. 1 ovum and 3 polar bodies1 ovum dan
C. are the chromosomes that carry the
3 jasad kutub
sex characteristics
C. 1 secondary oocyte and 1 polar body1
D. none of above oosit sekunder dan 1 jasad kutub
212. It is the process by which a cell divides D. 1 ovum and 1 polar body1 ovum dan 1
and gives rise to two daughter cells that jasad kutub
are genetically identical to the mother cell.
217. In which mitotic phase do chromosomes
A. MIOSIS decondense and become chromatin?
B. MITOSIS A. Prophase
C. POLAR BODIES B. metaphase
D. MEIOSIS C. Anaphase
213. What are the layers of the uterine mu- D. Telophase
cosa?
218. What is the month in which the primary
A. Endothelium, Perimetrium, My- oocytes begin the prophase of meiosis I?
ometrium
A. Fourth month
B. Endometrium, Perimium, Epimium
B. First month
C. Endometrium, Myometrium, Perimetrium
C. Sixth month
D. Seventh month
D. none of above
219. It happens once a month after puberty:
214. What is the main difference between
meiosis I and meiosis II? A. Follicle and oocyte maturation
A. there is no difference B. Formation of oocytes and follicles
B. in meiosis I, prophase occurs but in C. Formation of ovogonies

meiosis II, there is no prophase D. oogonia maturation

220. Gametes are derived from primordial C. Anaphasi H

germ cells, the latter are formed in
D. metaphor tall
A. Plaque
E. Anaphase II
B. Hypoblast
C. primordial follicle 226. If the egg that comes out of the ovary
is not fertilized, it will experience the
D. Ovophore cumulus process
221. When does completion of meiosis occur in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. ovulation
ova?
B. menstruation
A. Stage 1
C. follicular
B. Stage 2
D. luteal
C. Fertilisation
E. fertilization
D. Ovulation
227. In what year was meiosis discovered and
222. The 2 cells at the end of meiosis I:
described for the first time?
A. rarely continue into meiosis II
A. 1883
B. function as gametes
B. 1912
C. are diploid
C. 1876
D. are haploid
D. 1887
223. WHAT IS GAMETOGENESIS?
A. It is the process of meiosis that allows 228. Germ cells divide by what to create ga-
the formation of gametes. metes?
B. It is the process of meiosis that allows A. Meiosis
the deformation of gametes. B. Mitosis
C. None of the above. C. Apoptosis
D. none of above D. Interpahse
224. From spermatid to spermatozoon, what
229. What is the final result of meiosis?
process is it?
A. Spermatogonia A. hapoid cells
B. Spermatogenesis B. diploid cells

C. spermatogenesis C. miploid cells
D. Gametogenesis D. zaploid cells
225. During meiosis, the following events oc- 230. What happens to the polar body?
cur: Separation of chromatids that form
A. It eventually becomes an egg
chromosomes Movement of chromatids to
opposite poles. B. It eventually becomes a sperm
A. Metaphase H C. It becomes a diploid cell
B. Telophase I D. It is broken down and discarded

231. Meiosis begins with and ends with 236. Where does spermatogenesis occur? Di-
cells. manakah spermatogenesis berlaku?

A. haploid, diploid A. Sperm ductDuktus sperma
B. diploid, haploid B. EpididymisEpididimis
C. diploid, diploid C. Seminiferous tubuleTubul seminiferus

D. Sertoli cellsSel Sertoli
D. maploid, diploid
237. A researcher studies a dividing human cell
232. If in a theoretical exercise crossing-over and reports the following observations. 1.
were not considered and it was indicated It does not present a carioteca. 2. It has
that a certain cell of a diploid species has half of the chromosomes of the species. 3.
a chromosome set equal to 2n=10, then it Chromosomes have two chromatids. With
could be stated that the hypothetical num- this information it is possible to deduce
ber of different gametes that it could form that the cell is in
would be:
A. mitotic metaphase.
A. 64
B. anaphase I meiotic.
B. 10 C. prophase I meiotic.
C. 16 D. meiotic metaphase II.
D. 32
238. From meiosis as a final result we obtain:
233. Chromatin together with histone proteins A. duplicated homologous chromosomes
allow the formation of B. duplicated sister chromatids
A. chromosomes C. cells with one set of chromosomes
B. centrosome D. cells with doubled chromosome load
C. cromatida 239. Meiosis results in
D. none of above A. 2 haploid daughter cells
B. 4 diploid daughter cells
234. It is from week twelve, where the fetus
is already fully formed. C. 2 diploid daughter cells
A. germ stage D. 4 haploid daughter cells
B. embryonic stage 240. The cell spends most of it’s life in

C. Fetal Stage A. mitosis
D. none of above B. cytokinesis
C. Interphase
235. Follicles in the oocyte at birth
A. primordial
241. In meiosis what happens to the chromo-
B. primary some number before reproduction?
C. secondary A. the chromosome number doubles
D. tertiary B. the chromosome number is unchanged

C. the chromosome number is halved D. crossing-over occurs only in anaphase

D. the chromosome number is divided of meiosis
and then multiplied with the recombinant 247. The differentiation product of meiosis II
DNA in human gametogenesis is
242. It is the formation of female gametes or A. Haploid spermatids and ootids
oocytes in the female ovaries or gonads. B. Spermatocytes and secondary oocytes
A. spermatogenesis C. Primary spermatocytes and polocytes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Oogenesis D. Spermatozoa and diploid ovum
C. Gametogenesis E. Secondary and ootid spermatocytes
D. none of above
248. During the first meiotic division (meiosis
243. Which of the following does not provide 1)
new genetic combinations? A. homologous chromosomes separate
A. random fertilization B. crossing over between nonsister chro-
B. independent assortment matid occurs
C. crossing over C. chromosome number becomes haploid
D. cytokinesis D. all
244. THE IS THE PERIOD IN WHICH 249. From what age is old age considered?
THE CELL GROWS, DUE TO WHICH IT A. 60 years and older
PRESENTS A HIGH BIOCHEMICAL ACTIV-
B. 70 years and older
ITY.
C. 50 years and older
A. FASE G1
D. none of above
B. FASE S
C. FASE G2 250. Which of the following is a correct de-
scription for mitosis?
D. INTERFACE
A. Cell division of prokaryotic cells.
245. In oogenesis, how many FUNCTIONAL B. A sorting mechanism which accompa-
haploid cells are formed? nies cell division in eukaryotic cells.
A. 1 C. A mechanism which reduces chromo-
B. 2 some number from diploid to haploid dur-
C. 3 ing gamete formation.
D. 4 D. The process whereby a eukaryotic cell
is created from a prokaryote.
246. What is one difference in mitosis and
meiosis during anaphase I? 251. Enzyme that converts androgens to estro-
gens
A. the chromosomes line up at the
equater A. acid phosphatase
B. centromeres do not exist B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. chromatids do not separate at the cen- C. Aromatasa
tromere D. Estrogenasa

252. At the periphery of the cytoplasm con- C. a fertilization process

tains reserve nutritional and energetic sub-
D. cell transformation
stances.

A. Spermatozoon 258. How many polar bodies are found in oo-
B. oocyte genesis?
C. yolk body A. 4
D. Acrosoma B. 6
C. 3
253. When do homologous chromosomes line
up at the middle of the cell? D. 3
A. Prophase 1
259. How many stages does the life cycle of a
B. Prophase 2 person ideally consist of?
C. Metaphase 1 A. 7 Stages
D. Metaphase 2 B. 6 Stages
254. Which of the following cells undergo C. 9 Stages
meiosis D. 5 Stages
A. Sperm cells
260. Sister chromatids are pulled apart during
B. Liver cells
C. Unicellular Organisms
A. Anaphase 1 only
D. All of these
B. Anaphase 2 only
255. Meiosis is a type of cell division that pro- C. Mitotic anaphase only
duces:
D. Anaphase 2 and mitotic anaphase
A. zygotes
B. chromosomes 261. Pairing of homologous chromosomes is
C. DNA called?
D. gametes A. crossing over

B. synapsis
256. What is the stage in which the primary
oocytes begin their resting state until pu- C. tetrads
berty called? D. meiosis
A. Diploteno
262. Which of the following distinguishes
B. Pachytene
prophase 1 of meiosis from prophase of
C. Leptotene mitosis?
D. Cigoteno A. homologous chromosomes pair up
257. -What is the zygote? B. spindle forms
A. a gamete and the ovum C. nuclear membrane breaks down
B. union of sperm and egg D. chromosomes become visible

263. The male gonads are those structures 269. What is the bilaminar germinal disc made
where the formation of gametes occurs. of?
They are male gonads: A. Epiblast, Hypoblast, Amniotic sac and
A. sperm Vitelline sac
B. The testicles B. Epiplasto or Hypoplasto
C. gametes C. Amniotic sac and Vitelline sac
D. the reproductive organ D. hypoblast and yolk sac
NARAYAN CHANGDER
264. They are the first to initiate meiosis. 270. THE EMBRYO DEVELOPES INSIDE THE
A. Spermatogonia BODY OF THE MOTHER AND OBTAINS NU-
TRIENTS FROM HER.
B. spermatids
A. LIVE THEM
C. sperm
B. oviparous
D. spermatocyte
C. HATCHING
265. A locus is: D. OVOVIVIPARUS
A. One version of a gene.
271. Chromosomes come to opposite poles;
B. The location of a gene along the chro- the cariotheca and nucleoli are reorga-
mosome. nized.
C. The character the gene effects. A. Metaphase H
D. The mechanism of action of a gene. B. Prophase II
266. How many daughter cells does meiosis re- C. Telophase I
sult in? D. Telophase II
A. 1 daughter cell 2n (Diploid)
272. Eukaryotic cells store their genetic infor-
B. 2 daughter cell n (Haploid) mation(DNA) in
C. 3 daughter cell 2n (Diploid) A. Chromosomes
D. 4 daughter cell n(Haploid) B. Centromeres
267. The stem cell in the ovary that becomes C. karyotypes
an ovum is called D. Proteins
A. oogonium
273. Gametes have half as many chromo-
B. oocyte somes as
C. you wait A. when united they reconstruct the num-
D. spermatogonia ber of the species
268. What is the chromosome load of clear B. their DNA is duplicated and they can re-
spermatogonia? build the normal number of chromosomes
on their own
A. ns
C. They have two chromatids and when
B. 1n 2c they divide they rebuild their normal num-
C. 1n 1c ber of chromosomes.
D. 2n 4c D. none of above

274. It occurs in the ovaries and begins in the C. Alkaline phosphatase

embryonic period. D. acid phosphatase

A. spermatogenesis
280. How does Prophase I differ from
B. primary genesis Phrophase II?
C. Uogonia A. During Prophase II, crossing over oc-
D. Oogenesis curs.
B. During Prophase I, crossing over oc-
275. In the process of oogenesis, the genera-
curs.
tive cell is:
C. During Prophase II, homologous chro-
A. Obogonia
mosomes line up at the center of the cell.
B. primary oocyte
D. During Prophase I, homologous chro-
C. secondary oocyte mosomes line up at the center of the cell.
D. You are waiting
281. How many non-functional gametes are
276. WHEN DOES THE EGG MATURATION made during gametogenesis in females?
PROCESS BEGIN? A. 1
A. AFTER BIRTH. B. 2
B. AFTER THE FIRST BIRTHDAY. C. 3
C. BEFORE BIRTH. D. 4
D. ANY TIME BEFORE MENOPAUSE. 282. What is the difference between Meiosis
277. By what part of the brain are sexual cy- 1 and Meiosis 2?
cles (ovarian cycle) controlled? A. Prophase doesn’t occur in Meiosis 2
A. Hypophysis B. Genetic recombination doesn’t occur
in Meiosis 1
B. Cerebellum
C. Genetic recombination doesn’t occur
C. Hippocampus
in Meiosis 2
D. hypothalamus
D. Interphase doesn’t occur before Meio-
278. Female gametogenesis and which con- sis 1
sists of the formation of ovules in the
283. The chromosome number is reduced form
ovaries
diploid to haploid during:
A. Gametogenesis
A. mitosis
B. spermatogenesis
B. meiosis I
C. Oogenesis
C. meiosis II
D. none of above
D. mitosis and meiosis
279. Enzyme that serves as a signal for the 284. In seed plants with a microsporangium
migration of primordial germ cells structure, the results of the process of
A. Aromatase meiosis are
B. Phosphodiesterase A. Sporophyte

3.5 Menstrual cycle 296
B. Saprophyte A. 2 primary spermatocytes

C. megaspora B. 2 secondary spermatocytes
D. pollen reeds
C. 2 spermatid cells
E. microspores
D. 4 spermatocytes
285. In spermatogenesis after meiosis I divi-
sion will form E. 4 spermatid cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
3.5 Menstrual cycle
1. What is a hormone? B. Oestrogen and progesterone
A. A Chemical messanger C. Oestrogen and LH
B. A biological messenger D. FSH and progesterone
C. A physical messenger 6. Which hormones continue to increase if fer-
D. Mr Casey’s Pet tilisation occurs? Select two
2. High levels of oestrogen stimulates a sud- A. Progesterone
den spike in LH and FSH. What major B. FSH
events occur when LH and FSH spikes?
C. LH
A. Menstruation
D. Oestrogen
B. Conception
7. Why does the lining of the uterus thicken
C. Ovulation
during the menstrual cycle?
D. Corpus Lutuem
A. To prevent pregnancy
3. The empty follicle is now called the B. To allow sperm cells to more easily
A. corpus unite with egg cells
B. luteum C. So that the potential bably can attach
to it
C. corpus luteum
D. none of above
D. follicule emptius
8. Which hormone in secreted by the growing
4. When an egg is not fertilized it
follicle?
A. returns to the ovary
A. LH
B. passes out of the woman’s body during
B. FSH
menstruation
C. GnRH
C. is absorbed in the abdomen
D. leaves the woman’s body in search of D. estrogen
sperm 9. Which process would not occur if a zygote
5. Which two hormones are issued as fertility implants into the uterine wall?
drug in IVF treatments? A. mitosis
A. FSH and LH B. menstruation

C. differentiation 16. If the egg cell was not fertilized, it just

D. implantation travels on into the uterus and

A. disintegrates
10. What hormones do testes make?
B. dies
A. Testosterone
C. disappears
B. Oestrogen and Progesterone
C. FSH D. none of above
D. LH 17. In day 1 of the cycle women are in which

phase?
11. Two hormone released by the ovaries?
A. Luteal
A. Progesterone and LH
B. Follicular
B. Oestrogen and FSH
C. FSH(follicle stimulating hormone) & LH C. Menstrual
(luteinizing hormone) D. Ovulation
D. Oestrogen and progesterone
18. At ovulation, which hormone is released?
12. The uterus lining is filled with A. oestrogen
A. juice B. progesterone
B. milky liquid
C. FSH
C. blood
D. LH
D. none of above
19. The acronym GnRH, FSH and LH stand for:
13. a fertilized ovum is called a
A. Gonadotropin-retracting hormone, fol-
A. zygote licle stimulating hormone, luteinising hor-
B. embryo mone
C. fetus B. Gonado-releasing hormone, follicle
D. baby stimulus hormone, looting hormone
C. Gonadotropin-reacting hormone, folli-
14. The loss of the uterus lining through the
cle stopping hormone, lutenising hormone
vagina is called
D. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone, fol-
A. menstruation
licle stimulating hormone, lutenising hor-
B. period mone
C. ovulation
20. Where specifically is the source of estro-
D. menstruation or period gen during days 15-24 of the menstrual
15. Which hormone causes ovulation? cycle?
A. FSH A. Ovarian follicle
B. LH B. Oviduct glands
C. Progesterone C. Ovarian corpus luteum
D. Oestrogen D. Ovarian gland

21. What does FSH do? 26. What is the role of the placenta?
A. causes eggs to mature, stimulates A. Protects growing fetus
ovary to produce oestrogen B. Facilitates nutrient/waste exchange
B. triggers ovulation with fetus
C. maintains lining of uterus, inhibits re- C. Collects waste of fetus
lease of FSH and LH D. Allows embryo to implant
D. releases the uterus lining-bleeding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
27. What happens on around day 14-21
starts
A. Egg follicle matures and oestrogen
22. Which hormone causes the uterine lining to thickens uterus lining
thicken? B. If fertilisation doesn’t occur the uterus
A. Oestrogen lining breaks down because progesterone
levels fall
B. Progesterone
C. ovulation occurs
C. Follicle stimulating hormone
D. Menstruation occurs and FSH released
D. Lutenising hormone
E. Uterus lining maintained by proges-
terone
23. On which date is a woman most likely to
ovulate if the first day of menstrual loss 28. What is the main female reproductive hor-
was 1 February? mone?
A. 5 February A. Testosterone
B. 14 February B. Lutenising Hormone
C. 28 February C. Oestrogen
D. 1 March D. Folicle Stimulating Hormone
24. What is the structure in the womb that fil- 29. After sexual intercourse, sperm can sur-
ters nutrients and waste between mother vive for 3 days in the uterus and oviducts.
and baby? Ovulation can occur any time from day 13
to day 15 and an egg cell can live for
A. umbilical cord 2 days after ovulation.How long is the
B. placenta longest possible fertile phase of the men-
strual cycle?
C. amniotic sac
A. 2 days
D. uterus
B. 3 days
25. The egg maturing in the ovary occurs dur- C. 5 days
ing what phase D. 7 days
A. follicular phase
30. How are sperm cells different from egg
B. ovulation cells in size and in number?
C. luteal phase A. Size-LargerNumber-Fewer
D. none of above B. Size-LargerNumber-More

C. Size-SmallerNumber-Fewer 36. In sexual reproduction each parent con-

tributes a gamete (a sex cell)
D. Size-SmallerNumber-More

A. Diploid
31. Name the hormone produced by the devel- B. Hiploid
oping follicle in the first part of the men-
C. Ovum
strual cycle
D. Haploid
A. oestrogen
37. Which phase is the final phase to occur?
B. progesterone
A. Luteal
C. FSH
B. Ovulation
D. LH
C. Follicular
32. What does ovulation mean? D. Menstrual
A. A sperm is released 38. Ovulation is trigger by a surge in:
B. The lining of the uterus breaks down A. FSH
C. An egg is released B. LH
C. Estrogen
D. Menstruation occurs
D. Progesterone
33. Where are hormones released from?
39. Which of these substances would move
A. Organs from the mother to the baby via the pla-
B. Tissues centa?
A. hormones
C. Bones
B. urea
D. Glands
C. oxygen
34. If fertilisation does not occur D. carbon dioxide
A. the egg dies 40. The corpus luteum forms and continues to
B. the egg leaves the body when the release of estrogen and begin to release
uterus lining is shed progesterone occurs during what phase
A. follicular phase
C. both
B. ovulation
D. none of above
C. luteal phase
35. Which of the following correctly shows an D. menstruation
endocrine gland and its hormone?
41. In which part of the female reproductive
A. Follicle cells-Follicle stimulating hor- system does a baby develop?
mone
A. Ovaries
B. Ovary-Luteinising hormone B. Vagina
C. Pituitary gland-Oestrogen C. Cervix
D. Corpus luteum-Progesterone D. Uterus

42. Do you think your Biology teacher is pretty C. Estrogen

today? D. Progesterone
A. Yes
48. Which hormone signals ovulation?
B. Definitely
A. FSH
C. Of course
B. LH
D. I like her very much C. Inhibin
43. If the woman is pregnant, which structure
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Estrogen
will start to release progesterone to main-
tain the uterus lining? 49. Where is Oestrogen made?
A. Ovaries
A. placenta
B. Testes
B. embryo
C. Vagina
C. amniotic sac
D. Penis
D. uterus
50. The single cell created after fertilisation is
44. Ovulation is called:
A. When the egg releases from the ovary A. Fetus
B. When the sperm releases from the tes- B. Baby
ticle
C. Zygote
C. when the egg releases from the uterus
D. Gamete
D. none of above
51. Which of the following method can be used
45. What hormone(s) is responsible for the de- to overcome a problem related to follicle
velopment of the secondary sex character- cell development in female?
istics in females, and plays a role in men- A. Treat with oestrogen
struation and pregnancy?
B. Treat with progesterone
A. estrogen
C. Treat with FSH
B. progesterone
D. Treat with LH
C. FSH & LH
52. What is responsible for creating the hor-
D. FSH only
mones Oestrogen & progesterone?
46. What hormones do ovaries make? A. The Pituitary gland
A. Testosterone B. The Hypothalamus
B. Oestrogen and Progesterone C. The ovaries
C. FSH D. The Fallopian Tubes
D. LH 53. The menstrual cycle repeats every?
47. Which hormone causes the re-growth of A. Month
the endometrial lining of the uterus? B. 28 days
A. Testesterone C. Week
B. GnRH D. Year

54. Which hormone inhibits the release of both C. B, A, D, C

FSH and LH? D. none of above

A. Progesterone
60. What does oestrogen do?
B. Oestrogen
C. LH A. causes eggs to mature, stimulates
ovary to produce oestrogen
D. FSH
B. maintains lining of uterus, inhibits re-
55. What is the “male” hormone called? lease of FSH and LH
A. Estrogen C. Causes lining of uterus to develop, in-
B. Progesterone hibits release of FSH, stimulates release
of LH
C. Testosterone
D. Causes uterus lining to breakdown
D. Leptin
56. What hormone(s) are responsible for the 61. What does the follicle become after ovula-
growth and maturation of the follicle into tion?
a mature ovum? A. another egg cell
A. estrogen B. corpus luteum
B. progesterone & estrogen C. it dies
C. FSH & LH D. prostaglandin
D. FSH only
62. What are discharged through the vagina
57. Where is FSH produced? during menstruation phase?
A. hypothalamus A. Unfertilized egg
B. pituitary gland B. Blood
C. ovaries C. Uterine lining
D. testicles
D. Embryo
58. What is the second phase of the cycle?
63. A temporary suspension of the menstrual
A. Ovulation cycle normally occurs during
B. Menstrual A. menstruation
C. Follicular B. pregnancy
D. Luteal
C. ovulation
59. Put the following events in the correct D. menopause
sequence:A) Ovulation-egg releases from
the ovaryB) An egg begins to grow in the 64. This hormone peaks just before ovulation
ovaryC) If the egg is not fertilized, the pe-
A. LH
riod will beginD) Egg is ready for fertiiza-
tion in the fallopian tubes B. FSH
A. A, B, C, D C. progesterone
B. D, C, B, A D. oestrogen

65. Fertilization of human eggs usually takes 70. Oestrogen inhibits the production of which
place in the- hormone?
A. ovary. A. oestrogen
B. uterus. B. progesterone
C. oviduct. C. FSH
D. LH
D. cervix.
71. What hormones are released by ovary?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
66. What does progesterone do?
A. FSH and LH
A. causes lining of uterus to develop, in-
B. FSH, Oestrogen, and Progesterone
hibits release of FSH, stimulates release
of LH C. Oestrogen and Progesterone
B. maintains lining of uterus, inhibits re- D. FSH, LH, and Progesterone
lease of FSH and LH 72. Endometriosis is:
C. causes eggs to mature, stimulates A. The growing of endometrial cells out-
ovary to produce oestrogen side of the uterus.
D. causes uterus lining to breakdown B. The growing of endometrial cells
within the uterus
67. Ovulation phase typically occurs on what
C. The growing of endometrial cells
day of the cycle?
within the gastrointestinal tract
A. 1
D. The growing of endometrial cells out-
B. 14 side of the reproductive organs
C. 20 73. Which hormone causes the egg to ripen in
D. 7 the ovary?
A. Progesterone
68. What hormone(s) is responsible for thick-
B. FSH
ening the lining of the uterus?
C. Oestrogen
A. Oestrogen
D. Testosterone
B. progesterone
74. What is the purpose of the menstrual cy-
C. FSH & LH
cle?
D. LH only A. To have a period
69. For the 10 days following ovulation in B. To prepare a female’s body for the pos-
a nonpregnant menstrual cycle, the main sibility of pregnancy
source of progesterone is the- C. There is no reason
A. adrenal cortex. D. none of above
B. anterior pituitary. 75. Luteinising Hormones main role is to
C. corpus luteum. A. release the egg cell
D. developing follicle. B. promote the growth of the egg cell

C. destroy the egg cell C. They are involved in egg maturation in

D. ingest the egg cell the ovaries

D. none of above
76. The egg cell develops in the
81. In which phase of the ovarian cycle does
A. vagina
the follicle tissue break down?
B. ovary
A. follicular
C. oviduct
B. ovulation
D. uterus
C. luteal
77. What is the definition of the Testes D. none of above
A. The organ system that allows A mans 82. When the blastocyst attaches to the lining
nuts of the uterus, this is known as
B. The male reproductive organs A. fertilization
C. The female reproductive organs B. ovulation
D. The male reproductive gametes C. implantation
78. The average length of day for menstrual D. mitosis
cycle is
83. Which phase involves the egg being re-
A. 5 days leased into the uterus?
B. 28 days A. Menstruation
C. 14 days B. Ovulation
D. 30 days C. Follicular
79. What is the role of FSH(follicle-stimulating D. Luteal

hormone)? 84. The placenta is an organ of exchange and
A. Causes an egg to mature in an ovary. therefore will have the following features:
Stimulates the ovaries to release oestro- A. large diffusion distance
gen
B. small diffusion distance
B. Stimulates the pituitary gland to re-
C. high concentration gradient due to
lease LH.
good blood supply
C. Triggers ovulation (the release of a ma-
D. low concentration gradient due to
ture egg)
good blood supply
D. Maintains the lining of the uterus dur-
E. large surface area
ing the middle part of the menstrual cycle
and during pregnancy. 85. Which hormone inhibits the release of
FSH?
80. What do oestrogen and progesterone do in
the menstrual cycle? A. Progesterone
A. They are involved in maintaining the B. Oestrogen
uterus lining C. LH
B. They stimulate the release of the egg D. FSH

86. Which hormone causes the growth and 92. Which hormone(s) are used as contracep-
thickening of the endometrial lining of the tive pills?
uterus? A. FSH and LH
A. LH
B. Oestrogen and progesterone
B. FSH
C. Oestrogen and LH
C. Oestrogen
D. FSH and progesterone
D. Progesterone
NARAYAN CHANGDER
93. What are the functions of LH and FSH in
87. Ovulation typically occurs on what day of the menstrual cycle?
the cycle?
A. LH-causes ovulation, FSH-causes men-
A. 1
struation
B. 14
B. LH-causes ovulation, FSH-stimulates
C. 20 an egg to mature in an ovary
D. 7 C. LH-stimulates an egg to mature in an
88. How many chromosomes do the sperm and ovary, FSH-causes menstruation
ovum contribute to create the zygogte? D. LH-stimulates an egg to mature in an
A. 33 each ovary, FSH-causes ovulation
B. 46 each 94. A zygote is:
C. 23 each A. The ovum
D. 13 each B. A hormone involved in reproduction
89. The follicle/ovum develops in the C. The cells which divide via mitosis
A. vagina D. The union of two gametes (the sperm
B. ovary cell and the egg cell)
C. oviduct 95. Choose the correct hygiene practices dur-
D. uterus ing menstruation.
90. The placenta provides: A. Take a bath or shower regularly

A. Nutrients and oxygen B. Change the sanitary pad only one per
day
B. Nutrients and warmth
C. Change the sanitary pad once every 6
C. Oxygen and comfort
hours
D. Oxygen and growth
D. Swim in the public place
91. What is Menstruation?
96. Which hormone causes the development of
A. Discharge of blood and tissues of the
the uterine lining of the uterus?
uterus wall
A. Testesterone
B. Discharge of blood and tissues of the
uterine lining B. GnRH
C. Discharge of egg from the ovary C. Estrogen
D. Discharge of hormones from the ovary D. Progesterone

97. What is the main function of the luteal 103. Which hormone stimulates the release of
phase? LH?

A. The shed the lining of the uterus A. Progesterone
B. The thicken the lining of the uterus B. Oestrogen
C. To release the egg C. LH
D. To ripen the egg D. FSH
98. Which structure stores mature sperm? 104. What is the sequence of structures
A. Testis through which a mammalian sperm passes
B. Seminal vesicles after leaving the penis and before fusing
with an ovum?
C. Epididymis
A. vagina → urethra → fallopian tube
D. Prostate Gland
B. ureter → uterus → vagina
99. About how long does the menstrual cycle
C. vagina → fallopian tube →ovary
last?
D. vagina → uterus → fallopian tube
A. 1 week
B. about a month (28-30 days) 105. Menstrual cycle lasts for
C. 2 weeks A. 28 days
D. none of above B. 24 days
100. Fertilization of human ovum takes place C. 30 days

in the: D. none of above
A. ovary. 106. in humans, directly after ovulation, the
B. uterus. egg normally enters the
C. oviduct. A. uterus
D. cervix. B. follicle sac
101. Which of the following are able to move C. Fallopian tube
across the placenta? D. cervix
A. oxygen and CO2
107. Where is LH produced?
B. antibodies
A. hypothalamus
C. viruses
B. pituitary gland
D. nicotine
C. ovaries
E. protein
D. testicles
102. During the menstrual cycle, if the egg is
not fertilized 108. Where are hormones FSH, LH produced:
A. A woman will become pregnant A. The hypothalamus
B. The period will begin B. The anterior pituitary gland
C. The period will not happen C. The brain
D. none of above D. The reproductive system

109. Where is oestrogen produced? D. ovulation

A. hypothalamus E. copulation
B. pituitary gland 115. What will happen to the corpus luteum if
C. ovaries no fertilization happens?
D. testicles A. It will continue to secrete proges-
terone.
110. The source of FSH in the body is B. It will degenerate.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. ovary C. It will grow thicker.
B. ovarian corpus luteum D. It will continue to secrete oestrogen.
C. anterior pituary gland
116. During puberty, grows under the
D. pineal gland arms and pubic areas.
111. Name the process which a mature ovum A. glands
is released from the ovary which occur B. mood
around 13th to 16th day of menstrual cy- C. hormones
cle.
D. hair
A. Ovulation
117. State the average length of the men-
B. Fertilisation
strual cycle.
C. Menstruation A. one month
D. Pregnancy B. 28 days
112. Ovulation is the follicular response to a C. 5 days
burst of secretion of- D. a year
A. LH.
118. Occurs on Days 1-5 of the Uterine Cycle
B. progesterone. A. Menstrual Phase
C. prolactin. B. Proliferative Phase
D. estradiol. C. Secretory Phase
113. Which hormone stimulates the build up of D. Luteal Phase
the endometrium? E. Follicular Phase
A. FSH 119. What happens on around day 14
B. LH A. Egg follicle matures and oestrogen
C. Estrogen thickens uterus lining
D. Progesterone B. If fertilisation doesn’t occur the uterus
lining breaks down because progesterone
114. The scientific term for the shedding of the levels fall
endometrium is:
C. ovulation occurs
A. implantation
B. fertilisation E. Uterus lining maintained by proges-
C. menstruation terone

120. The main function of the menstrual cycle 125. The corpus luteum releases
is? A. oestrogen

A. To make women have sex B. progesterone
B. To improve fertility C. FSH
C. To stop reproduction D. LH
D. To make us attractive to men 126. How does the uterine lining thicken?
A. Vascularisation of the uterine lining
121. What hormones are released by the pitu-
itary gland? B. Release of Oestrogen
C. Release of Progesterone
A. FSH and LH
D. Release of LH
B. FSH, Oestrogen, and Progesterone
127. If an egg does get fertilized, where will
C. Oestrogen and Progesterone
the ferilized egg travel after it is fertil-
D. FSH, LH, and Progesterone ized?
A. Ovary
122. Which two hormones control the develop-
ment of the follicle and the corpus lumen B. Uterus
and ovulation? C. Cervix
A. FSH(follicle stimulating hormone) & LH D. none of above
(luteinizing hormone)
128. What happens on Days 1-5
B. Oestrogen and progesterone A. Egg follicle matures and oestrogen
C. Oestrogen and FSH thickens uterus lining
D. Progesterone and LH B. If fertilisation doesn’t occur the uterus
lining breaks down because progesterone
123. Which two female hormones does the levels fall
pituitary gland secretes during the men- C. ovulation occurs
strual cycle?
A. FSH and LH E. Uterus lining maintained by proges-
B. Oestrogen and progesterone terone
C. Oestrogen and LH 129. What is the role of LH during the men-
strual cycle?
D. FSH and progesterone
A. inhibits the development of another
124. The menstrual cycle usually stops around follicle by inhibiting FSH
the age of 45-55. What is the name of B. causes ovulation and the ruptured fol-
this stage? licle to develop into corpus luteum
A. puberty C. stimulates the growth of endometrium
B. menopause lining
D. stimulates the development of folli-
C. menarche
cles, which in turn leads to estrogen se-
D. none of above cretion, which in turn inhibits FSH

130. Where does fertilization occur? 136. Menstruation is the breakdown of the
A. Uterus and from the uterus through the
vagina.
B. Cervix
A. lining of uterine wall
C. Vanginal canal
B. lining of Fallopian tube
D. Fallopian tube C. monthly discharge of blood
131. Which pair of hormones are released by D. monthly discharge of mucus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ovary in the menstrual cycle?
137. Which hormone spikes and consequently
A. LH and FSH causes the release of the ova into the
B. Progesterone and Oestrogen uterus?
C. LH and Oestrogen A. LH
D. Androgen and Progesterone B. FSH
C. Oestrogen
132. Which hormone is responsible for causing
D. Progesterone
ovulation?
A. Estrogen 138. What does LH do?
B. Progesterone A. causes eggs to mature, stimulates
ovary to produce oestrogen
C. LH
B. triggers ovulation
D. FSH
C. maintains lining of uterus, inhibits re-
133. which Hypothalamic hormone triggers lease of FSH and LH
the pituitary to release hormones D. Egg follicle matures and oestrogen
A. FSH thickens uterus lining
B. LH 139. What hormone does the adrenal gland re-

lease?
C. GnRH
A. Oestrogen
D. estrogen
B. Testosterone
134. What happens on day 1-5 of the cycle? C. Adrenalin
A. Menstruation (period) D. Progesterone
B. Ovulation
140. What happens on Days 6-14
C. Nothing A. Egg follicle matures and oestrogen
D. none of above thickens uterus lining
135. What signals the first day of the men- B. If fertilisation doesn’t occur the uterus
strual cycle? lining breaks down because progesterone
levels fall
A. Ovulation
C. ovulation occurs
B. Beginning of the period
C. Last day of the period E. Uterus lining maintained by proges-
D. Thickening of endometrium terone

3.6 Embryonic Development 309
141. Follicle stimulating hormones function is B. Estrogen

to C. GnRH

A. mature eggs in the uterus D. Progesterone
B. mature eggs in the womb
145. Which of the following hormones stimu-
C. mature eggs in the cervix lates the process of ovulation?
D. mature eggs in the ovaries A. Progesterone
142. Where is progesterone produced? B. Lutenising hormone
A. hypothalamus C. Follicle stimulating hormone
B. pituitary gland D. Oestrogen
C. ovaries 146. In day 1 of the cycle, what is occurring?
D. testicles A. Luteal Growth
143. If the woman is not pregnant, a fall in B. Follicular
which hormone will cause the uterus lining C. Menstruation
to start shedding?
D. Ovulation
A. oestrogen
147. What hormone(s) is responsible for
B. progesterone
thickening the lining of the uterus (en-
C. FSH dometrium)?
D. LH A. estrogen
144. Which hormone causes FSH and LH to be B. progesterone

released? C. FSH & LH
A. Testesterone D. LH only
3.6 Embryonic Development

1. Factors that determine embryonic Develop- D. natural selection
ment:
3. Embryonic structure of an animal that con-
A. cell division sists of TWO cell layers
B. cell differentiation
A. blastula
C. Morhphogenisis
B. gastrula
D. all are determinants
C. morula
2. Meiosis and fertilization are important D. blastocyst
processes because they may most imme-
diately result in 4. Which male organ produces sperm?
A. many body cells A. testes
B. immune responses B. scrotum
C. genetic variation C. penis

D. epididymis C. uterus
5. Which of these structures eventually D. oviduct

forms the umbilical chord? 11. Which germ layer will form the muscles
A. amnion and bones?
B. chorion A. ectoderm
C. allantois B. mesoderm
C. endoderm
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. trophoblast
D. extraderm
6. This female reproductive organ is the site
of fertilization. 12. Layers of cells on the outer surface of the
A. ovary gastrula
B. uterine/fallopian tube A. ectoderm
C. uterus B. endoderm
D. cervix C. mesoderm
D. none of above
7. The stage of embryonic development dur-
ing which the 3 embryonic germ layers de- 13. Advantages:Less energy spent by fe-
velop: males, less time to increase the popula-
tion, + large number of offspringDisad-
A. cleavage
vantages:Embryo not well protected + ex-
B. blastulation posed to predators and the environment.
C. gastrulation A. Internal Fertilization
D. foetus B. External Fertilization
8. These genes control the body plan of an C. Internal Development
embyro D. External Devlopment
A. Epistasis Genes 14. The mesoderm develops into which of the
B. Hox Genes following system(s)?
C. Stem Genes A. Skeletal & Circulatory
D. Meso Genes B. Reproductive
C. Digestive & Respiratory
9. The endoderm would NOT develop which
of the following organs? D. Nervous System
A. Lungs 15. If species A and B have very similar genes
B. heart and proteins, what is probably TRUE?
C. stomach A. species A and B share a relatively re-
cent common ancestor
D. intestines
B. species A evolved independently of
10. Fertilization of the ovum takes place in the species B for a long period
A. ovary C. species A is younger than species B
B. cervix D. species A is older than species B

16. The animal’s digestive tract forms from 21. In embryonic development, the process by
the which cells specialize is called

A. endoderm A. differentiation
B. mesoderm B. morphogenesis
C. ecotoderm C. cell division
D. protostome D. endoplasmic reticulum
22. How can a person’s muscle cells have the

17. A scientist wants to change the DNA of
same exact DNA sequences as their nerve
a sexually reproducing organism and have
cells even though the look and perform
the new DNA present in every cell of the
completely different?
organism. In order to do this after fer-
tilization, she would change the DNA in A. The two different cells become mu-
which of the following? tated
A. zygote B. The proteins expressed in each cell are
different
B. placenta
C. They actually have different DNA in the
C. testes of the father two types of cells.
D. ovaries of the mother D. The genome of the different cells
changes
18. In embryonic development, the physical
process of an organism developing its 23. The process of creating a solid ball of cells
shape is called in the first step of embryonic development
A. differentiation is
B. morphogenesis A. Gastrulation
B. Cleavage
C. cell division
C. Blastulation
D. topoisomerase
D. Embryonation
19. Gametes join outside of the organism’s
body (water) 24. By week 9 of the first trimester, what is
the developing embryo now called?
A. Internal Fertilization
A. Baby
B. External Fertilization
B. infant
C. Internal Development
C. fetus
D. External Devlopment
D. tiny alien
20. implants itself into the lining of the 25. Gametes join inside the female reproduc-
uterus. tive tract (Land adaptation)
A. blastual A. Internal Fertilization
B. gastrula B. External Fertilization
C. blastocyst C. Internal Development
D. morula D. External Devlopment

26. Programmed cell death is called 32. Differentiation and morphogenesis are
A. apoptosis controlled by external factors, such as con-
tact and signals from neighboring cells
B. cytokinesis this is called
C. interphase A. cytoplasmic determinants
D. cancer B. inductive signals
27. Growth of embryo outside the body of the C. endosymbiotic theory
NARAYAN CHANGDER
parent organism (water and land)
D. epigenetic inheritance
A. Internal Fertilization
33. Advantages:Increased chances of gametes
B. External Fertilization
meeting + greater protection of off-
C. Internal Development spring from the environmentDisadvan-
D. External Devlopment tages:Limited number of offspring, harder
to bring males and females together in-
28. Humans are: creased risk of disease.
A. coelomates A. Internal Fertilization
B. psuedocoelomates B. External Fertilization
C. acoelomates C. Internal Development
D. none of above D. External Devlopment
29. The developing ball of cells that implants 34. The innermost layer of the blastocyst is
in the endometrium is called? the
A. zygote A. endoderm
B. blastocyst B. gastrula
C. embryo
C. ectoderm
D. baby
D. mesoderm
30. If a fertilized egg is received, what phase
35. A human has 46 chromosomes in its body
of the cycle will the body remain in?
cells. What is the diploid number?
A. Menstruation
A. 46
B. Post Menstruation
B. 23
C. Ovulation
C. 1
D. Premenstruation
D. 100
31. Type of symmetry which is found among
cephalized animals 36. The middle layer of the blastocyst is the
A. asymmetry A. endoderm
B. radial B. ectoderm
C. bilateral C. mesoderm
D. none of above D. deuterostome

37. Which of these three layers develop into B. implanation

the structure that insulates the developing C. menstruation
embryo?

D. ovulation
A. Chorion
43. Advantages:Embryo well protected +
B. amnion
not exposed to environmentDisadvan-
C. allantois tages:Limited number of offspring, health
D. trophoblast risks, much more energy spent by female,
takes longer to develop.
38. Evolutionary ancestor to animals A. Internal Fertilization
A. green algae B. External Fertilization
B. fungus C. Internal Development
C. choanoflagelates D. External Devlopment
D. reptiles
44. High amounts of progesterone in the urine
39. The process by which populations slowly or blood indicates
change over time is called A. menopause
A. selective breeding B. puberty
B. adaptation C. pregnancy
C. speciation D. none of the choices
D. evolution 45. These little proteins determine the axes of
an organism
40. Human reproduction usually involves
A. morphogens
A. internal fertilization and internal devel-
opment B. mutagens
B. external fertilization and external de- C. hex genes

velopment D. none of these
C. internal fertilization and external de- 46. Repeated cell divisions during embryonic
velopment cell development is known as:
D. external fertilization and internal de- A. Fertilization
velopment B. Cleavage
41. What two hormones are involved in the C. oogenesis
menstrual cycle? D. spermatogensis
A. estrogen & testosterone
47. Which of these is a job of an internal reg-
B. FSH & LH ulator cyclin?
C. insulin and progesterone A. Ensure that all chromosomes have
D. insulin and testosterone lined up in the center of the cell before cell
division
42. Which of the following stages starts the B. Ensure that spindle fibers have at-
process of embryonic development? tached to all centromeres before cell di-
A. Fertilization vision

C. Ensure that DNA has been replicated 53. The cells in the outer most germ layer.
before cell division
A. mesoderm
D. All of these
B. endoderm
48. Advantages:Large #’s of offspring + eas-
ier to find a mate because gametes drift in C. ectoderm
the waterDisadvantages:Offspring are ex- D. extraderm
posed to the environment and hazards, no
guaranteed fertilization.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
54. Growth of embryo inside the body of the
A. Internal Fertilization female parent
B. External Fertilization A. Internal Fertilization
C. Internal Development B. External Fertilization
C. Internal Development
49. The female organ that provides nutrients
and oxygen without mixing the mother’s
blood with the baby’s blood is called
55. To create a hollow ball of cells, this must
what?
occur.
A. placenta
A. Cleavage
B. amnion
C. ovary B. Blastulation
D. fimbriae C. Gastrulation
50. This is the 32 cell stage of development. D. Mastication

A. zygote
56. Embryology is
B. morula
A. the study of living things
C. stem cells
B. the study of the formation and early de-
D. zona pellucida
velopment of living things
51. Animal with a mouth that does NOT de-
C. the study of energy conversions of liv-
velop from the opening in the gastrula.
ing things
A. deuterostome
D. the study of non-living things
B. protostome
C. insect 57. Twins can result from
D. snail A. a fertilized egg dividing into two blas-
52. The ectoderm develops into which of the tocysts
following systems? B. two eggs being released at the same
A. nervous system time, and both are fertilized
B. skeletal system C. two embryos implanted in the uterus
C. circulatory system through invitro fertilization
D. digestive system D. all of these can result in twins

58. The lining of the uterus, the endometrium C. blastocyst

is thicker than normal which may signal
D. blastula

A. the onset of early menopause
B. ovulation 64. What type of animal has no body cavity?
C. the onset of pregnancy A. Acoelomate

D. the onset of maturity B. Pseudocoelomate
59. Layer of cells that lines the gastrula C. Coelomate
A. endoderm D. none of above

B. ectoderm 65. The embryo layer that forms the skin and
C. mesoderm nervous tissue is the
D. protostome A. endoderm
60. Master genes which produce transcription B. mesoderm
factors, determining pattern of develop- C. ectoderm
ment in organisms.
D. deuterostome
A. Promoter
B. Operator 66. Which of the following hormones is pro-
C. Activators duced by the chorion and assists in pre-
venting miscarriages?
D. Homeotic Genes
A. FSH
61. If the opening in the gastrula turns into the
B. LH
organisms mouth then it must be a
A. deuterostome C. Estrogen
B. protostome D. hCG
C. human 67. The process that transforms developing

D. dog cells into specialized cell with different
structures and functions:
62. This female reproductive organ is similar
to the male penis. A. Differentiation
A. ovary B. Fertilization
B. clitoris C. Cleavage
C. uterus D. Reproduction
D. fimbriae
68. Embryos are used as evidence for
63. Single layer of cells surrounding a fluid- A. mutations
filled space that forms during early devel-
opment B. artificial selection
A. morula C. evolution/common ancestry
B. gastrula D. embryos

69. During the second trimester, which of C. the urinary system

these processes can be detected by a doc- D. the menstrual cycle
tor?
A. Laughing 75. At birth, what hormone is released that
stimulates uterine contracts?
B. Crying
A. FSH
C. Heart Beat
B. USH
D. Breathing Rate
C. Oxytocin
NARAYAN CHANGDER
70. The third cell layer formed in the develop- D. Relaxin
ing embryo
A. endoderm 76. What type of animal has a complete body
cavity?
B. mesoderm
A. Acoelomate
C. ectoderm
B. Pseudocoelomate
D. none of above
C. Coelomate
71. Differentiation and morphogenesis are
D. none of above
controlled by internal transcription factors,
proteins and organelles in the cell this 77. This is when cells begin to differentiate.
is called A. Totipotent Stem Cells
A. cytoplasmic determinants B. Pluripotent Stem Cells
B. inductive signals C. Blastocyte
C. endosymbiotic theory D. Morula
D. epigenetic inheritance
78. The process through which cells become
72. The placenta forms out of which of the fol- specialized in structure and function is
lowing layers? A. Transcription
A. Amnion B. Gene Expression
B. chorion C. Differentiation
C. allantois
D. RNA Interference
D. trophoblast
79. Most gene regulation happens at which
73. What process does the zygote undergoe to step?
become a blastula?
A. translation
A. Cleavage
B. transcription
B. Gastrulation
C. signal transduction
C. Metamorphosis
D. DNA replication
D. Cephalization
80. Homeotic genes control
74. To prepare the uterus for a possible preg-
A. tissue layer development
nancy is the purpose of which of the fol-
lowing? B. nervous system
A. the reproductive system C. body plan/pattern
B. the endocrine system D. gamete production

3.7 Parturition and Lactation Fertilisation, Pregnancy 317
3.7 Parturition and Lactation Fertilisation, Pregnancy

1. Ovulation occurs how many days before 6. Which stage of human development has
the end of the cycle? growth begin to slow down?
A. 1 A. Adulthood
B. 14 B. Old age
C. 20 C. Childhood
D. 7 D. Adolescence
2. What is the term that describes when the 7. In which part of the female reproductive
placenta detaches from the side of the system does fertilization take place?
uterus and is pushed out of the womb?
A. Ovary
A. afterbirth
B. Uterus
B. labor
C. Fallopian Tube
C. miscarriage
D. Vagina
D. natural birth
8. Lactation is the
3. Fertilization and development normally oc-
A. fusing of egg and sperm
cur in the
B. attachment of the zygote to the uterine
A. Placenta and uterus
wall
B. Fallopian tube and placenta
C. contractions of the uterus in prepara-
C. Fallopian tube and vagina tion for childbirth
D. Fallopian tube and uterus D. releasing of milk to the newborn
4. How many months is a typical preg- 9. How does the baby get rid of most of the
nancy? toxic waste products from its cells?
A. 8 A. Its bladder
B. 6 B. The placenta
C. 9 C. Through its skin
D. 10 D. It breathes it out
5. An ectopic pregnancy occurs when the em- 10. What is one of the first signs of preg-
bryo develops in nancy?
A. the vagina A. being hungry
B. the ovary B. sleeping more
C. the Fallopian tube C. bigger belly
D. the uterus D. missed period

11. A developing fetus grows in which part of C. egg cells

a woman’s body?
D. pollen grains
A. uterus
B. ovary 17. The birth canal is also called the
C. fallopian tube A. uterus
D. stomach B. fallopian tubes

C. ovaries
NARAYAN CHANGDER
12. Flat organ where exchange of substances
occur between the mother’s and baby’s D. vagina
blood
18. The breaking down and shedding of the
A. Amnion
endometrium-also known as a period?
B. Ovum
A. birth
C. Placenta
B. pregnancy
D. Umbilical cord
C. ovulation
13. Choose the correct sequence to show the D. menstruation
development of the foetus.
A. Zygote > Feotus > Embryo > Baby 19. Rapid brain development is key to which
life stage.
B. Zygote > Embryo > Foetus > Baby
A. Infancy
C. Embryo > Zygote > Foetus > Baby
D. Embryo > Foetus > Zygote > Baby B. Early Childhood
C. Childhood
14. Which diagnostic treatment draws fluid
from the amniotic sac and tests it for birth D. Adolescence
defects?
20. When the germ layers undergo changes to
A. ultrasound form the various tissues, organs and or-
B. amniotic X-ray gan systems of the developing animal this
C. abdominal scan is called
D. amniocentesis A. cleavage
B. gastrulation
15. The fertilised egg is called
C. differentiation
A. zygote
D. blastula
B. embryo
C. foetus 21. In humans, a sperm cell and an egg cell nor-
D. none of above mally fuse in the upper portion of the
A. cervix
16. Ovaries produce reproductive structures
known as B. vagina
A. zygotes C. Fallopian tube
B. sperm cells D. ovary

22. The place where the embryo begins to de- 28. How many trimesters are there during
velop into fetus? pregnancy?

A. Fallopian tube A. 1
B. Uterus B. 2
C. Ovary C. 3
D. Vagina D. 4
23. How many sperm can fertilize a single 29. After fertilization, the zygote will divide
egg? to form that implants itself in the
A. 1 uterus.
B. 2 A. a baby
C. Unlimited B. a fetus
D. Varies C. an embryo
D. none of above
24. What is the “lifeline” between the fetus
and the placenta? 30. Choose the correct pathway of sperm to
A. amniotic sac meet ovum for fertilisation.
B. umbilical cord A. Sperm duct > Penis> Vagina >

Cervix > Uterus
C. placenta
B. Testis > Sperm duct > Urethra> Pe-
D. vagina nis > Vagina> Fallopian tube
25. what the baby is called from 8 weeks until C. Testis > Sperm duct > Urethra > Pe-
birth nis > Vagina > Cervix > Uterus > Fal-
A. embryo lopian tube
B. fetus D. Testis > Sperm duct > Penis>

Vagina > Uterus> Fallopian tube
C. baby
D. infant 31. What is the main hormone that helps to
maintain a pregnancy?
26. The length of the menstrual cycle varies, A. Progesterone
but is usually about
B. Estrogen
A. 21 days long
C. FSH
B. 28 days long
D. HCG
C. 36 days long
D. 45 days long 32. The length of time from the beginning of
woman’s period to ovulation is usually
27. What chromosomes make a girl? about
A. XY A. 7 days
B. XX B. 14 days
C. XZ C. 21 days
D. YZ D. 28 days

33. During fertilization, nucleus from the 38. What is attached to the umbilical cord; it
sperm fuses with the ovum nucleus to form supplies nutrients, oxygen, and waste be-
tween the parent and child?
A. an embryo A. placenta
B. a zygote B. wire
C. a fetus C. fallopian tube
D. a baby D. uterus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
34. What is the structure inside the womb that
39. Puberty is key to which stage of human
cushions and protects the fetus and regu-
development?
lates its temperature?
A. Adulthood
A. afterbirth
B. Old age
B. placenta
C. umbilical cord C. Childhood
D. amniotic sac D. Adolescence
35. What is the term that describes when the 40. The sperm cell carries the
growing cells become recognizable as a hu- A. X sex chromosome
man?
B. Y sex chromosome
A. baby
C. X and Y sex chromosomes
B. fetus
D. X or Y sex chromosome
C. embryo
D. zygote 41. Which animals usually undergo external
fertilization
36. The release of a mature egg every
month? A. mammals
A. period B. birds and reptiles
B. menstruation C. kangaroos
C. ovulation D. fish and other aquatic vertebrates
D. old age
42. How are identical twins are formed?
37. Which of the following can occur if a A. the embryo splits into two and then
mother uses toxic substances during her stays stuck together
pregnancy?
B. when one egg is fertilized by one
A. The child could have behavioural prob- sperm and then the embryo divides into
lems. two
B. She could give birth to a stillborn baby. C. when two eggs are fertilized by one
C. She could increase her risk of having a sperm
miscarriage. D. when one egg is fertilized by two
D. all of the above sperm

43. What structure protects and cushions the B. Umbilical cord

fetus throughout its prenatal develop-
C. Placenta
ment?

D. Cervix
A. amniotic sac and fluid
B. placenta 49. Which of the following occur during labor
C. umbilical cord A. cervix dilates
D. vagina B. uterine contractions
44. What is the structure in side the womb C. water breaks
that transports oxygen and nutrients to
the baby? D. all of these
A. umbilical cord 50. The age of infancy

B. placenta A. 0 to 1
C. amniotic sac B. 0 to 2
D. mother’s blood
C. 0 to 3
45. In which part of the female reproductive D. 0 to 4
system does the embryo/fetus develop?
A. Cervix 51. What is the term that describes the posi-
tion of the baby when it is not upside down
B. Uterus
and head first?
C. Fallopian Tube
A. natural birth
D. Ovary
B. bottoms up birth
46. What are the basic units of heredity that
C. breech birth
get passed on to children?
A. chromosomes D. alternate birth
B. characteristics 52. What is the most common sign of preg-

C. traits nancy?
D. genes A. nausea and vomiting
47. What term describes when the baby is B. feeling more hungry than normal
taken out of the uterus by making an in- C. headaches and backaches
cision in the lower abdomen?
D. not getting a period
A. Caesar’s sectioning
B. Miscarriage 53. How does a woman know when she is go-
ing into labor?
C. Caesarian section
D. Breeched birth A. Her water breaks
B. She has contractions
48. What is delivered after the baby and called
the “after birth? ” C. Either one of the above could happen
A. Amnion D. Neither of the above could happen

54. What is the amniotic fluid for? B. meiosis

A. Nutrients C. fertilization
B. Gas exchange D. differentiation
C. Protection 60. How does the baby exchange substances
D. Warmth between the baby and the mother, so the
baby can get rid of wastes and receive nu-
55. testes produce reproductive structures trients?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
known as
A. Ovary
A. zygotes B. Uterus
B. sperm cells C. Umbilical cord
C. egg cells D. Fallopian tube
D. pollen grains
61. What is it called when the cervix opens
56. The period from fertilisation to the birth of up?
the baby is called A. Efface
A. menstruation B. Dialate
B. labor C. Labor
C. pregnancy D. Contraction
D. none of above 62. Menstrual fluid contains
57. After the young are born, how do mam- A. blood
mals nourish their babies? B. uterine tissue
A. milk from mammary glands of the C. other fluids
mother
D. all of these substances
B. food is exchanged in the placenta
63. What is the single cell formed when the
C. the umbilical cord
sperm and the egg join together?
D. they feed them pizza A. sex cell
58. What happens at the placenta? B. zygote
A. The mother’s and baby’s blood mix to- C. fetus
gether D. embryo
B. There is an exchange of nutrients, oxy-
64. What is the purpose of the umbilical cord
gen, and waste between the mother’s and
during pregnancy?
baby’s blood across a membrane
A. To transport nutrients and oxygen
C. It protects the baby
from the placenta to the baby
D. It determines the sex of the baby
B. Protect the baby from bumps
59. After a zygote is formed, specialization of C. To stop the baby from falling out of the
cells occurs. Through which process do the cervix
cells of a zygote become specialized? D. To keep the baby from dropping into
A. sexual reproduction the placenta too soon

65. After how much time does an embryo be- C. two identical eggs are released
come a fetus? D. two identical sperm fertilize the egg

A. a few days
68. What is the multi-celled mass formed by
B. 8 weeks the divisions of the single cell formed at
C. 28 days conception?
D. 40 weeks A. zygote
66. When sperm and egg meet inside the body B. egg cell
it is called C. fetus
A. external fertilization D. blastocyst
B. internal fertilization
69. Which phase involves the egg being re-
C. external development leased into the Fallopian tube?
D. internal development A. Menstruation
67. How are identical twins formed? B. Ovulation
A. two eggs fertilised C. Birth
B. fertilized egg splits D. Pregnancy

4. Reproductive Health
NARAYAN CHANGDER
4.1 Birth Control
1. A thin latex or plastic sheaths that 4. Stimulates development of corpus luteum
are rolled down over an erect penis A. Progesterone
they are made from latex, lambskin, or
polyurethane. B. Estrogen
A. female condoms C. Luteinizing Hormone

D. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone
B. Patch
C. abstinence 5. Secrete follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D. male condom A. Follicle Cells
B. Corpus Luteum
2. A thin strong plastic, pouch that is placed
in the vagina before sex to keep sperm C. Pituitary Gland in the brain
from entering the vagina. D. Uterus
A. male condom 6. Which hormone is secreted directly from
B. cervical cap the Posterior Pituitary Gland?
C. female condom A. Oxytocin
D. diaphragm B. Aldosterone
C. Epinephrine
3. Is a thin, flexible square about 2 inches
D. Cortisol
that sticks to the skin of a female and re-
leases hormones directly into the skin. 7. Stimulates development of follicles
A. Ring A. Progesterone
B. Patch B. Estrogen
C. condom C. Luteinizing Hormone
D. female condom D. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone

4.2 Sexually Transmitted Infections 325
8. The thickened endometrium is maintained C. Before ovulation

by: D. During menses

A. FSH
14. is the chemical product of an endocrine
B. LH gland.
C. Estrogen A. insulin
D. Progesterone B. hormone
9. A small rod placed under the skin and re- C. target cells
leases hormones daily. D. negative feedback
A. IUD
15. Cause the appearance of secondary sex
B. implant characteristics in women
C. The Pill A. Progesterone
D. condom B. Estrogen
10. LH levels are highest C. Luteinizing Hormone
A. During ovulation D. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone
B. After Ovulation 16. Birth control pills must be taken
C. Right before ovulation A. every other day
D. During menses B. every day at the same time
11. Birth control comes in two ways C. only before sex
A. hormonal and estrogen D. immediately after sex
B. barrier and hormonal 17. Thickening of the endometrium is con-

trolled by:
C. barrier and horizontal
A. FSH
D. hormonal and defense
B. LH
12. Secrete progesterone
C. Estrogen
A. Follicle Cells
D. Progesterone
B. Yellow body
18. This gland releases the male sex hormone
C. Pituitary Glands
testosterone.
D. Uterus
A. ovaries
13. Estrogen levels are highest B. pancreas
A. During ovulation C. testes
B. After Ovulation D. adrenal
4.2 Sexually Transmitted Infections

1. What should you do if you feel you must 6. How can you be 100% sure that you will
have sex with someone? not contract an STI?
A. Know as much about sex as you can A. Abstain from sexual activity
and use protection. B. Use a latex condom
B. Try to avoid the person as much as pos- C. Use birth control
sible.
D. Use antibiotics
C. Discuss your feelings with your best
friend. 7. “The Clap” is term for:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Suppress your feelings as much as A. carbohydrates
possible. B. chlamidya
2. The only way to be 100% certain you will C. gonorrhea
NOT get an STI is: D. chloride deposits
A. To use a condom 8. The following are long term consequences
B. To use birth control of contracting STI’s, except
C. To only have 1 sexual partner A. skin sores
D. To ABSTAIN from having sex. B. cervical cancer
C. infertility
3. Signs of this viral infection include sores
and blisters. Additional outbreaks can oc- D. none of above
cur after the initial outbreak. 9. STD: ::STI:
A. Gonorrhea A. disease, infection
B. Syphilis B. disorder, intervention
C. Herpes C. disease, intervention
D. Pubic Lice D. disorder, infection
4. Most common STI in the United States. 10. A group of viral infections. Sometimes
Signs of this bacterial infection could causes genital warts and other forms of
include vaginal or penis discharge and this infection can cause cancer. There is
swelling of genitals. Is treated with an- now a vaccine to prevent this infection.
tibiotics.
A. HPV
A. Chlaymidia
B. HIV
B. Syphilis
C. Herpes
C. Gonorrhea
D. Chlamydia
D. Herpes
11. Common parasitic infection that could re-
5. Which type of STI can be managed but not sult in excessive, frothy, yellowish or
cured? greenish vaginal discharge.
A. Bacterial A. Trichomoniasis
B. Viral B. Syphilis
C. Fungal C. Pubic lice
D. Parasitic D. Chlaymidia

12. Sometimes STI’s can come from things be- 17. This STI is rarely spread between women
sides sex, like who have sex with women.

A. coughing A. Chlamydia
B. toilet seats
B. Herpes
C. contaminated blood
C. HPV
D. none of above
D. Syphilis
13. How can an STD affect your life?
A. It can make you more attractive to the 18. Which of these is a bacterial infection that
opposite sex. could cause discharge from the vagina or
B. It can get you in a lot of trouble with penis and difficulty urinating. Men could
your parents. experience swelling of the genitals. It
could result in infertility if not treated
C. It can make you very sick and may
even kill you. A. Gonorrhea
D. It can help you get better grades in B. Herpes
school.
C. Pubic Lice
14. Common bacterial infection that may lead
D. Syphilis
to pelvic inflammatory disease. Often has
no symptoms, but could have discharge
19. How can HIV spread from an infected per-
and pain when urinating,
son to a non-infected person?
A. Herpes
A. Unprotected sex
B. Syphilis
C. Chlamydia B. Shaking hands
D. HIV C. Sneeze or coughs or coughs
15. A diseases showing no symptoms or only D. Sharing a drink

mild symptoms that disappear after the
onset of an infection 20. Some strains of HPV may lead to
A. sexually transmitted diseases A. cancer
B. asymptomatic B. pregnancy
C. transmit
C. HIV
D. sexually transmitted infections
D. insanity
16. What is the MOST risky sexual behavior?
A. discussing your sexual behavior with 21. How do STDs get spread?
friends A. from coughing and sneezing
B. choosing abstinence
B. from drink fountains
C. thinking you have fallen in love at first
sight C. through sexual contact
D. not using protection if you do have sex D. from toilet seats

22. Why is it important to use protection dur- 27. Antibiotic treatments can cure
ing sex? A. syphilis
A. To prevent your parents from punish- B. gonnohrea
ing you.
C. herpes
B. To make yourself more attractive to
D. both syphilis and gonnohrea
others.
C. To keep your heart from getting bro- 28. Some STI can spread through the use of
needles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ken.
D. To protect yourself and others from A. contaminated
STDs. B. unfertilized
C. sterilized
23. A person with herpes can
D. none of above
A. Carry the virus but show no symptoms
B. Not transmit the virus at all 29. STD’s are transmitted via the following
bodily fluids, except
C. Only spread the virus when symptoms
are visible A. semen
B. pre-ejaculatory fluid
D. None of these
C. tears
24. What types of cells does HIV target in the
D. breast milk
human body?
A. Red blood cells that carry oxygen 30. If someone is cured of a bacterial STD
throughout the body A. they cannot get it again
B. T cells that fight against bacterial in- B. they can get reinfected
fections C. they will have warts
C. HIV infects all types of cells D. they cannot get a viral STD
D. Neurons in the central nervous system
31. You can lower your chances of giving a STI
25. Gonorrhea is also called by
A. the clap A. Being a nice person

B. Taking a bath or shower every day
B. the pox
C. Limiting your sexual partners
C. crotch crickets
D. none of above
D. the gift the keeps on giving
32. In California, how old must you be to ob-
26. A parasitic infection that causes itching tain sexually transmitted infections test-
and blue sores. Patients may see nits or ing and treatment without parental notifi-
eggs. cation?
A. Pubic lice A. 12
B. Trichomoniasis B. 14
C. Herpes C. 16
D. HPV D. 18

33. Two STIs that have NO CURE are: C. Hugging

A. gonorrhea and hpv D. Sharing a soda with an infected person

B. HIV and Herpes
39. STI stands for
C. syphilis and chlamidya
A. stop that, ick!
D. none of above
B. sexual trans injection
34. Which would be a long term consequence C. sexually transmitted infection
of contracting herpes?
D. none of above
A. If you are a woman, you could pass
herpes to your child during childbirth. 40. How does a virus reproduce?
B. You will have flu-like symptoms each A. By attacking other cells and injecting
year. their genes
C. You will have discharge and itching. B. Meiosis
D. There are no long-term consequences. C. They make clones by budding
35. This STI can be spread through skin-to-skin D. Mitosis
contact:
41. Diseases that spread from person to per-
A. HIV son through sexual contact
B. Hepatitis B A. sexually transmitted diseases
C. Herpes B. asymptomatic
D. none of above
C. transmit
36. What is the name for the feelings you get D. none of above
when you first meet someone you are at-
tracted to? 42. Another name for sexually transmitted dis-
eases
A. Love at first sight
B. Intense physical attraction A. sexually transmitted diseases
C. Intense love B. asymptomatic
D. Confusion C. transmit
37. to send from one person or place to an-
other 43. Some STI’s can be spread from mother to
A. sexually transmitted diseases infant during breast-feeding because
B. asymptomatic A. breast milk is a fluid rich in nutrients
and other substances
C. transmit
B. breast milk is a fluid made up of cells
of the immune system that are infected or
38. How are STIs most commonly transmit- damaged.
ted? C. breast milk is the connection between
A. Through sexual contact mother and baby
B. Hanging out with an infected person D. none of above

44. How are gonorrhea, chlamydia, and 49. Viral infection that could progress into
syphilis usually treated? AIDS. Patients will take antiretroviral
A. With antibiotics medication for the rest of their lives.
B. These infections cannot be treated. A. Herpes

C. With antiviral medication B. Chlaymidia
D. With antifungal cream C. Syphilis
D. HIV
NARAYAN CHANGDER
45. This infection is due to a parasite. Symp-
toms include itching and sores in the area.
It is possible that nits or eggs of the para- 50. STD stands for:
site will be visible. A. sexual turn down
A. Pubic lice B. sexually transmitted disease
B. Herpes C. stop that dancing!
C. Chlamydia
D. none of above
D. Syphilis
51. Untreated pelvic inflammatory diseases
46. What type of infections are gonorrhea,
syphilis, and chlamydia? A. put women more at risk than men
A. Bacterial B. can be asymptomatic
B. Viral C. can lead to sterility
C. Fungal D. all of the above
D. Parasitic
52. This viral infection does not have a cure.
47. How do antiretroviral therapies keep HIV While there is often no sign of infection,
in check? patients may notice sores and blisters. Ad-
ditional outbreaks can reoccur after the ini-
A. By preventing viruses from assembling
tial outbreak
B. All of these
A. Herpes
C. By preventing viral DNA from being
copied B. Chlamydia
D. By preventing the virus from entering C. Gonorrhea
cells D. HIV
48. What is the MAIN danger of mixing alco-
53. Which is true of an HIV infection?
hol, drugs, and sex?
A. You could embarrass yourself in front A. You can expect to be on an antiviral
of your friends. drug for the rest of your life.
B. You could get in a lot of trouble with B. It can be cured after taking the correct
your parents. medication.
C. You could get very sick and even die. C. You cannot pass it to your partner if
you have no symptoms.
D. You could become disorientated and
get lost. D. You will develop a rash.

54. What type of infections are pubic lice and 59. How long does it typically take for HIV to
Trichomoniasis progress to AIDS in an untreated individ-
ual?

A. Bacterial
B. Viral A. Days
C. Fungal B. Weeks
D. Parasitic C. Years
D. Decades
55. One of the reasons why teens are high risk
for contracting STD’s 60. Abstinence means:
A. Typically a population is monogam A. only having oral sex
B. Typically a population to have several B. always using protection when having
sexual partners sex
C. Typically a population is free to decide C. having NO sexual contact
one sexual partner D. none of above
D. none of above 61. How do most teens get information about
56. Why is it important to talk about sex with sexually transmitted diseases (STDS)?
your parents? A. from TV shows and movies
A. so you can learn how your parents feel B. from their parents
about your partner C. from books and magazines
B. so you can learn how dangerous sex is D. from their friends
C. so you can become better educated 62. This bacterial infection begins with a small
about sex firm sore and could evolve into a rash of
D. so you will learn what punishments you the hands and feet. It is important that
will get for having sex this infection be treated in its early stages.
57. What type of infections are herpes, HPV, A. Gonorrhea
hepatitis, and HIV B. Syphilis
A. Bacterial C. Herpes
B. Viral D. HPV
C. Fungal 63. The following are bacterial infections, ex-
D. Parasitic cept:
A. gonorrhea
58. This bacterial infection begins with a small
firm sore in the genitals. As the infec- B. trichmoniasis
tion progresses, the patient may develop C. chlamaydia
a rash on hands and feet. This infection D. none of above
can be cured if treated early.
64. Pubic Lice are also called
A. Syphilis
A. the clap
B. Herpes
B. the pox
C. HIV
C. the gift the keeps on giving
D. Gonorrhea
D. crotch crickets
4.3 Infertility 332
4.3 Infertility
1. How many eggs are typically implanted 6. An embryo is typically made of how many
back into the uterus ( womb)? cells?
A. 1-2 A. 1
B. 3-5 B. 3
C. 6-10 C. 8
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 11+ D. 25
2. When is the fertilised egg put into the 7. kill bacteria

woman’s uterus during IVF? A. Bulbourethral Fluid (Pre-Cum)
A. When it is one cell big B. Seminal Fluid
B. when it is 2 cells big C. Prostate Fluid
C. when it is a tiny balls of cells called an D. Antibiotic Substances
embryo
E. Semen
D. none of above
8. Semen contains
3. containing fructose (provides energy)
A. Bulbourethral Fluid (Pre-Cum)
B. Seminal Fluid
B. Seminal Fluid
C. Prostate Fluid
C. Prostate Fluid D. Antibiotic Substances
D. Antibiotic Substances E. Urine
E. Semen
9. activate sperm
4. what is IVF A. Bulbourethral Fluid (Pre-Cum)
A. in-vitro fertilisation B. Seminal Fluid
B. i’m virus free C. Prostate Fluid
C. in-vitro forever D. Antibiotic Substances
D. invitro family E. Semen
5. contains prostaglandins to nourish and ac- 10. milky white mixture of sperm and acces-
tivate sperm sory gland secretions
A. Bulbourethral Fluid (Pre-Cum) A. Bulbourethral Fluid (Pre-Cum)
B. Seminal Fluid B. Seminal Fluid
C. Prostate Fluid C. Prostate Fluid
D. Antibiotic Substances D. Antibiotic Substances
E. Semen E. Semen

4.3 Infertility 333
11. fertilisation is B. Seminal Fluid

A. spreading fertiliser on your vegetable C. Prostate Fluid

patch D. Antibiotic Substances
B. When a sperm breaks into the egg E. Semen
C. When a sperm swims up the uterus
17. liquid portion of semen
D. When the lining of the womb is shed
12. the order of the 4 mains steps of IVF is: B. Seminal Fluid
A. Ovarian stimulation, embryo transfer, C. Prostate Fluid
egg release, fertilisation
D. Antibiotic Substances
B. Fertilisation, ovarian stimulation, em-
E. Semen
bryo transfer, egg release
C. Fertilisation, egg release, ovarian 18. Three of these statements can prevent a
stimulation, embryo transfer woman getting pregnant. Which state-
ment is the odd one out?
D. Ovarian stimulation, egg release, fer-
tilisation, embryo transfer A. She has low levels of FSH
B. She has high levels of oestrogen
13. What is an unfertilized egg?
C. Her male partner is very short
A. An egg that a chick hatches from
D. Her male partner has a low sperm
B. An Easter egg count
C. An egg you can find in restaurants,
19. what hormones are given to women under-
stores, or on your table at home
going IVF treatment?
D. none of above
A. Oestrogen
14. milky fluid that helps activate sperm B. thyroxine
A. Bulbourethral Fluid (Pre-Cum) C. FSH and LH
B. Seminal Fluid D. Progesterone
C. Prostate Fluid 20. thick and yellowish
D. Antibiotic Substances A. Bulbourethral Fluid (Pre-Cum)
E. Semen B. Seminal Fluid
15. what is infertility? C. Prostate Fluid
A. not being able to get pregnant D. Antibiotic Substances
B. being able to get pregnant E. Semen
C. barren land 21. Which of these can cause infertility
D. none of above A. Using condoms
16. prepares urethra for ejaculation by cleans- B. Having sex
ing urethra of acidic urine C. Defective reproductive system
A. Bulbourethral Fluid (Pre-Cum) D. Drinking Coke

4.3 Infertility 334
22. serves as lubricant during sexual inter- 23. thick, clear mucus
course
B. Seminal Fluid
B. Seminal Fluid
C. Prostate Fluid C. Prostate Fluid
D. Antibiotic Substances D. Antibiotic Substances

E. Semen E. Semen
NARAYAN CHANGDER

5. Principles of Inheritance and
Variation
5.1 Introduction to Mendelian Genetics

1. Which of the following is an example of a 4. Which of the following blood types is
heterozygous genotype? known as the UNIVERSAL DONOR?
A. RR A. A
B. Rr B. B
C. AB
C. rr
D. O
D. none of above
5. Hemophilia is a sex-linked condition. If a
2. In one side of a DNA molecule contains man with hemophilia has children with a
the following sequence of nucleotides, woman who is a carrier, what percentage
AGTCCG, the complementary sequence on of their children will have the disorder?
the other side would be A. 100%
A. GCCTGA B. 50%
B. TCAGGC C. 0%
C. AGTCCG D. 25%
D. CTGAAT 6. Dominant alleles are represented by a(n)
A. phenotype
3. Phenotypes refer to the
B. lower case letter
A. karyotype of chromosomes
C. upper case letter
B. way we write the allele in symbols (RR, D. punnett square
rr)
7. In Complete Dominance, also called
C. physical trait we see (eye color, hair
Mendelian Inheritance, an allele that can
color, bending thumb)
be hidden and not observed in the pheno-
D. none of above type at the organism level is called (a)

5.1 Introduction to Mendelian Genetics 336
A. recessive C. Epistasis
B. dominant D. Polygenic Inheritence
C. homozygous
12. Each offspring inherits one allele from
D. crossing over mom and one allele from dad. These in-
herited genes are referred to as the off-
8. The principle of dominance states that
spring’s (a)
A. all alleles are dominant
A. genotype
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. all alleles are recessive
B. phenotype
C. some alleles are dominant and some
are recessive C. karyotype
D. alleles are neither dominant or reces- D. homologous chromosomes
sive
13. In seals, the allele for long whiskers
9. Hemophilia is a condition in which minor is dominant over the allele for short
cuts and bruises can result in prolonged whiskers. What percentage of offspring
bleeding. Hemophilia is caused by a re- would be expected to have the phenotype
cessive allele for a sex-linked gene.If a for long whiskers if both parents are het-
man who does not have hemophilia has erozygous for long whiskers?
a son with a woman who is a carrier
A. 0%
for hemophilia, what are the chances that
their son will have hemophilia? B. 50%
A. 0% C. 75%
B. 25% D. 100%
C. 50%
14. A pink flowering plant (Rr) is crossed with
D. 100% a white flowering plant (rr). What are the
chances this cross will create a red flower-
10. What is the significance of the cross-
ing plant (RR)?
ing over that occurs between homologous
chromosomes during meiosis? A. 0
A. It results in genetic variation due to B. 1/4 (25% Chance)
new gene combinations.
C. 1/2 (50% chance)
B. It causes chromosomes to condense.
D. 1 (100% chance)
C. It reduces chromosomes from 2n to n.
D. It maintains the diploid number of the 15. Genetic molecules such as DNA store the
species. instructions to make proteins that are ex-
pressed as traits. The expressed traits are
11. In chickens, black feathers (BB) is homozy- referred to as (a)
gous dominant. White feathers (bb) is A. phenotype
homozygous recessive. Bb is white with
black specks. What is this an example of? B. genotype
A. Codominance C. homologous chromosomes
B. Incomplete Dominance D. alleles

16. Select all that apply:Which is an example C. 3:1

of a Genotype?
D. 2:1

A. BB
B. Gg 22. What should go where #1 is in the table?
C. Brown Hair A. homozygous

D. hh B. heterozygous
C. hh
17. What do you call the physical expression
of a gene? D. Hh
A. genotype E. a picture of a hairy guinea pig
B. dominant
23. A Punnett square is used to determine the
C. phenotype
D. allele A. probable outcome of a genetic cross
18. He was an Austrian monk whose experi- B. actual outcome of a genetic cross
ments come ip with the principles and law
C. result of incomplete dominance.
of genetics
A. Alexander Fleming D. result of meiosis
B. Gregor Mendel 24. What was the first generation of plants

C. Charles Darwin called that resulted from crossing the two
parent plants?
D. James Watson
A. F1
19. In Mendel’s experiment, why did traits
show up in the F2 generation that were B. F2
not present in the F1 generation? C. P
A. The traits were not inherited. D. none of above
B. The traits were non-Mendelian.
25. When two traits are equally dominant, we
C. The traits were recessive. call this
D. The traits were not genetic.
A. incomplete dominance
20. Baldness is an example of a/an B. independent dominance
A. Holandric gene C. codominance
B. sex influenced trait
D. none of above
C. sex limited trait
D. set linked trait 26. What type of traits “show up” in a popu-
lation more often?
21. What was the ratio of dominant to reces- A. dominant
sive phenotypes in the F2 generation of
Mendel’s experiments? B. recessive
A. 6:1 C. punnett squares
B. 1:1 D. alleles

27. The PHYSICAL characteristics of an organ- B. 2Ww:2ww

ism are called its C. 4WW
A. phenotype D. 4Ww
B. Genotype
33. An organism’s genetic make-up:
C. genetics
A. phenotype
D. heredity
B. genotype
NARAYAN CHANGDER
28. Round (R) seeds are dominant to wrinkled
C. dominant
(r) seeds.What is the genotype for a ho-
mozygous dominant offspring? D. recessive
A. RR 34. In snapdragons, Tallness (T) is dominant
B. Rr to dwarfness (t). In a cross between two
plants that are heterozygous for this trait,
C. rr
the percent of offspring expected to ex-
D. none of above hibit dwarfness is
29. Alternative forms of genes for a particular A. 25%
characteristic are called B. 100%
A. Alleles C. 50%
B. Genotypes D. 0%
C. Phenotypes
35. D = dimples d = no dimples What is the
D. Chromosomes genotype for a homozygous recessive off-
30. Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study spring?
A. flowering A. DD
B. gamete formation B. Dd
C. the inheritance of traits C. dd

D. cross-pollination D. none of above
31. What is the purpose of Mitosis? 36. The DNA molecule could be compared to
A. To produce 4 genetically unique cells A. hairpin
B. To produce more enzymes within the B. ladder
cell C. key
C. To create more proteins in the cell D. flat plate
D. To repair or replace damaged cells
37. Which represents a heterozygous geno-
32. Given the characteristic for the hairline type?
shape:Male parent has WW ( widows A. HH
peak); Female parent-ww ( straight hair-
line ) What could be the result of the cross B. bb
match? C. Hh
A. 2WW:2ww D. qq

38. For any given trait there may be more than 43. If two purebred species (BB) are crossed,
two choices for alleles, the trait may be in- what percentage of their offspring would
herited on more than one gene or chromo- be BB?

some, and there are many types of inheri-
A. 25%
tance patterns it may follow, however, for
each trait you may only inherit how many B. 50%
alleles? C. 75%
A. 1 D. 100%
B. 2
44. Select all that apply:Which of the follow-
C. 13 ing are gametes?
D. 17 A. Egg
39. What are alleles represented by? B. Skin Cells

C. Sperm
A. Letters
D. Liver Cells
B. Numbers
C. Characteristics 45. Which of these events occurs first during
the process of transcription?
D. DNA Bases
A. RNA polymerase joins nucleotides into
40. A genotype refers to the RNA molecule.
A. the alleles that manifest and we can B. RNA polymerase binds to the pro-
see (attached earlobe) moter.
B. a homozygous nature C. Introns are removed from the RNA
molecule.
C. the alleles for a gene written in sym-
bols (RR, Rr rr) D. Exons are removed from the RNA
molecule.
D. none of above
46. In Mendelian inheritance, an allele that is
41. Another term for heterozygous is always expressed is called (a)
A. allele A. dominant
B. same B. recessive
C. hybrid C. homozygous
D. pure D. heterozygous
42. Offspring that result from crosses be- 47. Why did Mendel use pure lines in his ex-
tween parents with different traits periment?
A. are true-breeding A. He needed a control group.
B. make up the F2 generation B. Pure lines grew faster.
C. make up the parental generation C. He had no other plants to use.
D. are called hybrids D. Pure lines produce more offspring.

48. In drosophila, the gene for eye color is lo- C. Brown and Blonde Hair
cated on the X chromosome. The allele for
D. Black Hair
red eyes (R) is dominant over the allele for
white eyes (r). A red-eyed fly with the 53. Blood typing in humans depends on three
genotype XRXr is crossed with a white- alleles. The A and B alleles are codomi-
eyed fly with the genotype XrY.What per- nant, and the O allele is recessive.An AB
centage of the male offspring could be born blood type mother has children with a B
with white eyes? blood type father (genotype BO).What are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 0% the chances that their children will have AB
B. 25% type blood?
C. 50% A. 75%
D. 75% B. 100%
C. 25%
49. Different forms of genes are called:
A. hybrids D. 17%
B. dominant factors 54. The principal enzyme involved in DNA

C. alleles replication is called A The enzyme
joins B to synthesize a new DNA.
D. recessive factors
A. A:complementary, B:DNA polymerase,
50. traits that are expressed exclusively in
one sex is called
B. A:nucleotides, B:semiconservative
A. Sex Influenced traits
C. A:DNA polymerase, B:nucleotides
B. sex limited traits
D. A:Complementary; B:semiconservative
C. sex linked traits
D. dominance 55. The color black is dominant in guinea
pigs. The phenotypes of homozygous
51. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive black guinea pigs and heterozygous black
condition. A colorblind woman with the guinea pigs are:
genotype XaXa marries a man with nor-
mal vision, XAY. What is the probability A. black
that a male child born to the two of them B. gray
would be colorblind?
C. BB and Bb
A. 0%
D. white
B. 50%
C. 75% 56. Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled
D. 100% seeds (r). What is the genotype for a wrin-
kled offspring?
52. Mark is heterozygous. If B is for brown A. RR
hair, and b is for blonde hair, what is
Mark’s phenotype? B. Rr
A. Brown Hair C. rr
B. Blonde Hair D. none of above

57. Traits that break the rules by having no C. Environmental factors led to the ex-
clearly dominant allele are pression of different genes.
D. Each parent passes on half of the ge-

A. Non-Mendelian
netic information to the offspring.
B. Non-Newtonian
C. non-hereditary 62. What is the probability of flipping a coin
twice in a row, and getting heads both
D. none of above times?
58. A homozygous dominant round seeded A. 1 (100% chance)
plant is crossed with a homozygous reces- B. 1/2 (50 % chance)
sive wrinkled seeded plant. What are the
C. 1/4 (25% chance)
genotypes of the parents?
D. 3/4 (75 % chance)
A. RR X rr
63. The gene makeup of an organism for a par-
B. Rr X rr
ticular trait is known as its
C. rr X rr
A. dominance
D. RR X Rr B. phenotype
59. A homozygous white horse is crossed with C. allele
homozygous red horse and resulted to an D. genotype
offspring with roan phenotype. Which of
the following pattern of inheritance is ex- 64. In the bonding of nitrogenous bases
hibited? A. adenine is paired with cytosine
A. Incomplete Dominance B. adenine is paired with guanine
B. Codominance C. cytosine is paired with thymine
C. Dominance D. guanine is paired with cytosine
D. Sex related inheritance 65. In a species of mouse, brown fur (B) is
dominant over white fur (b). If a het-
60. Tall (T) is dominant over short (t). All of erozygous brown mouse is crossed with a
the offspring of the F1 generation were white-colored mouse, what would be true
heterozygous for both traits. What are of their possible offspring? Hint:Draw a
the parent genotypes for these offspring? Punnett Square on a piece of paper.
A. TT x TT A. 75% BB and 25% Bb
B. Tt x Tt B. 50% Bb and 50% bb
C. TT x tt C. 100% BB
D. 100% Tt D. 25% BB, 25% bb, and 50% Bb
61. Clones produced from the same organism 66. Which cross could produce a child with
are found to exhibit slightly different phys- blood type A?
ical traits. What is the most likely reason A. IAi x ii
for this? B. IAi x IBIB
A. Some of the clones have mutated. C. IAIA x IBIB
B. Variation resulted from meiosis. D. IBIB x ii

67. The physical appearance of the allele com- 72. The appearance of resulting from a given
bination the offspring receives gene combination is referred to as the
A. genotype A. Prototype
B. homozygous B. Genotype
C. phenotype C. Phenotype
D. dominant D. Allelotype
73. In a Punnett square, the letters within the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
68. In which way is RNA different from DNA?
(there are other differences, but just pick little boxes represent
one from the list ) A. Offspring genotypes
A. only found in the nucleus B. Offspring phenotypes
B. contains uracil C. Parental genotypes
C. contains thymine D. Parental phenotypes
D. contains the sugar deoxyribose 74. How many alleles do we inherit?
69. If one parent is BB and the other is bb, A. both from father
what will their children have for geno- B. we dont inherit alleles
types? (Hint:draw a Punnett Square)
C. 1 from each parent
A. BB
D. both from mother
B. Bb
75. How many chromosomes does a singular
C. bb
egg or sperm (gamete) have?
D. none of above
A. 23 chromosomes
70. Which of the following is an example of a B. 46 chromosomes
polygenic gene? C. 86 chromosomes
A. Sickle Cell D. 28 chromosomes
B. Albinism
76. In flowers, 2 pink (RW) flowers are
C. Human Height crossed. What are the genotypes and phe-
D. PTC Tasting notypes of their offspring?
A. 100% pink (RW)
71. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair is
dominant over the allele for long hair. The B. 50% pink (RW); 25% white (WW); 25%
allele for black hair is dominant over white red (RR)
hair. B = black b = white S=short s=long C. 75% pink (RW); 25% white (WW)
What genotype would you see if a guinea
D. 100% red (RR)
pig was heterozygous for hair color and
homozygous dominant for hair length? 77. The different forms of a gene are called
A. Black and short hair A. traits
B. BbSS B. pollinators
C. White and short hair C. alleles
D. BBSS D. hybrids

78. This vocabulary word is a section of a piece C. How traits are passed to offspring
of DNA. It gives instructions to code for D. How to grow pea plants the fastest
proteins.

A. DNA 84. Disorders involving unusual numbers of
sex chromosomes shows that “MALE-
B. Gene
NESS” is caused by the
C. Flagella
A. presence of X chromosome
D. Cats
B. presence of Y chromosome
79. A red four o’clock flower is crossed with a C. absence of X chromosome
white four o’clock flower, and all the off-
spring are pink. What law of inheritance D. absence of X chromosome
does this follow? 85. The sex chromosomes of a human female
A. Dominance are and sex chromosomes of human
B. Segregation male are
C. Incomplete dominance A. XX and XY
D. Codominance B. XY and XX
C. YY and XY
80. If T = tall and t = short, and a pea plant
was homozygous recessive for height, D. YY and XX
how would its alleles be represented?
86. Which plants did Gregor Mendel use be-
A. TT cause they grow and reproduce quickly?
B. Tt A. Peas
C. tt B. Corn
D. tT
C. Wheat
81. Another word for homozygous is D. Roses
A. purebred
87. How many chromosomes does human
B. hybrid have?
C. heterozygous A. 23
D. dominant B. 46
82. A situation in which a gene has more than C. 12
2 alleles is known as: D. 24
A. complete dominance
88. A nucleotide of DNA may contain adenine,
B. codominance
guanine, cytosine, or thymine. What is
C. polygenic dominance each of these components?
D. multiple alleles A. 5-carbon sugar
83. What was Mendel trying to determine? B. nitrogenous base
A. How to grow the best pea plants C. phosphate group
B. How pea plants self-pollinate D. nucleic acid

89. How many total chromosomes are in a 95. If a man is color blind and his wife is a
body cell such as a liver cell? carrier, which of the following is TRUE?
A. 46 chromosomes A. Has a 50% chance of having a color
B. 23 chromosomes blind child
C. 28 chromosomes B. No girls will be color blind
D. 86 chromosomes C. All the boys will be carrier
D. All the girls will be carriers
90. Who is considered the father of genetics?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Darwin 96. Mom gives an allele in her egg and Dad
gives an allele in his sperm to the zygote.
B. Hooke If each allele is a different variation, it is
C. Mendel called (a)
D. Piquing A. heterozygous
91. Which is one way that DNA replication is B. homozygous
similar in eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic C. zygote
cells? D. dominant
A. number of replication forks
97. Short hair (S) is dominant to long hair
B. use of the enzyme DNA polymerase (s).What is the genotype for an offspring
C. occurs in the cell nucleus with long hair?
D. occurs in the cytoplasm A. SS
92. Fred’s genotype could be or B. Ss
A. HH, hh C. ss
B. HH, Hh D. none of above
C. Hh, hh 98. Review question:A is a segment of
D. none of above DNA that codes for a particular protein,
which leads to a particular trait.
93. G = green g = yellow Cross two plants that A. Gene
are heterozygous for green pods. What is
the phenotype percent? B. Allele
A. 25% green, 75% yellow C. Codon
B. 25% green, 75% yellow D. Nucleotide
C. 50% green, 50% yellow 99. Which describes a Mendelian trait?

D. 75% green, 25% yellow A. Plants can grow to a wide range of
heights.
94. Human traits that are polygenic include
(check all that apply) B. Blood type in humans has several dif-
ferent alleles.
A. a cleft chin
C. Blood type in humans has several dif-
B. height ferent alleles.
C. skin tone D. Human body mass is controlled by
D. widow’s peak hairline many genes.

100. Genevieve has the genotype 105. Tall is an example of a

A. HH A. genotype

B. hh B. phenotype
C. Hh C. pure
D. none of above D. heterozygous

106. A version or variation of a gene
101. If a pea plant has the genotype Tt, how
tall will the plant be? A. trait
A. short B. gene
C. allele
B. tall
D. DNA
C. medium
D. none of above 107. Meiosis is a process that A chro-
mosomes to the ( B ) number.
102. Round seeds (R) are dominant over wrin- A. A:increases; B:diploid
kled seeds (r). What percentage of the B. A:increases; B:haploid
offspring will be round from the following
cross? Rr X Rr C. A:decreases; B:diploid
A. 100% D. A:decreases; B:haploid
B. 75% 108. Meiosis provides genetic ( A

), and ensures the correct distribution of
C. 50% chromosomes into the ( B ).
D. 25% A. A:stability; B:zygotes
103. The observable traits of an organism are B. A:stability; B:gametes
known as its C. A:variation; B:zygotes
A. allele D. A:variation; B:gametes
B. dominance 109. When an organism has two of the same
C. phenotype alleles, it is called
D. genotype A. homozygous
B. heterozygous
104. Which would have most likely stopped
C. recessive
Mendel from finding a pattern in his re-
sults? D. dominant
A. If seed color and shape were located 110. Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a
on the same chromosome baby. What is the chance the baby is blue
eyed?
B. If having a wrinkled seed had been a
recessive trait A. 0 %
C. If garden peas had used sperm and B. 25%
egg to reproduce C. 50%
D. Being short is a recessive trait D. 75%

111. An infant has a small nose, upward slant B. TT

eyes, and abnormally shaped ears. The C. blue eyes
doctor suspects that the infant has Down
Syndrome and asks the parent to con- D. Bb
sent to genetic testing of the child.Which
116. In Shorthorn cattle, when a cow with a
method would be used to determine if the
solid red coat mates with a cow with a
infant has Down Syndrome?
solid white coat color, they always pro-
A. karyotype analysis duce offspring with a roan (both red and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. linkage map white) coat color. This is an example of
what type of inheritance pattern?
C. pedigree analysis
D. Punnett square
B. multiple alleles
112. Which best describes the law of indepen- C. codominance
dent assortment?
D. sex-linked
A. The factors for each trait are sepa-
rated independently when sex cells form. 117. Tt would be described as what?
B. Traits can only be controlled by a sin- A. homozygous dominant
gle gene.
B. homozygous recessive
C. The traits of an offspring are indepen-
C. heterozygous
dent from the parents.
D. none of these
D. It is impossible to cross-pollinate
plants. 118. A fertilized egg is also called a (a)
113. A segment of DNA that codes for a trait A. zygote
A. gene B. gamete
B. allele C. sex cell
C. chromosome D. fertilization
D. chromatid 119. tt is an example of
114. In pea plants, purple petals are dominant A. phenotype
to white. If you cross a homozygous domi- B. heterozygous
nant purple flowered plant with a homozy-
gous white plant, what results would you C. hybrid
get? D. genotype
A. All purple flower offspring 120. A victim of a vehicular accident require
B. All white flower offspring blood transfusion. Blood typing state that
C. Some purple flowers and some white the blood type of the victim is AB. For lack
flowers of type AB, the doctors had to decide to
transfuse other acceptable types. Which
D. none of above would it be?
115. Choose the example of a phenotype. A. O
A. Tt B. B

C. A D. Homologous chromosomes pair to

D. all of the human blood types form a tetrad, and may cross over.

121. If both parents are heterozygous, which 126. Each parent contributes one of the genes
probability is accurate for their children? for a particular trait. The different ver-
A. 1/4 bb sions of the genes that can be passed on
B. 1/4 Bb to offspring are called:
C. 1/2 BB A. variables
D. none of above B. gametes
122. When trying to determine the genotype C. hybrids
of an individual with the dominant pheno-
type, the procedure called a (a) might be D. alleles
helpful.
A. test cross 127. These are variations of a gene and are
presented by a letter. For example:H
B. crossing over
C. nondisjunction A. A chromosome
D. karyotype B. DNA
123. When forming sex cells, the paired alleles C. An Allele

separate so that each egg or sperm only
D. Nucleus
carries one form of the allele
A. principle of independent assortment 128. Why was Mendel’s work not accepted at
B. principle of segregation the time?
C. law of dominance A. He did not have any data.
D. law of recessiveness
B. His results were surprising.
124. Which is representative of Homozygous
recessive alleles? C. He did not repeat his experiments.
A. GG D. His results were false.

B. Gg
129. The distribution of the height of humans
C. Straight Hair
is a normal distribution. There are some
D. gg very tall people, and some very short peo-
ple, but most people are in the middle.
125. Which event occurs in prophase I of meio-
What is most likely true about this trait?
sis, but not prophase of mitosis?
A. Sister chromatids separate and move A. It is a Mendelian trait.
to opposite poles.
B. There are only two alleles for height.
B. All chromosomes line up in a single
row at the center of the cell. C. Being tall is a dominant trait.
C. Homologous pairs separate and move D. It is controlled by several different
towards opposite poles of the cell. genes.

130. In pea plants, the trait for tall stems is B. 25%

dominant over the trait for short stems. If
C. 50%
two heterozygous tall plants are crossed,
what percentage of the offspring would be D. 100%
expected to have the same phenotype as
the parents? 135. When Gregor Mendel crossed true-
A. 100% breeding tall plants (TT) with true-
breeding short plants (tt), all the offspring
B. 75%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
were tall because
C. 50%
A. the allele for tall plants is recessive
D. 25%
B. the allele for short plants is dominant
131. Chromosomes that carry genes that code
for the same trait, such as hemoglobin C. the allele for tall plants is dominant
(HH/hh) or eye pigment (EE/ee), are said D. none of above
to be:
A. homologous 136. Organisms that have two identical alleles
for a particular trait are said to be
B. heterozygous
C. heterogeneous A. Hybrid
D. homozygous B. Homozygous
132. Which of the following is a heterozygous C. Heterozygous

dominant genotype? D. Dominant
A. GG
137. Green peas are dominant (G) to yellow
B. gg
peas (g). What is the genotype for a het-
C. GGG ereozygous dominant offspring?
D. Gg A. Gg
133. In mice, black fur (B) is dominant to B. gg
brown fur (b). A bb mouse would have
the phenotype of C. GG
A. brown fur D. none of above
B. black fur
138. Mendel wanted to find out if the pattern
C. white fur of inheritance for one trait affected the
D. none of above pattern of inheritance for another. What
experiment did he perform to test this
134. In seals, the allele for long whiskers idea?
is dominant over the allele for short
whiskers. What percentage of offspring A. He tested non-dominant traits.
would be expected to be heterozygous B. He performed dihybrid crosses.
for long whiskers if both parents are het-
erozygous for long whiskers? C. He made an F3 generation.
A. 0% D. He tested one trait at a time.

139. In Mendel’s pea plants, the homozygous D. lavendar

recessive phenotype was white flowers.
If Mendel crossed two homozygous reces- 140. Each parent gives an allele variation for

sive pea plants, what color flowers would every trait to the zygote. If both allele
be seen in the offspring? variations are the same, the are called (a)
A. homozygous
A. white and purple
B. heterozygous
B. white C. dominant
C. purple D. recessive
5.2 Monohybrid Cross - Mendel’s Laws of Dominance and

Segregation
1. Who is considered the “Father of Genet- 5. Which is a homozygous dominant geno-
ics? ” type?
A. James Watson A. AA
B. Francis Crick
B. aa
C. Gregor Mendel
D. Albert Einstein C. Aa
2. An organism’s appearance is known as its D. AB

A. heredity
6. (Q3) In minks, brown in dominant over
B. phenotype
mink (animal). What percentage of off-
C. genotype spring would result if you crossed a
D. pedigree homozygous brown mink with a silver
mink?
3. Which of the following is an example of a
Dominant Allele? A. 100% brown
A. a B. 75% brown
B. A
C. 0% brown
C. b
D. aa D. 10% blue
4. Which of the following represents the pos-

7. The passing of genetic traits from parent
sible F2 genotype(s) resulting from a cross
to offspring is known as
between plant with blue flowers (BB) and
white flowered plant (bb)? A. heredity
A. Bb only
B. trait
B. BB only
C. BB and Bb C. gene
D. BB, Bb and bb D. allele

8. What are the offspring’s possible pheno- 13. If something is heterozygous, it is also
types? Brown fur is dominant. White fur A. purebred
is recessive.One parent is homozygous for
brown fur as the other is heterozygous.- B. hybrid
make a punnett square C. dominant
A. 100% White fur D. recessive
B. 50% Brown fur 50% White fur 14. Red flowers are dominant to white. A het-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 100% Brown fur erozygous flower is crossed with a white
flower. What is the genotypic ratio?
D. 75% Brow fur 25% White fur
A. 0 RR; 0 Rr:4 rr
9. In a cross, one pair of contrasting B. 2 RR; 0 Rr:2 rr
traits are being crossed. C. 4 RR; 0 Rr:0 rr
A. monohybrid D. 0 RR; 2 Rr:2 rr
B. dihybrid
15. Which trait is masked in the heterozygous
C. trihybrid condition?
D. quadhybrid A. Dominant trait
B. Recessive trait
10. A characteristic that an organism can pass
on to its offspring through its genes is C. Incomplete trait
A. Trait D. Codominant trait
B. Gene 16. Which of the following refers to a form of

trait that is covered by another trait?
C. Allele
A. dominant
D. Dominant
B. recessive
11. What is codominance? C. heterozygous
A. A trait where one trait is dominant and D. homozygous
the other is reccesive
17. Homozygous dominant
B. A trait where neither traits are domi-
A. Dd
nant
B. gG
C. A trait where both traits a reccesive
C. JJ
D. A trait where both traits are dominant
D. JK
12. Mendel knew that some traits were
18. One of the following is a genotype of a
and some were.
recessive trait
A. dominant and neutral A. Cc
B. dominant and recessive B. CC
C. recessive and neutral C. cc
D. recessive and negative D. C

19. A breed of chicken shows codominance for D. Offspring of two of the same pure-
feather color. One allele codes for black breds would be different to their parents
feathers, another codes for white feathers.

The feathers of heterozygous chickens of 24. inherited characteristic that is always ex-
this breed will be: press
A. all black A. phenotype
B. all white B. genotype
C. all gray C. dominant
D. speckled black and white D. recessive
20. A black haired mother had a genotype of 25. R=red, r=pink. Cross two heterozygous
pp and a heterozygous blonde haired fa- plants. What are the chances of an off-
ther had a genotype of Pp. The couple spring being red?
found out they are going to have siblings. A. 1 out of 4, 25%
What’s the probability that all two out of B. 2 out of 4, 50%
the four babies will have black hair?
C. 3 out of 4, 75%
A. 1/2
D. 4 out of 4, 100%
B. 1/8
C. 1/4 26. A homozygous round seeded plant is
crossed with a homozygous wrinkled
D. 1/6 seeded plant. What percentage of the off-
21. Which of the following is a homozygous spring will be homozygous recessive? R =
genotype? roundr = wrinkled
A. Gg A. 75%
B. Kk B. 50%
C. HH C. 25%
D. Oo D. 0%
22. Use the Punnett Square from the previous 27. T = tall an t = shortTT and Tt would result
question #6. What is the percent chance in the following phenotype-make a pun-
that the offspring will be white? nett square
A. 75% A. short
B. 50% B. tall
C. 25% C. medium sized
D. 0% D. neither tall or short
23. What does it mean to be a “purebred” (se- 28. Sex cells are produced through the process
lect all that apply) of
A. To have two of the same alleles A. mitosis
B. To have different alleles B. cytokinesis
C. Offspring of two of the same pure- C. binary fission
breds would be identical to their parents D. meiosis

29. T4-Black fur in mice (B) is dominant to C. 75%

brown fur (b). Short tails (T) are domi- D. 100%
nant to long tails (t). What percentage of
the offspring of the cross BbTt x BBtt will 34. Crossing an organism with an unknown
have black fur and long tails? genotype with one that is homozygous re-
A. 0% cessive for the trait
B. 25% A. cross-fertilized
B. self-fertilized
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 50%
D. 100% C. testcross
D. fertilization
30. a form of a trait that is covers another
trait is said to be 35. The mom is homozygous dominant for no
A. dominant freckles. Which of the following repre-
sents her genotype? (select all that apply)
B. recessive
A. Ff
C. heterozygous
B. FF
D. homozygous
C. ff
31. What is a gamete? (Select all that apply) D. none of above
A. Haploid
36. Second generation
B. Diploid
A. F1
C. Egg cell
B. F2
D. Skin cell
C. F3
E. Sperm cell
D. F4
32. You inherited
37. A male beetle has the genotype Ttbb. If
A. most of your chromosomes from your this beetle mates with a female with geno-
mother type TTBb, what is the chance their off-
B. most of your chromosomes from your spring will have the genotype TtBb?
father A. 12.5%
C. a random number of chromosomes B. 25%
from each parent C. 50%
D. half your chromosomes from your D. 75%
mother and half from your father.
38. A cross between a dominant homozygous
33. In cacti, long arms (A) are dominant to tall pea plant and homozygous recessive
short arms (a). Suppose 2 heterozygous would yield ratios of
cacti are crossed. What percentage of
their offspring are expected to have short A. 1 homozygous tall:3 heterozygous tall
arms? B. 1 homozygous tall:1 heterozygous tall
A. 0% C. 3 homozygous tall:1 heterozygous tall
B. 25% D. All heterozygous tall

39. What is another name for “true breeding? 44. Physical appearance of a trait; expression
” of the genotype

A. Heterozygous A. genotype
B. Purebred/Homozygous B. genes
C. Hybrid C. alleles
D. Cross Pollinating D. phenotype
45. Cleft chin is dominant to no cleft chin. De-

40. In a dihybrid cross, the only way to have
termine the genotype and phenotype ra-
BOTH recessive traits be present is to
tios for a heterozygous female and a het-
have which of the following genotypes be
erozygous male.
present?
A. 1:4 CC 2:4 Cc 1:4 cc3:4 cleft chin 1:4
A. RRyy
no cleft chin
B. rrYy B. 2:4 Cc 2:4 cc2:4 cleft chin 2:4 no cleft
C. rryy chin
D. RyYy C. 2:4 Cc 2:4 cc2:4 cleft chin 2:4 no cleft
chin
41. A flower with a genetic make-up of Rr is D. 2:4 CC 2:4 Cc4:4 cleft chin
46. An organism’s genetic makeup, or allele

A. homozygous dominant
combinations
A. Recessive
C. heterozygous
B. Genotype
D. heterozygous recessive C. Phenotype
42. Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disor- D. Heterozygous
der. Which genotype represents a female
47. What is a Monohybrid Cross?
who is a carrier for hemophilia?
A. The trait that appears in the homozy-
A. XHXh
gous condition.
B. XhXh B. Is used to predict the probability that
C. XHXH certain traits will be inherited by off-
spring.
D. XhY
C. Involves a single pair of genes, or one
43. If short hair (L) is dominant to long hair trait.
(l), then what fraction of the offspring pro- D. The case when one allele is not com-
duced by a cross of Ll x ll will be homozy- pletely dominant over another.
gous dominant?
48. In a cross of Hh x hh, what percentage of
A. 1/2
the offspring are expected to be heterozy-
B. 1/4 gous?
C. 1/3 A. 25%
D. none (no chance of this offspring) B. 50%

C. 75% 53. An allele (T) for tongue-rolling is dominant

D. 100% over non-tongue rolling. What would be
the genotypes of both parents if all of
49. (Q6) What offspring would you predict the offspring in the F1 generation are non-
from a cross between the pink flowers in tongue rolling?
question 5 on the worksheet? A. TT X Tt
A. 100% Rr B. Tt X tt
C. tt X tt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 25% RR, 50% Rr, 25% rr
C. 100% rr D. TT X tt
D. 50% RR, 50% rr 54. A tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a short
pea plant (tt). What percentage of the off-
50. In pea plants, green seeds (G) and dom- spring will be tall?
inant to yellow seeds (g). Cross a het-
A. 100%
erozygous green pea plant with a homozy-
gous dominant pea plant. What are the B. 75%
genotypic ratios? C. 50%
A. 1 Gg:1 gg D. 25%
B. 1 GG:1 Gg 55. Black fur on mice is dominant over brown
C. 1 GG:1 Gg:1 gg hair on mice, which is recessive. If a ho-
mozygous (BB) mouse and a another het-
D. 1 Green:1 Yellow erozygous mouse was crossed, then what
E. 1 Green is the chance of a baby of the two mice
being heterozygous?
51. Coat color in a dog breed is determined by
A. 0.0
incomplete dominance where three colors
are produced (Brown, tan and white), and B. 0.25
the brown coat allele (B) has incomplete C. 0.5
dominance over the white coat allele (b). D. 0.75
Which offspring ratio would be expected
from a cross between a brown dog and a 56. Which example would show the recessive
white dog? trait?
A. 2 BB:2 Bb A. rr
B. 4 Bb B. TT
C. 1 BB:2 Bb:1 bb C. Ff
D. 2 BB:2 bb D. none of above

57. each pair of alleles separate during the for-
52. phenotype mation of egg and sperm.
A. DNA A. law of segregation
B. physical appearance of an organism B. monohybrid cross
C. eye color C. alleles
D. genetic makeup of an organism D. heredity

58. Recessive alleles are written using C. 25% chance

A. capital D. This is impossible

B. lowercase
64. What is the correct phenotype ratio when
C. both crossing two heterozygous parents in a di-
D. neither hybrid cross?
A. 100% heterozygous
59. What is the correct prediction when cross-
ing a homozygous dominant parent with a B. 1:2:1
homozygous recessive parent in dihybrid C. 3:1
cross?
D. 9:3:3:1
A. 75% dominant, 25% recessive
B. 1:2:1 65. Which of the following represents a “het-
erozygous” individual?
C. 9:3:3:1
A. Tt
D. 100% heterozygous
B. dd
60. the passing of traits from parents to off-
C. FF
spring
D. none of above
A. heredity
B. monohybrid cross 66. The physical appearance of an organism as
C. p generation a result of the interaction of its genotype;
The expression of a particular trait, for ex-
D. independant assortment ample, hair color
61. What did Gregor Mendel discover in the A. genotype
results of his first set of crosses? B. phenotype
A. Only the dominant trait appeared!
C. cross
B. The offspring were all different!
D. homozygous
C. Only the recessive trait appeared!
67. Genetic makeup of an individual
D. The plants were more healthy
A. genotype
62. bb is an example of
B. phenotype
C. F1
D. F2
C. heterozygous
D. none of these 68. Brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes.
Which genotype represent a person with
63. What is the chance that a recessive phe- blue eyes? (select all that apply)
notype will result from a cross between
A. BB
a homozygous dominant and homozygous
recessive organism? B. Bb
A. 100% chance C. bb
B. 50% chance D. none of above

69. Which of the following genotypes is ho- B. phenotype

mozygous? C. genotype
A. AaBB
D. redigree
B. aABB
75. Various forms of a gene at a given locus
C. aaBB
are called
D. aaBb
A. chiasmata
E. AaBb
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. alleles
70. If Mendel had not examined the gen- C. autosomes
eration, he would not have discovered his
theory of segregation. D. loci
A. P1 E. chromatids
B. H1 76. Which of these gene pairs are heterozy-

C. A1 gous?
D. F1 A. Aa
E. F2 B. AA
C. aa
71. What symbol in a monohybrid cross repre-
sents children? D. Both b and c
A. P 77. Plant, which Mendel worked on (scientific
B. F2 name)
C. F1 A. Psium satevum
D. F3 B. Pesum sativum
72. Which of the following is NOT a trait you C. Pisum sativum

can inherit? D. pisum Sativum
A. Athletic ability 78. If you had a black rat, how could you
B. Eye color tell it’s genotype was homozygous or het-
C. Hairstyle erozygous?
D. Height A. There is no way to determine

B. Breed it with a purebred brown rat
73. What would tt be considered?
C. Look at at its parents
D. Breed it with a heterozygous rat
C. heterozygous 79. heredity material of the cell
D. heterozygous dominant A. DNA
B. Phenotype
74. The inherited combination of alleles is
known as the offspring’s C. Genotype
A. heredity D. Nucleosome

80. If a woman has type A blood and her child What is the probability that they have a
has type O blood, the father must have child with glaucoma?
which of the following blood types?

A. 0%
A. A, B, or O
B. 100%
B. A or O
C. 50%
C. AB or B
D. O only D. 75%
81. Physical characteristics are known as 86. Which of the following refers to the alter-
nating form of a gene?
A. genotypes
B. phenotypes A. chromosome
C. blood types B. DNA

D. heredity C. Punnett Squares
82. A dominant allele is represented by a(an) D. allele
87. An organism that inherits two identical al-

A. uppercase letter leles for a trait
B. lowercase letter
A. heterozygous
C. combination of letters
B. homozygous
D. DNA
C. dominant
83. Which of the following is heterozygous
D. recessive
A. FF
B. tt 88. The scientist who conducted hybridization
experiments on pea plants
C. Gg
D. RR A. Gregor John Mandel
B. Gregor Johann Mendel
84. A testcross involves
A. two F1 hybrids. C. Gregar Johnn Mendel
B. an F1 hybrid and an F2 offspring. D. Gregore Johnn Mendal

C. two parental organisms. 89. Which of the following statement is TRUE
D. an F1 hybrid and the homozygous dom- about allele?
inant parent.
A. Alleles are codes for recessive traits
E. an F1 hybrid and an organism that is
homozygous recessive for that trait. B. Alleles are alternative form of genes
C. Recessive allele produces phenotype
85. Glaucoma (an eye disease) is dominant to
for heterozygous
normal vision. If you cross a woman who
is homozygous normal for vision and a D. When both alleles are same, the indi-
man who is heterozygous for glaucoma. vidual is heterozygous

90. (Q1) In certain breeds of dogs, deafness is C. heterozygous

due to a recessive allele (d) of a gene and D. recessive
normal hearing is due to the dominant al-
lele (D). What percentage of offspring of a E. incompletely dominant
(DD) dog and a (dd) dog would have NOR-
95. As part of a genetics investigation, Whit-
MAL hearing?
ney collected the hereditary information
A. 25% (DNA) of a strawberry. What is source
B. 50% of the DNA for the strawberry plant?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 75% A. It was absorbed from the soil
D. 100% B. It was passed on from the parent plant
C. It was created by the plant using sun-
91. Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disor- light
der. Which genotype represents a male
with hemophilia? D. It was borrowed from animals that
feed on the plant
A. XHXh
B. XhXh 96. Brown (B) is dominant over white (b).
Which genotype is a purebred for brown
C. XHY fur?
D. XhY A. BB
92. What do the letters inside the grid of a B. Bb
Punnett square represent? C. bb
A. phenotypes of parents D. All of the above
B. genotypes of offspring
97. New organism produced usually from two
C. testcrosses of offspring parents.
D. chromosomes of parents A. genotype
93. Gene A occurs on chromosome #5, gene B. genetics
B occurs on chromosome #21. Therefore, C. offspring
these two portions of the chromosomes
CANNOT be D. monohybrid cross
A. genes 98. Dominant alleles are represented by:

B. dominant A. cursive letters
C. loci B. lowercase letters
D. alleles C. recessive traits
E. recessive D. capital letters
94. If all the offspring of a testcross are alike 99. A carrier of a genetic disorder who does
and resemble the organism being tested, not show symptoms is likely to be to
then that parent is transmit it to offspring
A. homozygous dominant A. heterozygous for the trait and able
B. homozygous recessive B. homozygous for the trait and unable

C. homozygous for the trait and able B. Heterozygous

D. heterozygous for the trait and unable C. Homozygous Recessive

100. What is the genotype for a pea plant D. none of above
heterozygous for round seeds (R), and ho-
105. Monohybrid cross is a cross between two
mozygous recessive for green seeds (y)?
individuals with
A. Ry
A. different variations
B. RRyy
B. same variations
C. RrYy
C. both 1 & 2
D. Rryy
101. Female gametes
106. The following letters:Aa, DD, bB, yy, are
A. sperm all examples of:
B. pollen A. genotypes
C. genes B. phenotypes
D. eggs C. chromosomes
102. Organisms that have 2 identical alleles D. amino acids
for a particular trait are said to be
107. A genotype is
A. hybrid
A. the listing of the alleles for the trait
B. dominant
B. the physical appearance of the trait
C. homozygous
C. the separation of the chromosomes
D. heterozygous
D. the letters seen on the outside of the
103. A vampire bat mom is homozygous dom- Punnett square
inant for red eyes (RR) and heterozygous
for fluffy ears (Ff).The vampire bat father 108. How many alleles (letters) does a child
is homozygous recessive for black eyes get from EACH parent for each trait (For
(rr) and has fluffy ears.If some of the vam- example, a father provides how many of
pire bat babies have smooth ears, what his alleles for eye color)?
percentage of babies will have the same A. 1
eyes and ears as their mom?
B. 2
A. 25%
C. 3
B. 50%
D. 4
C. 75%
109. What is another way of saying “pure-
D. 100%
bred ‘’?
104. If a homozygous dominant allele (AA) is A. homozygous
crossed with a homozygous recessive al-
lele (aa), all of the resulting offspring will B. dominant
be C. recessive
A. Homozygous dominant D. heterozygous

110. Which of the following represents a “ho- 115. Genetics is

mozygous dominant” individual? A. a cross involving one set of traits
A. Ff B. passing of traits from parent to off-
B. TT spring
C. tt C. branch of biology that studies heredity
D. none of above D. multiple alleles
116. In a cross of Ss x ss, what is the expected
NARAYAN CHANGDER
111. In a punnett square where are the parent
phenotype ratio in the offspring?
alleles written?
A. 3:1
A. Top and inside the boxes
B. 1:2:1
B. Only on the left and right side of the
boxes. C. 1:1
D. 4:0
C. outside of the boxes (top and left side)
D. All on the top side of the boxes 117. How many phenotypes will each off-
spring have in a dihybrid cross?
112. In pea plants, green seeds (G) are domi- A. 1
nant to yellow seeds (g). In a cross of a
B. 4
heterozygous green pea plant with a ho-
mozygous dominant pea plant, what are C. 3
the genotypic ratios? D. 2
A. 1 Gg:1 gg 118. Which of the following is an example of
B. 1 GG:1 Gg a homozygous dominant genotype?
C. 1 GG:1 Gg:1 gg A. Gg
D. 1 Green:1 Yellow B. Ff
C. GG
113. Which organism did Mendel utilize to
work out the laws of segregation and in- D. aa
dependent assortment? 119. The genetic information inside an individ-
A. the fruit fly ual.
B. Neurospora A. Homozygous
C. the garden pea B. Heterozygous
C. Genotype
D. the chicken
D. Phenotype
E. E. coli
120. Punnett Square #1In plants tall is dom-
114. Which of these crosses could have a geno- inant to short.Cross two heterozygous
typic ratio of 1:0? plants.What is the genotypic ratio?
A. Dd X Dd A. 1:2:1
B. DD X dd B. 2:2
C. DD X Dd C. 3:1
D. Dd X dd D. none of above

121. The most accurate description of an or- 126. If a heterozygous mother with brown
ganism with genotype AaBb is eyes mated with a father who is homozy-
gous dominant for brown eyes. Create a

Punnett square to determine the possible
B. heterozygous genotypes of the offspring?
C. heterozygous dominant A. homozygous dominant & heterozygous
D. homozygous recessive B. homozygous dominant only
E. heterozygous recessive C. heterozygous and homozygous reces-
sive
122. the genetic makeup of an individual is D. heterozygous only
known as it’s
A. genotype 127. Select the following options that repre-
sent a genotype.
B. phenotype
A. Rr
C. alleles
B. Round peas
D. heterozygous
C. Smooth peas
123. Where eggs are contained within a plant D. rr
A. pollen 128. The father of genetics
B. sperm A. Francis Crick
C. ovules B. Charles Darwin
D. genes C. Gregor Mendel
124. Which of the following traits of a dog is D. Oswald Avery

inherited from its parents?
129. Genetics is the study of
A. the presence of fleas in its fur
A. meiosis
B. the color of its fur
B. mitosis
C. the ability to sit up and beg C. reproduction
D. the habit of barking to go outside D. heredity
125. If a heterozygous mother with brown 130. Cross Two Homozygous plants ( RRYY
eyes mated with a father who is homozy- x rryy ) R = round seeds, r = wrinkled
gous dominant for brown eyes. Create a seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
Punnett square to determine the percent- What percent will have Round and Yellow
age of offspring would have brown eyes? seeds?
A. 100% A. 0%
B. 75% B. 25%
C. 50% C. 50%
D. 25% D. 100%

131. If R is dominant to r, the offspring of the 136. Smooth seeds are dominant over wrin-
cross of RR with rr will kled seeds.What is the phenotype ratio for
A. be homozygous the following cross? Nn X NN
B. display the same phenotype as the RR A. 0% smooth, 100% wrinkled
parent B. 50% smooth, 50% wrinkled
C. display the same phenotype as the rr C. 100% smooth, 0% wrinkled
parent
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. have the same genotype as the RR par-
ent 137. If a scientist sought to determine the
E. have the same genotype as the rr par- genotype of an animal with a dominant
ent phenotype, which animal should he breed
it with?
132. What is a gene?
A. one with a dominant phenotype
A. An entire chromosome that codes for
B. one with a recessive phenotype
a trait
B. a piece of clothing C. one with a heterozygous genotype
C. a piece of a DNA on chromosome that D. one with a homozygous dominant

codes for a trait genotype
D. Chemical messengers in your brain 138. Which of the following would represent
that code for a trait heterozygous genotypes?
133. Dominant:Smiley (E) Recessive:Frowning A. Hh
(e)What is the genotype of a person who B. Bb
is frowning?
C. Cc
A. EE
D. All would represent heterozygous
B. Ee genotypes
C. ee
139. The F2 phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid
D. none of above
cross is
134. In a heterozygous genotype, the al- A. 1:1
lele takes over in the phenotype.
B. 2:1
A. recessive
C. 9:3:3:1
B. dominant
D. 1:2:1
C. lower case letter
E. 3:1
D. both
135. How many alleles does each person carry 140. A characteristic that an organism can
for a trait? pass on to its offspring through its genes
A. 1 A. protein
B. 2 B. trait
C. 3 C. DNA
D. 4 D. gene

141. A phenotype is: 145. Green peas are dominant to yellow peas.
A. The combination of two alleles for a Determine the genotype and phenotype ra-
tios for a heterozygous female and a het-

gene.
erozygous male.
B. The physical (observable) trait of an or-
A. 3:4 Gg 1:4 gg3:4 green 1:4 yellow
ganism.
B. 2:4 GG 2:4 gg2:4 green 2:4 yellow
C. The amino acid sequence of a specific
protein. C. 3:4 Gg 1:4 gg3:4 green 1:4 yellow
D. The nucleotide (DNA) sequence of a D. 1:4 GG 2:4 Gg 1:4 gg3:4 green 1:4 yel-
specific gene. low
142. What is a Punnett square used to pre- 146. AA is an example of

dict? A. homozygous dominant
A. possible genotypes & phenotypes of B. homozygous recessive
offspring C. heterozygous
B. possible genotypes & phenotypes of D. none of these
the parents
147. What are the gametes for BbDd? (USE
C. determine the actual outcome of ge-
FOIL)
netic crosses
A. B, b, D, d
D. determine how many offspring a cou-
ple will have B. BD, bD, Bd, bd
C. BD, BD, Bd, bd
143. Purple is dominant to white. A heterozy-
gous purple flower is crossed with a white D. bD, bD, bd, bd
flower. What are the genotypes and phe-
148. The trait that is expressed in homozy-
notypes of the offspring?
gous condition only
A. 100% Pp (purple)
A. codominance
B. 50% Pp (purple); 50% pp (white) B. dominance
C. 75% Pp (purple); 25% pp (white) C. recessive
D. 25% PP, 50% Pp, 25% pp75% purple, D. incomplete dominance
25% white
149. Axial flowers are dominant over terminal
144. Brown hair is dominant to gray hair in flowers. What is the phenotype ratio for
mice. Determine the genotype and pheno- the following cross? Aa X aa
type ratios for a homozygous recessive fe-
A. 100% Axial, 0% Terminal
male and a homozygous recessive male.
B. 75% Axial, 25% Terminal
A. 2:4 Bb 2:4 bb2:4 brown hair 2:4 gray
hair C. 50% Axial, 50% Terminal
B. 2:4 BB 2:4 bb2:4 brown hair 2:4 gray D. 25% Axial, 75% Terminal
hair
150. Dad is homozygous dominant for brown
C. 4:4 Bb4:4 brown hair eyes. This will be indicated by
D. 4:4 bb4:4 gray hair A. One capital letter, one lowercase

B. Two capital letters A. 3 (hornless):1 (horned)

C. two lower case letters B. 2 (hornless):2 (horned)
D. none of above C. 4 (hornless):0 (horned)
151. The father of genetics is D. 0 (hornless):4 (horned)
A. Peabody 157. what is the definition of Heterozygous?
B. Crick A. when an individual has two sets of the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Mendel same allele
D. Watson B. when it is neither dominant or reces-
sive
152. Which of the following are possible ga-
metes for a parent with the genotype Bb? C. A pair of alleles where one is dominant
and one is recessive.
A. Bb
D. none of above
B. BB
C. B 158. What would Rr be considered?
D. b A. heterozygous
153. Which of the following if NOT an exam- B. homozygous dominant

ple of a phenotype? C. homozygous recessive
A. Aa D. none of above
B. green plants
159. (Q4) What would the phenotypic ratios
C. purple petals of the babies produced from the last ques-
D. tall stems tion (Q3) about the minks? You will need
to see what the results of the Punett
154. Punnett square is designed in the year square were for question 5 and cross two
A. 1956 of those offspring.
B. 1927 A. 3 brown, 1 silver
C. 1943 B. 2 brown, 2 silver
D. 1987 C. 1 brown, 3 silver
155. Which represents the genotype of a ho- D. 4 brown
mozygous condition? E. 4 silver
A. Bb
160. According to Mendel, what kind of genes
B. BC “disappear” in F1 pea plants?
C. bb
A. sex-linked
D. bc
B. dominant
156. Two offspring from #9 are mated. What C. recessive
would the phenotypic ratio be from this
cross? Make a new Punnett square and D. codominant
remember that horned is recessive. E. lethal

161. Mendel’s first Law states that each allele 165. You can determine the phenotype of a
must separate and be placed into an indi- flower color by
vidual sperm or egg. This is known as the

A. looking at the color of the parents.
Law of:
B. looking at the flower color of the off-
A. Segregation spring.
B. Independent Assortment C. looking at the flower.
C. Hybridization D. none of above
D. Assimilation 166. Human blood type is determined by multi-
ple alleles (A, B, and O). Which ratio would
162. (Q2) In humans, normal pigmentation is
result from a cross between a man with
due to a dominant allele (C) and albinism to
Type AB blood and a woman with Type O
its recessive allele (C). A normal man mar-
blood?
ries and albino woman. Their first child is
albino. What is the likelihood that the cou- A. 0% Type A, 50% Type O
ple’s second child would be albino? B. 75% Type A, 25% Type B
A. 25% C. 50% Type A, 50% Type B
B. 50% D. 100% Type O
C. 75% 167. The different versions of a gene
D. 40% A. Trait
B. Recessive
163. What are the blood types of the possible
children that a woman (type O) and man C. Allele
(type AB) can have? Use a Punnett square D. Phenotype
if you need to.
168. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair
A. O and AB
is dominant over the allele for long hair.B
B. O and A = short b = longWhat genotype would a
C. O and B purebred short haired guinea pig have?
A. BB
D. A and B
B. bb
164. A woman’s genotype is Bb. If she de- C. Bb
cides to have children, what can be said
about the alleles she will provide to her D. none of above
offspring? 169. What did Mendel call the two kinds of
A. She will give her offspring a “B” traits exhibited by the pea plants (one
coming from the father, one from the
B. She will give her offspring both letters,
mother)?
“Bb”
A. Genesis
C. She will give her offspring either a “B”
or “b” B. Elective traits
D. She does not provide any alleles; only C. Alleles

the male provides alleles to offspring D. Quadrants

170. How many different ways can a domi- 175. Which is a homozygous recessive geno-
nant genotype be represented? type?
A. 1 A. AA
B. 3 B. aa
C. 2 C. Aa
D. 4 D. Blue eyes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
171. What is the definition phenotype? 176. A heterozygous round seeded plant (Rr)
is crossed with a homozygous dominant
A. Physical apperance
round seeded plant (RR). What percentage
B. Genetic makeup of the offspring will be homozygous dom-
C. A unit of heredity inant?
D. The likelihood that a specific event will A. 100%

occur B. 75%
C. 50%
172. A dihybrid cross shows the possible out-
comes of D. 25%
A. two alleles 177. basic physical and functional unit of
B. two parents heredity made up of DNA, defined by its
location on a chromosome
C. two traits/characters
A. trait
D. a self pollination
B. Genes
173. What are the offspring’s possible pheno-
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
types? Brown fur is dominant. White fur
is recessive.Both parents were heterozy- D. chromosome
gous with brown fur.
178. Diploid organisms
A. 100% White fur
A. have corresponding alleles on homolo-
B. 50% Brown fur 50% White fur gous chromosomes.
C. 100% Brown fur B. are usually the result of the fusion of
D. 75% Brow fur 25% White fur two haploid gametes.
C. have two sets of chromosomes.
174. In guinnea pigs, black eyes are dominant
to red eyes. A male guinnea pig that is het- D. have pairs of homologous chromo-
erozygous is crossed with a female that is somes.
homozygous recessive. What are the ex- E. all of these
pected phenotypes of their offspring?
179. What is the definition of Homozygous?
A. Red Eyed and Black Eyed
A. When one allele is dominant and one
B. Only Red Eyed
is recessive
C. Only Black Eyed
B. When an individual has two (a set) of
D. none of above the same allele.

C. when it is neither dominant or reces- 184. Which of the following genotypes is writ-
sive ten correctly?

D. none of above A. THTH
B. TTHH
180. An organism’s physical appearance, or
C. TtTt
visible traits.
D. ThHt
A. Genotype
185. Which of the following represents
B. Phenotype
a “genotype” versus “phenotype” in
C. Beanotype Mendel’s pea plants?
D. Notype A. Purple flowers versus Pp
B. Pp versus purple flowers
181. A cross between a red flower and a white
flower produces red and white spotted C. white versus purple flowers
flowers. Which type of inheritance pattern D. none of above
is indicated by these results?
186. Gregor Mendel is known as the:
A. polygenic A. Father of DNA and Chromosomes
B. codominance B. Father of Inheritance
C. multiple alleles C. Father of Modern Genetics
D. incomplete dominance D. Father of Protein Synthesis
182. What is the difference between homozy- 187. The process of passing traits from par-
gous genes and heterozygous genes? ents to offspring
A. traits
A. Homozygous means they are animal
genes and heterozygous means they are B. heredity
plant genes. C. genes
B. Homozygous means that it has only D. genotype
one gene.
188. Which of the following is NOT a geno-
C. Homozygous genes have two identical type?
genes, while heterozygous genes are two
A. heterozygous
different genes.
B. a trait such as tall
D. None of the above.
C. Bb
183. A parent that has 2 different alleles for D. homozygous recessive
a trait (Aa) is referred to as being for
that trait. 189. We use a lowercase letter to determine
this.
A. heterozygous recessive
A. dominant allele
B. homozygous B. recessive allele
C. heterozygous C. outcome
D. heterozygous dominant D. Gregor Mendel

190. A woman with curly hair mated with the 195. Tt X TtWhat percentage of the offspring
man who is heterozygous for straight hair. will be short? T = tall t = short
Create a Punnett square to determine the A. 100%
possible genotypes?
B. 75%
A. heterozygous & homozygous recessive
C. 50%
B. homozygous dominant & homozygous
recessive D. 25%
C. heterozygous
NARAYAN CHANGDER
196. Aa is an example of
D. heterozygous & homozygous dominant A. homozygous dominant
191. Dad is homozygous recessive for freckles. B. homozygous recessive
His genotype will be indicated by
C. heterozygous
A. One capital letter, one lowercase
D. none of these
B. Two capital letters
C. Two lower case letters 197. A homozygous guinea pig with beauti-
ful, luscious hair breeds with a heterozy-
D. none of above gous short-haired, but still very ravishing
192. One reason for Mendel’s success with ge- guinea pig. What percentage chance is
netic studies of peas was that he there for the offspring to inherit their par-
ent’s long, luscious hair?
A. used only hybrid pea plants
A. 0.25
B. used peas with large chromosomes
B. 0.5
C. studied large numbers of offspring
D. discovered the sources of variation in C. 0.75
peas D. 1.0
193. What is an example of a phenotype? 198. Black fur is dominate to ginger fur in cats.
A. Gg A heterozygous Black cat is crossed with
a homozygous recessive ginger cat. What
B. Genetic makup
is the ratio for the offsprings?
C. blue skin
A. 2BB:2Bb
D. The trait that is masked in the het-
erozygous condition. B. 3Bb:1bb
C. 2Bb:2bb
194. In garden pea plant, long stem is domi-
nant over short stem. How many percent D. 4bb:1Bb
will be short stem garden pea plants that
199. Tomato plants usually have hairy stems.
may appear in the first filial generation
Hairless stems are present in tomato
if both parents are heterozygous for the
plants that are homozygous recessive for
given trait?
this trait. What is the expected outcome
A. 25% short stem pea plant of crossing two tomato plants that are het-
B. 50% short stem pea plant erozygous for hairy stems?
C. 75% short stem pea plant A. 75% hairy stems:25% hairless stems
D. 100% short stem pea plant B. 100% hairless stems

C. 100% hairy stems 205. What is the meaning of the word

D. 50% hairy stems:50% hairless stems “trait”?

A. A distinguishing feature or character-
200. The passing of genetic material from par- istic, such as hair color, eye color, etc.
ents to offspring (children)
B. A sequence of DNA that codes for a
A. traits
specific trait
B. characteristics
C. An “option” for the trait such as pink
C. heredity flowers (P) versus white flowers (p)
D. phenotype D. none of above
201. What is called when a organism has two 206. What is the locus?
different alleles for a trait. Tt or Rr
A. Two genes that occupy the same posi-
A. Heterozygous tion on homologous chromosomes
B. Homozygous B. A section of DNA sequence encoding a
C. Domozygous single protein
D. Thermozygous C. A fixed location on a strand of DNA
where a gene or one of its alleles are lo-
202. In a cross of Aa x Aa, what is the ex-
cated
pected genotype ratio in the offspring?
D. The unit of heredity
A. 3:1
B. 1:2:1 207. A parent that has 2 dominant alleles for
a trait is for that trait.
C. 1:1
A. homozygous recessive
D. 4:0
B. heterozygous dominant
203. parent 1:GgBBparent 2:ggBbFind the ga-
metes for parent 1. C. homozygous dominant
A. GB, GB, gB, gB D. none of above

B. gB, gb, gB, gb 208. T = tall t = shortCross a plant that is ho-
C. Gg, BB, GB, GB mozygous tall with a plant that is homozy-
gous short.What is the phenotype ratio?
D. gg, Bb, gB, gb
A. 100% tall, 0% short
204. If the dog’s (Gilbert’s) genotype is Dd,
B. 75% tall, 25% short
the owner does not wish to use him for
breeding so that the deafness gene will C. 25% tall, 75% short
not be passed on. This can be tested by D. 0% tall, 100% short
breeding Gilbert to a deaf female (dd).
What are the chances that the offspring 209. The phenotypic ratio of Monohybrid cross
will be deaf if Gilbert is heterozygous? is
A. 25% A. 1:1
B. 50% B. 3:1
C. 75% C. 9:3:3:1
D. 100% D. 1:3

210. Can you curl your tongue up on the sides? 215. T = tall an t = shortTT and Tt would result
Tongue-curling in humans is a dominant ge- in the following phenotype
netic trait. Suppose a man who is Tt for A. short
tongue-curling marries a woman who is
B. tall
also Tt for this trait. What are the pos-
sible genotypes of the offspring? C. medium sized
A. TT, Tt, tt D. neither tall or short
B. TT or tt 216. What type of inheritance do two alleles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Tt have if their traits blend together?
D. TT A. Incomplete Dominance
B. Co-Dominance
211. (Q5) In question 5 on the worksheet,
C. Mendelian Inheritance
what would the genotypic ratios be?
D. Homozygous Inheritance
A. 100% Rr
B. 50% RR, 50% rr 217. Which gentotype would be considered
heterozygous?
C. 50% Rr, 25% RR, 25% rr
A. Rr
D. 100% rr
B. RR
212. What are the names of Gregor Mendel’s C. rr
two laws? D. YY
A. Assortment and Division
218. When is a recessive allele expressed in
B. Segregation and Combination offspring?
C. Combination and Division A. when two copies are present
D. Segregation and Assortment B. when parents have no dominant alleles
213. What is the ONLY genotype an individual C. when the offspring is heterozygous
can have that will express the recessive D. when one copy is present
phenotype?
219. A homozygous white mouse is crossed
A. DD with a heterozygous black mouse. Black
B. Dd is dominant to white. What is the geno-
type ratio of F1?
C. dd
A. 4Bb
D. none of above
B. 2bb:2BB
214. If a man that can taste PTC (Tt) has chil- C. 2Bb:2bb
dren with a female non-taster, what is the
percent chance their child will be able to D. 4bb
taste PTC? 220. The allele that is expressed over another.
A. 25% A. Dominant
B. 40% B. Recessive
C. 50% C. Genotype
D. 75% D. Phenotype

221. Brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes. What percentage of their offspring will be
Which letter will indicate a dominant al- white?
lele? (select all that apply)

A. 100% purple, 0% white
A. B B. 75% purple, 25% white
B. b C. 50% purple, 50% white
C. Bb D. 25% purple, 75% white
D. none of above
226. What is NOT a possible genotype for
222. Wrinkled seed (r) are recessive to someone with type B blood?
smooth seeds. Show a wrinkled seed A. BB
plant crossed with a heterozygous smooth
seed plant. What is the chance that the B. BO
offspring will be smooth and what will its C. AB
genotype be?
D. none of above
A. 50% RR
227. For monohybrid experiments, a testcross
B. 75% Rr
could result in which of the following ra-
C. 75% RR tios?
D. 50% Rr A. 1:1
223. Green is dominant to yellow. Two het- B. 2:1
erozygous green plants are crossed. What C. 9:3:3:1
are the genotypes of the offspring?
D. 1:2:1
A. 100% Gg
E. 3:1
B. 75% Green, 25% yellow
228. A is a segment of DNA that codes for
C. 25% GG, 50% Gg, 25% gg
a particular protein, which leads to a par-
D. 75% Gg, 25% gg ticular trait.
224. In dogs, there is a hereditary deafness A. Gene
caused by a recessive gene, “d.” A ken- B. Allele
nel owner has a male dog (Gilbert) that
she wants to use for breeding purposes, if C. Codon
possible. The dog can hear. What are the D. Nucleotide
possible genotypes for Gilbert?
229. In a flowering plant species, red flower
A. DD or dd color (R) is dominant over white flower
B. DD only color (r). What is the genotype of any
C. Dd only red-flowering plant resulting from this
species?
D. DD or Dd
A. rr
225. In pea plants, purple flowers are domi- B. R
nant to white flowers. If two heterozy-
gous purple plants are crossed what per- C. RR
centage of their offspring will be purple? D. RR or Rr

230. In pea plants, Tall stems (T) are dominant A. 1

to short stems. Cross a homozygous tall
B. 2
plant with a homozygous recessive plant.
What is the phenotypic ratio of this cross? C. 3
A. 75% tall; 25% short D. 4
B. 100% Tt
236. What is called when a organism has two
C. 4 tall:0 short identical alleles for a trait. TT or tt. RR or
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 100% Heterozygous rr
A. Heterozygous
231. Which of the following represents a ho-
mozygous recessive individual? B. Homozygous
A. DD C. Domozygous
B. Dd D. Thermozygous
C. dd
237. In dogs, a Brown coat (B) is dominant to
D. none of above a blonde coat. A dog owner has a Brown-
coated dog, but is not sure of the dog’s
232. Tt is an example of a
genotype. The owner should breed his dog
A. homozygous dominant with which of the following in order to de-
B. homozygous recessive termine his dog’s genotype?
C. heterozygous A. Brown coated dog (BB)
D. codominant B. Brown coated dog (Bb)
233. Red flowers (R) are dominant to white C. Blonde coated dog (bb)
flowers (r). What percentage of the off- D. A dog with a heterozygous genotype
spring will be white if I cross the following
parents? (Rr)x(rr) 238. In chickens, feather color is codominant.
A. 25% If a black chicken BB is mated with one
that is black and white (BW) what are the
B. 100% chances of having a chicken that is black
C. 0% and white?
D. 50% A. 50%
234. Which of the following genotypes is het- B. 0%

erozygous? C. 25%
A. Bb D. 100%
B. BB
239. Homozygous recessive
C. bb
A. TT
D. B
B. AA
235. Mendel established the Law of Segrega-
C. aA
tion. Each gamete produced by a parent
contains only allele for a trait. D. tt

240. In a flowering plant species, red flower D. of an F1 hybrid to an individual that is

color (R) is dominant over white flower homozygous recessive
color (r). Which of the following geno-

E. of two F2 individuals to produce an F3
types would appear red (MARK ALL THAT generation
APPLY!)
A. rr 245. Which of the following is an example of
a GENOTYPE?
B. None of these
A. 25%
C. RR
B. Blue
D. Rr
C. 1:2:1
241. Fusion of sperm and egg from the same D. Bb
plant
246. G = green g = yellowCross two
A. fertilization
plants that are heterozygous for green
B. testcross pods.What is the genotype ratio?
C. cross-fertilized A. GG = 100%, Gg = 0%, gg = 0%
D. self-fertilized B. GG = 50%, Gg = 0%, gg = 50%
C. GG = 25%, Gg = 50%, gg = 25%
242. A locus is
D. none of above
A. a recessive gene
B. an unmatched allele 247. If I cross a homozygous dominant par-
ent with a homozygous recessive parent
C. a sex chromosome
all the offspring will be what?
D. the location of an allele on a chromo-
A. Homozygous dominant
some
B. Heterozygous dominant
E. a dominant gene
C. Heterozygous
243. T=tall, t=short. Cross a heterozygous D. Homozygous recessive
and a homozygous recessive. What would
the genotype possibilities be of the off- 248. inherited characteristic that is only ex-
spring? presses when no other characteristic is
A. Tt, tt present
B. TT, Tt, tt A. dominant

B. recessive
C. TT, Tt
C. genotype
D. TT, tt
D. phenotype
244. A testcross consists of a cross
249. Purple is dominant to white. A heterozy-
A. of two pure-breeding forms to find out
gous purple flower is crossed with a white
which form of a gene is dominant
flower. What are the genotypes and phe-
B. between two unknown forms to deter- notypes of the offspring? -make a punnett
mine their genotypes square
C. between an offspring and its parent A. 100% Pp (purple)

B. 50% Pp (purple); 50% pp (white) 255. In a dihybrid cross, pairs of contrast-

ing traits are being crossed.
C. 75% Pp (purple); 25% pp (white)
A. one
D. 25% PP, 50% Pp, 25% pp75% purple,
25% white B. two
C. three
250. Fusion of egg and sperm
D. four
A. ovules
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. mutations 256. If I cross the following two parents,
what are the possible genotypes? Par-
C. fertilization ents:(RR)x(Rr)
D. pollen A. RR and Rr
251. Dominant alleles are- B. RR and rr
A. capital C. RR, Rr and rr
B. lowercase D. Rr and rr
C. both 257. Having 2 different alleles for a trait (1

D. neither dominant and 1 recessive.)
A. homozygous
252. Having two different alleles for a trait
(example Hh): B. genetics
C. heterozygous
A. homozygous
D. dominant
B. heterozygous
C. dominant 258. An allele that is expressed whenever it
is present
D. purebred
A. genotype
253. different forms of the same gene are B. recessive
called
C. phenotype
A. alleles
D. dominant
B. genetics
C. p generation 259. The study of heredity and the variation
of inherited characteristics
D. law of segregation
A. gene
254. What is the most accurate purpose of a B. genetics
Punnet Square?
C. meiosis
A. To make children
D. hybrid
B. To predict the outcome of breeding
two organisms 260. Brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes.
Determine the genotype and phenotype ra-
C. To see people’s alleles
tios for a homozygous dominant female
D. To chose your children and a homozygous dominant male.

A. 1:4 BB 2:4 Bb 1:4 bb3:4 Brown eyes 1:4 B. Pigeons

blue eyes C. Pear trees

B. 4:4 BB4:4 Brown eyes
D. Photosynthesis
C. 2:4 BB 2:4 Bb4:4 Brown eyes
266. The Father of Genetics
D. 3:4 BB 1:4 Bb4:4 Brown eyes
A. Watson
261. An organism that has one dominant and
one recessive allele for height is B. Crick
A. unusual C. Mendel
B. homozygous D. Darwin
C. mutated 267. In pea plants, purple flowers are domi-
D. heterozygous nant to white flowers. If two white flow-
ered plants are crossed, what percentage
262. What does a Punnett Square help you of their offspring will have white flow-
do? ers?
A. Determine the ratio of phenotypes A. 100%
B. Determine the ratio of genotypes B. 75%
C. Predict possible traits the offspring C. 25%
will have
D. none of above
D. All of the answers
268. First generation
263. Select all the genotypes that will ex-
pressed the dominant trait or phenotype. A. class
A. BB B. F1
B. bb C. Genes
C. Bb D. Eggs
D. Hh
269. Gametes (sperm and egg) cells are con-
E. hh sidered:
264. SOLVE:Round seeds (R) are dominant A. Haploid (1 copy of each gene).
over wrinkled seeds (r). What percentage B. Diploid (2 copies of each gene).
of the offspring will be round from the fol-
lowing cross? RR X Rr C. Triploid (3 copies of each gene).
A. 100% D. Tetraploid (4 copies of each gene).

B. 75% 270. The physical expression of a genetic trait
C. 50% is called a
D. 25% A. mutation
B. genotype
265. What did Gregor Mendel use to discover
the principles that rule heredity? C. crossing over
A. Pea Plant D. phenotype

271. Characters that was not studied by C. 75% tall, 25% short
Mendel D. 25% tall, 75% short
A. Seed shape
276. In plants, tall (T) is dominant over short
B. Pod shape (t).If a heterozygous tall pea plant is
C. Seed color crossed with a short pea plant, what are
D. Flower shape the possible genotypes of the future off-
spring? You must show your work for full
NARAYAN CHANGDER
272. Curly hair is recessive, and straight hair credit!
is dominant. Which letter will represent A. 100% Tt
straight hair (select all that apply)
B. 50% Tt, 50% tt
A. S
C. 75%Tt, 25%tt
B. Ss
D. 25%TT, 50%Tt, 25%tt
C. s
277. What is another way of saying an organ-
D. none of above
ism is “pure breeding ‘’?
273. If Aa is self-crossed, what is the geno- A. It is homozygous
typic ratio?
B. It is dominant
A. 1/2Aa:1/2aa
C. It is recessive
B. 1/4AA:1/2Aa:1/4aa
D. It is heterozygous
C. 3/4AA:1/4aa
278. A red flower (Rr) is crossed with a white
flower (rr). What is the genotypic ratio?
274. According to Mendel’s law of segrega- A. 0 RR; 0 Rr:4 rr
tion, which of the following statements de- B. 2 RR; 0 Rr:2 rr
scribes what happens to the alleles of a
gene pair? C. 4 RR; 0 Rr:0 rr
A. The alleles are moved to different chro- D. 0 RR; 2 Rr:2 rr
mosomes.
279. If a bird with normal feathers and a ho-
B. The alleles are moved to different mozygous dominant genotype mates with
chromosomes. a frizzy feathered bird, what percentage
C. The alleles are separated during fertil- of their offspring would be expected to
ization. have frizzy feathers?
D. The alleles are separated during ga- A. 0%

mete formation. B. 12.5%
275. Tall is dominant to short. A homozygous C. 25%

tall plant is crossed with a short plant. D. 50%
What will be the phenotypes of the off-
spring? 280. In hydrangeas, purple (P) is dominant to
white (p). If we cross two purebred hy-
A. 100% tall drangeas that are purple. What is the
B. 50% tall, 50% short genotypic probability?

A. 1 Pp:1 pp 286. If short hair (L) is dominant to long hair

B. 1 PP (l), then to determine the genotype of a
short-haired animal it should be crossed

C. 1 PP:1 Pp with
D. 1 Purple A. LL
281. (Q7) What are the phenotypic ratios of B. Ll
the cow offspring in question 7? C. ll
A. 100% Roan (red/white) D. all of these
B. 50% Red, 50% Roan (red/white)
287. Which of the following would be an ex-
C. 100% white ample of a monohybrid cross?
D. 75% Red, 25% Roan A. Plant height
282. Which is homozygous dominate? B. Plant height & seed color
A. BB C. Seed shape & color
B. bb D. Plant height & flower color
C. Bb 288. Scientists use capital and small letters to

show the of an organism.
D. BW
A. genotype
283. Reproductive cells produced by sexually
B. genetic disorder
reproducing organisms
C. phenotype
A. gametes
D. genome
B. genes
C. sperm 289. A cross involving 1 trait
D. eggs A. Dihybrid
B. Monohybrid
284. Hybrid organisms produced from a cross
between two pure-breeding organisms be- C. Sex-Linked
long to which generation? D. Polygenic
A. P1 290. Which law states that alleles for differ-
B. H1 ent traits separate independently during
meiosis?
C. A1
A. Law of Independent Assortment
D. F1
B. Law of Segregation
E. F2
C. Law of Genetics
285. Hybrid
D. Law of Separation
A. OO
291. Tall plants are dominant over short
B. he plants. What are the genotype percent-
C. HH ages for the following cross? Tt X Tt
D. gG A. TT = 50%, Tt = 25%, tt = 25%

B. TT = 75%, Tt = 0%, tt = 25% A. BB

C. TT = 0%, Tt = 100%, tt = 0% B. bb
D. TT = 25%, Tt = 50%, tt = 25% C. Bb
292. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair D. none of above
is dominant over the allele for long hair.B
= short b = longA purebred short haired 297. Tall plants are dominant to short plants.
guinea pig is crossed with a long haired Determine the genotype and phenotype ra-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
guinea pig. What percentage of their off- tios for a homozygous recessive female
spring will have short hair? and a homozygous dominant male.
A. 100% A. 2:4 TT 2:4 tt2:4 tall 2:4 short
B. 75% B. 4:4 Tt4:4 tall
C. 50%
C. 2:4 TT 2:4 Tt4:4 tall
D. 25%
D. 1:4 TT 2:4 Tt 1:4 tt3:4 tall 1:4 short
293. A dog gives birth to 5 puppies. What
percentage of the chromosomes does each 298. If a fly with red eyes and the genotype
puppy share with the mother? (Rr) is crossed with a brown eyed fly,
what percentage of the offspring would
A. 25%
have red eyes?
B. 50%
A. 255
C. 75%
B. 50%
D. 100%
C. 67%
294. The theory of segregation applies most
specifically to events occurring in prepara- D. 75%
tion of
299. A homozygous dominant mom mated
A. offspring with a father that is homozygous reces-
B. zygotes sive. Create a Punnett square to deter-
C. homologous chromosomes mine the possible genotypes?
D. gametes A. Ff only
E. loci B. FF & ff
295. A phenotype is the C. Ff & ff

A. letter combination D. ff only
B. dominant gene
300. T = tall t = shortTT x Tt would result in
C. recessive gene the following phenotype:
D. physical appearance A. all short
296. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair is B. all tall
dominant over the allele for long hair.B =
C. TT and Tt
short b = longWhat genotype would a ho-
mozygous recessive guinea pig have? D. neither tall or short

301. Punnett Squares show the possibilities of B. BB X Bb

combining in the process of
C. Bb X Bb

A. alleles, fertilization
D. bb X bb
B. genes, meiosis
C. alleles, meiosis 307. In his experiments with plants, Mendel
D. body cells, fertilization removed which part of the plant to pre-
vent unwanted fertilizations?
302. Recessive alleles are-
A. flowers
A. capital
B. lowercase B. petals
C. both C. pistils
D. neither D. stamens
303. We use an uppercase (capital) letter to E. stigmas
indicate this
A. recessive allele 308. In german shepherds, pointy ears (P) are
B. dominant allele dominant to floppy ears (p). What is the
genotype of a german shepherd that is het-
C. gene erozygous for pointy ears?
D. phenotype
A. PP
304. the physical characteristics that result
B. Pp
from genes
A. phenotype C. pp
B. genotype D. none of above
C. heterozygous
309. How many alleles do we get from each
D. homozygous
parent for each trait?
305. The theory of segregation
A. one
A. deals with the alleles governing two
different traits. B. two
B. applies only to linked genes. C. three
C. applies only to sex-linked genes. D. four
D. explains the behavior of a pair of alle-
les during meiosis. 310. The phenotypic ratio of cross with two
E. none of these characters
306. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair is A. 9:1:3:3

dominant over the allele for long hair.B = B. 1:3:3:9
short b = longWhat would the cross be for
two heterozygous guinea pigs? C. 9:3:1:3
A. BB X BB D. 9:3:3:1

311. In plants, being short is the recessive C. mutated

gene.Two heterozygous plants are crossed. D. recessive
What is the phenotypic ratio of the off-
spring? You must show your work for full 316. Which of the following is NOT a char-
credit! acteristic of the pea plants with which
A. 1:2:1 Mendel worked?
B. 1:2:3 A. They produced male and female parts
B. They exhibited blending inheritance
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 2 ; 2
D. 3:1 C. They would normally self-fertilize
D. They had many different traits and ex-
312. R=red, r=pink. Cross two heterozygous hibited some pure-breeding varieties
plants. What would the genotype possibil-
ities be of the offspring? E. They could be easily cross-fertilized by
human manipulation
A. RR, rr
B. RR, Rr, rr 317. Being able to roll your tongue (R) is domi-
nant over not having the ability to roll your
C. Rr, rr tongue (r). Cross two people who are both
D. RR, Rr hybrids. What are the genotypic ratios?
313. Heterozygous is when A. 1 RR:1 Rr
A. the alleles are the same B. 1 RR:2 Rr:1 rr
B. the alleles are different C. 1 Rr:1 rr
C. the alleles are absent D. 3 Tongue rollers:1 Non-tongue roller
D. the alleles are present 318. What are the offspring’s possible pheno-
types? Brown fur is dominant. White fur
314. A green pea plant (GG) is being crossed is recessive.One parent is homozygous for
with a green pea plant (Gg). What is the brown fur as the other is heterozygous.
phenotype ratio of the offspring?
A. 100% White fur
A. 100 % rainbow
B. 50% Brown fur 50% White fur
B. 50% yellow and 50% green
C. 100% Brown fur
C. 100% green
D. 75% Brow fur 25% White fur
D. 100% yellow
319. How can two parents with brown eyes
315. Mendel’s early work with pea plants have a child with blue eyes?
demonstrated a significant genetic discov-
ery. The crossing of homozygous tall pea A. The parents may both have recessive
plants with homozygous short pea plants genes for blue eyes.
always resulted in tall plants and demon- B. The child was born during the winter
strated that tallness in pea plants is a trait C. Eye color in humans is not an inherited
that is- trait
A. blended D. The child was deprived of oxygen dur-
B. dominant ing its birth

320. Black is dominant to brown. Millie is a 325. B = brown eyesb = blue eyesWhat is true
heterozygous black bat. She meets a ho- about these two brothers that have brown
mozygous brown bat. What is the chance eyes? One has genotype BB the other Bb.

their offspring is NOT black? A. they have same phenotype and geno-
A. 0.0 type
B. 0.5 B. they have different genotypes and phe-
notypes
C. 0.25
C. they have same phenotype but differ-
D. 0.75 ent genotypes
321. Select all the genotypes that will ex- D. they have same genotype but different
pressed the recessive trait or phenotype. phenotypes
A. BB 326. What is the phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid
B. bb cross of 2 heterozygous parents?
C. Bb A. 3:4:3:6
D. Hh B. 1:2:3:4
C. 9:3:3:1
E. hh
D. 8:4:3:1
322. Which of the following is an example of
a homozygous recessive genotype? 327. An individual who has two of the same
allele is said to be
A. Gg
A. Homozygous
B. AA
B. Hemizygous
C. FF
C. Homologous
D. ff
D. Heterozygous
323. if all offsprings are hybrid, what are the 328. A woman with curly hair mated with the
parents man who is heterozygous for straight hair.
A. HH x Hh Create a Punnett square to determine the
ratio of offspring that will have curly hair.
B. HH x hh
A. 1/2
C. hh x hh
B. 3/4
D. Hh x Hh
C. 1/4
324. What fraction of offspring from the cross D. 4/4
AaBB x Aabb will be heterozygous for
both traits? 329. Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer.
She has a scar on her right cheek. She is
A. 1/16
good at swimming. Which of her traits did
B. 4/16 Magda most likely inherit?
C. 8/16 A. height
D. 3/16 B. the scar

C. ability to swim C. alleles

D. ability to play drums D. genes
330. In a cross of a heterozygous with a ho- 335. If short hair (L) is dominant to long hair
mozygous dominant organism, what per- (l), animals LL and Ll have the same
cent of the offspring are expected to have
A. parents
a recessive phenotype?
B. genotypes
A. 0%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 25% C. phenotypes
C. 50% D. alleles
D. 75% E. genes
E. 100% 336. which are the gametes for parent who

are heterozygous
331. What is the primary function of the chro-
mosome? A. Hh x hh
A. Relay messages between different B. HH x HH
cells in animals C. Hh x Hh
B. Release energy by breaking down food D. hh x hh
molecules
C. Store the genetic instructions needed 337. The physical appearance of an organism
to specify traits based on traits
D. Transport waste materials rapidly out A. Genotype
of the cell B. Phenotype
332. RR C. Meiosis
A. Homozygous dominant D. Genetics
B. Homozygous recessive 338. Which of the following genotypes is ho-
C. Heterozygous mozygous dominant?
D. none of above A. A
333. Mendel crossed what organism in his in- B. Aa

vestigations? C. AA
A. Peas D. aa
B. Flies
339. If a heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed
C. Pigs with a short pea plant, what are the pos-
D. Humans sible genotypes of the future offspring?
A. 100% Tt
334. The hereditary information that deter-
mines a single trait B. 50% Tt, 50% tt
A. genotype C. 75%Tt, 25%tt
B. phenotype D. 25%TT, 50%Tt, 25%tt

340. A recessive allele is represented by a(an) 346. If brown fur is dominant and white fur
is recessive what is the phenotype of the
following Rabbit:aa

A. uppercase letter
B. lowercase letter A. Brown
C. combination of letters B. White
D. DNA C. Speckled
341. What predicts genetic outcomes? D. Spotted
A. genetic engineering 347. Facial dimples (D) are considered domi-

B. punnet square nant human traits, whereas someone with
no dimples (d) is recessive. What are the
C. probability expected phenotypes of the offspring of a
D. none of above heterozygous female with dimples and a
male with no dimples?
342. Which of the following genotype is one in
which the recessive must show? A. 25% dimples:75% no dimples
A. Gg B. 50% dimples:50% no dimples
B. Ff C. 75% dimples:25% no dimples
C. rr D. 100% dimples
D. AA
348. A human zygote (fertilized egg) is consid-
343. Gregor Mendel is known as the father of ered:
A. Haploid (1 copy of each gene).
A. Modern Medicine B. Diploid (2 copies of each gene).
B. Father of the Green Revolution C. Triploid (3 copies of each gene).
C. Father of Genitics
D. Tetraploid (4 copies of each gene).
D. The Pea Plant Man
349. Any characteristic that can be passed
344. What is the cause of some traits “skip- from parent to offspring
ping” a generation?
A. Allele
A. dominant traits
B. Trait
B. recessive traits
C. Genotype
C. hybrid alleles
D. Pheotype
D. homologous chromosomes
345. A trait that is expressed in heterozy- 350. Which is a possible haploid (gamete)
gotes genotype?
A. dominant A. Blue eyes
B. recessive B. Aa
C. intermediate C. A
D. none D. Brown eyes

351. Which of the following is a heterozygous C. protein

genotype?
D. chromosome
A. AA
B. Aa 357. Given the following, what are the possi-
ble genotypes? Parents:(Yy)x(yy)
C. aa
D. none of above A. Yy
B. yy
352. Assuming that the probability of having
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a female child is 50% and the probability C. Yy and YY
of having a male child is 50%, what is the
D. Yy and yy
probability that a couple’s first-born child
will be male and the second born will be
358. Which of the following terms refers to
female?
the different possibilities of a gene?
A. 0%
A. chromosome
B. 25%
B. DNA
C. 50%
D. 100% C. Punnett Squares
D. allele
353. The physical manifestation of a gene
A. phenotype 359. father of genetics
B. character
A. Gregor Mendel
C. allele
B. James Watson
D. trait
C. Dr. Robbins
354. Male gametes
D. Francis Crick
A. eggs
B. sperm 360. trait
C. genes A. Punnett square
D. eggs B. blue
355. An allele whose trait only shows up when C. characteristics of an organism con-
no dominant allele is present. trolled by genetics
A. hidden allele D. AA
B. dominant allele
C. recessive allele 361. Change in DNA sequence resulting in the
appearance of a new allele
D. present allele
A. fertilization
356. Which term means having two of the
same alleles for the trait. B. mutations
A. homozygous C. cross-fertilized
B. hetrozygous D. self-fertilized

362. What is a dominant trait? 367. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair is
A. The trait that controls how you solve dominant over the allele for long hair.B =
short b = longWhat genotype would a het-

problems
erozygous short haired guinea pig have?
B. The trait that is “covered up” by the
recessive trait. A. BB
C. The trait that “covers up” the reces- B. bb
sive trait. C. Bb
D. The trait that controls your personality D. none of above
363. The genotype, “aa” is considered to be:
368. (Q1) In certain breeds of dogs, deafness
A. dominant is due to a recessive allele (d) of a gene
B. codominant and normal hearing is due to the dominant
allele (D). What percentage of offspring
C. recessive
of a (Dd) dog and a (dd) dog would have
D. hybridized NORMAL hearing?
364. Which term means having two different A. 25%
alleles for a trait. B. 50%
A. protein C. 75%
B. homozygous
D. 100%
C. heterozygous
D. genotype 369. How many alleles (letters) does each per-
son carry for a particular trait?
365. Mendel found that pea plants expressing A. 1
a recessive trait
B. 2
A. were pure-breeding
C. 3
B. appeared only in the first generation of
a cross between two pure-breeding plants D. 4
expressing contrasting forms of a trait
370. What are the blood types of the possible
C. disappeared after the second genera- children that a woman (type O) and man
tion (type AB) can have?
D. could be produced only if one of the
A. O and AB
parents expressed the recessive trait
B. O and A
366. Long tongues (T) are dominant to short
C. O and B
tongues in green tree frogs. What is the
probability that two frogs that are het- D. A and B
erozygous for long tongues could produce
offspring with short tongues? 371. What is considered to be the phenotype?
A. 25% A. Double stranded chromosomes
B. 50% B. The physical trait that is expressed
C. 75% C. The combination of genes
D. 100% D. All of the genetic information

372. In a dihybrid cross A. none

A. one trait is crossed. B. 3/4
B. two traits are crossed. C. 1/2
C. four boxes are needed for the punnett D. all
square. 378. The variant of a particular character of an
D. mom’s alleles are dominant. individual
A. alleles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
373. Free ear lobe is dominant to attached, a
couple who have free ear lobes have a B. gene
child with an attached ear lobe, What are C. trait
the genotypes of the couple?
A. Ee x EE
379. The dominant allele for height in a partic-
B. Ee x Ee ular plant is tall, and the recessive allele
C. EE x EE is short. If both parents are heterozygous
for height, which ratio of offspring will the
D. ee x Ee
parents produce based on Mendel’s law of
374. Tall plants are dominant over short segregation?
plants. What is the phenotype ratio for A. 4 tall:0 short
the following cross? Tt X Tt
B. 3 tall:1 short
A. 100% tall, 0% short C. 1 tall:3 short
B. 75% tall, 25% short D. none of above
C. 50% tall, 50% short
380. Short hair is dominant to long hair in mice.
D. none of above Determine the genotype and phenotype ra-
tios for a homozygous recessive female
375. What do we call the gene combination for
and a heterozygous male.
a trait?
A. 2:4 SS 2:4 Ss4:4 short hair
A. Phenotype
B. 2:4 Ss 2:4 ss4:4 long hair
B. Alleles
C. 2:4 Ss 2:4 ss2:4 short hair 2:4 long hair
C. Genotype
D. 1:4 SS 2:4 Ss 1:4 ss3:4 short hair 1:4
D. Genetics long hair
376. Different forms of a gene 381. In flowers, purple color is dominant to
A. Chromosomes pink and short is dominant to tall. Cross a
flower that is heterozygous for both traits
B. Alleles with another flower that is pink and tall.
C. Mutations What is the percentage of the flowers be-
ing pink and short?
D. Gametes
A. 75%
377. W=white hairw= non-white hairIf you
B. 25%
cross a horse with WW and a horse with
ww what fraction of the offspring would C. 4
be expected to have white hair? D. 1/2

382. In rats, black coat color is dominant over C. Ff

white coat color. If some of the offspring D. TT
of a cross between a black rat and a white

rat are white, the black rat must have 387. Question 1
been-
A. A
B. B
B. heterozygous
C. C
C. homozygous recessive
D. D
D. none of above
388. When a plant with red flowers (RR) is
383. An allele that is masked whenever the crossed with a plant that has white flow-
dominant allele is present ers ( WW), the resulting offspring has pink
A. homozygous flowers ( RW). If two pink flowers are
crossed, what is the probability of having
B. heterozygous
a pink flower?
C. recessive
A. 0%
D. dominant
B. 25%
384. (Q2) In humans, normal pigmentation is C. 50%
due to a dominant allele (C) and albinism to
D. 75%
its recessive allele (C). A normal man mar-
ries and albino woman. Their first child is 389. Widow’s peak is dominant to no widow’s
albino. What are the genotypes of these peak. Determine the genotype and pheno-
three people? type ratios for a homozygous dominant fe-
A. Cc, Cc, and cc male and a homozygous recessive male.
B. CC, cc, and cc A. 4:4 Ww, 4:4 widow’s peak
C. Cc, cc, and cc B. 2:4 ww, 2:4 WW2:4 No widow’s peak
D. cc, cc, and cc 2:4 Widow’s peak
C. 2:4 Ww, 2:4 WW4:4 Widow’s peak
385. G = green g = yellowCross two
plants that are heterozygous for green D. 2:4 Ww, 2:4 ww2:4 Widow’s peak 2:4
pods.What are the phenotype percent- no widow’s peak
ages?
390. Which of the following is the most accu-
A. 25% green, 75% yellow rate definition of heredity?
B. 25% green, 75% yellow A. The storage of information in the nu-
C. 50% green, 50% yellow cleus of every cell in the body
D. 75% green, 25% yellow B. The passage of genetic instructions

from one generation to another
386. Which of the following genotypes would C. The relationship of one organism to an-
be considered heterozygous? other by evolutionary history
A. BB D. The adaptation of an organism for bet-
B. gg ter survival in a new habitat

391. Where sperm is contained within a plant C. I square used to find an area of a rect-
A. eggs angle.
B. ovules D. A area where a plant can capture sun-

light and turn it into oxygen.
C. pollen
D. genes 397. In sharks, big fins are dominant (F) and
small fins are recessive (f). What is the
392. Tt is-
genotype of the homozygous big fins?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. ff
B. FF
C. heterozygous
D. none of these C. Ff
D. fF
393. Which of the following are examples of
Dominant alleles?
398. Which of the following is homozygous
A. D, e, K, L dominant?
B. D, E, K, L A. Jj
C. d, e, k, l
B. Rr
D. dd, ee, kk, ll
C. MM
394. Which of Mendel’s Principals states that
D. ee
the two alleles contained by a parent sep-
arate from each other during gamete for-
mation? 399. A cross performed to find the genotype
of heterozygotes for single character
A. Principal of Dominance
A. monohybrid cross
B. Principal of Segregation
C. Principal of Independent Assortment B. reciprocal cross
D. none of above C. back cross
395. Who is the father of genetics? D. one trait test cross
A. Peabody 400. For Mendel’s explanation of inheritance

B. Starsky to be correct,
C. Hutch A. the genes for the traits he studied had
D. Mendel to be located on the same chromosome
396. What is the definition of a punnet B. which gametes combine at fertilization

square? had to be due to chance
A. A diagram that is used to predict an C. genes could not be transmitted inde-

outcome of a particular cross or breeding pendently of each other
experiment. D. only diploid organisms would demon-
B. The mixing of 18 specific organisms. strate inheritance patterns

401. If tall (D) is dominant to dwarf (d), and D. The Theory of Independent Assort-
two homozygous varieties DD and dd are ment
crossed, then what kind of progeny will be

produced? 406. When both alleles of a particular gene are
similar
A. all intermediate forms
A. heterozygous
B. all tall
B. homozygous
C. all dwarf
C. homologous
D. 1/2 tall, 1/2 dwarf
D. haemophilia
E. 3/4 tall, 1/4 dwarf
407. Why is crossing over important?
402. Purebred
A. Increases the number of genes that
A. Dd can be inherited
B. gG B. Increases genetic variation
C. JJ C. Decreases the occurrence of genetic
D. JK diseases
403. If all offspring of a cross have the geno- D. Decreases the number of genes that
type Aa, the parents of the crosses would can be inherited
most likely be 408. An organism that inherits two different
A. AA x aa alleles for a trait
B. Aa x Aa A. homozygous
C. Aa x aa B. genotype
D. AA x Aa C. phenotype
404. Brown hair is dominant over light hair. D. heterozygous

If a homozygous parent (Aa) is crossed 409. A homozygous dominant mom mated
with a heterozygous recessive parent (aa), with a father that is homozygous reces-
their children will have sive. Create a Punnett square to deter-
A. Only Brown Hair mine how many of the offspring will have
B. Only Light Hair freckles
C. Some brown and some light A. 0
C. 3
405. Before the work of Gregor Mendel, most
scientists believed that offspring inherit a D. 1
hybrid mix of traits (a black dog mating 410. If the results of a testcross reveal that
with a white dog makes a gray dog). This all offspring resemble the parents being
theory was called: tested, then it may be concluded that the
A. The Hybridization theory parents are
B. The Blended Theory of Inheritance A. heterozygous
C. The Particulate Theory of Inheritance B. polygenic

C. homozygous D. They have same genotype but different

D. recessive phenotypes.
411. Punnett Square #2In plants tall is domi- 416. The following items are examples of
nant to short.Cross one homozygous dom- Items:eye color, hair color, height
inant with one homozygous recessive A. homozygous alleles
plant.What is the phenotypic ratio?
B. genotype
A. 1:2:1
C. heterozygous alleles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 2:2
D. phenotype
C. 4
417. Two alternative forms of a gene
D. none of above
A. allele
412. Different forms of genes for a single trait
B. trait
are
C. ellele
A. heterozygous
B. dominant D. all of the above
C. alleles 418. In pea plants purple flowers are dom-

D. homozygous inant to white flowers. What parental
genotypes would produce offspring that
413. A flower color is an example of a/an are all homozygous for the purple trait?
A. genotype A. TT + tt
B. phenotype B. TT + TT
C. character C. tt + tt
D. allele D. Tt + Tt
414. The outward characteristics that people 419. Purple flowers are dominant to white
show due to their genetic material. flowers in pea plants. Determine the geno-
A. Homozygous type and phenotype ratios for a homozy-
gous dominant female and a heterozygous
B. Heterozgyous
male.
C. Genotype
A. 2:4 PP 2:4 Pp4:4 white
D. Phenotype
B. 2:4 PP 2:4 Pp4:4 purple
415. B=brown eyes b=blue eyesTwo brothers C. 1:4 PP 2:4 Pp 1:4 pp3:4 purple 1:4
both have brown eyes. One has genotype white
BB and the other Bb. Which statement is
D. 2:4 PP 2:4 pp2:4 purple 2:4 white
true?
A. They have same phenotype and geno- 420. A woman with curly hair marries a man
type. who is heterozygous for straight hair.
B. They have different genotypes and Which of the following will represent the
phenotypes. woman’s genotype?
C. They have same phenotype but differ- A. ss

ent genotypes. B. Ss

C. SS C. dominant
D. none of above D. recessive

421. In certain camels, one hump (H) is domi- 426. The passing of traits from parents to off-
nant over two humps (h) while long necks spring through genes is
(N) are dominant over short necks (n). A. mitosis
Cross a camel that is heterozygous for
both traits with a camel that is homozy-
gous recessive for both traits. What is the C. sexual reproduction
genotypic ratio? D. heredity
A. 1 HhNn:1 Hhnn:1 hhNn:1 hhnn
427. Which of the following is homozygous re-
B. 1 Hhnn:2 HhNn:1 hhNn cessive?
C. 1 HHNN:2 HhNn:1 hhnn A. Tt
D. 1:HhNn:1 hhnn B. tt
422. What is the genotype of a person with C. TT
type A blood, who had a father with type D. T
O blood?
428. The pea plant was an excellent choice for
A. AB Mendel’s experiments because
B. AA A. true-breeding varieties were available
C. AO B. the plant can self-fertilize
D. OO C. it can be cross-fertilized
423. Brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes. D. true-breeding varieties were available
Which letter will indicate a recessive al- and it can be cross-fertilized
lele? (select all that apply) E. true-breeding varieties were available,
A. B the plant can self-fertilize, and it can be
cross-fertilized
B. b
C. Bb 429. Which generation in Mendel’s experi-
ments showed a 3:1 phenotypic ratio of
D. none of above
traits?
424. If a pea plant were homozygous reces- A. The F2 generation.
sive for height, how would its alleles be
B. The F1 generation.
represented?
C. The parental generation.
A. TT
D. The F3 generation
B. Tt
C. tt 430. Can you curl your tongue up on the sides?
Tongue-curling in humans is a dominant ge-
D. tT netic trait. Suppose a man who is Tt for
425. Both alleles for a trait are the same tongue-curling marries a woman who is
also Tt for this trait. What is the per-
A. homozygous cent chance that their offspring will NOT
B. heterozygous be able to roll their tongue?

A. 50% 436. One of the two forms of a gene is called

B. 100% a(n)
C. 25% A. genotype
D. 0% B. allele
431. In plants, tall (T) is dominant to short C. hybrid
(t). Perform the following cross:Tt x Tt.
D. trait
What is the probability of producing a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
short plant?
437. Fusion of egg and sperm from two differ-
A. 0% ent plants
B. 25% A. fertilization
C. 50%
B. mutations
D. 75%
C. cross-fertilized
432. Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a
baby. What is the chance the baby is blue D. self-fertilized
eyed? (B=brown eyes and b=blue eyes)
438. R-roundr-wrinkledWhat is the genotype
A. 0 % for wrinkled?
B. 25%
A. RR
C. 50%
B. rr
D. 75%
C. Rr
433. If we cross TT with tt, what is the prob-
ability that the offspring will have Tt? D. none of above
A. 0%
439. In guinea pigs, black hair is dominant to
B. 50% white hair and short hair is dominant to
C. 75% long hair. What would be the phenotype
D. 100% of a guinea pig with the genotype Bbss?
A. Black hair, long hair
434. Which of the following genotypes is ho-
mozygous recessive? B. Black hair, short hair
A. Tt C. White hair, long hair
B. tt
D. White hair, short hair
C. TT
D. T 440. T=tall, t=short. Cross a heterozygous
and a homozygous recessive. What are
435. Process of characteristics transmitted the chances of an offspring being tall?
from parent to offspring
A. 1 out of 4 or 25%
A. traits
B. heredity B. 2 out of 4 or 50%
C. genes C. 3 out of 4 or 75%

D. genotype D. 4 out of 4 or 100%

441. Mendel proposed that traits observed in A. recessive

pea plants resulted from a combination of B. hybrid
“factors” inherited from each parent. His

description of these “factors” can be con- C. dominant
sidered the first scientific definition of the D. purebred
role of-
446. The genotype “Gg” is considered to be:
A. ribosomes
B. meiosis
B. heterozygous
C. genes
C. homozygous recessive
D. cell nuclei
D. heterozygous recessive
442. In dogs, long hair (L) is dominant to
short hair (l). What is the phenotype of a 447. Sections of DNA that code for a trait
dog that is homozygous dominant for this A. Epigenetics
trait?
B. Genetics
A. Long hair
C. Mutations
B. LL
D. Genes
C. Short Hair
448. The brown fur color is dominant. If the
D. Ll
mother is a homozygous brown fur and the
443. In german shepherds, pointy ears (P) are father is a homozygous white fur, what is
dominant to floppy ears (p). What is the the phenotype ratio?
genotype of a german shepherd that has A. 1 Brown:3 White
floppy ears?
B. 4 Brown
A. PP
C. 3 Brown:1 white
B. Pp D. 2 Brown:2 white
C. pp
D. none of above a Recessive Allele?
444. In pea plants, purple flowers are domi- A. BB
nant to white flowers. A white flowered B. B
plant is crossed with a plant that is het-
erozygous for purple flowers. What per- C. a
centage of the offspring will have purple D. A
flowers?
450. In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant over
A. 100%
white fur. Show the cross of a heterozy-
B. 75% gous male with a homozygous white fe-
C. 50% male. Complete a Punnett Square to sup-
port your answer, you will need it for num-
D. none of above ber 7 too. What are the genotypic ratios
445. An organism with two different alleles of the offspring?
for a trait is said to be: A. 1 (BB):2 (Bb):1 (bb)

B. 0 (BB):4 (Bb):0 (bb) B. Dihybrid cross

C. 2 (Bb):2 ( bb) C. Trihybrid cross
D. 3 (Bb):1 (bb) D. all the above
451. Not attached earlobes (E) are dominant
over attached earlobes (e). In a cross of 456. How can two parents with brown eyes
a homozygous recessive male with a het- have a child with blue eyes? NOTE:You
erozygous female, what will be the pre- will be ask to prove a this claim on your
Final Exam.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dicted phenotype?
A. 1 Ee:1 ee A. The parents may both have recessive
genes for blue eyes.
B. 1 Not attached earlobes
C. 1 EE:1 ee B. The child was born during the winter
D. 1 Not attached earlobes:1 attached C. Eye color in humans is not an inherited

earlobes trait
D. The child was deprived of oxygen dur-
452. having two different genes for a trait
ing its birth
(sometimes called hybrid).
A. protein 457. G = green, g = yellowThe genotype for a
B. homozygous yellow plant would be:
C. heterozygous A. GG
D. genotype B. Gg
453. An inherited characteristic that distin- C. gg
guishes one characteristic from another;
D. All of the above
example:short height
A. genetics 458. The different forms of a gene are known
B. gene as
C. trait A. Codons
D. punnett square B. Proteins
454. If the dog (Gilbert) is homozygous for C. Alleles
having normal hearing, what are the D. Nucleotides
chances the offspring will be deaf when
mated with a deaf female? 459. What does the law of independent as-
A. 0% sortment state?
B. 50% A. Factors are distributed dependently.
C. 25% B. Traits are distributed to gametes inde-
D. 75% pendently.
455. When two different characters are stud- C. Factors are distributed to gametes in-
ied it is called dependently.
A. Monohybrid cross D. Factors are assorted.

460. In cocker spaniels the allele for a black 465. A homozygous brown bunny is crossed
coat color (B) is dominant over the allele with a homozygous black bunny. If black
for a brown coat color (b). If a brown fur is a dominant trait, and brown is a re-

cocker spaniel is crossed with a heterozy- cessive, what are the chances of getting a
gous black cocker spaniel, which of the fol- brown bunny?
lowing genotypic ratios is expected? A. 1.0
A. 0 BB:2Bb:2bb B. 0.0
B. 1 BB:2 Bb:1 bb C. 0.75
C. 2 BB:0 Bb:2 bb D. 0.25
D. none of above 466. In guinea pigs, the allele for short hair is
dominant. If all the guinea pigs are born
461. When completing a dihybrid cross, how short haired what are the possible geno-
many alleles does each parent have? types of the parents? (There are two pos-
A. 3 sible combinations.)
B. 4 A. Ss + Ss
C. 1 B. SS + SS
C. SS + Ss
D. 2
D. ss + ss
462. The set of alleles that determine a trait
for example Bb or HH 467. Gregor Mendel mostly worked with gar-
den pea plants, their scientific name being:
A. genotype
A. Pisum alurium
B. phenotype
B. Petromyzon marinus
C. allele C. Pesus plantus
D. hybrid D. Pisum sativum
463. An allele whose trait always shows up in 468. Gregor Mendel crossed what organism in
the organism when the allele is present. his experiments?
A. recessive allele A. corn
B. dominant allele B. peanut
C. hidden allele C. rice
D. present allele D. pea
469. Mom is heterozygous for brown eyes.

464. Having two of the SAME alleles for a trait
Which of the following represent her geno-
(example HH or hh):
type
A. homozygous A. Bb
B. heterozygous B. BB
C. recessive C. bb
D. dominant D. BB & Bb

470. The Law of Segregation states that when 475. What did Mendel discovery in the second
two combine during fertilization, the set of crosses (of hybrids)?
offspring have factors controlling a
A. The recessive trait reappeared!
specific trait.
B. The dominant trait reappeared!
A. mitochondria, 5
C. The ratio was a 1:4
B. traits, 2
C. gametes, 2 D. All the offspring were true-breeding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. genes, 3 476. In a cross of Bb x Bb, what percentage
of the offspring are expected to have a re-
471. Incomplete dominance is a form of inher-
cessive phenotype?
itance where
A. 25%
A. One allele is dominant over the other
B. 50%
B. One allele is expressed in a different
location than it should be C. 75%
C. One allele is not completely expressed D. 100%
over another allele
477. Which is a possible diploid (par-
D. One allele eats the other
ent/offspring) genotype?
472. An organism’s genetic make-up is known A. A
as the
B. Brown eyes
A. phenotype
C. a
B. genotype
D. Aa
C. dominant
D. recessive 478. A student’s mother is homozygous for at-
tached earlobes, a recessive trait. The stu-
473. Brown is dominant over blue eyes. What dent’s father is a heterozygous for the de-
should the genotype for a person with tached earlobes. What is the percent like-
BLUE EYES? lihood that this student has attached ear-
A. BB lobes?
B. Bb A. 100%
C. bb B. 75%
D. none of above C. 50%
474. In german shepherds, pointy ears (P) are D. 25%
dominant to floppy ears (p). What is the
genotype of a german shepherd that is ho- 479. When a person has two of the same alle-
mozygous dominant for pointy ears? les for a gene, they are said to be
A. PP A. Heterozygous
B. Pp B. Homozygous
C. pp C. Hemizygous

5.3 Dihybrid Cross - Law of Independent Assortment 397
480. What are the different forms of a gene? B. Trait

A. allele C. Heredity

B. gene D. Genotype
C. trait 486. having two of the same genes for the
D. DNA trait (sometimes called purebred).
481. which of the following are examples of A. homozygous

recessive alleles? B. hetrozygous
A. D, e, K, L C. protein
B. D, E, K, L D. chromosome
C. d, e, k, l 487. In labrador retrievers the allele for a
D. none of above black coat color (B) is dominant over the al-
lele for a brown coat color (b). If a brown
482. The genotypes of AA and Aa can be de- labrador retriever is crossed with a het-
scribed as: erozygous black labrador retriever, which
A. recessive of the following genotypic ratios can be ex-
B. dominant pected?
C. codominant A. 0 BB:2 Bb:2 bb
D. non-dominant B. 1 BB:2 Bb:1 bb

C. 2 BB:0 Bb:2 bb
483. Which are heterozygous?
D. 2 BB:1 Bb:0 bb
A. Hh
B. HH 488. . In a monohybrid cross between two
organisms heterozygous for a particular
C. BB trait (Ff), what would be the predicted ra-
D. Bb tio of the offspring’s genotypes?
E. bb A. 1FF:3 Ff:1 ff
484. A is a region of DNA that controls a B. 1 FF:2Ff:1 ff

trait. C. 2 FF:2 Ff
A. gene D. 3Ff:1 ff
B. phenotype 489. What tool can we use to solve genetics
C. chromatin problems?
D. genotype A. Mendelin Circle
485. The passing of traits from parent to off- B. Punnet Rectangle

spring is called this. C. Punnet Circle
A. Genetics D. Punnet Square
5.3 Dihybrid Cross - Law of Independent Assortment

1. In mice black fur color (B) is dominant over B. 25%

brown fur color(b).In a cross between two C. 50%
heterozygous mice What is the probability
of 3 brown colored mice? D. 100%
A. 1/8 6. In pea plants tall stems(T) are dominant
B. 1/16 over short stems(t) and round seeds(R)
are dominant over wrinkled seeds(r). Con-
C. 1/64 sider the following cross:TtRr X TtRr .
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 3/64 What is the chance of having tall, wrinkled
E. 27/64 seeded plants?
A. 1/4
2. Having freckles is dominant over having
no freckles. A hybrid parent is crossed B. 1/8
with a parent that has no freckles. What C. 3/16
are the genotypes of the parents? D. 3/9
A. ff x FF
7. What would be the gametes for the YyRr
B. FF x Ff plant?
C. Ff x ff A. YR, YR, yR, yR
D. Ff x Ff B. YR, Yr, yR, yr
3. Which of these correctly displays a set of C. Yy, Rr, YY, RR
parents in a dihybrid cross. Cross a het- D. yy, rr, yy, rr
erozygous tall/purple parent with a het-
erozygous tall/white pea parent. 8. In Andalusian fowls, black individuals (BB)
A. Ttpp x ttPP and white individuals (bb) are homozy-
gous. Heterozygous individuals are grey
B. Tt x Tt, Pp x pp (Bb). Cross a black fowl with a white fowl.
C. TtPp x Ttpp What is the phenotype ratio?
D. TTPP x TTpp A. 4 black:0 grey:0 white
4. What are the possible genotypes for this B. 2 black:2 grey:0 white
cross:Tt x Tt C. 0 black:4 grey:0 white
A. TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25% D. 0 black:2 grey:2 white
B. all tall 9. The law of segregation explains that
C. TT= 75% tt = 25% A. alleles of a gene separate from each
D. Tt = 100% other during meiosis
5. If you cross two homozygous plants B. different alleles of a gene can never be
(RRYY x rryy)R = round seeds, r = wrin- found in the same organism
kled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green C. each gene of an organism ends up in a
seedsWhat percent will have round and different gamete
yellow seeds? D. each gene is found on a different
A. 0% molecule of DNA

10. How many PAIRS of chromosomes do hu- 15. Which genotype is represented for having
mans have? homozygous dominant for both traits?

A. 23 A. AaBb
B. 46 B. AABb
C. 1 C. AABB
D. 2 D. AaBB
11. In a cross between a round(R)-yellow(Y) 16. During the formation of gametes (eggs or
seeded plant and a wrinkled (r)-yellow(Y) sperm), the two alleles responsible for a
seeded pea plant, green(y)-wrinkled (r) trait separate from each other.Alleles for
seeded offspring are produced.(Next 2 a trait are then “recombined” at fertiliza-
questions will be about this information.)a. tion, producing the genotype for the traits
What are the genotypes of parents? of the offspring.This is known as
A. RrYy X rrYy A. Law of Mendelian
B. RrYY X rrYy B. Law of Independent Assortment
C. RrYy X RrYy C. Law of Segregation
D. RRYy X rrYy D. Law of Dominance
E. RRYy X RrYY 17. Radish color is incompletely dominant, red
and white are pure breeding colors. While
12. If someone has a recessive phenotype for
heterozygous are purple.Cross a white
a trait, the genotype must be
radish with a purple.
A. Heterozygous
A. 4 purple
B. Homozygous
B. 1 red, 2 purple, 1 white
C. Neither
C. 2 purple, 2 white
D. Either
D. 1 red, 1 purple, 2 white
13. b. What is the probability of 3 brown col-
18. Black is dominant over brown. Which
ored mice?
genotype would be used to describe some-
A. 1/8 one that is brown?
B. 1/16 A. BB
C. 1/64 B. Bb
D. 3/64 C. bb
E. 27/64 D. none of above
14. What gamete possibilities could come from 19. The type of dominance that Mendel under-
the parent’s genotype:AaBB stood was
A. AB, AB, aB, aB A. co-dominance
B. Ab, AB, Ab, ab B. incomplete dominance
C. Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab C. complete dominance
D. AB, Ab, aB, ab D. He understood them all.

20. In a flowering plant, tall (T) is dominant 25. H= normal blood clotting h=hemophilia
to short (t), and blue flowers (B) is domi- XHXh x XHY What is the probability
nant to white flowers (b). A tall plant with that any of their offspring will have
white flowers (Ttbb) is crossed with a hemophilia?
short plant with blue flowers (ttBb).What A. 4/4
is the chance that the offspring will be
short with white flowers? B. 3/4
A. 1/8 C. 2/4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 1/4
B. 1/4
C. 1/2 26. How many gametes will an individual with
genotype AaBB produce?
D. 3/4
A. 1
21. b. Find the number of possible genotypes B. 2
A. 2 C. 3
B. 4 D. 4
C. 6 27. Radish color is incompletely dominant,
D. 9 red and white are pure breeding colors.
While heterozygous are purple.Cross a red
22. Which one of the following gives rise to a radish with a white.
normal human female?
A. 4 purple
A. 22 pairs of autosomes and XX B. 1 red, 2 purple, 1 white
B. 23 pairs of autosomes and XO C. 2 red, 2 white
C. 23 pairs of autosomes and XY D. 1 red, 1 purple, 2 white
D. 23 pairs of autosomes and XX
28. Which method can we use to work a dihy-
23. If B=Black, b= white & R=rough & brid cross?
r=smooth, then, what would the pheno- A. SOIL
type of a BBRR rabbit be? B. FOIL
A. Black, rough C. MAIL
B. Black, smooth D. none of above
C. White, rough
29. X linked recessive gene is called
D. White, smooth
A. always expressed in male
24. How many offspring do you have in a di- B. always expressed in female
hybrid cross? C. lethal
A. 8 D. sub lethal
B. 5
30. b. how many out of 16, have grey fur and
C. 12 red eyes?
D. 16 A. 4

B. 8 B. the law of the jungle.

C. 12 C. the law of probability?

D. 16 D. Only one copy of a gene goes into an
organism’s gametes.
31. Cross a Homozygous Dominant plant and
a Homozygous recessive plant (RRYY x 36. The likelihood, or chance, that a particular
rryy)R = round seeds, r = wrinkled seeds Y event will happen is
= yellow seeds, y = green seedsWhat per- A. probability.
cent will have Round and Yellow seeds?
B. untrue.
A. 0%
C. independent.
B. 25%
D. true.
C. 50%
D. 100% 37. c. what is the proportion of a plant with
A, b, N, h phenotype?
32. The expected phenotypic ratio obtained A. 1/ 16
by crossing the F1 generation in dihybrid
cross would be? B. 1/32
A. 3:1 C. 3/32
B. 1:2:1 D. 9/64
C. 9:3:3:1 38. the genetic makeup of an organism

D. 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1 A. heterozygous
33. What is TT? B. punnet square
A. Heterozygous Dominant C. genotype
B. Homozygous Dominant D. none of above
C. Homozygous Recessive 39. Some flowers are controlled by codomi-

D. none of above nance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers
(BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).Cross two
34. Grey fur (G) is dominant over white fur speckled flowers.
(g) Black eyes (B) are dominant over red A. 1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue
eyes (b)A male rabbit GGbb crossed with
a female rabbit with ggBb.How many out B. 2 red, 2 blue
of 16, have grey fur and black eyes? C. 2 blue, 2 speckled
A. 4 D. 1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue
B. 8 40. Which of the Mendelian law can be studied
C. 12 using a dihybrid cross but not a monohy-
D. 16 brid cross?
A. Law of Segregation
35. The law of segregation has two main
parts:Organism inherit 2 copies of each B. Law of Linkage
gene, one from each parent, AND C. Law of Independent Assortment
A. the law of the land. D. Law of Dominance

41. In guinea pigs, black hair (B) is dominant information)a. be dominant for all 3 char-
to brown hair (b) and short hair (H) is dom- acteristics?
inant to long hair (h).A black, long-haired
A. 1/8
guinea pig (Bbhh) is crossed with a brown,
short-haired guinea pig (bbHh).What per- B. 1/64
centage of the offspring will be black with C. 9/64
long hair?
D. 27/64
A. 25%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 12.5% 46. A trait only appears if there are 2 of
C. 100% the same alleles.
D. 75% A. Dominant
B. Recessive
42. B = brown eyesb = blue eyesWhat is
true about these brothers that have brown C. Heterozygous
eyes? One has a genotype of BB and the D. none of above
other Bb.
A. they have same genotype but different 47. FOIL and dihybrid crosses are done in both
phenotypes males and females to show potential
B. they have same phenotype but differ- A. gametes
ent genotypes
B. identical cells
C. they have different genotypes and phe-
C. somatic cells
notypes
D. they have same phenotype and geno- D. none of above
type
48. How would you determine the phenotype
43. Determine the probability that an Aa indi- of a speckled hen that has black and white
vidual will be produced from an Aa x Aa spots?
cross A. By completing a Punnett Square
A. 25% B. By looking at the hen
B. 100%
C. By looking at the hen’s parents
C. 50%
D. none of above
D. 75%
49. A white mouse with red eyes is crossed
44. A genotype is with a black mouse with brown eyes. The
A. The physical appearance of a trait white mouse is recessive for both of its
B. None of these answers are correct traits. The black mouse is dominant for
both of its traits.This cross would be
C. The genetic makeup of an organism
A. BBEE x bbee
D. The separation of chromosomes
B. BBEe x BbEe
45. Plant I ( GgNnRr) X Plant II ( GgNnRr) are
C. BbEE x BbEe
crossed. what is the proportion of the F1
will;(Next 5 questions will be about that D. BBee x BBEE

50. In certain species of plants, purple flow- 55. Dihybrid crosses are crosses that
ers (P) are dominant to white flowers (p). A. examine the inheritance of two differ-
If two heterozygous plants are crossed,

ent traits.
what will be the phenotype of the off-
spring? B. examine a specific trait.
A. 100% purple flowers C. examine several hundred traits.
B. 100% white flowers D. examine nothing.
C. 75% white flowers, 25% purple flow- 56. Crossfoliating SsYy would be what?
ers
A. SY, Sy, sY, sy
D. 25% white flowers, 75% purple flow-
ers B. SY, SY, sy, sy
C. Sy, Sy, Sy, Sy
51. is the type of gene that always shows
itself when present D. Sy, Sy, sY, sY
A. genotype 57. (Grey fur (G) is dominant over white fur
B. homozygous (g) and Black eyes (B) are dominant over
C. phenotype red eyes(b))A male rabbit GGbb crossed
with a female rabbit with ggBb.Next 3
D. dominant
questions will be about this information.a.
52. In mice black fur color (B) is dominant over how many out of 16, have grey fur and
brown fur color(b).In a cross between two black eyes?
heterozygous micewhat is the probability A. 4
of a black male mouse?
B. 8
A. 1/2
C. 12
B. 1/4
D. 16
C. 3/4
D. 3/8 58. Some flowers are controlled by codomi-
nance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers
53. Which of Mendel’s laws states that alleles (BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).Cross a
are separated during meiosis? red flower with a blue flower.
A. Law of Dominance A. 1 red, 2 speckled, 1 blue
B. Law of Segregation
B. 2 red, 2 blue
C. Law of Independent Assortment
C. 4 speckled
D. none of above
D. 1 red, 1 speckled, 2 blue
54. In pea plants, purple flowers (P) are domi-
nant to white flower (p). Round seeds (R) 59. The offspring of the P1 generation are
are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r). called the generation.
A. Purple flower with wrinkled seeds A. F1
B. Purple flower with round seeds B. lost
C. White flower with wrinkled seeds C. F2
D. White flower with round seeds D. P2

60. Hemophilia is a recessive sex-linked trait. 65. A parent with genotype YyRR could pro-
If H = normal & h = has hemophilia, duce which gametes?
which genotype represents a male with A. YR, YR, yR, yR
hemophilia.
B. Yy, Rr, yy, rr
A. XHY
C. Yr, Yr, yr, yR
B. XHXh
D. YR, YR, yr, yr
C. XhXh
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. XhY 66. d. find the possible number of pheno-
type?
61. In a cross of parents that are pure for
contrasting traits, only one form of the A. 2
trait will appear in the next generation.All B. 4
the offspring will be heterozygous and C. 6
express only the dominant trait.This is
known as the D. 8
A. Law of Segregation E. 27
B. Law of Dominance 67. Parent 1:GgBBParent 2:ggBbWhat are the
C. Law of Independent Assortment gametes for Parent 1 (FOIL METHOD).
D. Law of Mendelian A. GB, GB, gB, gB
62. d. find the possible number of geno- B. gB, gb, gB, gb

types? C. Gg, BB, GB, GB
A. 4 D. gg, Bb, gB, gb
B. 8
68. is the combination of two alleles that
C. 18 are different from one another.
D. 27 A. homozygous
63. What answer selection best describes the B. heterozygous
genetic drift that occurs after an event C. phenotype
greatly reduces the size of a population?
(from The Evolution of the Populations) D. trait
A. gene flow 69. b.Find the probability of having round-

B. genetic drift green seeded plants.
C. bottleneck effect A. 1/4
D. founder effect B. 1/8
C. 3/8
64. What is Tt?
D. 9/16
A. Heterozygous Dominant
B. Homozygous Dominant 70. A female would be colour blind only if
C. Homozygous Recessive A. only father is colour blind
D. none of above B. only mother is colur blind

C. mother is a carrier and father is nor- C. 50%

mal D. 75%

D. mother is a carrier and father is colour
blind 75. In guinea pigs, short hair (H) is dominant
to long hair (h). Also, black eyes (B) are
71. What fraction of offspring from the cross dominant to red eyes (b).
AaBB x Aabb will be heterozygous for
A. HHbb
both traits? Don’t forget to draw and use
the Punnett square before giving your an- B. Hhbb
swer. C. hhBB
A. 1/16 D. HHBb
B. 1/4
76. Which of Mendel’s laws states that alleles
C. 1/2 are distributed to gametes independent of
D. 3/16 one another?
72. A hawk has the genotype Ttbb. If this A. Law of Dominance
hawk mates with a female with genotype B. Law of Segregation
TTBb, what is the chance their offspring
C. Law of Independent Assortment
will have the genotype Ttbb?
D. Law of Meiosis
A. 12.5%
B. 25% 77. If having freckles is dominant over having
C. 50% no freckles, which letters would be used
to represent this trait?
D. 75%
A. F f
73. A cross was made between a heterozy- B. F N
gous tall and heterozygous smooth plant
with another plant with exact the same C. N n
phenotype. How many short and wrin- D. B b
kled plants are expected in a total of 48
plants? 78. Another word for homozygous
A. 3 A. Hybrid
B. 6 B. Different
C. 9 C. Purebred
74. A male beetle has the genotype Ttbb. If 79. Look at this cross:XB XB x Xb YWhat pro-
this beetle mates with a female with geno- portion/percent of the male children are
type TTBb, what is the chance their off- colorblind?
spring will have the genotype TtBb? Don’t
A. 100%
forget to draw and use the Punnett square
before giving your answer. B. 75%
A. 12.5% C. 25%
B. 25% D. 0%

80. If the parent generation shows one ho- 85. What is aa?
mozygous recessive parent and one ho- A. Heterozygous Dominant
mozygous dominant parent, what kind of
offsprings does the F1 generation show? B. Homozygous Dominant
A. Homozygous dominant C. Homozygous Recessive

B. Heterozygous recessive D. none of above
C. Heterozygous dominant 86. In horses, a straight mane (H) is dominant
over a curly mane(h). Trotter horses (T)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Homozygous recessive
are dominant to pacer horses (t).
81. In pea plants tall stems(T) are dominant A. HhTT
over short stems(t) and round seeds(R)
are dominant over wrinkled seeds(r). Con- B. HHTT
sider the following cross:TtRr X TtRr. Find C. hhtt
the probability of having short-wrinkled D. HHtt
seeded plants.
A. 1/4 87. c. be homozygous for all 3 characteris-
tics?
B. 1/16
A. 1/18
C. 3/16
B. 3/32
D. 9/16
C. 8/64
82. Which monohybrid cross will give a pheno-
D. 27/64
type 3:1 ratio
A. RR x rr 88. What answer selection best describes the
study of whole sets of genes and their
B. Rr x rr
interactions within a species, as well
C. Rr x Rr as genome comparisons between species?
D. Rr x RR (From Evolution of Populations)
A. Genomics
83. While constructing a Punnett square for
a Dihybrid cross, How many combinations B. Human Genome Project
will be seen in the F2 generation? C. Gene Pool
A. 16 D. Allele Frequency
B. 14 E. Genotype Frequency
C. 12
89. What answer selection best describes the
D. 20 combined alleles of all of the individuals in
84. What is the genotype for a pea plant ho- a population? (From Evolution of Popula-
mozygous for round seeds (R), and het- tions)
erozygous for yellow seeds? A. Genomics
A. RrYy B. Human Genome Project
B. RRyy C. Gene Pool
C. RRYy D. Allele Frequency
D. rryy E. Genotype Frequency

90. Which of the following characteristics is A. Complete Dominance

a lion least likely to pass on to its off- B. Incomplete Dominance
spring?

C. Co-Dominance
A. colors of its fur
D. Sex-linked
B. length of its tail
C. scars on its leg 96. How many chromosomes does human be-
ing have
D. size of its body
A. 23
91. What is the genotype for someone who B. 22
has Type AB blood?
C. 46
A. IAi
D. 44
B. IAIB
C. IBi 97. The gametes of a dog with the genotype
FfGg should have the genotypes
D. ii
A. FG
92. d. what is the proportion of a plant with B. fg
aaBbNNHh genotype?
C. FG, Fg, fG, fg
A. 1/64
D. FG, fg
B. 2/64
C. 4/ 64 98. Which of the following is a sex linked dis-
ease?
D. 8/64
A. Sickle cell anemia
93. Crossfoliating (Gamets produced by cross- B. Albinism
ing over) YyrR would be?
C. color blindness
A. Yr, YR, yr, yR
D. thalassaemia
B. Yy, Rr, yy, rr
C. Yr, Yr, yr, yR 99. d. what is the chance of plant to have ho-
mozygous recessive genotype?
D. YR, YR, yr, yr
A. 1/2
94. A homozygous dominant dog with brown B. 1/4
fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog
with brown fur. What are the percentages C. 1/8
of the possible genotypes? D. 3/8
A. 100% BB 100. If a gene is found only on the X chromo-
B. 75% BB and 25%Bb some and not the Y chromosome, it is said
C. 50 % BB and 50% Bb to be what?
D. 50% Bb and 50% bb A. sex-linked trait

B. polygenic trait
95. Which type of inheritance causes both
traits to be expressed equally in the het- C. codominant trait
erozygote? D. incomplete dominance trait

101. What is the expected phenotypic ratio A. 1:0:0:0

for a dihybrid cross involving parents het- B. 0:1:0:0
erozygous for both traits?
C. 0:0:1:0
A. 8:2:2:4
D. 0:0:0:1
B. 4:4:4:4
C. 9:3:3:1 106. T4-What fraction of offspring from the
D. 6:2:2:6 cross AaBB x Aabb will be heterozygous
for both traits (ex. AaBb)?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
102. The trait which is present in the parent, A. 1/16
absent in the hybrid but reappears in F2
generation is B. 1/4
A. Mutation C. 1/2
B. Dominant D. 3/16
C. Recessive 107. c. how many out of 16, have white fur
D. Incomplete dominance and black eyes?
103. Alleles for different traits are distributed A. 0
to sex cells ( & offspring) independently B. 4
of one another. This law can be illustrated
C. 8
using dihybrid crosses.
A. Law of Dominance D. 16
B. Law of Mendelian 108. What does FOIL stand for?

C. Law of Segregation A. First, Outer, In the middle, Least
D. Law of Independent Assortment B. Front, On the other side, Inside, Last
104. In rabbits, grey hair (G) is dominant to C. First, Outer, Inner, Last
white hair (g). Also, in rabbits, black eyes D. none of above
(B) are dominant to red eyes (b). Deter-
mine the phenotype for the following geno- 109. Therefore, what is the phenotype of a
type:Ggbb rabbit with the genotype BbRr?
A. grey hair w/ black eyes A. White, smooth fur
B. grey hair w/ red eyes B. Black, smooth fur
C. white hair w/ black eyes C. White, rough fur
D. white hair w/ red eyes D. Black, rough fur
105. In summer squash, white fruit color (W)
110. An allele that is hidden when the domi-
is dominant over yellow fruit color (w)
nant allele is present.
and disk-shaped fruit (D) is dominant over
sphere-shaped fruit (d). If a squash plant A. Dominant Allele
homozygous for white and disk-shaped B. Gene
fruit is crossed with a yellow, sphere-
shaped fruit plant, what will the pheno- C. Recessive Allele
typic ratio of their offspring? D. Probability

111. How are Incomplete Dominance and B. RW

Co Dominance different than a normal C. WW
Mendelian cross?

D. none of above
A. There is no difference
B. The heterozygous genotype has a 116. Crossfoliating YyrR would be?
unique phenotype A. Yr, YR, yr, yR
C. There is no heterozygous genotype B. Yy, Rr, yy, rr
D. There is only one phenotype regard- C. Yr, Yr, yr, yR
less of genotype.
D. YR, YR, yr, yr
112. In fruit flies, normal wings (N) are dom-
inant to vestigial wings (n). Also, in flies, 117. The genetic make up of an organism.
red eyes (R) are dominant to sepia eyes A. genotype
(r) . Determine the phenotype for the fol- B. heterozygous
lowing genotype:NNrr
C. phenotype
A. normal wings w/ red eyes
D. trait
B. normal wings w/ sepia eyes
C. vestigial wings w/ red eyes 118. Some flowers are controlled by codom-
inance. Red flowers (RR), blue flowers
D. vestigial wings w/ sepia eyes
(BB) and Speckled flowers (RB).Cross a
113. In a cross between two plants (RRyy X red flower with a speckled flower. What
rrYY), what percentage of F1 progeny will is the phenotypic ratio?
express the dominant character? A. 2 red, 2 speckled
A. 25% B. 2 red, 2 blue
B. 50% C. 2 blue, 2 speckled
C. 100 % D. none of above
D. 75%
119. Mendel took contrasting characteris-
114. A white mouse with red eyes is crossed tics of pea plants.
with a black mouse with brown eyes. All A. eight
of the offspring have black fur with brown
eyes. Which statement below is true? B. seven
A. Brown eyes are dominant to red C. six
B. White fur is recessive. D. five
C. Both traits show complete dominance 120. Name a sex linked disease in which the
D. All of these statements are true. factor necessary for blood clotting is ab-
sent
E. None of these statements are true.
A. Thalassemia
115. In cattle red coats are represented as RR,
and white coats are represented as WW. B. Hemophilia
What is the genotype for Roan color? C. Color blindness
A. RR D. Sickle cell anemia

121. What is the probability of a person who 126. What answer selection is a measure of
is Type O blood and a person who is Type how common a certain allele is in the pop-
AB blood having a kid who is Type A ulation? (From Evolution of Populations)
Blood? A. Genomics
A. 0% B. Human Genome Project
B. 25% C. Gene Pool
C. 50% D. Allele Frequency
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 75% E. Genotype Frequency
E. 100% 127. Dominant genes are represented by a:
122. Genes encode that produce a diverse A. Male gene

range of traits. B. lowercase letter
A. the beautiful Dillon C. recessive trait
B. recessive D. capital letter
C. dominant 128. In pea plants tall stems(T) are dominant

D. proteins over short stems(t) and round seeds(R)
123. A parent with genotype SsYy could pro- sider the following cross:TtRr X TtRra.
duce what gametes? Find the number of possible phenotypes
A. 2
A. SY, Sy, sY, sy
B. 4
B. SY, SY, sy, sy
C. 6
C. Sy, Sy, Sy, Sy
D. 8
D. Sy, Sy, sY, sY
129. c. What is the chance of having tall, wrin-
124. If B=Black & b= white, then a rabbit with kled seeded plants?
genotype Bb would have what color fur? A. 1/4
A. Black B. 1/8
B. White C. 3/4
C. Black & White D. 3/8
D. Grey 130. When more than 2 genotypes can result
from a cross, the type of genetics could be
125. Mitosis turns a single parent cell into
new cells
A. only incomplete dominance
A. 0
B. only codominance
B. 1
C. only multiple alleles
C. 2
D. incomplete, codominance, or multiple
D. 4 alleles

131. If one of your parents is blood type A and 136. Is the combination of two alleles that
the other is type B, which of the following are the same
blood types would you likely be?

A. genotype
A. O B. homozygous
B. AB C. phenotype
C. A or B D. trait
D. Any 137. Homozygous phenotypes are Black and
WhiteA heterozygous organism will have
132. The genotypic ratio of monohybrid cross
flowers if the trait is codominant.
in F2 generation is
A. Only Black
A. 3:1
B. Only White
B. 9:3:3:1
C. Both Black and White
C. 1:2:1
D. Gray
D. 1:1
138. b. have a genotype GGNnrr?
133. What answer selection best describes the
A. 1/8
movement of alleles from one population
to another? (from The Evolution of the B. 1/64
Populations) C. 2/64
A. gene flow D. 12/64
B. genetic drift 139. In rabbits, white fur (W) is dominant to
C. bottleneck effect black (w), and long ears (E) are dominant
to short ears (e).A breeder mates two
D. founder effect
rabbits that are heterozygous (WwEe) for
134. Which trait is always expressed when both traits.What is the chance that the off-
present? spring will be black with long ears?
A. recessive A. 1/4
B. 1/8
B. dominant
C. 3/16
C. phenotype
D. 3/4
D. allele
140. Biologists have found that a form of deaf-
135. In mice coat color is incompletely domi- ness is a recessive trait in dogs. If a fe-
nant. Black and white are homozygous. male dog that is heterozygous for the trait
Brown mice are heterozygous.What is the mates with a male dog that is deaf, what
genotype for a brown mouse? percent of their offspring will be deaf?
A. BB A. 0%
B. Bb B. 50%
C. bb C. 75%
D. none of above D. 100%

141. If black and white are incompletely dom- C. AB, AB, AB, ab
inant in a chicken, then what is the phe- D. aB, ab, aB, ab
notype of the offspring of a black chicken
with a white chicken? 147. In a certain species of rabbits, black coat
A. black color is dominant over brown coat color.
What is the probability of producing a rab-
B. white bit with brown coat color from two rabbits
C. grey that are both heterozygous for black coat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. black with white spots. color?
A. 0%
142. What is a factor that is weak and can be
covered up by another trait? B. 25%
A. Recessive C. 75%
B. Dominant D. 100%
C. Powerful 148. Which of these genotypes is heterozy-
D. Aggressive gous?
A. WW
143. What is the phenotype of an individual
with the genotype BbRr? B. Ww
A. White, smooth fur C. ww
B. Black, smooth fur D. none of above
C. White, rough fur 149. R= red r= greenWhich color is recessive?
D. Black, rough fur A. red
144. A gamete contains B. green
A. Two alleles of a gene C. both
B. One allele of a gene D. brown
C. All alleles of a gene 150. How many offspring will you have in a
D. None of the above dihybrid cross?
A. 4
145. Mendel’s finding that the inheritance of
one trait had no effect on the inheritance B. 8
of another became known as the C. 16
A. law of dominance. D. 5
B. law of universal inheritance
151. A hemophiliac man marries a normal ho-
C. law of segregation mozygous woman. What is the probability
D. law of independent assortment that their son will be haemophilic?
146. What gamete possibilities could come A. 100%

from this parent’s genotype? A a B b B. 75%
A. AB, Ab, aB, ab C. 50%
B. AB, ab, aB, aB D. 0%

152. In some carnations, flower color exhibits B. Rb

codominance. When crosses, Red (R) and C. rB
white (W) flowers make speckled flowers

(RW) that show both colors.Complete a D. rb
cross between 2 speckled flowers and find
157. “The” means
the genotype ratio.
A. two
A. 0 RR:4 RW:0 WW
B. four
B. 2 RR:2 RW:0 WW
C. dead
C. 1 RR:2 RW:1 WW
D. hybrid
D. 0 RR:2 RW:2 WW
153. In some carnations, flower color exhibits 158. F2 generation is produced through
codominance. Identify the correct geno- A. Cross-breeding of F1 individuals
types for red, white, and speckled carna- B. Self-breeding of F1 individuals
tions.
C. Breeding of F1 individuals with domi-
A. Red = RR, white = rr, speckled = Rr nant parent
B. Red = RR, white = WW, speckled = D. Breeding of F1 individuals with reces-
rw sive parent
C. Red = RR, white = ww, Speckled =
Rw 159. What answer selection is genetic drift
that occurs after a small number of indi-
D. Red = RR, white = WW, speckled =
viduals colonize a new area? (from The
RW
Evolution of the Populations)
154. Which of these is genotypes is homozy- A. gene flow
gous dominant?
B. genetic drift
A. hh
C. bottleneck effect
B. Hh
D. founder effect
C. HH
160. What answer selection best describe the
D. none of above
changes in allele frequencies that are due
155. In a monohybrid cross in dogs, erect ears to chance? (from The Evolution of the Pop-
(E) dominates over droopy ears (e). What ulations)
are the results if two hybrid dogs have a A. gene flow
litter of puppies.
B. genetic drift
A. All erect ears
B. 1 erect ear:1 droppy ears
D. founder effect
C. 1 erect ears:3 droppy ears
D. 3 erect ears:1 droppy ears 161. Plant I (AaBbNnHh) X Plant II
(aaBbNNHh)Answer the next 4 questions
156. Using FOIL, what are the genotypes of for that cross.a. find the possible number
the gametes from this parent:RrBb. of phenotypes.
A. RB A. 2

B. 4 166. Widow’s peak is dominant over a

C. 6 straight hairline. What percent of off-
spring will have widow’s peak if we cross
D. 8 a father heterozygous for widow’s peak
and a mom with a straight hairline?
162. Black hair color is dominant to white hair
color in mice. Determine the phenotypic ra- A. 0%
tio for the offpring of a heterozygous black B. 25%
mouse and a white mouse.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 50%
A. 4 Black:0 White D. 75%
B. 3 Black:1 White
167. A white mouse with brown eyes is
C. 2 Black:2 White crossed with a black mouse with red eyes.
D. 0 Black:4 White The white mouse is recessive for both of
its traits. The black mouse is dominant for
163. In some carnations, flower color exhibits both of its traits.The best expression of
codominance. When crosses, Red (R) and this cross would be
white (W) flowers make speckled flowers A. BBRR x bbrr
(RW) that show both colors.Complete a
cross between A speckled flower and a red B. BBRr x BbRr
flower. Find the phenotype ratio. C. BbRR x BbRr
A. 2 red:2 speckled:0 white D. BBrr x BBRR
B. 4 red:0 speckled:0 white 168. In pea plants tall stems(T) are dominant
C. 0 red:4 speckled:0 white over short stems(t) and round seeds(R)
D. 0 red:2 speckled:2 white
sider the following cross:TtRr X TtrrNext
164. What answer selection best describes the 4 questions will be about this information.
international collaborative effort to map Please take notes.a. Find the number of
and sequence the DNA of the entire human possible phenotypes
genome? (From Evolution of Populations) A. 2
A. Genomics B. 4
B. Human Genome Project C. 6
C. Gene Pool D. 8
D. Allele Frequency 169. In tomatoes, tall vines (T) are dominant
E. Genotype Frequency to dwarf vines (t), and red fruit (R) is dom-
inant to yellow fruit (r).A farmer mates a
165. If a dominant allele is present, the trait homozygous tall, red tomato plant (TTRR)
will always appear in the organism. with a heterozygous tall, red tomato plant
(TtRr).What is the percent chance that the
offspring will be dwarf plants with yellow
B. Law of Dominance fruit?
C. Law of Independent Assortment A. 50%
D. none of above B. 0%

5.4 Non-Mendelian Genetics 415
C. 25% C. 3/4
D. 100% D. 3/8

170. A tomato plant has a genotype Wwgg. 174. If you have a parent who has GgBb as
Select all possible genetic combinations their genotype, what are the possible alle-
that could be present in a single grain of les they could donate to their gametes?
pollen from this plant. A. GB, Gb, gB, gb
A. Wg B. GB, GB, gb, gb
B. WwGg
C. Gb, Gb, Gb, GB
C. Wg, wg
D. GG, BB, gg, bb
D. Wg, wg, WG
175. Which of Mendel’s Principals states that
171. Crossfoliating (Gamets produced by no two genes should influence each others
crossing over) SsYy would be what? inheritance?
A. SY, Sy, sY, sy A. segregation
B. SY, SY, sy, sy B. independent assortment
C. Sy, Sy, Sy, Sy C. dominance
D. Sy, Sy, sY, sY D. none of above
172. Look at this cross:XBXb x XBY What 176. If R=Rough & r= smooth, then a rabbit
proportion of the male children are color- with genotype Rr would have what tex-
blind? ture of fur?
A. 100% A. Sooth
B. 75% B. Rough
C. 50% C. Wavy
D. 25% D. Straight
173. In mice black fur color (B) is dominant 177. A recessive gene can be expressed
over brown fur color(b).In a cross between (shown) if the genotype is
two heterozygous mice(Next 2 questions
will be about this information)a. what is A. homozygous
the probability of a black male mouse? B. heterozygous
A. 1/2 C. either
B. 1/4 D. none of these answers work
5.4 Non-Mendelian Genetics

1. W=white hairB= black hairIf you cross a A. sex linked
horse with WW and a horse with BB the B. co-dominance
resulting phenotypes could be white, gray,
or black. What pattern of inheritance is C. multiple alleles
shown here? D. incomplete dominance

2. When two alleles are expressed equally in 7. The study of heredity

a heterozygous individual and their pheno-
A. Heredology
type is a blend or mix of the homozygous
phenotypes B. Science
A. polygenic C. Genetics
B. incomplete dominance D. DNA
C. codominance
8. What percentage of the genotype AO is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. pleiotropy possible if Mom is AO and Dad is AO
3. when one allele is not completely domi- A. 100%
nant over the other-blending of two traits
B. 75%
A. Codominance
C. 50%
B. Complete dominance
D. 25%
C. incomplete dominance
D. none of these 9. When 2 alleles do not blend but are both
fully expressed (i.e. IAIB blood type), it is
4. occurs when the dominant and reces- called
sive traits are BLENDED in the heterozy-
gous genotype. A. Complete Dominance
A. Codominance B. Incomplete Dominance
B. Punnett squares C. Sex-Linked
C. Complete dominance D. Codominance
D. Incomplete dominance
10. Genetic make-up of an organism
5. The genetic make up(example AA) of a
A. Heterozygous
trait is
B. Genotype
A. phenotype
B. genotype C. Phenotype
C. alleles D. Homozygous
D. Punnett Square 11. Roan color in cattle is controlled by codom-
inant genes for both red (R) and white (W)
6. A white rabbit whose parents are both
hair. If a roan cow is crossed with a white
white produces only gray offspring when
bull, what percent of offspring would be
mated with a gray rabbit. What is the
white? Show your Punnett square on pa-
most likely genotype of the white rabbit
per. (3B3)
regarding coat color? (3B3)
A. Homozygous dominant A. 0%
B. Homozygous recessive B. 25%

C. Heterozygous C. 50%
D. Codominant D. 100%

12. Why is color blindness more common in 17. A diploid cell of a normal male human con-
males than in females? (3B3) tains

A. The allele for color blindness is reces- A. 22 autosomes and two Y-chromosomes.
sive and located on the X chromosome
B. Color blind males have two copies of B. 22 pairs of autosomes and two Y-
the allele for color blindness chromosomes.
C. The allele for color blindness is located C. 22 pairs of autosomes, one X and one
on the Y chromosome Y-chromosome
D. Fathers pass the allele for color blind- D. 22 autosomes and two X-
ness to their sons only chromosomes
13. If two checkered chicks (BW) are crossed, 18. What type of blood could the offspring of
what are the offspring? a woman with type A blood have with a
man with type AB blood?
A. 100% checkered
A. A and B
B. 50% white, 50% black
B. A, B, AB and O
C. 25% white, 50% checkered, 25% black
C. AB and O
D. 100% grey
D. A, B and AB
14. Homozygous is when
19. If a brown fur mouse crosses with a white
A. the alleles are the same
fur mouse, a brown and white spotted fur
B. the alleles are different mouse is an offspring possibility. This is
C. the alleles are absent an example of
D. the alleles are present A. incomplete dominance
B. codominance
15. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait
found on the x chromosome. Complete C. multiple alleles
a cross between a woman who has D. recessive alleles
hemophilia and a normal man.What are
the chances of a child having hemophilia? 20. What is Epistasis?
A. 100% A. When one set of genes overrides an-
other set
B. 75%
B. When when many genes are needed to
C. 50%
affect one trait
D. 25%
C. When one gene controls multiple ex-
16. A cross that involves a single inheritable pressions.
trait is called a cross D. Genes expressed based on hormones
A. dihybrid 21. What chromosome is affected by Down’s
B. test Syndrome?
C. monohybrid A. 23
D. mendelian B. 18

C. 13 27. Physical or observable appearance

D. 21 A. Heterozygous
22. The chemical factors that determine traits B. Genotype
are called C. Phenotype
A. alleles D. Homozygous
B. traits
28. Recessive alleles may not be expressed be-
C. genes cause they are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. characters A. masked by the dominant allele
23. The man who studied genetics and came up B. the least common allele in the popula-
with genetics is tion
A. Watson C. the most common allele in the popula-
tion
B. Crick
C. Mendel D. less likely to having crossing over
D. Darwin 29. This is when the dominant allele is not com-

pletely dominant over the recessive allele.
24. Blood types are an example of codomi- (A blend of the alleles will show)
nance and
A. Co-Dominance
B. Polygenetics
B. sex linked traits
C. Incomplete Dominance
C. multiple alleles
D. Epistasis
D. polygenics
30. Which of the following is not a polygenic
25. Genes located on the same chromosome
trait?
are called
A. skin and hair color
A. linked genes
B. eye color
B. codominant genes
C. height
C. inherited genes
D. colorblindness
D. epistatic genes
31. What causes roans?
26. Colorblindness is more common in males
than in females because the allele for col- A. Co-dominance
orblindness is B. Incomplete Dominance
A. dominant and located on the X chromo- C. Environmental Genes
some.
D. Epigenetics
B. recessive and located on the Y chromo-
some. 32. What is a possible phenotype of a child
C. recessive and located on the X chromo- that results from a woman with type AB
some. blood and a man with type A blood?
D. recessive and located on the Y chromo- A. ii

some. B. type O

C. IA IA B. homologs
D. type A C. gametes

33. One of the parents of a child has phenylke- D. autosomes
tonuria (PKU), which is caused by reces-
38. If Jerry is bald (XbY) and is wife is NOT
sive alleles. The other parent does not
a carrier (XBXB), what is the probability
have the PKU alleles. What is the chance
they will have a daughter who is a carrier
that the couple will have a child with
(heterozygous)?
phenylketonuria?
A. 0% A. 0%
B. 50% B. 25%
C. 75% C. 50%
D. 100% D. 100%
34. If a colorblind male marries a woman who 39. If a flower’s color pattern were inher-
is a carrier, what percentage of their FE- ited by codominance, then a purebred red
MALE children will be colorblind? flower and a purebred blue flower would
produce offspring that are
A. 0%
A. red and blue spots
B. 25%
C. 50% B. purple
D. 100% C. red, blue, and purple spots

D. red only
35. What do you call the non-Mendelian inher-
itance pattern where both traits are domi- E. blue only
nant and both appear in the organism with
40. Huntington’s Disease is a genetic disorder
heterozygous genotype?
in humans which is controlled by a domi-
A. Codominance nant gene. If one parent is heterozygous
B. Incomplete dominance for the trait and the other has normal al-
leles, what are their chances of having an
C. Polygenic traits
offspring with the disease?
D. none of above
A. 0%
36. The inheritance pattern that allows only B. 25%
one trait to show is called
C. 50%
A. complete dominance
D. 100%
B. co-dominance
C. incomplete dominance 41. which blood type is the universal donor (all
people can receive it)?
D. dominant trait
A. O
37. Chromosomes that do not involve genes
B. AB
that control sex characteristics are called
C. A
A. somatic D. B

42. Allison’s father was colorblind. She re- is crossed with a dragon that has small
alizes that she received his defective X- scales. What should be the ratio of large-
chromosome. However, she is not color scaled dragons to small-scaled dragons
blind. She is a what? among the offspring?
A. Carrier A. 1:2
B. Colorblind female B. 1:1
C. Non-carrier C. 2:1
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Incapable of seeing purple D. 3:1
48. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked
43. where a particular allele is located on a
trait. Which of the following is not usu-
chromosome
ally possible for red-green color blindness?
A. allele (3B3)
B. locus A. A carrier mother to pass the gene on
C. phenotype to her daughter
D. homologous B. A color blind father to pass the gene
on to his daughter
44. Chi-square analysis is used to C. A color blind father to pass the gene
A. modify a person’s DNA sequence on to the son
B. predict the likelihood of seeing a par- D. A carrier mother to pass the gene on
ticular trait in a person’s offspring to her son
C. determine if an experiment was good 49. In cows, red hair is codominant with white
or bad hair. A heterozygous cow will be the color
D. determine if results line up with predic- roan which means it would have
tions A. white hair
B. red hair
45. Which of the following is a hybrid?
C. red and white hair
A. BB
D. orange hair
B. bb
50. Determine the phenotypic ratio of the off-
C. Bb
spring for a tall plant (Tt) crossed with a
D. AB short plant (tt).
46. The probability that a human sperm cell A. 100% Tall
will carry a Y chromosome is: B. 50% Tall 50%short
A. 0% C. 50% Tt 50%tt
B. 25% D. 100% TT
C. 50% 51. Tail length in dogs is often determined
D. 100% by incomplete dominance. Pups of long-
tailed (TT) and short-tailed (SS) parents of-
47. In dragons, large scales (S) are dominant ten split the difference and have medium-
and small scales (s) are recessive. A length tails (TS). If we crossed two het-
dragon that is heterozygous for the trait erozygous dogs what is the probability

that the offspring would have long-length C. Top and Right

tails? D. Top and Bottom

A. 0%
57. PUNNETT SQUARE QUESTION:If a person
B. 25%
with Type AB blood has kids with some-
C. 50% one who is homozygous for Type A blood,
D. 75% what is the probability of the child having
Type O blood?
52. The genotype Rr is called
A. 0%
A. Homozygous
B. 25%
B. Heterozygous
C. 50%
C. recessive
D. 75%
D. none of above
E. 100%
53. Which is the genotype of a MALE with a
recessive sex-linked trait carried on the X 58. A homozygous dominant brown mouse is
chromosome? crossed with a heterozygous brown mouse
A. XDY (tan is the recessive color).
B. XDXD A. 100 % tan
C. XDYD B. 100 % brown
D. XdY C. 50 % brown and 50% tan
54. the 9:3:3:1 ratio will happen from the fol- D. 75 % brown and 25 % tan
lowing cross
59. According to Mendel, a cross between two
A. AAbb x AABB round, yellow peas (both with the geno-
B. AaBb X AaBb type Rr, Yy) would result in mostly
peas.
C. AaBB x Aabb
D. aaBB x AAbb A. round, blue
B. round, yellow
55. A white snapdragon and a red snapdragon
produce pink snapdragons when crossed. C. wrinkled, green
This is an example of D. wrinkled, yellow
A. pedigree
60. What is Sex Linkage?
B. multiple alleles
A. Genes carried on the X or Y chromo-
C. incomplete dominance
somes
D. codominance
B. Genes that are expressed based on
56. When drawing a Punnett square where do hormones
you put the parent’s genotypes? (M.Bio C. When one set of genes overrides an-
6.2 Lv2) other
A. Top and Left D. When a phenotype changes because it
B. Left and Bottom is exposed to an external stimuli

61. Which is the genotype of a male with a carries one gene for the disorder (XHXh).
dominant sex-linked trait carried on the X What are the chances that their first born
chromosome? son will have hemophilia? You need to
A. XDY work a Punnett square on paper. (3B3)
B. XDXD A. 0%
C. XDYD B. 50%
C. 75%
D. XdY
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. 100%
62. Having a pair of identical alleles
67. A man with type AB blood is married to
A. Heterozygous
a woman with type O blood. They have
B. Genotype two natural children and one adopted child.
C. Phenotype Jane has type A blood, Bobby has type B
blood, and Grace has type O blood. Which
D. Homozygous
child was adopted?
63. R = tongue rolling, r = no tongue rolling. A. Jane
An individual who is Rr can roll their B. Bobby
tongue. What type of inheritance pattern
does this follow? C. Grace
A. Complete Dominance D. none of above
B. Incomplete Dominance 68. Pea plants can have green or yellow seeds.
C. Co-Dominance In a pea plant that is heterozygous for
seed color, the allele for yellow seeds
D. Sex-linked masks the effects of the allele of green
64. In mice, the homozygous mice are black seeds. Which of the following terms best
and white. The heterozygous mice are describes the allele for yellow seeds?
gray. What pattern of inheritance is this? A. codominant
A. complete dominance B. recessive
B. codominance C. dominant
C. incomplete dominance D. sex-linked
D. sex-linked trait 69. A parent with the alleles IAIB could pro-
duce offspring with which types of blood?
65. What is it called when two traits are
blended? A. Type A
A. Co-dominance B. Type B
B. Incomplete Dominance C. Type AB
C. Pedigree D. Type A, Type B, or Type AB
D. Sex-linked 70. A man who has a sex-linked allele will
pass it on to
66. Hemophilia, a bleeding disorder, is a
human sex-linked trait. A man with A. all his daughters
hemophilia (XhY) marries a woman who B. all his sons

C. 1/2 of his daughters 75. Which trait affects hair color and eye
D. 1/2 of his sons color?

A. Incomplete Dominance
71. Genetic cross
B. Polygenic Traits
A. the sequence of DNA that codes for a
protein and thus determines a trait. C. Pleiotropy
B. the mating of two organisms to pro- D. Epigenetics
duce offspring
76. Which of these is the genotype for a poly-
C. the scientific study of heredity genic trait with multiple alleles?
D. the passing on of physical or mental
A. AA
characteristics genetically from one gen-
eration to another. B. AaAaAAaa
72. A longhair cat (LL) is crossed with a short- C. AaBbCcDD

hair cat (L’L’) resulting in medium length D. hair color
hair (LL’) in ALL offspring. If a cat with
medium length hair (LL’) is crossed with a 77. A trait for snapdragon flower color is con-
longhair (LL) cat, what percentage of the trolled by incomplete dominance. A snap-
offspring can be predicted to have short dragon plant with red flowers is crossed
hair (L’L’)? Show your Punnett square on with a snapdragon plant with white flow-
paper. (3B3) ers. What percent of the offspring will
have pink flowers? Show your work on
A. 0%
you paper. (3B3)
B. 25%
A. 0%
C. 50%
B. 25%
D. 100%
C. 50%
73. A family of five daughters is expecting a
D. 100%
sixth. The chance of its being a son is
percentage. 78. The likely cause of genetic disorders is
A. Zero A. Nondisjunction
B. 25
B. Overfertilization
C. 50
C. Uncontrolled Meiosis
D. 100
D. Translocation
74. If the offspring of two orange salaman-
ders included yellow, red, and orange indi- 79. What is it called when many genes deter-
viduals, what mode of inheritance is that? mine a single trait?
A. Complete Dominance A. pleiotropic
B. Incomplete Dominance B. polygenic
C. Codominance C. co-dominant
D. Multiple Alleles D. that’s not possible

80. the passing of genetic traits from parent 85. An individual’s blood type is determined
to offspring. by
A. heredity A. environment
B. trait B. genetics
C. gene C. both environment and genetics
D. your children’s blood type
D. allele
86. What is incomplete dominance?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
81. PUNNETT SQUARE QUESTION:What is the
probability of a person who is Type O A. When one gene controls multiple ex-
blood and a person who is Type AB blood pressions
having a kid who is Type A Blood? B. A blending of traits
A. 0% C. An expression of both alleles
B. 25% D. One set of genes overrides a different
set of genes
C. 50%
D. 75% 87. PKU is a gene that winds up control-
ling multiple phenotypes such as tremors,
E. 100% stunted growth, seizures, and eczema.
This is an example of
82. What is it called when both traits are ex-
pressed and neither allele is dominant? A. epistasis
B. pleiotropy
C. sex-linked
B. Codominance
D. multiple alleles
C. Pedigree
88. Which trait can cause pattern baldness?
D. Heterozygous
A. Polygenic Traits
83. What is the phenotype of a person with B. Sex Linkage
the genotype AO?
C. Co-Dominance
A. type A
D. Sex Influenced
B. type O
89. How is colorblindness inherited and what
C. AA would be a colorblind male’s genotype?
D. OO A. x-linked recessive; Xhy
84. Show the cross between two circle-star B. autosomal recessive; hh
eyed. How many of the offspring are C. autosomal dominant; HH or Hh
circle-eyed? (a)
D. x-linked dominant; XHy
A. 1
90. Genes located on the same chromosome
B. 3 are called
C. 4 A. linked genes
D. 2 B. codominant genes

C. inherited genes 96. What is the percent probability of a sin-

D. epistatic genes gle male sperm cell containing an Y chro-
mosome?

91. Males are more likely to suffer from a sex- A. 25%
linked disease or disorder because B. 50%
A. males are the weaker sex C. 100%
B. males have less DNA D. 0%
C. males have 1 X chromosome, so the 97. Do the punnett square in your head:If a
disorder is more likely to be expressed man who is colorblind (XbY) marries a
D. none of above woman who who has no history of color-
blindness in her family, what is the chance
92. The passing of traits from one generation they would have a color blind child?
to the next is called
A. 0
A. genetics B. 100
B. heredity C. 50
C. a monohybrid cross D. 75
D. DNA synthesis 98. A new species of tulip was recently dis-
covered. A population of pure red tulips
93. When the heterozygous condition results
was crossed with a population of pure blue
in both the traits being displayed together,
tulips. The resulting F1 generation was all
this is called:
purple. This result is an example of which
A. Incomplete dominance of the following?
B. Codominance A. Complete dominance
C. X-Linked B. Incomplete dominance
D. Hybridizing C. Co-dominance
D. Linkage
94. WHEN THE SPERM FERTILIZES THE EGG
WHAT IS FORMED 99. Eye color is coded for with two genes.
What type of inheritance is represented
A. ZYGOTE
here.
B. EMBRYO
C. FETUS B. Polygenic
D. FERTILIZATION C. Multiple Alleles
95. For an XX female to express a recessive D. Sex Linked
sex-linked trait, she must have 100. Blood type is determined by alleles
A. two recessive alleles A. One
B. a Y chromosome B. Two
C. one recessive allele C. Multiple
D. two dominant alleles D. none of above

101. inheritance pattern:multiple genes that C. codominance and multiple alleles

affect the same trait.
D. incomplete dominance and codomi-
A. polygenic inheritance nance
B. pleiotropy
107. testing of two traits is called
C. camptodatyly
A. testcross
D. epistasis
B. dihybrid cross
102. When the expression of a trait is con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
trolled by multiple alleles this is called? C. mutation
A. Epistasis D. monohybrid cross
B. Multiple Genes
108. An example of a trait determined by
C. Multiple Alleles many alleles is
D. Multiple DNA A. baldness
103. If a father is IA IA and a mother is IA IB, B. ABO Blood types
what is the probability for a child with AB
blood type? C. foot size
A. 0% D. gender
B. 25% 109. Rhododendrons exhibit codominance. In
C. 50% the case of rhododendrons, the crossing of
D. 75% a red and white flower may yield a flower
that has both red and white patches (het-
104. This is when a trait is controlled by more erozygous). If a red flower were to cross
than one gene. with a heterozygous flower, what would
A. Multiple alleles the probability of producing a red flower
be?
B. Polygenetic inheritance
A. 0%
C. Codominance
D. Incomplete Dominance B. 25%
C. 50%
105. If a trait shows up more commonly in men
than women it is probably D. 75%
A. not inherited
110. Rh factors are complete dominant trait.
B. on the x chromosome and dominant If a person has at least 1 Rh allele, the per-
C. on the x chromosome and recessive son is Rh positive. Using D for genotype,
what is the genotype of a person who is
D. on a normal body chromosome
negative for Rh factor?
106. Which term(s) best describes the inheri- A. dd
tance of human blood types?
B. DD
A. incomplete dominance and multiple al-
leles C. Dd
B. codominance and epistasis D. Rh

111. A normal male has 116. A woman with type AB blood marries
A. one x only a man with type O blood. Their children
could have which of the following blood

B. two y chromosomes types? Select all that apply. Show your
C. two x chromosomes Punnett square on paper. (3B3)
D. one x and one y chromosomes A. Type A
112. an example of polygenic inheritance is B. Type B
C. Type AB
A. height
D. Type O
B. hitch hikers thumb
C. blood types 117. A mutation involving an extra copy of a
D. none of above chromosome is caused by
113. Which is true of a normal human male? A. non-disjunction

(3B3) B. crossing over
A. He has only one sex chromosome
C. tetrads
B. He has two X chromosomes
D. mitosis
C. He has two Y chromosomes
D. He has one X chromosome and one Y 118. Hemophilia is a x-linked recessive
chromosome trait. Complete a cross between a
woman who has hemophilia and a nor-
114. Show the cross of a female black cat,
mal man.What are the chances of a child
with a male orange cat. What percentage
having hemophilia?
of the kittens will be calico and female?
(a) A. 100%
A. 50% B. 75%
B. black
C. 50%
C. orange
D. 25%
D. calico
E. 0% 119. In humans, if a non-disjunction event
F. 25% leads to an individual that is XXY, they
would
115. What type of inheritance is determined
by multiple genes located at different loci A. be female because they have 2 X chro-
on different chromosomes and it affects a mosomes
single trait? B. be male because they have a Y chromo-
A. Codominance some
B. Incomplete Dominance C. not survive
C. Polygenic D. have both male and female character-
D. Epistasis istics

120. A cross between a blue insect and a yel- B. Sperm Cell

low insect produced a blue and yellow C. Both of these
striped offspring. Which type of inheri-
tance would this be an example of? D. None of these
A. codominance 125. is the study of the inheritance of

B. incomplete dominance traits and their variations.
C. multiple alleles A. Heredity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. polygenic characteristics B. Evolution
C. Disruptive Selection
121. The physical expression of a trait is the
D. Genetics
A. phenotype
126. Which inheritance pattern is character-
B. genotype
ized by heterozygotes displaying both al-
C. Punnett Square lelic phenotypes at the same time?
D. alleles A. Multiple alleles
122. In humans, certain conditions like color B. Codominance
blindness and hemophilia affect males C. Incomplete dominance
more than they affect females. Why are
D. Polygenic traits
more males affected than females in some
disorders? 127. A woman has type B blood and her hus-
A. The disorders are dominant band has type O blood. What must be the
woman’s genotype, if they have a child
B. The disorders are the result of codom-
with type O blood?
inance
A. BO
C. The disorders are the result of incom-
plete dominance B. BB
D. The disorders are sex-linked C. OO
D. type B
123. In some carnations, flower color exhibits
codominance. When crossed, red (RR) and 128. What is the diploid number in human
white (WW) flowers make speckled flow- cells?
ers (RW) that show both colors.Complete
A. 2
a cross between a speckled flower and a
red flower. What would be the phenotypic B. 23
ratio of thier offspring? C. 46
A. 1 red:1 speckled D. 92
B. 4 red:0 speckled 129. Skin color, height and eye color are ex-
C. 4 speckled:0 white amples of:
D. 1 speckled:1 white A. Polygenic Traits
124. Which of the following would be consid- B. Epistasis
ered a Gamete cell? C. X-Chromosome Inactivation
A. Egg Cell D. X-linked traits (same as sex-linked)

130. Brown eyes is dominant to blue. Two 135. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait.
brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. The allele for normal blood clotting is (XH)
What is the chance the baby is blue eyed? and inability to blood clot is (Xn). A female

that can clot blood and is not carrying the
A. 0 %
recessive allele has a child with a man with
B. 25% hemophilia. What would the probability of
C. 50% having a male that cannot clot their blood.
D. 75% A. 100%
B. 0%
131. How many different gamete combi-
C. 50%
nations are possible with the geno-
type:AaBbCcDD D. 25%
A. 8 136. Mendel’s law of independent assortment
B. 6 is least likely to be observed for (3B3)
C. 10 A. Genes on different chromosomes
D. 4 B. Genes that are located close together

on the same chromosome
132. When pure breeding red cows (RR) are C. Genes that are located far apart
bred with pure breeding white cows
D. Genes that are located on sex chromo-
(WW), the offsprings are roan (a pink-
somes
ish coat color) (RW). Based on the phe-
notype of the offsprings produced, is this 137. How much of your DNA do you inherit
Mendelian or Non-mendelian? from your mom?
A. Mendelian A. 10%
B. Non-mendelian B. 25%
C. Both Mendelian and Non-mendelian C. 50%
D. Cannot be determined D. it varies
133. One gene can affect different characteris- 138. A snapdragon is red, white, or pink. This
tics or traits. inheritance pattern is
A. Incomplete Dominance A. Mendelian genetics.

B. incomplete dominance.
B. Codominance
C. codominance.
C. Multiple Alleles
D. sex-linked inheritance.
D. Pleiotropy
139. The passing of traits from parents to off-
134. What are the gametes for BbDd? spring is called
A. B, b, D, d A. probability
B. BD, bD, Bd, bd B. heredity
C. BD, BD, Bd, bd C. pedigree
D. bD, bD, bd, bd D. allele

140. Which best describes epistasis? hemophilia. What percentage of their

A. An allele that changes the genotype of daughters will have hemophilia?
another allele A. 0%
B. A gene that changes the genotype of B. 25%
another gene C. 50%
C. An allele that controls or masks the ex- D. 100%
pression of another allele
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. A gene that controls or masks the ex- 145. Circumstance where the expression of
pression of another gene one gene is affected by the expression of
one or more independently inherited genes
141. Which is a characteristic of heredity? A. epigenetics
A. behaviors taught to parents by off- B. epistasis
spring
C. epigenome
B. behaviors taught to offspring by par-
ents D. enzyme
C. passing of physical characteristics 146. A person who codes for a trait but it is
from parents to offspring not expressed is called
D. passing of physical characteristics A. Epistasis
from offspring to parents B. Heterozygous
142. What are Sex Influenced traits? C. Carrier
A. When genes are expressed based on D. Homozygous
hormones
147. Homozygous Dominant
B. When a trait is carried on the X or Y
chromosome A. Gg
C. When one gene controls multiple ex- B. ff

pressions C. DD
D. When there is an expression of both al- D. Hh
leles
148. In labs, black is dominant to brown. An
143. Height in Pea Plants follows the patter of epistatic gene causes some offspring to be
incomplete dominance. Two heterozygous yellow. Which genotype represents an off-
(Tt) tall pea plants are crossed. Which de- spring with the epistatic gene present?
scribes their offspring? A. Bbee
A. 50% tall and 50% short B. BBEE
B. 25%tall, 50% medium, and 25% short C. bbEE
C. 100%short D. bbEe
D. none of above
149. If the parents of a cross are AaBcCc x
144. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive dis- aaBBcc. What is the probability of an off-
order. A woman with hemophilia mar- spring that is homozygous recessive for all
ries an unaffected man whose father had 3 traits?

A. 1/64 B. An orange cat and a black cat produce

B. 1/32 an orange-and-black kitten.

C. 1/8 C. A blue-eyed man and a brown-eyed
woman produce a blue-eyed child.
D. 0
D. A color-blind woman and a man with
150. When the heterozygous condition pro- normal vision produce a color-blind son.
duces a blend of the two possible traits,
this is called: 155. What are the 4 possible phenotypes for
human blood type?
A. Incomplete dominance
A. Type A
B. Codominance
B. Type B
C. X-Linked
C. Type BB
D. Hybridizing
D. Type AB
151. Linkage of chromosomes can be disrupted E. Type O
by
A. crossing over 156. Coat color in labs is an example of:
B. epistasis A. Polygenic Traits
C. codominance B. Epistasis
D. meiosis C. X-Chromosome Inactivation

D. X-linked traits (same as sex-linked)
152. Blood types are an example of codomi-
nance and 157. Which of the following refers to a com-
A. incomplete dominance plete dominant cross (Mendelian genet-
ics)?
B. sex linked traits
A. One allele completely dominates over
C. multiple alleles the other.
D. polygenics B. The two alleles are equally seen in the
heterozygous genotype.
153. People with Type AB blood have two
dominant alleles, IA and IB. Since the C. The two alleles are blended in the het-
two alleles are equally dominant, they are erozygous genotype.
called D. Neither allele is seen in the pheno-
A. multiple alleles types.
B. incomplete alleles 158. In AaBb, the fact that the four gamete
C. codominant alleles possibilities are AB, Ab, aB, and ab shows
what?
D. sex linked alleles
codominance in genetic traits? B. Law of Independent Assortment
A. A tall pea plant and a short pea plant C. Law of Inheritance

produce tall pea plants. D. Law of Multiple Alleles

159. Cross:TtCc * TTccWhat % F1 will be 164. W=white hairB= black hairIf you cross
TTCc? a horse with WW and a horse with BB
what fraction of the offspring would be ex-
A. 1/4
pected to have gray hair?
B. 1/2
A. none
C. 1/8 B. 3/4
D. 1/16 C. 1/2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
160. When the heterozygous phenotype dis- D. all
plays properties of both the phenotypes
165. If a red snapdragon (RR) is crossed with
at the same time, this is called?
a white snapdragon (WW) the offspring
A. Domiance will be:
B. Multi-Dominace A. pink
C. Incomplete Dominace B. red
D. Co-Dominance C. white
D. white with red spots
161. What did Gregor Mendel’s primary ex-
periment consist of? 166. A dad who is heterozygous for type B
blood has a child with a woman who is het-
A. Peas
erozygous for type A blood. What are the
B. Flowers possible offsprings genotypes?
C. Beans A. IAIB
D. Tomatoes B. IAIA, IBIB
C. IAIB, IBi, IAi, ii
162. A breed of chicken shows incomplete
dominance for feather color. One domi- D. IAIB, IBi, IAi
nant allele codes for black feathers, an-
167. What is the result of meiosis?
other dominant allele codes for white
feathers. The feathers of heterozygous A. 2 daughter cells that are haploid and
chickens of this breed will be genetically different
A. all black B. 2 daughter cells that are haploid &
identical
B. all white
C. 4 daughter cells that are diploid & ge-
C. all gray netically different
D. speckled black and white D. 4 daughter cells that are haploid & ge-
netically different
163. which is homozygous dominant?
A. Aa 168. phenotypic ratio from Aa x Aa if incom-
plete dominance is the inheritance pattern
B. ff
C. BB A. 3:1
D. Corbyn B. 1:2:1

C. 1:1 B. female with red eyes

D. 9:3:3:1 C. male with red eyes

169. Sickle cell heterozygote advantage is as- D. female with white eyes
sociated with which disease? 174. A person who has an A allele and a B al-
A. Cholera lele (IAIB) is blood type AB. This is an ex-
B. Dysentery ample of
C. Malaria A. codominance
D. Tuberculosis B. incomplete dominance
E. Cystic fibrosis C. mendelian genetics

D. DNA fingerprinting
170. The type of inheritance shown when
a red-flowered plant is crossed with a 175. In cattle, coat color is controlled by
white-flowered plant and only pink flow- codominance. If we cross a homozygous
ers are produced is red parent with a homozygous white par-
A. inbreeding ent what would the phenotypes be?
B. incomplete dominance A. White
C. polygenic inheritance B. Roan
D. multiple alleles C. Red

D. Tan
171. Two rabbits with brown eyes have one
out of four offspring with pink eyes. 176. Hemophilia is more common in males than
Which of the following is most likely con- in females because
cerning pink eye color? (3B3)
A. fathers can only pass the allele for
A. It is recessive hemophilia to their sons
B. It is dominant B. mothers cannot pass the allele for
C. it is codominant hemophilia to their daughters
D. It is sex-linked C. the allele for hemophilia is dominant

and located on the Y chromosome
172. How many alleles (options/letters) are D. the allele for hemophilia is recessive
there for blood types? and located on the X chromosome
A. 3
177. In mice, the homozygous mice are black
B. 4 and white. The heterozygous mice are
C. 2 gray. What pattern of inheritance is ex-
D. 1 pressed in fur color in mice?
A. complete dominance and recessive-
173. In fruit flies, eye color is a sex linked trait. ness
Red (R) is dominant to white (r). What is
the sex and eye color of flies with the fol- B. co-dominance
lowing genotype:X R X r? C. incomplete dominance
A. male with white eyes D. pleiotropy

178. Traits that do not behave as solely domi- 183. A rabbit with white fur was crossed with
nant or recessive are called: a rabbit with black fur. The cross produced
A. Non-Mendelian Traits offspring with black and white fur. This
type of inheritance is known as
B. X-Linked Traits
A. dihybrid recessive
C. Homozygous
D. Mutations B. dominance
C. codominance
179. A mother and father both have AB blood
NARAYAN CHANGDER
types. What is the probability that their D. multiple alleles
children will have a blood type of A? Work
a Punnett square on paper? ( 3B3) 184. If a father is AA and a mother is AB,
what is the probability for a child with AB
A. 75%
blood?
B. 0%
A. 0%
C. 25%
B. 25%
D. 50%
C. 50%
180. Which would be considered a somatic
cell? D. 75%
A. Sperm cell 185. what is the term for the expression of al-
B. Egg Cell leles at one location that have effects on
C. Skin Cell two or more traits?
D. All of these A. pleiotropy
181. Which of the following is a true state- B. multiple alleles

ment about gametes? C. epistasis
A. In humans, there are 22 pair of auto- D. codominance
somes in a gamete.
B. Gametes have a diploid number of 186. Which of the following genotypes code
chromosomes. for the blood type AB?
C. Gametes are body cells A. AA and AB
D. none of above B. AB only
182. Spruce trees can have different colored C. AB and BO
reproductive cones. Trees with green
D. OO only
cones can be crossed with trees with red
cones. If these trees followed a codomi-
187. A gene that is found on the X or Y chro-
nant pattern of inheritance, what pheno-
mosome is called a(n)
type would you expect? (3B3)
A. codominant gene
A. Offspring with red cones
B. Offspring with green cones B. autosomal gene
C. Offspring with orange cones C. somatic gene
D. Offspring with red and green cones D. sex-linked gene

188. polygenic means that control a char- 193. A baby has type AB blood. What could
acteristic the genotypes of the baby’s parents be?

A. many genes A. IAi x ii
B. single genes B. IBIB x IBIB
C. 3 genes C. IAIA x IBi
D. no genes D. ii x ii
189. In plants known as “four o’clocks”, the 194. What genotypes could a person with
allele for red-flowers is incompletely dom- Type A blood have?
inant over the allele for white-flowers.
A. IAIA or IAi
What percent of the offspring would you
expect to be pink in a cross between one B. IAIA or IAIB
white flower and one pink flower? C. IAIA only
A. 0% D. IAi only
B. 25%
195. A woman with type A blood is claiming
C. 50% that a man with type AB blood is the father
D. 100% of her child who is type B. Assuming that
he is the father what must the mother’s
190. A personal with type AB blood has which
genotype be?
genotype?
A. AA
A. type A
B. AO
B. AA
C. AB
C. IAIA
D. BB
D. IAIB
191. if a person has an A phenotype what 196. Type of trait that is controlled by MANY
could be the genotype genes at once. Many genes will ‘con-
tribute’ to one phenotype.
A. AA
A. Multiple Allele Trait
B. BO
B. Polygenic Trait
C. AO
C. Monogenic Trait
D. OO
D. Co-Dominant Trait
192. A woman with heterozygous type A
blood (IAi) marries a man with type AB 197. In cats Red hair (R) is incompletely dom-
blood (IAIB). Their children could have inant to white hair (W). A heterozygote
which of the following blood types? Select (RW) has blue hair. Cross a heterozygous
all that apply. Show your punnett square cat with a white cat. What percentage will
on you paper. (3B3) be have blue hair?
A. Type A A. 0%
B. Type B B. 25%
C. Type AB C. 50%
D. Type O D. 75%

198. What is the genotype for a person with 203. If butterflies can have straight or curly
heterozygous type B blood? antennae, and curly is recessive; what is
A. BB the possibility (using %’age) that a pure
breeding straight is crossed with a hybrid
B. BO straight, will have offspring with straight
C. ii antennae?
D. AB A. 25%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
199. Hemophilia (Xh) is a sex-linked trait B. 50%
in humans. If a son born to a couple C. 75%
has hemophilia but neither parent has
hemophilia, what are the probable geno- D. 100%
types of the parents?
204. A father is heterozygous for his type A
A. XHXh and XHY blood and a mother is heterozygous for her
B. XhXh and XHY type B blood. What percentage of their
C. XhXh and XhY offspring would you expect to have?
D. XHXH and XhY A. 50% all blood types

B. 25% Type A, 50% Type B, 25% Type O
200. In humans, red-green color blindness (Xb)
is recessive and normal color vision (XB) C. 50% Type A, 50% Type B
is dominant. A female with red-green
D. Type A 25%, Type B 25%, Type AB 25%,
color blindness would have which geno-
Type O 25%
type? (3B3)
A. XBXb 205. The phenotype is the
B. XbXb A. physical appearance of an organism
C. XbYb B. Genetic makeup
D. XBYb
C. Alleles acquired from a specific par-
201. What is a picture used to examine chro- ent.
mosomes called? D. what is found only in gametes
A. Sonogram
206. A black chicken and a white chicken mate
B. Electrocardiogram
to produce 10 speckled chickens. Which
C. X-Ray pattern of inheritance is being followed in
D. Karyotype these chickens with respect to its feather
color gene?
202. Which two genotypes would have the
same blood type?
A. IAIA and IAi B. Codominance
B. IBIB and IAIB C. Complete dominance

C. IBi and ii D. Polygenic inheritance
D. IAIA and IAIB E. Multiple Alleles

207. A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with 211. blood type uses what type(s) of inheri-
a White flowered plant (WW). The gene tance?
for petal color in these plants expresses

incomplete dominance. What percentage
of the offspring will have pink (RW) flow- B. codominance
ers? C. multiple alleles
A. 0% D. codominance and multiple alleles
B. 25% 212. Which of the following are genotypes for
C. 50% blood type B?
D. 100% A. IA IA and IA IB
B. IB IB and ii
208. What is Pleiotropy?
C. IB IB and IB i
A. When a gene is characterized by a D. IA IB and IA IB
blending of traits
213. Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the for-
B. When many genes are needed to affect
mation of
one trait
A. 4, genetically identical diploid cells.
C. Genes expressed based on hormones
B. 4, genetically different haploid cells
D. When one gene controls multiple ex-
pressions C. 4, genetically different diploid cells
D. 4, genetically identical haploid cells.
209. Tail length in dogs is often determined
by incomplete dominance. Pups of long- 214. Which term is correctly matched with the
tailed (TT) and short-tailed (SS) parents of- description?
ten split the difference and have medium- A. Co-dominance occurs when two traits
length tails (TS). If we crossed two het- blend together to form a new phenotype.
erozygous dogs what is the probability
B. Human skin color is an example of
that the offspring would have medium-
codominant trait.
length tails?
C. Incomplete dominance occurs when
A. 0% traits blend producing a third phenotype.
B. 25% D. Human blood type is not an example of
C. 50% multiple alleles.
D. 75% 215. If a woman is a carrier for a sex linked
recessive trait of hemophilia and her hus-
210. A dad who is heterozygous for type B band has hemophilia, which of the follow-
blood has a child with a woman who is het- ing is true? Make a punnett square!
erozygous for type A blood. What % will
have bloodtype AB? A. All sons will have hemophilia
B. all daughters will have hemophilia
A. 0%
C. 50% of daughters and 50% of sons
B. 25%
have hemophilia
C. 50% D. 100% of sons have hemophilia and
D. 100% 100% of daughters are carriers

216. What are the 2 possible genotypes for a 221. Cross a Homozygous Round, Homozy-
person with Type A blood? gous Yellow Plant with a Homozygous
Wrinkled, Homozygous green plantR =
A. AA
round seeds, r = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow
B. AO seeds, y = green seedsWhat is the proba-
C. ii bility for an offspring to have Round and
Yellow seeds?
D. AB
A. 0%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
217. This is when multiple genes code for a sin- B. 25%
gle trait C. 50%
A. Polygenic D. 100%
B. Pleiotropy 222. Males are more likely to inherit a sex
C. Linked genes linked trait?
D. Codominant genes A. True, because they only receive one X
chromosome
218. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive B. False, because they only recieve one X
disorder. If the daughter of a couple is col- chromosome
orblind, what are the two possible geno-
C. True, because they receive two X chro-
types of her mother?
mosomes
A. XAXA and XAXa
D. False, because they receive two X
B. XAXA and XaXa chromosomes.
C. XAXa and XaXa 223. If two parents have type AB blood, what
D. Cannot be determined is the probability that their child will have
type O blood?
219. In an incomplete dominant cross, r codes A. 0%
for red flowers and w codes for white
B. 25%
flowers. Which genotype will show white
flowers in the phenotype? C. 50%
A. rr D. 100%
B. rw 224. What is it called when neither allele is

dominant and two traits are blended?
C. ww
A. Co-dominance
D. rw and ww
B. Incomplete Dominance
220. Having one dominant and one recessive C. Pedigree
allele-
D. Sex-linked
A. Heterozygous
225. A normal human karyotype has chro-
B. Genotype mosomes.
C. Phenotype A. 22
D. Homozygous B. 23

C. 43 231. A breed of new crow shows incomplete

D. 46 dominance for feather color. One domi-
nant allele codes for black feathers, an-

226. A woman is heterozygous for blood type other dominant allele codes for white
A and a male is homozygous for blood type feathers. The feathers of heterozygous
B-what blood types are possible in their new crows will be
children?
A. all black
A. A, B, AB, and O
B. A, B, and AB B. all white
C. AB and B C. all gray

D. Just B D. speckled black and white
227. Each box in a Punnett represents what?
(M.Bio 6.2 Lv2) 232. A female guinea pig homozygous domi-
nant for black fur color is mated with a
A. Parent genotype male homozygous for white fur color. In a
B. Possible offspring genotype litter of eight offspring, probability would
C. Random letters predict there would be
D. What a parent wants for their child A. 8 black guinea pigs
228. which inheritance pattern has one gene B. 4 black and 4 white guinea pigs
pair influencing another?
C. 2 black, 4 gray, and 2 white guinea pigs
A. codominance
D. 8 white guinea pigs
B. incomplete dominance
C. epistasis 233. Traits for which there are more than 2
D. pleiotropy possible alleles, such as human blood type,
are examples of:
229. Snap dragon color is a incomplete domi-
nant trait. A red flower (RR) is crossed A. Polygenic
with white flower (rr)? What color are
B. Multiple alleles
flowers that are Rr?
A. Red C. Codominant
B. Red and White D. Incomplete dominance
C. White
234. Hemophilia is an example of what type
D. Pink
of disorder?
230. Hemophilia is a x-linked disorder. A
A. Disorder caused by a dominant gene
woman is a carrier for the disorder. Which
is the correct genotype? B. Disorder inherited only from the
A. Hh mother
B. XHXh C. X-linked recessive disorder
C. hh D. Disorder with genes located on the Y
D. XhXh chromosome

235. Traits such as height and hair color vary 240. A male alligator has the genotype RrAa.
greatly. Such traits are known as: If this alligator mates with a female with
A. Polygenic traits genotype RrAa, what is the chance their
offspring will have the genotype rrAa?
B. Multiple alleles
A. 1/2
C. Incomplete dominance
B. 1/4
D. Co-dominant traits
C. 1/6
NARAYAN CHANGDER
236. is when BOTH the dominant trait and D. 1/8
recessive trait are seen in the phenotype.
241. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive
A. Codominance
disorder. A normal woman whose father
B. Punnett squares was colorblind marries a man with nor-
C. Complete dominance mal color vision. What percentage of their
sons will be colorblind?
D. Incomplete dominance
A. 0%
237. In plants known as “four o’clocks”, the B. 25%
allele for red-flowers is incompletely dom-
C. 50%
inant over the allele for white-flowers.
What would a heterozygous four o’clock D. 100%
look like?
242. The 23rd pair of chromosomes that differ
A. Red in males and females are called
B. White A. autosomes
C. Pink B. sex chromosomes
D. Red with white stripes C. multiple alleles
238. If you cross a roan cow with a red cow, D. polygenic
what is the chance you will produce a 243. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait.
red cow? HINT:What does “roan” mean The allele for normal blood clotting is (XH)
again? and inability to blood clot is (Xn). A female
A. 0% that can clot blood and is not carrying the
B. 25% recessive allele has a child with a man with
hemophilia. What would the probability of
C. 50% having a female that can clot their blood.
D. 75% A. 100%
E. 100% B. 0%
239. How many alleles does an individual C. 50%
have for each trait? D. 25%
A. 1
244. What law states that in Tt the person will
B. 2 only show the dominant allele
C. 3 A. law of segregation
D. 4 B. law of independent assortment

C. law of dominance 250. In snap dragon flowers, when red flow-

D. law of punnett squares ers and white flowers are crossed, the het-
erozygous offspring are pink. What type

245. A Punnett Square will show of inheritance pattern?
A. Possible results of a genetic cross A. sex-linked inheritance
B. The gamete alleles for each parent B. complete dominance
C. The genotypes of the offspring of a C. codominance
cross
D. incomplete dominance
D. All of these
251. Polygenic traits are influenced by
246. What type of inheritance is determined
by multiple genes located on different chro- A. several genes
mosomes and there can be a range of pos- B. both by the environment and by genes
sible traits? Ex:Eye Color
C. linked genes
A. Codominance
D. codominant genes
B. Incomplete dominance
C. Polygenic traits 252. Which of the following is always true of
linked genes? (3B3)
D. none of above
A. They assort independently
247. A plant shows incomplete dominance in
size. A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a B. They are never separated
medium plant (TS). What fraction of plants C. They are always recessive
will also be tall?
D. They are on the same chromosomes
A. 100 %
253. What are the results of FOIL for this
B. 75%
genotype:AaBB
C. 50%
A. AB, Ab, aB, ab
D. 25%
B. AB, AB, aB, aB
248. units of information about specific traits
C. Ab, AB, Ab, AB
A. alleles
D. AB, AB, AB, aB
B. genes
C. recessive alleles 254. In humans, hemophilia is an X-linked re-
cessive trait. If a man and a woman have
D. genotype a son who is affected with hemophilia,
249. Which of the following statements best which of the following is definitely true?
explains why more human males are af- A. The mother carries an allele for
fected with color blindness than human fe- hemophilia
males? (3B3)
B. The father carries an allele for
A. It is an inherited gene hemophilia
B. It is a dominant gene C. The father is afflicted with hemophilia
C. It is a recessive gene D. both parents carry an allele for
D. It is a sex-linked gene hemophilia

255. Phenylketonuria is an inherited disease C. AB

caused by a recessive allele. If a woman D. O
and her husband are both carriers, what
is the probability that their first child will 260. What gametes can be made from this
have the disease? genotype:AaBb
A. 25% A. AB, Ab, aB, ab
B. 50% B. Aa, Bb, ab, AB
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 75% C. A, a, B, b
D. 0% D. Ab, ab, AB, ab
256. color blindness is an X-linked recessive 261. The tail length for cats can be long,
trait. A color-blind woman and a color- medium, and short. This must be a
blind man have a son. What is the prob- A. codominant trait.
ability that the son is also color-blind?
B. incomplete dominant trait.
A. 0%
C. sex linked trait.
B. 25%
D. none of above
C. 50%
D. 100% 262. Height and skin color are examples of
257. Green pod color (G) is dominant over yel-
low pod color (g) in pea plants. Determine B. codominance
the genotypes of the offsprings from cross- C. polygenic traits
ing homozygous dominant (GG) and het- D. epistasis
erozygous (Gg) parents.
A. GG, GG, Gg, Gg 263. which is an example of a polygenic trait?
B. Gg, Gg, Gg, gg A. hair color
C. GG, GG, GG, GG B. height
D. gg, gg, gg, gg C. eye color

D. all of these are correct
258. THE GAMETES ARE CONSIDERED TO
HAVE ONE HALF OF THE GENETIC INFO SO 264. Which inheritance pattern is charac-
IT IS CALL terized by heterozygotes displaying a
A. DIPLOID (2N) blended or intermediate phenotype?
B. DIPLOID (N) A. Multiple alleles
C. HAPLOID (2N) B. Codominance
D. HAPLOID (N) C. Incomplete dominance

D. Polygenic traits
259. If a man with type AB blood has a child
with a woman who is type A (A i) blood, 265. In which of the following is the codomi-
which is NOT a possibility for the child? nant phenotype seen in the offspring?
A. A A. heterozygous
B. B B. homozygous recessive

C. homozygous dominant B. Colorblindness

D. none of these C. Hypoglycemia

D. Parkinson’S
266. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait.
The allele for normal blood clotting is (XH) 271. When more than two versions of a gene
and inability to blood clot is (Xn). A female for a particular trait exist in the human
that can clot blood and is not carrying the population, it is a trait.
recessive allele has a child with a man with
A. sex-linked
hemophilia. What would the probability of
having a male that can clot their blood. B. polygenic
A. 100% C. epistatic
B. 0% D. multiple allele
C. 50% 272. Epistasis is when the expression of one
D. 25% gene is masked or modified by another
A. chromosome
267. A red lily crossed with a yellow lily pro-
B. allele
duces heterozygous orange lily flowers.
This is an example of which type of inher- C. gene
itance? D. person
A. Codominance 273. When homologous chromosomes match
B. Incomplete Dominance up during meiosis, they form a structure
C. Sex Linked called a
D. Polygenic Trait A. tetrad
B. triad
268. What determines gender in humans?
C. diploid
A. the X and Y chromosome
D. gamete
B. chromosome 21
274. A gene that is found on the X or Y chro-
C. codominance
mosome is called a(n)
D. epistasis A. codominant gene
269. What is it called when 1 gene determines B. autosomal gene
more than 1 trait or characteristic? C. somatic gene
A. pleiotropic D. sex-linked gene
B. polygenic
275. Carnation exhibit multiple colors, includ-
C. incomplete dominance ing red, white and speckled. What is
D. that is not possible the phenotypic ratio between a speckled
flower and a red flower?
270. A toddler falls and scraps himself badly
A. 2 red:2 speckled:0 white
for the first time. Unfortunately, he
bleeds for an usually long time. What dis- B. 4 red:0 speckled:0 white
order might he have? C. 0 red:4 speckled:0 white
A. Hemophilia D. 0 red:2 speckled:2 white

276. Choose all correct answers:when an or- 281. If color in hamsters show incomplete
ganism has 2 diferent alleles for a single dominance, what would be the the ex-
gene, they are considered: pected genotypes for a cross between
A. heterozygous a homozygous white female with a het-
erozygous light tan male?
B. hybrid
A. Homozygous Brown
C. purebred
D. homozygous B. Homozygous White
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Homozygous Tan
277. In cows, red hair is codominant with
white hair. Cross a purebred white cow D. Heterozygous Tan
with a purebred red bull. What percent of
the offspring will be roan (red and white 282. Which of the following inheritance pat-
hairs)? terns explains how a particular version
of a regulatory gene can activate or de-
A. 0%
activate a gene that controls a particular
B. 50% trait?
C. 75% A. codominance
D. 100%
B. pleiotropy
278. A normal human female has which of the C. epistasis
following sex chromosomes? (3B3)
D. incomplete dominance
A. XXXY
B. XY 283. Rhododendrons exhibit codominance. In
C. XX the case of rhododendrons, the crossing of
a red and white flower may yield a flower
D. XXY that has both red and white patches (het-
279. What are Polygenic Traits? erozygous). If a red flower were to cross
with a heterozygous flower, what would
A. Blending of traits the probability of producing a red & white
B. When many genes are needed to affect patched flower be?
one trait
A. 0%
C. When one gene controls multiple ex-
pressions B. 25%
D. When the phenotype changes once ex- C. 50%

posed to external stimuli D. 75%
280. A type of inheritance that results in a
284. If a female was a carrier for sex-linked
new heterozygous trait that is a blend of
color blindness, what percentage of her
both parents. For ex. red flower x white
male children would also be color blind?
flower = pink flower offspring.
A. dominant A. 0%
B. recessive B. 25%
C. codominance C. 50%
D. incomplete dominance D. 100%

285. Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked dis- 290. What types of blood can a person with
order. Which genotype represents a fe- AB RECEIVE?
male who is colorblind?

A. B only
A. XNXn
B. AB, A, B, O
B. XnXn
C. AB and O only
C. XNXN
D. A only
D. XnY
291. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait.
286. Universal blood recipients have type The allele for normal blood clotting is (XH)
blood. and inability to blood clot is (Xn). A fe-
A. A male that can clot blood and is not carrying
the recessive allele has a child with a man
B. AB
with hemophilia. What would the proba-
C. B bility of having a female that cannot clot
D. O their blood.
A. 100%
287. Our hair color examples are controlled by
codominance. Red hair (RR), blue hair (BB) B. 0%
and purple hair (RB).Cross red hair with C. 50%
purple hair. What is the phenotypic ratio?
D. 25%
A. 2 red, 2 purple
B. 2 red, 2 blue 292. R=round seedr=wrinkled seed.Cross
a homozygous round with a wrinkled.
C. 2 blue, 2 purple
Which statement predicts the results?
D. none of above
A. offspring will be Rr
288. If a snail could be green or brown, and B. offspring will be RR
a heterozygous green snail mated with a
brown snail, what would the genotypic ra- C. round seeds will be recessive to wrin-
tio of their offspring be? kled
A. 1:2:1 D. Wrinkled will be observed in half of off-
spring
B. 2:2
C. 3:1 293. How are incomplete dominance and
codominance different than a normal
D. 1:1
Mendelian cross?
289. Black and white checkered chickens is an A. There is no difference
example of
B. The heterozygous genotype has a
A. Codominance unique phenotype
B. Incomplete dominance. C. There is no heterozygous genotype
C. Polygenic characteristics
D. There is only one phenotype regard-
D. none of above less of genotype.

294. If two parents are heterozygous for type 299. Where are most sex-linked genes lo-
A blood, what is the probability that their cated?
offspring would have type O blood? A. On the X chromosome
A. 100 % B. On the Y chromosome
B. 75% C. On the dominant chromosome
C. 50% D. On the autosomes
D. 25%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
300. Controlled by more than one gene.
295. Traits that are determined by more than A. Codominance
one gene are called:
B. Incomplete dominance.
A. Polygenic traits
C. Polygenic characteristics
B. Multiple alleles
D. none of above
C. Incomplete dominance
D. Co-dominant traits 301. In llamas, the gene for wool color is only
expressed when the gene for pigment is
296. A single gene has 3 or more alternative expressed. This is an example of
forms. These are called A. incomplete dominance
A. heterozygotes B. codominance
B. multiple alleles C. polygenic traits
C. epistatic D. epistasis
D. polygenic
302. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait
297. Genotype of the F1 generation if the par- found on the x chromosome. Complete a
ents are ffbb x FFBB? cross between a woman who is a carrier
A. FFBB and a man who is normal.What are the
chances, if they have a daughter, that she
B. FfBb, ffbb & FFBB is a carrier?
C. FfBb A. 100%
D. ffbb & FFBB B. 75%
298. Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder C. 50%
that is controlled by a recessive allele. If D. 25%
a person suffering from CF were to marry
an individual who is heterozygous for the 303. What are Environmental Genes?
trait, what % of their children could be ex- A. When a gene controls multiple expres-
pected to unaffected carriers of the trait? sions
Ignore issues of sterility in persons with
CF. B. When one set of genes overrides a dif-
ferent set
A. 0%
C. When the phenotype changes when ex-
B. 25% posed to an external stimuli
C. 75% D. When many genes are needed to affect
D. 50% one trait

304. Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked dis- 309. A normal human has pairs of au-
order. Which genotype represents a male tosomes and pair(s) of sex chromo-
with normal vision? somes.

A. XNXN A. 23, 1
B. XnXn B. 22, 1
C. XNY C. 1, 22
D. 1, 23
D. XnY
310. What is Co-dominance?
305. A and B blood types are
A. Blending of traits
A. sex linked
B. A phenotype changes when exposed to
B. incomplete alleles external stimuli.
C. co dominant alleles C. Trait carried on the X or Y chromosome
D. none of above D. Expression of both alleles
306. If you cross a homozygous black chicken 311. Tail length in dogs is often determined
with a homozygous white chicken, what by incomplete dominance. Pups of long-
is the probability of getting a homozygous tailed (TT) and short-tailed (SS) parents of-
black chicken? ten split the difference and have medium-
length tails (TS). If we crossed two het-
A. 0% erozygous dogs what is the probability
B. 25% that the offspring would have short-length
tails?
C. 50%
A. 0%
D. 100%
B. 25%
307. An interaction where one gene masks an- C. 50%
other gene is called:
D. 75%
A. Polygenic Traits
312. A gene contains instructions for assem-
B. Epistasis bling:
C. X-Chromosome Inactivation A. proteins
D. X-linked traits (same as sex-linked) B. carbohydrates
C. lipids
308. A red flowering plant is crossed with
a white-flowering plant, and only pink- D. water
flowering plants are produced. Which of
313. Mom is heterozygous Blood B and the fa-
the following explains this pattern of in-
ther is Blood type O. What are the possible
heritance? (3B3)
genotypes for their possible offspring?
A. Multiple alleles A. BB
B. Linked genes B. oo
C. incomplete dominance C. AB
D. Codominance D. Ao

314. When a red horse (RR) is crossed with C. 50%

a white horse (WW), the offspring are D. 100%
all roan (RW). Which of the following ex-
plains this type of inheritance? (3B3) 319. Linkage on a singlechromosome violates
A. Multiple alleles Mendel’s law of
B. Codominance A. independent assortment.
C. incomplete dominance B. segregation.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Sex-linked inheritance C. dominance.
315. Choose all correct answers-When both al- D. genetic determinism.
leles in the pair are the SAME, the organ-
ism could be considered: 320. The cells produced by meiosis are called:
A. homozygous A. sex cells

B. purebred B. gametes
C. heterozygous C. egg and sperm
D. sex-linked D. all of these
316. If two pink snapdragon plants displaying 321. Homologous chromosomes have
incomplete dominance are crossed, what
A. the same genes
percent of offspring would you predict as
also having pink flowers? Show your B. the same size
work on your paper. (3B3) C. the same shape
A. 0%
D. all of these
B. 25%
322. In Andalusian fowls, black individuals
C. 50%
(BB) and white individuals (WW) are ho-
D. 100% mozygous. Heterozygous individuals are
grey (BW).What is the genotype ratio for
317. Red and White are incomplete dominant
a cross between a grey fowl and a white
in snapdragons, so if we cross two het-
fowl?
erozygous snapdragons what is the prob-
ability that the offspring would have a red A. 2 BB:2 BW:0 WW
phenotype? B. 0 BB:4 BW:0 WW
A. 0%
C. 0 BB:2 BW:2 WW
B. 25%
D. 1 BB:2 BW:1 WW
C. 50%
D. 75% 323. This is when multiple genes code for a sin-
gle trait
318. If you cross two pink flowers (RW), what
A. Polygenic
is the probability of making red (RR) flow-
ers? B. Pleiotropy
A. 0% C. Linked genes
B. 25% D. Codominant genes

5.5 Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance 449
324. What do we use pedigrees for? C. codominance.

A. To look at families D. sex-linked inheritance.

B. To make determinations about the off- 327. In horses, fur color is codominant. If a red
spring horse(RR) crosses with a red and white
C. To track traits in families spotted horse(RW), what is the possibility
of having a white pony?
D. Nothing
A. 0%
325. Universal blood donors have type B. 25%
blood.
C. 75%
A. A
D. 100%
B. AB
328. Each parent contributes one of the genes
C. B
for a particular trait. The genes of the pair
D. O are called:
326. A chicken is black, white, or black and A. variables
white. This inheritance pattern is B. gametes
A. Mendelian inheritance. C. hybrids
B. incomplete dominance. D. alleles
5.5 Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance

1. Which of the following chromosome combi- A. Female Drosophia
nations will result in a female in humans? B. Neuropspora
A. XY C. Male Drosophila
B. X D. Lathyrus odoratus
C. XX E. Diplotene
D. YY F. Diakinensis
2. In cats, black fur color is caused by an X- G. Pachytene
linked allele; the other allele at this locus H. Metaphase
causes orange 2) color. The heterozygote
is tortoiseshell. What is the chance that 4. When does recombination first occur in
a black female and an orange male would meiosis?
produce tortoiseshell offspring?
A. prophase I
A. 0%
B. prophase II
B. 25% C. metaphase I
C. 50% D. metaphase II
D. 100%
5. Chromosomes are found in the of a eu-
3. Complete linkage is reported in karyotic cell.

A. Nucleus 11. An Organism’s Physical appearance of vis-

B. Mitochondria ible traits is a
C. Cytoplasm A. Homozygous
D. Chloroplast B. Phenotype
C. Genotype
6. This genetic disorder is inherited by a re-
cessive allele found on the x chromosome D. Heterozygous
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Cystic fibrosis 12. In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-
B. Hemophilia linked allele; the other allele at this locus
C. Down’s syndrome causes orange 2) color. The heterozygote
is tortoiseshell. Which of the following
D. PKU would you not expect from the cross of a
7. Which of the following distances between black male and a tortoiseshell female?
linked genes would have the greatest A. black females
chances of crossing over?
B. orange females
A. 22 map units
C. tortoiseshell females
B. 10 map units
D. orange males
C. 15 map units
D. 2 map units 13. Self-incompatability in Nicotiana is due to
A. Mutation
8. Gene map unit is
B. Crossing over
A. Morgan
C. Linkage
B. Ploidy
C. Micron D. Multiple alleles
D. Milli micron 14. If portion of the DNA strand is flipped is

called
9. Which of the following genetic alterations
would result in reversal of a chromosome A. Inversion
segment? B. Translocation
A. inversion C. Deletion
B. deletion D. Substitution
C. duplication
15. If a normal woman carrying the recessive
D. translocation
sex linked gene for color blindness marries
10. Which of the following best describes hav- a normal male, what percentage of their
ing more than two sets of chromosomes? sons will be color blind?
A. hapaploidy A. 0%
B. diploidy B. 25%
C. polyploidy C. 50%
D. aneuploidy D. 100%

16. IN Mirabilis jalapa WHEN THE PLANT 21. Which of the following is a sex linked dis-
WITH RED FLOWER CROSSED WITH THAT order?
OF WHITE FLOWER F1 HYBRIDS SHOW

A. Cystic fibrosis
FLOWERS WITH PINK COLOUR, THIS IS
DUE TO B. Sickle cell anemia
A. MENDELIAN DOMINANCE C. Huntington’s
B. CODOMINANCE D. Hemophilia
C. INCOMPLETE DOMINANCE 22. What disease is characterized by abnor-

D. ALL OF THE ABOVE mally shaped red blood cells?
A. Phenylketonuria
17. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked
recessive trait in humans. Two people B. Hemophilia
with normal color vision have a color-blind C. Sickle cell anemia
son. What are the genotypes of the par- D. Huntington’s
ents?
A. XaXa and XAY 23. Human cell contain no of chromsome.
B. XAXA and XaY A. 46
C. XAXa and XAY B. 43
D. XAXA and XaY C. 44
D. 45
18. The transfer of a segment of chromosome
to a non-homologous chromosome is 24. Which of the following is an autosomal re-
A. Deletion cessive disorder?
B. Deficiency A. Hemophilia
C. Translocation B. Colourblindness
D. Duplication C. Huntington’s disease

D. Sickle cell anemia
19. A woman who is a carrier of an X-linked
recessive trait will have a chance of 25. a photograph or picture of chromosomes
passing that trait to her sons. grouped in ordered pairs is a
A. 0% A. pedigree
B. 50% B. Punnett Square
C. 25% C. Venn Diagram
D. 100% D. Karyotype
20. CHROMOSOMAL theory of heredity was 26. Sex determination in mammals is deter-
published by. mined by the in the chromosome.
A. Martha chase A. SRY gene; X
B. Walter sutton B. SRY gene; Y
C. Mendeleev C. HERC2; 15
D. Mendel D. BRCA1; 6

27. Causes genes to not segregate indepen- 32. What process occurs during meiosis that
dently. Causes genes to be more likely to can result in chromosomal disorders?
be inherited together. Represents an ex- A. crossing over
ception to Mendel’s Law of Independent
assortment. B. non-disjunction
A. Gene linkage C. anaphase I
B. Epistasis D. prophase II
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Polygenic traits 33. Which of the following best describes the
D. Codominance cause of cystic fibrosis?
A. An extra 13th chromosome
28. The crossover frequency between genes E
and F is 6%, between E and G is 10% and- B. a muted transport protein
between F and G is 4%. What is the cor- C. An extra 21st chromosome
rect order of the genes on a chromosome? D. a mutated blood clotting protein
A. E-F-G
34. Baldness is a recessive sex-linked trait. If
B. F-E-G a normal headed woman, whose father is
C. F-G-E bald, has children with a normal headed
D. E-G-F man, then which of the following would
be true regarding their offspring?
29. Which of the following is a result of a non A. 50% chance of a female with baldness
disjunction?
B. 100% chance of a male with baldness
A. Sickle cell anemia
C. 50% chance of offspring with baldness
B. Cystic fibrosis
D. 50% chance male offspring will be bald
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
35. In a heterozygous offspring, there is a
D. Hemophilia
blending of the traits.
30. T13-Nondisjunction is related to a number A. codominance
of serious human disorders. How does
B. incomplete dominance
nondisjunction cause these disorders?
C. polygenetics
A. alters the number of zygotes
D. multiple alleles
B. alters the chromosome structure
E. sex linked
C. alters the number of gametes
D. alters the number of chromosomes 36. THERE ARE 6 GENOTYPES TO REPRE-
SENT 4 BLOOD GROUPS IN HUMAN BE-
31. Which of the following is not a CHROMO- INGS.WHICH ONE OF THE FOLLOWING
SOMAL disorder? GENOTYPES SHOWS CODOMINANCE
A. Tuner’s syndrome A. IAIA
B. Down’s syndrome B. IBIB
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome C. IAI
D. Huntington’s D. IAIB

37. Adding or deleting DNA bases cause the 43. A chromosome is found to be shorter than
DNA strand to move is called it’s homologous match. Which type of mu-
tation would this most likely be?

A. Inversion
B. Translocation A. insertion
C. Substitution B. deletion
D. Frameshift C. translocation
D. inversion
38. What was the first “mutant” discovered
by Morgan? 44. Each organism has 2 alleles for a particu-
A. male with red eyes lar trait. Where do these two alleles come
from?
B. male with white eyes
A. Alleles do not come from parents
C. female with red eyes
B. One from each one parent
D. female with white eyes
C. Both from one parent
39. Which of the following is a autosomal dom- D. The kidney
inant disorder?
A. Huntington’s 45. In humans, hemophilia is a sex linked re-
cessive trait. Females can be normal, car-
B. Hemophilia riers, or have the disease. Males will
C. Cystic fibrosis either have the disease or not (but they
D. Sickle cell anemia won’t ever be carriers). A woman who
is a carrier marries a normal man. What is
40. The passing of physical characteristics or the probability that their children will have
traits from parents to offspring. hemophilia?
A. Dominant allele A. 0%
B. Heredity B. 25%
C. Genetics C. 50%
D. Recessive allele D. 100%
41. Which of the following is Not caused by a 46. Why did Morgan choose fruit flies as a
gene mutation? model organism?
A. Tuner’s syndrome A. short life cycle
B. Cystic fibrosis B. few offspring
C. Sickle cell anemia C. little genetic variation
D. Hemophilia D. large chromosome count
42. Who was the father of genetics 47. map unit is equal to:
A. Sagan A. 1 nm
B. Issac Newton B. 1% crossing over
C. Gregor Mendel C. 1 chromosome
D. C.jenkins D. 1 mutation

5.6 Sex Determination, Linkage and Chromosomal Disorders 454
48. Which of the following best describes hav- B. 23

ing either one extra or one less chromo- C. 92
some?
D. 64
A. hapaploidy
B. polyploidy 52. Red-green colorblindness is a sex-linked
recessive condition in humans. If a woman
C. diploidy
with colorblindness marries a man who is
D. aneuploidy normal, then what are the chances their
NARAYAN CHANGDER
daughter will have colorblindness? What
49. Crossing-over of parts of chromosomes:
about their sons?
A. has no effect on genetic linkage
A. daughters-50%sons-50%
B. usually decreases the number of ge-
B. daughters-100%sons-100%
netic combinations in a population
C. can increase the number of genetic C. daughters-0%sons-100%
combinations in a population D. daughters-50%sons-0%
D. none of above 53. homologous chromosomes separate during
50. An example of a mutation where a piece A. cell division
of chromosome breaks off and attaches to B. mitosis
another chromosome is called
C. Meiosis
A. trisomy
D. non of these
B. translocation
C. inversion 54. Video clip is related with
D. deletion A. Mutation
51. A normal human zygote should have B. Chromosomal aberration

chromosomes inside. C. Ploidy
A. 46 D. Crossing over
5.6 Sex Determination, Linkage and Chromosomal Disor-

ders
1. A mysterious disease is caused by a reces- normal vision?
sive allele on chromosome #1. Scott has A. XNXN
the disease. What is Scott’s genotype?
B. XYN
A. DD
C. XNY
B. dd
D. XnY
C. XdXd
3. R = round seeds, r = wrinkled seeds Y =
D. XdY
yellow seeds, y = green seeds What is the
2. Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked trait. phenotype of RRYY?
Which genotype represents a male with A. round and green

B. wrinkled and yellow 9. traits controlled by genes on the sex chro-

mosomes
C. wrinkled and gree

A. pedigree
D. round and yellow
B. genetic trait
4. What mutation has occurred here? T-G-A- C. sex-linked trait
C-C-AT-G-A-G-C-A
D. biology
A. Substitution
10. Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive
B. Deletion
trait. A colorblind woman marries a male
C. Insertion with normal color vision. What is the per-
D. Frameshift cent chance of them having a color blind
son?
5. Which genetic abnormality can be identi- A. 0%
fied through karyotyping?
B. 25%
A. point mutation C. 50%
B. recessive allele D. 75%
C. extra chromosomes
11. What causes mutations?
D. sex-linked allele
A. Mistakes in replication or environmen-
6. What happens in an inversion mutation? tal substances
B. The amino acids
A. The DNA sequences is repeated
C. Passed down by genetics
B. Nucleotides get deleted
D. It’s how your born
C. A section of the chromosome gets
flipped 12. Micrograph images of chromosomes used
D. a piece of the chromosome is lost to study possible disorders are called:
A. telomeres
7. Which chromosome contains more genes?
B. centromeres
A. The X chromosome C. karyotypes
B. The Y chromosome D. pedigrees
C. They are homologous, so they contain
13. Photograph of chromosomes grouped in or-
the same amount of genes.
dered pairs
D. none of above
A. pedigree
8. Shows this specific trait even if only one B. Punnett Square
parent carries it C. Venn Diagram
A. recessive D. Karyotype
B. homozygous
14. Chromosome mutation involving loss of a
C. dominant piece of chromosome.
D. heterozygous A. Deletion

B. Inversion 20. Positive blood types can DONATE to what

C. Translocation type(s) of blood?
D. Removal A. Negative, only
15. The sex of a child is determined by B. Positive, only

A. whether the father’s sperm contains C. Both Positive and Negative
an x or y chromosome. D. none of above
B. whether the mother’s egg contains an
NARAYAN CHANGDER
x or y chromosome. 21. A boy whose parents have normal vision
C. the age of the parents. is colorblind. What are the genotypes for
his mother and father? Use XN for normal
D. the temperature of the ovaries. vision and Xn for colorblindness. Show the
16. Hemophilia is recessive diseases carried on Punnett square to support your answer.
the X chromosome. Can a male be a carrier A. XbY
of the disease?
B. XBY
A. Yes
B. No C. XBXB
C. Maybe D. XBXb
D. none of above E. XbXb
17. are chromosomes that contain genes 22. Which term means “same alleles”?
for characteristics unrelated to sex.
A. heterozygous.
A. autosomes
B. microsomes B. genes.
C. cosmos C. homozygous.
D. inheritance D. DNA.
18. Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disor- 23. How many autosomes are there in a hu-
der. Which genotype represents a fe- man sperm?
male who is an unaffected carrier for
hemophilia? A. 1
A. XHXh B. 22
B. XhXh C. 23
C. XHXH D. 46
D. XhY
24. What types of antigens are present in a
19. How many recessive genes does a carrier person with O+ blood?
female have for colorblindness?
A. A and B
A. 1
B. 2 B. Rh, only
C. 0 C. A, B and Rh
D. none of above D. None

25. condition in which both alleles for a gene 30. This DNA is made up of about 3 billion base
are expressed when present-both traits pairs and divided into thousands of genes
are visible on 23 pairs of chromosomes, all the DNA

A. Codominance in the human species is found here
B. Dominance A. pedigree
C. Complete dominance B. x-linked gene

D. Incomplete dominance C. human genome
D. nondisjunction
26. What does a vertical line coming down
from a square and circle that are connected
31. Traits such as skin color and height happen-
by horizontal line indicate?
ing from the interaction of many different
A. They are cousins alleles is called:
B. The children A. incomplete dominance
C. Aunts and Uncles B. co-dominance
D. none of above C. polygenic traits
27. How can genetic counselors predict genetic D. luck of the draw
disorders/
32. ATTTGAGCC-OriginalATTGAGCC-MutatedThe
A. by studying karyotypes and pedigree
example above is an example of a
charts
A. Insertion-Frameshift
B. by taking pictures of a baby before it is
born B. Deletion-Substitution
C. by exploring new methods of genetic C. Deletion-Frameshift
engineering
D. All of the above
D. by eliminating codominant alleles in
the parents 33. Gene A causes Gene B to be able to do its
job. Therefore, this is an example of
28. In a pedigree, what shape represents a
male? A. polygenic inheritance.
A. circle B. epistasis.
B. square C. incomplete dominance.
C. triangle D. sex-linked traits.
D. diamond
34. Chromosome mutation involving a seg-
29. Genes located strictly on the x- ment of a chromosome breaking off and at-
chromosome taching to a non-homologous chromosome.
A. gene therapy A. Deletion

B. genetic trait B. Inversion
C. multiple allele trait C. Translocation
D. x-linked gene D. Duplication

35. If you are missing or have an extra base C. biological

at the end of your mutated DNA . What
D. genetic
type of mutation occurred?
A. Substitution 41. The physical look of a trait
B. Frameshift A. genotype
C. Duplication B. phenotype
D. Insertion C. allele
NARAYAN CHANGDER
36. If a trait is not sex-linked, it is D. Mendelian inheritance
A. autosomal 42. Colorblindness is a recessive x-linked dis-
B. dominant order. Which genotype represents a male
with normal vision? (’c’ is replaced by an
C. recessive
‘n’ since technically colorblindness is reces-
D. polygenic sive, so normal vision is dominant and cap-
italized)
37. A snapdragon is red, white, or pink. This
means it is determined by A. XNXN
A. Mendelian genetics. B. XnXn
B. incomplete dominance. C. XNY
C. codominance. D. XnY
43. Select those that are TRUE of Homologous
38. Adenine bonds with Chromosome Pairs:
A. Guanine A. Each pair is made of one maternal and
one paternal chromosome
B. Thymine
C. Cytosine B. they are the same size and shape
D. Adenine C. they must have the EXACT same genes

(both have blue-eye gene)
39. Which of the following best defines an au- D. Humans have 46 homologous pairs of
tosome? chromosomes
A. A chromosome that does things auto-
matically 44. A X-linked gene in fruit flies controls the
patterns of the wings. XB has a barred
B. A chromosome that is least common in
pattern and Xb doesn’t have bars. A
a human set of chromosomes
male with barred wings is mated to a non-
C. A non-sex chromosome barred female. What would be the geno-
D. A sex-determining chromosome type(s) of their female offspring?
A. XBXB
40. The X and Y chromosomes are known as
the chromosomes. B. XbXb
A. sex C. XBXb
B. autosome D. XBb

45. Identify the following mutation:Original C. x-linked trait

DNA:ATCGTC D. nondisjunction

A. Substitution (Point)
51. If two parents have the same phenotype,
B. Insertion (frameshift) and their child has a different phenotype,
C. Deletion what do we know about the parents’
D. none of above genotypes?
A. homozygous recessive
46. Which genotype would result in an individ-
ual with medium-colored skin? (Hint:Look B. homozygous dominant
at the number of dominant vs recessive al- C. heterozygous
leles, not the letter). D. none of above
A. AabbCC
52. How many sex chromosomes do humans
B. AABBcc have?
C. AaBbcc A. 23
D. Aabbcc B. 46
47. A dominant allele is represented by C. 1
A. a lower case letter. D. 2
B. a capital letter. 53. What would be blood groups of the
C. an X. progeny of heterozygous father with
D. a Y. blood group A and mother homozygous for
B?
48. A law stating that the arrangement of a A. A and B
pair of alleles in gametes is random and
independent. B. AB and A
A. pedigree diagram C. O
B. theory of acquired characteristics D. AB and B
C. theory of blended traits 54. What are the genotypes of these flies:red
D. law of independent assortment eyed, male?
A. X R X r
49. Which of the following is TRUE?
B. X R X R
A. Sex chromosomes determine gender
C. Xr X r
B. Males have XY; Females have XX
D. X r Y
C. non-sex chromosomes are called auto-
somes E. X R Y
D. all of these 55. Sex-linked genetically inherited traits:
50. Traits controlled by genes on the x chromo- A. can appear in both males and females
some B. are only found in males
A. multiple allele trait C. are only found in females
B. autosome D. None of the above

56. A carrier is represented by what symbol? C. 75%

A. Clear D. 0%, but all would be carriers.
B. Shaded
62. Who does a son inherit a sex linked allele
C. Half Shaded from?
D. 1:4 ratio A. His mother only
57. ABO Blood groups is an example of B. His father only
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. incomplete dominance C. Either his father or mother
B. co-dominance D. none of above
C. multiple alleles
63. A person who has one recessive and one
D. two of these dominant allele for a trait is called a(n)
58. If a person with AB blood has children with A. carrier
a person with type O blood, which will be
B. domineer
the possible blood types of their children?
C. passer
A. A and O
B. AB and O D. none of above
C. A and B 64. Females have and males have chro-

D. B and O mosomes.
A. XX, XY
59. Down Syndrome results from a(n)
chromosome. B. XY, XX
A. extra C. XX, XX
B. missing D. XY, XY
C. enlarged
65. Alleles A and B both show themselves com-
D. weak pletely in a heterozygous disease. There-
fore, it is considered a
60. Negative blood types can DONATE to what
types of blood? A. sex-linked trait
A. Negative, only B. polygenic trait
B. Positive, only C. codominant trait
C. Both Negative and Positive D. incomplete dominance trait
D. none of above
66. In humans, which pair of chromosomes are
61. When a woman, heterozygous for normal the sex chromosomes?
vision, mates with a colorblind male, what A. 21st pair
percentage of their offspring could be col-
orblind? B. 22nd pair
A. 25% C. 23rd pair
B. 50% D. 24th pair

67. In a cross between a pure red eyed female 72. H= normal blood clottingh=hemophiliaXHXh
and a white eyed male, what would the x XHYWhat is the probability that their
genotypes of the parents be? daughters will have hemophilia?

A. XRXr with XR Y A. 100%
B. XRXr with Xr Y B. 75%
C. 50%
C. XRXR with XR Y
D. 0%
D. XRXR with Xr Y
73. Muscular dystrophy is a sex-linked re-
E. XrXr with Xr Y
cessive disorder. A man with muscular
dystrophy marries a woman who doesn’t
68. Characteristics that are encoded in DNA
have this disease. Half of their daughters
A. genetic trait and half of their sons develop this disease.
B. gene therapy What is the genotype of the mother?
A. XNXN
C. sex-linked gene
B. XNXn
D. pedigree
C. Xn
69. Process in sexual reproduction in which D. XN
male and female reproductive cells join to
form one new cell 74. A T T T G A G C C-Original A T T G A G C C-
MutatedThe example above is an example
A. Fertilization of a:
B. Genotype A. Insertion-Frameshift
C. Segregation B. Deletion-Substitution
D. Phenotype C. Deletion-Frameshift
D. All of the above
70. A rabbit has genes for black fur. However,
another gene causes these genes not to 75. Shows how traits are passed from gener-
work. This is an example of ation to generation within a family, tools
used in studying inheritance patterns
A. Polygenic Inheritance.
A. x-linked trait
B. Epistasis. B. pedigree
C. Sex-linked Traits. C. animal cells
D. none of above D. gene therapy
71. The sequence of all 3 billion base pairs of 76. Who is more likely to have a sex-linked
human DNA identified by scientists recessive disorder (such as hemophilia or
Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy)/
A. genetic trait
A. Males
B. Human Genome Project B. Females
C. x-linked trait C. Both sexes have an equal chance.
D. gene therapy D. none of above

77. Which of the following is NOT a sex-linked 82. Male patterned baldness is X linked reces-
trait? sive. If a male that does express male pat-
A. Color-blindness terned baldness has a child with a female
who is a carrier, what are the chances they
B. Muscular Dystrophy will have affected offspring?
C. Huntington disease A. 50%
D. Hemophilia B. 25%
78. Colorblindness is a sex-linked disorder.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 75%
If the daughter of a couple is colorblind
D. 100%
(meaning dad definitely has to be color-
blind to give the second affected X chro- 83. When a red cow is mated to a white
mosome), what are the two possible geno- bull, all offspring are roan. What are the
types of her mother? chances of having roan offspring if two
A. XcXc and XcX roan cattle are mated?
B. XcXc and XX A. 50%
C. XcX and XX B. 100%
D. Cannot be determined C. 0%
79. What are the genotypes of these D. 75%
flies:white eyed, male?
84. Autosomes are
A. X R X r
A. chromosomes found in autotrophs,
B. X R X R only
C. Xr X r B. chromosomes that automatically cor-
D. X r Y rect all errors in the DNA
E. XR Y C. chromosomes that determine traits
other than sex
80. What must occur for a girl to be color-
blind? D. chromosomes that determine the sex
of the individual
A. each parent must be colorblind
B. each parent must have the dominant 85. Chromosome mutation involving loss or
allele for colorblindness gain of a chromosome in the gametes.
C. each parent must have the recessive A. Deletion
allele for colorblindness B. Inversion
D. her father must have normal vision C. Translocation
81. Chromosome mutation involving the re- D. Nondisjunction
peat of a piece of chromosome.
86. Skin tone is determined by three different
A. Deletion gene pairs. Therefore, it is considered a
B. Inversion
C. Translocation A. sex-linked trait
D. Duplication B. polygenic trait

C. codominant trait 92. Where are genes located?

D. incomplete dominance trait A. On the chromosome, in the nucleus

B. On the nucleus inside the chromosome
87. If a trait is sex-linked, then affected fe-
males will have C. on the ribosome in the mitochondria
A. affected fathers and affected sons D. on the moon
B. affected fathers and unaffected sons 93. Look at this cross:XB Xb x Xb YWhat pro-
C. unaffected fathers but affected sons portion/percent of the male children are
colorblind? (colorblind is sex-linked reces-
D. none of above
sive trait)
88. If a gene is found on the X chromosome, it A. 100%
is said to be what? B. 50%
A. a sex-linked trait C. 25%
B. a polygenic trait D. 0%
C. a codominant trait
94. The bison herd on Konza Prairie has a sex-
D. an autosomal trait linked trait known as “rabbit hock” in
which the knee of the back leg is slightly
89. Inserting normal genes into cells with mu-
malformed. A male bull that is normal
tant genes, result in treatment or cures for
mates with a cow that is a carrier for rab-
some genetic disorders
bit hock. What are his chances of produc-
A. gene therapy ing a normal male?
B. genetic trait A. 0%
C. nondisjunction B. 25%
D. animal cells C. 50%
D. 100%
90. How many pairs of autosomal chromo-
somes do humans have 95. Pair of human chromosomes that consist
A. 22 of the x and y chromosomes
B. 2 A. genetic trait
C. 44 B. sex chromosome
D. 46 C. autosome
D. gene therapy
91. Look at this cross:XB XB:Xb YWhat pro-
portion/percent of the male children are 96. Who can a father pass a sex linked gene
colorblind, which is recessive? to?
A. 100% A. Sons only
B. 75% B. Daughters only
C. 25% C. Both sons and daughters
D. 0% D. none of above

97. If your mom has the genotype XaXa for a 102. What are the genotypes of these flies:red
trait, do you automatically have the same eyed female (heterozygous)?
trait? Why?
A. X R X r
A. Yes, she has two recessive alleles
B. X R X R
B. Yes, there is only one type of allele
C. No, I have to get DNA from dad too C. Xr X r
D. No, I am a boy and don’t get DNA from D. X r Y
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mom E. X R Y
98. The bison herd on Konza Prairie has a sex-
linked trait known as “rabbit hock” in 103. Chart that shows the relationships within
which the knee of the back leg is slightly a family
malformed. A male bull that is normal A. Pedigree
mates with a cow that is a carrier for rab-
bit hock. Of the female offspring, what B. Karyotype
percent would be carriers? C. T chart
A. 0% D. Key
B. 25%
C. 50% 104. If one strand of DNA had the sequence
ATCCGGTAC, what is the sequence on the
D. 100%
other strand
99. Genetic mutations can be A. UAGGCCAUG
A. beneficial, harmful, or neutral
B. I don’t know
B. beneficial only
C. TAGGCCATG
C. harmful only
D. neutral only D. CATGGCCTA
100. Chromosomes that have the same se- 105. Identify the genotype for females.
quence of genes and the same structure
A. XY
are
A. homologous chromosomes B. XX
B. alleles C. X
C. phenotypes D. XXYY
D. genotypes
106. Chromosome mutation involving a seg-
101. The reason why sex chromosomes have ment of a chromosome breaking off and
they name they do is because they flipping before reconnecting.
A. Are not autosomes A. Deletion
B. Are unique in how they look
B. Inversion
C. Are not able to be paired with any
other chromosomes C. Translocation
D. Determine the sex for the organism D. Duplication

107. Human height comes in many different C. Sex Chromosome

phenotypes. It is an example of D. Homologous pair

A. incomplete dominance.
113. What antigens are present in a person
B. codominance. with type B-blood?
C. polygenic inheritance. A. B, only
D. epistasis. B. B and Rh
108. Hemophilia is a recessive condition. A C. A and Rh
hemophilic man marries a normal homozy- D. A, only
gous woman. What is the probability that
their son will have hemophilia? 114. When you have two of the same alleles
A. 100% A. dominant
B. 75% B. homozygous
C. 50% C. recessive
D. 0% D. heterozygous
109. An allele is 115. (1822-1884) An Austrian botanist who

developed the foundational laws of genet-
A. A version of a gene ics.
B. Another word for a gene A. Mendelian traits
C. Always different on homologous chro- B. segregation
mosomes
C. Mendel
D. Another word for flavour
D. monohybrid
110. What is the purpose of the sequences of
116. Colorblindness is more common in males
nucleotides in DNA?
than in females because
A. gives DNA the shape needed
A. fathers pass the allele for colorblind-
B. prevents mutations ness to their sons only
C. forms hydrogen bonds B. the allele for colorblindness is located
D. carries instructions for the traits on the Y chromosome
C. the allele for colorblindness is reces-
111. Who could a daughter inherit a sex linked
sive and located on the X chromosome
alled from?
D. males who are colorblind have two
A. Her mother only
copies of the allele for colorblindness
B. Her father only
117. Traits that are controlled by only one
C. Either parent
gene and have a clear dominant and reces-
D. none of above sive form.
112. Chromosome that is not a sex chromo- A. Mendelian traits
some B. non-Mendelian traits
A. Chromosome C. pedigree
B. Autosome D. sex-linked trait

118. Which combination of sex chromosomes 123. A mysterious disease is caused by a re-
results in a male? cessive allele on the X chromosome. Bryan
has the disease. What is Bryan’s geno-
A. XX
type?
B. YY
A. DD
C. XY
B. dd
D. none of above
C. XdXd
NARAYAN CHANGDER
119. Tongue rolling is dominant to non-tongue D. XdY
rolling. What are the chances a female
who cannot roll her tongue and a homozy- 124. How many alleles does someone have for
gous male who can will have children that a genotype?
cannot roll their tongue?
A. 1
A. 0%
B. 2
B. 100%
C. 3
C. 50%
D. 4
D. 25%
125. What would the genotype be of a color-
120. Versions of genes blind male?
A. alleles A. XNY
B. pure line B. XNYn
C. Punnett square C. XnY
D. probability D. XnYn
121. What is the purpose of using a pedigree? 126. A chicken is black, white, or black and
white. This is controlled by
A. To determine the average age of a fam-
ily A. Mendelian inheritance.
B. To find out family histories and medical B. incomplete dominance.
records
C. codominance.
C. To find out whether a couple can have
a boy or a girl
D. To trace the inheritance of a certain 127. If a red (RR) and white (rr) flower are
trait through generations crossed, resulting in 100% Rr, what phe-
notypes would be seen according to the
122. An individual’s sex is determined by rules of in-complete dominance.
A. 1 of 23 chromosomes A. red
B. 2 of 46 chromosomes B. white
C. 4 of 92 chromosomes C. pink
D. none of above D. red and white

128. Genes that are located on the same chro- A. XNXN

mosome B. XnY

A. human genome project C. XNXn
B. pedigree D. XnXn
C. biology E. XNY
D. linked genes
133. Challenge! In humans, colorblindness
129. Color blindness is X linked recessive, is recessive and sex-linked. In humans,
what are the chances a color blind female brown hair is dominant to blond. A woman
and a normal male will have affected male who is heterozygous for brown hair and
children? a carrier for colorblindness marries a man
who has blond hair and normal vision.
A. 100%
What is the likelihood of having children
B. 75% who are colorblind with blond hair?
C. 50% A. 12.5%
D. 25% B. 25%
130. What happens in a translocation muta- C. 0%
tion? D. 50%
A. They all live normaly
134. Which sex can be carriers of colorblind-
B. They all repeat each other ness and not have symptoms of the condi-
C. Different chromosomes exchange tion?
pieces with each other A. Just males
D. Something happens B. Just females
131. When we say that a woman is a carrier C. Both sexes

for a genetic disease or disorder it means D. none of above
that
135. The woman who is colorblind marries a
A. she has 1 gene with the disease in her man with normal vision. What is the prob-
genotype, but does not have the disorder ability that their sons will be colorblind?
in her phenotype
A. 0%
B. she has 2 genes for the disorder
B. 25%
C. she can pass the gene only to male chil-
dren C. 50%
D. she can pass the gene only to female D. 100%

children 136. An organism’s appearance or other ob-
132. A woman who is colorblind has a mother servable characteristics:
with normal vision. Knowing that color- A. phentoype
blindness is a sex-linked recessive gene, B. genotype
what is her mother’s genotype? What is
her father’s genotype? Use XN for normal C. recessive
vision and Xn for colorblindness. D. dominant

137. If a red blood cell has no antigens on its 142. Colorblindness is more common in males
surface, what is its blood type? because it is controlled by
A. A A. Mendelian inheritance.
B. B B. Incomplete dominance.
C. AB C. codominance.
D. Sex-linked inheritance.
D. O
NARAYAN CHANGDER
143. When examining a pedigree, what 2
138. A human male will normally transmit the things should you first determine about
geneson his X chromosome to the trait being shown?
A. his sons A. Whether the trait is sex-linked or auto-
B. his daughters somal
C. half of his sons and half of his daugh- B. Whether the trait is dominant or reces-
ters sive
C. Whether individuals are male or fe-
D. all of his children
male
139. What type(s) of blood can a person with D. How many individuals are in the pedi-
B-blood RECEIVE? gree
A. B-, B+, AB-, AB+ 144. What type(s) of blood can a person with
B. B-and O- O+ RECEIVE?
C. B-, B+, O-, O+ A. O+ and O-
D. B-and AB- B. O+, only

C. O-, only
140. In humans, what number chromosome D. O+, A+, B+, AB+
pair are considered to be the sex chromo-
somes? 145. What percent of your genes did you get
A. 21 from your dad? your mom?
A. 25%
B. 22
B. 50%
C. 23
C. 75%
D. 24
D. 100%
141. Chromosomes that contain genes for char-
146. An individual who is heterozygous for a
acteristics that are unrelated to sex
recessive disorder is called a(n)-
A. gene therapy A. carrier
B. linked genes B. pedigree
C. autosome C. autosome
D. cells D. affected

5.7 Mendelian Disorders and Pedigree Analysis 469
5.7 Mendelian Disorders and Pedigree Analysis

1. What is the symbol for an Affected Male? 6. A man carrying the allele for Huntington’s
A. Half Circle disease marries a woman who is homozy-
gous recessive for the allele. What is
B. Half Square the probability that their offspring will de-
C. Full Shaded Circle velop Huntington’s disease?
D. Full Shaded Square A. 25 percent
2. There are no differences between family B. 50 percent

trees and pedigree charts. C. 75 percent
A. true D. 100 percent
B. false
7. Which genetic disorder is sex-linked?
C. Who knows?
A. Huntington’s
D. Who cares?
B. cystic fibrosis
3. This genetic disorder causes red blood cells C. red-green colorblindness
to exhibit an irregular shape. Symptoms
of this disorder can include joint pain, poor D. sickle cell anemia
circulation, and a shorter lifespan. It is
8. What does a horizontal line between a
highly prevalent in African and African
square and a circle mean?
American populations.
A. They are siblings
A. Anemia
B. They are cousins
B. Albinism
C. They are married (mating pair)
C. Turner syndrome
D. They are the children
D. Sickle-cell Anemia
4. If the male or female does not have the 9. A mutation in which only one nucleotide is
trait listed in the pedigree chart, then the altered is called a:
circle or square is A. Frameshift Mutation
A. empty B. Deletion Mutation
B. fully shaded C. Point Mutation
C. half-shaded D. Insertion Mutation
D. spotted, like a leopard
10. Of sixteen rabbits just born, thirteen have
5. Which of the following would result in a brown fur and three have white fur. The
frameshift mutation? trait for white fur is considered to be
A. Insertions only A. recessive
B. Substitution only B. bossy
C. Deletion only C. stronger
D. Insertions and Deletions D. dominant

11. Which of the following is a recessive dis- 16. This genetic disorder causes a reduc-
order? tion/absence of melanin in the skin, hair
and eyes. Located on chromosome 6, this
A. cystic fibrosis
disorder is common throughout the animal
B. huntington’s disease kingdom.
C. down syndrome A. Anemia
D. hemophilia B. Albinism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Myopia
12. How many pairs of chromosomes are usu-
ally found in human body cells? D. Hemophilia
A. 46 17. This pedigree represents the inheritance of
B. 2 hemophilia. What is the genotype of indi-
vidual III-4?
C. 23
A. XHXh
D. 123, 997
B. XHXH
13. What are the two ways that genetic dis- C. XHY
orders can be inherited?
D. XhY
A. Through blood transfusions and meio-
E. HH
sis.
B. Mutations in DNA and changes in struc- 18. An Inherited Disorder caused by a reces-
ture or number of chromosomes. sive allele
C. Missing chromosomes or premature A. Cystic Fibrosis
egg splitting. B. Polydactyly
D. Unhealthy environments and heredity. C. Measels
14. The rearrangement of DNA nucleotides re- D. Cirrhosis of the Liver

sulting in a different amino acid.
19. A is a chart or family tree that tracks
A. translocation which members of a family have a particu-
B. gene mutation lar trait.
A. Punnett square
C. nondisjunction
B. Pedigree
D. missive substitution
C. Karyotype
15. Which disease or disorder is caused by the D. History Check
inheritance of two mutated RECESSIVE al-
leles? 20. Genes code for
A. Down Syndrome A. Protein
B. Colorblindness B. Fats
C. Cystic Fibrosis C. Other nucleic acids
D. Hemophilia D. Carbohydrates

21. In humans, the 23rd pair of chromosomes C. homozygous

are called: D. heterozygous

A. Autosomes
27. In a pedigree, if a child in generation II, has
B. Sex chromosomes
the recessive defective trait most likely
C. Chromatids the parents MUST both be:
D. Gender chromosomes A. Heterozygous with the hidden reces-
sive trait.
22. A horizontal line in a pedigree chart be-
tween two parents represents B. Homozygous Dominant and Heterozy-
gous with a hidden trait
A. mating (reproduction)
B. best friends C. Homozygous Dominant
C. frenemies D. It doesn’t matter
D. offspring 28. Why do sex-linked disorders affect men

more than women?
23. If a trait SKIPS a generation, it is an indi-
cation that the trait is A. males only have 1 X chromosome
A. dominant B. males do not have an X chromosome
B. recessive C. girls always have 2 defective X chro-
mosomes
C. incompletely dominant
D. males only have Y chromosomes
D. co-dominant
24. Which of the following combinations of 29. Heredity information for traits is located
sex chromosomes represent a female? in
A. XY A. chromosomes on genes
B. XXY B. genes of chromosomes
C. XX C. lysosomes in cytoplasm
D. none of above D. the mitichondria
25. If the male or female has the trait listed 30. In humans, chromosomes 1-22 are called:
in the pedigree chart, then the circle or A. Autosomes
square is
B. Sex chromosomes
A. empty
C. Chromatids
B. fully shaded
D. Carotenoids
C. half-shaded
D. spotted, like a leopard 31. A mutation is defined as:
A. A change in the cell’s structure
26. Which term correctly describes an individ-
ual with a pair of the same alleles for a B. Anything that changes in an embryo
trait? C. Any change in the physical features of
A. homologus a human
B. heterologus D. A change in the DNA sequence

32. A vertical line in a pedigree chart repre- 37. The variety of skin color in humans comes
sents about partly because more than 4 different
A. parents genes control this trait. This is an example
of
B. offspring
C. pets A. Codominance
D. mascots B. Incomplete dominance
33. is a hereditary disease that affects the C. multiple alleles
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lungs and digestive system. The body pro- D. polygenic traits
duces thick and sticky mucus that can clog
the lungs and obstruct the pancreas. 38. In a pedigree chart, a male is represented
A. cistic fibrosis by a
B. fibrocratic cysts A. circle
C. cystic fibrosis B. square
D. cystic fibrois
C. rhombus
34. Which type of genetic disorder is much
D. triangle
rarer because even just 1 defective gene
will create the disease?
39. Which pair of chromosomes carry the
A. dominant disorder genes that determine sex in humans?
B. recessive
A. Pair 1
C. codominant
B. Pair 46
D. sex-linked
C. Pair 13
35. Which disease or disorder is the result of
having an extra chromosome? D. Pair 23
A. Cystic Fibrosis
40. When 2 pea plants heterozygous for
B. Down Syndrome height (Tt) are crossed, what is the ratio
C. Colorblindness of the resulting genotypes (TT:Tt:tt)?
D. Sickle-cell Disease A. 1:2:1
36. Why are insertion and deletion B. 2:1:1
(frameshift) mutations so harmful?
C. 0:3:1
A. They change all of the codons from the
mutation on down the line, which changes D. 0:2:2
the amino acid sequence
41. Cause mutations in DNA
B. They insert things that an organism
doesn’t need. A. Endocrine Disruptors
C. They often delete things that organ- B. Chemical Mutagen
isms need.
C. Neurotoxins
D. Insertion and deletions are not any
more harmful than substitution mutations. D. Carcinogen

42. A pedigree chart tracks specific D. double trouble

trait(s).
45. Color Blindness is a sex-linked disease.

A. one Therefore, it HAS to affect which pair of
B. two chromosomes?
C. three A. 21
D. 15 B. 23
C. 24
43. A mutation can be passed to offspring only
if it takes place in a(n) cell. D. 1-22
A. sex 46. A male with brown eyes has homozygous
B. rare genes and is part of a pedigree chart for
brown eyes. Which symbol would he
C. diploid
have?
D. none of above
A. fully shaded circle
44. What does a double line mean? B. fully shaded square
A. double mint gum C. empty circle
B. twins D. empty square
C. double relation (inbreeding) E. half-shaded square

6. The Molecular Basis Of Inheritance
NARAYAN CHANGDER
6.1 Discovery of DNA as the genetic material
1. Griffith discovered A. A=T and C=G
A. that DNA was the genetic material B. A=C and G=T
B. that R-strain had transformed into S- C. A=T=G=C
strain D. none of above
C. that x-rays can take pictures of DNA
5. By using radioactive isotopes, Hershey
D. that mice aren’t very good for genetic and Chase were able to conclude that
studies is/are the carrier(s) of genetic informa-
tion.
2. Avery added an enzyme known to break
down DNA to his extract, and saw that A. DNA
the bacteria were B. Proteins
A. still transformed C. Carbohydrates
B. not transformed D. Lipids
C. all sick
6. The scientist(s) that first discovered bacte-
D. all killed rial transformation
3. When new nucleotides are added, Adenine A. Watson and Crick
pairs with B. Griffith
A. Guanine C. Avery
B. Cytosine D. Hershey and Chase
C. Adenine 7. Who took the definitive picture of DNA us-
D. Thymine ing x-rays?
4. What are the base pair rules according to A. Rosalind Franklin

Chargaff? B. James Watson

6.1 Discovery of DNA as the genetic material 475
C. Erwin Chargaff D. none of above

D. Frederick Griffith
13. Erwin Chargaff discovered what feature

8. Who discovered that A = T and C = G? regarding DNA
A. Chargaff A. The Helical structure
B. Franklin B. The constant ratio of the bases
C. Watson & Crick C. The Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
D. Griffith
D. The length of a strand of DNA
9. The role of DNA is to
14. cytosine pairs with
A. Transfer Genetic information
A. guanine
B. Store Genetic information
C. Expressing Gene (expressing informa- B. thymine
tion) C. adenine
D. Be turned into other molecules, like D. deoxyribose
proteins
15. Avery showed that bacterial transforma-
10. Short fragments of DNA that are a result
tion cannot occur in the absence of
of the synthesis of the lagging strand dur-
ing DNA replication.. A. Proteins
A. Lagging Strand B. DNA
B. Leading Strand C. RNA
C. Okazaki fragments D. Lipids
D. none of above
16. When Hershey and Chase radioactively la-
11. DNA replication takes place during beled the DNA of the bacteriophage, they
A. S phase in the cell cycle during Mitosis found radioactive phosphorous
B. S phase in the cell cycle during Meiosis A. in the bacterial cells
C. Prior to Fission B. in the liquid medium
D. After interphase
C. Both A & B
12. Griffith’s transformation experiments D. none of above
proved that DNA was the genetic mate-
rial without a doubt. 17. What happens in the lysogenic cycle?
A. True, he showed DNA was the genetic A. Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
material
B. Virus quickly kills the host cell
B. False, he only proved that there was a
transformative material, but could deter- C. Virus injects the nucleic acid into the
mine if it was protein or DNA host cell, and the nucleic acid integrates
into the host cell DNA and stays dormant
C. False, his results were inconclusive
for a long time
and didn’t get us any closer to discovering
the genetic material D. Bacteria injects DNA into a host cell

18. What is a virus that infects bacteria C. phosphate and base

called? D. base pairs
A. bacteriophage
24. This scientist(s) conducted experiments
B. infectious virus
that involved injecting mice with S bacteria
C. transformation and R bacteria.
D. gene change A. Avery
19. DNA is made up of a long chain of B. Griffith
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. amino acids C. Watson & Crick
B. proteins D. Hershey & Chase
C. nucleotides 25. The two scientists that confirmed that
D. carbohydrates DNA was what genes are made of by using
viruses
20. What do viruses need to reproduce?
A. Hershey and Chase
A. they need genetic material
B. Watson and Crick
B. They need a host cell
C. Franklin and Wilkins
C. They need bacteria
D. Chargaff and Griffith
D. They need insulin
21. How did Rosalind Franklin’s work affect 26. In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA
the work of Watson and Crick? replication take place?
A. It was used to determine the physical A. G1

structure of DNA B. S
B. It was used to identify the four bases C. G2
that make up DNA
D. M
C. It was used to determine the theory of
independent assortment 27. If Chargaff found that a sample of DNA
has 20% ADENINE, how much GUANINE
D. It was used to show DNA was the
would he have determined to be there?
molecule of inheritance
A. 30%
22. The strain of staphylococcus bacteria that
can cause pneumonia (pathogenic) B. 20%
A. r-strain C. 80%
B. s-strain D. 60%
C. both 28. The scientist(s) who finally figured out the
D. neither structure of DNA
A. Avery
23. What makes up the backbone (sides) of
DNA? B. Griffith
A. sugar and phosphate C. Hershey & Chase
B. sugar and base D. Watson & Crick

29. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair C. Chargaff and Franklin
with this partial strandATG TGA CAG D. Griffith and Avery

A. ATG TGA CAG
35. Who used enzymes with the transforma-
B. TAC ACT GTC tion experiment to find DNA is transfor-
C. GTA AGT GAC mation material?
D. CAT TCA CTG A. Oswald Avery
B. Frederick Griffith
30. an enzyme that eventually joins the sugar-
phosphate backbones of the Okazaki frag- C. Hershey & Chase
ments D. Erwin Chargaff
A. DNA Polymerase 36. When the viral DNA becomes active in the
B. DNA Ligase lysogenic cycle, which life cycle does it en-
C. Primase ter?
D. Topoisomerase A. lytic
B. lysogenic
31. Who worked with Hershey?
C. cell cycle
A. Chase
D. DNA replication
B. Watson
37. Griffith, Avery, and Hershey/Chase all
C. Franklin
performed important experiments that
D. Crick helped us discover that the genetic mate-
rial that stores hereditary information is
32. Hershey & Chase’s experiments depending
encoded in
upon the presence of distinguishes pro-
teins from DNA. A. Protein
A. Carbon B. Lipids
B. Nitrogen C. DNA
C. Sulfur D. Ribosomes
D. Oxygen 38. DNA is made of monomers called
33. Which enzyme is responsible for breaking A. amino acids

the Hydrogen bonds between the comple- B. phosphate
mentary bases during DNA replication C. nucleotides
A. DNA helicase D. purines and pyrimidines
B. Telomerase E. sugar
C. DNA polymerase
39. The scientist(s) who took the first picture
D. Adenine of DNA
34. Which scientists built a 3-D model of the A. Franklin & Wilkins
DNA double helix? B. Watson & Crick
A. Hershey and Chase C. Mendel
B. Watson and Crick D. Griffith

40. Which of the following complementary 45. Which 2 molecules forms the sides (back-
base pairs are correct? bone) of the DNA ladder?
A. A-T A. deoxyribose and adenine
B. A-G B. deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
C. T-C C. sugar and the nucleus
D. G-U D. deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
46. Which of these scientists did not win a No-
41. Which of the following is true about
bel Prize for the discovery of DNA struc-
Prokaryotes & their replication
ture?
A. Occurs in the nucleus A. Rosalind Franklin
B. have 1 circular chromosomes B. James Watson
C. they have histones wrapped around C. Francis Crick
DNA to make nucleosomes, which is con-
D. Maurice Wilkins
densed to make chromatin and then con-
densed to make chromosomes with sister 47. Frederick Griffith named the two types of
chromatids pneumonia bacteria
D. have telomeres A. R and S strains
E. 1 origin of replication B. adenine and guanine
C. bad and good strains
42. Discovered that A=T and C=G
D. watson and crick
A. Griffith
B. Chargraff 48. Which enzyme is responsible for reading
one strand of DNA and adding free nu-
C. Hershey & Chase cleotides that are complementary
D. Watson & Crick A. DNA helicase
43. Which letters represent DNA bases? B. Telomerase

C. DNA polymerase
A. ATCG
D. Adenine
B. WXYZ
C. XY 49. In short, what is bacterial transforma-
tion?
D. ABCD
A. The process by which bacteria can
44. Used Chargraff’s rule to determine that pass genetic information to one another
Adenine is paired with Thymine, and Cy- even when dead
tosine is paired with Guanine. B. The process of converting bacteria
A. Watson & Crick into viruses
C. The process of converting viruses into
B. Hershey & Chase
bacteria
C. Avery
D. The process by which bacteria turn
D. Griffith pathogenic

50. S-strain bacteria that Griffith worked with 55. What are the 2 types of virus
A. caused pneumonia A. protein & DNA

B. had a smooth appearance B. Lytic & Lysogenic
C. killed mice C. Parasite & non-parasite
D. all of these D. bacteriophage and Corona
51. Who discovered that the genetic material 56. When new nucleotides are added, Cyto-
in a bacteriophage was DNA? sine pairs with
A. Hershey & Chase A. Guanine
B. Griffith B. Cystosine
C. Avery C. Adenine
D. Watson & Crick D. Thymine
52. In Avery’s experiment, R cells were trans- 57. In the Meselson and Stahl Experiment
formed into starting with heavy DNA, and after TWO
A. protein generations in the “light” medium, Es-
cherichia coli cells will contain
B. S Cells
A. 25% heavy, 50% heavy/light, and 25%
C. DNA light
D. RNA B. 50% heavy and 50% light
53. In Griffith’s experiment, what was the re- C. 50% heavy and 50% heavy/light
sult of injecting dead s-strain and live r- D. 50% heavy/light and 50% light
strain bacteria into a mouse?
E. 25% heavy and 75% light
A. The mouse died and live s-strain was
recovered from the blood 58. Nucleotide pairing is always
B. The mouse lived A. purine and purine
C. The mouse died and live r-strain was B. pyrimidine and pyrimidine
recovered from the blood
C. purine and pyrimidine
D. none of above
D. none of the above-pairing is random
54. Proteins that bind to and stabilize he sin-
gle strands of DNA exposed when helicase 59. If Chargaff found that a sample of DNA
unwinds the double helix in preparation has 30% THYMINE, how much GUANINE
for replication. would he have calculated to be there?
A. helicase A. 30%
B. primer B. 20%
C. single strand binding proteins C. 80%
D. topoisomerase D. 60%

60. What organism was Griffith using when 65. The backbone of DNA is made of a
he discovered that a harmless strain of A. amino acids bonds
bacteria could transform into a lethal
strain of bacteria? B. hydrogen bonds
A. pea plants C. deoxyribose sugar, phosphate bond
B. fruit flies D. none of above
C. bacteriophages 66. Avery added an enzyme known to break
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. mice down proteins to his extract, and saw that
the bacteria were
61. The result of Hershey and Chase’s T2 ex- A. still transformed
periments showed that the of the virus
enters the host where viral replication B. not transformed
takes place. C. all killed
A. DNA D. all sick
B. Protein 67. Frederick Griffith worked with two types
C. Both DNA & Protein of bacteria
D. none of above A. paramecium
B. E. coli
62. What is the first step to both viral cycles?
C. streptococcus
A. The virus attaches to a host
D. acidophilus
B. the virus injects genetic material
C. the host gets sick 68. Oswald Avery discovered
D. the cell is destroyed A. DNA was the transforming principle
B. that there is more phosphorus in DNA
63. What is the matching DNA strand to
than in protein
ATTAG
C. how viruses work
A. UAAUC
D. the structure of DNA
B. CAACT
C. GAAGC 69. Who said, “The amount of A = the amount
of T, and the amount of G = the amount of
D. TAATC C”?
64. Scientist Griffith mixed dead, virulent, A. Chargaff
pneumonia-causing bacteria with living, B. Avery
harm-less bacteria. The harmless bacteria
than infected mice with pneumonia. This C. Griffith
experiment showed the process of D. Franklin
A. replication
70. If the DNA template has a Thymine, what
B. transcription will be added to the complementary stand
C. transformation A. DNA helicase
D. virulination B. Telomerase

C. DNA polymerase 76. DNA has nitrogen bases called

D. Adenine A. amino acids

E. Guanine B. phosphate
71. Who confirmed Griffith’s transformation C. nucleotides

principle and discovered that genes were D. purines and pyrimidines
composed of DNA? E. sugar
A. Oswald Avery
77. Which bases are considered pyrimidines?
B. Frederick Griffith
A. C and T
C. Hershey & Chase
B. C and G
D. Erwin Chargaff
C. A and T
72. If there was 24% of Adenine, what per- D. A and G
cent of the DNA is Cytosine?
A. 24% 78. Adenine is a and is based paired with
Thymine which is a
B. 52%
A. purine pyrimidine
C. 26%
B. pyrimidine purine
D. none of above
C. sugar nucleotide
73. The scientist(s) who discovered dominant D. none of above
and recessive traits
A. Mendel 79. What does a virus have on the outside?
B. Avery A. a protein coat
C. Griffith B. a fur coat
D. Watson & Crick C. crispy skin

D. membrane
74. Virus’ that specifically infect bacteria are
known as 80. Watson and Crick were the first to suggest
A. prionprions that DNA is
B. virus’ A. a short molecule
C. bacteriophages B. the shape of a double helix
D. antibiotics C. a protein molecule

D. the genetic material
75. If there was 24% of Adenine, what per-
cent of the DNA is Guanine? 81. What is the overall shape of DNA
A. 24% A. single strand
B. 52% B. straight ladder
C. 26% C. double helix
D. none of above D. circle

82. In the early 1900s, most scientists C. corkscrew ladder

thought it was that carried traits form D. homologous strands
parent to offspring.
A. Carbohydrates 88. A tiny non-living particle that invades and
then multiplies inside of a living cell is
B. Lipids called a:
C. Proteins A. vaccine
D. DNA B. virus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
83. The enzyme that brings in correct free C. bacteriophage
floating nucleotides and creates bonds be- D. none of above
tween them is
89. This scientist(s) found a “transforming
A. polymerase
principle” that changed harmless bacteria
B. helicase into harmful bacteria
C. catalase A. Mendel
D. synthase B. Avery
84. Who discovered that bacteria could be C. Chargraff

changed by the process of transforma- D. Griffith
tion?
90. A(n) is a virus that enters a bacterial
A. Griffith cell.
B. Hershey & Chase A. endospore
C. Avery B. decomposer
D. Franklin C. plasmid
85. What 2 organisms did Frederick Griffith D. bacteriophage
study?
91. Which type of virus life cycle includes the
A. mice virus’s genetic material being inserted into
B. bacteriophage the host DNA?
C. bacteria:pneumonia A. Lytic
D. humans B. Lysogenic
C. Parasite
86. Who first imaged the DNA double helix?
D. bacteriophage
A. Chargoff
92. Which expressions are related to viruses
B. Avery
A. smallest living cell
C. Watson and Crick
B. pathogenic & parasitic
D. Franklin
C. made of Genetic material & proteins
87. The name given to the shape of DNA is D. attacks all cells in the body
A. double helix E. injects Genetic information into the
B. alpha spiral host

93. What is the structural difference between 98. When a virus invades a living cell, its
r-strain and s-strain staphylococcus? takes over the cell’s functions.

A. the r-strain has a capsule and the s- A. outer coat
strain does not.
B. genetic material
B. the s-strain has a capsule and the r-
strain does not. C. core
C. the r-strain has DNA and the s-strain D. cytoplasm
does not.
99. Who took a picture of DNA using X-ray
D. the s-strain has DNA and the r-strain
diffraction?
does not.
A. Rosalind Franklin
94. S-strain bacteria
B. Watson & Crick
A. caused pneumonia
C. Oswald Avery
B. had a smooth appearance
D. Hershey & Chase
C. was covered by a mucus-like coat
D. all of these 100. What is included in the backbone of
DNA?
95. The two scientists that confirmed that
DNA was what bacteriophages inject into A. nitrogen bases and sugar
bacteria were
B. nucleotides and sugar
A. Hershey and Chase
C. sugar and phosphate
B. Watson and Crick
D. nitrogen base and phosphate
C. Franklin and Wilkins
D. Nestle and Quick 101. DNA is made of 2 strands of nucleotide
joined together between a purine and a
96. Scientist(s) who used chemical analysis to pyrimidine by
show that the genetic material in bacteria
was DNA A. amino acids bonds
A. Griffith B. hydrogen bonds

B. Hershey & Chase C. sugar, phosphate bond
C. Mendel D. none of above
D. Avery
102. This scientist(s) developed a process to
97. DNA is made of deoxyribose, which is a extract the “transforming principle” and
directly observe R bacteria transforming
into S bacteria
A. amino acids
B. phosphate A. Avery
C. nucleotides B. Griffith
D. purines and pyrimidines C. Franklin & Wilkins
E. sugar D. Watson & Crick

103. The “transforming principle” that Grif- 108. Guanine bonds with
fith discovered was later determined to be A. Adenine
B. Guanine
A. Proteins
C. Cytosine
B. Carbs
D. Thymine
C. DNA
D. Mitochondria 109. Who first noticed the ratios of nu-
cleotides in DNA?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
104. Hershey and Chase did their DNA studies A. Avery
on viruses that infect bacteria, called
B. Watson and Crick
A. Bacteriophages
C. Franklin
B. Influenza
D. Chargoff
C. Staphylococcus
110. If there was 24% of Adenine, what per-
D. r-strains
cent of the DNA is Thymine?
105. Choose the correct order of lytic cycle A. 24%
steps
B. 52%
A. attachment, entry, assembly, replica-
C. 26%
tion, release
D. none of above
B. attachment, entry, replication, assem-
bly, release 111. What did Erwin Chargaff conclude from
C. attachment, entry, assembly, release, his experiments?
replication A. Nitrogen bases are held together by
D. attachment, release, assembly, repli- peptide bonds
cation, entry B. A and T, C and G always occur in equal
amounts
106. From his work with mice and pneumonia-
causing bacteria, Frederick Griffin coined C. Proteins are the carriers of genetic in-
the term formation
A. Replication D. C and G rarely occur in eukaryotic or-
ganisms
B. Transcription
C. Transformation 112. Who did Crick do his research with?
D. Translation A. Watson
B. Avery
107. What did Avery use to destroy proteins,
lipids, and carbohydrates to show that C. Hershey
DNA was the transforming factor? D. Chase
A. Bacteriophages 113. Hershey & Chase used radioactive to
B. X-ray diffraction label the DNA core of the bacteriophage.
C. Enzymes A. Phosphorus
D. Radioactive isotopes B. Nitrogen

C. Carbon 118. What was Watson and Crick’s main sci-

D. Sulfur entific accomplishment?

A. Building the first accurate model of
114. How are the S strain and the R strain of DNA
S. pneumoniae different?
B. Isolating strains of pneumonia causing
A. The R strain produces a capsule and bacteria
makes you sick, but the S strain does not
C. Determining base pairing rules
B. The S strain produces a capsule and
makes you sick, but the R strain does not D. Discovering the process of genetic
transformation
C. The R strain is virulent, but the S strain
is not 119. Reasons that viruses are considered to be
D. the R strain contains protein, but the S nonliving is because
strain does not A. They are not cellular
115. The work of scientists including Grif- B. They cannot reproduce on their own
fin, Avery, Hershey & Chase and Franklin C. They cannot make proteins
helped us to determine the are respon-
sible for carrying genetic material. D. all of the above
A. Amino Acids 120. Who developed the double-helix model of

B. Proteins DNA?
C. Nucleic Acids A. Watson & Crick
D. Carbohydrates B. Avery
C. Hershey & Chase
116. Which two types of cells in Griffith’s ex-
periment allow the mouse to live after D. Franklin
they are injected?
121. If DNA Polymerase is reading the follow-
A. R cells ing sequence:3’-AATCGC-5’ what will the
B. S cells enzyme add to the growing DNA strand?
C. heat-killed S cells A. 5’-GCGATT-3’
D. heat-killed S cells mixed with R cells B. 5’-TTAGCG-3’
117. How did Rosalind Franklin’s photo 51 af- C. 5’-AATCGC-3’

fect the work of Watson and Crick? D. 3’-AATCGC-5’
A. It was used to determine the physical
122. Hershey & Chase used radioactive P-35
structure of DNA
to identify the activity of inside the cell
B. It was used to identify the four bases
that make up DNA
A. Proteins
C. It was used to determine the theory of
B. DNA
independent assortment
C. bacteriophages
D. It was used to show DNA was the
molecule of inheritance D. none of above

123. The first scientist to perform multiple 128. The Meselson-Stahl experiment demon-
tests on the transforming principle, to de- strated that DNA replication produces two
termine if it was DNA or protein DNA molecules each composed of
A. Griffith A. two old strands
B. Chargraff B. two new strands.
C. Avery C. one old and one new strand.
D. Hershey D. two strands with variable proportions
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of new and old DNA
124. Which of these did not win a Nobel Prize
E. a variable number of old and new
for the discovery of DNA structure?
strands.
A. Rosalind Franklin
129. Which scientists used viruses and radioac-
B. James Watson
tive isotopes to definitively prove that
C. Francis Crick DNA, and not protein, was the molecule
D. Maurice Wilkins of heredity?
A. Griffith and Avery
125. Which enzyme is responsible for proof
reading the completed DNA strands B. Chargaff and Franklin
A. DNA helicase C. Watson and Crick
B. Telomerase D. Hershey and Chase
C. DNA polymerase 130. An enzyme that joins RNA nucleotides to

make the primer.
D. Adenine
A. helicase
126. Franklin used x-ray crystallography to
B. primer
determine the shape of the DNA molecule
is C. primase
A. a cloverleaf D. topoisomerase
B. a braided rope 131. Which defines a codon in DNA or mRNA?
C. a pleated sheet A. a pair of nucleic acid and sugar
D. a twisted ladder B. a pair of phosphate and sugar
127. What are the 4 nitrogen bases? C. three base code
A. adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and gua- D. two base code
nine
132. Built a model of DNA out of metal and
B. adenine, thymine cytosine, and gua- wood
nine
A. Avery
C. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gyl-
cerol B. Griffith
D. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glu- C. Hershey & Chase

cose D. Watson & Crick

6.2 Structure of DNA and RNA 487
133. DNA replication is called because 1 135. The enzyme that unzips DNA to being
old strand of DNA is used to make another replication is

A. exact A. polymerase
B. perfect B. helicase
C. conservative C. catalase
D. semi-conservative D. synthase
E. copies 136. Which enzyme is responsible to protect
134. By using radioactive isotopes, were important genes by adding a non-coding
able to conclude that is/are the car- sequence at the end of the chromosome
rier(s) of genetic information. A. DNA helicase
A. Hershey and Chase, DNA B. Telomerase
B. Hershey and Chase, Proteins C. DNA polymerase
C. Griffith, DNA D. Adenine
D. Rosalind F., DNA E. Guanine
6.2 Structure of DNA and RNA

1. How many hydrogen bonds are found be- A. phosphate
tween Guanine and Cytosine? B. sugar
A. 1 C. guanine
B. 2 D. hydrogen bond
C. 3
5. All nucleotides have a five carbon
D. 4
A. sugar
2. In DNA the five carbon sugar is , while B. Phosphate
in RNA it is C. Nucleotides
A. Ribose; deoxyribose D. none of above
B. Deoxyribose; ribose
6. Once replication in a DNA molecule is com-
C. Adenine; Guanine plete, each new DNA molecule contains
D. none of above A. two new strands.
3. What kind of sugar is found in DNA? B. 3 exact copies of strands.
A. Glucose C. one new strand and one old.
B. Fructose D. two old strands.
C. Sucrose 7. A DNA molecule with the base sequence
D. Deoxyribose A-G-C-T-C-A was used as a template to
create an RNA molecule. Which base
4. Which part of a DNA molecule represents sequence correctly represents the corre-
encoded information? sponding RNA molecule?

A. T-C-A-G-C-A C. DNA Helicase

B. U-C-G-A-G-U D. DNA Briefcase
C. A-G-C-U-C-A
13. Which of the following elements make up
D. A-T-G-A-C-T
nucleic acids?
8. When DNA is transcribed to RNA, Adenine A. C, H, O
bonds with
B. C, H, O, N
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Guanine
B. Uracil C. C, H, O, N, P
C. Cytosine D. C, H, O, Ca, S
D. Adenine
14. What are the different types of rna
E. Thymine
A. one type for tranfering genetic infor-
9. Which carbon bonds to the phosphate mation to the ribosomes from DNA
group in a nucleotide?
B. one makes up mitocondria with pro-
A. 5 teins
B. 4
C. one makes up ribosomes with proteins
C. 3
D. one is involeved in protein synthesis
D. 2
10. Which of the following is not found in all 15. What is the purpose of DNA Replication?
nucleotide molecules? A. ensures that every cell has exactly half
A. Nitrogen base of the DNA as original
B. pentose (a 5-carbon sugar) B. assures that every cell has a complete
C. phosphate group set of identical genetic information
D. Adenine C. ensures each cell has twice as much

DNA as the original
11. Which of the following scientists used ra-
dioactively labeled viruses to determine D. ensures that your offspring will look
whether it was DNA or protein that was just like you
genetic material?
16. Which chemical components may be parts
A. Avery of a RNA molecule?
B. Hershey & Chase
A. deoxyribose, phosphate group, uracil
C. Griffith base
D. none of above B. glucose, amino group, thymine base
12. What “unzips” the DNA to start replica- C. ribose, phosphate group, thymine
tion? base
A. DNA Polymerase D. ribose, phosphate group, adenine
B. DNA Justincase base

17. Why is DNA replication considered semi- B. Helicase

conservative? C. DNA Polymerase 1

A. Helicase adds new nucleotides to both
D. DNA Polymerase 3
strands
B. In each of the resulting molecules, one 23. The process of going from DNA to mRNA
strand is old, and the other is new is called
C. There are three copies made from the A. Transcription
original molecule B. Translation
D. Each strand of a DNA molecule is ori- C. Transportation
ented in a different direction; one up, one
down D. Transient
18. What is the shape of DNA? 24. What are the three components of a nu-
cleotide?
A. Double Hyperbola
B. Paraolic A. sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
C. Double Helix B. sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
D. Linear C. sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base

D. sugar, phosphate, protein
19. What do we call the shape a DNA molecule
takes? 25. Which of the following nitrogenous bases
A. double-stranded form TWO hydrogen bonds when they
base pair?
B. double helix
A. Adenine and Thymine
C. sugar-phosphate backbone
D. pentagon B. Guanine and Cytosine
C. Guanine and Adenine
20. DNA is a what molecule
D. Cytosine and Uracil
A. big
B. stable 26. In nucleotides, the letters A, G, T, and C
represent
C. unstable
A. Amino acids
D. none of above
B. Nitrogen bases
21. mRNA stands for
C. Nucleic acids
A. my RNA
D. Peptide bonds
B. messenger RNA
C. mitosis RNA 27. The process of how a DNA molecule makes
a copy of itself is referred to as DNA:
D. mutated RNA
A. multiplication
22. Which enzyme is responsible for form-
B. replication
ing phosphodiester bonds between the
Okazaki fragments? C. duplication
A. Ligase D. reproduction

28. What is the difference between DNA and 33. Genetic info flows in one direction. Which
RNA from the point of view of the nitroge- best represents this flow?
nous bases that are present in their nu- A. DNA-protein-RNA
cleotides?
B. Protein-RNA-DNA
A. In DNA, nucleotides can be made up
of A, T, C, G. In RNA, nucleotides can also C. RNA-protein-DNA
contain A, C or G; however, instead of T, D. DNA-RNA-protein
they contain U.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
34. What joins two mononucleotides together
B. Purine and Pyrimidine
A. condesation reaction
C. Pyrimidine:Thymine, Cytosine (Urical)
B. hydrolysis reaction
D. DNA, RNA
C. between the pentose sugar of one and
29. Watson and Crick discovered the shape of the phospate group of another
DNA, which is D. between the pentose sugar of one and
A. A short single strand the pentose sugar of another
B. A double helix E. between nitrogen conatining organic
base of one and the phospate group of an-
C. A circle other
D. A triple helix
35. Which type of RNA is made in the nu-
30. What base does DNA have that RNA does cleus?
not? A. mRNA
A. Adenine B. rRNA
B. Guanine C. tRNA
C. Cytosine D. none of above
D. Thymine 36. How many amino acids can be represented
by a single 3-base DNA sequence?
31. DNA is made up of a phosphate group, an
organic base, and A. 1
A. a molecule of ATP B. 3
B. a sugar C. 6
C. an amino group D. 8
D. glycerol 37. In what organelle does tRNA bring the an-

ticodons and delivers amino acids to so
32. Translation occurs in what part of the that they can be added to the developing
cell? peptide chain?
A. Ribosome A. Nucleous
B. Mitochondria B. Ribosome
C. Chlorplast C. DNA
D. Nucleus D. Chromosome

38. Which nucleic acid can be in the nucleus? 44. A nucleotide is made of what 3 things?
A. DNA only A. adenine, guanine, and cytosine

B. RNA only B. hydrogen, phosphate, and adenine
C. Both DNA and RNA
C. deoxyribose, hydrogen and thymine
D. none of above
D. deoxyribose, phosphate, and a base
39. What does tRNA do?
45. Which enzyme pairs nucleotides together
A. provides information from DNA to ribo-
during replication and also “proofreads”
somes
the new DNA strand and corrects any mis-
B. carries amino acids to the ribosomes takes?
C. makes up ribosomes A. DNA polymerase
D. builds proteins
B. Ligase
40. In a strand of DNA, if it contains 20% of C. Helicase
Thymine, then how much Guanine would
be present? D. Primase
A. 30% 46. Which are necessary to make DNA repli-
B. 20% cation semi-conservative? I. Separation
C. 80% of the strands by RNA polymeraseII. Com-
plementary base pairingIII. Use of a pre-
D. 10% existing strand as a template
41. The molecules of genetic information are A. I and II only
composed of:
B. I and III only
A. Nucleotides
C. II and III only
B. Proteins
C. Amino Acids D. I, II and III
D. Fatty Acids 47. Transcribe the following sequence of DNA

42. The is a subunit of the DNA; it contains into RNA:AAG CTT TGC
a nitrogen base of either adenine, guanine, A. TTC GAA ACG
thymine, or cytosine.
B. UUC GAA ACG
A. gene
C. TTC GUU UCG
B. nucleotide
D. UUC GUU UCG
C. nucleus
D. chromosome 48. What is the correct complimentary strand
for the following DNA sequence? ATCGAG
43. Transcriptionally active chromatin is called
A. TACGAG
A. Euchromatin
B. Heterochromatin B. ATCGAG
C. Chromatonema C. TAGCTG
D. none of above D. TAGCTC

49. One strand of DNA is:AGC CAT GTA What C. Proofreads DNA strands to see that
is the complementary strand? they are correct
A. ACG GAT CTA D. All of these are true about DNA poly-
B. TCG GTA CAT merase
C. TGC CTA GAT 55. During , the cell uses mRNA as a tem-
D. UCG CUA CAU plate to make proteins in the ribosome.
50. DNA is composed of repeating structural A. Transcription
NARAYAN CHANGDER
units called B. Translation
A. Nucleotides C. Replication
B. Codons D. Connections
C. Thymines
56. If base-pairing rules state that Adenine al-
D. Deoxyribose
ways pairs with Thymine, and Cytosine
51. Which sequence of DNA would be comple- pairs with Guanine, what would be the
mentary to this sequence? ATG TGA CAG complementary strand to ACGGT?
A. ATG TGA CAG A. ACGGT
B. TAC ACT GTC B. TGGCA
C. GTA AGT GAC C. TGCCA
D. CAT TCA CTG D. ACCGT
52. The DNA nucleotide is composed of three 57. Which of the following sequences of
parts. Which two components make up the processes correctly reflects the central
nucleotide backbone? dogma?
A. ribose sugar and base
A. protein synthesis, transcription, trans-
B. ribose sugar and phosphate group lation
C. nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar B. protein synthesis, translation, tran-
D. deoxyribose sugar and phosphate scription
group C. transcription, translation, protein syn-
53. Which of the following do nucleic acids and thesis
proteins have in common? D. translation, transcription, protein syn-
A. They are both made of amino acids thesis
B. Their structures consist of a sugar 58. If a portion of mRNA contained the codon
C. They are macromolecules U-A-G then the corresponding anticodon
D. They are made of 4 nitrogen bases on tRNA would be
A. A-U-C
54. DNA polymerase
B. U-A-G
A. Is an enzyme
C. A-T-C
B. Adds new nucleotides to the template
strand D. A-T-G

59. How many polynucleotide chains make up 65. How would you read the second strand to
DNA? this first strand? 5’-ATTGACC-3’

A. 2 A. 3’-TAACTGG-5’
B. 1 B. 5’-TAACTGG-3’
C. 3 C. 3’-CGGTCAA-5’
D. 4 D. 5’-CGGTCAA-3’
60. If 15 % of a sample of DNA is thymine, 66. Choose the correctly paired base pairs:
what percentage of the DNA is guanine? A. A-C & T-G
A. 15 % B. A-T & C-G
B. 30 % C. C-U & T-A
C. 35 % D. none of above
D. It cannot be determined from the infor-
mation given. 67. Identify how the DNA bases pair:
A. A-G & C-T
61. What is the name of the shape of DNA?
B. A-A; T-T; C-C; G-G
A. Strand
C. A-T & C-G
B. Double Helix
D. none of above
C. α -helix
D. nucleotide staircase 68. The bonds that hold the two strands of
DNA together come from
62. A triplet of mRNA is called a A. the attraction of phosphate groups
A. codon B. strong bonds between bases and sug-
B. anticodon ars
C. amino acid C. carbon to carbon bonds in the sugar
D. peptide bond D. weak hydrogen bonds between the
bases
63. If the percentage of DNA is made of 30%
Thymine, what is the correct percentage of 69. Base pairs in a DNA strand are held to-
Guanine? gether by what type of bonds?
A. 30 A. covalent
B. 15 B. hydrogen
C. 20 C. ionic
D. 60 D. James
64. Transcription takes place in the 70. DNA is the template for
A. cytoplasm A. amino acids
B. ribosome B. tRNA
C. mitochondrion C. mRNA
D. nucleus D. sugars

71. Which scientist discovered the pieces of nu- 77. Where inside a cell is DNA found?
cleotides? A. nucleus
A. Griffith B. cytoplasm
B. Levene C. endoplasmic reticulum
C. Watson & Crick D. Golgi body
D. Avery 78. What base does Cytosine pair with?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
72. Carries the genetic code to the ribosome A. Guanine
A. mRNA B. Thymine
B. tRNA C. Adenine
C. rRNA D. Ribose
D. DNA 79. Which of the following bases is NOT found

in RNA?
73. The process by which DNA makes a copy
A. Thymine
of itself is known as
B. Adenine
A. replication
C. Guanine
B. denaturation
D. Cytosine
C. synthesis
80. What is the name of the enzyme that binds
D. mitosis
together the okazaki fragments?
74. Why does DNA stay in the nueclus? A. DNA polymerase
A. To protect it from becoming damaged. B. Ligase
B. It is lazy. C. Primase
C. It is grounded. D. Helicase
D. It cannot move. 81. Which statement best describes the rela-
tionship that exists among proteins, DNA,
75. DNA is copied during and cells?
A. Translation A. Proteins combine to produce cells,
B. Transcription which produce DNA.
C. Reproduction B. Proteins are made up of DNA, which
determines the cells that are produced
D. Replication
C. DNA is made up of proteins, which tell
76. A segment of DNA that codes for a protein a cell how to function
is called a D. Cells contain DNA, which controls the
A. Enzyme production of proteins.
B. Mutation 82. What type of macromolecule is DNA?
C. Gene A. Protein
D. Complimentary B. Lipid

C. Nucleic Acid C. a branched chain of fatty acids

D. Carb D. a branched chain of nucleic acids

83. The process of making RNA (i.e. mRNA) 89. The backbone of DNA is made of which
from DNA is called TWO components?
A. Replication A. sugar
B. Transcription B. phosphate
C. Translation
C. nitrogenous bases
D. Protein synthesis
D. hydrogen
84. Which scientist discovered “Nuclein? ”
90. What does rRNA do?
A. Miescher
A. provides information from DNA to ribo-
B. Levene
somes
C. Watson & Crick
B. carries amino acids to the ribosomes
D. Avery
C. makes up ribosomes
85. It is considered as the “blueprint of life”. D. builds proteins
A. RNA
91. The “rungs” of the DNA molecule is made
B. tRNA
up of
C. DNA
A. phosphate and sugar
D. mRNA
B. sugar and nitrogen base
86. DNA is a polymer consisting of monomers C. phosphate
called
D. nitrogen bases
A. Proteins
B. Amino acids 92. What is not common to both DNA and
RNA?
C. Genes
D. Nucleotides A. Adenine
B. Cytidine
87. The two strands of a DNA double helix are
held together by: C. Thymine
A. hydrogen bonds D. Cytosine
B. peptide bonds 93. Why do siblings often look alike even if
C. covalent bonds they aren’t twins?
D. ionic bonds A. They all share DNA from the same par-
ents
88. Which of these is part of the description of
protein? B. They have exact DNA
A. a folded chain of amino acids C. They live in the same house
B. a folded chain of carbohydrates D. all of these

94. What is the process of turning DNA into 100. If there is 37% guanine how much cyto-
mRNA? sine is there?
A. Central Dogma A. 77%
B. Transcription B. 47%
C. Translation C. 37%
D. Trapezoid D. 57%
101. In DNA, adenine always pairs with:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
95. Which organelle is DNA usually found in
within animal cells? A. uracil
A. cell membrane B. thymine
B. vacuole C. guanine
C. chloroplast D. cytosine
D. nucleus
102. How can a DNA strand that is 200 million
96. how do bases in DNA attach to each other bases long fit inside a cell?
A. phosphodiester bonds A. It winds around histones to form nu-
cleosomes and is organized into chromo-
B. condestion reactions
somes.
C. hydrogen bonds
B. It is all stuffed in the nucleus to com-
D. nitrogen bonds press it.
97. If a double stranded DNA has 40% G. The C. It is wound up in guanines to keep it
amount of T in the dna is organized.
A. 40% D. none of above
B. 60% 103. Which of the following is the sugar found
C. 10% in RNA?
D. None of the above A. Ribose
B. Maltose
98. How are the amino acids linked together
during translation? C. Deoxyribose
A. by creating peptide bonds D. Amylose
B. by creating hydrogen bonds 104. What is DNA and RNA made up of?
C. by creating covalent bonds A. Nucleotides
D. by creating phospate bonds B. Monosaccharides
99. What is the name of the sugar found in C. Polysaccharides
RNA? D. Sugars
A. Deoxyribose 105. What monomers (building blocks) are
B. Ribose DNA and RNA consisted of?
C. Glucose A. nitrogen base
D. Sucrose B. nucleotides

C. sugar-phosphate backbone C. 35%

D. blood D. 50%

106. According to Chargaff’s Rule, if DNA has 111. Which of the following nucleic acids con-
20% adenine, what % is cytosine? tain thymine?
A. 10% A. DNA and RNA
B. 30% B. RNA only
C. 80% C. DNA only
D. 60% D. None of the above
107. The complex of DNA wrapped around het- 112. The bonds in a DNA molecule that hold
erochromatin is called a base pairs together are weak hydrogen
bonds. Why must these bonds be weak?
A. Nucleosome
A. They need to separate to make ribo-
B. Chromatin somes
C. Chromosome B. To break apart for the replication of
D. Histone DNA
108. Which of the following events occurs di- C. They need to easily leave the nucleus
rectly after RNA polymerase recognizes a D. To allow phosphates to bond to bases
gene?
113. What is the correct complementary
A. The polymerase strings amino acids strand for the following DNA? ATCGAG
into a polypeptide
A. TACGAG
B. Free-floating nucleotides pair up with
exposed DNA bases B. ATCGAG
C. A complementary RNA strand de- C. TAGCTG

taches itself from the DNA D. TAGCTC
D. The DNA strand begins to unwind, sep- 114. Which statement is TRUE regarding DNA
arating the two strands and RNA?
109. A process in which DNA has the unique A. DNA’s sugar is ribose; RNA’s sugar is
ability to make an exact copy of itself. deoxyribose
A. Replication B. DNA is single stranded; RNA is double
stranded
B. Translation
C. DNA contains thymine; RNA contains
C. Transcription
uracil
D. none of above
D. DNA is in cytoplasm; RNA is in nucleus
110. If 20% of a DNA sample is made up of 115. A gene gives the instructions for pro-
thymine, T, what percentage of the sample tein synthesis. Which type of molecule
is made up of cytosine, C? is responsible for carrying the instructions
A. 15% through the cytoplasm?
B. 30% A. ATP

B. RNA 121. If a strand reads:3’ A A A T T T C 5’The

C. DDT matching strand would read
D. DNA A. 5’ T T T A A A G 3’
E. protein B. 3’ T T T A A A G 5’
116. The lagging strand is composed of seg- C. 5’ A A A T T T C 3’

ments known as D. 3’ U U U A A A G 5’
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Okazaki fragments
122. What is the composition of the backbone
B. RNA primers of DNA?
C. Nitrogen bases A. Alternating sugar and phosphate
D. Replication fork molecules
117. The nucleus contains DNA. Which state- B. Complementary base pairs
ment BEST describes how DNA controls the C. Alternating sugar and base molecules
working of the cell?
D. A polysaccharide
A. It codes for proteins.
B. It inhibits division of cells. 123. Which pairing below is correct?
C. It helps in energy transformation. A. thymine-adenine
D. It regulates traffic in and out of the B. cytosine-adenine
cell.
C. adenine-guanine
118. In RNA, the nitrogen base replaces D. cytosine-cytosine
that was present in DNA.
A. A, U (adenine, uracil) 124. Which of the following is correct about
the PHOSPHATE group?
B. C, G (cytosine, guanine)
A. It binds to carbon (the sugar)
C. U, T (uracil, thymine)
D. U, A (uracil, adenine) B. It is positively charged
C. It is basic (alkaline)
119. Which is not a component of a nu-
cleotide? D. It binds to the nitrogenous base
A. codon 125. The order of the base pairs along a gene
B. sugar is important because:
C. phosphate group A. an organism can only survive if the
D. nitrogen base base pairs are in the correct sequence.
B. if forms a code that tells a cell which
120. WHAT ARE DNA AND RNA MADE OF
protein to make.
A. bases
C. if forms a code that tells a cell how to
B. nucleotides reproduce.
C. phosphate D. None of the above:the order of base
D. none of above pairs doesn’t matter

126. What does the term semi-conservative A. serine codon

mean?
B. tRNA codon

A. DNA consists of half an old strand and
C. start codon
half a new strand and the code stays con-
served. D. anticodon
B. DNA consists of two old strands and
131. Translation occurs in the
the code stays conserved.
A. nucleus
C. DNA consists of two new strands and
the code stays conserved. B. mitochondria
D. DNA consists of half an old strand and C. cytoplasm
half a new strand and the code changes
D. golgi apparatus
each time.
127. Which enzyme is responsible for adding 132. The sugar inside RNA is called
nucleotides? A. Ribose
A. Topoisomerase B. Deoxyribose
B. DNA Polymerase C. Rhynose
C. Ligase
D. Glucose
D. Primase
133. In DNA, the nitrogenous bases are:
128. What are the components of a nu-
cleotide? A. A, T, C, G
A. nitrogen base, phosphate group, and B. A, U, C, G

pentose sugar C. U, T, C, G
B. pentose sugar, purine, and pyrimidine D. none of above
C. nitrogen base and a phosphate group
134. The building blocks of DNA & RNA con-
D. DNA, phosphate group, monosaccha-
sisting of a five-carbon sugar, a phosphate
ride
group, and a nitrogen-containing base.
129. Which of the following are differences in A. Genetics
the structure between RNA and DNA
B. Replication
A. DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA
uses sugar ribose C. Nucleotides
B. DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA D. none of above

pairs Adenine with Thymine
135. Which of the following are nucleotides
C. DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single NOT made up of?
helix
A. A carbon compound
D. DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA
pairs Adenine with Uracil B. A sugar
C. A phosphate group
130. A tRNA that carries the amino acid me-
thionine pairs with which type of codon? D. A nitrogen-containing base

136. tRNA has a sequence of three nitrogen 141. In DNA the sides of the double helix is
bases attached called made of
A. Codons A. deoxyribose and phosphates
B. Base pairs B. adenine and guanine
C. thymine and cytosines
C. Anticodons
D. none of above
D. Genes
142. A single stranded nucleic acid made up of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
137. RNA contains the sugar repeating nucleotides
A. Deoxyribose A. protein
B. Glucose B. RNA
C. Ribose C. DNA
D. Lipids D. ribosome
143. created an accurate model of the
138. This nucleic acid is single stranded structure of DNA
A. DNA A. Nirenberg and Matthaei
B. RNA B. Watson and Crick
C. Both C. Levene
D. none of above D. Chargaff
144. What are the functions of genes?
139. Which of the following statements is/are
correct for DNA replication? I. It oc- A. instructions for producing proteins
curs during interphase. II. It is semi- B. instructions for producing DNA
conservative. III. It is a stage in protein
C. instructions for producing lipids
synthesis.
D. they have no function
A. I only
145. In DNA replication the is synthesized
B. II only
continuously in the direction of the replica-
C. I and II only tion fork.
D. I, II and III A. leading strand
B. lagging strand
140. Which of the following are connected by
a hydrogen bond? C. parent DNA molecule
D. daughter DNA molecule
A. The hydrogen and oxygen atoms of a
water molecule 146. Which shows the correct complementary
B. A base pair of a DNA molecule base pairing found in DNA?
A. Cytosine-Adenine, Thymine-Guanine
C. Two amino acid molecules of a dipep-
tide B. Adenine-Guanine, Cytosine-Thymine
D. Two glucose molecules in a disaccha- C. Cytosine-Guanine, Uracil-Adenine
ride D. Thymine-Adenine, Guanine-Cytosine

147. what do all organic bases contain B. telomere

A. oxygen C. chromatid

B. hydrogen D. DNA
C. carbon 153. What nitrogen base is in DNA but NOT
D. nitrogen RNA?
A. uracil
148. Which enzyme breaks the hydrogen
bonds between the two DNA strands? B. thymine
A. DNA polymerase C. guanine
B. DNA helicase D. adenine
C. primase 154. If there is combined 60% for Cytosine

and Guanine, what is the combined % for
D. ligase
Adenine and Thymine?
149. What type of bond join the nitrogen A. 60%
bases together in DNA? B. 40%
A. covalent C. 20%
B. hydrogen D. 10%
C. mutual
155. what are nucleotides made of
D. peptide
A. phospahate
150. Which most directly affects the sequence B. pentose sugar
of amino acids in a protein? C. organic base
A. the DNA in the nucleus of the cell D. phosphorus
B. the amino acids found in the cytoplasm E. carbon
C. the type of cell in which the protein is
156. If one strand of a DNA molecule contains
made
the letters ATTCG, what would be the let-
D. the region of the cell in which the pro- ters on the complementary strand?
tein is made
A. ATTCG
151. A sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitro- B. TAAGC
gen base form the building blocks of which C. CGGTA
organic compound?
D. UAAGC
A. carbohydrates
157. Which biomolecules are found in all organ-
B. nucleic acids
isms?
C. lipids
A. glucose, maltose, fructose, sucrose
D. proteins
B. adenine, cytosine, thymine, guanine
152. A repeating non-coding sequence that C. chlorophyll, cytosine, thymine, gua-
serves as a protective cap at the end of nine
a chromosome is known as a D. cholesterol, phospholipid, cellulose,
A. chromatin gibberellin

158. Where does transcription take place? 164. The process of making mRNA from DNA
A. nucleus is called.
B. ribosome A. Replication
C. cytoplasm B. Transcription
D. smooth ER C. Translation
159. When DNA copies itself D. Protein synthesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. DNA reproduction
165. How is the DNA sequence AATTA repli-
B. DNA copying cated in a new strand during semi conser-
C. DNA production vative replication?
D. DNA replication A. AATTA
160. Which of the following best describes B. AATAA
how DNA and RNA are similar? C. TTATT
A. they both contain A and T
D. TTAAT
B. They both have a double helix
C. They are both composed of 5 different 166. DNA is said to be complementary because
nucleotides one strand matches the other strand. For
the following strand of DNA (ATT-GCC-
D. they both have C and G GAA), which strand is its complementary
161. What aspect of the DNA molecule en- strand?
codes hereditary information concerning A. TTA-GGG-CCC
an organism’s traits?
B. TAA-CGG-CTT
A. the molecular mass
C. AAA-GGG-CCC
B. the sequence of base pairs
C. the distribution of electrical charges D. TAA-GGG-CTT
D. the folded three-dimensional shape 167. Which form of RNA reads the instructions
162. The represents the shape of the dna for protein assembly?
molecule. A. amino RNA
A. Helix B. ribosomal RNA
B. Double Helix C. transfer RNA
C. Ladder
D. messenger RNA
D. Quartenary
168. Hydrogen bonds hold two strands of
163. Which type of RNA takes the instructions
together.
from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
A. RNA
A. mRNA
B. tRNA B. DNA
C. rRNA C. Proteins
D. RNA polymerase D. Fatty Acids

169. Which nucleotide is complementary to C. Levene

adenine? D. Chargaff

A. adenine
175. What is the name of the subunit that
B. thymine builds a DNA polymer?
C. cytosine A. Nucleotide
D. guanine B. Nucleic acid
C. Nitrogenous base
170. Adenine, Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine
are what? D. Nucelosome
A. Phosphates 176. Which scientist was not a discoverer of
B. Sugars DNA
C. Nucleotides A. Rosalind Franklin

B. Erwin Chargaff
D. Bases
C. Francis Crick
171. In a cell, the is the structure which D. James Watson
contains the chromosomes in the cell.
177. Genes are sequences.
A. nucleus
A. DNA
B. DNA
B. mRNA
C. gene
C. amino acid
D. nucleotide
D. DNA and mRNA
172. If a strand of DNA has 39% Cytosine, it
178. Seals the Okazaki fragments together
has
A. DNA Polymerase
A. 39% Adenine
B. ligase
B. 39% Guanine
C. helicase
C. 39% Thymine
D. primase
D. 39% combined Cytosine and Guanine
179. What nitrogen base does RNA have that
173. This is a “packaged” structure, made up DNA does not?
of DNA and proteins. It contains all the A. Adenine
genetic information in the cell.
B. Guanine
A. chromosome
C. Cytosine
B. DNA
D. Uracil
C. nucleotide
180. A portion of DNA that is rod-like and con-
D. nitrogenous base densed.
174. studied the role of RNA in protein A. Chromosomes
synthesis, specifically in the bacteria E. coli B. Genes
A. Nirenberg and Matthaei C. RNA
B. Watson and Crick D. Codons

181. What does RNA contain that DNA does B. Chargaff

not? C. Hershey & Chase
A. Thymine
D. Avery
B. Uracil
187. Which of the following units are repeat-
C. Adenine
edly joined together to form a strand of
D. Love DNA? (This is the MONOMER of DNA.)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
182. Which statement best describes the pro- A. amino acids
cess of transcription B. nucleotides
A. DNA is used as a template and copied C. fatty acids
into mRNA inside the ribosome
D. polysaccharides
B. mRNA codons are converted into
amino acids inside the ribosome. 188. Okazaki fragments are a result of
C. DNA is used as a template and copied A. Semiconservative replication
into mRNA inside the nucleus
B. Discontinuous replication
D. DNA is used as a template and copied
into tRNA inside the nucleus C. DNA Polymerase
D. Single Stranded Binding Proteins
183. DNA to DNA is called-
A. Transcription 189. What would happen if we did not have
start codons?
B. Translation
A. Polypeptide chains would continue to
C. Replication
grow
D. Duplication
B. Amino acids would bind to tRNA
184. Transcription is the production of C. Protein synthesis wouldn’t occur
from
D. mRNA would form a double strand
A. protein, RNA
B. RNA, DNA 190. In what direction is DNA replicated?
C. DNA, RNA A. 3’-5’
D. DNA, protein B. 5’-3’
185. Which two scientist developed the double C. left to right

helix model of DNA? D. right to left
A. Watson and Crick
191. The enzyme that unzips, or unwinds the
B. Darwin and Wallace double helix in order for replication to be-
C. Franklin and McDermitt gin is called:
D. Perry and Tyler A. ligase
B. polymerase
186. Which scientist discovered the base pair-
ing rule? C. helicase
A. Griffith D. lactase

192. What is the transcribed mRNA strand for B. Mutations

CATTAA C. Transformation

A. GUAAUU D. Translation
B. GTAATT
198. In RNA adenine bonds with
C. AUGGUU
A. Uracil
D. CATTAA
B. Thymine
193. What is the job of DNA? C. cytosine
A. To form RNA and hold the genetic in- D. guanine
structions for the development and func-
tion of living things 199. Which of the following is not a nitrogen
base in DNA?
B. To exchange the genetic material of
parental chromosomes during meiotic cell A. Adenine
division. B. Cytosine
C. To encode the instructions for protein C. Uracil
synthesis for the formation of characteris-
D. Thymine
tics or traits.
D. all of these 200. How did Watson & Crick’s DNA structure
support Chargaff’s rules?
194. DNA has a strand; RNA has a
A. It didn’t. It actually disproved Char-
strand.
gaff.
A. double/double
B. They had the two strands bonded to-
B. double/triple gether with A-T and C-G thereby explain-
C. double/single ing Chargaff’s data.
D. single/single C. They had the two strands bonded to-
gether A-C and T-C thereby explaining
195. What three parts make up 1 nucleotide? Chargaff’s data.
A. Phosphate D. none of above
B. Sugar
201. What molecules do both DNA and RNA
C. Nitrogen containing base contain?
D. Lipid A. uracil
196. Translation is the process where B. nucleotides
A. mRNA is created in the Nucleus C. thymine
B. mRNA is decoded to form a protein D. deoxyribose
C. glucose molecules are made 202. In DNA Adenine goes with
D. is where lipids are synthesised A. adnine
197. Changes in DNA sequences that affect ge- B. cytosine

netic information are known as C. guanine
A. Replication D. thymine

203. Which of the following is not a type of B. DNA and RNA have the same purines
RNA? but different pyrimidines
A. mRNA C. DNA and RNA have different purines
B. uRNA but the same pyrimidines
C. tRNA D. DNA and RNA have different purines
and different pyrimidines
D. rRNA
209. This is the triplet of bases on the end of
204. Proteins are made of long chains of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a tRNA molecule
smaller molecules called
A. Anticodon
A. amino acids
B. Codon
B. carbohydrates
C. Protein
C. lipids
D. none of above
D. none of above
205. If one strand of DNA has the sequence 210. All nucleotides have one of four
TTA CCG, the sequence of the other strand A. sugar
of the same molecule will be B. nitrogenous bases
A. AAT GGC C. phosphate group
B. TTA CCG
D. none of above
C. AAC GGC
211. A single-base mutation in a DNA se-
D. AAT GGG
quence that is GTCATA would be
206. Which is the correct complimentary A. GTCTTA
strand to-ATTACA
B. GGTTCCAATTAA
A. ATTACA
C. GTCCCT
B. TAATCT
D. ATACTG
C. TAATGT
D. TUUTGT 212. What is the difference between DNA and
RNA in terms of bases?
207. Select the correct, complementary base A. RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
pairings
B. RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
A. AT
C. RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
B. AU
D. RNA contains uracil in place of cyto-
C. AC
sine
D. CG
213. Which of these is true about RNA?
E. GA
A. Has a double helix
208. Which is the correct comparison of DNA
with RNA? B. Has a single helix
A. DNA and RNA have the same purines C. Contains thymine

and pyrimidines D. none of above

214. What base pair does Adenine (A) bind B. Two DNA molecules. One original
with in DNA? molecule and one with two new strands

A. Guanine C. two exact copies with new strands
B. Cytosine D. two identical molecules, each with 1
original strand and one new.
C. Thymine
D. Uracil 220. What kind of organic molecule is DNA?
A. Protein
215. The process where mRNA is translated
into amino acids happens in what part of B. Nucleic Acid
the cell? C. Lipid
A. Nucleus D. Carbohydrate
B. Mitochondria 221. One difference between DNA and RNA is
C. Cytoplasm that RNA
D. Endoplasmic Reticulum A. is double stranded
B. contains the base Thymine
216. The four nitrogenous bases of DNA are
C. contains the base Uracil
A. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and uracil
D. contained the base Guanine
B. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and
thymine 222. DNA replication results in
C. Adenine, guanine, ribose and deoxyri- A. 2 completely new DNA molecules
bose B. 2 DNA molecules that each contain a
D. Adenine, deoxyribose, cytosine, and strand of the original
uracil C. 1 new DNA molecule and 1 old
217. What is the difference between the sug- D. 1 new molecule of DNA
ars found in DNA and RNA?
223. When does DNA Replication occur?
A. RNA contains glucose
A. Just before the cell divides
B. RNA contains sucrose
B. Just after the cell divides
C. RNA contains deoxyribose
C. The M phase
D. RNA contains Ribose D. The S phase
218. Which is the correct pairing? 224. Which is the second step?
A. A-C A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA
B. A-T strand
C. A-G B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer
for new nucleotide bases.
D. none of above
C. DNA polymerase builds new strands
219. The process of DNA replication is called by bring in new nucleotide bases.
semi conservative because it results in D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag-
A. none of these ging strand

225. Guanine forms hydrogen bonds with C. UCCGUUCUUGCU

A. Adenine D. ACCGUUCAUGCA
B. Guanine 231. The enzyme that splits open the DNA cre-
C. Cytosine ates what’s called a fork-where the DNA
separates into the lagging strand and the
D. Thymine
strand.
226. What is a codon? A. leading
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. a sequence of 3 amino acids B. leveraging
B. a sequence of three nitrogen bases C. Okazaki
C. a sequence of 3 enzymes D. ligase
D. a sequence of 3 proteins 232. Which scientist(s) determined that
viruses contain DNA?
227. In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped
around A. Avery & McLeod
A. polymerase molecules. B. Watson & Crick
B. ribosomes. C. Griffith & Franklin
C. histones. D. Hershey & Chase
D. a thymine dimer. 233. Which organelle is the location where pro-

tein is made?
228. Before DNA polymerase III can begin its
A. Ribosome
job, what must happen first?
B. Nucleus
A. Primase lays down RNA primers.
C. Cytoplasm
B. Primase lays down thymine and cyto-
sine. D. Nucleotide
C. DNA polymerase doesn’t need any 234. What are the backbones (sides) of the
help to start up the process. DNA structure made up of?
D. Ligase needs to glue together the nu- A. repeating phosphates and sugars
cleotides. B. nitrogen bases
229. What is one reason RNA is different from C. nucleotides
DNA? D. adenine and thymine
A. consist of a single strand 235. Which of the following is not a difference
B. consist of three strands in DNA and RNA?
C. consist of two strands A. DNA uses Deoxyribose and RNA uses
Ribose
D. consist of four strands
B. DNA is double stranded and RNA is sin-
230. Which is the mRNA molecule that gle stranded
would be transcribed from this DNA tem- C. DNA uses Uracil and RNA uses
plate:TGGCAAGTACGT Thymine
A. ACCGTTCATGCA D. DNA uses Thymine and RNA uses
B. UGGCAAGUACGU Uracil

236. A DNA strand undergoing replication con- 241. During which phase of cell division does
tains the bases TACGTT. Which complimen- DNA replicate?
tary strand does it produce?

A. prophase
A. AUCGAA B. metaphase
B. ATGCAA C. cytokinesis
C. ATCGAA D. S phase
D. AUCGTT
242. What is meant by the acronym DNA?
237. Which nucleic acid has phosphate and A. Deoxyribosenucleic acid
sugar on the sides?
B. Deoxyribosomenucleic acid
A. DNA only
C. Deoxyribonucleic acid
B. RNA only
D. Deribosomenucleic Acid
C. Both DNA and RNA
243. RNA contains the sugar
D. none of above
A. ribose
238. If one series of bases reads:TTGACTAGG,
B. deoxyribose
then the complementary set of bases
would read: C. glucose
A. TTGACTAGG D. lactose
B. AACTGATCC 244. Which statement(s) is/are correct re-
C. AATCGAACTT garding DNA and RNA nucleotides? I. Both
consist of a sugar, phosphate and base.II.
D. AAGTCATCC
They have three bases in common.III. They
239. Which of the following is NOT true about contain the same type of sugar.
scientific models? A. I only
A. Models alone can lead to discoveres B. I and II only
B. Models enable scientists to visualize C. II and III only
their ideas D. I, II and III
C. Models can be adapted and changed
based on new evidence 245. Which of the following elements is NOT
found in DNA?
D. Models can show a structure in 3 di-
mensions A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
240. a codes for a particular trait. It is a
distinct sequence of DNA forming part of C. Oxygen
a chromosome D. Sulfur
A. Gene
246. Which of the following statements about
B. Chromosome DNA is NOT true?
C. Pedigree A. DNA is found in all organisms
D. Protein B. DNA is made up of three subunits

C. DNA has a structure like a twisted lad- 252. RNA is different from DNA in
der A. RNA is single stranded
D. Thymine matches with uracil. B. RNA has uracil
247. In RNA the base T is replaced with C. RNA has the sugar ribose
A. U D. All of these
B. G 253. Carries the amino acid used to make a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. C protein
A. mRNA
D. A
B. rRNA
248. Which of these enzymes is responsible C. tRNA
for breaking the hydrogen bonds which
“unzips” the DNA molecule? D. none of above
A. Topoisomerase 254. During which stage of the cell cycle does
B. Primase chromosome replication occur?
A. Interphase
C. Helicase
B. Prophase
D. zippase
C. Metaphase
249. During replication, the DNA sequence ACT D. Anaphase
results in which sequence on the new
strand? 255. “A” is used to represent which nitroge-
A. ACT nous base?
A. the base that pairs with Thymine
B. TCA
B. the base that pairs with Cytosine
C. TGA
C. the base that pairs with Guanine
D. UGA
D. the base that pairs with Adenine
250. Transcription starts with and results
in 256. This is a short section of DNA found in
a chromosome. It determine traits of an
A. DNA / mRNA organism through its expression.
B. mRNA / DNA A. gene
C. mRNA / tRNA B. nucleus
D. mRNA / Amino Acid Chain C. nucleotide
D. base pair
251. Adenine will have how much Thymine and
how much Guanine? 257. The sides of a DNA molecule are made of
A. Thymine:20% Guanine:50% A. nitrogen bases
B. Thymine:25% Guanine:25% B. alternating sugars and phosphates
C. Thymine:30% Guanine:20% C. adenine and thymine
D. none of above D. chromatin and centromeres

258. Which nucleic acid only exists in the nu- 264. In DNA which is a correct base pairing?
cleus? A. A with G

A. mRNA B. G with T
B. DNA C. A with U
C. tRNA D. A with T
D. rRNA
265. If there is 22% Cytosine, how much of
259. In RNA, what binds to Adenine? all the other bases are there?
A. cytosine A. 22% C, 22% G, 28% A, and 28%T
B. guanine B. 22% C, 28% G, 22% A, and 28%T
C. uracil C. 28% C, 28% G, 28% A, and 28%T
D. thymine D. 22% C, 22% G, 22% A, and 22%T
260. The nitrogen base pairs for RNA are 266. Which nucleotides are considered
A. A-T C-G purines?
B. A-U C-G A. Adenine & Thymine
C. A-C T-G B. Cytosine & Guanine
D. T-U G-C C. Adenine & Guanine

D. Cytosine & Thymine
261. What type of bond forms between nu-
cleotides that make up the backbone of the 267. If an mRNA codon is AGU, which of the
DNA molecule? following would be the appropriate tRNA
A. Covalent anticodon?
B. Hydrogen A. TCA
C. Ionic B. UGA
D. Metallic C. AGU
D. UCA
262. What did Watson and Crick learn from
Rosalind Franklin’s image? 268. The five carbon sugar found in DNA
A. DNA is helical A. Ribose
B. The bases are on the outside B. Deoxyribose
C. The sugar-phosphates are on the in- C. Glucose
side D. none of above
D. The bases pair in random order
269. The process to go from mRNA to a pro-
263. What is the subunits of DNA and RNA? tein is called
A. Nucleotide A. transcription
B. Fatty Acids B. rRNA
C. Amino Acids C. replication
D. Monosaccharides D. translation

270. DNA and RNA are examples of what 276. What are the 4 nitrogenous bases found
A. Nucleotides in RNA?
B. bases A. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gua-

nine
C. nucleic acids
B. adenine, uracil, cytosine, and guanine
D. none of above
C. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and ribose
271. Which one of the following nucleotide
D. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pair bonds would be found in a DNA
molecule? cose
A. adenine-guanine 277. What is the difference between DNA and
B. guanine-cytosine RNA
C. adenine-cytosine A. DNA has uracil and RNA has thymine
D. cytosine-uracil B. DNA is involved in transcription and
RNA is involved in translation
272. Which nitrogen base is found only in
RNA? C. DNA contains thymine and RNA con-
A. Uracil tains uracil
B. Thymine D. DNA is made of nucleotides and RNA is

not
C. Adenine
D. Cytosine 278. What type of sugar is in DNA?
273. What are long chains of nucleotides A. sucrose

called? B. lactose
A. Polyneucleotides C. ribose
B. Polysaccharides D. deoxyribose
C. Long chains
D. Polyaminoacids 279. What links the pairs of complementary
bases in a DNA double helix?
274. How many amino acids are coded in the A. Covalent bonds
strand A U G U A C
B. Hydrogen bonds
A. One
C. Ionic bonds
B. Two
C. Three D. Peptide bonds
D. Four 280. What are the sub units that makes up a

protein?
275. What is the function of nucleic acids?
A. Stores energy A. Nitrogen bases
B. Stores genetic information B. Nucelotides

C. Movement C. Amino acid
D. Physical structure D. Chromosome

281. How many amino acids are coded for by 286. The process where DNA is transcribed to
this sequence of nucleotides:ATG GGA ACT mRNA happens in what part of the cell?
CCA A. Nucleus

A. 4 B. Mitochondria
B. 2 C. Cytoplasm
C. 6 D. Endoplasmic Reticulum
D. 12
287. What is the process the creates mRNA
282. Nucleotide bases pair in DNA through from DNA?
A. hydrogen bonds between complemen- A. translation
tary bases B. transcription
B. polar covalent bonds between comple- C. replication
mentary bases
D. none of above
C. sugar bonds between complementary
bases 288. During interphase, a cell grows, dupli-
cates organelles, and
D. none of the choices
A. copies DNA
283. Dr. Tanaka discovered a new virus. The B. divides the nucleus
virus has a single strand of a nucleic acid,
but she does not know if it is DNA or RNA. C. divides the cytoplasm
After running tests, she concludes that it D. produces a new cell
is DNA. Which of the following would lead
289. They worked out that DNA is a double
her to that conclusion?
helix like a twisted staircase.
A. It contains uracil.
A. James Watson and Francis Crick
B. It contains adenine.
B. James Crick and Francis Watson
C. It contains thymine.
C. James Clerk and Francis Winter
D. It contains cytosine.
D. James Clark and Francis Watcher
284. What are the different bases that dna
290. The central dogma of biology states that
contains
information flows in one direction from
A. uracil
A. nuclei to RNA to cytoplasm
B. cytosine
B. ribosomes to proteins to DNA
C. guanine C. genes to nuclei to ribosomes
D. adenine D. DNA to RNA to proteins
E. thymine
291. An RNA sample is taken from a chipmunk
285. At the end of DNA replication, each and a human. Both will have
strand of the original DNA molecule: A. The base thymine and the sugar de-
A. has been altered. oxyribose
B. remains intact. B. The base uracil and the sugar ribose
C. has been tripled. C. The sugar ribose and the base thymine
D. None of the above D. Deoxyribose and the sugar uracil

292. Which does NOT belong to DNA? C. Proteins

A. Phosphate D. RNA
B. Ribose 298. In the two complementary strands of a
C. ATCG molecule of DNA, Adenine bonds with
D. Double Strand A. Guanine
293. What does “double” refer to in the dou- B. Thymine

ble helix?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Cytosine
A. Refers to the shape of the DNA D. Adenine
molecule. E. Uracil
B. Refers to there being two strands of
DNA. 299. Which of the following displays the cor-
rect order of DNA replication? 1. Sugar
C. Complimentary refers to the two and phosphate groups form the side of
strands base pairing together. each new strand2. DNA unzips3. The
D. none of above bases attach from a supply in the cyto-
plasm4. DNA unwinds
294. What is a similarity between DNA and
RNA? A. 4-2-3-1
A. Both are polymers of nucleotides. B. 2-4-1-3
B. Both are composed of antiparallel C. 2-4-3-1

strands. D. 4-2-1-3
C. Both contain adenine, cytosine and 300. Amino acids are the building blocks of
thymine.
A. proteins
D. Both contain ribose sugar.
B. nitrogenous bases
295. DNA and RNA are examples of C. genes
A. proteins D. all of these
B. nucleic acids
301. How many types of RNA molecules are
C. carbohydrates there?
D. lipids A. just mRNA
296. DNA holds the code for B. mRNA & tRNA
A. lipids C. mRNA & tRNA & rRNA
B. carbohydrates D. none of above
C. protein 302. Transcription occurs in what part of the
D. sugar cell?
297. The sequence of in a DNA molecule A. Ribosome

determine what protein will be produced. B. Mitochondria
A. Nucleotides C. Chlorplast
B. Genes D. Nucleus

303. Protein Synthesis is often represented 308. What does NOT exist in DNA?
as:DNA → mRNA → protein. Which of A. Adenine
the following is step 2 of protein synthe-

sis? B. Guanine
A. Transcription C. Uracil
D. Thymine
B. Translation
C. Replication 309. A phosphate, a sugar and a nitrogen base
make up a(n)
D. Respiration
A. nucleoside
304. What enzyme initiates DNA replication? B. nucleotide
A. DNA polymerase C. amino acid
B. tRNA D. protein
C. RNA polymerase 310. Which enzyme fixes the Okazaki frag-
D. mRNA ments in the lagging strand?
A. Helicase
305. If you have 20% guanine (which means
you also have 20% cytosine), what per- B. Polymerase
cent thymine must you have? C. Ligase
A. 20% D. Primerase
B. 30% 311. Thymine (T) always pairs with
C. 40% A. guanine
D. 60% B. cyctosine
306. If the left side of DNA contains the fol- C. adenine

lowing bases:ATCGATCG, what would the D. uracil
right side contain?
312. Which shows the correct complementary
A. CGATCGAT DNA strand of ATG?
B. TAGGTAGG A. ATG
C. TAGCTAGC B. TAC
D. ATCGATCG C. TAG
D. CGC
307. What are the four bases found in DNA?
A. Adenine, Thymine, Guanine and Cyto- 313. DNA gets wrapped around these proteins
sine in chromosome packing
B. Uracil, Thymine, Adenine and Guanine A. Nucleosome
C. Guanine, Phosphate, Adenine, B. Chromatin

Thymine C. Chromosome
D. Adenine, Uracil, Guanine and Cytosine D. Histone

314. Which group of three molecules makes up 319. Guanine always pairs with
one RNA nucleotide? A. adenine
A. Phosphate, ribose, uracil B. thymine
B. Phosphorus, ribose, adenine C. uracil
C. Uracil, deoxyribose, phosphorus D. cytosine
D. Guanosine, deoxyribose, phosphate 320. Which scientist discovered that DNA not
NARAYAN CHANGDER
proteins causes transformation in cells?
315. Which type of RNA takes the amino acids
to the ribosome? A. Griffith
B. Levene
A. tRNA
C. Watson & Crick
B. Models enable scientists to visualize
mRNA D. Avery
C. Models can be adapted and changed 321. Genes are short segments of DNA and
rRNA are located on the in a cell.
D. none of above A. vaculoes
B. chromosomes
316. Any change in the sequence of DNA is
C. ribosomes
A. transgenic shift
D. lysosmes
B. Single Genotype
322. Which of the following is NOT true of a
C. Monohybrid Trait codon?
D. Mutation A. It may code for the same amino acid
as another codon.
317. Which of the following nitrogenous bases
is found in DNA, but is not found in RNA? B. It never codes for more than one
amino acid.
A. Uracil
C. It extends from one end of a tRNA
B. Adenine molecule.
C. Thymine D. It is the basic unit of the genetic code.
D. Guanine 323. A always pairs with and C always
pairs with
318. What did Chargaff’s ratio show Watson
and Crick? A. T, G
A. The ratio of purines to pyrimidines is B. G, T

1:1 C. C, A
B. There are more purines than pyrim- D. A, C
idines
324. Which of the following are not com-
C. There are more pyrimidines to purines ponents of a deoxyribonucleotide (a nu-
D. There is always more adenine in a cleotide of DNA)?
molecule of DNA A. adenine

B. deoxyribose 330. What is the enzyme that unzips the dou-

C. phosphate group ble helix?
A. DNA polymerase

D. ribose
B. Ligase
E. uracil
C. Primase
325. What does the function of DNA depend D. Helicase
on
331. Which of the following sugars is found in
A. phosphodiester bonds
RNA?
B. base pairings
A. Ribose
C. hydrogen bonds B. Maltose
D. condensation reactions C. Deoxyribose
326. In humans, where does DNA replication D. Amylose
take place?
332. How many strands does RNA have?
A. Ribosome A. 1
B. Cytoplasm B. 2
C. Vacuole C. 3
D. Nucleous D. 4
327. Which of the following is NOT part of a 333. Which of the following identifies a char-
nucleotide? acteristic of only RNA?
A. Nitrogenous Base A. purines are not equal to pyrimidines
B. Phosphate Group B. contains a sugar, phosphate and a ni-
trogenous base
C. Pentose Sugar
C. double stranded
D. Fatty Acid
D. only found in the nucleus
328. Which of the following nitrogenous bases
334. Which enzyme seals together Okazaki
has a double ring structure?
fragments at the end of DNA replication?
A. All the purines
A. telomerase
B. Adenine only B. DNA polymerase
C. Guanine only C. ligase
D. Cytosine and Thymine D. RNA polymerase
329. First to build a model of the double he- E. primase
lix structure of DNA; awarded the Nobel 335. What combines together to make a pro-
Prize for their work. tein?
A. Charles Darwin A. Amino Acid
B. Joseph Priestly B. RNA
C. James Watson and Francis Crick C. Ribosome
D. Rosalind Franklin D. DNA

336. DNA and RNA are both polynucleotides. C. Adenine, Thymine, Glucose, Cytosine
DNA and RNA differ in D. Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Fructose
A. the type of phosphate group present
342. Which correctly outlined the central
B. the type of nitrogenous bases present dogma
C. the type of bond formed between adja- A. DNA → mRNA → rRNA
cent nucleotide monomers of the polynu-
cleotide B. DNA → tRNA → protein
C. DNA → mRNA → protein
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The type of bond formed between ni-
trogenous bases of the strands D. DNA → amino acid → protein
337. A section of DNA that codes for a protein 343. What does “helix” refer to?
is called a
A. Refers to the shape of the DNA
A. nucleotide molecule.
B. gene B. Refers to there being two strands of
C. double helix DNA.
D. none of above C. Complimentary refers to the two
strands base pairing together.
338. What are the gaps between the newly
D. none of above
synthesized DNA on the lagging strand
called? 344. Which nucleic acid ribose sugar?
A. Okazaki fragments A. DNA only
B. Polymer gaps B. RNA only
C. Helicase fragments C. Both DNA and RNA
D. Acidic gaps D. none of above
339. What suffix tells identifies an enzyme? 345. DNA replication results in two DNA
A. ose molecules,
B. ese A. each one with two original strands
C. ise B. each one with two new strands
D. ase C. each one with one new strand and one
original strand
340. All nucleotides have a negative
D. one with two new strands and the
A. sugar other with two original strands
B. nitrogenous base
346. proposed the polynucleic model, stat-
C. phosphate group ing that DNA and RNA were composed of
D. none of above nucleotides
341. What four nitrogen base pairs make up A. Nirenberg and Matthaei
DNA? B. Watson and Crick
A. Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine C. Levene
B. Adenine, Uracil, Guanine, Cytosine D. Chargaff

347. Which of the following is NOT true about 352. Smaller segments of RNA nucleotides
DNA? that transport amino acids to the ribo-
somes.

A. It’s located within the nucleus of eu-
karyotic cells A. mRNA
B. It contains the genetic material to B. tRNA
make all characteristics of life
C. rRNA
C. They are the instructions to build pro-
teins D. DNA
D. It produces energy for the cell 353. The two strands making up the DNA dou-
ble helix molecule
348. What is a sequence of nucleotides found
in DNA of a chromosome that codes for a A. contain ribose and deoxyribose in op-
specific protein called? posite strands.
A. Allele B. are held together by hydrogen bonds.
B. Gene C. are attached through a phosphate to
C. Codon hold the strands together.
D. Phenotype D. contain uracil but not thymine.
349. What kind of information does DNA 354. What type of bonds hold the nitrogen
carry? bases in the DNA rungs together?
A. genetic A. ionic bonds
B. nuclear B. hydrogen bonds
C. cell structure C. peptide bonds
D. it doesn’t carry any info D. james bonds
350. Which of the following covalent bonds
355. This Y shaped region where DNA is un-
holds adjacent nucleotides together within
wound to start replication is called
the backbone?
A. peptide bonds A. replication fork
B. hydrogen bonds B. Leading strand
C. phosphodiester bonds C. Lagging strands

D. ester linkages D. replication splicing
E. glycosidic linkages
351. Replication is referred to as of RNA?
A. conservative A. RNA is double Stranded
B. semi-conservative B. RNA contains Uracil

C. quasi-conservative C. RNA contains deoxyribose sugar
D. mostly liberal D. RNA is made by replication

357. DNA is made up of three compo- 362. Guanine goes with

nents:deoxyribose, phosphate and bases.
A. adnine
What is the maximum number of compo-
nents that deoxyribose is linked to in a B. cytosine
DNA molecule?
C. guanine
A. One phosphate and one base
D. thymine
B. Two phosphates and one base
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. One phosphate and two bases 363. Which of the following units are repeat-
D. Two phosphates and two bases edly joined together to form a strand of
DNA?
358. What does complimentary mean?
A. amino acids
A. Refers to the shape of the DNA
molecule. B. nucleotides
B. Refers to there being two strands of C. fatty acids
DNA.
D. polysaccharides
C. Complimentary refers to the two
strands base pairing together. 364. In which of the following organelles is
D. none of above DNA usually found?
359. Normal-AGA-TTC-ATA-GCGMutant-AGA- A. Cell membrane

TTC-AAT-AGC-G B. Vacuole
A. deletion frameshift
C. Lysosome
B. insertion frameshift
D. Nucleus
C. substitution
D. nonsense 365. Assertion:Pentose sugar and phos-
phate group constitute the backbone of
360. What is one the function of RNA
DNA.Reason:They form hydrogen bonds.
A. to transfer genetic information from
dna to the ribosomes A. A
B. genetic info storage B. B

C. growth and repair C. C
D. insulation D. D
361. Which of the following scientists’ work
366. Which scientist(s) used hydrolytic en-
did not provide information about DNA’s
zymes to eliminate protein and RNA as the
structure or function?
transforming factor?
A. Griffith
A. Griffith
B. Avery, McCarty & Macleod
C. Hershey & Chase B. Avery, McCarty & Macleod
D. Watson & Crick C. Hershey & Chase

E. Franklin D. Watson & Crick

367. Analysis of the DNA of an organism 372. The genetic code is read three “letters”
reveals that it is composed of 20% T at a time, so that each “word” is three
(thymine). Based on this information, bases long and corresponds to a single

what would you predict the % C (cytosine) amino acid. What is each three-letter
to be? “word” in mRNA know as?
A. 60% A. an anitcodon
B. 30% B. a codon
C. 20% C. a decoding band
D. 10% D. a gene
368. Which of the following is the correct way 373. Specific proteins produced in a cell are di-
to remember how to pair the complemen- rectly related to the
tary bases of DNA? A. number of mitochondria in the cell
A. C ars-in-A pples & T rees-in-G arage B. types of ribosomes in the cell
B. A pples-in-G arage & C ars-in-T rees C. sequence of sugars and phosphates in
C. C ar-in-G arage & U neaten-A pples the cell
D. C ar-in-G arage & A pples-in-T rees D. sequence of nucleotides in the DNA
369. Which of the following pertains to DNA 374. Translation is crucial to the process of
replication on the lagging strand? making proteins. Which statement best
describes what takes place during trans-
A. continuously produced
lation?
B. more rapid in production
A. A copy of chromosomal DNA is created
C. synthesized into the fork
B. Information in mRNA is converted into
D. Okazaki fragments a sequence of amino acids in a protein
370. The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is C. A RNA copy of a DNA strand is made.
part of a gene. how many amino acids are D. Instructions from DNA in the nucleus
coded for by this message? are brought to the cytoplasm
A. 4
375. What is the name of the sugar in DNA?
B. 8
A. Deoxyribose
C. 12
B. Ribose
D. 20
C. Glucose
371. Which RNA bases would pair with TAC- D. Sucrose
GAA in transcription?
376. What does semi-conservative mean?
A. AUGCUU
A. When new DNA is made, only one half
B. ATGCTT
of the DNA is new.
C. GCATCC
B. When new RNA is made, only one half
D. GCAUCC of the RNA is new.

C. DNA does not identify as a conserva- 382. One codon is made up of nitrogen
tive nor a democrat, but leans more to- bases and it codes for amino acid(s).
wards conservative. A. 3; 1
D. None of the above B. 3; 3
377. Which of the following is a similarity be- C. 6; 2
tween DNA and RNA molecules? D. 1; 1
A. Contain the same sugar 383. A five-carbon sugar found in DNA.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Contains a nitrogenous base known as A. ribose
uracil
B. guanine
C. Contains a phosphate
C. deoxyribose
D. Are both double-stranded molecules
D. helicase
378. DNA replication starts with unzipping 384. Where is DNA found in the cell?
the DNA
A. Cytoplasm
A. DNA polymerase
B. Nucleus
B. Ligase
C. Nucleolus
C. RNA primase
D. Golgi Apparatus
D. DNA Helicase
385. What are the three base segments of
379. Where in the cell does replication take mRNA called?
place? A. anticodons
A. Chloroplast B. codons
B. Ribosome C. triplets
C. Mitochondria D. none of above
D. Nucleus 386. Enzyme that connects the DNA to the
380. Which of the following best describes backbone (glues)
the arrangement of the sides of the DNA A. Ligase
molecule B. Polymerase
A. Bonding C. Helicase
B. Alternating D. Primase
C. Anitparallel 387. What is the Central Dogma of Genetics?
D. Parallel A. DNA encodes mRNA and mRNA makes
proteins
381. Where does Translation take place?
B. tRNA encodes DNA and DNA makes
A. RNA
proteins
B. ribosome
C. tRNA brings in anticodons and codes
C. nucleus proteins
D. chromosome D. None of the above

388. A single-stranded sequence of DNA is 393. What sugar is found in RNA?

TAC CGC AAG. Which series represents the A. Ribose
complimentary strand of DNA?

B. Deoxyribose
A. CGT TAT GGA
C. Glucose
B. ATG GCG TTC
D. Galactose
C. GCA ATA CCT
394. Which is NOT a way RNA differs from
D. AUG GCG UUC DNA?
389. The end of a DNA or RNA strand where A. Contains a single strand
nucleotides can be added during replication B. Contains Uracil (U) instead of Thymine
(T)
A. nucleotide
C. Contains the sugar ribose
B. telomere
D. Contains an extra nitrogen base
C. 5’ end
D. 3’ end 395. Chargraff’s Rule says that
A. Adenine will be equal to Thymine
390. What will be the complementary DNA se- B. Cytosine will be equal to Thymine
quence resulting from the following:GAT-
TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT? C. Uracil will be equal to Guanine
A. CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA D. Adenine will be equal to Cytosine
B. GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT 396. Cytosine always pairs with

C. CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA A. guanine
D. CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG B. uracil
C. adenine
391. Which scientists discovered that viruses D. thymine
have DNA (some have RNA) as their ge-
netic code as well? 397. What is the three base sequence of
A. Griffith mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
A. Anticodon
B. Chargaff
B. Codon
C. Hershey & Chase
C. Protein
D. Franklin & Wilkins
D. DNA
392. DNA replication uses existing DNA as a
398. Which of the following is true about
template to make new DNA. Therefore, it
RNA?
is a molecule.
A. RNA is double stranded
A. semiconservative
B. RNA contains nucleotide base Thymine
B. denatured
C. RNA is antiparellel
C. mutated
D. RNA can be many forms such as mRNA,
D. fluid mosaic tRNA, and rRNA

399. Which one of the following proportions is C. It helps unwind the double helix.
true for DNA? D. It forms bonds
A. A = C
405. In RNA, A always pairs with
B. C = T
A. C
C. T = A
B. U
D. C > G
C. T
NARAYAN CHANGDER
400. The genetic code has instructions for
D. G
A. how to reproduce
B. how to survive 406. Adenine always pairs with
C. how to build cells A. guanine or cytosine
D. how to build proteins B. cytosine or thymine

C. thymine or uracil
401. Which carbon bonds to the nitrogenous
base in a nucleotide? D. uracil or guanine
A. 1 407. The basic building block of DNA and RNA
B. 3 is
C. 5 A. chromosomes
D. 4 B. nucleic acids
C. gene
402. Where does DNA replication take place?
A. Nucleus D. nucleotides
B. Ribosome 408. What is the relationship between a pro-

C. Cytoplasm tein, RNA, and DNA?
D. Golgi Body A. DNA → Protein → RNA

B. Protein → RNA → DNA
403. Choose the nucleotide sequence of the
RNA strand that would be complementary C. RNA → DNA → Protein
to the following strand:GTAGTCA D. DNA → RNA → Protein
A. UATUAGA
409. Which of the following about DNA poly-
B. ACGACTG merase is false?
C. CAUCAGU A. It requires assistance from primase.
D. CATCAGT B. It can only add a nucleotide at the 3’
end of a growing daughter strand.
404. What does DNA Polymerase do?
C. It is highly specific.
A. It helps breakdown the new strand
in DNA replication and it proofreads the D. It produces both the leading and lag-
strands. ging strands simultaneously (although at
B. It helps build the new strand in DNA slightly different rates).
replication and it proofreads the strands. E. It can initiate DNA synthesis.

410. James Watson and Francis Crick 416. Katie is analyzing a particular DNA
A. took x-ray pictures of DNA strand that’s composition is 20% adenine.
Which of the following represents the per-

B. discovered that genes are in chromo- cent thymine?
somes
A. 20%
C. bred pea plants to study heredity
B. 30%
D. made models to figure out DNA’s
shape C. 40%
411. DNA adds new nitrogen bases to cre- D. 60%

ate two identical molecules of DNA. 417. Fun Fact:
A. Polymerase A. Only 1.5% of human genome codes for
B. Helicase (proteins) genes.
C. Ligase B. The human genome is 6 billion base
D. Primase pairs long, encodes about 25, 000 poten-
tially active genes.
412. Who was responsible for creating the
C. anywhere from 98-99% of our entire
base-pairing rules for the nucleotides in
genome must be doing something other
DNA?
than coding for proteins-scientists call
A. Mendel this non-coding DNA.
B. Griffith D. all of these
C. Watson & Crick
418. WHY must we use RNA if we already
D. Chargraff
have genetic code in DNA?
413. A monomer of DNA is called a(n) A. RNA is portable and can be read by the
A. Monosaccharide ribosome
B. Amino Acid B. RNA is more accurate than DNA
C. Triglyceride C. The cell needs a backup code and uses
D. Nucleotide RNA
D. DNA and RNA can be used interchange-
414. What are the four nitrogen bases?
ably
A. adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine
419. What is the monomer that makes up nu-
B. adenine, lysine, prolene, guanine
cleic acids?
C. arganine, cytosine, lysine, purine
A. Genes
D. lysine, cytosine, lucine, guanine
B. Nucleotides
415. The “rungs” of the DNA molecule are C. Proteins
A. nitrogen base pairs
D. Amino acids
B. sugar and phosphates
420. mRNA is short for:
C. deoxyribose paired with a nitrogen
base A. macro RNA
D. phosphate paired with a nitrogen base B. messenger RNA

C. micro RNA 426. Which of the following terms means that

D. multiplied RNA in each molecule of DNA made during repli-
cation there is one original strand and one
421. All organisms contain DNA and RNA. new strand?
What are the subunits of DNA and RNA? A. Antiparallel
A. simple sugars B. Semi-conservative
B. amino acids C. Complementary base-pairing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. carbohydrates D. none of above
D. nucleotides
427. What has DNA?
422. Which of the following scientists tried A. animals
to develop a vaccine agains streptococcus B. plants
pneumonia
C. bacteria
A. Avery
D. all of the above
B. Hershey & Chase
C. Griffith 428. What bonds changes and what into
D. none of above A. AT to AU
B. AU to AT
423. Which of the following is incorrect regard-
C. CG to CU
ing RNA?
D. none of above
A. RNA contains uracil
B. RNA can only be found inside the nu- 429. In DNA, according to the complemen-
cleus tary base pair rule.
C. RNA is single stranded A. A joins T, C joins G
D. RNA contains genetic information B. A joins C, T joins G
C. A joins G, C joins T
424. What two parts of a nucleotide do not
change throughout the structure of DNA? D. A joins U, G joins C
A. Five-Carbon Sugar and Nitrogen Base 430. If this is the DNA sequence, what would
B. Phosphate Group and Nitrogen Base be the RNA sequence? GTAATG
A. CAUUAC
C. Five-Carbon Sugar and Phosphate
Group B. GTAATG
D. All components remain the same C. CATTAC
throughout the DNA structure? D. CTAAGT
425. The production of proteins in a cell is 431. What type of bonds join the two strands
called of DNA together?
A. protein sequence A. Hydrogen
B. base sequence B. Oxygen
C. protein synthesis C. Nitrogen
D. DNA replication D. Helium

432. In a DNA strand, the base Adenine (A) al- 438. DNA and RNA belong to the biomolecule
ways pairs with class of

A. Thymine A. Carbohydrates
B. Cytosine B. Lipids
C. Guanine C. Proteins
D. Uracil
D. Nucleic Acids
433. The four nitrogenous bases of RNA are
? 439. Which choice describes DNA after replica-
tion has taken place?
A. Adenine, Thymine Guanine and Cyto-
sine A. one molecule with two original strands
and one molecule with two new strands
B. Adenine, Thymine, Guanine and Uracil
B. two molecules, each with one original
C. Adenine, Uracil, Guanine and Cytosine
strand and one new strand
D. Thymine, Uracil, Guanine and Cytosine
C. two molecules, each with two new
434. What is the monomer of nucleic acids? strands
A. Glycerol D. two molecules, each with two old
B. Monosaccharides strands
C. Amino Acids 440. Which bonds hold the nitrogen bases to-
D. Nucleotides gether?
435. Both DNA and RNA are considered A. hydrogen bonds
A. Proteins B. covalent bonds

B. Lipids C. ionic bonds
C. Nucleic Acids D. phosphates
D. Carbohydrates
441. Why does DNA replicate?
436. In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, A. To create another copy for the new cell
the amount of adenine present is always
equal to the amount of B. To create a duplicate copy in case the
original gets damaged
A. cytosine
C. To create a new copy to replace the
B. guanine
damaged original
C. thymine
D. none of above
D. uracil
442. How can you fit 200 million nucleotides
437. What shape is DNA?
of DNA in the nucleus neatly?
A. A double helix
A. DNA just gets shoved in there and
B. A single strand hopes for the best.
C. A pleated sheet B. DNA winds around chromosomes to
D. An omega helix get organized.

C. DNA winds around histones to get or- D. It uses one of the original strands
ganized and they combine to make the su- when making a new strand
per organized nucleosomes and chromo-
somes. 448. Which is the correct pairing for a DNA
strand?
D. none of above
A. (A with T) (C with G)
443. Which is a purine? (Check all that apply) B. (A with C) (T with G)
A. adenine C. (A with G) (T with C)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. thymine D. (A with U) (C with G)
C. guanine
449. Which of the following is the monomer
D. cytosine (subunit) for DNA?
444. Where in the cell does transcription oc- A. Monosaccharides
cur? B. Triglyceride
A. nucleus C. Nucleotide
B. cytoplasm D. Amino Acid
C. ribosome
450. The sides of the DNA “Ladder” are made
D. mitochondria up of:
445. If this is what one strand of DNA is like, A. Alternating phosphates and sugars
what would the complimentary bases be? B. Nitrogen bases
CCGTA
C. Hydrogen bonds
A. GGCAU
D. Protein chains
B. GGCAT
C. CCGTA 451. Which shows the correct complementary
base pairing for DNA?
D. GGCTA
A. C-A, T-G
446. What is the complimentary base of ade- B. A-G, C-T
nine in DNA?
C. C-G, U-A
A. thymine
D. T-A, G-C
B. cytosine
C. guanine 452. Which type of RNA delivers the genetic
code to the ribosome?
D. uracil
A. tRNA
447. What does it mean that DNA replication B. mRNA
is a “semi-conservative” process?
C. rRNA
A. They are political
D. tmRtmRNA
B. Both strands are reused to make one
new DNA molecule 453. If a gene is 35% guanine, then you have
C. Both of the strands in a new DNA
molecule are new A. 35% thymine

B. 35% adenine 459. Genes are the basic unit of heredity. Ge-
C. 35% cytosine netic information is encoded in a linear se-
quence of

D. 35% uracil
A. nucleic acids.
454. In DNA the nitrogen bases are as follows: B. amino acids.
A. Adenine always bonds with Thymine; C. carbohydrates.
Cytosine always bonds with Guanine
D. fatty acids.
B. Adenine always bonds with Cytosine;
Cytosine always bonds with Thymine 460. What are the building blocks of proteins
C. Adenine always bonds with Uracil; Cy- called?
tosine always bonds with Guanine A. DNA
D. Adenine always bonds with Thymine; B. RNA
Cytosine always bonds with Uracil C. Ribosomes
455. Which of the following is not part of a D. Amino Acids
nucelotide? 461. Between which bases are hydrogen
A. Fatty Acid Chain bonds formed in DNA?
B. Five-Carbon Sugar A. C and U
C. Phosphate Group B. T and G
D. Nitrogen Base C. A and T
456. What is the order for Protein Synthesis? D. U and A
A. Transcription → Translation → Pro- 462. DNA and RNA are macromolecules in the
tein category of
B. Translation-> Transcription → Pro- A. Proteins
tein B. Lipids
C. Protein → Transcription → Transla- C. Nucleic Acids
tion
D. Carbohydrates
D. Translation → Protein → Transcrip-
tion 463. The chromatin which stains dark and
tightly packed
457. In RNA, adenine goes with
A. Euchromatin
A. adnine
B. Chromatophore
B. cytosine
C. Heterochromatin
C. thymine D. none of above
D. uracil
464. Which component of DNA determines the
458. DNA polymerase is a(n) traits of an organism?
A. lipid A. Nitrogen Bases
B. enzyme B. Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
C. sugar C. Hydrogen bonds
D. starch D. none of above

465. During transcription, this type of ribonu- B. The name of the twisted shape of the
cleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA molecule, as it contains two strands.
DNA and brining it out of the nucleus. C. The weak bonds that hold the two
A. tRNA strands of DNA together.
B. mRNA D. Guanine-the base that pairs with Cyto-
C. rRNA sine
D. dRNA 471. What would be the complementary DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
strand for the following nucleotide se-
466. Which of the following statements is true quence? TCG ATA CGA
of DNA but not RNA?
A. AGC ATA GCT
A. made of a sugar, phosphate and ni-
trogenous base B. AGC TAT GCT
C. AGC UAU GCU
B. contains the nitrogenous bases A, U, C,
G D. UGC TUT GCT
C. is a nucleic acid 472. What is the pitch of of a DNA helix?
D. contains the nitrogenous bases A, T, C, A. 0.34 nm
G
B. 3.4 nm
467. is the five-carbon sugar found in DNA C. 34 A
A. Deoxyribose D. Both 2 and 3
B. Ribose
473. If you have 40 adenine in a DNA molecule,
C. Uracil how many thymine can you expect?
D. Nucleotide A. 10
468. The number of strands in a DNA molecule B. 20
is.. C. 40
A. 1 D. 80
B. 2
474. Which is the variable part of the DNA nu-
C. 3 cleotide?
D. 4 A. The sugar molecule
469. Replicate this strand of DNA:A T T G C A B. The phosphate molecule
T C. The nitrogen base
A. A T T G C A T D. The ribose molecule
B. T A A C G T A 475. James Watson has been accused of mak-
C. U A A C G U A ing statements.
D. T U U C G T U A. misogynist
470. Double Helix is best described as B. anti-Semitic
A. The specific pairing of bases in DNA:A C. racist

to T and C to G D. all of the above

476. The process to go from DNA to mRNA is B. DNA is used by the cell to fight off bac-
terial infections

A. translation C. DNA provides energy for photosynthe-
sis
B. transcription
D. DNA assembles the transport proteins
C. replication
in a membrane
D. none of above
482. What does a nucleotide consist of?
477. If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% A. Base, Phosphate, Hydrogen
Thymine, what is the relative proportion
B. Phosphate, Sugar, Base
of Guanine?
C. Hydrogen Bond, Sugar, Phosphate
A. 30%
D. A drummer, guitar, bass, and singer
B. 15%
C. 20% 483. The two strands of DNA run in opposite
directions. They are said to be:
D. 60%
A. Antiparallel
478. Which of the following is a base that is B. Complementary
NOT contained in DNA? C. Anti-directional
A. Adenine D. Weird
B. Thymine
484. In what part of the cell, the DNA molecule
C. Uracil is mostly located?
D. Guanine A. Lysosomes
479. Which base is only found in RNA? B. Mitochondria
A. Uracil C. Ribosomes
D. Nucleus
B. Thymine
C. Adenine 485. The purines are
D. Guanine A. cytosine and thymine
B. guanine and adenine
480. Who proposed the double helix model for
C. adenine and cytosine
the structure of DNA?
D. guanine and thymine
A. James Watson and Francis Crick
B. James Watson and Erwinn Chargaff 486. What is the relationship between en-
zymes and DNA?
C. Erwinn Chargaff and Rosalind Franklin
A. Enzymes contain the code for DNA.
D. Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin
B. Enzymes act on DNA during transla-
481. DNA is the genetic information within all tion.
living cells. What is the purpose of DNA C. Both enzymes and DNA have similar
within the cell? shapes.
A. DNA is the material within the cell that D. The structure of enzymes is deter-
regulates and controls cellular activity mined by DNA.

487. Watson & Crick discovered the structure D. nitrogen

of DNA. They called it the model: E. phosphorus
A. helical
493. What will be the resulting mRNA from
B. double-helix this DNA sequence:GAT-TAC-AGA-TTA-
C. double-stranded CAT?
D. twisted ladder A. CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA
B. GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT
NARAYAN CHANGDER
488. Which type of RNA translates the amino
acids to the ribosome? C. CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA
A. tRNA D. CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG
B. rRNA 494. What is determined by your DNA?
C. mRNA A. eye color
D. none of the above B. skin color
489. Which of the following statements is C. your physical features
true? D. all of these
A. DNA is single-stranded
495. Which scientist discovered transforma-
B. RNA is single-stranded tion?
C. DNA contains uracil A. Griffith
D. RNA contains deoxyribose B. Levene
490. During protein synthesis, mRNA C. Watson & Crick
A. Carries anticodons to mRNA. D. Avery
B. Begins to translate tRNA. 496. forms the backbone of DNA and
C. Delivers DNA’s instructions for making forms the inside.
proteins to the ribosome. A. Sugar and Nitrogen bases / phos-
D. None of the above. phates
B. Nitrogen bases / sugar and phosphate
491. Which scientists developed the first 3D
model of DNA? C. Sugar and phosphate / nitrogen bases
A. Griffith D. Phosphate and nitrogen bases / Sugar
B. Levene 497. How did Watson and Crick discover the
C. Watson & Crick structure of DNA?
D. Avery A. Through building and testing models
B. Through doing experiments with X-ray
492. Polynucleotides and polypeptides are or- diffraction
ganic because they contain
C. Through analysis of published scien-
A. carbon tific papers
B. hydrogen D. Through working cooperatively with
C. oxygen Wilkins and Franklin

498. In Eukaryotic cells, where is DNA AL- C. Cell Membrane

WAYS located?
D. Nucleus

A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus 504. The main function of tRNA is to
C. Outside of the cell A. carry a message that, when translated,
forms proteins
D. DNA is always moving around
B. form a portion of ribosomes
499. In a DNA strand, the base Cytosine (C)
always pairs with C. string together complementary RNA
and DNA strands
A. Thymine
B. Adenine D. bring amino acids from the cytoplasm
to the ribosomes
C. Guanine
D. Uracil 505. A set of three nucleotides that code for a
specific amino acid.
500. Which of the following regarding Char-
gaff’s rule is true? A. Nucleotide
A. % of adenine and guanine is equal to B. Gene
% of cytosine and thymine C. Chromosome
B. % of adenine and thymine is equal to
D. Codon
% of cytosine and guanine
C. % of adenine and cytosine is equal to 506. Which model of base pairing is correct?
% of thymine and guanine
A. A=T and C=G
B. A=T=C=G
501. What process involves in making another
C. A+T and G+C
copy of DNA?
A. Replication D. A=G and T=C
B. Transcription 507. Which is not an example of a mutagen?

C. Translation A. radiation
D. none of above
B. DNA replication
502. Which of the following is not a base C. chemicals
found in DNA?
D. viruses
A. adenine
B. thymine 508. Transcribe the following DNA strand into
C. cytosine mRNA:ATT CTA GAC
D. uracil A. TAA GAT CTG
503. Where is DNA found in eukaryotic cells? B. UTT GTU CUG

A. Cytoplasm C. UAA GAU CUG
B. Vacuole D. none of above

509. what is the characteristic of phosphate 514. Who was responsible for determining the
group? structure of DNA?
A. negatively charged A. Watson and Crick
B. has two rings B. Chargaff
C. bases C. Rosalind Franklin

D. All of the above
D. positively charged
515. What organelle stores DNA to keep it
NARAYAN CHANGDER
510. Which two scientists are accredited with safe?
correctly deducing the double helix model
of DNA? A. Golgi Apparatus
B. Mitochondria
A. Watson and Crick
C. Nucleus
B. Wilkins and Franklin
D. Cytoplasm
C. Wilkins and Crick
516. How many parts make up a Nucleotide?
D. Watson and Franklin
A. One
511. Which of the following illustrates the sec- B. Two
ond highest level of DNA packing?
C. Three
A. naked DNA
D. Four
B. nucleosomes
517. Which of the following correctly identi-
C. chromatin fies the PYRIMIDINES?
D. chromosomes A. Cytosine and Thymine
B. Guanine and Cytosine
512. This cannot leave the nucleus
C. Thymine and Adenine
A. DNA
D. Adenine and Guanine
B. RNA
518. Assertion:DNA is considered to be bet-
C. Both
ter genetic material than RNA for most
D. none of above organisms.Reason:2’-OH group present in
DNA makes it labile and less reactive.
513. DNA helicase “unzips” double-stranded
A. A
DNA to expose single-stranded section of
DNA. New strands are generated using the B. B
original strand as a template. How do the C. C
newly-generated strands compare to the
D. D
original template strands?
A. They are identical 519. What is the primary function of DNA in
organisms?
B. They are twice as long
A. Binds to specific active sites on en-
C. They are much shorter zymes
D. They are complementary B. Stores genetic information

C. Transports amino acids to the ribo- C. replication spoon

somes D. okazaki fragments

D. Produces chromosomes for sexual re-
production 525. The nitrogen bases found in DNA are rep-
resented by the letters
520. RNA contains four nitrogenous bases just A. T, U, G, A, and C
like DNA. Which one is only found in RNA?
B. T, A, P and C
A. Thymine
C. A, U, G, and C
B. Uracil
D. A, T, G, and C
C. Adenine
526. In her biology class, Natasha has been
D. Guanine
asked to complete a strand of DNA with
E. Cytosine appropriate nucleotides. If half of the
strand is A-T-C-C-G-A-T-C, what would
521. Which of the descriptions best represents
she write for the other half?
the Phosphate group in a DNA diagram?
A. T-U-G-C-G-U-A-G
A. Together with the phosphate
molecules makes the DNA backbone B. T-A-G-C-C-T-A-C
B. T-the base that pairs with Guanine C. T-U-G-G-C-T-U-G
C. Together with the sugar it makes the D. T-A-G-G-C-T-A-G
backbone of DNA 527. What would the “opposite” side of a
D. One of four different bases. The order DNA strand be if the original strand wasA
of these bases makes the genetic code T C C G?
522. Which is a difference between DNA and A. T A G G C

RNA B. A T C C G
A. RNA is double stranded C. C G A A T
B. RNA is not made of nucleotides D. G C T T A
C. RNA contains Uracil instead of 528. Suppose a double-stranded DNA molecule
Thymine was shown to have 15% adenine bases.
D. RNA does not contain a sugar What would be the expected percentage
of guanine bases in that molecule?
523. In the RNA molecule:
A. 15%
A. adenine pairs with thymine
B. 35%
B. cytosine pairs with thymine
C. 85%
C. guanine pairs with thymine
D. Not enough information
D. adenine pairs with uracil
529. The two strands of a DNA molecule are
524. What is created when the enzyme heli- held together by bonds between their
case unwinds the dna? nitrogen base pairs.
A. replication bubble A. covalent
B. DNA bubble B. hydrogen

C. ionic C. denatured ribonucleic acid

D. peptide D. deoxyribonuclear acid
530. the base that pairs with Thymine in DNA 536. The “central dogma” states that genetic
information flows from
A. adenine
A. Protein→mRNA→DNA
B. guanine
B. Protein→DNA→mRNA
C. helicase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. mRNA→DNA→Protein
D. nucleotide
D. DNA→mRNA→Protein
531. Where, in the cell cycle, does DNA repli-
cation take place? 537. What process did Griffith discover using
mice and altered forms of the pneumonia
A. mitosis
bacteria?
B. interphase-G1
A. transcription
C. interphase-S
B. mutation
D. interphase-G2
C. transformation
532. Replicate the following strand of D. translation
DNA:AATCATGGA
538. During protein synthesis is responsi-
A. AATCATGGA ble for copying the gene and carrying the
B. TTAGTACCT information out of the nucleus.
C. UUAGUACCU A. transfer RNA
D. GGATAUCUA B. ribosomes
533. Which sequence of DNA bases would pair C. messenger RNA

with this partial strandCAT TCA CTG D. DNA
A. ATG TGA CAG 539. DNA and RNA both (click all that ap-
B. TAC ACT GTC ply)
C. GTA AGT GAC A. are nucleic acids
D. CAT TCA CTG B. can be found in the nucleus
C. consist of the nitrogen bases A, C, G
534. Which of the following is the site of trans-
and T
lation?
D. are required molecules for protein syn-
A. vacuole
thesis
B. lysosome
540. What base pair does Guanine (G) bind
C. nucleus
with in both DNA and RNA?
D. ribosome
A. Guanine
535. What is the long name for DNA? B. Cytosine
A. deoxynucleic acid C. Thymine
B. deoxyribonucleic acid D. Uracil

541. What is the name for when the RNA info 547. Which of the following best describes
is read and turned into a protein? how replication is semiconservative?

A. transcription A. the number of DNA molecules is dou-
B. transformation bled with every other replication
C. translation B. the replication of DNA takes place at a
defined period in the cell cycle
D. replication
C. a DNA molecule consists of one
542. The backbone of DNA is made up of parental strand and one new strand
& units.
D. the replication of DNA never takes
A. sugar & base
place with 100% accuracy
B. sugar & phosphate
C. base & phosphate 548. nitrogen base that pairs with guanine
D. phosphate & phosphate A. adenine
B. cytosine
543. Which chemical base is not used in RNA
but is used in DNA? C. nucloetide
A. adenine D. deoxyribose
B. thymine
549. Which enzyme adds nucleotides to the
C. cytosine leading and lagging strand once RNA
D. guanine primer is removed
544. DNA sequence is ACAGTGC. How would A. DNA polymerase III
this be coded on mRNA? B. DNA ligase
A. TGTCACG C. Primase
B. UGUCACG D. DNA polymerase I
C. GUGACAU
D. CACUGUA 550. Which form of RNA carries amino acids
from the cytoplasm to the ribosome?
545. and 5’ refer to A. amino RNA
A. How effectively the helicase works
B. ribosomal RNA
B. What direction the nucleotides are
pointing C. transfer RNA
C. Where the RNA primer attaches D. messenger RNA

D. Okazaki’s famous experiment 551. What is true about eukaryotic DNA?
546. Which enzyme assembles new nu- A. It contains the complementary base
cleotides? pair adenine-uracil.
A. Topoisomerase B. It is naked.
B. Helicase C. The majority consists of repetitive se-
C. Polymerase quences.
D. Ligase D. The majority codes for genes.

552. Which of the following scientist(s) B. The bases that pairs with Adenine
proved which model of DNA replication C. The specific pairing of bases in DNA:A
was correct? to T and C to G
A. Watson & Crick
D. Forces that together with the sugar
B. Avery, McCarty & Macleod make the backbone of DNA
C. Hershey & Chase
558. The anticodon of a particular tRNA
D. Meselson & Stahl molecule is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
553. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine A. complementary to the corresponding
are mRNA codon.
A. nucleotides B. complementary to the corresponding
B. building blocks of DNA triplet in rRNA.
C. made up of one sugar molecule, one C. the part of tRNA that bonds with a spe-
phosphate molecule and one of the four cific amino acid.
bases. D. catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.
D. all of these
559. An Okazaki fragments are
554. Which of the following is the template for A. the parts of the leading strand where
the production of RNA within a cell? replication occurs
A. DNA
B. the lagging strand of DNA replication
B. protein that contains gaps within it
C. ATO C. the parts of the DNA strand where hy-
D. carbohydrate drogen bond is broken
D. the parts of the lagging strand that
555. Nitrogen base that pairs with adenine
help bond the nucleotides together after
A. cytosine they come together
B. DNA polymerase
560. The enzyme that unzips the DNA to pre-
C. deoxyribose pare for replication
D. thymine A. helicase
556. During DNA replication, which strand is B. replicase
built in the opposite direction that the repli-
C. polymerase
cation fork is forming?
A. Lagging strand D. synthase
B. Leading strand 561. Amino acids are joined together in order

C. Parent strand to form
D. Template strand A. DNA
B. ribosomes
557. Hydrogen Bonds
A. The weak bonds that hold the two C. proteins
strands of DNA together. D. RNA

562. the bond between two mononucleotides C. Primase

is called?
D. DNA polymerase I

A. carbon carbon double bond
B. hydrogen bond 568. Which type of RNA brings the informa-
tion in the genetic code form the nucleus
C. phosphodiester bond to other parts of the cell?
D. disulfide bond A. rRNA
563. Which of the following descriptions does B. tRNA
NOT describe RNA?
C. mRNA
A. a nucleic acid made of nucleotides
D. RNA polymerase
B. contains the sugar ribose
C. contains the nitrogenous bases:adenine, 569. Who was given credit for determining the
guanine, thymine, cytocine shape of DNA?
D. a single-stranded structure A. Avery

B. Watson and Darwin
564. The DNA of your brain cells and your
blood cells are C. Watson and Crick
A. 50% similar D. Franklin and Crick
B. Completely different
570. The region on the surface of an enzyme
C. 100% the same where the substrate binds
D. 75% similar A. ligand
565. What sugar is found in DNA B. inhibitor
A. Sucrose C. product
B. deoxyribose D. active site
C. Phosphate
571. How many hydrogen bonds form be-
D. none of above tween cytosine and thymine?
566. Which of the following terms refers to A. 0
the two strands of the DNA double helix B. 2
running in opposite directions?
C. 3
A. semi-conservative
D. 4
B. antiparallel
C. inverted strands 572. The DNA backbone is held together by
D. perpendicular which type of bonds
A. chemical bond
567. Which enzyme adds RNA primer to the
leading and lagging strand? B. ionic bond
A. DNA polymerase III C. hydrogen bond
B. DNA ligase D. covalent bond

573. Which of the following does adenine al- 579. Which enzyme maintains the length of
ways pair with in DNA? the ends of linear chromosomes, particu-
A. Thymine larly in stem cells?
B. Uracil A. telomerase
C. Guanine B. DNA polymerase
D. Cytosine C. ligase
574. Which scientistS discovered the double D. RNA polymerase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
helix shape of DNA? E. primase
A. Griffith
580. What is the role of RNA within the cell?
B. Chargaff
A. RNA contains instructions that code
C. Hershey & Chase for protein synthesis
D. Franklin & Wilkins B. RNA moves instructions for protein
575. What does mRNA do? synthesis from the nucleus to ribosomes
A. provides information from DNA to ribo- C. RNA is the structural unit that makes
somes up DNA
B. carries amino acids to the ribosomes D. none of above
C. makes up ribosomes 581. What base does Adenine pair with?
D. builds proteins
A. Guanine
576. Which two processes are involved in pro- B. Cytosine
tein synthesis?
C. Thymine
A. Replication and Transcription
D. Deoxyribose
B. Replication and Translation
C. Transcription and Translation 582. A nucleotide includes [select all that
apply]
D. none of above
A. uracil base
577. When going from DNA to RNA to make
proteins, Thymine (T) will now be replaced B. nitrogenous base
by C. phosphate group
A. Tyrosine (Y) D. deoxyribose (pentose) sugar
B. Uracil (U) E. thymine base
C. Tryptophan (W)
583. What is the process that uses the infor-
D. Valine (V) mation from RNA to create an amino acid
578. A unit of DNA is called a(n)- chain?
A. Base Pair A. replication
B. Nucleotide B. transcription
C. Strand C. translation
D. Gene D. none of above

584. What is the process that copies informa- 590. In nucleic acids, which type of bond
tion from DNA into RNA? links the 5-carbon sugars with an organic
base?

A. DNA replication
B. transcription A. Peptide
C. translation B. Covalent
D. none of above C. Hydrogen

D. Phosphate
585. Polymerase is able to replicate the new
DNA along the leading strand. 591. Hershey and Chase used as tracers of
A. continuously the DNA and protein
B. only in short fragments A. Chemiluminescence
C. very slowly B. Radioactive isotopes
D. prokaryotically C. Ions
D. None of these are correct
586. what is the pentose sugar in DNA called
A. ribose 592. Which enzyme proofreads the DNA after
replication to catch any mistakes?
B. ribosome suagr
A. primase
C. deoxyribose
B. proof-read-ase
D. DNA sugar
C. DNA polymerase
587. When coiled together, DNA looks like a:
D. helicase
A. Single Helix
593. What is the end result of DNA replica-
B. Double Helix
tion?
C. Triple Helix
A. 2 semi-conservative strands of DNA
D. Broken Ladder
B. 1 semi-conservative strand of DNA
588. What does bacteriophages infect? C. Half of a semi-conservative strand.
A. human cells D. Nothing is created
B. viruses
594. The 3 molecules that make up a nu-
C. bacteria cleotide are
D. plant cells A. ribose sugar, phosphate and a nitro-
gen base
589. In order for the DNA to replicate the
bonds must be broken. B. deoxyribose sugar, phosphate and a ni-
trogen base
A. Covalent
C. deoxyribose sugar, phosphate and a
B. Phosphate nucleic acid
C. Oxygen D. ribose sugar, fatty acid and a nitrogen
D. Hydrogen base

595. See if you can pair up this RNA strand C. mutation

with its complementary pair:ACGUAGC
D. intron
A. TGCATAG
B. UGCAUAG 601. Which base is used in synthesis of RNA,
but not DNA?
C. UGCAUCG
A. Cytosine
D. TCCTTCG
B. Adenine
concluded that, in DNA, adenine lev-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
596.
els were equal to thymine levels and cyto- C. Thymine
sine levels were equal to guanine levels D. Uracil
A. Nirenberg and Matthaei
602. The scientists who created an accurate
B. Watson and Crick model of the DNA double helix and won
C. Levene a Nobel Prize for this discovery
D. Chargaff A. Watson & Crick
597. Which type of RNA is involved in copying B. Watson, Crick, and Wilkins
the code from DNA and taking it out of the C. Wilkins & Crick
nucleus?
D. Watson, Crick, Wilkins, and Franklin
A. tRNA
B. mRNA 603. What makes DNA different from RNA?
C. rRNA A. they type of phosphate
D. xRNA B. the type of sugar
598. What is the location in the cell for trans- C. having C pair with G
lation? D. Having A’s
A. nucleus
B. mitochondria 604. What is the function of transfer RNA?
C. cytoplasm A. It is a part of the ribosome.

D. chloroplast B. It bonds to other RNA molecules, lead-
ing to their destruction.
599. What are the two alternating molecules
C. It delivers the correct amino acid to
that make up the two sides of the DNA
the ribosome.
ladder?
A. Protein and phosphate D. It carries the information coding for
the amino acid sequence of a protein.
B. Protein and sugar
C. Sugar and phosphate 605. What are the nucleotides made of?
D. Protein and nucleotide A. Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
600. Any change in the DNA is called a/an B. Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
A. mistake C. Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
B. exon D. Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine

606. DNA makes a copy of itself in a process D. The two hydrogen bonds between A
called ? and T

A. translation E. The bonds between the bases
B. replication
611. What part of a nucleotide accounts for
C. transcription the genetic variation between individu-
D. division als?
A. phosphate
607. Identify the complementary DNA
strand:ATTACGAT B. nitrogenous base
A. GAAGTGCA C. deoxyribose
B. TAATGCTA D. sugar
C. TCTUCAAA
612. If you look at DNA as a ladder, what part
D. CGGCACG represents the nitrogenous bases?
608. What is the correct sequence of molecules A. the sides of the ladder
for protein synthesis? B. the rungs of the ladder
A. DNA → mRNA → Amino Acids → Pro- C. the top of the ladder
tein
D. the bottom of the ladder
B. DNA → tRNA → Amino Acids → Pro-
tein 613. The backbone / side of the DNA molecule
C. DNA → Amino Acids → Protein is made up of
D. mRNA → DNA → Amino Acids → Pro- A. phosphate and sugar
tein B. sugar and nitrogen base
609. Which of the following is a correct differ- C. phosphate
ence between RNA and DNA? D. nitrogen base
A. RNA is single stranded and DNA is dou-
ble stranded 614. DNA replication takes place during which
phase of the cell cycle?
B. RNA is double stranded and DNA is sin-
gle stranded A. S phase
C. DNA uses Uracil and RNA uses B. G 1
Thymine C. G 2
D. RNA has deoxyribose and DNA has ri- D. Mitosis
bose
615. Which enzyme adds nucleotides to the
610. What makes DNA stable
leading and lagging strand
A. The phosphodiester bond protects the
A. DNA polymerase III
chemical reactive bases
B. DNA ligase
B. the pentose sugar
C. the three hydrogen bonds between C C. Primase
and G D. DNA polymerase I

6.3 DNA Replication 544
616. Which type of RNA brings the amino acid 618. The enzyme that adds more nucleotides
to the ribosome to make the protein. (monomers into a polymer ) is called
A. tRNA A. helicase
B. mRNA B. primase
C. rRNA C. polymerase
D. bRNA D. nuclease
NARAYAN CHANGDER
619. The genetic material of an organism is
617. Before DNA can replicate it has to composed of
A. Separate the two strands A. lipids
B. Find 4 new strands B. proteins
C. Ask its mom C. deoxyribonucleic acids
D. none of above D. complex carbohydrates
6.3 DNA Replication

1. Match he nucleotide with its complemen- 4. Which of the following is not true of the
tary nucleotide. (DNA to DNA).Cytosine- lagging strand during DNA replication?
A. Thymine A. It is made from 5’ → 3’
B. Guanine B. It is made in the same direction as the
C. Adenine leading strand
D. none of above C. It is made by stopping and starting

again
2. In what direction does the Leading strand
D. RNA primers help it to be made
run?
A. 3’ → 5’ 5. How many DNA molecules are in a single
chromosome?
B. 5’-→ 3’
C. It doesn’t matter A. One
D. Both directions B. Two

C. Four
3. Phases:Which is the third step?
D. The number varies
A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA
strand 6. Adds nucleotides to the newly synthesized
B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer strand of DNA
for new nucleotide bases. A. DNA polymerase I
B. DNA polymerase III
by bring in new nucleotide bases.
C. Primase
D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag-
ging strand D. Ligase

7. Which strand is copied faster? 12. The percentage of thymine in the DNA
A. Leading of an organism is approximately 30 %.
What is the percentage of guanine?

B. Lagging
A. 70 %
C. Neither (same speed)
B. 30 %
D. none of above
C. 40 %
8. The contains D. 20 %
A. Leading Strand / Okazaki Fragments 13. Which of the following is required for DNA
B. Lagging Strand / Okazaki Fragments replication to occur?
C. Leading Strand / Topoisomerase A. DNA helicase
D. Lagging Strand / dispersive replica- B. DNA ligase
tion C. DNA polymerase
9. Which of the following enzymes is respon- D. all of these
sible for joining the Okazaki fragments?
14. DNA is a polymer made of monomers
A. DNA polymerase (building blocks) called
B. Helicase A. Nucleotides
C. Primase B. Proteins
D. DNA ligase C. Amino Acids
10. Identify the next step that occurs after D. Lipids

polymerase builds new DNA molecules 15. Which is the correct order of DNA Replica-
A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA tion steps?
strand A. Unwinding & Unzipping, Base Pairing,
B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer Joining
for new nucleotide bases. B. Joining, Base Pairing, Unwinding & Un-
C. DNA polymerase builds new strands zipping
by bring in new nucleotide bases. C. Base Pairing, Unwinding & Unzipping,
D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag- Joining
ging strand D. Unwinding & Unzipping, Joining, Base
Pairing
11. Why are the replicated strands called semi-
conservative? 16. During protein synthesis, which type of
A. Each strand has half of the original molecule attaches particular amino acid
strand of DNA in it molecules and positions them in specific or-
der on the polypeptide chain?
B. The DNA likes to hide some of its base
pairs A. DNA
C. Its playing hide and seek B. mRNA
D. Each strand has one base from the C. tRNA

original strand D. ATP

17. mutations occur between homolo- C. DNA polymerase

gous chromosomes, whereas muta- D. ligase
tions occur between non-homologous chro-
mosomes 22. The cell spends most of its time in (in be-
tween) which phase?
A. somatic; germline
A. anaphase
B. duplications; translocation
B. interphase
C. substitution; addition
C. prophase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. deletion; deletion
D. metaphase
18. How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ
23. The process of DNA replication is called
from a eukaryote?
semi-conservative because it results in
A. Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukary- A. two exact copies of DNA, each with all
otes has linear DNA new strands
B. Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, B. two DNA molecules; one completely
Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA original molecule and one molecule with
C. Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukary- two new strands.
otes has prokaryote DNA C. two identical DNA molecules, each
D. Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, with 1 original strand and one new strand.
Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA
D. none of above
19. The nucleic acid DNA is composed of
A. sugar, protein, and nitrogenous bases. 24. Which RNA is produced in the nucleus dur-
ing transcription?
B. protein, nitrogenous bases, and phos-
A. messenger
phate.
B. transport
C. nitrogenous bases, phosphate, and
RNA. C. ribosomal
D. sugar, phosphate, and nitrogenous D. none of above
bases. 25. Which enzyme is the primary joiner of nu-
cleotides to create a new sugar-phosphate
20. Which of the following enzymes glues
backbone?
together the fragments on the lagging
strand? A. DNA helicase
A. Helicase B. DNA polymerase
B. Primase C. DNA ligase
C. DNA Polymerase D. none of above
D. Ligase 26. The reaction in DNA replication catalyzed

by DNA ligase is
21. The enzyme that unwinds DNA to prepare
A. Addition of new nucleotides to the
for replication
leading strand
A. helicase B. Addition of new nucleotide to the lag-
B. RNA primase ging strand

C. Formation of a phosphodiester bond B. 32% cytosine, 18% adenine, 32%

between the 3’-OH of one Okazaki frag- thymine
ment and the 5’-phosphate of the next on

C. 18% cytosine, 64% adenine, 64%
the lagging strand thymine
D. Base pairing of the template and the D. 32% cytosine, 32% adenine, 18%
newly formed DNA strand thymine
27. What are the 2 Purines? 32. Cell division requires that genetic material
A. Adenine & Guanine be able to
B. Thymine & Cytosine A. store information
C. Adenine & Thymine B. undergo replication
D. Thymine & Guanine C. undergo rare genetic mutations

D. none of above
28. The “rungs” of the DNA ladder are made
of: 33. What are the components of a DNA nu-
cleotide? (Mark all that apply)
A. phosphates and bases
A. Deoxyribose
B. sugars
B. Ligase
C. sugars and phosphates
C. Nitrogen Base
D. bases
D. Phosphate group
29. How does DNA helicase unwinds the dou- E. Ribose
ble helix DNA?
34. What are Okazaki fragments made of?
A. By joining the nucleotide bases
A. DNA only
B. By separating the double stranded
DNA B. RNA only
C. By breaking the hydrogen bonds be- C. DNA and RNA

tween complementary bases D. Protein
D. By forming the hydrogen bonds be- 35. The DNA is found in the nucleus of what
tween complementary bases type of organisms?
30. Fill in the complementary bases according A. Bacteria
to the base-pair rule in DNA:A T C C A G B. Eukaryotes
A. T U G G T C C. Prokaryotes
B. T A G G T C D. Viruses
C. T A C G T G 36. New Nucleotides are added to the end
D. T A C C A C of an existing DNA strand.
A. 3’
31. If a DNA molecule is 18% Guanine which
of the following is correct B. 5’
A. 18% cytosine, 32% adenine, 32% C. 1’
thymine D. 4’

37. DNA replication turns one strand of DNA B. 2 DNA molecules that each contain a
into two new strands of DNA. What per- strand of the original
cent of each new strand is the old strand? C. 1 new DNA molecule and 1 old
A. Half of each new DNA is the old DNA D. 1 new molecule of DNA
B. The old strand of DNA was digested, so
43. This enzyme is used to remove short RNA
none
bases
C. The new DNA is entirely made up of the
A. Topoisomerase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
old DNA
B. DNA Helicase
D. About every sixth base comes from the
old DNA C. Exonuclease
D. Telomerase
38. What enzyme is responsible for signaling
the starting point for DNA Replication? 44. A template strand of DNA is 3’TAG-
A. Helicase GCATTGCA 5’What is the complementary
DNA strand that is created from this tem-
B. Primase plate during replication?
C. Ligase A. 5’ TGCAATGCCTA 3’
D. There are no RNA primers during DNA B. 5’ TAGGCATTGCA 3’
Replication
C. 5’ AUCCGUAACGU 3’
39. This enzyme has proofreading abilities. D. 5’ATCCGTAACGT 3’
A. ligase 45. Enzymes:Which enzyme is responsible for
B. helicase adding nucleotides?
C. primase A. Topoisomerase
D. DNA polymerase B. DNA Polymerase
C. Ligase
40. DNA carries the instructions to make
D. Primase
A. bases
B. proteins 46. A nucleotide consists of:
C. purines A. a nitrogen base
D. hydrogen bonds B. a nitrogen base and a sugar
C. a nitrogen base, sugar, and phosphate
41. DNA replication occurs during which phase
of the cell cycle? D. two nitrogen bases, a sugar, and a
phosphate
A. interphase-G1
47. Which scientist(s) stated that DNA con-
B. interphase-S
tains phosphorus while proteins contain
C. interphase-G2 sulfur?
D. mitosis A. Meselson & Stahl
42. DNA replication is semiconservative. B. Hershey & Chase
What does this mean? C. Watson & Crick
A. 2 completely new DNA molecules D. Franklin & Watkins

48. Which is the second step in DNA replica- B. Free-floating nucleotides pair up with
tion? exposed bases.

A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA C. Identical double-stranded DNA
strand molecules are formed.
B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer D. Enzymes break hydrogen bonds be-
for new nucleotide bases. tween base pairs.
C. DNA polymerase builds new strands 53. Which enzyme is needed to start DNA
by bring in new nucleotide bases. replication?
D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag- A. DNA Polymerase
ging strand
B. Topoisomerase
49. Which enzyme glues the Okazaki frag- C. Ligase
ments together?
D. Primase
A. Helicase
B. Polymerase 54. prevent the reformation of double he-
lix
C. Ligase
A. SSB protein
D. Primerase
B. Polymerase I
50. Bases that have double-ring structures C. Gyrase
are:(SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
D. Ligase
A. purines
B. pyrimidine 55. What does the growth solution (second so-
lution the bacteria was placed in) contain?
C. adenine & guanine
A. 15N
D. cytosine & thymine
B. 14N
E. cytosine & guanine
C. CsCl
51. In a semi-conservative model of DNA repli- D. none of above
cation, which of the following is true?
56. What do enzymes do?
A. The daughter DNA molecule consists
of 1 parent strand and 1 new strand A. Speed up chemical changes
B. The daughter DNA molecule consists B. Start chemical changes
of 2 parent strands C. Slow down chemical changes
C. The daughter DNA molecule consists D. nothing
of 2 newly formed strands
D. The daughter DNA molecule consists 57. nucleotides will provide how many
of an uneven mix of old and new strands codons?
A. 3 amino acids
52. Which of the following events occurs di-
rectly after a DNA molecule is unzipped? B. 5 amino acids
A. Mismatched nucleotide bases are iden- C. 7 amino acids

tified and replaced. D. 9 amino acids

58. A sequence of three nitrogen bases in DNA 64. The causes of cancer may include which of
makes up a(n) the following?
A. condon A. environmental influences
B. anticodon B. UV radiation
C. nucleotide C. viruses
D. triplet D. all of these
NARAYAN CHANGDER
59. Enzymes:The enzyme that unwinds the 65. Which of these lists presents the stages of
DNA to prepare for replication the cell cycle in the correct order?
A. helicase A. interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis
B. replicase B. cytokinesis, mitosis, interphase
C. polymerase C. mitosis, interphase, cytokinesis
D. synthase D. interphase, cytokinesis, mitosis
60. DNA replication is 66. What type of organic macro-molecule is

DNA?
A. conservative
A. Protein
B. Non-conservative
B. Lipid
C. semi-conservative
C. Nucleic Acid
D. none
D. Carbohydrate
61. After DNA replication there is/are
67. Where do the DNA strands unzip at during
strand(s) of DNA.
replication?
A. one
A. Oxygen bonds
B. two B. Hydrogen bonds
C. three C. Carbon bonds
D. four D. Phosphate bonds
62. Which enzyme “glues” Okazaki fragments 68. Which base pairs with cytosine?
together?
A. Adenine
A. DNA polymerase
B. Thymine
B. Ligase
C. Cytosine
C. Helicase
D. Guanine
D. Primase
69. Which enzyme proofreads and removes
63. What does CsCl stand for? RNA Primase
A. Cestrate Chlorine A. DNA Ligase
B. Cesium Chloride B. DNA polymerase I
C. Cesium Chlorotine C. DNA polymerase III
D. none of above D. DNA Helicase

70. At the start of DNA replication, the en- 75. DNA strands move in an antiparallel pat-
zymes first “unzip” a molecule of DNA tern, what does this mean?
by breaking the bonds between base

A. the strands move in opposite direc-
pairs and unwinding the two strands of tions
the molecule.
B. the strands move in the same direction
A. hydrogen
C. they crisscross each other
B. DNA
D. none of above
C. replicating
D. helix 76. Which of the following is a major differ-
ence between prokaryotic and eukaryotic
71. Phases:Which is the fourth step? DNA?
A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA A. Prokaryotic cells do not have DNA.
strand B. The DNA of prokaryotic cells is located
B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer in the nucleus.
for new nucleotide bases. C. The DNA of prokaryotic cells is located
C. DNA polymerase builds new strands in the cytoplasm.
by bring in new nucleotide bases. D. Prokaryotic cells have lined or X-
D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag- shaped chromosomes.
ging strand
77. The principle Watson and Crick created
72. DNA replication is , which means that that said adenine pairs with thymine and
each DNA molecule resulting from replica- guanine pairs with cytosine is called
tion has one of the two original strands A. base pairing
and one new strand.
B. super coiling
A. semiconservative
C. replication
B. conservative
D. substitution
C. expansive
D. cohorting 78. Unzipping the DNA is the step in repli-
cation.
73. Which is not one of the three types of A. 1
RNA?
B. 2
A. mRNA (messenger)
C. 3
B. rRNA (ribosomal)
D. none of above
C. tRNA (transfer)
D. nRNA (nitrogen) 79. If a DNA template strand is 5’ T T C G A
G 3’, what will the complementary strand
74. Where do nucleotides joined to each other be?
A. sugar and phosphate backbone A. 5’ A A G C T C 3’
B. membranes B. 3’ A A G C T C 3’
C. polynucleotide C. 3’ A A G C T C 5’
D. adenine to cytocine D. none of above

80. Which is the fourth step in DNA replica- 85. Which of the following strands would be
tion? more stable at a higher temperature?
A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA A. AATTAATTAATT
strand
B. CCGGCCGGCCGG
B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer
for new nucleotide bases. C. ATCGATCGATCGAT
C. DNA polymerase builds new strands D. CGATCGATCGATCG
NARAYAN CHANGDER
86. Cytosine always pairs with
ging strand A. Adenine
81. Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl dis- B. Thymine

covered that DNA is replicated: C. Uracil
A. Conservatively D. Guanine
B. Non-conversely
87. What is special about the DNA Polymerase
C. Semi-conservatively
used in PCR (Taq polymerase)?
D. none of above
A. It is heat tolerant so does not denature
82. Why does a lagging strand need to be during the first phase
made during DNA replication? B. It came from thermophillic yeast
A. DNA polymerase I can only add nu- C. It is made of protein
cleotides from 3’ → 5’
D. It has been artificially created in the
B. DNA polymerase I can only add nu-
lab
cleotides from 5’ → 3’
C. DNA polymerase III can only add nu- 88. In a double helix, the direction of the nu-
cleotides from 3’ → 5’ cleotides in one strand is opposite to their
D. DNA polymerase III can only add nu- direction in the other strand. The strands
cleotides from 5’ → 3’ are
A. parallel
83. Mistakes during replication can result in
B. homologous
A. variation
B. mutation C. anti-parallel
C. evolution D. none of above

D. All of the above 89. The synthesise of DNA by DNA poly-
merase occurs in
84. unwinds and unzips the double helix
A. DNA Ligase A. 3’ to 5’ direction
B. DNA Helicase B. 5’ to 5’ direction

C. DNA Polymerase C. 5’ to 3’ direction
D. RNA Primase D. 3’ to 3’ direction

90. For which discovery about DNA do Watson 95. Telomerase is often switched off in
and Crick receive credit? cells.

A. DNA is the molecule that genes are A. adult
made of.
B. child
B. The amount of adenine equals the
amount of thymine in an organism. C. duplicated
C. Phosphate-pentose bonding along the D. hidden
nucleotide backbone is covalent.
96. What are pyrimidines in DNA?
D. The shape of DNA is a double helix.
A. Types of nucleotides
91. Which nitrogen base CAN’T you use during
transcription? B. Types of base pairs
A. adenine C. Types of sugars
B. uracil D. Types of bases
C. cytosine
97. Cancer cells can reproduce rapidly because
D. thymine they
92. What are Okazaki fragments? A. are smaller than normal cells
A. Sections of RNA removed by DNA poly- B. skip interphase
merase III and replaced with DNA
C. undergo mitosis more slowly
B. Nucleotides added by DNA polymerase
I in the same direction as the replication D. spend less time in interphase
fork
C. Short sections of DNA formed during 98. A nitrogenous base is an important com-
DNA replication ponent of the nucleotide making up DNA.
Which of the following correctly lists the
D. Short lengths of RNA primase attached four possible nitrogenous bases in DNA?
to the DNA during replication
A. glutamine, proline, tyrosine, phenylala-
93. Which types of cells have a high expres- nine
sion of telomerase? Select all that apply.
B. adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine
A. somatic cells
C. leucine, proline, tyrosine, phenylala-
B. stem cells nine
C. gametic cells
D. adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
D. cancer cells
99. Which enzyme has the job of unzipping the
94. In what part of Interphase does DNA repli-
double helix?
cation take place?
A. Helicase
A. G1
B. S B. Polymerase
C. G2 C. Ligase
D. M D. Primerase

100. DNA polymerase III adds the appropriate 105. Eukaryotic DNA is located in
to the end of the new strand, using
A. the nucleus
the template strand as a guide
B. the cytoplasm
A. Deoxyribose nucleoside triphosphates,
5” C. anywhere in the cell
B. Nucleotides, 3’ D. none of above
C. Deoxyribose nucleoside triphosphates,
106. Which of the following is NOT required in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
3’
PCR?
D. Nucleotides, 5’
A. DNA Polymerase
101. Which enzyme is responsible for adding B. Primers
nucleotides (”The Builder”)?
C. DNA Nucleotides
A. Topoisomerase
D. DNA ligase
B. DNA Polymerase
C. Ligase 107. Starting with 15N15N (heavy) DNA, and
after one generation in the 14N medium,
D. Primase Escherichia coli cells will contain
102. Put the following in order:G2, G1, S, mi- A. all 15N14N (hybrid) DNA.
tosis, cytokinesis. B. half 15N15N DNA (heavy) and half
A. G1, G2, S, Mitosis, cytokinesis 14N14N DNA (light).
B. G1, S, G2, Mitosis, cytokinesis C. half 14N14N (light) DNA and half
15N14N (hybrid) DNA.
C. G1, G2, S, cytokinesis, mitosis
D. all 14N14N (light) DNA.
D. G1, S, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis
103. On the ‘lagging strand’ of DNA replica- 108. Which enzyme is used to join together the
tion DNA is build in short segments (100- Okazaki fragments built during replication
200 bases long) known as of the lagging strand?
A. RNA Primer A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA Primer B. Taq Polymerase
C. Okazaki Segments C. RNA polymerase
D. Kosak Sequence D. DNA ligase
104. Bonding the nucleotide monomers to- 109. add the complementary bases to the tem-
gether in the daughter strand is the plate strand in the new strands 5’ to 3’
step replication. direction.
A. 1 A. DNA Ligase
B. 2 B. DNA Helicase
C. 3 C. DNA Polymerase
D. none of above D. RNA Primase

110. What is the name is the enzyme that un- B. the color of the nitrogen bases
zips the DNA strands in order to begin C. the order (sequence) of the nitrogen
replication?

bases
A. unzipicase D. the frequency (number) of nitrogen
B. helicase bases
C. the unzipper 116. During replication, DNA polymerase
D. osteocase each new DNA strand, so that each
molecule is a near-perfect copy of the orig-
111. What type of bond holds together the inal.
two stands of DNA
A. proofreads
A. covalent
B. strengthens
B. hydrogen
C. feeds
C. ionic
D. magnifies
D. sulfide
117. What is the matching nitrogen base se-
112. What is one characteristic that is true
quence for the gene below? A-T-C-
about both DNA and RNA?
A. TCG
A. single stranded
B. TAG
B. contain genes
C. GAT
C. have the base uracil
D. none of above
D. used as a template
118. Known as the initializer (starter), it
113. When substitution of bases do not change
makes the primer, so DNA can determine
the protein structure (amino acid) this type
where to begin work.
of mutation is known as
A. ligase
A. Point Mutation-Substitution
B. helicase
B. Frameshift Mutation-Insertion
C. DNA polymerase
C. Point Mutation-Silent
D. primase
D. Frameshift Mutation-Deletion
119. Which of the following does NOT describe
114. Uncontrolled cell division which usually
the structure of DNA?
leads to tumors and disease is called:
A. double helix
A. Metaphase
B. Cytokinesis B. nucleotide polymer
C. Cancer C. sugar-phosphate backbone
D. Diabetes D. contains adenine-uracil pairs
115. What determines the code, or informa- 120. What is the end result of replication?
tion of a DNA molecule? A. Two new identical strands of DNA
A. the shape (structure) of the nitrogen B. One parent strand and one daughter
bases strand of DNA

C. Two new and different strands of DNA 126. Which process creates gametes?
D. One new strand of DNA A. mitosis
B. meiosis
121. Which base is found in RNA but not in
DNA C. DNA replication
A. adenine D. transcription
B. cytosine 127. What was the third solution that the was
NARAYAN CHANGDER
bacteria was placed in?
C. uracil
A. 15N
D. guanine
B. 14N
122. The short primer sequence is synthesised C. CsCl
by ..
D. ClCs
A. Helicase
128. The enzymes that break hydrogen bonds
B. Topoisomerase and unwind DNA are:
C. DNA polymerase A. primers
D. Primase B. ligases
C. helicases
123. In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell di-
vides. D. polymerases
A. G1 129. After THIS enzyme is finished, DNA poly-
B. S merase knows where to start laying down
new bases.
C. G2
A. Primase
D. M
B. Topoisomerase
124. DNA polymerase starts on the end of C. Ligase
the template strand but builds on the D. Helicase
new strand.
130. Phases:Which is the second step?
A. 3’, 5’-3’
B. 5’, 5’-3’
strand
C. 3’, 3’-5’ B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer
D. 5’, 3’-5’ for new nucleotide bases.
125. Which enzyme is responsible for adding by bring in new nucleotide bases.
new bases?
A. Topoisomerase ging strand
B. DNA Polymerase
131. Which of the following carries amino
C. Ligase acids to the site of protein synthesis?
D. Primase A. mRNA

B. rRNA 137. What are the 4 nitrogenous bases in

C. tRNA DNA?

D. nRNA A. adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and gua-
nine
132. What is the backbone of DNA made of?
B. adenine, thymine cytosine, and gua-
A. Nitrogen bases nine
B. Amino acids C. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gyl-
C. Double H cerol
D. Sugar & Phosphate D. adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glu-
cose
133. Choose the correct statement
A. Primer is a short DNA strand synthe- 138. Which enzyme proofreads during replica-
sised by Primase tion
B. Primer is a short RNA strand synthe- A. Ligase
sised by Primase
B. DNA Polymerase
C. Primer is a short DNA strand synthe-
sised by Helicase C. Helicase
D. Primer is a short RNA strand synthe- D. none of above

sised by Helicase
139. A major function of DNA is to code for
134. Which scientists proved that DNA replica-
A. proteins
tion is semi-conservative?
A. Hershey and Chase B. phospholipids
B. Watson and Crick C. carbohydrates (polysaccharides)

C. Meselson and Stahl D. neutral fats
D. Franklin and Wilkins
140. In RNA molecules, adenine pairs with
135. Translation takes place in the which nucleotide?
A. ribosome A. uracil
B. chloroplast B. thymine
C. nucleus C. guanine
D. mitochondria D. cytosine
136. Base pairing in the double helix explains
141. During replication, what enzyme adds
how DNA can be copied because each base
complimentary bases?
on one strand pairs with
A. one base on the opposite strand A. DNA helicase
B. one base on the same strand B. DNA ligase

C. all the bases in the DNA C. DNA polymerase I
D. the replication fork D. DNA polymerase III

142. What did the first solution that the bacte- B. Fragmenting lagging strand
ria was placed in during the Meselson and C. Okazaki segments
Stahl experiment contain?
D. Coding strands
A. 15N
B. CsCl 148. Which process is used in polymerase
C. 14N chain reaction (PCR)?
D. 13N A. Transcription
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Translation
143. Before a cell divides, its DNA must first
C. Replication
A. be copied. D. Mutation
B. be joined. 149. What’s the difference between purine
C. be completed. and pyrimidine nitrogen bases?
D. be isolated. A. Pyrimidines are only found in DNA, not
RNA
144. What do we call the articfical amplifica-
tion of DNA? B. Pyrimidines have two rings, Purines
have one
A. Gel Electrophoresis
C. Purines are only found in DNA, not
B. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
RNA
C. In vitro fertilisation
D. Purines have two rings, Pyrimidines
D. Bioinformatics have one
145. What is responsible for holding the two 150. Which of the following statements about
strands of the DNA double helix to- these strands is true?
gether?
A. Okazaki fragments are used to synthe-
A. hydrogen bonds
size the leading strand of DNA
B. alleles
B. The leading strand of DNA is synthe-
C. London dispersion forces sized continuously
D. deoxyribose sugars C. DNA polymerase can only synthesize
DNA on the leading strand
146. A sample of DNA is analyzed, the percent-
age of Adenine is found to be 27% What D. The lagging strand can only be synthe-
is the percentage of Guanine? sized once the leading strand has been
A. 27% completed.
B. 54% 151. If the original strand has guanine, it is al-

C. 23% ways paired with
D. 46% A. cytosine
B. adenine
147. What is the name of the fragments of the
lagging strand in the selected picture? C. thymine
A. Binding proteins D. cryptonite

152. What enzyme is responsible for laying 158. An enzyme that adds complementary nu-
down the RNA primers during DNA Repli- cleotides to the template strand of the
cation? unzipped double helix until the entire

A. Helicase molecule has been replicated.
B. RNA Primase A. RNA Polymerase
C. Ligase B. Okazaki Fragments
D. There are no RNA primers during DNA C. DNA Polymerase

Replication D. Translation
153. DNA is in the shape of a (a) 159. direction new nucleotides are synthe-
A. double-helix sized on the new strand
B. square A. 5’ to 3’ (new nucleotides added to the

3’ end)
C. single-helix
B. 3’ to 5’ (new nucleotides added to the
D. Circle 5’ end)
154. mRNA leaves the nucleus and goes to: C. 3’ to 5’ (new nucleotides added to the
A. the ribosome for protein synthesis 3’ end)
B. the golgi body for secretion D. 5’ to 3’ (new nucleotides added to the

5’ end)
C. the cell membrane for diffusion
D. the vacuole for storage 160. When cells divide they make two
cells.
155. What is the name of the proteins that A. daughter
DNA wraps around in order to condense?
B. son
A. Single Stranded Binding Proteins
C. Mom
B. Histones
D. Dad
C. Tertiary Structures
D. Nucleosomes 161. Which enzyme is responsible for gluing
and connecting parts of newly created
156. DNA codes for DNA fragments together?
A. Carbohydrates A. Topoisomerase
B. Lipids B. DNA Polymerase
C. Proteins C. Ligase
D. Nucleotides D. Primase
157. Which process creates 4 haploid daughter 162. The process that makes an exact copy of
cells? a cell’s DNA is called
A. mitosis A. conservation.
B. meiosis B. preservation.
C. DNA replication C. replication.
D. transcription D. synthesis.

163. What determines the traits of an organ- 168. RNA is read in sections called
ism? A. Triplets
A. The length of DNA molecules B. Genes
B. The way nucleotides are paired in the C. Codons
two strands of DNA
D. Genes
C. The order of nucleotides in DNA
molecules 169. During what stage does the G1, S and G2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The proportions of A, T, C, and G in DNA phases happen?
molecules A. Interphase
164. Yesterday we learned about DNA Repli- B. M phase

cation, how many steps did we say there C. Mitosis
were? D. Cytokinesis
A. 3
170. The process in which DNA copies itself be-
B. 5 fore a cell divides is called
C. 7 A. transcrition
D. 9 B. replication
165. Which enzyme removes the RNA primer C. translation
during replication? D. base pairing
A. RNA primase
171. Which enzyme is responsible for relax-
B. DNA polymerase I ing supercoiling in front of the replication
C. DNA helicase fork?
D. DNA polymerase III A. helicase
166. What is the function of DNA polymerase B. DNA polymerase

I? C. topoisomerase
A. To add appropriate nucleotides in the D. ligase
3’ → 5’ direction
172. When does the 2 phase occur in the cell
B. To remove the RNA primers and recycle?
place them with DNA
A. after mitosis
C. To join together the Okazaki fragments
B. during mitosis
D. To join together both strands of DNA to
the histones C. before mitosis
D. during interphase
167. In general, the purpose of a checkpoint in
the cell cycle is: 173. DNA replication has steps
A. To allow the cell to rest A. 1
B. To check for any errors B. 4
C. To signal cell replication C. 3
D. To signal DNA replication D. 5

174. Where on the DNA molecule does replica- C. DNA is synthesized in the 5’ to 3’ direc-
tion start? tion

A. At one end D. DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments to-
B. At both ends gether
C. At the origin 179. Which enzyme seals Okazaki fragments
D. In the exact middle of the molecule together on the lagging strand?
175. After DNA is “unzipped”, which enzyme A. Topoisomerase

is responsible for adding nucleotides to the B. Helicase
exposed nitrogen bases?
C. DNA polymerase
A. topoisomerase
D. DNA Ligase
B. DNA polymerase
C. ligase 180. Most of mistakes during DNA replication
D. primase are corrected by
A. DNA ligase
176. To create rDNA, foreign DNA is inserted
into a B. DNA polymerase
A. chromosome C. gyrase
B. vector D. helicase
C. clone
181. Replicate this strand:ACCGGATT
D. eukaryotic cell
A. TCCGGATT
177. What is needed for DNA replication? Se-
lect all that apply. B. AGGCCTAA
A. Enzymes to break the hydrogen bonds C. TGGCCTAA

of the DNA molecule D. CCGGAATT
B. Free nucleotides
182. Which base pairs with adenine?
C. Polymerase to join nucleotides onto
the template DNA strand A. Adenine
D. Genetic information that speeds up the B. Thymine
process
C. Cytosine
E. Free amino acids
D. Guanine
178. Which of the following represents a step
necessary to create the lagging strand, but 183. During what phase of the cell cycle does
not the leading strand, during DNA replica- cell division occur?
tion? A. Interphase
A. Helicase unwinds the parent strand of B. M phase
DNA
C. S phase
B. DNA polymerase synthesizes template
DNA from the parent strand D. G2 phase

184. This specialized enzyme will connect A. Ligase

Okazaki Segments that have been created
B. Helicase
on the Lagging strand.
A. RNA Primase C. DNA Polymerase
B. DNA Primase D. Primase

C. DNA Ligase 190. What enzyme is used to join the Okazaki
D. Helicase Fragments?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
185. What is needed for DNA replication to un- A. Leucoanthocyanidin reductase
zip at the hydrogen bonds? B. Liagse
A. phosphates C. Laccase
B. enzymes
D. Lysozyme
C. deoxyribose (sugar)
D. hydrogen 191. Mutations are good.
A. True
186. Which molecule uses DNA as a template
to carry instructions out of the cell? B. False
A. tRNA C. Absolutely not
B. mRNA D. Could be
C. rRNA
192. In what organelle is DNA found?
D. DNA Polymerase
A. Nucleus
187. Insulin is mass-produced through rDNA
technology. The vector for this is: B. Mitochondria
A. e-coli bacteria C. Ribosome

B. salmonellosis bacteria D. Vacuole
C. bifidobacterium
193. Single base substitutions are called as
D. Bacillus bacteria
A. mutations
188. DNA replication results in two DNA B. point mutations
molecules,
C. replication
A. each one with two original strands
D. recombination
B. each one with two new strands
C. each one with one new strand and one 194. Specific chromosomal locations from
original strand where replication begins are called as
D. one with two new strands and the A. locus
other with two original strands
B. origin of replication
189. Which enzyme is responsible for forming
C. loci
covalent bonds between the Okazaki frag-
ments? D. chromosomal arms

195. A nucleotide includes ? B. Ribonucleotides

A. pentose sugar C. DNA Polymerase

B. nitrogenous base
D. Single Stranded Binding proteins
C. phosphate group
D. all of the above 201. Which shows the correct complementary
strand of DNA ATG?
196. What do we call the short fragments of
DNA that bind to the 3’ end of the par- A. ATG
ent strand and allow DNA polymerase to B. TAC
attach?
C. TAG
A. Primers
B. Okazaki fragments D. CGC
C. Nucleotides
202. Which is the first step in DNA replica-
D. Polypeptide chain tion?
197. DNA molecule segment is:TTACGCAAG A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. strand
This is an example of mutation.
A. Substitution for new nucleotide bases.
B. Deletion
C. Insertion by bring in new nucleotide bases.
D. Inversion D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag-
198. Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation ging strand
of the leading strand?
203. Where do new strands of DNA grow
A. RNA polymerase
from?
B. Helicase
A. Salad fork
C. DNA polymerase
B. Fish fork
D. Ligase
C. Replication Fork
199. is a special enzyme that replicates the
telomeres, the ends of the chromosomes in D. Pitch Fork
eukaryotic cells.
A. Helicase 204. A DNA strand has the following bases:A
A G C C A. What are the bases on its com-
B. Topoisomerase
plimentary strand?
C. DNA Ligase
A. T T G C C A
D. Telomerase
B. A C C G A A
200. What is added one by one during replica-
tion? C. T T C G G T
A. Deoxyribonucleotides D. C C A T T C

205. Which of the following is true about DNA C. mitochondria

polymerase?
D. cytoplasm
A. It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’ di-
rection 210. What is the role of RNA primers, which
B. It can synthesize DNA in the 3’ to 5’ di- are needed to form the lagging strand?
rection A. To allow RNA polymerase to bind
C. It can synthesize mRNA in the 3’ to 5’ B. To allow DNA polymerase to bind
NARAYAN CHANGDER
direction
C. To allow DNA primase to bind
D. It can synthesize mRNA in the 5’ to 3’
direction D. To allow DNA ligase to bind
206. Which of the following DNA nucleotides 211. What nucleotide base matches with ade-
are paired with the correct corresponding nine in DNA replication?
DNA nucleotide? (mark all that apply)
A. guanine
A. Adenine with Thymine
B. cytosine
B. Guanine with Cytosine
C. thymine
C. Thymine with Cytosine
D. uracil
D. Adenine with Uracil.
E. Uracil with Thymine 212. The pairing of in DNA is the key fea-
ture that allows DNA to be copied.
207. If a person suffered from a disorder
where their DNA fragments were unable A. nucleotides
to fill in the missing slots in between B. nitrogen bases
the fragments of the lagging strand, they
would most likely have a disorder that af- C. chromosomes
fected which enzyme? D. codons
A. DNA Helicase
213. The directionality of DNA is said to be ,
B. DNA Ligase
because it is side by side by goes in oppo-
C. DNA polyermase site directions.
D. RNA Polymerase A. Anti-directional
208. The codon is located on the B. Parallel
A. DNA C. Anti-parallel
B. mRNA D. Anti-uniform
C. tRNA
214. The primer is composed of
D. rRNA
A. amino acids
209. In eukaryotes, nearly all the DNA is
found in the B. RNA only
A. cell wall C. DNA only
B. nucleus D. RNA and DNA

215. The strand builds continuously. C. Cytosine

A. Lagging D. none of above

B. Ligase 221. What is the first step of DNA Replica-
C. Leading tion?
D. Telomeres A. free nucleotides match with a tem-
plate
216. A scientist observes a base sequence of
AGCTAGCTAGCT. Which of the following B. DNA coils up tightly
would be the complimentary strand? C. DNA helicase unzips the DNA
A. TGCATGCATGCA D. DNA uncoils from its double helix
shape
B. TCGATCGATCGA
C. TAGCTAGCTAGC 222. It carries the genetic information of an or-
ganism.
D. TTAAGGCCTTCC
A. DNA
217. Enzyme that catalyse the synthesis of
B. RNA
DNA is called
C. PROTEIN
A. Polymerase
D. NITROGEN The Double Helix
B. Helicase
C. Ligase 223. Structure:Which of the following best de-
scribes the arrangement of the sides of the
D. Gyrase
DNA molecule
218. which of the following contains a ribose A. Bonding
sugar?
B. Alternating
A. DNA
C. Anitparallel
B. RNA
D. Parallel
C. protein
224. What is the principal enzyme involved in
D. codon
DNA replication?
219. Where does DNA Replication occur inside A. DNA Polymerase
eukaryotic cells?
B. glucose
A. cytoplasm
C. fructose
B. vacuole D. none of above
C. lysosome
225. On the lagging strand in replication, the
D. Golgi bodies Okazaki fragments must be joined by
E. nucleus which enzyme?
220. Match he nucleotide with its complemen- A. DNA polymerase

tary nucleotide. (DNA to DNA).Adenine- B. primase
A. Thymine C. ligase
B. Guanine D. helicase

226. Why do cells go through the cell cycle? 231. During what phase of the cell cycle does
the cell prepare for mitosis?
A. growth
A. G1 phase
B. repair
B. S phase
C. reproduction
C. G2 phase
D. All of the above
D. M phase
227. The backbone of DNA is made up of de- 232. The genetic code depends on
NARAYAN CHANGDER
oxyribose (sugar) and
A. the sugar phosphate backbone
A. phosphate B. the alignment and sequence of genes
B. oxygen on a chromosome
C. Ribose C. the hydrogen bonds
D. water D. the covalent bonds
233. During DNA replication, the DNA
228. Which base pairs with guanine? molecule produces new complemen-
A. Adenine tary strands.
B. Thymine A. two
C. Cytosine B. one
D. Guanine C. four
D. countless
229. Identifies the starting point for DNA poly-
merase to start building the new DNA 234. This enzyme is responsible for creating
molecule telomeres added to the ends of DNA
A. Topoisomerase
A. DNA Polymerase
B. Telomerase
B. ligase
C. DNA Helicase
C. helicase
D. DNA Primase
D. primase
235. Which enzyme has the job of preventing
230. Many enzymes are involved in DNA repli- the DNA from super-coiling?
cation. Which is the correct order of en- A. Helicase
zymes involved in DNA replication from be- B. Topoisomerase
ginning to end?
C. Ligase
A. Helicase, DNA primase, DNA poly-
D. DNA Polymerase
merase, Ligase
B. RNA primase, Helicase, DNA poly- 236. Each new strand of DNA is produced by
merase, Ligase using the original strand as a
A. template
C. Helicase, RNA primase, DNA poly-
merase, Ligase B. source of bases
D. DNA primase, Helicase, RNA poly- C. polymerase
merase, Ligase D. none of above

237. Which bases are considered purines? D. Prokaryotes use multiple replication
A. A and T forks because they have more DNA

B. A and G 243. Which of the following is incorrect in com-
C. C and T paring DNA to RNA
D. C and G A. both molecules are composed of nu-

cleotides
238. What type of bond forms between the B. DNA contains deoxyribose while RNA
two strands of DNA? contains ribose
A. Polar Covalent C. DNA is single stranded while RNA is
B. Hydrogen double stranded
C. Ionic D. RNA has uracil while DNA has thymine
D. Phosphodiester 244. When new DNA molecules are formed, al-
239. fills in the gaps left from the RNA primer most all errors are detected and fixed by
A. DNA Ligase A. the correct nucleotide.
B. DNA Helicase B. the sugar-phosphate backbone.
C. DNA Polymerase C. DNA polymerase.
D. RNA Primase D. one DNA strand.
240. Since DNA cannot be fully unwound, 245. The rule stating that the bases in a nucleic
many make replication more efficient acid always pairs up in the same way:A=T
and G=C.
A. jigsaws
A. Replication
B. ligases
B. Translation
C. synthesizers
C. Transcription
D. origins of replication
D. Chargaff’s Rule
241. What would the complementary DNA
strand to AGCT be 246. What is the correct codon for the DNA
strand:CGA
A. TTCA
A. CGA
B. TCGA
B. CGT
C. AGCT
C. GCU
D. GTCA
D. CGU
242. What is the difference between prokary-
otes and eukaryotes during DNA replica- 247. How many different DNA nucleotides are
tion? there?
A. Eukaryotes replicate DNA faster A. impossible to count
B. Prokaryotes don’t replicate their DNA B. 12
C. Eukaryotes use multiple replication C. 6

forks because they have more DNA D. 4

248. Which enzyme adds the RNA primer? 253. Which of the following enzymes leaves
A. helicase “primers” on the DNA strand to tell an-
other enzyme where to start building?
B. polymerase
A. Helicase
C. ligase
B. Primase
D. primase C. DNA Polymerase
249. Which is the first step? D. Ligase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA 254. Which of the following would most likely
strand cause a mutation?
B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer A. the placement of ribosomes on the en-
for new nucleotide bases. doplasmic reticulum
C. DNA polymerase builds new strands B. the insertion of a nucleotide into DNA
by bring in new nucleotide bases. C. the movement of transfer RNA out of
D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag- the nucleus
ging strand D. the release of messenger RNA from
DNA
250. What does the last step of DNA accom-
plish? Which two enzymes are used in this 255. What does semi-conservative replication
process? mean?
A. Proofreading A. Each molecule of DNA is made of one
B. DNA Polymerase I and DNA Poly- new and one old strand of DNA.
merase III B. That DNA replication uses a lot of en-
C. Proofreading, DNA Polymerase I and ergy.
DNA Polymerase III C. That half of the old DNA molecule is not
usable to make new proteins.
D. none of above
D. Half of the DNA does not have a func-
251. The repetitive sequences of DNA on the tion.
ends of chromosomes (TTAGGG)
256. Where do we receive DNA from?
A. telomeres
A. Only mom
B. telomerase
B. Only dad
C. Okazaki fragments
C. Both mom and dad
D. primer
D. The environment.
252. DNA replication can happens at 257. A nucleic acid contains 35% adenine,
site(s) in Eukaryotic cells but site(s) in 36% thymine, 14% guanine, and 15% cy-
porkaryotic cells. tosine. This nucleic acid is
A. one, multiple A. single-stranded RNA
B. two, one B. single-stranded DNA
C. multiple, one C. double-stranded RNA
D. multiple, multiple D. double-stranded DNA

258. Which of the following base pairs are 263. In the cytoplasm during the process of
NOT complementary to each other translation, messenger RNA becomes at-
tached to the

A. adenine & thymine
A. cytoplasm
B. uracil & adenine
B. cholorplast
C. cytosine & thymine
C. centrosomes
D. cytosine & guanine
D. ribosomes
259. What is the function of DNA polymerase 264. Before a cell divides, it duplicates its DNA
in step 3? in a copying process called during the
A. builds the new strands of DNA S phase of the cell cycle.
B. breaks the hydrogen bonds and sepa- A. replication
rates the bases B. photosynthesis
C. checks the new strands of DNA to en- C. hydrolysis
sure no mutations occur D. mitosis
D. Seals the new semiconservative
strands of DNA 265. What is the function of Helicase?
A. builds the new strands of DNA
260. What enables bacteria to produce human B. breaks the hydrogen bonds and sepa-
growth hormone? rates the bases
A. DNA replication is semi-conservative. C. checks the new strands of DNA to en-
B. The polymerase chain reaction can be sure no mutations occur
used. D. Seals the new semiconservative
C. They need the hormone for growth. strands of DNA
D. The genetic code is universal. 266. Which is NOT a function of DNA?

A. to signal when an organisms is in need
261. synthesizes a short fragment of RNA
of a basic necessity
that allows DNA polymerase III to bind
B. to carry genetic information from one
A. ligase generation to the next
B. DNA polymerase I C. to determine the characteristics and
C. primase traits of an organism
D. helicase D. easily copied for the process of cell di-

vision
262. Failure of cell division after DNA
267. Daughter cells always end up with
replication-
DNA to the parent cell after mitosis.
A. Mutation A. different
B. Proofreading B. half
C. Polyploidy C. twice
D. none of these D. identical

268. A DNA nucleotide contains all of the fol- 273. How many stages are in mitosis?
lowing, except A. 1
A. Deoxyribose B. 2
B. Phosphate group C. 3
C. Nitrogenous base D. 4
D. Cholesterol 274. Telomerase adds short, repeated DNA se-
quences to as the chromosomes are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
269. Which scientist developed the first “pic- replicated.
ture” of DNA using X-ray crystallogra-
A. telomeres
phy?
B. chromeres
A. Watson & Crick
C. protermeres
B. Erwin Chargaff
D. eukaremeres
C. Fred Griffith
275. What happens during the formation of
D. Rosalind Franklin Okazaki fragments?
270. Which form of chromatin is less com- A. DNA polymerase I adds nucleotides in
pact and therefore, more accessible to en- the 5’ → 3’ direction.
zymes? B. RNA polymerase adds nucleotides in
the 3’ → 5’ direction.
A. Euchromatin
C. DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides
B. Heterochromatin in the 5’ → 3’ direction.
C. Chromatid D. DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides
D. Euchromatin and Heterochromatin are in the 3’ → 5’ direction.
equally compact. 276. Leading strand is when
271. The two strands of DNA are A. the new synthesised DNA is away from
replication fork 5’ → 3’
A. Parallel
B. the new synthesised DNA is towards
B. Antiparallel from replication fork in 5’ → 3’
C. Perpendicular C. the new synthesised DNA is away from
replication fork 3’ → 5’
D. At Right Angles
D. the new synthesised DNA is towards
272. Place the following in sequential order1. from replication fork in 3’ → 5’
Recoil2. Straightens the double helix3.
277. The enzyme that comes first temporarily
Breaks Hydrogen bonds4. Adds Free nu-
gets the single strand ready to add new
cleotides
nucleotides is called
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
A. Helicase
B. 3, 4, 2, 1 B. Primase
C. 3, 2, 4, 1 C. Polymerase
D. 2, 3, 4, 1 D. Nuclease

278. Which of these is NOT a use of PCR? C. rRNA

A. Forensic analysis D. tRNA

B. Paternity testing
284. Which of the following must happen first
C. Diagnose genetic disorders in order for DNA replication to occur?
D. Conserve extinct species A. DNA polymerase binds to the leading
279. This enzyme will ‘lay down’ short seg- strand
ments of RNA that allow the Polymerase B. Chromosomes condense
enzyme to attach to the DNA about to be
C. Hydrogen bonds form between bases
replicated.
D. DNA is unwound
A. RNA Primase
B. DNA Primase 285. Within which structure does DNA replica-
C. DNA Ligase tion take place
D. Helicase A. vacuole
B. ribosome
280. What is responsible for preventing the
opened DNA strands from reannealing? C. nucleus
A. Topoisomerase D. cell membrane
B. Okazaki Fragments
286. Which is the correct order of enzymes in
C. Single Stranded Binding Proteins DNA Replication?
D. Primase A. helicase, primase, polymerase, ligase
281. This enzyme synthesizes short RNA se- B. helicase, polymerase, ligase, primase
quences to guide DNA Polymerase C. primase, ligase, helicase, polymerase
A. Primers
D. ligase, helicase, polymerase, primase
B. DNA Primase
287. What do we call DNA replication since
C. DNA Polymerase
new DNA has 1 parent strand and 1 new
D. Topoisomerase strand?
282. In rapidly dividing cells, telomerase helps A. Conservative
to prevent genes near the ends of chromo- B. Semiconservative
somes from being or during repli-
cation. C. Libertarian
A. damaged or lost D. Liberal
B. copied or replicated 288. Which of the following is a function of
C. copied or lost telomeres?
D. copied or damaged A. To protect the ends of chromosomes
283. Sections of are transcribed in mRNA. B. To help make Okazaki fragments
A. DNA C. To protect DNA polymerase
B. rDNA D. To promote cancer

289. What prevents the separated DNA 295. What do we call the spot where DNA
strands from coming back together? replication begins?
A. DNA polymerase A. Random Sampling
B. Primase B. Original Nucleotide
C. Single-stranded binding proteins C. Duplication Bubble
D. Topoisomerase D. Origin of Replication
296. During replication, the two strands of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
290. The sugar in DNA is?
each DNA molecule
A. sucrose A. separate
B. glucose B. join together
C. deoxyribose C. chemically change
D. fructose D. physically change
291. Describes the twisted ladder-like shape 297. A stand of messenger RNA is transcribed
of a DNA molecule from an original DNA. The original bases
on the DNA strand were TACG. What is
A. Nitrogen Base
the base sequence on the RNA strand pro-
B. Hexagon duced from this?
C. Double Helix A. UAGC
D. none of above B. TAGC
C. CGAU
292. Where is DNA located in the cell?
D. AUGC
A. golgi body
B. lysosomes 298. What does a nucleosome consist of?
A. DNA and histones
C. Nucleus
B. DNA and chromatin
D. Mitochondria
C. Chromatin and nucleotides
293. Translation is the process where D. Mature RNA and histones
A. mRNA is created in the Nucleus
299. Which enzyme copies DNA?
B. mRNA is decoded to form a protein
A. DNA polymerase
C. glucose molecules are made B. DNA helicase
D. is where lipids are synthesised C. RNA polymerase
294. If a DNA molecule is found to be com- D. RNA helicase
posed of 40% thymine, what percentage 300. What are the directions that DNA can go?
of guanine would be expected. (select all that apply)
A. 10% A. 5’ to 3’
B. 20% B. 3’ to 5’
C. 40% C. North to South
D. 80% D. Pole to Pole

301. How does Ligase help with DNA Replica- 306. A DNA nucleotide may be made up of a
tion. phosphate group, along with

A. unzips & unwinds the DNA Helix, to A. deoxyribose sugar and uracil
start Replication. B. ribose sugar and adenine
B. adds new nucleotides to make new C. deoxyribose sugar and thymine
DNA.
D. ribose sugar and cytosine
C. bonds/glues new nucleotides together
to finish Replication. 307. If the base on the original strand is ade-
D. none of above nine, then is added to the newly form-
ing strand.
302. Okazaki fragments are bonded (glued) A. thymine
together by the enzyme
B. guanine
A. DNA Polymerase
C. cytosine
B. Ligase
D. bodine
C. RNA primase
308. are sections of DNA that are pro-
D. Helicase duced during the process of DNA replica-
tion and are part of the lagging strand.
303. DNA Replication is the process of turning
1 DNA molecule into A. Okazaki fragments
A. 1 DNA molecule B. Replication forks
B. 2 DNA molecules C. Template strands
C. 3 DNA molecules D. Antiparallels
D. 4 DNA molecule 309. Which enzyme is responsible for unwind-
ing the DNA strands?
304. DNA Polymerase can only move in the 5’
to 3’ direction. Therefore, the new strand A. helicase
that is formed in the 3’ to 5’ direction is B. DNA polymerase
the
C. topoisomerase
A. leading strand
D. ligase
B. lagging strand
310. Below are the enzymes used in DNA repli-
C. leaping strand cation. Arrange enzymes in correct order
D. longing strand during the process..
A. Helicase-Topoisomerase-DNA poly-
305. Which of these enzymes is not a part of
merase I-Ligase
DNA Replication?
B. Helicase-Single-stranded binding
A. Helicase
protein-DNA polymerase III-Ligase
B. Topoisomerase
C. Topoisomerase-Ligase-Primase
C. Ligase
D. Primase-DNA polymerase I-DNA poly-
D. Hexokinase merase III

311. lays down an RNA Primer to begin the 317. In prokaryotes, DNA replication begins at
process of generating the complementary the
strand
A. replication fork
A. DNA Ligase
B. ori
B. DNA Helicase
C. DNA Polymerase C. chromosome
D. RNA Primase D. terminus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
312. Guanine pairs with (a)
318. How can DNA pass on information to
A. cytosine make new cells and new organisms?
B. guanine A. It needs to be copied.
C. adenine
B. It cannot do that.
D. thymine
C. Through base pairs.
313. What kind of bond holds one nucleotide
to another one above it or below it? D. Meiosis
A. ionic
319. Which of the following describes why
B. glycosidic there is a leading and lagging strand in
C. hydrogen DNA replication?
D. phosphodiester A. DNA is antiparallel
314. are used to speed up the process of B. DNA is negatively charged
DNA replication
C. DNA has a phosphate group
A. nucleotides
B. phosphodiester bonds D. DNA has hydrogen bonds
C. enzymes
320. is “reading” the mRNA to chain to-
D. okazaki fragments gether amino acids
315. Purines pair with: A. transcription
A. only purines B. photosynthesis
B. only pyrimidines
C. translation
C. both
D. mitosis
D. none of above
316. The enzyme that attaches free nu- 321. Which enzyme is responsible for adding
cleotides to the newly unzipped old nucleotides to the free three prime end
strands is called
A. Helicase
A. DNA Polymerase
B. Topoisomerase
B. Lactase
C. DNA Acitase C. DNA Polymersase 3
D. Polyatomic Ligase D. DNA Polymersase 1

322. What happens in the second stage of PCR 327. This enzyme ONLY works in one direction
between 50 and 65 degrees celsius? which is 5’→ 3’

A. ANNEALING of the primers to the par- A. DNA Polymerase
ent strand of DNA B. DNA Helicase
B. DENATURING of the hydrogen bonds C. Topoisomerase
between the bases
D. Telomerase
C. EXTENSION of the new strand by DNA
polymerase 328. All of the following are true of purine
D. none of above bases, EXCEPT.
A. contain two rings
323. Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupt-
ing B. contain the element nitrogen
A. the cell cycle C. capable of forming hydrogen bonds

B. red blood cell formation D. Cytosine is an example
C. DNA replication 329. DNA is found
D. ATP synthesis A. in the nucleus
324. The process of making new DNA B. in the endoplasmic reticulum
molecules is semiconservative. This means C. in fossilized rocks
that every new DNA molecule is composed D. in the golgi apparatus
of
A. two completely identical strands of 330. The backbone of DNA is made up of:
DNA. A. Nucleotides and sugar
B. one original and one new strand of B. Sugar and Phosphates
DNA. C. Sugar and Nucleotide bases
C. one strand of DNA and one strand of D. Bases and Phosphates
RNA.
331. The shape of a DNA molecule is
D. two strands that mix original and new
DNA. A. ladder
325. When does DNA replication occur during B. double helix

the cell cycle? C. circle
A. G1 phase D. octagon
B. G2 phase 332. Simply put, rDNA is the process of
C. S phase A. removing a DNA sequence from an or-
D. Prophase ganism’s DNA
326. Complementary base pairing is B. combining the DNA from two organ-
isms
A. Adenine will be equal to Thymine
C. altering a few nitrogenous bases in a
B. Cytosine will be equal to Thymine DNA sequence
C. Uracil will be equal to Guanine D. creating new sequences of DNA base
D. Adenine will be equal to Cytosine by base

333. Okazaki fragments are unified into a sin- 338. Which is the next step?
gle continuous strand by the use of this A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA
enzyme strand
A. DNA Helicase B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer
B. DNA Ligase for new nucleotide bases.
C. Topoisomerase C. DNA polymerase builds new strands

D. Telomerase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
334. During replication, after the two strands ging strand
separate, the two new complementary 339. When Cells reproduce, they need to repli-
strands are then following the rules cate their
of base pairing.
A. sugar
A. synthesized
B. membrane
B. joined
C. DNA
C. copied D. emotions
D. unwound
340. Which type of sugar is in DNA?
335. are the macromolecule that include A. Deoxyribose
DNA and RNA B. Ribose
A. nucleic acids C. Table sugar
B. amino acids D. There is no sugar in DNA.
C. proteins 341. If we think of DNA as a ladder, which
D. lipids parts are the steps of the ladder?
A. the nitrogen base pairs
336. DNA can do all of the following except
B. phosphate group
A. Copy information C. genes

D. none of above
B. Transmit Information
C. Store Information 342. What are the 2 Pyrimidines?
D. Transcription A. Adenine & Guanine

B. Thymine & Cytosine
337. A strand that has the base sequence
C. Adenine & Thymine
TACGTT produces a strand with the com-
plimentary base sequence D. Thymine & Guanine
A. ATGCAA 343. Which of the following sequences ex-

presses the correct order of enzyme func-
B. GTTACT
tion in DNA replication?
C. TATTGG
A. Helicase primase DNA poly-
D. SACGTS merase ligase

B. ligase helicase primase 349. Which is the third step?

DNA polymerase

C. DNA polymerase primase heli- strand
case ligase
D. none of above B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer
344. Which of the following are limitations of
DNA polymerase? C. DNA polymerase builds new strands
A. it can only add bases to the exposed 5’
end of a pre-existing strand D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag-
B. it can only replicate the leading strand ging strand
C. it can only replicate the lagging strand
D. all of the above 350. Which of the following correctly pairs
the DNA replication enzyme with its func-
E. none of the above tion?
345. Proteins that stabilize single strands on
A. Topoisomerases work ahead of the
unwound sections of DNA
replication fork to prevent supercoiling.
A. ligase
B. DNA polymerase I opens up the DNA
B. helicase
at the replication fork.
C. SSBs
D. dNTPs C. Helicase seals gaps between DNA
fragments.
346. What does DNA replication produce?
D. DNA primase extends primers by
A. one identical copy of DNA adding nucleotides to the 3’ end.
B. one nonidentical copy of DNA
C. two identical copies of DNA 351. Changes in DNA sequences that effect ge-
D. two nonidentical copies of DNA netic information is called
347. Which enzyme is responsible for laying A. mutations

down DNA nucleotides from 5’ to 3’ direc-
tion? B. replication
A. DNA Polymerase III C. mitosis

B. DNA Polymerase I D. meiosis
C. DNA Polymerase II
D. DNA Ligase 352. What did Avery believe is responsible for
transformation?
348. What is the LAST enzyme used in DNA
replication A. DNA
A. Topoisomerase
B. RNA
B. Telomerase
C. DNA Polymerase C. Ribosomes
D. DNA Ligase D. Mitochondria

353. What is the reason for Okazaki frag- 358. are molecules that help complete DNA
ments being formed during DNA replica- replicaton.
tion? A. enzymes
A. To enable replication of the 3’ → 5’ B. lipids
(lagging) strand
C. sugar
B. To form the template for the RNA
D. phosphate
primers
C. To initiate replication on the 5’ → 3’ 359. Holds the DNA strands apart to allow
NARAYAN CHANGDER
(leading) strand DNA to be replicated
D. To help the DNA helicase unwinding A. Single-Stranded Bind Protein
the DNA helix B. Exonuclease
354. When an enzyme cuts open a DNA C. Pentase
molecule, what type of bonds are being D. phosphodiesterase
broken?
360. DNA replication starts from to
A. Covalent Bonds and is said to be
B. Hydrogen Bonds A. 5’, 3’, antiparallel
C. Ionic Bonds B. 3’, 5’, antiparallel
D. Peptide Bonds C. 5’, 3’, parallel
355. What enzyme unwinds the double helix D. 3’, 5’, parallel
during replication and transcription?
361. The enzyme that matches up new nu-
A. Helicase cleotides with the original strand is called
B. tRNA
C. RNA polymerase A. DNA helicase
B. DNA polymerase
D. mRNA
C. RNA polymerase
356. In the second step breaks the bonds
D. RNA helicase
which hold the complementary parent
strands together. 362. The enzyme that unwinds a segment of
A. gyrase the DNA molecule is
B. primase A. DNA polymerase
C. helicase B. DNA ligase
D. single-stranded binding proteins C. RNA primase

D. DNA polymerase III
357. Adenine pairs with (a) in DNA.
E. helicase
A. thymine
363. What is the name of the experiment
B. guanine
that determined DNA replication is semi-
C. cytosine conservative?
D. adenine A. Meleson and Stahl experiment

B. Meselson and Stahl experiment 369. The number of codons in the genetic code
C. Meleson Shahl experiment is

364. Enzyme that relieves tension on helix as B. 23

DNA unwinds C. 46
A. helicase D. 64
B. DNA gyrase
C. DNA polymerase III 370. Structure:What are the parts of a nu-
cleotide?
D. ligase
A. phosphate, sugar, base
365. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is
B. A, T, G, C
used to
A. insert DNA from one organism into a C. Nucleic Acids
new host. D. two base pairs connected
B. screen for a particular gene.
371. Which enzyme is used to join free DNA
C. produce many copies of a selected
nucleotides and create a new strand of
DNA sequence.
DNA?
D. none of above
A. DNA ligase
366. What makes up polypeptides?
B. RNA polymerase
A. amino acids
C. DNA polymerase
B. nitrogenous bases
D. Taq polymerase
C. nucleotides
D. monosaccharides 372. In replication, a single strand from the
original DNA molecule is used as a for
367. When synthesizing a new DNA strand,
the new strand. (helps make an exact
DNA polymerase writes
copy)
A. 5’ to 3’
A. Pattern
B. 3’ to 5’
B. Template
C. 3’ to 5’ or 5’ to 3’
C. Copy
D. none of above
D. Xerox
368. If DNA Polymerase is responsible for
synthesizing DNA on the Leading Strand, 373. Which of the following is the function of
what enzyme synthesizes DNA on the Lag- topoisomerase?
ging Strand?
A. Build up primer
A. Primase
B. RNA Polymerase B. Relieve strain due to supercoiling
C. DNA Polymerase C. join the DNA fragments
D. Helicase D. Break H bonds

374. Which enzyme is responsible for adding C. chemicals

the free nucleotides to the replicating D. viruses
DNA?
A. DNA Helicase 380. The enzyme that comes first temporarily
gets the single strand ready to add new
B. DNA Ligase nucleotides is called “The Initializer” or
C. DNA polyermase A. Helicase
D. RNA Polymerase B. Primase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
375. Put the following stages of the cell cycle C. Polymerase
in order:G2, S, G1, M. D. Nuclease
A. G1, S, G2, M
381. Create the complementary strand for the
B. S, G1, G2, M following DNA strand:TAC ATT GAC CCC
C. G1, M, G2, S AGT
D. M, G1, S, G2 A. AUG UAA CUG GGG UCA
B. TAC ATT GAC CCC AGT
376. What is the name of the combined struc-
ture of DNA that has wrapped itself C. ATG TAA CTG GGG TCA
around a histone? D. ATG TAA GTC CCC TCA
A. Nucleotide
382. This enzyme is responsible for linking
B. Nucleosome Okazaki fragments together
C. DNA-Histone Complex A. helicase
D. Secondary Structure of DNA B. DNA polymerase
377. The complementary base to A is C. ligase
A. T D. primase
B. G 383. The base sequence of a fragment of DNA

is:ACC GTG CAG GATWhat is the base se-
C. C
quence on the messenger RNA (mRNA)
D. A molecule transcribed from it?
378. Before a cell divides, it duplicates its DNA A. TGG CAC GTC CTA
in a copying process called B. TGG CUC GTC CTU
A. replication C. UGG CTC GUC CUT
B. duplication D. UGG CAC GUC CUA
C. synthesization
384. The tips of eukaryotic chromosomes are
D. polynation known as
379. Which of the following will NOT gener- A. telomeres
ally cause mutations? B. solomeres
A. radiation C. polymeres
B. DNA replication D. trimeres

385. What is a series of events a cell goes C. DNA polymerase II

through as they grow and divide? D. DNA polymerase III

A. Cell Division
391. The enzyme that attaches the complimen-
B. Cell Cycle
tary base pairs to the original strand of
C. Cytokinesis DNA is called
D. Mitosis A. helicase
386. Each strand of the double helix has B. polymerase
of the information needed to reconstruct
C. replicase
the other half by the mechanism of base
pairing. D. synthase
A. all 392. What part of the cell cycle is the DNA in
B. none a cell’s nucleus replication?
C. some A. Prophase
D. the essential parts B. Metaphase
387. Short stretch of nucleotide C. Interphase
A. probe D. Telophase
B. primer
393. Replication occurs once every cell gener-
C. locus ation during
D. oligonucleoside A. S phase
388. Okazaki fragments form on the: B. T phase
A. lagging strand C. C phase
B. 5’ end D. A phase
C. base-pairs
394. In cells, telomerase may be activated,
D. leading strand enabling these cells to grow and prolifer-
ate rapidly.
389. Which is not a component of DNA nu-
cleotides? A. cancer
A. Ribose sugar B. adult
B. Phosphate C. human
C. Nitrogenous base D. silent
D. Deoxyribose sugar
395. Which enzyme is responsible for adding
390. The RNA primers must be replaced with nucleotides during replication?
the appropriate deoxyribose nucleotides.
A. Helicase
The enzymes that accomplishes this is
called: B. DNA polymerase
A. Primase C. DNA Ligase
B. DNA polymerase I D. Primase

396. The enzyme used to separate the double 401. Which DNA enzyme seals small gaps to
helix into 2 single strands is: finish DNA replication?
A. Helicase A. Helicase
B. DNA polymerase III B. DNA polymerase
C. Gyrase C. Primase
D. Lipase D. Ligase
402. Which of the following is/are true of nu-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
397. mRNA being made from DNA in the nu-
cleus is the process of cleosomes? I. They contain six histone
proteinsII. They control gene expressionIII.
A. Translation They help in DNA supercoiling
B. Replication A. I only
C. Transcription B. II only
D. Cell Division C. II and III only
398. What is the function of Ligase? D. I, II and III
A. builds the new strands of DNA 403. Some yeast genes can be replaced by hu-
B. breaks the hydrogen bonds and sepa- man genes that then continue to produce
rates the bases the same human proteins in the yeast cells.
Which statement helps to explain this evi-
C. checks the new strands of DNA to en- dence?
sure no mutations occur
A. The DNA of yeast and humans is iden-
D. Seals the new semiconservative tical.
strands of DNA
B. Yeast and humans have the same num-
399. The enzyme that unwinds the DNA to pre- ber of chromosomes.
pare for replication is C. The genetic code is universal.
A. helicase D. Yeast and humans are both eukary-
B. replicase otes.
C. polymerase 404. What is the function of the single-strand

D. ssBP binding protein during DNA replication?
A. Synthesizing RNA primers
400. Which is the correct composition of a DNA
B. Ensure both strands are replicated at
nucleotide?
similar rates
A. nitrogenous basedeoxyribosephos-
C. Prevent the separated strands from
phate group
reannealing
B. nitrogenous baseribosephosphate
D. Recruit DNA polymerase
group
C. glycerolphosphate groupfatty-acid 405. What is the LAST step of the completion
chains of DNA replication?
D. carboxyl groupamino groupside chain A. Telomeres are added to ends of DNA

(R) B. Ligase glues Okazaki fragments

C. DNA polymerase proofreads C. GCT TTG

D. Topoisomerase relieves supercoiling D. GCA ATC

406. Which enzyme starts adding RNA nu- 411. Enzyme that unwinds the DNA
cleotide segments to mark starting point A. ligase
for replication?
B. DNA Polymerase
A. helicase
C. primase
B. RNA primase
D. helicase
C. DNA polymerase
D. ligase 412. What is formed during transcription?
A. RNA strand complementary to DNA
407. in gel electrophoresis, charged DNA
strand, formed by RNA polymerase
migrates toward the end of the gel;
fragments travel further B. DNA strand complementary to DNA
strand, formed by DNA polymerase
A. positively, negative, smaller
C. RNA strand complementary to RNA
B. positively, negative, larger
strand, formed by DNA polymerase
C. negatively, positive, smaller
D. DNA strand complementary to RNA
D. negatively, positive, larger strand, formed by RNA polymerase
408. Identify the next step that occurs after 413. What happens during the first stage of
the DNA has been unwound PCR, between 92 and 98 degrees celsius?
A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA A. ANNEALING of primers to the parents
strand strand
B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer B. DENATURING of the hydrogen bonds
for new nucleotide bases. between the bases
C. DNA polymerase builds new strands C. EXTENSION of the new strand by DNA
by bring in new nucleotide bases. polymerase
D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag- D. DENATURING of DNA polymerase
ging strand
414. What is DNA made up of?
409. DNA polymerase joins to synthesize
A. nucleic acids
a new complementary strand of DNA.
B. RNA
A. nucleotides
C. nucleotides
B. cell membranes
D. cells
C. dipoid cells
D. monocells 415. Which enzyme uncoils the DNA?
410. What is the DNA sequence for the follow- A. Topoisomerase

ing mRNA codons? GCU UAC B. Helicase
A. CGA ATG C. Polymerase
B. CGU UTG D. Ligase

416. The sugar molecule in DNA is called: first nucleotide does the new nucleotide
A. glucose bind?
B. fructose A. 1’
C. deoxyribose B. 2’
D. ribose C. 3’
D. 4’
417. Which enzyme is requires RNA primers to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
initiate DNA synthesis? E. 5’
A. helicase
422. What does the conservative model for
B. DNA polymerase DNA replication produce?
C. topoisomerase A. two DNA molecules each with one
D. ligase strand of new DNA and one strand origi-
nal DNA
418. Which of the following units are repeat-
B. one DNA molecule with one strand of
edly joined together to form a strand of
new DNA and one strand original DNA and
DNA? (These are the monomers of DNA.)
another DNA molecule with two new DNA
A. amino acids strands
B. nucleotides C. one DNA molecule with 2 new DNA
C. fatty acids strands and one DNA molecule with 2 orig-
inal DNA strands
D. polysaccharides
D. none of above
419. What is the function of DNA ligase?
A. Transcribe DNA into RNA 423. The enzyme used to join fragments of
DNA is
B. Synthesize RNA primers
A. DNA polymerase
C. Separate double-stranded nucleic
acids B. DNA ligase
D. Create phosphodiester bonds C. Endonuclease
D. Primase
420. Prokaryotic Replication is different be-
cause it
424. Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes have
A. only has one replication bubble that plasmids. What are plasmids?
moves in one direction
A. large extra-chromosomal, double-
B. has many replication bubbles that stranded, linear DNA molecules
move in both directions
B. large extra-chromosomal, double-
C. more complex than eukaryotic replica- stranded, circular DNA molecules
tion
C. small extra-chromosomal, double-
D. is non-circular stranded, circular DNA molecules
421. When adding a new nucleotide to a grow- D. small extra-chromosomal, double-
ing strand of DNA, to what carbon of the stranded, linear DNA molecules

425. What monomers are repeatedly joined to- B. unzipping.

gether to form a strand of DNA?
C. a replication fork.

A. amino acids
D. a primer.
B. nucleotides
C. fatty acids 431. DNA nucleotides are added from
D. polysaccharides A. 3’ to 3’
B. 5’ to 3’
426. What is the location in the cell for tran-
scription? C. 9 to 5
A. nucleus D. 3’ to 5’
B. cytoplasm
432. If a fruit fly has 40% Guanine in it’s DNA,
C. ribosome how much Adenine does it have?
D. mitochondria A. 10%
427. What monomers are DNA and RNA con- B. 20%
sisted of?
C. 30%
A. nitrogen base
D. 40%
B. nucleotides
C. sugar-phosphate backbone 433. DNA replication occurs in the of eu-
karyotic cells.
D. blood
A. Cytoplasm
428. DNA unwinding is done by
B. Ribosome
A. Ligase
C. Golgi body
B. Helicase
D. Nucleus
C. Topoisomerase
D. Hexonuclease 434. What are the name of the fragments that
are created on the lagging strand during
429. Okazaki fragments are formed because DNA replication?
A. DNA polymerase can only create a new A. binding proteins
strand of DNA from the 5’ to 3’ end
B. fragmenting lagging strand
B. DNA helicase sometimes breaks the
DNA C. okazaki fragments
C. Newly formed DNA tends to break D. coding strands
apart easily into fragments
435. The DNA double helix is built (written) in
D. DNA polymerase can only create a new the
strand of DNA from the 3’ to 5’ end
A. 5’ to 3’ direction
430. The separation of the two single strands
B. 3’ to 5’ direction
of DNA creates a ‘Y’ shape. This describes
C. 3’ to 3’ direction
A. an enzyme. D. 5’ to 5’ direction

436. All of the enzymes below are involved in C. Primase

the replication of DNA except D. DNA ligase
A. DNA helicase
442. DNA replication is described as SEMI-
B. DNA polymerase CONSERVATIVE, which results in two DNA
C. Primase molecules,
D. RNA polymerase A. each one with two original strands
B. each one with two new strands
NARAYAN CHANGDER
437. If a DNA fragment is made of 20%
Thymine, how much Cytosine is there? C. each one with one new strand and one
original strand
A. 20%
D. one with two new strands and the
B. 60% other with two original strands
C. 30%
443. Where are free nucleotides added to a
D. 40% newly growing strand?
438. Which of these is a function of DNA? A. to the 5’OH group of the previous de-
oxyribose sugar
A. Replicate Cells
B. to the 5’OH group of the previous phos-
B. Create a genome phate group
C. Store Genetic Information C. to the 3’OH group of the previous de-
D. Change in accordance with the envi- oxyribose sugar
ronment D. to the 3’OH group of the previous phos-
phate group
439. The primer that initiates DNA synthesis
is composed of 444. Errors in DNA replication result in:
A. 5 RNA nucleotides A. DNA replication
B. 1 water codon B. DNA unzipping
C. 1 DNA nucleotide C. mutations
440. The enzyme that unzips the DNA to pre- 445. Replication means to
pare for replication (”The Unzipper”) A. Copy
A. helicase B. Transmit
B. replicase C. Store
C. polymerase D. none of above
D. synthase 446. Which component of DNA specifies the
traits of an organism?
441. Which of the following enzymes is re-
sponsible for synthesizing the new DNA A. 5-carbon sugar (deoxyribose)
strand? B. hydrogen bonds
A. DNA polymerase C. phosphate groups
B. Helicase D. nitrogenous base pairs

447. Semiconservative Replication means 452. The strand that continuously replicates
each new strand of DNA is composed of towards the direction of replication is
one , or one strand from original DNA known as

molecule, and one new strand. A. The lagging strand
A. First Strand B. The leading strand
B. Original Strand C. The double helix
C. Starting Point D. both strands
D. 5’ to 3’
453. Which of the following demonstrates
448. What is a mistake called when copying base pairing rules to 5’-CAGGT-3’
DNA? A. 3’-TGGAC-5’
A. Mutation B. 3’-GTCCA-5’
B. Okazaki fragment C. 5’-GTCCA-3’
C. Replication D. 5’-CAGGT-3’
D. none of above
454. What is the complementary strand of:3’
449. Which process serves the purpose of cre- ACCGTCGAT 5’
ating new body cells for growth and re- A. 5’ TGGCAGCTA 3’
pair?
B. 3’ TGGCAGCTA 5’
A. mitosis
C. 5’ UGGCAGCUA 3’
B. meiosis
D. 3’ UGGCAGCUA 5’
C. DNA replication
455. During which stage of the cell cycle does
D. transcription
mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
450. Before a cell divides, it duplicates its DNA A. Interphase
in a copying process called replication dur-
B. S phase
ing the phase of the cell cycle.
C. M phase
A. S
D. G1 phase
B. C
C. P 456. During what phase of the cell cycle is DNA
replicated?
D. K
A. G1 phase
451. Why is it crucial that living things are able B. S phase
to replicate their DNA?
C. G2 phase
A. Each cell must have its own copy of the
organism’s DNA D. M phase
B. Less copies of DNA are needed when 457. Which enzyme targets certain sections of
a new cell is created the DNA to break bonds and begin the “un-
C. A cell needs many copies of each zipping” process?
strand of DNA A. DNA helicase
D. Only muscle cells need DNA B. DNA polymerase

C. DNA ligase 463. DNA replication is carried out during the

S phase of the cell cycle by a series of
D. none of above
A. enzymes
458. Which of the following is the correct B. molecules
tRNA anti-codon for the mRNA codon
AUG? C. pseudocells
D. polymemes
A. AUG
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. TAC 464. Which process is used to make mRNA
from the DNA in the nucleus?
C. UTC
A. transcription
D. UAC
B. translation
459. The correct order of events in protein syn- C. replication
thesis is D. none of above
A. replication, transcription, translation 465. Which enzyme is responsible for adding
B. transcription, translation, replication complimentary bases to the unzipped DNA
during DNA replication?
C. replication, translation, transcription
A. Ligase
D. transcription, replication, translation
B. Helicase
460. The principal enzyme involved in DNA C. Amaylase
replication is called D. DNA polymerase
A. DNA Helicase
466. The method of DNA replication is known
B. DNA Ligase as:
C. DNA Polymerase A. Semi-conservative
D. DNA Primase B. Conservative
C. Dispersive
461. removes the RNA primer
D. Complementary
A. Single-Stranded Bind Protein
467. bonds hold the complementary parent
B. Exonuclease strands together.
C. Pentase A. Phoshodiester
D. phosphodiesterase B. Hydrogen
C. Covalent
462. DNA polymerase moves in the to
direction D. Ionic
A. 3’ to 5’ 468. During DNA replication, the leading
B. easiest strand is easily distinguishable from the
lagging strand because
C. 5” to 3”
A. Helicases only attach to the leading
D. 9 to 5 strand

B. the lagging strand is synthesized in C. they reject foreign DNA

separate pieces called Okazaki fragments D. none of above

C. DNA ligase is attached to the leading
strand 473. Which RNA makes up the organelles
where protein synthesis takes place?
D. none of above
A. messener
469. A eukaryotic cell lacking helicase during
DNA replication would B. transport
A. be unable to proofread the newly syn- C. ribosomal

thesized strand D. none of above
B. would make the DNA strands at incor-
474. Once the primers have been replaced,
rect locations
DNA joins the gaps in the Okazaki frag-
C. be unable to unwind the DNA helix ments
D. none of above A. primase
470. Phases:Which is the first step? B. cohesive
A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA C. parisase
strand D. ligase
for new nucleotide bases. 475. Enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare
for replication
by bring in new nucleotide bases. A. polymerase III
D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag- B. helicase
ging strand C. topoisomerase
471. The DNA of telomeres has been found to D. ligase
be highly conserved throughout the evolu-
tion of eukaryotes. What does this most 476. Which of the following enzymes is re-
probably reflect? sponsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds
between nucleotides?
A. that the critical function of telomeres
must be maintained A. DNA polymerase
B. that mutations in telomeres are rela- B. Helicase
tively advantageous C. Primase
C. that new evolution of telomeres contin- D. DNA ligase
ues
D. the low frequency of mutations occur- 477. What is the purpose of the cell cycle?
ring in this DNA A. To create new daughter cells
472. Bacteria are often used in the creation of B. To prevent cancer from developing
rDNA because: C. To help the body fight viruses and bac-
A. they reproduce quickly teria
B. their DNA is naturally incomplete D. none of above

478. Nucleotides are composed of three parts C. primer

, phosphate and base. D. replication fork
A. Sugar
484. Which is described by the following:1.
B. Starch
located only in the nucleus2. double
C. Protein stranded3. includes a deoxyribose sugar4.
D. Nucleotide adenine pairs with thymine
479. What are the two segments of the sepa- A. DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
rated DNA called? B. RNA
A. Leading and Lagging C. both
B. Leading and Ligase D. neither
C. Laughing and Lagging
485. is to DNA and is to RNA
D. Looking and Listening
A. Ribose / Deoxyribose
480. Which scientist(s) built the 3D model of
B. Phosphodiester bonds / 2’ Hydroxyl
the DNA double helix?
group
A. Watson and Crick
C. Nucleotides / Nucleosomes
B. Hershey and Chase
D. Deoxyribose / Ribose
C. Franklin
D. Char gaff 486. What breaks apart the hydrogen bonds
between two strands of DNA?
481. Name the location where strands begin
A. Histone
to separate.
A. replication spoon B. Helicase
B. replication fork C. Exonuclease

C. synthase D. Endonuclease
D. prokaryote 487. removes the RNA primer and adds DNA
nucleotides to fill in the gap
482. Adding the complimentary bases to the
parent strand is the step in DNA repli- A. DNA polymerase III
cation B. ligase
A. 1
C. primase
B. 2
D. DNA polymerase I
C. 3
D. none of above 488. What is the longest stage of the cell cycle
called?
483. This short strand of RNA is needed
A. Cytokinesis
for DNA polymerase to begin adding nu-
cleotides B. M phase
A. ori C. Interphase
B. starter D. G1 Phase

489. What enzyme replaces RNA primer on C. DNA helicase

the leading strand with DNA? D. RNA primase

A. Polymerase III
495. what is used to cut up the DNA into short
B. Ligase fragments?
C. Polymerase I A. Restriction enzymes
D. Helicase B. DNA ligase
490. Which enzyme is responsible for adding C. Scissors
nucleotides to the new strands during DNA D. DNA polymerase
replication?
496. What is a difference between DNA and
A. Topoisomerase RNA?
B. DNA Polymerase A. DNA is double stranded, RNA is single
C. Ligase stranded
D. Helicase B. DNA has deoxyribose sugar, RNA has
ribose sugar
491. What enzyme is responsible for telling C. DNA has A-T, RNA has A-U
DNA Polymerase where to start?
D. ALL of the above are accurate differ-
A. Helicase ences between DNA and RNA
B. Ligase
497. Which of the following describes the 5’
C. RNA Primse end?
D. Okazaki Fragments A. phosphate attached to the pentose
sugar
492. Which of the following enzymes adds
new nucleotides to build the new strand B. hydroxyl attached to the pentose sugar
of DNA? C. nitrogenous base attached to the pen-
A. Helicase tose sugar
B. Primase D. the next nucleotide attached to the
pentose sugar
C. DNA Polymerase
498. Why is DNA important?
D. Ligase
A. it is very small and very complicated
493. The nitrogenous bases which are bonded
B. it serves as the blueprint for traits of
with a triple hydrogen bond are:
all living things
A. guanine & adenine C. it’s in everything
B. adenine & thymine D. because we eat it every day for energy
C. guanine & cytosine
499. You can find Okazaki fragments on
D. thymine & cytosine
A. The Lagging Strand
494. The enzyme used to join bits of DNA is B. The Leading Strand
C. both strands of DNA
A. DNA ligase D. the enzymes used to help with DNA
B. DNA polymerase Replication

500. This force holds two bases together (Ex- 505. Where are amino acids joined together to
ample:A bonded to T) make polypeptides?
A. Covalent bond A. Nucleus
B. Hydrogen bond B. Nucleolus
C. Nucleotide bond C. Golgi apparatus
D. Ribose bond D. Ribosomes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
501. Because each strand can be used to make
506. Which strand grows continuously to-
the other strand, the strands are said to
wards the replication fork?
be
A. Lagging Strand
A. complimentary
B. DNA strand
B. supplementary
C. equal C. Replicating strand
D. twin D. Leading strand
502. What are the main functions of DNA poly- 507. Is 14N’s density heavier, lighter, or
merase? equal compared to 15N?
A. breaks hydrogen bonds and exposes A. heavier
bases B. lighter
B. holds DNA strands apart and attracts
C. equal to
bases
D. none of above
C. zips and unzips the double-stranded
DNA
508. The percentage of A + G equals
D. binds nucleotides and corrects base
A. 26%
pair errors
B. 50%
503. A short sequence of nucleotides reads
GGACAGAGCGCAGACGA. In which type of C. 80%
molecule could this sequence be found? D. 100%
A. DNA molecule only
509. Put the following stages of mitosis in or-
B. RNA molecule only der:anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and
C. Both in a DNA and an RNA molecule telophase.
D. In double-stranded DNA only A. prophase, metaphase, telophase,
anaphase
504. Which of these is not a part of a nu-
cleotide B. prophase, anaphase, metaphase,
telophase
A. Pentose Sugar
C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
B. Purine telophase
C. Phosphate D. prophase, telophase, metaphase,
D. Nitrogenous Base anaphase

510. Which is the third step in DNA replica- D. To translate mRNA into polypeptides
tion?
515. Site where replication begins

strand A. Polymerase action site
B. Replication fork
C. DNA polymerase builds new strands C. Replication Origin
by bring in new nucleotide bases. D. In the front
ging strand 516. The lagging strand is composed of seg-
ments known as:
511. What will be the sequence on the
mRNA molecule that is produced when the A. Pkazoki fragments
DNA base sequence ACTGATGCC is tran- B. Brgan fragments
scribed?
C. Ruzucki fragments
A. ACTGATGCC
B. ACUGAUGCC D. Okazaki fragments
C. TGACTACGG
517. Ribosomes read and brings the
D. UGACUACGG amino acids to build the protein that is be-
ing coded for by the
512. This enzyme will replace the spaces
the RNA Primers ‘had been’ to DNA nu- A. mRNArRNAtRNA
cleotides.
B. rRNAtRNAmRNA
A. Ligase
C. mRNAtRNAmRNA
B. DNA Polymerase
D. tRNArRNAtRNA
C. Helicase
D. RNA Primase 518. What are bacteriophages
513. What are the fundamental packaging A. Viruses
units of eukaryotic chromosomes?
B. Carbohydrates
A. Nucleosomes
B. Centromeres C. Protein
C. Histones D. Lysosomes
D. Nucleoids
519. When the DNA replication process is com-
514. How is the information in the genetic pleted what is the result?
code used? A. Two exact copies of the original strand
A. To predict the genotype of gametes of DNA
B. To distinguish prokaryotic genomes B. Two different strands of DNA
from eukaryotic genomes
C. Strands that complement each other
C. To deduce phenotypes in pedigree
charts D. Two new organisms

520. What happens in the third stage of PCR? 525. Which is the fourth step?
A. ANNEALING of the primers to the par- A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA
ents strand of DNA strand
B. DENATURING of the hydrogen bonds B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer
between the bases for new nucleotide bases.
C. EXTENSION of the new strand by DNA C. DNA polymerase builds new strands
polymerase by bring in new nucleotide bases.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above D. Ligase knits together fragments on lag-
ging strand
521. What is the function of a helicase enzyme
during DNA replication?
526. What are the three parts of DNA?
A. Unwind the double stranded DNA
A. deoxyribose
B. Scan for mismatches
B. phosphate group
C. Add primers to the lagging strand
C. nitrogenous bases
D. Fix breaks in the sugar-phosphate
backbone D. oxygen
522. The strand builds in segments instead 527. What is replicated by a semi-
of continuously. conservative process?
A. Lagging A. Messenger RNA (mRNA) only
B. Ligase B. Messenger RNA (mRNA) and transfer
C. Leading RNA (tRNA) only
D. Telomeres C. Messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA

(tRNA) and DNA only
523. Which is described by the following:1. D. DNA only
nucleotides contain phosphate a group2.
cytosine pairs with guanine3. monomers 528. What term names the process during
contain nitrogen which DNA is copied prior to cell division?
A. DNA A. DNA polymerase
B. RNA
B. DNA replication
C. both
C. DNA regneration
D. neither
D. DNA redistribution
524. The “Central Dogma” states that the
flow of genetic information is in the direc- 529. In humans, DNA replication occurs inside
tion of the
A. DNA →RNA→ protein A. Cytoplasm of cells

B. RNA → DNA → RNA B. Mitochondria of cells
C. protein → RNA → DNA C. Chloroplast of cells
D. RNA → DNA → protein D. Nucleus of cells

530. Name the enzyme that unzips the DNA to 535. How many enzymes involved in DNA
prepare for replication. replication?

A. helicase A. 5
B. replicase B. 7
C. polymerase C. 6
D. synthase D. 8
531. Set of nitrogen bases that are comple- 536. This is a sequence of nucleotides from a
mentary to one codon section of mRNA.AUGAAACGCACGCAGFrom
A. peptide bond which DNA sequence has it been tran-
scribed?
B. polypeptide
A. ATGAAACGCACGCAG
C. anti-codon
B. UACUUUGCGUGCGAC
D. amino acid
C. TACUUUGCGTGCGTC
532. During DNA replication, each strand
D. TACTTTGCGTGCGTC
serves as a for the attachment of com-
plementary bases.
537. Enzymes:Enzyme that connects the DNA
A. template to the backbone (glues)
B. helix A. Ligase
C. sticking point B. Polymerase
D. sergeant C. Helicase
533. The Okazaki fragments are joined to- D. Primase

gether by
538. Enzyme that breaks hydrogen bonds (un-
A. Helicase zips)
B. DNA ligase A. Ligase
C. Single-stranded binding protein B. Polymerase
D. Topoisomerase C. Primase
534. The first step in the process of DNA repli- D. Helicase
cation involves
539. Which enzyme breaks the hydrogen
A. Gyrase which creates tension in the
bonds between the two DNA strands in
double helix.
order to separate them in order to start
B. Gyrase which relieves tension in the replication?
double helix.
A. Topoisomerase
C. Helicase which creates tension in the
B. Helicase
double helix.
C. DNA polymerase
D. Helicase which relieves tension from
the double helix. D. Ligase

540. DNA Replication is , with each act- 545. How many DNA molecules exist after
ing as a template for the synthesis of a replication?
complementary A. 1
A. parental strand, new strand, semi- B. 2
conservative
C. 3
B. semi-conservative, new strand,
parental strand D. 4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. semi-conservative, parental strand, 546. Which of the following does DNA poly-
new strand merase NOT do?
D. new strand, parental strand, semi- A. connects nucleotides (in the new
conservative strand) through covalent bonds
B. Matches the template nucleotides with
541. What part of the cell cycle does replica-
free nucleotides
tion occur?
C. proofreads
A. S phase
D. It does all of these functions
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase 547. Which enzyme is responsible for checking
DNA for errors, and fixing it?
D. G1
A. DNA Polymerase
542. In prokaryotes, DNA molecules are lo- B. DNA Primase
cated in the
C. DNA Helicase
A. cytoplasm
D. RNA Polymerase
B. nucleus
C. mitochondria 548. This enzyme helps helicase unzip DNA by
relieving supercoiling
D. ribosomes
A. Topoisomerase
543. The separation of the two single strands B. Exonuclease
of DNA creates a ‘Y’ shape?
C. DNA Primase
A. enzyme
D. DNA Polymerase
B. unzip
549. What keeps the DNA strands apart dur-
C. A replication fork
ing DNA replication?
D. none of above
A. DNA gyrase
544. Replication of genetic information occurs B. DNA helicase
during which cell stage?
C. DNA primase
A. interphase
D. single-stranded binding proteins
B. prophase
550. Known as the gluer, this enzyme glues
C. metaphase DNA fragments together during the lag-
D. anaphase ging stage.
E. telophase A. ligase

B. primase A. Ligase
C. DNA polymerase B. Polymerase I

D. helicase C. Polymerase III
551. Which of the following enzymes starts D. Topoisomerase
the DNA replication process by unzipping
556. Which enzyme is responsible for gluing
the DNA strand?
and connecting parts of newly created
A. Helicase DNA fragments together (”The Gluer”)?
B. Primase A. Topoisomerase
C. DNA Polymerase B. DNA Polymerase
D. Ligase C. Ligase
552. If a strand reads:3’ A A A T T T C 5’The D. Primase
complementary strand would read
557. Which is not a type of point mutation?
A. 3’ T T T A A A G 5’
A. substitution
B. 5’ A A A T T T C 3’
B. addition
C. 3’ U U U A A A G 5’
C. substrction
D. 5’ T T T A A A G 3’
D. translocation
553. Why must there be a lagging strand dur-
ing DNA synthesis? 558. What occurs during DNA replication?
A. The lagging strand ensures replication A. DNA polymerase separates the two
of both strands occurs at a similar rate DNA strands.
B. DNA is antiparallel B. DNA molecules containing nucleotides
C. The lagging strand helps conserve en- from the original molecule are produced.
ergy C. Adenine forms a base pair with either
D. DNA is a polyanion thymine or uracil.
D. New bases attach to the original sugar-
554. Experiment that radioactively labeled the
phosphate backbone.
proteins and DNA of bacteriophages to de-
termine if DNA or protein was the trans- 559. Which nitrogen base does RNA have that
forming agent DNA does not?
A. Avery A. Thymine
B. Watson & Crick B. Adenine
C. Messelson & Stahl C. Uracil
D. Hershey & Chase D. Cytosine
555. You isolate a cell strain in which the join- 560. Which of the following help(s) to hold the
ing together of Okazaki fragments is im- DNA strands apart while they are being
paired and suspect that a mutation has oc- replicated?
curred in an enzyme found at the replica-
tion fork. Which enzyme is most likely to A. RNA primase
be mutated? B. single-strand binding proteins

C. DNA polymerase I 566. The four bases in DNA are

D. DNA ligase A. T U C G
B. C A T G
561. The cell membrane pinches in, cutting the
cytoplasm into 2 cells C. U A C G
A. Metaphase D. T U A G
B. Anaphase 567. During what phase of the cell cycle does

the cell grow?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Telephase
A. G1 phase
D. Cytokinesis
B. S phase
562. The process of making proteins on the ri- C. M phase
bosome based on instructions from mes-
D. Cytokinesis
senger RNA is called
A. transcription 568. Which enzyme is responsible for main-
taining telomeres?
B. translation
A. Hexokinase
C. replication
B. Telomerase
D. mitosis C. Topoisomerase
563. If a segment of double-stranded DNA has D. Helicase
40 percent A, how much of it is C?
569. DNA provides a code or template for
A. 40 the particular sequencing of that ulti-
B. 10 mately bond together to form
C. 15 A. amino acidsnucleotides
B. amino acidsprotein
D. 20
C. nucleotidesproteins
564. After DNA replication there are two new D. nucleotidesnucleic acid
copies of DNA made of
570. During replication Primase
A. all new nucleotides
A. unzips the double helix
B. all old nucleotides rearranged
B. Tells DNA polymerase where to add
C. one old strand and one new strand of bases (nucleotides)
DNA
C. Glues DNA segments together
D. random nucleotide base pairs
D. adds complementary bases to DNA
565. In messenger RNA each codon specifies a 571. DNA replication allows for each new cell
particular to have DNA as the parent cell.
A. nucleotide A. same
B. nucleic acid B. different
C. amino acid C. more
D. DNA strand D. less

572. Which enzymes are necessary to produce C. Plasmids

recombinant DNA? D. Endonuclease

A. DNA polymerase and ligase
578. Which is true of the lagging strand during
B. Restriction enzymes and topoiso-
DNA replication?
merase
A. DNA polymerase I adds nucleotides in
C. Restriction enzymes and DNA poly-
a 5’ → 3’ direction
merase
B. DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides
D. Restriction enzymes and ligase
in a 5’ → 3’ direction
573. Which base pairs with thymine? C. DNA polymerase I adds nucleotides in
A. Adenine a 3’ → 5’ direction
B. Thymine D. DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides
in a 3’ → 5’ direction
C. Cytosine
D. Guanine 579. What is the division of cytoplasm called?
574. This enzyme is responsible for adding an A. chromosome

RNA primer to the template strand of DNA B. mitosis
A. helicase C. cytokinesis
B. DNA polymerase D. the cell cycle
C. ligase
580. What direction does DNA Polymerase
D. primase build the new strands of DNA?
575. What are the four nitrogen bases for A. 5’ to 3’
DNA? B. 3’ to 5’
A. Uracil, Thymine, Adenine, and Gaunine C. North to South
B. Cytosine, Thymine, Adenine, Guanine D. Pole to Pole
C. Thymine, Adenine, Lytosine, Guanine
581. During what phase of the cell cycle does
D. Thymine, Adenise, Guanine, Cytosol the cell grow and prepare to replicate
576. This enzyme is capable of breaking Hy- DNA?
drogen bonds found between the bases of A. G1 phase
DNA
B. S phase
A. Topoisomerase
C. M phase
B. DNA Helicase
D. Cytokinesis
C. DNA Polymerase
D. Exonuclease 582. Identify the next step that occurs after
Primase has indicated the start point
577. What is required to replicate DNA? A. DNA Helicase unwinds original DNA
A. Temperature of 37 ◦ C strand
B. Free nucleotides carrying A, C, G and T B. RNA Primase lays down RNA primer
bases for new nucleotide bases.

C. DNA polymerase builds new strands C. 6

D. 8
ging strand 588. Which is larger guanine or cytosine
583. What is the function of Topoisomerase? A. guanine because it’s a purine
A. catalyzes the unwinding of DNA double B. guanine because it’s a pyrimidine

helix at replication fork C. cytosine because it’s a purine
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. binds to and stabilizes single stranded D. cytosine because its a pyrimidine
DNA until it is used as a template
C. relieves overwinding strain ahead of 589. Which enzyme is responsible for telling
replication fork DNA polymerase where to start adding
complementary bases?
D. removes RNA nucleotides of primer
and replaces them with DNA nucleotides A. Helicase
B. Amylase
584. The genetic code
A. is composed of lipids C. Ligase
B. is composed of protein D. Primase
C. is composed of carbohydrates 590. The fragments on the lagging strand that

D. is composed of nucleotides are made up of repeating segments of DNA
and RNA Primers
585. What enzyme is responsible for unzip-
A. okazaki fragments
ping DNA during the first part of replica-
tion? B. Primase
A. DNA polymerase C. Polymerase
B. Primase D. unused DNA
C. Helicase
591. the two halves of the doubled chromo-
D. Unzippase some structure
586. During replication, each strand of the dou- A. centromeres
ble helix of DNA serves as a for the
B. sister chromatids
new strand.
C. spindle
A. template
D. tissues
B. cohort
C. energy source 592. Which enzyme unwinds DNA to be repli-
D. axis cated?
A. Ligase
587. How many molecules of DNA result from
DNA replication? B. Helicase
A. 2 C. DNA Polymerase
B. 4 D. RNA Polymerase

593. The codon (set of 3 nitrogen bases) codes 598. Because the ends of a DNA molecule are
for 1 of 20 difficult to replicate, cells use a special en-
zyme, called , to do the job.

A. endoplasmic reticulum
A. telomerase
B. RNA
B. colomerase
C. genes
C. beoemerase
D. amino acids D. polymerase
594. Which is the strand that replicates just as 599. What technique can be used to produce a
quickly as the replication fork opens up? genetic fingerprint?
A. Leading strand A. PCR
B. Lagging strand B. Gel electrophoresis
C. Phylogenetics
C. Parent strand
D. Bioinformatics
D. Daughter strand
600. What enzyme is responsible for bonding
595. What would happen if DNA replication nucleotides of the new daughter DNA to-
was not finished before mitosis? gether?
A. A mutation A. Helicase
B. A disease or disorder B. Primase
C. DNA Polymerase
C. The daughter cells would not receive
all of the genetic information and my not D. none of above
survive 601. DNA Replication occurs
D. The daughter cells will get a of the in- A. before cell division.
complete or missing information during
B. during cell division.
mitosis
C. after cell division.
596. To prevent supercoiling, which enzyme D. none of above
would play it role?
602. Which RNA delivers amino acids to the
A. Single-strand protein ribosomes for protein synthesis?
B. Primase A. messenger
C. Topoisomerase B. transport
D. Polymerase I C. ribosomal
D. none of above
597. In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell du-
plicates its DNA. 603. Within the eukaryotic cell, where does
transcription occur?
A. G1
A. Nucleus
B. S B. Cytoplasm
C. G2 C. Ribosome
D. M D. none of above

6.4 Transcription and RNA processing 602
604. During DNA replication, the enzyme B. 3, 5, antiparallel

bonds together the new side of the DNA C. 5, 3, parallel
A. helicase D. 3, 5, parallel
B. ligase
608. This short segment of nucleotides will act
C. synthase
as a ‘start’ or attachment site for DNA
D. polymerase Polymerase.
605. What does the enzyme DNA helicase do A. RNA Primer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
within a cell? B. DNA Primer
A. unzips the DNA by breaking hydrogen C. Okazaki Segment
bonds
D. Kosak Sequence
B. matches up base pairs
C. finds free floating nucleotides and 609. If a molecule of DNA is made up of 40%
brings them to DNA Adenine, what percentage is Thymine?
D. it helps to break apart the backbone of A. 20%

DNA B. 40%
606. A nucleotide does not contain C. 10%
A. an amino acid D. 80%
B. a carbon group 610. What explains imperfect ratios of paired
C. a phosphate group bases?
D. a nitrogen base A. Evolution
607. DNA replication runs from ‘ to ‘ B. Displacement

and is said to be C. Mutation
A. 5, 3, antiparallel D. Pairing
6.4 Transcription and RNA processing

1. During the mRNA transcript is edited B. base pairing of activated methionine-
(introns are removed and exons are spliced tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
together to make the final, functional
C. binding of the larger ribosomal subunit
mRNA).
to smaller ribosomal subunits
A. RNA processing
D. the small subunit of the ribosome rec-
B. Transcription ognizing and attaching to the 5’cap
C. Translation
3. Which part is removed from the pre-mRNA
D. none of above during RNA processing in eukaryotes?
A. Introns
2. Which of the following events in transla-
tion is the first to occur in eukaryotes? B. Exons
A. elongation of the polypeptide C. Both introns and exons

D. Neither introns or exons 9. Which of the following statements cor-

rectly describes alternative RNA splicing?
4. What happens when the Anticodon and

A. It increases the rate of transcription.
Codon match up
B. It is a mechanism that can increase the
A. the amino acid is released rate of transcription.
B. the protein is released C. It can allow the production of proteins
C. the mRNA is released of different sizes and functions from a sin-
gle mRNA.
D. the rRNA is released
D. It allows the production of similar pro-
5. Transcription is the process where is teins from different RNAs.
opened up to make an RNA “photocopy”.
10. The purpose of mRNA processing is to
A. the nucleus of the cell
A. Remove Exons from the RNA
B. RNA polymerase
B. Remove Introns from the RNA
C. a spliceosome
C. Check the mRNA for mutations
D. DNA D. Make the mRNA from DNA code
6. If the mRNA has the sequence UGG, what 11. What is the first step in protein synthesis?
two things would you find on the corre- DNA→mRNA
sponding tRNA?
A. transcription
A. codon and ACC
B. translation
B. anticodon ACC and Trp
C. replication
C. mRNA and Leu D. none of above
D. none of above
12. A tRNA (#1) attached to the amino acid ly-
7. This is added to the RNA to help it leave sine enters the ribosome. The lysine binds
the nucleus to the growing polypeptide on the other
tRNA (#2) already in the ribosome. Where
A. G cap does tRNA (#2 move to next?
B. poly A tail A. A site
C. introns B. P site
D. exons C. E site
D. exit tunnel
8. In addition to mRNA and a ribosome, what
other macromolecule is needed in the sec- 13. What is the correct RNA sequence for the
ond step of protein synthesis? following DNA? 3’-TAC GAA CGG ACT-5’
A. lipids A. 5’-AUG CUU GCC UGA-3’
B. tRNA B. 3’-ATG CTT GCC TGA-5’
C. DNA C. 5’-ATG CTT GCC TGA-3’
D. carbon dioxide D. 3’-AUG CUU GCC UGA-5’

14. Which type of RNA functions as a small 20. Which of these help protect the RNA
portion of a blueprint of the genetic code? from being attacked by cellular enzymes
A. mRNA and help ribosomes recognize the RNA as
mRNA?
B. rRNA
A. Cap & tail
C. tRNA
B. tRNA
D. none of above
C. rRNA
15. During translation, this type of ribonucleic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. RNA polymerase
acid is responsible for delivering amino
acids to help make a protein. 21. One codon is composed of how many RNA
bases
A. mRNA
A. 2
B. rRNA
B. 3
C. tRNA
C. 4
D. dRNA
D. 5
16. Junk sequences of mRNA are called
22. What will be the resulting amino acid se-
A. exons quence from this DNA sequence:GAT-TAC-
B. introns AGA-TTA-CAT?
C. mutations A. Leu-Met-Ser-Asn-Val
D. microns B. Met-Ser-Asn-Val
17. How do we determine what amino acid C. Leu-Arg-Trp-Asn-Val

will be added to the polypeptide chain? D. CAT-ACA-TAC-ATA-TAG
A. The codon of the tRNA 23. one of the coding regions of an mRNA
B. The codon of the mRNA molecule that remain after splicing
C. The anticodon of the tRNA A. intron
D. The anticodon of the mRNA B. codon
C. exon
18. Additions to the mRNA after transcription
are D. gene
A. a 5’ cap and a 3’ polyT tail 24. What is not involved in RNA processing?
B. a 3’ cap and a 5’ polyT tail A. Add 5’ cap
C. a 5’ cap and a 3’ polyA tail B. Add poly-A tail
D. a 3’ cap and a 5’ polyA tail C. Remove introns & splice RNA
D. Remove exons & spice RNA
19. How do you know from an image that it is
tRNA? 25. What is the monomer of RNA?
A. it is a single strand (ribbon/line) A. Nucleotides
B. it is made of multiple codons B. Amino Acids
C. it is found on the DNA C. Monosaccharides
D. it has an AA and an anticodon D. Fatty Acids & Glycerol

26. The second step of protein synthesis is 31. Before the cell divides, what process
best summarized by which of the follow- needs to happen?
ing?

A. Transcription
A. mRNA to DNA B. Translation
B. DNA to protein C. Replication
C. mRNA to protein D. Protein synthesis
D. nucleus to ribosome
32. What is the purpose for anti-codons?
27. What is the correct order to make a pro- A. to ensure the correct amino acid is
tein? dropped off
A. Protein, DNA, RNA B. to match the strand of DNA
B. RNA, DNA, Protein C. to decode a sequence of 4 nucleotides
C. DNA, RNA, Protein into an amino acid
D. Protein, RNA, DNA D. to make me hate biology
33. Where does transcription in prokaryotes

28. How does information flow from genes to
occur?
traits?
A. nucleus
A. lipid → DNA → protein → trait
B. cytosol
B. carbohydrate → DNA → lipid → trait
C. ribosome
C. DNA → RNA → protein → trait
D. nucleolus
D. DNA → carbohydrate → RNA → trait
34. Where are anticodons found?
29. The regulation of an operon by repressor
is referred to as A. on mRNA
A. negative regulation B. on DNA

C. on rRNA
B. positive regulation
D. on tRNA
C. both a and b
D. neutral regulation 35. Which RNA forms part of the ribosomes?
A. tRNA
30. Why are insertion and deletion mutations
so harmful? B. mRNA
A. They change all of the codons from the C. rRNA
mutation on down the line, which changes D. none of above
the amino acid sequence
36. Which represents the correct order of “the
B. They insert things that an organism central dogma of molecular biology”?
doesn’t need.
A. protein to DNA to mRNA to trait
C. They often delete things that organ-
isms need. B. DNA to mRNA to protein to trait
D. Insertion and deletions are not any C. DNA to protein to mRNA to trait
more harmful than substitution mutations. D. trait to DNA to protein to mRNA

37. Where does replication take place? 43. A string of nucleotides that contain the in-
A. inside the nucleus formation to make a specific protein
B. outside the nucleus in the cytoplasm A. Ribose
C. on a ribosome B. Amino Acids
D. none of above C. tRNA
D. Gene
38. How many different amino acids are
there? 44. An mRNA strand contains 21 nucleotides
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 15 from start to finish. If it also includes a
stop codon, how many amino acids does
B. 20 this strand code for?
C. 40 A. 21
D. 100 B. 7
39. In comparison to DNA, mRNA is C. 6
A. Shorter D. 3
B. Longer 45. The removal of introns and joining of ex-
C. The same length ons to produce an mRNA molecule with a
D. Double stranded continuous coding sequence.
A. RNA polymerase
40. The scientist(s) who found that the
amount of Adenine=Thymine, and the B. Anticodon
amount of Cytosine=Guanine. C. RNA splicing
A. Avery D. tRNA
B. Watson & Crick 46. What is the name given to the short
C. Chargraff stretches of DNA formed on the lagging
D. Franklin & Wilkins strand?
A. Okazaki fragments
41. Which of these bases does not exist in
RNA? B. Hiorshimi fragments
A. C C. introns
B. T D. Chargraff’s fragmentation
C. U 47. In transcription, which direction is RNA

D. A made?
A. 3’ to 5’
42. The enzyme during transcription moves in
direction and construction of mRNA is B. 5’ to 3’
in direction. C. C terminus to N terminus
A. 3’ to 5’, 3’ to 5’ D. N terminus to C terminus DNA and RNA
B. 3’ to 5’, 5’ to 3’ are antiparallel. The RNA is synthesized
5’ to 3’ while the DNA is read 3’ to 5’. Re-
C. 5’ to 3’, 5’ to 3’ member the 3’ is the hydroxyl group of the
D. 5’ to 3’ and 3’ to 5’ pentose sugar and the 5’ is the phosphate.

48. Transcription C. provides energy

A. makes RNA using a DNA template D. carries genetic message

B. make protein using an RNA template
54. What would the amino acid sequence be
C. makes RNA using a protein template from a mRNA with the following se-
D. makes DNA using an RNA template quence:AUGCAGCAAUGG
49. What is the term for making an RNA copy A. met-gln-gln-trp

of DNA? B. met-gln-gln-stop
A. Transription C. tyr-val-val-thr
B. Translation D. gln-gln-trp
C. Folding
D. Coding 55. What is a mutagen?
A. It is a mutant
50. In transcription, A pairs with
B. It is a factor that can trigger mutations
A. T (thymine)
C. It is a gene that mutated
B. C (cytosine)
C. G (guanine) D. none of above
D. U (uracil) 56. When bases are added or deleted, the

mRNA will be read out of sync, to the right
51. Which type of RNA is a functional building
or left of normal. this is
block of a ribosome?
A. tRNA (transfer RNA) A. Deletion
B. mRNA (messenger RNA) B. Insertion

C. rRNA (ribosomal RNA) C. Frameshift
D. none of above D. Crossover
52. Which RNA has the codons sequence for 57. Transcribe the following:ATTCAG
translation?
A. UAAGUC
A. mRNA
B. TAAGTC
B. rRNA
C. GACTTA
C. tRNA mRNA is the messenger RNA. It
is a transcript of the DNA to carry to mes- D. ATTCAG
sage to the ribosome for protein synthe-
sis. The triplet code of nucleotides on the 58. Which type of RNA is a copy of a gene used
mRNA is called a codon. to encode a polypeptide?
D. none of above A. mRNA
53. What is the function of mRNA? B. tRNA

A. storage of food C. rRNA
B. prevents mutations D. none of above

59. The mRNA strand being transcribed will be 64. During Genetic instructions in DNA are
made in the rewritten into a messenger RNA molecule.
A. 5’ to 3’ direction A. RNA processing
B. 3’ to 5’ direction B. Transcription
C. 5’ to 3’ on the leading strand and 3’ to C. Translation
5’ on the lagging strand D. none of above
D. amino to carboxyl direction 65. In mRNA, each codon specifies a particular
NARAYAN CHANGDER
60. How many nucleotides make a codon? A. nucleotide
A. 1 B. amino acid
C. purine
B. 2
D. pyrimidine
C. 3
D. 6 66. What are the building blocks of proteins?
A. DNA
61. Which RNA has an anticodon that pairs B. RNA
with codon?
C. Ribosomes
A. mRNA
D. Amino Acids
B. rRNA
67. Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into
C. tRNA tRNA is the transfer RNA. The the sequence of amino acids in a polypep-
main function of the tRNA is the bring tide depends on specificity in which of the
amino acids to the ribosome. The tRNA following?
has an anticodon that pairs with the mRNA
codon to ensure the correct amino acid is A. binding of ribosomes to mRNA
added. B. shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes
D. none of above C. attachment of amino acids to tRNAs
D. bonding of the anticodon the codon
62. What happens to terminate translation? and the attachment of amino acids to tR-
A. a stop codon reaches the active site of NAs
the ribosome
68. Which enzyme is responsible for making
B. a terminator region RNA?
C. ribocase dissociates the ribosome A. DNA polymerase
D. AUG B. RNA enzymase
C. RNA polymerase
63. The anti-codon
D. RNA proliferase
A. contains a sequence the same as the
codon 69. A nucleotide does NOT contain
B. contains a sequence complementary A. a sugar
to the codon B. polymerase
C. contains the base thymine C. a nitrogen base
D. none of above D. a phosphate group

70. Where are DNA and RNA made in eukary- 76. The anticodon is located on
otic cells? A. DNA

A. nucleus B. mRNA
B. cytoplasm C. tRNA
C. mitochondria D. rRNA
D. ER
77. What type of bond holds nitrogen bases
71. What is the form of energy required in to one another forming the “rungs” of the
translation? DNA ladder?
A. ATP A. Covalent
B. NADH B. Hydrogen
C. GTP C. Ionic
D. None of these D. Phosphodiester
72. The expressing sequences in mRNA are 78. What is a peptide bond?
A. exons A. Bond that holds two amino acids to-

gether.
B. euchromatin
B. A bond that holds hydrogen and oxy-
C. Introns gen molecules together.
D. Heteochromatin C. A bond that holds the phosphate group
of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neigh-
73. Which type of RNA contains the codons?
boring nucleotide.
A. mRNA
D. A bond that is formed by the sharing of
B. tRNA electrons.
C. aminoacyl-tRNA 79. The lac operon genes only become ex-
D. rRNA pressed if:
74. What is the “start transcribing” signal in A. lactose binds to the repressor
a nucleotide sequence called? B. glucose binds to the repressor
A. Start codon C. lactose binds to the operator
B. Promoter D. the repressor binds to the operator
C. Terminator 80. What is the corresponding codon for AGT?
D. Initiation A. UCA
75. A frameshift mutation could result from B. TCA
A. a base insertion only. C. UGA
B. a base deletion only. D. ACU
C. a base substitution only. 81. The process of converting transcribed

D. either an insertion or a deletion of a mRNA to protein
base. A. Transcription

B. translation B. Exons
C. protein sysnthesis C. Introns
D. Splicing D. Tail
82. what is an operon?
87. Where does initiation of transcription oc-
A. a part of a ribosome cur?
B. a part of a Rna A. the promotor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. a unit made up of linked genes that
B. TAC
code for proteins needed to do a specific
task C. AUG
D. needed for dna replication D. the terminator
83. How many codons code for 1 amino acid? 88. Each amino acid is different from the other
A. 4 due to
B. 3 A. The R group
C. 2 B. The amino group
D. 1 C. The carboxyl group
84. RNA must be edited before it can be used D. The central carbon
to make Proteins, what happens during
this editing process? 89. Capping is done by the addition of
A. A spliceosome cuts out exons A. Methylated A
B. A spliceosome cuts out the introns B. Methylated G
C. A splicesome pairs nucleotides with C. Methylated C
the DNA base pairs
D. Methylated T
D. The RNA is checked for typos
85. mRNA will likely be compared to the 90. The process of transcription results in the
template gene in the DNA formation of
A. longer because exons are added to the A. DNA
mRNA B. Proteins
B. shorter because introns are removed
C. lipids
from the mature mRNA
D. RNA
C. longer because introns are added to
the mRNA
91. Which type of RNA is synthesized during
D. shorter because exons are removed transcription?
from the mature mRNA
A. messenger RNA (mRNA)
86. What is the internal noncoding regions
B. transfer RNA (tRNA)
that are included in most genes of plants
and animals called? C. ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
A. Caps D. small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

92. What is the product of transcription? for translation (which reads the RNA 5’ to
A. DNA 3’) at the 5’ end. It facilitates the mRNA
leaving the nucleus.

B. mRNA
C. tRNA 97. Which is NOT correct according to base pair
rules?
D. proteins
A. Adenine-Thymine
93. Protein is made of what monomer compo-
nent? B. Cytosine-Guanine
A. amino acids C. Adenine-Guanine
B. nucleotides D. Adenine-Uracil
C. monosaccharides
98. Where does Translation occur?
D. lipids
A. Proteins
94. When DNA replicates, one strand is B. Mitochondria
formed continuously while the other
strand is formed in fragments because new C. Ribosomes
nucleotides can only be added to the D. Cytoplasm
end of DNA
A. 3’ 99. Which of the following types of mutations
could result in a frameshift mutation?
B. 5’
A. deletion of three consecutive bases
C. 7’
B. a base deletion only
D. 9’
C. a base insertion only
95. Transcription:Place the order of events
forcreating a protein in order (1- D. either an insertion or a deletion of a
4)1.RNA Polymerase reaches a termina- base
tion/stopping point2.Helicase attaches E. a base substitution only
and unzips the desired gene3.mRNA
leaves the nucleus4.RNA Polymerase adds 100. is made during transcription and
new RNA nucleotides and makes mRNA is made during translation.
A. 3, 1, 4, 2, A. mRNA / a protein
B. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. a protein / mRNA
C. 2, 4, 1, 3 C. Ribosome / Nucleus
D. 3, 1, 2, 4
D. mRNA / tRNA
96. Function of 5’ Cap
101. One codon codes for one
A. Add phosphates to the RNA
A. amino acid
B. Provide ATP for transcription
B. base
C. Protect from hydrolytic enzymes
C. mRNA
D. Site of ribosome binding The 5’ Cap has
two functions. It binds with the ribosome D. polypeptide

102. mRNA occurs during this process 108. Importance of polyadenylation

A. Translation A. increase stability of mRNA
B. Transcription B. important for translation
C. Replication
C. regulates its transport to the cyto-
D. Delivery plasm
103. Brings the amino acids to the ribosome D. all of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. mRNA
109. Which part(s) of the mature mRNA code
B. tRNA for the protein that is produced?
C. rRNA A. Introns
D. DNA
B. Exons
104. What process removes introns and reat- C. Both introns and exons
taches exons?
D. Neither introns or exons
A. DNA splicing
B. RNA splicing 110. Which of the following is not a stop
C. DNA processing codon?
D. RNA processing A. AUG
105. Which of the following describes gene ex- B. UAA

pression in PROKARYOTIC Cells? C. UGA
A. Transcription and translation occur si- D. UAG
multaneously in the nucleus
B. Transcription occurs in the nucleus fol- 111. In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot
lowed by translation in the cytoplasm begin until
C. Transcription and translation occur si- A. the two DNA strands have completely
multaneously in the cytoplasm separated and exposed the promoter.
D. none of above B. several transcription factors have
bound to the promoter.
106. What do we call the process of turning
DNA into mRNA? C. the 5’ caps are removed from the
A. Translation mRNA.
B. Transcription D. the DNA introns are removed from the

template.
C. Replication
D. none of above 112. What are the three main types of RNA
involved in gene expression? (check 3)
107. An RNA molecule is
A. iRNA
A. double helix
B. always double stranded B. mRNA
C. usually double stranded C. tRNA
D. single stranded D. rRNA

113. What type(s) of RNA are involved in 119. Which of the following proteins is cor-
translation? rectly matched to the process it is involved
in?

A. mRNA
B. tRNA only A. ribosome:RNA processing
C. mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA B. ribosome:transcription
D. none of above C. RNA poly. II:translation
114. The first post transcriptional RNA pro- D. snRPs:splicing
cessing event is
120. Transcribe the following piece of
A. Tailing
DNA:ATCGTA
B. editing
A. UAGCAU
C. capping
B. ATCGTA
D. splicing
C. TAGCAT
115. Proteins are made
D. AUCGUA
A. on a mRNA
B. on the ribosome 121. Which of the following is the tRNA anti-
C. in the nucleus codon for AUG?
D. by the DNA A. UAG
116. A type of RNA that associates with pro- B. TAC

teins to form ribosomes in the cytoplasm C. UAC
A. Transfer RNA (tRNA) D. UAA
B. Messenger RNA (mRNA)
122. The process of removing introns from the
C. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)
mRNA in eukaryotes is called
D. RNA Polymerase
A. Capping
117. What type of macro-molecules are DNA
B. splicing
and RNA?
A. Protein C. Tailing
B. Carbohydrate D. Slicing
C. Nucleic Acid
123. EXTRA AWESOME QUESTION:Which
D. Lipid types of cells can begin the process of
translation even before the mRNA has
118. Further processing of eukaryotic mRNA
been completely transcribed?
includes
A. Eukaryotes
A. Splicing and tailing
B. Caping and tailing B. Prokaryotes
C. caping, tailing and splicing C. Both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes can
D. Splicing only D. No cells can can do this

124. RNA polymerase moves in which direc- 130. What is the purpose of the 5’ cap and
tion along the DNA? poly A tail added during processing?
A. 5’ to 3’ A. cuts out introns
B. 3’ to 5’ along the template strand B. protects mRNA from degradation by
C. 3’ to 5’ along nontemplate(coding) enzymes
strand C. signals the start and termination
D. 5’ to 3’ along the template strand D. fixes the promoter sequence
NARAYAN CHANGDER
125. Which molecule brings the amino acid to 131. Which of the following is created in the
the ribosome? nucleus and carries the genetic code to the
A. DNA cytoplasm?
B. mRNA A. DNA
C. tRNA B. tRNA
D. rRNA C. mRNA
126. The linkage formed in 5’cap of mRNA is D. rRNA
A. 5’ > 5’ 132. Which strand is read for transcription?
B. 5’ > 3’
A. 3’ to 5’ coding strand
C. 3’ > 5’
B. 5’ to 3’ coding strand
D. 3’ > 3’
C. 3’ to 5’ noncoding strand
127. Which of the following is not a type of D. 5’ to 3’ noncoding strand DNA and RNA
RNA processing? are antiparallel, so the DNA is read 5’
A. Poly A tail to 3’ and the RNA is synthesized 3’ to
B. splicing 5’. Note:the DNA template strand can
be called 4 different names:noncoding
C. 5’ CAP strand, minus strand, or antisense strand.
D. removal of exons
133. There are different types of amino
128. Enyzmes are a very important type of acids
protein used to
A. three
A. Build bones in skeleton
B. four
B. Send hormonal signals throughout
body C. twenty
C. Speed up chemical reactions D. sixty four

D. Photosynthesize glucose in plants 134. A certain gene codes for a polypeptide
that is 120 amino acids long. Approxi-
129. How many bases are in one codon?
mately how many nucleotides long is the
A. 1 mRNA that codes for this polypeptide
B. 2 likely to be?
C. 3 A. 360
D. 4 B. 480

C. 40 C. silent
D. 30 D. transverse

135. What happens in RNA processing and 140. Select which nitrogenous bases can NOT
where does it occur? be found in RNA.
A. 5’ cap and 3’ poly A tail added, in nu- A. Adenine
cleus B. Thymine
B. 3’ cap and 5’ poly A tail added, in cyto- C. Uracil
plasm D. Cytosine
C. introns cut out and exons reattached, E. Guanine
nucleus
141. Tightly coiled DNA found within the nu-
D. introns cut out and exons reattached,
cleus
cytoplasm
A. Chromatin
136. If the spliceosome was nonfunctional, the B. Sister Chromatid
cell would
C. Chromosome
A. alter the process of mitosis.
D. RNA
B. produce microtubules that would not
function properly. 142. Any change in the sequence of DNA is al-
ways termed a
C. produce DNA molecules much longer
than normal. A. transgenic shift
D. produce polypeptides much longer B. Single Genotype
than normal. C. Cancer
D. Mutation
137. Anticodons on tRNA pair with
A. mRNA condons 143. Which enzyme is responsible for tran-
scription?
B. tRNA condons
A. Ligase
C. DNA condons
B. Primase
D. amino acids
C. RNA Polymerase
138. The process of modification of eukaryotic D. Transcriptase RNA Polymerase is an
pre mRNA into mature RNA occurs by enzyme that binds to the DNA and synthe-
A. RNA processing sizes a RNA strand. Remember:enzymes
tell you what they do. RNA Polymerase
B. Transcription makes an RNA polymer.
C. translation
144. The function of is to combine with pro-
D. replication teins to form ribosomes.
139. Original:ATC CATMutation:ATC GCATWhat A. rRNA
mutation occurred? B. tRNA
A. deletion C. mRNA
B. insertion D. DNA

145. Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into D. mutations always have an effect on an
the primary structure of a polypeptide de- organism
pends on specificity in the
150. Which enzyme creates the new mRNA
A. binding of ribosomes to mRNA polyer by adding the complementary free
B. binding of the anticodon to small sub- RNA nucleotides?
unit of the ribosome A. RNA polymerase
C. attachment of amino acids to rRNAs B. DNA polymerase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. binding of the anticodon to the codon C. Exonuclease
and the attachment of amino acids to tR-
NAs D. DNA Helicase
146. A mRNA sequence consist of 171 nu- 151. A triplet (3 bases) of mRNA is called a
cleotides. How many amino acids make up A. codon
the protein this sequence will code for?
B. anticodon
A. 57
C. amino acid
B. 56
D. peptide bond
C. 58
152. In eukaryotic RNA processing, a methyl-
D. 513
G cap is added to
147. Transcribe the following DNA sequence to A. 3’ end
the complementary mRNA sequence. TAC
CGG CTG B. 5’ end
A. AUG GCC GAC C. there is no cap
B. AUG GCC GAG D. none of above
C. AUG CGG GAC 153. What is the function of the release factor
D. GUA GCC GAC in translation?
A. it separates tRNA in the A site from the
148. Which form of RNA carries the code for growing polypeptide
producing Protein?
B. it binds to the stop codon in the A site
A. rRNA in place of a tRNA
B. mRNA C. it releases the amino acid from its
C. tRNA tRNA to allow the amino acid to form a
polypeptide
D. iRNA
D. it releases the ribosome from the ER
149. When would a mutation not have any ef- to allow polypeptides into the cytosol
fect?
A. If it occurs on a portion of the DNA not 154. What is the function of the 5’ cap?
responsible for synthesizing a protein A. Binds to the promoter region
B. If it occurs in a gamete B. Decrease degradation by hydrolytic
C. If it occurs anywhere in the DNA of a enzymes
somatic cell C. Remove noncoding information

D. Site of ribosome binding The 5’ Cap has B. a triplet that has no corresponding
two functions. It binds with the ribosome amino acid
for translation (which reads the RNA 5’ to

C. a sequence of tRNA at the 3’ end
3’) at the 5’ end. It facilitates the mRNA
leaving the nucleus. D. a triplet in the same reading frame as
an upstream AUG
155. Where in the cell does the fist step of pro-
tein synthesis take occur? 160. anti-codons are found on the
A. in the cell membrane A. mRNA
B. on the rough ER B. tRNA
C. in the nucleus C. rRNA
D. at the ribososmes
D. DNA
156. Which RNA functions to bring amino acids
to the ribosome? 161. Proteins that DNA winds itself around to
for Chromosomes
A. mRNA
A. Histone
B. rRNA
C. tRNA tRNA is the transfer RNA. There B. Double Helix
are two important binding sites on the tR- C. Chromatin
NAs. At one end, the tRNA is bound to an
D. Chromatin
amino acid and the other end has an anti-
codon which pairs with the codon on the 162. Amino acids are bonded together by a
mRNA.
A. hydrogen bond
D. none of above
B. peptide bond
157. Transcribe the following DNA se-
quence:AAT TAG GGC TCG C. ionic bond
A. AAT TAG GGC TCG D. they are not bonded

B. TTA ATC CCG AGC 163. Adenine and Guanine have a double ring
C. UUA AUC CCG AGC structure, so they are called what?
D. TTU UTC CCG UGC A. Pyrimidines
158. If the mRNA codon reads UUC, the corre- B. Purines
sponding anti-codon would read? C. Puritans
A. TTG D. none of above
B. AAG
164. A group of genes that are regulated to-
C. UUC
gether is called a(n)
D. AAC
A. promoter
159. Which description of nucleotide triplets
B. operon
best represents a codon?
C. intron
A. a triplet separated spatially from other
triplets D. allele

165. During protein synthesis, an RNA strand B. Met-Pro

is transcribed from one strand of DNA C. Tyr-Gly
(GCG TTA CCT) What is the complementary
RNA strand? D. Tyr-Pro
A. CGC UUT CCT 171. Which of the following does not code for
B. CGC AAU GGA proteins?
C. GCG UUA CCU A. introns
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. CGC AAT GGA B. extrons
C. helicase
166. Protein 1, 2 and 3 all were translated
from Gene A. This is an example of D. DNA
A. mutations 172. What are the incorrect answer about

type of RNA?
B. alternative splicing
A. mRNA is messager RNA carrying
C. transcription
codon
D. cancer
B. rRNA is the ribosomal RNA
167. The enzyme that helps to remove the in- C. tRNA is the the transfer RNA that car-
trons rying amino acid and codon
A. spliceosomes D. tRNA is the transfer RNA that carrying
B. Splicing amino acid and anticodon
C. SnRNA 173. Protein synthesis takes place in two
D. SNRIP parts:
A. Transcription then translation
168. Where are proteins made?
B. Replication then transcription
A. ER
C. Translation then transcription
B. nucleus
D. Replication then translation
C. cytoplasm
D. mitochondria 174. What famous scientists built the first
double helix model of DNA?
169. A particular triplet of bases in the tem- A. Hershey & Chase
plate strand of DNA is 5’ AGT 3’. The
corresponding codon for the mRNA tran- B. Avery & MacLeod
scribed is C. Watson & Crick
A. 3’ UCA 5’. D. Wilkins & Franklin
B. 3’ UGA 5’ 175. A type of substitution in which no amino
C. 5’ TCA 3’ acids change is called
D. 3’ACU 5’. A. Missense
170. What is the correct amino acid sequence B. Nonsense

for the mRNA code AUGCCA C. Silent
A. Met-Leu D. Deletion

176. The synthesis of mRNA copied from the C. A T C G

DNA base sequence is known as D. U T C G

A. transcription
182. Which of the following does not occur in
B. translation prokaryotic gene expression but does oc-
C. replication cur in eukaryotic gene expression?
D. none of above A. mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are tran-
scribed
177. What would be the tRNA anticodon for
B. RNA polymerase binds to the promotor
the mRNA codon CAG?
C. a poly-A tail is added to the ends of the
A. GTC
mRNA
B. GUC
D. Transcription can begin as soon as
C. CUG translation has begun even alittle
D. CAG
183. For this DNA strand, what is the comple-
178. RNA has what base that is instead of mentary DNA strand? TTA GCC CGA
thymine? A. TTA GCC CGA
A. guanine B. AAU CGG GCU
B. adenine C. AAT CGG GCT
C. thymine D. AGC CCG ATT
D. uracil 184. In eukaryotes, proteins that help the
179. Which type of RNA carries information RNA polymerase bind to the promoter for
from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribo- transcription
some? A. transcription factors
A. mRNA B. topoisomerase
B. rRNA C. regulatory genes
C. tRNA D. activators
D. none of above 185. Which of the following is not a function
of pre-mRNA?
180. Which of the following is an enzyme used
during DNA Replication to split Hydrogen A. Export from nucleus
Bonds and unwind the helix? B. Protect mRNA from enzyme degrada-
A. ATP tion
B. Helicase C. coding the message for the amino
acids of the ribosome
C. Catalase
D. Attach mRNA to ribosomes in cyto-
D. DNA
plasm
181. Which represents the bases of mRNA? 186. Which of the following is not a form of
A. A U C G RNA:
B. A T U G A. tRNA

B. mRNA while the RNA is synthesized 5’ to 3’. Re-

C. pRNA member the 3’ is the hydroxyl group of the
pentose sugar and the 5’ is the phosphate.
D. rRNA
192. Which of the following DNA mutations is
187. What is the mRNA strand that would be likely to have the most negative effect on
created from this DNA strand? T A C A G the protein it specifies?
GCCT
A. a codon substitution
A. A C G T C C G G A
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. a base-pair deletion
B. A U G U C C G G A
C. a codon deletion
C. T U G G G C C A T D. a substitution in the last base of a
D. U T G U C C G G U codon
188. What is the name of the strand read for 193. What enzyme builds RNA using DNA as
transcription? a template?
A. Template strand A. RNA polymerase
B. Noncoding strand B. DNA polymerase
C. Minus strand C. Ribosomes
D. Antisense strand D. Helicase
189. Which type of RNA carries an amino acid 194. What enzyme helps create mRNA during
to the ribosome during translation? transcription?
A. tRNA (transfer RNA) A. DNA helicase
B. mRNA (messenger RNA) B. RNA polymerase

C. Topoisomerase
C. rRNA (ribosomal RNA)
D. none of above
D. none of above
195. Alternative RNA splicing
190. How do you know when to begin trans-
lating a strand of mRNA? A. is a mechanism for increasing the rate
of translation
A. look for AUG
B. can allow the production of proteins of
B. start at the beginning different sizes and functions from a single
C. look for ATG mRNA
D. when Ms. H tells me to C. can allow the production of similar pro-
teins from different RNAs
191. In transcription, which direction is DNA
D. increases the rate of transcription
read?
A. 3’ to 5’ 196. The sugar in RNA is:
B. 5’ to 3’ A. Uracil
C. C terminus to N terminus B. Thymine
D. N terminus to C terminus DNA and RNA C. Ribose
are antiparallel. The DNA is read 3’ to 5’ D. Deoxyribose

197. tRNA is involved in B. TAC CTT

A. carrying amino acids C. ATG GAA

B. carrying ribosomes D. AGA CTT
C. carrying glucose
203. What are the fragments of DNA on the
D. carrying lipids lagging strand called?
198. Where is the TATA box found? A. Okazaki fragments
A. in the promoter sequence of prokary- B. Okinawa fragments
otes C. Hibachi fragments
B. in the terminator sequence of prokary- D. Kamikaze fragments
otes
204. What is the effect of a nucleotide-pair
C. in the promoter sequence of eukary-
substitution that results in a nonsense mu-
otes
tation in a gene?
D. in the terminator sequence of eukary-
otes A. It has no effect on the amino acid se-
quence of the encoded protein.
199. RNA polymerase is the enzyme that func- B. It alters the reading frame of the
tions in mRNA.
A. translation C. It introduces a premature stop codon
B. DNA replication into the mRNA.
C. transcription D. It changes an amino acid in the en-
D. DNA repair coded protein.
200. What is the correct RNA sequence for the 205. Which process is used to make a copy of
following DNA? 3’-TACGGCAGGCAAGGA- the entire DNA strand in the nucleus?
5’ A. replication
A. 5’-AUG CCG UCC GUU CCU-3’ B. transcription
B. 3’-AUG CCG UCC GUU CCU-5’ C. translation
C. 5’-AUG GGC AGG CUU GGA-3’ D. none of above
D. 5’-AUG GCG UUC GUU CCU-3’
206. mRNA is processed before leaving the nu-
201. In a mutation, one base pair is cleus by
changed our on DNA. A. enantiomers
A. Point B. spliceosomes
B. Frameshift C. mutagens
C. Cross over D. porcupis
D. Translocation
207. A piece of template DNA has the se-
202. Convert the DNA sequence into mRNATAC quence AGA. What would be the sequence
CTT of the anticodon on the tRNA?
A. AUG GAA A. UCU

B. AGA C. tRNA rRNA is the ribosomal RNA. Ri-

C. TCT bosomes, the site of protein synthesis,
is composed of protein and rRNA. Which
D. UGU RNA functions as site of protein synthe-
sis?
208. The signifies the end of a gene on the
DNA molecule and that the RNA is com- D. none of above
plete
213. When does DNA replication happen?
A. promotor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Before Mitosis begins
B. stop codon B. During prophase
C. terminator C. During metaphase
D. start codon D. During anaphase
209. What is an exon? 214. When the spliceosome binds to a pre-
A. section of mRNA that codes for protein mRNA transcript, where does it typically
attach?
B. section of mRNA that does not code for
A. to the exons
protein
B. to the 5’UTR
C. section of tRNA that codes for protein
C. to the 3’UTR
D. section of rRNA that codes for protein
D. at certain sequences along an intron
210. A substance that causes mutations in
215. What is the flow of genetic information
DNA is called a/an
in cells from DNA to protein? (Central
A. substitution Dogma)
B. frameshift mutation A. RNA to DNA to protein
C. mutagen B. DNA to RNA to protein
D. spliceosome C. protein to DNA to RNA
D. RNA to protein to DNA
211. Which of the following best describes a
promoter? 216. When transferring tRNA to amino acids,
A. an element that promotes termination the process cannot begin until it reaches a
of transcription
B. a regulatory protein that accelerates A. Beginning codon
mRNA turnover. B. Start codon
C. A specific target sequence to which C. Initiator codon
RNA polymerase binds D. Anticodon
D. an extracellular environmental inducer 217. Which process is used to copy DNA in the
that controls genes expression. nucleus?
212. Which RNA functions as site of protein A. replication
synthesis? B. transcription
A. mRNA C. translation
B. rRNA D. none of above

218. Instead of Thymine as a nitrogen base, 223. Which ribosome part contains a tRNA af-
RNA has ter it has dropped off its amino acid & is
about to exit?

A. Adenine
A. A site
B. sugar
B. P site
C. uracil
C. E site
D. phosphate
D. B site
219. What structure in a cell is the site for
making proteins? 224. TRANSLATE this RNA sequence:AUGCAAUGA
A. ribosomes A. Met-Glu-Stop
B. mitochondria B. Met-His-Stop
C. lysosome C. Thr-Glu-Stop
D. Golgi body D. Thr-Pro-Stop
220. When a mutation caused by a nucleotide 225. Which type of RNA is created during tran-
pair substitution occurs in a protein coding scription and carries instructions from DNA
region, which of the following effects can to a ribosome?
not occur? A. tRNA (transfer RNA)
A. silent B. mRNA (messenger RNA)
B. frameshift C. rRNA (ribosomal RNA)
C. missense D. none of above
D. nonsense
226. RNA must be edited before it can be used
E. All are possible. to make proteins. Which of the following
happens during this editing process?
221. Which of the following would be a nu-
cleotide found in DNA A. A spliceosome cuts out exons
A. Ribose + phosphate + uracil B. A spliceosome cuts out the introns
B. Deoxyribose + phosphate + uracil C. A splicesome pairs nucleotides with

the DNA base pairs
C. Deoxyribose + phosphate + adenine
D. The RNA is checked for typos
D. Ribose + phosphate + adenine
227. Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil have a
222. Which phrase best describes transla- single ring structure, so they are called
tion? what?
A. converts mRNA into a polypeptide A. Pyrimidines
B. catalyzes bonds between amino acids B. Purines
C. produces RNA from DNA molecules C. Puritans
D. recycles tRNA molecules for reuse D. none of above

228. In the lac operon model the genes within 234. What enzyme is responsible for transcrip-
the operon will be expressed if: tion?
A. lactose is absent in the cell A. DNA polymerase
B. glucose is present in the cell B. Helicase
C. lactose is present in the cell C. Primase
D. none of above D. RNA polymerase RNA polymerase is
the enzyme that functions in transcription.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
229. What is the template for mRNA?
It will synthesize a RNA molecule from the
A. DNA DNA template.
B. tRNA
235. What is the building block of proteins?
C. rRNA
A. Monosacchrides
D. proteins
B. Polysaccharides
230. The letter “T” is used instead of which
base in DNA? C. amino acids
A. Thyroxin D. Triglycerides
B. Thyroid 236. The process where mRNA is read and
C. Triose phosphate made into an amino acid chain.
D. Thymine A. Transcription
231. Which type of RNA makes up the ribo- B. Translation

some? C. Transportation
A. mRNA D. Transient
B. rRNA
237. All of these are differences between DNA
C. tRNA and RNA EXCEPT
D. none of above A. the type of sugar
232. Which RNA brings amino acids? B. The number of strands
A. rRNA C. The type of proteins
B. tRNA D. RNA can leave the nucleus
C. mRNA
238. In order for DNA instructions to move
D. none of above from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the
233. Which of the following is the complemen- cytoplasm of a cell, an RNA copy of a DNA
tary mRNA strand for this strand of DNA? strand must be made. This process, which
ATT-GCG-AGT takes place in the cell nucleus, is called
A. UAA-CGC-TCA A. translation
B. UAA-GCG-UCA B. mutation
C. UAA-CGC-AGT C. DNA replication
D. UAA-CGC-UCA D. transcription

239. what does tRNA do? D. A peptide bond forms between amino
A. carry info from genes to ribosomes acids

B. carry amino acids to ribosomes 245. What term describes when mRNA is read
C. help with RNA splicing 3 consecutive letters (bases) at a time and
it codes for a single amino acid?
D. make up ribosomes
A. Codon
240. The initial RNA formed is
B. Anticodon
A. Mature RNA
C. Polypeptide
B. ScRNA
D. Gene
C. heterogenous nuclear RNA
246. Which portions of the mRNA are kept in
D. tRNA
the final mRNA during processing?
241. The Central Dogma of molecular biology A. exons
describes the flow of genetic information
in what order? B. introns
A. Protein to RNA to DNA C. mutations
B. DNA to RNA to Protein D. microns

C. RNA to Protein to DNA 247. Translation happens in the-
D. DNA to Protein to RNA A. Nucleus
242. The twisted ladder shape of DNA is B. Ribosome
known as a C. Chloroplast
A. Double Helix D. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. Triple Helix
248. What is the group of 3 unpaired bases
C. Single Helix that is complentary with the mRNA and
D. Triple Axel is how tRNA is able to deliver the correct
amino acid to the ribosome?
243. The TATA box is found
A. Codon
A. in the promoter region of the DNA
B. Anticodon
B. in the promoter region of the RNA
C. Polypeptide
C. in the terminator region of the DNA
D. Gene
D. in the terminator region of the RNA
249. This is a DNA strand. Which is the mRNA
244. Which of the following occurs first in
strand that would be made through tran-
translation?
scription? TACGAA
A. The small ribosomal subunit binds to
A. AUGCUU
mRNA
B. ATGCTT
B. The large ribosomal subunit binds to
mRNA C. GCATCC
C. tRNA binds to the mRNA D. GCAUCC

250. True or false:RNA is double-stranded. B. DNA polymerase

A. true C. ligase
B. false D. primase
C. it depends on the type 256. Identify the INSERTION mutation form
D. none of above the following:ATG CCA AAT
251. Which bases are complementary in RNA? A. ATG TCA AAT
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. A-T B. ATG CCT AAA T
B. A-U C. ATC CA AT
C. T-C D. ATG CCA AAT
D. G-A 257. When the RNA gets to the ribosomes,
which molecule transfers to the mRNA to
252. Which of the follwoing best describes the
amino acids?
significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic
promoters? A. DNA
A. it is the recognition site for a specific B. mRNA
transcription factor C. tRNA
B. it sets the reading frame of the mRNA D. Replicated RNA
C. it is the recognition site for ribosomal
258. What is the function of the poly-A tail in
binding
mRNA?
D. it signals the end of the nucleotide se-
A. to add modified guanin to the 3’ end of
quence of the gene
the mRNA
253. The mRNA has bases similar to strand B. to indicate the site of translational ter-
of DNA mination
A. anti sense C. to code for the binding of RNA poly-
B. sense merase to the DNA
C. non coding D. to help protect the mRNA from degra-
dation by hydrolytic enzymes
D. template
259. What happens to the mRNA sequence af-
254. There are codons that code for amino
ter it has been synthesized?
acids and the other 3 code for
A. stays in the nucleus
A. 20 stop codons
B. 61 stop codons B. leaves the cell
C. 20 start codons C. leaves the nucleus
D. 61 start codons D. separates into smaller pieces
255. In DNA replication, which enzyme is 260. DNA and RNA are made of what
responsible for building the new DNA monomers?
strand? A. amino acids
A. helicase B. nucleotides

C. monsaccharides 266. Which of the following is not required for

D. lipids Translation

A. Amino Acids
261. Which is the best description of a gene?
B. tRNA
A. a DNA sequence that is expressed to
form a functional product; either RNA or C. Chloroplast
polypeptide D. Ribosome
B. a DNA subunit that codes for a single
267. What codon is required for a protein to
complete protein
be synthesized?
C. a DNA-RNA sequence combination
A. UAG
that results in an enzymatic product
B. UGG
D. a descrete unit of hereditary informa-
tion that consists of a sequence of amino C. AUG
acids D. UAA
262. An mRNA molecule is produced in the step 268. Which of these contains the anti-codon?
of protein synthesis:
A. mRNA
A. replication
B. tRNA
B. transcription
C. rRNA
C. duplication
D. Your little sister
D. translation
269. Why must transcription occur where DNA
263. what does a promoter do? can be found?
A. it allows a gene to be transcribed
A. because DNA can’t leave the nucleus
B. it creates a DNA segment
B. because DNA polymerase is found in
C. it is another word for ribosomes the nucleus
D. it is another word for RNA C. because ribosomes are in the nucleus
264. What bonds hold DNA bases together? D. because helicase unzips the DNA
A. nitrogen bonds 270. RNA Polymerase’s role in protein synthe-
B. hydrogen bonds sis is to
C. phosphorus bonds A. Build the mRNA molecule
D. carbon bonds B. Build the Ribosome
C. Build the Amino Acids
265. Which of the following statements best
summarizes the first step of protein syn- D. Build the t-RNA
thesis?
271. The template strand of DNA will be
A. mRNA to protein to the RNA transcribed
B. ribosomes to nucleus A. identical
C. protien to DNA B. identical except T is replaced with U in
D. DNA to mRNA RNA

C. identical except U is replaced with T in 277. What is the central dogma of molecular
RNA biology?
D. complementary A. RNA-protein-DNA
272. Which of the following is the abbrevia- B. RNA-DNA-protein

tion for aspartic acid? C. DNA-protein-RNA
A. ASN D. DNA-RNA-protein
B. ALA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
278. In comparison to a DNA strand, a
C. ASP A. mRNA strand is shorter and single
D. ILE stranded
B. mRNA strand is longer and single
273. RNA must be edited before it can be used
stranded
to make proteins. Which two pieces are
added on to a pre-RNA transcript? C. mRNA strand is shorter and double
stranded
A. an intron and an exon
D. mRNA strand is longer and double
B. a poly A tail and a methyl G cap
stranded
C. a helicase and a polymerase
279. what does rRNA do?
D. two uracils
A. carry info from genes to ribosomes
274. What enzyme copies retrovirus RNA into
B. carry amino acids to ribosomes
host DNA?
C. help with RNA splicing
A. RNA polymerase
B. Reverse transcriptase
C. helicase 280. “A” are added to the nascent RNA in the
3’ end during Polyadenylation by enzyme
D. topoisomerase
A. Poly A polymerase
275. What is translation? B. RNA Polymerase
A. The ribosome reads mRNA and brings C. Taq Polymerase
the correct amino acids to build a protein
D. DNA polymerase
B. A DNA template is used to create
mRNA 281. Codes for a single protein
C. An exact copy of DNA is made A. DNA
D. A mistake is made in the original DNA B. Gene
276. The beginning of a gene on a DNA C. Chromosome

molecule is called the D. Chromatin
A. start codon 282. When does RNA processing occur?
B. stop codon A. Before transcription in eukaryotic cells
C. promoter B. After transcription but before transla-
D. terminator tion in eukaryotic cells

C. Before transcription in prokaryotic 288. The job of tRNA is to

cells A. carry amino acids to the ribosomes

D. After transcription but before transla- B. carry ribisomes to the ER
tion in prokaryotic cells
C. carry glucose to mitochondria
283. Where is DNA and RNA made in prokary- D. carry mRNA out of the nucleus
otes?
A. nucleus 289. Every three letters (example:ATC) in DNA
codes for what? ?
B. cytoplasm
A. Amino Acid
C. mitochondria
B. Nucleotide
D. ER
C. Lipid
284. The expressed sequences of eukaryotic D. Carbohydrate
pre-mRNAs are known as
A. Exons 290. Genes are made from CODING sections of
DNA. What are these sections called?
B. Introns
A. Exons
C. Interwening sequences
B. Introns
D. regulatory sequences
C. Junk DNA
285. Identify the DELETION mutation form the D. Exon Mobil Gas
following:ATG CCA AAT
A. ATG TCA AAT 291. Which of the following are active sites of
the ribosome?
B. ATG CCT AAA T
A. B site
C. ATC CA AT
B. P site
D. ATG CCA AAT
C. A site
286. The site where transcription begins D. E site
A. Rho factor
292. In the lac operon the inducer is
B. In nucleus
A. allolactose
C. promoter
B. glucose
D. template
C. galactose
287. All macro-molecules are made of build- D. all of the above
ing blocks called monomers. What are the
building blocks of nucleic acids, like DNA 293. What step in protein synthesis comes be-
and RNA, called? fore translation?
A. nucleotides A. mRNA is used to make a protein
B. nitrogen bases B. mRNA is made from DNA
C. sugar-phosphate C. Ribosome makes protein
D. A-T-C-G D. tRNA connects to mRNA

294. Select which nitrogenous bases can be 300. During tRNA brings amino acids to a
found in RNA. (Select all that apply) ribosome where they are assembled into a
A. Adenine polypeptide.
B. Thymine A. RNA processing
C. Uracil B. Transcription
D. Cytosine C. Translation
E. Guanine D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
295. TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence:TACGTTACT 301. What is the role of operons in prokaryote
A. AUGCAAUGA gene expression?
B. ATGCAATGA A. It makes the genes prokaryotes be
C. AUGGATUGA turned on
D. TACGTTACT B. It accounts for the regulation of gene

activity in response to the needs of the
296. What is the term for a three-nucleotide cells
sequence that codes for an amino acid?
C. To make DNA for the gene
A. base
D. To make the gene turn of and off
B. codon
C. amine 302. The two types of folding in the secondary
structure are
D. serine
A. alpha-helix & beta-pleated sheets
297. The segment of mRNA that is cut out is
B. polypeptide & nucleotide
called the
A. exon C. globular & fibrous
B. intron D. none of above

C. cap 303. How many nucleotides equal 1 amino
D. tail acid?
298. The “on/off” switch for an operon is A. 1

called the B. 2
A. promoter C. 3
B. repressor D. 4
C. operator
304. Which of the following shows the steps
D. gene of translation in proper order from start to
299. What is transcription? finish?
A. converting information from DNA into A. Initiation to Elongation to Termination
mRNA B. Elongation to Initiation to Termination
B. converting amino acids into a protein C. Termination to Initiation to Elongation
C. process of copying DNA
D. changing carbohydrates into lipids D. none of above

305. This molecule carries genetic information 310. What best describes the central dogma of
from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the molecular biology?
cytoplasm. A. anticodons translate into proteins

A. rRNA B. DNA has to be transcribed to RNA in
B. tRNA order to make proteins in the ribosomes
C. DNA is replicated in the nucleus
C. mRNA
D. none of above
D. DNA
311. How many amino acids are found on one
306. The RNAs required in the cytoplasm for tRNA?
protein synthesis A. 20
A. rRNA and tRNA B. 4
B. rRNA and mRNA C. 1
C. mRNA and tRNA D. 3
D. rRNA, mRNA and tRNA 312. RNA is read in sections called:

A. Triplets
307. In eukaryotic RNA processing, a poly-A
B. Genes
tail is added to
C. Codons
A. 3’ end
D. Anticodons
B. 5’ end
313. The strand on which the mRNA is con-
C. both the 5’ and 3’ ends structed
D. none of above A. template antisense
B. coding strand
308. What is a ribozyme?
C. sense strand
A. enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
D. RNA strand
B. RNA with enzymatic activity
314. Which of the following is the site of tran-
C. an enzyme that catlyzes the associa- scription?
tion between the large and small riboso-
mal subunits A. vacuole
B. lysosome
D. an enzyme tha synthesizes RNA
primers during DNA replication C. nucleus
D. ribosome
309. Flexible base pairing between some tR-
NAs & codons where 3rd base can mis- 315. The production of mature mRNA in eu-
match? karyotes involves
A. cutting introns out and spicing exons
A. wobble
together
B. gobble B. adding the 5’ cap
C. autonomy C. adding the 3’ poly A tail
D. mismatch D. all of these are correct

316. Where in the cell does the second step of C. glucose

protein synthesis occur?
D. fructose
A. in the DNA
B. in the nucleus 322. What sugar is in DNA?
C. in the Golgi Apparatus A. deoxyribose
D. at the ribosome B. ribose

C. oxyribose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
317. Transcription in eukaryotes requires
which of the following in addition to RNA D. deoxyose
polymerase?
323. What enzyme does transcription use?
A. the protein product of the promotor
A. DNA polymerase
B. start and stop codons
B. ligase
C. ribosomes and tRNA
D. several transcription factors C. RNA polymerase
D. helicase
318. Overall, protein synthesis consists of
these steps 324. Some eukaryotic rRNAs are self-splicing
A. DNA synthesis, RNA synthesis and indicates that RNA can act as an
transcription A. ribosomes
B. transcription and translation B. ribozyme
C. DNA synthesis, transcription and
C. proteinases
translation
D. none of above
319. What is the monomer (building block) of 325. Which RNA carries the message?
proteins? A. mRNA
A. Monosacchrides B. rRNA
B. Polysaccharides C. tRNA
C. amino acids D. none of above
D. Triglycerides
326. TRANSLATION:Place the order of events
320. What is the correct sequence? forcreating a protein in order (1-
A. RNA → DNA → Protein 4)1.Polypeptide chain is created2.mRNA
attaches to ribosome3.tRNA connects
B. Protein → RNA → DNA
second amino acid by peptide bond to
C. DNA → RNA → Protein 4.codons are continuously read by tRNA
D. DNA → Protein → RNA A. 1, 3, 4, 2
321. RNA contains which sugar? B. 2, 3, 4, 1
A. deoxyribose C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. Ribose D. 1, 4, 2, 3

327. What is the name of the second step of 333. In eukaryotes protein synthesis happens
protein synthesis? in

A. transcription A. cytoplasm
B. translation B. nucleus
C. transportation C. cytoplasm and nucleus
D. protein synthesis D. none
328. The backbone of DNA molecule is made 334. Where does Transcription take place in
of: eukaryotic cells?
A. A-T-C-G A. Inside the nucleus
B. mRNA B. Inside the cytoplasm
C. sugar and phosphate C. Inside the Ribosome
D. ribose sugar D. Inside the Rough ER
335. This enzyme matches mRNA bases with

329. In this type of mutation, a base pair is
the DNA bases in transcription is called
replaced by another:
A. mRNA
A. substitution
B. Peptide Bond
B. deletion
C. RNA Polymerase
C. addition
D. Exon
D. none of above
336. Which type of RNA carries an amino acid
330. In eukaryotes, DNA is located in the to the ribosome according to codons on the
A. cytoplasm mRNA?
B. nucleus A. mRNA
C. cell membrane B. rRNA
D. ribosome C. tRNA
D. none of above
331. In prokaryotes, DNA is located in the
A. cytoplasm 337. When these bond together, they form a
protein
B. nucleus
A. Amino Acids
C. cell membrane
B. Peptide Bonds
D. ribosome
C. Ribose
332. Most gene regulation happens at which D. Nucleotides
step along the way?
338. Which of the following is the step of
A. translation
translation where the tRNA picks up an
B. transcription amino acid in the cytoplasm?
C. signal transduction A. tRNA charging
D. DNA replication B. initiation

C. elongation 344. What must happen to a newly made

polypeptide before it can be secreted from
D. termination
a cell?
339. What happens to the mRNA sequence A. it must be translated by a ribosome
after it has been synthesized and pro- that remains free of attachment to the ER
cessed?
B. its signal sequence must target it to
A. stays in the nucleus the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. leaves the cell C. Its signal sequence must be cleaved
C. leaves the nucleus off
D. separates into smaller pieces D. Its signal sequence must target it to

the plasma membrane
340. Which of these is correct?
345. The parts of a gene that do NOT code for
A. DNA → mRNA → polypeptide chain amino acids in a protein are called
B. DNA → polypeptide chain → mRNA A. introns
C. mRNA → DNA → polypeptide chain B. exons
D. polypeptide chain → DNA → mRNA C. codons
341. What molecule’s codons are typically D. anticodons
used to find amino acids on a Codon
Chart? 346. In transcription, RNA polymerase
matches an A in DNA with a
A. DNA
A. U
B. mRNA
B. T
C. tRNA
C. G
D. rRNA
D. C
342. There are a total of different amino
acids 347. If a mutation happens, it can cause
A. 20 A. formation of incorrect protein
B. 1 B. change of traits
C. 4 C. superpowers
D. unlimited D. both a and b are correct
343. The enzyme that unzips DNA during tran- 348. What cell structure serves as the site of
scription translation?
A. DNA polymeras A. smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. RNA polymerase B. nucleus
C. RNA primase C. ribosome
D. Ligase D. lysosome

349. Which of the following would copmlete 354. What is the name given to the first step
the mRNA strand for CAG (DNA) of protein synthesis?

A. CAG A. transcription
B. AUG B. translation
C. translocation
C. GUC
D. protein synthesis
D. UAC
355. Where is DNA and RNA made?
350. Which of the following is the step of tran-
A. nucleus
scription where the RNA strand is made?
B. cytoplasm
A. termination
C. mitochondria
B. initiation
D. ER
C. elongation
356. How does genetic information flow in a
D. none of above RETROVIRUS?
351. have well defined 3’ ends terminat- A. DNA to RNA to Protein

ing in poly(A) tails of 250 nucleotides. B. RNA to DNA to RNA to Protein
A. mRNA C. Protein to DNA to RNA
B. tRNA D. none of above
C. rRNA 357. The final product resulting from the cellu-

lar process of transcription is ?
A. An exact copy of DNA
352. Which RNA is the transcript from DNA B. A complimentary strand of mRNA
template?
C. A complimentary strand of tRNA
A. mRNA D. A strand of multiple amino acids held
B. rRNA together with peptide bonds
C. tRNA 358. mRNA is read in chunks of three, called
D. none of above
A. quadralets
353. What is the correct sequence of pro- B. anticodons
tein synthesis? A. tRNA brings amino
acids to the ribosomeB. DNA molecules C. codons
serve as the templates for mRNA.C. mRNA D. capsids
molecules move to ribosomes.D. Polypep-
359. Which of the following steps of transla-
tides are formed on ribosomes.
tion does NOT require energy?
A. A-B-C-D
A. tRNA charging
B. B-C-A-D B. initiation
C. C-B-A-D C. elongation
D. D-B-A-C D. termination

360. Cells secrete proteins, often as enzymes, 365. Protein synthesis is a process that uses
that have been engineered or directed by DNA, RNA and ribosomes to build proteins,
the DNA in the nucleus. Which process are The protein are built from their building
involved in protein synthesis? blocks. What are the building blocks of
A. transfer to RNA, then to amino acids proteins called?
B. transcription into RNA, then to amino A. nucleotides
acids B. proteins
C. replication of DNA, then transcription
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. amino acids
into enzymes
D. carbohydrates
D. translation into RNA, then replication
into DNA
366. If the coding strand of DNA has the fol-
361. What is the name of the stretch of DNA lowing sequence:AGTCAGAwhat would be
where RNA polymerase binds? the sequence of the transcribed RNA?
A. operator A. AGUCAGA
B. promoter B. UCAGUCU
C. enhancer C. ACUGACA
D. origin
D. UGTCUGU
362. A protein that binds to the operator and
blocks the RNA polymerase 367. The process of copying a gene’s DNA se-
quence into a sequence of RNA is called:
A. regulator
A. Transcription
B. repressor
C. activator B. Translation
D. corepressor C. Splicing
363. what does mRNA do? D. Protein Synthesis

A. carry info from genes to ribosomes 368. The enzyme that creates m-RNA
B. carry amino acids to ribosomes A. RNA primase
C. help with RNA splicing
B. DNA polymerase
C. RNA polymerase
364. Which is the correct sequence to making
D. Helicase
a protein?
A. DNA → mRNA → Amino Acid (polypep- 369. This is added to the mRNA to help it de-
tide) chain grade slower thus increasing the number
B. DNA → Amino Acid (polypeptide) of times it is translated
chain → mRNA A. G cap
C. mRNA → DNA → Amino Acid B. poly A tail
(polypeptide) chain
C. introns
D. Amino Acid (polypeptide) chain →
DNA → mRNA D. exons

6.5 Molecular Basis of Inheritance 637
370. A special initiator tRNA binds to the , B. Guanine

which causes translation to begin on the C. Uracil
mRNA.

D. Cytosine
A. stop codon
B. promoter 373. Where does RNA processing take place?
C. terminator A. Nucleus
D. start codon B. Cytoplasm
371. What is the function of DNA helicase? C. Both of these
A. Attach new nucleotides D. none of above

B. To unzip the strands of DNA 374. Which of these is true?
C. Remove nucleotides A. DNA has 2 strands; RNA has 1 strand
D. To perform crossing over B. DNA has 2 strands; RNA has 2 strands
372. In RNA, Adenine matches up with: C. DNA has 1 strand; RNA has 1 strand
A. Thymine D. DNA has 1 strand; RNA has 2 strands
6.5 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1. eRF1 is the release factor in eukaryotes C. ER
that requires
D. Ribosomes
A. ATP for its binding to ribosome
B. GTP for its binding to ribosomes 4. First experimental proof for semi conser-
vative DNA replication was shown in
C. ATP and GTP for its binding to ribo-
some A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Mn for its binding to ribosomes B. Escherichia coli

C. Neurospora chrasa
2. If there is an error that occurs in DNA repli-
cation, a nuclease can cut out and replace D. Rattus rattus
damaged stretches of DNA in a process
called what? 5. what scientist(s) used bacteriophages to
show that DNA is what carries our genetic
A. Excision Repair
material
B. Cell Regeneration
A. chargraff
C. Protein Synthesis
B. hershey and chase
D. Strand Binding
C. Rosalind Franklin
3. Splicing is one of the steps of post- D. watson and crick
transcriptional modifications which occurs
in 6. Statement which is incorrect on Polyadeny-
A. Nucleus lation is
B. Cytoplasm A. independent on the DNA template

B. 200-300 adenine chain is added as a 12. During proofreading, which of the follow-
tail ing enzymes reads the DNA?
C. it occurs in the 3’ end of the mRNA A. primase
D. None of the above B. topoisomerase
7. Which of the following is the site for at- C. DNA polymerase

tachment of amino acid in tRNA molecule? D. helicase
A. 5’ end 13. The net electric charge on DNA and his-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 3’ end tones is
C. anti-codon loop A. both positive
D. None of the above B. both positive
C. negative and positive, respectively
8. What protein is DNA wrapped around for
packing in preparation for cell division? D. zero.
A. Histone 14. Translation occurs in
B. DNA A. nucleus
C. RNA B. cytoplasm
D. Primer C. nucleolus
9. where translation takeplace D. lysosome
A. Ribosome 15. Which of the following statement is NOT

true regarding transcription/RNA synthe-
B. Nucleus
sis?
C. Cytoplasm
A. RNA synthesis occurs in the nucleus
D. Mitochondria
B. Unlike DNA synthesis, the only selec-
10. Which of the following has dual func- tive sequence of DNA is transcribed to
tions? RNA
A. AUG C. RNA synthesis requires a short stretch
of RNA primers
B. ACU
D. DNA sequences, specific proteins, and
C. AUC
small RNAs regulate RNA synthesis.
D. AUU
16. If there was a mutation in the gene that
11. In prokaryotes, the initiation factors (IF- coded for RNA primase, then what would
1, IF-2, and IF-3) are involved in the ini- most likely happen?
tiation of protein synthesis. Which of the A. RNA bases would start to be found in
following factors facilitates the initiation the DNA
codon?
B. DNA wouldn’t unwind
A. IF-1
C. The lagging strand would elongate, but
B. IF-2 the leading strand wouldn’t
C. IF-3 D. DNA polymerase would be unable to
D. All of the above initiate replication

17. -3’ end of DNA strand is called C. Both statement I and II are correct
A. sense strand D. Both statement I and II are incorrect

B. coding strand
23. Which of the following is the FALSE state-
C. non-template strand ment of the Lactose operon
D. All of the above
A. Lac Operon is activated when glucose
18. what breaks the hydrogen bonds is absent
A. helicase B. Lac Operon is activated when lactose
B. polymerase is present
C. topoisomerase C. Lac Operon is activated when glucose

is absent and lactose is present
D. ligase
D. Lac Operon is activated when glucose
19. Which of the following ensure stable bind- is present and lactose is absent
ing of RNA polymerase at the promoter
site? 24. The building of the new “daughter” strand
A. DNA photolyase of DNA cannot just start on its own. It re-
quires an initial nucleotide strand of RNA
B. Sigma factor
only 5-10 nucleotides called what?
C. DNA glycosylase
A. RNA Polymerase
D. RecA
B. Leading Strand Nucleotides
20. Identify the type of RNA which is not in-
volved in gene expression C. DNA Primer
A. rRNA D. Helicase
B. mRNA 25. The promoter site and the terminator site
C. tRNA for transcription are located at:
D. hnRNA A. 3’ (downstream) end and 5’ (upstream)
end, respectively of the transcription unit
21. To initiate translation, the wiRNA first
bind to B. 5’ (upstream) end and 3’ (downstream)
A. the smaller ribosomal sub-unit end, respectively of the transcription unit
B. the larger ribosomal sub-unit C. the 5’ (upstream) end

C. the whole ribosome D. the 3’ (downstream) end
D. no such specificity exists.
26. In eukaryotes, in order to initiate tran-
22. Read the given statements and select the scription
correct option.Statement I:Prokaryotes A. RNA strand must be present
have single origin of replication in their
genome.Statement II:QB bacteriophage B. RNA polymerase must be present
has RNA as their genetic material. C. Core promoter sequence must be
A. Only statement I is incorrect present
B. Only statement II is incorrect D. None of these

27. Which scientist(s) determined that DNA C. tRNA

replication was a semi-conservative pro- D. all
cess?
A. Meselson & Stahl 33. DNA double helix does not have which of
the following?
B. Griffith
A. antiparallel configuration
C. Hershey & Chase
B. complementary base pairing
D. Chargaff
C. major and minor grooves
NARAYAN CHANGDER
28. Which of the following is Circular DNA-(D) D. uracil
All
34. Name the RNA involved in structural and
A. Mitochondrial DNA
catalytic function during translation
B. Chloroplast DNA
A. mRNA
C. Plasmid DNA
B. rRNA
D. All C. tRNA
29. DNA replication begins at particular sites D. RNAi
called what?
35. Which of the following characteristics of
A. Replication Forks the structure of DNA allows it to carry a
B. Origins of Replication large amount of hereditary information?
C. DNA Primer A. the sequence of bases
D. Leading Strand B. phosphate-sugar backbones
30. Which of the following RNA molecules C. complementary pairing of bases

serves as an adaptor molecule during pro- D. different five-carbon sugars
teins synthesis
36. How many base pairs present in linker
A. rRNA DNA?
B. mRNA A. 54
C. tRNA B. 60
D. tRNA and mRNA C. 55
31. If the sequence of the 5’-3’ strand is AAT- D. 58
GCTAC, then the complementary sequence
37. In eukaryotes, three different RNA poly-
has the following sequence:
merases are involved in the synthesis of
A. 3’-AATGCTAC-5’ a different class of RNAs namely:rRNA,
B. 3’-CATCGTAA-5’ tRNA, and mRNA. The RNA polymerase
that is required for the synthesis of mRNA
C. 3’-TTACGATG-5’
is
D. 3’-GTAGCATT-5’ A. RNA polymerase I
32. A + G = C + T is applicable to B. RNA polymerase II
A. dsDNA C. RNA polymerase III
B. rna D. None of the above

38. If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA 43. How many base pairs present in core of
is 5’-AUG-3’ the sequence of tRNA pairing nucleosome?
with it must be

A. 146
A. 5’-UAC-3’ B. 200
B. 5’-CAU-3’ C. 156
C. 5’-AUG-3’ D. 300
D. 5’-GUA-3’
44. What is central dogma
39. With regard to mature mRNA in eukary-
A. Formation of RNA from DNA and for-
otes:
mation of proteins from RNA
A. exons and introns do not appear in the
B. Formation of protein from DNA and for-
mature RNA
mation of RNA from protein
B. exons appear but introns do not ap-
C. Formation of DNA from RNA and for-
pear in the mature RNA
mation of protein from DNA
C. introns appear but exons do not ap-
pear in the mature RNA
D. both exons and introns appear in the 45. DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are
mature RNA linked to each other by 3’-5’ phosphodi-
ester bond. To prevent polymerisation of
40. What are the labels and basic parts of a nucleotides, which of the following modifi-
nucleotide (the monomer of nucleic acids). cations would you choose?
Describe their shape.
A. Replace purine with pyrimidines
A. Sugar (Circle), Phosphate (Rectangle),
Base (Circle) B. Remove/Replace 3’ OH group in deoxy
ribose
B. Phosphate (Circle), Sugar (Pentagon),
Base (Rectangle) C. Remove/Replace 2’ OH group with
some other group in deoxy ribose
C. DNA (Triangle), Sulfur (Hexagon),
Base (Rectangle) D. Both ‘B’ and ‘C’
D. none of above 46. During DNA replication which of the fol-
lowing does not act as substrates?
41. True replication of DNA is possible due to
A. dUTP
A. Complementary base pairing rule
B. dGTP
B. Hydrogen bonding.
C. dCTP
C. Phosphate backbone.
D. dATP
47. What two molecules make up the back-
42. In eukaryotes, the process of processing
bone of the structure of DNA with the
of primary transcript involves
bases facing inwards? Their efforts also
A. removal of introns determined that the two strands had what
B. capping at 5’end orientation?
C. tailing (polyadenlation) at 3’ end A. Phosphate and Sugar, Parallel
D. all of these. B. Phosphate and Sugar, Antiparallel

C. Phosphate and Carbon, Parallel C. aminoacyl mRNA synthetase

D. Sulfur and Sugar, Antiparallel D. aminoacyl rRNA synthetase
48. RNA polymerase I, transcribes all the 54. If bacterial double stranded DNA with 15N
given types of RNA, except undergoes replication twice in a normal
A. 5.8 s rRNA medium of nitrogen (14N), then which of
the following results
B. 18 s rRNA
A. Half contain 15N in DNA.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 5 s rRNA
B. All four contain 15N in DNA.
D. 28 s rRNA
C. None contains 15N in DNA.
49. Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of D. 1/4th contains 15N in DNA.
a DNA strand in the 5’ → 3’ direction?
A. DNA polymerase I 55. Who amongst the following scientist had
no contribution in the development of the
B. DNA polymerase III
double helix model for the structure of DN
C. helicase A?
D. topoisomerase A. Rosalind Franklin
50. end of a polynucleotide chain contains B. Maurice Wilkins
A. Hydroxyl group C. Erwin Chargaff
B. Phosphate group D. Meselson and Stahl
C. Carboxyl group 56. What is the function of lactose in lac
D. Ethyl group operon
A. to bind with repressor protein
51. The isotopes used by Hershey and Chase
to prove that DNA is the genetic material B. To initiate the transcription
R C. To synthesize structural genes
A. P32 and S35 D. All of the above
B. P35 and S32
57. Transcription unit
C. N15 and N15
A. starts with TATA box
D. N14 and N15
B. starts with pallendrous regions and
52. LacZ encodes for a protein ends with rho factor.
A. transacetylase C. starts with promoter region and ends
B. beta-galactosidase in terminator region
C. repressor protein D. starts with CAAT region.
D. permease 58. What does DNA have that RNA doesn’t
53. The enzyme involved in amino acid activa- A. Presence of thymine

tion is B. Presence of deoxyribose
A. ATP synthase C. Presence of ribose
B. aminoacyl tRNA synthetase D. Both a and b

59. Switching the position of promoter with C. operator

terminator will cause all of the following
D. promoter.
variation, except the

A. Change in nucleotide sequence of cod- 64. ABCDEFGH. If it is changed to ACGH, this
ing and template strands is acase of
B. Change in the polarity of coding and A. frame-shift mutations
template strands
B. deletions
C. Change in the nucleotide sequence of
transcribed RNA C. inversions
D. Change in the sequence of amino acids D. duplication

in synthesized
65. In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked
60. During translation, proteins are synthe- together by:
sised A. glycosidic bonds
A. by ribosomes using the information
B. phosphodiester bonds
from DNA
B. by lysosomes using the information C. peptide bonds
from DNA D. hydrogen bonds
C. by ribosomes using the information
from mRNA 66. Shine Dalgarno sequence is located six to
ten bases upstream of the initiation codon
D. by ribosomes using the information of mRNA. It consists of
from rRNA
A. Purine-rich nucleotide sequence
61. In prokaryotes, the first amino acid in the
B. Pyrimidine rich nucleotide sequence
polypeptide chain is
A. methionine C. Uracil-containing nucleotide sequence
B. N-methyl methionine D. None of the above

C. N-formyl methionine 67. Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a
D. All of these class of sugars called:
62. What is the function of primer A. trioses

A. to help DNA polymerase for initiation B. hexoses
B. To help RNA polymerase for initiation C. pentoses
C. To help DNA polymerase for termina- D. polysaccharides
tion
68. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III cataly-
D. To help RNA polymerase for termina-
ses the synthesis of
tion
A. 5 S rRNA, tRNA & SnRNA
63. During expression of an operon, RNA poly-
merase binds to B. mRNA, HnRNA & SnRNA
A. structural gene C. 28 S rRNA, 18 S rRNA & 5 S rRNA
B. regulator gene D. All types of rRNA & tRNA

69. DNA fragments are A. ATGCATGCA

A. Positively charged B. AUGCAUGCA
B. Negatively charged C. TACTACGT
C. Neutral D. UACGUACGU
D. none of above 75. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in
one strand, because:
70. The bacterial strains change from one form
A. DNA molecule being synthesised is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
to another, from R strain into S strain.
This is known as very long
A. Transcription B. DNA dependent DNA polymearse catal-
yses polymerisation only in one direction
B. Translation (5’ → 3’)
C. Transduction C. it is a more efficient process
D. Transformation D. DNA ligase has to have a role
71. The distance between a base pair in a helix 76. Why does the DNA double helix have a uni-
is approximately form diameter?
A. 0.34 nm A. Purines pair with pyrimidines.
B. 3.4 nm B. C nucleotides pair with A nucleotides.
C. 34 nm C. Deoxyribose sugars bind with ribose
D. 0.034 nm sugars.
D. Nucleotides bind with nucleoside
72. The semiconservative model of DNA repli-
triphosphates.
cation tells us what about the end results
of the process? 77. The experiments by Hershey and Chase
A. 1/2 of each is the original helped confirm that DNA was the heredi-
tary material on the basis of the finding
B. 1/4 of each is the original that:
C. 1/8 of each is the original A. radioactive phage were found in the
D. 1/6 of each is the original pellet
B. radioactive cells were found in the su-
73. Which of the following components is not
pernatant
involved during the formation of the repli-
cation fork? C. radioactive sulfur was found inside the
cell
A. single-stranded binding proteins
D. radioactive phosphorus was found in
B. helicase
the cell
C. origin of replication
78. DNA is acidic due to
D. ligase
A. Pyrimidine
74. If the sequence of bases in one strand B. Phosphate group
of DNA is ATGCATGCA what would be
the sequence of bases on complementary C. Purine
strand? D. Sugar

79. The main enzyme in DNA replication is 84. The enzyme DNA dependent RNA poly-
merase catalyses the polymerisation reac-
A. DNAse
tion in direction.

B. Proteinase
A. only 5’ → 3’
C. RNAse
B. only 3’ → 5’
D. DNA Polymerase C. both (a) and (b)
80. The function of DNA polymerase I is to D. none of these
A. add nucleotide complements to the 85. The steps (rungs) of the DNA ladder are
growing strand. made up of
B. remove the RNA primer. A. phosphate groups
C. bond the Okazaki fragments together B. sugars
on the lagging strand. C. nitrogen bases
D. keep the DNA strands from reforming D. amino acids
after DNA helicase “unzips” them.
86. Name the person who discovered ‘nuclein’
81. Which of the following transcription termi-
A. Fredrick Miecher
nation technique has RNA dependent AT-
Pase activity? B. Watson
A. Rho dependent C. Crick
B. Intercalating agents D. Basel
C. Rho independent 87. Which of the following is true of DNA but

not of RNA?
D. Rifampcin
A. It is made up of a single strand of nu-
82. The main differences between RNA and cleotides.
DNA in its structure are B. It contains the sugar deoxyribose.
A. The pentose sugar in RNA is ribose and C. It leaves the nucleus to translate pro-
it contains thymine. tein.
B. The pentose sugar in RNA is deoxyri- D. It contains the nitrogen base uracil.
bose and it contains cytosine.
88. Polycistronic messenger RNA (mRNA) usu-
C. The pentose sugar in RNA is deoxyri-
ally occurs in
bose and it contains uracil.
A. bacteria
D. The pentose sugar in RNA is ribose and
it contains uracil. B. prokaryotes
C. eukaryotes
83. What is the function of tRNA
D. both (a) and (b)
A. To synthesize protein
89. If the sequence of bases in DNA is GCT-
B. To help in replication
TAGGCAA then the sequence of bases in
C. a binding site for RNA polymerase its transcript will be
D. To carry amino acids to ribosome A. GCTTAGGCAA

B. CGAATCCGTT 95. Which of the following statements is the

most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia?
C. CGAAUCCGUU
A. It cannot be treated with iron supple-
D. AACGGAUUCG.
ments.
90. Meselson and Stahl’s experiments proved B. It is a molecular disease.
that DNA replicates by which mode?
C. It conferes resistance to acquiring
A. conservative malaria.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. semi-conservative D. All of the above.
C. dispersive 96. DNA replication takes place at phase
D. none of the above of the cellcyle.
A. G1
91. Which of the following gene encodes for
repressor protein of lac operon B. S
A. LacI C. G2
B. LacZ D. M
C. LacY 97. Enzyme DNA polymerases catalyze poly-

D. LacA merization in
A. Ribonucleotides.
92. found that DNA was the reason that
B. Deoxyribonucleosides.
Griffith’s bacterial strains transformed
and killed the mice C. 3’-5’ direction.
A. Watson and Crick D. 5’-3’ direction.
B. Hershey and Chase 98. What are the subunits of DNA and their
C. Meselson and Stahl function?
D. Rosalind Franklin A. nucleotides that store information

B. monosaccharides that provide quick
93. Regulation of gene expression occurs at energy for the cell
the level of
C. lipids that store energy and provide in-
A. transcription sulation
B. processing/splicing D. proteins that provide the building
C. translation blocks for the structural components of or-
ganisms
D. all of these.
99. What is the nature of the strands of the
94. Which is correct about Primase- DNA duplex?
A. it is DNA polymerase A. Anti-parallel and complementary
B. it is RNA polymerase B. Identical and complementary
C. it is DNA dependent RNA polymerase C. Anti-parallel and non-complementary
D. both A and C D. Dissimilar and non-complementary

100. Adenylyl cyclase is an enzyme that is ac- C. CTP

tive in the absence of D. AMP

A. Allolactose
106. These proteins bind to single-stranded
B. Glucose DNA to help stabilize the structure during
C. Lactose replication.
D. cAMP A. Strand-binding Proteins
101. If the sequence of initrogen bases of the B. Transportation Proteins
coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit C. Leading Strand Proteins
is:5’-ATGAATG-3’, the sequence of bases D. Regular Proteins
in its RNA transcript would be
A. 5’-AUG A AUG-3’ 107. Which of the following cannot act as in-
ducer?
B. 5’-UACUU AC-3’
A. Glucose
C. 5’-CAUUCAU-3’
B. Lactose
D. 5’-GUAAGUA-3’.
C. Galactos
102. The fact that a purine base always paired
D. Both (a) and (c)
through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine
base leads to, in the DNA double helix: 108. Who’s work in x-ray crystallography
A. the antiparallel nature helped to discover the shape of the double
helix?
B. the semiconservative nature
A. Watson and Crick
C. uniform width throughout DNA
B. Avery
D. uniform length in all DNA
C. Griffith
103. Who proposed central dogma?
D. Rosalind Franklin
A. Crick
109. Which of the following statements is cor-
B. Beadle and Tatum
rect regarding ribosomes?
C. Klug
A. Most of a cell’s DNA molecule are
D. Watson and Crick stored there.
104. The sequence of structural genes in lac B. Complete polypeptide is released from
operon is there.
A. Lac A, Lac Y, Lac Z C. mRNAs are produced there.
B. Lac A, Lac Z, Lac Y D. DNA replication takes place there.
C. Lac Y, Lac A, Lac A 110. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added
D. Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A to the 5’ end of hnRNA in a process of
105. Which is the energy rich molecule re- A. splicing

quired for initiation of translation B. capping
A. ATP C. tailing
B. GTP D. none of these

111. Find out the wrongly matched pair with 116. In transcription in eukaryotes, heteroge-
respect to lac operon. nous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is tmascribed
by
A. Inducer-Lactose
A. RNA polymerase I
B. Lac z-codes for repressor protein
B. RNA polymerase II
C. Presence of glucose-Switches off the
lac operon C. RNA polymerase III
D. Repressor protein-Negative control of D. all of these.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
lac operon
117. Thymine makes up 42% of the nu-
112. How many types of DNA dependent RNA cleotides in a sample of DNA from an or-
polymerase catalysis transcription of all ganism. Approximately what percentage
RNA in prokaryotes? of the nucleotides in this sample will be
cytosine?
A. one
A. 42%
B. two
B. 31%
C. six
C. 16%
D. multiple
D. 8%
113. How introns are removed in eukaryotic
cells 118. Which of the following set of options is
used in translation?
A. Silencing
A. hnRNA, rRNA, tRNA
B. Capping
B. mRNA, tRNA, hnRNA
C. Tailing
C. mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
D. Splicing
D. hnRNA, tRNA, rRNA
114. In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by
using RNA as template. Such a DNA is 119. The supporting evidence for the semi con-
called servative replication of DNA are
A. A-DNA A. E. Coli culturing in 15N medium
B. B-DNA B. Radioactive thymidine usage in Vicia
faba plant’s DNA replication.
C. cDNA
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. rDNA
D. Protein syntehsis
115. The important enzyme required for the
process of transcrption from DNA to mRNA 120. Packing of DNA makes it difficult for
is what to occur?
A. DNA ligase A. Cell Regeneration
B. DNA polymerase B. Replication
C. RNA polymerase C. Making of Proteins
D. DNA helicase D. Building Template Strands

121. Mark the one, which is NOT the transcrip- 127. Which of the following is not the positive
tion inhibitor in eukaryotes. regulator of Lac operon

A. Actinomycin D A. Allolactose
B. Acridine dye B. Glucose
C. Rifampicin C. Lactose
D. Rho factor
D. cAMP
122. What is the fully processed hnRNA which
moves out of the nucleus is called 128. Who discovered the double helix?
A. mRNA A. Watson and Crick

B. rRNA B. Chargaff
C. tRNA C. Hershey Chase
D. snRNA D. Rosalind Franklin
123. Which of the following steps in transcrip- 129. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cy-
tion is catalysed by RNA polymerase? tosine, what will be the percentage of ade-
A. Initiation nine in it?
B. Elongation A. 20%
C. Termination B. 40%
D. All of the above C. 30%
124. The first genetic material could be D. 60%
A. protein
130. The capping of nucleotide prevents the
B. cabohydrates rapid cleavage of mRNA and catalyzed
C. DNA by guanylyltransferase. Identify the nu-
D. RAN cleotide cap that is attached at the 5’end
of mRNA.
125. The initial mechanism for repairing nu- A. 5-methyl guanosine
cleotide errors in DNA is
B. 7-methyl guanosine
A. mismatch repair
C. 5-acetyl guanosine
B. DNA polymerase proofreading
C. nucleotide excision repair D. 7-acetyl guanosine
D. thymine dimers 131. During transcription, the site of DNA

molecule at which RNA polymerase binds
126. In which direction does DNA replication
is called
take place?
A. 5’-3’ A. promoter
B. 3’-5’ B. regulator
C. 5’ C. receptor
D. 3’ D. enhancer.

132. The human chromosome with the highest D. Injection of live S strain into mice or
and least number of genes in them are re- heat killed S strain along with live R strain.
spectively:
137. A stretch of which nucleotide in the DNA
A. Chromosome 21 and Y
acts as the termination signal?
B. Chromosome 1 and X
A. Poly G
C. Chromosome 1 and Y
B. Poly C
D. Chromosome X and Y
C. Poly T
NARAYAN CHANGDER
133. For the backwards build, the new strand D. Poly A
must be built in chunks called what? What
joins them? 138. Which of the following does the enzyme
A. Okazaki Fragments, DNA Ligase primase synthesize?
B. Leading Strands, DNA Ligase A. DNA primer
C. Helicase, DNA Ligase B. RNA primer
D. Histones, DNA Ligase C. Okazaki fragments
134. In prokaryotes, which of the following D. phosphodiester linkage
statement is incorrect with relation to
transcription? 139. What is the work of the sigma factor in
transcription?
A. mRNA does not require processing to
become active A. Transcription initiation
B. Transcription and translation in same B. Helicase action

compartment C. Transcription elongation
C. mRNA requires processing to become D. Transcription termination
active
D. translation may begin much before 140. If the sequence of bases in coding strand
mRNA is fully transcribed. of DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of
bases in mRNA will be
135. These enzymes untwist and unzip the A. TAAGCTAC
double helix
B. UAAGCUAC
A. Helicase
C. ATTCGATG
B. DNA Primer
C. Histone D. AUUCGAUG.
D. RNA Polymerase 141. Who discovered the process of transfor-

mation and on which species was it done?
136. Which one of the following condition can
cause pneumonia in mice? A. Frederich Miescher, Streptococcus
pneumoniae
A. Injection of R strain into mice.
B. Frederick Griffith, Streptococcus pneu-
B. Injection of heat killed R strain into
moniae
mice along with heat killed S strain.
C. Injection of heat killed S strain into C. Alfred Hershey, T2 Bacteriophage
mice. D. Martha Chase, T2 bacteriophage

142. Who proposed the semiconservative na- 998 bases, how many codons will be al-
ture of DNA tered?

A. Fredrick griffith A. 11
B. Francis crick and watson B. 33
C. Darwin C. 333
D. Meselson and stahl D. 1
143. In eukaryotes, what is the DNA wrapped 148. During biochemical characterization of
around? transforming principle, the digestion with
A. single-stranded binding proteins did inhibit transformation suggesting
B. sliding clamp that DNA caused the transformation.
C. polymerase A. DNAase
D. histones B. Protease
C. RNAase
144. Which was the last human chromosome
to be completely sequenced? D. DNA polymerase
A. Chromosome 1 149. tRNA is present corresponding to each of
B. Chromosome 11 the following specified codons, except the
C. Chromosome 21 codon
D. Chromosome X A. UUU
B. UGG
145. In a n/RNA molecule, untranslated re-
gions (UTRs) are present at C. AUG
A. 5’-end (before start codon) D. UGA
B. 3’-end (after stop codon) 150. Which scientists used X-ray crystallogra-
C. both (a) and (b) phy to determine the helical structure of
D. 3’-end only. DNA?
A. Watson & Crick
146. The process of copying genetic informa-
tion from one strand of DNA to RNA is B. Hershey & Chase
termed as C. Meselson & Stahl
A. replication D. Franklin & Watkins
B. transcription
151. The pathogenic nature is provided by the
C. translation following part of pneumococcus
D. reverse transcription
A. Nucleoprotein
147. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that B. Protein coat
codes for a protein with 333 amino acids,
C. Cell wall
and the base at position 901 is deleted
such that the length of the RNA becomes D. Carbohydrate capsule

152. Which of the following rRNAs is not tran- C. termination

scribed by RNA polymerase I? D. Insertion
A. 28s
158. What enzyme builds the “start” se-
B. 18s
quence?
C. 5.8s
A. DNA Primer
D. 5s
B. RNA Polymerase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
153. Peptidyl transferase enzyme is present in C. Mutations
A. Messenger RNA D. Histones
B. Transfer RNA
159. The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at
C. Ribosomal RNA its
D. Small Nuclear RNA
A. 5’-end
154. Polysomes are B. 3’-end
A. Aggregation of ribosomes C. anticodon site
B. aggregation of lysosomes D. DHUloop.
C. mRNA molecules to which many ribo-
somes are attached simultaneously 160. Control of gene expression takes place at
the level of
D. all of these
A. DNA-replication
155. The lac operon consists of? B. transcription
A. 3 regulatory genes and 3 structural
C. translation
genes
D. none of the above.
B. 2 regulatory genes and 2 structural
genes 161. This set of experiments used bacterio-
C. One regulatory gene and 3 structural phages (viruses that invade bacteria) to
genes determine the DNA was the source of ge-
netic information.
D. 4 regulatory genes only
A. Watson and Crick Experiment
156. Commonly used vectors for human
genome sequencing are B. Griffith Experiment
A. T/A cloning vectors C. Hershey Chase Experiment
B. Expression vectors D. Avery Experiments

C. T-DNA 162. What is the source of genetic variation
D. BAC and YAC upon which natural selection operates?
A. Genetic Disorders
157. Which of these is not the step involved
transcription B. Mutations
A. Initiation C. Chromosomal Issues
B. elongation D. Inoperable Cells

163. Which is catalytically active- C. Meselson & Stahl

A. DNA D. Watson & Crick

B. RNA
169. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide. It
C. protein lacks the:
D. both B and C
A. base
164. One of the following is true with respect B. sugar
to AUG
C. phosphate group
A. It codes for methionine only
D. hydroxyl group
B. It is also an initiation codon
C. It codes for methionine in both 170. The RNA involved in transporting
prokaryotes and eukaryotes aminoacids and reads genetic code are
D. All of the above A. mRNA
165. Which of the following region(s) does not B. rRNA
code for any proteins? (i) Introns(ii) Ex- C. tRNA
ons(iii) VNTRs
D. RNAi
A. Only i and iii
B. Only ii and iii 171. Lac operon
C. Only i A. Is associated with anabolic process
D. All i, ii and iii B. Is a repressible operon
166. During translation, the role of enzyme C. Has three structural genes
peptidyl transferase is D. Is constituted by five structural genes
A. transfer of phosphate group
B. amino acid activation 172. In an analysis of the nucleotide composi-
tion of DNA, which of the following will be
C. peptide bond formation between adja- found in a given DNA molecule?
cent amino acids
A. A.A = C
D. binding of ribsosome subunits to
mRNA B. A = G and C = T
C. C.A + C = G + T
167. In DNA, Adenine bonds with
A. Guanine D. G + C = T + A
B. Thymine 173. On reaching the terminator region of tran-
C. Cytosine scription unit
D. Adenine A. nascent RNA falls off
168. Which scientists determined that DNA B. RNA polymerase falls off
was a double helix? C. Both nascent RNA and RNA Poly-
A. Franklin & Watkins merase falls off
B. Hershey & Chase D. None of the above

174. In post transcription stage, which among 179. Pick out the incorrect statement.
the following process is not involved. A. Frederich Miescher discovered DNA in
A. Capping using Poly adenyl group 1868.
B. Capping with methyl guanosine B. Griffith did transformation experi-
triphosphate group ments in Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C. splicing C. Avery Macleode and McCarty discov-
ered that the transferring principle is
D. slicing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
DNA.
175. Which of the following phenomena was D. Wilkins and Franklin did experiments
experimentally proved by Meselson and on neurospora and proved that DNA is the
Stahl? genetic material.
A. Transformation 180. The ends of the linear chromosomes are

B. Transduction maintained by
A. helicase
C. Semi conversative DNA replication
B. primase
D. Central dogma
C. DNA polymerase
176. Which of the following best represents D. telomerase
the Central Dogma?
181. on the lagging strand of DNA, the poly-
A. DNA → RNA → proteins
merase cannot just follow the DNA as it is
B. RNA → DNA → proteins separated. Because of this, it makes small
C. DNA → proteins → RNA segments called
D. proteins → RNA → DNA A. okazaki fragments

B. restriction fragments
177. State chargaff’s rule
C. ligase
A. Adenine=cytosine and gua- D. SSB proteins
nine=thymine
B. Adenine=thymine and cyto- 182. what is the full form of VNTR
sine=guanine A. Variable nucleus transfer repeat
C. Adenine=guanine and thymine=cytosine B. valuable of number technology repeat
C. Variable number tandem repeats
D. none of above D. none of the above
178. At the end of each replication bubble is a 183. What is the role of DNA ligase in the elon-
Y-shaped region referred to as what? gation of the lagging strand during DNA
A. Okazaki Fragments replication?
A. It catalyzes the lengthening of telom-
B. Helicase
eres.
C. Leading Strand
B. It synthesizes RNA nucleotides to
D. Replication Fork make a primer.

C. It unwinds the parental double helix. 188. UTRs are the untranslated regions
present on
D. It joins Okazaki fragments together.

A. rRNA
184. If in a scenario, the tRNA molecules B. hnRNA
present in the cell are mutated such that
the DHU loop is not functional then which C. mRNA
of the following step will be directly af- D. /RNA
fected?
189. The RNA polymerase holocnzyme tran-
A. Translation
scribes
B. Polypeptide synthesis A. the promoter, structural gene and the
C. Binding of Larger subunit of ribosome terminator region.
to initiation complex B. the promoter and the terminator re-
D. Charging of tRNA gion
C. the structural gene and the terminator
185. Which of the following is true regarding region
the replication of prokaryotes and eukary-
otes? D. the structural gene only.
A. Eukaryotic DNA elongates faster than 190. DNA is a polymer made of

prokaryotes. A. sugars
B. Eukaryotic DNA can initiate replication B. amino acids
at multiple origins.
C. fats
C. Prokaryotic DNA is linear.
D. nucleotides
D. Eukaryotic DNA has a single replica-
tion bubble. 191. Which scientist(s) mixed a heat-killed
pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living
186. Which scientist(s) said that adenine and nonpathogenic strain can convert some of
guanine equals thymine and cytosine? the living cells into the pathogenic form?
A. Franklin & Watkins A. Griffith
B. Chargaff B. Watson & Crick
C. Griffith C. Meselson & Stahl

D. Chargaff
D. Hershey & Chase
192. Lactose Operon is a set of lactose me-
187. If a cell contains 26% thymine, what per- tabolizing gene that is co-coordinately ex-
centage do the other three bases make up pressed and regulated. The following is
of the organism’s DNA? not the gene of lactose operon:
A. A-26% = T-26%G-24% = C 24% A. LacX
B. A-26% = C-26%T-24% = G-24% B. LacZ
C. A-24% = T-26%G-26% = C 24% C. LacY
D. G-26% = T-26%A-24% = C 24% D. LacA

6.6 Regulation of Gene Expression 656
193. If the total amount of adenine and 196. The fully processed hnRNA is known as
thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 45%,
A. tRNA
the amount of guanine in this DNA will be
B. snRNA
A. 22.5%
B. 27.5% C. mRNA
C. 45% D. scRNA
D. 55% 197. What methionine code for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
194. What rule determines how much of each A. UGA
nucleotide there will be and what does it
B. AUG
tell us?
A. Chargaff’s Rule (C=A & T=G) C. UAA
B. Avery’s Rule (A=G & C=T D. CGA
C. Griffiths Rule (T=C & G=A) 198. Which non radioactive isotope was used
D. Chargaff’s Rule (A=T & G=C) by Meselson and Stahl in their experi-
ments?
195. The T phage is structurally made up of
A. RNA and protein A. 32 P
B. DNA and RNA B. 35 S

C. DNA and protein C. 15 N
D. DNA and carbohydrate D. None
6.6 Regulation of Gene Expression

1. Which of the following do not prevent can- 3. This technique is used in the lab to make
cer? many of copies of DNA WITHOUT the use
A. DNA repair proteins of living cells.
A. Bacterial Transformation
B. Cell cycle
B. Gel Electrophoresis
C. Apoptosis
C. DNA Sequencing
D. Uncontrolled Cell division
D. PCR
2. Viruses
4. What is a eukaryote?
A. arise from preexisting viruses.
A. An enzyme
B. replicate their DNA before they repro-
B. a promoter protein
duce.
C. a cell with a nucleus
C. develop and reproduce only within the
cells of hosts. D. a gene setion
D. cannot replicate themselves. 5. The purpose of the lac operon is to produce
E. replicate themselves by division, just enzymes that
as cells do. A. synthesize lactose

B. use lactose 10. TFIID is

C. synthesize tryptophan A. promoter.

D. use tryptophan B. an enzyme.
C. part of the TATA box.
6. A major role is played by what in
RNA interference that regulates human D. a promoter and a transcription factor.
growth/development? E. a protein and a transcription factor.
A. Complementary RNA bases 11. Two types of negative control are
B. tRNA A. repressible & inducible
C. mRNA B. repressible & active
D. miRNA/small RNA molecules C. active & inactive
D. repressible & corepressible
7. In negative regulation
A. the gene is never transcribed. 12. Transcription factors are
A. RNA sequences that bind to RNA poly-
B. the gene is always transcribed.
merase
C. the binding of an activator stimulates
B. proteins that bind to the DNA promoter
transcription.
sequence.
D. transcription can be turned off when a C. c. DNA sequences that regulate tran-
repressor binds to the DNA near the pro- scription.
moter.
D. polysaccharides that bind to the tran-
E. a transcription factor is required in or- scripts.
der for the gene to be transcribed. An-
E. factors that bind to enhancers. An-
swer
swer
8. What molecule tags proteins, that are in 13. What is a feature of transcription?
excess or are not needed by the cell, for
degradation? A. Both strands of a DNA molecule act as
a template for mRNA.
A. Ubiquitin
B. Nucleoside triphosphates become nu-
B. Methyl cleotides by losing three phosphates.
C. Acetyl C. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter
D. mtDNA region.
D. The sense strand acts as a template
E. Phosphate groups
for mRNA.
9. In eukaryotes, distal control regions that 14. If the cell needs to turn off a gene, but
activators bind to are called mRNA has already been made it will
A. enhancers A. mark its DNA
B. promoters B. degrade the proteins
C. repressors C. turn off the gene
D. transcription factors D. degrade the mRNA

15. A cellular organelle that breaks down pro- 20. All of the following are true about histone
teins marked with ubiquitin is a(n) acetylation EXCEPT
A. proteasome A. takes place on the histone
B. mitochondria B. enzymes add a acetyl group
C. roughER C. when it occurs, transcription is more
D. golgi apparatus likely to occur
D. chromatin becomes more tightly
16. What is the primary function of transcrip-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
packed
tion factors?
A. Mediate the binding of RNA Poly- 21. Which level is not a potential point of reg-
merase to the Promoter. ulation of gene expression?
B. Mediate the binding of the Ribosome A. The level of transcription
to mRNA. B. The level of processing mRNA
C. Help mRNA find its way to the ribo-
C. The level of mRNA stability
some.
D. The level of translationt
D. Transcribe the DNA template into
mRNA. E. The level of protein export
17. What types of cells have operons? 22. Cells are specialized as a result of
A. Eukaryotes A. differential proteins
B. Prokaryotes B. differential gene expression
C. Neither eukaryotes nor prokaryotes C. repression
D. Both eukaryotes and prokaryotes D. activation
Operons are only found in prokaryotes.
Operons are made up of a promoter, op- 23. Which of the following is not a Mutagenic
erator, and the genes that they control. factor(causes mutations).
It is a simple way for the prokaryotes to A. X-rays
organize for gene expression.
B. Chemicals we smoke or eat
18. Proto-oncogenes can mutate into C. Drinking water
A. oncogenes D. Tanning
B. tumor suppressor genes
24. The binding of TFIID to the promoter ,
C. DNA repair proteins thereby enabling the binding of other tran-
D. none of above scription factors
19. Intervening sequence found between ex- A. methylates the DNA
ons in mRNA that is removed before trans- B. demethylates the DNA
lation.
C. changes the shape of the DNA
A. anticodons
D. produces signals that attract other
B. codons transcription factors
C. operons E. blocks the RNA polymerase binding
D. introns site

25. Actin, a protein found in almost all eukary- 29. All of the following are true about DNA
otic cells, is expressed in most cell types at methylation EXCEPT
a fairly constant level. Thus, the gene that

A. takes place on the DNA
codes for actin can be considered a(n)
gene. B. enzymes add a methyl group
A. inducible C. when it occurs, transcription is more
likely to occur
B. activated
D. chromatin becomes more tightly
C. repressible
packed
D. constitutive
30. Regulatory proteins (transcription factors)
E. transcription factor
may
26. The TATA box is a(n) A. encourage transcription
A. activator sequence necessary for B. prevent transcription
proper translation.
C. stop transcription once its started
B. general transcription factor.
D. either encourage or prevent transcrip-
C. enhancer consensus sequence. tion
D. sequence close to the promoter region
of many genes. 31. What is an operon?
E. repressor sequence. A. a part of a ribosome
B. a part of a Rna
27. The lac operon of E. coli consists of
C. a unit made up of linked genes that
A. a promoter and an operator.
code for proteins needed to do a specific
B. an operator and three structural task
genes.
D. needed for dna replication
C. three structural genes and a pro-
moter. 32. The is a protein that attaches to the
silencer sequence on the DNA that stops
D. a promoter, an operator, and three
Transcription.
structural genes.
A. Activator
E. a promoter, a director, and two struc-
tural genes. B. Repressor
28. What does the lactose do to the Operon? C. Operator
A. Blocks transcription of the lactase D. Operon

gene by cutting up the DNA
33. Nerve cells differ from muscle cells mainly
B. Binds to the repressor preventing it because they
from attaching to the operator
A. have different chromosomes
C. The lactose binds promoter to prevent
B. contain different genes
transcription
C. have unique ribosomes
D. Allows for the transcription rate of lac-
tase to slow down D. express different genes

34. The lac operon is referred to as a(n) C. an insertion at the middle of the gene
operon. D. a base substitution
A. inducible
39. The first step in developing cancer is
B. repressible
A. Metastasis
C. audible
B. Unregulated cell division
D. inaudible
C. Mutations in genes regulating cell cy-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
35. Which is an example of a tumor suppres- cle
sor gene? D. Tumor Formation
A. apoptosis
40. DNA molecule segment is:TTACGCAAG
B. proto-oncogenes This is an example of mutation.
C. p53 A. Substitution
D. oncogenes B. Deletion
36. What describes common features of the C. Insertion
telomere and the centromere? D. Inversion
A. Both areas have proteins associated E. No mutation
with them.
41. This group of genes produce cyclin and pro-
B. Both are made of DNA with high inci- mote cell division, but when mutated can
dence of adenine and thymine. lead to cancer
C. Both DNA sequences are conserved A. p53 Gene
throughout the life of an organism.
B. Proto-Oncogenes
D. During interphase, DNA replication
takes place simultaneously in both re- C. Tumor Suppressor Genes
gions. D. Regulatory Genes
37. In which of these pairs do the two entities 42. A chemical modification of DNA that does
act in opposite ways? not affect the nucleotide sequence of a
gene but makes that gene less likely to be
A. A constitutive gene and an activator
expressed.
B. A transcription factor and a constitu-
A. methylation
tive gene
B. acetylation
C. A repressor and an activator
C. transcription
D. A promoter and a repressor
D. translation
E. e. A promoter and an activator
43. Which of the following is NOT a way to
38. Which would have the worst effect on the change gene expression in eukaryotes?
function of the protein
A. alternative splicing
A. an insertion or deletion near the end
of a gene B. mRNA processing
B. an insertion or deletion at the begin- C. repressor protein binds to operator

ning of the gene D. histone acetylation

44. This group of genes checks for errors in 49. Which of the following is a dominant single
the DNA and can lead to apoptosis when a mutation to cause cancer?
cell is damaged beyond repair, mutations

A. p53 protein
in these genes can lead to cancer.
B. proto-oncogenes
A. Oncogenes
C. DNA repair proteins
B. Tumor Suppressor Genes
D. none of above
C. Proto-Oncogenes
50. Which of the following genes would we ex-
D. Promoter
pect to be expressed in ALL eukaryotic cell
types?
45. A protein that binds to the enhancer or op-
erator and blocks the RNA polymerase A. Gene encoding production of
hemoglobin
A. regulator
B. Gene encoding production of ATP Syn-
B. repressor thase
C. activator C. Gene encoding production of fibrin
D. corepressor (protein involved in blood clotting)
D. Gene encoding production of pepsin
46. What percentage of a humans genome (enzyme used in digestion of proteins)
codes for proteins?
A. 50% 51. Where is the TATA box located?
A. Near the introns
B. 98%
B. Near the exons
C. 2%
C. Near the poly adenylation sequence
D. 20%
D. Near the promoter The TATA box is
E. 100% near the promoter. The TATA box indi-
cates the DNA strand to be read. Tran-
47. Which of the following is characteristic of
scription factors bind to this region to as-
genes and gene regulation in both bacteria
sist the RNA polymerase to bind to the pro-
and eukaryotes?
moter.
A. Promoter
52. A small molecule that binds to the repres-
B. Non-coding DNA with coding se- sor and makes it inactive is
quences
A. corepressor
C. Enhancer
B. inducer
D. DNA located in a nucleus
C. promoter
48. What is a prokaryote D. operator
A. an amino acid 53. The processing of pre-mRNA involves
B. a inhibitor protein the following steps to produce functional
mRNA, 1. Polyadenylation2. Remove of
C. a cell with no nucleus
introns3. Splicing of exons4. CappingIn
D. an enzyme which order do they occur?

A. 1, 3, 2, 4 59. All of the following are true for siRNA ex-

B. 2, 4, 1, 3 cept
C. 3, 1, 4, 2 A. they trigger degradation of proteins
D. 4, 2, 3, 1 B. they create double-stranded RNA
C. they are short segments of RNA
54. The is a protein that attaches to the en-
hancer sequence on the DNA that initiates D. they trigger degradation of mRNA
Transcription.
60. What type of molecule is a transcription
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Activator factor?
B. Repressor A. Protein
C. Operator B. Enzyme
D. Operon C. DNA
55. The repressor is the protein product of a(n) D. Carbohydrate
A. operator E. Lipid
B. regulatory gene 61. A region of eukaryotic DNA consists of
C. lac gene over fifty repeats of the same sequence
D. corepressor of twelve bases. Where is this repetitive
region least likely to be found?
56. Substances that establish an embryo’s A. An exon
axes are called
B. An intron
A. morphogens
C. A polymerase binding site
B. inducers
D. Satellite DNA
C. transcription factors
D. operators 62. Segment of mRNA containing the protein
coding portion of the gene that remains
57. This type of substitution codes for a stop within the mRNA after splicing has oc-
codon curred.
A. Missense A. codons
B. Nonsense B. operons
C. Silent C. introns
D. Deletion D. exons
58. The “lifespan” of an mRNA molecule 63. Peptide bonds, which are formed during
refers to which regulation of eukaryotic the process of translation and link amino
gene expression? acids together into a polypeptide chain,
A. Transcriptional are this type of bond.
B. Translational A. Covalent Bond
C. Post-Translational B. Ionic Bond
D. Post-Transcriptional C. Ester Bond
E. Chromosome Structure D. Glycosidic Linkage

64. The tryptophan operon is 69. In eukaryotic cells, promoters are

A. permanently turned on. A. . transcribed.

B. turned on when tryptophan is present B. transcribed and translated.
in the growth medium.
C. sequences of RNA that are spliced out.
C. turned off only when glucose is
present in the growth medium. D. transcribed and then removed.
D. turned off when tryptophan is added to E. neither transcribed nor translated.
the growth medium.
70. An operon consists of all the the following
65. Where does the repressor in an operon EXCEPT
bind?
A. operator
A. Operator
B. Promoter B. promoter
C. Regulatory sequence C. regulatory gene

D. TATA box The operator is located in the D. genes of the operon
promoter region. This is the site of bind-
ing for the repressor. If the repressor is 71. Type of point mutation that has no change
bound to the operator, the operon will be on the protein being made.
OFF. If the repressor is NOT bound to the A. Nonsense Mutation
operator, the operon will be ON.
B. Missense
66. Normal-GAG-CTC-GAC-AGAMutantGAG
C. Silent Mutation
CTC-CAC-AGA
A. no mutation D. none of above
B. substitution 72. A distal control region that a ctivators bind
C. insertion to are bent to contact mediator proteins
D. deletion and form the transcription initiation com-
plex
67. This is the location of transcription in
A. enhancers
prokaryotic cells
A. Nucleus B. promoters
B. Ribosome C. repressors
C. Cell Membrane D. transcription factors
D. Cytoplasm
73. In eukaryotes, a promoter is the region of
68. Inheritance of traits by mechanisms not
A. a plasmid that binds the enzymes for
directly involving nucleotide sequence is
replication.
called
B. the mRNA that binds to a ribosome.
A. epigenetic inheritance
B. differential gene expression C. the DNA that binds RNA polymerase.
C. chromosomal inheritance D. the mRNA that binds tRNAs.
D. gene regulation E. the DNA that binds DNA polymerase.

74. Which of the following needs a double mu- 79. In eukaryotes, a cluster of proteins that
tation to cause cancer? assemble on the promoter is called the
A. p53 protein A. transcription initiation complex
B. proto-oncogenes
B. control element
C. activator
D. none of above
D. protein blobby thing
75. Which statement about transcription fac-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tors is true?
80. Regulatory attach to the regulatory
A. All transcription factors are repres-
sors
A. proteins, body
B. All transcription factors are activators.
C. A promoter is a transcription factor. B. sequences, proteins
D. A transcription factor can be an activa- C. proteins, sequence
tor or a repressor.
D. codons, anticodons
E. A transcription factor can be both an
activator and a repressor.
81. What binds to the promoter?
76. The insertion of an additional nucleotide A. DNA polymerase
into a sequence of DNA would result in
what type of mutation? B. Operator
A. Nonsense Point Mutation C. Repressor
B. Frameshift Mutation
D. RNA polymerase The promoter is
C. Missense Point Mutation where the RNA polymerase to initiate tran-
D. Silent Point Mutation scription.
77. What makes up the TATA box? 82. Protein complexes that break down pro-
A. Adenine & Cytosine teins are called
B. Cytosine & Guanine A. proteasomes
C. Guanine & Thymine
B. ubiquitin
D. Thymine & Adenine The TATA box is
made up of T nucleotides (thymine) and A C. siRNA
nucleotides (adenine). This is a site on the
D. enhancers
DNA where transcription factors will bind
to aid in RNA polymerase binding.
83. Protein molecules around which DNA is
78. Retroviruses use this process to convert tightly coiled in chromatin
their RNA Genome into DNA
A. Histones
A. Transcription
B. Whey
B. Translation
C. Reverse Transcription C. Casein
D. Alternative Splicing D. Hemoglobin

84. The GTP cap and the Poly-A tail regu- 89. A transcription factor is a that binds to
late which level of eukaryotic gene expres-
sion?

A. protein; DNA
A. Transcriptional B. protein; RNA
B. Post-Transcriptional C. promoter; a protein
C. Pre-Transcriptional D. gene; DNA
D. Post-Translational E. gene; RNA
E. Translational 90. An inducer
A. inhibits the synthesis of needed en-
85. what is the function of proteasomes
zyme(s).
A. destroy mRNA B. stimulates the synthesis of needed en-
B. activate genes zyme(s).
C. bind to transcription factors C. binds to the promoter and prevents
the repressor from binding to the opera-
D. destroy proteins tor.
86. Which type of control of gene expression D. binds to the operator and prevents the
is commonly found in both prokaryotes repressor from binding at this site.
and eukaryotes? E. binds to the termination codons and al-
lows protein synthesis to continue.
A. post transcriptional
B. post translational 91. What is a chromosome made from in eu-
karyotic cells?
C. transcriptional
A. DNA
D. translational
B. DNA and histones
87. RNA interference means short RNA se- C. DNA and transcription factors
quences bind to and prevent their D. DNA and RNA
translation.
92. In a point mutation, this would have the
A. mRNA
worst effect on the function of the protein
B. tRNA A. an insertion or deletion near the end
C. rRNA of a gene
D. ribosomes B. an insertion or deletion at the begin-
ning of the gene
88. Highly compacted chromatin that is not ac- C. an insertion at the middle of the gene
cessible for transcription.
D. a base substitution
A. polychromatin
93. A small molecule that binds to a repressor
B. heterochromatin and makes it active
C. euchromatin A. repressor
D. none of above B. regulator

6.7 Human genome project 666
C. activator A. the addition of methyl groups to cyto-

sine bases of DNA
D. corepressor
B. the folding of DNA to form heterochro-
94. Which feature distinguishes eukaryotic matin
genomes from prokaryotic genomes? C. alternative splicing
A. Eukaryotic genomes contain non- D. the binding of the enhancer region to
coding sequences called introns. the promoter
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Eukaryotic genomes contain no short
96. Through differential mRNA processing, eu-
repetitive sequences of DNA.
karyotes
C. Eukaryotic genomes have genes ag- A. reinforce gene inactivation
gregated into operons.
B. produce related but different proteins
D. Eukaryotic genomes possess plas- in different tissues
mids.
C. amplify genes to meet the requirement
95. Which of the following is an example of of high levels of a gene product
post-transcriptional control of gene ex- D. bind transcription factors to en-
pression? hancers to activate transcription
6.7 Human genome project

1. How many base pairs (bp) are in the hu- C. Nucleoside
man genome? D. Ribonucleotides
A. 1 billion bp
4. Which chromosome in Human Genome has
B. 4 billion bp
more genes?
C. 3 billion bp
A. Chromosome 1
D. 3.5 billion bp
B. Chromosome 2
2. The DNA fragments in Human Genome C. Chromosome 3
Project were sequenced using automated
DNA sequencers that was based on the D. none of above
principle developed by
5. How many chromosomes does one human
A. Fredrick Grifith cell contain?
B. Watson and Crick A. 40
C. Frederick Sanger B. 46
D. Har Gobind Khorana C. 48
3. In DNA sequencing, what is a fluorescently D. none of above
labeled base that causes the primer to
stop? 6. According to comparative genomics stud-
ies between humans and chimpanzees,
A. Deoxynucleotide (dNTP) what percentage of genetic similarities are
B. Dideoxynucleotide (ddNTP) there?

A. 60% A. transmission of more diseases

B. 80% B. an increase in under qualified doctors

C. 85% C. inappropriate use of medical informa-
D. 96% tion
D. overdiagnosis of certain medical con-
7. The area in Biology that uses high speed
ditions
computational devices for storing enor-
mous amount of data, retrieval and analy-
12. Which would be reduced as a result of the
sis is called
development of pest-resistant crops?
A. Bioinformatics
A. use of organic fertilizers
B. Biotechnology
B. use of chemical insecticides
C. Biostatistics
C. practice of crop rotation techniques
D. none of above
D. practice of hydroponic farming tech-
8. We share 90% of our genome with what niques
animal?
A. Pig 13. Individual beliefs that motivate people to
act one way or another
B. Rat
A. Facts
C. Monkey
B. Alternatives
D. Mouse
C. Values
9. Which base joins to Adenine?
D. Arguments
A. Thymine
B. Guanine 14. What is the Human Genome Project?
C. Cytosine A. Research project that mapped the hu-
D. none of above man genome
B. Research project that created the hu-
10. The methodology focused on identifying all
man genome
the genes, both coding and non coding se-
quences and assigning functions, is called C. Research project where the human
genome was broken
A. Expressed Sequence Tags D. Research project which ended the hu-
B. Sequence Annotation man genome
C. Gel electrophoresis 15. enzyme that recognizes a certain DNA se-

D. none of above quence and cuts the DNA strand
11. Personal medical records become more A. restriction enzyme

available and more detailed because of B. DNA polymerase
biotechnological research. Based on this
C. cyborg
information, which is a major concern to
the public? D. plasmid

16. Issues that refer to people’s moral values 21. Many non human model organisms have
or the code of conduct by which they live also been sequenced through Human
Genome project. The nematode among the
A. Social issues
following is
B. Legal issues
A. Drosophila
C. Cultural issues
B. Arabidopsis
D. Ethical issues
C. Caenorhabditis elegans
NARAYAN CHANGDER
17. Which is a genetic engineering advance- D. none of above
ment directly related to a career in biotech-
nology? 22. when was the human genome project for-
mally launched?
A. improving solar energy collection
A. 1990
B. transporting textiles at higher rates
B. 1985
C. creating crop foods that resist insect
pests C. 1999
D. repairing historical sites with quality D. 1995
materials
23. Largest known human gene is at 2.4
18. Study of genes and their function. million bases
A. Forensics A. Desktrophin
B. Bioinformatics B. Disctropin
C. Genomics C. Dystrophin
D. Human Genome Project D. none of above
19. process that splits molecules into groups 24. The commonly used Vectors used for
of same size by forcing them through pores cloning pieces of DNA so that they can be
in gel sequenced later, are BAC and YAC. What
does BAC stand for?
A. gel electrophoresis
A. Bacterial Artificial Chromosome
B. gel splitting
B. Baked Artificial Cake
C. sequencing
C. Biotechnology And Cry genes
D. none of above
20. What was the purpose of the Genome
project? 25. How many chromosomes are there in an
egg cell?
A. To identify Human DNA
A. 23
B. To learn about what our kids will look
like B. 22
C. To find unknown diseases C. 46
D. To make perfect children D. 35

26. Stem cells from a donor are cultured 31. Which of the following are disadvantages
and then implanted into a person with of the human genome project (HGP)?
Alzheimer’s disease. Why is this pro- There is more than one answer

cedure most likely considered controver-
A. Risk of discrimination
sial?
A. There are associated ethical and moral B. You can be screened for all diseases
issues. C. Increased stress
B. There is an insufficient supply of donor D. Risk of being forced to terminate an un-
cells. born child
C. There is an increased risk of infection.
D. The patient did not give consent. 32. Which chromosome in Human Genome has
the fewest genes?
27. Which is most important when investigat-
A. Chromosome X
ing ethical issues in biotechnology?
A. cost of the technology B. Chromosome Y
B. advantage of the technology C. Autosome 13
C. public opinion of the technology D. Chromosome 1
D. benefits of the technology outweighing
the harm 33. Which is a use of genetically engineered
bacteria?
28. Which is NOT an impact of the Human
Genome Project? A. making human insulin
A. Medical Advancements B. DNA fingerprint for blood left at a

crime scene
B. Availability of new jobs
C. Aid in Child Support C. producing corn that is resistant to her-
bicides
D. Aid in FBI investigations
D. none of above
29. What was the outcome of the project?
A. The number, location, size and se- 34. How many chromosome will be in a body
quence of human genes were identified. cell?
B. The colors of the DNA nucleobases A. 35
were identified.
B. 46
C. The number and location of the centri-
morgans were identified. C. 23
D. Scientists identified the number of D. 21
chromosomes in an organism.
35. The study of the genome is known as
30. How many nucleotides make up DNA?
A. Biology
A. 2
B. 4 B. Genomics
C. 6 C. Genes
D. none of above D. Heredity

36. What is a genome? 41. The pieces of DNA that are seen in the DNA
A. The complete amount of genetic mate- fingerprint are called:
rial present in a cell or organism. A. Genes
B. A garden ornament B. Granules
C. The sum of all human material
C. Fragments
D. A totally unique set of genetic material
D. Composites
not shared with anything else
NARAYAN CHANGDER
37. Haploid content of human DNA has 42. Which situation is most likely to raise eth-
base pairs ical questions about using biotechnology?
A. 4.6 x 106 A. increased crop yields
B. 48502 B. new vaccine development
C. 3.3 x 10 9 C. increased job opportunities
D. none of above
D. genetically modified food crops
38. Which area of biotechnology would most
likely create ethical issues within human 43. Which is a concern of scientists when ge-
society? netically modifying plants?
A. insulin production by bacteria A. Plants will pass on diseases to ani-
mals.
B. organ cloning for use in transplants
C. genetic engineering to improve agri- B. There will be a decrease in biodiver-
cultural yields sity.
D. DNA and forensic testing of crime C. Plants will have a longer growing sea-
scene evidence son.
39. How many different genes can a person D. There will be a decrease in revenue for
have? pesticide manufacturers.
A. 250 44. What are the base pairs of DNA?

B. 2, 050 A. A, C, G, U
C. 20, 500
B. T, A, G, C, U
D. 25, 000
C. A, T, C, G
40. What does the Ethical, Legal and Social Im-
D. There’s no such base pairs in DNA
plications program do?
A. Allows the project to whatever neces- 45. Which statement describes the structure of
sary to gather information DNA?
B. Ensures the government oversees the A. Double helix
project
B. Single helix
C. Takes care of the animals used in the
project C. Double ladder
D. Addresses issues raised by the project D. Curly

46. What is one of the pros of Herbicide use? C. Cytosine

A. It makes weeding easier and cheaper D. none of above

for farmers
B. It keeps animals away from crops 51. What is the benefit of geneticially modi-
fied organisms?
C. Plants grow taller and stronger
A. They may be better looking or more
D. It makes more organic crops productive/effective
47. Which of the following involves ethics? B. They are easily reproduced
A. Passing a law to allow more crops to C. They are higher in population
be grown per acre in a given area.
D. They live longer/stronger
B. Passing a law to allow doctors to euth-
anize humans who are terminally ill. 52. Enzymes that can extend bases from the
C. Passing a law to increase fines for peo- primer strand are called a.
ple texting while driving. A. DNA polymerase
D. Passing a law to decrease speed limits
B. primase
in an area of frequent accidents.
C. RNA polymerase
48. Which application of biotechnology is of
greatest economic benefit to North Car- D. Recombinase
olina?
53. How many bases are there in DNA?
A. development of livestock that are more
domesticated A. 5
B. development of livestock that produce B. 4
higher quality meat C. 2
C. development of crops that can be D. 3
grown in extremely dry environments
D. development of crops that can be 54. The genomes of two unrelated humans are
grown in extremely low temperatures % the same.
49. Which use of biotechnology most benefits A. 90.0

North Carolina agriculture? B. 0.1%
A. producing human vaccines C. 78%
B. producing disease resistant crops D. 99.9%
C. producing new medicines from bacte-
ria 55. What do we call the genes that determine
D. producing enzymes to eliminate pollu- gender (male or female)?
tants A. X/Y
50. Which base joins to Cytosine? B. A/B

A. Thymine C. M/F
B. Guanine D. none of above

6.8 DNA fingerprinting 672
56. About how many genes are there in the 61. Which of the following is not a concern of
human genome? biotechnology?
A. 2, 500 A. Ethics concerns with cloning humans.
B. 20, 500 B. Health concerns about eating geneti-
C. 205, 000 cally modified foods.
D. none of above C. Concerns that we will harvest too
57. Where do genes come from? much food for the global population.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. The mother D. Environmental concerns of releasing
genetically modified organisms into an
B. The father
ecosystem.
C. Both parents
D. none of above 62. Scientists have identified about 1.4 mil-
lion locations where SNPs occur in humans.
58. Science of managing and analyzing biolog- What does it mean?
ical data using advanced computers.
A. Single Nucleotide Polymorphism
A. Bioinformatics
B. Genomics B. Severo Nichoa Penzyme
C. Forensics C. Several Nematode Poisins

D. Human Genome Project D. none of above
59. What are the names of bacterial cells used 63. Which of the following are advantages
to acquire recombinant DNA and multiply of Human genome project (HGP)There is
(clones)? more than one answer
A. coli
A. To encourage people who have dis-
B. coli eases not to have children.
C. coli B. Predict and prevent disease
D. coli
C. To discriminate against people
60. What was the Human Genome project? D. To tailor medicine to people
A. A project to identify the number of
chromosomes in a human. 64. how many dna base pairs make up the hu-
B. A project to connect scientists around man genome?
the world. A. 5 million
C. A project to see if there’s mutated B. 2 billion
genes in a specific person.
C. 3 billion
D. Project with the goal of identifying the
base pairs that make up human DNA. D. 7.5 billion
6.8 DNA fingerprinting

1. The DNA fragments produced by the use of 7. How different are two people’s DNA?
restriction endonucleases can be separated A. 99.9% different
by

B. 73% different
A. polymerase chain reaction
C. 0.1% different
B. gel electrophoresis
D. no differences between two people
C. density gradient centrifugation
D. none of above 8. What is a human genome?
A. total amount of DNA in a cell.
2. original chromosomeABC-DEFmutated
chromosomeABBC-DEF B. total amount of DNA in the nucleus
only
A. insertion
C. total amount if DNA in the mitochon-
B. point dria only
C. deletion D. total amount of chromosomes
D. translocation
9. Where is Mitochondrial DNA found?
3. DNA can be degraded or destroyed by A. in the Mitochondria
A. moisture B. in the nucleus
B. heat C. in the chloroplast
C. sunlight D. none of above
D. all answers
10. A protein of interest is
4. What is the charge of DNA? A. the entire genome of the organism
A. positive B. a section of DNA (a gene) that codes
B. negative for a protein
C. neutral C. a protein that can be used to treat a
D. none of above disease
D. a protein that has an interesting shape
5. is an application of the human genome
project that involves the insertion of nor- 11. Where is DNA found?
mal genes into cells with defective genes A. Cell Nucleus
in order to correct genetic disorders.
B. Lysosome
A. gene gun
C. Golgi body
B. gene mapping
D. Mitochondria
C. gene linkage
D. gene therapy 12. Two people believe they are related.
Which would be the best technique to de-
6. Where is Nuclear DNA stored in cells? termine if they are related?
A. In the Mitochondria A. testing for genetic disorders
B. In the Nucleus B. testing blood types
C. On Chromosomes C. comparing DNA
D. All Over the cell D. examining karyotypes

13. Unlike Gel electrophoresis data, STR data 19. DNA sequencing is a technique used to
is displayed
A. Identify the bases if tRNA
A. as numbers
B. Identify the bases of the mRNA
B. as lines
C. Identify the bases of RNA
C. as a gel
D. Identify the order of DNA bases
D. colorful light
14. What is the mRNA strand that would re- 20. Stem cells are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sult from the DNA template strand CCTA? A. cells that grow uncontrollably.
A. GGAT
B. undifferentiated and can develop into
B. CCAT many types of cells.
C. GGAU C. cells that never go through cell divi-
D. CCAU sion.
15. A picture of paired chromosomes is a D. only found in embryos.

A. sister chromatid 21. the non-coded DNA segments that con-
B. centromere tain unique patterns or repeated base se-
C. syndrome quences that are unique to individuals is
called:
D. karyotype
A. polymorphism
16. What technique separates RFLPs accord-
ing to their length, creating a DNA finger- B. variable tandem
print? C. short tandem
A. Gel Electrophoresis D. traits
B. RFLPs, Restriction Fragment Length
Polymorphisms 22. Restriction Enzymes are
C. Restriction Enzymes A. proteins
D. none of above B. DNA
17. DNA fingerprinting was developed by C. fats
A. Franscis Crick D. carbohydrates
B. James Watson
23. Why do the fragments of DNA in gel elec-
C. Khorana trophoresis travel away from the negative
D. Alec Jeffery electrode?
18. Making changes in the DNA of an organism A. DNA is negatively charged so attracted
is to the positive end of the unit
A. selective breeding B. DNA is positively charged to attracted
B. artificial selection to the negative end of the unit
C. genetic engineering C. the agarose gel in negatively charged
D. genetic transformation D. the agarose gel is positively charged

24. Finding a small sample of DNA and using 29. Why is electricity used in gel electrophore-
biotechnology to created larger samples of sis?
the same DNA. Technology makes this pos-

A. to amplify DNA fragments
sible by
B. to clean DNA fragments
A. stimulating more growth of the origi-
nal cells that contain the DNA C. to separate DNA fragments
B. provide fragments to replace certain D. to erase DNA fragments
human body chemicals
30. Which of the following does NOT have
C. act as a template for repeated replica- DNA?
tion
A. Blood
D. trigger mitosis to trigger more base
B. Hair
sequences
C. Urine
25. What are small segments of a chromosome
D. Fibers
that help code for a trait?
A. Genes 31. DNA polymorphism is due to
B. Nucleotides A. Inheritable mutation
C. Proteins B. chromosomal abbreviations
D. Carbohydrates C. nondisjunction
D. none of above
26. DNA has a charge.
A. positive 32. The DNA in chromosomes contains approx-
imately
B. neutral
A. 3 million base pairs
C. negative
B. 3 billion base pairs
D. none of above
C. 3 thousand base pairs
27. What is the special protein that targets a D. one base pair
specific base sequence and cuts DNA into
smaller fragments? 33. This is the database maintained by the FBI
A. Gene that contains DNA profiles
B. DNA Probe A. CODIS
C. Exon B. AFIS
D. Restriction Enzyme C. IBIS

D. CARES
28. How many STR regions are analyzed for
CODIS in the U.S.? 34. Where does nuclear DNA come from?
A. 2 A. it is inherited from the mother
B. 10 B. it is inherited from the father
C. 15 C. it is found in the Mitochondria

35. How similar are two human’s DNA? C. Genomic DNA

A. 100% the same D. none of above
B. 99.9% the same 41. Dogs are closely related to wolves. To
C. 65% the same support this statement, what type of test-
ing or experiment would a scientist most
D. no similarities between two people likely carry out?
36. The Analysis of Chromsomes is called A. compare wolf and dog DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Geneology B. examine their social habits and record
similarities
B. DNAnalysis
C. feed them similar foods and see if they
C. Karyotyping have similar diets
D. Chromology D. determine whether a female dog will
care for a wolf pup
37. One of two or more alternate forms of a
gene is 42. How many cycles of PCR does it take to
A. A chromsome produce a double-stranded DNA fragment
of the desired length?
B. DNA
A. 1
C. an allele
B. 2
D. RNA
C. 3
38. Tandem repeats of a DNA sequence with D. 4
varying numbers of repeated bases and
varying numbers of repetitions in individu- 43. are un-encoded DNA, that do not code
als. for the production of molecules.
A. Introns
A. STR (Short Tandem Repeat)
B. exons
B. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
C. mitochondrial
C. VNTR (Variable Number of Tandem Re-
peats) D. none of above
D. ATR (All Tandem Repeats) 44. WHAT IS THE BASIS OF DNA FINGER-
PRINTING?
39. Variable Numbers of Tandem Repeats A. MUTATION
(VNTR) are to in length.
B. SNPs
A. 1-3 bases
C. RFLA
B. 2-5 bases
D. VNTR
C. 9-80 bases
45. The process of collecting DNA from the nu-
D. 80-100 bases cleus of a cell is called:
40. DNA fingerprinting recognizes the differ- A. Gel electrophoresis
ences in B. DNA fingerprinting
A. bulk DNA C. DNA extraction
B. Repetitive DNA D. Transformation

46. Who inverted DNA fingerprinting tech- B. plasmids

nique?
C. transgenic organisms

A. Watson and Crick
D. gene guns
B. Herbert Boyer
C. Alec Jeffreys 52. What is the purpose of Marker or Stan-
dard DNA?
D. Carry Mullis
A. It is the control fragment for compari-
47. What is the structure that holds the sister son.
chromatids together called?
B. Just in case you make a mistake.
A. homologous chromosome
B. centromere C. To pull from.
C. chromatid D. none of above

D. nondisjunction
53. Which of the following is true of gel elec-
48. this is a circular spiral pattern trophoresis?
A. accidental whorl A. Smaller DNA fragments move faster
and farther than larger DNA fragments
B. double loop
C. central pocket B. Larger DNA fragments move faster
and farther than smaller DNA fragments
D. plain whorl
C. All DNA fragments move at the same
49. When making a DNA Fingerprint, which rate despite their size
molecule is used to cut DNA into DNA frag-
ments? D. None of these are true of gel elec-
trophoresis
A. DNA helicase
B. DNA polymerase 54. What does CODIS stand for?
C. restriction enzyme A. Crazy Old Dogs Intimidate Snakes
D. transgenic enzyme B. Convicted Offender DNA Index System
50. Biological Evidence should be C. Combined DNA Index System
A. stored in air-tight containers. D. Cameron Occasionally Dreams In-
B. frozen using liquid nitrogen. stead of Studying
C. packaged as quickly as possible.
55. SCID is a disease that is characterized by
D. put into air-dried (breathable) contain- having a weak immune system. This type
ers. of cell makes up your immune system and
helps fight infection.
51. are produced when DNA from another
species is inserted into the genome of an A. red blood cell
organism, which then begins to produce B. platelet
the protein encoded on the recombinant
DNA. C. white blood cell
A. vectors D. antibacterial cell

56. The total amount DNA in a cell is called 62. Which of the following is the correct pair-
the? ing of nitrogen bases?
A. DNA Fingerprint A. A-T, G-C
B. Introns B. A-G, T-C
C. Genome C. A-C, G-T
D. Restriction Enzyme D. A-A, T-T
NARAYAN CHANGDER
57. How many chromosomes are found in hu- 63. Which DNA sample is an example used in
man body cells? DNA fingerprinting?
A. 23 pairs, 46 total A. Blood
B. 46 pairs B. Saliva
C. 23 total C. Follicles
D. none of above D. All of the above
58. The purpose of selective breeding is to 64. Which of the following best describes
“DNA Fingerprinting? ”
A. Get bigger animals
A. Used to compare genes of individuals
B. get smaller animals for identification
C. create animals with desirable traits B. Used to edit someone’s genes
D. create animals with bad traits C. Used to move genes from one organ-
ism into another
59. What technique allows DNA to be copied
outside a living cell? D. Used to copy an organism’s genome
A. electrophoresis 65. Genetic information is stored in molecules
B. PCR of DNA making up structures called
C. STR A. blueprints
D. RFLP B. genetic material

C. chromosomes
60. Except for identical twins, no two people
have the same D. DNA fingerprinting
A. blood type 66. Gel electrophoresis separates fragments

of DNA by:
B. physical characteristics
A. Size/weight
C. DNA
B. Genes
D. Skeletal variations
C. Base pairs
61. Who invented DNA Fingerprinting?
D. Electromagnetic charge
A. Sir Alex Jeffreys
67. A method of separating molecules, such as
B. Sir Almond Smith DNA, according to their size and electrical
C. Sir Sherlock Holmes charge.
D. none of above A. Electrophoresis

B. DNA Fingerprint 73. The best way to describe the difference be-
tween Exons and Introns is:
C. DNA Probe

D. none of above A. exons are un-encode DNA and Introns
are encoded
68. A virus may be classified as a because B. exons make up 98.5 % of the human
it helps transfer foreign DNA into a host genome and Introns make up 1.5%
cell.
C. exons are encoded DNA and Introns
A. bacteria are un-encoded DNA
B. plasmids D. introns are not useful while exons are
C. vectors
74. What are the names of the large structures
D. splicers of DNA which are used to package the ge-
netic information within cells?
69. What is used to cut DNA?
A. enzymes
A. PCR
B. ribosomes
B. ATP
C. chromosomes
C. restriction enzymes
D. vitamins
D. Heat
70. Cells are isolated from the tissue and are 75. Segment of DNA in a chromosome that con-
disrupted to release DNA in this DNA Fin- tains information used to produce a pro-
gerprinting Step tein or an RNA molecule.
A. Extraction A. Gene
B. Amplification B. Allele
C. Electrophoresis C. Chromosome
71. DNA fingerprinting is used in 76. The human genome consists of approxi-
mately how may base pairs?
A. Forensic science
A. twenty thousand
B. Paternal disputes
B. two million
C. Research work
C. three billion
D. All of the aove
D. forty billion
72. Mitochondrial DNA is different from nu-
clear DNA because 77. Gel electrophoresis enables scientists to
A. it is inherited only from the mother A. separate DNA fragments.
B. It is inherited only from the father B. combine DNA fragments.
C. It is double helix in shape C. count the genes in DNA.
D. It is not useful in forensic science D. insert DNA in cells.

78. are repeating base sequences that are 83. What are the base-pairing rules in DNA?
unique to individuals and useful in Forensic A. A-C, G-T
Science.
B. A-U, G-C
A. polymorphisms
C. A-T, G-C
B. exons
D. A-C, G-U
C. bands
84. During complementary base pairing, Cy-
D. tandems
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tosine pairs with what other nitrogenous
79. At what temperature does the Denature base?
step of PCR occur? A. Adenine
A. 94-96◦ C B. Cytosine
B. 50-65◦ C C. Guanine
C. 72◦ C D. Thymine
D. Any temperature 85. is a process that separates RFLPs ac-
cording to their length, creating a DN A Fin-
80. During the process of gel electrophoresis, gerprint .
molecules are separated as they are pulled
by an electric current through a molecular A. Electrophoresis
filter. Which best describes how molecules B. DNA Fingerprint
are separated?
C. DNA Probe
A. precisely by both size and charge
D. none of above
B. approximately by size and charge
86. A nucleotide is composed of
C. by size only
A. sugar ribose
D. by charge only
B. a nitrogen base
81. What pairs with T? C. a phosphate group
A. A D. none of the above
B. C E. all of the above
C. G 87. can be thought of as highly specialized
D. none of above scissors that cut a DNA molecule when it
recognizes a specific sequence of bases.
82. a change in one DNA triplet that may re-
A. digestive enzymes
sult in a new triplet that codes for a stop
codon instead of an amino acid is known B. histolic enzymes
as C. restriction enzymes
A. missense D. none of the above is correct
B. nonsense
88. In preparation for gel electrophoresis, en-
C. frameshift zymes are added to DNA in order to
D. silent A. start protein synthesis.

B. cut the DNA into fragments. 94. Set of techniques used to obtain identical
C. change the color of the DNA. copies of an adult organism from its so-
matic cells.

D. produce longer sections of DNA.
A. Cloning
89. A is a small ring of DNA found in a
B. DNA sequencing
bacterial cell.
C. PCR
A. virus
D. none of above
B. plasmid
C. gene bullet 95. DNA in chromosomes is called
D. PCR A. DNA
B. DNA chromosomes
90. What is step 3 in the steps of DNA finger-
printing? C. nuclear DNA
A. extraction of DNA D. structural DNA
B. Cutting DNA into restriction fragments 96. X-ray films are “developed” by
C. Amplification to many copies A. reflection
D. Electrophoresis B. circulation
91. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF VNTR? C. radiation
A. VISIBLE NUCLEOTIDE RESIDUE? D. none of above
B. VARIABLE NUMBER OF TANDEM RE- 97. What is the base pair that starts with a
PEATS “C”?
C. VISUALISED NUMBER OF TANDEM RE- A. Cytosol
PEATS
B. Cytosine
D. NONE OF THESE
C. Colori
92. Which technique makes and image of all of D. Clambus
a person’s chromosomes?
98. The process of DNA fingerprinting was in-
A. PCR
vented by:
B. karyotyping
A. Watson
C. gel electrophoresis
B. Jefferys
D. use of restriction enzymes
C. Roseland
93. During PCR, what three materials are D. Dawson
mixed with the crime scene DNA?
A. Free nucleotides, DNA polymerase, 99. Complete the sentence:Recombinant DNA
and Primers consists of a of an organism and
it into a different one.
B. Agarose gel, Lysis Buffer, and Salt
A. gene, inserting, isolating
C. Restriction Enzymes, DNA probes, and
Distilled Water B. gene, isolating, inserting
D. Nothing is mixed with the crime scene C. inserting, isolating, gene
DNA D. isolating, gene, inserting

100. This process uses short repeating sec- 106. STR stand for
tions of DNA to identify an individual. A. Short Tandem repeats
A. Gel Electrophoresis B. Short Tangible Repeats
B. PCR C. Surely Tandem Repeats
C. STR Analysis D. Small Tandem Repeats
D. RFLP Analysis
107. Regions of DNA which vary from person
to person.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
101. What pairs with C?
A. T A. Y chromosome analysis
B. G B. loci
C. A C. pharming
D. none of above D. totipotent
102. Medical researchers are interested in 108. Which of the following cells is undifferen-
stem cells because they? tiated?
A. are found in all types of tissues A. cardiac muscle cell
B. can produce different cells types B. nerve cell

C. liver cell
C. are highly specialized
D. stem cell
D. are found only in embryos
109. What are the four bases that make up
103. Short Tandem Repeats (STR) are to
DNA?
in length.
A. AUCG
A. 1-3 bases
B. ABCD
B. 2-5 bases
C. ATCG
C. 9-80 bases
D. ATCU
D. 80-100 bases
110. Gel electrophoresis
104. DNA fingerprinting works because
A. helps cut DNA
A. Most genes are dominant
B. counts the genes in DNA
B. All organisms contain RNA
C. separates DNA based on size
C. The most important genes are differ-
D. allows for an exact replicated organ-
ent among most people
ism
D. No two people, except identical twins,
have exactly the same DNA 111. A special protein that targets a specific
base sequence and cuts DNA into smaller
105. What type of evidence is DNA? fragments
A. Class A. Gene
B. Trace B. DNA Probe
C. Individual C. Exon
D. Direct D. Restriction Enzyme

112. Once DNA has been extracted from the D. separation DNA fragments using gel
nucleus of a cell, it is exposed to electrophoresis
that act like biochemical scissors to cut the

DNA. 117. Which of the following is an enzymatic
A. restriction enzymes protein that acts as DNA glue?
B. gel agarose A. plasmid

C. clotting factors B. restriction enzyme
D. electric shock C. ligase
113. In order for DNA fingerprints to match, D. protein expression

the columns must have bands in the exact
same places with the exact same 118. IN PCR why is the DNA heated?
A. color A. To split the DNA strand

B. width B. To remove the DNA strand
C. length C. To correct the DNA strand
114. Comparing DNA evidence from a crime 119. What applications can gel electrophoresis
scene with DNA taken from a suspect is be used for?
what?
A. Parental Testing
A. Tissue matching
B. Criminal Investigations
B. DNA testing
C. DNA evidence C. All of the above
115. The name for the ends of DNA that have 120. Pattern of DNA fragments obtained by
been produced by a restriction enzyme examining a person’s unique sequence of
A. sticky ends DNA base pairs
B. DNA fragments A. Chromosome

C. recombinant DNA B. DNA Probe
D. none of above C. DNA Fingerprint
116. Which of the following would be an ex- D. Electrophoresis

ample of gene therapy?
121. DNA Fingerprinting can be used to:
A. development of a man-made virus that
contains copies of the normal gene that is A. determine paternity (who the father is)
defective in person with cystic fibrosis B. examine biodiversity
B. cutting DNA into fragments with re- C. identify someone who was killed
striction enzymes
D. solve crimes
C. making bacteria produce indigo dye
for coloring denim blue jeans E. all of these

122. Chromosome pairs 1-22 are referred to C. protein

as D. lipid
A. sex chromosomes
128. Sickle cell disease (abnormally shaped
B. sister chromatids red blood cells) is a recessive disease in hu-
C. a karyotype mans. Which gene combination(s) would
result in someone being affected by sickle
D. autsomes
cell disease?
123. A plasmid containing foreign DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. SS
A. recombinant DNA B. ss
B. a vector (cloning vector) C. Ss
C. both answers are correct D. none of above
D. none of above 129. POLYMORPHISM IS
124. Which of these does NOT have DNA? A. VARIATION AT HIGHER FREQUENCY
A. Blood B. VARIATION AT GENETIC LEVEL
B. Hair C. MULTIPLE VARIATION
C. Urine D. NONE OF THESE
D. Shirt fibers 130. DNA stands for what?

A. Determined natural assets
125. The segment of a chromosome that con-
tains the information used to produce a B. Deoxyriboenucleic Acid
protein is a(n): C. Inherited traits
A. Intron D. none of above
B. DNA probe 131. What could a scientist use after they
C. Gene have done polymerase chain reaction
(PCR) AND restriction enzymes?
D. Exon
A. karyotype
126. Which of the following best describes
B. collection sample
VNTR?
C. restriction enzyme
A. Non-coding DNA that is 2-5 bases in
length D. run gel electrophoresis
B. Non-coding DNA that is 9-80 bases in 132. Genetic engineering has produced goats
length whose milk contains proteins that can be
used as medicines. This effect was pro-
C. A process of generating multiple
duced by
copies of DNA
A. mixing genes into the milk
D. A method of determining paternity
B. injecting genes into the goats udders
127. T6-What type of macromolecule are re- C. inserting foreign genes into fertilized
striction enzymes? goat eggs
A. nucleic acid D. genetically modifying the nutritional
B. carbohydrate needs of the goats offspring

133. An alternate form of a gene is a(n) C. differentiation

A. Allele D. selective breeding

B. Gene
139. Unique patterns of repeated base se-
C. Probe quences that that are exclusive to individ-
D. none of above uals are called:
134. A method of separating DNA fragments A. sticky ends

according to their size and charge using an B. restriction sites
electric current passed through a gel con-
taining the samples a C. polymorphisms
A. Chromosome D. duplications
B. DNA Probe 140. Biological evidence is used in forensics
C. Electrophoresis for identification purposes. Biological ev-
D. Restriction Enzyme idence includes
A. blood
135. What does PCR stand for?
B. saliva
A. Polymerase Chronic Reagent
B. Principle Chorionic Reliability C. urine
C. Polymerase Chain Reaction D. all of these choices

D. Probably Cannot React 141. What are the 2 types of repeating DNA
136. Which type of polymorphisms involve sequences?
DNA sequences that range in length for 9 A. VNTR
to 80 Baes
B. STR
A. STR
C. LRS
B. VNTR
D. DRS
C. PCR
D. VWR 142. Which is NOT a good sample to use when
identifying someone?
137. this is characterized by a tight circular
pattern in the center of the print A. drop of blood sample
A. tented arch B. a fingernail sample
B. double loop C. a hair sample
C. central pocket loop D. a plant sample
D. plain whorl
143. Restriction Enzymes
138. What process best explains how muscle A. cut DNA at precise locations
cells and nerve cells can develop from the
same fertilized egg? B. help bacteria to pick up DNA
A. genetic engineering C. move DNA through a gel
B. survival of the fittest D. copy DNA

144. Black fur (B) is dominant. Find the prob- C. DNA Fingerprint
ability of a black offspring in a cross:bb x D. DNA Analysis
bb.
A. 0% 150. Why is gel electrophoresis successful in
using electricity?
B. 25%
A. DNA fragments are negatively charged
C. 50%
B. DNA fragments are magnetic
D. 100%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. DNA fragments are positively charged
145. are encoded DNA, with directions to D. DNA fragments are identical
build molecules
A. exons 151. What is the name of the system that
stores DNA profiles?
B. introns
A. AFIS
C. mitochondria
B. AFL
D. proteins
C. CODIS
146. What is ethics?
D. IBIS
A. doing what religion tells us to do
152. Where is DNA found in the body?
B. doing what the law tells us to do
A. Cells nucleus
C. doing what society wants us to do
B. Heart
D. standards of right and wrong deter-
mining what humans ought to do C. Cartilage
D. Muscle
147. What is a stem cell?
A. a cell that has a stem 153. What are the small DNA fragments
formed from cutting called?
B. an unspecialized cells from which dif-
ferentiated cells develop A. RFLP, Restriction Fragment Length
Polymorphisms
C. cells that are found in plant stem
B. STR, Short Tandem Repeats
D. cells that are found in bacteria only
C. VNTR, Variable Numbers of Tandem
148. On human chromosomes, the locus (loca- Repeats
tion) marked AMEL is a person’s:
D. none of above
A. gender
B. eye color 154. The process of DNA fingerprinting is
based on the fact that
C. age
A. everyone has the exact same DNA.
D. race
B. no two people, except identical twins,
149. Collection of DNA fragments that can be have exactly the same DNA as someone
used to identify genetically unique individ- else.
uals C. most genes are dominant.
A. Amplify D. None of the other answer choices is
B. DNA Ladder correct.

155. What is the purpose of gel electrophore- 160. Which of the following is a protein that
sis? acts as DNA scissors?

A. helps cut DNA A. plasmid
B. count the genes in DNA B. restriction enzyme
C. separates DNA based on size C. ligase
D. allows for an exact replicated organ- D. protein expression

ism 161. Tandem repeats of short DNA sequences
with varying numbers of repeats found
156. Large amounts of high-quality DNA are
among individuals.
digested with restriction enzymes and
fragments are separated for analysis A. STR (Short Tandem Repeat)
A. Human Genome Project B. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)
B. loci C. VNTR (Variable number of Tandem Re-

peats)
C. Short Tandem Repeat Analysis
D. none of above
D. Restriction Fragment Length Polymor-
phism 162. Which other base pair of DNA does
Thymine match with?
157. Which type of repeating sequence is pre- A. Guanine
ferred for DNA fingerprinting and why?
B. Adenine
A. VNTR, because it is longer
C. Cytosine
B. STR, because it is shorter
D. Uracil
C. They are both the same
163. DNA sequences can often be used to de-
D. none of above termine relationships between
158. Before doing gel electrophoresis, the A. nutritional needs
DNA to be test must be cut into different B. organisms
sized fragments by:
C. habitats
A. DNA Ligase
D. none of above
B. DNA Polymerase
164. Bacteria are awesome! They
C. Restriction Enzymes
A. produce restriction enzymes
D. Primase
B. contain plasmids that can act as
159. What is the radioactively labeled cloning vectors
molecule used to locate the particular DNA C. can act as a host cell to make human
sequence of interest on a gel? insulin
A. Probe D. all of these are correct
B. Molecule 165. this pattern resembles a church steeple
C. Allele A. tented arch
D. none of above B. accidental whorl

C. plain arch 171. A molecule labeled with radioactive iso-

tope, dye or enzyme that is used to locate
D. central pocket
a particular sequence or gene.
166. The human genome consists of approxi- A. DNA Probe
mately base pairs. B. DNA Fingerprint
A. 3 billion C. Electrophoresis
B. 3 million D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 30 billion 172. Used to cut genes from DNA.
D. 1 billion A. DNA cloning
B. Therapeutic cloning
167. PCR is used for
C. vector
A. amplification of DNA
D. restriction enzymes
B. replication of DNA
173. The complemintary nucleotides in both
C. digestion of DNA DNA strands are bonded with:
D. separation of DNA A. nitrogen bonds
B. hydrogen bonds
168. If your genotype is Bb, what type of trait
would you express as a phenotype? C. none of them involved
A. Dominant D. none of above
B. Recessive 174. What is a Codon?

C. Both the dominant and recessive traits A. 4 base pairs that transfer to amino
acids
D. none of above B. 3 base pairs that transfer to amino

acids
169. Plasmid Activity:what does the LONG C. 3 base pairs that transfer to DNA
GREY sequence of DNA represent? D. 3 base pairs that transfer to mRNA
A. plasmid DNA
175. Half of the Bands in a baby’s DNA finger-
B. DNA containing insulin gene print come from their
C. restriction enzymes A. Uncle
D. none of above B. Cousin
C. Father
170. If you tease apart a human chromosome,
D. Grandfather
you will see it is made up of
A. one stand of DNA 176. Which is NOT an example of a use of
biotechnology?
B. two stands of DNA
A. growing a liver for transplant in a lab
C. three strands of DNA
B. using stem cells to speed up growth
D. four strands of DNA and repair of tissue

C. identifying the sex of a child using 182. How many STR cores does the FBI use to
sonogram identify criminals?

D. identifying the father of a child A. 10
177. original chromosomeABC-DEFmutated B. 11
chromosomeAC-DEFThis is a mutation. C. 12
A. frameshift D. 13
B. point
183. This one cuts specific sequence of DNA in
C. deletion
recombinant DNA
D. substitution
A. Transfer Vectors
178. A technique used by scientist to distin- B. DNA ligases
guish between individuals of the same
species using only samples of their DNA. C. Restriction enzymes
A. DNA Fingerprinting D. none of above
B. STR
184. Selective breeding is
C. DNA Photographing
A. a process to create an organism with
D. none of above desired traits from parents with those de-
sired traits
179. Transgenic organisms are
A. The ones that acts as vehicles to trans- B. natural method of producing offspring
port the DNA with desired traits
B. The ones that join segments of DNA C. creating a new species

C. The ones that have recieved the new D. making organisms reproduce during
gene times of stress
D. The ones that cut a specific sequence 185. Which is NOT a use for DNA fingerprint-
of DNA ing?
180. In gel electrophoresis, small strands will A. identifying diseases
B. comparing unknown species
A. travel the farthest
C. fixing genes
B. travel the closest
D. comparing crime scene DNA
C. travel sometimes
E. identifying parents
D. always travel half way
181. Region of un-coded DNA, that do not code 186. What is the full form of SNPs?
for anything is called what? A. SMALL NUCLEAR PROTIENS
A. Junk DNA B. SINGLE NUMBER PROTIENS
B. Exons C. SINGLE NUCLEOTIDE POLYMOR-
C. Deoxyribonucleic PHISM
D. none of above D. SINGLE NUCLEOTIDE PROTIENS

187. Type of DNA that varies most among in- 192. The STR segments on your DNA are inher-
dividuals and is used to create DNA finger- ited from your parents. So for each STR
prints. segment you have alleles.
A. non-coding DNA A. 1
B. coding DNA B. 2
C. Deoxyribose
C. 3
D. hydrogen bonds
D. 4
NARAYAN CHANGDER
188. On an electropherogram, alleles are rep-
resented by 193. Which process separates DNA based on
size so that each fragment can be seen?
A. peaks on a graph
B. letters like AA or Aa A. polymerase chain reaction
C. blue dots on a test strip B. use of restriction enzymes
D. band on an autorad C. karyotypes
189. this the most common pattern and is D. gel electrophoresis
made up of ridges that resemble hairpins
or staples. It slants towards the small 194. What is the name of the United States
bone of the arm, the ulna, on the same side Electronic database of DNA profiles?
as the little finger. A. CODIS
A. radial loop B. MAVIS
B. ulnar loop
C. FBIS
C. central pocket
D. none of above
D. plain whorl
195. Restriction Enzyme A reads AGTC and
190. Gel electrophoresis can be used to ana-
cuts between G and T. Cut the following
lyze DNA. Which best represents a use of
DNA:ACTCAGTCCTCTAAGCCAGTCCTCAAAAGTCHow
this process?
many fragments are there?
A. to determine if the cell has made a mis-
take during translation A. 1
B. to identify the sequence of DNA ni- B. 2
trogenous bases in a sample C. 3
C. to compare DNA from two different in-
D. 4
dividuals
D. to provide the number of chromo- 196. A segment of DNA in a chromosome that
somes present in an individual contains information used to produce a pro-
tein
191. What is the genome responsible for?
A. Gene
A. to code for traits
B. to tell the body to make proteins B. Allele
C. to code for mutations C. Chromosome
D. to tell the body to make more DNA D. Chromatid

197. this is an irregular circular pattern 203. What lab technique separates DNA
A. accidental whorl molecules by size in order to analyze
DNA?

B. double loop
A. Gel Electrophoresis
C. central pocket
B. Fingerprinting
D. plain whorl
C. Cloning
198. Which technique would most likely be D. DNA Extraction
used by forensic scientists?
204. T6-In order to insert a human gene into
A. DNA fingerprinting plasmid, both must
B. karyotyping A. code for the same gene product.
C. cloning B. be cut by the same restriction enzyme.
D. gene therapy C. originate from the same type of cell.
199. who discovered DNA FINGERPRINTING D. have identical sequences.
A. ALEC JEFFERY 205. DNA fingerprinting works because

B. LALJI SINGH A. Most genes are dominant
C. MEISCHER B. All organisms contain RNA
D. ALTMAN C. The most important genes are differ-
ent among most people
200. The entire collection of genes within hu- D. No two people, except identical twins,
man cells is referred to as the have exactly the same DNA
A. human genome
206. Gel ELECTROPHORESIS IS DONE FOR
B. karyotype
A. DNA EXTRACTION
C. pedigree
B. DNA FRAGMENTATION
D. gene map C. SEPARATION OF DNA FRAGMENTS
201. This technique is used to copy target seg- D. DETECTION OF HYBRIDISED DNA
ments of DNA
207. A molecule labeled with a radioactive iso-
A. Gel electrophoresis tope, dye, or enzyme that is used to locate
B. PCR a particular sequence or gene on a DNA
molecule
C. RLFP
A. DNA probe
D. STR
B. Gene
202. DNA fingerprinting can be used for? C. Chromosome
A. Paternity Testing D. Intron
B. Criminal Investigations
208. How many nitrogenous bases does DNA
C. Sequencing Endangered Species DNA have?
D. All of the above A. 4

B. 3 214. Pattern of DNA fragments obtained by

C. 2 examining a person’s unique sequence of
DNA base pairs is referred to as
D. 1
A. PCR
209. DNA fragments can be sorted according
to their size by the technique of B. Chromosome
A. PCR C. Electrophoresis
B. electrophoresis D. DNA Fingerprinting
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. STR
215. Which is NOT a function of buffer in gel
D. none of above
electrophoresis
210. Which DNA strands move the fastest A. from preventing the gel from drying
through the gel when the electricity is out
turned on?
B. to allow the fragments to move
A. The long strands
through gel with ease
B. The short strands
C. to allow an electrical current to flow
C. The medium strands
through it
D. They all move the same
D. to keep the fragmented DNA from an-
211. In 1984 Dr alec jeffreys observed that nealing back together
DNA from different individuals contains
different polymorphisms. His laboratory 216. Which specific characteristic of DNA al-
developed a technique for isolating and an- lows geneticists to identify people using
alyzing these variable areas known as DNA fingerprinting?
A. DNA quantifying or DNA profiling A. The shape of the DNA molecule is
B. DNA fingerprinting or DNA profiling unique to every person.
C. DNA sorting or DNA profiling B. The nucleotide sequence is unique to
D. DNA investigating or DNA profiling every person.
212. In order for DNA to be visible in the gel, C. The number of chromosomes is unique
it needs to be to every person.
A. stained D. The size of each chromosome is unique

to every person.
B. charged
C. chopped 217. The sides of the helix, referred to as the
D. liquified backbone of DNA, are made up of:
213. Which of the following is considered as A. alternating sugar and phosphate

the main use of DNA fingerprinting? molecules
A. Identifying blood relatives B. alternating base and phosphate
B. Diseases molecules
C. Criminal Investigation C. paired nitrogenous bases

D. none of above D. d. paired sugar molecules

218. A cell that has not yet differentiated into fragments a. Gene c. DNA Probe b. Exon
a specialized cell d. Restriction Enzyme

A. germ cell A. Gene
B. somatic cell B. DNA Probe
C. stem cell C. Exon
D. gamete D. Restriction Enzyme
219. What could a scientist use after a poly- 224. Biologists need additional copies of a
merase chain reaction (PCR)? DNA fragment. What tool should they
A. karyotype use?
B. collection sample A. Gel Electrophoresis
C. restriction enzyme B. PCR
D. gel electrophoresis results C. Restriction enzymes
220. What are some examples of common D. This isn’t possible
DNA samples left somewhere?
225. DNA evidence is considered what type of
A. Blood evidence?
B. Hair cells
A. class
C. Skin cells
B. individual
D. All of the above
C. physical
221. DNA sequences that have instructions for D. circumstantial
making a protein molecule that determines
our inherited characteristics or traits such 226. What happens in the Denature step of
as blood type or enzyme production are: PCR?
A. alleles A. The DNA nucleotides are broken apart.
B. chromosomes B. The base-pairing rules for DNA are re-
C. genes versed.
D. genomes C. The double-stranded DNA is separated
into two single strands of DNA.
222. In this type of DNA replication, of the
two newly formed molecules, one is purely D. The DNA is returned to its natural set-
a new one and the other is an old one ting.
A. dispersive 227. A change or mistake in the DNA sequence

B. conservative can cause
C. semiconservative A. Mutation
D. none of above B. Incomplete Dominance
C. Cancer
223. A special protein that targets a specific
base sequence and cuts DNA into smaller D. Mitosis

228. Restriction enzymes cut DNA at locations C. transformation

called D. DNA fingerprinting
A. vectors
234. DNA is shaped like what?
B. palindromes
A. Cluster
C. genomes
B. Double Helix
D. active sites
C. Single Helix
are the non-coded DNA segments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
229. D. Ladder
that contain unique patterns of repeated
base sequences that that are unique to in- 235. Regions of encoded DNA, with directions
dividuals. to build molecules are called what?
A. polymorphisms A. Genome
B. introns B. Exons
C. exons C. Introns
D. mitochondria D. none of above
230. As of 2018, the NDIS contained how 236. What are the sides of the helix called?
many profiles for arrestees? A. The side bars
A. 13 million B. Backbone of DNA
B. 840 thousand C. Side helix
C. 415 thousand D. none of above
D. 3 million
237. Short Tandem Repeats are 2 to bases
231. Restriction Enzymes come from in length.
A. viruses A. 18
B. bacteria B. 5
C. goats C. 8
D. spiders D. 12
232. When DNA is transcribed to RNA 238. An organized structure of DNA and pro-
A. A pairs with U tein found in cells that contains the genetic
code of an individual
B. C pairs with U
A. Chromosome
C. A pairs with T
B. Exon
D. C pairs with T
C. Gene
233. What is the term for the technique per- D. Intron
formed by using gel electrophoresis to
identify an individual using a DNA sam- 239. A molecule that cuts a DNA molecule at a
ple? specific, base sequence.
A. cloning A. Allele
B. gene therapy B. Restriction Enzyme

C. DNA Probe 245. What is a locus (plural = loci)?

D. DNA Polymerase Enzyme A. the swarm that locusts fly in

240. What is the lab technique that is used to B. the graph that results from performing
generate multiple copies of DNA so that a STR analysis
there is more to test? C. a site or location on a chromosome
A. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) D. a peak on an electropherogram
B. STR (Short Tandem Repeats) 246. i. Intron segments make up of DNA
C. VNTR (Variable Number Tandem Re- and are often referred to as ‘junk DNA’.
peats) A. 98.5%
D. Gel Electrophoresis B. 98%
241. Which DNA fragment bands move faster C. 58%
and farther during gel electrophoresis? D. 68%
A. the medium size fragments 247. Your DNA fingerprint
B. the largest fragments A. is always changing.
C. the smallest fragments B. is the same as your fingerprints.
D. none of above C. is identical to everyone but twins.
242. What does PCR do? D. appears as a unique series of frag-
ments.
A. makes copies of a sample DNA
B. separate DNA fragments according to 248. What is the purpose of PCR?
size A. To determine paternity
C. takes a picture of someone’s chromo- B. To determine if a crime scene sample
some matches a suspect
D. cuts DNA into having sticky ends C. Generate a DNA profile
243. What are 4 components of gel elec- D. Generate multiple copies of DNA
trophoresis? 249. To separate DNA fragments which tech-
A. Scissors, Electricity, a Buffer and a Mi- nique is used?
crowave A. Gel Electrophoresis
B. Gel, Electricity, Meiosis and a Buffer B. Blotting
C. Scissors, Meiosis, a Microwave and C. Sequence annotation
Agarose
D. Northern blotting
D. Gel, Electricity, a Buffer and DNA
250. What causes DNA strands to move during
244. The shape of DNA is best described as: gel electrophoresis
A. a twisty A. electricity
B. a ladder B. heat
C. a double helix C. enzymes
D. a spiral D. primers

251. How many base pairs make up the human D. To remove DNA from the nucleus
genome?
257. In preparation for an electrophoresis pro-
A. Approximately 3 billion
cedure, restrictive enzymes are added to
B. Exactly 2 billion DNA in order to
C. No one knows A. convert the DNA into gel
D. none of above B. cut the DNA into fragments
252. DNA is what shape?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. change the color of the DNA
A. Helix D. produce longer sections of DNA
B. Triple Helix
258. What tool cuts DNA into smaller portions
C. Double Helix
that can then be studied?
D. Circular
A. probes
253. DNA fingerprinting can:(mark all that ap- B. restriction enzymes
ply)
C. DNA polymerase
A. match crime scene DNA with a suspect
D. heat
B. free a falsely imprisoned individual
C. identify human remains 259. Which example shows a correct comple-
D. determine maternity, paternity, or mentary base pair?
match to another relative A. Cytosine-Thymine
254. In the nucleus of most human body cells, B. Adenine-Thymine
there are C. Adenine-Guanine
A. 23 pairs of chromosomes
D. Guanine-Thymine
B. 46 pairs of chromosomes
C. 92 chromosomes 260. Which technique is used to amplify DNA
for analysis
D. None of these choices
A. PCR
255. This is a technique for separating
B. STR
molecules (in this case, DNA fragments)
based on their size. C. KTM
A. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) D. RNA
B. STR (Short Tandem Repeats)
261. Tandem repeats of a short DNA sequence
C. electrophoresis with varying numbers of repeats among
D. exemplifying individuals.
256. What is the role of restriction enzymes? A. STR (Short Tandem Repeats)
A. To cut the DNA into fragments B. VNTR (Variable Number of Tandem Re-
peats)
B. To dye the DNA
C. DNA Fingerprinting
C. To move the DNA fragments through-
out the gel D. none of above

262. DNA has what charge? 268. What is mixed with the crime scene DNA
A. negative to begin the process of amplification?

B. positive A. nucleotides and primers
C. neutral B. nucleotides and proteins

C. proteins and primers
D. electrified
D. proteins and amino acids
263. Mitochondrial DNA is
269. A frameshift mutation would result from
A. inherited only from the mother
B. in the shape of a triple helix
A. a base deletion only
C. inherited only from the father
B. a base substitution only
D. not useful in forensic science C. either an insertion or deletion of a
264. of the population has this type of pattern base
A. loops D. a base insertion only
B. whorls 270. In 2011, how many DNA profiles were

C. arches stored from convicted felons?
D. ripples A. 138, 000

B. 9.4 million
265. In which year was DNA fingerprinting
C. 360, 000
used to solve a criminal case for the first
time? D. 8 billion
A. 1896 271. This process separates DNA fragments
B. 1986 by using an electrical current.
C. 1976 A. DNA Extraction
D. 1796 B. Polymerase Chain Reaction
C. Gel Electrophoresis
266. A nucleotide is made up of three
parts:which of these is not one of those D. DNA Replication
parts? 272. What charge is DNA?
A. sugar A. positive
B. phosphate B. negative
C. amino acids C. neutral
D. base D. none of above
267. making many copies of those fragments 273. How do scientists cut DNA into smaller
of DNA, is called? strands?
A. amplification A. restriction enzymes
B. extraction B. scissors
C. cutting C. ligase
D. handling D. agarose

274. Collection of DNA fragments that can be 279. What are the 3 components that make up
used to identify genetically unique individ- a nucleotide (monomer of DNA)
uals, also known as DNA Profiling. A. i. Phosphate Groupii. 5-carbon Sug-
A. Amplify ariii. Nitrogenous Base
B. DNA Ladder B. i. Phosphate Groupii. 6-carbon Sug-
C. DNA Fingerprint ariii. Nitrogenous Base
D. DNA Analysis C. i. Phosphate Groupii. 5-carbon Sug-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ariii. Carbon Base
275. The Human Genome Project has made di-
D. none of above
agnosing genetic disorders easier. Once a
genetic disorder is diagnosed in a person, 280. Segment of DNA in a chromosome that
can be used as a possible treatment for contains information used to produce a pro-
that person. tein
A. genetic engineering A. genome
B. gene therapy B. exons
C. DNA fingerprinting C. gene
D. cell cultures D. introns
276. Which option is correct when analyzing a 281. How do stem cells know what type of
karyotype? cells to differentiate into?
A. the Y chromosome will look smaller A. The nucleus has instructions to turn
than the X some genes on and some genes off.
B. the Y and X chromosomes appear to be B. Signals from chemicals in the organ-
the same size ism or from the environment determine
C. the X will be very different sizes which genes will be turned on and off.
D. none of above C. Genes turn on and off randomly.
277. These are laboratory-made fragments of D. The cell has unique DNA that deter-
DNA that are complementary to loci that mines what the cell will become.
we desire to be amplified (copied).
282. To generate multiple copies of DNA so
A. alleles you can have more to test, this technique
B. genes is used.
C. primers A. PCR
D. heterozygotes B. STR
C. Plasmid generating
278. T6-Combining DNA from 2 different or-
ganisms is called D. Gel Electrophoresis
A. Bioengineering 283. DNA is made when these two strands
B. Biotechnology twist together in a shape called the
C. Recombinant DNA A. double helix
D. Genetic Engineering B. single helix

C. Repeating helix 289. is to make copies of DNA

D. none of above A. replicate

B. recycle
284. An alternate form of a gene.
C. reuse
A. Gene
D. rejoice
B. Chromosome
290. Traits that are passed from generation to
C. Allele
generation are called
D. none of above
A. Excited Traits
285. Non-coded DNA segments that contain B. Inherited Traits
unique patterns of repeated base se- C. Inclined Traits
quences that are unique to individuals.
D. Special Traits
A. Junk DNA
B. Exons 291. DNA sequences that repeat and are 9 to
80 bases in length are called?
C. Polymorphisms
A. STR
D. none of above
B. VNTR
286. What method uses an electric current to C. CODIS
separate DNA fragments by size? D. PCR
A. DNA Splicing
292. this is a two looped pattern
B. Gel electrophoresis
A. radial loop
C. DNA Fingerprint
B. double loop
D. Polymerase Chain Reaction
C. ulnar loop
287. Most of the human genome variation in D. plain whorl
humans is found in the
293. Which fragments move the furthest
A. proteins through the gel?
B. the DNA bases A. smaller
C. the exons B. bigger
D. the introns C. denser
D. lighter
288. What is another name for DNA finger-
printing? 294. What shape is a molecule of DNA?
A. DNA Replication A. Double helix
B. DNA Profiling B. A bunch of squares
C. DNA Copying C. Candy Canes
D. DNA making D. none of above

295. (a) DNA Bands move slower through an C. identify human remains
electrophoresis machine. D. determine cause of death
A. Longer
301. If two double-stranded DNA molecules
B. Shorter are used at the beginning of a polymerase
C. Older chain reaction (PCR) process, how many
D. Younger double-stranded DNA molecules can be ob-
tained after two cycles?
296. DNA sequences with a high degree of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. 2
polymorphism are
B. 4
A. least useful for DNA analysis
C. 8
B. most useful for DNA analysis
D. 32
C. not useful for DNA analysis
D. None of these choices 302. A method used to rapidly make multiple
copies of a specific segment of DNA.
297. is used to identify the unique patterns
A. PCR (Polymerse Chain Reaction)
in a person’s DNA.
B. Electrophoresis
A. RNA Eye Test
C. DNA Probe
B. DNA Fingerprinting
D. none of above
C. Echolocation
D. Gene Splicing 303. Why do bacteria have restriction en-
zymes?
298. What is the function of the gel in Gel Elec-
A. To prevent being infected by viruses
trophoresis?
B. To help DNA get into the cell
A. extract DNA from the liquid
C. To be able to grow in an incubator
B. filter the DNA as it moves through the
system D. They don’t-viruses have restriction en-
zymes
C. buffer the DNA so it keeps moving
D. charge the DNA so it will move to the 304. In gel electrophoresis, DNA is separated
opposite side of the system based on
299. Which sample would be the MOST useful A. The length of the restriction site on the
in identifying a person? DNA strand
A. a soil sample B. The size of the DNA fragments
B. a hair sample C. The number of species represented in

the DNA sample
C. a page of a book
D. The size of the cell from which the DNA
D. a piece of wood was removed
300. Which of the following is NOT something 305. A molecule labeled with a radioactive iso-
that DNA fingerprinting can do? tope or dye used to locate a gene on a DNA
A. eliminate a suspect molecule is
B. free falsely imprisoned individuals A. Primer

B. Intron 311. Which process requires the most DNA?

C. Genome A. RFLP

D. DNA probe B. STR
306. DNA fingerprints are used in forensics C. PCR
provide banding patterns, like finger- D. Recombinant DNA
prints on a hand, to identify suspects. (1
312. What happens during the Anneal step of
point)
PCR?
A. ubiquitous (common to everyone)
A. Primers are created.
B. unique
B. The primers attach to the target DNA
C. random region.
D. arbitrary C. Primers copy the new DNA strand.
307. What enzyme is used during PCR to D. Primers sequence DNA
pair complementary bases to the template 313. An exon
strand?
A. Codes for proteins
A. Thermonuclease
B. Does not code for proteins
B. Helicase
C. is a major conglomerate that supplies
C. DNA Polymerase gasoline
D. RNA Polymerase D. has nothing to do with DNA
308. A scientist cloned a goat. Which of 314. DNA in chromosomes is called DNA.
these is a true statement about the cloned
A. nuclear
goat?
B. mitochondrial
A. It has new genes and traits
C. physical
B. It lacks the genes for reproduction
D. chemical
C. It has the genes that are identical to
the original goat 315. “Natural” clones exist outside of a lab
D. It looks the same but has different setting. Which of the following is one ex-
genes. ample of this phenomenon?
A. Identical twins
309. Where are the variations in DNA found?
B. Siblings
A. Exons
C. Fraternal twins
B. Introns
D. Sexual Reproduction
C. Nucleus
D. none of above 316. Which of the following is a circular DNA
from bacteria that can hold a foreign
310. Where in a cell is DNA found? gene?
A. In the ribosomes A. plasmid
B. In chromosomes, in the nucleus B. restriction enzyme
C. In the electrons C. ligase
D. none of above D. protein expression

317. DNA fingerprinting may be used to do C. CAT

which of the following? D. TAG
A. Identify gender
323. Which sequence of complementary DNA
B. Identify criminals
bases would pair with this partial stran-
C. Identify parents and offspring dATG TGA CAG?
D. Identify genetic disorders A. ATG TGA CAG
318. this is a concentric pattern. The pattern is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. TAC ACT GTC
slanted towards the radial bone, the thick
C. GTA AGT GAC
bone on the thumb side of the hand.
D. CAT TCA CTG
A. radial loop
B. ulnar loop 324. Genes come in various versions, which
C. double loop can be different among individuals. A ver-
sion of a gene would be called
D. plain whorl
A. codon
319. Which of the following monomers are re-
B. primer
peatedly joined together to form a strand
of DNA? C. standard
A. amino acids D. allele
B. nucleotides
325. How many STR markers/loci does the
C. fatty acids FBI use to identify criminals in America?
D. polysaccharides A. 17
320. Which process can turn one piece of DNA B. 4
into 200 pieces of DNA? C. 26
A. karyotype
D. 13
B. gel electrophoresis
326. Which of these nitrogenous bases is NOT
C. polymerase chain reaction
in RNA?
A. Uracil
321. Biological evidence should be B. Thymine
A. stored in air-tight containers
C. Cytosine
B. frozen using liquid nitrogen
D. Guanine
C. packaged as quickly as possible
D. put into breathable containers 327. Who is credited for discovering DNA fin-
gerprinting?
322. Which region of the DNA sequence below
A. Watson & Crick
is repeated 3 times in the following se-
quence:TGCACGATCATCATCATAGCCCT B. Edmond Locard
A. TCA C. Ms. Chowdhury
B. TGC D. Alec Jeffreys

328. The process of DNA Fingerprinting is B. Cloning, ribosome

based on the fact that
C. transcription, translation

A. everyone has the exact same DNA.
D. cumulus, mitochondria
B. no 2 people, except identical twins,
have exactly the same DNA as someone 334. What is the purpose of the Extension
else. step of PCR?
C. most genes are dominant. A. To create the primers.
D. None of the other answer choices are B. To extend the time it takes to produce
correct. DNA.
329. What process is used to determine if two C. To allow polymerase to create the com-
DNA samples match? plementary strands of DNA.
A. Gel Electrophoresis D. To allow substrates to copy DNA se-
B. PCR quences.
C. Population Genetics 335. If there is only one allele (one peak) on
D. Agar Plating the electropherogram for a particular locus,
what does that tell you about the geno-
330. CODIS is a system used to store DNA in- type?
formation of
A. the genotype is heterozygous
A. Convicted Felons
B. the genotype is codominant
B. DNA evidence from unsolved crimes
C. All of these C. the genotype is homozygous
D. Military personell D. the person did not inherit any allesl for
that STR loci
331. An intron
A. does code for proteins 336. Pharmaceutical companies use biotechnol-
ogy. Which of the following is NOT one of
B. does not code for proteins the uses?
C. has nothing to do with proteins A. creating insulin
D. is just like an exon
B. creating human growth hormone
332. Variable Numbers of Tandem Repeats ( C. genetically modifying plants to pro-
VNTR to bases in length duce vaccines.
A. 50 D. creation of products that will remove
B. 60 poisons from the body
C. 70
337. ELECTROPHORESIS IS DONE FOR
D. 80
A. DNA EXTRACTION
333. DNA is created by using the from
B. DNA FRAGMENTATION
a bacteria and splicing a section of DNA
into it. C. SEPARATION OF DNA FRAGMENTS
A. recombinant, plasmid D. DETECTION OF HYBRIDISED DNA

338. The total amount of DNA in a cell is called 343. Small amounts of biological evidence left
what? at crime scenes, called evidence, are
the of DNA needed for DNA fingerprinting.
A. Genome
A. trace
B. Deoxyribonucleic
B. secondary
C. Exons
C. primary
D. none of above
D. DNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
339. PROBES ARE
344. The non-coded segments of DNA that con-
A. RADIOACTIVE ONLY tain unique patterns of repeated base se-
B. COMPLIMENTARY TO VNTR quences that are unique to individuals are
called
C. NON RADIOACTIVE
A. Polymorphisms
D. SYNTHETIC DNA
B. Nuclear DNA
E. RADIOACTIVE SYNTHETIC DNA COM-
PLEMENTARY TO VNTR C. Exons
D. Mutations
340. Genes are found on
345. What is the structure of DNA?
A. ribosomes
A. double helix
B. Chromosomes
B. ladder
C. lysosomes
C. twisted helix
D. endoplasmic reticulum
D. double ladder
341. Which of the following is the correct def-
346. What is the complementary strand to
inition for a genotype?
AATCG
A. The physical expression of a gene.
A. AATCG
(Characteristics)
B. CCAGA
B. A strand of DNA made up of multiple
mutations. C. TTAGC
C. The expression of one of your parents D. GGTCG
traits.
347. At a particular STR locus on a person’s
D. The set of genes in our DNA which is chromosomes, if they have 2 DIFFERENT
responsible for a particular trait. lengths of the STR repeat, how is it cal-
culated for frequency? The multiplication
342. A cell structure that contains genetic in- process is:
formation along strands of DNA.
A. 2x (1st # of repeats x 2nd # of re-
A. Allele peats)
B. Chromosome B. 2x (# of repeats)
C. DNA C. 2x (# of repeats2)
D. none of above D. (# of repeats2)

348. Within the non-coding sections of DNA, C. Genome

certain short sequences of DNA are re- D. Restriction Enzyme
peated:

A. multiple times 354. During complementary base pairing, Ade-
nine pairs with what other nitrogenous
B. one time base?
C. three times A. Adenine
D. two times B. Cytosine
349. In preparation for an electrophoresis pro- C. Guanine
cedure, enzymes are added to DNA in or- D. Thymine
der to
A. convert the DNA into gel 355. The purpose of PCR is to:
B. cut the DNA into fragments A. Cut DNA
C. change the color of the DNA B. Move DNA into a cell
D. produce longer sections of DNA C. Analyze the length of DNA
D. Copy short segments of DNA
350. What should a scientist do if they have
a small amount of DNA they want to ana- 356. Except for identical twins no two people
lyze? on Earth have the same
A. Run gel electrophoresis A. Physical Characteristics
B. Do polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B. DNA
C. Use restriction enzymes C. blood group
D. Make a karyotype D. skeletal type
351. For what is PCR used? 357. which of the following are nitrogen bases
A. Amplifying small samples of DNA by within the strands of DNA?
copying it over and over again. A. thyroxin
B. Cutting DNA into fragments B. guanine
C. Separating DNA fragments by size C. tyrosin
D. Sequencing a person’s genome D. adrenaline
352. DNA that has been produced from 2 dif- E. lysine
ferent sources
358. Why does PCR require a specific type of
A. plasmid polymerase?
B. reverse transcriptase A. Taq polymerase can withstand the
C. recombinant DNA range of temperatures in PCR without de-
D. recognition site naturing.
B. Taq polymerase is the most inexpen-
353. The total amount DNA in a cell sive type of polymerase.
A. DNA Fingerprint C. Taq polymerase is the most common
B. Introns type of polymerase.

D. A specific type of polymerase is unnec- B. 20

essary. C. 10
359. After 2017, how many “loci” in the D. 25
CODIS core are required for known of-
fender profiles? 365. Which process cuts a DNA sample into
fragments?
A. 13
A. use of restriction enzymes
B. 20
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. karyotype
C. 10
D. 18
D. polymerase chain reaction
360. Why type of evidence is DNA?
366. A method used to make millions of copies
A. Class
of a specific segment of DNA from a very
B. direct small amount of DNA.
C. Individual A. DNA FIngerprint
D. none of above B. Electrophoresis
361. Most human cells have how many chro- C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
mosomes D. Restriction Enzyme
A. 23
367. Which of the following is a complicated
B. 24 series of steps that make proteins from
C. 46 coded instructions in DNA?
D. 48 A. plasmid
B. restriction enzyme
362. How do Polymorphisms appear on a DNA
fingerprint? C. ligase
A. As stars on a chart D. protein expression
B. As a pattern of bands 368. Which samples can be used for DNA sam-
C. They are invisible ple?
D. none of above A. Hair follicle
B. Bones
363. The base pair that starts with “A” is
called C. Saliva
A. Adenine D. All of the above
B. Alazine 369. How does a scientist cut DNA into frag-
C. Alpharel ments?
D. Aquazine A. Restriction enzymes
364. Most human cells have pairs of chro- B. Scissors

mosomes C. Electrophoresis

370. The process of transferring the codons to 375. DNA is found in what two organelles
the amino acids ends with what codon? A. Nucleus and Ribosomes

A. Stop B. Ribosomes and Mitochondria
B. Terminal C. Nucleolus and Golgi Body
C. End D. Nucleus and Mitochondria
D. Cancel
376. During gel electrophoresis, electrodes are
added so that:
371. Researchers have been working on
cloning animals such as sheep. Which re- A. The positive end is near the wells; the
sult is most likely to be a negative result negative end is opposite the wells
such as cloning? B. The negative end is near the wells; the
A. development of extra organs positive end is opposite the wells
B. premature death C. DNA fragments travel toward the pos-
itive end
C. a low rate of genetic diseases
D. Smaller DNA fragments travel slower
D. delayed aging than longer DNA fragments.
372. Recombinant DNA objective is 377. Which is the primary purpose of using re-
A. To give a new characteristic striction enzymes in gel electrophoresis?
B. To eliminate a characteristic A. It allows the strands of DNA to be cut

into various lengths for testing
C. To give a manipuation
B. It restricts the number of base pairs
D. To eliminate a protein that can be tested in a sample
C. It makes the testing simpler by moving
the strands into the gel faster
“gel electrophoresis? ”
D. It charges the DNA strands
A. A tool for separating DNA by size
B. A tool for editing someone’s genes 378. Which is another term for selective breed-
ing?
C. A tool for adding genes from a new
species into an organism’s DNA A. Artificial selection
D. Copying DNA to make an identical or- B. Natural Selection

ganism C. Intelligent selection
D. none of above
374. Which of the following terms describes
the process of the uptake of recombinant 379. Which of the following best describes a
plasmids into bacteria cells? DNA molecule?
A. rDNA technology A. contains ribose
B. transferrence B. made of amino acids
C. transformation C. contains Uracil
D. rDNA plasmid D. double helix

380. The total amount DNA in a cell is called B. molecular bases

the C. hormones
A. DNA Fingerprint D. ATP molecules
B. Introns
385. A swab is used to collect a DNA sam-
C. Genome ple from a cheek.
D. Restriction Enzyme A. buttal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
381. DNA restriction enzymes B. buccal
A. are used to repair DNA C. Q-tip
B. are involved in DNA synthesis D. DNA stick
C. restrict DNA from being amplified 386. What is the function of probes in DNA
D. cut DNA into fragments of different analysis?
lengths A. To identify the unique sequences in a
person’s DNA
382. What is the circular piece of DNA found
in bacteria called? B. To find areas of DNA that need replicat-
ing
A. homologous chromosome
C. To find the sequences to amplify
B. sister chromatid
D. To identify degraded DNA sequences
C. plasmid
D. arabinose 387. Who developed DNA profiling?
A. Edmond Locard
383. Comparing family members’ DNA for
proof of familial relationships is what? B. Alec Jefferys
A. Tissue matching C. Mrs. Borski
B. Inheritance matching D. Watson and Crick
C. Familial matching 388. A section of the DNA strand that deter-
D. none of above mines a specific trait
A. gene
384. Which chemicals are used to cut DNA into
fragments for a gel electrophoresis proce- B. trait
dure? C. chromosome
A. enzymes D. allele

7. Evolution
7.1 Formation of Earth and the Origins of Life

1. Earth’s early atmosphere contained 4. Why were mitochondria and chloroplasts
once believed to be prokaryotic organ-
A. lots of oxygen
isms?
B. mostly carbon dioxide with small
A. They both contain ribosomes and a
amounts of methane, ammonia and wa-
plasma membrane.
ter vapor
B. They both contain their own DNA and
C. mostly methane with small amounts of
reproduce by binary fission.
water vapor, carbon dioxide and ammonia
C. They both contain DNA found in mod-
D. mostly ammonia with small amounts of ern bacteria and reproduce sexually.
methane, water vapor and carbon dioxide
D. They both contain their own nuclei and
2. Which of the following terms is another plasma membranes.
name for spontaneous generation?
5. What molecule essential for life is missing
A. Abiogenesis in ‘protobionts’?
B. Biogenesis A. Carbohydrates
C. Chemical evolution B. Nucleic acids
D. Organic evolution C. Amino acids
D. Lipids
3. Which types of organisms developed first
due to the early environmental conditions 6. The movement of molecules against a con-
on Earth? centration gradient
A. eukaryotic and anaerobic A. simple diffusion
B. eukaryotic and aerobic B. facilitated diffusion
C. prokaryotic and aerobic C. active transport
D. prokaryotic and anaerobic D. osmosis

7.1 Formation of Earth and the Origins of Life 710
7. According to endosymbiosis, what did the 12. These two scientists hypothesized (but
ancient cell living within the host receive never tested) that the early Earth atmo-
from its host? sphere contained the necessary molecules
and energy sources to produce organic
A. Shelter
molecules.
B. Energy
A. Oparin-Haldane
C. Motility
B. Darwin-Wallace
D. Reproduction
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Miller-Urey
8. What was the result of the Miller-Urey Ex- D. Lyell-Hutton
periment?
13. Energy from sunlight and lightning allowed
A. amino acids the first organic molecules to form.
B. nucleotides A. spontaneous generation
C. lipids B. theory of biogenesis
D. glucose C. endosymbiont theory
9. What evidence do scientists have for mass D. primordial soup hypothesis

extinctions
14. Which is NOT considered a possible loca-
A. rocks tion on primitive Earth where conditions
B. fossils, volcanic ash and iridium in the would have allowed the synthesis of com-
fossil record plex organic compounds?
C. dirt A. near volcanoes
D. none of above B. dry, hot deserts

C. deep ocean vents
10. These scientists proved that organic
D. shallow seashores
molecules formed from inorganic molecules
present in the Earth’s early atmosphere 15. Which of the following refers to the evolu-
when given energy from lightening. tion of life from nonliving materials?
A. Lennon and McCartney A. chemical evolution
B. Einstein and Newton B. microevolution
C. Watson and Crick C. physical evolution
D. Miller and Urey D. organic evolution
11. Which of the following terms refers to life 16. A type of fossil that records and organ-
coming from other living things? ism’s activity
A. Abiogenesis A. permineralization
B. Biogenesis B. trace fossil
C. Spontaneous generation C. natural casts/molds
D. Endosymbiosis D. amber preserved fossils

17. The Geologic Time Scale is a record of 23. An environment that is lacking in free oxy-
A. Pangaea gen is called:

B. dirt A. Oxic
C. the history of the Earth preserved in B. Anoxic
rocks and fossils.
C. Aerobic
D. a bunch of dead things.
D. Anerobic
18. Endosymbiosis gave rise to
A. golgi bodies 24. Which of the following ideas that pock-
B. chloroplasts and mitochondrea ets of air released from underwater hy-
drothermic vents created tiny area in
C. ribosomes and nuclei which organic compounds could form and
D. the rough and smooth endoplasmic concentrate?
reticulum
A. Bubble hypothesis
19. Which ‘building block of life’ was NOT
B. Panspermia
made in the Miller Urey experiment?
A. amino acids C. Spontaneous generation
B. nucleic acids D. Endosymbiotic theory
C. sugars
25. Which of the following correctly sequences
D. lipids the order in which bacterial cells appeared
20. Which statement best describes conditions on Earth?
on early Earth? A. Aerobic bacteria, Photosynthetic bac-
A. hot with volcanic activity and electrical teria, Anaerobic bacteria
storms
B. Anaerobic bacteria, Aerobic bacteria,
B. dry land covered with volcanic dust Photosynthetic bacteria
C. cold oceans C. Anaerobic bacteria, Photosynthetic
D. dark and dusty with abundant water bacteria, Aerobic bacteria
21. RNA World Theory states that D. Photosynthetic bacteria, Aerobic bac-
A. Life came from RNA teria, Anaerobic bacteria
B. Life came from life 26. The first cells are thought to have been an
C. Life came from non living things accumulation of organic molecules. Called
D. Life came from outer space protobionts, these first cells contained all
of the following capabilities, except
22. The smallest unit which can be considered
life iscalled A. Metabolism
A. a prokaryote B. Separation from the outer environ-
ment
B. a LUCA
C. a cell C. Replication
D. a phospholipid D. Photosynthesis

27. Based upon the conditions of the early A. I, II, III, IV

Earth, which forms of live most likely ap-
B. I, III, II, IV
peared first?
A. Prokaryotic and aerobic C. II, III, I, IV
B. Prokaryotic and anaerobic D. II, I, III, IV
C. Eukaryotic and aerobic
33. The water used in the apparatus was used
D. Eukaryotic and anaerobic to mimic what part of early Earth?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
28. What did the endosymbiont (cell living in- A. sea
side another) receive from its host cell?
B. swimming pool
A. Shelter
C. ocean
B. Energy
C. Motility D. rain
D. Reproduction 34. Endosymbiotic theory states that a

29. Francesco Redi performed a controlled ex- larger prokaryotic cell engulfed a smaller
periment with flies and maggots to test prokaryotic cell which eventually devel-
this idea on the origin of life. oped a symbiotic relationship. What or-
ganelles are believed to have arisen from
A. spontaneous generation this symbiotic relationship?
B. theory of biogenesis
A. golgi bodies
C. endosymbiont theory
B. chloroplasts and mitochondria
D. primordial soup hypothesis
C. ribosomes and nuclei
30. Dinosaurs are the primary species in this
era. D. the rough and smooth endoplasmic
reticulum
A. precambrian
B. paleozoic 35. The apparatus in the experiment was used
C. mesozoic to mimic what?
D. cenozoic A. proteins
31. What was formed in the Miller-Urey ex- B. Earth’s present conditions
periments? C. early Earth’s conditions
A. amino acids
D. they didn’t mean to mimic anything in
B. proteins particular
C. living cells
D. DNA 36. Which are two types of prokaryotic cells?
A. plant and bacteria
32. Choose the answer that represents the cor-
rect sequence of events in the origin of B. plant and animal
life.I. formation of protobiontsII. synthe-
C. animal and bacteria
sis of organic compoundsIII. evolution of
prokaryotesIV. evolution of eukaryotes D. cyanobacteria and archaebacteria

37. The theory that mitochondria and chloro- 42. Put these organisms in order based on
plasts were once ancient prokaryotic is their appearance on the early Earth.1.
called Animals-Eukaryotic-heterotrophic cells2.

Photosynthetic Bacteria3. Plants-
A. endosymbiotic theory
Eukaryotic-autotrophic cells4. Het-
B. seed theory erotrophic bacteria
C. primordial soup A. 2-4-3-1
D. origin of life B. 1-2-3-4
38. Some of the earliest features (adapta- C. 2-3-4-1

tions) some animals developed to protect D. 4-3-2-1
themselves from predators were
43. A cell can be seen looking through a micro-
A. hard shells and a tails so that they scope. Seeing which of these organelles
could move would let you know that you are looking
B. eyes to see predators at a plant cell?
C. poison A. mitochondria
D. legs to run away B. chloroplast
C. cell membrane
39. The electrical sparks mimicked?
D. nucleus
A. heat waves
B. lightening 44. What gas was necessary for complex (eu-
karyotic) life to evolve?
C. volcano
A. methane
D. hurricane
B. oxygen
40. The Earth’s early atmosphere was primar- C. carbon dioxide
ily composed of carbon dioxide. What
type of organism could survive in these D. water vapor
conditions? YOU MAY SELECT MORE 45. Which concept refers to life arising from
THAN 1 ANSWER non-living molecules?
A. Aerobic Prokaryote A. Organic evolution
B. Aerobic Eukaryote B. Abiotic synthesis
C. Anaerobic Prokaryote C. Chemosynthesis
D. Photosynthetic Prokaryote D. Photosynthesis
41. Earth formed 4.5 billion years ago, but life 46. What is the most critical thing for the de-
did not show until around velopmentof life on Earth?
A. 3.5 billion years ago A. oxygen
B. 1 million years ago B. carbon dioxide
C. 200, 000 years ago C. time
D. 4.2 billion years ago D. land

47. When a species completely disappears it is 52. Early Earth had no:
called
A. atmosphere
A. the fossil record
B. landmass
B. an extinction
C. climate change C. ozone layer
D. a mass die off D. cyanide within the atmosphere
48. Which of the following was probably not
NARAYAN CHANGDER
53. Why do some scientists believe that RNA,
present in the atmosphere of the primitive rather than DNA, was the first genetic ma-
Earth? terial?
A. Methane
A. RNA probably mutatedinto DNA
B. Oxygen
B. RNAhas both information storage and
C. Water catalytic properties.
D. Carbon dioxide
C. RNA can replicate more accurately
49. Which of the following is not true about thanDNA.
the first living things?
D. RNA contains uracil in place ofthymine.
A. The first living things may have used
oxygen. 54. Which came last?
B. The first living things were prokary-
A. Prokaryotes
otic.
C. The first living things were unicellular. B. Dinosaurs
D. The first living things had a cell mem- C. Eukaryotes
brane.
D. the genetic code
50. Movement of SOLUTE through the cell
membrane from high to low concentration 55. The theory of Endosymbiosis explains
is called A. The origin of eukaryotes
A. diffusion
B. How species develop
B. active transport
C. How bacteria evolved
C. facilitated diffusion
D. osmosis D. Why cells rely on one another
51. Why is Deep Sea Vent Theory a possible 56. Which scientist(s) tested the primordial
explanation for life on Earth? soup model by using an electrical spark to
A. It has biological communities and en- produced amino acids from the molecules
ergy believed to be present on early Earth?
B. It is dark and no oxygen A. Oparin-Haldane
C. It has a light source and energy from B. Miller-Urey
the vents
C. Pasteur
D. High levels of electricity are generated
there D. Spallanzani

57. Mammals are the primary species in this 63. The amount of time required for half of a
era radioactive isotope to decay

A. precambrian A. Half-Life
B. paleozoic B. Radioactive Decay
C. mesozoic C. Paleozoic
D. cenozoic D. Cambrian Explosion
58. What did the host cell receive from its en-
64. Which cell organelle directs all the activi-
dosymbiont (cell living inside of it)?
ties of the cell?
A. Shelter
A. Chloroplast
B. Motility
B. Nucleus
C. Energy
C. Mitochondria
D. Reproduction
D. Vacuole
59. Has nucleus
65. How do enzymes speed up the rate of bio-
A. Prokaryotes
logical reactions?
B. Eukaryote
A. Enzymes increase the activation en-
C. both ergy of the reaction
D. none of above B. Enzymes provide a site where reac-
60. What was the product of the Miller-Urey tants can be brought together
Experiment? C. Enzymes become reactants and are
A. Simple amino acids used up in the chemical reaction
B. Simple nucleotides D. Enzymes change the temperature of
the surrounding to be suitable for the re-
C. Simple lipids
action
D. Simple monosaccarides
66. Endosymbiosis gave rise to which or-
61. Which type(s) of cells have genetic mate- ganelle(s)?
rial that is contained in a nucleus?
A. Golgi bodies
A. Bacteria
B. Chloroplasts and Mitochondria
B. Only animal cells
C. Ribosomes and Nuclei
C. Protists
D. The rough and smooth endoplasmic
D. Both Plants and Animal Cells
reticulum
62. Prokaryotic cells were involved in the for-
mation of eukaryotic cells. 67. Which is a longer time span?
A. spontaneous generation A. Eons
B. theory of biogenesis B. Eras
C. endosymbiont theory C. Periods
D. primordial soup hypothesis D. none of above

68. The early Earth’s atmosphere was lacking: 73. Has ribosomes
A. Carbon Dioxide A. Prokaryote
B. Water B. Eukaryote
C. Lightning C. both
D. Oxygen D. none of above
69. Which of the following is a major differ- 74. Which of the following WERE abundant
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ence between plant and animal cells? when Earth was first formed? YOU MAY
A. Animal cells have a cell membrane and SELECT MORE THAN 1
plant cells do not. A. Oxygen gas
B. Only animal cells have a nucleus. B. Carbon Dioxide gas
C. Animal cells have much larger vac- C. Water
uoles than plant cells.
D. Plants
D. Plant cells have a cell wall and animal
cells do not. 75. The theory of Endosymbiosis explains:
70. Which describes spontaneous genera- A. The origin of eukaryotes
tion? B. How bacteria evolve antibiotic resis-
A. All cells come from other cells tance
B. Prokaryotes endocytosed other C. How species develop
prokaryotes to form eukaryotes D. That all cells come from existing cells
C. Creation of life from nonliving materi-
als 76. All of the following are evidence of en-
dosymbiosis EXCEPT
D. Evolution through natural selection
A. mitochondria and chloroplast contain
71. Which of the following WERE abundant ribosomes but lack most other organelles
on early earth? YOU MAY SELECT MORE
B. mitochondria and chloroplasts are sim-
THAN 1
ilar in size to prokaryotes
A. Oxygen
C. mitochondria and chloroplasts have
B. Carbon Dioxide double membranes
C. Water D. mitochondria and chloroplast have a
D. Sunlight membrane-bound nucleus
72. The idea that life can only arise from living 77. Which of the following describes what the
things is the what term? first life form resembled?
A. spontaneous generation A. Eukaryotes
B. abiotic synthesis B. Plants
C. prokaryotic cell C. Bacteria
D. biogenesis D. Fungi

78. The introduction of new genes from one B. Water

population to another is
C. Eating plants

A. genetic drift
D. Jiggling and Sliding
B. gene flow
C. reproduction 84. The geologic time scale divides Earth’s his-
D. asexual reproduction tory into intervals of time defined
79. The idea that Earth’s early oceans had or- A. randomly.
ganic molecules that became the first life B. every 10, 000 years.
is called the
C. by fossils.
A. bubble hypothesis
B. radioactive dating theory D. by major changes on Earth.
C. primordial soup hypothesis
85. What were the dominant animals of the
D. miller-urey experiment Paleozoic Era?
80. A membrane that allows some substances A. fish
to pass across and others not is called
B. reptiles
A. non-permeable
C. mammals
B. permeable
C. semi-permeable D. bacteria
D. permanently permeable
86. How are mitochondria and chloroplasts
81. Life arises from nonlife. like bacteria cells?
A. spontaneous generation A. They divide by meiosis
B. theory of biogenesis B. They contain their own DNA
C. endosymbiont theory
C. They have the same membrane-bound
D. primordial soup hypothesis organelles
82. Which of the following statement regard- D. They can make their own food
ing carbohydrates is true?
A. They contain fatty acids and glycerol 87. Miller/Urey and other scientists have
shown that:
B. They are made of monomers called
amino acids A. Life on early Earth required material
C. They are used as living things as the from space
main source of energy B. Cells survived in the primitive atmo-
D. They are not used for structural sup- sphere
port in living organisms
C. Amino acids could be produced from in-
83. Which of the following is required for all organic molecules
life on earth? D. Simple cells can be produced in a labo-
A. Coffee ratory

88. Earth’s atmosphere today is very different 93. Lynn Margulis proposed this idea to ex-
from its early atmosphere. Which of the plain the origin of organelles.
following processes changed Earth’s early
A. spontaneous generation
atmosphere to its current form?
A. release of water vapor and carbon B. theory of biogenesis
dioxide by volcanoes C. endosymbiont theory
B. formation of amino acids from simple D. primordial soup hypothesis
nonliving molecules
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. photosynthesis by cyanobacteria 94. Only living organisms can produce other
D. cellular respiration by eukaryotic cells living organisms.
89. This explains that eukaryotic cells may A. spontaneous generation

have evolved from prokaryotic cells B. theory of biogenesis
A. Spontaneous Generation C. endosymbiont theory
B. Theory of Biogenesis
D. primordial soup hypothesis
C. Endosymbiont Theory
D. Law of Superposition 95. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are thought
to be cells engulfed by a larger one.
90. Approximately how long ago did the earth
form? A. Plants
A. 4.6 billion years ago B. Eukaryotic
B. 4.2 billion years ago C. Prokaryotic
C. 3.8 billion years ago
D. Viruses
D. 3. 6 billion years ago
96. What type of organisms created oxygen
91. Which of the following a building block re-
for early life on Earth?
quired for all life on earth?
A. Movement A. Heterotrophic Bacteria
B. Use of water B. Photosynthetic Bacteria
C. Eating plants C. Animals
D. UV protection D. Plants
92. Which scientist(s) suggested early earth
was very different from present day and 97. Which of the following was presumably
that lightning and volcanic activity cat- absent from Earth Early atmosphere based
alyzed the creation of organic molecules to on the conditions present at the time?
form a “primordial soup” from which life A. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
arose?
B. Methane (CH4)
A. Oparin-Haldane
B. Miller-Urey C. Oxygen (O2)
C. Pasteur D. Water(H2O)
D. Spallanzani E. Cyanide (CN-)

98. Which of the following is the strongest evi- 103. The Earth is about
dence that prokaryotes evolved before eu- A. 4.5 million years old
karyotes?

B. 2020 years old
A. the primitive structures of plants
C. 4.6 billion years old
B. meteorites that have struck the Earth D. 3 billion years old
C. abiotic experiments that constructed
amino acids in the laboratory 104. When many species die off in a short pe-
riod of time it is called
D. the oldest fossilized cells resemble
A. climate change
prokaryotes
B. the Geologic Time Scale
99. A person should never drink salty water C. the fossil record
because their cells would
D. a mass extinction
A. shrink
105. Which of the following supports the hy-
B. expand pothesis of an “RNA world” on early
C. increase in size Earth?
D. explode A. SomeRNA molecules are important
catalysts in modern cells.
100. In Stanley Miller’s and Harold Urey’s ex- B. The oldest known fossils contain
periment what chemical was intentionally traceamounts of RNA.
left out?
C. Single-stranded RNA molecules arelin-
A. oxygen ear and do not form three-dimensional
B. hydrogen shapes.
C. methane D. RNA is the primary genetic material of-
many viruses.
D. ammonia
106. “Endosymbiosis” means
101. According to endosymbiosis, what did the A. Living together
ancient host cell receive from its the cell
living inside of it? B. Living inside
C. Entering together
A. Shelter
D. Joining together
B. Motility
C. Energy 107. One of the accepted scientific theories
describing the origin of life on Earth is
D. Reproduction known as chemical evolution. According
to this theory, which of the following
102. The diffusion of water through a semi-
events would need to occur first for life
permeable membrane is called.
to evolve?
A. Osmosis A. onset of photosynthesis
B. Cell wall B. origin of genetic material
C. Diffusion C. Synthesis of organic molecules
D. Respiration D. formation of the plasma membrane

7.2 Evolution and Natural Selection 720
108. Which two cell structures work together 109. Stanley Miller and Harold Urey simulated
in the process of making proteins? early atmospheric conditions to test this
idea on the origin of life.
A. Nucleus and chloroplast
A. spontaneous generation
B. Ribosome and Vacuole
B. theory of biogenesis
C. Nucleus and ribosome C. endosymbiont theory
D. Mitochondria and cell membrane. D. primordial soup hypothesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
7.2 Evolution and Natural Selection
1. Who is the Father Of Evolution? 5. The eastern meadowlark and the western
meadowlark are two closely related bird
A. Mendel
species. The two species avoid interbreed-
B. Darwin ing because they have different mating
C. Newton songs. This is an example of-
D. none of above A. artificial selection

B. adaptive radiation
2. Group of individuals of same species living
in a particular area C. behavioral isolation
A. Population D. geographic isolation
B. Adaptation 6. If flowers with longer roots are able to

get more water from the ground which of
C. Variation
the following would you expect to become
D. Speciation more common after a period of drought?
3. A factor that is necessary for the forma- A. Flowers with short root systems
tion of a new species is? B. Flowers with average root systems
A. Species isolation C. Flowers with the longest root systems
B. Selective breeding
D. none of above
C. Natural selection
D. Different mating behaviors 7. A phylogenetic tree differs from a clado-
gram in that a polygenetic tree
4. Darwin proposed that new species evolve
A. hypothesizes the time at which each
from ancestral forms by-
group of organisms evolved
A. the gradual accumulation of adapta-
B. also indicates the new characteristics
tions to changing environments.
that evolved with each group of organisms
B. the inheritance of acquired adapta-
C. only illustrates hypothesized relation-
tions to the environment.
ships among groups of organisms
C. the accumulation of mutations.
D. predicts the next group of organisms
D. the exponential growth of populations. that is expected to evolve

8. An example of ‘Species vary over time’ is 13. What do transitional fossils best sup-
port?
A. dinosaurs are related to present day

chickens A. the theory of biological evolution
B. fossils of whale ancestors walked on B. the law of superposition
land C. the theory of geological evolution
C. glyptodont fossils are related to D. the theory of continental drift
present day armadillos
14. Severe or sudden changes in Earth’s atmo-
D. All of these sphere can cause entire species of animals
to die. When all of the members of species
9. Which organisms are most likely to sur- die out, it is called:
vive in a changing environment?
A. mutation
A. those best adapted
B. natural selection
B. the fastest in their environment
C. extinction
C. the strongest in their environment D. none of above
D. the most domesticated (tamed)
15. What does it mean when two species
10. The more genetic variation a population share a common ancestor?
has, the more likely it is for some individ- A. It means that the two species are ac-
uals to tually the same species.
A. evolve B. It means that one of the species
evolved from other species.
B. migrate
C. It means that both species evolved
C. survive from one species that lived in the past.
D. mutate D. It means that the two species share all
the same traits
11. Mutations are
A. Long Time evolutionary events 16. Structures are similar in appearance but
not in structure
B. Short time evolutionary events
A. Vestigial
C. Mistakes in the genetic code B. Homologous
D. When an organism looks very similar C. Analogous Structures
in physical resemblance to other objects
D. Embryonic
12. When an organism has a trait that allows
17. Why do populations change over time?
it to blend in with its environment, we call
that A. different traits are passed on depend-
ing on which traits are adaptive
A. mimicry
B. individuals mutate
B. camouflage
C. they lose abilities that are no longer
C. lucky useful

18. The white feathers of a snowy owl allow 23. Selective breeding by humans, determin-
it to blend in with its environment during ing what traits are passed down in certain
the winter months (snow). This is an ex- species such as dogs, livestock
ample of A. Evolution
A. Species B. Natural Selection
B. Environmental Change C. Artificial Selection
C. Adaptation D. Theory
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Variation 24. When every organism of a given species
has died is called
19. Genetic Drift is more likely to happen in
A. Natural Selection
A. aquatic populations B. Evolution
B. small populations C. Extinction
C. terrestrial populations D. Selective Breeding
D. older populations 25. Any inherited trait that gives an organism

an advantage in its environment is called
20. Which statement does not accurately de-
scribe natural selection?
A. a mutation
A. Individual organisms change their B. an adaptation
genes to adapt to their environment
C. evolution
B. The genetic composition of a popula-
tion changes from one generation to the D. natural selection
next 26. Any trait that helps an organism better
C. More advantageous traits become survive and reproduce in its given environ-
more common in population ment is called:
D. Beneficial and useful traits are inheri- A. Adversion
table B. Adaptation
21. Who is Charles Darwin C. Variation
A. starbucks owner D. Fitness
B. a bird 27. The Theory of Evolution was proposed by

what scientist?
C. a christian
A. Charles Darwin
D. a naturalist
B. Albert Einstein
22. Small changes in DNA are called C. Steven Hawking
A. clones D. Isaac Newton
B. mutations
28. If two organisms have similar traits of
C. variations DNA they are probably
D. creations A. share a common ancestor

B. share a common environment 34. Embryos of chickens, fish and humans look
C. share a common population very similar. They all have folds known as
gill pouches in the neck region. What may

D. speciation this suggest?
29. Why did the population of peppered moths A. they all formed in the ocean
in England change from light to dark after
B. they all evolved from a common ances-
the Industrial Revolution?
tor
A. Light moths were easy to see against
sooty trees and were eaten C. they are all going extinct
B. Light moths were killed by soot D. none of above

C. The birds that ate the dark moths were 35. The differences among a species, like dif-
killed by soot ferent bird beaks, are called
D. Dark moths were produced by indus- A. theories
trial processes
B. variations
30. What is a human cause of extinction?
C. adaptations
A. Global warming
D. genes
B. Outerspace collision
C. Climate heating and cooling (ice age) 36. Why did Darwin join the voyage of the
D. Sea Level changes HMS Beagle?
A. Because he was interested in trade
31. Natural selection directly acts on the routes.
of the organism.
B. Because he needed the money.
A. phenotype
B. population C. Because he wanted to expand on his
research as a naturalist/ because a friend
C. genotype of his suggested he join the crew as a nat-
D. evolution uralist.
32. I am going to totally rock this Exam! D. Because he was developing new
medicines.
A. Yes Totally!!!
B. Wait we have a SMA? 37. How is genetic variation related to an or-
ganism’s ability to adapt to its environ-
C. Ummm yeah sure maybe!
ment?
D. none of above
A. When genetic variation is low, the abil-
33. A trait that makes a species better suited ity to adapt is high
to survive in its environment is called a(n)
B. When genetic variation is high, the
ability to adapt is low
A. variation
C. When genetic variation is low, the abil-
B. adaptation ity to adapt is low
C. natural selection D. Genetic variation is unrealted to the
D. isolation ability to adapt

38. The purpose of artificial selection is to 43. Each of the following is a condition neces-
sary for natural selection to occur EXCEPT
A. Get bigger animals
A. population size is very large.
B. get smaller animals
B. fitness varies among individuals.
C. create animals with desirable traits
C. more offspring are born than can sur-
D. create animals with bad traits vive.
39. Natural selection is when decides who D. there is heritable variation among
NARAYAN CHANGDER
survives and who doesn’t members of the population.
A. nature 44. The development by scientists of a new

B. humans color in a rose is the result of
A. natural selection
C. animals
B. artificial selection
D. years
C. descent with modification
40. Different species of turtles have similar D. overproduction
structures as embryos what does this sug-
gest about these organisms? 45. Snake embryos have small buds resem-
bling limbs. These buds disappear at later
A. The turtle evolved from each other
stages of development. These findings
B. They reproduce with each other suggest that these snakes-
C. The larvae belong to the same turtle A. had a parent with limbs
species
B. will have offspring with limbs
D. Their traits were inherited from a com- C. evolved from an ancestor with limbs
mon ancestor
D. will have functional limbs as adults
41. is an inherited trait that gives an or-
46. Which is NOT an example of mutations al-
ganism an advantage in its particular envi-
lowing the population to survive the envi-
ronment.
ronmental change?
A. a mutation for fur to protect against a
B. Fossil change in the temperature
C. Adaptation B. a mutation in poison to protect against
an increase of snakes
D. Evolution
C. an organism continuing to express the
42. Which of the following describes a grad- same genes in all environments
ual change over time in populations of a D. none of above
species.
A. Evolution 47. Which of the following could cause a
species to become extinct due to changes
B. Transition in the environment?
C. adaptation A. less genetic diversity
D. none of above B. specific food preferences

C. more competition for food 53. Robins typically lay fours eggs. If more
D. more genetic diversity then four eggs are produced then the baby
chicks are malnourished while smaller egg

48. Darwin observed that species that lived on numbers result in no viable (able to live)
remote islands resembled species on the baby chicks. This is an example of
closest mainland. This is an example of A. stabalizing
what kind of evidence for evolution?
B. disruptive
A. Biochemistry
C. direction
B. Geographic distribution
C. Comparative anatomy
D. Fossil record 54. Which statement best describes the pro-
cess of evolution?
49. Formation of a new species A. Species do not changeIndividuals
A. Population evolve in their own lifetime.
B. Adaptation B. Environmental conditions limit the
C. Variation number of species on Earth
D. Speciation C. Populations grow when resources are

abundant
50. The newt population became more poi- D. The traits of a species can change over
sonous over time
A. selective breeding
55. A slight difference in an inherited trait be-
B. natural selection tween individual members of a species.
C. the newt’s diet A. variations
D. none of above B. adapatations
51. According to superposition, the fossils C. analogous structures
found in the lower layer of rocks are
D. none of above
than those found at higher layer
A. older 56. The process in which populations change
over time
B. same age
A. mutation
C. younger
D. tougher
C. evolution
52. A group of individuals of one species that
D. none of above
live in a particular geographic area
A. Population 57. Natural selection results in
B. Artificial Selection A. extinction due to artificial selection
C. Natural Selection B. evolution due to natural selection
D. Vestigial Structures C. extinction due to natural selection
E. Homologous Structure D. evolution due to survival of the fittest

58. Before Charles Darwin, what what the C. Equilibrium would gradually end
public perception on species evolution? D. Gene flow would occur but slowly
A. That species were permanent and un-
changing 63. According to Darwin’s theory of evolution,
differences between species may be the re-
B. That species evolved through physical sult of
changes that led to success
A. the disuse of body structures
C. That species evolved by means of nat-
B. the transmission of acquired charac-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ural selection
teristics
D. That species were modified over time
but did not change into new species C. natural selection
D. mutagenic agents
59. Darwin said that the number of offspring
an organism has 64. Which of the following means “genetic
A. stays the same change in a population over time”
B. is more than can survive A. natural selection
C. is less than needed B. speciation
D. none of above C. evolution
D. fitness
60. What are the Five Principles of Natural Se-
lection? (in order) 65. Whales are aquatic mammals that contain
A. Over Population 2) Competition 3) a pelvis bone. Even though it does not aid
Adaptation 4) Genotype and Phenotype in its movement, the function must have
Changes 5) Variation been used by a common ancestor of the
whale. Thus, the pelvis is referred to as
B. Over Population 2) Variation 3) Compe-
a(n)
tition 4) Adaptation 5) Genotype and Phe-
notype Changes A. vestigial structure
C. Over Population 2) Competition 3) Vari- B. analogous structure
ation 4) Adaptation 5) Genotype and Phe- C. homologous structure
notype Changes
D. none of above
D. none of above
66. The organisms that survive in this world
61. The theory of natural selection was a hy- of competition are the ones that are *
pothesis first proposed by
A. fittest
A. Gregor Mendel
B. strongest
B. James Waston and Francis Crick
C. best adapted
C. Charles Darwin
D. best looking
D. Robert Hooke
67. Which of these would have the least effect
62. What does being in Hardy-Weinberg equi- on natural selection in a subspecies of gi-
librium mean for a population? raffes that is geographically isolated from
A. The population is evolving other subspecies of giraffes?
B. The population is not evolving A. available niches

B. existing predators 72. The process by which populations slowly

C. chromosome number change over time through the process of
natural selection is called

D. available food resources
A. selective breeding
68. Any variation that can help a species sur- B. adaptation
vive in a given environment is called C. sepeciation
A. an adapatation D. evolution
B. a characteristic 73. What is a major cause of extinctions?
C. a homologous structure A. biological evolution
D. a vestigial structure B. environmental change
C. carbonization
69. If the environment suddenly changed, how
could a species go extinct? D. mineralization
A. The environmental change means 74. Darwin’s theory of evolution states that
fewer predators are around species evolve by
B. There are more homes available in the A. natural selection
newly changed environment B. choice
C. New resources are available with less C. unnatural selection
competition D. artificial selection
D. There aren’t enough members of the 75. Separation 2. Adaptation 3. Division
species with a trait necessary to survive
in the new environment A. Evolution
B. Adaptation
70. Which most likely led to major changes in C. Extinction
biological evolution?
D. Speciation
A. separation of landmasses
76. Do organisms “decide” to adapt?
B. short time periods of drought condi-
tions A. Yes, if they don’t adapt they will die
C. long time periods with no volcanic B. No, they can’t adapt. They either have
eruptions adaptations or they don’t
C. No, they adapt by random mutations
D. migration of animals from one area to
during their lifetime
another
D. Yes, they can force mutations in one
71. Which of these would be considered an lifetime
adaptation of an animal that lives in the
77. What is a characteristic, or feature of a
snowy tundra?
plant or animal called?
A. a thick coat A. trait
B. webbed feet B. survive
C. green colored skin C. adaptation
D. large, flat leaves D. reproduce

78. Comparing two individuals of a species, 83. Which scientists proposed that Evolution
evolutionary “fitness” would be best mea- happens through natural selection?
sured by which of the following?
A. Charles Darwin
A. the length and width of the individuals
B. Albert Einstein
B. the number of offspring
C. Steven Hawking
C. the mass of the food eaten in its life
D. Isaac Newton
D. the mass of the individuals
NARAYAN CHANGDER
79. Which of the following states a condition 84. When a farmer breeds only his or her best
which would promote the natural selection livestock, the process involved is
of a species? A. artificial selection.
A. From a nest of 20 eggs one is albino B. survival of the fittest.
B. The population increases from 150- C. artificial variation.
100 members
D. natural selection.
C. Ocean ecosystem has move fish than
algae 85. Where was Charles Darwin visiting when
D. A female cat has 5 kitten instead of 6 he first made his observation?
80. What did Charles Darwin help to explain? A. West Indies

A. the age of the Earth B. The Galapagos Islands
B. how fossils form C. Lesser Antilles
C. genetics D. Cooke Islands
D. how new species originate
86. a property of phenotypic features of or-
81. Charles Darwin called the ability of an organisms relative to selection demands of
ganism to survive and reproduce in its spe- the environment
cific environment A. fitness
A. diversity.
B. natural selecion
B. evolution
C. adaptation
C. adaptation.
D. mutation
D. fitness.
87. Evolution works by
82. In a population of field mice, coat color
ranges from light tan to dark brown. A. individuals changing to suit their envi-
Medium brown mice are found in greater ronment
abundance due to their ability to blend in
B. Individuals learned new traits and
with their surroundings.
pass them on
A. Directional
C. sudden change in the environment
B. Disruptive cause a species change
C. Stabilizing D. small changes pass down through
D. none of above many generations

88. When Charles was a young boy, what ac- 93. Natural selection
tivities did he enjoy the most? (his parents A. process by which individuals that are
were doctors)

better suited to their environment survive
A. playing the cello and reproduce most successfully; also
B. exploring called survival of the fittest
C. surgery B. Humans select which animals live and

die
D. soccer
C. both
89. The process by which changes in organisms D. IDK
happen over many, many generations is
known as * 94. A small portion of the population that is ge-
A. variation ographically isolated from the rest of the
population runs the risk of decreased.
B. survival
A. genetic drift
C. evolution
B. mutation rate
D. revolution
C. genetic variation
90. A structure that is inherited from ances- D. natural selection
tors but has long lost much or all of its
original use. 95. Wild rabbits produce an average of 8 off-
A. vestigial structure spring per year, but only 50% survive to
reproductive age. This is an example of:
B. miniscule structure
A. Variation
C. analogous structure
B. Heritability
D. none of above
C. Overproduction
91. What does fitness mean when speaking in D. Reproductive Advantage
terms of evolution?
A. Level of overall health of the individual 96. Organisms at the level can produce off-
spring who can reproduce.
B. How many offspring an individual pro-
duces A. species
C. Physical strength of a given individual B. genus

in a population C. kingdom
D. The size and diversity of the gene pool D. domain
92. Organisms that have the most advanta- 97. Darwin’s theory of evolution suggests
geous traits are more likely to: that
A. Become Extinct A. species change of time
B. Survive and reproduce-passing the B. extinct species are not related to living
traits onto their offspring. species
C. Get a mutation that is harmful to them. C. different species can interbreed
D. animals that look alike are the most
D. none of above closely related

98. All of the following can be used as evi- C. transmission of acquired characteris-
dence for evolution except tics
A. Fossils D. natural selection
B. Vestigial Structures
104. Natural selection acts on , and
C. Fossil Record evolve.
D. Life Forms A. individuals; individuals
99. Which scientists proposed the idea that all B. individuals; populations
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the continents on the Earth were once one C. populations; populations
landmass called Pangaea?
D. populations; individuals
A. Hutton & Lyell
B. Darwin & Lamark 105. The process by which a cell becomes spe-
cialized for a specific structure or function.
C. Mendel & Malthus
A. cell multiplication
D. none of these
B. cell division
100. According to most scientists, what is the
C. mitosis
ultimate cause of most mass extinctions?
D. cell differentiation
A. overhunting
B. evolution of new species to replace old 106. James Hutton’s and Charles Lyell’s work
ones was important to Darwin because these
scientists
C. major change in environment
A. refuted the work of Lamarck, which
D. asteroid impact
was based on misunderstandings.
101. The formation of new species is called B. suggested that Earth was old enough
A. extinction for evolution to have occurred.
B. embryology C. explained all geologic events on Earth.
C. speciation D. explained volcanoes and earthquakes.
D. microevolution 107. Protein sequences in one organism that
102. Phylogenetic trees show resemble those of another suggest a
A. related organisms A. coincidence
B. which DNA sequence is the best B. lack of evolutionary relationship
C. how organisms look like C. great number of mutations
D. how much resources are available for D. shared ancestry
organisms
108. Why are useful traits more likely to be
103. Which concept is NOT included in the mod- passed on to the offspring?
ern theory of evolution? A. Because parents with those traits can
A. descent with modification teach their offspring
B. competition among the members of a B. Because parents with those traits can
population surive and reproduce better

C. Because parents with those traits care 114. A population of rabbits has three fur col-
more about their offspring ors:white, gray, and black. After volcanic
activity, the terrain changed and now the

D. Because those organisms are luckier
rabbits now live on white rocks and black
109. Evolution means rocks. What type of selection is likely to
A. Change over time in a population. occur?
B. That everything is the same. A. directional selection

C. That organisms never change. B. disruptive selection
D. Negative traits are acquired in popula- C. stabilizing selection
tions.
D. artificial selection
110. Which of the following correctly de-
scribes the general trend in hominid evo- 115. Evolutionary theory predicts that fea-
lution? tures of ancestors that no longer have a
A. larger body size, broad forehead, function for that species will over time
smaller brains until they are lost.
B. thickening of the skull, protruding A. become smaller
teeth, organized hunting
B. become larger
C. increase in brain capacity, bipedalism,
use of tools C. remain unchanged
D. large canine teeth, small skulls, diet of D. none of above

coarse plant material
116. Natural selection is best described as
111. The goal of every species on earth is
A. a change in an organism in response
A. to survive and reproduce to a need of that organism
B. divide and conquer
B. a process of nearly constant improve-
C. survive and conquer ment that leads to an organism that is
D. reproduce and die nearly perfect
112. Heredity is: C. differences in survival rates as a re-

sult of different inherited characteristics
A. Survival of the fittest
D. ) inheritance of characteristics ac-
B. The passing of genetic traits from par-
quired during the life of an organism
ent to offspring
C. Believing in false gods 117. Lions often hide in the tall grass while
D. Unexplained stalking their prey. This is an example of
113. Same structure, different function

A. camouflage
A. Analogous
B. Homologous B. warning coloration
C. Vestigial C. mimicry
D. none of above D. hibernation

118. Which is necessary for speciation to oc- 123. Fossils would most likely be found in
cur? A. amber (petrified sap) that is over 8 bil-
A. adaptation lion years old
B. mass extinction B. icebergs that are 500 billion years old
C. isolation C. sedimentary rocks that are 500 million
years old
D. acquired traits
D. volcanic rocks that are 50 million years
NARAYAN CHANGDER
119. The process of selecting a few organisms old
with desired traits to serve as parents of
124. According to fossil records, the horses
the next generation. Selective breeding of
that lived 50 million years ago were much
plants and animals to promote the occur-
smaller, weaker and slower than modern
rence of desirable traits in offpsring.
horses. Which process is most likely re-
A. Evolution sponsible for the changes that have led to
B. Natural Selection the increased size, strength, and speed in
horses?
C. Generation Time
A. commensalism
D. Artificial Selection
B. inbreeding
120. Individuals that are better suited to the C. migration
environment survive and reproduce, pass- D. evolution by natural selection
ing down their genes to their offspring
A. Evolution 125. Almost all adaptations started off as?
B. Natural Selection A. selective breeding

B. physiological
C. Artificial Selection
C. structural
D. Theory
D. mutation
121. The differences among a species, like dif-
ferent frog colors, are called 126. Survival of the Fittest and Evolution
were proposed by what scientist?
A. theories
A. Charles Darwin
B. variations
B. Albert Einstein
C. adaptations
C. Steven Hawking
D. genes
D. Isaac Newton
122. When an organism completely dies out, it 127. A well-tested concept that explains a
is called wide range of observations is called a(an):
A. Adaption A. hypothesis
B. Extinction B. experiment
C. Fossilization C. cause and effect
D. Mutation D. scientific theory

128. A bird with a sharp, curved, and pointed 133. Definition:homologous structures
beak (like a hawk) is specialized for what A. remains of dead organisms
food habits?

B. related organisms have the same bone
A. Seed cracking makeup
B. Eating nectar C. in the early stages of development
C. Tearing flesh dogs, pigs, and humans resemble one an-
other
D. Spearing fish
D. none of above
129. A fire has wiped out the vegetation that
produces medium sized seeds. As a re- 134. What is a major cause of variation within
sult, the finches left can feed on seed that species?
are available in two sizes:small and large. A. sexual reproduction
What type of selection is likely to take B. extinction
place in this population?
C. photosynthesis
A. directional selection
D. cellular respiration
B. disruptive selection
C. stabilizing selection 135. Which of the following most likely sup-
ports how giraffes evolved long necks?
A. More long-necked giraffes survived to
130. Humans are causing extiction in which pass on their genes.
ways? B. More short-necked giraffes survived
A. By over hunting animals for food or to pass on their genes.
products. C. Short-necked giraffes grew longer
B. By destroying the natural habitat of necks to reach higher leaves.
species. D. Short-necked giraffes modified their
C. By polluting the environments of the diets to evolve into a new species.
world. 136. Having a very high birth weight or a very
D. All of the above. low birth weight increases the mortality
rate of human babies. What type of selec-
131. who was Charles Darwin tion may occur over time?
A. starbucks owner A. directional selection
B. a bird B. disruptive selection
C. a christian C. stabilizing selection
D. a naturalist D. artificial selection
132. Cumulative changes in a group of organ- 137. Natural selection would not occur with-
isms over time out
A. Natural Selection A. artificial selection
B. Evolution B. gradual warming of Earth
C. Adaptation C. competition for unlimited resources
D. Variation D. genetic variation in populations

138. Same function, different structure B. fitness.

A. Analogous C. overproduction.
B. Homologous D. adaptation.
C. Vestigial
144. The information provided by fossils about
D. none of above the Earth’s history.
139. Process by which individuals that are bet- A. Fossil Record
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ter suited to their environment survive and B. Evolution
reproduce most successfully; also called
C. Extinction
survival of the fittest.
D. Genetic Variation
A. Extinction
B. Speciation 145. Which statement best describes evolu-
tion.
C. Natural Selection
D. Artificial Selection A. evolution is a predictable change from
simple to complex organisms
140. Bird wings and butterfly wings are an ex- B. evolution is a process of change
ample of through time
A. Homologous structure C. evolution causes organisms to develop
B. Analogous structure characteristics they need
C. Mimicry D. evolution often proceeds from complex
D. Camoflague to simpler organisms.
141. What physical feature was the main 146. The number and location of bones of
difference that Darwin observed in the many fossil vertebrates are similar to
finches at the Galapagos Islands? those in living vertebrates. Most biolo-
gists would probably explain this fact on
A. the size of the birds’ feet the basis of
B. the number of eggs laid by each type A. the needs of the organisms
of bird
B. a common ancestor
C. the size and shape of the birds’ beaks
C. the struggle for existence
D. none of above
D. the inheritance of acquired traits
142. A behavior is one that an organism
learns as a result of experience. 147. In genetic drift, what changes in the new
population?
A. adaptations
A. Genetics
B. behavioral
B. Genes
C. learned
C. Phenotype
D. instinctive
D. Ecosystem
143. Darwin called the ability of an organism
to survive 148. How do adaptations help animals?
A. variation. A. To hide from predators

B. to hunt for food B. New alleles will surface

C. to survive in their habitats C. increased variation in this chromo-

D. All of these are correct some
149. Which is an example of a non-adaptive D. similar chromosomes will exhibit same

trait of the newt population? changes
A. eye color of the newt 154. What is the main function of a flower?
B. color of the newt’s body for camou-
A. Transport minerals
flage
C. poison of the newt to protect against B. Reproduction
predatory snakes C. Photosynthesis
D. tough skin of the newt to protect D. To look good
against rocks
155. Scientists recognize that overuse of an-
150. What was the name of the scientist who
tibiotics has led to antibiotic resistant
had the theory of evolution?
strains of bacteria. The reason this can
A. Lamarck occur in a relatively short span of time is
B. Einstein that-
C. Washington A. bacteria are very small
D. Darwin B. there are many different types of bac-
teria
151. Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on
the idea(s) of C. bacteria reproduce rapidly
A. a tendency toward perfect, unchang- D. travelers carry bacteria around the
ing species. world
B. the transmission of acquired charac-
teristics. 156. When every organism of a species has
died.
C. heritable variation and natural selec-
tion. A. Evolution
D. use and disuse. B. Natural Selection
152. This occurs when no more of a species is C. Extinction
living. D. Artificial Selection
A. Fossilization
B. Adaptation 157. Why might it be helpful for a species to
have a lot of variations?
C. Extinction
A. They can’t be seen by predators
D. Natural selection
B. If the environment changes, they
153. What happens if a scientist observes might be better able to adapt
many genetic recombinations in a single
chromosome? C. It is helpful in asexual reproduction
A. genes will stabilze D. They don’t recognize each other

158. Darwin suggested that we could never A. mutations

“watch” evolution in action. Why did he B. adaptations
believe this?
C. speciations
A. Because we cannot see evolution in
D. isolations
other species.
B. Because evolution is just a theory and 163. You look at two species and see very sim-
not a fact. ilar DNA. What does this likely tell you?
A. These are the same animal.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Because evolution takes several gen-
erations to occur. B. These animals have a common ances-
D. Because evolution would be boring to tor.
watch. C. These animals are not likely related.
159. The same kinds of cells that grow in simi- D. These animals are likely becoming one
lar patterns in different but related organ- species.
isms produce 164. Pasteur was able to create, pasteuriza-
A. homologous structures such as wings tion, which is?
and arms A. heated to kill bacteria
B. the same kind of embryos B. comes from cows
C. natural variations in a population C. cools to save taste
D. descent with modification D. none of above
160. red and 1000 white ground beetles are 165. What eventually happens to a species
placed in a cage on red clay containing bee- when the environment changes and the or-
tle eating birds. The beetles are counted ganisms do not adapt? (1) (2) (3) (4)
after 2 days. What is expected? A. classification
A. Equal number of red and white beetles B. extinction
are left
C. development
B. More red beetles are left
D. regulation
C. More white beetles are left.
166. Which scientist studied finches in
D. All the beetles are gone. Ecuador?
161. What is it called when humans decide A. Charles Darwin
which traits of an organism are the most B. ALbert Einstein
desirable and only allow those organisms
with the specific, desired traits to breed. C. Marie Curie
D. none of above
A. biological evolution
B. natural selection 167. Which of the following statements de-
scribes the process of natural selection?
C. artificial selection
A. Individuals with beneficial inherited
D. none of above traits survive to reproduce.
162. are mistakes in the DNA that cause B. New species are formed via genetic
variation within a species. engineering.

C. Populations sharing the same gene C. Extinction

pool interbreed and create new species. D. Environmental influences

D. Farmers select animals with desirable
variations for breeding. 173. The image illustrates what evolutionary
concept?
168. an example of what can happen due to A. embryological similarities
behavioral isolation
B. variation among species
A. two species of frog mate at different
C. vestigial structures
times of the year
D. homologous structures
B. a female bird will choose the male with
the best nest 174. Which of the following is a correct state-
C. crossbreeding can occur ment about the relationship between nat-
ural selection and evolution?
D. birds eat whatever food source is avail-
able A. Natural selection results from evolu-
tion.
169. If fossil 1 is found in a rock layer that B. Natural selection includes evolution as
is lower than fossil 2, it can be concluded a part of it.
that fossil 1 is-
C. Natural selection is the mechanism of
A. the same age as fossil 2 evolution.
B. older than fossil 2 D. Natural selection and evolution are the
C. younger than fossil 2 same thing.
D. not enough information is given 175. In which of these do humans select the
variations of traits to be passed down to
170. Differences among individual members of
offspring?
the same species are referred to as
A. Artificial selection
A. variation
B. Natural selection
B. fitness
C. Genetic drift
C. natural selection
D. Separation
D. adaptation
176. What provided information on the his-
171. If two organisms have very similar se- tory of life?
quences of DNA they probably
A. Fossils
A. share a common ancestor
B. Speciation
B. share a common environment
C. Adaptation
C. share a common population
D. Evaluation
D. demonstrate speciation
177. What is evolution?
172. What do we call a change in a species A. The change of alleles in a population
over time? over time
A. Adaptation B. An animal turning into another animal
B. Evolution to adapt to its environment

C. someone’s idea that doesn’t have 182. Animals are heterotrophic, meaning that
much evidence to support it they participate in food chains and get en-
ergy from consuming organic compounds.
D. the belief that people came from mon-
Which other biological kingdom is made up
keys
entirely of heterotrophic organisms?
178. At the species level, organisms share A. bacteria
many characteristics. What does this B. plants
mean?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. fungi
A. They don’t have anything in common
and aren’t related. D. protists
B. They live close to each other on Earth. 183. Most plants have hair-like cells called tri-
chomes that project from the surface and-
C. They are very similar, can reproduce,
help the plants in many ways. In some
and produce offspring that can mate and
plants trichomes secrete toxic substances-
reproduce.
that most likely perform which function?
D. It is very easy to tell them apart be- A. Absorb carbon dioxide
cause they are so different.
B. Protect against herbivorous insects
179. What is the main purpose of seeds in C. Reflect light off leaves
plants that have them?
D. Reduce water loss from evaporation
A. To entice animals to eat the plant.
184. What is Natural Selection?
B. To protect and distribute the zygote.
A. survival of the strongest organisms
C. To be fertilized by other plants.
B. survival of those organisms geneti-
D. To store water for the mother plant. cally best adapted to the environment
C. elimination of the smallest organisms
180. What is the advantage of having differ-
by the largest organisms
ent shaped beaks in a bird population?
D. none of above
A. To look different from other species.
B. To be able to eat the food readily avail- 185. A BEAR WILL SURVIVE IN SNOWIER
able in the environment. CONDITIONS.
C. To protect itself against predators. A. BLACK

B. BROWN
D. To protect itself against prey.
C. POLAR
181. Genetic recombination through Meiosis is D. none of above
an important process. What effect does
this have on populations? 186. Which of these describes a species that
A. Decreases natural selection has become extinct?
A. fewer members of the species are dy-
B. Increases ability to adapt
ing than being born
C. Decreases variation
B. more members of the species are dy-
D. Increases variation ing than being born

C. very few members of a species are 192. Genetic drift is a process that causes
alive A. The genetic makeup of an entire popu-

D. all members of a species have died lation to disappear
187. Mimicry is B. The genetic makeup of an entire popu-

lation to be altered
A. Long Time evolutionary events
C. Organisms to better adapt to their en-
B. Short time evolutionary events vironment
C. Mistakes in the genetic code D. Organisms to have the same DNA as
D. When an organism looks very similar their parents
in physical resemblance to other objects
193. Which of the following is a human adap-
188. The ability of an organism to survive and tation to survive in cold temperatures?
reproduce is known as A. You turn the thermostat up
A. Adaptation B. You grow hair to insulate your head
B. Trait C. You cozy up under a blanket with a
C. Fitness warm cup of hot chocolate
D. Variation D. You put on your coat
189. What is the smallest unit that can 194. The best-adapted organisms are more
evolve? likely to survive and breed. This is called
*
A. The ecosystem
A. Mutation
B. The population
B. Natural Selction
C. The individual
C. Selective breeding
D. The cell
D. Evolution
190. Which adaptation for protection allows
an animal to look like a more dangerous 195. A timeline of life provided by the remains
animal? or imprints of dead organisms
A. adoption A. population
B. adaption B. natural selection
C. mimicry C. artificial selection
D. camouflage D. fossil record
191. is a mechanisms by which individuals that 196. Determining the approximate order in
have inherited beneficial adaptation show which rock layers were deposited is an im-
differential reproductive success. portant part of
A. Evolution A. relative age dating
B. Natural Resources B. dinosaur period
C. Naturla Selection C. absolute age dating
D. Evidence of evolution D. carbon dating

197. What events can lead to offspring hav- A. Directional selection

ing a unique arrangement of their parents’
B. Disruptive selection
genes?
C. Stabilizing selection
A. Crossing over
B. Independent assortment D. none of above
C. Both crossing over and independent 202. A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon
assortment ants away from their original population.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Neither crossing over nor independent There is enough distance between the two
assortment groups, that they will never meet in nature
again. What type of reproductive barrier
198. Many people make their living by mating is this?
male and female english springer spaniels
that exhibit certain characteristics and sell- A. behavioral isolation
ing their offspring. These individuals are B. temporal isolation
making their living using the process of:
C. gametic isolation
A. Cloning
D. geographic isolation
B. Natural selection
C. Genetic engineering 203. Human babies don’t do well if they are
born too small. If they are too big com-
D. Selective breeding
plications can occur during birth. Baby
199. The study of developmental biology size should then be selected for by which
shows method?
A. closely related species will show simi- A. stabilizing
larities in embryos
B. directional
B. if species have changed over time,
C. disruptive
their genes should have changed
C. closely related species will show simi- D. Beyonce is having twins
larities in amino acid sequences
204. Which would best allow a species to sur-
D. distantly related species will show sim- vive environmental changes?
ilarities in anatomy
A. similar physical features
200. Which organisms are most likely to sur-
B. low mutation rate
vive?
C. small population
A. the best adapted
B. the fastest D. genetic diversity
C. the strongest 205. The process by which two new species
D. the most domesticated (tamed) are formed from a single population:
201. If finches with large beaks and finches A. Speciation

with small beaks increase in a population B. Variation
while finches with average sized beaks de-
creases, which pattern of natural selection
has occurred? D. Geographic distribution

206. Which statement is part of Darwin’s the- 211. Which group of organisms is believed to
ory of evolution by natural selection? be among the earliest to evolve on Earth?

A. The number of offspring is not related A. arthropods
to fitness.
B. protozoans
B. Acquired characteristics that are in-
herited are the cause of evolution. C. coelenterates
C. The organisms that are the fittest are D. reptiles

always largest and strongest.
212. Which of these BEST describes how some
D. More offspring are produced than can birds survive when the weather gets
possibly survive. cold?
207. How are fossils created? A. They store twigs and sticks in their
nest
A. Traces of organisms get turned into
stone. B. They migrate to a warmer climate
B. Dead organisms are quickly buried for C. They grow more feathers to stay warm
millions of years. in the winter
C. Animals get trapped. D. They hide in bushes and wait for warm
D. All of the above weather
208. Analogous structures 213. Adaptations that can be passed to an or-

ganism’s offspring are called
A. have a common size in organisms
A. inherited traits
B. perform the same function in organ-
isms B. acquired traits
C. have the same structure in organisms C. learned traits
D. evolve from a common ancestor D. none of above
209. Behavioral changes of individuals of a 214. What is an adaptation?
species that allow for better survival.
A. A feature or behavior that helps an an-
A. Variation imal survie.
B. Adaptation
B. The food that an animal eats.
C. Behavior
C. How energy moves in a food web.
D. Environment
D. none of above
210. The process in which an animal cannot re-
produce any more and dies out is known 215. The English naturalist that developed the
as theory of how evolution works.
A. Speciation A. Charles Darwin

B. Extinction B. Charles M. Schulz
C. Evolution C. Charles Norris
D. Natural Selection D. none of above

216. According to the research work done by 221. “Survival of the Fittest” describes which
the scientists on the pocket mouse, what theory
are the conclusions they have made? A. natural selection
A. The fur color of the mouse will change B. gravity
in response to it’s environment
C. heredity
B. The fur color has never changed
D. string theory
C. The color of the rock constantly
NARAYAN CHANGDER
changes producing a need for the mice to 222. The theory of evolution by natural se-
adapt. lection means that what is changing over
time?
D. All of the above
A. The inherited traits of a population.
217. Darwin’s theory of evolution is NOT sup-
B. The acquired traits of a population.
ported by
C. Hair color and eye color
A. DNA evidence
D. Attractive features.
B. fossil record
C. early development 223. What is the mean of these 5 numbers:10,
9, 5, 4, 2.
D. the age of trees
A. 10
218. When individuals with an average form B. 6
of a trait have the highest fitness, the re-
sult is C. 12
D. 5
A. not predictable
B. disruptive selection 224. Which of these structures on a more mod-
ern whale is evidence that whales evolved
C. directional selection
from a land mammal with legs
D. stabilizing selection
A. fins
219. This scientist used flies and meat to de- B. gills
termine how maggots were created. C. hip bones
A. Redi D. eyes
B. Leeuwenhoek
C. Needham a vestigial structure?
D. Spallanzani A. the wings of red-tailed hawks
220. Which of the following are considered a B. the hand limbs of a house cat
critical factor in Darwin’s theory of Natu- C. the fins of a shark
ral Selection
D. the wings of an ostrich
A. Overproduction
226. Which of the following is an inherited
B. struggle for existence
trait.
C. survival of the fittest A. A bear searches in a different river
D. inherited variation than the other bears

B. A bird has slightly longer wings than 232. Molecular biologists are discovering fac-
most of it’s population tors that influence your DNA other than
what you have inherited from mom and

C. A tortoise lives to be 200 years old
dad. Scientists call this
D. A polar bear dies of starvation
A. nature versus nurture
227. The majority of mutations are
B. magic
A. harmful
C. epigenetics
B. beneficial
D. lamarckism
C. neutral
D. always involve changes in the DNA se- 233. Mutations
quence
A. are natural and produce genetic diver-
228. What is the least likely to be a variation sity
within a species? B. are unnatural and reduce genetic vari-
A. Birth weight ation.
B. Hair color C. are a mechanism of natural selection
C. Number of offpring D. are a way for organisms to increase
D. Number of limbs their chance of undergoing genetic drift.
229. The finches on the Galapagos island were 234. An organism that survives longer is more
similar in form except for variations of likely to produce offspring
their beaks. Darwin observed that these
A. less
variations were useful for:
A. attracting a mate B. the same amount
B. defending territory C. more
C. building nests D. no
D. gathering food
235. A behavioral pattern that occurs when an
230. Which of the following can increase a animal greatly reduces their activity dur-
species’ chances of survival? ing the winter.
A. Mutations A. extinction
B. Diversity B. migration
C. Generations C. mimicry
D. Genetic Engineering D. hibernation
231. a bird that can easily outcompete other
236. An inherited trait that increases an organ-
birds for food and that can produce many
ism’s chance of surviving and reproducing.
eggs has a high
A. sexuality A. variation
B. mutation rate B. adaptation
C. fitness C. vestigial structure
D. adaptability D. none of above

237. Natural selection means: D. Volcanism

A. individuals that fit best into their en- E. Evolucionism
vironment survive to pass on their genes
while individuals that are less fit die out 242. Check all of the options below that
are SELECTION FACTORS, which determine
B. Scientists can changes the genes of an whether a trait helps or hurts an organism.
animal with genetic engineering (choose more than one)
C. Parents can select which traits they A. Obtaining food
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pass to their offspring
B. Surviving climate changes
D. none of above
C. Escaping predators
238. Species of bacteria can evolve more D. Moving fast
quickly than species of mammals because
bacteria have 243. A population of finches is split between
A. less competition two islands with different environments.
Over time, each population changes so
B. more chromosomes that they no longer recognize each other
C. lower mutation rates as the same species. This is an example of
speciation by
D. higher rates of reproduction
A. Geographic isolation
239. Which adaptation (for the underlined an-
B. Reproductive isolation
imal) serves the function of defense?
C. Reduction of gene flow
A. A walking stick looks like the twig on
which it rests. D. Adaptation
B. A porcupine’s quills cause a predator 244. Natural selection is the process by which
to seek another meal.
C. A whale filters plankton and krill from A. the age of selected fossils is calcu-
the water in which it swims. lated
D. A penguin is dark on top and white be- B. organisms with traits well suited to
low to blend in with the water. their environment survive and reproduce
more successfully than organisms less
240. What is another name for natural selec-
suited to the same environment
tion?
C. acquired traits are passed on from one
A. survival of the smartest
generation to the next
B. survival of the fastest
D. all answers are correct
C. survival of the biggest
245. What is a vestigial organ?
D. survival of the fittest
A. an organ used like an organ in a differ-
241. rock strata demonstrated geological is an ent kind of animal
example of B. an important adaptation
A. Catastrophism C. a simplified organ that no longer has a
B. Gradualism purpose
C. Uniformitarianism D. a musical instrument

246. What organism did Darwin study at the A. The ancestors of whales may have
Galapagos Island? been land mammals

A. Lions B. Whales could walk if they wanted to
B. Tigers C. Whales are preparing to evolve into
land animals
C. Bears
D. Someday whales will be able to walk
D. Birds
and will have legs
247. A new trait will only become more com-
252. When one organism tries to look like an-
mon in a population if it is
other to avoid death.
A. harmful to predators A. camouflage
B. adaptive B. mimicry
C. recessive C. instinct
D. dominant D. behavioral
248. Changes in a body to fit a location. 253. According to the Theory of Natural Selec-
A. Variation tion, what selects or determines traits are
“better” than others?
B. Adaptation
A. Environmental factors
C. Behavior
B. seasons
D. Environment
C. time
249. Which of the following is considered a be- D. the population of a species
havioral adaptation?
A. Wolves hunting in packs 254. Natural selection as the mechanism for
evolution was first proposed by what sci-
B. Long trunks of elephants entist?
C. Birds wings that allow them to fly A. Charles Darwin
D. The white underbelly of a shark B. Albert Einstein
250. According to Darwin’s theory of natural C. Steven Hawking
selection, the individuals that tend to sur- D. Isaac Newton
vive are those that have
255. Which best describes mutations?
A. variations best suited to the environ-
ment. A. Always helpful
B. the ability to change their bodies to fit B. Always harmful
the environment. C. Can be helpful or harmful
C. the best luck. D. Always neutral
D. the biggest body.
256. What human activities could cause
251. What conclusion can you draw from the Botana curus to become extinct? (Choose
fact that many modern whale species have all that apply)
vestigial pelvic and leg bones? A. destruction of natural habitat

B. pollution C. live longer

C. introduction of foreign species that D. become extinct
compete with native species
262. Genetic drift tends to occur in populations
D. removal of predators
that
E. planting more Botana curus
A. are very large
257. Structures that have the same function B. are small
but are composed of very different materi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
als and suggest that there is not a common C. are formed from new species
ancestor are called D. have unchanging allele frequencies
A. homologous structures
263. The process by which all organisms
B. analogous structures change slowly over time because of slight
C. vestigial structures gene variations is called
D. embryology A. natural selection
258. Which is NOT a factor of Natural Selec- B. artificial selection

tion? C. evolution
A. variation D. gene pool
B. competition
264. Makes an organism better suited to its
C. mutation environment
D. acquired characteristics A. Variation
259. How old is our planet Earth? B. Natural Selection
A. 6, 000 years old C. Adaptation
B. 4.6 million years old D. Species
C. 4.6 billion years old
265. Ostriches in Africa, Emus in Australia and
D. We do not have enough information to Rheas in South America are an example of
accurately date the age of Earth.
A. Species vary locally
260. What do the similar embryos of human
B. Species vary globally
and chickens tell us?
C. Species vary over time
A. We both use our bones for the same
things, leading to similar structures. D. none of above
B. They had a common ancestor.
266. The length of time required for half of the
C. Humans are descendants of wolves. radioactive atoms in a sample to decay is
D. It is impossible to tell. its
A. era
261. If an organism can’t adapt fast enough,
this might happen. B. age
A. hibernate C. half-life
B. stay the same D. eon

267. The is the physical appearance that C. temporally isolated

an individual’s alleles code for.
D. mechanically isolated

A. Genotype
B. Phenotype 272. Which of the following means “change
over time”
C. Dominance
D. Heterozygous
B. speciation
268. Certain antibacterial soaps kill 99% of
the bacteria present on hands. Constant C. evolution
use of these soaps could be harmful over D. isolation
time because:
A. the soap stimulates skin cell division 273. What causes a species to evolve over
B. large populations of pathogens are time?
beneficial to the hands A. Extinctions
C. microbes prevent viral diseases B. Inherited genetic variations and muta-
D. more pathogens may be resistant to tions
the soap C. The cycle of the moon
269. Where do the genes that determine an in- D. Environmental changes.
dividual’s traits come from?
A. An individual can be born with any 274. Which adaptation would NOT help a
genes randomly hawk catch a mouse?
B. Individuals grow genes specific to A. Hollow Bones
their environment. B. Good eye sight
C. Parents pass their genes down to their
C. Talons
offspring
D. Parents choose which genes their off- D. Camouflage
spring have.
275. Whether or not a variation is an adapta-
270. Cladograms are constructed by grouping tion is dependent on the organism’s
organisms together based on their A. Environment
characteristics.
B. Genotype
A. shared
B. different C. Phenotype
C. similar D. Selection
D. opposite
276. Darwin did NOT travel to
271. if a storm hits, and several birds are A. Asia
blown to an island, the island birds are
now B. South America
A. behaviorally isolated C. Galapagos Islands
B. geographically isolated D. none of above

277. What word describes a trait that helps 282. A chart that divides Earth’s history into
an organism survive in its environment? units
A. natural selection A. geologic time scale
B. mutation B. fossil record
C. camouflage C. biological evolution
D. adaptation D. ordovician period
NARAYAN CHANGDER
278. Process by which individuals that are bet- 283. You can tell which of the Galapagos Is-
ter suited to their environment survive and lands each tortoise is from by its shell
reproduce most successfully; also called shape. This is an example of
natural selection.
A. Species vary locally
A. Derived trait
B. Species vary globally
B. Artificial selection
C. Species vary over time
C. Extinction
D. none of above
D. Survival of the Fittest
284. What characteristic did Darwin observe
279. What is the name for the study of the ge- about the finches on the Galapagos Is-
ographic distribution of species? lands?
A. Biogeography A. Their feathers
B. Ecology B. Genotypes
C. Systematics C. Their beaks
D. Taxonomy D. Their body sizes
280. The evolution of a new species from an 285. When lions prey on a herd of antelopes,
existing species is some antelopes are killed and some escape.
Which part of Darwin’s concept of natural
selection might be used to describe this sit-
B. isolation uation
C. speciation A. acquired characteristics
D. genetic variation B. reproductive isolation
281. IF 50 BROWN BUGS AND 50 GREEN C. survival of the fittest

BUGS ARE LIVING IN GREEN GRASS, D. descent with modification
THEN BIRDS WILL EAT MORE INSECTS
AND THE POPULATION OF INSECTS 286. Which characteristic is necessary for nat-
WILL INCREASE. ural selection to occur in a species?
A. BROWN / GREEN A. stability
B. GREEN / BROWN B. variation
C. YELLOW / ORANGE C. complex cellular organization
D. none of above D. a very low mutation rate

287. What adaptation do Darwin’s finches D. The populations will evolve separately
have? from each other.

A. More Feathers
292. What do organisms compete for?
B. Different Beaks
A. Space
C. Different Songs
D. none of above B. food and water
C. mates
ple of natural selection? D. all of the above
A. People selectively breeding hamsters.
293. Which process can produce new inheri-
B. Insect populations developing resis- table characteristics within a multicellular
tance to certain pesticides. species?
C. Bacteria becoming resistant to antibi-
A. cloning of the zygote
otics.
D. Male birds of certain species devel- B. mitosis in muscle cells
oping colorful feathers to attract female C. gene alterations in gametes
mates.
D. differentiation in nerve cells
289. What will most likely occur as a result
of changes in the frequency of a gene in a 294. Natural selection is where decides
particular population? which traits should be passed on
A. ecological succession A. a human
B. biological evolution B. nature
C. global warming
C. the illuminati
D. resource depletion
D. Ms. Wilson
290. In science, theories are:
A. an educated guess 295. All the rabbits living in a particular area
would be an example of a(n)
B. a known fact
A. population
C. absolute and unchangeable
D. the best explanation for a set of data B. species
or observations C. fossil
291. Two squirrel populations are said to have D. individual organism
very little gene flow. What will most
likely happen to these populations? 296. Which process allows for the evolution of
A. The populations will evolve at the finches over time?
same rate. A. natural selection
B. Both populations will develop the B. asexual reproduction
same ratio of alleles.
C. selective breeding
C. There will be an increase in diversity
within both populations. D. ecological succession

297. what gave Charles Darwin the idea of 302. Populations of species which do not
evolution? adapt to their environment can eventually
become
A. google
A. stronger
B. wikipedia
B. humans
C. mans attempt to destroy mankind
C. extinct
D. finches in the Galapagos island
D. angry
NARAYAN CHANGDER
298. Carlos is collecting data about the length
303. Some organisms that share a common an-
of earthworms in his backyard. The short-
cestor have features that have different
est worm he found is 4 inches long; the
functions, but similar structures. These
longest worm is 8 inches long. If most of
are known as
the worms are either short or long, which
type of distribution is displayed in the pop- A. vestigial structure
ulation? B. analogous structures
A. directional C. homologous structures
B. disruptive D. fossil structure
C. stabilizing 304. The difference in the physical traits of an
D. none of above individuals from those of other individuals
in a group is called a(n)
299. Man who developed the theory of evolu- A. change
tion
B. species
A. Louis Pasteur
C. variation
B. Francisco Redi
D. adaptation
C. Charles Darwin
305. Which of these choices best describes
D. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck the benefit of genetic variations within a
species?
300. Genetic differences between organisms
of the same species A. It occurs even among organisms that
are isolated.
A. Variation
B. It ensures some organisms can sur-
B. Adaptation vive an environmental change.
C. Behavior C. It allows most organisms to find appro-
D. Environment priate mates.
D. It is energetically inexpensive for or-
301. A trait that helps a living thing survive is ganisms to maintain.
called an
306. What is it called when better adapted
A. trait
organisms survive to pass traits along to
B. adaptation their offspring.
C. survive A. Evolution
D. reproduce B. Natural Selection

C. Extinction 312. which of the following are ways in which

D. Artifical Selection a gene can be regulated transcriptionally

A. acetylation of DNA
307. Another term for Natural Selection is:
B. methylation of DNA
A. Breeding
C. poly-A tails
B. Commensulism
D. attach a phosphate group to a protein
C. Communism
E. RNA interference
D. Survival of the fittest
313. What did one of Darwin’s most famous
308. A pest that exhibits resistance to a pes-
observations involve?
ticide
A. Finches
A. developed the resistance in response
to the pesticide B. Cardinals
B. mutated when exposed to the pesti- C. Parrots
cide D. Peacocks
C. inherited the gene that made it resis-
tant to the pesticide 314. Which of the following describes a scien-
tific theory?
D. is less likely to pass on the gene to the
next generation A. A scientific theory, once established,
can never be changed
309. According to the theory of evolution, the B. A scientific theory is a good guess
genes of some organisms change in a pro- made by very smart people
cess called *
C. A scientific theory explains a broad
A. evolution range of observed facts
B. mutation D. A scientific theory is an explanation
C. fossilisation proven beyond reasonable doubt
D. fertillation
315. What was the name of the scientist who
310. Gradual change in a population through wrote a book called On the Origin of
adaptations over time. Species by Means of Natural Selection?
A. migration A. Lamarck
B. directional selection B. Einstein
C. evolution C. Washington
D. speciation D. Darwin
311. An inherited trait that increases and or- 316. The concept that species have changed
ganism’s chance for survival. over long periods of time is known as
A. Fitness A. ecology
B. Acquired Trait B. embryology
C. Adaptation C. spontaneous generation
D. Gene Pool D. organic evolution

317. Mutations are important because they 322. The process of biological change by which
bring about descendants come to differ from their an-
cestors is
A. death of the organism in which they de-
velop A. Naturla Selection
B. genetic variation needed for a popula- B. Darwing’s Ideas
tion to evolve C. Evolution
C. benefits for the individual, not for the D. Evidence of evolution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
population
323. A variation that can help a species sur-
D. Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a vive in its environment is called *
population A. a characteristic
318. Who is credited with the discovery of B. an adaptation
Natural Selection? C. its habitat
A. Charles Darwin D. competition
B. Charles Xavier 324. Horse breeding for specific desired traits
C. Charles Dickens is an example of which type of evolution-
ary evidence?
D. none of above
A. Artificial selection
319. Any differences of traits between individ- B. Embryology
uals or groups of a species is called. C. Fossils
A. natural selection D. Biochemical molecules
B. variation 325. In your lab, how would your describe
C. generation multiple birds feeding from the same food
source at the same time?
D. distribution
A. competition
320. Besides Evolution, Charles Darwin also B. evolution
came up with what theory? C. natural selection
A. Natural Selection D. variation
B. Artificial Selection 326. Chimpanzees live on an island in a small
C. Stationary Selection population whose traits have remained
constant. What effect would genetic drift
D. Super Selection
have on these chimps?
321. When the DNA of an organism is altered A. A new species will appear
it is referred to as B. Other primates can breed with them to
A. Mutation produce a new species
B. Gene Flow C. Isolation will cause new traits to ap-

pear
C. Genetic Drift
D. Extinction is likely due to limited ge-
D. Sexual Selection netic variation

327. Which factor can affect the epigenome? 333. What happens to the frequency of favor-
A. nutrition able traits in a species over time?

B. exercise A. Favorable traits become more com-
mon
C. stress
B. Favorable traits become less common
D. all of these factors can affect the
epigenome C. The frequency of favorable traits does
not change
328. A behavioral pattern that an organism is D. none of above
born with.
A. instinct 334. A FAVORABLE TRAIT OF A POLAR BEAR
IS ITS COLOR.
B. learned
A. TEETH
C. behavioral
B. SKIN
D. none of above
C. FUR
329. According to Darwin, evolution occurs
D. CLAWS
A. only through artificial selection
335. The preserved evidence of the activity of
B. during half-life periods of 5, 715 years
an organism
C. because of natural selection
A. cast
D. so rapidly that it can be observed eas-
B. original material fossil
ily
C. trace fossil
330. Who observed variations in the charac-
D. mold
teristics of plants and animals on different
islands of the Galapagos? 336. How did whales change from land an-
A. James Hutton imals to creatures who live only in the
ocean?
B. Charles Lyell
A. Many tiny changes in DNA over millions
C. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
of years
D. Charles Darwin
B. Pakicetus decided he could swim bet-
331. geographical isolation can cause ter with a flat tail and shorter hind legs.
A. increased mating C. Pakicetus got eaten by a crocodile so
a new animal had to form.
B. extinction
C. speciation D. A land animal was crossed with a fish
D. decreased competition 337. How does the fossil record show evi-
dence for evolution?
332. A body part of behavior that helps a liv-
ing thing survive A. Shows that some species were plant
eaters
A. instinct
B. Shows that some species have
B. physical adaptation changed little over time
C. hibernation C. Shows that current species resemble
D. migration ancient species

D. none of above 343. The struggle for existence against other

members of an organisms species is
338. A theory is
A. Competition
A. a fact B. Natural Selection
B. a law C. gene flow
C. an idea that explains natural phenom- D. genetic drift
ena
344. What are the most studied animals in the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. a testable explanation Galapagos Islands?
339. The separation of a group of individuals A. Finches
from the rest of the population is referred B. Tortoises
to as C. Turtles
A. genetic drift D. Lizards
345. Individuals that are well adapted to their
C. geographic isolation environment will survive and produce:
D. survival of the fittest A. Fewer mutations
B. Stronger genes
340. Diatoms are one of the most common
types of phytoplankton in marine habi- C. More offspring
tats.Like plants, diatoms contain chloro- D. Better traits
phyll and produce glucose from which of
thefollowing? 346. Characteristics of a species that make its
members better able to live and reproduce
A. O 2 and ATP in their environment are known as
B. CO 2 and O 2 A. abiotic factors
C. ATP and H 2 O B. biotic factors
D. CO 2 and H 2 O C. homologous structures
D. favorable adaptations.
341. Enviromentals changes leads to
347. Which of the following is a term for a
A. variations
group of similar organisms that can repro-
B. pollution duce and produce fertile offspring?
C. predation A. individual
D. artificial selection B. population
C. species
342. Mutations are a change in what?
D. fossil
A. DNA
348. If I wanted to look at DNA to study evo-
B. tRNA lution, I am using what evidence?
C. genotype A. comparative anatomy
D. phenotype B. embryology

C. fossil record C. Complex organisms develop from sim-

D. molecular ple organisms over time.

D. Change occurs according to the needs
349. What is speciation? of an individual organism to survive.
A. The change from one species into two
or more distinct species. 354. What does evolution mean?
A. To change something
B. The movement of a group of organisms
into a new area. B. To change and adapt over time
C. The ability to mate and reproduce. C. To lose some original features
D. The death of an entire species. D. To improve ssomething over time
350. Remains of ancient organisms are called 355. What are the evidences for Evolution?
A. Extinctions A. Fossil Records
B. Fossils B. Embryology
C. Mutations C. Similar body structure
D. Variations D. All the above
351. In interglacial periods in Europe, black 356. A low-level species in a food web sud-
bears body sizes got smaller. In the glacial denly becomes extinct. Of its predators,
periods in Europe, black bears body sizes which will most likely survive?
got larger. What is this type of selection? A. the predators that are genetically sim-
A. directional selection ilar
B. disruptive selection B. the predators that feed on many differ-
ent organisms
C. stabilizing selection
C. the predators that primarily feed on
D. artificial selection the now-extinct species
352. The dark form of the peppered moth sur- D. none of above
vived better than the light moths when
its environment changed (trees became 357. Canyon carved by river is an example of
darker). This is an example of:
A. Variation A. Catastrophism
B. Heritability B. Gradualism
C. Overproduction C. Uniformitarianism
D. Reproductive Advantage D. Volcanism

E. Evolucionism
353. Which concept is not a part of the theory
of evolution? 358. Which two processes result in variations
A. Present-day species developed from that commonly influence the evolution of
earlier species. sexually reproducing species?
B. Some species die out when environ- A. mutation and genetic recombination
mental changes occur. B. mitosis and natural selection

C. extinction and gene replacement C. derived characteristics

D. environmental selection and selective D. only physical similarities
breeding
364. Inherited traits that make an organisms
359. An inherited trait that increases an organ- different within the same species
ism’ rate of survival in its current environ-
ment: A. Genetic variation
A. Fitness B. Natural Selection
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Natural Selection C. Adaptation
C. Evolution D. Extinction
D. Adaptation
365. Used to determine whether an object is
360. The species of finches that Darwin ob- older or younger than other objects
served differed in the shape of their beaks. A. Superposition
According to Darwin, all of these species
probably differed due to B. Relative Dating
A. natural selection C. Fossil

B. had migrated from Africa D. Unconformity
C. had descended from similar birds in 366. According to Amplify 1.3, a(n) can be
Africa used to chart out the frequency of a gene
D. ate the same diet variable in a population
361. Volcanoes, floods and earthquakes are A. generation

example of B. distribution
A. Catastrophism C. evolution
B. Gradualism D. histogram
C. Uniformitarianism
367. What type of species has the best chance
D. Volcanism
of surviving through significant environ-
E. Evolucionism mental change?
362. The theory of evolution by natural selec- A. genetically-diverse species
tion was independently developed by * B. genetically-homogeneous species
A. Sherlock Holmes and Doctor Watson C. species with highly-specialized traits
B. Charles Darwin and James Watson
D. none of above
C. Charles Darwin and Alfred Wallace
D. James Watson and Francis Crick 368. Natural selection acts directly on
A. alleles
363. What do scientist consider when they per-
form cladistic analysis? B. genes
A. only the DNA of organisms C. phenotypes
B. all traits of organisms D. mutations

369. A characteristic that makes an organism 374. To survive in a changing environment, a

well suited to its environment is called population needs to
a(n)?

A. adapt
B. become extinct
B. trait
C. create
C. adaptation
D. mutate
D. variation
370. Fossils provide evidence that 375. If and then statements are usually the
structure of a
A. life on Earth millions of years ago was
more complex than life is today A. hypothesis
B. the changes that will occur in species B. conclusion
in the future are easy to predict C. Theory
C. many species of organisms that lived
D. law
long ago are now extinct
D. most species of organisms that lived 376. A physical or behavioral trait that helps
long ago are exactly the same today an organism survive and reproduce in its
environment is called a what?
371. What does sexual reproduction allow
for? A. An adaptation
A. Increased genetic diversity B. A response to a stimulus
B. Increased offspring C. A mutation
C. Decreased genetic diversity D. Evolution
D. Decreased rate of evolution
377. allows adapted organisms to survive
372. What is the basis for all variation among and pass traits along to offspring.
organisms?
A. Evolution
A. Mutation
B. Natural Selection
B. Genetic Drift
C. Extinction
C. Migration
D. Artifical Selection
D. Inbreeding
378. If an index fossil is found in two rock lay-
373. Darwin referred to this as survival of the
ers that are separated by an ocean, what
fittest. Over time, it results in changes
do you know about the relationship be-
in the inherited characteristics of a popula-
tween the two rock layers?
tion.
A. Natural Selection A. they are about the same age
B. Genetic Variation B. they used to be in the same area

C. Survival of the Fittest C. the are made of the same kind of rock
D. Extinction D. the rock layers are unrelated

379. On the Galapagos Islands, Charles Dar- 384. There is a competition for limited re-
win observed sources within and between resources.
A. completely unrelated species on each This is known as a(n)
of the islands A. struggle for existence
B. species exactly like those found in B. evolution
South America C. adaptation
C. somewhat similar species, with traits D. fitness
that suited their particular environments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
385. A(n) is a used to show the distribu-
D. species completely unrelated to those
tion of traits in a population
found in South America
A. generation
380. Two nucleotide sequences found in two
B. distribution
different species are almost exactly the
same. This suggests that these species C. evolution
A. are evolving into the same species D. histogram
B. contain identical DNA 386. Evolution can best be described as which
C. may have similar evolutionary histo- type of change?
ries A. absolute change
D. have the same number of mutations B. extreme change
C. gradual change
381. Remnants of organs or structures that
had a function in an early ancestor. D. none of above
A. Analogous 387. An animal can blend in with its surround-
B. Homologous ing by using
C. Vestigial A. migration
D. none of above B. camouflage
C. hibernation
382. Who was famous for creating the Theory
of Evolution D. prey
A. Carlos Lineaus 388. A remnant or trace of an organism from
B. Charles Darwin the past is called a
C. Mr. Concannon A. Ancestor

B. Skeleton
D. Watson and Crick
C. Fossil
383. Evidence that best supports the theory
D. Imprints
of biological evolution was obtained from
the: 389. What ‘building blocks of life’ were made
A. analysis of food chains and food webs in the Miller Urey experiment?
B. comparison of the number of cells in A. amino acids
organisms B. nucleic acids
C. study of fossil records C. glucose
D. investigation of environmental niches D. lipids

390. What were Charles Lyell’s main contribu- B. Fossils and mutations
tions? C. Gene and allele differences in organ-

A. He found some bird specimens on the isms
Galapagos Islands.
D. Natural selection and descent with
B. He found some fossils of extinct modification
species.
395. A mutation can occur if a base pair is ,
C. He suggested that life evolves through
deleted, or substituted for another.
physical changes within the life span of an
organism. A. modified
D. He provided the first evidence that the B. added
Earth is much older than was previously C. transferred
thought.
D. none of above
391. Larmarke is to “Inheritance of Acquired
Characteristics” as Darwin is to 396. The earliest whales looked more like
A. divergence of related species A. modern whales
B. homologous structures B. tigers or even pigs
C. evolution by natural selection C. fish
D. speciation by common descent D. none of above
392. Evolution can occur at different rates; 397. Your parents have dark color skin and
however, for evolution to occur, there you have dark color skin. Which word de-
must be: scribes this?
A. variations within a species A. Variation
B. extinction of the species B. Heritability
C. asexual reproduction C. Overproduction
D. no change in the genes of an organism D. Reproductive Advantage
393. The British naturalist Charles Darwin de- 398. A rock formed with 1000 atoms of a
veloped a theory after observing species radioactive parent element, but only con-
in the Galapagos Islands. What is the tains 250 radioactive parent atoms today.
name of this theory? If the half-life of the parent element is one
A. Theory of Gravity million years, how old is the rock?
B. Pythagorean Theorem A. 250, 000 years old
C. Theory of Evolution B. 500, 000 years old
D. none of above C. 1, 000, 000 years old
D. 2, 000, 000 years old
394. Which two observations led Darwin to
conclude that there is competition for sur- 399. A study of the position and shape of the
vival? bones in the forelimbs of a flying squir-
A. Overproduction of organisms and lim- rel, a bat, and a beaver showed that the
ited food resources beaver and the flying squirrel appear to

be most closely related. This determina- 404. A trait that allows organisms to survive
tion was most likely based on a study in and reproduce better than others without
the field of comparative the trait in a specific environment is a(n)
A. anatomy A. accommodation
B. biochemisty B. adaptation
C. cytology C. variation
D. embryology. D. selection
NARAYAN CHANGDER
400. Mutations can benefit humans because 405. Where did Darwin find the most diverse
they can: and unique organisms?
A. Cause illness A. Galapagos Islands
B. Make an organism more suited to live B. Canary Islands
in its environment.
C. Azores
C. Make organisms live shorter lives
D. none of above
D. Cause organisms to grow extra limbs.
406. Nature has a way of causing organisms
401. What was the name of the ship Charles
that inherit advantageous traits to survive
Darwin sailed on?
and reproduce more successfully than the
A. Boaty McBoaty Face ones that don’t. This process is known as
B. HMS Beagle
C. HMS Britannia A. natural selection
D. HMS Bulldog B. genetic variation

C. adaptation
402. Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution by
natural selection explains each of the fol- D. overproduction
lowing EXCEPT how
407. The process of choosing parent organisms
A. species can become extinct. for desired characteristics is called
B. inherited traits are passed from parent A. natural selection
to offspring
B. Artificial selection
C. species descend from common ances-
tors. C. random selection
D. evolution takes place in the natural D. genetic manipulation
world.
408. Comparing the body structures of organ-
403. Preserved remains or traces of ancient or- isms to find evidence of a shared evolution-
ganisms. ary history is called
A. Adaptation A. outgrouping
B. Fossil B. physiology
C. Natural selection C. comparative anatomy
D. Trait D. analogous reconstruction

409. If there are black mice and white mice, 414. The term that best describes “the better
and they live on black dirt. Who is most adapted organisms survive to pass traits
likely to survive long enough to reproduce along to offspring”.

and pass along their genetic material to
A. Evolution
their off spring
A. Black Mice
C. Extinction
B. White Mice
D. Artifical Selection
C. Black and White Mice
D. None of the above 415. The poison of the newt was a(n)
against the snakes in the environment.
410. Natural selection is the process that
passes down traits. A. generation
A. Same B. distribution
B. Old C. non-adaptive trait
C. Useless D. adaptive trait

D. Favorable 416. In a particular population, sexual repro-
duction can produce
411. What is the process in which humans
breed organisms for certain traits? A. many different phenotypes.
A. natural selection B. meiosis.
B. inheritance C. mutations.
C. artificial selection D. none of above
D. descent without modification 417. process that results in the adaptation of
412. The situation in which allele frequencies an organism to its environment by means
of a population remain constant is called of selectively reproducing changes in its
genotype, or genetic constitution
A. evolution
A. fitness
B. genetic drift
B. adaptation
C. genetic equilibrium
D. natural selection
D. mutation
413. What two factors can lead to the evolu-
tion of a species over time? 418. Structures that are very different in
structure or anatomy but have similar func-
A. overproduction of offspring and no
tions such as the wings of a bird and a but-
variation
terfly.
B. changes in the genes of body cells and
A. Vestigial Structures
extinction
B. Homologous Structures
C. struggle for survival and fossilization
C. Analogous Structures
D. changes in the genes of sex cells and
survival of the fittest D. Cladogram

419. Species have evolved into two different 424. The fossil record of ancient life forms pro-
species when vides scientific evidence of
A. the populations are separated geo- A. direct harvesting
graphically B. selective breeding
B. the populations look different C. gene manipulation
C. the populations can no longer inter- D. evolutionary changes
breed
NARAYAN CHANGDER
425. The separation of populations by barriers
D. the populations adapt such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of wa-
ter is called
420. The evolution of the rock pocket mouse
caused by natural selection demonstrated A. evolution
a shift from large populations of to B. genetic drift
pocket mice. C. genetic equilibrium
A. light, light D. natural selection
B. dark, light
426. When there is a difference in population
C. light, dark based on genes, it is said to be a
D. dark, dark A. Mutation
B. Speciation
421. Which process is a cause of variation in a
species? C. Extinction
A. metamorphosis D. Genetic Variation
B. cellular respiration 427. The is the pair of alleles an individual

has for a given trait. Ex:FF
C. sexual reproduction
A. Genotype
D. regulation
B. Phenotype
422. Natural selection can also be referred to C. Homozygous
as:
D. Dominance
A. Survival of the weakest
428. Male turkeys are birds that naturally
B. Survival strut and display their large tail feathers,
C. Survival of the fittest which attracts female turkeys. This dis-
play is an example of
D. Artificial selection
A. asexual reproduction
423. Which of the following describes fossils? B. a learned behavior
A. large organisms that live on Earth now C. a behavioral adaptation
B. traces of organisms that lived in the D. selective breeding
past
429. Name of Darwin’s Book
C. the fate of all organisms now on Earth
A. On the Origin of Species by Means of
D. preserved in igneous rock Natural Selection

B. Natural Selection, Finches and the C. That all living things originated from
Galapogos Islands one common ancestor.

C. My voyage on the HMS Beagle D. none of above
D. Natural Selection and other stories 435. The corn we eat today is larger and has
more kernels than the corn people first
430. What is an organism that has similar
grew thousands of years ago. Which
characteristics and can reproduce?
process is most likely responsible for the
A. species changes that have occurred?
B. organism A. mitosis
C. embryology B. succession
D. vestigial C. direct harvesting
431. Where the better adapted organisms sur- D. selective breeding

vive to pass traits along to offspring. 436. Evolution is natural selection.
A. Evolution A. dependent on
B. Natural Selection B. independent of
C. Extinction C. increased by the rate of
D. Artifical Selection D. decreased by the rate of
432. A structure that seems to serve no pur- 437. Organisms with the ability to access food,
pose in an organism is called: evade predators, find shelter are most
A. homologous likely to survive and reproduce than other
members of their population.
B. vestigial
A. Evolution
C. dichotomous
D. fossilized
C. Extinction
433. What was the name of the ship Darwin D. Artifical Selection
traveled the world on?
438. Biogeography is the study of
A. HMS Beagle
A. food preferences of an organism
B. SS Beagle
B. the location of organisms on Earth
C. HMS Bugle
C. DNA and RNA nucleotides
D. SS Bugle
D. homologous structures
434. What was Charles Darwin’s theory of
evolution? 439. Darwin referred to this as “survival of
the fittest.” Over time, it results in
A. That evolution took a while and that changes in the inherited characteristics of
traits from parents are passed down to a population because organisms with adap-
their offspring. tations that make them fit for their envi-
B. That inherited characteristics took a ronment will survive and reproduce better
long time to change. than those without favorable traits.

A. Natural Selection B. Species differ globally, locally and dif-

B. Genetic Variation fer over time.
C. Selective Breeding C. Species vary globally, locally, and na-

tionally.
D. Mutations
D. Species vary globally, locally and vesti-
440. An animal’s color or pattern that helps it gally.
blend into its surroundings
445. Which of the following is a fossil?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Environment
B. Mimicry A. a plant that has recently died
C. Camouflage B. a group of similar organisms that can
reproduce
D. none of above
C. a structure or organ that no longer
441. When all of the organisms of a species function
have died it is called
D. a trace of an organisms that existed in
A. evolution the past
B. extinction
446. The island of Aldabra lies 400km off the
C. adaptation
coast of Africa and is home to the Aldabra
D. natural selection Rail, a long-legged, flightless bird. It is
much different from the rails living on the
442. In a forest in Germany, there is a rat who
mainland. This bird is different due to-
has three fur coat colors:a light creamy
color, a medium tan color, and a dark A. geographic isolation
brown color. In this particular forest, the B. convergence
floor is a medium brown and the intermedi-
ate tan color mouse is better camouflaged. C. adaptive radiation
A. directional selection D. reproductive isolation
447. Anatomically similar structures inherited
C. stabilizing selection from a common ancestor are called what?
D. artificial selection A. Similar features
443. Charles Darwin B. A coincidence
A. developed the theory of extinction C. Homologous structures
B. developed the theory of natural selec- D. Vestigial structures
tion
C. Both answer options are correct. 448. I traveled around the world on the HMS
Beagle in 1831 in search of answers.
D. None of these answers is correct.
A. Reginald Punnett
444. What 3 patterns of biodiversity did Dar-
B. Gregor Mendel
win introduce?
C. Charles Darwin
A. Species differ globally, locally and na-
tionally D. Alfred Hitchcock

449. What most likely caused the finches on B. Genes are random and don’t lead to
the Galapagos Islands to have beaks that traits
were different from the finches on the

C. Genes give organisms the ability to
mainland?
change their traits.
A. There were different types of preda-
D. Genes-instructions for making protein
tors on the island.
molecules-determining traits
B. There were different types of food
available on the island. 454. What are the most studied animals in the
C. The finches had no water to drink. galapagos?
D. The finches on the mainland could not A. Finches
fly high enough. B. Tortoises
450. What is important about evolution? C. Turtles
A. Populations or groups of individuals of D. Lizards
the same species evolve.
B. Individuals also evolve over time. 455. Who wrote a book about human overpop-
ulation that influenced Darwin’s thinking.
C. Both populations and individuals
evolve over time. A. Gregor Mendel
D. Populations or individuals do not B. Jean Baptise Lamarck
evolve over time. C. Thomas Malthus
451. What is a species? D. Alfred Russell Wallace
A. A group of organisms that can mate
with each other and produce fertile off- 456. What is Charles Darwin known for?
spring. A. He discovered a common ancestor for
B. A group of organisms that can mate all living organisms on Earth
and produce offspring even if those off- B. He developed the idea of evolution
spring are infertile.
C. He developed the theory of natural se-
C. A group of organisms that genetically lection
are very different from each other.
D. he discovered a new species
D. Indivual organisms that live in the
same environment. 457. What could happen if a population of an-
452. How do you “win” at natural selection? imals is permanently separated by a natu-
ral barrier like a mountain?
A. survive
A. The animals will become extinct
B. go extinct
B. The two populations will evolve into a
C. survive & reproduce
separate species
D. none of above
C. The animals will evolve into identical
453. How do genes determine an individual’s species
traits? D. Heterotrophs will become autotrophs
A. Genes directly cause traits and begin making their own food

458. Which of the following is NOT a compo- 462. A change in the gene pool due to death or
nent of the Theory of Evolution by Natural isolation is called
Selection
A. Competition for food and space
B. biochemistry
B. Genetic diversity among members of
C. genetic drift
the population
D. mutations
C. Inheritance of acquired traits
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Survival of and successful reproduc- 463. Which demonstrates genetic variation re-
tion by organisms with adaptations suited sulting in a protective adaptation?
to their environment. A. A butterfly changes colors to look like
its poisonous relatives.
459. What did Darwin conclude about the
finches on the Galapagos Islands? B. A bird in the desert breeds at night to
avoid the heat.
A. They evolved from a common ancestor
on the main land C. A groundhog runs into a burrow to
avoid a predator.
B. They evolved from many different
types of birds D. A beaver builds a dam to protect its
family.
C. They all came from different countries
and continents
464. When a farmer selects and breeds his or
D. They developed from other types of or- her best livestock, the process invovled
ganisms is?
460. adding acetyl groups to will turn a A. Natural selection

gene B. Artifical selection
A. DNA, off C. Selective breeding
B. DNA, on D. Nature’s callin
C. Histone, on
465. The beaks of finches found on various
D. Histone, off Galapagos Islands differed based on:
461. Darwin referred to this as survival of the A. The size of the Island
fittest. Over time, it results in changes B. The length of the wings
in the inherited characteristics of a pop-
ulation because organisms with adapta- C. The available food supply
tions that make them fit for their envi- D. The predators that hunted them
ronment will survive and reproduce better
than those without favorable traits. 466. This word means to stay alive.
A. Natural Selection A. trait
B. Genetic Variation B. reproduce
C. Survival of the Fittest C. adaptation
D. none of above D. survive

467. A bird with a short, thick beak (like a 472. A large population of bluejays living in
robin) is specialized for what food habits? the mountains is separated by the forma-
tion of a desert. After millions of years,

A. Seed cracking
the populations of bluejays would most
B. Eating nectar likely
C. Tearing flesh A. become exstinct
D. Straining algae and plants B. diverge into two new species
C. evolve into cats
468. A species is an organism that has differ-
ent traits and cannot with other organ- D. become two very small populations of
isms. the same species.
A. breed 473. Natural Selection is the idea that
B. exist A. Organisms better suited for their envi-
C. survive ronment will survive and reproduce
D. evolve B. Any physical or behavioral characteris-

tic that helps an organism to better sur-
469. Which of the following is an example of vive
an environmental pressure? C. Theory that organisms have changed
A. The air pressure in the atmosphere gradually over a long period of time to
form mew organisms
B. Breeding between two members of the
same species D. none of above
C. The temperature in gradually decreas- 474. The survival of a population in a changing

ing environment depends on
D. A fight between two members of the A. having a lot of food
same species B. having a lot of space
470. Combined alleles of all individuals in a C. having a lot of genetic variation
population is called D. having a lot of water
A. phenothype 475. What is a mass extinction?
B. gene pool A. When all the species in a particular
C. mutation rate area on earth suddenly go extinct
D. allele frequency B. When multiple species from all over
the earth suddenly go extinct
471. Scientist use to determine how organ- C. When one species goes extinct due to
isms are related and to build phylogenetic habitat changes
trees.
D. When all life on earth is wiped out
A. genetic sequences
476. Any difference between cells, individual
B. how organisms look
organisms, or groups of organisms of any
C. where organism lives species is called
D. behavior A. natural selection

B. variation 482. Which term refers to the process by

C. generation which individuals that are better suited
to the environment survive and reproduce
D. distribution therefore passing down their genes to
their offspring?
477. Which is not an example of a species?
A. Evolution
A. Dodo Bird
B. Variation
B. Donkey
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Adaptation
C. Mule
D. Natural Selection
D. Zebra
483. are mistakes or changes in the DNA
478. When an organism no longer exists.
that cause variation within a species.
A. adaptation A. mutations
B. predator B. adaptations
C. prey C. speciations
D. extinct D. isolations
479. What is natural selection? 484. The different tools used during the beaks
A. Your natural fate is decided from birth of finches lab represented
B. Nature actively chooses who surivives A. feeding adaptations in finches
C. Those best suited to demands of envi- B. nest construction adaptations
ronment survive C. variations in seed size
D. The weakest of a species surivie D. variations in ecosystems
480. The difference between DNA code and the 485. Who believed that giraffes have long
epigenome is that the DNA code is necks because competition for food meant
A. flexible, while the epigenome is fixed that giraffes with slightly longer necks
for life could get more food and survived longer
to pass on their genes to their offspring
B. fixed for life, while the epigenome is
who also had longer necks.
flexible
A. Jean Baptise Lamarck
C. determined by the environment, while
the epigenome is not B. Charles Darwin
D. determined by one’s stress level, while C. Gregor Mendel
the epigenome is not D. Thomas Malthus
481. Natural selection and evolution work on 486. As a species evolve, they develop and
what level of life organization? others
A. individuals A. old traits, save
B. biomes B. new traits, save
C. populations C. old traits, lose
D. ecosystems D. new traits, lose

487. Which of the following species is ex- 492. Which will most likely occur when a bird’s
tinct? beak size increases over time to better
crack open nuts?

A. woolly mammoth
A. Species survival will increase.
B. giant panda
B. Species survival will decrease.
C. bald eagle
C. Species reproduction will increase.
D. green sea turtle
D. Species reproduction will decrease.
488. Witch of the following are not key obser-
493. Individuals with variations that make
vations based on Natural Selection
them best suited to their environment are,
A. Traits are often HERITABLE on average, more likely to
B. VARIATION:Offspring vary in their her- A. evolve
itable traits
B. change over time
C. OVERPRODUCTION:More offspring C. survive and reproduce
are produced than can survive
D. become larger
D. Mr. Concannon loves Natural Selec-
tion 494. In birds, what is the advantage of having
different shaped beaks?
489. Which of the following is an adaptation
in which one species resembles another
species? B. To be able to eat the food readily avail-
able in the environment.
A. mimicry
C. To protect itself against predators.
B. tallness
C. variation
495. According to Darwin’s theory of natural
D. camouflage
selection, the individuals that tend to sur-
490. Which processes lead to the greatest va- vive are those that have
riety of genetic combinations? A. characteristics that plant and animal
A. asexual reproduction and cloning breeders value.
B. the greatest number of offspring.
B. meiosis and fertilization
C. characteristics their parents acquired
C. meiosis and mitosis
in their lifetime by use and disuse.
D. cloning and mitosis
D. variations best suited to environmen-
491. The males of a bird species do a “dance” tal conditions.
and “sing a song” each spring. What is 496. Charles Darwin described the process of
the main purpose of these behaviors? evolution as
A. to scare off young birds A. Descent without modification
B. to imprint young brids B. Animals choosing to change
C. to clean their feathers C. A fast change over time
D. to attract female birds D. Descent with modification

497. Change over time 502. Adaptations can be:

A. Natural Selection A. camouflage
B. Selective Breeding B. ability to survive cold weather
C. Homeostasis C. hunting skills
D. Evolution D. all of the above
498. Some lizards have different size legs.
503. What is one set of instructions for an in-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Lizards with longer legs are able to better
herited trait?
access food. Overtime Lizards with short
legs became less common.What is the in- A. gene
herited variation? B. allele
A. lizards C. phenotype
B. long legs D. genotype
C. leg size
504. Inherited trait that helps an organism sur-
D. food
vive is a(n)
499. For the most part, evolution is: A. Fossil
A. a very rapid process B. Adaptation
B. a fast process
C. Ancestor
C. a moderately slow process
D. a slow process
505. Organisms with the most beneficial traits
500. An adaptation is will survive. This is commonly known as
A. Organisms better suited for their envi-
ronment will survive and reproduce A. theory of evolution
B. Any physical or behavioral characteris-
B. variations
vive C. survival of the fittest
C. Theory that organisms have changed D. ecosystems
gradually over a long period of time to
form mew organisms 506. The prairie dog has many adaptions to its
ecosystem. Which best explains the ge-
D. none of above netic variation in the prairie dog that pro-
501. Individuals in a population that have a vided adaptation to its ecosystem?
variation which gives them an advantage A. exceptional vision to see a great dis-
in their environment are more likely to tance on the prairie
A. survive and reproduce. B. claws to dig tunnels for shelter from
B. die and not reproduce. predators
C. move to a different environment. C. long tails to anchor themselves to
trees
D. change their characteristics to fit the
environment. D. none of above

507. Who sailed from England to explore 512. Which of the following phrases best de-
South America’s coast? scribes the results of natural selection?

A. Albert Einstein A. natural variation found in all popula-
tions
B. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
B. unrelated species living in different lo-
C. Marie Curie
cations
D. Charles Darwin
C. changes in the inherited characteris-
508. protects an animal from attack by tics of a population over time
making it blend in with it’s surroundings. D. struggle for existence undergone by
A. mimicry all iving things
B. camouflage 513. Natural selection affects a(n) and oc-

curs relatively while evolution affects
C. instinct
a(n) and occurs relatively
D. none of above
A. individual; fast; population; slow
509. The economist Thomas Malthus sug- B. population; slowly; individual; fast
gested that
C. population; fast; individual; fast
A. in the human population, people die D. individual; slowly; population; fast
faster than babies are born.
B. without certain checks on population 514. Similar features that evolve through con-
size, there would soon be insufficient food vergent evolution are called
for the growing human population. A. analogous structures
C. in the 1700s, England needed more B. homologous structures
housing.
C. environmental characters
D. the majority of a species’ offspring die.
D. genetic characters
510. Which of the characteristics is a lion least 515. Some people are taller than others.
likely to pass on to its offspring? Which word describes this?
A. fur color A. Variation
B. tail of tail B. Heritability
C. body size C. Overproduction
D. scars on legs D. Reproductive Advantage
511. What is a trait? 516. In the past, humans developed varieties
A. a kind of fossil of dogs, such as the German shepherd and
the bearded collie, using:
B. a genetic change
A. natural selection of favorable traits
C. a new species
B. mutations present only in body cells
D. a genetically determined characteris-
tic that can be passed from parent to off- C. recombination of genes during mitosis
spring D. selective breeding for particular traits

517. Organisms with traits that are favorable A. no evolutionary relationships between
to their survival and reproduction are the groups
likely to pass on their genes to the next
B. recent common ancestry
generation, and thus common in the
population C. similar environments in the past
A. more, less D. evolution from a distant common an-
B. more, more cestor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. less, less 522. The more genetic variation a population
D. less, more has, the more likely it is for some individ-
uals to and reproduce in an changing
518. What is suggested by the similarity of environment.
early embryos of different species of ver- A. evolve
tebrates?
B. migrate
A. no evolutionary relationships between
the groups C. survive
B. recent common ancestry D. mutate
C. similar environments in the past
523. What islands did Darwin do most of his
D. evolution from a distant common an- research on?
cestor
A. Hawaiian Islands
519. How does comparing the skeletons of or- B. Malta Islands
ganisms provide support for the scientific
theory of evolution? C. Galapagos Islands
A. It provided information about the or- D. Indonesia Archipelagos

ganisms’ habitats.
524. The scientific findings of the 1930s,
B. It shows possible common ancestry 1940s, and 1950s melded together Dar-
between the organisms. win’s findings with
C. It provides information to determine A. genetics
the organisms’ ages.
B. sociology
D. It shows possible chromomsomal sim-
ilarities between the organisms. C. psycology
520. The term microevolution refers to D. chemistry
A. speciation 525. Each fish gives birth to hundreds of fish,

B. macroevolution most of which will not survive. Which
word describes this?
C. small-scale changes in a population
A. Variation
D. large-scale changed in a population
B. Heritability
521. What is suggested by the anatomical
C. Overproduction
similarity of different species of verte-
brates? D. Reproductive Advantage

526. Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record A. Selective breeding

as

A. evidence that Earth was thousands of
years old C. Cloning
B. a detailed record of evolution D. Evolution of all species

C. interesting but unrelated to the evolu- 531. What is a change in an organism that al-
tion of modern species lows for it to survive in its environment?
D. evidence that traits are acquired
A. homologous
through use or disuse
B. vestigial
527. Definition:natural selection
C. variation
A. inherited characteristic that increases
chances of survival D. adaptation
B. organisms with traits well suited to
their environment survive and reproduce 532. What defines a population in evolution?
at a greater rate A. Members of the same community
C. a growing population causes a scarcity B. Members of a single species that may,
of resources or may not, share a common space
D. differences in the DNA sequence C. Interbreeding members of the same
528. Which one of the following is not a rea- species that share a common space
son why species adapt and change? D. Multiple species interacting together
A. too much food available in an ecosystem
B. producing too many young
533. Which of the following is NOT a part of
C. producing too many offspring Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
D. competition for the same resources A. Variation in a population
529. When looking at two birds of the same B. Survival of the fittest
species, you notice that one has darker
feathers than the other one. You also no- C. Struggle for existence
tice that one has a beak that is just a lit- D. Passing on acquired traits
tle longer. These slight differences within
members of the same species are called 534. The theory of Evolution by Natural Selec-
tion states that
A. Fossils A. species that are extinct have no biolog-
B. Extinction ical relationship to living species
C. Meiosis B. different animal species always inter-
D. Variations breed to form new and different species
C. species change over time, sometimes
530. When organisms are better adapted to
developing into new species
their environment they will survive and re-
produce more successfully than organisms D. the environment of Earth is constant
less adapted. This process is called what? over time

535. The process of Natural Selection causes C. a christian

evolution. What is changing over time? D. a naturalist
A. The inherited traits of a population.
541. Modern whales developed their traits
B. The acquired traits of a population. through natural selection. What occurs
C. The inherited traits of individuals during the process of natural selection?
D. The acquired traits of individuals A. Organisms choose mates from other
species to create new species
536. The process by which organisms with fa-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
vorable traits survive and reproduce at a B. Breeders selectively cross organisms
higher rate with desired traits
A. Natural Selection C. Only the fittest organisms can survive

and reproduce
B. Adaptation
D. Organisms remain exactly the same
C. Evolution over time.
D. Speciation
542. The changes of species over time
537. When scientists compare fossils from bil- A. Embryonic
lions of years ago to recently formed fos-
sils, what would they discover? B. Natural selection
A. the species changed over time C. Mimicry
B. the species stayed the same over time D. Evolution
C. the species chemically changed 543. Fossils help scientists classify extinct
D. the species moved to higher levels of species and determine their relationships
the food chain to current species. Fossils provide the
most information about extinct species’-
538. What is the study of organisms at the A. metabolism
early stages of development?
B. structures
A. DNA studies
C. reproduction
B. Comparative Embryology
D. habitats
C. Extinction
D. Fossil Record 544. The term for the formation of new and
distinct species over the course of evolu-
539. This mechanism of evolution occurs when tion is
individuals migrate between populations. A. speciation
A. Extinction B. biological species concept
B. Gene flow C. reproductive barrier
C. Genetic drift D. natural selection
545. Structures or behaviors that help anor-
540. who is Charles darwin ganism survive in its surroundings
A. starbucks owner A. adaptations
B. a bird B. inherited traits

C. learned behaviors 551. Which characteristic BEST indicates an

D. structural behaviors evolutionary relationship between birds
and reptiles?

546. Which word is defined as a reduced form
of a functional structure in 1 organism that A. scales
shows up as fully functional in another? B. feathers
A. homologous structures C. warm blood
B. vestigial structures
D. hard-shelled eggs
C. analogous structure
D. DNA 552. What is a trait that allows an organism
to survive in its environment?
547. In a population of birds, the percent-
age of individuals having a certain gene A. homologous
changes from 20% to 60% over the span
B. vestigial
of several hundred years. This situation
will most likely affect the rate of: C. variation
A. biological evolution D. adaptation
C. ecological succession 553. Lamarck’s theory
D. gene mutation A. describes natural selection
548. Select all the geological change B. describes evolution in terms of “use
and disuse” and therefore true
A. Catastrophism
B. Gradualism C. was true only for the 1800’s
C. Uniformitarianism D. a great idea but proven false
D. Volcanism
554. What do we call traits that increase an
E. Evolucionism individual’s chance to survive and repro-
549. Which of the following is evidence of evo- duce?
lution? A. Maladaptations
A. fossils
B. Adaption
B. the biology book
C. Variations
C. spiders are poisonous
D. people have hair D. Adaptations
550. What is a measure of the relative contri- 555. Select all answers that influence Evolu-
bution an individual makes to the next gen- tion of organisms.
eration?
A. Gene Flow
A. Natural selection
B. Heritability
C. Adaptation C. Genetic Drift
D. Fitness D. Aliens

556. What did the beak type of finches on dif- C. lack of competition within the species.
ferent islands tell Darwin? D. choices made by plant and animal
A. Finch populations evolved over time to breeders.
favor beaks based on food type
561. The formation of new and distinct species
B. Finch populations had not evolved over
in the course of evolution
time
A. artificial selection
C. The finch beaks had no relationship to
B. speciation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the available food on the islands
D. Humans artificially selected finches C. breeding
based on their desired beak type D. non-random mating
557. Which scientist visited the Galapagos Is- 562. When the last individual of a species dies.
lands and came up with the theory of nat-
ural selection? A. biological evolution
A. Theodor Schwann B. geologic tradegdy
B. Gregor Mendel C. extinction
C. Charles Darwin D. cambrian period
D. Rudolf Virchow 563. All the genes of all members of a particu-
558. Which of the following is true of varia- lar population make up the population’s
tion? A. relative frequency
A. It is necessary for natural selection. B. phenotype
B. It exists in almost all populations. C. genotype
C. It is caused by mutations and sexual D. gene pool
reproduction.
564. Which of the following pieces of evolu-
D. All of the choices are correct.
tion evidence deals with structures com-
559. Comparing one rock to another rock to demon in embryos that form differently or
termine the age is considered to be called for different purposes in adult form?
A. Absolute age A. fossil record
B. Relative age B. comparing embryology
C. Actual age C. comparing biochemistry
D. Predicted age D. comparing anatomy
560. According to Darwin’s theory of natural 565. What is the study of the distribution of
selection, individuals who survive are the species in geographic space and through
ones best adapted for their environment. time?
Their survival is due to the
A. Biology
A. possession of adaptations developed
B. Geology
through use.
B. possession of inherited adaptations C. Geography
that maximize fitness. D. Biogeography

566. Evolution is defined as a(n) C. Mutations can lead to variation that

A. Idea that organisms better suited for may affect an individual’s survival.

their environment will survive and repro- D. none of above
duce
571. Darwin’s theory of evolution is based on
B. Any physical or behavioral characteris- the concept of
vive
B. use and disuse
C. Theory that organisms have changed
gradually over a long period of time to C. mutations
form mew organisms D. hybridization
D. none of above 572. Maple leaf beetles and willow leaf bee-
tles are named for the type of tree where
567. According to which theory does specia-
they live and reproduce. They look identi-
tion occur in short bursts followed by long
cal to each other when observed, but ex-
periods of stability?
periments have shown that willow beetles
A. punctuated equilibrium would starve before eating maple leaves.
B. gradualism This is an example of specialization that
would directly reduce
C. convergent evolution
A. variation
D. divergent evolution
B. competition
568. A farmer’s use of the best livestock for C. adaptation
breeding is an example of:
D. replication
A. Artificial Selection
573. Why do frogs and other organism repro-
B. Natural Selection duce so many eggs or offspring?
C. Fitness A. so that their babies can have friends to
D. Common Descent play with
B. the more offspring the more likely the
569. Which adaptation has occurred due to ge-
offspring will survive
netic variation allowing some species to
seem invisible to predators? C. the more offspring the less likely off-
spring will survive
A. ability to make loud noises
D. the more offspring the less competi-
B. exceptional vision tion
C. camouflage
574. When individuals with certain inherited
D. none of above traits are more likely to survive and repro-
duce than those with less favorable traits,
570. What is the connection between genetics
occurs.
and natural selection?
A. genetic selection
A. Genes vary between individuals and
that variation causes mutations B. natural selection
B. Individuals vary in their appearance C. favored survival
and that variation causes mutations. D. struggle for existence

575. What is the gradual change in species C. a rabbit burrowing underground

over time? D. a viper biting when threatened
A. Evolution
580. The finches of the Galapagos islands
B. Adaptation come in different size and have different
C. Natural Selection beak shapes. What is the most likely
D. none of above reason for the specialization of these
finches?
576. Which two organisms are the most
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Had very large beaks
closely related according to their DNA se-
quence? Critter A→ ATG CTT AAC CCG B. Beaks formed to eat different foods
TTACritter B→ ATC CTT TTC CCG TAACrit- C. Ancestors had different shapes of
ter C→ ATG CTA TAG GCG TAA beaks
A. Critter A and B D. Had small beaks
B. Critter A and C 581. Which of the following can scientists use
C. Critter B and C as evidence to support the theory of evo-
D. They are all equally related lution?
A. Vestigial Structures
577. During the industrial revolution, there
are a bunch of pollutants in the city. B. Environment
Darker moths were able to reproduce C. Charles Darwin
more since they were able to blend with D. Extinction
their surroundings. Which word describes
this? 582. Genetic drift is change in the allele fre-
A. Variation quency of a population due to
B. Heritability A. random chance
C. Overproduction B. natural selection
D. Reproductive Advantage C. non-random mating (sexual selection)

578. Natural selection and its evolutionary
consequences provide a scientific explana- 583. DARWIN BELIEVED THAT long necked GI-
tion for each of the following except RAFFES
A. the fossil record A. SURVIVED AND REPRODUCED
B. protein and DNA similarities between B. STRETCHED THEIR NECKS TO GET
different organisms FOOD
C. similar structures among different or- C. OVERTIME GREW LONGER NECKS
ganisms D. none of above
D. a stable physical environment
584. The success and fitness of peppered moth
579. An example of a physical adaptation is in their environment depends on [Se-
lect ALL that apply]
A. a turtle hiding inside its shell A. the color of the moth
B. The spikes on a porcupine fish B. the color of the environment

C. the amount of birds in the environment 589. Paleontology is the study of

D. the number of female birds looking to A. ecosystems

make babies with the moths B. genetics
585. Which of the following events do biolo- C. fossils
gist consider a random change? D. rocks and minerals
590. The viceroy butterfly tastes good to birds.
B. speciation The monarch butterfly tastes bad to birds.
The viceroy butterfly looks similar to the
C. disruptive selection
monarch butterfly, keeping it safer. This
D. genetic drift is best described as-
A. camouflage
586. What is a characteristic that helps an or-
ganism survive and reproduce in its envi- B. imitation
ronment? C. adaptation
A. Selective Breeding D. mimicry
B. Adaptation
591. Mimicry and Camouflage are examples of
C. Evolution A. evolution
D. Fossils B. life forms
587. Which of the following is evidence for C. successive generations

evolution in action? D. adaptations
A. Bacteria becoming resistant to antibi- 592. According to modern evolutionary theory,
otics over time genes responsible for new traits that help
B. Mosquitoes becoming resistant to pes- a species survive in a particular environ-
ticides ment will usually
C. The different domesticated breeds of A. not change in frequency
dogs customized for our needs B. decrease gradually in frequency
D. All are evidence for evolution C. decrease rapidly in frequency
D. increase in frequency
588. In Canada, the people have overfished
the salmon in a particular river. They catch 593. Darwin realized that the economist
the larger salmon and throw the smaller Malthus’s theory of population control
salmon back into the river. Over time,
what type of selection is likely to take A. applied only to humans.
place? B. could be generalized to any population
A. directional selection of organisms.
C. could be generalized only when popu-
lations lived in crowded conditions.
C. stabilizing selection
D. explained why the number of deaths
D. artificial selection exceeded that of births.

594. Genetic mutations are the direct cause of C. beneficial

which of the following? D. chromosomal
A. Aliens
600. Which statement best describes a situa-
B. Super heroes tion where competition occurs in an ecosys-
C. Variations tem?
D. 8th grade behaviors A. A deer outruns an attacking wolf
595. What would be a favorable trait for B. A deer, during the winter, consumes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a rabbit trying to avoid predators in a tree bark.
snowy environment? C. A deer and a rabbit consume grass in
A. white fur a field
B. brown fur D. A deer and a rabbit are both startled
by a hawk flying overhead.
C. long ears
D. short tail 601. The ability of an organism to survive and
reproduce in its specific environment
596. Individuals who are considered fit, have:
A. diversity.
A. Stronger genes
B. evolution
B. Fewer mutations
C. adaptation
C. More food
D. fitness
D. More offspring
602. In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh
597. Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all bone, are involved in walking. In whales,
have similar arm bones. What is the rea- the pelvis and femur shown above are
son for this?
A. examples of natural variation.
A. The function of these bones is the
B. acquired traits.
same in all animals
C. vestigial structures.
B. They live in similar environments
D. examples of fossils.
C. They have a common ancestor
D. All organisms resemble humans 603. Which is most likely the result of genetic
variation in organisms?
598. Which kingdoms have photosynthetic or-
ganisms? A. Mothers give birth to identical twins.
A. fungi and plants B. A virus wipes out an entire field of

crops.
B. fungi and protists
C. Some bacteria survive when exposed
C. protists and plants to antibiotics.
D. plants and animals D. none of above
599. Mutations that improve am individual’s 604. adaptations are traits that come from
ability to survive and reproduce are inside an animal are either learned or in-
A. harmful stinctive.
B. neutral A. structural

B. physiological B. migration
C. behavioral C. camouflage

605. Change in the gene frequencies of a pop- 610. Why do embryologist study embryos?
ulation over time A. to see if they are related
A. evolution B. to understand adaptations
B. artificial selection C. to determine the age
C. genetic equilibrium D. to learn what parents are vestigial
D. inheritance 611. Some variation must be present in a popu-
606. Which kingdoms contain only unicellular lation in order for natural selection to take
organisms? place. These variations arise from muta-
tions in the DNA and:
A. Archeaebacteria and Protista
A. sorting of chromosomes during sexual
B. Eubacteria and Protista reproduction
C. Archeaebacteria and Eubacteria B. combining of chromosomes during or-
D. Eubacteria and Fungi gan development
607. Many animals have developed courtship C. removal of chromosomes during selec-
behaviors. Males will often dance, swim, tive breeding
or sing in a particular way to attract a fe- D. changing of chromosomes during
male. Males who are more successful at cloning
the courtship behavior will have a greater
612. Who was Charles Darwin?
chance of having more offspring. This be-
havior is a result of A. A French naturalist.
A. natural selection B. The person who found the theory of
evolution.
B. genetic engineering
C. A person who was against the theory
C. asexual reproduction of evolution.
D. gene manipulation D. The captain of the H.M.S Beagle.
608. An inherited characteristic that increases 613. Father of Evolution
an organisms ability to survive and repro-
duce in its specific environment is called A. Gregor Mendel
a(n) B. Charles Darwin
A. vestigial structure C. Adam Smith
B. speciation D. Pea plants
C. analogous structure 614. Who was Jean Baptiste de Lamarck?
D. adaptation A. An English Naturalist
609. To move from one place to another at dif- B. German Physicist
ferent times of the year. C. A French Naturalist
A. hibernation D. Swedish Botanist

615. The theory of evolution states that C. Survival of the strongest

A. species that are extinct have no biolog- D. Natural selection
ical relationship to living species
620. What is the advantage of having differ-
B. different animal species always inter- ent shaped beaks?
breed to form new and different species
C. species change over time, sometimes
developing into new species B. To be able to eat the food readily avail-
able in the environment.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. the environment of Earth is constant
over time C. To protect itself against predators.
616. Why were the newts with the poison
gene able to live longer than those newts 621. The amount of living organisms that an
without the poison gene? area of land can support is called
A. the newts with the poison gene were A. climax community
not preyed upon B. sustainability
B. the newts with poison gene were able C. carrying capacity
to reproduce
D. succession
C. both claims are correct
D. neither claim is correct 622. Organisms with the most beneficial traits
will survive AND REPRODUCE. This is com-
617. The process by which populations slowly monly known as
change over time is called A. theory of evolution
A. selective breeding B. variations
B. adaptation C. survival of the fittest
C. sepeciation D. ecosystems
D. evolution
623. Brown mice survive and reproduce in
618. Think of a population of mice living on their desert environment better than
white sand. Suppose the population began white mice because owls can see and eat
with a pair of white mice, a pair of gray the white mice more easily. In this situa-
mice and a pair of black mice. After many tion, what is doing the selecting?
generations, almost all of the mice in this A. Owl
population would have fur.
B. Desert Background
A. white
C. Brown Mice
B. gray
D. White Mice
C. black
D. white and black spotted 624. Darwin began to formulate his concept of
evolution by natural selection after
619. Darwin’s theory of evolution is explained A. experimention with animals.
by the idea of
B. observations of many species of plants
A. Overproduction of young and animals while aboard the H.M.S Bea-
B. Passing on acquired traits gle.

7.3 Evidence for Evolution 783
C. reading the writings of Mendel. D. Ancestral Variation

D. a long conservation with Captain
629. Plants produce what, that animals need

Fitzroy.
to survive?
625. A group of similar organisms that can A. Oxygen
breed and produce fertile offspring.
B. Carbon Dioxide
A. Species
C. Helium
B. Fossils
D. none of above
C. Descendants
D. Evolution 630. Which phase of meiosis allows for the re-
combination of genes?
626. What does genetic variation describe? A. Crossing over during prophase 1
A. similarities in the inherited traits of dif-
B. independent assortment in anaphase
ferent individuals
2
B. similarities between species in an
C. independent assortment in anaphase
ecosystem
1
C. differences in the inherited traits of dif-
D. Crossing over during prophase 2
ferent individuals
D. differences between various species’ 631. How are sudden changes and gaps in the
mating preferences fossil record explained?
627. When individuals at only one end of a bell A. natural selection

curve of phenotype frequencies have high B. punctuated equilibrium
fitness, the result is C. acquired characteristics
D. DNA evidence
B. stabilizing selection
632. What molecular evidence do we have
that all of life is related?
D. genetic drift
A. All life on Earth stores its genetic ma-
628. Differences in members of a population terial inside the nuclei of its cells.
that can be passed from parents to off- B. All life on Earth has DNA.
spring is called:
C. All life on Earth has the same set of
A. Variation mutations in its genes.
B. Heritable Variation D. All life on Earth has the same number
C. Family Variation of DNA base pairs.
7.3 Evidence for Evolution

1. The remains or physical evidence of an or- B. Mold
ganism that has been preserved.
C. Fossil
A. Cast D. Intrusion

2. The larvae of the common sulphur but- C. vestigial structures

terfly can be light green or bright yel- D. embryology
low. Birds prey on the larvae, which are
found on the green leaves of alfalfa plants. 7. If an allele makes up one fourth of a popu-
What will this butterfly population look lation’s alleles for a given trait, its relative
like over the next generations? frequency is
A. All larvae will be green A. 100 percent.
B. All larvae will be yellow B. 75 percent.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Most larvae will be green C. 25 percent.
D. Most larvae will be yellow D. 4 percent.
3. The study of how animals, plants, and 8. A category of structures that have a simi-
other organisms have come to live where lar function, but are structurally different.
they do is
A. Homologous structures
A. comparative biochemistry
B. Analogous structures
B. comparative embryology
C. Vestigial structures
C. world geography
D. Common core structures
D. biogeography
9. Each rock layer is newer than the one be-
4. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:Which of the follow it
lowing are examples of fossils?
A. law of superposition
A. Bones encased in rock materials
B. geologic time scale
B. Cemented footprints from ancient or-
C. Permian extinction
ganisms
D. Paleozoic era
C. impressions of a leaf found in sedimen-
tary rock 10. What type of natural selection is displayed
D. Animal droppings that are several in the scenario below:If thicker-shelled
days old oysters are more resistant to breakage
than thinner-shelled oysters, crabs will be
5. Which list contains examples of vestigial less able to prey upon them, and thicker-
structures in humans? shelled oysters will be more likely to sur-
A. None of the lists contain examples of vive to reproduce.
vestigial structures in humans. A. Directional
B. Appendix, wisdom teeth, Coccyx (tail B. Disruptive
bones)
C. Stabilizing
C. Appendix, stomach, large intestine
D. Darwainian
D. Brain, neurons, spinal cord
11. How does embryology support the Theory
6. Structures that have the same function but of Evolution?
different structures are
A. It shows that they have a common an-
A. homologous structures cestor because of their similarities during
B. analogous structures early development.

B. It shows how organisms change over B. Transitional Fossil

time.
C. Fossil Fuels

C. It shows how some organisms have
similar bone structure, but different func- D. There is no fossil
tions.
D. none of above 17. Physical structures in two different organ-
isms that have structural similarity due to
12. In humans, the pelvis and femur (thigh a common ancestor
bone) are involved in walking. In whales,
the pelvis and femur
A. examples of fossils. B. analogous structures
B. acquired traits. C. vesitigial structures
C. vestigial structures. D. common structures
D. examples of natural variation.
18. Which is an example of a analogous struc-
13. Scientists have found a great deal of evi- ture?
dence that supports Darwin’s theory of
A. a bat wing and a bird wing
A. atomic structure
B. creation B. a cat arm and a human arm
C. evolution C. a human arm and a whale fin
D. relativity D. none of above
14. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and
mammals all have an internal skeleton 19. Scientist who proposed the theory of Nat-
with a ural Selection.
A. long tail A. Hardy
B. place for gills B. Weinburg
C. back bone C. Darwin
D. swim bladder
D. Einstein
15. Body parts similar are derived from a com-
mon ancestor but have different functions 20. Which of the following is not an example
are called: of evidence in support of the theory of Evo-
A. Vestigial Structures lution
B. Analogous Structures A. Comparing DNA of humans and goril-
C. Homologous Structures las
D. Common Structures B. Comparing where organisms live
16. This fossil shows the traits of an ances- C. Comparing developmental stages of
tor and its descendants. It shows links be- different organisms
tween more than one species. D. Comparing fossils of different organ-
A. Fossil isms

21. Which statement is in agreement with Dar- 25. Which IS NOT used as evidence for evolu-
win’s theory of evolution? tion?
A. More offspring are produced than can A. Fossils
possibly survive. B. Natural Selection
B. The organisms that are the fittest are C. Early Development/Embryos
always largest and strongest.
D. Body Structure/Anatomy
C. The number of offspring is not related
E. DNA/Proteins
NARAYAN CHANGDER
to fitness.
D. Acquired characteristics that are in- 26. An organism’s is its basic body plan.
herited are the cause of evolution. A. Anatomy
22. Common ancestry relates to evolution be- B. DNA

cause C. Analogy
A. evolution only happens when there are D. Homology
common ancestors.
27. Rich beds of marine fossils have been
B. Common ancestors make evolution found in Florida. By dating these fossils,
happen more quickly. scientists can best determine
C. evolution can never take place with A. when Florida collided with the North
common ancestors. American continent.
D. the more two organisms have in com- B. the date when organisms moved onto
mon, the more recent is their common an- dry land.
cestor during their evolution.
C. the period during which Florida was
23. Fossils, similar body shape, and similar covered in water.
DNA are all evidence that evolution has D. when the atmosphere of Earth was
taken place on our planet. What of the more humid than it is today.
following would be another piece of evi-
dence? 28. Structures that are very different in struc-
ture or anatomy but have similar functions
A. Similarities in hair color such as the wings of a bird and a butterfly.
B. Similar interests Do not show common ancestry.
C. Similarities in embryonic development A. Vestigial Structures
D. Similar hunting patterns B. Homologous Structures

C. Analogous Structures
D. Cladogram
tion evidence deals with comparing similar
structures in various species? 29. An example of a vestigial structure is the
A. fossil record A. kangaroo pouch
B. comparing embryology B. human tail bone
C. comparing biochemistry C. cat forelimb
D. comparing anatomy D. none of above

30. Biogeography is: 35. A change in the inherited characteristics of

A. the movement of organisms across an organism over time is

continents A. evolution.
B. the geographical distribution of B. development.
species C. growth.
C. the study of land mass movement D. ancestry.
D. the study of geography
36. How do fossils support evolution?
31. Click on ALL examples of a vestigial struc- A. The fossil record provides evidence
ture? that organisms have changed over time.
A. A whale’s pelvis and femur. B. Individual species disappear and reap-
B. A snake’s hind legs. pear in the fossil record over time.
C. A human’s nose. C. Organisms in the fossil record are
identical to living organisms.
D. A human’s appendix.
D. The fossil record provides evidence
E. A human’s wisdom teeth. that all organisms developed at the same
time.
32. The independent evolution of similar fea-
tures in different lineages of species is 37. More than 1.5 million species of animals
called have been described, yet scientists believe
A. divergent evolution that all animals evolved from a single,
common ancestor. Which of the following
B. convenient evolution
provides the best evidence for this conclu-
C. convergent evolution sion?
D. deviation evolution A. Animals share similar fossils.
33. What situation might develop in a popu- B. Animals share similar behaviors.
lation having some plants whose flowers C. Animals share similar appearances.
open at midday and other plants whose D. Animals share similar DNA sequences.
flowers open late in the day?
A. behavioral isolation 38. When you compare DNA or proteins to sup-
port evolution, you are using what kind of
B. temporal isolation evidence?
C. geographic isolation A. anatomical evidence
D. genetic drift B. molecular evidence
34. Scientists compare the similarities in C. fossil evidence
molecules of different species to infer how D. none of above
closely related the species are.
39. Which is an example of structural evidence
A. water
for evolution?
B. carbon A. DNA similarities.
C. DNA B. finding similarities in the limbs of hu-
D. oxygen mans, bats and whales.

C. Looking at undeveloped organisms for B. homologous structure

similar traits. C. vestigial structure
D. fossils of extinct animals. D. none of above
40. Which phrase best defines evolution by 45. The study of organisms at their earliest
natural selection? stage of life
A. an adaptation of a species to its envi- A. embryology
ronment
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. DNA
B. a sudden replacement of one popula-
tion by another C. the fossil record
C. changes in a species as it becomes D. vestigial structures

more perfect 46. Recently, scientists have been able to use
D. a process of change in species over to find common proteins and amino
time acids to determine how closely related
species are.
41. What characteristics of Tiktaalik make it a
tetrapod? Select all that apply. A. DNA
A. Eyes on the top of head B. Vestigial structures

C. Fossils
B. Flat head
D. Homologous structures
C. Hip bones
D. A neck 47. Evolution is called a theory because
E. Tetrapod-like ribs A. we are not sure if it is true
B. there’s not enough evidence yet
42. The millions of fossils that scientists have
collected are called the fossil C. scientific theories are supported by a
large amount of evidence
A. record
D. none of these is true
B. database
C. archive 48. Structures that have common evolutionary
origins, provide evidence for common an-
D. library
cestor.
43. same structure in different species indicat- A. Species
ing a common ancestor
B. Vestigial Structures
C. Population
D. Homologous Structures
C. analogous structures
49. Which of the following statements pro-
D. DNA vides the best scientific evidence that chim-
44. This kind of structure are body parts that panzees and rhesus monkeys come from a
have no function now and are now the re- common ancestor?
mains from an ancestor. A. They live in similar habitats.
A. analogous structure B. They exhibit similar behaviors.

C. They have similar nutritional needs. C. random chance.

D. They have similar genetic sequences. D. genetic equilibrium.

50. Peter and Rosemary Grant 55. The fossil record shows thata. mb. c.
A. spent more than 30 years studying Dar- A. most organisms that ever lived on
win’s tortoises Earth are now extinct.
B. fossils occur in a particular order.
B. studied the migration of the camel
C. modern organisms have unicellular an-
C. actually observed evolution by natural
cestors.
selection taking place
D. all of the above
D. none of above
56. Scientist find dinosaur fossils in the bot-
51. Which of the following pieces of evolution tom of a cliff and mammals fossils in the
evidence deals with similar molecules in re- middle layer, what can be inferred?
lated individual species?
A. dinosaurs ate plants
A. fossil record B. dinosaurs were eaten by the mammals
B. comparative embryology C. they lived at the same time
C. DNA / Chromosome comparison D. dinosaurs lived before the mammals
D. comparative anatomy 57. The biochemical analysis of different
52. On a geologic timeline, where are the old- plants would be most useful in determin-
est dates found? ing
A. at the top of a vertical timeline and the A. how plants reproduce asexually
right side of a horizontal timeline B. how plants pass favorable traits to
their offspring
B. at the top of a hortizontal timeline and
the bottom of a vertical timeline C. why some plants produce hemoglobin
C. at the bottom of a vertical timeline and D. which plants may have a common an-
the left side of a horizontal timeline cestor
D. none of above 58. Scientists infer evolutionary relationships

by comparing the early development of dif-
53. The ability of an individual organism to sur- ferent
vive and reproduce in tis natural environ-
A. dinosaurs
ment is called
B. backbones
C. proteins
B. fitness
D. organisms
C. evolution
59. What is a vestigial structure?
D. adaptation
A. A structure that is no longer useful
54. In genetic drift, allele frequencies change B. Part of an animal that maintains home-
because ofA ostasis
A. mutations. C. A very important organ in mammals
B. natural selection. D. Genetically modified organisms

60. How does embryology support the Evolu- very dark-colored oysters might be more
tion of species over time? frequently preyed upon by shore birds,
A. It shows that they have a common an- simply because they are more obvious on
cestor because of their similarities earlier the oyster bar; as a result, the intermedi-
on in development. ate hues become more common.
B. It shows that they lived in the same en- A. Directional

vironment. B. Disruptive
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. It does not give evidence for the evo- C. Stabilizing
lution of species. D. Darwainian
D. none of above
65. What do fossils provide evidence for?
61. Which of the following is NOT considered A. the history of life in the geologic past
evidence for evolution?
B. why species became extinct in the past
C. developmental patterns of living or-
B. Vestigial Structures ganisms
C. Genetic comparisons D. the genetic similarities between living
D. Photosynthetic algae and extinct organisms
62. Alex is studying leg bone fossils of an ex- 66. The process by which organisms change
tinct species to see if the extinct organ- over time as a result of changes in herita-
ism could be an ancestor of a certain liv- ble physical or behavioral traits is known
ing species. Which of the following types as
of evidence could he obtain from studying A. the germ theory
fossils?
B. the theory of plate tectonics
A. genetic evidence
C. the big bang theory
B. embryological evidence
D. the theory of evolution by natural se-
C. structural evidence lection
D. developmental evidence
67. The number of phenotypes produced for a
63. Sharks and dolphins both have the abil- given trait depends upon
ity to breath, however, the structures A. the number of genes that control the
involved are quite different. Sharks trait.
breath through their gills and dolphins
breath through their blow holes. What B. which form of the trait is dominant.
terms/phrase best describes this? C. the relative frequencies of the various
A. they are analogous structures alleles.
B. they are homologous structures D. the relationship of allele frequencies
to Mendelian ratios.
C. they are incomplete structures
D. they are homologous anomalys. 68. In science, any alteration in the structure
or function of an organism or any of its
64. What type of natural selection is displayed parts that results from natural selection
in the scenario below:very light-colored or and by which the organism becomes better

able to survive and multiply in its environ- A. fossil record

ment is called an B. comparing embryology

A. mutation C. comparing biochemistry
B. adaptation D. comparing anatomy
C. advantage
74. Which of these descriptions is an example
D. evolution
of an unused body structure?
69. The distribution of species over space and A. a bat’s wing that enables it to fly
time
B. the tiny leg bones found in snakes that
A. Embryology have no legs
B. Fossil Record C. the front legs of a dog that supports its
C. bioGeography weight as it walks and runs
D. Anatomy D. the tentacles of an octopus that aid it
in movement and catching prey
70. Which of these descriptions is an example
of an vestigial body structure? 75. The two main sources of genetic variation
are
A. a bat’s wing that enables it to fly
A. genotypes and phenotypes.
B. the tiny leg bones found in snakes that
have no legs B. gene shuffling and mutations.
C. the front legs of a dog that supports its C. single-gene traits and polygenic traits.
weight as it walks and runs D. directional selection and disruptive se-
D. the tentacles of an octopus that aid it lection.
in movement and catching prey
76. Group of organisms all of the same species,
71. On which islands did Darwin observe the living in the same place at the same time.
finches with different beaks? A. gene pool
A. Canary Islands B. population
B. Hawaiian Islands C. species
C. Galapogos Islands D. evolution
D. Aleutian Islands
77. A scientist should look at one of the fol-
72. Scientist theorize that oxygen buildup in lowing to determine whether or not there
the atmosphere resulted from is a common ancestor
A. respiration A. how organisms migrated
B. photosynthesis B. how the organism reproduces
C. chemosynthesis C. what the organism eats
D. rock weathering D. the larval form of the organism
73. Which of the following pieces of evolution 78. When vertebrates are in the early stages
evidence contain both homologous and ves- of development (an embryo) they all pos-
tigial structures? sess

A. gill slits and tails A. The trees caused mutations in the in-
B. backbone and hands sects
C. hands and feet B. Natural selection played a role in this

protective coloration
D. tongue and mouth
C. The insect camouflage so they devel-
79. Which scientist gets credit for developing oped this coloration
the theory of natural selection
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Charles Darwin
B. Gregor Mendel 84. What were Earth’s first living organisms?
C. Benjamin Franklin A. Photosynthetic eukaryotes
D. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck B. Photosynthetic prokaryotes
80. Evolution occurring quickly due to catas- C. Anaerobic prokaryotes
trophic events after long periods of stasis.
D. Anaerobic eukaryotes
A. Homeostasis
B. Gradualism 85. Which type of structures are anatomical
features that are fully developed in one
C. Statsis
group of organisms, but are reduced and
D. Punctuated Equilibrium functionless in other similar groups
81. The diagram above shows an embryo of A. Homologous structures
different vertebrates at different stages
B. Analogous structures
of development. Which field of study
would support the similarities in develop- C. Vestigial structures
ment as evidence for evolution? D. Transitional structures
A. Geology
B. Meteorology 86. The appendix, tailbone, and wisdom teeth
are all examples of what type of structure
C. Embryology in humans?
D. Physiology
A. Homologous
82. Average beak size in flamingos is a favor- B. Analogous
able trait over thin or thick beaks. This is
an example of C. Vestigial
A. directional selection D. Modern
87. Scientists infer that species with similar
C. disruptive selection body structures and development patterns
D. none of above had a common
83. Certain insects resemble (look like) the A. environment

bark of the trees on which they live. B. predator
Which statement provides the best expla-
C. ancestor
nation for this resemblance? (Peppered
Moths) D. gene

88. What does Darwin’s theory of evolution 93. Sharks & dolphins have the ability to
suggest? breath but the structures involved are
quite different

A. species change over time
B. extinct species are not related to living A. because they are incomplete struc-
species tures.
C. different species can interbreed B. because of descent with modification.
D. animals that look alike are most C. because they are vistigial structures.
closely related D. because they are analogous struc-
tures.
89. Which evidence of evolution would explain
the similarities of these species that live in 94. Bird and butterfly wings have the same
different areas of the world? functions but different structures. What
A. Molecular Evidence type of evolutionary evidence is this?
B. Embryological Evidence A. Analogous structures
C. Geographical Distribution B. Embryological development
D. Fossil Record C. Genetic comparisons

90. Studying the similarities in organisms de-
velopment (inside eggs or wombs, etc) 95. Giraffes with average length necks have
A. DNA higher fitness than giraffes with long or
short necks. This is an example of
B. Embryonic
C. Vestigial
D. Homologous
91. Similar structures that related species D. none of above
have inherited from a common ancestor
are called structures. 96. What characteristics of Tiktaalik are fish-
A. synonamous like? Select all that apply.
B. Analogous A. Fins
C. Homozygous B. Gills
D. homologous C. Scales
D. Swim bladder to float
92. When farmers select animals or plants to
use for breeding, they look for 97. Biogeography shows that all camels
A. species that are perfect and unchang- A. came from ancestors that lived in
ing. North Africa
B. homologous structures B. came from ancestors that lived in
C. characteristics acquired during the North America
lifetime of the organism. C. came from ancestors that lived in
D. natural variations that are useful or North Egypt
beneficial. D. evolved from the llama

98. This kind of structure is when the struc- 103. The principle of common descent helps ex-
tures have the same function but have a plain why
different structure. It shows adaptation A. well-adapted species have many off-
not evolution. spring.
A. analogous structure B. conditions in an organism’s environ-
B. homologous structure ment ensures the organism’s survival.
C. vestigial structure C. birds and reptiles share a number of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
inherited characteristics.
D. none of above
D. tigers are so different from cheetahs.
99. show clear changes in an organism
over time, the environment organisms 104. Scientists compare organisms’ DNA to
lived in, the time period the organism lived support the theory that all species share
in, and where the organism lived. a common
A. DNA A. separation
B. Vestigial structures B. ancestor
C. Fossils C. population
D. Homologous structures D. environment
105. Structures that no longer serve a pur-

100. A change in a sequence of DNA is called a
pose.
A. recombination
B. single-gene trait.
B. gene pool
C. polygenic trait
C. population
D. mutation.
D. Vestigial structures
101. In most cases, evidence from DNA and 106. Which evidence show patterns of change
has confirmed conclusions about evolution- in organisms from early life to modern
ary relationships based on fossils, em- life?
bryos, and body structure.
A. Eye witnesses
B. protein structure
C. fossils
C. fingerprints
D. proteins
D. history books
107. Fossils typically provide evidence for evo-
102. Which of the following is an example of lution because
homologous features?
A. they are millions of years old.
A. Wings in insects and birds
B. they exist in all types of rocks.
B. The appendix in humans and horses
C. they supply good samples of RNA.
C. Fins in fish and wings in birds
D. They show patterns of biological
D. The striped coat of a zebra and tiger change.

108. The most recent ancestral form or species 113. Which of the following pairs of structures
from which two different species evolved is least likely to represent homology?
is known as

A. The wings of a bat and the arms of a
A. a common ancestor. human
B. an embryonic stage. B. The mitochondria of a plant and those
C. development. of an animal
D. evolution. C. The hemoglobin of a baboon and that

of a gorilla
109. The observation that the bone struc- D. The wings of a bird and those of an in-
ture found in the flippers of dolphins and sect
whales is similar to that found in a hu-
man hand is evidence of a common ances- 114. Island biogeography
try based on: A. provides information on the migration
A. Analogous structures and evolution of the camel
B. Vestigial structures B. provides information on the migration
and evolution of the finch
C. Transitional structures
C. provides information on the migration
and evolution of the ape
110. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:Which of the fol- D. none of above
lowing are sources of evidence that evolu-
tion is true? 115. New species can form when a population
are
A. Fossil Evidence
A. isolated and adapt
B. Anatomical Evidence ( anatomy)
B. fed by humans
C. Biochemical Evidence ( DNA)
C. exposed to more sunlight
D. Water Composition Evidence
D. fed different food
111. You know an organism is a species when
116. Mutations within a DNA sequence are
A. They can fuse their gametes A. natural processes that produce ge-
netic diversity
B. They can fuse their gametes and pro-
duce fertile offspring B. natural processes that always affect
the phenotype
C. When they look alike
C. unnatural processes that always af-
D. When they survive
fect the phenotype
112. The strongest evidence for evolution D. unnatural processes that are harmful
from a common ancestor is to genetic diversity
A. similar DNA sequences 117. What is is the study of how and why
B. similar body structures plants and animals live where they do?
C. similar embryological structures A. Evolution
D. similar fossils B. Adaptive Radiation

C. Biogeography differed in a specific protein. This is a form

D. Biogeology of
A. Evidence from biochemistry
118. Which is true of prokaryotic and eukary-
B. Analogous structure
otic cells?
C. Fossil record evidence
A. Prokaryotic cells are larger than eu-
karyotic cells. D. Evidence from vestigial structures
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and
prokaryotic cells do have nuclei. tion evidence deals with aged and identi-
fied fossils?
C. Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-
bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells A. fossil record
contain membrane-bound organelles. B. comparative embryology
D. Eukaryotic cells are simpler than C. comparative biochemistry
prokaryotic cells. D. comparative anatomy
119. are features present in modern organ- 124. Which is not evidence for evolution?
isms which are no longer in use.
A. many animals have homologous struc-
A. DNA tures due to common ancestry
B. Vestigial structures B. Many animals have vestigial struc-
C. Fossils tures from an ancestor
C. We can observe changes in life forms
by observing the fossil record
120. Which of the following is true about D. All of these are evidence for evolution
horse evolution? (1) Early horses were
about the size of a fox. (2) Early horses 125. Honey badgers with shorter claws have
had toes. (3) During evolution, their mo- higher fitness than honey badgers with av-
lars became covered with cement erage and long claws. This is an example
of
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3 C. disruptive selection
D. 1, 2, and 3 D. none of above
121. Which of these best represents a time pe- 126. Is species A an B have very similar genes
riod in which an organism could evolve? and proteins, what is probably ture?
A. 5 days A. Species A & B do not share a common
B. 100 years ancestor
B. Species A is younger than species B
C. 10, 000 years
C. Species A & B share a common ances-
D. 2 decades
tor
122. Scientists tested a bat, a dog, a snake, D. Species A evolved independently of
and a human to see how their amino acids species B for a long period

127. Which best describes the fossil record? B. to derive evolutionary relationships
A. The fossil record cannot provide evi- C. to learn how fossils are formed

dence of evolution. D. to learn more about how these extinct
B. The fossil record provides evidence of organisms reproduced
a common ancestor to many species.
132. Which word is defined as the same struc-
C. The fossil record provides evidence ture in different species indicating a com-
that disputes the theory of evolution. mon ancestor?
D. The fossil record is inaccurate be- A. homologous structures
cause scientists are not able to date fos-
sils. B. vestigial structures
C. analogous structures
128. If modern organisms have a lot of ho-
mologous structures, what inference might D. DNA
paleontologists make about those organ- 133. Tiktaalik is an important because it
isms? shows how fish evolved into tetrapods.
A. They are reptiles A. theory
B. One organism evolved from the other. B. consumer
C. The organisms have a common ances- C. transition fossil
tor
D. omnivore
D. none of above
134. What is a structure that is similar across
129. In organisms that reproduce sexually, in- species?
herited variation is due mostly to
A. vestigial
A. mutations during gamete formation.
B. homologous
B. polygenic traits.
C. adaptaion
C. gene shuffling during gamete forma-
D. variation
tion.
D. the effects of radiation. 135. Why has antibiotic resistance evolved in
bacteria?
130. What is the fossil record?
A. Bacteria reproduce quickly
A. Are the remains or evidence of once-
B. Bacteria with a resistant to the antibi-
living organisms
otic passed that trait to offspring
B. Is the change over time in populations C. Bacteria that are resistant reproduce
of related organisms faster than non resistant strains
C. Is made up of all the fossils ever dis- D. Bacteria exposed to antibiotics de-
covered on Earth velop a resistance to them
D. Occurs when the last individual organ-
ism of a species dies 136. Which of these statements is most likely
true of two species that share a recent
131. Why do scientists look for fossils? common ancestor?
A. to calculate how radioactive fossils A. The two species have different devel-
are opmental patterns.

B. The two species share DNA se- C. The environment in which a species
quences. lives changes
C. The two species have similar arms and D. the population increases
legs.
142. Which of these answers best describes a
D. The ancestors of each species looked fossil?
very different.
A. thick layers of rock
137. Examples of analogous structures are B. organism from which other organisms
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. the tails of mice and rats are descended
B. the limbs of humans and apes C. body of an organism that died recently
but has not decomposed
C. the wings of bats and birds
D. remains of a once-living organism
D. none of above
found in layers of rock, ice, or amber
138. Comparisons of amino acid sequences be-
143. Which would be an example of a homolo-
tween different organisms reveal evolu-
gous structure?
tionary relationships
A. a bird wing and a bat wing
A. DNA evidence
B. a cat arm and a whale fin
B. Anatomical evidence
C. a dolphin fin and whale fin
C. Fossil evidence
D. a bird wing and a butterfly wing
D. evolution
144. The opossum and kangaroo both incubate
139. This kind of structure is when the bones their young in a pouch. This provides evi-
have similar form but are used for differ- dence that they
ent functions.
A. are descended from a common ances-
A. analogous structure tor
B. homologous structure B. Have very similar skeletal structures
C. vestigial structure C. belong to the same species
D. none of above D. must range great distances to eat
140. Changes in species that allow that 145. The founder of modern evolution theory
species to survive changes in the environ- is considered to be
ment are called:
A. Charles Darwin
A. ecosystems
B. Gregor Mendel
B. adaptations
C. Charles Lyell
C. biomes
D. Alec Jefferies
D. alleles
146. The fossil record help scientists
141. For evolution to happen, this has to occur A. better understand the kinds of organ-
first: isms that lived in the past
A. an organism finds a new mate B. better understand how the environ-
B. and organism’s DNA changes ment has changed over time

7.4 Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Mechanisms of Evolution 799
C. better understand how organisms A. Homologous structure

have evolved over time B. Analogous structure

D. all of the above
C. Vestigial structure
147. This is any alteration in a structure of a D. Standard structure
function that allows an organism to be bet-
ter suited for its environment. 151. What are the most important characteris-
A. vestigial structures tics of analogous structures?
B. adaptation A. Structures that perform the same func-
tion
C. embryo
D. species B. Structurally different
C. Structurally the same
148. What are fossils?
D. Structures that perform different func-
A. Are the remains or evidence of once-
tions
living organisms
B. Is the change over time in populations 152. About 225 million years ago, all of the
of related organisms continents were part of one huge landmass
C. A chart that divides Earth’s history into called
different time units A. Pacific
D. Occurs when the last individual organ- B. Pythagoras
ism of a species dies
C. Pangaea
149. Common ancestry is shown
D. Pandora
A. If bones are similar
B. if body systems are similar 153. Dolphins have the same arm structure as
wolfs, what type of evidence for evolution
C. If embryonic stages in the beginning does this represent?
are similar
A. DNA
D. All of these
150. A type of structure that is physically
present, but does not seem to serve a sig- C. homologous structures
nificant function for an organism. D. embryology
7.4 Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Mechanisms of Evolu-

tion
1. Yellow toucan birds seek out each other to D. Mutation
make babies together and tend to avoid
green toucan birds. 2. Mutations are
A. Genetic Drift A. Harmful
B. Non-random mating B. Harmful or beneficial
C. Gene flow C. Neutral

D. Harmful, neutral, or beneficial B. Mutation

C. Genetic Drift
3. What is the name of the process in which
the most favorable traits are passed onto D. Gene Flow
the next generation?
8. Plant biologists estimate that of living
A. Genetic drift plant species are descendants of ancestors
B. Gene pool that formed by polyploid speciation.
C. Gene flow A. less than 10
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. 20%
C. 50%
4. Charles Darwin noted that finch beak sizes
D. 80%
and shapes were all adapted for their spe-
cific type of food. Those individuals with 9. If the temperature of the water icefish live
the right shaped beak to reach the food in were to increase, then
would survive and pass that beak shape A. The frequency of the antifreeze gene
to its offspring. This an example of.. would increase.
A. natural selection B. The frequency of the antifreeze gene
B. bottleneck effect would decrease.
C. founder effect C. The frequency of the antifreeze gene
would fluctuate.
D. gene flow
D. none of above
5. What must members of the same popula-
tion be able to do? 10. Who is the father of evolution?
A. Darwin
A. Reproduce with each other
B. Mendel
B. Fight each other
C. Newton
C. They must look the same
D. Einstein
D. They must act the same
11. Gene flow involves
6. You sequence the genes that code for an
A. Natural disasters killing most of the
important glycolytic enzyme in a moth, a
members of a population
mushroom, a worm, and an alga and find a
high degree of sequence similarity among B. Individuals moving into and out of the
these distantly related species. This is an population
example of: C. Selective mating
A. genetic homology D. Small changes because of the environ-
B. developmental homology ment
C. structural homology 12. A hawk captures a black mouse in a desert,

and leaves a tan mouse behind. The tan
D. analogy/convergent evolution
mouse gets to mate have have babies,
7. A hawk captures a black mouse in a desert, passing on it’s genes.
and leaves a tan mouse behind A. Natural Selection
A. Natural Selection B. Mutation

C. Genetic Drift 17. An allele combination (BB, Bb, or bb) is

D. Gene Flow called a

A. phenotype
E. Sexual Selection
B. genotype
13. UV radiation causes a change in the DNA C. mutation
bases of a person’s gametes. The person
goes on to have several children. D. gene flow
A. Natural Selection 18. What is Mrs. Motycka’s favorite color?

B. Mutation A. Gray
C. Genetic Drift B. Black

C. Violet
D. Gene Flow
D. Turquoise
14. A type of isolation in which two popula-
tions become separated by a physical bar- 19. Bonus:When a population is in Hardy-
rier such as a canyon, river, lake, prevent- Weinberg Equilibrium. What is not happen-
ing the two populations from interbreeding to the species?
ing. A. Survival
A. Geographic isolation B. Reproduction
B. Behavioral isolation C. Death
C. Temporal isolation D. Evolution
D. none of above 20. Layered fossils create a historical se-

quence (timeline) is known as
15. A measure of an individuals hereditary A. natural selection
contribution to the next generation
B. fossil record
A. evolution
C. evolution
D. extinction
C. adaption
21. Which of the following can cause evolution
D. fitness to occur?
16. The central idea of biological evolution A. Natural selection and mutation
is that (two correct answers select them B. Gene flow and genetic drift
both).
C. Non-random mating / sexual selection
A. mountain ranges rise and erode D. All of the above
B. all life on Earth shares a common an-
22. Which animal part would most likely form
cestor, just as you and your cousins share
a fossil?
a common grandmother.
A. fur
C. trees lose their leaves
B. bone
D. Evolution means that we’re all distant
cousins:humans and oak trees, humming- C. lung
birds and whales. D. muscle

23. What is the name of the process in which to branch and larger rats would break the
the most advantageous traits are passed branches and fall. Soon, all rats were just
onto the next generation? the right size for the tree branches.
A. Genetic drift A. Natural Selection
B. Artificial selection B. Mutation
C. Gene flow C. Gene Flow
D. Natural selection D. Genetic Drift
NARAYAN CHANGDER
24. When a population’s size is reduced for at 29. When would convergent evolution occur?
least one generation. A. when organisms share a common an-
A. gene flow cestor
B. founder effect B. when organisms become increasingly
different
C. when organisms live in similar environ-
D. mutation
ments
25. The process by which organisms change D. when organisms experience a change
over time is: in their environment
A. Diversity
30. T7. In a population of humans, the fre-
B. Descent quency of no dimples is 0.36. If having no
C. Evolution dimples is the recessive phenotype, what
is the frequency of the recessive allele?
D. Unity
A. 0.6
26. Many species of plant can self-pollinate.
B. 0.36
This is an example of:
C. 0.64
A. Gene flow
D. 0.18
B. Random mating
C. Non-random mating 31. A change in the genetic composition of a
population as a result of descending from
D. Genetic drift
a small number of colonizing individuals is
27. Happens only in small populations, and is called:
the change in the frequency of a gene vari- A. founder effect
ant (allele) in a population due to random B. bottleneck
sampling of organisms.
C. genetic drift
A. Extinction
D. gene flow
B. Genetic Drift
C. Bottleneck Effect 32. Camouflage allows many species to blend
in to their environment. Those individuals
D. Founder Effect with the best camouflage are not eaten by
28. A species of rats lives in a certain type predators as often as those with poorer
of tree with the branches evenly spaced. camouflage.
Smaller rats could not reach from branch A. Natural selection

B. Genetic bottleneck 38. Gentoo penguins will present a mate with

C. Founder effect a pebble that they find to attract a mate.
Emperor penguins have a specific call and

D. none of above movement that they make to attract a
mate. Which type of isolation do these
33. The chemical foundation of an organism
penguins demonstrate?
that determines what it is like:
A. temporal isolation
A. Homology
B. behavioral isolation
B. Evolution
C. geographical isolation
C. Modification
D. anatomical isolation
D. DNA
39. Individuals with favorable traits survive,
34. A hurricane wipes out half the population reproduce, and pass their traits onto their
of blue jays in Cape Hatteras, North Car- offspring. This is called
olina.
A. Mutation
B. Adaptation
B. Mutation
C. Evolution
C. Genetic Drift
D. Gene Flow
40. The emergence of new rivers or streams is
35. Does natural selection act directly on geno- a type of isolation.
type, phenotype, both, or neither of the
A. Temporal
two?
B. Mechanical
A. Genotype
C. Behavioral
B. Phenotype
D. Geographic
C. Both
D. Neither 41. The American toad mates in the early part
of the summer, while the Fowler’s toad
36. any change in the allelic frequencies in a mates later in the season. What type of
population due to change isolation is this an example of?
A. Genetic Drift A. Behavioral
B. Founder Effect B. Geographic
C. Gene Flow C. Temporal
D. Bottleneck D. Preferential
37. Super-bugs are that are immune to 42. In the Great Lakes region of North Amer-
multiple ? ica, gray wolves and coyotes are simi-
lar species but do not mate because their
A. fungi, viruses
breeding periods occur at different times
B. bacteria, antibiotics of the year.
C. antibiotics, bacteria A. Geographic isolation
D. viruses, antibiotics. B. Behavioral isolation

C. Temporal isolation 47. Immigration is a type of gene flow where

organisms
D. none of above
A. leave a population
43. One species splitting into two species is B. experience stasis
called
C. enter a population
A. Mass extinction
D. don’t move at all
B. Speciation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
48. When a whale migrates from one pod to
C. Sexual Selection another pod, alleles in each gene pool be-
D. Convergent evolution come more similar to each other.
A. Genetic Drift (Shrinkage)
44. In 2013, Typhoon Haiyan is estimated to
have killed over 500 water buffalo in the B. Mutation
Philippines. Water buffalo are used in the C. Gene Flow
Philippines to plow crops. Many of the
water buffalo that perished were concen-
trated near farms. These animals are more 49. Organisms better adapted to their environ-
muscular than buffalo allowed to roam ment tend to survive and produce more off-
free. spring. Their genetic profile becomes more
A. Natural selection common in the population over time.
B. Bottleneck Effect A. Natural selection

B. Genetic bottleneck
C. Founder Effect
C. Founder effect
D. none of above
D. none of above
45. This is a continuous process in which organ-
isms with traits that make them better- 50. Male giraffes have intense fights with
adapted to their environment are more their necks to win the right to mate.
likely to survive and reproduce than organ- A. Mutation
isms without such adaptations B. Natural Selection
A. Directional selection C. Sexual Selection
B. Microevolution D. Genetic Drift
C. Gene flow / genetic drift E. Gene Flow
D. Natural selection 51. Recall that sickle-cell is recessive. Who
has an advantage where there is no
46. Genetic Drift, unlike natural selection, is malaria? Homozygous dominant, het-
all up to erozygous, or homozygous recessive?
A. camouflage. A. Homozygous dominant
B. chance. B. Heterozygous
C. fitness. C. Homozygous recessive
D. evolution D. None of the above

52. Males of the bighorn sheep species fight C. Genetic Drift

one another to show females who is the D. Gene Flow
dominant male and are more likely to mate

with females. 57. The study of the earliest stages of devel-
A. Natural Selection opment for an organism:
B. Mutation A. Geography
B. Cardiology
C. Genetic Drift
C. Embryology
D. Non-Random Mating
D. Immunology
53. Which type of dating method can be used
on rock layers by applying the Law of Su- 58. A few deer wander out of their native
perposition? woods into a completely new park where
no deer had ever been before. They go on
A. relative dating to create an entirely new population. This
B. absolute dating is an example of
C. radioactive dating A. Genetic Drift
D. radiometric dating B. Natural Selection
C. Sexual Selection
54. Studies of icefish evolution led to which of
the following? D. Mutation
A. The discovery of antifreeze in the 59. When a population is small
blood
A. typically not sufficient in variation
B. The discovery of functional blood with-
B. mating happens more frequently to
out red blood cells
make up for the size
C. Advances in research about anemia
C. the organisms are closer and contract
and osteoporosis
more diseases
D. All of the above D. none of above
55. a peacock with vibrant feathers is an ex- 60. Natural selection results in change over
ample of what? time by acting on traits that are
A. Gene flow A. heritable
B. Mutations B. new
C. The bottleneck effect C. mutated
D. Sexual selection D. better than the best
56. Table wolves from Arizona were trans- 61. An organism has the following character-
ferred to the Colorado Rocky Mountains istics:1. Heterotrophic2. Single-celled3.
after a wildfire destroyed their habitat. Motile4. Prokaryotic5. Lives in regular
They quickly became part of the local pack environmentsWhich Kingdom does this or-
and had offspring. ganisms fall under
A. Mutation A. Animalia
B. Natural Selection B. Plantae

C. Eubacteria C. mutation
D. Fungi D. asexual reproduction
62. A population is best described as 67. What do we call a change in the genome
A. When a new species is made from an over time?
existing species A. Evolution
B. A group of individuals in the same B. Adaptation
species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Extinction
C. Mating D. Environmental influences
D. Ability of an organism to have children
68. Selection that results in the intermediate
63. What does the Hardy-Weinberg equilib- version of the trait being favored.
rium measure? A. stabilizing selection
A. changes in allele frequencies B. directional selection
B. numbers of mutations C. disruptive selection
C. goodness of fit D. none of above
D. genetic diversity
69. During gestation (pregnancy), a develop-
64. Albert’s squirrel and the Kaibab squirrel ing male pig had a change in his genetic
are distinct subspecies that live on oppo- code. The result was that he was able to
site sides of the Grand Canyon. They were walk and do karate.
once one species, but now differ signifi- A. Genetic Drift
cantly, including fur coloring.
B. Non-random mating
C. Mutation
B. Behavioral isolation
C. Temporal isolation
D. none of above 70. a number of different species arise from
one common ancestor
65. What are the 4 mechanisms of evolution? A. speciation
A. 1. Natural selection 2. adaptations 3. B. divergent evolution
mutation 4. mating
C. gradualism
B. 1. Natural selection 2. gene flow 3. ge-
netic drift 4. mating D. convergent evolution
C. 1. Gene flow 2. genetic drift 3. muta- E. coevolution

tions 4. mating 71. Which are causes of speciation? Choose all
D. 1. Natural Selection 2. Gene flow 3. that apply
genetic drift 4. mutations A. Isolation caused by mountains, rivers
66. Which process would have the least influ- and man-made structures
ence on the rate of evolutionary change? B. change in timing of mating
A. sexual reproduction C. change in environment
B. meiosis D. different mating behaviors

72. Which of these cause a variety in a 77. Evolution results in disruption of-
species?
A. genetic isolation

A. limiting factors
B. genetic equilibrium
B. variety of food sources
C. the fossil record
D. sexual reproduction D. punctuated equilibrium
73. The type of genetic drift that follows the 78. A random change in DNA makes a bird yel-
colonization of a new habitat by a small low instead of red. He still mates and has
group of individuals is called offspring, some of whom share the yellow
A. the Hardy-Weinberg principle trait.
B. the founder effect A. Mutation
C. directional selection B. Natural Selection
D. the bottleneck effect C. Sexual Selection
74. When species evolve into another species; D. Genetic Drift
occurs.
E. Gene Flow
A. speciation
B. mutation 79. After experiencing genetic drift the gene
C. extinction pool and genetic diversity of a population
D. natural selection A. increases
75. Although their large and elaborate tail B. decreases

feathers make male peacocks more con- C. stays the same
spicuous to predators and hinder their abil-
ity to fly, female peacocks prefer bright D. none of above
colored tails in mates. What is this an ex-
80. One species of flower blooms in the spring,
ample of?
the other in the fall. They can not inter-
A. Sexual Selection breed bc..
B. Gene Flow
A. Behavioral isolation
C. Genetic Drift
B. Temporal isolation
D. No Mutations
C. Mechanical isolation
76. Select ALL of the following that violate the
Hardy-Weinberg assumptions and would D. Hybrid sterility
lead to a change in allele frequencies in a
population. 81. Selection that results in the both extreme
versions of the trait being favored.
A. stabilizing selection
B. large population
C. no mutations B. directional selection
D. nonrandom mating C. disruptive selection
E. no migration D. none of above

82. This scientist that created life-like proteins C. Land

from amino acids D. Evolution
A. Sidney Fox
87. A chemical spill causes the offspring of la-
B. Miller Urey dybugs to have blue dots instead of black
C. Charles Darwin dots.
D. Lynn Margulis A. Natural Selection
B. Genetic Drift
NARAYAN CHANGDER
83. The evolution of antibiotic resistance can
be accelerated by: C. Mutation
A. Forgetting to take all doses of antibi- D. Gene Flow

otics, and letting the stronger varieties 88. The males of a certain bird population have
survive and reproduce either blue, red or green feather varia-
B. Giving antibiotics as a preventative tions. The females seem to prefer males
measure to livestock on a farm who have red or blue feathers. In observ-
ing the population, it is found that green-
C. Stopping treatment with antibiotics as
feathered birds are becoming less and less
soon as you start feeling better
common.
D. All of the above
A. Sexual Selcetion
84. The earliest application of evolution for hu- B. Gene Flow
man benefit C. Genetic Drift
A. Gene therapy and genetically modified D. Natural Selection
organisms
B. Artificial selection of crops and live- 89. Genetic recombination occurs naturally in
stock bacteria.
A. True
C. Genetic algorithms and new technolog-
ical breakthroughs B. False
D. Development of new medicines and C. Sometimes
ways to slow antibiotic resistance D. My name is Bob
85. Mom has STR 10 and 11. Dad has STR 14 90. Populations of the same species living in
and 15. Which of the following is NOT a different places
possible combination in their child? A. are genetically identical to each other
A. 11 and 14 B. become increasingly different as each
B. 11 and 15 becomes adapted to its own environment
C. 10 and 15 C. always show balancing selection
D. 14 and 15 D. do not vary
86. What did Charles Darwin have a therory 91. Which theory of evolutionary change sug-
about? gests that species have long periods of sta-
bility interrupted by geologically brief peri-
A. Sleep ods of significant change during which new
B. Animals species are formed?

A. gradualism B. Survival of the Fittest

B. punctuated equilibrium C. Descent with Modification

C. geographic isolation D. Adaptation
D. reproductive isolation 97. A paleontologist is comparing the fos-
92. How can an HIV treatment that stopped silized remains of two primates. Both an-
working become effective again? imals had a prehensile tail. What can be
concluded from this evidence?
A. Take larger doses of the treatment.
A. They were not related.
B. Stop taking it for a while and then take
B. They lived on the ground.
a massive dose.
C. They evolved from a common ances-
C. Take doses at different intervals
tor.
throughout the week.
D. They had bipedal locomotion.
D. none of above
98. Stabilizing selection acts to in a
93. What is the evolutionary benefit of light
species’ population.
skin in the northern latitude.
A. elaborate new traits
A. Skin cancer protection
B. maintain a certain phenotype
B. Folate Protection
C. alter traits
C. It has no evolutionary relationship
D. push for directional change
D. Easier vitamin D production
99. Which is not true about cheetah popula-
94. Two track stars fell in love and after mar-
tions?
riage had 5 children that became record-
setting athletes. A. They have experienced bottlenecks in
their evolutionary history.
A. Non-random mating
B. They have high levels of genetic varia-
B. Gene flow
tion.
C. Genetic drift
C. They are prone to extinction.
D. Mutation
D. They are not likely to survive environ-
95. There are some types of apples that are mental changes due to their similarities.
half red and half golden-colored. This is 100. slow changes over a long period of time
caused by a change in the DNA of the so-
matic cells of the apple. A. speciation
A. Natural Selection B. extinction
B. Mutation C. gradualism
C. Genetic Drift D. punctuated equilibrium
D. Gene Flow E. coevolution
96. When only the fittest organisms survive & 101. Darwin’s Theory of Natural Selection
reproduce this is known as: A. Survival of the fittest
A. Struggle for Existence B. all about cells

C. how life started A. inbreeding

D. none of above B. natural selection
C. artificial selection
102. A volcano erupts in northwest Washing-
ton state that kills a large percentage of D. adaptation
conifer trees. After 50 years of growth 107. A sudden major climatic change would
the conifer trees remain in small numbers most likely initially result in:
due to the natural disaster.
A. A rapid increase in adaptive radiation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. A rapid increase in extinction rates
B. Gene Flow
C. A sharp increase in numbers of
C. Genetic Drift species
D. none of above D. An increase in mutation rates
103. A random change in a small population’s E. Plants and animals developing new
allele frequency is known as characteristics in order to cope with en-
vironmental changes
A. a gene pool
108. Speciation is the process that leads to the
B. genetic drift
creation of new species. This is also called
C. variation A. Microevolution
D. fitness B. Macroevolution
104. Due to random successions of births, a C. Genetic drift
town has an unusually high population D. Nonevolution
of people with strawberry blonde hair, a
trait that increases over time and leaves 109. When is Mrs. Motycka’s anniversary?
very few people with different hair colors. A. December 10
A. Natural Selection B. December 11
B. Mutation C. December 12
C. Genetic Drift D. December 13
D. Gene Flow 110. Which of following in NOT a critial part
of the theory of evolution?
105. Despite the risks of evolving diseases
and pests, farmers continue to grow A. overproduction
because in the term they are profitable B. consistent environment
and produce high yields. C. genetic variation
A. Slowly; monocultures; long D. struggle to survive
B. Rapidly; polycultures; short 111. Within a population individuals have dif-
C. Rapidly; monocultures; short ferent traits
D. Slowly; polycultures; long A. overproduction
B. genetic variation
106. Selecting and breeding individuals that
possess desired traits to modify species C. struggle to survive
over many generations. D. differential reproduction

112. After experiencing the bottleneck effect C. Duplication; enhance

or the founder effect, the gene pool and D. Deletion; enhance
genetic diversity of a population

A. increases 117. When change in allelic frequency is based
on the ability to attract a mate.
B. decreases
C. stays the same
B. artificial selection
D. none of above
C. sexual selection
113. This is a pattern of natural selection in D. none of above
which the average (or intermediate) form
of a trait is the most advantageous, and 118. What idea made Charles Darwin fa-
so a population evolves away from the ex- mous?
tremes and toward the average A. Evolution
A. Disruptive selection B. Animals
B. Directional selection C. Natural Selection
C. Stabilizing selection D. Medicine
D. Middle selection
119. During a hurricane, a population of bee-
114. Recombination occurs during tles almost gets completely wiped out.
A. Mitosis The only beetles that survived were lucky
that they were in their nest at the time
B. Replication of the hurricane and had enough food to
C. Meiosis survive.
D. Transcription A. Natural selection
115. Temporal isolation is different from be- B. Genetic Drift

haviorial isolation because, temporal iso- C. Gene Flow
lation means D. Non-Random Mating
A. Organisms are not reproducing at the
same time 120. When Christopher Columbus came to the
Americas, he randomly chose 3 chickens
B. Organisms are physically separated from Spain to bring along. These 3 chick-
C. Organisms are not attracted to the ens were the only chickens to breed in the
mates attraction signals Americas for hundreds of years.
D. none of above A. Natural selection
116. The birth of genes can occur through the B. Genetic bottleneck
of an existing gene followed by a mu- C. Founder effect
tation that results in a new function for D. none of above
that gene. The death of genes can occur
through mutations that the function of 121. All of the genetic information found in a
a gene. population.
A. Duplication; destroy A. population
B. Deletion; destroy B. genetic drift

C. evolution 127. the probability that two individuals in a

D. gene pool population will mate is not the same for
all possible pairs of individuals
122. “the best adapted survive and repro- A. nonrandom mating
duce”
B. random mating
A. natural selection C. natural selection
B. artificial selection D. artificial selection
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. sexual selection
128. A bird’s developmental stages resemble
D. none of above those of a reptile. This observation is of-
ten used to illustrate the probable common
123. Which is a method of evolution? ancestry of these organisms through the
A. Mutation study of
B. Gene flow/ Migration A. comparative biochemistry
C. Genetic Drift B. punctuated equilibrium
D. Artificial selection C. comparative embryology

D. natural selection
E. All of the above
129. Genetic Drift:
124. The distribution of living things on Earth
provides information about the past histo- A. Happens Randomly
ries of both living things and the surface B. Decreases the Genetic Diversity of
of the Earth. Populations
A. temporal distribution C. Does NOT ‘select’ the most adapted in-
dividual
B. spacial distribution
D. Has the most drastic affect on smaller
C. geographical distribution
populations
D. reproductive distribution
130. A consists of a group of individuals
125. Artificial selection can also be called that belong to the same species and that
live in a particular area.
A. Community
B. Selective Breeding
B. Niche
C. Mutations
C. Population
D. Variety in a population
126. A lion gets chased off from his pride, then 131. Some organisms of a population of birds
joins another pride. He mates with a li- are born with extra-long beaks instead of
oness and make 6 lion cubs. a normal sized beak.
A. Natural Selection A. Gene Flow
B. Mutation B. Natural Selection
C. Genetic Drift C. Genetic Drift
D. Gene Flow D. Mutation

132. Short tandem repeats (STR) generate C. convergent evolution

unique fingerprints because: D. none of above

A. they don’t code for anything, so new
mutations are not subject to natural selec- 137. In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is
tion the frequency of what?
B. they code for proteins that are unique A. The recessive allele
to each individual person B. the dominant allele
C. they are surrounded by flanking re- C. the recessive genotype
gions which have a lot of variation from
D. the dominant genotype
person to person.
D. none of above 138. A(n) is a measure of how common a
certain allele is in a population.
133. In natural selection, the selective agent
A. Allele Frequency
is the
B. Gene Pool
A. humans
B. mutations C. Genotypical Number
C. breeders D. none of above
D. environment 139. The explanation that species evolve by

keeping traits that their parents develop
134. Bats are common in Texas, especially in throughout their lives was proposed by
rocky regions. Bats with longer hang
claws have demonstrated higher fitness
because of their ability to cling to rock A. Darwin
while resting. This is an example of B. Lamarck
A. Natural Selection C. Laughlin
B. Genetic Drift D. Slaughter
C. Gene Flow
140. Structures of marginal, if any, impor-
D. Sexual Selection tance to an organism. They are historical
remnants of structures that had important
135. occurs when a population declines to a
functions in ancestors.
very low number and then rebounds
A. Population
A. Genetic Drift
B. Artificial Selection
B. Founder Effect
C. Gene Flow
D. Vestigial Structures
D. Bottleneck
E. Homologous Structure
136. when species evolve in close relation-
ship with another species and each species’ 141. occur when a small sample of a popula-
evolution affects the evolution of the other tion settles in a location separated from
species the rest of the population.
A. divergent evolution A. Genetic Drift
B. coevolution B. Founder Effect

C. Gene Flow B. the process by which natures selects

D. Bottleneck who lives and dies.
C. the process by which animals adapt to
142. What do you call all of the genes in a pop-
their surroundings.
ulation?
D. the process by which people take over
A. Gene pool
ecosystems.
B. Relative Frequency
147. Over the course of hominin evolution,
C. Genetic Drift
NARAYAN CHANGDER
brain size (cc)
D. Allele pool
A. increased
143. In the 1700’s about 200 people emi- B. decreased
grated Germany and Switzerland and set-
tled in the United States. They formed C. stayed the same
their own communities and are known to- D. none of above
day as the Amish. What type of genetic
drift is this an example of? 148. The exchange of genes between two pop-
ulations.
A. Bottleneck effect
A. Genetic Drift
B. Founder effect
B. Founder Effect
C. Natural selection
D. Mutation C. Gene Flow
D. Genetic Recombination
144. There are 3 T alleles and 7 t alleles in a
population. Calculate the frequency of the 149. Which two processes are most likely to
recessive allele. increase the genetic variations within a
A. 30% population?
B. 70% A. asexual reproduction and osmosis
C. 10% B. mitosis and cellular division
D. 4% C. sexual reproduction and mutations
145. There was once a large population of D. mutations and protein synthesis
cheetah, but about 12, 000 years ago 150. When two or more populations no longer
most of the cheetahs were killed off be- successfully reproduce it is called
cause of human activity and only a few
survived. What is this an example of? A. species
A. Bottleneck Effect B. adaptation
B. Genetic Drift C. speciation
C. Founder Effect D. a shame
D. Natural Selection 151. Females a certain bird species are at-
146. Artificial selection is tracted to the mating calls of male species
more than others
A. the process by which humans select
who lives and dies based on traits of an- A. Genetic Drift
imal or plant. B. Mutation

C. Non-Random 156. Which of the following is NOT a require-

D. Natural Selection ment for natural selection to occur

A. Low Birth numbers
152. Female peacocks select the males with
the most spots on the male’s tails to breed B. Struggle
with. Males with less spots don’t repro- C. Overpopulation
duce with females as much as males with D. Selection
many spots.
A. Natural Selection 157. The various alleles and genetic combina-
tions in a population make up its
B. Gene Flow
A. common ancestry
C. Genetic Drift
B. gene pool
D. none of above
C. genetic drift
153. is when genes (peoples) come into or
D. gene flow
leave a population
A. Genetic Drift 158. What do we call a group of individuals
that can reproduce successfully in nature?
B. Founder Effect
A. species
C. Gene Flow
B. adaptation
D. Bottleneck
C. speciation
154. Reindeer from a rancher in Alaska escape
D. none of above
from their pen during an enormous snow
storm. After their escape, they mate with 159. Which of the following is true?
wild caribou that are migrating across the
land. The offspring of these have traits for A. Gene pool frequencies do not change
short legs and have tame behavior. as a result of migration in or out of a pop-
ulation.
A. Gene Flow
B. Gene flow occurs only as a result of
B. Genetic Drift isolation of a small population.
C. Non-Random Mating C. Gene flow can cause new alleles to en-
D. Natural Selection ter a population’s gene pool.
D. Gene flow is due the the selection of
155. Convergent evolution may occur
the most favorable traits.
A. when ancestral structures are co-
opted for new functions. 160. This term refers to the total genetic infor-
B. when homologous structures are mation found in a population; the complete
adapted for different functions. collection of all the alleles found in a pop-
ulation
C. from adaptive radiation.
A. Gene library
D. when species are widely separated ge-
ographically. B. Genome
E. when species have similar ecological C. Gene pool

roles D. Allele pool

161. Some female peacocks prefer males with 166. When has speciation occurred?
large, colorful tales while other female
A. When populations no longer look the
peacocks prefer males with no tail at all.
same
Females are beginning to only mate with
the type of males with the tail they pre- B. When populations no longer have the
fer. What type of reproductive barrier is same frequency of alleles
this?
C. When populations are living in differ-
A. behavioral isolation ent environments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. hybrid sterility D. When populations can no longer inter-
C. temporal isolation breed and produce fertile offspring
D. mechanical isolation
167. A type of genetic drift in which small
162. Which factor(s) led to the finches having groups of organisms separate from a
diversity? larger population and form new small
colonies.
A. available food
B. available habitat A. Gene Flow
C. available food and habitat B. Founder Effect

D. available food, habitat, and bill type C. Natural Selection
163. Which of the following must occur for spe- D. Artificial Selection
ciation to happen?
168. Wild Mustangs were taken from the
A. gene flow prairies of Iowa after a Texan Rancher pur-
B. reproductive isolation chased them and provided them with their
C. genetic drift own pasture. Those 7 Mustangs eventu-
ally became 122.
D. bottleneck effect
A. Genetic Drift (small popultaion)
164. Bacteriology is an example of what type
of evidence of evolution?
A. Comparable Anatomy C. Gene flow
B. Biogeography D. Mutations
C. Observable Evidence
169. Five hundred years after the deer had es-
D. Paleontology tablished a thriving population in the park,
some of them venture back to their origi-
165. Aside from damage to the DNA, what nal forests and have babies with the deer
is the main source of new mutations in a there.
gene pool?
A. Genetic Drift
A. Malfunctioning mitochondria
B. DNA replication errors B. Mutations
C. Damage to RNA C. Non-random mating

D. Migration to a new environment D. Gene flow

170. Determine the mechanisms of evolution 174. Determine the mechanism of evolution
that would result in this situation:“A pop- that would result in this situation:“In
ulation of green frogs live in the rainforest. a certain species of birds, males have

A random change in the DNA introduces a brightly colored feathers. Females pick a
new trait, green spotted frogs, into the mate based on which male has the pret-
population.” tiest feathers and has the best courtship
dance.”
A. Mutations
B. Gene flow
B. Genetic drift
C. Genetic drift
C. Non-random mating
D. Gene flow
171. what is gene flow?
175. Red parrots are brought on an expedi-
A. The change in allele frequencies due to tion to a remote section of jungle with
chance alone, occurring most commonly only blue parrots, introducing color varia-
in small populations. tion into the gene pool of jungle parrots.
B. The physical movement of alleles from A. Natural Selection
one population to another.
B. Mutation
C. A change in the DNA sequence.
C. Genetic Drift
D. A genetic drift that results from a small
number of individuals colonizing a new D. Gene Flow
area. 176. mating that is not random
172. The three domains. Multi select A. Mutation
A. are present and seen in phylogenetic B. Founder Effect
trees C. Nonrandom mating
B. Archea, Eubacteria, Eukarya D. Bottleneck
C. Show how all life is related to other life
177. How long does it take populations to
D. Explain how evolution took place in evolve?
steps for basic to advanced organisms
A. A short amount of time
E. all the above.
B. One generation
173. In a population of ladybugs, black bugs C. Hundreds of generations
are more successful in escaping predators. D. Ten generations
Overtime, this gene becomes more popular
in the population and the ladybug popula- 178. Organisms with the best adaptations are
tion loses its red color. most likely to survive and reproduce
A. Natural Selection A. overproduction
B. Mutation B. genetic variation
C. Genetic Drift C. struggle to survive
D. Gene Flow D. differential reproduction

179. The concept of gene flow is demonstrated B. intrasexual selection.

when a cow is driven off from its herd, C. disruptive selection
joins another herd, and reproduces. When
the cow contributes to the gene pool of the D. stabilizing selection
new herd, which of these most likely in- 184. A type of natural selection which acts
creases? upon an organisms ability to obtain a mate
A. Natural selection A. Sexual Selection
B. Genetic variation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Charles Darwin
C. Environmental fitness C. Stamen
D. Reproductive mutations D. Variation
180. What is convergent evolution? 185. Selection that results in one extreme ver-
A. evolution toward similar traits in unre- sion of the trait being favored.
lated species A. stabilizing selection
B. evolution toward different traits in B. directional selection
closely related species
C. elimination of a species from Earth
D. none of above
D. the rise of two or more species from
one existing species 186. A large population lessens the impact of:
A. Genetic drift
181. Which of the following is NOT part of the
Biological Species Concept? B. Disease
A. Must meet in nature & have gene flow C. Predation
B. Must be able to reproduce & share a D. Parasitism
gene pool
187. One day a group of scientists collected a
C. Offspring must be sterile small group of brown Anole lizards from
D. Offspring must be fertile a large group of the lizards. Then they
placed this small group of lizards on an is-
182. Owls will usually eat more white mice land that had no brown Anole lizards on it.
over dark mice because they are easier to What is this an example of?
see at night. Because of this the mice in
A. Bottleneck Effect
most deciduous forests are usually darker
than the mice found in the prairies. B. Hardy Effect
A. Genetic Drift (Shrinkage) C. Founder Effect
B. Mutation D. None of These
C. Non-random Mating 188. In a population of 1000 brown snails,
D. Natural Selection two brown colored snails had an offspring
with a white shell. This snail survived and
183. Mate-attracting features such as the reproduced so that in the next generation
bright feathers of a male peacock result there were four white colored snails and
from 1300 brown snails.
A. intersexual selection. A. Genetic Drift (Shrinkage)

B. Mutation 193. States that organisms appeared due to

C. Non-random Mating random chance beginning with a Big Bang
that started the universe.

A. Micro-evolution
189. When male deer fight each other and com- B. Macro-evolution
pete for a female, this is known as a: C. Intelligent design
A. Behavioral adaptation D. Creationism
B. Physiological adaptation
194. A gene pool is
C. Structural adaptation
A. Total number of alleles of the genes
D. All of the above that are present in a population of a par-
ticular species of organism at a given time
190. A group of Black Kent squirrels, acciden-
B. The condition of a population in which
tally get put on a truck to Houston. After
allele and genotype frequencies remain
the squirrels are dropped off in Houston
constant from one generation to the next
an earthquake occurs and Houston breaks
off into an island. What is this an example C. The number of phenotypes present in
of? a population of a species at a given time
A. Behavioral isolation D. none of above
B. Geographic Isolation 195. What are we reviewing in tutorials this
C. Natural Selection Tuesday?
D. Temporal Isolation A. Ecology

B. Genetics
191. Why do scientists use fossil evidence to
C. Evolution
help support evolution?
D. none of above
A. Fossils help show which organisms
have lived over the last 100 years. 196. what could be a possibility of not having
B. Fossils are exact replicas of animals genetic variation of a species?
from the past. A. faster evolution
C. There are fossils from every species of B. greater chances to avoid a mas-
animal that has ever lived. sive outbreak of disease or environment
change
D. Fossils can show patterns of change
that happened over millions of years C. greater chance of becoming extinct be-
cause of outbreak of disease or environ-
192. Relationships between two animal ment change
species would be best determined by com- D. easier for favorable traits to be passed
paring the on
A. ecosystems in which they live
197. T13. What is speciation?
B. hunting patterns they follow
A. combining of tow species to form one
C. nucleotide sequences in DNA with different traits
D. shape and size of their ears B. isolation that affects mating behaviors

C. timing of mating that prevents normal 203. Genetic drift decreases genetic diver-
sexual selection sity?
D. divergence of two or more species A. No, because you are gaining alleles
from an existing one
B. No, because new traits are formed
198. The independent evolution of similar fea- C. Yes, because you lose alleles
tures in differnet lineages is known as
D. Yes, because you gain alleles
A. convergent evolution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. artificial evolution 204. A structure that has been reduced in size
and is no longer used by an organism is
referred to as:
D. microevolution
A. vestigial
199. isolation that operates before fertiliza- B. analogous
tion occur
C. homologous
A. reproductive isolation
D. mathematical
B. prezygotic isolation
C. postzygotic isolation 205. Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents
the frequency of heterozygous individuals
D. none of above
in a population?
200. If an organism has characteristics that A. p2
help it survive, what will it do next?
B. 2pq
A. Die
C. q2
B. Eat
D. p2 + 2pq
C. Mutate
D. Reproduce 206. This is a collective term for all of the dif-
ferent types of small genetic changes that
201. Which of the following does not increase can cause a population to change from gen-
variation in the population? eration to generation
A. Genetic Drift A. Natural selection
B. Gene Flow
B. Gene flow / genetic drift
C. Mutation
C. Microevolution
D. none of above
D. Macroevolution
202. The females of two species of fruit fly,
Drosophila melanogaster and Drosophila 207. In a habitat with red and green bugs,
simulans release slightly different mating lizards prefer the taste of the red bugs, so
hormones called pheromones, which are there are many green bugs and very few
used to attract male mates. red bugs.
A. Geographic isolation A. Natural Selection
B. Behavioral isolation B. Mutation
C. Temporal isolation C. Genetic Drift
D. none of above D. Gene Flow

208. Bats are common in Texas, especially in 213. Determine the mechanism of evolution
rocky regions. Bats with longer hang that would result in this situation:“In the
claws have demonstrated higher fitness savannah, lions chase and eat gazelle. The

because of their ability to cling to rock slower gazelle get eaten first so over-
while resting. The lone hang claws consid- time the gazelle population has become
ered a(n) faster.”
A. Adaptation A. Gene flow
B. Non-random mating B. Genetic drift
C. Gene Flow C. Mutation
D. Mutation D. Natural selection
209. A few deer break out of their native 214. Which of the following does not have to
forests into a whole new park where no occur for natural selection to take place?
deer have ever been before. They go on A. Inherited variability
to create a whole new population. B. Genetic Variation
A. Genetic Drift C. more offspring produced than can sur-
B. Natural Selection vive
C. Non-random mating D. wide spread disease
D. Mutation 215. is when genes (organisms) come into or
leave a population
210. What do we call change over time?
A. Genetic Drift
A. Evolution
B. Founder Effect
C. Gene Flow
C. Natural Variation
D. none of above
D. Speciation
216. Which of the following is evidence of com-
211. Which is an example of temporal isola- mon ancestry between two species?
tion?
A. their limbs serve similar functions
A. flowers that bloom in different months
B. they contain similar structures
B. birds that have different mating calls
C. they consume the same food sources
C. fruit flies that mate in different loca-
D. they inhabit similar ecosystems
tions
D. squirrels that have different fur colors 217. What are refugia?
A. Areas in which endangered animals
212. A type of isolation where two species
are protected from hunting.
whose ranges overlap have different peri-
ods of sexual activity or breeding seasons. B. Areas on a farm where non-pesticide
resistant insects are allowed to live
C. Areas on a farm intended to speed up
B. Behavioral isolation the evolution of pesticide resistance in in-
C. Temporal isolation sects

218. Why is it important to study the evo- population in the park, a few of them ven-
lutionary origin of modern agricultural ture back to their original woods and have
crops? babies with the deer there. This is an ex-
A. The ancestral species may have traits ample of
that are useful in modern crops A. Genetic Drift
B. The modern crop is likely a monocul- B. Mutations
ture that is highly susceptible to disease C. Sexual Selection
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Both of the above. D. Gene flow
D. none of above
223. New species are result of
219. Which mechanism of evolution introduces A. No variation in the population
new genetic variations that did not previ-
B. Variation in the population
ously exist?
C. unlimited food resources
A. Gene flow
D. none of above
B. Genetic drift
C. Mutation 224. T13. Which is an example of temporal
isolation?
A. flowers that bloom in different months
220. When two unrelated species become B. birds that have different mating calls
more similar, such as the fact that bats and
C. fruit flies that mate in different loca-
insects both have wings, this is known as
tions
D. squirrels that have different fur colors
A. coevolution
B. convergent evolution 225. Ten years ago, in a small population of
ducks, two sizes of eyes were observed,
C. divergent evolution large and small. Three ducks have large
D. adaptive radiation eyes and 7 have small. 2 of the large-eyed
ducks are randomly hit by cars and killed.
221. During pregnancy, a developing male pig Today, no large-eyed ducks are present in
had a change in his genetic code. The re- the population.
sult was that he was able to walk and
do karate. During pregnancy, a develop-
ing male pig had a change in his genetic B. Mutation
code. The result was that he was able to C. Genetic Drift
walk and do karate.
D. Gene Flow
A. Genetic Drift
226. A clade is (two correct)
A. is a grouping that includes a common
C. Mutation
ancestor and all the descendants (living
D. Natural Selection and extinct) of that ancestor
222. Five hundred years after a new popula- B. a family tree

tion of deer had established a flourishing C. a group of unrelated organisms

D. may include many thousands of 232. When a population’s allele frequency

species or just a few. changes over time, what is happening to
that population?

227. Some caribou leave their herd and mi-
grate into a herd of reindeer and mate and A. Gene frequencies don’t change over
produce offspring. This is an example of time
B. Gene frequencies changing over time
A. Genetic Drift is evolution
B. Gene Flow C. Gene frequencies take too long to
change and can’t be measured
C. Mutation
D. Gene frequencies change too fast and
D. Sexual Selection
can’t be measured
228. A small portion of a population that is ge-
233. Process by which bacteria mutate so that
ographically isolated from the rest of the
they are no longer affected by an antibi-
population runs the risk of decreased
otic.
A. genetic drift
A. Antibiotic Resistance
B. mutation rate
B. Common Descent
C. (Genetic) Variation
D. genetic variation
D. Genetic Drift
229. Peacock feathers are an example of:
234. Insects become resistant to pesticides
A. homologous structures very quickly, sometime in one generation.
B. sexual selection If an insect is resistant to the chemical,
C. analogous structures most of the offspring will also be resis-
tant. Considering that insect generations
D. vestigial structures can be a matter of weeks, insects in an
230. The concept that species inherit character- area can become immune to a chemical
istics that enhance their survival and re- within months.
production is known as what? A. Mutation
A. natural selection B. Natural Selection
B. artificial selection C. Genetic Drift
C. adaptation D. Gene Flow
D. fitness
235. can occur in a relatively short time when
231. According to the bead lab, Genetic drift one species gives rise to many species in
(bottleneck or founder) tends to ge- response to the creation of new habitat or
netic variation (diversity) another ecological opportunity
A. Increase A. divergent evolution
B. Decrease B. coevolution
C. Stabilize C. convergent evolution
D. Exaggerate D. none of above

236. Which of the following is NOT a condi- C. Random mating

tion that must be met for Hardy-Weinberg D. No mutation
equilibrium?
E. Gene flow
A. Large population size
241. When organisms, whether living or ex-
B. No mutations
tinct, are descended from a common ances-
C. No immigration or emigration tor this is known as:
D. Dominant alleles are more frequent A. Struggle for Existence
NARAYAN CHANGDER
than recessive alleles B. Survival of the Fittest
E. No natural selection C. Descent with Modification
237. Mechanism of evolution that occurs when D. Adaptation
females decide to mate with organisms
242. Shared derived characters can be used to
that have the best traits or the ability to
group organisms into
fight.
A. partners
A. Sexual Selection
B. clades
C. offspring
C. Gene Flow
D. none of above
D. Genetic Drift
243. Natural selection states that organisms
238. What kind of populations does genetic are best suited for their environment if
drift affect the most? they and
A. Large populations A. Survive and Reproduce
B. Small populations B. Survive and Predate
C. Marine populations C. Survive and Parasitize
D. Blue populations D. Survive and Adapt
239. What are sources of genetic variation? 244. Survival of the fittest or when favor-
able adaptations reproduce faster is called
A. mutations
what?
B. genetic recombination
A. Evolution
C. mutations and genetic recombination B. Adaptation
D. mutations and migrations C. Natural selection
240. Image a population that is large. For D. Fossilization
a hypothetical gene, there is currently no
245. Which of the following cannot introduce
natural selection, there is random mating,
new alleles into a population’s gene pool?
there is no mutation, and there is gene
flow with another population. Which fac- A. Mutataion
tor is causing evolution of this trait right B. Natural selection
now?
C. Gene Flow
A. Large population D. All of the above introduce new alleles
B. No natural selection into the population

246. One day a group of scientists collected a C. stayed the same

small group of brown anole lizards from
D. none of above
a large group of the lizards. Then they

placed this small group of lizards on an is-
251. More offspring can be produced than can
land that had no brown anole lizards on it.
survive to maturity
What is this an example of?
A. Bottleneck Effect A. Overproduction
B. Hardy Effect B. Genetic Variation
C. Founder Effect C. Struggle to Survive
D. None of These D. Differential Reproduction
247. There was once a large population of
252. When every organism of a given species
cheetah, but about 12, 000 years ago
has died
most of the cheetahs were killed off by
random chance. What is this an example A. Natural Selection
of?
B. Homeostasis
A. Genetic Drift
C. Extinction
B. Gene Flow
C. Founder Effect D. Selective Breeding
D. None of These 253. Long neck giraffes are able to reach food
248. This mechanism of evolution occurs when high in the trees. Over time giraffes with
populations migrate. short or medium length necks do not sur-
vive. What type of selection is being de-
A. Extinction scribed?
B. Gene flow
A. disruptive
C. Genetic drift
B. stabilizing
C. extreme
249. The most closely related species on a phy-
logenetic tree can be determined by identi- D. directional
fying
254. Which would increase the likelihood of
A. the clade in which both species belong pesticide resistance?
B. the number of descendants from each
A. An insect has only one generation per
species
year.
C. most recent common ancestor
B. Continual use of the same pesticides
D. the evolutionary history of all species or pesticides from the same chemical
in the clade class.
250. Over the course of hominin evolution, C. Applying a pesticide that has little or
tool use no residual effect.
A. increased D. Limiting the number of pesticide appli-
B. decreased cations.

255. A few deer wander out of their native 260. The Linnaean system ofclassification that
woods into a completely new park where assigns every organism a (pick two cor-
no deer had ever been before. They go on rect)
to create an entirely new population. A. kingdom, phylum, class, order, family,
A. Genetic Drift genus, and species,
B. Natural Selection B. phylum, class, order, family, genus,
C. Non-random mating and species,
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Mutation C. Darwin Classification
256. If a population of lizards is isolated on D. Kind People Can Often Find Good Stuff
an island, with no new immigrants over 261. A giraffe and a zebra do not produce off-
many years, any new genetic variations spring because of
are most likely to come from
A. temporal isolation
A. recessive alleles
B. habitat isolation
C. mechanical isolation
C. mutations
D. speciation D. gametic isolation
257. In the Great Lakes region of North Amer- 262. If an individual has favorable traits, then
ica, gray wolves and coyotes are simi- they are said to have a high level of:
lar species but do not mate because their A. Diversity
breeding periods occur at different times
B. Genes
of the year. This is an example of
C. Fitness
B. Behavioral isolation D. Fertility
C. Temporal isolation 263. How are mutations a mechanism for evo-

D. none of above lution?
A. They allow a species to decide to
258. cause a change in the allelic frequency by
change their DNA and change their allele
literally changing the genotype of the indi-
frequency
vidual.
B. They are a random change in the DNA
A. Mutation
of a species that changes their allele fre-
B. Founder Effect quency
C. Nonrandom mating C. The create laser beams on shark’s
D. Bottleneck heads
259. States that organisms change over time D. Mutations are not real.
to be better suited to their environment.
264. What mechanism of evolution occurs
A. Micro-evolution when allele frequencies change over gen-
B. Macro-evolution erations due to random chance?
C. Intelligent design A. Genetic Drift
D. Creationism B. Mutation

C. Natural Selection 269. A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon

ants away from their original population.
D. Gene Flow
There is enough distance between the two

265. Any change in the allele frequency of groups, that they will never meet in nature
gene pool across generations is again. What type of isolation is this?
A. Behavioral isolation
A. Genetic drift
B. Temporal isolation
B. Mutations
C. Geographic isolation
C. Gene flow
D. none of above
D. Evolution
270. Which of the following means “genetic
266. The frequency of homozygous recessive change over time”
individuals in a population:
A. p
B. speciation
B. q C. evolution
C. 2pq D. fitness
D. p2
271. A certain type of plant can produce blue
E. q2 or yellow flowers. During a fire, many yel-
low flowers are destroyed and now since
267. Buffalo grass is a species of plant found blue is the dominant trait, the plant re-
on the grazing prairie of Wyoming. It produces offspring that produce only blue
is a tough grass that has silicates (com- flowers.
pounds containing oxygen and silicon) that
reinforce its leaves. This variation has al- A. Non-Random Mating
lowed this type of grass to survive for B. Gene Flow
many years in an adverse environment. C. Mutation
A. Genetic Drift (Shrinkage) D. Genetic Drift
B. Mutation
272. The Origin of Species indicates that
C. Non-random Mating
A. organisms produce more offspring
D. Adaptation than can survive
B. species today descended with modifi-
268. If the relative frequency of a single al-
cation from ancestral species
lele for a particular trait declines over time,
what would happen to the relative fre- C. organisms w advantages will survive
quencies of some or all other alleles for and reproduce
that trait? D. work written by Charles Darwin
A. They would also decrease.
273. Which of the following is the most gen-
B. They would stay the same. eral classification?
C. They would increase. A. Phylum
D. There is no way to know. B. Species

C. Order B. Natural Selection

D. Family C. Non-random mating
274. Carolus Linnaeus adopted a naming or D. Mutation
classification sytem that is still in use to-
day. It is known as what? 279. A population of moths with a high fre-
A. binomial nomenclature quency of white alleles enters a population
of darker-colored moths. Over time, more
B. scala naturae
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and more white moths are born as a result.
C. binomial scalae
D. scala nomenclature
B. Gene Flow
275. There is a population of squirrels who
C. Genetic Drift
have bushy or hairless tails. Five new
squirrels enter the area and have wavy D. none of above
haired tails.
A. Natural Selection 280. A wildflower population consisting of
blue, purple, and pink flowers is subjected
B. Mutation
to a mudslide that kills most of the blue
C. Genetic Drift ones. As time progresses, blue flowers
D. Gene Flow eventually die out, leaving only purple and
pink wildflowers.
276. A random event causes near extinction of
a species; 95% of the species’ population A. Natural Selection
dies B. Mutation
A. Natural Selection C. Genetic Drift
B. Gene Flow
D. Gene Flow
C. Genetic Variation
D. Genetic Drift 281. The is the collection of all the
genes/traits in population.
277. Plant pollen being blown into a new area
is an example of: A. deck of cards
A. Genetic drift B. protein pool

B. Gene flow C. gene pool
C. Genetic bottleneck D. None of the above
282. Organs that have the same function but
278. There exists two islands. One with a pop- different structures are
ulation of million people and another island
with a population of 100 people. A hur- A. homologous structures
ricance randomly happens, to everyone’s B. analogous structures
surprise. The smaller population would
suffer the most. This is an example of: C. vestigial structures
A. Genetic Drift D. embryology

283. 7 wild Mustangs were taken from the A. Disruptive Selection

Iowa prairies after a Texan Rancher
B. Directional selection
bought them and provided them with his

own pasture. Those 7 Mustangs eventu- C. Natural Selection
ally became 122.
D. Stabilizing Selection
A. Genetic Drift (small population)
B. Non-random mating 288. If a person lives in an environment with
low radiation what kind of skin color
C. Gene flow
would be the best adapted
D. Mutations
A. Darker skin tones to increase produc-
284. Organisms who survive, reproduce. This tion of Vitamin D Synthesis
means that they can B. Darker skin tones to protect DNA and
A. Die in peace Folate
B. Pass down those traits to their off- C. Lighter Skin tones to increase produc-
spring tion of Vitamin D
C. Survive D. Lighter Skin tones to protect DNA and
D. Help the population’s genes mutate Folate
285. Bats are common in Texas, especially in 289. Scientist who believed in Evolution
the rocky regions. Bats with longer pen- through Natural Selection?
dulous claws have shown greater fitness
due to their ability to cling to rock while A. Lamarck
resting. B. Malthus
A. Adaptation C. Darwin
D. Hutton & Lyell
C. Gene Flow
D. Mutation 290. Effects of hominin brain size change in-
clude (SELECT MORE THAN 1)
286. How is natural selection a mechanism of
evolution? A. more complex tool use
A. It causes a population to become B. better language

stronger C. require less energy
B. It causes a population to become bet- D. travel longer distances
ter adapted to its environment and repro-
duce
291. Most favorable/advantageous traits in a
C. It causes a population to become more population are selected for and passed on.
camouflaged
A. Sexual Selection
D. Natural selection is not a mechanism
of evolution B. Natural Selection
C. Non-random Mating
287. This type of selection favors the two ex-
treme variations D. Gene Flow

292. Why does Huntington’s disease persist, A. Genetic Drift

despite it being caused by a lethal domi-
B. Gene Flow
nant allele?
A. It is only lethal in males. C. Mutation
B. The onset of the disease occurs after D. Natural Selection

people start having kids.
297. This is one of the mechanisms of evolu-
C. New mutations of the Huntington’s
tion; it is a continuous process in which
NARAYAN CHANGDER
gene are common.
organisms with traits that make them
D. Both blue and green. better-adapted to their environment are
E. Both green and yellow. more likely to survive and reproduce than
organisms without such adaptations
293. Which of the following is true of genetic
A. Directional selection
drift?
B. Microevolution
A. It can decrease genetic diversity in a
population C. Gene flow / genetic drift
B. It is necessary in order for a popula- D. Natural selection
tion to be in equilibrium
C. It can increase genetic diversity in a 298. which of the following is not involved in
population natural selection?
D. It plays a much larger role in deter- A. competition for resources
mining the genetic makeup of populations
B. differences in reproductive success
than natural selection
C. inheritable variation in populations
294. Gene Flow tends to genetic variation
(diversity) D. breeder selects traits
A. Increase 299. What unit is this?
B. Decrease
A. Ecology
C. Stabilize
B. Genetics
D. Exaggerate
C. Evolution
295. unrelated species evolve similar charac-
D. none of above
teristics because they live in similar envi-
ronments
300. When the Grand Canyon in Arizona
A. speciation formed, two populations of one squir-
B. divergent evolution rel species were separated by the giant
canyon. This is an example of
C. gradualism
D. convergent evolution A. Temporal isolation
E. coevolution B. Behavioral isolation

C. Geographic isolation
296. A change in the genetic information of an
organism. D. none of above

301. Which of the following is an example of D. Offspring would have greater genetic
reproductive isolation? variety

A. two populations of finches that cannot 306. Bahamian female birds preferred mating
produce viable offspring with white-feathered males and produces
B. two populations of finches that have more white-feathered offspring than dark
different feather colors feathered offspring. Which process apples
C. two populations of salamanders that to this scenario?
live in different lakes A. Gene Flow
D. two populations of salamanders that B. Natural Selection
have different tail lengths C. Mutation
302. Process that results in multiple sets of D. Non-Random Mating
chromosomes. Sudden evolution.
307. If prescribed antibiotics, which of the fol-
A. Divergent evolution lowing should you do?
B. Convergent evolution A. Stop taking the antibiotic as soon as
C. Non-disjunction you feel better.
D. Polyploidy B. Give some of your pills to someone
who has a viral infection.
303. Imagine that there are only two pink
moneys in the world, one male and one fe- C. Save a few doses, and take them as a
male. The male gets sick and dies, making preventative measure before the winter.
it impossible to ever make purebred pink D. Take each dose as directed on time.
monkeys again.
A. Natural Selection bipedalism
B. Mutation A. increased
C. Genetic Drift B. decreased
D. Gene Flow C. stayed the same
304. When individuals move in or out of a pop- D. none of above
ulation.
309. The spread of genes as individuals with
A. Gene Flow different traits migrate from population to
B. Genetic Drift population:
C. Mutation A. Gene flow
D. Natural Selection B. Genetic drift
305. When two neighboring populations sud- C. Natural selection

denly mix, what will result? D. Sexual selection
A. Offspring would have mutations 310. Developed ideas on how eukaryotic cells
B. Offspring would be forced to leave develop from prokaryotic cells (endosym-
C. Offspring would be identical to their biotic theory)
parent A. Hutton

B. Lamarck 316. A population of 150 individuals has an

C. Malthus allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant
allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for
D. Margulis the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-
311. Which evolutionary mechanism is neces- Weinberg equation to determine the fre-
sary for evolution to occur? quency of the genotype (bb).
A. genetic drift A. 0.09
B. gene flow B. 0.42
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. nonrandom mating C. 0.49
D. mutation D. 0.21
312. Bats are common in Texas, especially in
rocky regions. Bats with longer hang 317. The northern elephant seal population
claws have demonstrated higher fitness was reduced by over hunting to 20 indi-
because of their ability to cling to rock viduals in the 1890s. Although the popu-
while resting. lation had rebounded to over 30, 000 in-
dividuals by 1974, the genetic diversity is
A. Natural Selection still low within the current population.
B. Sexual Selection
C. Gene Flow
B. Gene Flow
D. Mutation
C. Genetic Drift
diet became D. none of above
A. more meat-based 318. This is a pattern of natural selection
B. more plant-based where one extreme form of a trait is more
C. more balanced advantageous than the average or the op-
posite extreme; as a result, this trait in the
D. none of above population tends to evolve towards that
314. Someone is born with 6 fingers. All of one extreme
their children and most of their grandchil- A. Directional selection
dren are also born with 6 fingers.
B. Disruptive selection
A. Mutation
C. Stabilizing selection
C. Sexual Selection D. Forward selection
D. Genetic Drift 319. What is sexual dimorphism?
E. Gene Flow
A. Mate competition
315. How does a scientific theory improve? B. Mate choice
A. New technology
C. Where male animals display certain
B. New evidence mating behaviors
C. New laws D. Where the different sexes have differ-
D. They don’t change ent traits

320. A bear cub was born with mom’s long C. Mutations

claws and dad’s wide ears. This cub hap-
D. Natural Selections
pened to also be born with furry ears that

didn’t come from his parents. What could
325. Non-random mating is when animals
have created this new trait?
choose their partners. This is in example
A. Gene flow of
B. Natural Selection A. Artificial selection
C. Mutation B. Natural selection
D. Genetic Drift
C. Sexual selection
321. This is the pattern of natural selection D. Genetic drift
where BOTH of the extreme versions of
a trait are more advantageous than the 326. An organism has the characteristics listed
average, so a population evolves in both below:1. Autotrophic2. Motile3. Single-
directions away from the average Celled4. EukaryoticWhich Kingdom is this
A. Directional Selection organism in?
B. Disruptive Selection A. Animalia
C. Stabilizing Selection B. Protista
D. Radical Selection C. Fungi
322. What word describes the process of hav- D. Bacteria
ing the advantageous traits that helps an
organism survive and reproduce? 327. A certain type of plant can produce blue
or yellow flowers. During a fire, many yel-
low flowers are destroyed and now since
B. adaptation blue is the dominant allele, the plant repro-
C. mutation duces plants that only produce blue flow-
ers.
D. genetic engineering
323. Adaptations that help an animal blend in
with its surroundings to avoid being seen B. Gene Flow
is called C. Genetic Drift
A. habitat D. none of above
B. mimicry
328. Male birds are much flashier and do com-
C. camouflage
plicated mating displays to attach females.
D. adaptations
A. Mutation
324. Out of the five mechanisms that can B. Natural Selection
cause evolution, which one is the only one
that leads to adaptations? C. Sexual Selection
A. Gene flow D. Genetic Drift
B. Genetic drift (small populations) E. Gene Flow

329. Yellow toucan birds seek out one another C. None of the bacteria had a mutation
to mate and tend to avoid or not mate with that made them resistant
green toucan birds. This is an example of D. Only the larger bacteria survived the
small dosage
A. Genetic Drift
334. A population of flowers on one side of a
B. Non-random mating river transports pollen to the flowers on
C. Gene flow the other side of the river, producing off-
spring.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Mutation
330. Domesticating cows for their docile na-
B. Mutation
ture and large meat availability is as ex-
ample of C. Genetic Drift
A. Natural Selction D. Gene Flow
B. Sexual Selection 335. A trait that does not confer a survival ad-
C. Gene Flow vantage, but succeeds in attracting mates
will increase in a population due to:
D. Artificial Slection
331. Evolution of one or more closely related B. Sexual selection
species into different species; resulting
C. Artificial selection
from adaptations to different environmen-
tal conditions. D. Adaptive radiation
A. Fossil 336. Occurs when changing environment
B. Fitness favours one extreme phenotype
C. Convergent Evolution A. stabilizing selection
D. Divergent Evolution B. Directional selection
C. Disruptive selection
332. A bird that can easily outcompete other
birds for food and that can produce many D. Outbreeding
eggs has a high 337. The lava released by a volcanic eruption
A. IQ separates two populations of a species of
monkey. What does this represent?
B. mutation rate
A. biological isolation
C. fitness
B. geographical isolation
D. adaptability
C. temporal isolation
333. When prescribed antibiotics for a bacte- D. anatomical isolation
rial infection, you should always complete
the entire dosage. Why is this? 338. Speciation occurs when
A. Some bacteria may be resistant and A. Animals interbreed and create sterile
survive the smaller dosage offspring
B. All bacteria had a mutation that made B. An entire population of animals dies
them resistant suddenly

C. New and distinct species evolve from 343. is the change in the frequency of a
another species gene in a population as a result of chance.

D. Extinct animals are reanimated in a lab A. Gene Flow
B. Evolution
339. What is the use of identifying STR (short
tandem repeats) in the DNA? C. Frequency Change
A. It allows us to distinguish the DNA fin- D. Genetic Drift

gerprints of different specimens. 344. When a large population is drastically re-
B. It allows us to find new genes easily. duced by a chance event (not fitness) such
as famine or loss of habitat, the loss of
C. It allows us to identify without any
variation narrows the gene pool of the
doubt that a person committed a specific
population. The cheetah is a great exam-
crime.
ple of this agent of evolutionary change
D. none of above resulting from the effect.
A. founder
340. Light and dark colored oysters are able to
camouflage themselves better than their B. natural selection
medium colored relatives. What type of C. bottleneck
selection is being described?
D. non-random mating
A. directional
345. What was responsible for the Irish
B. disruptive Potato Famine in the 1840s?
C. stabilizing A. Overuse of fertilizers
D. extreme B. Monoculture genetically identical
potatoes, all susceptible to the same dis-
341. In a population of fish there is a variety ease
of phenotypes, such as stripes, no stripes,
and spots. A fishing ship comes by and C. Pollutants from the Industrial Revolu-
catches all the fish except for two striped tion
fish. The striped fish survive and repro- D. Competition with another inedible type
duce. Eventually the population of fish is of potato.
all striped.
346. Darwins finches each lived on a specific
A. Genetic Drift (Shrinkage) island based on what resource?
B. Mutation A. size of island
C. Gene flow B. type of tree
D. Adaptation C. climate
D. food
342. Godfrey Hardy was a
A. Teacher 347. Both mutations and recombination are re-
sponsible for the development of in
B. Physician and among species.
C. Scientist A. Diversity
D. Mathematician B. Adaptations

C. Niches A. Genetic Drift

D. Heredity B. Mutations
348. A population’s recessive allele frequency C. Non-random mating

25%. What is the percentage of the Ho- D. Gene flow
mozygous Dominant genotype?
353. A small group of squirrels gets separates
A. .5625 them from the rest of the population due
B. .3750 to a large flood. These squirrels, now con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. .0625 fined to this new island, begin to start
a new population. This is an example of
D. .25 which of the following?
E. .5 A. Founder effect
349. A type of isolation in which two popula- B. Bottleneck effect
tions with complex courtship displays or C. Natural Selection
rituals become different enough that they
no longer respond to the other’s actions. D. Gene Flow
A. Geographic isolation 354. Your skin color is determined by your
B. Behavioral isolation A. Genetic Inheritance
C. Temporal isolation B. Environmental factors
D. none of above C. Culture
350. Pollinators from a population of flowers D. None of the above
on one side of a river transport pollen to
355. Why does a nonspecialized animal popu-
the flowers on the other side of the river,
lation have a much better chance of surviv-
producing floral offspring.
ing a major disturbance in its habitat than
A. Natural Selection a very specialized population?
B. Gene Flow A. It can reproduce at a faster rate.
C. Genetic Drift B. It can hibernate through a time of cri-
D. none of above sis.
C. It can more easily adapt to different
351. Evolution and natural selection act on
conditions.
a(n)
D. It can mutate faster than a specialized
A. individual
population.
B. species
C. population 356. Logan was born with unique abilities for
quick healing and awesome claws that
D. none of above stick out of his fingers.
352. Five hundred years after the deer had A. Gene flow
established a flourishing population in the B. Natural Selection
park, a few of them venture back to their
original woods and have babies with the C. Mutation
deer there. D. Genetic Drift

357. Darwin’s finches, where one 14 species C. Meteor effect

evolved from a common ancestor is called D. Natural selection

A. Convergent evolution 362. The country of Sweden is known for hav-
ing people with blonde hair and blue eyes.
B. Adaptive Radiation One day a family moves from Sweden to
C. Sexual Selection India where dark hair and dark eyes are
D. Hybridization very common. A female from Sweden mar-
ries a male from India and their offspring
358. Evolutionary change and evolutionary re- now have blonde hair and blue eyed traits.
lationships are represented A. Natural Selection
A. family trees B. Mutation
B. The United States museums of history C. Non-Random Mating
C. phylogeny
D. Gene Flow
D. Cultural tradition
363. When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg
359. Which of the following describes the func- equilibrium, what is NOT happening to the
tion of natural selection? species?
A. The reduction of reproductive capabili- A. survival
ties.
B. reproduction
B. The removal of older genes from the
C. death
gene pool.
D. evolution
C. The removal of unfit variants as they
arise via mutation 364. The half life of carbon-14 is 5730 years.
D. The prevention of a population reach- How much time has elapsed when 12.5%
ing the carrying capacity of the environ- of the carbon-14 REMAINS
ment. A. 5730
360. isolation that operates after fertilization B. 11, 460
has occurred to ensure that the resulting C. 2865
hybrid remains infertile
D. 17, 190
365. What is the evolutionary benefit for dark
skin near the equator?
C. postzygotic isolation
A. Better calcium absorption
D. none of above
B. Folate Protection
361. This occurs when a large population is C. It has no evolutionary relationship
drastically reduced by an event such as
a natural disaster; the population’s new D. Easier vitamin D production
gene pool only contains alleles from the 366. Relationships between plant species may
survivors most accurately be determined by compar-
A. Founder effect ing the
B. Bottleneck effect A. habitats in which they live

B. base sequences of DNA 371. You analyze a DNA profile and find the
C. structure of guard cells following:for STR 1, alleles 13 and 18; for
STR 2, alleles 28 and 29; for STR 3, allele
D. shape of their leaves 9; for STR 4, alleles 11 and 12. Which
trait(s) is this person heterozygous for?
gene pool? A. STR 1
A. The alleles only in the immediate fam- B. STR 3
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ily members C. STR 3 and 4
B. A total set of different alleles in a pop- D. STR 1, 3, and 4
ulation
E. STR 1, 2, and 4
C. A frequency of given alleles in a popu-
lation 372. the effect of humans purposefully breed-
D. Half the number of the alleles within ing animals to select for desirable traits
the population A. natural selection
368. Blue-eyed people from Sweden move to B. artificial selection
a small town in Mexico where people all C. sexual selection
have brown eyes. When they mate, some
of their children now have blue eyes. D. none of above
A. Natural Selection 373. The type of evidence for evolution that

B. Gene Flow comes from the geogrpahic distribution
species is called?
C. Genetic Drift
A. Pangea
D. none of above
B. convergent evolution
369. Wolves from the Arizona mesa were
C. embryology
transferred to the Colorado Rockies after
a forest fire destroyed their habitat. They D. biogeography
quickly became part of the local pack and
had offspring. This is an example of 374. Formation of new species.
A. Mutation A. artificial selection

B. Natural Selection B. species
C. Genetic Drift C. speciation
D. Gene Flow D. fossils
370. All the different genes and traits in a pop- 375. Individuals must compete with each other
ulation. for food, water, shelter, etc.
A. Genetic Flow A. overproduction
B. Natural Selection B. genetic variation
C. Evolution C. struggle to survive
D. Gene Pool D. differential reproduction

376. When Gene Flow occurs (migration of from Spain to bring along. These 3 chick-
a species to a new habitat) what is likely ens were the only chickens to breed in the
to happen? Americas for hundreds of years. These

A. that species will die off chickens are no longer able to breed with
the chickens in Spain. What is this called?
B. the new habitat would have more ge-
netic variation A. Natural selection
C. the old species would all fight off the B. Genetic bottleneck
new species C. geographical isolation
D. the new habitat would reject the inva- D. none of above
sion of a new species
382. This is one of the mechanisms of evolu-
377. Genetic drift causes less tion; it occurs when individuals move into
A. adaptations or out of a population, either by physically
arriving or leaving, or by being born or dy-
B. offspring ing
C. genetic diversity A. Gene flow / genetic drift
D. none of above B. Founder effect
378. If an organism survives and reproduces, C. Natural selection
this will lead to an increase in the- D. Microevolution
A. frequency of genes in the population
383. There is a population of squirrels who
B. Frequency of genes in one individual have bushy or hairless tails. Five new
C. Frequency of genes in the ecosystem squirrels enter the area and have wavy
haired tails, and reproduce.
D. none of above
379. Which of the following is the collection of
B. Mutation
life’s remains found in sedimentary rock?
C. Genetic Drift
D. Gene Flow
B. homologous structures
C. Charles Darwin 384. A population of chimpanzees was sepa-
rated when the forest that they lived in
D. the fossil record
had a section cut down and a town was
380. The frequency for alleles coding for favor- built. After a long period of time, the chim-
able traits in a population over time panzees came back into contact but were
incapable of breeding. Which of the fol-
A. increases lowing best describes the process that oc-
B. decreases curred?
C. stays the same A. adaptation
D. fluctuates randomly B. speciation
381. When Christopher Columbus came to the C. convergent selection

Americas, he randomly chose 3 chickens D. stabilizing selection

385. The movement of alleles from one popu- C. no mutations

lation to another is called D. no migration
A. genetic drift E. random mating
B. the bottleneck effect
390. The theory that evolutionary change is
C. the founder effect slow and continuous is known as
D. gene flow A. gradualism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
386. An area had a diverse population until B. punctuated equilibrium
an unexpected earthquake hit and most of C. geographic isolation
people that survived were of Native Amer-
D. reproductive isolation
ican descent, what would this event be
called? 391. Yellow toucan birds seek out one another
A. Natural Selection to make babies together and tend to avoid
the green toucan birds.
B. Gene Flow
A. Genetic Drift
C. Genetic Drift
D. none of above
C. Gene flow
387. Engineers can rapidly test a variety of D. Mutation
new designs by simulating natural selec-
tion in a computer model, allowing “sur- 392. Temporal isolation occurs when two dif-
vivors” to “reproduce, “ and 3D printing ferent populations
and testing their designs. What is this A. develop different mating behaviors
method called?
B. become geographically separated
A. Technical selection
C. reproduce at different times
B. Digital selection
D. interbreed
C. Genetic algorithm
D. Evolutionary math 393. when unrelated species evolve similar
traits even though they live in different
388. When animals with varied traits repro- parts of the world. This occurs in envi-
duce sexually, chromosomes are crossed ronments that are geographically far apart
over in prophase I which creates new al- but that have similar ecology and climate
leles, this mechanism of evolution is A. divergent evolution
A. mutation B. coevolution
B. gene flow C. convergent evolution
C. genetic recombination D. none of above
D. none of above
394. A population of frogs is separated into
389. Which is NOT an assumption of Hardy- two smaller populations by a new road
Weinberg? that is built through their forest habitat.
The gene frequencies of each new pop-
A. natural selection ulation are different than the gene fre-
B. large populations quencies in the original population. Which

mechanism of evolution has occurred in 399. Which combination of characteristics in a

this example? population would provide the greatest po-
tential for evolutionary change?

B. Mutation A. Small population, low mutations rates
C. Gene Flow B. Large population, low mutation rates
D. Genetic Drift C. Small population, high mutation rates
395. A small number of birds, blown off course D. Large population, high mutation rates
during migration, find an island and colo-
nize it. This population will most likely ex- 400. The fossil record helps to show that or-
perience genetic drift as a result of the ganisms
A. Founder effect
A. have remained exactly the same over
B. Bottleneck effect time
C. Sexual selection B. have changed (evolved) over time
D. Mutation
C. have become extinct over time
396. The allele frequency of p=.20 What is
D. have changed very little over time
the percentage of Heterozygous Dominant
genotype?
401. How are new traits introduced into a pop-
A. .80 ulation?
B. .04
A. Photosynthesis
C. .32
B. Cell Membrane
D. .64
C. Turtles
397. Wolves from the Arizona mesa were
transferred to the Colorado Rockies after D. Mutations
a forest fire destroyed their habitat. They
quickly became part of the local pack and 402. When organisms selects their mates
had offspring. based on traits-ex. bright coloring,
feather size, and sounds
A. Mutation
B. Natural Selection A. Natural Selection
C. Genetic Drift B. Inbreeding
D. Gene Flow C. Gene Flow
398. If a population has the following geno- D. Non-random Mating
type frequencies:AA = 0.42, Aa = 0.46,
and aa = 0.12, what are the allele frequen- 403. When is Mrs. Motycka’s birthday?
cies?
A. November 11
A. A = 0.42, a = 0.12
B. November 12
B. A = 0.6, a = 0.4
C. A = 0.65, a = 0.35 C. November 13
D. A = 0.84, a = 0.24 D. November 14

404. Zoos frequently exchange animals for A. Thumbs up (Natural Selection)

breeding purposes, rather than always B. Middle finger (Mutation)
mating animals with animals from the
same zoo. Which natural mechanism of C. Pointer finger (Gene Flow)
evolution does this artificial practice most D. PInky finger (Genetic Drift)
closely resemble?
409. Babies that are born too small can lose
A. Natural Selection heat too easily and may die, whereas ba-
B. Mutation bies being born too large can lead to com-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
plications during childbirth and the death
C. Gene Flow
of the mother or the baby. What type of
D. Genetic Drift selection is this an example of?
405. What is the change in allele frequencies A. directional
in a population known as? B. distributive
A. Selective breeding C. stabilizing
B. Natural selection D. none of above
C. Evolution 410. The allele frequency of p=.20 What is q?
D. Random mating A. .80
406. Some insects encounter a pesticide. Most B. .04
of the insects die but a few have a pesti- C. .32
cide resistance in their DNA. These insects D. .64
pass on this genetic resistance to their off-
spring so that the new generation will be 411. Change that occurs over time:
immune to the pesticide. What is this ran- A. Analogous
dom change in DNA called? B. Homologous
A. bottleneck C. Evolution
B. geographical isolation D. Biogeography
C. a mutation
412. Which of the following sets the stage for
D. genetic drift speciation?
407. The equation for allele frequencies in a A. cross breeding of dogs
population: B. islands in the Caribbean
A. p + 2pq = 1 C. phylogenetic trees
B. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 D. reproductive isolation
C. p-q = 1 413. This scientist finally disproved sponta-
D. p + q = 1 neous generation by using his swan-
necked flask
E. 2p2 + pq + 2q2 = 1
A. Louis Pasteur
408. The chimpanzees have developed an abil- B. Charles Darwin
ity to use simple tools, thanks to their op-
posable thumb. This has allowed them to C. Alfred Wallace
thrive in their habitat. D. Jean Baptiste

414. A bird’s wing and a bat’s wing are an ex- C. Gene Flow
ample of which of the following?
D. Mutation

A. sympatric speciation
B. analogy through convergent evolution 419. Binomial Nomenclature is a system used
to give an organism a two-part scientific
C. homology through convergent evolu- name. This system uses the two most spe-
tion cific taxa. What two taxa make up the sci-
D. homology entific name in Binomial Nomenclature?
415. Some female peacocks prefer males with A. Family & Species
large, colorful tales while other female B. Domain & Phylum
peacocks prefer males with no tail at all.
Females are beginning to only mate with C. Class & Order
the type of males with the tail they pre- D. Genus & Species
fer. What type of isolation is this?
A. Behavioral isolation 420. This is the process that ultimately creates
new variations and changes in DNA; leads
B. Geographic isolation
to the creation of new alleles
C. Temporal isolation
A. Mutation
D. none of above
B. Microevolution
416. During gestation (pregnancy), a develop-
ing male pig had a change in its genetic C. Natural selection
code. The result was that he could walk D. Gene flow / genetic drift
and practice karate.
A. Genetic Drift 421. When organisms look similar yet are
very different.
A. cryptic species
C. Mutation
D. Natural Selection B. specialization
C. mimicry
417. what is selective breeding.
D. none of above
A. big b
B. selecting a species to breed with 422. In a forest a large fire broke out that
C. picking a species to eat. destroyed much of the area. There were
2 large populations of rabbits, one with
D. none of above
brown fur and the other with white fur.
418. In a habitat there are red bugs and green After the fire there were hardly any of the
bugs. The birds prefer the taste of the red rabbits with white fur left. What mecha-
bugs, so soon there are many green bugs nism of evolution is at work here?
and few red bugs. The green bugs repro- A. Natural Selection
duce and make more green bugs and even-
tually there are no more red bugs B. Gene Flow
A. Genetic Drift C. Genetic Drift
B. Natural Selection D. none of above

423. is the inability of a species to mate with A. Competition

a related species. B. Extinction
C. Speciation
D. Fossils form
C. postzygotic isolation
D. none of above 428. When organisms migrate between popu-
lations introducing new alleles, it is called-
424. There are 2 herds of Caribou in North-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. gene flow
western Montana, one male Caribou
strays from one herd to mate with a fe- B. genetic drift
male in the other herd. What mechanism C. recombination
of evolution is this?
D. mutations
B. Gene Flow 429. Does genetic drift decrease genetic diver-
C. Genetic Drift sity?
D. none of above A. No, because you are gaining alleles

B. No, because new traits are formed
425. Mr. Brown gets a new flu vaccine every
year because C. Yes, because you lose alleles
A. The vaccines wear off and the immu- D. Yes, because you gain alleles
nity is lost.
430. A involves a change in the genetic
B. Influenza evolves rapidly into novel
code of an organism. Because this change
strains.
occurs in the genetic code, it is passed on
C. Each flu shot protects one from getting to future generations.
sick only once.
A. Morphology
D. One runs out of antibodies after a year
and need to produce more. B. Mutation
C. Gene Flow
426. bursts of change followed by periods of
stability D. Genetic Drift
A. speciation 431. The genitalia of the male damselfly
B. extinction varies in shape. Certain males can only
C. gradualism hold onto & mate with females whose gen-
italia fit. What type of reproductive bar-
D. punctuated equilibrium rier is this?
E. coevolution
A. behavioral isolation
427. If a population becomes isolated from B. temporal isolation
other populations of the same species and
then genetic differences start to occur, C. gametic isolation
what happens? D. mechanical isolation

8. Human Health and Disease
8.1 Common Diseases in Human Beings

1. breaks down protein into polypep- 5. DDT is in the environment. This
tides. means it doesn’t break down/decompose,
A. Salivary amylase instead it lasts a long time.
B. Protease A. persistent
C. Lipase B. synergistic
D. none of above C. acute
2. Cellulose is a type of D. threshold

A. carbohydrate 6. Ticks and mosquitos can be vectors for dis-
B. protein eases. In both cases, these organisms ac-
quire the disease-causing organism by
C. fat
D. fibre A. feeding on a host animal
B. a random mutation that is more com-
3. Ways to prevent infectious disease that mon in small organisms
caused by vector
C. breeding in areas that are very humid
A. Avoid crowd places
D. all of these
B. Conducting vector control
C. Sanitize our hands 7. Asbestos has been shown to have a higher
D. Avoid personal sharing correlation with cancer when someone
smokes cigarettes as well. This is because
4. Infectious diseases can be spread by
A. both substances are teratogens
A. contaminated water
B. the synergistic effect that results from
B. human contact exposure to both at the same time
C. animals C. Asbestos is a carcinogen and tobacco
D. all the above is an endocrine disrupter

8.1 Common Diseases in Human Beings 846
D. the risk-taking behavior of the individ- 13. A global outbreak of an infectious disease
ual exposed is called a or an
A. epidemic
a social hazard that cannot easily be con- B. endemic
trolled? a. smoking cigarettes c. lack of C. pandemic
exercise
D. outbreak
A. smoking cigarettes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
14. Which of the following immunities is ob-
B. pollution from a factory near your
tained through antiserum injections?
school
A. Natural active immunity
C. lack of exercise
B. Artificial active immunity
D. a high-fat diet
C. Natural passive immunity
9. Lack of vitamin C will lead to D. Artificial passive immunity
A. night blindness
15. What is a genetically modified organism?
B. Scurvy
A. any process in which scientists directly
C. Beri-beri manipulate an organism’s DNA.
D. Rickets B. Organisms that have undergone ge-
netic engineering.
10. Vaccines are most often associated with
this pathogen. C. the use of genetic engineering to in-
troduce new genes into organisms to pro-
A. Virus duce more valuable products.
B. Bacteria D. agriculture that does not deplete soil
C. Fungus faster than it forms
D. none of above 16. In the United States, medical data cur-

rently shows a steep rise in the number
11. Which way a pathogen can enter the of people with diabetes.
body?
A. Mutagen
A. Nose
B. Epidemic
B. Injured skin
C. Physical Hazard
C. Mouth D. Pandemic
D. All of the above E. Non-Transmissible disease
12. Disease that can be transmitted from one 17. This disease can be transmitted through
individual to other individual is called blood and sexual fluids.
A. non-infectious disease A. smallpox
B. infectious disease B. cholera
C. genetic disease C. HIV
D. sporadic disease D. malaria

18. Which pathogen needs a host cell to repro- spread of infectious disease include all of
duce? the following EXCEPT

A. virus A. monthly country-wide spraying of DDT
B. bacteria B. widespread use of vaccines
C. fungus C. providing access to latrines and safe
drinking
D. parasite
D. availably of rehydration packets
19. Which of the following is a substance E. use of bed nets
usually prepared from killed or weaken
pathogens? 24. How does human acquires malaria?
A. White blood cells A. Ingestion of contaminated food
B. Antibodies B. Biting of vector
C. Lymph C. Swimming in infected lake
D. Vaccines D. Use homemade solution for contact
lense
20. The process of measuring the chance that
an environmental hazard will cause harm 25. Toxicology deals primarily with what
is called types of hazards?
A. toxicology A. biological and social
B. epidemiology B. both chemical and physical
C. a dose-response relationship C. human-made
D. risk assessment D. natural disasters
26. Which of the following is not considered to

21. Airborne disease can be prevented by prac-
be a biological hazard?
tising the following, except
A. flu virus
A. cover nose and mouth when sneezing
or cough. B. pet dander
B. wash your hand with water only C. cigarette smoke
C. avoid being in crowded places D. bacterium that causes strep throat
D. avoid handshake 27. is important to prevent constipation.
22. The category of chemicals that effects the A. Carbohydrate

central nervous system is B. Fat
A. neurotoxins C. Protein
B. teratogens D. Fibre
C. carcinogens 28. A patient suffering from a disease shows
D. endocrine disrupters the following symptoms:sustained high
fever (39-40 degree celcius), intestinal
23. The means by which the World Health bleeding, red rashes, headache and loss of
Organization has worked to reduce the appetite. Identify the disease.

A. Typhoid C. Malaria
B. Pneumonia D. Common cold
C. Malaria 33. Why we need second dose of vaccination
D. Ascariasis A. To boost the production of antibody
above the immunity level
29. What is the meaning of antigen?
B. To waste government money
A. ability of the body system to resist
C. To become taller
NARAYAN CHANGDER
pathogens before it is infected
B. protein produced by white blood cells D. To make body weaken by weakened
into the bloodstream pathogen
C. foreign substance that come from out- 34. Bile fat into small droplets.
side the body and induces the production A. emulsifies
of antibodies
B. digests
D. an animal that transmit pathogen C. breaks down
30. LD-50 shows D. none of above
A. the dose that kills 50 % of a test popu- 35. Since PCBs may cause birth defects in a hu-
lation man fetus, they are classified asI. Carcino-
B. the dose at which 50 % of a population gensII. MutagensIII. Tetatogens
displays negative health effects A. I only
C. the dose at which the first individual in B. II only
a population dies from exposure
C. III only
D. the dose that causes 50% of the popu- D. I and II only
lation to become extinct
E. I, II, and III
31. Viruses bacteria, and other organisms in
36. In 1918 a virus called the Spanish Flu
the environment that harm human health
spread rapidly around the globe; within a
are classified as
few months, it killed 20-50 million people
A. biological hazards
A. Epidemic
B. social hazards
B. Pandemic
C. chemical hazard C. Non-transmissable disease
D. physical hazard D. Physical Hazard
32. While discussing a particular disease, the E. Mutagen
teacher described the following symp-
37. Which one is NOT a reason why infectious
toms found in a patient:fluid filled alve-
diseases are less of a threat in developed
oli, fever, chills, cough, headache, lips and
nations?
finger nails turning bluish. Which one of
the following diseases should the student A. Better sanitation (clean)
chose? B. Access to medicine
A. Pneumonia C. They are smarter
B. Typhoid D. none of above

38. How many type of disease? 43. Some mercury that we are exposed to
comes from natural sources, but most
A. 1
comes from anthropogenic sources, in par-

B. 2 ticular from
C. 3 A. automobile exhaust
D. 4 B. coal-burning power plants
C. old paint in homes
39. Which animal causes Leptospirosis dis-
ease? D. runoff from livestock waste
A. Elephant 44. An emerging diseases is a disease that:Is

spreading
B. Giraffe
A. Around the world
C. Rat
B. Around the region
D. Hamster
C. Around the district
40. Infectious diseases are diseases caused by D. Around the biome
an organism such as a virus or a bacterium,
which is called a: 45. Which of the following is disease that is
not infectious?
A. pathogen
A. Tinea
B. toxicant
B. Tuberculosis
C. pandemic
C. Dengue fever
D. carcinogen D. cancer
41. Which of the following types of people 46. Which of the fowling is NOT a method
generally has a greater sensitivity to en- of controlling or preventing mercury pollu-
vironmental hazards than the other types tion?
of people?
A. Phase out waste incineration
A. teenager B. Switch from natural gas to coal burn-
B. adult ing power plants
C. infant C. Collect and recycle batteries
D. none; all have equal sensitivity D. Label products containing mercury
E. Enact laws limiting the amount of mer-
42. These chemical hazards are known to cury released from power plants
cause cancer in humans.I. CarcinogensII.
MutagensIII. Tetatogens 47. A person’s age, sex, weight, health issues,
and genetic makeup influence how he or
A. I only she responds to
B. II only A. risk assessment
C. III only B. natural disasters
D. I and II C. antibiotic resistance
E. II and III D. environmental hazards

48. Which mosquito drinks blood? 53. What is NOT symptoms of Dengue fever?
A. female A. Vomiting
B. male B. High fever
C. both male and female C. Nose bleeding

D. Muscle pain
D. mosquitoes don’t drink blood
54. A(n) disease is a disease that has
49. Study the statements about Filariasis /
NARAYAN CHANGDER
appeared in the human population for
Elephantiasis. Find the incorrect state- the first time or that has existed for a
ment. while, but is increasing rapidly or spread-
A. Elephantiasis is common name of Lym- ing around the world.
phatic Filariasis A. environmental
B. It is caused by a nematode B. pandemic
C. The disease is transmitted by house C. emerging
flies D. infectious
D. Infection usually occurs in childhood
and remains asymptomic 55. Infectious diseases are diseases caused by
a , such as a virus or a bacterium.
50. Infectious disease are spread by (i) , A. pathogen
transmitted by infected person called (ii) B. toxicant
C. pandemic
A. pathogens, vector
D. carcinogen
B. vector, pathogens
56. Which one is NOT a reason why emerging
C. pathogen, host
diseases are particularly dangerous to hu-
D. host, medium mans?
A. Humans have little to no resistance to
51. This disease is spread through the bac-
them
terium Vibrio cholerae .
B. Methods of controlling emerging dis-
A. smallpox eases have not been invented yet
B. malaria C. Humans catch diseases faster than an-
C. cholera imals
D. HIV D. none of above
57. Sars-Cov2 virus that lead to Covid19 dis-

52. The study of disease in human populations
ease is example of (i) disease that
is
transmitted through (ii) transmission.
A. epidemiology A. (i) waterborne (ii) water
B. toxicology B. (i) touch (ii) parasite
C. a dose-response relationship C. (i) airborne (ii) droplet
D. risk assessment D. none of above

58. Why live pathogens cannot be used to E. Increased global travel

make vaccine?
63. What is the name for the measure of how

A. It is very difficult to obtain live harmful a substance is?
pathogen
A. toxicity
B. Live pathogen is easily dead
B. response
C. Live pathogen will replicate in human
body C. dose
D. Live pathogen more expensive D. biomagnification
59. Which of the following is a neurotoxin? 64. ‘’ The organisms that can cause disease’ is
called
A. Asbestos
A. bacteria
B. Thalidomide
B. pathogen
C. Mercury
C. probiotic
D. DDT
D. biosome
60. Which of the following is a part of risk as-
sessment? 65. Example disease that can help to prevent
A. Comparative risk analysis of other when we get the Natural Active Immunity
risks is
B. Determining the financial cost of re- A. polio

ducing the risk B. fever
C. Evaluating the quantity of risk reduc- C. Rubella
tion needed. D. mumps
D. Assessing the probability of risk.
66. A child shows symptoms of lead toxic-
E. Developing a strategy for reducing risk
ity, which is linked to lead based paint on
61. Which of the following is NOT a carcino- found on the bedroom walls. This type of
gen? poisoning would be considered
A. asbestos A. Acute
B. formaldehyde B. Synergism
C. radon C. Chronic
D. BPA D. Antagonism
62. Which of the following has not affected 67. What happen to the host when infected by
the recent resurgence of tuberculosis? pathogens?
A. Improved testing/screening in devel- A. show symptom of the disease like
oping countries cough, fever, cold etc.
B. Urbanization B. gain extra energy and power
C. Genetic resistance of the bacterium C. do not show any sign of body deterio-
D. Increased population growth in devel- ration
oping countries D. none of above

68. Which of the following is an infectious dis- A. Centers for Diseases Control and Pre-
eases? vention (CDC)
A. Cancer B. Environmental Protection Agency
(EPA)
B. Diabetes
C. World Health Organization (WHO)
C. Flu
D. Federal Emergency Management
D. Asthma
Agency (FEMA)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
69. Any substance that poses a chemical haz- 74. What do antibiotics cure?
ard is considered a(n)
A. bacteria
A. pathogen
B. virus
B. carcinogen
C. parasite
C. allergen
D. fungus
D. toxican
75. A colorless, toxic, radioactive gas is
70. What do asbestos, radon, volatile organic
A. asbestos
compounds, carbon monoxide, and lead all
have in common? B. radon
A. They are chemical hazardsthat can be C. carbon monoxide
found indoors. D. lead
B. They are highly dangerouscarcinogens 76. BPA has been shown to reduce the amount
C. Exposure to them cannot beprevented. of testosterone in males of some species.
D. They are unnatural and madeonly by BPA can be classified as a(n)
humans. A. carcinogen
B. teratogen
71. Following are the causes that weaken the
immune system except C. endocrine disruptor
A. Stress D. mutagen
B. Exposure to polluted air 77. Which of the following is a non-
C. Exposure to pesticides transmissible disease?
D. Healthy diet A. tuberculosis
B. measles
72. Lack of iodine will lead to
C. HIV
A. Goiter
D. diabetes
B. Osteoporosis
78. Which of the following best describes an
C. Anaemia
exposure threshold for a toxic chemical?
D. Rickets
A. The dose that is tolerable for all test
73. In the the United States, which agency subjects
takes the lead for responding to emerging B. The dose at which the test subject be-
diseases? gins to show harmful effects

C. The dose at which 50% of a test popu- 84. is used to synthesise enzymes, hor-
lation dies mones and antibodies.

D. The dose that a test subject can toler- A. Protein
ate
B. Carbohydrate
E. the dose at which infants die.
C. Fat
79. What are chemicals that cause cancer D. none of above
called?
A. carcinogen 85. The process happened in the second line of
defense called
B. hazard
C. teratogen A. Photosynthesis
D. neurotoxin B. Respiratosis
C. Phagocytosis
80. Which food class provide the highest en-
ergy value? D. Skin Analysis
A. Carbohydtare
86. An emerging diseases is a disease
B. Protein that:Has appeared in the human popula-
C. Fat tion for the time.
D. Vitamin A. 1st
B. 2nd
81. Chemicals called cause cancer.
A. carcinogen C. 3rd
B. pathogen D. 4th
C. neurotoxin 87. Which one is the correct statement for pas-

D. teratogen sive natural immunity?
A. temporary and short-lived
82. “Cholera, Typhoid, Amoebic dysentery”is
the common disease that transmitted B. fast and temporary
through
C. occurs when a person recovers from
A. air an infection
B. touch D. occurs when a vaccine is injected into
C. vector the body
D. water
88. Lead poisoning affects which of the follow-
83. What is a vector? ing systems the most?
A. pathogen A. respiratory
B. organism that carries pathogen B. circulatory

C. type of infectious disease C. nervous
D. type of emerging disease D. integumentary

89. The people of the Caribbean often suffer 94. is stored under the skin as a heat insu-
from the devastating effects of hurricanes lator.
and tropical storms A. Carbohydrate
A. Epidemic B. Fat
B. Pandemic C. Protein
C. Non-transmissible disease D. none of above
D. Physical Hazard
NARAYAN CHANGDER
95. DDT, PCB’s, BPA and phthalates are all ex-
E. Mutagen amples of
A. insecticides
90. Which one is NOT a mechanisms by which
infectious diseases are transmitted? B. hormonally active agents
A. Humans C. plastic additives
B. Water and Food D. all of these
C. Organisms 96. What will cause the WBC in the body to

slightly increase
D. Weather
A. When we exposed to sunlight for few
91. Which of the following diseases is incor- hours
rectly paired with its type of organism? B. When we consume high amount of salt
A. Virus-HIV C. When there is virus infection in the
B. Bacteria-Severe Acute Respiratory body
Syndrome D. When we are exposed to pesticide
C. Fungi-Ringworm
97. Effects of not taking immunization injec-
D. Protozoan-Malaria tion from various aspect, except
E. Virus-Ebola A. Human capital
B. Repetition of controlled dieases
92. Pancreatic juice contains the following, EX-
CEPT C. Quality of work affected
A. lipase D. Reduce the death rate
B. pancreatic amylase 98. A toxin, such as DDT, builds up in the fatty

tissue of an organism. This is referred to
C. protease
as
D. salivary amylase
A. biomagnification
93. Following are the causes that weaken the B. bioaccumulation
immune system EXCEPT C. synergism
A. Stress D. dose-response
B. Exposure to polluted air
99. What is the meaning of disease
C. Exposure to pesticides
A. An illness that cause by toxic chemical
D. Healthy diet expose by our body.

B. Abnormal condition on body and mind C. can be 100% avoided with some
that cause discomfort. simple measures.

C. Normal condition by body react to cer- D. none of above
tain foreign substance
105. Animal that transmit pathogen from one
D. none of above host to another is called
100. What caused the cholera outbreak? A. species
A. Unhealthy Food B. vector
B. Obesity C. predator
C. Poor sanitation D. prey
D. Contaminated water 106. Lacteal in the villi absorbs
101. Which of the following is not the end A. glucose
product of digestion? B. Vitamin B
A. fatty acids C. fatty acids
B. starch D. amino acids
C. amino acids
107. A large ocean wave often created by an
D. glucose ocean floor earthquake is a (an)
102. Which list is made up of toxic metal pol- A. avalanche
lutants? B. tornado
A. PCB, BPA, mercury, & potassium C. tsunami
B. cadmium, arsenic, lead, & mercury D. mudslide
C. DDT, cadmium, lead, potassium, & BPA
108. The process through which pollutants get
D. argon, neon, chromium, & mercury increasingly more concentrated at each
step up the food chain is
103. Developing countries might show higher
rates of all of the following except A. biomagnification
A. unsafe drinking water B. anaphylaxis
B. indoor air pollution effects C. toxicity
C. under and malnutrition D. bioaccumulation
D. high blood pressure and obesity 109. is needed to speed up the blood-
clotting
104. Indoor environmental pollution
A. Vitamin A
A. is not as dangerous as outdoor pol-
lution. B. Vitamin B
B. can be worse than outdoor pollu- C. Vitamin E

tion. D. Vitamin K

8.2 Types of Immunity and the Immune System 856
8.2 Types of Immunity and the Immune System

1. What is inside an antiserum? D. Macrophages invade your lymphatic
A. Specific antibodies system and shield you from ever falling
sick
B. Weakened pathogen
C. Blood plasma 6. A process that stimulate immunity against
a specific disease through vaccine injec-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Lymphocytes cell
tions.
2. Why does active immunity remains for a A. Immunisation
long period of time?
B. Antibodies
A. Due to prolong injection of antibodies
into human body C. Memory cells
B. The presence of phagocytes to engulf D. Mother’s antibodies

the pathogens
7. To protect oneself from being infected by a
C. Increase in mast cells that help pro- highly infectious disease, an individual cna
duce histamine be immunised against the disease.
D. Production of memory B cells that in-
crease antibodies
B. Artificial active immunity
3. Breastfeeding is how a baby will acquire
a C. Natural passive immunity
A. Natural active immunity D. Artificial passive immunity
B. Natural passive immunity 8. Active immunity is when

C. Artificial active immunity A. Lymphocyte produce their own anti-
D. Artificial passive immunity bodies
4. Similarity between active and passive im- B. Antibodies is being administered into
munity? human body
A. Both are prevented by the antigens C. You are immune to any type of disease
B. Both types of immunity involve lympho- D. Macrophages invade your lymphatic
cytes system and shield you from ever falling
sick
C. Both can be natural and artificial
D. Both active and passive immunity are 9. When someone is infected by pathogens,
NOT acquired immunities lymphocytes will produce antibodies as a
response to these antigens.
5. Passive immunity is when
A. You produce your own antibodies to a
disease B. Artificial active immunity
B. You are immune to any type of disease C. Natural passive immunity
C. You are given antibodies to a disease D. Artificial passive immunity

8.3 HIV and AIDS 857
10. What are the 2 types of immunity? 13. immunity in which antibodies are given to
A. Artificial a person rather than produced within the
person’s own body

B. Passive
C. Active A. Artificial Passive Immunity
D. Natural B. Artificial Active Immunity
11. Vaccine is an example of C. Natural Passive Immunity

A. Natural active immunity D. Natural active Immunity
B. Natural passive immunity
14. A secondary immune response will be
C. Artificial active immunity faster when
D. Artificial passive immunity A. The individual has encountered the
12. Acquired by foetus whne then mothers’ an- pathogen already
tibodies diffuse through the placenta into B. The individual’s macrophages are on
ht eblood flow of the foetus. high alert
A. artificial passive immunity C. The individual has encountered the
B. natural passive immunity pathogen and has memory B cells circulat-
C. artificial active immunity ing
D. natural active immunity D. Antibodies are produced by T cells
8.3 HIV and AIDS

1. DO INDIVIDUALS WHO HAVE HIV/AIDS C. Meningitis
HAVE WEAK BODY RESISTANCE AND ARE
D. Cyanosis
EASY TO INFECT THE DISEASE?
A. OF 4. Once inside the body, HIV enters and
B. NO reproduces
C. DON’T KNOW A. T cells
D. none of above B. B cells
2. HIV TRANSMISSION THROUGH KEY C. C cells
WAYS
D. G cells
A. 2
B. 3 5. virus that infects and kills cells, weakening
C. 4 the body’s immune system; leads to AIDS
D. 5 A. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
3. What are the manifestations of HIV in or- B. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

gans? (AIDS)
A. Herpes simplex C. HIV-positive

B. Candidiasis D. opportunistic infections

6. The risk of being infected with HIV AIDS, 11. AIDS is caused by
among others, can be through the follow-
A. the human imunodeficiency virus, or
ing, except
VIH
A. promiscuous lifestyle
B. the human immunodeficiency virus, or
B. sharing needles HIV
C. washing hands with people with HIV C. infected fluids
AIDS
D. sex
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. infection of the fetus in the womb of a
person with HIV AIDS 12. How to prevent contracting HIV?
7. Where was the HIV virus identified? A. Not having pre-marital sex
A. France B. Not changing partners
B. Italy C. Stay away from drugs and sharing nee-
C. Philadelphia dles
D. California D. The use of condoms during sexual in-
tercourse is risky
8. If your body has fewer T cells than it
should, what might happen? Choose the E. All true
best answer.
13. How often does someone get diagnosed
A. You’ll be well protected from getting with HIV/AIDS in the US?
sick
A. 30 minutes
B. P cells will step up and perform the
function of the missing T cells B. 13.5 minutes
C. your red blood cell count will go up C. 9.5 minutes
D. Pathogens can invade your body more D. 2 hours
easily
14. In what year were the most victims in the
9. The correct posture when doing a Front United States?
Roll is body position
A. 1980
A. straightened out
B. 1985
B. laid down
C. 1990
C. tilted
D. 1970
D. rounded
10. What is the purpose of VCT? 15. The virus must be present in sufficient
numbers to transmit HIV
A. Become an assistant or nurse for an
HIV person A. Enter
B. Helps to find out a person’s HIV status B. Exit
C. Volunteer for someone’s HIV C. Sufficient
D. Help prevent one’s HIV D. Survive

16. Be Faithfully adalah 20. Compared to 20 years ago, today, people

with AIDS:
A. Saling setia hanya pada satu pasangan

A. are living longer; healthier lives
B. Cari informasi yang benar sebanyak
mungkin B. have a worse chance of survival
C. Tidak melakukan hubungan seks sam- C. have fewer effective treatment op-
pai siap menikah/mental, fisik, dan sosial tions available
terutama remaja D. have about the same chance of sur-
vival
D. Tidak menggunakan jarum suntik se-
cara bergantian dan tidak menggunakan 21. What often happens to the children of
NARKOBA those infected with HIV/AIDS?
A. They are also infected.
17. What does HIV positive mean?
B. Many of these children become or-
A. The presence of antibodies against
phans.
HIV in the blood
C. AIDS never infects the children of
B. When the number of white cells is at a adult victims.
high rate.
D. All these children are taken care of by
C. When you were tested for HIV the state government.
D. none of above 22. Which fluid can spread the aids virus?
18. In general, the entry of the HIV virus into A. saliva
our bodies through three ways namely B. semen
A. Blood Fluids, Sperm Fluids and Breast- C. urine
feeding Mothers D. vomit
B. Blood, vaginal fluids and breastfeed-
23. Which stands for IMS namely
ing mothers
A. One-time infection
C. Liquid Blood, Liquid Sperm and nar-
cotics users B. Injection massive screen
C. Sexually transmitted infection
D. Blood Fluid, Sperm Fluid and vaginal
fluid D. Invation meaning sex
E. vaginal discharge, risky sexual behav- 24. Who is at risk of getting HIV?
ior and blood donation
A. Injection drug addicts
19. I CAN KNOW SOMEONE IS INFECTED B. Free sex
WITH HIV/AIDS BY THEIR PHYSICAL CON- C. Whore
DITION
D. all of the above
A. OF
25. One of the physical impacts of HIV and
B. NO AIDS is?
C. DON’T KNOW A. Susceptible to bacteria
D. none of above B. More resistant to bacteria

C. There are no significant physical symp- 30. What percentage of Kenyan children at-
toms tends elementary school?
D. Getting slimmer A. 55%
B. 65%
26. What sort of political conflict led to famine
in the African country of Angola? C. 75%
A. civil war D. 85%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. high taxes 31. The AIDS virus weakens your immune sys-
tem by destroying your
C. king was overthrown
A. White blood cells
D. British trying to regain control
B. red blood red blood cells
27. Transmission of HIV AIDS can occur C. “B” Cells
through the following, except
D. “T” Cells
A. sexual intercourse with multiple part-
ners 32. AIDS is the abbreviation for?
B. needles used by people with HIV/AIDS A. Acquired Immunedeficiency Syndrome
C. use a public toilet B. Active Immunedeficiency Syndrome

C. Acquired Immune Distorsy Syndrome
D. HIV-AIDS infected mother’s milk is
transmitted to her baby D. After Immunediciency Syndrome
28. One of the consequences of AIDS that at- 33. THE FIRST CONTINUE TO SUFFER WITH
tacks the penis is HIV/AIDS IS
A. Can’t pee at all A. AMERICA

B. AFRICA
B. Difficulty urinating
C. EUROPE
C. Kidney stone
D. ASIA
D. Purulent urine
E. Yellow urine 34. CAN SOMEONE PREVENT HIV INFECTION
BY THE FOLLOWING WAYS EXCEPT?
29. There are several ways for us as humans A. HAVE SEX WITH ONE PARTNER ONLY
to avoid the dangers of HIV Aids, namely
B. ALWAYS USE A CONDOM CORRECTLY
with systems A, B, C, D and E. One of these
WHEN HAVING SEX
systems invites us to be loyal to our part-
ners until death do us part. which system C. USING FEMIDOM (WOMEN CON-
is this DOMS)
A. Abstinence D. EXPOSED TO OTHER INDIVIDUAL
BODY FLUIDS SUCH AS BLOOD, SEMEN
B. Be faithful AND SALIVA
C. Condom
35. Urutan prinsip penularan HIV yaitu:Enter
D. Drugs (1)Exit (2)Sufficient (3)Survive(4)
E. Education A. 1-2-3-4

B. 1-4-3-2 41. AIDS stands for

C. 2-4-3-1 A. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syn-

D. 4-3-2-1 drome
B. Accepted Immuno Deficiency Syn-
36. Which of the following is the most domi-
drome
nant fast affected by the HIV / AIDS virus
C. Acquired Immuno Deritive Syndrome
A. Pregnant mother D. Accepted Immuno Deritive Syndrome
B. Syringe
42. After knowing what HIV stands for, of
C. Kiss course people are expected to also know
D. Hug the meaning of what HIV stands for
A. A virus that attacks human blood
37. WHAT IS A RAPID TEST?
B. A virus that attacks the human immune
A. TAKES CHEEK CELLS TO SEE IF YOU
system
ARE HIV POSITIVE
B. TAKES URINE TO SEE IF YOU ARE HIV C. viruses that cause death in humans
POSITIVE D. virus that infects the human respira-
C. TAKES BLOOD TO SEE IF YOU ARE HIV tory system
POSITIVE E. a virus that infects the human diges-
D. none of above tive system
38. Mode of Transmission of HIV, except 43. In general, HIV/AIDS can be transmitted
through
A. Blood transfusion
B. Sexual intercourse A. 3 cara
C. BUT B. 1 cara
D. kissing C. 2 cara
D. 4 cara
39. Which of the following transmits HIV?
A. Sneezing or coughing 44. What does STD mean?
B. Bite of infected mosquito A. Sexually transmitted disease
C. Using public restrooms or swimming B. The doctor of a special treatment
pools
C. Neither of the two
D. Blood transfusion
D. none of above
40. How can HIV/AIDS prevention be correct
in terms of knowledge? 45. Which of the following is the most appro-
priate acronym for HIV?
A. Learn how HIV spreads
A. Human Immune Virus
B. Do not share needles or syringes with
other people B. Health Immune Virus
C. have safe sex C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
D. Have good social relations D. Health Immunodeficiency Virus

46. The following are behaviors that increase B. Literacy rates for boys are higher.
the potential for HIV exposure, EXCEPT
C. There is no difference in literacy rates.
D. Literacy rates are not reported by gen-
A. Promiscuity
der.
B. Use of Syringes
C. Use of Disinfectants 52. World AIDS Day is celebrated on
D. Drug use A. December 1st
NARAYAN CHANGDER
47. Abstinence is B. 17 September
A. Loyal to only one partner C. December 31st

B. In sexually active partners, use a con- D. 31 July
dom
53. How does HIV interact with T cells?
C. Do not have sex until ready to marry
mentally, physically and socially, espe- A. it bypasses the T cells and begins re-
cially teenagers producing in the bloodstream
D. Do not share needles and do not use B. it directly attacks the T cells
DRUGS
C. it begins producing T cells of its own
48. What is the name of the Vice Manager of D. it disguises itself as a T cell
Sie VAT for the 2019-2020 period
A. Krisnia Puspa Partiwi 54. Tests to find out if someone has HIV,
namely by testing
B. Khana Lidya Monica
C. Henarani Claudia Erwan A. VCT
D. Siti Rachma Oktaviani B. CBT

C. Name of scan name
49. HIV/AIDS is an infectious disease that oc-
curs due to D. Heart sensitivity test
A. Man
55. What type of cell does HIV destroy?
B. Change partners
A. b-cells
C. Drugs
B. K-cells
D. Matched pair
C. T-cells
50. AIDS is an abbreviation of
D. G-cells
A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
B. Active Immune Deficiency Syndrome 56. Which of the following immune cells is the
main target of HIV?
C. Acquired Immune Distorsy Syndrome
D. After Immune Deficiency Syndrome A. CD8 T cells
B. CD4 T cells
51. How do the literacy rates for boys and
girls compare in these three countries? C. Macrophage
A. Literacy rates for girls are higher. D. Dendritic cells

57. What age group makes up 21% of HIV di- C. MENINGITIS

agnosis in the US? D. GONORRHEA

A. 65-75 year olds
63. What does Aids stand for?
B. 13-24 year olds
A. All incurable Diseases sis
C. 25-34 year olds
B. Animal invested device syndrome
D. 45-55 year olds
C. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syn-
58. HIV is transmitted through? drome
A. Tears D. Anger immune disease sources
B. Urine
64. Addictive substances are chemicals that
C. Sweat can cause
D. BUT A. dependency
59. What is the target of the Human Immun- B. strength
odeficiency Virus (HIV) C. pleasure
A. Organ Vital D. Perfection
B. Digestive system
E. Loss
C. Respiratory system
65. One of the tests below can be done to see
D. Immune System
whether we are infected with HIV or not,
60. In Malaysia, the first case of HIV infection except?
was reported in A. Rapid Test
A. 1985 B. ELISA
B. 1986 C. PCR
C. 1988 D. PCC
D. 1990
66. . The following are magical words used to
61. What does AIDS mean? facilitate understanding of HIV/AIDS pre-
A. ACQUIRED IMMUNE DEFEATED SYN- vention, except
DROME A. Abstinence
B. AUTO IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYN- B. Good time
DROME
C. Care to others
C. ACQUIRED IMMUNE DEFICIENCY SYN-
D. Education
DROME
D. AFTER IMMUNODEFICIENCY SYN- 67. Not including the principle of HIV transmis-
DROME sion?
A. Survive
62. DISEASE CAUSED FROM ‘SEXUALLY
TRANSMITTED INFECTION’ IS? B. Exit
A. DIPHTHERIA C. Coefficient
B. RUBELLA D. Enter

68. Which of the following enzymes is respon- C. Social

sible for converting the single-stranded vi- D. Spiritual
ral RNA into double-stranded DNA during
the HIV life cycle? 74. What is the literacy rate in Kenya?
A. Protease A. 25%
B. Integrase B. 85%
C. Reverse transcriptase C. 75%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. RNA polymerase D. 50%
69. Start the emergence of Candidiasis, Skin 75. Being HIV positive means
cancer, Neferopathy. Is the symptom that A. the HIV virus is in your bloodstream
appears at the stage?
B. you are going to get sick
A. 4
C. the HIV virus is in your saliva
B. 3
D. you’re immune system is broken down
C. 2
D. 1 76. Drugs used to treat HIV
A. will quickly eliminate the virus from the
70. The HIV virus can be transmitted through body.
the following media, except
B. prevent the virus from replicating.
A. Blood
C. are genetically engineered helper T
B. Ayer from me cells.
C. Sweat D. duplicate the body s immune system
D. none of above response.
71. What is HIV? 77. WHICH FLUID DOES NOT SPREAD HIV?
A. Virus A. BLOOD
B. Bacteria B. SALIVA
C. mushroom C. SEMEN
D. none of above D. VAGINAL FLUID
72. WHAT DOES THE “H” IN HIV STAND FOR? 78. CAN A BLOOD TEST DETERMINE THAT AN
A. HETERO INDIVIDUAL HAS HIV/AIDS?
B. HOMO A. OF
C. HUMAN B. SALAH
D. HELLO C. DON’T KNOW

D. none of above
73. Anxiety, depression, hyperactivity are
part of the impact of HIV and AIDS from 79. The HIV virus attacks and weakens this
the Aspect? system
A. Physique A. immune system
B. Psychological B. digestive system

C. circulatory system C. Bisexual

D. skeletal system D. Polyseksual

80. AIDS (Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syn- 85. How many stages are there before HIV be-
drome) is a group of disease symptoms comes AIDS?
caused by
A. 1
A. Virus HIV
B. 2
B. Virus varicella
C. 3
C. Polio virus
D. Virus influenza D. 4
81. After knowing what HIV stands for, of 86. IF YOU HAVE A PROBLEM OR QUESTION
course students are also expected to know ABOUT A STD, WHO WOULD YOU ASK
the meaning of what stands for HIV FOR HELP?
A. A virus that attacks human blood A. WIFE
B. viruses that cause death in humans B. FATHER
C. A virus that attacks the human immune C. MEDICAL OFFICER AT GOVERNMENT
system CLINIC
D. virus that infects the human respira- D. INTERNET
tory system
E. a virus that infects the human diges- 87. Which of the following is the fastest grow-
tive system ing group to be infected with HIV?
A. Elderly Adults
82. The following is not included in the STI,
namely B. Middle Age Adults
A. Syphilis C. Teens/Young Adults
B. Sinusitis D. Preteens
C. Gonorrhea
88. Symptoms of HIV infection include:
D. Chlamydia
A. Prolonged temperature over 1 month
83. The microorganisms that take advantage B. Fatigue and weakness
of the weakened immune system to attack
and cause other diseases are called? C. Rainier does not walk
A. Symbiotic microorganisms D. Wound on the inside of the mouth
B. saprophytic microorganisms 89. Activities of normal people to PLHIV that
C. Opportunistic microorganisms can cause transmission of HIV/AIDS are?
D. Latent microorganisms A. Touching
84. Not a sexual orientation? B. Sharing Syringes
A. Heterosexual C. hug
B. Homosexual D. kissing

90. Nicotine is a dangerous substance that can 95. Which of the following viruses causes hu-
be found in man immunodeficiency syndrome?
A. candy A. Bacteriophage
B. cigarette B. H5N1
C. potent drug C. HIV
D. liquor D. Virus of E. coli
E. soft drink
NARAYAN CHANGDER
96. The genetic material covered by the capsid
is called?
91. treatment for HIV/AIDS in which a cock-
tail of three drugs is given to interfere A. Bacteria
with HIV reproduction. B. Virus
A. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) C. Microbes
B. anti-retrieval therapy (ART) D. Germs
C. HIV-positive 97. Use of unsterile needles by users can cause
D. long-term non-progressors disease transmission.
A. Dengue fever
92. HOME PREVENTION MEASURES FOR
HIV? B. HIV/AIDS
A. USE YOUR NEEDLE, DO NOT SHOULD. C. Dysentery
B. SAFE SEX AND USE PROTECTION. D. Stomach
C. DO NOT inject drugs E. Infection
D. WHEN HAVING HIV, NEED TO THINK 98. What casual contact does NOT spread the
BEFORE HAVING A BABY. virus?
E. IF CONFIRMED, STAY HOME, DO NOT A. mosquito bites/bee stings
GO OUT TO AVOID POSSIBLE PERSONAL
B. sleeping in the same bed
PERSONALITY ALLOWED.
C. sharing air
93. Causes of Sexually Transmitted Infections D. all of the above
Among others, as follows, except
A. Changing Couples 99. The following drugs are used for
HIV/AIDS, except
B. Drug abuse
A. azidothymidine
C. Unsafe Sex
B. dideoxycytidine
D. Parental Indifference
C. zalcitabine
94. What year was the HIV virus identified? D. of tachyples
A. 1893 E. bury nitrit
B. 1983
100. Which of the following is the family that
C. 1999 HIV belongs to?
D. 2010 A. Herpesviridae

B. Retroviridae 106. What examples of casual contact do not

spread the virus?
C. Adenoviridae
A. swimming

D. Papillomaviridae
B. kissing
101. Viruses cannot be called living things be- C. sharing food
cause?
D. all of the above
A. Not able to reproduce
107. How many ways to prevent transmission
B. Genderless of HIV/AIDS have been described?
C. Does not have a cell nucleus A. 5
D. Has no genetic material B. 6
C. 4
102. The following are not included in the four
D. 3
principles of HIV transmission:
A. Exit 108. Which is not included in the high risk
group of contracting HIV AIDS is
B. Survive
A. school dropout teenagers
C. Out
B. homosexual
D. Enter C. Bisexual
103. One way to prevent exposure to HIV and D. drug addicts
AIDS is 109. How HIV is transmitted
A. circumcision A. Blood Liquid
B. Confine yourself B. Kiss
C. Self isolation C. hug
D. Always wear personal protective D. Handshake
equipment 110. Which of the following activities does not
transmit HIV?
104. HIV medicine
A. Sharing injecting equipment with
A. Paracetamol someone living with HIV
B. Penicillin B. Shake hands through daily communica-
C. Viagra tion
C. Transfusion of HIV-infected blood
D. ARV
D. Having sex with someone who has HIV
105. How can HIV be spread from one person
111. People can have HIV living in their T cells
to another?
for before they get sick.
A. through holding hands
A. many years
B. through kissing B. a few years
C. through unprotected sex C. some
D. trough sharing toothbrushes D. all their life

112. At first AIDS disease was found on the 118. WHAT ARE THE TRANSMISSION PATHS
continent OF SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED INFECTIOUS
A. America DISEASES?
B. Australia A. HUG
C. Africa B. USING THE SAME TOILET
D. Europe C. EXPOSED TO SICK ITEMS
113. IF YOU Suspect HIV EXPOSURE, WHAT D. Gender Relations
NARAYAN CHANGDER
SHOULD YOU DO?
119. What organization is primarily responsi-
A. DOWN, SAD, DON’T MATCH EVERYONE
ble for improvements in Kenya’s educa-
B. BUY ANTIBIOTICS FOR TREATMENT tional system?
C. GO TO THE HOSPITAL AND TREAT THE A. Kenyan parents
DIRECTIONS
B. Teachers’ Union
D. none of above
C. Students’ Initiative
114. The body fluid that does not transmit HIV
is D. Kenyan Ministry of Education
A. Breast milk 120. HIV and AIDS have a very dangerous im-
B. Blood pact on a person’s body
C. Sperm A. Maintain, maintain, and develop the
D. Food immune system
115. A body with HIV has trouble B. Boosts, damages, and even paralyzes
the immune system
A. fighting infections
C. Weakens, damages, and even para-
B. sleeping
lyzes the immune system
C. breathing
D. There is no right answer
D. staying awake
116. Why is treating AIDS so difficult? 121. Is the process of direct transmission of
HIV?
A. The HIV virus often mutates
A. Syringe
B. we don’t know what causes AIDS
B. Razor
C. AIDS is undetectable
D. There are not medicines available to C. Tattoo needle
treat AIDS D. Organ transplantation
117. HIV-positive people whose infections
122. You will NOT get HIV through
progresses to AIDS slowly.
A. greetings and hugs
A. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
B. anti-retrieval therapy (ART) B. sneezing or coughing
C. HIV-positive C. share cutlery
D. long-term non-progressors D. all of the above

123. Which is not an acute symptom of HIV? B. Nigeria’s government has no plans to
A. Cough fight the crisis.

B. Fever C. Most in the government blame
HIV/AIDS infections on visiting tourists.
C. Joint Pain
D. The government is working hard to
D. Chills
educate the people and make treatment
124. What is the cure for AIDS? available.
A. vaccination 129. What is the cell that is attacked by HIV?

B. antibiotics A. Red blood cells
C. there is no cure
B. White blood cells
D. Ibuprofen
C. Platelets
125. Mining workers are one of the most vul- D. Epithelial cells
nerable to being infected with this virus,
why? 130. What would be the correct definition of a
A. Because away from the wife “dowry”?
B. Remote location / far from urban ar- A. the gifts wedding guests give to the
eas bride and groom
C. There are no entertainment and sports B. money paid to the government to get a
facilities marriage license
D. All true C. the household goods a bride must give
the groom’s family
126. When doing a forward roll, which part of
your body touches the mat first? D. money or gifts given by the groom to
the bride’s family at marriage
A. Back
B. Forehead 131. VIRUS FOR AIDS DISEASE IS?
C. Neck A. GONORRHOEA
D. Stomach B. SYPHILIS
127. When HIV enters the bloodstream it at- C. Hepatitis C
tacks the D. HIV
A. B cell
132. The organ systems of the human body
B. D cell
that are attacked by HIV are
C. H cell
A. Immune system
D. T cell
B. Nervous system
128. What has been the response of the Nige-
C. Respiratory system
rian government to the HIV/AIDS crisis?
D. Vision system
A. The government refuses to admit
there is a problem. E. Hearing system

133. often fatal disease in which the body can- 139. Through mosquito or insect bites, the
not fight infections and diseases. HIV/AIDS virus cannot be transmitted to
humans because
A. Mosquitoes can only transmit malaria
B. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
or dengue fever
(AIDS)
B. Mosquitoes will immediately die after
C. HIV-positive
biting the sufferer
D. opportunistic infections
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. the virus quickly dies when taken to fly
134. What things can transmit HIV/AIDS? D. mosquito bites on humans do not
A. Shake hands cause wounds
B. hug E. Mosquitoes carry very little blood
C. kissing 140. When does a person develop AIDS?

D. Unprotected sex A. When her T cell count drops pas a cer-
tain point
135. The following cannot transmit HIV, ex-
cept B. when she test positive for the HIV
virus
A. Mosquito bite
C. when she become sick with a cold or
B. Sex aman flu
C. Shake hand D. immediately after being exposed to
D. Blood contact the HIV virus
136. The following are signs that someone is 141. conditions that occur when pathogens
positive for HIV AIDS except take advantage of a weakened body; the
cause of death in HIV/AIDS cases
A. skin pain
B. night sweats
B. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
C. frequent high fevers
(AIDS)
D. too weak and lethargic
C. HIV-positive
137. HIV TURNS INTO AIDS WHEN YOUR D. opportunistic infections
WHITE BLOOD CELL COUNT GETS DOWN
TO 142. NORMALLY, HOW LONG SHOULD YOU
WAIT TO GET AN HIV TEST TO GET AN AC-
A. 1000
CURATE READING? (window period)
B. 200
A. AT LEAST 1-3 MONTHS AFTER INCI-
C. 2000 DENT
D. 100 B. AT LEAST ONE WEEK AFTER INCIDENT
C. AT LEAST 1-3 WEEKS AFTER INCIDENT
138. Lower percentage of transmission
Slower development of virus Does not
show presence of viral load 20-30 D. none of above

143. HIV AIDS cannot be transmitted through C. Long intervals until disease onset
the following, except D. Transmitted through sexual contact

A. hug
149. What is meant by the principle of having
B. cough/sneeze a virus entry point?
C. mosquito bite A. Exit
D. mother with HIV AIDS to her baby B. Enter
144. Drug users who share can spread C. Coefficient
HIV. D. Survive
A. drugs
150. Combinations of can fight HIV in dif-
B. needles ferent ways.
C. blood A. drugs
D. T cells B. needles
145. When HIV destroys most of the T cells C. hope and love
and the person becomes very sick, we say D. T and B cells
they have
151. What might happen if a person with HIV
A. HIV caught a cold?
B. AIDS A. she would recover quickly
C. STI B. she might become extremely sick
D. CVS C. her T cell count might decrease
146. Symptoms that usually appear at the be- D. her red blood cell count might increase
ginning of HIV infection?
152. HIV can survive (live) on
A. Lymph node swelling A. Saliva
B. Candidiasis B. Sputum
C. Throat cancer C. Tears
D. Herpes simplex D. Blood
147. Since the start of the epidemic, about 153. HIV is most commonly found in?
how many deaths related to HIV/AIDS
A. Brain
have there been?
B. Blood
A. 10 million
C. Ayer from me
B. 20 million
D. Brain fluid
C. 30 million
D. 40 million 154. One of the psychotropics that can cause
very high dependence and is not recom-
148. The main character of HIV is? mended for use in therapy is
A. Transmitted through body fluids A. cocaine
B. Transmitted through needles B. heroin

C. ecstasy 160. Out of the 50, 000 people infected with

D. ganja HIV each year, what percentage are 13 to
24 years of age?
E. morphine
A. 10%
155. According to experts, HIV/AIDS origi-
B. 25%
nates from
A. Ball C. 15%
B. Chimpanzee D. 20%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Clark et al. 161. HIV can spread from one person to an-
D. Scorpion other if body fluids from an infected per-
son contact body fluids of an uninfected
E. Bunny
person.
156. Which Baltimore classification group does A. true
HIV belong to?
B. false
A. Group I
C. I do not know.
B. Group III
D. none of above
C. Group IV
D. Group VI 162. What are the targets of the Human Im-
munodeficiency Virus(HIV)
157. Which of the following does NOT trans-
mit the HIV virus A. Organ Vital
A. blood B. Respiratory system
B. sexual fluids C. Digestive system
C. saliva D. Immune System
D. breastmilk
163. What does the Acronym AIDS stand for?
158. In preventing the transmission of A. Acquired Infection Deficiency Syn-
HIV/AIDS, FUN is drome
A. Participate in positive activities B. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
B. Do not have sex until ready to marry C. Accepted Immunodeficiency Syn-
/ mentally, physically and socially, espe- drome
cially teenagers
D. Acquired Internal Deficiency Syn-
C. Loyal to only one partner
drome
D. Get as much correct information as
possible 164. Medical complications in the nervous sys-
tem resulting from drug abuse are
159. What is the job of the immune system?
A. intelligence disorder
A. Makes red blood cells
B. visual disturbances
B. Allows humans to reproduce
C. memory impairment
C. Protects body from foreign invaders
like germs. D. hepatitis b
D. Helps the body digest food E. inflammation of the heart muscle

165. Which of the following would be an ex- 170. VCT is a test used to check whether a per-
ample of an opportunistic infection? son has HIV. VCT stands for

A. Pneumonia A. Vanishing, Controlling, Testing
B. Common Cold B. Volunteering, Consolidate, Tremor
C. Herpes Simplex C. Volunteering, Counseling, Testing
D. Staph Infection D. Volunteering, Controlling, Trolling
166. The following can transmit the HIV virus 171. THE FOLLOWING ARE TYPES OF SEX ORI-
except ENTATION EXCEPT?
A. Sperm fluid A. HETEROSEXUAL
B. Vaginal discharge B. HOMESEXUAL
C. Blood C. BISEXUAL
D. Saliva D. TRANSGENDER
167. Methods or appeals made to the public 172. Attempts to remove drugs from addicts
to stay away from all forms of associ- are called
ation, maintain distance between people, A. Autopsy
and avoid gatherings that involve large
crowds, this prevention is known as B. Operation
A. Social distancing C. Detoxification
B. Lockdown D. Verification
C. Suspect E. Rehabilitation
D. Plague 173. How do political conflicts sometimes lead

to famine?
168. What is the relationship between CD 4
count and Anti RetroViral (ARV) therapy? A. Crops never seem to grow well in
times of war.
A. Compared to straight
B. Conflicts disrupt farming and little
B. The opposite is true food is produced.
C. Just the same C. Political leaders order farmers to stop
D. Like like me work in times of conflict.
D. Political conflicts rarely have any sig-
169. Which factor does not play a role in the nificant effect on food supply.
spread of HIV/AIDS?
A. poverty 174. In what stages does HIV occur?
B. poor health care system A. 1

B. 2
C. lack of government organization
C. 3
D. programs for prevention and treat-
ment D. 4

175. For people with HIV, the virus can be 181. The main function of the condom is?
found in A. HIV transmission prevention tool
A. Urine, sweat. B. Contraception
B. Blood, semen, vaginal mucus. C. Make balloon decorations
C. Sputum, sweat. D. STI transmission prevention tool
D. Urine, phlegm, sweat.
182. To find out that a person has HIV, an ex-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
176. The correct body position when doing a amination can be done
Back Roll is A. USG
A. Back of the mat B. NST
B. To the right of the mat C. URINE
C. In front of the mat D. ELISA AND WESTERN BLOT
D. Beside the mat
183. CHOOSE CORRECTLY RELATIONSHIP RE-
177. Which is NOT a common method of trans- LATED TO HIGH RISK OF HIV INFECTION
mission? Wounds.
A. Blood A. ALL TYPES OF WOUNDS
B. Needle Sharing B. NEEDLES, SUBJECTS WITH HIV CON-
C. Breast Milk TAINS BLOOD
D. Urine C. EXTERNAL INJURY, NO BLOOD

D. DEEP Wounds, Bleeding profusely, IN
178. WHAT IS AIDS CONNECTED WITH HIV? CONTACT WITH SOLUTION OF INFECTED
A. ANOTHER NAME OF STAGE 1 HIV PERSONS
B. ANOTHER NAME OF STAGE 2 HIV 184. The type of HIV found in Indonesia is?
C. ANOTHER NAME OF STAGE 3 HIV A. HIV type 1
D. DO NOT CONTACT B. HIV type 2
179. When entering the human body, which of C. HIV type 3
the following cells does HIV enter? D. HIV type 4
A. Red blood cells
185. The means of transmission of HIV AIDS
B. Lymphoma is
C. Nerve A. sweat
D. Macrophages B. blood
180. How is HIV spread? C. nudge
A. sexual intercourse D. insect bites
B. touching blood 186. Which of the followings is TRUE regard-
C. mother to child ing antiretroviral?
D. all of the above A. ART cannot eradicate HIV

B. cART should contains preferably two 192. is a disease caused by a virus that
active drugs from similar classes attacks the immune system.

C. Potential for adverse effect is not im- A. AIDS
portant for ART selection B. HIV
D. ART cannot stop HIV transmission C. atherosclerosis
187. What does the Acronym HIV stand for? D. none of above
A. Human Infection Virus 193. What fluid can NOT spread the AIDS
B. Human Immunodeficiency Venom virus?
C. Hormone Infection Virus A. blood
D. Human Immunodeficiency Virus B. vaginal fluids
188. Who are the presenters of HIV-AIDS? C. breast milk
A. Mr. Daniel Irwan SKM.MM D. mucus

B. Mr. Daniel Irawan SKM.MM 194. Is there a difference between HIV and
C. Mr. Daniel Irwan AMD AIDS?
D. Mr. Daniel Irawan S.KOM A. Yes, HIV is the virus that causes AIDS
B. No, HIV and AIDS are the same thing
189. How many stages does HIV progress to
AIDS? C. Yes, AIDS is the virus that causes HIV
B. 3 195. HIV attacks
C. 2 A. Central nerve system
D. 1 B. Immune System
190. What is the literacy rate in the Republic C. Reproduction system
of South Sudan D. Digestive system
A. 10%
196. HIV transmission from HIV-infected
B. 27% mothers to babies occurs when, except
C. 54% A. Pregnant or Pregnant
D. 70% B. Labor or Childbirth
191. What is one factor that has caused the C. Breastfeeding
Republics of Sudan and South Sudan to pay D. Stay in the same house
less attention to education?
A. civil war 197. What is the abbreviation for HIV
B. lack of interest A. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
C. education system needs improvement B. Human Immunodficiency Virus
D. no education beyond elementary C. Human Immuno Virus

school D. Human Immunisation Virus

198. Which of the following measures can help 203. HIV and AIDS in children has an impact
prevent HIV/AIDS transmission? on aspects
A. Do not use and inject drugs A. Physique
B. Have a healthy lifestyle B. Psychological
C. Implement medical hygiene measures C. Social
D. All the answers above D. All True

204. What is VCT?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
199. status determined by a laboratory test
that indicates the presence of HIV antibod- A. Voluntary Concern and Test
ies in a person’s blood. B. Voluntary Counseling and Testing
A. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) C. Voluntary Concrete and Thread
B. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome D. Voluntary Cancer Testing
(AIDS) 205. Watch for the following symptoms: 1.
C. HIV-positive Toothache2. Eye pain3. Fever 4. Sore
D. opportunistic infections throat 5. Respiratory Disorders From the
above symptoms, which include the clin-
200. Which statement below accurately de- ical symptoms of people affected by the
scribes the rate of HIV/AIDS infection in Corona Virus are listed at number
Sub-Saharan Africa? A. 1, 2 and 3
A. Infection is rapidly increasing B. 2, 3 and 4
B. It is among the highest in the world. C. 2, 4 and 5
C. It is not a real concern for most peo- D. 3, 4 and 5
ple. 206. The main problem in ARV therapy is?
D. Information is not available on infec- A. Side effects
tion rates.
B. Drug amount
201. You are said to have AIDS when C. Cost
A. Have HIV and appear healthy D. Obedience
B. Have a lot of T cells in the body 207. What is the virus that causes AIDS?
C. When your t cell count is low and you A. Hardly Infected Virus
get sick B. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
D. When you are over 40 and HIV+ C. Human Infected Virus
202. How many people around the world have D. Hate Infections Virus
died due to AIDS complications from 1990 208. What are the 3 main routes of HIV trans-
to 2018? mission?
A. Slightly under 20 million A. Plancentric transmission
B. Over 30 million B. Sexual transmission
C. 25 Million C. Parenteral transmission
D. 22 Million D. Vertical transmission

209. How to prevent HIV / AIDS is B. 4

A. Using a sterile syringe C. 2

B. Alternate sexual partners D. 1
C. Exclusion of HIV sufferers
214. The main sign seen in someone who has
D. Not married for life reached the stage of AIDS is
E. Using needles alternately A. Weight loss more than 10
210. What is the relationship between HIV 215. Which of the following is an effective
and AIDS? method for preventing the transmission of
A. HIV weakens the body’s immune sys- HIV?
tem; AIDS weakens the lymphatic system A. Wearing face mask
B. HIV is the virus that causes AIDS B. Safe sex
symptoms
C. Using hormonal contraception
C. AIDS is the virus that causes HIV
D. Sleep with bed net
symptoms
D. AIDS is usually diagnosed first and can 216. WHAT DOES THE “A” IN AIDS STAND
be followed by a diagnosis of HIV FOR?
211. Which of the following is the recom- A. AUTO

mended HIV testing method for infants un- B. ACQUIRED
der 18 months of age? C. AWESOME
A. Antibody testing D. none of above
B. Western blot testing
217. One of the narcotics that is included in
C. PCR testing
class III is
D. Rapid diagnostic testing
A. morphine
212. How does the HIV/AIDS rate in Zim- B. pertidine
babwe compare to the rest of the African
C. Codeine
countries’ rates?
D. Ganja
A. It has declined in recent years.
E. Cocaine
B. It is one of the highest on the conti-
nent. 218. Dont share needle and drugs adalah
C. HIV/AIDS has never been a problem in A. Tidak melakukan hubungan seks sam-
Zimbabwe. pai siap menikah/mental, fisik, dan sosial
D. Infected Zimbabweans have always terutama remaja
had easy access to antiretroviral medica- B. Cari informasi yang benar sebanyak
tions. mungkin
213. Recurrent tonsillitis, recurrent ARI, recur- C. Saling setia hanya pada satu pasangan
rent pharyngitis. Is the symptom that ap- D. Tidak menggunakan jarum suntik se-
pears at the stage? cara bergantian dan tidak menggunakan
A. 3 NARKOBA

219. Why is HIV called a retrovirus? 224. How Long is the Window Period?
A. Because this virus has the ability to A. 3 to 5 Years
form DNA from RNA
B. 1 to 3 Years
B. Because it can cause a cytopathic ef-
C. 6 to 12 Months
fect
C. Due to early sexual contact D. 3 to 6 Months
D. Because the HIV virus can spread 225. WHERE TO GET TREATMENT AND SER-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
quickly VICES FOR SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED DIS-
E. There is a blood product transfusion EASES?
A. PHARMACY
220. Our attitude towards people affected by
HIV is correct B. HEALTH FACILITIES
A. Stay away from people infected with C. TRADITIONAL TREATMENT
HIV
D. ISLAMIC DEPARTMENT
B. Excommunicate him and do not recog-
nize him 226. HIV ENTER THE CELL AND DESTROYS
C. Continue to provide support for rou- IT.
tines outside the home A. A
D. Continue to provide support for rou- B. B
tines at home
C. T
221. What does the HIV virus do inside the T D. none of above
cell?
A. destroy the T cell immediately 227. What are the THREE characteristics of
HIV replication?
B. make copies of itself then destroy the
T cell A. Elongation, Recombination, Integra-
tion
C. hang out forever
D. the virus doesn’t affect the T cell at all B. Reverse transcription, Recombination,
Budding
222. HIV stands for?
C. Reverse transcription, Recombination,
A. Home Immunodeficiency Virus Integration
B. Human Immunodeficiency Virus D. Reverse transcription, Recombination,
C. Human Immune Virus Nicking
D. Heredity Immunodeficiency Virus 228. To protect ourselves and our families
223. What is the literacy rate in the Republic from the CORONA virus, namely by doing
of Sudan? GERMAS. GEMS is
A. 50% A. Healthy Living Community Movement

B. 61% B. Relaxed Living Community Movement
C. 70% C. Polite Living Community Movement
D. 85% D. Patient Living Community Movement

229. United Nations organization working on D. nicotine

AIDS/HIV E. Opium

A. UNESCO
235. A marker (marker) to determine the
B. IMF quantity of HIV in the body is?
C. ILO A. Immune body
D. UNAIDS B. Viral load
230. What are the three “g’s” used in univer- C. CD 2
sal precautions?
D. CD 4
A. gloves, goggles, and gowns
236. You can become infected with HIV if you
B. guns, groups, and glasses
are exposed/touched with the body fluids
C. gum, gates, and gloves of an HIV positive individual. Body fluids
D. grids, graphs, and gold that can spread this virus are:
A. Blood
231. The virus that causes AIDS is
B. Ayer from me
A. Virus ebola
C. Mother’s milk
B. Virus influenza
D. all of the above
C. Virus HIV
D. Virus herpes 237. A marker (marker) to determine the
quantity of immunity is called?
232. Who released the national HIV/AIDS
A. CD 4
strategy?
B. CD 2
A. NASA
C. Viral load
B. Senate
D. Immune body
C. White House
D. Congress 238. How to Prevent HIV, except
A. abstinence
233. What body system is attacked by the HIV
virus? B. Be Paithful
A. The reproductive system C. Control
B. The respiratory system D. No Drugs
C. The endocrine system E. Education
D. The immune system 239. What is GAY?
234. The chemical that has the effect of stimu- A. Men who wear women’s clothes
lating the central nervous system in coffee B. A man who doesn’t have a partner
and tea is
C. Refers to men who have sexual attrac-
A. Tar tion to their own kind, namely homosexu-
B. morphine als
C. caffeine D. Shy man

8.4 Cancer 880
240. How long does the virus stay in your C. Food is provided through international
body? organizations.
A. one year D. They are able to buy enough food from
those living in the cities.
B. a few hours
C. forever 244. HIV Aids is a very frightening scourge for
humanity in the world, starting from the
D. a few months
stages, the impact and the consequences
NARAYAN CHANGDER
241. How many people around the world have are very dangerous. The HIV virus basi-
HIV/AIDS? cally attacks our bodies.
A. 25.5 million A. Spine cells

B. blood tissue
B. 36.7 million
C. central nerve system
C. 40.2 million
D. immune system
D. 32.5 million
E. digestive system
242. The first layer of protection against HIV
infection is your 245. How long can the HIV virus last outside
the body?
A. t cells
A. forever
B. skin
B. a short time
C. b-cells
C. a year
D. liver
D. a month
243. How do millions of people in South Sudan 246. WHAT IS HIV?
get food today?
A. HUMAN IMMUNE VIRUS
A. They have begun successful farming
again. B. HAVE INFECTED VIRAL DISEASE
B. The Sudanese government takes care C. HUMAN INFECTED VIRUS

of them. D. HUMAN IMMUNODEFICIENCY VIRUS
8.4 Cancer
1. In the normal cellular processes, which B. Sexual
genes inhibit cell division?
C. Bilingual
A. mutant genes
D. Monopolistic
B. oncogenes
C. proto-oncogenes 3. These are examples of:Surgery
Chemotherapy Radiation
D. tumor-suppressant genes
A. Treatments for Cancer
2. Type of reproduction that requires the
most time to happen. B. Mutations
A. Asexual C. Examples of Asexual Reproduction

8.4 Cancer 881
D. Types of Tumors 9. Cells that work together to perform the

same function
4. What happens if there is a mess up in the

A. organs
DNA structure?
B. tissues
A. Mutations, like autism and down syn-
drome C. organ system
B. cancer D. cancer
C. mutations; deformities 10. If someone in your family has had Cancer
D. nothing in the past you have what doctors call a:
A. Predisposition
5. Which type of reproduction causes only
some organisms to die when other organ- B. Carcinogen
isms of the same species get a disease? C. Risk Factor
A. asexual D. Chemotherapy
B. sexual 11. The nucleus of cancer cell when compared
C. monopolistic to a normal cell is:
D. bilingual A. equivalent
B. smaller
6. During which mitotic phases are sister
chromatids present? C. larger
A. all phases except telophase D. multifaceted
B. only prophase and anaphase 12. p53 triggers which of the following to oc-
cur?
C. all phases except anaphase
A. apoptosis
D. only prophase and metaphase
B. cell cycle
7. Why do cancer cells not respond properly C. cancer
to cell signals and controls?
D. uncontrolled cell division
A. damage to a cell’s cytoplasm
B. damage to a cell’s sister chromatids 13. Mitosis involves which type of cells?
C. damage to a cell’s DNA A. Sex Cells

B. Bacteria
D. damage to a cell’s wall and membrane
C. Prokaryotes
8. Halts cell division if it detects damaged
D. Body or Somatic Cells
DNA; can either fix, force G0, or apopto-
sis. 14. The first phase of mitosis is called
A. RAS A. telophase
B. MPF B. metaphase
C. PDGF C. anaphase
D. p53 D. prophase

8.4 Cancer 882
15. Normal cells spend most of their time in 21. Doctor who specializes in treating cancer.
what state? A. Oncologist
A. Interphase B. Epidemiologist
B. Mitosis C. Dermatologist
C. Cytokinesis D. Neurologist
D. Apoptosis
22. What are some checkpoints that can pre-
16. An accumulation of cancer cells creates a: vent cell division?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Mutation A. If the cell is short of nutrients
B. Tumor B. If the DNA within the nucleus has not
C. Bruise been replicated
D. Abscess C. If the DNA is damaged
D. All of the Above
17. What is secondary bone cancer?
A. Cancer that is contagious 23. The longest phase of the cell cycle
B. Cancer that is good for you A. prophase
C. Cancer that stays in the bone B. interphase
D. Cancer that spreads throughout the C. metaphase
body D. mitosis
18. A period of time when cancer symptoms 24. Which of the following occurs during mi-
disappear totic anaphase?
A. metastasis A. centromeres of each chromatid divide
B. cured B. sister chromatids separate
C. remission C. daughter chromosmes begin to move
D. none of above towards opposite poles of the cell
D. all of the above
19. Why does chemotherapy have so many
negative side effects? 25. WHAT MAILEY CAUSES LUNG CANCER
A. Chemo is very specific in the types of A. Marijuana and E-Cigarettes
cells it kills.
B. Marijuana AND 2nd hand smoke
B. Chemo is given through an IV.
C. Puff puff pass
C. Chemo weakens the immune system.
D. Marijuana and cigarettes
D. Chemo kills all rapidly dividing cells.
26. If the S-phase was eliminated from the cell
20. What are the most common type of skin cycle, the daughter cell would
cancer?
A. have half the genetic material found in
A. Melanoma the parental cell
B. Asymmetry B. be genetically identical
C. Metastis C. be genetically identical to the parent
D. Basal cell carcinoma cell

8.4 Cancer 883
D. synthesize the missing genetic mate- date of eligibility for a benefit payment
rial on their own would be applicable.

27. While in the womb, the webbed fingers A. 7 Days
of the embryo undergo programmed cell B. 30 Days
death, also known as C. 90 Days
A. apoptosis D. 120 Days
B. cytokinesis
32. What ultimately causes cancer cells to be-
C. carcinogen have differently than healthy cells?
D. stem cells A. Mutations in their DNA
28. What is the difference between proto B. Sending improper signals to surround-
oncogenes and oncogenes? ing cells
A. Proto oncogenes are normally func- C. Responding improperly to chemical

tioning genes and oncogenes have been signals
mutated. D. They fail to replicate their DNA in inter-
B. Oncogenes are normally functioning phase.
genes and proto oncogenes have been mu- 33. What organelle stores large amounts of
tated. water in plant cells?
C. There is no difference. A. Nucleus
D. Oncogenes tell the cell to stop dividing B. Mitochondria
and proto oncogenes tell the cell to divide.
C. Chloroplast
29. Give the correct sequence of apoptosis:1. D. Vacuole
Nucleus begins to break2. Nucleus conden-
sation and formation of bleb3. Phagocyto- 34. Another term for specialized cells is
sis of apoptotic bodies. A. Evolution
A. 1, 2, 3 B. Adaptation
B. 2, 3, 1 C. Differentiation
C. 3, 2, 1 D. Natural Selection
D. 2, 1, 3 35. How do you protect yourself from skin can-
cer?
30. Chemotherapy treatments have a side ef-
fect of hair loss because chemotherapy: A. Sunscreen in summer when it is sunny
A. affects only hair follicles B. Sunscreen daily
B. kills all dividing cells, such as hair folli- C. Sunscreen in summer
cles D. Sunscreen daily and no tanning beds
C. affects only the scalp
36. Mutated cancer causing genes are reffered
D. kills only skin cells to as
31. How many days survival period between A. oncogenes

the date of diagnosis of a condition and the B. oncologists

8.4 Cancer 884
C. optometrist 42. Which of the following events occurs dur-

D. oink ing interphase?
A. condensation of chromatin into chro-
37. Which president signed the National Can- mosomes
cer Act of 1971 and declared “ war on can-
cer”? B. separation of centrosomes to opposite
poles
A. Clinton
C. spindle fiber formation
B. Jefferson
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. replication of DNA
C. Nixon
D. Reagan 43. Henrietta Lacks died from
38. is the process of malingnant cells get- A. lung cancer.

ting into the circulatory system and estab- B. tuberculosis.
lish colonies in other parts of the body C. cervical cancer.
A. Tumor D. research performed by a hospital.
B. Uncontrolled growth
44. uncontrolled cell growth =
C. Cancer
A. apoptosis
D. Metastsis
B. cancer
39. Which stage of mitosis is correctly paired
C. spindle
with its events?
D. cytokinesis
A. prophase-the chromosomes are
aligned at the middle 45. The sides of DNA are made of
B. metaphase-the chromosomes are split A. phosphate
apart
B. glucose
C. anaphase-chromosomes condense
C. deoxyribose
D. telophase-two nuclei are formed
D. salt
40. Metastasis is
46. A chronic cough, blood tinged sputum, and
A. the spread of cancer from one part of dyspnea are symptoms of which cancer?
the body to another.
A. Lung
B. the growth of tumors in the lungs
B. Breast
C. cancer of the blood cells
C. Skin
D. cancer that is found in connective tis-
sues D. Leukemia
41. Proteins that direct cells to speed up or 47. Which organelle is only found in a plant
slow down the cell cycle. cell?
A. growth factor A. nucleus
B. human growth hormone B. chloroplast
C. cancer C. mitochondria
D. tumor D. cell membrane

8.4 Cancer 885
48. Sickle Cell Anemia is caused by a mutation, 53. Which cell cycle checkpoint makes sure
it causes hemoglobin to not work correctly. that the chromatids are correctly attached
What does hemoglobin do? to the spindle fibers?

A. Makes cells round A. G1 checkpoint
B. Carries Oxygen B. S checkpoint
C. Makes blood plasma C. G2 checkpoint
D. None of these D. M checkpoint
54. the sequence of growth and division of a

49. -Spindle apparatus disassembles-Nuclear
cell
Envelope forms around each set of sis-
ter chromatids-Chromatids begin to uncoil- A. cell cycle
Nucleolus reappears in each new nucleus B. mitosis
A. Telophase C. anaphase
B. Anaphase D. cancer
C. Prometaphase 55. What stage is a cell in when cleavage is
D. Prophase present in the cell division?
A. Interphase
50. -Removal of cohesin proteins causes the
centromeres to separate-Microtubules pull B. Prophase
sister chromatids toward the poles-The C. Cytokinesis
kinetochores are pulled apart-The spindle D. Metaphase
poles move apart
56. What age group is more likely to develop
A. Anaphase
cancer?
B. Telophase
A. Babies
C. Prophase
B. Old Dudes like Mr Korver
D. Metaphase C. Ladies
51. This organelle takes food and turns it into D. Teenagers
ENERGY (ATP) for plant and animal cells.
57. What is the symbol or abbreviation for
A. Chloroplast diploid?
B. Mitochondria A. 1N
C. Lysosome B. 2N
D. Ribosome C. 3N
D. 4N
52. The spreading of cancerous cells is called
58. In telophase of mitosis the mitotic spindle
A. metastasis
disaapears and the nuclear envelope reap-
B. carcinogenesis pear. This is opposite of what happens in
C. angiogenesis A. prophase
D. homeostasis B. metaphase

8.4 Cancer 886
C. interphase C. limit exposure sit in the shade

D. s-phase D. swimming in the pool
59. Which events occur during anaphase I of 64. Which cell cycle checkpoint verifies cell size
meoisis? and checks the DNA for damage?
A. separation of sister chromatids
A. G1 checkpoint
B. separation of homologous pairs
B. S checkpoint
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. lining up of sister chromatids
C. G2 checkpoint
D. lining up of homologous pairs
D. M checkpoint
60. Which best describes the role of p53 pro-
tein in the cell cycle 65. A mass of super-dividing cells that grows
A. it makes sure organelles are properly quickly
replicated A. mutation
B. it makes sure that the cytoplasm is B. cell cycle
equally divided
C. tumor
C. it make sure DNA is free of errors
D. none of above
D. It makes sure the DNA is copied
61. Only about 1/3 (33%) of chronic, life- 66. A cancerous tumor’s function closely re-
time cigarette smokers develop lung can- sembles which part of the human body?
cer. Why? A. blood vessel
A. They have somatic or sporadic, cancer- B. body system
causing mutations over their lifetime
C. organ
B. They’re most likely to have germline
oncogene cells passed down from their D. muscle
parents
67. In a population of 100 men, how many will
C. They were destined to get cancer re- develop cancer at some point during their
gardless lifetime?
D. More nurture than nature in this case A. 0
62. Cancer is caused by, or in other words B. 50
arises because of
C. 75
A. missing dna fibers
D. 100
B. the mutation of a gene
C. general unhealthyness 68. Taking samples from the body for clues
that might indicate certain diseases.
D. all of the above
A. pathology
63. Name a way to protect yourself from ul-
traviolet radiation. B. oncoloy
A. sun bathing C. radiology
B. sitting on the beach D. genealogy

8.4 Cancer 887
69. The checkpoints that regulate the cell cycle C. chloroplast

can fail when becomes damaged.
D. nucleus

A. DNA
B. Cell Membrane 75. Mutations can be caused by factors.
C. Mitochondria A. internal
D. Ribosomes B. external
C. internal and external
70. Chromosomes move to the middle of the
spindle during what phase? D. extraterrestrial
A. anaphase
76. BONUS:What are the most common ways
B. telophase we treat cancer?
C. metaphase A. Radiation
D. prophase B. Surgery
71. What are the two main stages of the cell C. Trinosis
cycle?
D. Chemotherapy
A. Cytokeneis and Interphase
E. Mutation
B. Prophase and Metaphase
C. Interphase and Mitosis 77. The cell grows, matures, and eventually
coppies its DNA
D. none of above
A. Interphase
72. The point of attachment between two sis-
ter chromatids is called B. Prophase
A. kinetochore C. Metaphase
B. centromere D. Anaphase
C. chromosome
78. A substitution mutation that changes one
D. spindle amino acid in the protein
73. Cells are most efficient, in other words, A. A missense mutation

they can most effectively bring in nutrients B. A nonsense mutation
and get rid of waste when they are
C. A silent mutation
A. Large
D. A frameshift mutation
B. small
C. active 79. A change or damage to DNA of a cell is
D. Specialized called a:
A. mutation
74. The organelle where photosynthesis takes
place in plant cells? B. cancer
A. ribosome C. replication
B. mitochondria D. none of above

8.4 Cancer 888
80. Any substance that is known to cause can- 86. What are some symptoms of lung cancer?
cer is called a
A. Throwing up frequently, feeling weak,
A. Carcinogen feeling nauseous
B. metastasizer B. Cough that doesn’t go away, shortness
C. Pathogen of breath, constant chest pain, swelling of
the neck and face
D. Retrovirus
C. Swelling of the neck and face, feeling
NARAYAN CHANGDER
81. What types of cell have their DNA en- sad all the time, coughing sometimes
closed in a nucleus?
D. Feeling lethargic, feeling apathetic,
A. Prokaryotic shutting yourself from the world
B. Eukaryotic
C. Bacterial Cells 87. Which of the following statements is true
of cytokinesis
D. All Cells
A. takes place in plant cells only
82. Cancer cells that spread throughout the
B. completes the cell cycle
body.
A. benign C. organizes DNA
B. mutagen D. occurs in prophase

C. malignant 88. What are the phases of the interphase?
D. tumors A. 1. G12. S3. G2
83. Mutations to this gene cause cancer B. 1. Prophase2. Prometaphase3.
A. proto-oncogene Metaphase
B. tumour suppressor gene C. 1. Metastasis2. Angiogenesis
C. both of them D. none of above
D. oncogene
89. The spindle apparatus is made of:
84. Which lifestyle factor is the best way to A. Golgi bodies
prevent most forms of skin cancer?
B. spindles
A. not smoking
C. polysaccharides
B. avoiding sun exposure during peak
hours D. microtubules
C. exercising regularly
90. The number of people alive at some point
D. eating healthy and nutritious foods after they have been diagnosed with can-
cer refers to:
85. Chromatin is best defined as:
A. DNA bound to histones A. Survival rate
B. DNA bound to centrosomes B. Mortality rate

C. Duplicated DNA C. Incidence rate
D. Sister chromatids D. Occurrence rate

8.4 Cancer 889
91. The cell cycle is 96. Any substance that causes cancer by either
A. series of events that cells go through damaging genes or disrupting metabolic
processes is called a:

as they grow and divide
B. period of time between the birth and A. Halogen
death of a cell B. Pathogen
C. time from prophase until cytokinesis C. Carcinogen
D. time it takes for 1 cell to undergo mito- D. Mutagen
sis
97. How many stages of cancer are there?
92. Codons code for
A. 5
A. Codons do not code for anything
B. 8
B. 1 fatty acid in the polypeptide chain
C. 2
C. 1 nucleotide in a DNA molecule
D. 4
D. 1 amino acid for the protein
98. Which of the following is a protein made
93. How many breast cancer survivors are es- at certain times during the cell cycle that
timated to be alive in the United States associates with a kinase to form an active
today? complex?
A. 2 million A. PDGF
B. 2.6 million
B. MPF
C. 3.3 million
C. cyclin
D. 4.1 million
D. Cdk
94. Some cells have many nuclei. How can
99. Which term refers to a tumor that is not
they be explained?
deemed cancerous and has not invaded
A. They underwent repeated cytokinesis nearby tissues?
but no mitosis
A. metastatic
B. They underwent repeated mitosis with
simultaneous cytokinesis B. malignant
C. They underwent repeated mitosis, but C. benign

no cytokinesis D. carcinoma
D. They had multiple S phases before en-
100. Stem cells can be obtained from
tering mitosis
A. embryos
95. The number of people diagnosed with can-
B. some adult tissues
cer each year per 100, 000 people refers
to? C. umbilical cord blood
A. diagnosis rate D. all of the above
B. mortality rate 101. Apoptosis functions to
C. survival rate A. allow proper form of developing em-
D. incidence rate bryos

8.4 Cancer 890
B. remove cells that are damaged or dis- 107. Which of the following is NOT a role of
eased the tumor suppressor gene?
C. reduce cell number A. Inhibiting the cell cycle
D. all of these B. Stimulating repair of damaged DNA
C. Promoting cell adhesion
102. Research has shown that uncontrolled
cell growth and development can lead to D. Promoting angiogenesis
which of these diseases?
108. Which of the following is the correct or-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. AIDS der for the phases of the cell cycle?
B. dyslexia A. G1, M, G2, C, S
C. cancer B. S, G1, G2, M, C
D. Down Syndrome C. G1, G2, S, M, C
D. G1, S, G2, M, C
103. cancer cells
A. divide too frequently 109. What causes skin cancer?
B. divide too quickly A. Over exposure to the sun
C. ignore checkpoints B. Lack of exposure to the sun
D. all of the above C. UV rays

D. Vitamin D
104. is a process of recognising defective
cells, programming cell death, and replac- 110. What happens during the S phase of In-
ing with normal cells. terphase?
A. Mitosis A. Cells divide
B. Apoptosis B. Cells grow and make protein
C. Oncogene C. Cells copy their DNA
D. Polymerase D. Cells Die

111. What kind of cells are made during mito-
105. Which cell structure produces the spindle
sis called?
fibers?
A. Somatic
A. Centromeres
B. Gametes
B. Centrioles
C. Haploid
C. Chromatids
D. Ribosomes
112. The main contributing factor for most
106. which of the following is found only in cases of uncontrolled cell division that oc-
eukaryotic cells? curs in human cancers is:
A. cell membrane A. Mutation of genes
B. cytoplasm B. Replication of genes
C. nucleus C. Transcription of genes
D. DNA D. Translation of genes

8.4 Cancer 891
113. Using drugs or medicines to destroy can- 118. What is the longest stage of the cell cy-
cer cells. cle?

A. chemotherapy A. Interphase
B. radiation therapy B. Mitosis
C. cancer surgery C. Cytokinesis
D. mitotic spindling D. Prophase
114. Most of a cell’s cycle is spent in which 119. Where are mutations found in DNA?
phase? A. In the phosphates
A. Prophase B. In the sugars
B. Metaphase C. In the nitrogen bases of nucleotides
C. Anaphase D. All of these
D. Telophase
120. Cancer is the breakdown of what normal
E. Interphase body process?
115. How does chemotherapy work? A. Internal respiration

B. External respiration
A. It attacks cells that undergo mitosis
quickly C. Cell division
B. It attacks slow growing cells D. Cellular respiration
C. It attacks cancer, stomach, mouth and 121. Which is NOT an internal carcinogen?
hair cells
A. Chemical Exposure
D. It only attacks cancer cells
B. Hereditary factors
116. How would you describe the DNA that re- C. Cell Checkpoints
sults from DNA replication
D. Abnormal hormone levels
A. two molecules that are both new
122. What is the purpose of meiosis?
B. two molecules each half old and half
new A. make gametes
C. one new molecule and one old B. make germ cells
molecule C. allow for growth and repair of somatic
D. none of above cells
D. double chromosome number
117. Which term refers to a tumour that is not
cancerous and has not invaded nearby tis- 123. Which of the following is a possible cause
sues of cancer?
A. Metastasis A. Certain chemical exposure
B. Benign B. Radiation exposure
C. malignant C. Certain viral exposure
D. carcinoma D. All are possible causes of cancer

8.4 Cancer 892
124. the period of the cell cycle when the cells B. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
is not dividing, accounts for about 90% of telophase
time, divided into G1, S and G2 C. Anaphase, prophase, metaphase,
A. interphase telophase
B. mitosis D. Anaphase, prophase, telophase,
C. chromatin metaphase
D. anaphase 130. The process by which a cell’s nucleus di-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
vides is called:
125. Which of the following happens when a
cell divides? A. interphase
A. Each daughter cell receives its own B. mitosis
copy of the parent cell’s DNA. C. cytokinesis
B. The cell has DNA overload. D. cell cycle
C. It becomes more difficult for the cell
131. Cancer promoting substances are called:
to get enough oxygen and nutrients.
A. Tumors
D. The cell’s volume increases.
B. Carcinogens
126. Stem cells can be obtained from
C. Cyclins
A. embryos
D. Malignant
B. some adult tissues
C. umbilical cord blood 132. Mutations that help an organism survive
are known as
D. all of the above
A. Beneficial
127. During the cell will divide in order to B. Neutral
produce two exact replica cells
C. Harmful
A. G1 (First Gap)
D. None of These
B. S (Synthesis)
C. G2 (Second Gap) 133. There are questions available in SMQ
for HDFC Life Cancer care Plan.
D. M (Mitosis)
A. 5
128. A repeating sequence of growth and divi-
B. 6
sion
C. 7
A. Mitosis
D. 8
B. Interphase
C. Cell Cycle 134. Which stage of the cell cycle do cells
spend the most time?
D. Somatic
A. Cytokinesis
129. Which of these has the stages of mitosis
in order? B. Mitosis
A. Prophase, anaphase, telophase, C. Interphase

metaphase D. Prophase

8.4 Cancer 893
135. What happened to the child? ? ? C. proto oncogenes

A. baby got some virus D. cellular oncogenes

B. baby got cancer 141. At the end of Mitosis, how many cells are
C. baby got fever there?
D. the child was sick A. 1
B. 2
136. Which of the following cells is UNdiffer-
entiated or UNspecialized? C. 3
A. cardiac muscle cell D. 4
B. nerve cell 142. As cell size increases, the surface area
C. liver cell and volume increases. As a result, the sur-
face area:volume (ratio) will:
D. stem cell
A. decrease
137. What is the correct order of the cell cy- B. stay the same
cle?
C. increase
A. Interphase, Cytokinesis, Mitosis
D. change depending on the temperature
B. Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
143. What is the end product of mitosis
C. Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase
A. 2 genetically identical daughter cells
D. Anaphase, Telophase, Cytokinesis
B. 2 genetically unique daughter cells
138. In normal cell division the daughter cell
C. 4 genetically identical daughter cells
D. 4 genetically unique daughter cells
A. Is different from the original cell with
no major errors or mutations 144. What is a term for programmed cell
B. Is identical to the original cell with no death?
major errors or mutations A. apoptosis
C. Is identical to the original cell with B. necrosis
many mutations C. cell death
D. none of above D. doom
139. During interphase, a cell grows, dupli- 145. Which pair is correct?
cates organelles, and
A. G1 phase:DNA replication
A. Divides the nucleus
B. G2:preparation for mitosis
B. Copies DNA
C. S phase:cell division
C. Divides the cytoplasm
D. Mitosis:cell growth
D. Produces a new cell
146. Cells that are in a nondividing state are
140. Cancer producing genes are in which phase?
A. carcinogens A. G1
B. oncogenes B. G2

8.4 Cancer 894
C. S B. Anaphase
D. G0 C. Telophase
147. Reasons that a cell duplicates: D. Metaphase
A. Replace 153. The structures that hold together sister
B. Growth chromatids
C. Repair/Reproduce A. tissues
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All of the Above B. chromosomes
148. There are four parts of mitosis. Which is C. spindle
NOT a stage of mitosis? D. centromeres
A. prophase
B. metaphase 154. If one side of DNA is A-T-T-C-A-G-T the
matching base pairs would be
C. anaphase
A. A-T-T-C-A-G-T
D. telophase
B. T-A-A-G-T-C-A
E. cytophase
C. A-T-G-C-C-G-T
149. The holds the replicated sister chro-
matids together in the center. D. none of above
A. centriole 155. A mutation first affects which part of

B. chromosomes DNA?
C. centromere A. Phosphates
D. cycles B. Sugars
150. How can lung cancer be treated? . C. Nucleotides/Nitrogen Bases

A. Stop smoking D. All of these
B. Not going to chemotherapy 156. What kinds of things cause mutations?
C. Smoking
A. Chemicals
D. Chemotherapy
B. UV rays
151. Damage to which type of genes is the C. Extreme Heat
most common cause of cancer?
D. All of these
A. Oncogenes
B. Tumor Suppressor Genes 157. How many cells are produced by an adult
C. Proto-Oncogenes human body everyday?
D. Apoptosis-Inducing Genes A. Two Trillion

B. 20
152. In what phase of mitosis does DNA con-
dense into visible chromosomes? C. 500, 000
A. Prophase D. Two Million

8.4 Cancer 895
158. Which of these does NOT apply to can- 163. During the phase, DNA is replicated.
cer? A. G1

A. Cancer cells refuse to commit apopto- B. S
sis.
C. G2
B. Cancer cells induce angiogenesis.
D. M
C. Cancer cells obey by not dividing when
a strong and sustained signal is absent. 164. During interphase, a cell grows, increase
D. Cancer cells can and do divide as many organelles, and
times as they want provided they get A. replicates DNA
enough nutrients.
B. divides the nucleus
159. Any substance that causes cancer by dam- C. divides the cytoplasm
aging the genes
D. produces a new cell
A. oncogen
B. carcinogen 165. The original and mutated DNA have been
transcribed below. What kind of mutation
C. pathogen is shown? Original:ACU AUGMutated:ACC
D. halogen AUG
160. The stage where chromosomes condese A. Insertion

and the nucleus is visible B. Deletion
A. Prophase C. Substitution
B. metaphase D. Bifurcation
C. anaphase 166. A disorder in which some of the body’s
D. Telephase cells lose the ability to control growth.
161. -Microtubules pull the chromosomes A. growth factor
to align them at the center of the B. human growth hormone
cell-(Metaphase Plate) Imaginary plate
C. cancer
through the center of the cell when the
chromosomes align D. tumor
A. Proemtaphase 167. In what stage is most of the cell’s life
B. Metaphase spent?
C. Prophase A. Interphase
D. Telophase B. Mitosis
C. Cytokinesis
162. What enzyme do some cells have that can
increase the length of telomeres? D. None of the above
A. DNA polymerase 168. What other damage can the sun do? (Re-
B. RNA polymerase lated to the topic)
C. DNase A. The sun can damage your cells
D. telomerase B. The sun can melt your popsicle

8.4 Cancer 896
C. The sun can eat your food so you 174. What kind of disease is cancer?
starve A. deadly and difficult
D. The sun can give you itchy rashes and B. Cancer is a disease that is difficult to
moles fight
169. Which stage is NOT a part of inter- C. Cancer is a simple disease that can be
phase? cured
D. none of above
A. S
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. M 175. is a sub-specialty of medicine dedi-
cated to the investigation, diagnosis and
C. G2 treatment of people with cancer or sus-
D. G1 pected cancer
A. Oncology
170. What kind of a gene is p53?
B. Psychiatry
A. Proto-Oncogene
C. Peditrician
B. Oncogene
D. Outpatient department
C. Tumor Suppressor Gene
176. Which of these is NOT a phase of mito-
D. Proto-Tumor Suppressor Gene sis?
171. It is the process of dividing the DNA of a A. Interphase

cell into two new nuclei. B. Prophase
A. mitosis C. Metaphase
B. meiosis D. Anaphase
C. cytokinesis E. Telophase
D. cell division 177. Why is the S phase important for cell di-
vision?
172. It takes mutation(s) in a cell’s DNA
A. To ensure there is enough DNA for the
to cause cancer.
daughter cells
A. one B. To make sure sister chromatids sepa-
B. many rate properly
C. no C. To ensure cytokinesis takes place
D. none of above D. To ensure there are no mutations
178. Which of the following is a tumor sup-

173. Cancer cells have mutations that
pressor gene?
A. allow unregulated cell growth A. MFAP2 which creates 1P3
B. turn off programmed cell death B. EV14 which creates p33
C. Both C. TP53 which creates p53 protein

8.4 Cancer 897
179. The cell cycle is the 184. Which of these are functions of the cell
cycle? (select all that apply)
A. series of events that cells go through

as they grow and divide A. Growth
B. period of time between birth and death B. Repair
of a cell C. Detoxification
C. time from prophase until cytokinesis D. Energy production
D. time it takes for one cell to undergo mi-
tosis 185. The main health care provider for a pa-
tient with cancer is
180. According to the Base-Pair Rule A. dentist
A. A pairs with C and G pairs with T B. oncologist
B. A pairs with G and C pairs with T C. family physician
C. A pairs with T and C pairs with G D. general physician
D. Each nucleotide pairs with itself (ex A 186. G1 is associated with what event?
pairs with A)
A. normal growth and cell function
181. Cyclin is a family of proteins that regu- B. DNA replication
lates what?
C. The beginning of mitosis
A. Mitosis
D. breakdown of the nuclear membrane
B. Meiosis
187. When it occurs at the proper time, pro-
C. Cell Cycle
grammed cell death (apoptosis)
D. Interphase
A. will disrupt homeostasis
182. Chemotherapy is B. may cause defective genetic info to be
A. A cell process passed to the next generation of cells
C. is an important regulatory process
B. Using drugs to treat cancer systemi-
that maintains the health of a multicellu-
cally
lar organism
C. A change in a cell’s DNA
D. can contribute to the development of
D. Using radiation to treat cancer locally cancer
183. The amount of DNA in a cell is mea- 188. Cancer-associated mutations change key:
sured right after mitosis and found to be 8 A. Cardiac functions
picograms. How many picograms of DNA
would be found in a nucleus in the G2 B. muscular functions
phase? C. cellular functions
A. 4 D. neurological functions
B. 8
189. Normal cells become cancer when
C. 16
A. regulation of cell growth and division
D. 24 occurs

8.4 Cancer 898
B. cells do not respond to checkpoints of 195. As a cell grows, its increases more
the cell cycle than its
C. cells respond to control mechanisms A. length, volume
D. cell pass through G1 B. width, surface area
C. volume, surface area
190. How are bone tumors diagnosed?
D. none of these
A. C.A.T Scan
196. What checkpoint of the cell cycle makes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Blood test sure that the chromosomes are lined up
C. X-Ray correctly in the cell?
D. Radiation A. G1 checkpoint
B. G2 checkpoint
191. Which of these is in the correct order?
C. Metaphase checkpoint
A. S; G1; G2; M
D. none of above
B. G1; S; G2; M
197. The cell membrane pinches in, dividing the
C. M; G2; S; G1 cytoplasm into 2 cells
D. G2; S; M; G2 A. Metaphase
B. Anaphase
192. The cell grows and developes into a ma-
ture cell during C. Telephase
A. G1 (First Gap) D. Cytokinesis
B. S (Synthesis) 198. DNA is replicated at this time of the cell

cycle:
C. G2 (Second Gap)
A. S
D. M (Mitosis)
B. G1
193. The 3 most common types of treatments C. M
for cancer
D. G2
A. Chemotherapy
199. Cell division in eukaryotes is called
B. Pain Relievers while in prokaryotes it is
C. Radiation A. mitosis; cytokinesis
D. Surgery B. mitosis; interphase
C. mitosis; binary fission
194. the process of nuclear division in eu-
karyotic cells, divided into prophase, D. mitosis; cell cycle
metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
200. The cause or origin of disease
A. interphase A. etiology
B. mitosis B. epidemiology
C. chromatin C. oncology
D. cell cycle D. none of the above

8.4 Cancer 899
201. What causes cancer? C. Synthesis

A. mutation of cells D. Stand by me

B. cells attack each other 207. % more Cancer cases are diagnosed
C. semi dead cells form a tumor in Females as compared to Male .
D. immune system turns on the body A. 13
B. 14
202. What is the name of the stars in this con-
stellation? C. 15
A. The Beehive And Praesepe D. 16
B. The Beehive, Praesepe, the manger or 208. What is an tumor suppressor
simply M44
A. A mutated gene that promotes uncon-
C. The M44 trolled cell division
D. All of the above B. A gene that normally suppresses the
cell cycle
203. A human egg cell should have chromo-
somes inside. C. A gene that regulates mitosis
B. 23 209. What is a chemical or physical agent that
C. 92 interacts with DNA and causes a genetic
alteration?
D. 64
A. mutagen
204. For Income Benefit in Platinum Option, B. oncogene
Monthly income of % of Sum Insured
would be paid out on diagnosis of the C. tumor-suppressor gene
listed major cancers for a fixed period of D. proto-oncogene
next 5 policy years .
210. Sister chromatids are only present
A. 0.1
A. a. just after cytokinesis through the
B. 0.5 end of G1
C. 1 B. b. just after metaphase through
D. 2 telophase
C. c. just after S phase through separa-
205. Which sex chromosomes would indicate a
tion in metaphase
typical human male?
D. during all of Interphase
A. XX
B. X 211. If a cell has 8 chromosomes, how many
chromosomes will each of its daughter
C. XY
cells have after mitosis?
D. XXY A. 4
206. S in S phase stands for B. 6
A. Steal C. 8
B. Sandlot D. 16

8.4 Cancer 900
212. The term used to describe the spread of 218. Apoptosis is

cancer to other areas of the body is A. Programmed Cell Growth
A. leukemia B. Programmed Cell Death
B. tumor C. Cell Division
C. metastasis D. none of above
D. carcinoma
219. p53 activates which of the following?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
213. the stage in the cell cycle where cells A. Tumor suppressor genes
spend only 10% of their time
B. cell cycle
A. interphase
B. mitoisis D. uncontrolled cell division
C. meiosis
220. Which type of reproduction causes bacte-
D. prophase ria of a species to have the exact same
214. Stem cells are used to DNA as each other?
A. make clones A. asexual
B. create new species of animals B. sexual

C. monopolistic
C. make babies
D. linguistic
D. grow different types of tissues
221. Which of the following is characteristic of
215. A cell with a defective p53 gene is likely
a malignant rather than a benign tumour?
to
A. Develops a blood supply.
A. stop responding to growth regulators
B. Undergoes metastasis.
B. stop dividing to produce daughter cells
C. Cells divide an unlimited number of
C. generate hormones that combat tu- times.
mors
D. Grows without needing a growth sig-
D. produce cells without a defective p53 nal.
gene
222. happens in G1
216. What does this constellation represent?
A. The first gap, the cell is growing and
A. Cancer represents a crab developing
B. Cancer represents a start B. The DNA doubles
C. Cancer represents a butterfly C. The second gap, the cell is doing its job
D. none of above D. The cell divides
217. How many stages are in Binary Fission? 223. Cells go through additional growth.
A. 1 A. G1
B. 2 B. S
C. 3 C. G2
D. 4 D. M phase

8.4 Cancer 901
224. Cells from cancerous tumors usually have C. G2

an unusual number of chromosomes, and D. Mitosis
unusual looking chromosomes. What could

explain this? 230. Beth was diagnosed with breast cancer
A. cancer cells are in G0 that has spread to her bone? Her cancer
is:
B. cancer cells are arrested in the S
phase A. metastatic
C. cell cycle check points are not in place B. benign
D. transformation introduces new chro- C. malignant
mosomes to cells
D. nosocomial
225. Which type of cancer affects tissue such
as bone? 231. Scientists isolate a group of cells that
have 1.5x more DNA than G1 cells. What
A. carcinoma phase were the probably in?
B. melanoma
A. Between G1 and S phase
C. leukemia
B. G2
D. sarcoma
C. M
226. Which organelle is critical for cell divi- D. S
sion?
A. Centrioles/Centrosomes 232. What is the name of the microtubule-
organizing center found in animal cells?
B. Cilia
A. centriole
C. Vacuoles
D. Vesicles B. centrosome
C. centromere
227. Which treatment is used to treat cancer?
D. kinetochore
A. Tylenol
B. Chemotherapy 233. Things like viruses, xrays, and chemicals
can increase your risk of cancer by
C. Sleeping
D. Antibiotics A. causing cells to mutate
B. causing cells to lyse
228. The phase that starts mitosis is
C. cause cells to radiate
A. prophase
D. none of above
B. metaphase
C. anaphase 234. During what stage does the G1 check-
D. telophase point happen?
A. G2 phase
229. Stage in which the cells nuclear material
divides and seperates B. S phase
A. G1 C. M phase
B. Synthesis D. G1 phase

8.4 Cancer 902
235. This is the cell cycle checkpoint that C. contains stem cells
makes sure DNA has been replicated cor-
D. all of the above
rectly during S phase.
A. G1 Checkpoint 241. Cancer that has remained within the tis-
B. G2 Checkpoint sue in which it originated.
C. M Checkpoint A. prognosis
D. I Checkpoint B. epidemiology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
236. What is the treatment for bone cancer? C. benign
A. Surguery D. in situ
B. Radiation
242. How does cancer begin?
C. Medicine
A. mutated DNA
D. Shots
B. a tumor
237. Select ALL stages of Interphase
C. The area that has the most cancer
A. G1
D. The area that has the least cancer
B. S
C. G2 243. In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell
D. Mitosis cycle is regulated by
A. centrioles
238. Cells grow, carry out normal functions,
and copy their organelles. B. cyclins
A. G1 C. spindle fibers
B. S D. the nuclear envelope
C. G2
D. M phase 244. Different or alternate forms of the same
gene are called:
239. A patient was just told that he has can- A. diploid
cer. What medical term will be used by
the doctor to document these positive test B. haploid
results? C. alleles
A. Prognosis
D. zygote
B. Mitosis
C. Diagnosis 245. When does the cell copy itself in the cell
cycle?
D. Meiosis
A. Mitosis
240. Why is using umbilical cord blood benefi-
cial? B. Anaphase
A. non-invasive C. G1 phase
B. can be stored & used later D. G2 phase

8.4 Cancer 903
246. Which of the following is a correct state- 251. Cancer is caused by a change in DNA.
ment about the events of the cell cycle? What is a change or damage to DNA
called?

A. DNA replicates during cytokinesis
A. Mutation
B. Little happens during the G1 and G2
phases B. Replication
C. Interphase consists of the G1, S, and C. Altercation
G2 phases D. Abberation
D. The M phase is usually the longest 252. True or False:Germline mutations are mu-
phase tations that happening during an individ-
ual’s lifetime (nurture), rather than inher-
247. Which type of reproduction takes the
ited.
shortest amount of time?
A. False
A. Asexual
B. True
B. Sexual
C. Both
C. Monopolistic
D. Aren’t germs viruses and bacteria?
D. Bilingual
253. What is the role of the spindle during mi-
248. What happens in G1 of the cell cycle? tosis?
A. Is when a cell copies its DNA to get A. It divides the cell in half.
ready to enter mitosis B. It duplicates the DNA.
B. Is when a cell is repairing and growing C. It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
C. Is when the cell makes a copy of the D. It helps separate the chromosomes.
cell E. It pushes the cell apart.
D. when the chromosomes line up in the
254. Why is it important for cells of multicel-
middle of the cell
lular organisms to undergo mitosis?
249. Tumors are A. Mitosis allows for reproduction with
male and female gametes.
A. all malignant
B. Mitosis increases variation within an
B. mass of abnormal cells that can grow
organism.
uncontrollably
C. Mitosis produces cells that are differ-
C. usually benign ent from the original dividing cell.
D. always metastasizing D. Mitosis produces cells that are identi-
cal to the original dividing cell.
250. Mitosis is essential to life because it
A. contains 4 stages for gametes 255. Who type of protein prevents the cells
with damage form continuing through the
B. maintains genetic continuity cell cycle?
C. controls cell functions A. tumor supressor
D. provides energy for the cells B. tumor initiator

8.4 Cancer 904
C. stem cell suppressor 261. The tilt of the Earth’s axis affects what
two things?
D. stem cell initiator
A. amount of light and amount of winter
256. Which is NOT an external carcinogen? B. amount of summer and amount of win-
A. Chemical Exposure ter
B. Alchohol C. amount of light and temperature
C. Viruses D. amount of summer and temperature
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Mutations to genes 262. In this phase of the cell cycle, the nucleus
of the cell divides and each new nucleus
257. In what phase do chromosomes de- gets a full set of DNA.
condense, the nuclear membrane re-forms A. G1
around chromosomes, and spindle fibers
break down? B. S
A. Prophase C. mitosis
B. Metaphase D. cytokinesis
C. Anaphase 263. The replication of DNA is being affected

in a cell, which phase is responsible for this
D. Telophase
change?
258. how does cancer spread through the body A. G1
A. Shoots into the blood cells B. S phase
B. breaking away from tumors C. G2

D. Mitosis
C. it cant spread
D. it takes control of blood cells 264. The stage of mitosis where the chro-
matids move away from each other or sep-
259. A process where one cell forms two iden- arate is
tical daughter cells is called A. prophase
A. mitosis B. anaphase
B. interphase C. telophase
C. cytokinesis D. metaphase
D. meiosis 265. These are examples of:chemicals in
cigarette smokeradiation nitrates in pro-
260. What would be a way to decrease your cessed foodsartificial sweeterHeavy met-
risk of cancer? als such as mercury and lead
A. Smoke cigarettes A. Carcinogens
B. Use a tanning bed B. Predispositions
C. Use sunscreen C. Mutations
D. Get a bunch of x-rays for fun D. Tumors

8.4 Cancer 905
266. There is association between and in- C. metaphase

creasing cancer risk:
D. telophase

A. Alcohol consumption
B. Obesity 272. Chromosomes and genes are replicated
during
C. Heavy red meat consumption
A. prophase
D. All
B. telophase
267. is the ability of a tumor to attract
new blood vessels which deliver nutrients C. metaphase
and oxygen. D. interphase
A. Metastasis
273. When cancer spreads to a new part of the
B. Carcinogenesis body it is called
C. Angiogenesis
A. Mutation
D. Tumor suppression
B. Metastasis
268. The cell cyle is regulated by C. Manipulation
A. cyclins D. Microscopic
B. CDK’s
C. hormones 274. What is a good prevention tip for some-
one who wants to avoid lung cancer?
D. CDK’s and cyclins
A. Eat chocolate
269. Eosin is used to stain which part of the
B. None, you have the same chances of
cell?
getting it no matter what you do
A. Nucleus
C. Don’t smoke
B. Cheek
D. Find an enjoyable hobby
C. Cytoplasm
D. Mitochondria 275. Cancer is caused by ?
270. The process of going from a diploid cell to A. Changes to the DNA
a haploid cell occurs during B. Changes to an organ
A. mitosis C. Changes to the blood
B. meiosis D. Changes to your physical features
C. binary fission
276. Which of the following are checkpoints
D. interphase
that the cell must pass before dividing?
271. During which phase of mitosis does the A. Have enough nutrients
nuclear envelope reform and the nucleoli
reappear? B. Be large enough to divide
A. interphase C. Have correctly copied all DNA
B. prophase D. All of the above

8.4 Cancer 906
277. Which of the following is a protein main- 282. Why do cells undergo meiosis?
tained at constant levels throughout the A. to help repair the cell
cell cycle that requires cyclin to become cat-
alytically active? B. to produce sex cells:egg and sperm
C. to help the cell grow
A. Cdk
D. none of these
B. cyclin
C. protein kinase 283. Which term below describes a “sponta-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
neous change in a gene? ”
D. MPF
A. mutation
278. What is cancer? B. malignant
A. A group of diseases characterized by C. metastasize
no cell growth D. carcinogen
B. A group of diseases caused by the fail-
284. Taxol is a drug that prevents microtubule
ure of chromosomes to separate
depolymyerization. It stops mitosis by in-
C. A group of diseases characterized by terfering with what?
uncontrolled cell division A. the mitotic spindle
D. A group of diseases caused by exces- B. cytokinesis
sive replication of chromosomes
C. centriole duplication
279. During which phase does the cell dupli- D. chromosome condensation
cate its DNA?
285. Where do cells spend most of their time
A. M Phase in the cell cycle?
B. G1 A. Prophase
C. S B. Metaphase
D. G2 C. Cytokinesis
D. Interphase
280. What is primary bone cancer?
A. Cancer that starts in the liver 286. What system in the human body can rec-
ognize foreign cells like cancer cells?
B. Cancer that starts in the bone
A. digestive system
C. Cancer that starts in the skin
B. immune system
D. Cancer that starts in the heart C. nervous system
281. Income Benefit for how many years given D. urinary system
for Major Cancer treatment to the family?
287. The definition of a tumor is
A. 5 Years A. a cancerous growth
B. 6 Years B. an abnormal growth of tissue
C. 7 Years C. a spreading of cancerous tissue
D. 8 Years D. a mole or other skin blemish

8.4 Cancer 907
288. In a diploid cell with 5 chromosome pairs C. Cyclins

(2n=10), how many sister chromatids will
D. Malignancies
be found at the very beginning of mito-

sis? 294. What is cytokinesis?
A. 5 A. When 2 cells merge together to make
B. 10 1 giant cell
C. 20 B. The end of the cell cycle when the cell
D. 40 divides and mitosis is complete
C. The stage when DNA condenses into
289. Cells replicate DNA. chromosomes
A. G1 D. The stage where chromosomes are
B. S pulled to opposite ends of the cell.
C. G2
295. His condition was as some type of
D. M phase blood disorder.
290. Which part of the cell cycle does NOT in- A. diagnose
clude a checkpoint B. diagnosing
A. Synthesis C. diagnosed
B. G1 D. to diagnose
C. G2
296. If cancerous cells travel throughout your
D. Mitosis
body, the cells have gone through a pro-
291. In this phase of the cell cycle, the entire cess known as:
cell divides producing 2 daughter cells iden- A. Metastisize
tical to the parent cell.
B. Migration
A. G1
C. Flowing
B. S
D. Locomotion
C. mitosis
D. cytokinesis 297. Cytokinesis is the creation of two identi-
cal cells called
292. A mutation is
A. children cells
A. A temporary change in DNA.
B. new cells
B. A permanent change in DNA.
C. daughter cells
C. Both.
D. son cells
D. none of above
298. Which of these may be assessed by vari-
293. Substances known to produce or promote ous proteins during a “checkpoint”?
cancer are called
A. Ensure that all chromosomes have
A. Kinases lined up in the center of the cell before sis-
B. Carcinogens ter chromatids separate

8.4 Cancer 908
B. Ensure that spindle fibers have at- 304. -Chromosomes become attached to the
tached to all centromeres before cell di- spindle apparatus by their kinetochores-
vision A second set of microtubules is formed
C. Ensure that DNA has been replicated from the poles to each kinetochore-
properly Microtubules begin to pull each chromo-
some toward the center of the cell
D. All of them
A. Prophase
299. Which of the follwoing structures is most
B. Prometaphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
complex?
C. Metaphase
A. cell
D. Telophase
B. organ system
C. organ 305. The rats were exposed to radiation 9
D. tissue hours/day for 7 days/week. Do you
think this is similar to the amount of time
300. The American Cancer Society has stated people use cell phones each week?
that one-third of all cancers are caused by: A. Yes
A. air pollution B. No
B. pesticide exposure
C. Not enough information
C. smoking
D. none of above
D. UV rays
306. The part of the cell cycle that divides the
301. Does this data suggest there is a link be- cytoplasm of the cell
tween brain cancer and cell phones?
A. Synthesis Phase
A. Yes
B. G1 Phase
B. No
C. G2 Phase
C. Maybe?
D. Cytokinesis
307. A diagnostic procedure that involves re-
302. What is the most dangerous type of skin
moving a tissue sample from a patient.
cancer
A. biopsy
A. Toothpaste
B. Melanoma B. lipotripsy
C. Leukemia C. pathogenesis
D. Carcinoma D. oncology
303. Cancer affects 308. What are the checkpoints of the cell cycle
made up of?
A. humans only
A. Mutagens
B. unicellular organisms only
B. Mutations
C. multicellular organisms only
D. multicellular and unicellular organ- C. Carcinomas
isms D. Proteins

8.4 Cancer 909
309. Which type of biopsy, also called a cytol- B. The movement of cancerous cells form
ogy test, uses a very thin needle, does not the original site
cut through skin, but sometimes does not

C. The growth of tumors at new sites af-
remove enough tissue for a definite diag-
ter metastasis, harmful
nosis?
D. none of above
A. core needle aspiration biopsy
B. fine needle aspiration biopsy 314. Which of these can cause cancer?
C. excision biopsy A. viruses
D. endoscopic biopsy B. lack of sleep
310. The rungs of the DNA ladder are made of C. lack of exercise
the following nitrogen bases D. high-sugar diet
A. Adenine
315. What are the two results of the solstice
B. Guanine days?
C. Thymine A. longest and shortest days of the year
D. Cytosine B. hottest and coldest days of the year
E. All of the above
C. longest and coldest days of the year
311. a. If cell phones cause head or nervous D. shortest and hottest day of the year
system cancers, a dose-response would be
expected. People with the most years of 316. How do cancerous cells compare to nor-
cell phone use and the largest number of mal cells?
hours per day would be expected to have
A. They are bigger
the greatest increased risk of cancer. Was
a dose-response relationship seen in the B. They divide faster
data from the study? C. They die more quickly
A. Yes D. All of these
B. No
317. A mammogram is a
C. Maybe?
A. x-ray of breast tissue
B. a surgery to remove tumors
312. the phase of mitosis in which the sister
chromatids separate from each other C. removal of great tissue
A. prophase D. machine that creates images
B. metaphase 318. Which is the longest stage of the cell cy-

C. anaphase cle?
D. telophase A. Interphase
B. G1
313. What is metastasis?
C. Prophase
A. The original site of cancer growth, be-
nign, not harmful D. Cytokenesis

8.4 Cancer 910
319. The word cytokinesis has the prefix B. G1

cyto-that refers to a cell and the suffix- C. Synthesis
kinesis that refers to division or move-
ment. Therefore, cytokinesis is the pro- D. G2
cess where a cell’s cytoplasm
325. The cell cycle begins with one cell and
A. divides ends with cells
B. multiplies A. one
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. increases B. two
D. evaporates C. four
320. How can you avoid getting skin cancer D. six
A. Stay inside all the time
326. The process by which the cytoplasm of a
B. Always stay outside without protection eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells
C. Wear sun-protective clothes is called
D. Hide in a tub of water the whole day A. mitosis
B. cytokinesis
321. What are the symptoms of bone cancer?
C. binary fission
A. Pain and swelling
B. Getting fat D. telophase
C. Sweating alot 327. Agents that can cause cancer are named
D. Broken bones as
A. Mutagen
322. Cancer is caused due to
B. Carcinogen
A. Controlled mitosis
C. Oncogen
B. Uncontrolled mitosis
D. Pathogen
C. Controlled meiosis
D. Uncontrolled meiosis 328. What is the end product of cytokinesis
323. What is an oncogene? A. 2 identical daughter cells
A. A mutated gene that promotes uncon- B. 2 genetically unique daughter cells

trolled cell division C. 4 identical daughter cells
B. A gene that normally suppresses the D. 4 genetically unique daughter cells
cell cycle
C. A gene that regulates mitosis 329. Why is understanding the cell cycle so
essential to cancer research and cures?
D. none of above (Check all that apply!)
324. Substage of interphase in which the cell A. The cell cycle has multiple ways to pre-
prepares for nuclear division and a protein vent cancer encoded in your DNA every
that makes microtubules for cell division is day
synthesized B. The cell cycle is the reason why cancer
A. Interphase can develop

8.4 Cancer 911
C. Without the cell cycle cancer would not 334. Which family of proteins regulates the
exist timing of the cell cycle in eukaryotes?

D. The cell cycle is the only way to stop A. Chromatids
cancer B. DNA and RNA
330. This type of gene tells cells to stop divid- C. Cyclins
ing D. Chromosomes
A. proto oncogene 335. The phase of mitosis during which the nu-
B. onco gene clear envelope fragments and the nucleoli
disappear is called
C. tumor suppressor gene
A. interphase
D. none of above
B. prophase
331. When is apoptosis initiated? C. metaphase
A. When DNA damage is repaired. D. telophase
B. When cells are removed from the cell
336. The cell cycle is essential to life because
cycle.
it
C. When DNA damage cannot be re- A. contains 4 stages for gametes
paired.
B. makes identical copies of somatic cells
D. none of above
C. controls cell functions
332. The phases of mitosis in the correct order D. provides energy for the cells
A. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, 337. Which of the following best describes
telophase senescence?
B. metaphase, prophase, anaphase, A. Programmed cell death
telophase
B. Apoptosis
C. anaphase, metaphase, prophase
C. Cellular suicide
telophase
D. Cellular aging
D. prophase, anaphase, metaphase,
telophase 338. Ionizing radiation such as X-rays, gamma
rays, and ultraviolet light can damage
333. Which statement describes an effect of DNA. Would you expect the EM waves
an abnormally high level of a growth hor- used by cell phones to damage DNA?
mone on the regulation of the cell cycle?
A. Yes, they have long wavelengths and
A. The cell would be more likely to enter low energy.
Go phose
B. Yes, they have short wavelengths and
B. The cell would be more likely to enter high energy.
the S phase
C. No, they have long wavelengths and
C. The cell would bypass all normal cell low energy.
cycle checkpoints
D. No, they have short wavelengths and
D. the cell would develop cancer high energy.

8.4 Cancer 912
339. A type of CdK-cyclin complex that pro- 344. A cell spends most of its life in
motes mitosis and peaks in concentration A. Anaphase
at the start of mitosis.
B. Interphase
A. p53
C. Metaphase
B. RAS gene
D. Prophase
C. Platelet Derived Growth Factor (PDGF)
345. Mutations that neither help nor hurt or-
D. Maturation Promoting Factor (MPF)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ganisms are known as
340. When does cell cycle disruption take place A. Beneficial
in the cell cycle
B. Harmful
A. Anaphase
C. Neutral
B. Mitosis D. None of these
C. Metaphase
346. What is Apoptosis?
D. prophase
A. Cell programmed Death
341. Name the 3 checkpoints of the cell cycle B. Inflammation of cell
A. Anaphase checkpoint, metaphase C. Phagocytosis
checkpoint, and telophase checkpoint
D. Necrosis
B. Interphase checkpoint, S phase check-
point, and M phase checkpoint 347. How is Skin Cancer caused?
C. G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and S A. Being in the sun too long
phase checkpoint B. Because you ate too much McDonalds
D. G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and C. From drawing on your skin with
metaphase checkpoint sharpie
342. The type(s) of cells that NEVER divide D. Using too much skin lotion
and stay in Go of interphase are
348. A Carcinogen is
A. a. blood A. The formation of cancer cells
B. b. skin B. A substance that causes cancer
C. c. nerve C. A substance that prevents cancer
D. both a & c D. A cancer cell
343. When you start with 1 cell, at the end of 349. is a cancer treatment that uses high-
mitosis, how many identical cells will you energy x-ray or other particles to destroy
have? cancer cells
A. 1 A. Surgery
B. 2 B. Chemotherapy
C. 3 C. Radiation therapy
D. 4 D. Immunotherapy

8.4 Cancer 913
350. The final stage of the cell cycle is called: C. identical twins
A. Interphase D. variety

B. mitosis
356. The purpose of the cell cycle is
C. cytokinesis
A. growth
D. daughter cells
B. repair
351. Which type of reproduction results in ALL
the organisms of a species dying when a C. new DNA
disease affects the population? D. new organelles
A. asexual
B. sexual 357. This phase is when the cytoplasm fully
separates, creating 2 separate cells. What
C. monopolistic is this phase?
D. linguistic A. Endocytosis
352. Which actress’s Ayaan is sitting? B. Exocytosis
A. Shahrukh Khan C. Cytokinesis
B. Ayush Sharma
D. Metaphase
C. Imran Sharma
D. Imran’s 358. The cytoplasm and new cells finally di-
vide during:
353. Which of the following is true regarding
A. interphase
checkpoints?
A. Cyclin is made at a constant rate by cell B. mitosis
unless signaled otherwise C. chromosome
B. CDK is used up each time the cell di- D. cytokinesis
vides
C. MPF is a combination of cyclin and bi- 359. Which of the following is a description of
cycles a cancer cell?
D. Cyclin is an enzyme A. regular, ellipsoid shape
354. Cells that have 2 sets of chromosomes B. few connections with other cells
are called: C. grow as uniform layer
A. Haploid
D. all the above
B. Diploid
C. Binary 360. During mitosis,
D. Gametes A. the cell divides
355. At the end of MITOSIS, you have cells B. the nucleus divides
A. identical C. the cytoplasm divides
B. different D. the dude abides

8.4 Cancer 914
361. Which of the following types of protein 366. What does telomerase do in cancer cells
could be coded by a tumour-suppressor and stem cells?
gene? A. extends the 5’ end of a chromosomal
A. A protein that forms part of a growth DNA strand
factor signalling pathway. B. shortens the 5’ end of a chromosomal
B. A protein that codes for a DNA repair DNA strand
enzyme. C. extend the number of times a cell can
divide
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A protein that helps prevent apoptosis.
D. shortens the number of times a call
D. A protein that controls progression
can divide
through the cell cycle.
367. Identical cells formed during cell division
362. A group of diseases involving abnormal are called:
cell growth that might spread to other
parts of the body A. daughter organelles
B. daughter cycles
A. cancer
C. daughter nucleus
B. mutagen
D. daughter cells
C. mutation
368. cancer is the type of cancer that may
D. primary tumor
result from a single dominant mutation or
363. Why do cells such as neurons divide very from two recessive mutations in the same
rarely? gene
A. They no longer have active nuclei A. Sporadic

B. Germline
B. They have entered G0
C. Somatic
C. they can no longer break down cyclins
D. Tumor supressor
D. They no longer produce MPF
369. What is the survival rate? .
364. What is the first stage of the cell cycle A. 18%for men
called?
B. 55%for men
A. Interphase
C. 67%for men
B. Mitosis
D. 25% for women
C. Cytokinesis
370. The amount of DNA per cell was mea-
D. Prophase sured in cells at every single point of the
cell cycle. It ranged from 3 to 6 picograms.
365. Using sound waves to create images of
In what stage did the nucleus contain 6
areas within the body.
picograms?
A. ultrasound A. G1
B. MRI B. S
C. CAT scan C. G2
D. EKG D. G0

8.4 Cancer 915
371. Who is your FAVORITE BIOLOGY C. A G A G A G A G

TEACHER?
D. A G A G C C C C

A. Mrs. Smith OF COURSE!!!
B. Tiger King 377. Why do cells divide?
C. President Trump A. organism grows
D. Senator BIden B. Replace damaged tissues (from cut)
372. A mutation can only be passed down if it C. Reproduce
is in what kind of cell? D. All of the Above
A. Body
B. Somatic 378. During which stage does the cell grow
in size and carry out normal cellular pro-
C. Sex cesses?
D. Stem A. G1
373. What checkpoint of the cell cycle makes B. S
sure that the DNA has replicated cor-
rectly? C. G2
A. G1 checkpoint D. M
B. G2 checkpoint
379. The dark staining structures that carry
C. Metaphase checkpoint the genetic material
D. none of above A. centromeres
374. What are cyclins and cyclin dependent ki- B. chromosomes
nases?
C. tissues
A. regulatory proteins
D. sister chromatids
B. carcinogens
C. mitotic proteins 380. The recruitment & generation of blood
D. mutagens vessels & lymph vessels is called
A. Angiogenesis
375. How old was Ayaan when he was diag-
nosed with cancer? B. Carcinogenesis
A. 8 years C. Metastasis
B. 5 years D. Mitosis
C. 4 years
381. The uncontrolled growth of a cell is due
D. 13 years
to
376. The original DNA is:A G A G A G A A. too many organelles
GWhich answer choices shows ONE muta-
tion in the original DNA? B. cells getting too big
A. A G T G A G A G C. cells behaving abnormally
B. A G A G T G C G D. all of the above

8.4 Cancer 916
382. consists of G1, S, and G2 stages C. 63 chromosomes

A. Interphase D. 128 chromosomes
B. Metaphase 388. HeLa cells have been known help in the
C. Telophase study of various medical issues. Why are
D. Cytokenesis they special?
A. They do not get cancer
383. Throughout the years, research per-
formed using HeLa cells made advances B. They can replicate an indefinite num-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
against ber of times
A. polio. C. HeLa donated her cells for cancer re-
search
B. cancer.
D. They are resistant to COVID-19
C. tuberculosis.
D. all of these. 389. I have the base uracil.
A. RNA
384. Something that increases the chance of
developing a disease. B. DNA
A. morbidity C. Both DNA and RNA
B. palliative treatment D. none of above
C. lifetime risk 390. Which phrase best describes cancer?
D. risk factor A. absence of cyclins
385. The incidence of cancer would be highest B. multiple gene mutation
in which person? C. uncontrolled cell growth
A. 15 year old African-American boy D. presence of genetic defects
B. 3 year old Asian male
391. Which level of organization is repre-
C. 48 year old Pacific-Island male sented by a group of different tissues
D. 70 year old white male working together to perform a complex
function?
386. The phase of mitosis when chromosomes
A. Cell
align in themiddle is called
B. Tissue
A. anaphase
B. prophase C. Organ
C. telophase D. Organism
D. metaphase 392. The synthesis (S) phase is characterized

by
387. The body cells of a horse contain 64 chro-
mosomes. How many chromosomes would A. cell division
be present in cells produced through meio- B. the division of cytoplasm
sis? C. DNA replication
A. 64 chromosomes D. replication of mitochondria and other
B. 32 chromosomes organelles

8.4 Cancer 917
393. While chemotherapy works to kill cancer B. telomeres shortening with each cellu-
cells, aims to boost the body’s own im- lar division
mune system to fight cancer

C. None of the above
A. surgery D. is around 40 to 60 times before a cell
B. radiation therapy reaches senescence
C. immunotherapy 399. Anything that can cause mutations or
D. photodynamic therapy turn on cancer genes. Examples:smoking,
radiation, chemicals, poor diet
394. Why types of cells may not undergo mi-
A. Risk Factors
tosis at all?
B. Mutations
A. hair
C. Tumors
B. skin
D. Predispositions
C. brain
D. muscles 400. What does “pluripotent” mean?
A. able to divide and make all different
395. a cellular structure carrying genetic mate- types of cells
rial, found in the nucleus. Consists of one
long strand of DNA. B. not able to divide
A. Chromosome C. can only divide and make one cell type
B. ccentromere D. if it divides, it will make a cancerous
tumor
C. interphase
D. sister chromatid 401. symptoms of Lung cancer.?
A. Coughing up blood
396. What does “neoplasm” literally trans-
late to from Latin into English? B. Gaining weight
A. Old growth C. Sleeping

D. leg pain
B. New growth
C. Tumor-causing 402. A mutation will be passed onto an off-
spring when
D. Astrological cancer crab
A. It happens during surgery
397. Which of the following is NOT a phase of
B. It’s in a body cell
interphase?
C. It’s in a gamete cell
A. M Phase
D. It’s in a somatic cell
B. G1
C. S 403. Which is a function of cyclins?
D. G2 A. Cyclins are carbohydrates that regu-
late DNA replication during the mitosis
398. The Hayflick limit involves phase of the cell cycle.
A. the amount of times a cell can divide B. Cyclins are glycoproteins that repair
before it stops DNA in the beginning of cell cycle.

8.4 Cancer 918
C. Cyclins are proteins that regulate 409. What type of cancer is a female patient
when and how often a cell divides. predisposed to if she has already been di-
D. none of above agnosed with HPV?
A. Breast
404. Activities or choices that will affect your
B. Ovarian
health.
C. uterine
A. lifestyle factors
D. Cervical
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. biogenetics
C. healthy choices 410. At the end of cell division, what happens
after telophase?
D. habits
A. cytokinesis
405. Human egg cells are most similar to hu- B. cytoplasm
man sperm cells in their
C. Indiana Jones wins the day!
A. way they move
D. telophase 2
B. amount of stored food
C. chromosome number 411. Which of the following properly describes
interactions at the G2 checkpoint?
D. shape and size
A. cyclin binds with MPF to make CDK
406. The uncontrolled division of cells can lead B. MPF enters the cell through the mem-
to: brane
A. cancer C. A certain level of MPF allows the cell
B. mitosis cycle to continue past the checkpoint
C. meiosis D. None of these are true
D. cellular recombination 412. Patients are required to use for their

photodynamic therapy
407. This type of mutations occurs when one
base is taken out of the sequence, drasti- A. light-sensitive drug
cally changing the resulting protein. B. cannabis
A. Point Mutation C. pain-killing drug
B. Insertion Mutation D. analgesic drug
C. Deletion Mutation 413. What is cell specialization or differentia-
D. Substitution tion?
A. The process where unspecialized cells
408. In which stage of the cell cycle is the cell
become different in structure and func-
preparing for division?
tion.
A. G1
B. When DNA controls the cell cycle.
B. S
C. The ability of cells to make more cells.
C. G2 D. The ability of cells to maintain home-
D. M ostasis.

8.4 Cancer 919
414. Which cell types do mitosis? 419. What does NOT happen during inter-
phase?
A. sex cells

A. growth
B. somatic cells
B. DNA replication
C. both of the above
C. obtaining nutrients
D. none of above
D. cell divison
415. The phase during mitosis where chromo-
420. Term for a group of more than 100 dis-
somes line up in the middle of the cell is
eases in which abnormal cells divide with-
out control.
A. prophase
A. biopsy
B. anaphase B. epiodemiology
C. metaphase C. cancer
D. telophase D. mortality
416. Meaning of the name of this constella- 421. Right after a bone breaks, cells at the
cion? edge of the injury
A. According to the story when zeus was A. Stop dividing
fighting a multiheaded snake name hydra, B. Begin to divide rapidly
the crab bit him
C. Form a thin layer over the edge of the
B. Is call cancer because it represents a injury
crab
D. Develop a defect in a gene called p53
C. According to the story, when Hercules
(a Greek mythological hero) was fighting a 422. Cancer is
multiheaded snake named Hydra, the crab A. a premature stop in the cell cycle.
bit him but was then crushed underfoot.
B. uncontrolled mitosis.
D. none of above C. programmed cell death.
417. A type ofmutation in which no amino D. none of above
acids change is called
423. What is the result of the cell cycle?
A. Missense
A. Two Identical Daughter Cells
B. Nonsense B. Cytokinesis
C. Silent C. Meiosis
D. Deletion D. Cell Division
418. How can you take care of your skin 424. A scientist specializing in biomedical re-
search for cancer may analyze which cellu-
A. Use sunscreen
lar component when studying the life cycle
B. Drink lot’s of water of a cell?
C. Don’t smoke A. Cell membrane
D. All of the above B. cytoplasm

8.4 Cancer 920
C. genes 430. How many chromosomes does a human

D. ribosome somatic (body) cell have?
A. 46
425. What is the first step in DNA replication
B. 23
A. Base Pairing
C. 42
B. Semi Conservative Replication
D. 26
C. Separation of the DNA strands
431. The cell carries out normal functions dur-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Bonding of Hydrogen bonds
ing..
426. On what two days of the year do the A. interphase
Winter and Summer Solstice occur?
B. cytokinesis
A. Feb. 21 & Dec. 21
C. mitosis
B. June 21 & Nov. 21
D. none of above
C. June.21 & Dec. 21
D. Feb. 21 & Nov. 21 432. I include the bases guanine, cytosine, and
adenine.
427. Which statement best describes the struc- A. DNA
ture of a DNA molecule?
B. RNA
A. DNA is a single-stranded and straight
molecule C. Both DNA and RNA
B. DNA is a single-stranded and curly D. none of above
molecule 433. Which approach would effectively and
C. DNA is a double-stranded molecule noninvasively address most forms of can-
that looks like a spiralstaircase cer?
D. DNA is a double stranded molecule A. early diagnosis
that is straight like a ladder B. early treatment
428. During which phase of tumor develop- C. prevention
ment is the mass considered malignant? D. surgical intervention
A. Dysplasia
434. The process of mitosis and cytokinesis
B. Hyperplasia produce two identical
C. In situ A. daughter cells
D. Invasive B. strands
429. When cells lose their ability to regulate C. chromosomes
the cell cycle, they can divide at an accel- D. chromatids
erated rate and form a mass of cells. This
mass of cells is referred to as- 435. Respiration produces these things:
A. a tumor A. Sugar, Water, and Energy
B. an embryo B. CO2, Water, and Energy
C. a gland C. O2, Water, and Energy
D. an organ D. Starch, Water, and Energy

8.4 Cancer 921
436. What is lung cancer? . B. skin

A. Main types called small cells C. blood

B. Eating a lot D. bone
C. Sleeping
442. Elephants have 40 p53 genes. Why does
D. Laughing this matter?
437. DNA is replicated during the phase of A. It aids in apoptosis when a mutation
the cell cycle. occurs
A. G1 B. p53 acts like shield and doesn’t let UV
light into cells
B. Synthesis
C. Elephants pass on p53 to their off-
C. G2
spring through their trunks
D. G0
D. p53 does not matter to scientists
438. Which of the following correctly de-
443. or more of the cell cycle is spent here.
scribes cells that are in the G0 phase?
A. Interphase
A. Mature nerve and muscle cells are un-
able to divide and are permanently in G0. B. Mitosis
B. Many cells enter G0 when they reach C. Cytokinesis
the checkpoint during the M phase. D. Anaphase
C. Cells in G0 are growing and preparing
for cell division. 444. A is a critical point where stop and
go signals can regulate the cell cycle
D. DNA replication occurs during G0.
A. tumor
439. What increases your risk for bone can- B. checkpoint
cer?
C. mitotic index
A. You got it from someone else
D. carcinogen
B. You ate something that had cancer
C. You had a previous form of cancer 445. What mainly cause bladder cancer
D. You gained too much weight A. exposure to smoke
B. Marijuana
440. Did Ayaan recognize her voice?
C. Exposure to KNOWLEDGE
A. No, Ayan didn’t recognize him because
he thought he was Batman for real D. Exposure to chemicals
B. maybe yes maybe no 446. What is the role of protein kinases?
C. Yes, because he knows his father’s A. remove phosphate groups to deacti-
voice too well vate enzymes
D. none of above B. trigger apoptosis
441. Which type(s) of cells replicate fre- C. add phosphate groups and energy to
quently? activate enzymes
A. liver D. stop the cell cycle

8.4 Cancer 922
447. The mitotic index shows 452. When DNA makes a copy of itself.
A. the percentage of cells in a sample that A. Replication
are undergoing mitosis B. Copying
B. the percentage of cells in a sample C. Repeating
that are undergoing meiosis D. Daughter Cells
C. the percentage of cells in a sample
453. In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell DNA
that have cancer
is copied.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. the percentage of cells in a sample
A. G1
that are in apoptosis
B. S
448. During this stage in interphase, the cell C. G2
grows, carries out normal functions, and
D. mitosis/cytokinesis
copy their organelles.
A. G1 454. Damage that causes a change in DNA is
called
B. Synthesis
A. Anaphase
C. G2
B. Replication
D. Mitosis
C. a protein
449. Corn (Zea mays) has 20 chromosomes. D. a mutation
How many chromosomes will each daugh-
455. When a cell divides, what do we call the
ter cell have after mitosis and cytokinesis
2 new cells?
occurs?
A. mother cells
A. 5 chromosomes
B. father cells
B. 10 chromosomes
C. daughter cells
C. 20 chromosomes
D. son cells
D. 30 chromosomes
456. Which therapy may be use to treat cystic
450. Axolotls have the special ability to fibrosis, Parkinson’s disease, amyotrophic
lateral sclerosis (ALS), Alzheimer’s dis-
A. Cure people of cancer
ease, hemophilia, and certain cancers?
B. They can breathe underwater
A. cryotherapy
C. Regenerate body parts B. hormone therapy
D. Reproduce millions of offspring a day C. chemotherapy
451. If a sex cell contains 10 chromosomes, D. gene therapy
how many chromosomes are in the body 457. In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell pre-
cells? pares for cell division.
A. 5 A. G1
B. 10 B. S
C. 15 C. G2
D. 20 D. mitosis/cytokinesis

8.4 Cancer 923
458. If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24 463. Which of these is a risk factor for devel-
chromosomes, a butterfly egg would con- oping cancer?
tain

A. growing older
A. 3 B. genetic inheritance
B. 6 C. exposure to carcinogens
C. 12 D. all of the above
D. 24 464. Carcinogen is a substance that induces
459. A normal cellular process involving pro- cancer and it could include:
grammed series of events that lead to the A. Physical agent
death of a cell B. Chemical agent
A. prognosis C. Viral agent
B. bone marrow D. All
C. apoptosis 465. How many cells are produced during
D. none of the above telophase I?
A. 4
460. Martha’s colon cancer has NOT spread.
When abnormal cells are only found in the B. 8
tissue of origin, this refers to: C. 2
A. dysplasia D. 0
B. hyperplasia 466. A tumor is a
C. in situ A. mass of DNA
D. invasiveness B. mass of normal cells
461. Tumor C. mass of damaged cells
A. An uncontrollable mass of cells that D. mass of blue cells
continue to divide 467. In which stage of the cell cycle are cells
B. Benign growth usually in the lungs most susceptible (likely to experience) to
mutations?
C. Oncogene causing shrinkage of cells
A. G1
D. Growth inside mitochondria of a cell
B. S
462. Cells normally spend 90% of their time C. G2
in interphase. Cancer cells are different
because they spend more time dividing. D. G0
Which phase do cancer cells spend more 468. What are the three things needed for pho-
time in? tosynthesis?
A. S phase A. Water, CO2, and O2
B. Mitosis B. Water, CO2, and Sunlight
C. Interphase C. Water, O2, and Sunlight
D. G1 Phase D. Water, Sugar, and a can do attitude

8.4 Cancer 924
469. Cells spend 90% of their lifetime in C. skip check points, divide faster, and do
A. mitosis not have regulatory proteins.
B. interphase D. skip don’t check points, divide faster,

and do not have regulatory proteins.
C. apoptosis
D. repairing damaged cells 475. What is the biggest cause of lung can-
cer?
470. One difference between a cancer cell and A. Smoking
a normal cell is that
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Second-hand smoke
A. Cancer cells divide uncontrollably
C. Eating unhealthy foods
B. Normal cells divide uncontrollably
D. Not exercising
C. Cancer cells cannot make copies of
DNA 476. Cells who do not proceed through the cell
cycle properly and divide uncontrollably
D. Normal cells cannot make copies of
are indicative of:
DNA
A. Nondisjunction
471. Cancer begins when a in the DNA dis-
B. Down Syndrome
rupts the cell cycle.
C. Cancer
A. tumor
D. Parkinson’s Disease
B. mutation
C. cancer 477. Which of the following is a type of pro-
tein that regulates the cell cycle?
D. chromosome
A. actin
472. Which is NOT a characteristic of a cancer B. myosin
cell?
C. cyclin
A. active telomerase
D. pepsin
B. telomeres that can lengthen
478. How does mitosis in plant cells differ
C. responds to an apoptotic signal
from mitosis in animal cells?
D. cannot respond to an apoptotic signal
A. animal cells form a cell plate
473. Cancer treatments include B. plant cells form a cell plate
A. Chemotherapy C. plant cells go through the process in
B. Radiation reverse
C. Surgery D. plant cells go through two rounds of
mitosis while animal cells just do one
D. All of the above
479. A cancerous cell has lost its ability to con-
474. Cancerous cells have different functions
trol it’s rate of
than regular cells. They
A. nutrient uptake
A. skip check points, divide slower, and
do not have regulatory proteins. B. cell division
B. skip check points, divide faster, and C. osmosis
have regulatory proteins. D. none of above

8.4 Cancer 925
480. does anybody have cancer i your house A. execution

A. uncle B. cell division

B. aunt C. meiosis
C. dad D. apoptosis
D. mom
486. The three stages of the cell cycle are ,
481. Which of the following would NOT be con- mitosis, andcytokinesis.
sidered a carcinogen?
A. interphase
A. healthy fruits & vegetables
B. anaphase
B. tobacco smoke
C. metaphase
C. X-rays
D. prophase
D. UV rays
482. DNA does the following 487. programmed cell death =
A. Controls cell activities, is a set of in- A. apoptosis

structions for the cell & carries hereditary B. cancer
information
C. spindle
B. Controls cell activities, carries heredi-
tary information and makes proteins D. cytokinesis
C. Tells the cell what to do, makes pro- 488. What is the most common cancer?
teins and stores fat
A. Colorectal
D. Is a set of instructions for the cell and
sends information out of the cell B. Breast
C. Lung
483. The jelly like substance inside a cell refers
to the: D. Skin cancer
A. chromosome
489. What would you expect if MPF was in-
B. cytoplasm jected into cells that were arrested in G2?
C. ribosome A. Cells would remain in G2
D. lysosome B. Cells would enter G0
484. Which term below means “new blood C. Cells would enter mitosis
vessel growth? ”
D. Cells would begin DNA synthesis
A. angiostasis
B. angiostatin 490. The series of events take place in a eu-
karyotic cell between cell divisions
C. metastasize
A. Cell Life
D. tumor
B. Cell Cycle
485. If a cell is found to be abnormal, tumor
C. Mitosis
suppressor genes may induce , or pro-
grammed cell death. D. Cytokinesis

8.4 Cancer 926
491. How many stars does this constellation B. Meiosis

contain?
C. The cell cycle
A. 50 stars visible
D. Go and no-go switches
B. 7 stars
C. 3 stars 497. Type of tumor that remains at original
site
D. none of above
A. Benign
NARAYAN CHANGDER
492. is long, continuous thread of DNA
that consists of numerous genes and regu- B. Malignant
latory information. C. Metastaasis
A. chromatin D. checkpoint
B. chromosomes
498. perotti?
C. chromatid
D. none of these A. cold
B. josh
493. Cancer cells:
C. thank you
A. Lose the ability to divide
B. Divide more slowly than normal cells D. jessica
C. Spend less time in Interphase 499. Which of the following is NOT an exter-
D. Spend less time in mitosis/cytokinesis nal factor that will promote cell growth
494. In a diploid cell with 5 chromosome pairs A. An increase in growth hormone

(2n=10), how many centromeres will be B. A decrease in growth hormone
found in a nucleus at G2
C. Death of nearby cells
A. 5
D. Decrease in surface area to volume ra-
B. 10 tio
C. 20
500. And finally, cancer can also be caused
D. 40
from
495. During which phase of the cell cycle are A. carcinogenic chemicals
the chromosomes lined up in the middle of
the cell? B. Too much sugar
A. metaphase C. Drinking too much coffee
B. prophase D. germs from someone who has cancer
C. telophase
501. Why is it called the synthesis stage?
D. allophase
A. protien synthesis is happening
496. Cell division is controlled by which
B. DNA synthesis is happening
causes division to stop when cells are
touching each other C. several smaller stages are combined
A. Contact inhibition D. the chromosomes line up

8.4 Cancer 927
502. Cancer is: C. ayan

A. uncontrolled cell death D. Karthik

B. uncontrolled cell growth
508. Certain chemicals and radiation can also
C. cell division damage DNA by causing mutations. These
D. none of above are known as
A. enzymes
503. Does this data show a significant in-
crease in brain cancer in rats exposed to B. mutagens
9.0 × 108 Hz EM waves? C. cancer
A. Definitely yes D. hox genes
B. Definitely no
509. If a cell contains 20 sister chromatids at
C. It’s hard to say the beginning of mitosis, how many chro-
D. none of above mosomes will be present in a G1 cell?
504. Which is not a hallmark of Cancer? A. 5

A. Resisting cell death B. 10
B. Inducing angiogenesis C. 20
C. Inhibiting growth promoters D. 40
D. Enabling immortality 510. When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA
replicated?
505. Which of the following is not a way that
genes for cell cycle regulatory proteins can A. G1phase
be damaged? B. G2phase
A. cell crowding
C. Sphase
B. carcinogens
D. Mphase
C. inherited mutations
511. What treatments are there for Skin Can-
D. exposure to certain viruses
cer
506. The cancer cells are still in the place A. Chemotherapy
where they started and have not spread
at all. B. Surgery
A. stage 0 C. Radiotherapy
B. stage 1 D. All of the above

C. stage 2 and 3 512. When a cell is not actively dividing, it is
D. stage 4 in what phase?
A. interphase
507. Who was the boy who endured pain and
fought cancer? B. mitosis
A. Ayush C. cytokinesis
B. Prayer D. none of above

8.4 Cancer 928
513. WHAT MAINLY CAUSE SKIN CANCER 519. Which of the following can cause cancer?
A. RAD A. tobacco
B. Chemicals B. UV radiation
C. Radiation from sun C. mutations
D. Ultraviolet lights from the moon
D. all of the above
514. Crossing over involves: E. lifestyle choices as an unhealthy diet
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. synapsis and lack of exercise
B. formation of a tetrad
520. Bacteria have developed resistance to an-
C. alignment of homologous chromo- tibiotics. Because of this antibiotics don’t
somes kill many bacteria caused illnesses.What
D. all of the above kind of mutation is this for the bacteria?
515. In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell A. Helpful

grows bigger. B. Harmful
A. G1 C. Neutral
B. S D. none of above
C. G2
D. mitosis/cytokinesis 521. Which type of cancer affects white blood
cells?
516. “Covid-19” is
A. carcinoma
A. The name of Mrs. Smith’s 1st child
B. leukemia
B. The name of a fancy perfume
C. sarcoma
C. The name of a virus
D. melanoma
D. The name of your dog
517. The uncontrolled growth of a cell is 522. At what stage of the cell cycle do the chro-
caused from mosomes seperate to different poles?
A. too many cells A. Metaphase
B. cells getting too big B. Anaphase
C. cells behaving abnormally C. Prophase
D. all of the above D. Telophase
518. This is a term used to describe cancer
523. Cellular “old age” or the point at which
cells that divide rapidly and bear no resem-
a mature cell will no longer divide is called
blance to normal cells
A. anaplastic A. apoptosis
B. angiogenesis B. differentiation
C. totipotent cell C. redifferentiation
D. embryonic cell D. senescence

8.4 Cancer 929
524. If a cell undergoes mitosis repeatedly, 529. During , one copy of DNA is put into
but does not undergo cytokinesis, predict each of the two new cells.
what the cells would look like:

A. interphase
A. Many individual cells each with their B. mitosis
own nucleus.
C. cytokinesis
B. One large cell with many nuclei.
D. replication
C. Two large cells with many nuclei in
each cell. 530. What two processes make up the M
D. Many individual cells, each lacking a stage?
nucleus. A. fermentation & mitosis
525. Some scientists name the stage where B. mitosis & cytokinesis
cells carry out their normal functions but C. glycolysis & cytokinesis
are unlikely to divide. The name they give
D. G1 & G2
this stage is
A. G0 531. Any substance that is known to cause
cancer is called a
B. G1
C. G2 A. carcinogen
D. G3 B. nicolyte
C. pathogen
526. What is bone cancer?
D. retrovirus
A. Bones that don’t have cancer
B. A cancerous tumor in your bone 532. Primary CNS lymphoma affects the
C. Your liver having cancer A. brain and spinal cord

D. You have a broken bone B. bones and bone marrow
C. body’s immune system
527. Name the structure that forms at the end
of telophase in a plant cell D. the skin and lining of the organs
A. Cell wall 533. What are some symptoms of skin cancer
B. Cleavage Furrow A. A changing mole
C. Cell Plate B. Freckles
D. Spindle fibers C. An unhealing sore
528. Cells spend 90% of their time in this D. Peeling skin
stage of the cell cycle. This is the reason E. A scaly patch of skin
you would see most cells in this stage if
viewed under a microscope. 534. I have the base thymine.
A. Prophase A. Both DNA and RNA
B. Metaphase B. RNA
C. Anaphase C. DNA
D. Interphase D. none of above

8.4 Cancer 930
535. Which cell cycle checkpoint makes sure 540. A(n) is a stage in the eukaryotic cell
that chromosomes are duplicated and cycle at which the cell examines internal
checks for damage of the replicated DNA? and external cues and “decides” whether
or not to move forward with division.
A. G1 checkpoint
B. S checkpoint A. checkpoint
C. G2 checkpoint B. chromosome
D. M checkpoint C. interphase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. tumor
536. Which of the following does not occur dur-
ing mitosis?
541. A chromatid is attached to a spindle fiber
A. condensationof the chromosomes by the
B. replication of the DNA A. centriole
C. separationof sister chromatids B. cleavage furrow
D. spindleformation C. centromere
537. The normal function of a tumor suppres- D. centriole
sor gene is
542. What type of biopsy removes the entire
A. to produce growth signals
lesion?
B. to code for proteins that inhibit, or
A. aspiration
slow, cell division
B. internal
C. to cause the cell to move faster
through the cell cycle C. excision
D. to attack cancer cells in the body D. incision
538. Pick the symptoms of cancer that are true 543. Which of the following occurs during the
S phase of the cell cycle?
A. Bladder changes A. DNA doubles
B. Bleeding or bruising (for no known rea-
B. Mitosis
son)
C. Growth and development
C. Cough or hoarseness that does not go
away D. Nothing
D. Straining a muscle
544. If a mutation occurs in an expressed gene,
539. Which molecule triggers the cell to pass it will most directly affect the structure of
the G2 checkpoint and enter mitosis? a cell’s
A. PDGF A. ATP
B. MPF B. proteins
C. cyclin C. energy source
D. cdk D. membrane

8.4 Cancer 931
545. Why is it important that the control group of braincancers diagnosed to change over
of rats be fed the same food and kept in time?
the same type of environment than the ex-

A. Increase
perimental rats?
B. Decrease
A. Because the scientists ran out of
money to buy different food C. Not enough information
B. So that the rats did not develop other D. none of above

diseases than brain cancer 550. Which of the following is a feature of a
C. To reduce the number of variables that plant cell division that distinguishes it from
could affect the results an animal cell dividing?
D. none of above A. a cell plate forms
B. a cleavage furrow forms
546. the football shaped structure consisting
of thin fibers C. cytokinesis does not occur
A. spindle D. four new cells are present
B. centromere 551. DNA replication occurs during
C. chromatid A. interphase
D. chromosome B. anaphase
547. The centromere is a region in which C. metaphase
A. metaphase chromosomes become D. telophase
aligned at the metaphase plate.
552. The process in which a normal cell be-
B. chromosomes are grouped during comes a cancer cell is called
telophase.
A. metastasis
C. chromatids remain attached to one an-
B. cytokinesis
other until anaphase.
C. angiogenesis
D. the nucleus is located prior to mitosis.
D. carcinogenesis
548. Why did Imran wait for a few seconds
after talking to Ayaan on the phone? 553. Bacteria (prokaryotes) reproduce using
A. because he wanted to answer her in A. budding
the right voice B. binary fission
B. because he was wondering what to C. spores
say to her D. seeds & pollen
C. because he wanted to test him,
whether he recognized him as his father 554. G1, S, and G2 phases are combined into
or not one long phase called
D. because he wanted her to guess who A. Interphase
it was B. Mitosis
549. If brain cancer can be caused by cell phone C. Cytokinesis

use, how would you expect the number D. The cell cycle

8.4 Cancer 932
555. How many people get bone cancer each C. provides genetic diversity
year? D. produces identical offspring
A. 2, 000
561. Which of the following is NOT a charac-
B. 1 million
teristic of cancer cells?
C. 500, 000
A. Increase in size and shape
D. 3
B. Cell proliferation
556. How many chromosomes does a human
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Tissue invasion
egg or sperm (gamete) cell have?
D. Cell adhesion
A. 23
B. 46 562. A scientist examines cancerous stomach
cells. Which stage of the cell cycle would
C. 42 they find a lot of?
D. 26
A. mitosis
557. In which phase one can observe the chro- B. cytokinesis
mosomes aligned in the equatorial line?
C. interphase
A. Prophase
D. none of above
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase 563. How does lung cancer effect someone
emotionally?
D. Telophase
A. Sadness
558. Cells can become cancerous when: B. happy
A. mutations accumulate in the genes
C. Anger
that control cell division
D. laughing
B. no mutations occur
C. cell division repressor genes are not 564. An ordered sequence of events in the life
mutated of a cell. Creates two identical daughter
cells.
D. apoptosis occurs all the time
A. interphase
559. The stage of the cell cycle just preceding
nuclear and cytoplasmic division is the: B. mitosis
A. M stage C. chromatin
B. S stage D. cell cycle
C. G1 565. During , the cell grows, makes a copy
D. G2 of its DNA, and prepares to divide into two
cells.
560. An advantage of sexual reproduction
A. interphase
over asexual reproduction is that sexual
reproduction B. mitosis
A. takes less time C. cytokinesis
B. requires more time D. chromosome

8.4 Cancer 933
566. Chromosomes are made up of two identi- 571. What are the characteristics of Cancer
cal sister Cells (Check all that apply)

A. chloroplasts A. Lack Differentiation
B. nuclei B. Have abnormal nuclei
C. chromatids C. Form tumors
D. gens D. Undergo metastasis and angiogenesis
572. Which cell cycle checkpoint verifies cell

567. The stage of mitosis where the sister
size and checks the original DNA for dam-
chromatids are pulled apart.
age?
A. interphase
A. G1 checkpoint
B. metaphase B. S checkpoint
C. anaphase C. G2 checkpoint
D. telophase D. M checkpoint
568. During prophase of mitosis, each chromo- 573. How did Imran and his son talk?
some of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair A. on the phone
of identical structures called
B. face to face
A. chromatid
C. by loading
B. sister chromosomes
D. none of above
C. DNA transcript
574. -Chromosomes continue to condense-
D. sister chromatids Centrioles move to each pole of the cell-
Spindle apparatus is assembled-Nuclear
569. The fact that we took DNA out of a straw-
envelope dissolves
berry suggests that
A. Prophase
A. we share a common genetic code with
a strawberry B. Prometaphase
B. strawberries are in no way similar to C. Metaphase

animals D. Anaphase
C. strawberries and animals are exactly 575. Cancer tumors result from
the same
A. rapid cell division
D. none of above
B. rapid DNA replication
570. What is the minimum and maximum Sum C. slow cell division
Insured offered by HDFC Life Cancer Care D. long interphase
at inception?
576. Which of the following is true of malig-
A. 10 Lacs to 20 Lacs
nant tumors?
B. 10 Lacs to 30 Lacs
A. They do not require treatment.
C. 5 Lacs to 40 Lacs
B. They are easily removed through
D. 10 Lacs to 40 Lacs surgery.

8.4 Cancer 934
C. They can cause tumors in other parts 582. It is thought that 2/3 of all cancers are
of the body. caused by
D. They contain cells that stay clustered A. smoking or other tobacco use
together. B. lack of exercise
577. The correct order of the stages of inter- C. diet high in animal products and low in
phase is plant products
D. life style choices as refusing to wear
A. M, G1, G2, S, and cytokinesis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sunscreen
B. G1, S, M, G2
E. all of the above
C. M, G1, S, G2
583. During early development, all cells in the
D. none of these embryo of a multicellular organism are
identical. Later on in development, the
578. A human cell has how many chromo- cells will become specialized through a pro-
somes? cess called
A. 46 A. apoptosis
B. 23 B. cytokinesis
C. 92 C. differentiation
D. It’s impossible to know. D. interphase
579. If the message inhibiting cell division is 584. During normal mitotic cell division, a par-
blocked, what will most likely result? ent cell having four chromosomes will pro-
duce two daughter cells, each containing
A. uncontrolled cell division
A. 4 chromosomes
B. decreased cell division
B. 2 chromosomes
C. apoptosis C. 16 chromosomes
D. nothing D. 8 chromosomes
580. In human beings, mitosis is necessary for: 585. Protein kinases activate other relay pro-
A. growth and repair of tissues teins by adding a(n) to them.
A. phosphate
B. formation of the gametes, or sex cells
B. ATP molecule
C. reproduction of another individual
C. cAMP
D. reducing the number of chromosomes
D. GTP
581. Sister chromatids are joined together at
586. How many Indian consult Doctors when
the
recovery is difficult in cancer?
A. equator A. 50%
B. chromosome B. 60%
C. centromere C. 70%
D. ends D. 80%

8.4 Cancer 935
587. Which of the following can lead to uncon- 593. Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes.
trolled cell growth (cancer)? Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tu-
mor cell. Some tumor cells are benign,

A. Proto-oncogene
while others are malignant. How does
B. Oncogene they presence of an oncogene lead to the
C. Tumor suppressor gene formation of a tumor?
D. DNA repair system A. ATP production is inhibited
588. Cells spend the majority of their lifes in B. Cell division is unregulated
A. interphase C. Somatic cell growth is inhibited
B. M
D. Antibody activity is unregulated
C. S
D. G2 594. What term refers to programmed cell
death that occurs when a cell does not pass
589. How many checkpoints are in the cell cy- a checkpoint?
cle?
A. Mitosis
A. 1
B. Cytokinesis
B. 2
C. 3 C. Telomere
D. 4 D. Apoptosis
590. Maximum and Minimum maturity in 595. It is otherwise known as “Resting stage”
HDFC Life Cancer Care Plan is respec- because the cell is not dividing.
tively
A. Interphase
A. 75 & 28
B. prophase
B. 65 & 30
C. 30 & 18 C. metaphase
D. 65 & 18 D. anaphase
591. When a eukaryotic cell is not dividing, its 596. p53 is a very important
genetic material can be found in the form
of very long thin fibers called A. tumor suppressor gene
A. chromatin B. proto onco gene
B. chromosomes C. oncogene
C. the nucleolus D. none of above
D. RNA
597. Unicellular organisms use mitosis for:
592. Certain tasks of cells
A. cellular repair
A. Organ System
B. Structure B. cellular growth
C. Specialization C. development
D. Biotic D. asexual reproduction

8.4 Cancer 936
598. Why does DNA replication have to oc- B. Interphase, Cytokinesis, Mitosis
cur?
C. Mitosis, Cytokinesis, Interphase
A. So that it can fix any mistakes the cell
D. Cytokinesis, Mitosis, Interphase
made during division
B. So that the cell can get bigger 604. is the thread like or loose combina-
C. So that each new cell will have a full tion of DNA and proteins is present during
set of chromosomes after mitosis interphase of the cell cycle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. So that each cell has a back-up copy of A. chromosomes
its DNA B. chromatin
599. What do the cells look like at the end of C. chromatid
mitosis?
D. none of these
A. different from original cell
B. similar to the original cell 605. Which term below means “cancer cells
can travel/spread to other parts of the
C. identical to the original cell
body? ”
D. none of these
A. angiostasis
600. Process of transformation of normal to B. angiostatin
cancer cell is called
C. metastasize
A. tumorogenesis
B. oncogenesis D. tumor
C. carcinogenesis 606. What are two purposes of the cell cycle?

D. prooncogenesis A. Cell Death and Cell Division
601. What usually happens when cells come B. Cell Growth and Repair
into contact with other cells?
C. Cell Growth and Cell Death
A. they divide more quickly
D. Cell Division and Apoptosis
B. they stop growing
C. they produce cyclins 607. The G in G1 and G2 stands for
D. they produce p53 A. gap
602. Which of the following are ways that can- B. growth

cer cells are different from normal cells? C. gap/growth
A. multiple nuclei D. none of these
B. sticky cell surface
608. Cancer is
C. need nutrients
D. abnormal shape A. Uncontrolled cell division
B. Normal cell division
603. What are the steps of the cell cycle in or-
der? C. A protein
A. Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis D. A type of DNA

8.4 Cancer 937
609. If a sample of human cheek cells was ex- C. Embryonic Stem Cells
amined, the cells should have a chromo- D. Adult Somatic Cells
some number that is

A. haploid; 23 614. Which of the following best explains im-
munotherapy?
B. diploid; 23
A. It inactivates the tumor suppressors.
C. haploid; 46
B. It induces DNA damage to kill cells.
D. diploid; 46
C. It boosts the body’s natural defenses
610. Cancer cells may metastasize (grow) by to fight cancer.
D. It stimulates the lysosomes to induce
A. cells that break off of a tumor, travel apoptosis.
in blood vessels, settle in other parts and
615. The mitotic spindle (microtubules) plays a
regrow
role in which process?
B. cells that break off of a tumor and
A. cytokinesis
travel in blood vessels but can’t settle any-
where else B. condensation of chromatin into chro-
mosomes
C. they can only grow in the same part of
the body where they first started C. dissolving the nuclear membrane
D. cancer cells can’t grow and change D. separation of sister chromatids
611. The 3 MAIN causes of cancer are 616. Which of the following shows the correct
order for mitosis
A. viruses, radiation, & hazardous chemi-
cals A. Prophase, telophase, anaphase,
metaphase
B. radiation (eg. UV), mutations, and
hereditary B. telophase, metaphase, anaphase,
prophase
C. mutations, hereditary, and carcino-
gens C. prophase, metaphase, anaphase,
telophase
D. all the above
D. prophase, metaphase, telophase,
612. Which one of these is characteristic of anaphase
cancer cells?
617. When a cell does not rest in the G0 phase
A. They undergo apoptosis. and constantly goes through the cell cycle
B. They do not respond to growth in- what can occur?
hibitors A. Cancer (tumor)
C. They respond to growth inhibitors. B. Cold
D. none of above C. allergies
613. Which type of cells actively produce D. none of above
telomerase? (select 2) 618. In which phase of mitosis do chromo-
A. Adult Stem Cells somes become visible?
B. Cancer Cells A. prophase

8.4 Cancer 938
B. interphase 624. Mutagens

C. metaphase A. Anything that can cause a mutation
D. telophase (not necessarily cancer)
B. Anything that can cause cell cycle
619. Where are the checkpoints in the cell cy-
growth
cle, for cancer.
C. Anything that can cause tumors to de-
A. G1
velop
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. G2
D. Anything that stops oncogenes from
C. end of mitosis developing
D. all the choices
625. Once a cell completes mitosis, what hap-
620. What are mutations? pens to MPF?
A. Changes in RNA A. It is completely degraded
B. Changes in DNA B. it is exported from the cell
C. Both
C. the cyclin component of MPF is de-
D. none of above graded
621. is a process of recognizing defective D. the Cdk component of MPF is degraded
cells, letting them die, and replacing with
normal cells. 626. What could be the cause for a cell to un-
dergo apoptosis?
A. Mitosis
A. DNA Damage
B. Apoptosis
B. Nutrient deficiency
C. Interphase
C. Radiation
D. Metaphase
D. All of the above
622. Which of the following explains why a
cell’s size is limited? 627. This is the cell cycle checkpoint that
A. volume increases faster than surface makes sure the correct number of chromo-
area somes are present and attached to micro-
tubules.
B. surface area increases faster than vol-
ume A. G1 Checkpoint
C. homeostasis is disrupted by a cell that B. G2 Checkpoint
is too large
C. M Checkpoint
D. both a and c are correct
D. I Checkpoint
623. Waiting period applicable to HDFC Life
Cancer Care is days 628. What is melanoma?
A. 7 Days A. cancer of blood cells

B. 90 Days B. cancer of lung cells
C. 180 Days C. cancer of brain cells
D. 365 Days D. cancer of pigmented cells

8.4 Cancer 939
629. The two most important latitude lines 634. is the period during the cell cycle of a
made, apart from the equator are cell’s growth and development.

A. Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of A. Mitotic
Capricorn B. Interphase
B. Tropic of Pisces and the Tropic of Capri- C. Cytokinesis
corn
D. none of above
C. Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of
Pisces 635. What phase does a cell stay in the
longest?
D. Tropic of Cogdell and the Tropic of
Schornick A. interphase
B. cell division
630. Programmed cell death refers to
C. cytokinesis
A. Apoptosis
D. mitosis
B. Helionisis
636. What is the term for using drugs to treat
C. Karyokinesis cancer?
D. Meiosis A. Surgery
631. An abnormal mass/group of cancer cells B. Radiation

is called a C. Chemotherapy
A. tumor D. Hormonal treatments
B. cyst 637. Sometimes cells have mutations that af-
C. lesion fect their function negatively. Most of the
time, these cells will perform How-
D. polyp ever, cancer cells fail to do this and will
continue to live and replicate.
632. Why are stem cells important?
A. lytic annihilation
A. they have specialized DNA
B. platelization
B. they are incapable of becoming cancer
cells C. apoptosis
D. synthesis
C. they have the potential to undergo cell
division 638. The origin of most malignant tumors are:
D. they have the potential to develop into A. clonal
other cell types
B. monoclonal
633. where you can see this constellation? C. multiclonal
A. The constellation cancer is visible in D. polyclonal
the northern and southern hemispheres.
639. Mass of rapidly dividing cells that can
B. In the northern damage surrounding tissue.
C. In the southern A. growth factor
D. none of above B. human growth hormone

8.4 Cancer 940
C. cancer 645. Which of the following terms means cy-

D. tumor toplasmic division?
A. interphase
640. A cell with a defective p53 gene is likely
to B. mitosis
A. Divide normally C. cytokinesis
B. Stop dividing D. cell cycle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Combat tumors
646. During cytokinesis:
D. Accumulate chromosomal damage
A. the chromosomes are pulled apart
641. UV light, radium, and coal tar are exam- B. the cytoplasm is split apart
ples of:
C. the sister chromatids are pulled apart
A. Carcinogens
D. the nucleus is split apart
B. Inherited predispositions
C. Modifiable environmental risk factors 647. Which of the following is a true state-
ment?
D. Chemotherapy treatments
A. Benign tumors have cells that have bro-
642. Skin, hair and nails are a product of: ken away from the main tumor.
A. Meiosis B. Malignant tumors have cells that have
B. Mitosis broken away from the main tumor.
C. Both C. Malignant tumors consist of cells that
D. none of above have stayed together.
D. Benign tumors spread through the
643. Oncogenes
blood and lymph to other organs
A. are mutated forms of tumor suppres-
sor genes 648. The random alignment of chromosomes at
the equator during meiosis is referred to
B. are mutated forms of genes that code
as:
for proteins that normally assist in apop-
tosis A. independent assortment
C. are mutated genes that inhibit the cell B. crossing over
cycle
C. linked assortment
D. are mutated genes that code for pro-
teins which activate cell division too often
or at the improper time 649. If a DNA sequence is ATTGCA, what
644. Tumour markers are would be the complimentary mRNA strand
produced?
A. Signs of infection
A. UAACGU
B. Related to genetics
B. TAACGT
C. Chemicals that can be detected in the
blood C. TAACGU
D. External growths D. ATTGCA

8.4 Cancer 941
650. What disease may be the result of ge- C. apoptosis

netic changes over a long periods of time? D. mutations

A. Hemophilia
656. When cancer metastasizes, it can hijack
B. Cancer which two systems in the body?
C. Hepatitis A. The circulatory and lymphatic systems
D. Lupus B. The nervous and endocrine systems
651. What type of cells may never undergo mi- C. The digestive and endocrine systems
tosis and make new cells? D. The digestive and nervous systems
A. blood cells
657. Which of the following drugs or
B. skin cells
medicines destroy cancer cells? (there
C. nerve cells may be more than one answer)
D. stomach cells A. chemotherapy
652. Where can bone cancer start? B. radiation therapy
A. In your bone tissue C. cancer surgery
B. In your heart D. mitotic spindling
C. From your mouth 658. What is special about Stem cells?
D. From your ears A. There is nothing special
653. WHat percent of the cell cycle is spent in B. They are differentiated to fight off can-
the interphase? cer
A. 75 C. Stem cells can be used to grow back
body parts
B. 90
D. Stem cells are used to help in skin
C. 95
graphs
D. 15
659. The phase of mitosis where the nuclear
654. In which phase of Mitosis do the Chromo- membrane reappears is called
somes pull Apart
A. anaphase
A. Metaphase
B. prophase
B. Prophase
C. metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. telophase
D. Telophase
660. This type of mutation occurs when a base
655. Which of the following ensure that your is added into a sequence and drastically
cells will divide properly and maintain tis- changes the resulting protein.
sue homeostasis? CHECK ALL THAT AP-
PLY! A. Point mutation
A. proto-oncogenes & tumor suppressor B. Addition mutation

genes C. Deletion mutation
B. DNA repair system D. Substitution

8.4 Cancer 942
661. Which DNA structure provides a set of in- B. mitosis

structions for a cell to make specific pro- C. cell cycle
teins?
D. none of these
A. cell
667. Which of the following is NOT a reason
B. nucleus
we need mitosis.
C. gene
A. Growth
D. ribosome
B. Recovering from injuries
NARAYAN CHANGDER
662. Which of the following statements is NOT C. Replacement of dead cells
a characteristic of cancer cells? D. Reproducing
A. Uncontrolled growth
668. What does grappling mean?
B. Disorganized cell layers
A. to be happy
C. Normal nuclei
B. to be angry
D. Do not undergo cellular death (or apop-
C. to fight
tosis)
D. none of above
663. In interphase what occurs?
669. When a chromosome is NOT dividing,
A. Replication of DNA, shrinking, Cell Col- what form does it take?
lapse
A. chromatid
B. Apoptosis
B. chromatin
C. Growth, Replication of DNA, and Cell
C. chromosome
Function
D. centromere
D. Duplication
670. PMAT helps us remember the correct or-
664. What type of cells are produced by mito-
der of the phases of Mitosis. Which of the
sis?
following has the phases of Mitosis in the
A. Body correct Order
B. Sex A. Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis
C. Somatic B. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase,
D. Gametes Prophase
C. Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase,
665. Which is in sequence of the cell cycle. Telophase
A. C-M-G1-S D. Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase,
B. G1-S-G2-M Telophase
C. G1-G2-S-M 671. The ensures growth and repair of an
D. M-S-G1-G2 organism.
A. The cell growth
666. the regular pattern of growth, DNA du-
plication and cell division that occurs in eu- B. The cell repair
karyotic cells C. The cell recycle
A. cell division D. The cell cycle

8.4 Cancer 943
672. Which bones can be affected by cancer? 678. At what stage of cancer are the lymph
A. Half of em nodes affected?
A. Stage 1

B. Only 1
B. stage 2
C. 56 Bones
C. stage 3
D. All of em
D. stage 4
673. In which stage of the cell cycle does the
679. Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capri-
DNA replicate?
corn are located about how many degrees
A. G1 from the equator?
B. S A. 20.5 degrees
C. G2 B. 21.5 degrees
D. Mitosis C. 23.5 degrees
D. 25.5 degrees
674. Microwaves heat up food. Could cell
phones heat up body tissues? 680. This is a probable outcome or course of a
disease
A. Yes!
A. tumor
B. No!
B. tumor marker
C. Maybe?
C. toxicity
D. What? ? ? ? ? ?
D. prognosis
675. A physical, chemical, or biological agent 681. Methylene blue should be used to stain
that causes cancer is called a(n) which part of the cell?
A. carcinogen A. Elodea
B. virus B. Nucleus
C. oncogene C. Cytoplasm
D. tumor suppressor gene D. Skin
676. What increases the risk of cancer? 682. potential to cause cancer but needs some
alterations in its genetic make-up
A. Smoking
A. oncogene
B. Poor nutrition
B. proto-oncogene
C. Lack of physical activity
C. risk factor
D. All of the above
D. cell cycle
677. Which molecules act as gatekeepers for 683. If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the
each checkpoint of the cell cycle? haploid (sperm or egg) number is
A. p53 gene A. 18
B. cyclins and cycline-dependent kinases B. 9
C. thyroid hormones C. 27

8.4 Cancer 944
684. Which description is true about cell cycle A. a plant cell in metaphase
regulation?
B. an animal cell undergoing cytokinesis
A. Changing concentrations of Cdk result
C. a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis
in binding to cyclin
D. an animal cell in metaphase
B. Changing concentrations of cyclin re-
sult in binding to Cdk 689. Which of the following is NOT a function
C. MPF complex formation decreases of mitosis in humans?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
with increased Cdk levels A. repair of wounds
D. MPF complex formation decreases
B. growth
with increased cyclin levels
C. production of reproductive cells
685. How did Ahaan’s parents come to know
D. multiplication of body cells
about his cancer?
A. they were asking him if he had cancer 690. What two components make an active
B. He vomited while we were eating. MPF
Then my wife took him to the bathroom, A. a growth factor and a mitotic factor
and saw blood, then we did some tests on
B. ATP synthetase and a protease
Ayaan and found out about his cancer
C. cyclin and tubulin
C. He told us
D. Ayaan looked weak and very ill, so we D. cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase
thought he had cancer
691. Cell division in a prokaryotic cell is:
686. What is the longest stage (the stage A. the cell cycle
where cells spend most of their time) of
B. mitosis
the cell cycle called?
A. Cytokinesis C. binary fission
B. M phase D. very slow
C. Interphase 692. A mass of cancer cells is called a:

D. G1 Phase A. cancer
687. A soft spongy tissue in the center of large B. mutation
bones that produce white cells, red blood C. chemotherapy
cells and platelets
D. tumor
A. bone marrow
B. apoptosis 693. What does it mean when a tumor is ready
to spread to other parts of the body away
C. prognosis
from its point of origin?
D. tumor
A. Neoplasm
688. The formation of a cell plate is beginning B. Germline Mutation
across the middle of a cell and nuclei are re-
C. Mutagen
forming at opposite ends of the cell. What
kind of cell is this? D. Metastasize

8.4 Cancer 945
694. Where does 90% of cells stay through- A. sucrose

out their life in the cell cycle? B. insulin

A. Mitosis C. enzyme
B. G1 phase D. antibodies
C. G2 phase
700. Most human cells contain two copies of
D. Interphase each gene. These copies are called?
695. There are two main phases in the cell cy- A. Phenotypes
cle phase and phase. B. Alleles
A. innerphase mitotic C. DNA
B. interphase mitotic D. telomeres
C. intraphase meosis 701. Among the following, the term that in-
D. interphase miktoktic cludes the others is
696. What is the correct sequence for the in- A. interphase

formation flow in most organisms? B. nuclear division
A. Protein→DNA→RNA C. mitosis
B. RNA→DNA→Protein D. cell cycle
C. DNA→RNA→Protein 702. Which of the following is an environmen-
D. None of the above tal factor that increases the risk of can-
cer?
697. Cancer affects
A. Gender.
A. Unicellular organisms B. Nutrition.
B. Multicellular organisms C. Immunologic status.
C. Most unicellular organisms D. Age.
D. Humans only
703. In order for a tumor to be cancerous to
698. What is the main difference between can- must
cer cells and normal cells? A. Be benign
A. normal cells and cancer cells both B. Be malignant and metastasize
grow slowly
C. Be malignant and not metastasize
B. cancer cells grow at a faster rate than
D. Be benign and spread to parts of the
normal cells
body
C. normal cells grow at a faster rate than
cancer cells 704. Cancer of the body’s blood-forming tis-
sues.
D. cancer cells and normal cells both
grow rapidly A. leukemia
B. carcinoma
699. What is a type of protein that speeds up
chemical reactions? (They cut things up C. sarcoma
and put things together.) D. lymphoma

8.4 Cancer 946
705. Cells are either in 711. Which of the following is NOT a reason
A. intercourse, DNA for mitosis in humans.
B. Interphase, mitosis A. Growth
C. interphase, meiosis B. Recovering from injuries
D. Outerphase, Mitosis C. Replacement of dead cells
706. Chromosome movement in mitosis and D. Reproducing
meiosis is regulated by
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. microtubules 712. A cancer causing agent is best known as
a(n)
B. microfilaments
C. intermediate filaments A. carcinogen
D. All of thiese B. mutation
707. If a cell containing 14 chromosomes un- C. inheritance

dergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes D. metastasis
will the resulting daughter cells have?
A. 7 713. Which of the following is a local treat-
ment for breast cancer?
B. 14
C. 28 A. surgery
D. none of above B. hormone therapy
708. Which of the following is not a part of C. chemotherapy

interphase? D. radiotherapy
A. G2
714. The Gardisil vaccine has been advertised
B. M
to reduce the rates of cervical cancer; how-
C. G1 ever, this immunization works for males
D. S and females alike against which viral in-
fection common among young adults?
709. Naked Mole Rats live a really long time
for a rodent. They can do this because A. Hepatitis B
A. They do not get cancer very often B. mononucleosis
B. The p16 gene makes the cells live for- C. HPV
ever
D. herpes
C. They live underground
D. They do not have hair 715. Which of the following generally requires
“2 hits” and leads to loss of function?
710. DNA will condense into
A. tumor suppressor gene
A. Centromeres
B. Chromosomes B. proto-oncogene
C. Nuclei C. Gene Wilder

D. Spindle fibers D. Genie In A Bottle

8.5 Addiction and Dependence 947
716. Non-cancerous tumors are called Can- 717. Which type of cancer amounts for the
cerous tumors are called highest number of deaths each year>

A. metastatic ; malignant A. breast
B. malignant ; benign B. lung
C. benign ; malignant C. colorectal
D. benign ; metastatic D. prostate
8.5 Addiction and Dependence

1. He was admitted to hospital after a fatal A. Counseling
of cocaine. B. Inpatient Treatment
A. high
C. Outpatient Treatment
B. habit
D. Support Groups
C. urge
6. What is Binge Drinking?
D. overdose
A. 4 or 5 drinks in a 2 hour period
2. The intentional improper or unsafe use of
a drug. B. Drinking a Tall Beer at a Restaurant
A. Overdose C. The feeling you have from dehydration
B. Abuse D. Taking a shot of whiskey

C. Withdrawal 7. Drugs cause the brain to release abnor-
D. Tolerance mally large amounts of this natural chemi-
cal.
3. Drugs make the brain release:
A. Insulin
A. Hormones
B. Dopamine
B. Sugar
C. Adrenaline
C. Dopamine
D. Testosterone
D. Sweat
8. A condition in which a user needs more of
4. Which of the following is NOT a way that a drug to feel the same effect felt when
alcohol enters the blood stream? first using the drug
A. through the mouth A. Overdose
B. through the liver
B. Abuse
C. through the stomach
C. Tolerance
D. through the small intestines
D. Withdrawal
5. The type of therapy where people with
similar issues get together to share expe- 9. The definition of addiction is
riences and learn coping strategies to deal A. A habit that grows into a dependency
with addiction. on a drug or activity

B. Acts that are repeated over and over 15. What is the name of a set of skills de-
again. signed to help teens avoid participating in
C. Is a horrible thing high-risk behaviors, which could be harm-
ful to their health?
D. Occurs when a drug or activity is sud-
denly cut off A. advocacy skills
10. What’s no short-term effect of alcohol? B. accessing valid information skills

A. slurred speech C. refusal skills
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. problems with coordination D. goal-setting skills
C. liver failure
16. Which of the following are symptoms of
D. being talkative
withdrawal
11. The taking of too much of a drug which A. chills
causes sickness, loss of consciousness, per-
manent damage or even death B. nausea
A. Withdrawal C. shaking hands
B. Tolerance D. all of these
C. Overdose
D. Dependence 17. Which of the following can someone be-
come addicted to?
12. Any substance that causes a change in a
A. Narcotics
person’s physical or psychological state.
A. Inhibitions B. Food
B. Drug C. Gambling
C. Tolerance D. All of these
D. Hero
18. Alcoholics Anonymous and Cocaine Anony-
13. What is the class / type of drugs that mous are
slows down the Central Nervous System
and other body systems? (Alcohol is an A. treatment centers
example) B. support groups
A. depressants C. detox units
B. stimulants
D. halfway houses
C. hallucinogens
D. club drugs 19. A family member who steps in and pro-
tects the alcoholic/addict from the conse-
14. Which of the following is an example of an quences of his or her behavior
Opiate?
A. The Hero
A. Alcohol
B. Marijuana B. The Enabler
C. Heroin C. The Scapegoat

D. Tobacco D. The addict

20. Drugs that speed up the Central Nervous C. Executive function

System? D. Restless

A. Depressant
26. The removal of all drugs from the body is
B. Stimulant
A. withdrawal
C. Inhalant
B. recovery
D. Hallucinogen
C. abstinence
21. A compelling desire to engage in a specific
behavior despite negative consequences. D. detoxification
A. Habit 27. Which of the following are warning signs

B. Addiction of addiction?
C. Relapse A. continual concern about where the
next “fix” (drink or pill will come from)
D. Tolerance
B. choosing friends who can supply the
22. When something is causing a strong harm- addictive substance
ful need, it’s
C. changes in appearance or personal
A. an overdose health
B. addictive D. all of these are warning signs
C. a high
28. The loss of control that compels one to en-
D. quit gage in alcohol, drugs, tobacco, and food
23. What is binge drinking? despite the negative consequences are ex-
amples of
A. drinking a large amount of alcohol in a
small space of time A. Substance Addiction
B. drinking alcohol nearly every day B. Behavior Addiction
C. drinking a large amount of non- C. Tolerance
alcoholic beverages when going out D. none of above
D. drinking small portions of alcohol, but
29. What is the term for cancer-causing chem-
constantly
icals, possibly found in e-cigarettes?
24. A reaction to a medicine other than the one A. toxins
intended is called
B. carcinogens
A. side effect
C. tetrahydrocanabinol
B. tolerance
D. pathogens
C. multiplier effect
D. withdrawal 30. The excessive use of alcohol is
A. binge drinking
25. Not having normal use of mental faculties
by reason of alcohol in the body. B. alcohol poisoning
A. Inhibitions C. intoxication
B. Intoxication D. alcohol abuse

31. Drugs that slow down the central nervous 37. What classification of drug is alcohol?
system
A. Depressant
A. Stimulant
B. Stimulant
B. Depressant
C. Hallucinogen
C. Inhalant
D. Inhalant
D. Hallucinogen
38. Mental confusion, seizures, slow respira-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
32. Which of the following is NOT a long-term
effect of tobacco? tion, irregular heart beat, and hypother-
mia are all symptoms of
A. chronic bronchitis
A. binge drinking
B. cirrhosis
B. alcohol poisoning
C. emphysema
D. lung cancer C. intoxication
D. alcohol abuse
33. Which of the following is a treatment op-
tion for addicts? 39. Alcohol causes the central nervous system
A. halfway house to
B. detoxification centers A. speed up
C. support groups B. slow down
D. all of these C. perform better
34. A person who is addicted to something is D. all of these
A. an addiction 40. What is the term for when a person no

longer responds to a drug in the way they
B. an addict did at first, so it takes a higher dose of the
C. an addictive drug to achieve the same effects?
D. an addictant A. tolerance
35. Heavy alcohol use can cause scarring in the B. dependence
A. brain C. addiction
B. kidneys D. withdrawal
C. liver
41. What is the part of the brain that the main
D. stomach function is learning and memory; which can
become impaired when under the influence
36. Higher dose of something needed to pro-
of drugs and alcohol?
duce desired effect is called
A. Addiction A. Pre-frontal Cortex
B. Dependence B. cerebellum
C. Tolerance C. brain stem
D. Craving D. hippocampus

42. A type of Hallucinogen that users call the B. Fetal Alcohol Spectrum Disorder
experience a “trip” C. Hanger

A. Marijuana D. Zero Tolerance
B. Opiates
48. Any drug used to cure, prevent or treat an
C. LSD illness or discomfort
D. Alcohol A. Cocaine
43. What is BAC? B. Alcohol
A. Beer Alcohol and Cognac C. Medicine
B. Blood Alcohol Content D. LSD
C. Blood Alcohol Concentration 49. What is the term for a group of physi-
D. Best At Cheerleading cal and mental symptoms a person goes
through when stopping using a drug?
44. A family member who creates other prob-
A. tolerance
lems and concern in order to deflect atten-
tion away from the real issue. B. dependence
A. The Enabler C. addiction
B. The Scapegoat D. withdrawal
C. The Hero 50. Should you attempt an intervention with-
D. The Lost Child out a drug counselor present?
A. Yes. The family knows best.
45. What is the class / type of drugs that
speeds up the Central Nervous System and B. Yes. Why pay the high price of a coun-
other body systems? (Caffeine is an exam- selor?
ple) C. No. The counselor is trained to help
A. depressents the family.
B. stimulants D. No. Who needs an intervention any-
way?
C. hallucinogens
D. club drugs 51. The state in which the body is poisoned
by alcohol or other substance and the per-
46. The process that happens when a person son’s physical and mental control is signif-
stops using the substance to which he/she icantly reduced.
was physically dependent is called A. binge drinking
A. withdrawal B. alcohol poisoning
B. recovery C. intoxication
C. abstinence D. alcohol abuse
D. detoxification
52. What is the psychoactive chemical found in
47. Keeps us in control of our emotions and ac- marijuana, which give the feeling of being
tions “high”?
A. inhibitions A. CBD

B. THC 58. Which of these statement(s) are true?

C. BBD A. dependence is unable to stop using
D. ACDC B. tolerance is the need to increase the
amount of substance to achieve desired
53. A disease in which healthy liver cells are effect
replaced by useless scar tissue; most of-
ten caused by long term alcohol abuse. C. dependence is the need to increase
the amount of substance to achieve de-
A. ADD
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sired effect
B. MADD D. tolerance is unable to stop using
C. cirrhosis
59. An anti-inflammatory and a muscle relax-
D. FASD ant are prescribed to POSITIVELY to treat
54. What is the term for when a person needs joint pain. These medicines cause a/an
to take a drug in order to feel or function ?
normally? A. additive interaction
A. tolerance B. synergistic effect
B. dependence C. antagonistic Interaction
C. addiction D. none of above
D. withdrawal
60. When family, friends, and a professional
55. Health risks from smoking include: get together with a scripted plan to con-
vince the addict to get help.
A. respiratory disease
A. Support Group
B. circulatory disease
B. AA Meeting
C. diseases of the mouth and throat
C. Intervention
D. all of these
D. Rehab
56. What is it called when a person keeps us-
ing a drug and can’t stop, despite negative 61. What is the first step to drug addiction?
consequences from using the drug? A. Addiction
A. tolerance B. Tolerance
B. dependence C. Regular Drug Use
C. addiction D. Dependence
D. withdrawal
62. Mixing alcohol with another depressant
57. Drinking five or more alcoholic drinks at has a much greater effect than taken alone.
one sitting. This is called
A. binge drinking A. additive interaction
B. alcohol poisoning B. synergistic effect
C. intoxication C. antagonistic Interaction
D. alcohol abuse D. none of above

63. The term when you lose control and have 69. A word used to describe the dried flowers,
no choice in something is seeds and leaves of the Indian Hemp Plant

A. Habit A. Heroin
B. Addiction B. Marijuana
C. Tolerance C. LSD
D. Behavior D. Steroid
64. This occurs when an addict falls back into 70. Around what age does the brain fully de-
their addiction and destructive behavior. velop?
A. Dependence A. 6
B. Tolerance B. 15
C. Craving C. 18
D. Relapse D. 25
71. Which of the following is NOT a short-term

65. Which risks does smoking involve?
effect of tobacco?
A. increased risk of getting cancer
A. decreases heart rate
B. bronchitis
B. constricts blood vessels
C. baldness C. clogs arteries
D. slurred speech D. increases blood pressure
66. Drug and alcohol dependence are 72. A synthetic version of the male testos-
A. untreatable terone that is used to promote muscle de-
velopment.
B. character flaws
A. Anabolic steroids
C. weaknesses
B. Heroin
D. diseases
C. Marijuana
67. The process of changing alcohol into water, D. Club Drug
carbon dioxide, and energy is called
A. oxidation 73. When you abruptly stop feeding an addic-
tion resulting in an unpleasant experience,
B. cirrhosis you go
C. digestion A. cold iron
D. alcohol removal B. cold turkey
68. Recovery programs for addiction include C. cold trout
A. recovering from physiological effects D. cold withdrawal
B. recovering from psychological effects 74. When you have done something by choice
C. recovering from both physiological ef- and you can choose to stop is known as a
fects and psychological effects A. Habit
D. none of above B. Addiction

C. Tolerance 80. How long does recovery take?

D. Behavior A. a lifetime
B. 5 years
75. Any detectable of amount of alcohol if you
are under the age of 21 C. 1 year
A. DWI D. 28 days
B. BAC 81. Which of the following does not describe a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
stage of drinking?
C. Inhibition
A. to be tipsy
D. Zero Tolerance
B. to be sober
76. The physiological response caused by the C. to be plastered
abrupt cessation of a addiction is
D. to be toxicated
A. Craving
82. Codependents
B. Withdrawal
A. are overly concerned for the addict
C. Tolerance
B. are good for the addict
D. Dependence
C. are addicted to alcohol/drugs
77. Highly addictive drugs known as narcotics, D. do not care about the addict’s prob-
used to relieve pain. Derived from the lems
poppy plant.
83. Which of the following is NOT considered
A. LSD a Gateway Drug?
B. Marijuana A. Heroin
C. Opiates B. Marijuana
D. Alcohol C. Tobacco
D. Alcohol
78. The initial step towards recovery that
safely manages acute physical withdraw 84. The brain is flooded with this chemical dur-
symptoms ing the addiction process.
A. Detoxification A. Serotonin
B. Pharmacotherapy B. Dopamine
C. Inpatient Treatment C. Oxytocin
D. Outpatient Treatment D. Endorphins
85. Why is alcohol considered a poison?

79. The first step in the recovery continuum is
A. The liver can only handle about 1 drink
A. group therapy per hour and can’t pump it out fast enough
B. withdrawal B. Because it is safe to drink
C. recognition of the problem C. Drinking wine is good for Heart Health
D. all of these D. Because it is great for your skin

86. A medicine that reduces the effect of an- C. the infection can more easily spread to
other medicine causes a/an ? others

A. additive interaction D. all of these could happen
B. antagonistic Interaction 92. Which is the most highly physically addic-
C. synergistic effect tive:
D. none of above A. Marijuana
B. Alcohol
87. A person with increased tolerance to alco-
hol needs to C. Heroin
A. drink more to feel the same effect D. Inhalants
B. go through withdrawal 93. A severe and potentially fatal physical re-
C. seek psychiatric help action to an alcoholic overdose.
D. drink less whenever possible A. binge drinking
B. alcohol poisoning
88. Uncomfortable physical and psychological
symptoms produces when a physically de- C. intoxication
pendent drug user stops using drugs. D. alcohol abuse
A. Overdose 94. What is the legal drinking age?
B. Abuse A. 21
C. Withdrawal B. 18
D. Tolerance C. 16
89. Constantly thinking about a drug or behav- D. 22
ior is called a
95. What is the definition of an excessive be-
A. Craving havior?
B. Withdrawal A. Behavior that demands immediate
C. Dependence gratification
D. Addiction B. Behavior that goes far beyond the nor-
mal bounds of an activity
90. Example of withdrawal:
C. Behavior in which acts are repeated to
A. Coughing an unnatural behavior
B. Craving D. none of above
C. Blurry vision
96. What is it considered to be when some-
D. Cold sweats one takes (Consumes) Prescription Medi-
cation that is prescribed to someone else
91. When a person is given an antibiotic, why
and isn’t theirs?
should he take the entire dose even though
he may be feeling better? A. Drug Use
A. bacteria can become resistant to an- B. Drug Misues
tibiotics C. Drug Abuse
B. the person could relapse D. Drug Awareness

97. The mostly likely cause of addiction if you B. Mental Illness

have a family member who suffers from
alcoholism. C. Childhood Trauma
A. Genetics D. Early Use of Drugs
NARAYAN CHANGDER

9. Microbes in human welfare
9.1 Microbes in Human Welfare

1. Which of the following organisms is used C. Tertiary treatment
in the production of beverages?
D. All of these
A. Penicillium notatum
B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae 5. What gas must be maintained at precise
levels in the aeration tank?
C. Aspergillus niger
A. CO2
D. Clostridium butylicum
B. O2
2. Lactic Acid Bacteria grow in
C. H2
A. Milk
D. CO
B. Curd
C. Water 6. Alexander Fleming was working on
D. Juice A. Salmonella
B. Penicillin notatum
3. Statins used for lowering blood-
cholesterol level are extracted from: C. Streptococcus
A. Algae D. Staphylococci
B. Bacteria
7. A patient brought to a hospital with my-
C. Virus ocardial infarction is normally immediately
D. Yeast given:
A. Penicillin
4. During which stage of sewage treatment
microbes are used? B. Streptokinase
A. Primary treatment C. Cyclosporin-A
B. Secondary treatment D. Statins

9.1 Microbes in Human Welfare 958
8. statin is D. bacterium producing large quantities

A. an immunosupressive agent of carbon dioxide
B. a blood cholesterol lowering agent 14. Streptomycin is produced from-

C. an alcohol A. Streptomyces scoleus
D. a blood clot buster B. Streptomyces griseus
C. Streptomyces fradiae
9. What are vaccines mainly made up of?
D. Streptomyces venezuellae
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Dead Pathogens
B. Weak Pathogens 15. What gases are produced in anaerobic
sludge digesters?
C. Both 1 and 2
A. Methane and CO2 only
D. Neither
B. Methane, Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
10. The semi-solid organic material that comes C. Methane, hydrogen sulphide and O2
out of a wastewater treatment plant after
completion of the wastewater treatment D. Hydrogen sulphide and CO2
process is called 16. The technology of biogas production in In-
A. wastewater. dia has been developed by the efforts
ofA. Khadi and Village Industries Commi-
B. pathogenic.
sion (KVIC) B. Indian Council of Agricul-
C. sewage. tural Research (IARI)C. Indian Agricultural
D. sludge. Research Institute (IARI) D. Indian Council
of Medical Research (ICMR)
11. Which of the following serve as biofertil-
A. A, C, D
izer in paddy fields?
B. C, D
A. Bacteria
C. A, C
B. Yeast
D. A, B
C. Cyanobacteria
D. Fungi 17. In cheese manufacture, the micro-
organisms are used for-
12. MONASCUS PURPUREUS IS THE SOURCE A. the souring of milk only
FOR THE PRODUCTION OF
B. the ripening only
A. STATINS
C. development of resistance to spoilage
B. CYCLOSPORIN A
D. Both a and b
C. STEPTOKINASE
18. What is effluent?
D. DYSTROPHIN
A. the suspended solids in the water
13. In Swiss cheese, big holes are made by a
B. the partially treated wastewater mov-
A. bacterium producing methane gas ing through the facility
B. machine C. the solids that come out of the di-
C. fungus releasing a lot of gases while gesters
its metabolic activities D. water-borne diseases

19. The bio-active molecule cyclosporin A is C. coagulation

used in- D. bioreactors

A. whooping cough
25. Which of the following show the compet-
B. diphtheria itive inhibition in the pathway of choles-
C. leprosy terol synthesis?
D. organ-transplant patients A. Cyclosporin A
B. Statins
20. Which of the following bacteria has a role
in removing clots from our blood vessels? C. Streptokinase
A. Bacillus thuringiensis D. Citrate
B. Clostridium butylicum 26. Which of the following is used in organ
C. Streptococcus transplant patients?
D. Lactobacillus A. Cyclosporin A
B. Statins
21. Streptococcus produces streptokinase
which is a / an C. Streptokinase
A. clot buster D. Pectinase
B. cholesterol lowering agent 27. The oily stains from laundry can be re-
C. immunosupressive agent moved by
D. antibiotics A. Lipases
B. Esterase
22. Which role is played by lactic acid bacteria
(LAB) in our stomach? C. Ligases
A. Beneficial D. Endonuclease
B. Harmful 28. What happens in the digesters?

C. Neutral A. aerobic bacteria processes organic
waste
D. All of these
B. organic waste is turned into usable fer-
23. FRANKIA IS THE ASSOCIATION WITH tilizer
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING
C. anaerobic bacteria processes organic
A. WHEAT waste
B. RICE D. chlorine is added to disinfect biosolids
C. LEGUMINOUS PLANTS
29. After the clarification step in wastewater
D. PINE treatment, the solid waste called is
sold off and the liquid waste called
24. Process used in water treatment process
moves on the be filtered and disinfected
where water is pushed through screens,
sand, gravel and coal to remove organisms A. sewage and dirty water
and trash B. sludge and effluent
A. filtration C. effluent and slude
B. chlorination D. dirty water and sewage

30. Which of the following microbes are used 36. The significance of Flocs in secondary Treat-
for the commercial production of citric ment is not
acid?
A. Consumption of organic matter
A. Xanthomonas citri
B. Reduction of BOD
B. Azolla
C. Azospirillum C. Reduction in polluting potential
D. Aspergillus D. Reduction of inorganic salts
NARAYAN CHANGDER
31. BUTYRIC ACID IS PREPARED BY WHICH
37. Which of the following cyanobacteria can
OF THE FOLLOWING
fix atmospheric nitrogen? A. Nostoc B. An-
A. ACETOBACTER ACETI abaena C. Oscillatoria D. Yeast
B. CLOSTRIDIUM BUTYLICUM A. A, C, D
C. ASPERGILLUS NIGER
B. C, D
D. LAB
C. A, C
32. Streptokinase is isolated from
D. A, B C
A. Streptococcus bacteria
B. Staphylococcus bacteria 38. In anaerobic sludge digesters, the anaero-
C. Saccharomyces Yeast bic bacteria
D. none of above A. Digest Fungi
33. Biogas contains- B. Digest Bacteria
A. CO2
C. Both A and B
B. H2S
D. Digest the organic matter
C. CH4
D. all of these 39. Which one of the following sets includes
bacterial diseases?
34. The nutritive media for growing bacteria
and other microorganisms in the labora- A. Tetanus, tuberculosis, measles
tory is called-
B. Diphtheria, leprosy, plague
A. colonies
B. culture media C. Cholera, typhoid, mumps
C. baking media D. Malaria, mumps, poliomyelitis

D. fermentation
40. and bacteria can fix atmospheric
35. The symbiotic association between fungi nitrogen while free living in the soil.
and roots of higher plants is called-
A. Lactobacillus
A. lichen
B. Azospirillum and Azotobacter
B. mycorrhiza
C. biofertilizer C. Streptococcus and staphylococcus
D. BOD D. Cyanobacteria and Nostoc

41. Which of the following bacteria help in ni- C. nothing, we don’t want them in there
trogen fixation from atmosphere? A. Azo- D. add nutrients to the sludge
tobacter B. Rhizobium C. Azospirillum D.

Lactobacillus 47. Acetic acid is produced by a:
A. A, C, D A. Fungus
B. A, B, C, D B. Bacterium
C. B, C, D C. Yeast
D. Virus
D. A, B, C
48. Monascus purpureus is a yeast used com-
42. The large vessels for growing microbes on mercially in the production of
an industrial scale are called
A. ethanol
A. Petri dish
B. streptokinase for removing clots from
B. Digestors the blood vessels.
C. Biogas vessel C. citric acid
D. Fermentors. D. blood cholesterol lowering statins.
43. What is produced in the digesters? 49. improved water quality can be achieved by
A. methane gas A. appropriate use of water
B. chlorine B. careful water storage and handling
C. fertilizer C. proper land management
D. effluent D. all of the above
50. Preliminary treatment
44. The solids which settle after primary treat-
ment of sewage are called: A. prevents toxic chemicals.
A. Primary sludge B. removes large objects.
B. Activated sludge C. is unnecessary.

D. is useless.
C. Flocs
D. Total solids 51. This is a good producer of citric acid
A. Aspergillus
45. which bacteria is responsible for the set-
tling of curd B. Clostridium
C. Saccharomyces
A. lactobacillus
D. Pseudomonas
B. acetobactor
C. lactococcus 52. What is the first step in the water treat-
ment process?
D. lactovirus
A. coagulation
46. What is the role of bacteria in the water B. filtration and removal of debris, sand,
purification process? grit, etc.
A. digested organic matter C. flocs
B. add chlorine D. concentation

53. LAB PRODUCES WHICH OF THE FOLLOW- 58. What is a sewage treatment plant?
ING VITAMIN
A. The place where water is cleaned, fil-
A. VIT A tered and tested before re-entering the
B. VIT B12 water cycle.
C. VIT B3 B. The place where water is cleaned, fil-
tered and tested before going to our
D. VIT B9
houses.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
54. The technology of biogas production in In- C. The network of pipes that carry
dia has been developed by the efforts sewage (dirty water) from our houses.
of:A. Khadi and Village Industries Commi-
sion (KVIC)B. Indian Council of Agricultural D. The place where water is bottled for
Research (ICAR)C. Indian Agricultural Re- drinking.
search Institute (IARI)D. Indian Council of
59. NAME THE GROUP OF SPECIES SPECIFIC
Medical Research (ICMR)
GROUP OF VIRUSES USED IN BIO PEST
A. A, C, D CONTROL
B. C, D A. NUCLEO POLYHEDRO VIRUS
C. A, C B. NUCLEO TETRA HEDRAL VIRUS
D. A, B C. M 13 VIRUS
55. The overuse of antibiotics has most likely D. LAMBDA PHAGE
resulted in the development of resistant
strains of which organisms? 60. During which stage of the purification of
the sewage water are microbes used?
A. bacteria
A. Primary treatment
B. fungi
C. protozoa B. Secondary treatment
D. viruses C. Tertiary treatment

D. Both (a) and (b)
56. What does a high value of
BOD(Biochemical Oxygen Demand) indi- 61. The bacterium that commonly lives in ani-
cate? mal and human intestines is-
A. That water is pure A. Bacillus anthraces
B. that water is less polluted
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. that water is highly polluted
C. Escherichia coli
D. that consumption of organic matter by
D. Corynebacterium
microbes is higher in the water
57. name the firstly discovered antibiotics 62. This is not a biofertilizer
A. penicillium A. Agrobacterium
B. penicillin B. Nostoc
C. tetracycline C. Rhizobium
D. flemings D. Mycorrhiza

63. MYCORRHYZA BELONGS TO WHICH B. Bacteria

GENUS C. Virus

A. PLEBOTOMA D. Fungi
B. GLOMUS
67. The amount of oxygen required by the mi-
C. GLOBULUS
crobes in the decomposition of organic mat-
D. GLOBULAR ter is called:
64. KVIC stands for A. Chemical oxygen demand
A. Khadi and village Institution Commis- B. Biological oxygen demand
sion C. Biochemical oxygen demand
B. Khadi and Village Industries Company D. Dissolve oxygen
C. Khadi and Village Industries Commis-
sion 68. The primary treatment of sewage
involves-
D. Kanpur and Vallore industries Commis-
sion A. digestion
B. decomposition
65. pectinase is used to
C. sedimentation and filtration
A. clarify bottle juicies
D. none of these
B. immuno supressive agent
C. detergent making 69. The gas responsible for puffing-up appear-
ance of dough comes from:
D. alcohols preparations
A. Aerobic respiration
66. Trichoderma species are free living
that are very common in the root ecosys- B. Fermentation
tems. C. Photosynthesis
A. Algae D. Photorespiration

10. Biotechnology: Principles and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Processes
10.1 Introduction to biotechnology

1. Now that the human genome has been se- C. Discovered DNA.
quenced, all of the following are research
D. Invented genetically modified foods.
goals, in the near future, except:
A. Identification of all the genes in the hu- 4. Many plants produce chemicals that are
man genome poisonous or distasteful to insects. This
benefits the plant by
B. Determination of the functions of hu-
man genes A. preventing insects from damaging the
plant.
C. Cloning humans
B. helping the plant obtain nitrogen from
D. Understanding human gene regulation
the bodies of the insects.
2. What is one way to genetically modify an C. attracting only insects that will polli-
existing organism? nate the plant.
A. by adding genes to its DNA from an- D. attracting animals that will eat the in-
other organism sects.
B. by modifying the genes of a similar or-
ganism 5. How has genetic engineering helped farm-
ing?
C. by removing all of its genes
A. by developing better fertilizer for
D. by making it mutate crops
3. Dr. Ian Wilmut continues to do stem cell re- B. by creating crops that resist some dis-
search for the treatment of diseases such eases
as diabetes, but he is best known as the C. by producing soil that makes crops
scientist who: grow better
A. Cloned Dolly. D. by producing faster ways to harvest
B. Sterilized milk. crops

10.1 Introduction to biotechnology 965
6. What is genetic engineering? 11. stem cells

A. Manipulation/addition of genes A. commercial application of biological

products
B. Naturally breeding two animals with
desired traits B. used to help cure diseases
C. scientific techniques to collect evi-
C. Cross-pollinating two crops
dence
D. Harvesting stem cells
D. found in the human body that have yet
to become a specialized type of cell
7. The process of making changes in the DNA
code of a living organism is called 12. What would you use to mass produce bac-
A. selective breeding. teria?
A. Agar jelly
B. genetic engineering.
B. Mitosis
C. inbreeding.
C. A fermenter/bioreactor
D. hybridization
D. A host cell
8. SELECT ALL THAT APPLY:Which of the fol- 13. Which of the following is NOT an example
lowing best describes “stem cells? ” of genetic engineering?
A. A cell without a job A. Gene isolation
B. A cell with a specific job in your body B. Basic molecular biology
C. A cell that can turn into ANY type of cell C. Gene modification
in your body D. Develop transgenes
D. A cell that has procured a viral infec- 14. Of the following, what happened first in
tion the field of genetics?
9. Which biotechnology is used to make exact A. Cloning sheep
DNA copies of an organism? B. Mendel s peas
A. Gel electrophoresis C. DNA fingerprinting
B. Genetic Engineering D. Gene therapy
C. Inbreeding 15. Even though each body cell in an individ-

ual contains the same DNA, the functions
D. Cloning
of muscle cells and liver cells are not the
same because
10. How does biotechnology benefit energy
production? A. mutations usually occur in genes when
muscle cells divide
A. fossil fuels create pollution
B. liver tissue develops before muscle tis-
B. biomass products are used to make sue
fuel for cars
C. liver cells produce more oxygen than
C. energy from the sun is used to make muscle cells
solar energy
D. liver cells use different genes than
D. none of above muscle cells

16. Bt cotton is not 21. Who was the first adult mammal success-
A. genetically modified plant fully cloned?
B. insect resistant A. Dolly the Sheep

C. bacterial gene modified plant B. Copy Cat the Cat
D. butterfly C. Double Donald the Duck
17. The type of Supervised Agricultural Experi- D. Agouti Gout the Mouse
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ence Jessica has if she raised her own beef
cattle is: 22. Human beings have how many senses?
A. Analytical A. 5
B. Entrepreneurship B. 6
C. Exploratory C. 3
D. Placement D. 8
18. a careful preservation and protection of 23. What biotechnology allows a researcher
something; especially planned manage- to make thousands of copies of a DNA
ment of a natural resource to prevent ex- strand?
ploitation, destruction, or neglect.
A. Cloning
A. ecofriendly
B. PCR
B. preserve
C. natural resources C. gene therapy
D. conservation D. gel electrophoresis
19. Which of the below biotechnological ad- 24. Which of the following is an application of
vances is MOST beneficial to North Car- medical or pharmaceutical biotechnology?
olina FARMERS? A. Recombinant insulin
A. DNA evidence is used to convict crimi-
B. DNA sequencing
nals.
B. Fruits and vegetables are altered to be C. Identification of endangered species
more nutritious. D. Disease resistant cotton
C. Vaccines are developed to help us live
longer. 25. How can biotechnology affect agriculture
on a single plot of land?
D. Bacteria are created to clean up oil
spills. A. The land could produce more food than
before
20. bt toxin requires which medium to become
B. The land could produce several har-
active
vests at once.
A. acidic
C. The land could require more fertilizer
B. alkaline for crops to grow.
C. neutral D. The land could require moderate tem-
D. none peratures for crops to grow.

26. Which is a question a scientist could inves- 31. Hippocrates studied medicine in ancient
tigate using principles of biotechnology? Greece. How did he think illness should
be treated?

A. How long can a wheat plant live with-
out water? A. By praying to the ancient Gods
B. What are the effects of extreme cold B. With chants, ringing bells and dance
on wheat plants?
C. With rest, a good diet, fresh air and
C. Can wheat be genetically modified to cleanliness
be resistant to mold?
D. By bleeding the victim to release the
D. Which variety of wheat tastes best bad spirits
when made into pasta?
32. Nematodes may be free living or par-
27. If a gene is found only on the X chromo- asitic.A parasitic Nematode of Tobacco
some and not the Y chromosome, it is said plants is
to be
A. Meloidogyne incognita
A. an x-linked trait
B. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
B. polygenic trait
C. bacillus thuringiensis
C. codominant trait
D. Caenorhabditis elegans
D. incomplete dominance trait
33. Growing human organs or tissues in a lab.
28. Which of these careers would a student
studying biotechnology most likely pur- A. Cloning
sue? B. Gene therapy
A. electrical engineering C. Tissue culturing
B. astronomy D. Selective breeding
C. agricultural research
34. Using methane (natural gas)-producing
D. geology bacteria to heat homes in third-world coun-
29. Biotechnology research laboratories are tries an example of:
commonly found at all of the following fa- A. Agricultural biotechnology.
cilities except:
B. Food and consumer goods biotechnol-
A. Universities ogy.
B. Medical clinics C. Environmental biotechnology.
C. Companies D. Medical biotechnology
D. Government agencies
35. a random change to a gene that results in
30. heat energy from within the earth. a new trait
A. wind energy A. adapatation
B. energy sources B. evolution
C. geothermal energy C. darwin’s theory
D. hydrothermal energy D. mutation

36. What are some examples of biotechnology 42. Which is one reason scientists produce
being used in agriculture? transgenic organisms?
A. Crop irrigation A. to create new habitats for endangered
B. DNA fingerprinting species
C. Gentically modified crops B. to control microorganisms in the soil
D. Crop rotation C. to prevent habitats from being de-
stroyed
37. Which is the best example of a transgenic
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. to treat certain types of diseases
organism?
A. A cloned sheep 43. Selective breeding has been used for thou-
sands of years to
B. A newborn baby
A. develop bacteria that produce human
C. A human insulin-producing bacterial insulin
cell
B. clone desirable plant varieties
D. A virus
C. develop viruses that protect against
38. What carries the code that tells a plant diseases
what color it will be or how it will taste? D. produce new varieties of domestic an-
A. Corm imals
B. Stem 44. the process of becoming a fossil
C. Flower A. fossilized
D. Gene B. fossils
39. Which of these is a concern about the use C. carbon fixatiation
of biotechnology? D. carbonization
A. increased crop yield
45. Produce energy for cellular process, the
B. development of new vaccines “power house” of the cell
C. increased job opportunities A. Mitochondria
D. creation of new pathogens. B. Nucleus
40. All bacteria are C. Cell Wall
A. unicellular D. Cytoplasm
B. multicellular 46. Which statement describes a benefit of
C. eukaryotic biotechnology in the field of agriculture?
D. none of above A. development of tools that improve soil
quality
41. DNA manipulation of cells or organisms-
Genes are added, deleted or changed. B. development of crops that are disease
resistant
A. genetics
C. development of plants that do not re-
B. genetic theory quire water for growth
C. genetic repair D. development of plants that do not re-
D. genetic engineering quire oxygen

47. A technique for making millions of copies 52. What was the first cloned animal?
of a specific region of DNA.
A. Dolly the Sheep

A. DNA ligase
B. Robby the Rat
B. restriction enzymes
C. Milton the Mouse
D. polymerase chain reaction D. Beth the Goat
48. What enabled the onset of recombinant 53. Water like substance in a cell that sur-
DNA technology? rounds the cell parts and transports chem-
A. The ability to identify similarities and ical and nutrients withing the cell?
differences between individuals. A. Cytoplasm
B. The Biotechnology Industry Organiza-
B. Nucleus
tion.
C. The ability to cut and paste pieces of C. Chloride
DNA together D. Gel
D. The beginning of research findings get-
ting published in scientific journals. 54. DNA fingerprinting
49. The term molecular scissors refers to A. identification of a person using their
DNA
A. Recombinant DNA
B. scientific techniques used to collect ev-
B. Restriction enzymes
idence
C. Taq polymerase
C. creation of genetically identical organ-
D. Palindromic nucleotide sequences isms
50. a natural fuel formed in the past from the D. used to help cure diseases
remains of living things. (ex:coal, oil, nat-
ural gas) 55. Which radioactive element is most likely
A. fossil fuels used to date once living things?
B. natural gases A. Uranium
C. hydrothermal energy B. Nitrogen-14
D. earth energy
C. Carbon-14
51. Stem cell research has been a controversial D. none of above
subject in past years. What is the reason
for this? 56. Which of the following is a preventative
A. Cells for study are often taken from hu- measure, and is used before to prevent
man embryos. someone from getting sick?
B. Stem cell techniques will not accom- A. antibiotic resistance
plish the intended purpose.
B. gene therapy
C. The cells cannot be isolated.
C. stem cells
D. Replacement tissue will never be
grown from a person’s own stem cells. D. vaccines

57. The substance that makes bread dough 62. Which of the following facilities would
rise is called most likely manufacture a pharmaceutical
product?
A. bacteria
A. Private company
B. enzymes
B. University laboratory
C. rennin
C. Government laboratory
D. yeast
D. All of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
58. Which of the following is not needed for
63. RNA interference is a method of cellular
PCR
defence mechanism in
A. helicase
A. eukaryotes
B. primers
B. prokaryotes
C. DNA polymerase C. bacteria
D. nucleotides D. cyanobacteria
59. Antibiotics are prescribed to 64. Using a microbe to enter a cell and
A. kill bacteria. fix/treat an issue or disease.
B. breed bacteria. A. Gene therapy

B. Genetic testing
C. work as vaccines.
C. Cloning
D. assist in PCR.
60. Roderick recently earned his doctoral de-
gree Which job is he MOST LIKELY pursu- 65. Which of these is MOST LIKELY to con-
ing? tribute to the long-term instability of a lo-
cal ecosystem?
A. Research scientist
A. storms that uproot large trees in the
B. Sales representative area
C. Technical writer B. introduction of a non-native animal
D. Veterinary technician species
C. seasonal migration of birds to and
61. A scientists finds bones of a dinosaur. from the ecosystem
What could help the scientist determine
the approximate age of the dinosaur D. flash floods that destroy the nests of
bones? local water birds
A. the birds living in the area of the bones 66. Someone who enjoys caring for animals
might consider which biotechnology ca-
B. the weather conditions in the area of
reer?
the bones
A. Research associate
C. the kinds of trees living in the area of
the bones B. Laboratory assistant
D. the index fossils in the area of the C. Greenhouse technician

bones D. Veterinary technician

67. Worlds first genetic engineer A. removing the plasmid from the bac-
A. Griffith terium

B. Watson B. inserting the plasmid into a bacterium
C. Crick C. inserting the gene of the parent gener-

ation into the plasmid
D. Einstein
D. cutting the plasmid with restriction en-
68. How many years can it take to develop a zymes
new drug?
73. Bioinformatics may be a smart career
A. 3-4 years choice for someone who likes to:
B. 5-7 years A. Play computer games.
C. 10-12 years B. Have a flower garden.
D. 20 years C. Care for animals.
69. Which careers are most closely related to D. Work on cars.
biotechnology?
74. The Pacific Jelly is a
A. Construction and engineering
A. blueish glow
B. Water treatment and electricity gener-
B. Neon Green
ation
C. dark purple
C. Medicine and agriculture
D. dark blue
D. Communication and information tech-
nology 75. Introduction of foreign piece of DNA in
plants is often done using:
70. Which is a use of GMOs in agriculture?
A. Electrophoresis
A. making human insulin
B. Retroviruses
B. DNA fingerprint for blood left at a
crime scene C. Microinjection
C. producing corn that is resistant to her- D. Biolistics
bicides
76. Genetically engineering corn to be immune
D. none of above to corn diseases is an example of what
Biotechnology?
71. These are organisms that come from the
same cell and are genetically identical to A. Stem Cell Therapy
one another. B. Genetically Modified Organisms
A. clones C. Cloning
B. transgenic organisms D. Recombinant DNA
C. recombinant DNA 77. The clear, watery-like material in a cell
D. plasmid that supports and protects the cell’s or-
ganelles.
72. Which step of bacterial transformation oc-
curs after a gene of interest has been iso- A. Cytoplasm
lated? B. Cell Membrane

C. Nucleus C. Cells
D. Mitochondria D. Crystals
78. Which is NOT a criteria of the Hardy- 83. Which process describes how many pure-
Weinberg principle that shows a popula- bred dogs have been produced?
tion’s allele frequency remains constant? A. cloning
A. Large population size B. crossbreeding
B. Random mating C. selective breeding
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Migration D. none of above
D. No net mutations 84. How can using genetically engineered
E. No natural selection crops impact North Carolina’s economy?
A. Improve quality of farm equipment.
79. Cells that are not yet specialized, like stem
B. Decreased availability of productive
cells, are said to be:
land.
A. Undifferentiated
C. Decreased food production and more
B. Specialized debt for farmers.
C. Disfunctional D. Increased food production and income
D. Inactive for the farmers.
85. The application of changing organisms to
80. To obtain bacteria that produce insulin, ge-
make product is called
netic engineers
A. genetics
A. remove repressor proteins that inhibit
the expression of the bacterial insulin B. heredity
gene C. biotechnology
B. insert a vector containing the human D. cloning
gene of insulin into bacteria
86. A DNA fingerprint may do which of the fol-
C. search for bacteria that grow in a lowing?
medium that lacks insulin A. Identify a suspect using crime scene
D. grow normal bacteria in a nutrient DNA
medium that contains a large amount B. Reproduce an individual
81. Which is not a type of biotechnology? C. Disrupt a crime scene
A. cloning D. Provide irrelevant information
B. gene therapy 87. allows selected individual genes to be
C. genetic engineering transferred from one organism into an-
other and also between non-related
D. robotics species. (GMO)
82. All of the following are biotechnology A. GMO
tools except B. genetic modification
A. Protein C. gene therapy
B. DNA D. genetics

88. Why are bacteria well suited to produce 93. Over the next years, job growth in North
useful substances as a result of biotechnol- Carolina’s biotechnology industry is ex-
ogy? pected to:

A. They are prokaryotes A. Increase by over 80, 000 people.
B. They reproduce rapidly B. Increase by 50 people.
C. They are not harmful to humans C. Remain essentially the same.
D. They are resistant to antibiotics D. Actually decrease in most communi-
ties.
89. Natural genetic engineer is
A. Meloidegyne incognitia 94. Which of these is a valid argument on why
we should not rely heavily on GMOs in
B. Agrobacterium tumificians
agriculture?
C. Bacillus thuriengiensis
A. GMO crops are more expensive to pro-
D. Thermus aquiticus duce and buy.
90. Which of the following is not true of re- B. GMOs have reduced nutritional value
striction enzymes? compared to traditional crops.
A. restriction enzymes are found in bacte- C. There is not enough research on long-
ria term effects of consuming GMOs.
B. restriction enzymes are needed for D. GMO crops become invasive and take
PCR over the habitat of indigenous crops.
C. restriction enzymes cut DNA as spe- 95. James exercises for 30 minutes each day,
cific regions five days a week. What would be a bene-
D. bacteria methylate regions of their fit of this lifestyle choice?
own DNA that would be cut by restriction A. loss of bone and muscle strength
enzymes
B. increased blood pressure
91. In 1973 Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer C. improvement in overall health
perform the first successful recombinant
DNA experiment using bacterial cells. D. decreased energy levels
A. Separation of Siamese twins. 96. Which would least likely be a result of
B. Methods used today to kill microbes in biotechnology in agriculture?
milk. A. increase in soil erosion
C. Human Genome Project. B. decrease in use of pesticide
D. Biotechnology revolution. C. increase in nutritional value of food
92. In order for scientists to clone a sheep they D. decrease in amount of land used for
must extract what from a cell? farmland
A. cytoplasm 97. Through what process can scientists artifi-
B. cell wall cially change the DNA code of organisms?
C. DNA A. gene pool
D. ribosomes B. gene shuffling

C. genetic engineering B. Technological manipulation of liv-

D. none of above ing/once living organisms to produce ben-
eficial products.
98. If a company genetically modifies corn to C. A slowly growing field of science
produce an odor that repels insects, which
best describes how the corn was modi- D. A field of science that has not impacted
fied? our lives
A. by crop rotation techniques 103. What should you do when shaking
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. by chemical exposure hands?
C. by harvesting at different times A. Grasp the other person s fingertips
withyour fingertips.
D. by techniques used in biotechnology
B. Pump the other person s hand ten
99. Bacteria isolated from Lake Natron, where times.
the water pH is close to 10, are which of
the following? C. Use your left hand to pat the person on
theshoulder.
A. alkaliphiles
D. Maintain eye contact and a sincere
B. facultative anaerobes smile.
C. neutrophiles
104. What is not a benefit of plant biotechnol-
D. obligate anaerobes
ogy:
100. There is a fungus which is used to break A. Is less expensive than traditional agri-
down a wood preservative that contami- cultural mehods.
nates the soil near old sawmills.
B. Helps preserve the environment.
A. Agriculture
C. Increases the income of farmers.
B. Industry
D. Controls our nation? s obesity prob-
C. Environment
lem.
D. Medicine
105. What does Bio mean?
101. genetic engineering
A. Life
A. compares images of DNA molecules to
determine relationships among individu- B. Skillfully made; tool
als C. Study of
B. the transfer of genes of pieces of DNA D. none of above
from one organism to another
C. bacterial cell in the form of a ring 106. Which career in biotechnology requires a
minimum of a bachelor’s degree?
D. artificial production of a DNA fragment,
cell, or organism A. Biological technician
B. Technical writer
102. Which best describes biotechnology?
C. Laboratory assistant
A. Technological application of nonliving
organisms to produce beneficial products D. Industry secretary

107. What can happen to a species over time A. increased jobs in the field of agricul-
if some of the organisms have an advan- ture
tage?

B. decreased availability of productive
A. The population will decrease land
B. The population will become extinct C. decreased crop yields and decreased
C. The population will slowly increase income for farmers
D. none of above D. increased crop yields and increased in-
come for farmers
108. What is NOT a reason to genetically mod-
ify plants? 113. The letter R in EcoRI is derived from
A. To make the plants poisonous to in-
A. The name of genus
sects
B. Make plants drought resistant B. The name of strain
C. To produce fewer plants C. The name of species

D. Improve the nutrition of food grown D. The term restriction
109. What type of jobs are Secretaries, Ac- 114. Which of the following careers would
countants and Computer Technicians con- a student studying biotechnology most
sidered? likely pursue?
A. High paying jobs
A. electrical Engineering
B. Upper levels management jobs
B. Astronomy
C. Support Staff jobs
C. Agricultural research
D. College staff
D. Geology
110. Which of the following is used to cut DNA
from organisms? 115. Who is known as the father of genetics
A. Gel Electrophoresis because of his research with pea plants
and hybridization?
B. Restriction Enzymes
C. Karyotypes A. Ben Carson
D. Haplotypes B. Gregor Mendel
111. DNA is extracted from which part of the C. Stanley Cohen

cell? D. Norman Wilmut
A. cytoplasm
116. This is the practice of producing a geneti-
B. membrane cally identical cell or organism
C. chromosome
A. Cloning
D. endoplasmic reticulum
112. Which best describes how using engi-
C. Genetic Engineering
neered crops can impact the economy of
North Carolina? D. DNA Fingerprinting

117. Gene therapy is an artificial means of al- 122. In the process of recombinant DNA tech-
tering genetic material. Why might gene nology., segments of DNA cut so that they
therapy be performed? can be placed into plasmids to grow in bac-
A. To try to produce a negative effect teria. The enzymes that cut DNA in specific
locations are known as
B. To try to cure a genetic disorder
A. DNA polymerase.
C. To try to break a bad habit
B. ligase.
D. To try to become more emotionally sta-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ble C. restriction enzymes.
118. Gene therapy is beneficial to people who D. viruses.

suffer from
123. In bread making, what microorganism
A. The flu eats the sugar in bread dough which gives
B. Genetic disorders off carbon dioxide gas and alcohol?
C. A cold A. Virus
D. Strep throat B. Bacteria
119. A disease caused by mutation in the ge- C. Amoeba
netic material or DNA D. Yeast
A. Cloning Disease
B. Mutant disease 124. Genetic drift tends to occur in populations
that
C. Genetic disease
A. are small.
D. All of the Above
B. have unchanging allele frequencies.
120. Which best describes the role of DNA?
C. are very large.
A. Provides genetic information for all liv-
ing and nonliving organisms D. are formed from new species.
B. Provides genetic information for all liv- 125. All of the waters on Earth’s surface
ing organisms
A. water cycle
C. Produces carbohydrates for cellular
functions B. aquifer
D. Acts as cellular energy C. hydrosphere
121. In 1982, Humulin was produced by D. 3/4

Genentech. What is significant about Hu-
126. Which is the most likely result of having a
mulin?
large number of biotechnology companies
A. It was the first vaccine developed located in North Carolina?
B. It was the first antibiotic developed A. decrease in available jobs
C. It was the first biotech drug approved
B. improvement in crop yields
by the FDA
C. increase in antibiotic resistance
D. It was the first approved biotech treat-
ment for AIDS D. decrease in vaccine effectiveness

127. Using bacteria to clean up toxic waste C. infectious diseases

spills in the environment is known as
D. viruses

A. yeast fermentation
B. domestication 133. Which is an ethical issue surrounding the
use of genetically modified foods?
C. bioremediation
A. cost of production
D. selective breeding
B. long-term health effects
128. When cloning an organism, DNA of the
C. ability to grow more nutritious foods
cloned organism is removed and placed
into an empty D. ability to produce a lot of food quickly
A. virus
134. Combining biotechnology and animals re-
B. sperm cell sults in advances in what areas?
C. bacteria cell A. Improved animal and human health
D. egg cell B. Sales and marketing
129. The variations that exist in a population C. Less expense and more animals
of wild giraffes are usually a result of D. Ethical and legal concerns
events that occur during
A. selective breeding 135. Heritable changes in DNA
B. genetic engineering A. Mutations
C. asexual reproduction B. Maize
D. sexual reproduction C. Genes
130. What seperates DNA Fragments D. DNA
A. Gel Electrophoresis 136. New species develop when
B. Genes A. diverging species no longer recognize
C. Cells one another as potential mates.
D. Restriction Enzymes B. diverging species mate exclusively.
131. Which of these is an example of a trans- C. diverging species mate with multiple
genic organism? members of the other species.
A. a mutation in an animal cell D. diverging species recognize many po-
tential mates among both species.
B. an animal cell with no mutation
C. bacteria with antibiotic resistance 137. An organism that specifically carries the
D. a plant with bacterial DNA DNA of another organism in its genome.
A. Clone
132. Gene therapy is being looked into as a
possible treatment for B. Selectively bred organism
A. genetic diseases C. Transgenic
B. contagious diseases D. Hybrid

138. Which is a negative result of the use of C. media

biotechnology in agriculture?
A. Increased crop yields
B. Reduction in pesticide use 144. Most bacteria do not have the ability to
break down oil that is accidentally spilled
C. Unknown side effects
into the ocean by tankers. However, sci-
D. Higher nutritional values entists can insert a gene into the DNA of
a bacterium to give it the ability to break
139. Each of the following is a density-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
down the oil. This technology is an exam-
dependent limiting factor EXCEPT
ple of
A. competition.
A. Gel electrophoresis
B. hurricanes.
B. DNA replication
C. predation.
D. disease. C. Genetically modified organism
D. none of above
140. when a gas to transform into a liquid as
a result of cooling
145. North Carolina’s #1 Biotech Industry is
A. precipitation
A. Biomedical Research
B. condensation
B. Environmental Biotechnology
C. fog
D. transpiration C. Making Clones
D. Agriculture
141. Genetic engineering is used for all the fol-
lowing EXCEPT
146. The field of applying scientific knowledge
A. Medicine to manipulate a living organism.
B. Farming
A. Ethics
C. Agriculture
B. Biotechnology
D. Machinery
C. Cloning
142. Which is an agricultural benefit of
biotechnology in North Carolina? D. Genetic modification
A. farmers’ growing cost of fuel 147. One of the goals of the Human Genome
B. farmers growing smaller vegetables Project is to
C. farmers growing longer lasting vegeta- A. increase the number of genes in the
bles human genome
D. none of above B. map the location of only the most im-
143. Genetic engineering has directly in- portant genes on each chromosome
creased productivity in which U.S. indus- C. clone the entire human genome in bac-
try? teria
A. agriculture D. determine the nucleotide sequence of
B. automobile the entire human genome

148. Which would provide the least genetic ev- 153. Which was most likely the earliest way
idence of a crime? biotechnology was studied by humans?

A. fingerprints A. finding evidence of crimes
B. saliva B. making new medicines to cure sick-
C. hair nesses
D. blood C. discovering the cause of hereditary
diseases
149. Which of the following is not a tool of
genetic engineering? D. breeding better varieties of crops and
A. Cloning vector livestock
B. Restriction enzyme
154. A new variety of rice called golden rice
C. Foreign DNA has been genetically modified to have vita-
D. GMO min A. People in starving countries can eat
this rice and receive the vitamin A. With-
150. In a population of finches in which one out this rice people go blind from vitamin
group of birds has a short, parrotlike A deficiency. What word(s) below best de-
beak and another group has a long, nar- scribes this rice?
row beak, what process has probably oc-
A. electrophoresis
curred?
A. disruptive selection B. DNA fingerprinting
B. genetic drift C. G.M.O
C. stabilizing selection D. clone
D. directional selection
155. Which are most closely related to biotech-
151. the exploitation of biological processes nology?
for industrial and other purposes, espe-
cially the genetic manipulation of microor- A. medicine and agriculture
ganisms for the production of antibiotics, B. construction and engineering
hormones, etc.
C. water treatment and electricity gener-
A. biological processes ation
B. biotechnology
D. communication and information tech-
C. bioevoultion nology
D. technology advancement
156. Which is a biotechnology career that in-
152. A fingerprint with DNA may do which of volves designing and building new prod-
the following? ucts?
A. disrupt a crime scene
A. laboratory technician
B. reproduce an individual
B. engineer
C. provide irrelevant information
C. clinical research associate
D. identify a suspect using crime scene
DNA D. none of above

157. Which is what scientists think may be C. The pipette tips disappear after being
a disadvantage of genetically modifying used.
plants? D. None of these reasons
A. Plants will pass on diseases to animals
162. When microbes are grown so that their
B. There will be a decrease in biodiversity amino acids can be used to produce a prod-
C. Pesticide manufacturers might lose uct such as Spelenda sweetener or Sweet-
money n-Low it is an example of:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Plants will have a longer growing sea- A. Agricultural biotechnology.
son B. Food and consumer goods biotechnol-
ogy.
158. The process of making changes to a DNA
code of living organisms is called C. Environmental biotechnology.
D. Medical biotechnology
A. Selective breeding
B. Inbreeding 163. What is the goal of the Human Genome
Project
A. sequence and map all of the genes of
D. Gene Modification human
159. Which best describes an economic benefit B. clone a human
of biotechnology in North Carolina? C. genetically engineer a human
A. When foods are genetically modified, D. none of above
they no longer need to be studied.
164. For what purpose is corn most often ge-
B. It creates many jobs.
netically modified?
C. When foods are genetically modified, A. color change
they are completely resistant to disease
and drought. B. disease resistance
D. The cost of research is included in the C. slower growth
cost to the consumer. D. shorter growing season
160. Which is a disadvantage of the use of 165. What is recombinant DNA?

biotechnology in agriculture? A. DNA containing genes foreign to that
A. increased crop yields organism
B. reduction in pesticide use B. DNA which has been impacted by epi-
genetics
C. unknown side effects
C. DNA that has restriction enzymes
D. higher nutritional values
D. DNA that has been sequenced
161. Why do you use a new pipette tip on
166. Mobile genetic elements
the micropipette every time you get a new
sample? A. therapeutics
A. To avoid contaminating the other sam- B. transposons
ples C. telophase
B. To use as many tools as you can. D. thyllakoid

167. Which is an application of genetic engi- 172. What are important skills to have if look-
neering? ing for a job in Biotechnology?

A. destroying all bacteria A. typing
B. creating synthetic insulin B. reading, writing, mathematical and
C. producing cells from nonliving mate- speaking
rial C. irresponsibility
D. preventing weeds from spreading to D. tardiness and laziness
farmland
173. Which molecule is described as a double
168. Which is not an example of a harmful mi- helix?
croorganism? A. CNA
A. Mold growing on a kitchen sponge B. DNA
B. Bacteria found in yogurt C. RNA
C. Bacteria that causes turberculosis D. mRNA
D. Salmonella on uncooked chicken
174. process by which some producers change
169. One function of gel electrophoresis is to light energy into chemical energy (use
A. separate DNA fragments light, carbon dioxide, and water to pro-
duce oxygen and glucose)
B. cut DNA
A. Osmosis
C. recombine DNA
B. Photosynthesis
D. extract DNA
C. Respiration
170. Addition of specific nutrients, air, D. Anaerobic
organic substrates or other electron
donors/acceptors, nutrients and other 175. These are organisms produced with ex-
compounds that affect and normally limit ternally introduced genes.
treatment in their absence is the definition A. clones
of
B. transgenic animals
A. Bioremediation
C. plasmid
B. Biosensor
D. gene therapy
C. Biostimulation
D. Bioaugmentation 176. What is gene therapy?
A. Inserting copies of a healthy gene di-
171. Which of the following terms refers to rectly into cells with a bad or mutated
bacteria adapted to living in high tempera- gene
ture habitats?
B. Massaging the organisms
A. thermophilic
C. Mating two individuals that have simi-
B. halophilic lar desirable characteristics or traits
C. hydrophilic D. Mating two individuals that have differ-
D. xerophyte ent characteristics or traits

177. Most farmworkers and laborers require C. cultured

how much educational preparation? D. a clone
A. On-the-job training
182. What is unique (special) about a stem
B. Certificate
cell?
C. Associate degree
A. It can become a plant stem.
D. Bachelor s degree
B. It can reproduce by itself.
178. What was one of the foals of the Human
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. It can become any type of animal cell.
Genome Project?
D. It can become any type of plant cell.
A. to determine how DNA was copied in
humans 183. What statement about leadership is
B. to determine the nucleotide sequence true?
and gene location of the entire human A. Leaders praise and give credit to oth-
genome ers
C. to determine how proteins were made B. Effective leaders are born that way
in humans
C. The president or chairperson is always
D. to determine particular mutations in the leader
the human genes
D. A leader is always chosen by others in
179. Biotechnology is the application of tech- an election
nology to the study or manipulation of
184. Enzymes used to cut DNA molecules in re-
A. Plants combinant DNA research are
B. Animals A. cofactors
C. People B. coenzymes
D. Living things C. restriction enzymes
180. Farmers in India have increased the har- D. isomerases
vest yield of food crops like eggplant by
growing them from seeds that have been 185. How does NC benefit from the biotechnol-
modified to produce a bacterial toxin that ogy industry?
is harmful to pest insects. This is an exam- A. Jobs created
ple of
B. Farmers have resistant crops
A. selective breeding of the insects
C. Healthier animals
B. spraying an insecticide on plants
D. All of the choices benefic NC.
C. selective breeding of the eggplant
D. an application of biotechnology 186. Which of these procedures involves using
DNA fingerprinting as a common practice
181. Organisms that have DNA from a differ- to identify an individual?
ent species artificially inserted into their A. determining possible future weight
cells are called and height of a child
A. bioremediated B. determining the parents of a baby that
B. transgenic may have been switched at birth

C. using blood, skin, or other tissues to C. Cloning

solve crimes D. Selective Breeding

D. identifying a decomposed body or part
192. The process that uses an electric field and
of a body
a gel matrix to separate the fragments of
187. crystal contain toxic DNA by size. The fragments were made
by restriction enzymes cutting the DNA
A. protein
A. Transgenic Organism
B. carbohydrate
B. Electrophoresis
C. fats
C. Transformation
D. nucleic acids
D. Recombinant DNA
188. Which of the following is NOT true about
193. How does each person’s DNA differ?
biotechnology?
A. The bonds in the DNA are all different.
A. It is a field with little to no controversy
B. There are different orders of nitroge-
B. It has allowed for the production of nous bases.
many beneficial medical treatments
C. The phosphates in the DNA are differ-
C. It has allowed for a greater under- ent.
standing of human genetics
D. There are different kinds of sugars in
D. It impacts agriculture the nucleotides.
189. A genetically engineered organism that 194. Dogs derived from wolves. Today, dogs
contains a new gene from a different or- vary in size, color, and fur type. Which
ganism is called? process led to this variety?
A. Bacterial A. Cloning
B. Genetic B. Genetic Engineering
C. Transgenic C. Artificial Selection
D. Multigenic D. none of above
190. Contact lens solutions contain enzymes 195. In the process of , breeders cross two
to break down proteins that build up on genetically different individuals
lenses. A. inbreeding
A. Agriculture B. cloning
B. Industry C. PCR
C. Environmenmt D. hybridization
D. Medicine 196. An example of post transcriptional gene
silencing is
191. When genes from one organism are in-
serted into the genes of another organism A. gene therapy
that is know as B. molecular diagnosis
A. Stem Cell Therapy C. RNA interference
B. Genetic Engineering D. Bioinformatics

197. Which career field would most likely be C. Environmental biotechnology.

involved in the creation of transgenic or-
ganisms that produce insulin?
A. agriculture 202. Which category does the following
B. medicine biotechnology fall under? Using biodiesel
instead of petroleum based fuels.
C. manufacturing
A. Forensic
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Environmental
198. An argument against the use of technol-
ogy to grow genetically modified crops C. Medical
would be D. Consumer Goods
A. to increase crop production
B. to produce insect resistant plants 203. How many cows have been cloned?
C. to always result in corps that do not A. 50, 000

taste good B. 102 million
D. that there are unknown consequences C. 10
to the environment
D. 108 million
199. What technique is used when samples
of DNA are cut with a restriction enzyme, 204. The process of cheese-making probably
stained, and then analyzed in a paternity started about how many years ago?
clinic to determine if a family relationship
A. 60
exists between two people?
A. Cloning B. 100
B. Gel electrophoresis C. 600
C. Gene splicing D. 6000
D. none of above
205. Bt toxin genes were isolated from
200. Which is an example of an asexual pro- A. beetle
cess?
B. bacillius thuringenesis
A. A cat has a litter of kittens
B. Plants are cross pollinated C. yeast
C. A bacterial cell splits in half to make a D. mushrooms
new identical cell
206. Kumi graduated from a community col-
D. Two humans have a baby
lege and is lab technician . What degree
201. When animal feed products are enhanced did she receive?
with proteins to boost nutrition and con- A. Doctoral
trol disease it is an example of:
B. Associate
A. Agricultural biotechnology.
C. Bachelor s
ogy. D. Master s

207. Which best describes the technique of ge- 212. Organisms that indicate the health of a
netic engineering? water ecosystem

A. Adding foreign DNA to organisms to A. Ecoindicators
modify the organism’s DNA B. Bioindicators
B. Manufacturing synthetic DNA in the C. Algae
laboratory from chemicals
D. Organindicators
C. Cutting segments of DNA of an organ-
ism under a microscope 213. A population that grows until it reaches
its carrying capacity usually has the shape
D. Exposing DNA of an organism to ra-
of an
dioactivity for mutations
A. J
208. What do you use to cut and remove spe-
B. M
cific genes from original DNA
C. I
A. restriction enzyme
D. S
B. ribosome
C. chromosome 214. How does North Carolina’s economy di-
rectly benefit from a growing biotechnol-
D. virus ogy field?
209. All of the following are benefits of GMOs A. Technological advances make jobs eas-
except ier.
A. pest resistant crops B. Population size in urban areas is in-
creased.
B. unknown long term health effects
C. Advancements in medicine improve
C. more nutritional foods
overall health.
D. creating more human insulin
D. More jobs are available to citizens
210. How long have people been using pro- across the state.
cesses that are considered forms of 215. An endangered species is
biotechnology?
A. a group of organisms near extinction.
A. Thousands of Years
B. all organisms at the top of a food chain.
B. 1000 Years
C. a diseased animal.
C. 150 Years
D. a dangerous predator.
D. 20 Years
216. Which is a potential ethical issue result-
211. What is the process by which microor- ing from the use of biotechnology?
ganisms to change harmful chemicals into
A. deteriorating the ozone layer
harmless ones called?
B. causing mass extinction of a species
A. eutrophication
C. increasing pollution of natural re-
B. bioremediation
sources
C. chemosynthesis D. introducing a genetically-altered
D. cellular respiration species

217. In order to create corn with larger ears 222. For most agricultural and health care
through artificial selection, careers, what type of shoes should be
worn?
A. the smallest ears need to be used for
next years crop, A. Trendy fashion shoes
B. the medium sized ears need to be used B. Tennis shoes
for next years crop. C. Sandals
C. the largest ears need to be used for D. Shoes appropriate to the profession
NARAYAN CHANGDER
next years crop.
223. Several factors can lead to speciation.
D. none of above Eastern and western meadowlarks are
similar birds whose habitats overlap in the
218. What type Supervised Agricultural Expe- United States. They do not breed because
rience does John have if he has a part-time they have different mating songs. Which
job working on a poultry farm? term is used by evolutionary biologists to
A. Anaytical describe this phenomenon?
B. Entrepreneurship A. migration
C. Experimental B. genetic drift
D. Placement C. behavioral isolation

D. geographic isolation
219. Both sense and antisense RNA together
form 224. A chemical agent that destroys plants or
inhibits their growth; especially weeds:
A. dsRNA
A. Herbicide
B. ssRNA
B. Homicide
C. cRNA C. Pesticide
D. siRNA D. Genocide
220. the true age of a rock or fossil, tells scien- 225. If biotechnology is used to grow pota-
tists the number of years ago a rock layer toes, and the use of biotechnology in-
formed creases yield, then what would you expect
A. absolute age would happen to the potatoes?
A. They would be resistant to pests.
B. relative age
B. They would be larger and more of
C. age of time
them.
D. timeline C. They would turn into cucumbers.
221. Which of the following is a product of D. They would be low calorie.
biotechnology?
226. genetically Identical
A. bread A. Clones
B. cheese B. Twins
C. penicillin C. Doppleganger
D. all of these D. Triplets

227. In 1978 the first test tube baby, Louise 232. Bioinformatics deal primarily with biolog-
Brown, was born in: ical information maintained in:

A. Russia. A. A logbook.
B. China. B. A database.
C. England. C. A locked safe.
D. Pittsburgh. D. A storage facility.
228. What is the basic function of the fer-
233. Which field of science is most likely
menter?
responsible for developing techniques to
A. To sterilize the medium help a patient who has third-degree
B. To recover the product burns?
C. To provide optimum growth conditions A. biotechnology
to organisms and obtain the desired prod- B. botany
uct
C. ecology
D. To purify the product
D. virology
229. What is the bet pH for most bacterial
growth? 234. Microbes are capable of cleaning up fuel
spills from gas stations.
A. 6
A. Agriculture
B. 7
C. 2 B. Industry
D. 10 C. Environment
D. Medicine
230. What would a biotechnology engineer
not work with? 235. energy from a source that is not depleted
A. astronomy when used
B. farming A. renewable
C. crime B. nonrenewable
D. pharmaceuticals C. energy sources
231. What kind of genetically modified crops D. energy lot
would be most successful in wet-tropical
countries that are overcrowded? 236. Which is an example of selective breed-
ing?
A. crops that are drought-and pest-
resistant A. making a plant that produces two dif-
ferent kinds of fruit
B. high-yield crops that do not need a lot
of sunshine B. breeding two dogs to make offspring
look a certain way
C. high-yield crops that are pest-
resistant C. modifying genetic material to cure dis-
eases
D. crops that are drought-resistant and
need a lot of sunshine D. none of above

237. Which is a way agricultural biotechnology C. Binoculars

can have a positive impact? D. Spectroscope
A. making robots to replace farm ma-
chines 243. Which improvement to agriculture is
most likely a result of biotechnology?
B. producing crops that are virus resis-
A. increased land
tant
B. increased fertilizer
C. increasing the use of wind farms that
C. increased productivity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
make electricity
238. Where is much of Biotechnology research 244. After finding the location of a gene, how
done? can a scientist take it out of a cell?
A. Colleges / Universities A. Using a microscope
B. Warehouses B. Using PCR
C. Zoos C. Using scissors
D. Industry offices D. Using restriction enzymes
239. The very first of antibiotic discovered by 245. Clones have the exact same
scientist. A. intelligence levels
A. Penicillin B. physical appearances
B. Amoxycilin C. genetic material
C. Rifarmicin D. personalities
D. Insulin 246. How has biotechnology helped to im-
prove the agricultural industry?
240. Using biotechnology to change the ge-
netic makeup of an organism is called A. by developing irrigation systems that
cover a large land area
A. Tissue Culturing
B. by creating some crops that resist cer-
B. Biotechnology
tain insects
C. Cloning
C. by producing soil free of decomposers
D. Genetic Engineering
D. by developing machines that help farm-
241. What is a restriction enzyme? ers harvest crops faster
A. Enzyme that cuts DNA 247. a fracture or fissure in the Earth’s crust in
B. Enzyme that add to the DNA strand which there is movement on either side of
the fracture; a place where sections of the
C. Enzyme that builds proteins
crust of the Earth move relative to each
D. Enzyme that breaks down lipids other
242. Which of the following might be used to A. movement
examine hairs and fibers in detail? B. fault
A. Telescope C. transform
B. Microscope D. fracture

248. a fossil found in a narrow time range but C. Stem Cell Therapy
widely distributed around the earth; used D. Recombinant DNA
to date rock layers

A. fossilized 254. Endonuclease which cleaves dsRNA is
B. fossils A. ricer
C. fossil markings B. dicer
D. index fossil C. RISC
D. slicer
249. Susan has a highschool diploma and expe-
rience, she could interview for which job? 255. Agrobacterium causes disease in
A. Toxicologist plants
B. Biophysicist A. rust
C. Veterinary technician B. gall
D. Laboratory assistant C. smut
D. blight
250. Another term for artificial selection-
breeding organims for specific traits. 256. The natural ability of an organism to
A. Selective breeding overcome, retard, suppress, prevent infec-
tion, or avoid adverse abiotic factors. For
B. Genetically Modified Organism (GMO)
example, some organisms natural immu-
C. Tissue culturing nity to certain diseases.
D. Genetic modification A. biological resistance
251. Where are fossils found? B. transgenic organisms
A. In Metamorphic rocks C. ethics
B. In Magma D. biotechnology
C. In Igneous rocks 257. What is a toxicologist?
D. In Sedimentary rocks A. Someone who studies Animals
252. Which North Carolina industry profits the B. Someone who studies murders
most from biotechnology advancements? C. Someone who studies chemicals and
A. textiles drugs
B. computer software D. Someone who studies plants
C. auto manufacturing 258. an area of land drained by a river and its
D. medicine tributaries much like a bathtub catches all
of the water that falls within its sides
253. Inserting a desired gene into another or-
ganism for that organism to make a de- A. river net
sired product is? B. water drops
A. Cloning C. river basin
B. GMOs D. watershed

259. Formed when DNA from two different C. Can human genes be integrated into
sources are combined together bacterial DNA so bacteria can copy the
A. RNA genes and produce their proteins?
B. Clones D. none of above
C. rRNA 264. In ancient times, sacks for carrying milk

were made from
D. rDNA
A. canvas
260. Which of the following would be an ex-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. animal stomachs
ample of biotechnology?
C. nylon
A. studying rock layers
D. plastic
B. monitoring water quality
C. developing plants that are resistant to 265. Which process uses oxygen and food
week killers molecules to produce energy for animal
cells.
D. developing hydropower energy
sources A. digestion
B. glycolysis
261. Which is a hypothesis a scientist could
C. cellular respiration
test using principles of biotechnology?
D. photosynthesis
A. How long can a wheat plant live with-
out water? 266. organism that contains functional recom-
B. What are the effects of extreme cold binant DNA from a different organism
on wheat plants? A. bacteria
C. Can wheat be genetically modified to B. plasmid
be resistant to mold? C. transgenic organism
D. Which variety of wheat tastes best D. clone
when made into pasta?
267. How many volumes of the reports and
262. An Animal Technician is responsible for data was collected during scientific work
the care of on marine species in 1872-1876?
A. Zoo animals A. 20
B. Laboratory animals B. 30
C. Patients at a rest home C. 50
D. Animals at the pound D. 60
263. Which question MOST likely may have 268. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis al-
led to the development of recombinant lows researchers to do which of the fol-
DNA technology? lowing?
A. Can undifferentiated cells be used to A. identify similarities and differences in
repair parts of the body? the genomes of different kinds of organ-
B. Can human genes be introduced into isms.
the cells of people with genetic disorders B. determine whether a particular allele
using a virus? of a gene is dominant or recessive.

C. compare the phenotypes of different 274. If you were a student studying biotech-
organisms. nology, which of the following would you
most likely pursue?

D. cut DNA with restriction enzymes.
A. astronomy
269. Source of complementary RNA in RNAi is
B. forensic science
A. retrovirus
C. geology
B. transposons
D. hydrology
C. both
D. none 275. Which substance is cut by restriction en-
zymes?
270. a body of rock that can contain water or
allow water to flow through it A. DNA
A. aquifer B. carbohydrates
B. welling C. proteins
C. river basin D. lipids
D. watershed 276. Crop biotechnology involves genetic mod-
271. Administers first aid treatment or life ification techniques for the purpose of:
support care to sick or injured persons in A. Increasing the amount of time it takes
the pre-hospital setting. The first to assist for crops to grow.
with a car accident and emergencies B. Growing vaccines and other plant-
A. EMT produced drugs.
B. ENT C. Improving the yield and quality of food.
C. ELO D. Growing plants without water or oxy-
D. EKG gen.
272. What government agency oversees the 277. Where do plants get most of the energy
clinical testing process for new pharmaceu- they need to live and grow?
ticals? A. water
A. CDC B. soil
B. NIH C. air
C. FDA D. sunlight
D. EPA
278. In 1982, Humulin was produced by this
273. Following transcription in eukaryotes, company Genentech which was one of the
the RNA first biotechnology in the U.S. for the treat-
A. stays in the nucleus ment of diabetese. What is significant
about this?
B. is made into mRNA and goes to the cy-
toplasm A. It was the first vaccine developed
C. goes directly to the cytoplasm without B. It was the first antibiotic developed
changes C. It was the first biotech drug approved
D. goes back to the nucleus for changes by the FDA

D. It was the first approved biotech treat- B. Industry

ment for AIDS C. Environment
279. Which is the most useful change made D. Medicine
to crops using applications of biotechnol-
ogy? 284. Feeding and treating animals, and main-
taining their living space, is called:
A. Crops use more nutrients.
A. Veterinary medicine.
B. Crops need more fertilizer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Artificial insemination.
C. Crops resist more diseases.
C. Animal breeding.
D. Crops take more time to grow
D. Animal husbandry.
280. What is plant biotechnology?
285. What type of science allows us to alter
A. Adding chemicals to foods to preserve the DNA of a bacterial cell to produce hu-
them. man insulin?
B. Making synthetic foods using artificial, A. Geology
manmade proteins.
B. Chemistry
C. Inserting a gene with a beneficial trait
into a plant cell. C. Biology
D. Taking immature plants and adding D. Biotechnology

steroids to make them grow bigger and 286. Which of the below biotechnological ad-
stronger. vances is MOST beneficial to FARMERS?
281. Which of the following is not an example A. Development of disease resistant
of a use of biotechnology? plants for higher yields
A. Growing a kidney in a lab for a trans- B. Development of more effective human
plant vaccines
B. Injecting stem cells into an injury to C. The ability to create more antibiotics
speed up recovery from bacteria
C. Identifying the father of a child by com- D. Producing enzymes to eliminate pollu-
paring DNA tants
D. Identifying the sex of a baby using 287. the variety of life in the world or in a par-
sonogram ticular ecosystem or habitat
282. In EcoRI, what does ‘co’ stand for A. population
A. Genus B. density factor
B. Species C. community
C. Kingdom D. biodiversity
D. Phylum 288. An example of a product developed
283. Test Strips that indicate the level of glu- through biomanufacturing is:
cose in the blood. A. Canned beans.
A. Agriculture B. Pain medicine.

C. Soccer balls. C. wind

D. Hospital beds. D. oil

289. when a liquid to transform into a gas as 294. Influenza is caused by
a result of heating A. a virus
A. transformation B. fungus
B. rain C. parasite
C. evaporation D. bacterium
D. precipitation 295. organic matter that can be used as an en-
ergy source. (ex:wood, crops, and animal
290. What is an antibiotic?
waste)
A. a substance that changes the body’s
A. hydrothermal
DNA
B. geothermal
B. A substance that helps the body fight
an infection C. wasteish
C. a drug that kills bacteria and slows D. biomass

their growth 296. Genetic engineering is the modification
D. a drug that kills viruses and slows their of the characteristics of an organism by
growth manipulating its genetic material/DNA.
Which is an application of genetic engineer-
291. Organisms that have foreign DNA in- ing?
serted from a different species are called
A. destroying all bacteria
A. transgenic
B. creating synthetic insulin
B. transmutated C. producing cells from nonliving mate-
C. adenoviruses rial
D. haploid D. preventing weeds from spreading to
farmland
292. What should a person working in a
biotech laboratory do if he/she has long 297. A biological molecule made of amino acids
hair? and is crucial for life functions is a
A. Cut it short A. lipid
B. Wear a hair net or pin it back B. carbohydrate
C. Use hair spray to keep the hair in place C. protein
D. No special care is needed D. nucleic acid

298. Diacetyl is an organic compound which is
293. Some resources are renewable and will
a basic flavor of
not run out. Some are finite and can’t be
renewed. Which of these resources is non- A. Fruits
renewable? B. Butter
A. solar C. Almonds
B. hydroelectric D. none of above

299. In 2001, President Bush decided to per- C. The cost of agriculture will decrease
mit federal funding for research using: D. Genes for herbicide resistance might
A. Existing stem cell lines. be transferred to weeds by cross-
B. Human insulin. pollination.
C. Rabies vaccines. 304. What is the science of forensics deal
D. DNA fingerprinting. with?
300. Which example represents a modern A. Farming (plants and animals)
NARAYAN CHANGDER
biotechnology technique that raises poten- B. Crime
tial ethical issues?
C. Medical
A. selective breeding to get better corn
D. Computers
B. adding animal genes to a plant
C. using bacteria in the making of food 305. What is an example of how biotechnol-
ogy is used to improve health?
D. crossbreeding two different plants
A. DNA fingerprinting
301. Which procedure is the final step in the
B. New fuels
production of a transgenic organism?
C. Bioremediation
A. Recombinant DNA is transferred to a
bacterial cell D. Development of vaccines
B. A specific gene in a DNA sequence is
306. What does the term economics refer to?
identified.
A. Health
C. The DNA segment is combined into a
plasmid. B. Safety
D. The DNA segment to be inserted is iso- C. Money
lated.
D. Ethics
302. A genome is
307. A precise gene editing system that can
A. part of a chromosome recognize a DNA sequence and then alter
B. a gene inserted into a chromosome of it or replace it.
bacteria A. Transformation
C. a sequence of units in a short segment B. Electrophoresis
of DNA
C. rDNA
D. the complete sequence of an organ-
ism’s DNA D. CRISPR Cas9
303. Which statement reflects the greatest 308. Areas of which biotechnology can be ap-
concern for genetically modified crops plied:
(GMO)?
A. Healthcare
A. High yield crop varieties will reduce
B. Food and beverages
the use of fertilizers.
B. Drought resistant crops may die dur- C. Environment
ing a rainy season D. Energy

309. In which area would biotechnology have 314. A person that studies crime scenes is
the greatest effect on agriculture? called a

A. development of biological weapons A. Forensic Scientist
B. development of biopharmaceuticals B. Police officer
C. development of biological pesticides C. Chemist
D. development of biodegradable plastics D. Zoologist
310. What prevents scientists from cloning hu-
315. In 1928 Dr discovers penicillin, the
mans despite the fact that other mammals
first antibiotic?
such as sheep have been cloned?
A. Norman Borlaug
A. Cloning humans would take too much
time to reproduce. B. Ben Carson
B. There are many ethical problems in- C. Ian Wilmut
volved in cloning humans. D. Alexander Fleming
C. The technology to clone humans has
not been explored. 316. Which advance in biotechnology has
likely caused the greatest ethical debate?
D. Human reproduction is very different
from that of other mammals. A. mapping human DNA (human genome)
311. DNA technology is being used to develop B. using embryonic stem cells to cure dis-
crop plants that are eases
A. less toxic to the pests that normally C. forming new drugs for treating dis-
feed on them eases
B. more susceptible to herbicides D. genetic engineering corn to produce
more ears
C. unable to fix nitrogen in the atmo-
sphere 317. How do scientists know if the gene ther-
D. resistant to some diseases apy was successful?
312. Two humans believe they are related. A. DNA can be placed in a virus
Which would be the best technique to de- B. Virus carrying the gene can insert it
termine if they are related? into DNA
A. testing blood types C. New gene is expressed as a protein
B. comparing DNA D. New gene is replicated in DNA
C. examining karyotypes
318. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by
D. testing for genetic disorders the same restriction endonuclease can be
313. Which of these would be a concern about joined to form a recombinant plasmid us-
the use of biotechnology? ing
A. creation of new pathogens A. PolymeraseIII
B. making of new vaccines B. Taq polymerase
C. increased opportunities for jobs C. Ligase
D. increased crop yield D. Eco RI

319. Which of the following is the process of A. Artificial selection is not related to ge-
using technology to create or modify living netic.
things? B. Artificial selection is not an example of
A. Biotechnology biotechnology.
B. Replication C. Artificial selection does not directly
C. Transcription change a single organism’s DNA.
D. Translation D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
320. If a population grows larger than the car- 325. Why is DNA fingerprinting used?
rying capacity of the environment, the A. To determine who is the child’s father
A. birthrate may rise. B. Link suspects to a crime scene
B. birthrate must fall. C. determine if a family relationship exist
C. death rate must fall. between two people
D. death rate may rise. D. all of the above
321. The way that crimes are solved today 326. This project was established to identify
was affected by which of the following all 300, 000+ genes found in our DNA.
technologies? A. Human genome project
A. gene therapy B. Animal DNA study
B. DNA fingerprinting C. Human genetics road map project
C. genetic testing D. The DNA solution
D. Genetic modification
327. Farmers use insecticides and fertilizers on
322. Below is an image of a gel electrophore- their fruit and vegetable crops. Which best
sis of a hair left at a crime scene.Gel elec- describes the effect of these chemicals?
trophoresis is a laboratory method used to A. The crops require less water and nutri-
separate mixtures of DNA. ents to grow.
A. the suspect’s cell type B. The crops are more susceptible to in-
B. the suspect’s DNA sect damage.
C. the suspect’s blood type C. The crops yield smaller fruits and veg-
etables
D. none of above
D. The crops yield more fruits and vegeta-
323. Restriction enzymes were discovered by bles.
A. Smith and Nathans 328. A vector is
B. Berg A. a type of insect
C. Alexander Fleming B. DNA that carries and inserts a new
D. None gene
324. How is artificial selection different from C. the new gene that is to be inserted
genetic engineering? D. protein that carries the new gene

329. What is Genetic Engineering? D. Health care doesn’t have rules about
A. the manipulation of an organism’s wearing piercings

genes 334. The cheetah population showed a popula-
B. a random and abrupt disruption to tion decline after the last ice age and hunt-
DNA ing for their fur. Now the cheetah’s DNA is
C. the manipulation of an organism’s ap- nearly 97% identical. This is an example
pearance of
D. none of above A. polygenic traits

B. the founder effect
330. In 1988, Congress funded the Human
Genome Project, a massive effort to: C. genetic bottlenecking
A. Research the use of gene therapy to D. single gene traits

treat immune disorders. 335. Which process uses a body cell to create
B. Perform DNA fingerprinting on all crim- a new organism?
inals. A. Crossbreeding
C. Clone farm animals. B. cloning
D. Map the human genetic code. C. genetic modification
331. What is a DNA molecule produced by com- D. gene splicing
bining DNA from different sources called?
336. The process of producing millions of
A. Mutant DNA copies of a specific DNA.
B. Polyploid DNA A. PCR
C. Diploid DNA B. PPA
D. Recombinant DNA C. RNA
332. FDA, EPA and the USDA are all what D. PTB
types of agencies?
337. Which of the following careers are asso-
A. Regulatory Agency ciated with biotechnology?
B. Law Enforcement A. life guard
C. Engineering B. fire fighter
D. Federal Bureau of Investigation C. agriculture research
333. Megan has multiple piercings. How D. none of the above
would this affect her ability to work in a
health care? 338. The journey water takes water takes as
it circulates from the land to the sky and
A. Health care settings would allow her back again.
to wear piercings
A. Water cycle
B. Health care facilities will NOT permit
her to wear piercings B. Nitrogen cycle
C. Facilities cannot regulate what a per- C. Carbon cycle

son wears to work D. Precipitation

339. Which of the following is a product made 344. A/an “ “ gene is introduced into the
by biotechnology patient to replace an “ “ disease caus-
A. Bread ing gene.
B. Cheese A. normal-abnormal
C. Penicillin B. good-bad
D. All of these C. abnormal-normal

D. bad-good
NARAYAN CHANGDER
340. Farmers implant a gene into a species of
tomato plants. The tomato then ripens 345. The enzyme that glues DNA back to-
faster and stays firm. Which best de- gether
scribes the benefit for consumers? A. Sticky Ends
A. increased amount of toxins in tomatos B. DNA Polymerase
B. decreased size of tomatos C. RNA polymerase
C. increased seed production D. Ligase
D. enhanced flavor and availability
346. Using a virus to enter a cell and re-
341. Transgenic Organisms (GMO’s) are: place defective genes with healthy genes
A. Organisms that have genes from a dif- is called
ferent species A. tissue culturing
B. Organisms who have received new B. bioremediation
stem cells to cure a disease C. cloning
C. Organisms whose DNA has been D. gene therapy
copied
D. Organisms whose entire genome has 347. Instead of using chemicals to destroy
been sequenced some insects, scientist are now able to
produce a type of corn that will repel in-
342. To cut DNA molecules into pieces at spe- sects. How are scientists able to produce
cific sequences of nucleotides, genetic en- this type of corn?
gineers use A. by not spraying the corn plants
A. cloning B. by soaking corn seeds in insect spray
B. insulin C. by changing the genetics of the corn
C. bacteria plants
D. restriction enzymes D. by using popcorn to change the corn
343. When we refer to a “G.M.O.” we are 348. Flu vaccine that is not a shot-it is a nasal
talking about spray.
A. Guaranteed micro-organism A. Agriculture
B. Gigantic money organization B. Industry
C. Genetically modified organism C. Environment
D. none of above D. Medicine

349. gel electrophoresis C. Tolerate herbicides

A. compares images of DNA molecules to D. Resist viruses

determine relationships among individu-
als 354. Louis Pasteur was a French scientist in
the 1800s who is well known for his study
B. method of separating DNA fragments of:
by passing an electric current through
through a gel A. Evil spirits that cause disease.
C. transfer of genes of pieces of DNA B. The structure of DNA.

from one organism to another C. Cloning human embryos.
D. DNA from one organism is inserted D. Germs and the rabies vaccine.
into the DNA of another organism
355. Tigers and households cats are members
350. An organism that has had its genetic ma- of the same family; however, their sizes
terial altered or has had genes added. are vastly different. What is the cause of
this difference?
A. Clone
A. Biochemical makeup
B. GMO
B. genetics
C. Ligase
C. behavioral makeup
D. Sticky end
D. habitat size
351. Of the following, what event happened
first? 356. What do all organisms have in common?
A. DNA fingerprinting was developed. A. They use DNA and RNA to pass on in-
formation.
B. First test tube baby was born.
B. They are all eukaryotes.
C. Dolly the sheep was cloned.
C. They are all prokaryotes.
D. The Hippocratic Oath was created.
D. They are genetically identical.
352. The structure of DNA is very important
357. A company that creates hair dye would
to its functioning. Why is this true?
most likely employ a biotechnician for
A. The sequence of nucleotide bases which job?
codes for an organism’s specific traits.
A. researching trends
B. The sequence of amino acid bases
B. developing new colors
codes for an organism’s specific traits.
C. creating cost-effective packaging
C. The double helix determines the type
of organism it will be D. developing a product that will be safe
for consumers
D. The double helix allows organisms to
adapt 358. the geologic age of a fossil organism,
rock, or geologic feature or event defined
353. Which of the following traits is not the relative to other organisms, rocks, or fea-
most common one in GM foods? tures or events rather than in terms of
A. Stay fresh longer years
B. Resist insects A. fossilized

B. relative age 363. genetic pollution

C. absolute age A. used to help cure diseases
D. fossil index B. creation of genetically identical organ-
isms
359. Genetically Modified Organisms (GMO’s) C. cells found in the human body that
are: have yet to become a specific type of cell
A. Organisms whose genes / DNA have D. occurs through the cross pollination
NARAYAN CHANGDER
been edited of genetically modified / non genetically
B. Organisms who have received new modified plants
stem cells to cure a disease 364. Wind-driven process in which nutrient-
C. Organisms whose DNA has been rich, denser, colder water moves to the
copied surface
D. Organisms whose entire genome has A. downwelling
been sequenced B. mixing-up
360. Where are adult stem cells primarily C. tides
found? D. upwelling
A. Blood 365. Which process create an identical organ-
B. Bone Marrow ism?
C. Brain A. Crossbreeding
D. Spleen B. cloning
C. genetic modification
361. A biotic or an abiotic resource in the en- D. gene splicing
vironment that causes population size to
decrease is a 366. a fossilized mark that is formed in soft
A. growth factor sediment by the movement or actions of
an animal.
B. limiting factor
A. cast
C. limiting nutrient B. mold
D. carrying capacity C. trace fossil
362. Some people are concerned that geneti- D. carbonization
cally engineered crop plants could 367. Which best explains a benefit of genetic
A. transmit their new genes to the wild variation?
plant species producing “superweeds” A. Genetic variation makes the gene pool
B. transmit their new gene to the animals of a species smaller
that eat the plants producing “super ani- B. Genetic variation only provides protec-
mals” tion from predators
C. exchange genes with animals that eat C. It is not beneficial to living organisms
the plants producing animal plant hybrid D. A larger gene pool allows for a greater
D. be wiped out by native plant species chance of success of a species

368. Which potential problem could occur from 373. Which best describes recombinant DNA?
recent increases in genetically modified A. DNA that has been deactivated by en-
crops?

zymes
A. increased crop yield B. DNA found in organelles other than the
B. lower genetic diversity in crop species nucleus
C. increased risk to crops from environ- C. inserted genes from one organism into
mental stresses another to direct it to produce a protein
D. improved taste, texture, appearance, D. genes developed when an egg nucleus
and nutritional qualities of food and a sperm nucleus fuse to form a zygote
369. Which of the following is true in regards 374. An example of biotechnology being used
to gene therapy? We insert a as a nutritional application is
A. Vaccine A. biodegredable plastics
B. Protein B. industrial strength fibers

C. xenotransplantation
C. Gene
D. golden rice
D. Lipid
375. Process of adding or changing DNA to al-
370. bt toxin is coded by which genes ter genes within an individual’s cells to
A. cry treat disease.
B. iac A. stem cell research
C. lap B. cloning
D. noy C. gene therapy
D. selective breeding
371. Virus with RNA genome is
A. bacteriophage 376. Rice is the common diet in many devel-
oping countries, but is low in nutritional
B. baculovirus value. Which one of these biotechnologies
C. retrovirus could be the best option in creating a more
D. cyanophages nutritional rice?
A. selective breeding of current rice
372. How does building new biotechnology re- plants
search facilities in North Carolina most di-
rectly impact the economy? B. cloning of current rice plants
C. using a nitrogen rich fertilizer
A. The number of available jobs is in-
creased. D. genetic modification of current rice
plants
B. The average salary of workers is de-
creased. 377. Which describes a way scientists use
C. New technologies that are developed biotechnology in the field of agriculture?
are too expensive for consumers. A. DNA evidence is used to convict crimi-
D. The state budget debt is decreased nals
due to construction costs of new build- B. Fruits and vegetables are altered to be
ings. more nutritious

C. Vaccines are developed to help us live A. Consumers demand for high quality
longer products
D. Bacteria are created to clean up oil B. For fun
spills
C. To challenge the nature
378. A cloned daughter organism receives D. Consumers demand for low quality
from the identical parent organism. products
A. An egg
NARAYAN CHANGDER
383. Which question MOST likely may have
B. The DNA (nucleus) led to the development of gene therapy?
C. The DNA and egg
A. Can undifferentiated cells be used to
D. none of above repair parts of the body?
379. The debate over whether something is B. Can human genes be introduced into
morally right or wrong. the cells of people with genetic disorders
using a virus?
A. Biotechnology
C. Can human genes be integrated into
B. Gene therapy bacterial DNA so bacteria can copy the
C. Ethics genes and produce their proteins?
D. Transgenic D. none of above
380. the succession of eras, periods, and 384. A biologist intends to use a polymerase
epochs as considered in historical geology; chain reaction to perform a genetic task.
the period of time covering the formation The biologist probably is trying to
and development of the Earth, from about
4.6 billion years ago to teach today A. Discover a new gene
A. paltenlogy B. Clone a gene

B. geologic timescale C. Cut DNA into many small fragments
C. eras and ions D. Isolate DNA from a living cell
D. triassic period
385. The word part, or prefix, bio refers to
381. was a naturalist who proposed and pro- A. Technical Devices
vided scientific evidence that all species of
life have evolved over time from common B. People
ancestors through the process he called C. Useful Items
natural selection.
D. Living things
A. Darwin
B. Hopkins 386. Vanilla flavors can be made from
C. Darrel A. Yeast
D. Lister B. E. coli
C. Enzyme
382. Why biotechnology is currently develop-
ing in the food industry? D. none of above

387. A cloned pig has a diploid chromosome 392. A girl collects rocks while at the beach.
number of 35. What is the diploid chro- She notices that the rocks are milky white
mosome number of the pig cell that was and contain fossils. What type of rock has

used to produce the clone? she found?
A. 17.5 A. Sedimentary, because it contains fos-
sils
B. 70
B. Sedimentary, because it is milky white
C. 35
C. Metamorphic, because it contains fos-
D. 23
sils
388. Biotechnology uses a procedure called ge- D. Metamorphic, because it is milky white
netic engineering. Which best describes ge-
netic engineering. 393. Which part of the plant captures light en-
ergy used in photosynthesis?
A. making artificial DNA in the laboratory
from chemicals A. guard cells
B. cutting out pieces of DNA from an or- B. chloroplast
ganism under a microscope C. roots
C. adding DNA from one organism into D. mitochondria
the DNA of another organism
394. The taste that has no corresponding sec-
D. none of above tion on the tongue.
389. A gene whose expression helps to iden- A. bitter
tify tranformed cells is known as B. sweet
A. Plasmid C. umami
B. Structural gene D. none of above
C. Selectable marker
395. Which project is most likely to be worked
D. Vector on by a biotechnician?
390. A technique that can be used to compare A. developing plants with resistance to
the DNA of two or more plants is high temperatures
A. cloning B. developing architectural designs for

houses in floodplains
B. chromatography
C. discovering different isotopes of exist-
C. staining ing elements in the periodic table
D. gel electrophoresis D. designing lightweight, strong metallic
alloys for use in car manufacturing
391. Transformation can be defined as the up-
take and expression of by a living cell. 396. GM-
A. mRNA A. General money
B. foreign DNA B. Geneticmedicine
C. proteins C. Genetically Modified
D. identical DNA D. Genetic Mutation

397. Single celled, prokaryotic organisms that B. Gene therapy to cure and treat dis-
are used in genetic engineering. Many en- eases
zymes and systems used in Genetic Engi-
C. Expansion of knowledge
neering come from these organisms.
D. Gene doping and genetic engineering
A. Plants
B. Animals 403. Why do farmers choose to use genetically
C. Clones modified crops rather than regular crops?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Bacteria A. They are safer
398. Lactaid milk products produced using the B. They are more productive
enzyme lactose. C. They are less expensive
A. Agriculture D. They are less controversial
B. Industry
404. Which category does the following
C. Medicine biotechnology fall under? Using bacte-
D. Environment ria to clean wastewater in a wastewater
treatment plant.
399. Which is not the other name of food
biotechnology A. Forensic
A. Recombinant DNA B. Environmental
B. Genetic modification C. Medical
C. DNA enhancement D. Consumer Goods
D. Genetic engineering
405. What is added to milk to begin the cheese
400. One example of biotechnology is the pro- making process?
cess of making fuel from
A. Hormones
A. Oil Spill
B. Coloring
B. Corn
C. Silage
C. Stem Cells
D. Bacteria
D. Cheese
401. Which career may need a know of ar- 406. Which is a benefit of genetically modified
tificial insemination techniques and equip- foods?
ment use? A. The cost of research is included in the
A. Nursery workers cost to the consumer.
B. Agricultural equipment operators B. The cost of food will decrease, and the
quality of food will increase.
C. Animal breeders
C. When foods are genetically modified,
D. Farm labor contractors
they no longer need to be studied
402. Why is stem cell research important to D. When foods are genetically modified,
society? they are completely resistant to disease
A. Cloning and drought.

407. What is the name of the cloned sheep? 412. Which best represents a negative impact
of biotechnology on agriculture
A. Jeff

B. Dolly A. cows increasing their milk production
C. Fred B. crop resistance to herbicides
D. Sally C. crop resistance to insect pests

D. larger crop yield
408. Which career field is most closely related
to biotechnology? 413. In what way did gene therapy, the re-
A. medicine placement of a faulty gene with a normal
one, stimulate medical research?
B. journalism
C. meteorology A. New medications had to be developed
and tested.
D. none of above
B. The effects of viral DNA had to be stud-
409. Which of these is an example of genetic ied.
modification? C. The way in which DNA replicates had
A. use of herbicides to be determined.
B. crossbreeding D. The genes on each chromosome had to
C. heart surgery be mapped and described.
D. gene splicing 414. Which best describes genetic modifica-

tion?
410. Which best represents a direct benefit
from biotechnology to agriculture during A. It is used to alter crops to become
an extended drought period? insect-resistant.
A. watering crops with a recycled-water B. It allows large quantities of medica-
irrigation system tions to be produced.
B. planting crops only in shaded areas C. It improves the removal of pollution
from soil and water.
C. genetically modifying crops to be
stress-tolerant D. none of above
D. harvesting crops that have thick stems
415. How can the use of genetics help law en-
and leaves
forcement agencies?
411. Which type of diet best contributes to a A. It can help undercover agents disguise
healthy lifestyle? themselves.
A. a diet high in fat and protein B. It can help identify who was at the
B. a diet high in fruits, vegetables and fat scene of a crime.
C. a diet high in carbohydrates and veg- C. It can help determine who might be a
etables victim of future crimes.
D. a diet high in fruits, vegetables and D. It can help determine who is most
lean protein likely to become a criminal.

416. What was the significance of Dolly the C. lengthen DNA

Sheep? D. extract DNA
A. She was the first organism ever cloned
421. Single nitrogen bases that form when re-
B. She was the first clone created from striction enzymes cut DNA. They are used
an adult animal to make rDNA
C. She was the first animal cloned as an A. Gene of Interest
embryo
B. Sticky Ends
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. She was the first animal to be cloned
C. CRISPR Cas 9
multiple times
D. Ligase
417. Another name for GMO (Genetically Mod-
ified Organsim) is 422. The technique that Sumerians used to pro-
duce beer and bread is called
A. Transplant
A. Penicillin
B. Transgenic
B. Fermintation
C. Transexual
C. Aviation
D. Transient
D. Hybridization
418. GM crops that produce a higher yield per
plant than unmodified crops would 423. an area or ridge of land that separates
waters flowing to different rivers, basins,
A. a. produce more food for the same or seas.
acreage.
A. waterhole
B. a. produce less food for the same
acreage. B. water ridge
C. a. produce more food but would use C. watering

more land. D. watershed
D. produce less food and require more 424. Which form of genetic engineering was
land. used by humans for many years before the
discovery of DNA?
419. Scientists have produced plants that are
resistant to herbicides. Which applica- A. Gene splicing
tion of biotechnology is most likely being B. Gene insertion
used?
C. Animal cloning
A. genetic cloning
B. recombinant DNA
425. What procedure was used to help identify
C. DNA fingerprinting
appropriate mating partners for the endan-
D. genetic engineering gered whooping cranes in North America
420. One function of gel electrophoresis is to A. Fermentation
B. Clinical testing
A. separate DNA fragments C. Cloning
B. cut DNA D. DNA fingerprinting

426. Cows are selectively bred to produce 431. Scientists have been able to cause some
milk. Which of the following will cause the bacteria to produce insulin. In which area
next generation to receive the trait to proof science would these scientists most

duce large quantities of milk? likely work?
A. nutrients in their food A. biotechnology
B. mineral in their water B. nuclear engineering
C. electrical impulses to their brains C. marine biology

D. chemistry
D. information in their chromosomes
432. Decreasing pesticide applications falls
427. This is a circular, double-stranded DNA into which category of biotechnology?
molecule that is capable of independent
A. Agriculture
replication. It usually occurs in bacteria.
B. Diagnostics
A. plasmid
C. Therapeutics
B. recombinant DNA
D. Bioremediation
C. transgenic organism
433. When an electrical current is used to sep-
D. clones arate a mixture of DNA
428. Golden rice is a genetically modified or- A. electricity
ganism that has high vitamin A content. B. restriction maps
What is golden rice attempting to do? C. gel electrophoresis
A. Grow rice in salty soil. D. electron map
B. Grow rice under drought conditions. 434. Any organism that has been genetically
C. Create rice that contains more nutri- modified in a lab is referred to as a
ents. A. Genetically Modified Organism (GMO)
D. Create better looking rice. B. Clone
C. Cultured tissue
429. The only way to cure a genetic disease is
to. D. A mutant
A. transplant affected tissue 435. Impressions left by friction ridge skin on

a surface such as glass
B. change the affected DNA sequence
A. impressions evidence
C. induce mutations in affected gene
B. latent prints
D. remove the affected gene
C. chromatography
430. Taking a DNA sample to analyze/match D. minutiae
for a specific purpose.
436. A clone is
A. Gene therapy A. recombinant DNA
B. Tissue culturing B. a transgenic organism
C. Genetic modification C. plasmid
D. Genetic testing D. genetically identical

437. Kelly plans to pursue a master’s degree. to their active ingredients. This is an ex-
How might this degree MOST LIKELY af- ample of:
fect Kelly’s career?
A. She will live a happier life.
B. She will have a better chance of becom- ogy.
ing a supervisor.
C. Environmental biotechnology.
C. She will earn less money.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. She will dislike her job.
442. Which is a way the agricultural biotech-
438. These are enzymes that recognize a very
nology industry could have a positive im-
specific DNA sequence, then cut the DNA
pact on the environment?
at that sequence. They are used to make
rDNA. A. by producing crops that are virus resis-
A. Plasmid tant
B. Restriction Enzymes B. by making robots to replace large farm

machines
C. Ligase
C. by reducing the need for countries to
D. Helicase
import food
439. Tay-Sachs disease is a recessive condition D. by increasing the use of wind farms
that affects about 1 in 2, 500 babies in the that produce electricity
Caucasian population of the United States.
Calculate the frequency of the dominant al- 443. What does GMO stand for?
lele in the population. (p2 + 2pq + q2
A. Genetics Modification Organics
= 1; p + q = 1) Choose the answer clos-
est to yours. **THERE WILL BE HARDY- B. Genetically Modified Oranges
WEINBERG PROBLEMS ON THE TEST LIKE
C. Genetically Made Oranges
THIS**
D. Genetically Modified Organisms
A. 0.98
B. 0.90 444. What is a product of biotechnology
C. 0.36 A. Video surveillance cameras
D. 0.0004 B. Oil-eating bacteria
440. Transgenic organisms have C. Electronic communications devices
A. genes combined from a male and fe- D. Recycling bins
male of the same species
B. a small number of genes 445. Which of the following is not a criteria
for the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
C. genes added from a different organ-
ism A. no natural selection
D. genes living outside their bodies B. small population
C. no migration
441. Fabric detergents are becoming more ef-
fective because of the addition of enzymes D. random mating

446. Haemoglobin is a quartenary protein be- 451. What would be a direct benefit of biotech-
cause; nology to agriculture in a time of severe
drought?

A. It has more than one peptide bonds
A. Planting crops in shaded areas.
B. Its shape is globular
B. Genetically modifying crops to be re-
C. It consists of more than one polypep- sistant to changes in weather
tide chains
C. Harvesting crops to have thick stems
D. It has iron in each heme group and leaves.
447. Where in the Supervised Agricultural Ex- D. none of above
perience records should “observing and
452. Hippocrates was a Greek physician who
helping a veterinarian for one day” be en-
is known as the:
tered?
A. Father of Medicine.
A. Analytical
B. Founder of Infection Control.
B. Experimental
C. Greek Dr. Freud.
C. Exploratory
D. Ancient Wonder of the World.
D. Improvement
453. Benefits for farmers?
448. In 1987 this famous surgeon was the A. Decrease the crop yields
first to successfully separate Siamese
B. Decreases farmer exposures to pesti-
twins joined at the head
cides
A. Dr. Norman Borlaug C. Increase natural toxins in plants
B. Dr Ben Carson D. Increase the production cost
C. Dr. Jenner
454. To help meet the world’s demand for
D. Dr. Ian Wilmut. food, which biotechnological process is
most likely to be used by agricultural in-
449. Which of the following terms describes dustries?
the fertilized egg?
A. crop rotation
A. oocyte
B. crop diversification
B. zygote C. use of transgenic crops
C. blastocyst D. spraying organic herbicides
D. somatic
455. Animal biotechnology can be useful to hu-
450. Which career is found at a customer loca- mans through xenotransplantation, which
tion, planting, cultivating, and harvesting, involves:
plants? A. Fertilizing animals in such a way that
A. Agricultural equipment operator they have multiple births.
B. Growing human proteins, such as in-
B. Nursery worker
sulin, in animals.
C. First line supervisor
C. Using animal genes in humans to im-
D. General farmworker: prove human resistance to disease.

D. Using animal organs in human trans- 460. the process of creating a genetically iden-
plants. tical copy of an organism or gene
A. cloning
456. Biotechnology uses a procedure called ge-
netic engineering. Which best describes ge- B. gel electrophoresis
netic C. polymerase chain reaction
A. making artificial DNA in the laboratory D. restriction enzymes
from chemicals
461. Which would be the benefit of a trans-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. cutting out pieces of DNA from an or- genic crop?
ganism under a microscope
A. decreased drought tolerance
C. adding DNA from one organism into
the DNA of another organism B. decreased disease resistance
C. increased resistance to pests
D. none of above
D. increased demands for nutrients
457. An argument in favour of food biotechnol-
ogy is that it 462. Which of the following best describes
“restriction enzymes? ”
A. provides foods that cure disease.
A. Enzymes that cut DNA
B. provides a cash crop for low income
nations. B. Enzymes that build DNA
C. Enzymes that dissolve DNA
C. provides more food to feed a growing
population. D. Enzymes that turn DNA into RNA
D. biotech foods are not controversial 463. Area where the gene is spliced
458. A product that has entered the product A. vector
pipeline B. mutation
A. is ready for clinical testing to begin. C. chromosome
B. is being produced on a large-scale by D. none of above
the manufacturing department.
464. Which of the following cuts DNA into
C. has been determined safe and effec- small pieces?
tive.
A. dissolving blue dye
D. needs to be reviewed regularly with
a comprehensive product development
plan. C. surgically cutting DNA under micro-
scope
459. The process in which large numbers of D. none of above
identical recombinant DNA molecules are
produced is called? 465. Development of agriscience skills is im-
portant because
A. test cross
A. a skill inventory is part of a career port-
B. selective breeding
folio
C. transgenic organism B. personal agriscience skills help iden-
D. cloning tify career interests

C. skills lead to part time jobs C. discovering different isotopes of exist-

D. all of the above ing elements in the periodictable

D. designing lightweight, strong metallic
466. Organisms that contain genes from differ- alloys for use in carmanufacturing
ent species are called organisms.
A. Blended 471. “Trans” means:
A. “Across”
B. Hybrid
B. “New”
C. Transgenic
C. “Different”
D. Freaky
D. “Many”
467. Which is MOST important for biotechnol-
ogy professionals who work with the gen- 472. How does biotechnology most benefit the
eral public? economy of North Carolina?
A. Have a good fashion sense A. Creation of hybrid plants
B. Able to read road maps B. Creation of new medicines
C. Communicate effectively C. Creation of transgenic species
D. Practice lab safety D. Creation of jobs
468. Which best describes a North Carolina in- 473. Which is one possible human benefit from
dustry that has experienced tremendous biotechnology research?
growth and development over the past A. producing crops that can grow in areas
thirty years? where they normally do not grow
A. textiles B. producing new types of disease-
B. biotechnology causing viruses
C. tobacco farming C. increasing the ability to turn ocean wa-

ter to freshwater
D. furniture making
D. creating new types of buildings that
469. Which category does the following can withstand hurricanes
biotechnology fall under? Using Roundup
474. Which is the least beneficial to the field
Ready cotton to improve cotton production
of medicine?
on a farm.
A. Genetically modified crops
A. Forensic
B. Gene therapy
B. Agricultural
C. Transgenic insulin production
C. Medical
D. The human genome project
D. Consumer Goods
475. What is bioremediation?
470. Which project is MOST LIKELY to be
worked on by a biotechnician? A. bacteria and microorganisms clean up
pollution.
A. developing plants with resistance to
high temperatures B. learning bio
B. developing architectural designs for C. i don’t know
houses in floodplains D. none of above

476. Rosalind Franklin was a scientist in Lon- 481. How are clones different from similar or-
don at King s College in 1950-1952. She ganisms produced through natural selec-
played an important part in the discovery tion?
of:
A. They are selectively bred organisms.
A. DNA.
B. They are biologically similar organism.
B. Pasteurization.
C. They are not living individuals.
C. Stem cells.
D. They are genetically identical.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Pea plants.
477. Which project is most likely to interest a 482. What type of job would a person who
scientist working at a biotechnology com- studied biotechnology in college be likely
pany? to have?
A. study and reconstruction of fossilized A. A job making medicines

bones B. A job studying stars.
B. conservation of key species within C. A job studying the physical features on
ecosystems Earth.
C. development of genetically modified D. none of above
corn plants
D. prevention of sewage leaking into wa- 483. What is a risk of GMOs?
ter supplies A. Radioactive
478. A disease resulting in the deaths of one- B. Food that taste too good
third of a dense population of bats in a
C. the long term effects are unknown
cave would be a
A. result of exponential growth. D. produce too much food
B. nutrient-limiting factor. 484. gene therapy

C. density-dependent limiting factor. A. creation of genetically identical organ-
D. density-independent limiting factor. isms
479. Sir Thomson wrote one of the early ma- B. used to help cure diseases
rine biology textbooks in 1877. C. natural process of transcription and
A. The Knowledge of the Sea translation to alter organisms
B. The Depths of the Sea D. identifying someone by their DNA
C. The Challenger of the Sea
485. Dr. Ben Carson gained world-wide recog-
D. The Depths of Marine study nition for his work in separating Siamese
twins who were joined at the back of the
480. It is the transfer of genetic material for
head. Dr. Carson is a:
the purpose of treating human disease.
A. chemotherapy A. Genetic engineer.
B. gene therapy B. Neurosurgeon.
C. gene transfer C. Biologist.
D. gene editing D. Pediatrician.

486. Which lunch choice is best for a healthy B. the study of genes and how they func-
lifestyle? tion

A. hamburger C. the study of anatomy and how the body
functions
B. turkey sandwich
D. the study of technology and how it
C. fried fish sandwich
works
D. pizza
491. Modern biotechnology continues to use
487. What is most likely the greatest eco- the basic research developed in the early
nomic benefit for North Carolina from 1800s by:
biotechnology? A. Hippocrates.
A. improvements in DNA testing leading B. Jonas Salk.
to more arrests
C. Francis Crick.
B. fewer people who use laboratory-
D. Gregor Mendel.
created human insulin
C. increased disease-resistant crops and 492. Which of these has to do with genetic
greater crop yields modification?
D. none of above A. Crossbreeding
B. Kidney surgery
488. What makes a muscle cells different from
a nerve cell? C. Gene splicing
A. They have different DNA to make them D. use of herbicides

those specialized cell types. 493. Use of living organisms to serve humans
B. They have different portions of acti- is
vated DNA. A. biotechnology
C. They experience different environmen- B. human biology
tal influences.
C. service biology
D. They have different genes.
D. social biology
489. Which of the following best describes a 494. James Watson and Francis Crick were re-
gene? warded for their work win the discovery
A. A section of DNA of DNA s structure in 1953. What did they
B. A bundle of DNA win?
A. An academy award
C. Every cell in your body has 23 pairs of
genes B. A faculty appointment at Duke Univer-
sity
D. All of the genetic material in your cells
C. A Nobel Prize
490. A number of projects in North Carolina D. A Pulitzer Prize
biotechnology involve genomics. Which
best describes genomics? 495. Which of the following industries use
A. the study of biology and how energy biotechnology?
flows in cells A. crime fighting

B. agriculture 500. The creation of a genetically identical or-

ganism.
C. medicine
A. Tissue culturing
D. all of these
B. Cloning
496. In the geologic history of the Earth, which
C. Genetically Modified Organism (GMO)
time is characterized by the dominance of
reptiles and the presence of small mam- D. Transgenic
mals, birds, and flowering plants?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
501. Medical research involving stem cells is
A. Cenozoic important for
B. Mesozoic A. to test the effectiveness of new drugs
C. Paleozoic B. the generation of cells and tissues that
D. Precambrian can be used in cell based therapies
C. to understand the consequences of
497. Which of the following is an example of turning genes off and on
biotechnology?
D. All of the above
A. developing hydropower energy
sources 502. How are plant and animal cells the
B. studying how viruses cause diseases same?
A. They can produce their own oxygen.
C. developing crop plants that are resis-
tant to weed killers B. They can make their own food from
sunlight.
D. using bioindicators to monitor water
quality C. They can receive nutrients through the
cell wall.
498. A fissure in a planet’s surface from which
D. They use mitochondria to release en-
geothermally heated water issues.
ergy from sugars
A. open ocean
503. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses
B. hydothermal vents
by fragmenting viral DNA with:
C. intertidal zone A. Endonuclease
D. benthic zone B. Protease
499. In her biology class, Natasha has been C. Exonuclease
asked to complete a strand of DNA with D. Ligase
appropriate nucleotides. If half of the
strand is A-T-C-C-G-A-T-C, what would 504. a place where freshwater meets up with
she write for the complementary strand? salt water; nature’s nursery
A. T-U-G-C-G-U-A-G A. estuary
B. T-A-G-C-C-T-A-C B. safe place
C. T-U-G-G-C-T-U-G C. tidal wave
D. T-A-G-G-C-T-A-G D. onshore

505. Which is a transgenic organism? 510. This is an artificial genetic sequence from
A. a mutation in an animal cell combining two other sequences in a plas-
mid.

B. an animal cell with no mutation
A. recombinant DNA
C. bacteria with antibiotic resistance
B. clone
D. a plant with bacterial DNA
C. plasmid
506. Cavity in a rock made when an organism D. allele
decayed
511. energy that comes from the force of mov-
A. cast ing water.
B. mold A. hydropower
C. original remains B. hydrothermal
D. none of above C. wind energy
507. The Central Dogma theory is getting a D. air energy
protein expressed in the cell by ribosomes 512. What did Gregor Mendel use to conduct
that read the RNA. The RNA been pro- his experiments?
duced prior from the gene in the DNA.
A. Wisconsin Fast Plants
What is the process of making an RNA
copy of a gene? B. Pea plants
A. replication C. Mice
B. transcription D. Flowers
C. translation 513. Which of the following is an application
D. nucleosomes of agricultural biotechnology?
A. Genetic testing and screening
508. Biotechnology may make it possible to
B. Vaccine therapy
customize the genetic makeup of crop
plants so they can grow in exceptionally C. Transgenic crops
dry or wet, hot or cold climates. D. Genetically engineered enzymes
A. Agriculture 514. The law stated that biological traits are
B. Industry passed from one generation to the next.
C. Medicine A. Law of conservation of energy
D. Environment B. Law of inheritance
C. Law of technology
509. Which of the following subjects would
someone most likely study if he or she D. Law of gravity
wanted to work in the biotechnology 515. Which of the following is an example of
field? a product commonly found in nature?
A. Chemistry A. Antibioitic
B. Genetics B. GMO
C. Physics C. Recombinant DNA
D. Environmental Science D. All of the above

516. Which is NOT a goal of agricultural bio- C. Bioremediation

engineering?
D. Genome
A. to boost nutrient content
B. to increase food production 522. People have produced animals and plants
with certain desired characteristics for
C. forensic science more than a thousand years. Which tech-
D. to extend the average human life by nique was first used to produce domestic
preventing malnutrition animals and crop plants with desired char-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
acteristics?
517. Plasmids, yeast, and viruses are known
as A. genetic engineering
A. restriction enzymes B. gene mapping

B. vectors C. selective breeding
C. genetically modified organisms D. none of above
D. bacteria
523. Which molecule provided by plants ac-
518. Some consumers are opposed to the use counts for the energy in an animal’s diet?
of biotechnology because of A. glucose
A. ethical questions B. protein
B. fear of the unknown health risks
C. salt
C. biotech products are more costly
D. oxygen
D. any of the above
524. What is biotechnology?
519. Which is not a purpose or benefit of SAEs
A. The history and experiences of techno-
A. Become established in an agriscience
logical advances
occupation
B. permit early graduation B. Using living organisms to modify pro-
cesses and create new products
C. permit individualized instruction
C. Living in a world where technology is
D. provide educational and practical ex- everywhere
periences
D. Creating new social media sites for liv-
520. SAEs should be planned ing organism
A. at home with parent/guardian
525. Where does transcription take place in a
B. in the classroom cell?
C. on the job with employers
A. always in the nucleus
D. all of the above
B. always in the cytoplasm
521. changes the genetic material of a liv- C. in the nucleus in eukaryotes and the
ing organism. cytoplasm in prokaryotes
A. Crossbreeding D. in the cytoplasm in eukaryotes and the
B. Genetic Modification nucleus in prokaryotes

526. involves transfer of genetic material 530. survival of the fittest organisms that are
from one organism to another the best adapted to their environment and
the ones that will live long enough to re-

A. gene splicing
produce and pass on their favorable adap-
B. gel electrophoresis tations
C. DNA replication involves transfer of A. natural selection
genetic material from one organism to an- B. adaptations
other
C. darwin theory
D. none of above
D. evolution
527. Which aspect of agricultural biotechnol-
531. What is recombinant DNA? (*hint think
ogy most benefits farmers and society?
recombining)
A. increased crop yields (Testing soils)
A. DNA brought together from two
B. increased profits for the economy sources
C. increased environmental science busi- B. Original Plasmid
ness among countries C. DNA that restriction enzyme cuts
D. increased knowledge of diseases in ge- D. a cell with DNA
netically modified plants
532. evidence of past life preserved in rock.
528. How would smoking tobacco most likely A. carbonization
have a negative impact on the ability of
an individual to succeed at physical activi- B. cast
ties? C. fossil
A. It interferes with balance and coordi- D. fossilization
nation.
533. Gel electrophoresis separates DNA ac-
B. It decreases the ability to make deci- cording to size. Which is true regarding
sions rapidly. movement of the DNA?
C. It decreases stamina and cardiovascu- A. The longest pieces of DNA will move
lar efficiency. the least distance.
D. It decreases the speed and power of B. The longest pieces of DNA will move
muscle contractions the greatest distance.
529. Which two processes could result in the C. The shortest pieces of DNA line up
formation of high mountains with well- along the middle.
rounded peaks? D. The shortest pieces of DNA line up an
equal distance from the middle
A. volcanic eruptions and global warming
B. earthquakes and tidal activity 534. What is the main reason for adding vita-
min A content to golden rice?
C. movement of tectonic plates and ero-
sion A. to be able to grow rice in salty soil
D. production of greenhouse gases and B. to create better looking rice

weathering C. to grow rice under drought conditions

D. to create rice that contains more nutri- D. Louis Pasteur

ents
540. Which organisms are used to manufac-
535. biotechnology is ture human insulin?
A. commercial application of biological A. Protozoans
products
B. Algae
B. scientific techniques to collect evi-
dence C. Bacteria
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. identification of someone using their D. Amoebas
DNA
D. electrical charges to separate pieces 541. A biotechnologist who specializes in
of molecules aquaculture would work MOSTLY with:
A. Plants.
536. What agricultural worker works primar-
ily with plants? B. Bacteria.
A. Geneticist C. Fish.
B. Horticulturist D. Birds.
C. Animal breeder
542. Which is an example of a transgenic ani-
D. First line supervisor mal?
537. Will a child have the same DNA finger- A. Dog
prints as their parents?
B. Lion
A. Yes, parents and children have the
same genes. C. Mouse that carries a florescent green
protein
B. Yes, everyone has the same repeating
nucleotide sequences. D. Cat
C. No, a child’s DNA fingerprint is a com-
543. Which of these is an ethical issue in the
bination of both parents’ DNA fingerprints.
field of biotechnology?
A. The cost is very expensive.
D. none of above
B. We can live longer and healthier lives.
538. Foods with especially strong smells are
caused by ? C. Sometimes the harm outweighs the
good.
A. non-volatile compounds
B. volatile compounds D. Public opinion of the technology.
C. None of the above 544. What process occurs when bacteria are
D. none of above used to clean up oil spills?
539. Who gave the term biotechnology? A. biomedication
A. Karl Erkey B. bioremediation

B. Edward Jenner C. bioaccumulation
C. Robert Koch D. none of above

545. To make an exact copy of DNA or an or- A. by developing crops which are insect-
ganism resistant
B. by changing the types of soil where the

A. Ethics
crops are planted
B. Bacteria
C. by rotating the crop within the same
C. GMO field
D. Cloning D. by developing crops which are resis-
tant to winter weather.
546. Cells that can differentiate into any type
of cell and are used to cure disease are cat- 551. Which practice is an example of biotech-
egorized as nology?
A. specialized cells A. monitoring seismic (volcanic) activity
B. cloning cells B. analyzing the vitamin content of an ap-
ple
C. somatic cells
C. observing the migratory habits of but-
D. stem cells terflies
547. What is the Cenozoic Era also known as? D. altering (changing) tomatoes to grow
in adverse conditions
A. Age of Mammals
B. Age of Plants 552. What beneficial impact could genetically
engineered crops have on society?
C. Age of Cenozoic
A. They could create a more stable food
D. Age of Birds supply, as crops could be altered to resist
droughts.
548. Which category does the following
biotechnology fall under? Fingerprints B. They increase genetic variation in
were found at a crime scene and show a crops.
criminal was present during a crime. C. They increase food allergies from
crops.
A. Forensic
D. none of above
B. Agricultural
553. Which best describes stem cells?
C. Environmental
A. stem cells can only come from em-
D. Consumer Goods
bryos
549. The Hardy-Weinberg principle is used to B. stem cells can only come from adult
determine if a population is bone marrow
A. evolving. C. stem cells do not ever change
B. at carrying capacity. D. stem cells can develop into different
specialized cells
C. declining.
554. is NOT a common ethical concern re-
D. none of above
lated to human cloning.
550. How can biotechnology help farmers A. That humans will be created who ex-
overcome sudden changes in environ- ist solely as a supply of organs for trans-
ment? plants

B. That clones will be more prone to ab- 559. What would increase the money made by
normal development farmers in North Carolina through biotech-
nology?
C. That parents will pay to have a child
that is a clone of a famous athlete A. Tomatoes that are different in color.
D. That cloned humans will have no per- B. Tomatoes that are smaller.
sonality C. Tomatoes that taste the same.
D. Tomatoes that are resistant to dis-
555. Which statement BEST describes what
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ease.
the Biotechnology Industry does?
A. Using organisms and cells to make- 560. Which category does the following
products or solve problems. biotechnology fall under? Fungus is used
at paper mills to reduce pollution from soil
B. Health care of animals is the primary- entering the water table.
focus of this industry.
A. Forensic
C. Making scientific equipment which
supports DNA research. B. Agricultural
C. Environmental
D. Study the safety of new drugs and ap-
prove their use. D. Consumer Goods
556. PST Hormone injected into pigs to help in- 561. Which scientific field is responsible for
crease the muscle and decrease the fat. developing vaccinations against infectious
diseases?
A. Agriculture
A. Kinesiology
B. Industry
B. Cardiology
C. Environment C. Biotechnology
D. Medicine D. Endotology
557. Which of the following is a density- 562. This is a procedure that allows scientists
independent limiting factor? to make more copies of DNA in a short
amount of time.
A. parasitism
A. DNA replication
B. earthquake
B. DNA synthesis
C. disease
C. Gel electrophoresis
D. emigration
D. PCR
558. using living things or parts of living
563. The general modification of any organ-
things to produce a product or solve a prob-
ism’s genome using biotechnology tech-
lem
niques.
A. biotechnology A. Ethics
B. tissue culturing B. Gene therapy
C. bioremediation C. Selective breeding
D. transgenic D. Genetic modification

564. What is a product of the biotechnology 570. an energy source that cannot be replaced
industry? by natural means at the same rate that it
is consumed.

A. paper
B. plastics A. nonrewable
C. computers B. renewable
D. medicines C. hydrothermal
D. energy
565. What is a genetically engineered organ-
ism that contains a new gene from a dif- 571. John recently earned his doctoral degree,
ferent organism called? which job is he MOST LIKELY pursuing?
A. Bacterial A. Research scientist
B. Genetic B. Sales representative
C. Transgenic C. Technical writer
D. Multigenic D. Veterinary technician
566. One example of biotechnology is the pro- 572. Which surgery is most like the way a
cess of making fuel from transgenic organism in made?
A. Oil Spills A. John receives a replacement heart
B. Corn valve from a cow.
C. Steam Cells B. Ann receives an artificial hip to ease
D. Cheese her arthritis.
C. Jack receives a kidney donated by her
567. What percentage of the human genome identical twin.
codes for proteins
D. Anita receives a pacemaker to regu-
A. 98%
late her heartbeat.
B. 10%
573. Seagrasses are flowering plants which
C. 25%
grow in the photic zones of marine envi-
D. 2% ronments. Which factor would be a biotic
limiting factor for seagrass growth?
568. What is an organism?
A. water temperature
A. an object
B. amount of available sunlight
B. abiotic factors
C. density of the animal population
C. a virus
D. concentration of dissolved nutrients
D. a living thing
569. Segment of DNA that codes for a trait 574. Which countries are likely to benefit
MOST from growing GM crops?
A. Nucleus
A. small populations and a lot of re-
B. Gene sources
C. Chromosome B. small populations and limited re-
D. Cell sources

C. large populations and limited re- B. Restriction Enzymes

sources C. Plasmid
D. none of above D. Cloning
575. In what decade was Dolly the sheep 580. The gene that the scientist is manipulat-
cloned? ing to make a product.
A. 1930s A. Okasaki Fragment
B. 1950s
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Plasmid
C. 1970s C. Transformation
D. 1990s D. Gene of Interest
576. The primary goal at a biotechnology com- 581. Flu vaccine in the form of a nasal spray is
pany is to an example of:
A. engage in “pure science” A. Agricultural biotechnology.
B. cure all the disease of the world. B. Food and consumer goods biotechnol-
C. publish results in scientific journals. ogy.
D. provide a product or service that is C. Environmental biotechnology.
useful to society and results in earnings. D. Medical biotechnology
577. Which of the following describes how we 582. Human cells need energy to survive.
could use genetic modification? From which source does this energy orig-
A. It allows for a large amount of medica- inally come?
tions to be produced A. plants
B. It helps with the pollution in Earth’s B. animals
oceans
C. sunlight
C. It can help us alter genes in crops to
become insect-resistant D. water
D. It can increase the amount of non- 583. Which is a career that would use microor-
renewable resources ganisms to remove pollutants from wa-
ter?
578. Which is an example of genetic engineer-
ing? A. medical specialist
A. Corn is modified so it is larger B. DNA fingerprint specialist
B. dogs are bred to have favorable traits C. Environmental Protection Agency spe-
from both parents cialist
C. cells are grown into body parts D. Center for Disease Control
D. none of above 584. Which would a person who pursues a ca-

reer in bioinformatics study?
579. The taking in of DNA that the cell or or-
ganism did not have before. The new DNA A. ways DNA stores information
gives new traits to the cell or organism. B. ways of cross-breeding plants
A. Transformation C. ways of cross-breeding animals

D. ways of storing and retrieving biologi- C. the characteristics of an organismo

cal data D. sets of moral obligation that define

585. Which of these macromolecules is cut by right and wrong in our practices and de-
restriction enzymes? cisions.
A. DNA 590. Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly

B. carbohydrates because they
C. proteins A. express different genes
D. lipids B. contain different genes
C. use different genetic codes
586. This is the use of biological processes, or-
ganisms, or systems to manufacture prod- D. have unique ribosomes
ucts intended to improve the quality of hu-
591. the change in population of a species over
man life.
time.
A. transgenic organisms
A. evolution
B. recombinant DNA
B. changed population
C. ethics
C. carbonization
D. biotechnology
D. fossilized
587. a basic law of geology, stating that
in any undisturbed sequence of rocks de- 592. Which of the following is when an or-
posited in layers, the youngest layer is on ganism’s DNA is modified for medicine, re-
top and the oldest on bottom, each layer search, production, or industry?
being younger than the one beneath it and A. Cloning
older than the one above it
B. Artificial Selection
A. Theory of Darwin
B. Supercontinent
D. none of above
C. Fossil Index Theory
593. Genetically altered crops that can grow
D. Law of Superposition
in exceptionally dry or wet, hot or cold cli-
588. Principle that states in a sequence of mates are an example of:
undisturbed rocks, the oldest rocks are on A. Agricultural biotechnology.
the bottom and the rocks become progres-
sively younger toward the top
ogy.
A. superposition
C. Environmental biotechnology.
B. uniformitarianism
D. Medical biotechnology.
C. half-life
D. none of above 594. A scientist who works in forest biotech-
nology might use biotechnology to pro-
589. Ethics are duce:
A. genetically modified organismo A. Better irrigation systems.
B. that haploid set of chromosomes B. Better tools for chopping down trees.

C. Trees that won? t burn during forest 599. Which of the below biotechnological ad-
fires. vances is MOST beneficial to Florida FARM-
D. Insect-resistant trees. ERS?
A. Development of disease resistant
595. Why is water form an aquifer more plants for higher yields
likely to be cleaner than water from other
sources? B. Development of more effective human
vaccines
A. because it forms where fresh and salt
NARAYAN CHANGDER
water meet C. The ability to create more antibiotics
from bacteria
B. because it receives water directly
from precipitation D. Producing enzymes to eliminate pollu-
C. because it rises to the surface near the tants
ocean
600. Which is an example of cross breeding?
D. because pollutants are filtered by rock
and soil deep within Earth A. A plum is bred with an apricot
B. Two dogs are bred to produce a hypoal-
596. What do all forms of biotechnology have lergenic dog
in common?
C. Race horses are bred to produce
A. They all involve modifying an organ-
stronger faster horses
ism’s genetic makeup
B. They all create intense public debate D. none of above
when they are first introduced.
601. To transfer (an organ, etc.) from one part
C. They all make use of living organisms of the body to another or from one person
to do a job or provide a service. or animal to another
D. They all combine the use of machines A. Transplant
with living organisms in some way.
B. Implant
597. What is a benefit of using biotechnologies
C. Device
in agriculture?
D. Bionics
A. Increase modifications
B. Increase resistance 602. Maggie is a transgenic goat. How does
C. Decreased nutrition being transgenic make Maggie different
from non-transgenic goats?
D. Increase crop yield
A. Maggie has DNA from both of her par-
598. What type of science allows us to alter ents.
the DNA of a corn plant so that it will con-
B. Maggie has DNA that winds around
tain more protein?
proteins.
A. biology
C. Maggie has DNA implanted from an-
B. biotechnology other organism
C. geology D. Maggie has DNA that uses a different
D. physiology coding system.

603. Which information was most important C. Biology

to the development of genetic engineering D. Selective Breeding
techniques?

A. the observation of nondominant alle- 608. Recombinant DNA are currently used to
les produce
B. the discovery of lethal genes A. clothing dye, cheese, and laundry prod-
ucts
C. the formulation of Punnett squares
B. human antibiotics and vaccines
D. the structure of the DNA molecule
C. crops that taste better and stay fresh
604. How does the biotechnology industry longer
benefit North Carolina? D. all of these
A. Many new, high paying jobs are cre-
609. The first step in the process of recombi-
ated
nant DNA technology
B. The average salary of the worker in NC
A. Cutting and ligation of DNA at specific
decreased.
locations
C. New technologies being developed are
B. Amplification of gene of interest using
too expensive for people here to afford.
PCR
D. State budget increases from the con-
C. Isolation of the genetic material or
struction of new facilities.
DNA
605. recombinant DNA D. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the
A. identifying someone by their DNA host cell or organism
B. natural process of transcription and 610. Which of the following is an advantage

translation to alter organisms of genetically modified crops?
C. used to help cure diseases A. resistance to pests
D. exact copies of antibodies that bind to B. unknown side effects
a specific antigen C. public outrage and debate
606. When a sheep embryo is removed from a D. increased seed cost
mother’s uterus, and individual eggs are
611. In 1750 BC, the Sumerians are credited
separated and allowed to grow and de-
with being the first to use biotechnology.
velop in a test-tube. This is
What did they make?
A. Recombinant DNA
A. Penicillin
B. Cloning
B. Beer
C. Gene Therapy
C. Rabies vaccine
D. DNA Fingerprinting
D. Olive oil
607. The application of technological process, 612. Which molecule from humans is inserted
invention, or method of living organisms. into bacteria to cause them to produce in-
A. Biotechnology sulin?
B. Hybridization A. DNA

B. Lipids B. part of a ribosome

C. Proteins C. a small molecule used by the ribosome
D. Carbohydrates and is not made into protein
D. all of the above
613. Can biotech foods cause allergic reactions
in some people? 618. What are the 2 types of stem cells?
A. Yes, but only if people eat large quan- A. Reproductive
tities of the biotech food.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Embryonic
B. Yes, if the biotech food contains a gene C. Adult
from a food known to cause an allergic re-
action. D. Somatic
C. No. Biotech foods are hypoallergenic. 619. Questions or concerns about genetic en-
D. No, because food allergies are psycho- gineering that need to be researched and
logical and not physical. answered before genetic engineering prod-
ucts are used.
614. BST hormone that is given to cows to help A. Controversies
increase their milk production by as much
as 20%. B. Gene of Interest
A. Agriculture C. Application
B. Industry D. Electrophoresis
C. Environment 620. Scientists have found a gene in the DNA
D. Medicine of a certain plant that could be the key
to increasing the amount of lycopene,
615. Which of the following is not a benefit of a cancer-fighting substance, in tomatoes.
GMO food? The process of inserting this gene into the
A. herbicide tolerance DNA of a tomato plant is known as
B. disease resistance against fungus in- A. selective breeding

fections B. cloning
C. gene transfer to other species C. genetic engineering
D. longer shelf life D. replication
616. is a technique that scientists use to 621. In what decade was DNA discovered?
determine whether genes are on or off us- A. 1950s
ing presence of mRNA
B. 1970s
A. DNA electrophorhesis
C. 1980s
B. DNA microarray analysis
D. 1990s
D. Cloning 622. Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer in-
vented the technique of DNA cloning and
617. mRNA is are responsible for the:
A. used as a template to make protein A. Separation of Siamese twins.

B. Methods used today to kill microbes in 627. In which field would a student most likely
milk. pursue a career after obtaining a degree in
biotechnology?

C. Human Genome Project.
D. Biotechnology revolution. A. geology
B. civil engineering
623. Why could gene therapy be beneficial in
medicinal practice? C. astronomy
A. Gene therapy allows patients to seek D. pharmaceuticals
advice for their genetic disorders 628. Which of following developments is an
B. Gene therapy treats the cause of dis- advance in medicine that the application of
ease genetic science has allowed?
C. Gene therapy is a simple process A. development of genetic counseling as
D. none of above a career
B. development of a method of DNA fin-
624. A(n) is a pattern of dark bands
gerprinting
on photographic film that is made when
DNA fragments are separated by gel C. production of proteins, such as insulin,
electrophoresis and tagged. The photo- for use as drugs
graph produced is often used to determine D. cloning of animals and engineeringof
whether or not suspects were involved in agricultural crops
a crime.
629. Who discovered the DNA molecular struc-
A. RNA pattern
ture?
B. DNA fingerprint
A. George Washington Carver
C. human replicant
B. Louis Pasteur
D. allele impression
C. James Watson and Francis Crick
625. Which are uses for DNA fingerprinting? D. Linus Pauling
A. identifying related individuals and
630. Shelf-life of tomato can be extended
treating genetic disorders
when a second copy of the tomato gene
B. identifying genes for genetic disorders polygalacturonase degrade
and producing vaccines
A. beta-carotene
C. matching individual DNA samples and
B. pectin
identifying related individuals
C. anthocyanins
D. determining the number of human
genes and forming transgenic organisms D. none of above
626. An example of biotechnology used in agri- 631. Conducting an activity in the daily routine
culture is of our society is said to be
A. cloning A. lab experience
B. embryo transfer B. real world experience
C. transgenic crops C. simulation
D. all the above D. supervised occupational experience

632. Which of these is used as a vector to in- 638. Which of the following is required to
sert new DNA into an organism? make complementary DNA (cDNA) from
A. Enzymes RNA?
B. Yeast A. restriction enzymes (endonucleases)

B. gene cloning
C. Viruses
C. DNA ligase
D. Plants
D. reverse transcriptase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
633. Directly manipulating the genome of an
organism is referred to as 639. Which statement describes how cloning is
different from selective breeding?
A. playing god.
A. Cloning eliminates recessive alleles
B. genetic engineering. from a genome.
C. natural selection. B. Cloning transforms harmful traits into
D. artificial selection. beneficial traits.
C. Cloning corrects or replaces mutated
634. How long ago did the Cenozoic Era
gene sequences.
start?
D. Cloning results in offspring that are ge-
A. 45 million years ago
netically identical to the parents.
B. 65 million years ago
640. Which has the Human Genome Project
C. 34 million years ago
been useful in determining?
D. 75 million years ago A. the gender of an individual
635. All living genes use genes in B. the frequency of crossing-over during
A. Similar ways meiosis
B. Different ways C. whether a fetus has Down Syndrome

D. whether individuals could carry genes
C. Diverse ways
for a certain condition
D. The exact same way
641. What is the science of agriculture deal
636. It is the transfer of genes into the somatic with?
cells of the patient
A. Farming (plant and animals)
A. Somatication B. Crime
B. Somatic cell gene therapy C. Medical
C. cell gene therapy D. Computers
D. somatic cell therapy
642. Which of the following might scientists
637. The purpose of selective breeding is to use gel electrophoresis for?
A. Solve crimes
A. get bigger animals. B. Edit diseased genes
B. get smaller animals. C. Replace diseased cells
C. create animals with desirable traits. D. Identify fathers
D. create animals with bad traits. E. Determine how related 2 species are

643. What naturally occurring soil bacterium is 648. Using microbes like bacteria to remove
a protein that wards off the European corn harmful toxins from the environment is
borer? called

A. Carotene A. bioremediation
B. Lycopene B. transgenic
C. Hepatitis B
C. tissue culturing
D. Bt
D. gene therapy
644. Which task is best accomplished with
the use of specific genetic information in 649. Which is most likely a potential health
biotechnology? problem for someone with a diet high
in sugar and fat and low in protein and
A. Conserving water
fiber?
B. Cleaning up oil spills
A. obesity
C. Producing synthetic hormones
B. blindness
D. Creating ethanol fuel from corn
C. lung cancer
645. What agricultural worker would drive
and control farm equipment to produce D. stomach ulcers
crops?
650. Human growth hormone to counteract
A. Agricultural inspectors dwarfism.
B. Agricultural equipment operators
A. Agriculture
C. Animal breeders
B. Industry
D. Farm labor contractors
C. Environment
646. Gene therapy is when:
D. Medicine
A. A person’s genes are edited
B. New genes are added to a person’s 651. circular DNA in bacteria
genome A. plasmids
C. Bacterial DNA is incorporated into the
B. recombinant DNA
human genome
D. Stem cells are used to cure a disease C. restriction enzyme
D. none of above
647. The Human Genome Project that locates
and identifies every gene in the human
652. Genetic modification is a technique used
body and what it does an example of:
in
A. Herbicide-resistant crops
ogy. B. Transgenic organisms
C. Environmental biotechnology. C. Cloning

D. Medical biotechnology. D. All of the above

653. Analyzing DNA by gel electrophoresis al- 657. DNA fragments are separated using gel
lows researchers to electrophoresis:
A. identify similarities and differences in A. Because DNA is pulled through the gel
the genomes of different kinds of organ- toward the negative end of the field.
isms B. Because larger DNA fragments move
B. determine whether a particular allele faster through the gel than smaller DNA
of a gene is dominant or recessive fragments
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. compare the phenotypes of different C. To identify and isolate DNA fragments
organisms D. To synthesize DNA for cloning
D. cut DNA with restriction enzymes
658. A gene gun and a virus may both be clas-
654. Why is embryonic stem cell research con- sified as because they are mechanisms
troversial? (choose 2) by which foreign DNA may be transferred
into a host cell.
A. The stem cells may die.
A. bacteria
B. There isn’t enough research to show
that it is effective. B. plasmids
C. vectors
C. It means the demise/destruction of
the embryo. D. splicers
D. Some do not agree with government 659. Microbes that can clean up waste water
funding of such research. before it enters streams and lakes are an
example of:
655. Which of the following could be the
source of new applications in biotechnol- A. Agricultural biotechnology.
ogy B. Food and consumer goods biotechnol-
A. bacteria ogy.
B. water C. Environmental biotechnology.
C. body waste D. Medical biotechnology
D. hair follicles 660. How can biotechnology help farmers

overcome sudden changes in the global cli-
656. Through the use of biotechnology, cotton mate?
crops have been developed so they are re-
A. by changing the types of soil in which
sistant to the boll weevil. Which would be
the crops are planted
the most likely effect in North Carolina?
B. by developing crops that are resistant
A. The quality of the cotton would de-
to adverse weather
crease.
C. by rotating the crops within the same
B. Less cotton would be grown and har- field
vested.
D. by only planting crops in the winter
C. More money would be spent on insec-
ticides. 661. The word biotechnology has been in use
D. Each acre of land would have a higher since the
yield of cotton. A. 1700s

B. 1800s 667. cloning

C. 1900s A. scientific techniques used to collect ev-

D. 2000s idence
662. Problems with selective breeding such as B. creation of genetically identical organ-
inbreeding include isms
A. Better animals C. identify all human genes and deter-

mine all of the base pair sequences
B. More Meat
C. Animals can have health problems D. electrical charges to separate pieces
of molecules based on size and charge
D. more diversity
663. Bioremediation would most likely be 668. Which is an example of bioremediation?

used to improve the quality of A. bacteria is used to produce insulin
A. Schools B. bacteria is used to clean up oil spills
B. Entertainment C. cells are grown over a scaffold to
C. Water or Soil make new body parts
D. Merchandise D. none of above
664. Dr. Norman Borlaug won a Nobel Prize
669. Which food is most likely a product of
for Peace in 1970 for his efforts to:
biotechnology today?
A. Develop human embryos to be used in
making stem cells. A. potato
B. Map the human genome. B. chicken

C. Find vaccines to prevent communica- C. beef
ble diseases.
D. corn
D. Improve wheat to fight starvation in
developing countries. 670. Which field would most likely NOT incor-
porate biotechnology?
665. What are the products of cellular respira-
tion? A. Agriculture
A. Oxygen and Sugar B. Genetics
B. Oxygen and Water C. Medicine
C. Carbon Dioxide and Sugar D. Mining
D. Carbon Dioxide and Water
671. Corn is most often genetically modified
666. a marine organism that is an example of for what purpose?
an index fossil
A. Slower growth
A. hard-shelled muslock
B. trilobite B. Herbicide resistance
C. t-rex C. Shorter growing season
D. humpback whale D. Color change

672. the two sub-layers of the earth’s crust C. Biotech workers should never wear
(lithosphere) that move, float, and some- makeup.
times fracture and whose interaction D. The appearance of biotech workers is
causes continental drift, earthquakes, vol- notimportant.
canoes, mountains, and oceanic trenches
A. plate tectonics 677. Natural flavor comes from
B. convergent A. Spices (Rempah)
B. Fruits
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. divergent
D. transform C. Yeast
D. All of the above
673. What is the recognition sequence and
site of cleavage for restriction enzyme Eco E. None of the above
R1?
678. uses bacteria to clean up our sur-
A. 5’GGATCC3’ rounding.
B. 5’GAATTC3’ A. Genome
C. 5’AAGCTT3’ B. Bioremediation
D. 5’CCCGGG3’ C. Genetic Modification
674. Joan loves to solve problems using com- D. Crossbreeding
puters and she also likes biology. What
679. the sunlit top layer of the ocean beyond
field of biotechnology would be good for
the continental shelves; the vast bulk of
Joan?
the sea, it covers over 360, 000, 000
A. Fermentation square kilometers of the Earth’s surface
B. Mutation and is referred to as the ‘marine desert’
because nutrients are lower here than in
C. Bioprocessing the shallow seas; life can be scarce
D. Bioinformatics A. tidal ocean
675. Which molecules are needed to cut and B. optial ocean
copy segments of DNA? C. open ocean
A. reproductive hormones D. deep ocean
B. carbohydrates
680. A company that produces recombinant
C. antibodies insulin by fermentation of E.coli cells is
D. biological catalysts looking for a new product for its pipeline.
Which of the following choices would make
676. In most biotech careers, what rule should the most sense?
females follow when it comes to wearing
makeup? A. Engineering of ear tissue
A. The more makeup a person wears, the B. Transgenic papaya

prettier she will be. C. Reagent production
B. Makeup can be used to create a natu- D. Production of recombinant human
ral appearance. growth hormone

681. GM foods look and taste the same as tra- A. Transport, house, and provide meals
ditional foods and crops. The only differ- forworkers
ence is that GM foods can have

B. Crop baling, husking, shelling, thresh-
A. Better shelf life ing, and ginning
B. Genes with traits that improve some C. Grade, sort, or classify unprocessed
characteristics of a plant. food
C. Addition nutrients D. Conduct research in production, and
D. All are possible yield of plants or crops
686. What is a greenhouse technician?

682. How are plant cells different from human
cells? A. Someone that cares for plants
A. Human cells need food, but plant cells B. Someone that cares for animals
do not. C. A green person
B. Human cells need energy, but plant D. a computer specilaist
cells do not.
687. Genetic code for all living organisms
C. Plant cells make their own food, but hu-
which looks like a zipper or ladder found in
man cells do not.
chromosomes containing genes (also called
D. Plant cells make their own energy, but the Double Helix)
human cells do not.
A. stem cells
683. Which of these fields are most likely re- B. cloning
lated to the use of biotechnology?
C. DNA
A. construction and engineering
D. RNA
B. medicine and agriculture
688. DNA is used by Forensic Scientists to
C. water treatment and electricity gener-
make what kind of determination?
ation
A. Studying diseases
D. communication and computer technol-
ogy B. Expressinggenes
C. Suspects in a criminal case
684. Which would most likely increase the
amount of money made from agriculture D. Identifying family trees and ancestors
in North Carolina?
689. Root knot disease of tobacco is caused by
A. Sweet potatoes that are resistant to A. Agrobacterium tumificians
disease.
B. Meloidegyne incognitia
B. Sweet potatoes that are more expen-
sive. C. Bacillus thuriengiensis
C. Sweet potatoes that are a different D. Thermus aquiticus
color. 690. What plate boundary causes earth-
D. Sweet potatoes that taste the same. quakes?
685. What do graders and sorters of agricul- A. Subduction

turalproducts do? B. Transform

C. Divergent A. Genetic Engineering

D. Convergent B. Cloning
691. DNA fingerprinting is a method used by C. Ethics
forensic scientists to D. Controversy
A. identify a person based on their unique
DNA code. 696. Someone who is interested in pursuing a
marketing career in the biotech industry
B. Find similarities between bone or
NARAYAN CHANGDER
should enjoy:
blood samples.
A. Working in a lab with various machines
C. identify “black market” items such as
poached animals. B. Conducting pharmaceutical research
D. All of the above. C. Caring for a variety of lab animals.
692. DNA fragments separated according to D. Meeting and talking with people.
size due to electrical charge.
697. Biopesticides are microorganisms that do
A. gel electrophoresis not harm humans, animals, fish or birds,
B. gene splicing but are:
C. cloning A. Toxic to certain crop pests.
D. none of above B. Harmful if swallowed by livestock.
693. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments mi- C. Too expensive for use by most farm-
grate toward one end of a gel because ers.
they are D. Hard to grow in a laboratory.
A. pulled toward that end by gravity
698. What would be a negative side of genet-
B. attracted to complementary DNA frag- ically modified foods?
ments at that end of the gel
A. Lower cost of production.
C. attracted to the positively charged end
of the gel B. Long-term health effects, such as pos-
sible allergies to proteins not found in
D. repelled by hydrophobic molecules at foods before GMO’s.
the other end of the gel
C. Ability to produce more food in less
694. atoms and molecules in the surface of a time.
substance exhibit the property of cohesion
D. Ability to grow more nutritious food in
A. surface tension less time.
B. polarity
699. Which is not a benefit to genetically engi-
C. bonding neering plants?
D. cohesion property
A. increase crop yield
695. The idea that scientists must think about B. lower pesticide use
how their actions or products will affect
C. increase drought resistance
other people or the environment. Keeping
in mind the safety of other species. D. increase pesticide use

700. What is the end goal of PCR? 705. What is involved in creating genetically
modified bacteria?
A. Look at banding patterns of DNA

A. allowing them to reproduce freely
B. Increase amount of DNA
B. changing their food source
C. Decrease the amount of DNA
C. using biotechnology techniques
D. Fingerprinting
D. growing them on selected plants
701. Fingerprints have often been used in the 706. Which E-numbers is the code for algi-
past because they are considered what nates?
type of characteristic?
A. E400-405
A. Group
B. E407
B. Partner
C. E406
C. Couple D. none of above
D. Individual
707. How can agricultural biotechnology have
702. An associates degree takes how many a positive impact on the environment?
years? A. By developing crops that are pest re-
A. 8 sistant requiring fewer pesticides to be
used.
B. 6
B. planting crops in shaded areas.
C. 4 C. Harvesting crops that have thick stems
D. 2 and leaves.
D. water crops with a recycled irrigation
703. Scientists have inserted genes into rice system.
plants that
A. code for enzymes that cause rice to 708. The Human Genome Project has made di-
ripen quickly agnosing genetic disorders easier.Once a
genetic disorder is diagnosed, can be
B. increase the iron and beta carotene used as a possible treatment.
levels
A. cell cultures
C. code for substances that cause aller- B. gene therapy
gies in people
C. DNA fingerprinting
D. increase the thickness of the seed coat
D. PCR
704. Fingerprint pattern in which ridges make
709. Which is a positive result of the use of
a complete circuit
biotechnology in agriculture?
A. loop A. Increased use of pesticides
B. arch B. Increased cost
C. whorl C. Increased yield
D. none of above D. Increased use of preservatives

10.2 Restriction digests, cloning and transformation 1036
10.2 Restriction digests, cloning and transformation

1. Which of the following could be used as a 6. The site where restriction enzymes cut are
cloning vector for a human gene? a called:
A. Bacterial Plasmid A. cut sites
B. Bacteria B. restriction sites
C. A mitochondria C. recognition sites
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. mRNA D. cleave sites
2. Why are primers needed for the PCR pro- 7. Scientists genetically engineer corn to be
cess? immune to corn diseases. This is BENEFI-
A. they are what makes copy of the DNA CIAL because
B. they are used to build more copies of A. This causes corn to be less likely to re-
the DNA produce
C. they attach to sites on the DNA on ei- B. This causes corn to be less likely to sur-
ther side of the DNA to be copied vive
D. they are what change temperature to C. This causes corn to be smaller
copy the DNA D. This allows increased production of
corn
3. Humans have been choosing the best traits
for domesticated plants and animals for 8. What does it mean to “extract” DNA?
thousands of years. What is that called? A. take out
A. Genetic Engineering B. put in
B. Cloning C. modify
C. Artificial Selection D. delete
9. LacZ gene is used to?
4. If two genetically identical individuals ex- A. Differentiate between transformant
perience two different environments, any and non transformant
changes observed can be attributed to:
B. Differentiate between clones with vec-
A. Their environments tor plasmids and without vector plasmids
B. Their genes C. Differentiate between competent cells
C. Random chance and non competent cells
D. none of above D. Differntiate between negative and
false negative
5. The bt gene
A. makes a protein that kills the corn 10. Which of the following palindromic base
borer sequence identify by EcoRI
B. makes a protein that helps the corn A. 5’ GATTTC 3’
borer B. 5’ GATTCC 3’
C. makes the corn grow faster C. 5’ GAATCC 3’
D. makes the corn taste better D. 5’ GAATTC 3’

11. Which of the following is NOT used in same nucleotide sequence as the gene that
cloning? produced the mRNA

A. Egg cell A. mDNA
B. Somatic cell B. cDNA
C. Sperm cell C. sDNA
D. Surrogate D. rDNA
12. In attempts to confer special characteris- 17. What happens during somatic cell nuclear
tics upon plants, genetic engineers find transfer (SCNT)?
Agrobacterium tumefaciens to be an effec- A. An organism is naturally cloned
tive vector for use with .
B. The DNA in a somatic cell is placed into
A. rice an egg cell
B. wheat C. The DNA of an egg cell is placed into a
C. barley somatic cell
D. An organisms does sexual reproduc-
D. soy beans
tion
13. What is another name for reproductive
18. Which of the following could be used as a
cloning?
vector for a human gene?
A. somatic cell nuclear transfer
A. Bacterial Plasmid
B. adult stem cell transfer B. Bacteria
C. nucleic acid recombination C. A mitochondria
D. protein synthesis D. mRNA
14. What is a Stem cell? 19. The following are the steps taken during
A. Undifferentiated cell of an embryo that the cloning process.1. Transformation 2.
can reproduce itself Insertion 3. Isolation 4. Screening 5. Cut
B. A cell that can differentiate and be un- A. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
differentiated B. 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
C. Neither of these answers are correct C. 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
D. Both of these answers are correct D. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1
15. The enzyme used to join pieces of DNA to- 20. Why can cloning a single plant to produce
gether is called large numbers of it to grow as a single
crop lead to a loss of the entire crop?
A. DNA Ligase
A. There is only one gender of plant.
B. The entire crop is sterile.
C. Protease
C. The plants have many different re-
D. Carbohydrase
quirements
16. In the discovery of introns, a DNA D. If one plant is killed by an insect, it may
molecule called was formed that had the kill them all.

21. Biological cloning is frequently used to B. Plasmids from a bacteria

make which of the following: C. DNA from a recombinant bacterium
A. Human growth hormone D. DNA from a eukaryotic cell
B. Human insulin
27. The advantages of Embryonic Stem cells in-
C. genetically modified oil eating mi- clude?
crobes
A. Capacity for indefinite proliferation in
D. pest resistant crops culture
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. all of the options B. Can be differentiated into a variety of
22. Which of these would you not expect to be cells including germ cells
a biotechnology product? C. Can be maintained as frozen stocks
A. Vaccine D. All of the above
B. Steroid 28. Genetic engineering has been used to do
C. Hormone all of the following EXCEPT .
D. Modified enzyme A. make plants resistant to frost
23. What color was the mouse you created? B. make plants resistant to disease
A. Brown C. make plants more resistance to herbi-

cides
B. White
D. All the above are correct
C. Black
D. Pink 29. A molecule containing DNA from two dif-
ferent organisms is called
24. Cell that receive recombinant DNA for A. a plasmid.
cloning purpose
B. a polyploid.
A. Host cell
C. a hybrid organism.
B. plasmid
D. recombinant DNA.
C. DNA target
D. Gene of interest 30. A tube for eggs
A. embryo
25. What enzyme helps join the recombinant
plasmid together after the restriction en- B. elude
zyme? C. estrus
A. Restriction Enzymes D. oviduct
B. DNA Polymerase 31. What term is used to express creating an
C. DNA Ligase identical copy of a gene or organism?
D. RNA Polymerase A. hybridization
26. What is used in DNA cloning? B. inbreeding
A. A segment of bacterial DNA from the C. cloning

nucleoid D. gene splicing

32. An exact copy C. Target DNA

A. replica D. DNA ligase

B. twin 38. What do we call biological scissors?
C. mirror
A. Enzymes
D. oviduct
B. Inzymes
33. Genetic engineering has successfully trans- C. Outzymes
ferred genes from eukaryotic cells into .
D. Scissors
A. plants
39. How was the nucleus removed from the
B. bacteria
egg cell?
C. animals
A. It was dissolved out with chemicals
D. all of the above
B. It was sucked out with a sharp pipette
34. what cuts DNA into small fragments C. It was left in the nucleus
A. restriction enzyme D. none of above
B. ligands
40. Each cycle of the thermocycler doubles the
C. Polymerase chain reaction number of DNA copies. How many cycles
D. gel electrophoresis of the thermocycler are needed to make 16
copies of DNA?
35. Which enzyme “glues” DNA fragments to-
gether during insertion? A. 2
A. restriction enzymes B. 3
B. DNA ligase C. 4
C. DNA polymerase D. 5
D. DNA helicase E. 6
36. What is the difference between cloning an 41. What enzyme binds to the promotor of
organism and cloning a gene? the plasmid to transcribe the gene inserted
into the plasmid?
A. Cloning a gene is only focusing on a
piece of DNA A. DNA polymerase
B. Cloning an organism is only focusing B. helicase
on a piece of DNA C. RNA polymerase
C. Cloning a gene is cloning the whole D. ligase
DNA
D. Cloning a gene is more difficult than 42. Recombinant DNA technology involves a
cloning an organism screening process. What is the purpose of
screening process?
37. Which of the following is NOT a tool used A. Isolate recombinant DNA from bacte-
in recombinant DNA technology? ria
A. Cloning vector B. Identify cell with target DNA to be cut
B. RNA polymerase by restriction enzyme

C. Identify bacteria with plasmid to be 48. The process of putting recombinant DNA
used as vector into an organism is called
D. Identify bacteria with recombinant A. Transformation
plasmid B. Ligating
43. What enzyme is used to ensure that the re- C. Electrophoresis
combinant DNA created is bonded together D. Incubating
along the sugar-phosphate backbone?
49. Making an identical copy of an entire or-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. DNA polymerase
ganism is
B. RNA polymerase
A. genetic transformation
C. ligase
B. therapeutic cloning
D. helicase
C. reproductive cloning
44. When DNA is manipulated and moved from D. transcriptive cloning
one source to another it is known as
50. Which is used to cut DNA molecules at spe-
A. genetic engineering
cific points?
B. electrophoresis
A. gel electrophoresis
C. gene therapy
B. PCR analysis
D. GMO
C. a restriction enzyme
45. Which answer choice fits the follow- D. recombinant DNA
ing statement:“DNA makes up discrete
recipes or programs called ? ” 51. “Remediate” means
A. Deoxyriboses A. to meditate
B. Phosphate Molecules B. to solve a problem
C. Genes C. to create a problem
D. Carbon Sugars D. none of the above
46. An organism in which foreign genes have 52. cells are used to produce human pro-
been incorporated is called a: teins at an increased rate for gene ther-
apy.
A. recombinant organism
A. Plant
B. transgene recombinant
B. Human
C. polymorphism
C. Animal
D. transgenic organism
D. Bacteria
47. What is a plasmid?
53. A farmer has bred his pineapple plants
A. a section of the human genome from the sweetest pineapples from his last
B. a material that cuts DNA harvest to get even sweeter pineapple
C. viral DNA plants. What is this an example of?
D. an accessory piece of DNA found in A. Selective breeding

bacteria B. Natural selection

C. Extinction 58. In cloning, what is the purpose of the sur-

D. Mutagenesis rogate mother?

A. Donate her DNA
54. Applications of DNA cloning? (multiple an-
swers) B. Donate her egg cell
A. Genes for pest resistance C. Incubate and carry the baby until birth
B. Human growth hormones that can D. Nothing. She’s useless.
treat stunted growth
C. Genes used to alter bacteria for clean- 59. How many individual mice were used in
ing up toxic waste the cloning process?
D. Proteins dissolving blood clot in heart A. 1

therapy B. 2
55. Why is the first heating up stage needed C. 3
in the PCR cycle? D. 4
A. it allows the primers to attach the DNA
B. it allows the DNA polymerase to attach 60. Before Gel Electrophoresis are used to
to the DNA to begin copying it DNA into different segments.
C. it attaches the nucleotides to make A. enzymes, connect

DNA B. enzymes, cut
D. it unwinds the double stranded DNA so C. Plasmids, connect
both strands can be used as a template to
make more DNA D. Plasmids, cut
56. Some restriction enzymes produce “sticky 61. What are selectable marker?
ends”. Sticky ends are
A. a radium labelled marker
A. single-stranded DNA “overhangs” that
B. a type of sequence
can bind to complementary DNA
B. double stranded DNA aligned with C. resistant gene
each other D. a type of protein
C. single-stranded DNA aligned with host
DNA 62. Which of the following is NOT a character-
istic of a transgenic organism?
D. ends of a double stranded DNA strand
A. It has desirable and improved charac-
57. Which term refers to a farmer choosing teristics.
the best corn from this year to plant next
B. It is an organism that acquires a for-
year?
eign gene.
C. It is engineered to be of use to humans
B. selective breeding in agriculture.
C. genetic engineering D. Its genome incorporates and ex-
D. genetic transformation presses genes from its parents.

63. How many times do you want a restriction 68. Restriction enzymes are analogous to
enzyme to cut a human genome in order to what common school supply?
cut out the gene of interest to insert into
A. glue
a plasmid?
B. scissors
A. 1-through the gene
C. paper
B. 2-on either side of the gene
D. highlighter
C. 3-through the gene and on either side
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of the gene
69. What is NOT an example of a somatic
D. 4-twice on each side of the gene cell?
64. A surrogate is best described as A. Blood cell
A. the organism that carries the offspring B. Sperm cell
B. the sex cell that donates half the chro- C. Skin cell
mosomes D. Muscle cell
C. the organism that donates the com-
plete set of chromosomes 70. Once the gene and plasmid have been cut
with a restriction enzyme, another enzyme
D. none of above called is used to join the pieces of DNA
together.
65. Why might people be against cloning?
A. polymerase
A. It’s creepy
B. ligase
B. It can cause unknown defects
C. dehydrogenase
C. It is detrimental to genetic diversity
D. lactase
D. All of the above
66. Which of the following statements isTRUE 71. The alternative selectable marker and
about developing cDNA? chromogenic substrate that selects re-
combinants on the basis of their ability to
A. Mature mRNA does not contains in- produce colour are
trons.
A. LacZ gene, X-gal
B. Mature mRNA directs the formation of
the DNA. B. α -galactosidase and X-gal
C. DNA taken from the nucleus is used to C. Amp R gene and X-gal
produced cDNA. D. β -galactosidase and X-gal
D. Both A and C are true.
72. Recombinant DNA technology is used .
67. Another term for a body cell is a cell. A. for gene therapy
A. blastocyst B. to make a particular protein.
B. zygote C. to clone a specific piece of pro-
C. gamete tein/gene.
D. somatic D. All of the above.

73. If a disease is dominant the chances of 78. Oil sludge and straw or woodchips can be
passing the disease on is composed as long as the microbes have the
right amount of

A. 1 in 2
A. moisture
B. 1 in 3
B. air
C. 1 in 4
C. nitrogen
D. 1 in 10
D. all of the above
74. Plasmids are found in bacteria. Scientists
79. What is transformation?
use plasmids to
A. Procedure though which a piece of pro-
A. Insert eukaryotic genes into bacteria
tein incorporated into bacterium
B. insert eukaryotic genes into humans
B. Procedure though which a piece of
C. insert clones into the parent organism lipid incorporated into bacterium
C. Procedure though which a piece of
D. none of above DNA incorporated into bacterium
D. Procedure though which a piece of car-
75. The restriction site recognised by SmaI is bohydrate incorporated into bacterium
A. GGATCC
80. “transgenic” refers to an animal that:
B. GGGCCC
A. Has DNA from another organism
C. CCCGGG spliced into its genome
D. GAATTC B. Has undergone DNA modification
C. Has unique genes for its species
76. Which of the following is a way or ways
of cleaning up contaminated soil? D. none of above
A. Burn in incinerators 81. Where are restriction enzymes naturally
B. Composting found?
C. both A. in humans
D. neither B. in bacteria
C. in algae
77. Why is DNA polymerase needed in the PCR
D. they are not natural-all restriction en-
process?
zymes are made in the lab
A. they are the building blocks to make
more DNA 82. The overall function of selective breeding
is to
B. it is used as a template to make more
DNA A. Create organisms with desirable traits
C. it attaches to either end of the gene to B. Create bigger organisms

be copied C. Create smaller organisms
D. it is what makes a complementary D. Create animals with more genetic mu-
copy of the template DNA strand tations

83. In nature, when an embryo splits in two 89. What is an example of selective breeding
and goes on to develop, it is called by farmers?
A. Twinning A. Mating 2 small chickens to create
B. Cloning more large chickens
C. Duplicating B. Mating 2 large chickens to create more

large chickens
D. Somatic cell transfer
C. Mating 2 large chickens to create
NARAYAN CHANGDER
84. Making an identical copy of a cell or tissue more small chickens
is D. Using a machine to change the DNA of
A. genetic transformation a chick
B. stem cell diffusion 90. Why are nucleotides needed in the PCR
C. reproductive cloning process?
D. therapeutic cloning A. they are the building blocks used to
build the copies of DNA
85. What is a GMO?
B. they are the template that is used to
A. A genetically modified organism make copies of the DNA
B. An organism with altered DNA C. they are the machine that changes
C. An organism developed by scientists temperature to make DNA copies
to have desired traits D. they attach to either end of the DNA
D. All of the above that needs to be copied
86. Stem cells can be found naturally in? 91. A circular piece of DNA, found in bacteria,
A. Trophoblast is called:
B. A Fertilized Egg (ES) A. A plasmid
C. None of these B. mRNA
D. I have no idea becasue I didn’t pay at- C. Ribosome

tention D. Nucleotide
87. The cloned animal looks like the 92. Can two DNAs cut with different restric-
A. egg donor tion enzymes join together to form a re-
combinant plasmid?
B. nucleus donor
A. Yes
C. host mother
B. No
D. all of the above
C. -
88. What is the process of making an identical D. -
copy of an organism?
A. clothing 93. If a linear piece of DNA contains 3 recog-
nition sites for a restriction enzyme. How
B. closing many pieces will be produced when the re-
C. cloning striction enzyme cuts the DNA?
D. none of the above A. 2

10.3 Tools and processes of recombinant technology 1045
B. 3 D. 5
C. 4 E. 6

10.3 Tools and processes of recombinant technology
1. Why is it necessary to use the same re- C. adenosine deaminase
striction enzyme to cut both plasmid and D. thyroxin
genes of interest in the cutting process?
A. To cut the DNA molecules at a specific 5. Which best describes the impact that the
restriction site. Human Genome Project has has on soci-
ety?
B. To join the gene of interest with the en-
zyme. A. It has helped scientists determine that
certain genes can cause diseases
C. To produce a complementary sticky
end or blunt end. B. It has led to discrimination against ge-
netically flawed individuals
D. To produce specific base sequences of
DNA. C. It has led to the appearance of new dis-
eases
2. Manufacturing recombinant DNA D. It has cost society billions of dollars
molecules involves cutting a gene from without any major benefits
its normal location, inserting it into a circu-
lar piece of DNA from a bacterial cell, and 6. what type of bonds that cleave by restric-
then transferring the circle of DNA to cells tion enzymes?
of another species. Which of the tools be- A. Phosphodiester bond
low is used to cut the gene from its normal
location? B. hydrogen bond
A. Bacteriophage C. covalent bond
B. Vector D. ionic bond
C. Restriction enzyme 7. What is the enzymatic function of restric-

D. Plasmid tion enzymes?
A. To add new nucleotides to the growing
3. What substance is used to “stain” the strand of DNA.
DNA for viewing under a UV light?
B. To join nucleotides during replication.
A. ethidium bromide
C. To join nucleotides during transcrip-
B. bromothymol blue tion.
C. TBE buffer D. To cleave nucleic acids at specific
D. agarose gel sites.
4. The first human hormone produced success- 8. Which of the following enzymes are NOT
fully by using DNA recombinant technology used in the production of a recombinant
is DNA?
A. human growth hormone A. DNA polymerase
B. insulin B. DNA ligase

C. Restriction enzymes D. Synthesis of DNA molecule using

D. Restriction endonuclease mRNA template
9. Which of the following process involve in 14. What is the product produce after step in-
the production of cDNA molecule? sertion?
A. Transcription A. DNA
B. Translation B. Host cell
C. Reverse transcription C. Recombinant plasmid
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Reverse translation D. Plasmid
10. Which folowing process is catalyzed by a 15. Recombinant DNA technology is to produce
reverse transcriptase?
A. DNA to mRNA A. aminoacyl
B. DNA to cDNA B. desired protein
C. mRNA to DNA C. carrier protein
D. cDNA to mRNA D. channel protein
11. Which of the following best describes a re- 16. Screening is important to identify clones of
combinant DNA? host cells that carry
A. A section of DNA A. recombinant DNA
B. Circular DNA found in bacteria B. non-recombinant DNA
C. DNA that has genes from different or- C. without any plasmid
ganisms
D. recombinant that doesn’t contain tar-
D. A bundle of DNA get DNA
12. In gene cloning, antibiotic medium are used 17. What is function of modifying enzyme?
to
A. Receive recombinant DNA for cloning
A. Selects for plasmids containing partic- purpose
ular DNA fragments
B. Join DNA fragments permanently be-
B. Selects for bacteria containing recom- tween gene of interest and plasmid vector
binant plasmids forming recombinant
C. Selects for bacteria lacking plasmids
C. Produce the desired protein
D. Selects against plasmids containing
D. Recognize and cut the DNA at specific
human DNA fragments
base sequences called restriction sites
13. What is transformation in recombinant
18. An organism in which foreign genes have
DNA technology?
been incorporated is called a
A. Insertion of foreign DNA into a cell
A. Recombinant organism
B. Synthesis of mRNA from a DNA
molecule B. Transgene
C. Semiconservative replication shown C. Recombinant

by DNA D. Transgenic organism

19. An enzyme that cut DNA molecules at a 24. What is a cDNA?

specific “recognition site” is called
A. collection of total genomic DNA

A. Restriction enzyme
B. non-coding RNA molecule (containing
B. DNA polymerase about 22 nucleotides) found in plants,
C. RNA polymerase
C. complementary DNA molecules syn-
D. Taq polymerase thesized from mRNA
20. Recombinant DNA technology D. small interfering Ribonucleic Acid, is a
A. is possible only between closely re- class of double-stranded RNA molecules
lated species
25. Generally a plasmid vector contains what
B. uses bacteria to make copies of the de-
elements? i ampicillin resistanceii lac Ziii
sired product
origin of replicationiv point of mutation
C. uses bacteria to make copies of the de-
sired product and splices DNAs together. A. i only
D. uses bacteria to make copies of the de- B. i and ii only

sired product, splices DNAs together, and C. i, ii and iii only
is possible only between closely related
species D. all of above
21. During insertion step, 26. What are the source of gene of interest
A. The recombinant plasmid is inserted except?
into a host cell A. Animal
B. The gene of interest is inserted into a
B. Virus
plasmid
C. The plasmid is inserted into the gene C. Plant
of interest D. Human
D. none of above
27. T6-Modifying DNA in an organism to pro-
22. Some restriction enzymes leave behind duce new genes is referred to as
“sticky ends” or tails of
A. Bioengineering
A. Repeating bases
B. Biotechnology
B. Exposed bases
C. Paired bases C. Genetic Engineering
D. Restricted bases D. Recombinant DNA
23. Choose the correct tool that allows the tar- 28. The fragments of chromosomes split by re-
get gene to be joined permanently into a striction enzymes
plasmid.
A. have fused ends
A. DNA cloning vector
B. Host cell B. form a circle
C. Modifying enzymes C. have specific sequences of nucleotides

D. Restriction enzymes D. have random sequences of nucleotides

29. In order for DNA molecules to undergo re- C. So that scientists can identify which
combination they cells have the rDNA plasmid.
A. they must be from the same species D. So that scientists can kill the bacteria.
B. their strands must separate as in repli-
cation 34. Restriction enzymes cleave DNA by cutting
the
C. must be cut and spliced at specific nu-
cleotide sequences A. hydrogen bond between the nitroge-
nous base pair
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. undergo lysis
B. phosphodiester bond between the de-
30. Which of the following statements are the oxyribose sugar and phosphate group
benefits of using plasmid as a vector in re-
C. glycosidic bond between the deoxyri-
combinant DNA technology EXCEPT
bose sugar and nitrogenous base
A. Can accept foreign genes
D. covalent bond in the nitrogenous base
B. Can replicate independently in bacte-
ria 35. Which of the following best describes a
C. Has a circular shape plasmid?
D. Can be cleaved by restriction enzymes A. A section of DNA
31. The extra chromosomal, self-replicating, B. Circular DNA found in bacteria

closed, double stranded and circular DNA C. DNA that has genes from different or-
molecule is generally termed as ganisms
A. chromosome D. A bundle of DNA
B. plasmid
36. What do restriction enzymes recognize in
C. genomic DNA order to cut the DNA into pieces?
D. bactriophage
A. palindrome sequences of bases
32. A cloning vector is B. repeating sequences of bases
A. An agent that transfers a pathogen C. specific genes in the DNA
B. An agent that transfers a foreign gene
D. their homologous pair
from one DNA molecule to another
C. An agent that transfers a DNA seg- 37. Restriction Enzymes
ment to a RNA molecule A. produce DNA fragments with sticky
D. An agent that transfers a RNA seg- ends and blunt ends
ment to a DNA molecule
B. are natural defense mechanism found
33. Why are plasmids sometimes given an an- in certain bacteria that are resistance to
tibiotic resistance gene? bacteriophage infection
A. So that scientists can make antibiotic C. cut cloning site on DNA vector to pro-
resistant bacteria and make more money duce polycloning site
for pharmaceutical companies. D. include Escherichia Coli, Bacillus amy-
B. So that scientists can create super loliquefaciens and Yeast Artificial Chromo-
bugs. some

38. Organisms that contain genes from a dif- B. Able to maintain the structure of the
ferent organism are called- recombinant DNA from one generation to
another.

A. Transgenic
B. Recombinant C. Able to accept the recombinant DNA
through the process transduction.
C. Cloned
D. Restricted D. Able to accept foreign DNA in multiple
cloning site (MCS).
39. At what temperature does the denatura-
tion step of PCR occur? 44. The following are the examples of trans-
genic organisms EXCEPT
A. 95◦ C
B. 50◦ C A. Pseudomonas bacteria strain can
breakdown hydrocarbons
C. 72◦ C
B. Sheep that produce milk with human
D. none of above
growth hormone
40. Which of DNA sequence below would be a C. Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules
palindromic sequence? that have / the ability to fix nitrogen
A. AGCGCT
D. Plants that are resistant to glyphosate
B. AGCAGC
C. AAAGGG 45. During screening, white colonies are the
bacteria that
D. ACACAC
A. Carry recombinant plasmid
41. blue colony is
B. Died
A. Lac Z gene is disrupted
C. Carry non recombinant plasmid
B. carry non-recombinant plasmid
C. lac Z cannot produce B-galactosidase D. Has No plasmid
enzyme
46. Tranformation is
D. bacterial cell without any plasmid
A. Insertion gene of interest into plasmid
42. DNA is created by using the from
B. Insertion recombinant plasmid into
a bacteria and insert a section of DNA into
bacteria
it by bond between complementary
ends. C. Isolation plasmid from bacteria
A. recombinant, plasmid, hydrogen D. Cut the DNA donor
B. cloning, ribosome, hydrogen
47. DNA containing genes from a foreign
C. target, vector, phosphodiester
donor
D. complementary, mRNA, phosphodi-
A. plasmid
ester
43. Which statement is TRUE about host cell?
C. recombinant DNA
A. Able to amplify the gene product of the
recombinant DNA. D. gene

48. Which of the following enzymes joins the 53. Which of the following is NOT belong to
paired sticky ends of DNA fragments? host cell
A. DNA ligase A. Able to accept recombinant DNA
B. DNA polymerase B. Able to accept accept target DNA
C. reverse transcriptase C. Able to maintain structure of recombi-
nat DNA
D. Able to express the gene of interest
NARAYAN CHANGDER
49. What are the typical characteristics of a
54. Restriction enzyme cleave DNA by cutting
cloning vector?
A. The covalent bond in the nitrogenous
A. Bacterial cells cannot survive without
base
it when grown under certain conditions.
B. The hydrogen bond between the ni-
B. It contains restriction sites that allow
trogenous base pair
the insertion of foreign DNA segments.
C. The glycosidic bond between the de-
C. It can replicate in bacterial cells. oxyribose sugar and nitrogenous base
D. All of the above. D. The phosphodiester bond between the
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate group
50. Plasmids are important in biotechnology
because they are 55. Which of the following statement about
A. A vehicle for the insertion of recombi- plasmid is correct? I ) It can replicate by
nant DNA into bacteria itselfII ) Hybrid plasmid is introduced into
bacteria by transformation III ) Other than
B. Recognition sites on recombinant DNA bacteria, plasmid can also be found in bac-
strands teriophage
C. Proviruses incorporated into the host A. I only
DNA
B. I and II only
D. Surfaces for protein synthesis in eu-
C. II and III only
karyotic recombinants
D. I, II and III
51. What is the example of host cell?
56. During ligation process to form recombi-
A. x-gal nant DNA, which bond is formed?
B. E.coli A. Peptide bond
C. ampicillin B. Hydrogen bond
D. DNA ligase C. Glycosidic bond
52. Arrange the correct step in gene cloning D. Phosphodiester bon
A. Cut, isolation, insertion, screening 57. The enzyme used to join the DNA frag-
ments
B. Isolation, insertion, cut, transforma-
tion A. Topoisomerase
C. Isolation, cut, insertion, transforma- B. DNA ligase
tion, screening C. DNA polymerase
D. Insertion, transformation, isolation D. Reverse transcriptase

58. Which one or more of these can be used as B. Turn to purple colony
a vector? i. Bacterium ii. Plasmid iii. E. C. Died
coli iv. Bacteriophage

D. Turn to white colony
A. i & ii
B. ii & iii 64. From where does Taq polymerase come?
C. i & iii A. Bacteria that live in hydrothermal
vents/hot springs.
D. ii & iv
B. Cambodia
59. The restriction site recognized by BamHI is
C. The rain forest
A. GGCATT
D. none of above
B. GCCATT
65. How do scientists cut foreign DNA into
C. GAATTC
smaller strands?
D. GGATCC
A. restriction enzymes
60. cDNA is different from normal DNA be- B. scissors
cause cDNA is synthesised from
C. DNA ligase
A. plasmids
D. modifying enzyme
B. single-stranded DNA
C. mRNA 66. Which genetic marker will be altered if a
plasmid accepted a gene of interest during
D. double-stranded DNA cloning process?
61. What is the main cause for B- A. LacZ gene
galactosidase can not be produce? B. Ampicillin resistant gene
A. Because lacZ gene is distrupted/non C. LacY gene
functional
D. LacA gene
B. because B-galactosidase is broken
C. Because hydrolyze x-gal sugar is 67. T6-GMO’s are an example of foreign
formed genes being inserted into an organism.
GMO’s are referred to as
D. lac z gene is iintact
A. Recombinant Organisms
62. An organism that has had its genes manip-
B. Clones
ulated by genetic engineering is considered
as C. Transgenic Organisms
A. transgenic D. Transgenes
B. crossbred 68. Which of the following enzyme is used to
C. transmutant cut DNA molecule in rDNA technology
D. culitvars A. ligase
63. During screening, what happen to the bac- B. phosphatase

teria that no have plasmid C. modifying enzymes
A. Turn to blue colony D. restriction enzymes

69. Which of following statements describes a B. faternal twins

restriction enzyme? (can be more than 1)
C. identical twins
A. It seals the inserted gene of interest
to an open plasmid D. all of the above
B. It hydrolyses the phosphodiester back- 75. What was used for the transformation of
bone of each strand E. coli?
C. It recognises palindromic base se- A. mRNA
NARAYAN CHANGDER
quences
B. recombinant DNA
D. It stimulates the replication of a re-
combinant DNA C. restriction enzyme
70. Which of the following enzymes are used D. modifying enzyme
in gene technology?
76. The method used to produce DNA frag-
A. DNA polymerase
ments
B. DNA ligase
A. is known as amplification.
C. Restriction enzyme
B. is heating a solution of DNA.
D. RNA polymerase
C. uses restriction enzymes.
71. Which of the following organisms produce
restriction enzymes? D. isolate DNA molecules from the nu-
cleus.
A. Bacteria
B. Yeast 77. Which of the following sequences can form
C. Retrovirus a palindrome?
D. Bacteriophage A. GGCATC
B. GGCCGG
72. The first step to genetic engineering is:
A. isolate gene of interest C. GGGCCC
B. Cut DNA strand D. CCGCCC
C. Reconnect DNA fragements
78. How does restriction enzymes cleave tar-
D. Produce proteins get DNA?
73. What type of DNA fragments produced by A. By cutting the covalent bonds in the ni-
SmaI trogenous base.
A. sticky ends B. By cutting the hydrogen bonds be-
B. blunt ends tween the DNA strands.
C. no ends C. By cutting the phosphodiester bond
between the deoxyribose sugar and the
D. the ends
phosphate group.
74. Who are the only people that have identi- D. By cutting the glycosidic bonds be-
cal DNA fingerprints? tween the deoxyribose sugar and the
A. a mother and her children phosphate group.

79. Which of these might be a biotechnology 83. A cell is made up almost entirely of
product?
A. carbohydrates

A. vaccine
B. proteins
B. modified enzyme
C. fats
C. protein hormone
D. nucleic acids
D. all of the above
84. In the production of insulin cDNA, what is
80. Bacteria carrying a plasmid with an an- the step right after single-stranded cDNA
tibiotic resistance gene are important in produced?
cloning because
A. degradation of mRNA
A. they help in screening
B. single-strand cDNA acts as template
B. they can kill other bacteria to produce second strand of cDNA
C. they can produce antibiotics for com- C. ligation cDNA
mercial purpose
D. introduction of the rDNA
D. they protect themselves after being re-
leased into the environment 85. What is example of host cell
81. Bacteria that has successfully undergo A. e.coli and yeast

transformation are often identified by B. dna ligase
which process?
C. cDNA for insulin production
A. Examining the cells with an electron
D. plasmid
microscope
B. Using radioactive tracers to locate 86. The following are the uses ofrecombinant
plasmids DNA EXCEPT
C. Exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic A. Produce sheep clone
that kills the cells lacking the plasmids
B. Produce agriculturally important
D. Producing antibodies specific for each plants and animals
bacterium containing a recombinant plas-
C. Produce plants that have bacterial
mids
genes to destroy pathogenic insects
82. What is a cloning vector? D. Produce microbes that secrete en-
A. The DNA probe used to locate a partic- zymes to overcome the problems of oil
ular gene in the genome. spoilage in the sea
B. An agent such as plasmid, used to 87. These are the main tools used in recombi-
transfer DNA from an in vitro solution into nant DNA technology except
a living cell.
A. host cells
C. The laboratory apparatus used to
B. cosmid
clone genes.
C. restriction endonuclease
D. An enzyme that cuts DNA into restric-
tion fragments. D. DNA polymerase

88. Enzymes used to cut genes in recombinant 93. What is the purpose of amplification?
DNA research are
A. To screen for recombinant bacteria
A. ligases
B. To join the recombinant DNA with the
B. restriction enzymes host cell
C. transcriptases
C. To produce multiple copies of the de-
D. DNA polymerases sired gene
89. Which of the following are TRUE of restric- D. To prevent the bacteria from reproduc-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion enzymes? I. It restricts transcriptionI. ing
II. It is found in all eukaryotic cells. III.
It acts on palindromic sequences. IV. It 94. Why insulin gene obtained from mRNA
is sensitive to changes in temperature and rather than DNA?
pH.
A. mRNA doesn’t contain intron
A. I and II
B. mRNA consist code for specific target
B. I and III
gene
C. II and IV
C. Difficult to find one gene among all the
D. III and IV genes in the nucleus
90. Which of the following best describes D. mRNA is easy to isolate
transgenic organism?
A. Changing bacterial DNA by adding 95. restriction enzymes is
genes to it A. protect bacteria from viral infection
B. Any organism that has DNA from a dif-
B. cut the target DNA
ferent species
C. Any organism that has DNA from the C. cut DNA producing blunt end
same species D. all of the above
D. A tool used by scientists to separate
chunks of DNA 96. Bacteria cells without any plasmid will die
because they are killed by the
91. Which of the following is NOT a tool used
in genetic engineering? A. X-gal
A. plasmid B. water
B. restriction enzyme C. ampicillin
C. DNA helicase D. archea
D. DNA ligase
97. What two enzymes are needed to produce
92. In order to insert a foreign gene into a plas- recombinant DNA?
mid, both must
A. Endonuclease, transcriptase
A. have identical DNA sequences
B. originate from the same type of cell B. Endonuclease, ligase
C. be cut by the same restriction enzyme C. Polymerase, ligase

D. be of the same length D. Transcriptase, ligase

98. What is benefits of insulin produced by B. Host cell is able to receive recombi-
genetic engineering? (The answer can be nant DNA through the transformation pro-
more than ONE) cess

A. The gene used is from human C. DNA ligase catalyses the formation of
phosphodiester bond
B. Insulin produced similar to human in-
sulin D. Bacteriophage is more efficient in
transformation compared to plasmid
C. Non allergic
D. Cheaper and can reproduce in large 103. Why are plasmids have an antibiotic re-
amount sistance gene?
A. So that scientists can make antibiotic
99. what colour of colonies produced if the bac- resistant bacteria and make more money
teria is containing non-recombinant plas- for pharmaceutical companies.
mid?
B. So that scientists can create super
A. blue bugs.
B. white C. So that scientists can identify which
cells have the rDNA plasmid.
C. black
D. So that scientists can kill the bacteria.
D. white and black
104. mRNA is converted to cDNA by
100. Which colonies of bacteria formed after
transformation using cold calcium chloride A. Ligase enzyme
followed by heating? B. Reverse Transcriptase enzyme
A. Bacteria with recombinant plasmid C. Restriction Endonuclease enzyme
B. Bacteria with non-recombinant plas- D. RNA polymerase enzyme
mid 105. Which of the following enzyme is re-
C. Bacteria without plasmid quired for end to end joining of DNA?
D. Bacteria with two types of plasmid A. DNA ligase
101. What can you observe in the process of
Screening? C. RNA polymerase
D. DNA polymerase
A. only bacteria with no ampicillin-
resistant plasmid can grow in the media 106. Which of the following is correct in terms
B. bacteria with plasmid will die of determination of location of genetic
traits?
C. bacterial colonies will turn blue if lacZ
gene is non-functional A. Known protein coding sequences are
too far apart to allow linkage determina-
D. bacterial colonies with target gene re- tion for most new genes
main white in medium containing ampi-
B. Restriction sites allow DNAs to be di-
cillin and X-gal
gested
102. Choose the false statement. C. Protein-coding genes are always asso-
A. DNA vector is able to amplify gene ciated with restriction pattern
product from recombinant DNA. D. None of the above

107. Functions of modifying enzymes are D. To eliminate antibiotic resistance in

(The answer can be more than ONE) bacteria
A. degradation of nucleic acid 112. Through natural mechanisms, recombina-
B. synthesis of nucleic acid tion occurs during crossing over between
C. alteration of nucleic acid A. members of the same species.
D. isolation of nucleic acid B. members of different species.
C. homologous chromosomes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
108. Which statement best describes restric-
tion enzymes? D. base pairs on any adjacent chromo-
somes
A. They are named according to their ac-
tions. 113. White colonies are formed. It is meant
B. They cut double-stranded DNA to pro- Bacteria containing
duce blunt ends. A. non-recombinant plasmid
C. They cut double-stranded DNA at spe- B. do not receive any plasmid
cific nucleotide sequences. C. recombinant plasmid
D. They are used in recombinant DNA D. ampicillin
technology to join two DNA fragments.
114. What is cDNA?
109. Which restriction enzyme listed below A. Complimentary DNA produced from a
was isolated from E. coli bacteria? DNA templete
A. EcoRI B. Complimentary DNA produced from an
B. HindIII RNA templete
C. HaeII C. Complimentary DNA produced from an
mRNA templete
D. SmaI
D. Complimentary DNA produced from a
110. Palindromic sequences in DNA cDNA templete
A. Reflect the same sequence on two op- 115. Why is bacteria carrying a plasmid with
posite sides antibiotic resistance genes are important
B. Are not useful in recombinant DNA ex- in cloning technique?
periments. A. Kills other pathogens
C. Form “blunt” ends when cut by restric- B. Helps in screening process
tion enzymes
C. Produce vaccines for commercial pur-
D. All of the above. poses
111. What is the objective of recombinant D. Protects themselves from the environ-
DNA technology? mental factors
A. To join and recombine DNA fragments 116. What is the disadvantage of cDNA as
B. To produce genetically identical copies compared to genomic library?
of certain genes A. cDNA does not contain non-coding in-
C. To modify and recombine DNAs to pro- trons
duce desired products B. size of cDNA is smaller

C. cDNA does not have the complete in- mRNARemove mRNAExtract mRNA from
formation on the genome of an organism cellUse DNA polymerase to synthesis sec-
ond stranded cDNA

D. fewer types of clones are composed in
cDNA library A. 1, 2, 3, 4
117. The unpaired nucleotides produced by the B. 3, 4, 2, 1

action of restriction enzymes are referred C. 3, 1, 2, 4
to as
D. 2, 3, 1, 4
A. sticky end.
122. Which of the following sequences in dou-
B. base sequence.
ble stranded DNA is most likely to produce
C. single strands. sticky end fragments when treated with a
D. restriction fragments. restriction enzyme
A. 5‘-CTAAGC-3‘3‘-GATTCG-5‘
118. Bacteria containing recombinant plasmid
are often identified by which process? B. 5’-TTCCTT-3’3’-AAGGAA-5’
A. Examining the cells with an electron C. 5’-GAATTC-3’3’-CTTAAG-5’
microscope D. 5’-TCAGTC-3’3’-AGTCAG-5’
B. Using radioactive tracers to locate
plasmids 123. The goal of genetic engineering is to?
C. Exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic A. eliminate antibiotic resistance in bac-

that kills the cells lacking the plasmids teria
D. Exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic B. isolate disease-causing plasmids

with X-gal containing medium C. transfer of viral genes
119. Restriction enzymes are D. modify cells to correct a defect or pro-

duce a desired product
A. DNA unwinding enzymes
B. DNA joining enzymes 124. Which would require the use of recombi-
nant DNA?
C. DNA cleaving enzymes
A. Engineering bacteria to produce in-
D. DNA synthesis enzymes
sulin
120. A functional units of organisms that make B. Crossing 2 varieties of apple
up physical structures and act as chemical
C. Breeding a donkey and horse to make
messengers are called
a mule
A. carbohydrates
D. Creating a polyploid banana tree
B. proteins
125. This type of agent acts as molecular scis-
C. fats
sors that can cut DNA in specific location
D. nucleic acids
A. Guanine
121. Which of the following is correct se- B. Gel Electrophoresis
quence of process in production of cDNA?
Reverse transcriptase used to synthesis C. restriction enzymes
single stranded cDNA complementary to D. RNA

126. Plasmid is 131. tools used in recombinant DNA technol-

ogy
A. Host cell
A. Target DNA, Taq polymerase, DNA
B. DNA vector
cloning vector, host cell, modifying en-
C. Bacteria zymes
D. Gene of interest B. Target DNA, restriction enzyme, DNA
cloning vector, host cell, modifying en-
127. State the enzyme that produce sticky enzyme
NARAYAN CHANGDER
zyme C. Target gene, restriction enzymes, DNA
A. PovI cloning vector, host cell, DNA polymerase
B. SmaI D. Target gene, restriction enzyme, DNA
cloning vector, host cell, cDNA
C. BamHI
D. EcoR2 132. The amplification of recombinant plas-
mids occurs by
128. Which one below is not the characteristic A. The growth of the plasmid DNA
of plasmid?
B. DNA replication of plasmids outside a
A. Able to express the cloned genes host cell
B. small, circular, double stranded DNA C. The process of growth and division of
molecules found in certain bacteria the host cell
C. can replicate independently D. Transformation of bacterial cells
D. carry few genes such as genes coding 133. Restriction enzymes that perform stag-
for resistance to antibiotics gered cuts are more important for the ap-
plication of recombinant DNA technology
129. Which of the following is CORRECT about compared to restriction enzymes that per-
host cell? form straight cuts because
A. Plasmid is an example of host cell. A. it produces sticky ends
B. Unable to receive DNA molecule B. it is more efficient to anneal
through transformation. C. it can be used at higher temperatures
C. An organism that prevents cloning vec- D. it has many restriction sites
tors from multiplying.
134. DNA molecules with complementary
D. An organism that is used to receive re-
sticky ends associate temporarily by
combinant DNA for cloning purposes.
A. ionic bonds
130. Is used to make copies of the recombinant B. covalent bonds
dna
C. hydrogen bonds
A. Bacteria
D. phosphodiester bonds
B. Plasmid
135. Recombinant DNA technology involves
C. Restriction enzymes
‘screening’ process. What is the purpose
D. none of above of this ‘screening’ process?

A. Isolate recombinant DNA from bacte- B. usually involves plasmids (as vectors)
ria and bacteria (as host cells)

B. Identify bacteria with recombinant C. is a process to produce non-
DNA genetically identical copies of certain
C. Identify cell with target DNA to be cut genes
by the restriction enzyme D. none of above
D. Identify bacteria with plasmid to be 141. At what temperature does the Extension
used as a vector step of PCR occur?
136. Which of the following model organisms A. 95◦ C
is often used in rDNA technology to make B. 50-65◦ C
insulin?
C. 72◦ C
A. small squid
D. none of above
B. mouse
142. A is required to transfer genes from
C. fruit fly one organism to another.
D. E. coli A. vector
137. What is plasmid? B. reverse transcriptase
A. Modifying enzyme C. transport molecule
B. Host cell D. genetic probe
C. DNA cloning vector 143. Gene cloning refers to the
D. DNA donor A. production of large number of copies
of the gene being cloned
138. The restriction site recognized by EcoRI is
B. production of asexual progeny from a
A. GGCATT single individual or a cell
B. GAATTC C. both a and b
C. GCCATT D. none of these
D. GGATCC
144. GAATTC3’ is a restriction site widely
139. What is restriction enzyme used by restriction enzyme which produces
sticky ends. The enzyme is
A. Enzyme in plasmid
A. BamHI
B. Enzyme that recognize and cut at spe-
cific base sequence B. HindIII
C. Enzyme that join okazaki fragment C. EcoRI
D. Enzyme that join the plasmid and gene D. SmaI
of interest
145. Which of the following pairs is INCOR-
140. Gene Cloning RECTLY matched?
A. involves joining together DNA A. Target DNA-gene of interest
molecules of 2 different sources to pro- B. Restriction enzyme-Cuts DNA
duce new genetic combinations molecule at specific sites

C. DNA ligase-mapping human chromo- 151. circular DNA that is used as a vector to
somes put DNA into it
D. Plasmid as a vector-isolated from bac- A. Bacteria
teria B. Restriction enzymes
146. Which of the following is not a cloning C. Plasmids
vector? D. none of above
A. Plasmid 152. T5-GMO stands for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Cosmic A. Genetically Made Organism
C. YAC B. Growing More Organisms
D. Bacteriophage C. Genetically Modified Organism
147. Which of the following is used as se- D. Growing Many Organisms
lectable marker? 153. double stranded cDNA is produced by
A. Ampicillin resistance gene A. Ligase enzyme
B. Plasmid resistance gene B. Reverse Transcriptase enzyme
C. Salmonella resistance gene C. Restriction Endonuclease enzyme
D. Penicillin resistance gene D. DNA polymerase enzyme
148. This are the tools in recombinant DNA 154. The following statements are the bene-
technology except fits of using restriction enzymes in recom-
A. Modifying enzyme binant DNA technology EXCEPT
A. Its action is specific
B. DNA donor
B. Can be used outside of the cell
C. Host cell
C. Naturally present in most bacteria
D. Lac z
D. Prevent viral infection
149. To produce desired protein should be
taken from any source like human, animal 155. Which enzyme “glues” DNA fragments
and plant. together by phosphodiester bond?
A. restriction enzymes
A. recombinant DNA
B. DNA ligase
B. Target DNA
C. DNA polymerase
C. plasmid
D. DNA helicase
D. ligase
156. What happen to the bacteria that did not
150. Which ONE is not used in recombinant receive any foreign plasmid during trans-
DNA technology? formation of gene cloning?
A. Cloning vector A. form white colony in X-gal
B. RNA polymerase B. form blue colony in X-gal
C. Target DNA C. form colorless colony in X-gal
D. DNA ligase D. do not form any colony on X-gal

157. Which is true about plasmids? C. DNA ligase

A. Plasmids can be cut at specific se- D. DNA polymerase

quences called restriction sites.
162. In blue-white screening, what do blue
B. Plasmids contain a promoter se-
colonies represent?
quence that defines where transcription
begins. A. cells that have not taken up the plas-
mid vector
C. Plasmids can contain an antibiotic re-
sistance gene. B. cells with recombinant plasmids con-
taining a new insert
D. All of the statements are true about
plasmids. C. cells containing empty plasmid vectors
D. cells with a non-functional lacZ gene
158. During screening, blue colonies is the bac-
teria that 163. An example of plasmid is
A. Carry non recombinant plasmid A. sCOS1
B. Carry recombinant plasmid B. pYAC
C. No plasmid C. pUC18
D. Died
D. λ 2001
159. The “natural” use of restriction enzymes
164. What is the example of restriction en-
by bacteria is to
zyme
A. integrate viral DNA
A. BamHI
B. destroy viral DNA
B. SamH2
C. repair “sticky ends”
C. EkaII
D. copy the bacterial genes
D. PovIII
160. What happen to white colonies bacteria
after screening? 165. Which ONE of the following are INCOR-
RECT about screening?
A. Human insulin is extracted & purified
from E.coli A. Can identify transformed bacteria that
have recombinant plasmid
B. The bacteria placed in fermentation
tank to multiply B. Blue colonies shows bacteria consist
of non-recombinant plasmid
C. Insulin gene will be expressed via tran-
scription and translation to produce in- C. White colonies shows bacteria consist
sulin of recombinant plasmid
D. Bacteria is extracted from fermenta- D. Bacteria that have non-recombinant

tion tank plasmid has disrupted lacZ gene
161. What enzyme forms covalent bonds be- 166. Arrage the statement below according
tween restriction fragments? to the correct order.a-mRNA is isolatedb-
cDNA is cut using restriction enzymec-
A. DNA primase reverse transcriptase is usedd-cDNA is
B. DNA helicase inserted into opened plasmide-mRNA is

degradedf-second strand of cDNA is gen- C. Palindromic sequences

erated D. Specific restriction sites
A. a-b-c-d-e-f
171. Which statement shows the correct order
B. a-c-b-d-f-e in gene cloning?
C. a-c-e-f-b-d A. isolation-cleaving-insertion-transformation-
D. a-e-c-f-b-d screening-amplification
B. isolation-cleaving-insertion-transformation-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
167. Which are the following statements are amplification-screening
NOT TRUE about restriction enzymes?
C. isolation-insertion-cleaving-transformation-
A. Most bacterium can produce more amplification-screening
than one type of restriction enzyme
D. isolation-cleaving-insertion-amplification-
B. It cleaves DNA at a specific base se- transformation-screening
quence
172. In the screening process, clones that me-
C. It restricts the replication of foreign
tabolize X-gal turn
DNA in bacteria
A. yellow
D. It produces recombinant DNA in bacte-
ria B. white
C. red
168. Which of the following statements de-
scribes a modifying enzyme? D. blue
A. It cuts the DNA to obtain the gene of 173. Which of the following is a circular DNA
interest from bacteria that can carry a foreign
gene?
B. It breaks the DNA molecule to produce
multiple fragments A. plasmid
C. It stimulates the replication of a re- B. restriction enzyme
combinant DNA C. ligase
D. It seals the inserted gene of interest D. protein expression
to an open plasmid
174. What is a recombinant plasmid?
169. The product formed from the combination A. A plasmid containing DNA foreign to
between two DNAs from 2 different or- that organism
ganisms is called
B. A plasmid which has been impacted by
A. Bioengineering evolution
B. Biotechnology C. A plasmid that has restriction enzymes
C. Recombinant DNA D. A plasmid that has been sequenced
D. Genetic Engineering 175. Transgenic organisms contain
170. EcoRI restriction enzyme cuts plasmid at A. genes from other species.
the following sites EXCEPT B. cells of another organism.
A. G and C bond C. genes of only one parent.
B. Specific sequences D. one or more human genes.

176. Acts as molecular scissors and cuts DNA 181. DNA that has selected pieces of DNA in-
serted into it
A. Plasmids

A. rDNA (recombinant DNA)
B. Restriction enzymes
B. Bacteria cells
C. Bacteria
C. Plasmid
D. none of above
D. none of above
177. The cell that able to receive recombinant 182. State the modifying enzyme that in-
DNA for cloning purpose known as volved in gene cloning
A. vector A. Restriction enzyme
B. target DNA B. DNA Ligase
C. plasmid C. RNA polymerase
D. host cell D. Peptidyl transferase
178. What will happen if the bacteria do not 183. Which of the following tools of recom-
receive any plasmid binant DNA technology is INCORRECTLY
paired with one of its uses?
A. bacteria without plasmid will die
A. restriction endonuclease-production
B. Bacteria cells without any plasmid die of DNA fragments for gene cloning.
because they are killed by x-gal
B. DNA ligase-enzyme that cuts DNA, cre-
C. Bacteria cells without any plasmid die ating sticky ends.
because they are killed by the ampicilin C. reverse transcriptase-production of
D. that bacteria contain recombinant cDNA from mRNA.
DNA D. Taq polymerase-copies DNA se-
quences in the polymerase chain reaction.
179. in producing insulin by genetic engineer-
ing, what is the first step to take? 184. An expression vector.
A. isolate insulin from pancrease A. always contains an origin of replica-
tion
B. isolate insulin mRNA from pancreas
B. usually contains a gene that confers
C. isolate insulin DNA from pancreas
antibiotic resistance to the bacterial host
D. isolate insulin from animal tissue C. always contains DNA segments for the
regulation of mRNA production
180. Which one of the following is TRUE about
host cell? D. all of the above
A. The cell that prevent plasmid from mul- 185. Which of the important characteristics of
tiplying plasmid vectors used in recombinant DNA
B. The cell that unable to receive cDNA technology below is FALSE?
through transformation A. able to accept foreign DNA in MCS
C. Plasmid is an example of host cell B. able to replicate freely in host cell
D. The cell that able to receive recombi- C. posses selectable genetic marker
nant DNA for cloning purpose D. posses DNA of interest

10.4 Applications of Biotechnology 1064
186. Which enzyme helps join the foreign DNA 187. Which of the following is an enzymatic
into the new DNA? protein that join DNA fragment between
gene of interest and plasmid?
A. DNA Polymerase
A. plasmid
B. DNA ligase
B. restriction enzyme
C. Restriction enzyme C. ligase
D. Reverse transcriptase D. protein expression
NARAYAN CHANGDER
10.4 Applications of Biotechnology
1. What technique was used to clean up the 5. Genetics is known as:
Exxon Valdeze oil spill? A. the science of heredity.
A. bioremediation
B. the study of plant biology.
B. indicator species
C. biochemistry.
C. phytoremediation
D. biotechnology.
D. genetic engineering
6. How many recombinant therapeutics have
2. DNA is an acronym for: been approved for human use world
A. dynamite alert. over?
B. dibonucleic acid. A. 12
C. dioxynucleic acid. B. 30
D. deoxyribonucleic acid. C. 20
3. The first step in the scientific method of D. 18
problem-solving is to:
7. Which protein would you like to produce
A. collect data. by genetic engineering as cure diseases
B. prepare a written report. such as emphysema?
C. identify the problem. A. alpha 1 antitrypsin
D. draw conclusions. B. trypsin
4. Which of the following is true for Golden C. chymotrypsin

rice? D. steapsin
A. it is drought tolerant, developed using
8. This is the practice of inserting the DNA of
Agrobacterium vector
another species into an organism’s DNA so
B. it has yellow grains, because of a gene that the organism gains a new trait.
introduced from a primitive variety of rice
A. Cloning
C. it is vitamin A enriched, with a gene
from daffodil
D. it is pest resistant, with a gene from C. Genetic Engineering
Bacillus thuringiensis D. DNA Fingerprinting

9. Planting trees at a site polluted by indus- C. lichens

trial chemicals to absorb the chemicals is D. viruses
called:

A. genetic engineering 15. The transmission of characteristics from an
organism to its offspring through genes in
B. biostimulation
reproductive cells is known as:
C. oleophilic cleanup
A. progeny.
D. phytoremediation
B. traits.
10. Which career supplies flowering plants to C. heredity.
a florist?
D. genetics.
A. Floral designer
B. Forest ranger 16. Which of the following techniques serve
the purpose of early diagnosis? 1. R-
C. Greenhouse manager DNA2. PCR3. ELISA4. Convential method
D. Landscape architect of diagnosis [ serum, urine analysis]
11. In agriscience as well as other sciences, the A. 1, 2, 3

method used to solve a problem is called B. Only 4
the:
C. Only 3
A. educated-guess method.
D. All of these
B. most-popular-decision technique.
C. process of elimination. 17. One of the first commercial products cre-
ated by genetic engineering was:
D. scientific method.
A. artificial sweetener.
12. Tissue culture may be used for: B. buttermilk.
A. producing genetically identical plants.
C. insulin.
B. disinfecting greenhouse structures.
D. synthetic oil.
C. sexual reproduction in floral crops.
18. In what ways can ADA be treated?
D. sterilization of soil products.
A. Enzyme replacement therapy
13. Bacterial DNA is than human DNA
B. Lenalidomide
A. More simple
C. Corticosteroids
B. Less simple
D. Bone marrow transplantation
C. uglier
D. deadlier 19. All of the following techniques can serve
as the purpose of early diagnosis except-
14. Which is a widely used bio-indicator
A. rDNA technology
species used to detect air that is badly pol-
luted with sulfur dioxide? B. PCR
A. E. coli C. ELISA
B. bacteria D. serum analysis

20. The introduction of T-DNA into plants in- 25. Finding and recording the location of genes
volves? is called:
A. allowing the plant roots to stand in wa- A. matching.
ter B. mapping.
B. infection of the plant by Agrobacterium C. meshing.
tumifaciens
D. combining.
C. altering the pH of the soil, then heat
26. Which is an application of biotechnology in
NARAYAN CHANGDER
shocking the plants
agriscience?
D. exposing the plants to cold for a brief
period A. Genetic engineering
B. Planting seed
21. Vitamin A is a nutrient that helps pre- C. Stem cuttings
vent?
A. cancer
27. Which was the first Restriction Enzyme
B. diabetes
discovered?
C. loss of eyesight
A. .HindII
D. viruses B. . EcoRI
22. Two sides of DNA strands are held to- C. .BamHI
gether by base pairs. Two bases that pair D. .HindIII
together are:
28. A cloning vector must possess?
A. guanine and adenine
A. ori
B. adenine and cytosine
B. selectable marker
C. adenine and thymine
C. both of above
D. thymine and guanine
D. non of these
23. Genome is 29. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton
A. RNA are-
B. Genetic makeup A. long fibre and resistance to aphids
C. a step in PCR B. medium yield, long fibre and resis-

tance to beetle pests
D. used to help restriction enzymes
C. high yield, long fibre and production of
24. The tendency of female sheep to have toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran
twins is due to: pests
A. weather conditions D. high yield and resistance to bollworms
B. the sequence of the bases between 30. A doctor while operating on a HIV (+)ve
the DNA strands patient accidentally cuts himself with
scales. Suspecting himself to have con-
C. the age of the ram
tracted the virus, which test will he take
D. the desire of the mother to have twins to rule out/confirm

A. PCR C. An organism that has had another

B. Routine urine examination species’ DNA put in it

C. TLC D. A bacteria that reproduces asexually
D. DLC 36. What bacteria were genetically engi-

neered to produce insulin?
31. Which is the most likely result of genetic
manipulation in agriculture? A. E. coli
A. Increased use of chemical pesticides B. Salmonella
B. Less use of chemical pesticides C. Yeast
C. Lower production of crops and animals D. Listeria
D. One cloned species that controls all 37. “Rosie”, a transgenic cow is known to pro-
others duce a type of milk, which has all the fol-
lowing characteristics, except-
32. Changing a characteristic by removing and
inserting genes into DNA is known as A. protein content of 2.4g/L
gene: B. has human alpha lactalbumin
A. mapping. C. more balanced diet than normal cow
B. masking. milk for babies
C. splicing. D. was produced for the first time in 2001
D. swapping. 38. Which of the following is true about plas-

mids
33. Genetically engineered human insulin is
known as A. small circular piece of DNA
A. Humilin B. small circular piece of RNA
B. Haematin C. located in bacteria
C. Humulin D. small circular piece of DNA that is lo-

cated in bacteria
D. Haemilin
39. Which is true of DNA?
34. A DNA molecule produced by combining
DNA from different sources is called? A. Cannot be duplicated
A. Mutant DNA B. Found in all living cells
B. Polyploid DNA C. Found only in male cells
C. Diploid DNA D. Produced only in a test tube
D. Recombinant DNA 40. Which is a product of genetic engineering

related to weed control?
35. What does transgenic mean?
A. Roundup-ready soybeans
A. An organism that can change its genes
at will B. High-oleic peanuts
B. A stem cell that can differentiate into C. Bt corn

anything D. Delayed-ripening tomatoes

41. Restriction enzymes belong to class of en- C. decreased dependence on fertilizers

zymes: D. decreased usage of minerals
A. .Peptidase
46. Creating a transgenic organism is an exam-
B. .Amylases
ple of
C. .Lipases
A. PCR
D. .Nucleases
B. Genetic Engineering
NARAYAN CHANGDER
42. Which step proved to be main challenging C. Gel Electrophorsis
obstacle in the production of human insulin
by genetic engineering? D. Gene Therapy
A. removal of C-peptide from active in- 47. One of the limitations of bioremediation,
sulin as compared to the use of chemical tech-
B. getting insulin assembled into a ma- niques, is:
ture form A. emissions
C. addition of C-peptide to pro-insulin B. space
D. splitting A and B polypeptide chains C. time
43. Which might be a potential benefit of D. oil
cloning animals for production purposes?
48. In order for a new biotechnology product
A. to produce identical genotypes to be approved, the product must be:
B. to produce uniform products such as A. worth at least $1 million.
chicken drumsticks
B. tested to make sure that it is safe.
C. for saving a species
C. able to kill insects.
D. for research purposes
D. affordable to the average consumer.
44. Recombinant DNA technology can best be
described as involving the: 49. If you want to make a GM crop that is
purple, what is the first thing you need to
A. design of farm equipment through
do?
computer imaging.
A. Find a plant that is naturally purple
B. implementation of soil conservation
practices. B. Paint a plant purple
C. manipulation of the genetic content of C. Use an enzyme to cut a gene out of a
cells. plant
D. study of rock formations using global D. Use a virus to insert a gene into a plant
positioning satellites.
50. Name the two types of stem cells.
45. Mark the odd one with respect to the ad-
A. Reproductive and Therapeautic
vantages of genetically modified plants.
B. Adult (bone marrow) and Reproductive
A. production of food with better nutri-
tional value C. Embryonic and Therapeutic
B. decrease in post harvest losses D. Embryonic and Adult (bone marrow)

51. What connects the pairs of strands that A. paper and tissue
make up the double helix of DNA? B. salt and pepper

A. Bases C. sugar and fuel
B. Starches
D. wood and fiber
C. Sugars
57. DNA is in the shape of a:
D. Tar
A. single helix.
52. The two short polypeptide chains in insulin
B. single circle.
is linked by
C. double circle.
A. Glycosidic bridge
B. Disulphide bridge D. double helix.
C. Phosphodiester bond 58. What is small, circular piece of DNA lo-

D. Covalent bond cated in the cytoplasm of many bacteria
A. Genome
53. The crops engineered for glyphosate are
resistant/tolerant to? B. RNA
A. insects C. Deoxyribose
B. herbicides D. Plasmid
C. fungi 59. Bacteria that are attracted to oil used to
D. bacteria clean up oil spills are called:
A. bioindicators
54. Why is biotechnology-produced BST given
in supplemental doses to dairy cows? B. oleophilic
A. increase muscle for meat C. algae
B. produce only female offspring D. lichens
C. produce large calves 60. Permeability is the rate of movement of
D. increase milk production what through the soil?
55. Genetically modified organisms that are A. air and fertilizer

safety tested in laboratories and green- B. water and air
houses before they are tested outdoors
C. water and fertilizer
are also monitored by:
D. water and microorganisms
A. county government.
B. nursery operators. 61. Gene therapy is successful if the
C. state and federal government. A. DNA can be placed in a virus
D. chemical salespeople. B. Virus carrying the gene can insert it
into DNA
56. Genetic engineering has been used to de-
velop bacteria strains to convert solid C. New gene is expressed as a protein
waste from humans and livestock into: D. New gene is replicated in DNA

11. Biotechnology and its applications
NARAYAN CHANGDER
11.1 Applications in medicine
1. What does a Blood Bank Technology Spe- D. none of above
cialist do?
4. Which of the following are careers in the
A. Determine how emergencies are re- Biotechnology Research & Development
sponded to Pathway? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
B. Analyze evidence in criminal investiga- A. Biomedical Engineer
tions
B. Sports Medicine Physician
C. Perform tests on blood samples
C. Medical Illustrator
D. Learn about toxins at the molecular
D. Epidemilogist
level
E. Forensic Science Technician (Criminal-
2. Which of the following careers would fall ist)
under the Biotechnology Research and De-
velopment Pathway? 5. What cluster matches the following de-
scription? Planning, managing, and pro-
A. Family Doctor
viding therapeutic services, diagnostic ser-
B. Epidemiologist vices, health informatics, support services,
C. ER Nurse and biotechnology research and develop-
ment.
D. Radiologist
A. Health Science
3. Workers in the Biotechnology Research &
B. Human Services
Development pathway:
C. Hospitality & Tourism
A. Are responsible for cleaning and main-
taining health care facilities D. none of above
B. Use advancements in science and tech- 6. Which of the following careers is within
nology to improve health care the Biotechnology Research & Develop-
C. Record valuable health care informa- ment pathway?
tion A. Public Heath Educators

11.2 Ethical concerns 1071
B. MRI Technologist B. Specializes in how diseases are trans-

C. Biomedical Engineer mitted through family relationships

D. Health Information Technician C. Protect the safety and health of people
in the workforce
7. What does a Toxicologist do?
D. none of above
A. Learn about toxins at the molecular
level 10. Which of the following is true about
B. Perform tests on blood samples Biomedical Chemists.
C. Specialize in how diseases are trans- A. Do not perform scientific research

mitted through family relationships B. Apply chemical principles to study hu-
D. Use engineering principles to solve man diseases
problems in surgery and medicine C. Determine how emergencies are re-
sponded to
8. Which of the following is NOT true
about biotechnology research and develop- D. Analyze evidence in criminal investiga-
ment? tions
A. Focuses on studying diseases 11. Biotechnology Research and Development
B. Creates new diseases includes all of the following, except
C. Discovers new treatments A. Epidemiologist
D. Invents or improves medical devices B. Biomedical Chemist
9. What does a Geneticist do? C. Geneticist
A. Repair medical equipment D. Transport Technician
11.2 Ethical concerns

1. Ability to function, make decisions, act in- D. The study of pizza
dependently using rational decision mak-
ing skills and process thinking 3. is a rise in the number of cases of a dis-
ease beyond what is normally expected in
A. Justice a geographical area
B. Autonomy A. pandemic
C. Beneficence B. vaccine
D. Nonmaleficence C. asymptomatic
D. epidemic
2. What is bioethics?
A. The study of ethical issues originating 4. What world war was the Nuremberg code
from the advancements in medical and bi- created?
ological research. A. World War 1
B. The study of living organisms B. World War 2
C. The study of application of scientific C. Seven Years War
knowledge D. Crimean War

5. Which definition best describes utilitarian- C. Justice

ism?
D. Beneficence
A. An ethical theory based on the princi-
ple of the greatest good for the greatest 10. Which of the following choices correctly
number list 4 criterion that are used when match-
B. A legal ruling based on the principle of ing donors to recipients?
the greatest good for the greatest number A. blood type, tissue type, gender, race
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A legal ruling based on small portions
B. social status, income, distance to
of society
donor, body size
D. Based on moral entitlements by virtue
of being human C. gender, race, time on the list, blood
type
6. If someone needs a heart transplant in
D. blood type, time on the list, tissue type
Oregon and a donor becomes available in
distance to donor
Florida, why would this heart not be used
for the patient in Oregon?
11. Why were the Nuremberg Codes written?
A. organs are only allowed to be used in
their state A. Several German doctors on trial ar-
gues that medical experimentation was
B. Oregon is geographically too far away not illegal.
from Florida for the heart to be used
B. The existing code of ethics was out-
C. Oregon has a law against some dona-
dated.
tions
D. none of above C. both of these
7. The purpose of ethical guidelines in re- D. neither of these

search is to
12. For which disease did Jenner discover a
A. Ensure that the participants are safe vaccination?
B. Enable ethical deception
A. Anthrax
C. To ensure participants are paid for
their time B. Cowpox
D. Ensure the study get valid results C. Smallpox
8. A global disease outbreak is a D. Cholera
A. Epidemic 13. Disease that occurs over a wide geo-

B. Pandemic graphic area-an entire country, continent,
C. Outbreak or whole world. It affects a very high pro-
portion of the population.
D. Species
A. Pandemic
9. Concepts of ethics which include fairness
and equity B. symptom
A. Veracity C. epidemic
B. Confidentiality D. quarantine

14. Which would NOT be a reason to use GM 19. What does ethics mean?
crops? A. The study of burgers and chicken ten-

A. Using GM crops can increase crop ders
yields. B. The exploitation of biological pro-
B. Using GM crops can reduce use of in- cesses for industrial and other purposes
secticide sprays. C. The moral principles that govern a per-
C. Using GM crops may be able to feed son’s behavior or the conducting of wrong
more people faster. or right behavior
D. Using GM crops can increase pesticide D. The study of living organisms
resistance in pests.
20. Which is most likely a reason for a de-
15. What is a good argument for genetically cline in vaccination rates within the United
modifying animals? States over the past ten years?
A. Figure out how to make Spiderman A. increased criteria for patients in order
B. Produce more meat to receive a vaccine
C. New genes are needed to create new B. fear that vaccines cause autism
species C. not enough doctors to administer vac-
D. Modifying your kids to make them cines
more awesome D. a current shortage for specific vac-
cines
16. a substance that is usually injected into a
person or animal to protect against a par- 21. When an action has a positive outcome
ticular disease A. justice
A. vaccines B. beneficence
B. scientist C. confidentiality
C. cancer D. none of above
D. growth
22. The smallpox vaccine was developed using
17. A vaccines main goal is to: fluids from which other disease?
A. make people sick A. chicken pox
B. prevent disease B. mad cow disease
C. start an epidemic C. black plague
D. start a pandemic D. cowpox
18. An example of utilitarianism might include 23. is an organization that acts on matters
A. an organ for transplant going to the of international health partners with other
person needing it the most. organizations to ensure proper global
health.
B. providing Medicare for only those who
need medical coverage. A. WHO-World Health Organization
C. a duty to provide healthcare to all B. Global Travel
Americans. C. SARS
D. all of the above. D. Immunizations

24. Jon made his own choice to go to Smith’s 29. The father of medicine, who wrote a state-
College instead of Buff College, the col- ment of principles for his medical students
lege that his parents wanted him to go to. to follow, is
What value is Jon portraying? A. Semmelweis.
A. Altruism B. Hammurabi.
B. Humility C. Hippocrates.
C. Respect D. Nuremberg.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Autonomy 30. Obtaining informed consent means the re-
25. Should it be legal to throw a bad pickle search must make sure to provide partici-
in the streets of Trenton represent which pants with:
type of question(s)? A. General overview of the study purpose
and risks
A. Ethical Question
B. Information about the study methods
B. Legal Question
and design
C. Scientific Question
C. Reports include the study results and
D. Cultural Question conclusions
26. Participants are given the right to stop par- D. The choice of being in the control or in-
ticipating in the study at any time. This tervention group
can be made known during the informed 31. What has had the greatest impact on pre-
consent phase of the study. venting epidemics in the twenty-first cen-
A. Debriefing tury.
B. Right to withdraw A. Anit-Fungal creams
C. Informed consent B. Immunizations
D. Deception C. Antibiotics
D. Quarantines
27. What are the ways you can register to be-
come an organ donor? 32. What is the code for Henrietta’s cells?
A. Sign-up online A. HenRi
B. Identify “organ donor” when getting B. HeLa
their license. C. LaHe
C. Receiving a donor card D. HenLac
D. All of the above. 33. Why is bioethics important?
28. Which of the following is not an ethical A. the study of milkshakes
principle? B. the study of ethical issues originating
A. Respect of Persons from the advancements in medical and bi-
ological research
B. Beneficence
C. moral principles that govern a per-
C. Responsibility son’s behavior or the conducting of wrong
D. Justice or right behavior

D. It can show the morally right and 39. When someone influences another person
wrong of biotechnology to make a decision he or she may not want
to make

34. What process can prospective parents use
A. Autonomy
to determine if they are carrying recessive
alleles for a disease? B. Veracity
A. Genetic Testing C. Coercion
D. Advocacy
B. DNA Figerprinting
C. Gene Therapy 40. What is an ethical consideration?
D. DNA Extraction A. making sure you research does not

cause harm or offence
35. When a person donates their organ, who B. when people are different colours
is responsible for paying? C. making sure your research causes
A. The person who donated the organ. harm or offence
B. The person who is receiving the organ. D. when you are polite to people
C. No one pays, it’s free. 41. Which of the following is considered when
D. The state pays for it. donating?
A. Social Status
36. The part of the experiment that does not
B. Gender
contain the independent variable. Used for
comparison. C. Time on the list
A. Control Group D. Income
B. Experimental Group 42. THE NIH, CDC, and FDA are all divisions
under which federal agency?
C. Results
A. Agency for Healthcare Research and
D. Data Quality
37. The National Organ Transplant Law of B. World Health Organization
1984 C. Health Resources and Services Admin-
A. allows the sale of organs. istrtion
D. US Department of Health and Human
B. developed an allocation formula
Services
C. forbids the sale of organs.
43. What are “double-blind” studies?
D. funds organ transplantation
A. when everyone in the study is aware
38. Issues discussed in the context of ad- of who received the placebos
vanced medical technology are called B. when nobody in the study is aware of
A. bioethics. who received placebos
C. when only the doctors know who got
B. telemedicine.
the placebos
C. ethics.
D. when only the patients know if they re-
D. informatics. ceived a placebo or not

44. Which of the following list all the tissues 49. Which of the following is NOT a way farm-
that can be transplanted? ers would traditionally modify plants in
A. corneas, skin, bones, heart valves, the past?
veins, tendons A. transgenic manipulation
B. stomach, corneas, heart valves, veins, B. selective breeding
bones
C. saving seeds
C. kidney, skin, bones, veins, tendons,
D. cross-pollinating
heart valves
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. intestine, corneas, heart valves, kid- 50. The different types of vaccines are:
ney, bones A. live, weakened or attenuated
45. A ‘consent’ form is B. inactivated or killed
A. a special concert ticket. C. conjugated
B. an official permission. D. all of the above
C. researcher’s guidelines. 51. General principle meaning truth
D. none of above A. Beneficence
46. Example of ethics of biotechnology B. Veracity
A. Is it right or wrong to genetically al- C. Autonomy
ter someone’s physical appearance be-
D. Ethics
fore they are born?
B. The study of buffalo wings 52. Which of the following list all the organs
that can be transplanted?
C. The right or wrong of doing homework
D. The right or wrong of going to school A. heart, liver, pancreas, kidneys, intes-
tine, lungs
47. What is a questions you need to answer B. heart, lungs, kidneys, liver, bones, pan-
when you are applying the ethical princi- creas
ple of justice?
C. intestine, brain, heart, lungs, liver, kid-
A. What are the risks of being harmed? ney
B. Are the participants being treated D. heart, liver, brain, small intestine, kid-
fairly? neys, pancreas
C. Does a person have autonomy?
53. What is Herd Immunity?
D. none of above
A. When a group of animals become im-
48. The research involving subjects who are mune to an illness
physically or mentally incapable of giving
B. The number of people someone with
consent.
an infection can possibly spread the ill-
A. Informed Consent ness to
B. General Principles C. Becoming immune to a vaccine and
C. Privacy and Confidentiality having it not work
D. Scientific requirements and research D. When a large amount of people protect
protocols those who haven’t gotten vaccinated

54. Definition of biotechnology B. The exploitation of biological pro-

cesses for industrial and other purposes
A. The moral principles that govern a per-

son’s behavior or the conducting of wrong C. The study of ice cream
or right behavior D. The study of living organisms

12. Organisms and Populations
NARAYAN CHANGDER
12.1 Introduction to Ecology
1. where is sulfur stored? B. decomposers
A. sun C. herbivores
B. plants D. producers
C. deep sea 5. Which of the following is the formula for
D. underground in rocks an Ecological Footprint?
A. Trees-Paper
2. All primary sources of energy begin with
the B. Cost of an Action-Benefit of an Action
A. Consumers C. Resources Used + Pollutants-
Mitigation Efforts
B. Plants
D. Biodegradable + Renewable-
C. Sun Sustainability
D. Moon
6. Which of the fallowing has only abiotic fac-
3. What is a destructive form of deforesta- tors?
tion, common during Agricultural Revolu- A. Sunlight, algae, and temperature
tions, that harms the soil?
B. Guppy, crab, oxygen
A. Pine Persecution
C. Sunlight, soil, and weather
B. Forest Fires
D. Algae, temperature, and dog
C. Charcoal and Ash
7. Which of the following would decrease the
D. Slash and Burn
amount of carbon released into the atmo-
4. Which of the following organisms uses sphere? (select TWO answers)
sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and wa- A. Planting more trees, which undergo
ter into sugar and oxygen? photosynthesis.
A. carnivores B. Reduction in the burning of fossil fuel.

12.1 Introduction to Ecology 1079
C. Decomposers breaking down dead ma- 13. Forms of precipitation are

terial. A. only sleet and snow

D. Deforestation, or cutting down trees. B. rain, sleet, snow, and hail
C. only dew, mists, and rain
8. How did people change their environment
during the Hunter-Gatherer era? D. none of above
A. Pollution 14. What do you call the number of different

organisms in an area?
B. Water Diversion
A. Biodiversity
C. Burning grasslands for better hunting
B. Hodge-Podge
D. Draining Wetlands C. Population
D. Sustainability
9. All living things in a given area, living and
non-living. 15. What can prevent Tragedy of the Commons
A. Ecosystem from happening?
A. Being Selfish
B. Biotic
B. Having someone or a group manage
C. Community the resource
D. Species C. Creating a lottery to see who gets the
resource first
10. All the organisms of the same species liv-
D. Doing Nothing
ing in the same area or community
16. Living things and their interactions with
A. Community
the environment and each other.
B. Population A. Abiotic factors
C. Habitat B. Biotic factors
D. Ecosystem C. Ecology
D. Adaptation
11. The living or once living organisms in an
ecosystem 17. This is an entity that displays all of the
characteristics of life. It has the ability to
A. Biology
maintain homeostasis.
B. Abiotic A. animal
C. Biotic B. organism
D. Ecology C. species
D. trophosphere
12. Herbivores eat
18. A cactus is an example of a(n) factor.
A. Plants
A. biotic
B. Animals B. abiotic
C. Both plants and animals C. habitat
D. Dead things D. niche

19. Groups of rabbits that live in the same 24. Which one of these does not add CO2 to
area make up a the atmosphere?
A. species A. cooking with gas
B. population B. planting trees
C. herd C. burning wood
D. community D. riding in a bus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
20. Which of the following is a positive of the 25. When humans burn fossil fuels, most of
Hunter-Gatherer era? the carbon quickly enters the as carbon
dioxide.
A. Domesticated livestock
A. Water
B. People began joining in groups and
sharing knowledge B. Atmosphere
C. Transportation C. Sun
D. Better medical care D. Air
21. What is competition? 26. A biome can contain ecosystems.

A. When two or more individuals try to A. few
share the same limited resource
B. many
B. Any friendly interaction between or-
C. zero
ganisms
D. none of above
C. A nonliving factor
D. When two or more individuals try to 27. Which is the least complex ecological level
use the same limited resource of organization?
A. Organism
22. Which of the following is an example of a
situational adaptation? B. Population
A. Big ears to enhance hearing C. Community
B. Spots to camoflage D. Biosphere
C. Burrowing under the sand to avoid hot 28. Which of the following statements about
temperature the effects of disturbance is correct?
D. Wings to fly A. A healthy community is in an equilib-
rium state of balance, with few distur-
23. How much energy transfers up each
bances
trophic level in an ecosystem?
B. The effects of disturbance on a commu-
A. 0.1%
nity are almost always negative
B. 1%
C. Disturbances can create patches of dif-
C. 10% ferent habitats in a community.

29. Sulfur can be added to the atmosphere by 34. This biome generally has 4 seasons.
A. burning coal, oil and gasoline A. Boreal forest (Taiga)

B. respiration B. Arctic tundra
C. nitrogen fixing bacteria C. Desert
D. decomposition D. Temperate deciduous forest
30. Which of the following correctly shows the 35. The study of organisms and their interac-
organization in an ecosystem, from the tions with the environment is known as
smallest to the largest level? A. ecosystems
A. Community, Ecosystem, Organism, B. environmental
Population
C. ecology
B. Ecosystem, Community, Population, D. succession
Organism
C. Organism, Population, Community, 36. It is the interaction among living and non-
Ecosystem living things.
D. Population, Community, Ecosystem, A. Ecosystem

Organism B. Biotic
31. What country can the Tundra biome be C. Community

found? D. Species
A. Costa Rica 37. Decomposers eat
B. France A. Plants
C. Russia B. Animals
D. Brazil C. Both plants and animals
32. Which of the following would be classified D. Dead things

as a secondary consumer?
38. What is deforestation?
A. a mouse lemur eating insects
A. Clearing Earth’s forests on a massive
B. a Verreaux’s sifaka eating leaves scale
C. a ring-tailed lemur eating fruits B. Eating too much vegetables
D. a red-bellied lemur eating flowers C. Going to a forest and pulling weeds
D. Clearing the five trees in my backyard
33. The study of how living things interact in
an environment is called 39. A herd of bison
A. Ecosystem A. community
B. Biology B. ecosystem
C. Ecology C. habitat
D. none of above D. population

40. Which of the following is NOT a type of 45. Which of the following is the best example
Biodiversity? of Ecology impacting Legislation?
A. Extinction A. Someone Kayaking
B. Genetic Variation B. Business deciding to be eco-friendly
C. Species Variety C. The Clean Water Act
D. Variety of Communities D. Customer choosing not to purchase
gas from BP
NARAYAN CHANGDER
41. Respiration is the process by which ani-
mals take in and release 46. Which of the following events involves a
consumer and a producer in a food chain?
A. photosynthesis, air
A. a cat eats a mouse
B. carbon, oxygen
B. a hawk eats a mouse
C. oxygen
C. a deer eats grass
D. oxygen, carbon dioxide
D. a snake eats a rat
42. The largest level of ecological classification
47. Which of the following has the levels of
A. ecosystem organization in order from smallest to
B. biome largest?
A. Biosphere, Ecosystem, Community,
C. population
Population, Species, Organism
D. biosphere
B. Organism, Species, Community,
43. What determines where a population can Ecosystem, Biosphere
live? C. Organism, Species, Community, Popu-
A. whether its needs are met by the biotic lation, Ecosystem, Biosphere
factors in the habitat D. Biosphere, Ecosystem, Community,
B. whether its needs are met by the abi- Population, Organism, Species
otic factors in the habitat 48. Which nitrogen cycle process is occur-
C. whether its needs are met by the abi- ring when plant roots absorb ammonium
otic and biotic factors in the habitat ions and nitrate ions for use in making
molecules such as DNA, amino acids, and
D. whether its needs are met by the other
proteins?
populations in the habitat
A. nitrogen fixation
44. Which of the following best describes an
B. nitrification
ecosystem?
C. denitrification
A. all the living organisms in an area and
their physical surroundings D. ammonification
B. a region with a distinct climate E. assimilation
C. all the living organisms of the same 49. The physical place where an organism lives
species throughout the world is known as
D. all the living organisms in an area A. niche

B. habitat 54. All the abiotic and biotic factors on planet

earth.
C. community

A. Biosphere
D. biome
B. Community
50. The study of the interactions between or- C. Population
ganisms and their environment
D. Ecosystem
A. Biology
55. The place where an organism lives is its
B. Ecology
C. Sociology A. habitat
D. Geology B. ecosystem
C. organism
51. What is cooperation?
D. population
A. An act of kindness
56. Areas defined by their geographical loca-
B. Occurs when individuals work to-
tion and ecological similarity are called?
gether
A. ecozones
C. Occurs when individuals consume
each other B. biotopes
C. biomes
D. When two or more individuals try to
use the same limited resource D. biodomes
52. A sunflower that turns throughout the day 57. Which of these nitrogen molecules would
to face the sun is following which criteria be present in the atmosphere?
for life? A. NH3
A. All living things must be made of B. NH4+
cell(s). C. NO3-
B. All living things must have a D. N2
metabolism.
58. Ecology is the study of:
C. All living things must be able to repro-
duce. A. interactions between organisms
B. interactions between environments
D. All living things must be able to re-
spond to stimuli. C. interactions between organisms and
their environments
53. What is the name of NH3? D. life on Earth
A. ammonia
59. Non-living things that impact living things.
B. ammonium A. Abiotic factors
C. nitrate B. Biotic factors
D. nitrite C. Ecology
E. nitrous oxide D. Adaptation

60. something that is nonliving is called? 65. All the rabbits living in Cheltenham Town-
ship make up a
A. biotic factors
A. species
B. abiotic factors
B. population
C. limiting factor
C. community
D. none of above
D. none of above
61. A species fundamental niche
NARAYAN CHANGDER
66. All the alligators in the same area are an
A. cannot be larger than its realized niche example of a(n)
B. changes its response to predators and A. organism
competitors
B. community
C. can be larger or smaller than its real- C. population
ized niche
D. group
D. is always as large as or larger than its
realized niche 67. The non-living parts of the environment
such as rocks, air, temperature, sunlight,
62. Which choice list the levels of ecology in and water
order from smallest to largest?
A. Abiotic
A. individual, community, population, bio- B. Biotic
sphere, ecosystem
C. Habitat
B. individual, population, community, bio-
sphere, ecosystem D. Community
C. population, community, individual, 68. A group of different species that live to-
ecosystem, biosphere gether and interact in an environment are
called a/an
D. individual, population, community,
ecosystem, biosphere A. community
B. habitat
63. This term means life/living things
C. population
A. Bio-
D. ecosystem
B. Eu-
69. The most important factor in converting ni-
C. -Ology
trogen into usable forms during the nitro-
D. Pro- gen cycle is
64. Organisms that are similar enough to A. Animals

reproduce and produce fertile offspring B. Plants
grouped into a C. Bacteria
A. species D. Decomposers
B. population
70. All of the abiotic and biotic factors in an
C. community area.
D. biome A. Biosphere

B. Community 76. List the levels of organization from largest

C. Population to smallest

A. organism, population, community,
D. Ecosystem
ecosystem, biosphere
71. An ecosystem includes B. biosphere, ecosystem, community,
A. Biotic Factors population, organism
B. Abiotic Factors C. community, ecosystem, biosphere,

population, organism
C. Neither
D. population, ecosystem, community,
D. Both biotic and abiotic factors population, organism
72. When water is heated in the ocean by the 77. A black bear eats small animals as well as
sun and turns into water vapor berries for energy. What type of consumer
A. Condensation is it?
B. Evaporation A. Herbivore
C. Transpiration B. Carnivore
C. Omnivore
D. none of above
D. none of above
73. What is the name given to a given area
where organisms (biotic factors) interact 78. The term for the role an organism has in
with each other and the non-living (abiotic) the community.
factors in the environment? A. niche
A. Ecology B. habitat
B. Ecosystems C. tolerances
C. Biome D. competition
D. Population 79. This is a group of very similar organisms
that can mate and reproduce offspring of
74. Organisms that are similar enough to re-
the same type.
produce are grouped into a
A. Community
A. species
B. Population
B. population
C. Species
C. community
D. Niche
D. biome
80. What are groups of different populations
75. The smallest level of ecological classifica- (different species) living together in the
tion same place at the same time called?
A. population A. An organism
B. biome B. A population
C. ecosystem C. A community
D. organism D. A biosphere

81. All of the different populations living in an B. Plants and Animals

area (plants, rabbits, coyotes), is called C. Other Animals
the
D. none of above
A. individual
B. population 87. Which is the simplest level of organization
within the environment?
C. community
D. ecosystem A. cell
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. organism
82. A certain plant needs moisture, carbon
dioxide, oxygen, light, and minerals to sur- C. population
vive. This scenario shows that this partic- D. community
ular living organism depends on .
88. The unique role an organism plays in an
A. Biotic and Abiotc Factors
ecosystem, such as the way it survives,
B. Biotic Factors eats and relates to other organisms
C. Abiotic Factors A. Nikche
D. None of the Above B. Nice
83. All the living and nonliving things in an C. Quiche
area (biotic & abiotic) D. Niche
A. population
89. The role played by a population in an
B. community
ecosystem is its
C. ecosystem
A. niche
D. biome
B. function
84. All living and nonliving things on the planet C. species
A. community D. none of above
B. biome
90. Which Biome is the coldest?
C. population
A. Taiga
D. biosphere
B. Tundra
85. Introducing swans to Grand Canyon Na-
tional Park would be considered a change C. Tropical Rainforest
in the D. Grasslands
A. Abiotic Facors
91. What is it called when you balance the
B. Biotic Factors cost of an action and the benefits expected
C. No changes from it?
D. Both biotic and Abiotic Factors A. Cost Benefit Analysis
B. Sustainability
86. An organism who is an omnivore has a diet
consisting of C. Tragedy of the Commons
A. Plants D. Ecological Footprint

92. What is it called when the needs of hu- 97. A group of organisms that can reproduce to
mans are met in a way that resources are produce fertile offspring (babies that can
maintained for future generations? reproduce).

A. Cost Benefit Analysis A. Biosphere
B. Sustainability B. Community
C. Tragedy of the commons C. Population
D. Ecological Footprint D. Ecosystem
98. The levels organism, population and com-
93. Which of the following is NOT a require-
munity have only which type of factors?
ment of life?
A. biotic
A. All living things must respond to stim-
uli. B. abiotic
B. All living things must eat and produce C. biotic and abiotic
waste. D. none of above
C. All living things must be able to walk. 99. Which of these consumers eats the pro-
D. All living things must be made of cells. ducer?
A. Primary consumer
94. This biome covers 70% of the Earth’s sur-
face. B. Secondary consumer
C. Tertiary consumer
A. Ocean
D. none of above
B. Rainforest
C. Temperate deciduous forest 100. Which of the following is a biodegradable
pollutant?
D. Boreal forest (Taiga)
A. Rubber
95. Abby is walking to school with her best B. Yard Waste
friend Jaylyn. They talk about the ash
C. Coal Ash
trees, grass, weeds, ants, and people.
They also notice how cold it is, and the D. Glass
puffy clouds out. What level of organiza- 101. factors are nonliving qualities that
tion are they discussing? can affect an ecosystem.
A. community A. Physical or nonliving
B. ecosystem B. Automated or living
C. biome C. Nonaggressive or solar
D. biosphere D. none of above
96. Where an organism lives 102. What happens when humans cut down
forests to build shopping malls?
A. habitat
A. Plants and animals thrive in the new
B. niche
environment and pollution decreases.
C. heterotrogh B. New animals species form and plants
D. biosphere produce more oxygen.

C. The shopping mall reduces the amount 108. Organisms of the same species living in
of pollution in the area. the same area
D. Habitat is altered, plants and animals A. Community
destroyed, and pollution increases.
B. Population
103. All the hummingbirds that live in your
state C. Habitat
A. habitat D. Ecosystem
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. ecosystem
109. The study of the interactions between or-
C. community ganisms and their environment is called
D. population
104. is new life in an area that has A. Ecology
previously not had life.
B. Microbiology
A. Primary succession
C. Biology
B. Secondary succession
C. Tertiary succession D. Evolution
D. Quaternary succession 110. Organisms that do not decompose can be

105. Which nitrogen cycle process is occurring buried and become what?
when bacteria convert ammonium to ni- A. water
trite and then into nitrate?
B. nutrients
A. nitrogen fixation
B. nitrification C. air
C. denitrification D. fossil fuels
D. ammonification
111. The role an organism plays in its environ-
E. assimilation ment is known as its
106. Data on the immigration and emigration A. ecosystem
of a fish species would be most helpful in
determining which of the following? B. habitat
A. biological magnification C. niche
B. interspecies competition D. biosphere
C. population of the species
D. predator-prey relationships 112. This group of organisms are made up of
predominately autotrophs, either photoau-
107. Which of the following would most likely totrophs or chemoautotrophs
be found at the top of an energy pyramid?
A. producers
A. clams
B. primary consumers
B. sardines
C. sharks C. tertiary consumers
D. kelp D. decomposers

113. This is the name for the place where an C. Both consumers and producers
organism lives. D. None of these

A. inhabitant
119. One way an organism relies on abiotic
B. habitat factors in an environment is
C. population A. for animals to hunt
D. none of above B. for air to breathe
114. Which of the following is NOT a biotic fac- C. for friends to play with
tor? D. none of above
A. leaves
120. Are trees, plants and bacteria examples
B. soil of BIOTIC or ABIOTIC factors?
C. grass A. Biotic
D. animals B. Abiotic
115. A population is C. Both
A. a group of different species living in D. Neither
the same area. 121. An individual living thing is called
B. a group of individuals of the same A. a population
species living in separate areas.
B. an organism
C. a group of different species living in
separate areas. C. an ecosystem
D. a group of individuals of the same D. a community

species living in the same areas. 122. An entity that displays all of the charac-
teristics of life. Has the ability to maintain
116. Which of the following is NOT a biome?
homeostasis
A. Boreal Forest
A. animal
B. Tropical Rainforest
B. organism
C. Mountains
C. species
D. Desert
D. trophosphere
123. Jacob is going out to his grandparents
Sustainability?
farm. On the farm is a stream that he likes
A. Replanting trees after cutting them to fish at. When he is fishing he sees many
down different species of fish as well as maple
B. Mining Coal and oak trees and dragonflies. What Ja-
cob is seeing is an example of what level
C. Putting recyclables in the landfill
of organization?
D. Hunting more animals than you can eat A. organism
118. Autotrophs are types of B. population
A. Consumers C. community
B. Producers D. ecosystem

124. A forest fire burning in Ocean County that B. decomposers

caused a road to close is about 80 per- C. predators
cent contained, New Jersey officials said.
Firefighters expect the blaze at Green- D. producers
wood Forest Wildlife Management Area in 129. ALL energy flow for an ecosystem begins
Manchester to burn about 570 acres, or with
slightly less than a square mile.Name the
disturbance. A. plants
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Firefighters B. the moon
B. Burning C. the sun
C. Forest fire D. algae
D. none of above 130. Which of the following is the highest
level of organization within the environ-
125. What is a carrying capacity? ment?
A. The maximum number of organisms of A. population
a population an environment can hold
B. organism
B. When organisms leave a population
due to lack of food, water, etc C. ecosystem
C. A close long term relationship be- D. biosphere
tween different species in a community 131. A group of organisms from the same
D. A one way path that shows what an or- species living in the same area
ganism eats and from whom it gets its en- A. individual
ergy from
B. community
126. Herbivores, carnivores, and decomposers C. population
are all types of
D. biome
A. Producers
B. Consumers 132. When all the ecosystems on Earth are
combined it is called
C. Decomposers
A. a community.
D. none of above
B. a biome.
127. When water flows back into the ocean it C. a biosphere.
is called
D. an Earthsphere.
A. run-off
B. transpiration 133. The correct order of ecological organiza-
tion from the smallest to the largest is
C. precipitation
A. organism, community, population,
D. none of above ecosystem, biosphere, biome
128. Most of the bacteria in a forest ecosys- B. biosphere, biome, ecosystem, commu-
tem are best classified as which of the fol- nity, population, organism
lowing types of organisms? C. organism, population, community,
A. consumers ecosystem, biome, biosphere

D. population, organism, biosphere, com- 139. What is significant about the first three
munity, ecosystem, biome (3) levels of organization in the environ-
ment?

134. This biome is near the equator.
A. The first three (3) levels have only abi-
A. Temperate deciduous forest otic factors.
B. Grassland B. The first three (3) levels have only ionic
factors.
C. Rainforest
C. The first three (3) levels have only bi-
D. Desert otic factors.
135. Is the predator and prey relationship con- D. The first three (3) levels have abiotic
sidered a biotic factor or an abiotic fac- and biotic factors.
tor?
140. How did people change their environment
A. Biotic Factor during the Agricultural Revolution?
B. Abiotic Factor A. Burned the grasslands
C. Both abiotic and biotic factors B. Deforestation
D. Neither C. Burning Fossil Fuels
D. Building large cities
136. An organism that produces its own food
supply from the energy of the sun or chem- 141. Which of the following is an example of
ical energy is called a(an) a community?
A. heterotroph A. All the tiger sharks in the ocean.
B. consumer B. All the oak trees in a forest.
C. detritivore C. All the cows on a farm.
D. autotroph D. The plants and animals in the same
area.
137. All the organisms of the same species liv-
142. what happens to sulfur as organisms die
ing in the same area
and decompose?
A. Community
A. some of the sulfur is again released as
B. Population a sulfate and some enters the tissues of
microorganisms
C. Habitat
B. it is gone for forever
D. Ecosystem
C. it is transferred into energy
138. The study of the relationship between or- D. it is absorbed into the ground
ganisms and their physical surroundings.
A. Abiotic factors 143. Are sunlight, carbon dioxide, tempera-
ture and water examples of BIOTIC or ABI-
B. Biotic factors OTIC factors?
C. Ecology A. Biotic
D. Adaptation B. Abiotic

C. Both 149. Phosphorous is passed from plants to

who eat them
D. Neither
A. plants
144. Wetlands plants, animals and marshes B. animals
A. habitat C. scavengers
B. ecosystem D. none of above
C. community
NARAYAN CHANGDER
150. Which of the following is the best exam-
D. population ple of Ecology impacting Recreation?
A. A business paying fines
145. If animals eat plants to get energy,
where do plants get their energy? B. Purchasing a hunting license
A. soil C. Endangered Species Act
B. water D. Choosing to only buy and eat ‘dolphin

safe’ canned tuna
C. wind
D. sun
of the phosphorus cycle?
146. Which of the following is a negative of A. Phosphorus enters the atmosphere as
the Agricultural Revolution? phosphates.
A. Overhunting B. The phosphorus cycle utilizes the pro-
cesses of erosion, and weathering.
B. Man-made pollutants like plastics
C. Phosphates are used in carbohydrate
C. increased use of fossil fuels and glucose storage.
D. Water diversion D. The phosphorus cycle utilizes bacteria
to breakdown phosphates and make them
147. Lindsay is going duck hunting. She no- available for plants.
tices a flock of duck. This represents what
level of organization? 152. Organisms that are similar enough to re-
produce are grouped into a
A. Organism
A. species
B. Population
B. population
C. Community
C. community
D. Ecosystem
D. biome
148. Are fish and octopi in the ocean consid- 153. Which of the following is an abiotic fac-
ered a biotic factor or an abiotic factors? tor?
A. Biotic Factor A. leaves
B. Abiotic Factor B. soil
C. Both abiotic and biotic factors C. grass
D. Neither D. animals

154. A organism who is a herbivore has a diet C. condensation

consisting of
D. none of above

A. Plants
B. Plants and Animals 160. Which biome occurs in the United States
and once contained huge herds of grazing
C. Other animals herbivores?
D. none of above
A. Boreal forest
155. This includes all the living and nonliving B. Temperate forest
factors in an area.
C. Grassland
A. environment
D. Savanna
B. ecosystem
C. biome 161. The rabbits and squirrels in an area are a
D. biosphere part of the same
A. population
156. A large area that has a particular climate
and distinct plants and animals is called a B. community
A. individual C. herd
B. population D. species
C. ecosystem
162. How is water an important abiotic fac-
D. biome tor?
157. All food chains A. You drink it and hydrate
A. have more consumers than producers B. Animals live in it
B. produce and use same amount of en- C. Plants need it to grow
ergy
D. Allows you to carry out life proecess
C. begin with a producer
D. are unhealthy 163. What is the original, and biggest reser-
voir of phosphorus on the planet?
158. The ecological relationship between a
hawk and a rabbit is the same type of re- A. live plants and animals
lationship as that between B. groundwater
A. a tick and a deer C. the atmosphere
B. a frog and an insect D. rocks
C. a mouse and a chipmunk
164. Members of a species in a defined area
D. a bee and a flowering plant
A. Ecosystem
159. What is it called when water changes
from liquid to gas B. community
A. freezing C. biodiversity
B. evaporation D. population

165. Are sand and rocks in the ocean consid- C. Population

ered a biotic factor or an abiotic factors?
D. Organism
A. Biotic Factor
B. Abiotic Factor 171. What kind of consumer eats other ani-
mals for energy?
C. Both abiotic and biotic factors
A. Herbivores
D. Neither
B. Carnivores
166. The plants, animals, water and soil of a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
forest C. Omnivores
A. community D. none of above
B. habitat
172. Which of the following lists include only
C. ecosystem biotic parts of an ecosystem?
D. population A. Rain, Grass, Temperature, Mice
167. A tropical woodland with an annual rain- B. Sand, Air, Water, Sunlight
fall of at least 100 inches and marked by
lofty broad-leaved evergreen trees C. Tree, Grass, Bear, Bird
A. Taiga D. Bacteria, Soil, Minerals, Worms

B. Rainforest
173. Lions eat zebras, gazelles and other mam-
C. Tundra mals. What level of organization is this?
D. Aquatic A. Population
168. Two or more members of a particular B. Community
species living and interacting in the same
C. Ecosystem
area
A. Community D. Solar System
B. Population 174. What are two by products released by

C. Organisms plants?
D. Biosphere A. water
169. Carnivores eat B. oxygen
A. Plants C. carbon
B. Animals D. sugar
C. Both plants and animals
175. What organism is required for all stages
D. Dead things
of the nitrogen cycle to occur?
170. When all of the biotic and abiotic factors A. Bacteria
are working together, this is an example
of a(n) B. Producers
A. Community C. Consumers
B. Ecosystem D. Fungi

176. what is a Biotic factor? 182. All of the living AND non-living things in
A. a population an area that interact with each other are
called a/an

B. a limiting factor
A. community
C. all living organisms inhabiting earth
D. none of above B. habitat
C. population
177. What is the term for an animal that eats
just plants? D. ecosystem
A. Producer
183. Groups of individuals from many species
B. Carnivore living in the same area
C. Herbivore
A. population
D. Omnivore
B. community
178. The frogs, insects and birds in the same
area C. biome
A. community D. individual
B. habitat
184. What converts nitrogen into usable forms
C. ecosystem for organisms?
D. population A. Lightning
179. Which of the following is a characteristic B. Bacteria
of a Developed Country?
C. None of these
A. Less Garbage
D. Both of these
B. Agricultural Economies
C. Social Support Systems 185. There are living or once living organisms
D. Small Ecological Footprint in an ecosystem.
180. All the organisms in a particular location, A. Biology

including their nonliving environment B. Abiotic
A. ecosystem
C. Biotic
B. carnivore
D. Ecology
C. niche
D. population 186. The physical environment where an or-
ganism lives that provides shelter, protec-
181. How did people get food during the Agri- tion food, water and other necessities
cultural Revolution?
A. Biosphere
A. Processed food in cans
B. Collecting wild plants B. Habitat
C. Farming crop plants C. Ecosystem

D. Hunting wild animals D. Population

187. Which term refers to the place where an 192. Your friend drank contaminated water
organism obtains everything they need to and started losing a mass amount of
survive? weight. After being hospitalized it was
A. biosphere found that your friend had a tapeworm.
What kind of symbiotic relationship is this
B. habitat an example of?
C. niche A. Commensalism
D. ecology B. Parasitism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
188. Which term refers to the study of organ- C. Mutualism
isms and their interactions within the en- D. none of above
vironment?
193. the lowest level of organization is called:
A. biosphere
A. community
B. niche
B. organism
C. ecology
C. biosphere
D. habitat
D. none of above
189. Antonio and Javier are astronauts in
194. Which of the following is NOT abiotic?
space looking back at Earth and discussing
how all the life on Earth interacts with A. Poaching
each other as well as the nonliving things. B. Air pressure
What level of organization are they dis-
cussing? C. Temperature
D. Earthquake
A. A community
B. A biome 195. brings phosphorous into our water-
ways
C. An ecosystem
A. precipitation
D. A biosphere
B. runoff
190. Which of the following is an example of C. transpiration
a Global Commons?
D. condensation
A. Public Park
B. Oceans 196. A collection of different populations that
live in a specific area/habitat.
C. Library
A. Community
D. Classroom
B. Niche
191. Large scale deforestation would affect C. Ecosystem
the water cycle in which way?
D. Biome
A. Transpiration rates would increase.
197. A collection of organisms that belong to
B. Transpiration rates would decrease.
different populations but all live in the
C. Evaporation rates would increase. same area and interact with one another.
D. Evaporation rates would decrease. A. Population

B. Ecosystem 203. When conducting a Cost Benefit Analysis

C. Community in Ecology what is the benefit?

D. Ecosphere A. Energy Gained
B. Resources
198. What do primary consumers eat?
C. Pollutants
A. Plants only
D. More customers
B. Animals only
204. All the alligators in a swamp are an ex-
C. Both plants and animals
ample of a(n)
D. none of above
A. organism
199. All the living things in a specific area are B. community
called a
C. population
A. Organism
D. group
B. Community
205. The study of living things and the non liv-
C. Population
ing things around them
D. Ecosystem A. Ecology
200. The ocean B. Biodiversity
A. community C. Biome
B. ecosystem D. Biosphere
C. habitat 206. All of the organisms (living things) in an
D. population area.
201. What do plants do with carbon dioxide A. Biosphere

(CO2) B. Community
A. Plants use CO2 to make carbohy- C. Population
drates. D. Ecosystem
B. Plants use CO2 to produce extra sun-
207. In a desert ecosystem, sand is an exam-
shne.
ple of a(n) factor.
C. Don’t pick this answer.
A. biotic
D. none of above
B. abiotic
202. An organism’s niche is C. ecosystem
A. the entire role an organism has in the D. community
place it lives
208. It is group of organisms of the same
B. the range of temperatures that the or- species living in the same area.
ganism needs to survive
A. Community
C. all the physical and biological factors
in the organism’s environment B. Population
D. the nutrients that flow from the organ- C. Habitat
ism to the environment D. Ecosystem

209. The part of the earth that supports life; 214. Barnacles float around as plankton until
includes the top portion of the earth’s they find a place to live out the rest of their
crust. lives. Many times barnacles are found em-
A. Tropospher bedded in the skin of whales. They do not
cause harm to the whales, but they are
B. Atmosphere given a place to live. What kind of eco-
C. Biosphere logical relationship is this?
D. Ozone A. Commensalism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
210. The process of water passing from earth, B. Parasitism
to the atmosphere, and back to earth, con- C. Mutualism
tinuously. D. none of above
A. The Water Cycle
215. An increase in the atmospheric levels of
B. Rain carbon dioxide (CO2) is the biggest con-
C. Condensation tributor to which of the following?
D. Precipitation A. El Nino
211. The tropical rain forest is unique in that B. global warming
C. wind storms
A. It’s mostly unexplored D. ozone depletion
B. There are animals that only live there 216. The portion of the planet that can sustain
C. It exists on the equator and is the life is the
hottest biome A. biosphere
D. It has the greatest variety of plant and B. hydrosphere
animal life
C. atmosphere
212. The study of how living things interact D. lithosphere
with one another and with their environ-
ment. 217. A collection of organisms that make up a
A. Biology community as well as all of the nonliving
aspects of the environment.
B. Lithology
A. Population
C. Ecology
B. Community
D. Farmacology
C. Habitat
213. Which of the following would increase D. Ecosystem
the amount of carbon released into the at-
mosphere? (select ALL that apply) 218. Which of the following organisms would
A. Planting more trees, which undergo most likely get its energy only from con-
photosynthesis. sumers?
B. Decomposers breaking down dead ma- A. deer
terial. B. grass
C. The burning of fossil fuels. C. hawk
D. Deforestation, or cutting down trees. D. mushroom

219. When plants give off drops of water it is 224. Deforestation is caused by
called A. agriculture activities

A. Transpiration B. snakes
B. Evaporation C. banks
C. Condensation D. schools
D. none of above 225. Which of the following is not an example
of an ecosystem?
220. Earth is which means the only thing
A. Jungle
that enters in energy from the Sun and the
only thing that leaves is heat energy. B. Pond
A. Cost Benefit Analysis C. Your yard
B. Closed System D. Desert
C. Ecological Footprint 226. A place where an organism lives

D. Legislation A. Ocean floor
B. Woods
221. Which of these nitrogen cycle processes
C. Habitat
converts atmospheric nitrogen to a soil
form of nitrogen that is usable by plants? D. Niche
A. nitrogen fixation 227. What is the ultimate source of all energy
on earth?
B. nitrification
A. Producers
C. denitrification
B. Primary consumers
D. ammonification
C. Secondary consumers
E. assimilation
D. The sun
222. The living part of an ecosystem 228. This are all the living and nonliving things
A. Biotic in an area (biotic & abiotic).
B. Abiotic A. population
B. community
C. Mother Earth
C. ecosystem
D. Flowers
D. biome
223. The non-living part such as temperature,
229. Groups of ecosystems that have similar
water, and sun are parts of an ecosys-
climates (abiotic factors) and living organ-
tem.
isms (biotic factors)
A. biotic A. biomes
B. population B. biosphere
C. abiotic C. population
D. organism D. community

230. What type of ecosystem is the Ag farm? 235. What determines the differences be-
A. Natural ecosystem tween biomes?
B. Agricultural ecosystem A. Plants, temperature and precipitation
C. Urban ecosystem B. Temperature and Wildlife
D. none of above C. Flora and Fauna

D. Abiotic and biotic factors
231. Biotic and Abiotic factors that make up an
NARAYAN CHANGDER
environment 236. Populations of sharks, along with shells
A. Population and water are included in an ocean
B. Biome A. niche
C. Ecosystem B. community
D. Community C. habitat
232. The groups of plants and animals that in- D. ecosystem

teract within an ecosystem
237. Which of the following is an environmen-
A. Organism tal effect of water pollution?
B. Population A. it damages plants directly, as well as
C. Biosphere makes soil unsuitable for growing
D. Community B. it causes groundwater sources to be-

come too deep to access
233. What is it called when individual and C. it leads to an increased likelihood of ex-
community interests conflict, and a per- treme flooding
son chooses short term interests over long
term interests? D. it contributes to global warming by in-
creasing carbon dioxide in the air
A. Cost Benefit Analysis
B. Sustainability 238. Which of the following is a characteristic
of an Undeveloped Country?
C. Tragedy of the Commons
A. Create less pollution
D. Ecological Footprint
B. Slow population growth
234. What are the 6 levels of organization
that ecologist study from smallest to C. Resource rich
largest? D. Strong government
A. species, population, community,
239. The numbers below represent population
ecosystem, biome, biosphere
sizes. Which population is most likely to
B. biosphere, population, community, go extinct?
ecosystem, biome, s pecies
A. 450
C. biosphere, population, species, com-
B. 50
munity, ecosystem, biome
C. 1000
D. biosphere, ecosystem, population,
species, community, biome D. 25

240. An organisms Niche can be defined as 245. Individuals that can interbreed are re-
A. The role its plays in the ecosystem ferred to as the same

A. organism
B. It’s physical and biological require-
ments B. individual
C. the interactions between it and other C. population
organisms D. species
D. All of these 246. All the living and nonliving things in an
241. What are the ecological levels of organi- area
zation from smallest to the largest? A. population
A. organism, population, community, B. community
ecosystem, biome, biosphere C. ecosystem
B. organism, community, population, D. biome
ecosystem, biome, biosphere
247. The physical place where an organism
C. organism, population, community, lives is known as its
biome, ecosystem, ecosphere.
A. niche
D. organism, community, population,
B. habitat
biome, ecosystem, ecosphere
C. community
242. is life in an area that has previously
D. biome
been the home to other organisms.
A. Primary succession 248. A group of animals that live in the same
area and can interbreed is called a(n)
B. Secondary succession
A. individual
C. Tertiary succession
B. population
D. Quaternary succession
C. community
243. Which of the following abiotic factors has D. biome
the greatest influence on the metabolic
rates of plants and animals? 249. Genetic or situational traits or actions
that help an organism better survive in
A. water their environment.
B. rocks and soil A. Abiotic factors
C. disturbances B. Biotic factors
D. temperature C. Ecology
244. What is the term for something that D. Adaptation

makes its own food, usually a plant? 250. Which of the following is biotic?
A. Consumer A. Building
B. Producer B. Apple
C. Herbivore C. Rock
D. Carnivore D. Sun

251. An organism who is a carnivore has a diet 256. What type of organism breaks down or-
consisting of ganisms and their waste products?
A. Plants A. Predators
B. Plants and Animals B. Prey
C. Animals C. Producers
D. none of above D. Decomposers
NARAYAN CHANGDER
257. What does NOT affect a climate?
252. Decomposers are important in the food
chain because they A. Elevation
A. produce their own food using light B. Continental Landmasses

from the sun C. Ocean Currents
B. stop the flow of energy from one or- D. Wildlife
ganism to another
258. What is ecology the study of?
C. break down dead organisms and recy-
A. study of plants
cle nutrients into the soil
B. study of space
D. are microscopic and other organisms
cannot consume them C. study of interactions among living
things and their environment
253. These organisms must eat to obtain their D. study of living things
energy
259. Humans have their own internal flora.
A. autotrophs
This is a natural amount of bacteria that
B. heterotrophs lives in your digestive tract. This natural
C. producers flora helps break down food for you and
helps with digestion. This bacteria eats
D. niche the rest of undigested food. What kind of
relationship is this?
254. What does not produce carbon dioxide?
A. Commensalism
A. Photosynthesis
B. Parasitism
B. Burning Fossil Fuels
C. Mutualism
C. Animal respiration D. none of above
D. Plants decaying
260. One specific member of a population
255. Which of the following causes Earth’s A. organism
seasons? B. species
A. Changes in the Earth’s distance from C. community
the sun
D. dude
B. Ocean currents
261. What is it called when you have groups
C. Vertical air circulation
of different populations along with their
D. Earth’s tilt on its axis abiotic factors?

A. An organism 266. what is ecology?

B. A population A. the study of people

C. A community B. the study of life
D. An ecosystem C. the study of environment

D. none of above
262. Similar organisms that can reproduce
with each other are considered to be mem- 267. Which term refers to the job an organism
bers of the same plays within its environment?
A. community A. biosphere
B. ecology
B. species
C. habitat
C. biosphere
D. niche
D. ecosystem
268. Lightning from a thunderstorm strikes a
263. One cow is considered a/an tree that falls to the forest flood and dies.
During the next few years the dead tree
A. Population
undergoes many changes. What organ-
B. Community isms are most likely responsible for the bi-
ological and chemical changes to the tree?
C. Organism
A. consumers
D. Ecosystem
B. predators
264. Is an increase in the oxygen levels in our C. decomposers
atmosphere considered a biotic factor or
D. producers
an abiotic factor?
A. Biotic Factor 269. A population of different species that ex-
ist in an ecosystem
B. Abiotic Factor
A. Habitat
C. Both abiotic and biotic factors
B. Community
D. Neither C. Population
265. Does deforestation contribute to global D. Ecosystem
warming?
270. The biotic and abiotic factors in an envi-
A. No, trees aren’t that important ronment are called the
B. Sometimes because only the cutting A. Organism
down of Maple trees contributes to global B. Community
warming
C. Ecosystem
C. No, deforestation adds methane to
D. Population
the atmosphere, which makes the Earth
cooler 271. Which of the following is a renewable re-
D. Yes; less trees means less CO2 is source?
turned into oxygen. A. Stone

12.2 Organisms and their Environments 1104
B. Metal 274. A group of very similar organisms that

can mate and reproduce offspring of the
C. Glass
same type
D. Soil A. Community
272. How is water returned to earth? B. Population
A. evaporation C. Species
D. Niche
B. transpiration
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. precipitation 275. Which of the following is the best exam-
ple of Ecology impacting Business?
D. percolation
A. Laws restricting pollution
273. Which of the following is true with re- B. Company trying to be sustainable so
spect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic they have supplies for the future
lakes?
C. Shoppers making buying decisions
A. Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to D. A person going fishing
oxygen depletion
276. When water vapor is cooled and forms
B. Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients
droplets
C. Rates of photosynthesis are lower in
A. condensation
eutrophic lakes
B. evaporation
D. Sediments in oligotrophic lakes con-
tain larger amounts of decomposable or- C. transpiration
ganic matter D. none of above
12.2 Organisms and their Environments

1. Which of the following is an abiotic factor D. absence of flowers
in an ecosystem?
3. List the levels of organization from least
A. Plants complex to most complex.
B. Bacteria A. community, organism, population,
C. Soil ecosystem
D. Insects B. population, community, ecosystem, or-
ganism
2. A certain species of a plant is able to sur-
vive in areas where the amount of sunlight C. organism, population, community,
each day is limited. Which physical charac- ecosystem
teristic would be MOST ADVANTAGEOUS D. ecosystem, population, organism,
for the survival of the plant? community
A. thick leaves 4. A duck, a dragonfly, a morel mushroom
B. large leaves and a bobcat are all examples of
C. colorful flowers A. organisms.

B. populations. 10. This is the formula for which process? 6H

C. communties. 2 2 6 12 6 2

D. ecosystems. A. photosynthesis
B. precipitation
5. Who organized living things by creating bi-
nomial nomenclature? C. respiration
A. Carolus Linnaeus D. decomposition
B. Robert Hooke 11. (7.10C) Some students take care of a veg-

C. Anton van Leeuwenhoek etable garden. When it is time to plant in
the spring, the students leave part of the
D. James Watson garden empty in order to observe ecolog-
ical succession. Which of these will most
6. How do landfills effect the environment?
likely occur first?
A. Landfills cause fish to be poisoned and
A. Development of topsoil
die.
B. Growth of weeds and grasses
B. Landfills support plant growth and
healthy soil. C. Growth of trees and shrubs
C. Landfills cause smog in the air. D. Development of a stream
D. Landfills cause chemicals from trash 12. starts with bare rock followed by lichen
to absorb into the soil and harm plants.
A. primary succession
7. a species that may become extinct in the B. secondary succession
near future is called
C. both types of succession
A. keystone species
D. none of above
B. endangered species
13. Autotrophic organisms can do what
C. threatened species
A. breathe air
D. mutant
B. make their own food
8. Organisms that are hunted and eaten?
C. hunt and gather food
A. mutualism
D. move
B. prey
14. Monarch Butterflies fly South for the Win-
C. habitat
ter months. What is a reason that
D. niche Monarch Butterflies need to migrate?
E. parasitism A. They need to find a place to lay their
eggs.
9. Living factors or organisms that affect an
ecosystem B. They are not able to survive the cold
winters.
A. abiotic factors
C. They follow birds that are a food
B. species source.
C. trophic level D. They require large amounts of exer-
D. biotic factors cise.

15. Which organisms eat other living organ- C. thick, insulating fur
isms to survive? D. The ability of plants to regrow after
A. producers prairie fires
B. consumers 21. which of the following defines habitat?
C. decomposers A. an area with only abiotic factors
D. scavengers B. a large area of land that is known for
its climate and organisms
NARAYAN CHANGDER
16. a substance that an organism needs in or-
der to survive and grow C. a small area within a habitat with food
A. environment water and shelter for organisms to live
B. ecosystem D. an area that provides shelter and food

for organisms and can contain many mi-
C. species crohabitats.
D. nutrient
22. What are the common abiotic factors
17. What makes a species invasive? A. sun
A. Moving to a new ecosystem and taking B. soil
resources from natives
C. temperature
B. Not having papers
D. oxygen
C. Species that can’t adapt
E. All of the above
D. Plants that take up too much space
23. animals that regulate their own body tem-
18. A small or specialized habitat within a perature
larger habitat.
A. carnivores
A. biodiversity
B. vertebrates
B. microhabitat
C. cold-blooded
C. sustainability
D. warm-blooded
D. limiting factor
24. Biodiversity refers to
19. all the living and nonliving things that in-
teract with each other in an environment A. extinct species
A. ecosystem B. the variety of species on Earth
B. niche C. nonrenewable resources
C. organism D. the rate of species decline
D. interaction 25. An animal that hunts other animals for

food is a
20. A good adaptation for living in a grassland
would be- A. herbivore
A. the ability to hibernate B. predator
B. The ability of plants to grow very high C. prey

to reach the sunlight D. omnivore

26. Pablo has a hamburger and a salad for 31. There are several million different types of
lunch. Which term best describes Pablo. organisms on Earth. Which of the follow-
ing is the best way to organize them?

A. producer
A. By the name of the person who discov-
B. scavenger
ered them
C. herbivore B. By features or characteristics they
D. omnivore share
C. Chronologically by date of discovery
27. What’s a microhabitat?
D. Numerically by their age
A. Your mom’s tide pods
32. any living thing
B. A small, specialized habitat within a
larger habitat A. herbivore
C. A larger habitat in a smaller one B. carnivore

C. abiotic
D. All of the above
D. organism
28. The organisms that live around a pond
interact with biotic and abiotic factors. 33. In a forest ecosystem, which type of or-
Which of the following is a biotic factor of ganism has the most direct access to the
the pond environment? main energy source?
A. muddy soil A. decomposers

B. consumers
B. cattail plants
C. producers
C. slowly flowing water
D. scavengers
D. warm temperatures
34. All of the interacting members of a species
29. Complete this statement.The more diverse in an area
and ecosystem is- A. symbiotic relationship
A. The more threatened its populations B. food chain
are
C. population
B. the more similar the species will be
D. overpopulation
C. the more stable it is
35. Ability of an ecosystem to maintain its
D. The fewer varieties of species are structure and function over time.
present
A. niche
30. A trait or characteristic that helps an or- B. population
ganism is an
C. sustainability
A. Adaptation D. none of above
B. Environment
36. How many levels of organization are there
C. Population on Planet Earth?
D. Habitat A. 4

B. 3 B. prey
C. 6 C. producer
D. 5 D. consumer
37. A variety of species with genetic varia- 42. Site of photosynthesis in plant cells.
tions that allow an ecosystem the ability
to maintain a healthy environment. A. Mitochondria
A. succession B. Chloroplast
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. earth C. Prokaryotic
C. sun D. none of above
D. biodiversity 43. Which of the following is NOT an example
38. What is needed for plants to produce of a biotic factor?
sugar? A. Flowers
A. water, sunlight, carbon dioxide B. Birds
B. water, sunlight, oxygen C. Soil
C. water, sunlight, nitrogen D. Trees
D. water, glucose, sunlight
44. Smallest level of ecological organization
39. What are some ways that an environment A. An organism
can change because of natural causes?
Choose all that apply. B. community
A. Dams that change the flow of water C. population
B. Volcanic eruptions D. None of the above
C. Beavers building dams 45. A living factor in an ecosystem, such as a
D. Roads and Bridge Construction plant or animal is
40. Which organisms are common pioneer A. biotic
species? B. abiotic
A. Conifer trees and tall grasses with C. adaptation
roots that loosen the soil
D. producer
B. Mosses and lichens that can grow on
rocky surfaces 46. Examine the food chain below:grass →
C. Grasses and weeds that arrive as grasshopper → frog → snakeWhich or-
seeds carried by the wind and then ger- ganism belongs to the trophic level with
minatein rich soil the least amount of energy available for
sustaining and maintaining life?
D. Vines and shrubs that help prevent the
erosion of shallow soil A. frog
B. grass
41. A living thing whose food comes from eat-
ing other living things is called what? C. snake
A. predator D. grasshopper

47. An organism that breaks down dead C. The habitat with the warmest average
biomass temperature

A. producer D. The habitat with the greatest number
B. consumer of consumers
C. decomposer 52. The temperate decisuous forest, the tropi-

D. none of above cal rain forest, the desert, and the tundra
are all examples of
48. Which organisms release oxygen into the A. the biopshere.
air as part of the carbon dioxide-oxygen
cycle? B. biomes.
A. Consumers C. ecosystems.
B. Decomposers D. communities.
C. Predators 53. Identify the examples as:a organism,

D. Producers population, community, or ecosystem.All
speckled sting-ray that live in the Pacific
49. Which of the following characteristics best Ocean
describe the animal kingdom? A. Organism
A. heterotrophic, prokaryotic, unicellular B. Population
B. autotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellular C. Community
C. heterotrophic, eukaryotic, multicellu- D. Ecosystem
lar
D. heterotrophic, prokaryotic, multicellu- 54. Which of these shows the community level
lar of an organization?
A. A single individual deer, of a certain
50. Why are there generally a maximum of species, living in a forest
five trophic levels?
B. a group of deer, all of the same
A. Because energy is lost at each level, species, living in a forest
there isn’t enough energy left to support
any more consumers. C. all of the deer in a forest, as well as
their predators and food
B. Generally a top predator is so fierce it
has no predators and therefore can rule D. all animals, plants, and non-living ele-
the top trophic level without fear. ments in a forest.
C. There simply is not a word beyond qua- 55. an animal without a backbone
ternary. A. invertebrate
D. none of above B. ominvore
51. Which of the following most likely sup- C. consumer
ports the most sustainable ecosystem? D. vertebrate
A. The habitat with the greater number of
green plants 56. Primary succession occurs in areas with:
B. The habitat with the greatest variety of A. very little soil

living things B. lots of soil

C. no soil 62. Which of the following do scientists think

is the biggest threat to our ocean ecosys-
D. soil that has been disturbed
tems?
57. Transport of materials (blood, oxygen, nu- A. Oil spills in the ocean.
trients) to and from the body cells. (heart,
B. Old oil platforms left in the ocean.
arteries, veins).
C. Overfishing of our oceans.
A. Uninary
D. Sounds from commercial ships inter-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Digestive
rupting animal communication.
C. Circulatory
63. When producers inhabit bare ground in an
D. none of above
ecological community it is known as
58. Which of the following activities has a neg- A. climax community
ative impact on the ocean ecosystem? B. secondary succession
A. Overfishing C. primary succession
B. Artificial reefs D. deciduous forest community
C. Surfing
64. A living thing whose food comes from
D. none of above other living things
59. What is a reason an animal may want to A. decomposer
live in a large group? B. herbivore
A. They like to hide in a large group. C. producer
B. They can be better protected. D. consumer
C. They like lots of friends.
65. succession that occurs in an area where
D. They like a slower lifestyle. soil is already present
60. Which of these correctly describe the A. ecological succession

NICHE of a rabbit? B. primary succession
A. predator and herbivore C. secondary succession
B. consumer, carnivore D. pioneer speciles
C. consumer, herbivore, prey
66. There is a large population of rabbits in
D. producer and prey a field. Lately, a large family of bobcats
have moved into the same area. What do
61. Fertilizer, sewage, and animal feces can you think will happen to the rabbits in this
wash in to water, leading to area.
A. thermal pollution A. The rabbits will increase.
B. eutrophication B. The rabbits will decrease.
C. photosynthesis C. The bobcats will decrease.
D. industrial pollution D. The bobcats will increase.

67. Mutual dependence between organisms in B. building dams

order to help them survive. C. building roads and highways

A. Competition D. bulldozing trees to build houses
B. Interdependence
72. Animals require a constant source of car-
C. Adaptation bon components for the proper functioning
D. Natural Selection of body processes. In which way are ani-
mals able to obtain usable atmospheric car-
68. The Texas Kangaroo Rat, native to north- bon?
central Texas, makes its home in mesquite
A. through the decomposition of water
bushes. If the mesquite bushes are cleared
for human homes, which of the following B. through the combustion of fossil fuels
is the most probable result? C. through aerobic respiration of bacte-
A. The rat population will rise (increase). ria
B. The rat population will decline (de- D. through the digestion of plants that
crease). carry out photosynthesis
C. The rat population will stay the same. 73. The final stable community of plants and
D. The rat population will double. animals is called:
A. pioneer community
69. A hurricane hits a coastal prairie and de-
stroys the habitat. Years later there is B. farmland
an appearance of small plants with rapidly C. climax community
spreading roots.The vegetation describes
D. old field
A. a microhabitat 74. All of the living and nonliving things that

surround and affect an organism is an
B. primary succession
A. Environment
C. secondary succession
B. Camouflage
D. biodiversity
C. Mimicry
70. Ecologists have shown that-
D. Habitat
A. higher animal to plants ratios provides
the most stable environment 75. The polar bear depends on sea ice in order
to hunt for seals. If arctic temperatures in-
B. having multiple keystone species is im- crease, what is the long-term outlook for
portant to ecological stability polar bears?
C. higher biodiversity in an ecosystem A. polar bear population will gradually in-
provides better stability crease
D. ocean ecosystems are far more stable B. polar bear population will gradually de-
than terrestrial ecosystems crease
71. Humans can cause changes to the land by C. polar bear population will remain un-
which of the following ways? (Check all changed
that apply.) D. polar bears will adapt quickly to new
A. an earthquake food sources

76. Which of the following choices only in- 81. a variety of organisms in an ecosystem or
cludes abiotic factors? biome
A. Sunlight, algae, and temperature A. biodiversity
B. Fish, crabs, oxygen B. micro-habitat
C. Sunlight, soil, and oxygen C. habitat
D. Algae, temperature, and dog D. sustainability

E. limiting factor
NARAYAN CHANGDER
77. To keep our ecosystem healthy, we must
keep our? 82. One coastal cholla cactus can house the
nest of the cactus wren containing three
A. biodegradability adults and up to four young. Four cholla
B. earth cacti are counted in a study area. What is
the maximum number of cactus wrens that
C. sun
could nest in the area?
D. biodiversity
A. 28
78. Community is the level of organization B. 21
which is best described as all- C. 35
A. members of a certain species in a D. 16
given area
83. Biotic factors of an ecosystem are:
B. members of a species, regardless of
where they live A. non-living
C. living things, regardless of species, in B. plants
an area C. living things
D. living and non-living components of an D. soil
area
84. A waste product produced by plants during
79. Pollution that cannot be traced to a single photosynthesis that we can use
point because comes from many sources A. oxygen
A. estuary B. carbon dioxide
B. water shed C. water
C. non point source pollution D. hydrogen
D. point source pollution 85. Process by which organisms that are
suited to a particular environment are bet-
80. An animal that is eaten by another animal ter able to survive and reproduce than
is a other organisms that are not.
A. decomposer A. Competition
B. prey B. Natural Selection
C. photosynthesis C. Biodiversity
D. herbivore D. none of above

86. What physical characteristics might an an- 91. A(n) shows the relationships among all
imal living in the desert have? (Check all species in an ecosystem.
that apply.) A. environmental change

A. thick fur B. energy pyramid
B. large ears C. food web
C. thin fur D. food chain
D. blubber 92. Which is an inherited trait in plants?
87. An organism that uses sunlight to make its A. The amount of sunlight the plants re-
own food for energy ceive
A. producer B. The color of their flowers

C. The amount of water the plants re-
B. consumer
ceive
C. decomposer
D. The kind of animal that eats its leaves
D. none of above
93. Which organisms in a prairie ecosystem
88. Energy from the Sun is given to so that are producers?
they can make their own food. A. prairie dogs, rabbits, and mice
A. Producers B. hawks, owls, and snakes
B. Consumers C. grass and bushes
C. Decomposers D. All of the organisms are producers.
D. none of above 94. The is the main organ of the nervous
system.
89. How do populations of predators and prey
A. heart
change as the prey’s food sources decrease
in a habitat? B. lungs
A. prey decrease and then predators in- C. brain
crease D. skin
B. prey increase then predators increase 95. The non-living factors in an ecosystem
C. prey decrease and then predators de- such as rocks, water and temperature.
crease A. natural selection
D. prey and predator populations de- B. biotic
crease at the same time C. biodiversity
90. What is formed during primary succession D. abiotic
that doesn’t need to be formed during sec- 96. An animal that gets energy by eating only
ondary succession? other animals
A. pioneer species A. herbivore
B. soil B. carnivore
C. climax community C. omnivore
D. lichens D. producer

97. The scientific name for an organism is 103. Gina knows plants in her garden are pro-
made from the: ducers. Which statement is true about her
A. class and family name plants?
B. genus and species name A. The plants are the last link in a food
chain.
C. domain and kingdom name
B. The plants are the last link in most food
D. kingdom and phylum name
webs.
98. Which is an example of an abiotic factor?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The plants depend on other organisms
A. Grass for their food.
B. Trees D. The plants need water, sunlight, and
C. Rain carbon dioxide to make their own food.
D. Birds 104. Which of the following statements are
99. What term best relates to equilibrium? false?
A. pioneer species A. Animals are heterotrophic, consumers,

and could be omnivores, herbivores, or
B. primary succession carnivores
B. Animals are autotrophic, consumers,
D. climax community and could be omnivores, herbivores, or
carnivores
100. What is Biodiversity
C. Plants are autotrophic and producers,
A. The number of organism in an ecosys-
meaning they create their own energy
tem
B. The variety of organism in an ecosys- D. Animals that are omnivores eat both
tem animals and plants
C. The number and variety of organisms 105. What are some characteristics that can
in an ecosystem help a turtle survive in its habitat? (Check
D. None of these all that apply.)
101. Organisms have that allow them to A. hard shell

survive in their habitat. B. strong jaws
A. Adaptations C. short tail
B. Families D. webbed feet
C. Habits
106. Which of the plants described above
D. Traits would most likely be found in the rainfor-
102. Which of these is an example of group est?
behavior? A. leaves with dry tips, climbing vines and
A. birds build nests canopy covering
B. rabbits dig holes B. grows in clumps, hairy leaves, small
C. squirrels collect nuts C. nonporous leaves, extended roots
D. swans fly to warmer areas in winter D. absence of trees

107. organisms that grow, change, produce 112. A vegetable garden goes unattended for
waste, reproduce, and die, such as plants a few weeks. Which organism will be the
and animals first to take over the area?

A. niche A. weeds
B. habitat B. moss
C. living C. shrubs
D. nonliving D. trees
113. All of the members of a certain kind of

108. A lion, captures and eats other animals.
plant or animal in an environment is a
What is he considered?
A. Population
A. prey
B. Camouflage
B. predator
C. Adaptation
C. producer
D. Habitat
D. healthy
114. What is the relationship between ecologi-
109. What characteristics of a cactus may cal succession and equilibrium in an ecosys-
protect it from being eaten by animals? tem?
Choose all that apply. A. Ecological succession leads to equilib-
A. Spines rium in an ecosystem.
B. Green Color B. Ecological succession prevents
ecosystems from ever reachingequilib-
C. Flowers
rium.
D. Waxy Skin C. There is no relationship between eco-
logical succession and equilibrium.
110. Returning nitrogen gas to the atmo-
sphere by bacteria that obtain their energy D. Ecological succession and equilibrium
by breaking down nitrates to nitrogen gas are the same thing.
is called
115. Why do algae blooms happen?
A. Ammonification
A. there are too many nutrients in the wa-
B. Assimilation ter
C. Denitrification B. there are too many fish in the water
D. Nitrogen Fixation C. there is not enough turbidity in the wa-
ter
111. The more diverse an ecosystem is- D. all of these options
A. the more stable it is
116. Which of the following is true in a climax
B. the more similar the species will be community?
C. the fewer varieties of species are A. The community will constantly evolve
present and quickly change
D. the more threatened its populations B. If one species dies, a new species will
are fulfill the same role

C. The community is stable for a long 121. The largest population of organisms
time, with the same species maintaining found in a food web would be:
it’s population A. Primary Consumers
D. The community goes through a major B. Producers
change called “climax” every few hundred
years C. Decomposers
D. Tertiary Consumers
117. Define natural selection?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
122. the surroundings that an organism lives
A. Your mom & your dad
in
B. The process by which organisms that A. niche
inherit helpful traits tend to reproduce
more successfully B. adaptation
C. People C. species
D. environment
D. All of the above
123. How much energy is passed from one
118. What adaptation do land plants have for trophic level to the next?
reproduction?
A. 0.1%
A. roots
B. 1%
B. leaves
C. 10%
C. pollen
D. 100%
D. sepals
124. Nonliving factor that affects an ecosys-
119. Prairie dogs, ferrets, rabbits, mice and tem
owls are all A. biotic factor
A. consumers B. abiotic factor
B. producers C. food chain
C. prey D. biome
D. decomposers 125. What’s the correct order:Shade tolerant
trees such as oaks grow. Lava cools
120. The arrows in a food chain or web repre- and forms new land composed of rock.
sents what? Large plants and shrubs grow.Shade in-
A. They point to the organism that is be- tolerant trees such as pines grow. Soil
ing eaten. forms.Pioneer species such as lichens help
break down rocks.Weeds and grasses
B. It shows how sunlight flows within an grow
ecosystem.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C. They show what direction the energy
is flowing between organisms. B. 2, 6, 5, 7, 3, 4, 1
D. They represent how water is trans- C. 2, 5, 7, 6, 1, 3, 4

ferred within a habitat. D. none of above

126. This biome is found around the equator, B. energy input

has a dense canopy, and is home to a large C. consumers
amount of biodiversity.

D. reducers
A. Deserts
B. Tropical Rain Forests 132. A wrasse fish feeds on the parasites
found on the black sea bass’s body. Both
C. Savannas
species benefit.
D. Grasslands
A. Mutualism
127. Organism that cannot make its own food, B. Parasitism
so it must consume other organisms for en-
ergy. C. Commensalism
A. Vacuole D. none of above

B. Cytoplasm 133. Pollution traced to a single point
C. Heterotroph A. water shed
D. none of above B. permeable
128. Every ecosystem supplies the basic needs C. point source pollution
for the organisms that live there. What D. non-point source pollution
are the basic needs of all organisms?
A. Air, water, food, habitat 134. Which of these are classed as abiotic fac-
tors that could affect a population?
B. Food, water, habitat, space
A. light
C. Air, water, food, protection
B. temperature
D. Food, attention, change, water
C. pathogens
129. Can cause extinctions of organism
D. food availability
A. Short term impact
B. Long term impact 135. The basic unit of structure and function in
a living things. Is known as “the building
C. Both Short and Long Term block of life”.
D. none of above A. chloroplast
130. Process by which an animal or plant B. nucleus
species becomes fitted to its environment
C. cell
to help them survive.
D. cell membrane
A. Interdependence
B. Natural Selection 136. Field mice eat corn. Which would most
C. Adaptation likely happen if the field mouse population
grew?
D. Competition
A. There would be more corn to feed the
131. These organisms can be herbivores, om- field mice.
nivores, or carnivores. B. There would be less corn due to the
A. producers mice eating it.

C. The habitat would get overpopulated A. Grasses-flowering plants-shrubs-

because the mice woudl eat too much. native trees
D. none of above B. native trees-shrubs-flowering plants-
grasses
137. Identify the examples as:a organ-
C. shrubs-grasses-native trees-flowering
ism, population, community, or ecosys-
plants
tem.Water, Fish, Turtles, Oxygen, Rocks
and Moss interacting in a river system. D. flowering plants-native trees-shrubs-
grasses
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Organism
B. Population 142. What is Ecological Succession?
A. Competition between plants in a soci-
C. Community
ety
D. Ecosystem
B. A natural disaster such as a flood or
138. are consumers that eat plants and fire
meat. C. The cycle of a tomato plant
A. Herbivore D. The change an ecosystem experiences
B. Omnivore over time
C. Carnivore 143. A dog gives birth to puppies. The puppies

try to suckle soon after being born. Which
D. none of above
type of behavior are the puppies exhibit-
139. A whale consumes krill, which is a tiny ing?
heterotroph that eats phytoplankton. Phy- A. conditioning
toplankton is an organism which utilizes B. habituation
photosynthesis to chemically alter sun-
light, water, and carbon dioxide into glu- C. instincts
cose and oxygen. In this case, what is the D. learning
whale classified as?
144. Food chains and webs typically start with
A. Prey which kind of organism?
B. Predator A. decomposer
C. Autotroph B. producer
D. Producer C. primary consumer
D. secondary consumer
140. is the principal source of energy input
to biological systems. 145. Which of the following statements is NOT
A. water part of the cell theory?
A. Cells are the basic unit of structure
B. air
and function in all living things.
C. moon
B. All cells are produced from other cells.
D. sun
C. Only animal cells are composed of
141. Which sequence most likely represents cells.
ecological succession on a recently aban- D. All living things are composed of one
doned wheat field? or more cells.

146. Organisms that hunt and eat other organ- 151. You are in an environment that did not
isms receive any rain and you saw the large
ears of a jackrabbit hiding behind a rock

A. predator
In which biome are you in?
B. prey
A. Tundra
C. habitat
D. niche C. Desert
E. parasitism D. Taiga
147. The changing sequence of communities 152. Which of the following environments
that live in an ecosystem during a given could support both a herd of deer and pop-
time period. ulation of owls?
A. primary consumer A. Wetlands
B. biome B. Artic
C. ecological succession C. Desert
D. none of above D. Forest
148. What are some natural disasters that can 153. Where does an organism get its food, wa-
cause environmental changes? ter, and other things it need to survive?
A. tornadoes A. Its body
B. volcanoes B. The sun
C. hurricanes C. Its habitat
D. humans tearing down forests to build D. none of above

houses
154. Thermal pollution of water bodies is due
to:
149. Protects the body and prevents water
loss. (skin, hair, nails) A. Discharge of heat (hot water) from
power plants.
A. Integumentary
B. Discharge of chemicals from indus-
B. Digestive
tries.
C. Nervous C. Discharge of waste from mining.
D. none of above D. Discharge of agricultural runoff.
150. An animal that is hunted as food for other 155. A has the physical adaptation of
animals sharp claws to help it survive.
A. predator A. Eagle
B. prey B. Turtle
C. producer C. Leopard Seal
D. none of above D. Viceroy Butterfly

156. The greatest biodiversity on earth is B. rainfall amounts, average daily tem-
found in the biome. perature, minerals in soil
A. taiga C. minerals in soil, plants, rainfall
B. grassland amounts
C. temperate deciduous forest D. animals, rainfall amounts, soil compo-

sition
D. tropical rainforest
162. A body inside a plant cell that converts
NARAYAN CHANGDER
157. Which of the following is the most simple sunlight into chemical energy.
level of ecological organization?
A. Vacuole
A. A community
B. Mitochondria
B. An individual or species
C. Chloroplast
C. A population
D. Nucleus
D. An ecosystem
163. Below is an example of a forest food
158. Which of the following describes an inter-
chain:Corn → mouse → snake → hawkAs
action between a biotic factor and an abi-
energy flows through each trophic level of
otic factor?
the food chain, approximately what per-
A. a pair of birds build a nest in a tree cent of energy is available to the next
B. a black bear uses a cave for a winter trophic level?
home A. 1 %
C. a squirrel gathers nuts to store for win- B. 10%
ter
C. 50%
D. a vulture eats the remains of a wild pig
D. 100%
159. What is the first element of the food
164. Which organisms are producers?
web?
A. chipmunks, skunks, raccoons
A. Eagle
B. grass, trees, shrubs
B. Sun
C. bears, snakes, hawks
C. Water
D. all organisms are producers
D. Wolf
165. Define abiotic & biotics
160. Coming after, the next generation
A. Biotic-living
A. population
B. species B. Abiotic-non lving
C. biodiversity C. Tide Pods are abiotic & biotic
D. subsequent population D. All of the above
161. Which of the following lists include only 166. A path of energy transfer from one or-
abiotic factors? ganism to another
A. plants, animals, average daily temper- A. population

ature B. symbiotic relationship

C. food chain 172. A puppy is stung by a bee. The next time

D. overpopulation a puppy encounters a bee, it leaves the bee
alone. Which BEST describes the puppy’s

167. The transfer of food energy in a sequence behavior?
of living things is a
A. innate
A. consumer
B. instinctual
B. producer
C. learned
C. nutrient
D. unconscious
D. food chain
168. Which of the following is NOT a het- 173. Long term environmental changes
erotroph? A. Allow adaptation to occur
A. Producer B. Do not allow for adaptation to occur
B. Omnivore C. Occur suddenly and are very cata-
C. Carnivore clysmic
D. Omnivore D. Kill everything suddenly (mass extinc-
tion)
169. What is the main difference between
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? 174. Which of the following are examples of
A. Prokaryotic cells are found only in mul- short-term, human-induced environmental
ticellular organisms changes? Select two answer choices.
B. Eukaryotic cells are found only in uni- A. mass extinction
cellular organisms B. building roads
C. Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and
C. deforestation
prokaryotic cells do not
D. ozone layer destruction
D. Prokaryotic cells have DNA and eukary-
otic cells do not E. pollution
170. What would cause a population to reach 175. A place where an organism lives and can
its carrying capacity? find everything it needs to survive is a
A. the population adapts A. Habitat
B. the population becomes extinct B. Environment
C. the population has a limited food sup- C. Adaptation
ply
D. Population
D. the population finds a new food source
171. The trees in this biome shed their leaves 176. Chemicals that contribute to eutrophica-
and grow new ones each year: tion include (pick all that apply)
A. temperate deciduous forest A. dissolved Oxygen.

B. grasslands B. phosphates.
C. deserts C. nitrates.
D. tundra D. sulfuric acid.

177. You are standing on a bitterly cold, dry B. A flood that occurs quickly and causes
plain with only few short trees scattered organisms to find new shelter.
around, and you spot a wolf in a distance. C. Pollution in the Hudson river that af-
In which biome are you in? fects subsequent generations.
A. Tundra D. Global warming that occurs slowly
B. Tropical Rainforest over time and changes the climate of the
C. Desert Earth.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Taiga 183. Where an organism lives includes both bi-
otic & abiotic factors and is called its
178. complete the following population →
community →? → biome A. trophic level
A. biosphere B. habitat
B. ecosystem C. ecosystem
C. organism D. energy level
D. organ system 184. A condition or resource that keeps a pop-
179. A has the physical adaptation of ulation at a certain size.
mimicry to help it survive. A. biodiversity
A. Eagle B. microhabitat
B. Turtle C. sustainability
C. Leopard Seal D. limiting factor
D. Viceroy Butterfly
185. The red-tailed hawk and mice are part of
180. an animal that is hunted and eaten by the ecosystem in the forest near grandfa-
other animals ther’s farm. Which of the following de-
scribes the relationship between the hawk
A. producer and a mouse?
B. prey
A. friendly
C. predator
B. competitive
D. decomposer
C. predator/prey
181. The total number of different species on D. beneficial
earth is known as
186. Andrea is on the grils cross country tream.
A. biome
She is heading out for a run when she
B. ecology comes across 20 Canadian geese. What
C. biodiversity level of organization is this group of Cana-
dian geese?
D. abiotic factors
A. organism
182. Which of these best describe a short term
environmental change? B. population
A. Radioactive waste that changes the C. community

physical traits of the organisms. D. biome

187. A process started by an event that re- 192. What reproductive adaptation enabled
duces an already established ecosystem to animals to better survive on land?
a smaller population of species. A. strong limbs

A. pioneer species B. amniotic egg
B. climax community C. cross pollination
C. secondary succession D. external fertilization
D. niche 193. Bacteria and fungi obtain energy from
dead organic materialWhich of these terms
188. What are the nonliving parts of the accurately describes bacteria and fungi?
ecosystem? This includes temperature,
A. carnivores
water, sunlight, air, and soil.
B. decomposers
A. biotic factors
C. herbivores
B. communities
D. producers
C. abiotic factors
194. Which is an example of a biotic factor?
D. microorganisms
A. The sun
189. What is taxonomy? B. Water
A. the process used by geologists to clas- C. Grass
sify rocks D. Rocks
B. the scientific study of how living things 195. Nonliving elements in an ecosystem are
are classified called
C. the name of Aristotle’s classification A. biotic factor
system
B. abiotic factor
D. the process of observing an organ- C. limiting factor
ism’s behavior
D. carrying capacity
190. The organisms that are being hunted is 196. Taking more from the land (or sea) than it
can replace such as extreme farming, fish-
A. predator ing and using fresh water.
B. prey A. artificial reef
C. parasitism B. overharvesting
C. competition
D. mutualism
D. none of above
191. Succession that occurs in an area with NO
197. one of the best known mechanisms of
SOIL
population control
A. ecological succession A. predator-prey relationships
B. primary succession B. pollution
C. secondary succession C. deforestation
D. pioneer speciles D. habitat destruction

198. What does the word ‘adapted’ mean? 203. When tissues come together, they form
A. A living thing is well suited to where it
lives. A. cells
B. A plant that can live on the top of a B. atoms
mountain. C. organs
C. A living thing is not suited to where it D. systems
lives.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. A living thing cannot survive on its 204. (8.11A) Baleen whales eat zooplankton
own. by taking a large amount of water into
their mouth. These whales use special
199. When producers inhabit bare rock in an structures in their mouth to separate zoo-
ecological community it is known as- plankton from the water. Because baleen
whales eat zoo-plankton, they are classi-
A. climax community fied as-
B. secondary succession A. producers
C. primary succession B. predators
D. deciduous forest community C. parasites
200. Controls the activities of the eukaryotic D. hosts

cells. 205. Fish swim to the surface of the water
A. Mitochondria when a human nears the tank. Which be-
havior is exhibited by the fish?
B. Chloroplast
A. imprinting
C. Nucleus
B. habituation
D. none of above
C. classical conditioning
201. an animals body temperature changes D. trial and error learning
with its surroundings
A. cold-blooded 206. what is adaptation
B. decomposer A. it is a place where things dont survir

B. adaptation is the process by which liv-
C. warm-blooded
ing organism learns to survive and repro-
D. producer duce in its environment
202. What is the lowest level of organiza- C. i have no idea

tion of the biosphere, or the one with the D. it is the process by which we eat burg-
fewest members? ers and sleep
A. ecosystem 207. In a grassland ecosystem, lions prey on
B. population wildebeest. The population of lions has de-
clined steadily because of illegal hunting.
C. community
What will most likely happen to the popu-
D. organism lation of wildebeest?

A. The wildebeest population will in- 213. Which of the following provides organ-
crease isms in an ecosystem with all their basic
requirements to survive?

B. The wildebeest population will de-
crease A. soil
C. The wildebeest population will remian B. air
the same
C. habitat
D. none of above
D. producers
208. is the organism that usually causes
harm to the without immediately 214. Which of the following body systems
killing it. work together for support, protection, and
movement?
A. decomposer, parasite
B. host, parasite A. respiratory and cardiovascular
C. organisms, parasite B. skeletal and muscular

D. parasite, host C. skeletal and integumentary
209. describes the way food passes from mul- D. digestive and respiratory
tiple organisms to other organisms 215. If the population of prey increases, the
A. survival population of predators will because
B. scavenger of the availability of food.
C. food web A. decrease
D. food chain B. stay the same
210. What’s a dichotomous key? C. increase
A. An identification & organizational tool D. none of above
that’s used to identify organisms
216. What two factors would make biodiver-
B. A key to unlock special doors sity increase?
C. All of the above A. Tornadoes and hurricanes
D. none of above
B. Large amount of producers and water
211. What are some reasons for an animal’s C. More predators and competition
coloring? (Check all that apply.)
D. The water cycle and ocean warming
A. to help it find food
B. to attract a mate 217. Two different population of birds live in
the same area and eat the same types of
C. to help protect it
food. Which MOST LIKELY describes the re-
D. to help it play games lationship between these two populations
212. A consumer that eats only plants is of birds
A. decomposer A. competition
B. prey B. mutualism
C. photosynthesis C. parasitism
D. herbivore D. predator-prey

218. Nutrients is added to the soil. What most 223. Organisms that produce their own food
likely will happen? A. heterotroph
A. the soil is poisoned B. consumer
B. the plant will grow bigger C. autotroph
C. the soil will get more water D. decomposer
D. the plants will stop growing 224. Some student take care of a vegetable
garden. When it is time to plant in the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
219. An ecosystem that is found on land.
spring, the students leave part of the gar-
A. Terrestrial ecosystem den empty in order to observe ecological
B. Marine ecosystem succession. Which of these will most likely
occur first?
C. Freshwater ecosystem
A. Development of topsoil
D. Aquatic ecosystem
B. Growth of weeds and grasses
220. An adaptation that allows an organism to C. Growth of trees and shrubs
blend in with its surroundings is called
D. Development of a stream
A. Camouflage
225. What is a herbivore?
B. Habitat
A. an animal that gets energy from eating
C. Population other animals
D. Adaptation B. an organism that gets energy from eat-
ing only plants
221. An organism that cannot adapt to
changes in the environment will most C. an animal that gets energy by eating
likely- both plants and other animals
A. produce more offspring D. an animal that eats only herbs
B. die 226. Saguro Cacti live in parts of California,

Arizona and Mexico. Gila woodpeckers
C. change its traits to survive
build their nests inside saguro cacti. The
D. store more food saguro cacti and the gila woodpeckers are
both part of the same:
222. During hibernation, mammals remain dor-
mant for months at a time. Which pro- A. atmosphere
cess allows them to survive during hiber- B. ecosystem
nation? C. food web
A. Their heart rate decreases to carry D. species
more oxygen
227. The Substances that pollute water are
B. Their body temperature decreases to
called?
conserve energy
A. Impure particles
C. Their respiration rate increases to ex-
pel carbon dioxide B. sewage, toxic chemical, silt etc
D. Their body temperature increases as C. Water Pollutants
their body fat is used D. Water Pollution

228. living thing 234. Which of these describes a community?

A. organism A. one member of a species in a given

B. species area.
C. ecosystem B. all the members of a species in a given
area
D. interaction
C. all of the members of a species that
229. The position an organism occupies in the live anywhere
food web D. all of the different species of living
A. Tropic levels things in an area.
B. Energy pyramid 235. In the 1980’s, the water level dropped
C. Food web and the salt concentration doubled in Mono
D. Food chain Lake. How did this affect the brine shrimp
population?
230. behavior in, near or with something A. The brine shrimp population in-
A. interaction creased.
B. organism B. The brine shrimp population de-
C. habitat creased.
D. ecosystem C. This did not affect the brine shrimp
population.
231. Producers provide which of the following D. What are brine shrimp?
to humans
A. Hydrogen 236. The greater a habitat’s biodiversity, the
greater will be that habitat’s-
B. Nitrogen
A. sustainability over time with varying
C. Oxygen conditions.
D. none of above B. consumption of energy in the form of
232. What is the function of the cell nucleus sunlight.
found in both plant and animal cells? C. temperature ranges across the sea-
A. to produce energy sons.
B. to control cell activity D. distance to the nearest water source
C. to remove waste products 237. Both primary and secondary succession
D. to allow molecules to enter the cell begin with pioneer species that-
A. modify the area and allow larger and
233. What’s biodiversity? more complex organisms to appear
A. The diversity of organisms present in B. A change the area and make it safer
a particular ecosystem from predatory organisms
B. the ability of the environment to meet C. invade the area so that new organisms
the needs of organisms that live there cannot be established
over long periods of time
D. use up all the existing resources and
C. Both prevent establishment of non-native or-
D. none of above ganisms

238. Which of the following is an example of A. The plants and animals are all part of
a biotic component of the environment? a food chain and depend on each other to
A. wind live.
B. vegetation B. Plants and animals are interdependent

of one another.
C. water
C. One species may overpopulate, killing
D. temperature all plant life.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
239. Which of the following could not survive D. Over population of a species results in
in a forest ecosystem? a biodiversity.
A. Moss
244. What’s a biome?
B. Cactus
A. Your mom eating a tide pod
C. Shrubs
B. A region of Earth where the climate de-
D. Ferns termines the types of organisms that live
there
240. Which is NOT an abiotic factor:
C. I like tide pods
A. soil
D. Is H20 wet
B. air
C. bacteria; 245. Controls mental and bodily functions.
(brain, spinal cord)
D. water
A. Integumentary
241. An ecosystem is made up of all the
and factors in an area. B. Endocrine
A. not/without C. Nervous
B. Limiting Factor/ Carrying Capacity D. none of above
C. Living/ Nonliving 246. Two organisms that are so similar they

D. life/ biotic factor can interbreed in nature and produce fer-
tile offspring
242. Which choice below is NOT true?
A. biotic factor
A. Rainforests are home to many plants
B. herbivore
and animals
C. ecosystem
B. Many medicines have been made from
plants found in the rainforest D. species
C. Rainforests are home to many organ-
247. What factor contributes most to the sus-
isms but have little value to humans
tainability of a habitat?
D. More varieties of plants are found in
A. Competition among large predators
rainforests than anywhere else on earth
B. Large variety of organisms
243. Which best explains why many kinds of
C. Presence of volcanic rock
plants and animals can live together in an
ecosystem? D. Absence of bacterial species

248. If climate change affects an ecosystem, B. continent

what could happen to the organisms that C. the latitude
are not adapted to this climate change?

D. the soil type
A. they will form a new ecosystem
B. they could disappear 254. (7.12D) Plants use energy from sun-
C. they are unaffected light, water, and carbon dioxide to pro-
duce sugar. Which structure is found only
D. they automatically change in plant cells and helps plants capture en-
ergy from sunlight?
249. What is a trait or characteristic that helps
an organism survive? A. Vacuole
A. clean fur B. Nucleus
B. population C. Choloplast
C. adaptation D. Cell membrane
D. habitat
255. Controls homeostasis by releasing hor-
250. Choose which of these is an abiotic factor mones. (thyroid, adrenal gland, pituitary
that makes up part of the desert habitat. gland)
A. sparse growth of trees A. Reproduction
B. extremes of daytime and nighttime B. Endocrine
temperatures
C. Nervous
C. limited numbers of predators
D. none of above
D. leafless, waxy-coated plant with sharp
spines 256. The yucca moth lays eggs in the yucca
plant which ensures that the plant will be
251. Organisms that live in or on another or- cross-pollinated and that the yucca moth
ganism and benefit at the host’s expense. larvae will have a steady food supply.
A. Parasite Which relationship does this BEST illus-
B. Producer trate?
C. Scavenger A. commensalism
D. Decomposer B. mutualism
C. parasitism
252. All food chains begin with a
A. primary consumer D. predation
B. secondary consumer 257. The ocean ecosystem has a high sustain-

C. producers ability because of-
D. scavengers A. strong, persistent currents
B. predator/prey relationships
253. The two most important factors that de-
termine what type of biome develops are C. green plants growing on the bottom.
the climate and D. the large variety of different organ-
A. weather isms

258. For breakfast, Madison ate cereal with 263. Living things that make their own food
milk. For breakfast, a chipmunk ate using air, light, soil and water are called:
seeds. How are Madison and the chipmunk A. changers
alike?
B. consumers
A. They are both being herbivores.
C. decomposers
B. They are both being carnivores.
D. producers
C. They are both getting some energy.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. They are both being food producers. 264. An animal that gets energy by only eat-
ing plants
259. What advantages do geese have when A. herbivore
they travel in a large group?
B. carnivore
A. They can fly slower
C. omnivore
B. They won’t fall out of the sky
D. producer
C. They can cope with a changing environ-
ment 265. All organisms of a single species in a
given area is a(n)-
D. They are hidden from predators
A. ecosystem
260. Which of the following best describes a B. organism
community?
C. population
A. sharks, groupers, anemones and
shrimp on a coral reef D. community
B. decorator crabs on the seafloor 266. The area where an organism lives that
C. loggerhead sea turtles in Atlantic includes both biotic and abiotic factors is
called
D. prairie grassland in Wyoming
A. habitat
261. Why does chemical waste need to be dis- B. niche
posed of carefully?
C. energy
A. It encourages excessive plant growth
D. food web
B. It contains heavy metals which build
up in the tissues of living organisms. 267. What is an adaptation that allows an or-
ganism to blend in with its surroundings?
C. It is not biodegradable
A. traits
D. It depletes the oxygen levels in the wa-
ter B. camouflage
C. mimicry
262. A living thing which gets its food by eat-
ing other living things D. habitat
A. decomposer 268. A flower bed is created at school so flow-
B. herbivore ers can be planted in autumn. Over the
summer, the flower bed is ignored. What
C. producer will they find when they return back to
D. consumer school?

A. Nothing-it will look the same 274. At what level of organization in an

B. Weeds have begun to grow ecosystem is an individual plant or ani-
mal?

C. Shrubs have begun to grow
A. population
D. There is now a tree growing in the
flower bed B. organism
269. What are Biotic Factors? C. community
A. Living parts of an environment D. ecosystem

B. Nonliving parts of a habitat. 275. are consumers that eat only meat.
C. Living parts of an organism A. Herbivore
D. Nonliving parts of an organism
B. Omnivore
270. Which biome is more biodiverse? C. Carnivore
A. Desert D. none of above
B. Sand
276. All of the living and nonliving things in an
C. Tundra
area and all of their interactions
D. Rainforest
A. herbivore
271. What do consumers do in the food chain? B. ecosystem
A. They obtain energy from other organ-
C. food chain
isms.
D. adaptation
B. They break down dead plant and ani-
mal material. 277. Which of the following will have the
C. They use sunlight to make food. longest term impact on organisms in an
D. They are parasites of plants. ecosystem?
A. flooding
272. Sediments from a flood run-off has
caused less sunlight to reach the aquatic B. oil spill
plants in a lake? Why would this decrease C. blizzard
photosynthesis?
D. global warming
A. Less water for absorption
B. Less energy for growth 278. Ecosystem is the level of organization
C. Less soil for nutrient that is best described as including-
D. Less oxygen for absorption A. only a single individual of a single

species plant or animal
273. Describes the way energy passes from
B. two species that live in the same habi-
one organism to another
tat and depend on each other
A. requirements for life
C. all of the abiotic factors which charac-
B. survival terize a geographic area
C. food web D. various species in an area and the abi-
D. food chain otic factors on which they depend

279. All of the living and non-living parts of C. Community

the environment in the same area. D. Ecosystem
A. Population
285. What is a characteristic of an animal’s
B. Community structure or body that helps it survive
C. Organism called?
D. Ecosystem A. personality
B. physical adaptation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
280. Rigid support outside a plant cell only.
C. mimicry
A. Cell Membrane
D. behavioral adaptation
B. Cell Wall
C. Autotroph 286. Which of the following relationships is
harmful?
D. none of above
A. A flea on a dog
281. Organisms also have that make them B. A fish cleaning worms from a shark.
very successful living in their environment.
C. Two buzzards fighting over a dead ani-
A. Adaptations mal
B. Families D. A lady bug eating aphids (insects) on a
C. Habits plant.
D. Traits 287. Check all the examples of primary succes-
sion
282. What step do we always start with when
using dichotomous keys? A. A forest rebuilds after a forest fire
A. 1 B. New island is created from hot spot in
the ocean
B. 2
C. A tornado completely destroyed a crop
C. 3 of corn.
D. 4 D. a glacier retreated exposing the
bedrock.
283. A farmer applies excess fertilizer to one
of her fields just before a rainstorm. What 288. Some desert animals are most active at
kind of pollution is this most likely to lead dusk and dawn. This adaptation is MOST
to? helpful for-
A. Toxic A. preying on plant species
B. Sediment B. finding new water sources
C. Nutrient C. avoiding high temperatures
D. Bacterial D. hiding from hungry animals
284. One living thing. Ex. One frog, one tree, 289. Overflow of water from the land and into
one rabbit a body of water.
A. Population A. Runoff
B. Organism B. Ecological Succession

C. Biodiversity C. It doesn’t, the predators eat the pos-

D. none of above sum anyway.

D. none of above
290. Some aquatic animals die due to algal
bloom because of lack of
295. What does a Primary Consumer eat?
A. Oxygen
A. Tertiary Consumers
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide B. Secondary Consumers
D. Sculpture C. Producers
291. Maria and her classmates are observing D. none of above

animals at the pond. They notice that
wood storks and ibisies both feed on fish. 296. Fertilizer runoff causes algae blooms
Which of these describes the relationship which cause what?
between these two birds.
A. lack of oxygen in the water as they die
A. Parasitism
B. lack of oxygen as they grow
B. Competition
C. more food for fish
C. Predator and prey
D. Producer and consumer D. none of above
292. From the bottom of the Marianas Trench 297. The three-toed sloth is a mammal that
to the top of our breathable atmosphere lives in the forests of Central America.
would be considered what level of organi- Sloths are eaten by wild cats such as
zation jaguars and also by snakes. The sloths
A. ecosystem mainly eat leaves.What is the original
source of the energy supplied to the
B. community
jaguars?
C. population
A. leaves
D. biosphere
B. sloths
293. A living thing that gets energy by break-
ing down dead plant and animal matter is C. snakes
a D. Sun
A. decomposer
B. prey 298. When algae levels increase in a body of
water, it
C. photosynthesis
D. herbivore A. cuts off light to plants at the bottom.
B. increases light to the plants on the bot-
294. How does a possum playing dead help it
tom.
to survive?
A. It looks funny to the predators. C. causes dissolved Oxygen levels in-
crease.
B. It’s predators don’t like eating an ani-
mal that’s already been dead. D. causes bacteria populations decrease.

299. What’s sustainability? 304. the maximum population size that can be
sustained by a given environment
A. the ability of the environment to meet
the needs of organisms that live there A. carrying capacity
over long periods of time B. adaptation
B. the diversity of organisms present in a C. migration
particular ecosystem
D. impact
C. All of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
305. Pesticides are used to control ants. Ants
D. none of above
are food for many reptiles in the area.
300. Which does not describe a predator/prey What would happen to the biodiversity of
behavior? the area?
A. Dolphins working in a team to roundup A. The biodiversity would be negatively

a school of fish. affected.
B. An eagle soaring above a field looking B. The biodiversity would be positively af-
for a mouse. fected.
C. A polar bear walking on the sea ice C. There would be no change to the sus-
searching for a seal. tainability of the ecosystem.
D. No affect because reptiles can eat
D. A barnacle attaching itself to a whale.
other food.
301. Bio means
306. An organism that hunts and feeds on an-
A. non-living other animal
B. not/without A. predator
C. life B. prey
D. living C. producer
D. none of above
302. Which type of pollution can lead to harm-
ful “algal blooms”? 307. A tapeworm lives in human intestines ab-
A. thermal pollution sorbing the nutrients that would normally
be absorbed by the person. This eventu-
B. oil spills ally causes the person to experience health
C. nutrient pollution problems. This relationship is-
D. bacteria A. predator/prey
B. parasite/host
303. a group of organisms of the same kind
that can mate and produce offspring like C. herbivore/omnivore
themselves D. consumer/producer
A. species
308. In multicellular organisms, tissues are
B. organism comprised of
C. living A. organs
D. nonliving B. systems

C. cells C. creation of new ecosystems

D. blood D. all of the above

309. Allowing liquids to pass through, such as 314. an animal that hunts and eats other ani-
water through the ground mals
A. permeable A. prey
B. pollution B. consumer
C. impermeable C. producer
D. yup, you know it D. predator
310. Rabbits eat grass. If the grass in one 315. Your Unit 5 Test is on !!!
area is burned, what will most likely hap-
A. Friday
pen to the rabbits?
B. Sunday
A. There will be fewer rabbits.
C. Thursday
B. There will be more rabbits.
D. Tuesday
C. The number or rabbits will stay the
same. 316. an animal’s total surroundings; all the liv-
D. The rabbits will learn to eat something ing and nonliving elements or conditions
else. that affect an animal’s life
A. environment
311. What is a producer?
B. habitat
A. an organism that gets energy from eat-
ing other organisms C. ecosystem
B. an organisms that uses sunlight to D. shelter
make its own food
317. A hurricane hits coastal prairie and de-
C. an organism that gets energy from eat- stroys the habitat. Years later there is
ing dead organisms, non-living material or an appearance of small plants with rapidly
waste spreading roots on newly formed coastal
D. none of above sand dunes. The vegetation describes-
A. a microhabitat
312. Because they must eat to get energy, het-
erotrophs are also called B. primary succession
A. autotrophs C. secondary succession
B. producers D. biodiversity
C. consumers 318. Production of sex cells. (uterus, ovaries,
D. decomposers testes)
313. What impact do humans have on ocean A. Integumentary

systems? B. Endocrine
A. overfishing C. Reproductive
B. dumping site for trash D. none of above

319. Check all the examples of secondary suc- 324. Struggle between organisms of the same
cession. or different species for food, space, light,
A. A forest is completely destroyed in a water, etc.
fire A. Interdependence
B. A new island is created by a hotspot in B. Natural Selection
the ocean C. Adaptation
C. A tornado completely destroyed a crop D. Competition
NARAYAN CHANGDER
of corn
D. a glacier retreats exposing the bed 325. the physical appearance and body struc-
rock. tures of an organism such as size, shape,
color, body covering
320. What is the correct representation of en- A. organism
ergy flow through an ecosystem?
B. physical characteristics
A. consumers → producers → sun
C. predator
B. sun → consumers → producers
D. prey
C. autotrophs → heterotrophs → sun
326. Control of water balance and chemical
D. sun → autotrophs → heterotrophs
makeup of blood. (kidneys, bladder,
321. Break down food for absorption into the ureters)
blood. (mouth, stomach, intestines) A. Uninary
A. Skeletal B. Skeletal
B. Digestive C. Muscular
C. Circulatory D. none of above
D. Muscular 327. Which is a difference between abiotic and
322. An area where an organism lives? biotic factors?
A. abiotic factors are plants and biotic
A. mutualism
factors are animals
B. prey
B. biotic factors are plants and abiotic
C. habitat factors are animals
D. niche C. abiotic factors are all living things and
E. parasitism biotic factors are all nonliving things
D. abiotic factors are all nonliving things
323. Which event would most likely cause an and biotic factors are all living things
ecosystem to have the lowest biodiversity
and population sizes 3 years later? 328. An organism that gets energy by eating
A. Clearing land for a highway other organisms
B. A river floods a cornfield A. producer
C. A forest fire destroys the plant growth B. consumer
D. A lava flow creates a new section of C. decomposer

land D. none of above

329. If farmers use a controlled burn to pre- 334. Support and protection of soft body parts.
vent forest fires, what would most likely (bones, tendons)
be the first plants to return?

A. Skeletal
A. trees B. Digestive
B. shrubs C. Circulatory
C. mosses D. none of above
D. grasses
335. What is an adaptation that allows an an-
330. Birds eat shrimps and other crustaceans. imal to protect itself by looking like an-
What is the feeding relationship? other kind of animal or a plant called?
A. Birds are consumers and shrimp are A. copycat

producers. B. mimicry
B. Shrimp are parasites and birds are the C. camouflage
hosts. D. habitat
C. Birds are the prey and shrimps are the
336. Organisms that BREAKDOWN dead pro-
predators.
ducers and consumers such as mold, fun-
D. Birds are the predators and shrimps gus, bacteria and worms.
are the prey.
A. Producer
331. What are ways that animal groups help B. Parasite
one another survive? (Check all that ap-
C. Decomposer
ply.)
D. Consumer
A. hunt in packs
B. confuse predators 337. Which of these is NOT a biotic factor
C. test water temperature A. temperature

B. fungi
D. cope with change together
C. plants
332. A living thing that breaks down waste
D. animals
and plant and animal remains for its source
of energy (food) 338. Which is the initial source of energy in
A. predator most ecosystems?
B. consumer A. sunlight
C. decomposer B. decomposers
D. producer C. nutrients in soil

D. oxygen in the air
333. What is algal bloom?
339. Exchange of gases between blood and
A. Plants bloom early down stream
the environment. (nose, mouth, lungs, tra-
B. Water becomes cloudy chea)
C. Too much of nutrients A. Respiratory
D. Extremely rapid growth of algae B. Digestive

C. Circulatory 345. things that do not grow, change and re-

produce, such as rocks, water, soil, miner-
D. none of above
als, air and sunlight
340. In Which environment would a white rab- A. species
bit be best protected from predators? B. adaptation
A. A shady forest C. living
B. A snowy field D. nonliving
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A grassy lawn 346. What is the place where an organism
D. A muddy riverbank lives and can find everything it needs to
survive called?
341. What are groups of different populations A. habitat
living togther in the same place at the
same time called? B. trait
A. An organism C. hotel
D. forest
B. A population
C. A community 347. Which statement explains why the en-
ergy flow in a food chain is in one direc-
D. A biosphere tion?
342. About how much percent of energy is A. Decomposers recycle nutrients for
passed on from one organism to to the plants.
next on a food web pyramid. B. Energy is not recycled.
A. 100 percent of all energy gets passed C. Plants convert light energy to chemical
energy.
B. 45 percent of all energy gets passed
D. The number of organisms decreases
C. 10 percent of all energy gets passed at each level in the food chain.
D. 0 percent of all energy gets passed
348. Industrial waste containing non-
343. What can happen to fish when there is biodegradable substance left in a pool of
not enough oxygen in the water? water and a person eating a fish of that
water, showing signs of toxicity is a typi-
A. They can suffocate cal example of:JH Critical
B. They can’t float A. biological multiplication.
C. They can’t see. B. biological magnification.
D. Nothing. Fish don’t need oxygen. C. accidental care of toxicity.
D. not fish but the person showing toxic
344. Eutrophication is
effect.
A. too few nutrients in a body of water.
349. Which organisms do not get their energy
B. too many nutrients in a body of water. by eating other organisms?
C. high acid levels in a body of water. A. consumer
D. high alkalinity levels in a body of water. B. decomposer

C. herbivore 355. A community of organisms and the inter-

D. producer actions within the community

A. environment
350. The more diverse an ecosystem is
A. the more threatened its populations B. habitat
are C. ecosystem
B. the more similar the species will be D. interaction
C. the more sustainable it is
356. Organisms that eat other organisms (het-
D. the fewer varieties of species are
erotroph).
present
A. Producer
351. the capacity to endure. In ecology, this
word describes how biological systems re- B. Parasite
main diverse and productive over time C. Consumer
A. biodiversity
D. Scavenger
B. habitat
C. microhabitat 357. What is a physical characteristic of a per-
son, plant or animal called?
D. sustainability
A. trait
352. How do producers obtain energy?
B. body part
A. They conduct photosynthesis.
C. habitat
B. They consume plants.
C. They consume primary consumers. D. adaptation
D. They consume secondary consumers. 358. You are sweating in the hot humid air,
and you see all kinds of colorful plants and
353. When a tree falls into a dense forest,
insects everywhere you look. In which
what changes are likely to take place?
biome are you in?
A. Lichens and moss inhabit the area.
A. Tundra
B. The rate of erosion increases.
C. Saplings and small plants grow better
in the sunlight. C. Desert
D. There is a marked decrease in the D. Taiga
amount of available oxygen.
359. Put the levels of organization in an
354. Which is a biotic limiting factor that
ecosystem in order from the largest to the
would influence the growth of a deer pop-
smallest.
ulation?
A. population, organism, community
A. a forest fire
B. high temperatures B. organism, community, population
C. amount of plant growth C. community, population, organism
D. amount of monthly rainfall D. community, organism, population

360. A tree has fungi growing on one side. 365. What’s genetic variation?
What are fungi, and what are these organ- A. DNA
isms doing?
B. Differences that occur in individuals
A. Fungi are producers. They are making within a species
their own food.
C. Your mom
B. Fungi are scavengers. They are eating
D. none of above
the dead parts of the tree.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Fungi are producers. They are provid- 366. Which of the following describes a
ing the tree with food. change to an abiotic factor of a squirrel’s
habitat that could be harmful to it?
D. Fungi are decomposers. They are de-
composing a part of the tree. A. increase in the population of food
plants
361. An animal that eats other animals is a B. drought that depletes available water
A. carnivore C. deforstation leading to reduced nest-
B. omnivore ing sites
C. herbivore D. increase in the population of local
predators
D. decomposer
367. Producers are generally found at the be-
362. Organisms that creates its own food ginning of afood chain. Which statement
through photosynthesis or chemosynthe- best explains why thisis true?
sis.
A. Producers are usually smaller in size
A. Cell Membrane thanconsumers.
B. Cell Wall B. Producers do not rely on other organ-
C. Autotroph isms forfood.
C. There are always more consumers
D. none of above
thanproducers in food chains.
363. Which biome features permanently D. Consumers are always more complex-
frozen soil called permafrost? organisms than producers.
A. Coniferous Forest 368. An animal that gets energy from eating
B. Deciduous Forest both plants and animals is a
C. Desert A. herbivore
D. Tundra B. carnivore
C. omnivore
364. which of the following is an example of
an abiotic factor. D. autotroph
A. rose bush 369. Which level of ecological organization

is composed of many similar ecosystems
B. water
with the same climate and geographic lo-
C. grass cations?
D. rabbit A. A community

B. A population B. Raccoonswould begin eating land

C. A biome plants.

D. A biosphere C. Raccoonswould have less aquatic ani-
mals to eat.
370. A hurricane hits a coastal prairie and de- D. Raccoons would only drink water.
stroys the habitat. Years later there is
an appearance of small plants with rapidly 375. Organisms adapt in order to
spreading roots. A. survive and reproduce
A. secondary succession B. die
B. biodiversity C. immigrate
C. a microhabitat D. none of above
D. primary succession
376. Sometimes a species that is introduced
371. Bacteria that live on the deep ocean floor to an area grows quickly and crowds out
are able to survive without- organisms that were already living there.
What is this introduced species called?
A. water
A. native species
B. energy
B. protective species
C. sunlight
C. invasive species
D. nutrients
D. beneficial species
372. describes the way food passes from one
organism to another 377. First organisms to live in an area.
A. requirements for life A. primary succession

B. climax community
B. survival
C. pioneer species
C. food web
D. none of above
D. food chain
378. (7.12B) When people run long distances,
373. You are in a forest where trees shed their
their muscles require increased amounts of
leaves and grew new ones each yearIn
oxygen. Which system is responsible for
which biome are you in?
carrying this oxygen to the muscles?
A. Tundra
A. Nervous
B. Respiratory
C. Deciduous Forest C. Digestive
D. Desert D. Circulatory
374. Raccoons eat aquatic animals. If chemi- 379. Which of the following is a population?
cals entered the lake with rain water and
destroyed the plants, how would this im- A. hawks, barred owls, and eagles on NC
pact the raccoon population? coast
A. Raccoonswould have more aquatic an- B. mountain stream

imals to eat. C. all the frogs in a pond

D. blue-tailed skinks (lizards) around a D. The different tribes that live in a habi-
barn tat
380. The circulatory system uses to deliver 385. How has the plastic debris that humans
oxygen to the rest of the body. have dumped in the oceans impacted this
A. blood cells environment?
B. lungs and nose A. The plastic has created new ecosys-

tems for organisms to live in.
C. blood vessels
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. The plastic has created a new environ-
D. brain and spinal cord ment for harmful bacteria to colonize.
381. Surrounds all cells, lets materials in and C. It is ugly, but not harmful.
out of the cell, protects the cell, and holds D. The plastic will eventually break down
the cell together. and not effect the ecosystem.
A. Cell Membrane
386. Wastes produced by agriculture, house-
B. Cell Wall holds, industry, mining, and other human
C. Autotroph activities can end up in
D. none of above A. groundwater
B. streams and rivers
382. The role or function or job of a species in
a community. C. oceans
A. habitat D. All of these choices
B. diet 387. Identify the examples as:a organ-
C. niche ism, population, community, or ecosys-
tem.Chicken, Cow, Grass, Buffalo, and
D. ecosystem Mouse living on farmland.
383. Put the levels of organization in an A. Organism
ecosystem in order from the LARGEST to B. Community
the SMALLEST.
C. Population
A. population, organism, community
D. Ecosystem
B. organism, community, population
C. community, population, organism 388. A has the physical adaptation of a
hard shell to help it survive.
D. community, organism, population
A. Eagle
384. What does the word ‘distribution’ B. Turtle
mean?
C. Leopard Seal
A. Where organisms are found in a habi-
tat. D. Viceroy Butterfly
B. The total number of organisms living in 389. Which would result in primary succes-
a habitat. sion?
C. The different species that live in a habi- A. volcano destroying habitat leaving only
tat. soil and ash

B. Tornado destroying a crop leaving very 395. The special features which enable living
little soil organisms to survive in their surrounding
is known as

C. Glacier retreating exposing bare rock
A. habitat
D. limiting factors
B. adaptation
390. What is a characteristic in how an animal
C. abiotic
acts to survive in its environment called?
D. none of above
A. behavioral adaptation
B. mimicry 396. An animal’s total surroundings; includes
all the living and non-living elements or
C. physical adaptation conditions that affect an animal’s life
D. habitat A. environment
391. the role that an organism plays in its habi- B. habitat

tat C. ecosystem
A. niche D. shelter
B. organism
397. the environment where an organism lives
C. adaptation
A. nonliving
D. habitat
B. living
392. Jelly like material inside all cells. C. habitat
A. Vacuole D. niche
B. Cytoplasm 398. When viewing Food Webs, the arrows
C. Eukaryotic show what?
D. none of above A. The flow of energy to the organism do-

ing the eating.
393. What is prey? B. The flow of energy to the organism be-
A. An organism that is consumed ing eaten.
B. An organism that consumes C. The way to follow the food web.
C. Neither D. Which organism will be eaten next.
D. An organism that hunts 399. Light Energy → Producer → Consumer

→ Second Level Consumer → Top Con-
394. Site of cellular respiration in all cells and sumer → Decomposer. This is an example
releases energy from food. of a
A. Mitochondria A. Food Web
B. Chloroplast B. Food Chain
C. Prokaryotic C. Level of Organization
D. none of above D. Food Pyramid

400. What best describes the term succes- 405. What is responsible for delivering oxy-
sion? gen and removing carbon dioxide from the
A. rapid changes that create an ecosys- body?
tem overnight A. cell nucleus
B. gradual changes over time to fully cre- B. excretory system
ate or restore and ecosystem
C. nervous tissue
C. forest with the tallest trees
D. respiratory system
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. the rate species produce offspring
406. What are all members of one kind of or-
401. Plants in a food web are: ganism that live in a particular area?
A. consumers A. population
B. decomposers B. microrganisms
C. producers C. community
D. suppliers D. environment
402. This process in the nitrogen cycle involves
407. What is an example of an ecosystem?
bacteria in the ground combining ammonia
with oxygen to form nitrates. A. a deer
A. Nitrogen Fixation B. a group of deers, the sun, rabbits, the
lake, the soil, a bird, a tree
B. Nitrification
C. a group of deers
C. Denitrification
D. a group of deers, rabbits, a bird, and a
D. Ammonification
tree
403. Horses get energy by eating grass and
oats. Florida panthers get energy from 408. Movement of the body, attached to the
eating deer and raccoons. Raccoons get en- bones. (muscles, tendons)
ergy by eating frogs and fruit. Bobcats get A. Uninary
energy by eating lizards and birds. Which
B. Digestive
animal is a herbivore?
C. Muscular
A. bobcat
D. none of above
B. horse
C. panther 409. The purpose of a food chain is to show:
D. raccoon A. the flow of energy through an ecosys-
tem.
404. Humans breeding two organisms for de-
sired traits. B. the number of organism in an ecosys-
tem.
C. how animals compete for food in an
B. GMOs ecosystem.
C. Selective Breeding D. the organism living near each other in
D. none of above an ecosystem.

410. Which of the following is NOT a consumer C. an ecosystem that is n secondary suc-
A. grass cession

B. dog D. an ecosystem with a climax community
C. shark 415. Which of these environments is most

likely to experience the arrival of a pio-
D. fish
neer species?
411. As you move up from one trophic level to A. A mature forest
another, why is only 10% of energy from
B. An undisturbed prairie
the previous level passed on?
C. An established mountain lake
A. producers get 100% of the energy
D. A newly formed volcanic island
B. it’s lost as heat and to perform life
functions. 416. Meat-eating desert reptiles depend on
C. primary consumers keep misplacing which of the following biotic factors to sup-
the rest. ply their needs?
D. none of these A. daytime temperature ranges above 30

degrees celsius
412. Plants that have deep roots, which ex- B. condensation of moisture on plants for
tend, are able to reach cooler regions drinking water
and absorb water that the roots of other
C. small animals in their habitat on which
plants can’t reach. This adaptation is ex-
they feed
pected in a habitat with which of the fol-
lowing climatic conditions? D. plants that bear fruits during the sum-
mer months
A. A Cool and sunny
B. B Hot and arid 417. Series of predictable changes that occurs
in a community over time?
C. C Wet and cloudy
A. Ecological Succession
D. D Cold and dark
B. Biodiversity
413. Organisms, such as vultures, that FEED C. Adaptation
on dead animals.
D. Competition
A. Producer
418. The sea water gets polluted mainly due
B. Scavenger
to:
C. Consumer
A. Industrial waste.
D. Parasite
B. Oil spills.
414. Which of these types of environments ex- C. Death of marine fauna
periences the LEAST change in the total D. None of these
number and type of species over time?
A. an ecosystem with only pioneer 419. The disappearance of all members of a
species species from the Earth is called
B. an ecosystem that is in primary succes- A. endangered

sion B. dinosaurs

C. extinction 425. Click on all the abiotic factors

D. Hide-and-seek A. Rabbit
420. What’s an adaptation? B. soil
A. A change in structures/behaviors that C. water

improves an organism’s ability to survive D. sunlight
B. I don’t know
426. A material used by living things for
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Is water wet growth and other life functions is a
D. Yes A. consumer
421. What is the role of algae in an ocean food B. producer
web? C. nutrient
A. producers
D. food chain
B. decomposers
427. Fleas and ticks are examples of what?
C. primary consumers
A. predators
D. secondary consumers
B. prey
422. a structure or behavior that helps an or-
ganism survive in its surroundings C. hosts
A. nutrient D. parasites
B. adaptation 428. Which of the following lists the levels

C. environment of organization in an environment in order
from smallest to largest?
D. habitat
A. population, organism, community,
423. The heart pumps blood to the lungs, al- ecosystem
lowing the blood to become oxygenated
B. organism, community, population,
and then carrying the oxygen to the cells
ecosystem
within the body. This describes a key inter-
action between what two body systems? C. organism, population, community,
ecosystem
A. endocrine and skeletal systems
D. ecosystem, community, organism,
B. circulatory and respiratory systems
population
C. digestive and circulatory systems
D. nervous and respiratory systems 429. All of the student, faculty and staff at
Hazelwood West high school are consid-
424. Another name for a consumer is a ered what level of organization?
A. heterotroph A. A population
B. autotroph B. A community
C. producer C. A biome
D. plant D. An ecosystem

430. An interconnected set of food chains 435. The main purpose of the system is to
break food particles into pieces that can be
A. impact
used.

B. food web A. circulatory
C. camouflage B. respiratory
D. habitat C. digestive
D. skeletal
431. What is a group of ecosystems that share
similar climates and types of organisms 436. Example of a decomposer
called?
A. fungus
A. A community B. mouse
B. A biome C. plants
C. An ecosystem D. frogs
D. A biosphere 437. If a kestrel (type of bird) eats a mouse
that eats grass, the kestrel
432. Students observe a bare field. Which of
the following are the students likely to ob- A. producer
serve first? B. secondary consumer
A. Growth of shrubs and trees C. primary consumer
B. formation of topsoil D. decomposer
C. mature grassland community 438. an organism that makes its own food
D. Growth of grasses and weeds A. consumer
B. scavenger
433. The process of building the gas, nitrogen,
C. producer
into compounds of ammonia is called
D. decomposer
A. Combustion
439. If climate change affects an ecosystem,
B. Nitrification
what will happen to the organisms that
C. Decomposition don’t change?
D. Nitrogen Fixation A. they will form a new ecosystem
B. they can disappear
434. Which of the following situations con-
tributes to the sustainability of an ecosys- C. they are unaffected
tem? D. human development
A. Increase in biodiversity 440. In a pyramid of numbers, what does the
B. Decrease in biodiversity top of the pyramid represent?
A. carnivores
C. Extinction of a population from the
ecosystem B. decomposers
D. Removal of many populations of organ- C. herbivores
isms D. Sun

441. When a baby kitten becomes an adult cat, C. secondary succession

this is an example of D. biodiversity
A. energy metabolism
446. A plant that gets too much might die.
B. growth and development Choose all that apply.
C. response to stimuli A. Water
D. having cells B. Sun
442. What contributes to the sustainability of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Soil
an ecosystem? D. Insects
A. Increase in biodiversity
447. How does secondary succession help re-
B. Decrease in biodiversity
store equilibrium to a region destroyed by
C. Extinction of a population a flood?
D. Removal of many populations of organ- A. It increases the number and types of
isms species.
443. Which best describes an example of cam- B. It brings back species from extinction.
ouflage? C. It stops other floods from occurring.
A. Blackberries that are segmented D. It decreases the rate of evolution.
B. Parrots of strong wings to fly
448. An organism that needs sunlight, water,
C. Viceroy butterflies look like monarch and carbon dioxide to make its own food
butterflies is a
D. Leopard seals have dark coats on their A. consumer
backs to blend in
B. producer
444. Why is carbon dioxide important for C. nutrient
plants?
D. food chain
A. Carbon dioxide gives plants their
green color. 449. An animal that is dependent on other or-
ganisms for food is a
B. Plants can release carbon dioxide into
the air. A. consumer
C. Plants use carbon dioxide to make B. producer
their own food. C. nutrient
D. Carbon dioxide lets plants absorb their D. food chain
roots.
450. Gas produced by cells during respiration;
445. A hurricane hits a coastal prairie and plants use it in photosynthesis to make
destroys the habitat. Years later, there food
is an appearance of small plants with
rapidly spreading roots. This vegetation A. oxygen
describes- B. carbon dioxide
A. a microhabitat C. water
B. primary succession D. hydrogen

451. The water found in cracks and pores in C. Organisms to live in a forest canopy
sand, gravel and rocks below the surface D. Trees to grow in an area that has been

A. sediment disturbed
B. ground water 457. All living organisms in an environment?
C. ocean water A. mutualism
D. surface water B. biotic factors
452. The living organisms in an ecosystem C. habitat
such as plants and animals D. niche
A. adaptation E. parasitism
B. biotic
458. All living things get energy directly or in-
C. decomposer directly from
D. abiotic A. Earth’s Core
453. Living or once-living organisms in an B. Water
ecosystem are called C. Plants
A. abiotic factor D. The Sun
B. biotic factor
459. What is a carnivore?
C. non-living
A. an animal that gets energy by eating
D. life other animals
454. Which of the following groups are abi- B. An animal that gets energy by eating
otic? only plants
A. bird, fish, tree, frog C. an animal that gets energy by eating
B. shark, manatee, fly, lizard both plants and animals
C. water, shark, tree, soil D. an animal that makes its own energy
through photosynthesis
D. water, sun, 98 degrees, soil
460. Which two biomes have the least precip-
455. In a forest ecosystem, 18 gray wolves itation?
live together. These 18 wolves make up a
A. tropical rain forest and temperate
grasslan
A. population
B. savanna and tropical dry forest
B. species
C. tundra and desert
C. habitat
D. boreal forest and temperate woodland
D. community
461. Cells that have a nucleus such as humans.
456. Pioneer species are the first
A. Vacuole
A. Trees that replace the original trees af-
ter a forest fire B. Cytoplasm
B. Organisms to live in previously unin- C. Eukaryotic

habited areas D. none of above

462. Most conservation biologists agree that 467. All of the following are requirements for
the greatest single threat to global biodi- life except
versity is
A. water
A. water and air pollution
B. money
B. human activities causing global cli-
mate change C. shelter
C. the destruction of alteration of physi- D. air
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cal ecosystems
468. The 8 levels of classification, most broad
D. the over-exploitation of certain to most specific . (From largest to smallest
species )
463. What might happen if you remove a pri- A. Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class,
mary consumer from the ecosystem? Phylum, Kingdom, Species
A. There would be more food for sec- B. Species, Kingdom, Domain, Genus,
ondary consumers. Phylum, Family, Class, Order
B. The number of primary consumers C. Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Or-
would increase. der, Family, Genus, Species
C. The number of plants would increase.
D. Order, Kingdom, Domain, Species, Phy-
D. The number of secondary consumers lum, Family, Class, Genus
would increase.
469. How do lichens contribute to primary suc-
464. What is it called when a group of the cession?
same organisms living together in the
same place at the same time? A. Lichens decompose organic matter
from animals and plants
A. An organism
B. Lichens begin to break down rock to
B. A population
form soil
C. A community
C. Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria
D. A biome
D. Lichens convert carbohydrates into
465. an animal with a backbone fossil fuels.
A. prey
470. What is the most likely adaptation for a
B. vertebrate rabbit which once lived in the snow but
C. predator now lives in shrubs and rocks due to in-
creased global temperature?
D. invertebrate
A. they will see an increase in fur produc-
466. Which option is abiotic? tion
A. Plants B. they will become better swimmers
B. Bacteria C. they will grow longer ears
C. Water D. their coats will become darker due to
D. Fungi natural selection

471. How is disease affected by a population’s 476. What is an example of a biotic factor?
density? A. skunk

A. A population density has no effect on B. rocks
the spread of disease. C. soil
B. As population density increases, the D. water
spread of disease is increased.
477. Plants rely on animals to produce carbon
C. As population density increases, the dioxide. What do plants produce that ani-
spread of disease is decreased. mals need to survive?
D. As population density decreases, the A. food and oxygen
spread of disease is increased.
B. sunshine and rain
472. What’s an ecosystem? C. carbon dioxide and food
A. Your mom D. herbivores and carnivores
B. Tide Pods 478. An organism that makes its own food is

known as a
C. All of the living & nonliving things inter-
acting in an area A. decomposer
B. first level consumer
D. Only living objects
C. second level consumer
473. Place where an organism lives. D. producer
A. biodiversity 479. Cell theory does not include the idea that:
B. limiting factor A. all living things are made of cells
C. habitat B. like cells carry similar functions
D. sustainability C. cells use energy from food to sustain
life
474. Identify the examples as:a organism, D. all cells in all the organisms of the
population, community, or ecosystem.A same species carry the exact same ge-
beautiful butterfly. netic traits
A. Organism 480. The smallest level of ecological organiza-
B. Population tion is called
C. Community A. Organism
B. Tissue
D. Ecosystem
C. Ecosystem
475. A has the physical adaptation of cam- D. Organ System
ouflage to help it survive.
481. An underground water supply is
A. Leopard Seal
A. erosion
B. Eagle B. river
C. Turtle C. water shed
D. Viceroy Butterfly D. aquifer

482. How do plants get their food? 487. Give some examples of abiotic and biotic
factors
A. Plants get their food from minerals.
A. Your mom
B. Plants use energy from the sun, air
and water to make food. B. Tide Pods
C. Plants get their food from dead plants C. 21 people

and animals. D. Rocks
D. Plants get their food from soil.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
488. An adaptation to protect itself by looking
like another kind of animal or plant is
483. Storage areas in all cells and is usually
larger in plant cells. A. Mimicry
A. Vacuole B. Habitat
C. Traits
B. Cytoplasm
D. Population
C. Eukaryotic
D. none of above 489. The role of a pioneer species in primary
succession is to change a bare habitat into
484. The unique role or job of an organism in one that is suitable for other organisms. A
an ecosystem. species that is responsible for primary suc-
cession in an ecosystem is most likely able
A. abiotic to-
B. biotic A. survive any predator
C. niche B. migrate during the winter
D. none of above C. live at high altitudes
D. carry out photosynthesis
485. What is a BIOME?
A. A biome is an entire community of liv- 490. Variety of life
ing organisms in a large geographic area. A. Natural Selection
B. a biome is an entire community living B. Ecological Succession
species in a single major area C. Interdependence
C. a biome is an entire community of liv- D. Biodiversity
ing organisms in a lot of major area
491. An ecosystem with great biological diver-
D. A biome is and entire community of liv- sity decreases-
ing organisms in a little bit of a major area
A. available space for organisms in the
486. Which inherited traits do animals have? ecosystem
Select all that apply. B. available food supply for organisms in
A. The habitats they live in the ecosystem
C. the number of species present in the
B. The color of their fur
ecosystem
C. The amount of food they eat
D. competition between different species
D. The number of limbs they have in the ecosystem

492. The majority of the energy an organism 497. Which ecosystem would be more likely to
receives gets “lost” through the following survive if a disease killed the grasses?
EXCEPT:

A. The forest ecosystem, because most
A. as movement of the animals can eat other organisms
B. as heat B. The grassland ecosystem, because
several predators compete for food
C. as undigested waste removed from
the body C. The forest ecosystem, because it has
three top predators
D. as broken down nutrients
D. The grassland ecosystem, because it
493. Students observe ecological succession of has many herbivores
a field that has been left bare. Which of
498. the place where a plant or animal finds
the following are the students likely to ob-
its needs to survive
serve first?
A. ecosystem
A. Growth of shrubs and trees
B. population
B. Formation of topsoil
C. environment
C. A mature grassland community
D. habitat
D. Growth of grasses and weeds
499. Man-made, underwater structure, typi-
494. What is one way heterotrophs can obtain cally built for the purpose of promoting ma-
nitrogen from their environment? rine life in areas of generally featureless
A. eating plants bottom.
B. denitrifying bacteria A. artificial reef
C. inhaling it from the air B. overharvesting

C. biodiversity
D. absorbing it by drinking water
D. none of above
495. All of the different biotic organisms found
in the same area. 500. Which of the following best describes an
organism’s habitat?
A. Organism
A. The abiotic factors that an organism
B. Population depends on.
C. Community B. The other organisms in its population.
D. Ecosystem C. The biotic factors that an organism de-
pends on.
496. Organisms such as mushrooms, bacteria,
worms and ants that get energy by break- D. The biotic and abiotic factors that an
ing down other dead organisms. organism depends on.
A. scavengers 501. If a decline of the nitrogen-fixing bacteria

took place worldwide, what would MOST
B. consumers
LIKELY be the result?
C. decomposers
A. a decrease in usable oxygen world-
D. carnivores wide

12.3 Population Ecology 1154
B. an increase in the total amount of ni- A. The species would become overpopu-
trogen worldwide lated.
C. a decrease in usable nitrogen world-
B. The chance of young hares surviving
wide
to adulthood and reproducing would be
D. an increase in the uptake of usable ni- greatly diminished.
trogen by plant life
C. The hare would be a popular target for
502. In question #1, what would happen if game hunters.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the arctic hare did not have these specific
traits? D. All of the above.
12.3 Population Ecology

1. An organism gets food, water, shelter, D. Mortality
and other things it needs to live, grow, and E. Density
reproduce from its
A. population 5. A group of animals from the same species
living in the same area is called a
B. habitat
A. population
C. abiotic factors
B. group
D. species
C. habitat
2. What is the smallest unit of matter D. ecosystems
A. Atom 6. A non-native plant that causes problems
B. Molecule to the environment that it is introduced to
is called
C. Biomolecules
A. Invasive
D. Organelle
B. Weed
3. Which is NOT an example of secondary suc-
C. Indigenous
cession?
D. Purple
A. An abandoned baseball field becomes
forest 7. Which of the following is NOT included in
B. A farm is left and it becomes a prairie a typical age structure diagram?
C. volcanic rock becomes tropical forests A. the population’s sex ratio

B. the relative numbers of people in dif-
D. a forest regenerates after being lost
ferent age groups
to a large forest fire
C. the population’s historical growth
4. Which of the following is NOT a factor that
D. the proportion of reproductive-ages in-
determines populations change?
dividuals
A. Immigration
8. Which of the following can contribute to
B. Emigration density-dependent regulation of popula-
C. Natality tions?

A. the removal of toxic waste by decom- 14. Which contributes to a positive population
posers growth?

B. intraspecific competition for nutrients A. immigration
C. earthquakes B. net positive birth rate
D. floods C. emigration
9. Factors that INCREASE the population D. net positive death rate
growth rate are
15. is a simple sugar that plants use for
A. births & immigration energy and as a building block for larger
B. deaths & emigration molecules.
C. births & deaths A. glucose
D. immigration & emigration B. photosynthesis
C. carbon dioxide
10. Groups of populations linked by immigra-
tion and emigration. D. chlorophyll
A. Metapopulations 16. What is the main difference between
B. Population Dynamics primary and secondary ecological succes-
C. K-Selection sion?
D. R-Selection A. Primary begins WITHOUT soil; Sec-

ondary begins WITH soil
11. Burmese Pythons are in the Florida Ev- B. Primary is the first state and sec-
erglades ondary is the second stage
A. Native C. Primary builds plant community; sec-
B. Natural ondary builds animal community.
C. Invasive/Introduced D. Primary begins WITH soil; Secondary
D. Dancing begins WITHOUT soil
12. What is the dispersion pattern of herding 17. Population Growth Rate of the world pop-
animals, birds that flock together, and fish ulation is measured most easily by using
that form schools? which of the following formulas?
A. clumped A. Birthrate-Death Rate
B. random B. Birthrate + Death Rate
C. uniform C. Immigration + Death Rate
D. unpredictable D. Emigration-Immigration
13. Species that are non-native to an area are 18. The first plants to grow after a fire are
called species. called
A. population A. climax community
B. invasive B. succession community
C. limited C. pioneer species
D. density-independent D. seeds

19. Which of the following statements explain D. ecosystem, community, population, or-
natality? ganism
A. The number of birth per thousand indi- 24. The interaction between two different or-
viduals in the population in a year ganisms in which one captures and feeds
B. The number of mortality per thousand upon the other-
individuals in the population in a year
A. Parasites
C. The number of eggs produced in a re-
B. Predation
productive cycle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Age Structure
D. The number of offspring produced by
the individual female per unit time. D. Density
20. a is an event that removes organisms 25. Which of the following describes the popu-
and opens up space which can be colonized lation size as the competition of resources
by individuals of the same or different increases?
species A. increase of both populations
A. disturbance B. decrease of both populations
B. succession C. stays the same for both populations
C. pioneer species D. one population increases and the
D. niche other decreases
21. A living thing that ONLY eats meat 26. Which will remove more organisms from a
A. Carnivore population?
B. Omnivore A. 10 animals born
C. Herbivore B. 0 animals born
D. Consumer C. 6 animals immigrate to the population
22. Organisms actively hunting other organ- D. 4 animals emigrate from the popula-
isms are called what? tion
A. Predation 27. Which factor is a density-independent lim-

B. Prey iting factor?
C. Predator A. mate availability
D. none of above B. contagious disease
C. nesting sites
23. Which of the following lists the levels
of an ecosystem in order from largest to D. tornado frequency
smallest?
28. Starts with bare rock followed by the
A. population, organism, community, growth of lichen:
ecosystem
B. ecosystem, community, organism,
population B. secondary succession
C. organism, community, population, C. meta succession

ecosystem D. ecological succession

29. When the size of a population changes be- C. 10%

cause individuals move in, it is called D. 1%

A. immigration
34. Which of the following would be an exam-
B. emigration ple of population density of Hong Kong?
C. visiting A. 7, 134 persons per km2
D. rude B. 7.5 million people
C. 0.7% annually
30. The biotic potential
D. 1.20 births per woman
A. varies from one species to another.
35. If the number of births in a population is
B. is controlled by the timing of the first
higher than the number of deaths in a pop-
reproduction
ulation, what will happen to the growth of
C. is controlled by the number of off- the population?
spring produced
A. it will increase
D. all of these. B. it will decrease
31. A population’s emigration in one month to- C. it will stay the same
taled 2 individuals. During the same pe- D. it will fluctuate
riod, immigration was 12 individuals. Na-
tality (births) was 8, and mortality was 36. Natural disasters can be considered limit-
15 due to a parasite infection. What was ing factors.
the net effect on the population size? A. true:density independent limiting fac-
A. +5 tors
B. false; natural disasters are not limit-
B. +3
ing factors
C. 0
C. true:density dependent limiting fac-
D. -4 tors
32. Which is the correct order of ecological lev- D. false:because Mrs. Shinlever said
els from basic to complex? 37. The lion is the natural predator of the ze-
A. Individual, population, ecosystem, bio- bra. If the zebra population drops, what
sphere, community will likely happen to the lion population?
B. individual, community, ecosystem, A. drop
population, biosphere B. thrive
C. Individual, population, community, C. be unaffected
ecosystem, biosphere D. decrease, then increase exponentially
D. Ecosystem, biosphere, community, 38. What letter is used to symbolize carrying
population, individual capacity?
33. How much energy is transferred when an A. K
organism consumes its food? B. L
A. 90% C. J
B. 50% D. S

39. When exponential growth is slowed and 44. Species that produce a few, often fairly
brought to a standstill by limiting factors large offspring but invest a great deal of
we call this all of the following EXCEPT time and energy to ensure that most of
A. S-shaped curve those offspring reach reproductive age.
B. life history theory A. population ecology
C. logistic growth B. natural selection
D. none of above C. r-selected species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. k-selected species
40. The study of populations in relation to the
environment, including environmental in- 45. What factor describes when populations
fluences on population density and distri- increase because animals are moving into
bution, age structure, and variations in a population?
population size. A. Emigration
A. population density B. Limiting Factors
B. population ecology C. Immigration
C. population distribution D. Exponential Growth
D. population size
46. Extinction is when a species
41. Which of the following are examples of a
A. moves to a new region
density independent factors? Select three.
B. becomes threatened
A. forest fire
C. was never in an area
B. climate change
D. completely disappears
C. severe flooding
D. disease 47. A lion and a cheetah attempt to occupy the
same niche. The more aggressive lion sur-
E. prey
vives; the cheetah does not.
42. Living factors or organisms that affect an A. Density-Dependent:Competition for
ecosystem food, water, shelter
A. abiotic factors B. Density-Independent:Competition for
B. species food, water, shelter
C. trophic level C. Density-Dependent:Predator-Prey
D. biotic factors D. Density-Independent:Predator-Prey
43. When a population reaches its carrying ca- 48. What happens when a population grows
pacity past the carrying capacity? (select all that
A. The birth rate is greater than the death apply)
rate A. Resources may be depleted
B. The birth rate is less than the death B. A population crash may occur
rate C. All the newborn, old, and diseased in-
C. The birth rate and death rate flucuate dividuals die
around the same amount D. The population gradually continues to
D. none of above increase

49. How fast a specific population grows 55. What will happen to the population when
A. dispersion the death rate is larger than the birth
rate?

B. population density
A. grow
C. population growth rate
B. shrink
D. density-independent factor
C. stay the same
50. Which of these is an r-strategist? D. None of these
A. human 56. An organism that hunts another organism
B. elephant as a source of energy is called a
C. spider A. prey
D. chimpanzee B. producer
C. herbivore
51. The amount of people living in a given area
is described as population D. predator
A. expectancy 57. What term describes when a population
B. morality reaches its maximum number that the en-
vironment can support?
C. density
A. Abiotic capacity
D. rate
B. Maximum growth level
52. Which factor will negatively affect biodi- C. Carrying capacity
versity? D. Exponential capacity
A. habitat loss
58. The number of organisms per unit of area
B. climate change is called
C. pollution A. population density
D. all of the above B. growth rate
53. Temperature, light, air, water, soil and cli- C. density factor
mate are all parts of the environment. D. random spacing
A. biotic 59. Nonliving components of environment.
B. abiotic A. limiting factors
C. living B. population size
D. boreal C. biotic factors
54. Which type of survivorship describes ele- D. abiotic factors
phants with high parental care, low death 60. A is a type of consumer that hunts
rate of young, and long life spans? other organisms.
A. I A. predator
B. II B. prey
C. III C. detritivore
D. does not apply D. omnivore

61. Which of the following is TRUE of preda- 66. Most organisms exhibit a population
tor/prey relationships? distribution.
A. The amount of prey does not affect the A. random
number of predators.
B. uniform
B. Herbivores are limited by the number
of prey in an ecosystem. C. clumped
C. Humans are not considered predators. D. good
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The number of predators is deter-
67. What is it called when a population’s num-
mined by available prey.
bers get too large for the environment to
62. Which of the following is a density- support it so the population adjusts to its
dependent factor? carrying capacity?
A. Rainfall A. Exponential growth
B. Flood B. Logistic growth
C. Disease C. Natality
D. Natural Disasters
D. Emigration
63. Which factor would be considered density
independent? 68. What are two ways do decrease a popula-
tion’s growth rate?
A. an intestinal parasite
A. Mortality and Natality
B. a fatal virus
C. a severe drought B. Mortality and Emigration
D. severe overcrowding C. Natality and Immigration
64. The pH of the water in several lakes in D. Immigration and Emigration

Norway and Sweden had decreased to be-
69. Water lilies do not grow in desert sand be-
low 5.0 due to an increase in acid rain.
cause water availability to these plants in
Which of the following is most likely to
a desert is
happen in these lakes?
A. the decline of several fish populations. A. a limiting factor.
B. an increase in numbers of fish B. a competition factor.
C. an increase in the amount of primary C. the logistic growth curve.
producers
D. the carrying capacity.
D. increased predator-prey relationships
70. This diagram shows the population of a
65. Which biome contains large populations of
country broken down by gender and age
grazing herbivores, few species of birds,
groups-
and deep, rich soil?
A. Age Structure
A. taiga
B. tundra B. Density
C. deciduous forest C. Carrying Capacity
D. grassland D. Exponential

71. Select all the items here that are abiotic 76. A guinea worm is introduced into a human
factors. by a flea vector. It grows up to 3 feet long
inside the person causing pain and suffer-

A. Sand
ing.
B. Plants
A. commensalism
C. Sunlight
B. parasitism
D. Bacteria
C. predator/prey
E. Elk
D. herbivory
72. Biotic or abiotic things that control the size
of a population 77. A certain population of mice is growing ex-
ponentially. The population growth rate
A. Limiting factor
(PGR) of the population (r) is 200% and
B. density-dependent factor the current population size (N) is 2, 500
C. density-independent factot individuals. How many mice are added to
the population each year?
D. tolerance
A. 1250
73. If a population of geese is sampled by sci-
B. 2500
entists and is found to be experiencing
growth, then which of the following is ac- C. 500
curate? D. 5000
A. Deaths outnumbered births every year
of the study. 78. All the zones of Earth’s soil, water, and air
where living organisms are found.
B. Births outnumbered deaths, on aver-
age, over the period studied A. Biosphere
C. The birds are growing to a larger size B. Shelter

each year C. Habitat
D. There is no limit to the population size D. Ecosystems
74. The study of the vital statistics of a popu- E. Biomes
lation and how they change over time.
79. Populations of species are described as
A. Mark-Recapture Method
A. density
B. Population Ecology
B. spatial distribution
C. Life Tables
C. growth rate
D. Demography
D. all of the above
75. Which of the following organisms would
be the best to use QUADRAT sampling to 80. A population of fish is growing exponen-
estimate the population size? tially. The growth rate of the population
is 2.0 and the current population size is
A. wolves 2, 500 individuals. How many mice are
B. whales added to the population each year?
C. dandelions (wish flowers) A. 500
D. sea turtles B. 1000

C. 2500 C. W-shaped
D. 5000 D. U-shaped
81. Population will have this kind of growth 86. If 50 mice live in an area of 5 square miles,
unless some limiting factors (like food, wa- what is the population density?
ter, space or predation) slows the popula- A. 50 mice/sq mi
tion growth.
B. 10 mice/sq mi
A. Logistical growth
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 5 mice/sq mi
B. Exponential growth
D. 250 mice/sq mi
C. Carrying capacity
D. Fecundity 87. The maximum number of organisms that
an environment can support over along pe-
82. A population of deer grows from 100 to riod of time is referred to the
200 to 600, and when it gets to 600,
A. dispersion
it levels off. This population must have
reached B. age structure
A. exponential growth. C. demographics
B. carrying capacity D. carrying capacity
C. logistic growth 88. What is a plot of the number of individu-
D. exponential capacity als that are still alive at each age in the
maximum life span? Hint:it is one way to
83. Occurs when the birth rate is equal to the represent age-specific mortality
death rate.
A. mortality rate
A. Exponential Population Growth
B. survivorship curve
B. Carrying Capacity
C. population ecology
C. Logistic Population Growth
D. life history traits
D. Zero Population Growth
89. When organisms move out of the popula-
84. Honey guide birds alert and direct badgers tion, this is known as
to bee hives. The badgers then expose the
A. emigration
hives and feed on the honey first. Then the
honey guide birds eat. B. abandonment
A. mutualism C. immigration
B. commensalism D. succession
C. predation 90. A group of individuals of the same species
D. competition living in the same area is a/an
85. Which best describes the graph of logistic A. population

growth? B. community
A. S-shaped C. ecosystem
B. J-shaped D. biome

91. Ecology is the study of the 96. Which of these is a way in which biodiver-
A. abiotic parts of the environment, such sity benefits ecosystems?

as climate, air, and soil A. It makes ecosystems better able to
B. biotic parts of the environment, such survive climate changes
as animals and plants B. It reduces the number of species that
C. interactions between organisms must be supported
D. interactions between organisms as C. It prevents genetic variability within
well as the interactions between organ- species
isms and their environment
D. It doesn’t benefit ecosystems
92. This type of species puts energy into re-
production not survival. 97. Humans are dependent on biodiversity for
A. r-selected A. Medicine
B. k-selected B. Food
C. s-selected C. Building material
D. j-selected D. All of the above
93. Why do communities have different types 98. a plot that shows how the initial exponen-
of organisms? tial growth of a population is slowed and
A. to have variety finally brought to a standstill by limiting
B. to support each other factors
C. to survive A. logistic growth curve

D. none of above B. natural selection
C. ecosystem ecology
94. is the relationship between two
species in which one member benefits and D. r-selected species
the other is neither benefited nor harmed
99. The amount by which a population’s size
A. parasitism
changes in a given time-
B. commensalism
A. Growth rate
C. yourmamaism
B. Immigration
D. mutualism
C. Emmigration
95. The reason that organisms cannot produce
populations of unlimited size is that D. Age structure
A. Populations always stay exactly the 100. Which of the following factors would be
same. considered density independent
B. The resources of Earth are limited. A. Scarce food source
C. There is no carrying capacity for the
B. Predation
whole Earth.
C. Avalanche
D. Species rarely compete with each
other for food. D. Competition for resources

101. A model of population growth in which B. uniform

growth slows or stops following a period C. random
of exponential growth-
D. v-formation
A. J-Shaped curve
B. S-Shaped curve 107. Which is a density-independent factor for
a flock of Canada geese on a large lake?
C. U-Shaped curve
D. O-Shaped curve A. unusually cold weather
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. intestinal worms
102. Limiting Factors might include all of the
following except: C. infectious virus
A. Adaptations D. dwindling food supply
B. Temperature extremes 108. limiting factor that affects all populations
C. Food in similar ways, regardless of population
D. Disease size
E. Predators A. density dependent factors

B. density independent factors
103. is the role played by (occupation or
profession) and the address of a particu- C. r-selected species
lar species in its ecosystem; D. extinction
A. niche
109. What would most likely be the benefit of
B. habitat the moose on Isle Royale being distributed
C. distribution randomly and solitary along the island?
D. ecosystem A. they rely on their pack for protection
104. The most common kind of dispersion in B. they are less likely to be preyed upon
nature is by the wolves
A. clumped C. they are more likely to be preyed upon
by the wolves
B. uniform
D. they just like their space
C. random
D. inderminate 110. What are some ways LDCs can reduce
their expected population increase?
105. The number of individuals per unit area.
A. Establish or strengthen family plan-
A. Population density
ning programs.
B. Population distribution
B. Provide education to reduce desire for
C. Population large families.
D. Population growth C. Delay the onset of having children.
106. Organisms that have heavy predation D. Establish social programs to help large
usually use this means for population dis- families.
persion. E. Give tax incentives to family with more
A. clumped than one child.

111. Which limiting factor is density indepen- 116. Which of the following is a density-
dent? independent factor (does NOT depend on
population)?

A. competition
B. disease A. Rainfall
C. natural disasters B. Food
D. none of above C. Predation

D. Shelter
112. J-Shaped curves or the “Hockey Stick”
looking graph 117. What happens when a population nears
A. show a decline after an increase carrying capacity?
B. display populations that have reached A. Resources become scarce.
carrying capacity B. Disease spreads less easily.
C. represent exponential growth C. Resources become abundant.
D. does not depend on the number of re- D. Density independent factors increase.
sources
118. Sea otters live in the ocean. Which of the
113. Which of the following is NOT an outcome
following is NOT likely to be a limiting fac-
of high population density?
tor on the sea otter population?
A. mortality increase
A. disease
B. predators tend to ignore prey that is
B. competition
overabundant
C. drought
C. reduction in births
D. predation
D. decreased resource availability
114. Enter the following data into the Popula- 119. In a population in which the fertility rate
tion Growth Rate Formula PGR = ( + )-( averages two children per female (replace-
+ )birth rate = 50, 000immigration = 40, ment rate), the continuation of population
100death rate = 20, 000emigration = 5, growth as girls reach their reproductive
000 years is defined as
A. 50, 000 A. coevolution
B. 60, 000 B. population momentum
C. 65, 100 C. mortality rate

D. 70, 100 D. speciation
115. When death rate is equal to birth rate 120. A group of tissues that work together is
a(n)
A. population increases
A. cell
B. population decreases
B. organ
C. population stays the same.
C. organ system
D. population rapidly increases then be-
comes stable D. organism

121. The individuals of a population with high C. causes environmental or economic

biotic potential tend to be damage
A. small D. is always intentionally introduced
B. slow growers 127. The largest population that an area can
C. large support is called its
D. voracious eaters A. limiting factor
B. food source
122. The way in which individuals of a popula-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion are spread out is called C. carrying capacity
A. population density D. ecosystem
B. survivorship 128. What is an example of an area that is
C. population dispersion likely to undergo primary succession?
D. logistic curve A. Glaciers melt and leave exposed rock
B. Plants die from drought and decom-
123. This measures the number of individuals
pose
in a population per unit of area.
C. Land is bulldozed and soil remains
D. none of above
B. Population Size
C. Population Growth 129. The carrying capacity for a population
varies, depending on the species and the
D. Biodiversity available in the habitat.
124. In a forest ecosystem, which of the fol- A. resources
lowing is the best example of a limiting B. invasive species
factor for a squirrel population?
C. density independent factors
A. sunlight
D. space
B. snake population
130. What is defined as the evolutionary
C. nuts available
change in which an adaptation in one
D. grass available species leads to a counter-adaptation in a
second species?
125. Movement of individuals into a popula-
tion A. coevolution
A. community ecology B. intraspecific competition
B. species C. invasive species
C. population D. life history trait
D. immigration 131. Non-living factor that affects an ecosys-
tem
126. All of the following describe an invasive
species EXCEPT: A. biotic factor
A. non-native species B. abiotic factor
B. has spread beyond the original intro- C. food chain
duction point D. biome

132. Sometimes also called dispersion, this de- 137. A group of organisms of the same species
scribes how organisms are spread out or in a given area
arranged within an area.

A. population
A. Population Density B. community
B. Spatial Distribution C. ecosystem
C. Population Growth Rate D. biome
D. Geographic range
138. Which of the below is a density depen-
133. Select all that apply:Which of the follow- dent limiting factor.
ing are biotic factors? A. Amount of food
A. Rocks B. Natural Disasters
B. Water C. Humans
C. Moss D. none of above
D. Bacteria
139. No two species can occupy the same niche
134. Which of the following equations summa- A. Competitive Exclusion Principle
rizes population growth?
B. Limiting Exclusion Theory
A. immigration-emigration
C. Competitive Limiting Principle
B. (immigration + births) + (emigration
+ deaths) D. Limiting Competitive Theory
C. births-deaths 140. The number of individuals the environ-
D. (immigration + births)-(emigration + ment can support over a long period of
deaths) time-
A. Carrying Capacity
135. You do a study on elephants and find that
there are eight elephants per acre. This is B. S-shaped curve
a measurement of C. Density-Dependent Factors
A. demographics D. Age structure
B. dispersal 141. The number of individuals per unit area is
C. density the definition of which?
D. survivorship A. Population distribution
136. Which of these is NOT true of an R se- B. Population density
lected species? C. Survivorship type 1
A. They have large clutch sizes in repro- D. Survivorship type 2
duction.
142. What is species diversity?
B. They often show up early in succes-
sion. A. the different animals in an area
C. They often have gestation periods B. the different habitats in an area
longer than 6 months. C. the different plants in an area
D. They reach sexual maturity quickly and D. the different living things (plants and
their mother’s do not take care of them. animals) in an area

143. grow slowly over time, cares for its 148. Which of the following determines where
young over a long period of time and is an organism lives?
usually near the carrying capacity of its A. limiting factors
ecosystem.
B. resources
A. K-strategists
C. survivorship
B. R-strategists
D. biotic potential
C. Uniform strategists E. distribution patterns
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. environmentalists
149. Life tables are most useful in determining
144. Demography is the study of which of the following?
A. the vital statistics of populations and A. carrying capacity
how theychange over time B. the fate of a cohort of newborn organ-
B. death and emigration rates of a popu- isms throughout their lives
lation at anymoment in time C. immigration and emigration rates
C. the survival patterns of a population. D. population dispersion patterns
D. life expectancy of individuals within a 150. Another word for the birth rate is
population.
A. natality
145. An environmental factor such as storms B. mortality
and extreme heat or cold that decrease a C. fataliy
population are considered to be.
D. fertility
A. density-dependent factor
151. Populations of different organisms living
in an area
C. dispersion A. species
D. density-independent factor B. community
146. Which dispersion pattern usually is a re- C. niche
sult of resources not being evenly spread D. biome
out in the environment?
152. What factor describes when populations
A. Uniform decrease because animals are moving out
B. Random of a population?
C. Clumped A. Emigration
D. None of these B. Limiting Factors
C. Immigration
147. Which of the following characterizes rel-
atively K-selected populations? D. Exponential Growth
A. offspring with good chances of survival 153. (Im)migration is
B. many offspring per reproductive A. the movement into an area
episode B. The movement out of an area
C. small offspring C. The migration process
D. a high intrinsic rate of increase D. exponential graph

154. A city has a population of 8792 people. 159. This is the number of individuals that a
The area of the city is approximately 6.5 habitat can sustain with the resources that
square miles. Approximately, how many is has available.

people per square mile live in the city? A. density-dependent; density-independent
A. 57148
B. 208 B. limiting factors
C. 1353 C. carrying capacity
D. 135 D. dispersion
155. The sum total of all organisms in an area, 160. The movement of individuals away from
taking into account the variety of species, a population
their genes, their populations, and their A. emigration
communities, is called B. immigration
A. genetic diversity C. dispersion
B. species diversity D. population density
C. biodiversity
161. The carrying capacity of a population is
D. ecosystem diversity determined by its
156. Graph showing the number of survivors A. Population growth rate
in different age groups for a particular B. Death rate
species.
C. Birth rate
A. artificial selection D. Limiting resources
B. survivorship curve
162. Which of the following represent abiotic
C. carrying capacity factors that affect an environment?
D. population density A. Fish, trees, and bacteria
157. What event in the mid-1700s sig- B. Alligators, ferns, and snakes
nificantly changed human population C. Temperature, wind, and soil type
growth?
D. Birds, mushrooms, and insects
A. Industrial Revolution
163. When two male lions fight over a lady
B. Bubonic Plague lion this is competition.
C. Human settlement A. Exploitative
D. Agricultural Revolution B. Intraspecific
158. Which is an example of a biotic factor C. Interspecific
that would limit the size of a deer herd? D. Bullying
A. Populations of predators
164. A species form that supports an entire
B. Severe summer droughts ecosystem.
C. Lack of oxygen at high altitudes A. Keystone Species
D. Heavy winter snowfalls B. Herbivores

C. Umbrella Species 169. J-Shaped curves

D. Predators A. show a decline after an increase
B. display populations that have reached
165. In the logistic equation, r is a measure of
carrying capacity
the population’s intrinsic rate of increase.
It is determined by which of the follow- C. represent exponential growth
ing? D. does not depend on the numbe rof re-
A. birth rate and death rate sources
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. carrying capacity 170. The maximum number of individuals of a
C. dispersion given species the environment and commu-
nity can support.
D. density
A. Carrying capacity
166. These organisms typically live in unsta-
B. Limiting factors
ble, unpredictable environments & are able
to reproduce rapidly (exponentially). They C. Resources
do not take care of their young & are sub- D. Growth curve
ject to predation.
A. k-strategist 171. Which is a characteristic of exponential
population growth?
B. r-strategist
A. Growth rate is inversely proportional
C. m-strategist to population size.
D. s-strategist B. The lag phase follows rapid growth.
167. These organisms occupy stable environ- C. Resources are consumed exponen-
ments, are larger in size and have longer tially during all phases.
life expectancies. They produce, during D. Initial population growth is rapid.
their life spans, fewer offspring, but place
a greater investment in each. 172. Males vs Females
A. k-strategist A. Sex Ratio
B. r-strategist B. Generation Time
C. m-strategist C. Age structure
D. s-strategist D. none of above
168. Using resources in way that does not 173. How an organism or group of organ-
cause long-term environmental harm is isms protect their territory from compet-
called ing species that live in the same area.
A. sustainability. A. Territoriality
B. monoculture. B. Emigration
C. biological magnification. C. Immigration
D. subsistence hunting. D. Demography

174. What is an invasive species? C. ecosystem-community-population-

A. an organism that IS native to an organism

area and causes harm to the environ- D. population-organism-community-
ment/humans ecosystem
B. an organism that is NOT native to an
area and causes harm to the environ- 179. When the birthrate of a population ex-
ment/humans ceeds its death rate, the population
C. an organism that is NOT native to an A. decreases

area and helps the environment/humans B. increases.
D. an organism that IS native to an area C. stays the same.
and helps the environment/humans
D. increases then decreases
175. This increases when new individuals ei-
ther are born or immigrate and decreases 180. The rate of natural increase in a popula-
because deaths or emigration tion can be calculated using the following
A. density formula:
B. empty A. birth rate minus death rate
C. death B. birth rate divided by limiting factors

D. cherry coke C. carrying capacity minus limiting fac-
tors
176. The arrangement of a population in it’s
environment D. immigration rate minus emigration
rate
A. population density
B. dispersion 181. In logistic population growth, the popula-
tion will most likely stop growing at what
C. carrying capacity
size?
D. population growth rate
A. Growth limit
177. An organism that produces its own food B. Exponential limit
supply from inorganic compounds is called
a(an) C. Carrying Capacity
A. heterotroph D. It won’t stop growing

B. consumer 182. Which of the following populations is
C. detritivore most likely to go extinct?
D. autotroph A. a very small population in an unstable
environment
178. What is the correct order of the levels of
ecological organization? B. a moderate-sized population of r
strategists
A. organism-population-community-
ecosystem C. a large population with lots of genetic
variability
B. organism-community-ecosystem-
population D. all would be equally likely to go extinct

183. Rate of increase or decrease of a popula- C. great news for its prey of
tion D. no impact found on
A. biosphere
B. growth rate a density-independent limiting factor?
C. generalists A. A parasite
D. specialists B. A natural disaster
C. A decrease in prey
NARAYAN CHANGDER
an animal using chemical communication? D. A food shortage
A. pheromone production 190. In order for organisms to live in any envi-
B. social grooming ronment, the environment must have
C. making an alarm call A. resources
D. showing teeth as a sign of agression B. limiting factors
C. few organisms
185. Species that only reproduce once before
death. D. biotic potential
A. Semelparity (Big Bang Reproduction) 191. Population ecologists group these factors
into two different categories:
B. Iteroparity (Repeated Reproduction)
A. density-dependent; density-independent
C. K-Selection
D. R-Selection
B. fecundity-dependent; density-
186. As a population grows, it will most likely independent
stop growing at what size? C. dispersion-dependent; density-
A. Growth limit independent
B. Exponential limit D. limiting factors-dependent; density-

independent
C. Carrying Capacity
192. Which of the following characteristics are
D. It won’t stop growing
used to classify biomes?
187. What will happen to the population when A. Climate
the death rate is larger than the immigra-
B. typical plant life
tion rate?
C. typical animal life
A. grow
D. all of the above
B. shrink
193. The study of energy flow and the cycling
C. stay the same
of chemicals among the various biotic and
D. None of these abiotic components in an ecosystem.
188. If the population of a certain predator in- A. exponential growth
creases, there is often its prey B. ecosystem ecology
A. a decrease the population of C. population ecology
B. an increase of the population of D. r-selected species

194. Measurement of population size involved 199. The most important factor that deter-
the factors below except mines the population growth of an organ-
ism is its

A. Natality
A. social pattern
B. Biotic potential
B. reproductive pattern
C. Mortality
D. Immigration D. feeding pattern
195. Why would an area be sparsely popu- 200. The organism that does the killing in a
lated? predation interaction
A. lack of natural resources A. Predator
B. land is covered with ice B. Prey
C. Competition
C. land cannot be developed
D. Adaptation
D. all of the above
201. What happens when an environment
196. Choose the phrase that correctly finishes reaches its carrying capacity?
this statement:“A species is “ A. Populations will decrease
A. a specific part of the abiotic environ- B. Populations will increase
ment C. Populations will increase
B. a way of describing all the living parts D. none of above
of an ecosystem
202. Groups of different species living in the
C. a group of organisms that can success- same area at the same time
fully mate with each other and reproduce
A. ecosystems
D. part of the natural decomposing mate-
B. biosphere
rials in soil
C. communities
197. Which of the following is NOT an exam- D. populations
ple of a Type III survivorship species?
203. a layer of permanently frozen subsoil
A. mosquitoes found in the tundra
B. frogs A. percolation
C. guppies B. permafrost
D. mice C. oceanic zone
D. marsh
198. All the organisms belonging to the same
species within an area at the same time. 204. An age-specific summary of the reproduc-
tive rates in a population.
A. Population
A. Sponsorship Curve
B. Community B. Demography
C. Ecosystem C. Life History
D. Cohort D. Reproductive Table

205. Mark all of the following that are TRUE C. It will stay the same
of population density and population size D. It will take over the world
A. density is the number of organisms in
210. Any abiotic factor or biotic factor that re-
a given area
stricts the numbers, reproduction, or dis-
B. there can be a group that has the high- tribution of organisms .
est population, but not the highest density A. Limiting Factor
C. united states has the highest popula- B. Tolerance
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tion density of humans of any country
C. Carrying Capacity
D. population size is the total number of
D. Growth
organisms
211. The number of individuals per unit area
206. If 300 blue jays are found in a 20 hectare or volume.
plot, what is the density in blue jays?
A. Population
A. 15 bluejays/hectare
B. Cohort
B. 6 bluejays/hectare C. Dispersion
C. 6, 000 bluejays/hectare D. Density
D. 20 bluejays/hectare
212. Occurs when the growth rate is propor-
207. growth whose rate becomes ever more tional to the size of the populations.
rapid in proportion to the growing total A. Logistical growth
number or size. B. Exponential growth
A. exponential growth C. Carrying capacity
B. ecosystem ecology D. Fecundity
C. artificial selection 213. Natural selection has led to the evolu-
D. survivorship curve tion of diverse natural history strategies,
which have in common
208. Population density is
A. many offspring per reproductive
A. the number of individuals in a popula- episode.
tion B. limitation only by density-independent
B. how close individuals live in a popula- limiting factors.
tion C. adaptation to stable environments.
C. how many young are produced in a D. maximum lifetime reproductive suc-
population cess.
D. the number of individuals per unit area 214. Which of the following is a density-
in a given location independent factor limiting human popula-
209. If the birthrate is greater than the tion growth?
deathrate, what will happen to the size of A. social pressure for birth control
the population? (birthrate > deathrate) B. earthquake
A. It will increase C. plagues
B. It will decrease D. famines

215. The largest number of individuals in a C. bacteria

species that an environment can support
D. water
long term

A. carrying capacity 221. The point in which an area cannot hold
B. emigration any more individuals in an area is called
its what?
C. immigration
A. carrying capacity
D. population density
B. capital capacity
216. Why don’t populations grow indefi-
nitely? C. carrying capability
A. limiting factors D. limiting point
B. only biotic factors
222. A group of individuals of the same age.
C. only abiotic factors
A. Denisty
B. Cohort
217. Species that reproduce early in their life
span and produce large numbers of usually C. Dispersion
small and short-lived offspring in a short D. Territoriality
period.
A. artificial selection 223. Pattern of spacing in a population.
B. logistic growth curve A. Spatial dispersion
C. r-selected species B. Population ranges
D. k-selected species C. Exponential Growth
218. The role of an organism in its habitat is D. Logistical Growth
its
A. host 224. What type of factors represent the non-
living aspects of an environment?
B. prey
A. Abiotic
C. niche
B. Biotic
D. adaptation
C. Bacteria
219. Food, water, sunlight, shelter, and space
are resources that are often D. Protists
A. limiting factors
225. For most populations that are growing,
B. wet as resources start to become less avail-
C. messy able, the population
D. found in rocks A. declines rapidly.
220. Which is a biotic factor? B. reaches carrying capacity.

A. soil C. increases more rapidly.
B. air D. enters a phase of exponential growth.

226. Which are two ways a population can de- B. Food

crease in size? C. Space
A. Increased birthrate and immigration D. All of the Above
B. Decreased birthrate and emigration
232. aquatic ecosystem that does not con-
C. Immigration and emigration
tain any salt water, can be rivers, lakes,
D. Emigration and increased birthrate streams, ponds, and wetlands
A. freshwater
NARAYAN CHANGDER
227. A population will likely deplete the re-
sources of its environment if the popula- B. salt water
tion:
C. wetlands
A. decline in size
D. grasslands
B. grows beyond its carrying capacity
233. What are the 3 types of dispersion?
C. moves frequently from one habitat to
another A. Size, Density, Dispersion
D. has a low reproductive potential B. Groups, Couples, Single
228. Which of these is a k-strategist? C. Near, Far, Wherever you are
A. coconut tree D. Random, Clumped, Uniform
B. ant 234. How does the predator-prey relationship

C. dandelion affect a population?
D. salmon A. The predators and prey are in compe-

tition with each other.
229. The sea otter is a(n) that influences B. Usually either the predator or the prey
the survival of many other species in its will become extinct.
ecosystem.
C. The relationship controls the popula-
A. Cute furry creature tion size of both species.
B. endangered species D. The predator species usually has expo-
C. keystone species nential growth.
D. important animal
235. All of the species within an ecosystem
230. Which of the following could potentially A. Population
have global, not just local effects on biodi-
B. Community
versity?
C. Biome
A. invasive species
D. Ecosystem
B. pollution
C. habitat loss 236. Which of these is a biotic factor?
D. climate change A. Disease
231. Which of the following are limiting fac- B. sunlight

tors? C. water
A. Temperature D. Soil

237. the natural home or environment of an B. random distribution

animal, plant, or other organism. C. uniform distribution

A. habitat use D. varied distribution
B. biodiversity
243. You conduct a mark and recapture exper-
C. extinction
iment. You initially capture 20 cats and
D. habitat mark them. After a month, you collect 30
cats and 10 are already marked. What is
238. A population of bacteria with an unlim- the estimation for the population?
ited supply of nutrients will show
growth. A. 45
A. logistic B. 60
B. exponential C. 75
C. density dependent D. 90
D. density independent 244. Due to the introduction of Rainbow
Trout, Lake Winnipeg becomes crowded
239. What is richness?
and some fish species do not survive. This
A. The number of different species is an example of which of the following
present in an ecosystem factors?
B. How much money Mrs. Calkins doesn’t A. Density Dependent
have in her bank account
B. Density Independent
C. When there is an even number of
species present in an ecosystem C. Biotic Factors
D. When there are few species present in D. Death Rate Factors

an ecosystem 245. English natural scientist who formulated
240. The movement of individual into a a theory of evolution by natural selection
population- A. community ecology
A. Emmigration B. species
B. Immigration C. population
C. Exponetial D. Charles Darwin
D. Carrying Capacity
246. Which of the following describes the re-
241. High levels of biodiversity tend to sult of a negative r value?
A. have little or no effect on ecosystems A. The population size will double.
B. decrease an ecosystem’s resistance B. The population size with half.
C. make an ecosystem less resilient C. The population size will increase.
D. increase the stability of an ecosystem D. The population size will decrease.
242. Which of the following is not a population 247. Which of the following are examples of a
distribution pattern? density independent factors? (select 2-3)
A. clumped distribution A. forest fire

B. seasonal cycles C. exponential

C. storms D. none of above
D. disease
253. Which of these describes aestivation?
248. What type of factors influence the biotic A. daily decrease of metabolic rate to
potential of a population? conserve energy
A. Age and number of reproductive oppor-
B. seasonal decrease of metabolism to
tunities
NARAYAN CHANGDER
conserve energy
B. Number of offspring that survive until
C. inactivity due to drought
the age of reproduction
C. Amount of competition within the pop- D. extended period of rest from which an-
ulation imals can awaken easily
D. The number of mature females in a 254. The population growth pattern of a pop-
population ulation will not influenced by
249. All the living and non-living factors that A. severe climate changes
interact in an area B. availability of food
A. ecosystem
C. availability of space
B. carnivore
D. all of the above
C. niche
D. population 255. An organism that is killed and eaten by
another organism
250. Two male Giraffes are fighting over the
A. Predator
last green leaf of a tree that is dying.
A. Intraspecific Competition B. Prey
B. Mutualsim C. Competition
C. Predation D. Adaptation
D. Commensalism 256. species with broad niches
E. Interspecific Competition
A. biotic factors
251. A graphic way to represent the data in a B. emmigration
life table.
C. specialists
A. Sponsorship Curve
D. generalists
B. Reproductive Table
C. Demography 257. One way to measure the size of a popu-
D. Cohort lation is in terms of
A. Population
252. Type of growth that occurs under ideal
conditions? B. Population Density
A. predator-prey cycle C. Emmigration
B. logistic D. Carrying Capacity

258. To measure the population density of D. all of the above

monarch butterflies occupying a particu-
lar park, 100 butterflies are captured, 263. Which dispersion pattern is described by

marked with a small dot on a wing, and organisms being spaced out equally?
then released. The next day, another 100 A. Uniform
butterflies are captured, including the re- B. Random
capture of 20 marked butterflies. One
would estimate the population to be C. Clumped
A. 200 D. None of these
B. 500 264. When an environment has reached its

C. 1, 000 carrying capacity for a certain population,
which of the following is true?
D. 10, 000
A. Growth and immigration rate is equal
259. Number of individuals per unti area. to death and emigration rate.
A. Density-dependent factors B. Growth and immigration rate is
B. Density-independent factors greater than death and emigration rate.
C. Population growth rate C. Growth and immigration rate is less

than death and emigration rate.
D. Population density
D. Growth rate is exponential.
260. Why is only 10% of the energy passed
along to the next trophic level? 265. Which definition best matches the term
population density?
A. 90% is lost through heat, reproduction,
and movement A. human beings in general
B. 90% is gained B. number of people in a particular area
C. 90% is lost in light energy C. A measurement of people for a spe-

cific area
D. because only 10% is lost
D. All the inhabitants of a particular area
261. A term that typically describes a species
that no longer has any known living indi- 266. There are 200 bears in an area. 10 emi-
viduals. grate, 15 immigrate, 10 are born and 20
die. How many are left?
A. extinction
A. 195
B. communities
B. 205
C. emmigration
C. 200
D. biosphere
D. 260
262. How do populations and communities af-
fect one another? 267. These types of organisms which multiply
rapidly in numbers
A. animals in populations also live in com-
munities A. R-strategists
B. they cannot affect each other B. K-strategists
C. a change in a population can cause a C. predators
change in community D. mutualists

268. Which types of organisms show uniform C. immigration and births

dispersion?
D. emigration and deaths
A. Fish schooling in the ocean
B. Koalas hanging in trees 274. factor that limits a population more as
population density increases
C. Elephants in herds
A. density independent factors
D. Geese flying in a V
B. logistic growth curve
269. The number of organisms per unit of liv-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing area is called C. r-selected species
A. dispersion D. density dependent factors

B. population density 275. This may cause a population to increase
C. population range A. increase of food supply
D. none of above
B. removal of predators
270. symbiotic relationship in which one or- C. removal of disease
ganism benefits and the other organism is
harmed D. all of these
A. secondary succession 276. The average number of individuals per
B. predation unit of area or volume is called
C. pioneer species A. Population size
D. parasitism B. Population systematics
271. the practice and business of recreational C. Population density
travel based on concern for the environ- D. Population distribution
ment
A. extinction 277. What is the carrying capacity for rabbits
B. biodiversity of the park if the park can maintain 10 rab-
bits per square mile. The park is 5 square
C. habitat use miles.
D. ecotourism A. 50
272. An example of a density dependent fac- B. 15
tor
C. 5
A. Natural Disaster
D. none of above
B. Disease
C. Density Independent Factor 278. Which of the following are density depen-
dent factors? Choose all that apply.
D. Height of Individuals
A. competition for resources
273. Which of the following will i ncrease the
size of a population? B. predation
A. emigration and births C. disease
B. immigration and deaths D. natural disasters

279. population density is defined as 284. The factors keeping population growth in
A. the number of individuals of a species check are called

per unit area of a habitat A. limiting factors
B. the total number of species in each B. dispersion
square mile of an environment C. fecundity
C. each individual organism of a species D. density
in an area
285. A group of organisms of the same species
D. the total mass of a species per unit of
living in the same place at the same time
volume in a given area
is called a(n)
280. Which of the following is NOT a phase of A. ecosystem
logistic growth? B. population
A. lag phase C. community
B. exponential growth phase D. organism
C. deceleration phase
286. An age-specific summary of the survival
D. stable equilibrium phase pattern of a population.
E. carrying capacity phase A. Demography
281. Which of the following are density depen- B. Life Tables

dent factors? Select three. C. Sponsorship Curve
A. competition for resources (food, wa- D. Reproductive Table
ter, shelter)
287. Which kind of growth does the human
B. predation population follow? It is described as a J-
C. disease shaped curve.
D. natural disasters A. Exponential Growth
B. Logistic Growth
282. Which organism has an opportunistic life
C. Outstanding Growth
history?
D. Minimal Growth
A. mouse
B. lion 288. is the living together of two organ-
isms of different species
C. giraffe
A. symbiosis
D. gorilla
B. parasitism
283. A cell is C. predation
A. the basic unit of structure and function D. niches
in living organism
289. symbiotic relationship in which one or-
B. an organism
ganisms benefits and the other organism
C. a basic part of everything that we see is not affected
D. found only in animals, not plants A. invasive (non-native) species

B. mutualism 295. A remora attaches itself to a shark. The

C. nitrogen fixation shark is unaffected by the remora but the
remora conserves energy and agarner pro-
D. commensalism tection from the shark .
290. Occurs when two or more organisms seek A. commensalism
the same resource at the same time. B. parasitism
A. Competition C. predator/prey
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Symbiosis D. herbivory
C. Predation
296. These types of organisms which produce
D. none of above as many offspring as possible in a short
time.
291. The differences in DNA among individuals
within species and populations is called . A. r-strategists
A. species diversity B. K-strategists
B. genetic diversity C. predators
C. ecosystem diversity D. mutualists
D. general diversity 297. Generalists
292. Individuals within a population may have A. Have broad niches and eat limited
a dispersion pattern of random, uniform, things
or B. Have narrow niches and eat many
A. Close things
B. Far apart C. Have broad niches and eat many

things
C. Clumped
D. Have narrow niches and eat limited
D. Dependant things
293. Under ideal conditions with unlimited re- 298. A Factor that would increase the size of
sources, a population will have the population
A. linguistic growth A. Emmigration
B. experimental growth B. Death Rate higher than Birth Rate
C. exponential growth C. Birth Rate Higher than Death Rate
D. logistic growth D. Drought
294. Which is NOT an example of a limiting 299. Resources that fall between renewable
factor. and nonrenewable need to be used
A. Climate A. ethically
B. Available Food & Water B. sustainably
C. Available Space & Shelter C. with modeling
D. Species color D. in a controlled experiment

300. The place where an organism lives is C. immigration

called its D. demography

A. habitat
306. What type of distribution is the most
B. niche common among all organisms?
C. community A. Uniform
D. ecosystem B. Unmeasured
301. is the environment of an organism; C. Clumped
the place where it is usually found. D. Random
A. habitat
307. In ecological terms, the human population
B. distribution distribution is
C. niche A. Uniform
D. ecosystem B. Unmeasured
302. If a population grows larger than the car- C. Clumped
rying capacity of the environment, the D. Random
A. death rate may rise
308. A population of ground squirrels has an
B. birth rate may rise annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and
C. death rate must fall an annual per capita death rate of 0.02.
Estimate the number of individuals added
D. birth rate must fall to (or lost from) a population of 1, 000
303. What type of limiting factor increases individuals in one year.
its affect as the size of the population in- A. . 120 individuals added
creases? B. 40 individuals added
A. intense C. 20 individuals added
B. dispersion D. 400 individuals added
C. density independent
309. In a forest, the carrying capacity for
D. density dependent squirrels is about 100. If humans cut
down part of the forest to build houses,
304. How many phases does a logistic growth
what will happen to the carrying capacity
curve have?
for the squirrels?
A. 1
A. it will increase
B. 2
B. it will decrease
C. 3
C. it will stay the same
D. 4
D. none of above
305. The increase in population size by move- 310. If emigration is greater than the immigra-
ment is called tion, what will happen to the size of the
A. emigration population? (emigration > immigration)
B. growth rate A. It will increase

B. It will decrease 315. The study of the interactions among all

C. It will stay the same organisms and with their physical environ-
ment.
D. It will take over the world
A. Ecology
311. What is shown by an age structure dia- B. Demography
gram? C. Interactology
A. where people of different ages are lo- D. Population biology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
cated in an area
B. the death rates for males and females 316. A species that is not native to an area is
in each age group called:
A. Native Species
C. the total fertility rates for each age
group B. Natural Species
D. the number of males and females C. Invasive Species
there are in each age group D. Symbiotic Species
312. One of the factors that can change the 317. What pattern of growth will a population
size of population is with limited resources show?
A. Name of schools A. density-dependent
B. Number of dezs B. exponential
C. Jobs C. logistic
D. Numbers of births D. logical
313. Which of the following represents the 318. This is when the amount of offspring a in-
combination of all relevant environmental dividual can have in a lifetime changes the
variables in which a species or population population
lives? A. fecundity
A. clade B. density
B. hybrid zone C. dispersion
C. phylogeny D. all of the above
D. ecological niche 319. A group of individuals of the same species
living in the same general area is?
314. A small farming community in Texas cov-
A. Geographic distribution
ers 14 square kilometers. There are 1400
individuals who live within the town lim- B. Survivor ship curve
its. What is the population density of this C. Population
community?
D. Immigration
A. 20 individuals per square km
320. The idea that no two species can occupy
B. 100 individuals per square km
the same niche in the same habitat at the
C. 1000 individuals per square k same time is known as the
D. 40 individuals per square km A. Competitive Exclusion Principle

B. Limiting Exclusion Theory 326. All statements below are true about lo-
C. Competitive Limiting Principle gistic growth curve except

D. Limiting Competitive Theory A. Growth rate increase exponentially
B. Environmental resistance slowly in-
321. What do limiting factors do?
creases
A. Separate biotic and abiotic factors
C. Population growth is not limited
B. Determine who is the predator and
who is the prey D. Birth rate is equal to death rate at equi-
librium phase
C. Regulate how many individuals live in
a population 327. An ? is composed of the commu-
D. Determine when a natural disaster will nity of populations along with the abiotic
strike factors.
322. When the death rate rises and the birth A. ecosystem
rate lowers B. biosphere
A. population increases C. habitat
B. population decreases D. cohort
C. population stays the same
328. Which process do plants use to turn sun-
D. all of these light into food energy?
323. The study of how interactions between A. photosynthesis
species affect community structure and or-
B. cellular respiration
ganization
C. transpiration
A. immigration
B. community ecology D. evaporation
C. population 329. Which of the following is an example of
D. species a population?
324. If you are told the estimated number of A. all trees in a forest.
deer that live in the Chickamauga Battle- B. all plants in a forest.
field, this represents the population’s C. all maple trees in a forest.
A. Distribution
D. all animals in a forest.
B. Density
C. Growth Rate 330. You are observing a population of lizards
when you notice that the number of adults
D. Reproductive Potential has increased and is higher than previously
325. The per-capita rate of increase decline as observed. One explanation for such an ob-
carrying capacity is reached. servation would include
A. Exponential Population Growth A. reduction in death rate
B. Logistic Population Growth B. increased immigration
C. Population Dynamics C. decreased emigration
D. Carrying Capacity D. decreased emigration

331. This occurs when members of the popula- C. Logistic Growth

tion are reproducing at a constant rate- D. Invasive Species
A. Growth rate
336. A population’s per capita (per individual)
B. Exponetial growth rate stays the same regardless
C. Predation of population size, making the population
grow faster and faster as it gets larger.
D. Paracites
A. Exponential Growth
NARAYAN CHANGDER
332. Skyrocketing growth of the human popu-
B. Logistic Growth
lation since the beginning of the industrial
revolution appears to be mainly a result of C. Slow Growth
A. migration to thinly settle regions of the D. Quick Growth
globe 337. A group of individuals that interbreed and
B. the concentration of humans in cities produce fertile offspring is a common defi-
C. a drop in the death rate due to better nition for
nutrition and health care A. ecology
D. better nutrition boosting the birth rate B. species
C. population
333. Why is disease considered a density-
dependent environmental factor? D. community
A. Disease spreads easily in a low density 338. A species that reproduces in large quanti-
population. ties multiple times per year
B. Population density affects amount of A. Endemic
contact.
B. r-selected
C. Disease won’t spread in high density
C. k-selected
populations.
D. Extinct
D. Disease may be influenced by
weather. 339. In 2005, the United States had a popula-
tion of approximately 295, 000, 000 peo-
334. Related to birth rates and death rates. ple. If the birth rate was 13 births for
A. Population Growth Rate every 1, 000 people, approximately how
many births occurred in the United States
B. Density Dependent Growth
in 2005?
C. Density In-Dependent Growth
A. 3, 800
D. Population Ranges
B. 38, 000
335. A species’ average population size in a C. 380, 000
particular habitat. The species population D. 3, 800, 000
size is limited by environmental factors
like adequate food, shelter, water, and 340. Succession that occurs after a fire in an
mates. ecosystem is called
A. Carrying Capacity A. primary succession
B. Exponential Growth B. flame succession

C. secondary succession 346. What are two ways to add to a popula-

tion’s growth rate?
D. climax community

A. Mortality and Emigration
341. When species become extinct naturally, it B. Mortality and Natality
is called extinction.
C. Immigration and Emigration
A. complete
D. Natality and Immigration
B. mass
347. Which of the following groups would be
C. background
most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?
D. incomplete A. red squirrels, who actively defend ter-
ritories
342. A flowering plant has seeds that are car-
ried by the wind. Infer the most likely B. cattails, which grow primarily at edges
dispersion pattern of the plants that grow of lakes andstreams
from these seeds. C. dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize par-
A. uniform ticular speciesof forest tree
B. clumped groups D. moths in a city at night
C. random 348. Which of the following would have a low

biotic potential?
D. spatial
A. kangaroos
343. Which of these is a density-independent B. fish
limiting factor?
C. frogs
A. climate
D. squirrels
B. available food
349. Why are bees considered a keystone
C. available water species?
D. mates A. The honey they make supports the
bear population
344. What are some characteristics of less-
developed countries? B. They pollinate flowers that produce
fruit which supports the ecosystem
A. high standard of living
C. They sting when threatened
B. population growth is low
D. They live in hives
C. population growth is high
350. Barnacles create home sites by attaching
D. majority of people live in poverty. themselves to whales. This neither harms
nor benefits the whales. What kind of re-
345. the number of individuals in a population lationship is this?
A. population size A. Mutualism
B. abiotic factors B. Parasitism
C. population distribution C. Commensalism
D. population ecology D. none of above

351. The graph of logistic growth can be de- 357. When birth rate is high and death rate is
scribed as low
A. S-shaped A. population increases
B. J-shaped B. population decreases
C. W-shaped
C. population stays the same
D. U-shaped
D. all of these
352. Which of the following are density depen-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
dent factors? 358. Which of these would NOT be true of a
A. competition for resources specialist species?
B. predation A. They are more likely to go extinct dur-
C. disease ing changes to an ecosystem.
D. natural disasters B. They have a very narrow niche.
353. The number of individuals per unit area C. They often lose in competition for re-
determines the population’s sources to generalists.
A. density D. They often feed on a very specific diet.

B. distribution
359. What term describes the spacing of or-
C. growth rate ganisms relative to each other?
D. survivorship A. Density
354. A population that increases 5 percent ev- B. Dispersion
ery year is said to be experiencing
C. Size
A. exponential growth
D. Population
B. logistic growth
C. unlimited growth 360. What will happen to the population when
D. maximum growth the birth rate is larger than the death
rate?
355. A life form that affects an entire ecosys-
tem. A. grow
A. Keystone Species B. shrink
B. Herbivores C. stay the same
C. Umbrella Species D. none of above
D. Predators
361. Which of the following is not considered
356. The movement of organisms into a range a limiting factor?
is called
A. habitat size
A. immigration.
B. population shift. B. available food and water
C. emigration. C. predation
D. carrying capacity. D. climate

362. Which of the following is a limiting factor 367. This means that the population grows at
in a population of organisms a rate proportional to the size of the pop-
ulation.

A. reproductive replacement
B. life spans of the members A. exponential growth
B. limiting factors
C. fluctuations in atmospheric tempera-
ture C. dispersion
D. availability of food D. density-dependent; density-independent
363. What is population ecology? 368. Uniform spacing patterns in plants such
as the creosote bush are most often asso-
A. groups within a species & how they
ciated with
live together in 1 area
A. chance
B. groups within a species & how they
live together in 2 areas B. patterns of high humidity.
C. groups within a species & how they C. competitive interactions among indi-
live together in 3 areas viduals in thepopulation
D. groups within a species & how they D. the random distribution of seeds
live together in 4 areas
369. Species that are able to produce offspring
364. What is the movement of individuals into repeatedly before death.
a population called? A. R-Selection
A. Immigration B. K-Selection
B. Emigration C. Iteroparity (Repeated Reproduction)
C. Migration D. Semelparity (Big Bang Reproduction)
D. Capacity 370. different populations that live together in
a defined area
365. *A population’s per capita growth rate
gets smaller and smaller as population size A. biodiversity
approaches a maximum imposed by limited B. ecosystems
resources in the environment.
C. extinction
A. Exponential Growth
D. communities
B. Logistic Growth
C. Slow Growth
a renewable resources?
D. Quick Growth
A. gold
366. This is a group of individuals of one B. sunlight
species who interact regularly.
C. silver
A. population
D. fossil fuels
B. pepsin
372. The largest population size a given envi-
C. enzymes ronment can sustainably support is known
D. photosynthesis as its

A. limiting capacity A. There must be unlimited resources

B. logistic growth available.
B. There must be plenty of limiting fac-
tors.
D. biotic potential.
C. There can only be one dominant popu-
373. What is an indicator species? lation in an environment.
A. A species that is sensitive to environ- D. The rate of natural increase must be
more than 50%.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
mental conditions and is used to indicate
environmental conditions 378. Which of the following could potentially
B. A species that has no range of toler- increase apopulation size?
ance and thrives anywhere A. immigration
C. A species that is sensitive to man B. emigration
made conditions and thrives C. increased death rate
D. A species that is not sensitive to en- D. decreased birth rate
vironmental conditions and will consume
other species 379. The move from high birth and death rates
to lower birth and death rates when a re-
374. Individuals of a population who exit an gion becomes industrialized.
area. A. Population Dynamics
A. Immigration B. Density Dependent
B. Emigration C. Density Independent
C. Mitigation D. Demographic Transition
D. Lingation 380. The maximum number of individuals in a
species that a population can support for
375. Social animals typically show
the long term.
A. clumped dispersion.
B. uniform dispersion. B. Exponential growth
C. random dispersion C. Carrying capacity
D. scatter dispersion D. Fecundity
376. the process by which organisms use habi- 381. Often the growth cycle of one population
tats from among the range of options they has an effect on the cycle of another. As
encounter moose populations increase, wolf popula-
A. biodiversity tions also increase. Thus, if we are con-
sidering the logistic equation for the wolf
B. habitat population, , which of the factors accounts
C. extinction for the effect on the moose population?
D. habitat use A. N
B. r
377. In order for exponential growth to occur,
which of the following would have to be C. rN
true? D. K

382. Sea turtles and gorillas are endangered what would be this population’s rate of
because natural increase?

A. there are less than 500 left A. (500-300) / 10, 000 = 0.02
B. only one species of each remains B. (300-500) / 10, 000 =-0.02
C. they could go extinct throughout all or C. (500 + 300) / 10, 000 = 0.08
most of its range
D. 10, 000 / (500-300) = 50
D. they are likely to be on the endangered
list in the near future 387. What does it mean when a population
growth rate is below zero?
383. If angel fish produce hundreds of young
several times a year, which statement be- A. The birthrate is greater than the death
low is true? rate
A. Angelfish have a k-strategy reproduc- B. The birthrate is equal to the death rate
tive pattern C. Immigration is greater than emigra-
B. Angelfish have an r-strategy reproduction
tive pattern D. The birthrate is lower than the death
C. Angelfish probably have a low mortal- rate
ity rate
388. Which would be least likely to be affected
D. Angelfish provide a lot of care for their by a density-dependent limiting factor?
young
A. a small, scattered population
384. What is immigration?
B. a population with a high birthrate
A. Members of a species leaving the pop-
C. a large, dense population
ulation
B. Members of a species entering a pop- D. a population with a high immigration
ulation rate
C. Members of a species reproducing 389. All of the following populations would

D. Members of a species entering juxta- likely result in a uniform dispersion pat-
posed areas of inhabitance tern EXCEPT:
A. Lions of the Savanna
385. If 3, 400 maple trees are counted on
a 3km x 4 km rectangular patch of land, B. Nesting penguins on a small beach
wahat is the density of maple trees per C. Territories of bears in a forest
square kilometer?
D. Tropical Trees, of the same species, in
A. None of these a tropical rain forest
B. 283.3 maple trees/km2
390. Which of these is an abiotic factor?
C. 35.4 maple trees/km2
A. Predator
D. 1, 113 maple trees/km2
B. Disease
386. If there is a population of ducks with 10,
C. Parasite
000 individuals, and 500 ducklings were
born and 300 ducks died the same year, D. Sunlight

391. Any thing or organism that regulates the 396. What environmental factors are not de-
size of a population of another organism pendent on numbers of organisms per unit
is known as of area?
A. a limiting measure A. spatial factors
B. a limiting factor B. density-dependent factors
C. factorization C. density-independent factors

D. population factors
D. materialization of precipitation
NARAYAN CHANGDER
397. How many phases does an exponential
392. A is a group of organisms of one growth curve have?
species that interbreed and live in the
A. 1
same place at the same time.
B. 2
A. community
C. 3
B. ecosystem
D. 4
C. population
398. living parts of an ecosystem
D. biome
A. limiting factors
393. Competition for limited resource occurs B. biotic factors
between C. abiotic factors
A. individuals of different species D. specialists
B. population size of predator is larger 399. The estimate of the area of land and wa-
than prey ter required to provide the resources an
C. producers and consumers share same individual or a nation consumes is called
habitat A. an ecological footprint
D. population size increases slowly dur- B. biocapacity
ing lag phase C. global resources
394. the preservation, wise use, and protec- D. biodiversity
tion of natural resources 400. Which of the following would increase
A. conservation population size? mark all that apply
B. cooperation A. immigration
C. deciduous B. emigration
C. increased birth rates
D. desert
D. increased death rates
395. What is the number of individuals in an
401. What is the term for the distribution of
area called?
individuals in different age groups?
A. Population A. survivorship curve
B. Number B. population density
C. Community C. age structure
D. Size D. life history trait

402. Carrying capacity 407. Which of the following is not a density-

A. the maximum population growth rate dependent factor limiting a population
growth?

under ideal conditions
B. the change in the population size per A. switching behavior of a predator
individual per unit time. B. a limited number of available nesting
C. the maximum population size that can site
be supported by an ecosystem.
C. a stress syndrome that alters hormone
D. the members of a species that live in levels
an ecosystem and have the potential to re-
produce. D. intraspecific competition
403. Factor that limits a population and is de- 408. Both organisms benefit in what?
pendent on the number of organisms in the
population. A. Commensalism
A. Density-dependent B. Mutualism
B. Density-independent C. Parasitism
C. Abiotic factors D. none of above
D. Biotic factors
409. All of the individuals that live together
404. Individuals of a population who move within a specific place is called
into an area.
A. community
A. Immigration
B. Emigration B. population
C. Litigation C. specie group

D. Mastication D. ecosystem
405. What are some characteristics of r-
410. Exponential growth in a population slows
selected populations?
down or stops as
A. small individuals
A. resources become limited.
B. many offspring
B. rate of immigration increases
C. short lifespan
D. large individuals C. rate of emigration decreases.
E. adapted to stable environment D. birth rate increases.
406. Which limiting factor would increase due 411. The population size an environment can
to the number of individuals in a popula- contain is called the
tion?
A. Unusual weather
B. Natural disaster B. limitation of resources
C. Births C. competitive habitat

D. Disease D. logistic capacity

412. A portion of the population is captured, 417. When the birth rate is larger in any given
marked, and released. Later, another por- period than the death rate the population
tion is captured and the number of marked will
individuals within the sample is counted.
A. increase
A. Population Ecology
B. decrease
B. Mark-Recapture Method
C. stay the same
C. Demography
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Territoriality
418. Behavioral traits that are affected by the
413. A decrease of predators will the car- environment without changing the DNA se-
rying capacity of the prey population. quence
A. Increase A. behavioral plasticity
B. Decrease B. proximate behavior
C. Not Affect C. ultimate behavior
D. none of above D. instinctive behavior
414. The size of a population will decrease if 419. The number of offspring an individual has
mortality in a life time.
A. Increases A. Logistical growth
B. Decreases B. Exponential growth
C. Stays the same C. Carrying capacity
D. none of above D. Fecundity
415. Which definition best matches the term 420. An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed
population? deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square
mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile
A. A measurement of people for a specific
on another woodlot. What was the ecolo-
area
gist comparing?
B. All the inhabitants of a particular area
A. density
C. human beings in general
B. dispersion
D. the increase in the number of people
in a particular area
D. quardrats
416. The sacrifice of the life of an individual so
that the genes of relatives may be passed 421. Which of the following includes only bi-
on is called otic factors?
A. operant learning A. ecosystem
B. kin selection B. habitat
C. kinesis C. biosphere
D. imprinting D. poplation

422. Competition between two different 427. What does a limiting factor do?
species, such as Paramecium caudatum & A. makes a population grow large
Paramecium aurelia, is called competi-

tion. B. stops a population from growing large
C. helps organisms adapt to abiotic fac-
A. interspecific
tors
B. intraspecific
D. provides geographical boundaries for
C. predator migration
D. herbivore 428. Cryobiosis is an animal’s ability to sur-
vive
423. Fish dying when the pH goes too high are
an example of: A. dehydration
A. an abiotic factor limiting an abiotic fac- B. high salinity

tor. C. acidifiation in aquatic habitat
B. an abiotic factor limiting a biotic fac- D. extreme cold
tor.
429. To find population density:
C. a biotic factor limiting an abiotic fac-
A. population divided by growth rate
tor.
B. population divided by area
D. a biotic factor limiting a biotic factor.
C. growth rate divided by population
424. Which limiting factor is independent of D. density divided by population
the number of individuals in a population?
430. If a population grows larger than the car-
A. competition rying capacity of the environment, the pop-
B. parasitism/disease ulation is likely to
C. stress A. decrease
D. natural disasters B. increase
C. stay the same
425. The aggregate land and water area
needed to sustain the people of a nation. D. none of above
A. K-Selection 431. Cycles, where two populations will grow

and shrink over and over, are usually
B. R-Selection caused by
C. Ecological Footprint A. Predator-Prey Relationships
D. Cohort B. Parasite-Host relationships
426. The relationship between an mouse and C. Extinction
an own is an example of D. None of these
A. predator and prey 432. There are approximately 17, 620 people
B. parasite and hose per square mile in New York City. If New
York City is 468 square miles, approxi-
C. competition
mately how many people live in New York
D. mutualism City?

A. 17, 620 438. Which biome is found on the mountain

B. 8, 246, 160 above the tree line?
C. 37 A. grassland
D. .027 B. deciduous forest
C. tundra
433. An S-shaped curve is known as
D. tropical forest
A. Exponential graph
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Logistic Graph 439. Which of these animals goes into winter
C. Survivorship curves sleep?
D. Graphs A. amphibians
B. bats
434. Which biome covers most of the land
mass near the Earth’s equator? C. bears
A. tundra D. rodents
B. desert 440. A table listing such items as age, ob-
C. grassland served number of organisms alive each
D. tropical rainforest year, and life expectancy is known as a
(an)
435. how individuals in a population are A. motality table
spaced out across the range of the popu-
lation B. life table
A. population density C. survivorship table
B. distribution D. rate table
C. exponential growth
441. Which of the following is a density-
D. carrying capacity dependent factor (depends on popula-
tion)?
436. The movement of individuals out of a
population- A. Rainfall
A. Immigration B. Flood
B. S-shaped curve C. Disease
C. Emmigration D. Natural Disasters
D. Predation
442. Which of these describes torpor?
437. Which will add more organisms to a pop- A. daily decrease of metabolic rate to
ulation? conserve energy
A. 5 animals die B. seasonal decrease of metabolism to
B. 0 animals are born conserve energy
C. 3 animals immigrate to the population C. inactivity due to drought
D. 2 animals emmigrate from the popula- D. extended period of rest from which an-
tion imals can awaken easily

443. The carrying capacity of an environment 448. The average number of individuals of the
for a particular species at a particular time same species per unit of surface area at a
is determined by the given time is the

A. number of individuals in the species. A. population density
B. distribution of the population. B. population growth
C. reproductive potential of the species. C. population birth rate
D. supply of the most limited resources D. population size
444. What kind of relationship develops be- 449. Scientists use models when
tween two species with very similar
A. it is too difficult to experiment in the
niches?
real world
A. Symbiosis
B. it is more cost effective
B. Parasitism
C. they are too lazy to go outside
C. Competition
D. experiments prove their hypotheses
D. Commensalism wrong
445. Which of the following determines an en- 450. A factor that is more likely to af-
vironment’s carrying capacity? fect crowded population much more than
spread out population
A. The most necessary resource that
runs out first A. Density Dependent Factor
B. The average rainfall of an ecosystem B. Limiting Factor
C. The daily temperature of an ecosystem C. Natural Disaster
D. The carnivores preying on the popula- D. Density Independent Factor
tion
451. Which scenario describes some phase of
446. the variety of life in the world or in a par- secondary succession?
ticular habitat or ecosystem.
A. flowers blooming in rock crevices sev-
A. population size eral months after a lava flow
B. biosphere B. grass growing in the joints of a con-
crete sidewalk
C. habitat use
C. mosses growing on glacial till
D. biodiversity
D. pine seedlings sprouting after a forest
447. A species described as r-strategist would fire
definitely NOT have which of the following
characteristics? 452. One reason predators might increase is
A. clumped population pattern A. The weather is warmer
B. much parenting B. Parasites have increased
C. many offspring C. The prey have increased
D. random population pattern D. Food has decreased

453. The type of population distribution that 458. Which population has the greatest den-
occurs when there is plenty of resources sity?
that the organism needs within a given
A. 3 flies in a 1 acre field
area and there are no other strong influ-
ences on where organisms settle. B. 1 fly in a 3 acre field
A. Uniform distribution C. 1 fly in a 6 acre field
B. Clumped distribution D. 6 flies in a 1 acre field
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Random distribution
459. Which factor is a density-dependent limit-
D. Crowded distribution ing factor on the population of a species?
454. Which organism absorbs energy from the A. seasonal variation
sun? B. natural disasters
A. Lion C. unusual weather
B. Hyena D. predation
C. Zebra
460. A volcano erupts destroying a forest and
D. Grass
burying the soil with ash. This allows for
455. What is the movement of individuals out growth of small plants only. Gradually,
of a population called? the soil reforms and allows for the growth
of bigger plants and trees. Which term ex-
A. Immigration
plains these events?
B. Emigration
A. geographic isolation
C. Migration
B. gradualism
D. Capacity
C. punctuated equilibrium
456. All of the living and nonliving things in an
D. succession
area make up a
A. community 461. Which of the following encompases all
B. habitat the others?
C. species A. ecosystem
D. ecosystem B. community
C. population
457. A population is correctly defined as hav-
ing which of the following characteristics? D. individual
I. inhabiting the same general area II. in-
dividuals belonging to the same species III. 462. The maximum population size for a
possessing a constant and uniform density species based on the environmental fac-
and dispersion tors is called
A. I only A. ecological footprint
B. III only B. carrying capacity
C. I & 11 Only C. population growth
D. II & III only D. environmental capacity

463. The movement of a single caribou into a 469. movement of individuals out of a popula-
herd is an example of tion

A. population A. growth rate
B. immigration B. communities
C. emigration
C. emmigration
D. predation
D. extinction
464. The ability of any organism to survive
when subjected to abiotic or biotic factors. 470. Which of the following describes the
growth rate as N approproaches K?
A. Limiting Factor
B. Tolerance A. growth rate increases
C. Carrying Capacity B. growth rate decreases

D. Growth C. growth rate is 0
465. A group of individuals that belong to the D. growth rate has no change
same species and live in the same area
471. A is an organism that obtains its nu-
A. population trients from one or very few host individ-
B. immigration uals, causing harm but not death immedi-
C. species ately
D. community ecology A. parasite
466. Explains how fast a given population B. predator

grows. C. commenualist
A. Population Growth Rate D. symbiote
B. Density Dependent Growth
472. The major human causes of extinction to-
C. Density In-Dependent Growth
day are
D. Population Ranges
A. hunting and destroying habitats.
467. a description of how individuals are dis-
B. polluting and introducing non-native
tributed with respect to one another
species.
A. population size
C. Both
B. population distribution
D. Neither
D. population density 473. Which of the following is NOT a main fo-
cus of population ecology?
468. species with narrow niches
A. population size
A. specialists
B. biotic factors B. population density
C. generalists C. predation
D. growth rate D. growth rate

474. Species that could become endangered in 479. Which of the following might be ex-
the near future are called pected in the logistic model of population
growth?
A. unlucky
A. As N approaches K, b increases.
B. extinct
B. As N approaches K, r increases
C. endangered
C. As N approaches K, d increases.
D. threatened
D. both b and r increase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
475. A process in which individuals that have 480. What is population?
certain inherited traits tend to survive and
reproduce at higher rates than other indi- A. A community of animals, plants, or hu-
viduals because of those traits. mans who breed with each other.
B. The study of the number of animals.
C. A collection of humans.
B. r-selected species
D. none of above
C. k-selected species
481. Populations can change over time due to
D. population ecology
all of the following EXCEPT
476. As a population of a species increases A. birth
within a territory, which of the following B. death
most likely also increases?
C. dispersal
A. Immigration
D. condensation
B. Food supply
482. Major human causes of organisms going
C. Carrying capacity extinct today are
D. Competition A. hunting and destroying habitats.
B. polluting and introducing non-native
477. The study of how all living and non-living
species.
things interact within an entire ecosystem.
C. Both
A. ecosystem ecology
D. Neither
B. community ecology
483. A limiting factor that affects all popula-
tions the same regardless of population-
D. photography ecology A. Density-Independent Factors
478. Population’s growth slows or stops fol- B. Population
lowing exponential growth, at a popula- C. Density-Dependent Factors
tion’s carrying capacity.
D. Density
484. Number of organisms per unit of living
B. Exponential growth area
C. Carrying capacity A. Population density
D. Fecundity B. dispersion

C. carrying capacity A. deserts

D. population growth rate B. grasslands

485. The two species, Paramecium aurelia and C. marine
Paramecium caudatum, which do not prey D. coniferous forests
upon each other, fighting to grow in the
same test tube is an example of which of 490. The study of human population size,
the following? density, distribution, movement and
birth/death rates is
A. Competition
A. Ecology
B. Predation
B. Archaeology
C. Emigration
C. Demography
D. Immigration
D. Phlebotomy
486. A pioneer species such as are a com-
491. What is the measurement of population
bination of algae and fungus that grow on
per unit area or unit volume?
bare rock.
A. Capacity
A. mistletoe
B. Population Density
B. lichens
C. Size
C. legumes
D. Capacity
D. mushrooms
492. Species that are introduced into an envi-
487. Type 1 curve represents what type of
ronment but are not naturally found in that
group
environment.
A. Birds
A. Annoying Species
B. Humans
B. Naughty Species
C. Trees and plants
C. Tolerant Species
D. Marine life
D. Invasive Species
488. Carrying capacity 493. What is the shape of logistic growth
A. the maximum population growth rate curve?
under ideal conditions A. J
B. the change in the population size per B. S
individual per unit time
C. N
C. the maximum population size that can
be supported by an ecosystem. D. I
D. the members of a species that live in 494. If the number of births is greater than the
an ecosystem and have the potential to re- number of deaths in a population, what
produce. will happen to the growth of the popula-
tion?
489. This biome does not support tress due to
grow due to lack of precipitation and ex- A. It will increase.
treme heat? B. It will decrease.

C. It will stay the same. C. dieback

D. It will fluctuate. D. exponential
495. The relative number of individuals at each 500. Which of the following terms describes
age in a population. seasonal movement of individuals into and
out of a population?
A. Population
A. immigration
B. Age Structure
B. emigration
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Density
C. natality
D. Dispersion
D. migration
496. Population A has a population density of
652 people per square mile. Population B 501. If birth rate plus immigration exceeds
has a population density of 17 people per death rate plus emigration, a population
square mile. Which population is at higher
risk of a disease outbreak? A. grows
A. A B. declines
B. B C. stays the same
C. Equal chances D. none of the above
D. No way to know 502. All of the following are density-
dependent factors that limit populations
497. What best describes the effects of inva-
EXCEPT
sive species on biodiversity?
A. disease
A. Presence of invasive species in-
creases biodiversity B. competition
B. Presence of invasive species de- C. fire
creases biodiversity D. parasites
C. Presence of invasive species does not E. disease
affect biodiversity
503. Any factor that limits population growth
D. none of above
A. Limiting Factor
498. A group of interbreeding individuals occu- B. Immigration
pying the same area is best called
C. Succession
A. community
D. Abiotic Factor
B. population
504. Animals often develop new behaviors
C. ecosystem
from past experiences. Which type of
D. symbiotic relationship learned behavior is this?
499. When a population goes over the carry- A. Insight learning
ing capacity this is known as B. Operant conditioning
A. oscillation C. Habituation
B. overshoot D. Playing

505. To measure population density, you must B. number of offspring an organism can
divide the number of individuals living in a produce in lifetime
defined space by the

C. number of offspring an organism can
A. area of the space produce in a single year
B. birth and death rates D. none of above
511. The set of traits that affect an organ-
D. height of the space ism’s schedule of reproduction and sur-
vival make up an organism’s
506. Any abiotic or biotic factor in an ecosys-
tem that causes a population’s size to slow A. life history
or decrease is a factor. B. genetic inheritance
A. growth C. survivorship curve
B. limiting D. carrying capacity
C. carrying
512. A limiting factor that depends on popula-
D. density dependent tion size-
507. Which of the following organisms has an A. Density-Independent Factors
equilibrial life history? B. Density
A. dandelion C. Popiulation
B. mouse D. Density-Dependent Factors
C. bear
513. Living factors in an ecosystem
D. asian beetle
A. abiotic factors
508. part of Earth in which life exists including B. species
land, water, and air or atmosphere
C. trophic level
A. biosphere
D. biotic factors
B. growth rate
C. ecosystems 514. The statistical study of a population, its
density, distribution, and rate of growth.
D. biodiversity
A. Demography
509. Salamanders live in cool, damp places like
B. Distribution ecology
underneath rocks. This is a description of
a salamander’s C. Statistical ecology
A. niche D. Growth models
B. population 515. Which of the following are abiotic factors
C. habitat that shape ecosystems?
D. decorating preferences A. worms, plants, and temperature
510. Fecundity refers to the B. wind, precipitation, and soil type
A. number of individuals that live in a habi- C. niches, trees, and bacteria

tat D. sunlight, mushrooms, and wind

516. Which of the following statements would 521. A snake is eaten by a hawk. The hawk
NOT be true of a population that is remain- is the
ing at its carrying capacity?
A. prey
A. Birth rate is equal to the death rate. B. parasite
B. Immigration and emigration are equal. C. predator
C. Temperature and rainfall patterns are D. all of these
consistent.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The number of predators in the area is 522. Semelparous organisms will have
decreasing due to a viral disease. A. a single offspring
517. A bird nests in a tree. The tree does not B. a single reproductive event in their life-
gain any benefit and is not harmed. What time
relationship best describes this: C. many opportunities to mate
A. commensalism D. a long lifespan
B. parasitism 523. What is the study of the interactions
C. mutualism among organisms and between organisms
and their environments called?
D. mimicry
A. Biology
518. A group of individuals of a single species B. Ecology
living in the same general area.
C. Astronomy
A. Population
D. Biosphere
B. Density
C. Dispersion 524. This is the geographic arrangement of in-
dividuals within the population.
D. Territoriality
A. dispersion
519. Planarians live in the dark areas of ponds B. fecundity
but move faster and more sporadic when
exposed to light. This is an example of C. density
D. all of the above
A. Taxis
B. Kinesis 525. Carrying capacity is
C. Migration A. seldom reached by marine producers
and consumersbecause of the vast re-
D. Pheromones
sources of the ocean.
520. Emigration is B. the maximum population size that a
particularenvironment can support.
A. the movement out of an area
C. fixed for most species over most of
B. the movement into an area
their range mostof the time.
C. movement in and out of an area
D. determined by density and dispersion
D. migration data.

526. This means that the population is limited 531. If 28 rabbits died between year 2 and 3,
to the carrying capacity of its habitat. how many rabbits were born?

A. logistic growth A. 77
B. fecundity B. 177
C. carrying capacity C. 105
D. dispersion D. 205
527. Humans have which type of survivorship 532. If you have a lot of offspring but do not
curve? provide parental care you are described as
A. Type I
A. K-selected
B. Type II
B. r-selected
C. Type III
C. Q-selected
D. none of above
D. w-Selected
528. Largest number of individuals of a pop-
533. When does zero population growth take
ulation that the environment can support
place?
A. When a community reaches its maxi-
mum population number.
B. population crash
B. When birth exceed deaths.
C. lag phase
C. When deaths exceed births.
D. mutualism
D. When a population size has been stabi-
lized for a long time.
529. The final stable community that is called
A. pioneer community 534. Behavior which benefits another organ-
ism and seems to give no gain the the bene-
B. farmland
factor is called:
C. climax community
A. Habituaton
D. old field B. taxis
530. Organisms that have a high death rate C. imprinting
early in life, overcompensate for this by D. altruistic
having more offspring; examples include
oysters, trees, and fish. What type of sur- 535. Which limiting factor does NOT rely on
vivorship curve is best illustrated by this the number of individuals in a population
description? (density-independent)?
A. Type III A. competition
B. Type II B. parasitism/disease
C. Type IV C. predators
D. Type I D. natural disasters

536. Which of the following variables increase 541. Which of the following describes the dis-
population size? tribution of organisms around the water-
A. Deaths ing hole in the Savanna?
B. Emigration A. clumped distribution

B. uniform distribution
C. Immigration
C. random distribution
D. none of above
D. territorial distribution
NARAYAN CHANGDER
537. Which major biome is home to cacti,
mesquite, white thorn, pack rats, small 542. A factor that influences the size of the
reptiles, and coyotes? population, despite how crowded it is
A. desert A. Density Dependent Factor
B. taiga B. Limiting Factor
C. tundra C. Disease
D. grassland D. Density Independent Factor
543. Which of the following would cause a

538. Emigration causes a population’s density
population to DECREASE?
to
A. Birthrate is higher than deathrate
A. increase
B. Deathrate is higher than birthrate
B. decrease
C. Immigration is equal to emigration
C. stay the same
D. Birthrate is equal to deathrate
D. none of above
544. For a given species, the maximum rate
539. Select ALL statements which are true of of increase per individual under ideal con-
an r-selected animal species. dition is
A. they have a short life span A. biotic potential
B. they have a large body size B. territorial behavior
C. they disperse rapidly and colonise new C. carrying capacity
habitats
D. environmental resistance
D. they are specialists with very specific
niches 545. Which of the following words means
death rate?
E. their population typically remains near
the carrying capacity A. Natality
B. Mortality
540. The struggle between organisms to sur-
vive as they attempt to use the same re- C. Emigration
source D. Immigration
A. Predator
546. Which of the following in an ecosystem
B. Prey is classified as BIOTIC?
C. Competition A. Rock
D. Adaptation B. Sand

C. Wind 552. The study of populations in relation to

D. Tree environment, including environmental in-
fluences on density and distribution, age

547. In models of logistic population growth, structure, and population size.
A. population growth rate slows dramati- A. Mark-Recapture Method
cally as Napproaches K. B. Population Ecology
B. new individuals are added to the popu- C. Demography
lation mostrapidly at the beginning of the
population’s growth. D. Life History
C. only density-dependent factors affect 553. the number of people in a defined area
the rate ofpopulation growth. such as a square kilometre
D. only density-independent factors af- A. population density
fect the rate of population growth. B. birth rate
548. Which of the following tells you popula- C. death rate
tion density? D. population
A. the number of births per year
554. The change in size of a population over a
B. the number of frogs in a pond specific period of time.
C. the number of deaths per year A. Fertility Rate
D. the number of bacteria per square mil- B. Replacement Fertility
limeter
C. Growth Rate
549. What type of factor has an increasing im- D. Infant mortality Rate
pact as the population size increases?
555. Selection by humans for breeding of use-
A. density-independent
ful traits from the natural variation among
B. density-dependent different organisms
C. cohort effect A. k-selected species
D. survivorship factor B. natural selection
550. The influx of new individuals from other C. exponential growth
areas. D. artificial selection
A. Emigration
556. Put the following terms in order from
B. Cohort smallest to largest:Tissue Cell Organ Or-
C. Immigration ganism Organ System
D. Dispersion A. Tissue Cell Organ Organism Organ Sys-
tem
551. What are the three key factors of a pop-
ulation? B. Cell Tissue Organism Organ system Or-
gan
A. Uniform, Random, Clumped
C. Cell Tissue Organ Organ System Or-
B. Immigration, emigration, Growth rate ganism
C. Size, Density, Dispersion D. Organism Organ Tissue Cell Organ Sys-
D. People, place, things tem

557. The range of a population is? 562. Factors like predation can have a positive
benefit to the population of prey organ-
A. Population
isms because predators tend to keep prey
B. Growth Rate populations below their
C. Immigration A. carrying capacity
D. Geographic Distribution B. sustainibility number
C. exponential growth point
558. Diseases may spread more rapidly when
NARAYAN CHANGDER
an area is crowded, so disease is consid- D. competition level
ered to be a 563. The distribution where individuals are at-
A. type I survivorship curve tracted to areas with the greatest avail-
ability of food or shelter and avoiding less
B. population crasher
hospitable terrain so they are aggregated.
C. density-dependent limiting factor A. logistic
D. population enhancer B. clumping
559. consists of all life on earth and all parts C. random

of the earth in which life exists, including D. uniform
land, water, and the atmosphere
564. Starting from a single individual, what is
A. bioshpere the size of a population of bacteria that
B. biome reproduce by binary fission every 20 min-
utes at the end of a 2-hour period? Assum-
C. biomass ing unlimited resource and no mortality?
D. autotroph A. 8
560. What is the study of human population B. 16
size, density and distribution, movement, C. 64
and its birth and death rates? D. 32
A. Ecology
565. If there is more food than usual in an
B. Sociology ecosystem, then
C. Immigration A. Populations will stay the same
D. Emigration B. Populations will decrease
C. Populations will increase
561. Why would you not find plants in the
aphotic zones of the ocean? D. none of above
A. The plants grow better in cold places 566. A certain population of mice is growing
exponentially. The growth rate of the pop-
B. The plants need dark places to survive
ulation (r) is 2.0 and the current popula-
C. The plants need light to photosynthe- tion size (N) is 2, 500 individuals. How
size many mice are added to the population
D. The plants are not a good food source each year?
for octopuses A. 1250

B. 2500 572. When the size of the population de-

C. 500 creases because individuals leave, that is
called

D. 5000
A. immigration
567. Which organism follows an r-strategy for
reproduction? B. emigration
A. mayfly C. visiting
B. zebra D. rude
C. human
573. Which of these animal groups can go
D. robin
through both cryobiosis and anhydrobio-
568. What is the shape of exponential growth sis?
curve? A. tardigrades
A. J
B. reptiles
B. S
C. nematodes
C. N
D. brine shrimp
D. I
569. What has happened to human population 574. Competition among members of the same
growth rate in recent years? species is known as
A. tripled A. ecological footprint
B. increased B. exponential growth
C. remained unchanged
C. invasive
D. slowed
D. intraspecific competition
570. A measurement of the number of people
per given unit of land 575. There are 150 dogs per square kilometer
A. population size in Milton-Freewater. To which population
characteristic does this information refer?
B. population ecology
C. limiting factors A. growth rate
D. population density B. geographic distribution
571. Which of the following describes how dis- C. age structure

ease regulates population? D. population density
A. disease is a density independent fac-
tor 576. Example of a density dependent factor
B. disease is a density dependent factor A. Natural Disaster
C. disease selects for favorable individu- B. Predators
als
C. Climate
D. disease removes unfavorable individu-
als D. none of above

577. When a population overshoots and ex- B. biotic factors

ceeds its carrying capacity, it will imme- C. limiting factors
diately
D. abiotic factors
A. Decrease
B. Increase 583. What type of dispersion pattern is most
common in nature?
C. Remain Stable
A. clumped
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. uniform
578. Humans will reach zero population
C. random
growth when
D. none of these
A. death exceeds birthrate
B. carrying capacity is reached 584. When a population grows past the
ecosystem’s carrying capacity, what hap-
C. humans stop giving birth
pens to the population?
D. world population stops growing
A. It continues to grow higher and higher.
579. The spatial distribution of individuals B. The population starts to die off and re-
within the population is? turns to the carrying capacity.
A. Survivor ship curve C. The population will go extinct due to
B. Geographic Distribution lack of resources.
C. Distribution D. none of above
D. Growth rate 585. Factors that determine the carrying ca-
580. Which limiting factor would increase due pacity are listed below except
to the number of individuals in a popula- A. Amount of resources available
tion (density-dependent)?
B. Amount of resources each individual is
A. Unusual weather consuming
B. Natural disaster C. How long the resource can be re-
C. Births newed
D. Disease D. Causing the population growth curve
to S-shaped curve
581. What adaptation do animals like whales
and seals have that helps them survive in 586. Humans have been on an exponential
the polar regions? growth curve since the
A. keen eyesight A. Industrial Revolution
B. sharp teeth B. Ice Age
C. ability to estivate C. Jurassic Period
D. thick fur and or blubber D. Middle Ages
582. environmental factors that restrict popu- 587. . Each of the following is a density-
lation growth dependent limiting factor EXCEPT
A. population density A. competition

B. crowding B. ecosystem ecology

C. temperature C. population ecology

D. disease D. photography ecology
588. Individual organisms are arranged ac- 593. Nutrition, water, breeding sites, and
cording to the availability of resources mates are all examples of
they need to survive; also the most com-
A. Habitats
mon pattern in nature.
B. Ecosystems
A. Random Distribution
C. Species
B. Uniform Distribution
D. Resources
C. Sex Ratio
D. Clumped Distribution 594. Which of the following is included in the
term “biodiversity”?
589. An environmental factor such as preda-
A. number of different species
tion, disease, and competition that de-
pends on the number of members in a pop- B. genetic variability
ulation per unit C. ecosystem variety
A. dispersion D. all of the above
B. density-independent factor
595. A herd of zebras would be considered a
C. density-dependent factor
A. community
D. population growth rate
B. species
590. The number of wild horses per square
C. ecosystem
kilometer in a prairie is the horse popula-
tions D. population
A. density. 596. What do ecologists plot on a survivorship
B. dispersion. curve?
C. size. A. the number of individuals that survive
in a season with unfavorable living condi-
D. birth rate.
tions
591. What term refers to the number of males B. the number of individuals still alive at
and females in various reproductive age each age in the maximum life span
groups?
C. the number of individuals that survive
A. age structure above the expected life span
B. carrying capacity D. the number of individuals that are still
C. reproductive dispersal alive after a natural disaster
D. birth rates 597. Which of the following describes a popu-
592. Groups of different organisms living to- lation that is distributed evenly across an
gether and figuring out how they influence area?
each other. A. random
A. community ecology B. uniform

C. clumped 603. When the death rate is larger in any

given period than the birth rate the pop-
D. crowded
ulation will
598. What is the the closest approximation of A. increase
the size of the human population today? B. decrease
A. 850 million C. stay the same
B. 7.5 billion D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. 20.8 billion
604. What is emmigration?
D. 1.7 trillion A. Members of a species entering juxta-
posed areas of inhabitance
599. All the living and non-living things that
interect in an area. B. Members of a species entering a pop-
ulation
A. extinction
C. Members of a species leaving a popu-
B. ecosystems lation
C. communities D. Members of a species reproducing
D. biosphere 605. Iteroparity means that members of a pop-
ulation experience ? reproductive
600. Which is NOT shown on a population
event(s) throughout their lifetime.
pyramid?
A. many
A. Age
B. a single
B. Sex (male/female)
C. no
C. Ethnicity
D. one
D. none of above
606. The following information shows a type
601. is the measure of the number of or- of epiphyte in a habitat.Habitat:Tree trunk
ganisms that make up a group of the same Pleurococcus sp.
species in a defined area. A. A transparent quadrat of 1 cm x 1 cm
A. population B. A transparent quadrat of 10 cm x 10
B. R-strategy cm
C. biota C. A iron frame quadrat of 10 cm x 10 cm

D. A wooden frame quadrat of 10 cm x 10
D. organism capacity
cm
602. What type of factors represent the living 607. All of the biotic and abiotic features of a
organisms in an environment? single area
A. Abiotic A. Population
B. Biotic B. Community
C. Viruses C. Biome
D. Natural Disasters D. Ecosystem

608. Choose all the examples of abiotic fac- 613. Euglena have chloroplasts and an eye-
tors. spot. They make directional movements
toward light. This is an example of

A. soil
B. earthworm A. Taxis
C. bacteria B. Kinesis
C. Phermones
D. fungi
D. Migration
E. ants
614. Introduced or invasive species are often
609. A tornado forced thousands of people to
difficult because:
leave Omaha. This is an example of which
of the following factors? A. They contribute to habitat fragmenta-
tion
A. Density Dependent
B. They do not adapt well to new environ-
B. Density Independent
ments
C. Biotic Factors
C. They increase biodiversity
D. Death Rate Factors D. They often lack natural predators
610. Which of the following is true of a popu- 615. Which biome, because of its climate, has
lation with a growth rate of zero with no the largest number of species of plants and
emigration or immigration? animals?
A. The birthrate equals the death rate. A. tundra
B. The birthrate is less than the death B. desert
rate.
C. tropical rainforest
C. The birthrate exceeds the death rate.
D. pine forest
D. none of above
616. largest number of individuals of a popu-
611. An environmental factor such as storms lation that the environment can support
and extreme heat or cold that affects pop-
ulation regardless of their density
A. density-dependent factor
C. denitrification
D. mutualism
C. dispersion
D. density-independent factor 617. Mark all of the following that is true
when sampling populations (both quadrat
612. Comprises the traits that affect an or- and mark and recapture method)
ganism’s schedule of reproduction and sur-
A. sample should be random
vival.
B. the more sample sizes the more accu-
A. Life History rate or correct your estimation will be
B. Reproductive Table C. the fewer sample sizes the more accu-
C. Life Tables rate or correct your estimation will be
D. Demography D. samples should never be random

618. What is a population? 623. The maximum population size that a par-
A. all members of a species that live in an ticular environment can sustain is called
ecosystem A. logistic population growth
B. all of the groups in an ecosystem B. carrying capacity
C. a family of animals that live in the C. limiting factors
same group D. exponential population growth
D. the biotic and abiotic parts of an
624. Which factor might NOT contribute to an
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ecosystem
exponential growth rate in a given popu-
619. The complex interactions between biotic lation?
and abiotic factors that cause variation in A. lower death rates
population size.
B. higher birthrates
A. Metapopulation C. less competition
B. Demographic Transition D. reduced resources
C. Population Dynamics
625. What are some characteristics of more-
D. Ecological Dynamics developed countries?
620. When a population has reached carrying A. high standard of living
capacity B. population growth is low
A. Growth & Immigration are equal to C. population growth is high
Death & emigration
D. majority of people live in poverty.
B. Growth & Immigration are less than
Death & emigration 626. Which of the following is an example of
a density-independent factor?
C. Growth & Immigration are greater
than Death & emigration A. hurricane
D. Growth is exponential B. competition
C. predation
621. A graph that shows the likelihood of sur-
vival at different times in the life of an or- D. diseases
ganism 627. At carrying capacity, a population
A. Growth rate A. increases rapidly
B. Density B. increases slowly
C. Survivor ship curve C. decreases slowly
D. Emmigration D. is in dynamic equilibrium
622. Population increases at a constant rate 628. Organs that work together are part of
over time. a(n)
A. Exponential Growth A. cells
B. Logistic Growth B. tissue
C. Stable Growth C. organ system
D. Strategic Growth D. organism

629. Boom and bust cycles, where populations C. food

will grow and shrink over and over, are D. water
usually caused by

E. gold
A. Predator-Prey Relationships
B. Parasite-Host relationships 635. The number of individuals in a given area
is the population’s
C. Extinction
A. range
D. None of these
B. density
630. Which of the following are examples of C. distribution
a density independent factors?
D. none of above
A. forest fire
636. What growth pattern describes a popula-
B. seasonal cycles
tion whose growth rate slows or stops fol-
C. storms lowing a period of exponential growth?
D. disease A. logistic growth
631. What 2 factors decrease population B. population growth

size? C. exponential growth
A. Immigration, Births D. predator-prey cycle
B. Emigration, Births 637. If the number of births in a population is
C. Emigration, Deaths the same as the number of deaths in a pop-
ulation, what will happen to the growth of
D. Immigration, Deaths
the population?
632. Carrying capacity is represented by A. It will increase.
which letter?
B. It will decrease.
A. r C. It will stay the same.
B. L D. It will fluctuate.
C. K
638. symbiotic relationship in which both or-
D. c ganisms benefit
633. Temperature would be an example what A. competition
type of populationfactor? B. Mutualism
A. biotic factor C. nitrogen fixation
B. density independent factor D. energy pyramid
C. density dependent factor
639. In ecology, succession refers to
D. exponential limiting factor
A. balance of power
634. Which of the following are examples of B. survival of the fittest
resources? C. natural selection
A. space D. one species gradually being replaced
B. mates by another

640. In which of the following pairs do both or- 645. Human population grew exponentially af-
ganisms belong to the same population? ter the industrial revolution. Which of the
A. A dandelion and a rose in a garden following DOES NOT help determine pat-
terns in human population growth?
B. An lion in Africa and an lion in South
Asia A. age structure
C. A two giraffes in a savanna B. births
D. Two different species of monkeys liv- C. deaths
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing in the same cage in the zoo D. limiting factors
641. During ecological succession, which factor 646. Organisms move away from an area
is responsible for the development of plant A. Competition
and animal species that can tolerate high
B. Predation
moisture levels?
C. Emigration
A. low atmosphere temperature
D. Immigration
B. high precipitation rate
C. low groundwater salinity 647. A forest with high biodiversity means
D. high air pressure A. many different kinds of species

B. many of the same kind of species
642. Population density is the number of indi-
C. very few different species
viduals
D. very few of the same kind of species
A. that are born each year.
B. per unit area. 648. The interaction that occurs between mem-
bers of a population when they are trying
C. that immigrate.
to get the same limited resource-
D. that emigrate.
A. Predation
643. Density-dependent factors are related to B. Age Structure
which of the following? C. Competition
A. iteroparous D. Paracites
B. dispersion
649. Which of the following is NOT a density
C. cohort dependent limiting factor?
D. Alee efect A. competition for resources
644. Refer to a population of 500 that ex- B. predation
periences 55 births and 5 deaths during C. disease
a one year period.If the population main-
D. natural disasters
tains the current growth pattern, a plot of
its growth would resemble which of the 650. The NUMBER of individuals of a certain
following? population, living in a specified area.
A. exponential growth A. Population
B. fluctuating growth B. Limiting Factors
C. K-selected growth C. Natural Selection
D. logistic growth D. Population Density

651. The intentional release of a natural en- 656. What do you call a period of rapid
emy to attack a pest population is referred growth?
to as

A. exponential growth
A. exotic introduction
B. logistic growth
B. biological control
C. emigration
C. invasive species
D. predator-prey cycle
D. opportunistic life history
657. Which of the following determines the
652. is the spatial range of a species, usu-
carrying capacity of an ecosystem?
ally on a geographic but sometimes on a
smaller scale, or the arrangement or spa- A. the most limited resources required
tial pattern of a species. for survival
A. habitat B. the amount of disease affecting organ-
isms in the ecosystem
B. ecosystem
C. distribution C. the amount of rainfall the habitat re-
ceives
D. niche
D. the number of predators in the area
653. The range in which most of a population
is able to survive. 658. Population increase under idealized con-
ditions in which the rate of reproduction is
A. ideal range
at its maximum.
B. normal range
A. Density Independent
C. range of tolerance
B. Density Dependent
D. none of above
C. Exponential Population Growth
654. Which of the following must be true for D. Zero Population Growth
the growth rate to equal zero?
A. birth rate > death rate 659. The pattern of spacing among individuals
within the boundaries of the population.
B. birth rate < death rate
C. birth rate = death rate A. Dispersion
D. 2x birth rate = 1/2 death rate B. Immigration

C. Cohort
655. Logistic growth has 3 phases. In Phase
1, the population grows rapidly. In Phase D. Emigration
2, population grows slowly. In Phase 3,
growth stops. What causes growth to 660. The maximum population size the envi-
stop in the 3rd phase of logistic growth? ronment can support.
A. Emigration A. Density Dependent

B. Immigration B. Density Independent
C. Exponential Growth C. Exponential Population Growth
D. Carrying Capacity D. Carrying Capacity

12.4 Population Interactions 1218
661. What is one of the five characteristics C. exponential growth

that define and describe a population-
D. k strategist reproduction
A. Age structure
B. Population density 664. A species that is no longer present on the
planet or cannot produce viable offspring
C. Density
A. Endemic
D. Distructure
B. r-selected
662. Nesting birds often space themselves
NARAYAN CHANGDER
evenly from other nests. This pattern is C. k-selected
called D. Extinct
A. clumped dispersion.
665. Jenn is studying a population of fish
B. uniform dispersion. found in a pond that has a decreasing car-
C. random dispersion rying capacity. Which of the following fac-
D. scatter dispersion tors would not decrease the carrying ca-
pacity of her fish?
663. The size, density, and birth and death A. drought
rates of human population are studied dur-
ing B. flooding
A. age structure graphs C. food shortages
B. demography D. a freeze
12.4 Population Interactions

1. How do majority of parasites harm the 3. Flowers and bees are an example of
host? A. commensalism
A. Feeds on host B. paratisism
B. Reduces growth and reproduction ca-
C. mutualism
pacity of the host
D. botulism
C. cause diseases and make them physi-
cally weak 4. Which of the following would increase the
D. All of the above population of mosquitoes in your area?
A. Provide still water for the mosquitoes
2. An ecologist who studies how several
to lay their eggs
species in an area interact among each
other and with the abiotic parts of the en- B. Spray the area with toxic chemicals (in-
vironment is interested in the biological or- secticides)
ganization level called a(n) C. Swat the mosquitoes that land on you
A. organism D. Put up bat houses to attract bats that
B. population eat mosquitoes
C. community 5. A new species moves into an ecosystem.
D. ecosystem The new habitat has the right sort of cli-

mate for the species. Which of the follow- 10. Which population interaction helps in
ing would most likely be a limiting factor transferring energy fixed by plants to
in the new area? higher trophic levels?

A. A good climate A. Predation
B. Immigration B. Competition
C. Competition with native species C. Parasitism
D. High birth rates D. none of above
6. Which of the following is NOT a limiting
11. African birds called honeyguides eat
factor for populations?
beeswax. Most bees’ nests are inside hol-
A. Space low trees where the honeyguides cannot
B. Food reach them. The honeyguides lead honey
badgers, which also eat beeswax, to bees’
C. Time
nests. The honey badgers then dig out and
D. Climate eat the nests, leaving scraps of wax and
honey for the honeyguides.
7. The major role of bacteria, fungi, and other
decomposers in an ecosystem is to A. Commensalism
A. recycle the nutrients B. Competition
B. keep the soil from eroding C. Mutualism
C. provide water for the animals in the D. Predation
area
D. produce food for the consumers 12. Forest A has 100 deer living in it. For-
est B is twice as big as Forest A, and has
8. As the populations of 2nd and 3rd level 200 deer living in it. Which forest has the
consumers increase in a community, the higher population density of deer?
level competition for food will
A. Forest A
A. increase
B. Forest B
B. decrease
C. Neither forest, the population density
C. stay the same is the same
D. stop
D. There is not enough information to an-
9. On the rocky sea coast of Scotland, the swer this question
larger and competitively superior Bar-
nacle Balanus dominates the intertidal 13. Tiger beetles chase small spiders, which
area and excludes the smaller Barnacle they catch in their strong jaws and then
Chathamalus from that zone. this is eat. What is the ecological relationship be-
shown by tween tiger beetles and spiders?
A. Connell’s elegant field experiment A. Competition

B. Mac Arthur’s experiment B. Mutualism
C. Alexander Von Humboldt C. Parasite-Host
D. Paul Ehrlich D. Predator-Prey

14. Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients B. Carnivores

from a spruce tree. The mistletoe gains C. Omnivorous
needed nutrients and water while the
D. Producers and herbivores
spruce tree starts to break down because
it is not getting the water and nutrients 19. Honey guide birds alert and direct badgers
that it needs. to bee hives. The badgers then expose the
A. Commensalism hives and feed on the honey first. Next
the honey guide birds eat. Both species
B. Mutualism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
benefit.
C. Parasitism A. Commensalism
D. Cooperation B. Mutualism
15. What is a dead zone? C. Parasitism
A. a body of water that has little to no dis- D. Competition
solved oxygen; very little life can live in a 20. One reason birds sing and deer rub their
dead zone. antlers on trees is to
B. a gulf or bay with no life; there is little A. establish a territory
to no nitrogen
B. improve their habitat
C. a type of lake
C. find more food
D. a body of water with lots of chlorine
D. frighten their prey
16. Exponential growth occurs when a popula- 21. The capacity for growth of a population un-
tion der ideal conditions.
A. exceeds the habitat’s carrying capac- A. Environmental Resistance
ity.
B. Intrinsic rate of growth
B. is competing with another species.
C. minimum viable population
C. grows increasingly faster. D. Carrying capacity
D. breeds with another species. E. Logistic Growth
17. Otters float and sleep on forests of kelp in 22. food chains and food webs begin with
the water. The kelp provides them a place /green plants
to anchor in the moving water. The otters
A. decomposers
keep sea urchins, which normally feed on
kelp to help protect their habitat. The rela- B. producers
tionship between otter and kelp is consid- C. Chlorophylls
ered to be. D. Chloroplasts
A. Commensalism
23. The cardinal is a type of bird. Which of
B. Mutualism the following would increase the size of a
C. Parasitism population of cardinals in a forest?
D. Cooperation A. an increase in the birth rate of cardi-
nals
18. Predators are never B. an increase in the death rate of cardi-
A. Herbivores nals

C. increased emigration of young cardi- 29. Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients
nals from the forest ecosystem from the spruce tree to the trees detri-
ment.

D. increased immigration of cardinal
predators into the forest ecosystem A. Parasitism
24. which of the following types of organ- B. Mutualism
isms prefer a high population density the C. Commensalism
most?
D. Predation
A. Producers
30. All largemouth bass in a lake would be con-
B. Primary Consumers
sidered
C. Secondary Consumers
A. a population
D. Tertiary Consumers
B. a community
25. Organisms attempting to use the same eco- C. a habitat
logical resources is called
D. an ecosystem
A. predation
B. commensalism 31. Predators play all the roles except
C. competition A. Biological control
D. symbiosis B. Conduits of energy transfer
C. Species diversity maintenance
26. Which of the following would increase the
number of individuals in a population? D. Ecosystem instability
A. Emigration 32. Sea stars live in saltwater ecosystems.
B. Immigration Some species live in shallow tidal pools,
C. High death rate while others live in the deepest parts of
the oceans. This is a description of the
D. Over hunting of sea stars.
27. The role a species plays in its ecosystem is A. habitat
its B. community
A. biodiversity C. niche
B. habitat
D. none of these
C. trait
33. Epiphytic plants live on trees in the canopy
D. niche
layer of tropical forests. They use water
28. what is a population? and detritus collected on the parts of trees,
but do not take any nutrients from the tree
A. a group of ecosystems of the same
itself. This relationship is best described
species
as:
B. a group of organisms of the same
species A. competition
C. a group of living organisms of the B. commensalism

same species C. parasitism
D. none of above D. mutualism

34. All of the following are examples of living C. when a population of fish is fished so
things interacting with each other EXCEPT- much it cannot reproduce and keep up as
A. birds preying on insects living in the much to meet the number of fish fished.
grass D. when a population of fish is killed off by
B. squirrels spreading the seeds of trees extremely low oxygen levels, which come
by burying them from very high nitrogen levels
C. frogs sleeping in the mud at the bot- 39. Dead zones have high amounts of
NARAYAN CHANGDER
tom of the pond A. oxygen
D. fish eating plants and other smaller B. nitrogen
fish
C. bacteria
35. When lions and leopards live in the same D. phytoplankton
area, lions take mostly larger animals as
prey and leopards take the smaller ones to 40. Which of these is not a parasitic adapta-
avoid direct competition. This is referred tion?
to as A. Presence of suckers
A. resource partitioning B. High multiplication ability
B. symbiosis C. Presence of digestive system
C. commensalism D. absence of some sensory organs
D. mutalaism
41. A relationship in which one organism ben-
E. intra-specifc competition efits and the other is unaffected.
36. Two closely related species competing for A. mutualism
the same resources can not co-exist to- B. parisitism
gether in a niche.What is this principle
C. symbiosis
called?
D. commensalism
A. Competitive exclusion principle
B. Resource partitioning 42. Which best represents examples of popu-
lations that have established a social or-
C. Competitive release
der?
D. Co-evolution
A. Honeybees and ants
37. Which is not an ectoparasite? B. Cats and dogs
A. Tick on dogs C. Rabbits and mice
B. Lice in hairs D. Deer and squirrels
C. Leech
43. Ostriches and Gazelles feed next to each
D. Fasciola hepatica other. They both watch for predators and
alert each other to danger. Since the visual
38. What is overfishing? abilities of the two species are different,
A. when a population of fish is fished very they can each identify threats the other an-
little imal would not as readily see.
B. the name of a fishing boat A. Parasitism

B. Commensalism 48. What does a Secondary Consumer eat?

C. Mutualism A. Tertiary Consumers

D. Competition. B. Primary Consumers
C. Producers
44. Which statement describes one way in
which living organisms in a desert ecosys- D. Secondary Consumers
tem interact with nonliving things in the
ecosystem? 49. The Acacia tree has a relationship with the
Acacia ant. The ant keeps insects and ani-
A. Sunlight warms soil on the Earth’s sur- mals from eating the tree and keeps other
face plants from growing near the tree. The
B. Plants get nutrients from the soil tree provides food for the ant and shelter
for raising the larvae. What is this rela-
C. Sunlight produces light which causes tionship?
rocks to have shadows
A. Predator-prey
D. Desert birds eat seeds found in the
sand B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
45. Which of the following would most likely
limit the growth of a population? D. Commensalism
A. mild winters 50. Parasitism is an mutualism between two

B. increased numbers of predators organisms in which
C. increased numbers of prey A. One is beneficial, while the other is

harmed
D. plenty of rainfall
B. One is beneficial, other is unaffected
46. Cougars are predators that often eat C. Both of them are beneficial
weakened or diseased animals. This is a
D. None of them
description of the of cougars.
A. habitat 51. Mycorrhizal association, Lichen and fig
tree and wasp represent which of the fol-
B. community
lowing interaction?
C. niche
A. Mutualism
D. none of these B. Parasitism
47. The moray eel opens his mouth wide so C. Commensalism
cleaner shrimp can remove parasites from D. Ammensalism
his mouth. The eel could easily eat the
shrimp but does not do so. What is this 52. To hunt, capture, kill, and eat another or-
relationship? ganism
A. Predation A. predation
B. Parasitism B. parasitism
C. Mutualism C. herbivory
D. Commensalism D. exclusion

53. In a dead zone, are/is affected D. in nature

A. fish E. in a community
B. fishers 58. Which population distribution type would
C. bacteria provide the most protection from preda-
D. phytoplankton tors?
A. Uniform
54. Cheetahs and lions both feed on similar
B. Exponential
NARAYAN CHANGDER
prey. What does this create?
C. random
A. Competition between the two species
for food. D. Logistic
B. Cooperation between the two species E. Clumped
for food.
59. A limiting factor is anything that
C. Niches between the two species for
A. changes a population of organisms.
food.
B. causes a population to stop growing or
D. Producers between the two species
decrease in size.
for food.
C. causes the population density of a
55. In a population of a species, the predator- group of organisms to change.
prey relationship results in those organ-
D. allows a population to survive in a cer-
isms with traits that give them a better
tain environment.
chance of surviving, being able to repro-
duce and pass those traits on to their off- 60. The orchid species employs which of the
spring. This is an example of event to get pollinated by a species of
A. natural selection bees?
B. habitat location A. Sexual reproduction
C. special variability B. Sexual deceit
D. mutations C. Pseudocopulation
D. B and C
56. The lowest number of a species that can
continue to survive in its natural habitat 61. every organism fills a specific role / riche
A. Environmental Resistance A. no, niche
B. Minimum grwoth rate B. yes
C. Minimum viable population C. no, food web
D. Minimum population density D. no, food chain
E. Exponential Growth 62. Which of the following represents a popu-
57. what is an ecosystem? lation?
A. in a living thing A. All of the grey squirrels in a forest.
B. define as a living ORGANISM!!! B. All of the animals in a forest.
C. has a specific area and the physical en- C. All of the plants in a forest.
vironment / abiotic factors D. All of the abiotic factors in a forest.

63. in a dead zone, the high amounts of nitro- B. (births + deaths) + (immigrants-
gen come from emigrants)

A. oxygen C. (births-deaths) + (immigrants + emi-
B. fish grants)
C. fertilizer runoff D. (births + deaths) + (immigrants +

emigrants)
D. bacteria
69. When there is a lack of resources such as
64. Which event is the best example of compe- food, water, sunlight, shelter, and space
tition between species in a pond? this is often called
A. dragonflies landing on lily pads
A. limiting factors
B. lizards and snakes lying in the sun
B. wet
C. hawks eating mice
C. messy
D. frogs and toads eating flies
D. found in rocks
65. Within a prey population, which of the fol-
70. Competition for field mice between hawks
lowing is most immediately affected by
and coyotes would be considered:
the arrival of a new predator?
A. interspecific competition
A. death rate
B. evolution rate B. intraspecific competition
C. immigration rate C. random dispersion
D. maturation rate D. competitive exclusion
66. Owls have extraordinary night vision, 71. Which among the following is a predator
which allows them to in broad ecological context?
A. hunt prey at night A. Grass preparing starch with sunlight
B. sleep through the night B. Water hyacinth vegetatively propagat-
ing invasively
C. blink their eyes every 5 minutes
C. A sparrow eating a seed
D. turn its head 270 degrees to the left or
right D. none of above
67. first-order consumers 72. What is a habitat?

A. consumers A. a swimming pool
B. producers B. a playground
C. decomposers C. an animal’s home
68. Which of the following expressions can be 73. If there is a large lion population in an
used to calculate the change in the size of ecosystem and a limited amount of food,
a population? what will occur between the members of
A. (births-deaths) + (immigrants- the lion population?
emigrants) A. Competition for food

B. Competition for water 79. Which of the following would alter the car-
C. Parasitism rying capacity of an ecosystem for a par-
ticular species?
D. Commensalism
A. An increase in the birth rate of that
74. Density independent factors are environ- species
mental factors that will affect a popula-
B. An increase in emigration of individu-
tion regardless of the density of the popu-
als of the species to a new habitat
lation. Which of the following is a density-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
independent factor? C. A decrease in the death rate for mem-
bers of the species
A. Volcanic Eruption
D. A decrease in water availability for the
B. Disease
species due to a drought
C. Competition among species
D. Increase in predator activity 80. Which pair of organisms would most likely
compete for the same ecological niche?
75. Which of the characteristics is/are exhib- A. bacteria and fungi
ited by preys as defence mechanisms?
B. deer and bacteria
A. Camouflage
C. deer and wolf
B. Mimicry
D. tree and fungi
C. Morphological modification
D. All of the above 81. In a mutual relationship, both organisms
are
76. Cardiac glycosides are produced by which
prey among the following options? A. hurt
A. Monarch butterfly B. not effected
B. cryptically colored frogs and insects C. harmed

C. Poppy plants D. benefiting
D. Calotropis 82. In this interaction, one species is harmed,
whereas the other species is neither
77. In a parasitic relationship, one organism is
harmed nor benefitted
and one organism is benefiting.
A. commensalism
A. helped
B. harmed B. Parasitism
C. not effected C. Amensalism
D. happy D. none of above
78. Which is not an example of commensal- 83. An animal that is hunted and eaten for
ism? food is called the
A. Egret and grazing cattle A. Predator
B. Barnacles and Whales B. Prey
C. Epiphytes growing on mango tree C. Niche
D. None of the above D. Competition

84. What does benefit mean? A. Competition between Balanus Barna-

A. invisible cle and Chathamalus barnacle

B. harmed B. Competition between Flamingo and
fishes for zooplankton
C. helped
C. Competition between Abingdon tor-
D. none of above toise and goat in Galapagos island
85. Two individuals of the same species fight- D. none of above
ing for the same resource
90. All populations of different species living
A. Interspecific competition
together in an area are called
B. Intraspecific competition
A. a community
C. Mutualism
B. an ecosystem
D. Predation
C. a population
86. To measure population density, you would D. carnivores
divide the number of individuals in a de-
fined space by the 91. Remora fish can attach themselves to
A. carrying capacity larger aquatic animals, such as whales.
When the whales eat, the fish detach
B. perimeter of the area themselves and eat leftover scraps of
C. birth-death rates food. These fish do not harm or help the
whales.What is the ecological relationship
D. area of space
between the remora fish and the whales?
87. Nesting birds on a beach often are very A. Commensalism
territorial and space themselves evenly
away from other birds. What pattern is B. Competition
this called? C. Parasitism
A. uniform dispersion D. Predation
B. random dispersion
92. The stork uses it saw-like bill to cut up the
C. scattered dispersion dead animals it eats. As a result, the dead
D. clumped dispersion animal carcass is accessible to some bees
for food and egg laying. The relationship
88. occurs when more than one individual neither harms nor benefits the stork.
or population tries to use the same limited
A. Commensalism
resource.
B. Mutualism
A. Niche
C. Parasitism
B. Predator-prey
D. Competition
C. Availability
D. Competition 93. What is commensalism?
89. Which among the following is an exam- A. one species is helped the other is not
ple of competition between closely related bothered
species? B. both species are helped

C. one species is helped and one is B. Endoparasite

harmed
C. Mesoparasites
D. no species is helped
D. All of the above
94. Rabbits and sheep both graze on shrubs,
grasses, and other plants. The increase in 99. Organisms or populations that depend on
the population of rabbits in a region may each other for basic needs such as
result in a shortage of plants for sheep to
A. water
graze upon. After the increase of rabbits
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the relationship between sheep and rab- B. food
bits will be
C. shelter
A. Competition
D. air
B. Predation
E. gas / energy
C. Mutualism
D. Parasitism 100. In Shallow south American lakes, visiting
Flamingos and native fish compete for a
95. Individual members of an ant colony work-
common resource food, zooplanktons. This
ing together to meet the needs of all mem-
is an example of
bers of the colony is referred to as
A. Cooperation A. Interspecific competition
B. Competition B. Intraspecific competition
C. Territorialism C. Both of the above
D. Parasitism D. None of the above
96. Name the population interaction in which
one organism is benefitted and the other 101. A dog is harmed by a tick when it sucks
is harmed? the dog’s blood. The tick is benefiting be-
cause it is getting nutrients from the dog.
A. Predation This is an example of a
B. Parasitism
A. parasitic relationship
C. Mutualism
B. mutual relationship
D. A and C
C. commensal relationship
E. A and B
D. none of above
97. One individual living thing is called an
A. Organism 102. When species compete for the same re-
B. Adaptations source, sometimes they split this resource.
What is this an example of?
C. Predation
A. niche partioning
D. Prey
B. niche equivalency
98. Parasites that feed on the external surface
of the host body are knwon as C. ecological equivalency
A. Ectoparasite D. evolutionary response

103. Dandelions, common carpet grass, and D. Carrying Capacity

grass burrs are all present in the same E. Logistic Growth
homeowners’s lawn. They all ahve access

to the same soil nutrients and the same 108. main ways (please name all 3, not just 1)
amount of water. All are striving to sur- A. competition
vive and reproduce. This is an example of:
B. competition, predation
A. Interspecific competition
C. competition, predation, symbiosis
B. Predation
D. none of above
C. Parasitism
D. Mutalism 109. Tapeworms are sometimes found in the
small intestines of sheep. A tapeworm
E. Commensalism attaches to the intestinal wall using suck-
ers and then absorbs nutrients from the
104. what is a community?
sheep’s intestine.Which of the following
A. a community consists of the biotic or terms the relationship between the tape-
living factors in a ecosystem worm and the sheep?
B. name of a center A. Competition
C. in new york B. Herbivory
D. all the above C. Parasitism
105. An interaction among species where one D. Predation
organism hunts, kills, and eats another or-
110. Which of the following best describes par-
ganism.
asitism?
A. Predation
A. +/+
B. Cooperation
B. +/-
C. Mutualism
C. +/0
D. Parasitism
D. -/-
106. The variety of all living things on Earth is
111. The interaction between two organisms
called
from different populations where one ben-
A. speciation efits by doing harm to the other one is
B. biomes A. Parasitism
C. biodiversity B. Commensalism
D. habitat C. Competition
107. The sum of ecological factors that tend D. Predation
to limit the biotic potential of a species; 112. Only 10% of the energy at one trophic
examples include precipitation, predation, level is passed on to the next. Some of
and disease this energy is used for body processes, but
A. Environmental resistance the rest is:
B. Intrinsic rate of growth A. stored in body tissue
C. Minimum viable population B. stored as fat

C. used for breathing C. relationship between two different

D. released as heat species
D. none of above
113. a deer population has significantly in-
creased, the best hypothesis is
118. The ocean fish live underneath the jelly-
A. the deer’s main predator has been fish for protection. The jellyfish is neither
eliminated helped nor harmed by these fish. This is
B. competition increased an example of:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. decreased water levels of local ponds A. Competition
D. organisms that rely on similar food B. Commensalism
sources migrated to the area
C. Parasitism
114. Human liver fluke depends on two vec- D. Mutualism
tors/ intermediate hosts to complete its
life cycle. They are 119. Which of the following situations will
A. mosquito and plasmodium lead to an increase in population size for
a species?
B. cow and goat
C. snail and fish A. Increased death rate
D. none of above B. Decreased birth rate

C. Immigration
115. An organism that hunts and feeds on an-
other organism is a D. Emigration
A. prey
120. Sloth’s and monkeys share the same trop-
B. producer ical habitat. Deforestation is occurring
C. predator limiting the space for these two species.
D. decomposer What will now occur between the two
species?
116. When all the starfish were removed from A. Mutualism
an intertidal area, more than 10 species of
invertebrates became extinct, because of B. Parasitism
A. loss of starfish friends C. Cooperation
B. lack of nutrients from starfish body D. Competition
C. interspecific competition amongst
themselves 121. Warthogs, zebras, ox and lions all share
the same watering hole. This is an exam-
D. not sure about the answer
ple of
117. What is symbiosis? A. Interspecific competition
A. Relationship only between decom- B. Endoparasites
posers
C. Predation
B. relationship between the same
species D. Mutualism

122. Air plants are a type of plant that at- 127. Some organisms cryptically coloured to
tach themselves to tree trunks or branches. avoid being detected easily by the preda-
The air plant benefits from easier access to tors. This is called

light and rain and the tree is not harmed A. Mimicry
or helped. What is this relationship?
B. Diapause
A. Predator-prey
C. Camouflage
B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism D. Biological control
D. Commensalism 128. Which of the following will increase the

size of a population? CHECK ALL THAT AP-
123. A cuckoo may lay its eggs in a warbler’s
PLY
nest. The cuckoo’s young will displace (or
move) the warbler’s young and will be A. emmigration
raised by the warbler. B. births
A. Parasitism C. deaths
B. Commensalism D. immigration
C. Predation
129. Cuscuta plant is a parasitic plant because
D. Competition
A. It has lost chlorophyll and leaves in
124. types of symbols in symbiosis due course orbits evolution
A. mutualism B. It doesn’t perform photosynthesis, de-
B. commensalism rive it’s nutrition from host plant
C. organism C. It grows on hedge plants.
D. parasitism D. First two options are correct
125. What is the relationship between two 130. The greatest threat that invasive species
species when one of the species lives in pose to ecosystems is:
or on another species and it benefits but
the other species is harmed? A. Predation on other species
A. predator-prey B. Disrupting nutrient cycles
B. parasitism C. Disrupting symbiotic relationships
C. mutualism D. Competition with other species
D. commensalism 131. Which is an example of commensalism?
126. When a species becomes extinct, the A. Two different kinds of organisms harm-
plants and animals species associated with ing each other.
it in obligatory way also becomes extinct
B. Two different kinds of organisms are
as seen in fish parasites. This is called
neither helping nor harming each other.
A. Coextinction
C. One kind of organism is being helped,
B. Co-evolution but the other one is not harmed or helped.
C. Co-existence D. One kind of organism is being helped,
D. A and C but the other is harmed.

132. All of the following methods are used by 137. The Wandering leaf insect is shaped like
predators to increase their chances of cap- the leaves it lives in. The coloration is the
turing prey EXCEPT same as the leaves and the movement of
A. pursuit the insect is like the leaves blowing in the
wind. Which best explains this strategy to
B. camoulflage avoid predation?
C. chemical warfare A. Camoflauge
D. ambush B. Mimicry
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. warning coloration C. Warning coloration
133. Which means both species are benefit- D. Chemical warfare
ted?
138. Salvinia molesta, a floating aquatic plant,
A. parasitism
first entered Lake Naivasha in Kenya
B. commensalism when a person’s fish ponds flooded. The
C. mutualism plant quickly grew, changing the habitat
of parts of the lake. This is an example of
D. none of above
a problem due to
134. An ecologist who studies how several A. reintroduction programs
species in an area interact is interested in
B. exotic species
the biological organization called a(n)
C. habitat fragmentation
A. organism
D. edge effect
B. population
C. community 139. Yucca flowers are pollinated by yucca
moths. The moths lay their eggs in the
D. ecosystem
flowers where the larvae hatch and eat
135. Leeches can be found among the leaf litter some of the developing seeds.
on the ground in the rainforest. As an an- A. Mutualism
imal walks by they can attach themselves
B. Commensalism
to it to feed off the animals blood. This is
an example of C. Parasitism
A. mutualism D. Competition
B. parasitism 140. Some birds are known as honey guides
C. commensalism because they may be followed by humans
D. predator-prey to wild beehives. When the humans take
honey from the hives, the birds are able
136. Which limiting factor is dependent of the to feast on the honey and bees, too. This
density of individuals in a population? type of relationship can best be described
A. Labor Day Bay Area heat wave as
B. Hurricane Irma A. parasitism
C. Magnitude 8.1 earthquake near Chia- B. commensalism

pas, Mexico C. mutualism
D. Competition for space D. symbiosis

141. In a relationship between a snake and a D. work together

frog, if the snake eats the frog, the frog is E. to inter when you act

A. prey 146. Both the species in this interaction gets
benefitted
B. a predator
A. Mutualism
C. alpha
B. Competition
D. a mutualistic partner
C. Predation
142. Which of the following is a fascinating ex- D. Parasitism
ample of Brood parasitism?
A. Cuckoo and Crow 147. Commensalism is where one organism is
benefiting and the other organism is
B. Sparrow and pigeon
A. not effected
C. Crow and sparrow
B. helped
D. Cuckoo and pigeon
C. harmed
143. Type of symbiosis are: D. hurt
A. parasitism
148. Because of limited resources, populations
B. predation of one species may compete with popula-
C. mutualism tions of other species for these resources.
D. competition A. Competition
B. Predation
144. Snakes hunt and kill small rodents as
food sources. This is an example of? C. Symbiosis
A. Cooperation D. none of above
B. Predation 149. Ostriches and gazelles feed next to each
C. Commensalism other. They both watch for predators and
alert each other to danger. Because their
D. Mutualism visual abilities are different, they can iden-
145. The Populations that make up a commu- tify threats that the other animal would
nity interact with each other, but what not see as readily.
does interact mean A. Commensalism
A. act in such a way as to have on another B. Competition
B. act reciprocally C. Parasitism
C. Communication D. Cooperation

13. Ecosystem
NARAYAN CHANGDER
13.1 Energy Flow through Ecosystems
1. All of the living and nonliving things in an 4. Nom nom nom, I eat plants and animals
area and the interactions among them is A. Carnivore
B. Omnivore
A. an organism
C. Herbivore
B. a food web
D. Autotroph
C. a food chain
5. All the living and nonliving things interact-
D. an ecosystem
ing in a particular area create an
2. Which of the following best explains why A. ecosystem
nitrogen fixation must take place? B. biodome
A. Nitrogen gets “stuck” in the soil and C. playground
must be untrapped
D. park
B. Nitrogen must be returned to the atmo-
sphere 6. The term “biotic” means things.
C. Animals must breathe in nitrogen A. nonliving
D. Atmospheric nitrogen is unusable to B. medicine
plants and animals C. living
D. none of above
3. A heterotroph that eats only plants is an
such as a cow, a rabbit, or grasshopper. 7. An only eats plants.
A. herbivore A. carnivore
B. carnivore B. omnivore
C. omnivore C. herbivore
D. decomposer D. decomposer

13.1 Energy Flow through Ecosystems 1235
8. Where do all life forms get their energy? C. producers

A. Earth’s Core D. none of above

B. Water 14. Which food chain below is stated cor-
C. Plants rectly?
D. The Sun A. rabbit-grasshopper-plant-eagle
B. plant-rabbit-grasshopper-eagle
9. Plants and animals need nitrogen to make
C. plant-grasshopper-rabbit-eagle
A. Protein D. none of above
B. Carbohydrates 15. Nom nom nom, me eat plants.
C. Lipids A. Herbivore
D. Nucleic Acids B. Carnivore
10. After a forest fire, an ecosystem would C. Omnivore
start regrowth through D. none of above
A. Primary Succession 16. Nobody dares to hunt Mr. Jennings. He
B. Secondary Succession must be a(n)
C. Climatic Succession A. Herbivore
D. Ecological Succession B. Tertiary Consumer
11. Which of the following illustrates the cor- C. Producer
rect ordering of trophic levels? D. Autotroph
A. decomposers-carnivores-autotrophs- 17. Which type of organism only eats meat?
herbivores
A. Detritivore
B. herbivores-autotrophs-carnivores-
B. Herbivore
decomposers
C. Omnivore
C. autotrophs-herbivores-carnivores-
decomposers D. Carnivore
D. carnivores-producers-omnivores 18. When we eat plants, we get the that
the plants stored as glucose.
12. What would happen if the grasshopper
was removed from this food chain? grass A. fat
→ grasshopper → snake → hawk B. water
A. the snake population would increase C. energy
B. the snake population would decrease D. air
C. the hawk population would increase 19. What is a force?
D. nothing would happen A. A push or a pull
13. Plants are also called B. The constant motion of an object
A. decomposers C. The acceleration of an object
B. consumers D. The mass of an object

20. Organisms that directly use energy from 26. Only about ten percent of the energy
the sun to make their own food are called stored in an organism can be passed on to
A. autotrophs the next trophic level. Of the remaining
energy, some is used for the organism’s
B. heterotrophs life processes, and the rest is typically
C. carnivores A. used in reproduction
D. decomposers B. stored as body fat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
21. A food consists of many overlapping C. stored as body tissues
food D. converted to heat and lost
A. web, chains
27. An organism that feeds on and breaks
B. chain, webs down dead plant or animal matter
C. pyramid, webs A. Decomposer
D. web, pyramids B. Photosynthesis
22. Which choice has a group of only produc- C. Producer
ers? D. consumer
A. red wolf, coyote, grey wolf
28. An organism at the second trophic level
B. sunflower, grass, pine tree would be considered a
C. mushrooms and worms A. Top carnivore
D. seaweed, algae, mushrooms B. Producer
23. Which of the following is a producer? C. Herbivore
A. a wolf D. Carnivore
B. a rabbit 29. What is a series of events in which one or-
C. bacteria ganism eats another and obtains energy?
D. grass A. food web
B. food chain
24. As you work your way up the energy pyra-
mid, what happens to the energy? C. energy pyramid
A. It increases D. none of above
B. It decreases 30. percent of energy is LOST at each level
C. It stays the same of the energy pyramid.
D. Nothing A. 90
B. 10
25. All energy on Earth ultimately comes from
what source? C. 45
A. Water D. 0
B. Sun 31. What are consumers that eat only plants
C. Consumers A. herbivores
D. Oxygen B. omnivores

C. carnivores 37. Are models used to represent trophic lev-

D. none of above els in ecosystems .

A. food chain
32. is when organisms move in from an-
other environment. B. food web
A. emigration C. ecological pyramids
B. immigration D. none of above
C. birth rate
D. death rate 38. Cells do cell respiration in order to make
A. water
33. Which of the following is most essential to
the stability of an ecosystem? B. glucose
A. a diverse population of decomposers C. energy (ATP)
B. the introduction of invasive species
D. oxygen
C. producers that do not adapt to
changes 39. Which of the following would be the defi-
D. a continually changing climate nition of a scavenger/detritivore?
34. Consumers have to other organisms to A. Animals that eat insects.

get energy. B. Organisms that feed on rocks, recy-
A. run around cling the nutrients back into the ground.
B. eat C. Organisms that eat only pants
C. make D. Things that feed on dead, rotting or-
D. plug in ganisms (roadkill)
35. How much energy is available to be passed 40. A large area that has a specific type of cli-
on to the next level in a food web? mate and certain types of plant and animal
A. 100% communities
B. 10% A. ecosystem
C. 50% B. habitat
D. 75% C. niche
36. Animals are consumers, meaning they D. biome
need to eat food for energy because they
cannot make their own. Which energy 41. Herbivores and carnivores have in common
transformation is taking place when an an- that they both
imal eats food so it can keep warm?
A. are scavengers.
A. Mechanical to thermal
B. Mechanical to radiant B. are consumers.
C. Chemical to thermal C. are producers.

D. Radiant to chemical D. are omnivores.

42. Which group of organisms obtains energy 47. In an energy pyramid, which part of the
through breaking down dead organisms food chain has the largest population?
and waste products and returning the nu- A. primary consumer
trients to the environment?
B. secondary consumer
A. producer
C. tertiary consumer
B. consumer
D. producer
C. decomposer
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. omnivore 48. in many ecosystems the amount of energy
that is transferred from one trophic level
43. All energy transformations in an ecosys- to the next is about
tem begin with
A. 90% to 100%
A. a scavenger
B. 50%
B. the sun
C. 33.3%
C. a decomposer
D. 10%
D. a herbivore
49. What is the energy source for the carbon
44. What is the definition of a food web? dioxide cycle?
A. Shows what eats what and consists of
A. plants
many food chains in an ecosystem
B. the Sun
B. A series of steps in which organisms
transfer (move) energy by eating and be- C. respiration
ing eaten. Moves in one direction. D. none of above
C. The transfer (movement) of energy.
50. stored energy in the molecules of glucose
D. A spiders habitat, and what it eats.
A. radiant energy
45. An autotroph can also be called a B. water
A. animal. C. carbon dioxide
B. consumer. D. chemical energy
C. heterotroph.
51. Organisms that can breed/mate and pro-
D. producer.
duce fertile offspring belong to the same
46. Over a long period of time, a lake ecosys- A. Species
tem can become a forest ecosystem. The
B. Biome
decomposition of dead plant and animal
matter is a part of this process. Which of C. Community
the following organisms would most likely D. Biosphere
be responsible for decomposing the dead
plant and animal matter in the lake? 52. Sugar
A. Bacteria A. photosynthesis
B. Clams B. carbon dioxide
C. Grasses C. glucose
D. Snails D. water

53. Only 10 percent of the energy stored in 58. All energy comes from the
an organism can be passed on to the next A. sun
trophic level. Of the remaining energy,

some is used for the organism’s life pro- B. producers
cesses, and the rest is C. food
A. Used in reproduction D. earth
B. Stored as body fat 59. The arrows in a food chain or food web
C. Stored as body tissue show the flow of
D. Eliminated as heat A. water.
B. oxygen.
54. The study of the interactions between or-
ganisms (biotic factors) and their environ- C. energy.
ment (abiotic factors) is called D. sunlight.
A. niche 60. In which group do carnivores belong?
B. community A. producers
C. ecology B. decomposers
D. ecosystem C. consumers
55. When you stick your hand out of the win- D. predators
dow of a moving car you feel the air push-
61. Organism that uses the sun to make en-
ing on your hand. This is an example of
ergy rich molecules (food)
A. producer
A. Static
B. consumers
B. Rolling
C. Food web
C. Sliding
D. Energy Pyramid
D. Fluid
62. In an ecosystem in Africa, zebras and
56. are the levels of nourishment in a food gazelles feed on grasses and other plants.
chain. Lions and leopards feed on zebras and
A. Trophic levels gazelles. Which of these is the role of ze-
bras and gazelles in this ecosystem?
B. Food chain
A. carnivores
C. Food webs
B. consumers
D. Trophic pyramids
C. decomposers
57. This type of consumer eats both other con- D. producers
sumers and producers to obtain energy.
63. Which of the following lists has ONLY bi-
A. Carnivore.
otic factors?
B. Herbivore.
A. snail, algae, guppy, sunlight
C. Omnivore B. temperature, Daphnia (water flea),
D. Scavenger. snail, guppy (fish)

C. snail, guppy (fish), Daphnia (water 69. The cycling of matter is important because
flea), algae A. Matter can be created and destroyed
D. temperature, pH, conductivity, nitrite B. Only a limited amount of matter is
concentration available so it has to be recycled
64. A food chain always starts with the C. Matter can only be found in a solution
A. animals D. Bacteria use matter to convert organ-
B. consumer isms into solar energy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. sun 70. An interconnected set of food chains is a(n)
D. plants A. food chain
B. food web
65. This type of consumer eats only plants.
C. ecosystem
A. Carnivore.
D. photosynthesis
B. Herbivore
C. Omnivore. 71. A(n) includes all living and non-living
things in an environment.
D. Scavenger.
A. population
66. The levels of nourishment in a food chain
B. niche
are called
C. abitotic
A. pyramids of numbers.
D. ecosystem
B. trophic levels.
C. food phases. 72. What does the arrow in a food chain or
food web mean?
D. biomagnitudes.
A. A series of steps in which organisms
67. Because 90% of the energy at each feed- transfer (move) energy by eating and be-
ing level is not passed on to the next level, ing eaten.
there are fewer organisms at the
B. An organism that breaks down wastes
A. lower level. and dead organisms.
B. middle levels. C. Shows what eats what and consists of
C. top level. many food chains in an ecosystem
D. none of above D. The transfer (movement) of energy.
68. If there were no decomposers, which of 73. Heterotrophs(feeding from others)

the following would most likely happen? A. Primary Consumers = herbivores, eat
A. Plants and animals would remain living plants only
for a longer period of time. B. Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary Con-
B. Animals would start carrying out pho- sumers
tosynthesis. C. Omnivores eat plants and animals.
C. The amount of dead plant and animal D. Carnivores eat animal flesh primarily.
matter would decrease. E. Able to feed themselves via photosyn-
D. Some plants might die due to a short- thesis (using light) or chemosynthesis (us-
age of important nutrients. ing chemicals).

74. This type of consumer eats both other con- C. models

sumers and producers to obtain energy. D. none of above
It’s name means “ALL” or “WHOLE” in

latin. 80. In which type of symbiotic relationship
A. Carnivore. does one species benefit while the other
species is unaffected?
B. Herbivore.
A. Commensalism
C. Omnivore
B. Parasitism
D. Scavenger.
C. Mutualism
75. Organisms use nitrogen to form
D. Predation
A. carbohydrates
B. proteins 81. The place where an organism lives is its
An organism’s role in the environment
C. lipids is called its
D. carbon dioxide
A. habitat; niche
76. When a population NEARS its carrying ca- B. niche; ecosystem
pacity, resources become limited. Popula-
C. organism; habitat
tion growth slows and
D. population; habitat
A. deaths outnumber births
B. the birth rate and death rate are equal 82. A consumer gets energy by doing what?
C. the birth rate increases A. Making it themselves.
D. the death rate increases B. Breaking down biotic wastes and dead
organisms and returning raw materials to
77. My file cabinet stays in the corner of the the ecosystem.
room as a result of this type of friction.
C. Soaking it up from the ground.
A. Static
D. Feeding on other organisms.
B. Rolling
C. Sliding 83. A producer?
D. Fluid (Air Resistance) A. Eats other plants and animals
78. the series of steps in which a large fish B. Makes its own food
that eats a small fish that has eaten an C. Eats dead plants or animals
algae is a D. none of above
A. the food chain
84. The efficiency of energy transfer from a
B. the pyramid of numbers
lower trophic level to the next highest
C. the pyramid of biomes level is roughly
D. food web A. 1%
79. each step in a food chain or a food web? B. 10%
A. pyramids C. 100%
B. trophic level D. 1000%

85. Which best explains the role of bacteria in 90. An animal that eats plants rather than
an ecosystem? other animals is called:
A. They break down organic matter into A. Meat Eater
necessary nutrient components. B. Carnivore
B. They release energy from the decom- C. Herbivore
position of atmospheric gases. D. Omnivore
C. They convert carbon dioxide and water
91. Molecules are
NARAYAN CHANGDER
into simple carbohydrates.
A. 2 atoms bound together
D. They absorb energy from the synthesis
of inorganic compounds. B. 2 elements bound together
C. 2 or more atoms mixed together
86. Which of this energy roles is always lo-
D. 2 or more atoms bound together
cated at the bottom of an energy pyra-
mid? 92. Organisms that feed on both producers
A. Producer and other consumers.
B. Second-Level Carnivores A. Carnivores
B. Omnivores
C. Herbivores.
C. Herbivores
D. First-Level Consumers.
D. Detritivores
87. Which organism doesn’t belong in this
93. What is the definition of the word herbi-
group? Tree, Fox, Grass, Strawberry
vore?
Plant
A. An organism that obtains energy by
A. tree
feeding on other organisms.
B. fox B. An animal that eats only plants
C. grass C. An animal that eats other animals
D. strawberry plant D. An animal that eats both plants and an-
imals
88. Plants take in and release that hu-
mans need to breathe. 94. All of the following are the same thing, ex-
cept:
A. water; oxygen
A. producers
B. carbon dioxide; oxygen
B. phytoplankton
C. oxygen; carbon dioxide
C. decomposers
D. oxygen; water
D. autotrophs
89. Only about of energy is passed to each 95. If the plant population decreased, the
trophic level. amount of carbon would
A. 10% A. Stay the same
B. 90% B. Increase
C. 0% C. Decrease

96. What breaks down biotic wastes and dead 101. Organisms that create their own energy
organisms and returns the raw materials from sunlight or chemicals
to the ecosystem

A. Herbivore
A. a decomposer B. Omnivore
B. a producer C. Autotroph
C. a consumer D. Heterotroph
D. none of above
102. What process do plants use to turn light
97. Why is there a limited amount of energy energy into chemical energy?
that can be passed on to the next feeding A. irrigation
level?
B. photosynthesis
A. There is never enough sunlight avail-
C. evaporation
able.
D. reproduction
B. Some ecosystems have limited re-
sources. 103. A consumer?
C. Organisms use some of the energy A. Makes its own food
they get from eating.
B. Eats dead plants and animals
D. All the energy is available to be passed
on. C. Eats plants and other animals for en-
ergy
98. A community of organisms and the envi- D. none of above
ronment in which they live is
104. After a forest fire, the first sign of eco-
A. home system
logical recovery occurs with
B. Ecosystem
A. large herbivores
C. Economy
B. large carnivores
D. living space
C. grasses and shrubs
99. Primary Consumers eat D. trees
A. Producers
105. Unlike plants, animals cannot make their
B. Apex Predators own food. How do animals obtain the en-
ergy they need?
C. Decomposers
A. Animals are able to function without
D. none of above
energy.
100. Only % of energy gets passed on B. Animals eat other organisms.
from one trophic level to the next
C. Animals absorb chemicals from their
A. 5% environment.
B. 10% D. Animals collect solar energy.
C. 26%
106. Plants make their own food through the
D. 90% process of photosynthesis and they store

that food energy in the form of until 112. An organism that gets energy fro eating
they need it. another organism is
A. water A. a producer
B. flowers B. a habitat
C. glucose
C. a consumer
D. hydrogen
D. photosynthesis
107. A living thing that feeds on the wastes
NARAYAN CHANGDER
and remains of plants and animals is called 113. What gas does burning things release
? into the atmosphere?
A. decomposer A. oxygen
B. community B. carbon dioxide
C. consumer C. nitrogen
D. population D. diethylchlorofloromethane
108. By which process is water taken from the
ocean to form clouds? 114. What is the definition of the word decom-
poser?
A. condensation
A. Shows what eats what and consists of
B. evaporation
C. transpiration
B. The transfer (movement) of energy.
D. none of above
C. An animal that eats other animals
109. Which of the following organisms are ca-
pable of performing photosynthesis? D. An organism that breaks down wastes
and dead organisms.
A. Some Bacteria, Fungi, Plants
B. Some Bacteria, Some Protists, Plants 115. What is our role in the carbon cycle?
C. Fungi, All Protists, Plants A. We are made of carbon.
D. Fungi, Some Protists, Plants B. We release it into the atmosphere
when we breathe.
110. What is a major contributor to global
warming? C. We release it into the atmosphere
A. excess oxygen when using fossil fuels.
B. excess carbon dioxide D. All of the above.

C. excess carbon monoxide 116. In which type of symbiotic relationship
D. excess hydrogen does one species benefit while the other
species is harmed?
111. Energy enters an ecosystem as
A. Commensalism
A. sunlight
B. animals B. Parasitism
C. water C. Mutualism
D. grass D. Predation

117. Grass is considered a 123. a system of food chains that shows the
A. consumer transfer of energy is termed

B. producer A. food web
C. decomposer B. food chain
D. composers C. prey
D. predator
118. Organisms that break down wastes and
dead organisms and return the raw mate- 124. Why are coral reefs found near the sur-
rials to the environment face of the ocean?
A. Producer A. they avoid predators below
B. Consumer B. they eat fish near the surface
C. Decomposer C. they need oxygen from above
D. none of above D. they need energy from the sun
119. herbivores & omnivores (rabbit, monkey, 125. What are consumers that eat both plants
deer, insect, etc.) and animals
A. Autotrophs A. herbivores
B. First Order heterotrophs B. carnivores
C. Second Order heterotrophs C. omnivores
D. Third and fourth order heterotrophs D. none of above
120. Which of the following are carbon reser- 126. Which term is synonymous with pro-
voirs? Check all that apply. ducer?
A. Oceans A. autotroph
B. Animals B. heterotroph
C. Plants C. consumer
D. Fossil fuels D. decomposer
121. A is a type of animal that hunts other 127. Which group in a food web is most likely
animals to eat. to change atmospheric nitrogen into forms
A. prey that are usable?
B. herbivore A. consumers
C. predator B. decomposers
D. producer C. producers
D. scavengers
122. Which level does energy flow directly to
after the producer level? 128. Any Living Thing.
A. Decomposer A. Person
B. Producer B. Organism
C. Primary consumer C. Cell
D. Secondary consumer D. Atom

129. Since consumers usually eat many kinds 134. Which of the following best describes the
of other organisms, the best way of fully producers in a terrestrial food web?
describing energy flow in an ecosystem is
A. They are at the highest trophic level.
by the use of a which combines many
food chains into one picture. B. They are not affected by decomposers.
A. food web C. They convert solar energy to chemical
B. food chain energy (glucose).
D. They obtain all their nutrients and en-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. energy pyramid
ergy from consumers.
D. chart
130. What is given off at each stop of the en- 135. When members of the SAME species in-
ergy pyramid? teract with one another they form a
A. Light A. population
B. Waste B. community
C. Gas C. organism
D. Heat
D. ecosystem
131. Where does the carbon in trees come
from? 136. If there are 1, 000 kilocalories of energy
available at the producer level, how much
A. photosynthesis fixes oxygen from the energy will be available at the 3rd con-
air into carbon in trees sumer level
B. decomposers expel carbon into the air
A. 1 kcal
C. photosynthesis fixes carbon dioxide
from the air into carbon in trees B. 10 kcal
D. trees take carbon from the soil in C. 100 kcal

through their roots D. none of above
132. What percentage of energy at each
137. All of the biotic and abiotic factors in an
trophic level is passed on to the next level
area are a
when those organisms are eaten?
A. 10% A. population
B. 50% B. organism
C. 90% C. species
D. 100% D. ecosystem
133. What is the primary source of energy in
138. Which organisms are heterotrophs?
an ecosystem?
A. photosynthesizers
A. Plants
B. Animals B. producers
C. Sun C. consumers
D. none of above D. plants

139. What percentage of energy received at 144. Which of the following would be the def-
each trophic level is used by the organisms inition of a detritivore?
at that level?

A. Animals that eat insects.
A. 10% B. Organisms that feed on rocks, recy-
B. 50% cling the nutrients back into the ground.
C. 90% C. Organisms that eat only pants
D. Things that feed on dead organisms,
D. 100%
recycling the nutrients back into the
140. A(n) is a diagram that shows the ground.
amounts of energy that flow through each 145. Maggots feed on dead and decaying or-
level of a food chain. ganisms for energy. What are maggots?
A. food sequence A. autotrophs
B. food web B. producers
C. food chain C. decomposers
D. energy pyramid D. heterotrophs
141. Why do humans need photosynthesis? 146. Click on all the examples of common de-
composers.
A. It produces food to eat
A. coyote
B. It produces oxygen for us to breathe
B. bacteria
C. It gives us energy C. grass
D. it gives us gravity D. mushrooms
142. Which organisms have the most available 147. Heat is to the environment at each of
energy in an energy pyramid? the trophic levels of this ecosystem.
A. Producer A. Lost
B. Consumer B. Gained
C. Decomposer C. Unaffected
D. Scavenger D. Not lost

148. Which definition best fits the term bi-
143. Because energy flows from organism to
otic?
organism and is used for metabolism or
is converted to heat the next organism in A. The study of the interactions between
the chain only receives 10% of the energy animals and their environment
from the previous level. This is known as B. Factors in the environment that are
the considered not alive
A. Heat Regulation. C. the environment in which an organism
lives.
B. Energy Loss Directive.
D. Factors in the environment that are
C. Heat Transfer Rule.
considered living or the remains of living
D. Rule of 10. things

E. The role a species plays in the ecosys- B. oxygen

tem. C. helium
149. An organism that gets energy from eat- D. nitrogen
ing plants and other animals is a(n)
155. The environment in which an organism
A. carnivore lives is called a
B. producer A. ecozone.
C. omnivore
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. habitat.
D. herbivore
C. climate.
150. What substance enables a plant to use D. niche
the sun’s energy to make food?
156. Producers capture energy from
A. Carbonation
A. sunlight
B. Chlorine
B. food
C. Chlorophyll
C. plants
D. Oxygen
D. sugar
ple of a limiting factor? 157. Energy is passed through living organ-
isms within ecosystems via
A. Diseases
A. photosynthesis
B. Predators
B. chemical energy
C. Trophic Level
C. thermal energy
D. Available Shelter
D. food chains food webs
152. in the pyramid of biomass the g/m of pri-
mary producers is ? 158. are organisms in an ecosystem that
A. 809 m/g eat only producers. They are herbivores.
B. 37 m/g A. Primary Consumers
C. 11 m/g B. Secondary Consumers
D. none of above C. Tertiary Consumers

D. Decomposers
153. Which group of animals consists of only
herbivores 159. Why are food chains limited in length?
A. humans, bears, deer A. Because top predators are hard to
B. cows, tigers, chickens catch.
C. rabbits, bears, humans B. Because top predators are important

for the ecosystem.
D. cows, rabbits, deer
C. Because top predators are strong.
154. What is the most abundant gas in the at- D. Because there is not enough energy in
mosphere? high level carnivores to support another
A. hydrogen trophic level.

160. Which statement accurately describes 165. Which of the following methods is how
light energy? primary producers obtain energy?

A. a kind of energy that warms things on A. Use the sun to produce energy rich
Earth compounds
B. a kind of energy that illuminates things B. Produce CO2 through cellular respira-
on Earth tion
C. a kind of energy that reproduces C. Break down chemicals to produce en-
things on Earth ergy rich compounds
D. a kind of energy that processes things D. Consuming other organisms
on Earth
166. A model showing all the possible feeding
161. The energy role that break down biotic relationships among organisms in a com-
wastes and dead organisms is? munity
A. Consumer A. decomposer
B. Producer B. Food web
C. Scavenger C. producer
D. Decomposer D. consumer
162. Which of the following describes an in-
167. In which direction and with how much
terconnection of food chains in an ecosys-
force will an object move if you push to
tem?
the left with 15N of force and your friend
A. Food chain pushes to the right with 5N of force?
B. Food web A. up with 10N of force
C. Energy pyramid B. down with 5N of force
D. Producer web C. left with 10N of force
163. Heterotrophs that eat and decompose D. right with 10N of force
dead materials and waste are called
168. In which group do herbivores belong?
A. herbivores.
A. predators
B. carnivores.
B. decomposers
C. omnivores.
C. producers
D. decomposers.
D. consumers
164. Plants that get their food from the sun’s
energy and act as source of food for other 169. What is the source of all the food in an
organisms in an ecosystem is called: ecosystem
A. Producer A. consumers
B. Consumer B. decomposers
C. Decomposer C. producers
D. Herbivore D. none of above

170. In which group do omnivores belong? C. Respiration

A. producers D. Bioremdiation
B. consumers
176. In an energy pyramid, energy as you
C. decomposers move up the pyramid.
D. predators A. Increases
171. shows multiple food chains at once, B. Decreases
and how they interconnect.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Stays the same
A. Food webs D. Changes up and down
B. Food chains
177. What percent of energy moves on to each
C. Trophic pyramids trophic level in a food chain?
D. Energy pyramids
A. 1%
172. According to the 10% rule, 90% of avail- B. 10%
able energy is lost to the environment as
C. 100%
a result of
D. .01%
A. Heat loss during cellular respiration.
B. The inability to digest skin, hair, nails 178. Which of the following is NOT true about
or other undigestible materials. an ecosystem?
C. Feces A. all ecosystems are the same size
D. All of the above are correct B. all of the parts combine to determine
what lives there
a food producer? C. it contains both living and nonliving
parts
A. Human
D. it has producers, consumers, and de-
B. Grizzly Bear
composers
C. Orca
179. A group of a particular species living and
D. Oak Tree
interacting in the same area
174. Eating both plants and animals is a char- A. Community
acteristic of
B. Population
A. herbivores
C. Organisms
B. decomposer
D. Biosphere
C. carnivores
D. omnivores 180. Which of the following take carbon diox-
ide out of the atmosphere?
175. Which process takes Carbon Dioxide from
A. plant and animal respiration
the air and converts it into a form of car-
bon used by living things? B. volcanoes
A. Precipitation C. combustion of fossil fuels
B. Photosynthesis D. photosynthesis

181. What is an example of a carnivore that C. Herbivores, carnivores, producers, pri-

feeds on the bodies of dead organisms mary consumers

A. a deer D. Carnivores, producer, primary con-
B. a bear sumers, tertiary consumers
C. a vulture 187. This organism draws its nutrients from

dead organisms as it releases enzymes to
D. none of above
cause the organisms to break down and
182. plants are break apart. Is it a
A. herbivores A. Producer
B. omnivores B. Consumer
C. carnivores C. Decomposer
D. producers D. none of above
183. Which of the following describes the role 188. Grizzly bears are classified in the order
of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the nitrogen Carnivora. Their diet consists of roots,
cycle? Nitrogen-fixing bacteria convert flowers, berries, nuts, fungus, insects, ro-
dents, and fish. What ecological role best
A. nitrates intro nitrogen gas describes grizzly bears?
B. ammonia into proteins A. carnivores
C. nitrogen gas into ammonia B. omnivores
D. proteins into nitrates C. herbivores
184. Natural disasters such as flooding and D. producers
tornadoes are linked to
189. represents the total mass of living or-
A. Primary Succession ganic matter at each trophic level.
B. Secondary Succession A. Biomass pyramid
C. Climatic Succession B. Numbers pyramid
D. Ecological Succession C. Energy pyramid
D. Trophic pyramid
185. Biomass refers to
A. Chemical Energy 190. A food chain shows how many possi-
ble paths along which energy can move
B. Light Energy
through the ecosystem
C. Rank in the feeding heirarchy
A. two or three
D. Amount of living tissue in an ecosys-
B. only one
tem
C. many
186. What are the four types of consumers? D. none of above
A. Herbivores, carnivores, omnivores, de-
trivores (decomposers) 191. Organisms need nutrients in order to
B. Producers, heterotrophs, detrivores A. utilize hydrogen and oxygen

(decomposers), primary consumers B. carryout essential life functions

C. recycle chemical compounds 196. The place that an organism occupies in the
food Chain
D. carryout nitrogen fixation
A. Energy Transfer
192. Why are decomposers such an essential
B. Decomposer
part of any food web and ecosystem?
C. Food Web
A. Decomposers recycle nutrients that
keep the flow of energy going. D. Trophic Level
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Decomposers provide the base of all 197. Deer and zebras feed on grasses and
energy production in the food web other plants. Leopards and lions feed on
C. Decomposers are responsible for deer and zebras. Which of these is the role
keeping the numbers of herbivores in of deer and zebras in this ecosystem?
check A. Producers
D. Decomposers prevent new species B. Carnivores
from coming into the system.
C. Decomposers
193. What are producers? D. Consumers
A. organisms that make their own food 198. Which of the following would provide the
using energy from the sun most energy in an ecosystem?
B. organisms that get their energy A. Producers
through eating other animals
B. Herbivore
C. organisms that break down dead
plants and animals C. Omnivore
D. organisms that get their energy D. none of above

through eating plants
199. Which of the following substances is used
(needed) by plants as a reactant in photo-
194. The unique position that a species has in
synthesis?
the physical use of its habitat and in its
function (job) within an ecosystem A. Carbon dioxide
A. producer B. Glucose
B. biotic factors C. Oxygen
C. ecosystem D. Pyruvic Acid
D. niche 200. represents the number of organisms

at each trophic level; since energy de-
195. A decomposer? creases as you go up the pyramid, fewer
A. Eats dead plants or animals and organisms can be supported.
breaks down to put nutrients in the soil A. Numbers pyramid
B. Eats plants or other animals for food B. Trophic pyramid
C. Makes its own food C. Biomass pyramid
D. Machine that gathers trash D. Energy pyramid

201. The model of the energy available at each B. An animal that eats other animals
level that ALWAYS gets smaller as you go C. An organism that obtains energy by
up is the

feeding on other organisms.
A. energy pyramid. D. The transfer (movement) of energy.
B. numbers pyramid.
207. These break down dead things and
C. biomass pyramid.
restart the whole cycle.
D. food web.
A. Autotophs
202. What is the Process by which plants B. Decomposers
make food, using energy from sunlight?
C. Producers
A. Water cycle
D. Carnivores
B. Evaporation
208. A field of wheat is an example of which
C. Photosynthesis
member of a food chain?
D. Photo Journalism
A. decomposer
203. Which of the following is a 2nd level con- B. consumer
sumer? acorn→ squirrel → owl → mush-
room C. herbivore
A. squirrel D. producer
B. owl 209. What are consumers that eat only ani-

C. mushroom mals
D. none of above A. herbivores

B. carnivores
204. Which type of pyramid shows the rela-
tive amount of living tissue at each trophic C. omnivores
level? D. none of above
A. The Egyptian Pyramids
210. Average weather conditions of an area
B. Pyramid of Energy over time
C. Pyramid of Numbers A. temperature
D. Pyramid of Biomass B. weather
205. Which of the following is not true? C. climate
A. carnivores eat other animals D. atmosphere
B. herbivores eat plants 211. Producers like plants, algae, and some
C. omnivores eat other animals and bacteria make food through a process
plants called
D. decomposers use photosynthesis A. respiration.
206. What is the definition of the word con- B. photosynthesis.

sumer? C. decomposing.
A. An animal that eats only plants D. eating.

212. Which of the following is an herbivore? C. to provide a source of energy for the
A. a cat. producers in the ecosystem
B. a lion. D. to recycle energy and materials from

dead producers and consumers
C. Saad Mohammed.
D. a cow. 218. What is another name for evaporation of
water through the leaves of plants?
213. A squirrel’s habitat in a dead log is con-
sidered a factor A. Transpiration
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Biotic B. Condensation
B. Abiotic C. Precipitation
C. cool D. Percolation
D. secret
219. A(n) includes all living and nonliving
214. Bacteria in soil change into ingredi- things.
ents plants can use.
A. community
A. H2
B. ecosystem
B. O2
C. N2 C. population
D. He2 D. species
215. A food is a model that shows how en- 220. Animals that eat primary producers (also
ergy flows in an ecosystem through feed- known as herbivores)
ing relationships.
A. Producers
A. chain
B. web
C. Secondary Consumers
C. pyramid
D. plate D. Tertiary Consumers
216. I go through photosynthesis I must be a 221. Biotic can be defined as

A. the living parts of an environment
A. Heterotroph
B. non-living parts of an environment
B. Autotroph
C. rocks and water
C. Herbivore
D. snakes and water
D. Autovore
217. What is the primary role of decomposers 222. An organism that can make its own food
in a food web? A. decomposer
A. to control the population of producers B. consumer
and consumers
C. producer
B. to compete with producers for energy
and other resources D. none of above

223. A particular golf course is using large 228. Farmer Joe is worried he will not get
amounts of nitrogen fertilizer. What pro- enough of his corn crop there year. Which
cess could move this nitrogen into a local process below will be help his crop to

stream? grow?
A. volatilization A. Denitrification through soil bacteria
B. nitrogen fixation B. Nitrogen Fixation through soil bacteria
C. runoff C. Cellular Respiration in the plants
D. ammonification D. Chemosynthesis in the soil
224. Transfer of energy is represented by this 229. In the food chain below, which is the sec-
in a food chain. ondary consumer? grass → mouse →
snake → hawk
A. Circles
A. grass
B. Arrows
B. mouse
C. neon lights
C. snake
D. pyramids
D. hawk
225. A species is a species on which other
230. factors are all living things located
species in an ecosystem largely depend,
within an ecosystem.
and if it were removed, the ecosystem
would change drastically. A. biotic
A. Keystone B. abitotic
B. Apex C. biome
C. Primary D. niche
D. Endangered 231. Where in the cell does photosynthesis oc-
cur?
226. This biome is cold, has animals with thick
fur, and permafrost prevents deep rooted A. mitochondria
plants B. stomata
A. Tundra C. xylem
B. Taiga D. chloroplast
C. Rain forest 232. Which biome receives between 0 to 25
D. Grassland centimeters of rain per year, has a tem-
perature range of 0 to 50 degrees Celsius,
227. A third-level consumer has to be which has poor soil, and is home to lizards, scor-
type? pions, and snakes?
A. Carnviore. A. desert
B. Decomposer. B. mountain
C. Producer. C. taiga
D. Herbivore. D. tundra

233. The amount of energy that usually trans- 238. The ultimate source of energy for virtu-
fers from one trophic level to the next ally all living things on the planet is /are
A. 10% A. plants
B. 20% B. the moon
C. 80% C. the sun
D. 50% D. algae
NARAYAN CHANGDER
239. A consumer gets energy by
234. What metabolic pathway do only produc-
ers use? A. absorbing sunlight.
A. respiration B. breaking down dead organisms.
B. photosynthesis C. soaking it up from the ground.
C. fermentation D. feeding on other organisms.
D. meiosis 240. A food web can be broken down into sev-

eral seperate
235. As you move upward, from level to level,
A. food chains
in an energy pyramid, energy
B. food pyramids
A. increases
C. producers
B. decreases
D. consumers
C. stays the same
241. What do plants need to produce their
D. increases exponentially
own food?
236. What is the term for each step in the A. sunlight, water, and oxygen
transfer of energy and matter within a bi- B. sunlight, water, and carbon dioxide
ological community?
C. water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide
A. energy path
D. water, soil, and oxygen
B. food web
242. Biotic factors are
C. trophic level
A. nonliving factors
D. food pyramid
B. living factors
237. What are food chains? C. Both A & B
A. Food chains trace a single flow of en- D. Neither A or B
ergy and show trophic levels.
243. A hockey puck sliding across the ice is an
B. Food chains are the level of nourish-
example of this type of friction.
ment in a food web.
A. Air Resistance
C. Food chains are models that show how
energy flows through an ecosystem. B. Sliding
D. Food chains show multiple food chains C. Rolling

at once, and how they interconnect. D. Static

244. Consumers that eat only plants A. There would be more food for sec-
A. Carnivores ondary consumers.

B. The number of primary consumers
B. Omnivores
would increase.
C. Herbivores
C. The number of plants would increase.
D. Scavengers
D. The number of secondary consumers
245. In an energy pyramid, only of the en- would increase.
ergy at any level is ever passed on to the 250. A is defined as a carnivore that feeds
next level. on the bodies of dead organisms
A. 1% A. consumer
B. 10% B. scavenger
C. 20% C. decomposer
246. The process of plants using energy from 251. in the pyramid of energy the percentage
the sun to create the first trophic level is of secondary consumers is ?
called?
A. 11%
A. Photosynthesis
B. 90000%
B. Chemosynthesis C. 1%
C. Cellular Respiratation D. none of above
D. Primary Producers
252. Where is the most energy available on a
247. All ecosystems contain at least one pop- Energy Pyramid?
ulation of organisms. Which of the follow- A. Producer Level
ing could be considered a population?
B. First Level Consumers
A. a pile of clamshells
C. Second Level Consumers
B. a grove of apple trees
D. Third Level Consumers
C. a mockingbird and its nest
253. An organism that must consume other or-
D. a group of deer and mice ganisms for nutrients.
248. Where does cellular respiration take A. Consumer
place in the cell? B. Producer
A. Cell Membrane C. Parasite
B. Nucleus D. Decomposer
C. Mitochondria
254. How is Nitrogen removed from the air
D. Vacuole and put into compound that living things
can use?
249. What most likely happen first if you re-
move a primary consumer from the ecosys- A. plants
tem? B. photosynthesis

C. chemosynthesis 260. Frank counts 56 maple trees living on a

D. nitrogen fixing bacteria 20-acre tract of land, and the data allows
him to calculate the of the maple trees on
255. The process by which producers make the land.
their own food is called A. Population density
A. photosynthesis B. Population distribution
B. migration C. growth rate
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. food chain D. none of above
D. hibernation
261. Solar energy becomes
256. Consumers have several energy levels. A. photosynthesis.
All the statements are false except
B. chemical energy
A. As consumers advance to other levels,
C. thermal energy
they get fewer in number.
D. Solar energy
B. As consumers advance to higher lev-
els, they become more numerous. 262. Organisms that can capture energy from
C. As consumers advance, they restrict the sun in the process of photosynthesis.
their diet to one organism. A. Producers
D. As consumers advance they make B. Consumers
more energy.
C. Detritivores
257. in an energy pyramid, which way does D. Carnivores
the energy transfer?
263. Newton’s second law states
A. from top of the pyramid to the bottom
A. If there is more mass then there is
B. from the bottom of the pyramid to the
more acceleration
top
B. An object at rest wants to be in motion
C. all of these
C. Force = Mass x Acceleration
D. none of these
D. The force exerted on an object is not
258. Consumers obtain energy by related to mass or acceleration
A. eating other organisms
264. what should you say when you see an
B. eating plants arrow in a food chain or food web?
C. photosynthesis A. “passes energy to”
D. nitrogen B. “eats”
259. Consumers that eat and decompose dead C. “takes energy from”
materials are called D. all of the above
A. herbivores. 265. A consumer that eats animals that are al-
B. carnivores. ready dead is called
C. omnivores. A. an herbivore.
D. detritivores. B. an omnivore.

C. a carnivore. C. Controlled release of energy from ATP

D. a scavenger. to ADP.

D. The conversion of chemical energy to
266. Which organism can provide the most en- light energy.
ergy in an ecosystem?
271. All energy on Earth comes from
A. mushrooms
A. food.
B. coyotes
B. the sun.
C. insects
C. chemicals.
D. grass and trees
D. non-living things.
267. Decomposers break down detritus, also
272. What is an ecological model of the rela-
known as
tionships that form a network of complex
A. dead organic matter interactions among organisms in a commu-
B. inorganic matter nity from producers to decomposers?
C. living matter A. food web
D. non-living matter B. an ecosystem

C. food chain
268. While nutrients (matter) is constantly re-
D. a population
cycled throughout the biosphere (Earth),
energy 273. create all of the usable food energy
A. is also recycled throughout the bio- on the planet!
sphere. A. Decomposers
B. bounces around until it hits something. B. Aliens
C. flows in one direction only and must C. Producers
constantly be supplied to ecosystems by D. Consumers
the sun.
274. Abiotic can be defined as?
D. None of the above is/are correct.
A. An organism that is alive
269. what are the two models of ENERGY
B. Non-living parts of the environment
FLOW? (2 choices)
C. Living Parts of the environment
A. food web
D. A new kind of Pokemon that lives with
B. pyramid Pikachu
C. food chain
275. Which organism in the food chain is re-
D. trophic level sponsible for transforming energy from
the sun into chemical energy? Grass
270. What is the main purpose of photosyn-
→Prairie dog→Coyote→Soil bacteria
thesis?
A. grass
A. Controlled release of energy from glu-
cose to ATP. B. prairie
B. The conversion of light energy to chem- C. coyote
ical energy (glucose). D. soil bacteria

276. The organisms at the top of the energy C. Immigration

pyramid have the amount of energy.
D. Emigration
A. most
E. Density and distribution
B. least
C. highest 282. The arrows in a food chain or food web
D. strongest
A. point to random things in the forest for
277. Any non-native organisms that change
NARAYAN CHANGDER
no reason
the balance of the ecosystem are:
B. point to where the energy is GOING as
A. predators it passes through the food chain or food
B. prey web
C. invasive species C. point to where the energy is LEAVING
D. intrusive species as it passes through the food chain or food
web
278. In a food chain, if the producer level has
incorporated 8, 000 kilicalories, how much D. none of above
energy is incorporated into the secondary
283. Which of the following is a secondary con-
consumer level?
sumer in a food chain?
A. 8, 000
A. herbivore
B. 800
B. decomposer
C. 80
C. omnivore
D. 2000
D. carnivore
279. What do the arrows represent in a food
chain? 284. Why does cell respiration and photosyn-
A. Stop thesis rely on each other?
B. Start A. They are the same process
C. “Gives energy to” B. Cell respiration must occur first, then
D. none of above photosynthesis
C. They are opposites, meaning the prod-
280. Small, swimming animals that feed on al-
ucts of one process is needed by the other
gae, such as krill.
process
A. aquatoplankton
D. none of above
B. phytoplankton
C. zooplankton 285. An organism’s specific role in its habitat
is called its
D. none of above
A. consumer
281. What factors determine the rate at which
a population is increasing or decreasing? B. niche
A. Birthrate C. birth right
B. Death rate D. mutalism

286. omnivores or carnivores (wolf, lion, bear, B. sleeping, running, eating

human) C. moving, excreting waste products,

A. Autotrophs heat lost to the atmosphere
B. First Order heterotrophs D. excreting waste products, moving,
C. Second Order heterotrophs photosynthesising
D. Third and fourth order heterotrophs 291. What is at the top of the Energy Pyra-
mid?
287. What is the definition of a food chain?
A. Tertiary Consumer
A. An animal that eats only plants
B. A series of steps in which organisms
transfer (move) energy by eating and be- C. Herbivores
ing eaten. D. Autotrophs
C. The transfer (movement) of energy.
292. What percent of energy is passed along
D. Shows what eats what and consists of to each level in an energy pyramid?
A. 5%
288. Only about of energy at one trophic B. 10%
level is passed on to the next trophic level.
C. 28%
The rest of the energy is used up or is lost
as heat. D. 76%
A. 1% 293. If a frog is the prey, what could be the
B. 100% predator?
C. 10% A. Grass
D. .1% B. Insect
289. What way to autotrophs (producers) get C. Snake

energy? D. Snail
A. They capture energy from nonliving
294. t level consumers are:
sources during photosynthesis to make
simple sugars. A. Producers
B. They capture energy from living B. Herbivores
sources during photosynthesis to make C. Decomposers
glucose.
D. Carnivores
C. They capture energy from nonliving
sources during the day. 295. A food is a series of events in which
one organism eats another and obtains en-
D. They capture energy from living
ergy.
sources at night.
A. chain
290. Energy gets lost at each level of a food
chain in which ways? B. web
A. moving, eating, heat lost to the atmo- C. pyramid

sphere D. plate

296. use energy from the sun to convert non- 301. What characteristics do ecological studies
living chemical nutrients into living tissue to learn about populations?
and high energy molecules of sugar and
A. Geological range
carbohydrate.
B. Growth rate
A. Autotrophs
C. Density and distribution
B. Producers (plants)
D. Age structure
C. thermal energy
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Birthrate
302. Which of the following is a decomposer?
297. The 3 levels of consumers in order are
, , and A. a rabbit
A. primary, secondary, and proximal B. a wolf
B. proximal, secondary, and tertiary C. bacteria
C. primary, secondary, and tertiary D. grass
D. proximal, secondary, and tertiary
303. What would happen without herbivores
298. What is the definition of the word omni- in a coral reef ecosystem?
vore? A. the reef would become overgrown
A. An animal that eats only plants with algae
B. An animal that eats both plants and an- B. nothing would change
imals C. the fish would eat too many other fish
C. An animal that eats other animals D. the reef would lose most of its algae
D. An organism that can make its own
food. 304. What way do heterotrophs (consumers)
get energy?
299. Which of the following is a consumer? A. From living or once-living organisms
A. Abdulrahman Shaibah. during chemosynthesis
B. plants. B. From nonliving sources during photo-
synthesis
C. algae.
C. From the sun
D. From H2O
300. What do you call an organism that gets
its energy by feeding on other organ- 305. How much available energy is passed on
isms? to the next trophic level?
A. herbivore A. 15%
B. producer B. 5%
C. decomposer C. 10%
D. consumer D. 8%

306. He observes that most of the maple trees 311. Sunlight

grow closely together in groups of 6 to 8 A. Chemical energy
trees, which describes the

B. radiant energy
C. oxygen
B. Population distribution
D. glucose
C. growth rate
D. Age structure 312. Things that help organisms survive are
A. biotic factors
307. How much energy is available to be
passed on to the next trophic level in an B. abiotic factors
ecosystem? C. resources
A. 100% D. none of above
B. 10%
313. Succession that occurs in an area with no
C. 50% soil is called ?
D. 75% A. Primary Succession
308. Meteorites that contain organic com- B. Secondary Succession
pounds have been found on Earth. Some
C. Eutrophication
scientists think the organic compounds in
meteorites may have provided the ele- D. Intermediate
ments needed for life on Earth. Which el-
314. Which choice has a group of only con-
ement forms the basis for most important
sumers?
molecules? Hint:Think CHNOPS.
A. Nickel A. grass, cows, birds
B. Carbon B. tigers, turtles, seaweed
C. Sodium C. owl, snake, bear
D. Iron D. castus, sun, mushroom
309. This biome has open spaces with grass, 315. What is the source of all energy?
but very few trees A. the sun
A. Tundra B. water
B. Taiga C. plants
C. Rain forest D. oxygen
D. Grassland
316. What is a diagram that shows the
310. Anything that reduces or prevents a pop- amount of energy that move from one
ulation from growing is a: feeding level to another
A. limiting factor A. food web
B. hetertroph B. food chain
C. autotroph C. energy pyramid
D. decomposer D. none of above

317. I am the bottom of the food chain and A. Producer

energy pyramid. I provide energy for ev- B. Consumer
erybody.
C. Decomposer
A. Apex Predators
D. none of above
B. Carnivores
C. Producers 323. What is an energy pyramid used to
show?
D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. the layout of organism in any order
318. Diagram that shows the relative amount seen fit
of energy or matter contained within each
trophic level in a food chain or food web. B. the amount of energy in the universe
A. food chain C. the amount of energy at each trophic

level
B. food web
D. none of above
C. Ecological pyramid
D. none of above 324. An example of an important abiotic (non-
living) factor in the environment is
319. Which is a producer?
A. temperature
A. deer
B. the amount of precipitation (rain,
B. tall grass snow)
C. lion C. the amount of sunlight
D. worm D. all of the above are correct
320. the number of births in a population dur- 325. What is the definition of the word carni-
ing a certain amount of time is called the vore?
A. An organism that obtains energy by
A. community feeding on other organisms.
B. populations B. An animal that eats only plants
C. birth rate
C. An animal that eats other animals
D. death rate
D. An animal that eats both plants and an-
321. process that uses oxygen to break down imals
glucose to release energy
326. Which of the following statements about
A. Cellular Respiration cycles of matter are true?
B. Photosynthesis A. Matter is lost in each cycle.
C. Chemical energy B. Human activity has little or no impact
D. Radiant Energy on cycles.
322. This organism draws its water from the C. Matter moves between the environ-
ground, traps sunlight in its chloroplast, ment and living things.
and makes glucose (sugar). It is called a D. All three cycles involve evaporation
and condensation.

327. Which is the correct sequence to show 333. What would happen to a prairie food web
how organisms live in an environment? if there was a severe drought?

A. decomposer→consumer→producer A. the producers would die
B. consumer→decomposer→producer
B. the herbivores would starve or leave
C. producer→decomposer→consumer the area
D. producer→consumer→decomposer C. the carnivores would starve or leave
328. Trophic levels are the area
A. Autotrophs D. all of the above
B. Producers (plants)
334. During photosynthesis, energy from the
C. feeding levels in food chains and food sun is captured by the in the leaves.
webs.
A. chloroplasts
B. flowers
329. Which of these is evidence that an unbal-
anced force is acting on an object? C. water
A. The mass of the object is changing D. chlorophyll
B. The object continues moving in a
straight line 335. A bear hunts, catches and eats fish. What
type of relationship is this?
C. The object remains at rest
D. The motion of the object is changing A. competition
330. The direction of the flow of energy in a B. predation

food web is represented by C. parasitism
A. Light bulbs
D. commensalism
B. Dotted Lines
C. Arrows 336. A consumer that eats only animals is
called
D. Bubbles
A. an herbivore.
331. The first organism in a food chain is al-
ways a B. an omnivore.
A. producer. C. a carnivore.
B. consumer. D. a scavenger.
C. decomposer.
D. none of above 337. Most producers get energy from the Sun
using the process of
332. Animals that eat only meat are called
A. cellular respiration
A. Omnivores
B. chemosynthesis
B. Carnivores
C. Herbivores C. photosynthesis
D. Scavengers D. consumption

338. What are decomposers? 343. How would a population decrease in pri-
mary consumers affect the ecosystem?
A. organisms that get their energy
through eating plants A. primary producers would suddenly de-
crease.
B. organisms that break down dead
plants and animals B. Secondary consumer population would
increase.
C. organisms that make their own food
using energy from the sun C. Secondary consumer populations
NARAYAN CHANGDER
would eventually decrease.
D. organisms that get their energy
D. none of above
through eating other animals
344. All food webs and food chains begin with
339. What do you call a series of events in
which one organism eats another and ob-
tains energy? A. primary consumer
B. producers
A. food web
C. secondary consumers
B. food chain
D. predators
C. energy pyramid
D. none of above 345. Which of the following is NOT a decom-
poser?
340. Which one is NOT an example of a decom- A. bacteria.
poser? B. algae.
A. mushroom C. fungi.
B. leaves D. earthworms.
C. mold 346. What are the reactants in Photosynthe-
D. worm sis?
A. Sun, CO2, glucose
341. Consumer is synonymous with what vo-
cabulary term? B. glucose and oxygen
A. Heterotroph C. sun, carbon dioxide, water

D. water, glucose
B. Photoautotroph
C. Autotroph 347. Which shows the correct flow of energy
through this simple food chain?
D. Plants
A. fox → grass → rabbit
342. Primary consumers are the consumers B. grass → fox → rabbit
that eat the in a food chain.
C. grass → rabbit → fox
A. meat D. rabbit → grass → fox
B. sun
348. Organisms that receive energy by con-
C. prey suming other organisms
D. plant (the producer) A. producer

B. consumer B. Detritivores, Omnivores

C. decomposer C. Carnivores, Detritivores

D. Energy Pyramid D. Herbivores, Detritivores
349. how does energy flow through a ecosys-
tem? 354. When energy is passed in an ecosystem
from one trophic level to the next, only
A. from consumers to producers to the
percent of the energy will be passed on.
Sun to the atmosphere
B. from producers to the atmosphere to A. 1
consumers to the Sun B. 10
C. from the Sun to producers to con- C. 100
sumers to the atmosphere
D. 50
D. from the Sun to consumers to the at-
mosphere to producers
355. Why are mushrooms important to the
350. Stacy is rowing a boat. She wants the food chain?
boat to move forward. According to New-
A. They recycle nutrients into the ecosys-
ton’s Third Law, in which direction should
tem.
she move her paddle in the water?
A. Backwards B. They produce food energy for other liv-
ing things.
B. Above her head
C. They recycle oxygen into the atmo-
C. Forward
sphere.
D. East
D. They consume excess herbivores in
351. omnivores or carnivores (snake, hyena, the ecosystem.
etc.)
A. Autotrophs 356. Consumers breakdown the macro-
molecules of the organisms they have
B. First Order heterotrophs eaten to release ATP in a process called
C. Second Order heterotrophs
A. photosynthesis.
D. Third and fourth order heterotrophs
B. chemosynthesis.
352. The feeding position or level an organism
occupies in a food chain or food web. C. cellular respiration.
A. consumer zone D. ATP liberation.

B. trophic zone
357. are models that show how energy
C. trophic level flows through an ecosystem.
D. none of above
A. Trophic pyramids
353. are organisms that eat both plants B. Energy pyramids
and animals are organisms that eat
dead organisms in an ecosystem. C. Food chains
A. Omnivores, Detritivores D. Food webs

358. A food web consists of? 363. The first organism in a food chain must
A. Many overlapping food chains in an always be a
ecosystem. A. producer
B. A series of events in which one organ-
B. consumer
ism eats another and obtains energy.
C. Amount of energy that moves from one C. decomposer
feeding level to another. D. none of above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Many types of insects that are stuck.
364. What is the overall purpose of photosyn-
359. An organism that breaks down the re- thesis?
mains of dead organisms and returns them
to the environment is called A. To use energy from the sun to produce
oxygen for animals to breathe
A. a producer.
B. a consumer. B. To use energy from the sun to produce
food for the plant
C. a decomposer.
D. none of above C. To break down food in order to pro-
duce energy (ATP)
360. Why is a food web less accurate than a
D. To break down food in order to pro-
food chain?
duce carbon dioxide
A. Food web shows multiple paths that
energy can flow through an ecosystem. 365. Which of these is always located at the
B. Food webs show only carnivores bottom of an energy pyramid?
C. Food webs show the relationship be- A. Producer
tween ONLY decomposers and the apex
predators B. Second-Level Carnivores
D. none of above C. Herbivores.
361. A food chain is? D. First-Level Consumers.

A. Overlapping food chains in an ecosys-
366. What is an example of a carnivore
tem.
B. The amount of energy that moves from A. a wolf
one feeding level to another in a food web. B. a rabbit
C. A series of events in which one organ-
C. a human
ism eats another and obtains energy.
D. biotic and abiotic factors in an area. D. none of above
362. In food chains and food webs, the arrows 367. A consumer that hunts is called:
represent the movement of?
A. a producer.
A. Sunlight
B. an omnivore.
B. Energy
C. Animals C. a predator.
D. Reproduction D. a herbivore.

368. The process where green plants use wa- 373. The sum of all forces acting on an object.
ter, sunlight and carbon dioxide to make A. Added forces
food is called

B. Net force
A. baking
C. forcey force
B. respiration
D. Equation force
C. photosynthesis
374. Which kind of organism is an autotroph?
D. cooking
A. consumer
369. This type of consumer obtains all of its B. producer
energy by eating only producers.
C. decomposer
A. Omnivore
D. herbivore
B. Herbivore
375. Which of the following are all biotic?
C. Scavenger
A. Temperature, Light, Rain, Gravity,
D. Carnivore Heat
370. What should an ecologist measure in or- B. Water, Fish, Insects, Lily Plants
der to construct a pyramid of biomass for C. Dogs, Meat, Cats, Catnip
an ecosystem?
D. Lion, Pride Rock, Warthog, Meerkat
A. the biomass in each trophic level of the
food web 376. are organisms that break down dead
plants or animals into the substances that
B. the total mass of all the organisms in plants need for growth.
a representative area of the ecosystem
A. Decomposers
C. the total mass of all the organisms in
the ecosystem
C. Producers
D. d. the number of organisms in each
trophic level of the food web D. Secondary Consumers
371. only eats other animals (only eats 377. Which of the following is an abiotic part
meat). of a river that will affect the organisms
that currently live in or near the river?
A. herbivore
A. The diversity of the life in the river.
B. omnivore
B. The speed at which the water flows.
C. carnivore
C. The predators living near the river.
D. decomposer D. The algae in the water.
372. Bacteria, fungi, and earthworms are ex- 378. Which organism is an example of a het-
amples of: erotroph?
A. scavengers A. grass
B. predators B. tree
C. prey C. rose bush
D. decomposers D. mushroom

379. An organism that can make its own food 385. A diagram that can show the relative
is called? amounts of energy, biomass, or numbers
A. Consumer of organisms at each trophic level in an
ecosystem.
B. Producer
A. food chain
C. Decomposer
D. Herbivore B. ecological pyramid
380. What is the role of the rabbit in this food C. food web
NARAYAN CHANGDER
chain? sun → plant → rabbit → snake D. ecological triangle
A. to give energy to the snake
B. to give energy to the plant 386. is the largest number of individuals
of a population that an environment can
C. to get energy directly from the sun support.
D. to make its own food
A. Carrying Capacity
381. Heterotrophs that prey on other het-
B. Biodiversity
erotrophs, such as wolves, lions, and
lynxes are called C. Limiting Factor
A. carnivore D. Ecology
B. herbivore
387. Shows the amount of energy available at
C. omnivore
each feeding level of an ecosystem
D. decomposer
A. Decomposer
382. Which organism is an example of a pro-
ducer? B. Food Web
A. moth C. Energy Pyramid
B. mushroom D. Producer
C. rose bush
388. which consumer gets the most benefit
D. cheetah
from the sun’s energy?
383. Producers (trees, flowers, grasses)
A. mouse
A. Autotrophs
B. mushroom
B. First Order heterotrophs
C. snake
C. Second Order heterotrophs
D. Third and fourth order heterotrophs D. hawk
384. An animal that eats both plants and ani- 389. A producer is a
mals is called a(n)
A. heterotroph
A. Omnivore
B. autotroph
B. Carnivore
C. Scavenger C. omnitroph
D. Herbivore D. consumotroph

390. refers to the total mass of living 395. Able to feed themselves
plants, animals, fungi, and bacteria in a
A. Autotrophs
given area

A. biomass B. chemical energy
B. energy C. food chains food webs

C. ecological mass D. thermal energy
D. none of above
396. How much energy is passed on to the
391. The primary source of energy for an next level when something is eaten?
ecosystem is A. 1%
A. the sun.
B. 10%
B. water.
C. 25%
C. oil.
D. 50%
D. electricity.
392. Recently, a family of bobcats moved into 397. A student is identifying food chains in a
an area with a large rabbit population. diagram of a food web. Which of the fol-
What changes may occur in the ecosys- lowing organisms might be a tertiary con-
tem? sumer?
A. The rabbit population may increase A. frog

B. The rabbit population may decrease B. redwood tree
C. The rabbit population may increase C. great white shark
first, then decrease
D. athlete’s foot fungus
D. The rabbit population will remain the
same 398. Which trophic level receives the least
amount of available energy?
393. Forces that are equal in size but in oppo-
site directions are called forces. A. Producer
A. Strong B. Primary Consumer
B. Crazy C. Tertiary Consumer
C. Balanced
D. Secondary Consumer
D. Unbalanced
399. Check all the boxes that show the type
394. organisms that eat both plants and an-
of energy role each of the organism in an
imals like bears, humans, and mocking-
ecosystem fill.
birds.
A. decomposer
A. herbiovre
B. omnivores B. producer
C. carnivore C. consumer
D. decomposer D. carnivore

400. Which is NOT true in a balanced ecosys- C. Herbivores

tem? D. Scavengers
A. each part of the ecosystem thrives
405. An object with a mass of 100 kg is ob-
B. there are enough plants to feed the pri-
served to accelerate at the rate of 5 m/s2.
mary consumers
Calculate the force required to produce this
C. there are enough predators to keep acceleration.
the population of plant-eaters down
A. 20N
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. there are equal numbers of producers,
consumers, and decomposers B. 500 M/S
C. 500 Kg
401. What is the original source of energy for
ALL organisms in a food chain? D. 500N
A. plants 406. A consumer that eats only plants is called
B. animals
A. an herbivore.
C. sunlight
B. an omnivore.
D. consumers
C. a carnivore.
402. Organisms that eat fragments of dead D. a scavenger.
matter in an ecosystem, return nutrients
to the soil, air, and water where the nutri- 407. Which of the following food chains shows
ents can be reused by organisms. they in- the correct energy flow from left to right.
clude worms and many aquatic insects that
A. rabbit owl grass
live on stream bottoms.
A. herbivores B. grass rabbit owl
B. detritivores C. owl rabbit grass

C. carnivores D. grass owl rabbit
D. omnivores 408. These organisms get their energy by eat-
ing dead organic matter. Examples are
403. Why does the food chain usually never go
bacteria, mushrooms, and earthworms.
past 3 or 4 trophic levels?
A. Scientists don’t want to take the time A. Consumers
to make larger food chains. B. Composers
B. What is a trophic level? C. Producers
C. Nothing consumes the last organism in D. Decomposers
that food chain.
D. There’s not enough energy to pass 409. The main purpose of cellular respiration
onto another trophic level. is to make
A. energy
404. Consumers that feed on the bodies of
dead organisms B. waste
A. Carnivores C. carbon dioxide
B. Omnivores D. none of above

410. True or false:Phytoplankton is the first A. Cougar, coyotes, and other animals
link in the food chain. that eat horses

A. true B. Other organisms in the community that
B. false interact with horses
C. i don’t know C. Grassland animals that are the same

size as horses
D. wasn’t listening
D. Grassland animals that also eat plants
411. Which of the following is an example of and plant products
a biotic factor in an ecosystem?
416. Most of the oxygen we breathe is a re-
A. sunlight sult of
B. stream A. photosynthesis
C. rock B. oxidation
D. tree C. evaporation
412. Why do we sometimes use a food pyra- D. reproduction
mid to illustrate feeding relationships?
417. what does Autotrophs means?
A. To change things up a bit
A. are organisms that use solar energy or
B. Pyramids show you need a lot more chemicals to produce their own food.
producers than consumers
B. are organisms that eat only plants .
C. To show you need more consumers
than decomposers C. are organisms that eat only animals .
D. Pyramids are neat D. are organisms that eat both plant and
animals .
413. This is absorbed through the soil, and
plants use it for photosynthesis. 418. An animal that gets energy from eating
only plants is a(n)
A. Carbon dioxide
A. omnivore
B. Sunlight
B. producer
C. Water
C. carnivore
D. Oxygen
D. herbivore
414. Which type of pyramid shows the amount
of living tissue at each trophic level in an 419. What percentage of energy is passed on
ecosystem? to each tropic level?
A. a numbers pyramid A. 10%
B. an energy pyramid B. 50%
C. a biomass pyramid C. 90%
D. a food pyramid D. 100%
415. Horses are a primary consumer that eat 420. What is the original source of almost all
plants. What defines other organisms that energy in most ecosystems?
share the same trophic level as horses? A. carbohydrates

B. sunlight 426. Organisms use most of their energy to

C. water and do activities.
A. eat other organisms
D. carbon
B. mate
421. Which best describes the role plants C. warm their bodies
serve in the oxygen cycle?
D. sleep
A. They absorb oxygen during photosyn-
thesis. 427. There are many types of energy that of-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ten change form in the natural world
B. They absorb oxygen during decomposi-
tion reactions. A. decomposer
C. They release oxygen as a waste prod- B. consumer
uct of photosynthesis. C. producer
D. They release oxygen as a waste prod- D. Energy Transfer
uct in cellular respiration.
428. A diagram that shows how much energy
422. A carnivore eats only other animals. is available at each feeding level in an
Which is an example? ecosystem is a(n)
A. Bison A. food chain
B. Elephant B. food web

C. water cycle
C. Caterpillar
D. energy pyramid
D. Coyote
429. Which of the following puts an enormous
423. Organisms that obtain energy by feeding amount of carbon in the atmosphere?
on other organisms
A. photosynthesis
A. Producer
B. burning fossil fuels
B. Consumer C. cellular respiration
C. Decomposer D. decomposition
D. none of above
430. What kind of things perform cellular res-
424. Consumers that eat only animals piration?
A. Carnivores A. All living cells
B. Omnivores B. plants only
C. animals only
C. Herbivores
D. yeast only
D. Scavengers
431. Where does the energy come from that is
425. Temperature is a factor used by the organisms in any food web?
A. Biotic A. water
B. Abiotic B. the atmosphere
C. living C. the sun
D. cool D. producers

432. The 3 types of consumers are , , 438. Which of the following removes carbon
and from the atmosphere?
A. Combustion

A. herbivores, prey, omnivores
B. prey, omnivores, carnivores B. Respiration
C. herbivores, prey, carnivore C. Photosynthesis
D. herbivores, omnivores, carnivores D. Death
433. What is a food chain? 439. Decomposers are important to ecosys-

tems because they
A. The flow of energy from one thing to
another A. return vital nutrients to the ecosystem
B. The way animals eat each other B. capture energy from the Sun
C. The way the sun makes everything C. are producers
D. How the plants grow D. can be omnivores
434. are organisms that eat only other 440. Which of the following organisms would
animals are organisms that eat only be considered an omnivore?
plants. A. Snake
A. Carnivores, Herbivores B. Rabbit
B. Herbivores, Omnivores C. Human
C. Herbivores, Carnivores D. Deer
D. Omnivores, Carnivores 441. The repeated movement of water be-
tween Earth’s surface and the atmosphere
435. What do you call an organism that makes
is called
its own food?
A. the water cycle
A. consumer
B. the condensation cycle
B. producer
C. precipitation
C. decomposer
D. evaporation
D. none of above
442. An eats both plants and animals.
436. Trophic levels are represented by
A. herbivore
A. squares
B. omnivore
B. circles
C. carnivore
C. pyramids
D. decomposer
D. lines
443. of the maple trees and shows the per-
437. The complex network of food chains in an centages of trees of different ages.
ecosystem is called: A. Population density Population distribu-
A. Food Web tion
B. Food Chain B. growth rate
C. Ecosystem C. Age structure
D. Population D. none of above

444. What does every food chain start with? 450. This type of consumer only feeds on the
A. producers bodies of dead animals.
B. sun A. Herbivore.
C. consumer B. Decomposer.
D. decomposers C. Carnivore.
445. represents the energy available at D. Scavenger
NARAYAN CHANGDER
each trophic level; levels ALWAYS get
smaller as you go up the pyramid. 451. An example of a consumer is a(n)
A. Energy pyramids A. oak tree.

B. Trophic pyramids B. dog.
C. Trophic levels C. algae.
D. Rule of 10 D. phytoplankton.
446. A connection of food chains with many 452. factors include all nonliving things lo-
food energy paths in an ecosystem is a cated within an ecosystem.
A. ecosystem
A. community
B. food web
B. abiotic
C. environment
C. bitoic
D. none of above
D. ecoystems
447. Energy enters most ecosystems as
what? 453. A breaks down dead waste and dead
A. meat organisms, then releases them into the air,
soil and water so the nutrients can be used
B. plants by other living things.
C. sunlight A. carnivore
D. none of above
B. herbivore
448. A consumer is a C. omnivore
A. heterotroph D. decomposer
B. autotroph
C. omnitroph 454. Where is the majority of nitrogen lo-
cated?
D. consumotroph
A. Most of the nitrogen on Earth is in the
449. what happens when the species has no atmosphere.
natural predator?
B. Most of the nitrogen on Earth is in the
A. the species dies soil.
B. the species move C. Most of the nitrogen on Earth is in the
C. the species population grows water.
D. none of above D. None of the above.

455. bears, humans, and mockingbirds are ex- A. It can be used by animals as a source
ample of of oxygen.

A. detritivores B. It can be used by both plants and ani-
mals to produce energy.
B. omnivores
C. It can be used by plants during photo-
C. producers
synthesis to create glucose.
D. herbivores
D. none of above
456. How much energy is available to be 461. Which type of energy is formed during
passed on to the next level in an energy the process of photosynthesis?
pyramid?
A. chemical
A. 100%
B. radiant
B. 10%
C. thermal
C. 50%
D. kinetic
D. 75%
462. Which chemical helps plants absorb
457. This diagram shows the amount of en- light?
ergy that moves from one feeding level to A. chromium
another.
B. chlorine
A. Energy Pyramid
C. chlorophyll
B. Food Web
D. calcium carbonate
C. Ecosystem
463. What type of consumer eats both plants
D. Food Chain and animals?
458. A system comprising all the biotic and abi- A. Herbivore
otic factors in an area and all the interac- B. Carnivore
tions among them
C. Omnivore
A. Ecosystem D. none of above
B. Environment
464. This is the largest biome, with lots of
C. Tundra rainfall and snow
D. Environmental Interactions A. Tundra
459. Where can you find carbon? B. Taiga
A. Only in the Earth’s atmosphere C. Rain forest
B. Inside all water molecules D. Grassland
C. Inside the sun 465. Eat primary consumers (can be carnivores

and omnivores)
D. Inside every living thing on Earth
A. Tertiary Consumers
460. When animals break down glucose to cre- B. Secondary Consumers
ate energy, they release water and carbon
dioxide (CO2.) How can carbon dioxide C. Quaternary Consumers
(CO2) be reused within the food web? D. Top Predators

466. What is the source of energy for most C. a bird that eats the worm
ecosystems? D. a fox that eats the bird
A. rain
472. All the organisms on earth get their en-
B. sunlight ergy directly or indirectly from?
C. the moon A. Oxygen
D. none of above B. Water
467. The food web represents a desert ecosys-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Nitrogen
tem. Which of the following organisms in D. The Sun
the food web are producers?
A. Cacti and Sagebrush 473. All of the squirrels, rabbits and birds in
an area are a
B. Tarantulas and Snakes
A. population
C. Snakes and Rats
B. organism
D. Hawks and Coyotes
C. community
468. What is the fewest links a food chain D. ecosystem
could have?
A. 5 474. Which organism is highest in the energy
pyramid?
B. 4
A. producer
C. 3
B. secondary consumer
D. 2
C. primary consumer
469. Only about percent of the energy at D. tertiary consumer
each feeding level is passed on to the next
higher level. 475. Organisms that make their own food
A. 1 A. Producer
B. 5 B. Consumer
C. 10 C. Decomposer
470. How much energy is passed on to each 476. Deep sea vent bacteria get their energy
trophic level in an energy pyramid? from
A. 10% A. eating other bacteria.
B. 90% B. releasing sulfur.
C. 50% C. photosynthesis.
D. 80% D. chemosynthesis.
471. Which is likely to occupy the second 477. The largest population that an environ-
trophic level in a food chain? ment can support is its
A. a potato A. limiting factor
B. a worm that eats the potato B. carrying capacity

C. symbiosis D. none of above

D. biotic
483. The process of producers changing light

478. How do organisms at each trophic level energy into chemical energy
use the energy they receive?
A. Decomposer
A. grow
B. Food Web
B. create heat
C. Photosynthesis
C. make food
D. all of the above D. Consumer
479. Which of these BEST describes how trees 484. An insect such as a bee, that feeds on a
would be affected if there were no decom- plant is called a
posers in the soil?
A. decomposer
A. Trees would reproduce rapidly.
B. omnivore
B. Trees would stop growing because
their roots would have no oxygen. C. herbivore
C. Trees would die because the soil would D. none of above
run out of important nutrients.
D. Trees would keep growing forever be- 485. What do producers need, other than sun,
cause they would never rot. for photosynthesis?
A. Water and CO2
480. The original source of energy in most
ecosystems is B. Glucose and O2
A. food. C. Love and happiness
B. rocks. D. Carbohydrates and water
C. oxygen.
D. the sun. 486. Within an ecosystem:
A. Energy flows in one direction only and
481. The cycles in nature that help support the
nutrient are recycled.
transfer of energy and matter are
A. water, hydrogen, and carbon B. energy is recycled and nutrients flow
in on direction
B. carbon, nitrogen, and water
C. energy flows in one direction only
C. carbon, water, and nitrate
D. hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon D. energy and nutrients are both recycled
482. biomass? !! 487. Which molecule is necessary in order for

A. represent the number of individual or- respiration to occur in plants and animals?
ganisms consumed by the level above it . A. nitrogen
B. represent the amount of biomass con- B. oxygen
sumed by the level above it .
C. sulfur
C. represents the amount of energy that
is available to that trophic level . D. water

488. Organic material break down and the nu- 493. Plants take in and give off
trients would be available to other organ- A. oxygen, carbon dioxide
isms due to the activities of
B. water, oxygen
A. herbivores
C. carbon dioxide, oxygen
B. carnivores
D. oxygen, water
C. detritivores and decomposers
494. Which of these shows a possible food
D. ominvores chain for an ecosystem?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
489. A force of 40 N acts upon a 2 kg block. A. shark→ fish → plankton →sun
Calculate the acceleration of the object. B. sun → plankton → fish → shark
A. 20 m/s2 C. plankton → sun → fish → shark
B. 20 m/s D. plankton → fish → shark → sun
C. 80 m/s2 495. In which type of symbiotic relationship do
D. 80 m/s both species benefit?
A. Commensalism
490. The tendency of an object to just keep do-
ing what it is doing. B. Parasitism
C. Mutualism
A. Laziness
D. Predation
B. F=MA
C. No Clue 496. Water evaporates and falls back to Earth
as rain or snow. What is the primary en-
D. Inertia ergy source that drives this cycle?
491. What is the definition of the word pro- A. The wind
ducer? B. The Sun
A. An organism that can make its own C. Air pressure
food.
D. Ocean currents
B. An organism that obtains energy by
feeding on other organisms. 497. Which of the following scenario best de-
scribes an ecosystem?
C. An animal that eats only plants
A. A pack of wolves that live in the same
D. An animal that eats other animals area
492. Fungi, like mushrooms, are considered de- B. A single protist

composers. What is a decomposer’s role in C. Rabbits hopping around trees burrow-
a food web? ing through soil
A. to give off carbon dioxide D. Birds, mice, and trees inhabiting the
same area
B. to help plants with photosynthesis
C. to break down waste and dead organ- 498. Why is a shark a carnivore.
isms A. because it eats seaweed
D. to make their own food using sunlight B. because it eats dead animals

C. because it eats sand 504. How does the amount of energy change
D. because it eats other animals as it moves up an energy pyramid

A. it increases
499. This diagram shows the amount of en-
ergy that moves from one feeding level to B. it decreases
another in a food web. C. it stays the same
A. Energy Pyramid D. none of above
B. Food Web
505. my science chair is on wheels and moves
C. Ecosystem easily across my floor as a result of this
D. Food Chain type of friction.
A. Static
500. Consumers that eat both plants and ani-
mals B. Sliding
A. Omnivores C. Rolling
B. Carnivores D. Fluid
C. Herbivores 506. The position something is at in the energy

D. Scavengers pyramid is called the feeding level, also
known as the
501. A shrimp is warned of danger by a fish A. trophic level
and the fish gets a home dug by the shrimp.
Which type of symbiotic relationship is B. animal level
this? C. position
A. Commensalism D. producer
B. Parasitism
507. Plants, animals, and decomposers (which
C. Mutualism consume dead things) are in a forest
D. Predation ecosystem. Scientists are studying photo-
synthesis in the forest. Which group or
502. What is a food web? groups of organisms should they study?
A. a web made out of food A. all organisms in the forest
B. a web used to catch prey B. animals and decomposers
C. a network of interconnected food C. plants and decomposers
chains D. plants
D. an extremely long food chain
508. are organisms that use energy from
503. Which of the following in an omnivore? sunlight to make their own food.
A. an elephant. A. Producers
B. a zebra. B. Decomposers
C. Rakan Mesfer. C. Primary Consumers
D. a cheetah. D. Secondary Consumers

509. The primary consumer depends on for B. soil

food.
C. air
A. producers
D. water
B. carnivores
C. fungi 514. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
ple of a decomposer
A. a mushroom
NARAYAN CHANGDER
510. Ecosystems can be described in terms of
B. bacteria
feeding levels, or trophic levels. Which or-
ganisms are found in the trophic level con- C. a crow
taining the greatest amount of available D. none of above
energy?
A. producers 515. How does matter move among the living
and nonliving parts of an ecosystem?
B. primary consumers
A. matter is recycled within and between
C. decomposers
ecosystems
B. one-way flow of energy
511. Organisms such as bacteria and fungi that C. two-way flow of energy only
break down the remains of dead plants
and animals without need for internal di- D. three-way flow of energy only
gestion
516. What needs to be most abundant in an
A. Decomposers ecosystem for it to be sustainable?
B. Consumer A. Rain
C. Predator
B. Herbivores
D. Producer
C. Producers
512. Which list of organisms shows those with D. Decomposers
the greatest amount of energy to those
with the least amount of energy? 517. Solar energy allows for
A. secondary consumer, primary con- A. photosynthesis.
sumer, producer
B. chemical energy
B. producer, primary consumer, sec-
ondary consumer C. thermal energy
C. primary consumer, secondary con- D. Solar energy
sumer, producer
518. Which one of the following is classified
D. producer, primary consumer, tertiary correctly?
consumer
A. primary consumer:vulture
513. Producers, at the bottom of the energy
B. secondary consumer:deer
pyramid, receive most of all their energy
from the C. secondary consumer:squirrel
A. sun D. primary consumer:rabbit

519. gas that animals exhale 525. In the food chain below, which is the pro-
A. carbon dioxide ducer? grass → mouse → snake → hawk

B. oxygen A. grass
B. mouse
C. water
C. snake
D. glucose
D. hawk
520. percent of energy is lost at each level
of the energy pyramid. 526. The following is an example of a:Grass
→ Cow → Lion.
A. 90
A. food chain.
B. 10
B. food web.
C. 45
C. balanced diet.
D. 0
D. none of the above.
521. An example of a producer is a
527. What is a trophic level?
A. fungus.
A. Each level represented within a food
B. animal. chain or web.
C. plant. B. Levels of ecosystems that the world is
D. person. divided into.
C. Different levels of nutrients present
522. Autotrophs make up the level in all
within an organism.
ecosystems.
D. The levels of sunlight an autotroph
A. First
needs to survive.
B. Second
528. What are interconnected food chains
C. Third called?
D. Fourth A. consumers
523. This biome has dense foliage and the B. predators
most biodiversity C. food web
A. Tundra D. none of above
B. Taiga
529. Matter can recycle through the biosphere
C. Rain forest because
D. Grassland A. matter is passed out of the body as
waste
524. Which of the following organisms are typ-
ical decomposers? B. matter is assembled into chemical
compounds
A. grasses and ferns
C. biological systems do not use up mat-
B. mushrooms and bacteria ter, they transform it.
C. mice and deer D. biological systems use only carbon,
D. lions and snakes oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen.

13.2 Ecological Succession 1284
530. An organism that obtains energy by feed- A. are organisms that get their energy by
ing on other organism is a eating plants
A. producer B. are organisms that get their food eas-
B. consumer ily .
C. decomposer C. are organisms that get their energy by
consuming other organisms.
D. none of above
D. are organisms that cannot make their
531. What is the food chain in order
NARAYAN CHANGDER
own food.
A. secondary consumer, primary con-
sumer, producer, tertiary 533. Newton’s third law states
B. producer, primary consumer, sec- A. For each action there is a larger reac-
ondary consumer, tertiary consumer tion associated with it.
C. primary consumer, secondary con- B. None of these choices
sumer, producer, tertiary
C. For each action there is an equal and
D. tertiary, primary consumer, secondary opposite reaction.
consumer, producer
D. For each action there is a smaller re-
532. what are heterotrophs? (2choices) action associated with it.
13.2 Ecological Succession

1. This type of weathering occurs when rock C. both types of succession
is physically broken down into smaller D. none of above
pieces of rock.
A. mechanical weathering 4. A student counts 14 dogs in his neighbor-
hood. When he reports this information to
B. chemical weathering his classmates at school he will be telling
C. erosion weathering them about the dog-
D. deposition A. population
B. biome
2. What is one result of pioneer species in Pri-
mary Succession? C. ecosystem
A. To kill the dead materials after a disas- D. community
ter
5. What species is able to live on bare rock?
B. To rebuild soil
A. grass
C. To feed Johnny
B. lichens
D. To put fresh oxygen into the air
C. shrubs
3. Starts with bare rock followed by lichen D. herbs
6. The rocky material left behind by a re-

A. primary succession treating glacier forms what is called a
B. secondary succession moraine. when primary succession occurs

on a moraine, which life forms will help 11. An area where the growth of plant life has
create the soil by breaking down bare become steady and stable. The final stage
rock? of succession.

A. insects A. adaptation
B. lichens B. pioneer species
C. grasses C. niche
D. deciduous trees D. climax community
7. Despite having plenty of sun and rain, the 12. In a pond, which of the following changes
tropical rainforest has very poor would most likely result in terrestrial suc-
cession?
A. biodiversity
A. An increase in water plants growing in
B. soil the pond.
C. animal life B. A decrease in the number of decom-
D. air quality posers in the pond.
C. An increased rate of deposition of sed-
8. Barnacles that live on whales benefit by iments into the pond.
being transported to food sources. The
whales are not affected. What kind of re- D. A decreased oxygen content kills large
lationship is this? fish in the pond.
A. mutualism 13. What is the Greenhouse Effect?

B. commensalism A. The rising of sea level over time
C. parasitism B. The Earth’s atmosphere losing heat
D. competition C. The trapping of the Sun’s warmth in
the Earth’satmosphere
9. Different species can share the same habi- D. The way we get energy to our holmes
tat, but competition among them is re-
duced if they 14. Which of the following best describes pri-
mary succession?
A. reproduce at different times
A. Volcano wipes out ecosystem that
B. move away
gradually grows back from ash covered
C. eat less soil
D. occupy different niches B. Volcano creates a new island of rock
that must break down to form an ecosys-
10. A series of changes where an existing com- tem
munity is destroyed and then begins to re-
C. Forest fire burns down forest that
grow is called
must bounce back over time
D. Tornado destroys a crop that must
B. secondary succession slowly grow back over time.
C. commensalism
15. When an ecosystem is balanced it is has
D. competition reached

A. climax community 21. The gradual process in which ecosystems

B. primary succession change or develop over time is called
C. secondary succession A. Ecological Succession
D. sustainability B. Peanut Butter and Jelly
16. Organisms that need nitrogen to survive C. Volcano
A. only plants D. Glacier
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. only animals
22. Primary Succession
C. only bacteria
A. the development of an ecological com-
D. all living organisms
munity in a previously uninhabited loca-
17. A hurricane hits a coastal ecosystem and tion.
destroys the habitat. Years later, there is B. the development of an ecological com-
an appearance of small plants with rapidly munity in an area that was once inhabited
spreading roots on newly formed coastal but experienced devastation.
sand dunes. The vegetation describes
C. the first plant species to grow during
A. a microhabitat.
primary succession.
B. primary succession.
D. a biotic or abiotic environmental factor
C. secondary succession. that restricts the growth of a population.
D. biodiversity.
23. Why don’t most parasites kill their hosts
18. What is the purpose of a dichotomous immediately?
key?
A. The parasites would no longer have a
A. to find a common ancestor
food supply if the host died.
B. to show the evolution of organisms
B. The host is able to fight off the invading
C. to show relationships between organ- parasites.
isms
C. The host benefits by keeping the para-
D. to identify organisms
sites alive.
19. Secondary succession would most likely be D. symbiotic competition
taking place in a(n)
A. abandoned baseball field. 24. A fire burns an oak forest down to bare
B. exposed rock after a glacier melts. ground. Over the next 150 years, if the cli-
mate remainsconstant, this area will most
C. new land made from lava which cooled likely
D. a climax community
A. remain bare land indefinitely
20. Which process occurs after a forest fire? B. develop into a desert area
A. eutrophication
C. develop into an entirely different type
B. photosynthesis of forest after hundreds of years
C. primary succession D. recover through gradual changes back
D. secondary succession to a point of long-term stability

25. Which natural disaster uses the Richter 30. Primary succession is an ecological process
scale to measure strength? that occurs in an environment in response
to

A. Earthquake
B. Tornado A. the destruction of existing vegetation.
C. Tsunami B. erosion and weathering of rock.
D. Hurricane C. a change exposing bare rock.
26. Ecological succession can be described as D. significant moisture in a short time.
A. A change in weather
31. As ecological succession progresses, a pi-
B. The dominant species in one particular
oneer community gradually changes into
area
a climax community. What typically hap-
C. A gradual change in plant and animal pens during this process?
life in an ecosystem over time
A. The number of species increases
D. Species that survive best when there
is little or no competition in an area B. The number of species decreases
27. What is the goal of the pioneer species in C. The organisms in an area decrease in
Primary Succession? size
A. To kill the dead materials after a disas- D. The organisms in an area can no
ter longer find food
B. To rebuild soil
32. ends in a climax community
C. To feed Johnny
D. To put fresh oxygen into the air
B. secondary succession
28. Why is biodiversity so important?
A. Because all species depend on each
other to survive, so if one becomes extinct D. none of above
another species that relies on it could go
extinct as well 33. A large wave created by an underwater
B. Because it’s better to have only one earthquake is called a
variation of each species. A. Earthquake
C. Because it better to only have a few B. Hurricane
species on Earth.
C. Tsunami
D. Honestly, I have no idea what biodiver-
sity is! D. Flood
29. The process of secondary succession can 34. In which biome can you find permafrost?
begin
A. taiga
A. after an ecosystem disturbance
B. before the soil has been established B. tundra
C. once new land has been created C. desert

D. when plants begin reproducing D. chaparral

35. The end result of ecological succession is A. climax succession

usually a(n) B. ecological succession
A. land biome. C. ecological recession
B. aquatic biome. D. climax recession
C. unstable community.
41. Which biome receives between 0 and 25
D. climax community. centimeters of precipitation each year, has
a temperature range from-27 to 5 degrees
NARAYAN CHANGDER
36. Series of changes where other organisms
Celsius, has frozen soil, and is home to
have not previously lived
hares, caribou, and wolves?
A. desert
B. secondary succession B. mountain
C. commensalism C. savannah
D. competition D. tundra
37. Which type of biodiversity helps a species 42. Which of the following is not an example
adapt to changing environmental condi- of a disturbance that might jump start sec-
tions? ondary succession?
A. taxonomic diversity A. An ecosystem being destroyed by pol-
B. ecosystem diversity lution.
C. genetic diversity B. A long period of little or no rainfall re-
sulting in a drought.
D. species diversity
C. A hurricane causing a devastating
38. Which of the sequences below is listed flood.
from the least complex to the most com-
D. A volcano forming a new island in a
plex?
chain.
A. ecosystem, community, population
43. What type of ecological succession occurs
B. population, ecosystem, community in an area with NO SOIL?
C. population, community, ecosystem A. Ecological succession
D. community, ecosystem, population B. Primary succession
39. Which of the following natural events can C. Secondary succession
lead to primary succession? D. Pioneer speciles
A. Floods and hurricanes
44. How are endoparasites and ectoparasites
B. Wildfires and controlled burns alike?
C. Tsunamis and tornadoes A. Both feed on the host’s fluids
D. Glacier movement and volcanic erup- B. Both feed on nutrients that are in-
tions gested by the host.
40. The composition and quantity of species in C. Both live in the tissues and organs of
a community generally change over time, the host.
forming the gradual process of D. Both harm their host.

45. This biome contains mostly spruce trees B. capable of being maintained at a
and Douglas firs, which are both ever- steady level without exhausting natural
green. The winters are long and cold and resources or causing severe ecological

the summers are short and rainy. The soil damage
is very rich. Moose and elk live here. This C. can only be maintained with assis-
biome is classified as a tance of humans
A. taiga D. causes severe damage to the environ-
B. tundra ment
C. deciduous forest 50. Throughout the process of succession, how
D. temperate forest do population density and species diver-
sity change?
46. Which statement best explains how natu- A. both density and diversity increase
ral selection occurs?
B. density increases while diversity de-
A. when adaptations help an organism re- creases
produce and survive.
C. density decreases while diversity in-
B. when organisms are geographically creases
isolated.
D. density and diversity remain in equilib-
C. when an organism’s offspring grow rium
vestigial structures.
51. What is needed for more complex plants
D. when characteristics from the parent to grow?
organism are inherited.
A. Water depth
47. Examples of Abiotic Factors include: B. Tacos
A. Weather, birds, plants, and animals C. Soil depth
B. Rocks, reptiles, shrubs, trees, and D. none of above
grasses
52. What do pioneer species do?
C. Weather, wind, rain, sunlight, and
rocks A. They break down solid rock to form
soil.
D. Birds, plants, animals, reptiles,
B. They produce seeds that repopulate
shrubs, trees, and grasses
the area.
48. The place that gives that organism all the C. They provide a habitat for small ani-
resources it needs to survive is called its mals.
D. They provide shade for animals.
A. habitat
53. Ecological succession would best be de-
B. population fined as-
C. ecosystem A. the natural cycle of carbon being
D. community exchanged between producers and con-
sumers
49. Sustainable means B. communities replacing each other un-
A. can not be reproduced til a stable community is formed

C. ecosystems being consistently altered B. the number of different species in a

by a number of natural disasters given area
D. energy flowing through organisms in C. the number of animal species in a
complex food webs given area
54. All the different organisms that live to- D. the number of plant species in a given
gether in an area are called a area
A. equilibrium 59. In which biome is Georgia located?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. community A. tropical rainforest
C. population B. temperate rainforest
D. species C. temperate deciduous forest
55. a stable ecological community that has D. alpine forest
reached maturity
60. occurs slowly over many years
A. ecological succession
B. climax community
D. pioneer species
D. none of above
56. A plot of land contains soil, decomposers,
producers, consistent rainfall, mild tem- 61. Once an ecosystem has become a climax
peratures and a community of herbivores community, it has reached a state of bal-
and carnivores. This set of data best ance called
describes- A. Biodiversity
A. a community B. Equilibrium
B. an ecosystem C. Symbiosis
C. a population D. Commensalism
D. an organ system
62. When a volcano erupts, it can spew which
57. A pioneer species of the following?
A. the first animal species that was ever A. Rock & ash
recorded B. Gas
B. the first species to populate and live in C. Glass
an area
D. all of the above
C. the first plant species that was ever
recorded 63. Which of the following would cause a pri-
mary succession?
D. the living organisms first brought to
this country by pioneers A. fire
58. Biodiversity, aka biological diversity, usu- B. flood

ally refers to C. tornado
A. the same species in a general location D. volcanic eruption

64. Natural disasters such as flooding, forest 69. Changes in an ecosystem over a long pe-
fires, and tornadoes are associated with riod of time are shown in the diagram
which type of succession? above. These changes will most likely lead

A. primary to a
B. secondary A. stable ecosystem that can last for

many years
C. Gordito
B. loss of heterotrophs that cannot be re-
D. ecosystem
covered
65. Why do newly introduced species usually C. long-term rise in environmental tem-
see a large period of growth when intro- peratures
duced to an ecosystem?
D. forest consisting of only producers
A. No predators
and decomposers
B. extra food
C. more mates 70. Adaptation is
D. less camouflage A. created by dominant alleles
66. Which statement best describes a pioneer B. something that all organisms learn
population found in the beginning of eco- from each other
logical succession? C. a limiting factor to an organism
A. They are completely heterotrophic. D. a characteristic or trait that helps an
B. They do not appear until animals ar- organism survive in its environment
rive.
C. They modify their environment. 71. Which of the following has the highest
level of complexity?
D. They only exist in tropical biomes
A. ecosystem
67. Lichens are important to the creation of an
B. biome
ecosystem due to the fact that they create
soil by C. community
A. becoming tall D. biosphere
B. collecting water
72. Which statement is TRUE about ecological
C. reproducing asexually
succession?
D. breaking down rock
A. Succession always results in the same
68. Which of the following shows the correct climax community everywhere
order of stages in the primary succession
B. Succession always starts with bare
of a dry landenvironment?
rock
A. soil, shrubs, hardwoods, pines
C. Succession always ends with a pioneer
B. rock, grasses, hardwoods, shrubs species
C. shrubs, mosses, pines, grasses D. The climax community will depend on
D. rock, lichen, mosses, grasses where succession is occurring

73. A hiker approaches a well-established 78. Lava or ash spewing from a mountain
mountain. There are large animals and vent.
trees in the habitat. What term best iden- A. Earthquake
tifies the community?
B. Flood
A. Final community
C. Drought
B. Primary community
D. Volcano
C. Climax community
NARAYAN CHANGDER
79. Which of the following is lowest order of
D. Habitation community
complexity?
74. The Final stage of ecological succession is A. organism
B. community
A. Mature Tree Growth C. ecosystem
B. Climax Community D. biome
C. Pioneer Community
80. A variety of inheritable characteristics or
D. none of above genes in an interbreeding population
75. Which is NOT an example of ecological suc- A. species diversity
cession observed in a microhabitat? B. genetic diversity
A. Grass growing in sidewalk cracks C. ecosystem diversity
B. Insects hatching in cow manure D. eutrphication
C. Garden being invaded by weeds 81. Select two pioneer species
D. Absence of soil nutrients A. Lichen
76. Which catastrophic event will most likely B. Moss
have the effect of returning an ecosystem C. Deciduous tree
to primary succession?
D. Deer
A. A tornado
82. Which would most likely result in primary
B. A volcanic eruption
succession?
C. A flood A. old forest growing
D. A drought B. undisturbed prairie
77. Why is a clear cut more damaging to a com- C. pollution kills mountain lake species
munity than a forest fire? D. a Newly formed volcanic island
A. It takes nutrients out of the forest
83. Which of the following is the best defini-
B. It is not more damaging, forest fire is tion of an ecosystem? (TEK 7.8A)
more damaging
A. All biotic and abiotic things located in
C. It prevents all plants from ever grow- a space no smaller than a forest
ing there again
B. All biotic things located within a partic-
D. There are equally damaging ular space

C. All the biotic things located in space 89. Replacement of one type of community by
the size of a forest another at a single place over time

D. All the biotic and abiotic things located A. symbiosis
within a particular area B. succession
84. All of the living and non-living things in an C. competition
environment are called an D. cooperation
A. population
90. Which of these types of environments ex-
B. niche periences the LEAST change in the total
C. abitotic number and type of species
D. ecosystem A. An ecosystem with only pioneer
species
85. The ecosystem change in response to: B. An ecosystem that is in a primary suc-
A. only natural disturbances cession
B. only human disturbances C. An ecosystem that is in a secondary
succession
C. both natural and human disturbances
D. An ecosystem with a climax community
D. ecosystems do not respond to distur-
bances 91. All of the following contribute directly to
soil formation EXCEPT
86. What sequence below characterizes sec-
ondary succession? A. lichens
A. rocks, flower, trees, grasses B. decomposition of organisms
B. rocks, lichens, grasses, bushes C. volcanic eruptions
C. soil, flowers, grasses, trees D. erosion of rock by weather
D. soil, lichens, trees, grasses 92. desert, tundra, tiaga, grassland, forest
these are examples of what?
87. Where does most primary succession take
place in the United States? A. ecosystems
A. Hawaii B. biomes
B. Florida C. communities
D. populations
C. Europe
D. Old farms 93. Which of these organisms would you most
expect to find on a small island that
88. Pioneer species get their name from being formed as a result of a volcanic two years
the species in an ecosystem. prior?
A. first A. climbing vines
B. second B. hardwood tree
C. last C. monkey
D. third D. lichen

94. As the name implies, dung beetles eat 99. What ecological factors changes through-
dung, both as adults and as larvae. This out the process of succession and allows
is an example of a (an) for the formation of a forest community?
A. limiting factor A. defense from attack by parasites
B. niche B. more sunlight to warm the ecosystem
C. aberration C. the depth of the soil
D. equilibrium status D. the amount of sunlight
NARAYAN CHANGDER
100. Which of the following describes all of
95. The prefix bio means
the living and abiotic factors in a geograph-
A. life ical area?
B. science A. ecosystem
C. story B. community
D. not C. niche
D. population
96. What time frame best describes how long
primary succession generally takes? 101. The following natural events will cause
primary succession to occur:
A. less than year
A. floods and hurricanes
B. around 1 year
B. wildfires and controlled burns
C. more than 1 but less than 100
C. tsunamis and tornadoes
D. more than a 100 years
D. glacier movement and volcanoes
97. Which succession ends in a climax commu-
102. In a biological community, this is the num-
nity?
ber and abundance of different species
A. species diversity
B. secondary succession B. genetic diversity
C. both types of succession C. biodiversity
D. none D. ecosystem diversity
98. Biodiversity describes the amount of vari- 103. Natural disasters such as volcanic erup-
ation present in an ecosystem. How is the tions and glacial movement are linked to
biodiversity of an ecosystem affected as it A. secondary succession
proceeds through the stages of ecological
succession? B. pioneer species
C. primary succession
A. the biodiversity increases throughout
D. biodiversity
B. the biodiversity decreases throughout
C. the biodiversity decreases, then in- 104. This category of species is very specific
creases to one area:
D. the biodiversity remains steady A. invasive

throughout B. indigenous

C. specialist 109. What does the term carrying capacity de-

D. generalist scribe?

A. The maximum number of birth rates
105. Which biome is characterized by low tem- for a population.
peratures and low amounts of rainfall?
B. The ability of a population to accept
A. tundra new immigrants.
B. desert C. The ratio of birth rates to death rates
C. temperate deciduous forest in a population.
D. The population size that the environ-
D. tropical rain forest
ment can sustain.
106. Which statement about pioneer species is
110. What is the first species in primary suc-
TRUE? (TEK 7.10C)
cession?
A. Pioneer species require soil to grow. A. lichen
B. Pioneer species are organisms that B. grass
are made up of only one cell.
C. flowering plant
C. Pioneer species thrive during the early
D. low shrubs
stages of ecological succession.
D. Pioneer species, such as hardwood 111. A climax community is
trees, thrive during the final stages of eco- A. the end state of succession where
logical succession. the community of organisms can sustain
themselves
107. How is primary succession different from
secondary succession? B. occurs at the beginning of succession
A. Primary succession starts with soil. C. occurs only in primary succession

D. occurs only in secondary succession
B. Secondary succession start with bare
rock. 112. Why is a reduction in biodiversity due
C. Primary succession starts with bare to loss of plant populations especially de-
rock, with lichens and moss. structive to an ecosystem?
D. Fire is an example of primary succes- A. Plants are primary producers
sion. B. Plans have the most biomass
108. Which plant characteristics are common C. Plants are resistant to disease
to pioneer species? D. Plants are part of the food web
A. plants with roots that act as wedges to 113. How do pioneer species make ecological
slowly break apart rocks succession possible on an island following
B. plants with long, thick roots that tap a volcanic eruption?
into deep water supplies A. They use chemicals to produce food.
C. trees with exposed surface roots that B. They establish homes in which animals
trap soil and vegetation can live.
D. plants with a broad mat of surface C. They break down rock into soil in which
roots that quickly soaks up water plants can grow.

D. none of above 119. The process of change in the living parts

of the ecosystem is
114. Biodiversity is the variety of in a com-
munity.
A. genes
C. climax community
B. population
D. pioneer species
C. species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
120. One characteristic feature of tundra is
D. community
that only the surface thaws in the sum-
115. The first species to begin colonizing an mer and refreezes in the winter, leaving a
area undergoing secondary succession is layer of permanently frozen subsoil. This
called a(n) species. characteristic is known as
A. intrepid A. glaciation
B. permafrost
B. primary
C. crystallization
C. original
D. soilfrost
D. pioneer
121. Which is the best synonym for catas-
116. Starts with BARE ROCK followed by trophic?
lichen, mosses and bacteria
A. Advantageous
B. Successful
C. Disaster
C. both types of succession D. Fortunate
D. none of above
122. In which of the following areas would
117. In 1980 the Mt. St. Helens volcano vio- secondary succession most likely occur?
lently erupted and impacted thousands of A. A lava flow
square miles of forest. Some areas are
B. An area with a well-balanced, well-
still undergoing primary succession where
established ecosystem
A. thick sediment choked streams C. A previously forested area devastated
B. violent explosions removed soil by fire
C. light ash covered the ground D. A rock ledge exposed by the melting of
the glacier that covered it
D. high winds blew down trees
123. are the first organisms to colonize an
118. Succession that occurs in an area with no area and begin the process of ecological
soil succession.
A. primary succession A. foundational organisms
B. ecological succession B. introductory organisms
C. secondary succession C. primary organisms
D. pioneer speciles D. pioneer species

124. Which statement best describes ecosys- C. invasive species

tems? D. adapted species

A. They can never change once they are
established 129. species are the first species to colo-
nize disturbed or newly created environ-
B. They constantly change in different ments.
ways over time.
A. intrepid
C. Ecosystems always revert back to
B. primary
their original state.
C. original
D. none of above
D. pioneer
125. A community of moss and lichens grow-
ing on an outcrop of a rock is an example 130. Biomass can be defined as
of A. energy from the wind
A. A behavioral adaptation B. electricity
B. A climax community C. hydroelectric energy
C. Primary succession D. chemical energy from plants and ani-
mals
D. Secondary succession
131. In a certain low-elevation environment in
126. Why does secondary succession occur New York State, Lichens and mosses are
faster than primary succession? the predominant forms of life. This com-
A. Fewer changes must occur in sec- munity most probably represents:
ondary succession A. Terrestrial climax community
B. There are more pioneer species in sec- B. The early stages of succession
ondary succession
C. Reforestation practices
C. The environmental conditions are
D. An aquatic biome
more extreme in primary succession
D. There are many trophic levels in sec- 132. How do fires help succession?
ondary succession A. Fires return nutrients to the soil.
127. What is the major cause of the high rate B. Fires help break up rocks to form soil.
of extinction seen today? C. Fires destroy pioneer species and al-
A. overpopulation low trees to grow.
B. disease D. Fires help seeds to germinate.
C. human activity 133. Fossils found in the bottom layers of sedi-

ment are probably older than fossils found
D. natural habitat loss
in top layers because ?
128. a species that is not native to a partic- A. the bottom layers have folded over the
ular region and has no natural predators top layers.
and little competition
B. all of the layers are the same age.
A. consumer species C. the bottom layers are younger than the
B. producer species top layers.

D. the bottom layers are older than the A. Lava and ash
top layers.
B. Nitrous oxide and methane
134. Bacteria living on the roots of some C. Sulfur dioxide and carbon dioxide
plants convert nitrogen gas to a form the
plant can use. The bacteria get food from D. Arsenic and cobalt
the plant. What kind of relationship is
139. The first trees that are able to replace
this?
grasses in succession have an advantage
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. commensalism over the grasses in that these pioneer
B. mutualism trees
C. parasitism A. are not eaten by grazing herbivores
D. competition B. have a lower population density
135. How is primary and secondary succession C. provide shade for grasses and shrubs
different? D. only grow in a specific nutrient rich soil
A. There’s no difference
140. What is an ecological succession?
B. Primary succession has more steps, in-
cluding formation of soil A. Series of gradual changes that occur
after a disturbance
C. Secondary succession has more steps,
including formation of soil B. Changes that only happen when
D. Primary succession takes place in the species die
aquatic environments, secondary succes- C. a series of changes that cause a popu-
sion takes place in terrestrial ecosystems lation to increase or decrease
136. Secondary succession occurs in which of D. an INSTANT change caused by a distur-
the following situations? (Select ALL that bance
apply)
141. This biome is found around the equator
A. after a flood and is home to a large amount of biodiver-
B. after logging sity.
C. after farming A. Deserts
D. after a fire B. Tropical Rain Forests
137. Which experiences the least change over C. Savannas
time? D. Chaparral
A. Pioneer Species
B. Primary Succession 142. The gradual replacement of one type of
community by another at a single place
C. Aquatic Succession over time
D. Climax Community A. pioneer species
138. After a volcanic eruption, which of the B. ecological succession
following usually can be linked to this
C. climax community
event and will have an effect on the at-
mosphere/climate? D. biotic factor

143. This type of succession occurs after a for- 148. Deforestation occurs when a lumber com-
est fire pany cuts down all the trees on 100 acres
of heavily wooded land. What will happen

first as the land recovers during ecological
B. secondary succession succession? (TEK 7.10C)
C. both A. Breakdown of rock into soil
D. none of above B. Appearance of weeds and grass
144. Primary succession occurs where C. Arrival of squirrels

D. Growth of trees
A. where an ecosystem existed but was
destroyed by a limiting factor 149. Ecological succession can best be de-
B. occurs only in aquatic systems scribed as:(TEK 7.10C)
C. no previous ecosystem has ever ex- A. A change in weather.
isted B. The dominant species in one particular
D. occurs only after a fire area.
C. A gradual change in plant and animal
145. The process of ecological succession usu- life in an ecosystem over time.
ally begins after all of the following EX-
CEPT: D. Species that survive best when there
is little or no competition in an area.
A. Flooding
B. Forest Fire 150. What catastrophic event could cause
plants to die due to salt water invasion?
C. Rain Showers
A. Hurricane
D. Volcanic eruptions
B. Tornado
146. Stable, final stage of succession: C. Flood
A. adaptation D. Wild Fire
B. pioneer species 151. A living or once-living organisms in an
C. niche ecosystem is a
D. climax community A. population
B. biotic factor
147. Lava fro an underwater volcano piles up
over many years. Eventually, the pile of C. abiotic factor
lava sticks up above the ocean surface, D. community
forming a new island, it would be MOST
helpful for a scientist to measure changes 152. Which of the following sequences most
in: likely represents ecological succession on
a recently abandoned farm?
A. Average temperature
A. grasses, flowering plants, shrubs,
B. Day length
maple trees
C. Annual precipitation
B. shrubs, grasses, flowering plants,
D. Soil depth trees

C. trees, shrubs, grasses, flowering 158. Species that are clearly critical to the
plants functioning of an ecosystem are known as
D. flowering plants, trees, grass, shrubs A. biodiversity
153. An increase in biodiversity or a progres- B. keystone species

sion over time-after a natural or man C. main species
made disturbance-is called what?
D. native species
A. ecological recession
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. climax recession 159. Which statement about pioneer species is
TRUE?
C. ecological succession
A. Pioneer species require soil to grow
D. climax succession
B. Pioneer species are organisms made
154. Bare rock community must first undergo up of only one cell
C. Pioneer species thrive during the early
A. Primary Succession stages of ecological succession
B. Secondary Succession D. Pioneer species, such as hardwood
C. Climax trees, thrive during the final stages of eco-
logical succession
D. none of above
160. At the beach which agent of erosion af-
155. What is NOT a cause of primary succes- fects the coast?
sion?
A. Wind
A. Hurricane
B. Water
B. Volcanic eruption
C. Animals
C. Melting glaciers
D. Gravity
D. Landslides
156. Which of these types of environments is 161. Which type of ecological succession will
MOST likely to experience the arrival of a typically reach a climax community faster
pioneer species? because soil is already present?
A. An old growth forest A. Primary succession
B. An undisturbed prairie B. Secondary succession
C. Ann established mountain lake C. Both types of succession
D. New formed volcanic island D. Neither type of succession
157. The final stable community of plants and 162. The flooding of Cypress Creek will result
animals is called a(n) in?
A. pioneer community. A. Primary Succession
B. farmland. B. Secondary Succession
C. climax community. C. Homeostasis
D. old field. D. Physiological Adaptation

163. What are usually the pioneer (first) C. A water purifier

species for secondary succession? D. A place that sells aquifers

A. Lichens
169. starts with bare rock followed by lichen
B. Mosses or moss
C. Grasses A. primary succession
D. Softwood trees B. secondary succession
164. Which term best describes the number C. aquatic succession
and variety of organisms in a given area D. both primary and secondary succes-
during a specific period of time? sion
A. carrying capacity 170. What is a characteristic of a stable envi-
B. biodiversity ronment?
C. succession A. It usually contains only one type of pro-
ducer.
D. none of above
B. It usually contains a great diversity of
165. The process of change in the living parts species.
of the ecosystem C. It contains simple food chains that
A. ecological succession have more consumers than producers.
B. primary succession D. It contains complex food webs that
have more heterotrophs than autotrophs.
C. climax community
D. pioneer species 171. Which one occurs or starts with soil al-
ready being there?
166. Succession will cease in an ecosystem
when what occurs?
A. biodiversity reaches its lowest point
C. tertiary succession
B. lichens and mosses dominate
C. animals begin to use plant resources
172. species diversity eventually increases
D. trees have replaced shrubs and
grasses A. primary succession
167. The role of a rabbit in an ecosystem is
A. Producer
D. none of above
B. Consumer
173. Bare rock must be turned into This
C. Decomposer
is usually the first step of primary succes-
D. Source of heat and light sion.
168. What is an aquifer? A. lichen
A. A place underground that stores wa- B. grass
ter. C. soil
B. A water pump D. none of above

174. Secondary succession is B. floods

A. succession that occurs where no other C. tornadoes
ecosystem has ever existed D. earthquakes
B. occurs only in wetlands
180. After a fire destroys a forest, the area
C. occurs after a volcanic eruption will most likely
D. a series of changes that occur after a A. remain bare land indefinitely
disturbance in an existing ecosystem
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. develop into a desert area
175. Which of the following contribute directly C. develop into an entirely different type
to soil formation? of forest after hundreds of years
A. lichens D. recover through gradual changes back
B. oak trees to a point of long-term stability
C. willow trees and bushes 181. Two male lions fight for the same female.
D. none of above What kind of competition is this?
A. interspecific competition
176. Which of the following is LEAST likely to
cause an event that leads to primary suc- B. intraspecific competition
cession? C. predation
A. Volcanic eruption D. symbiotic competition
B. Forest fire
182. When using a dichotomous key to iden-
C. Nuclear waste spill tify organisms, what do we look at?
D. Large extraterrestrial object crashing A. physical features
on the earth
B. weather patterns
177. What type of succession in an ecosystem C. environment
occurs over time?
D. diet
183. The final stage of ecological succession
can typically be observed when evidence
C. both types of succession of a is present.
D. none A. Mature Tree Growth
178. this type of succession occurs after a for- B. Climax Community
est fire C. Pioneer Community
A. primary succession D. housing community
B. secondary succession 184. Which even would start a primary succes-
C. both sion?
D. none of above A. volcanic eruption
179. Which of the following natural disasters B. forest fire

have had the LEAST impact on TEXAS C. flood
A. hurricanes D. farming

185. occurs over time B. Bogs

A. primary succession C. Water in the ground

B. secondary succession D. none of above
C. aquatic succession
191. Humans often build asphalt or concrete
D. All types of succession roads to travel through areas, such as
forests. After many years, plants can be
186. Which of the following contributes most seen growing on the roads. What kind of
to promoting sustainability in an ecosys- succession is this?
tem?
A. Primary Succession
A. Lack of decomposers
B. Secondary Succession
B. A balanced water table
C. Tertiary Succession
C. Variety of organisms
D. Quaternary Succession
D. A narrow temperature range
192. After a volcano erupts and destroys an
187. Which even would start a secondary suc-
ecosystem, a few organisms are able to
cession?
begin growing from the decaying organic
A. volcanic eruption matter left behind. What do we call those
B. forest fire organisms that are able to grow in little or
no soil that first appear?
C. glacier moving
A. adaptors
D. big bang
B. pioneer species
188. The lichens and mosses can be classified
as C. non-vascular plants
A. pioneer species D. decomposers
B. abiotic factors 193. First species to arrive in an area

C. climax community A. invasive species
D. a population B. abiotic components
189. A slab of bare rock is covered with C. pioneer species
lichens. In time, mosses cover the rock, D. parasites
followed by grasses, and finally by small
shrubs and tree saplings. In this example, 194. Where do most Earthquakes occur in the
the lichens represent US?
A. climax comunity A. California
B. a dominant species B. Texas
C. secondary consumers C. Utah
D. pioneer species D. Vermont
190. Water stored below the Earth’s surface 195. All of the members of one species that
is called: inhabit a specific area are called-
A. Groundwater A. a community

B. an ecosystem C. seeds need to be replanted

C. a biosphere D. all of the above
D. a population
201. A population
196. Any type of animal or plant which is un- A. the collective sum of all the organisms
der a threat of disappearing forever is in a given area
called:
B. the number of all plant species in an
A. Endangered area
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Extinct C. is a group of organisms of the same
C. Sensitive species living in the same area
D. Wild Extinct D. the number of all animal species in an
area
197. Breaking News! A new island has formed
off of Hawaii! What must occur for it to 202. Which of these relationships is most cor-
become an ecosystem? rect?
A. Secondary Succession A. High Biodiversity leads to Low Sustain-
B. Aquatic succession ability
C. Primary Succession B. Low Biodiversity leads to High Sustain-
D. Ferns must grow ability
C. High Biodiversity leads to High Sus-
198. How will an area begin to recover after tainability
a forest fire?
D. Biodiversity and Sustainability are not
A. Animals return first and then grass,
related
shrubs, small trees, and large trees.
B. Trees return first and then grass, 203. An area that has been disturbed by a nat-
shrubs, and animals. ural phenomenon or by human disturbance
can experience new growth that usually
C. Grass returns first and then shrubs,
begins with plants such as grasses and
small trees, and large trees.
weeds. This is called succession.
D. Small trees return first and then large
A. tertiary
trees, grass, and shrubs.
B. secondary
199. Which of the following is NOT a pioneer
species? C. primary
A. Shrubs D. quaternary
B. Lichen 204. Students take a short field trip to ob-
C. Mosses serve succession of a microhabitat in the
schoolyard. The students record informa-
D. Fungi
tion in the table. What example should
200. After a forest fire, NOT have been recorded as evidence of
succession?
A. secondary succession occurs.
B. fertilizers need to be applied to the A. Algae on the school buildings
land B. Weeds by the entryway

C. Shell-shaped fossils embedded in A. ecological recession

rocks
B. climax recession

D. Abundance of dandelions on play-
ground C. ecological succession
D. climax succession
205. Which of the following habitats probably
has the greatest number of plant and ani-
210. The process by which water, ice, wind
mal species?
or gravity moves weathered rock and soil
A. the African savannah from one place to another.
B. a rainforest in Brazil A. weathering
C. a temperate forest in China B. erosion
D. a temperate grassland in Kansas
C. deposition
206. How does secondary succession differ D. dumptruck
from primary succession?
A. Secondary succession has a definite 211. Succession that occurs in an area where
end. soil is already present
B. Soil does not have to be replaced in pri- A. primary succession
mary succession.
C. Soil does not have to be replaced in
secondary succession. C. secondary succession
D. Pioneer species are not needed in pri- D. pioneer speciles
mary succession.
212. What is the first species in a secondary
207. reaches a climax community quicker succession?
because soil is already present.
A. lichen
A. Primary Succession
B. moss
B. Secondary Succession
C. Both types of succession C. grass
D. none of above D. trees
208. A species is defined as endangered when 213. A non-native animal is introduced into a
it diverse, mature ecosystem in equilibrium.
A. suffers from damage to its habitat. Assuming that the animal has no natural
enemies and that it thrives in the ecosys-
B. suffers from disease or predation. tem, how will it affect the community?
C. when there are hazards to the contin-
A. Only the plants would be affected
ued life of the species.
D. all of the above B. The entire ecosystem would be af-
fected
209. What is an increase of biodiversity over
C. Only the animals would be affected
time, after a natural or man made distur-
bance? D. There would be no effect

214. Which statement is TRUE about forest 219. Biodiversity can affect the of ecosys-
fires? tems and the of populations.
A. Forest fires are always bad for the A. sustainability and stability
ecosystem B. stability and sustainability
B. Forest fires can sometimes be benefi- C. life and existence
cial for an ecosystem
D. existence and life
C. Forest fires always result in primary
NARAYAN CHANGDER
succession 220. Why does primary succession take longer
than secondary succession?
D. none of above
A. Primary succession begins with
215. A sudden shift in the earth’s crust is nutrient-rich soil and secondary succes-
called a sion does not.
A. Earthquake B. Primary succession begins with deso-
B. Volcano late land.
C. Tsunami C. Secondary succession begins with a

rocky environment.
D. Flood
D. Secondary succession is a long-term
216. Trees are the final (climax) stage of eco- change and primary succession is a short-
logical succession because they term change.
A. require rich soil created by shrubs 221. the first organisms that appear in an eco-
B. only need limited amounts of sunlight logical community
C. reproduce at a very fast rate A. ecological succession
D. depend on animals to disperse their B. primary succession
seeds C. secondary succession
217. A region that includes tigers, eagles, D. pioneer species

lizards, fish, rabbits, and many other 222. A student surveys her neighborhood and
types of organisms would be described as reports that it contains 6 dogs, 4 cats and
having a high level of 1 gerbil. This data best describes the-
A. taxonomic diversity A. pet population
B. genetic diversity B. pet ecosystem
C. ecosystem diversity C. pet domain
D. species diversity D. pet community
218. Where do most tornadoes happen in the 223. What is the term for the final stage of
US? any ecological succession?
A. Oregon A. climax community
B. Texas B. final community
C. Tennessee C. last community
D. Arizona D. optimal community

224. Which natural disaster can be caused by B. an increase in annual precipitation

lightning? C. a decrease in soil complexity

A. Tornado
D. a decrease in temperature
B. Volcano
230. What sequence below characterizes pri-
C. Wildfire
mary succession?
D. Earthquake
A. rocks, flower, trees, grasses
225. Primary succession occurs in an area that B. rocks, lichens, grasses, bushes
has:
C. soil, flowers, grasses, trees
A. Has Soil
D. soil, lichens, trees, grasses
B. Has No Soil
C. Has Some Soil 231. What is the term that describes a steady
and stable community?
D. none of these
A. peak community
226. A garden was cleared out, but had to be
left alone for a month. What would you B. turf community
expect to see? C. climax community
A. lichens and mosses D. disturbed community
B. grasses and weeds
232. Occurs over time
C. a fully blossomed garden
D. bushes and small trees
227. A spinning funnel cloud which causes C. both types of succession
much destruction is called a
D. none of above
A. Tornado
B. Earthquake 233. As succession progresses, animal species
diversity increases due to the fact that
C. Tsunami
A. less soil is being created
D. Hurricane
B. food choices increase
228. Which is faster:Primary or Secondary
Succession? C. precipitation rates stabilize
A. Primary Succession D. temperatures moderate

B. Secondary Succession 234. At the end of ecological succession, a sta-
C. Both Take The Same Amount of Time ble community is reached. Which of the
following best describes a climax commu-
D. none of above
nity if it left alone?
229. As succession proceeds in an ecosystem, A. most of the biomass is in lichens
there is an increase in population den-
B. it does not contain any animals
sity. This is accompanied by what other
change? C. it changes very quickly
A. an increase in species diversity D. it remains until the climate changes

235. The main human activity that releases B. Building fences

greenhouse gases is C. Pollution
A. using bottled water D. Hurricane
B. burning fossil fuels
241. Dropping leaves in the fall is a character-
C. texting on cellphones istic of what type of tree?
D. eating meat A. deciduous
NARAYAN CHANGDER
236. What type of animals or plants must B. evergreen
move into the environment before succes- C. conifer
sion can begin?
D. bonsai
A. Decomposers
242. Organisms that play a role in the nitrogen
B. Consumers
cycle
C. Equilibrium species
A. only plants
D. Pioneering species
B. only animals
237. Starts with BARE ROCK followed by C. only bacteria
lichen
D. plants, animals, & bacteria
243. Which of the following characteristics
would be useful in determining the identify
C. both types of succession of a tree in a dichotomous key?
D. none of above A. It provides shade
238. What type of biodiversity is demon- B. It has a nest
strated by a seashore of rocky and sandy C. It has several birds in it
beaches, forested cliffs, and ocean wa-
D. Its leaves are long and narrow
ters?
A. taxonomic diversity 244. The temperature, amount of rainfall and
mineral composition of the soil are all fac-
B. ecosystem diveristy
tors that can be used to describe-
C. genetic diversity
A. a community
B. an ecosystem
239. A stable ecological community that has C. a population
reached equilibrium D. an organism
245. What kind of organism would most likely
B. climax community be growing on an island created by a vol-
C. secondary succession canic eruption just two years after?
D. pioneer speciles A. climbing vines
240. Which is a natural cause of ecosystem B. monkeys

change? C. lichens
A. Farming D. hardwood trees

246. A species is C. Predators

A. all the plants and animals in area D. Decomposers

B. a group of similar organisms that can
produce offspring 251. Which of the following is true in a mature
community?
C. animals that have mutations that can
not reproduce A. the community will constantly evolve
and change
D. all the plants in a specific biome
B. if one species dies, a new species will
247. Limiting Factor fulfill the same role
A. a biotic or abiotic environmental factor C. They are stable for a long time, with
that restricts the growth of a population. the same species maintaining their popu-
B. a force of nature that results in catas- lation
trophic consequences. D. it goes through a major change called
C. the first plant species to grow during “climax” every few hundred years
primary succession.
252. Pioneer Species
D. the development of an ecological com-
munity in a previously uninhabited loca- A. the first plant species to grow during
tion. primary succession.
248. A niche is best described as and an B. the development of an ecological com-

example would be a munity in a previously uninhabited loca-
tion.
A. an organism’s job or role in an ecosys-
tem, bee C. the development of an ecological com-
munity in an area that was once inhabited
B. a special adaptation to fit in an environ-
but experienced devastation.
ment, water
D. the sum of the different forms of living
C. a genetic mutation, monkey
things in a given area or population.
D. a disability, rabbit
253. What is not the cause of primary succes-
249. The diversity of animals increases along- sion?
side plants because larger plant communi-
ties provide A. hurricane
A. defense from attack by parasites B. volcanic explosion
B. more sunlight to warm the ecosystem C. melting glaciers
C. more chemical energy in the food D. landsliders
chain
D. fewer places for prey animals to hide 254. the species that starts life in primary suc-
cession
250. Which organisms help increase the biodi- A. pioneer species
versity of an ecosystem and conserve and
recycle resources? B. succession
A. Producers C. nitrogen fixation
B. Parasites D. cellular respiration

255. The process when soil or rock are left or D. To establish a relationship between
placed in a new location. two ecosystems.
A. Erosion
260. Series of changes where an existing com-
B. Weathering munity is destroyed
C. Mass movement
D. Deposition
256. which of the following is most likely to
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. commensalism
cause the greatest disruption to an ecosys-
tem? D. competition
A. emptying an aquarium containing non-
native species into a local waterway 261. Which of the following situations is the
best example of ecological succession?
B. cutting down a small cedar tree to (TEK 7.10C)
make holiday decorations.
A. A population of birds in an area re-
C. cleaning the windshield of a car with
mains the same.
alcohol based cleaner
D. mowing the lawn in a city park. B. An organism survives a drought in the
summer.
257. What is a native species?
C. One species of tree replaces a species
A. A specie that is local and has lived in of shrub.
the same place
D. Several species compete for the same
B. A specie who has come from another resources.
state or country
C. A specie that has no “home” and trav- 262. A fire partially destroys a temperate
els for its whole life deciduous forest. The following spring,
D. None of the above grasses and low growing shrubs are ob-
served amongst the burned trees. This is
258. Which natural disaster can cause a an example of-
tsunami to happen?
A. secondary succession
A. Tornado
B. Tsunami
C. biodiversity
C. Hurricane
D. Earthquake D. climax community
259. What is the function of a pioneer 263. During each stage of ecological succes-
species? sion, what is a major limiting biotic factor
A. To prepare the forest for a natural dis- for animal succession?
turbance A. humidity
B. To scout out an area and see if it is suit- B. inorganic nutrients
able for growth
C. plant species
C. To break down exposed rock and other
nutrients into soil. D. sunlight

264. What is an succession? 269. As time passes, a community will even-

A. Series of gradual changes that occur tually reach a stage in which all organisms
are in balance with each other and with the

after a disturbance
abiotic factors in their environment. This
B. Changes that only happen when final stage of succession is called a
species die
A. Climax Community
C. a series of changes that cause a popu-
lation to increase or decrease B. Habitat complexity
D. an INSTANT change caused by a distur- C. Ecological balance
bance
D. Successive renewal
265. As an ecosystem transitions from a grass-
land to a forest, grasses will begin to 270. The natural chemical or physical pro-
cesses that breaks down rock on Earth’s
A. adapt to life in the forest surface.
B. be replaced by other plants
A. weathering
C. multiply to establish dominance
B. erosion
D. relocate to a nearby grassland
C. deposition
266. What is the difference between a primary
D. jackhammering
vs. secondary succession?
A. secondary occurs where there was no 271. Which of these is NOT an impact to the
previous community and no soil ecosystem after a hurricane?
B. they are the same A. Fires throughout the area
C. secondary occurs in an area that was B. Poor water quality in the area
only partially destroyed but still had soil
C. Erosion of beaches
D. primary occurs in an area that was
only partially destroyed but still had soil D. Massive flooding
267. List the communities in a sequence of a 272. Reaches a climax community quicker be-
secondary succession cause soil is already present
A. mosses, grass, lichens, trees, low A. primary succession
shrubs
B. grasses, flowering plants, low shrubs,
trees
C. trees, grass, mosses, flowering plants D. none of above
D. low shrubs, flowering plants, lichens 273. Which of the following events will most
likely change the dominant plants in an
268. The series of predictable changes that oc-
ecosystem from large trees to grasses?
cur in a community over time is
A. Pioneer species A. high winds from a tornado
B. Equilibrium B. a brush fire from lightning
C. Ecological succession C. flash flooding from storms
D. Disturbance D. overgrazing by herbivores

274. What are the pioneer species for sec- 279. Which of these is a threat to the survival
ondary succession? of an ecosystem?
A. lichen A. Competition among some consumer
B. moss populations
C. grass B. Less biomass at higher levels of the

food web
D. algae
C. A shrinking variety of animal and plant
species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
275. the process of change over time in the liv-
ing parts of the ecosystem D. Predator-prey population cycles
280. What triggers or begins Secondary Suc-
B. primary species cession?
C. climax community A. When old plants grow in the area
D. pioneer species B. A disturbance (A flood or fire)
276. can be thought of as pioneer species C. Heavy Rain
during primary succession, even though D. The completion of Primary Succession
they are really a symbiotic relationship be-
tween fungi and algae. 281. Which is the correct order in primary suc-
cession?
A. Lichen
A. Rocks, Lichens & Mosses, Bushes &
B. Grasses Shrubs, Trees
C. Shrubs B. Lichens & Mosses, Rocks, Trees,
D. Soil Bushes & Shrubs
277. What is the predictable and gradual re- C. Trees, Bushes and Shrubs, Lichens &
placement of one community of living Mosses, Lichens & Mosses
things by another community. D. Rocks, Grass, Trees, Bushes & Shrubs
A. ecological recession 282. Which of the following is the correct or-
B. climax recession der of ecological succession?
C. ecological succession A. grass-shrubs-lichens-trees
D. climax succession B. lichens-shrubs-grasses-trees
C. lichens-grasses-shrubs-trees
278. Tornadoes can negatively affect an
ecosystem when D. grasses-lichens-shrubs-trees
A. the saltwater they bring kills off bur- 283. List the communities in a sequence of pri-
rowing insects mary succession
B. their strong winds uproot many of the A. lichens, mosses, grass, flowering
important plants plants, low shrubs, trees
C. the rise in water level they produce in- B. grass, flowering plants, low shrubs,
troduces harmful salt trees, lichens, mosses,
D. they bring higher temperatures fa- C. low shrubs, trees, lichens, mosses,
vored by birds grass, flowering plants,

D. lichens, , flowering plants, low shrubs, C. a variety of plants

threes, mosses, grass
D. a variety of animals

284. Why is biodiversity important in fighting
disease in food crops? 289. Which of the following is not a possible
cause of ecological succession?
A. It prevents one disease from wiping
out an entire food crop. A. fire
B. It prevents habitat loss of native B. flood
species.
C. earthquake
C. It provides different foods for differ-
ent populations. D. change of season
D. It prevents fungal disease from wiping
290. . Which of the following is an example
out corn crops.
of primary succession?
285. Which sequence is typical of primary suc- A. lichens growing on rocks following a
cession? volcanic eruption
A. lichens-shrubs-small trees-forest
B. grasses growing after a forest fire
B. lichens-small trees-shrubs-pine forest
C. oak trees replacing pine trees in a for-
C. crabgrass-shrubs-small trees-oak forest
est
D. non-native species introduced into a
D. crabgrass-mosses-oak trees-pine for-
climax community
est
286. What is the first group of organisms to 291. What type of disturbance can be benefi-
colonize an area called? cial to ecosystems and communities?
A. pioneer species A. Volcanic Eruption
B. invasive species B. Fire
C. keystone species C. Invasive Species
D. endangered species D. Flood
287. This type of succession reaches a climax
community quicker because soil is already 292. Natural Disaster
present A. a force of nature that results in catas-
A. primary succession trophic consequences.
B. secondary succession B. the first plant species to grow during
C. both types of succession primary succession.
D. none of above C. the development of an ecological com-
munity in a previously uninhabited loca-
288. Which of the following best describes bio- tion.
diversity
D. the development of an ecological com-
A. a diverse Biology class munity in an area that was once inhabited
B. variety of all life on earth but experienced devastation.

13.3 Nutrient Cycling 1314
293. What is present during primary succes- 298. As ecosystem changes (undergoes ecolog-
sion that doesn’t need to be present during ical succession)
secondary succession?
A. Older inhabitants gradually die out and
A. pioneer species new organisms move in
B. soil B. Older inhabitants die out suddenly and
C. climax community new organisms move in
D. lichens C. Older inhabitants stay in the environ-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ment and new organisms move in
294. Natural disturbances, such as fires or hur-
ricanes, can result in D. Older inhabitants stay in the environ-
A. parasitism. ment and new organisms do not move in
B. competition. 299. Which type of trees is found in a temper-

C. commensalism. ate forest?
D. succession. A. deciduous
295. First species to arrive in an area are B. evergreen
called C. ginko
A. invasive species D. palm
B. abiotic components
C. pioneer species 300. What is TRUE about both primary and
secondary ecological succession?
D. parasites
A. They both start with bare rock.
296. Which of the following represents sec-
B. They both start with soil already
ondary succession?
present.
A. Moss growing on top of rocks
C. They both occur over time.
B. Plants growing in a forest that was de-
stroyed by fire D. They both end with identical ecosys-
tems.
C. Plants growing on sand dunes
D. Plants growing on a new volcanic is- 301. Which indicator most likely limits the sus-
land that formed in the ocean tainability of organisms within an ecosys-
tem?
297. A hole dug into an aquifer to reach
groundwater is called A. Amount of annual precipitation
A. an aquitard/aquiclude B. Lack of biodiversity within the ecosys-
B. a well tem
C. a recharge zone C. Presence of decomposers
D. a water table D. Checks and balances
13.3 Nutrient Cycling

1. Phosphorus is important for living organ- C. 57

isms for
D. 78

A. DNA
7. occurs when water droplets that are
B. ATP
large enough fall from clouds.
C. RNA
A. Percolation
D. All of the above
B. Transpiration
2. Which biogeochemical cycle is least depen-
C. Condensation
dent on biotic processes?
D. Precipitation
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon 8. All of the following are consumers except
C. Phosphorus A. Autotrophs
D. Water B. Herbivores
E. Oxygen C. Heterotrophs
3. Nitrogen fixation is the process in which D. Ominvores
certain bacteria convert nitrogen gas into
9. Process by which liquid water turns into
A. liquid nitrogen a vapor and is deposited into the atmo-
B. nitrates sphere.
C. nitrites A. Transpiration
D. ammonia B. Respiration
4. The movement of matter through biotic C. Photosynthesis
and abiotic environment is called D. Percolation
A. matter cycling
E. Evaporation
B. biogeochemical cycle
10. Which of the following are characteristics
C. photosynthesis
necessary for life? (mark all that apply)
D. carbon fixation
A. Made of cells
5. Chemical process by which plants use sun- B. Growth and Development
light to obtain sugars.
C. Constant Body Temperature
A. Transpiration
D. Respond to Stimuli
B. Respiration
E. Multicellular
C. Photosynthesis
D. Percolation 11. Carbon is recycled mostly through
E. Evaporation A. transpiration
6. Our atmosphere is % nitrogen gas B. photosynthesis and respiration
A. 87 C. condensation
B. 75 D. mountain formation

12. Occurs when precipitation runs down rocks 17. Process by which water is pulled through
and mountains causing them to leech out the xylem of plants (entering plants
minerals. through roots to the stomata to be re-
A. Weathering leased).
A. Transpiration
B. Run-Off
B. Respiration
C. Combustion
C. Photosynthesis
D. Nitrogen-fixing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Percolation
E. Precipitation
E. Evaporation
13. Process of describing how water seeps
through the soil into groundwater 18. Process by which nitrogen is extracted
from the soil.
A. aquifer
A. Diffusion
B. run off
B. Decomposers
C. erosion
C. Detrivores
D. percolation D. Fossil fuels
14. One of the nutrient cycles moves from E. Denitrification
an atmospheric gaseous form to the soil
through both abiotic and biotic processes, 19. Nitrogen is available in the soil, and is
moves through the food web, then is re- available for who pass it onto con-
turned to the soil or to the atmosphere. sumers through the food web.
Which cycle fits this description? A. producers
A. Nitrogen B. heterotrophs
B. Carbon C. decomposers
C. Phosphorus D. scavengers
D. Water 20. Most of the nitrogen (N2) is taken up from
the atmosphere by
15. What do the arrows indicate in a food
A. soil bacteria
web?
B. trees and flowering plants
A. What eats what
C. humans
B. Where the energy is being transferred
D. algae
C. How the animals are related
D. none of above 21. Which of the following nutrients has only
a short-term biogeochemical cycle?
16. Each step in a food chain A. Nitrogen
A. neither B. Carbon
B. represents a 90% reduction in energy C. Phosphorus
C. both D. Water
D. is called a trophic level. E. Oxygen

22. What are two elements that algae thrive 27. The more nitrogen (and phosphorus)
on? In large amounts can cause an algal oceanic phytoplankton receive the more
bloom. they will be.

A. Nitrogen A. boring
B. Carbon B. productive
C. Phosphorus C. active
D. Water
D. spry
E. Oxygen
28. How do consumers get nitrogen?
23. The carbon in coal, oil, and natural gas
came from A. the atmosphere
A. the combustion of fossil fuels B. eating other organisms
B. the remains of dead organisms C. bacteria
C. carbon-fixing bacteria in swamp soil D. lightning
D. carbon dioxide dissolved in ocean wa-
ter 29. When water turns to vapor and rises into
the atmosphere from the ocean, it is called
24. Which biogeochemical cycle does NOT in-
A. condensation
clude a major path in which the substance
cycles through the atmosphere? B. transpiration
A. water cycle C. evaporation
B. carbon cycle D. sublimation
C. nitrogen cycle
30. If the atmosphere is 78% N2, why can’t
D. phosphorous cycle
we just get our nitrogen by breathing?
25. Organisms that convert fixed nitrogen A. We have no mechanism to break
back into nitrogen gas and release nitro- the triple bond of nitrogen between the
gen gas back into atmosphere atoms.
A. denitrifying bacteria B. Our lungs would be damaged by the
B. fungi N2.
C. maggots C. We need Oxygen for cellular respira-
D. all of the above tion.
D. The legumes take it up first.
26. Organisms that produce food without the
sun’s energy, such as bacteria in hy-
31. Where is most water found on Earth?
drothermal vents, are calle
A. heterotrophs A. glaciers
B. photoautotrophs B. lakes
C. chemoautotrophs C. rivers
D. consumers D. oceans

32. What is a qualitative observation? 37. The elements carbon, oxygen, hydrogen
A. One that involves precise numbers or and nitrogen combined make up about
quantities 96% of our bodies (carbon is about 18%).
Carbon is necessary for life because it is
B. One that involves observations and in- a(n)
terpretation
A. uncommon element in all living things.
C. One that involves using only your eyes
and ears B. element found only in the atmosphere
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. One that involves magic and guess- C. excellent bonder
work
D. is found mostly in dead things.
33. The slow settling of water through rocks
and minerals in the soil. 38. The burning of fossil fuels is
A. Transpiration A. Weathering
B. Respiration B. Run-Off
C. Photosynthesis
C. Combustion
D. Percolation
D. Nitrogen-fixing
E. Evaporation
E. Precipitation
34. Which are ways that humans have in-
creased the amount of CO2 in the environ- 39. What is one way that carbon enters the
ment? atmosphere?
A. Deforestation A. Sunlight
B. Raising livestock B. Factory emissions
C. Fossil Fuel Burning
C. Ocean uptake
D. Industry
D. Rain
E. Nitrogen Fixation
35. A pyramid of numbers is 40. This is released by the weathering of
rocks.
A. always a pyramid shape
A. Carbon
B. sometimes inverted
C. used to represent energy flow B. Oxygen
D. often easy to draw to scale C. Phosphorus
36. Process by which water runs down the D. Nitrogen

side of land or soil and is deposited into
a body of water. 41. is when water evaporates from plants
and goes into the atmosphere.
A. Weathering
A. Transpiration
B. Run-Off
C. Combustion B. Transportation
D. Nitrogen-fixing C. Evaporation
E. Precipitation D. Precipitation

42. Consumers release nitrogen daily as (or ) C. through action of bacteria & lightning
from: D. through photosynthesis

A. Fecal waste products
48. What is an example of a legume?
B. Respiration waste products
A. strawberries
C. Breathing
B. carrots
D. Moving and living
C. peanuts
43. What are two elements are usually limit-
D. corn
ing factors for algae in freshwater environ-
ments? 49. Nitrogen fixation processes nitrogen from
A. Nitrogen which of the following sources?
B. Carbon A. lightning
C. Phosphorus B. fertilizers
D. Water C. dead plants
E. Oxygen D. atmosphere
44. Which would be the appropriate term for 50. Which of the following is NOT a way that
an organism that eats a producer? carbon in dead organisms is returned to
A. scavenger the carbon cycle?
B. decomposer A. by becoming fossil fuel
C. secondary consumer B. through combustion
D. primary consumer C. through decomposition
45. What are all living things made of? D. through photosynthesis
A. Soil 51. What are two large areas where carbon is

B. Oxygen stored for long periods of time, or carbon
sinks?
C. Carbon
A. plants and animals
D. water
B. fossil fuels and oceans
46. The burning of fossil fuels.
C. oceans and lakes
A. Weathering
D. fossil fuels and living organisms
B. Run-Off
52. Ecology
C. Combustion
D. Nitrogen-fixing A. is the study of interactions of organ-
isms to each other and to their environ-
E. Precipitation ment.
47. How nitrogen is “fixed” into useable form B. comes from the root word “oikos”
for plants meaning home.
A. through action of bacteria only C. both
B. through lightning only D. neither

53. Type of bacteria that will take Nitrogen D. plants absorb nitrogen compounds
(N2) from the air and transform it into from the soil
a usable form for other bacteria (NOx or
NHx). 58. What is one of the most important pro-
cesses that removes carbon from the at-
A. Weathering
mosphere?
B. Denitrification
A. photosynthesis
C. Combustion
B. cellular respiration
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Nitrogen-fixing
C. erosin
E. Nitrification
D. soil respiration
54. Process by which nitrogen is extracted
from the soil and converted to atmospheric 59. How have humans contributed to the
N2. amount of carbon dioxide in the air?
A. Diffusion A. driving cars
B. Decomposers B. burning coal
C. Detrivores C. factories
D. Fossil fuels
D. all of these
E. Denitrification
60. How do animals get nitrogen?
55. When N2 gas goes from the atmosphere to
living organisms in the soil, this is called A. the atmosphere
A. nitrification B. eating other organisms

B. nitrogen fixation C. bacteria
C. denitrification D. lightning
D. none of above
61. A pyramid of biomass
56. When nitrogen gas is turned into a form A. shows the mass of living material in a
that plants and animals can use is called food chain over time
A. Nitrogen Fixation B. shows the mass of producers only
B. Assimilation C. does not change over seasons
C. Nitrification
D. gives a ‘snapshot’ of the mass of living
D. Denitrification material in each trophic level
57. Which of the following is NOT a stage of 62. On which trophic level are primary con-
the nitrogen cycle? sumers?
A. organisms breathe in nitrogen gas A. 1
B. organisms release nitrogen com-
B. 2
pounds via waste or decomposition
C. 3
C. bacteria convert unusable nitrogen to
usable nitrogen D. 4

63. What are two elements that algae thrive 68. Homeostasis is:
on? A. Something in the environment that

A. Nitrogen causes a response in an organism.
B. Carbon B. The process of maintaining the same
C. Phosphorus internal conditions.
C. Adaptation through evolution.
D. Water
D. Consuming other organisms to gain en-
E. Oxygen
ergy.
64. What organism is responsible for nitrogen
69. The nitrogen found in the atmosphere is
fixation?
not in a form that plants or animals can
A. plants use. What converts it into a usable form?
B. humans A. Bacteria
C. bacteria B. Photosynthesis
D. viruses C. Decomposition of organisms
E. mice D. Fungi
65. Which variable is manipulated, or 70. One of the nutrient cycles moves from
changed/ adjusted by the experimenter an atmospheric gaseous form to the
or scientist? soil through bacteria or lightning, moves
A. Independent Variable through the food web, then is returned to
the soil or to the atmosphere. Which cycle
B. Dependent Variable fits this description?
C. Constant Variable A. Nitrogen
D. None of these B. Carbon
66. Type of bacteria that will put Nitrogen C. Phosphorus
back into the soil or transform it into a us- D. Water
able form.
71. Chemical process that animals and plants
A. Weathering
use to obtain energy.
B. Run-Off
A. Transpiration
C. Combustion
B. Respiration
D. Nitrogen-fixing
C. Photosynthesis
E. Precipitation
D. Percolation
67. Denitrifying bacteria feed on , releas- E. Denitrification
ing nitrogen gas back into the atmosphere.
72. Types of organisms that serve to break
A. dead plants and animals down inorganic waste and deposit into the
B. living soil soil.
C. water A. Diffusion
D. algae B. Decomposers

C. Detrivores 78. Building proteins and DNA is the reason or-

D. Fossil fuels ganisms need what substance?
E. Denitrification A. Water
B. Carbon
73. An organism that can manufacture organic
substances from inorganic substances us- C. Nitrogen
ing energy is a D. Calcium
A. Consumer 79. What is nitrogen fixation?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Producer A. A process used by plants and other or-
C. Decomposer ganisms to convert light energy, normally
from the sun, into chemical energy that
D. Herbivore
can be later released to fuel the organ-
74. Process by which water leaves the clouds isms activities.
and is deposited onto the ground by way B. A process in which nitrogen in the at-
of rain or snow. mosphere is converted into ammonium or
A. Weathering nitrates
B. Run-Off C. A process in which bacteria convert ni-
trates into nitrogen gas
C. Combustion
D. none of above
D. Nitrogen-fixing
E. Precipitation 80. The organisms which break down organic
wastes and dead organisms are
75. The total amount of living tissue in a given A. Consumers
ecosystem is called
B. Producers
A. biomass
C. Scavengers
B. primary productivity
D. Decomposers
C. a trophic level
D. a food web 81. Organic material (like coal and oil) that
are the remnants of dead/decayed matter
76. What happens when organisms die and de- from millions of years ago.
cay? A. Diffusion
A. Their bodies are lifted up B. Decomposers
B. Their nitrogen returns to the soil C. Detrivores
C. they keep their nitrogen D. Fossil fuels
D. They stay on earth forever E. Denitrification
77. This is part of nucleic acids, ATP, and helps 82. Which bacteria take N2 from the atmo-
form animals’ bones and teeth. sphere and convert it to Ammonia?
A. Nitrogen A. Nitrogen Fixers
B. Carbon B. Nitrate Fixers
C. Water C. Denitrifying Bacterial
D. Phosphorous D. Carbon Fixers

83. An example of a detritivore is 88. Which was the first human organ to be suc-
cessfully transplanted?
A. a fungus

A. Face
B. a cow
B. Heart
C. an earthworm
C. Liver
D. a bacterium D. Kidney
84. Nitrogen in the atmosphere is not avail- 89. Water vapor that collects into a liquid is
able. Free nitrogen has to be changed into called
a usable form in a process called A. Condensation
A. nitrogen fixation B. Evaporation
B. transpiration C. Precipitation
C. precipitation D. Sublimation
D. respiration 90. Energy cannot be made or destroyed, but
simply changes form is
85. The process by which a substance moves
A. the 1st Law of Thermodynamics
from an area of high concentration to an
area of low concentration. B. the 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
C. the Law of Entropy
A. Diffusion
D. Law of Relativity
B. Decomposers
91. Lightning, legumes, and bacteria are all
C. Detrivores
part of which cycle?
D. Fossil fuels
A. Water
E. Denitrification B. Carbon
86. A chemical substance necessary for life C. Nitrogen

that is scarce in an ecosystem and affects D. Phosphorous
primary productivity is
92. Denitrification is the process by which
A. an unlimited nutrient some bacteria convert nitrates into .
B. a limited nutrient A. liquid nitrogen
C. a recycled nutrient B. nitrites
D. a non-recycled nutrient C. ammonia

D. nitrogen gas
87. The rate of organic material created by
producers is called 93. When plants make their own food using
the sun’s energy, it is called
A. Photosynthesis
A. Photosythesis
B. Chemosynthesis B. Fertilizer
C. Primary Productivity C. plant cycle
D. Biogeochemistry D. Plants cant make their own food.

94. Process by which water is pulled through by humans using carbon they have at-
the xylem of plants. tained from the environment? (click all
A. Transpiration that apply)
B. Respiration A. Carbohydrates
C. Photosynthesis B. Nucleic Acids (DNA / RNA)
D. Percolation C. Lipids (Fats)
E. Evaporation D. Proteins
NARAYAN CHANGDER
95. Which of the following molecules are made E. Nitrates and Ammonia

14. Biodiversity and Conservation
14.1 Patterns of Biodiversity

1. Provides the raw material for adaptations 4. A species that is likely to become extinct if
to local conditions. protective measures are not taken immedi-
A. Population Ecology ately is known as
A. threatened species
B. Speciation
B. endemic species
C. Genetic Diversity
C. keystone species
D. Species Diversity
D. endangered species
2. Describes differences in DNA among indi-
5. What is latitudinal gradient?
viduals of a population or species.
A. A global pattern of species richness
A. Subspecies
that changes with latitude
B. Genetic Isolation
B. A specific area on the globe
C. Species Diversity C. Where all species originate from
D. Genetic Diversity D. Describes taxonomic groups
3. Which human activity would be most de- 6. An endemic species is
structive to the biodiversity of the bio-
A. exotic and found everywhere
sphere?
B. exotic and found only in certain re-
A. The burning of wood and coal in rural gions
areas
C. native and found only in a limited area
B. The release of species of freshwater
D. native and found everywhere
trout in lakes
C. The removal of plants from the food 7. Which is NOT a part of an area’s overall
webs they support biodiversity?
D. The removal of erosion barriers from A. Ecosystem Biodiversity
forest boundaries B. Genetic Biodiversity

14.2 Loss of Biodiversity 1326
C. Evolution Biodiversity A. Some areas remain unexplored

D. Species Biodiversity B. Many species are very tiny, and there-
fore overlooked.
8. Biodiversity is greater
C. Not enough scientist to explore
A. Near the poles
B. In the Tundra D. Many organisms are difficult to iden-
tify
C. In the desert
11. In what way are humans most impacting
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Near the equator
the biodiversity of ecosystems around the
9. If global warming continues, which of the world?
following will most likely NOT happen?
A. We are putting too many organisms in
A. Increased intensity of storms zoos or keeping them as pets
B. Rises in ocean levels
B. We are increasing biodiversity by
C. Loss of biodiversity breeding new species
D. Increase in available resources C. We are destroying the habitats of a
10. Which is NOT a reason that species esti- large number of species
mates vary so much. D. Recreational hunting
14.2 Loss of Biodiversity

1. A plant nursery only grew one type of C. The remains of other living things
tomato. All of their tomatoes died from
D. none of above
the same disease. What was most likely
true of the tomato plant population? 4. The Iberian imperial Eagle is an endan-
A. It had too little biodiversity gered species living only in restricted ar-
eas of
B. It had a lot of resistance to disease
C. It had a few plants that were resistant A. France
to disease B. Andorra
D. It had too much genetic variation C. Spain
2. Biodiversity is essential for a healthy D. none of above
planet Earth and has a direct impact on
5. Which of the following would best help re-
A. Family duce the risks pollution poses to the envi-
B. Lives ronment?
C. Food A. Turn lights off only if you will be out of
D. none of above a room more than an hour.
B. Rinse soda cans well before placing
3. Biodiversity is the them in the garbage
A. Variety of life found on Earth C. Keep records of the populations of an-
B. All the ecosystems in the World imals that inhabit your area

D. properly dispose of hazardous sub- B. Biosphere

stances such as paints C. Climate change

6. Number/variety of different species in D. none of above
area.
12. Life on Earth will disappear if we continue
A. natural resources harming our natural
B. endangered species A. Context
C. biodiversity B. Environment
D. captivity C. Earth
7. Using Earth’s resources carefully and sus- D. none of above
tainably in order to prevent loss or waste
13. Tick the result of several destructive prac-
is called
tices and their consequences
A. conservation
A. Pollution, climate change, hunting and
B. preservation capturing animals
C. resilience B. Pollution, climate change, creation of
D. disturbance new species
C. Over-exploiting resources, creation of
8. Extinction is a natural new species, alteration of habitats
A. Process D. none of above
B. Development
14. What two human activities contribute the
C. Way most to global warming?
D. none of above A. Burning fossil fuels and deforestation
9. Environments always have both living and B. Mining and vehicle exhaust
C. Burning fossil fuels and agriculture
A. nonliving factors D. Deforestation and agriculture
B. bio-geochemical cycles
15. What is genetic diversity?
C. nutrients
A. the variety of living things in an area
D. ecosystem
B. the variety of DNA within a species
10. The most endangered cat species in the C. the similarities within a species
world is
D. the similarities among species in an
A. The lion area
B. The coyote
16. What is the average, year-to-year condi-
C. The Iberian lynx tions of weather in an area?
D. none of above A. Biome
11. We should all know about the importance B. Air Mass
of preserving C. Climate
A. Biodiversity D. Precipitation

17. A mass extinction occurred about 23. What happens if you take away one
30000 years ago.-65 million years ago.- species?
65 billion years ago.
A. nothing will happen if the ecosystem is
A. 30000 years ago. strong.
B. 65 million years ago. B. If it isn’t strong the whole ecosystem
C. 65 billion years ago. will break.
D. none of above C. 1 & 2
NARAYAN CHANGDER
18. A national park is called as well D. none of above
A. Biodiversity 24. Extintion is
B. Animals living together A. A natural process and has occurred for
C. Biosphere reserves million of years.
D. none of above B. A invented process and has occurred
for million of years.
19. Forest clearing, farming, and road building
are all examples of C. A natural process and has occurred for
A. Biodiversity one hundred years.
B. Population distribution D. none of above
C. Habitat loss 25. Endangered species are
D. Climate Change A. Those which are free
20. All of the following affect biodiversity only B. Those which are in danger of extinc-
in certain locations and times, EXCEPT: tion
A. Pollution C. Those which are living in a different
B. Invasive Species habitat
C. Climate Change D. none of above
D. Overharvesting
26. The greatest cause of biodiversity loss to-
21. The status of a “threatened species” day is
means: A. Pollution
A. they are almost extinct
B. Habitat loss and change
B. they are likely to become endangered
C. Climate Change
C. they are extinct
D. Invasive species
D. their numbers are increasing
22. Which of the following is a benefit of build- 27. Globally, the leading cause of biodiversity
ing dams? loss is
A. beach erosion A. invasive species

B. agricultural irrigation B. poaching and overharvesting
C. sediment build up C. pollution
D. isolation of aquatic species D. habitat change and loss

14.3 Conservation of Biodiversity 1329
28. The principal function of biosphere re- C. climate change

serves is D. all of the above

A. Protect the environment
33. What usually causes biodiversity?
B. Protect wildlife
A. pollution
C. Both
D. none of above B. Influence on human beings on the
world’s ecosystem
29. Some conservation biologists focus on ar- C. over fishing, pollution and over use of
eas where the greatest number of unique resources.
species can be protected with the least
amount of effort. These areas are called D. I was not paying attention.
34. This classification of risk means that the

A. wildlife corridors species is at serious risk of extinction.
B. habitat fragments A. threatened
C. biodiversity hotspots B. vulnerable
D. conservation concessions C. endangered
30. Is the rate of biodiversity loss going higher D. extinct
or lower?
35. Which of the following is a benefit of re-
A. higher rate
forestation?
B. lower rate
A. Reforestation helps form a protective
C. I wasn’t paying attention. barrier from pollutants
D. 1000 times higher rate B. reforestation helps create habitats for
plants and animals
31. Which of the following is NOT a cause for
the current decline in the biodiversity of C. Reforestation helps establish more
our ecosystem? land for agriculture
A. over-exploitation of resources D. Reforestation helps ensure that the
B. planting new forests to replace trees forest will not catch fire
C. pollution of animal’s water sources 36. Difference that occur among the offspring
D. increasing human population of a particular species.
A. Variation
32. What are some things that can cause an
animal to become endangered or extinct? B. Genetics
A. habitat loss C. Population
B. disease D. Classification
14.3 Conservation of Biodiversity

1. Any material or organism in the biosphere D. is overseen by the United Nations

including water, soil, fuel and plants and
animals. 7. The vertical movement of cold, nutrient-
A. bioremediation rich water from the ocean depths to its sur-
face is called
B. Introduced species
A. upwelling
C. Endemic
B. downwelling
D. Natural resource
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. tides
2. Which of the following animals is now ex-
tinct? D. surface currents
A. Tasmanian tiger 8. Sulfur dioxide reacts with water in the at-
B. Tasmanian devil mosphere to make sulfuric acid
C. Pademelon A. Acid Precipitation
D. Quoll B. Biological Magnification
3. A species is likely to become endangered C. Eutrophication
soon.
D. none of above
A. threatened
B. endangered 9. Which is the highest level of biodiversity?
C. extinct A. general diversity
D. extirpated B. genetic diversity
4. Resources that are replaced by natural pro- C. ecosystem diversity
cesses faster than they are consumed. D. species diversity
A. Sustainable use
B. Natural Resources 10. Using resources at a rate at which they can
be replaced or recycled while preserving
C. Renewable resources the long-term health of the biosphere.
D. Non-renewable resources
A. maintainable use
5. is the number of different ecosystems B. sustainable use
in a biosphere.
C. varied use
A. Species diversity
D. supportable use
B. Genetic diversity
C. Ecosystem diversity 11. Resources that are limited in amount or
D. Biodiversity take an extremely long time to replace are
called (example:oil)
6. The Endangered Species Act
A. Renewable resource
A. was overturned last year
B. Nonrenewable resource
B. protects all species
C. Natural resource
C. does not allow development in areas
where endangered species are D. Pollution

12. What does the term “extinction” refer B. rivets to species and airplane to
to? ecosystem

A. When a large proportion of a popula- C. rivets to play tools and airplane to play
tion dies. station for passengers
B. When a population of organisms dies D. none of above
from viral infection.
17. all populations of all species living in an
C. The end of a species because the last ecosystem.
individual has died.
A. population
D. When a species evolves over time and
B. community
is replaced by a new species.
C. ecosystem
13. Finding dead fish in a body of water is D. species
an indicator of eutrophication. This means
18. An event in which a large percentage of
A. There are not enough nutrients in the all living species become extinct in a rela-
water tively short period of time.
A. Habitat fragmentation
B. The flow rate of water has increased
B. Mass extinction
C. There is an excess of nutrients in the
water C. Overexploitation
D. There was too much oxygen in the wa- D. Background extinction
ter 19. Which factor has the greatest impact on
14. Area 1 has 0.6 diversity index while Area a country’s rate of natural resource con-
2 has 0.2 which of the two area will most sumption?
likely to survive a calamity? A. land area
A. Area 1 B. population
B. Area 2 C. industrialization
C. both D. availability of resources
D. none of them 20. Adding natural predators to a degraded
ecosystem.
15. U.S. law that protects biodiversity, passed
in 1973 A. Biodiversity
A. CITES B. Bioremediation
B. Convention on Biological C. Biological augmentation

D. none of above
C. Endangered Species Act
D. none of above 21. The variety of genes or inheritable charac-
teristics that are present in a population.
16. In the analogy used by ecologist Paul
A. Biodiversity
Ehrlich, rivets are compared to and air-
plane to B. Genetic diversity
A. rivets to nature and airplane to ani- C. Species diversity
mals D. Ecosystem diversity

22. What is the correct hierarchy of taxonomic D. Trash and litter removes their camou-
groups, from largest to smallest? flage.
A. family, genus, species, subspecies
28. In the species area relationship equation,
B. genus, family, subspecies, species log S= log C+ Z log A, C represents?
C. genus, family, subspecies, species A. constant
D. genus, family, subspecies, species
B. competition
23. Choose the correct options for ex-situ con-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Y intercept
servation (you can choose multiple an-
swers) D. slope of the line
A. Botanical garden 29. Materials or organisms found in the bio-
B. Wildlife santuary sphere.
C. Gene bank A. natural bio materials
D. Zoo B. bio materials
24. What is a renewable resource? C. bio resources
A. one that can be replaced quickly D. natural resources
B. one that is man-made
30. Protecting areas to promote sustainable
C. one that comes from the sun
development for the good of future gen-
D. one that will never run out erations and the right of individuals or
species to exist is its
25. There is
A. only one type pf biodiversity A. Ecological value
B. two types of biodiversity B. Economic value
C. three types of biodiversity C. Aesthetic value
D. none of above D. Ethical value
26. The 3 different types of biodiversity (in IB 31. Which of the following is not currently a
ESS) are; major cause of species extinctions?
A. Genes, Species, Habitats
A. Habitat destruction
B. Genes, Species, Ecosystems
B. Climate change
C. Species, Habitats, Communities
C. Overexploitation
D. Biosphere, Genes, Habitats
D. Introduction of predators
27. Which is one reason that trash and litter
can hurt wildlife? 32. Lime is generally added to soil.
A. Wildlife are afraid of human garbage. A. Salty
B. Trash covers the scent of other ani- B. Dry
mals they are hunting.
C. Alkaline
C. Wildlife may try to eat plastics and
choke on them. D. Acidic

33. Nonnative species that are transported to C. Re-use

a new habitat. D. Sustainable use

A. introduced species
39. is not generally seen in biodiversity
B. new species hotspots.
C. intrusive species A. Endemism
D. innovative B. Species richness
34. The complete disappearance of a species C. Loss of diversity
when its last member dies. D. Lesser interspecific competition.
A. elimination
40. The species that plays the biggest role in
B. threatened the habitat is?
C. endangered A. Smaller species
D. extinction B. Larger species
35. Which type of organism is HIGHEST in C. Keystone Species
terms of species diversity? D. Evolving species
A. plants
41. The variety of ecosystems present in the
B. mammals biosphere is called:
C. insects A. species diversity
D. protists B. genetic diversity
36. Which among the following is an in-situ C. ecosystem diversity

conservation? D. biome diversity
A. Seed bank 42. Connect habitat fragments enabling once-
B. National park isolated populations to interbreed
C. Herbarium A. Wildlife tunnels
D. Zoo B. Wildlife over passes
C. wildlife corridors
37. An endangered species is
D. wildlife corss walks
A. One whose numbers are so small that
it is at risk of extinction 43. According to the concept of species area
B. One whose not been spotted after relations-
many years. A. The number of species in an area in-
C. One whose numbers are abundant. creases with the size of the area.
D. none of above B. Larger species require larger habitat
areas than do smaller species.
38. means using resources at a rate that C. Most species within any given area are
they can be replaced or restored. endemic.
A. Recycle D. The larger the area, the greater the ex-
B. Reduce tinction rate.

44. What global phenomenon has caused some 49. #1 cause of Biodiversity Loss is
organisms to move toward the poles or to
A. Habitat loss
higher altitudes?
B. pollution
A. habitat fragmentation
C. poaching/overexploitation
B. pollution
C. invasive species D. Human activities
D. warming temperatures 50. What is the main goal of conservation bi-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
ology?
45. What type of substances causes eutrophi-
cation of aquatic ecosystems A. Protecting habitats
A. acid rain B. Create new laws
B. fertilizers C. Create pollution
C. PCBs D. Spend more money
D. pesticides
51. Which kingdom contains multicellular or-
46. Increases the chances that some species ganisms that lack a cell wall. They use
will survive during changing environmen- nervous coordination to find food.
tal conditions or during the outbreak of dis- A. Bacteria
ease.
B. Single celled organisms
A. Biodiversity
C. Fungi
D. Plants
C. Species diversity
E. Animals
D. Ecosystem diversity
52. Energy trapped by greenhouse gases
47. Define habitat fragmentation.
raises average global temperatures;
A. The excessive use of a species that has
A. biological augmentation
economic value.
B. habitat destruction
B. All species dying in one area
C. The different environmental condi- C. extinction
tions that occur along the boundaries of D. global climate change
an ecosystem.
53. Biodiversity can be defined as
D. The separation of an ecosystem into
small areas. A. The health of the abiotic factors in an
environment
48. Using resources at a rate in which they can
be replaced is called B. The variety of organisms that are
present in an ecosystem
A. consumption policy
C. The variety of organisms being af-
B. nonrenewable consumption fected by climate change
C. exploitation D. The amount of organisms in a species
D. sustainable use that are able to reproduce

54. Bans international trade in body parts of 59. An event in which a large percentage of all
endangered species. species become extinct is called

A. CITES A. biodiversity shift
B. Convention on Biological B. background extinction
C. Endangered Species Act C. mass extinction
D. none of above D. evolutionary shift
55. Species that are only found in a specific ge- 60. Adding natural predators to a degraded
ographic area are ecosystem is called what? ? ?
A. Introduced species A. Bioremediation
B. Local species B. Biological augmentation
C. Endemic C. Endemic
D. Biodiversity hot spot D. Sustainable use
56. The separation of an ecosystem into small 61. Which of the following statements are
pieces of land is called: true about latitudinal gradient?
A. edge effect A. Species diversity decreases as we
move away from the equator towards
B. edge fragmentation
poles.
C. habitat effect
B. Species diversity is more in temperate
D. habitat fragmentation latitude, than, other latitudes.
57. A place that stores seeds to preserve their C. Species diversity is more in poles than
genes for future use is known as a(n) in equator.
A. Botanical reserve D. none of above
B. Plant depository 62. Which product is often derived from the

C. Seed bank natural environment?
D. Herbarium A. cooking oil

B. medicines
58. The Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and C. fuel
Flora (CITES) and the Convention on Bio- D. all of the above
logical Diversity are examples of
63. The separation of a habitat into small
A. organizations that promote poaching.
pieces of land is called
B. polls measuring American opinion
A. Corridors
about biodiversity.
B. Habitat
C. treaties to protect biodiversity.
C. Human interference
D. laws to increase the number of
species. D. Habitat Fragmentation

64. Which biome has the highest biodiver- B. Biological magnification

sity? C. Fragmentation
A. Tundra D. Acid precipitation
B. Deciduous forest
70. A form of pollution that destroys underwa-
C. Desert ter habitats for fish and other species due
D. Tropical Rainforest to fertilizer is:
A. Eutrophication
NARAYAN CHANGDER
65. Greenbelts or hedgerows that provide nat-
ural corridors for migration, foraging and B. Biological magnification
spreading of local species are known as C. Fragmentation
A. corridors. D. Acid precipitation
B. pathways.
71. The use of living organisms (like prokary-
C. links. otes, fungi, or plants) to detoxify a pol-
D. clusters. luted area is called
A. Remediation
66. How many Biosphere reserves are there in
India? B. De-pollution
A. 105 C. Bioremediation
B. 9 D. Going green
C. 112 72. Which one of these is not a benefit of Bio-
D. 18 diversity
A. Ecosystem Service
67. The increased concentration of toxic sub-
stances in organisms at a high trophic level B. Agriculture
in the food chain. C. Medicine
A. species magnification D. Ecotoursim
B. biological magnification E. Social
C. biological effect 73. Among animals, are the most species
D. pollution effect rich taxonomic group.
A. mollusc
68. Differences in DNA among individuals
refers to what? B. crustaceans
A. Ecosystem diversity C. Insects
B. Species diversity D. none of above
C. Genetic Diversity 74. What is the definition of Endemic Species?
D. none of above A. a species of bug
69. Another form of pollution that destroys B. an extinct species
underwater habitats for fish and other C. Species found in more than one loca-
species. tion
A. Eutrophication D. Species found in only one location

75. An increase in population growth the A. Sustainable use

need for natural resources for survival. B. Natural Resources

A. prevents C. Renewable resources
B. decreases D. Non-renewable resources
C. increases
81. Species that are only found in a certain ge-
D. has no effect on ographic area are called
76. Pesticides accumulate in the bodies of or- A. Endemic
ganisms higher on the food chain B. Epidemic
A. Acid Precipitation C. Invasive
B. Biological Magnification D. Introduced
C. Eutrophication
82. The variety of genes or inheritable charac-
D. none of above teristics that are present in a population
compromises its:
77. If a species is only found in one place on
Earth we call it a(n) A. genetic diversity
A. Local species B. species diversity
B. Lonesome species C. biome diversity
C. Allopatric species D. ecosystem diversity
D. Endemic species 83. What happens when species become ex-

tinct?
78. Inserting DNA from an endangered species
into a cultured egg cell; process involves A. a few are still alive
implanting eggs into mothers of closely re- B. the adults are dead but some eggs still
lated species have not hatched
A. cloning C. the whole species does not exist
B. SSP (Species Survival Plan) D. the species do not exist in some parts
of the world
C. Captive Breeding
D. none of above 84. the breaking of habitats into smaller
pieces is called
79. A process in which all of the members of a
A. habitat division
species die out is called
B. habitat pollution
A. Evaporation
C. habitat corruption
B. Emigration
D. habitat fragmentation
C. Death
D. Extinction 85. What is an example of a direct economic
value of biodiversity?
80. Resources that are found on Earth in lim- A. Diseases caused by bacteria
ited amounts or those that are replaced by
natural processes over extremely long pe- B. release of oxygen by green plants
riods of time. C. Vaccines created from bacteria

D. drinking water provided by water- 91. what are the 3 types of biodiversity?
sheds A. Genetic, forest, aquatic
86. Which resource is nonrenewable? B. Agriculture, pharmaceutical, defor-
estation
A. agricultural plants
C. Genetic, Species, Ecosystem
B. clean water
D. Biology, chemistry, geography
C. forest timber
92. The larger the area the the biodiver-
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. mineral deposits
sity
87. Sulfur and nitrogen compounds react with A. Lower
water andother substances in the air to
form sulfuric acid andnitric acid. B. Higher
A. Biological Magnification C. there is no relationship

D. none of above
B. Acid precipitation
C. Eutrophication 93. There’s been five major ones. We think
this due to rapid change of climate, natu-
D. Invasive (introduced) species
ral disaster (volcanic eruption, meteorite
E. Pollution impact? ), so species die as they can’t sur-
vive the change in conditions.
88. A species that plays a critical role in main-
taining the ecosystem structure is called a A. Mass extinction
B. Hot Spots
A. flagship species C. Keystone Species
B. trophic species D. Background Extinction
C. keystone species 94. The easiest component of biodiversity to
D. leading species measure is
A. ecosystem diversity
89. Cowbirds benefit from the because
they forage in open areas but lay eggs just B. species diversity
inside the woodlands. C. genetic diversity
A. biodiversity effect D. ecosystem health
B. edge effect 95. Which animal is protected in the Corbett
C. corridor effect National park?
D. migration effect A. One horned Rhino
B. Asiatic Elephants
90. Where are most extinctions likely to occur
in the near future? C. Asiatic Tiger
A. deserts D. Gharial
B. grasslands 96. The biggest threat to biodiversity is
C. tropical forests A. climate change
D. temperate forests B. overharvesting

C. habitat loss 102. Which of these describes genetic diver-

D. pollution sity?

97. How can humans best help an endangered A. number of different species in an
species avoid extinction? ecosystem
A. they can feed the animals B. the number of species on the planet
B. they can put the animals in a zoo C. variety in genotypes across a popula-
C. they can protect the animal’s habitat tion
D. they can take the animal to new habi- D. number of populations in an ecosys-
tats tem
98. The destruction of habitat, such as the
clearing of tropical rain forests, has a di- 103. The number and abundance of species in
rect impact on global biodiversity. a biological community is called
A. Overexploitation A. species diversity
B. Habitat Loss B. genetic diversity
C. Destruction of Habitat
C. ecosystem diversity
D. Disruption of Habitat
D. biomass
E. Pollution
99. What is sustainability? 104. An ecosystem has a stable population of
A. to maintain an ecological balance in white-tailed deer. What is the most likely
our planet. outcome if a new species of deer that com-
peted for the same resources were intro-
B. no to use the natural resources
duced?
C. the use of ocean resources only
A. The white tailed deer population would
D. the use of scientific tecnology to save
increase
the planet
B. The producer population would de-
100. The variation in Rauwolfia vomitoria
crease
growing in different Himalayan regions is
an example of C. The deer will not be affected
A. Genetic diversity D. The predator population would de-
B. Species diversity crease
C. Species diversity
105. The variety of life in an area that is deter-
D. none of above
mined by the number of different species
101. Pollution damages ecosystems and de- in that area.
creases biodiversity by doing what?
A. Biodiversity
A. Causing genetic diversity
B. Causing species diversity
C. Releasing harmful substances C. Species diversity
D. none of above D. Ecosystem diversity

106. Nonnative species that are transported 111. Overexploitation was once the main
to a new habitat, and that are NOT a cause of what?
threat to biodiversity in the new area are A. Biodiversity
called HINT:sometimes people do this
intentionally. B. Extinction
A. Invasive species C. pollution

D. none of above
B. Immigrated species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Introduced species 112. The excessive use, or overuse, of a
species, often leading to extinction.
D. New species
A. overexcitation
107. What is the act created by the Govern- B. overexploitation
ment to protect flora and fauna?
C. overusification
A. Wildlife ( protection )
D. overbioviolation
B. Wildlife act
113. Which of the following terms describes
C. Wildlife ( Act ) the net amount of organic matter that an
D. none of above ecosystem or biome produces?
A. gross production
108. If the present rate of global warming con-
tinues, coral reefs will disappear in B. net productivity
A. 5-10 years C. photosynthetic mass
B. 10-15 years D. net primary production
C. 20-40 years. 114. includes thing like minerals, fossil fu-

els, plants, animals, clean water, and solar
D. none of above
energy.
109. Resources that are replaced by natural A. Overexpoitation
processes faster than they are consumed B. Natural Resources
are called (example:solar power)
C. Nonrenewable Resources
A. Renewable resources
D. none of above
B. Nonrenewable resources
115. In the United States, what is the major
C. Natural resources
law that protects biodiversity?
D. Manufactured resources
A. Convention on Biological Diversity
110. An example of an aesthetic value of bio- B. Endangered Species Act
diversity would be: C. U.S. Fish & Wildlife Service
A. enjoying a hike through a beautiful for- D. Species Survival Plan
est
116. The presence of high concentrations of
B. having clean drinking water
mercury in higher level predators in fish
C. nutrient rich soil populations is an example of
D. catching lots of fish when fishing A. bioremediation

B. eutrophication B. enforce legislation

C. biomagnification C. good use of media to get conservation

message out to the public
D. biological augmentation
D. none of above
117. The movement of soil from one are to an-
other by wind or water is called 122. are all materials and organisms found
in the biosphere, including minerals, fos-
A. Erosion sil fuels, plants, animals, soil, clean water,
B. Natural Hazards etc.
C. Landslides A. Natural resources
D. Renewable resources B. Renewable resources
C. Non-renewable resources
118. Forbids governments from harming en-
dangered species D. Pollutants
A. CITES 123. Atmospheric chemical changes that
B. Endangered Species Act threaten biodiversityand global stability.
C. Treaty on endangered animals A. Biological Magnification

D. International Endangered Species Pro-
tocol C. Eutrophication
119. Biodiversity loss occurs due to- A.
Habitat loss and fragmentation B. Co- E. Pollution
extinction C. over-exploitation D. Alien 124. Which is NOT one of the three main levels
species invasion. of biodiversity?
A. A, B A. species
B. A, B, C B. genetic
C. B, C, D C. ecosystem
D. A, B, C, D D. general
120. Which kingdom contains multicellular or- 125. How do beetles display genetic diver-
ganisms that use photosynthesis to make sity?
their own food? Their cell walls contain A. with variations in color
cellulose.
B. different species in one population
A. Bacteria
C. are identical colors
B. Single celled organisms D. have identical genes
C. Fungi
126. The idea that forests should be preserved
D. Plants because of their beauty refers to
E. Animals A. Medicinal value
121. Which of the following is NOT true about B. Direct economic value
NGOs when comparing them to IGOs? C. Aesthetic value
A. can take rapid action D. Scientific Value

127. The variety of life in an area (number of 132. Which of the following is NOT part of
different species in an area) is called overall biodiversity?
A. Biome A. species diversity
B. Biodiversity B. genetic diversity
C. Diversity C. individual diversity
D. Biomass D. ecosystem diversity
NARAYAN CHANGDER
133. When a large percentage of all living
128. Species such as zebra mussels, kudzu,
species become extinct in a relatively short
and Asian carp that are not native to a par-
period of time.
ticular area are called species
A. gradual extinction
A. endemic
B. mass extinction
B. invasive
C. background extinction
C. biological
D. bio extinction
D. extinct
134. The number of different species, and the
129. A method of using living things, such as abundance (how much) of each species, is
bacteria, plants, or fungi, to remove tox- known as the area’s
ins from a polluted area.
A. genetic diversity
A. bioeffect
B. species diversity
B. bioendangerment C. diversity
C. bioeutrophication D. biomass
D. bioremediation
135. What activity makes trees a nonrenew-
130. Which of the following IUCN categories able resource?
has the MOST organisms remaining on A. cutting all the trees in a forest
Earth?
B. cutting one tree per square mile in a
A. Near threatened forest
B. Critically endangered C. planting new trees in an unforested
area
C. Vulnerable
D. preventing the spread of disease in
D. Conservation dependent
trees
131. What happens when the maximum carry- 136. Which of the following options are one of
ing capacity of an area is reached? the examples of sacred groves in our coun-
A. the community dies try?
B. there will be more limiting factors A. khasi and Jaintia hills in Meghalaya
C. the area will not be able to sustain the B. Botanical gardens

needs of the community C. Zoological parks
D. the area will survive D. Wild life safari parks

137. Which term best describes this collection 142. What is the variety of genes present?
of locations:a forest, a freshwater lake, A. bidiversity
an estuary, and a prarie

B. species diversity
A. Ecosystem Diversity
C. extinction
B. Extinction D. genetic diversity
143. Naturally occurring extinctions, occurring
D. Species Diversity one species at a time
A. Background Extinction
138. The number of different species and the
abundance of each species in a biological B. Mass Extinction
community. C. Natural Extinction
A. genetic diversity D. Slow Extinction
B. ecosystem diversity 144. For which human activity is sustainable
C. extinction use not possible?
A. farming
B. logging
139. What is the primary factor that has en- C. oil drilling
dangered the North American bison and
D. commercial fishing
the white rhinoceros?
A. habitat loss 145. Which of the following is an example of
a method for managing whole ecosystems
B. eutrophication and habitats?
C. overexploitation A. captive breeding
D. nonnative predators B. cloning
C. Species Survival Plans (SSPs)
140. are different environmental condi-
tions that occur around the boundaries of D. mapping biodiversity hotspots
a habitat. 146. Biodiversity has value regardless of its
A. Development usefulness to humans. What is the biodi-
versity value of that?
B. Edge effect
A. Practical value
C. Human interaction
B. Intrinsic value
D. Boundary effect
C. Aesthetic value
141. Which of the following types of organ- D. Ecological value
isms experience seasonal loss of leaves as
147. Which of the following words means
an adaptation?
birth rate?
A. coniferous trees A. Natality
B. succulent plants B. Mortality
C. deciduous trees C. Emigration
D. grasses D. Immigration

148. Which of the following has most directly 153. Removes calcium, potassium, and other-
resulted in increased skin cancer rates in nutrients from the soil, depriving plants of
Australia? these nutrients.
A. Water pollution in the Antarctic Ocean A. Biological Magnification
B. Ozone depletion in the stratosphere B. Acid precipitation
C. Increased immigration of Asian people C. Eutrophication
into Australia D. Invasive (introduced) species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The occurrence of a solar maximum E. Pollution
149. What effect, if any, would the extinc- 154. All of these factors contribute to acid rain
tion of a mutualistic pollinator have on the EXCEPT:
plant it pollinates? A. fertilizers (runoff into waterways)
A. No effect B. excess amounts of carbon dioxide re-
leased into atmosphere
B. Decreased pollinate
C. sulfur dioxide released into the atmo-
C. No effect because substitute pollina- sphere
tor is available
D. sewage enter waterways
D. The plant would not be pollinated.
155. How can habitat disruption affect biodi-
150. Different environmental, or ecosystem, versity?
conditions along an ecosystem’s bound- A. It can lead to loss of biodiversity.
aries.
B. It will lead to new species taking over
A. bio effect all of the habitats.
B. ecosystem effect C. It will lead to climate change.
C. edge effect D. It will cause the animals to get sick.
D. habitat effect 156. The latitudinal gradient is a natural pat-
tern in which species diversity generally
151. The aesthetic value of something is con-
A. increases toward the equator.
cerned with what?
B. decreases toward the prime meridian.
A. Right and wrong
C. decreases in warmer climates.
B. Good and Bad
D. estivation.
C. the appreciation of beauty
157. Which of the following actions would re-
D. spirituality duce global greenhouse emissions?
152. Which is NOT one of the five major causes A. Increasing the use of automobiles
of biodiversity loss. B. Decreasing the number of nuclear
A. habitat alteration/loss power plants
C. Replacing coal-burning power plants
B. invasive species
with wind farms
C. overharvesting
D. Converting tropical forests to rice pad-
D. cloning dies

158. The most effective way to protect biodi- C. Destruction of Habitat

versity D. Disruption of Habitat

A. Species Survival Plan E. Pollution
B. Endangered Species Act
164. What are possible negative outcomes of
C. CITES forest being cleared to make room for
D. Protect habitats farmland?
A. Fewer trees for animal habitats
159. Adding natural predators to a degraded
B. Fertilizers create run-off into a nearby
ecosystem is called
stream, polluting it.
A. Biological remediation
C. Less room for animals to hunt and find
B. Biological augmentation shelter
C. Biological magnifcation D. Birds find seeds and insects on plowed
D. Biological introduction fields
165. is one of the least porous soils.
160. The excessive use of a species that has
economic value. A. Peat Soil
A. Biodiversity B. Loam
B. Natural resources C. Clayey soil
C. Overexploitation
D. population growth 166. A place that stores seeds to preserve
their genes for the future is called a/n
161. Program to save individual species, in- A. Botanical preserve
cludes captive breeding, education, and re-
search B. Plant depository
C. Seed bank
A. cloning
D. Herbarium
B. SSP (Species Survival Plan)
C. Captive Breeding 167. Conservation organizations raise money
to pay off a nation’s debt in return for im-
D. none of above proved conservation measures.
162. is differences in DNA among individ- A. Debt for nature swap
uals B. conservation concession
A. Species diversity C. Economic assist
B. Genetic diversity D. none of above
C. Ecosystem diversity 168. Which of the following is a potential
D. none of above downside to including corridors in reserve
design?
163. The declining population of one species
A. Edge effects may be enhanced in the
can affect an entireecosystem.
corridor
A. Overexploitation B. High quality habitat in corridors may
B. Habitat Loss draw animals away from the core reserve

C. The type of land useful in corridor de- A. The current species extinction rates
sign is often hard to acquire are 100 to 1000 times faster than in the
pre-human times.
D. Corridors can exacerbate fragmenta-
tion B. The current species extinction rates
are slower than in Dinosaur period.
169. One way that zoos and aquariums help
increase wildlife populations is through C. It is not true that extinction is currently
taking place.
A. captive breeding programs.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. none of above
B. international biodiversity treaties.
C. conservation concessions. 174. Biodiversity helps in supporting ecosys-
tems with
D. wildlife corridors.
A. Oxygen
170. A treaty is a(n)
B. Clean air and water
A. state law to protect wildlife.
C. Pollination of plants
B. agreement under international law.
D. All of mentioned points
C. trade-off with landowners.
D. biodiversity program run by zoos. 175. Which of the following is a limiting fac-
tor?
171. Which kingdom contains organisms with A. food
a cell wall containing chitin, that reproduce
using spores? B. number of mates
A. Bacteria C. size of the area
B. Single celled organisms D. climate
C. Fungi
176. Using resources at a rate in which they
D. Plants can be replacedor recycled while preserv-
E. Animals ing the long-term environmental health of
the biosphere.
172. The Sikhote-Alin Mountains, and the A. Sustainable use
Siberian tigers living on them, are sep-
arated from other mountain regions in B. Natural Resources
which the tigers could live. The mountains C. Renewable resources
are an example of a(n)
D. Non-renewable resources
A. mass extirpation
B. invasive species 177. What is NOT factor that threatens biodi-
versity?
C. mass extinction
A. Population growth
D. habitat fragment
B. Habitat Loss
173. Sixth extinction presently in progress is
C. Overexploitation
different from previous episodes, in which
of the following ways? D. Clean water

178. Amongst vertebrates, which among the 183. What is the variety of ecosystems that
following demonstrate most species diver- are present in the biosphere?
sity globally?

A. species diversity
A. Fishes B. genetic diversity
B. Amphibians C. ecosystem diversity
C. Reptiles D. biodiversity
D. Birds 184. International treaty to conserve biodiver-
sity and ensure its resposible use and dis-
179. Which of the following refers to the num- tribution
ber or group of individuals belong to the
A. CITES
same specie
B. Convention on Biological
A. biodiversity
C. Endangered Species Act
B. specie
D. none of above
C. population
185. Which one is a nonrenewable resource.
D. index diversity
A. Solar energy
180. What actions decrease biodiversity? B. Fossil fuel
A. Pollution C. Plants
B. Overpopulation D. Clean Water
C. Habitat Destruction / Loss 186. Which is NOT a type of biodiversity we
D. Monocrop Farming / Mining / Over- are working to conserve?
fishing / Over hunting A. genetic
E. All of these are correct B. systems
C. ecosystems
181. The unknown value in the potential of the
species for agriculture, medicine, genetic D. species
diversity and biotechnology is its 187. The accumulation of DDT in tissues of ea-
A. Ecological value gles and ospreys in the 1970’s.
B. Economic value A. Acid Precipitation
B. Biological Magnification
C. Aesthetic value
C. Eutrophication
D. Ethical value
D. none of above
182. The use of living natural organisms to
188. is a prevalent hotspot of biodiversity
detoxify a polluted area?
in India.
A. Biological Augmentation A. Himalayas
B. Introduced Species B. Western Ghats
C. Bioremediation C. Ganges
D. none of above D. None of the above

189. What types of patterns does a climato- B. Genetics

graph show? C. Genetic drift
A. rainfall and snowfall D. Natural Selection
B. precipitation and humidity
195. is defined as an ecological state of
C. precipitation and temperature a species being unique to a specific geo-
D. temperature and sunlight graphic location.
A. Exotic species
NARAYAN CHANGDER
190. Materials such as minerals, soil, fuels,
and clean water are called B. Endemic species
A. bioelements C. Ecosystem
B. natural resources D. None of the above
C. heterotrophic resources
196. Which is not a renewable resource?
D. habitats
A. solar energy
191. The northern spotted owl is listed under B. fossil fuels
the Endangered Species Act as a threat-
C. agricultural plants
ened species in its primary range. Which
of the following most likely contributed to D. clean water
the owl’s decline?
197. If current trends continue, the modern ge-
A. increases in rodent populations ologic era, known as the Quaternary pe-
B. loss of trees from forest habitat riod, may see the extinction of
C. prevention of wildfires in forest A. almost 20 percent of all species.
D. decreases in mountain lion popula- B. more than half of all species.
tions C. all species on Earth.
192. Which organisms are affected most by bi- D. one or two species per century.
ological magnification?
198. There are several categories for a conser-
A. algae vation. Which of the option below is not
B. plants correct?
C. wolves A. Species that are under threat of extinc-
D. mice tion
B. Species of ecological importance
193. Sulfuric acid is a component in
C. Species that have economic value to
A. Smog humans
B. Acid rain D. Species that are favorite for humans
C. Deforestation
199. Different environmental conditions that
D. Habitat fragmentation occur along the boundaries of an ecosys-
194. The different genes or inheritable charac- tem are called
teristics in a population is known as its A. edge effects
A. Genetic diversity B. boundary zones

C. extinction areas 205. Which qualities make for a more effective

D. background effects nature preserve?

A. low perimeter to area ratio
200. Which defines extinction
B. connections to other preserves
A. A species disappears
B. An ecosystem vanishes C. large area
C. Biodiversity decreases D. buffer zones to reduce edge effects
D. Genetic diversity drops E. all of these
201. What does a high biotic index tell us? 206. Using organisms such as fungi to detox-
A. How many organisms are in an area ify a polluted area is called
B. The environment is unhealthy because A. edge effect

there is the presence of a wide diversity B. bioremediation
of organisms
C. endemic treatment
C. An abundance of pollution sensitive or-
ganisms are present, so there is a healthy D. sustainable use
environment
207. Which term refers to the number of
D. The health level of organisms in a species and their populations in a habitat?
biome
A. Biodiversity
202. is an example of an ex-situ conserva- B. Diversity
tion.
C. Conservation
A. Sacred groves
D. Biology
B. Wildlife sanctuary
C. Seed bank 208. Which taxa are used in an organism’s sci-
D. National park entific (binomial) name?
A. Genus species
203. To manage, protect, and reintroduce
threatened and endangered species are the B. Species phylum
goals of C. Class order
A. wildlife corridors
D. Family class
B. conservation concessions
C. Species Survival Plans 209. There is a plan to establish an 8000-
kilometer-long strip of land across eight
D. biodiversity hotspots southeast Asian countries to rejoin frag-
204. As biodiversity decreases, the sustain- ments of tiger habitat. This is an example
ability of an ecosystem of a
A. Increases A. wildlife corridor.

B. Decreases B. worldwide biodiversity treaty.
C. Stays the same C. captive breeding program.
D. All of these are correct D. conservation concession.

210. Zoos and Aquariums protect biodiversity 215. Which is an example of habitat fragmen-
through tation?
A. Captive Breeding A. building several road through wet-
B. Fieldwork in conservation lands
C. Germ Plasms B. cutting down and entire section of for-

est
D. All of the above
C. dumping chemical pollutants into a
NARAYAN CHANGDER
211. Patches of suitable habitat surrounded by lake
unsuitable habitat D. removing the predators from a rain for-
A. Habitat fragmentation est
B. Habitat islands 216. What biome contains the least amount of
C. wildlife corridors species biodiversity?
D. habitat patches A. Desert
212. All of these are factors affect an endemic B. Tundra

species when an invasive species is intro- C. Tropical Rainforest
duced into a particular area EXCEPT: D. Ocean
A. increased competition for limited re-
sources 217. Which is an advantage of ex-situ conser-
vation?
B. increased reproduction in invasive
species (lack predators) A. Cheap method
C. threats to biodiversity B. Conserve large number of species to-
gether
D. All of these affect endemic species
C. Genetic process for breeding/long life
213. Which is an example of genetic diversity
D. Existence in natural habitat
within a rain forest?
A. wide variety of beetle species 218. Tigers living in warm climates have thin-
ner coats of fur than tigers living in cool
B. DNA of a single three-toed sloth
climates. This is a result of
C. all of the genes found within the
A. genetic diversity.
ecosystem
B. species diversity.
D. many variations of jaguar spots
C. ecosystem diversity.
214. Which kingdom contains unicellular or-
D. genera diversity.
ganisms that lack a nucleus? Their cell
walls are not made of cellulose. 219. A declining population of one species can
A. Bacteria affect an entire what? ? ?
B. Single celled organisms A. Edge effect
C. Fungi B. Habitat
D. Plants C. Ecosystem
E. Animals D. Community

220. Water pollution that occurs when sub- C. mass extinctions in the past
stances rich in nitrogen and phosphorous D. the natural extinction rate
flow into waterways which causes a

dense growth of plant life and death of an- 225. Which kingdom contains unicellular or-
imal life from lack of oxygen. ganisms with a true nucleus?
A. endemication A. Bacteria
B. oligiotrophication B. Single celled organisms
C. eutrophication C. Fungi
D. suffocation D. Plants
E. Animals
221. Relieving a nation from repaying some
of the money it owes other nations in ex- 226. An organism that is native to one specific
change for protecting its biodiversity is geographic area.
called a A. common
A. debt-for-nature swap B. endemic
B. conservation concession C. endangered
C. Species Survival Plan D. pandemic
D. wildlife corridor 227. Nonnative species that are either inten-
tionally orunintentionally transported to a
222. These often reproduce in large numbers new habitat.
because of a lack of predators, and become
over-powering in their new habitat. A. Biological Magnification
A. Biological Magnification B. Acid precipitation

C. Eutrophication
C. Eutrophication
E. Pollution
E. Pollution 228. Which of the following is NOT one of the
major causes of biodiversity loss?
223. Which of the following are one of the A. Pollution
Broadly Utilitarian arguments to conserve
B. Invasive species
Biodiversity?
C. Climate change
A. Pollination
D. Captive breeding programs
B. firewood
C. It is our moral duty to care for the well 229. The term Biodiversity hotspots mean
being of other species living on our planet A. Regions with high levels of species
with us. richness and endemism.
D. none of above B. Regions with hot thermal springs and
rivers
224. Which defines background extinction?
C. Spots on one species of frog, that
A. an accelerated extinction rate makes our skin burn if touched.
B. extinctions of unknown species D. none of above

230. Renewable & Nonrenewable resources C. Species diversity

are two classes of what? ? ? D. Ecosystem diversity
A. Biodiversity
236. If a habitat is destroyed or disrupted, the
B. Natural resources
native species might have to relocate or
C. Habitat loss they will die.
D. Fragmentation A. Overexploitation
happens when fertilizers, animal
NARAYAN CHANGDER
231. B. Habitat Loss
waste, sewage or other substances rich in C. Destruction of Habitat
nitrogen and phosphorus are lost into wa-
terways causing excessive algae growth. D. Disruption of Habitat
A. Eutrophication E. Pollution
B. Introduced species 237. Which factor is most responsible for the
C. Biological Augmentation lack of plants in polar regions?
D. Nonrenewable Resource A. heavy grazing by herbivores
232. What form of pollution is caused by ex- B. little precipitation
tensive algae growth in waterways? C. no soil for plants to take root
A. acid precipitation D. not enough sunlight
B. eutrophication
238. means “excessive use of species for
C. biological magnification economic value”
D. edge effects A. Economy
233. The variety of species in a particular area B. Poaching
is known as:
C. Overexploitation
A. biospeciation
D. Exploitation
B. biodiversity
C. species variety 239. What is THE most major cause of extinc-
tion today?
D. species assortment
A. habitat destruction by humans
234. What taxon comes between kingdom and
B. poaching
class?
C. disease
A. Phylum
B. Order D. hunting
C. Genus 240. is the gradual process of species be-

D. Species coming extinct.
A. Extinction
235. The variety of ecosystems that are
present in the biosphere. B. Background extinction
A. Biodiversity C. Mass extinction
B. Genetic diversity D. Species extinction

241. Raising and breeding organisms in con- C. wind

trolled conditions, such as zoos or aquar- D. sun
iums

247. The convention on international trade in
A. cloning
endangered species of wild fauna and flora
B. SSP (Species Survival Plan) (CITES) and the convention on biological di-
C. Captive Breeding versity are examples of:
D. none of above A. organization that promote poaching
B. polls measuring American opinion
242. This is the extinction of a species one by about biodiversity
one, not a sudden loss of many species
C. treaties to protect biodiversity
A. background extinction
D. laws to increase the number of species
B. mass extinction
248. What summarizesglobal population
C. fragmentation
trends for certainterrestrial, freshwater,
D. biotic potential and marinespecies
243. What is the name of a common biodiver- A. U.S. Game and Fish
sity index? B. Department of Agriculture
A. Living C. Living Planet Index
B. Carr D. Wildlife Federation
C. Elton 249. The cause / causes for species richness
D. Simpson of tropics is / are
A. Tropics had more evolutionary time
244. An area underground that water flows
through is called an B. They receive more solr energy, hence
more productivity
A. Water Table
C. Less seasonal variation
B. Zone of Aeration
D. All
C. Aquifer
250. is the increase of toxic substances in
D. Drainage Basin
organisms as you go up the trophic levels
245. Which of these is NOT a factor that in a food chain or web.
makes a better nature reserve? A. Biological magnification
A. smaller size B. Biological augmentation
B. less “edge” C. Biological pollution
C. clustered reserves rather than frag- D. Biological toxicity
mented
251. refers to the no. of individuals living in a
D. habitat corridors particular area
246. Which of the following is NOT a potential A. limiting factors
source of sustainable energy? B. population density
A. oil C. population
B. biomass D. index diversity

252. growth in which the number of individu- 257. Which of the following is currently a pri-
als in a population gets a lot bigger in each mary cause of species decline worldwide?
time period that follows A. habitat destruction
A. primary succession B. intraspecific competition
B. exponential growth C. random mating
C. succession D. viral outbreaks
NARAYAN CHANGDER
258. Which is NOT one of the three main goals
of Species Survival Plans?
253. Areas of aquatic or terrestrial ecosys-
tems that have been protected in order A. manage species
to conserve biodiversity, heritage, or are B. protect species
home to a unique species are known as C. reintroduce species
A. nature reserves. D. clone species
B. safe spaces.
259. A species at risk, but not yet extinct,
C. invasive species zones. what is it called as
D. recreation areas. A. endangered
B. endemic
254. is a non-renewable resource.
C. extinct
A. Crude oil
D. exotic
B. Uranium
260. Column I Column II I. Dodo (A)
C. Hot spring
Rauwolfia II. Reserpine (B) Mauritius
D. Silica III. Botanical gardens (C) Khasi and
Jaintia hills. IV. Sacred forests (D) Ex-
255. Which has indirect economic value? situ conservation
A. ecosystems that decompose wastes A. I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
B. organisms that provide food and shel- B. I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
ter C. I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
C. plants that contain medicinal sub- D. I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
stances
261. When does the aesthetic value of an
D. species that have desirable genetic ecosystem become most apparent?
traits
A. when scientists begin to study the
256. is the forest cover to be maintained ecosystem
as per the National Forest Policy (1988). B. when the ecosystem has been de-
A. 67% for hills & 33% for plains stroyed
C. when the ecosystem is given economic
B. 37% for hills & 11% for plains
value
C. 17% for hills & 23% for plains
D. when the ecosystem provides useful
D. None of the above services

262. The practice of harvesting or hunting to B. Genetic diversity

such a degree that remaining individuals C. Species diversity
may not be able to replenish the popula-

tion is called D. Ecosystem diversity
A. biomagnification 268. Variety of habitats, ecosystems, commu-
B. overexploitation nities refers to what?
C. edge effects A. Ecosystem diversity
D. natural resource B. Species diversity
263. An event in which a large percentage of
all living species become extinct in a rela- D. none of above
tively short period of time is called
269. By far, the biggest cause of biodiversity
A. Species Extinction loss today is
B. Mass Extinction A. climate change.
C. Ecosystem Extinction B. overharvesting.
D. Extinction C. habitat change and fragmentation.
264. What is the number one cause of species D. pollution.
extinction today?
270. Conservation organizations buy the
A. habitat loss rights to conserve resources, instead of
B. human predators harvesting them.
C. transported diseases A. Debt for nature swap
D. background extermination B. conservation concession
265. When a tree is planted for each time a C. Economic assist
tree is cut down, this is called D. none of above
A. bioremediation
271. Fertilizers cause excess algae to grow,
B. sustainable use which lower aquatic oxygen levels
C. deforestation A. Acid Precipitation
D. overexploitation B. Biological Magnification
266. A species is at serious risk of extinction. C. Eutrophication
A. threatened D. none of above
B. endangered 272. Which type of biodiversity increases as
C. extinct you move geographically from the polar re-
gions to the equator?
D. extirpated
A. ecosystem diversity
267. Increases the stability of an ecosystem
and contributes to the health of the bio- B. genetic diversity
sphere. C. social diversity
A. Biodiversity D. species diversity

273. Alexander Von Humboldt observed that 278. How does genetic diversity increase a
within a region species richness increased species’ chance of survival?
with increasing but only up to a limit. A. It increases the number of organisms
A. Area that have useful genes
B. Food B. It increases the ability of a species to
C. Predators adapt to environmental changes.
D. none of above C. It produces a variety of species within
NARAYAN CHANGDER
a biological community
274. A large area for a nature reserve is bet- D. It randomly distributes members of a
ter because species throughout an ecosystem
A. It has a larger habitat
279. Variety of species in a given area refers
B. It has more resources and breeding to what?
sites
A. Ecosystem diversity
C. It allows for some migration
B. Species diversity
D. All of the above
275. A species-area relation is used by ecolo- D. none of above
gists to-
280. The gradual process of species becoming
A. Determine the population density of a
extinct is known as:
species in a certain habitat.
A. mass extinction
B. Examine how human populations are
growing B. bio extinction
C. Estimate the number of species extinc- C. gradual extinction
tions resulting from habitat destruction D. background extinction
D. None
281. Which describes the current rate of
276. Programs that breed animals in captivity species disappearance?
then release them to the wild are called A. background extinction
B. mass extinction
A. Kidnapping
C. natural extinction
B. Breeding Buildings
D. progressive extinction
C. Captive Breeding Programs
282. The impacts of loss of biodiversity
D. Catch and Release Programs
include- A. Decrease in plant production.
277. Which is not a of a type of conservation B. Lowered resistance to environmental
group? perturbation C. Increased variability in
ecosystem processes like water use, pest
A. IGO / disease cycle, plants productivity. D.
B. NGO None
C. NO A. A, B
D. GO B. A, B, C

C. B, C 287. has the maximum genetic diversity in

D. D India.
A. Potato

283. occurs when fertilizers, animal B. Tea
waste, sewage, and other substances
with lots of nitrogen and phosphorous C. Mango
flow into waterways, causing extensive D. Teak
algae growth.
288. Kaziranga National Park is in
A. Nitrification
A. Manipur
B. Denitrification B. Assam
C. Phosphorylation C. Gujarat
D. Eutrophication D. Nagaland
284. Which of the following represents single- 289. The major cause of extinction is
species approaches to protecting biodiver- A. climate change
sity?
B. habitat destruction
A. building wildlife corridors C. pollution
B. selling conservation concessions D. poaching
C. captive breeding and cloning
290. who publishes Red Data Book
D. mapping biodiversity hotspots A. International Union for Conservation
285. The characters of a stable community- A. of nature
It shall not show too much variations in B. International Union for Nature Conser-
year to-year productivity. B. It must be vation
either resistance or resilient to seasonal C. International Union of Nature Conser-
disturbance. C. It must be resistant to invation
vasion by alien species. D. None
D. none of above
A. A, B
291. A species that is at serious risk of extinc-
B. A, B, C tion is called a(n)
C. B, C A. threatened species
D. D B. invasive species
C. endangered species
286. which among the following is not a gene
bank in India D. extirpated species
A. National Bureau of Plant Genetic Re- 292. The disappearance of a particular popu-
sources lation from a given area, but not of the
B. National Bureau of Animal Genetic Re- entire species globally, is called
sources A. extirpation
C. Bank of Baroda B. extinction
D. National Facility for Plant Tissue Cul- C. poaching
ture Repository D. fragmentation

293. Excessive use, of species that have eco- B. genetic diversity

nomic value is a factor increasing the cur- C. ecosystem diversity
rent rate of extinction.
D. biome diversity
A. Overexploitation
B. Habitat Loss 298. Which is the most direct way in which bio-
diversity can provide a source of income?
C. Destruction of Habitat
A. medicine
D. Disruption of Habitat
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. ecotourism
E. Pollution
C. research
294. Several invasive species eat the fruit of
D. agriculture
the Loulu tree in Hawaii, this reduces the
regeneration rate of the tree. What would 299. All of these are types of biological diver-
be the outcome for Loulu trees in the future sity EXCEPT
without intervention?
A. Community
A. They would become extinct.
B. Species
B. They would remain at their current lev-
els C. Ecosystem
C. They would rebound and thrive D. Genetic
D. They would evolve a new way to repro- 300. Variation between individuals in a
duce species in a given area refers to the
295. is defined as no. of species repre- A. Species diversity
sented in a specific region, landscape or an B. Habitat diversity
ecological community.
C. Genetic diversity
A. Co-evolution
D. none of above
B. Commensalism
C. Species richness 301. The use of living organisms to detoxify a
polluted area.
D. Population density
A. Biodiversity
296. When excess nutrients make their way
B. Bioremediation
into the waterways in runoff from lawns:
C. Biological augmentation
A. fish populations increase
D. none of above
B. algal blooms increase
C. frog population increases 302. Among some of the recent extinctions,
Thylacine is from which of the following
D. people get more vitamins in their wa-
places?
ter
A. Mauritius
297. The number of different species and the
B. Africa
relative abundance of each species in a bi-
ological community is called: C. Australia
A. species diversity D. none of above

303. Which one BEST describes a nonrenew- 308. Anything that can decrease the size of a
able resource? population including living (biotic) and non
living (abiotic) features of an ecosystem

A. It is one that will run out one day and
such as predators and drought.
can’t be replaced.
A. limiting factor
B. It will last for about 100 years.
B. habitat
C. It can be replaced again and again.
C. ecosystem
D. It will never run out.
304. What is the correct definition of a
species? 309. While some zoos are controversial in
their treatment of animals, others work
A. Members of the same species cannot hard to preserve genetic diversity through
reproduce. captive breeding programs. This type of
B. Members of the same species can re- conservation is considered
produce and their offspring are sterile. A. ex-situ conservation
C. Members of the same species can re- B. in-situ conservation
produce and their offspring are fertile?
C. zoological conservation
D. none of above
D. captive conservation
305. A species that is at a serious risk of fac- 310. The layer below the photic zone is known
ing extinction is considered to be as the
A. Threatened A. intertidal zone
B. Endagered B. open ocean
C. Extinct C. flood plain
D. Exterminated D. aphotic zone
306. Which type of organism dwarfs all others 311. Ex-situ conservation refers to conserva-
in terms of species diversity? tion of flora and fauna
A. plants A. Within habitat
B. mammals B. Under ocean
C. insects C. Outside habitat
D. protists D. In outer space
307. Events when extinction rates far exceed 312. What do “green plants” do to contribute
the normal background rate to a “healthy biosphere”?
A. Provide drinking water safe for hu-
A. Background Extinction
mans use
B. Mass Extinction
B. Provide oxygen to the atmosphere
C. General Extinction
C. Remove carbon dioxide from the atmo-
D. none of above sphere.

D. Increase the likelihood increases the ing in them.

chances that some species will survive A. Cities
during changing environmental conditions
or during the outbreak of disease. B. Biodiversity Hotspots
313. Biologists put extra effort into protecting C. Farms

these because they have many species liv- D. Conservation stations
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DESIGNED FOR SURE SUCCESS

JAI SHREE RAM

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It is my deepest gratitude and warmest

To my mother JOYTSNA CHANGDER

who has been a constant source of Knowledge and in-

The aim of this publication is to sup-

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2 Sexual reproduction in flowering plants . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 131

3 Human Reproduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 187

4 Reproductive Health . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 324

5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 335

6 The Molecular Basis Of Inheritance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 474

8 Human Health and Disease . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 845

9 Microbes in human welfare . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 957

10 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 964

10.2 Restriction digests, cloning and transformation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1036

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11 Biotechnology and its applications . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1070

12 Organisms and Populations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1078

14 Biodiversity and Conservation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1325

A. Budding 12. Plants that produce their seeds in wood-

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8. C 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. B

C. fertilization B. Build other double helix models of in-

20. Requires only ONE parent creating a clone D. Blastomere

22. which two processes are involved in mi- C. Placenta

28. Each parent randomly passes on of its C. Dioecious

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A. All seeds need light to germinate. D. 48

A. gene 36. Order the steps in fertilization of a

D. fertilized egg A. Epicotyl

51. It is advantageous for an animal that is C. menopause

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D. none of these D. Adapted to diverse environments

102. What do we call the concentration of sen-

106. Radial cleavage is found primarily in C. transgender

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