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Contents
1 MCQ’S IN MEDICINE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.1 Cardiovascular medicine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.2 respiratory medicine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
1.3 Rheumatology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33
1.4 Infectious diseases . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
1.5 Haematology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 82
1.6 Endocrinology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 86
1.7 renal medicine . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 89
1.8 Gastroenterology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 93
1.9 Neurology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 95
1.10 Dermatology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 108
1. MCQ’S IN MEDICINE
NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 Cardiovascular medicine
1. What is the meaning of the Medical Term C. Vena sacrocardinal
Phlebitis / PHLEBITIS?
D. Vena cardinal anterior
A. Inflammation of a Artery
B. Inflammation of a Vein 5. The complete, sudden cessation of cardiac
activity is which of the following?
C. Inflammation of the Heart
A. myocardial infarction
D. To Lump or Clot, Blood Clot
E. Slow Beating Heart B. cardiac arrest
C. cardiovalvulitis
2. Inflammation of a vein
A. Phlebitis D. endocarditis
B. Venovaricus 6. Dilation, expansion of veins

C. Phlebostenosis
A. Phlebitis
D. Venectasis
B. Venovaricus
3. A sphygmomanometer is an instrument C. Phlebostenosis
that measures what?
D. Venectasis
A. blood sugar level
B. blood pressure 7. aneurysm
C. respiratory volume A. an abnormal bulge in the wall of an
D. pulse artery
4. Forms the gonadal and renal vein B. fast heartbeat

A. Vena supracardinal C. blueness of the skin
B. Vena subcardinal D. stoppage of the heart
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. A
1.1 Cardiovascular medicine 3
8. The name given to the study of the heart 13. Arrhythmia describes:
structure and function A. irregularity or loss of rhythm of the
heartbeat

A. cardiology
B. epidemiology B. general term for disease of the heart
muscle
C. endocrinology
C. malformation of the heart present at
D. biology birth
D. contraction of heart muscle
9. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term
Arteri(O) / ARTER(O)? 14. Which valve separates the left atrium
A. Around, Surrounding, About from the left ventricle?
A. tricuspid
B. To Lump or Clot / Blood Clot
B. mitral
C. Aorta
C. pulmonary
D. Artery
D. aortic
E. An obstruction of blood flow supply to
an organ or region of tissue leading to 15. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term
death of that tissue Ven(o) / VEN(O)?
A. Pulse
10. Pulmonary circulation involves blood flow B. Vein
to and from the heart and the
C. Artery
A. body
D. Record
B. digestive organs E. Blood Clot / To Lump or Clot
C. brain
16. atria
D. lungs A. upper chambers of the heart
11. The name of the arteries that feed the B. lower chambers of the heart
heart muscle C. middle wall of the heart
A. capillaries D. none of above
B. coronary 17. To hold back; block
C. chordae tendineae A. Embol/o
D. coronary sinus B. Thromb/o
C. Isch/o
12. What is the meaning of the medical term
D. Scler/o
Gram / GRAM?
18. severe episodes of spasmodic choking or
A. To Cut Into a Vein
suffocating chest pain are known as
B. Record
A. hypertension
C. Inflammation of a Vein B. hemorrhage
D. Pulse C. Raynaud’s disease
E. Fatty Matter D. angina
9. D 10. D 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. D 19. C
19. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term 24. The inability to absorb vitamin B12 nor-
Sphygm(o) / SPHYGM(O)? mally
A. Heart A. hemolytic anemia
B. Artery B. pernicious anemia
C. Pulse C. sickle cell anemia
D. Fatty Matter D. thalassemia
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Blood Vessel 25. Diaphoresis, a significant symptom of my-
ocardial infarction, is the medical term for
20. The term for a pain in a limb caused by in-
A. chest pain
adequate blood supply is:
B. heart palpitations
A. claudication
C. profuse sweating
B. perfusion deficit
D. shortness of breath
C. thrombus
26. a complete lack of electrical activity in the
D. occlusion
heart is known as
21. A hematocrit refers to the A. asystole
A. percentage of white blood cells in a pa- B. bradycardia
tient’s blood. C. tachycardia
B. percentage of red blood cells in a pa- D. Arrhythmia
tient’s blood.
27. A procedure in which a catheter is passeed
C. percentage of platelets in a patient’s
into a vein or artery and is guided into the
blood.
heart is known as cardiac
D. percentage of plasma in a patient’s A. catheterization
blood.
B. arrest
22. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term C. plasmapheresis
Hemangi(o) / HEMANGI(O)?
D. ablation
A. Heart
28. Pulse
B. Blood Vessel
A. Steth/o
C. Pulse
B. Thromb/o
D. Vein
C. Phleb/o
E. Slow / Slowly
D. Sphygm/o
23. Structure around the heart 29. forms the brachiocephalic artery
A. Transcardia A. fourth right arch
B. Circumcardia B. sixth right arch
C. Pericoronal C. aortic sac
D. Pericardium D. third arc
20. A 21. B 22. B 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. A 28. D 29. C 30. A
30. hypertension 36. The circulatory distribution of blood

A. high blood pressure throughout the body is called:
A. coronary

B. low blood pressure
B. pulmonary
C. state of profuse sweating
C. systemic
D. none of above
D. renal
31. the lowest pressure against the walls of 37. The term endocardium refers to
the blood vessels
A. structure or tissues forming outer
A. systolic pressure layer of heart
B. diastolic pressure B. protective sac enclosing the heart
C. blood pressure C. structure or tissues lining the cavities
of the heart
D. plasma
D. muscle tissues of the heart
32. What is known as “good cholesterol”?
38. Heart
A. HDL
A. Corn/o
B. LDL B. Heart/o
C. hemoglobin C. cardio
D. plasmapheresis D. Aorta
33. What is the aorta? 39. A group of bone marrow disorders char-
acterized by the insufficient production of
A. a muscular tube
blood cells due to dysfunction of the bone
B. regulate blood flow marrow
C. a small vein A. Leukemia
D. the main artery of the body B. Myelodysplastic Syndrome
C. tachycardia
34. Inflammation of fatty plaque
D. ischemia
A. Angiosarcitis
40. Artery that is NOT obliterated
B. Atheritis
A. carotid canal
C. Phlebitis
B. right dorsal aorta
D. Atherosis
C. seventh intersegmental artery
35. angioplasty D. ductus arteriosus
A. surgical repair of a blood vessel 41. The distal part of the internal carotid is de-
B. stopping atrial or ventricular fibrilla- rived from:
tion using an electronic device A. Aorta dorsal
C. surgical puncture of the heart to re- B. third aortic arch
move fluid C. first aortic arch
D. none of above D. Aorta ventral
31. B 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. A
42. a malignancy characterized by a progres- 48. Prevents the passage of blood from the
sive increase in the number of abnormal umbilical vein to the hepatic sinusoids
leukocytes is known as
A. ductus venosus
A. leukemia
B. dividing the crest
B. Raynaud’s Disease
C. Portal vein
C. anemia
D. hyperlipidemia D. ductus arteriosus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
43. What is the meaning of the medical term 49. What is the process of listening with a
Brady / BRADY? stethoscope?
A. To Lump or Clot, Blood Clot A. cardiac arrest
B. Artery / ARTERY B. myocardial infarction
C. Slow / Slowly C. auscultation
D. Fast or Rapid / Rapidly
D. echocardiogram
E. Pulse / PULSE
50. Abnormal condition involving hardening
44. The combining form meaning fatty paste
around the heart ventricles.
is:
A. aort/o A. Perisclerocorono
B. atri/o B. Transcardiosclerosis
C. angi/o C. Perisclerovasculosis
D. ather/o D. Circumventriculosclerosis
45. The combining form referring to a swollen, 51. This term refers to a buildup of fatty sub-
twisted vein is: stances within the walls of arteries:
A. phleb/o
A. occlusion
B. varic/o
B. arteriosclerosis
C. ven/o
C. atherosclerosis
D. angi/o
D. stenosis
46. Abnormal heart beat
A. myocardial infarction 52. It is a change that occurs in the circulation
B. dysrhythmia at birth.
C. cardiac arrest A. Left atrial pressure decreases and

right atrial pressure increases
D. aneurysm
B. Increases pulmonary vascular resis-
47. This layer encloses (surrounds) the heart tance
A. myocardium
C. Immediate anatomical obliteration of
B. pericardium the ductus arteriosus
C. endocardium D. Reversible foramen ovale closure dur-
D. epicardium ing the first days
43. C 44. D 45. B 46. B 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. D 51. C 52. D 53. B
53. abnormally swollen veins in the legs are 59. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term
known as.. Atri(o) / ATRI(O)?

A. angina A. Blood Vessel / Vessel
B. varicose veins B. Aorta / AORTA
C. phlebitis C. Atrium / ATRIUM
D. thrombosis D. Fatty Matter
54. The skeletal system interacts with the E. Blood Clot / To Lump or Clot
system when it produces red blood cells.
60. The inner layer in the wall of the heart
A. circulatory
B. excretory A. endocardium
C. digestive B. myocardium
D. nervous C. epicardium
D. septum
55. Which type of anemia occurs when red
blood cells are being destroyed faster than 61. trans-
the bone marrow can replace them?
A. across through
A. megaloblastic
B. surrounding around
B. aplastic
C. in within inside
C. hemolytic
D. thalassemia D. abnormal narrowing
56. extra- 62. blood vessel

A. on the outside or beyond outside ex- A. Aneurysm/o
tremity B. Varic/o
B. a picture or record C. Angi/o
C. a picture or record on a machine D. Embol/o
D. surrounding around
63. an inflammation involving several arteries
57. The abnormal narrowing of a blood vessel is known as
is know as
A. endocarditis
A. blood dyscrasia
B. polyarteritis
B. hemochromatosis
C. carditis
C. angiostenosis
D. valvulitis
D. aneurysm
58. Aortic arches arise from: 64. The abnormal hardening of an artery
A. distal part of truncus arteriosus A. embolus
B. proximal part of truncus arteriosus B. atherosclerosis
C. distal part of the arterial cone C. arthrosclerosis
D. proximal part of the arterial cone D. thrombis
54. A 55. C 56. A 57. C 58. A 59. C 60. A 61. A 62. C 63. B 64. B 65. A
65. -stenosis B. Fatty Matter

A. abnormal narrowing C. Inside or Within The Heart
B. in within inside D. Narrow or Contracted
C. surrounding around E. Vein
D. across through
71. atherosclerosis
A. hardening and narrowing of an artery
NARAYAN CHANGDER
Phleb(o) / PHLEB(O)?
due to fatty masses
A. Pulse
B. state of profuse sweating
B. Vein
C. enlarged heart
C. Artery
D. none of above
D. Blood Clot / To Lump or Clot
E. Within 72. -graph
67. Which of the following is NOT a blood A. a picture or record

gas? B. a picture or record on a machine
A. carbon dioxide C. the process of producing a picture or
B. oxygen record
C. nitrogen D. abronomal narrowing
D. hydrogen
73. Blood
68. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term A. Hem/o, Hemat/o
Aorta?
B. Hem/o, Hemol/o
A. Vessel (like Blood Vessel)
C. Vascul/o, hem/o
B. Capillary
D. Vascul/o, hemol/o
C. Aorta (Heart)
D. Slow Beating Heart 74. also known as platelets
E. Blood Clot, To Lump or Clot A. thrombocytes
69. The term used to describe a loss of blood B. basophils
flow to tissue caused by constriction or oc- C. eosinophils
clusion of a blood vessel is:
D. neutrophils
A. infarct
B. stenosis 75. A general term identifying disease of heart
C. claudication muscle is:
D. ischemia A. arrhythmia
B. cardiomyopathy
Ather(o) / ATHER(O)? C. coronary artery disease
A. Rapidly Beating Heart D. rheumatic heart disease
66. B 67. D 68. C 69. D 70. B 71. A 72. B 73. A 74. A 75. B 76. A
76. thrombus 81. consists of intermittent attacks of pale-

ness, blue color, and redness of the fingers
A. a stationary blood clot that obstructs a
and toes

blood vessel
A. Raynaud’s disease
B. a blood clot that is moving through a
blood vessel B. myelodysplastic syndrome
C. enlarged heart C. sepsis
D. none of above D. leukopenia
77. What are the functions of the tricuspid and 82. What does blood carry?
bicuspid valves? A. Nutrients, Water, and Oxygen
A. prevent blood from leaking back into B. Waste
he ventricles
C. Pollin
B. prevent blood from leaking back into
D. High pressure
the atria
C. allow blood to flow into the atria 83. cardiomyopathy
D. allow blood to leave the ventricles A. disease of the heart muscle
B. hardening of the arteries
Peri(o) / PERI(O)? C. surgical repair of a blood vessel
A. Around, Surrounding, About D. none of above
B. Pulse 84. Which of the following define diastole and

systole
C. Vein
A. systole is the contraction of the heart
D. To Lump or Clot / Blood Clot
and diastole is the relaxation of the heart
E. Heart
B. diastole is the contraction of the heart
79. The circulatory system interacts with the and systole is the relaxation of the heart
system to remove waste from our C. diastole and systole are both contrac-
blood and produce urine. tions of the heart
A. nervous D. diastole and systole are both relax-
ation phases of the heart
B. endocrine
C. excretory 85. What is the meaning of the medical term
Echocardiogram / ECHOCARDIOGRAM?
D. digestive
A. An Obstruction of Blood Flow Supply to
80. Widening blood vessel an Organ or Region of Tissue leading to
death of that tissue or organ.
A. Aneurysm/o
B. When the Heart Beats and the Heart
B. Varic/o
Muscle Relaxes and the Chambers Fill Up
C. Angi/o with Blood.
D. Embol/o C. Record of the Brain
77. B 78. A 79. C 80. A 81. A 82. A 83. A 84. A 85. D 86. A
D. An Ultrasound Using Electrodes that 91. Flesh

views the Rythum of the Heart A. Search
E. Fatty Matter B. Scler/o
86. Protection of blood vessels C. My/o
A. Angiophylaxis D. Ather/o
B. Ventriculophylaxis 92. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term
Thromb(o) / THROMB(O)?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Vasculophagia
D. Angiostenosis A. Vein
B. Blood Clot / To Lum or Clot
87. myocardium
C. Pulse
A. middle wall of the heart
D. Slow Beating Heart
B. outer wall of the heart
E. Blood Vessel
C. inner wall of the heart
93. vasoconstriction
D. none of above
A. constriction or narrowing of the vessel
88. They drain the body wall and form the azy- walls
gos vein. B. hardening of the arteries
A. right supracardinal C. narrowing of an artery
B. left supracardinal D. none of above
C. right subcardinal vein
94. Oxygen-poor blood flows into what
D. left subcardinal vein atrium?
89. What is the meaning of the medical term A. Left

Capillary / CAPILLARY? B. Bottom
A. Pulse / PULSE C. Right
B. Artery D. Top
C. Vein 95. What does the blood help eliminate?
D. Tiny Branching Blood Vessels between A. It helps eliminate waste like carbon
the Arterioles and the Vennules. dioxide
E. Within or Inside the Heart B. Dead skin
C. Oxygen
90. What is the meaning of the medical term
Tachy / TACHY? D. Nutrients
A. To Cut Into a Vein 96. Derived from the first aortic arch
B. Slow or Slowly A. maxillary artery
C. To Lump or Clot, Blood Clot B. Arterial estapedia
D. Fast or Rapidly C. hyoid artery
E. Around or Surrounding The Heart D. common carotid artery
87. A 88. A 89. D 90. D 91. A 92. B 93. A 94. C 95. A 96. A
97. The muscular system interacts with the 102. What is the meaning of the medical term
system because the heart is a mus- Bradycardia / BRADYCARDIA?
cle and it pumps blood to every cell in our

A. Pulse / PULSE
body.
B. Fast or Rapidly Beating Heart
A. excretory
C. Slow Beating Heart
B. endocrine
D. An Obstruction of Blood Flow Supply to
C. digestive an Organ or Region of Tissue leading to
D. circulatory death of that tissue or organ.
E. Within or Inside The Heart
98. Freshly oxygenated blood is delivered to
the and then it passes into the to 103. What is the meaning of the medical term
be pumped to the entire body. Tachycardia / TACHYCARDIA?
A. right ventricle; right atrium A. An Obstruction of Blood Flow Supply
B. left ventricle; left atrium to an organ or region of tissue leading to
death of that tissue or organ.
C. left atrium; left ventricle
B. Fast or Rapidly Beating Heart
D. right atrium; right ventricle
C. Pulse / PULSE
99. The most muscular chamber of the heart is D. Narrow or Contracted
the
E. Slow Beating Heart
A. left ventricle
104. It is involved in angiogenesis and vascu-
B. left atrium logenesis
C. right atrium A. VEGF
D. right ventricle B. EGF
100. -gram C. VGF
A. a picture or record D. FEGF
B. a picture or record on a machine E. PDGF
C. the process of producing a picture or 105. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term
record Vas(o) / VAS(O)?
D. on the outside or beyond outside ex- A. Blood Vessel
tremity B. Vein
101. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term C. Artery
Pericardi(o) / PERICARDI(O)? D. Pulse
A. Atrium E. Record
B. Aorta
106. The vessels supplying the hindgut are de-
C. Around or Surrounding The Heart rived from which artery?
D. To Lump or Clot / Blood Clot A. vitelline arteries
E. Record B. umbilical arteries
97. D 98. C 99. A 100. A 101. C 102. C 103. B 104. A 105. A 106. B
C. sixth aortic arch 113. An abnormal increase in the number of

D. fourth aortic arch red blood cells
A. polycythemia
107. The blockage of a blood vessel by a for-
B. Leukemia
eign object circulating in the blood
C. Thrombocytosis
A. thrombosis
D. Blood dyscrasia
B. statin
114. The term for heart muscle tissue is:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. embolism
A. myocardium
D. embolus
B. endocardium
108. Which suffix means “resembling”? C. pericardium
A. -oid D. epicardium
B. -lytic
115. A combining form for chest is:
C. -ium
A. coron/o
D. -ist
B. pector/o
109. venous C. phleb/o
A. pertaining to a vein D. cardi/o
B. abnormal heart rate 116. Mr. Taylor is receiving antibiotics for a
C. blueness of the skin bacterial infection that is causing inflam-
mation of the inner layer of his heart. This
D. none of above
is inflammation is called:
110. ventricles A. epicarditis
A. lower chambers of the heart B. endocarditis
B. upper chambers of the heart C. pericarditis
C. sac surrounding the heart D. endocardium
D. none of above 117. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term
Angi(o) / ANGI(O)?
111. The condition in which a blood clot forms
within a blood vessel is known as a/an A. Vessel (like Blood Vessel)
A. embolus B. Blood Clot

C. Aorta
B. thrombocytes
D. Pulse
C. thrombosis
E. Vein
D. angiostenosis
118. a benign tumor made up of newly formed
112. pericardium blood vessels is a/an
A. sac surrounding the heart A. arteriosclerosis
B. middle wall of the heart B. Thrombosis
C. inner wall of the heart C. embolism
D. none of above D. hemangioma
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1.2 respiratory medicine 13
119. Abnormal death of the heart muscle A. Inflammation of a Vein

A. Cardiomyothrombosis B. To Cut Into a Vein

B. Necrocoronitis C. Slow Beating Heart
C. Cardiomycosis D. Pulse
D. Myocorononecrosis E. Blood Vessel
120. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term 123. Sac like structure that encloses the heart
Cardi(o) / CARDI(O)? A. Transcardia
A. Vessel (like Blood Vessel) B. Circumcardia
B. Aorta C. Pericoronal
C. Heart D. Pericardium
D. Vein 124. Vein
E. Pulse A. phleb/o, my/o
121. What is the Meaning of the Medical Term B. ven/o, vascul/o
Hem or Hemat(o) / HEM or HEMAT(O)? C. angi/o, phleb/o
A. Blood Vessel D. come on, phlebo
B. Vein
125. Narrowing, stricture of the heart ventri-
C. To Lump or Clot / Blood Clot cles
D. Blood A. Vasculophyaxis
E. Fast or Rapidly B. Ventriculostenosis
122. What is the meaning of the medical term C. Varicocentesis

Phlebotomy / PHLEBOTOMY? D. Ventriculovaricitis
1.2 respiratory medicine

1. Which of the following is true about the B. Endocrine
trachea C. Nervous
A. The Adam’s apple acts as a shield of D. Cardiovascular
cartilage for it
B. It is lined with mucous membrane and 3. If a person could not produce surfactant,
cilia his/her:
C. It connects directly to the bronchioles A. Alveoli would collapse.
D. The epiglottis covers it B. Bronchi would collapse.

C. Vocal cords would not vibrate.
2. The respiratory system works in conjunc-
tion with the system to deliver oxygen D. Epiglottis would close.
to the cells of the body. 4. The term meaning abnormally rapid deep
A. Digestive breathing

A. hyperventilation 10. Slow breathing

B. tracheoplasty A. bradypnea
C. exhalation B. hyperpnea
D. laryngospasm C. tachypnea
D. hypopnea
5. The act of breathing is initiated in the
A. upper respiratory tract 11. people we met in North of England
NARAYAN CHANGDER
came from US.
B. phrenic nerve
A. the /-/ an
C. medulla oblongata
B. -/-/ the
D. lower respiratory tract
C. the / the / the
6. A surgical puncture to remove fluid from D. -/ a / the
the pleural cavity
A. thoracentesis 12. nosebleed; nasal hemorrhage
B. tracheostomy A. epistaxis
C. tonsillectomy B. pleurisy
D. thoracotomy C. anosmia
D. tubercles
7. bronchitis
A. inflammation of the airways 13. Accumulation of fluid in the lungs is known
as
B. inflammation of the lungs
A. atelectasis
C. inflammation of the alveoli
B. acute pulmonary distress syndrome
D. inflammation of the right lung
C. pulmonary edema
8. Which of the following is an emergency D. pneumothorax
treatment given to patients when their
breathing and heart stops? 14. What is the English Meaning of the Medi-
cal Term Pleur/o (Plura)?
A. Heimlich maneuver
A. Chest
B. Thoracentesis
B. Lung
C. Cardiopulmonary resusciation
C. Neck, Neck Like Structure [ Trachea ]
D. Intermittent positive pressure breath-
ing D. Cavity or Socket
E. Pleura
9. a structure between the thoracic and ab-
dominal cavities (dome-shaped) 15. Discharge from my nose
A. diaphragm A. rhinitis
B. glottis B. rhinoplasty
C. larynx C. rhinorrhea
D. mediastinum D. pansinusitis

16. What is the English Meaning of the Medi- C. ENT

cal Term Laryng [ LARYNG ]?
D. Ear Doctor

A. Cavity or Socket
B. Gland 22. I need to make appointment with Dr.
Jones, please.
C. Neck, Neck-Like Structure
A. An
D. Larynx “Voice Box”
E. Chest B. -
C. A
17. meaning breathing
D. The
A. phon/o
B. pleur/o 23. The sinuses are located just above the
C. -pnea eyes
D. pneum/o A. frontal
18. Which of the following terms means nor- B. bronchioles

mal breathing? C. trachypnea
A. Apnea D. alvecli
B. Eupnea
24. filters, warms, and humidifies inhaled air
C. Orthopnea
A. bronchi
D. Dyspnea
B. bronchioles
19. Barbara has asthma and uses an inhaler
when she starts to wheeze. The purpose C. carina
of the device is to: D. nasal cavity
A. Dissolve mucus.
25. inflammation of the membranes surround-
B. Contract blood vessels.
ing the lungs
C. Liquefy secretions in the lungs.
A. rhinitis
D. Enlarge the brochioles
B. pleurisy
20. Where in the respiratory tract does the ex-
C. sinusitis
change of oxygen and carbon dioxide take
place? D. laryngitis
A. Larynx
26. If your epiglottis were to suddenly stop
B. Bronchi working, what activity could be life threat-
C. Trachea ening?
D. Alveoli A. Breathing
21. Another name for an Otolaryngologist is B. Walking

A. EMT C. Coughing
B. Rhinologist D. Eating

27. The patient has COPD. This is 33. What is the English Meaning of the Medi-
A. clotted up pulmonary diets cal Term Trache/o, Trachea?
B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease A. Neck, Neck-Like Structure
C. rhinitis B. Cavity or Socket
D. a type of pneumonia C. Chest

D. Diaphram
28. The patient has COPD. This is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Lung or Air
A. clotted up pulmonary diets
B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 34. What is the English Meaning of the Medi-
cal Term Bronch/i, Bronch/o, Bronchus?
C. rhinitis
D. a type of pneumonia A. Chest
B. Cavity or Socket
29. tracheotomy
C. Mucus
A. surgical incision in the trachea
D. Lung or Air
B. surgical incision in the mouth
E. Bronchioles
C. surgical incision in the esophagus
D. surgical incision 35. Which serious lung infection causes the
alveoli to fill up with fluid?
30. The term meaning the absence of sponta-
neous respiration is A. Tuberculosis
A. asthma B. Pneumoconiosis
B. apnea C. Pneumonia
C. effusion D. Pulmonary fibrosis

D. pleuralgia 36. What is the abbreviations for Sever Acute
Respiratory Syndrome? (Covid-19 is a
31. Which of the following terms is also called
type of this.)
suffocation?
A. ARDS
A. Asphyxia
B. SARS
B. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
C. Aspiration C. TPR
D. Hypoventilation D. PFT
32. The section of the pharynx that is associ- 37. where the windpipe divides into two
ated with the mouth is the: branches
A. Nasopharynx A. bronchi
B. Laryngopharynx B. bronchioles
C. Oropharynx C. carina
D. Hypopharynx D. nasal cavity

38. The tonsils in the throat are consideredto 44. What structure connects the larynx to the
be part of the: bronchi?
A. Pleura

A. digestive system
B. respiratory system B. Oropharynx
C. endocrine system C. Trachea
D. lymphatic system D. Bronchioles
39. Columbus was one of first people to 45. due to inadequate amounts of gas in the
cross Atlantic. alveoli), resulting in the lungs collapse.
A. a/an A. atelectasis
B. an/the B. acute pulmonary distress syndrome
C. the/the C. pulmonary edema
D. x / the D. pneumothorax
40. spasm of the diaphragm 46. unicorn
A. cough A. a
B. sneeze B. an
C. the
C. hiccup
D. -
D. yawn
47. Which does Boyles law state?
41. Which of the following medications re-
laxes muscle spasms in the bronchial A. Volume is proportional to pressure
tube? B. Volume is inversely proportional to
A. Expectorant pressure
B. Bronchodilator C. Volume is proportional to the square of
the pressure
C. Antitussive
D. Volume is inversely proportional to the
D. Antihistimine square of the pressure
42. Which kind of medication is suspended in 48. The term meaning bleeding from the lungs
a mist in order to be inhaled? is
A. Endotrachael medications A. pheumorrhalgia
B. Aerosol therapy B. effusion
C. Pulmonary medications C. apnea
D. Postural drainage D. asthma
43. Where are the pharyngeal tonsils and the 49. During an attack the muscles of the
Eustachian tubes? airways contract
A. carina A. asthma
B. nasopharynx B. apnea
C. oropharynx C. laryngospasm
D. laryngopharynx D. effusion

50. He always sings in shower. 56. whooping cough

A. - A. pertussis
B. A B. apnea
C. The C. epistaxis
D. An D. pneumonoconiosis
51. absence or decrease in the sense of smell 57. What is the primary function of mucus and
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. anosmia cilia in the nostrils?
B. hyposmia A. Sound production
C. hyperosmia B. Filtration
D. microsmia C. Temperature control
52. a- D. Respiration
A. pertaining to 58. opening between the vocal cords

B. without A. diaphragm
C. chest B. glottis
D. inflammation of C. larynx
53. The smallest divisions of bronchial tree are D. mediastinum
the
59. From the laryngopharynx, air continues to
A. bronchioles the
B. silicosis A. alveoli
C. tachypnea B. esophagus
D. epiglottis C. trachea
54. What is the English Meaning of the Medi- D. oropharynx
cal Term Rhin/o [ RHIN/O ]?
60. a-(prefix)
A. Breath, Breathing
A. Lung
B. Cavity or Socket
B. without; absent; no
C. Organ or Gland, Section
C. against (anti)
D. Nose
D. before
E. Neck, Neck-Like Structure
61. What is the English Meaning of the Medi-
55. During respirations, the exchange of
cal Term Pulmon/o [ PULMON/O ]?
gasses takes place through the walls of
the A. Cavity or Socket
A. alvecli B. Hallow Space
B. silicosis C. Neck, Neck-Like Structure
C. tachypnea D. Lung
D. bronchioles E. Diaphram

62. d division of the pharynx 68. I think piano itself needs to be tuned.
A. laryngopharynx A. The

B. oropharynx B. -
C. larynx C. A
D. trachea D. An
63. The emergancy procedure to gain access
below a blocked airway is called 69. Nasal means
A. tracheotomy A. mouth
B. phelgm B. ears
C. byssinosis C. mouth
D. bacterial D. nose
64. The sudden spasmodic closure of the lar- 70. incision of the sinus
ynx is a
A. sinusotomy
A. laryngospasm
B. sinusitis
B. pleuralgia
C. sinuscentesis
C. effusion
D. sinusplasty
D. apnea
65. instrument to measure oxygen (satura- 71. The term meaning spitting blood or blood
tion) stained sputum is
A. oximeter A. hemoptysis
B. pneumometer B. silicosis
C. laryngometer C. tachypnea
D. rhinometer D. mediatium
66. The patient has COPD. He should see a 72. the vocal box
A. allergist
A. diaphragm
B. hematologist
B. glottis
C. pulmonologist
C. larynx
D. ENT
D. mediastinum
cal Term Thoract/o [ Thoract ]? 73. Which of the following pairs of terms is
A. Pleura mismatched?
B. Organ or Gland A. Trachea-windpipe

C. Chest B. Larynx-voice box
D. Lung C. Pharynx-throat
E. Diaphram D. Bronchioles-air sacs

74. -thorax 80. What is the English Meaning of the Medi-

cal Term Aden/o [ ADEN/O ]?
A. difficult
A. Gland
B. breathing
B. Hallow Space
C. in
C. Cavity or Socket
D. chest
D. Breath, Breathing
75. Black lung disease is the lay term for E. Lung or Air
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. silcosis 81. a cavity between lungs
B. tachypnea A. pharynx
C. visceral pleura B. glottis
D. frontal C. larynx
D. mediastinum
76. The term commonly known as shortness of
breath is 82. Accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity,
generally due to a lung infection.
A. dyspnea
A. Atelectasis
B. tracheotomy
B. Empyema
C. phlegm
C. Sinusitis
D. pertussis D. Cyanosis
77. Which term means pleural pain? 83. The suffix-algia means
A. Pleuralgia A. pain
B. Thoracalgia B. rupture
C. Pleuritis C. flow, discharge

D. to suture
D. Pleurectomy
84. Which term means study of the ear, nose
78. d division of pharynx and voice box?
A. larynx A. Otonasolaryngology
B. laryngopharynx B. Otorhinolaryngology
C. nasopharynx C. Otonasopharyngology
D. trachea D. Otorhinolaryngologist
85. There is statue of unicorn in front

79. Sudden infant death syndrome
of the building.
A. SIDS A. a, a
B. COPD B. a, an
C. ARDS C. the, a
D. URI D. none of above

86. A device that measures air capacity in the 92. The diaphragm is relaxed is
lungs. A. exhalation

A. spirometer B. asthma
B. oximeter C. apnea
C. V/Q scan
D. effusion
D. bronchoscopy
93. Which of the following medications opens
87. The term meaning any voice impairment is the airways?
A. Expectorant
A. dysoria
B. Bronchodilator
B. frontal
C. Antitussive
C. silicosis
D. Antihistamine
D. epiglottis
88. The innermost layer of the pleura is known cal Term Naso [ NASO ]?
as the
A. Nose
A. bronchioles
B. Cavity or Socket
B. hemoptyisis
C. Diaphram
C. silicosis
D. Pertaining or Voice or Sound
D. visceral pleura
E. Neck, Neck-Like Structure
89. Upper respiratory infection
95. Excision of the tonsils
A. URI
A. tonsillitis
B. SIDS
B. tonsillectomy
C. SARS
C. tonsiellosis
D. COPD
D. tonsilopathy
90. Rhinorrhea means:
96. acute respiratory distress syndrome
A. discharge from the nose
A. COPD
B. upset stomach
B. URI
C. infection of the intestines
C. ARDS
D. an animal bite
D. SARS
91. region of the nasal cavity contains coarse
hairs that filter air inhaled through the 97. The suffix that means surgical incision,
nose process of cutting into is
A. ethmoid region A. -plasty
B. vestibular region B. -ectomy
C. olfactory region C. -tomy
D. respiratory region D. -stomy

98. The term meaning the act of drawing a for- 103. What is the dividing point between the
eign substance into the upper respiratory upper and lower respiratory tracts?
tract is A. diaphragm
A. asperation B. glottis
B. hyperventilation C. vocal cords
C. asthma D. bronchi
D. apnea
NARAYAN CHANGDER
104. -i
99. What statement is true about lung can- A. chest
cer? B. pertaining to
A. The prognosis is good. C. difficult
B. Treatment includes hormone therapy D. out
and blood transfusions.
105. Which of the following conditions may re-
C. It is the leading cause of cancer death
sult in a collapsed lung?
in med and women.
A. pulmonary embolism
D. Second hand smoke rarely contributes
to the development of lung cancer. B. tuberculosis
C. pleural effusion
100. The term meaning pain in the pleura or
side is D. pneumothorax
A. pleuralgia 106. surgical puncture of the pleura

B. effusion A. pleurocentesis
C. apnea B. pleurectasis
D. asthma C. pleuremia
D. pleurotomy
101. to breathe
A. pulmon/o 107. In the word sinusitis, the word itis is a
?
B. spir/o
A. pronoun
C. sinus/o
B. prefix
D. trache/o
C. affix
102. What is the English Meaning of the Med- D. suffix
ical Term Hypoxemia [ HYPOXEMIA ]?
108. Tomorrow I’m going to pay for my plane
A. Neck, Neck-Like Structure tickets to Canada.
B. Insufficient Oxygen in the blood A. The
C. Hallow Space B. -
D. Larynx “Voice Box” C. A
E. Cavity or Socket D. An

109. scope 115. severe acute respiratory syndrome

A. without A. SARS

B. cavity B. SIDS
C. instrument used to examine C. URI
D. up D. COPD
110. This is a cat cat is black with white 116. The acts as a lid over the entrance to
ears. the esophagus
A. a A. epiglottis
B. an B. frontal
C. the C. bronchioles
D. - D. alvecli
111. Which condition is characterized by the 117. -spasm

destruction of the walls of the alveoli re- A. voluntary contraction
sulting in over-expanded air sacs?
B. sexual misunderstanding
A. Emphysema
C. involuntary contraction
B. Histoplasmosis
D. sound
C. Pneumoconiosis
118. What is the English Meaning of the Med-
D. Empyema
ical Term Muc/o [ MUC/O ]?
112. MOST respiratory disorders are caused A. Breath, Breathing
by:
B. Pharynx “Throat”
A. Infection
C. Hallow Space
B. Lack of exercise.
D. Cavity or Socket
C. Heredity.
E. Mucus
D. Poor circulation
119. good, normal breathing
113. umbrella
A. bradypnea
A. a
B. eupnea
B. an C. tachypnea
C. the D. hypopnea
D. -
120. In the respiratory tract, air is trans-
114. Which term means abnormal condition of ported to the lungs, and the exchange of
blue? oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place.
A. Cyanotic A. upper
B. Cyanitis B. lower
C. Cyaniosis C. vestibular
D. Cyanosis D. sphenoid

121. What is the English Meaning of the Med- 127. Do you speak English?
ical Term Alveol/o, Alveol/i or A. an
A. Lung or Air
B. a
B. Neck, Neck-Like Structure
C. the
C. Pertaining to Voice or Sound
D. -
D. Organ or Gland, Section
E. Cavity or Socket 128. bicycle
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. a
122. The patient is having problems breathing.
A medical term for this is B. an
A. Hemoralgia C. the
B. Dyspnea D. -
C. malcarbona 129. Which of the following is a procedure that
D. apnea means putting a tube inside the trachea to
help a person breathe?
123. What is inflammation of the larynx?
A. Postural drainage
A. laryngitis
B. Endotracheal intubation
B. layrnxitis
C. Aerosol therapy
C. rhinitis
D. throatitis D. Ventilatior
124. university 130. windpipe

A. a A. trachea
B. an B. larynx
C. the C. laryngopharynx
D. - D. nasopharynx
125. The respiratory system, in conjunction 131. ex-

with the cardiovascular system, delivers
A. in
to the cells of the body.
B. out
A. Oxygen
C. up
B. Nutrients
C. Carbon dioxide D. down
D. Sodium 132. What is the English Meaning of the Med-

ical Term Dyspnea [DYSPNEA ]?
126. Which of the following medications re-
lieves the urge to cough? A. Breath, Breathing
A. Expectorant B. Without Breath, Without Breathing
B. Bronchodilator C. Difficulty Breathing
C. Antitussive D. Hallow Space
D. Antihistamine E. Cavity or Socket

133. The nostrils, larynx and trachea are all C. It leaves the cells and enters the blood-
made primarily of:. stream

A. Cartilage D. It leaves the alveoli and enters the
B. Bone. bloodstream
C. Muscle 139. Which organ of the respiratory system is
D. Tendons used by both the respiratory and digestive
systems?
A. Pharynx
ical Term Epiglott/o?
B. Stomach
A. Difficulty Breathing
C. Trachea
B. Pertaining to Sound or Voice
D. Nasal cavity
C. Hallow Space
D. Epiglottis 140. process of increasing the breathing pro-
cess by breathing in deeply and rapidly
E. Chest
A. respiration
135. hour
B. hyperventilation
A. a
C. inspiration
B. an
D. expiration
C. the
D. - 141. which condition is the temporary absence
of spontaneous respiration?
136. Which diagnostic procedure measures the A. apnea
oxygen level in the blood?
B. eupnea
A. Ventilation-perfusion scan
C. respiratory failure
B. Oximetry
D. sleep apnea
C. Bronchography
D. Polysomnography 142. In the process of breathing, during what
stage does the movement of the di-
137. Which of the following terms means aphragm enlarge the thoracic cavity?
fast/rapid breathing?
A. Internal respiration
A. Hypopnea
B. External respiration
B. Tachypnea
C. Inspiration
C. Hyperpnea
D. Expiration
D. Orthopnea
143. tiny airway branches that end in alveolar
138. During cellular respiration, what happens sacs
to the carbon dioxide?
A. bronchi
A. It leaves the alveoli and is exhaled
from the lungs B. bronchioles
B. It leaves the bloodstream and enters C. carina

the alveoli D. nasal cavity

144. The heart, aorta, esophagus, and trachea 150. Sarah has a chest x-ray that shows she
are located in the has tubercles in her lungs. What does that
A. epiglottis mean?
B. visceral pleura A. She had tuberculosis in the past but

has recovered.
C. mediatium
B. She has a dormant form of TB that
D. frontal could become active if her resistance is
lowered.
NARAYAN CHANGDER
145. paralysis of the voice box
A. laryngoplegia C. She has an active case of tuberculosis
and is being treated with antibiotics.
B. pneumoplegia
D. She has a history of an infection that
C. bronchoplegia is similar to tuberculosis and therefore is
D. rhinoplegia immune to TB.
146. increased tissue spaces caused by de- 151. What is the English Meaning of the Med-
struction of alveoli ical Term Apnea [ APNEA ]?
A. pneumonia A. Oxygen Deficiency
B. emphasema B. Without Breath, Without Breathing
C. tuberculosis C. Cavity or Socket
D. asthma D. Neck, Neck-Like Structure
E. Hallow Space
147. serous membrane that encloses and pro-
tects the lungs 152. The term meaning the surgical repair of
A. carina the trachea is
B. alveolar sac A. tracheoplasty
C. parietal pleura B. apnea
D. visceral pleura C. pleuralgia
D. pneumorrhagia
148. To indicate under, the best prefix to use
would be: 153. t division of pharynx
A. a- A. oropharynx
B. para- B. laryngopharynx
C. sub- C. larynx
D. uni- D. nasopharynx
149. Respiratory rate is affected by the level 154. There was incredibly powerful tor-
of in the bloodstream. nado the last year.
A. leukocytes A. -
B. erythrocytes B. The
C. oxygen C. A
D. carbon dioxide D. An

155. If you have your tonsils removed 161. Do you still live in Bristol?
A. tonsilitis A. a

B. tonsillplasty B. an
C. tonsillectomy C. the
D. tonsillotomy D. -
162. The root word PNEUMON/O or PUL-
156. When swallowing liquid or food, the
MON/O
closes the opening to the larynx.
A. chest
A. glottis
B. lungs
B. Eustachian tube
C. ribs
C. thyroid cartilage
D. head
D. epiglottis
163. abnormal condition of blueness
157. blue skin caused by low oxygen in blood A. cyanosis
A. cyanosis B. erythrosis
B. epistaxis C. leucytosis
C. rales D. erythritis
D. cyanuecstasis 164. A device used to deliver artificial respira-
tion for a patient unable to breathe effec-
158. The form of pneumonia that can be pre- tively on his or her own.
vented through vaccination is
A. tracheostomy
A. dyspnea
B. CPAP machine
B. phlegm
C. Heimlich maneuver
C. empyema
D. ventilator
D. bacterial
165. exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide
159. The normal respiratory rate for a child is between the atmosphere and the cells of
an adult. the body
A. the same as A. cellular respiration
B. faster than B. external respiration
C. slower than C. internal respiration

D. metabolic respiration
D. twice the rate of
166. We live in big house. It has huge
160. surgical repair of the nose swimming pool and lovely garden.
A. rhinoplasty A. a, a, a
B. rhinitis B. an, the, a
C. rhinectomy C. a, the, the
D. rhinoscope D. -, a, an

167. thorax 173. Inhalation brings in fresh and exhala-

A. chest tion removes
B. lung A. Carbon dioxide, oxygen
C. throat B. Oxygen, nitrogen
D. incomplete C. Oxygen, carbon dioxide

D. Nitrogen, carbon dioxide
168. The term abnormally rapid rate of res-
pirations. 174. Where are the palatine and lingual tonsils
NARAYAN CHANGDER
located?
A. tachypnea
A. oropharynx
B. dyshoria
B. nasopharynx
C. laryngopharynx
C. laryngopharynx
D. larynx
D. glottopharynx
ical Term Sinus [ SINUS ]? 175. -meter
A. Hallow Space A. instrument to measure
B. Neck, Neck-Like Structure B. matter
C. Cavity or Socket C. oxygen
D. Pertaining to Voice or Sound D. voice
E. Lung or Air 176. The small hairs that line the opening to
the noes and the airways are called:
170. The combining for rhin/o means
A. Sinuses
A. bone
B. Nares
B. large animal
C. Septa
C. nose
D. Cillia
D. joint
177. Where are the sinuses located?
171. known as the windpipe and allows air to
A. In the front lobe of the brain
travel to and from the lungs
B. In the skull surrounding the nasal cav-
A. bronchi
ity
B. bronchioles
C. Inside the nares
C. carina
D. Under the cheek bones in the subcuta-
D. trachea neous tissue
172. Which of the following is an inherited con- 178. Which term means inflammation of the
dition? nose and throat?
A. Emphysema A. Rhinolaryngitis
B. Atelectasis B. Nasolaryngitis
C. Histoplasmosis C. Nasopharyngitis
D. Cystic fibrosis D. Rhinopharyngitis

179. hypo- B. Hemothorax

A. less than normal C. Pyothorax

B. Large D. Pulmothorax
C. Below
185. The exchange of gases within the cells of
D. Swallow the body is known as respiration
180. What is the English Meaning of the Med- A. internal
ical Term Spir/o? B. byssinosis
A. Chest C. bacterial
B. Hallow Space D. dyspnea
C. Neck, Neck-Like Structure
D. Breathe
ical Term Lob/o [ Lobes ]?
E. Cavity or Socket
A. Lung or Air
181. A noninvasive device placed on the finger, B. Voice or Pertaining to Sound
earlobe or toe that measures oxygen lev-
els. C. Cavity or Socket
A. auscultation D. Larynx “Voice Box”
B. spirometry E. Organ or Gland, Section

C. oximetry 187. During exhalation, humans breathe out
D. atelectasis mostly
A. oxygen
182. absence or deficiency of oxygen within
the tissues B. carbon dioxide
A. apnea C. nitrogen
B. anoxia D. sputum
C. asphyxia
188. Where gas exchange occurs:
D. asthma
A. Bronchioles
183. the accumulation of gas (or air) in the B. Main bronchi
pleural space causing the lung to collapse
from the outside. C. Apex
A. atelectasis D. Alveoli
B. acute pulmonary distress syndrome 189. The patient has with complaints of a
C. pulmonary edema chronic stuffy nose. He needs to see a..
D. pneumothorax A. Pulmonologist
B. Otolaryngologist
184. Which of the following terms means air
in the chest? C. Allergist
A. Pneumothorax D. hematologist

190. Emily needs desk in her room. The 196. What is the English Meaning of the Med-
desk must be brown. ical Term Pharyng/o?
A. a A. Hallow Space
B. an B. Pharynx “Throat”
C. the C. Cavity or Socket
D. - D. Tonsil
E. Mucus
NARAYAN CHANGDER
191. The term that describes lung disease
caused by cotton dust is 197. ARDS can also be associated with bleed-
A. byssinosis ing from the lungs which is called
B. bacterial A. pneumorrhagia
C. dyspnea B. acute pulmonary distress syndrome
D. tracheostomy C. pulmonary edema
D. pneumothorax
192. Loss of voice
A. dysphonia 198. The term meaning the escape of fluid into
a body cavity is
B. hypophonia
A. effusion
C. aphonia
B. pleuralgia
D. none of above
C. asthma
193. major air passages that branch from the
D. apnea
trachea into the lungs
A. bronchi 199. difficult voice
B. bronchioles A. dysphonia
C. carina B. hypophonia
D. trachea C. hyperphonia
D. microphonia
194. What respiratory disorders are highly
contagious? 200. What is the best treatment for mild epis-
A. Laryngitis and pleurisy taxis caused by a bump in the nose?
B. Infleunza and URI A. Pack the nose with gauze
C. Sinusitis and epistaxis B. Compress nostrils, tilt head slightly
forward.
D. Emphysema and asthma
C. Cauterize the bleeder
195. Which term means nose discharge? D. Lay flat on the back, head back, and
A. Rhinorrhea pack the nose with tissue
B. Rhinoplasty 201. bronchiectasis is
C. Rhinorrhagia A. sudden, involuntary contractions of
D. Rhinitis the bronchus

B. inflammation of the bronchus 207. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

C. dilation of the bronchus A. COPD

D. none of above B. ARDS
C. SIDS
202. What does the pleura allow the lungs to D. URI
do?
208. What diagnostic test provides physicians
A. Expand during breathing
with a direct look at the lining of the res-
B. Trap dust and other particles piratory tract?
C. Keep the alveoli distended A. CPAP
D. Cough B. Bronchoscopy
C. Pulmonary function tests
203. The pharynx can also be called the D. Chest x-ray
A. nasopharynx
209. Air goes from the trachea to the
B. oropharynx A. bronchi, then the bronchioles, and
C. laryngopharynx then the alveoli
D. throat B. larynx, then the alveoli, and then the
bronchioles
204. What is the incision of the chest? C. alveoli, then the bronchioles, and then
A. tracheotomy the bronchi
D. bronchioles, then the bronchi, and
B. mediastinoscopy
then the alveoli
C. dysphonia
210. Which of these is a PASSIVE process
D. thoracotomy
A. Quiet inspiration
205. What is the English Meaning of the Med- B. Quiet expiration
ical Term Tonsil/o [ TONSIL/O ]? C. Forced inspiration
A. Hallow Space D. Forced expiration
B. Organ or Gland, Section 211. Your lungs are divided into lobes. How
C. Diaphram many lobes do you have?
A. Two
D. Cavity or Socket
B. Three
E. Tonsil
C. Four
206. Which of the following medications im- D. Five
proves the ability to cough up mucus?
212. voice box
A. Expectorant
A. trachea
B. Bronchodilator B. oropharynx
C. Antitussive C. nasopharynx
D. Antihistamine D. larynx

213. What is the English Meaning of the Med- 219. blood in the chest
ical Term Phonia? A. hemothorax
A. Lung or Air
B. thorcotomy
B. Neck, Neck-Like Structure
C. hemocartilage
C. Pertaining to Voice or Sound
D. pneumothorax
D. Epiglottis
E. Bronchus 220. The suffix-scope means
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. instrument used for examination
214. ARDS is the abbreviation for
B. study of something
A. atelectasis
C. visual examination
B. acute pulmonary distress syndrome
D. process of recording
C. pulmonary edema
D. pneumothorax 221. instrument for examining the bronchus
215. The throat is also called the A. bronchoscope
A. throat B. bronchitis
B. voice box C. bronchectomy
C. windpipe D. bronchotomy
D. esophagus 222. What is the English Meaning of the
216. Which of the following conditions causes Medical Term Pneum/o, Pneumon, Pneu-
constriction of the bronchial airways by mat/o?
bronchospasms? A. Chest
A. Bronchiectasis B. Cavity or Socket
B. Asthma C. Voice or Pertaining to Sound
C. Anthracosis D. Lung or Air
D. Adult respiratory distress syndrome E. Bronchioles
217. The upper section of the pharynx is
223. collapsed or airless lung
called:
A. atelectasis
A. Oropharynx
B. tubercles
B. Nasopharynx
C. Laryngopharynx C. hemoptysis
D. Hypopharynx D. epistaxis
218. Martin received email from pen- 224. What structure is a passageway for both
pal. food and air?
A. an, a A. Pharynx
B. a, an B. Bronchus
C. a, the C. Trachea
D. none of above D. Larynx

1.3 Rheumatology 33
225. Mr. Arnot is a heavy smoker with a 229. The respiratory system is responsible for
chronic cough, bluish tint to his skin, and both delivering oxygen to the body as well
a barrel chest. He MOST LIKLEY suffers as taking away

from: A. Waste
A. emphysema B. Blood Plasma
B. Epistaxis. C. Carbon Monoxide
C. Tuberculosis. D. Carbon Dioxide
D. Pleurisy 230. Which of the following choices presents
the airways in anatomical order?
226. excessive carbon dioxide
A. Larynx, trachea, pharynx, bronchial
A. hypercapnia tubes
B. hyperoxia B. Bronchial tubes, trachea, pharynx, lar-
C. hypocapnia ynx
D. hypoxia C. Pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchial
tubes
227. the passageway through which air, food, D. Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchial
and liquid travel tubes
A. pharynx
231. The left lung has lobes.
B. glottis A. one
C. larynx B. two
D. mediastinum C. three
228. Which term means narrowing of the tra- D. four

chea? 232. What does the suffix-ectomy mean?
A. Tracheostomy A. excision, removal
B. Tracheoectasis B. operation on
C. Tracheosclerosis C. incision into
D. Tracheostenosis D. addition
1.3 Rheumatology
1. Tophaceous gout can mimic Rheumatoid C. Tophi usually firm and gritty like sur-
nodules. What are true? (multiple an- face, usually located at the bursa
swer) D. Tophi can also be at tendon, synovial,
A. Rheumatoid nodule firm and non ten- ligament and cartilage
der 2. Which of the following is NOT part of the
B. Rheumatoid nodule usually located at major criteria for ARF?
the extensor surface A. Abnormal Flinching Movements

1.3 Rheumatology 34
B. Arthralgias C. 100+
C. Painless rash D. none of above
D. Carditis 9. What are the true statement about back
pain? (multiple answer)
3. Who discovered Rheumatoid Arthritis?
A. Inflammatory back pain improves with
A. Alfred Garrod activity
B. Me B. Inflammatory back pain worse with
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Augustin Jacob Landre’-Beauvais movement and activities
D. You C. Inflammatory back pain can be pre-
ceded with history of trauma
4. The following are the clinical presentations
D. Mechanical back pain can be preceded
in Major Jones criteria
with history of trauma
A. Carditis
10. ARF is mainly caused by previous infection
B. Arthralgia to which microorganism?
C. Fever A. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Erythema marginatum B. Streptococcus pyogenes
5. Who discovered “Rheumatic Gout”? C. Haemophilus influenzae
A. Augustin Jacob Landre’-Beauvais. D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek 11. Rheumatic fever is caused by

C. Carl Wilhelm Scheele A. group B streptococcus
D. Alfred Garrod B. group A streptococcus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
6. What are the false statement of inflamma-
D. Staphylococcus pyogenes
tory arthritis. (multiple answer)
A. No nocturnal pain 12. What is a treatment for Rheumatoid
Arthritis?
B. Pain worse after use
A. Surgery
C. Morning stiffness >30 minutes
B. Medication
D. Systemic symptoms present
C. Therapy
7. In the diagnosis of ARF, which of the fol- D. All of the Above
lowing must be fulfilled?
13. What is false about laboratory investiga-
A. 1 Major + 1 Minor criteria tion in rheumatology?
B. 2 Major + 1 Minor criteria A. Normal ESR means absence of inflam-
C. 1 Major + 2 Minor Criteria matory arthritis
D. 2 Major + 2 Minor Criteria B. A negative rheumatoid arthritis factor
does not rule out rheumatoid arthritis
8. How many rheumatic diseases are there?
C. ANA is sensitive but not specific to SLE
A. 5 D. Synovial fluid analysis is most useful in
B. 50 initial evaluation of monoarthritis

1.3 Rheumatology 35
14. Uric acid is a build-up in what rheumatic 19. The following clinical presentations are
disease? present in Minor Jones criteria

A. Rheumatoid Arthritis A. Fever
B. Osteoarthritis B. Subcutaneous nodules
C. Gout C. Elevated CRP
D. Fibromyalgia D. Polyarthritis
E. Lupus
20. In rheumatic fever, the duration from
15. The most important laboratory test for the streptococcal infection to the onset of
diagnosis of rheumatic fever is symptoms is
A. Full blood count (FBC) A. 1-7 days
B. Anti streptolysin O titre (ASOT) B. 2-3 days
C. Blood electrolytes C. 2-3 weeks
D. Blood culture D. 2-3 months
16. Who is mostly affected? 21. Microscopically, the hallmark of acute

A. Women rheumatic fever is the presence of
B. Men A. granuloma
C. Children B. Aschoff body
D. none of above C. verrucae
D. Lewi body
17. What is the component of GABHS that is
highly antigenic, and stimulates antibod- 22. What are true statement about psoriatic
ies that cross-reacts with our body’s own arthritis? (multiple answer)
cells (Molecular Mimicry)?
A. Rheumatoid like arthritis
A. Streptokinase
B. Polyarthritis
B. Protein A
C. Arthritis mutilans
C. M Protein
D. DIP joint sparring
D. Streptolysin
E. Spondyloarthritis
18. What are true statement? (multiple an-
swer) 23. Which heart valve is most commonly af-
fected in RHD?
A. ACR criteria 1982 and 1987 is used to
diagnose SLE and rheumatoid arthritis re- A. Aortic valve
spectively . B. Pulmonic valve
B. SLICC is the newest criteria to diag- C. Tricuspid valve
nose rheumatoid arthritis
D. Mitral valve
C. The newest ACR/EULAR is used in di-
agnosing rheumatoid arthritis 24. If adequately treated, ARF patients are
D. ACR/EULAR can be used to identify usually discharged within:
new rheumatoid arthritis patient A. 3-5 days

1.4 Infectious diseases 36
B. 1-2 weeks 27. The commonest valvular abnormality in

C. 2-4 weeks rheumatic heart disease is
D. 1-2 months A. mitral regurgitation
25. Below are indication for referral to B. mitral stenosis

Rheumatology department except? C. aortic regurgitation
A. When the diagnosis is inflammatory D. aortic stenosis
type/ associated with connective tissue
NARAYAN CHANGDER
disease 28. Does RA have a cure?
B. Where the diagnosis is uncertain A. Yes
C. When patient requested B. No
D. When patient not responded to stan- C. Maybe
dard treatment given in Primary Care
D. none of above
Level
26. In determining the severity at baseline of 29. The following are the first-line treatment
carditis in ARF, it is imperative to request against precipitating GABHS infection, EX-
for? CEPT:
A. Electrocardiography A. IVIG
B. CBC with platelets B. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
C. ESR/ CRP levels C. Amoxicillin
D. Echocardiography D. Benzathine Penicillin G
1.4 Infectious diseases

1. There are limits to the effectiveness of an- B. Antibodies
tibiotics. Why is this?
C. Lymph
A. Viruses are not affected because they D. Vaccines
have no metabolism, and some bacteria
have evolved resistance. 3. If a human system fails to function prop-
B. Bacteria are not affected by antibi- erly, what is the most likely result?
otics, only viruses. A. a stable rate of metabolism
C. Only one species of bacteria is af- B. a disturbance in homeostasis
fected by a single antibiotic.
C. a change in the method of cellular res-
D. Only some types of virus and bacteria piration
are affected by antibiotics, because of the
evolution of resistance. D. a change in the function of DNA
2. Which of the following is a substance 4. Heredity, and environment contribute to

usually prepared from killed or weaken which type of diseases
pathogens? A. infectious
A. White blood Cells B. flu

C. contagious 9. Which of the following is the best explana-

tion of the likely consequences of a blood
D. noninfectious
clot forming in a coronary artery?

5. Vanessa is unaware of the three types of A. Part of the heart receives a slower sup-
bacteria shapes. She has to research it for ply of blood, and contractions of the heart
a science project. Which article is provides become irregular.
an accurate answer? B. The blood is prevented from getting to
A. IncrediblyCorrectFacts.net-“the three the cardiac muscle and it stops contrac-
types of bacteria shapes are bacilli, co- tion, the heart stops beating.
conut, and spirit” C. The blood stops flowing into the heart
B. RealScience.io-“the three types of bac- and this prevents the flow of blood around
terial stages are bacilli, cocci, and spirilla the body.
D. The blood clot moves from the coro-
C. MicrobiologyForDummies.org-“bacteria
nary artery to the brain causing a stroke.
can appear rod-shaped (bacilli), spherical
(cocci), and spiral-shaped (spirilla)” 10. how you can prevent spread
D. papajohns.com-“Better Ingredients. A. wear mask
Better Pizza” B. Abraham Lincoln
C. not wear mask
6. Which of these diseases cannot be pre-
vented through vaccination? D. none of above
A. common cold 11. Examples of infectious disease
B. mumps A. Tuberculosis
C. flu B. Cancer
C. Tinea
D. measles
D. leptospirosis
7. Viruses are difficult to eliminate because
12. What did they use in the 1700s to inocu-
they can
late healthy people for variolation?
A. kill fast
A. Pus from the utters of a cow
B. scare people B. Pus from a lymphnode of an infected
C. mutate patient
D. hide C. Pus from scabs of an infected patient

D. P us from the fresh sores of an in-
8. Bacteria are prokaryotes which means fected patient
they
13. What is one way a pathogen can enter the
A. have a nucleus on their capsule body?
B. do not contain a nucleus A. Nose
C. can live in environments with and with- B. Mouth
out oxygen C. Broken Skin
D. none of above D. All of the Aove

14. What is the job of the immune system? 20. Which is NOT a good way to help someone
A. To protect your body from drugs and who is sick?
medicine A. Make them chicken noodle soup
B. To protect your body from air and wa- B. Tell them to drink lots of water
ter C. Take them to a waterpark
C. To protect your body from pathogens D. Spend time with them
D. To protect your body from itself
21. A disease that spreads to a new area, but
NARAYAN CHANGDER
15. Most pathogens never enter the body be- stays in the same continent is called a/an
cause of your disease
A. skin A. epidemic
B. muscles B. pandemic
C. skeleton C. endemic
D. connective tissues D. sporadic
16. What organism causes tuberculosis? 22. (MIM) Brid’s rash on her inner thigh was
A. Bacteria actually a sign of
B. Virus A. trichinosis
C. Fungus B. strongyloidiasis
D. Protoctistan C. paragonimus westermani
E. Parasite D. schistosomiasis
17. Under which condition is a person most 23. Way a protozoan moves by lashing one or
likely to contract E. coli poisoning? more of its whiplike parts
A. eating burned food A. Flagellate
B. drinking bottled water B. Host
C. eating undercooked beef C. Viruses
D. eating undercooked vegetables D. Parasites
18. Viruses are 24. Which helminth can you get from eating
raw crab or crustaceans?
A. prokaryotic
A. Lung Fluke
B. eukaryotic
B. Schistomiasis
C. non-living
C. Hookworm
D. endospores
D. Elephantiasis
19. A virus infects a host in order to:
25. The symptoms of strep throat infection are
A. Take in nutrients. a red and swollen throat. What is the
B. Make the host sick. MOST likely cause of strep throat?
C. Make copies of itself. A. eating raw vegetables
D. Destroy the host’s cell. B. drinking lemonade

C. invading bacteria B. a mosquito bites a person

D. running in cold weather C. shaking hands with a person

26. common cold D. grabbing a dirty door handle
A. virus 31. What was the last large scale pandemic to

B. protozoa hit the world?
C. fungus A. German Measles
D. bacteria B. Russian Fever
E. parasite C. Spanish Flu

D. Welsh Whooping Cough
27. White blood cells are also called:
A. Pathogens 32. Twentieth-century research by such scien-
tists as Jonas Salk on the use of vaccines
B. Erythrocytes has reduced the number of people who are
C. Lymphocytes infected with
D. Disease-fighting cells A. polio.
B. stroke.
28. After an initial infection, B-cells recognize
the measles virus. How is this helpful in C. diabetes.
human immune response? D. tuberculosis.
A. The B-cells use this recognition to de-
fend the body against other pathogens, 33. Annie experienced continuous coughing,
such as bacteria. blood in phlegm, and fever after talking
to someone. What is the disease that she
B. The B-cells more quickly recognize and might be suffering from?
respond to any other virus that invades
the body. A. Dengue fever
C. The B-cells produce antibodies more B. Tuberculosis

quickly if the measles virus is encountered C. Zika
again. D. Leptospirosis
D. The B-cells transfer this recognition to
T-cells, which will then devour the viruses. 34. A person sneezes and does not cover their
mouth/nose. You are standing across
29. Which plants are vunerable to black siga- the room and breathe in some of the
toka? pathogens. This is
A. Potato A. direct transmission
B. Banana B. indirect transmission
C. Tomato C. alternative transmission
D. Papaya D. none of above
30. An example of indirect transfer of an infec- 35. What is the effect which thrombin has on
tious disease would be the process of blood clotting?
A. an animal bites a person A. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin

B. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin 41. What parasite is most often responsible

C. Platelets are caused to release clot- for the spread of Lyme disease?
ting factors. A. amoeba
D. Clotting factors are taken up by red B. crane fly
blood cells. C. dear tick
36. A reaction by tissues to any type of in- D. mosquito
jury by swelling, pain, heat, and redness
42. What is a Non-Infectious disease
NARAYAN CHANGDER
is called
A. Bacterial disease
A. phagocytosis
B. Disease
B. physical defense
C. Diseases that are not caused by a virus
C. inflammation
or a living organism
D. infection
D. Non of the above
37. What is athlete’s foot? 43. What animal kills the most people annu-
A. Virus ally?
B. Bacteria A. Grizzly Bear
C. Fungi B. African Elephant
D. Protist C. Mosquitos
D. Great White Shark
38. What benefit does lignin provide?
A. It is waterproof 44. Which statement explains why people suf-
fering from malaria and people suffering
B. It strengthens the cell membrane
from tuberculosis can both live in noth-
C. It is antibacterial ern Europe, but only tuberculosis can be
D. none of above passed onto the other people there
A. anopheles mosquitoes only breed in
39. Athlete’s foot is an example of this tropical and sub-tropical areas
pathogen
B. antibiotics can be used to cure people
A. Bacteria with tuberculosis
B. Virus C. migrant workers can carry the disease
C. Fungus with them
D. Protozoan D. tuberculosis bacteria cannot survive in
sub-tropical and tropical areas
40. It is okay to eat meat that is still red and
juicy inside only if 45. Which best explains why more than 300
million people in Asia are infected with
A. it is a cut of meat you like
malaria each year?
B. the core of the meat has been elevated A. There is no way to protect people
to the proper temperature while cooking against the disease.
C. it has been seasoned properly B. The parasites that cause malaria lack
D. only if it has been baked in an oven the ability to resist antibiotics.

C. The house fly contaminates food with C. Cleaning up someone’s blood off their
infectious bacteria that cause malaria. arm

D. Mosquitos are becoming resistant to D. Eating food that has been spit in
insecticides and continue to carry the dis-
ease. 51. The body’s system that fights pathogens
is the
46. more ways it can spread
A. Cardiovascular system
A. contaminated food/water
B. Immune system
B. reading
C. Digestive system
C. sleeping
D. Neurological system
D. none of above
52. The type of immunity in which the body
47. Infectious diseases are spread by makes its own antibodies is
pathogens transmitted from an infected
person to another person through A. active immunity
A. Contact B. artificial immunity
B. Water C. immunity
C. Air D. incubation period
D. Vector 53. Even more ways to prevent spread
48. What parasite spreads malaria? A. good hygiene
A. Deer Tick B. washing hands
B. phagocytes C. all of the above
C. protozoan D. none of above
D. Anopheles Mosquito
54. How did Dr. Edward Jenner prove that
49. How did cholera arrive in Haiti? cowpox virus inoculation was efficient in
protecting against smallpox virus infec-
A. Peacekeepers brought it from Nepal
tion?
when their feces contaminated a river
A. He guessed.
B. The earthquake displaced people and
animals which led to the spread of the dis- B. He wrote a good article.
ease C. He infected himself.
C. Hospitals had accidental outbreaks af- D. He tested it and proved it.
ter being heavily damaged by the earth-
quake 55. What is the best way of preventing dis-
D. It is endemic in Haiti and has always eases?
been present in consistent numbers A. cleaning
50. An example of direct contact: B. touching your face
A. A sneeze C. washing your hands
B. A classroom desk D. licking your fingers

56. Why has it proved difficult to develop a 60. What words signify an infection, or an in-
vaccine against malaria? vasion of the body by a pathogenic organ-
ism?
A. Mosquitoes have many stages in thier
life cycle. A. Want a break from the ads? by Spotify
B. The parasite are only vulnerable to att- B. healing, medicine, cure, health, ease
tack when outide the liver and red blood C. intrusion, break-in, security breach,
cells. thief, poison
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The human immune system doesnot D. bruise, wound, pain, blood, scrape,
recognise the antigens of the parasite. germs
D. Vaccines are repidly broken down by 61. Which of the following lists methods of
proteases in stomach. transmission of HIV?
57. How are quarantines used to slow the A. Sex without a condom, from breast
spread of an epidemic? milk, contaminated blood transfusions.
A. Quarantines prevent individuals from B. From saliva, sharing food and

eating food that is potentially contami- mosquito bites.
nated. C. From bodily fluids such as sweat, se-
men and saliva.
B. Quarantines allow enough time for an-
tibiotics to take effect in infected individu- D. Sex without a condom, mosquito bites
als. and contaminated blood transfusions.
C. Quarantines keep infected individuals 62. Which of the following cells can become
separate so they cannot pass the disease “memory” cells?
to others. A. A cells
D. Quarantines keep people inside their B. B cells
homes so that family members can pro-
vide care for each other. C. C cells
D. D cells
58. Which is the most effective defense
against the chicken pox virus? 63. The common cold is what type of
pathogen?
A. antibiotics
A. virus
B. diet
B. protozoa
C. exercise C. fungus
D. vaccine D. bacteria
59. Which set of diseases are all caused by a E. parasite
virus?
64. What is a vector?
A. AIDS, smallpox, tuberculosis A. Pathogen
B. strep throat, malaria, flu B. Organism that carries pathogen
C. influenza, chickenpox, polio C. Type of infectious disease
D. common cold, ringworm, smallpox D. Type of emerging disease

65. An infectious disease is spread between 71. What age group is more likely to come in-
different organisms and is caused by a(n) fected with the virus?

A. Genetic mutation A. Children
B. Exposure to toxic chemicals B. Teens
C. pathogens C. Adults
D. none of above D. All of the above
66. Bacteria have small tails that allow them 72. Which is the smallest pathogen?
to move that are known as A. a virus
A. Cocci B. a fungus
B. Flagellum C. a bacterium
C. Tails D. a tapeworm
D. Fungi 73. What are the organs attacked by the small-

pox virus?
67. What are some more treatments
A. Heart and liver
A. reading
B. Skin, spleen and lymph nodes
B. vaccines C. Lungs, stomach, and esophagus
C. Animal bites D. Ovaries and testes
D. none of above
74. Millions of people living all over the world
68. The whiplike tail on some bacteria that have cancer. Is cancer a pandemic?
help them move A. No, because cancer is not contagious.
A. Nucleoid B. No, because cancer is not always fatal.
B. Pili C. Yes, because millions of people have
cancer.
C. Flagella
D. Yes, because people all over the world
D. Cilia
have cancer.
69. Disease can spread through 75. Viruses
A. Direct contact with a carrier A. use a host to reproduce
B. Vector transfer B. breath oxygen
C. Indirectly C. grow
D. All of the above D. eat food
70. The best way to prevent from getting sick 76. a substance introduced into the body to
stimulate the production of chemicals that
A. wash you hands often for 20 seconds
destroy specific disease-causing viruses
B. avoid going out and organisms is called
C. stay home A. a vaccine
D. nothing-it’ll find you B. an injection

C. a booster 82. Which illness is always caused by an infec-

tion?
D. insulun
A. a heart attack
77. Koch first became famous for his work on B. a broken bone
A. Cholera C. influenza
B. Anthrax D. cancer
C. Tuberculosis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
83. helps to wash out any bacteria or
D. Measles viruses that you breath in.
A. muscus
78. What is the largest outer defense of the
body? B. cilia
A. Stomach Acid C. salivia
B. Mucous Membranes D. snot
C. Cilia 84. If the skin is broken then a blood clot forms

to seal this cut.What is the first step in the
D. Skin
process of blood clotting?
79. Which of these is not a physical barrier of A. Fibrinogen turns into fibrin
your body to disease? B. Platelets release clotting factors
A. skin C. Fibrinogen is converted into thrombin
B. mucous membranes D. Thrombin is converted into prothrom-
C. chemicals bin
D. hair 85. All of the following are pathogens EXCEPT:

A. Rickettsia
80. You can transmitt disesases by
B. Virus
A. coming in contact with people
C. Malaria
B. washing your hands
D. Protozoa
C. eating contaminated food/water
86. In the Lysogenic Cycle, which is true?
D. avioding contact with people
A. The virus immediately starts making
81. The bacteria that causes bubonic plague is copies of itself.
transmitted to humans by fleas. Which B. The virus lyses or breaks the cell apart
term best describes the role of the fleas right away.
in transmitting bubonic plague?
C. The virus goes into the cell, but does
A. decomposer not make any new copies right away.
B. parasite D. none of above
C. pathogen
87. Airborne disease can be prevented by prac-
D. vector tising the following, except

A. cover nose and mouth when sneezing C. parasitism

or cough. D. none of above

B. wash your hand with water only
92. Black sigatoka is an example of a
C. avoid being in crowded places
A. Virus
D. avoid handshake
B. Protist
88. Do nutrition disorders include in Non- C. Bacteria
Infectious diseases
D. Fungus
A. Maybe
93. The #1 YouTuber with more than 59 million
B. True subscribers.
C. False A. PewDiePie
D. I dont know B. DanTDM
89. Sharee had been ill for three days. When C. Markiplier
her mother took hter to the doctor, the doc- D. JennaMarbles
tor decided not to prescribe an antibiotic.
He said Sharee had a virus. Why are an- 94. The immune system fights disease by
tibiotics not able to cure viral infections? A. Attacking each pathogen it encounters
A. Antibiotics kill bacteria, not viruses. in the same manner
B. Antibiotics target only white blood B. acting as a physical barrier that pre-
cells. vents pathogens from entering the body
C. Antibiotics are not used to fight any in- C. causing blood vessels to shrink which
fections. forces pathogens out of the body
D. Antibiotics cause fevers that make D. producing a separate set of weapons
viruses stronger. for each kind of pathogen it encounters
90. What is the cellular response in acquired 95. Health department officials are trying to
immunity? identify the source of an outbreak of an
intestinal virus. Which is the most likely
A. Red blood cells bring oxygen to keep source of the virus?
us healthy
A. polluted air
B. Toxins cause of to get sick once
B. lack of exercise
pathogens enter
C. contaminated water
C. T-cells and macrophages attack
pathogens once antibodies recognize D. poor nutritional habits
them
96. Which is not an accomplishment of the
D. Antibodies attack pathogens once T- WHO?
cells recognize them
A. Eradicating Smallpox
91. Pathogens are examples of what type of B. Eliminating most of polio
lifestyle? C. Creating a vaccine for the common
A. Mutualism cold
B. commensalism D. Developing a vaccine for Ebola

97. Infectious diseases are caused by 103. Which of these is not a viral disease?
A. cilia A. measles
B. pathogens
B. common cold
C. antibiotics
C. salmonellosis
D. immunizations
D. mononucleosis
98. Which of the following is a chemical plant
NARAYAN CHANGDER
defence? 104. The first step in the Lytic Cycle is:
A. Producing antibacterial substances
A. The viruses lyse the cell and break out
B. Thorns and spikes of it.
C. Layers of dead cells B. the virus finds a host cell and attaches
D. Mimicry to it.
99. out of the following what are some exam- C. the virus enters the cell and puts its
ples of infectious diseases genes into the cell.
A. malaria D. takes over the host cell and turns it
B. flu into a virus factory.
C. asthma
105. An disease can also be called a com-
D. cataracts municable disease
100. Immunity in which antibodies are given A. infectious
to a person rather than produced within
the person’s own body B. noninfectious
A. Artificial Passive Immunity C. asthma

B. Natural Passive Immunity D. deadly
C. Artificial Active Immunity
106. A disease that commonly happens in an
D. Natural Active Immunity
area is called a/an disease
101. More ways prevent it A. endemic
A. avoid contact
B. epidemic
B. reading
C. pandemic
C. Barrack Obama
D. none of above D. sporadic
102. are one-celled organisms that can 107. How many stages of diseases are there?
cause diseases, such as malaria.
A. 1
A. fungi
B. 2
B. protists
C. viruses C. 3
D. bacteria D. 4

108. What is one of the ways that antibiotics 113. he French scientist Louis Pasteur con-
work? cluded that were the cause of most in-
fectious diseases.

A. They can stop bacteria from reproduc-
ing A. microorganisms
B. They can stop viruses from reproduc- B. flies
ing C. cells
C. They stop toxins from poisoning the tis- D. none of above
sues of hosts
114. What is thought of as the primary de-
D. They engulf the pathogens fenses against pathogens in the human
body?
109. Widespread immunity that protects the
population from the spread of disease is A. Lymphocytes and phagocytes
called B. Antibodies and lymphocytes
A. seropositivity C. The skin and mucous membranes
B. cross-reactivity D. The circulatory system
C. epidemic prophylaxis 115. Influenza is caused by:
D. herd immunity A. virus
110. A disease that is caused by germs and can B. bacteria

spread from person to person is called a C. parasite
A. Non Communicable Disease D. fungi
B. Communicable Disease 116. Which immunity is present at birth and
C. Allergy passed from the mother to the baby
through milk and the placenta?
D. Virus
A. Artificial Active Immunity
111. Which is a distinction between an epi- B. Natural Active immunity
demic and a pandemic?
C. Natural passive immunity
A. the symptoms of the disease
D. Artificial passive immunity
B. the geographical area affected
117. Dominic is struggling to remember the
C. the species of organisms infected distinction between an epidemic and pan-
D. the season in which the disease demic. “I though these terms were inter-
spreads changeable but ever since the start of the
COVID-19 outbreak it seems they are dif-
112. What is one the factors of Non-Infectious ferent. “Explain the difference between
diseases? these terms.
A. Age A. pandemic:a quick spread of a disease;
epidemic:an undetectable, asymptomatic
B. Eyes
disease spread
C. Bones
B. epidemic:a cured disease; pan-
D. Cornea demic:an unconfined disease

C. a Hawaiian luau 123. Ringworm is caused by

D. epidemic:a regional outbreak of a dis- A. Virus
ease; pandemic:a world wide epidemic
B. Fungi
118. Ananthan experiences severe vomiting
and diarrhea after drinking a glass of wa- C. protozoa
ter in the kitchen. What will happen to D. helminth
Ananthan if this condition prolongs?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. He will be suffering from dengue fever 124. The name for anything that causes dis-
B. He will recover after severe vomiting ease is known as:
and diarrhea A. Bacteria
C. .He will be dehydrated and it may lead
to death B. Pathogen
D. He will become thin and die C. Virus
119. Tetanus D. Protozoa

A. virus
125. Erick wants to avoid exposure to infec-
B. protozoa tious disease as much as possible. Which
C. fungus strategy can best help him do this?
D. bacteria A. eat a balanced diet
E. parasite
B. wash his hands regularly
120. A is a microscopic organism that
C. wear sunscreen outside
causes disease.
A. Parachute D. exercise several days a week
B. Pathology
126. The body’s resistance to a disease
C. Pathogen through the presence of anitbodies is
D. Disease known as
121. What action (or behavior) is the best way A. Virus
to prevent infectious disease?
B. Antibody
A. don’t leave the house
C. Vaccine
B. always wear gloves
C. wash your hands D. Immunity
D. cover your cough
127. Disease-causing microorganism, such as
122. a living thing that provides a virus with a bacterium or fungus.
a source of energy is called
A. antigen
A. a parasite
B. prion
B. a cell
C. a host C. pathogen
D. a bacteriophage D. allergen

128. An organism that lives on or in a host, D. Lymphatic system, immune system, in-
and causes it harm while it takes its nutri- flammation response
ents is called

133. A village has improved its supply of
A. a host clean water, sewage treatment, insect
B. a parasite contol and milk pasteurisation.Which dis-
C. a cell ease, present in the village will not be re-
duced by these measures?
D. a virus
A. HIV/AIDS
129. Two common pathogens are bacteria and B. cholera
viruses. All of the below are pathogens
EXCEPT- C. malaria
A. Parasite D. tuberculosis
B. Vector 134. is the disease that can be transmitted

C. Protist from one individual to other individual.
D. Fungi A. Non-infectious disease

B. Infectious disease
130. If you wanted to find a colony of protists,
where might you look? C. Genetic disease
A. Forest D. Sporadic disease
B. Desert 135. the process through which food is heated

C. Mountain to a temperature that is high enough to
kill most harmful bacteria without chang-
D. Pond ing the taste of food is called
131. Antibodies are only effective against a A. pasteur
specific pathogen because: B. pasteurization
A. The shape of the antibody is the C. pastuerology
same as the shape of the antigen on the
pathogen D. pasteuritis
B. The shape of the antibody is comple- 136. How do viruses quickly travel around the
mentary to the shape of the antigen on the world?
pathogen A. Airplanes
C. Antibodies cause a primary immune re- B. Boats
sponse
C. Email
D. Antibodies cause a secondary immune
response D. Shipping Containers
132. Your body’s first line of defense against 137. A disease causing agent is a
infectious diseases include A. vaccine
A. mucous membranes, saliva, tears B. mutagen
B. phagocytes, lymphocytes, pus C. pathogen
C. T cells, B cells, antibodies D. vector

138. Anitigens on pathogens which have got B. Pandemic

into the human body can lead to the de-
C. Quarantine
velopment of specific immunity. That is an
immunity which responds only to this anti- D. none of above
gen.Which of the following cells causes the
specific immunity? 144. Do Allergies spread?
A. Erythrocytes A. I don’t know
B. Macrophages B. True
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Lymphocytes C. False
D. Phagocytes D. Maybe
139. Stomatal closure is an example of what 145. Athlete’s foot and ringworm are two dis-
type of defence? eases caused by pathogens that are:
A. Physical A. Viruses
B. Passive Chemical B. Fungi
C. Active Chemical
C. Protists
D. none of above
D. Bacteria
140. Algae are similar to plants, yet they
don’t have 146. Joseph Lister’s methods dramatically re-
duced the percentage of patients who died
A. Roots from infection after
B. Flowers and Fruits
A. sickness
C. Stem
B. birth
D. Leaves
C. surgery
141. Which of the 3 microbes is the largest D. none of above
A. Virus
147. Which of the following is NOT an exam-
B. Bacteria
ple of an infectious disease?
C. Protist
A. West Nile virus
D. none of above
B. Strep throat
142. Which of the following can be
C. Lyme disease
pathogens?
D. Scurvy
A. Bacteria only
B. Viruses only 148. Which organ in the body does this corona
C. Bacteria and viruses virus primarily attack?
D. Neither bacteria or viruses A. Lung

B. Liver
143. What is a disease outbreak that effects
people in the same place at the same time. C. Brain
A. Epidemic D. stomach

149. What does a vaccine do? 154. Strep throat and Lyme disease are caused
A. Treats viral infections by pathogens that are:

B. Cures bacterial infections A. Bacteria
C. Copies viral DNA in the host B. Viruses
D. Helps the immune system create anti- C. Fungi

bodies D. Protists
150. When a pathogen is moved from per- 155. How does Callose prevent the spread of
son to person through physical touch (kiss- pathogens?
ing, hugging, close-up sneezing, shaking
A. Blocks the xylem
hands).
B. Blocks the sieve plates in the xylem
A. Transmission
C. Blocks the sieve plates in the phloem
B. Translation
D. Causes abscission
C. Emission
D. Direct Contact 156. What is the US agency that fights against
contagious diseases?
E. Indirect Contact
A. FDA
151. a tiny, non-living particle that invades
B. CDC
and then multiplies inside a living cell is
called C. WHO
A. bacteria D. UNESCO
B. a virus 157. define fungi
C. a fungi A. Zayn from One Direction
D. ha protist B. “Kingdom composed of heterotrophs;
152. Immunity that occurs when a person’s many obtain energy and nutrients from
own immune system produces antibodies dead organic matter”
in response to the presence of a pathogen C. “any of a group of spore-producing or-
when a person gets sick ganisms feeding on organic matter, in-
A. Natural Passive Immunity cluding molds, yeast, mushrooms, and
toadstools”
B. Natural Active Immunity
D. a process that occurs after food ex-
C. Artificial Active Immunity pires
D. Artificial Passive Immunity
158. Which of the following is NOT a way to
153. the body’s response to an infection by spread an infectious disease?
showing redness, swelling, & pain A. Direct contact ( like shaking hands)
A. immunization B. Droplets (Sneezing into the air)
B. mobilization (stage of infection) C. Not receiving enough vitamins in your
C. inflammation diet
D. none of above D. Animal bites

159. Athlete’s Foot is caused by: C. $8.6B

A. fungus D. $5.6 T
B. bacteria
165. What can you do to avoid contact with
C. parasite
pathogens?
D. virus
A. Cook food
160. Painkillers B. Wash hands
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Kill bacteria
C. Drink well water
B. Kill viruses
D. 1 & 2
C. Reduce symptoms
D. Prevent reinfection 166. Antibiotic means ‘against life’, so it is ef-
fective against what?
161. How does Ebola spread?
A. Viruses
A. Through blood
B. Fungi
B. Through fecal matter
C. Sharing drinks C. Bacteria
D. All listed above are true D. Parasites
162. How can disease spread 167. Infectious diseases can spread by contact
A. air with:
B. washing hands A. an infected person
C. isolation B. an infected animal
D. none of above C. a contaminated object or environmen-
tal source
163. which future development in vaccine pro-
duction is most importantin the fight to D. all of the above
eradicate measles in developing countries
A. a combined vaccine to combat it other 168. Antibodies help our body to fight off
diseases A. yellow snow
B. a single vaccine, without the need for B. antigens
boosters
C. t cells
C. a vaccine containing only live measles
viruses D. immune systems
D. a vaccine produced by genetic engi-
169. Which of the following is NOT one of the
neering techniques
four major types of human pathogens
164. Countries volunatrily donate money to A. bacteria
the WHO, what is the approximate bud-
get for the organization? B. viruses
A. $3.6B C. fungi
B. $5.6B D. plants

170. Bacteria can come in a variety of shapes. 176. why is it necessary for a person with a
Which of the following is NOT a shape of bacterial infection to be told to take antibi-
bacteria? otics at evenly spaced time intervals?

A. Cocci A. to increase the concentration of antibi-
B. Fusilli otic slowly to a level which is lethal to the
bacteria
C. Spirilla
B. to maintain concentration of antibiotic
D. Bacillus in the body which is lethal to the bacteria.
171. An example of indirect contact is: C. to prevent the development of resis-
A. Drinking out of your friend’s pop tant strains of bacteria
B. Kissing D. to select and kill the resistant strains
of bacteria
C. Shaking Hands
D. When changing a diaper, getting fluids 177. Many pathogens are kept out of the body
on your hands by the
A. immune system
172. treatment for disease
B. skin
A. vaccines
C. inflammation response
B. hang out with friends
D. lymphatic system
C. animal bites
D. none of above 178. If you want to stay well, which of these
should you do?
173. Which is NOT one way that pathogens A. exercise regularly
spread?
B. eat a balanced diet
A. droplets in the air
C. get enough sleep
B. food
D. all of these
C. through animals
D. water 179. Pathogens that are spread via animals
and insects. The animal or insect passes
E. through email the pathogen to people.
174. What is the single most effective way to A. Direct Contact
break the chain of infection? B. Indirect Contact
A. handwashing C. Airborne Transmission
B. sterilization D. Foodborne Tranmission
C. cleaning surfaces E. Vector-Borne Transmission
D. nutrition
180. Which is MOST likely a direct cause of an
175. Malaria is spread by.. ear infection?
A. Animal vector A. loud noises
B. Contaminated food or water B. foreign bacteria
C. Air C. wearing tight hats
D. Bodily fluids D. none of above

181. The chemical which increases blood flow A. Black Death

to area during inflammatory response is B. Covid Pandemic
called;
C. The Great Dying
A. Epiphelium
D. Spanish Flu
B. Eosinophil
C. Lysosome 187. Which of the following diseases can be
spread by mosquitoes?
D. Histamine
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. the common cold
182. How do you prevent the spread B. dengue
A. not cooking food C. influenza
B. touching people D. chicken pox
C. good hygiene
188. What is the function of a physical de-
D. none of above fence?
183. Living things that are too small to see A. Prevent entry and spread of a
without a microscope are called pathogen
A. Multi-cellular B. Kill a pathogen
B. Macroorganisms C. Deter a pathogen
C. Little Giants D. none of above
D. Microorganisms 189. Bacteria are tiny life forms that are made
184. What is the function of innate immune re- up of only cell.
sponse? A. One
A. Act very rapid as a first line of defense B. Two
to eliminate the infection C. Three
B. Trap microbes so they cannot spread D. Four
in our body freely
C. Coordinate and support adaptive im- 190. which disease is not likely to be passed
munity directly from parents to child
D. All of the above A. cholera

B. malaria
185. Which pathogen is a single-celled,
prokaryotic organism. C. sickle cell anaemia
A. bacteria D. tuberculosis
B. virus 191. Which of these diseases is called by bac-

C. fungi teria?
D. parasite A. strep throat

B. chicken pox
186. During the Columbian Exchange many In-
digenous People died. What was this pe- C. flu
riod called? D. none of above

192. of the world’s population live in an area C. Diabetes

ehere malaria is threat to health in recentt D. Strep throat
years there have been many more cases in

africawhat is the social factor letting the 198. Organisms that transmit pathogens are
spread of malaria get out of control? known as
A. an increase in drug resistant forms of A. parasite
malaria
B. antigen
B. climate change
C. virus
C. difficulty in producing a vaccine
D. vector
D. migration of people because of wars
199. Our contains mucus and ciliated cells
193. Antigens are to trap and remove invaders, as a passive
A. cells that help to fight off germs defense.
B. foreign substances that enter our body A. Digestive System
C. baby ants B. Respiratory Tract
D. t cells C. Reproductive Tract
194. Plants have cellulose walls-what type of D. Eyes

defence mechanism is this? 200. Quinn notices a rash on his elbow a few
A. Physical days after going to his neighborhood’s par-
B. Chemical ticularly dirty lake. What word would de-
scribe his condition
C. Mechanical
A. infection
D. none of above
B. contamination
195. What is a noninfectious disease? C. poison
A. A disease that can spread D. pollution
B. A pathogen
201. athlete’s foot
C. A disease that can’t spread
A. virus
D. Rabies
B. protozoa
196. Which is the first line of defense against
C. fungus
pahtogens?
D. bacteria
A. Stomach acid
E. parasite
B. Tears
C. Skin 202. Which pathogen is non-living?
D. none of above A. Virus
197. One example of a non-infectious disease B. Bacteria

is C. Fungi
A. Influenza D. Parasite/Protist
B. Pneumonia E. They are all alive

203. What pathogen do antibiotics attack? 209. What is the most common helminth in the
A. Virus world?
B. Bacteria A. Pinworm
B. Tapeworm
C. Fungi
C. Ascariasis
D. Protista
D. Lung fluke
204. Infectious diseases are
210. A virus is unique in that it
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. contagious
A. contains DNA
B. always deadly
B. contains RNA
C. both answers
C. reproduces in a short time
D. none of the above
D. cannot reproduce outside a living cell
205. Bacteria exchange genetic information
211. Which of these is not a disease that can
during
be treated with antibiotics?
A. asexual reproduction
A. flu
B. binary fission
B. strep throat
C. conjugation C. tetanus
D. photosynthesis D. sinus infection
206. Ticks are an example of this way of trans- 212. How intense were the clinical symptoms
mitting (spreading) disease of cowpox as compared to smallpox in hu-
A. Air-borne mans?
B. Vector A. More intense
C. Touching a surface B. Less intense
D. Contaminated food or water C. Same intensity
D. We cannot compare them as they are
207. How does a virus cause a person to de- caused by two different viruses
velop the common cold?
A. invades the host cell to reproduce 213. What is the name of the United Nations
organization created to help people around
B. removes energy from the host cell the world stay healthy?
C. produces toxins in the host cell A. FDA
D. protects the host cell from bacteria B. CDC
208. Which of these types of organisms CAN C. WHO
cause disease in a human? D. UNESCO
A. Protist
214. The four major types of human pathogens
B. Animal are bacteria, fungi, protists, and
C. Bacteria A. viruses
D. All of these B. pathogens

C. microbes A. industrial waste

D. none of above B. pesticides

215. An individual who has had chicken pox C. sewage
rarely gets this disease again. This situ- D. raw meat
ation is an example of
220. Which of the following are noninfectious
A. biological control diseases? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY!!
B. negative feedback A. cancer
C. active immunity B. diabetes
D. passive immunity C. Lyme disease
216. Bacteria are prokaryotic because D. allergies
A. they all produce their own food 221. Which pathogen is most likely to look like
B. they move on their own a worm or insect?
C. their cells do not have a nucleus A. Virus
D. their cells have defined nucleus B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
217. A disease that develop itself when your
own immune system attack your own cells D. Protist
is called an disease.
222. Ten people became sick with the flu after
A. autoimmune attending a school dance.What likely hap-
B. cancerous pened?
C. allergy A. Contact with environmental sources
D. degenerative B. contact with an infected animal
C. contact with a contaminated object
218. How do T cells differ from B cells?
D. contact with an infected person
A. T cells fight pathogens by killing
pathogens directly, while B cells fight 223. Your body’s ability to destroy pathogens
pathogens by making antibodies. that is has previously encountered before
B. T cells only make memory cells, and B A. Killer T Cells
cells only make antigens
B. Immune System
C. T cells fight pathogens by making an-
tibodies, while B cells fight pathogens by C. Immunity
killing pathogens directly. D. none of above
D. T cells can only fight off pathogens the 224. A disease that is caused by a pathogen
body has encountered once, and B cells
can fight off any pathogen the body comes
across. A. Inflammatory Disease
B. Infectious Disease
219. A cholera outbreak in the 1800s was
spread by polluted drinking water. Which C. Immunity Disease
best describes the cause? D. Immune Response

225. “Cholera, Typhoid, Amoebic dysen- C. Fungi

tery”are the common diseases that are D. Parasite
transmitted through
230. What is the name of a growth that blocks
A. air
the xylem?
B. touch
A. Callose
C. vector B. Lignin
D. water C. Tylose
NARAYAN CHANGDER
226. body lice D. none of above
A. virus 231. Which disease is transmitted by
B. protozoa mosquitoes?
C. fungus A. ascariasis
D. bacteria B. trichinosis
C. elephantiasis
E. parasite
D. strongyloidiasis
227. In 1918, an outbreak of influenza in-
fected 500, 000 people all over the world. 232. How long should you wash your hands?
Tens of millions of those infected died. In A. 5 seconds
1994, an outbreak of pneumonic plague B. 10 seconds
spread quickly through the city of Surat in
C. 15 seconds
India, killing 52 people. Which statement
BEST describes the two events? D. 20 seconds
A. Both outbreaks were pandemics. 233. Which is of these is NOT a way in which
B. Both outbreaks were epidemics. pathogens can be spread.
C. The influenza outbreak was a pan- A. mutated genes

demic. The plague outbreak was an epi- B. food and water
demic. C. infected animals
D. The influenza outbreak was an epi- D. contaminated objects
demic. The plague outbreak was a pan-
demic. 234. Which is not an example of how infec-
tious diseases can spread?
228. What do we call bacteria that are shaped A. Sharing a book with a friend.
as spirals?
B. Eating food that has expired.
A. spirilla
C. Drinking dirty water.
B. baccilli
D. Being bitten by a mosquito.
C. cocci
235. last time
D. none of above
A. jjkk
229. What is ring worm caused by? B. vv nb
A. Virus C. Which VG milk powder
B. Bacteria D. gvc gfn fg

236. Fungi grow best in these environments. B. Give the patient paracetamol
A. warm, moist C. Give the patient anithistamine

B. cool, dry D. Send the patient home
C. cold, humid
242. malaria
D. warm, dry
A. virus
237. In Monsters inside me the woman, Brid,
was first misdiagnosed with B. protozoa
A. a rash C. fungus
B. an allergic reaction D. bacteria
C. poison oak E. parasite
D. poison ivy
243. Which would most likely prevent a cold
238. Transmission of disease may occur virus from spreading through a class-
through room?
A. Physical contact with infected individu- A. Have a large supply of tissues on the
als teacher’s desk.
B. Body fluid
B. Have all students wash their hands
C. Contaminated object regularly with soap.
D. All of the above C. Have all students shake hands regu-
239. How can you avoid getting an infectious larly with all students.
disease from food? D. Have all students wipe desk with dry
A. Eat chicken or beef that is under paper towel at end of class.
cooked.
244. types of immunity the body has are:
B. Eat raw eggs
A. T cells and B cells
C. Keep hot foods hot
D. Only use the refrigerator to store left- B. Antigens and Antibodies
overs. C. Specific and Non Specific
240. What pathogen causes West Nile, In- D. Good and Bad
fluenza, and the common cold?
A. bacteria 245. Our white blood cells can fight invaders
by (choose three)
B. fungi
A. producing antibodies
C. viruses
B. trapping them in one place
D. prions
C. consuming them
241. If a patient has a serious infectious dis-
ease, to reduce the spread to others a hos- D. producing anti-toxins
pital would.. E. physically removing them from the
A. Isolate the patient body

246. Some health care professionals recom- C. A disease that can only be spread by
mend that children use insect repellent be- mosquitoes.
fore going outside. Using insect repellent D. A disease that can be caused by disin-
is a good way to keep the insects from fectants.
A. reproducing.
252. A tiny organism that causes an infectious
B. laying eggs. disease is called a-
C. spreading disease. A. microorganism
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. dying. B. virus
247. The disease that ravaged Europe from C. pathogen
1500-1700’s was know as what? D. bacterium
A. The Black Death
253. How did the smallpox virus infection
B. Cholera spread most frequently?
C. Malaria A. Through the air
D. Tuberculosis B. Through the soil
248. Which of the following is not a cause of C. Through blood
emerging diseases? D. Through feces
A. contact with infected animals
254. Leukocytes include a wide range of differ-
B. drug resistance
ent white blood cells. Which of the follow-
C. globalization ing are responsible for destroying cancer-
D. increased immunization ous cells?
A. Neutrophils
249. Pathoges are
B. Eosinophils
A. disease causing microorganisms
C. Natural Killer Cells
B. agents that caused diseases
D. Macrophages
C. causes of illness
D. all of these 255. An antibody is
A. a blood protein produced in response
250. Which country is threatening to leave the to an antigen
WHO?
B. not a body
A. Canada
C. an immune defense to viruses only
B. Great Britain
D. the cells responsible for attacking and
C. South Korea defeating healthy tissue.
D. USA
256. Lyme disease, rabies and malaria are
251. What is an infectious disease? mostly spread by
A. A disease that cannot be spread to oth- A. bites from insects / animals
ers. B. contaminated foods like chicken and
B. A disease that can be spread to others. beef

C. contaminated objects like door knobs 262. What is a widespread outbreak of a virus
and desks in a community?
A. Epidemic

D. indirect contact with an infected per-
son B. Epidermis
257. A virus that attacks bacteria cells are C. Pandemic
known as: D. Panic
A. Antibiotics 263. What sort of pathogen causes influenza
B. Antivirals (flu)?
C. Bacteriophages A. A bacterium
D. Plant Cells B. A virus
C. A fungus
258. Which pathogen needs a host cell to re-
D. A protist
produce?
A. virus 264. An example of passing disease person to
person would be
B. bacteria
A. Touching a door knob
C. fungus
B. Eating spoiled food
D. parasite/protist
C. Sharing a drinking container
259. Pathogens spread from person to person D. Touching infected animal
by objects (chairs, medical equipment, of-
fice supplies, doorknobs, etc.) 265. What type of disease is an auto-immune
disease?
A. Direct Contact
A. non-infectious disease
B. Indirect Contact
B. Dietary disease
C. Airborne Transmission C. Environmental disease
D. Foodborne Tranmission D. Occupational disease
E. Vector-Borne Transmission
266. Contagious, disfiguring and often deadly
260. What do viruses need to reproduce? disease that has affected humans for thou-
sands of years. Eradicated worldwide by
A. They need genetic material
1980.
B. They need a host cell A. Smallpox
C. They need a moderate temperature B. Anthrax
D. They need ATP C. Plague
261. What percentage of infected people D. Ricin
would die after smallpox virus infection? 267. Malaria is caused by:
A. 13% A. parasite
B. 30% B. fungi
C. 33% C. virus
D. 3% D. bacteria

268. Which is the best method for preventing B. False

a parasitic disease? C. Only in New Mexico
A. vaccination D. none of above
B. wearing a mask
273. The best environment for fungi is
C. limiting physical contact with others
A. Cool and damp
D. avoiding contaminated food and water
B. Warm and dry
NARAYAN CHANGDER
269. cholera is no longer common in many C. Cool and dry
countries.what is the reason for this?
D. Warm and moist
A. education of the citizens about the
spread of the disease. 274. Addition of lignin to cell walls is an ex-
ample of what type of defence?
B. routine vaccination by local health au-
thorities A. Physical
C. treatment of water supplies and seper- B. Passive Chemical
ate sewage treatment C. Active Chemical
D. treatment of water to control D. none of above
mosquitoes
275. Diarrhea and cholera are examples of dis-
270. Humans with HIV can transmit the HIV eases that spread
virus to other humans even though they
A. through food and water
do not show the symptoms of the disease.
Which term best describes the unaffected B. through the air
individual? C. by animals
A. carrier D. by physical contact
B. contagion
276. what would cause an oubreak of malaria
C. mutagen in a country where it had been eliminated?
D. vector 1.mosquitoes became resisant tp insec-
ticides2.migration of population due to
271. Which of the following is an effec- war3.malarial parasites became resisant
tive method of preventing infection by to quinine
Malaria?
A. 1 & 2 only
A. Use pesticides to kill the mosquito B. 1 & 3
(vector)
C. 2 & 3
B. Quarantine the mosquitos that carry
the parasite D. 1, 2 & 3
C. Provide condoms to prevent transmis- 277. Inflammation occurs during which line of
sion of parasite during sex defense?
D. Drink plenty of water A. First Line
272. Viruses that often attack bacteria cells, B. Second Line
often look like little spacecraft. C. Third Line
A. True D. Fourth Line

278. What is the scientific name for elephanti- B. Avoid crowds

asis
C. Stay long in the crowded places

A. paragonimus westermani
D. Wash hand often.
B. taenia solium
C. enterobius vermicularis 284. After World War I, an outbreak of the
D. wuchereria bancrofti Spanish Flu killed 50 million to 100 million
people around the world. Which best de-
279. fungi use tiny cells able to grow into new scribes this occurrence?
organisms to reproduce. these tiny cells
A. Epidemic, because it happened within
are called
a relatively short time span.
A. endospores
B. Epidemic, because it affected many in-
B. spores dividuals in multiple countries.
C. sponges
C. Pandemic, because it happened within
D. spones a relatively short time span.
280. Which of the following disease is NOT D. Pandemic, because it affected many in-
caused by a virus? dividuals in multiple countries.
A. Tetanus
285. What is Cancer?
B. Flu
C. Common Cold A. An uncontrolled growth of abnormal
cells in the body
D. Measles
B. When your cells die
281. A host is:
C. Lack of red blood cells
A. An organism that harbors a pathogen
D. All of the above
B. Grant Denyer on Family Feud
C. An animal that transmits a pathogen 286. Which antibiotic was developed from a
D. A microorganism that has been trans- fungus and has been used to cure many ill-
mitted nesses that could have led to epidemics?
282. An infectious disease is a disease that is A. aspirin

caused when a pathogen is passed from B. ethanol
one organism to another. The nonliving
pathogen is the C. penicillin
A. Virus D. acetaminophen
B. Parasites
287. The study of the spread of disease is?
C. Protozoa
A. Pathology
D. none of above
B. Biology
283. How do protect ourselves and others
from coronavirus? C. Anatomy
A. Wear a mask D. Epidemiology

288. A tapeworm lives in the intestines of its D. Febreze!

host. Which examplebest describes the re- E. a wounded dog barking at a bird’s nest
lationship between the tapeworm and its
host? 293. How are pathogens spread?
A. The tapeworm benefits from its host; A. Infected People
however, the host is not affected.
B. Infected Animals
B. The tapeworm does not benefit from
its host, but the host does benefit. C. Contaminated Objects
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. The tapeworm benefits from its host, D. Contaminated Food, Soil, or Water
and the host is negatively affected. E. All of the Above
D. none of above
294. Which virus kills more people than any
289. is the organisms that cause diseases. other annually and over time?
A. Bacteria A. Black Plague
B. Pathogen B. Covid
C. Probiotic C. Flu
D. Mosquito D. Malaria
290. Which of these is MOST likely to be 295. The best way to reduce your chances of
spread when two people drink from the getting sick is to
same water bottle?
A. WASH YOUR HANDS!!
A. asthma
B. share towels
B. malaria
C. use drugs or alcohol
C. strep throat
D. internalize stress
D. hay fever
296. There are many different types of
291. Which list the symptoms of E-Coli? pathogens. Select all of the choices which
A. Headache, Sneezing, Fever may be a pathogen.
B. Cough, Dry skin, Vomiting A. Bacteria
C. Fever, Nausea, Vomiting, Bloody Diar- B. Virus
rhea C. Dust
D. Stomach Ache, Headache,
D. Fungi
292. What is a good example or analogy to
297. Sars-Cov2 virus that lead to Covid19 dis-
use for host cells?
ease is example of disease that trans-
A. a human cell being attacked and in- mitted through droplet transmission.
truded by influenza
A. waterborne
B. the COVID-19 vaccine being adminis-
B. airborne
tered to patients
C. an infected tick latching itself to and C. landborne
feeding off of a praying mantis D. none of above

298. Select three ways your immune system D. The ability to resist most types of dis-
can attack pathogens eases will increase.

A. Phagocytosis 303. What are noninfectious diseases?
B. Mitosis A. Diseases that are not caused by
C. Producing antibiodies pathogens
D. Producing antitoxins B. The ability to destroy pathogens be-
E. Respiration fore they cause you to be sick
C. Diseases that are caused by
299. What type of cell kills invading cells di- pathogens
rectly?
D. Diseases that can be transfered from
A. Helper T Cells one person to another
B. Cytotoxic T Cells
304. An infectious disease is a disease that is
C. B cells
caused when a pathogen is passed from
D. Cytokines one organism to another. The single-celled
eukaryotes pathogen is the
300. What type of pathogen causes athlete’s
foot? A. Bacteria
A. Virus B. Protozoa
B. Bacteria C. Virus
C. Fungi D. none of above
D. Protist 305. Which activity would stimulate the hu-
man immune system to provide protection
301. Which of the following is part of the in-
against an invasion by a microbe?
nate immune response?
A. receiving antibiotic injections after
A. Neutrophils
surgery
B. Cell-Mediated Response
B. choosing a well-balanced diet and fol-
C. Inflammation lowing it throughout life
D. Humoral Response C. being vaccinated against chicken pox
302. Which statement best describes what D. receiving hormones contained in
will most likely happen when an individual mother’s milk while nursing
receives a vaccination containing a weak-
ened pathogen? 306. Over a two-week period, several stu-
dents complain of feeling sick. Their symp-
A. The ability to fight disease will in- toms include a cough, fever, and a sore
crease due to antibodies received from throat. What describes the MOST likely
the pathogen. cause of these symptoms?
B. The ability to fight disease caused by A. exposure to hot weather
the pathogen will increase due to antibody
production. B. decrease in physical exercise
C. The ability to produce antibodies will C. consumption of bad food

decrease after the vaccination. D. infection by a virus

307. Non-infectious diseases can be caused by C. Vaccines are absorbed by the body af-
A. Pathogens ter a year.
B. Animal bites D. Vaccines get stronger over time.
C. Lifestyle choices 313. What would happen to a virus if it

couldn’t find a host cell to attack and in-
D. Contaminated water
vade?
308. Agents that cause infectious diseases can A. it would not be able to multiply
NARAYAN CHANGDER
be transmitted in many ways like
B. it wouldn’t be able to travel through
A. through the air the air
B. through contaminated water C. its genetic material would whither
C. through body fluids away
D. all of the above D. it would not be able to exist
309. What do we call bacteria that are shaped 314. An animal that transmit pathogen from
as spheres? one host to another is called a
A. spirilla A. species
B. vector
B. baccilli
C. predator
C. cocci
D. prey
D. none of above
315. In what ways can you contract a disease
310. A disease that is found in small amounts,
from an infected person?
consistently within a population
A. Shaking hands
A. pandemic
B. Coughing
B. endemic
C. Kissing
C. epidemic
D. All of the above
D. outbreak
316. Skin protects a person from pathogens by
311. Malaria is a common disease in many
countries. What is the cause of this dis-
A. being thin and easy to allow things
ease?
through
A. a virus
B. shedding occasionally
B. a bacterium
C. serving as a protective layer that
C. a fungus keeps foreign objects out
D. a parasite D. allowing bacteria to enter if it is
healthy
312. Why do doctors suggest that people get
a flu vaccine each year? 317. Pathogens known as must get inside
A. Viruses replicate more rapidly over cells to reproduce.
time. A. viruses
B. Viruses can mutate from year to year. B. bacteria

C. fungi 323. Bacteria can be circular in shape which is

known as
D. protist

A. Rod
318. The proteins in your immune system that B. Cocci
fight disease are called
C. Flagellum
A. lymph cells.
D. Antibiotics
B. white blood cells.
324. The example of diseases that spread
C. amino acids. through the air is ..
D. antibodies. A. Tuberculosis
319. What can you do to prevent mosquitoes B. chickenpox
from breeding around your home? C. skin disease
A. Change the water in the vase regularly D. diarrhea
B. Make sure that toilets and bathrooms 325. What is the immune system’s main pur-
are kept dry pose?
C. keep the drain fill with water A. Let’s germs into the body.
D. Empty out or overturn any water con- B. Helps your body fight off illness and
tainers around your home disease.
C. The immune system produces illness
320. Which pair correctly matches a vector and and bacteria.
the infectious disease it carries?
D. The immune system trap germs in an
A. human-influenza organ so they do not spread.
B. opossum-rabies
326. What is the main symptom of cholera?
C. mosquito-malaria A. Muscle ache
D. flea-Lyme disease B. Diarrhea
321. Which helminth can you get from eating C. Fever
infected pork/bear meat? D. Appetite loss
A. ascariasis 327. Which are examples of non-infectious dis-
B. hookworm eases?
C. dracontiasis A. malaria & influenza
D. trichinosis B. asthma & strep throat

C. common cold & measles
322. What are infectious diseases caused by?
D. hemophilia & cancer
A. Bacteria
328. Which of the following is not an example
B. Pathogens of infectious disease?
C. Vaccinations A. Cholera
D. Viruses B. Influenza

C. Cancer 334. How do vaccinations protect you from fu-

D. Ringworm ture infections?
A. injecting you with antibodies to cause
329. What is Muscular dystrophy?
a small immune response
A. a group of muscle diseases that re-
sults in increasing weakening and break- B. injecting you with dead or inactive
down of skeletal muscles pathogens to cause a small immune re-
sponse
B. One muscle breaks down
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. injecting you with white blood cells to
C. Two muscles break down cause a small immune response
D. Your tendons get destroyed
D. preventing bacteria from replicating
330. Which disease is correctly paired with the
cause of the disease? 335. An infectious disease is a disease that is
caused when a pathogen is passed from
A. athlete’s foot-fungi
one organism to another. The prokaryotic
B. malaria-viruses pathogen is the
C. influenza-bacteria A. Bacteria
D. pneumonia-protists B. Virus
331. What is Circulatory system disease? C. Protozoa
A. A disease in your liver D. none of above
B. It is an Coronary artery disease
C. A chronic disease 336. the statements refer to the disease tu-
berculosis1. the patthogens live inside hu-
D. A disease in your pancreas man cell so is not accessible to the im-
332. Which cell create the antibodies? mune system 2.the bacterial pathogen re-
produes slowly 3.the pathogen is not very
A. Killer T cells sensitive to antibioticwhich explains why
B. Helper T cells antibiotic treament for TB takes a long
time?
C. B cells
D. T cells A. 1, 2 & 3
B. 1 & 2
333. Which makes it possible for a person who
has recovered from a cold to catch another C. 1 & 3
cold?
D. 2 & 3
A. A cold is a viral infection with many dif-
ferent strains. 337. Bacteria are used to create foods such as
B. A cold is a bacterial infection that re-
mains active in the body. A. Spaghetti
C. A cold is a bacterial infection present B. Pizza
only during the winter months.
C. Hamburgers
D. A cold is a viral infection that remains
active until treated with antibiotics. D. Yogurt

338. A disease that is widespread throughout C. better worldwide urban sanitation

the globe (world) D. improved global quarantine facilities

A. pandemic
344. When you sneeze, you should cover your
B. epidemic mouth & nose.Other than that, you could
C. endemic
D. outbreak A. Sneeze to a person’s face
B. Pretend to laugh
339. Which has made the most significant dif-
ference to reduce the spread of epidemics C. Sing a song
and pandemics worldwide? D. Sneeze to your inner elbow & sleeves
A. water treatment 345. Which of the following can lead to antibi-
B. decreased pollution otic resistance?
C. increased medical aid A. Taking antibiotics for viruses
D. none of above B. Not taking all you prescribed antibi-
otics
340. Which of the following is NOT a common C. Bacterial mutations
symptom of the coronavirus?
D. All of these
A. lost of smell.
346. Liz notices that shortly after cutting her
B. shortness of breath.
arm accidentally the area around the cut is
C. rash. turning red and feeling hot. Which immune
D. Fever and chill. system defense is Liz experiencing?
A. inflammation
341. How can infectious diseases be spread
from one person to another? B. white blood cell clotting
A. trough the air C. skin
B. by physical contact D. fever
C. by animals 347. Which of these diseases is caused by a

fungus?
D. through food and water
A. athlete’s foot
342. The main foods in which the salmonella
B. pinworms
bacteria live in are
C. mononucleosis
A. bread, pasta, cereal
D. common cold
B. nuts, beans, berries
348. One way to prevent the spread of an in-
C. carrots, celery, tomatoes
fectious disease:
D. poultry, eggs, meat
A. sharing tissues
343. Which tool is MOST responsible for pre- B. drinking from your friend’s water bot-
venting future pandemics of smallpox? tle
A. worldwide vaccination for smallpox C. washing your hands
B. global education about smallpox D. eating rotten food

349. An infectious disease is a disease that is 354. Where does a parasite “nest? ”
caused when a pathogen is passed from A. a bird nest
one organism to another. A pathogen can
be B. On a good host.
C. a pond.
A. Bacteria
D. a bed.
B. Virus
C. Parasites 355. The proper name for germ
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All the above A. parasite
B. pathogen
350. What is asthma C. pathosite
A. When you have diabetes D. papasurf
B. A disease where you need a inhaler
356. Which function is associated with phago-
C. A respiratory condition marked by at- cytes in the blood?
tacks of spasm in the bronchi of the lungs A. initiating blood clots
D. When you can’t breathe B. transporting dissolved nutrients
351. Which disease in humans is caused by a C. producing hormones
parasite? D. engulfing bacteria
A. HIV/AIDS 357. which of the following is false?
B. influenza A. coli NEVER causes diseases
C. malaria B. coli provides vitamin K for its hosts
D. yellow fever C. coli gets nutrients from intestinal con-
tents
352. Lyme disease is spread by ticks and peo- D. none of above
ple affected with Lyme disease often ex-
hibit a rash and symptoms similar to the 358. How does a Parasite infect us?
flu. Which is the cause of Lyme disease?
A. Enters body through food, water, or
A. a virus cuts in skin
B. a toxin B. Digested or come in contacted with the
parasite
C. a fungus
C. Airborne
D. a bacterium
D. none of above
353. What do we use to kill harmful bacteria
359. Which type of blood cells are capable of
in mammals and humans?
ingesting pathogens?
A. Vaccine A. Erythrocytes
B. Antibiotic B. Antibodies
C. Toxin C. Lymphocyte cells
D. none of above D. Phagocyte cells

360. When you are sick, which of these should 365. A pathogen is any organism that causes
you do? a disease. Which of the following is an ex-
ample of a pathogen that infects humans?

A. drink fluids and rest
B. go to school A. parasite
C. push yourself to feel better B. plasmid
D. stop taking medicine as soon as you C. plant cell

start to feel a little better D. plasma membrane
361. A microorganism that causes disease is 366. Health care experts who study trends
called a: in health issues in populations and de-
A. White blood cell ploy public announcements, education ini-
tiatives, and protocols to protect the
B. Pathogen
health of the nation.
C. A spore
A. epidemiologists
D. none of above
B. dermatologists
362. In preclinical trials C. medical examiners
A. Drugs are tested on human cells and D. immunologist
tissues only
B. Drugs are tested on human cells and 367. Which disease broke out in Haiti follow-
tissues then on live animals ing the earthquake? Most people died
from getting this disease from unclean
C. Drugs are tested on human volunteers drinking water.
only
A. Cholera
D. All of the above
B. The Plague
363. The best way to treat the common cold is C. Ebola
to
D. Zika
A. drink plenty of soda and eat junk food
B. drink plenty of water and get plenty of 368. The blood cells that fight pathogens.
rest A. Leukocytes
C. take over the counter medications that B. Red blood cells
only treat the symptoms
C. Plasma
D. take opioids to ease the discomfort
D. Hemoglobin
364. Which of the following activities will
cause a person to suffer from diseases 369. Which cells are the “locator cells” that
that are spread through touch? identify a pathogen then signal for help?
A. Flood A. Killer T cells
B. Sharing of towel B. Helper B Cells
C. Consuming contaminated food C. Helper T cells
D. Overuse of mosquito repellent D. Nerve cells

370. Vaccines are used to prevent diseases by 375. Pathogens like to “attack” humans be-
which type of pathogen? cause they seek which of the following:
A. virus A. shelter
B. bacteria B. food source
C. parasite C. place to multiply
D. fungi D. all of the above
NARAYAN CHANGDER
371. Injecting a small amount of inert (’dead’) 376. Which of the following is NOT responsi-
viruses or bacteria to help your white ble for causing infectious diseases?
blood cells recognize them is
A. Rickets
A. Antibiotics
B. Bacteria
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Fungi
C. Endocytosis
D. Viruses
D. Immunization
377. which of the following increases the risk
372. Which infectious disease/s are caused by of contracting cholera? 1. drinking un-
eating raw or under cooked food? (choose pasteurised milk2. eating shellfish which
as many as needed) have fed on raw sewage3. living in over-
crowded conditions
A. hookworm
A. 2 only
B. beef tapeworm
B. 1 & 2
C. pork tapeworm
C. 1 & 3
D. fish tapeworm
D. 2 &
373. The tiny hairs on the inside of your nose
are called 378. Which of the following agents cause
strep throat?
A. cilia
A. Virus
B. epidermis
B. Parisite
C. salivia
C. Bacteria
D. eyelashes
D. Protozoan
374. What was the biggest source of contami-
nation of fresh drinking water in early civ- 379. Norovirus is a highly contagious stomach
ilizations? virus that easily passes between people.
What type of disease is it?
A. Animals living close to people
A. Noninfectious
B. Lack of a water source (desert condi-
tions) B. Infectious
C. Wells that are not dug deep enough C. Cellular
D. Aqueducts were not built high enough D. Viral

380. The body’s system that fights pathogens. B. Pandemic

A. Cardiovascular system C. Epidermis

B. Immune system D. Infrastructure
C. Digestive system
385. Which is an example of passive immu-
D. Neurological system
nity?
381. Weslie knows what multicellular means A. people being vaccinated against dis-
but she is struggling to come up with an ease
example for her science vocabulary home-
work. “I know multicellular means a life B. people taking vitamins to boost their
form containing more than one cell to per- immune response
form life processes like the back of my C. people receiving antibodies from their
hand! But it is difficult to find an exam- mothers before birth
ple. Could you help me? ”Brainstorm for
Weslie D. people producing antibodies against
organisms that cause diseases they have
A. humans, chimpanzees, seahorses,
had previosuly
rhinoceroses, leopards, mole rats, sala-
manders, Venus flytrap, tulips, cacao
386. What is responsible for detecting differ-
trees
ences between the body’s own cells and
B. Escherichia coli, Diatoms, Protozoa, cells of another organism?
Protista, Streptococcus, Pneumococci, Di-
noflagellates A. The endocrine system
C. DJ on Fuller House B. The immune system

D. none of above C. The brain
382. Which type of noninfectious disease is de- D. The cardiovascular system

fined as a problem in a biochemical path-
way in the body? 387. Some human white blood cells help de-
stroy pathogenic bacteria by
A. inflammatory disease
A. causing mutations in the bacteria
B. metabolic disease
B. engulfing and digesting the bacteria
C. degenerative disease
D. cancer C. producing toxins that compete with
bacterial toxins
383. Examples of pathogens
D. inserting part of their DNA into the bac-
A. Virus terial cells
B. bacteria
388. Antibiotics affect
C. protozoa
A. Viruses
D. fungi
B. Bacteria
384. What is it called when virus spreads
across a nation or around the world? C. Bacteria and Viruses
A. Epidemic D. Bacteria, Viruses, and Fungi

389. An organism that lives on or in a host and 395. What is the plural for fungus?
causes it harm is called A. funguses
A. a host B. fun guys
B. a parasite C. fangs
C. a cell D. fungi
D. a virus
396. Which famous billionaire said we are not
390. A disease that can be spread from person- ready for the next pandemic?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
to-person, animal or objects A. Jeff Bezos
A. A disease B. Bill Gates
B. Infectious C. Elon Musk
C. Communicable D. Oprah Winfrey
D. Noncommunicable
397. Why do antibiotics have little or no ef-
391. What is used to treat someone with a fect on human cells, yet they can cause the
bacterial infection such as strep throat death of bacteria?
A. aspirin A. Antibiotics block prokaryote cell pro-
B. radiation cesses, but not the processes in eukary-
ote cells.
C. antibiotics
B. Antibiotics can only affect cells below
D. ibuprophen
a certain size.
392. How is cholera transmited? C. Human cells have a protective plasma
A. food borne, water borne membrane which prokaryote cells don’t
have.
B. exchange of f;uids
D. Antibiotics are made of proteins which
C. insect vecor
cannot pass through the plasma mem-
D. airborne droplets brane.
393. Which type of pathogen likes to grow in 398. Tannins are an example of what type of
dark, warm, moist areas and is responsi- defence?
ble for ringworm?
A. Physical
A. Bacteria
B. Passive Chemical
B. Viruses
C. Active Chemical
C. Fungi
D. none of above
D. Protists
399. smallpox has been eradicaed, but not
394. A disease that has a large outbreak in an malaria or cholera which satements cor-
area and affects many people rectly explains this? 1. cholera bacteria in
A. pandemic the intestines are not desroyed by antibi-
B. endemic otics 2. plasmodium antigens change dur-
ing the lifecycle 3. smallpox antigens re-
C. epidemic mains stable4. vaccines only work agains
D. outbreak viruses

A. 1, 2 & 3 405. Which pathogen is treated with antibi-

B. 1, 2 & 4 otics?

C. 1, 3 & 4 A. virus
D. 2, 3 & 4 B. bacteria
400. Chicken pox is an extremely contagious C. parasite
disease. Which organ is most frequently D. fungi
affected by chicken pox?
A. brain 406. Which is an example of a disease caused
B. intestines by fungi
C. lungs A. Diphtheria
D. skin B. The Common Cold
401. Bioremediation is using bacteria to fight: C. Strep Throat
A. Lions D. Athlete’s Foot
B. Plants
407. Chicken pox, the flu, and COVID-19 are
C. Viruses diseases caused by
D. Pollution
A. Bacteria
402. The proper way to sneeze is to sneeze B. Fungi
into
C. Protists
A. your cupped hand
B. out into the open D. Viruses
C. inside the front of your shirt or into 408. Tooth decay is an infection that causes
your bent elbow pressed against your deterioration of the protective enamel on
shirt. teeth, resulting in damage. Tooth decay is
D. into the hair of the person sitting in MOST likely caused by
front of you.
A. bacteria.
403. Which of the following two diseases are B. acidic food.
caused by virused?
C. allergies.
A. HIV/AIDS & cholera
B. malaria & cholera D. genetic defects.
C. measles & smallpox 409. Which of the following statement best de-
D. TB & HIV scribes the way to prevent transmission of
diseases through water?
404. Which is NOT a function of the skin
A. Drink boiled water
A. to keep us waterproof
B. to keep germs out B. Use mosquito repellent
C. to help us run faster C. Do not share towels with others
D. to keep our internal organs protected D. Do not swim in swimming pool

410. A pathogen is D. Infectious diseases cannot be trans-

A. A protein on the surface of bacteria mitted from one organism to another; non-
infectious diseases can.
B. A drug taken to cure an illness
C. A protein produced by the body to stop 415. Several types of infectious agents can
infection cause disease in humans. One group of
these infectious agents are classified as
D. Any micro-organism that causes infec- prokaryotes because all of its members
tious disease have a cell that lacks a nucleus or other
NARAYAN CHANGDER
membrane-bound organelles. Which of the
411. T lymphocytes are used in which type of
following infectious agents is classified as
immune response?
a prokaryote?
A. Humoral Immune Response
A. virus
B. Cell-Mediated Immune Response
B. fungus
C. Antibody-Mediated Immune Response
C. Parasite
D. Inflammatory Immune Response
D. Bacterium
412. Even more ways it can spread
416. What is a good way to prevent getting
A. sleeping
an Infectious disease?
B. reading
A. good hygiene
C. animal bite
B. coming in cantact with people that are
D. none of above sick
413. Which of the following is a strategy to C. drinking comtaminated water

control the spread of disease at the indi- D. eating food that is not cooked properly
vidual level? or not washed
A. Quarantine
417. Which pathogen has spores that are car-
B. Contact tracing ried through the air?
C. Personal hygiene measures A. protist/parasite
D. School and workplace closures
B. fungi
414. Which best distinguishes an infectious C. bacteria
disease from a noninfectious disease?
D. virus
A. Infectious diseases can be cured with
antibiotics; noninfectious diseases can- 418. All the resources necessary to support an
not. activity to end an epidemic or pandemic is
B. Infectious diseases can be prevented called what?
with vaccines; noninfectious diseases A. Bureaucracy
cannot.
B. Infrastructure
C. Infectious diseases can be spread
C. Superstructure
from one organism to another; noninfec-
tious diseases cannot. D. none of above

419. Which best describes how athlete’s foot C. a normal condition by body react to
is spread to other individuals? certain foreign substance

A. inhaling fungal spores in the air D. none of above
B. eating food contaminated with fungus
425. Immunizations cause your body to
C. having contact with fungus on a
shower floor A. create antibodies
D. swimming in a lake that has a large B. shut down
amount of algae C. get sick
420. a single-celled organism that lacks a nu- D. increase your chances of contracting a
cleus is called disease
A. a bacteriophage
426. What is ring worm?
B. a virus
A. Virus
C. a protist
B. Bacteria
D. bacteria
C. Fungi
421. Transmit means to
D. Parasite
A. To power an engine
B. A program or signal that is sent out 427. What was it called when Europeans ex-
C. Pass from one place or person to an- plored the world and traded with the na-
other tives in the Western Hemisphere?
D. none of above A. American Express

B. American Exchange
422. A fomite is a/an
A. type of worm C. Columbian Exchange
B. type of parasite D. Columbian Deals

C. inanimate object that harbors a 428. The most common infectious disease in
pathogen the U.S.A. is
D. disease A. flu
423. What are the Non-infectious diseases? B. whooping cough
A. Allergy C. common cold
B. Asthma D. strep throat
C. All of the above
429. What is the scientific name of Lung
D. Alzheimer’s disease
Fluke?
424. A disease is A. taenia saginata
A. an illness that cause by toxic chemical
B. necator americanus
expose by our body.
C. wuchereria bancrofti
B. an abnormal condition on body and
mind that cause discomfort. D. paragonimus westermani

430. What are germs? 436. Different groups of agents that caused
A. Animals such as cockroaches and rats. diseases are
B. Rotten food. A. bacteria
C. Harmful micro-organisms. B. viruses
D. Viruses. C. protozoans
D. all of these
431. Which of the following is a physical plant
defence? 437. There are several ways to protect the
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Producing antibacterial substances human body from diseases caused by in-
fectious agents. Which of the following
B. Thorns and spikes plays the main role in preventing infectious
C. Tough waxy cuticles agents from entering the body?
D. Mimicry A. skin
432. What is the name of the fungi that forms B. lungs

on rotten food? C. intenstines
A. infectious diseases D. digestive system Fungi only reproduce
B. bacteria sexually, while bacteria reproduce asexu-
ally.
C. viruses
438. Which pathogen is treated with anti-
D. mould
fungal cream?
433. What pathogen causes the common A. fungi
cold?
B. virus
A. Virus
C. parasites
B. Bacteria
D. bacteria
C. Fungi
439. Bacteria reproduce by
D. Protista
A. sexual reproduction only
434. A disease that moves from one conti-
B. asexual reproduction only
nent to another new continent is known
as a/an disease. C. usually asexual, sometimes sexual re-
production
A. epidemic
D. a unique type of reproduction called
B. endemic
endosporosis
C. pandemic
440. organism (usually refers to humans) that
D. sporadic harbors pathogens and transmits them to
435. How is malaria spread? others-they are typically asymptomatic
A. Enters body through food, water, or A. envelopes
cuts in skin B. craters
B. Carried by animal vector C. carriers
C. Airborne D. vortexes
D. none of above E. vectors

441. a disease is a B. Direct skin to skin contact with the in-

A. an abnormal state in which the body is fected person

not functioning normally C. Consuming contaminated food
B. a disorder of structure or function in D. Sharing of needles
an organism
445. An individual receive an injection of anti-
C. I got beans, greens, potatoes, toma- bodies is an example of
toes, lambs, rams, hogs, dogs you
name it! A. Natural Active Immunity
D. the process of infecting or the state of B. Artificial Active Immunity

being infected C. Natural Passive Immunity
E. the action or state of making or being D. Artificial Passive Immunity
made impure by polluting or poisoning
446. A disease caused by a pathogen is a(n)
442. Where would a disease transmitted by
person-to-person contact be most likely to A. infectious
spread quickly?
B. childhood
A. In a remote region, where contact be-
C. noninfectious
tween people is rare.
D. none of above
B. In a rural farming community, where
neighbors live miles apart. 447. Strep Throat is caused by:
C. In a crowded city. A. virus
D. In a medical lab, where people wear B. bacteria
protective gear (face masks, gloves, etc.)
C. fungi
and equipment is regularly sterilized.
D. parasite
443. Which of the following best describes the
effect of HIV on the immune system. 448. Since we have our immune system to pro-
tect us from disease, why do we still need
A. HIV infection causes a reduction in the
a vaccine?
number of active blood cells resulting in a
high fever. A. Because some diseases are too se-
vere for our immune system.
B. HIV reduces the number of active lym-
phocytes limiting the body’s ability to pro- B. Because adaptive immunity takes days
duce antibodies. to weeks to initiate a response and some-
times it is too late.
C. HIV reduces the number of active ery-
throcytes limiting the production of anti- C. Because some people are immune de-
bodies. ficient or have weak immune systems.
D. HIV reduces the number of phagocytes D. All of the above
which in turn limits the production of anti-
449. Select all the organisims that CAUSE In-
bodies.
fectious Diseases
444. What can cause ringworm on the skin? A. Viruses
A. Bitten by mosquitoes B. parasites

C. vectors 455. Select the non-infectious disease.

D. bacteria A. Tinea
B. Tuberculosis
450. Bacteria help break down food in our
C. Dengue fever
A. Lungs
D. Cancer
B. Brain
C. Guts 456. Why should you cover food with a food
cover?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Bladders
A. To keep bacteria away from the food.
451. In parts of london, there was an increase B. To prevent the spread of diseases
in the number of cases of tuberculoisis (TB) through physical contact.
in the 1980sWhich factor is most likely to
C. To prevent the spread of diseases by
have contributed to this?
animals.
A. Increased Air Pollution.
D. To prevent the spread of diseases
B. Increased drug abuse. through the air.
C. Increased pathogen mutation rate. 457. In our immune system experiment, pep-
D. Overcrowded accommodation. per represented
A. germs
452. What organism causes Ring rot in
plants? B. t cells
A. Bacteria C. b cells
B. Virus D. immunity
C. Fungus 458. All bacteria are
D. Protoctistan A. unicellular
E. Parasite B. multicellular
C. eukaryotic
453. Which disease is correctly linked to its
causative agent and method of infection? D. none of above
A. a 459. Which of the following are examples of
B. b hydrolytic enzymes, used in active chemi-
cal defense?
C. c
A. Cellulase
D. d
B. Chitinase
454. malaria is which type of pathogen? C. Glucogenase
A. virus D. Glucanase
B. protozoa
460. A protein made by white blood cells to
C. fungus fight a specific pathogen.
D. bacteria A. Antibody
E. parasite B. Antivirus

C. Allegra 466. The outer layer of the skin is called the

D. Allotment A. germy skin

B. epidermis
461. Which vector is associated with the West
Nile virus? C. epi-pen
D. top skin
A. birds
B. mosquitoes 467. What is the most common way conta-
gious infections are spread?
C. squirrels
A. through the air
D. ticks
B. through food
462. A secondary immune response will be C. touching
faster when D. through water
A. The individual has encountered the 468. Information below shows microor-
pathogen already ganisms that can cause infectious dis-
B. The individual’s macrophages are on eases.Virus, bacteria, protozoa and fungi
high alert can cause infectious diseases.These mi-
croorganisms are known as
C. The individual has encountered the
pathogen and has memory B cells circulat- A. unicellular organisms.
ing B. pathogen.
D. Antibodies are produced by T cells C. vaccine
D. antigen
463. What do antibiotics cure?
469. What does a virus need to survive?
A. bacteria
A. Destroy the host cell
B. virus
B. Host cell for reproduction
C. parasite
C. Steal nutrients from the host
D. fungus
D. Host cell for warmth
464. Infectious is another word for 470. What type of pathogen grows best in
A. contagious warm, dark, moist areas?
B. illness A. Bacteria
B. Protozoan
C. disease
C. Virus
D. non-contagious
D. Fungi
465. In autoimmunity, which attacks the
471. One way to prevent the spreading of dis-
body’s own proteins?
ease is:
A. antigens A. to cough without covering your mouth.
B. allergens B. to wash your hands often.
C. antibodies C. to rub your eyes and nose when sick.
D. antihistamines D. none of above

1.5 Haematology 82
472. How can you prevent Non-Infectious dis- ters the body. Which body system is
eases? mainly responsible for preventing an in-
A. None of the above fectious agent that enters the body from
spreading and causing disease?
B. All of the above
A. the nervous system
C. Walking
D. Exercising B. the immune system
C. the circulatory system
473. In all living thing, the basic unit of life is
NARAYAN CHANGDER
the D. the respiratory system
A. nucleus
475. Aspirin originally came from
B. DNA
A. Foxgloves
C. cell
D. Brain B. Bread mould
C. Tobacco
474. The human body has a system that re-
sponds whenever an infectious agent en- D. Willow
1.5 Haematology
1. The lack of sufficient red blood cells in the 4. A decrease in WBC is termed as
blood system is called whereas an increase is termed
A. cyanosis A. Leucocytosis, Leucocytopenia
B. anemia B. Thrombocytopenia, Thrombocytosis
C. hemochromatosis C. Lymphocytopenia, Lymphocytosis
D. hypoxia D. Leucocytopenia, Leucocytosis
5. Define haematocrit.
2. How many blood groups exist?
A. fraction of MCV that consist of intact
A. 4
RBC
B. 3 B. fraction of plasma left in intact RBC
C. 2 C. fraction of blood volume that consists
D. 6 intact RBC
E. 8 D. fraction of haemoglobin count in intact
RBC
3. What antigens are present in a person
with type AB blood? 6. WBC’s are composed of granulocytes
(neutrophils, , and ) and non-
A. B granulocytes ( and monocytes).
B. A and B A. Eosinophils, Basophils, Lymphocytes
C. A B. Eosinophils, Lymphocytes, Basophils
D. none C. Basophils, Lymphocytes, Eosinophils

1.5 Haematology 83
D. none of above 13. Bonus QuestionWhat is a neutrophil with

6 or more lobes called?
7. Which of the following is not a function of

blood? A. Hyposegmented Neutrophil
A. help fight disease B. Hypergranular Neutrophil
B. transports nutrients, oxygen, wastes, C. Hypersegmented Neutrophil
and hormones D. Hypogranular Neutrophil
C. to distribute neorotransmitters
14. The most active site of iron absorption is
D. distributes heat
A. duodenum.
8. Which of the following is the reference B. stomach.
range for RDW?
C. jejunum.
A. 33-37gm/dL
D. ileum.
B. 82-96fL
C. 27-33pg 15. When performing a manual differential
count, the MT should count a minimum of
D. 11.5-14.5pg
cells?
9. Which of the following WBC is associated A. 50
with allergy?
B. 100
A. Neutrophils
C. 200
B. Lymphocytes
D. 400
C. Eosinophils
D. Monocytes 16. Which component of blood is responsible
for helping to stop bleeding?
10. What blood type is the “universal donor”
because it can be donated to anyone? A. platelets
A. A B. red blood cells
B. B C. white blood cells

C. AB D. plasma
D. O 17. The process of stopping bleeding
11. The function of red blood cells is to A. homeostasis
A. Fight against pathogens B. hemostasis
B. Transport Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide C. phagocytosis
C. To form blood clot D. dermatographia
D. none of above 18. Which of the following is not a blood com-
12. What does blood transport? ponent?
A. Nutrients A. Red blood cell
B. Oxygen B. White blood cell
C. Carbon Dioxide C. Serum
D. All of the above D. Cerebrospinal fluid

1.5 Haematology 84
19. Define mean cell haemoglobin concentra- 24. CD marker TdT is associated with what
tion (MCHC). type of Malignancy?
A. The average volume per red cell A. Lymphoblastic Cells
B. The coefficient of variation of red cell B. Mature Cells
volume C. Normal Cells
C. The average conentration of ahe- D. none of above
moglobin in given volume of packed
25. Define haematology
NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. The average mass of haemoglobin per
red cell A. Study of disease based on laboratory
analysis of body fluid
20. Define mean cell haemoglobin (MCH). B. Study of diseases of blood and bone
A. The average volume per red cell marrow
B. The coefficient of variation of red cell C. Study of disease
volume D. Study of disease based on tissue sam-
C. The average conentration of ahe- ple
moglobin in given volume of packed
26. Discovery of Chemotherapy has Some-
D. The average mass of haemoglobin per thing to do with?
red cell
A. War
21. Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia which shows B. Peace
t ( 9:22) is an example of what genetic
C. Human Good Nature
problem?
D. Donation from Caring People
A. Inversion
B. Translocation 27. What part of blood is responsible for clot-
ting blood?
C. Substitution
A. Red Blood Cells
D. Deletion
B. White Blood Cells
22. Which of the following is the reference C. Platelets
range for MCV?
D. Plasma
A. 33-37pg
28. Low mean cell volume (MCV), high iron
B. 82-92fL binding capacity and low serum ferritin
C. 27-33fL level are most consistent with
D. 11.5-14.5pg A. iron deficiency anaemia.
B. B12 deficiency anaemia.
23. Who am I? I am the largest (in size) blood
component and have a nucleus. C. Folate deficiency anaemia.
A. white blood cell D. autoimmune hemolytic anaemia.
B. red blood cell 29. Red blood cells are
C. platelet A. thrombocytes
D. hemoglobin B. neutrophils

1.5 Haematology 85
C. monocytes C. B
D. erthryocytes D. O

30. Plasma Cells Produce what? 36. What organ pumps blood throughout the
A. Lymphokines body?
B. Cytokines A. eyes
C. Antigens B. skin
D. Antibodies C. liver
31. Which blood type can receive any other D. heart
blood type? 37. Another name for hematocrit is
A. Type-A A. packed cell volume
B. Type-B B. mean corpuscular hemoglobin
C. Type-O C. mean cell volume
D. Type-AB D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
32. Which one of the following is a cause of
38. Agglutination occurs when blood type an-
pancytopenia
tibodies come into contact with blood type
A. thalassemia. antigens to which they correspond. What
B. aplastic anemia. is agglutination?
C. iron deficiency anemia. A. Red blood cells burst and die
D. hereditary spherocytosis. B. Red blood cells are clumped together
and become non-functional
33. Cytotoxic T cells Attach to Which receptor
prior to Initiating Apoptosis? C. Antibodies bind to the antigens and
then render the red blood cell non-
A. MHC Class 1
functional
B. Viral Receptor
D. A system in which transfusions can oc-
C. MHC Class 2 cur
D. Nucleolar Receptor
39. Which of the following correctly illustrates
34. Define mean cell volume (MCV). the maturation phases of a neutrophil?
A. The average volume per red cell A. Blast > Promyelocyte > Metamyelo-
B. The coefficient of variation of red cell cyte > Myelocyte > Band Neutrophil >
volume Segmented Neutrophil
C. The average conentration of ahe- B. Blast > Promyelocyte > Segmented
moglobin in given volume of packed Neutrophil > Myelocyte > Band Neu-
trophil > Metamyelocyte
D. The average mass of haemoglobin per
red cell C. Promyelocyte > Blast > Myelocyte
> Metamyelocyte > Band Neutrophil >
35. Which blood type contains only Anti-A an- Segmented Neutrophil
tibodies?
D. Blast > Promyelocyte > Myelocyte
A. AB > Metamyelocyte > Band Neutrophil >
B. A Segmented Neutrophil

1.6 Endocrinology 86
1.6 Endocrinology
1. What is the main function of the endocrine 6. Lack of thyroid hormone during develop-
system? ment results in short stature and mental
A. it creates chemicals that are sent deficits
around the body to maintain homeostasis A. Cretinism
B. it creates electrical messages that are B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
NARAYAN CHANGDER
sent around the body to maintain home-
C. Thyroid Storm
ostasis
D. Acromegaly
C. it maintains the correct level of oxygen
in the body to maintain homeostasis 7. Secreted in endocrine cells and remains in
D. it releases waste from the body to relation to plasma membrane; acts on im-
maintain homeostasis mediately adjacent cell by direct cell-to-
cell contact
2. Secreted in the neurons and released into
extracellular space; binds to receptor in A. Juxtacrine
nearby cell and affects its function. B. Endocrine
A. Neuroendocrine C. Paracrine
B. Endocrine D. Exocrine
C. Exocrine
8. The basal membrane of the thyroid cell has
D. Neurocrine
the specific ability to pump the iodide ac-
3. Screening test for growth hormone defi- tively to the interior of the cell
ciency A. Iodide trapping
A. Physical activity test/Exercise B. Iodine trapping
B. Insulin Tolerance Test C. Iodinization
C. Arginine stimulation test
D. Deiodinization
D. 24 hour serum GH levels
9. Transthyretin is also called as
4. Which of the following produces Calci-
tonin? A. Pre Albumin
A. Parafollicular cells B. Thyroxine binding globulin
B. Colloid C. Albumin
C. Parathyroid gland D. Ceruloplasmin
D. Pendrin 10. Synthesized and stored within the cell in
5. Major stimulus of growth hormone secre- the form of secretory granules and are
tion cleaved as needed
A. Sleep A. Peptides and Proteins
B. Somatostatin B. Amines
C. Fasting and High protein diet C. Steroids
D. Levodopa D. None of the above

11. The “master gland” of the endocrine sys- C. Physical Activity Test
tem, a gland that controls many body ac- D. 75 g OGTT
tivities.

A. hormone 17. Which of the following inactivates thyroid
hormone?
B. pituitary gland
A. D1
C. hypothalamus
B. D2
D. adrenal gland
C. D3
12. What hormone is responsible for the D. D4
“fight or flight” response?
18. Insulin causes
A. Testosterone
A. a decrease in the concentration of
B. Cortisol
blood glucose
C. Adrenaline
B. a decrease in the permeability of cell
D. Parathyroid Hormone membranes to glucose
13. The major constituent of colloid is the large C. an increase in the production of glu-
glycoprotein called cose from glycogen
A. Thyroglobulin D. a release of adrenaline into the body
B. Albumin 19. Which gland secretes insulin?
C. Thyroxine binding globulin A. Pancreas
D. Thyrpoeroxidase B. Ovaries
14. This part of the brain that links the ner- C. Pituitary
vous system and the endocrine system. D. Thymus
A. Pancreas 20. In what scenario might your body release
B. Hypothalamus adrenaline?
C. Pituitary gland A. when you’re waking up from a long
night’s sleep
D. Pineal gland
B. when there isn’t enough calcium in
15. Peripheral monodeiodination of T4 pro- your bloodstream
duces how much additional T3?
C. when you’re threatened by a school-
A. 25 mg yard bully
B. 25 mcg D. when you’ve had too much to eat
C. 15 mg
21. Are lipid molecules that have cholesterol
D. 5 mcg as a common precursor
16. Gold standard for diagnosing Growth Hor- A. Steroids
mone deficiency B. Amines
A. Insulin Tolerance Test C. Peptides and Proteins
B. Arginine Stimulation Test D. none of above

22. The process by which an organism’s inter- C. Insulin Tolerance Test

nal environment is kept stable in spite of D. Serum IGF 1 levels
changes in the external environment.
A. Positive Feedback 28. Process wherein tyrosine residues are iod-
inated by iodine
B. Negative Feedback
A. Organification
C. Homeostasis
B. Iodide trapping
D. Targeted Cells
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Deiodinization
23. The purpose of the endocrine system is to
D. Iodinizarion
A. maintain homeostasis by reacting
quickly to stimuli 29. Conversion of T4 to T3 takes mainly in the
B. produce substances that protect the liver and
body from bacteria A. Kidneys
C. maintain metabolism, growth and de- B. Placenta
velopment in homeostasis
C. Peripheral adipose tissues
D. transport molecules throughout the
body D. Gastrointestinal lining
24. The chemical product of an endocrine 30. Feedback loops are important because
gland. they allow organisms and the environment
to
A. Homeostasis
A. change based on new inputs
B. Hormone
B. fall apart
C. Nerve Cell
C. change based on new outputs
D. Neurotransmitter
D. maintain balance
25. Amount of T4 the thyroid secrete per day
A. 80 mg 31. If the environment gets cold, we will often
shiver in order to:
B. 80 mcg
A. keep body temperature the same as
C. 5 mg the external temperature
D. 5 mcg B. decrease body temperature
26. What does melatonin do? C. increase body temperature
A. Raises our blood sugar D. regulate blood pressure
B. Regulates our blood pressure
32. They are water insoluble (hydrophobic)
C. Regulates our metabolism and circulate bound to a carrier protein
D. Regulates our sleep cycle A. Steroids
27. Confirmatory test for Acromegaly B. Amines
A. Glucose Suppression Test C. Peptides and Proteins
B. Arginine Stimulation Test D. None of the above

1.7 renal medicine 89
33. Minimum daily requirement of Iodine in the B. Paracrine

diet
C. Exocrine

A. 75 mcg
D. Juxtacrine
B. 15 mg
C. 15 mcg 35. The pituitary gland is most similar to:
D. 15 g A. a worker in a factory
34. Secreted in one location and release into B. a mail carrier
blood circulation; binds to specific receptor
to elicit physiological response C. the boss of a big office
A. Endocrine D. a security guard
1.7 renal medicine

1. The determinants of glomerular ultrafil- 4. Brian has been to his GP and his GP had
tration: they are glomerular capillary referred him for an MRI of the Lumbar
hydraulic pressure, intracapillary oncotic Spine. Brian calls DH, what will you ad-
pressure, and ultrafiltration coefficient. vise Brian?
The significant drop in capillary hydraulic
A. Limit does not apply to conservative
pressure leads to:
back treatment when scans are done out-
A. Glomeruloesclerosis of-hospital
B. acute kidney injury B. Patients younger than 18 can not go for
C. Increased nitric oxide this MRI scan
D. none of above C. An Authorisation number is required
2. Who is responsible for facility outcomes in D. An Authorisation number is not re-
a QAI meeting quired
A. Clinical Manager
5. Acidosis occurs when
B. Director of Operations/Area Manager
A. too many free H+ ions aresent in the
C. Medical Director blood
D. none of above B. retention of HCO3-is present
3. Creatinine/BUN ratio in acute kidney in- C. there is loss of H+ is excessive
jury
D. All of the answers are correct
A. Pre-renal Cr/BUN >20, Renal Cr/BUN
<20 6. A commonly prescribed thiazide diuretic is
B. Renal Cr/BUN >20, Pre-renal Cr/BUN what?
<20 A. Aldactone
C. Renal Cr/BUN <10, Pre-renal
B. Dyrenium
Cr/BUN>30
C. Lasix
D. Renal Cr/BUN <20, Pre-renal Cr/BUN
>30 D. Microzide

7. Jen has been admitted for migraines and C. endothelial cells

is required to go for a CT scan of the brain,
D. podocytes
this will be her 2nd CT Brain for migraines.
Select the correct answers as to what you 12. The sedimentation is obtained from a urine
will advise Radiology when they call for sample of recent emission, from which
funding: they are centrifuged at:
A. 1 scan per benefit year
A. A: 10 cm at 2, 000 revolutions.
B. DH doesnt fund for CT Brain in hospital
NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. B: 8 cm 5, 000 revolutions.
C. There is no limit to brain scans for mi-
graines C. C:35cm 14, 000 revolutions
D. Additional clinical info is required D. D:4cm 45.00 revolutions
8. Urolithiasis is the the medical term for 13. Normal glomerular filtration rate in young
what? adults
A. Tx used to break up kidney stones A. 100 A 200 ml/min/1.73 mL
B. kidney stones B. 150 A 170 ml/of/1.l
C. urinary blockage C. 120 A 130 ml/of/1.gm
D. none of above D. 80 A 100 mL/min/1.73 mL
9. Substance that in the renal arteriolar en-
dothelium produces afferent arteriolar va- 14. What does the Trauma Recovery Extender
sodilatation and efferent arteriolar vaso- Benefit not cover?
constriction A. Severe Burns
A. Endothelial B. Poisoning
B. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide C. Over the counter medication
C. Nitric oxide D. Dentistry
D. Angiotensin II
15. Where will claims for the Trauma Recovery
10. The Renal Dialysis Benefit includes cover Extender Benefit be funded from?
and payment for haemodialysis and peri-
toneal dialysis from where? A. Above Threshold Benefit
A. Hospital Benefit B. Medical Savings Account
B. Above Threshold Benefit C. Hospital Benefit
C. Risk Benefits D. Insured or Risk Benefit
D. Medical Savings Account
16. Causes of Hypoglycemia-Choose all that
11. Cell type of the glomerulus that stabilizes apply
the glomerular architecture and is respon- A. Delayed eating after taking insulin
sible for 40% of the hydraulic resistance
of the filtration barrier. B. Glucose removal during dialysis
A. intercalated cells C. Nausea and vomiting
B. mesangial cells D. Eating large meals

17. The following principle corresponds to:” B. secretion

The test is based on the so-called protein C. filtration
error of pH indicators. In the reaction zone

of the strip there is a buffer mixture and D. absorption
an indicator that changes color from yel-
22. Select the factors that increase the value
low to green in the presence of protein in
of the BUN
the urine, even though the pH remains con-
stant.” A. dehydration
A. Ph B. low protein intake
B. Specific Gravity or Density C. overhydration
C. Glucose D. Aspirin
D. Proteins
23. Nocturia is defined as
18. Please select the correct pathway when A. “bedwetting”
navigating to get to the list of Accredited
GP’s allowed to request CT’s and MRI’s B. inability to completely empty the blad-
der
A. Pinpoint Discovery Health Provider
Lists GP Network C. form of insomnia
B. Pinpoint Reference Guides Health D. none of above
Contact List
24. How many stages of Chronic Kidney Fail-
C. Pinpoint Discovery Health Benefits ure are there
and Services MRI and CT scan under
Parameters A. One
D. none of above B. Two

C. Four
19. Cations include , and anions include
D. Five
A. + charged ions;-charged ions
B. -charged ions; +charged ions 25. What are signs and symptoms of Hypo-
glycemia
C. Na+ and K+; CL-and HCO3-
A. Confusion
D. + charged ions, NA+ & K+;-charged
ions, CL-and HCO3- B. Nausea
20. Which of the following would not be used C. Shakiness

for UTI’s? D. Increased urination
A. Septra
26. He is credited with the first experimen-
B. fluconazole tal application of mechanical ventilation, in
C. zyloprim 1543.
D. tetracycline A. Galileo Galilei
B. Andres Vesalio
21. What job of the kidneys does dialysis help
with? C. Leonardo di ser Piero Da Vinci
A. filtration and secretion D. Galen of Pergamum

27. Hyperphosphatemia is a major issue with 32. When do you consider acute kidney in-
renal failure that can be treated with jury?
what?
A. Decrease 0.5 mg creatinine (vs basal)
A. Tums or Increase 50% TFG
B. PhosLo
B. 0.5 mg creatinine increase (vs base-
C. Renagel line) or 50% GFR decrease
D. All are correct treatments C. TFG <10%
NARAYAN CHANGDER
28. Members on the Priority, Saver, Core and D. Serum creatinine >1 mg
Smart series that use a non-network facil-
ity will have a co-payment as the claims 33. Which treatment option provides the pa-
will pay at which percentage of the Net- tient with the most normal labwork
work rate?
A. Hemodialysis
A. 100%
B. 50% B. Peritoneal Dialysis
C. 70% C. Transplant
D. 80% D. none of above
29. What is considered to be the final stage of
34. Which part of the urinary system carries
renal disease?
waste for the kidneys to the bladder?
A. 2
A. Urethra
B. 3
C. 4 B. Ureters
D. 5 C. renal vein
30. Urinary urge incontinence can be caused or D. nephron

exacerbated by what?
35. Tubuloglomerular Feedback Mediator Sub-
A. sneezing
stance
B. coughing
A. Angiotensin II
C. infection or irritation
D. weight gain B. Nitric Oxide
C. adenosine
31. The following principle corresponds to the
proof of “The proof is based on the princi- D. Atrial Natriuretic Peptide
ple of the proof of Legal. Acetoacetic acid
and acetone react with sodium nitroprus- 36. Which of the following is NOT a loop di-
side and glycine in an alkaline medium to urectic?
form a violet colored complex.”
A. bumetanide
A. Ph
B. torsemide
B. Proteins
C. Glucose C. furosemide
D. ketone bodies D. spironolactone

1.8 Gastroenterology 93
37. What is the definition of urinalysis? B. hypotension

A. Study of the analytes in the body, ex- C. n/v and diarrhea

pulsion of toxins and diagnostic tool. D. hypertension
B. Discovery of kidney failure.
41. Serum creatine reference values for men
C. It is a profile or group of screening are:
tests with the ability to detect kidney dis-
ease. A. A:0.7 a 1.4
D. It is a screening test with the ability to B. B:0.7 a 2.0

diagnose a renal pathology C. C:0.6 a 1.1
D. D:0.7 a 1.2
38. Acute kidney injury classification
A. Pre-renal, Renal 42. What is an usual side effect of Pyridium (
phenazopyridine)
B. Pre-renal, Intrinseca, Post-renal
A. Orange or reddish urine
C. Renal, Post-renal
B. relief of urinary urgency and painful
D. Pre-renal, Post-renal
urination
39. They are characteristic crystals of acid C. Drowsiness
urine:
D. Thirst
A. Triple phosphates, amorphous urates
43. Omnis Embrace Pro control testing solu-
B. Uric acid, calcium oxalate, amorphous
tions are good for
urates
A. 30 days after opening or manufactur-
C. Amorphous phosphates, calcium car-
ers expiration
bonate
B. 60 days after opening or manufactur-
D. all of the above ers expiration
40. Which of the following is a possible side C. 90 days after opening or manufactur-
effect of ALL diuretics? ers expiration
A. Photosensitivity D. none of above
1.8 Gastroenterology
1. Bile is STORED in the ? B. Pancreas
A. Pancreas C. Liver
B. Liver D. Large intestine
C. Stomach
3. Muscular organ that churns and mashes
D. Gallbladder food into chyme
A. Saliva
2. The releases enzymes into the small
intestine. B. Tonuge
A. Esophagus C. Esophagus

1.8 Gastroenterology 94
D. Stomach B. Beta cell secrete insulin and promotes

movement of glucose into certain cells
4. What digestive enzyme that is found in the
stomach and begins the digestion of pro- C. alpha cell secrete glucagon and help
teins? your blood circulation
D. alpha cell secrete insulin and give you
A. Amylase
energy
B. Pepsin
10. Where are the α and β cells in the pan-
C. Lipase
NARAYAN CHANGDER
creas located?
D. Rennin A. Islets of Langerhans
5. Which enzymes does the pancreas pump B. Acini
out? (3 answers) C. Ducts
A. Amylase D. Hepatic cords
B. Protease
11. Which part of the small intestine joins the
C. Lipase large intestine?
D. Bile A. Ileum
6. This enzyme digests fats (lipids) B. Duodenum
A. Protease C. Jejunum
D. none of above
B. Carbohydrase
C. Lipase 12. Numerous fingerlike projections in the
folds of the wall of the ileum is classified
D. Bile
as
7. The produce the fluid that breaks down A. Bolus
food while still in the mouth. B. Chyme
A. Nutrients C. Bile
B. Liver D. Villi
C. Salivary Glands
13. The churns the food and produces acid
D. Gallbladder that helps in digestion.
8. What separates the esophagus from the A. Stomach
stomach? B. Liver
A. villi C. Pancreas
B. pyloric sphincter D. Nutrients
C. rugae 14. Parts of the small intestine after the duo-
D. cardiac sphincter denum is known as
A. Jejunum
9. what will happen when glucose concentra-
tion in your blood getting high? B. Lipase duodenum
A. Beta cell secrete glucagon and make C. Amylase duodenum
you high D. Lipase ileum

1.9 Neurology 95
15. Region where chyme enters the small in- C. Protects the stomach from digesting
testine is known as iteself

A. colon D. Absorbs nutrients from food so the
body has energy.
B. ileum
C. jejunum 19. Rhythmic muscular contractions that move
food along the GI tract
D. duodenum
A. heterotrophs
16. The is the muscular tube that leads to B. peristalsis
the mouth into the stomach.
C. nutrients
A. Large intestine
D. alimentary canal
B. Gallbladder
20. The absorbs most of the remaining wa-
C. Esophagus ter still in the food before it is released
D. Small intestine from the body as waste.
A. Liver
17. The food we eat passes through the ?
B. Large Intestine
A. Large intestine
C. Pancreas
B. Heart
D. Salivary Glands
C. Gallbladder
21. Bile is MADE in the ?
D. Small intestine
A. Pancreas
18. What does mucus do? B. Gallbladder
A. Digests food in the mouth. C. Esophagus
B. Digests food in the stomach D. Liver
1.9 Neurology
1. Gyrus supramarginalis belons to: 3. The weight of the brain of an average
adult male human is approximately
A. parietal lobe
A. 2 1/2 pounds.
B. occipital lobe
B. 3 pounds.
C. temporal lobe
C. 2 3/4 pounds.
D. frontal lobe
D. 3 3/4 pounds.
2. Which word means back?
4. Destruction of the myelin sheath of neu-
A. Lateral rons of the CNS
B. Medial A. Parkinson’s
C. Anterior B. Myesthenia Gravis
D. Posterior C. Multiple Sclerosis

1.9 Neurology 96
D. Cerebrovascular Accident 10. If someone with TBI has memory diffi-

culties, which of the following strategies
5. Which word means underside, belly, or would NOT be helpful?
bottom?
A. Lateral A. Teach them to chunk information
B. Medial B. Give oral and written instructions

C. Ventral C. Put employees in a time-out zone until
D. Dorsal they memorise the material
NARAYAN CHANGDER
6. Label the functional parts of the brain. D. Provide visual cues and prompts
A. pons 11. A penetrating brain injury is defined by

B. hypothalamus
A. A depressed skull fracture
C. medulla oblongata
B. Increased intracranial pressure
D. cerebrum
C. Foreign matter disrupting the dura
E. corpus callosum
F. cerebellum D. A linear skull fracture
G. thalamus
12. Which nerve cell forms the Blood-brain
7. Which is NOT a symptom of acute head in- barrier?
jury? A. Astrocyte
A. racoon eyes
B. Ependymal Cells
B. vision problems
C. Glial cells
C. nausea and vomiting
D. rash D. Oligodendrocytes
8. Chronic psychiatric disorder characterized 13. years old man admitted to the hospital.
by disturbed thinking and disorganized CT scanning revealed Blockage of Sylvian
speech. (cerebral) aquaduct . wich changes you are
A. Alzheimer’s able to distinguish:
B. Autism A. enlarged lateral ventricles
C. Schizophrenia B. expanded third ventricle
D. Bipolar Disorder C. expanded fourth and third ventricle
9. A secondary brain injury is? D. expanded lateral and third ventricles
A. direct damage that occurs before the
primary insult 14. Disoriented and dementia is a symptom of
B. indirect damage to brain tissue that oc- which syndrome?
curs after the primary insult A. Cerebral syndrome
C. direct damage to brain tissue that oc- B. Cerebellar syndrome
curs after the primary insult
C. Brainstem syndrome
D. indirect damage that happens before
the primary insult D. Vestibular syndrome

1.9 Neurology 97
15. Here are the correct options B. Cerebellum

A. The central nervous system consists of C. Brainstem

the brain and spinal cord
D. Vestibular
B. The CNS consists of the spinal nerves
and cranial nerves 20. the following options are correct
C. The peripheral nervous system con- A. The diencephalon consists of the thala-
sists of somatic and autonomic mus and hypothalamus
D. The somatic nervous system consists B. The hypothalamus processes tempera-
of afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) ture, glucose levels and various hormone
E. The autonomic system consists of the levels
sympathetic and parasympathetic
C. The thalamus processes temperature,
16. Sensory facial sensation via CN5, how glucose levels and various hormone levels
much sensation is the concave of the ear D. The cerebellum is responsible for
perceived via CN5? maintaining balance
A. 4 E. The brainstem is responsible for main-
B. 6 taining balance
C. 7
21. Monotonous speech occcurs in
D. 8
A. Bulbar palsy
17. Acute pain is B. Parkinsonism
A. had it for a long time C. Cerebellar dysarthria
B. a wee cut
D. Multiple Sclerosis
C. deep tissue
D. at the site of injury 22. A-45-yeras old female presenting with
sustained left sided turning of head. She
18. When communicating with someone post have H/O of vomiting and GP presccribed
TBI, which of the following should you NOT metoclopramide.
do? A. Athetosis
A. Be patient and give the person time to
B. Dyskinesia
respond
C. Astrixix
B. Talk to the person in a quiet environ-
ment D. Physiological Tremor
C. Repeat back what you think the person
has said and ask if this is correct 23. Fixed dilated pupils are a sign of
D. Talk to them over the phone rather A. severe brain injury and imminent
than face-to-face death
B. mild brain injury
19. Which brain lesions are responsible for
tremor and dysmetria? C. coma
A. Cerebrum D. normal reaction

1.9 Neurology 98
24. Nerves are made up of cells called 30. A cushings triad includes (pick all 3 that
A. axons apply)
B. dendrites A. raised BP
C. synapses B. slower heart rate
D. neurons C. reduced respiratory rate
25. Which type of fluid is produced in the ven- D. lower blood pressure
tricles?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Aqueous Humor 31. Which of these are common problems that
B. Vitreous Humor people with TBI may face?
C. Peritoneal Fluid A. Physical limitations

D. Cerebrospinal fluid B. Visual problems
26. Which of the following are the membranes C. Fatigue
that surround and protect the brain and
D. All of the above
spinal cord?
A. Meninges 32. Select all the functions of the cerebrum.
B. Pericardial membranes
A. Interprets input from the senses
C. Pleural membranes
B. Regulates involuntary muscle activity.
D. Peritoneal membranes
C. Carries out complex mental processes,
27. The cerebrum is divided into lobes. such as learning, remembering, and mak-
A. 6 ing judgments
B. 3 D. Controls the movement of the skeletal
C. 4 muscles
D. 2
33. What is the function of the oligodendro-
28. Which word means topside or back? cytes?
A. Lateral A. Maintain and produce CSF.
B. Medial B. Phagocytize bacteria and cell debris
C. Ventral
C. formation of myelin for CNS
D. Dorsal
D. formation of myelin for PNS
29. Which of the following is a tip for employ-
ers when talking to someone with a brain 34. which is a risk factor for dementia? (tick
injury? all that apply)
A. Speak fast A. Age
B. Try to finish their sentences
B. depression
C. Ask one question at a time
C. hearing impariment
D. Pretend to understand what they are
saying D. eating blue smarties

1.9 Neurology 99
35. Patient of 6th month. enlarged skull easy 40. A brain disorder marked by gradual and
to distinguish. CT scan reveals expanded progressive mental deterioration, person-
ventricullar system. Your opinion: ality changes, and impairment of function.

A. There is disbalance between produc- A. Multiple Sclerosis
tion and absorbtion B. Alzheimer’s
B. There is blockage caused by C. Cerebral Palsy
hematoma in third ventricle
D. Meningitis
C. blockage between two lateral ventri-
cles 41. A pateint presenting with motor rest-
D. Clnical picture reveals normal produc- lessness with constant semi-purpose full
tion of CSF but absorbtion supposed to be movements of lower legs called as
increased A. Astrixix
36. There are thoracic vertabrae B. Akathisia
A. 4 C. Chorea
B. 5 D. Hemiblassimus
C. 7 42. Each neuron contains one long trunk called
D. 12 a(n)
A. dendrite
37. Hyperreflexia of knee jerk but hyper-
reflexia of flexor is the location of the le- B. synapse
sion in which spinal segment C. brain stem
A. too much D. axon
B. rumble
43. chronic pain is caused by (chose 2 correct
C. for 4 lt answers)
D. Lhasa A. chronic tissue inflammation
38. The two main types of delirium are B. infection
A. hypertype and subtype C. alteration of properties of the periph-
eral nerves
B. too far up and too far down
D. acute injury
C. hyperactive and hypoactive
D. hypoglycaemic and hyperglycaemic 44. Persistent pain that is caused by damage
to nerve fibres, leading to increased spon-
39. A 6-year-old child with cerebral palsy, in- taneous firing or alteration in conduction
ability to walk, and spasticity of both or neurotransmitter properties is (tick all
limbs, which is the correct care? that apply)
A. throw the ball A. referred
B. play with toys that make sounds B. somatic
C. Do physical limbs every day. C. chronic
D. Practice daily routines by yourself. D. neuropathic

1.9 Neurology 100
45. Which of the following is not a lobe of the B. atrium

brain?
C. cerebellum
A. Frontal lobe
D. brain stem
B. Parietal Lobe
C. Ventral Lobe 51. Select the functions of the cerebellum.
D. Temporal Lobe A. Coordinates voluntary muscle action
B. Hearing
NARAYAN CHANGDER
46. Which of the following is not a postural
reaction? C. Balance
A. Hopping D. Vision
B. Placing
52. Semipermiable endothelial membrane,
C. Perineal wich lines microvasculature of brain, sep-
D. Proprioception arating blood from cerebrospinal fluid
. Restricts the passage of pathogens
47. A-60-years old male konwn case of Pakin- ; diffusion of solutes in the blood, hy-
sons Disease presenting with continous drophilic molecules into the cerebrospinal
purposeless of lips and mouth. fluid while allowing the diffusion of hy-
A. Tics drophobic molecules (O2, CO2, hormones)
B. Athetosis and small molecules
C. Dystonia A. CSF
D. Dyskinesia B. Arachnoid granullations
48. Small, spastic tongue and difficulty pro- C. Blood brain bareer
nouncing consonants and is often accompa- D. none of them
nied by a positive jaw jerk and emotional
lability. known as 53. The UMN sign hind leg and LMN sign four
A. Bulbar Palsy paretic anterior legs identify which spinal
segment lesion.
B. Psuedobulbar Palsy
A. C1C5
C. Bells palsy
B. too much
D. No Palsy
C. rumble
49. What are the three components of tissue
within the skull D. For 4 hours
A. brain tissue 54. Which part of the brain coordinates skele-
B. blood tal muscle activity to maintain posture and
balance?
C. memories
D. cerebrospinal fluid A. Pons
B. Medulla Oblongata
50. The coordinates movement and bal-
ance. C. Cerebellum
A. cerebrum D. Brainstem

1.9 Neurology 101
55. 2-year-old child Chills V/S BT=38.1 C, C. Brainstem

PR=60 beats/min, while blood pressure D. Vestibular
was measured. Children with spasticity,

drooling, what is the first nursing care? 61. Panniculus (cutaneous trunci) reflex is a
A. Have them lie down and suck the test for T3L3 lesion where cutaneous
phlegm. trunci nerves emerge from which spinal
cord?
B. arrange to lie still and provide oxygen
A. as a joke
C. Watch for seizures. and doctor report
B. C8T1
D. Have them lie down on their side and
watch for seizures. C. T1T
D. cut off
56. clinical features of raised ICP include (pick
which answers apply)? 62. What are the two types of traumatic brain
A. headache injury types?
B. nausea and vomiting A. blast and concussion
C. seizures B. diffuse and focal
D. sluggish pupil C. subarachnoid and haematoma
D. intracerbral and penetrating
57. which is NOT a lobe of the brain?
A. frontal 63. The name given to vascular multi-infarct
dementia that stays still for a while and
B. parietal
then suddenly gets worse is called?
C. temporal
A. step over there
D. anterior
B. step on
58. The controls our thinking and emo- C. stepup
tions.
D. stepwise
A. cerebrum
64. Through wich opening CSF can leave the
B. cerebellum
fourth ventricle and enter subarachnoidal
C. brain stem space?
D. atrium A. Foramen magnum
59. Autonomic Nervous System controls: B. Monro foramen
A. Skeletal muscle, bones, skin C. Central canal
B. muscles of glands and internal organs D. Magendie aperture
C. Pain detection of internal organs 65. an acute confusional state which is com-
D. Pain detection of skin and muscles monly seen in the elderly is?
60. Narrow circle circling is a symptom of a le- A. delirium

sion at which location? B. distress
A. Cerebrum C. distemper
B. Cerebellum D. depression

1.9 Neurology 102
66. Repetitive irreversible movements which 72. What type of injury often results from
purposeful or semi purposeful are called blunt force trauma?
A. Dystonia A. Coup or coup-contra-coup
B. Chorea B. Epidural haematoma
C. Dyskinesia C. Penetrating injury
D. Tics D. Subarachnoid haemorrhage
73. Cortical auditory area is localized in the:
NARAYAN CHANGDER
67. Which functional region of the brain is
responsible for regulating blood pressure A. temporal gyrus
and body temperature? B. central sulcus
A. Hypothalmus C. occipital lobe
B. Thalamus D. frontal gyrus
C. Pons 74. Separate the pale septum:
D. Ventricles A. 1st and 2nd ventricle
68. How many interneurons is the brain of? B. third ventricle from 1st and 2nd
A. 100 interneurons C. third ventricle from fourth
B. 10 billion interneurons D. fourth ventricle from lateral apertures
C. 100 billion interneurons 75. The brain is very , and because of this,
it needs 2-3 times more oxygen than any
D. 100 million interneurons
other part of the human body.
69. tremores occurs during relaxation of mu- A. wrinkly
cles called as B. big
A. Resting Tremor C. wet
B. Physiological Tremor D. vascular
C. Astrixix E. gray
D. Intention tremor 76. Some of the areas that may be signifi-
70. A false or unreal sense perception. cantly affected post TBI include:
A. Amnesia A. Memory difficulties

B. Organisation problems
B. Delusion
C. Difficulty comprehending language
C. Hallucination
D. All of the above
D. Autism
77. Which part of the brain serves as a re-
71. Abducens nerve is the cranial nerve that lay station for information entering the
arises from which part of the brainstem? brain?
A. Diencephalon A. Thalamus
B. Mesencephalon B. Hypothalamus
C. Rostral medulla oblongata C. Hypocretins
D. Caudal medulla oblongata D. Orexins

1.9 Neurology 103
78. *Glasgow Coma Scale assess the 84. The controls our heartbeat and breath-
A. content of consciousness ing.

B. State of consciousness A. cerebrum
C. Coma B. spinal cord
D. Confusion C. brain stem
79. The parietal lobe is linked to which cogni- D. atrium
tive functions?
A. sensory and spatial perception and 85. Which of the following is NOT part of the
comprehension brain?
B. vision and visual perception A. cerebrum
C. planning, thinking, behaviour and per- B. atrium
sonality
C. cerebellum
D. long term memory, auditory, percep-
tion, face and object recognition D. brain stem
80. Degeneration of neurons leading to 86. following statement is true

tremors, weakness and slow movement.
A. N1 is the olfactory nerve for smell sen-
A. Multiple sclerosis sation N2 is the opticus of the eye
B. Alzheimer’s
B. N3 is oculomotor, N4 is trochlear, N6
C. Parkinson’s Disease is abducens
D. Cerebral palsy C. N5 is trigeminal, N7 is facial and N8 is
81. Loss of memory is called: auditory
A. Amnesia D. N9 is hypoglosus N10 is vagus and N11
is accessory N12 Hypoglosus (can tell cen-
B. Delusion
tral or peripheral)
C. Hallucination
D. Autism 87. Which part of the brain is responsible for
head tilt and nystagmus?
82. Somatic motor impulses are responsible
for: A. Cerebrum
A. pain detection of different body parts B. Cerebellum
B. voluntary movements of body C. Brainstem
C. voluntary movements of viscera D. Vestibular
D. pain detection of viscera
88. What is circle of willis?
83. Which word means towards the midline?
A. Blood supply of brain
A. Lateral
B. Medial B. Nerve bundle
C. Ventral C. Both of the above

D. Posterior D. None of the above

1.9 Neurology 104
89. Keep the awake is function of, C. Neurotransmitters

A. Cerebral Cortex D. Nerve Cells
B. Thalamus 95. Lumbar Puncture must be provided at the
C. Ascending reticular activating system level:
D. Cerebellum A. Th10-Th12
90. Which of the following should you as an B. L1-L3

employer do when your employee has had
NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. L2-L4
a brain injury? D. L5-S1
A. Listen
96. Individual nerve cells are called:
B. Create a return-to-work plan
A. Nephrons
C. Be flexible
B. Neurons
D. All of the above
C. Basophils
91. Fast tremor is if more than D. Alveoli
A. 7 Hz
97. Which type of cells produce Cerebrospinal
B. 8 Hz Fluid?
C. 9 Hz A. Ependymal Cells
D. 10 Hz B. Astrocytes
92. Which part of the brain is responsible for C. Glial Cells
balance and coordination and is called the D. Microglial cells
“mini brain”?
A. Thalamus 98. Sensory nerves are also known as (a) the
brain.
B. Cerebellum
A. afferent
C. Hypothalamus
B. towards
D. Hippocampus
C. efferent
93. Dysarthria is characterised by deficits in: D. away from
A. The motor planning and programming
of speech 99. carotid bruits can be assessed by placing
the stethoscope bell gently over ;
B. The use of language in context
A. Neck
C. The execution and control of speech
movements B. Eye
D. Impairment in language comprehen- C. Apices of Lungs

sion and/or production D. Precorduim
94. Acetylcholine and dopamine are examples 100. Decerebrate posturing is where the arms
of: make a shape
A. Endorphins A. c
B. Androgens B. e

1.9 Neurology 105
C. f 106. Which of the following is NOT one of the

D. d factors that determine the type of TBI?

A. Genetic variations
101. The spinal cord consists of (select all that
apply) B. Nature of the external force
A. nerves C. Motivation of the client
B. meninges D. Strength of the force
C. brain stem 107. Which of the following is the medical
D. bones (vertebrae) term for stroke?
E. spongy matter (disks) A. Cerebrovascular Accident
102. The reduction in the number of words B. Myocardial Infarction
used and non-fluent speech with errors of C. Alzheimer’s
grammar and syntax. Described as D. Syncipal episode
A. Motor Aphasis
108. The sensation of pain test measures what
B. Sensory Aphasia
outcome?
C. Globla Aphasis
A. severity of lesion
D. Conduction Dyspahasia
B. type of lesion
103. *When language areas in the dominant C. improvement of sing
hemisphere are damaged and disturbance
of understanding and/or expression of D. none of above
words are affected. this condition known 109. neurons communicate with one another
as at junctions called a
A. Dysarthria. A. synapse
B. Dysphonia.
B. ion
C. Dysphasias
C. molecule
D. dysphagia
D. channel
104. Which of the following tests has a tract
that runs through the cerebellum? 110. Which two foraminas in the fourth ven-
tricle open into cerebellopontine cistern?
A. Pupillary light reflex
A. Lateral apertures of Luschka
B. Corneal reflex
B. Magendie
C. Oculocephalic reflex
C. sylvian
D. Swallowing reflex
D. none of them
105. One or more manic episodes alternating
with depressive episodes. 111. Which is NOT a type of seizure?
A. Schizophrenia A. tonic
B. Bipolar Disorder B. myoclonic
C. Autism C. abscence
D. PTSD D. cerebral

1.9 Neurology 106
112. A moderate GCS score is 118. In which spinal cord tract is the axon the
A. GCS 14-15 smallest and deepest?
A. Proprioceptive pathway
B. GCS 9-13
B. Voluntary motor pathway
C. GCS 3-8
C. Superficial pain pathway
D. GCS 5-10
D. Deep pain pathway
113. The development of symptoms following 119. AAC can be which of the following?
NARAYAN CHANGDER
exposure to a traumatic event.
A. Aided or unaided
A. Bipolar Disorder
B. High tech or low tech
B. Schizophrenia
C. Used to support speech
C. Autism D. All of the above
D. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
120. Neurotransmitters are essential for:
114. Select the 4 lobes of the cerebrum. A. The speed of our nervous system
A. Temporal B. Forming the blood-brain barrier
B. Cortex C. Keeping our nerve tracts in line
C. Parietal D. Carrying a nerve impulse across a
synapse
D. Frontal
121. Communication site of CSF with venous
E. Occipital
blood ( exchange of waste products)
115. causes of delirium include A. Arachnoid villus
A. urine infection B. Choroid phlexus
B. constipation C. Ependimal cells
C. hypoxia D. Arachnoid granullations
D. baileys 122. A group of childhood disorders character-

ized by delays in the development of so-
116. A bleed within the brain tissue is? cialization and communication skills.
A. migraine A. Autism
B. intracerebral haematoma B. Schizophrenia
C. subarachnoid haematoma C. Bipolar Disorder
D. pulmonary embolism D. ADHD
123. The receives and relays information
117. Which neuroglia is maintains water and
from the face, ears, eyes, nose, and
salt balance to the neurons?
tongue.
A. Ependymal cells A. cerebrum
B. Astrocytes B. cerebellum
C. Oligodendrocytes C. spinal cord
D. Microglia D. brain stem

1.9 Neurology 107
124. The UMN sign of the hind and fore- 129. Which word means front?
limbs and four-legged paralysis can iden- A. Lateral
tify which spinal segment the lesion is lo-

cated. B. Medial
A. C1C5 C. Anterior
D. Posterior
B. too much
C. rumble 130. which of the following is NOT a red flag
for spinal cord injury? ? ? ?
D. L4S2
A. extreme back pain
125. A 14 yeras old female with H/O B. lower back pain
sorethroat and joint presenting with jerky
small rapid movements of whole body. CT C. loss of bladder control
and MRI brain normal D. numbness and tingling in hands or feet
A. Athetosis 131. Which word means away from the mid-
B. Chorea line?
C. Hemiballismus A. Lateral
D. Physiological tremor B. Medial

C. Dorsal
126. One of the first presenting symptoms of
D. Posterior
Alzheimers is?
A. long term memory loss 132. The space between two neurons over
which chemical messages are passed is
B. short term memory loss called the
C. incontinence A. brain stem
D. shortness of breath B. dendrite
127. A fixed, false belief that cannot be C. axon
changed by reasoning or evidence. D. synapse
A. Anemia 133. Acute mental illness includes
B. Delusion A. depression
C. Hallucination B. panic disorder
D. PTSD C. PTSD
128. Symptoms of delirium include (tick all D. eating disorders

that apply) 134. The body receives information from the
A. acute behaviour change environment through the
B. fluctuating symptoms A. sensory nerves
C. easily distracted B. motor nerves
D. unable to speak clearly or follow a con- C. spinal cord

versation D. synapse

1.10 Dermatology 108
135. A carries instructions to the muscles C. An increased appetite

from the spinal cord.
D. None of the above
A. motor nerve
B. sensory nerve 137. Decorticate posturing is where the arms
make a shape?
C. dendrite
D. cerebellum A. C
136. Many people with TBI report: B. E
NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Reduced social contact and loneliness C. D
B. An increase in participation in society D. T
1.10 Dermatology
1. What are some things you can do to pre- 4. Which term describes large spots of haem-
vent yourself from getting skin cancer? orrhage?
A. Go to tanning salons every weekend. A. Ulcers
B. Wear Sunscreen when it’s sunny, Eat B. Petechiae
Healthy, and Use Moisturizer. C. Purpura
C. Sit inside all day. D. Pustules
D. Don’t take your makeup off. 5. Which of the following is an example of
doctors who collaborate with dermatolo-
2. A scientist who applies of scientific princi- gists?
ples and techniques to matters of criminal A. Eye doctors.
justice especially as relating to the collec-
tion, examination, and analysis of physical B. Radiologists.
evidence C. Cardiologists.
A. Dermatopathologist D. Neurologists
B. Dermatologist 6. For which ONE of the following clinical con-
ditions would a hair pluck be the most suit-
C. Cosmetic Chemist
able sample for confirming a diagnosis?
D. Forensic Scientist
A. Otitis externa
E. Plastic Surgeon B. Allergy
3. A woman with high fever, chills, rash with C. Trauma
edema, swelling and pain in the legs suf- D. Dermatophytosis
fers from:
7. Chatting
A. herpes
A. angry
B. Rose B. chatting
C. Folliculitis C. noisy
D. Impetigo D. none of above

8. Which is NOT a sign of a aspergillosis in- B. dental, pediatric, surgical, and critical
fection?
C. dental, anatomic, surgical, cardiologi-

A. Depigmentation of the nose cal
B. Pustules D. medical, cosmetic, surgical, and der-
C. nasal discharge matopathology
D. epistaxis 14. Skin lesion
9. What are the most common symptoms of A. Wounds on the legs
lupus? B. Wounds on the body
A. fatigue, joint pain, and rashes C. Skin lesions
B. loss of vision D. none of above
C. loss of hearing
15. Bleeding
D. itchiness, swelling, and inflammation
A. Tumors
10. Scratch
B. Bleeding
A. Garugaru
C. Coldness
B. Rub it
D. none of above
C. Palupal
D. none of above 16. Enhances one’s physical appearance using
cosmetic products.
11. Cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopa-
A. Cosmetologist / Esthetician
thy is more commonly known as what?
B. Dermatologist
A. Alabama Rot
C. Cosmetic Chemist
B. Ringworm
C. Aspergillosis infections D. Forensic Scientist
D. Flea infestation E. Plastic Surgeon
12. Uses hair, fingerprints, skin cells, and tis- 17. Zovirax is a drug for the treatment of
sue under nails from crime scene to run A. Dermophytes
tests
B. Candida
A. Dermatopathologist
C. herpes
B. Dermatologist
D. worms
C. Cosmetic Chemist
D. Forensic Scientist 18. Which of the following diseases is not
caused by a fungus?
E. Plastic Surgeon
A. Veruca Plana
13. What are the four main branches of der-
B. Candida
matology?
C. Tinea versicolor
A. surgical, dermatopathology, geology,
astrology D. ringworm

19. What is lupus? 25. Blood vessels are not found in

A. a condition that results in red lines in A. epidermis
scratched areas B. Dermis
B. a condition where skin follicles are C. Hypodermis
clogged with dead skin cells and oil
D. All the answers are correct
C. an inflammatory disease where the im-
mune system aggresses against its own 26. Where are the sweat glands or sebaceous
tissues
NARAYAN CHANGDER
glands located?
D. a condition where there exists a can- A. Dermis
cerous skin cell on the skin
B. Muscle
20. Rest C. Hypodermis
A. sleep D. Epidermis
B. relax
27. What percent of the population deals with
C. sleepy dermatographia?
D. none of above A. 100%
21. The papillary layer and the reticular layer B. 9-10%
are found in C. 2-5%
A. epidermis D. 19.5-21%
B. Dermis
28. Which of the following is NOT a skill
C. Hypodermis
needed by dermatologists?
D. Forms part of the stratum corneum
A. Patience
22. Blistering B. Compassion
A. Lame C. Singing
B. Abraded D. Gentleness
C. Meracas
29. State an example of a disease related to
D. none of above dermatology that requires medical imag-
23. Discharge ing.
A. Terair A. Skin cancer
B. Juicy B. Brain cancer
C. Liquid C. Osteoporosis
D. none of above D. none of above
24. Seafood 30. Prawns and Cats

A. Food A. Sotong dan harimau
B. Eat and drink B. Udang dan kucing
C. Seafood C. Ikan dan udang
D. none of above D. none of above

31. Cannot stand itch 37. Highly trained physician who specializes
A. Sangat gatal in diagnosing disorders of the skin under
a microscope the focus is microscopic

B. Tak tahan gatal evaluation of the skin, hair, and nails.
C. Tak gatal A. Dermatopathologist
D. none of above B. Dermatologist
32. Animal’s fur C. Cosmetic Chemist
A. Animal fur D. Forensic Scientist
B. Dog fur E. Plastic Surgeon
C. Cat’s fur 38. How long does acne usually last for?
D. none of above A. your whole life
33. Allergy B. five to ten years
A. Alas C. twelve to sixteen years
B. Tool D. zero to one year
C. Alam 39. A physician who uses surgery to physically

D. none of above reconstruct a person’s integumentary sys-
tem.
34. The dermatologist takes care of: A. Dermatopathologist
A. Lungs B. Dermatologist
B. Bones C. Cosmetic Chemist
C. Skin D. Forensic Scientist
D. Liver E. Plastic Surgeon
35. A physician who treats a variety of condi- 40. Cuts hair, pedicures, manicures, facials,
tions related to skin, hair, and nails. etc.
A. Dermatopathologist A. Cosmetologist / Esthetician
B. Dermatologist B. Dermatologist
C. Cosmetic Chemist C. Cosmetic Chemist
D. Forensic Scientist D. Forensic Scientist
E. Plastic Surgeon E. Plastic Surgeon
36. Choose an example of a dermatological dis- 41. If you took a FNA from a pustules, you are
ease treated by dermatologists. likely to find?
A. Ichthyosis A. inflammatory cells
B. Heart disease B. muscus
C. Brain deformity C. pus
D. Breast cancer D. sweat

42. May specialize in skin grafting, facial re- D. both, they do internal or external
construction, liposuction, botox, face lifts, based on the patient
etc.
48. A scientist who develops and formulates
A. Dermatopathologist
skin care, personal care and color for man-
B. Dermatologist ufacturers.
C. Cosmetic Chemist A. Dermatopathologist
D. Forensic Scientist
B. Dermatologist
NARAYAN CHANGDER
E. Plastic Surgeon
C. Cosmetic Chemist
43. how many layers does the skin have? D. Forensic Scientist
A. 2
E. Plastic Surgeon
B. 4
C. 5 49. Wipe body
D. 3 A. Wipe the back of the body

B. Wipe hand
44. Chinese doctor and village doctor
A. Sinseh dan bomoh C. Wipe body
B. Bomoh dan sinseh D. none of above

C. Pawang dan bomoh 50. The most common cause of canine pyo-
D. none of above derma?
45. Formulates shampoos, conditioners, A. E.coli

makeup, lotions, perfumes B. Staphylococcus intermedius
A. Dermatopathologist C. Mites
B. Dermatologist D. Demodex
C. Cosmetic Chemist
D. Forensic Scientist 51. Calluses are most commonly found
where?
E. Plastic Surgeon
A. Bottom of foot pads
46. Very painful and itchy
B. On the lateral aspect of elbows
A. Sangat gatal dan sakit
C. Around the mouth
B. Sangat sakit dan gatal
D. On the medial aspect of elbows
C. Sangat sengal dan gatal
D. none of above 52. Which of the following is NOT a body part
dermatologists treat?
47. Do dermatologists do internal or external
treatment? A. Nails
A. internal B. Hair
B. external C. Brain
C. neither, they do midternal treatment D. Skin

53. Zoophilic fungi are fungi transmitted from 54. Rash

A. Animals for humans A. Stupid

B. person to person B. Itching
C. land for man C. Red, white and black spots
D. Plants for man D. none of above

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